PPL – AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

1. Which statement is true about magnetic deviation of a compass? Deviation

Answer: Varies for different headings of the same aircraft.

2. Maximum structural cruising speed is the maximum speed at which an airplane can be
operated during
Answer: Normal operations.

3. Why should flight speeds above Vne be avoided?

Answer: Design limit load factors may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered.

4. Which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify by the color coding of an airspeed
indicator?
Answer: The maneuvering speed.

5. Calibrated airspeed is best described as indicated airspeed corrected for

Answer: Installation and instrument error.

6. True airspeed is best described as calibrated airspeed corrected for

Answer: Altitude and non-standard temperature.

7. What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum system for
other gyroscopic instruments?
Answer: It is a backup in case of vacuum system failure.

8. What is an operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turn-and-slip
indicators? The turn coordinator:
Answer: Indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination; the turn-and-slip indicator rate of
turn and coordination.

9. Unless adjusted, the fuel/air mixture becomes richer with an increase in altitude because the
amount of fuel
Answer: Remains constant while the density of air decreases.

10. Fouling of spark plugs is more apt to occur if the aircraft

Answer: Gains altitude with no mixture adjustment.

11. The pilot controls the air/fuel ratio with the:

Answer: Mixture control.

12. Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the:

Answer: Weight of fuel and weight of air entering the cylinder.

13. The best power mixture is the fuel/air ratio at which

Answer: The most power can be obtained for any given throttle setting.

14. The mixture control can be adjusted, which

Answer: Prevents the fuel/air combination from becoming too rich at higher altitudes.

15. What effect, if any, would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas turbine
engine performance?
Answer: As temperature increases, thrust decreases.

16. Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburetor heat?
Answer: It enriches the fuel/air mixture.

17. Applying carburettor heat will

Answer: Enrich the fuel/air mixture.

18. Leaving the carburettor heat on during takeoff

 Answer: Will increase the ground roll.

19. Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when

Answer: The unburned fuel/air change in the cylinders is subjected to instantaneous
combustion.

20. Detonation can be caused by:

Answer: Using a lower grade of fuel than recommended.

21. The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known
as:
Answer: Pre-ignition.

22. Detonation may occur at high-power settings when:

Answer: The fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.

23. Before shutdown, while at idle, the ignition key is momentarily turned OFF. The engine
continues to run with no interruption; this
Answer: Should not normally happen. Indicates a magneto not grounding in OFF position.

24. A way to detect a broken magneto primary grounding lead is to

Answer: Idle the engine and momentarily turn the ignition off.

25. The most probable reason an engine continues to run after the ignition switch has been turned
off is:
Answer: A broken magneto ground wire.

26. A detuning of engine crankshaft counterweights is a source of overstress that may be caused
by:
Answer: Rapid opening and closing of the throttle.

27. If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the
engine
Answer: Could accidentally start if the propeller is moved with fuel in the cylinder.

28. For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on:
Answer: The circulation of lubricating oil.

29. An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by:
Answer: The oil level being too low.

30. Frequent inspections should be made of aircraft exhaust manifold-type heating systems to
minimize the possibility of:
Answer: Exhaust gases leaking into the cockpit.

31. Where may an aircraft operating limitation be found

Answer: In the current FAA approved flight manual, approved manual, approved manual material
marking and placards or any combination there therefore.

32. Excessively high engine temperature will

Answer: Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption and possible permanent internal
engine damage.

33. The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to

Answer: Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.

34. What type of fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available
Answer: The next higher aviation gas.

35. Filling the fuel tank after the last flight of the day is considered a good operation procedure
because this will
Answer: Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
36. What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb
Answer: Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.

37. How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller
Answer: The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and
the propeller control regulate engine RPM.

38. What is an advantage of constant speed (air) propeller

Answer: Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.

39. A precaution for the operation if an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller is to
Answer: Avoid high manifold pressure setting with low RPM.

40. What should be the first action after starting the aircraft engine
Answer: Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indication on the engine gauges.

41. Excessively high temperature, either in the air or on the ground will
Answer: Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption and possible permanent internal
engine damage.

42. If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged which instruments would be affected
Answer: The Airspeed Indicator, Altimeter, Attitude Indicator and Vertical Speed Indicator.

43. What does the red line on the Air speed indicator represents
Answer: Never exceed speed

44. What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators
Answer: Maneuvering Speed – 104

45. The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is
Answer: Magnetic Variation

46. When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium
Answer: During un-accelerated flight.

47. The term “Angle of attack” is defined as the angle

Answer: Between the wing chord line and the relative wind.

48. One of the main function of flaps during approach and landing is to
Answer: Increase the angle of decent without increasing the airspeed.

49. What is one purpose of wing flaps

Answer: To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the
airspeed

50. The “Angle of attack” at which an airplane wings stall will

Answer: Remain the same regardless of gross weight.

51. The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the
Answer: Angle of attack.

52. An airplane said to be inherently stable will

Answer: Requires less effort to control.

53. What causes an airplane (Except a t-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced are not
adjusted
Answer: The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and
elevators effectiveness is reduced.

54. What does P-factor causes the airplane to “Yaw” to the left
Answer: With a high angle of attack
55. Prior to starting each maneuvering pilot should
Answer: Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance

56. When activated an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmitter ON

Answer: 121.5 – 243.o mhz

57. When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged if
the battery is rechargeable
Answer: After one half the battery is useful life

58. When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested

Answer: During the first 5 minutes after the hour.

59. Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has
not been activated
Answer: Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown.

60. When must a pilot who deviated from a regulation during an emergency send a written report
of that deviation of the administer
Answer: Upon request

61. Who is the responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight
Answer: The Pilot in Command

62. What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane

Answer: The location of the CG with respect to the centre of lift.