Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Ncert Line by Line Zoology
Ncert Line by Line Zoology
CHAPTERWISE TOPICWISE
ZOOLOGY
ZOOLOGY
TOPICS
CLASS – XI-th
CLASS – XII-th
4
NCERT LINE BY LINE
1. 1 ANIMAL KINGDOM
5
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
A) A – Molluscs, B – Chordates
B) A – Annelida, B – Porifera
C) A – Coelenterates, B –
A) A – Molluscs, B – Chordates Platyhelminthes
B) A – Annelida, B – Porifera D) Molluscs, B – Porifera
C) A – Coelenterates, B – 16. Choose the incorrect option [Pg-48,H]
Platyhelminthes A) True coelom is a body cavity which
D) A – Molluscs, B – Porifera arises as a cavity in the embryonic
12. Which of the following option is wrong? mesoderm.
[Pg-47,M] B) Digestive cavity is found in
A) Coelenterates and ctenophores are acoelomates, pseudocoelomates as
diploblastic. well as coelomates.
B) Animals from platyhelminthes to C) The body cavity of arthropods and
chordates are triploblastic. non- cephalopod molluscs is called
C) Radially symmetric animals remain haemocoel.
attached to a surface by their aboral D) There is no cavity between the body
surface. wall and gut wall in echinoderms.
6
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
8
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
36. Examine the figures A, B, and C. [Pg- A) They are highly regenerative
49,E] B) They are universally radially
symmetrical
C) The contain clarions spicules but
lack the siliceous one
D) They are found only in fresh water
COELENTERATA
10
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
12
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
(II) Arthropods contain Haemolymph B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
which directly bathes in internal but Reason is not the correct
tissues and organs. explanation of Assertion.
A) I is true but II is false C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
B) I is false but II is true D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
C) Both I and II are true 79. Assertion: In molluscs, feathers like gills
D) Both I and II are false are present in the mantle cavity.
74. Moulting [Pg-53,E] Reason: These gills have respiration and
A) is also called ecdysis excretory function. [Pg-53,H]
B) occurs to shed chitin at regular A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
intervals by many arthropods and Reason is correct explanation of
C) is the shedding of cuticle in many Assertion.
invertebrates B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
D) all of these but Reason is not the correct
75. Maggot is the larva of [Pg-53,E] explanation of Assertion.
A) housefly B) crab C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
C) moth D) butterfly D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
80. Which of the following statements
MOLLUSCA represents the incorrect feature of
Echinodermata? [Pg-54,M]
76. Choose the incorrect statement for
A) They are triploblastic and coelomate
phylum Mollusca. [Pg-53,H] animals.
A) Body is covered by a calcareous shell B) All are marine with cellular level of
and unsegmented. organization.
B) Feather like gills present for excretion C) Endoskeleton of calcareous ossicle.
and respiration. D) None of these
C) The anterior head region has sensory 81. Which of the following is the feature of
tentacles.
water vascular system in Echinoderms?
D) Mostly terrestrial, triploblastic and
[Pg-54,E]
acoelomates.
A) Locomotion
77. Choose the correct names for the
B) Respiration
following. [Pg-53,E]
C) Capture and transport of food
A B C D D) All of these
(a) Scorpion Prawn Loligo Asterias
82. Choose the correct statement for star
(b) Scorpion Prawn Octopus Ophiura
fish. [Pg-54,M]
(c) Locust Butterfly Loligo Asterias
(I) Sexes are separate and
(d) Locust Prawn Squid Ophiura
reproduction is sexual
(II) Development is indirect with free-
78. Assertion: In many gastropods, the arms
swimming larva
and the mental cavity are placed
(III) Mouth is present on the upper
anteriorly above the head.
(dorsal) side and anus on the
Reason: During embryonic development
in many gastropods, one side of the lower (ventral) side.
visceral mass grows faster than the other (IV) Their body bear jaw-like structure
side. This uneven growth rotates the which is called oral arms.
visceral organs up to 180° in many A) I and III B) I, II and IV
gastropods. [Pg-53,H] C) I, II and III D) III and IV
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true 83. Which one for the following animals does
and Reason is correct explanation of not undergo metamorphosis? [Pg-54,E]
Assertion. A) Moth B) Tunicate
C) Earthworm D) Starfish
13
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
14
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
A B C
A) Ostracodermi Pisces Tetrapoda 97. Among the following edible fishes, which
B) Cyclostomata Pisces Tetrapoda one is a marine fish having rich source of
C) Ostracodermi Cyclostomata Pisces omega-3 fatty acids? [Pg-57,E]
A) Mystus B) Mangur
D) Pisces Tetrapoda Cyclostomata C) Mrigala D) Mackerel
98. Which one is not cartilaginous fish? [Pg-
94. Select the correct difference between the 57,E]
notochord in the following: [Pg-56,57,M] A) Carcharoden (great white shark),
Urochordata Cephalochordata Trygon (sting ray)
A) Present only in larval Extend from head to B) Exocoetus (flying fish), catla (katla),
tail tail throughout life clarias (Mangur)
B) present only in adult Present only in larval C) Scolidon (dog fish)
tail D) Pristis (saw fish)
99. Following are few examples of bony
C) Persistent Present only in adult fishes. Choose the odd one out as marine
throughout their life
bony fish. [Pg-57,E]
A) Flying fish
D) Extend from head to Present only in larval
tail throughout life tail B) Hippocampus (sea horse)
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Labeo (rohu), catla, clarias
100. Which of the following is not a
95. Consider the following statements. [Pg-
characteristic of class chondrichthyes?
56,M]
[Pg-56,M]
(I) Lancelets are jawless, primitive fish-
A) Gill slits are separated and without
like vertebrates.
operculum.
(II) In lancelets notochord, tubular nerve
B) Predaceons with powerful jaws.
cord and pharyngeal gills slits are
C) Notochord is persistent throughout
present throughout their life.
life.
A) I is true, but II is false
D) Airbladder present.
B) I is false, but II is true
101. Which of the following characteristic
C) Both I and II are true
D) Both I and II are false features always holds true for the
96. Which of the following represents the corresponding group of animals? [Pg-56-
correct combination without any 59,H]
exception? [Pg-56,H] A) Viviparous Mammalia
Characteristic Class B) Possess a mouth with an upper and a
A) Mammary gland; hair on Mammalia lower jaw Chordata
body; pinnae; two pairs of C) Three-chambered heart with one
limbs incompletely divided ventricle
B) Mouth ventral; gills Chondrichthyes Reptilia
without operculum skin D) Cartilaginous endoskeleton
with placoid scales; Chondrichthyes
persistent notochord 102. Bony fishes are [Pg-57,E]
C) Sucking and circular Cyclostomata A) having external fertilization
mouth, jaws absent B) mostly oviparous
integument without
scales; paired appendages
C) with direct development
D) all of these
D) Body covered with Aves 103. Bony fishes stay at any particular depth
feathers; skin moist and
in water without spending energy due to
glandular; lungs with air
sacs forelimbs from wings [Pg-57,E]
A) Operculum B) Neuromuscles
15
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
17
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
18
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
Amphibins Reptiles Birds Mammals A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
Scales A Present on Absent and Reason is correct explanation of
usually hind limbs Assertion.
absent B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
Cloaca Cloaca Cloaca B but Reason is not the correct
present present absent explanation of Assertion.
Erthrocytes RBC oval, Erythro RBC C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
oval, biconvex cytes oval, circular D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
biconvex and biconvex x biconcave
and nucleate d and and non- 142. Assertion: Duck bill platypus is not a
nucleated nucleated nucleated true mammal.
Three Three C Four Reason: True mammals are all
chambere d chamber chambere d viviparous while platypus are egg laying.
heart ed heart heart with [Pg-59,60,H]
left systemic
arch
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
External External D External ear
and Reason is correct explanation of
ear absent ear may with pinna Assertion.
be present present B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
but Reason is not the correct
A) A = Scales absent explanation of Assertion.
B = Cloaca mainly present C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
C = Four chambered heart with left D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
systemic arch 143. Assertion: Bats and whales are classified
D = External ear absent as mammals.
B) A = Scales present Reason: Bats and whales have four
B = Cloaca mainly absent C = Three chambered heart. [Pg-59,60,H]
chambered heart D = External ear A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
absent and Reason is correct explanation of
C) A = Scales absent Assertion.
B = Cloaca mainly present B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
C = Three chambered heart with right but Reason is not the correct
systemic arch explanation of Assertion.
D = External ear present C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
D) A = Scales present D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
B = Cloaca mainly absent 144. Assertion: Mammalian teeth are
C = Four chambered heart with right heterodont.
systemic arch Reason: Mammals possess more than a
D = External ear present single tooth [Pg-59,H]
140. Assertion: All vertebrates are chordates. A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
Reason: Vertebrates possess notochord and Reason is correct explanation of
during embryonic period. [Pg-57,H] Assertion.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
and Reason is correct explanation of but Reason is not the correct
Assertion. explanation of Assertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
but Reason is not the correct D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
explanation of Assertion. 145. Assertion: Reptiles are referred to as
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. poikilotherms.
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. Reason: Reptiles possess eggs with shells
141. Assertion: All metatherians are placental which help them to adapt in land
mammals. Reason: All placental environment. [Pg-58,H]
mammals have menstrual cycle. [Pg-
59,H]
19
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
and Reason is correct explanation of and Reason is correct explanation of
Assertion. Assertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
but Reason is not the correct but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion. explanation of Assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
146. Assertion: Birds possess moist skin.
Reason: Birds possess oil glands
throughout their body. [Pg-58,H]
Answer Key
ANIMAL KINGDOM
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A C D B C B C A C D
Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A C B D A D A D B D
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. D B C A B B A D B A
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. A C C B A A C B C A
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. D B C A D B C C C A
Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. B A A C C A C A B D
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans. C A D A B D A A D B
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. C B C D A A B A B A
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. D B A A D A D C C D
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. D D D A B C D B C B
Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans. D B A D A B C A C A
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. C B D D A C B A A C
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans. B A A A D C B D D B
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans. A C D D C A D D D D
Q. 141 142 143 144 145 146
Ans. D D B A C D
20
NCERT LINE BY LINE
2 Structural Organisation in Animals
a b c d C) a) is False, b) is true
A) 4 3 2 1 D) Both a) and b) are false
B) 2 4 1 3 38. Which type of tissue correctly matches
C) 1 2 3 4 with its locations? [Pg-103,104,105,E]
D) 3 4 1 2 Tissue Location
A) Areolar tissue Tendons
PARA-7.1.3 AND 7.1.4
MUSCLE TISSUE AND NEURAL TISSUE B) Transitional Tip of nose
epithelium
33. Myofibrils are [Pg-104,E] C) Cuboidal Lining of stomach
A) contracted muscle fibres epithelium
B) structural components of all muscle D) Smooth muscle Wall of intestine
fibres
C) striated muscle fibres
D) skeletal muscle fibres 39. The muscular layer lining the stomach
34. Skeletal muscles are [Pg-104,E] and intestine is [Pg-105,E]
A) striated in appearance A) striated in appearance
B) smooth in appearance B) smooth in appearance
C) involuntary muscles C) multinucleated
D) both A and C D) characterized by intercalated discs
35. Go through the following figures. [Pg- 40. Heart cells have the ability to contract as
105,E] a unit to the presence of [Pg-105,E]
A) multinucleate condition
B) fusiform shape
C) intercalated discs
D) striations
41. The structural and functional unit of
nervous system is [Pg-105,E]
A) neuron B) neuroglia
C) oligodendrocyte D) ganglia
Identify these muscles (A, B and C).
42. The neurons in the neural system are
A B C
protected by [Pg-105,E]
A) Smooth Striated Cardiac A) dendrites B) neuroglial cells
muscles muscles muscles C) axons D) Nissl’s granules
B) Cardiac Smooth Striated 43. Assertion: Both skeletal muscles and
muscles muscles muscles cardiac muscles are striated appearance.
C) Striated Smooth Cardiac Reason: Cardiac muscles are involuntary
muscles muscles muscles in nature. [Pg-104,105,H]
D) Involuntar Voluntary Heart A) Both assertion and reason are true,
y muscles muscle muscle assertion is incorrect explanation of
assertion
36. Involuntary muscle fibers in human B) Both assertion and reason are true,
body are found in [Pg-105,E] reason is not the correct explanation
A) heart of assertion
B) blood vessels C) Assertion is true, reason is false
C) intestine D) Both assertion and reason are false
D) all of these 44. Assertion: Neurons are excitable cells.
37. Consider the following statements: [Pg- Reason: Neurons are found abundantly
105,M] throughout the body. [Pg-105,H]
a) All involuntary muscles are smooth in A) Both assertion and reason are true,
appearance. assertion is incorrect explanation of
b) All striated muscles are voluntary assertion
muscles. B) Both assertion and reason are true,
Select the correct option reason is not the correct explanation
A) a) is true, b) is false of assertion
B) Both a) and b) are true C) Assertion is true, reason is false
24
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
D) Both assertion and reason are false A) tergites and sternites, respectively
B) sternites and pleurites, respectively
PARA-7.4 C) pleurites and tergites, respectively
COCKROACH D) pleurites and sternites, respectively
51. The triangular head of cockroach [Pg-
45. Identify A to E. [Pg-111,E] 112,E]
(1) bear compound eyes
(2) is formed by the fusion of two
segments
(3) bear chewing and lapping mouthparts
Select the correct option
A) 1, 2, 3 are correct
B) Only 1 is correct
C) 2 and 3 are correct
D) 1 and 2 are correct
52. The mouth parts of cockroach contain
[Pg-112,E]
A B C D E A) two mandibles, two maxillae, labrum,
A) Pronotu Mesothora Metathora Tegmin Pleur labium and hypopharynx
m x x a a B) two mandibles and maxillae each, two
B) Pronotu Mesothora Metathora Tegmin Stern
m x x a a
labrum and labium each
C) Pronotu Mesothora Metathora Tegmin Anal C) one mandible and maxilla each,
m x x a cerci labarum and hypopharynx
D) Pronotu Mesothora Metathora Tegmin Anal D) one mandible, labarum, labium and
m x x a style hypopharynx
46. The body of cockroach can be 53. Select the incorrect statement regarding
morphologically distincted as [Pg-111,E] cockroach: [Pg-112,E]
A) head and abdomen A) Hypopharynx acts as a tongue.
B) head, thorax and abdomen B) Head is mobile in all directions due to
C) head, abdomen and tail flexible neck.
D) head and trunk C) Antennae possess sensory receptors
47. Consider the following statements: [Pg- to monitor the environment.
111,M] D) Thorax is greatly reduced and non-
a) Body of cockroach is covered by hard divisible.
exoskeleton made up of chitin. 54. Paired walking legs in cockroaches are
b) In male cockroach, the wings extend found on [Pg-112,E]
beyond the abdomen. A) each thoracic segments
Select the correct option B) mesothorax and metathorax
A) a is true, b is false C) prothorax and metathorax
B) Both a and b are false D) metathorax only
C) a is false, b is true 55. Forewings and hindwings in cockroaches
D) Both a and b are true arises from [Pg-112,E]
48. The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods A) mesothorax and metathorax
is formed by the polymerization of [Pg- B) prothorax
111,E] C) metathorax
A) lipoglycans D) prothorax and metathorax
B) keratin sulphate and chondroitin 56. Match the following columns. [Pg-112,E]
sulphate Column-I Column-II
C) D – glucosamine a Scleride (1) Forewings
D) N – acetyl glucosamine b Tegmina (2) Simple eye
49. Hardened plates of exoskeleton in c Ocellus (3) Exoskeleton plate
cockroaches are known as [Pg-111,E]
A) capsids B) spicules Select the correct option
C) sclerites D) metamere a b c
50. Dorsal and ventral sclerites in cockroach A) 3 2 1
are [Pg-111,E] B) 2 1 3
25
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
26
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
d Mushroom (4) 6th–7th segment 86. The following figure is related to head
glands region of cockroach. Identify A to F. [Pg-
112,E]
Select the correct option
a b c d
A) 3 2 4 1
B) 2 1 3 4
C) 4 3 1 2
D) 1 4 2 3
80. The bundles of sperms are called
[Pg-114,E]
A) phallomere B) gonapophysis
C) spermathecal D) spermatophores
81. Phallomere in cockroaches [Pg-114,E] A B C D E F
A) helps to store spermatophores A) Compo Ocellus Maxill Mand Labr Labiu
B) is chitinous external genitalia und a ible um m
C) is accessory reproductive gland eye
D) represents ejaculatory duct B) Ocellus Compou Mandi Maxil Labr Labiu
nd eye ble la um m
82. Ovarioles are [Pg-114,E]
A) bundles of ova C) Ocellus Compou Mandi Maxil Labiu Labru
nd eye ble la m m
B) ovarian tubules
C) immature ovaries D) Ocellus Compou Maxill Mand Labiu Labru
nd eye a ible m m
D) capsule containing fertilized ova
83. Match the following columns. 87. Match the following columns. [Pg-
[Pg-114,M] 113,114,115,M]
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
a Ovarioles (1) Opening of ejaculatory a Collateral (1) Stimulatory organ in
duct gland male
b Gonopore (2) Chain of developing ova b Titillator (2) Anal appendage which
helps in oviposition
28
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
89.
A) B) C) D)
A Testis Testis Testis Testis
A B C
A) Excretory pore Female genital Male genital
pore pore
B) Male genital Female genital Genital
pore pore papilla
C) Female genital Genital papilla Male genital
pore pore
D) Female genital Male genital Genital A) B) C) D)
pore pore papilla
A Dorsal Ventral Dorsal Ventral
95. vessel vessel vessel vessel
B Lateral Lateral Lateral Lateral
hearts hearts hearts hearts
C Lateral- Lateral- Anterior Anterior
oesopha oesophary loop loop
ryngeal ngeal
heart heart
30
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
97.
A B C D
A) Testis Seminal Accessory Prostate
vesicle gland gland
31
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
A) B) C) D)
A Gall Gall Gall Gall
bladder bladder bladder bladder
B Lung Lung Lung Lung
C Ovary Fat Testis Fat bodies
bodies
D Testis Testis Kidney Kidney
E Rectum Rectum Rectum Rectum A B C D
A) Ovary Ureter Oviduct Ovisac
101. Go through the following figure B) Ovary Urinogenital Bidder's Ovisac
indicating the male reproductive system duc canal
of frog. Identify A to D [Pg-119,E] C) Ovary Urinogenital Ovisac Oviduct
duc
D) Ovary Urinogenital Bidder's Oviduct
duc canal
32
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
Answer Key
STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans B B A C B C A C D C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A C C A D C C B D A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans B A D D C B A C A C
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans B D B A C D D D B C
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans A B D B C B D D C A
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans B A D A A C A D A B
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans B D D D B B B D C B
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans C D C D C A A A B D
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans B A D D A B A C B C
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans C A B C C A B A D D
Q 101 102 103
Ans A C A
33
NCERT LINE BY LINE
3 Biomolecules
1. Elemental analysis on a plant tissue, 9. If the tissue is fully burnt:- [Pg-143,E]
Animal tissue or a microbial paste A) All the carbon compounds are
reveals:- [Pg-142,E] oxidised to gaseous forms (CO2 &
A) list of elements like C; H; O & several water vapour).
others B) Remaining’s are known as ash.
B) Respective content per unit mass of a C) Ash contains inorganic elements &
living tissue inorganic compounds.
C) Both D) All
D) Diversity of living organism in our 10. Inorganic elements like sulphate and
Biosphere. phosphates are present in [Pg-143,M]
2. Elemental list could be _____ in _____ A) Ash of burnt tissue
terms of study on living tissues & earth’s B) Oxidised gaseous form
crust:- [Pg-142,E] C) Both
A) Same; absolute D) None
B) Different; absolute 11. α – Amino acids are organic compounds
C) Different; same containing [Pg-143,M]
D) Same; relative A) Amino group and acidic group
substituted on different carbon.
PARAGRAPH – 9.1 HOW TO ANALYSE B) Keto – group & Hydrogen on different
CHEMICAL COMPOSITION? carbon.
C) Amino group & acidic group
3. With respect to other elements which substituted on same carbon.
element is relatively abundant in living D) Keto – group & alcohol group
organism than in earth’s crust:- substituted on same carbon.
[Pg-143,E] 12. How many substituted groups are
A) C & Ca B) C & H present in an α – amino acid [Pg-143,M]
C) S & N D) N & Ca A) 1 B) 2
4. For the chemical composition C) 3 D) 4
analysis____ is used:- [Pg-142,M] 13. The R – group in a proteinaceous amino
A) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 B) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 – 𝐶𝑙 acid could be [Pg-144,E]
C) 𝐶𝑙3 – 𝐶𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 D) 𝐶𝑙3 – 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 A) Hydrogen
5. Filtrate obtained after grinding of living B) Methyl group
tissue is also known as:- [Pg-142,M] C) Hydroxy methyl
A) Slurry D) Any of the above
B) Acid - soluble 14. The chemical and physical properties of
C) Acid insoluble pool amino acids are essentially of the
D) All [Pg-144,E]
6. Acid – insoluble pool is also known as:- A) Amino group B) Carboxyl group
[Pg-142,E] C) The R - group D) All of the above
A)Slurry B) Retentate 15. If the R – group of amino acid is methyl
C) filtrate D) All [Pg-144,E]
7. Analytical techniques applied to the A) Glycine B) Serine
compound gives us an idea of:- C) Alanine D) Any of the above
[Pg-143,E] 16. A hydrogen substituted carbon
A) Probable structure of compounds containing amino acid is :- [Pg-144,E]
B) Molecular formula of compounds. A) Glycine B) Alanine
C) Both C) Both (A) & (B) D) Serine
D) None 17. Number of Amino ;
8. All the carbon compounds that we get Carboxyl & the R – functional group
from the living tissue can be called:- determines:- [Pg-144,M]
[Pg-143,E] A) Acidic nature of Amino acid.
A) Biomolecules B) Slurry B) Basic nature of Amino acid
C) Retentate D) All C) Neutral nature of Amino acid
34
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
36
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
iii) Molecular weight do not exceed B) Linear chains of amino acid linked by
800 Da. peptide bonds
A) only i) & ii) B) only iii) C) Polymer of amino acids
C) All i); ii) & iii) D) only ii) & iii) D) All of them.
48. Which of the following statement is not 53. A protein if a heteropolymer:- [Pg-147,M]
correct:- [Pg-146,M] A) It contains only one types of amino
A) After grinding cell membrane forms acids.
the vesicles. B) it contains different types of amino
B) Vesicles are water soluble. acids.
C) Lipids are not strictly C) both
Biomacromolecules D) None
D) None of the above 54. Which statement is incorrect:-
49. The acid soluble pool roughly represents [Pg-147,H]
______composition. [Pg-146,M] A) homopolymers have only one type of
A) Cytoplasmic B) Nuclear monomer repeating ‘n’ number of
C) Mitochondrial D) None times
50. The macromolecules from the cytoplasm B) Dietary proteins are source of
and organelles become the [Pg-146,M] essential amino acids.
A) Retentate B) Slurry C) Amino acids could be essential or non
C) Filtrate D) All – essential
51. [Pg-147,E] D) essential amino acids are synthesized
Component % of the total in our body.
cellular mass 55. What are functions of proteins:-
[Pg-147,M]
Water 70 – 90 i) Carry out many functions in living
i) 10 – 15 organism
ii) Transporter of nutrients
ii) 3 iii) Fight infections
iv) Regulates in the form of hormones
Lipids iii) & enzymes
iv) 5–7 A) only two B) only three
C) Only four D) None
Ions 1 56. The most abundant enzyme in animal
world is ___i)____ while in whole of the
biosphere is ___ii)____[Pg-147,148,M]
A) i) 🡪 protein A) (i) Collagen (ii) PEPcase
ii) 🡪carbohydrate B) (i) RuBisCo (ii) PEPcase
iii) 🡪2 C) (i) Collagen (ii) RuBisCO
iv) 🡪 Nucleic acid D) None of them
B) i) 🡪 carbohydrate
ii) 🡪Nucleic acid PARAGRAPH – 9.5 POLYSACCHARIDE
iii) 🡪2
(iv) 🡪 Protein 57. Polysaccharide is the part of ____
C) i) 🡪 Nucleic acid [Pg-149,M]
ii) 🡪Protein A) In – soluble fraction
iii) 🡪2 B) Insoluble pellet
iv) 🡪 Carbohydrate C) Retentate
D) i) 🡪 Nucleic acid D) All
ii) 🡪carbohydrate 58. A polysaccharide contains [Pg-148,E]
iii) 🡪2 A) Different Monosacharides
iv) 🡪 Protein B) Same type of monosaccharide
C) like cellulose
PARAGRAPH – 9.4 PROTEINS D) All of these
59. Cellulose and starch is a homopolymer of
52. Proteins are:- [Pg-147,E] [Pg- 149,M]
A) Polypeptides A) Glucose B) Fructose
37
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
39
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
41
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
114. Chemical change differ from physical D) 600,000 molecules of H2CO3 being
change in [Pg- 154,M] formed every second in absence of
A) Dissociation of bond any enzyme.
B) Formation of new bond 120. Which of the following is correct chemical
C) A & B bond formula for pyruvic acid? [Pg- 155,E]
D) There is no difference in both A) C2H3O4 B) C3H3O3
115. Hydrolysis of starch into glucose is :- C) C3H4O3 D) C6H12O6
[Pg- 154,M] 121. Match column – I and column – II
A) Inorganic chemical reaction [Pg- 155,M]
B) Organic chemical reaction Column – I Column – II
C) Physical changes (Metabolic (Occurrence)
D) A & B both pathway)
116. Rate of physical or chemical process refer A. Formation of (i) Anaerobic condition
to – [Pg- 154,M] alcohol of skeletal muscle
A) Amount of reactant formed per unit
time B. Formation of (ii) Yeast
B) Amount to product dissociate per pyruvic acid
unit time C. Formation of (iii) Aerobic condition
C) Differential of time with respect to lactic acid of normal human
produce cell
D) Differential of product with respect to
time A) A - I, B -iii, C -ii
117. Choose the correct [Pg- 154,H] B) A-iii, B -ii, C -i
A) Rate can be called velocity if the C) A -ii, B -I, C -iii
direction is not specific. D) None of these
B) Rate of physical & chemical processes
are not influenced by temperature PARAGRAPH – 9.12.2 HOW DO
C) Catalysed reaction proceeds at rates ENZYMES BEING ABOUT SUCH HIGH
vastly lower than that of uncatalysed RATES OF CHEMICAL CONVERSIONS?
ones.
D) Catalysed reaction proceeds at rates 122. Which of the following is correct about
vastly higher than that of uncatalysed enzymes [Pg- 155,M]
ones. A) It is 2 – D structure
118. Choose the correct response [Pg- 154,H] B) Convert product into substrate
A) For every increase by 10°C, rate is C) They have active site
double D) All of these
B) Rate decrease by one – fourth by 123. Transition state structure is formed
decrease in temperature by 10°C. when – [Pg- 155,M]
C) When enzymes catalysed reaction are A) Enzyme is free
observed the rate would be vastly B) Enzyme bound with product
lower than the same but uncatalysed C) ‘ES’ complex
reaction. D) Substrate structure do not change
D) None of these until product formed.
119. Choose correct response with respect to 124. Which of following are unstable
given equation:- [Pg- 155,H] [Pg- 155,156,M]
Carbon dioxide + water ⇌ carbonic acid A) Enzyme
A) Carbonic anhydrase is enzyme B) Product
required for accelerated reaction. C) Reactant
B) In absence of enzyme, still this D) Intermediate structural states.
reaction is fast enough 125. [Pg- 156,E]
C) 200 molecules of H2CO3 being per
hour formed by enzyme accelerated
reaction.
42
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
43
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
45
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
Answer Key
BIOMOLECULES
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans C A B C A B C A D C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans C D D D C A D A A B
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans A B B B D D A B B D
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C C A D A C D D A B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans A B B C D C B B A A
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans A D B D C C D D A C
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans B D A B C A B B C D
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans C C B C D B C C D D
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans C A D B B A B C D B
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans A B C D A B C C C A
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans B B B A D D C B A D
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans B D D C A D D A A C
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans D C C D C C B C D D
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans D C B D D B C A C D
Q 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans B C C A A C D B D C
Q 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans A B B D A C A C B B
Q 161 162
Ans D A
46
NCERT LINE BY LINE
4 Digestion and absorption
[Pg-259,E]
A) Glottis B) Gullet
C) Oesophagus D) None of the above
37. Duodenal glands/Brunner's glands are
present in - [Pg-259,E]
A) Submucosa B) Mucosa
C) Muscularis D) Serosa
38. Mucosa forms irregular folds (rugae) in
the- [Pg-259,E]
Anatomical regions of stomach are- A) Ileum B) Stomach
A) B- Fundus, C- Cardiac, D- Body, E- C) Jejunum D) Colon
Pyloric 39. Mucosa forms many small finger like villi
B) B- Cardiac, C- Fundus, D- Body, E- in the - [Pg-259,E]
Pyloric A) Stomach B) Colon
C) B- Fundus, C- Cardiac, D- Pyloric, E- C) Caecum D) Small intestine
Body 40. The many projections on the wall of small
D) B- Fundus, C- Body, D- Cardiac, E- intestine function to – [Pg-259,E]
Pyloric A) Secrete digestion enzymes
34. The wall of alimentary canal from B) Increase the surface area
oesophagus to rectum posses four C) Hold products of digestion so they do
layers. The sequence of these layers is – not enter the large intestine
[Pg-259,E] D) Hold mucus, so ulcers do not form
A) Serosa-Mucosa-Submucosa- 41. Which layer of the gut is responsible for
Muscularis peristalsis? [Pg-259,E]
B) Muscularis-Serosa-Mucosa- A) Smooth muscles B) Mucosa
Submucosa C) Submucosa D) Serosa
C) Serosa-Muscularis-Mucosa- 42. Which of the following statement is false?
Submucosa [Pg-259,260,E]
D) Serosa-Muscularis-Submucosa- A) Mucosal epithelium has goblet cells
Mucosa which secrete mucus for lubrication
35. The below diagram represents the TS of B) Mucosa forms gastric glands in the
Gut. Identify A, G, D and E – [Pg-260,E] stomach and crypts in between the
bases of villi in intestine
C) Cells lining the villi have brush
border or microvilli
D) All the four basic layer in the wall of
gut never show modification in
different parts of the alimentary canal
43. Lacteals, lymph capillaries are found in-
[Pg-260,E]
A) Spleen B) Intestinal villi
C) Salivary gland D) Mammary gland
A) A- Serosa; G - Muscularis; D - 44. Intestinal villi are supplied with –
Submucosa; E – Mucosa [Pg-260,E]
B) A- Muscularis; G - Serosa; D - A) Only blood capillaries
Submucosa; E – Mucosa B) Only lacteals
C) A- Serosa; G - Muscularis; D - C) Lacteals and valves
Mucosa; E – Submucosa D) Blood capillaries and lacteals
D) A- Serosa; G - Submucosa; D - 45. The below diagram represents a section
Muscularis; E – Mucosa of small intestinal mucosa showing villi.
36. Epiglottis is a cartilaginous flap which Identify A, B, C and D – [Pg-259,E]
prevents the entry of food into –
49
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
A) Bilobed B) 3-lobed
C) 4-lobed D) 5-lobed
53. Digestive juice lacking enzyme but aiding
digestion is - [Pg-260,E]
A) Chyle B) Chyme
C) Bile D) Succus entericus
54. In adult human liver weighs - [Pg-260,E]
(A) 2 kg (B) 2-3 kg
(C) 500 g (D) 1.2 to 1.5 kg
55. Liver is situated in - [Pg-260,E]
A) Thoracic cavity
A) A- Villi, B - Lacteal, C - Capillaries,
B) Above the thoracic cavity
D – Crypts
C) In abdominal cavity below diaphragm
B) A- Lacteal, B - Villi, C - Capillaries,
D) In abdominal cavity above diaphragm
D - Crypts
56. Which of the following is the structural
C) A- Villi, B - Lacteal, C - Crypts, D –
and functional unit of liver? [Pg-260,E]
Capillaries
(A) Hepatic cells (B) Hepatic cord
D) A- Crypts, B - Lacteal, C –
(C) Hepatic lobule (D) Hepatic lobe
Capillaries, D – Villi
57. Find out the correct match –
Paragraph – 16.1.2 [Pg-260,261,M]
Digestive System- (Digestive Glands) Column I Column II
A Hepatic lobule I Base of Villi
46. Number of salivary glands present in
human being is – [Pg-260,E] B Crypts of II Glisson's capsule
A) 5 pairs B) 3 pairs leiberkuhn
C) 4 pairs D) 2 pairs C Sphincter of Oddi III Gall bladder
47. Parotid glands are located below –
[Pg-260,E] D Cystic duct IV Hepato-
A) Eye B) Tongue pancreatic duct
C) Floor of mouth D) In cheek near ear
48. Which of the following salivary gland is
absent in human beings? [Pg-260,E]
A) A-II, B-I, C- IV, D-III
A) Zygomatic
B) A-I, B-II, C- IV, D-III
B) Parotids
C) A-I, B-II, C-III, D- IV
C) The sub-maxillary/sub-mandibular
D) A - IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(lower jaw)
58. Hepatocytes secrete - [Pg-260,E]
D) The sub-linguals (below the tongue)
A) Lipase
49. Saliva is secreted by - [Pg-260,E]
B) Bile, no digestive enzymes
A) Liver
C) Bile with digestive enzymes
B) Gastric gland
D) Amylopsin
C) Duodenal gland
59. Bile is produced by - [Pg-260,E]
D) None
(A) Gall bladder
50. Which one is the largest gland?
(B) Liver
[Pg-260,E]
(C) Hepatic duct
A) Liver B) Pancreas
(D) Blood
C) Salivary gland D) Gastric gland
60. Cystic duct arises from - [Pg-260,E]
51. Liver secretes? [Pg-260,E]
(A Liver (B) Kidney
A) No digestive enzymes
(C) Pancreas (D) Gall bladder
B) Many digestive enzymes
61. Function of gall bladder is – [Pg-260,E]
C) Hormones
(A) Storage of bile
D) Succus entericus
(B) Secretion of bile
52. Liver of man is- [Pg-260,E]
50
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
51
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
73. Which enzyme is responsible for 81. Pepsinogen on the exposure of ____(i)____
initiation of digestion in the oral cavity:- converted into the active enzyme
[Pg-261,E] _____(ii)____ [Pg-262,E]
A) Water splitting complex A) (i) Proenzyme (ii) Lysozyme
B) Mucus splitting enzyme B) (i) HCl (ii) Pepsin
C) Carbohydrate splitting enzyme C) (i) Lysozyme (ii) HCl
D) Protein splitting enzyme D) (i) Churning (ii) Pepsin
74. What percentage of starch is hydrolysed 82. Pepsin converts _____(i)____ into
in oral cavity:- [Pg-262,E] ______(ii)_____ & ____(iii)_____ [Pg-262,E]
A) 20% B) 30% A) Proteins; Proteoses; Peptones
C) 40% D) 50% B) Proteoses; Peptones; Proteins
75. In oral cavity starch is pyrolysed into C) Peptones; Proteins; Proteoses
____(i)____ ____(ii)___ [Pg-262,E] D) Peptones; Proteoses; Proteins
A) A monosaccharide; Maltose 83. What prevent the gastric epithelium from
B) A disaccharide; Maltose excoriation:- [Pg-262,E]
C) A disaccharide; Galactose A) Mucus & Bicarbonates
D) None of the above B) Bicarbonates only
76. Optimum pH required for the activation C) Mucus only
of carbohydrate – splitting enzyme is :- D) HCl
[Pg-262,E] 84. The acidity in stomach for activation of
A) 5.8 B) 6.8 pepsinogen required is [Pg-262,E]
C) 7.8 D) 4.8 A) 1.8 B) 3.8
77. Antibacterial agent present in saliva; C) 6.8 D) 7.8
that protects from bacterial infection is:- 85. The proteolytic enzyme found in the milk
[Pg-262,E] for infants are:- [Pg-262,E]
A) Ptyalin B) Amlylase A) Pepsin B) Lectin
B) Lysozymes D) Both C) Rennin D) None of these
78. What major types of cells does the gastric 86. Lipases are also secreted by gastric
gland contains:- [Pg-262,E] glands in:- [Pg-262,E]
A) Mucus neck cells A) Small amount B) Moderate amount
B) Peptic of chief cells C) Large amount D) None of the above
C) Parietal oxyntic cells 87. ___________ of movements are generated
D) All of the above by the muscularis layer of the small
79. Factor essential for digestion of vitamin intestine. [Pg-262,E]
B12 is secreted by A) A certain type
_____(i)_____ & the factor is _____(ii)_____ B) Various type
[Pg-262,E] C) Churning type
A) (i) peptic cell (ii) Lysozyme D) None of the above
B) (i) Intrinsic (ii) Peptic cell 88. How many of the following is released
C) (i) Oxyntic (ii) Intrinsic into the small instestine:- [Pg-262,E]
D) (i) Parietal cell (ii) HCl (i) Bile juice
80. How many of the following statements (ii) Gastric juice
are correct:- [Pg-262,M] (iii) Pancreatic juice
(i) Proenzyme (Pepsinogen) is secreted (iv) Intestinal juice
by chief cells A) Only One B) Only Two
(ii) Stomach stores food for 4 – 5 hours C) Only Three D) Only Four
(iii) Food thoroughly mixed up with 89. Which of the following guards the release
acidic gastric juice is known as of Pancreatic and Bile juice into
chyme. duodenum:- [Pg-262,E]
A) Only one B) Only two A) Plyloric sphincter
C) All of them D) None of them B) Hepato – Pancreatic duct
C) Sphincter of oddi
52
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
Answer Key
DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans B B B A D D A D C C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans C D A D C C B B A B
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans B A A C D B B A C C
A 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans A A A D A D A B D B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans A C B D A B D A D A
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans A A C D C A A B B D
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans A D B D A C B A C B
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans A B C B B B B D C C
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans B A A A C A B C B A
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans A B C C D C B B B C
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans B C D A A D C D B C
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans D D C D C D A D A C
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126
Ans A C C B D A
55
NCERT LINE BY LINE
5 Breathing and exchange of gases
(D) All
Para-17.1
6. Which of the following options is wrong
Introduction and Respiratory Organs about the larynx (sound box)?
1. In which of the following gaseous exchange [Pg-269,E]
between O2 and CO2 occurs through (A) It is a bony box
general body surface? [Pg-268,E] (B) Glottis is the opening into the larynx
(A) Sponges (B) Coelenterates (C) During swallowing of food glottis is
(C) Flatworms (D) All covered by epiglottis to prevent food
2. Match the followings correctly. [Pg-268,E] entry into the larynx
Animals Respiratory (D) All
Organs 7. Trachea divides into right and left primary
A. Earthworms 1. Lungs bronchi at ______ thoracic vertebra.
B. Most aquatic 2. Trachea [Pg-269,E]
arthropods (A) 4 (B) 5
C. Fishes 3. Gills (C) 6 (D) 9
D. Birds/Reptiles 4. Moist 8. Incomplete cartilaginous rings support all
cuticle of the following except- [Pg-269,E]
E. Insects (A) Trachea
(B) Primary, secondary and tertiary
(A) A-IV, B and C-III, D-I, E-II bronchi
(B) A- IV, B - III C and D -I, E - III (C) Respiratory bronchioles
(C) A-II, B and C - III, D - I, E - IV (D) Initial bronchioles
(D) A-III, B and C-I, D-II, E-IV 9. Which of the following has the smallest
3. Amphibians e.g. frogs respire – [Pg-268,E] diameter? [Pg-269,E]
(A) Through moist skin (A) Trachea
(B) Lungs (B) Terminal bronchiole
(C) Both a and b (C) Tertiary bronchus
(D) Trachea (D) Secondary bronchus
Para-17.1.1 10. Lungs are comprised by – [Pg-269,E]
Human Respiratory System (A) Only alveoli
(C) Pleura
(C) Different types of bronchi
4. Which is the correct sequence of air
(D) Network of bronchi, bronchioles and
passages in man? [Pg-269,E]
alveoli
(A) External Nostril→ Nasal passage→
11. Sites of gaseous exchange in lungs are –
Internal nostril→ Pharynx →Larynx→
[Pg-270,E]
Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles →
(A) Alveoli (B) Tracheoles
Alveoli
(C) Bronchioles (D) Pleura
(B) Nose→ Larynx→ Pharynx→
12. [Pg-269,M]
Bronchioles→ Bronchi → Alveoli
I. It is double layered and covers the lungs
(C) Nose→ Pharynx →Trachea→ Larynx→
II. Fluid between the layers reduces
Bronchi → Bronchioles→ Alveoli
friction on lung-surface
(D) Nose → Larynx→ Bronchi→ Pharynx→
III. Outer layer is in contact with thoracic
Trachea→ Bronchioles →Alveoli
wall
5. Which is correct about nasopharynx?
IV. Inner layer is in contact with lungs
[Pg-269,E]
The above features refer to –
(A) Internal nostrils open into
(A) Pericardium (B) Peritoneum
nasopharynx
(C) Pleura (D) None
(B) It is the common passage for both air
13. The part starting with the external nostrils
and food
upto the terminal bronchioles constitute
(C) It opens through gullet of the larynx
the - [Pg-270,E]
region into the trachea
56
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
(C) 1 < 3 < 2 < 4 (D) 1 < 4 < 2 < 3 (B) Lesser than in the tissue spaces
32. Different respiratory volumes are given (C) Lesser than in the arterial blood
below- [Pg-272,M] (D) Less than in alveoli
I. Tidal Volume= 500 ml 40. A section of an alveolus with a pulmonary
II. Residual Volume= 1000 ml capillary indicates the presence of major
III. Inspiratory Reserve Volume= 2500 ml layers constituting diffusion membrane-
IV. Expiratory Reserve Volume = 1000 ml [Pg-273,E]
The functional residual capacity (FRC) (A) 3 B) 2
is- (C) 6 (D) 10
(A) 3500 ml (B) 2000 ml 41. Partial pressures (in mmHg) of O2 in
(C) 600 ml (D) 3000 ml atmospheric air, alveoli deoxygenated
33. Expiratory capacity is equal to – blood, oxygenated blood and tissues are-
[Pg-272,E] [Pg-273,M]
(A) TV+ ERV (B) ERV+ IRV (A) 40, 95, 40, 104, 159
(C) ERV+ RV (D) ERV+ RV (B) 104, 40, 40, 95, 159
34. A spirometer cannot be used to measure – (C) 159, 104, 40, 95, 40
[Pg-272,E] (D) 195, 104, 95, 40, 40
(A) IC (B) RV 42. Partial pressure (in mm Hg) of CO2 in
(C) ERV (D) IRV atmospheric air, alveoli, deoxygenated
35. The maximum volume of air you can blood, oxygenated blood and tissues are-
forcefully exhale after taking the deepest [Pg-273,M]
possible breath is called [Pg-272,E] (A) 0.3, 40, 45, 40, 45
(A) Tidal volume (B) 40, 45, 40, 45, 0.3
(B) Total respiratory volume (C) 40, 40, 45, 45, 0.3
(C) Residual volume (D) 0.3, 45, 45, 40, 40
(D) Vital capacity 43. Name the blood vessels A to D-[Pg-273,M]
Para- 17.3
Exchange of Gases
59
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
(A) Blood entering the lungs - blood leaving (C) RBC contains a very high conc. of
the lungs carbonic anhydrase and minute
(B) Blood entering the right side of the quantities of the same in the plasma
heart - blood leaving the right side of (D) Every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood
the heart delivers approximately 4 mL of CO2 to
(C) Blood entering the right side of the the alveoli.
heart- blood leaving the left side of the 66. Which of the following equation is correct?
heart [Pg-275,E]
(D) Blood entering the tissue capillaries -
blood leaving the tissue capillaries
60. CO2 dissociates from
carbaminohaemoglobin when –
[Pg-274,M]
(A) pO2 ↓, pCO2↓ (B) pO2 ↑, pCO2↑
(C) pO2 ↓, pCO2↑ (D) pO2 ↑, pCO2↓
61. Which of the following situations would
result in the greatest degree of O2
saturation for haemoglobin, assuming pO2
remains constant – [Pg-275,M]
(A) Increased CO2 levels, decreased 67. Which of the following is incorrect about
temperature the given graph. [Pg-274,E]
(B) Increased CO2 levels, increased
temperature
(C) Decreased CO2 levels, decreased
temperature
(D) Decreased CO2 levels, increased
temperature
62. Which of the following factors favour the
formation of oxyhaemoglobin in lungs?
[Pg-274,E]
(A) pO2 ↓, pCO2↑ , H+↑ , Temperature↑
(B) pO2 ↑, pCO2↑ , H+↓ , Temperature↑
(C) pO2 ↑, pCO2↓ , H+↓ , Temperature↓
(D) pO2 ↓, pCO2↑ , pH↑ , Temperature↓ (A) Increase in partial pressure of CO2 shift
63. All of the following favour the dissociation the curve to right.
of oxyhaemoglobin to deliver O2 to tissues (B) At low temperature the curve shifts to
except- [Pg-274,M] left.
(A) pO2 ↑ (B) pCO2↑ OR H+↑ (C) At high pH the curve shifts to right.
(C) Temperature↑ (D) pO2 ↓ (D) Decrease in partial pressure of oxygen
64. The transport of CO2 by the blood is shifts the curve to right.
primarily dependent on – [Pg-274,M] 68. Assertion- The maximum pO2 in alveoli is
(A) The solubility of CO2in blood considerably less than in the atmosphere.
(B) The presence of carbonic anhydrase in Reason- Lungs in mammals do not
RBCs completely empty with each breath and
(C) The ability of haemoglobin to bind and inhalation occurs through the same
transport CO2 airways as exhalation, so each inhalation
(D) The ability of other blood proteins mixes fresh air with oxygen depleted
65. Which of the following statements is false? residual air. [Pg-274,H]
[Pg-274,275,M] A) Both assertion and reason are true and
(A) pO2 is the major factor which affects the reason is correct explanation of
binding of CO2 with haemoglobin assertion.
(B) pCO2 is low and pO2 is high as in the B) Both assertion and reason are true and
tissues, more binding of CO2 with Hb reason is not correct explanation of
occurs assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
61
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
69. How does an increase in the CO2 (A) O2, CO2, Pneumothorax
concentration in the blood affect the pH of (B) CO2, H+, rhythm centre
CSF? [Pg-275,E] (C) CO2, H+, apneustic centre
(A) pH↑ (D) 0 2, H+, Pneumothorax
(B) pH↓ 76. Respiratory centre of brain is stimulated
(C) pH remains same. by- [Pg-275,E]
(D) pH may increase or decrease. (A) CO2 content in venous blood
70. Assertion - A drop in the blood pH causes (B) CO2 content in arterial blood
an increase in heart rate. (C) O2 content in arterial blood
Reason- Increased Heart Rate increases (D) O2 content in venous blood
the rate at which CO2 is delivered to the
Para-17.6
lungs, where CO2 is removed. [Pg-275,H]
A) Both assertion and reason are true and Disorders of Respiratory System-
reason is correct explanation of
assertion. 77. Asthma is caused by – [Pg-275,E]
B) Both assertion and reason are true and (A) Infections of lungs
reason is not correct explanation of (B) Infection of trachea
assertion. (C) Spasm in bronchial muscles
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. (D) Infection in nose
D) Both assertion and reason are false. 78. One reason for emphysema is – [Pg-275,E]
(A) Cigarette smoking
Para-17.5 (B) Drug addiction
Regulation of Respiration (C) Wine consumption
(D) Heavy exercise
71. Respiratory process is regulated by certain 79. Emphysema is characterised by –
specialized centres in the brain. One of the [Pg-275,E]
following listed centres can reduce the (A) Permanent enlargement and
inspiratory duration upon stimulation – destruction of alveolar area leading to
[Pg-275,E] reduction in respiratory surface
(A) Medullary inspiratory centre (B) Inhibition of respiratory centre
(B) Pneumotaxic centre (C) Accumulation of fluid in lungs
(C) Chemosynthetic centre (D) Spasm of muscles of trachea
(D) Apneustic centre 80. Why do human beings have difficulty
72. Pneumotaxic centre is present in – breathing at high elevations? [Pg-276,M]
[Pg-275,E] (A) O2 makes up lower percentage of air
(A) Pons (B) Medulla oblongata there
(C) Cerebrum (D) Cerebellum (B) The temperature is lower there
73. The breathing centre initiates ventilation (C) The barometric pressure is higher there
in response to – [Pg-275,E] (D) pO2 is lower there
(A) A decrease in air pressure 81. Which of the following diseases are
(B)A decrease in O2 occupational respiratory disorder?
(C) An increase in CO2 [Pg-276,M]
(D) The rate of gas exchange in the alveoli (A) Silicosis, Fibrosis and asbestosis
74. All of the following factors play role in the (B) Emphysema and mountain sickness
regulation of respiratory rhythm except – (C) Asthma and Emphysema
[Pg-275,E] (D) Asthma and Hepatitis
(A) CO2 82. If an injury tore a small hole in the
(B) H+ conc. membrane surrounding lungs, what effect
(C) O2 on lung function would you expect?
(D) None of the above is correct [Pg-276,M]
75. Receptors associated with aortic arch and (A) Pneumothorax with lung collapse
carotid artery can recognise changes in (B) Pneumothorax without lung collapse
______ and ____ conc. and send necessary (C) Silicosis with lung collapse
signal to _______ for remedial action. (D) Silicosis without lung collapse
[Pg-275,E]
62
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
Answer Key
BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans D A A A A C B C B D
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A C A A A B C A B C
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans C A A A A C B A C B
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C A A B D D D D C A
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans C C A D A A B A D B
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans A C D A D B D B B C
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans D C A A B B D B B A
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans B A C C B A C A A D
Q 81 82
Ans A A
63
NCERT LINE BY LINE
6 Body Fluids And Circulation
1. Which of the following use water from (D) l-B, II-A, III-C
their environment as circulating fluid – 7. Formed elements of blood include – [Pg-
[Pg-278,E] 279,E]
(A) Sponges (B) Coelenterates (A) RBC, WBC and blood platelets
(C) a and b (D) Fishes (B) All solutes present in blood
(C) Proteins present in blood
(D) All minerals (elements)
Para- 18.1, 18.1.1, 18.1.2
8. Which of the following statements is
Blood-Plasma and Formed Elements false? [Pg-279,E]
2. Blood, a special type of connective tissue (A) Erythrocytes/RBC are the least
[Pg-278,E] abundant of all the cells in blood.
(A) Consists of a fluid matrix (Plasma) (B) The number of RBCs in adult man
(B) Has formed elements per mm3 of blood is 5 million to 5.5.
(C) Is the most commonly used body fluid million.
by most of the higher organisms (C) RSC are formed in the red bone
(D) All marrow in the adults.
3. Plasma is a straw coloured, viscous fluid (D) RBCs are enucleate in most of the
constituting nearly ____ % of blood – mammals.
[Pg-278,E] 9. Life span of human RBC is – [Pg-279,E]
(A) 55 (B) 45 (A) 120 hours (B) 120 month
(C) 90 (D) 10 (C) 120 days (D) 102 days
4. The amount of water present in blood 10. What is the amount of
plasma is – [Pg-278,E] haemoglobin present in 100 ml blood of
(A) 99% (B) 90-92% human blood? [Pg-279,E]
(C) 10% (D) 55% (A) 45g (B) 18-20g
5. I. Proteins contribute 6 - 8% of the blood (C) 12-16g (D) 10 -12g
plasma 11. Mammalian RBCs are in shape- [Pg-
II. Plasma contains very high amount of 279,E]
minerals (A) Oval (B) Biconvex
Ill. Plasma without the clotting factors is (C) biconcave (D) Sickle like
called serum 12. All of the following statement are correct
IV Glucose, amino acids, lipids, etc., are about WBCs except – [Pg-279,M]
also present in the plasma as they are (A) They are nucleate and least
always in transit in the body. constancy in shape
Of the above statements – [Pg-278,279,E] (B) They are lesser in number (6000 –
(A) All are correct 8000 per mm3 blood)
(B) Only II is false (C) They are generally short lived
(C) Only I, III, IV is correct (D) They help in blood clotting
(D) All are false 13. All of the following are granulocytes
6. Match List I with List II and select the except- [Pg-279,E]
correct option. [Pg-279,M] (A) Neutrophils
7.List I List II (B) Eosinophils
(Plasma (Functions) (C) Basophils only ·
protein) (D) Lymphocytes and monocytes
I. Fibrinogen A. Defense mechanism
II. Globulins B. Osmotic balance
Ill. Albumins C. Coagulation of blood
64
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
65
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
26. Rh factor is concerned with blood 34. What is the correct order of these events?
grouping. It derives its name from- [Pg-281,M]
[Pg-281,E] 1. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
(A) Man (B) Chimpanzee 2. Clot retraction and leakage of serum
(C) Monkey (D) Rat 3. Thromboplastin formation
27. Rh factor is responsible for- [Pg-281,E] 4. Conversion of prothrombin to
(A) Sickle cell anemia thrombin
(B) Erythroblastosis foetalis (A) 3,2,1, 4 (B) 3,4,1,2
(C) AIDS (C) 3,4,2,1 (D) 4,1,3,2
(D) Turner syndrome 35. Which of the following statement are
28. In developing foetus, erythroblastosis correct? [Pg-281,M]
foetalis is caused by- [Pg-281,E] I. Ca+2 is necessary for blood coagulation
(A) Haemolysis II. Coagulation in blood vessel is
(B) Clumping of RBCs prevented during normal condition by
(C) Failure of blood clotting heparin
(D) Phagocytosis by WBC. III. Clotting of blood involves changes of
29. In erythroblastosis foetalis, which of the fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin
following factors passes through placenta IV. Blood clotting involves cascading
into foetus - [Pg-281,E] process involving a number of factors
(A) Rh antigens (B) Rh antibodies present in the active form always
66
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
67
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
43. Which of the following statements is 47. Which of the following statements is not
wrong about the closed circulatory true? [Pg-283,E]
system? [Pg-282,M] (A) Heart is ectodermal in origin
(A) Blood remains within blood vessels (B) In human beings heart is situated in
and never comes in direct contact with the thoracic cavity, in between the two
the body cells lungs slightly lifted to the left
(B) In it flow of fluid can be more precisely (C) Human heart has the size of a
regulated clenched fist.
(C) There is no blood capillary (D) Double wall membranous bag
(D) Blood flow is more rapid due to higher (pericardium) with pericardia! fluid
pressure protects heart
44. Following are figures of hearts in different 48. Which of the following is correct about
animals [Pg-282,M] human heart? [Pg-283,E]
(A) The volume of both atria> the volume
of both ventricles
(B) The volume of both ventricle> the
volume of both atria
(C) The volume of both atria= the volume
A= Auricle of both ventricles
V = Ventricle (D) Ventricles are upper chambers and
Identify with their characteristic hearts – atria are lower chambers in our heart
I II III IV 49. Bicuspid valve / mitral valve is found
a) Fishes Reptiles All Birds,
between - [Pg-283,E]
reptiles Mammals (A) Left atrium and left ventricle
(B) Right atrium and right ventricle
(b) Fishes Birds Reptiles, Mammal (C) Right atrium and left ventricle
birds
(D) Left atrium and right ventricle
(c) Fishes Amphibians Reptiles Crocodiles, 50. Tricuspid valve is present between the-
Birds, [Pg-283,E]
Mammals (A) Two atria
(B) Two ventricles
(d) Fishes Crocodiles Amphibi Birds, (C) Left atrium and left ventricle
ans, Mammals (D) Right atrium and right ventricle
Reptiles
51. Chordae tendinae are found in –
[Pg-283,E]
45. In fishes the blood circulation is (A) Joints
represented as - [Pg-282,E] (B) Atria of heart
(C) Ventricles of heart
(D) Ventricles of brain
52. Ventricles are thick-walled as compared
to atrium because - [Pg-283,E]
(A) It is to receive blood from atria
The above flow of blood indicates it is a (B) It is present on the posterior side
(A) Double circulation (C) It is to pump blood
(B) Single circulation (D) None
(C) Incomplete single circulation 53. Which of the following has thickest wall?
(D) Incomplete double circulation [Pg-283,E]
46. Incomplete double circulation is found in (A) Left auricle (B) Left ventricle
which of the following animals? (C) Right auricle (D) Right ventricle
[Pg-282,E] 54. Match the following. [Pg-283,284,E]
(A) Birds Column I Column II
(B) Mammals A. Superior p. carries deoxygenated
(C) Birds and Mammals vena cava blood to lungs
(D)Amphibians and Reptiles B. Inferior q. carries oxygenated
Para-18.3.1 Human Circulatory System vena cava blood from lungs
68
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
70
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
Column I Column II
A. P- wave I. Ventricular 97. Which of the following options represent
depolarization followed correct systemic circulation in human
by ventricular being- [Pg-286,E]
contraction
B. QRS II. Atrial depolarization
Complex followed by systole of
both atria
C. T- wave III. Ventricular
repolarization followed
by ventricular 98. Note the following blood vessels –
relaxation [Pg-286,E]
(A) A-I, B-II, C-III A. Arteriole B. Capillary
(B)A-III, B -II, C-I C. Aorta D. Muscular artery
(C) A-II, B – I. C - III E. Vein F. Venule
(D) A-II, B-III, C – I Choose the correct path that lists the
95. Match the Column I with Column II – blood vessels in. order, blood passes
[Pg-286,M] through them as it leaves the heart,
Column I Column II
travels to tissue and returns to heart -
(A) C, D, B, A, E, F (B) C, D, A, B, F, E
A. Counting the I. A detailed
number of QRS evaluation of the (C) D, C, A, B, E, F (D) D, C, B, A, E, F
complex in a given heart function 99. Identify X, Y and Z? [Pg-287,E]
time period
B. Potential generated II. Determination of
by the recovery of heart beat
ventricles from the
depolarization state
X Y Z
(a) Vein Artery Capillary
C. Multiple leads are III. T-wave
attached to the (b) Capillary Artery Vein
chest region (c) Artery Capillary Vein
(d) Vein Capillary Artery
A B C D E
A II III I III II 100. Systemic circulation - [Pg-286,M]
(A) Provides nutrient, 𝑂2 and other
B V IV I III II essential substances to the tissues
C IV V III II III (B) Takes 𝐶𝑂2 and other harmful
D V IV I III I substances away for elimination
(C) Both a and b
Para-18.4 (D) Carries blood from heart to lungs
Double Circulation 101. The blood circulation which starts and
ends into capillaries is - [Pg-286,E]
(A) Portal circulation
96. Which of the following options represents
(B) Renal circulation
the pulmonary circulation in human
(C) Hepatic circulation
being – [Pg-286,E]
(D) Lymphatic circulation
102. Vascular connection between the
digestive tracts and liver is called –
72
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
73
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
74
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
Answer Key
Body Fluids and Circulation
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans C D A B C A A A C C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans C D D C A D D B D C
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans A A D B C C B A B A
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C C D B C A A A A B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans B D C C D D A B A D
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans C C D C D A D D A A
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans A C D B C B B A D A
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans A C A D D C B C D A
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans A D A B A D A C D D
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans D A B C A C B A A C
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans C B C D A A A C B B
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117
Ans D C B C B A A
75
NCERT LINE BY LINE
7 Excretory products and their elimination
16. Match the column I with column II. II. Medulla is divided into about 8 to 18
[Pg- 291,M] renal pyramids
III. Pyramid projects into calyx
Coulumn I Column II IV. Inwards extension of cortex between
A. Nephridia I. Crustaceans(Prawn) the pyramids is called renal column
of Bertini
B. Malphigian tubules II. Annelids(Earthworm) A) I and IV
C. Anteenal Gland or III. Insects B) II and IV
Green Glands (Cockroach) C) IV
D) None
A) A-I, B-II, C-III 22. Observe the following figure. [Pg- 291,E]
B) A-III, B - II, C – I
C) A-II, B - III, C-I
D) A-II, B- I, C-III
Human Excretory System
77
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
26. Go through the following figure- 32. Which is the correct pathway for passage
[Pg- 292,E] of urine in humans? [Pg-292,293,M]
A) Collecting tubule→ ureter→
bladder→ urethra
B) Renal vein→ renal ureter→ bladder→
urethra
C) Pelvis→ Medulla → bladder→ urethra
D) Cortex→ Medulla→ bladder→ ureter
33. Match the column I with column II.
[Pg-292,293,H]
Identify A to D- Column I Column II
A B C D A. Delivers blood to I. Ascending and
A Cortex Calyx Renal Ureter glomerulus descending limb
Column
B Calyx Cortex Renal Ureter
B. Carries urine to II. Renal artery
Column
pelvis, also acts in
C Medulla Cortex Renal Urethra
Column water
D Calyx Cortex Renal Urethra reabsorption
Column
C. Collects filtrate III. Collecting duct
27. Each kidney has how many nephrons? from Bowman's
[Pg- 292,E] capsule
A) About 2 million B) About 1 million
C) About 5000 D) About 50000 D. Loop of Henle IV. PCT
28. The bed of capillaries in the vertebrate
kidney where water, urea and salts are
filtered out of the blood is the – A) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
[Pg- 292,E] B) A-I, B - III, C-II, D- IV
A) Bowman's capsule C) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
B) Collecting duct D) A- IV, B - III, C - II, D – I
C) Glomerulus 34. Which of the following is correct about
D) Loop of Henle Juxta medullary nephrons? [Pg-293,E]
29. All of the following structures are A) Vasa recta is prominent
situated in the renal cortex except – B) Loop of Henle is long
[Pg- 293,M] C) NaCl is returned to the interstitium
A) Loop of Henle by ascending limb of vasa recta
B) Malpighian corpuscle D) All
C) PCT 35. Which of the following places the region
D) DCT of nephron in their correct sequence with
30. The DCTs of many nephrons open into a respect to flow of tubular fluid?
straight tube called – [Pg-293,M] [Pg-293,M]
A) PCT A) PCT→ Descending limb of Henle
B) Loop of Henle (DLH) → Ascending limb of Henle
C) Collecting duct (ALH) → DCT→ Collecting duct(CD)
D) Bowman's capsule B) PCT→ALH →DLH →OCT→CD
31. Which of the following statements is C) ALH →DLH →PCT→OCT→CD
false? [Pg-292,293,H] D) OCT→ALH →DLH →PCT→CD
A) Renal tubule starts with a double 36. Vasa recta is – [Pg-293,E]
walled cup like structure called A) shaped B) S-shaped
Bowman's capsule C) U-shaped D) J-shaped
B) In majority of nephrons, the loop of 37. In glomerulus, afferent arteriole –
Henle is too short and such nephrons [Pg-292,E]
are cortical nephrons A) Is wider than efferent arteriole
C) Juxta medullary nephron has long B) And efferent arteriole has similar
loop of Henle diameter
D) None C) Is narrower than efferent arteriole
D) Is narrow than efferent capillaries
78
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
80
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
VI. Substances like glucose, amino acids, C) Diffusion of small amount of urea
Na+, etc in the filtrate are reabsorbed from collecting duct into medullary
actively interstitium
A) I and II B) II and III D) Proximity between Henle's loop and
C) IV and V D) All vasa recta as well as the counter
56. Tubular secretion helps to maintain a current in them
proper acid-base balance by removing 62. The medullary gradient is mainly caused
one of the following from blood – by - [Pg-296,E]
[Pg-294,E] A) Urea & K + B) H and K+
+
81
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
V. Diffusion of salt from the descending D) Blood volume, body fluid volume and
limb of the loop of Henle ionic concentration
A) Only I B) Only V 75. Which of the following sequences is
C) III and IV D) I and V correct for regulation of kidney function?
[Pg-297,H]
A) An excess loss of water from body→
Paragraph- 19.5 Regulation of Kidney
Stimulates hypothalamus→
Function Osmoreceptors→ Neurohypophysis→
ADH→ Increases water permeability
68. Which one of the following is produced in of DCT and CT→ Prevention of
the kidneys? [Pg-297,E] diuresis
A) Rennin B) Renin B) An excess loss of fluid from body→
C) Uricase D)Arginase Osmoreceptors→ Hypothalamus→
69. Reabsorption of Na+ is controlled by – Neurohypophysis→ ADH→ Increases
[Pg-297,E] water permeability of DCT and CT→
A) Vasopressin or ADH Prevention of diuresis.
B) Aldosterone C) An excess loss of fluid from body→
C) Renin Osmoreceptors→ Hypothalamus→
D) Rennin Neurohypophysis→ Aldosterone→
70. The reabsorption of water in the kidneys Water permeability of DCT and CT
is under the control of a hormone – increases→ Prevention of diuresis
[Pg-297,E] D) An excess loss of fluid from body→
A) STH osmoreceptor→ Hypothalamus→
B) ACTH Adenohypophysis→ ADH→ Increases
C) LH water permeability of DCT and CT→
D) ADH/Vasopressin Prevention of diuresis
71. Antidiuretic hormone secretion increases 76. Osmoregulation is the function of-
when the hypothalamus is stimulated by [Pg-297,E]
– A) Oxytocin
[Pg-297,E] B) Prolactin
A) Angiotensin receptors C) Vasopressin (ADH)
B) Glucose receptors D) None of the above
C) Osmoreceptors 77. ADH is synthesised by, ___________
D) Renin receptors released by _______ and acts on
72. The kidneys help regulate acid-base _________. [Pg-297,M]
balance by controlling the level of ____ in A) Hypothalamus, Neurohypophysis,
the blood- [Pg-297,E] DCT and CT
A) CO2 B) H+ B) Hypothalamus, Neurohypophysis,
C) HCO3- D) B and C Loop of Henle
73. The functioning of the kidneys is C) Hypothalamus, Adenohypophysis,
efficiently monitored and regulated by DCT and CT
hormonal feedback mechanisms D) Hypothalamus, Adenohypophysis,
involving - [Pg-297,E] Loop of Henle
A) Hypothalamus only 78. Which of the following sequence is
B) JGA only correct? [Pg-297,M]
C) The heart only A) An increase in body fluid volume →
D) Hypothalamus, JGA and heart (to switch off the Osmoreceptors →
certain extent) suppresses the ADH release
74. Osmoreceptors in the body are activated B) ADH → Constricting effect on blood
by changes in - [Pg-297,M] vessel→ B. P. high~ Glomerular blood
A) Blood volume but not body fluid flow more → GFR more
volume C) Angiotensinogen→ Angiotensin I→
B) Body fluid volume but not blood Angiotensin II→ Adrenal cortex →
volume Aldosterone
C) Blood volume and body fluid volume D) All
82
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
92. How much urea is excreted per day by a Which one of the above statement is
normal adult? [Pg-298,E] correct?
A) 0 gm B) 25 – 30 gm A) Only I B) II and III
C) 50 gm D) 1 – 2 gm C) Only II D) I and II
Paragraph- 19.7 Role of other Organs in
Excretion Paragraph- 19.8 Disorder of the
excretory system
93. Other than kidneys, which of the
following also helps in the elimination of 99. In uremia, artificial kidney is used for
excretory wastes? [Pg-298,E] removing accumulated waste products
A) Skin B) Liver like urea by the process called-
C) Lungs D) All [Pg-298,E]
94. How much CO2 is removed per minute by A) Micturition B) Haemolysis
our lungs- [Pg-298,E] C) Ureotelism D) Hemodialysis
A) 18 Ml B) 200 Ml 100. In artificial kidney dialysing fluid
C) 1L D) 8 L contains all the constituents as in
95. Which of the following statements is plasma expect- [Pg-298,E]
false? [Pg-298,M] A) Na +
84
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
Answer Key
EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND THEIR ELIMINATION
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans C D C D D B D B D C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans C B B D D C D A A C
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D C D B B B B C B C
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans D A A D A C A A C A
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans D C B C B B D B B C
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans C A D B D A D B D D
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans B C B D D A B B B D
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans C D D D B C A D D D
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans D D B C B A C C A A
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans B B D B C C B A D D
Q 101 102 103
Ans B C C
85
NCERT LINE BY LINE
8 LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT
89
NCERT LINE BY LINE
The diagrams given above show 3 (B) A-II, IV, V, VI; B-I, III, VII, VIII
different condition of sarcomeres. (C) A-I, III, IV, VII; B – II, V, VI, VIII
Identify these conditions - (D) A- II, V, VI, VIII; B - I, III, IV, VII
(A) A– contracting, B - relaxed, C –
Para-20.3
maximally contracted
Skeletal System
(B) A – relaxed, B - contracting, C –
maximally contracted
50. Skeletal system consists of - [Pg-309,E]
(C) A- maximally contracted, B –
(A) Only bones
contracting, C - relaxed
(B) Only cartilage
(D) A- relaxed, B - maximally contracted,
(C) A framework of bones and a few
C–contracting
cartilage
45. When a skeletal muscle shortens during
(D) A framework of cartilage. and a few
contraction which of these statements is
bones
false? [Pg-307,E]
51. Bone has a very hard matrix due to
(A) The I-band shortens
presence of- [Pg-309,E]
(B) The A-band shortens
(A) NaCl (B) Ca-salts
(C) The H-zone becomes narrow
(C) K-salts (D) Fe-salts
(D) The sarcomeres shorten
52. Cartilage has slightly pliable matrix due
46. The muscle band that remains
to - [Pg-309,E]
unchanged during muscle contraction
(A) Chondroitin salts
and relaxation of the skeletal muscle is –
(B) Osteoblast
[Pg-308,E]
(C) Chondroblasts
(A) I (B)A
(D) Osteoclast
(C) H (D) Z line
53. How many bones make up the human
47. Which of the following statements is
skeleton? [Pg-309,E]
correct? [Pg-307,E]
(A) 948 (B) 96
(A) During muscle contraction chemical
(C) 796 (D) 206
energy changes into mechanical
54. Number of bones in human axial
energy
skeleton is - [Pg-309,E]
(B) Muscle fatigue is due to lactic acid
(A) 80 (B) 106
formation due to anaerobic
(C) 206 (D) None
respiration
55. Match Column I with Column II –
(C) The reaction time of the fibres can
[Pg-309,M]
vary in different muscles Column I Column II
(D) All (Number of
48. The compound or pigment acting as an bones)
oxygen store in skeletal muscles is –
[Pg-308,E] A. Cranium/Brainbox I. 29
(A) Myoglobin
(B) Haemoglobin B. Skull (Cranial and II. 8
(C) Myokinase or ATP facial bones)
(D) Cytochrome C. Face III. 14
49. I. Number of mitochondria less.
II. Number of mitochondria more D. Hind limb IV. 12 pairs
III. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is abundant E. Ribs V. 30
IV. Myoglobin content high
V. Sarcoplasmic reticulum moderate (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-V, E-IV
VI. Aerobic muscles (B) A- II, B - I, C - III, D - V, E - IV
VII. Depend on anaerobic respiration for (C) A - I, B - II, C- III, D - IV, E - V
energy (D) A- V, B - IV, C - III, D - II, A- I
VIII. Less myoglobin content 56. Hyoid/Tongue bone is - [Pg-309,E]
A. Red muscles (A) T-shaped (B) J-shaped
B. White muscles (C) U-shaped (D) L-shaped
Identify above (I to VIII) traits as 57. A normal human being has how many
characteristic of A and B types of ear ossicle? [Pg-309,E]
muscles- [Pg-307,308,M] (A) 3 (B) 6
(A) A- I, III, VII, VIII; B -II, IV, V, VI (C) 9 (D) None
90
NCERT LINE BY LINE
58. Which one of the following is not (A) Dorsally, ventrally
included under ear ossicles - [Pg-309,E] (B) Ventrally, dorsally
(A) Malleus (B) Ileum (C) Dorsally, dorsally
(C) Incus (D) Stapes (D) Ventrally, Ventrally
59. Human Cranium has small 67. Typical ribs are - [Pg-310,E]
protuberance(s) at the posterior end (A) Monocephalic (B) Dicephalic
called __________ and ____ in number. (C) Tricephalic (D) Tetracephalic
[Pg-309,310,E] 68. Match Column I with Column II –
that articulates with first vertebra (atlas [Pg-310,M]
vertebra)- Column I Column II
(A) occipital condyle, 6
(B) occipital condyle, 2 A. True ribs I. 3 pairs
(C) occipital condyle, 4 B. False ribs II. 2 pairs
(D) occipital condyle, 3
60. Human skull is - [Pg-310,E] C. Floating ribs III. 7 pairs
(A) Dicondylic (B) Monocondylic
(C) Procoelous (D) Hetercoelous
(A) A-I, B-II, C-III
61. Which of the following statements about
(B) A-III, B-I, C-II
human vertebral column is false?
(C) A- III, B - II, C - I
[Pg-310,M]
(D) A-ll, B-l, C-III
(A) Vertebral column consists of 26
69. Match Column I with Column II –
vertebrae
[Pg-310,M]
(B) It is ventrally placed
Column I Column II
(C) It extends from the base of skull and
A. False ribs I. 1st to 7th pair
constitutes the main framework of the B. True ribs II. 11th and 12th pair
trunk C. Floating ribs III. 8th to 10th pair
(D) Neural canal in vertebra is the D. Sternum IV. One
passage for spinal cord
62. Human adult vertebral formula is- (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D- IV
[Pg-310,E] (B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D- I
(A) C4 T8 L4 S8 C8 (B) C7 T8 L5 S6 C7 (C) A- I, B - III, C - II, D- IV
(C) C7 T12 L2 S1 C2 (D) C7 T12 L5 S1 C1 (D) A-III, B-I, C-II, D- IV
63. Which of the following vertebra in adult 70. Identify the ribs - [Pg-310,E]
human are fused ones? [Pg-310,E] a. Ribs are attached to the sternum
(A) Thoracic and lumber ventrally and to the vertebrae
(B) Thoracic and cervical dorsally.
(C) Sacral and coccygeal b. Ribs are attached to sternum through
(D) Cervical and coccygeal costal cartilage (hyaline) of 7th rib
64. Which of the following is not the function c. Ribs are not attached to sternum
of vertebral column? [Pg-310,M] I. True ribs
(A) Protects spinal cord and supports the II. False ribs
head III. Floating ribs
(B) Serves as the point of attachment for (A) a-I, b-II, c-III (B) a-I, b-III, c-II
ribs and musculature of the back (C) a-II, b-I, c-III (D) a-III, b -II, c-I
(C) Both 71. Which of the following ribs are called
(D) Supports Tarsals and Metacarpals vertebrochondral ribs? [Pg-310,E]
65. Which of the following is not correct (A) True ribs (B) False ribs
about sternum? [Pg-310,E] (C) GorIIIa ribs (D) Floating ribs
(A) It is commonly called breast bone 72. Rib cage is formed by all except –
(B) It is flat bone [Pg-310,E]
(C) It is 2 in number (A) Thoracic vertebrae
(D) It is located on the ventral mid line of (B) Lumbar vertebrae
thorax (C) Ribs
66. Each typical rib is a thin flat bone (D) Sternum
connected ____ to the vertebral column 73. Each limb (upper or lower) consists of
and ___________ to the sternum- how many bones – [Pg-310,E]
[Pg-310,E] (A) 30 (B) 60
91
NCERT LINE BY LINE
(C) 101 (D) 8 D - Radius, E - Ulna, F - Carpals, G –
74. [Pg-310,E] Metacarpals
(D) A- Clavicle, B - Scapula, C -
Humerus, D - Radius, E - Ulna, F -
Carpals, G –Metacarpals
80. An acromion process is characteristically
found in - [Pg-311,E]
(A) Pelvic girdle of mammals
(B) Pectoral girdle of mammals
(C) Skull bone
(D) Vertebrae of mammals
The accompanied figure is rib cage.
81. The shoulder blade is large triangular
Identify A, Band C respectively-
bone situated in the dorsal part of the
(A) Coccyx, ribs, vertebral column
thorax between the 2nd and the 7th ribs.
(B) Sternum, ribs, vertebral column
[Pg-311,E]
(C) Scapula, ribs, vertebral column
It is called -
(D) Tarsal, ribs, vertebral column
(A) Clavicle (B) Ilium
75. Number of bones in human appendicular
(C) Scapula (D) Carpals
skeleton is - [Pg-310,E]
82. For articulation of head of humerus a
(A) 80 (B) 120
depression found in scapula is called –
(C) 126 (D) 206
[Pg-311,E]
76. Number of bone in each upper limb is –
(A) Acetabulum
[Pg-310,311,E]
(B) Manubrium
(A) 1, 1, 1
(C) Occipital condyle
(B) 8, 5, 14
(D) Glenoid cavity
(C) 2, 2, 2, 16, 10, 28
83. Which of the following statement is
(D) 1, 1, 1, 8, 5, 14
correct? [Pg-311,M]
77. Phalangeal/digital formula for human
(A) Pectoral and pelvic girdle bones help
hand/foot is- [Pg-311,E]
in the articulation of the upper and
(A) 0, 2, 2, 3 (B) 0, 2, 3, 3 ,3
lower limbs respectively with the axial
(C) 2, 2, 3, 3, 3 (D) 2, 3, 3, 3, 3
skeleton
78. The hand contains ____ carpals (wrist
(B) Each girdle is formed of 2 halves
bones), ____ metacarpals (palm bones),
(C) Each half of pectoral girdle consists of
and ___ phalanges. [Pg-311,E]
a clavicle (collar bone) and Scapula
(A) 14, 5, 8 (B) 5, 8, 14
(D) All
(C) 8, 5, 14 (D) 1, 5, 5
84. Which of the following statements is
79. [Pg-311,E]
false? [Pg-311,M]
(A) Scapula has the spine which projects
as acromion process
(B) Below acromion process is a glenoid
cavity
(C) Each clavicle (collar bone) articulates
with acromion
(D) Clavicle is long S-shaped bone with 4
curvatures
The accompanied diagram shows right 85. Which one of the following is the longest
pectoral girdle and upper arm (frontal bone in human? [Pg-311,E]
view). Identify A to G (A) Radius
(A) A- 1st Vertebra, B - Scapula, C - (B) Tibia
Humerus, (C) Femur (Thigh bone)
D - Radius, E - Ulna, F - Carpals, (D) Clavicle (Collar bone)
G - Metacarpals 86. Human foot consists of 26 bones. What
(B) A- Scapula, B - Clavicle, C - are the number of tarsals (ankle bones),
Humerus, metatarsals and phalanges? [Pg-311,E]
D – Radius, E - Ulna, F - Carpals, (A) 7, 5, 14 (B) 5, 7, 14
G - Metacarpal (C) 1, 1, 5 (D) 5, 5, 5
(C) A- Ilium, B - Scapula, C - Humerus,
92
NCERT LINE BY LINE
87. A cup shaped bone covering knee (A) Joints are essential for all types of
ventrally is called - [Pg-311,E] movements involving bony parts
(A) Cuneiform (B) Tarsal (B) Joints are contact between bones or
(C) Patella (D) Carpal between bones and cartilages
88. Study the accompanying figure. Identify (C) Fibrous joints are immovable
A, B, C and D – [Pg-311,E] (D) Cartilaginous joint permit great
movement
95. Match Column I with Column II –
[Pg-312,M]
Column I Column II
A. Hinge joint I. Between humerus and
pectoral girdle
B. Pivot joint II. Between carpals and
Metacarpals of thumb
C. Gliding III. Between the carpals
joint
D. Saddle IV. Between atlas and axis
joint
(A) A- Pubis, B - ilium, C - Ischium, D - E. Saddle V. Knee joint
Patella joint
(B) A- Ischium, B - Pubis, C - ileum, D–
(A) A- V, B - IV, C - III, D - II, E - I
Patella
(B) A- I, B - II, C - II, D - V, E - IV
(C) A- ileum, B - Pubis, C - Ischium, D–
(C) A- I, B - III, C - II, D - V, E - IV
Patella
(D)A-V, B-III, C-II, D-I, E-II
(D) A- ilium, B - Pubis, C - Ischium, D–
96. Which of the following statements is
Patella
correct? [Pg-312,M]
89. Acetabulum occurs in - [Pg-311,E]
(A) Synovial joints are characterised by
(A) Cranium (B) Pectoral girdle
synovial cavity with fluid between the
(C) Pelvic girdle (D) Vertebrae
articulating surface of two· bones
90. Pelvic girdle (hip girdle) is composed ____
(B) Synovial joints are freely movable
coxal (hip) bones- [Pg-311,E]
(C) Ball and socket, hinge joint, gliding
(A) 3 (B) 2
joints, pivot joints and saddle joints
(C) 4 (D) 5
are the types of synovial joints
91. Pelvic girdle consists of-
(D) All
(A) Ileum, ischium and pubis
97. Joint between bones in the form of
(B) Ilium, ischium and pubis
sutures of human skull is -[Pg-312,E]
(C) Ilium, ischium and clavicle
(A) Hinge joint
(D) Coracoid, ischium and pubis
(B) Synovial joint
92. Two halves of pelvic girdle articulate
(C) Cartilaginous joint
ventrally at a fibrocartilaginous joint
(D) Fibrous joint
called - [Pg-311,E]
98. Which of the following statements is
(A) Pubic symphysis
correct? [Pg-312,M]
(B) Synchodroses
(A) Movable skull bone is mandible
(C) Gomphoses
(B) We move our hands while walking for
(D) Sutures
balancing
93. Each coxal bone is formed by the fusion
(C) Cartilaginous joints have little
of 3 bones named as - [Pg-311,E]
mobility due to fibrocartilage disc
(A) Ileum, ischium and pubis
between its articular ends e.g.
(B) Ilium, ischium and pubis
intervertebral disc between centre of
(C) Ilium, ischium and clavicle
vertebrae
(D) Coracoid, ischium and pubis
(D) All
Para - 20.4 Para-20.5 Disorders of Muscular and
Joints Skeletal System
94. Which of the following statements about
99. A disease associated with joint is –
the joints is false? [Pg-311,312,M]
[Pg-312,E]
93
NCERT LINE BY LINE
(A) Glaucoma (A) Arthritis (B) Autoimmune
(B) Arthritis (C) Agnosic (D) Amnesic
(C) Paget's disease 103. Tetany is the rapid spasm in muscles due
(D) Homer's syndrome to – [Pg-312,E]
100. Gout is the inflammation of joints due to (A) High Ca+2 in body fluid
accumulation of - [Pg-312,E] (B) Low Ca+2 in body fluid
(A) Urea crystal (C) High uric acid in body fluid
(B) NH3 (D) High urea in blood
(C) Uric acid crystal 104. Progressive degeneration of skeletal
(D) CaCO3 crystals muscles due to genetic disorder is called
101. I. Age-related disorder characterised by –
decreased bone mass and increased [Pg-312,E]
chances of fracture (A) Myasthenia gravis
II. Causative factor deficiency of (B) Tetany
estrogen is common. (C) Muscular dystrophy
The above characters are associated with (D) Myopia
– [Pg-312,M] 105. Arthritis is - [Pg-312,E]
(A) Gout (B) Osteoporosis (A) Inflammation of muscles
(C) Arthritis (D) Polio (B) Inflammation of bone
102. Myasthenia is an ____ disorder affecting (C) Inflammation of joints
neuromuscular junction leading to (D) Inflammation of tongue
fatigue, weakening and paralysis of
skeletal muscles - [Pg-312,E]
94
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
Answer Key
LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans A C D B D D D C D B
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans C D D D D A B C B D
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D A C A C B C C A D
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C C B B C A C B C B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans B A A B D B D A B C
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans B A D A B C B B B A
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans B D C C C A B B D C
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans B B A B C B D C D B
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans C D D D C A C D C B
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans B A B D D D D D B C
Q 101 102 103 104 105
Ans B B B C C
95
NCERT LINE BY LINE
9 NEURAL CONTROL AND COORDINATION
[Pg-316,M]
Introduction
A) Insects possess brain, ganglia and
neural tissues.
1. Coordination is considered as an
B) Hydra and planaria do not possess
important process in an animal body
nervous system at all.
because [Pg-315,E]
C) Hydra possess the least developed
A) it helps to maintain homeostasis.
nerve cord while insects contain
B) it enables different organs to interact
highly developed ventral nerve cord.
and function efficiently.
D) Planaria do not possess brain while a
C) it ensures the normal functioning of
rudimentary brain is found in
vital organs.
insects.
D) all of these
7. The ganglia found in insects are
2. The neural system within human body
[Pg-316,E]
provide [Pg-315,E]
A) masses of fat bodies
A) chemical coordination through
B) aggregated neurons which gives off
hormones
nerves
B) point to point connections
C) point where numerous neurons meet
C) electrical coordination
D) degenerated neuron masses
D) both (b) and (c)
8. Assertion: Nervous system and
3. Neurons are the specialised cells of
endocrine system jointly coordinate and
nervous system in [Pg-316,E]
integrate activities of organs.
A) humans only
Reason: Endocrine system regulate all
B) all vertebrates only
the activities of nervous system.
C) mostly all animals including
[Pg-315,H]
vertebrates and invertebrates
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
D) both (A) and (B)
and Reason is correct explanation of
4. The neurons in all animals are
Assertion.
capable of [Pg-316,M]
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
i. detecting various stimuli in
but Reason is not the correct
environment
explanation of Assertion.
ii. receiving and transmitting stimuli to
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
CNS
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
iii. processing various internal and
9. Assertion: Neural organisation become
external stimuli
complex in vertebrates as compared to
Select the most appropriate option.
invertebrates.
A) I, II and III are correct
Reason: The ganglion in insects acts as
B) Only II is correct
a brain. [Pg-316,H]
C) II and III are correct
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
D) I and II are correct
and Reason is correct explanation of
5. The nervous system of Hydra is
Assertion.
composed of [Pg-316,E]
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
A) brain and peripheral nerves
but Reason is not the correct
B) network of neurons
explanation of Assertion.
C) ganglia and plexuses
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
D) brain and nerve nets
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
6. Why is nervous system of insects
considered better organised as
compared to Hydra and Planaria? Para- 21.2
96
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
97
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
98
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
25. The basic structural components of a 32. While studying the structural details of
neuron are [Pg-316,E] a neuron, how would you distinguish an
A) cell body and axon axon from a dendrite? [Pg-317,M]
B) cell body and dendrites A) Axon is a long process whose distal
C) axon and dendrites end is branched.
D) cell body, axon and dendrites B) Dendrites are branched irregularly
26. Identify the incorrectly matched pair of while the axon gives off long
cell organelle found in neuron and its branches alternatively.
function. [Pg-316,317,E] C) Axon contains Nissl’s granules while
A) Nucleus – Contain DNA dendrites do not.
B) Mitochondria – Energy production D) Axons are numerous while each
C) Golgi apparatus – Protein synthesis neuron contain only two dendrites.
D) Lysosomes – Scavengers of neurons 33. Synaptic knob [Pg-317,M]
27. Neurons differ from a typical cell (1) is terminal bulb-like structure of
because of the presence of [Pg-316,E] dendrites and axons.
A) nucleolus (2) contains neurotransmitter – filled
B) Nissl’s granules vesicles.
C) protein synthesizing machinery (3) is a protoplasmic extension of cell
D) microfilaments body.
28. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of Which of the following option is most
[Pg-316,E] appropriate?
A) proteins and lipids A) 1 and 2 are correct
B) DNA and RNA B) Only 3 is correct
C) nucleic acids and SER C) Only 2 is correct
D) free ribosomes and RER D) 1 and 3 are correct
29. The dendrites of a neuron are 34. Consider the following statements. [Pg-
[Pg-317,M] 317,M]
A) long, unbranched processes (A) Axons carry impulse away from the
associated with cell body and axon cell body.
B) short, highly branched processes of (B) The synaptic knob of axons are found
cell body in contact with neuro-muscular
C) long and branched processes of cell junctions.
body Select the correct option.
D) short, unbranched processes of cell A) A is true, B is false.
body and axon B) Both A and B are false.
30. Which of the following characteristic is C) Both A and B are true.
correct about dendrites? [Pg-317,E] D) A is false, B is true.
A) non-functional, degenerating axons 35. Refer to the given diagram of the
B) involved in carrying impulse away structure of a neuron and identify A, B
from the cell body and C. [Pg-317,M]
C) involved in transmitting impulse
toward the cell body
D) involved in transmitting impulse
toward and away from the cell body
31. The only similarity between the cell body
and dendrites is the presence of
[Pg-317,E]
A) golgi bodies
B) Nissl’s granules Select the correct option.
C) nucleus A B C
D) mitochondria
99
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
(A) Nissl’s granule Axon Schwann Cell 40. Select the correct statement regarding
unipolar neuron. [Pg-317,M]
A) It contains cell body only.
(B) Schwann cell Nodes of Synaptic Knob
Ranvier
B) It contains one dendrite and one
(C) Synaptic Knob Dendrite Synaptic Knob axon.
C) It contains one dendrite and one cell
(D) Nucleus Myelin Nissl’s granule body only.
sheath D) It contains one axon only.
41. Match the following columns. [Pg-317,E]
36. Match the following columns. Column-I Column-II
[Pg-317,M] (Types of (Location)
Column-I Column-II Neurons)
(a) Neurotransmitters (1) Ribosomal (a) Multipolar (1) Embryonic
granules neuron stages
(b) Nissl’s granules (2) Short and (b) Bipolar (2) Retina of eyes
branched neuron
(c) Dendrites (3) Containedin (c) Unipolar (3) Cerebral cortex
synaptic neuron
knob
Select the correct option.
(d) Axon (4) Carry impulse a b c
away from
A) 3 2 1
cell body
B) 2 1 3
Select the correct option. C) 1 3 2
a b c d D) 2 3 1
A) 1 3 2 4
B) 3 1 4 2 42. Consider the following statements.
[Pg-317,M]
C) 3 1 2 4
(A) Myelinated and non-myelinated
D) 1 3 4 2 neurons are differentiated on the
basis of type of neurons.
37. On what basis, neurons are classified as
(B) Humans contain only myelinated
unipolar, bipolar or multipolar?
neurons.
[Pg-317,E]
Select the correct option.
A) Transmission of impulse
A) A is true, B is false.
B) Number of axons and dendrites
B) A is false, B is true.
C) Sensory or motor nature
C) Both A and B are true.
D) Number of nucleus within cell body
D) Both A and B are false.
38. A neuron with one axon and one
43. The myelin sheath around the axons is
dendrite is known [Pg-317,E]
formed by [Pg-317,M]
A) unipolar B) bipolar
A) osteocytes and astrocytes
C) nonpolar D) multipolar
B) astrocytes and Schwann cells
39. A multipolar neuron contains multiple
C) Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes
[Pg-317,E]
D) oligodendrocytes and osteoclasts
A) dendrites
44. Nodes of Ranvier are [Pg-317E]
B) axons
A) granulated bodies in cytoplasm
C) axons and dendrites
B) gaps between adjacent myelin sheath
D) synaptic bulbs
on axons
100
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
101
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
D) More permeable to Na+ ions than K + B) positive charge inside and negative
ion. charge outside.
54. In a resting axonal membrane C) positive charge outside and negative
[Pg-317,E] charge inside.
A) both outside and inside fluid is D) negative charge at both outside and
positively charged. inside.
B) both outside and inside fluid is 58. Na − K + pump
+
[Pg-317,E]
negatively charged. I. Needs energy (ATP) to work
C) outside fluid is positively charged II. Expels 3 Na+ for every 2K+ ions
while inside is negatively charged. imported
D) inside fluid is positively charged III. Works against a concentration
while outside is negatively charged. gradient
55. Match the following columns. [Pg-317,E] IV. Maintains resting potential
Column-I Column-II A) All are correct
(a) Na+ ions (1) More inside,less B) Only II and III are correct
during resting inside C) Only I and III are correct
stage D) None is correct
59. Consider the following statements.
(b) K+ ions during (2) More outside, (A) The stimulus-induced increased
resting stage less inside permeability of Na+ ions helps in the
conduction of action potential.
(c) Action potential (3) Depolarised (B) Increased permeability of K+ ions
Membrane helps to restore the resting potential
(d) Resting (4) Polarised of the membrane.
potential membrane Select the correct option. [Pg-318,M]
A) A is true, B is false.
Select the correct option. B) Both A and B are true.
a b c d C) A is false, B is true.
A) 2 1 4 3 D) Both A and B are false.
60. Match the following columns.
B) 2 1 3 4 [Pg-317,318,M]
C) 1 2 3 4
D) 1 2 4 3 Column-I Column-II
56. What change would you find in a (a) Synaptic (1) Bind to
polarised membrane after a stimulus is vesicles neurotransmitters
applied at a particular point (P)?
[Pg-318,M] (b) Receptors of (2) Contain
A) The whole membrane becomes post- neurotransmitters
impermeable to Na+ ions. synaptic
B) At point P, the membrane allows membrane
movement of Na+ and K+ equally.
C) At point P, the membrane becomes
permeable to Na+ ions. (c) Electrical (3) Rare in human
D) At point P, the membrane becomes synapse system
impermeable to both Na+ and K+
(d) Chemical (4) Slow conduction
ions.
synapse of nerve impulse
57. A depolarised axonal membrane
contains [Pg-318,E]
A) equal amount of Na+ and K+ ions at Select the correct option.
outside and inside. a b c d
102
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
A) 2 1 3 4 C) neurotransmitters
D) proenzymes
B) 2 1 4 3
66. Consider the following statements.
C) 1 2 3 4 (A) The neurotransmitters help in the
D) 1 2 4 3 transmission of impulses at chemical
synapses.
(B) Neurotransmitters have no role in
61. Which of the following set of structures
electrical synapses. Select the correct
constitutes a synapse? [Pg-318,E]
statement. [Pg-319,M]
A) Axon terminal, synaptic vesicles,
A) A is true, B is false.
receptors.
B) A is false, B is true.
B) Presynaptic and pest synaptic
C) Both A and B are false.
membranes.
D) Both A and B are true.
C) Synaptic cleft, receptors, post
67. The neurotransmitter-filled synaptic
synaptic membrane.
vesicles are found in [Pg-319,E]
D) Presynaptic membrane, synaptic
A) post synaptic membranes
cleft, post synaptic membrane.
B) receptor sites of post-synaptic
62. During an action potential [Pg-317,E]
vesicles
(1) impulse is conducted along the axons
C) axon-terminal
(2) Na+ ions move outwards
D) tips of dendrites
(3) permeability of membrane to K+ ions
68. From the following diagram of axon
decreases
terminal and synapse, identify at least
Select the most appropriate option.
two correctly labelled structures.
A) 1, 2, 3 are correct.
[Pg-319,E]
B) 1 and 2 are correct.
C) 1 and 3 are correct.
D) Only 1 is correct.
Para- 21.3.2
Transmission of impulses
104
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
105
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
90. Which part of the brain is responsible for (b) White matter (2) Neurosecretory
thermoregulation? [Pg-321,E] cells
A) Hypothalamus
(c) Amygdala (3) Between
B) Corpus callosum
thalamus and
C) Medulla oblongata
pons
D) Cerebrum
(d) Midbrain (4) Part of limbic
91. Which of the following structure or
region is incorrectly paired with its system
function? [Pg-321,M]
A) Medulla oblongata: Controls Select the correct option.
respiration and cardiovascular a b c d
reflexes. A) 3 2 1 4
B) Limbic system: Consists of fibre B) 2 1 4 3
tracts that interconnect different C) 1 3 2 4
regions of brain; controls movement. D) 4 2 3 1
C) Hypothalamus: Production of
releasing hormones and regulation of 96. Cerebral aqueduct is found in
temperature, hunger and thirst. [Pg-321,E]
D) Corpus callosum: Band of fibres A) forebrain
connecting left and right cerebral B) midbrain
hemispheres. C) hindbrain
92. Limbic system within human brain is D) in between forebrain and midbrain
found [Pg-321,M] 97. Corpora quadrigemina are [Pg-321,E]
A) at the base of brain stem A) four rounded swellings at dorsal
B) inner portion of cerebral portion of midbrain.
hemispheres B) two plate-like structures which
C) adjacent to cerebellum separate forebrain and midbrain.
D) above the cerebral cortex C) circular hollow brain ventricles
93. All the listed structures are the parts of containing cerebrospinal fluid.
limbic system except [Pg-321,E] D) elongated, cylindrical canals which
A) Hippocampus connect midbrain to brainstem.
B) amygdala Hindbrain
C) medulla 98. Which of the following structures is not
D) hypothalamus found in hindbrain? [Pg-321,E]
94. Consider the following statements. A) Pons B) Cerebellum
(A) Limbic system regulates endocrine C) Medulla D) Hippocampus
activities along with hypothalamus. 99. What is the function of pons? [Pg-321,E]
(B) Limbic system helps to regulate A) It conveys information from midbrain
excitement, pleasure, rage and fear. to target organs.
Select the correct option. [Pg-321,M] B) It controls involuntary smooth
A) A is true, B is false. muscles and voluntary skeletal
B) Both A and B are true. muscles.
C) A is false, B is true. C) It interconnects different regions of
D) Both A and B are false. the brain.
95. Match the following columns. D) All of these.
[Pg-320,321,M] 100. How can cerebellum be differentiated
Column-I Column-II from the pons of hindbrain? [Pg-321,M]
(a) Hypothalamus (1) Inner part of A) Cerebellum has white matter outside
cerebral cortex while pons contain grey matter
outside.
106
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
C) involuntary response to
environmental stimulus which does
not involve CNS.
D) Both (B) and (C)
109. The reflex actions are controlled by
[Pg-322,E]
A) CNS B) PNS
C) ANS D) Both (B) and (C)
110. The reflex pathway is composed of
[Pg-322,E] Select the correct option.
A) afferent neurons only A B C
B) efferent neurons only
A) White Afferent Efferent
C) motor neurons only
matter nerve nerve
D) Both (A) and (B)
111. Consider the following statements. B) Dorsal Interneuron Motor
[Pg-322,M] root endplate
(A) Afferent neurons are found close to ganglion
the sensory organs. C) Grey White Interneuron
(B) The efferent neurons carry signals Matter matter
from CNS to the effectors.
Select the correct option. D) Motor Grey receptor
A) A is true, B is false. neuron matter
B) Both A and B are false.
C) A is false, B is true. 116. Assertion: All autonomic actions of body
D) Both A and B are true. are reflex action.
112. Which of the following option represents Reason: Reflex actions do not require
the correct sequence of nerve impulse CNS. [Pg-322,H]
transmission in a reflex arc? [Pg-322,M] A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
A) Interneuron Dorsal root ganglion and Reason is correct explanation of
Sensory organ Assertion.
B) CNS Efferent neuron Interneuron B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
C) Sensory organ Afferent neuron but Reason is not the correct
Dorsal root ganglion explanation of Assertion.
D) Efferent neuron CNS Afferent neuron C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
113. In a reflex arc, what is the role of an D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
interneuron? [Pg-322E] 117. Assertion: Sneezing in response to an
A) It relays impulse to effector at motor allergen is reflex action
end plate. Reason: It is an involuntary action.
B) It transmits impulse from the white [Pg-322,H]
matter to grey matter of spinal cord. A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
C) It receives impulse from afferent and Reason is correct explanation of
neuron and transmits it to motor Assertion.
neuron. B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
D) It connects two dorsal root ganglions. but Reason is not the correct
114. Among the following listed structures, explanation of Assertion.
knee-jerk doesn’t involve [Pg-322,E] C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
A) motor neuron B) spinal cord D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
C) interneuron D) brain 118. Assertion: In a reflex arc, efferent neuron
115. In the given diagram of reflex action, receives signal from sensory organ.
identify A, B and C. [Pg-322,M] Reason: The afferent neuron relays
impulses to PNS in a reflex arc.
108
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
(A) Cornea is the anterior portion of 134. What is the correct description about
sclera. iris? [Pg-324,E]
(B) Cornea helps to refract the light A) Nonvascular, opaque portion of eye
entering the eyes. B) Pigmented, opaque and vascular
Select the correct option. [Pg-323,M] structure of eye.
A) A is true, B is false. C) Nonvascular, visible coloured portion
B) Both A and B are false. of eye.
C) A is false, B is true. D) Vascular, non-pigmented posterior
D) Both A and B are true. most portion of eye.
130. Which of the following statement is 135. The transparent lens in the human eye
correct? [Pg-323,M] is held in its place by [Pg-324,E]
A) Cornea consists of dense connective A) ligament attached to ciliary body
tissue of elastin and can repair B) ligaments attached to the iris
itself. C) smooth muscles attached to the iris
B) Cornea is convex, transparent layer D) smooth muscles attached to the
which is highly vascularised. ciliary body
C) Cornea consists of dense matrix of 136. An aperture in front of lens is called
collagen and is the most sensitive [Pg-324,E]
portion of the eye. A) fovea B) blind spot
D) Cornea is an external, transparent C) pupil D) iris
and protective proteinaceous 137. The diameter of pupil is regulated by
covering of the eyeball. [Pg-324,E]
131. Match the following columns. A) aqueous humor B) retina
[Pg-323,324,M] C) rods D) iris
Column-I Column-II 138. How many neural cells are found in
(a) Retina (1) Contains retina? [Pg-324,E]
blood vessels A) Two B) Five
C) Three D) Four
(b) Sclera (2) Neural cells
139. The arrangement of neural cells in retina
(c) Choroid (3) Dense from inside to outside is [Pg-324,E]
connective A) ganglion cells, bipolar cells,
tissue photoreceptors cells.
Select the correct option. B) photoreceptor cells, ganglion cells,
a b c bipolar cells.
A) 1 2 3 C) bipolar cells, ganglion cells,
B) 3 1 2 photoreceptor cells.
C) 1 3 2 D) bipolar cells, photoreceptor cells,
ganglion cells.
D) 2 3 1
140. Within retina, the rods and cones are the
132. Which of the following statement is type of [Pg-324,E]
correct regarding choroid? [Pg-323,E] A) bipolar and photoreceptor cells,
A) It contains numerous blood vessels. respectively
B) It has no role in vision. B) ganglion cells
C) It is the major component of the lens C) photoreceptor cells
of eyes. D) photoreceptor and ganglion cells
D) It secretes aqueous humor. 141. Consider the following statements.
133. The ciliary body is the anterior part of (A) Photopigments are light sensitive
[Pg-323,E] proteins in rods and cones.
A) sclera B) retina (B) Rods contain rhodopsin while cones
C) cornea D) choroid contain three different type of
photopigments.
110
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
111
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
112
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
113
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
114
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
(II) Waves in the lymph of cochlea C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(III) Vibration of ear drum D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(IV) Pressing of hair cells against the 189. Assertion: The hair cells of organ of corti
tectorial membrane Select the acts as auditory receptors.
correct order in which the following Reason: The base of hair cells is in close
events occur. contact with afferent fibres of auditory
A) II, III, I, IV B) I, IV, II, III nerves. [Pg-325,H]
C) III, II, I, IV D) II, IV, I, III A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
187. How does the nerve impulses in ear are and Reason is correct explanation of
generated? [Pg-327,E] Assertion.
A) Due to the bending of hair cells B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
towards tectorial membrane. but Reason is not the correct
B) Due to the vibrations in utricle and explanation of Assertion.
otoliths. C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
C) Due to the streaming of perilymph in D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
semicircular canals. 190. Assertion: Vestibular apparatus has no
D) Due to the contact between crista role in hearing.
ampularis and macula. Reason: Crista and macula helps in
188. Assertion: Stapes is found attached to maintaining body posture and balance.
the tympanic membrane. [Pg-326,H]
Reason: Stapes is the largest ear bone. A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
[Pg-326,H] and Reason is correct explanation of
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true Assertion.
and Reason is correct explanation of B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
Assertion. but Reason is not the correct
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, explanation of Assertion.
but Reason is not the correct C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
explanation of Assertion. D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
Answer Key
NEURAL CONTROL AND COORDINATION
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans D D C A B A B C B C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A B D C B C D A A D
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D D C C D C B D B C
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C A C C B C B B A D
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans A A C B D D D C C B
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans D C C B B C B A B A
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans D C A D C D C B B D
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans C A C D D C A C C B
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans C A D B B C A D D A
116
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans B B C B B B A D C B
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans C A D C A C A B A D
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans D C C D B D B D D C
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans A B D C C B B A D C
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans D A D B A C D C A C
Q 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans B B C D A D D C A A
Q 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans B A D C A C A C C B
Q 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Ans B A C C D A C D C A
Q 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans B B A D C A B D B D
Q 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Ans A C B A C C A D A B
117
NCERT LINE BY LINE
10 Chemical Control and Coordination
62. The fight or flight response generated by D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
the release of hormones by adrenal
Paragraph- 22.2.8
medulla includes [Pg- 336,M]
A) dilation of pupils and increased heart Pancreas
rate and blood pressure. 68. Which of the following pairs of endocrine
B) glycogenolysis and lipid synthesis. glands are composite glands?
C) increased muscular movement of the [Pg- 337,E]
gastrointestinal tract. A) Pancreas and thymus gland
D) reduced blood glucose levels. B) Adrenal glands and thymus gland
63. Which of the following hormones of the C) Pancreas and adrenal gland
adrenal cortex are correctly matched D) Adrenal gland and pineal gland
with their source? [Pg- 337,E] 69. The cells that make about 70% of the
A) Mineralocorticoids - Zona fasciculata cells of the pancreatic islets serve to
cells secrete [Pg- 337,E]
B) Glucocorticoids - Zona glomerulosa A) insulin
cells B) glucagon
C) Androgens - Zona glomerulosa cells C) somatostatin
D) Glucocorticoids - Zona fasciculata D) pancreatic polypeptide
cells 70. Alpha and delta cells of pancreatic
64. Glucocorticoids are involved in islands are the source of [Pg- 337,E]
[Pg- 337,E] A) glucagon and insulin respectively
A) fluid electrolyte balance B) somatostatin and glucagon
B) carbohydrate metabolism respectively
C) water reabsorption from kidneys C) glucagon and somatostatin
D) regulation of blood glucose levels respectively
65. Which of the following sets of D) insulin and glucagon respectively
physiological functions correctly 71. Which of the following hormones is
describes the role of cortisol in the correctly matched with its
human body? [NCERT Exemplar] description/effects? [Pg- 338,E]
[Pg- 337,M] A) Hyperglycemic hormone: Glucagon
A) Anti-inflammatory response and B) Hypoglycemia: Glucagon
suppression of the immune response C) Hypercalcemic hormone: Calcitonin
B) Breakdown of RBCs in spleen D) Addison’s disease: Catecholamines.
C) Upregulation of uptake of amino 72. Which of the given statements correctly
acids differentiates glycogenolysis from
D) Reabsorption of Na+ from kidneys glycogenesis? [Pg- 338,M]
66. Target organ/structure of aldosterone is A) Glycogenolysis is the formation of
[NCERT Exemplar] [Pg- 337,E] glycogen from glucose and is triggered
A) renal calyces by glucagon.
B) renal tubules B) Glycogenolysis is a breakdown of
C) glomerulus glycogen into glucose and is triggered
D) Bowman’s capsule by insulin.
67. Assertion: Adrenal medullary hormones C) Glycogenesis is the conversion of
regulate the fluid-electrolyte balance of glucose into glycogen and is
the body. stimulated by insulin.
Reason: Aldosterone is a glucocorticoid D) Glycogenesis is the formation of
that raises blood sodium levels. glucose from non-carbohydrate
[Pg- 337,H] substrates.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true 73. Diabetes mellitus is a disorder of
and Reason is correct explanation of carbohydrate metabolism and is
Assertion. characterised by [Pg- 338,E]
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, A) polyuria B) polydipsia
but Reason is not the correct C) polyphagia D) all of these
explanation of Assertion. 74. The water-soluble fuels that are normally
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. exported by the liver but overproduced
124
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
86. Which of the following set of hormones is A) Testis and ovary function as a
known as female sex hormones? primary sex organ as well as
[Pg- 338,E] endocrine gland
A) FSH and LH B) Ovaries are located in thoracic cavity
B) Estrogen and progesterone of females
C) FSH and estrogen C) Ovary produces ovum, 2 groups of
D) LH and estrogen steroid hormones (estrogen and
87. Match the following structures in progesterone)
Column-I with the correct description in D) Ovary is composed of ovarian follicles
Column-II. [Pg- 338,339,M] and stromal tissue
Column-I Column-II 93. Which of the following hormone is
(a) Ovarian follicles (1) progesterone synergistic to human growth hormone?
(b) Corpus luteum (2) LH [Pg- 338,E]
(c) Graafian follicle (3) prolactin A) Estrogen
(d) Mammary glands (4) estrogen B) Progesterone
Select the correct option. C) Inhibin
(a) (b) (c) (d) D) Androgen binding protein
(A) 4 3 2 1 94. After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is
(B) 4 1 2 3 converted into- [Pg- 338,E]
(C) 3 4 2 1
A) Graafian follicle
(D) 3 1 4 2
B) Corpus callosum
C) FSH
88. A temporary endocrine gland in the
D) LH
human body is [NEET–2017] [Pg- 338,E]
95. The hormone responsible to prepare and
A) pineal gland
maintain endometrium for implantation
B) corpus cardiacum
of a fertilized ovum is: [Pg- 339,E]
C) corpus luteum
A) FSH B) LH
D) corpus allatum
C) Progesterone D) Inhibin
89. Which of the following statement is
96. Assertion: Corpus luteum is a temporary
incorrect about the effects and regulation
endocrine gland.
of female sex hormones?
Reason: Corpus luteum secretes female
[Pg- 338,339,M]
sex hormones. [Pg- 338,E]
A) Ovarian and uterine cycles are under
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
the regulation of Gonadotropin-
and Reason is correct explanation of
releasing hormone.
Assertion.
B) In females, FSH triggers the
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
development of follicles.
but Reason is not the correct
C) Ovarian follicles secrete estrogen
explanation of Assertion.
under influence of FSH and LH.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
D) Estrogen from ovarian follicles is
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
converted into progesterone.
90. Which of the following hormones Paragraph- 22.3
regulates the formation of corpus luteum Hormones of Heart, Kidney and
and stimulates it to release hormones? Gastrointestinal Tract
[Pg- 338,E]
A) FSH B) LH 97. Atrial natriuretic hormone I factor (ANF)
C) Estrogen D) Androgens secreted by atrial wall of our heart has
91. Which of the following hormones is exactly the opposite function of this
secreted by corpus luteum? [NCERT hormone secreted by zona glomerulosa –
Exemplar] [Pg- 338,E] [Pg- 339,E]
A) Estrogens B) Progesterone A) ADH B) Aldosterone
C) Relaxin D) LH C) Androgen D) Calcitonin
92. Which of the following statements is 98. Match the hormones in Column-I with
incorrect? [Pg- 338,M] their functions in Column-II. [Pg- 339,M]
Column-I Column-II
126
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
127
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
[Pg- 340,E]
A) A-I , B - II, C - III , D - IV A) amino acid B) carbohydrate
B) A- IV, B - III, C - II , D - I C) steroid D) nucleic acid
C) A- IV, B – III , C - I, D - II 114. Which of the given hormones is
D) A- I, B - II, C - IV, D - III incorrectly matched with its source
106. Steroid hormones initiate the production amino acid? [Pg- 340,M]
of target cell substances in which A) Serotonin: Tryptophan
manner? [Pg- 340,E] B) Histamine: Histidine
A) They initiate second messenger C) Epinephrine: Tyrosine
activity D) Melatonin: Alanine
B) They bind with membrane protein 115. The amino acid tryptophan is the
C) They initiate DNA transcription precursor for the synthesis of
D) They activate enzyme pathways [Pg- 340,M]
107. Why do some hormones (first messenger) A) estrogen and progesterone
need to trigger a "second messenger" to B) cortisol and cortisone
activate a target cell? [Pg- 340,M] C) melatonin and serotonin
A) The first messenger needs activation D) thyroxin and triiodothyronine
of ATP 116. Which of the following statement
B) The first messenger cannot cross a correctly differentiate the transport of
plasma membrane water-soluble and lipid soluble
C) There are no specific cell surface hormones in blood? [Pg- 340,M]
receptors for first messenger A) Most of the lipid-soluble hormones
D) The first messenger is not a water- are bound to transport proteins.
soluble molecule B) Most of the water-soluble hormones
108. Which of the following category of are bound to transport proteins.
hormones is incorrectly matched with its C) Transport proteins enhance the rate
examples? [Pg- 340,E] of hormone loss in urine
A) Protein hormone: Insulin D) Transport proteins are synthesized in
B) Steroids: Cortisol muscles.
C) Iodothyronines: Thyroid hormones 117. Receptors for protein hormones are
D) Amino-acid derivatives: Oxytocin mostly present at/in [NCERT Exemplar]
109. Which of the following categories of the [Pg- 339,E]
hormones is water-insoluble? A) nucleus B) nuclear envelop
[Pg- 340,E] C) cell surface D) cytoplasm
A) Eicosanoids 118. Which of the given statement is correct
B) Peptide hormones about the mechanism of water soluble
C) Amines hormones? [Pg- 339,340,M]
D) Steroid hormones A) Hormones bind to their cytoplasmic
110. Which of the given hormones is/are receptors present in the target cells.
second messengers? [Pg- 340,E] B) The hormone-receptor complex alters
A) cAMP B) IP3 the gene expression.
C) Ca+2 D) All C) Hormones serve as the first
111. Which of the following hormones does messenger and cause the production
not act by a second messenger system? of a second messenger.
[Pg- 340,E] D) The newly formed proteins produce a
A) Glucagon B) Epinephrine physiological response.
C) FSH D) Testosterone 119. Which of the following molecules serve as
112. Which of the given sets of endocrine the second messenger in the mechanism
gland secrete/ release only water-soluble of action of a protein hormone?
hormones? [Pg- 340,E] [Pg- 340,E]
A) Pancreas and thyroid gland A) T3 B) cAMP
B) Parathyroid gland and pineal gland C) T4 D) protein kinases
C) Adrenal gland and thyroid gland 120. Following is the diagrammatic
D) Parathyroid gland and pancreas representation of the mechanism of
113. Epinephrine is _________ derivative. action of a protein hormone. Which of the
128
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
129
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
Answer Key
CHEMICAL CONTROL AND COORDINATION
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans B A C A B C D A D D
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans B B A B C D B C B A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans A A D D C C C D C B
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans B D D A B A C D A C
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans C B C B A D C C B C
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans D C C B B C D A A A
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans C A B B A B D C A C
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans A C D C C B D B C A
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans C C D C D B B C D B
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans B B A C C A B C D C
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans A B C D B C B D D D
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans D B A D C A C C B C
Q 121 122 123 124
Ans B A D B
130
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
CLASS – XIIth
ZOOLOGY
LINE BY LINE
131
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
11 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
Reproduction in Organisms:
132
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
b Rhizome (ii)
c Bulbil (iii)
a b
A) Eyes Germinating
eye bud
B) Germinating eye Eyes bud
C) Buds Adventitious
d Leaf buds (iv)
root
D) Adventitious root Buds
134
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
138
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
ANSWER KEY
REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans A D C B C D C D A C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A A A A B A C A A A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans C C A A B A B A D D
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans D D A B B B A B B A
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans B A D C D C A B B A
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans C B C A B A C B C A
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans C B B C C C A B B A
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76
Ans B B A D B B
139
NCERT LINE BY LINE
12 Human Reproduction
141
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
[Pg-44,M] Para-3.2
(I) Seminal plasma is secreted by
seminal vesicles, prostate and The Female Reproductive System
bulbourethral glands.
(II) It is rich in sucrose and calcium. 22. The primary female sex organ is/are
(III) It contains certain enzymes also. [Pg-44,E]
(A) I and II (B) II and III
(C) I and III (D) All of these (A) vagina
19. Read the following statements about (B) uterus
male reproductive system and choose the (C) ovaries
incorrect statements from the given (D) external genitalia
options. [Pg-43,M] 23. Among the following which one is not the
(I) It is located in the pelvis region. part of female reproductive system?
(II) The testes are situated outside [Pg-44,E]
the abdominal cavity within a (A) Cervix (B) Sertoli cells
pouch called scrotum. (C) Mammary glands (D) Oviducts
(III) Each testis has about 350 24. The parts that constitute the female
testicular tubules. accessory ducts include [Pg-45,E]
(IV) Penis, the male external genitalia (A) Fallopian ducts (B) vagina
is made up of special tissues to (C) ovaries (D) both (a) and (b)
facilitate insemination. 25. The funnel-shaped part of Fallopian tube
that remains closer to the ovary is –
(A) I and III (B) III and IV [Pg-45,E]
(C) I and IV (D) Only III (A) infundibulum (B) fimbriae
(C) ampulla (D) isthmus
20. Assertion: The scrotum helps in 26. The part of the oviduct that joins the
maintaining the low temperature of the uterus is [Pg-46,E]
testes. (A) ampulla (B) isthmus
Reason: The low temperature of the (C) fimbriae (D) infundibulum
testes is necessary for spermatogenesis. 27. The uterus is also called [Pg-46,E]
[Pg-43,H] (A) womb (B) cervix
(A) Both assertion and reason are true (C) cervical canal (D) none of these
and reason is the correct explanation 28. The inner glandular layer that lines the
of assertion. uterine cavity is [Pg-46,E]
(B) Both assertion and reason are true, (A) perimetrium (B) myometrium
but reason is not the correct (C) endometrium (D) ectometrium
explanation of assertion. 29. The uterine layer that undergoes cyclical
(C) Assertion is true, but reason is false. changes during menstrual cycle is
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. [Pg-46,E]
21. Assertion: The enlarged part of penis is (A) myometrium (B) endometrium
called glans penis. (C) perimetrium (D) both (a) and (b)
Reason: The glans penis is covered by a 30. Which uterine layer exhibits strong
loose fold of skin called foreskin. contractions during the delivery of the
[Pg-44,H] baby? [Pg-46,E]
(A) Both assertion and reason are true (A) Endometrium (B) Perimetrium
and reason is the correct explanation (C) Myometrium (D) Both (a) and (c)
of assertion. 31. The female external genitalia include
(B) Both assertion and reason are true, [Pg-46,E]
but reason is not the correct (A) mons pubis (B) labia majora
explanation of assertion. (C) clitoris (D) all of these
(C) Assertion is true, but reason is false. 32. The opening of the vagina is often covered
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. partially by a membrane called [Pg-46,E]
142
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
42. Read the following statements about (C) Assertion is correct, but reason is
mammary glands and choose the incorrect.
incorrect statement. [Pg-47,M] (D) Both assertion and reason are
(I) The mammary glands contain incorrect.
glandular tissue and fat. 46. Assertion: Mons pubis is a cushion of
(II) The mammary lobes of breasts fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic
contain alveoli which secrete milk. hair.
(III) The milk secreted by alveoli is stored Reason: The labia majora are paired
in lactiferous duct. folds of tissue under the labia minora.
(A) Only II (B) Only III [Pg-46,H]
(C) Only I (D) I and III (A) Both assertion and reason are correct
43. Assertion: Ovaries are the primary sex and reason is the correct explanation
organs. of assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct
Reason: Ovaries produce the female but reason is not the correct
gamete. [Pg-44,H] explanation of assertion.
(A) Both assertion and reason are correct (C) Assertion is correct, but reason is
and reason is the correct explanation incorrect.
of assertion. (D) Both assertion and reason are
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct incorrect.
but reason is not the correct 47. Assertion: The alveoli of mammary lobes
explanation of assertion. open into their lumen.
(C) Assertion is correct, but reason is Reason: Several lactiferous ducts join to
incorrect. form a mammary duct through which
(D) Both assertion and reason are milk is sucked out. [Pg-47,H]
incorrect.
44. Assertion: Ovaries produce gamete as (A) Both assertion and reason are
well as steroid hormones. correct and reason is the correct
Reason: The oviducts, ovaries and cervix explanation of assertion.
constitute the female accessory ducts. (B) Both assertion and reason are
[Pg-44,H] correct but reason is not the correct
(A) Both assertion and reason are correct explanation of assertion.
and reason is the correct explanation (C) Assertion is correct, but reason is
of assertion. incorrect.
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct (D) Both assertion and reason are
but reason is not the correct incorrect.
explanation of assertion. Para-3.3
(C) Assertion is correct, but reason is
incorrect. Gametogenesis
(D) Both assertion and reason are
incorrect. 48. The process of producing gametes by
45. Assertion: The uterus opens into vagina primary sex organs is known as-
through a narrow cervix. [Pg-47,E]
Reason: The cavity of cervix is called (A) gametogenesis
cervical canal. [Pg-46,H] (B) spermatogenesis
(A) Both assertion and reason are correct (C) oogenesis
and reason is the correct explanation (D) none of these
of assertion. 49. The immature, diploid male germ cells
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct that produce sperms are [Pg-47,E]
but reason is not the correct (A) spermatogonia
explanation of assertion. (B) secondary spermatocytes
(C) spermatids
144
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
145
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
146
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
(d) Secondary (4) More layers Reason: Millions of oogonia are formed
oocyte of granulosa within each ovary every month. [Pg-48,H]
Codes-
(A) Both assertion and reason are true
a b c d and reason is the correct explanation
(A) 4 3 2 1 of assertion.
(B) 1 2 3 4 (B) Both assertion and reason true but
(C) 2 1 4 3 reason is not the correct explanation
(D) 3 4 2 1 of assertion.
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
68. Extrusion of second polar body from egg (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
nucleus occurs [NEET 2019] [Pg-49,M] 72. Assertion: A large haploid secondary
(A) after entry of sperm, but before oocyte is formed due to unequal division.
fertilisation Reason: A tiny second polar body is
(B) after fertilisation formed during this division. [Pg-48,H]
(C) before entry of sperm into ovum (A) Both assertion and reason are true
(D) simultaneously with first cleavage and reason is the correct explanation
69. Refer to the given figure showing of assertion.
diagrammatic section view of ovary. The (B) Both assertion and reason true but
encircled part of figure is showing a reason is not the correct explanation
process of oogenesis. Identify it as well as of assertion.
the follicle which is involved in this (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
process. [Pg-49,E] (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
Para-3.4
Menstrual Cycle
148
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
149
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
98. Choose the incorrect statement from the (B) Both assertion and reason are true
following. [NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-51,M] but reason is not the correct
(I) High levels of estrogen triggers the explanation of assertion.
ovulatory surge. (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(II) Oogonial cells start to proliferate and (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
give rise to functional ova in regular 102. Assertion: During pregnancy, all events
cycles from puberty onwards. of the menstrual cycle stop.
(III) Sperms released from seminiferous
tubules are poorly motile/non-motile. Reason: In the absence of fertilisation, the
(IV) Progesterone level is high during the corpus luteum degenerates. [Pg-51,H]
post ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle. (A) Both assertion and reason are true and
(A) I and III (B) II and IV reason is the correct explanation of
(C) I and IV (D) I and II assertion.
99. Consider the following features. (B) Both assertion and reason are true but
[Pg-51,M] reason is not the correct explanation of
(i) Transformation of Graafian follicle into assertion.
corpus luteum. (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(ii) Secretion of large amount of (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
progesterone from corpus luteum. Para-3.5
(iii) Maintenance of endometrial lining of
the uterus. Fertilization and Implantation
Select the correct phase of menstrual
cycle that possesses all the above 103. The sperms released during copulation,
characteristics. finally reach to which part of the
(A) Follicular phase Fallopian tube? [Pg-51,E]
(B) Secretory phase (A) Infundibulum
(C) Proliferative phase (B) Isthmus
(D) Ovulatory phase (C) Ampulla
100. Assertion: The lack of mensuration may (D) Ampullary-isthmic
be indicative of pregnancy. 104. All copulations not lead to the
Reason: Mensuration only occurs if the fertilisation and pregnancy. Choose the
released ovum is not fertilised. [Pg-50,H] correct reason for the same from the
following options. [Pg-51,M]
(A) Both assertion and reason are true (A) Fertilisation can only occur if sperms
and reason is the correct explanation are transported to the ampullary-
of assertion. isthmic junction before the ovum.
(B) Both assertion and reason are true (B) Fertilisation can only occur if the
but reason is not the correct ovum and sperms are transported
explanation of assertion. simultaneously to the ampullary-
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false. isthmic junction.
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. (C) Fertilisation can only occur if ovum is
101. Assertion: During secretory phase the transported to the ampullary–isthmic
levels of LH and FSH gradually increase. junction before the sperms.
Reason: The increased levels of FSH and (D) None of these
LH induce Graafian follicles to secrete 105. Capacitation occurs in [NEET–2017]
progesterone. [Pg-51,H] [Pg-51,M]
(A) Both assertion and reason are true (A) epididymis
and reason is the correct explanation (B) vas deferens
of assertion. (C) female reproductive tract
(D) rete testis
106. Capacitation refers to changes in the
[AIPMT-2015] [Pg-51,M]
150
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
(B) Y-chromosomes
(C) 50% gametes have X and 50% have Y-
chromosomes
(D) 25% gametes have X and 75% have Y-
chromosomes
120. Cleavage that occurs in the zygote as it
moves through the isthmus of oviduct
towards the uterus is [Pg-52,E]
(A) meiotic division
(B) mitotic division
(C) reductional division
(D) none of these
121. Match the following and choose the
correct option from the codes given
below. [Pg-52,533,M]
(A) Morula Blastocyst Trophoblast Inner cell
mass
(B) Blastocyst Morula Trophoblast Inner cell Column I Column II
mass (a) Trophoblast (1) Embedding of
(C) Morula Blastocyst Inner cell mass Blastocyst in
Trophoblast the
(D) Blastocyst Morula Inner cell mass endometrium
Trophoblast (b) Cleavage (2) Group of cells
115. The blastomeres in the blastocyst are that would
differentiate as
arranged into [Pg-52,E]
embryo
(A) an outer trophoblast and inner cell (c) Inner cell (3) Outer layer of
mass mass blastocyst
attached to the
(B) an outer cell mass and inner
endometrium
trophoblast
(d) Implantation (4) Mitotic division
(C) an outer cell mass and inner cell mass of zygote
(D) none of these Codes-
116. During embryogenesis which part of
blastocyst gets differentiated into a b c d
embryo? [Pg-53,E] (A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(A) Trophoblast (B) Inner cell mass (C) 3 1 2 4
(C) Morula (D) Both (a) and (b) (D) 2 4 3 1
117. The embedding of blastocyst in the
endometrium of uterus is called
[Pg-53,E] 122. Refer to the given figure showing
transport of ovum, fertilisation and
(A) pregnancy (B) lactation passage of growing embryo through
(C) embryogenesis (D) implantation Fallopian tube. The figure is followed by
118. Extrusion of second polar body from egg four statements. Choose the incorrect
nucleus occurs [NEET–2015] [Pg-52,M] statement about it. [Pg-52,M]
(A) after entry of sperm but before
fertilisation
(B) after fertilisation
(C) before entry of sperm into ovum
(D) simultaneously with first cleavage
119. All the haploid gametes produced by the
female have [Pg-53,M]
(A) X-chromosomes
152
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
(C) Assertion is true, but reason is false. (B) The foetal ejection reflex triggers
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. release of oxytocin from the
Para-3.7 hypothalamus.
(C) Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscles.
Parturition and Lactation (D) The placenta is also expelled out of
the uterus after the delivery of infant.
147. The duration of pregnancy is called 153. Which of the following hormones is
[Pg-54,E] responsible for both the milk ejection
(A) parturition (B) lactation reflex and the foetal ejection reflex?
(C) gestation period (D) none of these [Odisha, NEET-2019] [Pg-54,M]
148. The process of delivery of the foetus is (A) Relaxin (B) Estrogen
called [Pg-54,E] (C) Prolactin (D) Oxytocin
(A) lactation 154. The milk produced during the initial few
(B) parturition days of lactation is called [Pg-54,E]
(C) foetal ejection reflex
(D) none of these (A) colostrum (B) first milk
149. The signals for parturition originate from (C) milky water (D) none of these
the [Pg-54,E] 155. Choose the incorrect statement from the
(A) fully developed foetus following. [NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-54,M]
(B) placenta
(A) Internal fertilisation takes place, in
(C) umbilical cord
birds and mammals.
(D) both (A) and (B)
(B) Colostrum contains antibodies and
150. Match Column-I with Column-II and
nutrients.
choose the correct option from the codes
(C) Polyspermy is prevented by chemical
given below. [Pg-54,M]
changes on the egg surface.
Column I Column II (D) In the human female implantation
(a) Gestation (1) Mild uterine occurs almost seven days after
period contractions fertilisation.
(b) Parturition (2) Duration of 156. Colostrum contains [Pg-54,E]
pregnancy
(c) Foetal (3) Process of (A) antibodies
ejection delivery of the (B) nutrients
reflex foetus (C) enzymes
(d) After birth (4) Placental (D) both (A) and (B)
expulsion 157. Assertion: Parturition is a complex
Codes- neuroendocrine mechanism.
a b C d Reason: The signals of parturition
(A) 2 3 1 4 originate from the fully developed fetus
(B) 2 4 1 3 and placenta. [Pg-54,H]
(C) 4 3 2 1 (A) Both assertion and reason are true
(D) 1 2 3 4 and reason is the correct explanation
of assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are true,
151. The process of milk production is called but reason is not the correct
[Pg-54,E] explanation of assertion.
(A) lactation (B) parturition (C) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(C) after birth (D) colostrum (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
152. Choose the incorrect statement from the 158. Assertion: The mammary glands of the
following: [Pg-54,M] female undergo differentiation after
(A) Parturition is induced by a complex parturition.
neuroendocrine mechanism. Reason: Lactation always starts after
childbirth. [Pg-54,H]
156
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
157
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
Answer key:
HUMAN REPRODUCTION
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans B C B D A B D B A D
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A A A C B B B C D A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans B C B D A B A C B C
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans D A C B A B A B A B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans C B A C B C D A A B
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans D C C A D B D A C B
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans D A C A A C C A C A
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans D C A B C D D C D A
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans D D B D A C B C C A
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans A B B C A D C A B A
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans D B C B C D B A A B
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans B C A A A B D A A B
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans B A A C B B A C D D
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans D C D D A C C B D B
Q 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans C A B B C D C B D A
Q 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159
Ans A B D A C D B A A
158
NCERT LINE BY LINE
13 Reproduction Health
[Pg-58,E]
PARA-4.1
A) Safe and hygienic sexual practices.
PROBLEMS AND STRATEGIES OF B) Information about postnatal care of
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH mother and child.
1. According to World Health Organisation, C) Information about STDs and AIDS.
a reproductively healthy individual D) Discouraging children from believing
possesses in myths related to sexual practices.
[Pg-57,E] 6. RCH programs helps to curb
A) Functionally and morphologically [Pg-58,E]
normal reproductive organs A) Population explosion
B) Normal emotional and behavioural B) Female foeticide
interactions with society C) Sex abuse
C) Total well-being in all aspects of D) All of these
reproductions 7. Statutory ban on amniocentesis helps to
D) All of these check or prevent
2. Which country commenced the action [Pg-58,E]
plans at national level to achieve total A) Female foeticides and massive child
reproductive health as a social goal? immunization
[Pg-57,E] B) Sexually transmitted diseases
A) China C) Genetic disorders in foetus
B) Japan D) All of these
C) India 8. Consider the following statements:
D) Argentina [Pg-58,M]
3. Consider the following statements: a. In amniocentesis, small sample is
[Pg-57,58,M] taken from the foetus blood.
a. In India, family planning program b. Foetal sex can be determined through
was initiated in 1982. amniocentesis by studying the
b. Reproductive and Child Health Care chromosomal pattern in amniotic
(RCH) program is an improved version fluid.
of family planning programs. Select the correct option.
Select the correct option A) (a) is true, (b) is false
A) (a) is true, (b) is false B) Both (a) and (b) are false
B) Both (a) and (b) are false C) (a) is false, (b) is true
C) (a) is false, (b) is true D) Both (a) and (b) are true
D) Both (a) and (b) are true 9. Amniocentesis can be used to detect all
4. In what way awareness can be created the listed diseases except
among people about reproduction related [Pg-58,E]
aspects? A) Hemophilia
[Pg-58,M] B) Malaria
a. Through audio-visual and print C) Sickle cell anemia
media advertisements. D) Down syndrome
b. Creating fear among adolescents 10. In the context of amniocentesis, which of
about sexual practices. the following statement is incorrect?
c. Introduction of sex education at [NEET-2016]
school. [Pg-58,M]
Select the most appropriate option A) It is used for prenatal sex
A) (a), (b) and (c) are correct determination.
B) (b) and (c) are correct B) It can be used for detection of Down
C) (a) and (b) are correct syndrome.
D) (a) and (c) are correct C) It can be used for detection of cleft
5. While providing sex education to palate.
adolescents at school, which attribute D) It is usually done when a woman is
would be least significant? 14–16 weeks pregnant.
159
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
Column I Column II
(Year) (World
population)
(a) 2011 (1) 2000 million
(b) 1900 (2) 7.2 billion
(c) 2000 (3) 6 billion
D)
a b c
(A) 3 2 1
(B) 1 3 2
(C) 2 1 3
(D) 3 1 2
160
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
161
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
162
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
Select the correct option. C) For seven days daily, during the time
a b c of ovulation
A) 2 1 3 D) Daily, without any gap
B) 2 3 1 44. Consider the following statements.
C) 1 2 3 [Pg-61,M]
D) 1 3 2 (a) Oral contraceptives inhibit ovulation
and implantation to induce
38. All the listed IUDs release copper ions
contraception.
except
(b) Menstrual flow does not occur in
[Pg-60,E]
females after taking oral
A) LNG 20
contraceptives.
B) Cu 7
Select the correct option.
C) Cu T
A) a is true, b is false
D) Multiload 375
B) a is false, b is true
39. What is significance of copper ions in
C) Both a and b are false
contraception?
D) Both a and b are true
[Pg-60,E]
45. Select the incorrect statement regarding
A) They delay ovulation in females.
‘Saheli’.
B) They suppress sperm motility and
[Pg-61,E]
fertilising capacity of sperms.
A) It was developed by CDRI, Lucknow,
C) They increase the level of prolactin so
India.
as to suppress the activity of LH and
B) It contains high amount of
FSH.
progesterone and estrogen.
D) They decrease the libido and sexual
C) It is taken once in a week.
desire of female.
D) It has least side effects and high
40. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-
contraceptive value.
Uterine Devices. [NEET-2019]
46. The contraceptive ‘saheli’ [NEET-2018]
[Pg-60,M]
[Pg-61,M]
A) Multiload 375, Progestasert
A) Blocks estrogen receptors in the
B) Progestasert, LNG-20
uterus, preventing eggs from getting
C) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375
implanted.
D) Vaults, LNG-20
B) Increases the concentration of
41. Which of the following is a correct
estrogen and prevents ovulation in
statement? [NEET-2019]
females
[Pg-60,M]
C) Is an IUD.
A) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
D) Is a post-coital contraceptive.
B) IUDs once inserted need not be
47. Which of the following statement is
replaced
incorrect regarding implants?
C) IUDs are generally inserted by the
[Pg-61,E]
user herself
A) They are used by both males and
D) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms
females.
in the uterus
B) These are placed under the skin.
42. The hormones used for the purpose of
C) They contain progestogens or
contraception in pills and IUDs are
combinations of pills.
[Pg-61,E]
D) They are effective for longer period as
A) Progesterone and estrogen
compared to pills.
B) Estrogen and testosterone
48. All the listed contraceptives are effective
C) LH and progesterone
during emergency to avoid pregnancy,
D) Prolactin and testosterone
except
43. For the effective results of contraception
[Pg-60,61,E]
pills, they should be taken
A) Progestasert
[Pg-61,E]
B) Progestogen pills
A) Once every month on the day of
C) Vaults
ovulation
D) Progesterone-estrogen pills
B) For 21 days daily, followed by a gap
of seven days
163
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
A) Both assertion and reason are true A) Both a and b are false
and the reason is the correct B) a is true, b is false
explanation of assertion. C) a is false, b is true
B) Both assertion and reason are true D) Both a and b are true
but the reason is not the correct 62. Government of India legalised MTP in the
explanation of assertion. year
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. [Pg-62,E]
D) Both assertion and reason are false. A) 1988
58. Assertion: Emergency contraceptives B) 1978
contain high level of steroidal C) 1985
preparation. D) 1971
Reason: Saheli is an emergency 63. To reduce the incidences of illegal
contraceptive. abortions, recent MTP (Amendment) Act
[Pg-61,H] in India was enacted in
A) Both assertion and reason are true [Pg-62,E]
and the reason is the correct A) 2009
explanation of assertion. B) 2011
B) Both assertion and reason are true C) 2017
but the reason is not the correct D) 2019
explanation of assertion. 64. According to MTP Act 2017, a pregnancy
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. may be terminated
D) Both assertion and reason are false. [Pg-62,E]
59. Assertion: After vasectomy, sperms are A) Within first 12 weeks of pregnancy on
not found in the semen or ejaculate. the opinion of one medical
Reason: Vas deferens is cut and tied in practitioner
vasectomy. B) Before first six weeks of pregnancy,
[Pg-62,H] without any opinion
A) Both assertion and reason are true C) Within first 24 weeks of pregnancy on
and the reason is the correct the opinion of one medical
explanation of assertion. practitioner
B) Both assertion and reason are true D) All of these
but the reason is not the correct 65. On what grounds, pregnancy of more
explanation of assertion. than 12 weeks is terminated through
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. MTP in India?
D) Both assertion and reason are false. [Pg-62,M]
A) If it imposes life threatening risks to
PART-4.3 pregnant woman.
MEDICAL TERMINATION OF B) If the female already has three girl
children.
PREGNANCY
C) If the family history of parents has
certain genetic disorder.
60. Medical termination of pregnancy is
D) If the female is widow or divorced.
[Pg-62,E]
66. MTP is considered safe upto
A) Carried out by tubectomy in females
[Pg-62,E]
B) Induced abortion A) 12 weeks
C) Inability to conceive due to certain
B) 24 weeks
problem
C) 26 weeks
D) Menopause stage in females
D) 28 weeks
61. Consider the following statements.
67. A pregnant woman was denied for
[Pg-62,M] undergoing MTP as she was not having
(a) One-fifth of total number of conceived
opinion documents from two registered
pregnancies in a year, all over the
medical practitioners. The duration of
world are terminated through MTP.
her pregnancy might be
(b) MTP restrictions help to check illegal
[Pg-62,E]
female foeticide in India.
A) 8 weeks
Select the correct option.
B) 12 weeks
165
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
B) Before the beginning of puberty age C) Do not share needles and syringes
C) In a menopausing woman D) All of these
D) In elder generation 83. Which of the following sexually
79. Consider the following statements. transmitted diseases do not specially
[Pg-63,M] affect reproductive organs? [NEET-2019]
(a) Sexually transmitted diseases can be [Pg-63,E]
cured completely if detected early and A) Chlamydiasis and AIDS
treated properly. B) Genital warts and Hepatitis-B
(b) Early symptoms of STIs include C) Syphilis and Genital herpes
itching, fluid discharge and swelling D) AIDS and Hepatitis B
in genital areas. 84. Assertion: Gonorrhoea spreads through
Select the correct option. infected needles during blood
A) a is true, a is false transfusion.
B) Both a and b are true Reason: Gonorrhoea cannot be cured
C) a is false, b is true completely.
D) Both a and b are false [Pg-63,H]
80. The consequences of delayed treatment A) Both assertion and reason are true
of STIs include and the reason is the correct
[Pg-63,M] explanation of assertion.
(1) ectopic pregnancy B) Both assertion and reason are true
(2) still births but the reason is not the correct
(3) petric inflammatory diseases explanation of assertion.
(4) uncontrolled growth of cells C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Select the most appropriate option. D) Both assertion and reason are false.
A) (1) and (2) are correct 85. W Assertion: AIDS can be transmitted
B) (3) and (4) are correct through body fluids of affected
C) (1), (2), (3) and (4) are correct individual.
D) (1), (2) and (3) are correct Reason: Hepatitis B virus can be found
81. Match the following sexually transmitted in blood and semen of affected
diseases in Column-I with their individual.
causative agent in Column II and select [Pg-63,H]
the correct option. [NEET-2017] A) Both assertion and reason are true
[Pg-63,M] and the reason is the correct
Column I Column II explanation of assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true
(a) Gonorrhea (1) HIV
but the reason is not the correct
(b) Syphilis (2) Neisseria explanation of assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(c) Genital Warts (3) Treponema D) Both assertion and reason are false.
(d) AIDS (4) Human papilloma – Para-4.5 - Infertility
virus
86. Consider the following statements.
Select the correct option. (a) An infertile couple is unable to
produce children due to
a b c d
immunological disorders only.
A) 4 3 2 1
(b) In human population, males are
B) 2 3 4 1 always fertile while females are either
C) 3 4 1 2 fertile or infertile.
D) 4 2 3 1 [Pg-63,64,M]
Select the correct option
82. W What measures can be taken to A) a is true, b is false
prevent STDs among population? B) Both a and b are true
[Pg-63,E] C) a is false, b is true
A) Use condom during coitus D) Both a and b are false
B) Avoid sex with multiple partners
167
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
87. How does assisted reproductive B) In IUT, embryo with more than eight
techniques, (ART) help an infertile couple blastomeres is extracted from donor’s
to have children? body.
[Pg-64,E] C) ZIFT involves the transfer of embryo
A) By easing the process and procedure into fallopian tube at eight
of adoption. blastomere stage.
B) By treating the disease associated D) In both ZIFT and IUT, embryo is
with infertility. formed inside the female’s body.
C) By carrying out certain fertilisation 94. Consider the following statements.
processes through special [Pg-64,M]
techniques. (a) Embryo formed by in-vivo fertilisation
D) Any of these could be used in intra uterine
88. W IVF stands for transfer.
[Pg-64,E] (b) Fully formed embryo is transferred
A) In vitro fertilisation into the fundus region of uterus in
B) In vivo fertilisation ZIFT. Select the correct option
C) Inter–vaginal fertilisation A) a is true, b is false
D) Intra vaginal fusion B) a is false, b is true
89. Where does fertilisation occur in case of C) Both a and b are false
IVF? D) Both a and b are true
[Pg-64,E] 95. Which ART a woman should adept if she
A) Within the fallopian tube does not ovulate or produce a viable egg?
B) In uterus [Pg-64,E]
C) Outside the body A) ICSI B) AI
D) Inside vagina C) GIFT D) IUI
90. In test tube baby program, embryo 96. Match the following columns.
transfer [Pg-64,M]
[Pg-64,E]
A) Is not possible Column I Column II
B) Can be done at eight blastomere stage
C) Can be done after the eight Transfer of ovum into
blastomere stage (a) ZIFT (1) fallopian tube
D) Both (B) and (C)
91. Which among the listed ARTs are
Transfer of embryo into
included under embryo transfer (ET)
the uterus Transfer of
technique? (b) GIFT (2) embryo into the uterus
[Pg-64,E]
A) ICSI and IUI Transfer of embryo into
B) ZIFT and IUT (C) IUT (3) fallopian tube
C) GIFT and ZIFT
D) ICSI and GIFT
Select the correct option.
92. W A childless couple can be assisted to a b c
have a child through a technique called A) 3 2 1
GIFT. The full form of this technique is B) 1 2 3
[NEET-2015] C) 2 3 1
[Pg-64,M] D) 3 1 2
A) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer 97. ‘ICSI’ stands for
B) Gamete inseminated fallopian [Pg-64,E]
transfer A) Infertility case study and inspection
C) Gamete intra fallopian transfer B) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection
D) Gamete internal fertilisation and C) Intra cervix sperm insemination
transfer D) Intra cytoplasmic sperm interaction
93. Select the correct statement. 98. In which technique, sperm is injected
[Pg-64,M] directly into the ovum in the laboratory?
A) ZIFT involves the transfer of male’s [Pg-64,E]
sperm into fallopian tube of female. A) GIFT B) ICSI
168
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
C) IUI D) AI [Pg-64,M]
99. Under what circumstances, artificial A) Pregnancies terminated due to
insemination could be employed? hormonal imbalance
[Pg-64,E] B) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality
A) When females do not ovulate C) Implantation of embryo at site other
B) Male partner fails to inseminate than uterus
C) Female has blocked fallopian tube D) Implantation of detective embryo in
D) Any of these the uterus
100. In case of a couple where the male is 104. Assertion: In all ART, fertilisation occurs
having a very low sperm count, which outside the female’s body.
technique will be suitable for Reason: Infertile couples cannot produce
fertilisation? [NEET-2017] gametes.
[Pg-64,M] [Pg-64,H]
A) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection A) Both assertion and reason are true
B) Intrauterine transfer and the reason is the correct
C) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian explanation of assertion.
transfer B) Both assertion and reason are true
D) Artificial insemination but the reason is not the correct
101. In artificial insemination, sperms are explanation of assertion
transferred into C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
[Pg-64,E] D) Both assertion and reason are false.
A) Vagina B) Uterus 105. Assertion: ICSI technique is different
C) Ovum D) Vagina or uterus from AI.
102. How intra uterine insemination (IUI) Reason: ICSI is carried out in
differ from intra uterine transfer (IUT)? laboratory.
[Pg-64,E] [Pg-64,H]
A) Embryo is transferred into uterus in A) Both assertion and reason are true
IUI. and the reason is the correct
B) IUI is a type of IVF technique. explanation of assertion.
C) IUI involves the transfer of semen into B) Both assertion and reason are true
female’s uterus. but the reason is not the correct
D) Sperm is directly injected into ovum explanation of assertion.
in IUI. C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
103. W Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as D) Both assertion and reason are false.
[NEET-2015]
169
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
ANSWER KEY
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans D C C D B D A C B C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans D C A C B A C C B A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans C C D C B C B C D A
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C C A C C B D A B B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans D A B A B A A C D B
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans C C A A A C A C A B
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans C D C A A A C B C B
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans B C A D A D B A B D
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans B D D D B D C A C D
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans B C C A C D B B B D
Q 101 102 103 104 105
Ans D C C D A
170
NCERT LINE BY LINE
14 Evolution
millions of years ago. Many such life A) The given figure represents
forms do exist anymore. diagrammatic representation of
C) There had been extinctions of Miller’s Experiment.
different life forms in the years gone B) X- Vacuum pump
by just as new forms of life arose at C) Y – Water containing inorganic
same periods of history of earth. compounds
D) Any population has built in variation D) Z – Spark discharge
in characteristics.
PARAGRAPH- 7.3
18. How many statements among the
following are incorrect? [Pg 129,M] THE EVIDENCES FOR EVOLUTION
i. Those characteristics which enable
some to survive better in natural 21. Fossils are _____ [Pg 129,E]
conditions (climate, food, physical A) The preserved remains of the past life
factors, etc.) would outbreed others forms.
that are less-endowed to survive B) Mineralized form of hard body parts
under such natural conditions. such as bones, teeth, etc.
ii. The fitness, according to Darwin, C) Found mainly in the layers of
refers ultimately and only to sedimentary rocks.
reproductive fitness. D) all of these
iii. Those who are better fit in an 22. Consider the following statements about
environment leave more progeny than fossils: [Pg 129,M]
others. These, therefore, will survive (a) Rock sediments of different ages
more and hence are selected by contain fossils of life forms that died
nature. Darwin called it natural during the formation of that
selection and implied it as a particular layer of sediment.
mechanism of evolution. (b) Fossil records are based on the
iv. Alfred Wallace, a physicist worked in sequence of occurrence of fossils in
Malay Archipelago. various strata of sedimentary rocks.
v. The geological history of earth closely Select the correct option.
correlates with the physical history of A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
earth. B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
A) 3 B) 4 C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
C) 2 D) 1 D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
19. The history of Earth can be studied in 23. Which of the following represents the
terms of- [Pg 129,E] paleontological evidence of evolution?
A) Epochs [Pg 129,M]
B) Periods A) Preserved remains of Dinosaurs
C) Eras obtained from sedimentary rocks.
D) All of these B) Presence of homologous structures.
20. Select the correct option about the given C) Presence of analogous structures.
figure. [Pg 128,E] D) Presence of vestigial parts.
24. Fossils serve as one of the evidence of
evolution because [Pg 129,M]
(a) Fossil records show that various
groups of organisms dominated earth
during the different course of
evolution.
(b) Many organisms are extinct today.
(c) Certain groups of organisms are
restricted to a certain geological time
period.
Select the option with all correct
statements.
A) Only a B) Only b
C) Both b and c D) a, b and c
173
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
25. Given below is the family tree of (b) The same structures in different
dinosaurs and their living present day organisms are derived from a
counterpart organisms. Which of the common ancestor.
given options correctly name A, B and C? Choose the correct option.
[Pg 130,E] A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
30. The similar structures with different
functions present in different species
because of their common ancestry is
known as _____ [Pg 130,E]
A) Analogous structures
B) Homologous structures
C) Vestigial organs
D) Homoplasy
31. Presence of homologous structures in
different but related organisms is the
A) A: Triceratops; B: Archaeopteryx; C: result of _______ [Pg 130,E]
Crocodilian A) Common ancestry
B) A: Triceratops; B: Crocodilian; C: B) Divergent evolution
Archaeopteryx C) Convergent evolution
C) A: Archaeopteryx; B: Triceratops; C: D) Both A and B
Crocodilian 32. The image shows the forelimbs of a
D) A: Archaeopteryx; B: Crocodilian; C: whale, bat, cheetah and human (all
Triceratops mammals). Choose the correct option
26. Embryological support for evolution was regarding the same. [Pg 131,E]
proposed by ______ based upon the
observation of certain features during
embryonic stage common to all
vertebrates that are absent in adult.
[Pg 129,E]
A) Ernst Mayr B) JBS Haldane
C) Ernst Haeckel D) Charles Lyell
27. Sweet potato is a ___(I)___ modification
whereas potato is a ___(II)___
modification. [Pg 131,E]
A) (I)- Stem B) (II)- Root
C) Both A and B D) None of these
28. Which of the given statement is incorrect
about radiometric dating? [Pg 131,M]
A) A method to determine the absolute
age of the fossils.
B) It is based on the process of decay of A) The basic similarities in the
radioactive isotopes. arrangement of bones in forelimbs of
C) A method to determine the relative whales, bats, cheetahs and humans
age of the fossils. reflect their common ancestry.
D) Organisms accumulate isotopes of B) The forelimbs of whales, bats,
substances during their lifetime. cheetahs and humans are analogous
29. Consider the following statements: structures.
[Pg 129,130,H] C) The image represents structures that
(a) Comparative anatomical and evolved from convergent evolution.
morphological details of different but D) The image represents vestigial
related organisms demonstrate a structures.
basic similarity. 33. Which of the following structures
represent homology? [Pg 131,H]
174
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
175
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
44. The given image shows white-winged and 48. Assertion: Evolution is not a directed
dark-winged moths. [Pg-132,M] process in the sense of determinism.
Reason: Evolution is based on chance
events that occur in nature. [Pg-132,H]
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
and Reason is correct explanation of
Assertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
(a) Image I represents the survival
but Reason is not the correct
advantage of white winged moths in
explanation of Assertion.
unpolluted areas.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(b) Image II represents the survival
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
advantage of dark winged moths in
49. Select the correct order of extinction of
polluted areas.
following dinosaurs? [Pg-130,E]
Select the correct option.
I. Stegosaurus
A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
II. Brachiosaurus
B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
III. Pteranodon
C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
IV. Triceratops
D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
V. Tyrannosaurus
45. Which of the following serves as an
A) II, I, III, V, IV
indicator of atmospheric pollution?
B) II, I, V, IV, III
[Pg-132,E]
C) III, V, IV, II, I
A) Lichens B) Rhizopus
D) None of these
C) Penicillin D) Lycopodium
46. Match Column-I with Column-II. PARAGRAPH-7.4
[Pg-30,M] ADAPTIVE RADIATION
Column-I Column-II
Herbicide (1) A herbivore 50. The mechanism of adaptive radiation
A) resistant sauropod was first explained by [Pg-132,E]
varieties
A) Darwin
B) Brachiosaurus (2) Bony plates on the B) Morgan
back
C) Lamarck
C) Stegosaurus (3) A flying reptile D) Hugo de Vries
D) Pteranodon (4) Evolution by 51. Consider the following statements.
anthropogenic [Pg-132,133,M]
action
(a) Darwin compared the animals and
plant species of Galapagos Islands
Select the correct option. with those of mainland of South
a b c d America.
A) 1 4 2 3 (b) He found observable and distinct
B) 4 1 2 3 similarities and differences among
C) 4 2 1 3 them.
D) 4 1 3 2 (c) Flora and fauna of the Galapagos
47. Assertion: Archaeopteryx is a dead Islands do not exhibit resemblances
connecting link between reptiles and to that of the South American
birds. mainland.
Reason: Archaeopteryx is the earliest Select the correct option.
known bird. [Pg-130,H] A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true B) (a) is true but (b and c) are false.
and Reason is correct explanation of C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
Assertion. D) All are false.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, 52. Lamarck was a ________. [Pg-134,E]
but Reason is not the correct A) French zoologist
explanation of Assertion. B) German botanist
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. C) French naturalist
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true. D) British botanist
176
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
178
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
71. The rate of evolution of new species in (d) Inheritance of (4) Tendency of organisms
fishes is slower than that of in bacterial acquired to become adapted to
populations because [Pg-134,M] features the environment
A) the evolution of new species is linked Select the correct option.
to their lifespan. a b c d
B) evolution of new species is linked to A) 4 1 3 2
the habitat. B) 1 4 2 3
C) both fishes and bacteria exhibit the C) 4 1 2 3
same rate of evolution. D) 4 2 1 3
D) species do not evolve at all. 78. The first scientist to propose that
72. Evolution of antibiotic-resistant bacterial evolution is a natural process rather
population represents the fact that than a divine intervention was
[Pg-134,E] [Pg-135,E]
A) acquired traits are inherited. A) Darwin B) Lamarck
B) nature selects for fitness. C) Pasteur D) Hugo de Vries
C) genetic variations are not a 79. Select the correct option regarding
prerequisite factor for natural Lamarck’s principles of evolution
selection. [Pg-134,135,E]
D) the theory of spontaneous generation A) Use and disuse; inheritance of
of life holds true. acquired characters.
73. Fitness refers to [Pg-134,E] B) Natural selection; fitness.
A) the ability of some organisms to C) Mutation; inheritance of acquired
survive under hostile conditions due characters.
to the presence of adaptive genetic D) Inheritance of acquired characters;
features. gene flow.
B) the ability of an organism to survive 80. Evolution of long and muscular neck of
hostile conditions due to acquired present day giraffe occurred as giraffes
features with no genetic basis. stretched their necks higher to reach the
C) the ability of organisms to migrate. higher canopy of tall trees. The given
D) both a and b are true. statement represents the view of …………
74. _____ is the end result of the ability to about evolution. [Pg-135,E]
adapt and get selected by nature. A) Darwin B) Lamarck
[Pg-134,E] C) Louis Pasteur D) Cuvier
A) Mutation B) Fitness 81. Match Column-I with Column-II.
C) Adaptation D) Acclimatization [Pg-134,135,M]
75. Which of the following options correctly Column-I Column-II
represent the two key features of
Darwin’s theory of evolution? [Pg-134,E] (a) Innate drive to (1) Use and disuse
become complex
A) Mutation and natural selection.
B) Artificial and natural selection. (b) An Essay on the (2) Thomas
C) Branching descent and natural Principle of Malthus
selection. Population
D) Branching descent and mutation. (c) Evolution of long- (3) Natural
76. Saltation is referred as- [Pg-135,E] necked giraffe selection
A) Single step small mutation population
B) Multiple step small mutation (d) Industrial (4) Lamarck
C) Single step large mutation melanism
D) None of these
77. Match Column-I with Column-II. Select the correct option.
[Pg-134,135,M] a b c d
Column-I Column-II A) 4 1 3 2
(a) Branching (1) Unity and diversity of B) 4 1 2 3
descent life
C) 1 4 2 3
(b) Natural (2) Source of new genes
selection
D) 4 2 1 3
(c) Mutation (3) Lamarck
179
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
144. Which of the following pair is incorrectly B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
matched? [Pg-141,E] but Reason is not the correct
A) Australopithecines – Fruit eater explanation of Assertion.
B) Pre-historic cave art –18000 years ago C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
C) Agriculture and human settlements – D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
10000 years back 146. Assertion: Evolution of modern humans
D) Origin of modern Homo sapiens – exhibited a gradual increase in brain
1,00,000–40,000 years back size.
145. Assertion: Ramapithecus was more man- Reason: Homo habilis had the smallest
like while Dryopithecus was more ape- brain capacity. [Pg-141,H]
like. A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
Reason: Ramapithecus had a thick layer and Reason is correct explanation of
of enamel. [Pg-140,H] Assertion.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
and Reason is correct explanation of but Reason is not the correct
Assertion. explanation of Assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
Answer Key
EVOLUTION
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans A B D D D B D B D B
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A B C C D D B C D A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D A A D C C D C A B
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C A C C A B C B C D
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans C D B A A B D A A A
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans A C B A A A A C D D
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans D C D B B A B B B B
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans A B A B C C B B A B
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans D B A A B A A A B D
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans C C A C C A A D B A
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans D B A D C B C B C B
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans A B C B B C B A C A
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans B A B B B D B C D B
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans C D C B A B C B A D
Q 141 142 143 144 145 146
Ans B B B D A B
186
NCERT LINE BY LINE
15 Human Health and Diseases
189
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
190
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
C) infected combs
D) all of these
54. Match Column-I with Column-II and
choose the correct option from the codes
given below. [Pg-149,M]
Column-I Column-II
(A) Entamoeba (1) Sporozoa
histolytica
(B) Plasmodium (2) Rhizopoda
vivax
(C) Ascaris (3) Deuteromycetes
Which disease is shown in the figure? lumbricoides
A) Amoebiasis (D) Trichophyton (4) Nematoda
B) Filariasis rubrum
C) Elephantiasis Codes-
D) Both (B ) and (C) A B C D
50. Among the following which does not A) 2 1 4 3
cause ringworm disease in humans? B) 1 2 3 4
[NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-149,E] C) 4 3 2 1
A) Microsporum
D) 3 4 1 2
B) Macrosporum
C) Epidermophyton
55. Trichophyton feeds on [Pg-149,E]
D) Trichophyton
A) goblins of blood
51. Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on
B) keratin of skin
various parts of the body is symptom of
C) cellulose of leaves
which infectious disease? [Pg-149,E]
D) none of these
A) Filaria
56. Choose the incorrect statement from the
B) Ascarisis
following. [Pg-149,M]
C) Ringworm
A) Wuchereria bancrofti causes chronic
D) None of these
inflammation of the lymphatic
52. Match the pathogens given in Column-I
vessels.
to the body organs to which they affect in
B) The pathogens of filaria are
Column-II. Choose the correct answer
transmitted to a healthy person
from the codes given below. [Pg-149,M]
through houseflies.
Column-I Column-II
C) Trichophyton is responsible for
(A) Ascaris (1) Lymphatic vessels ringworm.
of lower limbs
D) Common cold is a viral disease.
57. Read the following statements carefully
(B) Wuchereria (2) Intestine and choose the option that correctly
identifies the true statements.
(C) Trichopyton (3) Skin, scalp and
nails [Pg-149,H]
(I) Many infectious diseases can be
(D) Streptococcus (4) Lungs prevented and controlled by
pneumoniae maintaining personal and public
Codes- hygiene
(II) Proper disposal of waste and excreta
A B C D is particularly essential for the air-
A) 2 1 3 4 borne diseases.
B) 1 2 4 3 (III) Malaria can be prevented by
C) 3 2 1 4 eliminating its vector and their
D) 4 3 2 1 breeding places.
(IV) Chikungunya is a vector-borne
53. Ringworms are generally acquired from disease.
[Pg-149,E] A) (I), (II) and (III) B) (II), (III) and (IV)
A) soil C) (IV), (II) and (I) D) (I), (III) and (IV)
B) infected towels
191
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
58. The most important measure to control (A) Amoebic (1) Female
malaria and filariasis is to control or dysentery Anopheles
eliminate the [Pg-149,E] (B) Dengue (2) Housefly
A) vectors (C) Malaria (3) Aedes mosquito
B) breeding places of vectors
C) causal organism Codes-
D) both (a) and (b) A B C
59. Match Column-I with Column-II and A) 3 2 1
choose the correct option from the codes B) 2 3 1
given below[Pg-147-149,M] C) 1 2 3
Column-I Column-II D) 2 1 3
(A) Food-borne (1) Pneumonia
disease 66. Assertion: Most of the parasites are
(B) Air-borne (2) Amoebic pathogens.
disease dysentery Reason: Disease causing organisms are
(C) Vector-borne (3) Malaria called pathogens hosts as parasite.
disease [Pg-146,H]
(4) Typhoid A) Both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct explanation
Codes- of assertion.
A B C B) Both assertion and reason are true
A) 2,4 1 3 but reason is not the correct
B) 1,4 2 3 explanation of assertion.
C) 3 2,4 1 C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) 2 3 4,1 D) Both assertion and reason are false.
67. Assertion: Pneumonia is caused by the
60. Which fish is introduced in ponds that infection of Streptococcus pneumoniae.
feed on mosquito larva? [Pg-150,E] Reason: Streptococcus pneumoniae
A) Rohu B) Katla bacteria infect respiratory passage.
C) Gambusia D) None of these [Pg-147,H]
61. The vector that transmits the disease A) Both assertion and reason are true
chikungunya is [NCERT Exemplar] and reason is the correct explanation
[Pg-150,E] of assertion.
A) Housefly B) Both assertion and reason are true
B) Cockroach but reason is not the correct
C) Aedes mosquito explanation of assertion.
D) Female Anopheles C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
62. Dengue is transmitted through D) Both assertion and reason are false.
[Pg-150,E] 68. Assertion: The malarial parasite
A) female Anopheles requires two hosts to complete its
B) housefly lifecycle.
C) Gambusia Reason: These two hosts are human and
D) Aedes mosquito mosquito. [Pg-147,H]
63. A deadly disease that has been A) Both assertion and reason are true
eradicated from India is [Pg-150,E] and reason is the correct explanation
A) typhoid B) smallpox of assertion.
C) dengue D) cancer B) Both assertion and reason are true
64. Among the following diseases, for which but reason is not the correct
one is vaccine available? [Pg-150,E] explanation of assertion.
A) Polio B) Pneumonia C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
C) Tetanus D) All of these D) Both assertion and reason are false.
65. Match Column-I with Column-II and 69. Assertion: Wuchereria bancrofti affects
choose the correct option from the codes the blood vessels of the lower limbs.
given below. [Pg-150,M]
Column-I Column-II
192
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
194
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
195
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
196
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
119. The organ(s) that provide(s) Reason: Polio vaccine also contains
microenvironments for the development preformed antibodies. [Pg-152,H]
and maturation of T-lymphocytes is/are A) Both assertion and reason are true
[Pg-154,E] and reason is the correct explanation
A) Bone marrow B) Thymus of assertion.
C) Spleen D) Both (a) and (b) B) Both assertion and reason are true
120. The lymphoid tissue located within the but reason is not the correct
lining of digestive tract is called explanation of assertion.
[Pg-154,E] C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
A) lymphatic vessels D) Both assertion and reason are false.
B) lymph nodes 125. Assertion: Bone marrow is a secondary
C) MALT lymphoid organ.
D) none of these Reason: In secondary lymphoid organs
121. MALT constitutes about ______ percent of maturation of lymphocytes occur.
the lymphoid tissue in human body. [Pg-153,H]
[NEET–2017] [Pg-154,M] A) Both assertion and reason are true
A) 20% B) 70% and reason is the correct explanation
C) 10% D) 50% of assertion.
122. Match Column-I with Column-II and B) Both assertion and reason are true
choose the correct option from the codes but reason is not the correct
given below. [Pg-154,M] explanation of assertion.
Column-I Column-II C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(A) Bone (1) Maturation of D) Both assertion and reason are false.
marrow T-Lymphocytes Para-8.3
(B) Thymus (2) Production of AIDS
blood cells
(C) Spleen (3) Serve to trap
antigens 126. The word AIDS stands for ‘Acquired
(D) Lymph (4) Reservoir of Immuno Deficiency Syndrome’, here
Nodes erythrocytes syndrome means [Pg-154,E]
A) group of diseases
Codes- B) group of symptoms
A B C D C) group of antigens
A) 1 2 3 4 D) none of these
B) 2 1 4 3 127. HIV is a member of a group of viruses
C) 4 3 2 1 called [Pg-154,E]
D) 3 4 1 2 A) rota virus B) rhino virus
C) retro virus D) none of these
123. Assertion: The immune response in 128. Which of the following is correct
which antibodies are formed is called regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?
humoral immune response. [NEET–2016] [Pg-154,H]
Reason: Antibodies are found in blood. A) HIV is an unenveloped retrovirus.
[Pg-151,H] B) HIV does not escape but attacks the
A) Both assertion and reason are true acquired immune response.
and reason is the correct explanation C) HIV is an enveloped virus containing
of assertion. one molecule of single-stranded RNA
B) Both assertion and reason are true and one molecule of reverse
but reason is not the correct transcriptase.
explanation of assertion. D) HIV is an enveloped virus that
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. contains two identical molecules of
D) Both assertion and reason are false. single-stranded RNA and two
124. Assertion: In passive immunization, molecules of reverse transcriptase.
preformed antibodies are given to the 129. HIV is not transmitted by [NCERT
patients. Exemplar] [Pg-154,E]
A) transfusion of contaminated blood
197
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
198
NCERT LINE BY LINE
TG: @Chalnaayaaar ZOOLOGY
199
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
Column-I Column-II
(Type of (Example) Column-I Column-II
Carcinogen) (A) Biopsy (1) Three-
(A) Physical (1) Oncogenic virus dimensional
agent image using X-
(B) Chemical (2) UV rays rays
agent (B) Radiograp (2) Histopathologic
(C) Biological (3) Tobacco hy al study
agent (C) Computed (3) Use of strong
(4) Gamma rays Tomograp magnetic fields
hy and non-
ionising
Codes- radiations
A B C (D) MRI (4) Use of X-rays
A) 4,2 3 1
B) 4,1 2 3 Codes-
C) 2 4,3 1 A B C D
D) 3 2 4,1 A) 4 2 3 1
B) 2 4 1 3
152. Cancer causing viruses are called C) 3 1 4 2
[Pg-157,E] D) 1 3 2 4
A) retrovirus B) rhinovirus
C) oncogenic virus D) none of these 157. The common approaches for the
153. Choose the correct statements about treatment of cancer is/are [Pg-157,E]
carcinogens. [Pg-157,H] A) surgery B) radiation therapy
(I) Carcinogens transform normal cells C) immunotherapy D) all of these
into cancerous cells. 158. Which substance is given to cancer
(II) These carcinogens could be patients to activate their immune
physical, chemical or biological. system? [Pg-157,E]
(III) Ionizing radiations like UV-rays A) Carcinogens B) Cytokinin
damage DNA leading to neoplastic C) α-interferon D) None of these
transformation. 159. Assertion: X-rays and γ-rays are called
(IV) Several proto-oncogenes have been carcinogens.
identified in neoplastic cells that get Reason: Carcinogens transform normal
activated under certain conditions. cells into cancerous neoplastic cells.
A) (I) and (III) B) (I) and (II) [Pg-157,H]
C) (III) and (IV) D) all of these A) Both assertion and reason are true
154. Which technique can be used for the and reason is the correct explanation
detection of cancer of internal organs? of assertion.
[Pg-157,E] B) Both assertion and reason are true
A) Radiography B) CT but reason is not the correct
C) MRI D) All of these explanation of assertion.
155. Computed tomography uses ‘A’ to C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
generate a three-dimensional image of D) Both assertion and reason are false.
the internals of an object. Here ‘A’ is 160. Assertion: Computed tomography can
[Pg-157,E] be used for the early detection of cancer
A) X-rays B) γ-rays of internal organs.
C) α-rays D) UV rays Reason: Computed tomography uses
156. Match Column-I with Column-II and UV-rays to generate a three-dimensional
choose the correct option from the codes image of the internals of an object.
given below. [Pg-157,M] [Pg-157,H]
200
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
203
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
Answer Key
HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASES
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans D C D A A C B D C A
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans D B D B A A B D A C
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D D C D D A B D C C
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C D D A B C B C B B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans C D A A C A D A D B
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans C A D A B B D D A C
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans C D B D B A C B D B
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans D B A B D C B B B D
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans B C B D A B C A B D
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans C B B B C D A D B C
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans B D D D C B C A D D
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans A D A D B C C A D C
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans D B A C D B C D D B
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans B A A A C B C A C B
Q 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans A D D B C C D A C B
Q 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans A C B D A B D C A C
Q 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Ans A D A B B C C A D A
Q 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans B D D D A C C A D B
Q 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Ans C C D D D B D D B C
Q 191
Ans A
204
NCERT LINE BY LINE
16 Strategies For Enhancement in Food Production
205
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
(A) Both (a) and (b) are true. 16. Consider the following statements:
(B) (a) is true but (b) is false. (a) A breed is a group of related animals
(C) Both (a) and (b) are false. that are true to the genetic traits
(D) (a) is false but (b) is true. characteristic of the breed.
12. Match the Column-I with Column-II. (b) Animals of the same breed do not
[Pg-165,166,E] share a common ancestor. Select the
Column-I Column-II correct option. [Pg-167,M]
(I) Raised for egg (1) Turkey, geese (A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
production and ducks (B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
(II) Raised for meat (2) Ayrshire, (C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
Guernsey, (D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
Holstein- 17. Use of selective mating for the production
Friesian and of breeds of domesticated animals with
Jersey desired traits is known as [Pg-167,E]
(III) Cattle breed (3) Important (A) plant breeding
with high milk factors for (B) animal breeding
production success with (C) poultry
poultry (D) farming
(IV) Proper feeding, (4) Hens 18. Consider the following statements about
good animal breeding. Which of the given
management statements is incorrect? [Pg-167,M]
and sanitation
(A) Animal breeding aims to improve the
Select the correct option growth rate and production of useful
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) products from the animals.
(a) 1 4 2 3 (B) It includes the production of
(b) 4 1 2 3 improved breeds of domesticated
(c) 4 2 1 3 animals to obtain milk and meat of
(d) 3 1 4 2 superior quality.
13. The causative agent of Avian Influenza is (C) It does not aim to improve disease
[Pg-167,E] resistance in animals.
(A) H5N1 virus (D) Methods of animal breeding are based
(B) HIV on selective breeding.
(C) E. coli 19. Match the terms in Column-I with a
(D) Clostridium suitable description in Column-II.
14. Which of the following measures is/are [Pg-167,168,M]
required to prevent the spread of H5N1 Column-I Column-II
virus from birds to a human? [Pg-167,E] (I) Inbreeding (1) Overcomes
(A) Consumption of poultry and eggs inbreeding
above the temperature of 100°C depression
(B) Influenza vaccination (II) Outbreeding (2) Increased
(C) Maintain personal hygiene homozygosity
(D) All of these (III) Inbreeding (3) Crossing the
15. Leghorn, Minorca and Andalusia are the depression different breeds.
small-sized breeds of chickens. The most (IV) Outcrossing (4) Reduced
population breed for egg production is productivity due to
[Pg-167,E] inbreeding
(A) Leghorn (B) Minorca Select the correct option
(C) Andalusia (D) None (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) 4 1 2 3
PARA-9.1.2 (b) 2 3 4 1
206
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
207
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
208
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
(A) Apis dorsata and Apis indica (D) Honey: a rich source of sugars, fats,
(B) Apis dorsata and Apis mellifera and fibers
(C) Apis florea and Apis indica 46. Father of Blue revolution in India is
(D) Apis indica and Apis mellifera [Pg-169,E]
(A) Dr. Arun Krishnan
PARA-9.1.4 (B) Nirpakh Tutej
(C) Vishal Shekhar
42. Match Column-I with Column-II [NCERT (D) Durgesh Patel
Exemplar] [Pg-169,170,M] 47. Assertion: Bird flu is a viral disease and
is caused by the H5N1 virus.
Column-I Column-II
Reason: Bird flu is transmitted from
(a) Edible (1) Prawn, lobster, affected birds to humans through direct
freshwater oyster contact or consumption of their eggs.
fishes [Pg-167,H]
(b) Edible (2) Catla, Rohu and (A) Both assertion and reason are true
marine fishes common carp
but reason is the correct explanation
(c) Seafood (3) Improved
of assertion.
production of
(B) Both assertion and reason are true
useful products
from aquaculture but reason is not the correct
(d) Blue (4) Hilsa, Sardines, explanation of assertion.
revolution Mackerel and (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Pomfrets (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
48. Assertion: Inbreeding is required to
Select the correct option.
obtain pure line in any animal.
a b c d
Reason: Mendel obtained pure line of
(a) 2 4 1 3
pea plants by cross-pollination.
(b) 1 3 4 2
[Pg-167,H]
(c) 4 2 1 3
(A) Both assertion and reason are true
(d) 3 1 4 2
43. Among the following edible fishes, which but reason is the correct explanation
of assertion.
one is a marine fish having a rich source
(B) Both assertion and reason are true
of omega-3 fatty acids? [NEET-2016]
but reason is not the correct
[Pg-169,M]
explanation of assertion.
(A) Mrigala (B) Mackerel (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(C) Mystus (D) Mangur (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
44. Fisheries have an important place in 49. Assertion: Controlled breeding
Indian economy because [Pg-170,E] experiments are done using interspecific
(A) it provides food to the population hybridization.
(B) it serves as the only source of
Reason: Outcrossing increases
livelihood in many coastal regions
homozygosity in the progeny.
(C) it obtains fish oil, pearls, fish protein,
[Pg-167,168,H]
etc.
(A) Both assertion and reason are true
(D) all the given options are correct.
but reason is the correct explanation
45. Select the incorrect match from the
of assertion.
following [Pg-169,170,M] (B) Both assertion and reason are true
(A) Pisciculture: fish farming but reason is not the correct
(B) Aquaculture: raising aquatic animals explanation of assertion.
to obtain useful products (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(C) Fishes: a rich source of vitamin D, (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
riboflavin, omega-3 fatty acid and 50. Assertion: A group of bees is called
minerals swarm.
209
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
Reason: Honey bees are pollinators of 55. Classical breeding approach uses the
many crop plants. [Pg-169,H] proven tools of [Pg-171,E]
(A) Both assertion and reason are true (A) hybridization of pure lines and
but reason is the correct explanation artificial selection of desired
of assertion. genotypes.
(B) Both assertion and reason are true (B) hybridization of pure lines and
but reason is not the correct genome manipulation of selected
explanation of assertion. progeny.
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false. (C) incorporation of desired genes and
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. artificial selection of progeny.
(D) genome manipulation only.
PARA-9.2 56. Which of the following is not an objective
of plant breeding? [Pg-170,E]
51. A tremendous increase in crop and food (A) To improve crop productivity and
production as an outcome of the quality.
application of plant breeding and (B) To impart stress and pathogen
production technology is known as resistance in crop plants.
[Pg-170,E] (C) To increase tolerance of crop plants
(A) Green revolution for insect pests.
(B) White revolution (D) All are the objectives of plant
(C) Blue revolution breeding.
(D) Grey revolution 57. Which of the following set of factor cause
52. Father of the green revolution in India is environmental stress in plants?
[NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-170,E] [Pg-170,E]
(A) Verghese Kurien (A) Pathogens, drought and flood
(B) Vikram Sarabhai (B) Salinity, extreme temperatures and
(C) MS Swaminathan drought
(D) Homi J Bhabha (C) Parasites, extreme temperatures and
53. Consider the following statements about drought
plant breeding. [Pg-170,M] (D) Parasites, pathogens and flood
(a) It is the deliberate manipulation of 58. Consider the following steps in plant
plant genome to create or impart the breeding: [Pg-171,M]
desired traits in the plants. (I) Testing, release and
(b) It aims to obtain plant types with commercialization of new cultivars
better productivity and disease (II) Collection of variability
resistance. (III) Selection and testing of superior
Select the correct option. recombinants
(A) Both (A) and (B) are true. (IV) Cross hybridization among the
(B) (A) is true but (B) is false. selected parents
(C) Both (A) and (B) are false. (V) Evaluation and selection of parents
(D) (A) is false but (B) is true.
Arrange the steps in correct order
54. A true breeding plant is [NEET-2016]
and selection the correct option.
[Pg-171,M]
(A) I, V, IV, II, III (B) II, V, III, IV, I
(A) near homozygous and produces (C) II, V, IV, III, I (D) II, IV, V, III, I
offspring of its own kind 59. In the plant breeding programs, the
(B) always homozygous recessive in its
entire collection (plants/seeds) having all
genetic constitution
the diverse alleles for all genes of a given
(C) one that is able to breed on its own
crop is called [NEET-2013, 2011]
(D) produced due to cross-pollination
among unrelated plants [Pg-171,M]
(A) Germplasm collection
210
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
(B) Selection of superior recombinants 65. Which of the following factors were
(C) Cross-hybridization among the responsible for limited agricultural
selected parents production after the independence of
(D) Evaluation and selection of parents India? [Pg-172,E]
60. Sum total of all the hereditary material (A) Limited land for agriculture and
belonging to single species is known as scarce resources
[NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-171,E] (B) Seasonal rainfall in deserts
(A) genotype (B) germplasm (C) Lower temperature conditions in
(C) hybrid (D) cultivar Northern plains
61. Consider the following statements about (D) A small fraction of the population
germplasm collection: [Pg-171,M] involved in agricultural activities
(a) The gene of interest should be present 66. The key strategies targeted by Dr.
in the base population to initiate a Norman E. Borlaug that resulted in the
breeding program. Green Revolution in the world were
(b) Genetic variability is a prerequisite to [NCERT Exemplar] [Pg-172,M]
develop a new cultivar by breeding (A) development of sugarcane cultivars
programs. Select the correct option. with insect pest resistance
(A) Both (a) and (b) are true. (B) development of high yielding wheat
(B) (a) is true but (b) is false. cultivars with desired agronomic
(C) Both (a) and (b) are false. traits to realize the maximum
(D) (a) is false but (b) is true. productivity
62. The selected superior recombinants in (C) development of maize cultivars with
plant breeding program are self- disease resistance
pollinated for several generations so as to (D) all the given options are correct
[Pg-171,M] 67. Which of the following set of the traits
(A) increase the homozygosity to prevent correctly represent the features of semi-
segregation of the desired trait in the dwarf varieties developed by Dr. Norman
progeny. E. Borlaug? [NCERT Exemplar]
(B) increase the heterozygosity to prevent [Pg-173,E]
segregation of the desired trait in the (A) Better crop production and lodging
progeny. resistance
(C) increase the homozygosity to allow (B) Adapted to local climatic conditions
segregation of the desired trait in the and lodging resistance
progeny. (C) High yielding, adapted to local
(D) increase the heterozygosity to allow climatic conditions, lodging
segregation of the desired trait in the resistance
progeny. (D) Lodging resistance and better crop
63. The new cultivars produced by plant yield
breeding programs are evaluated for 68. Nobel laureate Norman E. Borlaug was
[Pg-171,E] the director of Wheat Program at_____
(A) yield and developed semidwarf varieties of
(B) morphological and quality traits wheat. [Pg-173,E]
(C) resistance to diseases and stress (A) Center for Plant Breeding and
(D) all the given choices are correct Genetics
64. Around _____ of the Indian population is (B) Indian Society of Genetics and Plant
employed in agricultural activities which Breeding
in turn accounts for _____ of the (C) Centro Internationale de
country’s GDP. [Pg-171,E] Mejoramiento de Maiz y Trigo
(A) 62%, 33% (B) 33%, 62% (D) International Centre for Plant
(C) 32%, 63% (D) 30%, 62% Breeding Education and Research
211
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
212
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
213
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
215
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
(B) Both assertion and reason are true (b) Only 10% energy of one trophic level
but reason is not the correct is available for the next trophic level.
explanation of assertion. Select the correct option.
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false. (A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. (B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
107. Assertion: Cereals are a poor source of (C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
carbohydrates. (D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
Reason: Legumes are rich in tryptophan 112. Single cell proteins as an alternative to
amino acid. [Pg-176,H] human food sources is an environment-
(A) Both assertion and reason are true friendly approach because [Pg-176,E]
but reason is the correct explanation (A) microbes are a good source of protein
of assertion. (B) microbes have higher reproduction
(B) Both assertion and reason are true rates
but reason is not the correct (C) microbes are grown on the organic
explanation of assertion. waste matter
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false. (D) conventional breeding programs
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. cannot meet the demand for food
PARA-9.3 SINGLE CELL PROTEIN 113. Single cell proteins are being produced
using waste organic matter. Which of the
108. Which of the following microorganisms following set correctly represents the
serve in the production of single-cell organic waste materials used for the
protein? [Pg-176,E] purpose? [Pg-176,E]
(A) Bacteria (B) Yeast (A) Wastewater from potato processing
(C) Algae (D) All of these plants, straw, molasses
109. A bulk of dead and dry cell microbes that (B) Animal manure, sewage, antibiotics
possess high levels of proteins and is (C) Sewage, industrial waste, waste from
nuclear reactors
grown on varieties of carbon sources is
(D) Hydrocarbon, straw, volcanic
known as [Pg-176,E]
eruptions
(A) hyphae
114. Consider the following statements.
(B) single cell protein
(a) More than 50% of the human
(C) colony
population is suffering from hunger
(D) microbial mount
and malnutrition.
110. Consider the following statements:
(b) Single cell protein is also known as
(a) Single cell proteins are rich sources
microbial protein or bio protein.
of essential amino acids such as
Select the correct option. [Pg-176,M]
lysine and tryptophan which are
(A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
scarce in plant and animal
(B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
proteins.
(C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
(b) Around 60%–82% of dry cell weight
(D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
of single cell protein is protein.
115. Match Column-I with Column-II.
Select the correct option. [Pg-176,M]
[Pg-176,M]
(A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
(B) (a) is true but (b) is false. Column-I Column-II
(C) Both (a) and (b) are false. (A) Cucumber and (1) Bacterial
orange peel
(D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
(B) Methanomonas (2) Algae
111. Consider the following statements.
[Pg-176,M] (C) Spirulina (3) Fungus
(a) A shift from grain to meat diet creates (D) Aspergillus (4) Production of
more demand for grains. single cell
proteins
216
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
Select the correct option. 120. Assertion: Algae are autotrophs and
A B C D produce organic matter by the process of
(a) 1 4 2 3 photosynthesis.
(b) 4 1 2 3 Reason: Spirulina and Scenedesmus are
(c) 4 2 1 3 the most commonly used bacterial
(d) 3 1 4 2 sources of single cell proteins.
[Pg-176,H]
116. Which of the following represents the (A) Both assertion and reason are true
production of single cell proteins? but reason is the correct explanation
[Pg-176,E] of assertion.
(A) Production of Saccharomyces (B) Both assertion and reason are true
cerevisiae from molasses in World but reason is not the correct
War I. explanation of assertion.
(B) Production of Torula yeast on sulfite (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
liquor waste from paper production (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
plants during World War II.
PARA-9.4 TISSUE CULTURE
(C) Growing cell biomass of
Saccharomyces cerevisiae on fruit
peels. 121. Growth of tissues or cells in an artificial
(D) All the given choices are correct. medium under sterile conditions is
117. 250 g of Methylophilus methylotrophus known as [Pg-177,E]
can obtain as much as _____ of proteins (A) Callus
as compared to 250 kg cow that produces (B) Tissue culture
(C) Somatic hybridization
only 200 g of proteins. [Pg-176,H]
(D) Somatic hybrid
(A) 250 tonnes (B) 25 tonnes
122. The excised plant tissue or organ is
(C) 2.5 tonnes (D) 12 tonnes
118. Select the incorrect match from the given grown in a test tube under aseptic
examples of single cell protein microbes. conditions to generate whole plants is
known as [Pg-177,E]
[Pg-176,E]
(A) Bacteria: Methanomonas, (A) meristem (B) explant
Pseudomonas, Bacillus (C) hybrids (D) stem cells
(B) Yeast: Candida utilis, S. cereviseae, 123. Which of the following plant parts serve
Pichia pastoris as source of explant for tissue culture?
(C) Fungi: Fusarium, Aspergillus, [Pg-177,E]
Penicillium (A) Petal, leaves and flower buds
(D) Algae: Spirullina, Chiarella, (B) Ovaries and anther
Hydrogenomonas (C) Seeds and nodal segment
119. Assertion: Microbes have higher growth (D) All of these
rates and produce more biomass in less 124. Consider the following statement:
time. [Pg-177,M]
Reason: Some microbial species are rich (a) A totipotent cell contains a complete
sources of essential amino acids. set of genetic information to direct the
[Pg-176,H] development of an entire organism.
(A) Both assertion and reason are true (b) A pluripotent cell is a stem cell that
but reason is the correct explanation can produce many but not all the cell
of assertion. types in an organism. Select the
(B) Both assertion and reason are true correct option.
but reason is not the correct (A) Both (a) and (b) are true.
explanation of assertion. (B) (a) is true but (b) is false.
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false. (C) Both (a) and (b) are false.
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. (D) (a) is false but (b) is true.
217
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
218
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
144. Assertion: Totipotency is the ability of (B) Both assertion and reason are true
explants to give rise while plant. but reason is not the correct
Reason: The cells of explants contain a explanation of assertion.
complete set of genetic information. (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
[Pg-177,H] (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
(A) Both assertion and reason are true 146. Assertion: Pomato is an intergeneric
but reason is the correct explanation somatic hybrid.
of assertion. Reason: Cybrids are the somatic hybrids
(B) Both assertion and reason are true with the nuclear genome from both the
but reason is not the correct parent plants. [Pg-177,H]
explanation of assertion. (A) Both assertion and reason are true
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false. but reason is the correct explanation
(D) Both assertion and reason are false. of assertion.
145. Assertion: Meristems are the localized (B) Both assertion and reason are true
regions of active cell division in a plant but reason is not the correct
body. explanation of assertion.
Reason: Somaclones are genetically (C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
identical plants. [Pg-177,H] (D) Both assertion and reason are false.
(A) Both assertion and reason are true
but reason is the correct explanation
of assertion.
Answer Key
STRATEGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans D A A D A B D C D D
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans D B A D A B B C B B
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans B A C D B B B A D B
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans A D C B B A D D A C
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans D A B D D A B C D B
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans A C A A A D B C A B
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
220
NCERT LINE BY LINE
TG: @Chalnaayaaar ZOOLOGY
Ans A A D A A B C C B C
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans D A B D D A D C C D
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans A A B B A B A B D C
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans D D A D B A C B D A
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans D B A D A B D D B A
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans A C A D B D B D B C
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans B B D A B A B B D B
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans D A B D C B A D A B
Ans D D A A B D
221
NCERT LINE BY LINE
17 BIOTECHNOLOGY PROCESS (PRINCIPLE)
223
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
26. Restriction enzymes belong to [Pg-196,E] (C) between different two bases on
(A) Exonucleases opposite strands, in centre of DNA
(B) Endonucleases sequence recognized
(C) Both (D) between different two bases on
(D) None opposite strands, living away from
27. Exonuclease cuts DNA from [Pg-196,E] centre of DNA sequence recognized.
(A) specific position within 32. Same restriction enzyme produce
DNA [Pg-197,M]
(B) ends of DNA (A) same kind sticky ends joined using
(C) Both (A) & (B) endonucleases
(D) None of these (B) different kinds of sticky ends joined
28. Restriction enzyme recognize [Pg-196,M] using ligase
(A) Paleondromic sequence of nucleoside (C) same kind of sticky ends joined using
in DNA ligase
(B) Palindromic sequence of nucleoside (D) different kind of sticky ends joined
in DNA using endonucleases
(C) Paleondromic sequence of nucleotide 33. [Pg-197,M]
in DNA II
(D) Palindromic sequence of nucleotide
in DNA
29. ECoRI cuts DNA at [Pg-196,H]
A)
B)
C)
D) All of these
30. Which of the following is a palindrome?
Identify correct labelling
[Pg-197,H]
(i) (ii) (iii)
(A) 5' – GAATAC – 3' (A) vector Recombina Foreign DNA
3' – CTTATG – 5' plasmid nt DNA
(B) 5' – GATATAC – 3' (B) Foreign vector Recombinant
3' – CTATATG – 5' DNA plasmid DNA
(C) 5' – GAATTC – 3' (C) Recombina vector Foreign DNA
nt DNA plasmid
3' – CTTAAG – 5' (D) vector Foreign Recombinant
(D) All of these plasmid DNA DNA
31. Restriction enzyme cuts DNA [Pg-197,H]
(A) between same two bases on opposite 34. The process of ‘Transformation’ is taking
strands, in centre of DNA sequence place when [Pg-197,M]
recognized (A) bacteria replicates and makes copies
(B) between same two bases on opposite of rDNA with it
strands, a little away from centre of (B) bacteria picks up rDNA
DNA sequence recognized
224
NCERT LINE BY LINE
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ZOOLOGY
(C) foreign gene is added to cloning host 42. The extraction of separated bands of
prokaryote cell DNA from agarose gel are [Pg-198,H]
(D) more than one option (A) Dilution (B) Elition
(C) Elution (D) Delution
SEPARATION & ISOLATION OF DNA 43. [Pg-197,E]
FRAGMENTS
(C) Assertion and Reason both are 66. When rDNA is inserted in coding
incorrect sequence of 𝛽-galactosidase, [Pg-200,H]
(D) Assertion is correct but Reason is (A) The enzyme gets synthesized
incorrect (B) Blue coloured colonies are produced
61. If a foreign gene is ligated at Bam HI site (C) Colourless colonies are produced
of vector PBR322, then the resistance for (D) Orange colonies are produced
____. [Pg-199,M] 67. Ti-plasmid stands for ____ and are
(A) tetracycline is lost present in ____. [Pg-200,E]
(B) ampicillin is lost (A) Tumor inhibiting, Agrobacterium
(C) tetracycline is not lost speciense
(D) more than one option (B) Tumor inducing, Agrobacterium
62. The recombinants mentioned previous speciense
question non-recombinants by- (C) Tumor inhibiting, Agrobacterium
[Pg-199,M] tumifaciens
(A) Plating the transformants on (D) Tumor inducing, Agrobacterium
tetracycline tumifaciens
(B) Planting the transformants on 68. The Ti-plasmid being used as cloning
ampicillin vector- [Pg-200,M]
(C) Both of these are necessary (A) causes crown gall disease
(D) None of these (B) is not pathogenic
63. Recombinants mentioned in 'If a foreign (C) is pathogenic
gene is ligated at Bam HI site of vector (D) More than one option
PBR322' will- [Pg-199,H] PARAGRAPH-11.2.3 COMPETENT HOST
(A) Grow in ampicillin and tetracycline (For transformation with recombinant
both
DNA)
(B) Grow in ampicillin but not
tetracycline
69. DNA is- [Pg-200,E]
(C) Grow in tetracycline but not
(A) hydrophilic and can pass through cell
ampicillin
membrane
(D) Grow neither in tetracycline nor in
(B) hydrophobic and can pass through
ampicillin
cell membrane
64. Non-recombinants transformants will
(C) hydrophilic and cannot pass through
[Pg-199,M]
cell membrane
(A) Grow in ampicillin and tetracycline (D) hydrophobic and cannot pass
both through cell membrane
(B) Grow in ampicillin but not 70. Bacterial host cells are made competent
tetracycline
to take up rDNA by- [Pg-200,H]
(C) Grow in tetracycline but not
(A) Treating with 𝑁𝑎 +
ampicillin
(B) Treating with 𝐴𝑙 3+
(D) Grow neither in tetracycline nor in
(C) Treating with 𝐶𝑎2+
ampicillin
(D) More than one options
65. Non-transformants E.coli will-
71. Choose the correct sequence to be
[Pg-199,M]
followed to enable bacteria to take up
(A) Grow in ampicillin and tetracycline
rDNA. [Pg-201, 202,M]
both
(B) Grow in ampicillin but not (i) Treating with divalent cation.
(ii) Heat shock (42ºC).
tetracycline
(iii) Incubating on ice.
(C) Grow in tetracycline but not
(A) i-ii-iii-ii (B) i-iii-ii-iii
ampicillin
(C) ii-iii-i-ii (D) iii-ii-i-iii
(D) Grow neither in tetracycline nor in
ampicillin
227
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
72. Other methods for introducing foreign (iv) Ribonuclease (v) protease
DNA into host cells are- [Pg-201,E] (vi) deoxyribonuclease
(A) Micro-injection for animal cells (A) 3 (B) 2
(B) Gene gun for plant cells (C) 5 (D) 6
(C) Disarmed pathogens 78. Match the following: [Pg-201,E]
(D) All of these A B
73. In micro-injection technique, rDNA is (i) cellulase I. plant
injected into- [Pg-201,E] (ii) chitinase II. Bacteria
(A) Cytoplasm (B) Nucleus (iii) lysozyme III. Fungi
(C) Cell membrane (D) Lysosomes (i) (ii) (iii)
74. In biolistics, cells are bombarded with (A) I III II
high velocity- [Pg-201,E] (B) II III I
(A) Micro-particles of iron (C) III I II
(B) Macro-particles of tungsten (D) I II III
(C) Micro-particles of gold 79. Purified DNA is precipitated out by
(D) More than one option addition of: [Pg-201,H]
(A) warm acetic acid
PARAGRAPH-11.3 PROCESSES OF (B) chilled acetic acid
RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY (C) warm ethanol
(D) chilled ethanol
75. Identity correct sequence of process of 80. [Pg-201,E]
rDNA technology : [Pg-201,M]
(i) transferring rDNA into host
(ii) isolation of DNA fragment desired
(iii) isolation of DNA
(iv) culturing host cells in medium at
large scale
(v) fragmentation of DNA by
restriction enzyme
(vi) ligation of DNA fragment into a The figure shows DNA separated out,
vector removed by :
(vii) extraction of desired product (A) spooning (B) spooling
(A) (iii) – (ii) – (v) – (vi) – (i) – (iv) – (vii) (C) spilling (D) speeling
(B) (iii) – (v) – (i) – (vi) – (ii) – (iv) – (vii) 81. The precipitated DNA is seen as :
(C) (iii) – (v) – (ii) – (vi) – (i) – (iv) – (vii) [Pg- 201,M]
(D) (iii) – (v) – (vi) – (i) – (ii) – (iv) – (vii)
(A) collection of fine threads in
PARAGRAPH-11.3.1 ISOLATION OF THE suspension
GENETIC MATERIAL (DNA) (B) collection of fine threads in solution
(C) coagulated mass in suspension
76. Nucleic acid is genetic material of: (D) coagulated mass in solution
[Pg-201,E] PARAGRAPH-11.3.2 CUTTING OF DNA
(A) some organisms AT SPECIFIC LOCATION
(B) no organism
(C) all organisms without exception 82. To check the progression of restriction
(D) most organisms with some exception enzyme digestion, _______ is used.
77. How many of given enzymes involved in
[Pg-202,M]
extraction of genetic material from cell of
(A) PCR
organisms are: [Pg-201,M] (B) gel electrophoresis
(i) cellulase (ii) chitinase (C) DNA fingerprinting
(iii) lysozyme (D) Selectable marker gene
228
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
PARAGRAPH-11.3.3 AMPLIFICATION OF
GENE OF INTEREST USING PCR PARAGRAPH-11.3.4
INSERTION OF RECOMBINANT DNA
84. PCR stands for: [Pg-202,E] INTO THE HOST CELL / ORGANISM
(A) Polynuclease chain reaction
(B) Polylipase chain reaction 90. A-Ampicillin resistance gene is called
(C) Polyamide chain reaction selectable marker in case E.coli is made
(D) None of these to take up rDNA bearing ampicillin
85. PCR is an: [Pg-202,E] resistance gene.
A) in vitro process B-Such E.coli coil grow on amplicillin
B) in vivo process containing agar plates.
C) both Choose right option with regards to
D) none above statements. [Pg-203,H]
86. How many sets of primers are used in (A) Both are correct
PCR? [Pg-202,E] (B) Only A is correct
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) Only B is correct
(C) 3 (D) 4 (D) None is correct
87. Enzyme involved in PCR is: [Pg-203,E]
(A) DNA endonuclease PARAGRAPH-11.3.5
(B) RNA polymerase PARAGRAPH- 11.3.5 OBTAINING
(C) DNA polymerase
FOREIGN GENE PRODUCT
(D) DNase
88. The enzyme involved in PCR with
91. If a protein encoding gene is expressed in
thermostability is isolated from:
a heterologous host, it is called:
[Pg-203,E]
[Pg-203,M]
(A) Thermus aquaticus fungi
(A) secondary protein
(B) Escherechia coli bacteria
(B) recombinant protein
(C) Agrobacterium tumefaciense bacteria
(C) transmitted protein
(D) None of these
(D) tertiary protein
89. [Pg-202,E]
92. In continuous culture system:
[Pg-203,M]
(A) used medium is drained at the end
(B) used medium is drained twice in the
whole process
(C) used medium is continuously drained
out
(D) none of these
93. Bioreactors are: [Pg-204,E]
(A) large vessels
(B) used for large quantity production
(C) used for biological conversion of raw
materials into products
(D) all of these
Identify correct labeling of sequence:
229
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
(i) (ii)
PARAGRAPH-11.3.6 DOWNSTREAM
PROCESSING (A) Simple stirred-tank complex stirred-
bioreactor tank bioreactor
94. Downstream processing includes : (B) Complex stirred-tank simple stirred-
[Pg-205,E] bioreactor tank bioreactor
(A) separation (B) purification (C) Simple Sparged
(C) both the above (D) none of these
95. A- Suitable preservatives are added (D) Sparged Simple
B- These formulations need clinical
trials.
98. [Pg-204,E]
C- Quality control testing is uniform for
all the products.
How many of the above statements is
incorrect? [Pg-205,M]
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
96. Optimal conditions for growth include.
How many of the following- [Pg-205,H]
pH, Salt, Temperature, Vitamin, Oxygen
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 4
97. [Pg-204,E]
230
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
ANSWER KEY
BIOTECHNOLOGY PROCESS (PRINCIPLE)
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans D B D D A C B B D C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A D B C B B A B C D
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans B B D C A B B D A C
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans B C D D A A C B C B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans C C B B C B C C B A
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans A D C A D A B B D C
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans A A B A D B D B A C
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans B D B C C C C A D B
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans A B D D A B C D C A
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans B C D C B A C A B B
231
NCERT LINE BY LINE
18 Biotechnology And Its Application
45. The advantage of beginning gene therapy 51. Technique used to detect mutation in
prior to birth is- [Pg-211,H] genes is known as- [Pg-212,E]
A) The body would not reject it as it A) Gel electrophoresis
has not yet recognised 'self'. B) PCR
B) This would give the body plenty of C) Gene therapy
time. D) Autoradiography
C) The cell being extremely young are 52. Which of the following technique is based
more receptive to gene therapy. on the principle of antigen – antibody
D) None of these interaction? [Pg-212,H]
PARAGRAPH-12.2.3 MOLECULAR A) PCR
DIAGNOSIS B) ELISA
C) Recombinant DNA technology
46. Why using conventional method for D) Gene therapy
diagnosis is not very relevant? PARAGRAPH-12.3 TRANSGENIC
[Pg-212,M] ANIMALS
A) Early detection is not possible
B) Not reliable 53. Animals whose DNA is manipulated to
C) Results are incorrect possess and express an extra (foreign)
D) All of these gene are known as [Pg-212,E]
47. Which of the following molecular A) Transgenic animals
diagnostic technique is used to detect the B) Hybrid animals
presence of a pathogen in its early stage C) Transferrin animals
of infection- [Pg-212,E] D) All of the above
A) Angiography 54. Transgenic animals are those which have
B) Radiography foreign? [Pg-212,M]
C) Enzyme replacement technique A) DNA in all of their cells
D) Polymerase chain reaction B) Proteins in all of their cells
48. Why PCR is used? [Pg-212,E] C) RNA in all their cells
A) to detect HIV in suspected AIDS D) RNA in some of their cells
patients 55. 95% of all the existing transgenic
B) to detect Mutation in the genes of animals are [Pg-212,E]
suspected cancer patients A) Pigs B) Cows
C) Diagnose many genetic disorders C) Mice D) All of these
D) All of the above 56. Transgenic animals can be used to
49. A single stranded Nucleic acid tagged [Pg-212,213,E]
with a radioactive molecule is called A) Study normal physiology
[Pg-212,E] B) Study the biological effects
A) Plasmid C) Study the vaccine safety
B) Probe D) All of the above
C) Vector 57. Transgenic animals made to serve as
D) Selectable market models for human diseases. The disease
50. In which of the following method, a probe are- [Pg-213,M]
is allowed hybridise to its complementary A) Alzheimer's disease
DNA in the clone of cells? [Pg-212,M] B) Cancer
A) Enzyme linked Immono sorbent C) Cystic fibrosis
Assay (ELISA) D) All of these
B) PCR 58. Which of the following transgenic human
C) Autoradiography protein products development are used
D) Gene therapy to treat emphysema? [Pg-213,H]
A) 𝛼-1 antitrypsin B) 𝛼-1 trypsin
235
NCERT LINE BY LINE
ZOOLOGY
72. Basmati is unique for its aroma and A) A-37, B-India B) A-27, B-India
flavour, whose __A__ documented C) A-27, B-USA D) A-30, B-USA
verities cultivated in __B__. [pg-214,E]
Answer Key
BIOTECHNOLOGY & ITS APPLICATION
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans C B C D D A D C D B
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans D D C B D C C C C C
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D B A C A A B D B C
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans A D C C D B B C C B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans A B A B C A D D B C
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans B B A A C D D A B D
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans B D A B B C B A C D
Q 71 72
Ans A B
237
NCERT LINE BY LINE