BOOKLET CODE

NEET 2023 E6
ANSWER KEY + SOLUTION KEY
Physics : Section - A (Q. No. 1 to 35) 03. Given below are two statements :
Statements I : Photovoltaic devices can convert
01. A bullet is fired from a gun at the speed of
optical radiation into electricity.
280 ms–1 in the direction 30° above the horizontal.
The maximum height attained by the bullet is (g = Statement II : Zener diode is designed to operate
9.8 ms–2, sin 30° = 0.5) : under reverse bias in breakdown region.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) 2800 m most appropriate answer from the options given
(2) 2000 m below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) 1000 m (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) 3000 m incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
1 incorrect.
u 2
sin 2  280  280 
Sol. (3) H =  4  1000m (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
2g 2  9.8 correct.
Sol. (1) Photovoltaic devices light energy  Electrical
2. A metal wire has mass (0.4  0.002) g, radius energy
(0.3  0.001) mm and length (5  0.02) cm. The Zener diode  Reverse Biased mode
maximum possible percentage error in the 04. The magnetic energy stored in an inductor of
measurement of density will nearly be : inductance 3µH carrying a current of 2A is :
(1) 1.2% (1) 4 µJ
(2) 4 mJ
(2) 1.3% (3) 8 mJ
(3) 1.6% (4) 8 µJ

(4) 1.4% 1 2 1
Sol. (4) U  LI  4  10 6  2  2  8J
2 2
Sol. (3) m  m  0.4  0.002  
05. If  E  dS  0 over a surface, then :
r  r  0.3  0.001
(1) the number of flux lines entering the surface
  l = 5  0.02 must be equal to the number of flux lines leaving
it.
m (2) the magnitude of electric field on the surface is
d , d  mr 2l 1 constant.
r 2l
(3) all the charges must necessarily be inside the
surface.
d  m 2r l 
100       100 (4) the electric field inside the surface is necessarily
d  m r l 
uniform.

d  0.002 2  0.001 0.02 

  a
100     100  1.6% Sol. (1)    E  ds    0
d  4 0.3 5  0

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06. The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is 10. Let a wire be suspended from the ceiling (rigid
(1) Zero (2) Positive support) and stretched by a weight W attached at
(3) Infinity (4) Negative its free end. The longitudinal stress at any point of
cross-sectional area A of the wire is
Sol. (1) Magnetic monopoles do not exist
07. If the galvanometer G does not show any deflection (1) 2W/A (2) W/A
in the circuit shown. the value of R is given by : (3) W/2A (4) Zero.

F W
Sol. (2) Stress  
A A

11. A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 50% when its

source is at a temperature 327°C. The temperature
(1) 200  (2) 50  of the sink is :
(3) 100  (4) 400  (1) 27° C (2) 15°C
10 V 400  2V (3) 100°C (4) 200°C
G IG = 0

+ + 50 1 T2
10 V–
R
–2 V Sol. (1)   100  2  1  T
Sol. (3) 1

O T2 1

T1 2
10  2 1
I1 =  A
400 50 600
T2   300 k
2
V 20
So R    100
I 1/ 50 T2 = 300 – 273 = 270C
08. In a series LCR circuit inductance L is 10 mH,
12. Resistance of a carbon resistor determined from
capacitance C is 1µF and resistance R is 100  .
colour codes is (22000 ± 5%)  . The colour of
The frequency at which resonance occurs is :
third band must be :
(1) 15.9 rad/s (2) 15.9 kHz
(3) 1.59 rad/s (4) 1.59 kHz (1) Red (2) Green
(3) Orange (4) Yellow
1 1 1 1
Sol. (4) f  2 
LC 2 10  10  110 6
3
Sol. (3) R  (22  103  5%)  Orange  3
f  1.59 KHz 13. The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by
09. The temperature of a gas is –50° C. To what an electron accelerated through a potential difference
temperature the gas should be heated so that the of V volts is proportional to :
rms speed is increased by 3 times.
1
(1) 669°C (2) 3295°C (1) V (2)
V
(3) 3097 K (4) 223 K

3RT 1
Sol. (2) As Urms= So Vrms  T (3) (4) V 2
M V

4V T hc
So V  Sol. (2)  
273  (50) KE

T = 3568 K 
1

1
KE V
So t0C = 3568 – 273 = 32950C

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14. For Young’s double slit experiment, two statements 10  5 5

Sol. (2) i    0.5 A
are given below : 2  1  7 10
Statement I : If screen is moved away from the plane as 10 volt battery has greater EMF hence current
of slits, angular separation of the fringes remains will be along AEB
constant. 17. In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in
Statement II : If the monochromatic source is the Balmer series is  . The shortest wavelength in
replaced by another monochromatic source of larger the Bracket series is :
wavelength, the angular separation of fringes
decreases. (1) 2  (2) 4 
In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) 9  (4) 16 
correct answer from the options given below : Sol. (2) Shortest wavelength of Balmer series is
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
1  1 1 R
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.  R 2       4
 2  4 R
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
for Brackett series,
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Sol. (3) Angular separation i.e. angular fringe width is 1  1 1  R 16
 R 2  2     
    4   16 R
given by   and it is independent of the distance
d So   4
of screen D. Therefor if screen is shifted away from 18. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with
the plane of slits then the angular separation of the an electric field of intensity 2 × 105 NC–1. It
fringes will remain the same. experiences a torque equal to 4 Nm. Calculate the
If the wavelength of incident radiation is increased magnitude of charge on the dipole, if the dipole
then angular width of the fringes will increase. length is 2 cm.
15. The work functions of Caesium (Cs), Potassium (1) 8 mC (2) 6 mC
(K) and Sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV, 2.30 eV and (3) 4 mC (4) 2 mC
2.75 eV respectively. If incident electromagnetic
radiation has an incident energy of 2.20 eV, which Sol. (4)   PE sin 
of these photosensitive surfaces may emit on p  qd
photoelectrons?
So  = qd E sin 
(1) Cs only (2) Both Na and K
Substituting the given values
(3) K only (4) Na only
Sol. (1) As the energy of incident radiation is 2.20 eV
and it is greater than the work function of Caesium
4  q 
2 

 100 
5
 2  10 sin 30
0

(Cs) only, out of the three given melts hence

photoelectrons will be emitted from Cs only. q  2  10 3 C  2mC
16. The magnitude and direction of the current in the 19. The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes.
following circuit is In how much time, the activity of substance drops
th
1 
to   of its initial value?
 16 
(1) 20 minutes (2) 40 minutes
(3) 60 minutes (4) 80 minutes
(1) 0.2 A from B to A through F Sol. (4) t1/2  20 min
(2) 0.5 A from A to B through E
x x x x
x 
t1/2
 
t1/2
 
t1/2
 
t1/2

5 2 4 8 16
(3) A from A to B through E
9 T = 20 × 4
(4) 1.5 A from B to A through E = 20 × 4
= 80 min

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 NEET 2023
20. The venturi-meter works on :
(1) Huygen’s principle
(2) Bernoulli’s principle
(3) The principle of parallel axes
(4) The principle of perpendicular axes
Answer Key + Solution Key
23. A full wave rectifier circuit consists of two p-n
junction diodes, a centre-tapped transformer,
capacitor and a load resistance. Which of these
components remove the ac ripple from the rectified
output ?
(1) A centre - tapped transformer

Sol. (2) Venturi meter works on B.T. (2) p-n junction diodes
21. An ac source is connected to a capacitor C. Due (3) Capacitor
to decrease in its operating frequency :
(4) Load resistance
(1) capacitive reactance decreases
Sol. (3) Capacitor work As filter device.
(2) displacement current increases
(3) displacement current decreases 24. The potential energy of a long spring when stretched
by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm,
(4) capacitive reactance remains constant potential energy stored in it will be :
1 1 (1) 2U
Sol. (3)  X C  
C  2C f 
(2) 4U
VC (3) 8U
 I C  .
XC 
(4) 16U
 IC  I d
Sol. (4) U  1 Kx 2
 Id  2
22. A foot ball player is moving southward and suddenly
1 1
turns eastward with the same speed to avoid an U K (2) 2  K (4)  2 K .........(i)
opponent. The force that acts on the player while 2 2
turning is
1 1
(1) along eastward U K (8) 2  K (64)  32 K .........(ii)
2 2
(2) along northward
From (i) and (ii)
(3) along north-east
U f = 16 U.
(4) along south - west
25. In a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in free
N y
space, the electric field component oscillates
sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0 × 1010 Hz and
Sol. (3) W E x’ x
amplitude 48 Vm–1. Then the amplitude of oscillating
magnetic field is : (Speed of light in free space = 3
S y’
× 10 8 ms–1)

 (1) 1.6 × 10 – 9 T (2) 1.6 × 10 – 8 T

(mvjˆ)  pI
(3) 1.6 × 10 – 7 T (4) 1.6 × 10 – 6 T

(mviˆ)  p f E0 48
Sol. (3) B0    16 10 8
C 3  108
p  mviˆ  mvjˆ
= 1.6 × 10 – 7 T.
i.e. along east - north.
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26. Light travels a distance x in time t1 in air and 10x in 29. The angular acceleration of a body, moving along
time t2 in another denser medium. What is the critical the circumference of a circle , is :
angle for this medium ? (1) along the radius, away from centre
t  1  10t  (2) along the radius towards the centre
(1) sin 1  2  (2) sin  2 
 t1  t
 1  (3) along the tangent to its position
(4) along the axis of rotation
1  t   10t 
(3) sin  1  (4) sin 1  1  Sol. (4) In rotational motion all angular vector are along
 10t2   t2 
he axis of rotation.
1  Angular acceleration is along the axis of rotation.
Sol. (4) sin C   ..........(i)
30. A vehicle travels half the distance with speed 
C0 and the remaining distance with speed 2. Its
Cm 
 average speed is
Cm x / t1  2
  (1) (2)
C0 10 x / t2 3 3
t2 4 3

10t1 ............(ii) (3)
3
(4)
4
from (i) and (ii) d

1 10t1
sin C  
 t2
27. The amount of energy required to form a soap Sol. (3)
bubble of radius 2 cm from a soap solution is nearly: A B C
(surface tension of soap solution = 0.03 Nm–1)
(1) 30.16 × 10 – 4 J (2) 5.06 × 10 – 4 J Let AB = d
(3) 3.01 × 10 – 4 J (4) 50.1 × 10 – 4 J
For path AC
Sol. (3) Given, T = 0.03 N/m
speed = v
A  4 r 2
distance = d/2
 E  U f  U i
distacne d
 8R 2  T  0  t1  
speed 2v
2 2
 8  3.14  (2  10 )  0.03 and , for path CB
 3.01 10 4 J speed 2v
28. A 12 V, 60 W lamp is connected to the secondary
distance = d/2
of a step down transformer, whose primary is
connected to ac mains of 220 V. Assuming the distacne d
transformer to be ideal, what is the current in the  t2  
speed 4v
primary winding ?
(1) 0.27 A (2) 2.7 A Now According to definition of average speed
(3) 3.7 A (4) 0.37 A Total distance d
Sol. (1)  In transformer v av  
total time d d

Pi / p  Po / p 2v 4v
60 W = 220 × ip
1

60 1 1
 ip  
220 2v 4v

3 4v
 ip   0.27 A.  v av  .
11 3

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31. The errors in the measurement which arise due Gm  4 G9m  4
to unpredictable fluctuations in temperature and V 
R 3R
voltage supply are :
(1) Instrumental errors (2) Personal errors 16Gm
V
(3) Least count errors (4) Random errors R

Sol. (4) Random error 34. The equivalent capacitance of the system shown in
the following circuit is :
 all the uncertain condition are cause of random
error.
32. The ratio of radius of gyration of a solid sphere of
mass M and radius R about its own axis to the radius
of gyration of the thin hollow sphere of same mass
and radius about its axis is :
(1) 3 : 5 (2) 5 : 3
(3) 2 : 5 (4) 5 : 2
Sol. (1) (BONUS) (1) 2 µF (2) 3 µF
Solid sphere (3) 6 µF (4) 9 µF
Sol. (1) Ceq parallel = 3 + 3 = 6 µF.
2
MK 2  MR 2
5 1 2 1
  Ceq  2F.
C eq 6
2
K SS  R
5 35. The ratio of frequencies of fundamental harmonic
produced by an open pipe to that of closed pipe
Hollow sphere
having the same length is :
2 (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
MK 2  MR2
3
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1
2
K HS  R U open v / 2l 4l 2
3 Sol. (2)     2 :1.
U closed v / 4l 2l 1
2
K R
 SS  5  3  3 : 5.
K HS 2 5 Physics : Section - B (Q. No. 36 to 50)
R
3
36. Calculate the maximum acceleration of a moving
33. Two bodies of mass m and 9m are placed at a car so that a body lying on the floor of the car
distance R. The gravitational potential on the line remains stationary. The coefficient of static friction
joining the bodies where the gravitational field between the body and the floor is 0.15 g
equals zero, will be (G = gravitational constant) ( g = 10 ms–2)
8Gm 12Gm (1) 1.2 ms–2 (2) 150 ms–2
(1)  (2) 
R R (3) 1.5 ms–2 (4) 50 ms–2
16Gm 20Gm Sol. (3) for maximum acceleration 
(3)  (4) 
R R friction is limiting
m
Sol. (3) . R .
9m µ = 0.15
f
x a

m
x R  f lim  ma
m  9m
µsmg = ma  a =µsg
R
x = 0.15 × 10 = 1.5 m/s2.
4
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37. The x-t graph of a particle performing simple 39. An electric dipole is placed as shown in the figure.
harmonic motion is shown in the figure. The
acceleration of the particle at t = 2s is :

The electric potential (in 102 V) at point P due to

the dipole is ( 0 = permittivity of free space and
2 2 1
(1) ms 2 (2)  ms 2 K)
8 8 4π 0
2 2
(3) ms 2 (4)  ms 2 3 5
16 16 (1)   qK (2)   qK
8 8
Sol. (4) at t = 2sec, x = 1 m ; T = 8 sec

 
2 2 8 8
T  (3)   qK (4)   qK
 T 5 3

 a  2 x q p
2 (5 – 3) = 2 cm
 2  42 4 2 4 2 2
    1   2   2    Sol. (1)
T  T 8 64 16
(5 + 3) cm = 8 cm
38. The net impedance of circuit (as shown in figure)
will be : Potential formula for the dipole can’t be used as
point P isn’t too for away from the dipole’s centre.

kq kq kq 1 1
VP    2 (  ) 
(2cm) (8 cm) 10 2 8

3
kq    102 Volts
(1) 10 2  (2) 15  8

(3) 5 5  (4) 25  40. A wire carrying a current I along the positive x-axis
has length L. It is kept in a magnetic field
Sol. (3)   2v  2 50  100 
B  (2i  3 j  4k ) T. The magnitude of the
50 magnetic force acting on the wire is :
L 103 Hz
 (1) 3 IL (2) 5IL
103 10 3
C  10 6  . (3) 5 IL (4)
  3IL
R  10 . Sol. (3)
  
XC 
1

1
 10

Force ( F )  I L  B 
C 3
10 
100
 
B  2i  3 j  4k 

F  I ( Li)  (2i  3 j  4k )
50
X L  L  100  103  5.


F  I L(3k  4 j )
 Z  R 2  ( X C  X L )2

F  1 L 32  4 2  5 IL
 102  (10  5) 2  100  25  125  5 5.

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41. A bullet from a gun is fired on a rectangular wooden

block with velocity u. When bullet travels 24 cm
through the block along its length horizontally,
u Sol. (3)
velocity of bullet becomes . Then it further
3
penetrates into the block in the same direction
before coming to rest exactly at the other end of 1 1 1 1
  
the block. The total length of the block is : f f1 f 2 f3
f1 = f3
(1) 27 cm (2) 24 cm
(3) 28 cm (4) 30 cm 1 1 1
2 
Sol. (1) f f f2
u/3 Rest
 1  2
 2(1.6  1)    (1.5  1) 
 20  20
u
24 cm x
0.6 2
2  2   0.5 
u 20 20
   u  2a (24 cm)
2
....(i)
 
3
0.6 2
2  2   0.5 
u 20 20
O 2     2a ( x cm) ....(ii)
3 = – 0.06 + 0.05
From (i) and (ii)
1
x = 3 cm  0.01
f
Length = 24 cm + 3 cm = 27 cm
f = – 100 cm
42. Two thin lenses are of same focal lengths (f), but
one is convex and the other one is concave. When
they are placed in contact with each other, the 44. A satellite is orbiting just above the surface of the
equivalent focal length of the combination will be : earth with period T. If d is the density of the earth
(1) Zero (2) f/4 and G is the universal constant of gravitation, the
(3) f/2 (4) Infinite 3π
quantity represents :
Sol. (1) Focal length of concave lens (f1) = – f Gd
Focal length of convex lens (f2) = f (1) T (2) T2

1 1 1 1 1 (3) T3 (4) T
    0
f eq f1 f 2  f f 2 R e
Sol. (2) T 
GM e
f eq  
re
43. In the figure shown here, what is the equivalent focal
3
length of the combination of lenses (Assume that all
T  2 R e 2
layers are thin) ?
4M e
4 2 R e3
T
4
G   R e3 p
3
3
T 
ρG
(1) 40 cm (2) – 40 cm
3
(3) – 100 cm (4) – 50 cm T2
ρG

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45. For the following logic circuit, the truth table is : Sol. (3) Given at 0°C , resistance = 2 
and at 80°C = 6.8 
R R  R0 6.8  2
  t 
R0 T R0 T 2  80

A B Y 48  102
(1) A B Y
(2) =  3 102o C 1
0 0 1
0 0 0
16
0 1 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
48. 10 resistors, each of resistance R are connected in
1 0 1
1 1 1 series to a battery of emf E and negligible internal
1 1 0
resistance. The those are connected in parallel to
(3) A B Y (4) A B Y the same battery, the current is increased n times.
0 0 1 0 0 0 The value of n is
0 1 0 0 1 0 (1) 10 (2) 100
1 0 1
1 0 0 (3) 1 (4) 1000
1 1 0
1 1 1 Sol. (2) 10 equal resistors RS = 10R
A B Y
Req (series) = 10R

 
Sol. (2) ` Y  AB  ( A  B) 0

0
0

1
0

1
R
Req (parallel) =
10
1 0 1
Hence this behaves like OR gate. in case of parallel
1 1 1

V V 
46. A very long conducting wire is bent in a semi-circular i '  ni   10    10  10
shape from A to B as shown in figure. The magnetic R R
 
field at point P for steady current configuration is  10 
given by : n = 100.
49. The radius of inner most orbit of hydrogen atom is
5.3 × 10–11 m. What is the radius of third allowed
orbit of hydrogen atom ?
(1) 0.53 Å (2) 1.06 Å
(3) 1.59 Å (4) 4.77 Å
μ 0i r0 n 2
(1) pointed into the page Sol. (4) Radiation of nth orbit =
4R 
μ 0i For 3rd orbital
(2) pointed away from the page = 5.3 × 10–11 × 32
4R
= 9 × 5.3 × 10–11
μ 0i  2  = 4. 77 Å
(3) 1 pointed away from page
4 R  π  50. A horizontal bridge is built across a river. A student
standing on the bridge throws a small ball vertically
upwards with a velocity 4 m s–1. The ball strikes
μ 0i  2 
(4) 1 pointed into the page the water surface after 4 s. The height of bridge
4 R  π  above water surface is (Taken g = 10 m s–2) :
Sol. (3) Bnet = Bloop – 2 Bwire (1) 56 m (2) 60 m
0i  0i (3) 64 m (4) 68 m
Bnet  
4R 2 R
4 m/s

0i 2 Sol. (3)

 (1  )
4R 
out of the plane of the paper h

47. The resistance of platinum wire at 0 o C is 1 2 1

h  ut  gt  4  4  10  16
2  and 6.8  at 80 o C. The temperature 2 2
coefficient of resistance of the wire is :  16  80  64m.
(1) 3 × 10–4 oC–1 (2) 3 × 10–3 oC–1 For downward
(3) 3 × 10 C
–2 o –1
(4) 3 × 10–1 oC–1 h = 64 m

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 NEET 2023 Answer Key + Solution Key

Chemistry : Section - A (Q. No. 51 to 85) 54. Identify the product in the following reaction :

51. The relation between nm, (nm = the number of

permissible value so magnetic quantum number (m))
for a given value of azimuthal quantum number (l),
is

nm 1
(1) l 
2
(1) (2)
(2) l = 2nm + 1
(3) nm = 2l2 + 1
(4) nm = l + 2
Sol. (1)
nm = 2  + 1
nm - 1 = 2  (3) (4)

nm 1

2
52. The element expected to form largest ion to achieve Sol. (2)
the nearest noble gas configuration is : N2Cl- Br MgBr

(1) O (2) F Cu2Br2/HBr Mg H2O

Sandmeyer reaction dry ether
(3) N (4) Na
55. The conductivity of centimolar solution of KCl at
Sol. (3) 250C is 0.0210 ohm-1 cm-1 and the resistance of
N atom  the cell containing the solution at 250C is 60 ohm.
3e 
 N (10)
-3
The value of cell constant is
(2, 5) Anion (1) 1.34 cm–1 (2) 3.28 cm–1
more the e–, greater will be size. (3) 1.26 cm–1 (4) 3.34 cm–1
53. Which amongst the following molecules on Sol. (3)
polymerization produces neoprene ?
K = 0.0210
(1) H2C = CH - CH = CH2
1
Cl = 0.0210

|
R = 60
(2) H2C = C - CH = CH2 3

(3) H2C = CH - C  CH R=
A
CH3
 R
| =
A A
(4) H2C = C - CH = CH2
1
Sol. (2) =Rx 
Cl
Polymerisation
CH2 = C - CH = CH2 CH2 - C = CH - CH2 = 60 x 0.0210
(Chloroprere) Cl n
(Neoprene) 
= 1.26
- We follow free radical addition polymerisation. A

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 NEET 2023 Answer Key + Solution Key

56. Match List - I with List - II : 58. homoleptic complex from the following complexes
is :
List - I List - II
(1) Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III)
A. Coke I. Carbon atoms are sp3
(2) Diamminechloridonitrito - N - platinum (II)
hybridised.
(3) Pentaamminecarbonatocobalt (III) chloride
B. Diamond II. Used as dry lubricant (4) Triamminetriaquachromium (III) chloride
C. Fullerene III. Used as a reducing agent Sol. (1)
D. Graphite IV. Cage like molecules K3 [Al (C2O4)3]
Choose the correct answer from the options given 
below :
Only one type of ligand
(1) A -II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
 Homoleptic ligand
(2) A -IV, B-I, C-II, D-III 59. A compound is formed by two elements A and B.
(3) A -III, B-I, C-IV, D-II The element B forms cubic close packed structure
and atoms of A occupy 1/3 of tetrahedral voids. If
(4) A -III, B-IV, C-I, D-II the formula of the compound is AxBy, then the value
Sol. (3) of x + y is in option
A. Coke  used as Reducing agent (1) 5 (2) 4

B. Diamond  sp3 carbon (3) 3 (4) 2

Sol. (1)
C. Fullerene  Cage like molecule
TV = 8
D. Graphite  used as Lubricant B  CCP  4
OV = 4
57. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : 1 1
A x TV = x 8 = 8/3
3 3
Assertion A : A reaction can have zero activation
energy. A = B = 8/3 : 4
= 8 : 12
Reasons R : The minimum extra amount of energy
absorbed by reactant molecules so that their energy A:B=2:3
becomes equal to threshold value, is called activation A2B3
energy.
60. The right option for the mass of CO2 produced by
In the light of the above statements, choose the heating 20g of 20% pure limestone is (Atomic mass
correct answer from the options given below : of Ca = 40)
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 1200 K
[CaCO 3   CaO  CO 2 ]
explanation of A.
(1) 1.12 g (2) 1.76 g
(2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the
correct explanation of A. (3) 2.64 g (4) 1.32 g
Sol. (2)
(3) A is true but R is false.
CaCO3 (s) 
1200K
 CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(4) A is false but R is true.
% Purity = 20%
Sol. (2)
Wsmaple = 20g
A Rxn can have zero activation energy.
20
(Photochemical Rxn)  True WCaCO3   20 g
100
Minimum Energy absorbed by reactant
= 4g
molecules is called Activation energy.

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 NEET 2023 Answer Key + Solution Key

4 63. Select the correct statements from the following :

n CaCO3  A. Atoms of all elements are composed of two
100
fundamental particles.
n CO2 B. The mass of the electro is 9.10939 x 10-31 kg.
n CaCO3 = 1 C. Al the isotopes of a given element show same
chemical properties.
4 D. Protons and electrons are collectively known as
 n CO2  n CoCO3 
100 nucleons.
4 E. Dalton’s atomic theory, regarded the atom as an
 WCO 2   M CO 2 ultimate particle of matter.
100
Choose the correct answer from the options given
4 below :
  44
100 (1) A, B and C only (2) C, D and E only
176 (3) A and E only (4) B, C and E only
  1.76 g Sol. (4)
100
- Atoms of all elements are composed of three
61. Taking stability as the factor, which one of the
fundamental particles.
following represents correct relationship ?
- Mass of the electron is 9.10939 x 10-31 kg.
(1) TlC3 > TlCl (2) InI3 > InI
- Protons and neutrons are collectively known as
(3) AlCl > AlCl3 (4) TlI > TlI3 nucleons.
Sol. (4) - Dalton’s atomic theory, regarded the atom as an
TlI > TlI3 (Stability due to inert pair effect) ultimate particle of matter.
62. Identify product (A) in the following reaction : 64. For a certain reaction, the rate = k[A]2[B], when
the initial concentration of A is tripled keeping
concentration of B constant, the initial rate would
(1) decrease by a factor of nine.
(2) increase by a factor of six.
(3) increase by a factor of nine.
(4) increase by a factor of three.
(1) Sol. (3)
R = K(A)2(B)
[A]New = 3 [A]
(2) [B]New = Constant
RNew = K(3A)2(B) = 9K(A)2(B)
RNew = 9 RInitial
65. Given below are two statements :
(3) Statement I : A unit formed by the attachment of a
base to 1' position of sugar is known as nucleoside
Statement I : When nucleoside is linked to
phosphorous acid at 5'-position of sugar moity, we
(4) get nucleotide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Sol. (1) correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
O
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Zn  Hg

Conc.HCl
A (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
O (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Clemenson’s reduction : This reagent reduces Sol. (3)
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
C = O group to - CH 2 -

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66. Amongst the given options which of the following 69. Which of the following statements are NOT
molecules /ion acts as a Lewis acid ? correct?
(1) NH3 (2) H2O A. Hydrogen is used to reduce heavy metal, oxides
to metals.
(3) BF3 (4) OH–
B. Heavy water is used to study reaction mechanism
Sol. (3)
C. Hydrogen is used to make saturated fats from
According to Lewis structure of BF3 oils.
F D. The H-H bond dissociation enthalpy is lowest
as compared to a single bond between two atoms
B
6e- of any element.

F
E. Hydrogen reduces oxides of metals that are more
F
active than iron.
B has incomplete octet, hence it hence accept 2 (1) B, C, D, E only
electrons to complete its octet hence acts as Lewis
(2) B, D only
acid.
(3) D, E only
67. Which of the following reactions will NOT give
(4) A, B, C only
primary amine as the product ?
Sol. (3)
(1) CH3CONH2 
Br2 /KOH
 Product A . Reactivity of heavy metals is less than hydrogen
(i ) LiAlH 4 hence oxides of heavy metals can be reduced by
(2) CH3 CN  Product
(ii ) H3O 
hydrogen.
(i ) LiAlH 4 B. Heavy water in used to study reaction
(3) CH3NC 
(ii ) H3O 
 Product
mechanism because it reduces the rate of reaction
(i ) LiAlH 4 and hence allow reaction can be studied easily.
(4) CH3CONH2 
(ii ) H3O 
 Product
C. Veg-oil + H2  vanaspati ghee
Sol. (3) D. H-H is strong single bond known due to shortest
LiAlH 4
bond length.
CH3 - NC 
H3 O  CH3 - NH - CH3
E. Hydrogen is less reactive than metal above Fe
2 -amine
0 hence can’t reduce their oxides.

68. Amongst the following the total number of species 70. Weight (g) of two moles of the organic compound,
NOT having eight electrons around central atom in which is obtained by heating sodium ethanoate with
its outer most shell, is sodium hydroxide in presence of calcium oxide is :
NH3, AlCl3, BeCl2, CCl4, PCl5 (1) 16

(1) 3 (2) 32
(3) 30
(2) 2
(4) 18
(3) 4
Sol. (2)
(4) 1
O
Sol. (1)
NaOH
CH3 - C - ONa CH4 + Na2CO3
According to Lewis structures CaO
Cl
Sodium Ethanoate Methane
Cl
Cl
10e-
Al
6e- Cl - Be - Cl
4e-
Cl P Cl Organic compound produced is CH4(methane)
Cl Cl Cl
mass of 2 moles of CH4 = 2 x 16 g
Only three structures of given 5 structures not having = 32 g
8e– around the centras atom.

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 NEET 2023 Answer Key + Solution Key

71. The number of  bonds,  bonds and lone pair of 74. Which amongst the following options is correct
electrons in pyridine, respectively are: graphical representation of Boyle’s Law?
(1) 11, 2, 0
(2) 12, 3, 0
(3) 11, 3, 1
(4) 12, 2, 1 (1) (2)
Sol. (3)
H
H H
pyridine
H N
H
(3) (4)
No. of  -bonds = 111
No. of  -bonds = 3
No. of lone pair = 1
Sol. (2)
72. Which one of the following statements is correct? Acc. to Boyle’s Law-
(1) The daily requirement of Mg and Ca in the
human body is estimated to be 0.2 - 0.3 g. 1
P
(2) All enzymes that utilise ATP in phosphate transfer V
require Ca as the cofactor.
(3) The bone in human body is an inert and
unchanging substance.
(4) Mg plays roles in neuromuscular function and
interneuronal transmission.
Sol. (1)
It is the fact according to which human body needs
200 mg to 300 mg amount of Mg & Ca daily.
73. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as T3 > T 2 > T 1
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: 75. The correct order of energies of molecular orbitals
Assertion A: Metallic sodium dissolves in liquid of N2 molecule, is:
ammonia giving a deep blue solution, which is
paramagnetic. (1) 1s   *1s   2s   *2s   2p x  2p y  
Reason R: The deep blue solution is due to the  2pz    *2p x   * 2p y    *2pz
formation of amide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (2) 1s   *1s   2s   * 2s   2pz
correct answer from the options given below:  2p x  2p y     * 2p x   *2p y    * 2pz
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A. (3) 1s   *1s   2s   * 2s   2p z 
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct  * 2p z   2p x  2p y     * 2p x   * 2p y 
explanation of A.
(4) 1s   *1s   2s   * 2s   2p x  2p y  
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.   * 2p x   * 2p y    2p z   *2pz
Sol. (3) Sol. (1)
Due to ammoniated electron gives deep blue colour If atomic number  14
solution.
then 1s   *1s   2s   *2s   2p x  2p y  
M + x + y NH3   M(NH3)x + e–(NH3)y
 2pz    *2p x   * 2p y    *2pz

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76. Some tranquilizers are listed below. Which one from 78. Intermolecular forces are forces of attraction and
the following belongs to barbiturates? repulsion between interacting particles that will
include:
(1) Chlordiazepoxide A. dipole - dipole forces.
B. dipole - induced dipole forces.
(2) Meprobamate
C. hydrogen bonding.
(3) Valium D. covalent bonding
E. dispersion forces.
(4) Veronal Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
Sol. (4) (1) B, C, D, E are correct
(2) A, B, C, D are correct
Veronal is belongs to tranquilizers of barbiturate
(3) A, B, C, E are correct
derivative.
(4) A, C, D, E are correct
Sol. (3)
H
O In covalent bonding does not occular force & force
O N
or repulsion.
N Et
H 79. Which one is an example of heterogenous catalysis?
Et
O (1) Oxidation of sulphur dioxide into sulphur trioxide
in the presence of oxides of nitrogen.
77. The given compound (2) Hydrolysis of sugar catalysed by H+ ions.
(3) Decomposition of ozone in presence of nitrogen
monoxide.
(4) Combination between dinitrogen and
dihydrogen to form ammonia in the presence
of finely divided iron.
Sol. (4)
Fe(s)
is an example of ________. N 2  3H 2   2NH 3
(g ) (g) (g )

(1) benzylic halide 80. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(2) aryl halide Assertion A: Helium is used to dilute oxygen in
diving apparatus.
(3) allylic halide Reason R: Helium has high solubility in O2.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) vinylic halide
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Sol. (3)
explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct
CH = CH –CH –CH2 –CH3 explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
X (4) A is false but R is true
Sol. (3)
Allylic carbon so it
belongs to allylic halide He is less solubility then O2
Due to less vander waal force of attraction

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81. The stability of Cu2+ is more than Cu+ salts in 83. Complete the following reaction:
aqueous solution due to-
(1) first ionisation enthalpy
(2) enthalpy of atomization
(3) hydration energy
(4) second ionisation enthalpy
Sol. (3)
[C] is ________.
Cu is more stable than Cu stability depend on
2+ +

hydration energy of the ions when the bond to the

(1) (2)
water. In aqueous solution Cu+ disproportionate to
Cu2+ and Cu ( 2Cu    Cu 2  Cu ) Cu2+ ions
has greater charge density and form much stronger
bonds releasing more energy. (3) (4)

82. Consider the following reaction and identify the

Sol. (4)
product (P).

HCN OH
O
CN
cyanohydrin
–H2O Conc. H2SO4

(1) (2)
COOH

84. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as

Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(3) (4)
Assertion A: In equation  r G   nFE cell , value of
 r G depends on n.
Sol. (1)
Reason R: Ecell is an intensive property and  r G is
an extensive property.
CH3–CH–CH–CH3
H+Br– In the light of the above statements, choose the
CH3 OH
–H2O correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
H explanation of A.
H shif t
CH3–C–CH2–CH3 CH3–C–CH–CH3 (2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct
CH3 CH3 explanation of A.
4 H
8H (3) A is true but R is false
Br (4) A is false but R is true
Br Sol. (1)
CH3–C–CH2–CH3
Ecell is an intensive parameter but  r G is an
CH3
extensive thermodynamic property and the value
depends on n.

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85. In Lassaigne’s extract of an organic compound, 87. Match List-I with List-II :
both nitrogen and sulphur are present, which gives
blood red colour with Fe3+ due to the formation of- List-I (Oxoacids List-II (Bonds)

(1) Fe 4  Fe(CN)6 3 .xH 2 O

of Sulphur)
(2) NaSCN
A. Peroxodisul- I. Two S-OH, Four S=O,
(3)  Fe(CN)5 NOS
4

phuric acid One S-O-S

(4)  Fe(SCN) 
2

Sol. (4) B. Sulphuric acid II. Two S-OH, One S=O

If both N + S are present then lassaigne’s extract
C. Pyrosulphuric III. Two S-OH, For S=O,
of organic compound gives

Na + C + N + S 
 NaSCN acid One S-O-O-S
when we react it with Fe3+ then [Fe(SCN)]2+
formed which gives blood red colour. D. Sulphurous acid IV. Two S-OH, Two S=O
Chemistry : Section - B (Q. No. 86 to 100)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
8 6 . Identify the major product obtained in the following below :
reaction :
O (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

H 2[ Ag ( NH 3 ) 2 ]  (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

O
 (3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
3 OH   major product
OH O (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(1) (2)
OH OH
Sol. (2)
O OH

(3) (4) O O
- - HO S O O S OH Peroxodisulphuric acid
COO COO
Sol. (3) O O

O
H 2[ Ag ( NH 3 ) 2 ]  (Silver mirror test) HO S OH Sulphuric acid
O O
O

O
O H O
OH S OH Sulphurous acid
O
O-
3OH- O O
Acid base O
 HO S O S OH Pyro sulphuric acid
reaction
O O

Note : - Ketone can’t show silver mirror test

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88. On balancing the given redox reaction, 91. Consider the following reaction :
aCr2O72  bSO32 (aq )  cH  ( aq)  HI
CH2 O A+B

c Identify products A and B
2aCr 3 (aq )  bSO42 (aq )  H 2O (l ) 
2
(1) A= CH 3 and B= OH
The coefficients a, b and c found to be respectively-

(1) 1, 3, 8 (2) 3, 8, 1 (2) A= CH2OH and B= I

(3) 1, 8, 3 (4) 8, 1, 3 and B=

(3) A= CH2I OH

Sol. (1)
(4) A= CH 3 and B= I

change = 2
+12 -2 +4 +6 +6 Sol. (3)
Cr2O 7 + SO3-2 2Cr+3 + SO4-2
change = 6

HI
CH 2 O

8 H   Cr2O72  3SO32 
H
2Cr 3  3SO42  4 H 2O H

CH 2 O
a=1 b=3 c=8
I
89. Pumice stone is an example of -

(1) sol (2) gel

CH 2 I + HO
(3) solid sol (4) foam
92. Identify the final product [D] obtained in the
Sol. (3) following sequence of reactions.
i ) LiAlH 4
Pumice stone is sol of gas in solid it is also called CH 3CHO [ A] 
H 2 SO4

[ B ]
ii ) H 3O 
solid sol.
Br
90. Which complex compound is most stable ?
HBr
[C] [D]
(1) [Co( NH 3 )4 ( H 2O ) Br ]( NO3 ) 2 Na/dry ether

(2) [Co( NH 3 )3 ( NO3 )3 ] (1) (2)

(3) [CoCl2 (en) 2 ] NO3 (3) C4H10 (4) HC  C  Na 

Sol. (1)
(4) [Co( NH 3 )6 ]2 ( SO4 )3
i) LiAlH4 H2SO4
CH3CHO CH3 CH2 OH

CH2 CH 2
ii) H2O+ [A] Alkene
Sol. (3) [B]
HBr
Br
markonikov's rule

Polydentate ligands generally forms chelates. Na/Dry

CH3 CH 2 Br
[C]
chelating complexes are more stable than normal [D] ether

complexes.

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 NEET 2023 Answer Key + Solution Key

93. Given below are two statements : 95. What fraction of one edge centred octahedral void
lies in one unit cell of fcc ?
Statement I : The nutrient deficient water bodies
lead to eutrophication.
1 1
(1) (2)
Statement II : Eutrophication leads to decrease in 2 3
the level of oxygen in the water bodies.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. 1 1
(3) (4)
4 12
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Sol. (3)
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
In FCC unit cell
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
true. total O.V. are = 4
Sol. (4) One present at body centre and 12 present at edge
Correct statement for 1 is centres. Body centre shared by only one unit cell.
1
The nutrient enriched water bodies lead to Each edge centre is shared by .
eutrophication 4

94. Which amongst the following will be most readily 1

dehydrated under acidic conditions ? Total O.V = 1 × 1 + 12  =4
4
NO 2 OH 96. The reaction that does NOT take place in a blast
(1) CH3 furnace between 900 K to 1500 K temperature
H range during extraction of iron is :
OH OH (1) Fe2O3 + CO  2FeO + CO2
(2) H C
3 H (2) FeO + CO  Fe + CO2

NO 2 (3) C + CO2  2CO

H
(3) (4) CaO  SiO2  CaSiO3
OH
OH Sol. (3)
NO 2 At 900-1500 K (Higher temperature range)

(4) C + CO2  2 CO
OH
FeO + CO  Fe + CO2
Sol. (4)
97. Which amongst the following options is the correct
 At first we know that in case of dehydration relation between change in enthalpy and change in
rate  stability of carbocation. In case of option internal energy ?
(4) Formed carbocation is most stable compare to
other option. (1) H  U  ng RT

NO 2 NO2 (2) H  U  ng RT



H

OH
(3) H  U  nRT

(4) H  U  nR
OH
2) H3C H  we apply distance dependant Sol. (2)

H  U  ng RT

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 NEET 2023 Answer Key + Solution Key

98. Consider the following compounds/species : 99. The equilibrium concentration of the species in the
reaction A  B  C  D are 2, 3, 10 and 6 mol
L–1, respectively at 300 K. G o for the reaction is
i. ii. (R = 2 cal / mol K )
(1) 1372.60 cal (2) – 137.26 cal
(3) – 1381.80 cal (4) –13.73 cal
Sol. (3)
iii. iv.
A B  C  D
[A]eq = 2 mol L–1
[B]eq = 3 mol L–1
v. vi. [C]eq = 10 mol L–1
[D]eq = 6 mol L–1
T = 300 K

vii. [C ]eq [ D]eq

Kc 
[ A]eq [ B]eq
The number of compounds/species which obey
10  6
Huckel’s rule is______.   10
23
(1) 4 G o  2.303 RT log kc
(2) 6  (2.303  2  300 log10) cal

(3) 2  1381.8cal
100. Which of the following statements are
(4) 5 INCORRECT?
A. All the transition metals except scandium form
Sol. (1)
MO oxides which are ionic.
answer (4) compound obeys Huckel Rule. B. The highest oxidation number corresponding to
the group number in transition metal oxides is
attained in Sc2O3 to Mn2O7.
i. C. Basic character increases from V2O3 to V2O4
to V2O5
D. V2O4 dissolves in acids to give VO43– salts.
ii. E. CrO is basic but Cr2O3 is amphoteric.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) A and E only
(2) B and D only
v.
(3) C and D only
(4) B and C only
Sol. (3)
vii.
C. Higher metal oxides are acidic in nature
D. V2O4 dissolves in acid to give VO2+ salts.
ii. & iv. are antiaromatic
V2O5 react with alkalies as well as acid to give
vi is non aromatic. VO43–

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