PSMB - Pink Pacop Mod4 6

BIOPHARMACEUTICS (PACOP BLUE)
1. Passive diffusion of a drug molecule across a cell membrane depends on the

I. Lipid solubility of the drug
II. Extent of ionization of the drug
III. Concentration difference on either side of the cell membrane
a. I only d. II and III
b. III only e. I, II and III
c. I and II
2. The rate of dissolution of a weakly acidic drug may be increased by

I. Increasing the pH of the medium
II. Increasing the particle size of the solid drug
III. Increasing the viscosity of the medium
c. I and II
3. The initial degradation of drug by liver enzymes after oral administration of a drug is
known:
a. Enzymatic degradation d. Fick’s degradation
b. First pass metabolism e. absolute bioavailability
c. Relative bioavailability
4. Which of the following parameters can evaluate bio equivalency of drugs?

I. Time to reach peak concentration
II. AUC
III. Concentration of drug at plateau level
a. I only d. II only
b. I and II only e. I,II and III
c. II and III only
5. The following statements are not true except:

a. Amorphous form is more soluble than crystallized form d. hydrates are equivalent to
solvates
b. Hydrous form is more soluble then anhydrous e. none of the above
c. Polymorph is more soluble then enantiomorph
6. A measure of the quantity of drug in the body:

a. Vd d. Ko/w
b. AUC e. t1/2
c. pH
7. Study of what the body does to the drug:

a. Biopharmaceutics d. pharmacology
b. Pharmacokinetics e. pharmaceutics
c. Pharmacodynamics
8. Two different oral formulations of the same drug having equal areas under respective
serum-concentration time curves
a. Deliver the same total amount of drug d. are bioequivalent if they both
meet
to the body and are, therefore bioequivalent USP disintegration standards
b. Deliver the same total amount of drug e. are therapeutically equivalent
in the body but are not necessarily bioequivalent
c. Are bioequivalent by definition
9. Gastric emptying rate is slowed down by all of the ff. except:

a. Vigorous exercise d. hunger
b. Fatty foods e. lying on the left side
c. Hot meals
10. An absorption mechanism for Sabin pollo vaccine:

a. Passive diffusion d. convective transport
b. Ion-pair transport e. vesicular
c. Active transport
11. Drug products that contain the identical therapeutic moiety, the same dosage form with
the same strength and administered by the same route:
a. Pharmaceutical equivalents d. frequency
b. Bioequivalents e. Half-life
c. Pharmaceutical alternatives
12. A drug given intravenously results in an identical therapeutic moiety, the same dosage
form with the same strength and administered by the same route:
a. 50% d. 30%
b. 20% e. 60%
c. 100%
13. The time required to reach the minimum effective drug concentration in the blood is
known as:
a. Duration of action d. Frequency
b. Onset of action e. Half-life
c. Intensity of action
14. The phenomenon where a drug could exist in more than one crystal form
a. Thixothropy d. complexation
b. Polymorphism e. amorphism
c. Solvate formation
15. The following is true about the ko/w of β-estradiol:

a. Decreases being a nonpolar drug d. increases being a polar drug
b. Decreases being a polar drug e. decreases being a neutral
substance
c. Increases being a nonpolar drug
16. Drugs can be administered by IM route except:

a. When the drug cannot be administered IV d. for prolonged formulation
b. For drugs with high solubility e. for hydrophilic drugs
c. When rapid rate of absorption is desired
17. Indication for IV rout

a. Blood transfusion d. for kidney dialysis
b. For self-medication e. for peritoneal administration
c. For administration of small volumes in tissues
18. Best route for liquefying thick empyemas

a. IV d. inhalation
b. Intrapleural e. intrathecal
c. IM
19. The following promotes better absorption except:

a. Longer residence time in the small intestine d. decreased peristalsis
b. Longer residence time in the stomach e. enhance propulsive contractions
c. Mixing movements
20. True about pharmaceutical equivalents

I. Same active ingredient
II. Same dosage form
III. Same dosage strength
c. I and II
21. The following best describes the effect of propantheline on the absorption of
paracetamol:
a. Delayed GER d. increased intestinal transit
b. Increased GER decreased acid secretion
c. Enhanced absorption
22. Describes diffusion of drug solutions across biological membranes

a. Henderson-Hasselbach d. ideal Gas Law
b. Fick’s Law e. pH partition theory
c. Noyes-Whitney Equation
23. Which of the following is/are considered carrier-mediated transport process/es?
I. Facilitated diffusion
II. Active transport
III. Passive diffusion
a. I only d. I and III only
b. I and II only e. I, II and III only
c. II and III only
24. True for all drug products administered by all routes except IV:
a. Absorption d. excretion
b. Liberation e. toxic kinetics
c. Metabolism
25. Describes the relationship between dissolution rate and drug particle surface area
a. Henderson-Hasselbach d. ideal Gas Law
b. Fick’s Law e. pH partition theory
c. Noyes-Whitney Equation
26. Route of drug administration where hepatic metabolism is completely by passed:

a. Buccal d. rectal
b. Sublingual e. both A&B
c. Topical
27. Non-linear pharmacokinetics:

I. First order kinetics
II. Michaelis-Menten kinetics
III. Enzyme kinetics
IV. Saturation kinetics
a. I only d. II, III and IV only
b. I and IV only e. all of the above
c. II and III only
28. These are drugs that primarily undergo Phase II metabolism:

I. Phenols
II. Barbiturates
III. Corticosteroids
IV. Sulfonamides
a. I only d. II, III and IV only
b. I and IV only e. all of the above
c. II and III only
29. This is the route of administration employed for chemotherapeutic drugs in order to
maximize drug concentrations at the tumor site before distribution occurs throughout the
body.
a. Intravenous d. intracardiac
b. Intramuscular
c. Intraarterial
30. The maximum dose of drug that can be administered subcutaneously is:
a. 0.5 ml d. 2.0 ml
b. 1.0 ml
c. 1.5 ml
31. This type of membrane allows the passage of lipophilic drugs only:
I. Blood capillaries
II. Blood-brain barrier
III. Renal glomerular membrane
IV. Renal tubule
a. II and IV only d. I, II and III only
b. II and III only
c. II only
32. This is the only transport process that does not require a drug to be in aqeous solution to
be adsorbed:
a. Passive diffusion d. carrier-mediated transport
b. Convective transport e. Vesicular Transport
c. Ion-pair formation
33. The following factors increase gastric emptying thereby increases absorption of most
drugs:
I. Intake of warm food instead of cold food
II. Lying on the left side
III. Exercise
IV. Stress
a. I only d. II and III only
b. I and III only e. II, III and IV
c. I and IV only
34. The following statements about drug absorption are true:

I. In order to maximize drug absorption, the drug needs to be highly
soluble.
II. In order to maximize drug absorption, the drug needs to be in the
unionized form.
III. In order to maximize drug available for absorption, the drug needs to
be highly soluble.
IV. In order to maximize drug available for absorption, the drug needs to
be in the unionized.
a. I and III d. II and III
b. II and IV e. I only
c. I and IV
35. In general, the salt form of weak acids and weak bases:
I. Faster dissolution and faster absorption
II. Longer duration of action
III. Greater stability
IV. Less local irritation and less systemic toxicity
a. I, III and IV d. II, III and IV
b. I, II and III e. AOTA
c. I, II and IV
36. For conventional oral dosage forms, this is the slowest and rate-limiting step in the
series of processes of drug absorption:
a. Liberation d. Diffusion
b. Disintegration
c. Dissolution
37. The following pathological factors decrease drug absorption:

I. Diarrhea
II. Constipation
III. Parkinson’s Disease
IV. Hyperthyroidism
a. III and IV d. II only
b. II, III and IV e. I only
c. II and IV only
38. Pharmaceutically equivalent drugs should have similar

I. Active chemical ingredient
II. Dosage strength of active chemical ingredient
III. Dosage form
IV. Intensity and duration of action
V. Therapeutic effect
a. II, IV, and V d. AOTA
b. I, II and III e. NOTA
c. I, II, III and V
39. Therapeutically equivalent drugs should have similar:

III. Dosage form
c. I, II, III and V
40. Pharmaceutical alternatives drugs should have similar:

III. Dosage form
c. I, II, III and V
41. Therapeutic alternatives should have similar:

III. Dosage form
c. I, II, III and V
42. Bioequivalent drugs should have similar:

III. Dosage form
d. II, IV, and V d. AOTA
e. I, II and III e. NOTA
f. I, II, III and V
43. The ff. statements are true for plasma albumin:

I. Major binding protein for acidic drugs
II. Concentration is low and saturation may occur
III. Concentration is increased in MI and RA
b. I and III e. AOTA
c. I and II
44. The ff. statements are true for α-acid glycoprotein:
I. Major binding for acidic drugs
II. Concentration is low and saturation may occur
III. Concentration is increased in MI and RA
c. I and II
45. The ff. statements are true regarding drug protein binding:
I. A tightly bound drug has α value.
II. The fraction unbound is determined by concentration of both the drug
and binding protein and affinity of the drug for the protein.
III. Highly protein bound drugs require more frequent dosage
administration.
c. I and II
46. The renal clearance of a drug that is filtered, secreted and reabsorbed is approximately:
a. 120 ml/min d. NOTA
b. <120 ml/min
c. >120 ml/min
47. For adults with unstable renal function, creatinine clearance may be computed using this
equation:
a. Cockroft & Gault d. Levey
b. Jellife
c. Salazar and Corcoran
48. A creatinine clearance of 40 is indicative of:

a. Normal kidney function d. severe renal failure
b. Mild renal failure
c. Moderate renal failure
49. Half-life of a drug may be decreased by:

I. Hepatic insufficiency
II. Cardiogenic shock, heart failure and hemorrhage
III. Increased extraction ratio
IV. Displacement of the drug by another substance
a. I only d. I and IV
c. II and III
50. Phase II Clinical Studies deal with:

a. Pharmacokinetics in healthy participants d. Dosage ranging and linearity
b. Drug interactions
c. Formulation Development
51. The Biopharmaceutics Classification System (BCS) is a drug development tool that
allows correlation of in vitro drug dissolution and in vivo bioavailability correlation. It is
based on the following parameters which affect the rate and extent of drug absorption
from solid oral dosage forms:
I. Liberation
II. Dissolution
III. Solubility
IV. Permeablity
a. I and II d. II, III and IV
b. II and III e. all of the above
c. I and III
52. Biopharmaceutics is the study of :

I. Factors that influence the release of drug from a drug product, the
rate of dissolution of the drug, and the eventual bioavailability of drug.
II. Interrelationship of the physicochemical properties of the drug, the
dosage form in which the drug is given, and the route of
administration on the rate and extent of systemic drug absorption.
III. Kinetics of drug absorption, distribution, and elimination
a. I and II d. AOTA
b. II and III
c. I and III
53. Compared to normal adults, infants have:

I. Slower absorption
II. Smaller Vd
III. Slower metabolism
IV. Shortened elimination time
a. I and II d. I, II and IV
b. III and IV e. AOTA
c. I and III
54. The only metabolic process present in an infant is:

a. Redox d. Glucoronidation
b. Sulfation
c. Acetylation
55. The following statements describe the pharmacokinetic profile of geriatric patients:
I. Decreased absorption rate
II. Increased Vd
III. Decreased metabolism
IV. Decreased half-life
c. I and III
56. Compared to normal adults, renally impaired patients have:

I. Decreased absorption rate
II. Increased Vd
III. Decreased metabolism
IV. Decreased half-life
a. II only d. I, II and IV
c. I and III
57. Bioavailability of these drugs is decreased in patients with renal disease:

I. Erythromycin
II. Digoxin
III. Furosemide
IV. D-xylose
a. I and II d. I and IV
b. II and III e. AOTA
c. III and IV
58. Compared to normal adults, obese patients have:

I. Increased renal blood flow
II. Increased GFR
III. Increased Vd
IV. Decreased metabolism
c. I and III
59. Theraputic Drug monitoring (TDM) is employed for drugs with :

I. Marked pharmacokinetic variability
II. Narrow therapeutic window
III. Undefined therapeutic range
IV. Desired therapeutic effect that is difficult to monitor
a. II and IV d. I, II and IV
b. I and II e. AOTA
c. II, III and IV
60. Aspirin is best absorbed by this transport mechanism

a. Passive diffusion d. Convective Transport
b. Carrier-Mediated Transport e. Vesicular Transport
c. Ion-Pair Formation
61. Drug penetration is enhanced if the drug

I. Is in solution
II. Has a high lipid-water partition coefficient
III. Is ionized
a. I only d. I, II, III
b. I and II
c. I and III
62. In Fick’s Law, the slope indicates the rate of

a. Absorption d. adsorption
b. Diffusion
c. Penetration
63. Which of the following is/are true about passive diffusion?

I. It is the principal process for movement of drugs across membranes
II. The driving force is electrochemical gradient.
III. It involves a carrier protein as a component of the membrane
a. All of the above d. I only
b. I and II
c. II and III
64. These are drugs that undergo extensive first pass effect:
I. PABA
II. Terbutaline
III. Verapamil
IV. Cimetidine
a. I and II d. AOTA
b. II and III
c. I, II and IV
65. These are drugs that inhibit metabolism of other drugs:

I. Allopurinol
II. Warfarin
III. Meperidine
IV. Phenytoin
a. I and II d. I, II and III
b. II and III e. AOTA
c. I, II and IV
66. Transdermal route of administration is administered in/through/on the:

a. Epicutaneous d. subcutaneous
b. Intracutaneous
c. Percutaneous
67. At physiologic pH, a drug with pKa=5.4 is approximately

a. 100% unionized, 0% ionized d. 91% unionized, 9% ionized
b. 100% ionized, 0% unionized e. 91% ionized, 9% unionized
c. 50% unionized, 50% ionized
68. The ff. diagram shows the comparative of rate of drug absorption from oral dosage forms
fastest to slowest:
a. Suspensions>emulsions>uncoated tablets>capsules
b. Emulsions>suspensions>uncoated
tablets>capsules
c. Emulsions>suspensions>capsules>
uncoated tablets
d. suspensions>emulsions>uncoated tablets>capsules
69. What is the administration rate of theophyliine, representing 0.8 of the administered
dose, when aminophylline is infused at 75 mg/hr?
a. 40mg/h d. 70mg/h
b. 50mg/h
c. 60mg/h
70. Four hours following the IV administration of a drug, a patient (70kg) was found to havea
plasma concentration of 5.6 mcg/ml. assuming the Vd is 10% of body weight, what is the
amount of drug, in mg. present in body fluids?
a. 35.7 d. 32.9
b. 37.5
c. 39.2
71. What is the rate of IV administration for aminophylline which would produce a steady
state plasma theophylline concentration of 15mg/L if the estimated theophylline
clearance is 2.8 L/h?
a. 50.5 d. 53.5
b. 51.5
c. 52.5
72. If Lidocaine IV is infused continually at a rate of 2mg/min and if the steady state
concentration of lidocaine is 3mg/L, what is the total clearance?
a. 0.67 L/min d. 0.47 L/min
b. 0.57 L/min
c. 0.87 L/min
73. The extent of distribution of drugs is affected by:
I. Blood perfusion
II. Plasma protein binding
III. Membrane permeability
IV. pH
a. I and III d. AOTA
b. II and IV
c. II, III, and IV
74. The rate of distribution of drugs is affected by:

I. Blood perfusion
II. Plasma protein binding
III. Membrane permeability
IV. pH
a. I and III d. AOTA
b. II and IV
c. II, III, and IV
75. The rate of zero-order reactions

a. Changes constantly d. holds only for light-catalyzed
reaction
b. Is independent temperature e. holds only for radioactive
compounds
c. In independent of concentration
76. What will result if the distribution of drugs is slower than the process of biotransformation
and elimination?
a. High blood levels of drug d. potentiation
b. Low blood levels of drug e. failure to attain diffusion
equilibrium
c. Synergism
77. Which of the following types of tissues frequently stored drugs?

a. Fatty tissues d. A and B
b. Muscle tissue e. A and C
c. Protein tissue
78. Which of the following drugs undergoes marked hydrolysis in the GI tract?
a. ASA d. Hydrocortisone
b. Penicillin G e. Chlortetracycline
c. Acetaminophen
79. If a CNS drug is extensively ionized at pH of blood, it will

a. Penetrate the BBB slowly d. be eliminate slowly
b. Penetrate the BBB rapidly e. not be distributed to any tissue
sites
c. Not penetrate the BBB barrier
80. The buffer equation is also known as

a. Young’s equation d. Stoke’s Law
b. Charle’s Law e. AOTA
c. Henderson-Hesselbach equation
81. To calculate a loading dose, one must first determine

a. Half-life d. Vd
b. Body clearance e. AOTA
c. ]fraction protein bound
82. To achieve the same steady-state plasma concentration (for a drug that is excreted by
the kidney) in renal failure patients with normal renal function, you should
a. Increasing the dosing interval d. do any of the above, depending
on pharmacodynamic properties of the drug
b. Decrease the dose e. not adjust the dosing regimen
unless the patient shows sign of toxicity
c. Adjust both the dose and dosing interval
83. Which of the following factors make it necessary to give lower doses of drugs to geriatric
patients?
a. Reduced enzyme activity d. A and B only
b. Reduced kidney function e. A, B and C
c. Enhanced absorption
84. The Noyes-Whitney Equation describes

a. Zero-order kinetics d. dissolution rate
b. First-order kinetics e. renal clearance
c. Mixed-order kinetics
85. A prime consideration in biopharmaceutics is a drug’s “bioavailability” which refers to the
relative amount of drug that reaches the
a. Small intestine d. liver
b. Stomach e. kidneys
c. Systemic circulation
86. The AUC can be described as

I. A theoretical value
II. A measure of drug concentration-time curve
III. Having units of weight and time.volume
b. III only e. AOTA
c. I and II only
87. What is the potentially first rate-limiting process when a tablet dosage form is
administered?
a. Ionization of the drug d. dissolution of the drug in the blood
b. Diffusion of the through the GI epithelium e. disintegration in the tablet
c. Dissolution of the drug in the GI fluids
88. Which of the following could be the rate-limiting steps for drug absorption from an orally
administered drug product?
I. Disintegration of the unit
II. Dissolution of the active drug
III. Diffusion of the active drug through the intestinal wall
b. III only e. AOTA
c. I and II only
89. The AUC of a drug can be determined from a graph by using which of the following
methods?
I. Law of diminishing returns
II. Rule of nines
III. Trapezoidal rule
b. III only e. AOTA
c. I and II only
90. The peak of the serum concentration versus time curve approximates the
a. Point in time when the maximum pharmacologic d. time required for essentially all of
the
pharmacologic effect occurs. Drug to be absorbed from the GI
tract.
b. Point in time when absorption and elimination e. point in time when the
drug begins to
have equalized be metabolized.
c. Maximum concentration of free drug in the urine.
91. In which of the following sites may drugs be metabolized?
I. Skin
II. Lungs
III. Liver
b. III only e. AOTA
c. I and II only
92. When compared to their parent compound, metabolites usually have

a. Greater water solubility d. no therapeutic activity
b. Lower water solubility e. greater diffusion through
c. Greater therapeutic activity the blood brain barrier
93. Differences in bioavailability are most frequently observed with drug products
administered by which one of the following routes?
a. Subcutaneous d. sublingual
b. Intravenous e. intramuscular
c. Oral
94. When graphed, nonlinear pharmacokinetics are characterized by dat that

a. Does not yield a straight line at any time d. follows first-order kinetics
b. Exhibits a straight line only when plotted e. will have a negative slope
as log-log functions
c. Is dose-dependent
95. The “F” value for a drug product is ideally compared to its
a. Absolute bioavailability d. relative bioavailability
b. Dosing rate e. route of administration
c. Clearance rate
96. If an oral capsule formulation of the drug A produces a serum-concentration time curve
having the same AUC as that produced by an equivalent dose of drug A given IV, it can
generally be concluded that
a. The IV route is preferred to the oral route. d. All oral forms of drug A will be
b. The capsule formulation is essentially completely bioequivalent
absorbed
c. The drug is very rapidly absorbed. e. there is no advantage to the IV
route
97. The term therapeutic window refers to the

a. Time interval between administration d. concentration versus time curve
And the beginning of activity
b. Concentration differential between drug’s e. time period before administration
of
MTC and MEC the next dose
c. Concentration which must be reached
Before activity begins
98. For two drug products to be considered “pharmaceutical equivalents” the products must
have
I. Have the same active drug (therapeutic moiety)
II. Consist of the same salt
III. Contain the same excipients
b. III only e. all
c. I and II only
99. Requirements for the drug products to be considered “pharmaceutical alternatives”

includes having the same
I. Active drug
II. Dosage form
III. Salt or ester
b. III only e. all
c. I and II only
100. Based upon the pH partition theory, weakly acidic drugs are most likely to be absorbed
from the stomach because
a. The drugs will exist primarily in the d. the ionic form of the drug
facilitates
unionized, more lipid soluble form dissolution
b. The drugs will exist primarily in the ionized, e. weak acids will further depress pH
more water soluble form
c. Weak acids are more soluble in acid media
101. Gastric emptying time except:

a. Vigorous exercise d. hunger
b. Fatty foods e. emotional stress
c. Hot meals
102. Reducing drug particle size to enhance drug absorption is limited to those situations in
which the
a. Absorption process occurs by active transport d. drug is very potent

b. Absorption process is rate limited by e. drug is irritating to the GI tract
the dissolution of drug in the GI fluids
c. Drug is very water soluble
103. Drugs that are absorbed from the GI tract are generally
a. Absorbed into the portal circulation and d. not affected by liver

enzymes
pass through the liver before entering the general circulation
b. Filtered form the blood by the kidney, e. Stored in the liver
then reabsorbed into the general circulation
c. Absorbed into the portal circulation
and are distributed by an enterohepatic cycle
104. The volume of distribution (Vd) of a particular drug will be

a. Greater for drugs that concentrate in d. independent of plasma
concentration
tissues rather than in plasma
b. Greater drugs that concentrate in plasma e. approximately the same for all
drugs
rather than in tissues. In a giiven individual
c. Independent of tissue concentration
105. A knowledge of Vd for a given drug is useful because it alloews to
a. estimate the elimination rate constant d. determine the best dosing

interval
b determine the biological half-life e. determine the peak plasma
c. calculate a reasonable loading dose concentration
106. Estimate the plasma concentration of a drug when 50 mg is given by IV bolus to a 140
lb patien if her volume of distribution is 1.6 L/kg
a. 0.1 mg/L d. 5 mg/L

b. 0.5 mg/L e. 31 mg/L
c. 1 mg/L
107. the time needed to achieve a steady-state plasma level for a drug administered by
infusion will depend upon
I. Amount of drug being infused

II. Volume of distribution of drug
III. Half-life of drug
b. III only e. all of the above
c. I and II only
108. the time needed to reach optimum drug blood levels (the plateau portion of curve III)
during constant rateintravenous infusion is
a. Directly proprtiona to the rate of infusion d. independent of the biological half-

life
b. Inversely proportional to the rate of infusion e. not related to either the infusion
rate
c. Independent of rate of infusion or the biological half-life
109. What factor besides the desired steady-state concentration (Css) is most important for
determining an infusion rate of a parenteral solution?
a. half-life of the drug d. total clearance

b. Metabolism rate e. volume of distribution
c. Renal elimination
110. Compartmental models are often used to illustrate the various principles of
pharmacokinetics. a compartment is best definded as
a. any anatomic entity that is capable of absorbing drug d. any body fluid-such as
blood or urine
b. a kinetically distinguishable pool of drug that may contain drug
c. specific body organs or that e. any component of the
blood, tissues can be assayed for drug including
blood proteins that would
have tendency to absorb drug
111. which of the following is/are true of non-linear pharmacokinetics
I. follows zero order kinetics

II. elimination half-life will change as the dose is increased
III. half-life is expressed in terms of fraction per unit time
c. I and II only
112. The difference between peak and trough concentrations greatest when the is given at
dosing intervals
a. Much longer than the half-life d. equal to the half-life times serum
b. About equal to the half-life creatinine
c. Much shorter than the half-life e. equal to the time it takes to
reach
peak concentration following a single
oral dose
113. which of the following pharmacokinetic parameters is (are) likely to decrease) in the
geriatric population when compared to average population?
I. Renal elimination
II. Drug metabolism
III. Volume of the distribution
c. I and II only
114. the pharmacokinetic property known as clearance is essentially the
a. Rate at which the plasma is cleared of d. rate at which the drug is

removed
all waste materials and foreign substances (e.g drug) (cleared) from its site of
absorption
b. Volume of blood that passes through the e. volume of blood that is completely
kidneys per unit of time cleared of drug per unit of
time
c. Volume of blood that passes through the liver
per unit of time
115. a knowledge of the clearance (CL) of a given drug is useful because it allows the
a. Calculation of the maintenance dose required to d. decision whether a loading dose

sustain a desired average steady-state plasma is necessary
concentration
b. Determination of a loading dose but not the e. determination if the drug is
maintainance dose metabolized or excreted unchanged
c. Determination of the ideal dosing interval
116. In dosing drugs that are primarily excreted by the kidneys, one must have an idea of
the patient’s renal function. A calculated pharmacokinetic parameter that gives us a
reasonable estimate of renal function is the
a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) d. urine creatinine (Ucr)

b. Serum creatinine (Scr) e. free water clearance
c. Creatinine clearance (CLcr)
117. if the rate of elimination of a drug is reduced because of impaired renal function, the
effect on the drug half-life and the time required to reach steady-state concentrations
(Css) will
a. Both increase d. be a decrease in half-life but an

b. Both decrease increase in the time to reach Css
c. Be an increase in half-life and a e. be negligible
decrease in the time to reach Css
118. For many drugs, bioavalibilty can be evaluated using urinary excretion data. This is
based on the assumption that
a. Bioavailability studies can be done only d. all of the administered

dose can be
on drugs that are completely excreted recovered from the urine
unchanged by the kidneys
b. Drug levels can be measured more accurately e. only drug metabolites are
excreted in
in urine than in blood the urine
c. A drug must first be absorbed into the systemic
circulation before it can be appear in the urine
119. Estimating bioavailability from urinary excretion data is less satisfactory than
estimated based on blood level data because accurate urinary excretion studies require
I. Complete urine collections

II. Normal or near normal renal function
III. That the drug be completely excreted unchanged by the
kidney
c. I and II only
120. The half-life of an anti-bacterial drug has been reported as ranging between 4 and 10
h. what is the estimated clearance of this drug in a patient receiving a 50-mg bolus dose
of a drug at 1000? A blood sample drawn at 1400 assays at 10 mg/L
a. 0.8 L/h d. 2.5 L/h

b. 1.25 L/h e. 5 L/h
c. 1.6 L/h
121. Which of the following factors is (are) included in the Cockroft and Gault equation for
estimating creatinine clearance?
I. Patient’s age
II. Patient’s height and weight
III. Patient’s calculated BEE
c. I and II only
122. What is the approximate creatinine clearance in a 140-lb, 50yr old patient if the lab
reports a serum creatinine value of 1.5 mg/dL?
a. 50-55 mL d. 120-125 mL
b. 100-105 mL e. 130-140 mL
c. 110-118 mL
123. The patient in the previous problem is a female. What correction, if any should be
made in calculating her creatinine clearance value?
a. The value will be 50% of the male value d. the value will be 85% of
the male
b. The value will be 75 % of the male value value
c. The value will be 80% of the male value e. no correction is needed
124. all of the following drugs are believed to undergo significant First-Pass hepatic
metabolism EXCEPT:
a. Lidocaine d. phenytoin
b. Morphine e. propranolol
c. NTG
125. The science that examines the inter-relationship of the physicochemical propertis of the
drug, the dosage form in which the drug is given, and the route of administration on
drug’s bioavaibility
a. Pharmacology
b. Biopharmaceutics
c. Pharmacokinetics
d. Toxicolgy
126. The application of pharmacokinetic principles in the safe and effective treatment of
individual patients, and in the optimization of drug therapy.
a. Clinical pharmacy
b. Clinical pharmacology
c. Clinical pharmacokinetics
d. Clinical biopharmaceutics
127. The IV route of administration may be preferred over the preoral route for some
systemic-acting drugs because:
a. The drug does not have to be absorbed

b. Absorption is predictable and complete
c. A portion of the absorbed drug pass through the liver before entering the systemic
circulation
d. First-pass effect is avoided
128. The route of administration which will by-pass the GIT degradation and hepatic
metabolism is
a. IV injection d. b and c
b. Sublingual e. all of the above
c. Buccal
129. Advantages of systemic drug administration by rectal suppository
a. Partial avoidance of first-pass effects

b. Suitability when the oral route is not feasible
c. Predictable drug release and absorption
d. a and b only
e. all of the above
130. The process with the slowest rate constant in a system of simultaneous kinetic process
a. lag time
b. rate limiting step
c. bioequivalence
d. accumulation
131. A rate limiting step factor in the dissolution of tablet is
a. disintegration of the tablet

b. thickness
c. content uniformity
d. local effect
132. Which of the following series in kinetic processes may be the rate-limiting step for
drugs that are poorly soluble in aqeous media?
a. Disintegration and dissolution of the unit

b. Diffusion of active drug through the intestinal wall
c. Dissolution of the active drug
d. Disintegration only
e. All of the above
133. The equation that best describe the overall rate of drug dissolution
a. Henderson-Hasselbach equation d. Fick’s law of diffusion

b. Michelis-Menten equation e. NOTA
c. Noyes-Whitney equation
134. Which of the following factor/s is inversely proportional to the rate of dissolution in the
lipid membrane of lipid soluble unionize substances?
a. Particle size d. diffusion coefficient

b. Lipid/water partition coefficient e. NOTA
c. Surface area
135. Dissolution rate tests can be used to predict bioavailability if
a. Dissolved drug remains free in the GIT

b. Dissolved drug is decomposed in the GIT
c. Drug is hydrolyzed in the GIT
d. AOTA
136. Which of the following factors affect the dissolution in the lipid membrane of the lipid
soluble unionized fluid compartment
a. pH
b. pKa
c. lipid/water partition coefficient
d. AOTA
137. The ratio of drug concentration in the lipid phase over the concentration of the drug in
the aqueous phase is equal to
a. APC
b. pKa
c. pH
d. Concentration gradient
138. The lipid phase which is usually employed in the determination of apparent partition
coefficient
a. Buffer solution at pH 7.4

b. Corn oil
c. Cottonseed oil
d. Octanol
139. Decreasing oil/water partition coefficient, the polarity of drug increases due to the
presence of hydrophilic functional groups, thus water solubility
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. No change
d. Polarity is not related
140. The ionization constant of a drug is important in bioavailability since it determines the
following except
a. Its aqeous solubility

b. Dissolution rate
c. pH of the medium
d. extent of protein binding
141. The extent of ionization of a weak electrolyte drug is dependent on the
a. pH of the media and pKa of the drug d. Noyes-Whitney equation of the

drug
b. particle size and surface area of the drug e. polymorphic form of the drug
c. oil water partition coefficient of the drug
142. The pH of a buffer system can be calculated with the
a. Noyes-Whitney equation d. Young equation

b. Henderson-hasselbach equation e. Stokes equation
c. Michealis-Menten equation
143. The pH value is calculated mathematically as the
a. log of the Hydroxyl ion (OH-) d. negative log of the H+ concn

b. negative log of the OH- concn e. Ratio of H+ / OH-
c. log of the hydrogen ion (H+)
144. A change of pH in the aqueous phase alters the _______ of electrolytes
a. Degree of dissociation d. NOTA

b. Degree of acidification e. AOTA
c. Degree of purification
145. The mathematical equation used in determining the ratio between ionized and
unionized drug include
a. Noyes-Whitney equation d. NOTA

b. Fick’s First Law of diffusion e. AOTA
c. Henderson Hasselbach equation
146. Which of the following alkaloids exhibits good water solubility?
a. Morphine SO4 d. lidocaine

b. Cocaine e. AOTA
c. Atropine
147. pH is equal to pKa when the ionized form is
a. Greater than unionized

b. Less than unionized
c. Neither greater or less than unionized
d. Equal to unionized
e. AOTA
148. Which of the following is a characteristic of strong electrolytes?
a. Exist entirely as ions

b. Exist both as ionic and a molecular form
c. Exist entirely in molecular form
d. May be undissociated
149. Characteristics of salts of electrolytes include
a. Higher solubility
b. More rapid dissolution rate
c. Both
d. NOTA
150. Acids are ______ , when nonprotonated
a. Charged d. non polar

b. Unchanged e. NOTA
c. unionized
151. Significant site of absorption of many acidic and neutral compounds but not for basic
compounds.
a. Kidney c. Stomach
b. Liver d. AOTA
152. According to pH partition theory, q weakly acidic drug will most likely be absorbed from
the stomach because.
a. The drug will exist primarily in the ionized, more lipid soluble form
b. The drug will exist primarily in the ionized, more water-soluble form
c. Weak acids are more soluble in acid medium
d. The ionic form of the drug facilities dissolution
153. What is the pH does weak acids greatly ionized?
a. High pH c. Neutral pH
b. Low pH d. AOTA
154. The excretion of weak acid will be more rapid in alkaline urine than in acidic urine
because:
a. All drugs are excreted in alkaline urine

b. The drug will exist primarily in the unionized form
c. The drug will exist primarily in the ionized form
d. Weak acids cannot be reabsorbed from the kidney tubules
156. When does weak acids reabsorbed not the bloodstream?
a. If the urinary pH is high

b. If the urine is made alkaline
c. If the urinary pH is low
d. All situations apply
157. Based on the relation between the degree of ionization and the gastric solubility of a
weak aced, the drug aspirin (pKa 3.49) will be most soluble at.
a. pH 1.0 d. pH 4.0
b. pH 2.0 e. pH 6.0
c. pH 3.0
158. The concentration of the ionic moiety of weak acids increases with
a. Decreasing pH of aqueous solution c. Increasing pOH of aqueous
solution
b. Increasing pH of aqueous solution d. AOTA
159. What is the reason behind why Morphine sulfate most likely absorbed is the small
intestine
a. The molecular form will be more lipid soluble

b. The drug will exist primarily in the ionized and more water soluble form
c. The ionic form of the drug facilitates dissolution
d. Basic drugs are lipid soluble in alkaline media
160. Which condition usually increases the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?
a. Increases in the particle size of the drug

b. Use of Ionized or salt form of the drug
c. Decrease in the surface area of the drug
d. Use of free acid or free base form of the drug
e. Use of sugar coating around the tablet
161. It is the phenomenon when organic substituted ammonium salts or salts of various
inorganic acids are added to mixtures of organic non-electrolytes causing the dissolution of the
undissolved solutes
a. Chelation c. Solvation
b. Clathrate formation d. Salting-In
162. These are formed when a substance is capable of forming channels or cages which
can take up another substance into the intraspace of the structure
a. Co – precipitates d. Hydrates
b. Solvates e. NOTA
c. Drug – Clathrate complexes
163. Which of the following is a clathrate forming substance
a. Urea c. Melt of mannitol

b. Mucin d. Theobroma oil
164. Polymorphism is generally defined as
a. Substance that may exist in more than one crystalline form or amorphous form
b. Substance that may exists only in metastable form
c. Substance that has different viscosity time to time
d. Substance that reduces interfacial tension
165. Different polymorphs of the same drug exhibit differences in all aspects except
a. Chemical structure d. Molecular sizes

b. Melting points e. None
c. Solubilities
166. These are addition compounds of drug and water
a. Hydrates c. polymorphs
b. Solvates d. Chelates
167. Which of the following crystal form gives the best dissolution rate?
a. Meta-stable polymorph c. Stable polymorph

b. Amorphous d. a and b
168. Ability of chemical compound to exist as optically active stereoisomers or enantiomers

is known as.
a. Polymorphism c. Chemical Variation

b. Chirality d. Chelation
169. Which of the given properties has the property of absorbing moisture from the
atmosphere?
a. Micronization c. Viscosity
b. Hygroscopicity d. Ionization
170. The following is/are factor/s affecting biological performance of drugs
a. Viscosity d. Adsorption
b. Polymorphism e. AOTA
c. Solubilizing agents
171. Those multiple source drug products that contain identical amount of the identical
active ingredients in identical dose forms are called
a. Chemical equivalents or pharmaceutical equivalents

b. Biologic equivalents
c. Therapeutic equivalents
d. Pharmaceutical alternates
e. Therapeutic alternates
172. Drug products that contain the identical therapeutic moiety, or its precursor but not
necessarily in the same amount or dosage forms or as the same salt ester
a. Pharmaceutical alternates c. Bioequivalent drug products

b. Pharmaceutical equivalents d. NOTA
173. Dose pumping is defined as
a. An intended sudden release of large amounts of drugs into systemic circulation

b. Unintended sudden release of large amounts of drugs into systemic circulation
c. Slow release of the drug into systemic circulation
d. Slow absorption of the drug into the systemic circulation
174. A portion of a prolonged release dosage form which liberates the drug from the form at
a slower rate that is unrestricted absorption rate
a. Depot phase d. AOTA

b. Release phase e. NOTA
c. Dissolve phase
175. In general, various oral dosage forms can be ranked in which of the following expected
order of availability (fastest to slowest)
a. Aqueous solution, capsule, tablet, powder, coated tablet, suspension

b. Capsule, tablet, coated tablet, powder, suspension, aqueous solution
c. Aqueous solution, suspension, powder, capsule, tablet, coated tablet
d. Suspension, aqueous solution, powder, capsule, coated tablet, tablet
176. Process of transferring chemical substances from the GIT through its wall into the
blood and lymphatic stream
a. Distribution c. Absorption
b. Adsorption d. Exocytosis
177. Collective term used to describe penetration and permeation include
a. Disposition c. Sorption
b. Distribution d. Adsorption
178. If drug moves into the deeper layers of the skin or mucosa and yet does not reach the
capillary walls
a. Adsorption c. Penetration
b. Permeation d. Absorption
179. One of the mechanism by which drugs containing sorption promoters penetrate the
skin is by widening of either lipid or aqueous phase or both phases found in the intercellular
matrix. Which of the following sorption is used?
a. Surfactants c. Viscosity-decreasing
agents/thinners
b. Absorption d. AOTA
180. A second substance tends to accumulate to the surface of a first substance due to
intermolecular forces of attraction is a phenomenon of
a. Penetration c. Adsorption
b. Absorption d. AOTA
181. Obtained when the drug product is administered at the site where pharmacological
response is desired and when the drug released from the product acts by absorption to the skin
or mucosa or penetrates into the skin or mucosa, but does not enter the systemic circulation or
lymphatic system
a. Systemic effect c. Mean transit time

b. Local effect d. Micro constants
182. The theory which states that cell membrane is made up of bi-lipid layers and fluid
protein molecules interspersed between 2 layers of lipid layer
a. Fick’s law d. Stroke’s law

b. Fluid Mosaic e. NOTA
c. Ariens and Stephenson
183. Membranes are responsible for which of the following process?
a. Uptake of fluid material c. Extrusion of waste material

b. Uptake of solid material d. OATA
184. Membrane potential is due to the:
a. Adsorption of protein to the outside of lipid layer

b. Different distribution of ions in the extracellular and intracellular fluid
c. Both a and b
d. pH of the medium
185. Absorption is not involved when a drug is administered by which of the following
routes?
a. IV c. Intracardiac
b. Intra – arterial d. AOTA
186. Which of the following is the first process that must occur before a drug can become
available for GI absorption from a tablet dosage form?
a. Dissolution of the drug in the GI fluids

b. Ionization of the drug
c. Disintegration of the tablet
d. Dissolution of the drug in the blood
e. Adsorption of the drug on the mucosal surface of the skin
187. The value of particle size reduction to enhance drug absorption is limited to the
situation in which the
a. Absorption process occurs by active transport

b. Absorption process is rate limited by the dissolution of the drug in the GIT
c. Drug is very soluble
d. Drug is very potent
188. In general, the form of a drug that can be absorbed faster is a/an
a. Ionized form c. Bound form

b. Unionized form d. A and C
189. In general, the form of a drug that can be absorbed faster
a. pKa value of the drug and pH of the drug product

b. Perfusion rate
c. Osmotic pressure
d. Both a and b
e. NOTA
190. Due to their anatomical structure, the organ that is considered as the most important
site of drug absorption is
a. Large intestine c. Small intestine

b. Stomach d. Mucus membrane of the mouth
191. In what part of GIT, is where no absorption of food takes place but large amount of
water are absorbed
a. Rectum d. Small intestine
b. Large intestine e. Stomach
192. What is the specific organ of animal used for In vivo testing of active transport
mechanism
a. Duodenum c. Iluem
b. Ascending colon d. Transverse colon
193. As soon as drug has passed the epithelium of the GI mucosa, it can reach the systemic
circulation by
a. Entering through the villi c. Both

b. Entering through the lacteals d. None
194. Drugs that are absorbed in the GIT are generally
a. Absorbed in the portal of circulation and passed through the liver before entering the
general circulation
b. Filtered from the blood by the kidney, the reabsorbed into the general circulation
c. Not affected by the liver enzymes
d. Stored in the liver
195. Absorption of Vitamin A from the GI tract depends on
a. The presence of bile in the intestine d. Needs of the patient

b. By which salt is used e. pH of the intestine
c. Acid-base balance
196. Factor affecting gastric emptying time of a drug
a. Age of a person d. AOTA

b. Time of the day e. a and c only
c. Body pressure
197. Rate of gastric emptying is slowed down by the following except
a. Vigorous exercise d. Hunger

b. Fatty foods e. Emotional stress
c. Hot meals
198. In the oral administration of drugs for aged people, the possible consequence/s when
the gastric emptying time is increased is/are
a. Reduce mixing of intestinal content d. A and C
b. Delayed transfer to small intestine e. A and B
c. Change in epithelial transfer
199. A condition that may increase the time of gastric emptying
a. Depression c. lying on the left side

b. Stressful d. A and C
200. Which of the following statement is the least that could increase drug absorption?
a. Increase blood flow to the site of administration

b. Decrease particle size
c. Increase surface area dedicated to absorption
d. Increase lipid solubility
e. Decreased pH when the drug is a weak base
200. Which of the following statement is the least that could increase drug absorption?
d. Increased blood flow to the site of administration

e. Decreased particle size
f. Increased surface area dedicated to absorption
g. Increased lipid solubility
h. Decreased pH when the drug is a weak base
201. Factors affecting membrane transport include all except
d. pKa d. Presence or absence of a change

e. Diffusivity e. Surfactants
f. Partition coefficient
202. The transfer of most drugs across biologic membranes occurs by
d. Passive diffusion d. Pinocytosis

e. Active transport e. Ion-pair transport
f. Facilitated transport
203. Equation followed by passive diffusion
d. Noyes-whitney d. Henderson-Hasslebalch
e. Van Slyke e. NOTA
f. Fick’s law
204. In the diffusion controlled system, the initial rate of dissolution is directly proportional to
the
d. pKa d. Solubility of the drug in the dissolution medium

e. pH
f. Quantity of the free acid
205. All of the following statements about Fick’s law as it pertain to simple diffusion are true
except
d. The greater the concentration gradient, the greater the rate of absorption
e. The smaller the surface area the greater the drug flux
f. The greater the lipid-water partition coefficient, the greater the drug flux
g. Diffusion constant is directly proportional to the temperature
h. Diffusion constant is inversely related to the molecular size
206. The driving force for passive absorption of a drug is the
d. Specific carrier of proteins and shows saturation kinetics Pharmacokinetics
e. Concentration gradient across a membrane separating body compartment

f. Both
g. NOTA
207. The ratio of drug concentration in two phases separated by a semi-permeable

membrane fluid is called:
d. APC d. Elimination half-life

e. pKa e. AOTA
f. Concentration gradient
208. The rate of diffusion of drugs across biological membrane is:
a. Independent on the concentration gradient
b. Directly proportional to the concentration gradient
c. Dependent on the availability of carrier substrate
g. Dependent on the route of administration

209. The cell membrane is capable of forming vesicles which may engulf drug substances
outside the cell membrane to transport drug (via the engulfed drug) into the compartmen
d. Ion-pair d. Pinocytosis
e. Passive diffusion e. Active transport
f. Convective transport
210. A transport mechanism in which drugs moves from an area of high concentration to an
area of low concentration include except
d. Passive transport d. Facilitated diffusion

e. Active transport e. Ion-pair
f. Convective transport
211. Arrange the mechanism of absorption of drugs in order their importance
d. Active-passive-convective transport
e. Passive diffusion-convective-active transport
f. Convective-active-passive transport
g. Active-pinocytosis-passive
212. Sodium pump is special type of
d. Convective transport d. Ion-pair

e. Active transport
f. Passive transport
213. When active transport system becomes saturated, the rate process will be
d. Zero order d. Pseudo-first order

e. Pseudo-order
f. First order
214. The following are characteristics of active transport except
d. Against concentration gradient d. Requires expenditure of ATP

e. Follows saturation kinetics e. NOTA
f. Carrier mediated
215. A carrier mediated transport of absorption that does not proceed against a
concentration gradient includes:
d. Facilitated transport d. Ion-pair transport

e. Active transport e. NOTA
f. Active transport
216. The following are the characteristics of facilitated diffusion transport except
d. Against concentration gradient d. AOTA

e. Follows saturation kinetics e. NOTA
f. Carrier mediated
217. All phenomenon characteristics are associated with the process of facilitated diffusion
of drugs, except
d. The drug crosses the membrane against a concentration gradient

e. The process is selective for certain ionic or structural configuration of the drug
f. Competitive inhibition if two compounds are transported by the same mechanism

g. The transport mechanism becomes saturated at high drug
218. Facilitated transport is similar to active transport in a sense that it:
d. Is a carrier mediated
e. Utilizes ATP
f. Is against concentration gradient
g. Is moving from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
219. Which of the following is a feature common to all carrier-mediated transport process?
a. Movement is along the concentration gradient d. Display a Michaelis-

Menten kinetics
b. Involve non-specific binding to carriers e. Non-energy requiring
c. Can be characterizes by allosteric inhibition
220. Formation of pairs (For highly ionized compounds) with endogenous substrate present
at the GIT to form a neural complexes that are absorbed by passive diffusion
d. Pinocytosis d. Facilitated transport

e. Convective transport
f. Ion-pair transport
221. Which of the following statement is/are Carrier-mediated transport systems

characteristic/s?
d. Consume energy d. AOTA

e. Are structure specific
f. May be adversely affected by certain chemicals
222. A type of transport where by drug molecules dissolved in aqueous medium at the
absorption site move along with the solvent through the pore.
d. Active transport d. Facilitated transport

e. Convective transport
f. Ion-pair
223. When considering drug transport, passive diffusion involves drug movement from area
of
d. High concentration to an area of higher concentration

e. High concentration to an area of lower concentration
f. Low concentration to an area of higher concentration
g. High concentration to an area of equally high concentration
h. No concentration to an area of higher concentration
224. Lipid/water partition coefficient permits
d. Convective transport c. Passive transport

e. Active transport d. Ion-pair transport
225. Which statement best describes bioavailability?
d. Relation between the physical and chemical properties of a drug and its systemic
absorption
e. Measurement if the rate and amount of therapeutically active drug that reaches the
systemic circulation
f. Movement of drug into the body tissue over period of time
g. Dissolution of the drug in the GIT E. amount of drug destroyed by the liver before
systemic absorption from the GIT occurs
226. The primary proof of a drug’s bioavailability is
d. Production of its pharmacologic effect d. Appearance of metabolites in

urine
e. Production of high blood levels e. Appearance of metabolites in
blood
f. Production of high urine levels
227. To determine the relative bioavailability of a drug given as an oral extended-release
tablet, the bioavailability of the drug must be compared to the bioavailability of the drug form
d. An immediate-release oral tablet containing the same amount of active ingredient

e. An oral solution of the drug in the same dose
f. A parenteral solution of the drug given by IV bolus or IV infusion
g. A reference drug that is bioequivalent
h. An immediate-release HGC containing the same amount of active drug and lactose
228. If the extent and rate of absorption is similar to the standard drug, it has achieved the
d. Bioequivalence of the drug d. a and b

e. Pharmaceutical equivalence
f. Pharmaceutical alternative
229. Possible approaches to measure the bioavailability:
d. Blood level data d. AOTA

e. Urinary excretion data
f. Clinical data
230. In all quantitative work for bioavailability, the concentration at the site of action and
pharmacologic response.
g. Blood/plasma d. a and b
h. Urine
i. Gastric fluid
231. The relation between the drug concentration at the site of action and pharmacologic
response
d. Pharmacokinetics d. none
e. Pharmacology
f. Pharmacodynamics
232. These conditions require immediate increase in the blood levels of the drug except:
d. Hypertensive attack d. none

e. Chronic asthma
f. Sudden increase in blood glucose
233. In vitro dissolution rate studies for drug products are useful for evaluating bioavailability
only if they can be correlated with
d. Disintegration rates
e. The chemical stability
f. In vivo studies in humans
g. In vivo studies in at least 3 species of animals
h. none
234. Drug products can be also evaluated by comparing curves of serum concentration vs.
time (blood level curve). The most important parameters that can be obtain from such
curves are
d. Peak concentration, biologic concentration, half life, elimination rate constant
e. Biologic half time, peak concentration, total AUC

f. Peak concentration, peak time, total AUC
g. Average serum concentration, AUC, absorption rate constant
235. Is the difference between the EMC and MTC
d. Minimum effective concentration

e. Minimum toxic concentration
f. Minimum inhibitory concentration
g. Therapeutic plasma concentration
h. none
236. Which of the following equations may be useful to find out the plasma concentration of
drug?
d. VD x DB = CP d. VD = CP/DB
e. DB x CP =VD
f. VD = DB/ CP
237. Clinical effectiveness often depends on
d. Maximum serum drug concentration

e. Minimum serum drug concentration
f. Time after the administration to reach the onset of concentration
g. AOTA
h. NOTA
238. The intensity of the pharmacologic action of a drug is most dependent on the
d. Concentration of the drug at the receptor site
e. t ½ of the drug
f. MTC of the drug in plasma
g. Onset time of the drug after oral administration
h. MEC of the drug in the body
239. Which of the following refers to the intensity of pharmacologic response?
d. Cmax d. AUC
e. Tmax
f. AUC
240. Cmax is the peak drug concentration in the
g. Plasma d. Bile
h. Urine
i. Muscle
241. The onset time for a drug given orally is the time for
a. Drug to reach the peak plasma drug concentration

b. Drug to reach the MEC
c. Drug to begin to be eliminated from the body
d. Drug to reach the MTC
e. Drug to begin to be absorbed from the small intestine
242. For drugs that are given at constant rate, the time to reach steady state concentration
is dependent on
d. I only d. II and III

e. I and III e. AOTA
f. I and II
243. The Biological half-life of a
d. Is a constant physical property of a drug

e. Is the time for one half of the therapeutic activity to be lost
f. Is a constant chemical property of the drug
g. Depends entirely on the route of administration
244. Which of the following is a half-life equation for first-order reaction?

d. t½= 0.0693/k d. t½= 1/ak
e. t½= 0.963/k e. t½= 0.693/k
f. t½= a/2k
245. In which kinetic reaction, the rate of reaction is dependent on concentration?
d. First order d. Second order

e. Zero order
f. Pseudo first order
246. Which equation is true for a zero-order reaction rate of a drug?
d. dA/dt= -k d. dC/dt= -kC

e. t½= 0.693/k e. C= -k0t + C0
f. A=A0e-kt
247. Refers to a change of one or more of the pharmacokinetic parameters during

absorption, distribution metabolism, and excretion by overloading of processes due to
increased dose sizes
d. Nonlinear kinetics d. both a and b

e. Linear kinetics e. both b and c
f. Saturation kinetics
248. Which equation is true for absorption rate constant of a drug?
d. kA= 0.693
t1/2 d. log C = -kt
e. kA= In C1diff – In C2diff 2.3
t2 – t1
f. kA= log v2 – log v2
t2 - t1
249. Tmax means
d. Time of great solubility of the drug d. AUC values

e. Peak height concentration
f. Time of peak concentration
250. This pharmacokinetic property is representative of the amount of a drug absorbed
d. t1/2 d. Kel
e. T90 e. VD
f. AUC
251. The integral of drug level over time from zero to infinity is
d. Biologic half-life d. Biopharmaceutics

e. Area under the curve
f. Bioavailability
252. Two different formulation of the same drug having equal areas under their respective
serum concentration time curve
d. Deliver the same total amount of drug to the body and are therefore bioavailability
e. Deliver the same total amount of drug to the body but are not necessarily bioavailability
f. Are bioequivalent by definition
g. Are bioequivalent if they meet USP standards
253. An entity which can be described by a definite volume and concentration of drug
contained in that volume
d. Compartment d. Blood stream

e. Serum level
f. receptor
254. Drug concentration in systemic circulation rises to a peak followed by steep fall
d. Open one compartment IV d. Open two compartment EV

e. Open one compartment EV
f. Open two compartment IV
255. In compartmental analysis of serum drug concentration versus time plots, which of the
following findings confirm a one compartment model of drug behavior?
d. An AUC above the extrapolated line that is less than 10% of the total AUC
e. An AUC above the extrapolated line that is less than 5% of the total AUC
f. Slope of the last 3 terminal points differing by more than 10% from the first 3 terminal
points
g. Slope of the last 3 terminal points differing by more than 20% from the first 3 terminal
points
h. Cmax that is above the line extrapolated from terminal points
256. If VD is 40 liters, the drug is confined in?

d. Intracellular fluid d. Whole body fluid
e. Circulatory system e. Deeper tissues
f. Extracellular fluid
257. The dose size used in initiating therapy so as to yield therapeutic concentration which
will result in clinical effectiveness include all the following except
d. I and II d. I, II and IV
e. III and IV e. AOTA
f. I and III
258. The term systemic circulation refers primarily to
d. Veins d. a and b
e. Arteries e. b and c
f. Hepatic portal Vein
259. The term oftenly used to described drug distribution and elimination
d. Elimination only d. Metabolism only

e. Disposition e. NOTA
f. Absorption
260. The principal place for exchange and interchange of biological fluid include
d. Heart d. Body fluids

e. Capillary network e. Lymphatic system
f. Lymphatic vessels
261. The whole body fluid in man comprises approximately
d. 10% of the body weight d. 20% of the total body weight

e. 60% of the total body weight e. 40% of the total body weight
f. 90% of the total body weight
262. Compartments of total body water include
d. Vascular fluid d. Intracellular fluid

e. Extracellular fluid e. AOTA
f. Salivary fluid
263. Test used for determination of plasma volume include

d. Thiosulfate d. Evans blue
e. VD of any nonelectrolyte dissolved in water e. Inulin
f. Bromsulpthalein
264. Test used for determination of whole body fluid include
d. Bromolein
e. VD of any nonelectrolyte dissolved in water
f. Bromsulfthalein
g. Evans Blue
h. Inulin
265. A chemical indicator used in determination of ECF whose action of this drug is
dependent on a colligative property include
d. Mannitol d. Thiosulfate
e. Evans blue e. inulin
131
f. l-albumin
266. The system concerned with the recirculation of the interstitial fluid to the bloodstream
and the maintenance of the consistency of the blodd
d. Lymphatic system d. Circulatory system

e. Respiratory system e. AOTA
f. Digestive system
267. Which of the following physiologic factor is the least influencing drug distribution?
e. Osmotic pressure
f. Particle size
g. Tissue perfusion
h. Diffusional barrier
i. NOTA
268. Maintenance of a steady state which characterized the internal environment of the
healthy organism
d. Steady state d. Maintenance dose

e. Depot phase e. Distribution equilibrium
f. Homeostasis
269. The most common entry of drug into the cell is through:
d. Infusion c. Active transport

e. Levigation d. Diffusion
270. Which of the following statement concerning hydrostatic pressure and absorptive
pressure is true?
d. Represents a pressure gradient between the arterial end of the capillaries entering the
tissue and the venous capillaries leaving the tissue
e. Responsible for the penetration of relatively ionized drugs

f. Allows small drug molecules to be filtered at the glomerulus
g. A and B only
h. AOTA
271. Drugs that are poorly lipid soluble. Polar, or extensively ionized at the pH of the blood
generally
a. Penetrate the CNS very slowly and may essentially be eliminated from the body before a
significant concentration in the CNS is reached
b. Achieved adequate CNS concentration only if given IV
c. Must be metabolized to a more polar form before they can gain access to the CNS
d. Can gain access to the CNS if other drugs are used to modify the blood pH
272. If drug A is more lipophilic than drug B, then
a. Drug A will be better distributed than drug B

b. Drug B will be better distributed than drug A
c. Drug A is an agonist
d. NOTA
e. Either A and B
273. Which of the following poorly perfuse organ or tissues is potential site of drug
accumulation of drugs that has been ingested?
a. Liver d. Lungs
b. Brain e. Blood
c. Bone
274. All the following statements are true concerning drug distribution except
a. Brain capillaries are not fenestrated
b. Hydrophobic drugs given IV would be transported rapidly to the brain
c. A hydrophilic IV drug would be distributed rapidly to the kidneys
d. Fetal placenta limit drug distribution more than the blood brain barrier
e. NOTA
275. To produce its characteristic pharmacologic action/s, a drug must always
a. Reach high blood levels

b. Be absorbed from the GIT
c. Achieve adequate concentration at its site/s of action
d. Be excreted unchanged in the urine
e. NOTA
276. Which if the following factors does not affect the protein binding of drug?
a. The availability of protein for binding

b. The presence of competing substance for protein binding
c. Binding affinity of protein to the drug
d. The concentration of a drug at its receptor site
e. NOTA
277. The extent of protein binding is determined in vitro by the following mechanism except
a. Ultracentrifugation d. electrophoresis
b. Dialysis e. NOTA
c. Endocytosis
278. The major plasma protein involved in the distribution of weak acids is
a. Albumin d. Gelatin
b. Glycoprotein e. Ceruloplamin
c. Glycine
279. Weak bases generally bind to
a. Plasma albumin d. Erythrocytes

b. Alpha 1-acid glycoprotein e. LDL
c. Plasma lipoprotein
280. Which of the following statements is not true about displacement of drug from plasma
protein binding sites?
a. Results is transient increased volume of distribution

b. Makes more free drug available for glomerular filtration
c. Displacement of a potent drug that is normally more than 95% bound may cause toxicity
d. Increases tissue levels of the drug
e. Generally has a smaller VD compared with drugs that are highly bound to plasma
proteins
281. All of the following may shorten the duration of drug effects except
a. Extensive plasma protein binding of the drug

b. Renal excretion of the drug
c. Redistribution of the drug
d. Metabolism of the drugs
e. NOTA
282. Which of the following drugs do not bind to plasma protein to any significant extent
a. Lithium d. Diazepam
b. Digoxin e. AOTA
c. Amitriptyline
283. When comparing a highly protein-bound drug to its less- or nonprotein-bound analog,
the higly protein-bound drug will be probably
a. Have a shorter biologic half-life

b. Have delayed elimination from the body
c. Have decreased pharmacological response
d. Are free drug
284. Consequence resulting from an increased plasma protein binding include all except
a. Increased toxicity as result of displacement

b. Shorten elimination half-life
c. Provides a depot upon chronic dosing
d. Remain inactive until free
e. NOTA
285. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Reduced binding to plasma protein by the drug molecule will decrease the therapeutic
effect of the drug
b. Saturation of binding produces linear pharmacokinetics
c. Only the unbound drug may be available for metabolism and excretion
d. Increase binding will increase free drug concentration
286. If sulfonamide has greater affinity to plasma protein than tolbutamide, what will be the
consequence of taking the 2 drugs concomitantly
a. Increase plasma concentration of tolbutamide
b. Sulfonamide will be displaced bu tolbutamide
c. Increase pharmacologic effect of sulfonamide
d. Increase distribution of sulfonamides
e. AOTA
287. What is the major mechanism of interaction between digoxin and quinidine as a result
of competitive inhibition?
a. Decreased binding of digoxin from plasma protein binding sites

b. Decreased hepatic metabolism of digoxin
c. Decreased renal clearance of digoxin
d. Increased binding of digoxin with ion transporters in the myocardium
e. Increased intestinal absorption of digoxin
288. A neonate is given drug A, a compound with a high affinity for plasma proteins, in a
dose that does not exceed the binding capacity of albumin, Later, a second drug B that
binds strongly to albumin is given in amounts that greatly exceed albumin’s binding capacity.
Which of the following sentences is most likely to be true?
a. The free plasma concentration of drug A is decreased

b. The relative free drug concentration of both compounds is unchanged
c. The concentration of drug A in tissues is likely to be increased
d. The concentration of drug B in tissues is likely to be increased
e. The free plasma concentration of drug B would likely be markedly increased if a drug A
were given second rather than first
289. The volume of distribution of a particular drug will be
a. Greater for drugs that concentrate in the tissues rather than in plasma
b. Greater for drugs that concentrate in the Plasma rather than in plasma
c. Independent of tissue concentration
d. Independent of plasma concentration
e. Approximately the same for all drugs in a given individual
290. The larger the volume of distribution
a. The more extensive the distribution

b. The higher the physiological significance
c. The slower the distribution
d. a and b only
e. AOTA
Problem Solving:
For numbers 291-293
A. A drug with an elimination half-life of 1 hour was given to a male patient (80 kg) by IV infusion
at a rate of 300 mg/hr. At 7 hours after infusion, the plasma drug concentration was 11 µg/mL.
291. What is the rate constant of elimination?
a. 0.093/hr d. 0.693 mcg/hr

b. 1/hr e. none
c. 0.693 mg/hr
292. Calculate the VD
a. 39 L d. 3.9 L
b. 39 mL e. none
c. 3,935 mL
293. Predict what body compartment the drug might occupy
a. ECF d. Deep tissue

b. ICF e. Circulatory system
c. Whole body fluids
For Numbers 294-296

B. Following the IV administration of a drug, a patient weighing 70 kg was found to have 70,000
mcg/mL of drug present in the blood. Assuming apparent volume of distribution is 10% of body
weight, elimination rate constant is 0.231/hr and following first-order kinetics.
294. Calculate the plasma concentration after 4 hours
a. 700 mg/mL d. 700 mvg/mL

b. 27.785 mg/mL e. none
c. 10 mcg/mL
295. What is the half-life?
a. 0.231/h d. 3 hours
b. 3 days e. none
c. 2.310/day
296. Assuming the drug is no longer effective when levels decline to less than 10,00 ug/mL.
When should you administer the next dose?
a. 6 hours d. 10 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 8 hours
297. Immediately after an IV dose of 5 mg, the apparent volume of distribution of

chlordiazepoxide has been determined to be 34 liters. Calculate the expected drug plasma
concentration of the drug in mcg/mL.
a. 0.1471 mg/L d. 0.1471 mg/mL

b. 0.1471 mcg/L e. none
c. 0.1471 mcg/mL
298. Phenobarbital if the drug is given to a 60 kg patient as a 65mg tablet once daily with
bioavailablity of 90%. The drug has a volume of distribution of 0.5L/kg body weight and a
half-life of 100 hrs. What is the concentration at steady state?
a. 13.027 mcg/L d. 13.027 mg/mL

b. 13.027 mg/mL e. none
c. 13.027 mcg/mL
299. Mr. Jones is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia due to gram-negative bacteria.
The antibiotic tobramycin is ordered. The ClT andVD of tobramycin in Mr. Jones are 80
mL/min and 40 L respectively. What maintenance dose should be administered IV every 6
hours to eventually obtain average steady-state plasma concentrations at 4mg/L?
a. 115.2 mg d. 115.2 mg.min

b. 115.2 mcg
c. 115.2 g
300. A new broad- spectrum antibiotic was administered by rapid in injection to a 50-kg
woman at a dose of 3mg/kg. The apparent volume of distribution was equivalent to 5% of
the body weight. The elimination half-life for this drug is 2 hours. If 90% the total amount of
unchanged drug was recovered in the urine, what is the renal excretion rate constant?
a. 0.312/hr d. 0.021/hr
b. 0.0021/hr e. none
c. 0.0312/hr
PHARMACOLOGY, TOXICOLOGY, PHARMACOKINETICS
1. Two dose-response curve response plotted on the same graph showed sigmoid curves having the same
slope and height. T curve is located to the right of the A curve. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding curves A an:
I. A is more effective than B

II. A is more potent than B
III. A and B have the same ceiling dose
IV. B is the graph produced when A is given with its competitive antagonist
V. B is the graph produced when A is given with its non-competitive antagonist
a. Only I and III are correct

b. Only II, III and IV are correct
c. Only II and IV are correct
d. Only III and V are correct
e. Only V is correct
2. Two dose-response curve plotted on the same graph showed sigmoid curves A and B, where A is at the left
of the graph with the height greater than B. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding
curves A and B?
I. A and B has equal efficacy

II. A and B have equal potency
III. B is a partial agonist of A
IV. B is the graph produced when A is given with its competitive antagonist
V. B is the graph produced when A is given with its non-competitive antagonist
a. Only I and III are correct
b. Only II, III and IV are correct
c. Only II and IV are correct
d. Only III and V are correct
e. Only V is correct
3. The cumulative number of subjects who display a certain rersponse or effect to a drug is plotted on a graph
as shown below. The graph on the left represents beneficial effect while the graph on the right represents
toxic effect, what is the therapeutic index of the drug?
a.0.5 b. 1.5 c. 2.5 d.4.0 e. 5.0

4. An administration of one drug leads to a shift in the log dose-response curve of another drug to the left a
range in the maximal efficacy, this is called
a. Agonism
b. Partial agonism
c. Non-competitive antagonism
d. Competitive antagonism
e. Potentiation
5. The action of this drug is dependent on a colligative property
a. Mannitol
b. Cocaine
c. Reserpine
d. Furosemide
e. Losartan
6. Whiich of the following drug groups have mechanisms of aaction that involve binding to enzymes as target
protiens
a. Benzodiazepines
b. Barbiturates
c. Calcium channel blockers
d. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents
e. Phenothiazine antipsychotics
7. Voltage-gated ion channels serve as site of actions for drugs such as
I. Diltiazem and Nifedipine
II. Lidocaine and Procaine
III. Captopril and Losartan
a. I only
b. I and II
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
8. Drugs with mechanism of action that involves Tubulin-binding leading to loss of function of the structural
protien include
a. Cyclosporine
b. Neostigmine
c. Colchicine
d. Glibenclamide
e. Metformin
9. What type of protien is primarily targeted by Digitalis glycosides when they exert their effect on the heart?
a. Receptors
b. Ion channels
c. Enzymes
d. Transporters
e. Structural protiens
10. Which of the following features cahracterize nicotinic, GABA-A, and Glutamate receptors?
a. Thay control the movements of ions and out of the cell
b. Their action is mediated bysecondary messengers
c. They all have excitatory effect on the cell membrane
d. They are located on the cytoplasm
11. Which of the following drugs bind to receptors located at the cell membrane?
a. Thyroid hormone
b. Prednisone
c. Estrogen
d. Insulin
e. Vitamin D
12. Cyclic Adenosine Monophophate (cAMP) is generated as a secondary messenger by the action of the
enzyme Adenylyl Cyclase. The substrate for the synthesis of cAMP is
a. AMD
b. ADP
c. ATP
d. GTP
e. Adenosine
13. Stimulation of Beta-adrenoceptor, a G-protien-linked receptor involves a generation of a secondary
messenger known as
a. IP3
b. cGTP
c. DAG
d. cAMP
e. Calcium ions
14. What is the mechanism of action of Sildenafil, a drug popularly known as viagra?
a. Inhibits phosphodiesterase (PDE) leading to increase cAMP
b. Inhibits PDE leading to increase cGMP
c. Stimulates adenylyl cyclase leading to increase cAMP
d. Stimulates guanylyl cyclase leading to increase cGMP
e. Inhibits phosphodiesterase leading to increase cGMP
15. Drugs that activate the phospholipase C-inositol phosphate system such as alpha-adrenergic agonists like
phenylephrine primarily cause an increase in the intracellular levels of which ion?
a. Calcium
b. Magnesium
c. Sodium
d. Potassium
e. Chloride
16. Which of the following stetements characterizes competitive antagonism?
a. There is a shift of the agonist log concentration-effect curve to the right and downwards
b. There is a shift of the agonist log concentration-effect curve to the right without a change on the
slope or amplitude
c. There is an exponential relationship between dose ratio and antagonist concentration
d. There is no competition for the binding sites
e. There is a shift of the agonist log-concentration effect curve to the left without a change in slope
and amplitude
17. The minimum dose that produces the maximum achievable response is known as
a. Potency
b. ED50
c. LD50
d. Ceiling dose
e. Minimum effective dose
18. The medium dose, or the dose of the drug that produces half of the maximum achievable response is called
a. Potency d. Ceiling dose
b. LD50 e. Binding constant
c. Therapeutic index
19. What is described by the equation given as follows:
Response=f (EN total . Xa / (Xa + Ka)
a. Relationship between occupancy of receptor and the dose of the drug
b. Relationship between occupancy of receptor and response to the drug
c. Relationship between the dose of the drug and the response to the drug
d. Relationship between the number of receptors and the dose of the drug
e. Relationship between the response to the drug and the transducer function of the tissues
20. Competitive antagonist of the receptors of Dopamine and Benzodiazepine are expected to produced which
effect?
a. Reversal of the intrinsic activity of the receptors
b. Maintain the consitutive activity of the receptors
c. Stimulate the constitutive activity of the receptors
d. Stimulate the constitutive activity of the recptorsin the absence of any ligand
e. Produce a negative efficacy
21. The PT-INR of a patient with Warfarin has been maintained at 2.5 for the last 3 months. 1 week earlier, the
patient was given Phenobarbital. What can be expected with the PT-INR of the patient?
a. Increased PT-INR
b. Decreased PT-INR
c. Maintained PT-INR
22. Phenobarbital when given to a patient on chronic warfarin is classified as
a. Pharmacodynamic antagonist
b. Pharmacokinetic antagonist
c. Physiologic antagonist
d. Synergistic agonist
e. Additive agonist
23. Digibind which effetively terminates the action of Digitalis glycosides is classified as what type of
antagonist?
d. Chemical antagonist
e. Non-competitive antagonist
24. Omeprazole can inhibiy gastric acid secretion induced by Histamine and Acetylcholine. It is thus classified
as what type of antagonist?
d. Chemivall antagonist
e. Non-competitive antagonist
25. Which of the following mechanism may explain the development of tolerance to drugs?
a. Increase in the quantity of mediators
b. Decreased metabolic degradation of the active drug
c. Decreased excretion or extrusion of drugs from cells
d. Downregulation of receptors
e. Inactivation of counterregulatory physiologic response
26. The prerequisite that drugs must be present in aqueous solution for them to be absorbed is true if the drugs
are absorbed by which mechanism?
I. Passive transport
II. Carrier-mediated transport
III. Pinocytosis
a. I only
b. I and II
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
27. According to the Fick’s Diffusion Equation, the rate of transport of a drug by passive diffusion is
a. Independent of the concentration gradient
b. Inversely proportional to the membrane surface area
c. Inversele proportional to the membrane thickness
d. Inversely proportional to the partition coefficient
e. Independent of the diffusion constant of drug
28. Which of the following feature common to all carrier-mediated transport processes?
a. Movement is along a concentration gradient
b. Involves non-specific binding to carriers
c. Can be characterized by allosteric inhibition
d. Displays a Michaelis-Menten Kinetics
e. Non-energy requiring
29. Which of the following substances may be absorbed significantly by pinocytosis
a. Vitamin K
b. Cyanocobalamin
c. Cardiac glycosides
d. Quarternary ammonium compounds
e. Inorganic and organic electrolytes
30. 100ml of aqueous solutionof a given drug has a concentration of 25%.50ml of Octanol was added and after
equlibration, the concentration of the drug in the aqueous layer was 5%. What is the apparent lipid-water
partition coefficient of the drug?>
a. 0.2
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6
e. 8
31. For drugs that are given constant rate, the time to reach steady rate state concentration dependent on
a. Rate of administration
b. Biologic half-life
c. Volume distribution
d. Peak plasma concentration achieved
e. Amount of the drug in the body
32. A given drug has a biologic half life of 4 hours. How much of the drug will remain in the body 12 hours
after a single dose?
a. 75%
b. 50%
c. 25%
d. 12.5%
e. 6.25%
33. In compartmental analysis of serum drug concentration versus time plots, which of the following findings
confirm a one compartment model of drug behavior?
a. An AUC above the explorated line that is less than 10% of the total AUC
b. An AUC above the explorated line that is less than 5% of the total AUC
c. Slope of the last 3 terminal points differing by more than 10% for the slope of the first 3 terminal
points
d. Slope of the 3 terminal points differing by less than 20% from the slope of the 3 terminal points
e. Cmax that is above the line explorated from the terminal points
34. What should be the rate of infusion of Theophylline if the desired plasma concentration is 10ug/mL in a 70
kg patient?Theophylline has a clearance of 0.6mL/minute per kg body weight.
a. 6ug/min
b. 4.2ug/min
c. 17ug/min
d. 420ug/min
e. 1167ug/min
35. A given drug with a half life of 8 hours is being administered at 100mg every 8 hours. What is the amount
remaining in the body after 32nd hour, just before administering the next dose?
a. 50mg
b. 75mg
c. 87.5mg
d. 93.75mg
e. 100mg
36. What is the con centration at steady state of Phenobarbital if the drug is given to a 60kg patient as a 65mg
tablet once daily with a bioavailability of 90%? The drug has volume distribution of 0.5liters/KBW and
t1/2 of 100hrs
a. 0.10mg/L
b. 1.50mg/L
c. 11.70mg/L
d. 22.20mg/L
e. 48.20mg/L
37. A 47 year old female diabetic is maintained on Tolbutamide for control of her hyperglycemia. Her fasting
blood sugar is maintained at 102mg%. Three days prior to admission, she self-medicated with
Indomethacin due to a joint pain. She was admitted at the emergency room unconscious and difficult to
arouse. What laboratory finding may be consistent with the history of the patient?
a. Capillary blood glucose of 20mg/dL
b. Capillary blood glucose of 400mg/dL
c. ALT level that is 3x elevated
d. ALT level that is 6x elevated
e. Platelet level of 100,000/ul
38. A drug molecule does not possess biologic activity by itself but it converted in the body to an active
metabolite is called a/an
a. Orphan drug
b. Prodrug
c. Prototype drug
d. Parent drug
e. Metabolic drug
39. Astemizole and Terfenadine have been withdrawn from the market because of their intrinsic cardiotoxicity.
Tha risk of cardiotoxicity is increased with concominant intake of Grapefruit juiceor Erythromycin. The
explanation for this interaction is
a. Displacemnet from the protien binding of Astemizole or Terfenadine by Grapefruit juice of
Erythromycin
b. Decreased urinary excretion of Astemizole and Terfenadine
c. Inhibtion of the CYP3A4 enzyme by Grapejuice or Erythromycin
d. Increased absorption of Astemizole or Terfenadine
e. Induction of metabolism of Astemizole and terfenadineby Grapefruit juice or Erythromycin
40. Paients who are poor Debrisoquin metabolizers have decreased activity of which enzyme system
a. CYP 1A2
b. CYP 2C9
c. CYP 2D6
d. CYP 2C19
e. CYP 3A4
41. A patient has been assessed to have poor Debrisoquin metabolizing capability. Which of the following
drugs will have an increased likelihood of causing toxicity in this patient?
a. Thioridazine
b. Amiodarone
c. Acetaminophen
d. Warfarin
e. Theophylline
42. What is considered as dominant phase I metaabolic reaction?
a. Oxidation
b. Reduction
c. Hydrolysis
d. Glucuronidation
e. Acetylation
43. Chloramphenicol when given to a nenonate or premature baby causes cardiovascular collapse manifestin as
the so-called “Gray Baby Syndrome” This toxicity in such subsets of the patients is due to what age-related
biologic feature?
a. Decreased protien binding
b. Decreased urinary excretion of the metabolite
c. Deficiency of Glucuronosyl acyl transferase
d. Increased metabolism by nitro-reduction
e. Increased volume of distribution
44. Cimetidine, Ketoconazole, and Allopurinol share a common pharmacokinetic property that predisposes
patients taking other drugs concominantly with any of these agents to toxicity. What is this property?
a. Inhibition of tubular secretion
b. Increased systemic absorption
c. Protien binding dsiplacement
d. Enzyme induction
e. Enzyme inhibition
45. Biotransformation of orally administerd drugs occuring primarily in the liver that reduces the amount of
drug finally entering the systemic circulation is often referred to as __________.
a. Enterohepatic recirculation
b. Gastric emptying
c. Elimination
d. First-pass effect
e. Enzyme induction
46. Charcoal-broiled foods, cruciferous vegetables and omeprazole induce the metabolism of drugs like
tomoxifen, acetaminophen, theophylline and warfarin. This effect is due to induction of which CYP
isoform?
a. CYP1A2
b. CYP2A6
c. CYP2C9
d. CYP2D6
e. CYP4A4
47. In a patient with hepatic encelopathy, which of the following agents may lead tosevere drug toxicity even
when given at usual doses?
a. Diazepam
b. Oral Neomycin
c. Lactulose
d. Propanolol
e. IV Gentamicin
48. Which of the following features charcterizes the autonomic nervous system
a. Single neuron transmission
b. 0
c. Effects are under volitional control
d. Conveys outpus from the CNS to the skeletal muscles
e. Terminal neurotransmitter is mainly Serotonin
49. The preganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system originate from which roots?
a. Cranial nerves III, VII, IX, X
b. Sacral roots S1- S4
c. Cervical roots C1-C7
d. Thoracolumbar roots
50. What neurotransmitter is released by preganglionic fibers as a response to sympathetic stimulation?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Epinephrine
d. Serotonin
e. Dopamine
51. What is the dominant ganglionic receptor found in most sympathetic fibers?
a. Alpha-1
b. Alpha-1
c. Beta-1
d. Nicotinic
e. Muscarinic
52. What is the neurotransmitter mainly released by postganglionic parasympathetic fibers?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Epinephrine
d. 5-Hydroxyryptamine
e. Dopamine
53. Which of the following non-adrenergic, non-cholinergic neurotransmitters is involved in the action of the
enteric nervous system?
a. ATP
b. Dopamine
c. GABA
d. Glutamate
e. Glycine
54. In synaptic neurotransmission, which of the following ions plays a significant role in neurotransmitter
release
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Magnesium
d. Calcium
e. Chloride
55. The primary mechanism of neuro transmitter release is accomplished by what process?
a. Diffusion
b. Carrier-mediated
c. Active transport
d. Facilitated transport
e. Exocytosis
56. What is the amino acid precursor in the synthesis of catecholamines?
a. Phenylalanine
b. Glycine
c. Tyrosine
d. Tryptamine
e. Glutamic acid
57. In the biosynthesis of Norepinephrine, what step is considered rate-limiting?
a. Active uptake of Tyrosine
b. Conversion of tyrosine to dihydroxyphenylalanine
c. Conversion of DOPA to dopamine
d. Uptake of Dopamine in presynaptic storage vesicles
e. Conversion of Norepinephrine to Epinephrine
58. Which of the following substances exert a negative feedback control on Tyrosine Hydroxylase which
serves as the mechanis for moment-to-moment regulation of the rate catecholamine synthesis?
a. Dopamine
b. Acetylcholine
c. DOPA
d. Epinephrine
e. Norepinephrine
59. Reserpine, an alkaloid from Rauwolfia, can lower the blood pressure and depress the CNS. What enzyme
or part of the biosynthetic pathway is inhibited by Reserpine to bring about these effects?
a. DOPA decarboxylase
b. Storage of catecholamines in the presynaptic vesicles
c. Release of Norepinephrine from presynaptic terminals
d. MAO enzymes
e. Uptake-1 mechanism
60. What is the most important mechansim of termination of effects of released Norepinephrine which is the
target of action of tricyclic antidepressants and Cocaine
a. Degradation of COMT
b. Degradation of MAO
c. Sequestration into cells
d. Reuptake into the presynaptic terminal
e. Binding to presynaptic alpha-2 receptors
61. What is the main final metabolite of Norepinephrine and Epinephrine which when abnormally elevated is
often used as a marker for the disease Pheochromocytoma?
a. Dihydroxymandelic acid
b. 3-Methoxy-4 hydromandelic acid
c. 3-Methoxy-4 hydroxyphenylglycol
d. 3,4-Dihydroxyphenylglycol
e. Normetanephrine
62. Which of the following is an expected respose to alpha-1 adrenoceptor stimulation?
a. Uterine smooth muscle relaxation
b. Gastrointestinal sphincter constriction
c. Ciliary muscle relaxation
d. Gastrointestinal wall smoothe muscle contraction
e. Platelet aggregation
63. A male patient wishes to purchase an over-the-counter tablet for colds. Which of the following data you
gathered during an initial interview of the patient should prevent you from dispensing the medication?
I. The patient is currently taking Nifedipine GITTS
II. The patient is currently on Tranylcypromine
III. The patient is an elderly with history of urinary hesitancy, intermittency, and frequency
a. I only
b. I and II
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
64. Stimulation of Alpha-1 receptors leads to the formation of important secondary messengers that promote
calcium release and activation of protien kinase C. These secondary messengers responsible for the effects
of alpha-1 stimulation include which of the following?
a. Inositol triphosphate
b. Cyclic adenosine monophophate
c. Adenosine triphosphate
d. Cyclic guanosine monophosphate
e. Adenosine diphosphate
65. In which of the following clincal conditions are the agonists of the alpha-1 adrenoceptors found to be
useful?
I. Nasal congestion
II. Hypotension
III. Sympomatic bradycardia
a. I only
b. I and II
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
66. Which of the following effects can be attributed to alpha-2 receptor stimulation?
I. Vasodilation
II. Inhibition of catecholamine release
III. Vasoconstriction
a. I only
b. I and II
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
67. A given adrenergic agent induces uterine relaxation and bronchial smooth muscle relaxation. These effects
can be attributed to:
a. Alpha-1 stimulation
b. Alpha-2 stimulation
c. Beta-1 inhibition
d. Beta-1 stimulation
e. Beta-2 stimulation
68. What is the dominant adrenergic receptor in the heart?
a. Dopamine-1
b. Alpha-1
c. Alpha-2
d. Beta-1
e. Beta-2
69. Which of the following effects is/are consistent with the systemic use of the drug Clonidine?
I. Initial transient increase in blood pressure
II. “First-dose” phenomenon
III. Lowering of the blood pressure
a. I only
b. I and II
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I. II, and III
70. In terms of mechanism of action, which of the following drugs most closely resembles that of Clonidine?
a. Phenylphrine
b. Reserpine
c. Guanethidine
d. Methyldopa
e. Amlodipine
71. Epinephrine is considered as the first line for the management of anaphylaxis and anaphylactic shock.
Which of the following explain/s the mechanism of action of Epinephrine in anaphylaxis and anaphylactic
shock?
I. Inhibition of Histamine release by beta-2 receptor activation
II. Alpha-1 activation leading to vasoconstriction
III. Beta-2 activation leading to bronchodilation
a. I only
b. I and II
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
72. The activity of this drug is attributed to its metabolite which is a false neurotransmitter at the central
nervous system
a. Guanethidine
b. Methyldopa
c. Propanolol
d. Labetalol
e. Phenylpropanolamine
73. Which of the following inotropic agents is most useful for paatient with acute heart failure complicated by
acute reduction in creatinine clearance?
a. Epinephrine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Dopamine
d. Dobutamine
e. Digitalis
74. In the adrenal medulla, norepinephrine is converted to epinephrine by the action of which enzyme?
a. DOPA decarboxylase
b. Tyrosine hydroxylase
c. Cathecol-0- nethyl transferase
d. Monoamine oxidase
e. Phenylethylamine N-methyl transferase
75. As an inotropic agent, Norepinephrine (Levophed) has been shown in some small clinical trials to be most
useful in which of the following conditions?
a. Cardiogenic shock
b. Septic shock
c. Acute renal failure
d. Acute myocarditis
e. Dilated cardiomyopathy
76. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the drug methyldopa
I. Is current clinical use is in the management of hypertension in pregnancy
II. It is associated with warm antibody type of immunohemolytic anemia
III. Toxic doses are associated with hepatotoxicity
a. I only
b. I andII
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
77. What are known clinical uses beta-2 agonists?
I. In the management of premature labor
II. As part of the interventions employed for hyperkalemia
III. Management of bronchial asthma
a. I only
b. I andII
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
78. Which of the following agents is classified as a selective direct-acting beta-2 agonist?
a. Propanolol
b. Mathoxamine
c. Isoxsuphrine
d. Prazosin
e. Ephedrine
79. During the conduct of ACLS, what is the recommended dosing ofor Epinephrine in adults?
a. 1mg every 3-5 minutes
b. 3mg every 3-5 minutes
c. Escalating dose, staring at 1mg then increasing by 1mg every 3-5 minutes
d. 10ml of a 1:1000 solution every 3-5 minutes
80. Which of the following is an accepted indication for Epinephrine?
a. Bronchodilator fo intermittent bronchial asthma
b. Local vasoconstrictor
c. Anti-arrythmic for supraventricular tachycardia
d. Tocolytic agent for premature labor
e. Inotropic for cardiogenic shock
81. A dominant alpha-1 agonist effect is expected when Epinephrine is given as an IV infusion at what doses?
a. <10ng/kg/min
b. 10-50ng/kg/min
c. 10-80ng/kg/min
d. At least 120ng/kg/min
82. What is the clinical use of the Dopamine-1 agonist Fenoldopan?
a. Chronic treatment of Congestive Heart Failure
b. Acute treatment of Pheochromocytoma
c. Acute treatment of Hypertension
d. Chronis treatment of Supraventricular Tachycardia
e. Acute treatment of Congestive Heart failure
83. Which of the following adrenergic agents is/are most useful for hypodynamic septic shock with
hypotension
I. Dopamine
II. Dobutamine
III. Norepinephrine
a. I only
b. I andII
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
84. At what dose should Dopamine be given as IV infusion to produce a predominantly dopaminergic effect?
a. 0.5 ug/kg/min
b. 5-10ug/kg/min
c. 10-20ug/kg/min
d. 20-50ug/kg/min
e. >50ug/kg/min
85. Guanfacine and Guanabenz are primarily agonists at what receeptors?
a. Muscarinic-1
b. Nicotinic-N
c. Presynaptic alpha-2
d. Postsynaptic alpha-2
e. Alpha-1
86. Which of the following is/are correct clinical indication for the drug Terbutaline
I. Subcutaneously given as management of recalcitrant acute exacerbations of bronchial asthma
II. To increase heart rate in symptomatic bradycardia
III. Adjunct treatment of malignant hypertension
a. I only
b. I andII
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
87. Which of the following drugs primarily stimulates beta-1 receptors?
a. Dobutammine
b. Ritodrine
c. Yohimbine
d. Phenoxybenzamine
e. Oxymetazoline
88. A new drug is currently being developed whose mechanism of action is stimulation of the beta-3 receptors.
In which condition will this drug have most likely usefulness?
a. Obesity
b. Bronchial asthma
c. Hypertension
d. Shock
e. Acute renal failure
89. A patient complains of muscle weakness after several doses of Salbutamol nebulization. This condition can
be attributed to _______________?
a. Hypokalemia induced by Salbutamol therapy
b. Hypocalcemia induced by Salbutamol therapy
c. Metabolic alkalosis due to bronchial asthma
d. Decreased firing of neuromuscular junction fibers as a direct effect of Salbutamol
e. Respiratory alkalosis due to bronchial asthma
90. Which of the following beta-blockers also has peripheral vasodilating effect similar to Prasozin?
a. Propanolol
b. Betaxolol
c. Nadolol
d. Bisoprolol
e. labetalol
91. Which of the following beta-blockers is considered cardio selective?
a. Labetalol
b. propanolol
c. pindolol
d. Esmolol
e. Timolol
92. Rebound tachycardia and hypertension are expected complications of abrupt withdrawal of beta-blocker
therapy. Which of the followingagents has the least likelihood of causing rebound effects when withdrawn?
a. Labetalol
b. Propanolol
c. Pindolol
d. Metropolol
e. Timolol
93. Which of the following beta-blockers has the shortest duration of action (half-life = 10 minutes) making is
useful for administration as continuous IV infusion with rapid achievemnet of a steady state concentration
a. Metoprolol
b. Esmolol
c. Atenolol
d. Propanolol
e. Pindolol
94. Which of the following beta-blockers has/have been proven in clinical trials to be useful in the management
os stable congestive heart failure
I. Carvedilol
II. Bisoprolol
III. Metoprolol
a. I only
b. I andII
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
95. In which of the following conditions are beta-blockers found to be useful?
I. Hypothyroidism
II. Raynaud’s Phenomenon
III. Initial therapy in Pheochromocytoma
a. I only
b. I andII
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
96. Among diabetic patients using insulin or oral hypoglycemic agents (OHAs) why are beta-blockers are used
with special caution if not totally avoided?
a. Beta-blockers can induce hyperglycemia
b. Beta-blockers can mask hypoglemic symptoms
c. Beta-blockers can attenuate effect of insulin and OHAs
d. Beta-blockers can induce insulin or OHA failure
e. Beta-blockers can increase the risk of renal failure
97. In which subset/s of patients are beta-blockers used with caution if not avoided?
I. Patients with bronchospastic disease like COPD and bronchial asthma
II. Patients with peripheral vascular disease especially vasospastic type
III. Patients with recent myocardial infarction
a. I only
b. I andII
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
98. A 44-year old patient is started a week ago on the following medications: Metoprolol 100mg BIB,
Diltiazem 30mb tablet BID and Indapamide 1.5 mg OD for poorly controlled hypertension and chronic
stable angina pectoris. She is now admitted at the ICU for dizziness and two episodes of syncope. Her heart
rate was 45 beats/min. What course of action would you suggest?
a. Continue her medication and suggest for a 12-lead ECG
b. Stop Metoprolol and request for a 12-lead ECG
c. Stop Diltiazem and request for a 12-lead ECG
d. Stop indapamide and Diltiazem and request for a 12-lead ECG as well as serum potassium
measurement
e. Stop Metoprolol and Diltiazem and request for a 12-lead ECG
99. Methylphenidate and Dextroamphetamine are centrally acting sympathomimetics which have found use in
which of the following conditions?
a. Manic-depression
b. Alcohol withdrawal
c. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
d. Generalized anxiety disorder
e. Hypotensive epidoses
100. Which of the following effects is are consistent with direct stimulationof the muscarinic receptors?
I. Peripheral vasodilation
II. Relaxation of the ciliary muscles
III. Negative dromotropic effect
a. a. I only
b. I andII
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
101. The effect of muscarinic receptor activation in tissues like the exocrine glands and the extravascular smooth
muscles have been linked with the generation of which second messenger molecule?
a. IP3
b. cAMP
c. cGMP
d. ATP
e. Adenosine
102. What is thw physiologic event that follows stimulation of the N M type cholinergic receptors?
a. Opening of inward chloride channels
b. Opening of outward potassium channels
c. Opening of inward sodium channels
d. Opening of the outward calcium channels
e. Opening of the outwad sodium channels
103. Bethanecol is clinically used for which of the following conditions?
a. Urinary retention in neurogenic bladder
b. Intestinal obstruction
c. Chronic glaucoma
d. Supraventicular tachycardia
e. Congestive heart failure
104. What is/are the clinical use/s of Edorphonium (Tensilon)?
I. Reverse the effect of neuromuscular blockers after surgery
II. Treatment of overdose of atropine
III. Management of organophosphate poisoning
a. I only
b. I andII
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
105. Ambenonium, neostigmine, and pyridostigmine are most commonly used for which condition?
a. Atropine overdose
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Bronchial asthma
d. COPD
e. ADHD
106. Tacrine, Donepezil, Rivastigmine and Galantamine are indicated for which of the following condition?
a. Supraventricular tachycardia
b. Curare-induced muscle paralysis
c. Accomodative esotropia
d. Alzheimer’s disease
e. Glaucoma
107. Which of the following agents maybe used for the management of glaucoma?
I. Piocarpine-Physostigmine combination therapy
II. Ecothiophate
III. Demecarium
a. I only
b. I andII
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
108. Which of the following findings maybe consistent with an overdose of or accidental exposure to an
organophosphate
a. Constipation
b. Mydriasis
c. Peeripheral vasodilation
d. Emesis
e. Decreased sweating
109. Which of the following effects can be attributed to atropine?
I. Ciliary muscle contraction
II. Contraction of the papillary constrictor muscles
III. Blockade of vagal slowing of the heart
a. I only
b. I andII
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
110. In comparison to other aantimuscarinic agents, Scopolamineis expected to exert significant CNS effects
due to:
a. Its being a tertiary amine
b. Its being a quarternary amine
c. The presence of a benzene ring structure
d. The tropic acid structureits isomeric structure
111. Ipratropium, Oxytropium, and Tiotropium and antimuscarinic agents that are most useful as
a. Mydriatics
b. Cycloplegic agents
c. Relaxants of bronchial smooth muscles
d. Inhibitors of involuntary muscle contractions
e. Inhibitors of bronchial gland secretions
112. Oxynutinin, Dicyclomine, and Glycopyrrolate are clinically useful for which of the following conditions?
a. Cholinomimetic agent overdose
b. Gastrointestinal hypermotility and urinary incontinence
c. Angina due to coronary artery vasospasm
d. Motion sickness and Parkinsonism
e. COPD and bronchial asthma
113. In most patients admitted to atropine overdose, most poison control experts recommend which of the
following measures as primary management?
I. Temperature control with cooling blankets
II. Physostigmine as initial therapy
III. Diazepam for seizure control
a. I only
b. I andII
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
114. Poisoning resulting from ingestion of high dose quarternary antimuscarinic agents can be best managed
with which of th following agents?
a. Physostigmine
b. Neostigmine
c. Policarpine
d. Atropine
e. Scopolamine
115. Which of the following is/are important contraindication to the use of antimuscarinis agents or drugs with
atropine-like properties?
I. History of prostatic hyperplasia
II. Glaucoma
III. Hypertension
a. I only
b. I andII
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
116. Trimethaphan is expected to produce which of the following effects?
a. Excessive sweating
b. Pupillary constriction
c. Diarrhea
d. Urinary incontinence
e. Hypotension
117. What is the mechanism of skeletal muscle paralysis produces by Succinylcholine?
a. Competitively inhibits binding of acetylcholine to the NM receptors
b. Increased inward chloride conductance leading to hyperpolarization of the neuromuscular endplate
membrane
c. Sustained depolarization of the motor end plate making it unesponsive to other impulses upon
repolarization cannot easily depolarized
d. Repeated short depolarizations of the motor end plate leading to prolonged state of sodium
channel inactivation
e. Irreversible and non-competitive inhibition of the NM receptors in both the ganglia and motor end
plate with attenuation of depolarizing impulses
118. Which of the following findings is consistent with the skeletal muscle relaxant effect of Pancuronium and
Rocuronium?
a. Effect is enhanced with administration of succinylcholine
b. Effect is reduced with co-administration of tubocurarine
c. Initially cause depolarization of the motor end plate leading to fassiculations
d. Effect is antagonized by Neostigmine
e. Sustained response to tetanic stimulation
119. Which of the following inhilational anesthetics produces greatest augmentation of the effect of
neuromuscular blockers?
a. Isoflurane
b. Sevoflurane
c. Halothane
d. Desflurane
e. Nitrous oxide
120. Anaphylactoid reaction may be seen as a side effect with which of the following neuromuscular blockers?
a. Pancuronium
b. Vecuronium
c. Gallamine
d. Tubocurarine
e. Rocuronium
121. Which of the following statements correctly describes the side effects of succinylcholine?
I. Negative chonotropic and inotropic effects which can be attenuated by atropine
II. Increase risk of emesis among diabetics and obese patients
III. Hyperkalemia when given to burn or trauma patients or patients with close head injury
a. I only
b. I andII
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
122. Which of the following mechanism may explain the ability of beta-blockers to reduce blood pressure in
hypertension?
a. Increased compliance of the capacitance vessels
b. Relaxation of the primary resistance vessels
c. Inhibition of renin release
d. Direct inhibition of Angiotensin II receptors
e. Decrease in total body stores of sodium
123. Which of the following equations describe the factors that contribute to blood pressure?
a. BP=SV/SVR
b. BP=COxSVR
c. BP=SVxHR
d. BP=CO/SVR
e. BP=SVxSVR
124. Which of the following mechanism explains the blood pressure-lowering effect of thiazide diuretics?
I. Reduction in blood volume and cardiac output
II. Increased vascular compliance
III. Decreased proximal tubular reabsorption of water and sodium
a. I only
b. I andII
c. III only
d. I and III
e. I, II, and III
125. Which of the following drugs inhibit enzyme carbonic anhydrase?
a. Dichlorphenamide
b. Tolazamide
c. Astemizole
d. Selegiline
e. Donepezil
126. What is the primary mechanism of action of the drug Indapamide?
a. Inhinition of the 2Cl-Na-K cotransporters in the convoluted tubule
b. Inhibition of the Na-Cl contransporters at the convoluted tubule
c. Inhibition of the Na-Cl cotransporters at the collecting duct
d. Competitive inhibition of aldosterone binding to its receptors
e. Competitive inhibition os vasopressin binding to V2 receptors
127. Which side effect of chlorthalidone is prominent especially among the elderly when Chlorthalidone is
given at a dose of at leats 50mg/day and significantly reduced when doses are maintained below 50mg/day?
a. Hyperuricemia
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Increased in serum LDL
d. Allergic reactions
e. Hyponatremia
128. What is the rationale behind the combination of amiloride and Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)
a. Minimize hyperglycemia due to HCTZ
b. Reduce risk of renal stone formation with HCTZ
c. Reduce hyperkalemia with amiloride
d. Minimize bicarbonaturia with HCTZ
e. Minimize hypokalemia due to HCTZ
129. The action of the drug Eplerenone most closely resembles which of the following agents?
a. Spironolactone
b. Amiloride
c. Triamterence
d. Metolazone
e. Quinethazone
130. Which of the following agents exhibits pharmacodynamic interaction with the thiazide diuretics leading to
a reduced diuretic effect?
a. Furosemide
b. Amiloride
c. Enalapril
d. Hydralzine
e. Digoxin
131. Which of the following mechanism explain the effects of the drug Torsemide and Bumetanide?
a. Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase at the proximal convoluted tubule
b. Inhibition of the Na-K-2Cl co-transporter at the thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henle
c. Inhibition of the Na-Cl co-transporter at the thin ascending limb of the Loop of Henle
d. Inhibition of the Na-Cl co-transporter at the distal convoluted tubule
e. Inhibition of the Na-Cl co-transporter at the distal tubule and collecting duct
132. Which of the following is/are accepted indication/s for the drug Spironolactone?
I. Adjunct in the management of CHF
II. Conn’s Syndrome
III. Nephrogenic Diabetis Insidipus
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
133. Which of the following is/are accepted indication/s for the drug Furosemide?
I. Infusion-diuresis in hypercalcemia
II. Oliguric acute renal failure
III. Acute pulmonary edema
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
134. Which of the folling agents is primarily indicated for the management of increased intracranial pressure
a. Mannitol
b. Acetazolamide
c. Furosemide
d. Chlorthalidone
e. Bumetanide
135. Which of the following agents is most useful for the management of nephrolithiasisndue to idiopathic
hypercalciuria?
a. Ethacrynic acid
b. HCTZ
c. Dorzolamide
d. Vasopressin
e. Triamterene
136. Which of the following statements correctly describes the characteristics of Indapamide as a drug for
hypertension?
I. Its diuretic effect is self-limiting, and may not account for its hypertensive effect after about 2-4
weeks of therapy
II. Long-term use leads to improved blood vessel compliance
III. Has modest vasodilating property
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
137. Which of the following agents maybe associated with ototoxicity which may have increased risk of
occuring when patient also recieve aminoglycoside antibiotic?
a. Furosemide
b. Chlorthalidone
c. Dorzolamide
d. Amiloride
e. Spironolactone
138. Which of the following mechanisms explains best the action of drug methyldopa?
a. The molecule releases norepinephrine in the presynaptic vesicles and is released by nerve
stimulation to interact with postsynaptic adrenergic receptors
b. The molecule is converted first to alpha-methyldopamine and alpha-methylnorepinephrine which
replace norepinephrine in the presynaptic vesicles and are released by nerve stimulation to interact
with postsynaptic adrenergic receptors
c. The molecule is converted first to alpha-methyldopamine and alpha-norepinephrine which
stimulate central alpha receptors
d. The molecule is converted first to alpha-methyldopamine and alpha-norepinephrine which inhibit
central alpha receptors
e. The molecule directly inhibits peripheral alpha and beta receptors
139. What is the most frequent side effect of methyldopa which can be seen particularly at the onset of
treatment?
a. Sedation
b. Depression
c. Extrapyramidal signs
d. (+) coomb’s test
e. Galactorrhea
140. A 45 years old female in clonidine 1.0mg/day for thee last ffour weeks was brought to the hospital for 1
day history of nervousness, tachycardia and abrupt increase in her blood pressure to 180/130mmHg. Her
last intake of clonidine was last 2 days prior to admission. Which of the following is/are appropriate
interventions that you can suggest for the patient?
I. Start patient on Propanolol 50mg BID
II. Re-institute Clonidine 1.0mg/day
III. Start Labetalol 200mg/day
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II
d. II and III
141. Which of the following side effects is/ are common to the three drugs: Hydralazine, Diazoxide, and
Minoxidil?
a. Hypertrichosis
b. Glucose intolerance
c. Reflex tachycardia
d. Lupus-like side effect
e. Dyslipidemia
142. In which subset of patients should Hydralazine be avoided or used with caution?
a. Patients with arrythmias
b. Patient with hypertension
c. Patients with DM
d. Patients with Ischemic Heart disease
e. Patients with CHF
143. Which of the following drugs if combined with Minoxidil may minimize latter drug’s side effect?
a. Hydralazine+HCTZ
b. Guanethidine+Reserpine
c. Metoprolol+Chlorthalidone
d. Amlodipine
e. Amlodipine+Prazosin
144. In the management of Pparoxysmal hypertensionin pheochromocytoma, which of the following drugs is the
most appropriate initial therapy?
a. Phentolamine
b. Metoprolol
c. Guanfacine
d. Reserpine
e. Clonidine
145. Orthostatic hypotension and syncope are manifestations of a phenomenon associated with the first dose of
which agent?
a. Labetalol
b. Methyldopa
c. Fenoldopam
d. Irbesartan
e. Doxazosin
146. The mechanism of action of the drug clonidine most closely resembles that of ______________?
a. Methyldopa
b. Propanolol
c. Carvedilol
d. Guanethidine
e. Reserpine
147. Constipation, Urinary retention, tachycardia, mydriasis and anhidrosis are expected effects based on the
mechanism of action of which of the following drugs?
a. Clonidine
b. Trimethaphan
c. Reserpine
d. Sodium nitropusside
e. Nicardipine
148. Which of the following drugs may be used safely for the control of hypertension in pregnant patients with
pre-eclampsia?
I. Magnesium Sulfate
II. Methyldopa
III. Hydralazine
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, aand III
149. Which of the following mechanisms explains the action of the drug Sodium Nitropusside?
a. Activation of guanylyl cyclase with increase of cGMP
b. Release of N20 with subsequent increase in cAMP
c. Inhibition of the secretion of renin
d. Stimulation of A1 receptors
e. Increase conductance of outward potassium channels
150. Which of the following agents is pure anteriolar vasodilaator?
a. Prazosin
b. Sodium Nitropusside
c. Diazoxide
d. Phentolamine
e. Pindolol
151. Which of the following agents can be used for hypertensive emergencies
I. Enalaprilat
II. Diazoxide
III. Sodium nitropusside
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
152. The decrease in arterial tone due to vasorelaxant action of sodium nitropusside is associated with
a. Increase in smooth muscle cGMP levels
b. Increase in smooth muscle cAMP levels
c. A decrease in calcium entry through L-type channels
d. A local anethetic effect on smooth muscle cells
e. Stimulation of inward K-channel
153. Whgich of the following effects can be attributed to Angiotensin II?
I. Stimulation of release of nitric oxide
II. Stimulation of synthesis and release of Aldosterone
III. Stimulation of release of Norepinephrine
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
154. What is the primary advantage of Angiotensin II receptor blockers over the ACE-Inhibitors?
a. Lesser incidence of coughs
b. Absence of risk interstitial nephritis
c. Safe for pregnant patients with hypertension
d. Faster onset of action
e. Lesser incidence of hyperkalemia
155. Which of the following ACE-Inhibitors require hydrolysis to the active metabolite/s in the body to produce
effects?
I. Enalapril
II. Ramipril
III. Perindopril
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II and III
156. In which of the following conditions are ACE-inhibitors found to be clinically useful as first-line
treatment?
I. Angina pectoris
II. CHF
III. Diabetic Nephropathy
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
157. The efficacy of ACE-inhibitors in the management of hypertension may be reduced in the presence of
certain drugs such as ___________?
a. Ibuprofen
b. Felodipine
c. Indapamide
d. Eprenolone
e. Hydralazine
158. In which subset of patients which are ACE-inhibitors avoided as treatment option?
I. Patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis
II. Patients with hyperkalemia
III. Pregnant patients in their 2nd and 3rd trimesters of pregnancy
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
159. Which of the following calcium channel blockers has greater activity on calcium channels in myocardial
tissues than calcium channels in the vascular smooth muscles?
a. Diltiazem
b. Verapamil
c. Nifedipine
d. Amlodipine
e. Felodipine
160. What is the mechanism of action of the diydropyridine calcium channel blockers?
a. Inhibit the L-type calcium channels in the arteriolar smooth muscles
b. Inhibit the L-type calcium channels in the anteriolar and venous smooth muscles
c. Equally inhibit the L-type calcium channels in the vascular and cardiac tissues
d. Inhibit the S-type calcium channels in the anteriolar smooth muscles
e. Inhibit the S-type calcium channels in the anteriolar and venous smooth muscles
161. In the long-term management of hypertensiion, which of the following agents is/are considered as
appropriate maintenance therapy?
I. Regular Nifedipine capsules
II. Enalapril tablets
III. Indapamide tablets
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
162. What is the most common side effect of Enalapril?
a. Angioedema
b. Interstitial nephritis
c. Coughs
d. Hypotension
e. Drug fever
163. Which of the following anti-hypertensive agents is the most appropriate for elderly male patients with
benign prostatic hyperplasia?
a. Prazosin
b. Amlodipine
c. Metoprolol
d. HCTZ
e. Enalapril
164. Which of the following anti-hypertensive agents may be more appropriate to use for diabetic patients with
evidence of renal disease?
a. Prazosin
b. Amlodipine
c. Metoprolol
d. HCTZ
e. Enalapril
165. Chinese patients are most likely to be more sensitiveto effects of which of the following drugs for
hypertension that lower doses may have to be used?
a. Prazosin
b. Amlodipine
c. Metoprolol
d. HCTZ
e. Enalapril
166. In the management of hypertensive emergencies, which of the following goals or interventions is/are
correct?
I. Rapid normalization of the blood pressure within 24 hours
II. Lowering of the mean arterial pressure by about 25%
III. Initiation of oral hypertensives early as soon adequate blood pressure lowering has been achieved
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
167. Which of the following are important considerations regarding the proper handling of Nitroglycerin
tablets
I. Formulations used in the medicine are explosive
II. Sublingual tablets lose their potency when stored in plastic containers
III. These are sensitive to light
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
168. Which of the availabe nitrovasodilators has a bioavailabilty of about 100%?
a. Isosorbide mononitrate
b. Isosorbide dinitrate
c. Amyl nitrite
d. Glyceryl trinitrate
e. None aqs all undergo significant first pass effect when given orally
169. Which of the following statements most closelydescribes the primary mechanism of action of the
nitrovasodilator?
a. Denitrification by glutathione S-transferase leads to release of nitrite ion which is then converted
to nitric oxide, a molecule that activates adenylyl cyclase leading to increase cAMP
b. Denitrification by glutathione S-transferase leads to release of nitrite ion which is then converted
to nitric oxide, a molecule that activates guanylyl cyclase leading to increase cGMP
c. Nitrate ion released upon denitrification directly stimulas outward K-channels leading to
hyperpolarization of the vascular smooth muscles
d. Nitrate ion released upon denitrification directly stimulas outward K-channels leading to
hyperpolarization of the vascular smooth muscles
e. Nitrate ion released upon denitrification stimulates the production of prostacylin leading to
vasodilation
170. Which of the following tissues exhibit the greatest sensitivity to nitrovasodilators at the lowest effective
doses?
a. Arteries
b. Arterioles
c. Capillaries
d. Veind
e. Myocardial tissues
171. Which of the following statements correctly explains the primary mechanism of relief of angina pectoris
with the use of nitrovasodilators when given at usual doses?
a. Peripheral dilation of the veins leading to reduction in cardiac preload and myocardial oxygen
demand
b. Vasodilation of epicardial coronary arteries leading to improved oxygen delivery to myocardial
tissues
c. Increase in diastolic perfusion time leading to improved perfusion to ischemic myocardium
d. Decrease total peripheral resistance with arteriolar vasodilation
e. Decrease in myocardial contractility leading to reduction in myocardial oxygen demand
172. Which of the following agents classified as nitrovasodilators is useful in the management of cyanide
poisoning?
a. Sodium nitrite
b. Amyl nitrite
c. Sodium thiosulfate
d. Nitroglycerin
e. Isosorbide mononitrate
173. Which of the following nitrovasodilators may induce conversion of hemoglobin to methemoglobin
(methemoglobinemia) which can lead to cyanosis?
a. Nitroglycerin
b. Isosorbide mononitrate
c. Isosorbide dinitrate
d. Tetrathyl trinitrate
e. Amyl nitrite
174. This side effect of nitrovasodilators is explained in part by the depletion of sulfhydryl moieties in vascular
smooth muscles with continuous use of the drugs, and may be partly reversed bysulfhydryl-regenerating
compunds.
a. Tolerance
b. Increased intracranial pressure
c. Reflex tachycardia
d. Methemoglobenia
e. carcinogenicity
175. Which of the following agents is/are considered useful as single agent in the acute treatment of vasospastic
angina pectoris?
I. Nitrovasodilators
II. Beta-blockers
III. Calcium channel blockers
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
176. What is the primary limitation with the use of Dihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blockers in the
management of angina pectoris?
a. Tendency to reduce cardiac preload
b. Tendency to cause reflex tachycardia
c. Tendency to induce reflex vasospam when stopped
d. Tendency to cause peripheral edema
e. Tendency to reduce cardiac end-diastolic pressure
177. What is the most important role of beta-blockers in the management of angina pectoris
a. Causes coronary artery vasodilatation thus useful in the management of acute anginal attacks
b. Dilates the epicardial coronary vessels thus useful in patients with ongoing prinzmetal angina
c. Reduces myocardial oxygen demand by reducing the total peripheral resistance making it useful
for chronic stable angina pectoris
d. Reduces myocardial oxygen demand by reducing myocardial perfusion time making it useful for
chronic stable angina pectoris
e. Reduces myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing myocardial perfusion time making it useful for
all types of angina pectoris
178. Which of the following drugs or drug combination is/are useful in the management of chronic stable
angina pectoris?
I. Regular release Nifedipine capsule
II. Metoprolol tablet
III. Metoprolol tablet + Diltiazem tablet
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
179. What is the principal mechanism of action of cardiac Glycosides?
a. Stimulate the release of calcium for the sarcoplasmic reticulum leading to release in an increase
intracellular calcium
b. Inhibition of the cell membrane outward calcium transporter preventing calcium extrusion
c. Stimulation of inward calcium transporter leading to an increase in intacellular calcium
d. Inhibition of the Na-K-ATPase leading to increase in intracellular sodium and preventing calcium
extrusion
e. Inhibition oh the Na-Ca exchanger in the sarcoplasmic reticulum leading to increase in
intracellular calcium
180. Which of the following statements on pharmacokinetic parameters must be considered for patients taking
Digoxin?
a. In about 10% of patients, use of antibiotics can lead to increased oral bioavailability
b. Renal clearance of the drug is inversely proprtional to the creatinine clearance
c. Half-life is long, at about 168 hours due in part to extensive enterohepatic recirculation
d. Hepatic metabolism accounts for more than 80% of the elimination of the drug
e. It is primarily distributed within the intravascular space due to its high protein binding
181. Which of the following is/are mechanical effects of digoxin on myocardial tissues
I. Increase in contractility of myocardial tissues
II. Increase in conduction velocity in the AV node
III. A positive inotropic effect
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
182. Which of the following is/are expected electrical effect/s of digoxin on myocardial tissues?
I. Decrease in the refractory period of atrial muscles
II. Increase in the refractory period of the AV node
III. A positive inotropic effect
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
183. Which of the following condition may augment the effect of digitalis glycosides in myoccardial tissues?
I. Concurrent use of captopril
II. Reduced oxygenation of myocardial tissues
III. Concurrent administration of calcium gluconate
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
184. Which of the following is/are the primary indication/s of Digitalis Glycosides?
I. First line drug for the initial management of CHF
II. Useful in controlling the rate of ventricular response in atrial fibrillation
III. Useful in pregnant patients with CHF
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
185. What is the major mechanism of interaction between Digoxin and Quinidine?
a. Displacement of digoxin from tissue binding site
b. Decreased hepatic metabolism of digoxin
c. Decresed renal clearance of digoxin
d. Increase binding of digoxin with ion transporters in the myocardium
e. Increase intestinal absorption of digoxin
186. A 50 years old male patient with CHF was started on the following medications: digoxin 0.25 mg OD,
Hydralazine 10mg BID, furosemide 20mg OD, and ISMN 60mg OD. 1 week after initiating therapy, the
patient was admitted for blurring of vision and palpitation. He feels nauseated and has problems
discriminating colors. Which of the following sourses of action is appropriate?
a. Suggest discontinuing Hydralazine and starting patient on amlodipine
b. Suggest giving of metoclopramide for the nausea and examining the probable eye problem
c. Suggest starting patient on beta-blocker therapy
d. Suggest discontinuing digoxin and furosemide and checking for serum K levels for necessary
correction
e. Suggest discontinuing all medications and starting patient instead on an ACE inhibitor, vasodilator
and a thiazide
187. Which of the following intervention may be appropriate in the management of severe cases of digitalis
intoxicationsuch as in children and in suicidal overdose?
I. Administration of digoxin immune fab
II. Aadministration of KCl
III. Administration of MgSO4
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
188. What is considdered as the toxic plasma concentration of digoxin?
a. >0.5mg/mL
b. >150mgng/mL
c. >10ng/mL
d. >5ng/mL
e. >2ng/mL
189. What is the primary use of drugs like Inamirone and Milrinone?
I. Alternative to digoxin in patients with chronic CHF
II. Management for acute heart failure
III. Management of exacerbation of chronic CHF
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
190. What is the mechanism of action of Inamrinone and Milrinone in the management of heart failure?
a. Increase the levels of cAMP by activating the enzyme adenylyl cyclase
b. Increase the levels of cAMP by inhibiting the enzyme phosphodiesterase III
c. Increase the levels of cGMP by inhibiting the enzyme guanylyl cyclase
d. Inhibit the outward calcium flux leading to increased intracellular calcium
e. Primarily cause peripheral vasodilation leading to reduced cardiac preload
191. Inotropic activity oh the heart in CHF can be increased by which of the following agents?
I. Bipyridines
II. ACE inhibitors
III. Beta-1 agonists
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
192. Which of the following agents for the heart failure may be associated with arrythmia, thrombocytopenia,
aand hepatotoxicity which limit their use in patients with chronic CHF?
A. Bipyridines
B. Digitalis glycosides
C. Beta-1 agonists
D. ACE inhibitors
E. Angiotensin II antagonists
193. Which of the following statements correctly describe/s the appropriate use of drugs for CHF
I. Beta-blockers when used for patients with stable CHF can be given at doses similar to the dose
used for hypertension
II. ACE inhibitor dose must be carefully titrated to the maximum allowable or tolerable dose
III. Spironolactone has been found to be most useful as initial drug therapy for CHF even prior to the
use of ACE inhibitors or casodilators
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
194. Which of the following drugs or drug combinations can reduce both the cardiac preload and afterload in
CHF?
I. Hydralazine + Nitrovasodilators
II. Beta-blockers + Loop diuretics
III. Loop diuretics + Digitalis
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
195. Which of the following interventions may be beneficial in the management of CHF?
I. Replacement of chronic digoxi dose with ACE inhibitors
II. Add-on therapt with Aldosterone antagonist on patients already on digoxin or ACE-inhibitors
III. Use of calcium channel blockers in patient who cannot recieve beta-blockers
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
196. Which of the following drugs is a sodium channel blockers that can prolong the duration of the action
potential and dissociates from the channel with intermediate kinetics?
a. Lidocaine
b. Flecainide
c. Quinidine
d. Bretylium
e. Diltiazem
197. Which of the following drugs is a sodium channel blockers which has no significant effect on the duration
of the action potential and dissociate from the channel with slow kinetics?
a. Lidocaine
b. Flecainide
c. Quinidine
d. Bretylium
e. Sotalol
198. Which of the following beta-blockers have been found to be most useful as anti-arrythmic agent/s?
I. Esmolol
II. Metoprolol
III. Propanolol
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
199. Which of the following anti-arrythmic agents has been associated with lupus-like side effects?
a. Quinidine
b. Lidocaine
c. Propafenone
d. Amiodarone
e. Procainamide
200. What is the drug of choice for the management of sustained ventricular arrythmia associated with acute
myocardial infarction?
a. Procainamide
b. Lidocaine
c. Amiodarone
d. Verapamil
e. Adenosine
201. What is the preferred drug for the management of ventricular arrythmias associated with digitalis
intoxication?
a. Procainamide
b. Lidocaine
c. Amiodarone
d. Verapamil
e. Adenosine
202. What is the preferred drug for the management of acute episodes of supraventricular tachycardia?
a. Quinidine
b. Verapamil
c. Amiodarone
d. Bretylium
e. Adenosine
203. What is the preferred drug for the management of chronic paroxysmal supreventricular tachycardia?
a. Quinidine
b. Verapamil
c. Amiodarone
d. Bretylium
e. Adenosine
204. What is the primary mechnism of action of the drug Amiodarone?
a. Prolong the action potential with block of the sodium channels
b. Shorten the action potential with block of the sodium channels
c. Prolong the action potential with block of the potassium channels
d. Shorten the action potential with block of the potassium channels
e. Inhibit intrinsic sympathetic stimulation by preventing activation of the enzyme adenylyl cyclase
205. What side effect/s may be expected with the use of Amiodarone?
I. Hypothyroidism or Htperthyroidism
II. Fatal pulmonary fibrosis
III. Symptomatic bradycardia and heart block particularly in patients with atrioventricular nodal
disease
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
206. Measurement of the serum ALT prior to and during therapy of arrythmia is indicated when which of the
following drugs for arrythmia is/are used?
a. Propafenone
b. Moricizine
c. Amiodarone
d. Flecainide
e. Diltiazem
207. Which of the following calcium channel blockers is most useful in arrythmia therapy?
a. Verapamil
b. Diltiazem
c. Nifedipine
d. Lidocaine
e. Propafenone
208. Which of the following effects can be attributed to histamine binding to its H1 receptor?
I. Extravascular smooth muscle contraction
II. Vascular smooth muscle contraction
III. Gastric acid secretion
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
209. The triple response of Lewis following intradermal injection of Histamine includes which of the
following?
I. Sensory nerve ending stimulation producing flare
II. Erythema caused by contraction of vascular smooth muscles
III. Endothelian cell contraction leading to exudation of fluids
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
210. Which of the following effects may be expected as a direct consequence of blockade of the H1 receptots
I. Sedation
II. Resolution of initial allergic response
III. Anti-nausea and Anti-emetic effect (anti-motion sickness)
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
211. Dimenhydrinate and Diphenhydramine are H1 antihistamines that belong to what chemical class of
agents?
a. Alkylamines
b. Phenothiazine
c. Piperazine
d. Ethanolamine
e. Ethylaminediamine
212. Which of the following agents is used primarily for its sedating property as the active ingredient of an
OTC sleeping aid called Unisom?
a. Carbinoxamine
b. Doxylamine
c. Hydoxyzine
d. Meclizine
e. Tripelenamine
213. What class of H1-antihistamines include drugs that sre used as components of OTC “cold” medications
a. Alkylamines
b. Phenothiazine
c. Piperazine
d. Ethanolamine
e. Ethylaminediamine
214. What is the active metabolite of hydroxyzine which is also available as an H1-antihistamine without
significant sedating side-effect?
a. Fexofenadine
b. Astemizole
c. Cetirizine
d. Loratidine
e. Terfenadine
215. Which of the following H1 anti-histamine chemical groups possess significant atropine-like effect?
a. Alkylamines
b. Phenothiazine
c. Piperazine
d. Ethanolamine
e. Piperidines
216. Which of the following H1-antihistamines has significant blocking effects on 5-HT receptors?
a. Promethazine
b. Cyproheptadine
c. Pyrilamine
d. Carbinoxamine
e. Cetirizine
217. Which of the following H1-antihistamines has significant anti-cholinergic effect to be useful for the
management of dytonia and pseudoparkinsonism associated with the use of neuroleptic agents?
a. Diphenhydramine
b. Brompheniramine
c. Promethazine
d. Cyproheptadine
e. Cyclizine
218. Which of the following H1-antihistamines can block sodium channels in excitable membranes bringing
about local anesthetic effect?
a. Diphenhydramine
b. Meclizine
c. Doxylamine
d. Pyrilamine
e. Cyproheptadine
219. What is the primary mechanism of action of the drug Ondansetron and Granisetron?
a. Partiaal agonist effect at the 5-HT1A receptor
b. Antagonist effect at the 5-HT1B receptor
c. Full agonist effect at the 5-HT2A receptor
d. Antagonist effect at the 5-HT3 receptor
e. Partial agonist effect at the 5-HT4 receptor
220. What is the clinical use of the drugs Ondansetron and Granisetron?
a. Appetite suppressants
b. Anti-emetic
c. Treatment of acute migraine attack
d. Migraine prophylaxis
e. Motility enhancing agent
221. What is the clinical use of the drugs that primarily stimulate the 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D receptors?
a. Appetite suppressants
b. Anti-emetic
c. Treatment of acute migraine attack
d. Migraine prophylaxis
e. Motility enhancing agent
222. Sumatriptan is contrindicated in which subset of patients?
a. Patients with broncospastic disease
b. Patients with acute attacks of migraine
c. Patients with ischemic heart disease
d. Patients with hypertension
e. Patients with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
223. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Arachidonic acid?
I. It is 20-carbon known as eicosapentaenoic acid
II. It is mobilized from phospholipids by the enzyme phospholipase A2
III. It is released from phospholipids by the action of the enzymes phopholipase C and Diglyceride
lipase
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
224. Which of the following eicosanoids is a product of the metabolism of Arachidonic acid by the
cyclooxygenase enzyme?
a. Leukotrienes
b. Isoprostanes
c. Epoxides
d. Lipoxins
e. Prostaglandins
225. Which of the following correctly differentiate/s COX-1 from COX-2 isozymes?
I. COX-1 is widely distributed and constitutively expressed
II. COX-1 is expressed upon stimulation by sytokines and growth factors
III. COX-2 is expressed by inflammatory and immune cells
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
226. Epoprostenol, a drug that is being used in the management of primary pulmonary hypertension is an
analogue of which eicosanoid?
a. PGD2
b. PGI2
c. PGE1
d. PGE2
e. PGF2-alpha
227. Which of the following eicosanoids has an analogue that is primary indicated as cytoprotectant in peptic
ulcer disease?
a. PGD2
b. PGI2
c. PGE1
d. PGE2
e. PGF2-alpha
228. Which of the following effects is caused by Prostacylin?
a. Bronchoconstriction
b. Vasoldilation of the blood vessels
c. Inhibition of gastric acid secretion
d. Contraction of the uterus
e. Inhibition of renin secretion
229. What is the primary indication of the prostaglandin analogue Latanoprost?
a. Management of glaucoma
b. Smooth muscle relaxant in erectile dysfunction
c. Abortifacient
d. Inhibition of platelet aggregation
e. Vasoconstrictor in episodes of hypertension
230. Which of the following statement correctly describes the effects of glucocorticosteroids in eicosanoid
synthesis?
I. Dexamethasone inhibits the expression of the COX-2 gene
II. Glucocorticosteroids inhibit the synthesis of annexins leading to decreased activity of
Phospholipase C
III. Glucocorticosteroids stimulates the syntheis of lipocortins which inhibit the activity of
Phospholipase A2
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
231. Which of the following drugs classified as NSAIDs inhibit/s the COX-1 more than the COX-2 isozymes?
a. Indomethacin
b. Ibuprofen
c. Mefenamic acid
d. Naproxen
e. Celecoxib
232. Which of the following drugs classified as NSAIDs inhibit/s the COX-2 morre than the COX-1 isozymes?
a. Indomethacin
b. Ibuprofen
c. Mefenamic acid
d. Naproxen
e. Celecoxib
233. Which of the following statement/s is correctly describe/s the pharmacokinetics of Aspirin?
I. Aspirin can be absorbed in the stomach and the small intestines in the hydrolyzed form
II. Elimination of aspirin can be best descrined as following a Michaelis-Menten kinetics
III. Acidification of the urine facilitates renal elimination of Salicylates
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
234. Which of the following mechanisms may play a role of anti-inflammatory effect of Aspirin?
I. Decreased synthesis of prostaglandins
II. Inhibition of neutrophil migration and adherence
III. Stabilize iysosomes of neutrophils
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
235. At what usual adult dose of aspirin is its anti-inflammatory effect observed?
a. 0.3-2.4g/day
b. <0.6-4g/day
c. 3.2-4g/day
d. <0.325g/day
e. At all dose range
236. What is the principal mechanism which can explain anti-pyretic effect of Aspirin?
a. Peripheral reduction in the levels of prostaglandins
b. Peripheral vasodilation
c. Inhibition of prostaglandin syntheis at subcortical sites
d. Inhibtion of CNS response to interleukin-1
e. Activation of the thermoregulatory sweat glands
237. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the anti-platelet aggregation effect of Aspirin?
I. Discontinuation of Aspirin immediatel rrestores platelet aggregation in matter of 1-2 days
II. The mechanism involves irreversible actylation of the cyclooxygenase enzyme in platelets
III. The effect is clinically significant in all dose ranges for Aspirin
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
238. Which of the following statements must be considered with regard to the effect of Aspirin aand other
NSAIDs on the gastric mucosa?
I. The risk of GI intolerance can be reduced if Aspirin or any other NSAIDs is taken with meals
II. With Aspirin, the risk of erosive gastritis is obsereved only when Aspirin is given at doses
>0.325g/day
III. Gastric irritation is most prominent among NSAIDs that inhibit COX-1 more than COX-2
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
239. Which of the following drug is currently considered as the preferred drug to prevent erosive gastritis in
patient at risk of developing this side effect when NSAIDs have to be given to the patient?
a. Omeprazole
b. Ranitidine
c. Sucralfate
d. Telenzepine
e. Misoprostol
240. In salicylate poisoning, serum salicylate levels of 50-80mg/dL can present with which of the following
clinical findings?
I. Hyperthermia
II. Respiratpry alkalosis
III. Tinnitus and Vertigo
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
241. A25-years old male ingested an unidentified number of Aspirin tablets. He presents with the following
findings: Responsive to verbal stimulation, BP=110/60, Body Temperature=39.5’C, ABGs: pH=6.9,
HCO3=7meq/L, pCO2 -29 mmHg; dry oral mucosa, absent axillary sweating. What serum salicylate level
is consistent with these findings?
a. 50-80mg/dL
b. 80-110mg/dL
c. 110-160mg/dL
d. 160-190mg/dL
e. >190mg/dL
242. A number of the NSAIDs cannot be given to patients with Gouty Arthritis as these may precipitate an
acute attack of gout or induce uric acid stone formation. Which of the following NSAIDs should no be
given to patient with gout?
a. Tolmetin
b. Ibuprofen
c. Indomethacin
d. Diclofenac
e. Mefenamic acid
243. Which of the following NSAIDs with minimal anti-inflammatory activity is/are primarily indicated as
analgesic especially in the management of post-operative pain?
I. Diclofenac
II. Ketorolac
III. Etodolac
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
244. All the know NSAIDs are weak acids. Which of the following drugs is the only exception?
a. Piroxicam
b. Sulindac
c. Nabumetone
d. Ketorolac
e. Tolmetin
245. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Mefenamic Acid, a popular NSAID?
I. It is more toxic than Aspirin
II. The drug should not be used for more than 1 week
III. It should not be given to children
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
246. What is the most important toxicity associated with pyrazolone derivatives like Phenylbutazone which
necessitated the withdrawal of a number of these drugs from the market?
a. Hepatoxicity
b. Hematologic toxicities
c. Nephrotoxicity
d. Gastric ulceration
e. Stevens-johnson syndrome
247. Which of the following NSAIDs is most useful as an analgesic and has been used successfully to replace
morphine in some situation involving mild to moderate post surgical pain? When used with an opioid, it
may decrease the opioid requirement by as much as 25-50%.
a. Naproxen
b. Ketorolac
c. Tenoxicam
d. Diclofenac
e. Mefenamic acid
248. What is the primary advantage od drugs like Celecoxib and etericoxib?
a. Less incidence of gastric irritation or ulceration
b. Less incidence of nephrotoxicity
c. Less incidence of hematologic toxicities
d. Minimal risk of causing worsening hypertension
e. Less likelihood of inhibiting platelet aggregation
249. A number of drugs classified as specificCOX-2 inhibitors like Rofecoxib (Vioxx) have been withdrawn
from the market or are marketed with “black box” warning. What is the primary reason for such actions to
be taken against these drugs?
a. They are associated with severe agranulocytosis
b. They cause severe irreversible hepatic necrosis
c. They increase the risk of bleeding in patient on Warfarin
d. They increase the risk of thrombosis and cardiac deaths
e. They cause worsening of DM and Hypertension
250. Which of the following agents is currently used as the first-line DMARDs in the management of
Rheumatoid Arthritis?
a. Hydroxychloroquine
b. Auranofin
c. Penicillamine
d. Azathioprine
e. Methotrexate
251. When the methotrexate is used for the management of rheumatoid arthitis, what is the usual maintenance
dosing regimen given to patients?
a. 150mg OD
b. 15mg OD
c. 15mg once a week
d. 150mg BID
e. 15mg BID
252. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the drug Methotrexate when used for
rheumatoid arthritis?
I. The primary mechanism of action involves inhibition of AICAR (aminomidazolecarboxamide)
transformylase and thymydylate synthase
II. Toxicity of the drug may be minimized with the use of Leucovorin
III. The drug is contraindicated in pregnancy
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
253. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the drug acetaminophen?
I. It is a weak inhibitor of COX-1 and COC-2 isozymes in peripheral tissues
II. It has significant anti-inflammatory activity
III. It is equivalent to Aspirin as analgesic and anti-pyretic
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
254. Which of the following agent is most useful in the management of acetaminophen poisoning?
a. N-acetylcysteine
b. S-carboxymethylcysteine
c. Dantrolene
d. Atropine
e. Sodium Bicarbonate
255. Which of the following condition when present may increase of formation of the toxic intermediate N-
acetyl-p-iminobenzoquinone with regular doses of acteminophen?
I. Patient with viral hepatitis
II. Patients on warfarin therapy
III. Chronic alcoholics
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
256. Which of the following drugs used for gout produces its effect by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxide
a. Allopurinol
b. Colchicine
c. Indomethacin
d. Probenecid
e. Sulfinpyrazone
257. Which of the following drugs used for gout produces its effect by inhibiting the synthesis of microtubules?
a. Allopurinol
b. Colchicine
c. Indomethacin
d. Probenecid
e. Sulfinpyrazone
258. Which of the following is/are appropriate indication/s of Allopurinol?
I. In the management of chronic tophaceous gout
II. In preventing massive uricosuria in patients to be given chemotherapeutic agents for acute
leukemia
III. In patients with recurrent renal urate stones
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
259. In the management of acute gouty attack, which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
I. Uricosuric agent are given at the onset of acute attack to reduce the duration of the episode
II. Indomethacin is preffered for the management of the pain of an acute attack
III. Colchine relieves the pain and inflammation of an acute attack in 12-24 hours
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
260. Which of the following groups can relax the brochial smooth muscles and are primarily used as
bronchodilators in bronchial asthma?
I. Methylxanthines
II. Beta-2 agonists
III. Anticholinergic agents
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
261. In the management of bronchial asthma, which of the following medications is/areconsidered as controller
medications?
I. Low-dose inhaled glucocorticosteroids
II. Short-acting beta-2 agonists
III. Long-acting inhaled beta-2 agonists
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
262. Which of the following advice should you give to a patient with bronchial asthma regarding the use of
medications for his condition based on the current recommendations?
I. Oral bambuterol must be taken on PRN basis for acute exacerbations of bronchial asthma
II. Inhalation of salbutamol for acute relief of attack mest be used for not more than three times a day
III. He must adequately gargle about 5x after each use Fluticasone inhaler
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
263. Which of the following drugs for bronchial asthma can be given subcutaneously during acute episodes of
bronchospasm?
a. Salnutamol
b. Isoproterenol
c. Terbutaline
d. Budesonide
e. Theophylline
264. Which of the following mechanisms may explain the actions of methylxanthines in bronchial asthma?
I. May inhibit the late phase allergic reaction occuring about 2-8hours after an acute attack
II. May inhibit the enzyme phosphodiesterase leading to an increase in the levels of cAMP
III. May antagonize the action of Adenosine
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
265. Which of the following statements describe/s the clinical use of Theophylline?
I. May reduce the nocturnal attack of bronchial asthma when given as sustained-release preparation
II. May improve response to high dose inhaledd beta-2 agonists when given intravenously
concurrently with beta-2 agonists during acute exacerbation of asthma
III. May improve contratility of the diaphragm improving ventilatory response to hypoxia
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
266. Which of the following statements is an important consideration regarding the toxicities and side effects of
Theophylline?
a. Toxicities and side effects do not occur as long as the serum levels of Theophylline do not exceed
20mg/L
b. Adults, neonates, and young infants have faster clearance of Theophylline than children
c. Clearance may be decreased with inhibition of hepatic enzymes among chronic smokers
d. Seizures and arrythmias are more common when serum levels exceed 40mg/L
e. Hepatic dysfunction does not alter significantly the clearance of Theophylline and can thus be
safely used for patients with liver disease
267. Which of the following statements describe the use of anti-cholinergic agents in COPD and bronchial
asthma?
I. They can be safely given at high doses by inhalations to saturate the muscarinic receptors
II. Available agents are tertiary ammonium compunds
III. They are more effective than beta-2 agonists in bronchial asthma but less effective in COPD
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
268. What is the mechanism of action of Nedocromil?
a. Increase outward potassium conductance leading to hyperpolarization of mast cell membrane
b. Increase inward chloride conductance leading to hyperpolarization of mast cell membrane
c. Increase inward sodium conductance leading to depolarization of mast cell membrane
d. Increase outward calcium conductance leading to repolarization of mast cell membrane
e. Increase inward potassium conductaance leading to depolarization of mast cell membrane
269. What is the mechanism of action of Zafirlukast and Montelukast?
a. Pharmacologic antagonism of Luekotriene D4 action
b. Pharmacologic antagonism of Leukotriene C4 action
c. Inhibition of the enzyme 5-lipoxygenase
d. Inhibition of citokine release by macrophages
e. Inhibition of Histamine-1 receptors
270. Which of the following agents has/have experimental effect as bronchodilator/s?
I. Omalizumab
II. Nifedipine
III. Nitric oxide
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
271. Which of the following correctly describes the action of cromolyn sodium?
a. Induces relaxation of bronchial smooth muscles
b. Blocks the degranulation of mast cells
c. Inhibits release of cytokines by inflammatory cells
d. Inhibits binding of IgE to mast cell membrane
e. Inhibits degradation of cGMP
272. Which of the following effects observe with acute or chronic use of opioids like morphine can be
attributed to stimulatio of the mu-receptors?
I. Respiratory depression
II. Psychosis
III. Miosis
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
273. Which of the following statement correctly describe the mechanism of action of the opioids?
I. They mimic the action of endogenous opioid peptides
II. The stimulate the release of endogenous opioid peptides
III. They bind to receptors like the mu, kappa, and delta
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
274. Which of the following is an opioid receptor that is responsible for inducing analgesia most especially
among women?
a. Kappa
b. Delta
c. Alpha
d. Epsilon
e. Mu
275. Tolerance is an expected consequence with chronic use of most of the available opioids. Which of the
following effects of opioids is tolerance NOT observed?
a. Respiratory depression
b. Analgesia
c. Euphoria
d. Constipation
e. Sedation
276. Which of the following statements regarding the development of tolerance to opioids is/are correct?
I. Develops in 2-3 weeks of continuous use especially when large doses are used over short intervals
II. Gross-tolerance develops among predominantly kappa-receptor full agonists
III. Partial agonists induce cross-tolerance with strong agonists and antagonists
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
277. A 45-year old male admitted for severe chest painwas diagnosed with AMI. He was being given morphine
2mg IV for relief of the chest pain. Which of the following is/are important findings that must be observed
as expected consequence/s of the use of Morphine?
I. Tachycardia
II. Hypotension
III. Vasospasm
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
278. Which of the following opioids is not associated with biliary colic and thus can be used for severe pain
associated with this condition?
a. Morphine
b. Pentazocine
c. Fentanyl
d. Meperidine
e. Codeine
279. Abstinence syndrome is a rebound effect characterized by rhinorrhea, lacrimation, yawning, chills,
gooseflesh, hyperventilation, and hostility observed in which of the following situations?
I. Abrupt withdrawal of an opioid agonist in a patient taking the drug chronically
II. In a newborn of a mother illicitly taking heroin during her pregnancy
III. Administration of Nalbuphine on a patient chronically on morphine
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
280. Which of the following oral doses of morphine is quivalent to 10mg of an IV dose?
a. 200mg
b. 180mg
c. 100mg
d. 40mg
e. 10mg
281. Diacetylmorphine is the chemical name of which of the following opioids?
a. Apomorphine
b. Morphine
c. Heroin
d. Codeine
e. Meperidine
282. Tramadol is weak mu-receptor agonist that does not require as S2 license for dispensing. It is a synthetic
analogue ofwhich of the following opiates/opioids?
a. Codeine
b. Thebaine
c. Morphine
d. Meperidine
e. Diphenoxylate
283. Which of the listed opioid below is along the recommended drugs for the management of acute pulmonary
edema?
a. Nalbuphine
b. Codeine
c. Morphine
d. Meperidine
e. Apomorphine
284. What is the primary mechanism involved in the utility of opioids in the management of acute pulmonary
edema?
a. Induction of osmotic diiuresis of edema fluuids
b. Peripheral vasodilation reducing venous return
c. Decreased cardiac inotropism
d. Improved mobilization of edema fluid by osmosis
e. Increased glumerolar filtration rate
285. Which of the following is/are possible therapeutic classification/s for available opiates and opioids?
I. Cough supressants
II. Emetics
III. Analgesics
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
286. What is the main reason why atropine is always given with diphenoxylate (lomotil)?
a. The anticholinergic after-effects with Atropine discourages abuse of Diphenoxylate
b. The anti-motility effect of Atroppine augments the constipating effect of Diphenoxylate
c. Atropine minimizes the respiratory depression expected with Diphenoxylate
d. Atropine reduces the absorption and systemic toxicity of Diphenoxylate
e. Atropine inhibits the hepatic metabolism of diphenoxylate effectively reducing the dose requuired
for diarrhea
287. What is the primary indication for the drug methadone?
a. Analgesic substitute for Morphine
b. Antitussive substitute for Codeine
c. Weaning off patients addicted to Heroin or Morphine
d. Management of biliary colic
e. Anesthetic premedication
288. Which of the following agents is a strong full agonist of opioid receptors
a. Hydromorphone
b. Hydrocodone
c. Codeine
d. Propoxyphene
e. Pentazocine
289. Which of the following agents is classified as a partial agonist of opioid receptors?
a. Meperidine
b. Methadone
c. Levallorphan
d. Fentanyl
e. Nalbuphine
290. Which of the following agents is/are classified as opioid antagonist/s?
I. Nalorphine
II. Naloxone
III. Naltrexone
a. Meperidine
b. Methadone
c. Levallorphan
d. Fentanyl
e. Nalbuphine
291. Which of the following anticoagulant is produced by recombinant DNA technology from the gene that
encodes the natural anticoagulant derived from medicinal leeches?
a. Dicumarol
b. Hirudin
c. Lepirudin
d. Heparin
e. Dalteparin
292. What is the primary indication of the anticoagulant derived from medicinal leeches or its recombinant
form?
a. Anticoagulation when necessary during pregnancy
b. When initiatin anticoagulation therapy in patient requiring chronic anticoagulation
c. Treatment of and prophylaxis against pulmonary thromboembolism
d. Management of thrombosis associated with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
e. In patients with AMI or unstable angina pectoris
293. What is the mechanism of action of regular heparin?
a. Activates antithrombin III which in turn inactivates a number of activated clotting factors
b. Activation of plasminogen to plasmin leading to destruction of fibrin and fibrinogen
c. Inhibits the reductive activation of vitamin K epoxide to the hydroquinone form
d. Inhibits activvation of prothrombin to thrombin
e. Mimics the action of epsilon-aminocaproic acid
294. The activity of regular heparin when given intravenously is best monitored atleast every 6 hours for the
first 24 hours of therapy using what parameter?
a. Protime
b. Platelet count
c. Clot reaction time
d. Activated partial thromboplastin time
e. Bleeding time
295. When regular heparin is used subcutaneously, which of the followinh statements is correct?
a. There is no need to monitor activity in most cases
b. Monitoring of activity must be done on a weekly instead of daily basis
c. Monitoring must be done using aPTT
d. Monitoring of activity must be done regularly using the PT value
e. Monitoring of activity must be done using the platelet count
296. Which of the following agents must be classified as a low molecular weight heparin?
a. Enoxaparin
b. Regular heparin
c. Warfarin
d. Hirudin
e. Phenindione
297. Which of the following parameters must be measured when a patient on low molecular weight heparin
develops bleeding that may be associated with therapy?
a. aPTT
b. Prothrombin time
c. Factor X assay
d. Factor IX assay
e. Bleeding time
298. Bleeding associated with the use of regular heparin is best managed with which of the following
interventions?
a. Immediate stopping of therapy
b. Administration of Tranexamic acid
c. Administration of vitamin K
d. Administration of protamine sulfate and stopping therapy
e. Lowering of the current dose without stopping therapy
299. What is the primary drawback with phenprocoumon that limit its clinical use in the management of
thrombosis?
a. Ist metabolism to a hepatotoxic metabolite
b. Ita long half-life
c. Its prominent gastrointestinal side effects
d. Its high degree of protein binding
e. The long delay in its onset of action
300. Warfarin exerts its effect primarily by inhibiting the gamma-carboxylation of the glutamate residues of
which of the following clotting factors?
a. IXa,Xa, XIa, XIIIa
b. IIa, VIIa, IXa, Xa
c. II, VII, IX, X
d. IX, X, XI, XIII
e. I, II, V, VII
301. When warfarin is used as anticoagulant, the achievement of a maximal hypothrombinemic effect is
expected to be delayed. What is the primary reason for this delay in warfarin effect?
a. The presence of preformed clotting factors in the plasma which have biiologic half-lives 6 to 60
hours
b. The high degree of protein binding which dela entry of the drug into its biologic site of action
c. The delay of activation of precursor clotting factors due to high levels of activation-inhibitors
d. The ability of warfarin to induce its own metabolism which delays achievement of therapeutic
levels by days
e. The ability of warfarin to interfere with the assay done to measure its activity
302. Cutaneous necrosis which can develop during the frist few weeks of therapy is expected with warfarin due
to which of the following mechanisms?
a. Idiosyncratic and paradoxical increase in the rate of synthesis of a number of clotting factors
b. Earlier decline in the circulating levels of natural anticoagulants causing predominance of
procoagulant clotting factors
c. Intrinsic thrombogenic property of warfarin molecules
d. Direct reduction in tissue perfusion as a consequence of the allergic property of warfarin
e. Hypotensive effective of warfarin which reditributes blood flow to critical sites in the body
303. What is the recommended target protime INR for patients who need warfarin and have prosthetic heart
valves?
a. 1-3
b. 2-3
c. 3-4
d. 4-5
e. 5-6
304. A patient on warfarin for the last 4 weeks for DVT has a PT INR of 4 but without evidence of bleeding.
What is the most appropriate intervention?
a. No intervention as within target INR range
b. Reduction of the dose by atleast half
c. Adimintration of vitamin K
d. Adminitration of protamine sulfate
e. Administration of tranexamic acid
305. Which of the following drugs or conditions can increase the activity of warfarin by affecting the drug’s
absorption, distribution, and elimination?
a. Cimetidine
b. Rifampicin
change to vegetarian diet
c. The presence of hepatic disease
d. Concurrent use of heparin
306. What interaction is present with concominant use of warfarin and the pyrazolone NSAIDs?
I. Inhibition of urinary excretion of warfarin
II. Inhibition of the oxidative metabolism of S-Warfarin
III. Displacement of Warfarin from its protein binding
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
307. Which of the following correctly describes the mechanism of action of fibrinolytic agents?
a. Directly catalyze the proteolysis of fobrin and fibrinogen
b.
Inhibit the action of thrombin by preventing its binding to fibrin and fibrinogen
c.
Activate plasminogen to plasmin, a serine protease that catalyzes breakdown of fibrin and
fibrinogen
d. Inhibit activation of fibrinogen by proteolysis of thrombin
e. Activate the endogenous anti coagulants protein C and protein S
308. Which of the following is classified as a thrombolytic agent?
a. Reteplase
b. Warfarin
c. Argatroban
d. Bivalirudin
e. Lepirudin
309. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the use of thrombolytic agents in myocardial
infarction?
I. Best response is seen if the drug is given within 24 hours from onset of symptoms
II. Generally given to patients with ST segment elevation
III. Absolute contraindication is a history of stroke of less than 1 year

b. II only e. I, II and III
c. I and III
310. Which of the following agents is associated with formation of antibodies that can cause development of
allergic reaction with subsequent exposure to the drug?
a. Urokinase d. Tissue plasminogen Activator
b. Streptokinase e. Tenecteplase
c. Alteplase
311. Which of the following mechanisms may lead to inhibition of platelet aggregation?
I. Activation of antithrombin III
II. Thromboxane synthesis inhibition
III. Guanylyl cyclase inhibition
A. I only d. II and III

B. II only e. I, II and III
C. I and II
312. Which of the following mechanisms correctly describes the mechanism of action of aspirin as an inhibitor of
platelet aggregation?
A. Irreversible inhibition of platelet and endothelial cell cyclooxygenase
B. Irreversible inhibition of endothelial cell cyclooxygenase
C. Irreversible inhibition of platelet cyclooxygenase
D. Reversible inhibition of platelet and endothelial cell cyclooxygenase

E. Reversible inhibition of endothelial cell cyclooxygenase
313. Which of the following agents requires weekly WBC monitoring within the first 3 months of treatment due to
a risk of causing leukopenia?
A. Cilostazol C. abciximab
B. Dipyridamole D. Clopidogrel
E.Ticlodipine
314. Which of the following agents is associated with development of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
A. Aspirin D. Eptifibatide
B. Ticlodipine E. Cilostazol
C. Tirobifan
315. Which of the following agents is classified as an inhibitor of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa and is useful in patients with
acute coronary syndrome and those undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention?
A. Clopidogrel D. Cilostazol
B. Ticlodipine E. Urokinase
C. Abciximab
316. What is the most important adverse effect of Dipyridamole when given to patients with ischemic heart disease?
A. Significant thrombocytopenia D. Severe diarrhea
B. Vasospasm of coronary vessels e. intermittent claudication
C. Coronary steal phenomenon
317. What is the mechanism of action of the drug Tranexamic acid?
A. ADP inhibition D. Inhibits reductase hydrolysis of Vitamin K epoxide
B. Serine protease inhibition E. Increase factor VIII activity
C. Inhibits plasminogen activation
318. Which of the following agents primarily cause lowering of the VLDL and is thus useful for
hypertiglyceridemia?
A. Niacinamide D. Probucol
B. Fenofibrate E. Cholestyramine
C. Simvastatin
319. Which of the following is consistent with the action of the drug Colestipol?
I. Prevents reabsorption of bile acids in intestine
II. Increases uptake of LDL and IDL with up-regulation of LDL receptors in the liver
III. Causes an increase in conversion of cholesterol to bile acids

A. I only D. II and III
B. II only E. I, II and III
C. I and III
320. What is the mechanism of action of Atorvastatin?
A. Inhibits the first committed step in the biosynthesis of cholesterol
B. Serves as ligand for the nuclear transcription called peroxisome proliferators-activated receptor alpha
C. Stimulates the activity of lipoprotein lipase leading to lipolysis of lipoprotein triglyceride
D. Inhibits the reuptake of bile acids leading to loss of negative feedback on the alpha-hydroxylase enzyme
E. Prevents oxidation of LDL cholesterol
321. Which of the following is/are important monitoring considerations in a patient receivimg Simvastatin?
I. Baseline and follow-up measurement of serum creatinine
II.Baseline and follow-up measurement of amino transferase activity
III. Baseline and follow-up measurement of creatine kinase activity

C. I and III
322. Patients on Statins are generally advised to take the medication at night. What is the basis for this?
A. Maximal absorption occurs at night D. Minimize Syncopal attacks with the first dose of statins
B. Maximal cholesterol de-novo synthesis occurs at night E. LDL release occurs at night
C. Minimize postural hypotension expected with Statins
333. Statins are generally best taken at night. Which of the following statins is night dosing unnecessary?
A. Lovastatin D. Pravastatin
B. Simvastatin E. Fluvastatin
C. Atorvastatin
324. Which of the following drug combinations is generally avoided?
A. Simvastatin + Niacin D. Gemfibrozil + Colestipol
B. Niacin + colestipol E. Simvastatin + Colestipol
C. Simvastatin + Gemfibrozil
325. Therapy with HMGCoA reductase inhibitors is associated with Rhabdomyolysis and myositis. These
complications which can lead to acute tubular necrosis and renal failure have been reported to be augmented with
co-administration of which drugs.
A. Fenofibrates and other fibrates D. Tranylcypromine and other MAOI
B. Cholestyramine and other

bile acid binding resins E. Methampethamine and other Norepinephrine releasers
D. Captopril and other ACE inhibitors
326. Which of the following drugs is associated with cutaneous vasodilation and warmth sensation after an initial
dose which may be reduced with the use of 300mg dose Aspirin taken an hour before the dose?
A. Niacin D. Cholestyramine
B. Fenofibrate E. Probucol
C. Atorvastatin
327. Which of the following drugs can be bind to molecular components of the macromolecular complex of GABA-
A receptor –chloride channel present in neuronal membranes in the CNS?
I. Diazepam
II. Zolpidem
III. Phenobarbital

C. I and III
328. Which of the following statements correctly describes the mechanism of action of the anxiolytic drug
Buspirone?
A. Selective binding to the BZ-1 receptor in the brain D. Inhibitor of MAO enzyme
B. Antagonist of alpha receptors in the brain E. Antagonist of the BZ-1 receptor in the brain
C. Partial agonist of 5HT-1A receptor in the CNS
329. Which of the following benzodiazepines is a prodrug that is hydrolyzed to the active metabolite Nordiazepam
in the stomach?
A. Alprazolam D. Diazepam
B. Chlordiazepoxide E. Lorazepam
C. Chlorazepate
330. What is the primary use of the drug Flumazenil?
A. Antagonizes the action of the Benzodiazepines
B. Stimulates BZ-1 receptor similar to benzodiazepines.
C. Antagonizes the action of Barbiturates
D. Inhibits the 5HT-1A receptor
E. Stimulates the GABA-A receptor
331. Which of the following Benzodiazepines has the shortest half-life and a rapid onset of action?
A. Lorazepam
B. Triazolam
C. Oxazepam
D. Diazepam
E. Prazepam
332. Which of the following agents is absolutely contraindicated in patients with disorder associated with porphyrin
such as acute intermittent porphyria, vanegate porphyria, and symptomatic porphyria?
A. Chlordiazepoxide
B. Diazepam
C. Zolpodem
D. Phenobarbital
E. Buspirone
333. Which of the following agents is associated with significant anterogade amnestic effect which is advantageous
in a number of medical and surgical procedures that may discomfort to the patient?
A. Midazolam
B. Zolpidem
C. Buspirone
D. Phenobarbital
E. Thiopental
334. What is the rationale behind the use of long-acting benzodiazepine like chlordiazepoxide and diazepam in the
management of alcohol withdrawal?
a. The benzodiazepines produce a paradoxical reaction among chronic alcoholics
B. Cross-dependence develops among sedative hypnotics
C. Increase in renal clearance of alcohol
D. Increase in non-CYP mediated metabolism of alcohol
335. Which of the following agents may be expected to have an additive CNS depressants effect with the sedative
hypnotics like benzodiazepines when taken simultaneously?
I.Opioid analgesics
II. Phenothiazines
III. Alcoholic beverages
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
336. Which of the following patients may be expected to have an increased sensitivity to sedative-hypnotics leading
to higher incidence of adverse effects or toxicity?
I. Young women
II. Patients with Cardiovascular disease
III. Patients with respiratory disease
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
337. Which of the following statements correctly describes the pharmacokinetics of Phenytoin?
A. Absorption of Phenytoin is constant regardless of the formulation
B. Phenytoin is well absorbed after intramuscular injection
C. Elimination of Phenytoin follows a first-order kinetics at very low blood levels
D. A first order kinetics of metabolism is observed with Phenytoin at low and high blood levels
E. Phenytoin is not significantly Protein bound so drug displacement interaction is not a major concern
338. Which of the following mechanisms explain/s the action of Phenytoin?
I. The drug alters conductance of sodium, potassium, and calcium
II. At high concentrations, it also inhibits the release of Serotonin and Norepinephrine
III. At therapeutic concentrations, Phenytoin inhibits the generation of repetitive action potentials
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
339. Which of the following findings in a patient taking Phenytoin would warrant reduction in the dose?
A. Gingival Hyperplasia
B. Nystagmus
C. Osteomalacia
D. Ataxia
E. Hirsutism
340. Autoinduction of the metabolism is a phenomenon that leads to decrease in the usual half-life of a given drug
that the dose adjustments must be made within the first month of therapy to ensure therapeutic drug levels are
reached, and reduction of dosage must be made once metabolism has stabilized. Such is seen with which of the
following drugs?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Phenytoin
C. Phenobarbital
D. Valproic acid
E. Primidone
341. Which of the following drugs for seizures is metabolized to yield Phenobarbital?
A. Lamotrigine
B. Vigabatrin
C. Primidone
D. Topimarate
E. Felbamate
342. When Phenytoin is given intravenously, what is the maximum rate by which drug can be administered?
A. 10mg/min
B. 20mg/min
C. 30mg/min
D. 40mg/min
E. 50mg/min
343. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding intravenous Phenytoin?
I. Cardiotoxicity is partly due to Propylene Glycol
II. It is compatible with Dextrose containing liquid
III. Fosphenytoin is more soluble and requires no solubilizing agent
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
344. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the toxicity profile and the management of overdose
of most drugs used for treatments of seizures?
I. The most dangerous effect is cardiotoxicity
II. Alkalinization of the urine to hasten elimination is usually effective
III. Stimulants are useful antidotes

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I. II and III
345. What is the most common side effect seen with the use of carbamazepine which requires adjustment in the dose
of the drug?
A. Diplopia D. Vomiting
B. Drowsiness E. Leukopenia
C. Hyponatremia
346. What is the preferred drug for the management of pure absence seizures?
A. Phenobarbital
B. Valproic acid
C. Phenytoin
D. Ethosuximide
E. Lamotrigine
347. Which of the following agent is associated with the idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity when given for the treatment of seizure in
children less than 2 years of age and in patients with multiple medications?
A. Gabapentin
B. Valproic acid
C. Phenytoin
D. Primidone
E. Topimarate
348. Which of the following agents is currently the preferred drug for the initial management of Status Epilepticus?
A. Lorazepam
B. Diazepam
C. Phenobarbital
D. Phenytoin
E. Valproic acid
349. Which of the following drugs used or seizure disorders is most commonly associated with cosmetic changes making the drug
desirable to used among adolescents, school-age children, and women?
A. Lamotrigine
B. gabapentin
C. Phenobarbital
D. Phenytoin
E. Valproic acid
350. A 50 year old male with Generalized Tonic-clonic seizure was initially given Carbamazepine as maintenance therapy. He however
developed adverse response to drug in form of Stevens-Johnsons syndrome. Which of the following agents may be safed to used as an
alternative treatment for the seizure?
I. Valproic acid
II. Phenytoin
III. Phenobarbital
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
351. Which of the following drugs classified as diuretics maybe useful in epileptic women who have seizures exacerbations at the time
of menses?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Metolazone
C. Acetazolamide
D. Chlorthalidone
E. Torsemide
352. Which of the following correctly describes the clinical used of Carbidopa in the therapy of parkinsonism?
I. Increased the CNS bioavailability of Levodopa
II. Improve symptoms of bradykinesia

III. Minimize nausea and vomiting associated with Levodopa
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I,II and III
353. What is the mechanism of action of Bromocriptine in the management of Parkinsonism?
A. Direct antagonist of D2 receptors
B. Direct agonist of D2 receptors
C. Direct antagonist of 5HT3 receptors
D. Direct agonist of 5HT3 receptors
E. Metabolized in the CNS to Dopamine
354. Female patients with Pituitary tumor and manifesting with amenorrhea and galactorrhea are initially manage with Bromocriptine.
What is the mechanism of Bromocriptine in this condition?
A. It inhibits the action Dopamine
B. It inhibits the action of Oxytocin
C. It stimulates the release of Estrogen
D. It inhibits the action of Prolactin
E. It stimulates the release of FSH and LH
355. During the maintenance therapy with Levodopa, patients are advsed to take the drug on an empty stomach. Why is this advice
given?
A. To minimize the risk of aspiration in as much as the drug can cause nausea and vomiting
B. Oral bioavailability of the drug is reduced as Levodopa can be found to food particles in the GIT
C. Bile acids released in response to food can interfere with the absorption of the drug
D. Large neutral amino acids in food interfere with the drugs’ transport acroos the blood brain barrier
E. Food can induce expression of DOPA decarboxylase which can limit the drugs CNS bioavailability
356. Which of the following drugs is most useful in controlling the bradykinesia of Parkinsonism?
A. Levodopa
B. Bromocriptine
c. Amantadine
D. Selegiline
E. Entacapone
357. Retroperitoneal fibrosis is an observed complication seen with drugs that belong to what class of agents?
A. Antiviral agents
B. Tropane Alkaloids
C. Ergot alkaloids
D. Ethanolamine Anti-histamines
E. Dopamine Agonist
358. Livedo Reticularis, a vascular cutaneous reaction characterized by a reddish-purple, fish net- patterm mottling of the Upper/Lower
extremities, is a side effect associated with which of the following agents?
A. amantadine
B. Di[henhydramine
C. Levodopa
D. Pramipexole
E. Selegiline
359. What is Entacapone?

A. A selective MAO-A inhibitor
B. A selective MAO-B inhibitor
C A COMT inhibitor
D. A Dopamine-3 receptor Agonist
E. A Dopamine-2 receptor agonist
360. The so-called “wearing-off” phenomenon encountered with the use of Levodopa-Carbidopa combination in Parkinsonism is partly
due to the formation of which metabolite which can compete with the transport of Levodopa across the blood brain barrier?
A. alpha-methyldopamine
B. alpha-methylnorepinephrine
C. alpha-methyldopa
D. 3-O – methyldopa
E. 3-0- methyldopamine
361.Which of the currently available inhalation anesthetic is the most potent based in the minimum Alveolar concentration?
A. Halothane
B. Desflurane
C. Nitrous Oxide
D. Sevoflurane
E. Enflurane
362. Based on recent studies what is currently considered as the most probable explanation for the action inhalation anesthetic?
A. Interaction with the molecular components of the GABA-A receptor
B. Interaction and interference with the activity of the fast inward sodium channels
C. Non-specific interaction with the lipid matrix of the nerve membrane
D. Inhibition of the interaction with Glutamate of the NMDA receptor
E. Inactivation of the Ligand-gated Potassium, channels
363. Which of the following inhalational anesthetics sensitizes the myocardium to cathecolamines which can lead to ventricular
arryhtmia when symphatomimetic drugs are co-currently administered?
A. Sevoflurane
B. Isoflurane
C. Desflurane]
D. Halothane
E. Nitrous Oxide
364. Which of the following inhalational anesthetics associated with potentially severe and Life-threatening hepatitis?
A. Sevoflurane
B Isoflurane
C. Desflurane
D. Halothane
E. Nitrous Oxide
365. Malignant Hyperthermia which may developed in susceptible individuals exposed to i9nhalational anesthetic is appropriately
treated with which of the following agents?
A. Diazepam
B. Baclofen
C. Dantrolene
D, Thiamylal
E. Haloperidol
366. Which of the following drugs combination provide a state called Neurolepanesthesia?
A. Haloperidol + Thiamylal + Halothane
B. Droperidol + Fentanyl + Nitrous Oxide
C. Thioridazine + succinyl choline + propofol
D. Nitroue Oxide + Droperidol +Fentanyl
E. Halothane + Drperidol + fentanyl
367. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the use of a combination of the least potent Nitrous oxide with a second
inhalation anesthetic?
I. Reduction in the risk of the myocardial depression at a given depth of anesthesia compared to the more potent anesthetic given alone
II. Facilitation of metabolism of the more potent anesthetic which may increase the risk of nephrotoxicity
III. Reduction in the anesthetic requirement fot he more potane anesthetic due to a second gas effect.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I. II and III
368. What is responsible for the very short duration and very rapid onset of effect of the so-called Ultra short acting barbiturates?
A. The presence of a Sulfur group
B. The presence of Methoxy group
C. The presence of substituted barbital structure
D. The high lipid solubility of these agents
E. The increased in the number of polar substituents
369. which of the following intravenous agents can only be used to induced anesthesias but not to maintain anesthesia?
I. Propofol
II. Thiopental
III. Ketamine
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
370. Which of the following anesthetic is associated with a Dissociative state characterized by catatonia, amnesia, and analgesia with or
without actual loss of consciousness?
A. Propofol
B. Thiopental
C. Midazolam
D. Ketamine
E. Nitrous Oxide
371. Which of the following characteristics is consistent with the drug Propofol?
I. Causes a marked reduction in blood pressure during induction
II. Recovery from anesthesia is rapid
III. Post-operative nausea and vomiting is minimal due to its anti-emetic effect
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
372. What is the common mechanism of action of the Local anesthetics when given in their usual doses?
A. Inhibition of Ligand gated sodium channel
B. Inhibition of the voltage gated sodium channel

C. Stimulate outward potassium flux
D. Stimulate calcium extrusion from the cell
E. Inhibit the sodium, potassium ATPase Pump
373. Which of the following Local anesthetics is hydrolyzed to Para-amino benzoic acid?
A. Cocaine
B. Isobucaine
C. Lidocaine
D. Bupivacaine
E. Tetracaine
374. Allergic reaction is most likely to occur with which of the following agents?
A. Isobucaine
B. Prilocaine
C. Procaine
D. Lidocaine
E. Mepivacaine
375. Which of the following local anesthetics is a substrate for metabolic degradation by the enzyme butyrylcholinesterase?
A. Chlorprocaine
B. Etidocaine
C. Ropivacaine
D. Lidocaine
E. Bupivacaine
376. Which of the following agents is considered to be the most neurotoxic when given as a spinal anesthetics causing a transient
reticular irritation?
A. Procaine
B. Lidocaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Mepivacaine
E.Prilocaine
377. Cardiotoxocity manifesting as a electromechanical dissociation, cardiovascular collapse and death, is a complication of therapy
most commonly seen with which of the following local anesthetics?
A. Mepivacaine
B. Ropivacaine
C. Lidocaine
D. Procaine
E. Bupivacaine
378. When large doses of a local anesthetic must be administered, the risk of developing seizures can be significantly reduced with the
used of which of the following agents as pre-medication?
A. Midazolam
B. Thiopental
C. Succinyl choline
D. Propofol
E. Diphenhydramine
379.Which of the following Local anesthetics can predisposed to the development of methemoglobinemia when given in large doses
during regional anesthesia?
A. Procaine
B. Lidocaine
C. Cocaine
D. Tetracaine
E. Prilocaine
380. Which of the following metabolites of local anesthetics when formed in the body in significant amounts can cause oxidation of the
iron in hemoglobin in the ferric form?
A. Glycinexylidide
B. Ortho-toluidine
C. para amino benzoic acid
D. Benzoic acid
E. Demethylamine
381. Which of the following anti-psychotics drug groups primarily inhibit the Dopamine-2 receptors in the brain?
I. Phenothiazines
II. Dibenzodiazepines
III. Butyrophenones
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
382. In terms of potency, which of the drugs listed below is expected to be the most potent?
A. Trifluorophenazine
B. Thioridazine
C. Piperacetazine
D. trifluopromazine
E. Chlorpromazine
383. The Anti-psychotic drug Clozapine belongs to what chemical class of agents?
A. Dibenzoxazepine
B. Dibenzodiazepine
C. Benzisoxazole
D. Fluorobenzyindole
E. Thienobenzodiazepine
384. Which of the following agents is expected to produce the effects and side effects comparable to Haloperidol?
a. Mesoridazine
B. Chlorprothixene
C. Thiothixene
D. Promazine
E. Fluphenazine
385. Anticholinergic effect manifesting as loss of accommodation, difficulty in urination, constipation, and a toxic confusional state is
most commonly observed with which of the following drugs?
A. Haloperidol
B. Sertindole
C. Chlopromazine
D. Loxapine
E. Chlorpropthixene
386. Dystoinic reactions such as an oculogyric crisis and pseudoparkinsonism such as tremors are side-effects most likely to be seen in
patients taking which of the following medications?
A. Thioridazine
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Loxapine
D. Trifluphenazine
E. Molindone
387. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome which resembles malignant hyperthermia is more commonly seen with which of the following
agents?
A. Mesoridazine
B. Promazine
C. Loxapine
D. Haloperidol
E. Sertindole
388. Which of the following drugs for psychosis is most commonly associated with prolongation of QT interval on ECG which can
lead to fatal arrhythmias?
A. Thioridazine
B. Mesoridazine
C. Haloperidol
D. Clozapine
E. Loxapine
389. Which of the following drugs when given to patients will necessitate weekly WBC monitoring for the first 6 months of therapy
and every 3 weeks thereafter due to its propensity to cause agranulocytosis?
A. thioridazine
B.Chlopromazine
C. Loxapine
D. Clozapine
E. Molindone
390. Which of the following agents is most likely to cause deposits in the retina which can lead to blindness necessitating a baseline
and regular ophthalmologic examination when administered?
A. Thioridazine
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Loxapine
D. Trifluphenzaine
E. Molindone
391. Weight gain is expected complication of therapy with all the clinically useful antipsychotics. One of the drugs listed below,
however does not produce this side effect. What is this drug?
A. Thioridazine
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Loxapine
D. Trifluphenazine
E. Molindone
392. Tardive dyskinesia is considered as the most important unwanted effect of antipsychotic agents. What is considered as the
mechanism of development of this condition?
I. Dopamine receptor block

II. Relative cholinergic deficiency
III. Dopamine receptor hypersensitivity
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
393. Which of the following drugs is most commonly associated with seizures?
A. Thioridazine
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Loxapine
D. Trifluphenazine
E. Molindone
394. Poisonings with antipsychotics are rarely fatal. Which of the following agents is associated with a higher incidence of fatal
poisoning?
A. Mesoridazine
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Trifluphenazine
D. Haloperidol
E. Molindone
395. What is the most common side effect associated with the used of tricyclic antidepressants?
A. Sedation
B. Tachycardia
C. Weight gain
D. Orthostatic hypotension
E. Anticholinergic effect
396. Which of the following agents is classified as a tricyclic antidepressant or 1 st generation anti-depressants?
A. Bupropion
B Trazodone
C.Desipramine
D. Amoxapine
E. Mirtazepine
397.Which of the following is/are advantage/s of the SSRI’s compared to the rest of the drugs used for depression?
I. Lesser lethality with overdose
II. Generally no dose titration is required
III. Minimal anticholinergic effects
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
398. A psychiatric patient on medications develops tremor, thyroid enlargement, and leukocytosis. The drug he is taking is most likely
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Lithium
C. Desipramine
D. Fluoxetine
E. Haloperidol
399. Serotonin syndrome which resembles malignant hyperthermia in symptomatology occurs when SSRI’s like Fluoxetine and
Sertraline are given concurrently with
I. TCA’s like Nortriptyline
II. MAOI’s like Phenelzine
III. Heterocyclics like Maprotiline
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
400. MAO-A is the amine oxidase primarily responsible for the metabolism of Norepinephrine, Serotonin, and tyramine, while MAO-B
is the specific for the metabolism of Dopamine. Which of the following agents is a selective reversible MAO-A inhibitor whose
advantage is a lesser risk of causing hypertensive crisis with tyramine foods?
A. Selegiline
B. Nefazodone
C. Moclobemide
D. Trazodone
E. Imipramine
401. Which of the following conditions enhance the toxicity of lithium?
I. Use of thiazide diuretics
II. Diarrhea and vomiting
III. Excessive sweating
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
402. Imipramine has been found to be useful in the treatment of nocturnal enuresis ( bed wetting). This clinical use explained by which
of the following effects of the drug?
A. Inhibition of reuptake of norepinephrine
B. Inhibition reuptake of serotonin
C. Anticholinergic effects
D. Sedating effect
E. Inhibition of reuptake of Dopamine
403. Which of the following findings is/are consistent with the poisoning of antipsychotic drugs?
I. Hypotension
II. Hypothermia
III. Ventricular arrythmias
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
404. Which of the following agents interventions is/are appropriate in the management of poisoning with the Phenothiazine
antipsychotic?
I. Gastric lavage is unnecessary one hour after ingestion of tablets
II. Activated charcoal is given followed by saline cathartics
III. Epinephrine is the preferred pressor agent for persistent hypertension
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
405. Which of the following agents are avoided in patients taking Tranylcypromine?
I. Ephedrine
II. Phenylpropanolamine
III. Levodopa
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
406. Which of the following agents can produce the so-called serotonin syndrome when given to a patient already on Phenelzine?
I. Venlafaxine
II. Buspirone
III. Fluoxetine
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
407.Which of the following side-effects of Lithium can be seen even in usual doses thus by itself is NOT considered a sign of Lithium
toxicity ?
A. Coarse hand tremors
B. Polyuria
C. hyperreflexia
D. Confusion
E. ataxia
408. Which of the following may be considered as mechanism/s of effect of Beta lactam antibiotics?
I. Inhibition of activity of the transpeptidase enzyme
II. Inhibition of formation of the 50s ribosomal subunit
III. Binding to the so-called PBPs and related proteins in the cell membrane
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
409. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Penicillins?
I Penicillins are not metabolized extensively by liver enzyme
II. Probenecid increases Penicillin excretion by blocking renal tubule reabsorption
III. Ampicillin undergoes enterohepatic cycling
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
410. Which of the following statements in Sulfonamides is/are correct?
I. Their effect is attributed to their ability to inhibit the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase
II. As sine agents, they are bacteriostatic but are bactericidal when given with Trimethoprim
III. They can cause hemolytic anemia if given to G6PD deficient individuals
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
411. Which of the following may be an expected complication with the use of Aminoglycosides?
I. Neuromuscular blockade
II. Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic purpura
III. Inhibition of the CYP3A4 enzyme
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
412. Which of the following agents is most effective against nosocomial infection with Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A. Clarithromycin
B. Ceftazidime
C. Amikacin
D. Imipenem
E. Metronidazole
413. Which of the following drugs can be given orally to treat infections caused by Peudomonas aeruginosa?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Ceftazidime
C. Piperacillin
D. Clindamycin
E. Azithromycin
414. Which of the following agents can be safely used for a pregnant women with urinary tract infection?
A. Cotrimixazole
B. Ampicillin
C. Norfloxacin
D. Doxycycline
E. Chloramphenicol
415. Which of the following statements correctly describes the properties of Aminoglycosides?
I. They are mainly bacteriostatic
II. They are mainly effective against gram-negative aerobic bacteria
III. They inhibit protein synthesis
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
416.Which of the following agents can penetrate inflamed meninges in sufficient concentration to be usedful for meningitis?
A. Amikacin
B. Tobramycin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Aztreonam
E. Gentamicin
417. Which of the following agents has acivity against anaerobic organisms against most protozoan infection?
A. Clindamycin
B. Metronidazole
C. Chloramphenicol
E. Doxycycline
418. Which of the following drugs attacks plasmodiain exoerythrocytic stages and is an effective prophylactic agent against
Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale?
A. Quinine
B. Chloroquine
C. Primaquine
D. Sulfadoxine
E. Pyrimethamine
419.Which of the following agents is bactericidal in its activity?
A. Clindamycin
B. Erythromycin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Doxycycline
E. Ciprofloxacin
420.Which of the following agents exhibit a primary concentration dependent bactericidal activity wherein the rate and extent of killing
increases with increasing concentrations of drug?
A. Amikacin
B. Vancomycin
C. Clindamycin
D. Ceftriaxone
E. Piperacillin
421.Among patients with renal impairment, the dose of antibiotics must be adjusted according to the creatinine clearance. Which of the
following drugs does not require such adjustment in dosing for patients with decreased creatinine clearance?
A. Imipenem
B. Penicillin G
C. Nafcillin
D. Ceftazidime
E. Cefuroxime
422. Which of the following agents requires adjustment or may even have to be avoided in patients with hepatic impairment?
I. Erythromycin
II. Metronidazole
III. Clindamycin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
423. Which of the following agents is contraindicated in patients less than 18 years of age and pregnant patients due to its adverse
effects on cartilage development?
A. Sulfamethoxazole
B. Ethambutol
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Doxycycline
E. Ciprofloxacin
424. Which of the following antibiotics is contraindicated in children less than 9 years of age and in pregnant patients due to the risk of
permanent staining of teeth and enamel dysplasia in children?
A. Sulfamethoxazole
B. Ethambutol
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Doxycycline
E. Ciprofloxacin
425.Which of the following agents may predispose the neonate premature babies to kernicterus when given to this subset of patients?
A. Sulfamethoxazole
B. Ethambutol
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Doxycycline
E. Ciprofloxacin
426. What is the primary role of agents such as Tazobactam amd Sulbactam in antibacterial therapy?
A. Increase in the oral bioavavilability of the Penicillins
B. Effective against most gram-negative aerobic bacteria
C. Effective against anaerobic bacteria including Clostridia
D. Minimize destruction of the Penicillins by bacterial beta-lactamases
E. Improve CNS penetrability of Penicillins
427.Which of the following antibiotic combinations is associated with clinically significant antimicrobial antagonism which has been
reported to cause higher rate of mortality in patients given this combination compared to patients receiving any of the agent singly?
A. Penicillins + Cephalosporin
B. Penicillin + aminoglycoside
C. Erythromycin + aminoglycoside
D. Penicillin + Chloramphenicol
E. Erythromycin + Doxycycline
428.Which of the following is the preferred empiric treatment for patients suspected or proved to have sysytemic fungal infection of
any etiology?
A. Itraconazole
B. Amphotericin B
C. Fluconazole
D. Flucytosine
E. Ketoconazole
429. The activity of Penicillin G is defined units. How many units does each milligram of crystalline sodium penicillin G contain?
A. 1
B. 58
C. 180
D. 1600
E. 2600
430. The absorption of most oral penicillins is impaired by food. An exception to this is:
A. Ampicillin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Penicillin
D. Penicillin G
E. Oxacillin
431. Which of the following organism is/are susceptible to Penicillin G, making the drug the drug of choice in the treatment of the
infection caused by this/these organism?
I. Treponema pallidum
II.Pneumococcus
III. Beta-hemolytic streptococci
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
432. The so-called Isoxazolyl penicillins are primarily indicated for the treatment of infection caused by what organism?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Bacteroides fragilis
C. Escherichia coli
D. Haemophilus influenzae
E. Streptococcus peumoniae
433. Penicillins classified as ureido penicillins have extended spectrum of activity against gram-negative bacteria compared to the
natural and other semisynthetic penicillins. Which of the following organism are the ureido penicillins effective against?
I. Enterococci
II. Klebsiella pneumoniae
III. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
434. Which of the following antibiotics belong to the ureido penicillin class of agents?
A. Carbenicillin
B. Ticarcillin
C. Peparicillin
D. Bacampicillin
E. Pivampicillin
435. Which of the following agents is a first generation cephalosporin that is given intravenously?
A. Cefazolin
B. Cephalexin
C. Cephadrine
D. Cefadroxil
E. Cephapirin
436. The second generation cephalosporin includes the Cephamycins. What is the distinctive advantage of the cephamycin over the rest
of the second generation cephalosporin?
A. they have greater selectivity against Staphylococcus aureus
B. They have average for anaerobic bacteria
C. They are effective against MRSAs
D. They have greater spectrum of activity including Peudomonas aeruginosa
E. They can be given both orally and parenterally
437. Which of the following second generation cephalosporins can be given orally and parenterally?
A. Cefaclor
B. Cefuroxime axetil
C. Cefotetan
D. Cefprozil
E. Cefoxitin
438. Which of the following agents belong the cephalosporins group called cephamycins?
A. Cefamandole
B. Cefprozil
C. Cefoxitin
D. Loracarbef
E. Cefaclor
439. Which of the following third generation cephalosporins have activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
I. Ceftriaxone
II. Ceftazidime
III. Cefoperazone
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
440. Which of the following agents is considered as fourth generation cephalosporin?
A. Cefepime
B. Cefotaxime
C. Cefoperazone
D. Cefixime
E. Moxolactam
441. Which of the following cephalosporin is/are associated with Disulfiram-effect when alcohol is taken by patients who are on
this/these antibiotics?
I. Cefotetan
II. Ceftazidime
III. Cefamandole
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
442. Which of the following cephalosporins is associated with hypoprothrombinema and has increased risk of bleeding disorders?
A. Cefoperazone
B. Cefoxitin
C. Cefuroxime
D. Ceftriaxone
E. Cefotaxime
443. Which of the following agents is considered as first line drug in the management of neisseria gonorrhea infection?
A. Ceftriaxone
B .Cefuroxime
C.Penicillin G
D. Amoxicillin
E. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole
444. Which of the following Beta-Lactam antibiotic is called a monobactam?
A. Moxolactam
B. Aztreonam
C. Meropenem
D. Loracarbef
E. Ticarcillin
445. What is the use of Cilastatin?
A. Effective agent against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. It prevents tubular secretion of Imipenem
C. It prevents glomerula filtration of Imipenem
D. It inhibits the renal dehydropeptidase which metabolizes Imipenem
E. It inhibits liver dehydropeptidase which metabolizes Imipenem
446. Which of the following antibacterial agents primarily work by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?
I.Polymyxin B
II. Vancomycin
III. Streptpgramins
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
447. Which of the following agents primarily work by inhibiting aminoacyl translocation and blocking the formation of initiation
complexes?
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Linezolid
D. Tetracyclines
E. Macrolides
448. Which of the following drugs reversibly binds to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome and inhibits the peptidyl transferase
step of the protein synthesis?
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Linezolid
D. Tetracyclines
E. Macrolides
449. Which of the following agents reversibly binds to the 30S subunits of the bacterial ribosome blocking the binding of aminoacyl-
tRNA to the acceptor site on the mRNA-ribosome complex?
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Linezolid
D. Tetracyclines
E. Macrolides
450. (MISSING)
451. Which of the following agents inhibits protein synthesis by binding at the 23S ribosomal RNA and preventing the formation of
ribosome complex that initiates protein snthesis?
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Linezolid
D. Tetracyclines
E. Macrolides
452. The mechanism of action of Clindamycin is similar to the mechanism of action of which of the following agents?
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Linezolid
D. Tetracyclines
E. Macrolides
453. Which of the following statements correctly describes the properties of the drugs Minocycline and Doxycycline?
I. They have the longest half-lives among the Tetracyclines
II. Their absorption is not impaired by divalent cations like calcium and magnesium
III. Their absorption is not impaired by food
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
454. Which of the following tetracyclines is the drug of choice when tetracyclines are needed in a patient with renal insufficiency??
A. Oxytetracycline
B. Chlortetracycline
C. Methacycline
D. Doxycyclie
E. Minocycline
455. Which of the following macrolides can inhibit cytochrome P450 enzymes can cause an increase in the serum concentrations of
drugs like theophylline and warfarin?
I. Erythromycin
II. Azithromycin
III. Clarithromycin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
456. What form of erythromycin has the best oral absorption?
A. Erythromycin base
B. Erythromycin ethylsuccinate
C. Erythromycin estolate
D. Erythromycin lactobionate
E. Erythromycin stearate
457. What is the clinical use of the tetracycline drug Demeclocycline?
A. Prophylaxis against plague
B. Antiprotozoal agent
C. Used to eradicate meningococcal carrier state
D. Management of SIADH
E. Management of Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
458. Which of the following is/are clinical indication/s for the drug Clindmycin?
I. Treatment of Severs gram-negative bacterial infection
II. Treatment of severe anaerobic infections caused by bacteroides
III. Prophylaxis of endocarditis in patients with valvular heart disease undergoing dental procedures
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
459. Which of the following may be considered as indication for the streptogramin combination Quinupristin-Dalfopristin?
I. Treatment of MRSA
II. Treatment of Multi-Drug resistant strains of Streptococci
III. Treatment of Penicillin-resistant strain of Streptococcus pneumonia
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
460. Which of the following statements correctly describes the characteristics of Aminoglycosides?
I. Exhibit synergistic activity with beta-lactam antibiotics
II. May be given both orally and parenterally for systemic activity
III. Readily penetrate the blood brain barrier reaching adequate concentrations in the CSF
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
461. Which of the following drugs may enhance toxicity of Aminoglycosides if given with the latter concurrently to a patient?
I.Penicillin G
II. Furosemide
III. Vancomycin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
462. Which of the following Aminoglycosides as the most ototoxic in terms of tis side-effect on the cochlear apparatus?
A. Neomycin
B. Amikacin
C. Streptomycin
D. Tobramycin
E. Netilmicin
463. Which of the following Aminoglycosides is considered as the most vestibulotoxic?
A. Neomycin
B. Amikacin
C. Streptomycin
D. Tobramycin
E. Netilmicin
464. Which of the following Aminoglycosides is considered as the most nephrotoxic?
A. Neomycin
B. Amikacin
C. Streptomycin
D. Tobramycin
E. Netilmicin
465. Which of the following disease-causing organism is/are the aminoglycosides most useful either assingle agents or in
combinations?
I. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
II.Mycobacterium avium intracellulare
III. Staphylococcus aureus
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
466. Which of the following agents is given with the Sulfonamides for its synergistic effect with the latter or inhibiting folic acid
synthesis in protozoal cells than mammalian or bacterial cells?
A. Pyrimethamine
B. Trimethoprim
C. Silver
D. Mafenide
E. Salicylic acid
467. What is the mechanism of action of quinolone antibacterial agents?
A. Inhibit the incorporation of GABA into Dihydropteroate
B. Inhibit the bacterial enzyme Topoisomerase II
C. Inhibit the DNA dependent RNA polymerase of bacteria
D. Inhibit the Transpeptidation process in bacterial cellwall synthesis
E. Inhibit bacterial dihydrofolate reductase
468. A patient receiving sulfadiazine 4 grams per day may benefit with co-administration of which of the following agents as
preventive therapy of sulfadiazine-related complications?
I. Sodium bicarbonate
II. Ammonium chloride
III Folinic acid
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
469. Which of the following drugs given for tuberculosis is/are bactericidal in activity at the usual dose given for TB?
I. Ethambutol
II. Rifampicin
III. Isoniazid
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
470. A 3 year old boy is diagnosed with primary tuberculosis infection. The appropriate anti-TB regimen for the child may include
which of the following agents?
I. Ethambutol
II. Rifampicin
III. Isoniazid
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
471. Which of the following drugs given for tuberculosis is metabolized by the liver enzyme N-acetyltransferase whose expression is
genetically determined may vary in different populations?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyrazinamide
E. Streptomycin
472. Which of the following TB drugs is given only during the intensive phase of therapy?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyrazinamide
E. Streptomycin
473. What is the acceptable dose for isoniazid in the treatment of TB?
A. 1 mg/kg/day
B.5mg/k/day
C. 10mg/k/day
D. 15mg/k/day
E.20mg/k/day
474. What is the dose for rifampicin in the treatment of TB?
A. 1 mg/kg/day
B.5mg/k/day
C. 10mg/k/day
D. 15mg/k/day
E.20mg/k/day
475. Which of the following agents may be considred as useful 2 nd line agents for TB?
I. Kanamycin
II. Amikacin
III. Ciprofloxacin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
476. Which of the following agents given for tuberculosis may provoke an attack of acute gouty arthritis?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyrazinamide
E. Streptomycin
477. Which of the following drugs has been historically associated with the development of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, a fatal
neurodegenerative disease caused by prions?
A. Pancreas derived insulin
B. Pituitary derived growth hormone
C. Thyroid hormone extract
D. Recombinant growth hormone
E. Cortisol
478. Ocreotide is a drug used for the treatment of such conditions as acromegaly, gastrinoma, and glucagonoma. What hormone is
ocreotide an analog of?
A. Somatostatin
B. Growth hormone
C. Prolactin
D. Oxytocin
E. Dopamine
479. Which of the following correctly describes the nomal physiologic hormone release?
I. GnRH is released continuously by the hypothalamus to induce secretion of FSH and LH by the pituitary
II. ACTH release occurs in pulses that peak iin the early morning hours and after meals
III. The release of cortisol is constant throughout the day maintaining a level that varies little with meals
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
480. Which of the following is/are appropriate indications for oxytocin?
I. Control of postpartum uterine bleeding
II. Stimulate initial milk production
III. Induction of labor
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
481. What is the primary use of the drug Desmopressin?
I. Management of nephrogenic Diabetes insipidus
II. Management of Central Diabetes Insipidus
III. Control of gastrointestinal bleeding
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
482. Which of the following statements correctly describes the thyroid hormones?
I. T3 is better absorbed after oral administration than T4
II. Peripheral deiodination of T3 converts it to more active T4
III. Hypothyroidism increases the clearance of both hormones leading to an decrease in their half-lives
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
483. Which of the following agents may interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine that patient must be advised on the proper
interval of intake with this/these agents?
I. Sucralfate
II. Ferrous sulfate
III. Aluminum hydroxide
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
484. A 43 year old female who works in a hospital was admitted for tachycardia, palpitations and weight loss. Her T4 was elevated
with suppresses TSH but her thyroid scan showed a normal-sized gland with normal iodine uptake. Which of the following should be
suspected?
A. Presence of Grave’s disease
B. Presence of solitary toxic nodule
C. Iodine deficiency goiter
D. Illicit intake of Levothyroxine
E. Hypothyroidism
485. A patient is receiving 50mg of Propylthiouracil three times a day. If the plan is to shift her medication to methimazole, what dose
of methimazole should you recommended?
A. 5 mg once daily
B. 15 mg once daily
C. 30 mg once daily
D. 45 mg once daily
E. 60 mg once daily
486. In monitoring response to therapy with methimazole, which of the following findings taken 3 months after initiating therapy best
indicates good response to therapy?
A. a normal TSH
B. a normal T4
C. a lower than normal T4
D. a lower than normal TSH
E. a higher than normal TSH
487. Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of the thioamides for the management of hyperthyroidism?
I. Block uptake of iodine by the follicular cells
II. Block the peroxidase-catalyzed reactios
III. Block coupling of iodotyrosines
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
488. Which of the following interventions may be appropriate to monitor or treat thionamide-associated agranulocytosis?
I. Discontinuing the offending drug usually reverses the side-effect
II. Monitoring the WBC is necessary for the first three months of therapy
III. Switching of therapy from one thionamide to another may reverse the effect
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
489. Which of the following cautions must be observed when iodides are given to treat hypothyroidism?
I. Iodides must be initiated before thionamide therapy
II.Iodides must be avoided if treatment with radioactive iodine is likely
III. Iodides are the preffered drugs for chronic therapy during pregnancy
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
490. What is the role of beta-blockers in the management of thyrotoxicosis?
I. beta-blockers can inhibit the peroxidase-catalyzed reaction in the synthesis of thyroid hormones
II. Beta-blockers control the sympathetic symptoms of hyperthyroidism
III. Beta-blockers may inhibit the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
491. Which of the following statements correctly describes the thyroid hormone replacement therapy?
I. Infants and children with congenital hypothyroidism require higher dose per kilogram body weight than adults
II. Steady state levels of thyroxine takes about 6-8 weeks to achieve after initiating therapy
III. Older adults and those with long-standing disease must be started on lower than usual dose of levothyroxine
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
492. A 20-year old female is receiving Hydrocortisone 20 mg IV three times a day. If the plan is to discharge the patient with an
equivalent dose of Oral Prednisone, what dose of Prednisone will you recommend?
A. 5 mg once a day
B. 10mg once a day
C. 10 mg in the morning and 5 g in the afternoon
D. 15 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the afternoon
E. 20 mg in the morning and 15 mg in the afternoon
493. What is the physiologic dose of glucocorticoid?
A. Hydrocortisone dose less than 10-20 mg/day
B. Hydrocortisone dose greater than 10-20mg/day
C. Prednisone dose ranging from 10-20mg/day
D. Prednisone dose less than 10-20mg/day
E. Prednisone dose less than 10-20mg/day
494. Which of the following effects is/are consistent when cortisol in the body is less than 10 mg/day?
I. Metabolism of carbohydrate, fat and proteins
II. Inhibition of release of cytokines from macrophages
III. Enhanced vascular and bronchial smooth muscle response to cathecolamiines
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
495. Which of the following drugs or drug combinations is appropriate maintenance therapy for patient with primary adrenal
insufficiency?
A. Hydrocortisone + Fludrocortisone
B. Dexamethasone + Hydrocortisone
C. Hydrocortisone
D. Prednisone
E. Betamethasone
496. Which of the following is/ are appropriate indications for using Glucocorticosteroids?
I. In mothers who may have premature labor and delivery before 34 weeks of gestation
II. In patients with secondary pulmonary tuberculosis prior to initiation of antitubercular therapy
III. In patients who have recently undergone organ transplantation
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
497. In patients on glucocorticoid therapy, which of the following monitoring plans sould be initiated?
I. Blood pressure monitoring
II. Bone density monitoring
III. Blood sugar monitoring
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
498. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding adrenal suppression as a complication of therapy with
glucocorticosteroids?
I. It is expected to occur when glucocorticosteroids therapy is extended beyond 2 weeks
II. Dosage reduction when the therapy is to stopped must be done very slowly when the dose reaches replacement levels
III. Patients must receive supplementary therapy at times of stress like surgery or trauma
IV. Recovery of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis is rapid after discontinuing chronic use of Dexamethasone
V. Treatment with ACTH reduces the time required for the return of normal adrenal function
A. I and III
B. II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. I, III and V
E. I, II ,III, IV and V
499. Which of the following glucocorticosteroids is employed in the work-up of patients with Cushing’s Syndrome to diagnose the
most probable etiology of the condition?
A. Hydrocortisone
B. Prednisone
C. Cortisone
D. Fludprednisolone
E. Dexamethasone
500. What is the Primary role if Zinc in commercial insulin preparations?
A. Improve stability and shelf-life of insulin

B. Improve the solubility of insulin
C. Enhance the activity of insulin in receptors
D. Facilitate absorption of insulin from subcutaneous tissue
E. Enhance the activity of suspending agents
501. The transport of glucose that is facilitated by insulin is mediated by which of the following transporters?
A. GLUT1
B. GLUT2
C. GLUT3
D. GLUT4
E. GLUT 5
502. What is the primary advantage of Insulin Lispro compared to regular Insulin?
A. Longer duration of action reaching up to 6 hours
B. No associated peak levels
C. It is less immunogenic
D. Less likelihood to cause hypoglycemic episodes
E. Rapid onset of action in 5 to 15 minutes
503. Which of the following new insulin preparations has a characteristics release pattern that shows no peak and a plateau serum
insulin level that is maintained for about 24 hours?
A. Insulin Glargine
B. Insulin Lispro
C. insulin Aspart
D. Ultralente Insulin
E. NPH Insulin
504. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Lente Insulin?
I. It is a mixture of 30% semilente and 70% ultralente Insulin
II. It is also known as NPH
III. It is an intermediate-acting Insulin preparation
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
505. A 50 year old male patient with Type2 Diabetes mellitus is maintained for the last 7 days on subcutaneous Isophane Insulin at 20
units and 10 units pre-supper. For the last three days, his capillary blood glucose levels have been consistently showing the following
values: 190 mg% (prebreakfast), 118mg% (2hr-post lunch), and 110 mg% (presupper). What recommendation will you make regarding
his therapy?
A. Increase his pre-breakfast insulin to 24 units while maintaining his pre-supper Insulin at 10 units
B. Increase his pre-breakfast Insulin to 24 units and his pre-supper Insulin to 12 units
C. Maintain his pre-breakfast and pre-supper Insulin doses give Insulin Lispro 4 units pre-breakfast
D. Maintain his pre-breakfast insulin at 20 units while increase his pre-supper insulin to 12 units
E. No change in the insulin doses as all values are within the acceptable range
506. A 50 year old male patient with type2 diabetes mellitus is maintain for the last 7 days of subcutaneous Isophane Insulin at 20 Units
pre-breakfast and 10 units pre-supper. For the last three days, his capillary blood glucose levels have been consistently showing the
following values: 110mg% ( pre-breakfast), 218mg% (2 hour post breakfast), 110 mg% (2 hour post lunch), and 110 mg% ( pre-
supper). What recommendation will you make regarding his therapy?
A. Increase his pre-breakfast insulin to 24 units while maintaining his pre-supper insulin at 10 units
B. Increase his pre-breakfast insulin to 24 units and his pre-supper insulin to 12 units
C. Maintain his pre-breakfast and pre-supper insulin doses but give insulin lispro 4 units pre-breakfast
D. Maintain his pre-breakfast insulin at 20 units while increase his pre-supper insulin to 12 units
E. No change in the insulin doses as all values are withih the acceptable range
507. Immune insulin resistance is said to be due to production of low levels of what type of insulin antibodies?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
508. Which of the following oral anti-diabetic drugs is/are known to induce hypoglycemia among diabetic and euglycemic individuals?
I. Sulfonylureas
II. Biguanides
III. Meglitinides
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
509. Which of the following antidiabetic drugs produced control of blood sugar by promoting directly or indirectly the release of
insulin by the remaining functional beta cells of the pancreas?
I. Meglitinides
II. Biguanides
III. Thiazolidinediones derivatives
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
510. Which of the following antidiabetic drugs has the longest half-life?
A. Chlorpropramide
B. Tolazamide
C. Tolbutamide
D. Glyburide
E. Glimepiride
511. What is the recommended clinical use of Repaglinide in the management of Diabetes mellitus?
A. Primarily given to control fasting blood glucose levels
B. Improves tissue response to insulin
C. Control post-prandial hyperglycemia
D. Control overnight blood sugar
E. Prevent absorption of carbohydrates
512. Which of the following drugs is a Biguanide?
A. Acetohexamide
B. Rosiglitazone
C. Nateglinide
D. Metformin
E. Acarbose
513. In which individuals should Biguanides be avoided as part of therapy for DM because of increased risk of lactic acidosis?
I. Chronic alcoholics
II. Coronary Artery disease
III. Chronic hepatits
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
514. Which of the following drugs is involved in regulating the genes involved in lipid and glucose metabolism and adiposite
differentiation by acting as ligand of the PPAR-gamma, thus useful for the managing Insulin resistance?
A. Metformin
B. Repaglinitide
C. Acarbose
D. Tolazamide
E. Rosiglitazone
515. Which of the following drugs may be given to type 1 DM patients as a combination therapy with Insulin?
A. Voglibose
B. Repaglinide
C. Nateglinide
D. Chlorpropamide
E. Glyburide
516. Which of the following are clinical use of Glucagon?
I. Reverse the physical deformity associated with acromegaly
II. Management of severe hypoglycemia
III. Reverse the cardiac effects of beta blockers overdose
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
517. Which of the following is the common complication associated with the alpha-glucosidase inhibitors?
A. Cardiac arrhythmia
B. Flatulence
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Hepatotoxicity
E. Interstitial Nephritis
518. Which of the following is the most common problem encountered in female patients using Progestin only oral contraceptive pills?
A. Mastalgia
B. Breakthrough bleeding
C.Increase in pigmentation
D. Hirsutism
E. hypertension
519. The risk of stroke is especially increase when oral contraceptives are given to which subpopulation of patients?
I. Age above 35 years old
II. Use of progestin only pills
III. Chronic smokers

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
520. Which of the following drugs is recommended prophylaxis for travelers in malaria endemic areas with known chloroquine-
resistant strains of Plasmodium falciparum?
I. Primaquine
II. Mefloquine
III. Atovaquone-proguanil
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
521. Although the clinical value of resistance reversal is not established, there are certain drugs that have been shown to reverse
chloroquine-resistance in malaria. Which of the following is an exemple of resistance reversing drugs?
A. Verapamil
B. Propranolol
C. Calcium gluconate
D. Primaquine
E. Diphenhydramine
522. Which of the following is the preferred treatment of malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax or Plasmodium ovale?
A. Clindamycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Fansidar
D. Halofantrine
E. Chloroquine
523. What is the treatment of choice for the management of severe falciparum malaria?
A. Chloroquine phosphate
B. Quinidine gluconate
C. Artemether
D. Artesunate
E. Doxycycline
524. Which of the following agents may be useful for eradicating a carrier state of Entamoeba histolytica?
I. Metronidazole
II. Diloxanide furoate
III. Iodoquinol
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
525. Which of the following agents is considered as the standard drug for the initial management of Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii)
pneumonia in patients with AIDS?
A. Cotrimoxazole
B. Pentamidine
C. Doxycycline
D. Meronidazole
E. Emetine
526. filariasis an infection which can lead to Lymphatic obstructive disease is caused by Wuchreria bancrofti and Brugia malayi.
Eradication of microfilaria can be accomplished by the use of which of the following agents?
A. Praziquantel
B. Diethycarabamazine citrate
C. Niclosamide
D. Albendazole
E. Metronidazole
527. What is the probable mechanism of action of Mebendazole, A broad spectrum anthelmintic agent for Ascariasis, Trichuriasis, and
hookworm infection?
A. Inhibition of the incorporation of PABA in to dehydropteroate
B. Intensifies GABA-mediated transmission in peripheral nerves of nematodes
C. Inhibition of cholinesterase action in parasites leading to paralysis of the worm
D. Inhibition of the microtubule synthesis
E. Increases permeability of the nematode cell membrane to calcium resulting to paralysis and death
528. Which of the following agents is considered as the drug of choice for most cestodal and trematodal infection?
A. Praziquantel
B. Mebendazole
C. Niclosamide
D. Albendazole
E. Metronidazole
529. Which of the following antineoplastic agents is considered as cell cycle specific agent in terms of its action on cancer cells?
A. Dactinomycin
B. Daunorubicin
C. Vincristine
D. Cisplatin
E. Mechlorethamine
530. Exemestane is a steroidal hormone agent that binds to and irreversibly inactivate aromatase enzyme. What is the clinical use of the
agent?
A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Renal cell carcinoma
C. Choriocarcinoma
D. Breast cancer
E. Colorectal cancer
531. Which of the following correctly provides the sequence of symptoms associated with carbon monoxide poisoning?
A. Psychomotor impairment headache confusion tachycardia coma
B. Convulsions headache tachycardia loss of visual acuity coma
C. Tachycardia confusion psychomotor impairment loss of visual acuity coma
D. Coma confusion headache tachycardia loss of visual acuity
E. Convulsions loss of visual acuity confusion tachycardia coma
532. Which of the following statements regarding carbon monoxide poisoning is/are correct?
I. The brain and the heart are the most affected organ
II. Forms carboxyhemoglobin which cannot transport oxygen
III. Smokingmales have a higher carboxyhemoglobin level

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
533. The ability of a chemical agent to cause injury in a given situation or setting is called?
A. Hazard
B. Risk
C. Exposure
D. Toxicity
E. Threshold
534. What is considered as the most common cause of air pollution?
A. Sulfur oxides
B. Nitrogen oxides
C. Hydrocarbons
D. Carbon monoxide
E. Ozone
535. Which of the following aliphatic hydrocarbons is considered as the most hepatotoxic?
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Chloroform
C. Trichloroethylene
D. Tetrachloroethylene
E. Methyl chloroform
536. What is the most important toxidrome of acute exposure to benzene?
A. CNS Stimulation
B. CNS depression
C. Bone marrow injury
D. Peripheral neuropathy
E. Leukemia
537. Which of the following is considered as the most significant serious toxic effect of chronic exposure to benzene?
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Bone marrow injury
E. Cardiotoxicity
538. What is considered as the most common cause of industrial lead poisoning?
A. Absorption of Lead via the gastric mucosa
B. Absorption of lead via the respiratory tract
C. Absorption of lead through the skin
D. Absorption of lead from the antiknock gasoline
E. Absorption of lead from the intestines
539. Which of the following factors predisposed to increased intestinal lead absorption?
I. Increased dietary Calcium
II. Iron deficiency

III. Ingestion in an empty stomach
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
540. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the pharmacokinetics of lead?
I. Lead can cross the placenta and pose a potential hazard to fetus
II. Adults have greater degree of absorption of ingested lead than young children
III. The major route of excretion of lead is through the urine
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
541. In developing a fetus as well as in a young child, what is considered as the most sensitive target organ for Lead’s toxic effect?
A. Active bone marrow
B. Kidneys
C. Immature reproductive organs
D. Gastrointestinal tract
E. Developing central nervous system
542. What is the primary repository site of lead in the body of an adult containing about 90% of the total body lead burden?
A. Liver
B. Bone
C. Brain
D. Gastrointestinal tract
E. Skin and its appendages
543. Which of the following chelating agents may be useful in the different phases of management of inorganic lead poisoning?
I. Calcium disodium edetate
II. Succimer
III. Dimercaprol
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
544. A patient presenting with encephalopathy, abdominal colic, hemolytic anemia and an elevated liver enzymes several days after
exposure to large amounts of a metallic poison may be suffering from what poisoning?
I. Acute inorganic lead poisoning
II. Acute Inorganic arsenic poisoning
III. Acute mercury
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
545. Which of the following effects correctly describe the mechanism of action of arsenic as a poison?
A. Inhibits generation of ATP by binding to cytochrome oxidase system in the electron transport chain
B. Inhibits effective oxygen delivery by oxidizing the hemoglobin iron form ferrous to ferric
C. Inhibits the enzyme activity by binding to the Sulfhydryl groups in the enzyme
D. Alters DNA transcription by impairing synthesis of mRNA
E. Intercalates with the DNA leading to failure of gene expression
546. Hepatolenticular degeneration is a result of chronic exposure to which metal?
A. Lead
B. Mercury
C. Iron
D. Copper
E. Arsenic
547. Chronic excessive exposure to this metal can lead to deposition in various organs and tissues causing the development of
conditions such secondary Diabetes mellitus, restrictive cardiomyopathy, and hepatic failure
A. Lead
B. Mercury
C. Iron
D. Copper
E. Arsenic
548. Erethism, a behavioral pattern characterized by change in mood from shyness, withdrawal and depression with explosive anger or
blushing, is seen as a manifestation of metal poisoning. It can be seen with other findings such as tremors progressing to choreiform
movements of limbs and gingivostomatitis. Which of the following metals may be responsible for these manifestations?
A. Lead
B. Mercury
C. Iron
D. Copper
E. Arsenic
549. The findings of congestive cardiomyopathy, pulmonary edema (cardiogenic and non-cardiogenic), pancytopenia with basophilic
stippling of erythrocytes, and ascending sensorimotor peripheral neuropathy with acute exposure, and the appearance of Aldrich-mees
lines months after the acute exposure are consistent with poisoning with which of the following metals?
A. Lead
B. Mercury
C. Iron
D. Copper
E. Arsenic
550. Chronic exposure with this metal has been linked with malignancies of the lung, skin, and the urinary bladder even at doses not
high enough to cause either acute or chronic toxicities. Which toxic chronic exposures on the hand, important findings include a
“raindrop” pattern of hyperpigmentation and hyperkeratosis of the palms and soloes,and a stocking-glove pattern of sensorimotor
neuropathy?
A. Lead
B. Mercury
C. Iron
D. Copper
E. Arsenic
551. Which of the following manifestations is most consistent with acute overdose of Iron, particularly in children?
A. Hemorrhagic gastroenteritis
B. Acute hepatic necrosis
C. Acute pulmonary edema
D. Encephalopathy and convulsions
E. Acute Gingivostomatitis
552. Which of the following is/are correct indications for the use of Dimercaprol?
I. Single-agent treatment of acute poisoning with inorganic or elemental mercury
II. Single-agent treatment of acute arsenic poisoning
III. Combination treatment with edentate calcium disodium for severe lead poisoning
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
553. Penicillamine, as a chelating agent, is primarily used for the treatment of poisoning with which of the following metals?
A. Lead
B. Mercury
C. Iron
D. Copper
E. Arsenic
554. Deferoxamine is primarily indicated for the treatment of poisoning with which of the following metals?
A. Lead
B. Mercury
C. Iron
D. Copper
E. Arsenic
555. Hemodialysis as an intervention for poisoning is indicated for which of the following drugs?
A. Morphine
B. Digoxin
C. Diazepam
D. Propranolol
E. Ethylene glycol
556. The use of activated charcoal as a means of eliminating a drug taken in overdose is applicable for which of the following drugs?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Ethanol
C. Ferrous sulfate
D. Lithium carbonate
E. Potassium chloride
557. Following a non-accidental ingestion of Acetaminophen tablets, what minimum serum acetaminophen level taken 4 hours after
ingestion will indicate a high risk of liver injury?
A. > 10mg/ml
B. > 50mg/L
C. > 1000mg/L
D. > 1500 mg/L
E. >2000mg/L
558. In the management of Quinidine-like cadiotoxicity associated with an overdose of a tricyclic antidepressant, which of the
following is the most useful intervention?
A. Physostigmine
B. Lidocaine
C. Quinidine
D. Sodium bicarbonate
E. Magnesium sulfate
559. Seizures as a manifestation of poisoning can be seen as a common component of the toxidrome of which of the following drugs?
I. Atropine
II. Methampethamine
III. Tricyclic antidepressants
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
560. Which of the following agents can cause a state of drunkenness followed a day later by severe anioin gap metabolic acidosis?
A. Ethylene glycol
B. Ethanol
C. Gamma-hydroxybutyrate
D. Lorazepam
E. Diazepam
561. The volume of Distribution of a drug may determine the efficacy of hemodialysis or hemoperfusion as a means of facilitating
elimination of the drug from the body. Which of the following drugs or drug groups have a high volume of distribution which makes
hemodialysis ineffective therapeutic option in cases of poisoning?
I. Antipsychotics
II. Antidepressants
III. Antimalarials
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
562. Constriction of pupils (miosis) is seen with poisoning or overdoses with which of the following agents?
A. Opoids
B. Tropane alkaloids
C. Amphetamines
D. LSD
E. Cocaine
563. Which of the following agents can cause a high anion gapmetabolic acidosis?
I. Methanol
II. Ethanol
III. Metformin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
564. What is the preferred treatment for severe Verapamil overdose?
A. Propranolol
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Epinephrine
D. Calcium gluconate
E. Naloxone
565. Which of the following is most appropriate treatment for the management of cardiac manifestations of theophylline or Caffeine
overdose?
A. Verapamil
B. Esmolol
C. Digoxin
D. Magnesium sulfate
E. Adenosine
566. Which of the following agents is most useful for the management of acetaminophen toxicity?
A. S-carboxymethylcysteine
B. N-acetylcysteine
C.Atropine
D. Ethanol
E. Oxygen
567. Which of the following agents may be useful for the treatment of poisoning due to methanol?
I .Ethanol
II. Glucagon
III. Fomepizole
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
568. Which of the following agents may be useful for the treatment of ethylene glycol poisoning?
I .Ethanol
II. Glucagon
III. Fomepizole
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
569. Royal jelly, a popular nutritional supplement form honeybee has been reported to cause which of the following adverse effects?
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. CNS depression
C. CNS stimulation
D. Anaphylaxis
E. Hemorrhagic gastritis
570. Ginkgo biloba is a common additive in a number of nutritional supplements. Which subset of patients should be cautioned against
the use ginkgo-containing products?
I. Patients receiving anticoagulation therapy
II. Patients with Alzheimers Dementia
III. Patients with history of seizures
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
571. Ginseng (Panax ginseng) is a popular additive in nutritional supplement due to its ability to improve physical and mental
performance. Which subset/s of patients must be advised regarding the potential adverse effect of Ginseng on their disease or when
taken concurrently with their medications?
I. Patients with Bronchial asthma
II. Patients taking warfarin
III. Patients with hypertension
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
572. Delayed neurotoxicity associated with exposure to organophosphate characterized by polyneuropathy, paralysis and axonal
degeneration has been attributed to what effect of these toxicants?
A. Inhibition of the plasma butyrylcholinesterase
B. Inhibition of release of Acetylcholine
C. Inhibition of the RBC acetylcholinesterase
D. Direct inhibition of myelin sheath function
E. Inhibition of the neuropathy target esterase
573. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the toxicology of the carbamate insecticides?
I. Inhibition of the cholinesterase enzyme is reversed easily with the use of pralidoxime
II. The clinical approach to management is similar to organophosphate poisoning
III. They are considered as persistent toxicants with great impact in the environment
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
574. Which of the following mechanisms explains the toxicity of the chlorinated hydrocarbon insecticides like DDT?
A. inhibit the ligand-gated sodium channels
B. Inhibit the enzyme acetylcholinesterase
C. Stimulate the GABA-A receptor
D. Inhibit the inactivation of sodium channels
E. Promote outward potassium transport
575.Toxidromes of poisoning with chlorinated hydrocarbons primarily consists of which of the following manifestations?
A. CNS stimulation
B. CNS depression
C. Bone marrow suppression
D. Cardiac rhythm disturbance
E. Hepatic failure
576. Which of the following agents is/are considered as botanical insecticide/s (derived from botanical sources)?
I. Nicotine
II. Rotenone
III. Pyrethrum
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
577. What is the minimum fatal dose of nicotine, equivalent to 2 sticks of cigarettes?
A. 10mg
B. 20 mg
C. 40mg
D. 80 mg
E. 160 mg
578. Which of the following findings is/are consistent with acute nicotine toxicity?
I. Hypertension
II. Peripheral vasodilatation
III. Cardiac arrhythmia
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
579. Which of the following describe/s the appropriate management of acute nicotine toxicity?
I. Anticonvulsant therapy mainly involves the use of benzodiazepine like Diazepam
II. Epinephrine is given to increase the blood pressure
III. Neostigmine is given to counteract the neuromuscular blockade
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
580. Paraquat is described as having a toxicity rating of 4. What are the probable human lethal dosages with this rating?
A. 5,000-50,000mg/kg body weight
B. 500- 5,000mg/kg body wt
C. 50- 500mg/kg body wt
D. 5-50mg/kg body wt
E. not more than 5 mg/kg body wt
581. Parathion has a toxicity rating of 6. What are the probable human lethal dosages with this rating?
A. 5,000-50,000mg/kg body weight
B. 500- 5,000mg/kg body wt
C. 50- 500mg/kg body wt
D. 5-50mg/kg body wt
E. not more than 5 mg/kg body wt
582. The insecticide Azinphos-methyl can cause death when ingested at a dose of 20 mg/kg body wt. What is its toxicity rating?
A.1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 5
E. 6
583. Which of the following toxicants is known to accumulate slowly in the lungs by an active process and causes lung edema,
alveolitis, and progressive pulmonary fibrosis days to weeks after an exposure?
A. Paraquat
B. Scopolamine
C. Parathion
D. Dioxin
E. Nicotine
584.Yusho disease documented in Japan in the 1960’s is associated with exposure to which of the following toxicants?
A.Polychlorinated biphenyls
B. Paraquat
C. Nicotine
D. Aconite
E. Mercury
585. What is considered as the most common mode of exposure to poisons?
A. inhalation
B. Dermal exposure
C. Ingestion
D. Ophthalmic
E. Bites
586. In the initial treatment of poisoning at home, which of the following instructions is correct to give regarding inducing vomiting as
an initial intervention?
A. Vomiting can be induced safely with either Extract of Ipecac syrup
B. for adults, use 2 tablespoonfuls of Ipecac syrup followed by a glassful of water
C. For children, less than 1 year old, use one tablespoonful of Ipecac followed by a glassful of water
D. If the patient does not vomit with Ipecac, use salt water or mustard as an alternative
E. If the patient does not vomit with Ipecac, try other techniques like tickling the back of the throat of your finger
587. Which of the following situations will contraindicate induction of vomiting as an intervention in cases of poisoning?
I. Patient has ingested petroleum products
II. Patient is less than 1 year old
III. Patient is having convulsion
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
588. Hyperbaric oxygen supplementation may be necessary intervention if no response is seen with 100% oxygen supplementation in
cases of poisoning with which of the following toxicants?
I. carbon monoxide
II. Nitrobenzene
III. Cyanide
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
589. Milk may be used to dilute ingested toxicants. Which of the following ingested poisons may be manage initially by the
administration of milk?
I. Hypochlorite
II. Corrosive acids
III. Fluoride
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
590. Alteration of pH can alter renal elimination of certain toxins. Which of the following toxicants may be safely eliminated by either
acidification or alkalinization of urine?
I. Phencyclidine
II. Salicylates
III. Amphetamines
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
591. Which of the following rugs may be useful to manage complication of exposures to nitrogen oxides and nitrobenzene?
A. Methylene blue
B. Ethanol
C. Calcium gluconate
D. Activated charcoal
E. Penicillamine
592. Toxidrome consisting of CNS depression followed by severe metabolic acidosis, blindness with initial “snowstorm-like” visual
disturbance, and coma is most consistent with which of the following toxicants?
A. Nitrates
B. Warfarin
C. Ethanol
D. Methanol
E. Ethylene glycol
593. The manifestations of oxalate poisoning are best managed with which of the following antidotes?
A. Calcium gluconate
B. Fomepizole
C. Glucagon
D. Sodium bicarbonate
E. Atropine
594. A 20 year old male patient is admitted after ingesting 20 tablets of 300mg Isoniazid tablet. Which of the following statements
is/are correct regarding the management of this patient?
I. Administer a total of 6000mg pyridoxine in divided doses by slow IV
II. Give activated charcoal slurry
III. Given benzodiazepines to control seizures
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
595. Historically, a “universal antidote” was employed in the management of poisoning. Recent studies have shown that the two of the
components of this so-called universal antidote have no significant efficacy. What are the components of this so-called “universal
antidote”?
A. activated charcoal, calcium oxide, tannic acid
B. activated charcoal, magnesium oxide, tannic acid
C. activated charcoal, milk of magnesia, milk
D. Milk of magnesia, tannic acid, strong tea
E. activated charcoal, milk, ipecac
596. Which of the following interventions is/are applicable in cases of acute opioid overdose?
I. Activated charcoal dose not have a role in the management of opoid poisoning
II. Naloxone can be administered IV, IM, or SC

III. If respiratory depression develops, 2mg of naloxone is administered and may be repeated as necessary
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
597. A patient is given physostigmine to manage poisoning with anti-muscarinic agent. Which of the following is/are possible
complications of therapy with physostigmine?
I. Cholinergic crisis
II. Seizures
III. Asystole
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
598. In the management of Mercury Poisoning, which of the following is/are important considerations?
I. dimercaprol is not used for elemental and organic mercury poisoning as the drug may redistribute mercury from tissues to brain
II. Chelation from unithiol may diminished nephrotoxicity that may result from acute exposure to inorganic mercury
III. In acute exposure, the efficacy of chelation therapy diminishes with time since exposure
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
599. Dimercaptopropanesulfonic acid is also known as ______?
A. Dimercaprol
B. Succimer
C. D-dimethylcysteine
D. unithiol
E. Deferoxamine
600. What is the mechanism of action of Glucagon that makes the drug useful for the management of overdoses or poisoning with
drugs that directly inhibit myocardial contractility?
A. glucagon directly stimulates calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Glucagon directly binds to beta adrenergic receptors leading to an increase cAMP
C. Glucagon binds to glucagons receptors that stimulates production of IP3 and cause an increase in intracellular calcium
D. Glucagon binds to glucagons receptors leading to generation of cAMP
E. Glucagon increases cAMP levels by inhibiting the enzyme phosphodiesterase
f.
Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy
PHARMACEUTICAL DOSAGE FORMS QUESTION
1. It is the process of comminution in which a paste is formed by combining the powder

material and a small amount of liquid in which the powder is insoluble.
I. levigation III. Spatulation
II. Pulverization by intervention
B. III only E. I, II and III
C. I and II
2. Powders containing deliquescent and hygroscopic materials should be wrapped in
what kind of paper?
I.Vegetable parchment III.Waxed paper
II.Glassine paper
B. III only E. I,II and III
C. I and II
3. This method is used when a small amount of potent substances is to be mixed
with a large amount of diluents.
A. Block and divide method C. geometric dilution E. trituration
B. Spatulation D. sifting
4. In preparing effervescent granulated salts, which of the following statement/s hold/s
true?
I. Effervescent granules can be prepared using two methods, the dry and
wet methods.
II. The effervcence from the released CO2 serves to mask the bitter or salty
taste of drugs.
III. Using tartaric acid as the sole acid would result in a sticky mixture which is
difficult to granulate.
A. I only C. I and II E. I, II and III
B. III only D. II and III
5. Which of the following powders can be classified as bulk powders?

I. Douche III. Insufflation
II. Dusting powder

C. I and II E. I, II and III
B. III only
6. The following statement/s hold/s true for capsules:

I. They are solid dosage forms in which material agents &/ or inert
substance are enclosed within a small shell of gelatin.
II. Gelatin capsules may be hard or soft depending on their composition.
III. Soft gelatin capsules are used by community pharmacist in the
extemporaneous compounding of prescriptions.
7. Normally how many % of water is contained in a hard gelatin capsule?
A. 8-10 C. 20-25 E.5-10
B. 12-16 D. 2-5
8. The largest size of hard, empty capsule that can be swallowed is :
A. 00 C. 00 E. 0
B. 000 D. 5
9. The following statement/s is/are true:
I. Gelatin is obtained by the partial hydrolysis of collagen obtained from the
skin, white connective tissue and bones of animals.
II. Although gelatin is insoluble in cold water, it does soften through the
absorption of up to ten times the weight of the water.
III. Gelatin is soluble in hot water and in warm gastric fluid; a gelatin capsule
rapidly dissolves and exposes its contents.
B. III only E. I, II and III
C. I and II
10. Prolonged exposure to high humidity can affect in vitro dissolution of capsules
containing:
I. tetracycline
II. Chloramphenicol
III. Nitrofurantoin
11. This chemical agent is used to render the capsule opaque:
A. titanium dioxide C. Magnesium oxide E. lactose
B. Sorbitol D. Silica
12. The following statement/s is/are true for soft gelatin capsules (SGC):
I. SGC is made of gelatin to which glycerin or a polyhydric alcohol has been
added.
II. Methyl parabens can be used as preservatives to retard microbial growth.
III.SCGs can be prepared using the “punch” method and also require opaquants
to reduce transparency and render characteristics feature to the capsule shell.
13. Types of liquids that may be encapsulated into soft gelatin capsules include the
following:
I. Vegetable and aromatic oils
II. Propylene glycol
III. Polyethylene glycols
14. Substances added to capsules must possess the following characteristic/s:
I. Are harmless in the quantities used
II. Do not exceed the minimum amounts required to provide their intended effect
III. Do not impair the product’s bioavailability, therapeutic efficacy or safety
15. These are compressed tablets coated with substances that resist dissolution in
gastric fluid but integrate in the intestine.
I. Film-coated tablets III. Enteric-coated tablets
II. Sugar-coated tablets
16. This type of coating imparts the same general characteristics as sugar coating with
the added advantage of greatly reduced time period required for the coating operation.
I. Enteric coating III. Film coating
II. Single-layer coating
17. These tablets were originally used by physicians in the extemporaneous preparation
of parenteral solutions.
I. Chewable tablets III. Hypodermic tablets
II. Dispensing tablets
18. Enteric-coated tablets have the following characteristic/s:
I. Have delayed-release features
II. The containing system used should only be aqueous-based and not organic-
solvent based to resist the breakdown in gastric fluids
III. Are intended to pass through the stomach intact to disintegrate and release their
drug-content for absorption along the intestines
A. I only C. I and III E. I, II and III
B. II & III D. III only
19. Example of materials used in enteric coating includes:
I. Shellac III. Polyvinyl acetate phthalate
II. Cellulose acetate phthalate
A. I only C. II only E. I, II and III
B. I and II D. II and III
20. The following statement/s is/are true for compressed tablets:

I. These are tablets formed by compression and may contain other special coating
if desired.
II. Tablet diameters and shapes are determined by the die and punches used in the
compression of the tablet.
III. They are made from powdered, crystalline or granular materials, alone or in
combination with binders, disintegrants, controlled-release polymers, lubricants,
diluents and colorants.
A. I only C. II only E. I, II and III
B. I and II D. II and III
21. This is a method of preparing tablets in which the powder mixture is compacted in
large pieces and subsequently broken down or sized into granules.
A. Wet granulation C. Direct compression
B. Dry granulation
22. For some granular chemicals like potassium chloride, this method of preparation is
of an advantage to use.
A. Wet granulation
B. Dry granulation
C. Direct compression
23. The problems most commonly encountered during direct compression include:
I. Capping III. Lamination
II. Splitting
A. I only D. III only
B. II and III E. I, II and III
C. I and III
24. For chemicals which do not possess cohesive and free-following properties, the
following excipients could be used to impart necessary qualities for the production of
tablets b direct compression.
I. Spray-dried lactose III. Fume silicon dioxide
II. Magnesium stearate
A. I only D. II only
B. I and II E. I, II and III
C. II and III
25. The following statement/s is/are true for wet granulation method:
I. Liquid binder is added to the powder mixture to facilitate the adhesion of the
powder particles
II. Over-wetting of the powder can result in granules that are too soft for proper
tableting and under-wetting can result in tablets that are too hard
III. Granules may be dried in thermostatically controlled ovens which constantly
record the time, temperature and humidity.
A. I only C. I & III E. I, II, III
B. I & II D. II & III
26. Lubricants contribute to the preparation of compressed tablets by:
I. Improving the flow of granulation in the hopper to die cavity
II. Preventing the adhesion of the tablet formulation to the punches and dies during
compression
III. Reducing friction between the tablet and die wall during the tablet’s ejection from
the tablet machine
A. I only B. I & II C. I & III
D. II & III E. I, II, III
27. A fluid-bed granulator performs which of the following steps?
I. Preblends the formulation powder, including active ingredients, fillers,

disintegrants, in a bed by fluidized air.
II. Granulates the mixture by spraying onto the fluidized powder bed, suitable liquid
binder, as an aqueous solution of acacia, hydroxypropyl cellulose or povidone
III. Drying the granulated product to the desired moisture content

28. Dry granulation:
Used for tablet
I. Ingredients that is sensitive to moisture or unable to withstand elevated
temperature during drying
II. One of the constituents, either the active ingredient or the diluents, must
have cohesive properties
III. Includes more number of steps than wet granulation

29. Aspirin, which is hydrolyzed on exposure to moisture, is prepared into tablet using
the dry granulation method. Other drugs which should be prepared using this process
include:
I. Ascorbic acid II. Methenamine III. Thiamine HCl
30. This process is a form of pelletization, which refers to the formation of spherical
particles from wet granulations.
A. Spheronization C. Compaction E. Double
B. Slugging D. Precompression compression
31. This method consists of bringing together a highly dispersed liquid and a sufficient
volume of hot air to produce evaporation and drying of the liquid droplets.
A. Spray drying C. Spray chilling E. Dry heating
B. Spray congealing D. Moist heating
32. Spray-dried powder particles possess the following characteristic/s:
I. They are homogenous, approximately spherical in shape and nearly uniform in
size.
II. Have low bulk density with rapid rate of solution
III. Preparation is less economical than other processes
A. I only B. III only C. I & II
33. This the only carbohydrate used in the preparation of compressed tablet which
possesses high heat stability.
A. lactose C. sucrose E. fructose
B. mannitol D. starch
34. The following statement/s is/are true used in the preparation of sugar-free chewable
tablets?
I. Mannitol is used as the excipient in most chewable tablets.
II. These tablets are formulated to disintegrate smoothly in the mouth with or
without active chewing.
III. These tablets are particularly useful for children and adults who have difficulty
swallowing other solid dosage forms
35. Which excipient/s is/are used in the preparation of sugar-free chewable tablets?
I. Lactose
II. Dextrose
III. Xylitol
A. I only C. I & II E. I, II, III
B. III only D. II & III
36. Tablet coating has the following advantage/s:
I. Protect the medicinal agent destructive exposure to air and/or humidity
II. Mask the unpleasant taste of the drug
III. Provide special characteristics of drug release
A. I only C. II & III E. I, II, III
B. I & II D. I & III
37. Film coated tablets possess the following characteristic/s:
I. Less resistant to destruction by abrasion than are sugar coated tablets
II. Coating may be colored to make tablets attractive and distinctive
III. Film-coating solutions may be non-aqueous or aqueous
A. I only C. II only E. III only
38. This substance provides water solubility or permeability to the film to ensure
penetration by body fluids and therapeutic availability of the drug.
A. alloying substance C. film former E. glossant
B. Plasticizer D. surfactant
39. Problems encountered on the use of aqueous based film coating solution include:
I. Slow evaporation of the solvent-based solutions
II. Expensive as compared to volatile solvents
III. Increased likelihood of water interference with the tablet formulation
A.I only C. I & III E. I, II, III
40. AQUACOAT is a commercially available water-based colloidal coating dispersion
which contains 30% ethyl cellulose pseudolatex. Pseudolatex dispersion has:
I. A high solid content for greater coating activity
II. Low viscosity which allows less water to be used in the coating dispersion
III. Low viscosity which permits greater coat penetration into the crevices of
monogrammed or scored tablets

41. This is a problem often encountered in film coating process characterized by
roughness of the tablet surface due to failure of spray droplets to coalesce.
A. peeling C. orange-peel effect E. bridging
B. picking D. mottling
42. This problem corresponds to the filling-in of the score line or indented logo on the
tablet by the film.
43. This problem is characterized by the appearance of small amounts of film fragments
flaking from the tablet surface.
44. The following statement/s is/are true for pills:
I. Are small, round, solid dosage form containing a medicinal agents and intended
to be administered orally
II. Have been replaced today by compressed tablets and capsules
III. Are placed in the mouth, where they dissolve slowly, liberating the active
ingredient
45. These are forms of oral medication which are discoid-shaped solids containing the
medicinal agent in a suitably flavored base.
I. Troches
II. Pastilles
III. Lozenges
46. The following drug is/are available in pellet forms:
I. Testosterone III. Desoxycorticoster
II. Estradiol one
47. This type of dosage form allows a reduction in dosing frequency to that presented
by a conventional dosage form.
A. Extended-release C. Repeat action E. Targeted release
B. Delayed-release D. Modified-release
48. This type dosage form is designed to release the drug form at a time other than
promptly after administration.
49. The following statement/s hold/s true for extended-release dosage forms:
I. There is reduction in drug blood level fluctuations.
II. There is frequency reduction in dosing
III. There is reduction in terms of adverse side effects.
A. I only C. II only E. I, II, III
50. In general, the drugs best suited for incorporation into an extended-release product
have the following characteristic/s:
I. Exhibit either very slow or very fast rates of absorption and excretion
II. Are uniformly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
III. Used in the treatment of acute rather than chronic conditions
A. I only C. II only E. III only
51. This is process by which solids, liquids or even gases may be encapsulated into
miscroscopic size particles through the formation of thin coating of “wall” material
around the substance being encapsulated.
I. Microencapsulation
II. Microscoencapsulation
III. Micromeritics

52. The following statement/s is/are true when embedding drug in inert plastic matrix:
I. The drug is granulated with an inert plastic material such as polyethylene and the
granulation is compressed into tablets
II. The drug is rapidly released from the inert plastic matrix by diffusion.
III. The compression of the tablet creates the matrix or plastic form that retains its
shape during the leaching of the drug and through its passage through the
alimentary tract.
53. The effectiveness of the hydrophilic matrix systems is based on the successive
processes of:
I. Hydration of the cellulose polymer
II. Gel formation on the polymer’s surface
III. Tablet erosion and subsequent and continuous release of the drug
54. Which of the following statement/s on drug release form the dosage form is correct:
I. The release of the drug in a drug-resin complex is dependent upon the pH of the
GIT only.
II. The release of the drug in a drug-resin complex is dependent upon the pH and
the electrolyte concentration in the GIT.
III. Release is less in the acidity of the stomach than in the less acidic environment
of the small intestines.
A. Only the first statement is true
B. Only the second statement is true
C. The first two statements are true
D. The last two statement are true
E. All the true
55. These tablets are prepared so that an initial dose of drug is released immediately
followed later by a second dose.
56. The following statement/s is/are true for ophthalmic inserts:
I. Eliminates the problem of rapid loss of administered drug due to the blinking of
the eye and flushing of lacrimal fluids
II. The rate of drug diffusions is controlled by the polymer composition, membrane
thickness, and solubility of the drug.
III. Ocusert and lacrisert are example of ophthalmic inserts
57. These are solid dosage forms which are designed to be inserted under the skin by
special injectors or by surgical incision.
A. Implants C. Plasters E. Troches
B. Cachets D. Pills
58. The following should be observed in the use of oral modified-release dosage forms:
I. These products should not be crushed or chewed.
II. Nonerodible plastic matrix shells and osmotic tablets remain intact throughout GI
transmit and empty shell or “ghost” from osmotic tablets may be seen in stool
III. Patients being fed by enteral nutrition through a nasogastric feeding tube should
not receive this type of drug.
59. The release of a drug from an oral dosage form may be intentionally delayed until it
reaches the intestines for several reasons. The purpose may be:
A. to protect the drug destroyed by gastric fluids
B. to reduce gastric distress caused by drugs particularly irritating to the stomach
C. to facilitate GI transit for drugs which are better absorbed from the intestines
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
60. It is the most common “wall” forming material used in microencapsulation.
A. lactose C. dextrose E. starch
B. gelatin D. sorbitol
61. The following statement/s is/are true for ointments:
I. These are semi-solid preparations intended for external application to the skin or
mucous membranes.
II. They may be medicated or nonmedicated
III. Nonmedicated ointments are used as protectants, emollients or lubricants.
B. I & II D. III only
62. The following statement/s is/are true for hydrocarbon bases:
I. Also termed as oleaginous bases
II. Have an emollient effect and are effective as occlusive dressing
III. Permit the incorporation of powdered substances with the use of a levigating
agent
63. Yellow ointment is an example of
A. Hydrocarbon base D. Water-removable
B. Oleaginous base base
C. Absorption base E. A& B
64. The following ointment base/s is/are classified as hydrocarbon base/s:
I. Petrolatum
II. White ointment
III. Polyethylene Glycol Ointment
65. Petrolatum, USP is:
A. A purified mixture of semi-solid hydrocarbons from petroleum that has been
wholly or nearly decolorized
B. Also known as Yellow ointment
C. Is also known as white Vaseline
D. Water-soluble
E. Water-washable
66. Yellow ointment USP is:
I. Also called as “Simple Ointment”
II. Has Yellow wax and petrolatum as the main ingredients
III. Bleached and purified wax obtained from the honeycomb of the bee, Apis
mellifera
67. The following statement/s is/are true for absorption bases:
These bases permit the incorporation of aqueous solution resulting in the formation of
water-in-oil emulsions
These bases are not easily removed from the skin with water
These bases may be used as emollient although they do not provide the degree of
occlusions afforded by hydrocarbon bases.
68. Hydrophilic petrolatum is:
A. Hydrocarbon base
B. Oleaginous base
C. Absorption base
D. Water-removable base
E. Water-soluble
69. Lanolin USP:
I. Is classified as hydrocarbon ointment base
II. Contains not more than 2% of water
III. Is a purified, wax-like substance that has been cleaned, deodorized and
decolorized
70. These are ointment bases which resemble creams in appearance.
A. Hydrocarbon base
B. Water-soluble base
C. Absorption base
E. Oleaginous base
71. The following statement/s is/are true for Hydrophilic Ointment USP:
I. When preparing, stearyl alcohol and white petrolatum are melted together at 90
degrees
II. Stearyl alcohol and white petrolatum comprise the oleaginous phase of the
emulsion
III. Sodium lauryl sulfate acts as the emulsifying agent
A. I only D. II & III
B. III only E. I, II, III
C. I & II
72. These ointment bases are referred to as “greaseless” bases.
A. Hydrocarbon base
C. Absorption base
E. Oleaginous base
73. Polyethylene glycol Ointment, NF is:
A. Hydrocarbon base
C. Absorption base
E. Oleaginous base
74. The following statement/s is/are true for ointment base:
I. Water-soluble bases have the ability to absorb serous discharges
II. Hydrocarbon bases can remain on the skin for prolonged periods of time without
drying out
III. Water-removable bases can also be called as water-soluble bases.
B. I & II D. II only
75. The following statement/s is/are true for the preparation of ointment using the
incorporation method
I. By this method, the components are mixed until a uniform preparation is attained
II. This method does not involved the process of levigating
III. Mortar and pestle or spatula may be used to rub the ingredients together on an
ointment slab
76. The following statement/s is/are true about levigation:
I. Levigation allows both reduction of particle size and the dispersion of the
substance in the vehicle.
II. Glycerin is the levigating agent used for bases where water is the external phase
III. The amount of levigating agent used should be about equal in volume to the solid
maerial.
77. The following statement/s is/are true for the preparation of ointments by fusion:
I. All or some of the components of an ointment are combined by being melted
together and cooled with constant stirring until congealed.
II. Heat-labile substances are added last when the temperature of the mixture is low
enough.
III. Medicated ointments containing beeswax, paraffin, stearyl alcohol are prepared
using this method.
78. These are semi-solid preparation containing one or more medicinal agents
dissolved or dispersed in either an oil-in-water emulsions or in another type of water-
washable base.
A. Creams C. paste E. lotion
B. gel D. ointments
79. The following statement/s is/are true:
I. Vanishing creams are water-in-oil emulsions containing small amounts of water.
II. Creams find primary application in topical skin products and in products used rectally
and vaginally
III.Ointments are preferred more by patients due to ease of spreadability
80. These are semi-solid systems consisting of dispersion of small or large molecules in
an aqueous liquid vehicle rendered jelly-like through the addition of a gelling agent.
A. Creams C. Gelatin E. Pastes
B. Gel D. Ointments
81. The following statement/s is/are true regarding gels:
I. Gels may thicken on standing, forming a thixotrope and must be shaken before
use.
II. Milk of magnesia is an example of a single-phase gel
III. Gels and jellies are two different terms
82. The following statement/s is/are true for pastes:
I. They generally contain a smaller proportion of solid material than ointments.
II. They are less greasy and less stiffer than their counterpart ointments due to
reduced amount of based used.
III. They remain in place after application and are effectively employed to absorb
serous secretions.
A. I only C. I&III E. I, II, III
B. I&II D. III only
83. Zinc oxide paste:
I. Can be applied to hairy parts of the body
II. Prepared by levigating and mixing 25% each of zinc oxide and starch with white
petrolatum
III. Also known as Lassar’s Plain Zinc Paste
A. I only C. I&III E. I, II
B. III only D. II&III
84. These are solid or semi-solid adhesive masses spread upon a backing material of
Paper, fabric, moleskin or plastic
A. Creams
B. Plasters
C. Paste
D. Ointments
E. Lotion
85. How many % of glycerin is contained in a glycerogelatin preparation?
A. 15% C. 40% E. 10%
B. 35% D. 5%
86. The following statement/s is/are true for glycerogelatins:
I. They are applied to the skin for long term residence
II. They are intended to be swallowed just like gelatin capsules
III. They are applied to the affected area with affine brush
87. Zinc Gelatin:
I. Jelly
II. Used to treat varicose ulcers
III. Glycerogelatin
88. The following statement/s is/are true for topical agents:
I. Pastes offer even greater occlusion and more effective than ointment at
absorbing serous discharge
II. Ointment spread more easily than creams.
III. These agents also include ophthalmic solutions, suspensions, and inserts.
A. I only B. III only C. I&III
D. II&III E. I, II, III
89. The ointment base selected for an ophthalmic ointment must possess the following
characteristic/s:
I. Non-irritating to the eye
II. Permits the diffusion of the medicinal substance throughout the secretions
bathing the eye
III. Have a softening point close to the body temperature
90. The use of ophthalmic ointments and gels offers the following advantage/s:
Provides extended residence time on the surface of the eye
Blurring of vision can be encountered
Increase the bioavailability for absorption into ocular tissues
91. The factor/s which play/s a part in percutaneous absorption is/are:
I. Molecular weight III. solubility
II. Partitioning coefficient
A.I only C. I&II E. I, II, III
B. II only D. II&III
92. The following statement/s is/are true about percutaneous absorption:
I. The amount of drug percutaneously absorbed per unit of surface area per time
interval increase as the concentration of the drug substance in the transdermal
drug delivery system is increased.
II. The hydration of the skin hinders percutaneous absorption
III. The longer the period of time the medicated application is permitted to remain in
contact with the skin, the greater will be the total drug absorption.
93. The following statement/s is/are true about percutaneous absorption:
I. Drugs penetrate through the skin better in their unionized form.
II. Non-polar drugs tend to cross the cell barrier through the lipid-rich regions
(transcellular route) whereas the polar drugs favor transport between cells
(intracellular)
III. More drugs are absorbed when the drug substance is applied and concentrated
on a smaller surface area.
94. The selection of a permeation enhancer in developing a TDDS should be based on:
I. Efficacy in enhancing skin permeation
II. Biocompatibility with other components
III. Physicochemical compatibility with other components
95. The design objectives of TDDS include:
I. To deliver the drug at an optimal rate of the skin for percutaneous absorption at
the therapeutic levels
II. To adhere well to the patient’s skin and have a patch-size, appearance and site-
placement that encourage patient acceptance
III. To occlude the skin to ensure the one-way flux of the drug into the stratum
corneum
96. Transdermal Drug Delivery System:
I. Avoids gastrointestinal drug absorption difficulties
II. Avoids the occurrence of contact dermatitis
III. Drug therapy cannot be terminated rapidly.
97. The following can be formulated as TDDS
I. Scopolamine
II. Nicotine
III. Clonidine
98. Which of the following statement should be considered in the use of TDDS?
I. Rotating locations within the recommended site should be avoided in the
application of replacement patches.
II. Wet or moist skin can hinder drug permeation beyond that which is intended
III. Use of skin lotions should be avoided at the application site because they affect
skin hydration and can also alter the partition coefficient between the drug in the
TDDS and the skin.
99. This layer functions to store and release the drug at the skin-site.
A. occlusive backing membrane
B. release-liner
C. matrix system
D. hydrophilic layer
E. Adhesive layer
100. TDDS offers the following advantage/s:
I. Avoid first-pass effect
II. Provide extended therapy with a single application
III. Non-invasive
101. The following statement/s hold/s true for suppositories:
I. They are solid dosage forms of various weights and shapes, usually medicated,
for insertion into the rectum, vagina, or urethra.
II. After insertion, they soften, melt, disperse or dissolve in the cavity fluids.
III. They are intended to exert local effects only.
102. Pessaries:
I. Usually globular or oviform and weighs 2g each when cocoa butter is the base
II. Employed principally to combat infections occurring in the female genitourinary
area
III. The most commonly used base consist of combination of the various molecular
weight PEG

103. Rectal suppositories:
I. Pediatric suppositories are more narrow and pencil-shaped than the typical
bullet-shaped adult suppository
II. Suppositories intended for female are about half the length and weight of the
male counterpart.
III. Have both local and systemic effects
A. I only C. I&II E. I, II, III
B. III only D. I&III
104. The following statement is/are true:
I. The dose of the drug administered rectally may be greater than or less than the
dose of the same drug given orally.
II. A rectum that is void offers greater absorption than a rectum distended with fecal
matter.
III. Lymphatic circulation is not involved in the absorption of rectally administered
drugs.

105. Rectal absorption is affected by both physiologic and physicochemical factors.
Physiologic factors would include:
I. pH
II. colonic contents
III. lack of buffering capacity
106. In choosing a suppository base, one needs to assess if:
I. The base remains solid at room temperature but softens, melts or dissolves
readily at body temperature
II. The active ingredient would be released more readily from the base
III. The base is compatible with the other components in all aspects

107. Glyceryl monopalmitate is an example of this type of suppository base.
A. Fatty base C. Water-soluble base E. Absorption base
B. Water-miscible base D. Miscellaneous base
108. This type of suppository base includes mixtures of fatty and water-soluble bases.
A. Fatty base
B. Water-miscible base D. Miscellaneous base
C. Water-soluble base E. Absorption base
109. Cocoa butter:
I. Because of triglyceride content, it exhibits marked polymorphism
II. Phenol and chloral hydrate can increase its melting point when incorporated with
it.
III. The β form has a greater stability and melting point.

110. This suppository base is the most frequently used for vaginal suppositories.
A. glycerinated glycerin
B. PEG
C. cocoa butter
D. polyoxyl 40
E. Wecobee base
111. the most frequently employed method in the preparation of suppositories both on
small scale and on industrial scale is:
A. molding C. hand rolling E. melting
B. compression D. hand shaping
112. Suppositories of which ointment bases are suitable for preparation by molding?
I. Cocoa butter
II. Glycerinated gelatin
III. PEG
113. In the preparation for compression into molds, the suppository base and other
formulative ingredients are combined by thorough mixing. Which of the following
statement/s hold/s true for this method?
I. Friction causes the base to soften into a paste like consistency.
II. Compression is suited for making suppositories containing medicinal substances
that are heat stable
III. Mortar and pestle can be used for small scale preparations.
114. The pharmacist should inform the patient about the proper use of suppositories.
This should include:
I. Suppositories should be allowed to warm to room temperature before insertion if
they are to be stored in a refrigerator.
II. Glycerinated gelatin or PEG suppositories should not be allowed to come in
contact with moisture in any case.
III. Bullet-shaped rectal suppositories should be inserted point-end first.

115. The packaging and storage of the suppositories is very important to prevent the
environment and moisture induced deterioration or loss of activity. The guidelines for
packing and storage should include:
I. Suppositories from cocoa butter base are usually individually wrapped or
otherwise separated in compartmentalized boxes.
II. Suppositories from cocoa butter base must be stored below 30◦C preferably in a
refrigerator.
III. Suppositories from PEG bases may be stored at usual room temperature without
the requirement for refrigeration.
116. Solutions are liquid preparations that contain one or more chemical substances
dissolved in a suitable solvent or mixture of mutually miscible solvents. Which of the
following solvents may be used in the preparation of solutions?
I. Alcohol USP III. Glycerin, USP
II. Propylene Glycol, USP
117. Next to water, alcohol is the most useful solvent in pharmacy. The following
statement/s is/are true for alcohol:
I. It is preferred often because of its miscibility with water and its ability to dissolve
many water-insoluble ingredients.
II. When alcohol is already used, propylene glycol should not be added anymore
because the two solvents are immiscible
III. Alcohol USP contains not less than 99.5% C2H5OH by volume.
118. Glycerin is a clear syrupy liquid with a sweet taste and may be used as a solvent
for the preparation of solutions. Other feature/s of this solvent is/are:
I. Miscible with water but not with alcohol
II. Has preservative qualities and is used as stabilizer
III. Solutes are slowly soluble in it unless rendered less viscous by heating
119. Ordinary drinking water obtained from tap is not generally acceptable for the
manufacture of most aqueous pharmaceutical preparations or for the extemporaneous
compounding of prescription mainly because of:
I. The chemical incompatibilities that may result from the combination of dissolved
solids present and the medicinal agent being added
II. Precipitation, discoloration and occasional effervescence
III. The difference between the use of purified and ordinary tap water is of no
consequence.
120. Purified water, USP:
I. Obtained by distillation, ion-exchange treatment, reverse osmosis or other
suitable process
II. Intended for use in the preparation of aqueous dosage forms other than
parenterals
III. 1000 times more free of dissolved solids than is water
121. The main methods used in the preparation of purified water are distillation and ion-
exchange. In distillation:
I. The first 5% of the aqueous distillate must be discarded
II. The last portion of the water about 100% of original volume, remaining in the
distillation apparatus must be discarded
III. Water purified in this manner is referred to as demineralized water
B. II only D. II & III
122. The ion-exchanged process involves the passage of water through a column of
cation and anion exchangers. As compared to the distillation process, this method:
I. Has simpler equipment and thus, permits case of operation
II. Eliminates the use of heat
III. Has costly and troublesome maintenance of equipment
A. I only D. II & III
B. I & II E. I, II, III
C. I & III
123. Water impurities like calcium and magnesium can be removed by:
A. ion-exchange
B. absorption
C. filtration
D. distillation
E. reverse osmosis
124. This method of preparing purified water removes virtually all virus, bacteria,
pyrogens, organic molecules and 90-99% of all ions.
I. Distillation
II. Ion-exchange
III. Reverse osmosis
A. I only C. III only E. I, II, III
125. Some chemicals are only slowly soluble and require an extended time for
dissolving. In this case, the pharmacist should employ:
I. Application of heat
II. Reduction of the particle of the solute
III. Rigorous agitation during the preparation
126. The following statement/s is/are true for the application of heat in the dissolution of
some chemicals in a particular solvent:
I. Many medicinal agents are destroyed at elevated temperature and the
advantage of rapid solution may be completely offset by deterioration.
II. Elevated temperatures cannot be maintained for pharmaceuticals and the net
effect of heat is simply an increase in solubility
III. Application of heat for calcium salts is highly recommendable.
127. Certain antibiotics which have insufficient stability in aqueous solutions are
available in dry powder mixtures ready for reconstitution. Example of these mixtures
would include:
I. Cloxacillin Na for oral solution
II. Oxacillin Na for oral solution
III. Penicillin V Potassium for oral solution
128. Magnesium Citrate Oral Solution is a colorless to slightly yellow, clear, effervescent
liquid having a sweet, acidulous taste and lemon flavor. Which of the following
statement is/are correct regarding its preparation?
I. In carbonating the solution the bicarbonate may be added in tablet form rather
than as a powder.
II. Magnesium carbonate is reacted with excess citric acid.
III. It is required to contain an amount of magnesium citrate equivalent to
between 1.55 and 1.9 g MgO in each 100 mL
129. These are concentrated, aqueous preparations of a sugar or a sugar-substitute
with or without added flavoring agents and medicinal substances.
I. Syrups
II. Honeys
III. Juice
130. Most syrup contains the following component/s.
I. Flavorants
II. Colorants
III. Antimicrobial preservatives
131. Syrups are useful as diluting agents for water-soluble drugs and act as both
solvent and flavoring agents. Which medicated syrup can be used to disguise the taste
of urea?
I. Acacia syrup
II. Glycyrrhiza Syrup
III. Aromatic Eriodyctyon Syrup
B. II only D. I & III
132. Most syrup contains a high proportion of sucrose, usually 60-80%. Which of the
following statement/s hold/d true?
I. Sucrose is used because of its desirable sweetness and viscosity of such
solutions
II. The aqueous sugar medium of dilute sucrose solution is an efficient nutrient
medium for the growth of microorganisms.
III. Concentrated sugar solutions may no longer require addition of preservatives.
133. Syrup, NF:
I. Simple syrup
II. Prepared by dissolving 85g of sucrose in enough purified water to make 100 ml
III. Has a specific gravity of 1.313
134. The amount of preservative required to protect syrup against microbial growth
varies with the proportion of water available for growth. What is the usual effective
concentration of benzoic acid as a preservative?
A. 1% C. 0.1-0.2% E. 10%
B. 1-2% D. 0.01-0.02%
135. Example of preservatives used in the preparation of syrups would include:
I. Sodium benzoate
II. Glycerin
III. benzoic acid

136. Syrups are most frequently prepared depending on the physical and chemical
characteristic of the ingredients. This method would include:
I. Solution with the aid of heat
II. Solution by agitation without the aid of heat
III. Addition of sucrose to a Medicated Liquid or flavored liquid

137. Syrups prepared using solution with the aid of heat method applies when it is
desired to prepare the syrup as quickly as possible. However, there are limitations
on using this method and these limitations include:
I. Can be used only when the components are not damaged or volatilized by
heat
II. Inversion of sucrose might occur
III. Caramelization might occur
138. Which of the following statement/s is/are true?
I. Syrups prepared by solution by agitation without the aid of heat method is
more stable than syrups prepared with the aid of heat.
II. Syrups can be sterilized by autoclaving.
III. The viscous nature of syrups permits easy dissolution of the solids to be
added.
139. Which method is used in the preparation of ipecac syrup?
I. Solution with the aid of heat
II. Solution by agitation without the aid of heat
III. Percolation
140. Elixirs:
I. Are clear, sweetened, hydroalcoholic solutions intended for oral use
II. Can be medicted or nonmedicated like syrups
III. Those containing 2-5% alcohol are usually self preserving
141. The relative sweetness of aspartame when compared to sucrose is
A. 1:1 C. 180:1 E. 550:1
B. 30:1 D. 300:1
142. Compared with syrups, elixirs are:
I. Less sweet but more viscous
II. Less effective in masking the taste of medicinal substance
III. Sweeter but less viscous
143. Elixirs can be prepared by which method/s?
I. Solution by agitation
II. Admixture of Two or more liquid ingredients
III. Percolation
144. Tinctures are alcoholic or hydroalcoholic solutions prepared from vegetable
materials or from chemical substances.
The following statement/s is/are true about tinctures:
I. The alcoholic content protects against microbial growth and keeps the alcohol-
soluble extractives in solution.
II. They must be tightly stoppered and not exposed to excessive temperatures.
III. They contain high alcoholic content.
145. Tinctures of potent drugs for which no proportion of active principles has been
fixed, shall have the strength of:
A. 10% by weight
B. 20% by weight
C. 40% by weight
D. 50% by weight
146. These are aqueous or oleaginous solutions in the form of coarse droplets or as
finely divided solids to be applied topically, most usually to the nasal-pharyngeal tract or
skin.
A. Sprays C. lotions E. AOTA
B. inhalants D. tinctures
147. These are clear, saturated, aqueous solutions of volatile oil or other aromatic or
volatile substances.
A. medicated water
B. spirits
C. aromatic waters
D. A & C
E. AOTA
148. Aromatic waters may be prepared by distillation or solution of the aromatic
substance with or without the use of a dispersing agent. Example of these preparation
include:
I. Stronger rose water
II. Peppermint water
III. Peppermint spirit
149. Peppermint Spirit USP is prepared by:
A. Solution with maceration
B. Chemical reaction
C. Distillation
D. Fermentation
E. Simple solution
150. This preparation is an aqueous solution directed against a part or into a cavity of
the body.
A. douche C. enema E. insufflations
B. irrigation D. gargle
151. The following statement/s hold/s true for douches:
They function as cleansing or antiseptic agent
They are most frequently dispensed in the form of a powder with directions for
dissolving in a specified quantity of water
They are usually directed to the appropriate body part by using bulb syringes.
152. Enemas are employed to evacuate the bowel, influence the general system by
absorption or to affect a local disease.
Which of the following statement/s hold/s true for enemas?
I. They may possess anthelmintic, nutritive, sedative, or stimulating
properties
II. They may contain radiopaque substances for roentgenographic
examination of the lower bowel.
III. Evacuation enemas are to be retained in the intestine and should not be
used in larger quantities than 150 ml for an adult.
153. In using evacuation enemas, the pharmacist should advise the patient to:
I. Squeeze all of the contents out of the disposable plastic bottle
II. Gently insert the rectal tip with steady pressure
III. Take note that the product will most probably work within 5 to 10 minutes.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D. II & III
E. I, II, III
154. Because irrigation solutions come in contact with exposed tissues, they must meet
stringent requirements of the USP such as:
I. Sterility
II. Total solids
III. Bacterial endotoxins
155. Mucilages:
I. Are thick, viscid, adhesive liquids produced by dispersing gum in water
II. Are resistant to decomposition
III. Used primarily to aid in suspending insoluble substances in liquid
156. Acacia mucilage NF XII differs from Tragacanth Mucilage BPC in that:
I. Acacia mucilage contains alcohol and chloroform water while Tragacanth Mucilage
does not
II. Acacia mucilage contains benzoic acid as a preservative while Tragacanth Mucilage
does not
III. Acacia mucilage show maximum viscosity at pH 5.
A. I only B. II only C. I & II
157. Jellies are a class of gels in which the structural coherent matrix contains a high
portion of liquid usually water. They are used as lubricants for:
I. Surgical gloves
II. Catheters
III. Rectal thermometers
158. Pyroxylin is obtained by the action of which acid/s on cotton?
I. Nitric acid
II. Hydrochloric acid
III. Sulfuric acid
159. Pyroxylin consists chiefly of cellulose tetranitrate and has the appearance of raw
cotton when dry but is harsh to the touch. Other features of pyroxylin include:
I. Exceedingly flammable
II. Soluble in acetone but not in glacial acetic acid
III. One part is slowly but completely soluble in 25 parts of a mixture of 1 volume of
ether and 3 volume of alcohol.
160. Flexible collodion is prepared by adding castor oil and camphor to collodion. How
many percent of castor oil required in this preparation?
A. 3% C. 2% E. 1%
B. 5% D. 0.5%
161. Salicylic acid collodion contains how many percentage of salicylic acid in flexible
collodion?
A. 3% C. 10% E. 1%
B. 5% D. 15%
162. Salicylic acid collodion finds its use as:
I. Keratolytic agent III. Corn remover
II. Wart remover
163. Liniments are alcoholic or oleaginous solutions or emulsions of various medicinal
substances intended for external application to the skin with rubbing. They may be used
as:
I. Counterirritant II. Astringent III. rubefacient
164. The following statement/s is/are true for liniments:
I. They are not applied to broken skin because excessive irritation might result.
II. Oleaginous liniments are more irritating to the skin than alcoholic liniments
III. Oleaginous liniments are employed primarily when massage is desired.
B. II only D. I & II
165. Glycerin or glycerites contain ______of glycerin.
A. 50% C. 10% E. 0.5%
B. 25% D. 1%
166. These are concentrated preparations of vegetable or animal drugs obtained by the
removal of the active constituents of the respective drugs with the suitable menstrual
and evaporation of all or nearly all of the solvent.
A. fluid extract C. extractive E. macerate
B. distillate D. extraction
167. This is a method of extraction in which the properly comminuted drug is permitted
to soak in the menstruum until the cellular structure is softened and penetrated by the
menstruum and the soluble constituents is dissolved.
A. percolation C. decoction E. evaporation
B. infusion D. maceration
168. This method of extraction is a process in which the soluble constituent of a
comminuted drug is extracted by the slow passage of a suitable solvent through a
column of the drug.
A. percolation C. decoction E. evaporation
B. infusion D. maceration
169.These preparation are made so that each mL contains the therapeutic constituents
of 1g of the standard drug that it represents.
A. fluid extract C. extractive E. distillate
B. macerate D. infusate
170. This is a form of extract which is of a plastic consistency, prepared with nearly all
of the menstruum removed.
I. Pilular II. Solid III. Semiliquid
171. The particles of the dispersed phase vary widely in size, from large particles visible
to the naked eye down to the particles of colloidal dimensions, falling between 1.0nm
and 0.5 um in size. Dispersions containing particles of 10-50um in size are referred as:
A. coarse dispersions C. fine dispersions E. soluble dispersions
B. colloidal dispersions D. ultra-fine dispersions
172. Fine dispersion includes:
I. Emulsions II. Gels III. Magmas
173. Coarse dispersion includes:
I. Emulsions II. Gels III. Magmas
174. Suspensions are prepared because some drugs are chemically unstable when in
solution but stable when suspended. Other reason/s for preparing suspensions
include/s:
I. flexibility in the administration of certain doses
II. Ease of swallowing especially for children as compared to solids
III. The undesirable taste of the drugs can be masked.
175. Therapeutic efficacy, chemical stability of components and permanency of
preparation should all be considered in the preparation of suspensions. Other desirable
qualities of suspensions should include:
I. Settle slowly and be easily redispersed upon gentle shaking of container
II. The particle size if the suspensoid remains fairly constant throughout long periods of
undisturbed standing
III. The contents should pour easily and readily from its container.
176. Viscosity agent decreases the rate of settling of deffloculated particles or provides
the stability in flocculated suspensions. Other desirable qualities of suspension should
include/s:
I. Acacia gum III. Sodium carboxymethyl cellulose
II. PVP

177. This is a process of particle size reduction in which the shearing action of high
velocity compressed air stream on the particles in a confined space produces the
desired ultrafine or micronized particles.
I. micropulverization III. Fluid energy grinding
II. jet-milling
178. The following statement/s is/are true of flocs or floccules:
I. It is measures which avoid the formation of a cake in suspensions.
II. It has a less rigid or loose aggregation of particles held by weak particle-to-particle
bonding forces.
III. It settles more rapidly than fine particles
A. I only B. II only C. II & III
D. I & II E. I, II, III
179. Which of the following can function as flocculating agents?
I. Bentonite Magma III. Benzalkonium chloride
II. KCl
180. Wetting agents are used to make the powder more penetrable by the dispersion
medium. These agents include;
I. Glycerin II. PVP III. Alcohol
A. I only C. I & III
E. I, II, III
181. The following should be observed during packaging and storage of suspensions:
I. All suspensions should
II. They should be stored in tight containers protected from freezing, excessive heat and
light
III. Extemporaneously prepared suspensions should be placed in light resistant
containers.
182. In emulsion terminology, the dispersed phase is referred to as:
I. internal phase III. Continuous phase
II. External phase
183. If the oleaginous phase is the internal phase, then the emulsion is referred to as:
A. o/w emulsion C. w/o emulsion
B. o/w/o emulsion D. w/o/w emulsion
184. The absorption of which drugs can be enhanced when prepared n the form of oil-
in-water emulsion?
I. Griseofulvin II. Sulfonamides III. Vitamin A
185. Emulsions offer a number of advantages over other liquid dosage forms.These
include:
I. The therapeutic properties and the spreading ability of the constituents are increased
II. Taste or odor of oil can be masked partially or wholly
III. The absorption and the penetration of medicaments are controlled more easily
186. In preparation an emulsion, a third phase called the emulsifying agent is
necessary. Which of the following are classified as natural emulsifying agent/s?
I. Acacia
II. bentonite
III. lecithin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & III
D. I & II
E. I, II, III
187. Synthetic emulsifying agents are most effective at lowering the interfacial tension
between the oil and water phases.
Examples of these agents include:
I. Veegum
II. Benzalkonium chloride
III. cholesterol
188. This theory of emulsification assumes monomolecular layers of emulsifying agent
curved around a droplet of the internal phase of the emulsion.
A. surface tension theory
B. plastic-film theory
C. oriented wedge theory
D. interfacial film theory
E. molecular layer theory
189. This theory places the emulsifying agent at the interface between the oil and water,
surrounding the droplets of the internal phase as thin layer of film adsorbed on the
surface of drops.
I. interfacial film theory III. molecular layer theory
II. interfacial film theory
190. This emulsifying agent has a disadvantage of producing emulsions that are too
fluid and which becomes more fluid upon standing.
A. gelatin C. egg yolk E. bentonite
B. casein D. lecithin
191. The following agent/s can be used as thickening agent/s:
I. agar
II. stearyl alcohol
III.cetylalcohol

192. In small scale extemporaneous preparation of emulsion, these methods may apply:
I. Dry gum method III. Forbes method
II. Wet gum method
193. In this method, the emulsifying agent is mixed with the oil before the addition of
water.
I. Dry gum method III. Forbes method
II. Wet gum method
194. Which of the following statement/s hold/s true for emulsion:
I. In its preparation, if alcohol is needed, add it directly to the primary emulsion to avoid
its volatilization.
II. Bottle method is suited for viscous oils
III. A mortar with a rough rather than smooth inner surface must be used in triturating
the emulsifier with oil in dry method preparation.
B. III only D. I & II
195. These are thermodynamically stable, optically transparent, isotropic mixtures of a
biphasic oil-water system stabilized with surfactant.
A. microemulsion C. W/O/W emulsion E. W/O emulsion
B. auxillary emulsion D. O/W emulsion
196. An emulsion is considered to be physically unstable if:
I. The internal or dispersed phase upon standing tends to form aggregates of globules
II. Large globules rise to the top or fall to the bottom of the emulsion to form a
concentrated layer of internal phase
III. All or part of the liquid of internal phase
197. Which of the following statement/s is/are true:
I. Creaming is a reversible process
II. Breaking is a reversible process
III. Sedimentation is an irreversible process
198. Mineral oil emulsion is a/an:
A. o/w emulsion C. w/o emulsion E. microemulsion
B. o/w/o D. w/o/w emulsion
199. This is used for preparing fluidextracts with boiling water as the menstruum,
alcohol being added as a preservative to a concentrated percolate.
A. Process A B. Process B C. Process D
D. Process E E. Process C
200. This is an alternative for process A in which percolation is conducted on a column
of drug much greater in length than in diameter.
A. Process A C. Process D E. Process C
B. Process B D. Process E
201. This is a percolation method that can be modified for fluidextracts that must be
assayed.
A. Process A C. Process D E. Process C
B. Process B D. Process E
202. It is the taking up of a certain amount of liquid without a measurable increase in
size.
A. Syneresis C. imbibition E.Xerogelation
B. Swelling D.Thixotrophy
203. Xerogels are formed when the liquid is removed from a gel and only the framework
remains. Examples of these are:
I. gelatin sheets III. Acacia tears
II. tragacanth ribbons
204. A classification of gels which would include ingredients that are dispersible as
colloidal or soluble in water is called hydrogels. Example of hydrogels includes:
I. Carbowax bases II. Bentonite III. Silica
205. Magnesium aluminum silicate, also known as Veegum, in concentrations of
_______, form firm, thixotropic gels.
A. 10% C. 2% E. 0.5%
B. 5% D. 1%
206. In the preparation of gels, the following statement/s hold/s true:
I. Inorganic salts would cause gelation to occur at higher concentrations.
II. Alcohol may cause precipitation or gelation
III. Higher concentration and higher molecular weights of polymers would produce
stronger gels.
207. Bentonite magma is a preparation of ____ bentonite, a native, colloidal hydrated
aluminum silicate, in purified water.
A. 10% C. 5% E. 0.5%
B. 2% D. 1%
208. Aluminum hydroxide gel is an aqueous suspension of a gelatinous precipitate
composed of insoluble aluminum hydroxide and the hydrated aluminum oxide,
equivalent to about ____of aluminum oxide.
A. 1% C. 5% E. 3%
B. 2% D. 4%
209. Milk of Magnesia, USP is a preparation containing between 7 and 8.5 % of
magnesium hydroxide. The following statement/s hold/s true regarding its preparation:
I. 0.1% citric acid may be added
II. Flavoring oils should exceed 0.05% concentration but not more than 2% to enhance
the palatability of the preparation.
III. The preparation should be stored in tight containers preferably at temperature above
and freezing and below 35◦C
210. Gels are defined as semi-solid systems consisting of dispersions made up of either
small inorganic particles or large organic molecules enclosing and interpenetrated by a
liquid. Other feature/s of these preparations include/s:
I. Some gels are clear as water in appearance while others are turbid.
II. Gels are considered as colloidal dispersions
III. Carbowaxes are gels
211. These are pressurized dosage forms containing one or more active ingredients
which upon actuation emit a fine dispersion of liquid and/or solid materials in gaseous
medium.
A. aerosols C. inhalations E. nebulizers
B. inhalers D. insufflators
212. Aerosols intended to carry the active ingredient to a surface are termed:
I. space spray II. Surface spray III. Surface coatings

213. Aerosols offer the advantages of:
I. portion of medication may be easily drawn from the package without contamination or
exposure to the remaining material
II. Topical medication may be applied in a uniform, thin layer to the skin without touching
the affected area
III. Protection of medicinal agents adversely affected by atmospheric oxygen and
moisture
214. Fluorinated hydrocarbon gases:
I. may be liquefied b cooling below their boiling point
II. May be liquefied by compressing the gas at room temperature
III. are liquid at room temp.
215. The usual aerosol valve assembly is composed of the following parts:
I. actuator II. Housing III. Gasket
216. Compressed gases may be used to prepare aerosols. The use of nitrogen:
I. will result in the emission of the product in essentially the same form as it was placed
in the container
II. Contributes adversely to the odor and taste of product
III. Offers protection on products subject to oxidation
217. These materials may be used in the manufacture of aerosol containers:
I. glass II. Metals III. Plastics
218. In compressed gas filled aerosols:
I. there is no reservoir of propellant
II. Lower gas pressures are required as compared to liquefied gas filled aerosols
III. Gases like carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide may be used
219. The use of topical aerosols:
I. can be used easily in applying medication to small area
II. The procedure of applying the preparation to desired surface area is less messy than
with most other types of topical preparations.
III. Provides a means of applying the drug in a convenient way
220. In the filling of aerosol containers with propellant, which of the following is/are
observed to be true?
I. In the cold method, both the product concentrate and the propellant must be cooled to
temperature of 30◦F to -40◦F
II. There is less danger of moisture contamination of the product in cold filling over the
pressure filling
III. Less propellant is lost in the process of pressure filling.
221. Sterile water for injection:
I. must be pyrogen-free
II. May not contain an antimicrobial agent
III. May contain a slightly greater amount of total solids than Water for Injection
222. Sterilization by filtration depends upon the removal of microorganisms by
adsorption on the filter medium or by sieving mechanism. Major advantages of this
method include:
I. speed in the filtration of small quantities of solution
II. Ability to sterilize effectively thermo labile materials
III. Inexpensive
223. Ethylene oxide:
I. may be used to sterilized heat-sensitive and moisture-sensitive materials
II. May be substituted by propylene oxide gas
III. exerts its action by denaturation and precipitation
224. This process means the complete destruction of all living organism and their
spores or their complete removal from the prepration.
A. Sterilization C. disinfection E. decontamination
B. asepsis D. antisepsis
225. USP specifies restrictions on the fixed vegetable oils which may be employed in
parenteral products. These include:
I. they must remain clear when cooled to 10◦C
II. They must not contain mineral oil or paraffin
III. They must contain no polyunsaturated fatty acids
226. Ringer’s Injection USP contains:
A. Sodium chloride only
B. Sodium chloride and potassium chloride
C. Sodium chloride and calcium chloride
D. Sodium chloride, potassium chloride and calcium chloride
E. Sodium chloride and sodium lactate
227. Bacteriostatic water for injection:
I. One or more antimicrobial agents
II. Packaged in pre-filled syringes or in vials containing not more than 100 ml
III. Only to be used in parenterals that are administered in small volumes
228. Single dose container:
I. Hermetic container
II. Example is ampul
III. Permits withdrawal of successive portions of the contents
229. In most heat sterilization, spores of which microorganism are most commonly
employed?
A. Bacillus stearothermophilus
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Bacillus pumilus
D. Clostridium botulinum
E. Clostridium perfringens
230. Dry heat sterilization is usually carried out in sterilizing ovens specifically designed
for this purpose. Which of the following characterize/s this method?
I. Higher temperature and prolonged exposure are required
II. Works by denaturation and coagulation of some of the organism’s essential protein
III. May be used for fixed oils, mineral oil and petroleum products
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & III
D. II & III
E. I, II, III
231. It is an electrochemical method that enhances the transport of some solute
molecules by creating a potential gradient through the skin tissue with an applied
electrical current or voltage.
A. iontophoresis C. ultrasonophoresis E. electrophoresis
B. sonophoresis D. phonophoresis
232. Iontophoresis induces an increased migration of ionic drugs into the skin by
electrostatic repulsion at the active electrode: negative ions are delivered by the
cathode and positive ions by anode. The advantages of this process include:
I. Eliminates gastrointestinal incompatibility, erratic absorption and first pass metabolism
II. Reduces side effects and interpatient variability
III. Avoids the risks of infection, inflammation
233. Rapidly –dissolving drugs:
I. designed as orally administered drugs for patients that have difficulty swallowing
standard tablets/ capsules
II. disintegrate and dissolves within 30-60 seconds in the mouth
III. Friability is an inherent problem
234. The following statement/s is/are true for radiopharmaceuticals:
I. It is a radioactive pharmaceutical agent or drug that is used for diagnostic or
therapeutic procedures.
II. They are used as tracers of physiological processes.
III. Incidence of adverse effect is very low
235. This container protects the contents from extraneous solids and from loss of the
article under ordinary conditions of handling, shipment, storage and distribution.
A. well-closed container D. light-resistant container
B. tight container E. amber-colored bottle
C. hermetic container
236. A freezer is:
A. cold place C. excessively cold place
B. cool place D. refrigerator temperature
237. These injections are administered into the corium of the skin, usually in volumes of
about a tenth of a milliter.
A. intravenous C. intramuscular
B. intradermal D. epicutaneous
E. subcutaneous
238. Some drugs are administered rectally for their local effects and others for their
systemic effects. Which of the following are true regarding the rectal administration of
drugs?
I. Rectal administration may be preferred for those drugs destroyed or inactivated by the
environment of stomach and intestine
II. Approximately 505 of a dose of drug absorbed from rectal
III. Absorption of drugs from the rectum is frequently irregular and difficult to predict.
239. Subcutaneous administration of drugs involves their injection through the layers of
the skin into the loose subcutaneous tissue. Which of the following statement/s is/are
true about this kind of administration?
I. vasodilator may be used to enhance subcutaneous absorption of drugs
II. All substances, weather lipid soluble or not, cross the capillary membrane at rates
that are much more rapid than the rates of their transfer across other body membranes.
III. After injection, the drug comes into the immediate vicinity of blood capillaries and
permeates them by diffusion or filtration.
240.These substance are used to prevent the dying out of preparations due to the
agent’s ability to retain moisture.
A. levigating agent C. plasticizer E. occluding agents
B. humectant D. antioxidant
241. Glidants are agents used in tablet and capsule formulations to improve the flow
properties of the powder mixture. Examples of these are:
I. Talc III. magnesium stearate
II. colloidal silica
242. This is an agent used to dissolve another pharmaceutic substance or a drug in the
preparation of solution.
A. solvent C. chelating agent E. solubilizer
B. vehicle D. co-solvent
243. Butylated hydroxyanisole and butylated hydroxytoluene are examples of:
A. antioxidants C. clarifying agents E. co-solvents
B. humectants D. buffering agents
244. Cinnamon, orange and raspberry flavors may be used to make ____drugs more
palatable.
A. salty C. sour E. rancid
B. bitter D. pungent
245. Benzalkonium chloride, cresols, and phenylmercuric nitrates are examples of:
A. stiffening agent C. coloring agents E. ranti-oxidants
B. preservatives D. buffering agents
246. The term “soluble” refers to parts of solvent hat can dissolve one part of solute is:
A. 10-100 C. 10-30 E. 1-10
B. 30-100 D. less than 1
247. The similarity of gargles with mouthwashes is:
I. antiseptic use III.Formula
II. Site of action
248. It is a process of strongly heating organic substances with access to air.

A. Carbonization C. Ignition E. Drying
B. Calcinations D. Incineration
249. When tinctures are prepared from single vegetable drugs, the amounts of crude
drugs used to prepare 100 ml of the tincture generally for potent drug is:
A. 10g C. 50g E. 100g
B. 20g D. 75g
250. The following substances may be used as colorants:
I. caramel II. red ferric oxide III. yellow mercuric oxide
251. The release of an ingredient from the packaging component into the contents is
best described by the term:
A. sorption C. permeation E. dissolution
B. leaching D. diffusion
252. The disadvantages of using sodium saccharin as a sweetening agent is/are:
I. less sweet than sucrose
II. has a cariogenic potential and is contraindicated to phenylketonurics
III. has bitter after taste
253. The following method/s is/are considered as comminution technique/s:
I. Spatulation III. Pulverization by intervention
II. Trituration
254. Brandy and whisky are prepared by means of:
I. Distillation III. Chemical reaction
II. Solution with maceration
255. These are very fine powders intended for the different body cavities like ears,
nose, etc.
I. dusting powder II. douche powder III. insufflations
256. Vanishing creams are the most common creams available in the market due to
large amount of water contained and an acid called:
A. salicylic acid C. stearic acid E. undecylenic acid
B. benzoic acid D. acetic acid
257. Juices have the advantage over artificial flavor in that these are:
I. sweeter II. More stable III. Natural
258. Oleovitamins generally consist of:
I. Vitamin A II. Vitamin D III. Vitamin B
259. Spiritus frumentis is also called
A. brandy C. Whisky E. AOTA
B. rum D. A & C
260. This type of water is specific for multidose parenteral products.
A. water for injection
B. Sterile Water for injection
C. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection
D. Sterile Water for Inhalation
E. Purified Water
261. This is a process of redistilling one or more fresh delicate drugs with small
quantities of volatile products.
A. steam distillation C. maceration E. reverse osmosis
B. cohobation D. reflux distillation
262. Which of the following substances is/are needed when compounding Magnesium
Citrate solution?
I. sodium bicarbonate
II. magnesium citrate
III. magnesium carbonate
A. I only B. II only C. I & III

D. I & II E. I, II, III
263. Main constituent/s present in toothache drops:
I. menthol II. eugenol III. benzoate
264. Most widely used container for aerosols:
A. glass C. tin-plated steel E. glassine paper
B. plastic D. aluminum
265. Lanolin differs from wool fat in that lanolin:
A. contains less water
B. has been further purified
C. contains more water
D. is obtained from natural sources
E. contains a greater quantity of cholesterol
266. This substance is used to replace part of cocoa butter to obtain the proper melting
point.
A. vegetable oil
B. petrolatum
C. glycerin
D. gelatin
E. white wax
267. Rose water ointment differs from Petrolatum rose water ointment because the
former contains:
A. mineral oil C. sodium borate E.cetyl ester wax
B. white wax D. almond oil
268. Petrolatum USP is not soluble in
A. chloroform C. ether E. petroleum ether
B. ethyl alcohol D. benzene
269. A very fine powdered chemical is defined as one that will
A. completely pass through a # 80 sieve
B. completely pass through a # 120 sieve
C. completely pass through a # 20 sieve
D. completely pass through a # 60 sieve and not more than 40% through a #100 sieve
E. completely pass through a # 80 sieve and not more than 60% through a #60 sieve
270. Camphor is usually milled by which of the following techniques?
A. trituration
B. levigation
C. geometric dilution
D. attrition
E. pulverization by intervention
271. Unit dose packaging for tablets or capsules is exemplified by
I. strip packaging III. wide mouth bottles
II. blister pack
272. Ingredients in toothache drops:
I. oil of cloves II. alcohol III. benzocaine
273. Controlled room temperature means that the temperature is maintained
thermostatically between:
A. 15-30 ◦C C. 8-15 ◦C E. -4-8 ◦C
B. 25 ◦C D. 30 ◦C
274. Gels belong to:
A. dispersion C. solution E. creams
B. emulsion D. ointments
275. HLB value needed for an oil-in-water type of emulsion:
A. 8-18 C. 1-5 E. 1-12
B. 3-6 D. 6-12
276. Which of the following preparations is a saturated solution?
A. aromatic water C. emulsion E. extract
B. elixir D. solution
277. Magnesium stearate is used in tablet manufacturing as:
A. lubricant C. binder E. diluent
B. source of Magnesium D. disintegrant
278. Instability of emulsion is caused by:
I. creaming II. sedimentation III. electrolytes
279. A eutectic mixture in powders occurs when:

I. there is lowering in melting point III. Efflorescence
II. Hygroscopic mixture
280. Bulk powders are:
A. insufflations C. dentrifices E. AOTA
B. douche powders D. A & B
281. In the infusion method of making cocoa butter suppositories, which substance is
most likely to be used to lubricate the mold?
A. mineral oil C. cetyl alcohol E. magnesium silicate
B. propylene glycol D. stearic acid
282. A very fine powdered chemical is defined as one that:
A. completely pass through a # 80 sieve
B. completely pass through a # 120 sieve
C. completely pass through a # 20 sieve
D. completely pass through a # 60 sieve and not more than 40% through a #100 sieve
E. completely pass through a # 80 sieve and not more than 60% through a #60 sieve
283. Which solution is used as an astringent?
A. Strong Iodine Solution USP
B. Aluminum Acetate Topical Solution USP
C. Acetic Acid NF
D. Aromatic Ammonia Spirit USP
E. Benzalkonium Chloride Solution USP
284. The particles in an ideal suspension should satisfy which of the following criteria?
I. Their size should be uniform
II. They should be stationary or move randomly
III. They should remain discrete
285. Mechanisms that are thought to provide stable emulsification include the:
I. formation of interfacial film
II. Lowering of interfacial tension
III. Presence of charge on the ion
286. Ceramic mortar may be preferable to a glass mortar when:
I. volatile oil is added to a powder mixture
II. colored substances are mixed into the powder
III. Comminution is desired in addition to mixing
287. The particle size of the dispersed solid in a suspension is usually greater than
A. 0.5 mm C. 0.3 mm E. 0.1 mm
B. 0.4 mm D. 0.2 mm
288. Forms of water that is suitable for use in parenteral preparations:

I. Purified water, USP
II. for injection, USP
III. Sterile Water for Injection, USP
289. The sedimentation of particles in a suspension can be minimized by:
I. adding sodium benzoate
II. Increasing the viscosity of the suspension
III. Reducing the particle size of the active ingredient
290. Substances used to insulate powder components that liquefy when mixed include:
I. talc
II. Kaolin
III. Light magnesium oxide
291. The following statement/s is/are true for Cold Cream:

I. It is oil-in-water emulsion
II. The use of almond oil rather than mineral oil makes a more stable cream.
III. Cold cream prepared with almond oil makes a better emollient base.
292. Which type of soaps form an o/w emulsion?
I. alkali soap
II. Metallic soap
III. Polyvalent soap
293. The USP permits ___% of sulfur dioxide to prevent decomposition of gelatin during
manufacture of hard gelatin capsules.
A. 5%
B. 0.5%
C. 1%
D. 0.15%
E. 10%
294. Colors and dyes disguise off-color drugs, provide product identification and product
identification and produce a more aesthetically appealing product. Which type of dye is
typically used as dry powder?
A. Lakes
B. F & D
C. D & C
D. F D & C
E. AOTA
295. Adsorbents are inert substances which hold quantities of fluid in an apparently dry
state. Examples of adsorbents include:
I. MgO
II. Mg carbonate
III. Bentonite
296. Witepsol bases contain natural saturated fatty acid chains between C12 and C18.
Which of the following fatty acids is its major component?
A. Lauric acid
B. Myristic acid
C. Stearic acid
D. Palmitic acid
E. Oleic acid
297. Witepsol bases offer the following characteristic:
I. They exhibit polymorphism like cocoa bases
II. They solidify rapidly in the mold
III. The interval between softening and melting temperature is very small
298. Wecobee bases have an action similar to that of Witepsol bases. Wecobee bases
are derived from:
A. mineral oil
B. coconut oil
C. almond oil
D. olive oil
E. cocoa butter
299. Acacia is classified as a natural emulsifying agent. It is usually as a___%
dispersion in water.
A. 35
B. 10
C. 25
D. 50
E 30
300. Unlike acacia, tragacanth does not contain the enzyme oxidase which catalyzes
the decomposition of organic chemicals. Tragacanth is usually used as a ____%
dispersion in water.
A. 10%
B. 6%
C. 20%
D. 30%
E. 15%
MANUFACTURING PHARMACY
1. A class of raw materials, which are to be subjected to tests and assays by the Quality Control
department, and are not yet to be use in the production of pharmaceuticals;
A. Approved for use materials C. Quarantined materials
B. Rejected materials
2. A standard document, which give instructions to the Production Department to produce a pharmaceutical
product for distribution/sale in the market;
A. Batch Production Record C. Master Formula
B. Finishing Order D. Manufacturing Order
3. A section of the warehouse which houses products which have been bottled, stripped or blister-packed,
but not yet labelled or packed into boxes/cartons. And are still awaiting the final disposition of the Quality
Control Department;
A. Finished Goods Section C. Returned Goods Section
B. In-Process Section D. Raw Materials Section
4. The Planning and Scheduling Division coordinates with this department on what products are required for
supply and market distribution, then plans and schedules the manufacture of the product;
A. Marketing C. Inventory Control
B. Purchasing D. Production Control
5. A method of filling liquids wherein the product is pumped, at constant pressure, through an orifice of
constant diameter and size. The fill amount is measured by the stroke of the piston;
A. Volumetric
B. C. Gravimetric
C. Constant level
6. An important parameter in the quality control of tablets, shown to be related to the tablet’s solubility
properties;
A. Tablet Thickness C. Filter cloth, non-woven
B. Tablet Disintegration D. All of the above
7. A special technique for poorly-soluble drugs, in which it is improved by the addition of a water-miscible
solvent, in which the drug will have increased water solubility;
A. Solubilization C. Complexation
B. Chemical modification D. Co-solvency
8. A class of preservative, which are often used for ophthalmic, nasal and parenteral products, but in oral
liquid preparations;
A. Mercurials C. Aldehydes
B. Quaternary ammonium compounds D. All of the above
9. A filter media composed of nylon, Teflon, PVC and silver. It is employed fo the micro-filtration of
parenteral solution;
A. Membrane Filter Media C. Filter cloth, non-woven
B. Filter cloth, woven D. All of the above
10. The following are the effects of Product Recalls to a drug-manufacturing firm;
A. Financial Loses C. Harmful and Bad Publicity
B. Mix-ups and Errors D. All of the above
11. Overages in the manufacture of pharmaceuticals are justified on the ff. conditions;
A. Clinical studies show that the average is therapeutically safe
B. The labile/unstable active cannot be possibly standardized
C. The overage allows for the equilibrium of the active within acceptable limits
D. All of the above
12. It refers to the addition of an active in an unstable pharmaceutical preparation, to compensate for the loss
during manufacture;
A. Chemical modification of the drug C. Manufacturing allowances
B. Manufacturing Overages D. All of the above
13. It refers to the rapid formation of emulsion droplets or aggregates due to the absence of a protective
barrier at the oil-water interface and the insufficient emulsifier surface overage;
A. Creaming C. Flocculation
B. Sedimentation D. Coalescence
14. For the pharmaceutical emulsions, the oil phase is restricted to this oil, unless otherwise, it is the specified
active of the product;
A. Olive oil C. Cottonseed oil
B. Corn oil D. Mineral oil
15. A class of finely divided solids that influence emulsification of polar solids by its tendency to be wetted by
water, and to be wetted by the oil phase of non-polar solids;
A. Eggyolk, cholesterol, gelatine C. TWEENS, SPANS, Carbowax
B. Bentonite, veegum, magnesium trisilicate D. All of the above
16. Examples of antioxidants incorporated into cosmetic type of emulsion;
A. Butylatedhydroxyanisole C. Butylatedhydroxytoluene
B. Tocopherol D. All of the above
17. An equipment thet mixes the components of emulsions by means of various impellers on shafts, which
are placed directly into the system to be emulsified;
A. Rotor stator C. Mechanical stirrers
B. Colloid mill D. ultrasonifiers
18. Raw materials of hydrocarbon nature, which are widely used in the manufacture of semi-solids, next to
water;
A. Petroleum jelly C. White wax
B. Mineral oil D. Paraffin
19. Raw materials which are widely used as humectants in semi-solids to prevent “crusting” in ointment and
creams contained in jars;
A. Glycerin C. Sorbitol, 70%
B. Propylene Glycol (low MW) D. All of the above
20. An absorption type of an ointment used for ophthalmic preparations;
A. Soft petroleum, sterile C. Lanolin, anhydrous
B. White wax D. Ozokerite
21. A method of manufacture of anhydrous ointments wherein the active/s are dissolved in the previously
melted mixtures of fats and waxes, at controlled temperatures;
A. Fusion method C. Levigation
B. Trituration/incorporation D. All of the above
22. A type of stability test, which involves temperatures in 10-degree increments. This test is performed to
identify the products of degradation of a product;
A. Real time stability test C. Stress test
B. Accelerated stability test D. All of the above
23. A method of preparation of suspensions, wherein finely divided powders are dispersed in an appropriate
liquid vehicle, with the aid of a surfactant, to ensure uniform wetting of hydrophobic surfaces;
A. Precipitation method C. Double decomposition
B. Dispersion method D. All of the above
24. The cause of capping, chipping and lamination of compressed tablets;
A. Wear and tear punches and die cavities
B. Difficulty in cleaning monograms which enclosed areas
C. Poor flow rate of granulations
D. Unequal lengths of the lower punches
25. In precipitation method of preparing suspensions, particle size control is important. For suspensions
intended for parenteral and inhalation us, the ideal particle size range is;
A. 1 micron and below C. 1 to 5 microns
B. 5 to 8 microns D. 8 to 10 microns
26. This equipment produces finely divided particles by spraying a mist of liquid through a heated chamber,
drying immediately and collecting the dried powders in a clean receptacle;
A. Micronization C. Freeze-drying
B. Homogenization D. Spray-drying
27. A parenteral route of administration in which an aqueous solution is preferred for optimum absorption. It
produces instantaneous pharmacological effect, since the drug is directly introduced into the bloodstream;
A. Intraspinal C. Intramuscular
B. Intravenous D. Subcutaneous
28. The potential sources of pyrogens in the manufacture of parenterals;
A. Contaminated water and solutes C. Contaminated equipments
B. Manufacturing methods D. All of the above
29. Air sampling techniques used for the environmental control test in the parenteral work area;
A. Collection of particulate matter, by drawing a sample through a clean sterile membrane filter
B. Collection of air sample into a measured volume of nutrient broth agar in an impinge
C. Drawing measured volume of air through a slit sampler
D. All of the above
30. An equipment, which allows for the draft-free flow of air cover over the parenteral work area, by providing
a total sweep of the confined area;
A. HEPA filter C. Membrane filter media
B. Laminar flow enclosure D. All of the above
31. When filling sterile powders into vials, the filling equipment employs a/an____in the sem of the funnel at
the bottom of the hopper. It regulates the volume of granular material into the vial to avoid clogging;
A. Indexing stars C. Filling wheel
B. Augers D. both B and C
32. Process/es that give/s rubber closure less friction, to enable easier mechanical insertion onto vials;
A. Halogenization C. Carbonization
B. Siliconization D. Both A and B
33. A more effective method of sterilization. Killing microorganisms through coagulation of its cell protein. It
also destroys vegetative forms of bacteria and spores at 121 C for 20 minutes at 20 psi;
A. Dry heat method C. Fractional method
B. Moist heat method D. Gas sterilization method
34. A non- thermal form of sterilization, which is used in the reduction of air-borne microbes, roduced by
mercury vapour lamps. This method has poor penetration capability;
A. Ultraviolet radiation C. Inspissation
B. Ionization method D. Tyndallization
35. An in-vitro method of pyrogen test based on the gelling or color development of pyrogenic preparation in
the presence of lysate on the amoebecytes of the horseshoe crab;
A. Qualitative fever response in rabbits C. Qualitative fever response in mice
B. Limulus method D. All of the above
36. Most biological are store at this temperature;
A. 2 – 8 °F C. 2 – 8 °C
B. 12 – 8 °F D. 12 – 8 °C
37. Parenteral products, which should be packed as single-dose medication;
A. Intraspinal C. Epidural
B. Intracisternal D. All of the above
38. Examples of primary packaging components;
A. Rubber stoppers C. Blister/strip packs
B. Cotton fillers D. Both A and B
39. A mechanism involved in the preparation of sustained release tablets, wherein the drug material is
applied with relatively thin coating material, ranging from several tenths of micron to 5000 microns in size;
A. Use of ion-exchange resins
B. Embedding the drug in a slowly eroding matrix
C. Embedding the drug in a plastic matrix, from which it is leached
D. Microencapsulation
40. A part of tablet press, which distributes the granulation material into the die cavities;
A. Hopper C. Upper and lower punches
B. Feed shoe/frame D. Auger
41. An ideal property of tablet granulations in which the material forms a stable, compact mass when
pressure is applied;
A. Compressibility C. Flow rate
B. Fluidity D. All of the above
42. The preferred bulking agent for chewable tablets, which provides an excellent mouth-feel, due to its
pleasant, cooling effect;
A. Sucrose C. Mannitol
B. Microcrystalline cellulose D. Lactose
43. This raw material can be used as a tablet diluents, disintegrant and binder;
A. Avicel C. Celutab
B. Lactose D. Cornstarch
44. The ff. statements are true for glidants/lubricants in tablet granulation;
A. Oppose the efficiency of the binder and the physical forces that act under compression
B. Cause the adhesion of powder to form granules
C. Causes a compressed tablet to break apart when placed in an aqueous medium
D. Reduce interparticulate friction, thereby improving the rate of flow of granulation
45. Carbowax 400, leucine, talc and colloidal silicon dioxide are employed as____.
A. Diluents C. Granulating agent
B. Lubricant D. Disintegrant
46. A method of preparation of tablets whose components are sensitive to moisture and elevated
temperatures, during drying, yet possess inherent cohesive properties;
A. Dry granulation method C. Pre-compression method
B. Direct compression D. All of the above
47. A method of preparing tablet granulations, wherein the powders are de-aerated and passes between two
rollers, forming a thin cake, which is screened to form granules;
A. Use of chilsonator C. Spheronization
B. Slugging D. Pelletization
48. An equipment, which alternatelycombine and draw apart the tablet material, as this equipment revolves.
Ideal for precise blending of dry-to-dry or dry-to-liquid materials, with short processing times;
A. Twin or V Shell Blender C. Conical Blender
B. Planetary Blade Mixer D. Horizontal Ribbon Mixer
49. An equipment, which delivers a reliable and uniformly mixed dried product, without the necessity for pre-
mixing. It produces a dry granulation from a wet powder mix;
A. Tray Dry Oven C. Granulator/Fluid Bed Dryer
B. Tablet Deduster D. All of the above
50. The critical operation in sugar coating process of tablets leading to a 50% to 100% increase in tablet
weight. This is the basis of an elegant tablet profile;
A. Sealing C. Subcoating
B. Smoothing D. Color coating
51. An enteric film-former material, which is not soluble in a slightly acid pH media;
A. Shellac flakes C. Cellulose acetate phthalate
B. Povidone D. Carboxymethylcellulose
52. It refers to the separation of the concentrated emulsified droplets from the discontinuous phase;
A. Flocculation C. Creaming
B. Coalescence D. Sedimentation
53. A type of gelatine blend, which contributes to plasticity and clarity to the blend, thus reducing haze or
cloudiness of the finished capsules;
A. Calf skin gelatine C. Pork skin gelatin
B. Calf bone gelatine D. Hydroxypropylmethylcellulose
54. The most common method of manufacture of hard gelatine capsules that uses completely automatic
machine, consisting of mechanisms for dipping, spinning, drying, stripping and joining the capsules;
A. Plate process C. Rotary Die method
B. Pin method D. Reciprocating Die method
55. The temperature at which empty hard gelatine capsules should be stored;
A. 100 °F C. 100 °C
B. 70 °C D. 70 °F
56. Aside from the property of fluidity, tablet granulations should also possess;
A. Flowability C. Solubility
B. Cohesiveness D. Compressibility
57. Pharmaceutical suspensions are evaluated by;
A. Particle size measurement C. Sedimentation volume
B. Viscosity D. Colloidal power
58. The coalescence of globules in an oil-in-water emulsion is an indication of;
A. Cracking C. Creaming
B. Flocculation D. Phase intervention
59. An adjunct used to prevent topical preparations from drying out of forming a “cruct” of the surface;
A. Sweetening agent C. Emollient
B. Preservative D. Humectant
60. Anteroom, which separates the sterile areas from non-sterile areas;
A. Laminar Flow enclosure C. Air curtain
B. Air lock D. HEPA filter
61. CGMP means;
A. Current Good Manufacturing Practice C. Current General Manufacturing Practice
B. Current General Manufacturing Program D. Current Good Manufacturing Program
62. Suppositories are made by;
A. Fusion or melt molding C. Cold compression
B. Rolling or hand-shaping D. Any of the above
63. USP requires that Dissolution Test should be carried out at;
A. 36.5 to 37.5 C C. 25 – 30 C
B. 39 C D. Any of the above
64. LAL stands for;
A. Limulus Antibiotic Lysate C. Limulus Amoebocyte Lysate
B. Lyophilized Antibiotic Lysate D. Lyophilized Amoebocyte Lysate
65. In real Time stability studies, the climatic conditions of the Philippines is classified as;
A. Mediterranean C. Hot and Dry
B. Temperate D. Hot and Humid
66. Long term stability studies, is also known as;
A. Accelerated stability studies C. Stress Tests
B. Real Time stability studies D. Validity studies
67. Directly Compressible grades of Lactose include;
A. Spray-Dried Lactose C. Anhydrous Lactose
B. Dehydrated Lactose D. All of the above
68. Sterilization technique. Which makes use of ethylene oxide-beta propiolactone or propylene oxide,
usually for plastic containers;
A. Steam sterilization C. Gas sterilization
B. Dry heat sterilization D. Surface Disinfection
69. Diluents of choice or chewable tablets;
A. Mannitol C. Lactose
B. Sorbitol D. Dextrose
70. Strip-sealed tablets are evaluated for;
A. Clarity C. Hardness
B. Thickness D. Leakers
71. An equipment associated with the maintenance of dust-free;
A. Laminar Flow Hood C. Ultra Violet Lamp
B. Autoclave D. Magnetic Resonance
72. Binder of choice for moisture-sensitive materials;
A. Ethylcellulose C. Gelatin solution
B. Starch paste D. Glucose solution
73. An adjunct necessity for oral liquids to prevent bacterial contamination;
A. Antioxidants C. Preservatives
B. pH stabilizers D. Buffers
74. “Rule of Thumb” is the principle applied for testing;
A. Ampules C. Vials
B. Implantations D. Compressed Tablets
75. Thermolabile products in solution is sterilized by;
A. Membrane filtration C. Autoclaving
B. Gas sterilization D. Gamma radition
76. A tablet formulation contains 2 actives, which are chemically incompatible. The best method to be used
is;
A. Dry granulation C. Wet granulation
B. Slugging D. Multiple-Layered compression
77. Freeze-drying is also known as;
A. Dessication C. Evaporation
B. Exsiccation D. Lyophilization
78. According to the USP, single dose containers of parenterals are limited to fill volume of;
A. 1000 ml C. 250 ml
B. 500 ml D. 1500 ml
79. For rapid disintegration of compressed tablets, the concentration starch to used is;
A. 1 to 5% C. 10 to 20%
B. 10 to 15% D. 20 to 25%
80. In the preparation of effervescent tablets, the component/s necessary for the effervescent effect is/are;
A. Sodium bicarbonate C. Tartaric acid
B. Citric acid D. All of the above
81. Manufacturing tanks of oral liquids are usually constructed of;
A. Glass C. Galvanized Iron
B. Aluminium D. Stainless Steel
82. Eggyolk, an emulsifier belongs to;
A. Synthetic group C. Finely Divided solid group
B. Natural group D. Non-ionic group
83. Uneven distribution of color on the surface of compressed tablets is called;
A. Peeling C. Mottling
B. Capping D. Lamination
84. Parenteral solutions intended to be freeze-dried should be;
A. Alcoholic C. Oleaginous
B. Aqueous D. Any of the above
85. A common lubricant added to tablet granulation;
A. Starch C. Magnesium stearate
B. Mannitol D. Acacia
86. Limulus amoebocyte lysate is obtained from;
A. Rabbits C. Albino mice
B. King crab D. Microorganism
87. A broad-spectrum preservative effective against bacteria and molds;
A. Parabens C. Sodium benzoate
B. Alcohol D. Glycerin
88. Inconsistent thickness of tablets could result to problems regarding;
A. Packaging C. Disintegration
B. Dissolution D. Hardness
89. Stoke’s Monsanto tester is used to measure___of tablets;
A. Friability C. Disintegration
B. Thickness D. Hardness
90. In the manufacture of emulsified semi-solids, the mixing of the oil aqueous phases should be at this
temperature to avoid breaking;
A. 30 to 40 °C C. 80 °C
B. 70 to 72 °C D. 40 to 43 °C
91. The bioavailabilty of a compressed tablet is dependent upon its;
A. Weight variation C. Content unifomity
B. Disintegration time D. Dissolution
92. An inert gas usually incorporated in filling ampoules;
A. Hydrogen C. Nitrogen
B. Oxygen D. Ethylene oxide
93. The normal moisture content of hard gelatine capsules;
A. 2 to 5% C. 20 to 24%
B. 12 to 16% D. 25 to 30%
94. This statement is tru of the FIFO Policy;
A. Contains information regarding the activity of the component
B. Prevents contamination and mix-ups
C. Assure that the oldest stock of material is used first
D. All of the above
95. Which of these is the adverse effect of a product recall?
A. A function of biological testing in a laboratory
B. Should be filed by a dissatisfied customer
C. Inflicts damage on the reputation and good standing of the company
96. Which of the ff. Is the function of Research and Product Development Department?
A. Pilot Batch production C. Manufacture and packaging
B. In-process quality testing D. Clinical testing
97. Pyrogens contaminating glasswares can be destroyed at this setting;
A. 121 C for 20 minutes C. 200 C for 1 minute
B. 180 C for 1 hour D. 650 C for 1 minute
98. Water soluble bases for medicated application are prepared from;
A. Polyethylene glycol C. Petroleum jelly
B. Sorbitol D. Mineral oil
99. A solid dosage form, which does not need to conform to USP disintegration time;
A. Film-coated tablets C. Enteric-coated tablets
B. Sugar-coated tablets D. Chewable tablets
100. An instrument used to check the tightness of the caps/closure;
A. pH meter C. Crimper
B. Torque tester D. Implinger
101. A type of compressed tablet which produce equilibrium blood levels of the drug without the need for
repeated administration of dosage units;
A. Chewable tablet C. Sublingual tablet
B. Sustained-release tablet D. Lozenges
102. The most widely used method of tablet granulation preparation, due to the greater probability that the
granulation will meet all the physical requirements for the compression of good tablets;
A. Wet Granulation method C. Dry Granulation method
B. Slugging D. Direct compression
103. A tablet hardness tester containing a compressible spring held between two plungers. The lower plunger
is in contact with the tablet, while the upper plunger is forced against the spring by a threaded bolt and
the breaking force is transmitted against a tablet;
A. Pfizer C. Strong-Cobb
B. Stokes-Monsanto D. Eureka
104. An equipments used to produce fine emulsion droplets, by first compressing the liquid with a high
pressure and then allowing the liquid to escape radically past a flat disc, held by strong spring
mechanism;
A. Rotor-Stator C. Ultrasonifier
B. Mechanical Stirrer D. Homogenizer
105. A unit operation in which a mixture of liquids and solids,slurry or feed is forced through a porous medium,
in which the solids form a cake on the surface and the clear liquid is collected;
A. Decantation C. Filtration
B. Extraction D. Separation
106. High resistant borosilicate glass is also referred to as;
A. Type NP C. Type II
B. Type III D. Type I
107. Parenteral adjuvant which contribute to the isotonicity of the product, as well as reduce the pain of
injection in areas with sensitive nerve ending;
A. Antioxidants C. Buffers
B. Tonicity contributors D. pH stabilizers
108. The USP states that this adjuvant must be added to parenteral preparation contained in multiple dose
containers;
A. Antimicrobial agents C. Antioxidants
B. Coloring agents D. Buffers
109. A glass type, which is treated with sulphur dioxide and is suitable for buffered parenteral solutions, has a
pH of below 7, and is not reactive with glass;
A. Type 1 C. Type 3
B. Type 2 D. NP
110. The officially recognized filter media for parenteral solutions, since it provides the best flow rate. It also
retains microorganisms on the surface of the filter;
A. Asbestos Pad C. Unglazed porcelain candles
B. Diatomaceous earth candles D. Cellulose Ester Membrane
111. A method wherein ampoules are sealed by heating the neck of the ampoules, below the tip, leaving just
enough of the tip from grasping with forceps or other mechanical device;
A. Pull seal Method C. Tip seal method
B. Grasp seal method D. Both A and C
112. A finishing procedure for gelatine capsules wherein the bulf-filled capsules are rubbed with an oil-
impregnated cloth. It imparts gloss to the capsules as it removes resistant materials;
A. Pan polishing C. Salt polishing
B. Brushing D. Cloth dusting
113. A system for ensuring that products are consistently produced and controlled according to quality
standards. It is designed to minimize the risks of errors involved in any pharmaceutical production, which
cannot be eliminated through the final testing of the products;
A. First in-First out Policy C. Current Good Manufacturing Practice
B. Quality Control D. Safety First Policy
114. An ointment base prepared from mixtures of high and low molecular weight polyethylene glycol. It is
greaseless by nature and no additional water is required in its preparation;
A. Water-Removable base C. Hydrocarbon base
B. Water-soluble base D. Absorbable base
115. An ointment base, which act as occlusive dressings. Producing a warm sensation and insensible
perspiration is inhibited;
A. Lanolin C. White petroleum
B. Polyethylene glycol D. Cold cream
116. A tablet compressing machine, which contains a head that carries a number of sets of dies and
upper/lower punches, which revolve continuously;
A. Single punch machine C. High Speed Rotary tablet machine
B. Multi layer tablet machine D. Multi Station Rotary tablet machine
117. Substances of varying densities, which make up the major portionof the tablet, making the compression
cycle possible;
A. Disintegrants C. Glidants
B. Bulking agents D. Granulating agents
118. A tablet processing problem characterized by the separation of the tablet into several distinct layers;
A. Lamination C. Capping
B. Chipping D. Mottling
119. The most commonly used class of aerosol propellant which is composed of butane, iso-butane and
propane gasses. It has excellent solvent powers;
A. Hydrocarbon propellants C. Hydrofluroalkanes
B. Chlorofluorocarbons D. Compressed Gas propellants
120. A class of aerosol propellants, which require the use of a non-volatile co solvent. It produces only coarse
droplets and is applicable only to surface and topical sprays;
A. Hydrofluroalkanes C. Hydrocarbon propellants
B. Compressed Gas propellants D. Chlorofluorocarbons
121. It is a Zwitterionic type of an aerosol propellants;
A. Oleic acid C. Cetyl pyridinium chloride
B. Phosphatidylcholine D. Sorbitan trioleate
122. An aerosol container material, which is lightweight and seamless. And is mostly used for inhalation and
topical aerosols;
A. Three-piece tin plate C. Plastic coated glass
B. Plastic D. Plastic
123. An aerosol container material, which can be pressurized from the base with compressd gasses. Visible
seams make this container visually less appealing;
A. Aluminium glass C. Plastic coated glass
B. Three-piece tin plate D. Plastic
124. A special technique for hard gelatine capsules which provides a tamper-proof feature to filled capsules, to
prevent its unjoining;
A. Imprinting C. Sealing/Banding
B. Locking D. Special purpose
125. A finishing method for hard gelatine capsules, wherein a polyurethane or cheese cloth material lines the
polishing pan. The liner is used to trap removed dust, imparting gloss to capsules;
A. Salt polishing C. Brushing
B. Pan polishing D. Cloth dusting
126. It measures the time it takes for a tablet to reach a state wherein any tablet residue remains on the
screen, resulting to a mass with no palpably visible core;
A. Dissolution test C. Content Uniformity
B. Disintegration test D. Abrasion test
127. It determines the homogeneity of distribution of the active/s in the batch of finish tablets;
A. Content uniformity C. Stability test
B. Weight variation D. Quantitative assay
128. Tablet adjuvants with cohesive properties, capable of gluing powders together, causing the formation of
granules;
A. Binder C. Disintegrant
B. Diluents D. Lubricant
129. A part of tablet compressing machine which control the sizes and shapes of the finished tablets;
A. Hopper C. Auger
B. Feed shoe D. Die cavities
130. The reverse of creaming, wherein less concentrated emulsified droplets separate from the internal phase;
A. Coalescence C. Sedimentation
B. Creaming D. Flocculation
131. A biological product obtained from poisonous bacterial products that act as antigens and causes the
human body to produce specific antibodies to combat its presence;
A. Toxins C. Toxoids
B. Antitoxins D. Vaccines
132. Fever-producing organic substances arising from microbial contamination and mostly occur in patients
following intravenous injection;
A. Microorganisms C. Foreign bodies
B. Pyrogens D. Antigens
133. Impalpable powders have a particle size of less than;
A. 74 microns C. Less than 1 microns
B. 1 microns D. 50 microns
135. Non-ionic surfactants composed of higher molecular weight PEG compound are referred to as;
A. Tweens C. Spans
B. Carbowax D. All of the above
136. A suspension that appear as masses of gels, consisting of floccules of small distinct particles;
A. Lotions C. Mixtures
B. Magmas and Milk D. Gels
137. A filter aid which forms a fine surface deposit to screen out all solid, preventing the clogging of the
supporting filter media;
A. Infusorial earth C. Membrane filter
B. Kraft paper D. Nylon
138. A filter aid which is used for straining syrupy liquids, and is unaffected by molds and fungus;
A. Bonded fabrics C. Nylon
B. Talc D. Activated charcoal
139. It refers to the binding of drug molecules to the polymer material of the plastic container;
A. Sorption C. Adsorption
B. Absorption D. Leaching
140. Type III glass is referred to as;
A. General purpose soda lime glass C. Treated soda lime glass
B. Soda lime glass D. Borosilicate glass
141. It refers to any distinctive combination of letters and/or numbers or both, by which the complete history of
the manufacture, control, packaging and distribution of a batch or lot of drug is determined;
A. Drug Registration Number C. Manufacturing Order Number
B. Lot number D. Finishing Order Number
142. Any substance of a drug, which is intended to furnish pharmacological activity or other effect in the
diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of a disease or to affect any structure of function of
the body;
A. Inactive ingredient C. Active ingredient
B. Drug excipient D. Drug adjuvant
143. It refers to the release or movement of the components of the plastic container into the contents;
A. Sorption C. Adsorption
B. Absorption D. Leaching
144. A section of the plant department consist of products which have been stripped, bottled or packed, but not
yet labelled nor packed into boxes and cartons. As it waits the results of quality control test and assays;
A. Finished Good Section C. Raw Materials Section
B. In-Process Section D. Returned Goods Section
145. The most useful preservatives in the manufacture of oral liquids, because of its neutral pH and it possess
both antifungal and antibacterial properties;
A. Parabens C. Sodium benzoate
B. Cetyl Pyridinium Chloride D. Ethyl alcohol
146. A method of filling viscous liquid preparations in a very large containers;
A. Volumetric C. Gravimetric
B. Constant Level D. All of the above
147. A class of suspensions which contain finely powdered substances that are insoluble in the dispersion
medium, are intended for external applications;
A. Lotions C. Creams
B. Ointments D. Gels
148. Which of the following statements is true for protective colloids?
A. Protective colloids do not form a mechanical sheath around each particle of suspensions
B. Protective colloids differ in viscosity and are used in lower concentrations to produce an increase in
the viscosity of suspensions
C. Protective colloids do not reduce interfacial tension
D. All of the above
149. A method of particle size reduction in suspensions, wherein the particles are subjected in a turbulent air
chamber, thus colloiding with each other to fracture and produce particles with sizes 5 microns and
below;
A. Micronization C. Spray-drying
B. Freeze-drying D. Homogenization
150. It is the reverse of creaming, wherein less concentrated emulsified droplets separates from the internal
phase. It usually settles at the bottom of the external phase of the container;
A. Coalescence C. Sedimentation
B. Flocculation D. Separation
151. Which of the following is/are official sources of Starch USP?
I. Zea mays
II. Triticum aestivum
III. Manihot esculenta
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II and III
152. Which of the following is/are uses of starch in pharmaceutical formulation?
I. Lubricant
II. Diluent
III. Disintegrant
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. I and III
E. I, II and III
153. What is the allowable limit of silicon dioxide in gelatin?
A. 2%
B. 1%
C. 0.5%
D. 0.25%
E. 0.15%
154. What is a pharmaceutical glaze?
A. Denatured alcoholic solution of PVP
B. Denatured alcoholic solution of Shellac
C. Hydroalcoholic solution of NaCMC
D. Hydroalcoholic solution of starch
E. Aqueous solution of glucose
155. Which of the following can be considered as use/s of Directly Compressible Strach?
I. Binder
II. Diluents
III. Disintegrant
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II only
D. I and III
E. I, II and III
156. Which of the following is obtained by incomplete partial hydrolysis of starch and consists mainly of
dextrin, maltose and water?
I. Binder
II. Diluents
III. Disintegrant
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
157. Lactose is relatively inexpensive tablet bulking agent. Which of the following types of drug or excipients
is/are incompatible with lactose?
I. Amine drugs
II. Water-based binding solutions
III. Alcohol-based binding solutions
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
158. Maillard Reactions is a documented incompatibility of certain excipients with acetates, phosphates and
lactates. Which of the following excipients can manifest such reaction?
I. Anhydrous lactose
II. Pregelatinized starch
III. Spray-dried lactose
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
159. Moisture content of excipients and active drug can affect the properties and production of compressed
tablet. Which of the following excipients has the smallest moisture content?
A. Dicalcium phosphate
B. Monocalcium phosphate
C. Sorbitol
D. Mannitol
E. Sucrose
160. Sodium starch glycollate and croscarmelose are primarily used in tablet formulation as;
A. Lubricants
B. Disintegrants
C. Diluents
D. Binders
E. Glidants
161. Which of the following excipients is expected to possess the greatest adhesive property?
A. Acacia C. Starch E. Simple syrup
B. Gelatine D. Glucose
162. Which of the following excipients can be used for direct compression?
I. Pregelatinized starch
II. Anhydrous lactose
III. Mannitol
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
163. Which of the following is/are sucrose based tablet diluents-binder?
I. Nutab
II. Avicel
III. Cab-o-sil
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
164. What is the concentration of Starch in Starch paste used as a binder solution?
A. 0.5 – 1%
B. 1 – 5%
C. 5 – 10%
D. 10 – 15%
E. 15 – 25%
165. Which of the following principled is/are employed in the use of lubricants in tablet formulation?
I. Higher concentrations of lubricants are employed when active drugs and other excipients use
have bigger particle sizes
II. Lubricants are added together with the rest of the excipients in the initial steps in production
III. Lubricants generally increase the disintegration time and reduce dissolution rate
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
166. Double compression method of tablet manufacture is the preferred method in which of the following
conditions?
I. When the initial powder blend has a significant quantity of fine powders
II. When the active ingredients are sensitive to moisture or elevated temperature
III. When the active ingredients and the excipients are free-flowing
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
167. Which of the following mechanisms explain the use of glidants in tablet formulations?
A. Reduce interparticulate tension leading to improved flow of particles
B. Surface active agents that reduce friction between the inner die walls and the tablet
C. Reduce sticking of particles to the wall of the die and the contact surface of the punches
D. By capillary action, improve uptake of water into the interior of the tablet
E. Increase interparticulate attraction achieved during the process of
168. Which of the following precautions are observed during addition of tablet lubricants in formulations
I. Add lubricants rprior to wetting of powder blends or slugging, as applicable
II. Add lubricants at concentrations consisiting of about 20-25% of final tablet weight
III. Mix lubricants with the rest of the granules for about 2-5 minutes only
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
169. Sterotex, Magnseium stearate, and the high melting point waxes can be categorized as
I. Water-soluble lubricants
II. Glidants
III. Water-insoluble lubricants
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
170. Talc in tablet formulations is generally used as
I. Glidant
II. Lubricant
III. Anti-adherent
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
171. An internal disintegrant is used in which of the following methods of manufacture?
I. Wet granulation
II. Dry granulation
III. Direct compression
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
172. What is a “Running powder”?
A. Powder blend with improved lubrication
B. Combination of a disintegrant and a lubricant
C. Combination of a disintegrant and binder
D. Powder combination to improve flow
E. Combination of a glidant and a binder
173. What are referred to “lakes” in pharmaceutical manufacturing?
A. Binder solutions
B. Wetted powder blends in wet granulation
C. Magmas and suspensions
D. Flavours in hydroalcoholic mixtures
E. Dyes absorbed on aluminium hydroxide
174. Flavours for pharmaceutical oral liquids or chewable tablets are chosen based on the baseline taste of
the active ingredient. Which of the following flavours are recommended for drugs with a sour baseline
taste?
I. Cherry
II. Citrus
III. Strawberry
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
175. Which of the following is/are disadvantage of wet granulation method of tablet manufacture?
I. Good color distribution
II. Uniform composition of granules during processing, transport and handling
III. Useful for heat-sensitive materials
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
176. A method of tablet production wherein a granulation solution is sprayed onto the suspended particles
which would then be dried rapidly in the suspending air
A. Wet granulation
B. Fluid bed granulation
C. Dry granulation
D. Direct compression
E. Double compression
177. This granulation process involves the direct formation of granules from a wet granulation using a machine
where initially extruded rod-shaped cylindrical particles with size range of 0.5-12mm are passed through
appropriate an extruder screen. The extruded segments are then shaped into idealized granules by
centrifugal and frictional forces.
A. Spray-drying
B. Spray congealing
C. Precompression
D. Spheronization
E. Fluid granulation
178. Which of the following sequence in tablet manufacture correctly illustrates wet granulation method of
manufacturing tablets?
A. Initial dry mixing → Wet mixing → Wet screening → Drying → Dry screening → Final dry mixing →
Compression
B. Initial dry mixing → Wet mixing → Wet screening → Drying → Final dry mixing → Compression
C. Initial dry mixing → Wet mixing → Wet screening → Drying → Slugging → Granulation → Final dry
mixing → Compression
D. Initial dry mixing → Wet mixing → Wet screening → Drying → Dry screening → Final dry mixing →
Compression
E. Initial dry mixing → Wet mixing → Drying → Dry screening → Final dry mixing → Compression
179. Which of the following diluents is/are appropriate choices when producing tablets that are dissolved in
solution prior to oral administration?
I. Mannitol
II. Lactose
III. Microcrystalline cellulose
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
180. Consider the following formulation:
Ingredients Amount/Tablet
Aluminium OH & Carbonate CO-dried gel 325.0 mg
Mannitol USP Granular 675.0 mg
Microcrystalline cellulose 75.0 mg
Starch 30.0 mg
Calcium Stearate 22.0 mg
Flavor qs
This tablet formulation is most likely manufactured by what method?
A. Wet granulation C. Direct compression
B. Fluid bed granulation D. Dry granulation
181. A tablet formulation contains the following: aspirin, sodium carbonate, fumaric acid and citric acid. What
is/are the use/s of sodium carbonate, fumaric acid, and citric acid in the formulation?
I. Diluents
II. Binder
III. Disintegrant
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
182. Capping and splitting of tablets can be caused by which of the following conditions?
I. When there is an excessive quantity of water in the formulation
II. When there is an excessive quantity of fines or powder
III. When the dies are worn and the punches are imperfect
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
183. When the capping and splitting are encountered during tablet compression, which of the following may be
employed as remedy/remedies?
I. Slowing the rate of tablet compression
II. Use of tapered dies
III. Increasing the quantity of fines or powder
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
184. Which statement is/are correct regarding film tablet coating?
I. The Wurster spray coating method provides uniform coating coverage while preventing adjacent
tablets from adhering together
II. Cellulose acetate phthalate, hydroxypropylmethyl cellulose, and PVP are pH dependent enteric
coats
III. Nonaqueous film coating solutions consist of a film former, an alloying substance, opaquants,
colorants, a glossant and a volatile solvent
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
185. What is the correct order of the steps involved in Sugar-coating?
A. (1) Subcoating, (2) Waterproofing and Sealing, (3) Smoothing and Final rounding, (4) Finish and
coloring coats, (5) Imprinting, and (6) Polishing
B. (1) Subcoating, (2) Smoothing and Sealing, (3) Final rounding, (4) Finish and Coloring coats, (5)
Polishing, and (6) Imprinting
C. (1) Waterproofing and Sealing, (2) Subcoating, (3) Smoothing and Final rounding, (4) Finish and
Coloring coats, (5) Imprinting, and (6) Polishing
D. (1) Waterproofing and Sealing, (2) Smoothing and Sealing, (3) Subcoating, (4) Polishing, (5) Finish
and coloring coats, and (6) Imprinting
186. Uneven distribution of color in tablet coating is due to
A. Bridging C. Orange Peel Affect
B. Erosion D. Mottling
187. What problem in film coating arises when the fluid delivery rate exceeds the drying capacity of the
process?
A. Bridging C. Picking E. Mottling
B. Erosion D. Orange Peel Affect
188. An assay of the active ingredient revealed a concentration of 98.5% nitrofurantoin raw material. The USP
monograph specifies limit of 90-110%. What is the maximum amount of nitrofurantoin raw material to be
used in preparing a 34.2 kilo batch size to accommodate a 5% production overage if a 342 mg tablet
contains 100 mg of the drug?
A. 11.675 kilos C. 11.168 kilos E. 10.000 kilos
B. 11.500 kilos D. 11.000 kilos
189. In sugar coating of tablets, the greatest increase in the size of the tablet occurs at what stage of the
process?
A. Sealing C. Color coating E. Polishing
B. Smoothing D. Subcoating
190. Which of the following materials is/are suitable for producing sustained-release film coating?
I. Acrylic resins
II. Cellulose elastomers
III. Silicone elastomers
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
191. Which of the following mechanisms can explain the effects of controlled drug delivery system?
I. Achievement of sustained drug action at a predetermined rate
II. Spatial placement of a controlled release system adjacent t or in the diseased tissue or organ to
achieve a systemic drug action
III. Rate and amount of drug release being determined by the physiologic and therapeutic need of
the patient
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
192. It is defined as the load in grams required to push a standard a set distance into a prepared gelatine gel
(6.66% solution at 10 degree Celsius)
A. Bloom strength C. Viscosity E. Recovery rate
B. Tensile strength D. Compressibility index
193. Which of the following is the source of gelatine?
A. Carageenan C. Starch E. Glucose
B. Galageenan D. Collagen
194. Given the following formulation:
Nitrofurantoin 100 mg
Lactose 152 mg
PVP 15 mg
Microcrystalline cellulose I 15 mg
Syloid 2 mg
Sterotex 1 mg
Which of the given ingredients is the disintegrant?
A. Nitrofurantoin C. PVP E. Syloid
B. Lactose D. Microcrystalline cellulose
195. Given the following formulation:
Nitrofurantoin 100 mg
Lactose 152 mg
PVP 15 mg
Microcrystalline cellulose I 15 mg
Syloid 2 mg
Sterotex 1 mg
Which of the given ingredients is the binder?
A. Nitrofurantoin C. PVP E. Syloid
B. Lactose D. Microcrystalline cellulose
196. Plasticizers are useful in which of the following?
I. Film coating
II. Manufacture of soft-gel capsules
III. Manufactured of hard-gelatin capsules
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
197. What is the amount of moisture present in soft gelatine capsules?
A. 1-5% C. 10-15% E. 12-20%
B. 6-10% D. 15-18%
198. What is the maximum particle size that can be found in True solutions
A. 10 um C. 1 um E. 1 millimicrometer
B. 5 um D. 0.1 um
199. Protective colloids classified as clays include which of the following:
A. Casein C. Gum E. Attapulgite
B. Acacia D. CMC
200. Ionamin capsules which contain Phentermine utilize which of the following controlled release systems?
A. Osmotic system C. Prodrugs E. Dissolution system
B. Ion exchange D. Diffusion system
201. A batch or any portion of a batch of drug produced by a continuous process is:
A. Lot C. Inert substances E. Product
B. Component D. Active ingredient
202. The records to be controlled by Quality Control should be:
A. Master formula C. Returned goods E. In-process records
B. Inventory records D. Production records
203. A semisolid vehicle recognized by the USP/NF is:
A. Glycerogelatin base C. Alcohol soluble fats E. Fats and oils
B. Water-soluble base D. Non-absorption base
204. Fever producing substances arising from microbial contamination are:
A. Bacteria C. Pyrogens E. Coliform organisms
B. Fungi D. Yeast
205. Classified as sterile product although not injected into the body is:
A. Ophthalmic preparation C. Ointment E. Dextrose injection solution
B. Biological product D. Gargle
206. Sealing of ampoules is done by:
A. Heating the neck of the ampoules
B. Pull sealing
C. Pressing the ampoule tip
D. Gas sealing
E. Alcohol-flame seal
207. A tablet processing problem where a partial or complete separation of the top or bottom of the table is
termed:
A. Elimination C. Picking E. Breaking
B. Capping D. Sticking
208. To control microorganisms in the air is to:
A. Install UV lamps in several areas
B. Install IR lamps in the areas
C. Provide ETO gas around the room
D. Close the door tightly
E. Spray insecticide inside the room
209. Products which have been bottled or stripped-packed but not yer labelled or packed into boxes or
barbons are termed:
A. Finished products
B. Releasable for sale
C. In-process
D. Rejected products
E. For processing
210. Advantage of plastic containers over glass is:
A. Permeability
B. Susceptible to microorganisms growth
C. High transportation cost
D. Lightness in weight
E. Light can penetrate easily
211. Egg yolk is an example of an emulsifier belonging to:
A. Non-ionic type C. Synthetic group E. Natural group
B. Finely divided liquid D. Ionic type
212. Lyophilized products are manufacture by series of processes as:
A. Freezing C. Cooking E. Mixing
B. Melting D. Compression
213. A HEPA filter is used to filter air entering a:
A. Gas chamber C. Fume hood E. Clean room
B. Laminar flow hood D. Sterile room
214. The size of a single-dose container for injection is limited to:
A. 30 ml C. 1000 ml E. 60 ml
B. 50 ml D. 20 ml
215. An indicator employed in sterilization process is:
A. Methyl red TS C. Phenolphthalein TS E. Colored paper strips
B. Litmus paper D. Colored cloth
216. Coating of tablets that allow disintegration in the intestines is:
A. Sugar C. Film E. Gelatine
B. Enteric D. Chocolate
217. To protect the contents of a bottle from the action of light id to use:
A. Flint glass C. Colorless glass E. Plastic coated glass
B. Green colored glass D. Amber colored glass
218. A lyophobic substance is easily wet by:
A. Polar solvents C. Non-polar solvents E. Alcohol-water mixture
B. Water D. Hydroalcohol
219. In tablet compression, the large, poorly formed, compacted mass of powder is referred to as:
A. Slugs C. Vaginal tablets E. Lozenges
B. Buccal tablets D. Compressed tablets
220. Content uniformity test for tablets, USP/NF limit is:
A. 90-110% C. 90-100% E. 85-115%
B. 95-105% D. 85-105%
221. The best choice of disintegrant by the formulators is:
A. Lactose C. Stearic acid E. Sucrose
B. Starch D. Talc
222. The dispensing division of the warehouse requires a:
A. Licensed chemist C. Licensed pharmacist E. Male engineer
B. Experienced scientist D. Any skilled technician
223. Room temperature recognized by USP/NF is:
A. 20 °C C. Temp. Of the working area E. 30 °C
B. 15-20 °C D. 25 °C
224. A protective colloid added to a suspension formulation is to:
A. Allow for fast sedimentation
B. Allow active constituent to easily separate
C. Allow solution of the sediment
D. For easy measurement of final volume of the preparation
225. Effervescent tablets when added to water releases:
A. Oxygen
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
D. Gas
E. Carbon dioxide
226. In labelling of a product, an unlabelled portion is provided for:
A. Viewing the contents
B. Elegance
C. Save cost of label
D. Art design
E. Saving of glue applied
227. Property of IV solutions:
A. Hypotonic
B. Isotonic
C. Non-aqueous vehicle
D. Hypertonic
E. Hydroalcoholic vehicle
228. The material present in both enteric and film coating is:
A. Wax C. Cellulose acetate phthalate E. Sugar
B. Paraffin wax D. Vaseline
229. A process of placing a thin coatings to small particles of solids or to droplets of liquids is:
A. Film coating C. Microencapsulation E. Lactose coating
B. Sugar coating D. Chocolate coating
230. The bar marks found in labels of products serve to:
A. Impart elegance
B. Meet BFAD requirement
C. Increase marking in labels
D. Distinguish one product from the other
231. The Inspection and Checking section of Quality Control is responsible for:
A. Checking sterility of materials
B. Doing pyrogen testing
C. Chemical assaying
D. Analyzing finished products sampled
E. Sampling of raw materials delivered by suppliers
232. To determine whether the product has undergone stability studies, the label indicates the:
A. Expiry date C. DR. No. E. Lot number
B. Bar marks D. Control number
233. Required characteristic of surfaces of equipments used in production:
A. Reactive with substances of the formulation
B. Non-absorptive
C. Absorbs the excipients of the formulation
D. Turns dark with some constituents
E. Made of plastic covering
234. The water used to prepare parenteral products must be:
A. Water, USP
B. Distilled water
C. Water for injection
D. Demineralised water
E. Purified water
235. To control raw materials and finished products in the warehouse, the practice of:
A. First in-last out
B. Last in-last out
C. Last in-first out
D. First in-first out
E. As decided by the supervisor
236. Uneven distribution of color on the surface of tablets:
A. Peeling
B. Mottling
C. Capping
D. Lamination
E. Picking
237. To remedy the irritating effects of UV radiation is to:
A. Wear UV goggles
B. Wear mask
C. Wear any type of eyeglass to cover the eyes
D. Wear head cap
E. Wear contact glasses
238. Part of a tablet machine which controls the size and shape of a tablet is:
A. Hopper
B. Punches
C. Cam
D. Die
E. Upper punch
239. Moist heat sterilization is more effective than dry heat oven at a lower temperature due to:
A. Weakening of organisms by moist heat
B. Non-oxidation of organisms heat
C. Destruction of the carbohydrates of the cell wall of the organisms
D. Dissolution of the organisms in liquid form
E. Non-precipitation of the proteins
240. The more preferred type of suspension is the flocculated one due to:
A. Elegant in appearance
B. Forms a hard cake upon standing
C. No need of shaking before use
D. Not easy to resuspend
E. Easy resuspendability
241. A 50-kg ointment may be manufactured by:
A. Spatulation
B. Trituration
C. Fusion
D. Use of mixer
E. Use of big mortar and pestle
242. Strength of a product is expressed in terms of:
A. Potency
B. Activity
C. Toxicity
D. Therapeutic use
E. Lethal dose
243. The non-proprietary name of a drug product also refers to:
A. Common name
B. Official name
C. Brand name
D. Local name
E. Herbal name
244. Certified colorants used for drugs and cosmetics but not food is:
A. FD & C dyes
B. Internally D & C dyes
C. Eosin Y
D. D&C dyes
E. Fluorescin dyes
245. The part of the transdermal drug delivery system patch where the drug is stored:
A. Back strip
B. Membrane part
C. Peel strip
D. Gauze part
E. Reservoir
246. OTC labels of products indicate in front of the:
A. Expiry date
B. Formula
C. Pharmacologic category
D. Storage
E. Manufacturing date
247. Part of the tablet machine which holds the granules:
A. Punch
B. Cam
C. Die
D. Vessel
E. Hopper
248. The most useful preservative that is effective against bacteria and molds is:
A. Parabens
B. Sodium benzoate
C. Glycerine
D. Alcohol
E. Propanol
249. Solutions which are intended to be freeze-dried must be:
A. Hydroalcoholic
B. Oily
C. Aqueous
D. Combination of oil and alcohol
E. Ether-chloroform mixture
250. The building used for manufacturing of pharmaceuticals shall be of adequate space for:
A. Orderly placement of materials
B. Allowance of mix-ups of drugs
C. Allow-for cross-contamination of raw materials ad labels
D. Allowance of big quantities of products to mix raw materials
E. Use as rest area of some personnel
251. A biological indicator used during sterilization process consist of:
A. Killed microorganisms
B. Attenuated microorganisms
C. Inactivated microorganisms
D. Live microorganisms
E. Mixed live inactivated microorganisms
252. A characteristics of indicator paper strips used during sterilization process is:
A. Destroyed at 121.0 °C
B. Melts at 121.0 °C
C. Turns at 121.0 °C
D. Does not change color at high temperature
E. Changes color at 121.0 °C
253. Pharmaceutical aerosols may be in the form of:
A. Solutions in oil
B. Emulsions
C. Deffloculated suspensions
D. Granules
E. Small tablets
254. Hemodialysis is employed to remove toxins from the:
A. Peritoneal cavity
B. Kidney
C. Blood
D. Stomach
E. Intestines
255. Petroleum jelly is a semisolid belonging to the class:
A. Water soluble base
B. Absorption base
C. Water removable base
D. Hydrocarbon base
E. Alcohol soluble base
256. Antibiotics and insulin products can be released for distribution by:
A. BFAD
B. Q.C of the company
C. Production head
D. Marketing head
E. Plant manager
257. The Board of Trustees of a company functions as a:
A. Active planning
B. Preparer of policies
C. Owns the company
D. Stockholder’s money keepers
E. Helps in the marketing of products
258. Control records required in the manufacture of drugs:
A. Distribution records
B. Sales records
C. Master formula
D. Assay procedures
E. BFAD records
259. A product that is rubbed or sprayed on the body for cleansing and beautifying is:
A. Liniments
B. Poultices
C. Ointments
D. Therapeutic emulsions
E. Cosmetics
260. Method of tablet manufacture for easily compressible or adhesive ingredients is:
A. Direct compression
B. Slugging
C. Wet method
D. Dry method
E. Manual process
261. Gas used to sterilize plastic materials is:
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Ethane
D. Ethylene oxide
E. Carbon monoxide
262. Colorants are added to formulation for:
A. Meeting BFAD requirements
B. Trying which of them is suitable for the product
C. Satisfying the request of marketing department
D. Research during manufacturing
E. Aesthetic purpose
263. Practical methods of determining hardness of tablets is:
A. Eureka tester
B. Rule of the thumb
C. Pfizer tester
D. Roche tester
E. Pound with a pestle
264. Use of buffers in parenterals:
A. Tonicity contributor
B. To determine pH of the solution
C. Sterilizer
D. As diluents
E. To make hypotonic solution
265. The capsule shell is a basically composed of:
A. Gelatin
B. Wax
C. Plasticizer with alcohol
D. Water
E. Petrolatum
266. Humectant for creams is:
A. Distilled water
B. Oil
C. Sorbitol
D. Chloroform
E. Petroleum jelly
267. Characteristic of irrigation solutions to wash wounds and surgical opening may be:
A. Boiled for 30 minutes
B. With additives
C. Mixed with antibiotics
D. Pyrogen-free
E. With suspended fine particles
268. Plastic material used ophthalmic solutions as package and applicator is:
A. Polypropylene
B. Polyethylene
C. Polystyrene
D. PVC
E. Any fine plastic material
269. A colloid mill is used for:
A. Granulation
B. Tablet compressor
C. Produce fine granules
D. Microencapsulation
E. Homogenization of viscous emulsions
270. To control foam in emulsions is to:
A. Add polyethylene glycol
B. Add foaming agent
C. Apply compressed air
D. Mix or agitate rapidly
E. Add sorbitol
271. Thickness of tablets is controlled to avoid the problem in:
A. Packaging
B. Dissolution
C. Disintegration
D. Compression
E. Hardness
272. Tablets placed beneath the tongue in administration is:
A. Buccal
B. Troches
C. Chewable
D. Sublingual
E. Oral
273. Caps used to hold rubber closure in place for vials are made of:
A. Tin
B. Aluminium
C. Copper
D. Tin coated metal
E. Plastic coated tin
274. Quarantined materials delivered in the warehouse are:
A. Subject to test and assays
B. Releasable to production department
C. Rejectable
D. In-process products
E. For approval by the BFAD
275. Hard gelatin capsules are also referred to as:
A. Elastic capsule
B. Pork skin capsule
C. Dry-filled capsule
D. SEC type capsule
E. Soft capsule
276. Implantation pellets are those which contains:
A. Diluents
B. Base
C. Disintegrant
D. Active constituent
E. Lubricant
277. In the manufacture of semisolid emulsions, the mixing of the oil and the aqueous phases is done at a
temperature of:
A. 30-40°C
B. 80°C
C. 90-100°C
D. Just to melt
E. 70-72°C
278. Water can be purified by:
A. Chemical reaction
B. Distillation
C. Solution by boiling
D. By freezing
E. By adding preservative
279. An emulsifier suitable for water in oil emulsion should have an HLB value of:
A. 8-18
B. 3-6
C. 5-6
D. 10-20
E. 9-10
280. Property of a tablet granulations to obtain good tablets:
A. Fine granules
B. Well-mixed with lubricant
C. Contain large quantities of fines compressibility
D. Compressibility
E. Uneven sized particles
281. Stokes Monsanto tester of tablets is to measure:
A. Thickness
B. Friability
C. Hardness
D. Disintegration
E. Dissolution
282. In ampul sealing, excessive heating of the ampul after it is closed will result to:
A. Fragile bubble
B. Fracture at the neck
C. Leaker
D. Deposit of carbon
E. Ampul-break up
283. Substances that prevent bacterial and fungal growth are:
A. Coloring agents
B. Flavorants
C. Sweeteners
D. Antioxidants
E. Preservative
284. To assist in assuring the stability of the dosage forms during transport and storage, the label shall
indicate:
A. Expiry date
B. Storage caution
C. Concentration of drug substance
D. Bar marks
E. Transport caution
285. Pyrogens may come from:
A. Water
B. Pure solute
C. Sterile container
D. Gowns which has been sterilized
E. Air
286. Temperature that can destroy pyrogens is:
A. 180°C
B. 250°C
C. 650°C for 60 seconds
D. 150°C for 1 hour
E. 500°C for one minute
287. Insoluble powders for ophthalmic preparations must be:
A. Less than 20 microns in particle size
B. Pyrogen-free
C. Give preservative action
D. Impalpable to the touch
E. Less than 100 microns size
288. Dialysis solutions as life-saving preparations had the following characterisitics:
A. Requires semi permeable membrane to separate one substance to one another
B. Contains several active ingredients
C. Used to separate red blood cell from white corpuscles
D. Used to individuals with lung diseases
E. Used for any other ailments
289. Large volume parenterals are employed for:
A. Prophylactic therapy
B. Nutritional use
C. Heart diseased patients
D. For children’s needs
E. Replacement therapy
290. In semisolid preparations, petrolatum is a common hydrocarbon base due to its:
A. Property of being easily washed by water
B. Consistency
C. Low cost
D. Can be used for other purposes
E. Easily available
291. To increase viscosity of the aqueous phase of an emulsion is to:
A. Add more oil
B. Add more water
C. Add more emulsifier
D. Stir vigorously
E. Use mixer to stir well
292. LAL method of test is specified for:
A. Bacteria
B. Molds
C. Virus
D. Yeast
E. Pyrogens
293. Sterilization process for heat sensitive parenterals is by:
A. Dry heat
B. Membrane filtration
C. Tyndallisation
D. Inspissations
E. Add preservatives
294. Advantage of multilayered tablets:
A. High cost but effective
B. May be coated
C. 2 incompatibe drugs may keptseparate
D. May separate in 2 layers
E. Lamination may occur
295. This is a common lubricant for tablets:
A. Magnesium stearate
B. Acacia
C. Talc
D. Starch
E. Mannitol
296. A container which holds the drug and is in direct contact with the preparation is:
A. Secondary container component
B. Packaging container
C. Tertiary container component
D. Primary container
E. Plastic container
297. Uniformity of dosage units of suspensions is determined by performing the:
A. Weight variation test
B. Fill volume
C. Content uniformity
D. Viscosity determination
E. Assay process
298. Filter aids for clarification of liquids include:
A. Starch
B. Fuller’s earth
C. Aorbitol
D. Sugar
E. Lactose
299. Synthetic drug carrier system include:
A. Injectable particulate
B. Ophthalmic ointment
C. Transdermal delivery systems
D. Lozenges
E. Poultices
300. Implantation tablets which are administered:
A. Orally
B. Rectally
C. Insertion into body tissues
D. Through the vagina
E. Under the tongue
JURISPRUDENCE
1. The special law on counterfeit drug is known as RA__________

A.7394
B.3720
C.8203
D.5921
E.NOTA ( none of the above )
2. Counterfeit drug refer to the mdicinal products.
A. recognized in USP/NF
B. article intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation and treatment of disease.
C. without active ingredient results in the reduction of drugs safety, efficacy, quality or strength
D. A & C only
E. AOTA ( all of the above )
3. Which of the following is a prohibited act under the special law on counterfeit drugs?
A. possession of the drug
B. manufacture, sale, offer for sale, donation, trafficking or importation of drug
C. unregistered imported drug products
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
4. The parties liable in RA 8203 include:
A. the pharmacist
B. inspector
C. manufacturer
D. customer
E. A & C
5. If the seized drug was found to counterfeit, the business establishment must be directed for preventive
closure for a period of :
A. 15 days
B. 10 days
C. 30 days
D. 20 days
E. 60 days
6. Administrative sanctions for any violators of special law on counterfeit drugs:
A. fine NLT 100,000 pesos and NMT 500,000 pesos
B. permanent closure of establishment and revocation of its license to do business
C. forfeiture, confiscation and destruction of products found to be counterfeit
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
7. RA 8203 was signed into law on:
A. Sept. 4, 1996
B. Sept. 13, 1988
C. Oct. 4, 1996
D. Sept. 13, 1986
E. Sept. 4, 1992
8. Drugs, as defined in RA 8203, refer to:
A. any article recognized in the official USP/NF
B. any article intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man
or animals
C. herbal and/ or in traditional drugs which are articles of plant or animal origin used in folk medicine
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
9. A certain drug is considered counterfeit if it contains less than how many percent of the active ingredient it
purports to possess?
A.80
B. 75
C. 60
D. 85
E. 90
10. As defined in RA 8203, this refers to any entity, whether a single proprietorship, partnership or
corporation engaged in or doing business in Philippines.
A. brokering
B. business establishment
C. residency
D. ownership
E. NOTA
11. Any person in possession of counterfeit drugs shall be exempted from liability after:
A. presentation of sales invoices, official receipts or legally acceptable document evidencing his
purchase from a drugstore an indicating therein the batch and lot numbers and expiry dates of such drugs
B. presentation of certificates evidencing the importation and exportation of drugs
C. presentation of duplicates legally acceptable documents evidencing the purchase and importation or
exportation of the drugs
D.A & B only
E. AOTA
12. Upon finding that the drugs examined are counterfeit, the Bureau shall file an appropriate proceeding
against the registered pharmacist with the PRC for the___________ of professional license.
A. revocation
B. suspension
C. cancellation
D. A or B
E. NOTA
13. The commission of the acts prohibited in RA 8203 shall be punished by:
A. imprisonment of NLT 6 months and one day but NMT 1 year if the counterfeit drug is intended for
animals
B. imprisonment of 6 years and one day but NMT 10 years
C. fine of NLT 100,000 pesos but NMT 500,000 pesos
D. B or C
E.AOTA
14. If the counterfeit drug is proximate cause of death of victim who unknowingly purchased and took the
counterfeit drug, the penalty to be imposed shall be:
A. life imprisonment
B. fine of 500,000 pesos to 5M pesos
C. fine of 100,000 pesos to 10M pesos
D. A & B only
E. A & C only
15. If the illness sought to be cured is aggravated by the use of the counterfeit drug, the punishment to be
imposed shall be:
A. imprisonment from 12 years to 15 years
B. life imprisonment
C. fine of 100,000 pesos to 500,000 pesos
D. A & C only
E. B & C only
fine of 100,000 pesos to 500,000 pesos
A. June 23, 1969
B. June 23, 1963
C. June 22, 1969
D. June 22, 1963
E NOTA
17. A complete pharmacy internship are based on RA 5921 article III section 18c shall consist of at least:
A. 480 hours
B. 960 hours
C.160 hours
D. 980 hours
E. 940 hours
18. RA 5921 provides for and shall govern:
A. standardization and regulation of pharmaceutical education
B. examination and registration of graduates of schools of pharmacy
C. supervision, control and regulation of the practice of pharmacy in Philippines
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
19. For the purpose of implementing RA 5921, this/these was/were created:
A. Board of Pharmacy
B. Council of Pharmaceutical Education
C.PRC
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
20. The Council of Pharmaceutical Education was created for the implementation of RA 5921. This council is
composed of:
A. Secretary of Education
B. BFAD administrator
C. Chairman of Board of Pharmacy
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
22. The Board of Pharmacy was created for the implementation of RA 5921. This Board is composed of a
chairman and _______ members.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
23. Who shall appoint the chairman and the members of the Board of Pharmacy?
A. BFAD director
C. President of the Philippines
D. Sec. of Department of Education
E. Commissioner of Civil Service
24. To be appointed member of the Board of Pharmacy, a person shall be a duly registered pharmacist and
has been in the practice of Pharmacy for at least _________ years.
A. 5
B. 7
C. 8
D. 10
E. 12
25. According to RA 5921, the qualifications of members of the Board of Pharmacy include:
A. natural born citizen in Philippines
B. of good moral character and of recognized standing in the pharmaceutical profession
C. a member of good standing of any bona fide national pharmaceutical association of the Philippines
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
26. For how many years shall the chairman and members of the Board of Pharmacy hold office after appointment?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 2
27. Which of the following statement is/are correct about the tenure of office and fees of board members?
A. The chairman or member may be reappointed for another term of 3 years but in no case shall he serve
continuously for more than 6 years
B. The most senior of the Board shall automatically be the chairman
C. The chairman and members shall receive the sum of 60 pesos for each applicant examined
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
28. If found guilty and neglect duty, incompetence, malpractice, unprofessional or dishonorable conduct, after
having been given the opportunity to defined himself in an administrative investigation, the Chairman or Members of
the Board may be removed by:
A. President of the Philippines
B. Chairman of the Council of Pharmaceutical Education
C. BFAD administrator
D. PRC Commissioner
E. Civil Service Commissioner
29. According to RA 5921, who shall be the Executive Officer of the Board?
A. President of the Philippines
B. Chairman of the Council of Pharmaceutical Education
C. BFAD Administrator
D. PRC Commissioner
E. Civil Service Commissioner
30. The Board of Pharmacy is vested with the authority to:
A. examine applicants for the practice of pharmacy
B. issue certificates of registration of pharmacists
C. study the conditions affecting the practice of pharmacy in the Philippines
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
31. Any person who shall be employed as detailman by any pharmaceutical establishment shall be required to
register with the:
A. PRC
B. BFAD
C. Board of Pharmacy
D. DOH
E. Council of Pharmaceutical Education
32. As defined in RA 5921, he is the one who represents any duly authorized manufacturer, dealer, distributor,
representative or wholesaler of drugs, pharmaceutical and biologic products whose primary duty is to introduce the
product made by the manufacturer.
A. broker
B. owner
C. detailman
D. retailer
E. wholesaler
33. Which of the following statement is/are true for detailman?
A. he shall be, preferably, a graduate of a college of Pharmacy
B. an initial fee of 20 pesos is needed upon registration
C. to be employed, he needs to possess the necessary credentials issued by the PRC
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
34. Any of the following shall be sufficient ground for reprimanding a pharmacist, or for suspending or revoking his
certificate of registration:
A. immoral or dishonorable conduct which includes conviction by a competent court of any criminal offense
B. fraud or deceit in the acquisition of the certificate of registration
C. insanity
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
35. Any of the following shall be sufficient ground for reprimanding a pharmacist, or for suspending or revoking his
certificate of registration:
A. acting as dummy of an alien or a person who is not a qualified to establish or operate a retail drugstore
B. gross negligence, or ignorance or incompetence in the practice of his profession resulting in the injury or
death of another
C. violations of any provisions of the code of ethics
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
36. Under RA 5921, administrative investigation shall be conducted by all members of the Board of Pharmacy. In
case of suspension, it shall be for a period of not more than:
A. 60 days
B. 6 months
C. 30 days
D. 3 months
E. 1 year
37. The Board of Pharmacy, upon receipt of a formal complaint under oath against a pharmacist, shall furnish the
latter a copy of the complaint which he shall answer within _______ days from receipt.
A. 15
B. 5
C. 10
D. 30
E. 60
38. A candidate for Board examination in pharmacy shall have the following qualification/s:
A. shall be a citizen of the Philippines
B. shall be of good moral character
C. shall have graduated with the degree of Bachelor of Science in Pharmacy or with an equivalent degree from a
school, college or university duly accredited by the Council of Pharmaceutical Education, completing a standard
pharmacy course of not less than 4 academic years.
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
39. The Pharmacist Examination shall consist of theoretical examination on the subjects in:
A. Chemistry
B. Biological science
C. Pharmacy
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
40. A person is deemed to be practicing pharmacy within the meaning of Article IV of RA 5921, if he:
A. prepares or manufactures, analyzes, assays, preserves, stores, distributes, or sells any medicine, drug,
chemicals, cosmetics and pharmaceuticals
B. renders pharmaceutical service in any office or drug and cosmetic establishment where scientific,
technological or professional knowledge of pharmacy is applied
C. engages in teaching scientific, technological or professional pharmacy subject in the college of pharmacy
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
41. Filling and refilling of prescription shall be done by:
A. registered pharmacist
B. intern with the supervision of a registered pharmacist
C. nurse
D. pharmacy aide
E. A & B only
42. Every prescription for external use filled in the drugstore shall bear what label?
A. red label
B. white label
C. red label showing in blank ink the components and the word “For external use only”
D. white label showing in red ink the word “For external use only”
E. NOTA
43. All prescription dispensed in the drugstore shall be recorded in the books kept for the purpose indicating:
A. name of the manufacturer
B. address of the manufacturer
C. lot and control numbers of the main ingredients of the prescription
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
44. The following substances are included in the list of violent poisons stated in RA 5921:
A. atropine
B. nitrobenzene
C. strychnine
D. B & C only
E. AOTA
45. If a pharmacists dispenses or sells any of the violent poisons intended for medicinal use, he shall enter into a
separate book detail such as:
A. name and address of purchaser
B. date of sale
C. purpose of purchase
D. name and quantity of poison
E. AOTA
46. The pharmacist shall affix to every box, bottle or other package containing any dangerous or poisonous drug the
following:
A. a label of white paper with the word POISON in red ink
B. a label of red paper
C. the word ‘Poison’ in large letters
D. a vignette representing skull and bones
E. B, C and D only
47. The book kept for the purpose of recording the sale of poisons shall be open at all times for inspection and shall
be preserved for a period of at least________ years after the last entry.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
E. 7
48. The pharmacist in charge of a drugstore after filling a prescription containing abortive or anti- conception
substances or devices shall record in a separate register book for abortive and anti- conception the following data:
A. number and date of prescription
B. name and address of physician
C. date of filling a prescription
D. name, quantity and manufacturer of drug
E. AOTA
49. Any person who shall make false representation to procure a registration certificate as pharmacist for himself or
for another shall be sentenced to:
A. A fine of NLT 1000 pesos but not exceeding 4000 pesos
B. An imprisonment of NLT 6 months and one day but NMT 4 years
C. An imprisonment of NLT 4 months and one day but NMT 4 years
D. A & B only
E. A & C only
50. This means a method of secret writing that substitutes other or characters for the letter intended, or transposes
the letter after arranging them in blocks or squares.
A. code
B. cipher
C. secret keys
D. substitution
E. NOTA
51. This means a system of words or others system arbitrarily used to present words.
A. Code
B. Cipher
C. Secret keys
D. Substitution
E. NOTA
52. This means characteristic styles or symbols kept from the knowledge of others or disclosed confidentially to only
one or few.
A. Code
B. Cipher
C. Secret keys
D. Substitution
E. NOTA
53. It is any drug, active principle or preparation of the same, capable of destroying life or seriously endangering
health when applied externally to the body or introduced internally in moderate doses.
A. Adulterated drug
B. Misbranded drug
C. Counterfeit drug
D. Poison
E. AOTA
54. This term means any drug, preparation or mixture of drugs marked under a trade name and intended for the
cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or animals.
A. Pharmaceuticals
B. Proprietary medicines
C. Pharmaceuticals specialties
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
55. Under Ra 5921, Drug means:
A. article in the current official USP/NF
B. articles other than food, intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of man and animals
C. herbal and/or traditional drugs which are articles of plant or animal origin used in folk medicine
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
56. RA 3720 is also known as:
A. Pharmacy Law
B. Consumer Act of the Philippines
C. Food, Drugs and Cosmetics and Devices Act
D. Senior Citizens Act
E. Special Law on Counterfeit Drugs
A. June 22, 1963
B. June 22, 1969
C. June 23, 1969
D. July 22, 1969
E. July 22, 1963
58. In accordance with the provision of RA 3720, the Government through the DOH shall:
A. establish standards and quality measures for foods, drugs and devices and cosmetics
B. adopt measures to ensure pure and safe supply of foods and cosmetics
C. strengthen the BFAD
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
59. This division shall take charge of the inspection of food, drug and cosmetic establishment engaged in their
manufacture and sale.
A. Licensing Division
B. Inspection Division
C. Inspection and Licensing Division
D. Laboratory Division
E. C & D
60. Under RA 3720, The Board of Food Inspection is converted into the Board of Food and Drug Inspection which
shall consist of:
A. Representative of DOH
B. Representative of Dept. of Agriculture and Natural Resources
C. Representative of Dept. of Commerce and Industry
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
61. Under RA 3720, the Board of Food Inspection is converted into the Board of Drug Inspection which shall consist
of:
A. An authorized designate of the Commission of Custom
B. Pres. of the Phil. Medical Association
C. Pres. of the Phil. Pharmaceutical Association
D. Representative of Dept. of Commerce and Industry
E. AOTA
62. Who shall be designated by the Sec. of Health to be the Chairman of the Board of Food and Drug Inspection?
A. Representative of the DOH
B. Pres. of the Phil. Medical Association
C. Pres. of the Phil. Pharmaceutical Association
D. Representative of Dept. of Commerce and Industry
E. NOTA
63. Which Executive order abolished the Food and Drug Administration and created the BFAD?
A. EO 137
B. EO 851
C. EO 951
D. EO 147
E. EO 150
64. The term Secretary, in RA 3720, means:
A. Secretary of DOH
B. Secretary of Dept. of Commerce and Industry
C. Secretary of Education
D. Secretary of Dept. Agriculture and Natural Resources
E. AOTA
65. This means a quantity of any drug device produced during a given cycle of manufacture.
A. Batch number
B. Lot number
C. Batch
D. Control number
E. NOTA
66.’New Drugs’ means any drug, the component of which is such that said drug is not generally recognized among
experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate the safety, efficacy and quality of drugs as safe,
efficacious and good quality for use. New drugs shall include drugs:
A. containing a newly discovered active ingredient
B. containing a new fixed combination of drugs
C. in an additional dosage of strength of the dosage form
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
67. Among the prohibited acts under RA 3720 are:
A. manufacture for sales, offer for sale, distribute in commerce or import into the Philippines any consumer
product which has been declared as banned consumer product
B. adulteration or misbranding of any food, drug, device or cosmetic
C. manufacture, importation, exportation, sale, offering for sale, distribution or transfer of any drug or device
which is not registered to BFAD
D. B & C only
E. AOTA
68. As stated in RA 3720, any person who commits the following shall subject to imprisonment of NLT 1 year but
NMT 5 years or a fine NLT 5000 pesos but NMT 10000 pesos or both:
A. sale or offering for sale of any drug or device beyond its expiration date
B. release for sale or distribution of a batch of a drug without batch certification when required
C. forging, counterfeiting, stimulating or falsely representing without proper authority using any mark, stamp, tag
authorized by regulations
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
69. The manufacturer, importation, exportation, sale, offering for sale, distribution or transfer of any food, drug,
device, or cosmetic that is adulterated or misbranded is a prohibited act under:
A. RA 3720
B. RA 5921
C. RA 8203
D. RA 9165
E. RA 7432
70. Under RA 3720, if a food bears or contains any poisonous or deleterious substance which may render it
injurious to health, it is deemed to be:
A. poison
B. adulterated
C. misbranded
D. counterfeit
E. hazardous
71. Under RA 3720, if a food’s container is composed, in whole or in part of any poisonous or deleterious substance
which may render the contents injurious to health, the food is deemed to be:
A. poison
B. adulterated
C. misbranded
D. counterfeit
E. hazardous
72. A food shall be deemed to be adulterated if:
A. it has been prepared, packed or held under unsanitary conditions
B. damage or inferiority has been concealed in any manner
C. it is offered for sale under the name of other food
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
73. A food shall be deemed to be adulterated if:
A. it is, in whole or in part, the product of a diseased animal or an animal which has died otherwise than by
slaughter
B. any substance injurious to health has been added or substituted
C. it bears or contain a coal tar color other one which is permissible
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
74. Under RA 3720, if the food is an imitation of other food, then the food is deemed to be:
A. fake
B. misbranded
C. misleading
D. adulterated
E. counterfeit
75. Under RA 3720, if the food labeling is false or misleading in any particular, then the product is deemed to be;
A. an imitation
B. misbranded
C. misleading
D. counterfeit
E. B & C
76. Who is authorized to suspend immediately upon notice any permit issued under authority if it found that any of
the conditions of the permit have been violated?
A. Secretary of health
C. Pres. of the Philippines
D. BFAD inspector
E. PRC Commissioner
77. Under RA 3720, if a drug’s strength differs from or its safety, efficacy, quality or purity falls below the standards
set forth in the compendium, then the drug is deemed to be:
A. mislabeled
B. adulterated
C. counterfeit
D. under quality
E. ineffective
78. A drug or device shall be deemed to be misbranded if it is for use by mans and contains any quantity of _______
which is/are not specified in the label.
A. barbituric acid
B. codeine
C. heroin
D. B & C only
E. AOTA
79. To whom shall any person submit an application for Licensing and Registration of any drug or device?
A. Secretary of Health
B. BFAD Director
C. PRC Commissioner
D. Licensing Officer
E. Commissioner of Customs
80. Any person who wish to file an application shall submit the following:
A. full list of articles used as components of such drug or device
B. full statement of the composition of such drug or device
C. full description of the methods used in and the facilities and control used for the manufacture of such drug or
device
D. specimen of the labeling proposed to be used for such drug or device
E. AOTA
81. Within how many days after filling of an application for Licensing registration of drugs or devices shall the
secretary approve or give the applicant notice of an opportunity for a hearing?
A. 150
B. 180
C. 200
D. 120
E. 60
82. In order to manufacture, sell, offer for sale, import or distribute any drug or device, a license to operate should
be first secured from:
A. BFAD
B. PRC
C. Dept. of Trade and Industry
D. Dept. of Commerce
E. DOJ
83. The RA provide for certification of batches of drugs composed wholly or partially of any kind of antibiotic.
A. RA 7432
B. RA 8203
C. RA 3720
D. RA 9165
E. RA 5921
85. These drug are promulgated by the Secretary to be exempted from any requirements under Section 22c Article
IX of RA 3720:
A. intended for investigational use
B. which are to be stored, processed, labeled or repacked at establishments other than where manufactured
C. Which conform to applicable standards of identity, strength, quality and purity
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
86. If a certain brand of face powder which claimed to be hypoallergenic causes itchiness and redness on the skin of
the user, the product is considered to be:
A. of high quality
B. misbranded
C. has acceptable side effects
D. adulterated
E. counterfeit
87. Drugs are considered to be adulterated if:
A. the label is misleading
B. it is an imitation of the product
C. it differs from USP standard
D. A & B
E. NOTA
88. The division in BFAD that certifies batches of antibiotics:
A. Product services
B. Laboratory services
C. Legal, Information and Compliance
D. Administrative
E. Inspection services
89. It means to bring into the Philippines by sea, land or air.
A. import
B. export
C. distribute
D. manufacture
E. NOTA
90. Who shall prescribe regulations for the efficient enforcement of the provisions of Section 30 of RA 3720, which is
about the Importation and Exportation of food, drugs, devices and cosmetics?
B. BFAD director
C. Commissioner of customs
D. A & B
E. A & C
91. According to RA 3720, these shall be published by the Bureau to serve as reference by manufacturers,
distributors, physicians, and consumers.
A. Drug reference manual
B. Drug bulletin
C. Drug information newsletter
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
92. In addition to the Administrative sanctions provided for under Letter of Instruction no. 1223, the Secretary is
authorized to impose __________ for any violation of RA 3720.
B. imprisonment of NLT 5 months but NMT 5 years
C. administrative fine NLT 1000 pesos and NMT 5000 pesos
D. fine of NLT 2000 pesos and NMT 5000 pesos
E. any of the above
93. Who shall take care and deliver to the Bureau the samples taken at random from every incoming shipment of
food, drugs, devices and cosmetics which are being imported or offered for import into the Philippines?
A. BFAD director
B. Civil service commissioner
C. Commissioner of customs
D. Secretary of health
E. NOTA
94. A food, drug, device or cosmetic intended for export shall not be deemed to be adulterated or misbranded under
RA 3720 if:
A. it conforms with the specification of the foreign purchaser
B. it is not in conflict with the laws of the country to which it is intended for export
C. it is labeled on the outside of the shipping package to show that it is intended for export
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
95. RA 3720 was amended by EO NO.________:
A. 881
B. 851
C. 175
D. 170
E. 54
96. The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 is:
A. RA 6425
B. RA 9165
C. RA 6675
D. RA 9465
E. RA 5921
97. A certified true copy of the record of dangerous drugs must be submitted to:
A. PDEA
B. BFAD
C. DDB
D. DOH
E. PRC
98. Amount of morphine subject to life imprisonment to death penalty and a fine of 500,000 pesos to 10M pesos:
A. 500g
B. 50g
C. 10g
D. 1g
E. 20g
99. Substances covered by RA 9165
A. prescription drugs
B. dangerous drugs
C. controlled precursors and essential chemicals
D. B & C only
E. AOTA
100. Prescription for dangerous drug are written in:
A. duplicate
B. triplicate
C. one copy
D. four copies
E. NOTA
101. Pharmacists are required to maintain and keep an original record of dangerous drugs.
A. sales
B. purchases
C. acquisition
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
102. The original copy of the prescription of dangerous drug is retained by the pharmacist for a period of ________
years from the date of sale or delivery of such drug.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
103. Regular member of the DDB:
B. Director of NBI
C. Secretary of Justice
D. President of the Integrated Bar of the Philippines
E. AOTA
104. Head of the PDEA:
B. Director General
C. NBI Chief
D. PNP Chief
E. BFAD Director
105. Permanent consultant of the DDB:
A. Secretary of the Health & Director of BFAD
B. NBI Director & PNP Chief
C. NBI Chief & BFAD Director
D. President of the Philippines
E. AOTA
107. This refers to any facility for the illegal manufacture of any dangerous drug/or controlled precursors and
essential chemical.
A. Clandestine laboratory
B. Laboratory equipment
C. Instrument
D. Den, Dive or Resort
E. NOTA
108. ________ is a place where any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical is
administered, delivered or stored for illegal purposes, distributed or sold in any form.
A. Clandestine laboratory
B. Den, Dive or Resort
C. Centers
D. School
E. NOTA
109. This is an act of knowingly planting, growing, raising or permitting the planning, growing or raising of any plant
which is the source of the dangerous drug.
A. Cultivate
B. Culture
C. Illegal trafficking
D. Planting of evidence
E. A & B only
110. Illegal trafficking means the illegal __________ of any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and
essential chemical.
A. Cultivation and Culture
B. Delivery
C. Administration
D. Possession
E. AOTA
111. This refers to act of knowingly passing a dangerous drug to another, personally or otherwise and by any
means, with or without consideration.
A. dispense
B. deliver
C. administer
D. manufacture
E. NOTA
112. Chemical diversion refers to the __________ of legitimately imported, in-transit, manufactured or procured
controlled precursors and essential element in diluted, mixtures or in concentrated form to any person engaged in
the manufacture of dangerous drugs.
A. sale
B. distribution
C. supply & transport
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
113. A practitioner is any person who is a licensed:
A. Physician
B. dentist
C. chemist
D. A & B
E. AOTA
114. __________ is any act of giving away any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical
Whether for money or other consideration
A. Deliver
B. Dispense
C. Sell
D. Administer
E. NOTA
115. This refers to any person who pays for, raises or supplies money for, or underwrites any of the illegal activities
prescribed under RA 9165.
A. financier
B. drug syndicate
C. pusher
D. B or C
E. NOTA
116. Methylenedioxymethampethamine ( MDMA ) is:
A. shabu
B. marijuana
C. ecstasy
D. opium poppy
E. NOTA
117. Cannabis is also known as:
A. shabu
B. marijuana
C. ecstasy
D. indian hemp
E. B & D only
118. Any person who shall import or bring into the Philippines any dangerous drug, regardless of the quantity and
purity shall have the penalty of:
A. life imprisonment to death
B. Fine of 500,000 pesos to 10M pesos
C. fine of 500, 000 pesos to 5M pesos
D. A & B
E. A & C
119. Any person who shall import ________ unless authorized by law, shall be punished by imprisonment from 12
years and one day to 20 years and a fine of 100, 000 pesos.
A. opium poppy
B. controlled precursor
C. essential chemical
D. B & C
E. AOTA
120 _________ shall be imposed on anyone who shall import into the Philippines any dangerous drug and/or
controlled precursor and essential through the use of diplomatic passport.
A. Life imprisonment
B. Maximum penalty
C. Minimum penalty
D. Fine of 500, 000 pesos
E. Death
121. Under RA 9165, the penalty of 12 years and one day to 20 years of imprisonment and a fine of 100, 000 pesos
to 500, 000 pesos shall be imposed upon any person who acts as a:
A. financier
B. protector
C. coddler
D. B & C
E. AOTA
122. Maximum penalty shall be imposed if the sale, trading, administration, delivery or distribution of dangerous
drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical transpires within ________ meters from school
A. 50
B. 75
C. 100
D. 125
E. 150
123. The presence of any_________ in the clandestine laboratory is a prima facie proof of manufacture of any
dangerous drug.
A. controlled precursor
B. essential chemical
C. laboratory equipment
D. A & B
E. AOTA
124. Amount of shabu subject to imprisonment to death penalty and a fine of 500, 000 pesos to 10M pesos:
A. 10g
B. 20g
C. 50g
D. 100g
E. 500g
125. Amount of marijuana subject to life imprisonment to death penalty and a fine of 500, 000 pesos to 10M pesos:
A. 10g
B. 20g
C. 50g
D. 100g
E. 500g
126. Amount of heroin subject to life imprisonment to death penalty and a fine of 500, 000 pesos to 10M pesos:
A. 10g
B. 20g
C. 50g
D. 100g
E. 500g
127. Methampethamine HCL:
A. shabu
B. marijuana
C. ecstasy
D. opium poppy
E. LSD
128. These are dangerous drugs:
A. MDMA
B. PMA
C. TMA
D. GHB
E. AOTA
129. Penalty for unlawful prescription of drugs:
A. life imprisonment to death
B. fine of 500, 000 pesos to 10M pesos
C. fine of 100, 000 pesos to 500, 000 pesos
D. A & B
E. A & C
130. Who shall take charge and have the custody of all dangerous drugs, plant sources, controlled precursor and
essential chemicals that are confiscated, seized or surrendered.
A. DDB
B. BFAD
C. PDEA
D. DOJ
E. A & C
131. The confiscated or seized dangerous drugs, plant sources, controlled precursor and essential chemicals shall
be submitted to the PDEA Forensic Laboratory for a quantitative examination within:
A. 24 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 2 days
D. 72 hours
E. 3 days
132. The following are unlawful acts under RA 9165 and any attempt to commit them shall be penalized:
A. importation of any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical
B. maintenance of den, dive or resort where any dangerous drug is used in any form
C. manufacture of any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
133. Any person who is found guilty of planting any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential
chemical shall suffer the penalty of:
B. death
C. fine of 100,000 pesos to 500,000 pesos
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
134. If the government officials and employees are found guilty of the unlawful acts under RA 9165, they shall be
penalized by:
A. maximum penalty
B. disqualification from any public office
C. life imprisonment
D. A & B only
E. minimum penalty
135. Who shall accredit and monitor drug testing laboratories to safeguard the quality of results?
A. DOH
B. DOJ
C. BFAD
D. NBI
E. PDEA
136. Every pharmacist shall maintain and keep an original record of sales, purchases, acquisitions and deliveries of
dangerous drugs indicating the following information:
A. License number and address of pharmacist
B. Quantity and name of dangerous drug purchased
C. Date of purchase
D. Name, address and community tax certificate number of buyer
E. AOTA
137. To prescribe and promulgate rules and regulations governing the establishment of centers as described in RA
9165 is a duty of:
A. DOJ
B. DDB
C. DOH
D. BFAD
E. Pres. of Philippines
138. _________shall be the policy-making and strategy-formulating body in the planning and formulation of policies
and programs on drug prevention and control
A. BOP
B. DDB
C. PDEA
D. BFAD
E. NBI
139. The other members of DDB who shall be ex officio members are:
A. Sec. of DOJ or his representative
B. Sec. of DOH or his representative
C. Sec. of DND or his representative
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
140. The presence of ____members shall constitute a quorum whenever DDB calls a meeting.
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10
141. The appointed Executive Director of DDB shall act as the:
A. Secretary of the Board
B. Assistant Secretary of the Board
C. Auditor
D. Vice Chairman
E. Moderator
142. To initiate, conduct and support scientific, clinical, social, psychological, physical and biological researches on
dangerous drugs prevention and control measures is a function of:
A. BFAD
B. DDB
C. NBI
D. PDEA
E. DOH
143. PDEA stands for:
A. Philippine Drug Empowerment Agency
B. Philippine Drug Enforcement Affiliation
C. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
D. Philippine Drug Establishment Agency
E. NOTA
144. Responsible for the efficient and effective law enforcement of all the provisions on any dangerous drug and/or
controlled precursor and essential chemical:
A. DDB
B. PDEA
C. NBI
D. BFAD
E. DOH
145. Has the power to reclassify, add or remove, from the list of dangerous drugs:
A. DDB
B. PDEA
C. NBI
D. BFAD
E. DOH
146. To set the guidelines and overall framework to monitor and ensure the proper implementation of RA 9165 is a
function of:
A. Congressional Oversight Committee
B. PDEA
C. BFAD
D. DDB
E. NBI
147. ________ means any substance which will cause on normal living tissue, allergy or photodynamic quality of
hypersensitivity which becomes evident on reapplication of the substance.
A. strong sensitizer
B. corrosive
C. irritant
D. toxic
E. radioactive
148. Any substance or mixture of substances which is toxic, corrosive, irritant, is a strong sensitizer, is flammable or
generates pressure through decomposition heat or other means:
A. counterfeit substance
B. hazardous substance
C. poisonous substance
D. radioactive substance
E. adulterated substance
149. Revised regulations for the Licensing of Drug establishments and outlets:
A. AO 56
B. AO 52
C. AO 53
D. AO 61
E. AO 62
150. Labeling, sale and distribution of Hazardous Substances
A. PD 881
B. PD 781
C. PD 551
D. EO 175
E. AO 56
151. The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002” is also known as _________
A. RA 9165
B. RA 6675
C. RA 9257
D. RA 7394
152. RA 9165was approved on __________
A. March 13, 1972
B. March 3, 1972
C. June 7, 2002
D. April 30, 1972
153. Opium is an example of a/an __________drug.
A. prohibited drug
B. regulated drug
C. exempt dangerous drug
D. none of the above
154. Which of the following is/are example of prohibited drug?
A. heroin
B. morphine
C. phenobarbital
D. AOTA
E. both A & B
155. Which of the following is/are example of regulated drug?
A. morphine
B. heroin
C. secobarbital
D. opium
156. RA 5921 is more commonly known as__________.
A. Senior Citizen’s Act
B. Pharmacy Law
C. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act
D. Special Law on Counterfeit Drug
157. The pharmacy law was signed by former Pres. Ferdinand E. Marcos last________
A. June 23, 1966
B. June 29, 1969
C. June 26, 1969
D. June 23, 1969
158. This is a “place of establishment where drugs, chemical products, active principles of drugs, pharmaceuticals,
proprietary medicines or pharmaceutical specialties, devices and poisons are sold at retail and where medical,
dental, and veterinary prescriptions are compounded and dispensed.”
A. pharmacy
B. drugstore
C. pharmaceutical laboratory
D. AOTA
E. both A & B
159. This term “includes every person who acts as a merchant, broker, or agent, who sells, or distributes for resale
pharmaceuticals, proprietary medicines or pharmaceutical specialties.”
A. wholesaler
B. person
C. dealer
D. NOTA
160. The definition of drugs, as amended by EO NO.174 include/s
1. article in current official USP/NF, official Homeopathic Pharmacopeia of the US., official Drug Formulary, or
any supplement
2. articles intended for use in the prevention of diseases in man or animals; and
3. articles ( other than food ) intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or animals
4. refers to viruses, sera, toxins, and analogous products used for the prevention or cure of human diseases.
A. AOTA
B. 1 & 2
C. 1, 2, & 3
D. NOTA
161. This is a method of secret writing, substitutes other letters or characters for the letter intended, or transposes
the letter after arranging them in blocks or squares.
A. cipher
B. code
C. secret keys
D. Any of the above
162. This means “a system of words or other systems arbitrarily used to present words”
A. Cipher
B. Code
C. Secret keys
D. Any of the above
163. This means “characteristic styles or symbols kept from the knowledge of others or disclosed confidentially to
only one or a few”
A. Cipher
B. Code
C. Secret keys
D. Any of the above
164. This is the requirement for the opening of drugstore
A. Filipino registered pharmacist
B. 7×5 drugstore space
C. Drugstore label
D. record books
165. An ordinary prescription shall be preserved for a period of ___________
A. 5 years
B. 1 year
C. 3 years
D. 2 years
166. The records for the sale of poisons must be kept for a period of __________
A. 5 years
B. 1 year
C. 3 years
D. 2 years
167. Who can issue prescriptions for the dispensing of violent poisons?
A. physician
B. dentist
C. veterinarian
D. AOTA
168. What is the color of the label for prescriptions used externally?
A. white
B. red
C. green
D. blue
169. The age requirement in order to practice pharmacy in the Philippines
A. 18
B. 25
C. 21
D. 20
170. This a proof that a person is a licensed pharmacist
A. transcript of record
B. diploma
C. certificate of registration
D. certificate of internship
171. Which of the following is a practice of Pharmacy?
I. teaching pharmacy subjects
II. analyzing drug
III. conducting research
IV. manager of a chain drugstore
A. 3 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 1, 2 & 3 only
D. AOTA
172. Basis for non renewal of LTO
A. failure to comply with PRC standards and requirements
B. persistent performance that assures safety, efficacy, and quality of drugs products
C. serious repeated, rampant violation of existing laws, rules, and regulations
D. poor housekeeping
173. This is the “act of introducing any dangerous drug into the body of any person, with or without his knowledge by
injection, ingestion or other means or of commiting any act of indispensable assistance to a person in administering
a dangerous drug to himself’.
A. administer
B. cultivate
C. deliver
D. both A & B
E. both B & C
174. This is the act of knowingly planting, growing, raising of any of plant which is the source of a prohibited drug.
A. administer
B. cultivate
C. culture
D. both A & B
E. both B & C
175.”Employee” of a prohibited drug den, dive, or resort include/s____________
A. caretaker
B. lookout
C. watchman
D. AOTA
E. A & B only
176. Indian hemp is also known as
I. bhang
II. churrus
III. hashish
IV. she-bang
A. I only
B. I & II
C. I, II & III
D. I-IV
177. It refers to a state of psychic or physical dependence, or both on any dangerous drug, arising in a person
following administration or use of that drug on a periodic or continuous basis
A. druggist
B. drug dependence
C. pusher
D. coddler
178. What penalty shall be imposed upon any person who imports prohibited drugs?
A. reclusion perpetua to death
B. fine ranging from 500,000 pesos to 10M pesos
C. fine ranging from 100,000 pesos to 1M pesos
D. both A & B
E. both B & C
179. What penalty shall be imposed upon a person who, unless authorized by law, shall sell, administer, deliver,
give away to another, distribute, dispatch in transit or transport any prohibited drug, or act as a broker in such
transactions,
D. both A & B
E. both B & C
180. What penalty shall be imposed upon any person or group of persons who shall maintain a den, dive or resort
where any prohibited drug is found.
D. both A & B
E. both B & C
181.”The Expanded Senior Citizens Act” is also known as_________
A. RA 9265
B. RA 9165
C. RA 9275
D. RA 9257
182. This is the S- license for physicians, dentist, or veterinarian, who prescribes dangerous drugs
A. S-1
B. S-2
C. S-3
D. S-4
183. This is a policy and program of the National government to ensure that the safe and effective drugs are made
available to all Filipinos at any time and place and at reasonable and affordable cost.
A. National Drug Policy
B. National Formulary
C. Dangerous Drugs Board Policy
D. NOTA
184. What are the pillars of the National Drug policy?
I. Quality Assurance of Drug
II. Quality Control
III. Rational Use of Drug
IV. National Self-sufficiency in Pharmaceuticals
A. 1 & 2
B. 1, 2 & 3
C. 1, 3 & 4
D. 1, 2 & 4
185. The former president of the Philippines who enunciated the National Drug Policy
A. Fidel V. Ramos
B. Corazon C. Aquino
C. Ferdinand E. Marcos
D. Ramon Magsaysay
186. This refers to the practice of using only the necessary and effective drugs in treating an illness
A. cost- effectiveness
B. quality assurance
C. rational use of drugs
D. rational procurement
187. This is a simpler term for the scientifically recognized active ingredient of a drug.
A. generic name
B. brand name
C. chemical name
D. street name
188. This list refers to those drugs, which cure the vast majority of illnesses and should be affordable and available
to all persons. It is prepared and periodically updated by the DOH on the basis of health conditions in the
Philippines.
A. Essential Drug list
B. Core list
C. Complimentary list
189. RA 6675 is more commonly known as__________
A. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act
B. Pharmacy Law
C. Food, Drug and Device and Cosmetic Act
D. Generics Act of 1988
190. This refers to the prohibited and regulated drugs
A. List A
B. List B
C. Rx
D. OTC
191. Betamethasone tablet and Methotrexate tablet belong to
A. List A
B. List B
C. Rx
D. OTC drugs
192. For drugs in list A containing the list of prohibited drugs and regulated drugs, which of the following is/are
required?
A. The S-2 license of a prescriber
B. The use of special DDB form
C. The observance of a recording system following pertinent DDB regulation
D. AOTA
E. both A & B
193. This is the act by a validly registered pharmacist of filling a prescription or doctor’s order on the patient’s chart.
A. dispensing
B. generic dispensing
C. any of the above
D. NOTA
194. This means dispensing the patient’s or buyer’s choice from among the generic equivalent.
A. dispensing
B. generic dispensing
C. AOTA
D. NOTA
195. This are pharmaceutical products of a or drug preparations that are to be dispensed only upon written order of
a validly registered physician, dentist or veterinarian for the management or treatment of a condition or disease.
A. prescription drugs
B. ethical drugs
C. OTC drugs
D. AOTA
E. both A & B
196. When the generic name is not written in a prescription, this is a case of
A. violative prescription
B. erroneous prescriptions
C. impossible prescriptions
D. NOTA
197. The generic name must be
A. enclosed by an outline circle
B. smaller font size than the trade name
C. printed in full and not abbreviated
D. written after the trade name
198. Generic prescribing is also known as
A. AO 61
B. AO 62
C. AO 63
D. AO 64
199. What is to be done with violative prescriptions?
A. shall be filled and kept
B. shall not be filled and kept for reporting to the nearest DOH office
C. shall be marked with red ink
D. shall be torn
200. Which of the following is an example of an erroneous prescription?
A. generic name is not legible and brand name is legible
B. brand name is not in parenthesis
C. only generic name is written but it is not legible
D. AOTA
201. When the generic name and brand name are not legible, this is a/an __________prescription.
A. violative
B. erroneous
C. impossible
D. NOTA
202. Sanctions for violation of the labeling requirement
A. confiscation of the LTO
B. cancellation of the certificate of registration of the pharmacist
C. recall of misbranded products
D. administrative fine of Php 6,000
203. This administrative order is about labeling requirements for pharmaceutical products
A. AO no. 67
B. AO no. 55
C. AO no. 65
D. AO no. 57
204. The generic name of the drug must be in accordance with
A. INN
B. USP/NF
C. BFAD
D. DOH
205. For products containing 3 or more ingredients, the official name for the combination shall be determined by
A. DOH
B. PRC
C. BFAD
D. DDB
206. In prescribing list B drugs, which needs strict precautions in their use, the prescriber must comply with a set of
guidelines. One guideline requires the prescriber to write the strength or dose level using units in the
________system
A. metric
B. apothecary
C. international unit
D. avoirdupois
207. According to AO NO.56,s. 1989, grounds for the revocation of LTO
A. lapses in record keeping of invoices and receipts of distribution records
B. violation of BFAD standards on quality, efficacy, purity and safety of drugs
C. sale or distribution of antibiotic products with batch certification by BFAD
D. absence of pharmacist on first inspection
208. This is all about the revised rules and regulation of registration of pharmaceutical products
A. AO no. 57
B. AO no. 55
C. AO no. 65
D. AO no. 67
209. RA 7432 is more commonly known as the__________
A. Expanded Senior Citizens Act
B. Generics Act of 1988
C. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act
D. Consumer’s Act
210. The term “senior citizen” shall mean any resident citizen of the Philippines at least _____years old.
A. 50
B. 60
C. 55
D. 65
211. The senior citizens shall be entitled the grant of ________ of discount from all establishments relative to the
utilization of transportation services, restaurants and purchase of medicine anywhere in the country.
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 10%
D. 15%
212. The government agency which issues national ID card and purchase slip booklet
A. DSWD
B. GSIS
C. OSCA
D. BFAD
213. The discount privileges of the senior citizen shall be
A. non-transferable
B. transferable but limited use only for the senior citizen
C. limited and exclusive for the benefit of the senior citizen
D. both A & C
214. Which of the following must be presented by a senior citizen when buying prescription drugs?
I. purchase slip booklet
II. prescription
III. birth certificate
IV. national identification card
A. 1 & 2
B. 2 & 3
C. 1, 2 & 4
D. 1, 2 & 4
215. __________shall mean any person whether related to the senior citizen or not who takes careof him/her as a
dependent.
A. head of the family
B. relative
C. benefactor
D. care-giver
216. Supplies or medicines to be given to senior citizens should not exceed
A. one day supply
B. one week supply
C. one month supply
D. one year supply
217. Violation of any provision of Senior Citizen’s Act is punishable by
A. a fine not exceeding 2,000 pesos
B. imprisonment not exceeding one month and a fine not exceeding 1,000 pesos
C. imprisonment not exceeding 2 months
D. both A & C
218. OSCA refers to
A. Office of the Senior Citizen’s Affiliate
B. Office of the Senior Citizen’s Affairs
C. Office of the Senior Citizen’s Academy
D. NOTA
219. It is written order and instruction of a validly registered physician, dentist, or veterinarian for the use of specific
drug product for a specific patient
A. prescription
B. medical certificate
C. medical chart
D. drug chart
220. It is the act of a validly registered pharmacist of filling a prescription or doctor’s order on the patient’s chart
A. dispenser
B. dispensing
C. selling
D. dispensary
221. When the drug product prescribed is not registered in BFAD, this is a case of
A. violative prescription
B. impossible prescription
C. erroneous prescription
D. coded prescription
222. If the brand name precedes the generic name, prescription is considered
A. violative
B. impossible
C. erroneous
D. coded
223. When a pharmacist receive a prescription wherin the generic does not correspond to the brand name, the
pharmacist
A. shall advice the prescriber
B. May dispense or fill the said prescription
C. instruct the customer the proper prescription
D. both A & B
224. Quantities less than 1 milligram shall be written in
A. gram
B. microliter
C. micrograms
D. kilogram
225. Quantities less than 1 gram shall be written in
A. milligram
B. microliter
C. micrograms
D. kilogram
226. The following are the violations of Generics act on the part of dispensers and outlets
A. failure to record and keep prescription filled
B. imposing a particular brand or product on the buyer
C. failure to report to the nearest DOH office prescription which complied to the said law
D. both A & B
227. Under the Generics Law, Which of these prescriptions shall be filled?
A. violative
B. impossible
C. erroneous
D. none of these
228. The term “drug outlet” pertain/s to
I. drugstore
II. drug trader
III. pharmacy
IV. botica
A. 1 & 2
B. 3 & 4
C. 1, 2 & 3
D. 1, 3 & 4
229. These are pharmaceutical products or drug preparations that can be dispensed even without a prescription for
the use of consumers for the prevention or symptomatic relief of minor or self-limiting ailments
A. OTC drugs
B. ethical drugs
C. non-prescription drugs
D. both A & C
230. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
A. Erroneous prescription should not be filled by the pharmacist, prescription kept and reported to the DOH
B. violative prescription should be filled, prescription kept and reported to the DOH
C. impossible prescription could be filled, prescription kept and reported to the DOH
D. violative prescription should not be filled, prescription kept by the pharmacist, and reported to the DOH
231. ____________has the power to reclassify, add to, or remove from the list of dangerous drugs.
A. PDEA
B. BFAD
C. DDB
D. NBI
232. Permanent consultant of the Dangerous Drugs Board
B. secretary of justice
C. President of the Integrated Bar of the Philippines
D. Director of the NBI
233. Rules and regulations to Implement Dispensing Requirements
A. AO. 63
B. AO. 62
C. AO. 67
D. AO. 64
234. Revised Rules and Regulations for the Licensing of Drug Establishment
A. AO. 55
B. AO. 56
C. AO. 42
D. AO. 62
235. Revised Rules and Regulations of Registration of Pharmaceutical Products
A. AO. 63
B. AO. 62
C. AO. 67
D. AO. 42
236. Drug registration of herbal and/or traditional drugs both local and imported
A. AO. 62
B. AO. 63
C. AO. 42
D. AO. 67
237. Re-application for LTO after revocation may be done within ________ year(s).
A. 3
B. 5
C. 2
D. 1
238. What physico-chemical assay is required for vitamin preparations?
A. pH meter
B. oven drying
C. TLC
D. Fluorophotometer
239. Prescription without specification of the generic name of the prescribed product is a violation of RA _________.
A. 5921
B. 6675
C. 6425
D. 3720
240. The ultimate objective of PNDP is/are to provide
A. low-cost high quality drugs
B. free consultation from the physician
C. high quality but expensive drug
D. both A & B
241. __________ means any substance which has a flash point at or below negative six and six-tenths degrees
centigrade as determined by the Tagliabue Open Club tester
A. extremely flammable
B. combustible
C. both A & B
D. neither A & B
242. ___________ contains the rules and regulations to implement dispensing requirements under the Generics Act
of 1988.
A. AO. No. 63
B. AO. No. 64
C. AO. No. 65
D. AO. No. 66
243. Which of the following is the Dangerous Drugs?
A. LSD
B. MDMA
C. both A & B
D. NOTA
244. This means any substance which on contact with living tissue will cause destruction of tissue by chemical
action.
A. corrosive
B. bleaching agent
C. disinfectant
D. irritant
245. This a substance which on immediate, prolonged or repeated contact with normal living tissue will induce local
inflammatory action.
A. corrosive
B. irritant
C. disinfectant
D. bleaching agent
246. RA. 7394 was signed into a law on
A. April 13, 1992
B. Feb. 7, 1992
C. Sept. 13, 1992
D. April 7, 1992
A. Sept. 23, 1998
B. Sept. 13, 1998
C. Sept. 4, 1998
D. Sept. 30, 1998
A. Feb.7, 1992
B. April 7, 1992
C. Feb. 13, 1998
D. April 13, 1992
249. Which of the following does not required a prescription?
A. finasteride
B. ibuprofen 200mg
C. zafirlukast
D. esomeprazole
250. EO. No.______ institutionalizes the Continuing Professional Education ( CPE ) Programs of the various
Professional regulatory Boards ( PRBs ) under the supervision of the Philippine Regulatory Commission.
A. 851
B. 265
C. 266
D. 267
251. Inspection Section and Licensing Section are under what organizational unit of BFAD?
A. Regulation Division I
B. Regulation Division II
C. Product Services Division
D. Laboratory Services Division
252. Cash collection and Disbursement Section, and Personnel Section are under what organizational unit of
BFAD?
A. Product Services Division
B. Laboratory Services Division
C. Legal, Information and Compliance Division
D. Administrative Division
253. This BFAD organizational unit plans, directs, organizes, and controls the activities of the Bureau with the
assistance of the Divisions and Units under it.
A. Office of the Director
B. Regulation Division I
C. Regulation Division II
D. Product Services Division
254. The Laboratory Services Division Of BFAD includes
A. food
B. toxicology
C. cosmetic
D. household hazardous substance
255. The Division in BFAD that certifies batches of antibiotics
A. Product Services
B. Laboratory services
C. Legal, Information, and Compliance
D. Administrative
256. This is the Division of the BFAD that provides assistance to person/establishment in complying with BFAD legal
requirements.
A. Laboratory Services
B. Legal, Information, and Compliance
C. Product Services
D. Regulation Division I
257. The Laboratory Division of BFAD has the duty of
A. testing, analyzing, and doing trials on submitted products
B. inspection of drug outlets
C. taking samples from different drug establishment
D. assist in the of factual evidences
258. This order prescribes the conditions and requirements for good manufacturing practice applied to premises,
equipment, personnel, product and warehouse.
A. AO. No. 202
B. AO. No. 220
C. AO. No. 221
D. AO. No. 223
259. CGMP means
A. current general manufacturing process
B. current good manufacturing procedure
C. current good manufacturing practice
D. current good manufacture practice
260. CGMP assures drug meets the requirements of the act as to
A. safety
B. identity
C. strength
D. purity
E. AOTA
261. Equipment used for manufacturing, processing, packing, labeling, testing and control of drugs must be
A. of suitable size
B. absorptive
C. non-reactive
D. both A & C
262. Test for components
A. Microbiological test
B. Test for heavy metals
C. Microscopic examination
D. all of the above
263. The amount of reserve sample of all active ingredients to be kept for all required test in the laboratory to be
performed are
A. 5×
B. 2x
C. 3x
D. 4x
264. Approved records of components which must be maintained for future reference
A. name of customer
B. lot component
C. date and amount received
D. batch uniformity
265. Production record must be kept for
A. 2 years after expiration of the product
B. 2 years after batch distribution is completed
C. 1 year after batch distribution is complied
D. 2 years before expiration date
266. Each critical step in production process must be performed and checked by _________ competent and
responsible individual
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 2
267. Laboratory controls are required for
A. finished products
B. in process drug
C. components
D. all of the above
268. This mean any ingredient intended for use in the manufacturing of drugs, including those that may not appear
in the finished product.
A. component
B. raw material
C. inactive ingredient
D. both A & B
E. both A & C
269. This means a batch or any portion of a batch of a drug produced by continuous process, an amount of drug
produced in a unit time or quantity in a manner that assures its uniformity and either case which is identified by a
distinctive lot number and has uniform character and quality within specified limits.
A. lot
B. lot number
C. control number
270. This means any distinctive combination of letters or numbers, or both by which the complete history of the
manufacture, control, packaging, and distribution of a batch or lot of a drug is determined.
A. lot
B. lot number
C. control number
D. A & B
E. B & C
271. According to AO. No. 42, the test for alcohol content in quality control requirements should not more than ___
A. 15%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 30%
272. This is the required test for suppositories and pessaries
A. weight variation
B. dissolution
C. melting point
D. boiling point
273. Ointments, creams, and other semi-solid preparations are tested for
A. impalpability
B. homogeneity
C. melting point
D. all of the above
274. Validity of the initial registration for herbal and traditional drugs
A. 5 years
B. 2 years
C. 1 years
D. 3 years
275. Herbal and Traditional drugs must be registered with the
A. DOH
B. DTI
C. BFAD
D. DDB
276. This means any drugs Establishment that procures raw materials, active ingredients and/or finished products
from local establishments for local distribution on wholesale basis.
A. importer
B. exporter
C. wholesaler
D. drug trader
277. This means any organization or company involved in the manufacture, importation, repacking, and/or
distribution of drugs or medicines.
A. drug establishment
B. drug outlet
C. drug manufacturer
D. drug trader
278. This a drug which has been used for at least 5 years and involving at least 5,000 patients.
A. investigational drugs
B. tried and tested drugs
C. established drugs
279. This a drug whose safety and efficacy has been demonstrated through long years of general use and can be
found in current official USP-NF, and other internationally recognized pharmacopeias.
A. investigational drugs
B. new drug
C. established drugs
280. This refers to a new chemical or structural modification of tried and tested or established drug proposed to be
used for a specific therapeutic indication.
A. investigational drug
B. new drug
C. both A & B
D. neither A or nor B
281. This refers to a new chemical or structural modification of tried and tested or established drug proposed to be
used for a specific therapeutic indication, which has undergone adequate clinical pharmacology Phase I, II, III
studies but which needs further Phase IV Clinical Pharmacology Studies before it can be given regular registration
A. investigational drug
B. new drug
C. both A & B
D. neither A nor B
282. This is also refer to as the Price Act
A. RA. 7581
B. RA. 8203
C. RA. 7432
D. RA. 6425
283. The requirements for labeling materials is under what Administrative Order?
A. AO. No. 51
B. AO. No. 52
C. AO. No. 54
D. AO. No. 55
284. __________ refers to the instructions and special care required in the use of product to avoid undesired effects
and to ensure the safe and effective use of the drug.
A. Precautions
B. Contraindications
C. Warning
285. This refers to statements regarding the occurrence of potential hazards and side effects associated with the
use of the product and limitation of its use.
A. Precautions
C. Warning
286. This refers to a statement regarding the conditions wherein the use of the product may cause harm to the
patient.
A. Precautions
C. Warning
287. __________ refers to the classification of the product based on its therapeutic action.
A. dosage form
B. mode of action
C. formulation
D. pharmacologic category
288. Pursuant to AO. No. 55, s. 1988, the alcohol content in the formulation shall be expressed in _______
A. mg%
B. %
C. ml
D. v/v
289. The net content shall indicate the total amount/quantity/number of dosage form in a given container of the
product expressed in _______
A. Arabic numeral
B. avoirdupois
C. metric system
D. roman numeral
290. What type of font was specified for printing the Generic name if the name of the product is presented using a
special typeface exclusively designed for it?
A. Arial
B. Helvetica medium
C. universe medium
D. both A & B
E. both B & C
291. Expiry date expressed in terms of
A. month and day
B. month and year
C. day and year
D. year, day and month
292. If the expiry date of the product is indicated as “January 2005”, the expiry date of the product is assumed to be
A. January 1, 2005
B. January 15, 2005
C. January 20, 2005
D. January 31, 2005
293. __________ indicates the number given by BFAD for the product code.
A. manufacture date
B. expiry date
C. registration number
D. lot number
294. Drugs with multiple components must be arranged in order of _________
A. decreasing pharmacologic activity
B. increasing pharmacologic activity
C. alphabetically
D. according to the amount of use
295. _________ contains the active ingredient and quantity of drug per dosage unit.
A. dosage form
B. mode of administration
C. formulation
D, pharmacologic category
296. Additional information for injections
A. recommended routes of administration
B. ”use only one” or “discard the remaining portion” if an anti-microbial agent is not included in the product
C. both A & B
D. Neither A nor B
297. Which of the following is exempted in the labeling requirement?
A. product for external use
B. product placed in small container
C. drugs for investigational purposes
D. large volume injections
298. The word “single use” must be included in the label for
A. biological products
B. individually wrapped products
C. large volume injections
D. small containers
299. In accordance to Administrative order No. 56, s. 1989, the initial License to Operate has a ______ years.
A. 5
B. 2
C. 1
D. 3
300. Under Administrative Order No. 56, s. 1989, the renewal of the License to Operate has a ______years
A. 5
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
PHYSICAL PHARMACY
1. A data set in which there is a considerable closeness among the values

A. Accurate
B. Approximate
C. Estimate
D. Precise
2. A type of Van der Waals forces of attraction resulting from the tendency of molecules to align themselves
with oppositely charged ends of their neighbour
A. Debye
B. London
C. Keesom
D. H-bond
3. A type of Van der Waals forces of attraction which involves permanent dipoles inducing polarity in non-polar
molecules
A. Debye
B. London
C. Keesom
D. H-bond
4. A type of Van der Waals forces of attraction which involves the dispersion of charges to induce polarity
between non-polar molecules
A. Debye
B. London
C. Keesom
D. H-bond
5. The intermolecular forces of attraction responsible for the solubility of non-polar molecules such as Iodine in
solution by the addition of salts
A. Debye
B. Ion-dipole interaction
C. Ion-induced dipole interaction
D. H-bonds
6. This is responsible for the solubility of ionic crystalline substance in polar solvents like water
A. Debye
B. Ion-dipole interaction
C. Ion-induced dipole interaction
D. H-bonds
7. H-bond is the interaction between a molecule containing a hydrogen atom and a strongly electronegative
atom such as fluorine, oxygen and nitrogen. This is/are true statements regarding H-bonds
I. Stronger than ionic bonds
II. Responsible for the formation of water molecules
III. Can be both occurring as an intramoleecular and intermolecular force of attraction
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. III only
E. I, II and III
8. This law relates the volume and pressure of given mass of gas at constant temperature
A. Boyles
B. Charles
C. Gay-Lussac
D. Ideal Gas Law
9. The equation B α T or V=kT, was explained by which gas law?
I. Boyle
II. Charles
III. Gay-Lussac
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. III only
E. I, II and III
10. Gas X is an ideal gas occupying a volume of 15ml at a temperature of 55°F and a pressure of 700mmHg.
What is the volume of a gas at 0° and 800mmHg?
A. 12ml
B. 8ml
C. 20ml
D. 25ml
11. At constant pressure a gas occupies volume of 50ml at a temperature of 40°C. What will be the volume
occupied by the gas at 90°C
A. 43ml
B. 58ml
C. 112.5ml
D. 22ml
12. A gas law which states that gases of equal volumes at the same temperature and pressure contain the
same number of molecules
A. Boyles
B. Charles
C. Gay-Lussac
D. Avogadro
13. This is/are true values of the molar gas constants
I. 0.08205 L-atm / mole-degree
II. 8.314 cal / mole-degree
III. 1.987 joules / mole-degree
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. III only
14. Assuming that a 1.5g gas occupying a volume of 500ml at a pressure of 175 atm and a temperature of 75°C
is behaving like an ideal gas. What is the molecular weight of the gas?
A. 0.05g
B. 49g
C. 5g
D. 30g
15. A method used to determine the molecular weight of easily vaporized liquids
I. Regnault
II. Victor-Meyer
III. Gieger-Muller
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. III only
16. A given quantity of gas at a pressure of 750mmHg and a temperature of -25°C occupies 25L. What is its
volume at STP?
A. 269L
B. 150L
C. 27.1L
D. 100L
17. How many moles of gas are present in a 25L chamber containing a pressure of 750mmHg at -25°C
A. 1.21
B. 9.21
C. 2.51
D. 0.42
18. The following is/are true statements regarding the kinetic molecular theory
I. Volume of gas is negligible in relation to the volume of the space in which the gas is confined
II. Particles exhibit continuous random motion owing to their kinetic energy
III. Speed is lost every time particles go into collision with each other or with the walls of the vessels
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. III only
19. This equation is used for real gases, where it accounts for the interactions of gas molecules hence affecting
the pressure and volume of an ideal gas
A. Ideal Gas Equation
B. Van der Waals Equation
C. Noyes-Whitney Equation
D. Freundlich Equation
20. This states that the rate of diffusion of the gas and the speed of the gas molecules are inversely proportional
to the square root of their density
A. Ideal Gas Law
B. Raoult’s Law
C. Graham’s Law
D. Dalton’s Law
21. This law gives the relationship between the total pressure in a mixture of gases and the partial pressure of
the individual gases
A. Ideal Gas Law
B. Raoult’s Law
C. Graham’s Law
D. Dalton’s Law
22. This is the point above which it is impossible to liquefy a gas irrespective of the pressure applied
A. Critical temperature
B. Critical pressure
C. Eutectic point
D. Triple point
23. This is the highest vapour pressure that the liquid can have which is also the force er unit are required to
liquefy a gas at critical temperature
A. Critical temperature
B. Critical pressure
C. Eutectic point
D. Triple point
24. This is/are true statements regarding the comparison of the critical temperature and critical pressure of
H2Oand helium gas
I. The critical temperature and critical pressure of water is much higher than that of helium
II. The critical temperature and critical pressure of helium is much higher than that of water
III. Water and Helium have similar critical temperature and critical pressure
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. III only
25. This is used as local anaesthetic agent for minor surgical operations administered as an aerosol. This
substance cools sufficiently on expansion when sprayed on the skin and freezes the tissue to provide
anaesthesia
A. Ethylene dioxide
B. Ethyl chloride
C. Nitrous oxide
D. Lidocaine
26. This equation shows the relationship between the vapour pressure and the absolute temperature of a liquid
A. Ideal Gas Equation
B. Van der Waals Equation
C. Noyes-Whitney Equation
D. Clausius-Clapeyron Equation
27. This is the heat absorbed by 1 mole of liquid when it passes into the vapour state
A. Molar Heat of Fusion
B. Molar Heat of Vaporization
C. Boiling point
D. Entropy
28. Determine the vapour pressure of water at 150°C. The vapour pressure of water at 110°C is 1.5atm and
molar heat of vaporization of 9500cal/mole
A. 2.73atm
B. 4.88atm
C. 7.5atm
D. 5.9atm
29. The vapour pressure of acetone at 100°C is 1.5atm and a molar heat of vaporization of 9750cal/mole.
Determine the temperature at which its pressure will drop at sea level
A. 362°C
B. 80°C
C. 89°C
D. 120°C
30. The temperature at which the vapour pressure of the liquid equals the external or atmospheric
A. Melting point
B. Boiling point
C. Freezing point
D. Sublimation
31. Which of the following is/are true statement(s) about boiling point
I. At higher elevations the atmospheric pressure decreases, hence the boiling point increases
II. All the heat absorbed is used to change the liquid to vapour and the temperature does not
rise until the liquid is completely vaporized
III. Boiling point of hydrocarbons, simple alcohols and carboxylic acids increase with an increase
in molecular weight
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
32. This is the heat lost when the vapours condense to liquids
A. Heat of Condensation
B. Heat of Fusion
C. Heat of Vaporization
D. Heat of Fission
33. Which of the following is/are statement(s) that describes crystalline solids
I. They are made of structural units arranged in a loose geometric patterns or lattices
II. Crystalline solids are compressible unlike gases and liquids
III. Show definite and sharp melting points
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
34. An example of a tetragonal crystal system is
A. Urea
B. Iodoform
C. Iodine
D. Sodium Chloride
35. Boric acid is an example of a __________ crystal system
A. Cubic
B. Hexagonal
C. Monoclinic
D. Triclinic
36. This is the crystal lattice formation of NaCl
A. Cubic
B. Hexagonal
C. Monoclinic
D. Triclinic
37. Sucrose possess this type of crystal formation
A. Cubic
B. Hexagonal
C. Monoclinic
D. Triclinic
38. The units that constitute the crystal structure can be atoms, molecules or ions. Which of the following
substance(s) is/are crystal formation made of atoms
I. Diamonds and Graphite
II. NaCl
III. Solid CO2 and Naphthalene
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
39. This is/are statement(s0 which characterized different crystal formation
I. Atomic and ionic crystals are generally soft and have low melting points
II. Molecular crystals are hard, brittle and have high melting points
III. Metallic crystals may be soft or hard
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
40. The hardness and strength of metals are dependent on
A. Lattice defects
B. Electron gas
C. Attractive forces
D. Proton content
41. This is the temperature at which the liquid state is at equilibrium with the solid state of a pure crystalline
compound
I. Freezing point
II. Melting point
III. Boiling point
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
42. This is the heat lost when the liquid freezes into solid
B. Heat of Fusion
D. Heat of Combustion
43. This is/are true statement(s) about melting point
I. This is higher for alkanes with an even number of carbon atoms than those with odd number of carbons
II. This is generally high for crystals held together by Van der Waals forces than crystals held together by
covalent bonds
III. This is the heat required to increase the intermolecular and intramolecular distances in crystals
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
44. This is the lowest possible temperature in melting cacao butter so as not to destroy the crystal nuclei of the
stable beta form
A. 37°C
B. 35°C
C. 33°C
D. 30°C
45. This is/are true statement(s) about the effect of polymorphism in a drug
I. One polymorph is chemically different from another polymorph
II. One polymorph may be biologically active than the other polymorph
III. Polymorphism may affect the dissolution rate of drugs
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
46. These are compounds which are also known as pseudopolymorphs
A. Solvates
B. Amorphous solid
C. Liquid crystals
D. Isomers
47. This is the reversible change from one polymorphic form to another
A. Monotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Enantiotropic
48. If the direction of change from one polymorphic form to another involves one direction, this is said to be a
A. Monotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Enantiotropic
49. Crystals showing different characteristics in various directions along the crystal are
A. Monotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Enantiotropic
50. Crystalline substances that exhibit similar properties and characteristics in all directions are
A. Monotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Enantiotropic
51. Which of the following statement(s) describe/s an amorphous solid
I. These are supercooled liquids
II. They don’t have a definite melting point
III. Have faster rate of dissolution than crystalline solids
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
52. Which of the following describe(s) the fourth state of matter
I. Properties of which are intermediate between the liquid and solid states
II. Will flow if sufficient pressure is applied
III. They are also known as the mesophase
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
53. This is are types of liquid crystals which are also known as the soap-like or grease-like crystals
A. Smectic
B. Nematic
C. Cholesteric
D. Thermotropic
54. This is also known as the thread-like crystals
A. Smectic
B. Nematic
C. Cholesteric
D. Thermotropic
55. This is the third type of liquid crystals, which may be considered as a special case of the nematic type
A. Smectic
B. Nematic
C. Cholesteric
D. Thermotropic
56. This is/are statements which describe(s) the smectic crystals
I. The molecules of this crystals are mobile in two directions and can rotate in one axis
II. Considered as the mesophase of the most pharmaceutical significance
III. This phase easily forms binary systems or simple mixtures with other additives
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
57. This is/are characteristics of molecules that forms the mesophase
I. Are inorganic in nature
II. Possess strong dipoles and easily polarizable groups
III. Are elongated, rectilinear in shape and rigid
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
58. These are liquid crystsals obtained from the action of certain solvents on solids
A. Smectic
B. Nematic
C. Lyotropic
D. Thermotropic
59. These are forms of liquid crystals obtained from the application of sufficient heat on solids sto form the
mesophase
A. Smectic
B. Nematic
C. Lyotropic
D. Thermotropic
60. This was the first recorded type of liquid crystals that was derived through the application of heat
A. Cholesteryl benzoate
B. Calcium sterate
C. Sodium benzoate
D. Potassium acetate
61. This is the property of crystals which the mesophase also possess characterized as the ability to let light
pass through and divide into two components with different velocities and refractive index
A. Refraction
B. Polymorphism
C. Birefringence
D. Isomerism
62. This is used for relating the effect of the least number of independent variables (e.g. temperature, pressure
and concentration) upon the various phases that can exist in an equilibrium system containing a given of
components
A. Le Chatelier’s Principle
B. Gibb’s Phase Rule
C. Triangular Planar
D. Phase Diagram
63. This represents the number of homogenous, physically distinct portion of a system that is separated from
other portions of the system by bounding surfaces
A. Number of phases
B. Number of components
C. Degrees of freedom
D. Number of intermediates
64. This is the least number of intensive variables that must be fixed to describe the system completely
A. Number of phases
65. This is the smallest number of constituents by which the composition of each phase in the system at
equilibrium can be expressed in the form of a chemical formula or equation
A. Number of phases
66. This is/are true generalization(s) in the Gibbs’ phase rule for a single-component system
I. The number of the degrees of freedom increases with the increase in the number of components
II. The number of the degrees of freedom decreases with the increase in the number of phases
III. It is necessary to fix mor variable as the system becomes more complex
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
67. Determine the degrees of freedom of a system containing either ice, water or water vapour
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
68. What is the degree of freedom for a system containing a water in equilibrium with its vapour
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
69. Assuming that we have system wherein ice-water-water vapour are in equilibrium. What will be the degrees
of freedom of the system
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
70. Determine the degrees of freedom for a system containing liquid water, liquid ethanol in equilibrium with
their vapours
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
For nos. 71 – 74, use the diagram below to answer the question
W Z
Va Liquid
po
ur
Pr
es Solid
sur X
Gas
e
Y
Temperature
71. Which of the following represents the vapour pressure curve

A. Curve WX
B. Curve UX
C. Curve ZX
72. Which of the following is the deposition curve
A. Curve WX
B. Curve YX
C. Curve ZX
73. Which of the following represents the condensation curve
A. Curve WX
B. Curve YX
C. Curve ZX
74. This is the point at which variables are unnecessary to define the system
A. W
B. X
C. Y
D. Z
75. These are systems where in only the solid and liquid states are considered and the vapour state is ignored
A. Condensed System
B. Solid-Liquid Equilibrium System
C. Bivariant System
D. Conservative System
76. In the phase diagram of a two-component system containing two liquid phases, the maximum temperature
at which the two-phase region exist is called the
I. Upper Consolute Temperature
II. Critical Solution Temperature
III. Upper Miscibility Temperature
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
For nos. 77 – 79 use the following diagram
I
Data:
A = 18%
B = 28%
B C C = 53%
Te A D
mp D = 68%
era
II
tur
e
(°C
)
0 20 40 60 80 100
77. Determine the amount of component X (water) and component Y(Phenol) needed in preparing 50g of a
system that would contain 28% by weight phenol and 72% by weight water
A. 4 g water and 1 g phenol
B. 28 g phenol and 72 g water
C. 40 g water and 10 g phenol
D. 72 g phenol and 28 g water
78. What will be the weight of phenol and water to be used in a 75g system containing 53% by weight of phenol
and 47% by weight of water
B. 22.5 g water and 52.5 g phenol
C. 53 g phenol and 47 g water
79. In preparing a 100g system containing equal portions of water and phenol, how much will be the required
amount of each component?
B. 50 g water and 50 g phenol
C. 64 g phenol and 36 g water
For nos. 80 – 87 use the following diagram
Te
m I R
p Data:
er R = 75%
at A = 60%
ur B = 100%
e C = 50%
II III
(° 35
D = 100%
A B E = 40%
C)
F = 100%
27
C D
E
20 F
G
IV
15 H
20 40 60 80 100
Thymol in Salol (% by weight)
80. In the diagram which region represents the region where both components are present as pure solid phases
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
81. Which region is composed of solid salol and its conjugate liquid phase
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
82. This is the region which represents the solid thymol and its conjugate liquid phase
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
83. This is the region in which both thymol and salol will be present as a single liquid phase
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
84. What will be the weight of thymol and salol at 35°C to be sued in a 75g system containing 75% by weight of
phenol and 25% by weight of salol?
A. 50 g salol and 25 g thymol
B. 25 g salol and 50 g thymol
C. 47 g salol and 28 g thymol
D. 28 g salol and 47 g thymol
85. What will be the weight of thymol and salol at 27°C to be used in a 75g system containing 75% by weight of
86. What will be the weight of thymol and salol at 20°C to be used in a 75g system containing 75% by weight of
A. 50.5 g salol and 24.5 g thymol
B. 24.5 g salol and 50.5 g thymol
C. 31.25 g salol and 43.75 g thymol
D. 43.75 g salol and 31.25 g thymol
87. What will be the weights of thymol and salol required to prepare a 75g system at eutectic point
88. The heat involved in the complete oxidation of 1 mole of a compound at 1 atm pressure is known as
B. Heat of Fusion
D. Heat of Combustion
89. This is a condition where in heat is neither lost nor gained during a reaction
A. Adiabetic
B. Isothermal
C. Isobaric
D. Reversible
90. A reaction where in temperature is held constant
A. Adiabetic
B. Isothermal
C. Isobaric
D. Reversible
91. Which law of thermodynamics states that the total energy of a system and its immediate surroundings
remain constant during any operation
A. 1st Law
B. 2nd Law
C. 3rd Law
92. Which law of thermodynamics states that the entropy of a pure crystalline substance is zero at absolute zero
because the crystal arrangement mush show the greatest orderliness at this temperature
A. 1st Law
B. 2nd Law
C. 3rd Law
93. This law of thermodynamics is concerned about the entropy and spontaneity of a system
A. 1st Law
B. 2nd Law
C. 3rd Law
94. This is the heat required to raise the temperature of 1 mole of a substance by 1 degree
A. Enthalpy
B. Molar Heat of Fission
C. Molar Heat Capacity
D. Molar Heat of Combustion
95. The heat required to increase the internal energy and to perform work of expansion
A. Enthalpy
B. Molar Heat of Fision
C. Molar Heat Capacity
D. Molar Heat of Combustion
96. These are any molecules which are associated with the absorption of ultraviolet or visible light
A. Phosphorescence
B. Chromophore
C. Photoluminescence
D. Fluorescence
97. A molecule that initially absorbs ultraviolet light to reach an excited state and then emits ultraviolet or visible
light in returning to ground state is generally manifesting the process known as
A. Phosphorescence
B. Chromophore
C. Photoluminescence
D. Fluorescence
98. This is defined as a mixture of two or more components that form a homogenous molecular dispersion
A. System
B. True Solution
C. Mixture
D. Colloidal Dispersion
99. This is defined as a bounded space or a definite quantity of substance that is under observation and
experimentation
A. System
B. True Solution
C. Phase
100. This is a distinct homogenous part of a system separated by definite boundaries from other parts of the
system
A. System
B. True Solution
C. Phase
101. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about colloidal dispersions
I. The dispersed particle are having size intermediate to that of a true solution and coarse dispersion
II. May be considered as a two-phase system in certain conditions
III. May be considered as a one-phase system in certain conditions
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
102. This are properties which are dependent on the total contribution of each component in a system
A. Additive
B. Colligative
C. Constitutive
D. Extensive
103. This are properties which are dependent on the arrangement and to a lesser extent on the number and kind
of atoms within a molecule
A. Additive
B. Colligative
C. Constitutive
D. Extensive
104. This is a property of a system which depends on the quantity of the matter present in a system
A. Additive
B. Intensive
C. Constitutive
D. Extensive
105. This is/are example(s) of intensive properties
I. Temperature
II. Volume
III. Density
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II and III
106. Which of the following is/are example of colligative properties of substances
I. Osmotic Pressure Elevation
II. Vapor Pressure Lowering
III. Freezing Point Elevation
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I, II and III
107. Which of the following is/are example(s) of an additive property of a system
I. Refractive Index
II. Solubility
III. Mass of a solution
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
108. Which of the following is an example of an extensive property of a system
A. Density
B. Pressure
C. Temperature
D. Volume
109. This concentration expression gives the measure of the relative proportion of moles of each constituent in a
solution
A. Molarity
B. Molality
C. Normality
D. Mole Fraction
For nos. 110 – 112
Given a 0.2 M solution of NaCl (MW = 58.5) in water (MW = 18) with a specific gravity of 1.45
110. How many grams of NaCl are present in 750ml solution

A. 3.7 g
B. 8.8 g
C. 10.5 g
D. 2.5 g
111. What is the molality of the solution
A. 0.2 m
B. 1.5 m
C. 0.14 m
D. 0.5 m
112. Determine the mole fraction of NaCl in solution
A. 4.6 x 10-3
B. 5.3 x 10-3
C. 3.7 x 10-3
D. 2.5 x 10-3
113. The heat absorbed when a solid melts
A. Heat of Fusion
B. Heat of Vaporization
C. Condensation
D. Sublimation
114. The human plasma contains 7.5 mEq/liter of calcium ions. How many milligrams of calcium chloride (MW =
147) are required to prepare a 750 ml solution having the same calcium plasma concentration?
A. 826.8 mg
B. 413.4 mg
C. 206.7 mg
D. 103.3 mg
115. Calculate the number of milliequivalents/liter of Al2O3 (MW = 324) present in a 2.5% (w/v) solution of Al2O3
A. 231 meq
B. 463 meq
C. 526 meq
D. 173 meq
116. Determine the vapor pressure of pure chloroform in a chloroform-water system, where water has a mole
fraction of 0.25 and the vapor pressure of pure water at 75°C is 450 mmHg. The total vapor pressure of the
mixture is 255 mmHg
A. 190 mmHg
B. 142.5 mmHg
C. 210 mmHg
D. 135 mmHg
For nos. 117 – 119 refer to the problem below
The vapor pressure of pure ethanol (MW = 72.5) at 25°C is 17.5 pounds/square inch (psi). Acetone (MW = 65.5) on
the other hand has a vapor pressure of 20.25 psi. In preparing a kilo of a 1:1 solution of Ethanol and Acetone
117. What is the partial pressure of ethanol in the mixture
A. 10.63 psi
B. 8.31 psi
C. 18.94 psi
D. 13.5 psi
118. What is the partial pressure of acetone in the mixture
A. 10.63 psi
B. 8.31 psi
C. 18.94 psi
D. 13.5 psi
119. What is the total vapor pressure of the mixture
A. 10.63 psi
B. 8.31 psi
C. 18.94 psi
D. 13.5 psi
120. Using Van’t Hoff equation for osmotic pressure. What is the osmotic pressure of a solution prepared by
dissolving 2.5g of urea (MW = 155) in 500 ml of water at 30°C
A. 8 atm
B. 0.8 atm
C. 0.0008 atm
D. 0.08 atm
121. This is/are true statement(s) about a cathode
I. This is the positively charged electrode
II. The electrode where reduction occurs
III. The electrode here positively charged ions are attracted to
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
122. This is/are true statement(s) about an anode
I. This is the positively charged electrode
II. The electrode where oxidation occurs
III. The electrode where positively charged ions are attracted to
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
123. These are solvents which are capable of accepting protons from the solute
A. Protophilic
B. Protogenic
C. Amphiprotic
D. Aprotic
124. There are solvents which are capable of acting both as proton acceptor and proton donor
A. Protophilic
B. Protogenic
C. Amphiprotic
D. Aprotic
125. These are solvents that neither accepts nor donate a proton
A. Protophilic
B. Protogenic
C. Amphiprotic
D. Aprotic
126. A solvent characterized to be proton-donating compound
A. Protophilic
B. Protogenic
C. Amphiprotic
D. Aprotic
For nos. 127 – 130
A buffer solution was prepared by mixing 0.25M CHOONa and 0.125 HCOOH (pKa=3.75)
127. Determine the pH of the buffer solution

A. 3.95
B. 4.25
C. 4.05
D. 3.99
128. If the same composition is to be used in preparing a buffer solution with a pH of 4. What will be the molar
ration of the salt to acid?
A. 2.5:1
B. 1:2.5
C. 5.6:1
D. 1:5.6
129. What is the percentage of the ionized species in the buffer system
A. 84.8%
B. 15.15%
C. 45.2%
D. 3.99%
130. What is the percentage of the unionized species in the buffer system
A. 84.8%
B. 15.1%
C. 45.2%
D. 3.99%
131. pH is defined as
I. Negative log of hydrogen ion concentration
II. Sum of the hydrogen ion concentration and the hydroxyl ion concentration
III. Log of the hydrogen ion concentration
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
132. Sodium bicarbonate has a molecular weight of 84. If the 210mg is dissolved in 1L, what would be the
normality of the solution?
A. 0.25 N
B. 0.050 N
C. 2.5 N
D. 0.50 N
133. The water-ion theory of acids and bases is attributed to
A. Lewis
B. Pearson
C. Bronsted-Lowry
D. Arrhenius
134. What is the pH of a solution containing 0.5 mole of ephedrine and 0.02 mole of ephedrine HCl per liter of
solution? The Kb of ephedrine is given as 3.16 x 10-6
A. 8.35
B. 9.90
C. 10.89
D. 11.20
135. This is also known as the magnitude of the resistance of a buffer to resist pH changes
I. Buffer capacity
II. Buffer efficiency
III. Buffer index
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
For nos. 136 – 138
The Kb of pilocarpine is found to be 6.34 x 10-7 at 25°C
136. Determine the mole ration (salt/base) present at pH of 8.5

A. 5:1
B. 1:5
C. 8:1
D. 1:8
137. Determine the mole percent of the base
A. 83.3%
B. 16.7%
C. 20%
D. 39.5%
138. Determine the mole percent of the salt
A. 83.3%
B. 16.7%
C. 20%
D. 39.5%
139. A buffer was prepared containing 5 x 10-2 M sodium borate with 5 x 10-7 M boric acid. Determine the Ka of
the acid if the solution have a pH of 1.0
A. 1 x 106
B. 1 x 10-6
C. 1 x 10-9
D. 1 x 10-10
140. This is/are correct statement(s) about the effects of buffer capacity and pH in pharmaceutical products
I. They influence tissue irritation
II. These two also affects the therapeutic response of a drug
III. These will also impart solubility to the drug product
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
141. This is/are methods of isotonicity adjusting involving the addition of tonicity adjusting agent such as NaCl to
prepare the isotonic solution
I. NaCL equivalent method
II. Cryoscopic or freezing point depression method
III. Sprowls method
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
142. Calculate the osmolarity of a solution (mOsm/L) which contains 6 grams of sodium chloride in a liter (MW:
Na = 23 ; Cl = 35.5)
A. 51.3
B. 205
C. 102.5
D. 307
143. A solution contains 1% (w/v) Al2(SO4)3 ● 14 H2O (MW = 600). Assuming complete ionization and assuming
the MW to be correct, what will be the calculated osmolarity of the solution?
A. 20.8 mOsm/L
B. 41.6 mOsm/L
C. 83.3 mOsm/L
D. 166.6 mOsm/L
E. None of the above
144. A compound A*B* is 25% ionized has a molecular weight of 275. Wat is the osmolarity of a 0.3% solution?
A. 13.5 mOsm/L
B. 11.6 mOsm/L
C. 16.7 mOsm/L
D. 10.5 mOsm/L
145. Mannitol injection is used as a diuretic. The molecular weight of mannitol is 182. What is the osmolarity of a
0.2% solution? Mannitol is an ideal non-electrolyte
A. 18 mOsm/L
B. 20 mOsm/L
C. 11 mOsm/L
D. 4 mOsm/L
146. The term which expresses osmotic pressure effect of a solution as osmols per kg of solvent is
A. Osmolarity
B. Osmolality
C. Osmoticity
D. Isotonicity
E. Molarity
147. The compound shown below is calcium biphosphate and has a MW of 234. What is its gram equivalent
weight? Ca(H2PO4)2
A. 29.3
B. 58.5
C. 117
D. None of the above
148. An IV solution contains 300mg of potassium chloride (MW: K = 39; Cl = 35.5) in a liter of a 5 percent
dextrose solution (MW of dextrose is 200). What will be the osmolarity of the solution?
A. 258 mOsm/L
B. 8 mOsm/L
C. 28 mOsm/L
D. 254 mOsm/L
149. Al2(SO4)3 has a MW of 342. What is its gram equivalent weight?
A. 35 g/GEW
B. 171 g/GEW
C. 342 g/GEW
D. 57 g/GEW
Prepare the following:
Rx
Apomorphine HCl 2.5%
Ephedrine SO4 4.0%
NaCl q.s
Water q.s
Signa: Make a 200ml isotonic solution
1% solution of Fp (°C)
Apomorphine HCl 0.03
Ephedrine SO4 0.05
150. Determine how much NaCl should be used to prepare the prescription
A. 0.56 g
B. 0.85 g
C. 0.20 g
D. 0.37 g
151. Compute for the amount of dextrose (E=0.21) that would be necessary to make a gallon of a 5% solution of
ephedrine sulfate (E=0.13) isotonic
A. 9.5 g
B. 25 g
C. 45 g
D. None of the above
For nos. 152 – 153
Rx
ZnSO4 1%
NaCl q.s
Purified H2O q.s 60 ml
152. How much NaCl is needed to make an isotonic solution? (E value for ZnSO4 = 0.15)
A. 0.45 g
B. 0.54 g
C. 0.60 g
D. 0.75 g
153. If boric acid is to be used to adjust the tonicity of the solution, how much of this should be used (E value of
boric acid = 0.20)
A. 0.45 g
B. 1.54 g
C. 2.25 g
D. 0.75 g
For nos. 152 – 153
Rx
Ingredient X 0.5 (Ingredient X)
NaCl q.s MW 300
Purified H2O ad 60 ml i Factor 1.4
154. Determine the E value of ingredient X

A. 0.45
B. 0.15
C. 0.25
D. 0.75
155. Determine how many grams of NaCl should be required in compounding the following prescription
A. 0.375 g
B. 0.425 g
C. 1.25 g
D. 0.75 g
156. What if apomorphine HCl (E = 0.12) is used in making the solution isotonic rather than NaCl, how much of
apomorphine should be used?
A. 5.37 g
B. 3.12 g
C. 4.25 g
D. 2.75 g
157. Using the White-Vincent method for adjusting isotonicity, compute for the amount of diluting isotonic
solution needed to bring a 75 ml of 5% KCl solution (E = 0.21) to the desired volume
A. 52.5 ml
B. 32.3 ml
C. 97.5 ml
D. 27.5 g
158. This is/are factors that affects the solubility of gas in liquids
I. Pressure
II. Presence of salts
III. Chemical reactions between the gas and the solvent
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
159. This is a type of system in which the solute is in equilibrium with the solid phase
A. Saturated
B. Unsaturated
C. Subsaturated
D. Supersaturated
160. If a substance dissolves in a hundred to a thousand parts of solvent such substance is characterized to be
A. Soluble
B. Sparingly soluble
C. Slightly soluble
D. Very slightly soluble
161. Defined as the spontaneous interaction of two or more substances to form a homogenous molecular
dispersion
A. Distribution
B. Solubility
C. Diffusion
D. Stability
162. The law that states in a very dilute solution at constant temperature, the concentration of dissolved gas is
proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the solution in equilibrium
A. Raoult’s Law
B. Henry’s Law
C. Dalton’s Law
D. Graham’s Law
163. Salting out is a process that may take place in
I. Gas in Liquid System
II. Liquid in Liquid System
III. Solid in Liquid System
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
164. In the determination of molecular weight, the freezing point method is the preferred method when
I. The solute is alcohol
II. The solute is nonvolatile
III. The substance is not decomposed at boiling temperature
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
165. The addition of electrons to a chemical species is called
A. Reduction
B. Oxidation
C. Electrolysis
D. Conduction
166. The man who stated that the passage of 96,500 coulombs of electricity through a conductivity cell produces
a chemical change of 1 gram equivalent weight of any substance
A. Van’t Hoff
B. Arrhenius
C. Debye
D. Faraday
167. The scientist who developed the principle that strong electrolytes are completely dissociated into ions in
solutions of moderate concentration and that any deviation from complete dissociation is due to interionic
attractions
A. Mason and Gardner
B. Van’t Hoff and Morse
C. Debye and Huckel
D. Bronsted and Lowry
168. Which of the following is an example of protogenic solvent
A. Formic acid
B. Acetone
C. Ether
D. Liquid Ammonia
169. A substance containing two or more donor groups may combine with a metal to form a special type of
complex known as
A. Colloid
B. Chelate
C. Ligands
D. Clathrates
170. Which of the following is the correct unit of expression for a zero-order rate constant
A. Time-1
B. Concentration-1 time-1
C. Concentration / time
D. Concentration / time-1
171. Which of the following is the correct unit of expression for a first-order rate constant
A. Time-1
172. Which of the following is the correct unit of expression for a second-order rate constant
A. Time-1
173. This is the equation for determining the half-life of a first-order reaction. Where a = concentration
A. a / 2k
B. 1 / ak
C. 0.693 / k
D. 3 / 2 a2k
174. Which of the following is the half-life equation for the second-order kinetics
A. a / 2k
B. 1 / ak
C. 0.693 / k
D. 3 / 2 a2k
175. Which of the following is the half-life equation for the zero-order kinetics
A. a / 2k
B. 1 / ak
C. 0.693 / k
D. 3 / 2 a2K
For nos. 176 – 179
The concentration of formaldehyde remaining after 180 min., expressed as the volume of the gas, was 5 ml
from an initial volume of 60 ml
176. Compute for the first-order rate constant

A. 0.0035 / min
B. 0.0138 / min
C. 0.693 / min
D. 0.012 / min
177. Compute for the half-life of formaldehyde
A. 45.2 min
B. 80.4 min
C. 50.2 min
D. 28.7 min
178. How much of formaldehyde have decomposed after 30 min?
A. 20.33 ml
B. 30.25 ml
C. 39.67 ml
D. 28.75 ml
179. What is the shelf-life of formaldehyde
A. 4.2 min
B. 8.4 min
C. 5.2 min
D. 7.6 min
For nos. 180 – 184
A suspension is to contain 3.5g per two tablespoon full of a drug. The solubility of the drug is 250mg/100ml.
The 1st order rate constant for the drug degradation was given as 3.5 x 10-4 per hour
180. Compute for the zero-order rate constant
A. 8.75 x 10-5 or 8.75 x 10-5 g/100ml.hr-
B. 7.35 x 10-5 or 7.35 x 10-5 g/100ml.hr-
C. 5.48 x 10-5 or 5.48 x 10-5 g/100ml.hr-
D. 6.75 x 10-5 or 6.75 x 10-5 g/100ml.hr-

181. Determine the shelf-life of the product
A. 3 years
B. 2.5 years
C. 2 years
D. 1.5 years
182. Determine its half-life
A. 3.7 years
B. 5.5 years
C. 7.7 years
D. 2.6 years
183. A type of reaction-order where the amount of drug A is decreasing at a rate proportional to the square of
the amount of drug A remaining
A. 1st order
B. 2nd order
C. 3rd order
D. 0th order
184. A type of reaction-order where the rate is independent of the concentration of the reactant/s
A. 1st order
B. 2nd order
C. 3rd order
D. 0th order
185. A type of reaction where the rate of reaction is dependent of the concentration of the drug remaining
A. 1st order
B. 2nd order
C. 3rd order
D. 0th order
186. A separation process based on unequal rates of passage of solutes and solvent through a microporous
membranes, carried out in a batch in a continuous mode
A. Diffusion
B. Dialysis
C. Osmosis
D. Ultrafiltration
187. It is used to separate colloidal particles and macromolecules by the use of a membrane
A. Diffusion
B. Dialysis
C. Osmosis
D. Ultrafiltration
188. This is a process of mass transfer of individual molecules of a substance, brought about by random
molecular motion and associated with a concentration gradient
A. Diffusion
B. Dialysis
C. Osmosis
D. Ultrafiltration
189. This is referred to as the transfer of solvent molecules through a semipermeable membrane from a region
of low solute to high solute concentration
A. Diffusion
B. Dialysis
C. Osmosis
D. Ultrafiltration
190. This is a process almost similar to ultrafiltration, which differs only in that it requires higher pressure
A. Diffusion
B. Reverse osmosis
C. Hemodialysis
D. Microfiltration
191. This law explains the phenomenon of diffusion
A. Newton’s Law
B. Henry’s Law
C. Dalton’s Law
D. Fick’s Law
192. This equation refers to the dissolution rate of drugs in solution
A. Fick’s equation
B. Noyes-Whitney equation
C. Michaelis-Menten equation
D. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
193. This is/are example(s) of systems where in a liquid interface is present
I. Gas in Liquid System
II. Liquid in Liquid System
III. Solid in Liquid System
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
194. The force of attraction between molecules of different phases is referred to as
A. Electrostatic force
B. Adhesive force
C. Van der Waal’s force
D. Cohesive
195. This is/are the force per unit length existing at the interface between two immiscible liquid phases
I. Interfacial tension
II. Surface tension
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
196. This is/are true statement(s) about surface and interfacial tensions
I. Surface tension is reserved only for liquid-gas and solid-gas systems
II. Generally surface tension is stronger than interfacial tension
III. Interfacial tension includes the force acting in between a solid-solid system
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
197. This is/are method used for measuring surface and interfacial tension
I. Capillary rise method
II. DuNouy ring method
III. Drop weight method
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
198. Proposed the monolayer theory of gas adsorption on solid surface
A. Langmuir
B. Freundlich
C. Noyes-Whitney
D. Brunauer, Emmet and Teller
199. This is a surfactant that wen dissolved in water lowers the advancing contact angle and aids in displacing
an air phase at the surface and replacing it with a liquid phase
A. Detergent
B. Wetting agent
C. Solubilizing agent
D. Antifoaming agent
200. This is characterized as a stable structure consisting of air pockets enclosed within thin film of liquid
A. Aerosol
B. Foam
C. Detergent
D. Antifoaming agent
201. Which of the following statement is true?
I. When the contact angle is 180°, wetting is complete
II. When a liquid has a high contact angle on a solid surface, it is said to have a high spreading coefficient
III. Wetting agents are surfactants having an HLB of 7 to 9
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. I, II and III
202. A liquid will rise in a capillary tube when the contact angle is
I. Greater than 0° but less than 90°
II. Greater than 90° but less than 135°
III. Greater than 90° but less than 180°
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
203. The degree of adsorption of a gas by a solid depends on which of the following
I. Chemical nature of the adsorbent
II. Surface area of the adsorbent
III. Partial pressure of the gas
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
204. Desorption the reverse process of adsorption and which is possible only in physical adsorption may take
place in a gas-solid system when
I. Temperature is increased and pressure lowered
II. Temperature is lowered and pressure increased
III. Both temperature and pressure were lowered
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
205. In adsorption at solid interface the material which is adsorbed is referred to as the
A. Adsorbate
B. Adsorbent
C. Absorbent
D. Eluate
206. This is defined as the difference in potential between the actual surface and the electroneutral region of the
solution
A. Zeta potential
B. Nernst potential
C. Newton potential
D. Langmuir potential
207. Defined as the difference in potential between the surface of the tightly bound layers and the electroneutral
region of the solution
A. Zeta potential
B. Nernst potential
C. Newton potential
208. Which of the following has a practical application in the stability of systems containing dispersed particles
affecting the degree of repulsion between adjacent, similarity charged, dispersed particles
A. Zeta potential
B. Nernst potential
C. Newton potential
209. When the electrokinetic potential is lowered to a certain value, which of the following will take place
I. Repulsive forces exceeds the attractive forces resulting to a well dispersed system
II. Attractive forces exceeds the repulsive forces resulting to the flocculation of particles in solution
III. There will be an equilibrium between the attractive and repulsive forces of the system
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
210. This is/are characteristics of colloidal dispersions
I. Particle size less than 1nm (mµ)
II. Particles not seen by ordinary microscope, but can be visible in electron microscope
III. Can pass through a filter paper but do not pass through semipermeable membrane
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
211. This is a dispersion characterized to have a particle size of less than 1 nm, invisible to electron microscope
and would pass through a semipermeable membrane
A. Lyophilic dispersion
B. Molecular dispersion
C. Coarse dispersion
D. Colloidal dispersion
212. This is/are true statements about lyophilic colloids
I. It is a system containing particles that interact to an appreciable extent with the dispersion medium
II. Most of the dispersed particles are organic in nature
III. A material that forms a lyophilic colloidal system in one liquid may not do so in another
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
213. This is/are properties associated with lyophobic colloids
I. It is a system containing particles that have negligible attraction with the dispersion medium
II. Most of the dispersed particles are organic in nature
III. A material that forms a lyophilic colloidal system in one liquid may not do so in another liquid
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
214. This is a type of colloidal system which is unstable to the addition of small amounts of electrolytes
A. Lyophilic colloids
B. Lyophobic colloids
C. Association colloids
D. Amphiphilic colloids
215. This is an example of an optical property of colloid
A. Brownian movement
B. Faraday-Tyndall effect
C. Sedimentation
D. Zeta potential
216. This is/are example(s) of kinetic properties of colloids
I. Diffusion
II. Brownian motion
III. Sedimentation
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
217. This involves the movement of charged particle through a liquid under the influence of an applied potential
difference
A. Electrophoresis
B. Electroosmosis
C. Sedimentation potential
D. Streaming potential
218. This involves the movement of liquid through a plug or membrane across which a potential is applied
A. Electrophoresis
B. Electroosmosis
219. This involves the forcing of liquid to flow through a plug or bed of particles which results in the formation of
a potential
A. Electrophoresis
B. Electroosmosis
220. This is the measure of the protective property of colloids which stabilizes a hydrophobic colloid
A. Schulze-Hardy number
B. Gold number
D. Zeta potential
221. Particle size may be measured using an arbitrarily chosen fixed line. Which of the following is a measure of
the distance between two tangents parallel to some fixed direction
A. Feret diameter
B. Martin diameter
C. Projected area diameter
222. It is the diameter of a circle with the same areas as that of the particle observed perpendicular to the
surface on which the particle rests
A. Feret diameter
B. Martin diameter
C. Projected area diameter
223. This is taken as the length of a line that bisects a particle
A. Optical microscopy
B. Sieving
C. Coulter counter
D. HIAC/Royco counter
224. This is a method of particle size determination using the principle of light blockage
B. Sieving
C. Coulter counter
225. This is a method of particle size determination using the principle of electrical resistance
B. Sieving
C. Coulter counter
226. The ration of the void volume to the bulk volume is
A. Liquidity
B. Bulkiness
C. Porosity
D. Viscosity
227. This is known as the volume of the spaces between particles
A. Void volume
B. Bulk volume
C. True volume
For nos. 228 - 229
A powder was determined to have a density of 4.57g/cm 3, weighing 125g it was found to have a bulk volume of
78 cm3 when placed in a 100ml graduated cylinder
228. Calculate the porosity of the powder

A. 65% C. 35%
B. 50% D. 75%
229. Compute for the void volume of the powder
A. 40.84 cm3
B. 50.65 cm3
C. 35.75 cm3
D. 75.42 cm3
For nos. 230 – 235
The following data apply to a 1g sample of granular powder

Volume of the solid alone = 0.5 cm3/g
Volume of intraparticle pores = 0.1 cm3/g
Volume of spaces between particles = 1.6 cm3/g
230. What is the specific true volume
A. 0.5 cm3/g
B. 2.2 cm3/g
C. 1.6 cm3/g
D. 0.6 cm3/g
231. What is the specific granule volume (Vg)
A. 0.5 cm3/g
B. 2.2 cm3/g
C. 1.6 cm3/g
D. 0.6 cm3/g
232. What is the specific bulk volume (Vb)
A. 0.5 cm3/g
B. 2.2 cm3/g
C. 1.6 cm3/g
D. 0.6 cm3/g
233. Determine the total porosity of the particles
A. 55.37%
B. 16.67%
C. 77.27%
D. 91.52%
234. Determine the interspace porosity of the particles
A. 72.72%
B. 16.67%
C. 77.27%
D. 91.52%
235. Determine the intraparticle porosity
A. 72.72%
B. 16.67%
C. 77.27%
D. 91.52%
236. This is a measure of the frictional forces in a loose powder
A. Porosity
B. Bulkiness
C. Angle of Repose
D. Hauser Ratio
237. This is the reciprocal of bulk density
A. Porosity
B. Bulkiness
C. Angle of Repose
D. Hauser Ratio
For nos. 238 – 241
I II III IV
G G G G
F F F F
238. Which of the following diagram shows the rheogram of a pseudoplastic system
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
239. Which of the following diagram shows the rheogram of a plastic system
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
240. Which of the following diagram shows the rheogram of a dilatant system
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
241. Which rheogram represents the Newtonian system of flow
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
242. The resistance of fluid to flow is called
A. Liquidity
B. Bulkiness
C. Porosity
D. Viscosity
243. This are substances which requires the application of stress which must overcome the yield value in order
for flow to occur
I. Plastic
II. Bingham Bodies
III. Gels
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
244. A type of flow in which the bulk of the system expands in response to an increase in shear stress
A. Pseudoplastic
B. Dilatant
C. Thixotropic
D. Rheopectic
245. Viscosity of a pseudoplastic substance decreases with
A. Increasing shear rate
B. Decreasing shear rate
C. Increasing time
D. Decreasing time
246. This is also known as the “shear thinning system”
A. Pseudoplastic
B. Dilatant
C. Thixotropic
D. Rheopectic
247. An isothermal and comparatively slow recovery of a consistency lost through shearing
A. Elasticity
B. Thixotropy
C. Plasticity
D. Viscosity
248. This is a type of flow system in which the rheogram presents with a hysteresis loop
A. Pseudoplastic
B. Dilatant
C. Thixotropic
D. Plastic
249. Gels and magmas when standing form semisolids and on shaking become fluid are said to be
A. Pseudoplastic
B. Thixotropic
C. Plastic
D. Rheopectic
250. The following statement(s) is/are true for an emulsion
I. Thermodynamically stable system
II. Consists of at least two immiscible liquid phases
III. The dispersed phase is stabilized by a surfactant
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. II and III
251. Generally, medicinal emulsions for oral administration are usually of what type
A. w/o emulsion
B. o/w emulsion
C. w/o/w emulsion
D. Microemulsion
252. This explains the separation of layers in an emulsion
A. Cohesive forces are stronger than adhesive forces
B. Adhesive forces are stronger than cohesive forces
C. Cohesive and adhesive forces are in equilibrium
D. Cohesive forces is equal to zero
253. Complete miscibility is achieved when
A. Cohesive forces are stronger than adhesive forces
B. Adhesive forces are stronger than cohesive forces
C. Adhesive forces is equal to zero
D. Cohesive forces is equal to zero
254. This type of emulsion represents a state intermediate between thermodynamically stable solubilized
solutions and a thermodynamically unstable form
A. w/o emulsion
B. o/w emulsion
C. w/o/w emulsion
D. Microemulsion
255. This is/are example(s) of methods for determining types of emulsions
I. UV Fluorescence Test
II. Dye Solubility Test
III. Sedimentation Test
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. II and III
256. This is a method of preparing emulsion which utilizes the concept of phase inversion from w/o to o/w
emulsion
A. English method
B. Continental method
C. Forbes bottle method
D. In situ soap method
257. Which of the following is an example of a water in oil emulsion
A. Butter
B. Tragacanth
C. Gelatin
D. Acacia
258. Which of the following describes an oil in water emulsion
I. HLB 9 – 12
II. Span 60
III. Tween 20
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
259. This is a gel in which the liquid is removed and only the framework remains
A. Hydrogels
B. Organogels
C. Jellies
D. Xerogels
260. A gel may be classified as organic or inorganic. Which of the following statements is/are true for organic
gels
I. Characterized as a two-phase system
II. Characterized as a single-phase system
III. Forms a homogenous gelatinous mixture
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. II and III
261. A phenomenon in which the liquid portion of a gel is pressed out
A. Sweating
B. Syneresis
C. Swelling
D. Inhibition
262. This is a process which involves the taking up of liquid by a gel with an observable increase in its volume
A. Sweating
B. Syneresis
C. Swelling
D. Imbibition
263. A phenomenon where in a gel takes up liquid without an observable increase in volume
A. Sweating
B. Syneresis
C. Swelling
D. Imbibition
264. This also known as the water washable form of emulsion base
A. o/w bases
B. w/o bases
C. emulsifiable bases
D. emulsified bases
265. This is also known as the absorption base
A. o/w bases
B. w/o bases
C. Emulsifiable bases
D. Emulsified bases
266. The number of moles of solute per liter of solution
A. Normality
B. Molality
C. Molarity
D. Formality
267. The following statement(s) is/are true for dustibility
I. It is a measure of the cohesiveness of particles of a compacted powder
II. It characterizes free-flowing powders
III. It is related to the uniform spreading of dusting powders when applied to skin
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. II and III
268. This is the approximate angle formed when the particles are floating well out of the liquid
A. 0°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 180°
269. This is the angle formed when the particles sink into the liquid
A. 0°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 180°
270. This is/are true statements regarding electrolytes in solution
I. Will act as deflocculating agents
II. Will cause a reduction of the zeta potential
III. Will form a bridge between adjacent particles so as to produce a closely packed structure
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. II and III
271. A method of measuring tonicity which is based on the effect of various solutions of the drug observed on
the appearance of red blood cells suspended in the solution
A. Cryoscopic method
B. NaCl equivalent method
C. Freezing point depression method
D. Hemolytic method
272. When the stress is removed, a _____ system returns to its original state of fluidity
A. Dilatant
B. Plastic
C. Pseudoplastic
D. Newtonian
273. The following is/are method(s) of determining particle size
I. Optical Microscopy
II. Particle Volume Counter
III. Sedimentation
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I, II and III
274. Generally there are three types of densities of particles. Which of the following densities is defined as the
density exclusive of the voids and intraparticle pores larger than molecular or atomic dimensions in the
crystal lattic
A. True density
B. Granule density
C. Bulk density
275. This is a type of density determined from the bulk volume and the weight of the dry powder in a graduated
cylinder
A. True density
B. Granule density
C. Bulk density
276. This is the density determined by the displacement of mercury, which does not penetrate at ordinary
pressures into pores smaller than 10µm
A. True density
B. Granule density
C. Bulk density
277. Molecular weight is an example of what property
A. Colligative
B. Constitutive
C. Additive
D. Extensive
278. Which of the following is/are classified as an example(s) of constitutive property
I. Optical rotation
II. Density
III. Mass
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I, II and II
279. Law of Heat Summation
A. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
B. 1st Fick’s Law
C. Hess’ Law
D. Dalton’s Law
280. The fastest order of reaction to decompose, since according to its differential rate of expression, it is
independent of the remaining concentration of the drug after decomposition
A. Zero
B. Pseudo-First
C. First
D. Second
281. This type of solution has a solute concentration equivalent to its limit of solubility
A. Unsaturated
B. Saturated
C. Supersaturated
282. Ascorbic acid is the least stable of all vitamins. Its instability is via this reaction
A. Photolysis
B. Hydrolysis
C. Oxidation
D. Reduction
283. Method of adjusting the tonicity of a solution to conform that of the blood and lacrimal fluid based on the
use of calculated volume V values when the weight of the drug is 0.3g followed by the dilution of this solution
with an already isotonic usually buffered solution to the appropriate volume
A. Cryoscopic
B. Sprowls
C. White-Vincent
D. NaCl equivalent
284. Equation used for the determination of the buffer capacity of solution
A. Van Slyke equation
B. Vant Hoff’s equation
C. Freundlich equation
D. Langmuir equation
285. Maximum buffer capacity can be observed in a buffer solution when
I. pH equals pKa
II. pH lesser than pKa
III. pKa greater than pH
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I, II and III
286. A group which donates a pair of electrons to form a coordinate covalent link between itself and the central
ion having an incomplete electron shell
A. Metal substrate
B. Chromophore
C. Ligand
D. Chelate
287. The suppression of a property or reaction of a metal without the removal of that metal from the system
A. Stabilization
B. Sequestration
C. Coordination
D. Sensitization
288. Type of complexation involved in the formulation of Warfarin sodium USP
A. Clathrate formation
B. Monomolecular inclusion
C. Channel lattice type
D. Chelation
289. Type of complexation involved in Starch-Iodine Complex
D. Chelation
289. A group which donates a pair of electrons to form a coordinate covalent link between itself and the central
having an incomplete electron shell
A. Metal substrate
B. Chromophore
C. Ligand
D. Chelate
290. The suppression of a property or reaction of a metal without the removal of that metal from the system
A. Stabilization
B. Sequestration
C. Coordination
D. Sensitization
291. Type of complexation involved in the formulation of Warfarin sodium USP
D. Chelation
292. Type of complexation involved in Starch-Iodine Complex
D. Chelation
293. Range of HLB value in the Griffin Scale for anti-foaming agents
A. 1 – 3
B. 3 – 8
C. 8 – 16
D. 16 – 18
294. Range of HLB value in the Griffin Scale for W/O emulsifying agents
A. 1 – 3
B. 3 – 8
C. 8 – 16
D. 16 – 18
295. The upward movement of dispersed droplets relative to the continuous phase
A. Sedimentation
B. Coalescence
C. Creaming
D. Aggregation
296. Range of HLB value in the Griffin Scale for O/W emulsifying agents
A. 1 – 3
B. 3 – 8
C. 8 – 16
D. 16 – 18
297. The force on the solution side of the membrane which prevents the movement of solvent molecules on the
opposite side of the membrane
A. Cohesive forces
B. Adhesive forces
C. Osmotic pressure
D. Interfacial forces
298. The electrode from which the anions are repelled
A. Cathode
B. Anode
299. These is/are true statements of the Kinetic Theory of Gas
I. Gases are in rapid, random motion, moving at high velocities in curved lines
II. Collisions of gas molecules are completely elastic
III. Molecules are far apart with negligible volume even at high pressure
A. I only
B. II only
C. II, III only
D. I, II, III
300. The expression of the relation between the volume of gas and the absolute temperature is known as
A. Charles’ Law
B. Boyle’s Law
C. Gay-Lussac’s Law
D. Henry’s Law
PUBLICH HEALTH, IMMUNOLOGY;
1. The following are found in the cell wall of certain bacteria. Which of the following is exclusively found among
fungi?
A. Teichoic acid
B. Diaminopimelic acid
C. Peptidoglycan
D. Chitin
2. The endotoxin of gram-negative bacteria is associated with
A. Mesosome
B. Cytoplasmic membrane
C. Capsule
D. Cell wall
3. This is a specific staining method for spirochetes
A. Giemsa’s stain
B. Ziehl-neilsen stain
C. Acid-fast stain
D. Gram’s stain
4. Eukaryotes differ from prokaryotes in that eukaryotes
A. Generally lack sterols in their cell membrane
B. Contain more than one chromosome
C. Lack 80’s ribosome
D. Have peptidoglycan
5. These are straight filaments arising from the bacterial cell wall, making the bacterium look like porcupine
A. Capsules
B. Endospores
C. Fimbriae
D. Flagella
6. The tolerance of facultative anaerobic bacteria to lethal superoxide when they are exposed to air is due to
A. The lack of CYP C oxidase
B. Presence of CYP C oxidase
C. Inability to form the superoxide radical
D. Presence of superoxide dismutase and catalase
7. Lipopolysaccharides are correctly described as
I. Found in both Gram(-) and Gram(+) bacteria
II. Contains lipid A as part of its structure
III. Infection of which are treated by antitoxin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III
8. A structural component of the cell that may enhance virulence of bacterium include
A. Capsule
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Flagella
D. Lecithinase
9. The source of H antigen
A. Flagella
B. Cell wall
C. Pilus
D. Plasmid
10. The process in which DNA is released by lysis of one bacterium, leading to a change in phenotype of that
another bacterium is called
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transposition
Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology

11. Transfer of genetic materials involving the so called “jumping genes”

A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transposition
12. A process of gene transfer which involves bacteriophages in the transfer of DNA material from one bacterium to
another
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transposition
13. Transfer of genetic materials which involves sex pilus
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transposition
14. Microbial mutations are due to which of the following cause(s)
I. Inversion
II. Additions (insertions)
III. Substitutions (transversions)
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
15. Endospores have a multi-layered protective coat consisting of
I. Cell membrane
II. Peptidoglycan mesh
III. Exosporium
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
16. Which of the following statement(s) about plasmids is/are true
I. Carry resistance genes for antibiotics called R plasmids
II. Don’t control genes regulating enzymes capable of destroying antimicrobial drugs
III. Can’t be transferred by conjugation due to their size and shape
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
17. The most likely cells to be lysed when treated with anti-CD4 antibody and complement are
A. Cytotoxic t cells
B. Macrophages
C. Helper T cells
D. B cells
18. Cytotoxic T cells are best characterized by the following cell-surface marker
A. CD4
B. CD8
C. CD3
D. CD2
19. The major function of interferon-gamma is to
A. Induce the activation of resident macrophages
B. Inhibit migration of macrophages from reaction sites
C. Promote and maintain the proliferation of T cells
D. Promote B and T cell growth
20. Cytotoxic T cells are involved in which of the following action(s)
I. Antigen presentation
II. Tumor destruction
III. Cell lysis of virus infected cells
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
21. T-helper cells are important in augmentation of which of the following
I. Antibody production
II. Mixed lymphocyte reaction
III. Delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
22. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for Natural-Killer cells
I. Recognize and destroy certain tumor cells
II. Lyse virus-infected cells
III. Involve in delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
23. A male patient suffering from bacterial infection received a penicillin injection and he almost immediately had
respiratory distress. This reaction is most likely to be mediated by
A. T cells
B. IgE
C. IgG and IgM
D. IgG and Complement
24. AIDS patients infected with TB are likely to react less vigorously to tuberculin test because of the deficiency of
A. Platelets
B. CD8
C. CD4
D. B cells
25. An AIDS patient who received a tuberculin test 48 hours after showed a weak erythematous skin reaction (6mm
in diameter) at the site of injection. What is the proper interpretation for the observation? The patient,
A. Has never been exposed to TB bacilli
B. Has active TB
C. Has been exposed to TB bacilli
D. Is infected with multidrug-resistant TB bacilli
26. The ability of the T cells to discriminate between self and non-self is learned in the
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Lymph nodes
D. Thymus
27. Which of the following will grow in the presence of optochin
I. Streptococcus pyogenes
II. Streptococcus viridans
III. Streptococcus pneumonia
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. II and III only
28. Which statement is true for passive immunization
I. Provides long lasting protection
II. Provides protection without hypersensitivity
III. Provides immediate protection
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. II and III only

29. A vaccine antigen that primarily induces opsonizing antibody is

A. Hepatitis B virus vaccine
B. MMR vaccine
C. Rabies vaccine
D. H. influenza Type B vaccine
30. Streptococci are incubated in a blood agar plate overnight. Which of the following reactions show beta-hemolytic
streptocci?
A. Completely lyse the RBC
B. Partially lyse the RBC
C. Unable to hemolyse the RBC
D. Leave a greenish discoloration
31. The following contribute(s) to the development of a compromised state of the host defense
I. Radiation therapy
II. Exposure to toxoid
III. Malnutrition
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I and IIII only
E. I, II and III only
32. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
I. Toxoides are used as immunogen
II. Exotoxins are highly toxic at very low doses
III. Some G(-) bacteria exotoxins
IV. Some G(+) bacteria produce endotoxins
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I and IV only
E. I, II and III only
33. Which of the following is not a correct statement concerning neutrophils
A. They can be differentiated into B cells on activation
B. They constitute the first line of nonspecific host defense mechanism
C. Principal phagocytic cells together with monocytes and macrophages
D. They cannot present antigens
34. Diagnostic lab techniques most frequently employed for the visual microscopic detection of antigens in tissue
sections, in cells suspensions, or on cell monolayers include
A. Agglutination
B. Radioimmunoassay
C. Immunofluorescence
D. Precipitation
35. This is/are forces or bonds involved in the interaction between an antigen and an antibody
I. Covalent bonds
II. Van der waals
III. H-bonds
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
36. A man with blood group phenotype AB
A. May donate blood to individuals with blood type O
B. Has anti-A and anti-B in his serum
C. Has A and B antigen in his RBC
D. May be given blood type AB, A, or B but not Type O
37. Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) is caused by
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D. Streptococcus viridans

38. Immunologic suppression for transplantation may be induced by

I. Lymphoid radiation
II. Cyclosporine
III. Steroids
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
39. The maturation of T-cells in the thymus is accompanied by changes in the
I. Cell surface markers
II. Cell size
III. Surface immunoglobulin class
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
40. Which of the following organisms are correctly paired with their microbial organelles or components known to
enhance their virulence or invasiveness?
I. M protein of Strep. pyogenes
II. Pili of N. gonorrhoeae
III. Mesosome of Staph. aureus
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. I and III
E. I, II and III
41. Toxic activities of endotoxin reside in the
I. Muramic acid component of peptidoglycan
II. Lipid A moiety of lipopolysaccharide
III. Capsular polysaccharide
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
42. A vaccine produced from an extracellular toxic bacterial product that is made nontoxic, but maintains
antigenicity, is known as
A. Live attenuated organism
B. Antitoxin
C. Toxoid
D. Killed organism
43. Which statement(s) describes a monocyte
I. They can become macrophages
II. They only populate the lymph nodes
III. They are actively phagocytic
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
44. Which of the following statements best describes an antigen
I. Is always an immunogen
II. Has one or more epitopes
III. Molecular weight may be less than 10,000 are potently immunogenic
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III

45. A small molecule that can react with preformed antibodies but cannot, by itself, induce their formation is referred
to as
A. Hapten
B. Epitope
C. Complete antigen
D. Cofactor
46. Opsonin-treated bacteria are more readily engulfed by phagocytes than are untreated bacteria because
I. The capsule is removed by opsonin
II. Opsonin digests wall component
III. The surgace of phagocytes contains receptors for opsonins
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
47. The first line of defense against viruses is
A. Interferon
B. IgM directed to internal viral antigens
C. IgG directed to external viral antigens
D. All of the above
48. Type I hypersensitivity
A. Is also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity
B. Involves IgE response to an allergen
C. Is independent of inflammatory mediators
D. Involved degranulation of eosinophils
49. Which of the following diseases is caused by an exotoxin release of Staphylococcus aureus
A. Gastroenteritis
B. Osteomyelitis
C. Meningitis
D. Pneumonia
50. The maximal reaction time for tuberculin reaction is
A. 2-5 hours
B. 6-10 hours
C. 12-20 hours
D. 48-72 hours
51. Memory cells
A. Lymphocytes
B. Macrophages
C. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
D. Basophils
52. First white blood cells to be involved in acute inflammation by pyogenic cocci
A. Macrophages
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
C. Basophils
D. Lymphocytes
53. Antigen presenter
A. Dendritic macrophages
B. NK cells
C. Eosinophils
D. Pre-B cells
54. Helminth infections will cause an increase in
A. NK cells
B. Dendritic macrophages
C. Eosinophils
D. Pre-B cells
55. Vaccine for Rubeola
A. Toxoid
B. Toxin
C. Living attenuated microorganisms
D. Killed attenuated microorganisms

56. Vaccine for Whooping cough

A. Toxoid
B. Toxin
C. Living attenuated microoganisms
D. Killed attenuated microogranisms
57. Vaccine for Tetanus
A. Toxoid
B. Toxin
C. Living attenuated microorganisms
D. Killed attenuated microorganisms
58. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia and Goodpasteur’s syndrome
A. Immediate hypersensitivity
B. Cytotoxic antibody
C. Immune-complex disease
D. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
E. NOTA
59. Asthma
E. NOTA
60. Contact dermatitis
E. NOTA
61. Tetanus, botulism and diphteria
E. NOTA
62. A burn patient developed a wound infection, and a bacteriologic culture of the site indicated a gram-negative rod
that was oxidase-positive and produced a blue-green pigment. The organism was relatively resistant to
antibiotics but susceptible to ticarcillin, gentamicin and tobramycin. This organism is likely
A. E. coli
B. K. pneumonia
C. S. marcescens
D. P. aeruginosa
63. A spinal fluid specimen from a 28 year old man shows N. meningitides. The DOC is
A. Pen G
B. Amikacin
C. Kanamycin
D. Ethambutol
64. Pending the results of cultures, meningitis in children 8-10 months of age should be treated with
A. Ampicillin
B. Pen G
C. Cefortaxime
D. Tetracycline
65. Tetracycline may be the DOC for all EXCEPT
A. LGV
B. Inclusion conjunctivitis
C. Hospital-acquired PNX due to Klebsiella
D. Psittacosis
66. Penicillin is the DOC for the following infections caused by EXCEPT
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Bacteriodes fragilis
D. Clostridium perfringens

67. Which of the following is true of staphylococcus epidermidis

I. Catalase-positive
II. Coagulase-positive
III. Facultative
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
68. An adult patient with a history of severe penicillin allergy has a sore throat and low-grade fever. Results of a
throat culture show a large number of beta-hemolytic streptococcal colonies. Of the following, which best suits
the patient?
A. Ampicillin
B. Cephalothin
C. Tetracycline
D. Phenoxymethylpenicillin
E. Erythromycin
69. All of the following are modified penicillins resistant to destruction by staphylococcal beta-lactamase except
A. Naficillin
B. Ampicillin
C. Oxacillin
D. Cloxacillin
E. Methicillin
70. Treatment of herpetic conjunctivitis
A. Streptomycin
B. Iododeoxyuridine
C. Rifampin
D. Nalidixic acid
71. Effective given orally in Microsporum-induced disease of hair
A. Metronidazole
B. Griseofulvin
C. Nystatin
D. Polymyxin
72. Streptomycin is known for
A. Erythema nodosum leprosum
B. Bone marrow depression
C. Discoloration of the teeth
D. Vestibular damage
73. Dapsone is given for
A. Erythema nodosum leprosum
B. Bone marrow depression
C. Discoloration of the teeth
D. Vestibular damage
74. Polypeptide antibiotic inhibiting pseudomonas
A. Amphotericin B
B. Colistin
C. Carbenicillin
D. Methicillin
75. Inhibits the mucopeptide synthesis by affecting alanine racemase
A. Amphotericin B
B. Colistin
C. Cycloserine
D. Methicillin
76. A healthy medical student clearing in Lyme, Connecticut, was bitten by ticks. One week later complains of fever,
stiff neck, stiff joints and arrhythmias. An expanding skin lesion known as erythema chronicum migrans was
found on her leg with sharply formed borders. DOC for this condition is
A. Metronidazole
B. Pen V
C. Flucytosine
D. Chloramphenicol

77. A 22 year-old nurse who had been in excellent health complained of fatigue and diarrhea. Then he developed
pneumonia that was caused by Pneumocystis carinii. Blood tests repeated showed depletion of CD4 T-
lymphocutes. The patient must be managed with
A. 3’-azidothymidine
B. Chloroquine
C. Acyclovir
D. Enviroxime
78. Which of the following is an example of an aerobic organisms?
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Histoplasma capsulatum
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Staphylococcus aureus
79. The toxin of E. coli that is very similar to the shiga toxin of Shigella dysenteriae is
A. Heat-labile enterotoxin
B. Heat-stable enterotoxin
C. Verotoxin
D. Exfoliative toxin
80. The most recently discovered sexually transmitted disease is
A. Trichomoniasis
B. Condyloma acuminate (warts)
C. Hepatitis
D. AIDS
81. Congenital syphilis can be best detected by the use of
A. Dark-field examination
B. Silver nitrate staining of the spirochetes
C. The Wassermann Complement fixation test
D. IgM-FTA-ABS test
82. Humans acquire Salmonella typhimurium by
A. Ingestion of contaminated food and water
B. Tick bites
C. Mosquito bites
D. Aerosols
83. The main virulence factor of Yersinia pestis is/are the
A. Endotoxin
B. V and W antigens
C. Erythrogenic toxins
D. Lecithinase
84. Mycoplasma are pleomorphic gram-negative bacteria that
A. Are sensitive to penicillin
B. Lack cell walls in all stages of growth
C. Cannot divide by binary fission
D. Do not produce “fried egg” colonies
85. The spirochete that is tightly coiled, thin, and has a hook at its end is
A. Leptospira
B. Borrelia
C. Treponema
D. Vibrio
86. The body louse is the bector for
A. Leptospirosis
B. Pinta
C. Epidemic relapsing fever
D. Meningitis
87. Chlamydia trachomatis infection may result to
A. Brill’s disease
B. Ornithosis
C. Undulant fever
D. Lymphogranuloma venerum
88. In the laboratory diagnosis of the enteric pathogens Salmonella and Shigella, the screening procedure includes
testing their inability to
A. Ferment glucose
B. Ferment lactose
C. Reduce nitrates
D. Produce oxidase
89. Characterized with marked hypotension, and scarlatiniform rash followed by desquamation
A. Toxic shock syndrome
B. Botulism
C. Cholera
D. Tetanus
90. Causative agent of undulant fever
A. Brucella
B. Listeria
C. Legionella
D. Chlamydia
91. A nonmotile, oxidase-positive, gram-negative coccus, usually in pairs, that is a facultative anaerobe with urethral
epithelium in the male
A. Gonococcus
B. Meningococcus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Staphylococcus
92. All of the following are transmitted to man by ingestion of undercooked meat. Which of the following is vector
transmitted?
A. Trichinella
B. Leishmania
C. Clonorchis
D. Diphyllobothrium
93. A major cause of blindness in tropical Africa is
A. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Enterobius vermicularis
C. Trichinella spiralis
D. Onchocerca volvulus
94. A cestode that competes with its host for dietary Vit. B12
A. Hymenolepsis nana
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Diphyllobothrium latum
95. Vector of Trypanosoma cruzi
A. Sand Fly (Phlebotomus)
B. Tsetse Fly (Glossina)
C. Reduviid (Kissing Bug)
D. Black Fly (Simulium)
96. The event that correlates with the presence of fever paroxysm in Plasmodium vivax malaria is
A. Invasion of hepatocytes by sporozoites
B. Invasion of new RBC by merozoites
C. Schizont rupture
D. Gametocytes
97. Natural resistance to malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax has been demonstrated in populations who are
A. Duffy blood group antigen-positive
B. G6PD deficient
C. Duffy blood group antigen-negative
D. All of the above
98. Flagellated protozoa that cause gastroenteritis in humans include
A. Entamoeba histolytca
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Balantidium coli
D. Giardia lamblia
99. Generally infects human eating raw beef
A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Trichinella spiralis
D. Necator americanus
100. This adult parasites are usually in the parenchyma of the human lungs
A. Paragonimus westermanii
B. Clonorchis sinensis
C. Schistosoma japonicum
D. Taenia solium

101. A 5 year old girl spent a year attending schoolon West Africa. She returnes to the US because of poor
sleeping and intense itching in her anal area. Anal swab samples of the patient would most likely contain the
larvae of which organism?
A. Wuchereria bancorft
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Schistosoma japponicum
102. The Filovidae are a newly recognized family of negative-sense, single-stranded RNA viruses. Which of the
following viruses belongs to this family and causes hemorrhagic fever?
A. Marburg virus
B. Yellow fever virus
C. Dengue virus
D. Parvovirus
103. Corona virus are recognized by club-shaped surface projections that are 20 nm long and resemble solar
coronas. These viruses are characterized by their ability to
A. Infect infants more frequently than adults
B. Cause common colds
C. Grow well in the usual cultures cell line
D. Agglutinate human red blood cells
104. Mumps virus is biologically relates to the virus causing which of the following disease?
A. Rabies
B. Variola
C. Vaccine
D. Measles
105. Which of the following antiviral agent is purine nucleoside analogue that has shown promise with lassa
fever, influenza A and B and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)?
A. Amantadine
B. Ribavirin
C. Acyclovir
D. Gancyclovir
106. ECHOviruses are cytopahogenic human viruses that mainly infects the
A. Respiratory tract
B. Central Nervous System
C. Blood and lymphatic system
D. Intestinal tract
107. A 5 year old child presents with symptoms of low-grade fever, coryza, conjunctivitis and Koplik’s spots. The
causative agent of this disease belongs to which group of viruses?
A. Adenovirus
B. Paramyxovirus
C. Piconavirus
D. Herpesvirus
108. Human rotavirus is best described by which of the following statements
A. It is often associated with infantile diarrhea
B. It I an example of viral STD
C. It is associated with conjunctivitis
D. All of the above
109. Varicella is a member of which of the following viral families
A. Pox virus
B. Adenovirus
C. Herpes virus
D. Paramyxovirus
110. German measles virus is a member of which viral family
A. Herpes
B. Pox virus
C. Togavirus
D. Orthomyxovirus
111. A patient has all the gastrointestinal symptoms of infection with Hepatitis A virus (HAV), yet all tests for HAV-
IgG and HAV-IgM are non-reactive A possible cause of this infection id
A. Hepa B surface antigen
B. Hepa C surface antigen
C. Hepa D surface antigen
D. Hepa E surface antigen

112. The human papilloma virus is the causative agent of

A. Measles
B. Chancre
C. Warts
D. Herpes
113. RNA directed DNA polymerase is exclusively found only amiong
A. Paramyxovirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Togavirus
D. Retrovirus
114. Quinolones are bactericidal agents which act by
A. Inhibition of beta-lactamase
B. Inhibition of revered transcriptase
C. Inhibition of chromosome supercoiling
D. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
115. A patient presents with an abscess. The pus was examined containing yellow granules. The sample was
tested negative to acid-fast bacilli. The patient most likely has
A. Nocardiosis
B. Actinomycosis
C. Streptococcal infection
D. Staphylococcal infection
116. The species of shigella responsible for the most severe form of shigellosis
A. S. dysenteriae
B. S. sonnei
C. S. boydii
D. S. flexneri
117. Quelling test is used to test for the presence of
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphlococcoss aureus
C. Streptococos pneumoniae
D. Mycoplasma pneumonia
118. A goat farmer presents with a fever of unknown origin, which of the following organism is responsible for
this?
A. B. melitensis
B. B. abortus
C. B. suis
D. Bacillus cereus
119. Majority of coagulase-negative staphylococcal infection cases involving prosthetic heart valve endocarditis
are caused by
A. Staph aureus
B. Staph spidermidis
C. Staph saprophyticus
D. Staph hemolyticus
120. Botulism is brought by
A. Invasion of the gut epithelium by the organism
B. Secretion of an enterotoxin
C. Ingestion of neurotoxin
D. Activation of cyclic AMP
121. A 28 year-old menstruating woman appeared in the emergency room with the following signs and
symptoms; fever, hypotension, a Scarletiniform rash on her trunk, palms, and soles, extreme fatigue and
diarrhea. The patient above most likely has
A. Sacalded skin syndrome
B. Toxic shock syndrome
C. Scarletina
D. Chickenpox
122. A campylobacter-like bacteria that is commonly associated with gastric ulcers
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Helicobacter fenneliae

123. this is the most common form of botulism

A. Infant botulism
B. Foodborne botulism
C. Wound botulism
D. Endemic botulism
124. Which of the following may be used as preventive method in the prevention of botulinum spore germination
in food?
A. Maintaining food in basic pH
B. Storing food at cool temp(8-15 C)
C. Preheat food at 80C for 30 mins
D. Administration of polyvalent antitoxin
125. An anaerobic infection with B. fragilis is characterized by
I. Black discoloration of food containing exudates
II. Susceptibility to penicillins
III. Foul-smelling discharge
A. I only
B. III only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II, II and III
126. A person with boil prepared a snack with mayonnaise for their school field trip. Three of his friends whom he
shared his food became violently ill 2 h after eating the food. What is the most likely cause?
I. Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxin
II. Staphylococcus aureus coagulase
III. Staphylococcus aureus leukocidin
A. I only
B. III only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II, and III
127. Treatment of staph. aureus infection with penicillin is often complicated by
I. Inability of penicillin to penetrate the membrane of stap. Aureus
II. Production of beta-lactamase by Staph. aureus
III. Lack of penicillin binding sites in Staph. aureus
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
128. In staphylococci, antibiotic resistance genes can exist on plasmids or chromosomes. The genes are carried
by
I. Prophage
II. Free DNA
III. Transposons
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
129. Which of the following statements will differentiate Mycoplasmas from Chlamydiae
I. Ability to grow in artificial media
II. Ability to cause urinary tract infections
III. Susceptibility to penicillins
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
130. Brill-Zinsser disease is caused by
A. Rickettsia rickettsia
B. R. prowazekii
C. R. typi
D. R. tsutsugamushi
131. a poultry farmer has symptoms of chills, fever and headache. Two weeks ago he lost a large number of his
livestock to an undiagnosed disease. What is the most likely condition of the farmer.
A. Psittacosis
B. Q-fever
C. Anthrax
D. Ornithosis
132. An ill patient denied being bitten by insects. Which of the following Rickettsial infection is most likely the
cause of the illness?
A. rickettsial pox
B. Q-fever
C. Scrub typhus
D. Rocky mountain spotted fever
133. A Mycoplasma which is a common cause of nongonococcal urethritis
A. M. hominis
B. M. pneumonia
C. M. fermentans
D. Ureaplasma urealyticum
134. The distinctive characteristic of Mycoplasmas from other bacteria is their lack of
I. Lipopolysaccharide
II. A cell wall
III. ATP synthesis
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
135. Which organism will be most affected by a drug that will inhibit ATP synthesis?
A. Mycoplasma pneumonia
B. Ureaplasma urealyticum
C. R. rickettsia
D. N. gonorrhoeae
136. Which of the following will identify chlamydia trachomatis from chlamydia psittaci?
I. C. trachomatis is sensitive to sulphonamides
II. C. trachomatis has a different lipopolysaccharide antigen
III. C. trachomatis can be stained
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
137. This is/are clinical manifestations of C. trachomatis
I. Lymphogranuloma venereum
II. Perinatal conjunctivitis
III. Otitis-media in young children
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
138. Which of the following is the causative agent of Cat-scratch disease
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Coxiella burnetii
C. Rickettsia ricketssii
D. Bartonella henselae
139. Which statement(s) explain why beef tapeworm is less serious than pork tapeworm infection?
I. Acute intestinal stoppage is less common in beef tapeworm infection
II. Larval invasion does is not occur in beef tapeworm infection
III. The adult beef tapeworm are smaller
A. I only
B. II inly
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
140. Which parasitic roundworm hatches in the upper small intestine and releases larves that penetrate the
intestinal wall?
A. Hymenolepis nana
B. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. Fasciola hepatica
D. Ascaris lumbricoides
141. This sexually transmitted protozoan is common among male homosexuals.
A. Giardiasis
B. Amoebiasis
C. Leishmaniasis
D. Trypanosomiasis
142. A patient’s stool examination was found to have a small structures resembling rice grains( proglottids) which
of the following organisms is the most likely present in the patient’s stool?
A. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Taenia saginata
D. Trichuris trichuria
143. Humans are both the intermediate and definitive hosts of which parasite?
A. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Trichuris trichuria
144. Acute infection of trypanosoma cruzi affects the skin foaming ‘ chagoma’. Chronic stage of disease will form
lesions on which organs.
I. Heart and digestive tract
II. Spleen and pancreas
III. Liver and spleen
A. I
B. II
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
145. A malarial organism producing ringlike and crescentlike forms within red blood cells
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium malariae
D. Plasmodium ovale
146. A fungus formely classified as a parasitic Sporozoan affecting patients with immune deficiency.
A. Microsporidium
B. Cryptosporidium
C. Pneumocystis
D. Blastomyces
147. Diphyllobotrium latum infection may lead to the deficiency of which vitamin?
A. Vit A
B. Vit B9
C. Vit B1
D. VitB12
148. Most macroparasites are extracellular organisms. Which of the following is an intracellular parasite?
A. Enterobius
B. Trichinella
C. Strongloides
D. Ascaris
149. Relationship of animals living together in which one species lives in or on the body of another.
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis
150. A type of relationship in which one species of organism uses the body of a larger species as its physical
environment and makes use of that environment to acquire nutrients.
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis
151. A relationship that manifests reciprocity of benefits between the organisms involved
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis
152. A type of relationship that involve one-sided beneficial relationship which usually ending up in a harmful
relationship for one organism.
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis
153. Which of thef following statement(s) is /are true regarding viruses
I. Are cellular organisms, which require host to replicate
II. Contain genetic materials required for production of new viruses
III. Requires the hosts metabolic machinery to transcribe and translate genetic information
A. I
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I,II and III
154. This is an example of an anaerobic spore-forming bacilli.
A. Clostridium
B. Bacillus
C. Listeria
D. Mycobacteria
155. Which of the following virus family is characterized as a single stranded DNA, non-enveloped virus
A. Herpesviridae
B. Poxviridae
C. Adenoviridae
D. Parvoviridae
156. This is characterized as the most complex DNA virus
A. Herpesviridae
B. Poxviridae
C. Adenoviridae
D. Parvoviridae
157. This is/are examples of naked DNA viruses
I. papova
II Adeno
III. Parvo
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I,II and III
157. This is/are examples of enveloped DNA viruses
I. Herpes
II.Hepadna
III.Pox
A. I only E. I, II and III
B. .... II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
159. Most of the RNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm. Which of the following RNA viruses replicate in the
nucleus
A. Retrovirus
B. Togavirus
C. Picorvirus
D. Paramyxovirus
160. Generally RNA viruses are single stranded viral organism. Which of the following is the only double-
stranded RNA virus
A. Rhinovirus
B. Coronavirus
C. Reovirus
D. Orthomyxovirus
161. One important generalization for RNA viruses is that they are usually enveloped. Among the RNA viruses there
are three which are naked. Which of the following is/are naked RNA viruses?
I. Picornavirus
II. Reovirus
III. Retrovirus
A. I
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I,II and III
162. This is a condition where there are small changes in the antigenic structure of an organism which mat later result
to an epidemic
A. Antigenic shift
B. Antigenic drift
C. Tolerance
D. Immunity
163. This refers to the complete change in the antigenic structure of an organism leading to the synthesis of new
antigenic substances that have never been exposed to the human immune system . This may result to a pandemic
A. Antigenic shift
B. Antigenic drift
C. Tolerance
D. Immunity
164.Which of the influenza viruses is isolated in both man and animals
A. Influenza A
B. Influenza B
C. Influenza C
D. Influenza D
165. this condition that results when children with influenza or varicella are given Aspirin
A. Herxheimer reaction
B. Salicylism
C. Reye syndrome
D. Asthma
166. Amantadine used for influenza A infection has been shown to be effective preventing which step in the viral
replication process?
A. Penetration
B. Uncoating
C. Assembly
D. Release
167. this is/are examples of viruses classified under PAramyxoviridae family
I. influenza virus
II. Respiratory syncitial Virus
III.Measles virus
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
168. A viral organism well known to involve infection of the parotid gland and testes in males.
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Herpes virus
D. Respiratory syncyitial virus
169. Koplik’s spots seen among patients with measles are usually localized in the
A. Upper Extremities
B. Lower Extremities
C. Mouth
D. Scalp
170. This/these statement/s is/are regarding patients with measles during pregnancy
I. may result to birth defects
II. is associated with spontaneous abortions
III. may also result to premature labor
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
171. Which of the following is/are transmitted via fecal oral route?
I. Hepa A
II. Hepa B
III.Hepa C
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
172. Which of the following Hepavirus is/are example of RNA virus
I. Hepa A
II. Hepa B
III.Hepa C
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
173. Chickenpox is a common disease of children. It is caused by
A. Pox viridae
B. Varicella
C. Zoster
D. CMV
174. Virus which is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma
A. EMV
B. CMV
C. Varicella-Zoster
D. HSV-1
175. The first intestinal microorganism to be observed under a microscope is
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Cryptosporidium parvum
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Giardia lamblia
176. Which of the following species can be found in the small intestine
B. Giardia lmablia
C. Trichuris trichuria
D. Enterobius vermicularis
177. This organism is one of the important cause of severe darrhea in immunocompromised individuals such as
patients with AIDS
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Isospora belli
D. Strongyloides stercolis
179. The most common and deadliest plasmodia
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium ovale
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium malariae
180. The organism is the causative agent of erythema infectionism in children

A. Adenovirus
B. Parvovirus
C. Polymavirus
D. Cytomegalovirus
181. Which of the following belong/s to the group of the ARBOvirus?
I. Bunyaviridae
II. Falviviridae
Coronaviridae
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
182. The presence of this in the serum patients indicates immunity to Hepatitis B virus.
A. HBsAg
B. Anti HBsAg
C. Anti HBcAg
D. Anti HBeAg
183. The presence of theis antigen indicates high infectivity and active disease of Hepa B virus
A. HBsAg
B. HBeAg
C. HBcAg
D. Anti HBeAg
184.The presence of this in the serum of the patient with hepatitis will ascertain that the patient have an old Hepatitis
B infection
A. Anti HBsAg
B. IgM-Anti HBcAg
C. IgG-Anti HBcAg
D. Anti HBeAg
185. This is a parentallu transmitted(Blood-borne) hepatitis which can only replicate and cause infection with help of
Hepatitis B virus
A. HEV
B. HAV
C. HCV
D. HDV
186. This/ These statement/s is/are true for HSV-1
I. Causes gingivostomatitis
II. Causes herpetic keratitis
III. An STD
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
187. This is/are example of organisms that can cross the placenta
I. Rubeola
II. Cytomegalovirus
III. Leprosy
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and
188. This is the ARBOvirus family from which the dengue fever and yellow fever virus are classified
A. Bunyaviridae
B. Togaviridae
C. Flaviviridae
D. Caliciviridae
189. Which of the following viral organicm is characteristically associated with Peyer’s patchesof the intestines
A. Poliovirus
B. Rubella
C. Coronavirus
D. Adenovirus
190. This/These statement/s is/are true concerning the polio vaccine
I. Salk vaccine is made of killed-polio viruses
II. Sabin vaccine is made of attenuated polio virus
III. The vaccine can pick up virulence and cause paralysis
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
191. This/ These is/are the common viral organism/s
I. Rhinovirus
II. Coronavirus
III. Flavivirus
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
192. Which viral organism has a characteristic bullet-shaped, enveloped, helical nucleocapsid?
A. Poliovirus
B. Rabies virus
C. Coronavirus
D. Adenovirus
193. This is/are statement(s) pertaining to the rabies virus
I. Brain cells of infected animals and humans contain virions in the cytoplasm called Negri bodies
II. Bitten individual should receive human rabies immune globulin(passive immunization)
III. Killed rabies virus vaccine (active immunization) is given only as prophylaxis for rabies.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
194. This is also known as the “break bone fever”
A. Dengue fever
B. Yellow fever
C. Hay fever
D. Relapsing fever
195. Protozoa are single-celled eukaryotic organisms. They may be classified according to their organ for
locomotion. Which of the following protozoan has no definite organ for motility
A. Sarcodina
B. Mastigophora
C. Ciliaphora
D. Sporozoa
196. Member(s) of the phylum Apicomplexa with motile zygote
I. Cryptosporidium
II. Plasmodium
III. Toxoplasma
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
197. This intestinal protozoan/s cause/s severe diarrhea in individuals with defective immune system such as
patients with AIDS
I. Giardia
II. Isospora
III. Crystosporidium
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
198. This is the ingested infective form of protozoan parasites in humans
A. Cysts
B. Merozoites
C. Trophozoites
D. Cytostome
199. This is/are examples of free-living pathogenic amoebae in man
I. Entamoeba
II. Naegleria
III. Acanthamoeba
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
200. A protozoan which has high incidence of infection among campers and backpackers after drinking from “clear”
mountain streams.
A. Entamoeba
B. Trychomonas
C. Giardia
D. Toxoplasma
201. This is an experimental drug given for AIDS patients suffering from Cryptosporidiosis
A. Spiramycin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Albendazole
D. Amphotericin B
202. This is the drug of choice in AIDS patients suffering from Isospora belli infection\
A. Spiramycin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Albendazole
D. Amphotericin B
203. This is the causative agent of the so called”Leningrad’s curse”
A. Entamoeba
B. Trychomonas
C. Giardia
D. Toxoplasma
204. A protozoan organism usually opportunistic among patients with AIDS. It is naturally harboured by cats
A. Entamoeba
B. Trychomonas
C. Giardia
D. Toxoplasma
205. This is the most common opportunistic infection among AIDS patients
A. Cryptosporidiosis
B. Isosporosis
C. Pneumonia
D. Toxoplasmosis
206. This drug is given both as a prophylactic and symptomatic treatment of PCP in AIDS patients.
A. Spiramycin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Albendazole
D. Amphotericin B
207. this is the malarial species that causes the called ”Quartan malaria”
A. P.ovale C. P.malariae
B. P.vivax D. P.falciparum
208. This is/are true statements regarding malaria
I. Schizogeny or the asexual cycle of malaria occurs in mosquito
II. Sporogeny or the sexual cycle of malaria occurs in man
III. Mosquitoes are the definitive hosts for malaria
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
209. This is the malarial species that has a characteristic crescent or banana shaped gametocytes
A. P.ovale
B. P.vivax
C. P.malariae
D. P.falciparum
210. The release of this from of the malarial parasite triggers the fever, chills and sweats of malaria
A. Sporozoites
B. Merozoites
C. Trophozoites
D. Gametocytes
211. This is/are the species of malaria which are capable of forming dormant in the liver called the hypnozoites
I. P. vivax
II. P.falciparum
III. P.ovale
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
212. This is a form of the malarial parasite that is taken up ny the mosquito as it bites on human
A. Sporozoites
B. Merozoites
C. Trophozoites
D. Gametocytes
213. Which of the following drugs is given for the exo-erythrocytic form of malaria?
A. Primaquine
B. Chloroquine
C. Mefloquine
D. Doxycycline
214. This is/are agents given for Chloroquine-resistant P. falxiparum
I. Quinine
II. Fansidar
III. Mefloquine
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
215. This is the drug coined used as the “radical cure” of malaria
A. Primaquine
B. Chloroquine
C. Mefloquine
D. Doxycycline
216. This is the only form of the blood-borne flagellates which is non-flagellated
A. Promastigote
B. Epimastigote
C. Amastigote
D. Trypomastigote
217. This is the organism which causes kala-azar or Viscerla Leishmaniasis
A. L.braziliensis
B. L.donovani
C. L.tropica
D. L.cruzi
218. This is the causative agent of Espundia or Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis

A. L.braziliensis
B. L.donovani
C. L.tropica
D. L.cruzi
219. This is thedrug of choice for all forms of leishmaniasis

A. Primaquine
B. Stibogluconate
C. Pentamidine
D. Suramin
220. This is the causative agent of the West African sleeping disease
A. Trypanosome brucei rhodesiense
B. T.brucei gambiense
C. T.cruzi
D. L.donovani
221. this is the drug given for the treatment of African sleeping disease
A. Nifrutimox
B. Stibogluconate
C. Sulfadiazine
D. Suramin
222. There is currently no approved drug for the treatment of American sleeping disease, although there are two
drugs currently used for acute cases only. Which of the following drugs is used for acute cases of American sleeping
disease?
A. Nifrutimox
B. Stibogluconate
C. Sulfadiazine
D. Suramin
223. This is/ are examples of nematode that can cause infection by penetrating intact skin
I. Necator americanus
II. Trichuris trichura
III. Enterobius vermacularis
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
224. This is/ are examples of nematodes which is/are acquired thru the ingestion of eggs
I. Ascaris lumbricoides
II. Trichuris trichura
III. Strongyloides stercoralis
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
225. This nematode is acquired through the ingestion of encysted larvae present in pork meat.
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichuris trichura
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Trichinella spiralis
226. This is the drug of choice for patients having Ascariasis
A. Pyrantel pamoate
B. Invermectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
227. This is the drug of choice for patients having filriasis
A. Thiabendazole
B. Ivemectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
228. Drug of choice for patients suffering from strongyloides sterecularis infection
A. Thiabendazole
B. Ivemectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
229.This is the drug of choice for flukes

A. Thiabendazole
B. Ivemectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
230. The infection from this nematode will cause a rise in the levels of serum muscle enzymes such as creatinine
phosphokinase
D. Trichuris trichura
231. A helminth infection usually is accompanied by increase in the serum levels of eosinophils. This may be result
of the tissue invasion of the helminth. Which of the following organisms listed has no tissue invasion, hence, will not
manifest with elevated level of serum eosinophils.
232. This is a diagnostic test for the presence of Enterobius vermicularis
A. Kato thick method
B. Kato-katz method
C. Scotch tape swab method
D. Brine flotation technique
233. This is/are example(s) of nematode which is/are transmitted usually by an arthropod vector.
I. Onchocerca volvulus
II. Wuchereria bancrofti
III. Brugia malayi
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
234. This organism is usually acquired by fishermen eating raw small brackfish water fish called “bagsit”
( Hypseleotris bipartite )
C. Capillaria philippinensis
235. This drug is given as the drug of choice for the bancroftian filariasis
A. Diethylcarbamazine
B. Ivermectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
236. This is an example of trematode which inhibit/s the portal blood stream of vertebrates
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Schistosoma japonicum
C. Fasciolopsis buski
D. Clonorchis sinensis
237. This is/are example/s of flukes which inhibit/s the liver if vertebrates
I. Fasciola hepatica
II. Clonorchis sinensis
III. Paragonimus westermani
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
238. This is/are example/s of tapeworms which require/s a vertebrate as intermediate host
I. Taenia solium
II. Hymenolepsis nana
III. Dipylidium caninum
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
239. Which of the following tepeworms will require an invertebrate as intermediate host?
I. Taenia solium
II. Hymenolepsis nana
III. Dipylidium caninum
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
240. This is the organism which cause the Chinese liver fluke infection
D. Schistosoma japonicum
241. This is also known as the Giant intestinal fluke
242. this is/are true statement/s regarding Schistosoma
I. They are the number one worldwide water-borne protozoal infection
II. They multiply in humans
III. Eggs must reach freshwater to hatch
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
243. There are different species of Schistosoma and common in them is they lay eggs in the feces. Which of the
following Schistosoma deposits eggs in the urine?
A. Schistosoma heamatobium
B. Schistosoma Israeli
C. Schistosoma mansoni
244. Aside from Praziquantel, this drug is also given for tapeworms
A. Diethylcarbamazine
B. Ivermectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Niclosamide
245. this is the smallest tapeworm that infects humans
A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Hymenolepsis nana
D. Echinococcus granulosus
246. This is the organism causing the so called River blindness
C. Capillaria philippinensis
D. Onchocerca volvulus
247. This is the organism causing “Hydratid disease”
A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Hymenolepsis nana
D. Echinococcus granulosus
248. This is/are example/s of antihelminthic drugs which produce/s their effects by inducing paralysis of the worm
I. Praziquantel
II. Mebendazole
III. Diethylcarbamazine
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
249. This is/ are example/s of filarial nematodes
I. Wuchereria bancrofti
II. Brugia malayi
III. Loa loa
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
250. Endotoxins are usually found in garam-neagative organism. Which of the is the only gram-positive organism
which produces an endotoxin
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Clostridium sp
D. Nocardia
251. This is the average time required for the population , or the biomass of an organism to double
A. Lag time
B. Growth rate constant
C. Generation time
D. Priming time
252. This is the portion in the bacterial growth curve representing the period at which the newly inoculated cells are
adapting to their new environment. Enzymes and intermediates are formed and accumulated until they are present
inn concentrations that permit growth to resume.
A. Lag time
B. Exponential phase
C. Maximum stationary phase
D. Death phase
253. This phase in the bacterial growth curve represents the time where exhaustion of nutrients or the accumulation
of toxic products causes growth to cease completely. There is slow loss of cells through death, which is just
balanced by the formation of new cells through growth and division. This is a period where the total count slowly
increases although the variable count stays constant.
A. Lag time
B. Exponential phase
C. Maximum stationary phase
D. Death phase
254. This is/are example/s of drugs that cause/s the destruction of bacterial DNA
I. Ionizing radiation
II. Alkylating agents
III. UV light
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
255. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of Amphotecin B as an antifungal agent/
A. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
B. Alteration of cell membrane function
C. Inhibition of protein synthesis
D. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
256. This is/are possible ways in which bacteria may gain resistance to antibacterial agents
I. Alteration of the target site
II. Synthesis of enzymes that modify or destroy the antibacterial agent
III. Presence of capsule inn a bacteria
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
257. This is/are example/s of drugs that inhibit/s the cell wall synthesis
I. Penicillins
II. Cyclosporine
III. Teicoplanin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
258. This/ These statement/s is/are true about the glycopeptide antibiotics
I. Given only parentally as it is not absorbed from the GIT
II. Given only for gram-positive organism
III. Potentially ototoxic and nephrotoxic
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
259. This is/are aminoglycoside antibiotics derived from Streptomyces species
I. Streptomycin
II. Gentamicin
III. Azithromycin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
260. Tetracyclines are indicated for the treatment of bacterial infection from which organism/s
I. Staphylococcus
II. Mycoplasma
III. Chlamydia
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
261. This antibacterial agent claimed its glory by being the first broad spectrum antibiotic introduced. It contains a
nitrobenzene nucleus, which is responsible for some of its toxic side effects. It blocks the action of peptidyl
transferase, thereby preventing peptide bond synthesis. Currently its main indication is for infections of Salmonella
typi
A. Erythromycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Vancomycin
262. This is the most common drug used as alternative for patients allergic to penicillins
A. Erythromycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Vancomycin
263. This is a steroid-like compound that inhibit protein synthesis by forming a atable complex with elongation factor
EF-G , guanosine diphosphate and the ribosome. It is given for gram-positive cocci but not used alone due to the
development of rapid resistance to the drug.
A. Erythromycin C. sulfonamides
B. Fusidic acid D. lincomycin
264. sulphonamides are drugs acting as nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors by competing this substrate
A. Aminoacyl C. PABA
B. ATP D. Peptidyl tRNA
265. This is/are example/s of drugs which are structural analogues of the aminohyroxypyrimidine amoiety of folic
acid prevent/s its synthesis to THFS.
I. Trimethoprim
II. Pyrimethamine
III. Methotrexate
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
266. These antibacterial agents prevent the supercoiling of the bacterial chromosomes
A. Macrolides
B. Rifampicin
C. Nalidixic acid
D. Clindamycin
267. these drugs are contraindicated in children due to the possible toxic effects on cartilage development
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Rifampicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clindamycin
268. This drug acts by inhibiting the synthesis of mRNA
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Rifampicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clindamycin
269. This drug is currently given as the drug of choice for the prophylaxis of close contacts of meningococcal and
Haemophilus meningitis
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Rifampicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clindamycin
270. This drug is important in the management of parasites and anaerobic bacteria
A. Rifabutin
B. Rifampicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Nitrofrantoin
271. This is/are true statements about Colistin
I. It is a polymyxin antibiotic acting on the cell membrane
II. It is systemically given for systemic infections
III. It is used topically for wound irrigation and bladder washout
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
272. Methenamine is used as urinary tract antiseptic/s. Methenamine is hydrolysed into which compound to provide
its antibacterial effect in the urinary tract?
A. Ethylene
B. Formaldehyde
C. Ammonia
D. Acetic acid
273. This is given together with isoniazid for patients with TB to prevent its neurologic side effects
A. Rifampicin
B. Ethambutol
C. Pyridoxine
D. Pyrazinamide
274. This is anti-TB drug that inhibits and does not kill mycobacterium tuberculosis. It usually presents an important
toxic side effects such as optic neuritis
A. Rifampicin C. Pyridoxine
B. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide
275. This expensive drug is given for dapsone-resistant M.leprae
A. Thalidomide
B. Para-aminosalicylic acid
C. Clofazime
D. Rifampicin
276. This is the most important agent used for severe systemic mycoses, but is toxic
A. Ketoconazole
B. Miconazole
C. Flucytosine
D. Amphotericin
277. This is an antifungal that acts by inhibiting lanosterol C14-demethylase, an important enzyme in sterol
synthesis
A. Griseofulvin
B. Miconazole
Flucytosine
C. Amphotericin
278. This is an important antifungal agent which inhibits DNA synthesis and is active only on yeasts (candida and
Cryptococcus )
A. Griseofulvin
B. Miconazole
C. Flucytosine
D. Amphotericin
279. An antifungal that inhibits nucleic acid synthesis and has anti-mitotic activity by inhibiting microtubule assembly
A. Griseofulvin
B. Miconazole
C. Flucytosine
D. Amphotericin
280. This is an example of a topical agent, which is derived from the combination of benzoic and salicylic acids.
A. Haloprogin
B. Tolnaftate
C. Naftifine
D. Whitfield’s ointment
281. This antiviral agent specifically acts by inhibiting the penetration and uncoating of viral organism
A. Acyclovir
B. Amantadine
C. Ribavirin
D. Interferons
282. This is an antiviral agent which is effective in preventing vial protein synthesis
A. Acyclovir
B. Amantadine
C. Ribavirin
D. Interferons
283. This is/are example of antiviral agent/s that act in the viral DNA or RNA synthesis
I. Idoxuridine
II. Acyclovir
III. Zidovudine
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
284. Vaccines are prepared from which of the following
I. Immunoglobulins
II. Killed organism
III. ‘Subcellular fractions
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
285. This was the first vaccine in human used to be made by recombinant DNA technology
A. Polio vaccine
B. Rabies vaccine
C. Hepa B
D. Measles vaccine
286. This is the only viral disease where post-exposure vaccination is successful due to its long incubation period
A. Polio
B. Rabies
C. Hepa B
D. Measles
287. This is an agent used for the control of bacterial growth, and is classified as an alkylating agent
A. Formaldehyde
B. Alcohols
C. Detergents
D. Heavy metals ions
288. This agent works by binding to sulfhydryl groups of bacteria
A. Formaldehyde
B. Alcohols
C. Detergents
D. Heavy metals ions2
289. These organisms do not require organic nutrients for growth.
A. Heterotrophs
B. Chemolithotrophs
C. Autotrophs
D. Psychotrophs
290. These are organisms that use an inorganic substrate as hydrogen or thiosulfate as reductant and carbon
monoxide as carbon source.
A. Heterotrophs
B. Chemolithotrophs
C. Autotrophs
D. Psychotrophs
291. These are organisms characterized to have flagella all over the cell body
A. Lopotrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Peritrichous
D. Amphitrichous
292. These are organisms that possess no flagella
A. Lopotrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Peritrichous
D. Amphitrichous
293. These are organisms that possess a tuft of flagella at one end
A. Lopotrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Peritrichous
D. Amphitrichous
294. There are generally two types of stain ,a n Acidic and Basic stain. Which is/are true statement/s about Basic
stains
I. They are composed of colored cation with a colorless anion
II. They combine with negatively charged phosphate present in bacterial cells
III. They are used in negative staining
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
295. This is a specific stain used for staining nuclei
A. Feulgen stain
B. Carbofuchsin
C. Nigrosin
296. This is also known as the Welch method

A. Gram stain
B. Acid-fast stain
C. Spore stain
D. Capsule stain
297. A stain specifically used to stain spores

A. Malachite green
B. Carbolfuchsin
C. Nigrosin
D. Methylene blue
298. First proposed the theory of Biogenesis, which states that life must arise from pre-existing life
A. Louis Pasteur
B. John Tyndall
C. Rudolf Virchow
D. Lazaro Spallanzani
299. Developed the method of producing immunity by using antitoxin against diphtheria
A. Joseph Lister
B. Emil von Behring
C. Robert Koch
D. Paul Ehrlich
300. A German physician given credit for developing pure-culture techniques
A. Joseph Lister
B. Emil von Behring
C. Robert Koch
D. Paul Ehrlich

Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]
1. Other name of Ferric ammonium sulfate

a. Ferric alum
b. Fe NH4 (SO4)2
c. Fe (NH4)2(SO4)2
d. A and B
e. A and C
2. The following is/are example/s of metal-ion indicators.

I. Murexide III. Pyrocathecol violet
II. Calmagite IV. Ferric alum
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III
d. I, II, III and IV
3. Assay of diluted HCl is expressed in:
a. % w/w
b. % w/v
c. Both a and b
d. None of the choices
4. Standard solution in precipitation method od analysis
a. Disodium edetate
b. Silver nitrate
c. Sodium Methoxide
d. Perchloric acid
5. Use to prevent one element from interfering in the analysis of another element
a. Masking agent
b. Demasking agent
c. Both a and b
6. Argentometric titration is titration with ______ ion.
a. Magnesium
b. Sodium
c. Silver
d. Potassium
7. Fajans titration uses ____ indicator.
a. Acid-base
b. Adsorption
c. Metal-ion
8. Reasons why residual titration are performed.
a. Reaction proceeds slowly
b. Poor solubility of the sample
c. Sample does not give sharp end point
d. All of the choices
Page 1 of 40
9. Solutions containing all the reagents and solvents used in the analysis, but no
deliberately added analyte.
a. Blank solution
b. Solution with sample
c. Standard solution
d. Test solution
10. Describes how close a measured value is to the true value.
a. Accuracy
b. Precision
c. Range
d. Standard deviation
11. Primary standard in the standardization of perchloric acid
a. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
b. Calcium carbonate
c. Benzoic acid
d. Sodium carbonate
12. Primary standard in the standardization of sodium methoxide.
a. Benzoic acid
b. Sodium bicarbonate
c. Sodium carbonate
d. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
13. The term dried to constant weight means that two consecutive weighing do not differ by
more than:
a. 0.0002 g
b. 0.2 mg
c. 0.5 mg/g
e. C only
14. Other name of systematic error
a. Determinate
b. Indeterminate
c. Random
d. Both b and c
15. Ferric ammonium sulfate is used as indicator in the standardization of:
a. Silver nitrate
b. Ammonium thiocyanate
c. Edetate disodium
16. The end point of using number ferric ammonium sulfate is:
a. White precipitate
b. Red-brown color
c. Pink color
d. Blue color
17. Limit moisture in nonaqueous titrimetric analysis is less than:
Page 2 of 40
a. 0.5 %
b. 0.05 %
c. 0.2 %
d. 0.02 %
18. Complete reaction: H2C4H4O6 + NaOH -
a. Na2C4H4O6
b. H2O
c. Both a and c
19. A ligand that binds to a metal ion through only one atom.
a. Monodentate
b. Bidentate
c. Tridentate
d. Tetradentate
20. Which of the following is added to maintain the pH of sodium thiosulfate in optimum
range for the stability of the solution?
a. Sodium bicarbonate
b. Chloroform
c. Thymol
d. Sodium carbonate
21. Standard solution in non-aqueous titrimetric analysis-acidimetry
a. perchloric acid
b. hydrogen bromide
c. both a and b
d. none of the choices
22. Standards solutions are also known as:
a. test solutions
b. volumetric solutions
c. saturated solution
23. If starch is used as an indicator, the end point is/are:
a. appearance of intense blue color
b. disappearance of intense blue color
c. both of the choices
24. Types of chemical reaction used in the volumetric analysis
a. redox
b. neutralization
c. diazotization
d. all of the choices
e. a and b only
25. Use of KI in the preparation of iodine solution.
a. Solubilizing agent
b. Change in pH of the solution
Page 3 of 40
c. As preservative
26. Other name of ferrous phenanthroline.
a. eosin Y
b. crystal violet
c. ferroin
d. ferric alum
27. Color of the complex resulting from reaction with ferrous phenanthroline:
a. blue
b. red
c. pink
d. violet
28. Primary standard in the standardization of ceric sulfate solution
a. potassium hydrogen phthalate
b. calciuim carbonate
c. sodium bicarbonate
d. arsenic trioxide
29. In the standardization of iodine solution, why is there a need to boil the solution of
arsenic trioxide?
a. it increases the solubility
b. it makes the solution stable
c. both a and c
30. Indicator in iodometric method of analysis.
a. KMnO4
b. Methyl red TS
c. Methyl orange TS
d. Starch TS
31. A molecule which provides groups of attachment to metal ions.
a. Ligand
b. Chelate
c. Both a and b
32. HCl + Calcium carbonate will react to form a primary product known as:
a. Carbonic acid
b. Calcium hydroxide
c. Both a and c
33. The reaction between HCl and calcium carbonate can be seen in the standardization of:
a. Silver nitrate
b. Ammonium thiocyanate
c. Edetate disodium
d. Sulfuric acid
34. A substance which gains electrons in a redox reaction.
Page 4 of 40
a. Oxidizing agent
b. Reducing agent
c. Both a and c
35. The equilibrium constant for the reaction of the metal ion with a ligand is called _____.
a. Formation constant
b. Solubility product constant
c. Solubility constant
36. NaCl ______ the stability of EDTA complex.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. No effect
37. Organic solvents _______ the stability of EDTA complex.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. No effect
38. Indicator in Redox Titration using KMnO4
a. Starch TS
b. KMnO4
c. Methyl red TS
d. Methyl orange
39. Developed in 1883, this method of analysis remains as one of the accurate and widely
used method for determining nitrogen in substance.
a. Non-aqueous titrimetry
b. Precipitation
c. Redox itration
d. Kjeldahl method
40. Most suitable indicator to use in titration of organic acids
a. Methyl red TS
b. Methyl orange TS
c. Phenolphthalein
41. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
I. Non-aqueous alkalimetry is used when the analyte is weakly acidic
II. Non-aqueous alkalimetry is used when analyte is acid halide.
III. Non-aqueous alkalimetry is used when the analyte contains heterocyclic nitrogen
compound.
IV. Non-aqueous alkalimetry is used when analyte is barbiturate.
a. I only c. I, II, and III only
b. I and II only d. I, II, and IV
42. Indicator/s used in nonaqueous titrimetry
Page 5 of 40
I. Nile blue
II. Crystal violet
III. Malachite green
IV. Phenolphthalein
b. I and II only d. I, II, III and IV
43. Standard solutions in nonaqueous alkalimetry.
I. Lithium methoxide
II. Perchloric acid
III. Hydrogen bromide
IV. Sodium hydroxide
b. I and II only d. I, II, III and IV
44. The use of chloroform in sodium thiosulfate solution.
a. To stabilize the solution
b. To increase its solubility
c. To prevent bacterial growth
d. To maintain pH of the solution
I. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced in the presence of organic solvent.
II. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced in the presence of electrolytes.
III. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced at temperature above 25 °C
IV. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced at temperature of 25°C.
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III
d. I, II, III and IV
46. When a weak base is to be titrated with weak acid, the indicator used is:
a. Phenolphthalein
b. Methyl orange
c. Methyl red
d. No indicator is suggested
47. The formula to compute the equivalent weight of a reducing agent.
a. Molecular weight/ no. of electrons gain
b. Molecular weight/ no. of electrons loss
c. Both a and b
48. The used of sodium bicarbonate in the standardization of iodine solution ______.
a. Increase the solubility
b. as buffer
c. As preservative
d. To prevent bacterial growth
49. Method/s determining the total nitrogen in a sample
Page 6 of 40
a. Macromethod
b. Semimicro method
c. Both a and c
50. To keep samples moisture free, the appropriate apparatus to use is:
a. Desiccator
b. Separatory funnel
c. Furnace
d. Incubator
51. The following is/are true about EDTA:

I. EDTA forms strong 1:1 complexes with most metal ions.
II. It prevents metal-catalyzed oxidation of food.
III. It is a pentadentate molecule
IV. It contains 3 oxygen and 2 hydrogen atoms that are capable of entering
complexation reaction with metal ion.
a. I only
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. III and IV
52. Sulfamic acid (H3NSO3) is a primary standard that can be used to standardized sodium
hydroxide. What is the molarity if 33.26 mL reacts with 0.3337 g sulfamic acid. MW=97
a. 0.304
b. 0.1004
c. 0.1005
d. 0.403
53. A 0.2185 g sample of NaCl was assayed using Volhard method using 50 mL of 0.998N
silver nitrate and 11.9 mL of 0.1350N ammonium thiocyanate. Calculate the NaCl in the
sample. MW NaCl = 58.45
a. 42.6
b. 62.4
c. 90.5
d. 6.24
54. A 4.59 mL sample of HCl, specific gravity 1.3, required 50.5 mL of 0.9544N NaOH in a
titration. Calculate the % w/w HCl.
a. 29%
b. 1%
c. 92%
d. 69%
55. What is the titer value for 0.05 M calcium chloride with 2 moles of water? MW= 142.9
a. 3.57 mg
b. 7.15 mg
c. 73.5 mg
d. 53.7 mg
Page 7 of 40
56. A 10 mL sample of sulfuric acid solution required 16.85 mL of NaOH solution in a

titration. Each mL of the NaOH solution was equivalent to 0.2477 g of potassium
hydrogen phthalate. Calculate the sulfuric acid content in %w/v. MW=98
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
57. Limestone consists mainly of the mineral calcite, CaCO3. The carbonate content of
0.5413 g of powdered limestone was measured by suspending the powder in water,
adding 10 mL of 1.392 M HCl and heating to dissolve the solid and expel CO2. The
excess acid required 39.96 mL of 0.1004 M NaOH for complete titration to a
phenolphthalein end point. Find the weight % of the calcite in the limestone. MW=100
a. 29%
b. 39%
c. 92%
d. 96%
58. The Kjeldahl procedure was used to analyzed 256µL of a solution containing 37.9 mg
protein/mL. The liberated ammonia was collected in 5 mL of 0.0336 M HCl, and the
remaining acid required 6.34 mL of 0.010 M NaOH for complete titration. What is the
weight % of nitrogen in the protein? MW= 14
a. 3.86
b. 15.1
c. 51.5
d. 5.65
59. How many grams of Cupric (II) Sulfate pentahydrate should be dissolves in a volume of
500 ml to make 8 X 10-3 M solution?
MW= 249.54
a. 0.998
b. 9.98
c. 99.8
d. 109.1
60. The molarity of concentrated HCl purchased in the laboratory is approximately 12.1 M.
How many mL of this reagent should be diluted to 2 L to make 0.1 M?
a. 1.65
b. 6.53
c. 16.53
d. 165.3
61. A solution with a final volume of 500 mL was prepared by dissolving 25 mL of methanol
(density= 0.7914 g/mL) in chloroform. Calculate the molarity of methanol in the solution.
MW= 32.
a. 0.12
b. 1.24
c. 12.4
d. 124
Page 8 of 40
62. The above solution (question no.61) has a density of 1.454 g/mL. Find the molality of
methanol.
a. 0.87
b. 0.77
c. 8.7
d. 7.7
63. What is the use of HgI2 in the preparation of starch TS?
a. To increase the solubility of starch
b. To impart color
c. As a preservative
d. To stabilize the pH
64. Process of measuring the actual quantity mass, volume, force, etc. that correspond to an
indicated quantity on the scale of an instrument.
a. Weighing
b. Calibration
c. Both a and c
65. Also known as Eosin Y.
a. Dichlorofluorescein
b. Tetrabromophenolpthalein
c. Tetrabromofluorescein
d. Xylenol orange
66. The active fraction of starch which reacts with iodine to form an intense blue color
a. Amylopectin
b. Amylose
c. Glucose
d. Sucrose
67. When a reducing analyte is titrated directly with iodine, the method used is called
a. Iodometry
b. Iodimetry
c. Cerimetry
d. Permanganometry
68. The 0.1 N iodine solution is standardized using
a. Potassium permanganate
b. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
c. Arsenic trioxide
d. Sodium carbonate
69. Iodimetry is an indirect analysis of:
a. Oxidizing agent
b. Reducing agent
c. Acid
d. Base
70. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct according to USP 27?
I. In azeotropic method of water of analysis toluene is used as solvent.
Page 9 of 40
II. In azeotropic method of analysis toluene and xylene are used as solvents.
III. In azeotropic method of analysis toluene, xylene, and water are used as
solvents.
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III
d. None of the statement is correct
71. What weight of arsenic trioxide (93.73%) would be used as a sample so that 26.6 mL of
0.1120 N iodine would be needed to titrate it? MW = 197.46
a. 0.14896 g
b. 0.4896 g
c. 0.1111 g
d. 0.9145 g
72. The type of alkaliodal assay where the total alkaloid is determined.
a. Ultimate
b. Specific
c. Proximate
d. Extraction
I. Method I of water content determination in USP 27 is the azeotropic
toluene distillation method.
II. Method II of water content determination in USP 27 is the titrimetric
method.
III. Method III of water content determination in USP 27 is the gravimetric
method.
IV. Method I of water content determination in USP 27 is the Karl Fischer
method.
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. IV only
74. Residue on ignition is also called:
a. Loss on ignition
b. Loss on drying
c. Acid-soluble ash
d. Sulfated ash
75. Primary standard used to standardized Karl Fischer reagent is:
a. Anhydrous sodium carbonated
b. Sodium tartrate
c. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
d. Sodium oxalate
76. Method 1 for determining alcohol-soluble extractives is also known as:
a. Hot extraction method
b. Cold extraction method
Page 10 of 40
c. Hot compressed method

d. Cold compressed method
77. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct
I. Iodine value is a quantitative measure of the amount of unsaturated fatty acid in
fats.
II. Method I of determining iodine value is also known as Hanus method.
III. Wij’s method is also a method of determining iodine value.
IV. Hubl’s method is official method of determining iodine value.
a. I only
b. I and II
c. I, II and III
d. All of the statements are correct
78. Koettsdorfer number is also known as:
a. Acid value
b. Saponification value
c. Ester value
d. Iodine value
79. The gram-equivalent weight of sodium oxalate (MW = 134 g/mole) is:
a. 67
b. 0.067
c. 0.114
d. 0.026
80. Orthophenanthroline TS is used as indicator in
a. Permanganometry
b. Ceric sulfate titration
c. iodometry
d. Iodimetry
81. A sample of Chlorpheniramine maleate weighing 0.502 g was assayed by nonaqueous
titrimetry using 22.2 mL of perchloric acid with normality of 0.1125. Calculate the %
purity of the sample. Each mL of 0.1 N perchloric acid is equivalent to 19.54 mg of
C16H19CLN2. C4H4O4
a. 97.2
b. 72.9
c. 27.9
d. 9.72
82. Calculate the weight of oxalic acid required to prepare 1000 mL of 0.5 N of the solution.
MW = 126
a. 36.5 g
b. 63.5 g
c. 31.5 g
d. 23.5 g
83. If 10g of olive oil required 20 mL of 0.0211 N NaOH in the titration of the free fatty acids.
What is the acid number of the oil?
a. 2.9
Page 11 of 40
b. 2.4
c. 11.50
d. 115
84. Does the acid value of the above conform with the official requirement? (In 10g of olive
oil, the specification is <5mL of 0.1N NaOH.)
a. Yes
b. No
c. Uncertain
d. None of the above
85. In phenol contain determination of a volatile oil, the layer in the graduated neck of the
cassia flask read 2.3 mL obtained from a sample of 10 mL of the oil after treatment with
KOH solution. The % phenol is:
a. 73
b. 69
c. 7.3
d. 77
86. A 4.0570 g sample of chlorinated lime was mixed with enough water to make 1000mL. A
100 mL of the mixture was treated with potassium iodide and acetic acid, then titrated
with 22.4 mL of sodium thiosulfate solution. A 20 mL sample of sodium thiosulfate was
found to be equivalent to 0.2996 g of pure iodine. Calculate the available chlorine in the
sample.
MW Iodine = 126.9 ; MW Cl = 35.45
a. 27.35%
b. 27.45%
c. 29.02%
d. 23.1%
87. Military standard table is also known as:
a. Government sampling plan
b. MIL-STD-105D
c. ABC-STD 105D
88. The % hexane extractive obtained from 27.5820 g of crude drug yielding a residue of
0.9155g of extractive is:
a. 3.32%
b. 33.2%
c. 4.30%
d. 4.6%
89. Calculate the menthyl acetate content in % if 9.5 g sample of peppermint oil was
refluxed with 25 mL of 0.5N alcoholic KOH and required 22.5 ml of 0.4900N HCl for the
residual titration. The blank was run using the same volume of 0.5N alcoholic KOH and
required 26.0mL of 0.4900N HCl to bring about the end point. Each mL of 0.5N alcoholic
KOH consumed in the saponification is equivalent to 99.15 mg menthyl acetate.
a. 4.82%
b. 3.58%
Page 12 of 40
c. 4.80%
d. 8.4%
90. Calculate the % alkaloid extracted from a bark of plant using 1.0215g of the crude drug;
the volume of 0.0245N sulfuric acid added to the extract was 25.7 mL, the excess was
back titrated by 21.75 mL of 0.0225N sodium hydroxide solution. Each ml of 0.02N
sulfuric acid is equivalent to 3.8858 mg of the alkaloid.
a. 2.67%
b. 6.72%
c. 7.62%
d. 6.5%
91. Determine the iodine value of an unknown sample of oil weighing 0.21g if 26mL and 12
mL of 0.1100 N of sodium thiosulfate are required for the blank and residual titration
respectively.
a. 90
b. 93
c. 108
d. 200
92. Identify the sample of the above question with USP requirement of:
a. Persic oil 90-108
b. Corn oil 102-128
c. Olive oil 79-88
93. Find the acid value of oleic acid sample weighing 2g which require 45mL 0f 0.1102
NaOH to bring about the end point.
a. 196
b. 200
c. 345
d. 139
94. If a sample of white wax is found to have an ester value of 65.7 and a saponification
value of 74.2, what is the acid value of the sample?
a. 8.5
b. 86.5
c. 186.5
d. 56.5
95. A 50 mL aliquot of solution containing .450g of magnesium sulfate in 0.5L required 37.6
mL of EDTA solution for titration. How many mg of calcium carbonate will react with 1
mL of this EDTA solution? MW magnesium sulfate = 120.37; MW CaCO3 = 100
a. 0.9943 mg
b. 9.99 mg
c. 99.94 mg
d. 9943 mg
96. The following is/are true about auxillary complexing agent.
I. Eriochrome black is an example of an auxillary complexing agent
II. Auxillary complexing agents are also ligands
Page 13 of 40
III. Auxillary complexIng agents binds the metal strong enough to prevent the
hydroxide from precipitating, but weakly enough to give up the metal ion when
EDTA is added.
IV. It is used to permit many metals to be titrated in alkaline solution with EDTA.
a. I only
b. II and III
c. II, III, and IV
d. III, and IV
e. I, II, III and IV
97. The following is/ are true about EDTA titration.
I. EDTA titration is also known as complexometric titration.
II. The equilibrium constant in EDTA titration is called EDTA indicator.
III. For end-point detection, commonly used indicator is called EDTA indicator
IV. EDTA titration technique includes displacement titration.
a. I only
b. II and III
c. I, II, and III
d. I, II and IV
I. A redox indicator is a compound that changes color when it goes from oxidized to
reduced state
II. Starch is a redox indicator
III. Ferroin is a redox indicator
IV. The hydrolysis is product of starch is glucose which is a reducing agent
a. I only
b. I and II
c. III, I, II, and III
d. I, III, and IV
e. I, II, III, and IV
99. Which of the following statement/ is/are correct?
I. KMnO4 can be standardized using arsenic trioxide
II. KMnO4 serves as indicator in acidic solution.
III. Hydrogen peroxide can be analyzed using KMnO4.
IV. KMnO4 in acidic solution is reduced to colorless Mn+2
a. I and II
b. I, II, and III
c. II, III, and IV
d. II and IV
100. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. Potassium dichromate is an oxidizing agent
II. Potassium dichromate is used chiefly for the determination Fe+2 and indirectly
sample that will oxidized Fe+2 to Fe+3.
Page 14 of 40
III. Potassium dichromate to chronous ion, gains 6 electrons

a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I, II, and III
101. Which of the statement/s is/are correct?
I. Direct titration of a reducing agent with iodine is called iodometry.
II. In iodimetry, an oxidizing agent is added to excess I- to produce iodine which us
then titrated with sodium thiosulfate.
III. In iodimetry, starch TS can be added at the beginning of the titration.
IV. In iodometry, starch TS can be added at the beginning of the titration.
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. IV only
e. I, II, III, and IV
102. Koppeschaar’s solution is also known as:
a. 0.1 N Iodine solution
b. 0.1 N Bromine solution
c. 0.1 M sodium nitrite solution
d. 0.1 N sodium thiosulfate solution
103. Assay of sulfa drugs can be determined by this reaction with sodium nitrite.
a. Neutralization
b. Complexation
c. Precipitation
d. Diazotization
104. 0.1 N Bromine is employed as:
a. Oxidizing agent
b. Reducing agent
c. Masking agent
d. Demasking agent
105. A precisely manufactured glass tube with graduations enabling to measure the
volume of liquid delivered through the stopcock at the bottom.
a. Separatory funnel
b. Graduated cylinder
c. Buret
d. Pipet
106. Dichlorophenol-indophenol solution is standardized using:
a. Sulfanilamide USP
b. ascorbic acid USP
c. Sulfathiazole USP
d. Resorcinol USP
107. 1 N HCl VS can be standardized using:
a. Sodium bicarbonate
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b. Potassium phthalate
c. Sodium oxalate
d. Tromethamine
108. Method II of determining iodine value is also known as:
a. Hub’s method
b. Wij’s method
c. Hanus method
109. Residual titration method is also known as:
a. Direct titration
b. Indirect titration
c. Back titration
d. Redox titration
110. To determine the total ash, the sample is incinerated at a temperature of 675 + -
25°C. This temperature is represented by:
a. Very dull heat
b. Dull red heat
c. White red heat
d. Bright red heat
111. The standard substance used in checking the cleanliness of Abbe refractometer
by determining its refractive index is:
a. Rose oil
b. Water
c. Methanol
d. Peanut oil
112. Coulometric Titration of water determination is also known as:
a. Method I c
b. Method II
c. Method I a
d. Method III
113. Perchloric acid in glacial acetic acid and perchloric acid in dioxane are volumetric
solution used in what type of analysis?
a. Direct acidimetry
b. Direct alkalimetry
c. Non-aqueous acidimetry
d. Non-aqueous alkalimetry
114. The primary standard used in the standardization of the above VS is:
a. Sodium carbonate
b. Sodium bicarbonate
c. Potassium biphthalate
d. Benzoic acid
I. Phenol is assayed using residual iodometry using excess bromine
solution.
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II. 0.1 N Bromine solution contains potassium bromide and potassium

bromate.
III. Bromine vapor is liberated from KBr and KBrO3 in basic environment.
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III
116. A 1.5g of liquefied phenol was dissolve in enough water to make 1000mL. A 30
mL sample of the solution was treated with 30 mL of 0.1 N Bromine solution and
HCl. The mixture was treated with KI and titrated with 8.7 mL of 0.1N sodium
thiosulfate. It was also found that 21 mL of 0.1N sodium thiosulfate was required
in the titration of the iodine liberated when 20 mL of the bromine solution was
treated with KI and HCl. Compute for the % phenol in the sample. MW Phenol =
94.
a. 59.4
b. 69.4
c. 79.4
d. 89.4
117. Hydrolysis products of ASA
a. Acetic acid + sodium hydroxide
b. Acetic acid + salicylic acid
c. Salicylic acid + sodium hydroxide
d. Sodium salicylate + water
118. The measurement of a base of a given sample by titration of standard acid is:
a. Acidimetry
b. Alkalimetry
c. Compleximetry
d. Redox Titration
119. A characteristic of a substance which is suitable for non-aqueous titrimetry is:
a. Weakly reactive
b. Weakly basic
c. Very soluble in water
d. a and b
e. b and c
120. To remove stain of KMnO4, the most effective chemical substance is :
a. Oxalic acid
b. Sodium thiosulfate
c. Vinegar
d. Bromine solution
121. The oxidation number of Mn in KMnO4 is:
a. +2
b. +1
c. +5
d. +7
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122. Which of the following chemicals is not included in preparing the Karl Fischer
reagent?
a. Pyridine
b. Acetone
c. Sulfur dioxide
d. Iodine
123. The process in which the exact concentration of solution is determined.
a. Neutralization
b. Standardization
c. Titration
d. Complexation
124. Titer is an expression of concentration of solution is determined.
a. g of solute/ 100 mL
b. g or mg/mL
c. g of solute / L
d. b and c
125. Methyl orange in base medium is colored:
a. Yellow
b. Pink
c. Colorless
d. Green
126. Assay of zinc oxide is what type of analysis?
a. Alkalimetric residual
b. Acidimetric direct
c. Acidimetric residual
d. Alkalimetric direct
127. The indicator used if weak acid is titrated with strong alkali.
a. Methyl orange
b. Methyl red
c. Phenol red
d. Phenolphthalein
128. Phenolphthalein in alkali medium is colored:
a. Yellow
b. Pink
c. Colorless
d. Blue
129. Suppository that does not melt at body temperature is what kind of defect?
a. Major
b. Critical
c. Minor
d. Performance
130. Performs and evaluate microbiological assay, sterility, pyrogen, and
bacteriological test, safety or acute toxicity test.
a. Material inspection section
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b. Analytical laboratory
c. Biological testing
d. Specification and analytical laboratory
131. This analysis is done by dissolving the substance under examination in an
accurately measured quantity of standard solution known to be in excess and
back titrating the excess solution with another standard solution.
a. Gravimetric analysis
b. Acidimetric analysis
c. Direct alkalimetric analysis
d. Residual titration
132. When the alcoholic KOH is used to neutralized the acid and saponify the ester of
1 gram of the oil or fat, the constant determined is:
a. Acid value
b. Ester value
c. Hydroxyl value
d. Saponification value
133. The instrument used to measure the optical activity of the sample is:
a. Refractometer
b. Polarimeter
c. Spectrometer
d. Flame photometer
134. Analysis in which separation of the constituents from the sample is done and
then weighing the product is:
a. Volumetric analysis
b. Instrumental method of analysis
c. Gravimetric analysis
d. Special method of analysis
135. The end point of iodometry using starch TS as indicator is:
a. Intense blue color
b. Disappearance of blue color
c. Greenish-blue color
d. Disappearance of green-blue color
I. Ester value is the number of mg of KOH required to saponify the ester in 1 g of
fat or oil.
II. Ester value = saponification value + Acid value
III. Ester value determination is applicable to fats, volatile oils, and alcohols.
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III
d. All of the statements are incorrect
137. Which of the following area is not a responsibility of quality control manager?
a. Specification and analytical development
b. Biological testing lab
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c. Analytical lab
d. Market research
138. Hexane is the best solvent extracting:
a. Resins
b. Fats
c. Volatile oil
d. Acid
139. What is the other name of Koettsdorfer number?
a. Acid value
b. Saponification value
c. Ester value
d. Iodine value
140. The unsaponifiable matter present in animal fats is:
a. Cholesterol
b. Phytosterol
c. Lard
d. Wax
141. The crude fiber of a drug usually consist of:
a. Cellulose
b. Cholesterol
c. Phytosterol
142. The unsaponifiable matter present in vegetable oils and fats is:
a. Cholesterol
b. Cellulose
c. phytosterol
d. lard
143. If a 0.47 g sample of potassium iodide yielded 0.7564 g of silver iodide
precipitate by gravimetric assay, compute for the % purity of the potassium
iodide. MW KI = 165.90; MW AgI = 234.76
a. 83.7%
b. 93.7%
c. 103.7%
d. 113.7%
144. Which of the following volumetric solutions is used in diazotization analysis of
sulfa drugs?
a. 0.1 M sodium nitrite
b. 0.05 edetate disodium
c. 0.01 M sodium nitrite
d. 0.1 N Iodine solution
145. Phenol is assayed using this method of analysis.
a. Residual alkalimetry
b. Volumetric precipitation
c. Residual iodometry using excess bromine
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d. Iodimetry
146. Calculate the molarity of sodium nitrite volumetric solution, if 31.6 mL of this
solution reacts with 0.5004 g of sulfanilamide (C6H8N2O2S) to reach an end point.
MW of sulfanilamide = 172.2
a. 0.09196
b. 0.91960
c. 0.21090
d. 0.01209
147. A 0.5110 g sample of sulfathiozole was assayed using 18.8 mL of 0.1005 M
sodium nitrite solution in a titration. Each mL of 0.1 M sodium nitrite is equivalent
to 25.53 mg of C9H9N3O2S2. Calculate the % C9H9N3O2S2 in the sample.
a. 99%
b. 95%
c. 94%
d. 93%
148. Which of the following standard solutions is not used in redox titration?
a. Sodium thiosulfate solution
b. Iodine solution
c. Bromine solution
d. Sodium hydroxide solution
149. Assay of ASA (raw material) is an example of what method of analysis?
a. Direct alkalimetry
b. Residual alkalimetry
c. Direct acidimetry
d. Residual acidimetry
150. Assay of sodium nitrite is an example of what method of analysis?
a. Direct titration – Redox
b. Indirect titration – Redox
c. Residual titration – Redox
d. Iodimetry
151. An analyst who determines the strength, potency and percentage purity of a drug
or pharmaceutical product is performing:
a. Special method
b. Identification test
c. Pharmacopeial testing
d. Pharmaceutical assaying
152. Two substances reacting upon reaching the end point must have the same
a. Normality
b. Volume
c. Number of mEq
d. Weight
153. Most of the official drugs containing Calcium and Magnesium are determine by:
a. Gravimetric
b. Complexometry
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c. Bioassay
d. Non-aqueous matter
154. Type of titration used in volumetric analysis:
a. Direct
b. Residual
c. Indirect
d. All of the above
155. The iodine value of an oil is a quantitative measure of:
a. Phenol coefficient
b. Saturated fatty acid
c. Unsaturated fatty acid
d. Unsaponifiable matter
156. A sample of 0.1350 g of As2O3 was assayed iodimetrically using 23.4 mL of
0.1055 N iodine solution (atomic weight: As=74.92, O=16) The percentage purity
of the sample is:
a. 90.44
b. 90.23
c. 89.0
d. 90.54
157. Calculate the water content of streptomycin powder using 3.50 g sample. The
water equivalence factor, F, of the KF reagent was 4.6 and the volume
consumed was 9.2 mL. The % water content was:
a. 1.20
b. 1.21
c. 12.10
d. 1.10
158. Twenty tablets of Ascorbic acid weighed 4.250 g and a powdered sample of
0.3075 g used up 21.5 mL of 0.1085 N iodine solution. What was the amount of
Ascorbic acid per dose of 2 tablets? Each mL of 0.1 N iodine is equivalent to 8.80
mg of C6H6O6 (Ascorbic Acid). The amount is:
a. 283.7 mg
b. 141.86 mg
c. 0.2836 g
d. A and C
159. The primary staining reagent of the Gram procedure is:
a. Methyl red
b. Carbol fucshin
c. Crystal violet
d. Saffranin
160. The bacterial structure responsible for selective permeability is:
a. Cell wall
b. Fimbriae
c. Spore
d. Cytoplasmic membrane
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161. The measurement of a base of a given sample by titration with the standard acid
is:
a. Acidimetry
b. Alkalimetry
c. Complexometry
d. Redox
162. Analysis where separation of the constituent from the sample is done that
weighing the products is:
a. Volumetric
b. Gravimetric
c. Special
d. Gasometric method
163. Adsorption indicators are used in:
a. Complexometric reaction
b. Acidimetry
c. Volumetric precipitation
d. Alkalimetry
164. Titer is an expression of concentration in terms of:
a. g of solute per 100 mL
b. g or mg of solute per mL
c. g per liter
d. A and C
165. Iodimetry is what type of titration?
a. Direct
b. Indirect
c. Residual
d. A and C
166. The type of alkaloidal assay where the total alkaloids are determines is:
a. Ultimate
b. Specific
c. Proximate
d. Precision
167. To measure optical activity of a sample, the instrument used is:
a. Polarimeter
b. Refractometer
c. Spectrometer
d. Flame photometer
168. The indicator for EDTA titration against CaCO3 is:
a. Thymol blue
b. Hydroxynapthol blue
c. Methyl red
d. Methylene blue
169. In neutralization methods in aqueous medium, a product is:
a. Oil
Page 23 of 40
b. Salt
c. Precipitate
d. A and B
170. The moisture content of a drug maybe:
a. Water of hydration
b. Water in the adsorbed form
c. Water of crystallization
d. All of the above
171. The oxidation number of atomic iodine is:
a. +1
b. +2
c. +4
d. +3
172. A spectrophotometer differs from a colorimeter is that it consists of:
a. Prism
b. Lamp house
c. Cell compartment
d. B and C
173. The ash content of an organic compound is an impurity of:
a. Prism
b. Lamp house
c. Oil
d. Volatile oil
174. To keep samples moisture-free the apparatus used is:
a. Desiccator
b. Furnace
c. Incubator
d. Oven
175. Microbial assay of an antibiotics maybe performed using the following except:
a. Test tube inoculation
b. Cylinder plate method
c. Paper disk method
d. Titration process
176. Result of the experiment that are close to one another is considered to be:
a. Accurate
b. Cylinder plate method
c. Approximate
d. A and C
177. Flame Spectroscopy procedures maybe divided into:
a. Flame emission
b. Atomic adsorption
c. Nuclear magnetic resonance
d. A and B
178. Safety and Toxicity test are conducted using:
Page 24 of 40
a. Rabbits
b. Dogs
c. White mice
d. Guinea pig
179. A parenteral is declared pyrogenic if the temperature rise in rabbits is:
a. Less than 1.4°C in the 9 readings of the 3 rabbits
b. 0.6°C in in the 1 of the 9 readings
c. >1.4°C in the 9 readings of the 3 rabbits
180. The ester value determination of substance is applicable to the following except:
a. Fats
b. Volatile oil
c. Alcohols
d. Fatty oils
181. In Gas chromatography, the results of the assay is expressed in:
a. Retention on the column
b. Rf value
c. Volume of the gas used
d. Adsorbent
182. The process by which the exact concentration of a solution is determined by:
a. Neutralization
b. Standardization
c. Hydration
d. Titration
183. The infrared region of the spectrometer used to identify a substance uses a
wavelength range of:
a. 3-5 µm
b. 380-780 µm
c. 200-380 µm
d. 15-300 µm
184. The primary standard used to standardize Karl Fischer reagent is:
a. Sodium carbonate anhydrous
b. Potassium biphthalate
c. sodium tartrate dihydrate
d. sodium bicarbonate
185. the molecular weight of sulfuric acid is 98. Its equivalent weight is:
a. 98
b. 49
c. 0.098
d. 0.049
186. The type of ash where sulfuric acid used to whiten the ash is:
a. acid insoluble ash
b. sulfated ash
c. loss on ignition
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d. ROI
187. The oil from peppermint can be determined by using:
a. Cassia flask
b. Bobcock bottle
c. Pycometer
d. Titration
188. The molecular weight of NaOH is 40. How many grams of sodium hydroxide
pellets are needed to make 500 mL of 1.5 N solution?
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 60
189. Using spectrophotometer to measure the concentration of a sample, the following
data were obtained: absorbance (A) of the standard solution was 0.55. A of the
sample was 0.58. Concentration of the standard used was 16.5 mcg. The
concentration of the sample was:
a. 15.5 mcg
b. 17.55 mcg
c. 17.40 mcg
d. 15.9 mcg
190. Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is ______ by the
particles of a suspension.
a. Reflected
b. Absorbed
c. Transmitted
d. Absorbed
191. The type of chromatography where the cellulose of the filter paper is used as the
adsorbent is:
a. Column
b. Paper
c. TLC
d. Gas
192. All of the following are optical devices except:
a. pH meter
b. Spectrophotometer
c. Colorimeter
d. Filter photometer
193. Which of the following is an oxidizing agent?
a. Ascorbic acid
b. KMnO4
c. Sodium thiosulfate
d. Sodium nitrite
194. A method used to assay Vitamin B12 and Ca panthothenate is by:
a. Iodimetry
Page 26 of 40
b. Micro-bio/ turbidimetric
c. Fluorometry
d. Iodometry
195. The assay of aldehyde content in volatile oil may be by:
a. Gravimetric
b. Bisulfite
c. Hydroxylamine
d. B and C
196. One of the fundamental laws in spectroscopy is:
a. Law of mass action
b. Beer’s law
c. Boyle’s law
d. Newton’s law
197. Gas chromatography is utilized in the separation of:
a. Volatile component in a liquid mixture
b. Amino acids
c. Blood components
d. A and B
198. In column Chromatography, the separation of the sample mixture into a series of
narrow bands in a column is called:
a. Chromatogram
b. Eluent
c. Development
d. A and B
199. In spectrometry, when a test solution is prepared and observed identically with a
reference standard, they are called:
a. Isomeric substance
b. Similar solutions
c. Similar preparations
d. B and C
200. Beer’s plot in spectrometry is prepared to determine:
a. Absorbance of the sample
b. Wavelength to be used
c. Blank
d. Concentration of the drug substance
201. A one percent (1%) solid in liquid solution is officially (USP) understood as:
a. 1g in 100 mL
b. 100 mg in 1 mL
c. 10g in 1000 mL
d. 10 g in 1 L
202. When packaging and storage requirements specifies a “well close container” it is
understood that;
a. Contents are protected from extraneous solids
b. Contents are protected from extraneous solids and liquids
Page 27 of 40
c. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids and vapors

d. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids, vapors and gas
203. When packaging and storage requirements specifies a “tight container” it is
understood that;
204. When packaging and storage requirements specifies a “hermetic container” it is
understood that;
205. The quality of water recommended in the preparation of compedial dosage forms
is
a. Deionized water
b. Distilled water
c. Purified water
d. Water for injection
206. The quality of water recommended in the preparation of parenteral solutions is
a. Sterile purified water
b. Purified water
c. Water for injection
d. Sterile water for injection
207. Metallic impurities detected in the USP Heavy Metal test are
a. Lead and mercury
b. Copper and tin
c. Both a and b
208. Treated soda lime glass is classified as
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. NP
209. A Soda Lime glass becomes a Treated Soda Lime glass through
a. Dealkilation
b. Oxidation
c. Hydrolysis
210. The water attack test determines the chemical resistance to water of what type of
glass?
a. Type I
b. Type II
Page 28 of 40
c. Type III
d. NP
211. The type of glass most suitable for parenteral preparation is
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. NP
212. An amber glass bottle for an oral syrup preparation is considered light resistant if
it
allows not more than what percent of light to be transmitted?
a. 10% at any wavelength in range from 290 to 450 nm
b. 15% at any wavelength in range from 290 to 450 nm
c. 20% at any wavelength in range from 290 to 450 nm
d. 25% at any wavelength in range from 290 to 450 nm
213. The suitability of plastic materials intended for use as a container of drug
products is
determined through what type of test?
a. Biological Reactivity Test, In Vitro
b. Biological Reactivity Test, In Vivo
c. Both a and b
214. The classification plastic materials intended for use as a container of drug
products is
determined through what type of test?
a. Biological Reactivity Test, In Vitro
b. Biological Reactivity Test, In Vivo
c. Both a and b
215. Plastic materials which comply with the requirements of Biological Reactivity
Test, In Vitro are essentially?
a. Non cytotoxic
b. Non carcinogenic
c. Both a and b
216. The conductivity of water is expressed in what unit?
a. µS/cm
b. µS/cm2
c. µmho2/cm
217. The acceptable pH level of water used for pharmaceutical compounding is
a. Between 6.0 and 7.0
b. Between 5.0 and 7.0
c. Between 7.0 and 8.0
Page 29 of 40
218. In the manufacture of sterile parenteral solutions all added raw materials must be
sterile.
a. Necessary
b. Not necessary
c. Always
219. A large volume intravenous solution has a minimum volume of
a. 1000mL
b. 200mL
c. 500mL
220. A small volume of intravenous solution has a maximum volume of
a. 1000mL
b. 200mL
c. 500mL
221. A sterile parenteral solution is also non pyrogenic
a. All the time
b. Most of the time
c. Sometime
d. Not at all
222. If the bacterial endotoxin limit of a dosage form is 0.25EU/mL it means all
components of the preparations shoul contribute
a. ≤ 0.25EU/mL
b. ≥0.25EU/mL
c. <0.25EU/mL
223. Finished product sterilization by autoclaving will destroy pyrogens in the
preparation
a. All the time
b. Most of the time
c. Sometime
d. Not at all
224. Sterility Testing of Pharmacopeial articles test for the presence of
a. Gram (+) and gram (-) organism
b. Aerobic and anaerobic organism
c. Both a and b
225. Long term stability testing of pharmaceutical articles is carried out at
a. 23 ± 2°C, 60 ± 5% RH
b. 25 ± 2°C, 60 ± 5% RH
c. 20 ± 2°C, 60 ± 5% RH
Page 30 of 40
226. Accelerated stability testing of pharmaceutical articles at controlled room

temperature
conditions is carried out at
a. 30 ± 2°C, 75 ± 5% RH
b. 35 ± 2°C, 75 ± 5% RH
c. 40 ± 2°C, 75 ± 5% RH
227. The minimum time period covered by the data for long term stability studies is
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
228. The minimum time period covered by the data for accelerated stability studies is
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
229. Long term stability testing of pharmaceutical articles stored in a refrigerator is
carried
out at
a. 5 ± 3°C
b. 8 ± 3°C
c. 4 ± 3°C
230. Stability indicating test procedures include
a. Antimicrobial effectiveness test
b. Dissolution test
c. All of the above
231. A sterilizing filter has a pore size of
a. 0.5 µm
b. 0.2 µm
c. 1 µm
232. The reference microorganism for testing the retention efficiency of a sterilizing
filter is
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Pseudomonas diminuta
c. E. coli
d.
None of the above
233. Autoclaving or Steam Sterilization should be validated to ensure that the
likelihood of survival of the most resistant microorganism is no greater than
a. 10 -5
b. 10 -6
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c. 10 6
d. 10 5
234. What is the time (in minutes) required to reduce the microbial population by 90%
or 1 log cycle (i.e., to a surviving fraction of 1/10), at a specific temperature.
a. Sterilization time
b. D value
c. F0
235. What is the time (in minutes) required to provide the lethality equivalent to that
provided at 121° for a stated time. 10% at any wavelength in the range from 290
to 450 nm.
a. Sterilization time
b. D value
c. F0
236. A passing tablet friability result is a maximum weight loss of not more than what
percent of the weight of the tablets being tested.
a. 2%
b. 5%
c. 1%
237. A tablet friability apparatus also test the friability of this dosage form
a. Soft gelatin capsule
b. Hard gelatin capsule
c. Liquid fill capsule
238. Disintegration is an essential attribute of this dosage form
a. Plain coated tablet
b. Hard gelatin capsule
c. Chewable tablet
d. All of the above
239. What tablet attribute is correlated with the biological availability of the active
ingredient.
a. Disintegration
b. Dissolution
c. Content uniformity
240. A belonging to climatic zone IV is officially described as
a. Temperate
b. Hot, humid
c. Hot, dry
241. The Philippines belong to what climatic zone
a. I
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b. II
c. III
242. Which of the following is not an official hard gelatin capsule size for human
consumption
a. 000
b. 00 mL
c. 0000
243. A calibrated volumetric apparatus was calibrated using standards traceable to
a. ASTM
b. ATCC
c. NIST
244. Pharmaceutical articles like raw materials must not harbor these organism
except.
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Salmonella
245. The units of osmolar concentration are usually expressed as
a. mOsM
b. mOsm
c. mOSm
d. none of the above
246. Clean room classification are specified in Federal standard
a. 211E
b. 210E
c. 209E
247. Air particle counts in clean rooms is base on what particle size
a. 0.5 µm
b. 0.2 µm
c. 1 µm
248. The level in microbiological environmental monitoring is that level of
microorganism that shows a potential drift from normal operating procedure.
a. Alert level
b. Action level
c. Both a and b
249. In validation procedures the closeness of test results obtained by that method to
the true value is called
a. Precision
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b. Accuracy
c. Specificity
250. In validation procedures, what is the degree of agreement among individual test
results when the method is applied repeatedly to multiple sampling of a
homogeneous sample.
a. Precision
b. Accuracy
c. Specificity
251. Which is not a method of neutralizing the antimicrobial properties of a product
a. Neutralization by chemical inhibition
b. Neutralization by dilution
c. Neutralization by sterilization
252. Which is not a biological indicator in the validation of a moist heat sterilization
a. Bacillus stearothermophilus
b. Bacillus subtilis
c. Bacillus coagulans
253. Which is the following is not a terminal sterilization procedure
a. Steam sterilization
b. Sterilization by filtration
c. Dry heat sterilization
254. In validation procedures the ability to assess unequivocally the analyte in the
presence of components that may be expected to be present is called
a. Precision
b. Accuracy
c. Specificity
255. In analytical methods, the measure of its capacity to remain unaffected by small
but deliberate variations in method parameters and provides an indication of its
reliability during normal usage is called.
a. Linearity
b. Robustness
c. Ruggedness
256. The following are tablet properties necessary to withstand the mechanical shocks
of manufacture, packaging and shipping EXCEPT
a. Hardness
b. Resistance to weight loss
c. Resistance to friability
d. Disintegration
Page 34 of 40
257. In disintegration, enteric-coated tablets must

a. Show no evidence to disintegration after 30 minutes in simulated gastric fluid
b. Show no evidence to disintegration after 30 minutes in simulated intestinal fluid
c. In simulated intestinal fluid, they should disintegrate in 2 hours plus the time
specified
d. In simulated gastric fluid, they should disintegrate in 2 hours plus in time specified
258. Given a tablet thickness of 0.47 cm, what should be the accepted range?
a. 0.4465-0.4935 cm
b. 0.4348-0.5050 cm
c. 0.4230-0.5170 cm
d. 0.3525-0.5875 cm
259. Given a tablet thickness of 0.47 cm, what should be the acceptable tablet weight
range?
a. 0.1170-0.1430 g
b. 0.1203-0.1398 g
c. 0.0300-0.2300 g
d. 0.0550- 0.2050 g
260. Which of the following is NOT used in Method II of USP test for bulk density?
a. 250 mL graduated cylinder
b. No.18 screen
c. Volumeter
d. Baffle box
261. One of the following is NOT an in-process control for tablet:
a. Bioavailability
b. Hardness and thickness
c. Weight variation
d. Disintegration
262. Pyrogen test is performed in:
a. Pigeons
b. Mice
c. Rabbits
d. Guinea pigs
263. Which is the following statements is NOT true about closure:
a. Should fit the thread of the containers
b. Should produce no leaks
c. Should be made of plastic materials
d. Should be reasonably tight and look elegant
264. Friability testing is done using a Roche friability that must be set to ensure:
a. 10 falls of tablets
b. Either A or B
c. 100 falls of tablets
d. 100 rpm
265. Evaluation of Aspirin Granules (IPQC)
Weight of the sample = 50 grams
Page 35 of 40
Height of cone formed (fixed funnel) = 5 cm

Diameter of cone formed = 13 cm
The repose angle is
a. 25°
b. 38°
c. 30°
d. 50°
266. The temperature wherein the refrigerator is thermostatically maintained is:
a. 36°F and 46°F
b. 46°F and 59°F
c. -13°F and 14°F
d. -23°F and 34°F
267. Water attack test as an official test for glass is done on:
a. Type I glass
b. Type II glass
c. A and B
d. Type III glass
268. Content uniformity test is initially conducted in:
a. 10 tablets
b. 20 tablets
c. 15 tablets
d. 5 tablets
269. Content uniformity test is used to ensure which of the following quality in tablet
products:
a. Disintegration
b. Purity
c. Bioavailability
d. Potency
270. In SQC, the control chart prepared based on the number of fraction defective is
called:
a. Attribute chart
b. Beer’s plot
c. Bar chart
d. Variable chart
271. Common component of cap liners, stoppers, and parts of dropper assemblies:
a. Metal
b. plastic
c. Glass
d. Rubber
272. This class of drugs require batch certification from the Bureau of Food and Drugs
a. Anti-convulsants
b. Antibiotics
c. analgesic
d. Vitamins
Page 36 of 40
273. While waiting for its release by the quality control, materials are held in:
a. Packing area
b. Quarantine area
c. Analytical laboratory
d. Biological laboratory
274. One of the following is a secondary packaging component:
a. Caps
b. Corrugated cartons
c. vials
d. Bottles
275. A test which is determined by selecting not less than 30 tablets from each
production batch and assaying 10 tablets individually as directed in the assay
of the individual compedial monograph.
a. Content uniformity
b. Weight variation
c. Disintegration test
d. Dissolution test
276. The gas that is used in gas sterilization is:
a. Oxygen
b. Ethylene oxide
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Nitrogen
277. The bioassay for Parathyroid Injection is based on measuring the increase in
serum calcium in
a. Cat
b. Dog
c. Sheep
d. Rat
278. Biological reactivity test(s) in vitro except
a. Agar diffusion test
b. Direct contact test
c. Implantation test
d. Elution test
279. Animal employed for the biological assay of oxytocin injection
a. Pigeon
b. Rabbit
c. Chicken
d. Rat
280. Bleeding is a main stability problem seen in
a. Capsules
b. Emulsions
c. Ointments
d. Tablets
281. The test for content uniformity is required for
Page 37 of 40
a. Film-coated tablets
b. Solutions for inhalation
c. suspensions
d. Liquid-filled soft capsules
282. Powdered glass test is done on the following except
a. Borosilicate glass
b. Soda lime glass
c. Treated soda lime glass
d. General purpose soda lime glass
283. In what type of dosage form is the determination of zeta potential needed?
a. Suspensions
b. Solutions
c. emulsions
d. Aerosols
284. Determine the shelf-life of a product
a. Sampling inspection program
b. Validation program
c. Stability testing program
d. All
285. The QC manager is not in charged of this section
a. Analytical laboratory
b. Biological testing laboratory
c. Specs and analytical program
d. Research and development section
286. The dye used in the leaker test
a. Methylene blue
b. Phenolphthalein
c. Thymol blue
287. A defect that may affect the function of an object and therefore, may render the
product useless.
a. Major defect
b. Critical defect
c. Minor defect
d. Ocular defect
288. A firm’s removal or correction of a distributed product which involves no violation
a. Drug recall
b. Market withdrawal
c. Stock recovery
289. Which question is used to predict the shelf life of a drug product?
a. Michaelis-Menten equation
b. Arrhenius theory
c. Hixson-Crowell equation
Page 38 of 40
d. Stokes equation
290. The sampling and examination of all raw materials received by the factory is a
function of the :
a. Documentation section
b. Biological testing laboratory
c. Material inspection method
d. Analytical laboratory
291. Pyrogen test in vitro:
a. Colorimeter
b. Cylinder-plate method
c. Fluorophotometer
d. LAL method
292. Potency of a 100 mg tablet at expiry date:
a. 95 mg
b. 90 mg
c. 105 mg
d. 110 mg
293. A critical defect that would stop the packaging line operations:
a. Wrong labels
b. Misaligned labels
c. Inverted labels
d. smeared labels
294. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP):
a. Concerned with record keeping
b. Step by step method on how to go about a job
c. Done to facilitate recall
d. All of these are correct
295. Samples of raw materials in the quarantine area will not be subjected to this test:
a. Physical and organoleptic examination
b. Leaker test
c. Potency assay
d. Microbiological test
296. It is the partial or complete separation of the top or bottom of a tablet from the
main body
a. Lamination
b. Capping
c. Mottling
d. Picking
297. The round bottom flask used for the dissolution rate in the evaluation of tablets
should be submerge in constant temperature water bath maintained at what
temperature.
a. 37°C
b. 25°C
c. 40°C
Page 39 of 40
d. 30°C
298. The type of container which is impervious to air or any other gas under the
ordinary or customary conditions of handling, shipping, storage and distribution.
a. Tight-container
b. Well-closed container
c. Single-unit container
d. Hermetic container
299. The word GITS as a drug delivery system means
a. Gastro-intestinal tract system
b. Gastric infection treatment support
c. Gastro-intestinal therapeutic system
d. General internal therapeutic system
300. The temperature used for ignition to constant weight is:
a. 725 ± 25°C
b. 800 ± 25°C
c. 825 ± 25°C
d. 750 ± 25°C
Page 40 of 40

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BIOPHARMACEUTICS (PACOP BLUE)

1. Passive diffusion of a drug molecule across a cell membrane depends on the

2. The rate of dissolution of a weakly acidic drug may be increased by

4. Which of the following parameters can evaluate bio equivalency of drugs?

5. The following statements are not true except:

6. A measure of the quantity of drug in the body:

7. Study of what the body does to the drug:

9. Gastric emptying rate is slowed down by all of the ff. except:

10. An absorption mechanism for Sabin pollo vaccine:

15. The following is true about the ko/w of β-estradiol:

16. Drugs can be administered by IM route except:

17. Indication for IV rout

18. Best route for liquefying thick empyemas

19. The following promotes better absorption except:

20. True about pharmaceutical equivalents

22. Describes diffusion of drug solutions across biological membranes

26. Route of drug administration where hepatic metabolism is completely by passed:

27. Non-linear pharmacokinetics:

28. These are drugs that primarily undergo Phase II metabolism:

34. The following statements about drug absorption are true:

37. The following pathological factors decrease drug absorption:

38. Pharmaceutically equivalent drugs should have similar

39. Therapeutically equivalent drugs should have similar:

40. Pharmaceutical alternatives drugs should have similar:

41. Therapeutic alternatives should have similar:

42. Bioequivalent drugs should have similar:

43. The ff. statements are true for plasma albumin:

48. A creatinine clearance of 40 is indicative of:

49. Half-life of a drug may be decreased by:

50. Phase II Clinical Studies deal with:

52. Biopharmaceutics is the study of :

53. Compared to normal adults, infants have:

54. The only metabolic process present in an infant is:

56. Compared to normal adults, renally impaired patients have:

57. Bioavailability of these drugs is decreased in patients with renal disease:

58. Compared to normal adults, obese patients have:

59. Theraputic Drug monitoring (TDM) is employed for drugs with :

60. Aspirin is best absorbed by this transport mechanism

61. Drug penetration is enhanced if the drug

62. In Fick’s Law, the slope indicates the rate of

63. Which of the following is/are true about passive diffusion?

65. These are drugs that inhibit metabolism of other drugs:

66. Transdermal route of administration is administered in/through/on the:

67. At physiologic pH, a drug with pKa=5.4 is approximately

74. The rate of distribution of drugs is affected by:

75. The rate of zero-order reactions

77. Which of the following types of tissues frequently stored drugs?

79. If a CNS drug is extensively ionized at pH of blood, it will

80. The buffer equation is also known as

81. To calculate a loading dose, one must first determine

84. The Noyes-Whitney Equation describes

86. The AUC can be described as

92. When compared to their parent compound, metabolites usually have

94. When graphed, nonlinear pharmacokinetics are characterized by dat that

97. The term therapeutic window refers to the

99. Requirements for the drug products to be considered “pharmaceutical alternatives”

101. Gastric emptying time except:

a. Absorption process occurs by active transport d. drug is very potent

a. Absorbed into the portal circulation and d. not affected by liver

104. The volume of distribution (Vd) of a particular drug will be

105. A knowledge of Vd for a given drug is useful because it alloews to

a. estimate the elimination rate constant d. determine the best dosing