Boeing 737 NG - Questionaire

BOEING'737'NEW'GENERATION'
'
QUESTIONNAIRES'
!
Coletânea!retirada!do!site:!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!http://www.smartcockpit.com/plane/boeing/B737/!!!!!!!!!!!
By'MENDANHA'5'netomendanha@gmail.com'
INDEX'
1!
!
Air'Systems'...........................................................................................................'2'
Gabarito!–!Air!Systems!!.............................................................................................!15!
APU'....................................................................................................................'16'
Gabarito!C!APU!..........................................................................................................!21!
Automatic'Flight'.................................................................................................'22'
Gabarito!–!Automatic!Flight!!.....................................................................................!32!
Communications'.................................................................................................'33'
Gabarito!C!Communications!......................................................................................!37!
Electrical'.............................................................................................................'38'
Gabarito!C!Electrical!..................................................................................................!50!
Engines'...............................................................................................................'51'
Gabarito!C!Engines!.....................................................................................................!57!
Fire'protection''...................................................................................................'58'
Gabarito!C!Fire!protection!!........................................................................................!62!
Flight'Controls''...................................................................................................'63'
Gabarito!C!Flight!Controls!!.........................................................................................!75!
Flight'Instruments'&'Displays''.............................................................................'76'
Gabarito!C!Flight!Instruments!&!Displays!!.................................................................!86!
Flight'Managment'&'Navigation''........................................................................'88'
Gabarito!C!Flight!Managment!&!Navigation!!...........................................................!101!
Fuel''..................................................................................................................'102'
Gabarito!C!Fuel!!........................................................................................................!112!
Hydraulics''........................................................................................................'113'
Gabarito!C!Hydraulics!!..............................................................................................!121!
Ice'&'Rain'Protection''.......................................................................................'123'
Gabarito!C!Ice!&!Rain!Protection!!.............................................................................!130!
Landing'Gear''....................................................................................................'131'
Gabarito!C!Landing!Gear!!..........................................................................................!143!
Warning'Systems''.............................................................................................'144'
Gabarito!C!Warning!Systems!!...................................................................................!152!
'
'
'
'
'
2!
Questionnaire'5'Air'Systems'
1. During preflight procedure the trim air switch is left in the OFF position and only one pack
is selected ON for air conditioning. What is the consequence?
a. Since the trim air is off both packs will average the temperature that satisfies the zone which
requires the most cooling.
b. During single pack operation the zone temperature is controlled the same as during two pack
operation.
c. With the TRIM AIR selected OFF, the pack attempts to produce an air temperature to satisfy
the average temperature demands of all three zones.
d. If a passenger cabin zone trim air, or all trim air is lost, the forward and aft zone temperature
demands will be averaged for control of the left pack.
2. When pressing Master Caution Recall the CONT CAB amber ZONE TEMP light illuminates.
What is correct?
a. This indicates a failure of both the primary and standby temperature control systems.
b. Due to failure of the primary flight deck temperature control, automatic switching to the
backup system has occurred.
c. This indicates one PACK has overheated and has to be reset by pushing the trip reset
button.
d. This indicates that both temperature controllers will regulate the temperature to a preset
value.
3. When will the descent mode be activated in the pressurization system?

a. When T/D is reached.
b. When retard is announced in the FMA.
c. When descending 0.25psi below the selected flight altitude.
d. When within 15 000 feet of the landing airport.
4. Due to a malfunction you are required to return to the airport of departure. To avoid the
OFF SCHED DESCENT warning you reset the FLT ALT. What can you expect?
a. The system will be recalculating the pressurization for the departure airport.
b. The pressurization will increase its ventilation and possibly pressurization will be lost.
c. The automatic abort capability for the departure airport is lost.
d. Nothing will happen and you will still get the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning.
5. From where does the Cabin Auto Controller get its inputs.
a. From the static ports.
b. From the Captain’s CDU.
3!
c. From the ADIRU’s.
d. From the EFIS control panel.
6. Where are the bleed trip sensors installed?

a. On the 9th Stage bleed air line.
b. On the engine side of the engine bleed air valve.
c. Sensors are positioned on both sides of the engine bleed air valve.
d. On the bleed air duct prior to the pack valve.
7. The right WING-BODY OVERHEAT light is illuminated, what area is affected?

a. The keel beam.
b. APU bleed duct.
c. Left aircond bay.
d. Right engine strut.
8. What is the purpose of the recirculation fans?

a. To increase the pressure in the cabin.
b. To decrease the air conditioning system pack load.
c. If increased smoke removal is required.
d. To operate as air mixers in the mix manifold.
9. The wing-body overheat light comes on. What is the related master caution warning?
a. OVHT /DET
b. AIR COND
c. OVERHEAD
d. As the light is in the proximity of the pilot’s perception there is no master caution for this
condition.
10. One PACK light illuminates on recall only. What is the situation?
a. There is FOD in the RAM AIR intake forcing the pack to shut down.
b. Both primary and secondary pack controls have failed.
c. The primary pack control has failed and the pack is now controlled by the standby pack
control
d. Both temperature control valves have shut closed in the affected pack.
11. The Recirculation Fan:

a. Is driven by a DC motor.
b. Increases airflow at greater cabin differential pressures.
c. Reduces air conditioning pack load.
4!
d. Provides overheat detection downstream of the packs.
12. Cruising at FL 370. The motorized Overboard Exhaust valve will open if:
a. Either pack switches are in HIGH and recirculation fan is OFF.
b. Both pack switches are in AUTO and recirculation fan is OFF.
c. Both pack switches are in HIGH and recirculation fan is ON.
d. Both pack switches are in AUTO and recirculation fan is ON.
13. The amber OFF SCHEDULE DESCENT light illuminates. What does it indicates?
a. The main pressurization controller is unable to maintain pressurization and has to be
manually shift to manual
b. The pressurization standby controller has failed and will automatically shift to STANDBY.
c. The aircraft has descended before reaching the planned cruise altitude set in the altitude
window.
d. The pressurisation controller has failed and will automatically shift to manual.
14. In MANUAL pressurization mode the outflow is driven by?

a. A motor supplied from DC bus 2.
b. A motor supplied from DC standby bus.
c. A motor supplied from DC bus 1.
d. Requires AC power from transfer bus 1.
15. What is the primary source of conditioned air for the cockpit?
a. The Right pack.
b. The Left pack.
c. Both packs.
d. Ground air.
16. During descent when the descent mode is activated:

a. Aircraft descends 0.25 psi below the selected FLT ALT.
b. Aircraft descends 0.50 below the selected FLT ALT.
c. Aircraft descends 0.25 psi below the selected LAND ALT;
d. Aircraft descends 0.50 psi below the selected LAND ALT.
17. The maximum differential pressure is:

a. 7.90 psi
b. 8.45 psi
c. 8.65 psi
d. 9.10 psi
5!
18. What are the causes of an Amber AUTO FAIL light?

a. Loss of DC power;
b. Excessive rate of cabin press change or cabin altitude above 15800 ft;
c. Both above statements are correct;
19. Given the scenario that the expected cruise level of FL310 was selected into the FLT ALT
selector during preflight, but subsequently the A/C climbed to FL390, would you expect:
a. A differential pressure of 7.45 psi maintained by the negative pressure relief valve;
b. A differential pressure of 9.1 psi maintained by the positive pressure relief valve;
c. A differential pressure of 8.35 psi maintained by the forward outflow valve;
20. The cabin will automatically pressurize to 0.125 PSID on the ground when:
a. Engine thrust is increased towards takeoff thrust.
b. When the PSEU is activated.
c. When the aircraft goes into the ground mode of the air/ground sensor.
21. AUTO mode active. The AUTO FAIL light illuminates when:
a. The cabin altitude exceeds 15,800ft.
b. The rate of cabin pressure change exceeds 1000 ft/min.
c. The pressurization controller is moved to ALTN.
22. When both the AUTO FAIL light and the ALTN light illuminate:
a. Pressurization has automatically switched to the ALTN system.
b. Pressurization has automatically switched to the MAN system.
c. Pressurization has automatically switched to the opposite automatic controller.
23. Where do the AUTO mode controllers receive their barometric information from?
a. The captain's pitot/static system.
b. The FO's pitot/static system.
c. The ADIRUs.
24. Loss of airflow due to failure of an equipment cooling fan results in illumination of the
related equipment cooling OFF light. Selecting the alternate fan should restore airflow and
extinguish the OFF light within approximately _____.
a. 5 seconds
b. 30 seconds
c. 1 minute
d. 3 minutes
6!
25. Where is the forward outflow valve located?

a. Just in front of the forward airstairs.
b. Forward of the left hand air conditioning inlet.
c. There is no forward outflow valve.
26. The forward outflow valve:

a. Closes automatically to assist in maintaining cabin pressure when the main outflow valve is
almost closed or the recirculation fan is operating.
b. Is motor operated and operates independently of the main outflow valve.
c. Opens while on the ground and in flight with less than 2.5 psig cabin differential pressure.
d. Has been removed from the 737-600/700 models.
27. Why should livestock (animals) be transported in the FWD cargo holds?
a. Because they are cooled by air from the E&E bay.
b. Because they are heated by air from the E&E bay.
c. The FWD cargo hold is the preferred hold, because the door is larger than the aft cargo door
making loading easier.
28. If a flight is aborted, and a return to the field of departure is made, the crew:
a. Should reset the LAND ALT selector to field ELEV.
b. Should reset the FLT ALT selector to current aircraft altitude.
c. Should do nothing to the pressurization panel, as the system will automatically return to the
field of departure.
29. What is the flight level limitation for DISPATCH with one pack INOP?
a. FL410.
b. FL250.
c. FL180.
d. FL100.
30. Takeoff is allowed with Pack switches in HIGH, but landing is not permitted:
a. True.
b. False.
31. The Altitude Warning Horn is:

a. An intermittent warning horn.
b. A continuous warning horn.
c. An intermittent warning horn accompanied by a Master Caution warning.
7!
d. A continuous warning horn accompanied by a Master Caution warning.
32. On hearing the Altitude Warning Horn the pilot\'s first action should be to:
a. Analyse the situation and decide on corrective action.
b. To don oxygen masks.
c. Initiate an emergency descent.
d. Cancel the Altitude Warning Horn and call for the appropriate QRH checklist.
33. An amber AUTOFAIL indication will illuminate if one or more of the followingconditions
occur:
a. A single controller failure when \'ALTN\' light is also illuminated.
b. Loss of AC power for more than 15 seconds; Main Outflow valve DC motor fails or if the
cabin altitude exceeds 13,875 ft.
c. Cabin Altitude exceeds 13,875 ft; pressurisation differential exceeds 8.65psi or with the loss
of AC power.
d. Cabin Altitude exceeds 10,000 ft.
34. A decompression of the cabin will result in the following:

a. An Altitude Warning Horn at 10,000 ft. At 14,000 ft (approximately) a \'Master Caution\', plus
an \'Overhead\' indication on the light/glare shield will illuminate. The overhead panel will
illuminate with \'PAX OXY ON\' amber indications.
b. An Altitude Warning Horn at 14,000 ft. The overhead panel will illuminate \'AUTOFAIL\' and
\'ALTN\' amber indications on the pressurisation panel. These indications may be reset by
selecting manual mode on the pressurisation selector.
c. An Altitude Warning Horn at 10,000 ft. At 14,000 ft the Passenger Oxygen mask will deploy.
To activate Oxygen flow to the Passengers the Crew must select the \'Passenger Oxygen
Switch\' to ON.
d. An altitude warning buzzer at 10,000 ft. At 14,000 ft the oxygen masks will deploy and the
overhead panel will show \'CREW OXY ON\'.
35. A flight deck ZONE TEMP light which remains illuminated after the master caution system
is reset indicates:
a. A flight deck duct overheat.
b. A failure of the standby or primary flight deck zone controller.
c. Both above statements are correct.
d. Insufficient trim air available from the cooling packs.
36. A ZONE TEMP light may be reset by the trip reset switch on the Bleed Panel.
a. True.
8!
b. False. This reset switch is only for PACK and BLEED TRIP OFF resets.
c. False. This reset is only for resetting a PACK trip.
d. False. This reset switch is for BLEED TRIP OFF only.
37. In Cruise the air conditioning ram air doors are:

a. Fully open.
b. Fully closed.
c. Modulate between open and closed as required for pack temperature control.
d. Modulate as a function of airspeed.
38. If a PACK light can be reset by the TRIP RESET switch then:
a. The fault was caused by an overheat trip.
b. The fault was caused by a controller fault.
c. The fault was caused by an overheat trip or by a controller fault.
d. The pack should be selected off as per the QRH.
39. The ram air system provides cooling air for:

a. The cargo area.
b. The heat exchangers.
c. The E/E.
40. Deflector doors are installed forward of the ram air inlet doors to prevent slush ingestion
prior to liftoff and after touchdown. Deflector doors extend when activated:
a. Electrically by the air-ground safety sensor
b. Hydraulically when extended the main landing gear
c. Electrically (same switch as the recirculation fans).
41. If all zone controls and primary pack controls fail, the standby pack controlscommand the
packs to produce air temperatures which will satisfy the averagetemperature demand of
the two cabin zones. The trim air modulating valves will:
a. Open.
b. Close.
42. If all Temperature Selectors are positioned OFF, the pack controls will cause the Left pack
to maintain a fixed temperature of ____ and the Right pack to maintain ____ as measured
at the pack temperature sensor.
a. 20°C (68°F) and 18°C (65°F)
b. 24°C (75°F) and 18°C (65°F)
c. 18°C (65°F) and 22°C (72°F)
9!
43. Overheat detection is provided by temperature sensors located:

a. In the mix manifold.
b. Downstream of the packs.
c. Downstream of the packs and the mix manifold.
d. Downstream of the packs, the trim air valve and the mix manifold.
44. The recirculation fan system circulates air from the passenger cabin around thelining of
the forward cargo compartment. When the overboard exhaust valve isclosed, exhaust air
from the equipment cooling system is also diffused to the lining of the aft cargo
compartment for additional inflight heating.
a. True
b. False
45. The cabin pressure controller controls cabin pressure in the following modes: AUTO
(automatic) - ALT (alternate) - MAN (manual).
a. All three modes use DC motor.
b. Automatic mode uses AC motor while the two other modes use DC motor.
c. Automatic and alternate modes use AC motor while the manual mode use DC motor.
46. Cabin altitude is normally rate-controlled by the cabin pressure controller up to a cabin
altitude of ____ feet at the airplane maximum certified ceiling of ____feet.
a. 10 000 ft and 41 000 ft.
b. 8 000 ft and 41 000 ft.
c. 12 000 ft and 41 000 ft.
d. 7 500 ft and 41 000 ft.
47. The air data inertial reference units (ADIRUs) provides ambient static pressure,baro
corrected altitude, non corrected altitude and calibrated airspeed to bothautomatic
controllers. The ADIRUs receive barometric corrections from theCaptain\'s and First
Officer\'s BARO reference selectors.The automatic controllers also receive:
a. Throttle position from both stall management computers.
b. Throttle position from both stall management computers and signals from the air/ground
sensors.
c. Throttle position from both stall management computers and signals from the IRS.
48. Cabin air outflow is controlled by the outflow valve and the overboard exhaustvalve. A
small amount is also exhausted through toilet and galley vents,miscellaneous fixed vents,
and by seal leakage.
a. True
10!
b. False
49. If both the primary and the standby pack controls fail for the same pack, thePACK,
MASTER CAUTION, and AIR COND System Annunciator lightsilluminate.
a. The pack will continue to operate without control unless excessive
b. The affected pack is controlled by the \'main\' standby pack control
c. The pack will be inoperative
50. Manual Mode Operation: a separate DC motor, powered by the DC standby system, drives
the outflow valve at a slower rate than the automatic modes. Outflow valve full range of
motion takes up to 2 minutes.
a. True
b. False
51. A DUCT OVERHEAT light only will cause:

a. The temperature mix valves to drive full cold.
b. The temperature mix valves to drive full hot.
c. An automatic shutdown of the pack.
52. What systems need pneumatic power for operation?

a. Air Conditioning, pressurization, wing anti-ice and APU.
b. Wing anti-ice, APU and engine starting.
c. APU, engine starting, air Conditioning and pressurization.
d. Engine starting, air conditioning, pressurization, wing & engine anti-ice, hydraulic reservoirs
and water tank pressurization.
53. Engine bleed air is obtained from:
a. 4th and 9th stage of the compressor section.
b. 5th and 9th stage of the compressor section.
c. 4th and 8th stage of the compressor section.
d. 5th and 8th stage of the compressor section.
54. Illumination of the amber BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates what valve has automatically
closed?
a. Modulating and Shutoff valve.
b. Engine Bleed Air valve.
c. Isolation valve.
d. 5th valve of the compressor section.
55. How are the Engine Bleed Air valves powered?

11!
a. They are AC activated and pneumatically operated.
b. They are DC activated and pneumatically operated.
c. They are pneumatically activated and AC operated.
d. They are pneumatically activated and DC operated.
56. An illuminated BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates:

a. Too high temperature in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays open.
b. Too high temperature in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays closes.
c. Too high pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays open.
d. Too high temperature or pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays closes.
57. What is the position of the isolation valve when the ISOLATION VALVE switch is in
AUTO?
a. The isolation valve is always open
b. The isolation valve is always closed.
c. The isolation valve automatically modulates between open & closed, depending on
pneumatic load.
d. Open when any Engine Bleed Air switch or Air Conditioning pack switch is positioned OFF.
58. What happens when the WING BODY OVHT TEST switch is pressed?
a. The amber WING-BODY OVERHEAT Lights illuminate.
b. The amber PACK TRIP OFF Lights illuminate.
c. The amber BLEED TRIP OFF Lights illuminate
d. All of the above.
59. When does the amber DUAL BLEED Light illuminate?
a. When the APU bleed valve is open.
b. When the APU bleed valve is open and the No.1 engine bleed switch is ON.
c. When the APU bleed valve is open, the No.2 engine bleed switch is ON and the isolation
valve is closed.
d. When the APU bleed valve is open and the No.1 engine bleed switch is OFF.
60. In the PACK TRIP OFF Non Normal Check-List, the crew selects a warmer temperature in
order to:
a. Reduce cabin airflow.
b. Reduce the workload on the other pack.
c. Reduce the workload on the affected air conditioning pack
d. Reduce the air flow through the air mix valves.
61. The amber DUAL BLEED Light is illuminated before starting engines. What should you
do?
12!
a. Nothing. This is normal condition before engine start.
b. Do not start the engines, call Maintenance.
c. Do not start the engines, check MEL.
d. Shut down the APU and use a pneumatic ground cart for engine start.
62. The motorized Exhaust valve:

a. Allows for increased ventilation in the smoke removal configuration.
b. Serves as backup to the outflow valve if the outflow valve fails.
c. Is normally open in pressurized flights above 8,000 feet.
d. All the above.
63. The amber DUAL BLEED light indicates apossible APU back pressure condition and
thrust must be limited to IDLE.
a. True.
b. False.
64. What happens to engine fan air that is used to cool engine bleed air?
a. It is ducted into the pneumatic manifold.
b. It is ducted into the crossbleed manifold.
c. It is discharged overboard.
d. It is ducted into the 5th stage compressor section.
65. What causes the amber PACK TRIP OFF Light to illuminate?
a. Main distribution duct temperature has exceeded limits.
b. Compressor outlet duct temperature has exceeded limits
c. Turbine inlet duct temperature has exceeded limits.
66. The ram air system deflector doors:

a. Are always extended when the gear is down.
b. Extend during slow flight when flaps are not retracted.
c. Modulate between fully extended and retracted through the entire flight.
d. Extend on the ground only.
67. If any individual zone is switched OFF, the Temperature Selector setting will be ignored
by the temperature control system.
a. True
b. False
13!
68. The Equipment Cooling Supply or Exhaust OFF light illuminated indicates a loss of
airflow from the selected cooling fan. You position the EQUIPMENT COOLING
SUPPLY/EXHAUST switch on ALTERNATE:
a. No further action is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not extinguish.
b. Diversion is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not extinguish.
c. Descending below FL250 is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not
extinguish.
d. Descending below FL200 is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not
extinguish.
69. A leak in the APU Bleed Air Duct will be indicated by:
a. Right WING!BODY OVERHEAT light illuminates
b. APU BLEED light illuminates on overhead panel
c. Left WING!BODY OVERHEAT light illuminates
d. CWS Master Caution BLEED
70. On the Bleed Air Duct pressure indicator the L pressure indicates 40psi, the R pressure
indicates 50psi:
a. As long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurization, this is normal.
b. Select L pack to HIGH until pressure indications equalize.
c. Set both packs to high for 2 minutes.
d. Set R RECIRC FAN to OFF
14!
GABARITO – AIR SYSTEMS
1–c 11 – c 21 – a 31 – c 41 – b 51 – a 61 – a
2–b 12 – a 22 – a 32 – b 42 – b 52 – d 62 – d
3–c 13 – c 23 – c 33 – a 43 – c 53 – b 63 – a
4–c 14 – b 24 – a 34 – a 44 – b 54 – b 64 – c
5–c 15 – b 25 – c 35 – c 45 – a 55 – b 65 – d
6–c 16 – a 26 – d 36 – a 46 – b 56 – d 66 – d
7–d 17 – d 27 – b 37 – c 47 – b 57 – d 67 – a
8–b 18 – c 28 – c 38 – a 48 – a 58 – a 68 – a
9–b 19 – b 29 – b 39 – b 49 – a 59 – b 69 – c
10 – c 20 – a 30 – b 40 - a 50 – b 60 – c 70 – a
Comentários:!
44!C!Forward!cargo!compartment!only!!
50!C!Fortunately!Outflow!valve!full!range!of!motion!takes!up!to!20!seconds!only.!
51!C!A!BLEED!TRIP!OFF.!
68!C!See!QRH!Air!Systems!C!EQUIPMENT!COOLING!OFF!
15!
Questionnaire'–'APU'
1. APU operation requires the following:

a. APU fire switch on the overheat/fire panel must be IN
b. APU fire control handle on the APU ground control panel must be IN
c. Battery switch must be ON.
2. The APU Electronics Control Unit (ECU) provides:

a. Automatic shutdown protection for overspeed conditions, low oil pressure and high oil
temperature
b. Automatic shutdown protection for APU fire, fuel control unit failure and EGT exceedance
c. Automatic control of APU speed through the electronic fuel unit
d. All of the above are correct.
3. The APU can supply both transfer busses:

a. On the ground only
b. In the air only
c. On the ground or in the air
d. Never.
4. APU cooling air:

a. Enters through the air inlet door
b. Enters through the ram air system
c. Enters through a cooling air inlet above the APU exhaust outlet
d. Is supplied by the air conditioning packs.
5. During APU operation, fuel is automatically heated to prevent icing:

a. True
b. False
6. Moving the battery switch to OFF automatically shuts down the APU.
b. In the air only
d. Never.
7. The APU generator ammeter:

a. Remains unchanged from the B737-300 thru 500
16!
b. Is displayed in a digital readout format on the electrical panel
c. Displays APU generator voltage
d. APU generator amperage is no longer displayed on the flight deck.
8. It is recommennded to operate the APU for _____ before using it as a bleed air source.
a. 20 seconds
b. 30 seconds
c. 45 seconds.
d. 1 full minute
9. During the APU start cycle, the APU EGT indication may fluctuate from 0º to 1100º C prior
to normal EGT rise and the LOW OIL PRESSURE light may cycle on and off several times.
These indications have no adverse effect on starting the APU. It is not necessary to
monitor EGT during start.
a. True
b. False.
10. Electrical power to start the APU comes from:

a. The battery bus or the DC ground power receptacle
b. Battery power or either AC transfer bus
c. Either the AC or DC standby bus
d. The No.1 Transfer bus if available. If AC power is not available, battery power is used.
11. If the APU is the only source of electrical power:

a. In flight, the galley busses are automatically shed
b. In flight, the APU attempts to carry the full electrical load
c. On the ground, the galley busses are automatically shed
d. On the ground, the main busses are shed first if an overload condition is sensed.
12. The APU switch OFF position has an automatic shutdown delay of:
a. 30 seconds
b. 60 seconds
c. 120 seconds
d. 135 seconds
13. The APU is capable of supplying bleed air for both air conditioning packs:
b. In the air only
17!
d. Never.
14. The APU may be used as an electrical and pneumatic source simultaneously up to:
a. 10 000 feet
b. 17 000 feet
c. 25 000 feet
d. 30 000 feet
15. The APU start cycle may take up to:

a. 60 seconds
b. 120 seconds
c. 135 seconds
d. 3 minutes
16. The APU may be used as a pneumatic source up to:

a. 10 000 feet
b. 17 000 feet
c. 25 000 feet
d. 35 000 feet
17. The APU will shutdown on the ground if:

a. The battery switch is placed to OFF
b. The LOW OIL QUANTITY / MAINT light illuminates
c. The fuel LOW PRESSURE lights in the main tank illuminate
18. When the APU is started using battery power only, there is a normal indication on the
electrical metering panel that the APU generator has come on line and is ready to be
selected.
a. True
b. False.
19. If the APU GEN OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle:
a. The FAULT light illuminates
b. The MAINT light illuminates
c. The APU failed a self test and the OVERSPEED light will illuminate
d. There is no light associated wih this malfunction.
18!
20. In flight, if the APU is the only source of electrical power, all galley busses are
automatically shed. If electrical load still exceeds design limits, both main busses
automatically shed until the load is within design limits. On the ground, the APU attempts
to carry a full electrical load. If an overload condition is sensed, the APU sheds galley
busses first, and then both main busses until the load is within limits.
a. True
b. False.
21. The APU OVERSPEED light illuminated indicates:

a. APU RPM limit has been exceeded resulting in an automatic shutdown
b. The overspeed shutdown protection feature has failed a self-test during a normal APU
shutdown.
c. The first two statements are correct.
d. None of the above
22. Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an
automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
a. LOW OIL PRESSURE
b. FAULT
c. OVERSPEED
d. MAINT
23. The APU starts, operates and can supply electrical power alone up to:
a. 41,000 feet
b. 17,000 feet
c. 25,000 feet
d. 37,000 feet
24. The blue APU MAINT light means that:

a. APU may be operated
b. APU shuts down automatically
c. APU has to be shut down manually in flight or on ground
d. APU has to be shut down manually on ground only
25. Pulling up the APU fire warning switch:

a. Discharges the APU fire extinguisher
b. Discharges the APU fire extinguisher and shuts down the APU
c. Discharges the APU fire extinguisher and closes the bleed air valve
19!
d. Trips the generator control relay and breaker, arms the associated extinguisher and closes
the bleed air valve, closes the fuel shutoff valve, and the APU inlet door.
26. When the APU is started using battery power only, there is no indication on the electrical
metering panel that the APU generator has come on line and is ready to be selected. Both
the frequency and voltage readings are zero until the APU generator is placed on line.
a. True
b. False
20!
GABARITO - APU
1–d 11 – a 21 – c
2–d 12 – b 22 – d
3–c 13 – a 23 – a
4–c 14 – a 24 – a
5–a 15 – b 25 – d
6–c 16 – b 26 – a
7–b 17 – a
8–d 18 – b
9–a 19 – a
10 – d 20 – a
!
Comentários:!
6!C!Because!of!power!loss!to!the!Electronic!Control!Unit!(ECU)!
8!C!This!one!minute!stabilization!is!recommended!to!extend!the!service!life!of!the!APU.!
10!C!With!AC!power!available,!the!starter!generator!uses!AC!power!to!start!the!APU.!With!no!AC!power,!the!
starter!generator!uses!battery!power!to!start!the!APU.!
15!C!Automatic!shutdown!occurs!in!the!event!of!EGT!exceedance.!
18!C!When!the!APU!is!started!using!battery!power!only,!there!is!a!NO!indication!on!the!electrical!metering!
panel!that!the!APU!generator!has!come!on!line!and!is!ready!to!be!selected.!Both!the!frequency!and!voltage!
readings!are!zero!until!the!APU!generator!is!placed!on!line.!
21! C! If! light! is! illuminated! when! APU! switch! is! placed! to! OFF,! light! extinguishes! after! 5! minutes! (light! is!
disarmed!when!the!APU!switch!is!in!OFF!position).!
21!
Questionnaire'5'Automatic'Flight'
1. With VNAV engaged, the AFDS (Autopilot Flight Director System) pitch and A/T modes are
commanded by the:
a. MCP
b. FMC
c. FCC.
2. The Automatic Flight System (AFS) consists of :

a. The autopilots (A/P)
b. The Flight Directors (F/D)
c. The Autothrottles (A/T)
3. Normally, N1 limits and target N1 values are provided to the A/T by the:
a. A/T computer
b. FMC
c. IRUs
4. VNAV is terminated by:

a. Selecting a different pitch mode
b. G/S capture
c. Extending flaps beyond 15 with APP mode engaged
5. Moving the autopilot Stabilizer Trim Cutout Switch to the CUTOUT position will disengage
the autopilot.
a. True
b. False.
6. If the autopilot ALT HOLD mode is manually overriden with control column pressure,
which of the following occurs?
a. The autopilot disengages
b. LNAV disengages
c. The autopilot changes to CWS P and returns to ALT HLD if control pressure released within
250 ft of selected altitude.
d. LEVEL CHANGE automatically engages.
22!
7. The Control wheel force required to override the A/P COMMAND mode is:
a. Less than normal CWS force
b. Greater than normal CWS force
c. The same as normal CWS force.
8. When performing an autopilot ILS approach, the glide slope can be captured from above
or below:
a. True
b. False
9. When control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the airplane will roll
wings level when the bank angle is:
a. 5 degrees or less
b. 6 degrees or less
c. 10 degrees or less
d. 15 degrees or less.
10. How many independent Flight Control Computers (FCCs) are there in the AFDS?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Fours (two for each channel)
11. The AUTOLAND warning light is armed during dual ILS A/P approach below ____ feet.
a. 2500 feet
b. 800 feet
c. 500 feet
d. 200 feet
12. What pitch mode is annunciated after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?
a. CWS P
b. MCP SPD
c. VNAV
d. V/S
13. The autopilot cannot be engaged while force is applied to the control wheel.
a. True
b. False.
23!
14. In the 'ARM' autothrottle mode, the thrust lever autothrottle servos maintain thrust at the
selected N1 limit displayed on the thrust mode display.
a. True
b. False.
15. LNAV terminates when:

a. HDG SEL mode is engaged
b. Upon VOR or localizer capture
c. Aircraft is not within LNAV capture criteria
16. Minimum speed reversion is also available when the A/T is OFF and the AFDS is in ALT
HOLD or after G/S capture.
a. True
b. False.
17. Which A/T modes permit manual thrust change without A/T interference?
a. GA & ARM
b. N1 & ARM
c. THR HLD & ARM
d. Only THR HLD
18. What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting 'CMD' on the second autopilot during an
ILS approach?
a. 2000 feet
b. 1500 feet
c. 800 feet
d. 500 feet.
19. Which of the following occurs when a TO/GA switch is pressed below 2000 feet RA for a
flight director go-around from a single autopilot ILS approach?
a. The autopilot disengages
b. GA mode of the Flight Director engages
c. The autothrottle advances thrust levers to reduced go-around N1
d. All the above are correct.
20. The airplane can be flown in the CWS mode even through the autopilot is engaged in
CMD:
a. True
24!
b. False.
21. LNAV must be manually disengaged in order to capture an ILS localizer.

a. True
b. False.
22. After lift-off, the A/T remains in THR HLD until:

a. 400 feet RA
b. 800 feet RA
c. 400 feet RA & 18 seconds after lift-off
d. 800 feet RA & 18 seconds after lift-off
23. If an engine failure occurs during takeoff, the pitch command target speed is:
a. V2, if airspeed is below V2
b. Existing speed, if airspeed is between V2 & V2+20
c. V2+20, if airspeed is above V2+20
d. All of the above
24. Engaging LVL CHG or VNAV climb modes automatically engages the A/T N1 mode:
a. True
b. False.
25. The airplane is in level flight at the selected altitude with ALT HOLD engaged. Changing
the MCP altitude by at least 100 feet, arms the V/S mode.
a. True
b. False
26. Trimming the stabilizer with the electrical trim switch on the control wheel disengages the
autopilot.
a. True
b. False.
27. Which mode must be armed before the second autopilot can be selected?
a. VNAV
b. VOR LOC
c. APP
d. LNAV
25!
28. During takeoff with F/D ON, the AFDS commands pitch attitude ____ degrees after ____
IAS.
a. 10 degrees nose up & 60 kt IAS.
b. 15 degrees nose up & 60 kt IAS
c. 10 degrees nose up & 84 kt IAS.
d. 15 degrees nose up & 84 kt IAS.
29. Dual channel A/P operation is possible ONLY when two generators are powering the
busses.
a. True
b. False.
30. Pushing a CWS engage switch engages the A/P pitch and roll axes in the CWS mode and
displays CWS P & CWS R on the FMAs. The A/P maneuvers the airplane in response to
control pressures applied by either pilot. The control pressure is similar to that required
for manual flight. If aileron pressure is released with 6 degrees or less bank, the A/P rolls
the wings level and holds existing heading. The heading hold feature with bank less than
6 degrees is inhibited when:
a. Below 1500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 250 knots
or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
b. Below 2500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 200 knots
c. Below 1500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 200 knots
d. Below 2500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 250 knots
31. If engaged the autothrottle will disengaged ____ after landing touchdown.
a. 2 seconds
b. 5 seconds
c. 8 seconds
d. 10 seconds
32. If thrust levers become separated more than 10 degrees during a dual channel approach
(before FLARE armed is annunciated), the autothrottle is then disengaged.
a. True
b. False.
26!
33. The autopilot flare maneuver starts at approximately ____ feet RA and is completed at
touchdown.
a. 27 feet
b. 35 feet
c. 50 feet
d. 100 feet.
34. During a single engine F/D go-around, F/D pitch commands ____ degrees nose up. As
climb rate increases, F/D pitch commands maintain a target speed.
a. 8 degrees
b. 10 degrees
c. 13 degrees
d. 15 degrees.
35. If windshear is encountered during F/D takeoff or go-around, the F/D pitch command bar
provides commands to maintain V2+20 kts until vertical speed decreases to
approximately :
a. 600 fpm
b. 800 fpm
c. 1000 fpm
d. 1200 fpm
36. If windshear is encountered during an ILS approach, both the F/D and A/P attempt to hold
the airplane on altitude, or on glideslope after glideslope capture, without regard to angle
of attack or stick shaker limitations.
a. True
b. False.
37. The AUTOLAND warning light flashed RED if:

a. A/P disengages & ILS deviation occurs below 200 feet
b. A/P disengages, stab trim warning occurs & ILS deviation occurs below 200 feet
c. A/P disengages, stab trim warning occurs & ILS deviation occurs below 500 feet
d. A/P disengages, stab trim or A/T warning occurs & ILS deviation occurs below 500 feet
38. An A/T Disengage flashing light (amber) indicates airspeed error under following
conditions: inflight, flaps not up & airspeed differs from commanded value by _______
and is not approaching commanded value.
a. + or - 10 knots
b. + 10 knots or - 5 knots
c. + 5 knots or - 10 knots
27!
d. + 15 knots or -10 knots.
39. Localizer can be intercepted in HDG SEL, LNAV or CWS R.

a. True
b. False.
40. The following annunciation provide the flight crew with autoland system mode and status:
a. LAND 3 means two autopilots, two inertial sources at least and the associated sensors are
operating normally for an automatic landing
b. LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources at least and the associated sensors are
operating normally for an automatic landing
c. LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources and the associated sensors are
operating normally for an automatic landing and rollout.
d. LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources, the associated sensors are operating
normally for an automatic landing and rollout and at least one FMS is operative.
41. The Autopilot Disengage Light is illuminated steady red when:1- Stabilizer out of trim
below 800 feet RA on dual channel approach.2- ALT ACQ mode inhibited during A/P go-
around if stabilizer not trimmed for single A/P operation.3- Disengage light test switch
held in position 2.4- Automatic ground test system fail.
a. True.
b. False.
42. After localizer & glideslope capture, CWS cannot be engaged by manually overriding pitch
and roll. Manual override of autopilots causes autopilot disengagement.
a. True
b. False.
43. Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCCs. With a
radio altimeter inoperative, the autopilot will disconnect ____ after LOC and GS capture.
a. Immediately.
b. 2 seconds.
c. Between 2 and 5 seconds depending on the altitude.
d. 4 seconds.
44. When a conflict occurs between the VNAV profile and the MCP altitude, the airplane levels
and the pitch flight mode annunciation becomes:
a. VNAV SPD.
b. VNAV PTH.
28!
c. VNAV ACQ.
d. VNAV ALT.
45. During a single F/D go-around, with a push of either TO/GA switch:
a. F/D roll commands hold current heading.
b. F/D roll commands hold current ground track.
c. F/D roll commands hold current heading until passing 400 ft.
d. The Roll Engaged Mode annunciation on the FMA is blank.
46. What happens with the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if SPD INTV is pushed during VNAV
operations?
a. IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows 250 kts.
b. IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows FMC target speed..
c. IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows slashes.
d. IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows dashes.
47. Antenna switching from tail antenna to nose antenna occurs when:
a. VOR frequency is selected and VOR/LOC is armed or engaged.
b. LOC frequency is selected only.
c. LOC frequency is selected and VOR/LOC is armed or engaged.
d. VOR frequency is selected only.
48. At what altitude will both A/P's automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during an
ILS dual channel approach?
a. 350 feet RA.
b. 500 feet RA
c. 50 feet RA.
d. Will not disengage.
49. After a normal takeoff which pitch command can you expect?
a. V2
b. V2 to V2+15kt
c. V2 to V2+20kt
d. V2+20kt
50. Condition: After takeoff, A/P engaged before flaps up. (Thrust mode / Roll mode / Pitch
mode) Which is the correct mode on the FMA?
a. ARM / HDG SEL / TO/GA
b. N1 / LNAV / MCP SPD
29!
c. ARM / LNAV / FMC SPD
d. N1 / HDG SEL / VNAV
51. As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic Go-Around, what is the correct FMA
announcement? (Thrust mode / Roll mode / Pitch mode)
a. N1 / VOR/LOC / TO/GA
b. GA / LNAV / MCP SPD
c. GA / - / TO/GA
d. MCP SPD / - / GA
52. When flying on a geometrical path with VNAV engaged you push SPD INTV. What will
happen?
a. VNAV SPD will engage and MCP SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
b. VNAV PTH will remain engaged and MCP SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
c. VNAV PTH will remain engaged and FMC SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
d. VNAV SPD will engage and FMC SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
53. When in ALT HOLD FL80 you change the barometric setting from STD to QNH 1030. What
will the aircraft do?
a. The aircraft will climb 500 feet to the new pressure level
b. The aircraft will descend 500 feet to the new pressure level
c. You cannot change the altitude when in ALT HOLD
d. The aircraft will continue at FL80, but the ALT readout will change.
54. On a normal ILS approach, when will the respective LLZ and G/S captures occur.
a. LLZ 2 dots on the expanded scale, GS 5/8 dot on the expanded scale
b. LLZ 1/2 dot on the normal scale, GS 5/2 dot below the glideslope
c. LLZ not later than 1/2 dot deviation, GS 2/5 dot below glideslope.
d. LLZ 5/8 dot deviation, GS 1/2 dot below the glideslope
55. You are established on the ILS at 3000´and inadvertently press TO/GA once. What will
happen?
a. The A/P will disengage but the A/C will remain in approach logic
b. The A/P will stay connected but the FMS will change to G/A logic
c. Nothing will happen since the A/C has not descended below 2000´
d. The A/P will disconnect and A/T add thrust to reduced G/A, F/D pitch 15deg nose up
56. The white A/T LIM symbol appears on the upper display unit. What is correct?
a. The A/T has reach the thrust limit for the selected assumed temperature
30!
b. The N1 has been manually set and not by the FMC, therefore the A/T LIM will be illuminated
c. The A/T is using the upgraded BLT performance information
d. The FMC is not providing A/T with N1 limit values
31!
GABARITO – AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
1–b 11 – c 21 – b 31 – a 41 – a 51 – c
2–d 12 – b 22 – b 32 – b 42 – a 52 – c
3–b 13 – a 23 – d 33 – c 43 – b 53 – d
4–d 14 – b 24 – a 34 – c 44 – d 54 – c
5–a 15 – d 25 – a 35 – a 45 – b 55 – d
6–c 16 – b 26 – a 36 – a 46 – b 56 – d
7–b 17 – c 27 – c 37 – b 47 – c
8–a 18 – c 28 – b 38 – b 48 – a
9–b 19 – d 29 – a 39 – a 49 – d
10 – b 20 – a 30 - a 40 – c 50 – b
Comentários:!
6!C!If pitch is manually overridden while in ALT HOLD and control force is released within 250 feet of
selected altitude, A/P pitch mode engages in ALT ACQ and returns to selected altitude in ALT HOLD
mode.
14!C!ARM mode = No autothrottle mode engaged. The thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited.
The pilot can set thrust levers manually.
16!C!Minimum speed reversion is NOT available in that case.
32!C!this is true but after FLARE armed is annunciated...
36! C! Airspeed could decrease below stick shaker and into a stall if the pilot does not intervene by
pushing the TO/GA switch or disconnecting the A/P and flying manually.
44!C!VNAV ALT maintains altitude.

32!
Questionnaire'5'Communications'
1. How are the communication systems controlled?

a. By their respective control modulators.
b. By the Mode Control Panel.
c. By the Audio Control Panel.
2. What is the purpose of the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel?
a. It selects an alternate radio.
b. It selects a degraded mode of operation of the ACP.
c. It swaps audio control panels with the observer.
3. The MASK-BOOM switch allows selection of the oxygen mask microphone orthe boom
microphone. The MASK-BOOM switch does not affect the operationof the hand
microphone.
a. True.
b. False.
4. In cased of degraded audio system operation:

a. Audio warnings for altitude alert are not heard.
b. Audio warnings for altitude alert and GPWS are not heard. Windshear alerts are not affected.
c. Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS and windshear are not heard.
5. In cased of degraded audio system operation can access the passenger address system
through the ACP (Audio Control Panel).
a. True.
b. False.
6. The call system is used as a means for various crewmembers to gain the attention of
other crewmembers and to indicate that interphone communication is desired. Attention
is gained through the use of lights and aural signals (chimes or horn). If the flight deck
calls the cabin crew, the visual signal at called position is:
a. Blue.
b. Pink.
c. Green.
d. Blue then becomes red after 5 seconds.
7. On the Audio Control panel (ACP) the Cabin call light comes ON. It will illuminate until:
a. remains illuminated for 10 seconds.
33!
b. remains illuminated for 20 seconds.
c. remains illuminated for 30 seconds.
d. remains illuminated for 40 seconds.
8. The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) can be erased:

a. Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in flight.
b. Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in ground with parking brake ON.
c. Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in ground with parking brake ON or OFF.
d. Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in flight with parking brake ON.
9. The Cockpit Voice Recorder in AUTO:

a. Always powers the CVR when DC bus 1 is powered.
b. Always powers the CVR when DC bus 2 is powered.
c. Always powers the CVR when AC Transfer bus 1 is powered.
d. Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shutdown.
10. The CVR uses four independent channels to record flight deck audio for maximum of:
a. 30 minutes.
b. 60 minutes.
c. 90 minutes.
d. 120 minutes.
11. The Cockpit Voice Recorder in ON:

a. Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes then trips the switch to AUTO.
b. Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes then trips the switch to AUTO
(after takeoff)
c. Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes then trips the switch to AUTO
(after landing).
12. The CVR (orange box) is located:

a. In the forward Electronic & Equipment bay (E&E).
b. In the aft right side of the aft cargo compartment.
c. In the flight deck (under the captain's seat).
d. In the aft galley.
13. When is the Cockpit Voice Recorder active?

a. Anytime the battery switch is ON.
b. In flight only.
c. Anytime DC power is available,
34!
d. Anytime 115 VAC is applied to the aircraft.
14. Which radio does the First Officer use in the degraded mode?
a. VHF-1
b. VHF-2
c. Both VHFs
15. In the degraded mode of operation, are the ACP transmitter selectors functional?
a. Yes.
b. No.
16. Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS, and windshear are not heard on an audio system
operating in the degraded mode.
a. True
b. False
17. When the ALT5NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT:
a. The ACP at that station is inoperative and the crewmember cannot communicate on any
radios.
b. The ACP at that station is inoperative but the crewmember can communicate on one radio.
c. The ACP switches to an alternate ACP and all functions operate normally and the
crewmember can communicate on all radios.
d. The ACP switches to standby ACP and all functions operate normally except PA and
interphone.
18. With the Captain’s ACP operating in degraded mode, at that station:
a. All ACP transmitter selectors remain functional, but receiver selectors are lost.
b. Altitude alert, GPWS and windshear audio warnings are not heard.
c. The flight interphone remains useable, the PA is lost.
d. VHFC2 is the only useable radio.
19. The call system from flight deck to cabin operates:

a. Blue call lights and a single lowCtone chime
b. Green call lights and a twoCtone chime
c. Blue call lights and a single highCtone chime
d. Pink call lights and a twoCtone chime
35!
20. Flight Attendants may be called from the flight deck, the other attendant station, or from
any passenger seat or lavatory. Master call lights in the passenger cabin identify the
source of incoming calls to the attendants.
a. True
b. False
36!
GABARITO - COMMUNICATIONS
1–c 11 – a
2–b 12 – b
3–a 13 – d
4–c 14 – b
5–b 15 – b
6–b 16 – a
7–c 17 – b
8–b 18 – b
9–d 19 – d
10 – d 20 – a
Comentários:!
5!C!An audio system operating in the degraded mode cannot access the passenger address system
through the audio control panel. The crewmember can still use the service interphone handset and
PA microphone if they are installed on the control stand.
'
'
'
'
'
37!
Questionnaire'–'Electrical'
1. Which of the following is false concerning the B737NG electrical system?

a. Each Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) supplies its own and can also supply essential and
non-essential loads of the opposite side bus system.
b. The AC power sources are paralleled by an auto-paralleling system.
c. The source of power being connected to a transfer bus automatically disconnects an existing
power source.
2. The purpose of the AC ground service bus is to power:

a. The cabin lighting
b. The utility outlets
c. The battery charger
d. All the above.
3. The TR´s ( Transformer rectifier ) convert:

a. 115 volts DC to 28 volts AC
b. 115 volts AC to 28 volts AC
c. 115 volts AC to 28 volts DC
d. 115 volts DC to 28 volts DC
4. Which is the power source for the AC standby bus?

a. Transfer bus 1 under normal conditions
b. Transfer bus 2
c. AC main bus 1
d. Battery Bus through the Static Inverter under normal conditions
5. If the AC source powering a transfer bus fails, the transfer bus will remain unpowered.
a. True.
b. False.
6. A high oil temperature in the IDG would cause an automatic disconnect of the IDG.
a. True.
b. False.
7. The TR3 cross bus tie relay automatically opens at glide slope capture to:
a. Prevent a single bus failure from affecting both navigation receivers and Flight Control
Computers (FCCs)
b. Provide more power to the AC STANDBY Bus
38!
c. Ensure that the STANDBY DC is powered.
d. Provide more power to DC bus 1
8. In flight, if the APU is supplying both AC Transfer busses, positioning the BUS TRANS
switch to OFF will:
a. Cause AC Transfer bus No.1 to lose power
b. Cause AC Transfer bus No.2 to lose power
c. Cause both AC Transfer busses to lose power
d. Not cause either AC Transfer bus to fail.
9. The TR3 Disconnect Relay:

a. Must be manually opened using the BUS TRANSFER Switch during a Flight Director
approach
b. Normally powers the Battery Charger and backs-up TR units 1 & 2 through a diode
c. Automatically opens at glide slope capture during a Flight Director or Autopilot ILS approach
d. Will trip off when AC volts reaches 26 volts (+ or - 4 Volts) as dispalyed on the AC Voltmeter.
10. The Engine Integrated Drive Generators (IDGs):

a. Are used in conjunction with a separate generator drive unit (CSD)
b. Adjust varying generator speeds to maintain a constant frequency throughout normal range
of operation
c. Allow the generator to maintain a constant speed throughout the normal range of operation
d. Operate whenever the engine is operating and cannot be completely isolated from their
associated generator.
11. After the loss of all generators, a fully charged battery can furnish power to the
STANDBY Bus equipment for a minimum of:
a. 20 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. 90 minutes
12. The cross bus tie relay:

a. Must be manually opened using the BUS TRANSFER Switch during a Flight Director
approach
b. Normally powers the Battery Charger and backs-up TR units 1 and 2 through a diode
c. Opens up if BUS TRANSFER switch is moved to OFF
d. Will trip off when AC volts reaches 26 volts (plus or minus 4 volts) as displayed on the AC
voltmeter
39!
13. Illumination of the GND POWER AVAILABLE light indicates:

a. Ground power is connected and meets airplane power quality standards.
b. Ground power is connected however no airplane power quality is measured.
c. The Ground Service Bus is powered by a ground power supply.
d. The external power bus is powered by a ground power supply.
14. For ground service, a ground service switch is placed:

a. On aft overhead panel on the Flight Deck
b. On aft attendant´s panel
c. On forward attendant´s panel
d. On external receptacle on the right side of the aircraft exterior
15. The GROUND POWER AVAILABLE light will extinguish when:

a. The GROUND POWER switch is positioned ON
b. The GROUND SERVICE switch is positioned ON
c. The pneumatic ground cart is disconnected
d. The AC ground power cart has been disconnected
16. The 115V AC Standby Bus is powered by:

a. The 115V Transfer Bus No.1 under normal conditions.
b. The Battery Bus through the Static Inverter under normal conditions.
c. The Battery through the Static Inverter with a failure of both engine driven generators.
d. The first & the third statements are correct.
17. One basic principle of operation for the B737 electrical system is:
a. All generator bus sources can be automatically connected by the Standby Power System.
b. There is no paralleling of the AC power sources.
c. There is no paralleling of any power source.
d. An AC power source may be used in parallel with a DC power source..
18. Because engine generators power the transfer busses directly, and transfer busses are
connected by a bus tie system, the loss of an engine driven generator will not necessarily
result in the loss of any bus(ses).
a. True
b. False.
40!
19. The modified DC system architecture resulted in the TR3 disconnect relay found in the
B737-300 thru 500 being replaced with a cross bus tie relay. The cross bus tie relay opens
automatically under the same circumstances as did the TR3 disconnect relay.
a. True
b. False.
20. The SOURCE OFF light will illuminate:

a. When the source selected to power the transfer bus has failed and the automatic bus transfer
function has closed the BTBs to power the transfer bus from another source.
b. When the source selected to power the Transfer bus and the automatic transfer function
have both failed resulting in the transfer bus being. unpowered
c. When the TRANSFER BUS OFF light is illuminated.
21. When the STANDBY POWER Switch is OFF:

a. The STANDBY PWR OFF light will be illuminated
b. Automatic switching is provided from normal power sources to alternate power sources
c. The STANDBY PWR OFF light will be extinguished
d. The Static Inverter provides 28V DC power to Transfer Bus No.1.
22. Illumination of the BAT DISCHARGE light indicates:

a. The battery is being overcharged.
b. Excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch ON.
c. The DC meter is in the BAT position with the battery switch ON.
d. The battery bus is not powered.
23. In the event that the airplane battery is depleted, the APU can be started using DC
external power.
a. True
b. False.
24. Illumination of the blue GEN OFF BUS light indicates:

a. The associated generator bus is not powered
b. The associated transfer bus is not powered
c. The IDG is not supplying power to its associated transfer bus
d. The generator is not supplying power to its associated generator bus.
25. When the aircraft batteries is the only source of power:

41!
a. The Captain\'s inboard and outboard displays operate until the battery is discharged and the
First Officer\'s inboard and outboard displays operate for a minimum of 5 minutes
b. The Captain\'s inboard and outboard displays operate until the battery is discharged
c. The Captain\'s inboard and the First Officer\'s inboard and outboard displays are inoperative
d. Both the Captain\'s and First Officer\'s PFD/ND displays remain operative but only DEU No 1
is powered until the battery is discharged
26. Illumination of the GEN BUS OFF light indicates:

a. The associated generator bus is not powered.
b. The associated transfer bus is not powered.
c. The IDG is not supplying power to its associated Transfer bus.
d. The generator is not supplying power to its associated generator bus.
27. It is possible to power one transfer bus with external power and the other transfer bus
with the APU.
a. True.
b. False.
28. The crew fails to properly accomplish normal procedures and takes off with the APU
powering both Transfer busses (SELECT THE INCORRECT STATEMENT)
a. One Transfer bus will disconnect automatically after lift-off.
b. During climb, the galleys may become inoperative.
c. Both Main busses may become inoperative above 400 feet RA or after 12 sec. from lift-off.
d. The generators will come on line automatically if the APU is either shut down or fails.
29. AC amperage can be observed on the AC ammeter for the source selected by the AC
meter selector.
a. True
b. False.
30. During cruise, one engine driven generator drops off-line. Indications that the crew
should see include:
a. A TRANSFER BUS OFF light and a GEN OFF BUS light
b. A SOURCE OFF light and a GEN OFF BUS light
c. Illumination of the fuel pump, probe heat, respective hydraulic pumps powered by the
associated Transfer bus
31. Illumination of the DRIVE light indicates:

42!
a. IDG failure
b. IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature
c. IDG disconnected through the drive disconnect switch
d. Any of the above.
32. Both AC Transfer busses can be powered simultaneously by:

a. A single IDG on the ground or inflight
b. The APU generator while on the ground or inflight
c. Both of the above
d. No single source can power both AC Transfer busses simultaneously
33. On the ground, with the battery switch OFF and STANBY POWER Switch in AUTO, the
Battery Bus is:
a. Not powered.
b. Powered by TR3.
c. Powered by the Hot Battery Bus.
d. Powered by the Battery.
34. The TR UNIT will illuminate in flight if:

a. Any TR unit fails.
b. TR1 fails or TR2 and TR3 fail.
c. TR2 fails.
d. TR3 fails.
35. The ELEC light will illuminate in flight if:

a. A fault exists in the AC or Standby power system.
b. A fault exists in the DC or Standby system.
c. A fault exists in the AC, DC or the Standby system.
d. The ELEC light only operates on the ground.
36. What is the significance of an illuminated ELEC light?
a. One of the three TRs has failed.
b. The DC system or standby system equipment has failed.
c. The battery is discharged.
d. Two or more TRs have failed.
37. With external DC power connected to the external DC power receptacle:

a. The APU can be started using DC external power.
b. The battery is paralleled with the DC External power source.
c. All circuits normally powered by the battery are powered.
43!
d. There is no external DC power receptacle.
38. Illumination of the STANDBY POWER OFF light indicates:

a. The AC Standby Bus is unpowered
b. The DC Standby Bus is unpowered
c. The Battery Bus is unpowered
39. With the STANDBY switch in the AUTO position, the loss of all engine or APU electrical
power results in the automatic switching from the normal power source to the alternate
source for standby power:
a. Inflight only.
b. On the ground only.
c. Either inflight or on the ground.
d. Will not occur.
40. In flight if APU is the only source of electrical power:

a. All galley busses are automatically shed
b. Only galley bus A & B are automatically shed
c. Only galley bus C & D are automatically shed
d. No galley busses are automatically shed
41. With the STANDBY POWER switch in AUTO (guarded position). In flight, or on the
ground, loss of all AC power. AC Standby bus is powered by battery through static inverter &
DC Standby bus is powered by battery.
a. True.
b. False.
42. DC voltage and amperage may be read on the DC voltmeter and ammeter for the battery
and each of the 3 TRs. The Standby power and battery bus displays only Dc voltage. Normal
indication is : ______ volts
a. 24 +/- 4
b. 26 +/- 6
c. 24 +/-2
d. 26 +/-4
43. The DRIVE amber caution light comes on when:

a. Low oil pressure is sensed in the IDG
b. The IDG is disconnected automatically due to high oil pressure
44!
c. The IDG is disconnected manually with the drive disconnect switch
d. The engine is not running.
44. The purpose of the static inverter is to convert 24 volt DC power from the battery to 115V
AC power to supply the AC standby bus during the loss of normal electrical power.
a. True.
b. False.
45. The two nickel-cadmium batteries can provide standby power for a minimum of _____
minutes (if fully charged).
a. 30
b. 45
c. 60
d. 75
46. DC busses powered from the battery following a loss of both generators are:
a. Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus.
b. DC standby Bus, Hot Battery Bus & Switched hot battery bus.
c. Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus & Switched hot battery bus (even when the
battery switch is OFF).
d. Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus & Switched hot battery bus.
47. If the TR UNIT light is illuminates in flight, it indicates that one or more TR\'s have failed
and you are supposed not to use the AFDS approach mode.
a. True.
b. False.
48. An illuminated TR UNIT light while on the ground indicates that at least two TRs have
failed.
a. True
b. False
49. What is the purpose of the GROUND SERVICE switch?

a. Provides automatic control of ground service bus.
b. Provide automatic control of ground service busses.
c. Provide manual control of ground service bus.
d. Provide manual control of ground service busses.
45!
50. Either generator or the APU can power both transfer buses. In the event a power source
fails, what is required for that transfer bus to be powered by the opposite transfer bus power
source?
a. The generator switch must be OFF.
b. The battery switch must be ON.
c. The BUS TRANS switch must be in the AUTO position.
51. Normal AC voltmeter indication for the APU generator with the AC busses loaded:
a. 100 to 125 volts.
b. 110 to 125 volts.
c. 110 to 135 volts.
d. 115 to 125 volts.
52. Illumination of the STANDBY POWER OFF light indicates:

a. DC bus 1 unpowered
b. DC bus 2 unpowered
c. AC standby bus unpowered
d. Hot battery bus unpowered
53. DC voltage and amperage may be read on the DC voltmeter and ammeter for the battery
and each of the three TRs. The standby power and battery bus displays only DC voltage.
Normal indication is:
a. 12 +/- 4 volts.
b. 24 +/- 10 volts.
c. 26 +/- 4 volts.
54. Both On the ground and in flight a amber ELEC light comes on to indicate that a fault
exists in DC power system or standby power system.
a. True.
b. False.
55. Galley busses are powered from:

a. The AC Transfer busses.
b. The generator busses.
c. The Battery bus.
d. The main busses.
56. How many TRs are required to power the entire DC system?
a. Any one TR.
46!
a. Two TRs.
b. Three TRs.
c. Any TR and the battery.
57. What is the source of power for TR3?

a. Transfer bus 1.
b. Transfer bus 2.
c. AC standby bus.
d. None of above

a. Transfer bus 1.
b. Transfer bus 2.
c. AC Standby bus
d. None of above.
59. The switched hot battery bus is powered whenever:

a. TR1 is powered.
b. Transfer bus 1 is powered.
c. AC ground service bus is powered.
d. The battery switch is ON.
60. The purpose of the cross tie relay is to:

a. Isolate transfer bus 1 and 2
b. Isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2
c. Disconnect TR1 and TR3

a. Transfer bus 1
b. Transfer bus 2
c. AC standby bus
62. On the ground, with the BATTERY switch OFF and STANDBY POWER Switch in BAT, the
switched hot battery bus is:
a. Not powered
b. Powered by TR 3
c. Powered by the Hot Battery Bus
d. Powered by the Battery
47!
63. The main battery charger is powered through:
a. DC bus 1
b. AC ground service bus 2
c. AC main bus 1
d. Transfer Bus 1
64. Which bus supplies electrical power to the auxiliary battery charger?
a. AC ground service bus 1
b. AC ground service bus 2
c. Transfer bus 2
d. Transfer bus 1
65. The auxiliary battery operates in parallel with the main battery when the battery is
powering the standby bus.
a. True
b. False.
66. The electrical system incorporates an automatic load shedding feature. What is the first
bus that is shed?
a. Galleys on transfer bus 1 are shed first.
b. Galleys on transfer bus 2 are shed first.
c. The AC standby bus is shed first.
d. None of above.
67. The electrical system incorporates an automatic load shedding feature. What is the
second bus that is shed?
a. Galleys on transfer bus 1
b. Galleys on transfer bus 2
c. The AC ground service bus.
d. The AC standby bus
68. After an overload situation has been resolved, how do you recover the galley buses?
a. It happens automatically.
a. Move the galley power switch to OFF then ON.
b. A ground engineer should reselect the appropriate switch in the E/E
69. Once disconnected, the IDG can be reconnected in flight.

a. True
b. False
48!
GABARITO - ELECTRICAL
1–b 11 – c 21 – a 31 – d 41 – a 51 – b 61 – a
2–d 12 – c 22 – b 32 – c 42 – d 52 – c 62 – a
3–c 13 – a 23 – b 33 – a 43 – a 53 – c 63 – b
4–a 14 – c 24 – c 34 – b 44 – a 54 – b 64 – a
5–b 15 – d 25 – b 35 – d 45 – c 55 – a 65 – a
6–a 16 – d 26 – c 36 – b 46 – d 56 – b 66 – b
7–a 17 – b 27 – b 37 – d 47 – a 57 – b 67 – a
8–b 18 – a 28 – c 38 – d 48 – b 58 – b 68 – a
9–c 19 – a 29 – a 39 – c 49 – d 59 – d 69 – b
10 – c 20 – d 30 – b 40 – a 50 – c 60 – b
'
'
'
'
'
'
'
49!
Questionnaire'5'Engines'
1. Reverse thrust can be selected with the forward thrust levers in what position?
a. Maximum thrust position
b. Forward thrust position
c. Idle thrust position
d. Any position
2. Each engine has two igniter plugs. The EEC arms the igniter plug(s) selected by the
ignition select switch. The Left igniter plug receives power from the DC Standby bus while
the Right igniter plug receives power from the AC standby bus.
a. True
b. False
3. Starter Cutout speed is:

a. 25%
b. 46%
c. Approximately 50%
d. Approximately 56%
4. An auto-relight capability is provided for flame-out protection. Whenever the EEC detects
an engine flameout, both igiters are activated. A flameout is detected when:
a. An uncommanded rapid decrease in N1 occurs
b. An uncommanded rapid decrease in N1 occurs or N2 is below idle RPM
c. An uncommanded rapid decrease in N2 occurs or N2 is below idle RPM
d. An uncommanded rapid decrease in N1 occurs or N2 is below idle RPM or EGT is below
200°C
5. At low N2 values, the oil scavenge pump may not provide enough pressure to return oil to
the tank, causing a low quantity indication. Normal oil quantity should be indicated after
start.
a. True
b. False.
6. Which hydraulic system normally powers the thrust reversers?

a. System A
b. System B
c. System A for engine No.1 & system B for Engine No.2
d. System A for engine No.2 & system B for Engine No.1
50!
7. The EEC drives all engine indications except:

a. Fuel flow & oil pressure
b. Oil temperature & engine vibration
c. Oil quantity & engine vibration
d. Oil temperature, pressure & quantity indications.
8. Loss of either DEU:

a. Has no effect on EECs
b. Results in a loss of signal to the affected EEC
c. Results in a loss of signal to both EECs
9. If a wet start is detected, the EEC will automatically turn off ignition & shut off fuel to the
engine:
a. 15 seconds after the start valve opens during ground starts
b. 15 seconds after the start lever is moved to idle during ground starts
c. 10 seconds on the ground or 30 seconds in flight after the start lever is moved to idle
d. No automatic shutdown is provided for a wet start.
10. The amber DUAL BLEED light is illuminated before starting engines. What should you do?
a. Nothing, this is normal condition
b. Do not start the engines
c. Shut down the APU
d. Use a pneumatic ground cart for starting engines
11. The EEC automatically selects ground minimum idle, flight minimum idle and approach
idle. Approach idle is selected in flight:
a. Below approximately 12000 ft
b. If flaps are greater than 1 or engine & wing anti-ice are ON
c. If flaps are in landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine
d. Below 1500 ft, f flaps are greater than 1 or engine anti-ice is ON
12. Approach idle is maintained:

a. Until after touchdown (60 KIAS)
b. Until Reverser selection
c. Until 84 KIAS
d. Until after touchdown, when ground minimum idle is selected.
51!
13. In flight, if a fault prevents the EEC from receiving flap or anti-ice signals, approach idle
schedule begins:
a. Below 20 000 feet MSL
b. Below 15 000 feet MSL
c. Below 10 000 feet MSL
d. Below 5 000 feet MSL.
14. The EGT display, both box & dial, turn red and the EEC automatically turns off ignition
and shut off fuel to the engine if:
a. An impending hot start is detected during ground starts
b. An impending hot start is detected during ground starts or in flight starts
c. The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground starts
d. The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground or in flight starts.
15. Once activated, the DC operated fuel pump operates automatically until:
a. The completion of the APU start cycle
b. Once the APU is at governed speed, ready to acceptable load
c. An AC fuel pump pressurizes the manifold
d. APU shutdown
16. What are the indications that the engine starter has disengaged?
a. The fuel LOW PRESSURE lights extinguish with N1 RPM 56%
b. The start switch automatically returns to OFF, and the START VALVE OPEN light
extinguishes
c. An immediate increase in the N1 indication due to closure of the compressor bleed valves
d. Start switch rotates to OFF and N2 RPM is stabilized (FUEL LOW PRESSURE extinguishes)
17. Engine oil pressure is in the yellow band at idle power. Which of the following is true?
a. Acceptable, no action is necessary
b. Normal, but requires continuous monitoring of the oil temperature
c. Undesirable, and permitted obly for the completion of the flight, preferably at reduced thrust
setting
d. Unsafe and requires that the engine be shut down as soon as possible.
18. EEC alternate mode thrust is always equal to or greater than normal mode thrust for the
same thrust lever position.
a. True
b. False.
52!
19. The EEC automatically selects approach idle in flight anytime:
a. The airplane descends below 15000 feet MSL
b. Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine start switches are placed to CONT or FLT
c. Flaps are in the landing configuration and thrust lever angle is above 34 degrees for either
engine
d. Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine
20. During a normal engine start:

a. Only oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to
GND
b. Only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start
switch to GND
c. The EEC is not powered until the engine accelerates to a speed greater that 15% N2
d. Only round dials are visible for engine indications prior to placing the engine start switch to
GND
21. The APU GEN OFF BUS light will illuminate:

a. When the APU is at operational speed and is not supplying an AC Transfer bus
b. Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No.1
c. Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No.2
d. Whenever the APU is supplying power to a Main bus but not the associated Transfer bus
22. If a crossbleed start is required during in flight starting, the X BLEED START indication
will be displayed above the N2 dial.
a. True
b. False.
23. Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an
automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
a. LOW OIL PRESSURE
b. LOW OIL QUANTITY / MAINT
c. HIGH OIL TEMP / FAULT
d. OVERSPEED
24. The EEC provides EGT redline exceedance protection.

a. True
b. False.
25. The EEC provides redline overspeed protection for:

53!
a. N1 only in both the normal and alternate modes
b. N2 only in both the normal and alternate modes
c. N1 & N2 in the normal mode only
d. N1 & N2 in both the normal and alternate modes.
26. The thrust reverser may be deployed:

a. Inflight when the thrust lever is at idle
b. When either radio altimeter is sensing less than 10 feet altitude
c. When the air/ground safety sensor is in the ground mode
d. All of the above
27. The REVERSER light, located on the aft overhead panel, illuminates when the thrust
reverser is commanded to stow and extinguishes 10 seconds later when the isolation
valve closes.
a. True
b. False
28. The first action during an 'ABORTED ENGINE START' (before starter cutout) is:
a. ENGINE START SWITCH .........OFF
b. ENGINE START SWITCH......... GROUND
c. ENGINE START LEVER ..........CUT OFF
29. In case of LOSS OF THRUST ON BOTH ENGINES, you are supposed to wait for successful
engine start(s) before starting APU.
a. True.
b. False.
30. After a LOSS THRUST ON BOTH ENGINES, in moderate to heavy rain, it may take up to
______ to accelerate to idle.
a. 30 seconds
b. 60 seconds
c. 2 minutes
d. 3 minutes
31. During battery start, when does the EEC become energized?
a. When positioning the startswitch to GND
b. N2 greater than 15%
c. When start lever is raised to idle
d. Above 25% N1
54!
32. The loss of one DEU results in activation of the EEC´s alternate mode. What is correct?
a. The EEC´s automatically switch into hard mode and the engines might overboost
b. The soft alternate mode is entered first, using last valid flight conditions to define engine
parameters
c. If the thrust levers are reduced the hard mode is entered and last valid flight conditions will be
used for the engine parameters.
d. You can only enter the hard mode by manually selecting it on the engine control panel.
55!
GABARITO - ENGINES
1–c 11 – c 21 – a 31 – b
2–b 12 – d 22 – a 32 – b
3–d 13 – b 23 – b
4–c 14 – c 24 – b
5–a 15 – c 25 – d
6–c 16 – b 26 – b
7–c 17 – a 27 – a
8–c 18 – a 28 – c
9–b 19 – d 29 – b
10 – a 20 – b 30 – d
Comentários:!
2!C!The Left igniter receives power from the associated transfer bus.
8!C!The EEC lights illuminate and each EEC reverts to the alternate mode to prevent engines from
operating on a single source of data.
9!C!A wet start occurs if the EGT does not rise after the start lever is moved to IDLE.
11!C!This higher % RPM improves engine acceleration time in the event of a go-around.
27!C!Any time the REVERSER light illuminates for more than 12 seconds, a malfunction has occured
and the MASTER CAUTION and ENG system annunciator lights illuminate.
28!C!Continue to monitor the engine for 60 seconds (clears fuel and cools engine components) and
then ENGINE START SWITCH OFF.
29! C! DO NOT wait for successful engine start(s) prior to starting APU. The APU has demonstrated
the capability to provide electrical power up to 20 000 feet. APU may be placed on either or both
busses.
56!
Questionnaire'5'Fire'Protection'
1. Pulling up the APU fire warning switch:

a. Discharges the APU fire extinguisher.
b. Trips the generator control relay, and generator breaker, arms the associated extinguisher
and closes the bleed air valve
c. Closes the fuel shutoff valve, and the APU inlet door.
d. The first & the second statement are correct.
e. The second & the third statement are correct.
2. The power source for Engine Fire Extinguishing is:

a. Transfer Bus No.1.
b. The Switched Battery Bus.
c. The Hot Battery Bus.
d. None of the above.
3. Some of the indications for an engine fire warning are MASTER CAUTION & OVHT/DET
annunciator lights, the ENG OVERHEAT light, the Master FIRE WARN lights and the red
fire switch light. What are the other indications?
a. The APU DET INOP light illuminates.
b. A Red ENG OVERHEAT light illuminates.
c. The Fire Bell.
4. Pulling the engine fire warning switch up:

a. Closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar fuel shutoff valve.
b. Closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar fuel shutoff valve only if the battery
switch is ON
c. Closes the spar fuel shutoff valve. The engine fuel shutoff valve must be closed using the
engine start lever.
d. Closes the engine fuel shutoff valve. The spar fuel shutoff valve must be closed using the
engine start lever.
5. Illumination of the APU DET INOP light will also cause the MASTER CAUTION and
OVHT/DET annunciator lights to illuminate.
a. True.
b. False.
6. Placing the TEST switch in the FAULT / INOP position tests:

a. The engine overheat detectors.
57!
b. The fault detection circuits for both engines and the APU.
c. The APU DET INOP light, FAULT light and APU BOTTLE DISCHARGE.
7. During normal operation as a dual loop system, with the OVHT DET switch in NORMAL,
an alert is initiated only if one of the detector elements in Loop A and one of the detector
elements in Loop B signal an overheat or fire condition.
a. True.
b. False.
8. In case of APU fire, the Recall Items are:

1) APU SWITCH.........................................................OFF
2) APU FIRE WARNING SWITCH...... PULL & ROTATE
a. True
b. False.
9. If the OVHT DET switch is positioned to A or B, the system operates as a singleloop

system. The non-selected loop is not monitored.
a. True.
b. False.
10. During cargo fire TEST, Individual detector faults can only be detected by a manually
initiated test. The MASTER CAUTION light does not illuminate.
a. True.
b. False.
11. Cargo Compartment Fire Extinguishing: a single fire extinguisher bottle is installed in the
air conditioning mix bay on the forward wing spar. Detection of fire in either the forward
or aft compartment will cause the FWD or AFT cargo fire warning light to illuminate. The
extinguisher is armed by pushing the appropriate cargo fire ARMED switch.
a. True
b. False.
12. In case of Cargo Fire, the Cargo Fire (FWD / AFT) Warning Lights are illuminated red.
a. At least one detector in each loop detects smoke (with power failed in one loop, at least one
detector on the remaining loop detects smoke)
b. At least one detector in each loop detects smoke.
c. At least one detector in each loop detects smoke or fire condition.
58!
13. If the DETECTOR FAULT light is illuminated (amber), a minimum of one loop in one or
both cargo compartments have failed.
a. True.
b. False.
14. Main wheel well fire protection consists of fire detection powered by the:
a. Battery bus.
b. No.1 AC Transfer bus.
c. Switched hot battery bus.
15. A dual fire detector loop is installed in the main wheel well.
a. True.
b. False.
16. Cargo compartement smoke detection is powered by :

a. Hot battery bus.
b. Switch hot battery bus.
c. Transfer bus No.1.
d. DC bus 1 & DC bus 2.
17. The lavatory smoke detection system monitors for the presence of smoke. When smoke is
detected :- an aural warning sounds- the red alarm indicator light on the lavatory smoke
detector panel illuminates
a. True.
b. False.
18. After a wheel well fire, if the landing gear must be retracted for airplane performance,
leave the landing gear extended for ___ minutes after the WHEEL WELL fire warning light
has extinguished.
a. 10 minutes.
b. 15 minutes.
c. 20 minutes.
d. 30 minutes.
19. During 'SMOKE / FUMES REMOVAL' procedure, First Officer's window should be opened
if packs are off and smoke / fumes source is confirmed to be in the flight deck.
a. True.
b. False.
59!
20. If smoke / fumes are uncontrollable, the crew is supposed to descent to the lowest safe
altitude and at 14000 or below, the PRESSURIZATION MODE SELECTOR should be
positioned to MAN while the OUTFLOW VALVE switch should be opened. What is the
main cause of the OUTFLOW VALVE operation?
a. To depressurize the cabin.
b. To provide maximum cabin ventilation.
c. To provide smoke/fumes contamination of/from other compartments.
d. This causes the cabin airflow to carry smoke/fumes aft.
60!
GABARITO – FIRE PROTECTION
1–e 11 – a
2–c 12 – a
3–c 13 – b
4–a 14 – b
5–a 15 – b
6–b 16 – d
7–a 17 – a
8–b 18 – c
9–a 19 – a
10 – a 20 – d
Comentários:!
8!C!There is no RECALL ITEMS for an APU Fire! (see QRH).
13!C!BOTH loops in one or both cargo compartments have failed.
15!C!A single fire detector loop is installed in the main wheel well. As the temperature of the detector
increases to a predetermined limit, the detector senses a fire condition. The WHEEL WELL fire
warning remains illuminated until the temperature of the detector has decreased below the onset
temperature.
16!C!Cargo compartment fire extinguishing is powered by the hot battery bus.
17!C!There is no flight indication. When smoke is no longer present, the system automatically resets.
19! C! CAUTION : - Establish normal holding airspeed (high airspeed may prevent opening the
window)- Window should not be opened unless the source is confirmed to be originating in the flight
deck.
20!C!The outflow valve can take up to 20 seconds to open.

61!
Questionnaire'5'Flight'Controls'
1. The primary flight controls consist of rudder, ailerons and ______

a. Spoilers
b. Flaps
c. Elevators
d. Speedbrakes
2. Why are mechanical gates installed on the flap selector unit.

a. To prevent inadvertent flap lever movement beyond F1 and F15 during G/A
b. To hinder flap movement beyond F15 until gear down is selected.
c. Prevent flap movement to UP position when speed is too low.
d. Has no particular function.
3. If the spoilers become jammed:

a. The first officer’s control wheel operates the ailerons
b. The captain’s control wheel operates the ailerons
c. The ALT spoiler system is selected
d. The first officer’s control wheel operates the spoilers and ailerons
4. In the event of hydraulic Systems A & B fail, ailerons, elevators, and rudder can be
operated with the Standby system.
a. True
b. False
5. Roll control is provided by the ailerons, assisted by the _____

a. Flight spoilers
b. Ground spoilers
c. Flight spoilers & ground spoilers
d. Flight spoilers or ground spoilers (depending on speed)
6. During a normal landing, flight spoilers & ground spoilers will always extend
simultaneously.
a. True
b. False.
7. Elevator Feel provides simulated aero forces using airspeed from elevator pitot &
stabilizer position.
a. True
62!
b. False
8. To operate the Feel system, the Elevator Feel Computer uses:

a. Either hydraulics system A or B pressure
b. Either hydraulics system A or B pressure (whichever is higher)
c. Hydraulics system A
d. Hydraulics system B
9. A Mach Trim system provides speed stability at the higher Mach numbers.Mach trim is
automatically accomplished above:
a. Mach 0.50
b. Mach 0.615
c. Mach 0.655
d. Mach 0.70
10. Mach Trim system corrects for Mach tuck by moving stabilizer up.
a. True
b. False.
11. Concerning Mach Trim operation, FCCs use Mach information from the ADC / ADIRU, to
compute a Mach trim actuator position whih repositions the elevator feel & centering unit,
which adjusts the control column neutral position (column will not move).
a. True
b. False.
12. In addition to Hydraulic System A & B, the rudder can also be powered by the Standby
Hydraulic System through the:
a. System A Standby Rudder Power Control Unit
b. System B Standby Rudder Power Control Unit
c. Standby Rudder Power Control Unit
d. Main Rudder Power Control Unit
13. The Power Transfer Unit provides an alternate source of power for the Autoslat System if:
a. A loss of Hydraulic System A pressure is sensed
b. Hydraulic System A engine driven pump is inoperative
c. The Alternate Flaps Position Switch is momentarily held down
d. A loss of pressure from the Hydraulic System B engine pump is sensed.
63!
14. The trailing edge flaps are at 15 units. The correct indication on the aft overhead panel for
the leading edge devices is:
a. All amber TRANSIT lights illuminated
b. All LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated
c. All LE devices EXT lights illuminated
d. LE slats EXT lights and LE flaps FULL EXT lights illuminated.
15. During flight with both hydraulic systems A & B inoperative:

a. The standby hydraulic system operates the trailing edge flaps normally
b. Trim is available for the stabilizer and rudder only. Aileron trim is inoperative with the
autopilots disengaged.
c. The autoslat system is still functional through the operation of the PTU
16. The elevator transfer mechanism allows:

a. The elevator feel and centering unit to transfer the source of power for elevator actuators to
hydraulic systems A or B, depending upon which is producing higher pressure.
b. The control column to be physically separated in the event of an elevator jam.
c. Forces from either control column to be transferred to the stabilizer.
d. The elevator feel & centering unit to transfer proper aerodynamic forces to the control
columns.
17. Autopilot trim & main stabilizer trim use separate motors.
a. True
b. False.
18. What is the number of flight spoilers located on each wing?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6.
19. The Flap/Slat Electronics Unit (FSEU) provides:

a. LE skew detection for slats 2 through 7 except during autoslat operation
b. TE asymetry protection by removing hydraulic pressure to the TE flaps if an asymetry is
detected
c. Uncommanded motion protection for LE devices and TE flaps.
20. Select the correct statement:

64!
a. The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulics systems A & B, with backup from the
standby hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest.
b. Flight spoilers are used both for roll control, descent and decelaration.
c. The trailing edge flaps can be both extended and retracted using the Alternate Flap drive
system.
d. All statements are correct.
21. Loss of Hydraulic System B pressure does not cause illumination of the amber YAW
DAMPER light or yaw damper disengagement.
a. True
b. False.
22. Leading Edge devices are normally operated by ______

a. Hydraulic System A
b. Hydraulic System B
c. Hydraulic Systems A & B
d. Standby Hydraulic system.
23. The amber LE FLAPS TRANSIT light :

a. Indicates all LE Devices are fully extended
b. Indicates LE Slats are fully extended
c. Is inhibited during Autoslat operation inflight
d. Provides TE Flaps asymetry protection.
24. Elevator system feel is provided by the elevator feel computer. This computer receives
inputs of:
a. Altitude & elevator position
b. Elevator balance tabs position
c. Only System A hydraulic pressure
d. Airspeed & stabilzer position.
25. The number of slats located on each wing are:

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6.
65!
26. When the Standby Yaw Damper is active, rudder movements are indicated on the yaw
damper indicator.
a. True
b. False.
27. The trailing edge flaps devices consist of double slotted flaps inboard outboard of each
engine.
a. True
b. False.
28. With the loss of hydraulic system B, (system A operating normally):

a. Main yaw damper functions are available as long as hydraulic system A is providing normal
pressure and the yaw damper switch is ON.
b. Standby yaw damper functions are available as long as hydraulic system A is providing
normal pressure and the yaw damper switch is ON
c. Main & standby yaw damper functions are lost
d. Standby yaw damper functions are available if the FLT CONTROL B switch is placed to
STBY RUD and the YAW DAMPER switch is reset to ON
29. The amber FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates when the:
a. Flaps are up & a pressure imbalance between hydraulic systems A & B is detected or if one
of the elevator feel pitot systems fails
b. Flaps are not up and a hydraulic pressure imbalance is detected or one of the elevator feel
pitot systems fails
c. Flaps are up or down and a hydraulic pressure imbalance is detected or if one of the elevator
pitot systems fails.
d. No correct answer is provided.
30. The airspeed range for trim operation is:

a. 100-300 KIAS
b. 158-300 KIAS
c. 100 KIAS - Mach 0.50
d. 100 KIAS - Mach 0.615
31. Yaw damper inputs (main or standby) can be overriden:

a. Only when the yaw damper switch is off
b. By trim inputs but not rudder pedal inputs
c. By rudder pedal inputs but not trim inputs
d. By either trim or rudder pedal inputs.
66!
32. Main electric trim can be used to apply up to +14.5 units.
a. True
b. False.
33. Main electric trim has 2 speed modes : high & low speed.
a. True
b. False.
34. An alternate retraction system is provided for the LE Devices.

a. True
b. False.
35. What is number of ground spoilers on each wing?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6.
36. The Autoslat system:

a. Provides for slat deployment above VMO/MMO
b. Drives the slats to FULL EXTEND when TE Flaps 1 through 5 are selected and the airplane
approaches a stall
c. Is normally powered by Hydraulic System A
d. Is normally powered by Transfer Bus No.2
37. The flap load relief system is operational at:

a. All flap settings
b. Flaps 15, 30 & 40
c. Flaps 30 & 40
d. Flaps 40 only.
38. The ALTERNATE FLAPS Master Switch:

a. Fully extends the LE Devices using Standby Hydraulic pressure, and electrically extends the
TE Flaps
b. Closes the Flight Spoiler Shutoff valve
c. Activates the Standby Hydraulic Pump and pressurizes the STANDBY Rudder Power Control
Unit.
d. Arms the Alternate Flaps Position Switch, activates the Standby Hydraulic Pump, and closes
the Trailing
67!
39. During landing, compression of any landing gear strut enables the flight spoilers to
deploy. Compression of the Right main landing gear strut enables the ground spoilers to
deploy...
a. True
b. False.
40. During descent from altitude you need to decrease your aispeed by using your speed
brakes. What is the correct position of the SPEED BRAKE LEVER.
a. ARMED
b. FLIGHT DETENT
c. UP
d. Any intermediate position.
41. If wheel spinup is not detected on landing with the speed brake armed the flight spoilers
will deploy automatically :
a. Only when the RIGHT main landing gear strut compresses
b. When the air/ground system senses the ground mode (any strut compresses)
c. When the ground spoilers deploy
d. Flight spoilers do not deploy on landing, only ground spoilers deploy.
42. What is the maximum flap extension altitude?

a. 10 000 feet
b. 17 000 feet
c. 20 000 feet
d. 23 000 feet
43. Dual AILERON trim switches, located on the aft electronic panel, must be pushed
simultaneously to command trim changes. The trim electrically repositions the aileron
feel and centering unit, which causes the control wheel to rotate and redefines the aileron
neutral position.
a. True
b. False.
44. The flight control computers use Mach Information from the _____ to compute a Mach
trim actuator position.
a. Airspeed Indicator
b. ADIRU
c. Mach/Airspeed Indicator & thrust levers position
68!
45. What do the MACH TRIM FAIL, SPEED TRIM FAIL & AUTO SLAT FAIL lights have in
common?
a. Will illuminate if both system computers fail
b. Will illuminate during Master Caution Recall if only one computer has failed
c. Also illuminates the Master Caution & FLT CONT annunciator Lights.
46. Extending the flaps to flaps 15 using ALTERNATE FLAPS takes approximately _______
a. 30 seconds
b. 1 minute
c. 2 minutes
d. 4 minutes.
47. If you experience a 'JAMMED OR RESTRICTED ELEVATOR OR AILERON' you may:

a. Use maximum force, including a combined effort of both pilots, if required (a maximum two-
pilot effort on the controls will not cause a cable or system failure)
b. Turn off any flight control switches
c. Limit bank angle to 10 degrees
48. The LE FLAPS TRANSIT light illuminated indicates _______

a. Leading edge devices are in transit
b. Leading edge devices do not agree with trailing edge flap setting
c. Asymetric leading edge devices
49. The speedbrake lever will move forward and all spoilers will retract if either thrust lever is
advanced after landing.
a. True
b. False.
50. The SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light indicates that the speedbrake is not usable.
a. True
b. False.
51. The flight spoilers rise on the wing with up aileron and remain faired on the wing with
down aileron. When the control wheel is displaced more than approximately ____
degrees, spoiler deflection is initiated.
a. 6,5
69!
b. 8
c. 10
d. 12.
52. At what flap setting(s) should the leading edge slats be in the FULL EXTEND position?
a. 1
b. 1 to 5
c. Greater than 5
d. 5 to 40.
53. With a loss of both system A & B, the elevator FEEL DIFF PRESS light will illuminate:
a. True
b. False.
54. What is the correct flap setting for a jammed stabilizer landing?
a. 1
b. 5
c. 15
d. 30 or 40.
55. During an 'ALL FLAPS UP LANDING', the speed to be maintained is:

a. VREF40 + 15
b. VREF40 + 30
c. VREF40 + 55
d. VREF40 + 60
56. During the 'ALTERNATE FLAPS OPERATION' procedure, you have to plan a Flaps 15
landing. After arming the ALTERNATE FLAPS MASTER SWITCH (230 kt max), you set the
flaps to desired flap position & extend flaps on maneuvering speed schedule. The LE
FLAPS TRANSIT light will remain illuminates until the flaps approach the:
a. Flaps 1 position
b. Flaps 5 position
c. Flaps 10 position
d. Flaps 15 position.
57. If the SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED light is illuminated in flight. It indicates:

a. The speed brake lever is beyond the ARMED position with either the TE flaps extended more
than Flaps 5 or the Radio altitude is less than 500 ft
70!
b. The speed brake lever is beyond the ARMED position with either the TE flaps extended more
c. The speed brake lever is beyond the ARMED position with either the TE flaps extended more
d. The speed brake lever is beyond the ARMED position with either the TE flaps extended more
58. You have to perform a 'Runway Stabilizer' recall items. What bare your chronological
actions?
a. Hold firmly the Control column 2) Disengage the autopilot 3) if runaway continues, cutout the
stabilizer cutout switches (if runaway continues you'll have to grasp & hold trim wheel)
b. You immediately grasp & hold trim wheel while declaring an emergency
c. You disengage autopilot and cutout immediately cutout switches
d. You disengage autopilot and cutout the both A & B FLT CONTROL switches
59. The Speed Trim System (STS) is a speed stability augmentation system designed to
improve flight characteristics during operation with a low gross weight, aft center of
gravity and high thrust when the autopilot is not engaged.
a. True
b. False.
60. The Speed Trim System (STS) operates most frequently during takeoffs & go-arounds.
Conditions for speed trim operation are:
a. Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following
release of trim switches, N1 above 60%, autopilot not engaged, sensing of trim requirement
b. Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following
release of trim switches, N1 above 40%, sensing of trim requirement
c. Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 15 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following
release of trim switches, N1 above 60%, sensing of trim requirement
d. Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following
release of trim switches, N1 above 40%, autopilot not engaged, sensing of trim requirement
61. During a steady right-handed turn on the ground, correct indications of the YawDamper
indicator would be?
a. Steady full scale left deflection.
b. Steady full scale right deflection
c. Steady in the center position.
71!
62. Landing flap 40 selected and in position. An IAS of 178kts is flown due to a highwind gust.
Would you expect:
a. Flaps to retract to 30.
b. Flaps to retract to 25.
c. Flaps to remain in the current configuration.
63. Trailing uncommanded motion protection is provided by:

a. The FSEU.
b. The Trailing Edge flaps bypass valve.
c. Both of the answers above.
64. With the MACH TRIM FAIL light illuminated (indicating failure of the Mach trim system),
you must:
a. Limit airspeed to 280 kt / .82 Mach
b. Limit aispeed to 270 kt
c. Limit airspeed to 280 kt and altitude to 20,000 ft
65. If you activate the FLT CONTROL switch Overhead panel) to STBY RUD, you activate:
a. standby hydraulic systemp pump.
b. standby hydraulic system pump and close flight control shutoff valve, isolating ailerons and
elevators.
c. activates standby hydraulic system pump and opens standby rudder shutoff valve to
pressurize standby rudder power control unit.
66. If you select the ALTERNATE FLAPS to the 'ARM' position:

a. Trailing Edge flap bypass valve closes, standby pump activates and ALTERNATE FLAPS
position switch is armed
b. Trailing Edge flap bypass valve closes and standby pump activates.
c. Standby pump is armed while the Trailing Edge flap bypass valve is de-energized.
d. Standby pump is armed while the Trailing Edge flap bypass valve is energized.
67. The FEEL DIFF PRESS light indicates:

a. A loss of pressure in the elvator feel computer.
b. An excessive differential pressure in the elevator feel computer.
c. An excessive temperature in the elevator feel computer
d. a data loss in the elevator feel computer.
72!
GABARITO – FLIGHT CONTROLS
1–c 11 – b 21 – a 31 – d 41 – b 51 – c 61 – a
2–a 12 – c 22 – b 32 – a 42 – c 52 – c 62 – a
3–b 13 – d 23 – c 33 – a 43 – a 53 – b 63 – c
4–b 14 – b 24 – d 34 – b 44 – b 54 – c 64 – a
5–a 15 – b 25 – c 35 – a 45 – d 55 – c 65 – c
6–b 16 – b 26 – b 36 – b 46 – c 56 – c 66 – a
7–a 17 – b 27 – a 37 – c 47 – a 57 – b 67 – b
8–b 18 – c 28 – c 38 – d 48 – d 58 – a
9–b 19 – d 29 – a 39 – a 49 – a 59 – a
10 – b 20 – d 30 – c 40 – b 50 – b 60 – a
Comentários:!
7!C!The feel is transmitted to the control columns by the elevator feel & centering unit.
8!C!The system operates normally even with only one hydraulics system remaining
10!C!It moves elevators up (not the stabilizer)
11!C!Of course the column will move !
32!C!Main Electric Trim: a)Flaps retracted 3.95 to 14.5 units b)Flaps extended 0.05 to 14.5 units(same
than autopilot trim) Manual trim: 0.20 to 16.9 units.
39! C! Note : if a wheel spin-up signal is not detected, when the air/ground system senses ground
mode (any gear compresses), the SPEED BRAKE lever moves to the UP position and flight spoiler
panels deploy automatically. When the Right main landing gear strut compresses, a mechanical
linkage opens the ground spoiler shutoff valve and the ground spoilers deploy.
47!C!Never turn off any flight control switches. See QRH : 'JAMMED OR RESTRICTED ELEVATOR
OR AILERON'
58!C!See QRH.
59!C!The STS monitors inputs of stabilizer position, thrust lever position, airspeed and vertical speed
and then trims the stabilizer using the autopilot stabilizer trim.Remember that the SPEED TRIM FAIL
amber light is often illuminated when you arrive at the aircraft. It is only due to the Inertial Vertical
Speed Indicator which is not powered by the ADIRUs (IRS selectors OFF): the STS receives invalid
inputs.
62! C! When the flaps are set at 40, the TE flaps:- retract to 30 if airspeed exceeds 163 knots- re-
extend when airspeed is reduced below 158 knots.When the flaps are set at 30, the TE flaps:- retract
to 25 if the airspeed exceeds 176 knots- re-extend when airspeed is reduced below 171 knots.
64!C!See QRH (Flight Controls / Mach Trim Fail).
'
73!
Questionnaire'5'Flight'Instruments'&'Displays'
1. To climb to FL280 in the shortest distance, MAX ANGLE should be selected on this page: '
a. CLB or CRZ
b. PROG
c. CLB
d. CLB or PERF
2. When penetrating turbulence:

a. The Turbulence N1 is line selected to the scratch pad on the CRZ page and transferred to
the N1 LIMIT page for activation & execution
b. The Turbulence N1 is activated on the CRZ page
c. The Turbulence N1 is a reference only. The autothrottle must be disconnected and the N1
set manually
d. The Turbulence N1 is a reference only. The autothrottle must be disconnected and the N1
set manually
3. The purpose of the FMC FIX INFO page is to:

a. Establish your position relative to any stored fix
b. Create new waypoints, and using place bearing / place bearing or along track fix methods,
monitor flight progress
c. Create a new waypoint at the intersection of the active route and a radial or distance from a
known fix
4. If the FAULT light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates; it indicates:
a. A failure of a Symbol Generator or a system fault affective NAV Mode of the ADIRU
b. An entry of an invalid present position
c. A system fault affecting the respective IRS ATT and/or NAV Mode
d. That DC power for the respective IRS is not normal.
5. On the FMC TAKEOFF REF Page, the SEL temperature entry may be made in either
degrees Celsius or Fahrenheit:
a. True
b. False.
6. The FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' indicates:

a. The airplane is excessively off the flight planned course
b. Position information is contradictory
74!
c. The airplane is more than 3.5 NM off the flight planned course
d. The captain has left the cockpit for an excessive period of time
7. During PATH DESCENT and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC Alerting
Message 'OVERSPEED DICONNECT' means:
a. VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more
than 15 knots
b. The FMC has disengaged the autothrottles due to excessive Speed
c. VNAV has disengaged at VMO minus 5 knots
d. VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Target Speed by more than 10
knots
8. Using a Reduced Takeoff thrust setting may result in Automatic FMC of Reduced Climb
Thrust.
a. True
b. False.
9. The purpose of the FMC LEGS page is to display the lateral and vertical flight path details
for each waypoint and to make route modifications involving a portion of a route
segment:
a. True
b. False.
10. The airplane is not certified for operations:

a. Above 78°15' N or below 78°15'S
b. Above 73°N or below 60°S
c. Above 82°N or below 82°S
d. Approaching North or South pole
11. On which CDU is the ground speed displayed?

a. PROGRESS page 1
b. CRZ
c. POS REF page 2
d. INIT REF
12. Selection of an ILS approach from a DEP/ARR page will automatically remove a
previously selected approach:
a. True
b. False.
75!
13. With the CONTROL PANEL select switch on the DISPLAYS Source Panel in the BOTH ON
2 position:
a. The First Officer's EFIS Control Panel is supplying identical inputs to the captain's & First
Officer's displays
b. Both pilots displays are using the No.2 symbol generator
c. DEU 2 controls all six display units
d. ADIRU inputs for both the L & R ADIRU are being received from the First Officer's pitot probe
14. The Slip/Skid indication of the Attitude Indicator will turn amber if bank angle is 35
degrees or more.
a. True
b. False.
15. The rising runway is displayed when localizer pointer is in view and radio altitude is less
than ____ feet.
a. 2500
b. 1500
c. 500
d. 200
16. The Glide Slope Pointer is not displayed when the track and the front course on the Mode
Control Panel differ by more than 90 degrees (backcourse)
a. True
b. False.
17. The standby radio magnetic indicator (RMI) displays magnetic heading & VOR/ADF
bearing to the station. The RMI is powered by:
a. The AC transfer bus 2
b. The AC standby bus
c. The DC standby bus.
d. The TR3.
18. When the 'ROLL' flag (amber) appear on the Attitude indicator:
a. The Captain & First Officer roll display differ by more than 2 degrees
b. The Captain & First Officer roll display differ by more than 5 degrees
c. The Captain & First Officer roll display differ by more than 10 degrees
d. The Captain & First Officer roll display differ by more than 15 degrees
76!
19. The Altitude Disagree Alert (amber 'ALT DISAGREE') on the digital altimeter indicates the
Captain's & F/O's altitude indications disagree by more than:
a. 50 feet
b. 100 feet for more than 2 continuous seconds
c. 200 feet for more than 5 continuous seconds
d. 500 feet for more than 10 continuous seconds
20. If the Altitude Failure Flag (amber) appears, it means that the barometric altitude or
barometric correction has failed. All altimeter symbols are removed except the ALT
ALERT annunciation and the barometric setting.
a. True
b. False.
21. Concerning Navigation Display Information, Heading is supplied by Air Data Inertial
Reference System (ADIRS) & Track is supplied by the FMC during normal operation.
a. True
b. False
22. The message EXCESS DATA is displayed if the amount of information sent to the
navigation display exceeds the display capability. The message can be removed by:
a. Reducing the amount of map information
b. Reducing range
c. Deselecting one or more of the EFIS control map switches (STA, WPT, ARPT, DATA, POS)
23. If you select the 'BOTH ON 1' switch of the CONTROL PANEL:
a. The Left EFIS control panel controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units
b. The Right EFIS control panel controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units
c. The Left ADIRS controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units
d. The Right ADIRS controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units
24. In the air, the flight recorder is not powered if both engines are shut down.
a. True
b. False.
25. The Pitch Limit Indicator (amber) indicates:

a. Pitch attitude corresponding to stick pusher activation
b. Appears anytime the Flaps are UP
c. Pitch limit
77!
d. Pitch Limit when flaps are UP
26. The Mach digital counter indicates current Mach number & it is displayed when airspeed
increases above ___ Mach
a. 0.30
b. 0.40
c. 0.50
d. 0.60
27. The V2+15 white bug of the airspeed indicator is normally displayed for takeoff. It is
removed:
a. At first flap retraction or when VREF is entered
b. When landing gear lever is placed UP
c. When speed is more than 250 knots KIAS
28. The Flaps Up Airspeed Bug (green) is displayed after Zero Fuel Weight is entered in the
CDU and takeoff gross weight is calculated or after takeoff gross weight is set with the
speed reference selector.
a. True
b. False.
29. The display SOURCE selector also allows the crew to manually select either DEU1 or
DEU2 for all 6 display units. If the displays are automatically or manually switched to a
single DEU source, a 'DSLPY SOURCE' annunciation illuminates above both pilot's
altimeters.
a. True
b. False.
30. If the Upper Display fails:

a. The engine display automatically moves to the Inboard display and the Upper display blanks
b. The engine display automatically moves to the Outboard display and the Upper display
blanks.
c. The engine display automatically moves to the Lower display and the Upper display blanks
d. The engine display automatically moves to the Inboard or Outboard display and the Upper
display blanks
78!
31. If the MAIN PANEL DUs switch is turned to Outboard Primary Flight Display (OUTBD
PFD), the compact EFIS format is displayed on the outboard display unit & the inboard
display unit blanks.
a. True
b. False.
32. What is the purpose of the Air Data Modules (ADMs)?

a. The ADMs convert pneumatic pressure to electrical signals and send these data to the
ADIRUs
b. The ADMs provide only pitot & static pressure to the standby instruments
c. The ADMs provide inertial position & track data to the displays thru the ADIRUs
d. The ADMs measure thru the Alpha vanes the airplane angle-of-attack.
33. The Static Air temperature is displayed on:

a. The CDU IDENT page
b. The CDU PERF INIT page
c. The CDU CLB page
d. The CDU PROGRESS page
34. The Standby attitude indicator provides attitude information that is independent of the
primary attitude displays. The indicator is powered by:
a. The Battery bus
b. The Transfer bus 1
c. The Transfer bus 2
d. The TR2
35. The Weather Radar Annunciation 'WXR ATT' indicates:

a. The Weather radar has failed
b. The Weather radar Attitude calibration has been lost
c. The Attitude stabilization for antenna has been lost
d. The Display unit cooling has been lost or an overheat condition has occurred
36. The ND Wind direction/speed and wind arrow is:

a. Displayed in only in ND MAP mode
b. Blanked if wind speed becomes less than 6 knots
c. Displayed if wind speed is greater than 6 knots
d. Displayed only in ILS mode
79!
37. What will occur if the aircraft pitch attitude reaches the Pitch Limit Indication ( PLI ) on the
PFD during slow speed maneuvering ?
a. The aircraft stalls
b. The aircraft will experience initial stall buffet
c. The stick shaker warning activates
d. The stick nudger pushes the control column forward.
38. During an ILS approach the Captain observes his BARO minimum reference/ altitude
turns from green to flashing amber for three second. What does it mean?
a. Radio altitude data is unreliable
b. The aircraft has descended below the Captain's selected minimum altitude (DA)
c. A windshear has been encountered
d. The aircraft has descended below 1000 feet
39. The decision height (DH) display on the CDS is set:

a. Automatically when APPROACH is selected on the MCP panel
b. Independently by each pilot using his/her EFIS control panel
c. By entering the desired DH on the FMC CDU APPROACH REFERENCE page
d. By using the DH selector knob on the forward instrument panel
40. The aircraft is on the ground and the Flight Recorder Switch is in NORMAL:
a. The Flight Recorder operates anytime electrical power is available
b. The Flight Recorder operates when electrical power is available and either engine is
operating
c. The Flight Recorder operates whenever the Battery Switch is ON
d. The Flight Recorder operates anytime electrical power is available and start switch in
GROUND position
41. The First Officer observes the word PITCH displayed in amber in the lower portion of the
PFD during an ILS approach. What does it mean?
a. The autopilot has defaulted to CWS pitch
b. Glide slope is not being tracked
c. The Captain's and First Officer's pitch displays differ by 5 degrees or more
d. The First Officer's pitch display is more than 3 degrees in error
42. An amber DSPLY SOURCE annunciation below each speed tape indicates:
a. The altimeter is receiving inputs from a source other than the ADIRU and should be
considered unreliable unless verified by another source
b. A single DEU has been manually or automatically selected to drive all six display units
80!
c. A non-dispatchable CDS fault has occurred
d. A single EFIS control panel has been manually or automatically selected as the source for all
six display units
43. If an outboard display unit fails, the PFD is automatically displayed:

a. Never. It can only be displayed manually with the MAIN PANEL DU selectors
b. On the ENGINE PRIMARY display
c. On the ENGINE SECONDARY display
d. On the inboard display unit
44. Speed Trend Vector: Tip of arrow indicates predicted airspeed in the next _____ based on
the current airspeed and acceleration.
a. 5 seconds
b. 7 seconds
c. 2 seconds
d. 10 seconds
45. The curved trend vector extending from the aircraft symbol on ND MAP and MAP CTR is
divided into three segments. With range greater than 20 NM´s the trend vector:
a. Predicts position at the end of 10,20 and 30 second intervals
b. Predicts position at the end of 20,40 and 60 second intervals
c. Predicts position at the end of 30,60 and 90 second intervals
d. Predicts position at the end of 60,90 and 120 second intervals
46. With the CONTROL PANEL select switch on the Displays Source Panel in the BOTH ON 2
position:
a. The First Officer's EFIS control panel is supplying identical inputs to the Captain's and First
Officer's displays
b. Both pilots displays are using the No2 DEU
c. DEU 2 controls all six display units
d. ADIRU inputs for both the L and R ADIRU are being received from the First Officer's pitot
probe
47. An amber CDS FAULT annunciation below each speed tape indicates:
a. The altimeter is receiving inputs from a source other than the ADIRU and should be
considered unreliable unless verified by another source
b. A single DEU has been manually selected to drive all six display units
c. A non-dispatchable CDS fault has occurred
81!
d. Single EFIS control panel has been manually or automatically selected as the source for all
six display units
48. A magenta bug on the vertical speed indicator in the PFD indicates:
a. Actual vertical speed
b. Selected vertical speed on the MCP panel with V/S pitch mode selected
c. Electrical power loss to the indicator
d. Indicates vertical speed in VNAV mode
49. The Air Data Inertial Reference System (ADIRS) produces following flight data:
a. Position and speed only
b. Attitude and speed only
c. Altitude and speed only
d. Position, attitude, altitude and speed
50. The Landing Altitude reference bar (Amber- 0-500ft, White- 500 –1000ft) indicates:
a. Height above Minimum descent altitude
b. Height above touchdown / Landing Altitude
c. Radio Altitude
d. Height above MSL
51. WXR selector on the EFIS Control Panel energizes the weather radar transmitter and
displays weather radar returns in:
a. APP, VOR, MAP and PLN modes
b. Map, centre Map, expanded VOR and expanded APP modes
c. Only APP and Map modes
d. Only expanded VOR and expanded APP modes
52. When Max range is selected on the EFIS Control Panel, weather radar returns are limited
to:
a. 80 NM
b. 160 NM
c. 320 NM
d. 640 NM
53. With the weather radar in WX/TURB mode, turbulence will be shown within:
a. 160 NM
b. 120 NM
c. 80 NM
82!
d. 40 NM
54. During an ILS Approach with the Localizer pointer in view, the rising runway symbol
comes into view:
a. Below 2500ft RA and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 200ft RA
b. Below 1500ft RA and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 50ft RA
c. At glideslope capture and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 1500ft RA
d. At glideslope capture and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 200ft RA
55. 'WXR RANGE DISAGREE' indicates selected range on the EFIS control panel is different
than the WXR display range.
a. True
b. False
83!
GABARITO – FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
1–c 11 – c 21 – a 31 – a 41 – c 51 – b
2–c 12 – a 22 – d 32 – a 42 – b 52 – c
3–d 13 – a 23 – a 33 – d 43 – d 53 – d
4–c 14 – a 24 – b 34 – a 44 – d 54 – a
5–a 15 – a 25 – c 35 – c 45 – c 55 – a
6–b 16 – a 26 – b 36 – c 46 – a
7–a 17 – b 27 – a 37 – d 47 – c
8–a 18 – b 28 – a 38 – b 48 – b
9–a 19 – c 29 – a 39 – b 49 – d
10 – c 20 – a 30 – c 40 – b 50 – b
Comentários:!
14!C!Amber if the slip/skid indicator is also at full scale deflection.
17!C!The RMI is powered by the AC standby bus & remains powered after the loss of all normal AC
power as long as battery power is available.
24! C! In the air the flight recorder is powered even with both engine shut down as long as APU
electrical power is available.
26!C!It blanks when airspeed decreases below 0.38 Mach
28!C!It is not displayed above approximately 20,000 feet altitude.
30!C!There is no automatic switching for a lower DU failure.
32!C!There are 4 ADMs. They convert pneumatic pressure to electrical signals and send these data to
the ADIRUs. Each pitot air data module is connected to its on-side pitot probe; there is no cross
connection.
34!C!The indicator is powered by the battery bus & remains powered after the loss of all normal AC
power as long as battery power is available. The gyro reaches operational speed approximately 60
seconds after power is applied.
45! C! Predicts position at the end of 30, 60, and 90 second intervals. Each segment represents 30
seconds. Based on bank angle and ground speed. Selected range determines the number of
segments displayed. For range:
46! C! The CONTROL PANEL select switch determines which EFIS control panel controls the pilots’
display functions. With the switch positioned to either BOTH ON 1 or BOTH ON 2, the selected EFIS
84!
control panel provides inputs for both sets of pilot displays. When in the NORMAL position, a
'DISPLAYS CONTROL PANEL' annunciation illuminates on the pilot’s altimeters and indicates a
failure of the associated EFIS control panel.
47! C! CDS FAULT (amber) – A non–dispatchable CDS fault has occurred. Displayed on the ground
only, prior to start of the second engine. CDS MAINT (white) – A dispatchable CDS fault has
occurred. Displayed on the ground only, prior to start of the second engine.
49! C! The ADIRS produces flight data such as position, speed, altitude and attitude for the flight
displays, flight management computers, flight controls, engine controls and all other systems
requiring inertial and air data.
54! C! • displayed when localizer pointer is in view and radio altitude is less than 2500 feet • rises
towards airplane symbol when radio altitude is below 200 feet • is not displayed when the localizer
signal is unusable.
'
'
'
'
85!
Questionnaire'5'Flight'Management'&'Navigation'
1. When the IRSs are operating in the normal navigation mode they provide:
a. Attitude and true + magnetic heading
b. Acceleration, vertical speed & ground speed
c. Track, present position & wind data
2. A fast alignment should be complete in:

a. 15 seconds
b. 30 seconds
c. 45 seconds
d. 1 minute
3. Which of the following is not a major component of the inertial system?

a. Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRU)
b. Inertial System Display Unit (ISDU)
c. Instrument Display Unit (IDU) transfer switch
d. Mode Select Unit (MSU)
4. During the preliminary cockpit preparation the pilot accidentally moves the IRS Mode
Selector switch from OFF to ATT instead from OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation
be regained?
a. Switch to OFF, wait for ALIGN lights to extinguish, then perform full alignment procedures
b. Switch directly to NAV from the ATT position
c. Switch to the ALIGN position then to NAV
d. Switch to the OFF position
5. The FMC contains 2 databases (Performance & Navigation database)

a. True
b. False
6. With correct takeoff parameters, the FMC commands the selected takeoff thrust when the
TO/GA switch is pushed. During the takeoff roll, the autothrottle commands the thrust &
the FMC commands acceleration to between V2+15 & V2+25 knots.
a. True
b. False.
86!
7. For LNAV to be engaged on the ground, the departure runway must be selected and the
course, to the first waypoint, must be within ___ degrees of the runway heading.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 12
d. 20
8. To climb to FL280 in the shortest distance, MAX ANGLE should be selected on this page:
a. CLB or CRZ
b. PROG
c. CLB
d. CLB or PERF
9. When penetrating turbulence:

a. The Turbulence N1 is line selected to the scratch pad on the CRZ page and transferred to
the N1 LIMIT page for activation & execution
b. The Turbulence N1 is activated on the CRZ page
c. The Turbulence N1 is a reference only. The autothrottle must be disconnected and the N1
set manually
d. The Turbulence N1 is the minimum speed commanded by the autothrottle during all flight
conditions to ensure safe penetration when it is encountered.
10. The purpose of the FMC FIX INFO page is to:

a. Establish your position relative to any stored fix
b. Create new waypoints, and using place bearing / place bearing or along track fix methods,
monitor flight progress
c. Create a new waypoint at the intersection of the active route and a radial or distance from a
known fix
11. If the FAULT light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates, it indicates:
a. A failure of a Symbol Generator or a system fault affective NAV Mode of the ADIRU.
b. An entry of an invalid present position.
c. A system fault affecting the respective IRS ATT and/or NAV Mode.
d. That DC power for the respective IRS is not normal.
12. On the FMC TAKEOFF REF Page, the SEL temperature entry may be made in either
degrees Celsius or Farenheit:
a. True
87!
b. False.
13. The FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' indicates:

a. The airplane is excessively off the flight planned course.
b. Position information is contradictory.
c. The airplane is more than 3.5 NM off the flight planned course.
d. The captain has left the cockpit for an excessive period of time.
14. After completing the FMC CDU preflight actions, you look at the POS INIT page again. The
SET IRS POS line is missing. What is required?
a. Nothing. This is a normal indication once both IRS's have entered the NAV mode.
b. Re-enter PPOS LAT/LONG into the FMC.
c. The alignment was not performed. Cycle the IRS's to OFF and start a new alignment, then
re-enter PPOS LAT/LONG
d. Return to ALIGN, then NAV, and enter the PPOS LAT/LONG into the Left or Right IRS unit.
15. During PATH DESCENT and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC Alertting
Message 'OVERSPEED DICONNECT' means:
a. VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more
than 15 knots
b. The FMC has disengaged the autothrottles due to excessive Speed.
c. VNAV has disengaged at VMO minus 5 knots.
d. VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Target Speed by more than 10
knots
16. Using a Reduced Takeoff thrust setting may result in Automatic FMC of Reduced Climb
Thrust.
a. True
b. False.
17. The purpose of the FMC LEGS page is to display the lateral and vertical flight path details
for each waypoint and to make route modifications involving a portion of a route
segment:
a. True
b. False.
18. The airplane is not certified for operations:

a. Above 78°15' N or below 78°15'S
b. Above 73°N or below 60°S
88!
c. Above 82°N or below 82°S
d. Approching North or South pole
19. On which CDU is the ground speed displayed?

a. PROGRESS page 1
b. CRZ
c. POS REF page 2
d. INIT REF
20. Selection of an ILS approach from a DEP/ARR page will automatically remove a
previously selected approach:
a. True
b. False.
21. With the CONTROL PANEL select switch on the DISPLAYS Source Panel in the BOTH ON
2 position:
a. The First Officer's EFIS Control Panel is supplying identical inputs to the captain's & First
Officer's displays
b. Both pilots displays are using the No.2 symbol generator.
c. DEU 2 controls all six display units.
d. ADIRU inputs for both the L & R ADIRU are being received from the First Officer's pitot
probe.
22. Holding patterns appear as scaled representation if the airplane is within 3 minutes of the
holding fix with the range scale set at 80 NM:
a. True.
b. False.
23. If the FMC Alert Light of the LEFT / RIGHT FORWARD PANEL is illuminated. It means:
a. The FAIL light on CDU(s) is illuminated.
b. The FAIL light on CDU(s) is illuminated or an alerting message exists for both CDUs.
c. The FAIL light on CDU(s) is illuminated or an alerting message exists for both CDUs or test
switch is in position 1 or 2
d. The FAIL light on CDU(s) is illuminated or test switch is in position 1 or 2
24. Two GPS receivers receive GPS satellite positioning signals. The LEFT & RIGHT GPS
receivers are independent and ech provides an accurate airplane geographical position to
the FMC & other aircraft systems. GPS operation is automatic.
a. True
89!
b. False.
25. When the IRS Mode Selector is turned OFF, the IRS remain powered for approximately
________.
a. 10 seconds.
b. 30 seconds.
c. 60 seconds.
d. 90 seconds.
26. During IRS alignment, If the Latitude / Longitude is not within ___ NM of the origin airport,
the CDU scratchpad message VEIFY POSITION is displayed.
a. 1,2
b. 2,5
c. 4
d. 5
27. During an IRS alignment a flashing white ALIGN light indicates alignment cannot be
completed due to IRS detection of:
a. A significant difference between previous & entered position
b. An unreasonable present position
c. A related IRS operating in the ALIGN mode
d. Both first & second statements are correct.
28. The display selector of the ISDU (IRS Display Unit) is moved to position 'HDG/STS' during
alignment. What is shown in the right window?
a. Right window displays ground speed.
b. Right window displays wind speed.
c. Right window displays minutes remaining until alignment is complete.
d. Right window displays true track.
29. If the airplane is moved during alignment or fast realignment, the IRS automatically
begins the full alignment process:
a. True
b. False.
30. When the FMC is not receiving required fuel data:

a. VNAV disengages and VNAV operation is not possible
b. The scratchpad message 'USING RSV FUEL' may be displayed
90!
c. The pilot is responsible for periodic entry of fuel weight in order to keep gross weight value
current
d. Both second & third statements are correct.
31. Fuel onboard is automatically displayed as received from the airplane fuel summation unit
and:
a. A valid fuel entry is xxx.xx
b. Airplane zero fuel weight is not a required entry
c. When FMC is not receiving the required fuel data, displayed dashes and manual fuel weight
entry is not possible
d. Normally the ZFW is entered from the airplane dispatch papers and the FMC calculates the
airplane gross weight.
32. The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS page 1 is:
a. Wing tank fuel only
b. Center tank fuel only
c. Total fuel quantity remaining direct from the fuel summation unit
d. Total fuel used since engine start, based on fuel flow inputs to the FMC
33. With HDG SEL engaged, selecting LNAV will:

a. Engage if the airplane is within 3 NM of the LNAV course, regardless of the heading
b. Arm if the airplane is on intercept heading of 90 degrees or more regardless of distance from
the LNAV course
c. Engage if the airplane is on an intercept heading of 90 degrees or less and the intercept will
occur before the active waypoint
d. Both first & second statements are correct
34. An acceptable required time of arrival entry found on ACT RTA PROGRESS page 2/3 is:
a. 10/30/45
b. 10304
c. 10/30.5
d. 103045B
35. Which data is available by line selecting the RTE DATA prompt on the ACT RTE LEGS
page?
a. FMC calculated speed & altitude data for each waypoint
b. Manually entered speed & altitude restrictions for each waypoint
c. ETA & forecast wind data for cruising points
91!
36. When an active data base expires in flight, the expired database continues to be used
until the active data is changed after landing.
a. True
b. False.
37. When aligning the IRS between 78 degrees 15 minutes North or South latitude:
a. Rotate the IRS switch from OFF to ALIGN
b. Alignment time will vary from 5 minutes to 17 minutes depending on airplane latitude
c. The alignment process begins when the ON DC light illuminates & the ALIGN light
extinguishes
d. Airplane present position is not a required entry.
38. The FMC supplies a default required navigation performance (RNP) value that:
a. Should not exceed actual navigation performance
b. With RNP exceeded, the message FMC appears on the scratch pad
c. Is shown on the POS SCHIFT page 3/3 only
d. Is used for takeoff, enroute, oceanic, terminal and approach phases
39. What does the DES NOW prompt on the PATH DES page provide?
a. Provides a DES NOW display in ACT or MOD mode
b. Execution allows early initiation of a SPD descent at 1000 FPM until intercepting the
computing path
c. Execution allows early initiation of a PATH descent at 1000 FPM until intercepting the
computed path
d. Arms the DES NOW function& extinguishes the EXEC light
40. The transition altitude of the FMC PERF INIT page:

a. Displays 10000 feet at FMC power up
b. Changes after selecting a departure procedure with a different altitude
c. Cannot be manually changed by the crew to a new altitude
d. Is automatically entered when the TRIP/CRZ altitude is entered in the FMC
41. Which factor is not considered in the FMC TRIP/CRZ computation?

a. GROSS WEIGHT
b. COST INDEX
c. ORIGIN
d. RESERVES
92!
42. On the FMC RTE page, the origin airport will still have to be entered if the company route
is entered.
a. True
b. False.
43. Pushing the ACTIVATE key arms the route for execution as the active route.
a. True
b. False.
44. On the FMC RTE page invalid VIA entries are:

a. Airways & company routes which do contain the VIA waypoint of the previous line
b. Airways & company routes that are in the navigation database
c. Airways or company routes that are in their performance database
d. Airways or company routes which do not contain the TO waypoint of the previous line.
45. Arrivals can be selected on the FMC for either the origin or destination airport.
a. True
b. False.
46. On the FIX page, radial/distance from the fix, displays the radial and distance from the fix
to the airplane. This information is continually updated as the airplane position changes.
a. True
b. False.
47. The SELECT DESIRED WPT page is automatically displayed when the FMC encounters
more than one location for the same waypoint name after a waypoint entry.
a. True
b. False.
48. On the FMC CDU, how is the MOD CRZ CLB page automatically displayed?
a. Entering a higher CRZ ALT on line 1L of the CRZ page
b. Pressing the CLB Mode Key during cruise
c. Entering a higher cruising altitude in the STEP TO line on the CRZ page
49. In the FMC a lateral offset may be specified up to 99.9 miles. Some legs are invalid for
offset. One of these is:
a. Beginning of a flight plan waypoint
b. Discontinuity
93!
c. PPOS holding pattern
d. Course change greater than 90 degrees.
50. The FMC Advisory Message 'DRAG REQUIRED' indicates the airplane is ___ knots or
more above the FMC target speed or within ___ knots of VMO/MMO
a. 10 & 8
b. 5 & 10
c. 5 & 8
d. 10 & 5
51. The FMC Advisory Message 'BUFFET ALERT' indicates:

a. Current conditions result in a maneuver margin less than specified.
b. Clear air turbulence has been detected in the immediate flight path.
c. The airplane is in partial or full stall.
d. The crew's dinner is being prepared in the galley.
52. The FMC Alerting Message 'SELECT MODE AFTER RTA' means:
a. RTA mode has been discontinued due to sequencing of the RTA waypoint
b. The RTA time does not fall within the earliest and latest takeoff time
c. RTA mode has been discontinued because the RTA waypoint has been removed from the
Flight Plan
d. Both first & third are correct.
53. After RTA waypoint entry, the displayed ETA is based on:
a. The active flight plan.
b. Performance parameters at the time of waypoint entry.
c. Desired RTA and may not be overwritten.
d. Both first & second are correct.
54. Speed restriction (SPD REST) displays the most restrictive of the following speeds:
a. Destination airport speed minus 5 knots
b. Waypoint speed restriction if greater than 200 knots
c. Minimum flaps up maneuvering speed
d. Minimum flap restriction speed.
55. Vertical Path Parameters (FPA, V/B, V/S) display which of the following parameters related
to the present vertical path:
a. FPA-actual flight path angle based on flight plan ground speed & vertical spped
b. V/B vertical bearing direct from present position of the WPT/ALT line
94!
c. V/S-the required vertical speed to fly the displayed FPA
d. Blank if there is no entry on the FPA/VS line
56. FMC position updates from navigation sensor positions are used in the following priority
order:- GPS- Two or more DME stations- One VOR with a collocated DME- One localizer &
collocated DME- One localizer
a. True
b. False
57. When airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC, the Approach Ref page will be:
a. Flashing
b. Blank
c. Box prompts
d. 'INVALID'
58. What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?
a. Only attitude information
b. Only heading information
c. Only attitude & heading information
d. Only altitude information
59. An entry of .79 for descent into the TGT SPD line on the FMC ECON PATH DES will:
a. Change the descent mode to a M.79 SPD DES
b. Change the page title to display M.79 PATH DES
c. Result in VNAV & LNAV disengagement
d. Result in VNAV disengagement
60. Below 2500 feet RA, go around is engaged when a TO/GA switch is pushed.
a. True
b. False
61. Upon initiation of TO/GA, a new cruise altitude will be automatically assigned & will
appear on the FMC pages. The new cruise altitude will be...
a. The higest restriction in the missed approach routing
b. Default value of 1500 feet above airport elevation
62. Two fixed climb thrust derates can be selected on the N1 LIMIT page.CLB-1 provides a
climb limit reduced by ___ % N1CLB-2 provides a climb limit reduced by ___ % N1
a. 3% N1 (approximately 10% thrust) & 6% N1 (approximately 20% thrust)
95!
b. 5% N1 (approximately 10% thrust) & 10% N1 (approximately 20% thrust)
c. 7 % N1 (approximately 10% thrust) & 13 % N1 (approximately 20% thrust)
d. 10 % N1 & 20% N1
63. Use of derated climb thrust reduces engine maintenance costs, and decreases also total
trip fuel
a. True
b. False
64. If a CLB1 or CLB2 derate is selected, the derate is maintained for the initial part of the
climb. Thrust eventually increases to maximum climb thrust by:
a. 10 000 feet
b. 12 000 feet
c. 15 000 feet
d. 18 000 feet
65. If the FMC fails, the FMC alert light will illuminate, the FMC/CDU FAIL light will appear on
both CDUs, and both CDUs will display failure modes. VTK will appear on both navigation
displays. LNAV & VNAV will disengage. After 25 to 30 seconds, both navigation displays
will display failure information.
a. True
b. False
66. 'INSUFFICIENT FUEL' FMC alerting message appears in CDU. What does it mean?
a. A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be 400 kg /
900 lbs or less
b. A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be 500 kg /
1100 lbs or less
c. A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be 900 kg /
2000 lbs or less
d. A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be 1200 kg /
2700 lbs or less
67. 'RESET MCP ALTITUDE' FMC alerting message appears in CDU. What does it mean?
a. You are within 1 NM of the top-of-descent point without selecting a lower altitude on the
AFDS MCP
b. You are within 3 NM of the top-of-descent point without selecting a lower altitude on the
AFDS MCP
96!
c. You are within 5 NM of the top-of-descent point without selecting a lower altitude on the
AFDS MCP
d. You are within 10 NM of the top-of-descent point without selecting a lower altitude on the
AFDS MCP
68. 'DRAG REQUIRED' FMC Advisory message appears in CDU. What does it mean?
a. Airspeed is 10 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 10 knots of VMO/MMO
b. Airspeed is 5 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 10 knots of VMO/MMO
c. Airspeed is 5 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 5 knots of VMO/MMO
d. Airspeed is 10 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 5 knots of VMO/MMO
69. If you have a look in your Descent Page (DES), 'V/B' indication means:
a. Actual flight path angle based on present ground speed & vertical speed (Vertical Bearing or
Total Vertical Speed)
b. Vertical bearing direct from present position on the WPT/ALT line(the flight path angle
required if flying direct to the waypoint & altitude on the WPT/ALT line)
c. The required vertical speed (in degrees) based on ground speed
d. The required vertical speed (in fpm, based on present ground speed) to fly the dispmayed
V/B
70. The IRSs can operate on either AC or DC power. The Left IRS is normally powered from
the AC transfer bus 2, and the Right IRS from the AC Standby bus.
a. True
b. False
71. Decceleration points show on the MAP as green open circles with the label DECEL.
Deceleration points show prior to:
a. Airspeed constrained waypoints
b. Holding patterns
c. Approach flap extension
72. The supplemental navigation database is accessed by typing SUPP in the scratchpad
while on the INIT/REF index page, then selecting the NAV DATA prompt. Access is
available either in flight or on ground.
a. True
b. False.
97!
73. Data may be deleted from the supplemental database (SUPP) by 2 methods. Deletion may
be accomplished one item at a time on the display pages, or the entire database may be
deleted by selecting this prompt. The prompt is only available before entry of an origin
airport.
a. True.
b. False.
74. The STEP POINT displays the computed ETA at, and distance to, the first possible step
climb point based on gross weight. The STEP button (1R) is then used to enter step climb
or step descent altitudes for crew evaluation. It is blank when within ___ NM of top of
descent or when RTA mode is active.
a. 100
b. 50
c. 30
d. 10
75. Let's have a look in the cruise page (CRZ)...The actual wind displays computed or
manually entered true wind for present altitude.
a. True
b. False.
98!
GABARITO – FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
1–d 11 – c 21 – a 31 – d 41 – d 51 – a 61 – b 71 – d
2–b 12 – a 22 – a 32 – c 42 – b 52 – d 62 – a 72 – b
3–c 13 – b 23 – c 33 – d 43 – a 53 – d 63 – b 73 – a
4–a 14 – a 24 – a 34 – d 44 – d 54 – c 64 – c 74 – a
5–a 15 – a 25 – b 35 – c 45 – a 55 – b 65 – a 75 – a
6–a 16 – a 26 – c 36 – a 46 – a 56 – a 66 – c
7–a 17 – a 27 – c 37 – b 47 – a 57 – c 67 – c
8–c 18 – c 28 – c 38 – d 48 – a 58 – c 68 – d
9–c 19 – c 29 – a 39 – c 49 – b 59 – b 69 – b
10 – d 20 – a 30 – d 40 – b 50 – d 60 – b 70 – b
Comentários:!
5 - The database includes:- airplane drag & engine characteristics, maximum & optimum altitudes,
maximum & minimum speeds, etc.- the location of VHF navigation database, waypoints, airports,
runways, SIDs, STARs, etc.
25 - The ALIGN light illuminates until the system is completely shut down
26 - If the entered Latitude/Longitude position does not pass the internal comparison tests, the
scratchpad message ENTER IRS POSITION is displayed
56 - FMC logic selects the GPS position as the primary update to the FMC position. If all GPS data
becomes unavailable, the FMC reverts to radio or IRS updating.
60 - Below 2000 ft RA...
63 - Use of derated climb thrust reduces engine maintenance costs, and increases total trip fuel
65 - During an FMC software restart, the navigation display map track may rapidly slew to a few
degrees, then to the correct value.
68 - Use speedbrakes, trim or reduce thrust, as required, to bring the airplane within 5 knots of FMC
target speed.
70 - The Left IRS is normally powered from the AC Standby bus, and the Right IRS from the AC
transfer bus 2.If AC power is not normal, either or both systems automatically switch to backup DC
power from the switched hot battery bus. Backup DC power to the Right IRS is automatically
terminated if AC power is not restored within 5 minutes.
72 - Access is ONLY available on the ground.

99!
Questionnaire'–'Fuel'
1. Each fuel tank uses two AC powered fuel pumps which are cooled and lubricated by fuel
passing through the pump.
a. True
b. False.
2. Inflight, two fuel pumps LOW PRESSURE lights for the No.1 tank illuminate. What
happens to the No.1 engine?
a. It receives fuel from the No.2 tank automatically
b. It will shut down due to fuel starvation
c. It receives fuel from the No.1 tank through the fuel pump bypass valve
d. It continues to operate using fuel though the center tank bypass valve.
3. Center fuel tank fuel is used before main tank fuel because:
a. Center tank check valves open at a lower differential pressure than main tank check valves.
b. Center tank check valves open at a higher differential pressure than main tank check valves.
c. Center tank fuel pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps.
d. Main tank pumps cannot produce pressure until the center tank LOW PRESSURE lights
illuminate and center tank pumps are turned OFF.
4. The Engine Fuel Shutoff valve:

a. Is controlled by both the Engine Fire Warning switch and the Engine Start lever; however, the
spar fuel shutoff valve is controlled only by the Engine Start lever.
b. Is the only fuel shutoff with an associated blue light on the forward overhead fuel panel
c. And the spar fuel shutoff valve require AC power to operate
d. And the spar fuel shutoff valves close whenever their respective Engine Fire Warning switch
is pulled or Engine Start lever is placed to CUTOFF
5. Fuel Quantity indicators will display:

a. An 88888 reading if a malfunction occurs.
b. Blank if a malfunction occurs
c. An ERR symbol if a malfunction occurs
d. A FUEL ERROR message if a malfunction occurs.
6. The center tank scavenge jet pump operates when:

a. Both Center Tank Fuel Pump switches are turned off.
b. The No.1 main fuel tank is about 2/3 full and the main tank No.1 forward pump is operating.
c. The Center fuel tank is about 3/4 full.
100!
d. Either engine is operating.
7. The center tank scavenge jet pump transfers remaining fuel from the center tank at a rate
of approximately ____.
a. 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon altitude.
b. 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon speed.
c. 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon weight.
d. 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon temperature.
8. Overwing fueling receptacles exist for both main tanks.

a. True
b. False.
9. The capacity of the center fuel tank is greater than the capacity of the two main fuel tanks
combined.
a. True
b. False
10. There are CDS fuel alert for:

a. Fuel quantity low in the main tank, impending fuel filter bypass, excessive fuel flow difference
between engines
b. Fuel quantity low in the main tank, both center tank fuel pumps producing low or no pressure
with fuel in the center tank, excessive fuel quantity difference between main tanks
c. Fuel quantity low in center or main tank, either center tank fuel pump producing low or no
pressure with fuel in center tank, excessive fuel flow difference between engines
d. Any fuel pump producing low or no pressure with the pump switch ON, impending fuel filter
bypass, excessive fuel quantity difference between main tanks.
11. During cruise, both center tank fuel pumps have failed. You still have 320 kg (700 lbs) of
fuel in the center tank and both main tanks are full. The Upper Display Unit will show:
a. A LOW indication
b. A CONFIG indication
c. A pump LOW PRESSURE indication
12. You have 2500 kg (5500 lbs) of fuel in the No.1 main tank and 3060 kg (6750 lbs) of fuel in
the No2 main tank. You will see:
a. A LOW indication below main tank No.1 accompanied by a Master Caution light and system
annunciation for fuel
101!
b. An IMBAL indication below main tank No.1 accompanied by a Master Caution light and
system annunciation for fuel
c. An IMBAL indication below main tank No.1 with no Master Caution light and no system
annunciation for fuel
d. The fuel quantity arc and digits on main tank No.2 turn amber.
13. Which valve connects the fuel engine manifold to the fueling manifold?
a. The fueling valve.
b. The crossfeed valve.
c. The Manual Defuelling valve
14. For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance between No.1 and No.2 main tanks?
a. 453 kg (1000 lbs)
b. 500 kg (1100 lbs)
c. 590 kg (1300 lbs)
d. There is no maximum fuel imbalance.
15. In which fuel tanks are bypass valves located?

a. Center tank.
b. Both main tanks.
c. All tanks.
d. None.
16. The Engine Fuel Shut Off valves:

a. Are AC operated to OPEN and mechanically closed by the engine start lever or fire switch.
b. Are Hot Battery Bus powered and may be closed by the engine start lever or the respective
engine fire switch.
c. Are cable operated to CLOSE or OPEN.
d. Are cable operated to CLOSE.
17. What does an illuminated main tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE light indicate?
a. Low fuel pressure in the affected tank
b. Low pressure in the fuel manifold
c. Low fuel pump output pressure
d. The first two statements are correct.
18. What is the condition of the VALVE OPEN light when the crossfeed selector is positioned
OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?
a. Illuminated dim blue.
102!
b. Illuminated bright blue.
c. Illuminated amber.
d. Extinguished.
19. Fuel for the APU is:

a. Approximately 164 kg/hr with electrics & bleeds at sea level, decreasing to 17 kg/hr at high
altitude and low loads
b. Not heated
c. Recorded on the fuel flowmeters.
20. What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves?
a. The Hot Battery Bus.
b. The Battery Bus.
c. The DC Standby Bus.
d. The AC Standby Bus.
21. What is the source of electrical power for the spar fuel shutoff valves?
a. The DC Standby Bus.
b. The Battery Bus.
c. The Hot Battery Bus.
d. The Transfer Bus No.2.
22. Fuel for the APU is normally supplied from the:

a. Left side of the fuel manifold.
b. No.2 Main tank.
c. Center tank.
d. Aux tank.
23. The crossfeed valve when OPEN:

a. Allows fuel transfer from any tank to either engine or APU.
b. Allows transfer of fuel between wing tanks only.
c. Closes the Bypass valve in each wing tank
24. The fuel temperature indicator indicates fuel temperature in the:

a. No.1 tank.
b. No.2 tank.
c. Center tank.
d. No;1 & No.2 tanks.
103!
25. Once the fuel scavenging process begins, it continues for the remainder of the flight.
a. True.
b. False.
26. The accuracy of the fuel quantity indicators is plus or minus:

a. 1 % of full scale reading.
b. 2,5 % of full scale reading.
c. 4 % of full scale reading.
d. 5 % of full scale reading.
27. The fuel quantity indicators are powered by:

a. Standby DC power.
b. Standby AC power.
c. Battery bus.
d. TR2.
28. The fuel measuring stick allows comparison of fuel quantity or weight as determined from
measuring stick reading and fuel weight indicated by fuel quantity indicators. Reading is
obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it magnetically to an
internal float. Fuel depth is read where stick passes through wing skin.
a. True.
b. False.
29. How many fuel measuring sticks are installed in each main tank?
a. Two.
b. Three.
c. Four.
d. Six.
30. The engine fuel manifolds are interconnected by use of the crossfeed valve. The valve is
___ motor operated from the ___.
a. AC & Transfer Bus No.1
b. DC & Battery bus
c. AC & Transfer Bus No.2
d. DC & DC Standby Bus.
31. With the Fuel LOW Alert displayed (amber):

a. Fuel quantity is at least less than 2200 lbs / 1000 kg.
b. Fuel quantity is at least less than 2000 lbs / 907 kg.
104!
c. Fuel quantity is at least less than 1000 lbs / 453 kg.
32. What is the main purpose of the FUEL DOOR SWITCH BYPASS located in the Right Wing
fueling panel?
a. It energizes fueling panel if refueling power control relay fails.
b. It checks operation of fuel quantity indicators.
c. It de-energizes fueling panel if necessary (in case of thunderstorm for example).
33. The engine fuel manifolds are interconnected by use of the crossfeed valve. The valve is
____ operated from the ____:
a. AC motor & Transfer bus 1.
b. DC motor & Hot battery bus.
c. AC motor & Transfer bus 2.
d. DC motor & Battery bus.
34. The FUEL TEMP indicator located on the fuel control panel displays fuel temperature. A
sensor in main tank No. 1 allows monitoring of fuel temperature.The temperature
indicating system uses:
a. DC power.
b. AC power.
35. The Fueling Valve Position Lights on the External Fueling Panel illuminate blue when:
a. The respective fueling valve is OPEN.
b. The respective fueling valve is OPEN and fuel is being transferred into the tank
c. The respective fuelling valve is in transit.
d. The respective fueling valve is inoperative.
36. A Crossfeed selector inoperative is mainly indicated by a crossfeed VALVE OPEN light
remaining blue. It indicates the crossfeed valve valve position disagrees with the
crossfeed selector position. If the valve is suspected closed:
a. Maintain fuel balance with selective use of fuel pumps.
b. Land as soon as possible.
c. Flight conditions permitting, vary thrust to maintain fuel balance. If unable to maintain
acceptable balance, land as soon as possible.
37. A fuel FILTER BYPASS light illuminated indicated impending fuel filter bypass due to a
contaminated filter. Erratic engine operation and flameout may occur due to fuel
contamination.
a. True.
105!
b. False.
38. With FUEL TEMP LOW amber message displayed, fuel is approaching minimum. Boeing
QRH asks to increase speed, change altitude and/or deviate to a warmer air mass to
achieve a TAT equal to or higher than the fuel temperature limit (3°C / 5°F above the fuel
freeze point or -43°C / -45°F whichever is higher).
a. TAT will increase approximately 0.5 degrees C for each .05 Mach increase in speed.
b. TAT will increase approximately 0.5 to 0.7 degrees C for each .01 Mach increase in speed.
c. TAT will increase approximately 1 degree C for each .05 Mach increase in speed.
d. TAT will increase approximately 1 degree C for each .05 to .07 Mach increase in speed.
39. The fuel LOW indication may be caused by an engine fuel leak. For indication(s) of an
engine fuel leak, check:
a. Total fuel remaining compared to planned fuel remaining.
b. Individual tank quantities.
c. Fuel Flow indications for an engine with excessive fuel flow.
40. A shut-off system is used during refuelling to:

a. Automatically close the fueling valve in each fuel tank when the tank is full.
b. Prevent refuelling pressures in excess of 50 psi.
c. Automatically close the manual defuelling valave when the wing tanks are full.
d. Are only available for Left & Right main tanks (not on the Center one).
41. The manual De-fueling valve is located:

a. Outboard of the Number 1 engine.
b. Outboard of the Number 2 engine.
c. Inboard of the Number 1 engine.
d. Inboard of the Number 2 engine.
42. To defuel No. 1 tank:

a. Select the No. 1 and No. 2 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve OPEN and the
Manual Defueling valve OPEN
b. Select the No. 1 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve OPEN and the Manual
Defueling valve OPEN
c. Select the No. 1 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve CLOSED and the Manual
Defueling valve OPEN
106!
43. When the APU is inoperative and no external power is available, refueling can be
accomplished as follows:
a. Battery switch ON - Standby Power switch to BAT = the entire fuel system operate normally.
b. Battery switch ON - Standby Power switch to BAT = the entire fuel system operate normally.
except the fuel shut-off system.
c. Battery switch OFF - Standby Power switch to BAT = the entire fuel system operate normally.
44. With failure of all generators, the center tank fuel :

a. Cannot be used.
b. Can be used by switching off all wing tank pumps and opening the crossfeed valve.
c. Will be fed to the tanks by the center tank scavenge jet pump
45. Lateral imbalance between main tanks 1 and 2 must be scheduled to be zero. Random fuel
imbalance must not exceed 453 kgs (1000 lbs):
a. For takeoff, flight or landing but not for takeoff
b. For taxi, takeoff, flight or landing.
c. In flight only
46. Main tanks 1 and 2 must be full if center tank contains more than 453 kgs (1000 lbs)
a. True
b. False.
47. When main tank fuel pump pressure is low, each engine can draw fuel from is
corresponding main tank through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps.
a. True
b. False
48. Total fuel weight is displayed on the fuel quantity gauges and on the ______ pages of the
CDU.
a. PERF INIT and HOLDING
b. PERF INIT and LEGS
c. LEGS and PROGRESS
d. PROGRESS and PERF INIT
49. Is there any fuel quantity measuring sticks installed in the Center tank?
a. Yes
b. No.
50. The engines can suction fuel from the center tank.
107!
a. True
b. False.
51. For refuelling, which tank(s) have an automatic shutoff valve that closes when the tank is
full?
a. Left and right wing tanks
b. Left and right wing tanks and center tank.
52. Maximum tank fuel temperature is:

a. 42°C
b. 45°C
c. 49°C
d. 55°C
53. Center fuel pump switches must be positioned OFF at the first indication of low pressure.
a. True.
b. False.
54. When is the fuel CONFIG light inhibited?

a. When total fuel quantity is less than 726 kg
b. When center tank fuel is less than 363 kg
c. When center tank fuel quantity is less than 726 kg
d. When total fuel quantity is less than 363 kg
55. Fuel Measuring Stick allows comparison of fuel quantity or weight as determined from
measuring stick reading and fuel weight indicated by fuel quantity indicators.
a. Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it magnetically to
an internal float.
b. Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it electrically to an
internal float.
c. Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it pneumatically
to an internal float.
d. Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it automatically to
an internal float.
56. What operates the spar fuel shutoff valve?

a. Cables and pulleys
b. DC from Hot Battery Bus
c. Pushrods and cranks
108!
d. AC from Standby Bus
57. How many fuel measuring sticks are installed?

a. 20
b. 16
c. 12
d. 6
58. An amber fuel IMBAL alert will remain displayed until the imbalance is reduced to:
a. 91kgs
b. 363kgs
c. 453kgs
d. 726kgs
59. Fuel Imbalance (IMBAL) alert is inhibited when airplane is on ground.

a. True
b. False
109!
GABARITO - FUEL
1–a 11 – d 21 – c 31 – b 41 – b 51 – b
2–c 12 – c 22 – a 32 – a 42 – b 52 – c
3–c 13 – c 23 – a 33 – d 43 – a 53 – a
4–d 14 – a 24 – a 34 – b 44 – a 54 – b
5–c 15 – b 25 – a 35 – a 45 – b 55 – a
6–b 16 – a 26 – b 36 – c 46 – a 56 – b
7–a 17 – c 27 – b 37 – a 47 – a 57 – b
8–b 18 – b 28 – a 38 – b 48 – d 58 – a
9–a 19 – a 29 – d 39 – d 49 – a 59 – a
10 – b 20 – b 30 – b 40 – a 50 – b
Comentários:!
22 - If the AC fuel pumps are not operating, fuel is suction fed from main tank No.1.
24 - The temperature indicating system uses AC electrical power.
29 - Four are also installed in center tank.
36 - See B737NG QRH (CROSSFEED SELECTOR INOPERATIVE).
38 - In extreme conditions, it maybe necessary to descend as low as FL250.
39 - Check \'LOW Fuel\' NNC in the B737NG QRH.
49 - There are 4 measuring sticks in the Center tank.
51 - A float switch removes power to the fuel valve solenoid when the tank is full
55 - Fuel depth is read where stick passes through wing skin.
56 - Spar fuel shutoff valves are located at the engine–mounting wing stations. The valves are DC
motor operated from the hot battery bus.
57 - Six in each main tank (12) + 4 in the center tank = 16

110!
Questionnaire'–'Hydraulics'
1. Refer to the refill indication (RF) to the Right of the hydraulic system quantity indication.
Indication is displayed:
a. Automatically when the hydraulic quantity is below 88% in either system A or B
b. At all times
c. When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A and/or B and the airplane is on the
ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in
d. Only during MASTER CAUTION system recall.
2. If a leak develops in either pump, line or component of system B, the quantity decreases
until it indicates approximately zero and system B pressure is lost. The system B
reservoir has one standpipe which supplies fluid to both the engine–driven pump and the
electric motor–driven pump. However, with fluid level at the top of the standpipe, fluid
remaining in the system B reservoir is sufficient for power transfer unit operation.
a. True
b. False.
3. If a leak occurs in the Standby Hydraulic System, the standby reservoir quantity
decreases to zero. What is the effect on System B reservoir quantity?
a. No effect
b. Decreases to zero.
c. Decreases to 20% full.
d. Decreases to approximately 72% full.
4. Either A or B hydraulic system can power all flight controls with no decrease in airplane
controllability.
a. True
b. False
5. The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate
the:
a. Trailing edge flaps.
b. Landing gear.
c. Autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats.
d. Outboard spoilers.
111!
6. The purpose of the PTU is to supply the additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to
operate the autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats at the normal rate when system A
engine-driven hydraulic pump volume is lost. The PTU uses system B pressure to power a
hydraulic motor-driven pump, which pressurizes system A hydraulic fluid.
a. True
b. False
7. The autoslat system:

a. Is normally powered by Hydraulic System B.
b. Uses Hydraulic System A pressure.
c. Uses Hydraulic System A fluid.
d. Uses standby hydraulic system fluid.
8. Pulling the No.2 engine fire warning switch shuts off hydraulic fluid to the:
a. Electric pump in System B
b. Engine driven pump in System B
c. Electric pump in System A
d. Engine driven pump in System A
9. The standby hydraulic system powers the:

a. Outboard spoilers, rudder and thrust reversers.
b. Leading edge devices, rudder, thrust reversers, and standby yaw damper.
c. Inboard spoilers, rudder and thrust reversers.
d. Alternate brakes, rudder, thrust reversers, and standby yaw damper.
10. What is one indication of a leak in the standby hydraulic system?

a. Decrease in System A quantity.
b. The LOW QUANTITY light illuminates.
c. Illumination of the System A LOW PRESSURE lights.
d. Illumination of the System B LOW PRESSURE lights.
11. The amber standby hydraulic system LOW PRESSURE light is armed:
a. At all times.
b. Only when either FLT CONTROL switch is moved to STBY RUD.
c. Only when the ALTERNATE FLAPS switch is moved to ARM.
d. Only when standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is
activated.
12. Which of the following actions will affect hydraulic quantity indications?
112!
a. Flaps are extended from 15 to 30.
b. Landing gear is extended.
c. Leading edge devices are extended.
d. Landing gear is extended & Leading edge devices are extended.
13. The amber LOW PRESSURE lights for the No.1 Engine Driven Hydraulic Pump illuminates.
What should you do?
a. Position the hydraulic pump switch to off.
b. Pull the No.1 engine fire warning switch.
c. Disconnect the No.1 CSD.
d. Monitor System A and B pressures.
14. What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation in the main fuel tanks for ground operation of
the electric hydraulic pumps?
a. 453 kg (1000 lbs) in the related main tanks.
b. 726 kg (1600 lbs) in both main tanks.
c. 760 kgs (1676 lbs) in the related main tanks.
d. 760 kg (1676 lbs) in the center tank.
15. The Landing Gear Transfer Unit:

a. Ensures System B can raise the gear on loss of System A.
b. Ensures System A can operate leading edge flaps and slats when System B is lost.
c. Is used to lower the gear on loss of System A.
d. Ensures System A can raise the gear on loss of System B.
16. The illuminated Standby Hydraulic LOW PRESSURE Light indicates output pressure of
standby pump is low. It is only armed when:
a. Standby pump operation has been selected.
b. Standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is activated.
c. Automatic standby function is activated.
d. The associated FLIGHT CONTROL switch is positioned to STBY RUD.
17. SYSTEM \'A\' HYDRAULIC LEAK- If a leak develops in the engine driven pump or its
related lines, a standpipe in the reservoir prevents a total system fluid loss. With fluid
level at the top of the standpipe, the reservoir quantity displayed indicates approximately
___ full.
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 20%
113!
d. 30%
18. System A & B hydraulic fluid is cooled by:

a. Air provided by the recirculation fans.
b. Heat exchangers in the Left and Right packs.
c. Heat exchangers located in the main fuel tanks.
d. Hydraulic fluid is not cooled!
19. A fluid leak develops in System A electric pump or its related lines, or components
common to both the engine and electric motor driven pumps, the quantity in the reservoir
steadily decreases to zero and all system pressure is lost.
a. True
b. False.
20. The Power Transfer Unit operates automatically when all of the following conditions exist:
a. System B engine-driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits only when airborne
b. System B engine-driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits only when airborne and
when flaps are less than 5 but not up
c. System B engine-driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits only when airborne and
when flaps are less than 15 but not up
d. System B engine-driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits only when airborne and
when flaps are less than 5 but not up whith landing gear positioned to UP.
21. The purpose of the landing gear transfer unit is to supply the volume of hydraulic fluid
needed to raise the landing gear at the normal rate when system B engine-driven pump
volume is lost.
a. True
b. False.
22. The standby hydraulic system is provided as a back-up if system A and/or B pressure is
lost. The standby system can be activated manually or automatically and uses a single
electric motor-driven pump to power:
a. Thrust reversers, rudder and leading edge flaps & slats
b. Thrust reversers, rudder, leading edge flaps & slats (extend only) and standby yaw damper
c. Thrust reversers, rudder, leading edge flaps & slats (extend only) and yaw damper
d. Rudder, leading edge flaps & slats (extend only) and yaw damper
23. Automatic operation of the Standby Hydraulic System is initiated when all the following
conditions exist:
114!
a. Loss of system A, flaps extended more than 1 and airborne
b. Loss of system A or B, flaps extended more than 1 and airborne or wheel speed greater than
60 kts
c. Loss of system A or B, flaps extended more than 1 and airborne or wheel speed greater than
20 kts
d. Loss of system A or B, flaps extended and airborne or wheel speed greater than 60 kts and
FLT CONTROL switch A or B Hydraulic System ON
24. Automatic operation of the Standby Hydraulic System is initiated when:

a. System B fails and flaps are less than 15 but not up
b. System B fails and wheel speed > 50kts
c. The main PCU Force Flight Monitor trips
d. Positioning either FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD
25. During normal operations, variations in hydraulic quantity indications occur when the
system becomes pressurized after engine start , when raising or lowering the landing
gear or leading devices or when cold soaking occurs during long periods of cruise.
a. True
b. False.
26. With the loss of system A, you have to plan for alternate gear extension.
a. True
b. False.
27. To start the standby system, what must you do?

a. Select both FLT CONTROL switches to STBY RUD.
b. Select ARM with the ALTERNATE FLAPS switch.
c. Flight crew action is not required to start the standby system.
28. Why do the engine driven-pump switches normally stay in the ON position?
a. To increase the life of the blocking solenoids.
b. To ensure the hydraulic system operates when the engines are running.
c. To energize the blocking solenoids.
29. What condition is not necessary before the PTU operates?

a. The number 2 engine-driven pump pressure is low.
b. The number 1 engine-driven pump pressure is low.
c. The flaps are less than 15 not UP.
d. The airplane is in flight.
115!
30. What condition is NOT necessary for the landing gear transfer unit to operate?
a. System A hydraulic pressure is low
b. The landing gear lever is in the UP position
c. One of the main gear is not in the fully up position
d. The number 1 engine N2 is less than idle.
31. The hydraulic brake pressure indicator displays accumulator nitrogen pre-charge
pressure of 1000 psi and:
a. Brake pressure from hydraulic system B if it is greater than 1000 psi.
b. Brake pressure from hydraulic system A if it is greater than 1000 psi
c. Brake pressure from standby hydraulic system.
d. Brake pressure from the PTU.
32. The STANDBY LOW QUANTITY light illuminates, what other indication(s) will you have?
a. System A quantity between 3/4 and RF (Refill) indication.
b. Both master caution lights and the flight control annunciator light will illuminate.
c. Both system B pump overhead lights illuminated.
d. Illumination of the low pressure standby hydraulic amber light.
33. An Engine Driven Hydraulic pump supplies approximately ____ times the volume of an
electrical hydraulic pump.
a. 2 times.
b. 4 times.
c. 5 times.
d. 6 times.
34. With the loss of the system B hydraulic fluid and the system B FLIGHT CONTROL switch
to STBY RUD, what allows the movement of trailing edge flaps?
a. A system pressure.
b. Standby hydraulic system pressure.
c. Power Transfer Unit (PTU).
d. Electrical motor.
35. Where is the heat exchanger for hydraulic system A located?
a. In the standby hydraulic tank.
b. In the System A hydraulic tank.
c. In the centre fuel tank.
d. In fuel tank No.1.
116!
36. Which hydraulic system operates the Flight Spoilers?
a. All on left wing system A, all on right wing system B.
b. All on right wing system A, all on left wing system B.
c. Both wings by system B
d. 2 left wing and 2 right wing by system A, 2 left wing and 2 right wing by system B
37. Switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF:

a. Disengages pump drive.
b. Energizes the blocking valve to block pump output.
c. De-energizes the pump recirculation solenoid.
d. Transfers system to ENG 2 pump output.
38. Hydraulic system pressure indication is derived from:

a. Engine driven pump output only.
b. Combined engine and electric pump outputs.
c. Selectable engine or electric pump outputs.
d. Related system low pressure switch.
39. Maximum hydraulic system pressure indication is:

a. 3000psi in white
b. 3500psi in white
c. 3500psi in amber
d. 3000psi in amber
40. Selecting the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to:

a. ON, activates the standby pump and arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch.
b. STBY, activates the standby pump and arms ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch.
c. OFF, activates the PTU and arms the primary flap selector.
d. ARM, closes trailing edge flap bypass valve, activates standby pump and arms ALTERNATE
FLAPS position switch.
41. Alternate brakes are operated by:

a. System A
b. System B
c. System B via PTU
d. Standby system
42. Hydraulic system fluid quantity shown on the Lower Display Unit indicates percentage in
the band:
117!
a. 0% - 100%
b. 0% - 106%
c. 10% - 100%
d. 10% - 106%
43. If you lose hydraulic pressure in System B, the following systems will be affected:
a. Yaw Damper, Alternate Brakes, Autopilot A, Trailing Edge Flaps
b. Main Yaw Damper, Normal Brakes, Autopilot B, Trailing Edge Flaps
c. Standby Yaw Damper, Normal Brakes, Autopilot A, Flight Spoilers
d. Ground Spoilers, Normal Brakes, Autopilot B, Trailing Edge Flaps
44. Switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF:

a. Energizes a blocking valve in the pump.
b. Disengages pump drive.
c. De-energizes the pump recirculation valve.
d. Opens system transfer valve to System 2.
118!
GABARITO - HYDRAULICS
1-c 11 – d 21 – b 31 – a 41 – a
2-a 12 – d 22 – b 32 – b 42 – b
3-d 13 – a 23 – d 33 – b 43 – b
4-a 14 – c 24 – c 34 – d 44 – a
5-c 15 – a 25 – a 35 – d
6-b 16 – b 26 – a 36 – d
7-a 17 – c 27 – a 37 – b
8-b 18 – c 28 – a 38 – b
9-b 19 – a 29 – b 39 – b
10 - b 20 – c 30 – a 40 – d
Comentários:
1 - Valid only when the airplane is on the ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with
flaps up during taxi-in.
6 - The purpose of the PTU is to supply the additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate
the autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats at the normal rate when system B engine-driven
hydraulic pump volume is lost. The PTU uses system A pressure to power a hydraulic motor-driven
pump, which pressurizes system B hydraulic fluid.
15 - The purpose of the landing gear transfer unit is to supply the volume of hydraulic fluid needed to
raise the landing gear at the normal rate when system A engine–driven pump volume is lost. The
system B engine–driven pump supplies the volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the landing
gear transfer unit when all of the following conditions exist:
17 - System A hydraulic pressure is maintained by the electric motor-driven pump.
21 - When system A engine-driven pump volume is lost: The engine system B engine-driven pump
supplies the volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the landing gear transfer unit when all of the
following conditions exist: - airborne - No.1 engine RPM drops below a limit value - landing gear
lever is positioned UP - either main landing gear is not UP and locked.
24 - This answer is valid for 737 modified rudder- installed
25 - These variations have little effect on systems operation. If the hydraulic system is not properly
pressurized, foaming can occur at higher altitudes. Foaming can be recognized by pressure
fluctuations and the blinking of the related LOW PRESSURE lights. The MASTER CAUTION and
HYD annunciator lights may also illuminate momentarily.
119!
35 - Hydraulic fluid used for cooling and lubrication of the pumps passes through a heat exchanger
before returning to the reservoir. The heat exchanger for system A is located in main fuel tank No. 1
and for system B is in main fuel tank No. 2.
36 - There are 12 spoilers in total: 4 ground spoilers and 8 flight spoilers
38 - Pressure switches, located in the engine–driven and electric motor–driven pump output lines,
send signals to illuminate the related LOW PRESSURE light if pump output pressure is low. A check
valve, located in each output line, isolates the related pump from the system. The related system
pressure transmitter sends the combined pressure of the engine–driven and electric motor–driven
pump to the related hydraulic system pressure indication.
40 - OFF and ARM are the only two positions for this switch
'
'
'
'
120!
Questionnaire'5'Ice'&'Rain'Protection'
1. Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI ICE light indicates:

a. An overpressure condition
b. An overtemperature or overpressure condition
c. The respective cowl anti-ice valve is open
d. The respective cowl anti-ice valve is in transit, the cowl anti-ice vave position disagrees with
the respective engine anti-ice switch position.
2. Windshield wipers of are provided to maintain a clear area on the cockpit No.1 windows.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Each wiper is operated by a separate system
b. Windshield wipers are hydraulically operated & electrically controlled
c. Windshield wipers may be operated on a dry windshield
3. Both windshield wipers are controlled with a common switch.

a. True.
b. False.
4. When are the ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches turned ON if icing conditions exist on ground?
a. When cleared on the runway.
b. During taxi out.
c. Before engine start.
d. Immediately after engine start.
5. The amber COWL ANTI-ICE is illuminated.

a. It indicates an overpressure condition in duct downstream of engine cowl anti-ice valve
b. It indicates an overpressure and excessive temperature condition
c. It indicates an excessive temperature in the duct between the cowl anti-ice valve and cowl lip.
d. It indicates either an overpressure or an excessive temperature condition
6. In flight there are 2 methods recommended for operating the wing anti-ice system:
a. True.
b. False.
7. The CAPT, F/O and AUX pitot probes contain static sensors.
a. True.
b. False.
121!
8. What maintains the correct temperature on windows No. 4 and 5?

a. Individual thermal switches
b. A thermal switch located on window No. 5
c. A thermal switch on window No. 4
d. These windows are heated with cabin air
9. The window heat PWR TEST:

a. Must be tested before each flight.
b. Provides a confident test.
c. Also tests the overheat protection system.
d. Must be tested before using the window heat system.
10. The wing anti-ice system provides bleed air to all leading edge slats:
a. True
b. False.
11. Wing anti-ice should not be used when the Total Air Temperature is above +10 degrees C.
a. True
b. False.
12. What can cause a WINDOW HEAT ON light to be extinguished?

a. The window heat switch is OFF.
b. An overheat has occurred.
c. There has been a system failure.
13. Refer to the Thermal Anti-Ice (TAI) CDS indication. TAI shown at the top Left side of each
indicator indicates :
a. If amber, an overtemperature condition exists in the duct downstream of the engine cowl anti-
ice valve.
b. If green; the cowl anti-ice valve is closed and the related engine anti-ice switch is OFF.
c. If green, the cowl anti-ice valve is open and the related engine anti-ice switch is ON.
14. What is the maximum airspeed limit when WINDOW HEAT is inoperative?
a. 250 KIAS.
b. 280 KIAS.
c. 250 KIAS below 10 000 feet.
d. 280 KIAS below 10 000 feet.
122!
15. Dual angle-airflow sensors (alpha vanes) provide angle-of-attack information to the stall
warning system, autothrottle, autopilot and autoslats and are anti iced:
a. By actuating the LEFT or RIGHT FWD window heat switch.
b. Whenever wing anti-ice is being used.
c. Whenever the alternate static ports are heated.
d. By independent 115V AC heating elements, controlled by the Probe Heat switches.
16. Which pitot probes and static ports are not heated?
a. Elevator pitot probes.
b. Alternate static ports.
c. No.1 Aux pitot probe and static port.
d. No.2 Aux pitot probe and static port.
17. The R ELEV PITOT light is illuminated. What does this indicate?
a. The Right elevator pitot is blocked.
b. System B hydraulic pressure is low.
c. The Right elevator pitot is not heated.
18. Which window(s) are heated with the LEFT FWD WINDOW HEAT Switch ON?
a. L2, L3, L4, L5.
b. L1, L2, L3.
c. L2, L4, L5.
d. L1 only.
19. What happens when the WING ANTI-ICE switch is placed ON while in flight?
a. Both Control valves open
b. Stick shaker logic is biased for icing conditions
c. FMC displayed Vref is not adjusted
d. All of the above
20. The Engine Anti-Ice should be turned on:

a. When there is any visible moisture.
b. If the temperature is 10 degrees C or less and there is visible moisture
c. Before takeoff if icing is forecast to occur when you enter the clouds.
d. If the temperature is 10 degrees C or less.
123!
21. When operating on standby power, only the captain's pitot probe is heated, however, the
CAPT PITOT light does not illuminate for a failure.
a. True.
b. False.
22. Temperature controllers maintain the correct temperature on windows No. 1 and 2. In the
event of an overheat, power is automatically removed.
a. True.
b. False.
23. Positioning the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON in flight:

a. Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions only when WING ANTI-ICE switch is ON.
b. Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions for the remainder of the flight.
c. Adjusts FMC displayed VREF automatically when WING ANTI-ICE switch is ON.
d. Have no influence on stick shaker logic.
24. With the WING ANTI-ICE switch ON and the aircraft on the ground, the WING ANTI-ICE
switch remains ON regardless of the control valve position.
a. True.
b. False.
25. The aircraft is on the ground. You place the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON. Which
conditions will allow the wing anti-ice valve to open?
a. Thrust on both engines is above the setting for takeoff thrust or the temperature inside both
wing distribution ducts is above the thermal switch activation temperature.
b. Thrust on both engines is above the setting for takeoff thrust and the temperature inside both
wing distribution ducts is below the thermal switch activation temperature.
c. Thrust on both engines is below the setting for takeoff thrust and the temperature inside both
wing distribution ducts is below the thermal switch activation temperature.
d. Thrust on both engines is below the setting for takeoff thrust or the temperature inside both
wing distribution ducts is above the thermal switch activation temperature.
26. The cowl anti-ice valve is _________ controlled and _______ operated.
a. Electrically – Electrically
b. Pneumatically – Mechanically
c. Electrically – Mechanically
d. Electrically – Pneumatically
124!
27. You select the engine anti-ice valve to the ON position. The COWL VALVE OPEN light is
illuminated blue and the TAI indication illuminates on the CDS. What happened?
a. This is a normal indication.
b. There is excessive pressure in the duct leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the cowl lip.
c. There is excessive heat applied to the cowl lip.
d. The cowl anti-ice valve fails to move to the position commanded by the ENG ANTI-ICE
switch.
28. Which portion of the wings does the wing anti-ice system heat?
a. Leading flaps.
b. Outboard leading edge slats
c. Three inboard leading edge slats
d. All of the above
29. If operating on standby power, probe heat lights do not indicate system status
a. True
b. False
30. Windshield wiper selector has ______ position

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
31. If you select the WING ANTI-ICE switch on the ground:

a. Wing anti-ice control valves open if thrust on both engines is below takeoff warning setting
and temperature inside both distribution ducts is below thermal switch activation temperature
b. Wing anti-ice control valves open if thrust on either engine is below takeoff warning setting
and temperature inside both distribution ducts is below thermal switch activation temperature
c. Wing anti-ice control valves open if thrust on both engines is below takeoff warning setting.
32. Passing 3000' climbing, you have selected Engine Anti-Ice ON. Passing FL90, you select
them OFF.
a. Stall warning logic, airspeed indications and minimum maneuver speeds on the airspeed
indicator return to normal.
b. Stall warning logic and minimum maneuver speeds on the airspeed indicator return to
normal.
c. Stall warning logic, airspeed indications and minimum maneuver speeds on the airspeed
indicator return to normal, if wing anti-ice has not been used in flight.
125!
d. Stall warning logic and minimum maneuver speeds on the airspeed indicator return to
normal, if wing anti-ice has not been used for takeoff.
33. The wing anti-ice control valves are:

a. DC motor-operated
b. AC motor operated
c. Both DC & AC motor-operated
34. The wing anti-ice system is effective with the slats in any position.
a. True
b. False.
35. Does the availability of bleed air for engine anti-ice require that the engine bleed air
switch be ON?
a. Yes
b. No.
36. Which system annunciator light illuminates when any of the pitot lights comes on?
a. OVERHEAD
b. ANTI-ICE
c. PITOT
37. The OVHT test will cause all overheat lights to come on and the ON lights will eventually
go out. How does a pitot reinstate the Window heat after performing an Overheat test?
a. Cycle power OFF and ON to Main AC Bus # 2
b. Cycle all switches OFF and ON
c. Cycle all switches OFF for 10 seconds and ON
38. Positioning the ENG ANTI-ICE switch to ON in flight:

a. Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions only when ENG-ANTI ICE switch is ON
b. Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions for the remainder of flight
c. Adjusts FMC displayed Vref automatically when ENG-ANTI ICE switch is ON
d. Has no influence on stick shaker logic
126!
GABARITO – ICE & RAIN PROTECTION
1–a 11 – a 21 – a 31 – a
2–a 12 – d 22 – a 32 – c
3–b 13 – c 23 – b 33 – b
4–d 14 – c 24 – a 34 – a
5–a 15 – d 25 – c 35 – b
6–a 16 – b 26 – d 36 – b
7–b 17 – c 27 – d 37 – b
8–b 18 – d 28 – c 38 – a
9–b 19 – d 29 – a
10 – b 20 – b 30 – c
Comentários:
10!C!The wing anti-ice system provides protection for the three inboard leading edge slats by using
bleed air. The wing anti-ice does not include the leading edge flaps or the outboard leading edge
flaps.
30!C!PARK / INT / LOW / HIGH
38! C! Each cowl anti–ice valve is electrically controlled and pressure actuated. Positioning the ENG
ANTI ICE switches to ON: • allows engine bleed air to flow through the cowl anti–ice valve for cowl
lip anti–icing • sets stall warning logic for icing conditions.
127!
Questionnaire'–'LANDING'GEAR'
1. The airplane has two main landing gear and a single nose gear. Each main gear is a
conventional two–wheel landing gear unit. The nose gear is a conventional steerable one–
wheel unit.
a. True
b. False
2. When the manual Extension Access Door is open:

a. Manual landing gear extension is possible with landing gear lever in any position
b. Normal landing gear extension is still possible if hydraulic system B pressure is available
c. Normal landing gear extension is still possible if hydraulic system A pressure is available
d. Landing gear retraction is enabled.
3. Fittings located in the opening of each main gear well:

a. Are intended to provide automatic braking to main gear wheels during retraction
b. Provide positive unlock during main gear retraction
c. Are intended to provide protection to wheel well components during gear retraction by
preventing a gear with a spinning tire and loose tread from entering the wheel well
d. Allows the landing gear transfer unit to use hydraulic system B pressure to raise the gear if
hydraulic system A fails.
4. Which pressure is indicated by the Hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator?

a. Normal pressure of 3500 PSI
b. Maximum pressure of 3500 PSI
c. Normal precharge of 2800 PSI
d. Normal precharge in the brake accumulator of 1200 PSI.
5. During alternate brake system operation, the following protection is provided:

a. Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and hydroplane
b. Skid and hydroplane only
c. Skid, locked wheel and hydroplane only
6. If a landing is made with RTO selected:

a. Automatic braking action occurs at the RTO level
b. Automatic braking occurs at the MAX level
c. AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 3 seconds after touchdown
128!
d. AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown and no automatic
braking action occurs.
7. Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown:

a. However, the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate and autobrake application will not
occur
b. However, autobrake action will occur only when both thrust levers are retarded to reverse
thrust range
c. Prior to decelerating through through 60 knots groundspeed
d. After decelerating through 60 knots groundspeed.
8. After braking has started, which of the following pilot actions will disarm the system
immediately and illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light:
a. Moving the SPEED BRAKE lever to the flight detent position
b. Advancing the forward thrust lever(s), except during the first 3 seconds after touchdown for
landing
c. Applying manual brakes
d. Both second & third statements are correct.
9. The air/ground system receives air/ground logic signals from:

a. The altimeter
b. The cabin pressure controller
c. Six sensors, two on each landing gear
d. The FMC position updating from the GPS
10. What system normally provides hydraulic pressure for Nose Wheel Steering?
a. System A
b. System B
c. Standby system
d. Nose wheel steering accumulator
11. The lockout pin is installed in the sterring depressurization valve. What does this do?
a. Bypasses system B pressure
b. Depressurizes both system A & B pressure
c. Allows airplane pushback or towing without depressurizing the hydraulic systems
d. Both first & third statements are correct.
12. Which of the following is not part of the braking system?

a. Antiskid protection
129!
b. Parking brake
c. Brake accumulator
d. Nose wheel brakes
13. Which of the following conditions must exit to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff?
a. AUTO BRAKE select switch positioned to ON
b. Wheel speed greater than 60 knots
c. Forward thrust levers positioned to IDLE
d. Position ANTISKID switch to RTO
14. The nose wheel doors remain open when the gear is down.
a. True.
b. False.
15. What could cause the amber ANTISKID INOP light to illuminate?
a. AUTO BRAKE select switch OFF
b. A system fault has been detected by the antiskid monitoring system
c. Brake accumulator pressure is in the red band
d. System B pressure is low
16. When the NOSE WHEEL STEERING switch is in ALT position:

a. Hydraulic system B provides power for nose wheel steering.
b. Hydraulic system A provides power for nose wheel steering.
c. Standby hydraulic system provides power for nose wheel steering.
d. The nose wheel steering tiller changes sensitivity for precision parking
17. What could cause the amber ANTISKID INOP light to illuminate?
a. AUTO BRAKE select switch OFF.
b. A fault in the braking system.
c. Brake accumulator pressure is in the red band.
d. System B pressure is low.
18. The landing gear warning horn is deactivated with all gear down and locked.
a. True.
b. False.
19. What airspeed must be considered with a wheel well fire situation?
a. Observe extend limit speed (280 KIAS/.72M)
b. Retract landing gear speed of 245 knots maximum
130!
c. Maintain 235 knots maximum for 20 minutes
d. Observe extend limit speed (270 knots/.82M)
20. What happens if you reject a takeoff after reaching 90 knots with the autobrakes in RTO?
a. Maximum braking when thrust levers are retarded to idle
b. Automatic braking when reverse thrust selected
c. Automatic speed brake deployment when thrust levers are retarded to idle
d. AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate
21. The brake pressure accumulator also provides pressure to maintain the parking brake
when hydraulic system A & B are depressurized.
a. True
b. False.
22. Hydraulic pressure from System B will be used to raise the landing gear:
a. When System A pressure is low and the landing lever is positioned up
b. When the ALTERNATE NOSE WHEEL Switch is positioned ON
c. When the No.1 engine RPM drops below a limit value with the landing gear still down and the
landing gear is positioned up
d. After a failure of the No.1 engine hydraulic pump with the landing gear still down and the
landing gear is positioned up
23. The parking brake can be set with either A or B hydraulic systems pressurized. If A & B
hydraulic systems are not pressurized, parking brake pressure is maintained by the brake
accumulator. Accumulator pressure is shown on the HYD BRAKE PRESS indicator.
a. True
b. False.
24. Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown prior to decelerating
through 30 kts of ground speed. Braking initiates immediately if both forward thrust
levers are retarded to IDLE and the main wheels spin–up.
a. True
b. False
25. Where is the main wheel gear viewing sight located?
a. Two rows aft of the over-wing exits on the port side
b. Two rows aft of the over-wing exits on the starboard side
c. There is no viewing sight on the 737-NG
26. Is autobrake available with alternate brakes?

131!
a. No.
b. Yes for takeoff only.
c. Yes for landing only.
d. Yes for takeoff and landing.
27. The parking brake will fail when:

a. The hydraulic A system is depressurized.
b. The hydraulic B system is depressurized.
c. The hydraulic A and B systems are depressurized.
d. None of the above as the parking brake pressure is maintained by the brake accumulator.
28. What is the maximum airspeed to retract the gear?

a. 210 kt.
b. 235 kt.
c. 250 kt.
d. 270 kt.
29. What is the maximum Operating airspeed with the gear extended?
a. 235 kt / .78M.
b. 235 kt / .80M.
c. 270 kt / .80M.
d. 270 kt / .82M.
30. A landing gear indicator light will illuminate red when:

a. Landing gear is not down and locked (with either thrust lever retarded to idle, and below 800
ft AGL.
b. Related landing gear is in disagreement with landing gear lever position.
c. Landing gear is up and locked with landing gear lever UP and OFF.
d. Both first and second statements are correct.
31. What is the minimum preflight pressure for the brake accumulator?
a. 2500 psi.
b. 2800 psi.
c. 3000 psi.
d. 3500 psi.
32. If the landing gear cannot be raised after takeoff:

a. Use the override trigger.
b. Pull the landing gear lever out to the second detent then raise it to the up position.
132!
c. When at a safe altitude follow the QRH procedure.
d. Land at the nearest suitable airfield.
33. If the landing gear indicator lights are illuminated red:

a. Landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both forward thrust levers retarded to
idle, and below 800 feet AGL).
b. Related landing gear is in disagreement with LANDING GEAR lever POSITION (in transit or
unsafe)
c. Both above statements are correct.
34. Hydraulic pressure is removed from the landing gear system with the LANDING GEAR
lever in the UP position.
a. True.
b. False.
35. The parking brake can be set with only B hydraulic system pressurized.
a. True
b. False
36. When the manual gear extension access door is open:

a. Normal landing gear extension is not possible.
b. Manual landing gear extension may be accomplished with the LANDING GEAR handle in the
UP position.
c. Landing gear uplocks are released.
d. The landing gear may be retracted by moving the landing gear lever to the UP position only if
hydraulic system A pressure is available.
37. The brake pressure accumulator provides pressure to the brake system and:
a. Parking brake system.
b. Flap system.
c. Landing gear system.
d. Nose wheel steering system.
38. The wheels should be chocked in case the brake pressure has bled down.
a. True.
b. False.
39. Which statement is true?

a. Rudder pedal steering overrides the steering wheel inputs.
133!
b. Rudder pedal steering is deactivated as the nose gear extends.
c. Rudder pedal steering allows 37 degrees of steering in either direction.
d. Hydraulic system B pressure is bypassed with the lock out pin installed in the steering
depressurization valve.
40. If the thrust levers are advanced after touchdown:

a. The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate immediately.
b. The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate after 3 seconds.
c. The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will not illuminate.
d. The AUTO BRAKE select switch will move to OFF.
41. If the go-around mode is selected after touchdown and prior to A/T disengagement, the
A/Ps disengage and the A/Ts may command GA thrust.
a. True.
b. False.
42. Impact fittings located in the opening of each main gear well:
a. Are intended to provide automatic braking to main gear wheels during retraction.
b. Provide positive uplock during main gear retraction.
c. Are intended to provide protection to wheel well components during gear retraction by
preventing a gear with a spinning tire and loose tread from entering the wheel well.
43. The autobrake system performs a self-test at initial AC power application. If the self test is
not successful, the AUTO BRAKE DIARM light illuminates and the system does not work.
a. True.
b. False.
44. With the AUTO BRAKE select switch at RTO, autobrake is initiated when:
a. Wheel speed is > 60 kts and thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
b. Wheel speed is > 90 kts and thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
c. Automatically when thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
d. AUTO BRAKE ARM illuminated with wheel speed is > 90 kts and thrust levers are retarded to
IDLE.
45. Hydraulic system pressure from System B will be used to retract the landing gear:
a. When System A pressure is low and the landing lever is positioned UP.
b. When the ALTERNATE NOSE WHEEL switch is positioned ON.
c. After failure of the No.1 engine with the landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is
positioned up.
134!
d. After a failure of the No.1 engine hydraulic pump with the landing gear still down and the
landing gear lever is positioned UP.
46. After landing, autobrake application begins when both forward thrust levers are retarded
to IDLE and Nose wheel and main wheels spin up.
a. True.
b. False.
47. The landing gear indicator lights found on the center panel will illuminate red when:
a. One of the 6 green lights are faulty.
b. There are no red lights.
c. All landing gear are UP and the gear handle is in OFF position
d. All landing gear are DN and the gear handle is in OFF position
48. You are using the manual gear extension lever to lower the gear. At what point do the
gear Uplocks all release?
a. When the Manual Extension Access door is opened.
b. When either gear extension handle is raised.
c. When all gear extension handles have been pulled to their limits.
49. Which controls operate the nose wheel steering system?

a. The control wheel.
b. The thrust levers.
c. The control column.
d. The steering wheel and the rudder pedals on the ground.
50. Following a manual extension, can the landing gear be retracted?

a. Yes.
b. No.
51. What is the steering authority for the rudder pedals?

a. +/- 5 degrees
b. +/- 7 degrees
c. +/- 57 degrees
d. +/- 78 degrees
52. Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown:

a. However the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate and autobrake application will not
occur.
135!
b. However autobrake action will occur only when both thust levers are retarded to reverse
thrust range.
c. Prior to decelerating through 60 kts groundspeed.
d. After decelerating through 60 kts groundspeed
53. What happens if you reject a takeoff at 100 kts with Autobrakes in RTO?
a. Automatic braking when thrust levers are retarded to idle.
b. Automatic braking when reverse thrust selected.
c. Automatic speed brake deployment when thrust levers are retarded to idle.
d. AUTO BRAKE light will illuminate.
54. There are a second set of landing gear indicator lights on the aft overhead panel. These
lights:
a. Illuminate red when the related landing gear is not down and locked and the gear handle is
down.
b. Illuminate red when the related landing gear is not down and either thrust lever is retarded to
idle at a radio altitude of 800 feet or less.
c. Illuminate green when the landing gear is in agreement with the landing gear lever.
d. Are a redundant but separate set of landing gear indicator circuits and green lights.
55. What is the normal source of power for the alternate brake system?
a. System A
b. System B
c. Standby system
d. System A or Standby system
56. Manual landing gear extension is not possible with the landing gear lever in the up
position.
a. True.
b. False.
57. During taxiing for takeoff, the amber AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates. What should
you do?
a. Position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF and then reselect RTO. If light re-
illuminates, use manual brakes in case of RTO.
b. Position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF. Do not attempt takeoff if light remains
illuminated.
c. Position ANTISKID select switch to OFF. Use manual brakes in case of RTO.
d. AUTO BRAKE system is not mandatory. There is no limitation.
136!
58. With the manual gear extension door open, which statement is correct?
a. Landing gear can be retracted.
b. Landing gear can be extended with the gear lever up and by pulling the manual extension
handles.
c. Normal landing gear extension is possible with hydraulic B pressure.
d. Pull the manual extension handles and landing gear lever must me selected down
59. What is the purpose of the landing gear transfer unit?

a. If hydraulic B fluid is lost the landing gear can be extended by automatic activation of the
transfer unit
b. In case of No1 engine failure/separation, the gear can be retracted after takeoff.
c. In case of engine failure the gear can be retracted in order to reduce drag for the cruise
segment.
d. If hydraulic A fluid is lost, the transfer unit must be manually selected to B fluid when the gear
lever is selected up.
60. How can you disarm the autobrake after landing?

a. Moving speed brake to down detent
b. Advancing thrust lever 3 seconds after landing
c. Apply manual braking
61. The AUTO BRAKE Select Switch:

a. Is always selected to 2.
b. Must be pulled out to select RTO.
c. Set to RTO will apply maximum brake pressure if the thrust levers are retarded to idle at or
above 90kts
d. Set at RST should extinguish the ANTISKID INOP light.
62. When the gear is down with three greens, you can:
a. Assume the gear is down and locked, provided the indicator lights on the overhead panel are
illuminated as well.
b. Still get a landing gear warning horn
c. Assume the gear is down and locked, even if one landing gear indicator light on the overhead
panel is NOT illuminated.
d. All of the above is correct
63. Normal hydraulic brake pressure is:

137!
a. 1000psi
b. 2000psi
c. 3000psi
d. 3500psi
64. Full rudder pedal displacement will turn the nosewheel by:
a. 7 degrees
b. 17 degrees
c. 47 degrees
d. 78 degrees
65. Regarding Normal and Alternate braking systems, which statement is true?
a. Antiskid protection will operate on both systems, Autobrake will only operate on the normal
system.
b. Antiskid protection will operate on both systems, Autobrake will operate on both systems.
c. Antiskid protection will only operate on the normal system, Autobrake will operate on both
systems.
d. Antiskid protection will only operate on the normal system, autobrake will only operate on the
normal system.
66. During landing gear retraction:

a. Snubbers in the wheel bays stop the rotation of all wheels.
b. The pilot applies manual brakes to stop main gear rotation.
c. The brakes automatically stop rotation of the main gear wheels.
d. A fitting in the wheel well opening applies a braking force to the wheels.
67. Manual Gear Extension Handles: each landing gear uplock is released when related
handle is pulled to its limit, approximately 24 inches (61 cm).
a. True
b. False
68. What conditions must be met for the Landing Gear Transfer Unit to operate:
a. Airborne, No2 engine RPM drops below a limit value, both main landing gear are not up and
locked.
b. Airborne, No1 and No2 engine RPM drop below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is
positioned DOWN, either main landing gear is not up and locked.
c. Airborne, No1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is positioned UP,
both main landing gear are not up and locked.
138!
d. Airborne, No1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is positioned UP,
either main landing gear is not up and locked.
69. When the Landing Gear Lever is positioned DOWN, the landing gear extends by:
a. Hydraulic pressure
b. Gravity
c. Air loads
d. All the above
70. After braking has started, the Autobrake system will disengage automatically when:
a. Wheel speed falls below 20kts.
b. The pilot moves the speed brake lever to UP position.
c. A forward thrust lever is advanced after landing.
d. Reverse thrust is deselected.
71. The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates for 2 seconds then extinguishes. Likely cause
is:
a. Thrust levers advanced during first 3 seconds after touchdown.
b. RTO mode selected on the ground.
c. A malfunction has been detected in the automatic braking system.
d. AUTO BRAKE select switch set to OFF.
139!
GABARITO – LANDING GEAR
1–b 11 – d 21 – a 31 – b 41 – a 51 – b 61 – c 71 – b
2–a 12 – d 22 – c 32 – c 42 – c 52 – c 62 – c
3–c 13 – c 23 – a 33 – c 43 – b 53 – a 63 – c
4–b 14 – a 24 – a 34 – b 44 – b 54 – d 64 – a
5–a 15 – b 25 – c 35 – b 45 – c 55 – a 65 – a
6–d 16 – a 26 – a 36 – b 46 – b 56 – b 66 – c
7–c 17 – b 27 – d 37 – a 47 – d 57 – b 67 – a
8–d 18 – a 28 – b 38 – a 48 – c 58 – b 68 – d
9–c 19 – d 29 – d 39 – b 49 – d 59 – b 69 – d
10 – a 20 – a 30 – d 40 – b 50 – a 60 – d 70 – c
Comentários:!
1 - The nose gear is a conventional steerable two–wheel unit.
9 - In flight and ground operation of various airplane systems are controlled by the air/ground
system. The system receives air/ground logic signals from six sensors, two on each landing gear.
These signals are used to configure the airplane systems to the appropriate air or ground status.
34 - The hydraulic pressure is removed with the LANDING GEAR lever in the OFF position!
35 - The parking brake can be set with either A or B hydraulic systems pressurized. If A and B
hydraulic systems are not pressurized, parking brake pressure is maintained by the brake
accumulator. Accumulator pressure is shown on the HYD BRAKE PRESS indicator.
46 - The Nose wheel has no input.
50 - Following a manual extension, the landing gear may be retracted normally by accomplishing the
following steps: 1. Close the manual extension access door. 2. Move the LANDING GEAR lever to
DOWN with hydraulic system A pressure available, and then 3. Position the LANDING GEAR lever
to UP.
69 - When the LANDING GEAR lever is moved to DN, hydraulic system A pressure is used to
release the uplocks. The landing gear extends by hydraulic pressure, gravity and air loads.
Overcenter mechanical and hydraulic locks hold the gear at full extension.
70 - After braking has started, any of the following pilot actions disarm the system immediately and
illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light:
71 - The RTO mode can be selected only when on the ground. Upon selection, the AUTO BRAKE
DISARM light illuminates for one to two seconds and then extinguishes, indicating that an automatic
self–test has been successfully accomplished.
140!
Questionnaire'–'WARNING'SYSTEMS'
1. What is the purpose of the Proximity Switch Electronic Unit?

a. Monitors the takeoff configuration warning.
b. Monitors the landing configuration warning.
c. Monitors the landing gear.
2. The PSEU system on the ground monitors which of the following?

a. Takeoff/landing configuration warnings
b. Landing gear
c. Air/ground sensing
3. A steady warning horn alerts the crew when the landing gear is not down and locked and
a landing is attempted.
a. True
b. False
4. When is the Proximity Switch Electronic Unit light inhibited?

a. In flight.
b. For 1 minute after landing.
c. All of the above.
5. The takeoff configuration warning horn sounds when the stabilizer trim is not in the
takeoff range.
a. True
b. False
6. Which of the following is an input into the Stall Management Yaw Damper computers?
a. ADIRU data.
b. Anti-ice controls.
c. Anti-ice controls.
7. Which of the following will cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning system?
a. Leading edge flaps in the extend position and trailing edge flaps at flaps 5.
b. Leading edge flpas in the full extend position and trailing edge flaps at 15.
c. Spoilers partially extended.
141!
d. SPEED BRAKE lever in the DOWN position.
8. While performing the LANDING checklist the PSEU light illuminates on recall. This
indicates:
a. A normal condition
b. A fault is detected in the landing gear locking system or the air/ground sensing systems
c. The landing gear configuration warning horn will sound upon landing.
d. A problem exists in the PSEU system because the light should be inhibited in flight
9. Illumination of the PSEU light on the aft overhead panel will activate the MASTER
CAUTION system.
a. True
b. False.
10. The landing gear configuration warning horn will activate anytime a gear is not down and
locked with the flaps set to 15, one thrust lever at idle and the other at a high power
setting (above 34 degrees):
a. True
b. False.
11. The GPWS will provide a warning/alert of slow descents into unprepared terrain while in
the landing configuration.
a. True
b. False.
12. The SMYD computers receive inputs from:

a. Anti ice controls.
b. ADIRU's
c. FMC
13. The Ground Proximity Warning System Test:

a. Can be performed only on the ground.
b. Is inhibited from liftoff to 1,000 feet Radio Altitude.
c. Can be performed only above 1,000 feet Radio Altitude.
d. Can be performed anytime.
14. When are the GPWS windshear warnings available?

a. Below 1500 feet AGL.
142!
b. Below 2500 feet AGL.
c. Below 3000 feet AGL.
d. Below 5000 feet AGL.
15. The windshear warning mode of the GPWS has priority over all other GPWS modes.
a. True
b. False.
16. When is a traffic advisory issued?

a. When the other aircraft is within 40 NM.
b. When the other aircraft is within 20 NM.
c. When the aircraft is within 40 seconds of the closest approach.
d. When the aircraft is within 20 seconds of the closest approach.
17. When is TCAS inhibited?

a. By windshear alerts.
b. By GPWS.
c. At low altitudes where traffic avoidance maneuvers are inappropriate.
18. The Takeoff Configuration Warning horn sounds if:

a. Stabilizer trim is not in the green band.
b. Leading edge flaps and trailing edge flaps are not in the correct position for takeoff.
c. Speedbrake lever is not in the down position.
d. All of the above is correct.
19. When does the ALT ALERT light extinguish?

a. When you level off at the selected altitude.
b. 300 feet before the selected altitude.
c. 200 feet before the selected altitude.
d. 600 feet before the selected altitude.
20. How can you silence the Mach/Airspeed warning inflight?

a. Slow the airplane speed to below Vmo/Mmo
b. Press the Mach/airspeed warning test switch
c. Descent to a lower altitude.
d. Climb to a higher altitude.
21. The mach/airspeed warning system can only be checked on the ground:
143!
a. True
b. False.
22. While flying an ILS approach below 1,000 feet Radio Altitude, a BELOW G/S alert occurs.
To cancel the alert:
a. Correct the flight path back to the glide slope.
b. Press either pilot's BELOW G/S P-INHIBIT light
c. The alert cannot be cancelled
23. Which of the following will illuminate a landing gear configuration warning?
a. Landing gear disagrees with the position of the landing gear lever.
b. Landing gear is not down and locked.
c. Either or both thrust levers are at idle and the aircraft is below 800 feet AGL.
24. The GPWS provides a "BANK ANGLE" warning when the roll rate exceeds 25 degrees, 30
degrees, and 35 degrees.
a. True
b. False.
25. Which of the following is NOT a GPWS mode?

a. Excessive descent rate.
b. Excessive terrain closure.
c. Unsafe terrain clearance when in the landing configuration.
d. Windshear.
26. While flying an ILS approach below 1, 000 feet Radio Altitude, a BELOW G/S alert occurs.
To cancel the alert:
a. Press RECALL.
b. Press either pilot\'s BELOW G/S P-INHIBIT light, or correct the flight path back to the glide
slope.
c. The alert cannot be cancelled.
d. Select another mode on MCP.
27. The Ground Proximity Warning System Test:
a. Can be performed only on the ground.
b. Is inhibited from lift-off to 1, 000 feet RA
c. Can be performed only above 1, 000 feet radio altitude.
d. Can be performed any time.
144!
28. The Predictive Windshear alerts are issued:

a. When TERR switch on EFIS control panel is pressed.
b. When WPT switch on EFIS control panel is pressed.
c. Automatically below 1, 200 feet RA.
d. Automatically below 2, 500 feet RA.
29. Predictive windshear alerts are triggered from:

a. EGPWS.
b. Weather Radar System.
c. Aural Warning Module.
30. Serviceability of the tailskid cartridge is shown by:

a. A green decal.
b. A green indicator light
c. Wear dimples.
d. A green and red decal.
31. In the event of an over rotation, which part of the tailskid structure contacts the runway?
a. The skirt.
b. The fairing.
c. The shoe.
d. The cartridge.
32. The terrain displayed in the Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting system is generated from:
a. Weather Radar correlated with IRS position.
b. GPWS nav data base correlated with IRS position.
c. GPWS nav data base correlated with GPS position.
d. FMC nav data base correlated with GPS position.
33. When is a traffic advisory issued?

a. When the other aircraft is within 20 NM
b. When the aircraft is within 20 seconds of the closest approach.
c. When the other aircraft is within 40 NM.
d. When the aircraft is within 40 seconds of the closest approach.
34. The Look-Ahead Terrain alerting system will show for terrain:
a. Within 2,000 feet RA.
b. Below 1,000 feet barometric altitude.
145!
c. Above 1,000 feet RA.
d. Within 2,000 feet barometric altitude.
35. In what mode will the TCAS automatically show if a TA/RA occurs and the TFC switches
are selected OFF.
a. In PLAN, MAP, VOR or APP modes
b. In MAP, center MAP, PLAN or APP modes
c. In center MAP, VOR or APP modes.
d. In MAP, center MAP, VOR, or APP modes.
36. What is correct about the color on the terrain display?

a. Dotted green – terrain 2500’ below up to 500’ below
b. Dotted amber - terrain 2000’ below up to 500’ below
c. Dotted red – terrain more than 5000´above the aircraft
d. Solid red – look ahead terrain warning is active
37. Which statement is correct?

a. When the RHS pilot omits to set the minima on the baro, but the LHS pilot sets the minima
correctly, there will be no GPWS minimums callouts.
b. When the RHS pilot omits to set the minima on the baro, but the LHS pilot sets the minima
correctly, there will be a GPWS minimums callouts, since the callouts are based on the
captains minimums selector.
c. It is impossible to omit to set the minima before any approach, because the aircraft GPWS
will remind you in time.
d. None of the statements above are correct
38. On takeoff the config warning sounds. What can be the cause?
a. Trailing edge flaps set to 2
b. Trailing edge flaps are in a skew condition
c. Stabilizer set in the takeoff range
d. Takeoff power not set on both engines
39. When can you expect the EGPWS "Five Hundred" call?
a. When descending through the 500 feet amber band on the ALT tape on a stable ILS
approach.
b. When descending through 500 feet RA outside 2 dots of the LLZ
c. If descending through 500 feet RA on a CAT III approach for the FLARE ARM check.
d. On an ILS approach descending through the amber band and the GS is 1 dot from the
glideslope beam.
146!
40. TCAS TEST is displayed on the navigation display during the test followed by TCAS TEST
PASSED or TCAS TEST FAILED. This test remains in view for _____ then blanks. An aural
annunciation sounds at the completion of the test.
a. 3 seconds
b. 5 seconds
c. 8 seconds
d. 10 seconds
41. The area(s) inside the red lines indicate(s) the pitch region(s) to avoid in order to resolve
the traffic conflict. The airplane symbol must be outside the TCAS pitch command area(s)
to ensure traffic avoidance.
a. True
b. False
42. The RA aural alert "CLIMB – CLIMB NOW" means:

a. Increase climb rate from initial pitch attitude.
b. Climb at displayed pitch. Airplane climbs through traffic’s altitude.
c. Climb at the displayed pitch.
d. Reversal maneuver from initial descent RA.
43. When performance is limited, such as with an inoperative engine, to prevent receiving
RAs beyond the airplane’s capabilities:
a. Select ALT OFF
b. Select TCAS OFF
c. Select TA/RA
d. Select TA
44. All TCAS alerts are inhibited:

a. Below approximately 500 feet radio altitude.
b. By GPWS and windshear warnings.
c. Below approximately 1,100 feet radio altitude.
d. Until the flaps are fully retracted after takeoff.
45. The TCAS symbol for proximate traffic is:

a. A red square
b. An amber circle
c. A white solid diamond
d. A white hollow diamond
147!
46. A TA symbol showing on the ND has, alongside it, a down arrow and "-07". This means:
a. The traffic is descending at 700fpm.
b. You should descend at 700fpm.
c. The traffic is descending at minimum 500fpm.
d. You should descend at minimum 500fpm.
47. RAs can only be generated if the other airplane has a working:
a. Mode A transponder.
b. Mode C transponder.
c. Mode S transponder.
d. TCAS system.
48. Coordinated RAs require both airplanes to have TCAS.

a. True
b. False
49. Vertical motion information is indicated by an arrow depicting a climb or descent if a

change of greater than _____ is detected.
a. 250 feet per minute
b. 500 feet per minute
c. 750 feet per minute
d. 800 feet per minute
148!
GABARITO – WARNING SYSTEMS
1–d 11 – b 21 – a 31 – c 41 – a
2–d 12 – d 22 – d 32 – c 42 – d
3–a 13 – b 23 – d 33 – d 43 – d
4–a 14 – a 24 – b 34 – d 44 – b
5–a 15 – a 25 – c 35 – d 45 – c
6–d 16 – c 26 – b 36 – d 46 – a
7–c 17 – d 27 – b 37 – b 47 – b
8–d 18 – d 28 – c 38 – b 48 – a
9–a 19 – b 29 – b 39 – b 49 – b
10 – b 20 – a 30 – d 40 – c
Comentários:!
26!C!The volume of the aural alert and the repetition rate increase as deviation increases.
149!
Organizado e montado por Cop MENDANHA – netomendanha@gmail.com
Retirado do site:!

Boeing 737 NG - Questionaire

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Boeing 737 NG - Questionaire

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

BOEING'737'NEW'GENERATION'

3. When will the descent mode be activated in the pressurization system?

6. Where are the bleed trip sensors installed?

7. The right WING-BODY OVERHEAT light is illuminated, what area is affected?

8. What is the purpose of the recirculation fans?

11. The Recirculation Fan:

14. In MANUAL pressurization mode the outflow is driven by?

16. During descent when the descent mode is activated:

17. The maximum differential pressure is:

18. What are the causes of an Amber AUTO FAIL light?

25. Where is the forward outflow valve located?

26. The forward outflow valve:

31. The Altitude Warning Horn is:

34. A decompression of the cabin will result in the following:

37. In Cruise the air conditioning ram air doors are:

39. The ram air system provides cooling air for:

43. Overheat detection is provided by temperature sensors located:

51. A DUCT OVERHEAT light only will cause:

52. What systems need pneumatic power for operation?

55. How are the Engine Bleed Air valves powered?

56. An illuminated BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates:

62. The motorized Exhaust valve:

66. The ram air system deflector doors:

1. APU operation requires the following:

2. The APU Electronics Control Unit (ECU) provides:

3. The APU can supply both transfer busses:

4. APU cooling air:

5. During APU operation, fuel is automatically heated to prevent icing:

7. The APU generator ammeter:

10. Electrical power to start the APU comes from:

11. If the APU is the only source of electrical power:

15. The APU start cycle may take up to:

16. The APU may be used as a pneumatic source up to:

17. The APU will shutdown on the ground if:

21. The APU OVERSPEED light illuminated indicates:

24. The blue APU MAINT light means that:

25. Pulling up the APU fire warning switch:

2. The Automatic Flight System (AFS) consists of :

4. VNAV is terminated by:

15. LNAV terminates when:

21. LNAV must be manually disengaged in order to capture an ILS localizer.

22. After lift-off, the A/T remains in THR HLD until:

37. The AUTOLAND warning light flashed RED if:

39. Localizer can be intercepted in HDG SEL, LNAV or CWS R.

16!C!Minimum speed reversion is NOT available in that case.

32!C!this is true but after FLARE armed is annunciated...

44!C!VNAV ALT maintains altitude.

1. How are the communication systems controlled?

4. In cased of degraded audio system operation:

8. The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) can be erased:

9. The Cockpit Voice Recorder in AUTO:

11. The Cockpit Voice Recorder in ON:

12. The CVR (orange box) is located:

13. When is the Cockpit Voice Recorder active?

19. The call system from flight deck to cabin operates:

1. Which of the following is false concerning the B737NG electrical system?

2. The purpose of the AC ground service bus is to power:

3. The TR´s ( Transformer rectifier ) convert:

4. Which is the power source for the AC standby bus?

9. The TR3 Disconnect Relay:

10. The Engine Integrated Drive Generators (IDGs):

12. The cross bus tie relay:

13. Illumination of the GND POWER AVAILABLE light indicates: