MINE PLANNING AND DESIGN

1. Determine the daily and yearly production rate in a room and pillar coal mine using
conventional equipment under the following conditions:

Working place ...............6 x 18 ft

Working time..................7 hr/shift, 2 days/shift, 250 days/year
Working sections............14
Advance per cut..............10 ft
Cuts per shift...................12
Tonnage factor (tf)................24 ft3/ton

Solution:

Volume mined/cut V = 6 x 18 x 10 =1080 ft3

Weight/cut W = V/tf = 1080/24 = 45 tons
Section production = 45 x 12 x 2 = 1080 tons/day
Mine production = 1080 x14 x 250 =3.78 M tons/year
2. The volume of production at which total revenue equals the total cost.
a. Break-even stripping ratio; b. Break-even volume; c. Tonnage factor;
d. Overall stripping ratio.
3. The freeing or detaching of large masses of rock from its parent deposit.
a. Rock fragmentation; b. Earthmoving; c. Rock breakage; d. Material han-
dling.
4. The activity, occupation, and industry concerned with the extraction of minerals.
a. Mining; b. Metallurgical engineering; c. Geotechnical engineering;
d. Mineral Resource Engineering.
5. The sequence of unit operations used to accomplish mine development or exploitation.
a. Cycle of operation; b. Mining sequence; c. Mining plan; d. Development
plan.
6. Employed to accomplish rock penetration particularly in percussive drilling.
a. Bit rock cutting; b. Dynamic loading; c. Cyclic loading; d. Abrasion.
7. The process of forming a direct hole or kerf on a rock surface, usually mechanically,
but sometimes hydraulically or thermally.
a. Rock cutting; b. Fragmentation; c. Rock penetration; d. Cyclic loading.
8. The second level in engineering evaluation in which the various operational concepts
are quantified and compared, resulting in firm designs and costs.
a. Engineering study; b. Detailed design study;
c. Conceptual study; d. Long-term plan.
9. Method used for ore reserve estimation that involves the application of mathematics of
random functions to the reconnaissance of mineral deposits.
a. Krigging; b. Geostatistics;
c. inverse distance method; d. Volume of influence method.
10. Employed in non-coring exploration in shallow holes in soft to medium-hard ground,
either rock or soil.
a. Diamond drilling; b. Rotary drilling;
 c. Percussion drilling; d. Auger drilling.
11. They resemble open pits but the benches are lower and nearly vertical.
a. Faces; b. Strips; c. Quarries; d. Breasts
12. All unit operations involved in excavating or moving bulk minerals during mining.
a. Materials handling; b. Loading; c. Hauling; d. Hoisting.
13. The concept of replacing the intermittent operations of rock breakage and material
handling in mining with a system of continuous extraction.
a. Automation; b. Rapid excavation; c. Novel method; d. Robotics.

ECOLOGY/ENVIRONMENTAL
1. A law creating the environmental impact statement system of the Philippines.
a. P. D. 1899, b. R. A. 8558, c. P. D. 1586, d. P. D. 7942.
2. It is a 25-year program which provides an operational link between the envi-
ronmental protection and enhancement commitments, under the implementing
rules and regulations of the Philippine Mining Act, as the issued environmental
compliance certificate under P. D. 1586. a. EWP, b. ECC, c.
AEPEP, d. EPEP.
3. It is the policy of the State to assure the availability, sustainability and equi-
table distribution of the country’s natural resources through technically, finan-
cially, socially, culturally and environmentally responsible manner towards the
generation of the wealth creation without sacrificing the needs and demands of
tomorrow’s generation. a. Sustainable development, b. Pro-People, c.
Pro-God, d. Responsible mining.
4. It is a yearly program submitted at the start of each year which provides an
operational link between the environmental protection and enhancement com-
mitments under the implementing rules and regulations of P. D. 1586. a.
EWP, b. ECC, c. AEPEP, d. annual environmental management
plan.
5. The government official authorized to suspend mining/quarrying operations in
case of imminent danger to the environment, public, property and health. a.
DENR Secretary, b. President, c. Undersecretary, d. MGB Regional Di-
rector.
6. It is mine organization provided under P. D. 7942 that will marshal the corpo-
rate resources needed to implement the environmental management programs
of the company. a. Safety office, b. Mine rescue team, c. CLRF, d.
mine environmental protection and enhancement office.
7. The line bureau of the DENR who is responsible for implementing laws, rules,
regulations and policies on the mineral resources management and develop-
ment. a. EMB, b. Bureau of Soils, c. Mines and Geosciences Bureau,
d. Bureau of Lands.
8. The cash fund needed by the contractor in mine rehabilitation. a.
P5,000,000; b. Over P5,000,000; c. 10% of its annual gross earning;
d. 5% of annual net income.
9. It is a stage in the environmental impact statement system where information
and assessment requirements are established to provide the proponent with
the scope of work of the environmental impact statement. a. Research; b.
Feasibility; c. Scoping; d. Review.
10. The document required of proponents describing the environmental impacts
of mitigation and enhancement measures for projects or undertakings located
in an environmentally critical area. a. EWP; b. EIS; c. initial
environmental examination; d. multipartite monitoring team.
11. It is the exposure of public health or the environment to toxic substances,
hazardous or organic wastes, extraction to natural resources, or activities or
structures that could endanger life, health, property, or the environment. a.
Public risk; b. Public hazard; c. Critical area; d. Health problem.
12. These are persons or entities who may be significantly affected by the
projects or undertakings such as, but not limited to members of the local com-
munity, industry, LGU, NGO and PO. a. Permittee; b. Contractor;
c. Proponent; d. Stakeholders.
13. The monitoring trust fund to be maintained should be a. P50,000,000;
b. P5,000,000; c. P25,000,000; d. P50,000.
14. The staff bureau of the DENR who is responsible for implementing laws,
rules, regulations and policies on the environment. a. LMB; b. MGB; c.
EMB; d. FMB.
15. It is the body created by the Mines and Geosciences Bureau Regional Office
that administers the mine rehabilitation fund. A. Multipartite Monitoring
Team; b. Mine Rehabilitation Fund Committee; c. Panel of Arbitrators; d.
CLRF Committee
 MINE VENTILATION
MINE SAFETY

1. Produces pressure by imparting a tangential acceleration to air as it proceeds through

the fan impeller.
a. Centrifugal fan; b. Axial flow fan; c. Auxiliary fan; d. Exhaust fan.
2. It is also called back ‘pressure results’ from the inside of the vent tube or drift not be-
ing perfectly smooth, the air cannot move along the tube or drift as fast as the fun
would like to blow more air into the airway thus producing friction.
a. Velocity head; b. Static head; c. Load of a fan; d. Fixed pitch.
3. It is a vertical or horizontal opening to the surface where air enters and circulate inside
the mine with the aid of different fans.
a. Downcast; b. Exhaust; c. Inlet; d. Intake.
4. A type of anemometer suitable for measuring very high velocities than special
anemometers.
a. Vane anemometer; b. Velometer; c. Pilot tube apparatus; d. Indicating
anemometer.
5. An underground mine gas also called Stink Damp. It comes from the decomposition of
sulfide compounds.
a. Hydrogen; b. Carbon dioxide; c. Sulfur dioxide; d. Hydrogen sulfide.
6. The practice of removing the gas contained in a coal seam and adjoining strata through
wellbores, drillholes, and pipelines.
a. Methane drainage; b. Acid mine drainage;
c. Well production; d. borehole extraction.
7. The mixture of gases which remains in a mine after a mine fire or an explosion of fire
damp or coal dust.
a. Fire damp; b. Stink damp; c. Black damp; d. After damp.
8. A term applied to carbon monoxide, or atmosphere containing lethal quantities of car-
bon monoxide.
a. Stink damp; b. Fire damp; c. White damp; d. After damp.
9. A qualified mine safety engineer in a certain mining company should be a. a
safety inspector; b. a licensed geologist; c. a licensed metallurgical engineer
with two years experience in safety works; d. licensed mining engineer with
one year experience in mining operation.
10. Class “A” underground mine has at least a. 125; b. 150; c. 200; d.
250 workers.
11. Which mine has the most number of workers? a. Class A; b. Class B;
c. Class C; d. Class D.
12. The ideal number of members of a mine rescue team. a. 3; b. 5; c. 9;
d. 10.
13. The required number of safety engineers in a Class A mine. a. one full-
time; b. two full-time; c. at least two; d. three.;
14. The deputized safety inspector should have a. one year experience in
safety works; b. three years experience underground; c. five years
experience in safety works; d. at least ten years of service in the company.
15. Persons to work in an underground mine should be at an age not lower than:
a. 16; b. 18; c. 20; d. 21.
16. A Class “A” surface mine should have at least a. 150 workers; b. 200
workers; c. 250 workers; d. 300 workers.
17. A Class “B” mine requires a. at least one par-time safety engineer; b.
one full-time safety engineer; c. one part-time and one full-time safety engi-
neers; d. one full-time and one part-time safety engineers.
18. The temporary safety inspector should renew its temporary license every
a. quarter ; b. year; c. two years; d. three years.

MINING LAW

1. Mineral processing permit shall be issued by the

a. MGB Director; b. Mines Regional Director; c. DENR Secretary; d.
CENRO.
2. The maximum area under industrial sand and gravel permit, granted by the PMCRB
which a qualified person may hold at one time is
 a. 3 has b. 5 has c. 7 has d. 10 has.
3. The doctrine states that all minerals belong to the state.
a. Rizalian; b. Regalian; c. Fernandez; d. Proletarian.
4. All submerged lands in the exclusive economic zone of the Philippines are declared as
a. Marine Reservations; b. Offshore Reservations; c. Mineral Reservations;
d. Aquatic Reservations.
5. The primary government agency responsible for the conservation, management, devel-
opment and proper use of the country’s mineral resources.
a. Mines and Geosciences Bureau; b. Dept. of Mineral Resources; c. Dept.
of Energy; d. Dept. Of Environment and Natural Resources.
6. One example of Mineral Agreement is the
a. Financial or Technical Assistance Agreement; b. Mining Lease Contract;
c. Mineral Production Sharing Agreement; d. Quarry Permit.
7. All proposed Mineral Agreements shall be filed in
a. The region where the subject areas are located; b. The Mines and Geo-
sciences Bureau Central Office; c. the district office of the Mines and Geo-
sciences Bureau; d. DENR Central Office.
8. A proposed Mineral Agreement is approved by the
a. Mines and Geosciences Bureau Director; b. Mines and Geosciences Bu-
reau Regional Director; c. DENR Secretary; d. President.
9. Mineral Agreement shall have a term of
a. 5 years; b. 20 years; c. 25 years; d. 50 years, renewable for another term.
10. The New Mining Act, R.A. 7942, states that small-scale mining shall continue to be
governed by
a. R.A, 7160; b. R.A. 6076; c. R. A. 7076; d. P. D. 1899, and other perti-
nent laws.
11. Any qualified person may apply for a Quarry Permit to the
a. Mines and Geosciences Bureau Director; b. DENR Secretary; c. Provin-
cial Governor; d. Provincial/City Mining Regulatory Board.
12. A quarry permit is granted by the
a. Mines and Geosciences Bureau Director; b. DENR Secretary; c. Provin-
cial Governor; d. Provincial/City Mining Regulatory Board.
13. To extract sand and gravel, quarry or loose unconsolidated materials in pursuit of its
projects, any government entity may be granted a
a. Gratuitous Permit; b. Quarry Permit; c. Sand and Gravel Permit; d.
Commercial Permit.
14. No person shall engage in the processing of minerals without first securing a
a. Milling Permit; b. Mineral Agreement; c. Minerals Processing Permit; d.
Ore Dressing Permit.
15. No person under a. 16; b. 18; c. 20; d. 21 years of age shall be employed in any
phase of mining operations.
16. Except during exploration, mining operations are required to be covered by environ-
mental clearance certificates (ECC) based largely on
 a. Initial Environmental Examination; b. Project Description; c. Environ-
mental Impact System; d. Environmental Impact Assessment.
17. Hearing and deciding on cases involving mining disputes shall be the responsibility of
the a. Panel of Arbitrators; b. Regional Trial Court; c. Legal Division of the Mines
and Geosciences Bureau; d. Supreme Court.
18. The total share in a mineral production sharing agreement (MPSA) shall be the
a. Income Tax; b. Royalty; c. Excise Tax; d. Ad valorem tax on mineral
products.
19. In allocating occupation fees collected from mining contractors, a. 30%; b. 40%;
c. 50%; d. 60% goes to the province while the balance goes to the munici-
pality concerned.
20. Of the investment guarantees provided in the New Mining Act, a. Repatriation of in-
vestments; b. Remittance of earnings; c. Freedom from expropriation; d. Full tax
exemption; is not included.
21. The New Mining Act was passed by the a. Eighth; b. Ninth; c. Tenth; d. Eleventh
Congress in 1995.
22. The mining law that immediately preceded the New Mining Act was a. Executive
Order No. 279; b. R.A. No. 7076; c. P. D. No. 463; d. R.A. No. 7160.
23. a. R. A. 4274; b. R. A. No. 7942; c. R. A. 7160; d. P. D. 463 is referred to as the
Mining Engineering Law of the Philippines.
24. At least one registered mining engineer and one registered foreman are required for an
entire operation employing a. 25 to 50; b. 51 to 100; c. 101 to 150; d. 151 to 200
persons directly engaged in mining and/or quarrying.
25. The a. Small-scale mining permit; b. Small-scale mining license; c. Small-scale
mining contract; d. Small-scale mining agreement refers to co-production, joint
venture or mineral production sharing agreement between the State and a small-scale
mining contractor for the small-scale utilization of a plot of mineral land.
26. One of these persons is not a member of the Provincial Mining Regulatory Board:
a. Small-scale mining representative; b. Big-scale mining representative; c.
Provincial Governor’s representative; d. Mines and Geosciences Bureau Di-
rector.
27. The People’s Small-scale Mining Protection Fund shall be a. 10%; b. 12%;
c. 15%; d. 20% of the national government share of the internal revenue
tax or production share due the Government.
28. Under the Local Government Code, small-scale mining shall be within the regulatory
functions of the a. DENR Secretary; b. Provincial Governor; c. Mines and Geo-
sciences Bureau Director; d. Municipal Mayor.
29. Under the “People’s Small-Scale Mining Act of 1991” the extent of a small-scale min-
ing area that may be awarded to the qualified applicant shall not exceed
a. 5 has; b. 81 has; c. 20 has; d. 10 has.
30. One form of mineral agreement between the Government and the Contractor wherein
the Government shall provide inputs to the mining operations other than the mineral
resource is the a. Co-production Agreement; b. Joint Venture Agreement; c. Min-
eral Production Sharing Agreement; d. Mining Lease Contract.
31. A Financial or Technical Assistance Agreement is negotiated by the DENR and ap-
proved by the a. Congress of the Philippines; b. DENR Secretary; c. President;
d. Mines and Geosciences Bureau Director.
32. The Siruma White Clay Mineral Reservation is situated in a. Ilocos Sur; b. Ca-
marines Sur; c. Surigao del Norte; d. Eastern Samar.
33. It refers to an area bounded by one-half (1/2) minute of latitude and one-half (1/2)
minute of longitude, containing approximately eighty-one hectares (81 has.).
a. Contract area; b. Ancestral land; c. Public land; d. Meridional block.
34. It refers to the water, sea bottom and subsurface measured from the baseline of the
Philippine archipelago up to two hundred (200) nautical miles offshore.
a. Contiguous zone; b. Offshore area;
c. Exclusive economic zone; d. Continental shelf.
35. The landward side of the mean low tide level including submerged lands in
lakes, rivers and creeks. a. onshore; b. offshore; c. coast; d. sea front.
36. It is an area closed to mining application a. military zone; b. mineralized
area; c. forest land; d. land covered by an expired mining permit.
37. An area where mineral resources are found. a. forest land; b. mineral
land; c. tailings pond; d. agricultural land.
38. An Act reducing the retirement age of underground mine workers. a. R. A.
7076; b. R. A. 1899; c. R. A. 8558; d. R. A. 7942.
39. It is an instrument issued by the Mines and Geosciences Bureau for the con-
duct of exploration with a term of two years, renewable for like period but not
to exceed six years. a. gratuitous permit; b. guano permit; c. quarry
permit; d. exploration permit.
40. An exploration permit within mineral reservation is approved and issued by
the a. President; b. DENR Secretary; c. Undersecretary; d.
MGB Director.
41. Which of the following does not belong to the group? a. Joint Venture; b.
Co-production Agreement; c. Mineral Agreement; d. Exploration Permit.
42. The mineral processing should be prepared and signed by a: a. metallurgi-
cal engineer; b. mining engineer; c. chemical engineer; d. geologist.
43. It is a permit issued for the extraction, removal and disposition of sand and
gravel and other loose or unconsolidated materials covering an area of not
more than 5 hectares for a term of 5 years, renewable for like periods up to 25
years. a. industrial sand and gravel permit; b. quarry permit; c. guano per-
mit; d. small-scale mining permit.
44. It is a permit issued for the extraction, removal and disposition of sand and
gravel and other loose or unconsolidated materials covering an area of not
more than for a non-renewable period of 60 days. a. industrial sand and
gravel permit; b. quarry permit; c. guano permit; d. exclusive sand and
gravel permit.
45. It is a permit issued for the extraction, removal and disposition of sand and
gravel and other loose or unconsolidated materials covering an area of not
more than 5 hectares for a term of 1 year, renewable for like periods. a. in-
 dustrial sand and gravel permit; b. quarry permit; c. commercial sand and
gravel permit; d. exclusive sand and gravel permit.
46. It is an instrument issued for the extraction, removal and disposition of sand
and gravel and other loose or unconsolidated materials for public infrastructure
projects covering an area of not more than 2 hectares with a term not to ex-
ceed 1 year. a. government gratuitous permit; b. government permit; c.
special permit; d. exclusive sand and gravel permit.
47. Private gratuitous permit is only good for a. 30 days; b. 60 days; c. 1
year; d. 2 years.
48. It is an instrument issued for the extraction, removal, disposition and / or uti-
lization of loose unconsolidated bat / bird excreta and other organic fertilizer
deposits in specific caves and / or confined sites for a term of 1 year with area
of not more than 5 hectares a. mineral processing permit; b. guano permit;
c. gratuitous permit; d. quarry permit.
49. A gratuitous permit should extract not more than a. 200 kg; b. 500
kg; c. 1,000 kg; d. 2,000 kg.
50. It is an instrument issued for the processing of minerals with a term of 5 years
renewable for like periods up to 25 years. a. milling permit; b. mineral pro-
cessing permit; c. ore transport permit; d. beneficiation permit.
51. It is an authority issued for the transport and / or shipment of minerals and / or
mineral products. a. hauling permit; b. shipment permit; c. con-
veyance permit; d. ore transport permit.
52. The FTAA is applied to a. all minerals; b. metallic minerals only; c.
all minerals except energy minerals; d. non-metallic minerals.
53. The rate at which excise tax is levied on gold and chromite. a. 1%; b.
2%; c. 3%; d. 6%.
54. The occupation fee per hectare or a fraction thereof per year for mineral
agreements and FTAA outside mineral reservations. a. P10; b. P30;
c. P50; d. P100.
55. The law otherwise known as the “Indigenous Peoples Rights Act”.
a. R. A. 8371; b. R. A. 7076; c. R. A. 7942; d. R. A. 8558.
 MINING METHODS

1. A method for surface highwall or outcrop recovery of coal by boring or excavating

opening into the seam beneath the overburden.
a. Open cast; b. Auger method; c. Dredging; d. Hydraulicking.
2. The underwater excavation of a placer deposit, usually carried out from a floating ves-
sel which may incorporate processing and waste disposal facilities.
a. Leaching; b. Hydraulicking; c. Dredging; d. Quarrying.
3. The loading point beneath a stope using gravity to move bulk material downward and
into a conveyance, by a chute or loading machine.
a. Drawpoint; b. Transfer point; c. Chute point; d. Tram point.
4. It is the working face of an opening.
a. Breast; b. Inby; c. Outby; d. Front.
5. The broken, caved and mined-out portion of the deposit.
a. Gob; b. Fragments; c. Gangue; d. Muck.
6. Portion of a deposit overlying an excavation and left in place.
a. Rib pillar; b. Sill pillar; c. Crown pillar; d. Face
7. The country rock boundary adjacent to a deposit.

a. Rock mass; b. Wall rock; c. Host rock; d. Alteration.

8. It is a funnel-shaped excavation formed at the top of a raise to move bulk material by
gravity from a stope to a drawpoint.
a. Bell; b. Trench; c. Collar; d. Ditch.
9. A narrow, vertical or inclined opening excavated in a deposit at the end of a stope to
provide a bench face.
a. Slot; b. Raise; c. Chute; d. Drawpoint.
10. The term applied to the timbering or the concrete around the mouth or top of a shaft.
a. Crib; b. Collar; c. Timber mat; d. Spiling.
11. Sometimes referred to as open cut mining. It can be employed in any mineral deposit
of any rock type lying near or on the surface.
a. Open pit mining; b. Dredging; c. Glory hole mining; d. Placer mining.
12. Type of mining in which large quantities of water under pressure directed through
pipes and nozzles (giants) are utilized to disintegrate the deposit.
a. Sluicing; b. Dredging; c. Hydraulic mining; d. Placer mining.
13. A surface or near-surface deposit, usually tabular and may be of considerable areal ex-
tent, containing mineral particles in detritus.
a. Detrital deposit; b. Lenticular deposit; c. Tabular deposit; d. Massive.
14. Near-surface generally implies depths of ___________.
a. < 500 ft; b. > 500 - < 1000 ft; c. < 200 ft; d. > 300 ft
15. Basically a continuous large-volume digging machine attached to a gravity concentrat-
ing facility (jigs, etc.) with waste removal systems, contained on a floating platform.
a. Bucket-wheel excavator; b. Scraper; c. Dragline; d. Dredge.
16. Open pit excavation from which ore is removed by gravity through a raise or raises
connecting to underground haulageways.
a. Placer mining; b. Strip mining; c. Glory hole; d. Sluicing.
17. It is the oldest method of mining both coal and most metallic ores.
a. Longwall mining; b. Room-and-pillar; c. Sublevel caving; d. Block caving
18. It is the process wherein large quantities of hot water are introduced through wells
drilled into buried deposit of native sulfur.
a. Frasch process; b. In-situ leaching; c. Acid-leaching; d. Cyanidation.
19. A method for mining free gold deposits in river beds.
a. Quarrying; b. Square set; c. Glory hole; d. Dredging;
20. A surface mining method where the overburden is stripped first and dumped at the
same time. Then the orebody is mined, horizontally in a single bench.
a. Multiple bench; b. Strip mining; c. Dredging; d. Glory hole.
21. The method suits coal deposits that are flat and tabular with dips not to exceed 12”.
The coal seams are mined by creating rooms and leaving pillars in a regular pattern.
a. Longwall; b. Sublevel stoping; c. Block caving; d. Room and pillar.
22. A method for mining weak veins and uses a great deal of timbers. The whole width of
the vein is mined in horizontal slices starting from the top. The timber sets are blasted
down after each slice is completed before the next slice is started.
a. Sublevel stope; b. Sublevel caving; c. Top slicing; d. Square set.
23. It is a timbered stope but classified as a self-supporting opening because the timbers
are not used as support but to provide working platforms for miners. The method is ap-
plicable to very narrow veins so that the timbers to be used are normally 5 – 6 ft.
a. Longwall mining; b. Square set; c. Stull stope; d. Top slicing.
24. A method of caving that utilizes the weight of an ore column that is being caved to
crush itself into sizes small enough to pass through draw points that have been pre-
pared beforehand.
a. Sublevel caving; b. Top slicing; c. Longwall mining; d. Block caving.
25. A horizontal opening in or near an ore body and parallel to the course of the vein or
long dimension of the ore body.
 a. Cross-cut; b. Shaft; c. Winze; d. Drift.
26. A horizontal or near-horizontal underground passage that is open to the atmosphere at
both ends.
a. Tunnel; b. Adit; c. Drift; d. Crosscut.

BLASTING & EXPLOSIVES

1. A charge of explosive placed within the main charge of blasting agent or insensitive
explosive to initiate detonation.
a. Blasting cap; b. Initiating device; c. Detonating cord; d. Primer.
2. In straight dynamite, the term “straight” means that the
a. dynamite contains no ammonium nitrate;
b. dynamite contains no nitroglycerin;
c. dynamite can be detonated without primer;
d. dynamite has a detonation velocity of 25,000 fps.
3. It is the percentage of nitroglycerin in the straight nitroglycerin dynamite that produces
the same deflection on the ballistic mortar as an equal weight of explosive.
a. Weight strength; b. Grade strength; b. Detonation velocity; d. Density.
4. Explosives designed for underground coal mines where the presence of explosive
gases presents an abnormal blasting hazard.
a. Liquid oxygen explosives; b. Low density explosives; c. Permissible ex-
plosives; d. Dry blasting agents.
5. It deflagrates (rapid burning) without production of an intense shock wave. It can be
set off by flame.
a. High explosive; b. Low explosive; c. Nitostarch; d. Blasting gelatin.
6. It is defined as an explosive susceptibility to initiation.
a. Water resistance; b. Blasting agent; c. Sensitivity; d. Sensitiveness.
7. Inert materials placed after the explosive charge used to confine explosive energy.
a. Drill cuttings; b. Stemming; c. Clay; d. Sand.
8. The rock that is broken by blasting outside the intended area.
a. Back break; b. Under break; c. Muck; d. Heap.
9. A quarry blasting method wherein succession of charges are fired in a borehole to
open a chamber.
a. Chambering; b. Krigging; c. Coyote blasting; d. Ditching.
10. A method of loading blastholes in which the explosive charge is separated by stem-
ming or air cushion.
a. Bulk loading; b. Deck loading; c. Column loading; d. Normal loading.
11. A wall rock, usually vertical, either naturally formed or formed by blasting.
a. Plane; b. Cliff; c. Escarpment; d. Face.
12. Rock that is thrown an excessive distance from the blast site.
a. Muck; b. Throw; c. Fly rock; d. Heave.
13. Method of blasting in coal mines where hollow cylinders are charged with liquid CO2
under a pressure of 2000 lbs/in2.
a. Airdox; b. Hercudet; c. Cardox; d. Nonel.
14. The cheapest explosive next to ANFO.
a. Straight dynamite; b. Slurry; c. Permissible; d. Gelatin.

MINE ECONOMICS

1. These mine assets are considered valuable when they are able to produce and process
the ore to a marketable/salable form.
a. Land; b. Working capital; c. Power; d. Plant and equipment.
2. An assay ton is a. 20 gr b. 29.199 gr c. 26.93 gr d. 30 gr.
3. A 12-karat gold is a a. 50% Au; b. 60% Au; c. 70% Au; d. 80% Au.
4. Voids/pore spaces within a material expressed as a percentage of the total volume of
material is called: a. Porosity; b. Moisture; c. voids ratio; d. Specific gravity.
5. Mineral that has sufficient utility and value that can be extracted at a profit.
a. Gangue; b. Ore; c. Resource; d. Deposit.
6. The type of sampling where each part of the whole mass has an equal chance of being
included in the sample.
a. Probability sampling; b. True sampling; c. Grab sampling; d. Channel
sampling.
7. It is the money paid for the use of borrowed capital or money gained from the use of
loaned capital or money.
a. Interest; b. Financial charge; c. Capital outlay; d. return on investment.
8. It is a series of uniform payment occurring or payable at the end of each period (usu-
ally annually).
a. Installment; b. Simple interest; c. Annuity; d. Sinking fund.
9. The ratio of earnings from an investment to amount invested for a specified period.
a. Equity ratio; b. Interest ratio; c. Current ratio; d. Quick ratio.
10. The rate of interest which deducts all the earnings of a future sum to time.
a. Internal rate of interest; b. Discount rate; c. Rate of investment;
d. Simple interest.
11. The accounting process of converting the cost of an asset into an expense account or
cost over its estimated life.
 a. Salvage value estimation; b. Depreciation; c. Depletion; d. acquisition
cost distribution.
12. The sum of money that is invested today that would be equivalent to a future sum.
a. Profit; b. Sinking fund; c. Present value; d. Annuity.
13. The cost which is dependent upon the output or volume of production.
a. Capital cost; b. Operating cost; c. Direct cost; d. Indirect cost.
14. The worth of an asset at the end of its economic life.
a. Salvage value; b. Depreciated value; c. Par value; d. Face value.
15. The volume of production at which total revenue equals the total cost.
a. Break-even stripping ratio; b. Cost-volume limit; c. Break-even volume;
d. critical volume.
16. The present value will always be __________ the future value.
a. ; b. ; c. ; d. .
17. The compensation of an exhaustible natural resource to produce products or services.
a. Depreciation; b. Depletion; c. Exploration cost; d. Exhaustion.
18. Investment cost that is written off for the purpose by way of depreciation, depletion or
amortization over a period of time.
a. Operating cost; b. Cash cost; c. Non-cash cost; d. capitalized cost.
19. It refers to the money necessary to operate a business on a day-to-day basis and in-
cludes raw material inventory accounts receivable and ready cash.
a. Current assets; b. Capital investment; c. Capital outlay;
d. Working capital.
20. The effect of porosity in the ore.
a. Decrease in volume without any addition in weight;
b. Decrease in volume with increase in weight;
c. Increase in volume without any addition in weight;
d. Increase in volume.
21. When price is above the equilibrium price, the quantity supplied exceeds the quantity
demanded resulting to:
a. Shortage; b. Surplus; c. supply-demand equilibrium; d. under supply.
22. The minimum price set on a good or commodity.
a. Floor price; b. Ceiling price; c. Tag price; d. Cash price.
23. The density of ore in which the voids are considered but excluding the moisture con-
tent.
a. Porosity; b. Rock sp. gr.-natural; c. Rock sp. gr.-dried; d. mineral sp. gr.
24. It is the present worth of future earnings minus the present discounted expenditures
necessary to bring the mine into production.
a. Present value; b. Future value; c. Purchase price; d. Net present value.

ORE DRESSING
 METALLURGY

1. Fire assaying is considered a. Volumetric; b. Gasometric; c. Gravimetric; d. Wet

method.
2. It is used to separate Au from Ag.
a. sodium cyanide; b. Nitric acid; c. Silica; d. Ferrosilicon.
3. Used in commercial recovery of Au and Ag from their ore.
a. Sodium chloride; b. Sodium cyanide; c. aqua regia; d. HCl.
4. A jaw crusher is a _______________ crusher.
a. Primary; b. Secondary; c. tertiary; d. Fourth stage.
5. The most common method of concentrating chromite ores.
a. Classifying; b. Elutriation; c. Jigging; d. Sluicing.
6. The process of separating the ore minerals from the gangue minerals.
a. Ore dressing; b. Extractive metallurgy; c. Milling; d. Leaching.
7. An active, readily fusible, acid flux with a chemical formula of Na2B4O7.10 H2O.
a. Litharge; b. Borax; c. Argols; d. Cryolite.
9. It contains precious metals like Au and Ag; also contains 35-65% Cu.
a. Matte; b. Slag; c. Blister Cu; d. Ingot.
10. The process of heating to an elevated temperature without fusion a metal or metallic
compounds in contact with oxygen, water vapors, etc.
a. Smelting; b. Converting; c. Roasting; d. Tempering.
11. The process of electrochemically dissolving copper from impure anodes and selec-
tively plating the dissolved copper in pure form.
a. Electrowinning; b. Electrorefining; c. Electrolysis; d. Converting.
12. It contains 40-50 kg/m3 of Cu, 180-200kg/m3 of H2SO4, brightening, and smoothing
agents.
a. Blister Cu; b. Anode impurities; c. Matte; d. Electrolyte.
 ECONOMIC GEOLOGY
MINERAL RESOURCES OF THE PHILIPPINES

1. An isolated ore body, or an enrichment of limited vertical and horizontal extent in a

massive, bedded or vein deposit.
a. Massive; b. Tabular; c. Lenticular or pocket; d. Stringer.
2. Dome salt is classified as:
a. Placer deposit; b. Massive deposit; c. Bedded deposit; d. Vein type.
3. Sediments and other accumulations of solid particles produced by the mechanical
and/or chemical disintegration of rocks, and usually having a low cohesive strength
and very low compressive strength.
a. Detritus; b. colloids; c. humus; d. loam.
4. The ferruginous deposit filling the upper part of some mineral veins forming a superfi-
cial cover over masses of pyrite. It consists mainly of hydrated iron oxide and has re-
sulted from the removal of sulfur as well as the copper or other sulfides originally
present.
a. Country rock; b. Gossan; c. Limonite; d. Ore shoot.
5. It is not a mineral but an aggregate of minerals and colloidal substances.
a. Quicksand; b. Diatoms; c. Clay; d. Talus.
6. A colorless, translucent to transparent variety that occurs mainly in low temperature
veins in gneisses and schists.
a. Sienna; b. Adularia; c. Oligoclase; d. Sanidine.
7. The top of terminal edge of the vein on the surface or its nearest point to the surface.
a. Aureole; b. Tip; c. Acme; d. Apex.
8. Major structural and sedimentation unit of the crust of the earth. They consist of elon-
gated basins, which become filled with very great thickness.
a. Geosyncline; b. Eugeosyncline; c. Geanticline; d. Lithosphere.

9. The large scale deformation of the earth’s crust that produces continents, ocean basins,
mountain ranges, etc.
a. Tectonism; b. Vocanism; c. Geosynclinal formation; d. Diastrophism.
10. A coarse sandstone with very angular fragments. It was probably deposited at the
mouth of fast flowing river.
a. Graywacke; b. Grit; c. Quartzite; d. Arkose.
11. The smooth, curved fracture resembling the interior surface of a shell. This is most
commonly observed in such substances as glass and quartz.
a. Conchoidal fracture; b. Fibrous and splintery fracture; c. Hackly fracture;
d. Uneven or irregular fracture.
12. The term used to describe the tenacity of minerals in which they can be cut into thin
shavings with a knife.
a. Brittle; b. Malleable; c. Sectile; d. Ductile
13. It is a mass formed by deposition of material about a nucleus. Some of these are
roughly spherical, whereas others assume a great variety of shapes.
a. Geode; b. Concretion; c. Stalactite; d. Colloform.
14. Which of the following mineral habit and aggregates best describe the appearance of
mica?
a. Radiating and globular; b. Mamillary and botryoidal; c. Fibrous and retic-
ulated; d. Foliated and lamellar.
15. The most common mineral in the earth’s crust.
a. Water; b. Feldspar; c. Quartz; d. Gold.
16. Today’s largest diamond producer worldwide.
a. Western Mining Corp.; b. Placer Dome, Inc. c. De Beers; d. Newmont.
17. A term used to describe a mineral that does not vary in color because of certain light-
absorbing atoms that form an essential part of its make-up.
a. Opaque; b. Transparent; c. Idiochromatic; d. Monochromatic.
18. Fragments in sedimentary rocks that originally formed part of the parent rocks.
a. Detritals; b. Clasts; c. Fragments; d. Inclusion;
19. A rock that forms from fossilized remains of plants and animals.
a. Petrified wood; b. Fossilized rock; c. Chemical sedimentary rock; d.
Metamorphic rock.
20. The microquantitative analysis of soil and water samples.
a. Radiometric measurements; b. X-ray analysis; c. Geochemistry; d. Spec-
trographic analysis.
21. It applies knowledge of genesis and occurrence of mineral deposits, structural map-
ping, and mineralogic and petrographic analyses to discover, define and appraise min-
eral prospects.
a. Geological prospecting; b. Appraisal; c. Assessment; d. Investigation.
22. A basic drainage pattern forming branching like trees.
a. Trellis; b. Dendritic; c. Radial; d. Rectangular.
23. A basic drainage pattern forming ring-like tributaries intercepting radial streams.
a. Annular; b. Rectangular; c. Parallel; d. Trellis.
24. A mineral deposit of tabular form lying horizontally or subhorizontally and is com-
monly parallel to stratification of the enclosing rocks.
a. Porphyry deposit; b. Massive deposit; c. Bedded deposit; d. Coal seam.
25. A mineralized zone having a more or less regular development in length, width, and
depth to give it a tabular form and commonly inclined at a considerable angle to the
horizontal.
a. Bonanza; b. Vein; c. Dike; d. Gossan.
26. Siliceous deposit of a sedimentary nature whose main constituent is redistributed silica
a. Siliceous ore; b. Silica sand; c. Slag; d. Chert
27. Infilling of vesicles is called:
a. Veinlet; b. Inquartz filling; c. Amygdaloidal; d. Karst.
28. Rock riddled with air bubbles is termed:
a. Spongy; b. Porous; c. Vesicular; d. Pumiceous;
29. It means fragmentary and fractured appearance of constituents.
a. Brecciated; b. Clastic; c. Mosaic; d. Jagged.
30. Chemical formula for orthoclase: a. [KAl2(AlSi3O10)OH]; b. NaAlSi3O8;
c. KalSi3O8; d. CaAl2Si2O8.
31. The chronological order in the sequence of mineral deposition.
a. Zoning; b. Paragenesis; c. Sorting; d. Gradation.
32. A method of discovery, normally limited to visual examination of either the exposure
(outcrop) of the deposit or of the loose fragments (floats) that have weathered away
from the outcrop.
a. Direct; b. Indirect; c. Grasshopper; d. Surface.
33. A low-magnesium limestone containing clay.
a. Lime; b. Portland cement; c. cement rock; d. Phosphate rock.
34. It is a large and well-shaped crystal.
a. Geode; b. Phenocryst; c. Quartz; d. Pegmatite.
35. A solid petroleum that occurs as a component of shale.
a. Tar; b. Kerosene; c. Kerogene; d. Coal.
36. It is a liquid, very viscous hydrocarbon not extractable from oil wells.
a. Petroleum; b. Kerosene; c. Crude oil; d. Tar.

37. These deposits are formed in the zone adjacent to magma with soluble or replaceable
rocks.
a. Contact-metamorphic deposits; b. Sedimentary-enriched deposits;
c. Pegmatite deposits; d. Replacement deposits.
38. Any known body of mineral occurrence with a potential to become an orebody worth-
while mining.
a. Mineral deposit; b. Prospect; c. Mineral property; d. Mineral resource.
39. Other name for metamorphogenetic type of massive copper sulfide deposit.
a. Volcano-exhalative stratiform type; b. Contact metasomatic;
c. Besshi; d. Keiko.
40. A massive type of copper deposit that is tabular, occurs in fractures and in a matrix of
tectonic breccia.
a. Hydrothermal vein; b. Contact metasomatic;
c. Metamorphogenic; d. Porphyry.
41. A reserve division on which sufficient technical and economic studies have been car-
ried out to demonstrate that it can justify extraction at the time of the determination
and under specified economic conditions.
a. Inferred reserve; b. Geological reserve;
c. Indicated reserve; d. Proven ore reserve.
42. A concentration of naturally occurring solid, liquid, or gaseous materials in or on the
earth’s crust in such a form that economic extraction of one or more commodities is
currently or potentially feasible.
a. Reserve; b. Mineral potential; c. Resource; d. Mineral deposit.
43. Philippine pioneer in open pit mining of a vein type deposit.
a. BC-Benguet Antamok Gold Oper.; b. Surigao Consolidated (Siana Mine);
c. ACMDC-Masbate Gold Operation; d. Marcopper Mining Corporation.
44. The largest gold producer in the Philippines nowadays.
a. Manila Mining Corporation;
b. Benguet Corporation (BAGO);
c. Philex Mining Corporation (Padcal);
d. Philex Gold Philippines (Bulawan).
45. The intermediate equivalent of basalt and gabbro.
a. Dacite; b. Serpentinite; c. Dunite; d. Diabase.
46. It is the accumulated excreta and remains of birds and bats. It is an important source
of phosphorous and nitrogen.
a. Dolomite; b. Guano; c. Peat; d. Compost.