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Political Science
A COLLECTION OF HIGHLY USEFUL
QUESTIONS FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS
by
D.S. TIWARI
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ISBN: 978-93-5012-789-6
SECTION-A
13. Guild and Palmer strongly pleaded that the (b) Polis, Polity, Politeia
subject of politics should be : (c) Polity, Political, Polis
(a) The political parties (d) Politeia, Pol, Polis
(b) To secure obedience 22. Buckle said that “in the present state of
(c) Negative knowledge, politics, far from being a science,
(d) Power instead of the state is the most -------- of all arts”.
14. The Father of modern sociology, A. Comte, (a) Forward (b) Efficient
portrayed society as a potentially harmonious (c) Backward (d) Obedient
and ordered structure in which all social 23. Leacock says that w ithout at least an
classes unconscious political science, ------ will lose
(a) worked for social change
its main significance.
(b) worked for the common good
(a) Geography (b) Economics
(c) worked for the individual
(c) Sociology (d) History
(d) worked for capitalists
24. Who conceived sociology as the all-inclusive
15. Socialist states are based on marxian ideology
Social Science?
and are known as the :
(a) Lenin (b) August Comte
(a) Blue world (b) Green world
(c) Lipson (d) Garner
(c) Red world (d) Yellow world
25. W.H.R. Rivers in his psychology and politics
16. W hich one of the follow ing pairs is
and Harold Lasswell in his psychopathology
mismatched?
and politics present a study of politics based
(a) Fascism — Mussolini
on :
(b) Anarchism — Bakunin
(a) Political premises
(c) Socialism — Thomas Moore
(b) Economic premises
(d) Pluralism — Kropotkin
(c) Psychological premises
17. Who has used the concept of “hegemony”? (d) Social premises
(a) Laski (b) MacIver
26. Who among the following appreciated the
(c) Gramsci (d) Marx
normative aspect of man’s life in politics?
18. “Politics is struggle for power” was said by (a) Kant, Hegel, Green
(a) Morgenthau (b) Quincy Wright (b) Garner, Joad, Bryce
(c) Sprout (d) Thomson (c) Barker, Catlin, Wilson
19. Kautilya wrote his Arthasastra on the subject (d) Seeley, Garner, Lipset
of : 27. In Sociology the unit of investigation is the :
(a) History (b) Practical politics (a) Conscious (b) Socius
(c) Religion (d) Science (c) Ardous (d) Data
20. Lord James Bryce is considered to be the best 28. Charles Merriam, Lasswell and Morgenthau
advocate of the : have preferred to make politics free from all
(a) Experimental method ------ considerations
(b) Historical method (a) Social (b) Ethical
(c) Observational method (c) Political (d) Psychological
(d) Comparative method 29. Plato and modern idealists have accepted the
21. The English word ‘politics’ originates from state as a/an ------ institution.
three Greek words like : (a) Social (b) Economic
(a) Polis, Polity, Politico (c) Ethical (d) Political
Introduction 5
30. According to traditional view, political 38. Lasswell defined political science as “an
science is a study of the ------ in its past, empirical discipline, as the study of the
present and future aspects. shaping and sharing of power” in his book
(a) Government (b) Society (a) Modern Democracies
(c) State (d) Power (b) Power and Society
31. Lord Bryce claims that “Political Science (c) Politics and the Social Sciences
stands midway between -------- and -------- (d) Elements of Politics
between the past and the present”. 39. W ho am ong the follow ing applied the
(a) Sociology, History concept of culture to the study of social
(b) History, Politics systems and presented the famous four fold
(c) History, Geography functional analysis of the social systems?
(d) Sociology, Psychology (a) Giddings (b) Talcott Parsons
32. According to Weber, -------- actions are (c) Lipset (d) Max Weber
motivated by the desire to acquire more and 40. According to --------, “the application of the
more ------ psychological clue to the reddles of human
(a) Political, rights (b) Human, power activity has indeed become the fashion of the
(c) Social, freedom (d) Economic, power day. If our forefathers thought biologically,
33. Plato considered politics a sub-division of we think psychologically”.
(a) Political Science (b) Sociology (a) Wallas (b) Woodworth
(c) Ethics (d) History (c) Bryce (d) Ernest Barker
34. Who among the following was the first writer 41. Who among the following sociologists has
in the western world who sharply separated made influential contributions in the field of
politics from ethics? political science?
(a) Plato (b) Heymans (a) Durkheim (b) Parsons
(c) Machiavelli (d) Foy (c) Merton (d) All of the above
35. A study of psychology, particularly of ------ 42. Which of the following is the study and story
psychology, is of inestimable value to the of man’s march towards political growth and
student of Political Science. development of social, economic and cultural
(a) Ethical (b) Social institutions and organisations?
(c) Economic (d) Historical
(a) Sociology (b) Philosophy
36. Who among the following said that “True (c) History (d) Anthropology
politics cannot take a single step forward
43. President Lowell considered politics ‘a/an ---
unless it has first done homage to morals”?
and not an experimental science’.
(a) Acton (b) Lasswell
(c) Kant (d) Gettell (a) Moral (b) Observational
(c) Social (d) All of the above
37. According to Kautilya, the principles of
morality : 44. According to August Comte, the principal
(a) Should not be taken into consideration methods by which political phenomena can
in politics be collected and classified include :
(b) Should be taken into consideration in (a) Observation (b) Experiment
politics (c) Comparison (d) All of the above
(c) Are the quintessence of politics 45. In the words of Sidgwick, “ ------- cannot
(d) None of the above determine the ultimate end and standard of
6 Objective Political Science
good and bad, right and wrong, in political among the follow ing gave the above
institutions”. definition of the politics?
(a) Sociology (b) History (a) Ernest Barker (b) Ernest Benn
(c) Psychology (d) Politics (c) Frederick Pollock (d) David Easton
46. Match List I with List II and select the correct 52. Which of the following pairs are correct?
answer using the codes given below the lists : 1. Jellinek : Political Science and
List I List II Government
A. Hegel 1. Juridical 2. Gilchrist : Principles of Political
B. Austin 2. Sociological Science
C. MacIver 3. Descriptive 3. Pollock : A n Introduction to the
D. Garner 4. Metaphysical History of the Science of
Codes : Politics
A B C D 4. Francis : Games Nations Play
(a) 1 2 3 4 Fucuyama
(b) 4 1 2 3
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(c) Only 1 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 4 1 3 2
53. Match List I (Definitions) with List II
47. Who among the following regarded political
(Authors) and select the correct answer using
science a sub-division of ethics and the
function of the state was to produce virtuous the codes given below the lists :
people? List I List II
(a) Aristotle (b) Socrates A. Politics is both a 1. David Easton
(c) Plato (d) Garner science and an art
B. Politics is the 2. Lasswell and
48. Who among the following emphasized the
authoritative Kaplan
sociological evolution of the state and
allocation of values
political institutions?
that are binding on
(a) Henry (b) Morgan
(c) Laski (d) Both (a) and (b) the society
C. Politics is the study 3. Michael Curtis
49. The philosophy that stands diametrically of the shaping and
opposite to liberalism is— sharing of power
(a) Individualism (b) Capitalism
D. Politics is organised 4. Treztschke
(c) Marxism (d) Fascism
dispute about power
50. In which of the following, the Departments of and its use
Political Science and Econom ics are Codes :
combined together? A B C D
(a) London School of Econom ics and (a) 1 3 4 2
Political Science (b) 4 1 2 3
(b) Canadian School of Economics and (c) 4 1 3 2
Political Science
(d) 3 4 1 2
(c) American School of Economics and
Political Science 54. What philosophy is to the mental sciences,
(d) Both (a) and (b) sociology is to the social sciences?
1. Both possess an all embracing character
51. “The art of looking for trouble, finding it
2. Philosophy and Sociology are sister
whether it exists or not, diagnosing it wrongly
and applying the wrong remedy”. Who subjects
Introduction 7
65. The work ‘Power and Society’ is co-authored 73. The Famous ‘Fourfold Functional analysis of
by : the social system is made by :
(a) Greenstein, Polsby and Nelson (a) Gabriel Almond (b) Sidney Verba
(b) Rieselbach and Balds (c) James Coleman (d) Talcott Parsons
(c) Girth and Mills
(d) Harold Lasswell and Abraham Kaplan 74. A Scientific Sociological evolution of the
state has been discussed by :
66. The two remarks – “Political science is the (a) MacIver in the Modern State
science of state” and “Political science begins (b) Engels in Anti-Duhring
and ends with the state” have, respectively
(c) MacIver in the Web of Government
been made by :
(d) Engels in the Origin of the Family,
(a) Garner and Gilchrist
Private Property and the State
(b) Laski and Gilchrist
(c) Gettel and Laski 75. Who among the following has underlined the
(d) Gettel and Garner importance of non-governmental factors for
67. The Keynote of liberalism is – the explanation of political reality?
(a) Individual (a) Ralph Miliband
(b) Liberty (b) Durkheim
(c) Liberty of the individual (c) Francis G. Castles
(d) Personality (d) Antonio Gramsci
68. According to Marx, Politics is : 76. Which among the following are the scholars
(a) A devise to enhance class contradictions who have sought to give Psychological
(b) An instrument of class domination explanations of Political problems?
(c) A mode of ensuring social harmony (a) Mosca, Mills and Michaels
(d) A process aim ed at w elfare of the (b) Barker and Laski
dominant class (c) Graham Wallas, Trade and Le Bon
69. The work ‘Marxism and Politics’ is authored (d) Aristotle and Plato
by : 77. While analysing social conflicts who said that
(a) N. Poulantzas (b) C. Wright Mills behind struggle there is a “castration
(c) Ralph Miliband (d) Antonio Gramsci complex”?
70. Who held the view that society is federal in (a) Abraham Kaplan
character? (b) Lasswell
(a) MacIver (b) Laski (c) Walter Begehot
(c) Bentham (d) Hannah Arendt (d) Lord Bryce
71. Who made the statement that, “in the present 78. Who among the following held the view that
state of knowledge, politics far from being a without geography neither political nor
science is one of the most backward of all
strategical wisdom can go for?
arts”?
(a) Socrates
(a) Henry Maine (b) Roucek
(b) Plato
(c) Buckle (d) Maitland
(c) Aristotle
72. The present sociological impact on the study (d) All of the above
of Political Science can be traced back to :
(a) Gaetamo Mosca 79. Who among the following emphasised the
(b) Max Weber influence of Physical environments on the
(c) Vilfredo Pareto forms of government and liberty of the
(d) Alasdair MacIntyre people?
Introduction 9
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (c) (c) (c) (b)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(b) (c) (d) (b) (c) (d) (c) (a) (b) (c)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(b) (c) (d) (b) (c) (a) (b) (b) (c) (c)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(b) (b) (c) (c) (b) (c) (a) (b) (b) (d)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(d) (c) (b) (d) (b) (b) (c) (d) (c) (d)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(b) (d) (b) (a) (b) (c) (d) (c) (d) (d)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(d) (c) (b) (a) (d) (d) (b) (b) (c) (b)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(c) (b) (d) (d) (c) (c) (b) (c) (a) (b)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(c) (a) (c) (c) (d) (c) (a) (b) (b) (c)
MEANING OF POLITICS
1. Robert Michels showed how ‘democratic 8. Bernard Crick thinks that non-political
parties’ are really : conservatives, apolitical libera’s and anti-
(a) Absurd Structures political socialists do not know how to
(b) Oligarchical Structures practise the art of :
(c) Economic Structures (a) Democracy (b) Politics
(d) Authoritarian Structures (c) Government (d) Sociology
2. Who among the following is one of the 9. Marx approaches the question of politics from
advocates of the power theory in politics? the point of view of :
(a) Catlin (b) Kaplan (a) Political Change
(c) Lasswell (d) All of the above (b) Cultural Change
(c) Social Change
3. Who founded the structural-functional school
(d) Administrative Change
in political science?
(a) Apter (b) Coleman 10. In Marxist view of politics, conflict is inherent
(c) Plato (d) Both (a) and (b) in the objective situation of the :
(a) Social System
4. Political Socialisation is the process of (b) Class System
induction into the political culture and the (c) Political System
psychological dimension of the : (d) Economic System
(a) Socio-economic System
(b) Political System 11. In the last decades of which Century, politics
(c) Economic System was established as a separate and distinct
(d) Social System subject?
(a) Twentieth Century
5. Who defines the political system as the (b) Nineteenth Century
“institutions, processes and interactions (c) Eighteenth Century
through which values are authoritatively (d) Seventeenth Century
allocated in a society”? 12. Greek philosophers never made a distinction
(a) Almond (b) Easton between the :
(c) Apter (d) Pye (a) Government and State
6. The liberal view of politics is based on the (b) State and Society
assumption that human beings are basically : (c) Government and Society
(a) Independent (b) Egoistic (d) Politics and Government
(c) Traditional (d) Modern 13. Who said that the State is a Union of Families
7. The liberal view of politics is quite compatible and Villages having for its end Perfect and
with : Self-sufficient life?
(a) Conservatism (b) Marxism (a) Aristotle (b) Plato
(c) Fascism (d) Nazism (c) Pollock (d) Marx
11
12 Objective Political Science
14. Who among the following opined that life is (c) Marxist
a “perpetual and restless desire for power after (d) Behaviouralistic
power which ceases only in death”? 22. The functionalist view of politics is professed
(a) Aristotle (b) Nietzsche by :
(c) Hobbes (d) Lasswell (a) David Easton (b) Almond
15. Who was the first great political thinker who (c) Talcott Parsons (d) All of the above
recognized the distinctive quality of politics
23. Who propounded the elitist theory?
as one of the basic human activities?
(a) Mosca (b) Robert Dahl
(a) Plato (b) Aristotle
(c) Lasswell (d) Catlin
(c) Bernard Crick (d) David E. Apter
24. Liberalism coincides with the tradition of
16. Which notion characterizes the core of
thought beginning with :
Marxist view of politics?
(a) John Locke (b) Rousseau
(a) The notion of class consciousness
(c) Hobbes (d) Marx
(b) The notion of class conflict
(c) The notion of class determination 25. The liberal view of politics upholds the
(d) The notion of ruling class pluralistic view of :
(a) Economy (b) Polity
17. Who wrote the book ‘In Defence of Politics’?
(a) Stephen Wasby (c) State (d) Society
(b) Pareto 26. According to the Marxist point of view ------
(c) Mosca are the motive force behind all politics.
(d) Bernard Crick (a) Individual interests
18. W ho founded the historical school of (b) Social interests
jurisprudence? (c) Conflicting economic interests
(a) Eichorn and Savigny (d) Ruling class interests
(b) John W. Burgess 27. The difficulty with the liberal approach is that
(c) Francis Lieber it fails to distinguish between :
(d) John Hopkings (a) Compromise and cooperation
(b) State and Society
19. Which of the following systems of political
(c) Society and government
analysis puts emphasis on legal and historical
(d) Compromise and Community
analysis, descriptive and comparative methods
and interest group theory? 28. Behavioural approach to the study of politics
(a) Political philosophy insists on studying the actual behaviour of
(b) Behaviourlism human beings in a :
(c) Pluralism (a) Social Situation
(d) Institutionalism (b) Political Situation
20. Who was the founder of the philosophical (c) Particular Situation
approach to politics? (d) Crisis Situation
(a) Plato (b) Aristotle 29. W hich approach insists on m aking the
(c) Hobbes (d) Both (a) and (b) achievements of political science subservient
21. Which view of politics suggests that political to human values and ends?
institutions realize philosophical ideals in (a) Historical approach
governmental practices? (b) Modern approach
(a) Institutionalistic (c) Traditional approach
(b) Pluralistic (d) Post-behavioural approach
Meaning of Politics 13
30. Contem porary political science gives contribution to the behavioural revolution.
prominence to : (a) Myron Weiner (b) Sidney Verba
(a) Modern approach (c) David Apter (d) All of the above
(b) Empirical approach 37. W hich of the follow ing is not correct
(c) Historical approach regarding behaviouralism?
(d) Institutional approach (a) It is a sort of a protest movement against
31. -------- was an Italian marxist and pioneer of the inadequacies of conventional political
neo-marxism. science
(a) MacIver (b) Gramsci (b) It has made the individual the centre of
(c) Miliband (d) Lenin attention in the study of political
32. Who were probably the first to develop a new phenomena
approach in social science which could be (c) It lays emphasis on traditional outlook
called a system atic interdisciplinary (d) It is pragmatic, catholic and eclectic
approach? 38. Which of the following is one of the criticisms
(a) Dyke and Weldon made against behaviouralism?
(b) Marx and Engels (a) The quantification of political phenomena
(c) Marx and A. Ball is an unattainable goal
(d) Popper and Dahl (b) It is not possible to apply methodology
33. Which one of the following is not the chief of the natural sciences to the study of
requisite of the empirical approach? human behaviour
(a) It deals with observable facts and data (c) Value neutrality position is untenable
(b) It aims at explanation (d) All of the above
(c) It tends to make predictions 39. The pioneer of the communication theory was :
(d) It deals with human values (a) Jean Blondel (b) Deutsch
34. Which of the following statement is correct? (c) Robert Weiner (d) O.R. Young
(a) The traditional view of politics deal with 40. Prof. MacIver has analysed the nature of the
the study of state and government in their state from the point of view of a sociologist
various aspects in his book :
(b) Traditional thinking was characterised by (a) The Nature of Politics
a normative orientation (b) Sociology and Political Theory
(c) Traditional approach can be sub-divided (c) The Modern State
into philosophical, institutional, (d) Principles of Sociology
historical, evolutionary and legal
approaches 41. Who was one of the first among the modern
(d) All of the above political scientists to challenge the traditional
approaches?
35. Who among the following viewed that the
(a) Freud (b) Lasswell
institutional approach is concerned with the
(c) Bernard Crick (d) Charles Merriam
study of the central governmental institutions
and their legal aspects and opinions? 42. Who is known for treating politics as a policy
(a) Almond and Powell science?
(b) Strauss and Merriam (a) Marx (b) Mosca
(c) Macridis and Dyke (c) Michels (d) Lasswell
(d) Dahl and Easton 43. Match List I with List II and select the correct
36. The works of -------- made a substantial answer using the codes given below the lists :
14 Objective Political Science
(c) The advent of systems theory 81. The concept of ‘incremental change’ is
(d) The revolutionary change in the thinking attributed to :
of the American Political Scientists (a) Karl Popper (b) Hannah Arendt
74. The oldest approach to politics is : (c) C.B. Macpherson (d) Alan R. Ball
(a) Historical-Evolutionary approach 82. Who among the following has built a neo-
(b) Legal approach Marxist theory of freedom?
(c) Institutional approach (a) Louis Althusser (b) Ralph Miliband
(d) Philosophical approach (c) Herbert Marcuse (d) George Lukas
75. The Chief advocate of the Philosophical 83. Who among the following have – criticized
approach was : the historical approach to political analysis?
(a) Vermon Van Dyke (a) Hobbes and Locke
(b) Socrates (b) Sidgwick and Barker
(c) J.J. Rousseau (c) Maxey and Sabine
(d) Leo Strauss
(d) Lenin and Mao
76. “Philosophy, is the quest for wisdom and
84. The Historical-Evolutionary approach has
political philosophy is the attempt truly to
been employed by Several Scholars. In this
know about the nature of Political things and
context, match List I (Books) with List II
the right or the good Political order”.
(Scholars) and select the correct answer from
The above statement is attributed to :
(a) R.H.S. Crossman (b) Karl Popper the codes given below the lists :
(c) Leo Strauss (d) Macpherson List I (Books) List II (Scholars)
A. Ancient Law 1. John Seeley
77. John Rawls revived the notion of negotiators B. The state and the 2. E.M. Sait
to build his theory of justice. The nation of Nation
‘rational negotiators’ originally belonged to :
C. Political Institutions 3. Henry Maine
(a) Hegel (b) Kant
D. Introduction to 4. Edward Jenkes
(c) Nietzsche (d) Kafka
Political Science
78. Who among the following developed his Codes :
theory of rights on moral grounds and sought A B C D
to limit the authority of the state? (a) 4 3 1 2
(a) John Locke (b) 3 4 1 2
(b) John Stuart Mill (c) 4 2 1 3
(c) Thomas Hill Green (d) 3 4 2 1
(d) Immanuel Kant
85. He has castigated the traditional approach to
79. Leo Strauss, a champion of the Philosophical
Political analysis for its em phasis on
approach to political analysis is critical of :
historicism and has warned against living
(a) Idealism of Hegel and Green
“parasitically on ideas a century old”.
(b) Utilitarianism of Bentham and Mill
(a) Gabriel Almond (b) Marian Levi
(c) Hedonism of David Hume
(c) David Easton (d) Sydney Webb
(d) Historicism of Sabine and politivism of
Catlin 86. He has built theory of democracy by reverting
80. Who among the following has built up a to Aristotle and J.S. Mill while rejecting
classic defence of libertarianism? Bentham ’s utilitarianism and the
(a) Karl Popper (b) F.A. Hayek contemporary elitism of Schumpeter and
(c) C.B. Macpherson (d) John Rawals Dahl. He is :
Meaning of Politics 17
97. He was a pioneer of the behavioural approach 103. David Easton has enumerated seven major
to political analysis. He Sought to introduce characteristics of post-behaviouralism and has
a new findings of contemporary psychology. described them as :
He was : (a) Theory of Organisation
(a) Arthur Bentley (b) Charles Merriam (b) Credo of pertinence
(c) Graham Wallas (d) Harold Lasswell (c) Doctrine of value-relativism
98. The author of ‘Science and Method of (d) Credo of Relevance
Politics’ is : 104. W ho am ong the follow ing earliest
(a) William Munro (b) Kirk Patrick behaviouralists sought not to describe political
(c) G.E.G. Catlin (d) Morgan activity but to provide for new tools of
99. The Key-words of post-behaviouralism are : investigation?
(a) Methodology and action (a) Harold Lasswell (b) G.E.G. Catlin
(b) Relevance and action (c) Arthur Bentley (d) Graham Wallas
(c) Predictability and relevance 105. Charles M erriam , the pioneer of the
(d) Analysis and action behavioural approach of the Chicago School
100. Who defined behaviouralism as “a protest authored :
movement with in political science associated (a) Science and Method of Politics
with a number of political scientists mainly (b) Political Power and Social Change
American”? (c) New Aspects of Politics
(a) Heinz Eulau (b) David Truman (d) Institutions and Processes
(c) Robert A. Dahl (d) Graham Wallas 106. Who among the following argued that the rise
101. Match List I (Behaviouralists) with List II of behaviouralism was symptomatic of a crisis
(Books) and select the correct answer from in political theory – because of its failure to
the codes given below the lists : come to grip with normative issues?
List I List II (a) Eric Voegelin (b) Leo Strauss
(Behaviouralists) (Books) (c) David Easton (d) Robert Dahl
A. French Kent 1. A preface to 107. Thom as Kuhn prom oted the view that
Democratic theory significance of scientific method lies in its
B. Herbert Tingston 2. Political Behaviour capacity of problem solving and crists
studies in Election management and not in methodological
Statistics sophistication in :
C. David Apter 3. Political Behaviour (a) The Structure of Scientific Revolutions
D. Robert Dahl 4. Introduction to (b) The Making of Decisions
Political Analysis (c) Value Systems and Social Process
Codes : (d) Essays on the Scientific Study of Politics
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 108. Which one of the following pairs is correctly
(b) 3 2 4 1 matched?
(c) 3 2 1 4 (a) Nationality and : Sidgwick
(d) 1 3 2 4 Government
(b) Politics and Government : G.E.G. Catlin
102. The work ‘Political Continuity and Change’ (c) A study of the Principles : G.E.G. Catlin
is authored by : of Politics
(a) Peter Markl (b) Peter Odegard (d) The Future of Political : Lasswell
(c) Austin Ramney (d) John Austin Science
Meaning of Politics 19
(a) Disciplines are separated 140. W hich among the follow ing scholars
(b) Scientific comm unity adheres to a emphasised the sociological evolution of the
dominant paradigm state and its political institutions?
(c) Theories are laid down after thorough (a) Henry Maine
revision (b) L.H. Morgan
(d) Both (a) and (c) (c) J.J. Bachhofen
135. Which of the following works is edited by (d) All of the above
Austin Ranney? 141. Whose view is that politics has got socialised
(a) Essays on the Behavioural study of and society has got politicised in modern
Politics times?
(b) Approaches to the study of Political
(a) Max Weber
Science
(c) Political Research Methods : (b) G. Sartori
Foundations and Techniques (c) Antony Giddens
(d) None of the above (d) All of the above
136. According to the thesis laid down by Thomas 142. Who has analysed the nature of the state from
Kuhn, the third phase through which a science the point of view of a sociologist in his work
tends to pass is called : the Modern State?
(a) The amorphous phase (a) Laski
(b) The phase of final revision (b) MacIver
(c) The crisis phase (c) Engels
(d) None of the above (d) All of the above
137. It can be said that the most remarkable thing 143. Which of the following have been authored
about Marxism is that : by Robert Dahl?
(a) It laid down a step-by-step prescription (a) A preface to Democratic theory
to revolution (b) Political Science – The discipline and its
(b) It was accepted by million of people as dimensions
their political creed (c) Modern Political Analysis
(c) Despite being scientific, it is suffused (d) Both (a) and (c)
with humanism
144. Under the conflict theory, conflict is studied
(d) Both (a) and (b)
with reference to :
138. Who among the following is associated with (a) Risks and strategies
the theoretical growth in cultural (b) Pay offs and preferences
anthropology? (c) Coalition forming rules and decision rules
(a) David Easton terminating conflicts
(b) Radcliffe Brown (d) All of the above
(c) Malinowski
(d) Both (b) and (c) 145. The communication theory starts with the
presumption that :
139. The model of the open market has been
(a) Government is a decision-making system
borrow ed from economics to analyse
(b) It is possible to communicate between
democratic politics by :
(a) Schumpeter the political and social systems
(b) Sartori (c) Society is a form of administration of
(c) Anthony Downs communication channels
(d) Both (a) and (c) (d) All of the above
22 Objective Political Science
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(b) (d) (d) (b) (b) (b) (a) (b) (c) (b)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(b) (b) (a) (b) (b) (b) (d) (a) (d) (d)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(a) (d) (a) (a) (d) (c) (a) (b) (d) (b)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(b) (b) (d) (b) (a) (d) (c) (d) (c) (c)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(b) (d) (a) (b) (c) (b) (b) (b) (a) (b)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(b) (a) (b) (b) (b) (a) (c) (c) (d) (a)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(b) (a) (b) (b) (c) (b) (b) (d) (c) (b)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(a) (c) (b) (d) (d) (c) (b) (c) (d) (b)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(a) (c) (b) (d) (c) (a) (d) (d) (c) (a)
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
(d) (d) (b) (b) (d) (c) (c) (c) (b) (c)
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
(b) (a) (d) (c) (c) (b) (a) (c) (c) (c)
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
(d) (a) (c) (c) (d) (c) (c) (c) (c) (c)
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
(b) (c) (b) (b) (d) (a) (b) (a) (b) (b)
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
(b) (d) (a) (b) (a) (c) (c) (d) (d) (d)
141 142 143 144 145
(b) (b) (d) (d) (a)
KEY CONCEPTS
1. ------ and ------ considerations are sometimes (d) Citizenship
adduced in favour of imperialism. 7. What has been the medium of extension of
(a) Political, religious citizenship rights and the basis of the creation
(b) Economic, humanitarian of an insulated economy, democracy and
(c) Religious, humanitarian welfare state according to Gidden’s?
(d) Social, economic (a) Migration
2. Which of the following is not the indirect (b) Class conflict
form of imperialism? (c) Warfare
(a) Sphere of influence (d) Egalitarian ideologies
(b) Tariff control 8. In the 18th century Bentham maintained that
(c) Leasehold the desire to have ‘pleasures’ is the basis of
(d) Nationalism all :
3. Who among the following idealist liberals (a) Political activity
emphasized on the creative form of (b) Social activity
citizenship? (c) Economic activity
(a) J.S. Mill (b) Bentham (d) Physical activity
(c) T.H. Green (d) Rousseau 9. Match List I with List II and select the correct
4. During 20th century, liberalism equated answer by using the codes given below the
citizenship with a/an : lists :
(a) Pluralist State List I List II
(b) Egalitarian State A. Russell 1. Systematic politics
(c) Liberal State B. Catlin 2. The political system
(d) Individualistic State C. Easton 3. Power : A New Social
5. The criticism of m odern dem ocratic Analysis
citizenship has been the hallmark of : D. Mosca 4. The Ruling Class
(a) Greek views on citizenship Codes :
(b) Socialist views on citizenship A B C D
(c) Marxist views on citizenship (a) 3 1 2 4
(d) Pluralist views on citizenship (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
6. In which book T.H. Marshal has explained (d) 3 1 4 2
the nature of citizenship in the context of
Welfare State in Europe? 10. Machiavelli’s -------- is perhaps the most
(a) Politics Fascinating study of power on record.
(b) Six Books on the commonwealth (a) Republic
(c) Citizenship and social class (b) The Mind and Society
23
24 Objective Political Science
(a) Complex (b) Flexible 34. The concept of citizenship involves the
(c) Legalistic (d) All of the above concept of :
26. According to the Tables of Roman Civil law, (a) Ethnicity (b) Liberty
w hich privilege was not entailed by (c) Rights (d) Duties
citizenship? 35. Who said that ‘citizenship is man’s basic right
(a) Service in the army for it is nothing less than the right to have
(b) Intermarriage right?
(c) Voting in the assembly (a) Earl Warren (b) Gidden
(d) Fundamental rights (c) Marshal (d) Lenin
27. When a rich country like the United States 36. The modern idea of citizenship includes not
drags other states of the world into its area of only civil and political dimensions but also
influence by the force of militia, it becomes : a:
(a) Dollar imperialism (a) Psychological component
(b) Subjugation (b) Social component
(c) Yankee imperialism (c) Economic component
(d) Leasehold (d) Factual component
28. According to the Marxists, imperialism is the 37. Who among the following advocates the
extension of the : group theory?
(a) Proletariat System (b) Capitalist System (a) Bentley (b) Truman
(c) Socialist System (d) Liberal System (c) Kautsky (d) All of the above
29. Lenin says that imperialism is the final stage 38. Politics is a study of the interaction of the
of : econom ic, political and ideological
(a) Liberalism (b) Socialism dimensions of :
(c) Capitalism (d) Marxism (a) Society (b) Class
30. Modern imperialism emerged : (c) State (d) Power
(a) After Sixteenth Century 39. ------ is the source of the economic dimension
(b) Before Fifteenth Century of power.
(c) After Seventeenth Century (a) Leadership (b) Wealth
(d) After Fifteenth Century (c) Force (d) Control
31. The motivating force behind the emergence 40. The ideological dimension of power emanates
of modern imperialism is : from the power exerted by :
(a) Political (b) Economic
(a) Religion (b) Mass media
(c) Social (d) Socio-Political
(c) Politicians (d) Both (a) and (b)
32. “What our great industries lack more is
41. Who said that politics is concerned among
markets, because both Germany and the US
other things with conflicts over the proper use
have become protectionist to the extreme
of force, power, authority?
degree” – who made this statement in 1885?
(a) Apter (b) Greaves
(a) Monroe (b) Jules Ferry
(c) Duverger (d) Paul Janet
(c) Synder (d) Moon
42. Who asserts that fundamental conception in
33. Who said that imperialism is a chief distortion
social sciences is power in the same sense
of nationalism?
that energy is fundamental concept in physics?
(a) Moon (b) Amery
(a) Russell (b) Weber
(c) Ebenstein (d) Calvin
(c) Macpherson (d) Palmer
Obj. Pol. Sc.-4
26 Objective Political Science
43. The ‘power theory’ finds its brilliant (d) None of the above
manifestation in the political philosophy of : 51. Who said that revolution is that process by
(a) Locke (b) Hobbes which a radical alteration of a particular
(c) Mill (d) Rousseau society occurs over a time span?
44. Which of the following was a ‘protectorate’ (a) Moore (b) Cohan
of the British Empire between 1922 and 1936? (c) Dunn (d) Petee
(a) Israel (b) Egypt 52. Who said that power is “a relationship in
(c) Haiti (d) Cuba which one group of persons is able to
45. Advancements in science and technology as determine the actions of another in the
also the socio-economic processes, have made direction of the Former’s own ends”?
-------- more complex. (a) Morgenthau (b) Palmer
(a) Societies (c) Easton (d) Duverger
(b) Human mind 53. The Elitist view maintains that in a
(c) Politics democratic society political power resides in
(d) None of the above the :
46. Which of the following is an example of (a) Bureaucratic elite (b) Pluralist elite
societies that do not have organized state? (c) Liberal elite (d) Socialist elite
(a) Nuer in Southern Sudan 54. “Politics is the possession and distribution of
(b) Anuak in Anglo-Egyptian Sudan power” ------- who made this statement?
(c) Tallensi in northern territory of Gold (a) Robson (b) Becker
Coast (c) Russell (d) Disraeli
(d) All of the above
55. According to marxism, political power is a
47. ------ is not restricted to any geographical area. strong, organised and unified power of the
(a) State (b) Nation economically :
(c) Society (d) Country (a) Weaker Section (b) Dominant Class
48. The relationship between state and society is (c) Backward Class (d) Better off Section
--------, they determine and are, in turn, 56. W hat is m eant by the “m anagerial
determined by each other. revolution”?
(a) Reciprocal (a) The revolution by which managers and
(b) Controversial not politicians became the controllers of
(c) Contradictory political power
(d) None of the above (b) Managers of industries have become so
49. The word ‘nation’ is derived from the Latin powerful that they can dictate the terms
word ‘natio’ which means : and conditions of their services
(a) Common affiliation (c) The fact that in the modern western
(b) Common mother capitalist economics, ownership of capital
(c) Common birth or race and control of capital have been separated
(d) None of the above (d) The industrial managers virtually control
50. During the French Revolution the term the economy of a country in the modern
‘nation’ came into great popularity and was times
used to mean : 57. Ideological power helps the ruling class in
(a) Patriotism maintaining the legitimacy of its :
(b) Citizenship (a) Ideological power (b) Political power
(c) Liberation (c) Economic power (d) Social power
Key Concepts 27
58. Who define power as ‘the capacity in any 64. Leacock defines a nation or nationality as a
relationship to command the service or body of people united by common descent
compliance of others’? and a common :
(a) Weber (b) MacIver (a) Territory
(c) Pareto (d) Russell (b) Customs
59. Which of the following is not one of the types (c) Language
of authority prevalent in the modern state; (d) None of the above
according to Weber? 65. Who said that a nation is a community of
(a) Legal-rational authority persons living in definite territory and thereby
(b) Traditional authority bound together by the bonds of mutual love?
(c) Charismatic authority (a) Gilchrist (b) Garner
(d) Nominal authority (c) Bryce (d) Barker
60. Who among the following traditional thinkers 66. Who, in his work ‘International Law ,’
brought out the significance of power in the emphasises that the idea of nation is
political phenomenon? associated with origin of birth, community of
(a) Hobbes (b) Machiavelli race, community of language, etc.?
(c) Nietzsche (d) All of these (a) Leacock
61. Who defined political science as ‘the study (b) Hayes
of the Shaping and Sharing of power’? (c) Calvo
(a) Weber (d) None of the above
(b) MacIver 67. Sidgwick has correctly said that some of the
(c) Lasswell and Kaplan leading modern nations are “notoriously” of
(d) Catlin very mixed :
62. Match List I with List II and select the correct (a) Race
answer by using the codes given below : (b) Language
List I List II (c) System
A. Robert Dahl 1. Comparative Govern- (d) None of the above
ment and Politics
68. Which of the following is not a form of closed
B. MacIver 2. Power and Society
door policy?
C. Michael Curtis 3. Modern Political
(a) Tariffs (b) Shipping
Analysis
(c) Concessions (d) Mandate
D. Kaplan 4. The Web of
Government 69. What is the term used to explain control by
Codes : two or more powers over a disputed territory
A B C D in order to prevent colonial rivalry?
(a) 3 4 1 2 (a) Protectorate
(b) 1 2 3 4 (b) Alliance
(c) 3 4 2 1 (c) Condominium
(d) 4 1 3 2 (d) None of the above
63. W hich of the follow ing is one of the 70. The right of extra-territoriality was claimed
traditionally recognized organs of power in and established in almost all ------ countries
the state? which give few rights to Christians.
(a) Legislature (b) Executive (a) North-eastern (b) Muslim
(c) Judiciary (d) All of these (c) Hindu (d) Western
28 Objective Political Science
71. Modern imperialism places more reliance on : (a) Hegel (b) Aristotle
(a) Downright conquest and annexation (c) Plato (d) Both (b) and (c)
(b) Diplomacy and international agreement 80. Which theory considers the associations as
(c) Groupism and cold war important as the state itself?
(d) Nuclear threat and hooliganism (a) Institutionalistic theory
72. Which of the following may be defined as (b) Behaviouralistic theory
“the complex of organised associations and (c) Individualistic theory
institutions within a community”? (d) Pluralistic theory
(a) Society (b) Nation 81. ------ enjoys the power of coercion and ------
(c) State (d) None of the above does not enjoy the powers of coercion
73. Who said that the global economy must be (a) State, Society
viewed as a collection of heterogeneous units (b) Nation, State
with different agendas interacting with one- (c) Association, Society
another in a variety of ways and thus changing (d) Government, State
its character over time? 82. Society secures the cooperation of its members
(a) Adiseshiah (b) Kurien by :
(c) Bruton (d) Kruenger (a) Coercion
74. Which of the following is defined as the value (b) Persuasion
which labour produces beyond that which is (c) Allurement
socially necessary to sustain itself? (d) None of the above
(a) Additional Value (b) Labour Value 83. Who argues that trade liberalization brings
(c) Concealed Value (d) Surplus Value about increasing returns, which in turn, would
75. Which one of the following thinkers proposed generate a higher rate of growth in the
the criterion of falsifiability as the measure of economy?
scientific truth? (a) Krueger (b) Edwards
(a) Levi-Strauss (b) Max Weber (c) Michaley (d) Tayler
(c) Karl Popper (d) Karl Marx 84. Which of the following means the extension
of the neo-classical view of competition, ‘the
76. What does TRIPs stand for?
freedom of traders to use their resources where
(a) Tariff-Related Intellectual Practices
they will and exchange them at any price they
(b) Trade-Related Intellectual Property
wish’ across the nations?
Rights
(a) Globalisation
(c) Trade-Related Interest Property Rights
(b) Privatisation
(d) None of the above
(c) Commercialisation
77. Under ------ patents shall be available for any (d) None of the above
invention whether product or process in all
85. What does MIC stand for?
fields of industrial technologies.
(a) Marginal Inquiry Commission
(a) GATT (b) TRIMs (b) Market Inquiry Commission
(c) TRIPs (d) WTO (c) Monopolies Inquiry Commission
78. Who said that “state is particular portion of (d) None of the above
mankind viewed as an organised”? 86. The term ‘nation’ conveys the ideals of :
(a) Bluntschelli (b) Hegel (a) Social independence
(c) Burgess (d) Leacock (b) Political independence
79. Who made no distinction between State and (c) Economic independence
Society? (d) All of the above
Key Concepts 29
87. Which of the following statements is true (c) Traditional power (d) Physical power
regarding nation? 95. Who define ideology as a ‘systematic set of
(a) A nation is a community which considers arguments and beliefs used to justify an
itself one existing or desired social order’?
(b) A nation means the population of a (a) Max Weber (b) Joseph Dunner
selfgoverning state (c) Gramsci (d) Dyke
(c) It is held together by many ties like
territory language etc. 96. Who among the following, uses the term
(d) All of the above ‘Political System’ instead of the state?
(a) M.H. Fried (b) G.H. Almond
88. Who said that a nation is a soul, a spiritual (c) Miss Follet (d) Bakunin
principle and “to have suffered, rejoiced and
hoped together” makes a people a notion? 97. Traditional political theory emphasises the
(a) Hayes (b) Ernest Renan study of :
(c) Burns (d) Zimmern (a) Nation and civil society
(b) State and government
89. The term nation emphasises the consciousness (c) Association and group
of unity due to : (d) Government and nationality
(a) Psychological Feelings
(b) Political Feelings 98. W ho am ong the following have given
(c) Spiritual Feelings relatively the most satisfactory definitions of
(d) Both (a) and (c) the state?
1. Garner
90. Most of the political thinkers equate nation 2. Oppenheim
with : 3. Gilchrist
(a) Nationality 4. Sidgwick
(b) State Select the correct answer from the following :
(c) Society (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(d) None of the above (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
91. Which of the following are not the basis of 99. “Government is the agency or machinery
the authority of society? through w hich com m on policies are
(a) Social Customs (b) Conventions determined, common affairs are regulated and
(c) Laws (d) Moral Pressure common interests promoted”.
92. The goals of the Indian Society have been The above statement is attributed to :
spelt out in the : (a) Gettel (b) Laski
(a) Bhagavat Gita (c) Gilchrist (d) Garner
(b) Constitution 100. Who among the following statements are
(c) Religious Scriptures ‘communitarian’?
(d) All of the above (a) Ralph Miliband
93. Who among the following modern writers (b) Hannah Arendt
brought out the significance of power in the (c) Hans J. Morgenthau
political phenomenon? (d) Louis Althusser
(a) Kaplan (b) Merriam 101. Consider the following statement : “---- the
(c) Hobbes (d) Both (a) and (b) entire world has no right to silence a fool -----”
94. Ideological power provides a more subtle base The above statement was made by :
of : (a) Niccollo Machiavelli
(a) Economic power (b) Political power (b) Jeremy Bentham
30 Objective Political Science
130. Among the early Greeks who held the view 138. Who among the following early Greeks
that the state is not a divine inspiration guiding compared the state to a man of great stature
the footsteps of men into Internal Truth but a and pointed out the resemblance between the
device of his own making for the convenience functions of the state and those of an
of his social life? individual?
(a) Socrates (b) Pericles (a) Plato (b) Aristotle
(c) Plato (d) Epicurus (c) Socrates (d) None of the above
131. According to early Romans ‘Nomos’ represents : 139. Plato based his three fold classification of
(a) State (b) Society society, namely working classes, warriors and
(c) Internal Truth (d) Law the rulers upon which of the following
faculties of the human soul?
132. The view that the state was created by man
(a) Appetite (b) Greed
was given a systematic and theoretical
(c) Wisdom (d) All of these
treatment during :
(a) Fourteenth Century 140. Which of the following events challenged the
(b) Seventeenth Century view of the state as a natural institution?
(c) Eighteenth Century (a) Renaissance
(d) Both (b) and (c) (b) Reformation
(c) Scientific revolution of the Seventeenth
133. According to early Romans ‘Lex’ signified : Century
(a) Body of Law created by man (d) None of the above
(b) Social conventions followed by man
(c) Internal truth 141. Which of the following ignores the distinction
(d) None of the above between state and society?
(a) Machanistic view of the state
134. The main exponents of the view that state is (b) Organic theory of the state
a man made institution, an artificial device (c) Marxist view of the state
were : (d) None of the above
(a) Hobbes and Locke
142. Who contended that society was an organism
(b) Locke and Bentham
whose protoplasm or unit is man, the state or
(c) Hobbes, Locke and Bentham
government in the one corresponding to the
(d) None of the above
brain in the other?
135. The mechanistic view of the state gave rise (a) Fichte (b) Schaffle
to the doctrine of : (c) Spencer (d) Aristotle
(a) Liberalism (b) Anarchism
143. Who among the following define the state as
(c) Individualism (d) None of the above
a community or society politically organised
136. Which of the following theories has facilitated under one independent government within a
the development of democratic institutions? definite territory?
(a) Liberalism (a) Dillon (b) Leiden
(b) Guild-socialist view of the state (c) Steward (d) All of these
(c) Both (a) and (b)
144. Who held that a good citizen makes a good
(d) Machanistic view of the state
state and a bad citizen a bad state?
137. The work ‘Self Government in Industry’ is (a) Aristotle
authored by : (b) Plato
(a) Herman Finer (b) G.D.H. Cole (c) Machiavelli
(c) R.G. Gettel (d) A.J. Penty (d) None of the above
Key Concepts 33
145. Who among the following was in favour of a (c) Lord Hewart
small state? (d) None of these
(a) Treitschke 149. Who among the following scholars held the
(b) Rousseau view that the territory of a state should neither
(c) Acton be very small nor very large?
(d) None of the above (a) Machiavelli (b) Hobbes
146. Who among the following did not make any (c) Marx (d) Aristotle
differentiation between the state and
150. The book ‘Nationality and Government’ is
government?
authored by :
(a) Stuart Kings of England
(a) Zimmern (b) Wiseman
(b) Louis XIV of France
(c) Soltau (d) D.L. Shills
(c) Political thinkers like Hobbes
(d) All of the above 151. Who among the following considers the state
as the sole source of the right to use violence?
147. The observation that, “The more the social
(a) Marx (b) Weber
bond is extended, the more it is weakened” is
(c) Kant (d) Hegel
made by :
(a) Lord Acton (b) J.J. Rousseau 152. The institution common to Saudi Arabia and
(c) J.S. Mill (d) James Stephen Sweden is :
148. Who opined that it was in small states that (a) Ombudsman
democracy first arose? (b) Monarchy
(a) Lord Bryce (c) Election commission
(b) Lord Acton (d) Local JudiciaryANSWER
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(c) (d) (c) (b) (c) (c) (b) (b) (a) (d)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(d) (b) (a) (b) (b) (c) (d) (c) (b) (c)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(d) (d) (a) (a) (d) (d) (c) (b) (c) (d)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(b) (b) (c) (c) (a) (b) (d) (d) (b) (d)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(b) (a) (b) (b) (a) (d) (c) (a) (c) (a)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(b) (c) (b) (d) (b) (c) (b) (b) (d) (d)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(c) (a) (d) (c) (d) (c) (a) (d) (c) (b)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(d) (a) (b) (d) (c) (b) (c) (c) (d) (d)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(a) (b) (b) (a) (c) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b)
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
(c) (b) (d) (b) (b) (b) (b) (c) (d) (b)
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
(d) (a) (d) (b) (c) (d) (c) (d) (d) (c)
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
(a) (a) (c) (b) (b) (d) (c) (a) (b) (b)
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
(d) (c) (a) (c) (a) (b) (a) (d) (c) (d)
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
(c) (d) (a) (c) (c) (d) (b) (a) (d) (c)
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
(b) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d) (b) (a) (d) (a)
151 152
(b) (b)
POLITICAL IDEAS
1. Who said that “philosophers have so far the theory of relative deprivation?
interpreted the world, the problem is how to (a) Gurr (b) Nesvold
change it”? (c) Marx (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) Lenin (b) Marx 8. Who discussed the causes of a revolution from
(c) Rousseau (d) Miliband the standpoint of psycho-analysis?
2. In which book Lenin said that a socialist (a) Cohan (b) Friedrich
revolution would imply that the state under (c) Schwartz (d) Gurr
the fundam entally new conditions “is 9. Who made the most significant contribution
transformed into something which is no longer to the study of revolutions in modern times?
the state proper”? (a) Marx (b) Lenin
(a) Marxism and Politics (c) Moore (d) Johnson
(b) The Anatomy of Revolution
(c) State and Revolution 10. In his Eighteenth Brum aire of Louis
(d) Social Change Bonaparte, Marx produced a masterpiece of
contemporary ------ revolutionary history.
3. Who desired the ‘fostering of revolution (a) Russian (b) German
abroad as an essential part of the process’? (c) French (d) Chinese
(a) Miliband (b) Lenin
(c) Cohan (d) Trotsky 11. Match List I with List II and select the correct
answer by using the codes :
4. The Communist Manifesto of Marx and List I List II
Engels Frankly advocates the use of : A. Glorious Revolution 1. 1776
(a) Unfair methods B. American Declaration 2. 1917
(b) Temporary methods of Independence
(c) Violent methods C. French Revolution 3. 1688
(d) Non-violent methods D. Russian Revolution 4. 1789
5. Which of the following is one of the kinds of Codes :
revolution according to Johnson? A B C D
(a) Millenaria rebellion (a) 3 1 4 2
(b) Jacquerie (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) Anarchistic rebellion (c) 3 1 2 4
(d) All of the above (d) 3 2 4 1
6. Who makes a psychological study of the 12. Who has sought to lay down some empirical
theme of revolution? observations on the basis of a case study of
(a) Johnson (b) Sorokin four great revolutions of the world?
(c) Gurr (d) Tocqueville (a) Cohan (b) Briton
7. Who among the following has propounded (c) Aristotle (d) Lasswell
35
36 Objective Political Science
29. What is regarded as the corner stone of the 37. According to which theory, participation
British system of government? represents the process by which goals are set
(a) Common law (b) Civil law and means are chosen in relation to all sorts
(c) Rule of law (d) Statute law of social issues?
30. In which book Dicey developed the idea of (a) Socialist theory
Rule of law, published in 1885? (b) Marxist theory
(a) The British Constitution (c) Democratic theory
(b) Law and the Constitution (d) None of the above
(c) An Introduction to the British Constitution 38. Which of the following are the major types
(d) None of the above of participation, exercised by citizens in the
31. W ho said that “rule, predom inance or decision-making process in government and
supremacy of the law” is an outstanding administration?
feature of the British Constitution? 1. Democratic
(a) Dicey (b) Harvey 2. Administrative
(c) Tocqueville (d) Barther 3. Social
32. According to first proposition of Dicey, no 4. Community Development
person can be punished except for the : Select the correct answer using the codes
(a) Crime of homicide given below :
(b) Breach of law Codes :
(c) Breaking of taboos (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All of the above (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
33. Which of the following is not one of the 39. Who said that political participation is the
sources of Administrative law? activity by private citizens designed to
(a) Constitution (b) Custom influence governmental decision-making?
(c) Ordinance (d) Superstition (a) Huntington Nelson
34. Who divides the field of administrative law (b) Milton Esman
into the law of internal administration and (c) Myron Weiner
the law of external administration? (d) Lucian Pye
(a) Goodnow (b) Dicey 40. Which of the following statements is true
(c) James Hart (d) Morgan regarding political participation?
35. The distinction between constitutional law and (a) Electoral activities
Administrative law is very clear in countries (b) Protests, Strikes, Demonstrations
like : (c) The activities designed to influence the
(a) USA (b) Germany decisions of government through pressure
(c) India (d) Both (a) and (c) or persuasion to attain ends
36. Which article of the Indian constitution (d) All of the above
provided that the government or its agencies 41. The system analysis would say that all types
shall be subject to the jurisdiction of the of participation-political, administrative and
Superior Courts? economic-would fall within the ambit of :
(a) Article 300 (a) Democratic participation
(b) Article 136 (b) Social participation
(c) Article 226 (c) Community development
(d) None of the above (d) None of the above
38 Objective Political Science
42. Swaraj literally means : 53. The foundations of modern citizenship were
(a) Ramrajya (b) Self-rule laid in the :
(c) Ahimsa (d) Freedom (a) 18th Century (b) 19th Century
43. Swaraj implies the reign of complete : (c) 16th Century (d) 17th Century
(a) Social justice (b) Equality 54. The law made by the King-in-Council or by
(c) Freedom (d) All of these the King-in-Parliament is known as the :
44. What was the means adopted by Gandhiji for (a) Common law
the attainment of freedom? (b) Statutory law
(a) Ahimsa (b) Satyagraha (c) Civil law
(c) Anashan (d) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
45. The doctrine of the Rule of law was 55. What is the “end of government” according
enunciated by : to James Madison?
(a) Rawls (b) Dicey (a) Liberty (b) Equality
(c) Bryce (d) Barker (c) Justice (d) Prosperity
46. Which of the following is a source of law? 56. Who said that the great merit of the common
(a) Custom (b) Religion law is that it represents the survival of the
(c) Equity (d) All of these fittest among the various legal rules which
47. The most prolific source of law is : successive generations of men have tried?
(a) Equity (b) Adjudication (a) Neumann
(c) Legislation (d) Custom (b) Munro
(c) Dicey
48. An informal method of making new law or
(d) None of the above
altering an old one is :
(a) Legislation (b) Equity 57. The two principal types of law in Great Britain
(c) Adjudication (d) Arbitration are the :
(a) Common law, Civil law
49. ------ law is concerned with the relationship
(b) Statute law, Common law
between individuals.
(c) Constitutional law, Criminal law
(a) National (b) Natural
(c) Private (d) Public (d) Civil law, Criminal law
50. Which theory considers law as eternal, 58. In Britain, any dispute between a private
constant, rational and immutable? person and an official is decided in the :
(a) Sociological theory (a) Common Court of law
(b) Rational theory (b) Ordinary Court of law
(c) Natural theory (c) Lower Court of law
(d) Historical theory (d) None of the above
51. The most widely accepted theory of law is : 59. Who was among the chief critics of Dicey’s
(a) Historical theory exposition of rule of law?
(b) Imperative theory (a) Harvey (b) Ivor Jennings
(c) Natural theory (c) Neumann (d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Sociological theory 60. The most clear exposition of the ‘rule of law’
52. The crux of citizenship is participation in the : was provided by—
(a) Political Community (a) George Washington
(b) Social Community (b) Jean Bodin
(c) Economic Community (c) Ivar Jennings
(d) Social System (d) A.V. Dicey
Political Ideas 39
61. Which of the following are the two great (d) None of these
branches of public law? 68. What gives logical development to any
(a) Constitutional law, Common law individual in the civil society according to
(b) Common law, Administrative law Hegel?
(c) Administrative law, Constitutional law (a) Society (b) Government
(d) Constitutional law, Administrative law (c) State (d) Nation
62. Who said that Administrative law is the sum 69. In his critique of Hegel’s philosophy of Right,
total of the principles according to which the w ho argued about universal political
activity of the services (other than judicial) participation as a means and end of the
concerned with the execution of law is manifestation of human freedom?
exercised? (a) J.S. Mill (b) Tocqueville
(a) Dicey
(c) Rousseau (d) Karl Marx
(b) Barthelemy
(c) Robson 70. Who believed that it was not possible for any
(d) None of the above civil society to exist without the agency and
authority of state?
63. Constitutional law is concerned with the
(a) Marx (b) Rousseau
construction of the machinery of :
(c) Locke (d) Hegel
(a) Government
(b) Political parties 71. The chief proponents of the theory of natural
(c) State rights are :
(d) None of the above (a) John Locke and Thomas Paine
(b) Lasswell and Kaplan
64. According to Dicey, the basic principles of
(c) Hegel and Kant
the English Constitution was the rule of law,
(d) Durkheim and Weber
which he contrasted with the :
(a) American Fundamental Rights 72. He wrote a Whole Volume on Natural Rights
(b) French Droit Administratif and brought out the various sense in which
(c) German Democratic Principles the term ‘Nature’ has been used. His aim was
(d) None of the above to criticize the theory of Natural rights. He
was :
65. Who has every right to punish all those who
(a) Norman Vincent Pearl
Violate State laws, according to Hegel?
(b) D.G. Ritchie
(a) Supreme Court (b) State
(c) Auguste Comte
(c) Judge (d) Administrator
(d) Macpherson
66. Who said that the Civil Society is an inferior
state in which people perform functions not 73. Which one of the following pairs is correctly
those which are private but w hich are matched?
selfregarding? (a) Historical theory of rights : J.S. Mill
(a) Gettel (b) Wayper (b) Social Welfare theory of : Roscoe
(c) Hegel (d) Kant rights Pound
(c) Idealistic theory of rights : Spencer
67. According to Hegel, in ------ Society man (d) Natural theory of rights : Burke
worked for himself but in universal society
he worked for all. 74. Who among the following are the chief
(a) Civil proponents of the legal theory of rights?
(b) Singular (a) Bentham and Hobbes
(c) Territorial (b) Bentham and Mill
40 Objective Political Science
(c) Mao and Che Guevera Select the correct answer from below :
(d) Gramsci and Lukas (a) Only 2 (b) Only 3
75. Which of the following is NOT correctly (c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 4
matched? 82. “------ freedom exists only because there is
(a) Hobhouse : The Elements of the social restraint”
Justice (a) Dicey (b) Seeley
(b) T. Rees : Equality (c) Bryce (d) Willoughby
(c) Dicey : An Introduction to the 83. Which of the following works are NOT
study of Law of the authored by Harold J. Laski?
constitution 1. The Dilemma of Our Time
(d) Laski : Principles of the Social and 2. The Web of Our Time
Political Theory 3. Democracy in Crisis
76. The historical theory of rights can be summed 4. The Elements of Social Justice
up in the sentence : Select the correct answer from the following :
(a) History makes right (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(b) What is rights is historical (c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 3
(c) History is the child of right 84. Match List I (Authors) with List II (Books)
(d) History and right are antithetical and select the correct answer by using codes
77. Who among the following ridiculed the given below the lists :
natural rights, as being ‘nonsense upon stilts’? List I (Authors) List II (Books)
(a) Schapera (b) Foucault A. Plamenatz 1. Justice
(c) Jeremy Bentham (d) Karl Marx B. Sidgwick 2. Man and Society
78. Idealistic theory of rights upholds : C. Spencer 3. Political Ideals
(a) Individual’s labour D. C.D. Burns 4. Elements of Politics
(b) Individual’s family Codes :
(c) Individual’s wealth A B C D
(d) Individual’s personality (a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 4 2 1 3
79. Who among the following laid down an (c) 2 4 1 3
elaborate defence of personal liberty? (d) 1 2 3 4
(a) Rawls (b) Poulantzas
(c) Robert Michels (d) John Stuart Mill 85. The author of Anarchy, State and Utopia is :
(a) F.A. Hayek (b) C.B. Macpherson
80. Civil liberty stands for : (c) Robert Nozick (d) Neitzsche
(a) Freedom to pursue one’s desire
(b) Freedom to exercise discretion in one’s 86. The idea of ‘Joining’ or ‘Fitting’ is implied
own domain in the concept of :
(c) Liberty to a mass wealth (a) Liberty (b) Equality
(d) Liberty to free action and immunity from (c) Property (d) Justice
interference 87. Which of the following are the sources of law?
81. Who among the following held the view that (a) Custom, religion, scientific commen-
liberty and equality are opposed to each other? taries, adjudication, equity and legislation
1. J.S. Mill (b) Constitution, morality, religion, custom,
2. Lord Hewart public opinion and equity
3. De Tocqueville (c) Public opinion, custom, parliament,
4. Lord Acton judicature and executive
Political Ideas 41
(d) Judicature, equity, nature, religious community of which we are a part” --------
commentaries and plebiscite Bosanquet
88. Which of the following pairs is correctly The above statement highlights :
matched? (a) Importance of personality
(a) Morris Ginsberg : Justice (b) Linkage betw een developm ent and
(b) Rees : A theory of Justice community
(c) Rawls : Equality (c) An aspect of rights
(d) D.D. Raphael : Problems of Political (d) All of the above
Philosophy 95. The work Law and Rights is authored by :
89. The idea of ‘reverse discrimination’ implies : (a) W.E. Hocking
(a) Discrimination in a decreasing order (b) L.T. Hobhouse
(b) Equating rich and poor as in the electoral (c) Harold Laski
arena (d) None of the above
(c) Bestowing favoured treatment to the 96. Rights are broadly divided into three
hitherto deprived sections categories: natural rights, moral rights and
(d) Establishing institutional checks against legal rights comprise :
arbitrary distinctions (a) Civil rights (b) Political rights
90. Who among the following holds the view that (c) Economic rights (d) All of the above
rights are those conditions of social life 97. Which of the following is the use to which
without which man cannot be his best self? the term ‘liberty’ can be put?
(a) Green (a) Freedom from constraint, captivity or
(b) Laski tyranny
(c) Barker (b) The unrestrained injoyment of natural
(d) None of the above rights
91. Who among the following opines that a right (c) Power of free choice
is a power claimed and recognized as : (d) All of the above
(a) Green 98. The concept of liberty has developed mainly
(b) Barker in modern times and is closely associated with
(c) Laski the philosophy of :
(d) None of the above (a) Utilitarianism
92. In their essence rights are : (b) Liberalism
(a) Legal injunction (c) Individualism
(b) Moral imperatives (d) None of the above
(c) Conditions of law 99. Who made the observation that : “We are
(d) Aspects of social life unable to make a satisfactory distinction
93. Who among the following held the view that between the terms freedom and liberty; the
right is man’s capacity of influencing the acts only difference is that one is English, the other
of another by means of the opinion and force Latin”?
of society? (a) T.H. Green
(a) Bluntschli (b) Bodin (b) R.H. Soltau
(c) Holland (d) Locke (c) MacIver
(d) None of the above
94. “We have a right to the means that are
necessary to the development of our lives in 100. The concept of liberty in the present form
the direction of the highest good of the was missing during :
Obj. Pol. Sc.-6
42 Objective Political Science
118. Who opined that the term justice is derived 125. In a traditional society, government and
from the Latin word Jus which embodies the politics are the concern of :
idea of joining or fitting the idea of bond or (a) A narrow elite
tie? (b) Middle classes
(a) Laski (b) Willoughby (c) Common people
(c) Barker (d) Marx (d) Trained politicians
119. He decried the talk of social justice in a 126. Which among the following has gained wide
capitalist society and socialists like Proudhon acceptance in the politics of advanced
who preached social justice were criticised nations?
by him because they failed to realise the (a) Aristocratic lineage of politicians
irrelevance of the idea of justice to the social (b) Electoral decision making by a chosen
problem. He was : few
(a) Mao (b) Hegel (c) Principle of active citizenship
(c) Max Stirner (d) Karl Marx (d) All of the above
127. In the long run, broadened participation is a
120. Who among the following ridiculed the variable of :
concept of natural justice and liberty and (a) Political communication
replaced those concepts by the principle of (b) Social and economic modernization
utility? (c) Cultural revolution
(a) Beccaria (b) David Hume (d) Social justice
(c) Thomas Acquinas (d) J.S. Mill
128. Who among the following have described
121. Who has termed social consciousness as
political participation as “the activity by
modern consciousness in the context of the
private citizens designed to influence
determination of the meaning of justice?
governmental decision-making”?
(a) Barker (b) D.D. Raphael
(a) Sidney Verba
(c) Laski (d) Sabine
(b) S.P. Huntington
122. Legal justice is broadly applied in the context (c) John M. Nelson
of : (d) Both (b) and (c)
(a) Justice according to law
129. Which am ong the follow ing cannot be
(b) Law according to justice
reckoned as or associated with political
(c) Both (a) and (b)
participation?
(d) Law and justice according to morality
(a) Citizen’s attitudes, perceptions or
123. What is/are the other type of participation knowledge or interest in politics
44 Objective Political Science
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(b) (c) (d) (c) (d) (b) (d) (c) (a) (c)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(a) (b) (d) (a) (a) (b) (d) (d) (b) (b)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(b) (c) (c) (a) (d) (b) (d) (c) (c) (b)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(c) (b) (d) (c) (d) (c) (c) (d) (a) (d)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(b) (b) (d) (d) (b) (d) (c) (b) (c) (c)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(b) (a) (d) (b) (c) (c) (b) (b) (d) (d)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(d) (b) (a) (b) (b) (c) (a) (c) (d) (d)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(a) (b) (b) (a) (d) (a) (c) (d) (d) (d)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(c) (d) (c) (c) (c) (d) (a) (d) (c) (a)
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
(a) (d) (c) (c) (a) (d) (d) (c) (b) (c)
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
(d) (a) (d) (d) (b) (b) (a) (c) (a) (c)
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
(d) (b) (c) (d) (b) (a) (c) (c) (d) (b)
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
(b) (c) (d) (c) (a) (c) (b) (d) (d) (d)
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
(d) (b) (d) (c) (d) (a) (b) (d) (d) (b)
141
(d)
DEMOCRACY
1. Which of the following theories of democracy Codes :
indicates representative democracy? A B C D
(a) Classical-liberal theory (a) 1 2 4 3
(b) Elitist theory (b) 3 1 4 2
(c) Marxist theory (c) 3 1 2 4
(d) Both (a) and (b) (d) 4 3 1 2
2. Who elaborated the theory of separation of 7. Which of the following is one of the forms of
powers which had a great democratic appeal accountability?
and influenced the making of American (a) Legislative accountability
Constitution? (b) Judicial accountability
(a) Bentham (b) Mill (c) Political accountability
(c) Locke (d) Montesquieu (d) All of the above
3. Locke’s ideas about politics w ere 8. Who is politically accountable to the political
complemented by Adam Smith in the realm executive?
of : (a) Administration
(a) Sociology (b) Geography (b) Judiciary
(c) Psychology (d) Economics (c) Legislature
(d) None of the above
4. Macpherson has called ------ view s on
democracy as ‘developmental democracy’. 9. Who said that the best way of enforce
(a) Mill’s (b) Locke’s accountability is to develop institutions that
(c) MacIver’s (d) Seelay’s vigorously monitor the actions of public
bureaucracy and punish those guilty of
5. A powerful critique of liberal democracy and maladministration?
a radically different image of good society (a) Friedrich (b) Finer
was provided by : (c) Kingsley (d) Levine
(a) Liberalism (b) Marxism
10. Which one of the following is vital to
(c) Socialism (d) Pluralism
accountability?
6. Match List I with List II and select the correct (a) Decentralisation (b) Devolution
answer using the codes given below : (c) Delegation (d) All of the above
List I List II 11. ------ is interchangeably use w ith
A. Hobbes 1. Utopia accountability.
B. Thomas Moore 2. A preface to (a) Control
Democratic Theory (b) Delegation
C. Sartori 3. Leviathan (c) Responsibility
D. Robert Dahl 4. Democratic Theory (d) None of the above
46
Democracy 47
12. Which of the following is one of the examples 22. Who said ‘democracy is merely a mechanism
of external formal controls? for choosing and authorizing governments or
(a) Audit (b) Span of Control in some other way getting laws and political
(c) Judicial Review (d) Both (a) and (c) decisions made?
13. ------ is the principal means by which consent (a) Seelay (b) Sartori
is granted or withdrawn in a democracy and (c) Lincoln (d) Macpherson
rulers made accountable to the ruled. 23. W ho said the dem ocracy is only ‘an
(a) Information (b) Political Party experiment’ in government?
(c) Participation (d) Constitution (a) Lindsay (b) Rousseau
14. Who said that democracy is one of the most (c) Macpherson (d) Lowell
defused and pervasive concepts of history? 24. Which of the following means to give an
(a) Macpherson (b) Aristotle account of one’s action and to report on the
(c) Hagopian (d) H.G. Wells achievements and failures together with
15. Which organisation sponsored an inquiry into explanation of the declared objectives?
the conflicts and ideals associated with the (a) Accountability
concept of democracy in 1949? (b) Ordinance
(a) UNICEF (b) UNESCO (c) Control
(c) WHO (d) UNCTAD (d) None of the above
16. Who defined democracy as ‘the worst form 25. ------ is the outcom e of delegation of
of government less than tyranny’? responsibility and authority.
(a) Cleon (b) Plato (a) Propriety
(c) Laski (d) Aristotle (b) Accountability
(c) Efficacy
17. The classical dem ocratic elem ent was (d) None of the above
provided by ------ who sought to free the
individual from arbitrary government. 26. W hich of the follow ing is one of the
(a) Locke (b) Mill limitations to accountability?
(c) Spencer (d) Green (a) Professional ethics of a person may come
into conflict with his administrative ethics
18. A classical theory of dem ocracy was (b) A dm inistrative accountability is
developed in : conditioned by the political structure of
(a) Greece (b) Athens a country
(c) City-States (d) China (c) Accountability, being culture oriented
19. Who provided the egalitarian element of operates within the cultural atmosphere
democracy? of a political system
(a) MacIver (b) Rousseau (d) All of the above
(c) Marx (d) Wilson 27. .......... is the process by which of the
20. W ho advocated right to vote and administrative activities as a part of the
representative government in England? management process.
(a) Bentham (b) J.S. Mill (a) Co-operation
(c) Laski (d) Both (a) and (b) (b) Consultation
(c) Association
21. Who rejected the whole idea of liberal
(d) None of the above
democracy, terming it as ‘class democracy’?
(a) Gandhism (b) Communism 28. Which of the following is a new device of
(c) Marxism (d) Socialism participation?
48 Objective Political Science
(c) Capitalism, Socialism and Democracy 61. Who among the following is a contemporary
(d) Consent and Consensus exponent of the radical theory of democracy?
54. The principal votaries of the liberal theory of (a) Karl Popper
representation are : (b) C.B. Macpherson
(a) Hobbes and Hamilton (c) Michael Oakesholt
(b) Locke and Thomas Jefferson (d) None of the above
(c) Hayek and Oakesholt 62. Which of the following works have been
(d) Burke and James Madison authored by C.B. Macpherson?
55. He developed a model of the democratic process (a) The Life and Tim es of Liberal
and described it as ‘polyarchy’ He is : Democracy
(a) Giovanni Sartori (b) Democratic Theory : Essays in Retrieval
(c) The real World of Democracy
(b) S.M. Lipset
(d) All of the above
(c) Robert Dahl
(d) None of the above 63. W ho am ong the following has dubbed
Marxism as a totalitarian doctrine?
56. W ho am ong the follow ing condem ned
(a) Karl Popper
democracy as “an aristocracy of black
(b) Isaiah Berlin
guards”?
(c) Hannah Arendt
(a) Henry Maine (b) Lord Bryce
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(c) Lecky (d) Talleyrand
64. D em ocracy has been described, as ‘an
57. Raymond Aron has given his views on
unbiological arrangement’ by :
democracy in :
(a) A.L. Lowell
(a) Social Structure and the Ruling Class
(b) Faguet
(b) Frontier of Democratic Theory
(c) C.D. Burns
(c) The Group Basis of Politics
(d) Maxey
(d) None of the above
65. Who among the following considers the
58. W ho has described dem ocracy as
dictatorship of the proletariat as “phantom
“government by the poorest, the m ost
alternative”?
ignorant, the most-incapable w ho are
(a) Lord Lothian (b) Hearnshaw
necessarily the most-numerous”?
(c) Sartori (d) Popper
(a) Talleyrand (b) G.D.H. Cole
(c) Lecky (d) Bryce 66. W ho draws a distinction betw een
‘developmental power’ and ‘extractive power’
59. In view of the Marxists, dictatorship of the
in the process of explicating his theory?
proletariat is : (a) Robert Dahl
(a) True communist regime (b) Karl Popper
(b) True democracy (c) C.B. Macpherson
(c) True dictatorship (d) None of the above
(d) None of the above
67. Who among the following hailed Hitler’s
60. The list system of proportional representation Third Reich as “the most ennobled form of
is employed in : modern democratic state”?
(a) Knesset of Israel (a) France
(b) Swiss National Council (b) Goebbles
(c) Italian Chamber of Deputies (c) Nietzsche
(d) All of the above (d) Both (b) and (c)
Democracy 51
68. His view is that the M arxist theory of (c) Fascist state
democracy gives birth to a closed society in (d) Anarchist state
which there is neither freedom nor democracy. 74. The work ‘The New Image of the Common
He is : Man’ is authored by :
(a) Karl Popper (a) Ernest Barker
(b) Giovanni Sartori (b) Carl Friedrich
(c) Raymond Aron (c) Macpherson
(d) None of the above (d) None of the above
69. Which of the following characteristics of a 75. In the words of Woodrow Wilson, World War
socialist country is instrumental in imparting I was fought to make the world safe for :
it a totalitarian hue? (a) Representative government
(a) Absence of plurality of parties and (b) Liberty
presence of only one party (c) Democracy
(b) Absence of parliamentary system of (d) All of the above
government 76. It can be said that democracy is :
(c) Strong bureaucracy (a) A form of government
(d) All of the above (b) A type of state
70. Democracy as an ideal can be achieved (c) An order of society
through : (d) All of the above
(a) Political institutions 77. The work ‘Considerations on Representative
(b) Transformation of the mode of production Government’ is authored by
(c) Inculcation of new values of human (a) Macpherson
equality (b) J.S. Mill
(d) All of the above (c) Carole Pateman
71. In Marxist view, periodical elections based (d) Marx
on universal suffrage are an eyewash because- 78. A ccording to J.S. M ill, w hat are the
(a) They are held only in name and not in conditions for the success of democracy?
spirit (a) Voting by open of public ballot
(b) They cannot secure real liberty (b) Indirect election
(c) They cannot bring about an effective (c) State funding of election
change in social relations (d) All the above
(d) None of the above 79. Assertion (A) : Preferential policies need not
72. Bourgeois democracies emerged through : always violate the principle of fairness.
(a) Socialist revolutions under the leadership Reason (R) : Treating citizens as equals may
of the working require treating them differently.
(b) Revolutionary struggle of the bourgeoisie (a) Both A and R are individually true and
against the Papacy, Feudalism and R is the correct explanation of A.
Monarchy (b) Both A and R are individually true but R
(c) Coming into being of liberal democracy is not the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both (a) and (c) (c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
73. Which of the following is held as a transitional
state in Marxian philosophy? 80. W ho defines dem ocracy as a form of
(a) Socialist state government in which the governing body is
a comparatively large fraction of the entire
(b) Liberal democratic state
nation?
52 Objective Political Science
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(d) (d) (d) (a) (b) (b) (d) (a) (b) (d)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(c) (d) (c) (c) (b) (b) (a) (b) (b) (d)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(c) (d) (d) (a) (b) (d) (c) (d) (a) (d)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(c) (d) (a) (b) (d) (a) (b) (d) (d) (d)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(a) (a) (b) (a) (a) (b) (c) (c) (b) (b)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(c) (c) (c) (b) (c) (d) (a) (c) (b) (d)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(b) (d) (d) (b) (c) (c) (b) (a) (a) (d)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(c) (b) (a) (b) (c) (d) (b) (d) (b) (b)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(c) (a) (d) (c) (b) (a) (c) (c) (b) (d)
91 92
(b) (b)
POLITICAL IDEOLOGIES
1. Whose teaching affected Gandhi’s moral and (a) Non-cooperation
political philosophy? (b) Fasting
(a) Doke (c) Peace Brigade
(b) Plato (d) Peaceful picketing
(c) Vinoba Bhave 9. What is known as the voluntary exile from
(d) None of the above the permanent place of residence?
2. Who said that non-violence means avoidance (a) Fasting (b) Hijrat
of violence in all forms? (c) Hartal (d) Picketing
(a) Ruskin (b) Tolstoy 10. Who describes Gandhi as a revolutionary
(c) Gandhiji (d) Augustine leader on account of his “developing a
3. Who was the political Guru of Gandhiji? technique for precipitating conflict and then
(a) Rabindranath Tagore resolving it non-violently”?
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji (a) Hitler (b) Donald E. Smith
(c) Gokhale (c) Rousseau (d) Hussain
(d) S.N. Banerjee 11. Trusteeship provides a means of transforming
4. Who said that Gandhi’s religion and morality the capitalistic order of society into a/an ----
were the same? one.
(a) Gokhale (b) Kripalani (a) Socialist
(c) Patel (d) Jinnah (b) Egalitarian
5. Who among the following gave priority to (c) Bourgeois
moral values in social and political life? (d) None of the above
(a) Gandhiji (b) Kant 12. Who said that ‘the concept of sarvodaya is
(c) Cicero (d) All of the above the most original contemporary attempt at an
6. Which of the following is not a requisite of Indian contribution to political thought’?
Ahimsa? (a) Gandhiji (b) Vinoba Bhave
(a) Truth (b) Fasting (c) Dr. Ralph (d) A. Appadorai
(c) Perseverance (d) Satyagraha 13. Who said that ‘Gandhiji is one-third politician,
one-third saint and one-third humbug’?
7. Which of the following is not a form of
(a) Andrews (b) C.M. Joad
satyagraha?
(c) Marshall (d) Marx
(a) Non-cooperation
(b) Civil disobedience 14. Who said about Gandhiji, “Generations to
(c) Picketing come, it may be, none will scarcely believe
(d) Swarajya that such a one as this ever in flesh and blood
walked upon this earth”?
8. ------ is an extreme form of satyagraha. (a) Dr. Radhakrishnan
54
Political Ideologies 55
(a) Truth and human dignity 39. Who said that morality is the basis of things
(b) Ahimsa and varnashramadharma and truth is the substance of morality?
(c) Satyagraha and swaraj (a) Tolstoy
(d) Spiritualism and philanthropism (b) Jinnah
30. Which of the following aspects was not (c) Gandhi
included in Gandhian economy? (d) None of the above
(a) Individualism (b) Anarchism 40. According to Ray and Bhattacharya what are
(c) Idealism (d) Marxism the structural components of Ideology?
31. Gandhian economy emphasizes humanitarian (a) Its linkage with a grand philosophical
and ------ values. system
(a) spiritual (b) cultural (b) Its programme content derived from its
(c) political (d) socialist philosophy
32. Who among the following use to call himself (c) Its strategy of achieving the
a “born co-operator”? programmatic goal
(a) Rousseau (b) Mahatma Gandhi (d) All the above
(c) Sardar Patel (d) M.A. Jinnah 41. Match List I with List II and select the correct
33. Who said that though Mahatama Gandhi’s answer by using the codes given below :
efforts were concentrated on India, he was a List I List II
true internationalist? A. Bondurant 1. Hind Swarajya
(a) Rousseau (b) Macpherson B. Gandhi 2. Modern Political
(c) Barker (d) Ralph Bunche Theory
C. Joad 3. Conquest of Violence
34. Among secular writers, who influenced
D. Sampurnanand 4. Indian Socialism
Mahatama Gandhi the most?
(a) Ruskin (b) Thoreau Codes :
(c) Rousseau (d) Both (a) and (b) A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
35. Who remarked that ‘Mahatama Gandhi is the (b) 3 1 4 2
spokesman for the conscience of all mankind? (c) 4 3 1 2
(a) M.S. Buch (b) George Marshall (d) 1 3 4 2
(c) Joad (d) Tandon
42. Gandhiji rejects the system of :
36. Non-violence, as taught and practised by (a) Indirect democracy
Mahatama Gandhi is rooted in the Indian
(b) Parliamentary democracy
doctrine of :
(c) Direct democracy
(a) Satyagraha (b) Ahimsa
(d) None of the above
(c) Swaraj (d) Swadeshi
43. Which of the following is not a step in
37. W ho said that Ahim sa is a w eapon of
Satyagraha campaign?
matchless potency?
(a) Catlin (b) Rousseau (a) Protest (b) Negotiation
(c) Mahatama Gandhi (d) Tolstoy (c) Non-cooperation (d) Violence
38. Who thought that Gandhi’s view on non- 44. Who called Gandhi’s concept of non-violence
violence were absolute? as the most foolish of all scheme’s?
(a) Jinnah (a) Hobbes (b) Nehru
(b) Abul Kalam Azad (c) Lord Chelmsford (d) C.M. Case
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru 45. The most appropriate name of Gandhian
(d) None of the above Socialism is :
Political Ideologies 57
75. The concept of surplus value is centred on : 85. Who among the following declared that
(a) Capital (b) Technology property is theft?
(c) Labour (d) Organisation (a) Ebenstein
76. The idea of ‘m oral individualism ’ is (b) Joad
associated with the name of : (c) Proudhon
(a) T.H. Green (b) Immanuel Kant (d) None of the above
(c) Hegal (d) Marx 86. Who said that: “Karl Marx is in a very real
77. In which of his works Marx discusses sense the father of socialism”?
alienation? (a) F.M. Watkins
(a) Philosophy of Poverty (b) C.E.M. Joad
(b) Economic and Philosophic Manuscripts (c) Schumpeter
(c) Thesis on Feuerbach (d) None of the above
(d) None of the above 87. Which of the following is regarded as a
78. The ‘doctrine of permanent revolution’ is laid landmark event in the developm ent of
down by : socialism?
(a) Antonio Gramsci (b) George Lukas (a) The Glorious Revolution of 1688
(c) Joseph Stalin (d) Mao Zedong (b) The Russian Revolution of 1917
(c) The French Revolution of 1789
79. Great Society and The Great Illusion have (d) The American Declaration of Indepen-
been authored respectively by : dence of 1776
(a) Ritchie and Finer
(b) Graham Wallas and Norman Agell 88. The name of ‘New Lanark’ is associated with :
(c) Finer and Ritchie (a) Saint Simon
(d) Norman Agell and Graham Wallas (b) William of Occam
(c) Robert Owen
80. The noble concept of ‘hegemony’ is given by : (d) Laski
(a) Milton Friedman (b) Isaiah Berlin
(c) F. Engels (d) Antonio Gramsci 89. Which of the following names is associated
with collectivism?
81. The author of Two Concepts of Liberty (a) Eduard Bernstein (b) Jean Juares
argues in favour of : (c) Karl Branting (d) All of these
(a) Positive liberty
(b) Increase in the functions of state 90. The Fabian Society was formed in :
(c) Equality (a) 1883 (b) 1884
(d) Negative liberty (c) 1885 (d) 1886
82. The Central idea of socialism is : 91. Fabians were primarily influenced by :
(a) Equality (b) Society (a) Engels and Lenin
(c) Justice (d) All of these (b) Lenin and Mao
(c) Aristotle and Saint Thomas Acquinas
83. The middle classes were designated as (d) J.S. Mill, Henry George and Karl Marx
commercial despot by :
(a) Aristotle (b) Marx 92. The name of “CGT” or “Confederation
(c) Fourier (d) Stalin Generale du Travail” is relevant in connection
with :
84. The idea of class war was originally spread (a) Neo-liberalism
by : (b) Bolshevism
(a) Kautsky (b) Marx (c) Syndicalism
(c) Engels (d) Saint Simon (d) None of the above
60 Objective Political Science
93. The Fabian Society was named after Fabius (b) Idealists
Cunctator who was the : (c) Social Darwinists
(a) Emperor of France (d) Adolf Hitler
(b) Czar of Russia
102. The Fascist Philosophy of irrationalism was
(c) Dictator of ancient Rome
borrowed from :
(d) None of the above
(a) Treitschke and Bernhardi
94. Who branded syndicalism as ‘revisionism of (b) Hegel and Hume
the left’? (c) Schopenhauer and Nietzsche
(a) Mosca (b) Weber (d) None of the above
(c) Marx (d) Sorel
103. Fascism believed in myths. In this regard
95. Which of the following works is authored by Fascism w as influenced by the social
Herbert Spencer? philosophy of :
(a) A Plea for Liberty
(a) Nietzsche (b) Sorel
(b) Social Statics
(c) Kafka (d) Kant
(c) Political Ideals
(d) All of the above 104. Who maintained that Fascism is a theory of
liberal capitalist society in crisis?
96. Who called guild socialism ‘British variant
(a) Gandhians (b) Liberals
of syndicalism’?
(a) Coker (c) Socialists (d) Marxists
(b) Poulantzas 105. Who branded Fascist Party as “the Conscience
(c) Florence Elliot of the state”?
(d) None of the above (a) Mussolini
97. The view that rent is brigandage reduced to a (b) Bergson
system belongs to : (c) Gentile
(a) Woolsey (b) Davidson (d) None of the above
(c) Engels (d) Proudhon 106. Goering’s name is associated with :
98. Which of the following was totalitarian in (a) Italian Fascism
character? (b) German Nazism
(a) Fascism (b) Communism (c) Japanese Militarism
(c) Nazism (d) All of these (d) None of the above
99. Nazism and Fascism arose respectively in : 107. In connection with Nazism ‘Volk’ refers to :
(a) 1922 and 1933 (a) State (b) Race
(b) 1922 and 1932 (c) Nation (d) Community
(c) 1933 and 1922
(d) None of the above 108. Hitler’s notorious work Mein-Kampf literally
mean :
100. The name of Sir Oswald Mosley is associated (a) Nation-State (b) Race and Nation
with :
(c) My struggle (d) My Nation
(a) Mussolini’s Cabinet
(b) Fascist Movement in England 109. The ‘Storm Troopers’ and the ‘Blackguards’
(c) The Nazi Party are associated with :
(d) None of the above (a) Fascism
(b) Militarism
101. Mussolini borrowed the idea of constant
struggle from : (c) Nazism
(a) Nepolean Bonaparte (d) None of the above
Political Ideologies 61
110. Mahatma Gandhi owed his inspiration for 118. The work Reflections Violence is authored by :
civil disobedience and the non-payment of (a) Pareto (b) Sorel
taxes to : (c) Proudhon (d) Bakunin
(a) Leo Tolstoy (b) John Ruskin 119. Guild Socialism originated in :
(c) Thoreau (d) Both (b) and (c) (a) Post World-War I period
111. The Keywords of Gandhian economy are : (b) The second decade of the twentieth
(a) Self-sufficiency century
(b) Decentralized production (c) The inter-war period
(c) Equitable distribution (d) None of the above
(d) All of the above 120. In 1915, the Guild Socialists established the
112. Who was the first writer to declare himself National Guilds League in:
openly an Anarchist? (a) France (b) U.S.A.
(a) Warren (b) Thoreau (c) Britain (d) Germany
(c) Proudhon (d) None of the above 121. Who among the following tried to modify the
113. Proudhon, a prominent anarchist discovered ideas of Penty to suit modern conditions?
the origin of the state in : (a) G.D.H. Cole (b) George Hobson
(a) Dominant class (b) Army and police (c) A.R. Orage (d) Both (b) and (c)
(c) Private property (d) Both (b) and (c) 122. Who is said to be the “infant prodigy of guild
114. Who among the following popularised the socialism”?
theory of individualistic anarchism in the (a) G.D.H. Cole (b) Laski
United states? (c) C.E.M. Joad (d) Hobson
(a) Warren (b) Tucker 123. The term Syndicalism is derived from the
(c) Schmidt (d) Both (a) and (b) word ‘Syndicate’ which is the French name
115. An important anarchist, Kropotkin was for :
inspired by : (a) Pressure Group
(a) Ideas of Bakunin (b) Trade Union
(b) Darwin’s biological principle of mutual (c) Political Party
aid (d) Secret Organisation
(c) Syndicalism 124. Syndicalism can be said to have drawn its
(d) Both (a) and (b) inspiration from the words of :
116. Who among the following recommended both (a) Karl Marx (b) Proudhon
evolutionary and revolutionary techniques to (c) Hegel (d) Lenin
achieve the anarchist goal? 125. The Erfurt programme (1891) is associated
(a) Bakunin with the name of :
(b) Proudhon (a) Bebel (b) Liebknecht
(c) Hodgskin (c) Singer (d) All of these
(d) None of the above 126. W ho said that, “Socialism is merely
117. The ideas of Proudhon, Bakunin and individualism retionalised organised, closed
Kropotkin were popularised in France by : and in its right mind”?
(a) Elisee Reclus (a) Sidney Olivier
(b) Guy de Moupassant (b) Edward Bernstein
(c) Jean Grave (c) G.D.H. Cole
(d) both (a) and (c) (d) Both (b) and (c)
62 Objective Political Science
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(c) (b) (c) (b) (d) (d) (d) (b) (b) (b)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(b) (d) (b) (b) (c) (d) (c) (d) (c) (a)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(b) (b) (c) (b) (b) (b) (d) (c) (a) (d)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(b) (b) (d) (d) (b) (b) (c) (b) (c) (d)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(a) (b) (d) (c) (d) (b) (b) (d) (d) (d)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(a) (b) (d) (a) (d) (a) (d) (b) (d) (b)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(c) (b) (c) (d) (c) (c) (b) (b) (d) (b)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(d) (c) (b) (b) (c) (b) (b) (d) (b) (d)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(d) (a) (c) (d) (c) (b) (c) (c) (d) (b)
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
(c) (c) (c) (d) (b) (c) (b) (d) (c) (b)
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
(c) (c) (b) (d) (c) (b) (d) (c) (c) (c)
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
(d) (c) (c) (d) (d) (a) (d) (b) (b) (c)
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
(d) (a) (b) (b) (d) (a) (c) (b) (c) (a)
PARTY SYSTEM
AND POLITICAL PROCESS
1. Which book published in 1908, is the first (a) Decline of the office of the Chief Minister
study of pressure groups? (b) Mockery of Ministerial Responsibility
(a) The Process of Government (c) H eterogeneous character of the
(b) Comparative Politics government
(c) The Politics of the Developing Areas (d) All of the above
(d) Political Behaviour
7. In coalition governments the bureaucracy
2. The term ‘coalition’ is derived from the latin becomes :
word ‘coalitio’which means : (a) Efficient
(a) To merge (b) To support (b) All powerful
(c) To grow together (d) To complement (c) Fair and just
3. Who among the following made the famous (d) None of the above
statem ent: “England does not love 8. The most important factor in the formation
coalitions”? of the coalitions is :
(a) K.C. Wheare (b) Bertrand Russell (a) Power sharing
(c) Disraeli (d) Churchill (b) People’s mandate
4. Which of the following is an important (c) Political opportunism
implication of the system of coalition? (d) Mutual understanding
(a) Coalitions are formed for the sake of 9. Which of the following is one of the salient
some reward, material or psychic features of the coalition governments?
(b) A coalition implies the existence of at (a) Lack of polarisation
least two partners (b) Political opportunism
(c) The underlying principle of a coalition (c) Political defections
system stands on the simple fact of (d) All of the above
temporary conjunction of specific interest
(d) All of the above 10. Who initiated the systematic study of pressure
groups?
5. Coalition governments continue to be :
(a) Powell (b) Lenin
(a) Stable
(c) Grazia (d) Bentley
(b) undemocratic
(c) Unstable 11. Who said that institutional interest groups are
(d) None of the above “formal organisations, composed of
professionally employed personnel, with
6. Which of the following is one of the political
designated political and social functions other
and constitutional implications of the coalition
than interest articulation”?
politics?
63
64 Objective Political Science
26. Who among the following view interest (a) Garner (b) Gilchrist
groups as a phenomenon typical of capitalism (c) Gettel (d) Duverger
and preclude their existence in the social order 35. Who says that “a realistic survey of the British
laid down by them? Constitution today must begin and end with
(a) Anarchists (b) Marxists parties and discuss them at length in the
(c) Neo-Liberals (d) Socialists middle”?
27. Lowell speaks of the tendency on men to run (a) K.C. Wheare
the cycle from radical to reactionary as they (b) W.B. Munro
grow old, in his work : (c) Ivor Jennings
(a) Public Opinion in War and Peace (d) None of the above
(b) Modern democracies
(c) An Introduction to American Politics 36. While discussing party system, Duverger uses
(d) None of the above the term ‘indirect parties’ to refer to :
(a) Pressure groups
28. Who holds the view that the term ‘party’ may (b) Organisations that play party-like role in
be interchangeable with a ‘faction’ if it is a polity
not‘seditious’? (c) Non-government organisations
(a) Neumann (b) Willoughby (d) All of the above
(c) Seeley (d) Sartori
37. Who has compared parties with conduits that
29. Party is understood as a ‘doctrine’ by : carry the process of social thought from the
(a) Guild-socialism (b) Anarchism voluntary area of society into the area of
(c) Marxism (d) Liberalism
government?
30. In which of the following countries the two (a) MacIver (b) Barker
party system prevails? (c) Laski (d) None of the above
(a) Canada (b) New Zealand
38. The term ‘stasiology’ refers to :
(c) South Africa (d) All of these
(a) Party Politics
31. In his study of political parties Robert Michels (b) Scientific study of party politics
focussed on : (c) Study of pressure group politics
(a) Organisation (b) Cadre (d) None of the above
(c) Structure (d) Leadership
39. Who has opined that a political party “is held
32. Who among the following does/do not favour together, primarily by its ideology and
existence of political parties? organisation”?
(a) Rousseau (b) J.S. Mill (a) Laski (b) Edmund Burke
(c) Alexander Pope (d) Both (a) and(c) (c) Roucek Huszar (d) Carl Friedrich
33. The demarcation of parties as those of Left
40. Who held the view about political parties that
and those of Right can be traced in its origin
under a regime of universal suffrage, they are
to :
inevitable like the tides of the Ocean?
(a) Soviet Political Parties
(b) American Constituent Assembly (a) Garner (b) Sartori
(c) Custom followed in the legislatures of (c) Seeley (d) Sait
European Continental Countries 41. Who initiated the systematic study of pressure
(d) None of the above groups in the first decade of the twentieth
34. Who has opined that the party system has century?
broken dow n the great rigidity of the (a) Fertram Latham (b) David Truman
American Constitution? (c) Arthur Bentley (d) All of these
Obj. Pol. Sc.-9
66 Objective Political Science
42. In the studies on political parties, the term 49. Who among the following did not look at
used to imply dissidence and the illegitimate political parties with favour and approval?
assertion of partisan aims is : (a) Hamilton
(a) Caucus (b) League (b) Laski
(c) Cell (d) Faction (c) George Washington
(d) Both (a) and(c)
43. Which among the following books contains
the first systematic study of pressure groups? 50. W ho says that victory is “the first
(a) Interest Groups in American Society commandment of a political party”?
(b) The Governmental Process (a) Alan Ball
(c) The Process of Government (b) Barker
(d) The Nature of Politics (c) Finer
(d) None of the above
44. The names of Peter H. Odegard, Fertram
Latham, V.O. Key Jr. and Charles B. Hagen 51. One party system was established in :
are relevent in connection with the study of : (a) Germany by Hitler
(a) Political parties (b) Russia by Lenin
(b) Interest groups (c) Italy by Mussolini
(c) Political institutions (d) All of the above
(d) Structural-Functional approach 52. Who among the following visualised the party
45. The Human Nature Theory of the origin of as a small compact care?
political parties seeks to explain the (a) Duverger (b) Finer
phenomenon in terms of : (c) Lenin (d) J.S. Mill
(a) Combative instinct 53. The significant work ‘Interest Groups in Soviet
(b) Charisma of leaders Politics’ is authored by :
(c) Temperament (a) Alfred de Grazia
(d) All of the above (b) Lenin
46. ‘What is to be done’? is (c) Franklyn Griffiths and Gordon Skilling
(a) Lenin’s critique of the Marxian theme of (d) None of the above
dialectical materialism 54. Political parties are responsible for maintaining
(b) Part of Rousseau’s Confessions a continuous connection between :
(c) Lenin’s first important theoretical work (a) People and the Government
on party (b) President and the Prime Minister
(d) Trotsky’s Critique of Lenin (c) People and the Opposition
47. Pressure groups were referred to as (d) Both (a) and (c)
‘anonymous empire’ by : 55. Which among the following is distinguishing
(a) MacIver feature of a political party?
(b) Almond (a) Stable organisation
(c) S.E. Finer (b) Desirable objectives for the corporate
(d) None of the above body as a whole
48. D.D. Mckean used the epithet invisible (c) Recognised leadership
government to refer to : (d) All of the above
(a) Political parties 56. The work ‘The British Constitution’ is
(b) Bureaucracy authored by :
(c) Pressure groups (a) Carl Friedrich
(d) None of the above (b) Ivor Jennings
Party System and Political Process 67
(c) Richard Synder 59. Who opined that a general will or a true public
(d) None of the above opinion cannot manifest itself in a country
57. Which of the following books is authored by where parties or sects prevail?
C.A. Beard? (a) T.H. Green
(a) American Government and Politics (b) Rousseau
(b) Modern Democracies (c) Macpherson
(c) Political Parties of Today (d) None of the above
(d) All of the above
60. Who made the observation that with or
58. When a political party directs its activities in
without universal suffrage, it is always an
furthering sectional interests and selfish ends
oligarchy which governs?
it degenerates into a :
(a) C. Wright Mills
(a) Pressure group
(b) Faction (b) Vilfredo Pareto
(c) Interest group (c) Lowell
(d) None of these (d) None of the above
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(a) (c) (c) (d) (c) (d) (b) (c) (d) (d)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(a) (b) (d) (c) (a) (c) (b) (d) (a) (d)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(b) (c) (b) (b) (b) (b) (a) (d) (d) (d)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(d) (d) (c) (b) (c) (b) (b) (b) (c) (d)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(c) (d) (c) (b) (d) (c) (c) (c) (d) (c)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(d) (c) (c) (d) (d) (b) (a) (b) (b) (b)
FORMS OF GOVERNMENT
1. W ho said the progress of transfer of 7. Which form of decentralisation means the
administrative authority from a lower to a setting up of new levels of government?
higher level of governm ent is called (a) Political (b) Social
“centralisation”? (c) Legal (d) Economic
(a) White (b) Gulick 8. The term Panchayati Raj refers to a three-tier
(c) Simon (d) Fayol structure of rural local self-government in
2. Who is regarded as the father of local self- each :
government in India? (a) Village
(a) Lord Mayo (b) Lord Lawrence (b) Block
(c) Lord Irwin (d) Lord Ripon (c) District
(d) None of the above
3. Which state government made drastic changes
9. Who said that delegation means conferring
in the entire set-up of local self-government
authority from one executive or organisation
institutions in the state and introduced the
unit to another?
Janapada set-up in 1948? (a) Mooney (b) Terry
(a) Gujarat (b) Manipur (c) Follett (d) Dimock
(c) Haryana (d) Madhya Pradesh
10. Much of the delegation of work found in the
4. According to Structural Functional approach departments and other organization is :
which of the following does not constitute (a) Formal
‘input functions’ of a political system? (b) Conditional
(a) Political socialisation (c) Informal
(b) Political development (d) None of the above
(c) Interest aggregation 11. The work of the U.S.A. federal public services
(d) Political communication com m ission in m atters of recruitm ent,
5. Which of the following implies devolution classification etc. had been :
of authority by a person to his agent or (a) Delegated
subordinate subject to his right of supervision (b) Centralised
and control? (c) Decentralised
(a) Decentralisation (d) None of the above
(b) Centralisation 12. An administrative thinker, M.P. Follett states
(c) Delegation that the concept of delegation is a mere myth
(d) None of the above of :
6. Decentralisation may be : (a) Bureaucratic theory
(a) Political (b) Administrative (b) Organisational theory
(c) Classical theory
(c) Moral (d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Scientific theory
68
Forms of Government 69
13. Without decentralisation ------ is impossible. 21. Which form of decentralisation signifies the
(a) Comparative administration central authority ceding specified decision-
(b) Financial administration making functions to technical or professional
(c) Grass-roots administration bodies or experts?
(d) Personnel administration (a) Vertical (b) Territorial
14. Who said that vesting of much authority into (c) Horizontal (d) Functional
the hands of elective local bodies makes the 22. Administrative decentralisation may be :
administrative system decentralized? (a) Vertical (b) Horizontal
(a) Taylor (b) Riggs (c) Territorial (d) All of these
(c) White (d) None of these 23. What facilitates the adjustment of national
15. Decentralised agencies can be of various types policies to the distinctive features of socio-
depending upon their : cultural and econom ic conditions and
(a) Status (b) Authority characteristics?
(c) Accountability (d) All of these (a) Decentralisation
16. Which form of decentralisation involves the (b) Delegation
problem of relationship betw een the (c) Centralisation
headquarters and numerous field agencies? (d) None of the above
(a) Territorial 24. The centralisation versus decentralisation
(b) Functional debate has been more insistent in the wake of
(c) Administrative new shifts in the development strategy of :
(d) None of the above (a) Developed countries
17. By the end of the ------ there was widespread (b) European countries
disillusionment with centralised models of (c) Third world countries
growth in developing countries. (d) None of the above
(a) 1970’s (b) 1960’s 25. Which of the following factors are relevant
(c) 1980’s (d) 1950’s in opting for a centralised or decentralised
18. Centralisation and decentralisation are not system?
------ principles of administration which can 1. Responsibility
be universally applied to all types of 2. Function
administration. 3. Administration
(a) Contextual 4. External factors
(b) Axiomatic Choose the correct answer by using the codes
(c) Pragmatic given below :
(d) None of the above Codes :
19. Who recommended the vesting in the local (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
agencies “not only the execution, but to a (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
great degree the control of details”? 26. Who among the following defines cabinet as
(a) Laski (b) Dimock a “hyphen that joins, the buckle that binds
(c) J.S. Mill (d) Fayol the executive and legislative departments
20. Too much of decentralisation may lead to together”?
(a) Anarchy (a) Bryce (b) Bagehot
(b) Grassroot democracy (c) Barker (d) Garner
(c) Autocracy 27. The works ‘Modern Domocracies’ and ‘The
(d) None of the above English Constitution’ are authored by :
70 Objective Political Science
43. W ho am ong the follow ing opines that (a) Indian model
federalism, when successful, has generally (b) Westminster model
been a stage towards a unitary government? (c) French model
(a) Wheare (b) Laski (d) Australian model
(c) Dicey (d) All of the above 51. The term of office of the Mexican President
44. The doctrine of ‘dual federalism’ was is :
commonly used in the nineteenth century to (a) Four years
describe : (b) Five years
(a) Australian federal system (c) Six years
(b) German federal system (d) None of the above
(c) Both (a) and (b)
52. The term ‘presidential government’ originated
(d) American federal system
in :
45. The notion of cooperative federalism emerged (a) United States (b) France
and got consolidated during the period of : (c) Switzerland (d) Great Britain
(a) Wilson and Roosevelt
53. Which of the following events strengthened
(b) Taft
the American Presidency?
(c) Washington and Lincoln
(a) The Great Depression
(d) None of the above
(b) The Korean War
46. In which of the following countries, the (c) Both (a) and (b)
residuary power lie with the units? (d) The American Civil War
(a) Australia (b) India
(c) Canada (d) Both (a) and (c) 54. Which of the following set of countries does
not have Presidential government?
47. Who among the following believe that the (a) Italy and Canada
federal spirit is likely to expand worldwide (b) Philippines and South Korea
and pervade the political structures of many (c) Indonesia and Egypt
a nation? (d) None of the above
(a) Sidgwick (b) Willoughby
(c) Wheare (d) Both (a) and (c) 55. In the United States of America, the election
of President is :
48. When did the real power slip away from the (a) A direct popular election
parliament into the hands of the cabinet which (b) An indirect unpopular election
then assumed central importance?
(c) An indirect popular election
(a) By the end of the seventeenth century
(d) None of the above
(b) By the end of the eighteenth century
(c) By the middle of the nineteenth century 56. The work Government and Politics in Latin
(d) By the middle of the twentieth century America is authored by :
(a) R.A. Gomez
49. W hich of the follow ing developm ents
(b) Robert E. Scott
expedited the decline of parliament and
(c) Che Gwevera
transfer of its power of the cabinet?
(d) None of the above
(a) Integration of pressure groups
(b) Strengthening of the judiciary 57. The U.S. President heads :
(c) Both (a) and (b) (a) The armed forces
(d) Rise of the party system (b) Country’s public administration
50. The most w idely know n m odel of (c) National executive
parliamentary system of government is the : (d) All of the above
72 Objective Political Science
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(a) (d) (d) (b) (c) (d) (a) (c) (b) (c)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(c) (b) (c) (c) (d) (a) (b) (b) (c) (a)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(d) (d) (a) (c) (c) (b) (b) (c) (d) (b)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(c) (c) (c) (d) (c) (c) (c) (d) (d) (d)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(c) (a) (c) (d) (a) (a) (d) (c) (d) (b)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(c) (a) (c) (a) (c) (a) (d) (b) (a) (a)
BUREAUCRACY CONCEPT
1. The centralisation of bureaucracy was related (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
to a trend of growing : 6. Who identified bureaucracy with institutions
(a) Nationalisation and large scale organisations in society?
(b) Rationalisation (a) Laski (b) Dimock
(c) Commercialisation (c) Davis (d) Urwick
(d) None of the above
7. Which of the following developed in the
2. Marx’s observations on the changing role of eighteenth and nineteenth centuries, first in
bureaucracy can be found eminently in his the countries of Western Europe and then in
most brilliant political pamphlet : other countries of the world?
(a) Critique of political Economy (a) Public Administration
(b) The Administrative State (b) Development Administration
(c) The 18th Brumaire of Louis Bonaparte (c) Bureaucracy
(d) Elements of Public Administration (d) None of the above
3. Michels thought that all big organisations 8. W hich of the follow ing is a cause of
tended to develop a bureaucratic structure bureaucracy, according to Weber?
which ruled out the possibility of : (a) Democracy
(a) Internal democracy (b) The emergence of money economy
(b) External democracy (c) The growth of the European population
(c) People’s participation (d) All of the above
(d) Political interference
9. Which of the following features makes a
4. Who said that bureaucracy is just one of the public organisation bureaucratic, according to
three main types of personnel systems, viz, F. Heady?
the Bureaucratic, the Aristocratic and the (a) Hierarchy
Democratic? (b) Defferentiation or specialisation
(a) Max Weber (b) Willoughby (c) Qualification or competence
(c) Ogg (d) Finer (d) All of the above
5. Consider the following forms of bureaucracy 10. The ------ bureaucracy has a class base and
according to Marx : “arises from the class connection of those in
1. The guardian bureaucracy the controlling positions”.
2. The caste bureaucracy (a) Merit
3. The patronage bureaucracy (b) Patronage
4. The merit bureaucracy (c) Caste
Which of the above are correct? Choose the (d) None of the above
correct answer using the codes given below : 11. W hat is another nam e for patronage
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 bureaucracy?
73 Obj. Pol. Sc.-10
74 Objective Political Science
26. Which of the following has been defined as 34. Bureaucracy as an organisational model was
“punctilious exactitude in the observance of first developed systematically by :
regulations”? (a) Merton (b) Hewart
(a) Nepotism (b) Bureaucracy (c) Laski (d) Max Weber
(c) Red tape (d) Administration 35. Weber repeatedly stressed the fact that the
27. Who describes the growth of bureaucracies ------ system has undeniably played a major
from structural-functional angle in colonial role in the developm ent of modern
and non-colonial developing countries? bureaucracy.
(a) Heady (b) Riggs (a) Socialist
(c) Fainsod (d) Eisenstadt (b) Mixed
28. A structural view of bureaucracy as an (c) Capitalist
organisation was taken by : (d) None of the above
(a) Max Weber (b) Arthur K Davis 36. Who has defined bureaucracy as “a system
(c) Karl Marx (d) Lenin of government the control of which is so
29. Who believes that bureaucracy contributes to completely in the hands of officials that their
the alienation of the people? power jeopardises the liberties of ordinary
(a) Marx (b) Weber citizens”?
(c) Trotsky (d) Rizzi (a) Max Weber (b) Laski
(c) Pfiffner (d) Vieg
30. Much before Karl Marx, ------ had viewed
bureaucracy as officials who governed in their 37. Merit bureaucracy aims at :
own interests rather than in the interests of (a) Career open to affiliation
the governed. (b) Career open to experience
(a) Spencer (b) Mill (c) Career open to talent
(c) Laski (d) Saint Simon (d) Career open to politics
31. Marx insisted that bureaucracy grew as a 38. According to Bertrand Russel, bureaucracy
result of external and pathological : everywhere tends to develop a negative
(a) Political divisions psychology perpetually prone to :
(b) Social divisions (a) Prohibitions (b) Injustice
(c) Economic divisions (c) Corruption (d) Impropriety
(d) None of the above 39. Who was the strongest critic of bureaucracy?
32. The only thing for which Marx praised (a) Presthus (b) Ramsay Muir
bureaucracy was its role in : (c) Morrison (d) Max Weber
(a) Decentralising nations 40. Who developed a typology of authority and
(b) Ground level administration distinguished three pure types-traditional
(c) Centralising nations charismatic and legal?
(d) A political administration (a) Mosca
33. Whose views are in sharp contrast to the (b) Michels
Weberian conception of bureaucracy as (c) Max Weber
rationalisation of organisation? (d) None of the above
(a) Marx 41. Weber’s conception of bureaucracy can be
(b) Lenin found in his ideas on :
(c) Merton (a) Power (b) Authority
(d) None of these (c) Domination (d) All of these
76 Objective Political Science
56. Who among the following view bureaucrats 63. Marx’s observations on the changing role of
as one of the several ‘Veto groups’ that bureaucracy can be prominently found in :
function in a political system? (a) Philosophy of Poverty
(a) Neo-liberals (b) Thesis on Feuerbach
(b) Feminists (c) The 18th Brumaire of Louis Bonaparte
(c) Anarchists (d) All of the above
(d) Pluralist thinkers on bureaucracy
64. In modern times the rise and growth of
57. Who among the following is prominent global bureaucracy is integrally associated with the
new class theorist? emergence of :
(a) Andre Gunder Frank (a) Political parties (b) Capitalist state
(b) Weber (c) Socialism (d) None of the above
(c) Rizzi
65. The term ‘soviets’ was used and popularised
(d) Martin Albrow
by :
58. In the whole gam ut of scholarship on (a) Marx (b) Engels
bureaucracy the phrase ‘governmental (c) Lenin (d) Stalin
overload’ is associated with :
(a) Pluralist theory of bureaucracy 66. Who among the following have denounced
(b) Soviet ideas on bureaucracy bureaucracy and suggested its replacement by
(c) Neo-liberal views on bureaucracy a new type of public services under people’s
(d) None of the above bodies?
(a) Fabian Socialist (b) Marxists
59. W ho held that the tw o institutions— (c) Liberals (d) Conservatives
bureaucracy and standing army as most
characteristic of the state machine and a 67. The work ‘How Britain is Governed’ is
parasite on the body of bourgeois society? authored by :
(a) Gandhi (b) Marx (a) A.L. Lowell (b) A.V. Dicey
(c) Lenin (d) Mao (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Ramsay Muir
60. Who among the following has made a very 68. About which country it is said that the
detailed study of the negative features of expansion of bureaucracy there under the
bureaucracy? imperial rule blocked the advent of industrial
(a) Huntington (b) Weber revolution?
(c) Ralph P. Hummel (d) None of the above (a) Japan (b) India
(c) China (d) Russia
61. The only thing for which Marx praised
bureaucracy was : 69. Who among the following has shown that
(a) Its systematic hierarchical character decision-making by bureaucrats is influenced
(b) Its performance in the Agrarian, Colonial by a host of factors like one’s beliefsets,
societies Socialization, feelings and emotions?
(c) Its role in centralizing nations (a) Herbert Simon
(d) All of the above (b) Hegel
62. Who am ong the follow ing regarded as (c) Weber
Medieval Aristotle? (d) Vincent de Gourney
(a) St. Augustine 70. The work ‘The Politics of Under
(b) St. Thomas Acq Development’ is authored by :
(c) Marsiglio of Padue (a) Sigmund Neumann
(d) John Salisbury (b) Gerald Heeger
78 Objective Political Science
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(b) (c) (a) (b) (d) (b) (c) (d) (d) (c)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(b) (a) (b) (a) (b) (d) (b) (c) (b) (c)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(a) (c) (d) (d) (b) (c) (d) (b) (a) (d)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(b) (c) (a) (d) (c) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(d) (b) (a) (b) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (b)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(b) (c) (d) (c) (b) (d) (c) (a) (c) (c)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(c) (b) (c) (b) (c) (b) (d) (c) (a) (b)
71 72 73 74 75
(d) (c) (c) (c) (d)
THEORIES OF DEVELOPMENT
1. Which model of development was adopted 6. W hich Political Scientist gave a new
by a number of European and Asian countries dim ension to the concept of Justice,
after the second world war? liberalism and Equality?
(a) Liberal model (a) John Rawls
(b) Socialist model (b) Arthur Bentley
(c) Welfare-state model (c) Karl Marx
(d) None of the above (d) Hans Morgenthau
2. At the political level, the welfare state model 7. W hich of the follow ing models of
believes that only a ------ state can perform development challenged the market model of
the task of development. development with freedom?
(a) Socialist (b) Communist (a) Welfare model (b) Liberal model
(c) Democratic (d) Pluralist (c) Marxist model (d) Both (a) and (c)
3. Which of the following is one of the well- 8. The market model of development has been
defined goals of the development strategy in an enemy of :
India? (a) Socio-economic equality
(a) Reduction in social disparities (b) Competition
(b) Providing minim um conditions of (c) Political equality
subsistence and survival
(d) None of the above
(c) Independence of econom y from its
reliance on strategic imports and foreign 9. Which model of development believes in
aid development through the state?
(d) All of the above (a) Marxist model
(b) Welfare model
4. Which of the following are the periods of
(c) Liberal model
development according to Marx?
(a) Feudalism and Communism (d) None of the above
(b) Capitalism and Socialism 10. Who best explains the welfare theory of
(c) Conservatism and modernism development?
(d) Both (a) and (b) (a) John Rawls (b) Paul Baran
5. Which theory blames under-development on (c) J.M. Keynes (d) Lucian Pye
bad government, bad trade policies and 11. Which of the following is not associated with
political mismanagement? political underdevelopment?
(a) Pluralist theory (a) Corruption
(b) Market theory (b) Violent demonstrations
(c) Socialist theory (c) Committed bureaucracy
(d) None of the above (d) Territorial integration
79
80 Objective Political Science
12. The views of Marxism are more relevant in (a) Political Development and Political
the context of underdevelopment of the : Decay
(a) Developing countries (b) Wealth of Nations
(b) Third-world countries (c) Three World of Development
(c) Developed countries (d) None of the above
(d) Asian countries
20. Adam Smith in his book ‘The Wealth of
13. Which approach tried to study the nature of Nations’ equated development with :
development in terms of evolution of the (a) Consumer sovereignty
developed and under-developed societies? (b) Efficient production
(a) Historical approach (c) A positive movement
(b) Legal approach
(d) A negative state
(c) Comparative history approach
(d) Institutional approach 21. Who is the king in the market model of
development?
14. Who said that development is both political
modernization and political institutionalization? (a) Consumer (b) Retailer
(a) Levy (b) Jaguaribe (c) Producer (d) None of the above
(c) Pierson (d) Briggs 22. An important condition for the market model
15. Which one of the following statements of development is :
regarding the concept of development is not (a) Manipulation
correct? (b) Guild organisation
(a) D evelopment is a very com plex (c) Competition
phenomenon (d) None of the above
(b) Development is an asynchronous process 23. Who said that development ‘is a movement
(c) The concept of development is also upward of a whole system of interdependent
associated with ideology conditions as a complex process in which
(d) An undeveloped society is made up of economic growth is only one of the several
certain social and political structures,
categories of causally relevant conditions’?
processes and technologies and life-styles
(a) Roger (b) Gunnar Myrdal
16. The chief proponent of the theory of Natural (c) Walter (d) None of the above
Right are—
(a) John Locke and Thomas Paine 24. Which of the following does not mean
(b) Lasswell and Kaplan development in the liberal capitalist world?
(c) Hegel and Kant (a) Political participation
(d) Durkheim and Weber (b) Decentralisation of power
(c) Political defections
17. Which of the following is a significant model
(d) National integration
by which socio-economic development could
be achieved? 25. Gandhi’s view on development can be
(a) Market model (b) Socialist model summed up as :
(c) Welfare model (d) All of the above (a) Social Equilibrium
18. The ------ view of development considers (b) Political Equilibrium
market as central to development. (c) Spiritual Equilibrium
(a) Marxist (b) Political (d) Moral Equilibrium
(c) Classical-liberal (d) Socialist 26. Gandhi made a distinction between ------ and
19. In which book Adam Smith laid stress on the ------ development.
concept of an autonomous self-regulating (a) Real, moral (b) Economic, real
economy described as civil society? (c) Political, social (d) Moral, political
Theories of Development 81
27. According to Gandhi, the root of happiness (a) Roger (b) Galbraith
lies in : (c) Pierson (d) Levy
(a) Materialism (b) Hedonism 35. Who is the author of ‘Two Concept of
(c) Spiritualism (d) Mysticism Liberty’?
28. Who said that underdevelopment theory (a) Mill (b) Isciahs Berlin
erroneously overstresses the role of colonial (c) Laski (d) Macpherson
and post-colonial econom ies in the 36. Pain and pressure and the two Sovereign
development? matter is said by–
(a) John Rawls (b) John Taylor (a) Hobbes (b) Hegel
(c) Macpherson (d) Walter
(c) Machiaveth (d) Benthan
29. The Gandhian view of development was
37. ‘Pain and Pressure and the two Sovereign
based upon his metaphysical ------ with
matter’, is said by—
emphasis on the supremacy of ethical values
(a) Hobbes (b) Hegel
and a moral approach to the problem of
(c) Machiavelli (d) Bentham
development.
(a) Idealism 38. Which theory was developed as a critique of
(b) Transcendentalism welfare model of development in the context
(c) Theism of post-colonial societies?
(d) None of the above (a) Development theory
(b) Marxist theory
30. Which of the following statement is true
(c) Underdevelopment theory
regarding the socialist system of development?
(d) Socialist theory
(a) Public ow nership of the m eans of
production 39. Who among the following is not an advocate
(b) Centralisation of all sectors of economy of underdevelopment theory?
(c) All economic decisions are made by a (a) Paul Baran (b) Andre Gunder
central authority (c) Celso Furtando (d) Simon
(d) All of the above 40. The major tenet of underdevelopment theory
31. According to whom, development consisted is also shared by :
of four elements: adaptability, complexity, (a) Dependency theory
autonomy and coherence? (b) Socialist theory
(a) Nye (b) Huntington (c) Development theory
(c) Briggs (d) Pierson (d) None of the above
32. Who gave the first system of social science 41. Who best explains the welfare theory of
framed primarily in terms of developmental development?
models since it related development to social (a) John Rawls (b) Paul Baran
interests? (c) J.M. Keynes (d) Lucian Pye
(a) Marx (b) Myrdal
42. Which model of development believes in
(c) Levy (d) None of the above
development through the state?
33. Which of the following countries adopted the (a) Marxist model (b) Welfare model
Marxist model of socialist development? (c) Liberal model (d) None of the above
(a) China (b) North Korea 43. The market model of development has been
(c) Cuba (d) All of the above an enemy of :
34. Who said that while the socialist system was (a) Socio-economic equality
able to attain its initial goals, it could not (b) Competition
adapt to the new challenges and requirements (c) Political equality
placed upon it? (d) None of the above
Obj. Pol. Sc.-11
82 Objective Political Science
57. Who among the following gave prominence 63. Who points out that underdevelopment is
to the size principle in his theory of political systematically and everywhere associated
coalitions? with and produced by colonisation?
(a) William Riker (b) Gabriel Almond (a) Paul Baran (b) Gunder Frank
(c) Lucian W Pye (d) V. O. Key (c) C. Furtando (d) None of these
58. According to Gandhi, the root of happiness 64. The theory of ------ can be traced to Lenin’s
lies in : theory of imperialism.
(a) Materialism (b) Hedonism (a) Underdevelopment
(c) Spiritualism (d) Mysticism (b) Colonialism
(c) Development
59. Who said that underdevelopment theory
(d) None of the above
erroneously overstresses the role of colonial
and postcolonial econom ics in the 65. At the political level, the welfare state model
development? believes that only a ------ state can perform
(a) John Rawls (b) John Taylor the task of development.
(c) Macpherson (d) Walter (a) Socialist (b) Communist
(c) Democratic (d) Pluralist
60. Which of the following statements is true
regarding the socialist system of 66. Which of the following are the periods of
development? development according to Marx?
(a) Public ow nership of the m eans of (a) Feudalism and Communism
production (b) Capitalism and Socialism
(b) Centralisation of all sectors of economy (c) Conservatism and Modernism
(c) All economic decisions are made by a (d) Both (a) and (b)
central authority 67. Who said that while the socialist system was
(d) All of the above able to attain it initial goals, it could not adopt
61. In which one of the following countries was to the new challenges and requirements placed
proportional representation system given up upon it?
after a practice of nearly fifty years in favour (a) Roger (b) Galbraith
of first-past the post system? (c) Pierson (d) Levy
(a) Germany (b) France 68. Which one of the following types of equality
(c) U.S.A. (d) Italy is not compatible with the liberal notion of
62. Match List I (Idea) with List II (Thinker) and equality?
select the correct answer using the codes given (a) Legal equality
below the lists : (b) Political equality
List-I List-II (c) Social equality
A. Group theory 1. Robert Dahl (d) Economic equality
B. Polyarchy 2. G. Mosca 69. Which one of the following principles is
C. Elite theory 3. A.F. Bentley denoted by the Dicey’s rule of law?
D. Power elite 4. C. Wright Mills (a) Equality before law and rule by law
Codes : (b) Rule by law and law alone and due
A B C D process of law
(a) 3 4 2 1 (c) Equality before law and administrative
(b) 2 1 3 4 law
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) Rule by law; equality before law and due
(d) 2 4 3 1 process of law
84 Objective Political Science
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(c) (c) (d) (d) (b) (a) (d) (a) (b) (c)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(d) (b) (c) (b) (d) (a) (d) (c) (b) (d)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(a) (c) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c) (b) (a) (d)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(b) (a) (d) (b) (b) (d) (d) (c) (d) (a)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(c) (b) (a) (d) (c) (d) (b) (b) (c) (c)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(a) (b) (b) (d) (c) (b) (a) (c) (b) (d)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(b) (c) (a) (a) (c) (d) (b) (d) (d) (c)
71 72 73 74 75
(c) (d) (b) (d) (a)
SOCIAL MOVEMENTS
1. ------ have for long been the language of (c) Political empowerment
protest, innovation and expression of (d) Economic equality
individuality and separate identity. 8. ------ is considered to be a crucial aspect of
(a) Political ideas
any social movement.
(b) Cultural ideas
(a) Ideology
(c) Religious ideas
(b) Population strength
(d) None of the above
(c) Financial source
2. The Virasaiva movement was organized by (d) None of the above
Basaveswara in the twelfth century A.D. in :
9. Which of the following significant peasant
(a) Karnatak (b) Bihar
m ovements em erged on the basis of
(c) Punjab (d) Madhya Pradesh
communist ideology?
3. Whose account of a sect (Akhand Maha Yoga) (a) Tebhaga
in the making is based on direct observation (b) Naxalite
in the real sense of the term as they actually (c) Telangana
became recruits? (d) All of these
(a) Kolleen (b) Bali
(c) Gar Kellom (d) Both (a) and (c) 10. The Naxalbari peasant revolt owes its origin
to the dying waves to Tebhaga movement in
4. The Akhand Maha Yoga Sangh was founded
Bengal in the :
in :
(a) Thirties (b) Fifties
(a) Delhi (b) Varanasi
(c) Forties (d) Sixties
(c) Patna (d) Bhopal
11. Who was the founder of the Bharat Stree
5. The Shah Wali Ullah movement emphasized :
Mahamandal, ‘Great Circle of Indian Women’,
(a) Orthodoxy and purity of Islamic practices
in 1910?
(b) Modernisation
(c) Political values (a) Sarojini Naidu
(d) None of the above (b) Saraladevi Choudhurani
(c) Saroj Dutt
6. The Tabligh movement in late 1920s was (d) Annie Besant
started by :
(a) Forbes (b) Joseph Troisi 12. The character of social movement as an
(c) Maulana Ilyas (d) Kolleen instrument of social change is quite different
7. The Kharwar movement, which emerged in from an imitative or emulative process of :
the 1930s, was oriented towards reform in the (a) Mobility and Change
direction of : (b) Stasis and Kinesis
(a) Westernization (c) Strength and Weakness
(b) Sanskritization (d) None of the above
85
86 Objective Political Science
13. The social mobility and change that are 20. Which of the following is not included in the
brought about by social movements are based non-governmental organisations of the
on : developing countries?
(a) Challenge (b) Aggression (a) Church development agencies
(c) Protest (d) All of the above (b) Private hospitals and schools
(c) Philanthropic foundations
14. Which of the following is not a feature of
(d) Academic think-tanks
social movements?
(a) Collective mobilisation 21. Which one of the following theories considers
(b) Political affiliation democracy not as a government of the people
(c) Ideology but as ‘the iron law of oligarchy’?
(d) Orientation to change (a) The Pluralist (b) The Marxist
(c) The Elitist (d) The Idealist
15. The ------ are a nomadic caste, engaged mainly
in earthwork and stone work, who agitated in 22. The public can private spheres came to be
the 1930s in Karnataka claiming Kshatriya strongly demarcated in which one of the
varna status for themselves. following ideological orientations?
(a) Waddars (b) Izhavas (a) Fascism (b) Liberalism
(c) Bhuyans (d) Khonds (c) Feminism (d) Marxism
23. ------ are usually regarded as a subcategory
16. W hich m ovement em erged am ong the
of NGO.
peasants who started appropriating ownership
(a) People’s organisations
of the land they were tilling in 1946?
(b) Interest groups
(a) Tabligh movement
(c) Pressure groups
(b) Nijai Bol movement
(d) None of the above
(c) Land-grab movement
(d) None of the above 24. Which of the following is included in people’s
organisations?
17. The Telugu literary movement introduced (a) Peasant associations
ideas of renaissance and set the tone of protest (b) Trade Unions
against : (c) Cooperatives
(a) Nizam administration (d) All of the above
(b) Tughlaq administration
(c) Mughal administration 25. Who argues that in the place of large formal
organisations, we find a myriad of small-scale
(d) Lodhi administration
dispersed movements engaged in an enormous
18. Many social movements among the scheduled variety of conflicts?
castes and other backward classes emerged in (a) Carroll (b) Fowler
the : (c) Lehmann (d) Fisher
(a) 19th and 20th Century
26. Who considers NGOs as a third sector
(b) 17th and 18th Century
remedying the institutional weaknesses of
(c) 18th and 19th Century
both the state and private sector in promoting
(d) 16th and 17th Century socio-economic development?
19. In which of the following countries, the (a) Marxist (b) Socialist
phenom enon of non-governmental (c) Neo-Liberals (d) Liberals
organisation is significant? 27. Which of the following is one of the ways to
(a) Asian (b) African classify voluntary associations?
(c) Latin American (d) All of the above (a) The orientation of the organisation
Social Movements 87
(b) Their history of creation and change 35. The first All-India women’s organisation
(c) The fields of intervention (Women’s Indian Association) was formed in :
(d) All of the above (a) 1918 (b) 1917
28. Who among the following consider NGOs as (c) 1916 (d) 1919
part of the private sector, of socio-economic 36. Who had been critical of the women’s
significance, mainly delivering services to the organisations for not bringing the masses into
poor cheaply, equitably and efficiently? their movement?
(a) Neo-Liberals (b) Communists (a) Nehru (b) Gokhale
(c) Marxists (d) Socialists
(c) Gandhi (d) S.N. Banerjee
29. In which of the following states one of India’s
37. Which of the following is not one of the three
largest NGOs, “AWARE”, is based :
theories explaining the genesis of social
(a) Maharashtra (b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh movements?
(a) Strain theory
30. Who generally feel that NGOs are agents of (b) Progressive theory
capitalism and western political and cultural (c) Relative deprivation
values throughout the developing world,
(d) Revitalisation
articulating an agenda set by multilateral,
bilateral and non-governmental donors? 38. ------ belong to a distinct category of social
(a) Traditional social movements movements with the ideology of class conflict
(b) Radical religious movements as their basis.
(c) Radical social movements (a) Peasant Movements
(d) None of the above (b) Women’s Movements
31. Which of the following social organisations (c) Tribal Movements
for women emerged in the cities and towns of (d) None of the above
British India between 1910 and 1920? 39. If social mobilisation has been demanding
(a) Women’s clubs (b) Mahila samitis changes within the system, the changes that
(c) Ladies societies (d) All of these are likely to occur will be :
32. Who founded the Mahila Samiti movement (a) Transformative (b) Alternative
in Bengal? (c) Accumulative (d) None of the above
(a) Saroj Nalini Dutt
40. If a social mobilisation is determined to
(b) Sarojini Naidu
replace one structure and substitute it by
(c) Annie Besant
another, the changes should it materialise,
(d) None of the above
would be :
33. Saroj Nalini’s success in attracting women to
(a) Alternative
these Mahila Samitis must be attributed to
(b) Transformative
her sensitivity and tact in dealing with
conservative : (c) Accumulative
(a) Muslim society (d) None of the above
(b) Christian society 41. If the social mobilisation is directed towards
(c) Hindu society creating new structures which by their
(d) None of the above existence would qualitatively affect the entire
34. Who became the first political mentor of system, then the change, in the event that it
Sarojini Naidu? is accomplished, will be :
(a) Gokhale (b) Nehru (a) Alternative (b) Transformative
(c) Gandhi (d) Dadabhai Naoroji (c) Accumulative (d) None of the above
88 Objective Political Science
42. Which of the following is one of the features 49. Generally, social movements theory has
of the voluntary organisations? ignored the :
(a) A voluntary association is a non-profit (a) Government Phenomenon
organisation (b) NGO Phenomenon
(b) A voluntary organisation is a grouping (c) Political Phenomenon
of several persons (d) None of the above
(c) A common use of resources aims at the 50. Which of the following means political action
realisation of specific or collective seen as stemming from calculated self-interest
interests rather than obligation or duty?
(d) All of the above (a) Functionalism (b) Contextualism
43. In w hich year Lador-Lederer’s study (c) Reductionism (d) Utilitarianism
suggested that NGOs were more accurately
51. Reductionism is a political phenomenon seen
seen as non-state organisations, since they
as the aggregate of consequences of :
were intimately involved in governmental and
(a) Social behaviour
intergovernmental processes?
(b) Political behaviour
(a) 1963 (b) 1968 (c) Individual behaviour
(c) 1951 (d) 1979 (d) Abnormal behaviour
44. In which country NGOs not only influence 52. Which of the following plays a vital role in
legislation and public policy but enjoy facilitating political participation through their
constitutional recognition of their roles? involvement in issue-based social movements
(a) Chile (b) Philippines and through their support to people’s
(c) Kenya (d) Brazil organisations?
45. Who argues that NGOs are more likely to (a) NGOs
maintain the status quo than to change it? (b) Political parties
(a) Lewis (b) Clarke (c) Religious organisations
(c) Fowler (d) Gohlert (d) None of the above
46. Council for the Advancement of People’s 53. Who argues that it is impossible to prove a
Action and Rural Technology (CAPART) was connection between the withering of the
established in the year : authoritarian state in Latin America and the
(a) 1984 (b) 1986 rise of N G Os and grassroots social
(c) 1985 (d) 1983 movements?
(a) Hojman (b) Hirschman
47. Unlike interest or pressure groups NGOs are
(c) Clarke (d) Kay
not usually :
(a) Organised 54. The concept of civil disobedience is not central
(b) Concerned with public sentiments in the thought of the following—
(c) Membership-based (a) John Rawls
(d) None of these (b) M.K. Gandhi
48. Most social movements theorists including (c) Leo Tolstoy
Eckstein ------ the importance of institutional (d) Michel Foucault
vehicles like NGOs in shaping political 55. Who of the following presidents of India was
discourse and in m obilising collective associated with the Trade Union Movement
interests. in India?
(a) Overlook (b) Emphasise (a) V.V. Giri (b) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(c) Revive (d) None of the above (c) K.R. Narayanan (d) Zakir Hussain
Social Movements 89
56. W hich of the follow ing is one of the 62. With which one of the following is the
generations of NGOs as distinguished by expression ‘gift of grace’ associated?
Korten? (a) Legal-rational authority
(a) NGOs committed to relief and welfare (b) Traditional authority
activities (c) Charismatic authority
(b) NGOs committed to small-scale, local, (d) Autocratic authority
development projects
(c) N GO s com mitted to com munity 63. According to Paul Brass, Which one of the
organisation, mobilisation and coalition- following was the crucial factor for the
building occurrence of communal riots in India?
(d) All of the above (a) Absence of social trust
(b) Economic rivalry between communities
57. If a social mobilisation is determined to
(c) Organized riot system
replace one structure and substitute it by
(d) Memories of Cultural Conflict
another, the change should it materialise,
would be : 64. W hich one of the follow ing political
(a) Alternative (b) Transformative theoriests finds the concept of ‘imagined
(c) Accumulative (d) None of the above com m unity’ inadequate to describe
58. If social mobilisation has been demanding nationalism in post-colonial societies?
changes within the system, the changes that (a) Partha Chatterjee (b) V.R. Mehta
are likely to occur will be : (c) Hans Cohn (d) Ernest Gellner
(a) Transformative 65. Around the globe the proliferation of the non-
(b) Alternative governmental organisations is taking place
(c) Accumulative most of all in :
(d) None of the above (a) Asia (b) Africa
59. ------ belong to distinct category of social (c) Latin America (d) All of these
movements with the ideology of class conflict 66. The largest NGO sector in the developing
as their basis. world belongs to :
(a) Peasant Movement
(a) India (b) Brazil
(b) Women’s Movement
(c) China (d) Argentina
(c) Tribal Movement
(d) None of the above 67. Which of the following are distinguished from
NGOs though usually regarded as their sub-
60. Who had been critical of the women’s
organisations for not bringing the masses into category?
their movement? (a) People’s Organisation (POs)
(a) Nehru (b) Gokhale (b) Quasi-autonomous NGOs (QUANGOs)
(c) Gandhi (d) S.N. Banerjee (c) Trade Unions
(d) All of the above
61. Which of the following pairs is not correctly
matched? 68. Which one of the following was not identified
(a) Mahatma Gandhi’s Ideas—C.F. Andrews by Almond as a stage of conversion process
(b) The Gandhian Way—J.B. Kriplani of a political system?
(c) Marx, Gandhi and Socialism—Ram (a) Interest articulation
Manohar Lohia (b) Interest aggregation
(d) Gandhi’s political philosophy—B.R. (c) Political recruitment
Nanda (d) Rule adjudication
Obj. Pol. Sc.-12
90 Objective Political Science
69. W hich of the follow ing phenom ena is 72. The largest group of NGOs in the developing
triggered by proliferation of NGOs? world is of :
(a) Information revolution (a) Environment NGOs
(b) Associational revolution (b) NGOs Working to eradicate child labour
(c) Industrial revolution (c) Relief and Welfare NGOs
(d) Participatory revolution (d) All of the above
70. In Indonesia and Vietnam, NGOs have 73. The work ‘The Latin America Left: from the
proliferated as a result of : Fall of Allende of Perostroika’ is authored by :
(a) Hegemony of formal institutions (a) S. Silliman
(b) Weakness of formal institutions (b) B. Loveman
(c) Withering away of formal institutions (c) Clark
(d) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
71. Which one of the following was the first 74. The ‘Charity-development-empowerment
country-wide pressure group of the organized typology of NGO orientation of the advanced
Indian working class? nations is given by :
(a) All India Trade Union Congress (a) Korten
(b) Indian National Trade Union Congress (b) C. Elliot
(c) Indian Mining Federation (c) Silliman
(d) Hind Mazdoor Sabha (d) None of the above
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(c) (a) (d) (b) (a) (c) (d) (a) (d) (c)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(b) (a) (d) (b) (a) (b) (a) (a) (d) (b)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(c) (c) (a) (d) (c) (d) (d) (a) (b) (c)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(b) (a) (c) (a) (b) (a) (b) (a) (c) (b)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(a) (d) (a) (b) (c) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(c) (a) (b) (a) (a) (d) (b) (c) (a) (a)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(d) (c) (d) (a) (d) (b) (a) (d) (b) (a)
71 72 73 74
(a) (c) (b) (b)
NATIONALISM
AND INTERNATIONALISM
1. Identify the French author who coined the (c) Nation
term ‘Third World’? (d) None of the above
(a) J. P. Sartre
7. Which of the following is largely a non-
(b) Alfred Sauvy
(c) Franz Fanon political concept and can exist even under
(d) None of the above foreign domination?
(a) Nation
2. Nationalism should be universalised so as to (b) Nationalism
constitute real :
(c) Nationality
(a) Nationalism
(b) Nation (d) None of the above
(c) Internationalism 8. Ramsay Muir believes that language counts
(d) None of the above for more than race is the moulding of a :
3. ------ stands for a family of self-governing (a) Nation
nations, united to each other by ties of (b) Class
equality and living at peace and concord with (c) Society
each other. (d) None of the above
(a) Internationalism 9. Who said that ‘Nationality, like religion is
(b) Hegemony subjective; psycological; a condition of mind;
(c) Imperialism
a spiritual possession; a way of feeling;
(d) None of the above
thinking and living’?
4. The concept of internationalism desires a (a) Hayes
revision of the traditional doctrine of : (b) Burns
(a) Liberty (b) Sovereignty (c) Zimmern
(c) Equality (d) Fraternity (d) None of the above
5. Which of the following organisations contains
10. ------ implies the exclusive right of a particular
the essence of the concept of
internationalism? set of people of a country to lead an
(a) United Nations independent and separate life.
(b) League of Nations (a) Nation
(c) NATO (b) Nationalism
(d) Both (a) and (b) (c) Nationality
(d) None of the above
6. Internationalism desires prevalence of sane
and sensible : 11. Who said that nationality is a nation in the
(a) Nationalism making and as soon as a nationality secures
(b) Nationality political independence, it becomes a notion?
91
92 Objective Political Science
26. During the French Revolution, the term (b) reparation for previously segregated
‘nation’ came into great popularity. Then it communities
was used to mean : (c) common schools for blacks and whites
(a) Patriotism (b) Racial unity (d) ban of civil rights movement
(c) Social solidarity (d) Fraternity 34. It can be said that the triumph of Wilsonian
27. A great advance in internationalism was made idealism manifested in :
in the first quarter of the twentieth century. It (a) The establishment of the League of
was : Nations
(a) End of the World War I (b) The Treaty of Versailles
(b) Russian Revolution (c) The formation of the U.N.O.
(c) Formation of the League of Nations (d) None of the above
(d) None of the above
35. Who branded the principle of national self-
28. Who among the following statesman played determination as a ‘retrograde step in human
a cardinal role in the establishment of the history’?
League of Nations? (a) James Bryce (b) Harold Laski
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Macpherson (d) Lord Acton
(b) Winston Churchill 36. Two prominent instances of people of
(c) Woodrow Wilson different racial origins living together and
(d) Robert Mcnamara forming a strong nationality are :
29. Who stated that, “To have suffered, rejoiced (a) Japan and China
and hoped together” makes a people a nation? (b) Switzerland and Canada
(a) De Tocqueville (c) Sri Lanka and Myanmar
(b) Zimmern (d) United States and Great Britain
(c) Ernest Renan
37. W ho called nationalism “m an’s other
(d) None of the above
religion”?
30. The original membership of the League of (a) Hayes (b) Hallowell
Nations was : (c) Shillito (d) None of the above
(a) 40 (b) 41
38. The league of Nations was brought into
(c) 42 (d) 43
existence as a consequence of the :
31. The work ‘Essays on Nationalism’ is authored (a) Russian Revolution
by : (b) World War I
(a) Herry Hart (c) Treaty of Versailles
(b) H.A.L. Fisher (d) All of the above
(c) C.J. Hayes 39. Who among the following regard language
(d) None of the above as the most important factor in the growth of
32. Most of all the word ‘nation’ signifies the nationalism?
existence of : (a) Mazzini (b) Fichte
(a) Common racial stock (c) Ramsay Muir (d) All of these
(b) Common historical traditions
(c) Common political consciousness 40. It can be said that the earliest known idea on
(d) None of the above internationalism begin with :
(a) Machiavelli’s The Prince
33. In several states of the US, the Jim Crow (b) Plato’s Creto
Legislation was responsible for— (c) Dante’s De Monarchia
(a) segregation of different communities (d) None of the above
94 Objective Political Science
41. The book ‘Nationalism and Internationalism’ precarious as soldiers drawn from different
is authored by : nationalities lack the common incentive of
(a) Ivor Jennings oneness of interests and purposes?
(b) Ramsay Muir (a) Barthelemy
(c) Ebenstein (b) J.S. Mill
(d) None of the above (c) Mosca
42. Among the factors which hinder the growth (d) None of the above
of internationalism an important one is : 49. The doctrine of national self-rule was accepted
(a) Racism and incorporated in :
(b) International division of labour (a) Preamble to the Constitution of India
(c) Nationalism (b) Charter of the United Nation
(d) None of the above (c) NATO manual
43. Which among the following works is authored (d) Both (b) and (c)
by J.A. Hobson? 50. Around the world the contemporary opinion
(a) Imperialism and Civilization is in favour of :
(b) Nationalism, Myth and Reality (a) Nationalism (b) Regionalism
(c) Imperialism : A Study (c) Internationalism (d) Both (a) and (c)
(d) All of the above
51. Who held the view that the nation of a
44. Who said that over the period of time, sovereign independent state, on the
nationality became, “one of the most powerful international side is fatal to the well-being of
anaesthetics”? humanity?
(a) Gandhiji (b) Lohia (a) Laski
(c) Tagore (d) Vivekanand (b) Garner
45. Which among the following is said to be (c) Woodrow Wilson
primarily responsible for revival of national (d) None of the above
sentiment? 52. The book Commonsense of World Peace is
(a) Glorious Revolution written by :
(b) Industrial Revolution (a) Christopher Hayes (b) H.G. Wells
(c) Russian Revolution (c) H.J. Laski (d) H.J. Morgenthau
(d) French Revolution
53. Who among the following was responsible for
46. Which of the following works is authored by a scheme of an international league to enforce
Hans Kohn? peace?
(a) A Democratic Process (a) Fichte (b) Seeley
(b) The Idea of Nationalism (c) Telleyrand (d) None of the above
(c) Representative Government
54. The principle of national self determination
(d) International Politics
implies that every nation should be organised
47. Who expounded the idea of the State as as an independent political entity. Which of
containing all the worth which the human the following are in some way associated with
being possessed? this principle?
(a) Kant (b) Hegel (a) Congress of Vienna (1815)
(c) Marx (d) Schopenhaur (b) President Wilson’s 14 Points (1917)
48. Who among the following has argued that the (c) French Revolution
security of a multi-national state is always (d) Both (a) and (b)
Nationalism and Internationalism 95
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(b) (c) (a) (b) (d) (a) (c) (a) (c) (b)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(c) (a) (b) (a) (c) (a) (a) (b) (a) (d)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(c) (a) (d) (c) (a) (a) (c) (c) (c) (c)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(c) (c) (c) (a) (d) (b) (c) (c) (d) (c)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(b) (c) (c) (c) (d) (b) (b) (b) (b) (c)
51 52 53 54 55 56
(a) (b) (a) (d) (c) (d)
THEORIES OF
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
14. According to Morgenthau, the best means of politics emphasises the significance of the
preserving peace in a society of sovereign interaction of behaviour of :
nations is : (a) Communities (b) States
(a) National interest (b) Diplomacy (c) Cultures (d) All of these
(c) Foreign trade (d) Autonomy 24. Machiavelli suggested that the norms of
15. Who believes that a theory of International behaviour for individuals in society and for
politics is “but a specific instance of a general statesmen in international relations are :
theory of politics? (a) Similar
(a) Tucker (b) Morgenthau (b) Different
(c) Kennan (d) Wasserman (c) Contradictory
16. Morgenthau’s description of the drive for (d) None of the above
power as irrational is identical with that of : 25. Who gave the first serious challenge to the
(a) Hobbes (b) Locke scientific method giving rise to the
(c) Marx (d) J.S. Mill controversy betw een science and
17. According to Morgenthau, the social world is traditionalism?
a projection of : (a) P. Kurtz (b) Hedley Bull
(a) Human nature (b) Society (c) David Singer (d) Rosenau
(c) Classes (d) Caste 26. A major difficulty with the scientific theorists
18. The model which the game theory employs lies in their overstress on :
is that of a game of : (a) Values
(a) Amateurs (b) Strategy (b) Precision
(c) Chance (d) All of the above (c) Norms
(d) None of the above
19. Who was among the first to recognize the 27. Who defined power as comprising “anything
importance of the game theory in international that establishes and maintains the control of
politics? man over man”?
(a) Martin Shubik (b) Karl Deutsch (a) Morgenthau (b) Strauss
(c) Kaplan (d) Both (a) and (b) (c) Wasserman (d) Tucker
20. The most recent and notable contribution to
28. What, according to Kaplan, could develop as
an understanding of the decision-making
a result of the extension of the functions of
theory has been made by :
essential actors in a loose bipolar system?
(a) Joseph Frankel (b) John Burton
(a) The system of hegemony
(c) Modelski (d) Lasswell
(b) Universal international system
21. The first major attempt at introducing the (c) Colonial system
decision-making analysis in the study of (d) None of the above
Foreign Policy was made by :
29. W hich one of the follow ing political
(a) Richard Synder (b) Oran R. Young
philosophers is an advocate of positive
(c) Anthony Downs (d) A. Robinson
liberty?
22. Which of the following writers brought about (a) Isaiah Berlin
an enrichm ent of the decision-making (b) Iris Marion Young
approach to the study of political science? (c) John Stuart Mill
(a) William Riker (b) James Robinson (d) T.H. Green
(c) Herbert Simon (d) All of these 30. Consider the following statements—
23. The systematic approach to international In his theory of Justice, John Rawls :
Obj. Pol. Sc.-13
98 Objective Political Science
1. reconciles a liberal conception of political 37. Which approach is partial approach to the
obligation w ith a redistributive study of international politics?
conception of social justice. (a) Decision-making Approach
2. affirms the utilitarian principle for (b) Realist Approach
determining what is good and desirable. (c) Idealist Approach
3. uses the instrument of the social contract (d) Games Theory Approach
to ensure fairness. 38. W ho em phasised the importance of
4. m aintains that the concern for
communications or flow of information for
redistribution trumps individuals liberty.
the proper understanding of international
Which of the statements given above are
relations?
correct?
(a) Karl Marx (b) Karl Deutsch
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) Synder (d) Palmer
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
39. Who emphasised the need of combining the
31. The theory of game has been developed
classical and scientific approaches for the
mainly by :
study of international relations?
(a) Mathematicians (b) Economists
(a) Morgenthau
(c) Sociologists (d) Both (a) and (b)
(b) Palmer and Perkins
32. ------ was the cradle of Marxist-Leninist theory (c) Sprout
of international relations. (d) Lasswell
(a) China (b) Soviet Union
(c) Japan (d) America 40. In Marxian analysis, an important role is
assigned to the production system and the :
33. Marxists seek to examine each issue of world (a) Economy
politics, whether national or international, (b) Class relations
from the standpoint of : (c) International relations
(a) Historical materialism (d) None of the above
(b) State
(c) Government 41. Which of the following is not included in the
(d) None of the above Marxian theories about international politics?
(a) The theory of proletarian internationalism
34. What is the essence of all politics, national or
(b) The theory of imperialism
international, according to Morgenthau?
(c) The theory of peaceful co-existence of
(a) Altruism
states
(b) List for power
(d) None of these
(c) Patriotism
(d) None of the above 42. What, according to Marx, is the fundamental
cause of the development of a thing?
35. The whole case of idealism is based on the
(a) Its high origin
general ideal of evolutionary progress in :
(b) Its inner harmony
(a) Culture
(b) Society (c) Its contradictoriness
(c) Politics (d) None of the above
(d) None of the above 43. Marxists have a ------ view of world politics.
36. Who points out that national interest is a (a) Static (b) Prudent
matter of interpretation which differs from (c) Dynamic (d) None of the above
Statesman to Statesman? 44. Which approach represents an attempt at
(a) Sprout (b) Spiro applying m athem atical models to
(c) Kenneth (d) Wassermann International politics?
Theories of International Relations 99
56. On the question of the relationship between (a) Individuals (b) Institutions
the national interest and morality Kennan (c) Power-brokers (d) Both (a) and (b)
projects the idea of : 65. Who among the following scholars tried to
(a) Moral relativism (b) Virtual relativism put the game theory into use?
(c) Reconciliation (d) None of the above (a) Mortan Kaplan
57. For realists, the supreme virtue of politics is : (b) Willam H. Riker
(a) Idealism (b) Spiritualism (c) Thomas C. Shelling
(c) Realism (d) Nationalism (d) All of the above
58. Which of the following theorists regard power 66. According to Mortan Kaplan physical force
politics as only an abnormal or passing phase is necessary, at least as last resort to :
of history? (a) Achieve the political goals
(a) Liberals (b) Marxists (b) To maintain a hold over the system
(c) Idealists (d) Realists (c) To keep the political system intact
59. The work ‘Political Realism and Political (d) None of the above
Idealism’ is authored by : 67. While laying down the norms of his systems
(a) John H. Herz (b) Condorcet theory, Kaplan divided the set of international
(c) Organski (d) None of the above actors into two categories :
60. The crucial point on which political realism (a) Corporations and nations
and political idealism are at cross purposes (b) Organisations and states
with each other is about the problem of : (c) National actors and supranational actors
(a) Nationalism (b) Justice (d) None of the above
(c) Power (d) Law 68. Which of the following may be an instance
61. Realist approach focusses attention on the of supranational actor?
units which it views as principal actors in (a) General Assembly of the UN
international politics. These units are : (b) President of the United States
(a) MNCs (b) States (c) NATO
(c) Leaders (d) Organisations (d) All of the above
62. The model which the game theory, employs 69. In the Western world, the balance of power
is that of a : system prevailed in :
(a) Game of chance (a) Eighteenth Century
(b) Game of strategy (b) Nineteenth Century
(c) Game of preparedness (c) Twentieth Century
(d) Game of durability (d) Both (a) and (b)
63. In the framework of the game theory, the 70. An important rule of the balance of power
principle kind of game which have been system is that each essential actor should
identified is : increase its capabilities which should be done
(a) Games with identical interests through :
(b) Games with opposite interests (a) Negotiation (b) War
(c) Games with mixed interests (c) Colonization (d) None of the above
(d) All of the above 71. Ideally, how many essential actors should be
64. As in the games of chess, poker and bridge, there in Mortan Kaplan’s balance of power
there are parties to the game in politics also. system?
Those parties are : (a) Five (b) Six
(c) Either (a) or (b) (d) Ten
Theories of International Relations 101
72. The work Political Community at the 74. The decision-making approach has its highest
International Level is authored by : relevance in the :
(a) Kenneth Boulding (a) Peace-time situation
(b) Karl Deutsch (b) Time of belligerencies
(c) Joseph Frankel (c) Bilateral negotiations
(d) None of the above (d) Crisis situation
73. Who among the following expresses the 75. Who has opined that the general systems
opinion that the game theory does not give theory is not so much a theory as a direction
any basic information about international or a programme in the development of the
power politics and hence it is useless? scientific method?
(a) Anatol Rapoport
(a) Mckinsley
(b) Arthur Lee Burns (b) Sydney Verba
(c) Warren Christofer (c) Oran Young
(d) None of the above (d) None of the above
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(d) (b) (a) (b) (b) (c) (a) (b) (b) (d)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(b) (c) (d) (b) (b) (a) (a) (b) (d) (b)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(a) (d) (b) (b) (b) (b) (a) (b) (d) (c)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(d) (b) (a) (b) (b) (d) (a) (b) (b) (b)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(b) (c) (c) (c) (c) (b) (b) (b) (c) (a)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(c) (c) (c) (d) (d) (a) (c) (c) (a) (c)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(b) (b) (d) (d) (d) (c) (c) (c) (d) (a)
71 72 73 74 75
(c) (b) (b) (d) (a)
STATE AND THE GLOBAL ORDER
1. The new Economic policy of India comprises (a) World Trade Community
the various policy measures and changes (b) International Trade and Development
introduced since : Association
(a) June 1992 (b) July 1991 (c) General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs
(c) May 1990 (d) July 1992 (d) Association for Economic and Social
2. Who said that the best known economic Reconstruction
system is the one that supplies the most of 7. What constitutes an important barometer of
what people most want?
the health and performance of the economy?
(a) Jacob (b) Deane
(a) Prices
(c) Galbraith (d) Richard
(b) Mergers
3. ------ acts as a safety net for labour, which is (c) Joint Ventures
regarded as a vital and concrete step, taken in (d) None of the above
the direction of Government’s Exit policy.
(a) Consolidated fund 8. Which of the following is a process by which
(b) National Renewal fund prices rise and money value decreases?
(c) Contingency fund (a) Deflation
(d) None of the above (b) Stagnation
(c) Inflation
4. What does NAFTA stand for?
(a) North Asian Free Trade Association (d) None of the above
(b) North African Free Trade Association 9. The outline of the perfectly competitive
(c) North Atlantic Free Trade Association capitalist economy was first popularised by :
(d) North American Free Trade Association (a) Mill (b) Adam Smith
5. ------ have become an increasingly important (c) Laski (d) Marx
part of the foreign trade for both industrial 10. What does TRIMs stand for?
and developing countries. (a) Trade-Related Investment Measures
(a) Agricultural activities (b) Tariff-Related Investment Measures
(b) Services
(c) Technology-Related Investm ent
(c) Cultural exchanges
Measures
(d) Educational institutes
(d) Training-Related Investment Measures
6. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) is the
11. Which of the following terms stands for
successor to which one of the following
institutional arrangements? opening the econom y to the w orld b y
102
State and The Global Order 103
removing protective barriers against free flow 16. Which of the following reports lists Seven
of trade technology and investment among Sins of privatisation?
countries? (a) World Bank Report
(a) Liberalisation (b) United Nations Report
(b) Globalisation (c) Appleby Report
(c) Privatisation (d) Human Development Report
(d) None of the above
17. W hich of the follow ing is a sin of
12. Which of the following is the cause of the privatisation?
policy of globalisation? (a) Making false promises to labour
(a) Crisis in balance of payments (b) Using non-transparent and arbitrary
(b) Crisis in exchange rate management procedures
(c) Crisis in public sector management (c) Replacing public monopolies w ith
(d) All of the above private ones
13. What stands for the maximisation of economic (d) All of the above
efficiency and competitiveness of Indian 18. Who saw the seeds of prosperity in capitalism?
industries without hampering the interests of (a) Karl Marx (b) Adam Smith
the labour community on human face value (c) Lenin (d) Kautilya
with a view to capture the economic gains
accrued from structural reforms initiated in 19. Who said that the basic fact behind the price
the economy? rise was the large volume of deficit finance
(a) New Economic Policy undertaken to m eet the developm ent
(b) Micro-economics expenditure?
(c) Macroeconomics (a) Vakil (b) David
(d) None of the above (c) Goswami (d) Kulkarni
14. Leading neo-liberal institutionalists such as 20. ------ is the root cause of two evils, namely,
Axelrod, Keohane and Oye, developed their inflation and the balance-of-payments deficit.
ideas in response to Kenneth Waltz’s theory (a) Fiscal deficit
of neo-realism outlined in his 1979 work : (b) Government Department
(a) Traditions of International Ethics (c) Corruption
(b) Basic Texts and International Relations (d) None of the above
(c) Theory of International Politics 21. As a part of SAP (Structural Adjustment
(d) Our Global Neighbourhood Policies), the economy was being ------ i.e.
15. After the New Economic Policy, 1991 who opened up to foreign goods and capital.
opined that India would recover from her (a) Systematised
crisis and carry out adjustment programmes (b) Globalised
within a short duration itself, unlike other (c) Capitalised
economies in a similar situation? (d) None of the above
(a) America 22. Which of the following is the report that tried
(b) World Bank to examine all aspects relating to the structure,
(c) United Nations organisation, functions and procedure of the
(d) None of the above financial system?
104 Objective Political Science
25. W hat is frequently referred to as the 32. Which of the following is the largest open
compelling reason for the sweeping economic market in the world?
reforms initiated in India? (a) ECM (b) TRIPs
(a) The rapidly changing global economy (c) NAFTA (d) TRIMs
(b) Civilization progress 33. Which of the following countries has open
(c) Novelty of planning economy?
(d) Overcoming colonial influence (a) Hongkong (b) Taiwan
26. Which of the following criticisms has been (c) Singapore (d) All of these
levied against globalisation by Sukumar 34. Who among the following had established
Basu? that globalisation and liberalization would
(a) Increasing debt burden result in better capacity utilization and
(b) Increasing poverty economics of scale?
(c) Erosion of economic sovereignty (a) Kim (b) Park
(d) All of the above (c) Bruton (d) All of these
27. Who said that due to New Economic Policy
35. Which of the following is one of the main
India will find itself at the receiving end?
features of the TRIM s (Trade Related
(a) Sethi
Investment Measures) text?
(b) Khushro
(a) A ll restrictions on foreign capital/
(c) Jagmohan
investors/companies should be scrapped
(d) Halleiner
State and The Global Order 105
(b) No restrictions will be imposed on any import control over all items including
area of investment consumption goods (b) reducing the rate of
(c) Imports of raw materials and components import duty and (c) privatising public sector
will be allowed freely enterprise?
(d) All of the above (a) World Bank
36. Which of the following is a bulwark of (b) UNESCO
personal freedom? (c) United Nations
(a) Mandamus (b) Habeas Corpus (d) UNICEF
(c) Quo-Warranto (d) Certiorari 43. What implies the equalisation of the domestic
37. The 8th round of Multi-lateral Trade prices to international prices through the
Negotiations is popularly known as : medium of competition?
(a) Berlin Round (a) Privatisation of the economy
(b) Washington Round (b) Liberalisation of the economy
(c) Uruguay Round (c) Globalisation of the economy
(d) None of the above (d) None of the above
38. Which article of the Indian Constitution 44. Which act was passed in India to prevent
provides for the institution of Panchayati Raj? restrictive trade practices?
(a) Art. 36 (b) Art. 39 (a) GATT (b) MRTP
(c) Art. 40 (d) Art. 48
(c) MFA (d) TRIMs
39. Globalisation requires creation of ------
45. Globalisation gives primacy to unbridled :
environment for free flow of direct foreign
investment. (a) Research
(a) Conservative (b) Suitable (b) Trade
(c) Special (d) Natural (c) Development
(d) Consumerism
40. Which of the following means globalisation
of the Indian economy? 46. ------ across the borders will be equalised by
(a) Adoption of market-friendly approach the opening of the econom y to global
(b) Integration of it with the world economy competition.
(c) The industry has to face competition (a) Prices
from outside, subject to some degree of (b) Resources
protection which does not increase its (c) Production
efficiency (d) Capital
(d) All of the above 47. Who said that production is a social force in
41. Who said that the global economy must be so far as it channelises human activity into
viewed as a collection of heterogeneous units useful ends?
with different agendas interacting with one- (a) Marx (b) Mill
another in a variety of ways and thus changing (c) Hegel (d) Smith
its character over time?
48. W hich agreem ent encompasses a
(a) Awasthi (b) Kurien
comprehensive overhaul of GATT’S dispute
(c) Malcolm (d) Mody
settlements, rules and procedures aimed at
42. Which of the following organisations defines ensuring the prompt and efficient resolution
globalisation as (a) gradual abolishment of of disputes?
Obj. Pol. Sc.-14
106 Objective Political Science
(a) James Rosenau 66. Match List I (Scholars) with List II (Views on
(b) Fucuyama the beginning of globalization) and select the
(c) Ledley Bull correct answer from the codes given below
(d) Marshall McLuhan the lists :
61. In which year appearance of a near complete List I List II
‘ozon hole’ over Antarctica was noticed and A. Gamble 1. Start of the modern era
which raised global ecological awareness? B. Modelski 2. Late 1950s
(a) 1970 (b) 1987 C. Harvey 3. Dawn of human civilisation
(c) 1977 (d) 1993 D. Rosenau 4. 1970s
62. In which year the World Wide Web was Codes :
introduced? A B C D
(a) 1971 (b) 1981 (a) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1991 (d) 1951 (b) 3 1 4 2
63. It can be said that globalization did not figure (c) 1 3 2 4
continually, comprehensively, intensely and (d) 4 1 2 3
with rapidly increasing frequency in the lives 67. Who wrote the article “The conditions of
of a large proportion of humanity until effective leadership in the industrial
around? organisation”?
(a) 1940s (b) 1950s (a) Douglas Mc Gregor
(c) 1960s (d) 1970s (b) Sears
64. Who has defined globalization as, “ the (c) Woodward
intensification of worldwide social relations (d) Riggs
which link distant localities in such a way 68. The United Nations is financed by :
that local happenings are shaped by events (a) The contribution from the Member-States
occuring many miles away and vice-versa”? (b) America
(a) Bendedict Anderson (c) Japan
(b) Anthony Giddens (d) Russia
(c) Philip O’Brion
69. The number of judges in International Court
(d) None of the above
of Justice are :
65. Who among the following scholars asserted (a) 15 (b) 10
that – “Globalization does not simply refer to (c) 11 (d) 14
the objectiveness of increasing
70. The centre-point of International Relation is:
interconnectedness. It also refers to cultural
and subjective matters [namely, the scope and (a) Struggle (b) Power
depth of consciousness of the world as a (c) National Interest (d) None of the above
single place”]? 71. Which is not a key feature of State?
(a) Raland Robertson (a) State is sovereign
(b) Romain Rolland (b) The State is an exercise in legislation
(c) Ernest Gelner (c) The State is an instrument of domination
(d) None of the above (d) The State is not a territorial association
108 Objective Political Science
72. Who said “A strong middle-class is the Select correct answer from the following:
backbone of democracy”? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(a) Aristotle (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) Garner 78. “Nation is State plus nationality.” Who said
(c) Plato this?
(d) H.G. Wells (a) Garner (b) Gilchrist
73. Which one of the following is the main (c) Laski (d) MacIver
feature of deliberative democracy? 79. The basic principle of Parliam entary
(a) Parliamentary Sovereignty Government is :
(b) Executive Supremacy (a) Integration between Legislature and
(c) Judicial autonomy Executive
(d) People’ effective participation (b) Separation between Legislature and
74. Which one of the follow ing is not the Executive
objective of WTO? (c) Distribution of powers between the Centre
(a) Trade without discrimination and the State
(b) Fair competition (d) None of the above
(c) Price control 80. In what respect is the American Federal
(d) Market access System similar to that of the Indian Federal
75. The traditional view of the scope of System?
International Politics does not include the 1. M ethod of distribution of pow ers
study of : between the Centre and the States
(a) International Law 2. Procedure of creation of new States
(b) International Organisations 3. Position of judiciary
(c) Geo-Politics 4. Representation of States in the Upper
House of the Federal Legislative
(d) Political Economy
Codes :
76. A constitutional government stands for : (a) 1, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3
(a) A limited government (c) 3 (d) 4
(b) A government run according to the
81. Which one of the following is true about a
provisions of the constitution
Presidential form of Government?
(c) A government run according to the
(a) The President can be removed by the
wishes of the rulers
Legislature through impeachment
(d) A government run according to the
(b) The President cannot be removed by the
wishes of the party bosses
Legislature
77. Which one of the following are the devices (c) The President can dissolve the Lower
of democracy which are commonly practised House of the Legislature
in modern times? (d) None of the above
1. Widening of the Electorate
82. Single transferable vote system is known as :
2. Frequent Election
(a) Plural voting system
3. Local Self Government (b) Direct voting system
4. Responsibility of the Government to the (c) Hare system
majority party (d) List system
State and The Global Order 109
83. Parliamentary Government operates on the 89. Governments are classified as Parliamentary
Principle of secrecy which implies : and Presidential on the basis of :
(a) The time and date of meetings of the (a) Relations between the Centre and the
Cabinet are not made publicly known States
(b) The members of the Council of Ministers (b) Relations between the Legislature and the
cannot divulge information regarding the Executive
proceedings of the Council of Ministers (c) Relations between the Executive and
(c) The Prime Minister consults the various Judiciary
ministers in ‘confidence’ and takes (d) All the above
decisions 90. Which one of the following is not correctly
(d) None of the above matched?
84. In the U.S. Federal System, a new State within (a) Popular sovereignty — Rousseau
State can be created by the : (b) Political sovereignty — Locke
(a) Two Houses of the Congress (c) Legal sovereignty — Austin
(b) Senate (d) External sovereignty — Bentham
(c) Congress w ith the consent of the 91. A welfare State is based on :
concerned State (a) A negative role of the State
(d) President (b) A positive role of the State
(c) A maximum role of the State
85. “Every State is known by the rights if
(d) A minimum role of the State
maintains.” Who said this?
(a) Bryce (b) Barker 92. A Socialist State stands for :
(c) Laski (d) Garner (a) Free economic competition
(b) Social control of the means of production
86. The nation state emerged :
and distribution
(a) After the fall of city states
(c) Class struggle
(b) After the fall of Roman empire
(d) Abolition of State
(c) After the fall of Feudal state
(d) After the fall of Oriental empire 93. W hich of the follow ing country has a
Presidential form of Government?
87. According to pluralists, the main function of (a) Great Britain
State is : (b) United States of America
(a) To promote welfare of its citizens (c) Japan
(b) To harmonize the activities of various (d) China
groups and associations
94. Consider the following statements :
(c) To provide social security
Assertion (A) : A federal system invariably
(d) To remove inequality
provides for an independent
88. Weak and unstable government is a feature judiciary
of : Reason (R) : It settles the disputes
(a) One party dominant system between the centre and the
(b) One party authoritarian system constituent units
(c) Two party system Select your answer according to the following
(d) Multi-party coalition system codes :
110 Objective Political Science
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is (a) Capitalism (b) Socialism
the right explanation of (A) (c) Privatization (d) Globalisation
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is 98. Which of the following is not a part of the
not the right explanation of (A) welfare functions of the State?
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is false (a) Raising standards of living
(d) (R) is correct, but (A) is false (b) Enactment of Labour laws
95. The power of Judicial Review is available to (c) Provide Social Justice
the Supreme Courts of w hich of these (d) Promoting Religious beliefs
countries? 99. Social Democracy is based on :
(a) India and U.S.A. (a) Commitment to equality
(b) Great Britain and France (b) Support for Social Welfare State
(c) U.S.A. and Switzerland (c) Ideal of Social Justice
(d) None of the above (d) All of the above
96. Which of the following thinkers does not 100. In a unitary form of government the powers
support democracy? of the unit are derived from the :
(a) Plato (b) Locke (a) Constitution
(c) Rousseau (d) T.H. Green (b) Centre
97. Which of the following is not related to (c) Judiciary
Economic Liberalism? (d) None of the above
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(b) (c) (b) (d) (b) (c) (a) (c) (b) (a)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(b) (d) (a) (c) (b) (d) (d) (b) (d) (a)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(b) (d) (d) (b) (a) (d) (c) (d) (b) (b)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(a) (c) (d) (d) (d) (b) (c) (c) (b) (d)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(b) (a) (c) (b) (d) (a) (a) (c) (a) (d)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(a) (b) (d) (d) (d) (d) (b) (c) (d) (d)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(b) (b) (c) (b) (a) (b) (a) (a) (a) (c)
State and The Global Order 111
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(d) (d) (d) (c) (d) (b) (c) (b) (d) (c)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(a) (c) (b) (c) (c) (c) (b) (d) (b) (d)
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
(b) (b) (b) (a) (a) (a) (b) (d) (d) (b)
112 Objective Political Science
SECTION-B
115
116 Objective Political Science
26. Which approach is criticised for being (a) Pluralist (b) Marxist
speculative and abstract? (c) Behaviouralistic (d) Institutionalistic
(a) Systems approach 32. Who was one of the first among the modern
(b) Historical approach political scientists to challenge the traditional
(c) Comparative approach approaches?
(d) Philosophical approach (a) Freud (b) Lasswell
27. Which approach lays stress on the study of (c) Bernard Crick (d) Charles Merriam
the formal structures of a political
organisation like legislature, executive and 33. Contem porary political science gives
judiciary? prominence to :
(a) Legal approach (a) Modern approach
(b) Historical approach (b) Empirical approach
(c) Institutional approach (c) Historical approach
(d) Sociological approach (d) Institutional approach
34. The normative approach seeks to determine
28. Match the following Lists and choose the
and prescribe :
correct answer by using the codes given
(a) Values (b) Customs
below:
(c) Facts (d) Rituals
List I List II
A. Mosca 1. Complexity of 35. Who among the following thinkers treat man
elite Structure as a selfish creature?
B. C. Wright Mills 2. Empirical study (a) Rousseau, Apter
of elites (b) Machiavelli, Hobbes
C. Karl Mannheim 3. Mediating role (c) Mill, Locke
of elites (d) Laski, Hobbes
D. Talcott Parsons 4. The concept of 36. Which of the following approaches is best
“power elite” represented by George H. Sabine?
Codes : (a) Sociological approach
A B C D (b) Philosophical approach
(a) 1 2 3 4 (c) Historical approach
(b) 2 3 4 1 (d) Integrated approach
(c) 2 4 1 3
37. Who said that politics included all activities
(d) 4 3 2 1
which were carried out by the society?
29. Who said that “an institution is any persistent (a) Sabine (b) Catlin
system of activities and expectations or any (c) Dyke (d) Andrews
stable pattern of group behaviour”?
38. Which of the following approaches has been
(a) Dyke (b) Finer
expounded by Leo Strauss?
(c) Leo Strauss (d) Macpherson
(a) Sociological approach
30. Legal approach stands for an attempt to (b) Integrated approach
understand politics in terms of : (c) Philosophical approach
(a) Law (b) Conventions (d) Normative approach
(c) Customs (d) Procedures
39. According to Apter, which of the following
31. Which of the following views of politics approaches helps in the study of laws, values
suggests that political institutions realize and institutions?
philosophical ideals in governmental (a) Normative approach
practices?
118 Objective Political Science
(c) Sociological approach to the study of 70. Which of the following is included by modern
government and politics writers among the structures of a political
(d) Legal approach to the study of system which was not the case with ancient
government and politics and medieval writers?
63. The book Introduction of the History of the (a) Guild (b) Party System
Science of Politics is written by : (c) Military (d) All of these
(a) Leo strauss (b) George H. Sabine 71. About whom among the following it can be
(c) Fredrick Pollock (d) None of these said that they have played with their emotions
64. Who makes the observation that all great or prejudices while making the historical
political theories are secreted in the interstices approach to the study of government and
of political and social crises? politics?
(a) Dumming (b) Lowell (a) Sabine (b) Machiavelli
(c) Wayper (d) Sabin (c) Oakeshott (d) Both (b) and (c)
65. Which of the following books is written by 72. Who opined that if political theory has a
Eugene Meehan? universal and respectable character, its reason
(a) The Theory and Method of Political should be traced in the affirmation that it is
Analysis rooted in historical traditions?
(b) Theoretical Aspects of International (a) Machiavelli (b) Sabine
Politics (c) Oakeshott (d) Bryce
(c) Philosophy of Politics 73. The names of Walter Bagehot, F.A. Ogg,
(d) All of the above W.B. Munro, Richard Neustadt and C.F.
66. Who among the following made use of history Strong are associated with
for exalting the record of the Romans and (a) Legal approach
thereby exhorting his people to restore the (b) Sociological approach
‘glory of Rome’? (c) Institutional approach
(a) Cicero (b) Sabin (d) Historical approach
(c) Bodin (d) Machiavelli 74. The writing under the title – “From Sociology
67. Who associated history with the trend of of Politics to Political Sociology” is authored
conservatism? by :
(a) Hannah Arendt (b) Michael Arendt (a) Giovanni Sartori
(c) Louis Gottschalk (d) None of these (b) Richard Bendix
(c) Seymour Martin Lipset
68. Who among the following criticises the (d) None of the above
historical approach to the study of government
by saying that it is often loaded w ith 75. Eminent writers like R.M. MacIver, David
superficial resemblances and historical Easton and G.A. Almond subscribe to :
parallels are misleading in most of the cases? (a) Historical approach to the study of
(a) A.V. Dicey (b) James Bryce government and politics
(c) R.G. Gettell (d) All of these (b) Psychological approach to the study of
government and politics
69. Institutional approach has also come to be (c) Sociological approach to the study of
known by the name of : government and politics
(a) Legal approach (d) Both (a) and (b)
(b) Socio-cultural approach
(c) Structural approach 76. W hich of the follow ing concepts is
(d) None of the above popularised by the sociological approach to
Approaches 121
78. Which of the following schools emerged 82. O f the follow ing w ho is regarded as
because of the divergent interpretations of the intellectual god father of behavioural
role of the state in regulating economic political science?
matters? (a) Graham Wales
(a) Liberalism (b) Socialism (b) Charles Merriam
(c) Communism (d) All of these (c) David Easton
79. The work ‘The State as a Concept of Political (d) M.N. Roy
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(d) (a) (b) (b) (d) (c) (d) (c) (a) (c)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(c) (b) (d) (b) (c) (d) (b) (a) (c) (d)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(a) (b) (d) (d) (a) (d) (c) (c) (a) (a)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(d) (b) (b) (a) (b) (c) (b) (c) (a) (d)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(b) (a) (b) (b) (b) (d) (b) (a) (d) (c)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(a) (a) (c) (d) (c) (b) (d) (b) (a) (a)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(c) (b) (c) (d) (a) (d) (b) (b) (c) (a)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(d) (b) (c) (a) (c) (a) (a) (d) (b) (c)
81 82
(d) (b)
4. Who said the democracy is that government 10. The general characteristics of the developing
in which the supreme power of the state is countries are not ------ found in all the states.
vested in the entire people? (a) Uniformly
(a) Weber (b) Lincoln (b) Often
(c) Austin (d) Herodotus (c) Heterogeneously
(d) None of the above
5. ------ play the dominant role in systematising
and expressing the wishes of the people. 11. ------ is considered as a perverted form of
(a) Pressure groups government by Aristotle.
(b) Governments (a) Dictatorship (b) Monarchy
(c) Political parties (c) Democracy (d) Aristocracy
(d) None of the above 12. Who defines democracy as “a government in
6. The vital need of Third World Countries which every one has a share”?
today is ------ development. (a) Bryce (b) MacIver
(a) Economic (c) Laski (d) Seeley
122
Classification of Political System 123
13. ------ democracy can exist and function only (a) It stands for imperialism
in small states with a limited, homogeneous (b) It is an unstable form of government
population where people can conveniently (c) It destroys liberties of the individual
meet and deliberate together. (d) All of the above
(a) Direct 22. The twin phenomena of non-participation and
(b) Representative over-participation are the main concerns of
(c) Indirect the :
(d) None of the above (a) Pluralists (b) Liberals
14. W hich of the follow ing is one of the (c) Marxists (d) Socialists
characteristics of dictatorship? 23. Authoritarianism is more of a tendency where
(a) Autocratic (b) Despotism power comes to be :
(c) Tyranny (d) All of these (a) Delegated
15. ------ is a form of government in which a (b) Centralised
person or group of persons possesses absolute (c) Decentralised
pow er w ithout effective constitutional (d) None of the above
limitations. 24. Who said that dictatorship is the government
(a) Autocracy (b) Dictatorship of one man who has not obtained his position
(c) Tyranny (d) Totalitarianism by inheritance but by force or consent, or a
16. Which of the following implies an absolute combination of both?
sovereign monarch ruling without restriction? (a) Godkin (b) Maine
(a) Absolutism (b) Despotism (c) Cobban (d) Carlyle
(c) Autocracy (d) Dictatorship 25. Who, in his comparing political systems
17. Who described democracy as the paradise of analysed the governments and constitutional
the shrieker, babbler, word-spinner, flatterer systems of the developing countries?
and tuft-hunter? (a) Aristotle (b) Jean Blondel
(a) Garner (b) Hartmann (c) Laski (d) Bryce
(c) Godkin (d) Laski 26. W hich of the follow ing is the type of
18. Who defined democracy as ‘aristocracy of governm ent found in the developing
black guards’? countries?
(a) Maine (b) Barker (a) Liberal democracies
(c) Talleyrand (d) Aristotle (b) Military regimes
(c) Communist regimes
19. Which of the following is one of the principles
(d) All of the above
on which the democratic form of government
27. ------ is an outstanding example of populist
is organised?
political system.
(a) Freedom (b) Majority rule
(a) Egypt (b) Japan
(c) Equality (d) All of these
(c) Bangladesh (d) Somalia
20. Which of the following is associated with
28. ------ is a merit that is often mentioned as a
dictatorship?
quality of an authoritarian government.
(a) Autocracy (b) Authoritarianism
(a) Efficiency
(c) Despotism (d) All of the above
(b) Popularity
21. Which of the following is a demerit of (c) Representativeness
dictatorship? (d) None of the above
124 Objective Political Science
29. Who said that one of the great merits of (c) Plato and Aristotle
democracy is that it minimises the dangers of (d) None of the above
discontent and revolution? 35. Bodin based his classification of governments
(a) Garner (b) Mill solely on :
(c) Gettell (d) Laski
(a) The prevailing institutional order
30. Match List I with List II and select the correct (b) The number of men in whose hands the
answer by using the codes given below : sovereign power resided
List I List II (c) The oriental scheme of governments
A. Cobban 1. Politics (d) None of the above
B. Ford 2. Dictatorship
36. Rousseau divided governm ents into
C. Aristotle 3. Democracy and Liberty
monarchies, aristocracies and democracies.
D. Lecky 4. Dictatorship in the
He sub-divided aristocracies into :
Modern world
(a) Natural, elective and hereditary
Codes :
A B C D (b) Unitary, non-unitary and democratic
(a) 2 4 3 1 (c) Oligarchic, democratic and bureaucratic
(b) 1 2 3 4 (d) None of the above
(c) 2 4 1 3 37. Who among the following find Aristotle’s
(d) 1 2 4 3 classification of governments sound and
31. In the tw entieth century a num ber of logical?
dem ocracies crum bled and yielded to (a) John Seeley (b) Gilchrist
dictatorships during : (c) Burgess (d) Both (b) and (c)
(a) The cold war period 38. The statement—“Everything for the state,
(b) The post cold war period nothing against the state, nothing outside the
(c) The inter world war period state” ------ is attributed to :
(d) Pre-world war I period (a) Hitler
32. Who among the following gave a three fold (b) Mussolini
classification of governments viz, perfect (c) General Franco
state, imperfect state and state of ignorance? (d) None of the above
(a) Thomas Acquinas 39. In the opinion of Marriott, the bases of
(b) Aristotle classification of governments are :
(c) Plato (a) Unitary and federal
(d) None of the above (b) Rigid and flexible
33. Polybius classified governments into : (c) Monarchical, presidential and parlia-
(a) Monarchy, aristocracy and democracy mentary
(b) Plutocracy, bureaucracy and aristocracy (d) All of the above
(c) Dictatorship, democracy and oligarchy 40. Who regards “balance in the structure of
(d) None of the above society” as a pre-requisite to the maintenance
34. In their classifications of governments the of democracy?
common feature is that both believe that (a) Barker
various forms of governments along with their (b) Mannheim
corrupt form follow one another in a cycle. (c) C.D. Burns
They are : (d) None of the above
(a) Gilchrist and Burgess 41. Which of the following works are critical of
(b) Aristotle and Polybius democracy?
Classification of Political System 125
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) (a) (c) (b) (d) (a)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(c) (d) (a) (d) (b) (c) (b) (c) (d) (d)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(d) (b) (b) (c) (b) (d) (a) (a) (a) (c)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(c) (c) (a) (b) (b) (a) (d) (b) (d) (b)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(d) (d) (a) (d) (d) (c) (c) (c) (c) (d)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(d) (b) (a) (b) (a) (b) (c) (d) (c) (d)
TYPOLOGIES OF CONSTITUTIONS
1. Who among the following is of the opinion (c) Ogg (d) Mill
that England has no constitution? 7. Who refers to cabinet as the pivot round which
(a) Freeman (b) Thomas Paine the whole political machinery revolves?
(c) Tocqueville (d) Both (b) and (c) (a) Marriott (b) Ramsay Muir
2. Which of the following is not one of the (c) Lowell (d) Gladstone
important statutes of the British Parliament?
8. What was issued by King John at Runnymede
(a) Reform Act of 1832
on the Thames in 1215?
(b) Representation of People’s Act, 1918
(a) Bill of Rights
(c) Magna Carta,1215
(b) Magna Carta
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
(c) Petition of Rights
3. ------ are the judgements and interpretations (d) None of the above
of the British courts which define the scope
9. The parliament of Great Britain is a/an ------
and limitations of the different charters,
legislature which has no parallel in the
statutes and common Law of England.
democratic world.
(a) Conventions
(a) Sovereign (b) Non-political
(b) Judicial decisions
(c) Common Law (c) Authoritarian (d) All of these
(d) None of the above 10. Which of the following is used to describe
4. Who said that cabinet in England is a hyphen the orders, rules and regulations issued by the
that joins, the buckle that binds, the executive executive departments to supplement and
and legislative departments together? elaborate the laws passed by the parliament?
(a) Bagehot (b) J.S. Mill (a) Delegation
(c) Ogg (d) Dicey (b) Delegated Legislation
(c) Decentralisation
5. Which of the following are the rules for (d) None of the above
determ ining the m ode in which the
descretionary powers of the crown ought to 11. The evolution of delegated legislation began
be exercised? in the :
(a) Laws (a) Eighteenth Century
(b) Customs (b) Sixteenth Century
(c) Conventions (c) Nineteenth Century
(d) None of the above (d) Seventeenth Century
6. Who said that the prerogatives are the residue 12. Which law was described by Blackstone as
of the descretionary or autocratic powers the best birthright, the noblest inheritance of
which have been left legally with the crown? mankind?
(a) Finer (b) Dicey (a) Public Law
127
128 Objective Political Science
(b) Constitutional Law 21. Which of the following is one of the sources
(c) Private Law of the British constitution?
(d) Common Law (a) Statutes (b) Conventions
13. The two principal types of Law in Great (c) Common Law (d) All of these
Britain are the : 22. The British constitution does not exist in real
(a) Public and Private Law sense as there is no set :
(b) Common and Statute Law (a) Social System
(c) Constitutional and Common Law (b) Economic System
(d) None of the above (c) Political System
14. The ------ law is regarded as a true embodiment (d) None of the above
of justice. 23. The British constitution is a queer mixture of
(a) Common (b) Public the :
(c) Private (d) None of the above 1. Monarchical principles
2. Democratic principles
15. Which French Scholar had said that rule,
3. Aristocratic principles
predominance or supremacy of the law is an
4. Socialist principles
outstanding feature of the British
constitution? Which of the above are correct? Choose the
(a) Munro (b) Morrison correct answer using the codes given below :
(c) Tocqueville (d) Laski (a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
16. The Reforms Act of ------ was the first in the
series of many enactments that tried to 24. Which term, according to Munro is an attempt
regulate the right to vote in Great Britain. to lay out the districts in such a way that the
(a) 1867 (b) 1832 interests of the dominant party will be served?
(c) 1911 (d) 1932 (a) Filibustering
(b) Gemeinschaft
17. The most important feature of the British
(c) Gerrymandering
constitution is its ------ character.
(d) None of the above
(a) Unwritten
(b) Rigid 25. In U.S.A., the House of Representatives holds
(c) Written ------ session (s) in a year.
(d) None of the above (a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) One
18. England has a ------ form of government.
(a) Presidential (b) Dictatorial 26. Who is the presiding officer of the senate in
(c) Parliamentary (d) Federal U.S.A.?
(a) Speaker (b) Vice-President
19. The British constitution is a classic example (c) President (d) Chairman
of ------ constitution.
27. Which of the following means a parliamentary
(a) Written (b) Flexible
device of long-w inded speeches, not
(c) Rigid (d) None of the above
necessarily relevant, to obstruct, delay or
20. ------ play (s) a vital role in the British political bargain over a measure under consideration
system. for voting?
(a) Conventions (a) Mudslinging
(b) Judicial Review (b) Gerrymandering
(c) The Crown (c) Filibustering
(d) None of the above (d) None of these
Typologies of Constitutions 129
28. Who has the power to appoint the inferior (a) Military sovereignty
officers of the union in the A m erican (b) Presidential sovereignty
constitution? (c) Religious sovereignty
(a) Council of Ministers (d) Popular sovereignty
(b) President 36. The president is chief executive, but he can
(c) Prime Minister make no appointments without approval of
(d) Parliament the :
29. W hich constitution seeks to avoid the (a) House of Representatives
undesirable ‘Spoils System’? (b) Federal Court
(a) Indian Constitution (c) Senate
(b) American Constitution (d) None of the above
(c) British Constitution
37. The constitution of the United States has
(d) None of the above
guaranteed certain fundamental rights to the
30. Who is the ex-officio chairman of the senate people which are :
in U.S.A.? (a) Impeachable (b) Justiciable
(a) President (b) Speaker (c) Unimpeachable (d) Non-justiciable
(c) Vice-President (d) Deputy Speaker
38. The constitution of the United States is
31. Who said that pressure seek to influence the described as :
men who weild power, not to place their own (a) Flexible
men in power, at least not officially? (b) Rigid
(a) Carr (b) Laski (c) Conventional
(c) Johnson (d) Duverger (d) None of the above
32. Which term is used to indicate the technique 39. The ------ have assumed very influential role
of establishing contacts with the members of in the political system of America.
congress and state legislatures to influence (a) Political parties (b) Government
them to vote for or against a measure to suit (c) State (d) Conventions
the interest of a pressure group?
40. The U.S. constitution is based on the doctrine
(a) Interest group
of :
(b) Lobbying
(a) Balance of power
(c) Propaganda
(b) Unification of power
(d) None of the above
(c) Isolation of power
33. Who said that the American Electoral System (d) Separation of power
is unfair, inaccurate, uncertain and
undemocratic? 41. Which of the following is the power of the
federal judiciary in U.S.A. to declare any
(a) Laski (b) Munro
legislation or executive action null and void
(c) Sidney (d) Mac Gregor
if the same is found to be inconsistent with
34. The constitution of the United States is the the provisions of the constitution?
oldest ------ constitution in existence in the (a) Judicial Activism
world. (b) Judicial Immunity
(a) Written (b) Rigid (c) Judicial Review
(c) Unwritten (d) Flexible (d) None of the above
35. The American constitution gives recognition 42. The U.S. constitution provides for :
to the principles of : (a) Dual citizenship
Obj. Pol. Sc.-17
130 Objective Political Science
(b) Multiple citizenship 49. In France, the 1958 constitution ------ the
(c) Single citizenship traditional relationship betw een the
(d) None of the above legislative and the rule-making authorities.
(a) Reverses
43. Who said that “the constitution of the USA is
(b) Involves
the most completely federal constitution in
(c) Endorses
the world”?
(d) None of the above
(a) Jennings (b) Strong
(c) Munro (d) Gilbert 50. Under the 1958 constitution, the premier of
France is ------ by the President.
44. In U.S.A., which of the following is one of (a) Elected
the causes of the senate being the most (b) Terminated
powerful second chamber? (c) Nominated
(a) It enjoys direct executive powers (d) None of the above
(b) The senators are directly elected
51. In France, the concept of ‘community’ is an
(c) Senior politicians belong to this House
important innovation of the constitution of
(d) All of the above the :
45. The Supreme Court in which country is (a) Fourth Republic (b) Fifth Republic
probably the strongest of all judicial tribunals (c) Second Republic (d) Third Republic
in the world? 52. Which council has been given the function
(a) U.K. (b) France of deciding on the constitutionality of
(c) U.S.A. (d) Switzerland Governmental or parliamentary acts?
46. Who defines a political party as groups of (a) Bar Council
citizens more or less organised, who act as a (b) Executive Council
political unit and who by the use of their (c) Security Council
political power aim at controlling the (d) Constitutional Council
government and carrying out their policies? 53. In France, an important feature of the 1958
(a) Bryce (b) Gettel constitution is constitutional recognition of :
(c) Gladstone (d) Morrison (a) Pressure groups
(b) Political parties
47. W hose consent is obligatory before a
(c) Fundamental rights
constitutional revision can be brought about?
(d) None of the above
(a) President (b) Senate
(c) Prime Minister (d) Judge 54. Which Article of the French constitution
speaks that political parties and groups shall
48. Consider the following forms of government be instrumental in the exercise of the suffrage?
ascribed to the French constitution : (a) Article 2 (b) Article 3
1. Parliamentary form of government (c) Article 4 (d) Article 5
2. Dictatorial form of government
55. The ------ of the Fifth Republic is the Keystone
3. Presidential form of government
of the new parliamentary regime in France.
4. Federal form of government
(a) President
Which of the above are correct? Choose the (b) Council of Ministers
correct answer using the codes given below : (c) Prime Minister
Codes : (d) Vice-President
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 56. Who was the first President of the fifth
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 4 Republic in France?
Typologies of Constitutions 131
72. The most important feature of local 79. Who said that Chinese political system has a
government in France is extreme type of : high degree of centralism but is based on a
(a) Centralisation high degree of democracy?
(b) Decentralisation (a) Mao Tse-tung (b) Zhao Ziyang
(c) Bureaucratisation (c) Chou Keng-sheng (d) Liu Shao Chi
(d) None of the above
80. Which chapter of the Chinese constitution
73. Who said that “A natural consequence of the incorporates fundamental rights and duties?
tight integration of nation and local (a) Chapter 3 (b) Chapter 1
government is a rigid uniformity of local (c) Chapter 2 (d) Chapter 4
government arrangements throughout the
81. China has opted for a ------ legislature.
length and breadth of the country”?
(a) Unicameral (b) Tricameral
(a) Bryce (b) Zink and Ogg
(c) Bicameral (d) None of the above
(c) Munro (d) Finer
82. Which is the highest organ of Chinese
74. Which of the following statements is correct
Judiciary?
regarding the concept of community as
(a) Supreme Court
innovated in the constitution of the fifth
Republic in French? (b) Supreme People’s Court
(a) It is a sort of association between French (c) High Court
Republic and its overseas territories and (d) Constitutional Court
departments 83. All power in China, according to the Chinese
(b) It is something between a federation and constitution, belongs to the :
a commonwealth (a) State
(c) The members of the community have (b) Government
equal status (c) People
(d) All of the above (d) None of the above
75. Who is the highest ceremonial functionary of 84. China is a multi-national :
the State in China? (a) Unitary state
(a) Prime Minister (b) Federal state
(b) Chairman (c) Capitalist state
(c) President (d) Authoritarian state
(d) None of the above
85. Which of the following means that local units
76. In China, the President is elected by the : can do exactly as they like so long as the
(a) People (b) NPC agents of the governments which are above
(c) Vice-President (d) Congress them do not object?
77. The communist party is the vanguard of the : (a) Democratic Centralism
(a) People (b) Authoritarian Centralism
(b) Followers of communism (c) Bureaucratic Centralism
(c) Rich men’s property (d) None of the above
(d) None of the above 86. Who said that the communist party is the
78. The Chinese state is built on the principles of : ultimate political authority and the source of
(a) Bureaucratic centralism all decision making on the mainland China
(b) Democratic centralism today?
(c) Authoritarian centralism (a) Waller (b) Schumann
(d) None of the above (c) Bernett (d) Whitling
Typologies of Constitutions 133
102. ------ does not promote any specific electoral (b) The Nazi constitution
system in Germany. (c) German Reich constitution
(a) Civil Law (d) None of the above
(b) Basic Law 109. In G erm any, the Weim ar constitution
(c) Constitutional Law introduced the political system of a :
(d) Public Law (a) Presidential Democratic Republic
103. The German electoral system is one of (b) Parliamentary Federal Republic
personalised. (c) Parliamentary Unitary Republic
(a) List system (d) None of the above
(b) Non-transferable voting system 110. At the end of the First World War, the 1871
(c) Proportional representation constitution was replaced by the :
(d) None of the above (a) Weimar constitution
104. In Germany, the number of constituencies (b) The Nazi constitution
corresponds to ------ the number of seats in (c) German Reich constitution
the Bundestag (Federal parliament). (d) None of the above
(a) Two-third 111. In Germany, one of the problems of the
(b) One-Fourth Weimar constitution was the extent of power
(c) Half vested in the :
(d) None of the above (a) Cabinet
105. Which of the following is one of the functions (b) Prime Minister
of the Bundestag in Germany? (c) Parliament
(a) To enact legislation (d) President of the Reich
(b) To determine the budget 112. Which of the following is included among
(c) To initiate committees investigating the powers of the President of the German
specific acts of the executive Reich :
(d) All of the above (a) Representative of the state
106. In Germany, the Bundesrat (Federal Council) (b) Head of the state
is not a ------ elected organ. (c) The right to dissolve the legislature and
(a) Representatively to enact emergency legislation
(b) Legally (d) All of the above
(c) Democratically 113. When did a statutory instrument abolish the
(d) None of the above most important basic rights in the German
107. Which of the following is one of the functions constitution?
of the federal council in Germany? (a) 28 Feb, 1933 (b) 10 Feb, 1933
(a) To introduce bills (c) 20 Feb, 1934 (d) 11 Feb, 1932
(b) To comment on bills introduced by the 114. The Eastern part of Germany was under the
Federal Government occupation of :
(c) To consent of object to legislation (a) Italy (b) England
adopted by Federal Parliament (c) Soviet Union (d) America
(d) All of the above
115. In which year the socialist order of East
108. Which of the following was the first important Germany collapsed and the question of
German constitution that was drafted as a reunification of the two German states arose?
result of revolution of 1848? (a) 1987 (b) 1986
(a) Weimar constitution (c) 1989 (d) 1990
Typologies of Constitutions 135
116. Into how many zones Germany was divided 124. The Federal President of Germany is elected for
after the capitulation of the German army at a term of :
the end of the second World War? (a) 5 years (b) 6 years
(a) Three (b) Four (c) 4 years (d) 3 years
(c) Five (d) Six
125. What is an important characteristic of the
117. In Germ any, the parliam entary council German legal and political system?
enacted the ------ on 8th May, 1949. (a) Rule of Law
(a) Basic Law (b) Judicial Review
(b) Public Law (c) Separation of Powers
(c) Constitutional Law (d) None of the above
(d) Civil Law
126. The Bundeskanzler/in can be ousted from
118. Which of the following are the important office :
constitutional organs of Germany? (a) By a simple m ajority vote of no
(a) Federal Parliament, Federal confidence
Constitutional Court (b) By giving a majority vote in favour of a
(b) Federal Council, Federal President successor
(c) Federal Government, Federal Chancellor (c) By a two-third majority vote, ratified by
(d) All of the above
the Bundespresident/in
119. Which of the following are the two main (d) By impeachment in the presence of the
legislative bodies at the federal level in Federal Court Chief Justice
Germany? 127. Who is the Chairperson and head of the
(a) Bundestag and Bundesrat government?
(b) Bundestag and Bunderegierung (a) Federal President
(c) Bundesrat and Bundeskanzler (b) Prime Minister
(d) None of the above (c) Federal Chancellor
120. In Germany, the Bundestag is made up of (d) Councillor
elected representatives called : 128. In Germany, who chooses the ministers and
(a) Councillors (b) Deputies
determines their numbers and responsibilities?
(c) Chancellors (d) None of the above
(a) Federal Chancellor
121. The Bundestag is formed by regular, (b) Prime Minister
periodic : (c) Federal President
(a) Elections (b) Competitions (d) Councillor
(c) Nominations (d) None of the above
129. According to which Article of the German
122. ------ can now be regarded as the permanent constitution, the Federal Government or an
constitution of the German state. individual Federal Minister may be authorised
(a) Public Law by a statute to issue statutory instruments?
(b) Constitutional Law (a) Article 56 BL (b) Article 76 BL
(c) Common Law (c) Article 29 BL (d) Article 80 (1) BL
(d) Basic Law
130. Which of the following is the most important
123. Who is the Head of the German state? principle of the German state set out in Article
(a) Deputies
20 BL?
(b) Federal Chancellor
(a) Democracy (b) Republicanism
(c) Federal Prime Minister
(c) Federalism (d) All of the above
(d) Federal President
136 Objective Political Science
131. W hich A rticle defines Germany as a 139. In South Africa, the judicial authority of the
democratic state? Republic is vested in the courts, which
(a) Article 20 (I) BL (b) Article 25 comprise the :
(c) Article 21 BL (d) Article 30 (a) Constitutional court
(b) High court
132. Which principle declares that Germany is a
(c) Supreme court of Appeal
republic, as opposed to a monarchy? (d) All of the above
(a) Federalism (b) Republicanism
(c) Democracy (d) Social State 140. In South Africa, no person may hold office as
president for more than :
133. Germany consists of ------ lander (German (a) Four terms (b) Three terms
States) (c) Two terms (d) None of the above
(a) Fourteen (b) Fifteen
141. In which year the Republic of South Africa
(c) Sixteen (d) Seventeen adopted an interim constitution, w hich
134. In South Africa, the council of provinces contains the basic elements of the final
which replaced the ------ under the new constitution of the Republic?
constitution, was inaugurated on 6 February (a) 1992 (b) 1993
1997. (c) 1994 (d) 1995
(a) Senate 142. W hich of the follow ing is one of the
(b) Federal Council indispensable elements of the state order?
(c) House of Representatives (a) Pluralistic democracy
(d) None of the above (b) Separation of pow ers, including a
135. In South Africa, the National Council of bicameral parliament
provinces comprises of : (c) A civil rights section emphasising the
(a) 80 members (b) 70 members basic right of the individual to get access
(c) 90 members (d) 60 members to an independent judiciary
(d) All of the above
136. The Republic of South Africa is one sovereign
143. Which of the following is a federative state?
democratic state founded on which of the
following values? (a) Switzerland (b) Austria
(c) Australia (d) All of these
(a) Non-racialism and non-sexim
(b) Supremacy of the constitution and the 144. The provincial constitution of 1993
rule of law establishes in chapter 9, ------ provinces as
(c) Human dignity federal elements of the Republic in South
(d) All of the above Africa.
(a) Eight (b) Six
137. In South Africa, the National Assembly has (c) Nine (d) Three
between ------ members.
(a) 300 and 350 (b) 250 and 300 145. In a federal state, the residual legislative power
is normally vested in the :
(c) 350 and 400 (d) 400 and 450
(a) Units
138. In South Africa, the rights that are enshrined (b) Centre
in the constitution of the Republic include : (c) Parliament
(a) Protection against detention without trial, (d) Leader of the majority party
torture of any inhuman form of treatment 146. Which of the following are the major sources
or punishment of financial income of the whole republic in
(b) The right to privacy South Africa?
(c) Freedom of conscience (a) House tax and Income tax
(d) All of the above (b) Entertainment tax and Income tax
Typologies of Constitutions 137
174. Match List I (Scholars) with List II (Works) 179. The constitution of the United States is
and select the correct answer from the codes represented as the best type of a written
given below the lists : constitution. Still, much of it, in practice has
List I List II come to be unwritten and in legal terms extra
A. A.L. Lowell 1. The statute of – constitutional, the most notable example of
westminster which is :
B. H. Finer 2. The Government of (a) Growth of Political parties
England (b) Working of the Senate
C. K.C. Wheare 3. Studies in Jurisprudence (c) Judicial review
D. J. Bryce 4. The Theory and practice (d) All of the above
of modern Government
180. The work ‘American Government in Action’
Codes :
is authored by—
A B C D
(a) H.J. Laski (b) M.E. Dimock
(a) 4 2 3 1
(c) W.B. Munro (d) A.L. Lowell
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2 4 3 1 181. H ow many states ratified the present
(d) 2 4 1 3 constitution of the United States of America
which w as adopted at the philadelphia
175. That the constitution grow instead of being
convention in 1787 and which came into force
made is the dictum of :
in 1789?
(a) Ivor Jennings
(a) 8 (b) 9
(b) Sir James MacIntosh
(c) 10 (d) 11
(c) Herman Finer
(d) None of the above 182. The constitution of the United States of
America is regarded as one of the briefest
176. The working of the Cabinet Government in
constitutions in the world. Originally it
U.K. is based upon :
consisted of how many articles?
(a) Parliamentary laws
(a) 7 (b) 8
(b) Constitution
(c) 9 (d) 10
(c) Well-established customs and usages
(d) All of the above 183. The constitution of the United States of
America presents a classic example of rigid
177. Who observed that the classification of
variety of constitutions. While the
constitutions into written and unwritten should
constitution of India has undergone more than
be discarded and the better distinction can be
made between countries which have a written hundreds amendments during its history of
constitution and those which have no written 70 years, how many amendments have been
constitution? effected on the U.S. constitution?
(a) Finer (b) Bryce (a) 26 (b) 32
(c) Laski (d) Wheare (c) 17 (d) 49
178. The often-quoted observation about the 184. Who has commented on the U.S. constitution
American constitutional system that, “we are that – “yet, after all deductions, it ranks above
under the constitution but the constitution is every other written constitution for the
what judges say it is”, is mady by : intrinsic excellence of its schem e, its
(a) Chief Justice Marshall adaptation to the circumstances of the people,
(b) Herman Finer its simplicity and precision of language, its
(c) Chief Justice Hughes judicious mixture of definiteness in principle
(d) Theodore Roosevelt with elasticity in details”?
140 Objective Political Science
197. Which of the following institutions in the 205. Which dynasty’s rule in China is said to be a
U nited States has been termed as ‘a period of glory and also degradation for
continuous constitutional convention’? China?
(a) Senate (b) Congress (a) Ching dynasty (b) Manchu dynasty
(c) Presidency (d) Supreme Court (c) Ming dynasty (d) Sung dynasty
198. Cabinet is an extra-constitutional institution 206. Presently China is governed according to the
in the United States of America. It was brought constitution of :
into existence by : (a) 1975
(a) Abraham Lincoln (b) 1978
(b) George Washington (c) 1982
(c) Ronald Reagan (d) None of the above
(d) None of the above 207. Which of the follow ing articles of the
199. General de Gaulle was the first President of constitution of Fifth Republic of French
the fifth Republic. Who was the first premier? provide for revision?
(a) Delere (a) Article 1 (b) Article 25
(b) Mabley (c) Article 89 (d) Article 91
(c) Diderot
208. The government system of people’s Republic
(d) None of the above
of China can be said to be :
200. H ow many constitutions have m ade (a) Authoritarian
appearance in France since the French (b) Totalitarian
Revolution of 1789? (c) Dictatorial
(a) 10 (b) 13 (d) None of the above
(c) 17 (d) 21 209. “The constitution of the fifth Republic is tailor-
201. The work ‘The Fifth French Republic’ is made for “General de Gaulle”.
authored by : The above statement is made by :
(a) Dorothy Pickles (a) Michel Delere
(b) S.E. Finer (b) Herman Finer
(c) Neumann (c) Dorothy Pickles
(d) None of the above (d) None of the above
202. Which of the follow ing articles of the 210. Which of the constitutional documents is
constitution of the Fifth Republic declare regarded as ‘the worst drafted in French
France as an indivisible, secular, democratic constitutional history’?
and social Republic? (a) Constitution of the Fifth Republic
(a) Article 1 (b) Article 2 (b) Constitution of the Fourth Republic
(c) Article 3 (d) Article 4 (c) Constitution of the Third Republic
203. In China, the constitution of 1954 remained (d) Constitution of the Second Republic
in force till : 211. “There lies a sleeping giant. Let it sleep for
(a) 1974 (b) 1977 when he wakes he will shake the world”. Who
(c) 1978 (d) 1981 made the above statement about China?
204. China has been under the governance of the (a) Hitler (b) Mussolini
(c) Napoleon (d) Mark Twain
Communist Party since :
(a) 1948 (b) 1949 212. During the cold w ar period China had
(c) 1950 (d) 1951 ideological differences mainly with :
142 Objective Political Science
(a) United States of America (c) Federal Chancellor and Federal Council
(b) North Korea (d) None of the above
(c) Union of Soviet Socialist Republic 220. Which among the following introduced in
(d) All of these G erm any the political system of a
213. The period of which dynasty is called the parliamentary federal republic?
golden period in China’s history of art, (a) Constitution of 1848
philosophy and prosperity? (b) Constitution of 1871
(a) Tang dynasty (c) Weimar Constitution
(b) Sui dynasty (d) None of the above
(c) Sung dynasty 221. In 1871 the German Reich was established
(d) None of the above under :
214. When did the National People’s Congress (a) Bismarck (b) Garibaldi
adopt the draft constitution of China? (c) Kafka (d) Hegel
(a) November 30, 1953 222. First important German constitution was the
(b) January 1, 1952 German Reich constitution drafted as a result
(c) September 20, 1954 of :
(d) None of the above (a) First World War, 1914-1918
215. In w hich year did the constitutional (b) Revolution of 1848
framework, engineered and adopted in early (c) Rise of Hitler during the inter-war period
1950s, undergo a radical change? (d) None of the above
(a) 1977 (b) 1978 223. Under the constitution of 1982, the Prime
(c) 1987 (d) 1988 Minister of China can hold office for a
216. ‘Bundesprasident’ is : maximum two terms. This amounts to a total
(a) Head of the Land duration of :
(b) Head of the German State (a) 8 years (b) 9 years
(c) Head of the German Judiciary (c) 10 years (d) 11 years
(d) None of the above 224. Which of the following articles of the German
217. Which of the following are among the most constitution defines Germany as a democratic
important principles of the German State as state and states that all state authority
set out in the Basic law? emanates from the people and is to be
(a) Democracy (b) Republicanism exercised by means of elections and voting?
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Judicial Review (a) Article 20 (b) Article 30
218. After the capitulation of the German army at (c) Article 31 (d) Article 40
the end of the World War II, Germany was 225. Which article of the Chinese constitution of
divided into several zones, each of which was 1954 refers to the determination of the
governed by one of the allied forces. In all people’s Republic to ensure the gradual
how many zones were created? abolition of systems of exploitation and the
(a) Four (b) Five building up of a socialist society?
(c) Six (d) Seven (a) Article 1 (b) Article 2
219. In Germany, the terms ‘Bundestag’ and (c) Article 3 (d) Article 4
‘Bundesregierung’ refer to : 226. H ow many articles does the Chinese
(a) Federal Council and Parliament constitution of 1982 consist of?
(b) Federal Parliam ent and Federal (a) 103 (b) 203
Government (c) 303 (d) 30
Typologies of Constitutions 143
227. Administratively, China is divided into how 234. The interim constitution of the Republic of
many provinces and autonomous regions? South Africa was ratified on 22 December,
(a) 21 and 5 respectively 1993 and officially came into effect on :
(b) 10 and 20 respectively (a) 1 January, 1994 (b) 22 January, 1995
(c) 30 and 2 respectively (c) 27 April, 1994 (d) 27 April, 1995
(d) None of the above 235. The membership of the National Assembly
228. Chinese constitution of 1982 says that all of the Republic of South Africa is :
power in China belong to the people. It is (a) 350
exercised through : (b) 400
(a) National People’s Congress (c) Between 350 and 400
(b) Provincial People’s Congress (d) None of the above
(c) Local People’s Congress 236. How many ministers can be there at the most
(d) Both (a) and (c) in the cabinet of the Republic of South Africa?
229. The real executive authority in China vests (a) 25 (b) 27
in : (c) 35 (d) 37
(a) President 237. How many terms a person, can hold office of
(b) Prime Minister the president of the Republic?
(c) State Council headed by the Prime (a) Two
Minister (b) Three
(d) National People Congress (c) Four
(d) None of the above
230. Which of the following constitutions reiterate
Chinese faith, inter alia, in the five principles 238. How many members are there in the National
of ‘panchsheel’? Council of Provinces in South Africa?
(a) Constitution of 1954 (a) 80 (b) 90
(b) Constitution of 1975 (c) 100 (d) 150
(c) Constitution of 1978 239. The judicial authority of the Republic of South
(d) Constitution of 1982 Africa is vested in :
(a) The Constitutional Court
231. In the constitution of 1954, the fundamental
(b) The Supreme Court of Appeal
rights of the Chinese people were enumerated
(c) The High Courts and the Magistrates
in :
Courts
(a) Chapter I (b) Chapter II (d) All of the above
(c) Chapter III (d) Chapter IV
240. In the Republic of South Africa, cabinet
232. In which year did the Allied powers who were decisions at the apex are :
in occupation of the western part of Germany (a) Essentially prerogative of the President
made provisions to convene a constitutional (b) Voted upon by members of the National
assembly to draft a constitution? Assembly
(a) 1947 (b) 1948 (c) Reached by consensus
(c) 1949 (d) 1950 (d) All of the above
233. The German term ‘Abgeordnete’ refers to : 241. The President of the Republic of South Africa
(a) Deputy Federal Chancellor may be removed by :
(b) Elected representatives of the Bundestag (a) A n executive order by the deputy
(c) Governor of the Lander president made in consultation with the
(d) None of the above National Assembly
144 Objective Political Science
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(d) (c) (b) (a) (c) (b) (a) (b) (a) (b)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(c) (d) (b) (a) (c) (b) (a) (c) (b) (a)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(d) (c) (c) (c) (d) (b) (c) (b) (a) (c)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(d) (b) (b) (a) (d) (c) (c) (b) (a) (d)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(c) (a) (b) (d) (c) (b) (b) (b) (a) (c)
Typologies of Constitutions 145
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(b) (d) (b) (c) (a) (d) (a) (d) (d) (c)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(a) (d) (b) (d) (d) (b) (d) (c) (d) (a)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(b) (a) (b) (d) (c) (b) (a) (b) (d) (c)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(a) (b) (c) (a) (a) (c) (a) (c) (d) (d)
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
(a) (b) (a) (c) (d) (c) (a) (b) (a) (d)
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
(d) (b) (c) (c) (d) (c) (d) (c) (b) (a)
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
(d) (d) (a) (c) (c) (b) (a) (c) (a) (b)
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
(a) (d) (d) (a) (c) (b) (c) (a) (d) (d)
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
(a) (b) (c) (a) (c) (d) (c) (d) (d) (c)
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
(b) (d) (d) (c) (a) (c) (c) (b) (c) (a)
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
(a) (c) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d) (a) (c) (b)
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
(a) (c) (a) (c) (d) (b) (c) (b) (c) (c)
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
(d) (d) (d) (d) (b) (c) (d) (c) (a) (b)
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
(b) (a) (a) (c) (d) (b) (c) (c) (a) (a)
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
(c) (c) (b) (d) (b) (a) (d) (b) (a) (b)
201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210
(a) (b) (a) (b) (b) (c) (c) (b) (c) (a)
211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220
(c) (c) (c) (c) (b) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c)
221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230
(a) (b) (c) (a) (d) (a) (a) (d) (c) (d)
231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240
(c) (b) (b) (c) (c) (b) (a) (b) (d) (c)
241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250
(d) (b) (a) (b) (c) (b) (d) (b) (a) (c)
146
Constituent Assembly 147
(a) Training and staff committee (c) Dominated by the legal Luminaries
(b) Credentials committee (d) All of the abaove
(c) Hindi Translation Committee 20. The total number of seats fixed in the
(d) All of the above proposed Constituent Assembly for British
14. Which of the following resolutions forms the India, Chief Commissioner's provinces, and
basis of the new constitution passed in second the Indian states respectively are :
plenary session? (a) 290, 6 and 93 seats
(a) Objective Resolution (b) 280, 16 and 93 seats
(b) Independence Resolution (c) 292, 4 and 93 seats
(c) August Resolution (d) 292, 7 and 90 seats
(d) None of the above
21. Who said that the father of the Indian
15. Which of the following is one of the main Constitution conceived of a Constituent
principles of the objectives Resolution? Assembly as something dynamic, not merely
(a) To frame a constitution which should a body of representatives but “a nation on the
secure for India, a due place in the comity move”?
of nations. (a) Ivor Jennings (b) J.L. Nehru
(b) That India is to be an independent, (c) Sardar Patel (d) B.R. Ambedkar
sovereign, republic
(c) That India is to be a democratic union 22. Who referred to the philadelphia convention,
with an equal level of self- government the French experiment and the Russian
in all the constituent parts. revolution as sources of inspiration?
(d) All of the above (a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
16. Which of the following is included in the (c) Sardar Patel
Committees on Substantive Affairs? (d) B.R. Ambedkar
(a) Union powers committee
(b) Drafting committee 23. Which of the following is a representative
(c) Advisory committee on minorities body chosen for the purpose of considering
(d) All of the above and either adopting or proposing a new
constitution or changes in the existing
17. The Constituent Assembly had a total of more
constitution?
than...Committees with a membership of
(a) Legislative
greater than eighty individuals.
(b) Cabinet
(a) Sixteen (b) Twenty
(c) Election Commission
(c) Fifteen (d) Thirteen
(d) Constitutent Assembly
18. Sir Krishnaswami Ayyangar, K.M. Munshi,
24. The modern concept of Constituent Assembly
B.L. Mittar, Saiyad Mohammed Sadulla were
is a/an...political contribution to the science
the members of the :
(a) Advisory committee of government.
(b) Drafting committee (a) Eastern (b) Southern
(c) Union powers committee (c) Western (d) Northern
(d) Committee on minorities 25. Whose idea of the general will influenced the
19. Which of the following is a criticism of the rise of the concept of Constitutional
Constituent Assembly? Government?
(a) Congress Domination (a) Laski's (b) Mill's
(b) An unrepresentative Body (c) Rousseau's (d) MacIver's
148 Objective Political Science
26. The earliest Constituent Assemblies the 31. The demand for a Constituent Assembly was
philadelphia convention of 1787, which for the first time authoritatively conceded by
framed the constitution of the USA, and the the British Government, though in an indirect
National Assembly of France were the way, through :
products of...and registered a break with the (a) Shimla Conference
past. (b) August Offer
(a) Evolution (b) Revolutions (c) Wavell Plan
(c) Revivalism (d) None of the above (d) None of the above
27. The demand for a Constituent Assembly was 32. Broadly, the duration during which the
for the first time authoritatively conceded by Constituent Assembly drafted the constitution
the British Government, though in an indirect for India was :
way and with important reservations,in what (a) December 1945 to December 1949
is known as the : (b) December 1946 to December 1949
(a) August offer, 1940 (c) November 1946 to January 1949
(b) Cripps mission, 1942 (d) November 1947 to January 1950
(c) Cabinet mission, 1946 33. Over how many sessions the Constituent
(d) Quit India movement, 1942 Assembly drafted the Constitution for India?
28. “The Constituent Assembly declares its firm (a) 11 (b) 12
and solemn resolve the proclaim India as an (c) 13 (d) 14
Independent sovereign Republic and to draw 34. While drafting the Constitution for India how
up for her future governance a constitution”. many days of actual work was undertaken by
This statement is related to : the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Independence Resolution (a) 900 days (b) 200 days
(b) August Resolution (c) 188 days (d) 165 days
(c) Cabinet Resolution
35. How many Articles and schedules were there
(d) Objectives Resolution
in the draft Constitution?
29. Which of the following is one of the features (a) 355 Articles and 8 schedules
of the working process of the Constituent (b) 315 Articles and 13 schedules
Assembly, according to G. Austin? (c) 295 Articles and 13 schedules
(a) Decision-making by consensus (d) None of the above
(b) The principle of Accommodation 36. First attempt by Indians to frame a constitution
(c) The act of selection and modification of their country was in the form of :
(d) All of the above (a) Round Table conference
30. W hich of the follow ing proposal w ere (b) Nehru Report
recommended by the Cabinet mission during (c) Macdonald Award
its stay in India? (d) Government of India Act, 1919
(a) To form a Constituent Assembly 37. The elections to the Constituent Assembly
(b) To form an interim government were :
(c) To introduce adult Franchise (a) Indirect
(d) To form an Estimates Committee (b) Held Twice
Choose the correct answer using the codes (c) Direct
given below : (d) None of the above
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
38. The Nehru committee was appointed and the
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
Nehru Report was submitted respectively on :
Constituent Assembly 149
(a) May 19, 1928 and 10 August, 1928 45. Which of the following is one of the features
(b) May 19, 1928 and 10 August, 1929 of the working process of the Constituent
(c) May 19, 1927 and 10 August, 1928 Assembly, according to Granville Austin?
(d) June 1, 1929 and August 31, 1929 (a) Decison-making by consensus
39. Jawaharlal Nehru's proposal of a Constituent (b) The principle of Accomodation
(c) The act of selection and modification
Assembly was for the first time formally
(d) All of the above
accepted by the Congress in the year :
(a) 1934 (b) 1935 46. ‘Politbureau is a term associated with—
(c) 1936 (d) 1937 (a) Communist Party
(b) Samajwadi Party
40. Which of the following most influenced the (c) Congress Party
Constitution of India? (d) Bhartiya Janta Party
(a) Government of India Act, 1919
47. The Constitution of India superimposes an
(b) Indian Independence Act, 1947 elected president upon the parliamentary
(c) Government of India Act, 1935 system of responsible government. Another
(d) All of the above constitution which prescribes a similar
41. Fundamental duties have been introduced in governmental pattern is :
the Constitution by : (a) The Constitution of France
(a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 (b) The Constitution of Germany
(c) The Constitution of Eire
(b) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
(d) All of the above
(c) 73rd Amendment Act, 1993
(d) None of the above 48. Article 51 A which constitutes the part IVA
of the constitution of India and which contain
42. The Dominion status of India was established the fundamental duties was introduced in the
under : constitution in the year :
(a) Government of India Act, 1919 (a) 1976 (b) 1977
(b) Government of India Act, 1935 (c) 1978 (d) 1979
(c) Both (a) and (b) 49. Which of the following need to be considered
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947 to have a full view of the law of citizenship
43. Parts XVII, XVI and XVIII of the constitution in India?
of India are related respectively to : (a) The citizenship Act, 1955
(a) Official language, SCs, STs and OBCs (b) Articles 5, 6, 7 and 8
and Emergency provisions (c) Article 11
(b) SCs, STs and OBCs, official language and (d) All of the above
Emergency provisions 50. Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 pertains
(c) SCs, STs and OBCs, em ergency to :
provisions and official language (a) Human rights
(d) None of the above (b) Citizenship
(c) Untouchability
44. The work ‘Constituent Assemblies of the
(d) Freedom of expression
World’ is authored by :
(a) Subhash Kashyap 51. Which of the following articles made a
(b) T.S. Venkataraman mention of the sueability of the state :
(c) Pattabhi Sitaramaiyya (a) Article 100 (b) Article 200
(c) Article 300 (d) All of these
(d) None of the above
150 Objective Political Science
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(c) (b) (a) (c) (b) (c) (a) (c) (d) (b)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(b) (c) (d) (a) (d) (d) (c) (b) (d) (c)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(b) (b) (d) (c) (c) (b) (a) (d) (d) (a)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(b) (b) (a) (d) (b) (b) (a) (a) (a) (c)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(a) (d) (c) (b) (d) (a) (c) (a) (d) (c)
51 52 53 54
(c) (a) (a) (c)
NATURE OF INDIAN FEDERALISM
1. O ne of the m ost im portant form s of (d) None of these
regionalism is : 7. Each zonal council has as its chairman the
(a) Political consciousness ------ of India.
(b) Demand for decentralisation (a) Finance Minister
(c) Linguism (b) Prime Minister
(d) None of the above (c) Home Minister
2. The existence of inter-state boundary and (d) None of the above
water disputes is also a manifestation of : 8. Which of the following implies an agreement
(a) Regionalism (b) Linguism between two or more communities which as
(c) Racism (d) Individualism between themselves are independent and
3. Which of the following is one of the forms of autonomous?
regionalism? (a) Federation (b) Protectorate
(a) Demand for state autonomy (c) Coalition (d) Detente
(b) Demand for a full statehood 9. In which of the following countries the
(c) Demand for Intra-regional autonomy residuary pow ers are assigned to the
within states Federating units?
(d) All of the above (a) United States (b) Australia
4. Which of the following theories is another (c) Switzerland (d) All of these
form of regionalism? 10. The control theme of the criticism levelled
(a) Liberal theory before the sarkaria commission against the
(b) Marxist theory working of union-state legislative relations
(c) ‘Sons of soil’ theory is :
(d) Regional theory (a) Centralisation
5. Special provisions regarding Jammu and (b) Decentralisation
Kashmir, Nagaland, Sikkim clearly accept the (c) Over-centralisation
principle of : (d) Unequal treatment of states
(a) Separatist theory 11. Who stated that “the administrative autonomy
(b) ‘Sons of soil’ theory of the states is alm ost equal to the
(c) Regional theory administrative autonomy of centre”?
(d) None of the above (a) Pylee (b) Santhanam
6. ------ movements in some states is an extreme (c) White (d) Brecher
form of regionalism. 12. The states Reorganisation A ct of 1956
(a) Cultural grouped the states into------ zonal councils.
(b) Secessionist (a) Five (b) Three
(c) National (c) Four (d) Six
151
152 Objective Political Science
13. Which of the following commissions stated that may be union of states or communities
that Federalism is m ore a functional such as political parties, trade unions, etc?
arrangement for co-operative action, than a (a) Wheare (b) Friedrich
static institutional concept? (c) Laski (d) Bombwall
(a) Rajamannar Commission 21. Which of the following constitutions is
(b) Finance Commission Federal in its formulations but operated in a
(c) Sarkaria Commission unitary style?
(d) None of the above (a) Brazil (b) Argentina
14. Who among the following is responsible for (c) Venezuela (d) All of these
the maintenance of audit of union and state 22. The United States confers residuary powers
accounts? on the :
(a) The Attorney-General (a) Centre (b) States
(b) The Comptroller and Auditor-General (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Supreme Court
(c) The Secretary General
(d) None of the above 23. W hich of the follow ing Federations
influenced the founding father of the Indian
15. In which of the following countries, the constitution?
residuary powers are vested in the union? (a) American Federation
(a) India (b) Canada (b) Canadian Federation
(c) Switzerland (d) Both (a) and (b) (c) Australian Federation
16. Federalism as a political theory is based on (d) All of the above
the principles of------ and ------. 24. Which of the following is one of the approaches
(a) Equality, egalitarianism to the study of Indian Federal System?
(b) Relativity, empiricism (a) Historical approach
(c) Legality, elitism (b) Institutional approach
(d) Nationality, collectivism (c) Legal approach
17. W ho am ong the follow ing said that (d) All of the above
decentralisation and lack of cohesion in the 25. Which model of Federalism is prevalent in
party system is the natural outcome of the the newly independent countries of Asia and
structural fact of Federalism? Africa?
(a) D.B. Truman (b) K.C. Wheare (a) Operative Federalism
(c) M.J. Vile (d) Myron Weiner (b) Unitarian Federalism
18. The erosion of state autonomy can be (c) Bargaining Federalism
observed in which of the following spheres? (d) Co-operative Federalism
(a) President's rule 26. Which of the following is not a Federal
(b) Appointment of Governors feature of the Indian Constitution?
(c) President's assent to state Bills (a) Written Constitution
(d) All of the above (b) Independent Judiciary
19. The term ‘Federal’ is derived from the Latin (c) Rigid Constitution
word ‘Foedus’ which means : (d) Single Citizenship
(a) Separation 27. Which commission has examined the process
(b) Distribution of economic planning in the context of union-
(c) Covenant state relations?
(d) None of the above (a) Sarkaria Commission
20. Who defines Federalism as a union of groups (b) Administrative Reforms Commission
Nature of Indian Federalism 153
41. Which one of the following political parties 48. A renowned British authority on Federalism
is older than the other three? has classified India as “a Unitary state with
(a) DMK (b) BJP subsidiary Federal principles rather than a
(c) AIDMK (d) Telugu Desam Federal state w ith subsidiary unitary
principles”.
42. Who among the following observes that
He is :
Federalism is a system of government in which
(a) Ivor Jennings
neither level of governm ent is wholly (b) Harold Laski
dependent on the other nor wholly (c) K.C. Wheare
independent of the other? (d) None of the above
(a) Wheare (b) Vile
49. Which part of the constitution of India
(c) White (d) Pylee
elaborates the basic provisions regarding the
43. The question of ------ was examined at great distribution of powers between the central and
length by the supreme court in the case of provincial governments?
state of West Bengal Vs. Union of India (a) Part X (b) Part XI
(1962). (c) Part XII (d) Part XIV
(a) Territoriality 50. The committee set up by the Constituent
(b) Legality Assembly for the purpose of preparing the
(c) Sovereignty of the states basic principles for distribution of powers
(d) None of the above was :
44. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill (a) Union powers committee
or not? (b) Union constitution committee
(a) The President (c) Rules committee
(b) The Speaker (d) All of the above
(c) The Finance Secretary 51. Who talks of Federalism in India as an
(d) None of these example of the concept of com petitive
45. The Indian Constitution is regarded as : bargaining?
(a) W.H.M. Jones
(a) Federal
(b) Rajni Kothari
(b) Unitary
(c) Francine frankel
(c) Parliamentary (d) None of the above
(d) Federal in form, Unitary in spirit
52. In contemporary times, the bargaining model
46. India is a Federal State because its constitution of Federalism is prevalent mainly in :
provides for : (a) East European Countries
(a) Single citizenship (b) East Asian Countries
(b) Single judiciary (c) Post-Colonial Societies of Asia and
(c) Sharing of powers between states Africa
and centre (d) None of the above
(d) A written constitution
53. Which of the following subjects are part of
47. The source of all political power in India lies the Union list?
with— 1. Banking, insurance, elections
(a) Parliament 2. Public health, forests, estate duty
(b) The Lok Sabha 3. Drugs, trade unions and stamp duties
(c) The People 4. Airways, telephones, customes and excise
(d) The Constitution duties
Nature of Indian Federalism 155
Select the correct answer from the following : throughout the territory of India to public acts,
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 records and judicial proceedings of the union
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 and every state”?
54. The residuary powers under the Indian (a) Article 162
constitution are vested in the union. This (b) Article 245
feature has been incorporated from : (c) Article 261
(a) American Federation (d) None of the above
(b) Canadian Federation 60. Zonal Councils have been established :
(c) Australian Federation (a) On the recommendations of the Sarkaria
(d) Swiss Federation commission
55. Which of the following articles empowers (b) By the states Reorganisation Act 1956
parliament to make laws on any item included (c) Finance commission (Miscellaneous
in the state list for the whole or any part of provisions) Act, 1951
India while a proclamation of Emergency is (d) None of the above
in operation? 61. The work ‘Some characteristics of the Indian
(a) Article 384 (b) Article 272 Constitution’ is authored by :
(c) Article 250 (d) Article 352 (a) K.C. Wheare (b) Granville Austin
56. Which of the following constitutions despite (c) Ivor Jennings (d) None of the above
laying down a federal framework for the 62. Which of the following articles state that
respective countries use the term union? parliament may by law provide for the
(a) U.S. Constitution of 1787 adjudication of any dispute with respect to
(b) The British North America Act which the use, distribution or control of the waters
contained constitutional provisions for of any inter-state river?
Canada. (a) Article 263 (b) Article 261
(c) Soviet Constitution of 1977 (c) Article 264 (d) Article 262
(d) All of the above
63. Which among the several legislative Acts
57. In vesting the residuary power in the union, passed during the pre-independence period
the constitution of India has followed the first time introduced the Federal concept and
Canadian system. The provision related to the
used the expression ‘Federation of India’?
residuary powers are mentioned under :
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(a) Article 245 (b) Article 246
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Article 252 (d) Article 248
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
58. Under which article of the constitution, (d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
legislation by a state shall be subject to
64. Who was the harbinger of the view that the
disallowance by the president when reserved
Constituent Assembly of India was the first
by the Governor for his consideration?
assembly which adopted from the very start
(a) Article 101
what is called as the concept of co-operative
(b) Article 201
Federalism?
(c) Article 301
(a) A.H. Birch
(d) None of the above
(b) K.C. Wheare
59. Which Article of the constitution lays down (c) Granville Austin
that, “Full faith and credit shall be given (d) None of the above
156 Objective Political Science
65. Which among the Acts reduced the Control 66. The Constituent Assembly was to consist
of Secretary of State? of—
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909 (a) 275 members
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1892 (b) 389 members
(c) Govt. of India Act, 1919 (c) 325 members
(d) Govt. of India Act, 1935 (d) 425 members
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(c) (a) (d) (c) (b) (b) (c) (a) (d) (c)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(b) (a) (c) (b) (d) (b) (a) (d) (c) (b)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(d) (b) (d) (d) (c) (d) (a) (c) (b) (a)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(b) (c) (b) (c) (a) (d) (b) (b) (b) (b)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(a) (b) (c) (b) (d) (c) (d) (c) (b) (c)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(a) (c) (c) (b) (c) (d) (d) (b) (c) (b)
61 62 63 64 65 66
(c) (d) (c) (c) (c) (b)
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
1. According to the Constituent Assembly provides for :
Debates Directive principles is merely another (a) “Minimising inequalities in income”
name for the : (b) “Eliminating inequalities in status”
(a) Bill of Rights (c) “Living wages for workers”
(b) Human Rights Character (d) None of the above
(c) Instruments of Instructions 7. In state of Bombay Vs. F.N. Balasara case,
(d) Governmental Accountability the supreme court gave full weight to ------,
2. Which Article of the Constitution states that w hich directs the state to bring about
the state shall organise village panchayats as prohibition of intoxicating drinks.
units of self-government? (a) Article 43 (b) Article 47
(a) Article 43 (b) Article 40 (c) Article 29 (d) Article 13
(c) Article 45 (d) Article 42 8. Which of the following Articles deals with
3. In which of the following cases, the Directive the right to property has already been deleted
principles were accorded a more subsidiary by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978?
and subordinate position than was (a) Article 30 (b) Article 29
contemplated by the founding father of the (c) Article 31 (d) Article 32
constitution? 9. The expression “procedure established by
(a) Cow Slaughter case law” has been taken from Article XXXI of
(b) Kerala Education Bill case the :
(c) Champakam Dorairajan's case (a) British Constitution, 1946
(d) All of the above (b) American Constitution, 1963
4. The Golak Nath case was heard by a special (c) German Constitution, 1987
Bench of 11 judges as the validity of three (d) Japanese Constitution, 1946
constitutional amendments------- , -------- and 10. How can a citizen protect his Fundamental
----- was challenged. Rights?
(a) 3rd, 4th, 5th (b) 1st, 4th, 17th (a) By a writ in the Supreme court of India
(c) 1st, 2nd, 8th (d) 2nd, 3rd, 4th (b) By approaching the president of India
5. The case of Gopalan Vs. State of Madras was (c) Through police action
relevant to : (d) They are already protected
(a) Article 21 (b) Article 12 11. Which of the following is not a Fundamental
(c) Article 16 (d) Article 14 Rights?
6. In Bijoy cotton mills Vs. State of Ajmer case, (a) Right against exploitation
the supreme court upheld the constitutional (b) Equal pay for equal work
validity of minimum wages Act, 1948 by (c) Equality before law
taking into consideration Article 43 which (d) Right to freedom of religion
157
158 Objective Political Science
12. The Supreme Court of India gave the verdict (a) Shankari prasad Vs. Union of India
that the original structure of the constitution (b) Sajjan Singh Vs. State of Rajasthan
as embodied in the preamble, could not be (c) Golak Nath Vs. State of Punjab
changed under any circumstances, in the case (d) All of the above
of :
19. In which of the following cases the validity
(a) Sajjan Singh (b) Minerva Mills
of the first constitutional Amendment Act was
(c) Keshvananda (d) Golaknath
challenged?
13. The Gandhian principles have been (a) Golak Nath's case
enumerated in the : (b) Shankari Prasad's case
(a) Fundamental Rights (c) Sajjan Singh's case
(b) Preamble (d) Maneka Gandhi's case
(c) Directive Principles
(d) Fundamental Duties 20. Which of the following articles not only lays
down the procedure but also confers power
14. An interpretation of the Indian constitution is on the parliament to abridge or modify
based on the spirit of the : Fundamental Rights?
(a) Preamble (a) Article 360 (b) Article 358
(b) Fundamental Duties (c) Article 368 (d) Article 362
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) None of the above 21. In w hich of the follow ing cases the
competence of parliament to enact 17th
15. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the
amendm ent was challenged before the
Constitution of India by the :
constitution Bench comprising of five judges?
(a) 43rd Amendment Act
(a) Minerva mill's case
(b) 42nd Amendment Act
(b) Sajjan Singh's case
(c) 41st Amendment Act
(c) Golak Nath's case
(d) None of the above
(d) None of the above
16. Which of the following rights provided the
necessary guidance to the framers of our 22. In which of the following decisions supreme
constitution in selecting a set of rights which court held that parliament's amending power
could best suit the social and political is limited?
conditions in India? (a) Sajjan Singh's case
(a) The French Declaration of Rights (b) Shankari Prasad's case
(b) The Bill of Rights of the U.S. (c) Minerva Mills, case
(c) The Universal Human Rights charter (d) Keshvananda Bharti's case
(d) All of the above 23. Which part of the constitution provides the
17. Which of the following are those conditions Directive principles of state policy?
of social life without which no man can seek (a) Part IV (b) Part II
to be himself at his best? (c) Part III (d) Part V
(a) Duties 24. The Directive principles represent some what
(b) Rights the pattern of instrument of instructions
(c) Sociability provided in the :
(d) Civilised behaviour (a) Government of India Act, 1935
18. In which of the following cases the question (b) Government of India Act, 1919
of amendability of Fundamental Rights came (c) Independence Act, 1947
before the supreme court of India? (d) None of the above
Fundamental Rights 159
25. Who among the following declared that the (d) Both (a) and (b)
Indian Constitution is “First and Foremost a 31. Article 300 A has :
social document”? (a) The vestiges of the erstwhile right to
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru property
(b) Granville Austin (b) Provision for the machinery of audit and
(c) M.K. Gandhi account
(d) None of the above (c) The power to review the acts of the state
26. Which of the following components of the legislature
Constitution has also been referred to as “the (d) All of the above
conscience of the constitution”? 32. The terminology “equality before law and
(a) Preamble equal protection of laws” is found under :
(b) Fundamental Rights (a) Article 13 (b) Article 14
(c) Directive principle of state policy (c) Article 15 (d) Article 16
(d) Both (b) and (c)
33. The fundam ental duties have been
27. In which of its sessions the congress party
incorporated in Article 51A of the constitution.
passed a resolution which declared that “the
At present, the total number of Fundamental
basis of the future constitution of India must
duties are :
be a declaration of Fundamental Rights”?
(a) 9 (b) 10
(a) Surat session of 1907
(c) 11 (d) 12
(b) Lucknow session of 1916
(c) Madras session of 1927 34. Fundamental duties enjoin upon a person to
(d) Both (a) and (b) respect :
(a) Mother Tongue (b) National Flag
28. Right to property has been eliminated from
(c) National Anthem (d) Both (b) and (c)
the fundamental rights by :
(a) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 35. The people residing in India are asked by
1976 Constitution via its part IVA to preserve :
(b) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of (a) National monuments
1978 (b) Communal Harmony
(c) 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act of (c) Political structure
1977 (d) Rich heritage of the composite culture of
(d) 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of the country
1971 36. Which of the following comments are correct
29. Which year does the “Golak Nath Vs the state about enforcement of the Fundamental
of Punjab” case belong to? Duties?
(a) 1962 (b) 1965 (a) They can be only indirectly enforced
(c) 1969 (d) 1967 (b) They can be enforced if a proper suit is
brought before the highest court of the
30. Which of the following document rejected the
country
idea of Fundamental Rights?
(c) There is no provision in the constitution
(a) Nehru Report
for direct enforcement of any of the
(b) Sim on Com mission and joint Fundamental Duties
parliamentary committee which were (d) All of the above
responsible for the Government of India
Act, 1935 37. The constitution enjoins upon a person via
(c) Objectives Resolution of Pt. Jawaharlal Article 51A to protect and improve :
Nehru (a) Natural environment
160 Objective Political Science
(b) Unity and integrity of the nation (a) Constitutional law of India
(c) Public property (b) Indian political system
(d) Ethnic composition of society (c) Foundations of political science
38. As part of the fundamental duties that a (d) All of the above
resident of India is expected to fulfill she or 44. The constitution of India through its part IVA
he should cherish and follow : enjoins upon the citizens of India of strive
(a) G andhian values and Nehruvian towards excellence in :
principles (a) One's occupational area
(b) Noble ideals which inspired our national (b) One's economic and social endeavours
struggle for freedom (c) All spheres of individual and collective
(c) Congress ideology activity
(d) None of the above (d) None of the above
39. Article 51A makes it incumbent upon a person 45. The power to issue writs for the enforcement
residing in India to promote : of the fundamental rights is given by the
(a) Communal harmony constitution to the High Courts under :
(b) The spirit of com mon brotherhood (a) Article 32 (b) Article 123
amongst all the people of India (c) Article 226 (d) Article 339
(c) Economic well-being of the nation 46. Article 23, among other things, prohibits
(d) All of the above traffic in human beings. This expression
40. Which of the following is the country that includes :
has adopted the western model of liberal (a) Slavery
democracy and has also included a number (b) Use of women and children for immoral
of basic duties in its constitution. purposes
(a) France (b) U.S.A. (c) Conscription
(c) Germany (d) Japan (d) Both (a) and (b)
41. A committte that was appointed by the 47. Special provision for the protection of
G overnm ent of India to m ake children is made in :
recommendations about Fundamental Duties (a) Article 23 (b) Article 24
was headed by : (c) Article 39(b) (d) All of these
(a) Sardar Swaran Singh 48. Which among the following constitutional
(b) Manmohan Singh offices are to a certain extent immune from
(c) Khushwant Singh the impact of Article 14?
(d) Sanjay Gandhi (a) President
(b) Governor
42. It is a fundamental Duty of a citizen of India (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha,
to develop : (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) Her or his economic status and social
49. Which of the following cases is popularly
standing
known as Mandal Commission case?
(b) The understanding between different
(a) Indra Sawhney V. Union of India, 1992
communities
(b) Bommai V. Union of India, 1994
(c) Scientific temper and spirit of enquiry
(c) Ramsharan V. Union of India, 1989
(d) All of the above
(d) None of the above
43. Which of the following works are authored 50. Which of the following Articles provides for
by K.R. Bombwall? abolition of untouchability?
Fundamental Rights 161
(a) Article 17 (b) Article 18 58. Which of the following articles provides for
(c) Article 26 (d) Article 27 prohibition of discrimination on grounds of
51. W ho raised protest in 1970s against religion, race, caste, sex and place of birth?
conferment of decorations like Bharat Ratna (a) Article 16
by the Government? (b) Article 19(1)(C)
(a) Jai Prakash Narayan (c) Article 15
(b) Ram Manohar Lohia (d) None of the above
(c) Acharya Kripalani 59. Under the constitution of India freedom of
(d) Vinobha Bhave the press is deemed as included under :
52. Freedom to reside and settle in any part of (a) Article 19 (b) Article 19(1)
the territory of India is conferred by : (c) Article 19(1)(a) (d) Article 19(2)
(a) Article 19(1)(e) (b) Article 18(4) 60. The term ‘double jeopardy’ pertains to :
(c) Article 19(1)(d) (d) Article 19(1)(F) (a) Article 19 (b) Article 20
53. Which of the following does not compose a (c) Article 21 (d) Article 22
ground for restriction on the freedom of 61. Freedom of a person or personal liberty is
speech and expression as given under the sought to be ensured by the constitution of
constitution? India by means of :
(a) Defamation (b) Insolvency (a) Article 19 (b) Article 20
(c) Contempt of court (d) Public order (c) Article 21 (d) Article 21 and 22
54. ‘Equality before the law’, is an expression of 62. Which of the following chapters of the Indian
(a) English common law constitution is the most comprehensive and
(b) French Administrative law detailed one?
(c) American Constitutional law (a) Chapter III (b) Chapter IV
(d) None of the above (c) Chapter V (d) Chapter VII
55. The expression ‘equal protection of laws’ 63. Who among the following is the guardian of
owes its origin to : the fundamental rights guaranteed by the
(a) French Constitution constitution of India?
(b) English Constitution (a) Parliament (b) Judiciary
(c) American Constitution (c) Lok Sabha (d) President
(d) None of the above 64. Which of the following rights is guaranteed
56. Equality before the law is a corollary of the to every person whether citizen or foreigner?
concept of the rule of law given by : (a) Rights relating to protection of life
(a) Dicey (b) Lord Bryce (b) Freedom of religion
(c) Lincoln (d) Churchill (c) Right against exploitation
57. Under Article 14 if there is any reasonable (d) All of the above
basis for classification, the legislature would 65. Equal protection of laws implies equal
be entitled to make a different treatment. In treatment in :
order to be ‘reasonable’ a classification must (a) Privileges conferred
be : (b) Liabilities imposed
(a) Unarbitrary (c) Both privileges conferred and liabilities
(b) Rational by the law imposed
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither privileges conferred nor liabilities
(d) Fair and just imposed
66. W hich article provides for residential 67. W hich article deals w ith the Right to
qualification in certain catagory of public Freedom?
employment? (a) Article 15 to 18 (b) Article 19 to 22
(a) Article 16 (3) (b) Article 16 (2) (c) Article 17 to 21 (d) None of the above
(c) Article 15 (4) (d) None of the above
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(c) (b) (d) (b) (a) (c) (b) (c) (d) (a)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(b) (d) (c) (a) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (c)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(b) (d) (a) (a) (b) (d) (c) (b) (d) (b)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(a) (b) (c) (c) (d) (c) (a) (b) (b) (d)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(a) (c) (c) (c) (c) (d) (b) (d) (a) (a)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(c) (a) (b) (a) (c) (a) (c) (c) (c) (b)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67
(c) (a) (b) (d) (c) (a) (b)
THE UNION EXECUTIVE
1. Which of the following is included in the 7. A/An------ is a quasi-judicial procedure in
Union Executive? parliament.
(a) President (a) Prorogation
(b) Council of ministers (b) No-confidence motion
(c) Prime Minister (c) Impeachment
(d) All of the above (d) Censure motion
2. Which Article states that the Prime Minister 8. The vice-president shall be elected by an
shall be ‘at the head’ of the council of electoral college consisting of member of :
ministers? (a) State legislatures
(a) Article 57 (b) Article 74 (b) Both houses of parliament
(c) Article 72 (d) Article 73 (c) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(d) None of the above
3. The real executive in India is the :
9. A veto is suspensive when the executive veto
(a) Prime Minister
can be overridden by the legislature by an :
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(a) Ordinary majority
(c) President
(b) Two-third majority
(d) Governor
(c) Absolute majority
4. Which of the following Articles of the (d) None of the above
constitution defines the duties of the prime 10. The veto power of the Indian president is
minister in the discharge of which he acts as categorised as :
a link between the president and the cabinet? (a) Absolute (b) Suspensive
(a) Article 75 (b) Article 78 (c) Pocket (d) All of these
(c) Article 77 (d) Article 73
11. The president shall have the pardoning power
5. Which of the following commission is an in respect of :
extra-constitutional advisory body under the (a) All cases of punishment by a court martial
chairmanship of the PM? (b) Offences against laws made under the
(a) Finance Commission Union and concurrent lists
(b) Sarkaria Commission (c) A sentence of death
(c) Planning Commission (d) All of the above
(d) Pay Commission 12. Who said that “it is most useful to look upon
6. The Council of Ministers comprises of : the executive as the residuary legatee, for that
(a) Cabinet Ministers explains the mixed nature of its functions and
(b) Ministers of State parts”?
(c) Deputy Ministers (a) Finer (b) Laski
(d) All of the above (c) Gilchrist (d) White
163
164 Objective Political Science
(a) Men of eminence in arts, science etc. Which of the above correct? Choose the
(b) Parsis correct answer from the codes given below :
(c) The Anglo-Indian community (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) None of the above (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 4 and 5
29. Who among the following describes the 35. Which of the following steps is taken by the
position of the prime minister as ‘primus inter President when a Bill is presented to him,
pares’, i.e. ‘first among equals. after its passage in both Houses of Parliament?
(a) He may declare his assent to the Bill
(a) Morely (b) Appleby (b) He may declare that he withholds his
(c) Leacock (d) White assent to the Bill
30. W hich of the follow ing Acts defines (c) He may, in the case of Bills other than
“Minister” as a “Member of the Council of M oney Bills, return the Bill for
Ministers, by whatever name called, and reconsideration of the Houses, with or
includes a Deputy Minister”? w ithout a message suggesting
(a) Customs Act, 1962 amendments
(d) All of the above
(b) Salaries and Allowances of Minister Act,
1952 36. Which of the following vetoes is a useful
(c) Income-tax Act, 1961 device in the U nited States where the
(d) M onopolies and Restrictive Trade executive has no power of control over the
Practices Act, 1969 legislature, by prorogation, dissolution or
otherwise?
31. The ordinance-m aking pow er w ill be (a) Absolute veto (b) Pocket veto
available to the President only when : (c) Suspensive veto (d) Qualified veto
(a) The two Houses of Parliament have been
37. The Vice-President acts as the President of
prorogued India when :
(b) The two Houses of Parliament are not in (a) President is sick
session (b) President is unable to discharge his duties
(c) Either (a) or (b) (c) President is absent from the country
(d) None of the above (d) All of the above
32. The Rajya Sabha can take initiative in— 38. Every Proclamation issued under Article 352
(a) Censuring a Minister is to be laid before :
(b) Creating a New All India Service (a) Lok Sabha
(c) Considering Money Bill (b) Each House of Parliament
(d) Appointing Judges (c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Vice-President
33. A veto is ------ when the executive veto can
be overridden by the legislature by an 39. Who among the following represents Indian
ordinary majority. in international affairs?
(a) Union Minister for external affairs
(a) qualified (b) absolute
(b) Prime Minister
(c) pocket (d) suspensive
(c) President
34. The executive vetoes from the stand-point of (d) All of the above
effect on the legislation can be classified as : 40. W hich of the following amendm ents
1. Absolute veto 2. Qualified veto substituted the words ‘armed rebellion’ for
3. Suspensive veto 4. Pocket veto ‘internal disturbance’ in the Article 352?
5. Multiple veto (a) 42nd Amendment, 1976
166 Objective Political Science
(b) 44th Amendment, 1978 47. Which of the following Articles lays down
(c) 24th Amendment, 1971 that “the executive power of the Union shall
(d) None of the above be vested in the President”?
41. To whom the President can refer any matter (a) Article 53 (b) Article 63
of constitutional law for advice? (c) Article 73 (d) Article 83
(a) Attorney-General 48. Which of the following Articles lay down the
(b) Union Law Minister Ministers can be appointed by the President
(c) Supreme Court only on the advice of the Prime Minister?
(d) Any of the above (a) Article 62 (b) Article 71
42. N o M oney Bill can be introduced in (c) Article 74 (d) Article 75
Parliament with the previous recommendation 49. The executive power which is vested by the
of : Constitution on the President, means :
(a) Prime Minister (a) Execution of the laws enacted by the
(b) President lagislature
(c) Lok Sabha Speaker (b) The power of carrying on the business of
(d) Public Accounts Committee government
43. What is the period within which an ordinance (c) The administration of the affairs of the
promulgated by the President should be laid state
before both Houses of Parliament after they (d) All of the above
assemble?
50. Which article lays down that all officers of
(a) Six months (b) Six weeks
the Union shall be President's subordinates?
(c) Six days (d) Two months
(a) Article 75 (b) Article 53
44. The President has the power to summon or (c) Article 78 (d) None of the above
prorogue :
(a) Only Lok Sabha 51. Disputes cannot be raised in connection with
(b) Only Rajya Sabha the election of a President or Vice-President
(c) Any House of the Parliament on the ground of :
(d) None of the above (a) Age of the incumbent
(b) Domicile status of the incumbent
45. When a Bill is presented to the president after
(c) Any vacancy in the electoral college
its passage in both Houses of Parliament, he
(d) All of the above
shall be entitled to :
(a) Declare his assent 52. W ho am ong the following is neither
(b) Declare that he withholds his assent appointed, nor removed by the President?
(c) Return the non-money bills for (a) Attorney-General of India
reconsideration of the Houses. (b) Comptroller and Auditor-General
(d) Take any of the steps enumerated in (a) (c) Speaker of State Assembly
(b) and (c). (d) Chairman of a State Public Service
46. Who summons a joint sitting of both Houses Commission
of Parliament in case of a deadlock between 53. In order to be Vice-President, a person must
them? be qualified for election as :
(a) Lok Sabha Speaker (a) A member of the Council of States
(b) President of the Republic (b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Prime Minister (c) Chief Election Commissioner
(d) Either (a) or (b) (d) None of the above
The Union Executive 167
54. Which of the following Articles prescribed (c) Article- 68 (d) Article-78
the qualifications for election as Vice- 61. When the Vice-President discharges the
President of India? functions of the President he gets the
(a) Article 65 (b) Article 66 emoluments :
(c) Article 72 (d) Article 78 (a) Of the President only
55. The election of the Vice-President shall be (b) Of the Vice-President only
indirect and in accordance with : (c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) The first-past the post system (d) None of the above
(b) The list system 62. Determination of doubts and disputes relating
(c) The system of proportional representation to the election of a President or Vice-President
(d) None of the above is dealt within :
56. Which of the following bodies will have no (a) Article 71 (b) Article 72
part to play in the election of the Vice- (c) Article 73 (d) Article 74
President? 63. When the Vice-President acts as President his
(a) Rajya Sabha (b) State Legislatures duties as Chairman of the Council of State
(c) Lok Sabha (d) None of the above are performed by :
57. In which of the following ways a vacancy (a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
may arise in the office of the President? (b) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(a) Loss of an essential qualification by the (c) Deputy Chairman of the Council of
incumbent States
(b) Long and unaccounted absence from the (d) None of the above
office 64. Under which article of the Constitution, the
(c) Setting a side of his election as President qualifications for election to the office of the
(d) All of the above President find mention?
58. What will happen if the sitting President's (a) Article 55 (b) Article 56
term expires while his successor is yet to enter (c) Article 57 (d) Article 58
upon his office? 65. Which article of the Constitution lay down
(a) Vice-President shall begin to act as that the President's term of office is five years
President though he is eligible for re-election?
(b) The incumbent shall continue to hold (a) Article-56 (b) Article 57
office (c) Article 56-57 (d) Article 58
(c) The incumbent's term shall be increased 66. Which of the following Articles prescribe that
for one year the President shall not hold any other office
(d) None of the above of profit?
59. Who was the first Vice-President to have been (a) Article 50 (b) Article 57
elected for a second term? (c) Article 59 (d) Article 60
(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan 67. Which of the following is not a manner in
(b) B.D. Jatti which a vacancy may arise in the office of
(c) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy the President?
(d) Shanker Dayal Sharma (a) President's demise
60. Which of the following Articles lay down the (b) President's resignation
norms for the Vice-President? (c) President's long absence
(a) Article-66 (b) Article-67 (d) President's removal by impeachment
168 Objective Political Science
68. The normal function of the Vice-President is may discharge the functions of the
to act as : President
(a) President, when the President is not able (c) The role of the Deputy Chairman of the
to discharge the duties of his office Council of States when Vice-President
(b) Deputy Chief of Indian Armed forces acts as President
(d) None of the above
(c) Ex-officio Chairman of the Council of
States 70. President's office may terminate within the
(d) None of the above term of five years due to his resignation.
President has to address the resignation to :
69. Article 91 lays down :
(a) Vice-President
(a) Conditions necessary for the office of the (b) Prime Minister
speaker of the Lok Sabha (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) The situation when the Vice-President (d) Any of the above
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(d) (b) (a) (b) (c) (d) (c) (b) (a) (d)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(d) (a) (b) (d) (a) (c) (d) (b) (d) (a)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(c) (c) (b) (c) (a) (a) (c) (c) (a) (b)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(c) (b) (d) (a) (d) (d) (d) (b) (c) (b)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(c) (b) (b) (c) (d) (b) (a) (d) (d) (b)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(c) (c) (a) (b) (c) (b) (c) (b) (a) (b)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(a) (a) (c) (d) (c) (c) (c) (c) (c) (a)
PARLIAMENT
1. Which of the following Articles of the (c) Original Bills (d) Ordinary Bills
constitution states that the parliament of India 8. A Parliamentary committee may be defined
consists of the President and two Houses? as one that :
(a) Article 64 (b) Article 79 (a) Is appointed or elected by the House or
(c) Article 74 (d) Article 80 nominated by the Speaker/Chairman
2. How many members of the Council of States (b) Works under the direction of the Speaker/
are the representatives of the States and the Chairman
Union Territories? (c) Presents its report to the House or to the
(a) 245 (b) 240 Speaker/Chairman
(c) 235 (d) 237 (d) All of the above
3. Which of the following postpones the further 9. W hich of the follow ing are standing
transaction of business for a specified time committees?
hours, days or weeks? (a) Financial committees
(a) Dissolution (b) Scrutiny committees
(b) Adjournment (c) Enquiry committees
(c) Prorogation (d) All of the above
(d) None of the above
10. Which of the following are the two types of
4. What merely terminates a session? Parliamentary Committees in India?
(a) Dissolution (a) Subject and Service Committees
(b) Adjournment (b) Enquiry and Scrutiny Committees
(c) Prorogation (c) Standing and Ad hoc Committees
(d) None of the above (d) Select and Financial Committees
5. The Constitution provides an elaborate 11. Which of the following types of committees
definition of a Money Bill in : are elected by the House or nominated by the
(a) Article 110 (b) Article 112 Speaker/Chairman every year or from time-
(c) Article 111 (d) Article 109 to-time, as the case may be, and are permanent
6. Who among the following has the power to in nature?
Summon a ‘joint sitting’ of both the Houses (a) Standing Committees
for the purpose of deliberation and voting on (b) Service Committees
the Bill? (c) Ad hoc Committees
(a) Prime Minister (b) President (d) Select Committees
(c) Speaker (d) Chairman 12. Which of the following is included in scrutiny
7. A ll Bills w hich are not constitution committees?
Amendment Bills and Money Bills, are : (a) Committee on Government Assurances
(a) Special Bills (b) General Bills (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
169 Obj. Pol. Sc.-22
170 Objective Political Science
(c) Committee on the Welfare of SCs and 19. The number of representatives from each state
STs in India depends largely on its :
(d) All of the above (a) Population
13. Which of the following committees are (b) Location
constituted by the House or by the Speaker/ (c) Area
Chairman, to consider and report on specific (d) None of the above
matters and become functus officio as soon 20. Who among the following is the ex-officio
as they have completed their work on these Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
matters? (a) President (b) Speaker
(a) Service committees (c) Prime Minister (d) Vice-President
(b) Adhoc committees
(c) Subject committees 21. Which of the following is a limitation on the
(d) Financial committees powers of Rajya Sabha?
(a) A Money Bill cannot be introduced in
14. Which of the following is the oldest Financial Rajya Sabha
Committee? (b) Whether a particular Bill is a Money Bill
(a) Committee on public undertakings or not is to be decided by the speaker of
(b) Assurance committee Lok Sabha
(c) Public Accounts committee
(c) Rajya Sabha has no power to pass a vote
(d) None of the above
of no-confidence in the Council of
15. Which of the following is a question which Ministers
relates to a matter of urgent public importance (d) All of the above
and can be asked with notice shorter than the
22. ------- is the pivot on which the political
ten days prescribed for an ordinary question?
system of the country revolves.
(a) Unstarred Questions
(b) Short Notice Questions (a) President
(c) Starred Questions (b) Parliament
(d) None of the above (c) Judiciary
(d) None of the above
16. The institutions, Sabha and Samiti, mentioned
in ------- , may be said to have contained 23. Who among the following nominates 12
rudiments of a modern parliament. members to the Rajya Sabha from amongst
(a) Yajurveda (b) Rigveda persons having special knowledge or practical
(c) Atharvaveda (d) Samveda experience in respect of such matters as
literature, science, art and social service?
17. Which of the following refers specially to a
(a) Prime Minister (b) Speaker
kind of democratic polity where in the
(c) Vice-President (d) President
supreme power vests in the body of people's
representatives called Parliament? 24. Which of the following are the functions of
(a) Republican (b) Communist Parliament?
(c) Parliamentary (d) Socialist (a) Law -making, development, social
18. Who among the following summons the two engineering and legitimatizational
Houses of Parliament to meet from time to time? functions
(a) Speaker (b) Representational, grievance ventilation,
(b) President educational and advisory functions
(c) Prime Minister (c) Informational functions
(d) Council of Ministers (d) All of the above
Parliament 171
25. Want of Parliamentary confidence in the put an end to the problem of political
Government may be expressed by the House defection in our country.
of the people by : (a) Private Law
(a) Passing a substantive motion of no- (b) Common Law
confidence in the council of ministers (c) Anti-Defection Law
(b) Defeating the Government on a major (d) None of the above
issue of policy 32. Which of the following is one of the types of
(c) Passing an adjourment motion resolutions?
(d) Any of the above (a) Private member's Resolutions
26. Who among the following enjoys the right to (b) Government Resolutions
formulate the budget? (c) Statutory Resolutions
(a) Legislature (d) All of the above
(b) Executive 33. The Provision for the calling attention notices
(c) Judiciary was first made in the year :
(d) None of the above (a) 1954 (b) 1956
27. A dm inistrative accountability m eans (c) 1955 (d) 1957
accountability of the administration to the
(a) Executive 34. W hich of the follow ing is one of the
(b) Judiciary categories of questions asked in both Houses
(c) Parliament of Parliament?
(d) None of the above (a) Starred Questions
(b) Unstarred Questions
28. The constitution provides for an annual (c) Short Notice Questions
statement of the estimated receipts and (d) All of the above
expenditures to be placed before the :
(a) President 35. Which of the following questions are to be
(b) Parliament answered orally on the floor of the House?
(c) Prime Minister (a) Starred Questions
(d) None of the above (b) Unstarred Questions
(c) Short Notice Questions
29. The Speaker shall vacate his office : (d) All of the above
(a) If he ceases to be member of Lok Sabha
(b) If he sends his resignation to the Deputy 36. An unstarred Question is so named because
Speaker it does not carry a/an.
(c) If a resolution removing him has been (a) Cross mark
passed in the Lok Sabha by majority of (b) Tick mark
all the then members (c) Asterisk mark
(d) All of the above (d) None of the above
30. The time immediately following the Question 37. Which of the following is a technique of
Hour in both Houses has come to be popularly Parliam entary surveillance over the
knows as : administration practised in all the countries
(a) Zero Hour having representative parliam entary
democracy?
(b) Eleventh Hour
(a) Zero Hour
(c) Short Discussion Hour
(b) Parliamentary question
(d) Emergency Hour
(c) Eleventh Hour
31. ------ was passed in 1985 by Parliament to (d) Parliamentary immunity
172 Objective Political Science
38. Who among the following determines what (c) Right to disallow any motion what so
matters are financial matters that fall within ever
the exclusive jurisdiction of Lok Sabha? (d) All of these
(a) Speaker (b) Vice-President 45. Article 107 prescribes :
(c) Chairman (d) Deputy Speaker (a) Conditions to be elected as member of
39. In Keshvananda's case, justice Sikri had tried Rajya Sabha
to tabulate the basic features of the (b) Procedure regarding an ordinary bill
constitution including : (c) Impeachment of the President
(a) Supremacy of the Constitution (d) None of the above
(b) Republican and democratic form of 46. Which of the following is an expenditure
Government charged on the consolidated fund of India?
(c) Secular Character of the Constitution (a) Salary of a member of Parliament
(d) All of the above (b) Salary of Judges of the Supreme court
40. The quorum to constitute a meeting of either (c) Emoluments of the President
House of parliament shall be ------ of the total (d) Both (b) and (c)
number of members of the House. 47. Which Article says that two members may be
(a) One-fourth (b) One-third nominated from the Anglo-Indian community
(c) One-tenth (d) One-fifth by the President to the House of the people if
41. Article 267 of the constitution empowers he is of opinion that the Anglo-Indian
Parliament and the Legislature of a state to com m unity has not been adequately
represented in the House of the people?
create :
(a) Article 300 (b) Article 231
(a) A ‘contingency fund’ for India or for a
(c) Article 331 (d) Article 341
state
(b) Upper Chamber of a state legislature 48. Section 135A of the criminal procedure code,
(c) All-India services as amended by Act 104 of 1976, exempts a
(d) All of the above member from arrest during the continuance
of a meeting of the Chamber or committees
42. Which of the following articles lays down and during a period of a certain number of
norm s regarding creation of All-India days before and after such meeting or sitting.
services? This number is :
(a) Article 273 (b) Article 119 (a) 40 (b) 50
(c) Article 77 (d) Article 312 (c) 60 (d) 90
43. The public account of India refers to : 49. A Parliamentary committee holds office for a
(a) Accounts to be audited by Comptroller period not exceeding one year or for a period
and Auditor-General specified by the speaker or until a new
(b) Money received by an officer or court in comm ittee is nominated. Which of the
connection with affairs of the Union following committees continue in office till
(c) The record of incoming and outgoing reconstituted?
money made by Accountant-General in (a) Business Advisory Committee
a state (b) Committee on Petitions
(d) None of the above (c) Committee on privileges
44. Which of the following is a privilege of the (d) All of the above
House collectively? 50. W hich of the follow ing is/are subject
(a) Right to publish debates and proceedings committee?
(b) Freedom of attendance as witness (a) Committee on Agriculture
Parliament 173
(b) Committee on Environment and forests 57. Parliament can assume legislative power with
(c) Committee on Science and Technology respect to a state subject only if :
(d) All of these (a) President issues an ordinance to this
51. Which of the following statements describes effect
a ‘Hung Parliament’? (b) Lok Sabha passes a resolution to this
(a) A Parliament in which no party has clear effect
majority (c) The council of states passes a resolution
(b) The Prime Minister has resigned but to this effect supported by two-thirds of
Parliament is not dissolved its members present and voting
(c) Parliament lacks quorum to conduct (d) All of the above
business
58. Which of the following acts, among other
(d) A lame duck Parliament
things, as an organ of information?
52. The word ‘Parliament’ is derived from the (a) Parliament
french term : (b) Ministry of Information and Broad
(a) Parto (b) Parler casting
(c) Parlem (d) None of the above
(c) Comptroller and Auditor-General
53. Who among the following is not an integral (d) None of the above
part of Parliament?
59. Power to authorise expenditures for the public
(a) Rajya Sabha (b) President
(c) Lok Sabha (d) Vice-President services to specify the purposes to which that
money shall be appreciated, to provide ways
54. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha as and means to raise the revenue required
envisaged under the constitution is : belong to :
(a) 552 (b) 562
(a) Both Houses of the Parliament
(c) 545 (d) 565
(b) Rajya Sabha
55. The total elected strength of the Lok Sabha is (c) Lok Sabha
distributed among the states in such a way (d) None of the above
that :
(a) There is no discrimination between states 60. Presidential power to dissolve the House of
regarding their representation people is laid down under Article term
(b) All the states are equally represented represents :
(c) The ratio between the number of seats (a) 56 (b) 61
and the population of any state is same (c) 85 (d) 92
for all states 61. Which of the following term represents
(d) Both (a) and (b) termination of a session of the House of
56. In the context of Parliament, ‘delimitation’ people?
means : (a) Adjournment (b) Prorogation
(a) Fixing the minimum age limited for (c) Dissolution (d) None of the above
voting
62. A person who sits or votes in either House of
(b) The process of re-adjusting the
representation of the electoral Parliament knowing that he is not qualified
constituencies may have to pay a penalty of :
(c) Put an end to limitation of the maximum (a) Rs. 500 per day
times a person can fight the election to (b) Single day imprisonment
the Lok Sabha (c) Rs. 5000 per day
(d) None of the above (d) None of the above
174 Objective Political Science
63. Disqualifications for being a member of the (a) 1991 (b) 1992
either House of Parliament are laid down under (c) 1993 (d) 1977
Article : 71. Which of the following constitutes the final
(a) 100 (b) 101 step in financial legislation?
(c) 102 (d) 103 (a) Appropriation Bill
64. The Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok (b) Money Bill
Sabha normally hold their office : (c) Finance Bill
(a) For two years (d) None of the above
(b) Till they are removed 72. The Joint Com mittee on salaries and
(c) During the life of the House allowances of members of Parliament consist
(d) All of the above of :
65. Provisions for removal of the Speaker and (a) Ten members from Lok Sabha
Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha are laid down (b) Five members from Rajya Sabha
under Article : (c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) 69 (b) 74 (d) Three members either from Lok Sabha
(c) 89 (d) 94 or from Rajya Sabha
66. Deputy Speaker presides over a sitting of the 73. Which of the following is the best example
Lower House of Parliament only when of Adhoc Committees?
(a) Office of the Speaker is vacant (a) Public accounts committee
(b) Speaker is absent from the sitting (b) Select committee on bills
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) Joint committee on bills
(d) When president asks him to do so (d) Both (b) and (c)
67. The constitution says that the Lok Sabha shall 74. A device which members can employ to draw
meet at least : attention to specific grievances or criticise
(a) Once a year particular policies of the Government is :
(b) Twice a year (a) Cut motion
(c) Thrice a year (b) Interpellation
(d) As many times as desirable (c) No-Confidence motion
68. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by : (d) All of the above
(a) Elected members of Rajya Sabha 75. The functioning of parliament every day
(b) Members of Lok Sabha normally begins with :
(c) Elected members of the state legislature (a) Zero hour
(d) None of the above (b) Question hour
69. The House Committee of each House is (c) Short Notice Question
concerned with : (d) None of the above
(a) Maintenance of decorum in each House 76. Though the development of legislative bodies
(b) Residential accom modation of the in India has been spread over a fairly long
members of Parliament. period, the evolution of parliam entary
(c) Communication between the Lok Sabha procedure and practice cannot be said to have
and Rajya Sabha begun earlier than :
(d) None of the above (a) 1919 (b) 1921
70. The Lok Sabha took the historic decision of (c) 1935 (d) 1909
introducing the standing committee system in 77. The committee which is responsible for
the Indian parliamentary practice in the year : ensuring timely laying of various papers in
Parliament 175
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(b) (a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d) (d) (d) (c)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(a) (d) (a) (c) (b) (b) (c) (b) (a) (d)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(d) (b) (d) (d) (d) (b) (c) (b) (d) (a)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(c) (d) (a) (d) (a) (c) (b) (a) (d) (c)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(a) (d) (b) (a) (b) (d) (c) (a) (d) (d)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(a) (b) (d) (a) (c) (b) (c) (a) (a) (c)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(b) (a) (c) (c) (d) (c) (b) (b) (b) (c)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(a) (c) (d) (a) (b) (b) (a) (d) (b) (c)
THE JUDICIARY
1. Which of the following is a consequence of 3. It brought all government and semi-
the judicial activism? government bodies under the purview of
(a) Corruption exposed in high places the consumer protection Act :
(b) Peral action initiated against top (a) 1 and 2 are correct
politicians and public servants (b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) Strict enforcement of Environmental (c) 1 and 3 are correct
Laws leading to closure of relocation of (d) 2 and 3 are correct
a large number of industries
5. Which of the following Articles specifically
(d) All of the above
declares that any law which contravenes any
2. What “is now, in a sense democracy’s non- of the provisions of the part of Fundamental
democratic alternative to representative Rights shall be void?
government when the later bogs down in (a) Article 12 (b) Article 13
failure of inaction”, according to (c) Article 14 (d) Article 15
Fehrendbacher?
6. The judicial control over administrative acts
(a) Government by Judiciary
stem from the doctrine of :
(b) Government by Bureaucrats
(c) Government by Legislature (a) Separation of powers
(d) None of the above (b) Judicial review
(c) Rule of law
3. The concept of judicial activism can be seen (d) Delegated legislation
to be reflecting from which of the following
trends? 7. Which of the following are the two prime
(a) Expansion of rights of hearing in the functions of Judicial Review?
administrative process (a) Legitimising government and protect the
(b) Expansion of judicial control over government from undue litigation
discretionary powers (b) Legitimising government action and to
(c) Promotion of open government protect the constitution against undue
(d) All of the above encroachment by the government
(c) Legitimising the encroachment upon
4. Consider the following judgements delivered
fundamental rights and to justify the
by the Supreme Court in about a single month
social policies of the government
of 1993 and choose the correct answer by
(d) None of the above
using the codes :
1. It defined the constitutional powers of the 8. The power of courts to hold any law or
Chief Election Commissioner executive order unconstitutional or ultra-vires
2. It threatened multi-crore rupees industries on the ground that it is in conflict with the
with closure if they continued to pollute constitution is known as :
the Ganga and endanger the Taj Mahal (a) Rule of law
176
The Judiciary 177
(b) Delegated legislation role, but to what extend could the concepts
(c) Judicial law of judicial activism and creativity be exercised
(d) Judicial Review — this is the view of.
9. Which of the following is a Quasi Judicial (a) Justice Verma
authority? (b) Justice Pandian
(a) High Court of a state (c) Justice Ahmadi
(b) Lok Ayukta in a state (d) None of the above
(c) Central vigilance commission 15. The institution of ------ originated in the U.S.
(d) Administrative tribunal in mid-1960s and legal aid to these litigations
10. The judicial activism has led to the were provided by private foundations.
prosecution of a number of politicians and (a) Public Interest Litigation
other public servants on various charges under (b) Judicial Review
the : (c) Judicial Activism
(a) Indian Penal Code (d) None of the above
(b) Prevention of Corruption Act 16. What makes it clear that any person who
(c) TADA
suffers an injury but is unable to reach the
(d) All of the above
court is helped by public-minded citizens to
11. The first major case of judicial activism reach the court to seek justice?
through social action litigation was the : (a) Judicial Activism
(a) Rural Litigation Vs State of U.P. Case (b) Public Interest Litigation
(b) Bihar Undertrials Case (c) Judicial Review
(c) Minerva Mills Case (d) None of the above
(d) None of the above
17. The petition of public interest litigation can
12. In public interest litigation— be filed by :
(a) Only an aggrieved person can approach (a) Any voluntary agency
the court for redress.
(b) Government officials only
(b) Public officials can approach the court
(c) A member of the public
of wrong allegation imposed against
(d) Both (a) and (c)
them.
(c) Only certain social welfare organisations 18. What has been regarded as the root of P I L
can aproach the court for seeking justice (Public Interest Litigation)?
on behalf of aggrieved citizen. (a) Judicial Review
(d) Citizens as well as any public spirited (b) Judicial Activism
organisation can lodge complaints in (c) Rule of Law
court against administrative injustice (d) None of the above
being done to other people or a group or 19. Under which of the following Articles of the
a community
Constitution of India the High Court and the
13. Who among the following Chief Justices of Suprem e Court w ithin their original
India is reported to have said that judicial jurisdiction can issue writs against the state
activism has been more or less thrust upon to set right the grievance of an aggrieved
the Indian Judiciary? party by issuing writs/orders/injunctions etc.?
(a) Kuldip Singh (b) A.M. Ahmadi (a) Articles 32 and 36
(c) N.P. Singh (d) J.S. Verma (b) Articles 24 and 222
14. The important question today is not whether (c) Articles 226 and 32
the Supreme Court could activise its judicial (d) Articles 22 and 24
Obj. Pol. Sc.-23
178 Objective Political Science
20. PIL has enabled the Supreme Court to (b) PIL is a part of participatory justice
exercise affirmative action to vindicate those (c) PIL was an opportunity for like-minded
socio-econom ic rights traditionally citizens to participate and reaffirm their
considered unenforceable by the court and faith in the legal process
has thus enlarged the scope of ------ of the (d) All of the above
constitution. 27. In which of the following, the collective rights
(a) Articles 32 (b) Articles 31 of the public are affected and redress is sought
(c) Articles 30 (d) Articles 33 for such injury?
21. What does SAL stand for? (a) S A L (b) P I L
(a) Social Action Litigation (c) Judicial activism (d) None of the above
(b) Steel Authority Limited 28. In which of the following, the injury suffered
(c) Social Authority of Legislation by members of a determinate class or group
(d) School Authority Limited of people is direct?
22. In which of the following, petitions are made (a) P I L
for the enforcement of the specific rights of a (b) Affirmative Action
determinate class or group of people who are (c) S A L
primarily injured by the impugned action? (d) None of the above
(a) P I L (b) S A L 29. The most distinctive feature of the work of
(c) Judicial Review (d) None of the above United States Supreme Court is its power of :
23. In which of the following, there may be no direct (a) Judicial activism (b) Judicial review
specific injury to any member of the public? (c) Judicial law (d) Rule of law
(a) P I L
30. The constitutional validity of the ------, ------
(b) S A L
and ------ Amendments was challenged in the
(c) Affirmative action
Fundamental Rights case (Keshvananda
(d) None of the above
Bharti Vs. State of Kerala, 1973).
24. Which of the following is an example of (a) 30th, 31st, 32nd (b) 24th, 25th, 29th
Social Interest Litigation? (c) 20th, 21st, 22nd (d) 24th, 25th, 26th
(a) Prisoners under trial
(b) Workers in stone quarries 31. The Court’s judgement in the cases of Golak
(c) Inmates of care centres or homes Nath, Bank Nationalisation and privy purses
(d) All of the above were in favour of :
(a) Public Property
25. Who among the following said that PIL is
(b) Intellectual Property
“the strategic arm of the legal aid movement
(c) Private Property
and aims at bringing justice within the reach
(d) None of the above
of the poor vulnerable masses and helpless
victims of injustice”? 32. Who among the following has observed that
(a) D.D. Basu “Every judge is an activist either on the
(b) G. Austin forward gear or on the reverse”?
(c) M. Kumaramangalam (a) Justice A.M. Ahmadi
(d) P.N. Bhagwati (b) Justice Venkatchalaiya
26. Which of the following statements is correct (c) Justice Krishna Iyer
regarding PIL? (d) Justice Bharucha
(a) PIL is meant to bring justice to the 33. Judicial activism can be said to be policy
doorstep of the weak, the unorganised and making in competition with :
exploited sections of society who have (a) Policy making by executive
no access to the courts (b) Policy making by legislature
The Judiciary 179
46. Adhoc judges are required in the Supreme (b) Asking a person who has detained any
Court if : other person unlawfully or illegally to
(a) A sudden vacancy arises in the Court produce before the court.
(b) The session of the Supreme Court cannot (c) Asking a public official or any authority
be held or continued for want of a quorum to perform legal duties.
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Against any lower court not to do any
(d) At any time there is great work-load in acts in excess of their jurisdiction.
the Court
53. What is mean by Judicial Review?
47. What is the minimum age prescribed for (a) Parliament’s right to ask the Judiciary to
appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court? review Judgements.
(a) 38 years (b) The president’s right to seek the opinion
(b) 45 years of the suprem e court on the
(c) 55 years
constitutionality of law passed by
(d) There is no minimum age
parliament.
48. What is the maximum age prescribed under (c) Judiciary’s power to pronounce upon the
the constitution attaining which a judge of constitutionality of laws passed by the
the Supreme Court may cease to be a judge? Legislature and orders issued by the
(a) 60 years (b) 62 years Executive.
(c) 65 years (d) 68 years (d) Judiciary’s right to review judgements
49. A Judge of Supreme Court may resign his passed by lower courts.
office by writing addressed to : 54. An All India Court was for the first time set
(a) The Chief Justice up under :
(b) The President
(a) Indian Independence Act, 1947
(c) The Prime Minister
(b) Second Constitution (Amendment) Act,
(d) The Law Minister
1951
50. A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed (c) Government of India Act, 1935
from his position only on the ground of : (d) Government of India Act, 1919
(a) Proved misbehaviour
(b) Incapacity 55. Which of the following is the important
(c) Either (a) or (b) consequence of judicial activism?
(d) Insolvency (a) Exposure of corruption in high places
(b) Initiation of penal action against top
51. Under a federal constitution a Supreme Court politicians and public servants
is an essential part of the constitutional
(c) Enforcement of environmental laws
scheme. It is at once the highest interpreter of
leading to closure of relocation of many
the constitution and a Tribunal for the final
industries
determination of disputes between the Union
(d) All of the above
and its constituent units. Who among the
following is authorised, under the constitution 56. Who commented that—“Government by
of India to change the number of judges? Judiciary is now, in a sense democracy’s non-
(a) Supreme Court itself democratic alternative to representative
(b) Parliament government when the later bogs down in
(c) President failure of in action”?
(d) Prime Minister (a) Chief Justice Huges
52. Mandamus is a Writ issued by the court— (b) Fehrendbacher
(a) Enquiring into the legality of claim of (c) Chief Justice Marshall
any person to public office. (d) None of the above
The Judiciary 181
57. A Judge of the High Court can be removed entertain appeal, by special leave, in any
from office during his tenure by— cause or matter determined by any court or
(a) The Governor, if the State Legislature tribunal in India, save military tribunals?
passes a resolution to this effect by two- (a) Article 121 (b) Article 131
third majority. (c) Article 136 (d) Article 146
(b) The president on the basis of a resolution
61. Which among the following institutions has
passed by parliament by special majority.
(c) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court the power to make laws regulating the
on the recommendation of parliament. constitution, organisation, jurisdiction and
(d) The president on the recommendation of powers of the Supreme Court?
the Chief Justice of the concerned High (a) President
Court. (b) Parliament
(c) Lok Sabha
58. Judicial Review in India is based on—
(d) Supreme Court itself
(a) Procedure established by law.
(b) Due process of law. 62. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
(c) Rule of law. is dealt with in the Article :
(d) Precedents and conventions. (a) 121 (b) 131
59. The grounds as mentioned under Article (c) 141 (d) 151
124(4) on which a Judge of the Supreme Court 63. With the coming into force of the Indian
can be removed by the president include : constitution, the Federal court of India was
(a) Immoral conduct substituted by the Supreme Court. How many
(b) Proved misbehaviour and incapacity judges were there in the Supreme Court in
(c) Occupation of and office of profit 1950 when the Court was inaugurated with
(d) All of the above the new constitution?
60. Which Article of the constitution grants an (a) 8 (b) 25
unlimited right to the Supreme Court to (c) 15 (d) 32
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(d) (a) (d) (b) (b) (c) (b) (d) (d) (d)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(b) (d) (b) (b) (a) (b) (d) (b) (c) (a)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(a) (b) (a) (d) (d) (d) (b) (c) (b) (b)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(c) (c) (c) (a) (a) (b) (b) (a) (a) (d)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(a) (c) (b) (b) (b) (b) (d) (c) (b) (c)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(b) (c) (c) (c) (d) (b) (b) (a) (b) (c)
61 62 63
(b) (b) (a)
THE STATE EXECUTIVE
1. Who among the following said that the (a) Hussain Vs. Najalingappa (1969)
G overnor “must be acceptable to the (b) K.M. Nanavati Vs. state of Bombay
Government of the province”? (1961)
(a) J.L. Nehru (b) Gandhi (c) D.C. Wadhava Vs. State of Bihar (1987)
(c) N.V. Gadgil (d) V.V. Giri (d) None of the above
2. Which of the following powers are enjoyed 6. Normally, there shall be a Governor for each
by the Governor? state, but an amendment of 1956 makes it
1. Executive powers possible to appoint the same person as the
2. Military powers Governor for two or more states under :
3. Legislative powers (a) Article 152 (b) Article 153
4. Diplomatic powers (c) Article 253 (d) Article 254
5. Judicial powers
7. Match List I with List II and select the correct
Choose the correct answer from the codes
answer by using the codes given below the
given below :
lists :
Codes :
List I List II
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 5
A. Article 168 1. Governor summons
(c) 2, 3 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 4
and prorogues the
3. Who among the following shall have the right two Houses of the
to speak and to take part in the proceedings state legislature
of, but no right to vote in, the Houses of the B. Article 174 2. Governor addresses
Legislature of the state? the members of the
(a) Attorney-General Legislature and may
(b) Auditor-General send messages
(c) Advocate-General C. Article 175-176 3. The Governor is a
(d) None of the above part of the Legislature
4. In which of the following cases the supreme D. Article 200 4. W ithout the
court held that the office of the Governor is Governor's assent, no
not an office of profit under the Government? Bill can become law
(a) Surya Narain Vs. Union of India Codes :
(b) Hargovind Vs. Raghukul A B C D
(c) Sanjeevi Vs. State of Madras (a) 1 2 3 4
(d) Sunit Kumar Vs. Government of West (b) 4 3 2 1
Bengal (c) 3 1 2 4
5. The notorious misuse of ordinance-making (d) 3 1 4 2
power of the Governor was highlighted in the 8. What is the maximum possible strength of
case of : the Legislative Assembly of a State?
182
The State Executive 183
(a) 400 members (b) 425 members 14. Which of the following Articles prescribes
(c) 500 members (d) 545 members the term of office for a Governor as five years
9. Which of the following union territories has but he holds office at the pleasure of the
its territorial areas spread in three states? president?
(a) Chandigarh (b) Delhi (a) Article 154 (b) Article 155
(c) Puducherry (d) Lakshadweep (c) Article 156 (d) Article 157
10. Under ------- the Governor may promulgate 15. Who among the following was the only
ordinances during the period when the House Governor appointed from a non-congress party
or both the Houses, where there are two upto 1964?
Houses of state legislature, are not in session. (a) Pattom Thanu Pillai
(a) Article 213 (b) Article 210 (b) Nurul Hassan
(c) Article 212 (d) Article 209 (c) Chintamani Panigrahi
(d) Khurshid Alam Khan
11. Which of the following Articles of the Indian
Constitution says that there shall be a 16. Which of the following commissions had
Governor for each State? recommended that a person who can be
(a) Article 142 (b) Article 143 trusted to rise above party prejudicies and
(c) Article 144 (d) Article 145 predilections should be considered for the post
12. By the seventh constitutional amendment Act of Governor?
of 1956, it has been provided that : (a) Second Pay Commission
(a) The same person can be appointed as (b) The Administrative Reforms Commission
Governor for more than one state (c) Sarkaria Commission
(b) The election of president or vice- (d) None of the above
president could not be challenged on the 17. Which of the following statements is not true
ground of any vacancy in the appropriate regarding appointment of the Governor?
electoral college (a) Nath Pai suggested that the appointment
(c) A High court should consider the question of Governor should be subject to the
of granting a certificate for appeal to approval of parliament
supreme court (b) The Setalwad study team is of the view
(d) None of the above that the Chief Minister should be
13. Consider the following methods : consulted
1. Election by adult suffrage (c) A.B. Vajpayee suggested that a panel of
2. Election by the members of the lower names should be placed before the Chief
H ouse or both Houses of the state Minister to select one of them
legislature either by the system of (d) V.V. Giri expressed the view that the
proportional representation or otherwise appointment should be made by the
3. Selection by the president out of a panel president
submitted by the lower house of the state 18. The study team of the Administrative reforms
legislature commission on union-state relations suggested
4. Appointment by president that the following points ought to be observed :
Which of the above are the alternative 1. The appointment of the Governor should
methods of selecting the Governor which the be subject to parliament's approval
constituent assembly discussed before finally 2. There should be practice of consulting
adopting “appointment by the president”? the opposition leaders in the Lok Sabha
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 on every selection of a Governor, before
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 his appointment
184 Objective Political Science
3. The president should be given the right (a) Article 256 (b) Article 163
to select governor in his discretion. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Article 221
Choose the correct answer by using the 23. As regards matters on which the Governor is
codes given below : empowered to act in his discretion or on his
Codes : ‘special responsibility’, the Governor will be
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 under the complete control of the :
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) President
19. Which of the following committees appointed (b) Prime Minister
by the DMK government in September 1969 (c) Chief Minister
suggested that a body of eminent jurists, (d) None of the above
lawyers and experienced administrators 24. Under Article 333 how many members of the
should be set up to select a Governor? Anglo-Indian community can be nominated
(a) Kripalani Committee by the Governor in the Legislative Assembly
(b) Santhanam Committee of the State if he is of the opinion that they
(c) Vohra Committee are not adequately represented?
(d) Rajmannar Committee (a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Indefinite
20. The Sarkaria commission recommended that
a person to be appointed as a Governor should 25. Who among the following is eligible for the
satisfy the following criteria : office of the Governor?
1. He should be eminent in some walk of (a) A member of the State Legislative
life Assembly
2. He should be a person from outside the (b) A citizen of India who is over thirty-five
state years of age
3. He should be a person who has not taken (c) Any non-political persons
too great a part in politics generally and (d) None of the above
particularly in the recent past 26. The term of office of the Governor is normally
4. He should be a detached figure and not for five years. However, it can be terminated
too intimately connected with the local earlier by :
politics of the state (a) Dismissal by the President
Which of the above are correct? Choose the (b) Resignation
correct answer using the codes given below : (c) Either (a) or (b)
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Impeachment
(b) 1, 2 and 3 27. Which of the following is prohibited to a
(c) 1 and 2 Governor?
(d) None of the above (a) Holding any office of profit
(b) Holding governorship of any other state
21. Which Article of the Constitution makes a
(c) Membership of the union parliament or
mention of the qualifications for membership
any state legislature
of the state legislature?
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(a) Article 173 (b) Article 283
(c) Article 169 (d) Article 174 28. Who makes laws relating to emoluments,
allowances and privileges of the Governor?
22. Which Article of the constitution makes it (a) Parliament
clear that as a constitutional head of the state (b) State Council of Ministers
executive, governor has to act on the advice (c) President
of the council of ministers? (d) None of the above
The State Executive 185
29. Which of the follow ing articles of the 36. Whips are maintained by the parties to :
constitution provides for a Governor for each (a) Discuss matters of national interest
state? (b) Discipline the members of legislature
(a) Article 92 (b) Article 143 belonging to respective parties
(c) Article 84 (d) Article 261 (c) Act as a precautionary measure in case of
30. Article 155 of the constitution provides that an imminent threat of defection from the
the Governor of a state shall be appointed by party
the President by warrant under his hand and (d) Both (b) and (c)
seal. But in actual practice he is appointed 37. The Chief Minister is ultimately responsible
by : to :
(a) Lok Sabha (a) Electorate (b) Governor
(b) State Council of Ministers (c) Legislature (d) Prime Minister
(c) Central Government 38. Which of the following has not been specified
(d) None of the above in the constitution?
31. Which of the following offices has no (a) Size of the Council of Minister
Constitutional validity and legal sanction? (b) Salaries of the Council of Minister
(a) Governor (c) Both (a) and (b)
(b) Chief Minister (d) Powers of the Chief Minister
(c) Deputy Chief Minister
39. Which Article of the Constitution discusses
(d) Speaker of the Assembly
removal of the Governor?
32. Arunachal Pradesh became a state from the (a) Article 155 (b) Article 156
Union Territory in the year: (c) Article 157 (d) Article 158
(a) 1983
40. Which Article of the constitution makes a
(b) 1987
mention of the Advocate-General for the state?
(c) 1994
(d) 1971 (a) Article 157 (b) Article 167
(c) Article 177 (d) Article 187
33. In a state, the minister is the political head of
the department whose administrative head is : 41. Which Article of the Constitution provides
(a) Deputy Minister the procedure for the abolition of the second
(b) Minister of state chamber of the Legislature (Legislative
(c) Secretary Council) in a state where it exists as well as
(d) None of the above for the creation of such a chamber in a state
where there is none at present?
34. Which among the following works is authored (a) Article 139 (b) Article 231
by Subhash C. Kashyap?
(c) Article 169 (d) None of these
(a) The politics of power
(b) In pursuit of Lakshmi 42. Which of the following are necessarily the
(c) The Modernity of Tradition part of every State Legislature in India?
(d) The Indian political system (a) Governor
(b) Governor and Legislative Assembly
35. Chief Minister of a state is the sole channel
of communication between : (c) Legislative Assembly and Legislative
(a) Ministers and the Legislature Council
(b) Ministers and the Governor (d) Governor and Legislative Council
(c) Both (a) and (b) 43. Of the total number of members of the
(d) Governor and the Legislature Legislative Council in State what is the
Obj. Pol. Sc.-24
186 Objective Political Science
proportion of members nominated by the 46. Which Article confers upon the Governor the
Governor of the State? power to reserve a Bill pertaining to the state
(a) One-Fourth (b) One-fifth for consideration of the President?
(c) One-Sixth (d) One-seventh (a) Article 100 (b) Article 200
(c) Article 111 (d) Article 179
44. All decisions of the council of ministers in a
state relating to the administration of the state 47. The States having Bicameral Legislatures are :
of affairs and proposals of legislation are (a) Bihar, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Orissa
communicated to the Governor by : and Jammu and Kashmir
(a) Secretary of the Legislative Assembly (b) Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Uttar
(b) Chief Minister Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Jammu and
Kashmir
(c) Advisor to the Chief Minister
(c) Rajasthan, Assam, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar
(d) None of the above
Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal
45. Article 108 of the Constitution, inter alia (d) Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Kerala, Bihar,
prescribes that the assent of the president is Jammu and Kashmir
mandatory for a Union Bill to become an Act. 48. Which Article of the Constitution confers
Which Article speaks of a similar provision upon the Governor of a state the power to
for a State Bill? make ordinances?
(a) Article 123 (b) Article 226 (a) Article 123 (b) Article 213
(c) Article 157 (d) None of the above (c) Article 93 (d) None of the above
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(a) (b) (c) (b) (c) (b) (c) (c) (c) (a)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(b) (a) (d) (c) (a) (b) (d) (d) (d) (a)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(a) (b) (a) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(c) (b) (c) (a) (b) (b) (a) (b) (b) (c)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
(c) (b) (c) (b) (c) (b) (b) (b)
INDIAN PARTY SYSTEM
1. Which of the following is the distinctive (b) They are basically non-aggregative in
feature of the Indian party system? their nature
(a) Weakness of non-congress parties (c) They generally mobilize their supporters
(b) Lack of the ideological commitment by appealing to their particularist
(c) Factions within the parties sentiments
(d) All of the above (d) All of the above
2. Consider the following problems of the 6. Consider the following political parties of
political parties in India and choose the correct India—
answer using the codes given below : 1. DMK 2. CPI (M)
1. Organisational problems 3. AGP 4. TDP
2. Defections Which one of the following is the correct
3. Finances chronology of their formation?
4. More splits in parties (a) 1, 2, 4 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Codes : (c) 2, 1, 4 and 3 (d) 4, 3, 2 and 1
(a) 1 and 2 are correct 7. Which of the following are called right parties?
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct (a) Traditional parties form ed around
(c) 2 and 3 are correct religious community and caste
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) Communist and socialist parties
3. Rajni Kothari prefers to call the Indian party (c) Regional and local parties
system as : (d) Trans-regional and regional parties
(a) Congress system 8. What does DMK stand for?
(b) One party Dominance system (a) Delhi Munnetra Kazhagam
(c) Multi-party system (b) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
(d) Both (a) and (b) (c) Dravida Manipur Kazhagam
4. Which of the following is an example of (d) Dravida Megha Kerala
adhoc parties? 9. Which of the following is not a variant of the
(a) The Bangla Congress one party system?
(b) The Kerala Congress (a) Where only one party is recognised
(c) The BKD of Charan Singh (b) Where one party represents the majority
(d) All of the above community
5. Consider the following statements regarding (c) Where one party prevails by restricting
communal parties and choose the correct opposition parties or absorbing them
answer : (d) Dominance of one party
(a) They seek to protect and promote the 10. Which of the following political parties does
interest of that particular community alone not belong to pondicherry?
187
188 Objective Political Science
24. Among the following, rule of the one party (d) O ne-party dom inance and a strong
has been associated with : regional leadership.
(a) Latin American countries 30. In the long drawn struggle against imperial
(b) East European countries domination, political parties represented an
(c) West African countries assertion of national solidarity of the Indian
(d) South East Asian Countries people. India's party system originated in :
25. An effective opposition appeared on the (a) Early twentieth century
political-electoral scene in India during : (b) Late nineteenth century
(a) Second general election (c) Mid-twentieth century
(b) Third general election (d) Early nineteenth century
(c) Fourth general election
31. Who of the following presidents of India was
(d) Emergency
associated with the Trade Union Movement
26. The thesis which see us to establish the in India?
relationship between electroral process and (a) V.V. Giri
the party system is known as— (b) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(a) Duverger's thesis (c) K.R. Narayanan
(b) Weber's doctrine (d) Zakir Hussain
(c) Mosca's thesis
32. The Indian National Congress was a platform
(d) None of the above
of loyalist reformers like cosmopolitan rich,
27. Which among the following is modern
the leisurely and influential community
interest-cum-pressure group?
leaders etc from :
(a) Municipality
(a) 1885 to 1904 (b) 1904 to 1918
(b) Trade Union
(c) 1900 to 1925 (d) None of the above
(c) Environmental groups
(d) NGOs 33. Which of the following best perform the
function of interest articulation in a political
28. Which of the following is the largest and most
system?
influential organisation of private capital in
1. Trade Union and ethnic associations.
India?
(a) Industrial Credit and Investment Bank of 2. Organisations of businessmen and civic
India groups.
(b) Federation of Indian Cham bers of 3. Judiciary and Law-making institutions
Commerce and Industry Select the correct answer using the codes
(c) National Alliance of Young Entrepreneurs given below :
(NAYE) Codes :
(d) Sri Narayana Dharma Paripalanam (SNDP) (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
29. Identify the characteristics of the ‘Congress (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 only
System’ as described by Rajni Kothari— 34. At the time of independence who opined that
(a) Faction-ridden party with charismatic “the Congress should flower into a Lok Sewak
leadership. Sangh”?
(b) O ne-party dom inance with w eak (a) Mahatma Gandhi
opposition. (b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) One-party dominance and factions in the (c) V.B. Patel
party networking with the opposition. (d) Abdul Gaffar Khan
190 Objective Political Science
35. In Asian politics, the oldest political party 37. The Communist Party of India was established
is : in the year :
(a) Golkar party of Malaysia (a) 1935 (b) 1950
(b) Indian National Congress of India (c) 1893 (d) 1920
(c) Jiyuminken of Japan 38. The Bhartiya Jana Sangh revived under a new
(d) Awami league of Bangladesh, formely name-Bhartiya Janata Party (BJP) in the year :
East Pakistan (a) 1977 (b) 1980
(c) 1981 (d) 1990
36. Of the total votes polled in general elections
39. In which year Communist Parties were got
in India since independence the electorally devided into CPI & CPI (M)?
dominant political party has never governed (a) 1960 (b) 1964
with : (c) 1968 (d) 1972
(a) More than 70% of the total votes polled 40. In which year BSP led by Late Kanshi Ram
(b) Less than 50% of the total votes polled was formed?
(c) More than 60% of the total votes polled (a) 1978 (b) 1982
(d) Less than 60% of the total votes polled (c) 1984 (d) 1988
SW
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(d) (b) (d) (d) (d) (a) (a) (b) (b) (d)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(a) (c) (a) (d) (d) (c) (d) (d) (c) (d)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(d) (a) (b) (b) (c) (a) (b) (b) (b) (b)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(a) (a) (c) (a) (c) (a) (d) (b) (b) (c)
GOVERNMENT AND TECHNOLOGY
BUSINESS
1. The department of science and technology (c) N atural Centre for Medium Range
has been operating a schem e entitled Weather Forecasting
‘Assistance for Development of State Councils (d) None of the above
on Science and Technology’ 6. MCA-21 is a major initiative taken up by the
(a) Since 1980 (b) Since 1970 Government of India in the field of—
(c) Since 1982 (d) Since 1979 (a) Health
2. In the context of Indian defence ‘Dhruv’ is— (b) Education
(a) Advance light Helicopter (c) Poverty Eradication
(b) Anti-craft Missile (d) E-Governance
(c) Anti-Landmins Tank 7. Which of the following is the principal
(d) None of these organisation established for transferring
3. International Science and Technology technologies from Research and Development
cooperation is realised at which of the laboratories to industry?
following levels? (a) N atural Research D evelopm ent
(a) Bilateral cooperation with developed and Corporation
developing countries (b) N ational Research D evelopm ent
(b) Regional cooperation such as w ith Commission
SAARC, ASEAN and BIMST countries (c) N ational Research D evelopm ent
(c) Multilateral cooperation through NAMS Corporation
and T centre, COSTED, UNESCO etc. (d) None of the above
(d) All of the above 8. The Council of Scientific and Industrial
4. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) Research (CSIR) was constituted as an
was establishment in the year : autonomous society in the year :
(a) 1877 (b) 1875 (a) 1942 (b) 1945
(c) 1876 (d) 1880 (c) 1946 (d) 1941
5. What does NCMRWF stand for? 9. The Nuclear power programme of Department
of Atomic Energy envisages building of
(a) National Centre for Medium Range
pressurised ----- on commercial scale.
Weather Forecasting
(a) Heavy water reactors
(b) National Centre for Marginal Range
(b) Fast breeder reactors
Weather Forecasting
191
192 Objective Political Science
(c) Emergence of Marxism 29. India tested its first Nuclear device on—
(d) Rise of political parties (a) 15 May, 1972 (b) 18 May, 1974
23. Kymlicka's theory of citizenship is based on: (c) 20 May, 1975 (d) 26 May, 1976
(a) Culturally differentiated rights 30. In which of the following years, a separate
(b) One person one vote Department of Biotechnology was established
(c) Weightage in voting for the minorities under the Ministry of Science and
(d) The philosophy of uniform citizenship Technology?
(a) 1986 (b) 1987
24. The first operational long range forecast of
(c) 1988 (d) 1985
seasonal monsoon rainfall (June-September)
of India was issued by India Meteorological 31. What does SEETOT stand for?
Department in the year : (a) Scheme to Enhance the Efficiency of
(a) 1988 (b) 1986 Technology Transfer
(c) 1985 (d) 1987 (b) Scientific Economic Establishment to
Transfer Technology
25. Which of the following programmes has been
(c) Scheme to Enhance the Efficacy of
initiated to promote innovation am ong
Transfer of Technology
enterpreneurs?
(d) None of the above
(a) Entrepreneur promotion programme
(b) Programme for Entrepreneur promotion 32. National informatics centre was set up in the
(c) Technopreneur promotion programme year :
(d) None of the above (a) 1976 (b) 1977
(c) 1975 (d) 1974
26. ELISA Test is carry out for detection of:
(a) Aids (b) Typhoid 33. ------- of the Ministry of Information
(c) Cancer (d) Pregnancy Technology is a prem ier science and
Technology organisation of the Government
27. The Information Technology (IT) Act, which
of India in the field of informatics services
provides legal framework for recognition of
and Information Technology (IT) applications
electronic contracts, prevention of computer
in India.
crimes, electronic filling of documents and
(a) National Informatics Centre
digital signature, came into effect on :
(a) 19th June 2000 (b) National Information Centre
(b) 14th August 2000 (c) National Computer Centre
(d) None of the above
(c) 18th October 2000
(d) 15th May 2000 34. ‘The National Science Day’ is observed on:
28. ------ is the only Government organisation in (a) February 28 (b) March 8
India, at present, offering network services (c) March 15 (d) March 31
over C-band and K4-band (TDMA, FTDMA 35. An advisory committee for the Ministry of
and SCPC) VSATs, wireless Metropolitan Inform ation Technology Com prising
Area Networks (MANs) and Local Area professionals from Indian IT industry was set
Networks (LANs). up on :
(a) Multi-media Information Centre (a) 18th December 1999
(b) National Informatics Centre (b) 17th January 2000
(c) Computer Informatics Centre (c) 20th June 2000
(d) None of the above (d) 21st July 1999
Obj. Pol. Sc.-25
194 Objective Political Science
36. Match List I with List II and select the correct 40. The acronym TIFAC stands for :
answer using the codes given below : (a) Tata Institute of Fundamental Agro-
List I List II Climatic Research
A. Indian Academy 1. New Delhi (b) Technology Information Forecasting and
of Sciences Assessment Council
B. Indian National 2. Allahabad (c) Tropical Inform ation Facility and
Science Academy Agricultural Centre
C. Indian National 3. Kolkata (d) None of the above
Academy of
41. What are EKASWA-A and EKASWA-B?
Engineering
D. National Academy 4. Bangluru (a) Hybrid varieties of Barley
of Science (b) Heavy-water atomic reactors
E. Indian Science 5. New Delhi (c) Cloning technologies being worked out
Congress Association in India
Codes : (d) CD ROM databases brought out by patent
A B C D E Facilitating cell
(a) 1 2 3 4 5 42. The Central Drug Research Institute, CDRI,
(b) 4 1 5 2 3 is located at :
(c) 5 4 3 1 2 (a) New Delhi (b) Kolkata
(d) 4 1 2 3 5 (c) Lucknow (d) Nagpur
37. The acronym IRHPA stand for : 43. The Technology Day falls every year on :
(a) Integrated Rural Housing personnel (a) 23rd October
Association (b) 11th May
(b) International Research on H eavy (c) 2nd January
plutonium and Argon (d) None of the above
(c) Intensification of Research in High
Priority Areas 44. The ‘N ational A w ard for successful
(d) None of the above commercialisation of indigenous technology’
has been instituted by :
38. Scientific and technological activities in India
(a) Confederation of Indian Industry
are carried out under a wide set-up. A part
(b) Department of Science and Technology
from the Central Government and the State
(c) By (a) and (b) jointly
Governments it mainly consists of :
(d) Technology Development Board
(a) Higher educational sector
(b) Public and Private Sector Industry 45. ‘Siddha’ is :
(c) Non-profit institutions and associations (a) A short range surface to surface missile
(d) All of the above being developed by DRDO
(b) A system of medicine
39. The Apex Institution in the Sphere of
(c) A hybrid variety of sorghum
agriculture Credits is—
(d) None of the above
(a) State Bank of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India 46. Vigyan Prasar was established in :
(c) NABARD (a) 1952 (b) 1966
(d) Regional Rural Bank (c) 1989 (d) 1993
Government and Technology Business 195
47. Which of the following Scientific organisations (b) A book authored by K. Kasturirangan in
was set up in 1767? which he has laid down a development
(a) Survey of India blue print for India
(b) Indian Council for Agricultural Research (c) A fifty year programme to increase
(c) Defence Research and Development sericulture in India
organisation (d) None of the above
(d) Vigyan Prasar 54. The term STEP stands for :
48. India is not a member of— (a) Science and Technology Entre-
(a) Commonwealth of Nations preneurship Park
(b) SAARC (b) State Transport Employment Programme
(c) NAM Organisation (c) Solar Technology and Energy Project
(d) OPEC Organisation (d) None of the above
49. W hich of the follow ing is situated at 55. The National seismological database centre
Kalpakkam? has been established at :
(a) Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (a) Indore
(b) Council for Scientific and Industrial (b) New Delhi
Research (c) Srinagar
(d) Chamoli
(c) N ational Research D evelopm ent
Corporation 56. The Indian space programme was formally
(d) All of the above organised in 1972 with the setting up of :
(a) Department of space
50. Who was the First Speaker of Independent
(b) Space Commission
India's Lok Sabha?
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) Hukam Singh (b) Bali Ram Bhagat
(d) ISRO
(c) Rabi Ray (d) G.V. Mavalankar
57. Which one of the following is not correctly
51. To meet the heavy water requirements of the
matched?
Indian nuclear power and research reactors, (a) Kalpakkam – Tamil Nadu
heavy water plants have been installed at (b) Rana Pratap Sagar – M.P.
several places. One of the place is : (c) Narora – U.P.
(a) Jodhpur (b) Shimla (d) Tarapore – Maharashtra
(c) Manuguru (d) Kalpakkam
58. Which one is not correctly matched?
52. A tom ic pow er reactors have been (a) Sriharikota – Andhra Pradesh
com m issioned, am ong other places, at (b) Thumba – Kerala
kakrapar and kaiga which are respectively (c) BARC – Karnataka
situated in the states of : (d) Pokhran – Rajasthan
(a) Maharashtra and Karnataka
59. The term SETS stand for—
(b) Karnataka and Madhya Pradesh
(a) Science and Ecology Testing Scheme
(c) Gujarat and Karnataka
(b) Society of Electronic Transactions &
(d) Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh
Security
53. DREAM 2047 is : (c) Social and Economical Transformation
(a) A m onthly new sletter launched by Scheme
Vigyan Prasar focussing on its activities (d) None of these
196 Objective Political Science
60. In which part of the country, the community 66. The name of the Indian station situated in
Information centres have been set up by the Antarctica is :
Ministry of Information Technology, for the (a) Dhanush (b) Maitri
Socio-Economic development of the region? (c) Shila (d) None of the above
(a) Rajasthan 67. The Acronym FORV stands for :
(b) North-East (a) Fertile Organic Reorientation Value
(c) Sikkim (b) Fishery and Oceanographic Research
(d) Both (b) and (c) Vessel
61. The INSAT is a multi-purpose satellite system (c) Fuel and Ozone Research Vehicle
for telecommunications, meteorological (d) All of the above
observations and data relay etc. It is a joint 68. ‘Sagar Sampada’ is
venture of : (a) Ocean research vessel
(a) Department of Space and Department of (b) Ocean exploration project
Telecommunications (c) Newest rig installed by India
(b) Indian Meteorological Department (d) Latest expeditions sent to Antarctica
(c) All India Radio and Doordarshan
69. The computer system which links and stores
(d) All of the above
information among different countries in the
62. Indian National Satellite System (INSAT) was world through a satellite is known as—
established in : (a) Apollo
(a) 1979 (b) 1981 (b) INSAT 2D
(c) 1983 (d) 1985 (c) Internet
63. The Acronym NNRMS stands for : (d) Nicnet
(a) National Natural Resources Management 70. A technology to enhance solar energy output
System in the country :
(b) N atural Non-Regional Managem ent (a) A technology to enhance solar energy
System output in the country
(c) New Narcotics Research Manpower (b) An institution of higher scientific research
System dedicated to nuclear technology
(d) None of the above (c) A fellowship to enable talented persons
64. To function as a nodal department for to pursue research in front-line areas of
organising, coordinating and promoting ocean science and technology
development activities in the country, the (d) None of the above
Department of Ocean Development was 71. Securities and Exchange Board of India
created in : (SEBI) was established in the year
(a) 1971 (b) 1981 (a) 1992 (b) 1989
(c) 1991 (d) 1891 (c) 1988 (d) 1980
65. India’s pace launching base ‘Sriharikota’ is 72. Which one of the following is NOT a capital
located in— market instrument?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (a) Debentures
(b) Karnataka (b) Shares
(c) Tamil Nadu (c) Public Sector Bonds
(d) Orissa (d) Treasury Bill
Government and Technology Business 197
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(a) (d) (d) (b) (a) (d) (c) (a) (d) (c)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(d) (a) (a) (d) (b) (a) (b) (d) (b) (a)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(d) (a) (a) (b) (c) (a) (c) (b) (b) (a)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(c) (b) (a) (a) (b) (b) (c) (d) (c) (b)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(d) (c) (b) (d) (b) (c) (a) (d) (a) (d)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(c) (c) (a) (a) (b) (c) (b) (c) (b) (d)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(d) (c) (a) (b) (a) (b) (b) (a) (c) (c)
71 72
(c) (d)
LOCAL SELF GOVERNMENT
1. The entire concept of com munity 2. Adequate resources should be transferred
development was conceived by the : to these bodies to enable them to
(a) State Government discharge those responsibilities
(b) Local Government 3. The whole system of Panchayati Raj
(c) Union Government should faciliate further devolution and
(d) None of the above dispersal of power, responsibilities and
2. The adm inistration of the com munity resources in the future
Development programme was entrusted to a 4. There should be a three-tier structure of
newly created agency called ------- located in local self-government
the planning commission : Which of the above are correct? Choose the
(a) Community Development Commission correct answer using the codes given below :
(b) Community Project Administration (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) Community Development Administration (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
(d) None of the above 6. Which of the following is not true regarding
3. The essential elements of the community Gram Sabha?
Development Programme include : (a) Gram Sabha is a meeting of all the adult
(a) All-round development of the people in residents in the panchayat circle
rural areas (b) The Gram Sabha is the base of the
(b) People's participation Panchayati Raj system
(c) Political empowerment of women (c) This body is found at the block level
(d) Both (a) and (b) (d) It is obligatory for every panchayat to
convene, at least twice in a year, meetings
4. Which of the following committees was of the Gram Sabha
appointed by the government to review the
working of the community Development 7. Which of the following is the main source of
programme? income of the panchayats?
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta committee (a) Grants from Government
(b) Ashok Mehta committee (b) Taxes on buildings
(c) Santhanam committee (c) Tax on commercial crops
(d) None of the above (d) All of the above
5. Consider the following recommendations of 8. The Chief Executive of the Panchayat Samiti
Balwant Rai Mehta committee on democratic is the :
decentralisation : (a) Block Development Officer
1. There should be genuine transfer of power (b) Chairman
and responsibility to these institutions of (c) Sarpanch
local government (d) None of the above
198
Local Self Government 199
9. Which of the following governments at the 4. Panchayati Raj bodies will prepare plans
centre appointed a committee, under the for economic development, social justice
chairmanship of Ashok Mehta, to review the and social welfare
working of the Panchayati Raj set up? Which of the above are correct? Choose the
(a) Congress Government correct answer using the given codes :
(b) Janata Government (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) BJP Government (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Communist Government
13. L.M. Singhvi suggested that Panchayati Raj
10. Consider the following recommendations of should primarily be viewed as the :
the Ashok Mehta committee appointed in (a) Rural self-government system
1977 :
(b) Local self-government system
1. It recommended the creation of the two-
(c) Urban self-government system
tier system of Panchayati Raj in the place
(d) Political self-government system
of the existing three-tier system
2. The committee recommended that the 14. Which statement is not correct regarding the
Nyaya Panchayats should be kept as 73rd amendment (Panchayati Raj)?
separate bodies (a) M.L.As. M.L.Cs. and M.Ps. have been
3. It made specific recommendations about included from the m em bership of
the composition of various tiers of Panchayat bodies at all levels
panchayats (b) Provision has been made for a Finance
4. Panchayati Raj elections should be Commission in every State
conducted by the Chief Election Officer (c) One-third seats have been reserved for
Which of the above are correct? Choose the women at all levels
correct answer using the codes given below. (d) The Panchayat bodies have been given a
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 fixed term of five years
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 15. Which of the following statements is not true?
11. Committee appointed under the Chairmanship (a) B.D.O is assisted by a group of extension
of G.V.R Rao in 1985 suggested : officers immediately below him
(a) A ppropriate improvem ent in the (b) B.D.O is the captain of the team of
representative character officers in the block administrative
(b) Strengthening of the capability of the organisation
people's representatives (c) B.D.O is not the chief executive officer
(c) A dm inistrative personnel in the of the block administration
Panchayati Raj institutions (d) B.D.O is described as the “miniature
(d) All of the above collector” so far as the development
12. Consider the following features of the 73rd administration in the block is concerned
Constitutional Amendment Act. 16. W hich of the following com m ittees
1. Panchayati Raj bodies will receive recommended that the collector should be
finance from state government in the closely associated with the new institutions
form of grants of Panchyati Raj and he should be the
2. One-third seats of the total seats in chairman of the Zila Parishad?
Panchayati Raj bodies will be reserved (a) Santhanam Committee
for women (b) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
3. All states will have three-tier Panchayati (c) Ashok Mehta Committee
Raj system (d) None of the above
200 Objective Political Science
17. In w hich of the following states, responding to rural women's critical needs of
reorganisation of the Panchayati Raj system literacy/education, especially about their legal
took place after 73rd Constitutional rights, new avenues of employment etc?
Amendment Act. 1992? (a) Committee on Empowerment of women
(a) Karnataka (b) Andhra Pradesh (b) Committee on women upliftment
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) All of these (c) Committee on ‘status of women in India
18. The corporations are headed by elected : (d) None of the above
(a) Representatives (b) Chairman 24. Match List I with List II and select the correct
(c) Mayors (d) Councillors answer by using the codes given below the
19. Which of the following is one of the different lists :
names of municipal councils in different parts List I List II
of the country? (Women organisation) (Base)
(a) Municipal committee A. Stree Adhar Kendra 1. Maharashtra
(b) Municipal board B. Sampark Samiti 2. Bangluru
(c) Municipality C. Vimochana 3. Andhra
(d) All of the above Pradesh
D. Aware 4. Mumbai
20. Municipalities have which of the following
authorities? Codes :
(a) The council and its committees A B C D
(b) Chairman/president (a) 4 1 2 3
(c) Chief Executive Officer/Chief Municipal (b) 1 2 3 4
Officer (c) 2 1 4 3
(d) All of the above (d) 4 1 3 2
21. Which of the following play an active and 25. M any groups have prepared w om en's
positive role in providing information skill m enifestos and have conducted voters
and resources for evolving and establishing education cam paign and exposure
grass root women's organisations? programmes on ‘know The candidate’ and
(a) Women studies centres made an appeal to women to vote fearlessly
(b) Agricultural universities and consciously in :
(c) Non-Government organisations (a) Delhi, Bangluru and Chennai
(d) All of the above (b) Ahmedabad, Kolkata and Bhubaneswar
22. Mahila Milap, Sampark Samiti, Forum for (c) Bangluru, Ahmedabad and Pune
women in politics, Semakaya in Gujarat, (d) Mumbai, Pune and Kolkata
women and Development in Rajasthan are 26. Which of the following statement is correct
successful examples of : regarding Town Area Committees?
(a) Networking (a) It is a semi-municipal authority which is
(b) Government agencies constituted for small towns
(c) International women organisation (b) They are governed by a separate Act of
(d) None of the above the State Legislature
23. Which of the following committees not only (c) The members of the committee are partly
recommended representation of women in elected and partly nominated
Panchayati Raj institutions but also mooted (d) All of the above
the idea of statutory all women panchayats at 27. Urban areas where troops are stationed are
village level as a transitional measure for known as :
Local Self Government 201
39. Which of the following amendments inserted D. Article 4. This Article provides
parts IX and IX A in the Constitution? 243G-243H that all persons who
(a) 72 and 73rd (b) 70th and 71st are qualified to be
(c) 73rd and 74th (d) 18th and 19th chosen to the state
legislature shall be
40. Which of the following commission of 1949
qualified to be chosen
recommended the launching of a national
as a m ember of a
extension service movement covering the panchayats
entire country?
Codes :
(a) Fulton commission A B C D
(b) Fiscal commission (a) 2 3 4 1
(c) Finance commission (b) 1 2 3 4
(d) None of the above (c) 3 4 1 2
41. Which of the following was described as the (d) 3 4 2 1
method of rural extension and the agency 44. Which of the following has the power to
through which the transformation of the social legislate on all matters relating to elections
and economic life of villages was to be to panchayats?
initiated? (a) Union Parliament (b) State Legislature
(a) Community Development (c) Village Panchayat (d) District Board
(b) Self-Government 45. Under ----- courts shall have no jurisdiction
(c) Rural Development to examine the validity of a law, relating to
(d) Political Empowerment delimitation of constituencies or the
42. Not less than ------- of the total number of allotments of seats, made under Article 243k.
seats to be filled by direct elections in every (a) Article 329 (b) Article 320
panchayat shall be reserved for women. (c) Article 328 (d) Article 321
(a) One-fourth (b) One-third 46. Part IX A which has come into force in 1993
(c) One-sixth (d) One-fifth gives a Constitutional foundation to the local
43. Match List I with List II and select the correct self government units in :
answer by using the codes given below the (a) Villages
(b) Rural areas
lists :
(c) Urban areas
List I List II (d) None of the above
A. Article 243k 1. This Article provides
47. Institutions of self-government, called by a
that seats are to be
general name “municipalities”, are :
reserved for (a)
(a) Nagar panchayats, for transitional areas,
scheduled castes, and
i.e. an area which is being transformed
(b) scheduled tribes from a rural area to an urban area
B. Article 243F 2. State legislatures have (b) Municipal councils for smaller urban
the legislative power, areas
to confer on the (c) Municipal corporations for larger urban
panchayats areas
C. Article 243D 3. This Article is (d) All of the above
designed to ensure 48. Part IX of the Indian constitution relates to
free and fair elections the -----, containing A rticles 243-A to
to the panchayats 243-ZG.
Local Self Government 203
74. In ancient India the decline of the republic 80. W hich of the follow ing Constitution
and representative institutions began with : Amendment Bills was the first concrete
(a) Coming of Alexander, the Great measure envisaged by the Government to
(b) Rise of the Mauryan Empire revitalise Panchayati Raj Institutions?
(c) Decline of Gupta Dynasty (a) 24th Amendment Bill, 1971
(d) All of the above (b) 73rd Amendment Bill, 1992
75. Which of the following phenomenon of the (c) 64th Amendment Bill, 1989
electoral politics at the grassroot level tend (d) None of the above
to vitiate the practice of the provisions of the 81. The seventy-third constitution Amendment
seventy-third Constitution Amendment Act? Act which includes various provisions for
(a) Money and muscle power strengthening panchayats at all levels,
(b) Expensive, violent and corrupt nature of provides for compulsory three-tier system in
elections in India all the states except where the population
(c) Conservative attitude of the electoral does not exceed :
machinery at the state (a) 50 Lakhs (b) One Crore
(d) Both (a) and (b) (c) 20 Lakhs (d) 75 Lakhs
76. The Panchayati Raj is based on the principle 82. Which one of the following is not an attribute
of— of Local Self Government?
(a) Decentralisation (a) Statutory Status
(b) Deconcentration (b) General purpose
(c) Democratic Centralism (c) Power to raise Finance
(d) Democratic Decentralisation (d) Sovereignty
77. W hich of the follow ing are deemed as 83. In the history of India, the village panchayats
important for enabling women to become an survived throughout the centuries till the :
effective pressure group and leveller of power? (a) Advent of English East India company
(a) Netw orking am ongst themselves as (b) Moghul Rule
members of a gender group (c) Rise of freedom struggle
(b) Pooling of resources (d) None of the above
(c) Both (a) and (b) 84. Which of the following scriptures of ancient
(d) Statutory recognition of their equal India give an account of one hundred twenty
position compared to men's Janapadas of Bharatvarsha?
78. What is the maximum period provided in the (a) Ramayana
73rd Constitution Amendment Act within (b) Mahabharat
which election to a panchayat must be held (c) Vayu Purana
in the event of its dissolution? (d) Chhandogya Upanishad
(a) Six months (b) Four months 85. Which committtee was set up at the union
(c) Two months (d) One year level by the Rajiv Gandhi Government to
79. Which of the following office bearers in the write a concept paper on Panchayati Raj in
Panchayati Raj Institution are elected through 1985?
an indirect election? (a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(a) Chairperson of Panchayat Samiti (b) Gargi Committee
(b) Chairperson of Zila Parishad (c) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(c) Ex-officio member at each level of the (d) Pylee Committee
PRIs 86. A study team on Community Development
(d) Both (a) and (b) and National Extension service was appointed
206 Objective Political Science
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(c) (b) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(d) (a) (b) (a) (c) (b) (d) (c) (d) (d)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(d) (a) (c) (a) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(c) (b) (d) (c) (b) (a) (d) (d) (c) (b)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(a) (b) (c) (b) (a) (c) (d) (a) (d) (d)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(c) (c) (a) (d) (b) (a) (b) (c) (c) (b)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(c) (b) (a) (b) (d) (a) (c) (c) (a) (c)
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(b) (b) (d) (b) (d) (d) (c) (a) (d) (c)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(c) (d) (b) (c) (c) (c) (b) (d) (b) (c)
BUREAUCRACY AND DEVELOPMENT
1. Which of the following is one of the features (c) A Committee Consisting of the Chief
of the administrative sub-systems in more Justice of India, Law Minister of India
developed countries? and the Vice-President of India
(a) There is a high degree of task specialisation (d) The president on the basis of resolution
(b) Government activity expends over a wide passed by parliament by special majority
range of public and personal affairs
6. Which of the following is one of the aims
(c) Popular interest and involvement in
and objectives of community development
public affairs is widespread
programme started in 1952?
(d) All of the above
(a) To develop local leadership and self-
2. Who among the following describes the governing institutions
growth of bureaucracies from structural (b) To develop, in total, the human and
functional angle in colonial and non-colonial capital resources of rural areas
developing countries? (c) to increase agricultural production in
(a) Riggs (b) Eisenstadt order to raise the living-standards of the
(c) Weidner (d) Fainsod rural people
3. Which of the following countries has a system (d) All of the above
of administrative courts that is distinct from 7. Which of the following is one of the major
the civil court system in other countries?
functions of the Panchayati Raj Institutions?
(a) France (b) Germany
(a) Administrative (b) Political
(c) U.S.A (d) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Development (d) All of these
4. _____ ordinarily involves the establishment
8. The rationale of decentralised planning lies
of machinery for planning economic growth
in :
and mobilizing and allocating resources to
(a) Failure of centralised planning
expand national income.
(a) Public administration (b) Diversities, details and information costs
(b) Financial administration (c) Socio-political aim s like people's
(c) Development administration participation
(d) Planning commission (d) All of the above
5. The Chief Election Commissioner of India 9. W ho am ong the follow ing described
can be removed from his office during his community development programme as “one
tenure by— of the most beneficient revolutions in the
(a) The Chief Justice of India if Some peasantry's life that have been known so far
Charges are proved against him to history”?
(b) The President on the basis of a resolution (a) Oscar Lewis (b) Toynbee
of the Union Cabinet (c) Wilson (d) Douglas
207
208 Objective Political Science
10. Which of the following programmes was (a) 1956 (b) 1955
started in order to create employm ent (c) 1957 (d) 1958
opportunities for unemployed and under- 16. Who am ong the follow ing has defined
employed? development administration as an “action-
(a) National Rural Employment programme oriented goal-oriented administrative
(b) Food for work programme system”?
(c) Rural landless employment guarantee (a) F.W. Riggs (b) La Palombara
programme (c) Edward Weidner (d) Albert Waterson
(d) All of the above
17. Who among the following has said that
11. Which of the following committees suggested bureaucracy for development tends to be
a two-tier structure _____ the zila parishad characterised by flexibility in place of
should serve as the first point of excessive emphasis on rationality?
decentralisation and the unit of planning and (a) Blau (b) Merton
mandal panchayat below the district as the (c) Ghidyal (d) Marx
implementing agency? 18. Which of the following were regarded as
(a) Santhanam Committee essentials of development administration?
(b) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (a) Modernisation
(c) Ashok Mehta Committee (b) Institution-building
(d) None of the above (c) Socio-economic development
12. The concept of ‘development administration’ (d) All of the above
was first introduced by : 19. According to Fred W. Riggs, ____ refers both
(a) Riggs (b) Weidner to administrative problems and governmental
(c) Palombara (d) Waterson reform.
(a) Development administration
13. Today development administration is
(b) Public administration
concerned with the formulation and
(c) Personnel administration
implementation of the four p’s which are :
(d) None of the above
(a) Plans, policies, programmes and projects
(b) Plans, priorities, policies and projects 20. W ho am ong the follow ing observes,
(c) Public, priorities, plans and projects “Administration cannot normally be improved
(d) Parties, parliament, plans and policies very m uch without changes in the
environmental constraints that hampers its
14. W hich of the follow ing is not correct effectiveness, and the environment itself
regarding the characteristics of bureaucracies cannot be changed unless the administration
in more developed countries as given by Ira of development programmes is strengthened”?
Sharkansky? (a) C. Stoner (b) Glenn Stahl
(a) Bureaucracy is considered to be (c) F.W. Riggs (d) Weidner
professional a sign of specialisation
21. Which of the following is one of the major
among bureaucrats
characteristics of national bureaucracies in the
(b) Bureaucracy accepts directions from other
developing countries as given by Ferrel
legitimate branches of government Heady?
(c) Bureaucracies are large (a) The basic pattern of administration is
(d) Widespread discrepancy between form imitative rather than indigenous
and reality (b) The bureaucracies are deficient in skilled
15. The term “development administration” was manpower necessary for developmental
first coined by Goswami in the year : programmes
Bureaucracy and Development 209
(a) It engages in research and development and has the responsibility for coordination of
both for civil and military purposes election work at the district level
(b) It provides comprehensive social services (a) Election Commissioner
and is now expected to promote the (b) Collector
fullest possible development to individual (c) Divisional Commissioner
human potential (d) None of the above
(c) Through nationalisation it more directly
controls a number of basic industries 42. What is the function of the collector, as an
(d) All of the above Administrative officer?
(a) He is incharge of the treasury and the
36. Which of the following Articles of the
district stamp office
Constitution provides for the Constitution of
(b) He is responsible for implementation of
two services, the IAS and the IPS :
government orders
(a) Article 310 (b) Article 315
(c) He is the principal agency of government
(c) Article 312 (d) Article 325
in matters of general administration in
37. W ho am ong the following defines the district
‘Administrative Adjudication’ as the process (d) All of the above
by which administrative agencies settle issues
arising in the course of their work when legal 43. Which of the following reports recommended
rights are in question? the establishment of the Indian Institute of
(a) White (b) Dimock Public Administration?
(c) Gorwala (d) Robson (a) Gorewala Report
38. The Central Administrative Tribunal was set (b) Appleby Report
up in : (c) Pay Commission Report
(a) May 1982 (b) July 1983 (d) None of the above
(c) June 1981 (d) November 1985 44. Under the British rule, the _____ was the basis
39. W hich of the follow ing comm issions of administration?
recommend the establishment of subordinate (a) District
services commission that came into existence (b) Village
in 1975? (c) State
(a) Planning commission (d) None of the above
(b) Second pay commission 45. Consider the following tasks of district
(c) Administrative Reforms Commission administration :
(d) None of the above 1. Regulatory tasks
40. Which of the following is the duty of the 2. Development tasks
collector? 3. Residuary tasks
(a) Direction and fulfilment of development 4. Conducting elections
of plans 5. Emergency tasks
(b) To carry on development activity or 6. Tasks concerning local bodies
programmes of the government
(c) Maintenance of law and order in the Which of the above are correct? Choose the
district correct answer using the codes given below :
(d) All of the above Codes :
41. _____ is the Returning Officer for elections (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
to parliament and vidhan sabha constituencies, (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 4, 5 and 6
Bureaucracy and Development 211
46. W ho is the first Law O fficer of the 53. In India as in other democratic countries the
Government of India? role of public officials is becom ing
(a) The Chief Justice of India increasingly :
(b) Union Law Minister (a) Political (b) Technical
(c) Attorney General of India (c) Managerial (d) All of these
(d) Law Secretary 54. Which of the following was recommended by
47. The administrator of which Union Territory the Fulton committee of 1968?
is called Chief Commissioner? (a) Technocratic control over the generalists
(a) Puducherry (b) Chandigarh (b) Generalist control of the scientists and
(c) Delhi (d) Lakshadweep technocrats
(c) Professionalisation of civil service
48. In which year the Indian Economic Service
(d) All of the above
was created?
(a) 1960 (b) 1961 55. The Traditional concept of the civil servant, in
(c) 1970 (d) 1971 a parliamentary Democracy has been that of :
(a) An anonymous servant of his Minister
49. Though the nature and scope of governmental
(b) An appointed personnel run the policy-
functions around the world has accompanied
making apparatus
the development of human civilization, an
(c) A Manager in a community situation
accelerated growth of such functions is noted
(d) Both (b) and (c)
since :
(a) The Russian Revolution of 1917 56. The Bureaucratic model set-up in India by
(b) The First World War, 1914-1918 the British Government was based on the
(c) The French Revolution of 1789 theory given by :
(d) The Second World War, 1939-1945 (a) Weber (b) Macaulay
(c) Michels (d) None of these
50. Who has made the observation that “The heart
of administration is the management of 57. Who among the following has characterised
programmes designed to serve the general public administration as the “heart of the
welfare”? problem of modern government”?
(a) L.D. White (b) Henery Hart (a) Herman Finer (b) L.D. White
(c) Paul Brass (d) Paul H. Appleby (c) Paul Appleby (d) Parkinson
51. Important cause of strain between the Minister 58. The work ‘Crisis in Command Management
and the secretary in the Indian government in the Army’ is authored by :
has been : (a) R.A. Gabriel (b) Girth and Mills
(a) Difference in the class background of (c) P.L. Savage (d) Both (a) and (c)
politicians and civil servants 59. In the Pre-Independence India, a new cadre of
(b) Difference in approach and manner of class I posts was introduced in addition to
work of politicians and civil servants the existing Imperial services by :
(c) Difference in the educational attainments (a) Government of India Act of 1909
of the politicians and civil servants (b) Montford Reforms
(d) Both (a) and (c) (c) Government of India Act, 1935
52. Which of the following central services was (d) None of the above
created in the year 1961? 60. In the British India, the doors of civil service
(a) Indian statistical service at the high levels were not open to all. A few
(b) Indian Audit and Account service persons of Indian extraction were allowed to
(c) Indian Defence Account service fill these posts only in :
(d) All of the above (a) Second quarter of the twentieth century
212 Objective Political Science
(b) Second quarter of the nineteenth century (a) The Prime Ministership of L.B. Shastri
(c) Last quarter of nineteenth century (b) Emergency
(d) First quarter of the twentieth century (c) Operation Blue Star
(d) None of the above
61. In a parliamentary Democracy, Ministers are
confident of obtaining loyal service from the 64. The Minister of Government must protect the
civil servants irrespective of what political party civil servant in certain cases, especially, where :
is in power. This phenomenon proves the fact (a) There is an explicit order of the Minister
that in a democracy civil servants are : which the civil servant has carried out
(a) Homogenous (b) Neutral (b) There is no breach of privilege of the
(c) Partial (d) Authoritarian members of the legislatures
(c) The civil servant acts properly in
62. Which of the following is an essential feature accordance with the policy laid down by
of the concept of civil service neutrality. the Minister
(a) Public confidence in the freedom of the (d) Both (a) and (c)
civil service from all political bias
(b) Personal control of the politicians over 65. W ith the increasing complexity of the
the civil servants functions of government in independent
India, which of the following has been
(c) Perks and privileges to a civil servant
questioned and challenged seriously during
commensurate with his or her duties
recent years?
(d) None of the above
(a) The neutrality of the civil servants
63. An unhealthy development in the Indian (b) The Trevelyan-macaulay philosophy
Bureaucracy is the emergence of personal (c) The subordinate-superior relationship
affiliations leading to an elem ent of between the administrative and political
‘politicisation’ among civil servants. This evil executive
came in a big way during : (d) Both (a) and (b)
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(d) (b) (d) (c) (d) (d) (d) (d) (b) (d)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(c) (b) (a) (d) (b) (c) (c) (d) (a) (c)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(d) (c) (d) (d) (d) (a) (d) (d) (b) (a)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (c) (b) (d) (c) (d)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(b) (d) (b) (a) (b) (c) (b) (b) (b) (d)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(b) (a) (c) (c) (a) (a) (b) (d) (b) (d)
61 62 63 64 65
(b) (a) (b) (d) (b)
CHALLENGES TO INDIAN DEMOCRACY
1. Which of the following is the cause of 7. Which of the following commission had
corruption, according to Klitgaard? recommended that Bombay should remain a
(a) Cultural (b) Structural bilingual state, but also suggested the
(c) Bureaucratic (d) All of these creation of a separate state of Vidharbha, by
adding some areas of Madhya Pradesh?
2. Which of the following committees pointed
(a) Administrative Reforms commission
out “corruption can exist only if there is
(b) Planning commission
someone willing to corrupt and capable of
(c) States reorganisation commission
corrupting”?
(d) None of the above
(a) Kripalani committee
(b) Santhanam committee 8. Which one of the following goes against the
(c) Narshimhan committee idea of Socialism?
(d) None of the above (a) Nationalism
(b) Land Consolidation
3. Who among the following said that “men (c) Abolition of Zamindari
steal when there is lot of money lying around (d) Grant of Privy Purse
loose and no one is watching”?
9. The main cause for the outbreak of the Andhra
(a) Wilson (b) White
agitation in 1973 was the supreme court's
(c) Laski (d) Swaminathan
decisions of 3rd October, 1972 on :
4. Which of the following reports pionted out (a) The mulki Rules
that there exists in India a nexus between the (b) Conduct Rules
politicians, bureaucrats and criminals? (c) State Rules
(a) Appleby Report (d) None of the above
(b) Gorwala Report
10. _____ are the largest single tribal community
(c) Vohra committee Report in the north-east.
(d) None of the above (a) Nagas (b) Bhutias
5. At present the corruption cases are dealt with (c) Bodos (d) Lepchas
under the : 11. The States Reorganisation Commission
(a) Civil services conduct Rules recommended that ____ should be a separate
(b) Prevention of corruption Act, 1947 state, but that a provision should be made for
(c) Indian penal code its union with Andhra Pradesh after the third
(d) All of the above general election.
6. The Central vigilance commission was set up (a) Vidharbha
in the year : (b) Telangana
(a) 1964 (b) 1963 (c) Mysore
(c) 1962 (d) 1961 (d) None of the above
213
214 Objective Political Science
12. In December 1969, the Assam reorganisation 18. Jaw aharlal N ehru once described
Bill was passed by the parliament and the communalism as the Indian version of :
H ill state of _____ w as created as an (a) Fascism (b) Apartheid
autonomous unit with Asom. (c) Nazism (d) None of the above
(a) Meghalaya (b) Manipur
19. Which of the following is one of the main
(c) Tripura (d) Mizoram
factors of the growth of communalism in
13. _____ can be defined as a social phenomenon contemporary India?
in which a section of the society is unable to (a) Communal parties and organisations
fulfil even its basic necessities of life. (b) Political opportunism
(a) Unemployment (c) Separatism and isolationism among
(b) Poverty
muslims
(c) Unequal distribution
(d) All of the above
(d) None of the above
20. What is the most appropriate meaning of the
14. Which of the following is “a defined territorial
term ‘Secularism’ in the Indian context?
unit including particular language or
languages, jatis, ethnic groups or tribes, (a) Separation of religion from politics
particular social setting and cultural pattern, (b) Freedom of religion
folk dance, music, folk arts, etc”? (c) There shall not be any religion of the state
(a) Region (d) Equality of all religions
(b) Nation 21. _____ means love of a particular region or
(c) YIX Area state in preference to the country as a whole.
(d) None of the above (a) Nationalism (b) Regionalism
15. Which of the following is one of the factors (c) Ethnicism (d) None of the above
for the growth of regionalism in India? 22. Which of the following acts is punishable
(a) India lacked a balanced economic growth under the prevention of corruption Act, 1947?
of all parts and regions (a) Habitual taking of illegal gratification to
(b) Difference in the per capita income influence a public servant
(c) Creation of linguistic states w hich
(b) Possession of wealth disproportionate to
reinforced regionalism and stirred
the known source of income
demands for increased state autonomy
(c) Criminal misconduct by public servant
(d) All of the above
in the discharge of official duty
16. W ho am ong the follow ing said that (d) All of the above
communalism came to India with the British?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Gokhale 23. The Punjab A dministrative Reform s
(c) Sardar Patel (d) Tilak Commission (1966) mentioned which of the
following causes of corruption?
17. _____ is the antagonistic assertiveness in
(a) Complicated and dilatory procedures
political, social and economic spheres by one
(b) Lack of proper education and training of
aggregation of individuals against another
civil servants
after being organised along religious caste or
(c) Political patronage of officials
other ascriptive lines.
(a) Regionalism (d) All of the above
(b) Communalism 24. Which of the following committees was
(c) Nationalism appointed by the Government of India in
(d) None of the above 1962 on corruption?
Challenges to Indian Democracy 215
37. Special plans schemes have been formulated (c) Death rate has declined rapidly
with central assistance to develop : (d) All of the above
(a) Hilly areas 44. W hich of the follow ing countries has
(b) Tribal areas introduced 'direct democracy'?
(c) Drought-prone areas (a) Russia (b) India
(d) All of the above
(c) France (d) Switzerland
38. Which of the following incentives has been
45. Census in India is being held regularly after
provided by the Government of India to
every :
promote private investment in backward
(a) 10 years (b) 13 years
areas?
(c) 5 years (d) 15 years
(a) Income tax concession
(b) Central Investment subsidy scheme 46. The Fundamental Rights in our constitution
(c) Transport subsidy scheme are inspired by the consititution of—
(d) All of the above (a) USA (b) UK
39. Which of the following is one of the three (c) Switzerland (d) Canada
major public sector Financial institutions? 47. Which of the following states is placed at the
(a) IDBI (b) IFCI bottom on literacy ground?
(c) ICICI (d) All of these (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
40. What does ICICI stand for? (c) Bihar (d) Nagaland
(a) Industrial Credit and Investm ent 48. What is/are the ground or grounds mentioned
Corporation of India in the Constitution to initiate impeachment
(b) Industiral Co-operation and Investment proceedings against the president of India?
Corporation of India (a) Proved misbehaviour incapacity
(c) Indian Cultural and Investm ent (b) Corruption
Corporation of India (c) Violation of the Constitution
(d) None of the above (d) All of the above
41. Which authority decides about the state's 49. Which one of these is not a keyword of
share in central taxes? Gandhian Economy?
(a) Finance Commission (a) Self-Sufficiency
(b) Planning Commission (b) Decentralised production
(c) Election Commission (c) Equitable distribution
(d) None of these (d) Centralized production
42. According to 2011 census the least densely 50. Which of the following Acts form the legal
population area is : basis for conduct of censuses in independent
(a) Sikkim India?
(b) Nagaland (a) The population Act, 1949
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (b) The Census Act, 1948
(d) Jammu and Kashmir (c) The population Growth Act, 1947
43. The population of India has grown rapidly (d) None of the above
after 1971 because : 51. Arrange the following countries in the
(a) Birth rate has increased rapidly decreasing order of their population :
(b) There is influx of people from foreign 1. China 2. India
countries 3. USA 4. Indonesia
Challenges to Indian Democracy 217
Select the correct answer from the following : (c) The view that in a class-divided society,
(a) 1, 2 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 1, 4 the idea of equal citizenship is a sham
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 1, 2, 4, 3 (d) Equal rights and equal access for all
52. The population census is a ____ subject in 60. The marxists and the radical feminists do not
India. share which one of the following views on
(a) State (b) Union State power?
(c) Concurrent (d) None of these (a) Both deny that the State is an autonomous
53. In which of the following ministries the entity
census organisation has been functioning on (b) Both maintain that the ideology of the
a permanent footing ever since 1961? State can be understood by reference to
the power structure in a society
(a) Welfare Ministry
(c) Both are based on institutionalized
(b) Health Ministry
structures of stratification
(c) Human Resource Development Ministry
(d) Both agree on the location of structures
(d) Union Home Ministry
of inequality and exploitation in society
54. Which State of India occupies the third
61. What does MFAL stand for?
position in terms of the area?
(a) M arginal Farm ers and Agricultural
(a) Rajasthan (b) Bihar
Labour
(c) West Bengal (d) Maharashtra
(b) Manpower, Farming and Agricultural
55. The central notion of citizenship as having Land
the cappacity to bear arms, to own property (c) Marginal Families of Large Areas
and for self-government is considered (d) None of the above
fundam entally flaw ed by w hich of the
62. Which of the following programmes was
following groups of political theorists?
introduced by the Government in order to
(a) Anarchists (b) Communitarians
ameliorate the conditions of the under-
(c) Neo-liberals (d) Feminists privileged people?
56. Which one of the following Articles about (a) SRDA (b) MFAL
Fundamental Rights is directly related to the (c) DPADP (d) All of these
exploitation of children? 63. Training of Rural Youths for Self-Employment
(a) Art. 17 (b) Art. 19 (TRYSEM) was initiated in the year :
(c) Art. 23 (d) Art. 24 (a) 1976 (b) 1981
57. The Public Account Committee submits its (c) 1979 (d) 1978
report to : 64. The Supreme Court of India enunciated the
(a) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs Doctrine of Basic Structure in the—
(b) The Comptroller and Auditor General (a) Shankari Prasad Case
(c) The President of India (b) Sajjan Singh Case
(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha (c) Golakh Nath Case
58. The first Expert Committee on population, (d) Keshwanand Bharti Case
projections was set up by the planning 65. Which one of the following is a subject of
commission in the year : the Concurrent List?
(a) 1958 (b) 1960 (a) Police
(c) 1959 (d) 1962 (b) Criminal Matters
59. Civic republican view of citizenship supports: (c) Radio and Television
(a) A ctive, responsible and virtuous (d) Foreign Affairs
citizenship 66. Cabinet Mission Came to India in the year—
(b) Self-reliance and criticizes the Welfare (a) 1946 (b) 1945
State (c) 1942 (d) 1940
Obj. Pol. Sc.-28
218 Objective Political Science
67. In 2011 the density of India was : 75. Which of the following programmes is
(a) 110 (b) 70 included under “beneficiary-oriented”
(c) 382 (d) 95 programmes?
68. Which of the following is one of the causes (a) SFDA
of economic inequality? (b) MFAL
(a) Private property (b) Unemployment (c) IRDP
(c) Inflation (d) All of these (d) All of these
69. Which of the following Articles of the 76. “Since wars begin in the minds of men,
Directive Principles in the constitution urges therefore, defences of peace should be built
the state to provide free and compulsory in the mind of men” was stated in the :
education for all the children until they (a) UNESCO Charter
complete 14 years of age? (b) League of Nations Charter
(a) Article 45 (b) Article 38 (c) UNICEF Charter
(c) Article 46 (d) Article 39 (d) Human Rights Charter
70. The population aged ____ years and above 77. If the name of a tribe has to be excluded from
only is to be classified as literate or illiterate. the list of Scheduled Tribes. Who has the
(a) Six (b) Four power for such exclusion?
(c) Seven (d) Eight (a) President
71. The Constitutional Amendment of ____ (b) Parliament
included education in the concurrent list, the (c) Union Council of Ministers
official list of subjects for which the centre (d) National Commission for Scheduled
and the states assume joint responsibility. Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(a) 1972 (b) 1975 78. Which of the following arenas of violence is
(c) 1973 (d) 1976 not found in India?
72. Economic equality may become a possibility (a) Inter-caste
by : (b) Inter-racial
(a) Collection of taxes faithfully (c) Inter-communal
(b) Checking offences like smuggling (d) Inter-linguistic
(c) Bringing out the black money 79. W hich of the follow ing is a cause of
(d) All of the above deforestation?
73. Which of the following is one of the causes (a) Shifting or Jhuming cultivation
of regional imbalances? (b) Overgrazing
(a) Economic backwardness (c) Lumbering
(b) Lack of proper management of industry (d) All of the above
(c) Too much of dependence on agriculture 80. The Integrated conservation Research, a U.S.
(d) All of the above ecological research group has suggested
74. The state of Jammu and Kashmir formally split elaborate programmes for the betterment of
into two Union Territories (UT) on: forests, including :
(a) November 30, 2019 (a) Agroforestry
(b) August 31, 2019 (b) Ethnobotany
(c) December 31, 2019 (c) Natural history-oriented tourism
(d) October 31, 2019 (d) All of the above
Challenges to Indian Democracy 219
81. Which of the following are an example of 89. The right to vote available to Indian Citizens
sociological pollution? under the Constitution is a—
(a) Crimes (b) Communal riots (a) Fundamental Right
(c) Perpetual quarrels (d) All of these (b) Civil Right
82. Who among the following defined political (c) Political Right
crime as a politically motivated law-breaking (d) Political Duty
behaviour by altruistic individuals? 90. What is/are the ground/grounds given in the
(a) Austin Turk (b) Rand Mc Nally Constitution to disqualify a citizen from
(c) William Minor (d) Myron Weiner
exercising his voting rights?
83. Since ____ we have a prevention of corruption (a) Non-residence
Act which defines categories that constitute (b) Unsoundness of mind
culpable corruption. (c) Crime or corrupt or illegal practice
(a) 1947 (b) 1952 (d) All of the above
(c) 1950 (d) 1948
91. Communalism is based on and promotes
84. The Election Commission reported booth- (a) Differences between different castes
capturing in Bihar for the first time during
(b) Similarities between ethnic groups
the :
(c) The idea of an inherent antagonism
(a) Fifth General Elections
between religious communities and
(b) Fourth General Elections
(c) Second General Elections irreconcilability of interests between them
(d) Third General Elections (d) Patronage of propertied classes
85. Which of the following Acts permitted 92. Who made the statement :
company donations to parties? ‘‘Communalism is the Political assertiveness
(a) Industrial Act, 1986 of a Community to maintain its identity in a
(b) Labour Act, 1982 Plural society undergoing modernization’’
(c) Companies (Amendment) Act, 1985 (a) Robert Melson (b) Thomas Hevrdy
(d) Company Act, 1948 (c) Howard Wolpe (d) Both (a) and (c)
86. Who among the following made use of the 93. The famous work ‘Communalism in Modern
Brown-shirts and even of the Gestapo to swell India’ is authored by :
his rank of supporters? (a) Rumki Basu
(a) Hitler (b) Lenin (b) Ashutosh Varshney
(c) Mao (d) Marx (c) Bipan Chandra
87. Who among the following launched the satya (d) None of the above
shodhak movement which tried to organise 94. Communalism is opposed to :
the non-Brahmanical castes, particularly the (a) Secular change
Marathas, as a political force?
(b) Racial conflict
(a) Jyotiba Phule
(c) Amity between classes
(b) Baba Amte
(d) All of the above
(c) B.R. Ambedkar
(d) None of the above 95. Communalism in India was born, nurtured and
88. W hich of the follow ing section of the promoted by :
Representation of People Act puts a limit on (a) Muslim League
election expenses incurred by a candidate? (b) British Imperialism
(a) Section 74 (b) Section 77 (c) Congress politics
(c) Section 71 (d) Section 72 (d) All of the above
220 Objective Political Science
96. British imperialism perceived India as 103. Economically, muslims in India have failed
essentially a conglomeration of : to produce :
(a) Feudal principalities (a) Surplus capital
(b) Religious communities (b) A viable capitalist class
(c) Racial groups (c) Adequate per capita income
(d) Both (a) and (b) (d) Industrial growth
97. What was the most damaging blow which the 104. Regionalism means :
British colonial administration dealt to the (a) Love of a particular region or state in
emerging body politics of India? preference to the country as a whole
(a) Separatism in politics (b) Giving precedence to local issue over
(b) Politicization of religious communities national issues
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) Love of the community in preference to
(d) Ethnic separatism the nation
98. As a political strategy, communalism is (d) Both (a) and (c)
opposed to : 105. M ore than anything else, a region is
(a) Nationalism (b) Regionalism characterised by :
(c) Localism (d) Internationalism (a) Religious commonality
99. Communalism is opposed to : (b) A w idely shared sentim ent of
(a) Rational civic basis of party formations ‘togetherness’ in the people
and political system (c) Ethnic similarity
(b) Secularism as a pattern of socio-cultural (d) Language communion
co-existence 106. W ho am ong the follow ing has held
(c) Humanism and compassion regionalism as an exam ple of micro-
(d) All of the above nationalism?
100. A s a political orientation what does (a) Yogesh Atal (b) Yogendra Yadava
communalism recognise as the focal point of (c) Yogesh Alagh (d) None of the above
political allegiance? 107. A region is characterised by a feeling of
(a) Religious community togetherness in the people which is internalised
(b) Caste group from which of the following sources?
(c) Nation-State (a) Common prosperity
(d) None of the above (b) Comraderie developed in a common
101. Who among the following has analysed the struggle
phenomenon of communalism in the socio- (c) Idea of separateness from others
economic perspective? (d) All of the above
(a) Humayun Kabir 108. Which of the following problems most
(b) Asghar Ali Engineer fostered regionalism in India?
(c) Nissar Ali (a) Social (b) Economic
(d) All of the above (c) Religious (d) Both (a) and (b)
102. During the British period the emergence of 109. The backward parts of India are so because
communalism was centred around : they have been a neglected most in the matter
(a) The question of share in the loaves of of :
offices (a) Education
(b) Provincial administration (b) Setting up of plants and factories
(c) Differences between various caste-groups (c) Allocation of central funds and grants
(d) None of the above (d) Job opportunities
Challenges to Indian Democracy 221
110. ‘Sub-nationalism’ in India is most readily 119. W hich of the follow ing governmental
associated with : programmes are aimed at eradication of
(a) Language (b) Caste poverty?
(c) Region (d) Class (a) Integrated Rural Development Programme
111. The extreme form of regionalism in India is : (b) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana
(a) Lingual chauvinism (c) Employment Assurance Scheme
(b) Sentiment of secession from the union (d) All of the above
(c) Inter-state dispute 120. Which one of the following North-East States
(d) All of the above
was the last to get the status of a full-fledged
112. Who among the following maintained that state?
the people of south India were of a different (a) Mizoram
stock from that of the North? (b) Manipur
(a) M.G. Ramchandran (c) Nagaland
(b) K. Karunanidhi (d) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) C.N. Annadurai
(d) All of the above 121. In the census operations prior to 1991, what
was the minimum age considered in making
113. An unequal society is most prone to :
literacy estimates?
(a) Racial riots (b) Class conflict
(a) 4 years (b) 5 years
(c) Structural violence (d) Both (a) and (b)
(c) 6 years (d) 7 years
114. Shiva Sena w hich raised the slogan of
Maharashtra for Maharashtrian's was founded 122. The powers of Parliament in respect of passage
in : of the Budget are enshrined in the constitution
(a) 1965 (b) 1966 in—
(c) 1967 (d) 1968 (a) Art. 114 (b) Art. 113 & 203
(c) Art. 265 & 267 (d) Art. 112 & 117
115. After Independence, which was the first state
in India created on the linguistic basis— 123. Which one of the following recommended the
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Karnataka abolition of the post of Governor of a state?
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Kerala (a) the Rajamannar Committee
116. Important socio-economic indicators which (b) The Sarkaria Commission
reflect regional imbalance in India include : (c) The First Adm inistrative Reform s
(a) Per Capita Income Commission
(b) Population below poverty line (d) None of these
(c) Regional location of industries 124. Which Article of the Constitution of India
(d) All of the above directs the State to make effective provision
117. How many finance commissions have so far for securing the Right to work?
been appointed? (a) Article 16 (b) Article 38
(a) 10 (b) 16 (c) Article 41 (d) Article 43
(c) 12 (d) 14
125. The 'Rolling Plan' concept in national
118. In India the basic criterion for estimating the planning was introduced by—
number of people below poverty line is : (a) Indira Gandhi (b) Janta Government
(a) A person's nutritional requirements in (c) NDA Government (d) None of these
terms of calories
(b) Per Capita gross domestic product 126. Which among the Indian states occupy top
(c) Human Development Index spots respectively in male literacy and female
(d) All of the above literacy?
222 Objective Political Science
(a) Manipur (b) Goa 134. Who among the following observed that
(c) Kerala (d) Mizoram corruption may help in assimilating new
127. Which among the following is most adversely groups into the system and thus serve as a
impacted by the widespread illiteracy? substitute for reform?
(a) Family planning programme (a) K. Subramaniam
(b) Poverty alleviation programmes (b) Samuel Huntington
(c) Per capita gross domestic product (c) Margaret Thatcher
(d) All of the above (d) None of the above
128. Which of the following is not a regional party 135. Who among the following sees corruption as
of India? reducing the rigidities of bureaucracy and
(a) BJP making it relatively flexible?
(b) DMK (a) Myron Weiner
(c) Telugu Desam (b) Francise Frankel
(d) National Conference (c) W.H. Morris Jones
129. W hich one of the follow ing is not in (d) Morris Janohatz
conformity with liberalism? 136. How many different types of embezzlement
(a) Welfare State like bribery, graft, favouritism etc. are
(b) Bourgeois state identified by Kautilya?
(c) Representative Government (a) Ten (b) Thirteen
(d) Limited Government (c) Thirty (d) Forty
130. The remark—“power corrupts and absolute 137. Which of the following Governor-General of
pow er tends to corrupt absolutely” is India was impeached in Britain for his
attributed to : economic misdemeanours in India?
(a) Plato (b) Lord Acton (a) Lord Clive (b) Warren Hastings
(c) Laski (d) Winston Churchill (c) Lord Cornwallis (d) Wellesly
131. Which among the following Indian states have 138. The institution of Lok Ayukta at state level
the largest number of poor in absolute terms? was first created in :
(a) Bihar (a) Bihar (b) Punjab
(b) Orissa (c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) None of the above 139. The first country to appoint an ombudsman
was :
132. Which one of the following is not the ground (a) Finland (b) Denmark
mentioned in the Constitution to impose (c) Norway (d) Sweden
reasonable restrictions on the right to form
association or unions? 140. Which of the following can be described as
(a) Friendly relations with foreign states characteristic sociological unit of primordial
(b) Public order cohesion peculiar to India?
(c) Morality (a) Community (b) Caste
(d) Sovereignty and integrity of India (c) Ethnic group (d) Tribe
133. Which one of the following preventive 141. Caste system is :
detention Acts is still in force? (a) Hierarchical
(a) NSA (b) Segmentary
(b) TADA (c) Marked by a dichotomy between purity
(c) MISA and pollution
(d) Preventive Detention Act (d) All of the above
Challenges to Indian Democracy 223
142. The Central Administrative Tribunal and State (c) Sarkaria Commission
Administrative Tribunals were set up through (d) M.C. Setalvad Committee
a law passed in : 150. Of the Hindus, Muslims, Christians, Jains,
(a) 1986 (b) 1985 Sikhs, and Buddhists which is the numerically
(c) 1984 (d) 1983 smallest community?
143. Who made the comment that the caste system (a) Sikhs (b) Budhists
is not merely a division of labour, it is a (c) Jains (d) Christians
division of labourers? 151. It can be said that a casteist conceives of India
(a) M.N. Shrinivas basically as a Federation of :
(b) B.R. Ambedkar (a) States
(c) C.N. Annadurai (b) Jatis
(d) None of the above (c) Free and equal citizens
144. The importance attached to the jatis which is (d) Tribes
the dominant caste in a village, region or state 152. The ‘Izhavas’ and ‘velamos’ are socially
is due to : dominant caste groups in :
(a) Their rank in chaturvarnashrama (a) Kerala
(b) Their material wealth and control of land (b) Kerala and Andhra Pradesh respectively
(c) The political patronage they receive (c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) All of the above (d) Andhra Pradesh and Kerala respectively
145. Which of the following caste groups are
153. The Anti-Brahmin movement by the DK and
regarded as the so-called “twice born”?
D MK in Tam il Nadu was basically a
(a) Brahmins (b) Kshatriyas movement against :
(c) Vaishyas (d) All of these (a) Jati (b) Class
146. Which of the following jatis are dominant in (c) Gotra (d) Varna
most of the Uttar Pradesh?
154. The word ombudsman is derived from the root
(a) Thakurs and Jats
‘ombud’ which is swedish and which mean :
(b) Yadavs and Ahirs
(a) Conscience-keeper
(c) Gujjars and Kurmis
(b) A person who acts as a representative of
(d) All of the above
another person
147. Socially dominant castes of Bihar are : (c) Upholder of law and morality
(a) Bhumihars and Kayasthas (d) All of the above
(b) Yadavas and Kurmis
155. In short, political crime can be described as :
(c) Rajputs and Koeris
(a) Crime by politicians
(d) All of the above
(b) Politically m otivated law -breaking
148. A s socially dom inant caste-groups the behaviour by altruistic individuals
Rajputs, K ayasthas and Marwaris are (c) Crime committed in pursuit of politics
Dominant in : (d) Any of the above
(a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) All of the above 156. Caste system, which over the centuries became
a more or less rigid endogamous group,
149. Which among the following recommended presumably originated in :
appointment of a Lokpal at the centre and a (a) Division of labour
Lok Ayukta in every state? (b) Occupational classes
(a) Administrative Reforms Commission (c) Both (a) and (b)
(b) Santhanam Committee (d) None of the above
224 Objective Political Science
170. Which of the following is the distinctive (b) Politically motivated law-breaking
feature of the Indian Party system? behaviour by altruistic individuals
(a) Weakness of non-congress parties (c) Crime committed in pursuit of politics
(b) Lack of the ideological commitment (d) All of the above
(c) Fractions within the parties 174. Match the following—
(d) All of the above List-I List-II
A. Central Vigilance 1. Consitutional
171. Which of the following is the main source of
Commission
income of the Panchayats? B. Lokayukta 2. Resolution of
(a) Grants from government government of India
(b) Taxes on buildings C. Central Bureau 3. Statutory Appeals
(c) Tax on commercial crops of Investigation
(d) All of the above D. High Court 4. Resolution of Home
172. According to which theory, participation Ministry
represents the process by which goals are set Codes :
A B C D
and means are chosen in relation to all sorts
(a) 3 2 1 4
of social issues?
(b) 3 1 2 4
(a) Socialist theory (c) 2 3 4 1
(b) Marxist theory (d) 1 4 2 3
(c) Democratic theory
175. The institution of Lokayukt was created for
(d) None of the above
the first time in 1971 in the state of—
173. In short, political crime can be described as— (a) Orissa (b) Bihar
(a) Crime by Politicians (c) Karnataka (d) Maharashtra
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(d) (b) (a) (c) (d) (a) (c) (d) (a) (c)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(b) (a) (b) (a) (d) (a) (b) (a) (d) (d)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(b) (d) (d) (c) (d) (c) (d) (c) (b) (a)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(d) (a) (d) (a) (c) (c) (d) (d) (d) (a)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(a) (c) (c) (d) (a) (a) (c) (c) (d) (b)
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(a) (b) (d) (a) (a) (d) (d) (a) (a) (c)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
(a) (d) (c) (d) (b) (a) (c) (d) (a) (c)
Obj. Pol. Sc.-29
226 v Objective Political Science
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
(d) (d) (d) (d) (d) (a) (b) (b) (d) (d)
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(d) (c) (a) (a) (c) (a) (a) (b) (c) (d)
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
(c) (d) (c) (a) (b) (d) (c) (a) (b) (a)
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
(b) (a) (b) (a) (b) (a) (d) (d) (c) (a)
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
(b) (c) (c) (b) (c) (d) (d) (a) (d) (d)
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
(b) (d) (a) (c) (b) (c) (a) (a) (b) (b)
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
(c) (a) (a) (a) (a) (d) (b) (c) (d) (b)
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
(d) (b) (b) (b) (d) (d) (b) (a) (a) (c)
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
(b) (b) (d) (b) (b) (c) (d) (c) (d) (d)
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
(a) (b) (a) (d) (b) (b) (c) (c) (b) (d)
171 172 173 174 175
(d) (c) (b) (c) (d)
Challenges to Indian Democracy v 227
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228 v Objective Political Science
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