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Business Law multiple Choice Questions | Legal Aspects


1. Law is either private law or _________ law.
1)Public
2)Private
3)Local
4)Family

2. A breach of contract can be of ___________ breach


1)Discharged
2)Illegal

3)Void
4)None of these

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3. How many parties are there to a Promissory note?


(1) Two parties
(2) One party
(3) Four party
(4) Three parties

4. A minor can be an _____________?

1) Surety
2) Agent
3) Partner
4) All of these

5. Public Law is divided into ________ categories?


1)Three
2)Four
3)Two
4)None of these

6. An agreement that is caused by fraud, misrepresentation & coercion is


_____?
1)Voidable
2)Partially Void
3)Valid
4)All of these


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7. The person which is represented as an agent ______?


1) Middleman
2) Owner
3)None of these
4) Principal

8. Public law includes _______law?


1) Administrative
2) Constitution
3) Criminal
4) All of these
5)None of these

9. Contingent goods belongs to _______ goods?


1)Existing
2)Future
3)Contingent
4)None of these

10. Is voidable contract?


1) Partly valid agreement
2) An illegal agreement
3) All of these
4) None of these

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11. Consumer Protection Act is applicable to
A. immovable goods
B. movable goods
C. specific goods and services
D. all goods and services

12. The total number of rights given to consumers as per the consumer
protection Act is
A. 5
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

13. “Consumer has the right to present before the appropriate forum or
authorities all those matters which affect his interests “ this right of a
consumer is termed as a right to be
A. informed
B. heard
C. safety
D. educated

14. The rights of consumers as per the consumer protection Act does not
include the right to be
A. informed
B. heard
C. safety
D. presented

15. When the seller manipulates the price then it is


A. Restrictive trade practices
B. unfair trade practices
C. caveat emptor
D. none of the above

16. Fraud exists when it is shown that a false representation had been
made_____________.
A. knowingly.
B. unknowingly.
C. unintentionally.
D. recklessly, not caring whether true or false.
Answer: A


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17. Which of the relationships raise presumption of undue influence _____


A. landlord and tenant
B. parents and child.
C. doctor and patient.
D. husband and wife.
Answer: B

18. If there is error in causal, the contract is _____________.


A. void.
B. voidable.
C. valid.
D. illegal.
Answer: B

19. The collateral transaction to an illegal agreement are_________.


A. void.
B. illegal.
C. voidable.
D. not affected at all.
Answer: B

20. An agreement made with an alien enemy is _________.


A. unlawful on the ground of public policy.
B. unlawful because it becomes difficult to be performed.
C. valid.
D. voidable.
Answer: A

21. In which year IRDA Act passed in __________


A. 1999
B. 2000
C. 2001
D. 2002
Answer: A


22. When the promisee refuses to accept performance from the promiser who
offers to perform, it is
A. attempted performance
B. vicarious performance
C. tender.
D. frustration of contract
Answer: A

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23. When a party to a contract transfers his contractual rights to another, it is


known as ________.
A. rescission of contract
B. waiver of contract.
C. discharge of contract.
D. assignment of contract
Answer: D

24. Assignment by operation of law takes place_______________.


A. . by the mutual consent of the parties.
B. by the will of either party.
C. when the subject matter of a contract cases to exist.
D. by the death of a party to a contract.
Answer: D

25. A who ooze 10,000 to B dies living and estate of Rs 6,000. The legal
representatives of A are _______________.
A. liable for rs 10,000
B. liable for rs 6,000.
C. no liable at all.
D. liable for Rs 3,000.
Answer: B

26. If a contract contains an undertaking to perform impossibility, the contract


is __________.
A. void ab initio.
B. void.
C. voidable at the option of the plaintiff.

D. illegal.
Answer: A

27. An agreement to do an act impossible in itself__________.


A. is void.
B. is voidable.
C. is void ab initial.
D. becomes void when impossibility is discovered.
Answer: A

28. Were a contact could not be performed because of the default by a third
party on whose work the promiser relied, it ______________.
A. it is not discharged.
B. is discharged.
C. becomes void.
D. becomes voidable.
Answer: A

29. The Head Quarters of IRDA in which place ________


A. Chennai
B. Delhi
C. Coimbatore
D. Bangalore
Answer: B

30. Specific performance may be ordered by the court when


______________.
A. . the contract is voidable
B. the damages are an adequate remedy
C. the damages are not an adequate remedy.
D. the contract is uncertain.
Answer: C

31. The measure of damages in case of breach of a contract is the difference


between the _______________.
A. contract price and the market price at the date of breach.
B. contract price when the maximum market price during the terms of the contract.
C. contract and the price at which the plane tiff might have sold the goods.
D. contract price and the price fixed by the court.
Answer: A

32. Anticipatory breach of a contract takes place _____________


A. During the performance of the contract
B. At the time when the performance is due
C. Before the performance is due
D. At the time when the contract is entered into
Answer: C

33. In case of wrongful dishonour of a cherub by a banker having sufficient
fund to the credit of the customer, the court nay award
A. Ordinary damage
B. Nominal damage
C. Exemplary damage
D. Contemptuous damages
Answer: C

34. The contract of indemnity is a _____________


A. Contingent contract
B. Wagering contract
C. Quasi-contract
D. Void agreement
Answer: A

35. S and P go into a shop. S says to the shopkeeper, C let P have the goods, and
if he does not pay you, I will. This is a __________
A. contract of guarantee
B. contract of indemnity.
C. Wagering contract
D. Quasi-contract
Answer: A

36. A bailer is a _________


A. a right of a particular lien over the goods bailed
B. a right of generation
C. a right of both particular and general lien
D. no lien at all over the goods bailed
Answer: A

37. The position of a finder of lost goods is that of a ______________


A. Bailer
B. Bailee
C. Surety
D. Principal debtors
Answer: A

38. The gratuitous bailer is liable to the bailer for the defects in the goods
bailed_______________
A. Even if he is not aware of them
B. Only if he is aware of them
C. In all cases of loss
D. In certain case of loss
Answer: B

39. A who purchases certain goods from B by a misrepresentation pledges


them with C . the pledge is _________________

A. valid
B. void
C. voidable
D. invalid
Answer: B

40. In a sale, the property in goods_______________


A. Is transferred to the buyer.
B. Is yet to be transferred to the buyers.
C. May be transferred at a future time.
D. Is transferred when goods are delivered to the buyer.
Answer: A

41. In a sale, if the goods are destroyed, the loss falls on________________
A. The buyer.
B. The seller.
C. Partly on the buyer and partly on the seller.
D. The seller if price has not been paid.
Answer: A

42. The term property as used in the Sale of Goods Act, 1930
means_____________
A. Possession.
B. Ownership.
C. Ownership and possession both.
D. the subject matter of contract of sale.
Answer: B

43. If a price is not determined by the parties in a contract of sale, the buyer is
bound to pay________________
A. The price demanded by the seller.
B. A reasonable price.
C. The price which the buyer thinks is reasonable.
D. The price to be determined by a third independent person.
Answer: B

44. The doctrine of caveat emptor applies______________


A. In case of implied conditions and warranties
B. When the buyer does not intimate the purpose to the seller and depends upon his own
skill and judgment.
C. When goods are sold by sample.
D. When goods are sold by description.
Answer: A

45. If a sale is by sample as well as by description, the implied condition is that


the goods shall correspond with_______________
A. Sample.

B. Description.
C. Both sample and description.
D. Either sample or description.
Answer: C

46. In a sale, there is an implied condition on the part of the seller that
he______________
A. Has a right to sell the goods.
B. Is in possession of the goods.
C. Will have the right to sell.
D. Will acquire the goods.
Answer: A

47. A condition is a stipulation which is__________


A. Essential to the main purpose of contract of sale.
B. Not essential to the main purpose of contract of sale.
C. Collateral to the main purpose of contract of sale.
D. Not mandatory.
Answer: A

48. In case of breach of a warranty, the buyer can__________


A. Cannot return the goods.
B. Repudiate the contract.
C. Return the goods.
D. Refuse to pay the price.
Answer: B

49. Insurance act was established_____________


A. 1938
B. 1939
C. 1940
D. 1941
Answer: A

50. Life insurance act was established ___________


A. 1956
B. 1957
C. 1958
D. 1940
Answer: A

51. The main objective of a contract of sale is _____________


A. Transfer of possession of goods.
B. Transfer of property in goods.
C. Delivery of goods.
D. Payment of price.
Answer: B

52. Risk follows ownership__________
A. Only when goods have been delivered.
B. Only when price has been paid.
C. Whether delivery has been made or not.
D. Even when price has not been paid.
Answer: A

53. In an agreement to sell, the seller gets for price if________


A. The goods have been delivered to the buyer.
B. The goods have not been delivered to the buyer.
C. There is specific agreement.
D. It is not a specific agreement.
Answer: C

54. In a contract of sale, unless goods are ascertained, there


is______________
A. A sale.
B. An agreement to sell.
C. A void agreement.
D. An unenforceable agreement.
Answer: B

55. Where there is an unconditional contract for the sale of specific goods in a
deliverable state, the property in the goods passes to the buyer
when_______________
A. The goods are delivered to the buyer.
B. The price is paid by the buyer.
C. The contract is made.
D. The buyer accepts the good.
Answer: C

56. If the contract is silent as to the party who is to appropriate the


goods__________
A. The buyer is to appropriate
B. Goods seller is to be appropriate.
C. The party who under the contract is first to act is to appropriate.
D. Any party may appropriate.
Answer: C

57. In a C.I.F., contract the property in goods passes from the seller to the
buyer when the______________
A. Goods are shipped
B. Goods are received by the buyer
C. Contract is entered into.
D. Price is paid.
Answer: A

58. There is a constructive delivery of goods_____________
A. a. When the seller hands over to the buyer the key of the warehouse where the goods are
lying.
B. a. Where a third person in possession of the goods acknowledged to the buyer that he
holds them on his behalf
C. When the seller physically delivers the goods to the buyers.
D. When the seller asks the buyer to take delivery of the goods.
Answer: B

59. The contractual capacity of a company is regulated by_____________.


A. its memorandum of association and the provision of the companies act, 1956.
B. the terms of contract entered into with a third party.
C. its article of association.
D. its prospectus.
Answer: A

60. A seller delivers goods in excess of the quantity ordered for. The buyer
may_________
A. Accept the whole
B. Rejects the whole.
C. Accept the goods ordered for and return the excess.
D. Accept the part of goods.
Answer: A

61. The sale of goods act was enacted during


A. 1930.
B. 1931.
C. c1932.
D. 1933
Answer: A

62. A contract of sale may be __________.


A. absolute only.
B. condition only.
C. absolute and conditional.
D. indemnity.
Answer: C

63. The term goods exclude_________.


A. stock and shares.
B. growing crops.
C. actionable claim.
D. services.
Answer: C

64. Which of the following is not an implied condition in a contract of sale


_________.

A. Condition as to title.
B. Condition as to description
C. Condition as to freedom from the encumbrance.
D. Condition as to a sample
Answer: C

65. Gives the buyer only a right to claim damages is known as___________.
A. condition.
B. guarantee.
C. warranty.
D. indemnity.
Answer: C

66. In a hire purchase agreement, the hirer ____________.


A. has an option to buy the goods.
B. must but the goods.
C. must return the goods.
D. is not given the possession of the goods
Answer: A

67. A contract for the sale of furniture goods is_____________.


A. sale.
B. agreement to sell.
C. void.
D. voidable.
Answer: B

68. The term, goods for the purpose of sale of goods act, does not include
_________.
A. money.
B. actionable claims.
C. immovable property.
D. all of these.
Answer: B

69. The sale of goods act, 1930 deals with_________.


A. movable goods only.
B. immovable goods only.
C. both movable and immovable goods
D. all goods except ornaments.
Answer: A

70. An unpaid seller has not given notice of resale to the buyer. On the resale
there is a loss____________.
A. the unpaid seller can recover it from the buyer.
B. the unpaid seller cannot recover it from the buyer
C. the buyer can recover it from an unpaid seller.

D. the buyer must compensate the unpaid seller.
Answer: B

71. If the goods are rejected by the buyer and the carrier or the bailee
continuous to be in possession of them the transit ________.
A. is deemed to be an end.
B. is not deemed to be an end.
C. commences.
D. not yet commences.
Answer: B

72. An unpaid seller can excise the right of stoppage in transit when the carrier
holds the goods ____________.
A. as sellers agent.
B. as buyer s agent.
C. as agent of both of them.
D. in his own name.
Answer: D

73. The right of lien excised by an unpaid seller is to ___________.


A. retain possession.
B. regain possession.
C. recovery price and other charges.
D. Damages.
Answer: A

74. An unpaid seller can excises his rights of lien ___________.


A. where the goods have been sold on credit and terms of credit has not expired
B. where the buyer has not become insolvent.
C. for the price of the goods.
D. for the price of the goods and expenses.
Answer: C

75. The lien of an unpaid seller depends on _____________.


A. possession.
B. title.
C. ownership.
D. possession and ownership.
Answer: A

76. Where the neglected or refusal of the buyer to take delivery of goods
amounts to a repudiation of the
contract, the seller may sue for the __________.
A. price of damages.
B. price only.
C. damages only.

D. both for price and damages.
Answer: A

77. A seller delivers goods in excess of the quantity ordered for. The buyer
may_______.
A. accept the whole.
B. reject the whole.
C. accept the goods ordered for and returns.
D. accept the part of goods.
Answer: A

78. Unless otherwise agreed, where goods are sent by the seller to the buyer by
a route involving a sea transit of the seller____
A. must inform the buyer in time to get the goods insured
B. may insure the goods.
C. must insure the goods.
D. no need to insure the goods.
Answer: A

79. When there is n specific agreement as to place, the goods sold are to be
delivered at the place__________.
A. at which they are at the time of sale.
B. of the buyer.
C. decide by the seller.
D. to be determined by the seller.
Answer: A

80. There is a constrictive delivery of goods ___________.


A. when the seller hands over to the buyer to the key of warehouse where the goods are lying
B. where a third person in possession of the goods acknowledgement to the buyer that he
holds them on his behalf.
C. when the seller physically delivers the goods
D. possession and ownership
Answer: B

81. Where there is a contract for the sale of unascertained goods, the property
in goods___________.
A. passes when the buyer pays the price.
B. does not pass until the goods are ascertained .
C. when the contract is entered into.
D. when the buyer accepts the goods.
Answer: B

82. where there is an unconditional contract for the sale of specific goods in a
deliverable state, the property in the goods passes to the buyer
when________.
A. the goods are delivered to the buyer.

B. the price is paid by the buyer.
C. the contract is made.
D. the buyer accepts the goods.
Answer: C

83. In an agreement to sell, the seller can sue for price if_____________.
A. the goods have been delivered to the buyer.
B. the goods have not been delivered to the buyer.
C. there is a specific agreement.
D. there is a general agreement.
Answer: C

84. Risk follows ownership ___________.


A. only when goods have been delivered .
B. only when price has been paid.
C. whether delivery has been made or not.
D. even when the price has not been paid.
Answer: C

85. How many parties are there to a Promissory note?


A. Two parties
B. one party
C. four parties
D. five parties
Answer: C

86. The main objective of a contract of sale is ______________.


A. transfer of possession of goods.
B. transfer of property in goods from seller to buyer.
C. delivery of goods.
D. Payment of price.
Answer: B

87. Public Law is divided into ________ categories?


A. three
B. four
C. two
D. none of these
Answer: B

88. In the case of breach of a warranty, the buyers can __________.


A. repudiate the contract.
B. claim damage only.
C. refuses to pay the price.
D. refuses to take the delivery of the goods.
Answer: B

89. A condition is a stipulation which is____________.
A. essential to the main purpose of contract of sale.
B. not essential to the main purpose of the contract of sale.
C. collateral to the main purpose of contract of sale .
D. additional security.
Answer: A

90. In a sale, there is an implied condition on the part of the seller that he
__________.
A. Has right to sell the goods.
B. Is in position of the goods.
C. Will have the right to sell.
D. Has the right to sell the goods
Answer: A

91. If sale is by sample as well as by description, the implied condition is that


the goods shall correspond with ____________.
A. sample.
B. description.
C. both sample and description.
D. either sample or description.
Answer: C

92. The doctrine of caveat emptor applies______________


A. When the buyer does not intimate the purpose to the seller and depends upon his own
skill and judgment
B. In case of implied conditions and warranties.
C. When goods are sold by sample.
D. When goods are sold by description.
Answer: B

93. If a price is not determined by the parties in a contract of sale, the buyer is
bound to pay________________
A. The price demanded by the seller
B. A reasonable price
C. The price which the buyer thinks is reasonable.
D. The price to be determined by a third independent person
Answer: B

94. The term property as used in the Sale of Goods Act, 1930
means_____________
A. Possession.
B. Ownership.
C. Ownership and possession both.
D. The subject matter of contract of sale.
Answer: B

95. In a sale, if the goods are destroyed, the loss falls on________________
A. The buyer.
B. The seller.
C. Partly on the buyer and partly on the seller
D. The seller if price has not been paid.
Answer: A

96. In a sale, the property in goods_____________________


A. Is transferred to the buyer.
B. Maybe transferred at a future time.
C. Is transferred when the buyer pays the price.
D. b. Is transferred when goods are delivered to the buyer.
Answer: A

97. A who purchases certain goods from B by a misrepresentation pledges


them with C. the pledge is _________________
A. valid
B. void
C. voidable
D. invalid
Answer: B

98. A bailee fails to return the goods according to the bailers direction. He
takes reasonable care of the goods but still the goods are lost. The loss will fall
on____________________
A. the bailee
B. the bailer
C. on both of them
D. neither of them
Answer: A

99. If the goods of the bailer get missed up with the like goods of the bailer by
the act of god, the mixture belongs to the bailer and the bailer in proportion to
their shares but the cost of separation will have to be borne
by_____________
A. the bailee
B. the bailer
C. both of them in proportion to the value of their goods
D. Third party
Answer: A

100. The gratuitous bailer is liable to the bailer for the defects in the goods
bailed_______________
A. Even if he is not aware of them
B. Only if he is aware of them
C. In all cases of loss

D. In certain case of loss
Answer: B

101. The position of a finder of lost goods is that of a ______________


A. Bailer
B. Bailee
C. Surety
D. Principal debtors
Answer: A

102. A bailer is a _________


A. a right of a particular lien over the goods bailed
B. a right of generation
C. a right of both particular and general lien
D. no lien at all over the goods bailed
Answer: A

103. S and P go into a shop. S says to the shopkeeper, C let P have the goods and
if he does not pay you I will. This is a __________
A. contract of guarantee
B. Contract of indemnity
C. Wagering contract
D. Quasi-contract
Answer: A

104. The contract of indemnity is a _____________


A. Contingent contract
B. Wagering contract
C. Quasi-contract
D. Void agreement
Answer: A

105. Ordinary damages are damages which _____________


A. Arise in the usual course of things from the breach
B. Which are in the contemplation of the parties at the time when the contract is made?
C. Are agreed in advance
D. Are given by way of punishment for breach of contract
Answer: A

106. In case of wrongful dishonour of a cherub by a banker having sufficient


fund to the credit of the customer, the court nay award
A. Ordinary damage
B. Nominal damage
C. Exemplary damage
D. Contemptuous damages
Answer: C

107. Anticipatory breach of a contract takes place _____________
A. During the performance of the contract
B. At the time when the performance is due
C. Before the performance is due
D. At the time when the contract is entered into
Answer: C

108. The case of Hadely Bv. Baxendale (1854) 8 Ex .Ch 341 deals with
A. Anticipatory breach of contract
B. Quantum of damages
C. Supervening impossibility
D. Quasi-contract
Answer: B

109. The measure of damages in case of breach of a contract is the difference


between the _______________.
A. contract price and the market price at the date of breach.
B. contract price when the maximum market price during the terms of the contract.
C. contract and the price at which the plane tiff might have sold the goods.
D. contract price and the price fixed by the court.
Answer: A

110. Specific performance may be ordered by the court when


______________.
A. the contract is voidable.
B. the damages are an adequate remedy.
C. the damages are not an adequate remedy.
D. the contract is uncertain.
Answer: C

111. The foundation of modern law damages was laid down in


___________________.
A. Tinn v. Hoffman.
B. Taylor v. Caldwell.
C. Hadley v. Baxendale.
D. Addis v. Gramophone co.
Answer: C

112. The court may grant rescission were the contract is __________.
A. voidable at the option of the plaintiff
B. void.
C. unenforceable.
D. illegal.
Answer: A

113. A undertakes to paint a picture of B. he die before he paints the picture.


The contract ________.

A. is discharged by death
B. becomes voidable at the options of b.
C. becomes of voidable at the options of legal representatives of a.
D. will have to performed by legal representatives of A.
Answer: A

114. The case of Satyabrata Ghose V. Mugneeram Bangur and co., (195d. SC 44)
deals with__________
A. agreement opposed to public policy.
B. supervening impossibility.
C. contract of guarantee.
D. agencies.
Answer: A

115. A creditor agrees with his debtors and a third party to accept that the third
as his third patty as debtor the contract is discharged by ________________.
A. alteration.
B. waiver.
C. rescission.
D. performance.
Answer: B

116. Were a contact could not be performed because of the default by a third
party on whose work the promiser relied, it ______________.
A. it is not discharged.
B. is discharged.
C. becomes void.
D. becomes voidable.
Answer: A

117. A contract has become more difficult of performance due to some


uncontemplated events or delays. The contract______________.
A. is discharged.
B. is not discharged.
C. becomes void.
D. becomes voidable.
Answer: B

118. A lends Rs 500 to B. he later tells B that he need not repay the amount, the
contract is discharged by __________.
A. breach
B. waiver.
C. notation.
D. performance.
Answer: B


119. The case of Taylor V. Coldwell, (188c. 3 B & S. 8b.6) deals with.
A. Discharge of contract by destruction of subject matter.
B. Anticipatory breach of contract
C. Discharge of contract by death of a party
D. Breach of contract.
Answer: A

120. If a new contract is substituted in place of an existing contract, it is


called________.
A. alteration.
B. rescission.
C. novation.
D. waiver.
Answer: C

121. An agreement to do an act impossible in itself_________.


A. is void.
B. is voidable.
C. is void ab initial.
D. becomes void when impossibility is discovered
Answer: A

122. If a contract contains an undertaking to perform impossibility, the


contract is __________.
A. void ab initio.
B. void.
C. voidable at the option of the plaintiff
D. illegal.
Answer: A

123. Owing to a strike in the factory of A, he is not able to supply the goods to B
as per the terms of the agreement. The agreement in such a case
A. discharged.
B. is not discharged.
C. becomes void.
D. is voidable
Answer: A

124. A who ooze 10,000 to B dies living and estate of Rs 6,000. The legal
representatives of A are _______________.
A. liable for rs 10,000.
B. liable for rs 6,000.
C. no liable at all.
D. liable for Rs 3,000.
Answer: B


125. Assignment by operation of law takes place_______________.
A. by the mutual consent of the parties.
B. by the will of either party.
C. when the subject matter of a contract cases to exist.
D. by the death of a party to a contract.
Answer: D

126. When two or more persons have made a joint promise, then unless a
contrary intention appears from the contract all such person must fulfil the
promise__________.
A. jointly.
B. severally.
C. jointly and severally.
D. jointly or severally.
Answer: A

127. Where the deports does not expressly intimate or were the circumstances
attending on the payment do not indicate any intention, the creditor
__________.
A. may apply it top any lawful debt due.
B. may apply it even to a time-barred debt.
C. it is not apply it even to a time-barred debt.
D. no loss.
Answer: A

128. When a party to a contract transfers his contractual rights to another, it is


known as_________.
A. rescission of contract.
B. waiver of contract.
C. discharge of contract
D. assignment of contract
Answer: D

129. Sale of goods for cash is an example of__________.


A. mutual and independent promises.
B. mutual and dependent promises.
C. mutual and contract promises.
D. conditional and dependent promises.
Answer: C

130. When the promisee refuses to accept performance from the promiser who
offers to perform, it is __________.
A. attempted performance
B. vicarious performance.
C. tender.
D. frustration of contract.
Answer: A

131. Each party is a promisor and a promise in case of
A. Past consideration.
B. Present consideration
C. Every contract.
D. Reciprocal promises.
Answer: D

132. Promises forming consideration for each other are known as


A. Independent promises.
B. Dependent promises.
C. Reciprocal promises.
D. Mutual promises.
Answer: C

133. The case of Nordenfelt V. Maxim Nordenfelt Gun Co., (190d.b.9 B.L.R 107
deals with.
A. Agreements in restraint of legal proceedings.
B. Minors agreement.
C. Agreements in restraint of trade.
D. Agreements in restraint of marriage.
Answer: C

134. An employee, by the terms of his service agreement, is prevented from


accepting a similar engagement after the termination of service. The restraint
is __________.
A. valid.
B. void.
C. illegal.
D. unenforceable.
Answer: B

135. Regulation as to the opening and closeting of business in a market are


A. Not unlawful even if they are in restraint of trade.
B. Unlawful because they are restraint of trade.
C. Void.
D. Not valid.
Answer: A

136. Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as a matter of
fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is
A. void.
B. voidable.
C. illegal.
D. not affected at all.
Answer: A


137. Where consent is caused by fraud or misrepresentation, the contract is
_____________.
A. voidable at the option of the aggrieved party.
B. void.
C. unenforceable.
D. not affected in any manner.
Answer: A

138. Flaw of capacity to contract may arise from _____________.


A. want of consideration.
B. unsoundness of mind.
C. illegality of object.
D. uncertainty of object.
Answer: B

139. Where there is no specific agreement as to place, the goods sold are to be
delivered at the place______________
A. At which they are at the time of sale.
B. To be determined by the seller
C. Desired by the buyer.
D. Of the buyer.
Answer: A

140. Contracts made before war with an alien enemy which are against public
policy are _____________.
A. suspended and are revived after the war is over.
B. dissolved.
C. not affected at all.
D. void ab initio.
Answer: B

141. A contract by an idiot is_____________.


A. voidable.
B. enforceable.
C. invalid.
D. void ab initio.
Answer: D

142. A person is usually of unsound mind, but occasionally of sound


mind_____________.
A. he may enter into a contract when he is of sound mind.
B. he may not make a contract when even when he is of sound mind.
C. he cannot enter into a contract at all.
D. he can enter all the time.
Answer: A


143. A minor enters into a contract for the purchase of certain necessaries. In
such a case_____________.
A. he is not personally liable to pay.
B. he is liable to pay.
C. his estate is liable to pay.
D. his guardian is liable to pay.
Answer: C

144. A minor, by misrepresenting his age, borrows some


money_____________.
A. he can be sued for fraud.
B. he cannot be sued for fraud.
C. he is liable to return the money.
D. he is not liable to return the money.
Answer: B

145. On attaining the age of majority a minors agreement _____________.


A. can be ratified by him.
B. cannot be ratified by him.
C. becomes void.
D. becomes valid.
Answer: B

146. An agreement with or by a minor is _____________.


A. void.
B. voidable at the option of the minor.
C. voidable at the option of the other party.
D. valid.
Answer: A

147. A promise to subscribe to a charity. The promise is a _____________.


A. voidable contract.
B. void agreement.
C. void contract.
D. valid contract.
Answer: C

148. An agreement made with out consideration is _____________.


A. valid.
B. illegal.
C. voidable.
D. void.
Answer: D

149. Consideration in a contract _____________.


A. may be past, present, or future.
B. may be present or future only.

C. must be present only.
D. must be future only.
Answer: A

150. A person who is not a party to contract _____________.


A. cannot sue.
B. can sue.
C. can sue only in well- recognized cases.
D. can sue under contract of guarantee.
Answer: C

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