@MaterialBhaiya All LE 2021 Mocks Questions

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
Part of the most Comprehensive Classroom Training, Prep Content & Test Series across the Nation.
From the producers of the Best and the most number of A.I.Rs in the past years, every year!
MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2021
MOCK CLAT #01

Candidate Name : _________________
Duration : 120 Minutes
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Centre Name : __________
Date of Exam : _________________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There are 150multiple choice objective type questions.
3. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are 150.
4. There is a negative marking of 0.25 marks for every incorrect answer.
5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided,
with a BALL PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the TajMahal located?", the correct answer is (b).
The candidate has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below :
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
6. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered
incorrect and no marks will be awarded for the same.
7. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required
and in the spaces provided for.
9. After the Test is over, the candidate has to return the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator. The
candidate should take the Test Paper along with them.
10. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to face
criminal prosecution.
12. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, pagers or calculators are strictly not permitted inside the
Test Centre/Hall.
13. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the Test is over.
MOCK CLAT #01
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q.1-Q.29): Read the passages carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.1-Q.6): Current feminist theory, in validating women’s own stories of their experience, has
encouraged scholars of women’s history to view the use of women’s oral narratives as the methodology,
next to the use of women’s written autobiography, that brings historians closest to the “reality” of women’s
lives. Such narratives, unlike most standard histories, represent experience from the perspective of
women, affirm the importance of women’s contributions, and furnish present-day women with historical
continuity that is essential to their identity, individually and collectively.
Scholars of women’s history should, however, be as cautious about accepting oral narratives at face
value as they already are about written memories. Oral narratives are no more likely than are written
narratives to provide a disinterested commentary on events or people. Moreover, the stories people tell to
explain themselves are shaped by narrative devices and storytelling conventions, as well as by other
cultural and historical factors, in ways that the storytellers may be unaware of. The political rhetoric of a
particular era, for example, may influence women’s interpretations of the significance of their experience.
Thus a woman who views the Second World War as pivotal in increasing the social acceptance of
women’s paid work outside the home may reach that conclusion partly and unwittingly because of
wartime rhetoric encouraging a positive view of women’s participation in such work.
1. The passage is primarily concerned with

(a) contrasting the benefits of one methodology with the benefits of another
(b) describing the historical origins and inherent drawbacks of a particular methodology
(c) discussing the appeal of a particular methodology and some concerns about its use
(d) showing that some historians’ adoption of a particular methodology has led to criticism of recent
historical scholarship
2. According to the passage, which of the following shapes the oral narratives of women storytellers?
(a) The conventions for standard histories in the culture in which a woman storyteller lives
(b) The conventions of storytelling in the culture in which a woman storyteller lives
(c) A woman storyteller’s experience with distinctive traditions of storytelling developed by the women in
her family of origin
(d) The cultural expectations and experiences of those who listen to oral narratives
3. The author of the passage would be most likely to make which of the following recommendations to
scholars of women’s history?
(a) They should take into account their own life experiences when interpreting the oral accounts of
women’s historical experiences.
(b) They should assume that the observations made in women’s oral narratives are believed by the
intended audience of the story.
(c) They should treat skeptically observations reported in oral narratives unless the observations can be
confirmed in standard histories.
(d) They should consider the cultural and historical context in which an oral narrative was created before
arriving at an interpretation of such a narrative.
4. Which of the following best describes the function of the last sentence of the passage?
(a) It describes an event that historians view as crucial in recent women’s history.
(b) It provides an example of how political rhetoric may influence the interpretations of experience
reported in women’s oral narratives.
(c) It provides an example of an oral narrative that inaccurately describes women’s experience during a
particular historical period.
(d) It illustrates the point that some women are more aware than others of the social forces that shape
their oral narratives.
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 2 of 35

MOCK CLAT #01
5. According to the passage, scholars of women’s history should refrain from doing which of the following?
(a) Relying on traditional historical sources when women’s oral narratives are unavailable
(b) Focusing on the influence of political rhetoric on women’s perceptions to the exclusion of other
equally important factors
(c) Attempting to discover the cultural and historical factors that influence the stories women tell
(d) Accepting women’s oral narratives less critically than they accept women’s written histories
6. According to the passage, each of the following is a difference between women’s oral narratives and
most standard histories EXCEPT:
(a) Women’s oral histories validate the significance of women’s achievements.
(b) Women’s oral histories depict experience from the point of view of women.
(c) Women’s oral histories acknowledge the influence of well-known women.
(d) Women’s oral histories present today’s women with a sense of their historical relationship to women
of the past.
Passage (Q.7 – Q.10): In appearance, the Greek gods were supposed to resemble 6 whom, however,
they far surpassed in beauty, grandeur, and strength; they were also more commanding in stature, height
being considered by the Greeks an attribute of beauty in man or woman- They resembled human beings
in their feelings and habits, intermarrying and having Children, and requiring daily nourishment to recruit
their strength and refreshing sleep to restore their energies. Their blood, a bright ethereal fluid called
Ichor, never engendered Tease, and, when shed, had the power of producing new lie.
the Greeks believed that the mental qualifications of their gods were of a much higher order than those of
men, but nevertheless, they were not considered exempt from human passions, and we frequently
behold them actuated by revenge, deceit, and jealousy. They, however, always punish the evil-doer and
visit with dire calamities any impious mortal who dares to neglect their worship or despise their rites.
Still, they were not invulnerable, and we often hear of them being wounded, and suffering in
consequence such exquisite torture that they have earnestly prayed to be deprived of their privilege of
immortality. The gods knew no limitation of time or space, being able to transport themselves to
incredible distances with the speed of thought. They possessed the power of rendering themselves
invisible at will and could assume the forms of men or animals as it suited their convenience. They could
also transform human beings into trees, stones, animals, either as a punishment for their misdeeds or as
a means of protecting the individual, thus transformed, from impending danger.
Most of these divinities lived on the summit of Mount Olympus, each possessing his or her individual
habitation, and all meeting together on festive occasions in the council camber of the gods. Magnificent
temples were erected in sir honour, where they were worshipped with the greatest solemnity; rich gifts
were presented to them and animals indeed sometimes, human beings were sacrificed on their altars.
7. From the information in the passage, which of the following could not be the result of the torture inflicted
on Gods?
(a) The death of the Gods.
(b) The Gods turning the torturer into an animal.
(c) The Gods wishing that they were mortals.
(d) The Gods transporting themselves to some other place away from the torturer.
8. From the passage, each of the following can be inferred about Greek Gods EXCEPT:
(a) All Gods dwelled on Mount Olympus.
(b) The Gods could transform their forms.
(c) The Gods were offered human sacrifices.
(d) The Gods could punish humans.
9. What is the main purpose of the author in writing the passage?
(a) To explain the lives of humans and Greek Gods.
(b) To describe the lives and trials of the Greek Gods.
(c) To underline the differences between humans and Greek Gods.
(d) To praise the Greek Gods for being able to live among humans.
MOCK CLAT #01
10. The author uses the phrase 'were supposed to' in the opening line of paragraph one in order to
(a) point out the differences between mortals and Greek Gods.
(b) forewarn the reader that even with huge similarities, the Greek Gods would probably still be different
from mortals.
(c) highlight the relationship between mortals and Greek Gods.
(d) criticise the belief that Greek Gods deceived mortals by appearing to be similar to them.
Passage (Q.11-Q.14): From the emergence of CGI to the long-lasting effects the Sundance Film Festival
has had on Hollywood's view of 'profitable', the entire industry has undergone a series of remarkable
changes. Few examples of film subculture exemplify this better than Mormon cinema, a subset of the
movie making universe that has met with notable success for a number of interesting reasons. The first
would be the concomitant growth in Mormon audiences. It is the fourth-largest religious group in the
United States. More than half of the population lives outside of the United States. The fact that an ever-
growing segment of the population is LDS rakes for an obvious correlation to the rise in popularity of LDS
cinema. Another factor in the rise of LDS cinema, and one that dovetails with the increase in Mormon
adherents, is the cultural tone of America over the last few years. Driven in part by the geopolitical
events, such as, 9/11, the war in Iraq as well as by an administration commonly seen to be focused on
traditional religious mores, American culture has experienced a turn toward family-friendly films and
entertainment. An example of this turn is the popularity of computer animated show Veggie Tales.
Mormon filmmakers are making films that are free of offensive language, sexual situations and violence.
More importantly, however, is that Mormon filmmakers have displayed a willingness to play up certain
touchstone values in their films to lend certain universality rather than trumpet Mormon theology and
culture.
11. Based on the phrasing of the passage, which set of influences would the author most likely argue have
converged to lead to the perceived rise in the popularity of Mormon cinema?
I. Theological and cultural influences. II. Cultural and political influences.
III. Economic and political influences. IV. Cultural and economic influences.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only I (b) II and III (c) Only III (d) Only IV
12. Which of the following qualities does the author state as the most vital factor in the increased acceptance
of Mormon cinema among mainstream audiences?
(a) Geopolitical turbulence such as the war in Iraq
(b) Growth in LDS membership, in the US and abroad
(c) Use of general fundamental values over specific religious messages
(d) General cultural shift toward more traditional expressions
13. Although relevant in a strictly cultural context, the author's inclusion of Veggie Tales in this passage could
be considered irrelevant to the main argument for what reason?
I. Veggie Tales is a retelling of Bible stories and is not indicative of a new trend.
II. Veggie Tales is a television show, thus not relevant to cinema.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) None of these
14. Consider the following statements

I. Most films in Mormon cinema project values and traits specific to church members.
II. More than half of the LDS global population lives outside the United States.
Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct?
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

MOCK CLAT #01
Passage (Q.15-Q.20): Japanese swords have been recognised as one of the finest cutting weapons
ever created in the history by the Historians. The Japanese sword has always been considered a
splendid weapon and even a spiritualentity. The traditional Japanese saying 'The sword is the soul of the
samurai' not only reflects the sword's importance to its wielder but also is indicative of its importance to its
creator, the Master Smith. Master Smiths may not have been considered artists in the classical sense but
everyone of them took great care in how he created a sword, and no sword was created in exactly the
same way. The forging process of the blade took hundreds of hours as two- types of steel were heated,
hammered and folded together many times. This created a blade,that had an extremely sharp and
durable cutting edge; at the same time, the blade was flexible and therefore less likely to break. It was
common, though optional, for a Master Smith to place a physical signature on a blade; in addition, every
Master Smith had a 'structural signature' due to his own secret forging process. Each Master Smith
brought a high level of devotion, skill and attention to detail to the sword-making process and the sword
itself was a reflection of his personal honour and ability. This effort made each blade as unique as the
samurai who wielded it; today the Japanese sword is recognised as much for its artistic merit as for its
historical significance.
15. The primary purpose of the passage is to

I. Challenge the observation that the Japanese sword is highly admired by historians.
II. introduce new information about the forging of Japanese swords.
III. identify how the Japanese sword is now perceived as much for its artistic qualities as its military ones.
IV. Explain the value attributed to the Japanese sword.
(a) I and II (b) Only II (c) Only III (d) Only IV
16. Each of the following is mentioned in the passage except

(a) Every Japanese sword has a unique structure that can be traced back to a special forging process
(b) Master Smiths kept their forging techniques secret
(c) The Japanese sword was considered by some to have a spiritual quality
(d) Master Smiths are now considered artists by most major historians
17. The author is most likely to agree with which of the following observations?
I. The Japanese sword is the most important handheld weapon in history.
II. The skill of the samurai is what made the Japanese sword so special.
III. If a sword had a physical signature, other swords could be attributed to that sword's creator.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Only III (d) All of these
18. Which of the following can be inferred about the term 'structural signature' in this passage?
I. It indicates the inscription that the Smith places on the blade during the forging process.
II. It implies the particular characteristics of a blade created by a Smith's unique forging process.
III. It suggests that each blade can be traced back to a known Master Smith.
IV. It reflects the soul of the samurai who wielded it.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) II and III (d) Only IV
19. One function of the second paragraph of the passage is to

(a) present an explanation for a change in perception
(b) determine the historical significance of Japanese swords
(c) explain why each Japanese sword is unique
(d) compare Japanese Master Smiths to classical artists
20. Master Smiths took great care to ensure

(a) sharpness of each sword (c) uniqueness of each sword
(b) durability of each sword (d) flexibility of each sword

MOCK CLAT #01
Passage (Q.21-Q.29): Samuel Taylor Coleridge, BiographiaLiteraria

My own conclusions on the nature of poetry, in the strictest use of the word, have been in part anticipated
in some of the remarks on the Fancy and Imagination in the early part of this work. What is poetry?—is
so nearly the same question with, what is a poet?—that the answer to the one is involved in the solution
of the other. For it is a distinction resulting from the poetic genius itself, which sustains and modifies the
images, thoughts, and emotions of the poet’s own mind.
The poet, described in ideal perfection, brings the whole soul of man into activity, with the subordination
of its faculties to each other according to the irrelative worth and dignity. He diffuses a tone and spirit of
unity, that blends, and(as it were) fuses, each into each, by that synthetic and magical power, to which I
would exclusively appropriate the name of Imagination. This power, first put inaction by the will and
understanding, and retained under their irremissive, though gentle and unnoticed, control,
laxisefferturhabenis, reveals “itself in the balance or reconcilement of opposite or discordant” qualities: of
sameness, with difference; of the general with the concrete; the idea with the image; the individual with
therepresentative; the sense of novelty and freshness with old and familiar objects; amore than usual
state of emotion with more than usual order; judgment ever awake and steady self-possession with
enthusiasm and feeling profound or vehement; and while it blends and harmonizes the natural and the
artificial, still subordinates art to nature; the manner to the matter; and our admiration of the poet to our
sympathy with the poetry. Doubtless, as Sir John Davies observes of the soul—(and his words may with
slight alteration be applied, and even more appropriately, to the poetic Imagination)—
Doubtless this could not be, but that she turns

Bodies to spirit by sublimation strange,
As fire converts to fire the things it burns,
As we our food into our nature change.
From their gross matter she abstracts their forms,
And draws a kind of quintessence from things;
Which to her proper nature she transforms
To bear them light on her celestial wings.
Thus does she, when from individual states
She doth abstract the universal kinds;
Which then re-clothed in divers names and fates
Steal access through the senses to our minds.
Finally, Good Sense is the Body of poetic genius, Fancy its Drapery, Motion its Life, and Imagination the
Soul that is everywhere, and in each; and forms all into one graceful and intelligent whole.
21. The primary mode of composition of the passage is:

(a) narration (b) description (c) cause and effect (d) definition
22. The chief rhetorical strategy in the first paragraph is:

(a) imagery (b) parallel structure
(c) rhetorical questions (d) syntax inversion
23. In context, the word “subordination” in line 5 most nearly means:

(a) the treatment of something as less valuable or important
(b) the treatment of something as more valuable or important
(c) the treatment of something as unnecessary or redundant
(d) the treatment of something as exceeding expectations
24. According to paragraph two, the poet does the following:

I. brings the soul to life
II. separates the different abilities of the soul
III. brings together the different abilities of the soul
(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) I, II, and III

MOCK CLAT #01
25. Imagination is defined as:

(a) ideal perfection (b) a tone and spirit of unity
(c) synthetic and magical power (d) will and understanding
26. All of the following pairs are represented as opposites except:

(a) sameness and difference (b) the general and the concrete
(c) the idea and the image (d) novelty and freshness
27. Which of the following is (or are) more valued than its (or their) counterpart(s)?
I. art
II. nature
III. manner
(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) I and III
28. The poem quoted in the passage uses all of the following literary techniques except:
(a) personification (b) imagery & simile (c) rhyme scheme (d) apostrophe
29. The writer of the passage uses the poem to:

(a) define the nature of poetry
(b) characterize imagination
(c) display the poet’s perfection
(d) describe the difference between fancy and imagination

MOCK CLAT #01
SECTION-B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS
Directions (Q.30-Q.68): Read the information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Passage(Q.30-Q.34): Prime Minister NarendraModi has called for planting at least five trees either in
Office campus or wherever it is possible, to ensure a clean and healthy environment of the country. Union
Minister of State for Culture and Tourism (Independent charge) [x] today called for the successful
organizing of “SankalpParva” and plant trees as desired by our Prime Minister.
Minister informed that the Ministry of Culture has decided to celebrate SankalpParva from 28th June to
12 July 2020, wherein Ministry expects all its Subordinate Offices, Academies, Attached Institutions,
Affiliated Institutions to plant trees in its campus or at the surroundings wherever it is possible. He added
that the Ministry of Culture recommends to plants five trees that have been identified by our Prime
Minister and which represent the herbal heritage of our country. These trees are (i) “Bargad” (ii) “Awla”
(iii) “Pepal” (iv) “Ashok” (v) “Bel”. He further said that if sapling of these trees is not available then people
may do plantation of any other sapling of their choice.
Minister also said that the organizations must ensure that each employee should plant at least one tree of
his/her choice and over and above these five trees which should be planted as per the call of the Prime
Minister. The Institutions must also ensure that the employee takes care of plants planted by them during
the year so that it survives and flourishes.
Patel has urged all to participate in the SankalpParva and share the photo of plantation with
#SankalpParva with Ministry of Culture. He said that monsoon season has started, which is the right time
for plantation. We have seen the importance of a clean and healthy environment during this Pandemic
and we are proud of our Herbal Wealth which has enough strength to enable us to sail through safely in
the period of Pandemic. I urge everybody to participate in this SankalpParv and plant and take care of at
least one plant, so we can create a healthy environment and a flourishing “Bharat”.
https://pragativadi.com/sankalp-parva-culture-minister-urges-all-to-plant-trees/
30. Who is the current Union Minister of State for Culture and Tourism, redacted as [x] in the passage?
(a) Arjun Munda
(b) Ram Vilas Paswan
(c) Prahlad Singh Patel
(d) Thawar Chand Gehlot
31. According to India State of Forest Report 2019, what percentage of area of India is under forest and tree
cover?
(a) 22.5%
(b) 21.67%
(c) 23.33%
(d) 24.1%
32. What is India’s rank in Environment Performance Index (EPI)?

(a) 155
(b) 161
(c) 168
(d) 169
33. According to the 2017 amendment of Indian Forest Act, 1927, bamboo is a –
(a) Tree
(b) Grass
(c) Shrub
(d) None of the above

MOCK CLAT #01
34. Which State in India has the largest area under forest/tree cover?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Chattisgarh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Odisha
Passage (Q.35-Q.39): NASA Administrator [x] announced Wednesday the agency’s headquarters
building in [y], will be named after Mary W. Jackson, the first African American female engineer at NASA.
Jackson started her NASA career in the segregated West Area Computing Unit of the agency’s Langley
Research Center in Hampton, Virginia. Jackson, a mathematician and aerospace engineer, went on to
lead programs influencing the hiring and promotion of women in NASA's science, technology,
engineering, and mathematics careers. In 2019, she was posthumously awarded the Congressional Gold
Medal.
“Mary W. Jackson was part of a group of very important women who helped NASA succeed in getting
American astronauts into space. Mary never accepted the status quo, she helped break barriers and
open opportunities for African Americans and women in the field of engineering and technology,” said
Bridenstine. “Today, we proudly announce the Mary W. Jackson NASA Headquarters building. It
appropriately sits on ‘Hidden Figures Way,’ a reminder that Mary is one of many incredible and talented
professionals in NASA’s history who contributed to this agency’s success. Hidden no more, we will
continue to recognize the contributions of women, African Americans, and people of all backgrounds who
have made NASA’s successful history of exploration possible.”
The work of the West Area Computing Unit caught widespread national attention in the 2016 Margot Lee
Shetterly book “Hidden Figures: The American Dream and the Untold Story of the Black Women
Mathematicians Who Helped Win the Space Race.” The book was made into a popular movie that same
year and Jackson’s character was played by award-winning actress Janelle Monáe.
In 2019, after a bipartisan bill by Sens. Ted Cruz, Ed Markey, John Thune, and Bill Nelson made its way
through Congress, the portion of E Street SW in front of NASA Headquarters was renamed Hidden
Figures Way.
“We are honored that NASA continues to celebrate the legacy of our mother and grandmother Mary W.
Jackson,” said, Carolyn Lewis, Mary’s daughter. “She was a scientist, humanitarian, wife, mother, and
trailblazer who paved the way for thousands of others to succeed, not only at NASA, but throughout this
nation.”
Jackson was born and raised in Hampton, Virginia. After graduating high school, she graduated from
Hampton Institute in 1942 with a dual degree in math and physical sciences, and initially accepted a job
as a math teacher in Calvert County, Maryland. She would work as a bookkeeper, marry Levi Jackson
and start a family, and work a job as a U.S. Army secretary before her aerospace career would take off.
https://www.nasa.gov/press-release/nasa-names-headquarters-after-hidden-figure-mary-w-jackson
35. Who is the current NASA Administrator, redacted as [x] in the passage?
(a) Thomas O’Paine
(b) James Fletcher
(c) Robert Frosch
(d) Jim Bridenstine
36. NASA has recently started developing a new spacecraft to explore a 226 km wide mineral rich asteroid
located between Mars and Jupiter. What is the name of the asteroid?
(a) Ceres
(b) Vesta
(c) 16 Psyche
(d) Pallas

MOCK CLAT #01
37. NASA astronauts Doug Hurley and Bob Behnken became a part of space history as the first American
astronauts to be sent into space by a private company. What is the name of that company?
(a) Airbus
(b) Space X
(c) GE Aviation
38. Where is NASA headquarters located, redacted as [y] in the passage?
(a) Palo Alto California
(b) Washington DC
(c) Cape Canaveral Florida
39. What is the name of NASA’s interplanetary mission to conduct detailed reconnaissance of Jupiter's
moon?
(a) CALIPSO
(b) Curiosity
(c) EPOXI
(d) Europa Clipper
Passage (Q.40-Q.44): Finance Minister, NirmalaSitharaman on 5th July 2019, announced to launch
'MatsyaSampadaYojana’ aimed to increase the fish and aquatic products through appropriate policy,
marketing and infrastructure support. The CCE has approved renaming of SAMPADA which was [x]
earlier, as Pradhan MantriKisanSampadaYojana (PMKSY). It was approved by the CCEA in May 2017
for the period of 2016-20 coterminous with the 14th Finance Commission cycle.
The objective of the scheme is to supplement or increase agriculture, modernize processing and
decrease agricultural-waste and to utilize the potential in the fishery sector. The government proposed a
Pradhan MantriMatsyaSampadaYojana (PMMSY) to establish a robust fisheries management framework
and check gaps in the value chain. Government has made it clear that [y] Revolutionand has the potential
to attain the first place in the world in fish production. It includes MoFPI’s schemes such as Food Parks,
Food Safety and Infrastructure.
Financial Allowance
It will have budget of Rs. 6000 and is expected to hold investment of Rs. 31,400 crore, handling of about
334 lakh MT agro-produce valuing Rs. 1 lakh 4 thousand 125 crore. Around 2 million farmers will have
benefit from this Yojna and will generate about 5 lakh 30 thousand direct or indirect employment in the
country in 2019-2020.
Significance
• This yojana will create modern infrastructure with efficient supply chain management from farm gate
to retail outlet.
• It will increase growth of food processing sector in the country.
• It will increase GDP, Employment and investment.
• It will help in reducing huge wastage of agriculture products.
• It will help in providing better prices to farmers and double their of income.
Funds
Last year, the Cabinet had set up Rs 7,522 crore special Fisheries and Aquaculture Infrastructure
Development Fund (FIDF). This fund will be used for creation of fisheries infrastructure facilities both in
marine and inland fisheries sectors. The government has set a target for fish production and that is to
achieve the target of 15 million tonne by 2020 under this Revolution, and raise it to about 20 million
tonnes by 2022-23.
This is a big step taken by the government to double the income of farmers.
40. What is the full form of SAMPADA redacted as [x] in the above passage?
(a) Scheme for Agro-Marine Processing and Development of Agro-Processing Clusters
(b) Scheme for Agro-Marine Processing and Development of Agro-Assessing Clusters
(c) Scheme for Agro-Marine Producing and Development of Agro-Processing Clusters
(d) Scheme for Agro-Marine Processing and Development of Agro-Based Clusters
MOCK CLAT #01
41. Name the relevant revolution redacted as y in the above passage? Blue
(a) Fish
(b) Marine
(c) Orange
(d) Blue
42. Who is the current union minister for The Ministry of Food Processing Industries(MoFPI)?
(a) SadanandaGowda
(b) Shri Narendra Singh Tomar
(c) GirirajSingh
(d) Harsimrat Kaur Badal
43. What is the full form of CCEA as used in the above passage?
(a) Cabinet Committee on Environmental Affairs
(b) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
(c) Cabinet Committee on Educational Affairs
(d) Cabinet Committee on Excise Affairs
44. Consider the following aims and objectives.

A. Harnessing of fisheries potential in a sustainable, responsible, inclusive and equitable manner
B. Enhancing of fish production and productivity through expansion, intensification, diversification and
productive utilization of land and water
C. Modernizing and strengthening of value chain - post-harvest management and quality improvement
D. Doubling fishers and fish farmers incomes and generation of employment
Which among these is not an aim or objective of the PMMSY?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
Passage (Q.45-Q.49): In an aim to create a bridge between athletes and the National Anti-Doping
Agency (NADA), Union Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports [x] on Tuesday launched NADA India's
mobile app.
The app provides easily-accessible information on various aspects of the sport, and most importantly
about prohibited substances, the inadvertent use of which may lead to the athlete`s career being
hampered.
He congratulated the agency for their initiative and said it is a `very important` step towards practicing
clean sport.
"I congratulate NADA on this initiative. It is a very important step for Indian sport because we are working
towards clean sports and the first step in that direction is to create awareness and provide relevant,
accessible information to athletes so that they know which medication or substances are not to be used
by them," Minister said in a statement.
"With this app, athletes can check for themselves the list of prohibited substances and don`t have to
depend on anyone else for assistance. I am also happy that we have taken yet another step to fulfill our
Prime Minister`s dream of a digital India," the minister added.
The app also has exhaustive information about whether a specific commonly-prescribed medicine
contains any substance that is prohibited by NADA, therefore helping athletes and coaches to decide
medicines that athletes can consume in case they are unwell. To ensure a smoother, quicker process of
dope tests for athletes, the app allows the doping control officer to record their availability to conduct a
test through the app.
The launch was attended by Sports Secretary, Ravi Mital and Director General of NADA, Navin Agarwal.

MOCK CLAT #01
45. Name the minister redacted as [x] in the above passage

(a) KirenRijiju
(b) PiyushGoyal
(c) Pralhad Joshi
(d) MahendraNath Pandey
46. What is the name of the application mentioned in the above passage?
(a) Anti-Doping India
(b) Nada India
(c) CureFit
(d) NADA
47. Where is the headquarter of NADA?

(a) New Delhi
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Patiala
(d) Mumbai
48. NADA deals with adopting and implementing anti-doping rules and policies which conform with the World
Anti-Doping Agency(WADA). This agency(WADA) was initiated by which body?
(a) International Olympic Committee
(b) Organising Committee for the Commonwealth Games
(c) FIFA
(d) United Nations
49. The NADA was registered in November 24, 2005 with a mandate for Dope free sports in India. It was
registered under which Act?
(a) Co-operative Societies Act
(b) Societies Registration Act
(c) Companies Act
(d) Indian Trust Act
Passage (Q.50-Q.54): KK Venugopalhas been re-appointed as Attorney General of India for a period of
one year.
" KKVenugopal, Senior Advocate as Attorney General for India for a period of one year with effect from
July 1," read the notification.
It further read that [x] has been re-appointed as the Solicitor General for a period of 3 years or until
further orders.
Senior lawyer, Chetan Sharma has been appointed as Additional Solicitor General (ASG) for Delhi High
Court.
The Appointments Committee of the Union Cabinet has re-appointed the existing five Additional Solicitor
General (ASG) for another 3 years in the Supreme Court.
The Committee also appointed as five ASGs for the High Courts for a period of three years:
YezdezardJehangirDastoor for the Calcutta High Court, Chetan Sharma for the Delhi High Court, R.
Sankaranarayanan for the Madras High Court, Dr. Krishna Nandan Singh for the Patna High Court and
DevangGirish Vyas for the Gujarat high court.
50. KK Venugopal served as a Constitutional Adviser for the Royal Government of a foreign country. Name
the country.
(a) Nepal
(b) Bhutan
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Myanmar

MOCK CLAT #01
51. Who is the Solicitor General redacted as [x] in the above passage?
(a) RohintonNariman
(b) Mohan Parasaran
(c) Ranjit Kumar
(d) Tushar Mehta
52. Who was the first Attorney General of India?-
(a) C. K. Daphtary
(b) Soli Sorabjee
(c) M.C Setalvad
(d) Niren De
53. Which Article of Constitution provides for Solicitor General of India?

(a) Article 76
(b) Article 77
(c) Article 332
54. K.K. Venugopal has been conferred with the second and third highest civilian honour by the Indian
Government. Name the fourth highest civilian honour in India.
(a) Padma Vibhushan
(b) Padma Shri
(c) Padma Bhushan
(d) Vir Chakra
Passage (Q.55-Q.59): The [x] government on Monday launched Project [y], the world’s largest
convalescent plasma therapy trial-cum-project for treatment of patients with severe covid-19 infection, as
active cases continue to rise in the state.
Convalescent plasma therapy is emerging as one of the most prominent methods in treatment of patients
in the absence of definite treatment or drugs for the same.
The trial and treatment of plasma therapy will be free of cost in 17 medical colleges under the state's
department of medical education. Funding to support this plasma therapy trial has been done through the
CM Relief fund wherein the chief minister has sanctioned ₹16.85 crore for the project.
On Sunday, the state reported a record 5493 new covid-19 cases taking the state's tally of covid-19
positive cases to 1,64,626.
"It will be world's largest trial cum treatment project, where in we intend to benefit and save around 500
lives of critically ill covid 19 patients of the state. The donors are available in large numbers," the state
government said in a press statement.
All critical patients will receive two doses of 200 ml of convalescent plasma. The plasma of recovered
covid-19 patients contains antibodies against corona virus thereby fighting infection and helping critically
ill patients.
"This trial will help formulate definite treatment guidelines for the entire country in managing serious covid
patients and thus be a milestone in turning a page in the covid pandemic," the state government said,
adding that the state also intends to take this study further and isolate monoclonal antibodies against
covid from this plasma and study its structure and possibly produce it in an artificial form.
As a collateral benefit, this will create an infrastructure of plasmapheresis in all medical colleges in
various districts of the state. This will help in treatment of dengue, snake bites etc.
"This trial is a government sponsored, and no private/ company financial involvement is there," the state
government clarified. The whole process of planning, getting clearances and completing dedicated covid-
19 plasma banks has been done in 21 days.
55. Name the State conducting this project, redacted as [x] in the above passage.
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Delhi
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
MOCK CLAT #01
56. Name the project[y] as mentioned in the above passage.

(a) Plasma
(b) Immunity
(c) Pluroid
(d) Platina
57. Name India's first indigenous COVID-19 vaccine that is under trial by Bharat Biotech in collaboration with
the Indian Council of Medical Research.
(a) Covaxin
(b) Coronil
(c) Novavax
(d) Cansino
58. Which among the following is considered as the India’s first oral antiviral COVID-19 drug.
(a) Remdesivir
(b) Hydroxychloroquine
(c) Lopinavir
(d) Favipiravir
59. Plasma is one of the four main components of human blood, others areRBC, WBC and platelets. What is
the function of platelets?
(a) It is the main component of blood and consists mostly of water, with proteins, ions, nutrients, and
wastes mixed in.
(b) It responsible for carrying oxygen and carbon dioxide.
(c) It is responsible for blood clotting.
(d) It is part of the immune system and function in immune response.
Passage (Q.60-Q.64): The new President of Malawi, [x], has told the BBC that his win in the rerun
election was a "victory for democracy and justice".
He defeated incumbent Peter Mutharika with 58.57% of votes in Tuesday's poll.
"I do feel like Lazarus, I've come back from the dead," the President said, referring to the biblical
character of the same name.
In February, Malawi's constitutional court annulled Mr Mutharika's poll win in May 2019, citing vote
tampering.
The country was bitterly divided in the run-up to this week's election. But the President said those who
did not support him had nothing to fear.
"There's no cause for fear because I will be your president and my policy for inclusivity means we are
building a new Malawi for all of us," the President told the BBC Newshour programme.
"I'm not a president of a faction, I'm a president of everyone in the country," he added.
He dismissed allegations by Mr Mutharika that the poll was marred by violence and irregularities, saying
his predecessor was "misled by rumours".
However, he said he would not stand in the way of Mr Mutharika should he want to challenge the
election.
60. Who is the newly elected President of Malawi referred to as [x] in the above passage?
(a) SaulosChilima
(b) Lazarus Chakwera
(c) Gospel Kazako
(d) Joyce Banda

MOCK CLAT #01
61. The previous election results were highly criticized by the opposition parties of Malawi and called the
election as the Tipp-Ex election. Which of the statements is not true about Tipp-Ex election.
(a) Tipp-Ex is a brand of correction fluid and other related products that is popular throughout Europe.
(b) It is generally a blue colour liquid used to make corrections that removes print marks from paper.
(c) As a result of the invention of Tipp-Ex, it became possible to erase a typographical error made on a
typewriter.
(d) A particularly contentious issue during the election was the use of a correction fluid – Tipp-Ex –
allegedly to alter the recorded number of votes on signed (or unsigned) forms changing the outcome
of the election.
62. A constitutional court set aside Mutharika’s election as President. What is the bench strength of a
constitutional court in India?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Five or more
(d) Eight or more
63. What is the manner of election of a President in India?

(a) Election by the Members of LokSabha and RajyaSabha
(b) Election by the Members of LokSabha, RajyaSabha and VidhanSabha of States
(c) Election by the Members of LokSabha, RajyaSabha,VidhanSabha’s and elected members of local
government.
(d) Election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation
by means of single transferable vote and the voting at such election shall be by secret ballot by an
electoral college.
64. Who was elected the Vice President of Malawi?

(a) SaulosChilima
(b) Lazarus Chakwera
(c) Gospel Kazako
(d) Joyce Banda
Passage (Q.65-Q.68): Sports Minister [x] has said that his government will soon launch Target Olympic
Podium Scheme (TOPS) for junior athletes in the country with an aim to produce Olympic champions by
2028.
Sports Minister announced the decision during the ‘Fit HaiTo Hit Hai Fit India’ webinar on Friday which
was also attended by HRD minister Dr Ramesh Pokhriyal, Olympic medallistshuttler PV Sindhu and India
football captain Sunil Chhetri.
“This is a dream of every Indian and I am just trying to translate it into a mission. Olympics is the biggest
event on the planet and when India does not figure anywhere in the medals tally it really hurts,” the
Sports Minister said.
“We have worked hard to achieve our goals, we have made big base. The TOPS is currently there for
senior athletes who are medal prospects in Olympics but we will soon launch the TOPS for the juniors as
well.”
He said the government will identify 10 to 12-year-old talents and adopt them.
“We will take care of their every need and prepare them as medal prospects by 2028 Olympics,” he
added.
Minister reiterated that India can finish in the top-10 of the medal tally in 2028 Los Angeles Olympics.
“When I became Sports Minister I set a target of finishing in top 10 in the medals tally in 2028 Olympics
and it is achievable. I am saying this with full conviction,” he said.
During the webinar, Sports Minister also emphasised on the need to become a fitter nation and said the
Fit India movement has been contributing a lot towards that goal. “Fit India movement has become a
people’s movement in true sense. The ultimate aim of this movement is to make India,” he said.

MOCK CLAT #01
65. Who is the current Sports Minister of India?

(a) Hardeep Singh Puri
(b) Santosh Gangwar
(c) RK Singh
(d) KirenRijiju
66. When was TOPS Scheme launched?

(a) 2011
(b) 2012
(c) 2013
(d) 2014
67. Where is 2028 Olympics scheduled to be held?

(a) Sacramento
(b) San Diego
(c) Los Angeles
(d) San Francisco
68. Under ‘Fit Hai to Hit Hai India’ programme, a total of six talk sessions will be held where leading sports
celebrities will participate and share their life experiences from failures struggles and to success, also will
be sharing fitness tips. Which of the following participated in the first session?
(a) Sachin Tendulkar, Rahul Dravid
(b) Mithali Raj, Harmanpreet Kaur
(c) P.V Sindhu, Sunil Chhetri

MOCK CLAT #01
SECTION – C :LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.69-Q.103): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions based on it.
(Q.69-Q.74): Criminal conspiracy under the Indian Penal Code (IPC) is a substantive offence in itself and
punishable separately. There have been rare instances where persons have been tried for commission of
the substantive act of criminal conspiracy.
However, most commonly, the charge of criminal conspiracy is slapped on an accused person along with
the charge of a substantive offence under the IPC or any other law which he may be accused of
committing along with other co-conspirators.
Criminal conspiracy is hatched to commit an illegal act which is an offence punishable under law. It is not
essential that the accused person must do an overt act, and mere agreement between two or more
persons to commit an illegal act is sufficient to constitute the offence of criminal conspiracy. It is also not
necessary that the object of the conspiracy should have been achieved for it to be considered as an
offence. Even if the conspiracy fails on account of abandonment or detection before commission of
offence, the very act of entering into an agreement by the co-conspirators is itself an offence and
punishable under the law.
69. Ajab with the intention of winning the elections in the Resident Welfare Association spreads around false
information along with Gajab about Bhola, a competition who is also seen as a viable candidate for the
election. This not only leads to Bhola losing the elections but also, Bhola being portrayed in a bad light in
the society. This affected Bhola’s life, personally and professionally.
(a) Both Ajab and Gajab will be liable for spreading false information against Bhola.
(b) Both Ajab and Gajab will be liable for committing criminal conspiracy against Bhola.
(c) Both Ajab and Gajab will be liable for defamation of Bhola.
(d) Only Ajab will be liable for defamation and not Gajab.
70. Persons A, B, C and D conspire to rob the local bank for which they decide that A and B would threaten
the bank manager at the counter, C would take care of the situation at the gate and D would keep the car
ready for A, B, and C when they successfully rob the bank.
(a) All A, B, C and D are liable for committing criminal conspiracy.
(b) Only A and B will be liable for committing criminal conspiracy.
(c) All A, B, C and D are liable for committing criminal conspiracy, but C and D will be exempted from
punishment.
(d) All A, B, C and D are liable for committing criminal conspiracy, but C and D will be allowed to plea
bargain.
71. Referring to the above question, if D did not know of the objective and intention of A, B and C and was
merely a taxi driver who was being paid for his job, then would D be liable under the offence of criminal
conspiracy?
(a) D would not be liable as he did not have knowledge of the main object and purpose for which A, B
and C came together.
(b) D would not be liable as he is not gaining any money in the heist.
(c) D would be held liable as mala fide intention can be formed at a moment, pre meditated intention is
not a necessary requirement.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
72. Referring to question 2, what if A and B first decided to rob the bank and later C joined them, knowing
what the agreement is for and having the intention to do the same. Will C fetch any liability under Indian
Penal Code?
(a) No, C will not be held liable as he was not a part of initial plan and joined only later.
(b) No, C will not be held liable as the conspiracy was done by A and B.
(c) Yes, C will be held liable as conspiracy can be developed in successive stage.
(d) Yes, C will be liable as he joined the two after becoming aware of the object and had developed the
same mala fide intention.

MOCK CLAT #01
73. Six persons agreed to commit robbery in the house of Mr. Santosh Jain, a jeweler merchant. It was
agreed that robbery would be committed on the night of 1st May 2006 at about midnight. On the agreed
day at the agreed time, only four of them were present. They attempted robbery and were caught by the
locals. The other two were nowhere to be found around the crime site. Decide the liability.
(a) The offence of criminal conspiracy has been committed. There are six persons involved. All will be
liable.
(b) The offence of robbery was not committed as they couldn’t execute their plan properly and were
caught mid-way.
(c) There is conspiracy to commit the offence of Dacoity and all except the two will be liable.
(d) The other two persons are deemed to have participated in the robbery. Hence the offence under IPC
has been committed.
74. Which among the following statement cannot be referred in affirmation from the given passage?
(a) Criminal conspiracy includes any legal act which is done through illegal means by any person.
(b) Two or more person when commit a murder, will be charged for criminal conspiracy.
(c) An overt act in consonance with a plan to commit an offence is not an essential requirement.
(d) Even if two or more person fail to commit an offence, yet will be charged for criminal conspiracy.
(Q.75-Q.79): Copyright is a form of intellectual property protection granted under Indian law to the
creators of original works of authorship such as literary works (including computer programs, tables and
compilations including computer databases which may be expressed in words, codes, schemes or in any
other form, including a machine-readable medium), dramatic, musical and artistic works, cinematographic
films and sound recordings.
Copyright law protects expressions of ideas rather than the ideas themselves. Under section 13 of the
Copyright Act 1957, copyright protection is conferred on literary works, dramatic works, musical works,
artistic works, cinematograph films, and sound recording. For example, books, computer programs are
protected under the Act as literary works.
Copyright refers to a bundle of exclusive rights vested in the owner of copyright by virtue of Section 14 of
the Act. These rights can be exercised only by the owner of the copyright or by any other person who is
duly licensed in this regard by the owner of the copyright. These rights include the right of adaptation,
right of reproduction, right of publication, right to make translations, communication to public etc.
Copyright protection is conferred on all Original literary, artistic, musical or dramatic, cinematography and
sound recording works. Original means, that the work has not been copied from any other source.
Copyright protection commences the moment a work is created, and its registration is optional. However,
it is always advisable to obtain a registration for better protection. Copyright registration does not confer
any rights and is merely a prima facie proof of an entry in respect of the work in the Copyright Register
maintained by the Registrar of Copyrights.
As per Section 17 of the Act, the author or creator of the work is the first owner of the copyright. An
exception to this rule is that the employer becomes the owner of the copyright in circumstances where
the employee creates a work in the course of and scope of employment. Copyright registration is
invaluable to a copyright holder who wishes to take civil or criminal action against the infringer.
75. Adam and Danny are renowned writers in the world of literature. Adam comes out with a book which is a
big hit. Danny decides to write the translation of Adam’s book. This turns out to be great. However,
Danny fails to take the consent of Adam before publishing the translation. Adam files a suit challenging it
and claims it to be a clear infringement of the copyright. Decide.
(a) The suit is not maintainable as the translation would not be an exact copy to the original work.
(b) The suit is not maintainable as it was not necessary to take consent.
(c) The suit is maintainable and it amounts to copyright infringement.
(d) The suit is maintainable but would not be covered under copyright law.

MOCK CLAT #01
76. X and Y are best friends. X in good faith and confidence narrates a plot to Y. X expresses his intention to
make a movie on the plot narrated by him. Y takes advantage of the situation and releases a movie
before X could. The movie yields huge financial returns. Aggrieved by this, X files a claim against Y for
copyright infringement. Decide.
(a) The claim will succeed as it the plot belonged to X.
(b) The claim will succeed as the narration was made in good faith.
(c) The claim will succeed as Y failed to take the consent of X.
(d) The claim will not succeed as it was just a mere idea.
77. June and Julie are renowned personalities in the film industry. June released a movie on partition of India
just after a week of a similar partition movie released by Julie. Both the movies had similar scenes of
bloodshed, riots etc. Enraged by this, Julie files a complaint against June for copying the original work of
Julie. Decide.
(a) Julie will succeed as his work was published before June.
(b) Julie will succeed as the June’s movie had similar scenes.
(c) Julie will not succeed as such scenes are integral to partition movies.
(d) Julie will not succeed as there is possibility that it was June’s original idea.
78. Anand writes romantic plays and is popular for his work among the theatre artists. Recently, he wrote a
play highlighting the struggles of inter-community couples. Anand used to work for a production house,
ASD Deluxe and the chief manager of the ASD Deluxe is still fond of his work. ASD Deluxe comes out
with a movie based on the theme of inter-community couples highlighting other issues like dowry etc. as
well. Anand was disturbed after witnessing this unfortunate event and decided to file a claim against ASD
Deluxe. Decide.
(a) Anand will succeed as it was his original work and this amount to copyright infringement.
(b) Anand will not succeed as the modes of expression were different.
(c) Anand will succeed as they fail to take consent before moving further with such reproduction of the
work.
(d) Anand will not succeed as the theme was similar but not the expression.
79. Based on the information provided in the passage, decide whether the book keeping system to maintain
the accounts can be copyrighted by companies based on the arrangement that they release in their
record books?
(a) The system can be copyrighted as it would be unique to every company.
(b) The system cannot be copyrighted as it is a general technique available to all and used by all.
(c) The system can be copyrighted by the ones who introduced the system.
(d) The system can be copyrighted depending on the aspects of expression and arrangement.
(Q.80-Q.84): Defamation, which works contrary to the popular rhyme, “Sticks and stones will break my
bones, but words will never hurt me”, was derived from the Latin term ‘Diffamare’ which means
‘spreading evil report about someone’. The offence of defamation involves causing damage to the
reputation of the other. Justice Cave therefore very rightly defined defamation as a “false statement about
a man to his discredit.”
Salmond and Heuston on the Law of Torts, 20th edition defined a defamatory statement as under-
“A defamatory statement is one which has a tendency to injure the reputation of the person to whom it
refers; which tends, that is to say, to lower him in the estimation of right thinking members of the society
generally and in particular to cause him to be regarded with feelings of hatred, contempt, ridicule, fear,
dislike or disesteem. The statement is judged by the standard of an ordinary, right thinking member of the
society.”
The right to reputation, which is recognized as a dimension of the right to privacy, fundamental right
under Article 21 of the Constitution of India, is what is protected by the law of defamation. Reputation is
how a person is perceived by others, i.e. the opinion of the community against a person. The Supreme
Court in a landmark judgment held that an individual has a right to protect his reputation from being
unfairly harmed and such protection of reputation needs to exist not only against falsehood but also

MOCK CLAT #01
certain truths. Intention to cause harm to reputation of a person is sine qua non of the offense of
defamation.
Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 reads as follows-
“Whoever, by words either spoken or intended to be read, or by signs or by visible representations,
makes or publishes any imputation concerning any person intending to harm, or knowing or having
reason to believe that such imputation will harm, the reputation of such person, is said, except in the
cases hereinafter expected, to defame that person.”
Therefore, the essential elements which constitute defamation are-
1. Publication of words, spoken or written or signs or any visual representation;
2. With the intention or belief that such imputation would lower the estimation of such a person.
3. Such defamation is done before the right thinking members of the society.
Publication which is the primary sense of communication becomes one of the most important factors in
suit for defamation. It is publication through which the third party gets to hear or come to know about the
alleged defamatory imputations. Such a publication could be done in 2 ways-
a. Libel– This is words written
b. Slander– This is words spoken, thus temporary in nature.
80. BabuBhaiya tells Raju, who manages Babu Bhaiya’s kirana shop that – “Sell nothing to Devi Prasad
unless he pays you ready money, for I have no opinion of his honesty”. When Devi Prasad comes to buy
ration from the shop, Raju refuses to sell him ration and tells him about the warning given by Babu
Bhaiya. Outraged by this, Devi Prasad files a suit for defamation against Babu Bhaiya. Will Devi Prasad
succeed?
(a) Devi Prasad will succeed as Babu Bhaiya made a defamatory statement against him and conveyed
the same to Raju.
(b) Devi Prasad will succeed as Babu Bhaiya deliberately degraded Devi’s reputation in front of Raju and
therefore should be charged under IPC.
(c) Devi Prasad will not succeed as Babu Bhaiya made certain imputations in good faith to save himself
from any further losses.
(d) Devi Prasad will not succeed as there was no publication of the defamatory statement.
81. Mr. Unjust a sitting judge of sessions court, while rejecting the bail application of Hasina who is involved
in a case of contractual fraud, called her a woman of bad character and made remarks about her being
physically involved with men without marriage. Hasina filed a case against Mr. Unjust for defaming her.
Decide.
(a) Hasina will succeed as remarks made by Mr. Unjust were uncalled for and are defamatory in nature.
(b) Hasina will succeed as remarks made by Mr. Unjust harmed her reputation in the eyes of right
thinking people of society.
(c) Hasina will not succeed as she is an accused in an unlawful act and Mr. Unjust said what is true in
reality.
82. The Standard, a reputed Newspaper, initiated an ad campaign where it exhibited how irrelevant
information is provided by other newspapers. Seeing the ad, people started creating mockery of
Birmingham Post, rival newspaper of The Standard, believing that ad by The Standard was meant
against Birmingham Post. It was found the ad was created by H. Salmond, editor of The Standard. In the
meantime, Daily Post, another newspaper, also objected to the ad stating that along with Birmingham
Post, it was also referred in the ad which was clear from the usage of the word "Post".
Against this, Birmingham Post also initiated an ad campaign thereby mentioning how The Standard is
maligning it by providing unauthentic information. This led to the reputation loss of The Standard.
Meanwhile, H. Salmond delivered a speech expressing how several newspapers are providing wrong
and irrelevant information, and that one should refer The Standard only. Birmingham Post filed a
defamation suit against The Standard for the ad campaign. Will Birmingham Post succeed in its claim?
(a) Birmingham Post will succeed since the ad campaign by The Standard was understood to be against
Birmingham Post by reasonable men.
(b) Birmingham Post will not succeed since ad campaign was not against it.
(c) Birmingham Post will not succeed since the ad campaign was not untruthful and false in nature.
(d) Birmingham Post will succeed since ad campaign caused reputation loss to it.

MOCK CLAT #01
83. In the above question, Daily Post also filed a defamation suit against The Standard for the ad campaign
since word "Post" was mentioned in it. Will Daily Post succeed in its claim?
(a) Daily Post will not succeed since there was nothing in the ad which was against Daily Post
unambiguously.
(b) Daily Post will succeed since the usage of word "Post" made it clear that ad campaign was directed
towards it.
(c) Daily Post will succeed since the ad campaign was meant to damage the reputation of both
Birmingham Post and Daily Post.
(d) Daily Post will succeed since ad campaign did not have any proof for alleging that other newspapers
provide irrelevant information.
84. The Standard filed a defamation suit against Birmingham Post for mentioning that The Standard had
been maligning it. Will The Standard succeed in its claim?
(a) Yes, The Standard will succeed since ad campaign of Birmingham Post was truthful and justified.
(b) Yes, The Standard will succeed since ad campaign by Birmingham Post was meant against The
Standard.
(c) No, The Standard will not succeed since ad campaign only represented information which was true.
(d) No, The Standard will not succeed since by ad campaign Birmingham Post was merely exercising
freedom of speech.
(Q.85 – Q.89): In the law of torts, if any person commits any wrongful act which causes injury to another
person, he is held liable and has to pay damages or provide some other remedy which the Court
determines, to the victim of such an act. But in some cases even if a person suffers some loss because
of the act of another person, he cannot claim damages from that person because of the operation of
defenses of tort. One such defense available to a defendant is the defense of volenti non fit injuria in
which the plaintiff is not entitled to damages because he consents to the act which has caused injury to
him. Under these defenses, a defendant can escape liability and volenti non-fit injuria is also one such
defense which is available for the defendant. In case a person gives his consent to doing of an act which
leads to him getting injured, then even if an injury is caused by the other person, he cannot claim any
damages from that person because the act was one for which he voluntarily consented. The consent of
the plaintiff acts as a defense and this defense is called volenti non fit injuria which means to a willing
person no injury happens. For the application of the defence of volenti non fit injuria there are some
essential elements or conditions which should be present in a case and only when they are fulfilled, this
defence can be taken to prevent liability.
There are 2 essential elements in this defence:
1. The plaintiff has the knowledge of the risk
2. The plaintiff with the knowledge of risk has voluntarily agreed to suffer the harm.
Thus, whenever the plaintiff is aware of the possibility of harm which is likely to be caused by an act and
when he still accepts to do that act and therefore agrees to suffer the injury, a defendant is relieved of his
liability.
85. Amita lives in the city of Jaipur. She is a responsible and caring towards the fellow beings. At one
instance, a fire breaks out in her locality and a child was stuck inside. She called the fire brigade but they
said it would take them an hour to reach the destination. Worried for the child she goes inside the house
and saves the child. However, she succumbs to the fumes. The family of Amita asks for compensation
from the company whose faulty wiring caused the fire in the house. Decide.
(a) The company is not liable as the risk was willingly accepted by Amita.
(b) The company is liable as Amita was consented to saving the life and not succumbing to fire.
(c) The company is liable as it was due to their faulty wiring.
(d) The company is liable as her consent was influenced due to the situation.

MOCK CLAT #01
86. Manoj is a renowned footballer in the city of Bhopal. While playing in a match he receives a long pass
from his teammate and has an open run to the goal having left the goalkeeper behind. In an attempt to
save the goal, the goalkeeper hurls hitting Manoj in the back and breaking it. Manoj is paralyzed because
of this and decides to move against the goalkeeper. Decide.
(a) The goalkeeper is liable as he intentionally caused injuries to Manoj.
(b) The goalkeeper is not liable as Manoj consented to the risks of football.
(c) The goalkeeper is liable as Manoj did not consent to such injuries.
(d) The goalkeeper is not liable as Manoj has knowledge of the risks of the game.
87. Manish is an employee in a brewery owned by Shivani. At one instance, he was trying to remove the lid
from the boiling vat. Further, when he made a harder pull the lid came off but he fell back on the cooling
vat which contained a harmful liquid. Aggrieved by this, he decided to claim the amount for damages but
Shivani claimed the defense of Volenti Non Fit Injuria. Decide.
(a) The claim is justified as Shivani failed to provide adequate safety measures.
(b) The claim is not justified as Manish was aware of the risks and voluntarily encountered the same.
(c) The claim is justified as Manish did not consent to the injuries.
(d) The claim is justified this was an outcome of the wrongful act of Shivani due to which Manish became
the sufferer.
88. Meena decided to visit a doctor on account of lumps being developed around her breasts. The doctor
consulted for a surgery for the same. While the surgery was being performed, the doctor had not so firm
grounds to believe that these lumps were caused by the uterus so he removed it believing that it would
prevent development of lumps in the future. When Meena came to know about this, she filed a suit.
Decide.
(a) The suit is not maintainable as she voluntarily consented to operate.
(b) The suit is not maintainable as the doctor to look into the best interest of Meena.
(c) The suit is maintainable as the consent was for the removal of lumps and not the uterus.
(d) The suit is not maintainable as she had the knowledge of the associated risks of the operation which
was to be cured.
89. Amit was walking down along a narrow train tunnel on the railway track which was owned and occupied
by Railways. The company was aware that the tunnel was used by the members of the public so they
asked the drivers to signal the people by whistling and slowing down while entering the tunnel. When
Amit was walking through it, the driver failed to follow the aforementioned instructions. Pursuant to this
negligent driving, Amit sustained injuries. He decided to file a claim for compensation from railways due
to the negligence of their driver. Decide.
(a) The claim will succeed as the driver was negligent.
(b) The claim will not succeed as he consented to the risk of entering a narrow tunnel.
(c) The claim will succeed as he did not consent to negligent driving of the driver.
(d) The claim will not succeed as the passage was owned by railway authorities and was not for the
public to use.
(Q.90–Q.94): The laws related to Extortion have been entailed in Section 383- 389 of IPC. The definition
of ‘Extortion’ is given under Section 383 of IPC. Section 384 IPC contains the penalty for extortion
whereas Section 385 of IPC entails the punishment for an attempt to commit extortion. It must be noted
that Section 386 to 389 go on to the extent of discussing much harsher punishments for much-
aggravated forms of extortion.
As per Section 383 IPC, extortion is an act to put someone in fear of injury or any other harm to obtain his
property or any other valuable item. Section 383 IPC reads as follows:
“Whoever intentionally puts any person in fear of any injury to that person, or to any other, and thereby
dishonestly induces the person so put in fear to deliver to any person any property or valuable security,
or anything signed or sealed which may be converted into a valuable security, commits “extortion”.”
The main essence of Section 383 is obtaining the delivery of property or any item of value in
consequence of dishonest inducement. To be more precise, an intention to cause wrongful loss to one
and wrongful gain to other is an essential ingredient of extortion.

MOCK CLAT #01
Essential elements:
1. Intentionally putting a person in fear of injury: It is a must that the person must have an intention to
cause a wrongful gain to one and wrongful loss to another in a manner where another person is put
under threat. The actual delivery of the property is essential to constitute extortion.
2. The purpose of which is to dishonestly induce the person put in fear: The objective of the 0ffence
should have been towards the furtherance of the crime of Extortion.
3. To deliver property or valuable security: The actual transaction must have happened to have the
section come into play in its entirety. If at all, for any reason.
Section 384 contains the punishment for extortion. Section 384 is a cognizable offence wherein police
may arrest without warrant and the same is triable by any Magistrate. However, ordinarily, the warrant is
required to be issued in the first instance. It is a non- bailable offence and cannot be compounded.
Section 384 IPC reads as under: “Whoever commits extortion shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.”
90. MukeshMehra, threatens Om Kapoor to hand him over Om’s one lakh cash prize which Om won at Film
Fare Awards. When Om refuses to hand over the money, Mukesh Mehra threatens Om by saying that he
will put Shanti (Om’s love interest) on fire. Om, who is pyrophobic gets scared of losing Shanti, hands
over one lakh rupees to Mukesh Mehra. Decide.
(a) Mukesh Mehra is liable for extortion as he made Om deliver his property.
(b) Mukesh Mehra is liable for extortion as he caused injury to Om while putting him in fear.
(c) Mukesh Mehra is liable for extortion as he made Om deliver his property by dishonestly putting him
under fear of setting Shanti on fire.
(d) Mukesh Mehra is not liable as he lacked mala fide intention when he put Om under fear.
91. Popat and Chopat got to know about Mr. Joss having an extra marital affair. Popat and Chopat, who are
unable to secure job due to pandemic and finding themselves low on cash decided to make good use of
the Mr. Joss’s situation. They stalked him and clicked few pictures of Mr. Joss and sent him same over
the mail threatening to disclose his extra marital affair if he doesn’t meet their demand of Rupees 5
Lakhs. Mr. Joss, who is not much bothered about his reputation and bad consequences in his marital
bliss doesn’t give a heed to the threat and refused to hand over the money. Later Mr. Joss filed a case of
extortion against Popat and Chopat. Will Mr Joss succeed?
(a) Mr. Joss will succeed as he was put in fear of injury to his reputation and was subjected to the
demand for Rs 5 Lakhs.
(b) Mr. Joss will succeed as any person on his caliber would get scared and will deliver the money.
(c) Mr. Joss will not succeed as though there was threat to reputation yet he did not give away any
valuable property.
(d) Mr. Joss will not succeed as threat to reputation is not considered under the definition of extortion
under penal laws.
92. Gunther owns a porcelain coffee mug which was gifted to him by his late aunt and is also Gunther’s
prized possessions. Rachel, whom Gunther loves unrequitedly, wants the porcelain coffee mug. Rachel
understanding Gunther’s obsession with her, offered to go out on a date with him if he give her the
porcelain coffee mug. Gunther who had to make a difficult choice went ahead and gave the coffee mug to
Rachel. Later, Rachel refused to go out with Gunther and instead went out with Paolo. Gunther wants to
file a case against Rachel for under Section 383 of IPC.
(a) Gunther will succeed as Rachel ditched him with dishonest intention to get the porcelain coffee mug
from him.
(b) Gunther will not succeed as Rachel did not put him in intentional fear of injury, making him deliver the
coffee mug.
(c) Gunther will not succeed as Rachel lacked dishonest intention.
(d) Gunther will not succeed as it was a mere promise and such trivial acts are not punishable under
Indian penal laws.

MOCK CLAT #01
93. Sam, a batchmate of Anju made a video clip of Anju bathing in a bath tub. Sam blackmails Anju for
sexual favours and puts her in fear by pointing gun towards her. Anju in fear of losing her life, gives up to
the demands of Sam and before any unfortunate act happens, Anju was saved by her mother Nandini
who beat Sam black and blue. Will the act of Sam qualify under the definition of extortion under Section
383 of IPC?
(a) Sam’s act does not qualify as extortion though he will be held liable for outraging the modesty of a
woman.
(b) Sam’s act does not qualify as extortion as there was no demand for delivery of property or any
valuable security.
(c) Sam’s act of putting gun and causing fear of injury to Anju makes his act an act of extortion.
94. Mohan, a CLAT aspirant is accused of committing extortion and is under trial. Understanding that he
might not get entry to college as only students with no criminal record are eligible for admission, Mohan
tried to settle the matter outside the court by paying a hefty amount to the victim. Which among the
following is correct?
(a) Mohan can settle the matter as extortion is a compoundable and bailable offence.
(b) Mohan can settle the matter as extortion is a compoundable and non bailable offence.
(c) Mohan cannot settle the matter as extortion is a non compoundable and non bailable offence.
(d) Mohan cannot settle the matter as extortion is a non compoundable and bailable offence.
(Q.95–Q.99): In Damayanti v. Union of India, the validity of Hindi Sahitya Sammelan Act, 1962 was
challenged as violative of Article 19(1)(c). The petitioner was a member of an association. The Act
changed the composition of the association and introduced new members. The result of this alteration
was that the members who voluntarily formed the association were now compelled to act in the
association with other members in whose admission they had no say. The Supreme Court held- The Act
violated the rights of the original members of the society to form an association guaranteed under Art 19
(1) (c). “The right to form an association”, the Court said, “necessarily implies that the person forming the
association have also the right to continue to be associated with only those whom they voluntarily admit
in the association. Any law by which members are introduced in the voluntary association without any
option of being given to the members to keep them out, or any law which takes away the membership of
those who have voluntarily joined it, will be a law violating the right to form association.” The Apex Court
also reiterated that fundamental rights (right to association here) are applicable only to laws made by or
administrative actions of the State and do not apply to actions of private persons. The Hindi Sahitya
Sammelan Act does not merely regulate the administration of the affairs of the original society, what it
does is to alter the composition of the society itself. The result of this change in the composition is that
the members who voluntarily formed the association are now compelled to act in the association with
other members who have been imposed as members by the act and in whose admission to membership
they had no say. Such alteration in the composition of the association itself clearly interferes with the right
to continue to function as members of the association which was voluntarily formed by the original
founders. The Act, therefore, violates the right of the original members of the society to form an
association guaranteed under Article 19 (1)(c).
95. Hind Mazdoor Union Limited, a khadi textile cooperative private company, offered an employment
contract of two years to Gyanendra Tiwari. One of the clauses in the employment contract provided that
Gyanendra Tiwari must join Hind Mazdoor Sangh (HMS), one of the trade unions active in Hind Mazdoor
Union Limited. Decide which of the following propositions can be most reasonably inferred through the
application of the given legal passage:
(a) The employment contract offered to Tiwari to join HMS is legal as it does not restrict his freedom not
to join any association.
(b) The condition requiring Tiwari to join HMS cannot bind him as it impinges on his freedom not to join
any association.
(c) Gyanendra Tiwari cannot claim a fundamental right to freedom of association against Hind Mazdoor
Union Limited and therefore, the contract would bind him even though his freedom of association is
restricted.
(d) The employment contract infringes Gyanendra Tiwari’s freedom to decide with whom to associate
and therefore is legally not enforceable.

MOCK CLAT #01
96. If Parliament enacts a law which requires every employee to join the largest trade union in their
workplace mandating Gyanendra Tiwari to join HMS, then:
(a) Such a law would merely govern private action to which fundamental rights do not apply.
(b) Such a law would not curtail any individual’s right to freedom of association.
(c) Neither the employment contract, nor the law of the parliament would be enforceable as they would
curtail the freedom of association.
(d) The law of Parliament would violate an individual’s freedom not to join any association and
therefore be unconstitutional.
97. If Hind Mazdoor Union Limited enter into an agreement with HMS wherein the former agrees to hire only
the existing members of HMS as employees, then:
(a) The agreement would be illegal as it would curtail the union members’ right to decide with whom they
would like to associate.
(b) Such an agreement would infringe the union’s right to decide with whom to associate and therefore is
legally not enforceable.
(c) The agreement would not be enforceable as it would infringe upon the employer’s right not to join an
association.
(d) The constitutionality of this agreement cannot be contested on grounds of contravention of
fundamental rights as such rights are not applicable to private persons.
98. Which among the following cannot be referred from the given passage?
(a) Right to association includes right to continue being associated with one association.
(b) Right to association also includes right not to associate.
(c) Right to association also includes right to alter the objective of one’s association.
(d) Right to association can be invoked against policies made by state.
99. Recently Gujarat witnessed a 15 day long violent protest by the workers from different factories in the
state demanding safe and secured work environment. Fearing that such protest might fire up again,
government passed a legislation restricting formation of any worker’s union and holding gatherings of any
existing union. Mohan, the head of the department at a shirt manufacturing factory wishes to form a
worker’s union to support the cause of the workers. He was restricted under the newly passed legislation.
Mohan challenges the same in court of law.
(a) Mohan will succeed as it is violation of fundamental right to freedom of association.
(b) Mohan will not succeed as he can join some already existing worker’s union.
(c) Mohan will not succeed as government can put reasonable restrictions on fundamental right.
(d) None of the above.
(Q.100–Q.103): The Uttar Pradesh government has cleared the Uttar Pradesh Prevention of Cow
Slaughter (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020, which imposes stringent penalties for the offence of cow
slaughter.
The penalties under the Ordinance include imprisonment ranging from one year to ten years and fines
ranging from Rs. 1 lakh and 5 lakh.
Under the existing legislation - the Uttar Pradesh Prevention of Cow Slaughter Act, 1955 - the maximum
penalty is seven years' imprisonment.
Additional Chief Secretary (Home) of the Uttar Pradesh government AwanishAwasthi was quoted as
saying that the Ordinance contains a provision that allows authorities to paste pictures of the accused in
public places if they go on the run.
As per the Ordinance, the accused will also have to bear expenditure related to the maintenance of the
seized cattle for a year or till the animals are released, whichever earlier. Penalties for injury to cattle and
inhumane transportation are also envisioned.
Persons convicted for offences under the Ordinance for a second time will be punished for a "double
penalty".
Back in 2017, the Central government had notified rules pertaining to cattle slaughter, termed
the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Regulation of Livestock Markets) Rules. These Rules became the
subject of challenge in various High Courts, and had eventually reached the Supreme Court.

MOCK CLAT #01
In July 2017, the Centre told the Supreme Court that it will consider the representations received from
various stakeholders and make necessary amendments to the Rules.
100. Hamid Miyan is into the meat exporting business in Delhi. He bought cows from a market in Gorakhpur,
Uttar Pradesh and was transporting it to his slaughter house in Delhi so that his servant could utilize the
cow for the export business. He was caught before he could cross the border of UP and was penalized
under Uttar Pradesh Prevention of Cow Slaughter (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020. Decide.
(a) Penalization of Hamid Miyan is against the stated law as he did not slaughter the cow within the state
of Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Penalization of Hamid Miyan is against the stated law as he himself was not involved in the
slaughtering of the cow.
(c) Penalization of Hamid Miyan is as per the stated law because he bought the cattle for the purpose of
slaughtering.
(d) Penalization of Hamid Miyan is as per the stated law as there is no restriction in slaughter cows in
territory of Delhi.
101. Assuming the above mentioned facts, Will the answer remain the same, if Hamid Miyan had his
slaughtering business in Kanpur and was about to slaughter the cow that he transported from
Gorakhpur?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Can’t say
102. Hardeep is into the transport business and was arrested by police for transporting drums containing
animal flesh to the Lucknow airport for supply in other cities of the state. According to the information
provided in the passage, what provision of the Uttar Pradesh Prevention of Cow Slaughter (Amendment)
Ordinance, 2020 did UP police act under?
(a) UP police did not act as per the provisions of Uttar Pradesh Prevention of Cow Slaughter
(Amendment) Ordinance, 2020.
(b) UP Police acted as per the provisions of Uttar Pradesh Prevention of Cow Slaughter (Amendment)
Ordinance, 2020.
(c) UP Police acted as per the provisions of Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Regulation of Livestock
Markets) Rules.
103. Manav was arrested by police and was later sent to judicial remand. He has been accused of running a
chain of shops across the state selling different kinds of meat. In his defence, Manav argued that his
business doesn’t involve slaughtering and selling of cows. If his argument is true, what will be the
outcome of his case?
(a) Manav will not be held liable if he is able to prove his argument in court of law.
(b) Manav will not be held liable as his business is outside the scope of ordinance passed by UP
government.
(c) Manav will be held liable as there is no proof that he is not involved in cow slaughter.
(d) Manav’s liability will be decided as per the discretion of the court.

MOCK CLAT #01
SECTION - D : LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Q.104-Q.107): Read and analyze the passage critically and answer the following questions
Speech is a great blessing but it can also be a great curse for while, it helps to make our intentions and
desires known to our fellows, it can also, if we use it carelessly, make our attitude completely
misunderstood. A slip of the tongue, the use of an unusual word or of an ambiguous word and so on,
may create an enemy where we had hoped to win a friend. Again different classes of people use different
vocabularies and the ordinary speech of an educated man may strike an uneducated listener as
pompous. Unwittingly, we may use a word which bears a different meaning to our listener from what it
does to men of our own class. Thus, speech is not a gift to use lightly without thought, but one which
demands careful handling.
Only a fool will express himself alike to all kinds and conditions of men.
104. The author says that speech can. be a curse because it can
(a) reveal our intentions
(b) leads to carelessness
(c) hurt others
(d) create misunderstanding
105. What does the author mean when he says 'a slip of tongue'?
(a) Words spoken unintentionally
(b) In a wrong way, or by chance a statement that contains a mistake .
(c) Without giving proper thought
(d) Words that may hurt someone
106. When we are conversing with an uneducated person, what we should keep in mind?
(a) We should use polite language
(b) We must speak using his vocabulary
(c) In common language
(d) We should use simple words
107. According to the passage, it can be inferred that :-

(a) An educated man can be misunderstood by uneducated man because of the sophistication in the
language.
(b) An educated man can amuse uneducated man because of the complex vocabulary.
(c) An uneducated person can think highly of an educated man because of the rich vocabulary used by
him
(d) An uneducated man may consider that the educated man is arrogant.
Directions (Q.108-Q.114): Read and analyze the passage critically and answer the following questions
Called by some the “island that time forgot,” Madagascar is home to a vast array of unique, exotic
creatures. One such animal is the aye-aye. First described by western science in 1782, it was initially
categorized as a member of the order Rodentia. Further research then revealed that it was more closely
related to the lemur, a member of the primate order. Since the aye-aye is so different from its fellow
primates, however, it was given its own family: Daubentoniidae. The aye-aye has been listed as an
endangered species and, as a result, the government of Madagascar has designated an island off the
northeastern coast of Madagascar as a protected reserve for aye-ayes and other wildlife. Long before
Western science became enthralled with this nocturnal denizen of Madagascar’s jungles, the aye-aye
had its own reputation with the local people. The ayeaye is perhaps best known for its large, round eyes
and long, extremely thin middle finger. These adaptations are quite sensible, allowing the aye-aye to see
well at night and retrieve grubs, which are one of its primary food sources, from deep within hollow
branches. However, the aye-aye’s striking appearance may end up causing its extinction. The people of
Madagascar believe that the aye-aye is a type of spirit animal, and that its appearance is an omen of
death. Whenever one is sighted, it is immediately killed. When combined with the loss of large swathes of
jungle habitat, this practice may result in the loss of a superb example of life’s variety.

MOCK CLAT #01
108. Based on the information given in the passage, it can be inferred that the intended audience would most
likely be
(a) visitors to a natural science museum
(b) professors of evolutionary science
(c) a third-grade science class
(d) attendees at a world culture symposium
109. The author’s attitude toward the aye-aye, could be implied as

(a) Admiring
(b) Mystified
(c) Reverent
(d) appalled
110. Which of the following statements can be logically inferred from the passage?
(a) Taxonomic classifications are not always absolute.
(b) The traditional religion of Madagascar involves offering sacrifice to aye-aye
(c) There are no longer enough resources on the main island to support the aye-aye population.
(d) The first exotic animal to be described by western science was aye-aye.
111. It can be concluded that

(a) The author has recently visited Madagascar.
(b) The author is a native of Madagascar.
(c) The natives of Madagascar follow augury
(d) The natives of Madagascar revere aye-aye.
112. Why has the author mentioned the adaptation of aye-aye

1) to show that it is well suited to its habitat
2) to show that it is a cause of threat to its survival.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both of them
(d) Neither of them
113. Why is Madagascar referred to as ‘island that time forgot’ in the passage?
(a) Because it is geographically separated from the mainland
(b) Because it is made up of several islands.
(c) Because western science was not aware of its existence.
(d) Because of its unique and exotic species.
114. Why aye-aye may become extinct?

(a) Because the government has designated only one island for aye-aye
(b) Because of use of its body parts in traditional medicine.
(c) Because of loss of its natural environment
(d) Because of difficulty in its classification
Directions (Q.115-Q.117): Read and analyse the passage and answer the questions:-
The range of the American bison extended over about one-third of the entire continent of North America.
Starting almost at tide-water on the Atlantic coast, it extended westward through a vast tract of dense
forest, across the Alleghany Mountain system to the prairies along the Mississippi, and southward to the
Delta of that great stream. Although the great plains country of the West was the natural home of the
species, where it flourished most abundantly, it also wandered south across Texas to the burning plains
of North-eastern Mexico, westward across the Rocky Mountains into New Mexico, Utah, and Idaho, and
northward across a vast treeless waste to the bleak and inhospitable shores of the Great Slave Lake
itself. It is more than probable that had the bison remained unmolested by man and uninfluenced by him,
he would eventually have crossed the Sierra Nevadas and the Coast Range and taken up his abode in

MOCK CLAT #01
the fertile valleys of the Pacific slope. Had the bison remained for a few more centuries in undisturbed
possession of his range, and with liberty to roam at will over the North American continent, it is almost
certain that several distinctly recognizable varieties would have been produced. The buffalo of the hot
regions in the extreme south would have become a short-haired animal like the Gaur of India and the
African buffalo. The individuals inhabiting the extreme north, in the vicinity of Great Slave Lake, for
example, would have developed still longer hair, and taken on more of the dense hairiness of the musk
ox. In the “wood” or “mountain buffalo” we already have a distinct foreshadowing of the changes which
would have taken place in the individuals that made their permanent residence upon rugged mountains.
115. What is the main purpose of the author in writing the passage?
(a) To explain how man’s activities have had a negative effect on ecology
(b) To argue that efforts need to be made to conserve a particular species of animal
(c) To discuss the geographical distribution of a species
(d) To assert that at one time the American bison populated over 30 percent of North America
116. The passage mentions each of the following as a negative impact of man’s activities on the American
bison EXCEPT:
(a) The bison could not inhabit the valleys of the Pacific slope.
(b) Certain new varieties of the bison could not be produced.
(c) The bison could not cross the Sierra Nevada.
(d) There was a drastic fall in the bison population.
117. Which of the following can be inferred from the information provided in the passage?
(a) The American bison has now become extinct.
(b) The American bison is a long-haired animal.
(c) The American bison is related to the Indian Gaur.
(d) The Rocky Mountains were not the ideal habitat for the American bison.
Directions (Q.118-Q.123): Read and analyze the passage critically and answer the following questions.
For achieving inclusive growth there is a critical need to rethink the role of the state. The early debate
among economists about the size of the government can be misleading. The need of the hour is to have
an enabling government. India is too large and complex nation for the state to be able to deliver all that is
needed. Asking the government to produce all the essential goods, create all the necessary jobs and
keep a curb on the prices of all goods is to lead to a large cumbersome bureaucracy and widespread
corruption.
The aim must be to stay with the objective of inclusive growth that was laid down by the founding fathers
of the nation and also to take a more modern view of what the state can realistically deliver.
This is what leads to the idea of an enabling state, i.e. a government that does not try to directly
deliver to the citizens everything that they need. Instead, it (1) creates an enabling ethos for the
market, so that individual enterprise can flourish and citizens can, for the most part, provide for the needs
of one another and (2) steps in to help those who do not manage to do well for themselves, for there will
always be individuals, no matter what the system, 'who need support and help'. Hence, we need a
government that when it comes to the market, sets effective, incentive-compatible rules and remains on
the sidelines with minimal interference and, at the same time, plays an important role in directly helping
the poor by ensuring that they get basic education and health services and receive adequate nutrition
and food.
118. According to the passage,

1. the objective of inclusive growth was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation.
2. need of the hour is to have an enabling government.
3. the government should engage in maximum interference in market processes.
4. there is a need to change the size of the government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) All of these

MOCK CLAT #01
119. According to the passage, the strategy of inclusive growth can be affected by focusing on
(a) meeting all the needs of every citizen in the country
(b) increasing the regulations over the manufacturing sector
(c) controlling the distribution of manufactured goods
(d) delivering the basic services to the deprived sections of the society
120. What constitutes an enabling government?

1. A large bureaucracy.
2. Implementation of welfare programmes through representatives.
3. Creating an ethos that helps individual enterprise.
4. Providing resources to those who are underprivileged.
5. Offering direct help to the poor regarding basic services.
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 4 and 5
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) All of the above
121. Why is the State unable to deliver all that is needed'?

1. It does not have sufficient bureaucracy.
2. It does not promote inclusive growth. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
122. What is the essential message being conveyed by the author of the passage?
(a) The objectives of inclusive growth laid down by the founding fathers of the nation should be
remembered
(b) The government needs to make available more schools and health services
(c) The government needs to establish markets and industries to meet the needs of the poor strata of the
society
(d) There is a need to rethink the role of the state in achieving inclusive growth
123. In the given argument, the portion in boldface plays which of the following roles?
(a) It is an objection that the argument rejects
(b) It is the main conclusion of the argument
(c) It is the premise on which the conclusion depends
(d) It is the solution to the problem discussed in the argument.
Directions (Q.124-Q.130): Read and analyze the passage critically and answer the following questions.
The law in many parts of the world increasingly restricts the discharge of agricultural slurry into
watercourses. The simple and often the most economically sound practice returns the material to the land
as semi-solid manure or as sprayed slurry. This dilutes its concentration in the environment to what might
have occurred in a more primitive and sustainable type of agriculture and converts pollutant into fertiliser.
Soil microorganisms decompose the organic components of sewage and slurry and most of the minerals
and nutrients become available to be absorbed again by the vegetation. The excess input of nutrients,
both nitrogen and phosphorus-based, from agricultural runoff (and human sewage) has caused many
'healthy' oligotrophic lakes (low nutrient concentrations, low plant productivity with abundant water weeds
and clear water) to change to eutrophic condition where high nutrient inputs lead to high phytoplankton
productivity (sometimes dominated by bloom-forming toxic species). This makes the water turbid,
eliminates large plants and, in the worst situations, leads to anoxia and fish kills; so called cultural
eutrophication. Thus, important ecosystem services arc lost, including the provisioning service of wild-
caught fish and the cultural services associated with recreation. The process of cultural eutrophication of
lakes has been understood for some time. But only recently did scientists notice huge 'dead zones' in the

MOCK CLAT #01
oceans near river outlets, particularly those draining large catchment areas such as the Mississippi in
North America and the Yangtze in China. The nutrient-enriched water flows through streams, rivers and
lakes and eventually, to the estuary and ocean where the ecological impact may be huge, killing virtually
all invertebrates and fish in areas up to 70000 sq km in extent. More than 150 sea areas worldwide are
now regularly starved of oxygen as a result of decomposition of algal blooms, fuelled particularly by
nitrogen from agricultural runoff of fertilisers and sewage from large cities. Oceanic dead zones are
typically associated with industrialised nations and usually lie off—countries that subsidise their
agriculture, encouraging farmers to increase productivity and use more fertilisers.
124. According to the passage, why should the discharge of agricultural slurry into watercourses be restricted?
1. Losing nutrients in this way is not a good practice economically.
2. Watercourses do not contain the microorganisms that can decompose organic components of
agricultural slurry.
3. The discharge may lead to the eutrophication of water bodies.
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these
125. The passage refers to 'the conversion of 'pollutant to fertiliser', What is pollutant and what is fertiliser in
this context?
(a) Decomposed organic component of slurry is pollutant and microorganisms in soil constitute fertiliser
(b) Discharged agricultural slurry is pollutant and decomposed slurry in soil is fertiliser
(c) Sprayed slurry is pollutant and watercourse is fertiliser
126. According to the passage, what are the effects of indiscriminate use of fertilisers?
1. Addition of pollutants to the soil and water.
2. Destruction of decomposed microorganisms in soil.
3. Nutrient enrichment of water bodies.
4. Creation of algal blooms.
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) All of these
127. What is/'are the characteristics of a water body with cultural eutrophication?
1. Loss of ecosystem services.
2. Loss of flora and fauna.
3. Loss of mineral nutrients.
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
128. What is the central theme of this passage?

(a) Appropriate legislation is essential to protect the environment
(b) Modem agriculture is responsible for the destruction of environment
(c) Improper waste disposal from agriculture can destroy the aquatic ecosystems
(d) Use of chemical fertilisers is undesirable in agriculture

MOCK CLAT #01
129. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

(a) To throw agricultural slurry into water bodies is illegal in some regions.
(b) Algal blooms have potential for commercial use, especially in fishing industry.
(c) 150 seas are facing threat of eutrophication.
(d) Oligotrophic lakes have high phytoplankton numbers.
130. Which of the following strengthens the message of the passage?

(a) In the Malwa region, since many decades, farmers have been dumping agricultural waste in
Narmada. The waste includes pesticides and fertilisers.
(b) The Bhopal Gas Tragedy was caused due to malfunctioning of an industrial plant which manufactured
fertilisers.
(c) Due to constant inflow of agricultural effluents, Yamuna river has lost most of its aquatic life.
(d) All the above
Directions (Q.131-Q.133): Answer these questions based on the information given below.
NLU Delhi is selecting a four person debate team. There are seven candidates of equal ability. X, Y and
Z who attended the science block courses and L, M, N and P who attended the commerce block courses.
The team must have two members from each block. Also, the members must be able to work well with all
the other members of the team. Note that debaters Y and L, Z and N, and L and M are incompatible
pairs.
131. If debater Y is rejected and M is selected, the team will consist of

(a) L, M, X and Z (b) M, N, X and Z (c) M, N, P and X (d) M, P, X and Z
132. If debater L is in the team, what other debaters must be in the team as well?
(a) M, X and Z (b) P, X and Z (c) N, X and Z (d) P, N and Z
133. If both Y and Z are selected, which of the other debaters are thereby assured of a place in the team?
(a) L and M (b) M and P (c) Only N (d) N and P
Directions (Q.134 and Q.135): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below it:
Six exams Maths, science, History, Economics, English and Hindi are to be scheduled starting from 2nd
March and ending on 8th march with Sunday being an off day, not necessarily in the same order. Each of
the exam has different time duration: 40 mins, 50 mins, 60 mins, 75 mins, 90 mins and 100 mins, again
not necessarily in the same order.
8th march is not sunday and an exam of 40 mins is scheduled on that day. Maths exam is for less than
60 mins and is scheduled immediately before English exam. There are two exams scheduled between
Hindi exam which is for 100 mins and History exam which is for 60 mins. English exam is before Sunday
and there are two days between sunday and maths exam. Economics exam which is for 75 mins is not
scheduled on 2nd march. The exam scheduled on saturday is of 100 mins.
134. How many exams are scheduled before sunday?

(a) Two
(b) One
(c) Five
(d) None of these
135. Which of the following combinations of Exam - Day - Time Duration is correct ?
(a) English - Wednesday - 75 mins
(b) Maths - Thursday - 50 mins
(c) History - Thursday – 60 mins
(d) Hindi - Tuesday - 100 mins

MOCK CLAT #01
SECTION - E :QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.136- Q.140): Study the table and answer the given questions.
Number of bangles sold by 6 stores during 5 months
Stores
Month
P Q R S T
May 154 129 87 89 165
June 121 120 87 89 172
July 145 88 105 133 104
August 169 102 130 114 129
September 128 177 94 220 131
136. Out of the total number of bangles sold by store R in June, July and August together, 35% were made of
gold. What was the total number of gold bangles sold by store R in June, July and August together?
(approx. value)
(a) 127 (b) 139 (c) 121 (d) 113
137. What is the difference between the total number of bangles sold by store S in June and July together and
the total number of bangles sold by store P in the same months together?
(a) 72 (b) 58 (c) 44 (d) 64
138. What is the average number of bangles sold by stores Q, R and T in May?
(a) 131 (b) 117 (c) 127 (d) 135
139. What is the ratio of the total number of bangles sold by stores S and T together in August to the total
number of bangles sold by the same stores together in September?
(a) 9:13 (b) 7 : 9 (c) 11: 13 (d) 9:11
140. The number of bangles sold by store Q increased by what per cent from June to September?
(a) 42.5 (b) 45 (c) 40 (d) 47.5
Directions (Q.141–Q.145): Study the following graph carefully and answer the following questions
Preferences of people (man and children) in buying different ice creams flavors over the years
141. People buying chocolate flavor ice cream in year 2002 and 2003 together are approximately what
percent more are less than people buying vanilla flavor ice-cream in 2005 and 2006 together?
(a) 5% (b) 8% (c) 12% (d) 15%

MOCK CLAT #01
142. If ratio of man to children buying strawberry flavor ice cream in 2004 is 7 : 5 and children buying vanilla
flavor ice-cream in 2002 are 120% of children buying strawberry flavor in 2004 then what number of
people except children buy vanilla flavor in 2002.
(a) 150 (b) 175 (c) 200 (d) 225
143. People buying vanilla flavor ice cream in 2003 are approximately what percent less than people buying
all three flavors in 2005?
(a) 35% (b) 57% (c) 47% (d) 63%
144. What is the ratio of people buying vanilla flavor in 2001, 2004 and 2006 together to the people buying
strawberry flavor over all year
38 13 31 53
(a) 69 (b) 69 (c) 29 (d) 23
145. Average of people buying vanilla flavor in 2004 and 2006 together is X and if people buying chocolate
1
flavor in 2007 are 9 %percent more than X. Find number of people buying chocolate flavor in 2007.
11
(a) 300 (b) 400 (c) 350 (d) 500
Directions (Q.146- Q.150): Study the following graphs and answer the given questions.
Number of Students Playing Carrom, Cricket and Hockey from five Different School.
146. Total number of students playing Carrom and Hockey together from school P is what percent of the total
number of students playing these two games together from school R?
3 3 3 3
(a) 6816 % (b) 6413 % (c) 6913 % (d) 6313 %
147. If the number of students playing each game in school s is increased by 15% and the number of students
playing each game in school Q is decreased by 5%, then what will be the difference between number of
students in schools S and Q?
(a) 54 (b) 218 (c) 356 (d) 205
148. If out of the students playing Cricket from schools Q, S and T 40%, 35% and 45% respectively got
selected for state level competition, what was the total number of students playing cricket got selected for
State level competition from these schools together?
(a) 346 (b) 241 (c) 292 (d) 284
149. Total number of students playing Hockey from all school together is approximately what percent of the
total number of students playing Cricket from all schools together?
(a) 84% (b) 74% (c) 72% (d) 79%

MOCK CLAT #01
150. From school P, out of the students playing Carrom, 40% got selected for State level competition, Out of
which 25% further got selected for national level competition. From school T, out of the students playing
Carrom, 45% got selected for State level competition, out of which two-third further got selected for
national level competition. What is the total number of students playing Carrom from these two schools
who got selected for National level competition?
(a) 106 (b) 98 (c) 112 (d) 108

“Part of the most Comprehensive Classroom Training, Prep Content & Test Series across the Nation.
From the producers of the Best and the most number of A.I.Rs in the past years, every year!”
MOCK CLAT #02

Candidate Name : _________________
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
T49_MC15_ALL_03_019-20

Test Centre/Hall.
MOCK CLAT #02
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): Plant classification is significant in order to identify, preserve, and manage plant
species. During the history of botanical science, botanists tried to classify plants and record their
classifications. Botanical classification is divided into 5 principals. Artificial System is a non-revolutionary
system as it based on the few characters and the morphology of the species. This principle became
undesirable as more plants have been discovered. The natural system is based on the natural
relationship between organisms. Some features are considered such as morphology and anatomy. It
used to combine the classification with the natural features of organisms. The phylogenetic system is a
classification of plants according to evolutionary history. Plants are descended from the same ancestor.
Phenetics system or numerical taxonomy which does not reflect the revolutionary relationship. It can be
considered as an early step to eliminate the subjectivity by using measured and described characters.
The cladistic system is designed to provide a less subjective way of classification. It shows the
evolutionary relationships between traits. The plant classification depends on the evolutionary process of
the plant. In the old methods of classification, some classification processes are based on the distinctive
characters of the plant and their nature. It based on plant parts as well. The plant evolved from
freshwater algae called Charales from the Charophytes group. So the classification of the plant has been
changed from kingdom algae into two major groups; Vascular and non-vascular plants, which is based on
the vascular tissue. The vascular plants are divided into two groups; seed and seedless plants. Each
sub-group is divided into 5 classes according to the evolutionary process. Seed plants are divided into
one class of angiosperms and 4 classes of gymnosperms.
1. Which of the following statement is false in regards to plant classification?

(a) The plants are differentiate in accordance to the development from their earlier forms.
(b) To identify the plants, plants classification is being done.
(c) To classify the plants it‘s important to understand the natural features of an organism.
(d) The history of the plants is not important to classify plants.
2. Anatomy is the study of?

(a) Structure (b) Function (c) Tissues (d) Diseases of the body
3. Which statement is true in regards to the botanical classification?

(a) Artificial System is based on the few characters and the morphology of the species and has seen
radical changes in few years.
(b) The history of plants is not important to for plant classification
(c) Evolutionary relationships between traits can be seen in the phylogenetic system
(d) To have a better understand of the natural species it‘s important to understand the anatomy and the
morphology of the same
4. Choose the correct option

(a) Angiosperms and gymnosperms are non- vascular plants
(b) Vascular plant has 10 different classes
(c) Both (a) and (b)
5. What is the Phenetic system used for?

(a) It is used to describe characters
(b) It is used to classify traits
(c) It is used to classify with other organisms.
(d) It is used for similarities

MOCK CLAT #02
Passage (Q.6-Q.10): When alternatives are peddled as ‗the lesser evil‘, virtue is artificially added as a
measure of degrees. The evil is often clear and present, as in the case of electronic cigarettes, in all
forms — Electronic Nicotine Delivery System (ENDS), vapes, and e-hookahs. The Centre‘s move to ban
these products shows a welcome intolerance of anything that impacts negatively on the health and
wellness of the people of the country. The Cabinet recently cleared the Prohibition of Electronic
Cigarettes Ordinance, 2019. Now, any production, import, export, sale (including online), distribution or
advertisement, and storage of e-cigarettes is a cognisable offence punishable with imprisonment or fine,
or both. E-cigarettes, which were to aid smokers kick their habit, do not burn tobacco leaves. Instead
these battery-operated devices produce aerosol by heating a solution containing among other things,
nicotine. Nicotine is an addictive substance that may, according to studies, function as a ―tumour
promoter‖ and aid neuro-degeneration. Some other compounds in the aerosol are toxic substances that
have known deleterious effects, and might just be less harmful than cigarettes, not harmless. Seven
deaths have been recorded in the U.S. — the largest consumer of e-cigarettes in the world — where,
New York recently banned the sale of flavoured e-cigarettes.
There is ample evidence on the harm of nicotine addiction — the reason that it is only approved under
the Drugs and Cosmetics Act for use only in nicotine gums and patches. As the WHO‘s Framework
Convention on Tobacco Control (FCTC) outlines, these devices can only be believed to succeed if
smokers have moved on to an alternative nicotine source, and then stopped using that too; and the
recruitment of minors into nicotine dependence eventually wanes to zero. There is evidence now that
vaping, dangled as a cool, fun, activity, lures youngsters, and ironically, serves to introduce them to
smoking. The FCTC also records that e-cigarettes are unlikely to be harmless, and long-term use is
expected to increase the risk of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, lung cancer, and possibly
cardiovascular disease and other diseases also associated with smoking. The urgency to act on this front
is also justified by the number of users. As per figures submitted to Parliament earlier this year, e-
cigarettes and accessories valued at about $1,91,780 were imported to India between 2016 and 2019.
The government, already on the right path, must go all out to ensure that its ban is implemented
earnestly in letter and spirit, unlike the patchy execution of the Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products
Act. It is essential to ensure this progressive ordinance does not go up in smoke.
6. Why is the import and export of e-cigarette a cognizable offense?

(a) Because the tobacco in it is not burnt.
(b) People start smoking after using e-cigarettes, which is harmful for health.
(c) It‘s more harmful than cigarettes
(d) Smoking e-cigarettes have an adverse effects on the health and well beings
7. Which of the following statement can be inferred if a man is caught exporting e-cigarettes in India?
(a) Police officer cannot arrest him without warrant
(b) FIR can be registered without magistrate‘s permission
(c) It is a private wrong and therefore the prosecution of offender is left to the initiative and efforts of
private persons.
(d) Bail will be given to him on the discretion of the court or the authorities concerned.
8. Cabinet recently passed the ―Prohibition of cigarette ordinance‖. Which of the following statement is true
in regards to Ordinance in India?
(a) The consent of the legislature is not needed to pass the ordinance.
(b) An ordinance has to be converted into legislation within 42 days of commencement of the parliament
session.
(c) Ordinances should be issued in the Parliament first.
(d) It is a law made by the executive.
9. Which of the following statement is false in regards to e-cigarettes?
(a) E-cigarettes was used to aid smoker but turned out to be more harmful than cigarettes
(b) Youngsters use e-cigarettes for fun but later it introduces them to smoking
(c) Exports of e-cigarettes have increased in the past few years.
(d) New York was the largest consumer of e-cigarettes.
MOCK CLAT #02
10. Has the use of vaping furthered the cause of getting the nicotine banned?
(a) True (b) False (c) Maybe (d) Can‘t say
Passage (Q.11-Q.18): It was 75 years ago on January 27, 1945, that the 60th Army of the 1st Ukrainian
Front walked into the concentration camp known as Auschwitz-Birkenau in Poland to let the inmates
know that they were now free. While the liberation of the inmates and the closing of the concentration
camps may have been the end of the Holocaust, it was only the beginning of the effort to ensure that this
should never happen again.
On the 75th anniversary of the liberation of Auschwitz — a day the United Nations marks as International
Holocaust Remembrance Day — the history of Nazi Germany and the memory of those who did not
survive the camps bears remembering. Estimates suggest that up to six million Jews were killed by Nazi
Germany. And of more than 1.3 million people imprisoned at Auschwitz, some 1.1 million died. The State-
sponsored genocide of the Jewish people was part of the Nazi plan to institute a homogenous society,
intended to be racially pure, and based on pseudo-scientific claims such as racial superiority, racial
hygiene and eugenics. This form of authoritarian ultra-nationalism aimed to unite all Germans living in
historically German territory. The aim was to return Germany to some mythic greatness that had existed
in the past. In an attempt to remove the entire Jewish population on account of their supposed
―inferiority‖, the Final Solution was invoked.
Survivors and scholars of the Holocaust maintain that while the sheer brutality and the scale of events
are hard to relive; it is the only way to pay tribute to those who lost so much more than just their lives.
And only by remembering what happened and how it was allowed to happen can we prevent such a thing
from ever happening again.
11. Which title best suits the passage?

(a) the final solution (b) why we must never forget the holocaust
(c) ultra nationalism (d) confinement of Auschwitz
12. According to the passage which of the following statement is true?

(a) The inmates were confined on 27th January,1945
(b) 6 million people were killed in the prison.
(c) Nazi plan was to institute an uncanny society
(d) The final solution was invoked to remove the Jewish
13. Why the state sponsored genocide of the Jewish people was a part of the Nazi plan?
(a) they believe to have a racially pure, homogeneous society
(b) to unite all the europeans except the jews because of their inferiority
(c) to study the factors producing the accumulation and perpetuation of the defective genes.
(d) jews were not a part of germany
14. The author‘s purpose in writing ―the scale of events are hard to relive‖ highlights?
(a) history shall not repeat itself
(b) the besmirch on German history.
(c) horrors of Holocaust may not perish but should be remebered
(d) those who lost their lives will hopefully never bear it again. Those who live will never forget
15. What is the significance of celebrating International Holocaust Remeberance day?

(a) pay tribute to the memory of the victims of the Holocaust
(b) to have a better understanding of anti-Semitism and it's aftermath
(c) to obviate the genocide
(d) know the nazi's plan
16. Did Nazi believe that it is possible to improve human race?

(a) yes (b) no (c) can‘t say (d) yes because they were superior

MOCK CLAT #02
17. What did the authoritarian ultra-nationalism of Nazi Germany aim to do?
(a) aimed to unite germans in historically german territory
(b) to colonize other european countries
(c) to vanish racial discrimination once and for all
(d) to attach soviet union territories
18. When was Auschwitz liberated?

(a) On 27th January, 1945 (b) After 27th january,1945
(c) On 27th January (d) In 1945
Passage (Q.19 -Q.23): Permanently settled for over 2,000 years, Zürich was founded by the Romans,
who, in 15 BC, called it Turicum. However, early settlements have been found dating back more than
6,400 years (although this only indicates human presence in the area and not the presence of a town that
early). During the Middle Ages, Zürich gained the independent and privileged status of imperial
immediacy and, in 1519, became a primary centre of the Protestant Reformation in Europe under the
leadership of Huldrych Zwingli.
The official language of Zürich is German,[a] but the main spoken language is the local variant of the
Alemannic Swiss German dialect, Zürich German.
Many museums and art galleries can be found in the city, including the Swiss National Museum, the
Kunsthaus and newer Theater 11 in Oerlikon. Schauspielhaus Zürich is one of the most important
theatres in the German-speaking world.
Zürich is a leading global city and among the world's largest financial centres despite having a relatively
small population. The city is home to many financial institutions and banking companies. Many of
Switzerland's research and development centres are concentrated in the Greater Zürich area and the low
tax rates and canton funding subsidies attract overseas companies to set up their headquarters or
finance treasury services in the city.
Monocle's 2012 "Quality of Life Survey" ranked Zürich first on a list of the top 25 cities in the world "to
make a base within". In 2019 Zürich was ranked among the ten most liveable cities in the world by
Mercer together with Geneva and Basel.
19. What was Zurich was called in 15 B.C.?

(a) Esquilina (b) Turicum (c) Horatia (d) Sergia
20. What status did Zurich gained in Middle Ages?

(a) Royal state (b) Regal regime
(c) Monarchical Ranking (d) Imperial Immediacy
21. Which Swiss-German dialect is mainly spoken in Zurich?

(a) Aelemance (b) Aolammaric (c) Aelmannnic (d) Alemannic
22. Zurich is the home of which leading global market?

(a) Watches (b) Chocolate and Cheese
(c) Trains (d) Finance and Banking
23. Which famous Swiss museum is in Zurich, out of the following:

(a) Fondation Pierre Gianadda (b) SpielzeugWeltenMuseusm
(c) Queen: the studio experience (d) Kunsthaus art museum

MOCK CLAT #02
Passage (Q.24 – Q.29): The hope cherished immediately after the Second World War, that one world
would emerge out of it, had receded. Instead, there arose two politico-military blocs at seemingly
irreconcilable enmity with each other, headed by the U.S.A, and the U.S.S.R The great danger was that
these two blocs might clash, dragging the rest of the world into a nuclear war and total destruction.
There are some critics who think that Nehru‘s concern for world peace was exaggerated. But they do not
realise how close mankind was to a world war in the fifties on more than one occasion. For instance, in
1950 during the Korean war, when General MacArthur unauthorisedly crossed the 38th Parallel into
North Korea and carried the war right up to the Chinese frontier, and China intervened and started
mowing down American troops, there was a cry in the U.S.A, for pre-emptive use of the atom bomb
against China. Then, prodded by Nehru, British Prime Minister Attlee flew to the U.S.A, to dissuade
President Truman from taking any such disastrous step.
It might be argued that it would have been a good thing if China had been taught a lesson before it had
developed the atom bomb. But at that time, Chinaand the U.S.S.R. were bound by a fraternal alliance
and if China became the victim of an atomic attack, it would have been impossible for the U.S.S.R. to
keep aloof. In other words, it would have meant the Third World War and the destruction of civilization .
Apart from his concern for world peace, there were doubtless other factors which impelled Nehru to adopt
a policy of non- alignment. Geographically India was too big, and historically too great, to be the hanger
on of any other state, however powerful. Economically it would have been foolish on the part of India,
which had in view a gigantic policy of national re-construction, to put all the eggs in one basket.
Philosophically India had, from time immemorial, extended its tolerance to rival sects, rival creeds and
rival religions. ‗There was no cold war‘, said Nehru, ‗in Ashoka‘s heart‘. Our policy of non- alignment was
a factor which contributed to the alleviation of tensions between the rival blocs and the gradual demise of
the coid war. It is a matter for satisfaction that one Great Power, at any rate, the U.S.S.R., has, for the
last so many years, understood, appreciated and even underwritten our policy of non-alignment.
24. ‗In other words, it would have meant the Third World War and the destruction of civilisation‘. What does
the word ‗it‘mean?
(a) Attack of U.S. troops on China (b) China-U.S.S.R. bond
(c) U.S.S.R.‘s neutrality (d) The U.S.S.R.‘s plunging into the war.
25. What made China intervene in the Korean War?
(a) America‘s invasion of Korea
(b) Arrival of American troops up to Chinese border
(c) General MacArthur‘s unauthorised participation in the war
(d) U.S.A.‘s threat of using atom bomb against China
26. Immediately after the World War II there was a feeling that
(a) there will be two superpowers emerging out of it
(b) the optimism cherished during the war will be realised
(c) the world would be dragged into a Third World War
(d) all countries will stay peacefully with one another
27. Which of the following is the result of India‘s adopting the non-alignment policy?
(a) Tolerance to rival creeds, sects and religions
(b) Eradication of cold war started by Ashoka
(c) U.S.S.R.‘s realising the importance of our country
(d) Lessening the tension between rival blocs
28. Which of the following was the outcome of the World War II?
(a) Emergence of two power blocs opposed to each other
(b) Total destruction of civilisation
(c) Emergence of one world with assurance of unconditional peace
(d) India‘s emergence as an admirable non-aligned country
MOCK CLAT #02
29. What was the purpose of Attlee‘s visit to the U.S.A.?

(a) To persuade Truman to use atom bomb against China
(b) To urge the U.S. President to refrain from using nuclear weapons
(c) To discuss with Truman and Nehru, the outcome of Korean War
(d) To legalise General MacArthur s action

MOCK CLAT #02
Passage (Q.30-Q.34): The Concession Agreement for the 600 MW Kholongchhu (Joint Venture)
Hydroelectric Project between the Royal Government of Bhutan and Kholongchhu Hydro Energy Limited
was signed on 29 June 2020 in Thimphu, in virtual presence of Dr. S. Jaishankar, External Affairs
Minister, Government of India and LyonpoDr.TandiDorji, Foreign Minister, Royal Government of Bhutan.
LyonpoLoknath Sharma, Minister of Economic Affairs, Royal Government of Bhutan and senior
government officials including Foreign Secretaries of India and Bhutan, Secretary (Power), GoI,
Ambassador of India to Bhutan and Ambassador of Bhutan to India were also present at signing
ceremony, which was held through video conferencing.
The run-of-the-river project is located on the lower course of the Kholongchhu River in [x] District in
Eastern [y]. The Project envisages an underground powerhouse of four 150 MW turbines with water
impounded by a concrete gravity dam of 95 meters height. It will be implemented by Kholongchhu Hydro
Energy Limited, a Joint Venture company formed between Druk Green Power Corporation (DGPC) of
Bhutan and SatlujJalVidyut Nigam Limited (SJVNL) of India. The signing of the Concession Agreement
will lead to commencement of construction and other works of this first Joint Venture Hydroelectric
Project between India and Bhutan. The project is expected to be completed in the second half of 2025.
Both the External Affairs Minister of India and Foreign Minister of Bhutan emphasized the importance of
hydro power development as an important pillar of mutually beneficial bilateral economic cooperation.
They also recalled the trust, co-operation and mutual respect that have long characterized the unique
and special friendship, anchored in mutual understanding and reinforced by a shared cultural heritage
and strong people to people links between India and Bhutan.
Hydropower sector is the flagship area of India-Bhutan bilateral cooperation. The 720 MW [z]
hydroelectric project was jointly inaugurated earlier in August 2019 by the Hon‘ble Prime Ministers of
India and Bhutan. With this, four (04) hydroelectric projects of bilateral cooperation (336 MW Chukha
HEP, 60 MW Kurichhu HEP, 1020 MW Tala HEP and 720 MW Mangdechhu HEP), totaling over 2100
MW, are already operational in Bhutan.
30. Where is Kholongchhu Hydroelectric Project located, redacted as [x] and [y] in the passage?
(a) Lachung, Sikkim
(b) Dorokha, Bhutan
(c) Thangu Valley, Sikkim
(d) Trashiyangtse, Bhutan
31. What is the expected capacity of Kholongchhu Hydroelectric Project?

(a) 400 MW
(b) 500 MW
(c) 600 MW
(d) 700 MW
32. Which hydroelectric project was jointly inaugurated between India and Bhutan in 2019, redacted as [z]?
(a) Chuka HEP
(b) Kurichhu HEP
(c) Tala HEP
(d) Mangdechhu HEP
33. The partners of Kholongchhu Joint Venture are SatlujJalVidyut Nigam (SJVN), and the Druk Green
Power Corporation (DGPC) from India and Bhutan respectively. What is the ratio of the joint venture?
(a) 60:40
(b) 50:50
(c) 70:30

MOCK CLAT #02
34. Who is the current Governor of Sikkim?

(a) JagdeepDhankhar
(b) VajubhaiVala
(c) Ganga Prasad
(d) LaljiTandon
Passage (Q.35-Q.41): The Ministry for Environment, Forests and Climate Change has released the India
State of Forest Report (ISFR), 2019. ISFR is a biennial publication of Forest Survey of India (FSI), an
organization under the Ministry of Environment Forest & Climate Change. The ISFR assesses the forest
and tree cover, bamboo resources, carbon stock and forest fires.
The 2019 report for the first time has assessed the qualitative nature of the forest cover, including listing
its biodiversity and the type of plants and trees found. It also created a national forest inventory for the
first time on produce from forests.
The country‘s forest cover includes all patches of land with a tree canopy density of more than 10% and
more than 1 hectare in area, irrespective of land use, ownership and species of trees. The total forest
cover of the country is 7,12,249sq km which is x% of the geographical area of the country. The top five
states to have shown an increase in forest cover include Karnataka (1,025 sq km) > Andhra Pradesh
(990 sq km) > Kerala (823 sq km) > J&K (371 sq km) > Himachal Pradesh (334 sq km). Total forest cover
in the North Eastern region is 1,70,541sq km, which is 65.05% of its geographical area. There has been
a decrease of forest cover to the extent of 765 sq km (0.45%) in the region. Except [1] and [2], all the
States in the region show decrease in forest cover.
35. Which State has the most forest cover area wise?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Himachal Pradesh
36. What percentage of India‘s area redacted as x in the above passage amounts to percentage of India‘s
forest cover?-
(a) 18.76
(b) 21.67
(c) 24.46
(d) 27.42
37. Which state has had the highest increase in tree cover according to the report?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Assam
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Gujarat
38. Which State has the largest area of wetlands according to the report?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Kerala
39. Which of the following statements regarding carbon stock is incorrect?
(a) Forest carbon is stored within the forest ecosystem in five pools such as above-ground biomass
(AGB), below-ground biomass (BGB), deadwood, litter and soil organic matter.
(b) Forest carbon stock prevents carbon emission into the atmosphere. Less carbon in the atmosphere
has greater macro-level benefits.
(c) It will reduce the greenhouse gas effect and lessen the impact of climate change. A decline in carbon
stock means there is less biomass in the forest. This happens mainly due to deforestation of dense
forests and shrinking of trees owing to drought.
(d) Madhya Pradesh, which has the highest carbon stock in India ((1,051 million tonnes), reported a loss
of 276 sq. km. forest cover even as its carbon stock rises.
MOCK CLAT #02
40. Which of the following states have been redacted by [1] and [2]?
(a) Assam and Tripura
(b) Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Mizoram and Manipur
(d) Sikkim and Nagaland
41. Which of the following has envisaged that 33% of the nation‘s geographical area should be under tree
and forest cover?
(a) National Forest Policy, 1988
(b) Environment Impact Assessment, 2006
(c) Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
(d) Indian Environment Act, 1986
Passage (Q.42-Q.46): Prime Minister NarendraModi will on Friday dedicate to the nation Asia‘s largest
[x] MW solar project at Madhya Pradesh's Rewa, and [y] will be one of its institutional customer outside
the state, the Prime Minister's Office said.
"This project will reduce carbon emission equivalent to approximately 15 lakh tonne of CO2 per year",
according to a PMO statement on Thursday.
Prime Minister Modi will dedicate the solar project to the nation virtually.
It is the first renewable energy project to supply to institutional customers outside the state, including [y],
which will get 24 per cent of energy from the project. The remaining 76 per cent is being supplied to the
state distribution companies of Madhya Pradesh.
It also exemplifies India's commitment to attaining the target of gigawatt (GW) of installed renewable
energy capacity by the year 2022, including 100 GW of solar installed capacity, the statement noted.
It was the first solar project in the country to break the "grid parity barrier".
Compared to solar project tariffs of approximately Rs 4.50 per unit in early 2017, the Rewa project
achieved the first-year tariff of Rs 2.97 per unit with a tariff escalation of Rs 0.05 per unit over 15 years
and a levelised rate of Rs 3.30 per unit over the term of 25 years, the statement explained.
The Rewa project has been acknowledged in India and abroad for its robust structuring and innovations.
Its payment security mechanism for reducing risks to power developers has been recommended as a
model to other states by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, it said.
It has also received World Bank Group President's Award for innovation and excellence and was
included in the Prime Minister's ''A Book of Innovation: New Beginnings''.
The solar park was developed by the Rewa Ultra Mega Solar Ltd (RUMSL), a joint venture of Madhya
Pradesh UrjaVikas Nigam Ltd and Solar Energy Corporation of India, a central undertaking, the
statement said.
Central financial assistance of Rs 138 crore has been provided to RUMSL for development of the park.
After the park was developed, Mahindra Renewables Private Ltd, ACME Jaipur Solar Power Pvt Ltd, and
Arinsun Clean Energy Pvt Ltd were selected by RUMSL through reverse auction for developing three
solar generating units of 250 MW each inside the solar park.
https://www.outlookindia.com/newsscroll/pm-will-dedicate-to-nation-750-mw-rewa-solar-project-on-
friday/1890710
42. Which of the following Metro Rail Corporations will be an Institutional customer of the Rewa Solar Project,
redacted as [y] in the passage?
(a) Bhopal Metro
(b) Kolkata Metro
(c) Lucknow Metro
(d) Delhi Metro
43. What is the capacity of Rewa Solar Project, redacted as [x] in the passage?
(a) 250 MW
(b) 500 MW
(c) 750 MW
(d) 1000 MW

MOCK CLAT #02
44. International Finance Corporation (IFC), part of World Bank group, has invested close to $440 million or
Rs 2,800 crore in the Rewa Solar project. Where is the IFC headquarters located?
(a) Paris
(b) Washington DC
(c) Amsterdam
(d) Brussels
45. According to the National Solar Mission, what is the target capacity to be reached by 2022?
(a) 50 GW
(b) 75 GW
(c) 100 GW
(d) 125 GW
46. Who is the current Minister of New and Renewable Energy, GoI?
(a) Rao Inderjit Singh
(b) Santosh Gangwar
(c) Raj Kumar Singh
(d) ShripadYessoNaik
Passage (Q.47-Q.52): After an eventful year in space odyssey in 2019, the Indian Space Research
Organisation (Isro) will be working on more than 25 missions in 2020, with the ambitious Gaganyaan
mission being the most prominent among them. The New Year also heralds a new chapter for India's
Moon mission as Isro is all set to start working on mission Chandrayaan 3, and with it, it will once again
attempt to achieve soft landing on the lunar surface.
[1] Indian Air Force pilots have already been selected for the ambitious Gaganyaan programme and their
astronaut training commenced in [2]. "We had good progress in 2019 as regards Gaganyaan. And many
of the designs were completed and astronauts' selection process is over. Now, [1] astronauts have been
identified for training purpose..that process is also completed," Sivan said.
47. The human space flight programme, called the Orbital Module will have ______ Indian astronauts.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
48. ISRO is gearing up to lift off Amazonia-1 satellite in August onboard the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
(PSLV). Amazonia-1 is a satellite of -
(a) France
(b) Chile
(c) Brazil
(d) Argentina
49. Which of the following countries agencies till now have not landed on southern hemisphere of moon?
(a) Russia
(b) USA
(c) China
50. Apart from the space port at SathishDhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, the land acquisition for a
second a new launch pad has been initiated in ___ district of Tamil Nadu.
(a) Cuddalore
(b) Erode
(c) Tuticorin
(d) Kancheepuram

MOCK CLAT #02
51. The Indian Space Research Organisation in its modern form was created by Vikram Sarabhai in -
(a) 1947
(b) 1969
(c) 1987
(d) 1988
52. Which of the following is a public sector company created by the government that serves as a marketing
arm of ISRO?
(a) IN-Space
(b) Antrix
(c) NSIL
(d) Team Indus
Passage (Q.53-Q.57): Under the MoU‘s, it is proposed to set up a 1 MWe Plasma Enhanced Gasification
(PEGS) technology-based Waste-to-Energy (WtE) pilot plant at SDMC Okhla Landfill site in Delhi utilizing
50 tonnes-per-day of refuse-derived fuel (RDF).
The MoU‘s were signed in Delhi on June 30, 2020, in the presence of[x], Union Minister of Petroleum &
Natural Gas and Steel, Shri RK Singh, Minister of State (I/c), Power and New & Renewable Energy,
Government of India, and [y], Governor of Delhi.
Plasma gasification technology
The demonstration plant will convert 50 tonnes-per-day (tpd) of refuse-derived fuel (RDF), obtained from
the segregation of municipal solid waste (MSW), to produce synthesis gas, or syngas, which shall, in
turn, be used to generate electricity.
The plant will deploy state-of-the-art plasma gasification technology, which can process different kinds of
wastes such as MSW/RDF, industrial waste, biomass, pet-coke, bio-medical waste, and hazardous waste
generated by some industries.
The technology produces high-quality syngas per tonne of waste with zero pollution for more net power
generation. All inserts are converted to vitrified slag, which can be used as road or building aggregate
and also in manufacturing sanitary-ware and decorative tiles.
The plant shall be designed as a zero liquid discharge plant with a reduced water requirement.
In line with National Biofuels Policy
The National Policy on Biofuels envisages the promotion of biofuels from municipal waste for reducing
import dependence on crude oil, bringing down greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions, and increasing
domestic production of renewable fuels using indigenous feedstock, besides reduction in health and
environmental hazards and legacy waste.
Setting up of an MSW-to-energy plant shall, therefore, provide multiple benefits and is also in alignment
with Government initiatives like Swachh Bharat, Atmanirbhar Bharat and Make in India. It shall also
provide an impetus to the creation of jobs across the value chain, from collection of waste to sale of
energy.
According to SDMC, about 3 750 tonnes of MSW is being generated per day in the SDMC area of which
50 percent is currently being processed. After the successful implementation of this MoU, the capacity of
this proposed pilot plant will be expanded to achieve 100 percent processing of municipal waste.
In doing so SDMC will become the first municipal corporation in the country to achieve this.
53. Name the minister redacted as [x] in the above passage?-

(a) Dharmendra Pradhan
(b) Giriraj Singh
(c) ArvindGanpatSawant
(d) Gajendra Singh Shekhawat
54. Which amongst the following was not a party in the above mentioned MOU‘s?
(a) Indian Oil
(b) NTPC
(c) Delhi BijliVitran Nigam Ltd.
(d) SDMC

MOCK CLAT #02
55. Which Ministry first made the National Policy on Biofuels?

(a) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(b) Ministry of Oil, Petroleum and Natural Gas
(c) Ministry of Energy
(d) Ministry of Environmental Affairs
56. Who is the current Lt Governor of Delhi redacted as y in the above passage?
(a) Najeeb Jung
(b) Tejendra Khanna
(c) Anil Baijal
(d) BanwariLal Joshi
57. Which State in India won the award for best performing state in SwachhSurvekshan 2019, which
evaluates the performance of cities in achieving the cleanliness standards under the Swachh Bharat
Mission?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Goa
(d) Gujarat
Passage (Q.58-Q.63): The Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019 was introduced in LokSabha by the
Minister of Electronics and Information Technology, Mr. Ravi Shankar Prasad, on December 11, 2019.
The Bill seeks to provide for protection of personal data of individuals, and establishes a Data Protection
Authority for the same.
The Bill is based on – (a) the 2018 Supreme Court verdict declaring "privacy" as a fundamental right
under Article 21 of the Constitution of India (protection of life and personal liberty) in the Justice KS
Puttaswamivs Union of India case (b) a subsequent nudge from the Supreme Court to frame such a law
and (c) the [1] Committee's recommendations and draft on privacy protection.
The Bill sets up a Data Protection Authority which may: (i) take steps to protect interests of individuals, (ii)
prevent misuse of personal data, and (iii) ensure compliance with the Bill. It will consist of a chairperson
and six members, with at least 10 years‘ expertise in the field of data protection and information
technology. Orders of the Authority can be appealed to an Appellate Tribunal. Appeals from the Tribunal
will go to the Supreme Court.
58. With a population of over a billion, there are about 500 million active web users and India‘s online market
is second only to _____.
(a) Russia
(b) China
(c) USA
(d) Australia
59. Which of the following would fill [1]?

(a) Rajiv Kumar
(b) B N Srikrishna
(c) R M Lodha
(d) N V Ramana
60. In how many categories has the data been classified under the Bill?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

MOCK CLAT #02
61. Sensitive data is a type of information, which will be regulated by this bill. Which of the following type of
information will not be constituted under it?
1. Genetic data
2. Financial data
3. Religious data
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
62. Which of the following provisions is not provided in the Data Protection Bill 2019?
(a) A Parliamentary law will be framed to decide on what ―necessary‖ or ―proportionate‖ grounds can the
government breach data privacy
(b) The Bill confers the "right of grievance" to individuals to complaint against data fiduciary
(c) The Bill provides for "Adjudicating Officer" for deciding penalties and award compensation for
violations
(d) The Bill empowers DPAI to specify the "code of practice" to promote good practices of data protection
and facilitate compliance
63. In which of the following judgements did the Supreme Court order that the right to privacy is a
fundamental right?
(a) Shreya Singhalvs Union of India
(b) Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd) Vs Union of India
(c) VineetNarainvs Union of India
(d) P. Rajagopalavs State of Tamil Nadu
Passage (Q.64-Q.68): Russia's Energia space corporation said Thursday it will take the first tourist on a
space walk in 2023, under the terms of a new contract with a U.S. partner.
Energia has inked a contract with [x], which promises to take two space tourists to the International
Space Station (ISS) that year.
"We plan that one of the participants of the expedition will do a space walk from the Russian segment,
together with a professional Russian cosmonaut," said Energia, which is part of Russia's space
agency,[y].
The announcement comes days after NASA signed a deal with Richard Branson's Virgin Galactic space
tourism company to promote private missions to the station after a special training program in the U.S.
It also follows the first successful mission by Elon Musk's [z] last month to bring astronauts to the station
on a reusable Crew Dragon spacecraft, ending nearly a decade of Russia holding a monopoly on
shuttling humans to orbit.
SpaceX in March announced its own space tourism trip for three people next year, on board of the Crew
Dragon.
On its website, [x] already advertises the space walk as a "rare and exhilarating experience," available
only through the Russian program.
"If you choose to fly to space on the Russian Soyuz spacecraft, you have the opportunity to ... conduct a
spacewalk, accompanied by a professional cosmonaut," it says.
The company together with the Russian agency previously took eight tourists to the ISS between 2001
and 2009.
64. Russia‘s Energia inked a contract with which US based space tourism company in the United States
redacted as [x] in the above passage. Name the Company.
(a) Orbital
(b) Blue Origin
(c) Boeing
(d) Space Adventures

MOCK CLAT #02
65. Who was the first woman to walk on space?

(a) Valentina Tereshkova
(b) Savitskaya
(c) Sally Ride
(d) Sally Ride
66. Name the Russian Space Agency redacted as [y] in the above passage.
(a) Glasnost
(b) JAXA
(c) Roscosmos
(d) CNES
67. Name the space agency owned by ElonMuskredacted as [z] in the above passages.
(a) Copenhagen Suborbitals
(b) Exos Aerospace
(c) SpaceX
(d) Blue Origin
68. Who is accredited to being the first space tourist?

(a) Richard Garriott
(b) Gregory Olsen
(c) Mark Shuttleworth
(d) Dennis Anthony Tito

MOCK CLAT #02
Directions (Q.69-Q.107): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.69-Q.73): Section 46(4) was inserted in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (hereinafter
referred to as the code) in the year 2005 and the proviso for (1) of the section was inserted in the year
2009, this provision describes the procedure for the arrest of a woman, section 46 of the act is read as
under:-
” Arrest how made –
1. In making an arrest the police officer or other person making the same shall actually touch or confine
the body of the person to be arrested unless there is a submission to the custody by word or action.
Provided that where a woman is to be arrested, her submission to custody on an oral intimation of
arrest shall be presumed and, unless the police officer is a female, the police officer shall not touch
the person of the woman for making her arrest.
2. If such person forcibly resists the endeavor to arrest him, or attempts to evade the arrest, such police
officer or other person may use all means necessary to affect the arrest.
3. Nothing in this section gives a right to cause the death of a person who is not accused of an offense
punishable with death or with imprisonment for life.
4. Save in exceptional circumstances, no women shall be arrested after sunset and before sunrise, and
where such exceptional circumstances exist, the woman police officer shall, by making a written
report, obtain the prior permission of the Judicial Magistrate of the first class within whose local
jurisdiction the offense is committed or the arrest is to be made.
Therefore, the requirement of the provisions of sub-section (4) of Section 46 of the said Code is two-
fold. If the Police Officer wants to arrest the woman after sunset and before sunrise, there must exist
exceptional circumstances for such arrest. In cases where in such exceptional circumstances do
exist, a Lady Police Officer shall make a written report and obtain the prior permission of the Judicial
Magistrate, First Class in whose jurisdiction the offense is committed or the arrest is to be made.
Also, section 60A of the code states that –―No arrest shall be made except in accordance with the
provisions of this code or any other law for the time being in force providing for arrest.‖
Sedition is punishable with death.
69. The police had intelligence that a certain car is being used to smuggle drugs from Delhi to Patiala and
they stopped the alleged car in a RTO which was located on the outskirts of Patiala. The police on
findings drugs in the car, tried to arrest the driver who as a matter of fact was deaf. Despite repeated oral
requests from the police officer to enter the police van she stood mute and still upon which the head
constable lost his cool and grabbed her arm in order to take her to the police car. Can the constable be
held liable for violating the aforesaid provisions?
(a) No, because the woman was deaf, she couldn‘t hear anything he said to her which left him with no
option but to grab her arm.
(b) No, because she tried to evade the arrest by not remaining still and not following the officer‘s orders.
Thus, allowing the police officer to use all means necessary to make the arrest.
(c) Yes, because the police officer should‘ve waited for a female constable to arrive and make the arrest.
(d) Yes, because she was a woman and by grabbing her arm he touched her directly violating the
provision mentioned in the paragraph.
70. On 30th December the police received reports that a female suicide bomber has check in a hotel planning
to bomb herself in the midnight of 1st January. The female Inspector on hearing the news immediately
sent a written request to the judicial magistrate of the concerned area at 5pm when it became evident
that the arresting her before sunset wouldn‘t be possible for her team. Since he was not in his office due
to a meeting, he didn‘t get to know about it and thus couldn‘t grant the permission. On not receiving
permission for more than 4 hours, the inspector decided to make the arrest. Can the inspector be held
liable for violating section 46 of the CrPC.
(a) No, since she sent the written request at 4pm before sunset and thus didn‘t violate section 46.
(b) No, because arresting a suicide bomber was very important for safety of the public which over-rides
the CrPC provisions.
(c) Yes since she made the arrest after sunset.
(d) Yes since there was no urgency and the police could‘ve arrested her next morning because she
anyways wasn‘t going to act before midnight leaving police with ample time to act.
MOCK CLAT #02
71. In question 2, assuming the facts to remain same except that the sub-divisional magistrate of the same
jurisdiction , who is of same rank as the judicial magistrate first class, came to know about the issue and
granted the permission to police so that they can arrest the bomber before she harms anyone. Is such
arrest valid under Section 46 of CrPC.
(a) No, since SDM didn‘t have the power to grant such permission.
(b) No, since the permission wasn‘t granted by judicial magistrate first class.
(c) Yes, because SDM is also a magistrate and that too, of same rank.
(d) Yes, because under such a grave circumstance, it was only logical of the SDM to grant permission.
72. X is a student who made a video explaining how the current government is violating the constitutional
provisions of the country and targeting a certain class of the society calling for all other students to come
out and protest against such actions by the government. On viewing this video, a lawyer filed a case
accusing her of sedition. In furtherance of the complaint, the police went in to arrest her to which she
resisted by hitting a policeman on head by a baseball bat making the fellow policeman to shoot X which
resulted in her death. Is police liable for her death under section 46?
(a) No, since she hit the policeman first.
(b) No, since she was accused of sedition which is punishable by death.
(c) Yes, because she didn‘t make the seditious video and was wrongly accused of sedition.
(d) Yes, because she was fighting to safeguard the constitutional provisions.
73. In question 1.4, had few people edited her video by adding sentences like ―this government should be
overthrown‖, ―army is corrupt‖ and it was a result of this edited video that the lawyer filed a complaint
accusing her of sedition and ultimately caused her death during arrest, would the answer be any
different?
(a) Yes, since she was wrongfully accused of sedition.
(b) Yes, instead people who edited her video shall be liable for sedition
(c) No, the content of video is immaterial to the question
(d) No, since she forcibly arrested her arrest allowing policeman to use all means necessary
Passage (Q.74-Q.79): The DNA technology regulation bill and the personal data protection bill are under
consideration by two separate parliamentary committees. It is necessary to discuss the nature of DNA
information and to review these bills together to explore whether sufficient privacy protection has been
extended to DNA information. DNA samples are a potential source of human genetic information and can
reveal sensitive health information. Unauthorized disclosure could lead to genetic profiling and other
forms of profiling, leading to discrimination that can undermine the dignity and the privacy of the person
concerned and cause grave violations of group rights. Profiling of religious, ethnic or linguistic
minorities has in many jurisdictions led to their persecution.
It was precisely for this reason that Information Technology Rules, 2011 was notified under the
Information Technology Act, 2000. It referred explicitly to DNA in the definition of biometric information.
Additional privacy safeguards were provided for such sensitive personal information. However, in the
PDP bill, there is no explicit mention of DNA information even though any logical interpretation of
‗biometric information‘ and ‗genetic information‘ would require the inclusion of DNA. Such a reference to
DNA information within the definitions of biometric and genetic information would obviate the possibility of
illogical interpretations.
DNA Bill creates two categories of people. There is no requirement for obtaining consent of those
arrested for offences punishable with death or by imprisonment of more than seven years. The second
category constitutes those arrested for offences punishable with a lesser penalty. Procedurally, written
consent is required for the second category, but if it is not given, it can be mandated through the order of
a magistrate. The DNA bill falters on endorsing voluntary consent by opting for procedures such as
consent given in writing on the order of the magistrate instead of advocating for prior informed consent.
Involuntary consent, tantamount to coerced consent, seems to be integral to the DNA bill, whereas the
PDP bill provides that consent necessary for processing personal data be ‗informed, free, specific, clear
and capable of being withdrawn‘. The DNA bill thus needs to replicate the consent provision in the PDP
bill along with a provision to ensure that the person from whom bodily substance is taken for DNA testing
is given the ‗right to be heard‘ by a magistrate.

MOCK CLAT #02
Profiles in the DNA databank are categorized into five indices — crime scene; suspects/undertrials;
offenders; missing persons; and unknown deceased person. This ensures that searches for DNA profile
match may be performed across all indices as all of them are maintained together in a single DNA
databank. ‗Suspects‘ are not defined under Indian law, leaving the investigating officer with complete
discretion to define a ‗suspect‘. It is unclear whose DNA profile will be uploaded in the ‗suspects and
undertrials‘ index, thus allowing the kind of searches that will lead to violations of privacy. The DNA bill
and the PDP bill have to be read concomitantly and harmonized in a manner which would ensure robust
and effective privacy protection for DNA information.
74. MrAman is guilty of an offence and accordingly is punished with 7 year of imprisonment. For investigation
purposes, his DNA was required, however he did not agree to provide his DNA. As his DNA was
imperative for investigation purposes, police forcibly took his DNA. He challenges this in court of law.
What could be the result if is governed under DNA Bill?
(a) MrAman would be successful as police has not functioned according to law.
(b) MrAman would not be successful as police has functioned according to law.
(c) MrAman would be successful as without his consent no one could take his DNA.
(d) MrAman would not be successful as his DNA was imperative for investigation purposes.
75. What would be answer of facts mentioned in above question if has to be governed under PDA Bill?
(a) It will change.
(b) It will not change.
(c) The information given in passage is not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) None of these.
76. Which of the following points about DNA Bill has not been highlighted in the passage?
(a) There is need of a provision which will provide for the free consent as an integral part while taking
DNA of a person.
(b) There could be violation of privacy as certain terms used in DNA Bill are ambiguous and vague.
(c) In some cases, DNA Bill advocates for Involuntary consent which is equal to coerced consent.
(d) As ―suspects‖ are not defined in the Indian law, that particular category of indices should be removed.
77. Among which of the following the author seems to agree the most?
(a) DNA bill and PDP bill have been referred to two separate parliament committees however, because
the nature and subject matter of both of these acts is very much similar, they should refer to single
committee.
(b) The DNA bill and PDP bill should be read collectively and any discrepancy among them should be
removed.
(c) As ―suspects‖ are not defined in the Indian law, that particular category of indices should be removed.
(d) None of these.
78. Mr X has been guilty for rape of a child of 7 years. He has charged with offence of Rape, Abduction,
attempt to murder. If proven guilty he would be punished with death penalty. Whole country is in anguish
and demanding punishment to the offender. For the investigation purposes police need DNA samples of
Mr X. However, he denied to give it and this led police to forcibly take it. Is police right in doing so?
Answer according to provision of DNA Bill?
(a) Police is right as it functioned according to law.
(b) Police is not right as it did not function according to law.
(c) Police is right as it his DNA was necessary for the investigation purposes.
(d) Police is not right as no one can take his DNA without his permission.
79. Assuming the facts given in question 5 as same. What would be answer of the question according to
provisions of PDA Bill?
(a) It will change.
(b) It will not change.
(c) The information given in passage is not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) None of these.
MOCK CLAT #02
Passage (Q.80-Q.83): Nuisance is an unlawful interference with a person‘s use or enjoyment of land, or
of some right over, or in connection with it. Nuisance is an injury to the right of a person in possession of
a property to undisturbed enjoyment of it and result from an improper use by another person in his
property.Stephen defined nuisance to be ―anything done to the hurt or annoyance of the lands,
tenements of another, and not amounting to a trespass.‖The distinction between nuisance and trespass
is clear. Trespass is direct physical interference with the plaintiff‘s possession of land through some
material or tangible object while nuisance is an injury to some right accessory to possession but no
possession itself. However, both may overlap when the injury is to possessory as well as to some right
necessary to possession. In order to establish nuisance, there should exist a wrongful act and damage or
loss or inconvenience or annoyance caused to another. Such inconvenience must be such which the law
considers as substantial or material.
Nuisance is of two kinds. Public nuisance is defined in Section 268 of IPC as ―an act or illegal omission
which causes any common injury, danger or annoyance, to the people in general who dwell, or occupy
property, in the vicinity, or which must necessarily cause injury, obstruction, danger or annoyance to
persons who may have occasion to use any public right.‖
Public nuisance can only be subject of one action, otherwise a party might be ruined by a million suits.
In the following circumstances, an individual may have a private right of action in respect a public
nuisance.1. He must show a particular injury to himself beyond that which is suffered by the rest of public
i.e. he must show that he has suffered some damage more than what the general body of the public had
to suffer.2. Such injury must be direct, not a mere consequential injury; as, where one is obstructed, but
another is left open.3. The injury must be shown to be of a substantial character, not fleeting or
evanescent.
80. Abhilaksh‘s neighbor has a mango tree the branches of which spread to his garden. Every year during
the season, the braches shed lots and lots of leaves due to which Abhilaksh is unable to maintain his
own garden which is located there. Decide
(a) This amounts to trespass as plaintiff‘s possession of land is interfered with through some material
object
(b) This amounts to nuisance as this is interference with a right accessory to possession but not
possession itself
(c) This is a case of overlapping of both nuisance and trespass
81. Please refer to the facts above. Abhilaksh‘s neighbor, near the mango tree has planted some ayurvedic
herbs which smell like ammonia. Irritated, Abhilaksh cannot go near his garden located right next to the
mango tree on his side of the land. Decide
(a) This amounts to trespass as plaintiff‘s possession of land is interfered with through some material
object
(b) This amounts to nuisance as this is interference with a right accessory to possession but not
possession itself
(c) This is a case of overlapping of both nuisance and trespass
82. Shuk‘s neighbor wishes to grow the most beautiful sunflowers in the world. He watched on YouTube that
the more pollen a sunflower releases, the more beautiful they are. He procures a special variety of
sunflowers which release a lot of pollen and plants them in his kitchen garden. The entire colony is now
fed up of the pollen grains in the air and cannot breathe properly. Shuk in addition is also allergic to
pollen grains and develops rashes on the skin. The colony collectively files a suit for public nuisance.
Shuk files a private action suit too.
(a) Shuk‘s suit shall be entertained for he is suffering additionally from the sunflowers
(b) Shuk‘s suit shall not be entertained as a public nuisance suit has been filed already
(c) Shuk‘s suit shall be entertained for he is in the closest proximity to his neighbor
(d) Shuk‘s suit shall not be entertained as he should not contribute to multiplicity of proceedings

MOCK CLAT #02
83. Please refer to the facts above. Shuk, due to the pollen grains in the air, developed breathing difficulties.
Consequently, he had to see the doctor and had to get expensive medicines. When the public nuisance
suit was filed against his neighbor, he also filed a private action suit asking for medical expenses.
(a) Shuk‘s suit shall be entertained for he is suffering additionally from the sunflowers
(b) Shuk‘s suit shall not be entertained as a public nuisance suit has been filed already
(c) Shuk‘s suit shall be entertained for he is in the closest proximity to his neighbor
(d) Shuk‘s suit shall not be entertained as his injury is merely consequential.
Passage (Q.84-Q.87):The Supreme Court has observed that the beneficiaries of the policy taken out by
the insured are also 'consumers' under the Consumer Protection Act, even if they are not parties to the
contract of insurance. Referring to the definition of 'consumer' under Section 2(d) of the Act, the bench
noted that the definition of consumer under the Act is very wide and it not only includes the person who
hires or avails of the services for consideration but also includes the beneficiary of such services who
may be a person other than the person who hires or avails of services. It said:
"The definition of consumer under Section 2(d) quoted hereinabove is in 2 parts. Subclause (i) of Section
2(1)(d) deals with a person who buys any goods and includes any user of such goods other than the
person who buys such goods as long as the use is made with the approval of such person. Therefore,
the definition of consumer even in the 1st part not only includes the person who has purchased but
includes any user of the goods so long as such user is made with the approval of the person who has
purchased the goods. As far as the definition of the consumer in relation to hiring or availing of services is
concerned, the definition, in our view, is much wider. In this part of the section, consumer includes not
only the person who has hired or availed of the services but also includes any beneficiary of such
services. Therefore, an insured could be a person who hires or avails of the services of the insurance
company but there could be many other persons who could be the beneficiaries of the services.
Observing thus, the bench held that the definition of 'consumer' includes beneficiaries who can take
benefit of the insurance availed by the insured. Consumer Protection Act clearly provides that a
beneficiary of the services, other than the insured is a consumer under the Act, it added. (Source:
livelaw.in)
84. A cold storage by the name of Sunshine Freezers entered into an insurance contract with an insurance
agency Modified India Insurance. The insurance company under the insurance policy is liable to
indemnify the cold store with regard to the value of goods in case of any mishap. The cold storage
services were availed by some farmers who stored their agricultural produce in the same cold store.
Three months into the contract, the cold storage catches fire and all the goods stored are destroyed. This
caused panic among the farmers. The insurance company refused to reimburse Sunshine Freezers. The
farmers filed a complaint against the repudiation of the claim of the cold storage by the insurance
company. Based on the understanding of the passage decide accordingly.
(a) No relief will be granted to the Farmers as there was no privity of contract between the farmers and
the insurance company because the policy was taken by the cold store and not by the farmers and
therefore, they cannot be called 'consumers'.
(b) The insurance company is be liable to pay for the damage caused by the fire only to the Sunshine
Freezers.
(c) Since farmers are financially impoverished and have suffered huge losses. They are entitled to be
reimbursed. However, in the lack of a privity of contract they can only claim damages from Sunshine
Freezers.
(d) Since, farmers are also the beneficiaries of the services given by the Insurance company. They are
entitled to receive compensation from the Insurance company.
85. Mrs X bought a new I-phone. Within a month of its purchase, she lost it on a train. Mr Y found it lying on
the berth of the train. He tried to look for the owner of the phone but to no avail. So, he kept the phone for
his use. Three months later, while picking up a call, the phone blew up in the hands of Mr Y. Mr Y filed a
complaint against Apple Inc. before the National Consumer Dispute Resolution Forum.
(a) Mr Y is not a consumer because he did not own the phone in the first place.
(b) Mr Y has been using the phone for a period of three months which is sufficient enough for him to be
deemed as the consumer.
(c) Mr Y is an indirect beneficiary of the services of Apple therefore he is a consumer and is entitled to a
compensation.
(d) Mr Y is not a consumer within the meaning of the Consumer Protection Act.
MOCK CLAT #02
86. Smita bought a washing machine for the purpose of gifting it to her sister-in-law, Priti. After 5 months of
use the machine started to act up. Priti tried contacting the company for their services but they outrightly
refused. Smita filed a complaint against the washing machine company:
(a) Smita cannot file a complaint because she is not the immediate consumer of the product anymore.
(b) Only Priti can file the complaint because she has been using the machine with the approval of Smita
and is a beneficiary of services of the washing machine company. Therefore, she is the consumer in
the instant case.
(c) Priti cannot be called the consumer of the services of the washing machine company because there
was no consideration on her part.
(d) Smita can file the complaint as she is a consumer.
87. Strictly based on the understanding of the passage which of the following will be a ‗Consumer‘?
(a) A person who receives a laptop as a scholarship because he is a beneficiary
(b) A person who shoplifts a phone from the electronics market
(c) A person who found a phone lying on the road
Passage (Q.88-Q.92): Demonetization was a big shock for the whole nation in 2016 as Rs.500 and 1000
currency notes ceased to be a legal tender as a prevailing currency in India. Just like the currency notes,
an act that was legal at one time is suddenly no longer legal and instead is illegal and prohibited by law.
These changing circumstances have led to wrongful punishment of many individuals who did not actually
commit any offense that was punishable by law and according to their knowledge, that act was actually
legal. These laws which criminalize any act or increase the punishment of any offense are called ex post
facto laws and it has been mentioned in Article 20(1) of the Indian Constitution (1). Ex post facto law is
derived from the Latin word ―ex post facto‖ which means ‗out of the aftermath‘, it is a law that has
a retrospective consequence on any act committed, which is not prohibited by law, before the enactment
of a preceding law. Ex post facto laws can either label an act as an offense with retrospective effect; or
increase the punishment that is prescribed for an act committed in the past. It is important to protect the
citizens of India from being punished for an act done, which was legal when it was done but was
criminalized or the punishment for that act has been enhanced by any act that was formulated later on.
The prohibition under Article 20(1) is only for a conviction or sentence, but not trial procedure. The
objection does not apply to a change of procedure or of court.
A literal interpretation of Article – 20(1) of the Indian Constitution would mean that the safeguards
provided under this article are given against conviction for an act or omission which was not an offense
under the law that existed at the time of the commission and against any increased punishment for the
same act for which the punishment was different at the time of the commission of the act. It is usually
claimed that Article – 20(1) invalidates ex post facto law.
88. Chitmann Pandey got married to Mahima in 1975. They were happy in their marriage until Chitmann fell
in love with Shanaya in 1980 and got married to her in 1982. The Bigamy act was passed in 1990 laying
down that any person who had two spouse living at the time of enactment of the law would be punishable
with an imprisonment of 7 years. Chitmann was charged under the aforementioned act for having two
wives. Chitmann filed a petition challenging the validity of the Act on the ground that the act was
committed in past and cannot be criminalized by subsequent law. Decide.
(a) Chitmann will not succeed as the Act does not use the term retrospectively and only criminalizes the
current act,
(b) Chitmann will not succeed as the Act prohibits Bigamy in the interest of the public.
(c) Chitmann will succeed as the past acts cannot be criminalized with retrospective effect.
(d) Chitmann will succeed as the punishment of 7 years is not appropriate to the act committed by him.

MOCK CLAT #02
89. Badri was arrested for the possession of an AK-47 rifle and was booked under Terrorist and Disruptive
Activities (Prevention) Act (TADA) which provided for an imprisonment of 10 years. After his arrest the
Government passed a new law Prevention of Terrorist Activities Act (POTA) that made the possession of
a rifle punishable for 20 years. Badri was convicted and was sentenced to 20 years in prison. He
challenged his conviction before the State High Court on the ground that punishment for the act cannot
be enhanced with retrospective effect. Decide.
(a) Badri will succeed as the law which retrospectively increases the punishment is unconstitutional.
(b) Badri will succeed as the punishment of 20 years is not reasonable.
(c) Badri will not succeed as the law does not use the term retrospectively.
90. A new taxation law was introduced by the government of India. This law provided that all the individuals
who evaded tax liability in the past six months would pay a higher penalty to the concerned tax
authorities. Kishan decided to challenge the law to be violative of the fundamental right enshrined in
Article 20 of the Constitution of India. Decide.
(a) The challenge is justified as it has increased the punishment through payment of higher penalty.
(b) The challenge is not justified as it cannot be extended to imposition of fines.
(c) The challenge is justified as it operates through a retrospective effect.
(d) The challenge is not justified because the State has to punish such tax evaders.
91. Mukesh is a sixteen years old boy who is convicted of committing an offence of house trespass along
with outraging the modesty of a girl aged seven years. In pursuance to the same, he has been sentenced
for a rigorous punishment of six months along with a fine of Rs. 50,000. After the judgment was passed,
a new legislation came into existence. This provided that an individual below the age of 21 years shall not
be sentenced to imprisonment. Therefore, Mukesh claims the benefit of the same. Decide.
(a) Mukesh cannot claim the benefit as the law was not in existence when he committed the act.
(b) Mukesh cannot claim the benefit as the judgment has been passed.
(c) Mukesh can claim the benefit since rigorous imprisonment is not a proportionate punishment to his
act.
(d) Mukesh can claim ex-post facto law could be applied to reduce the punishment.
92. In order to control the corrupt practices, Prevention of Corrupt Act (PCA), 1950 was introduced. This
provided that if any public servant is found in possession of disproportionate assets without an
explanation they shall be found guilty of criminal misconduct. Sachin challenged the law on the ground
that while calculating the disproportionate assets only the assets acquired after the date of PCA can be
taken into account. If the asset acquired prior to PCA is taken into account then it shall amount
criminalizing a past act thus violative of Article 20. Decide.
(a) The offence of disproportionate assets is different from its calculation therefore no violation.
(b) It would be unjust to take past acts into consideration thus violative of Article 20.
(c) The data so available is not sufficient to reach a conclusive end.
(d) The assets acquired from more than ones known sources were made a crime only in 1950 so the
property prior to it was irrelevant for PCA.
Passage (Q.93-Q.98):
Road safety is a State subject. The administration of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 is under the transport
Department. The aforesaid Act provides in detail the legislative provisions regarding registration of motor
vehicles. For exercising the legislative provisions of the Act, the Government of India made the Central
Motor Vehicles Rules 1989. Additionally, there are Rules of Road Regulations, 1989. The RTO with
which every individual is interacting, its services are discussed below:
Law relating to Registration of Vehicle
o Mandatory Registration: Under section 39 of the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988, it prohibits driving of any
motor vehicle or any vehicle, which is not registered or no owner of vehicle should permit driving of an
unregistered vehicle in public place which is not registered under the provision of the MV Act.
Exception to this provision is cars with the dealers.

MOCK CLAT #02
o Jurisdiction for Application: Registration of the vehicle is done by the concerned authority is done
on the basis of your residence or place of residence or place of business, where the vehicle is
normally kept.
o Application for Jointly owned Vehicle: In case of joint ownership, the registration of vehicle can be
applied by one of the owners. If a vehicle registered in one state is kept in another state for more than
a period of 12 months, then owner of such vehicle has to approach the registration authority for
assignment of new registration mark within whose jurisdiction the vehicle is.
o Change of Address: If there is change of address, then also, the owner of vehicle is required to
approach the authority within 30 days in whose jurisdiction he has shifted for recording the change of
address.
Under section 48 of the motor vehicles act of 1988, the registering authority may, by order, refuse to
register any motor vehicle, or renew the certificate of registration in respect of a motor vehicle (other than
a transport vehicle), if in either case, the registering authority has reason to believe that it is a stolen
motor vehicle or the vehicle is mechanically defective or fails to comply with the requirements of this Act
or of the rules made thereunder, or if the applicant fails to furnish particulars of any previous registration
of the vehicle or furnishes inaccurate particulars in the application for registration of the vehicle or, as the
case may be, for renewal of the certificate or registration thereof and the registering authority shall furnish
the applicant whose vehicle is refused registration, or whose application for renewal of the certificate of
registration is refused, a copy of such order, together with the reasons for such refusal.
93. John purchased a new sports bike. It hasn‘t been yet received its registration no. But John got too excited
to flaunt it before his friends, so he took it out for a zoom. On the en route to a club, cops stop him and
seize the bike. John reasoned that his bike is new and the registration no. is not yet issued, but the cops
give him no ear and ask him to appear before the court. According to the information provided in the
above passage, was this action by the police correct?
(a) Yes. Being an agency of the state, the police have absolute power to do so.
(b) No. The bike has the provisional registration on it. This action by the police was not legal.
(c) Yes. No owner of vehicle should permit driving of an unregistered vehicle in public place.
(d) No. The police has no power to seize any vehicle.
94. Karan Singh resides in New Delhi. He purchased a pre-owned Audi Q7 from Ranbir Kapoor of
Chandigarh. It‘s been eleven months from the purchase, the car yet carries a Chandigarh registration.
One day cops spot the car on the streets of Noida and issue a challan. Karan challenges this in the court
of law and the judge orders the challan-issuing cop to pay penalty to Karan from his personal account.
According to the information provided in the above passage, why do you think would be the reason for
such ruling?
(a) Because Karan still had some time to apply for a local registration.
(b) Because Karan had a VIP registration no. on his car.
(c) Because Noida falls in UP, not in New Delhi.
95. Babubhaiya, Raju, and Shyam opened a garage in partnership. They decide to buy a tow truck to cater
the requirements of customers and get a pre-used tow truck. But they are now stuck at to whose name
they shall get it registered, as the RTO authority denied granting the registration under their business‘s
name. According to the information provided in the above passage, what should they do?
(a) Resell the tow truck as registration is denied.
(b) They should by a new tow truck for the sake of the business.
(c) They should challenge RTO in the court of the law.
(d) They should re-apply for registration under any of the partner‘s name.

MOCK CLAT #02
96. ViratKohli purchased a new modified car and approached the local authority for registration. But the
person in charge denied the registration. ViratKohli took this matter to the court of law and got the
responsible officer suspended. According to the information provided in the above passage, can you tell
why this happened?
(a) Because the concerned officer didn‘t provide reason for the denial.
(b) Because ViratKohli is a celebrity, the case was ruled to pacify him.
(c) Because the concerned officer failed to prove that the car had stolen parts installed in it.
97. Based in Bhopal, Amit owned a house and a car. He got transferred to Indore, where he took his car
along. Six months later, his car gets involved in an accident. Though the accident wasn‘t his mistake, but
the insurance company refuses to pay him and the cops denied releasing the vehicle without a penalty.
According to the information provided in the above passage, why do you think this happened?
(a) Because Amit‘s car was parked in no a parking zone.
(b) Because Amit‘s car was still registered at his old address of Bhopal.
(c) Because the damage wasn‘t covered by the insurance provider.
(d) Can‘t say. it‘s a state matter.
98. According to the information provided in the above passage, what allows the transport department to
exercise legislative provisions about registration of vehicles?
(a) Motor vehicle Act 1988.
(b) Rules of Road regulations, 1989.
(c) The central motor vehicle rules, 1989.
(d) Highway act 1999.
Passage (Q.99-Q.103): In common parlance, the word ‗abet‗ signifies help, co-activity and support and
incorporates within its ambit, illegitimate reason to commit the crime. So as to bring an individual abetting
the doing of a thing under any of the conditions specified under Section 107 of the Indian Penal Code, it
isn‘t just important to demonstrate that the individual who has abetted has participated in the means of
the transactions yet additionally has been associated with those means of the transaction which are
criminal.
The offense of abetment by instigation relies on the intention of the individual who abets and not upon the
act which is finished by the individual who has abetted. The abetment might be by instigation, connivance
or purposeful aid as given under Section 107 of the Indian Penal Code. Abetment under the Penal Code
involves active complicity on the part of the abettor at a point of time prior to the actual commission of
that offence, and it is of the essence of the crime of abetment that the abettor should substantially assist
the principal culprit towards the commission of the offence. Nowhere, concurrence in the criminal acts of
another without such participation therein as helps to give effect to the criminal act or purpose, is
punishable under the Code.
For an individual to be called liable for Abetment, and so as to proceed against an individual for a criminal
offense under Section 107, prosecution must claim the component of mensrea. Negligence or
carelessness can‘t be named to be abetment in order to punish the liable, according to the arrangement
of penal laws.
So as to establish abetment, the abettor must have appeared to ―deliberately‖ support the commission of
the wrongdoing. In such a case we need to just prove that the wrongdoing charged couldn‘t have been
done without the association as well as intervention of the supposed abettor isn‘t sufficient with the
prerequisites of Section 107.

MOCK CLAT #02
99. Rajat and Ambika were married. However, Rajat‘s mother Sashi is not fond of Ambika because of the
dowry given by her family. The conduct, language and expression of Sashi are derogatory towards
Ambika suggesting that she comes from a broke family. Ambika is mentally broken by all this and gets
depressed. One sudden day she decided to commit suicide by hanging herself. Rajat and Sashi are
prosecuted for abetting the suicide of Ambika. Decide.
(a) Rajat is liable as he did not intervene in the cruel treatment of the mother to his wife.
(b) Rajat and Sashi are both liable. The former is liable indirectly while the latter is directly responsible for
the outcome.
(c) Only Sashi is liable as her conduct stimulated the outcome.
(d) Both of them are not guilty as no active steps were taken so as to be held liable under abetment.
100. Amit and Akhila are good friends. At one instance, where they were together Akhila told Amit about the
tussle that is going on between Akhila and her business partner Abhijeet. Amit suggests the murder of
Abhijeet. However, Akhila did not murder Abhijeet and ignored the instigation. Decide.
(a) Amit is not guilty of abetment as the instigation was ignored.
(b) Amit is guilty of abetment even when it was not acted upon.
(c) Amit is not guilty as the Abhijeet was not murdered.
(d) Amit is not guilty as the words were devoid of mensrea.
101. Based on the factual information provided in the aforementioned question, if Akhila stabbed Abhijeet but
he ended up recovering in the hospital, would that be considered abetment?
(a) No, it would not amount to abetment as the desired result was not achieved.
(b) No, it would not amount to abetment as Abhijeet has recovered.
(c) Yes, it would amount to abetment as the requisite effect is not an essential condition.
(d) Yes, it would amount to abetment and the liability would be shared by Amit and Akhila.
102. Aditya instigated Bheem to instigate Palash to commit the offence of theft. Palash has committed the
theft and has been arrested for the same. Bheem is also arrested and charged for the offence of
abetment. Decide the liability of Aditya.
(a) Aditya will not be liable as he was not the instigator of Palash.
(b) Aditya will not be liable as he did not intend for the outcome.
(c) Aditya will be liable for abetting Bheem.
(d) Aditya will be liable but not under the offence of abetment.
103. Based on the information provided in the passage, decide whether the words uttered in an angry state
would amount to abetment?
(a) Yes, it would amount to abetment but it has to assessed based on the result.
(b) Yes, it would amount to abetment if such words incite the other person.
(c) No, it would not amount to abetment as it is devoid of intention.
(d) No, it would not amount to abetment but negligence.
Passage (Q.104- Q.107): A concept borrowed from the Irish Constitution, the roots of the Directive
Principles of State Policy lie in the history of India itself. Since the times of the myriad rulers India had
seen, the responsibility of both initiation and execution of efforts to improve the lot of the people had lain
with the government.Brought up in such an environment, the members of the Constituent Assembly
believed that the responsibility of development of the country lay with the government. The Directive
Principles of State Policy, hereafter referred to as DPSPs, are enshrined in Part IV (Articles 36-51) of the
Constitution of India. Their primary function is to serve as a guideline for the government policy formation.
The government is expected to take these principles into consideration while performing its legislative
functions. But unlike the Fundamental Rights, contained in Part III of the Constitution, these principles are
not enforceable.But merely because they are not justiciable in a court of law, does not render them
useless. Their importance has increased manifold over the years. They serve not only as guidelines
today, but also keep a check on the governments, even though that check is not the Court‘s but the
citizens‘. The parties that form governments today are not concerned with the well-being of the nation.
They play divisive politics for their personal betterment. They are concerned with the furtherance of their

MOCK CLAT #02
ideologies that the nation may not even share. In this environment, the DPSPs are a yardstick for the
government‘s performance and also a check on arbitrary legislation.
Apart from laying the guidelines for government policy making, the DPSPs also lay down the objectives of
the Indian State. They differentiate between a ‗Welfare State‘ and ‗Police State‘, their presence making
India the former. They provisions in this Part include promotion of welfare of citizens, provision of free
legal aid to the economically disabled, organizing village panchayats, developing a Uniform Civil Code,
raising nutrition levels, etc. They also aim to establish democracy promised in the Preamble.
104. Amit was arrested for the charges of smuggling drugs. When the matter went to the court, the Judge
noticed that Amit was not represented by a lawyer. On being questioned about the same, he expresses
his inability to afford a lawyer due to financial reasons. The DPSP provide for a free legal aid at such
instances. Further, the State Bar Council Rules provided for every lawyer to represent minimum of 4
clients with economic inadequacy. Mr. Tripathi was asked to represent Amit as his counsel. However, Mr.
Tripathi denies stating that he already had 4 such cases with him and is occupied with a Tax case in the
High Court. Can Mr. Tripathi Refuse?
(a) Mr. Tripathi can refuse as he has already taken the required 4 cases as per the rules.
(b) Mr. Tripathi can refuse since he has a cases being listed in the high court.
(c) Mr. Tripathi can refuse as there is no proof of the financial incapacity of Amit.
(d) Mr. Tripathi cannot refuse as the free legal aid should be provided those who cannot afford it for
economic reasons.
105. Manisha was working in a factory owned by Mr. Anirban Bansal but operated and managed by the State
government. Manisha gets pregnant and seeks for maternity leave. However, she was asked to resign on
the maternity grounds with an assurance that she can reapply and it will be consideration when she
reapplies. The DPSP‘s provide for the State to make provisions for just and humane conditions at work
along with maternity relief. Manisha files a petition against the factory stating that the state has failed to
perform its duty of making provisions for maternity relief. Decide.
(a) Manisha will succeed the State is bound by the duty of providing maternity relief.
(b) Manisha will not succeed as the State is not mandatorily required to provide maternity relief to her.
(c) Manisha will succeed as the factory even if owned by a private individual but is under the control of
the State.
(d) Manisha will not succeed as the owner is a private person and DPSP is only enforceable against the
State.
106. Heena is a widow seeking an employment opportunity on State Bank of India on the ground of her being
the sole bread winner in the family. Heena‘s husband was the employee of the aforementioned bank at
the time of his death. The bank rejects the application of Heena on the ground that she fails to fulfill the
minimum educational qualifications required for the job. Heena files a petition in the court on the ground
that the State has failed to perform its duty to secure employment enshrined in DPSP‘s. Decide.
(a) The petition will succeed because she can demand employment on compassionate grounds that the
husband was the employee at the time of his death.
(b) The petition will succeed as the State has the obligation to secure employment for its citizens.
(c) The petition will not succeed as she does not meet minimum educational qualifications.
(d) The petition will not succeed as DPSP‘s are not enforceable.
107. Based on the information provided in the passage, decide the nature of directive principles of state policy
from the following:
(a) Judicially acknowledgeable
(b) Only Socialist
(c) Socio-economic

MOCK CLAT #02
Passage (Q.108-Q.113): There is no doubt that medicine is a true profession, a profession dedicated to
the preservation and improvement of human life. Physicians diagnose patient conditions, infer likely
causes and effects, and identify the most effective treatment for each condition.
How does business management compare to medicine? Like doctors, managers diagnose business
conditions, infer causes and effects, and identify effective and acceptable interventions. Like medicine,
management is a complex task, with its own system of knowledge maintained, advanced and transmitted
by business schools. Managers deal with complex and important human problems related to how capital,
labour and natural resources are utilized to create economic wealth. Management decisions impact the
well-being of society through the creation of work opportunities, the provision of goods and services, the
use of natural resources, and the delivery of financial returns to investors. Yet, while no one questions
the idea that medical education would be incomplete without the perpetuation of a set of professional
values we have not yet dared impose such obligations on business educators. At least not unanimously
nor unequivocally.
Argument: Medicine is a true profession, a profession dedicated to the preservation and improvement of
human life. Physicians diagnose patient conditions, infer likely causes and effects, and identify the most
effective treatment for each condition.
Based on the argument, identify the correct description of each of the following statements
108. Statement: Medical decisions are constrained by a set of ethical and legal guidelines as to what
constitutes an acceptable treatment.
The above statement is:
(a) Inference Statement (b) Strengthening Statement
(c) Weakening Statement (d) Parallel Reasoning Statement
109. Statement: Competition and profit maximization have led to the availability of many medicines that have
harmful side effects that are not made known to the public.
(c) Weakening Statement (d) Parallel Reasoning Statement
110. Statement: Supported by precise calculations and bound by fixed rules, the increasingly accurate
forecasts of the astrologers have made astrology a desired profession.
(c) Weakening Statement (d) None of the Above
111. Statement: Law is an honourable profession as it is bound by a code of ethics and values, and helps to
preserve society and ensures collective survival.
(a) Strengthening Statement (b) Weakening Statement
(c) Parallel Reasoning Statement (d) None of the Above
112. Statement: Medicine has positively impacted the overall wellbeing of people all over the world by better
treatment of hitherto untreatable diseases.
(a) Strengthening Statement (b) Weakening Statement

MOCK CLAT #02
113. Statement: Acting is a noble profession as it emulates life and all actors - try to perform in the best
possible manner and win accolades for their performance.
Passage (Q.114-Q.120): Pesticides lose their role in sustainable agriculture if the pests evolve
resistance. The evolution of pesticides resistance is simply natural selection in action. It is almost certain
to occur when vast numbers of a genetically variable organisms are killed. One or a few individuals may
be unusually resistant (perhaps because they possess an enzyme that can detoxify the pesticide). If the
pesticide is applied repeatedly, each successive generation of the pest will contain a larger portion of
resistant individuals. Pests typically have a high intrinsic rate of reproduction and so, a few individuals in
one generation may give rise to hundreds or thousands in the next and resistance spreads very rapidly in
a population. This fact was often ignored in the past, even though the first case of
DichloroDiphenylTrichlorocthane aka DDT resistance was reported as early as 1946. There is
exponential increase in the numbers of invertebrates that have evolved resistance and in the number of
pesticides against which resistance has evolved. Resistance has been recorded in every family of
arthropod pests (including dipterans such as mosquitoes and houseflies, as well as beetles, moths,
wasps, fleas, lice and mites) as well as in weeds and plant pathogens. Take the Alabama leaf worm, a
moth pest of cotton as an example. It has developed resistance in one or more regions of the world to
aldrin, DDT, dieldrin, endrin, lindane and toxaphene.
If chemical pesticides brought nothing but problems, (if their use was intrinsically and acutely
unsustainable) then they would already have fallen out of widespread use. This has not happened,
instead their rate of production has increased rapidly. The ratio of cost to benefit for the individual
agricultural producer has remained in favour of pesticide use. In the USA, insecticides have been
estimated to benefit the agricultural products to the tune of around $ 5 for every $ 1 spent.
Moreover, in many poorer countries, the prospect of imminent mass starvation, or of an epidemic
disease, are so frightening that the social and health costs of using pesticides have to be ignored. In
general, the use of pesticides is justified by objective measures such as 'lives saved', 'economic
efficiency of food production' and 'total food produced'. In these very fundamental senses, their use may
be described as sustainable. In practice, sustainability depends on continually developing new pesticides
that keep at least one step ahead of the pests—pesticides that are less persistent, biodegradable and
more accurately targeted at the pests.
114. 'The evolution of pesticides resistance is natural selection in action.' What does it actually imply?
(a) It is very natural for many organisms to have pesticides resistance
(b) Pesticides resistance among organisms is a universal phenomenon
(c) Some individuals in any given population show resistance after the application of pesticides
115. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements

1. Use of chemical pesticides has become imperative in all the poor countries of the world.
2. Chemical pesticides should not have any role in sustainable agriculture.
3. One pest can develop resistance to many pesticides.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
116. Though the problems associated with the use of chemical pesticides is known for a long time, their
widespread use has not waned. Why?
(a) Alternatives to chemical pesticides do not exist at all
(b) New pesticides are not invented at all
(c) Pesticides are biodegradable

MOCK CLAT #02
117. How do pesticides act as agents for the selection of resistant individuals in any pest population?
1. It is possible that in a pest population, the individuals will behave differently due to their genetic make-
up.
2. Pests do possess the ability to detoxify the pesticides,
3. Evolution of pesticides resistance is equally distributed in pest population.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
118. Why is the use of chemical pesticides generally justified by giving the examples of poor and developing
countries?
1. Developed countries can afford to do away with use of pesticides by adapting to organic farming, but
it is imperative for poor and developing countries to use chemical pesticides.
2. In poor and developing countries, the pesticide addresses the problem of epidemic diseases of crops
and eases the food problems.
3. The social and health costs of pesticide use are generally ignored in poor and developing countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) land 2 (c) Only 2 (d) All of these
119. What does the passage imply?

(a) Alternative options to chemical pesticides should be promoted
(b) Too much use of chemicals is not good for the ecosystem
(c) There is no scope for the improvement of pesticides and making their use sustainable
120. From the passage it can be inferred that the best way to use a pesticide is :
(a) Use the same pesticide continuously on the same pests
(b) Completely give up the use of pesticides.
(c) Use nontoxic pesticides such as herbal ones.
(d) Keep changing the pesticides for the same pests
Passage (Q.121-Q.127): To broaden their voting appeal in the Presidential election of 1796, the
Federalists selected Thomas Pinckney, a leading South Carolinian, as running - mate for the New
Englander John Adams. But Pinckney's Southern friends chose to ignore their party's intentions and
regarded Pinckney as a Presidential candidate, creating a political situation that Alexander Hamilton was
determined to exploit. Hamilton had long been wary of Adams' stubbornly independent brand of politics
and preferred to see his running - mate, over whom he could exert more control, in the President's chair.
The election was held under the system originally established by the Constitution. At that time there was
but a single tally, with the candidate receiving the largest number of electoral votes declared President
and the candidate with the second largest number declared Vice President‘. Hamilton anticipated that all
the Federalists in the North would vote forAdams and Pinckney equally in an attempt to ensure that
Jefferson would not be either first or second in the voting. Pinckney would be solidly supported in the
South while Adams would not. Hamilton concluded if it were possible to divert a few electoral votes from
Adams to Pinckney, Pinckney would receive more than Adams, yet both Federalists would outpoll
Jefferson.
Various methods were used to persuade the electors to vote as Hamilton wished. In the press,
anonymous articles werepublished attacking Adams for his monarchical tendencies and Jefferson for
being overly democratic, while pushing Pinckney as the only suitable candidate. In private
correspondence with state party leaders theHamiltonians encouraged the idea that Adams‘ popularity
was slipping, that he could not win the election, and that the Federalists could defeat Jefferson only by
supporting Pinckney.
Had sectional pride and loyalty not run as high in New England as in the deep South, Pinckney might well
have becomeWashington's successor. New Englanders, however, realized that equal votes for Adams

MOCK CLAT #02
and Pinckney in their states would defeat Adams. Therefore, 18 electors scratched Pinckney's name from
their ballots and deliberately threw away their second votes to men who were not even running. It was
fortunate for Adams that they did, for the electors from South Carolina completely abandoned him, giving
eight votes to Pinckney and eight to Jefferson.
In the end, Hamilton's interference in Pinckney's candidacy lost even the Vice Presidency for the man
from SouthCarolina. Without New England's support, Pinckney received only 59 electoral votes, finishing
third to Adams and Jefferson. He might have been President in 1797 or as Vice President a serious
contender for the Presidency in 1800; instead, stigmatized by a plot he had not devised, he served a brief
term in the United States Senate and then dropped from sight as a national influence.
121. According to the passage, which of the following was true of the presidential election of 1796?
(a) Thomas Jefferson received more electoral votes than did Thomas Pinckney.
(b) John Adams received strong support from the electors of South Carolina.
(c) Alexander Hamilton received the most of the electoral votes of New England.
(d) Thomas Pinckney was selected by Federalist Party leaders to be the party's presidential candidate.
122. According to the passage, Hamilton's plan included all BUT which of the following?
(a) Articles published in newspapers to create opposition to John Adams.
(b) South Carolina's loyalty to Thomas Pinckney.
(c) Private contact with state officials urging them to support Thomas Pinckney.
(d) Portraying John Adams‘ reputation as a stubborn and independent New Englander.
123. The passage supplies information that answers which of the following questions?
(a) How many votes were cast for John Adams in the 1796 presidential election?
(b) Under the voting system originally set up by the constitution, how many votes did each elector cast?
(c) Who was Jefferson‘s running - mate in the 1796 presidential election?
(d) What became of Alexander Hamilton after his plan to have Thomas Pinckney elected president
failed?
124. Why does the author refer to the election procedure established by the original constitution?
(a) To prove to the reader that New England as a whole had more electoral votes than the state of
SouthCarolina.
(b) To persuade the reader that Thomas Pinckney's defeat could have been avoided.
(c) To alert the reader that the procedure used in 1796 was unlike that presently used.
(d) To encourage the reader to study constitutional history.
125. The overall development of the passage can best be described as

(a) Refuting possible explanations for certain phenomena.
(b) Documenting a thesis with specific examples.
(c) Offering an explanation of a series of events.
(d) Making particular proposals to solve a problem.
126. The electors who scratched Pinckney‘s name from their ballots behaved most like which of the following
people?
(a) A newspaper publisher who adds a special section to the Sunday edition to review the week's political
events.
(b) A member of the clergy who encourages members of other faiths to meet to discuss solutions to the
community's problems. ;
(c) An artist who saves preliminary sketches of an important work even after the work is finally
completed.
(d) A general who orders his retreating troops to destroy the supplies they must leave behind so they
cannot beused by the enemy.

MOCK CLAT #02
127. Hamilton's strategy can best be summarized as

(a) divide and conquer (b) retreat and regroup
(c) faint and counterattack (d) hit and run
Passage (Q.128-Q.131): Karan: To become a coach, it should be made necessary that one should have
been a very successful player in his younger age because if the person has not known how to handle the
pressure of a live match then how can he/she give tips to current players of the game to handle pressure.
Skill is something every player has at an international level, but handling the pressure is something totally
different.
Sakshi: The coach needs to have good insights of the game. He/She must know the nook and corners of
all the tricks and rules there are to the game. Handling pressure is a pressure in itself, tackling which is a
skill, residing in the wiles of a person who has seen the game from its closest and to its purest form.
These can only be possible if a person possesses good coaching acumen. Only he can be a coach worth
of international standards.
128. Which of the following options is an incident that follows the pattern of reasoning as has been
enumerated by Karan?
(a) Mr. Shukla has appeared for becoming a teacher at a school. His bio shows mediocre school-grades
and university academics. His bio however boasts of his good and successful experience as a
teacher. He gets the job.
(b) Ravindran has done his masters in sports health and fitness and his specialty is in Marathon running.
He has trained many Indian athletes. Ogoba, a Kenyan Marathon runner calls him up and asks him to
be his fitness trainer.
(c) Indra is a top-notch film producer. He is looking for a director who would direct a top-notch script for
him. Amitabh Bachchan decides to take a shot at directing and approaches Indra. Indra gives
Mr.Bachchan the role of the direction of the film.
(d) Both (a) and (b) but not (c)
129. Which of the following is a hidden assumption that has been made by Karan in his arguments?
(a) All good players know how to manage pressure
(b) Current generation players might not know how to handle pressure
(c) All international standard players have the requisite skill-set
(d) Handling pressure is much difficult than playing the game
130. Which of the following statements is true as per the arguments of Sakshi?
(a) A good coach can be a good player
(b) A good coach should possess all the requisite set of skills required for a player
(c) A good coach need not have been a good player
(d) Skills are something that are gathered while coaching
131. Which of the following can be a suitable conclusion for Sakshi‘s arguments?
(a) Handling pressure is not the supreme skill to judge who should be a coach
(b) All good players can be good coaches if they have been good observers of the game
(c) A person with in-depth knowledge of the game and mentoring skills can be a good coach
(d) Handling pressure is a skill in itself, which good coaches possess
132. Ravi is a son of Aman‘s father‘s sister. Sahil is the son of Divya who is the mother of Gaurav and
grandmother of Aman. Ashok is the father of Tanya and grandfather of Ravi. Divya is the wife of Ashok.
How is Ravi related to Divya?
(a) Nephew
(b) Son
(c) Grandson
(d) Data inadequate

MOCK CLAT #02
133. Read the following instructions:

P $ Q means P is the brother of Q;
P # Q means P is the mother of Q;
P * Q means P is the daughter of Q
If the code of family is A # B $ C * D, who is the father in them?
(a) D
(b) B
(c) C
(d) A
Directions (Q.134 and Q.135): What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following
number series?
134. 7, 10, 16, 28, ? , 100

(a) 34
(b) 40
(c) 52
(d) 60
135. 9, 11, 16, 26, ? , 69

(a) 31
(b) 38
(c) 43
(d) 45

MOCK CLAT #02
Directions (Q.136–Q.140): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
On the occasion of a cultural program in a stadium, there are 400 artists in all who are participating in four different
events viz- Drama, Dance, Skit, and Singing. The ratio of male to female artists is 2:3. 25% of the female artists are
participating in Drama. 40% of the female artists are participating in Dance. The remaining female artists are
participating in Skit and Singing in the ratio of 4:3. The ratio of male artists who are participating in Drama and other
events together is 1:7. 25% of those male artists who are not participating in Drama are participating in Singing. The
remaining male artists are participating in Dance and Skit in the ratio of 3:4.
136. What is the total number of female artists who are participating in Drama and Skit together?
(a) 106 (b) 104 (c) 108 (d) 112
137. What is the difference between the male artists participating in Skit and the female artists participating in Singing?
(a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 22 (d) 25
138. What is the ratio of the female artists participating in Singing to those male artists participating in Dance?
(a) 2:3 (b) 5:6 (c) 3:4 (d) 4:5
139. What is the total number of artists participating in Dance and Drama together?
(a) 221 (b) 222 (c) 208 (d) 228
140. What is the ratio of the male artists participating in Singing to the female artists participating in Skit?
(a) 39:47 (b) 38:47 (c) 36:47 (d) 35:48
Direction (Q.141–Q.145): Study the table carefully and answer the questions given below:
Details of employees deployed at different levels by a company in different departments.
Manager Officer
Department Number M:F Number M:F
Operations 2200 7:4 2800 6:8
Public relations 1800 5:4 2500 9 : 11
Finance 2500 14 : 11 3200 17 : 15
Advertising 2900 12 : 17 1600 9:7
Sales 2400 9:7 2600 8:5
Procurement 2700 5:4 2200 9 : 13
141. The total number of female employees (Managers and Officers) in Procurement department is approximately by
what per cent more than their male counterparts?
(a) 2% (b) 6% (c) 4% (d) 8%
142. The number of female managers in Finance department is what per cent of the total number of male managers in
Sales department?
(a) 77% (b) 82% (c) 78% (d) 81%
143. What is the ratio of the total number of female managers in Operations and Finance departments to that of male
officers in these two departments?
(a) 25:29 (b) 19:26 (c) 19:25 (d) 19:29
144. The total number of male officers in Advertisingnad Sales departments is approximately what per cent the total
number of officers in these two department?
(a) 55.8% (b) 56% (c) 57.5% (d) 59.5%
145. What is the different between the total number of female officers in Advertising and Public Relations department
and the total number of female managers in these two department?
(a) 405 (b) 415 (c) 425 (d) 435

MOCK CLAT #02
Directions (Q.146 – Q.150): Study the following bar graph and table carefully to answer the questions given below:
The following bar graph shows data related to population of different states(in lakhs) in the year 1992
Population
6
5 5
5 4.5
3.7
4
2.8 3
3
0
Bihar AP HP Haryana Odisha Assam
Population
The following table shows the ratio b/w male, female and literacy, illiterate and also graduates and under graduates.
Literacy and Graduates and
Different states Male and female undergraduates
illiterate
Bihar 3:2 1:4 4:7

AP 4:6 4 :1 6:7
HP 3:4 2 :1 3:2
Haryana 5:4 3:2 7:8
Odisha 2:3 2:3 4:5
Assam 2:1 7:2 6:7
146. If in the year 1993 there was an increase of 10% population of AP. and 12% of Bihar compared to the previous
year, than what was the ratio of the population of AP. to Bihar?
(a) 521:540 (b) 405:530 (c) 408:505 (d) 407:560
147. What was the approximate percentage of women of Andhra Pradesh to the women of HP?
(a) 90% (b) 110% (c) 120% (d) 126%
148. if 70% of total no of literate population in Assam are graduate what is the total no of under graduates
in the Assam in the year 1992?
(a) 65300 (b) 70000 (c) 62021 (d) 82120
149. In Haryana, if 70% of the females are literate and 75% of the males are literate, what is the total number of illiterates
in the state?
(a)12,2500 (b) 85,000 (c) 84,000 (d) 81,000
150. What is the ratio of literates in Assam to the literates in Bihar?

(a) 2 : 5 (b) 3 : 5 (c) 7 : 3 (d) 2 : 3

MOCK CLAT #03

Candidate Name : _________________
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
T49_MC15_ALL_03_019-20

Test Centre/Hall.
MOCK CLAT #03
Passage (Q.1-Q.6): Subatomic particles can be divided into two classes: fermions and bosons, terms
coined by physicist Paul Dirac in honor of his peers Enrico Fermi and Satyendra Bose. Fermions, which
include electrons, protons, and neutrons, obey the Pauli exclusion principle, according to which no two
particles can inhabit the same fundamental state. For example, electrons cannot circle the nuclei of
atoms in precisely the same orbits, loosely speaking, and thus must occupy more and more distant
locations, like a crowd filling seats in a stadium. The constituents of ordinary matter are fermions; indeed,
the fact that fermions are in some sense mutually exclusive is the most salient reason why two things
composed of ordinary matter cannot be in the same place at the same time.
Conversely, bosons, which include photons (particles of light) and the hitherto elusive Higgs boson, do
not obey the Pauli principle and in fact tend to bunch together in exactly the same fundamental state, as
in lasers, in which each photon proceeds in perfect lockstep with all the others. Interestingly, the
seemingly stark division between fermionic and bosonic behavior can be bridged. All particles possess
―spin,‖ a characteristic vaguely analogous to that of a spinning ball; boson spins are measured in
integers, such as 0 and 1, while fermion spins are always half-integral, such as ½ and 1½. As a result,
whenever an even number of fermions group together, that group offermions, with its whole-number total
spin, effectively becomes a giant boson. Within certain metals chilled to near absolute zero, for instance,
so-called Cooper pairs of electrons form; these pairs flow in precise harmony and with zero resistance
through the metal, which is thus said to have achieved a superconductive condition. Similarly, helium-4
atoms(composed of 2 electrons, 2 protons, and 2 neutrons) can collectively display boson-like activity
when cooled to a superfluid state. A swirl in a cup of superfluid helium will, amazingly, never dissipate.
The observation that even-numbered groups of fermions can behave like bosons raises the corollary
question of whether groups of bosons can ever exhibit fermionic characteristics. Some scientists argue
for the existence of skyrmions (after the theorist Tony Skyrme who first described the behavior of these
hypothetical fermion-like groups of bosons) in superconductors and other condensed-matter
environments, where twists in the structure of the medium might permit skyrmions to form.
1. The example of ―a crowd filling seats in a stadium‖ in the passage is intended to

(a) expand upon one consequence of the Pauli Exclusion Principle
(b) illustrate a behavior of certain fermions
(c) describe how electrons circle the nuclei of atoms in concentric, evenly-spaced orbits
(d) both (a) and (b)
2. The author‘s primary purpose in writing this passage is to

(a) explain the mechanism by which fermions can become bosons
(b) describe the two classes of subatomic particles
(c) provide examples of the different forms of matter
(d) explain the concept of particle ―spin‖
3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of bosons?

(a) They can be composed of groups of fermions.
(b) They are measured in integer spin.
(c) They are the constituents of ordinary matter.
(d) They tend to bunch together in the same fundamental state.
4. Which of the following can be properly inferred from the passage?

(a) An atom composed of two protons and a neutron would be considered a boson.
(b) Skyrmions have been discovered in superconductors and other condensed matter environments.
(c) Two electrons in an atom cannot circle the same nucleus at exactly the same distance.
(d) A current through a superconducting wire will never dissipate.

MOCK CLAT #03
5. According to the passage, which of the following describes a difference between fermions and bosons?
(a) Fermions cannot inhabit the same fundamental state, whereas bosons bunch together in the same
state.
(b) Fermions contain many more types of particles than bosons.
(c) Fermions exist in groups, but bosons do not.
(d) Fermions have integral spin values, whereas Bosons have half-integer spin.
6. Based on the information in the passage about the Pauli exclusion principle, to which one of the following
situations would this principle be most relevant?
(a) Fermi Energy: The maximum energy that electrons in a solid will contain in order to avoid having
identical energy levels.
(b) Particle Accelerators: Devices that will accelerate charged particles to very high speeds through the
application of an external magnetic field.
(c) Quantum Entanglement: When particles interact physically and then become separated but still have
interdependent properties.
(d) Double Slit Experiment: An experiment that revealed the particle and wave duality of photons.
Passage (Q.7-Q.11): Invisible theater and guerrilla theater are two forms of street theater with similar
origins but very different approaches. Both forms take place exclusively in public places, but invisible
theater conceals its performative nature whereas guerrilla theater flaunts it. While invisible theater
creates a performance space unbeknownst to its audience, guerrilla theater actively seeks the attention
of an audience by explicitly imposing a performance space onto a public place.
Starting in the early 1970‘s, Augusto Boal and fellow actors have staged scenes regarding social issues
in public or semi-public places (e.g., restaurants), crafting their dialog and action to get a verbal reaction
from bystanders. Because performers and non-performers remain distinct, invisible theater returns
somewhat to the model set up by traditional theater. However, there are a few key differences. The
performance space is created in public places without the awareness of non-performers. For non-
performers, being beyond the performative space allows them to avoid the etiquette of theater going and
removes that ―lens‖ that unavoidably emerges when we feel we are viewing art or performance. If people
do not suspect that they are viewing art, however, they are free to engage with the action and concepts
of an unfolding drama as if these actions and concepts were real.
Boal has documented various successful instances of invisible theater in which non-performers actively
listen, participate in public-spirited discussion, and even take unplanned public-minded action in
response to the dialogue and events set up by invisible theater performers. Because onlookers think they
are witnessing real life events, because the performers are bold in their statements, because the scripted
characters are very vocal about what they are doing and experiencing, invisible theater is able to
instigate political conversation within an everyday context; it successfully creates public forums out of thin
air.
Guerrilla theater creates surprise performances in public, but is driven by the forceful imposition of
―traditional‖ (if we can call anything about guerrilla theater ―traditional‖) theater. One example includes
two professors of Galway‘s University College who dressed in their robes and went out to the street,
questioning pedestrians and awarding diplomas to the ones least able to provide good answers, as a way
to protest their university‘s decision to grant Ronald Reagan an honorary doctorate in law.
A large part of the goal of guerrilla theater is to get publicized, its message echoed over and over in our
ever-expanding network of technology-interface mass media. Guerrilla theater knows it may antagonize
its direct audience—it often hopes to, because conflict is more likely to be broadcast, and the goal of
guerrilla theater is to get people talking publicly.

MOCK CLAT #03
7. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) When people are unaware that they are viewing a performance, they tend to act more naturally.
(b) Invisible theater is best described as improvisational.
(c) One measure of the success of a theatrical performance can be the actions taken by the audience
once the performance is over.
(d) both (a) and (c)
8. The main point of the passage could best be described as

(a) a discussion of two different but aligned artistic currents
(b) an examination of which of two art forms is more effective at prompting political action
(c) a synopsis of the evolution of theater
(d) a presentation of two theatrical concepts that conceal their performative nature
9. Which of the following is true of both invisible theater and guerrilla theater?
(a) both have a goal of encouraging discourse
(b) both impose performance space onto public location
(c) both antagonize their audience
(d) both (a) and (b)
10. The passage implies that the Galway professors believed which of the following?
(a) Guerrilla theater was superior to invisible theater.
(b) Protesting an honor could result in the revocation of the award.
(c) Granting Ronald Reagan a degree demeaned the intellectual standard of the university.
(d) Handing out diplomas was a legal activity.
11. Which of the following, if true, would undermine the principle of invisible theater?
(a) When people knowingly view art, their heightened attention increases their perception and
involvement.
(b) Audience members watch a performance and later report to others what happened, still not knowing
that the event was a theater piece.
(c) A lively debate about public issues is brought to a halt by the imposition of scripted characters
inserting theatrical dialogue.
(d) both (a) and (c)
Passage (Q.12 – Q.16): Greyhound racing is the sixth most popular spectator sport in the United States.
Over the last decade, a growing number of racers have been adopted to spend their retirement as
household pets, once their racing careers are over.
Many people hesitate to adopt a retired racing greyhound because they think only very old dogs are
available. Actually, even champion racers only work until they are about three-and-ahalf years old.
Because greyhounds usually live to be 12 to 15 years old, their retirement is much longer than their
racing careers.
People worry that a greyhound will be more nervous and active than other breeds and will need a large
space to run. These are false impressions. Greyhounds have naturally sweet, mild dispositions, and while
they love to run, they are sprinters rather than distance runners and are sufficiently exercised with a few
daily laps around a fenced-in backyard.
Greyhounds do not make good watchdogs, but they are very good with children, get along well with other
dogs (and usually cats as well), and are affectionate and loyal. They are intelligent, well-behaved dogs,
usually housebroken in only a few days. A retired racing greyhound is a wonderful pet for almost anyone.

MOCK CLAT #03
12. Based on the tone of the passage, the author‘s main purpose is to
(a) teach prospective owners how to transform their racing greyhound into a good pet
(b) show how the greyhound‘s nature makes it equally good as racer and pet
(c) encourage people to adopt retired racing greyhounds
(d) objectively present the pros and cons of adopting a racing greyhound
13. According to the passage, adopting a greyhound is a good idea for people who
(a) do not have children (b) live in apartments
(c) do not usually like dogs (d) already have another dog or a cat
14. Which of the following is implied by the passage?

(a) The public is more aware of greyhounds than they used to be
(b) Greyhounds are more competitive than other dogs
(c) Greyhound racing should not be allowed
(d) People who own pet rabbits should not adopt greyhounds
15. One drawback of adopting a greyhound is that

(a) greyhounds are not good with children
(b) greyhounds are old when they retire from racing
(c) the greyhound‘s sensitivity makes it temperamental
(d) greyhounds are not good watch dogs
16. This passage is most like an advertisement because it

(a) uses statistics to prove its point.
(b) does not present information to substantiate its claims.
(c) says nothing negative about greyhounds.
(d) encourages people to do something
Passage (Q.17-Q.22): Einstein's concept of the universe as a four-dimensional space time continuum
becomes plain and clear, when what he means by 'continuum' becomes clear. A continuum is something
that is continuous. A ruler, e.g.,a one-dimensional space continuum. Most rulers are divided into inches
and fractions, scaled down to one-sixteenth of an inch. Will it be possible to conceive a ruler, which is
calibrated to a millionth or billionth of an inch. In theory there is no reason why the steps from point to
point should not be even smaller. What distinguishes a continuum is the fact that the space between any
two points can be subdivided into an infinite number of smaller divisions. A railroad track is a one -
dimensional space continuum, on which position can be described at any time by citing a single
coordinate, i.e., a station or a milestone. The surface of the sea is a two-dimensional continuum and the
two-dimensional continuum are latitude and longitude. An airplane pilot guides his plane through a three -
dimensional continuum. He has to consider latitude, longitude and height above the ground. The space of
our world is a three-dimensional continuum. Just indicating its position in space is not enough while
describing any physical event, which involves motion. How position changes in time also needs to be
mentioned. This can be done either by means of a time table or a visual chart. Similarly, for the best
picturisation of the flight of an airplane from one location to another, a four-dimensional space time
continuum is essential. The latitude, longitude and altitude will only make sense, if the time coordinate is
also mentioned. Therefore, time is the fourth dimension. If a flight has to be looked at, it should be
perceived as a continuous four-dimensional space time continuum curve.
17. In order to explain a difficult topic, the author uses :

I. simply phrased definition.
II. an incessant metaphor.
III. a plain writing style.
IV. familiar images. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only I (b) II and III (c) Only III (d) Only IV

MOCK CLAT #03
18. The significant feature of a continuum, according to the passage, revolves around
I. the divisibility of the interval between any two points.
II. an ordinary ruler's caliber for marking.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below '
19. The purpose of this passage is to highlight the point that

(a) plots and sea captains have something in common
(b) stock market charts may be helpful to physicists
(c) the fourth dimension is time
(d) non-mathematicians are often afraid of the common places
20. The underlying tone of this selection is

(a) persuasive (b) deferential (c) candid (d) instructive
21. According to the author, if one wishes to portray a physical event in which motion plays a role, one has to
I. make use of a timetable.
II. indicate how position changes in time.
III. be conversant with the scientist's theories.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Only III (d) All of these'
22. The sea surface's example has been cited in order to

(a) help understand a two-dimensional continuum
(b) set up a logical progression
(c) simplify whatever is too elaborate
(d) mitigate the gap between the engineer and pilot
Passage (Q.23-Q.27): If the expansion of the universe is to stop, there must be enough invisible matter
in the universe to exceed the luminous matter in density by a factor of roughly 70. It can be calculated
that the critical density of matter needed to break the expansion and close the universe is equivalent to
three hydrogen atoms per cubic meter but the density of observable universe in the form of galaxies is
only a fraction of this.
It has been known for some time that outside the bright nucleus of a typical spiral galaxy, luminosity falls
off rapidly with distance from the centre. If luminosity were a true indicator of mass, most of the mass
would be concentrated toward the centre. Outside the nucleus the rotational velocity would decrease
geometrically with distance from the centre, in conformity with Kepler's law. Instead we have found that
the rotational velocity in spiral galaxies either remains constant with increasing distance from the center
or increases slightly. This indicates that the fall off in luminous mass with distance from the centre is
balanced by an increase in non-luminous mass. . .
Our findings suggest that as much as 90% of the mass of the universe is not radiating at a wavelength
with enough intensity to be detected on the Earth. Such dark matter could be in the form of extremely dim
stars of low mass, of large planets like Jupiter or of black holes, either small or massive. While it has not
yet been determined whether this mass is sufficient to close the universe, some physicists consider it
significant that estimates are converging on the critical value.
23. The authors propose all of the following as possibly contributing to the 'missing matter' in spiralgalaxies
except
(a) massive black holes (b) small and dim stars
(c) massive stars (d) large planet's

MOCK CLAT #03
24. It can be inferred from information presented in the passage that if the density of the universe were
equivalent to significantly less than three hydrogen atoms per cubic meter, which of the following would
be true as a consequence?
I. Luminosity would be a true indicator of mass.
II. Different regions in spiral galaxies would rotate at the same velocity.
III. The universe would continue to expand indefinitely.
Select the correct, answer using the codes given below
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Only III (d) None of these
25. The passage suggests that the results of the author's study, have changed their ideas about which of the
following characteristics of spiral galaxies?
I. The relative luminosity of different regions.
II. The relative rotational velocity of different regions.
III. The relative distribution of matter in different regions.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) II and III (d) All of these

(a) defending a controversial approach
(b) summarising research findings
(c) contrasting competing theories
(d) describing an innovative technique
27. The author's study indicates that, in comparison with the outermost regions of a typical spiral galaxy, the
region just outside the nucleus can be characterised as having
I. similar rotational velocity and higher luminosity.
II. lower rotational velocity and lower luminosity.
III. lower rotational velocity and higher luminosity.
IV. higher rotational velocity and higher luminosity.
(a) Only I (b) II and III (c) Only III (d) III and IV
Passage (Q.28-Q.32): Cells employ many strategies to avoid genetic mutation. From the high fidelity of
DNA-synthesizing enzymes to the pro-death signaling that accompanies mutagenic stimuli such as UV
radiation, cellular mechanisms that stymie genetic changes are ubiquitous throughout the natural world.
These mechanisms are critical because widespread genomic changes would wreak physiological havoc;
indeed, malfunctions in molecular players that safeguard against mutagenesis, such as the protein p53,
have been implicated in diseases such as cancer.
Yet despite the criticality of preventing and eliminating DNA mutations to avoid deleterious changes in
cells, in specific contexts many organisms have also adapted beneficial mechanisms to induce genetic
changes.
One such instance is observed in vertebrate immune systems: white blood cells such as T cells
recognize invading pathogens through receptors on their surfaces. In order to recognize a wide variety of
pathogens, these cells must generate a large repertoire of receptors. Relying only on a genetically
encoded repertoire would be disadvantageously limiting—analogous to having only a few dozen
language phrases with which to respond to the nearly infinite potential combinations of words in a
conversation. Instead, the repertoire is generated by a process of genetic recombination, in which T cells
―cut-and-paste‖ the DNA encoding their microbe-recognizing receptors. Many of these genetic
rearrangements produce cells bearing non-functional proteins; such unproductive cells are eliminated
through senescence. Nevertheless, this seemingly haphazard process of programmed genetic mutation
is crucial to generating immunological diversity, as individuals with defects in this pathway exhibit clinical
immunodeficiency. How this process is regulated by T cells to prevent harmful mutations remains the
subject of ongoing research.
Consider each of the answer choices separately and indicate all that apply.

MOCK CLAT #03
28. Which of the following is true of genetic changes in cells?

(a) They can cause serious problems to body systems.
(b) They can provide benefits to the immune system.
(c) Some genetic mutation is regulated by T cells.
(d) all of these
29. The phrase ―seemingly haphazard‖ in the passage is meant to indicate that:
(a) the process of programmed genetic mutation deserves further study.
(b) the production by T-cells of ―unproductive cells‖ is wasteful.
(c) genetic recombination may appear random, but is not.
(d) T-cells are essential to proper immune system functioning.
30. Which of the following can be inferred from the first paragraph of the passage?
(a) Pro-death signaling is a mechanism that hinders genetic changes.
(b) Cellular mechanisms that safeguard against mutagenesis are very common.
(c) Protein p53 may play a role in preventing cancer from forming.
(d) all of these
31. The analogy in the passage regarding ―a few dozen language phrases … conversation‖ is meant to
elucidate
(a) why genetic recombination is important to T cell functioning
(b) the need for numerous means of fighting cancer and other diseases caused by cell mutation
(c) why white blood cells such as T cells rely on a genetically encoded repertoire
(d) how language use is like ―cutting and pasting‖
32. In the analogy in the third paragraph, the ―nearly infinite potential combinations of words in a
conversation,‖ represent
(a) pathogens (b) receptors (c) T cells (d) none of these

MOCK CLAT #03
Passage (Q.33-Q.37): NATGRID has signed a memorandum of understanding with (1) to access the
centralised online database on FIRs and stolen vehicles.
First conceptualised in (2), NATGRID seeks to become the one-stop destination for security and
intelligence agencies to access database related to immigration entry and exit, banking and telephone
details of a suspect on a ―secured platform‖.
The project aims to go live by December 31.
Who can access the data?
It will be a medium for at least 10 Central agencies such as the Intelligence Bureau (IB) and the
Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW) to access data on a secured platform. The data will be procured by
NATGRID from 21 providing organisations such as the telecom, tax records, bank, immigration etc.
33. What is the full form of NATGRID?

(a) National Test for Registered Identification.
(b) National Intelligence Grid.
(c) National Report Grid.
(d) National Agency for Remote Identification.
34. Which of the following will replace (1) in the above passage?
(a) National Crime Record Bureau
(b) Interpol
(c) National Intelligence Agency
(d) Home Ministry of Indian Government.
35. NATGRID functions under which of the following ministry?

(a) Prime Minister‘s Office
(b) Home Ministry
(c) Defence Ministry
(d) It will function under the Chief of Defence Staff
36. Which of the following will replace (2)?

(a) 2009
(b) 2010
(c) 2012
(d) 2015
37. Who is the current Director of National Crimes Record Bureau?

(a) RampalPawar
(b) Raghu Raman
(c) Ashok Pathnaik
(d) SamantGoel

MOCK CLAT #03
Passage (Q.38-Q.42): In a speech in front of Mount Rushmore, President Donald Trump appeared to
slur as he stumbled over several words - most notably ―totalitarianism‖.
The speech was an official presidential address that at times felt more like a campaign event, and saw
the president accuse ―angry mobs‖ of deploying ―cancel culture‖ to demand ―total submission from
anyone who disagrees‖ - referring to protests regarding statues of controversial historical figures.
―This is the very definition of totalitarianism,‖ he said.
George Conway, co-founder of the Lincoln Project and husband of Kellyanne Conway, senior adviser to
the president, attempted to spell out what was said phonetically on Twitter: ―Totallie-tario-tism‖.
The president also appeared to struggle with saying "Ulysses S Grant", and appeared to briefly freeze
while talking about Thomas Jefferson.
Other than mangling the word totalitarianism, its very use was questioned, given continued attacks on
government oversight by the administration.
Many on social media decried that the president not only couldn‘t pronounce the word, but also that he
doesn‘t seem to understand what it means.
Michael McFaul, professor of political science at Stanford University, said: ―Trump obviously has no idea
what words like fascism and totalitarianism mean. To those who wrote that speech, shame on you. To
those that cleared on this speech, shame on you. Perhaps the most un- American speech ever delivered
by an American president, on the eve of July 4th.‖
The Lincoln Project, the group of Republicans vehemently opposed to the Trump administration, quickly
tweeted out footage of the president saying the word, preceded by: ―We must stop the spread of‖.
The group also said that the speech sounded very much like the president hadn‘t read it before and was
unprepared.
While the speech was intended to be a bombastic rejuvenation of the president's flagging campaign, in
light of the deadly mishandling of the Covid-19 pandemic and the subsequent economic fallout, it also
underlined how much the campaign wants to turn the page on current problems.
―My only solace from his speech is that its degree of craziness is probably best explained by Trump's
current level of desperation,‖ Professor McFaul tweeted. ―A confident president seeking re-election would
never have to resort to calling fellow Americans fascists or totalitarians.‖
38. On which occasion trump gave the speech at Mount Rushmore?

(a) Election campaigning
(b) Press conference
(c) Independence Day
(d) Death of George Floyd
39. Where Mount Rushmore is located?

(a) Montana
(b) Nebraska
(c) South Dakota
(d) Wyoming
40. Which of the following president‘s face carving is not featured on Mount Rushmore?
(a) George Washington
(b) Abraham Lincoln
(c) Theodore Roosevelt
(d) Woodrow Wilson
41. Which hill was carved as Mount Rushmore?

(a) Black Hills
(b) Bear Mountain
(c) Odakota Mountain
(d) Mount Shashta

MOCK CLAT #03
42. Why Native Americans protested against Trump‘s plan to visit Mount Rushmore?
(a) Because of his inability to handle COVID-19 situation.
(b) Because of increased unemployment in the USA
(c) Because of death of George Floyd
(d) Because of land was stolen from native Americans
Passage (Q.43-Q.48): India has been overwhelmingly elected as a non-permanent member of the
powerful UN Security Council for a two-year term, in an unprecedented election where envoys from its
member states voted wearing masks and in adherence to the strict social distancing norms due to the
COVID-19 pandemic.
India, the endorsed candidate from the [1] States, won 184 votes out of the total ballots cast in the
elections for the five non-permanent seats of the Security Council, the world organisation‘s most powerful
organ. India‘s two-year term as the non-permanent member of the UNSC would begin from January 1,
2021.
Along with India, [2], Mexico and Norway also won the Security Council elections held on Wednesday.
[3] and Kenya vied for one seat allocated to the African and Asia-Pacific States grouping and will head
into the second round of voting on Thursday as each failed to secure the required two-thirds majority.
Kenya won the seat finally.
43. Which of the following regions has been redacted by [1]

(a) South Asian
(b) East Asian
(c) Asia-Pacific
(d) Indian Ocean regional
44. Along with India, [2], Mexico and Norway also won the Security Council elections held on Wednesday.
Which Country‘s name has been redacted with [2]?
(a) Spain
(b) Portugal
(c) Ireland
(d) Belgium
45. [3] and Kenya vied for one seat allocated to the African and Asia-Pacific States grouping and will head
into the second round of voting. Which African and Asia-Pacific states name has been redacted with [3]?
(a) Djibouti
(b) Nigeria
(c) Ethiopia
(d) Uganda
46. How many members are there in United Nations?

(a) 193
(b) 194
(c) 195
(d) 196
47. Apart from the Security Council elections, the General Assembly voted to elect VolkanBozkir as the
President of the next session of the UN General Assembly. He is a diplomat of -
(a) Sweden
(b) Algeria
(c) France
(d) Turkey

MOCK CLAT #03
48. How many times (including this time) has India been elected as a non-permanent member of UNSC till
date?
(a) 5 times
(b) 6 times
(c) 7 times
(d) 8 times
Passage (Q.49-Q.53): India recently revised its Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy. The government
said firms in neighbouring countries wanting to invest in Indian companies would first need its approval.
An entity of a country that shares a land border with India can now invest in firms here ―only under the
Government route‖. This also applies to ―beneficial‖ owners — even if the investing company is not
located in a neighbouring country, it would still be subject to these conditions if its owner is a citizen or
resident of such a country.
While the note did not name any country, analysts see the amendments as aimed at possible Chinese
investments. The decision came days after China‘s central bank, the People‘s Bank of China (PBoC) had
raised its shareholding in HDFC to over 1 per cent. HDFC vice chairman and CEO Keki Mistry had said
that PBoC had been an existing shareholder, owning 0.8% as of March 2019.
49. Which ministry controls FDI?

(a) Ministry of Commerce
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises
(d) Ministry of MSME
50. From which year there is a significant increase in FDI?

(a) 1952
(b) 1991
(c) 2001
(d) 2015
51. In which of the following sector FDI is prohibited in India?

(a) Multi Brand and retail trading
(b) Investment in Chit funds
(c) Broadcasting and content services
(d) Medical devices
52. How many routes are defined by government for FDI?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
53. Why India recently revised its policy of FDI?

(a) FDI destabilizes Indian economy
(b) Preventing opportunistic takeovers of firms hit by lockdown
(c) To accomplish the aim of Make In India
Passage (Q.54-Q.58): Hagia Sophia, or the Church of Holy Wisdom, was built by the Byzantine Emperor
(1) on the site of an destroyed basilica of the same name. Completed in 537, it was among the world‘s
largest domed structures and would serve as the foremost Orthodox Christian church for some 900
years. Imperial ceremonies, including the crowning of emperors, were held there. The multicolored
mosaics depicting the Virgin Mary, the baby Jesus, angels and other Christian symbols along with
emperors and their families that centuries of rulers installed added to its reputation as an architectural
gem.

MOCK CLAT #03
54. Hagia Sophia, the monument that was seen in news recently, is located in which country?
(a) Italy
(b) Turkey
(c) Australia
(d) France
55. Which one of the following will replace (1)?

(a) Justinian I
(b) Justinian II
(c) Justinian III
(d) Justinian IV
56. Who is the President of Turkey?

(a) RecepTayyipErdogan
(b) Hassan Rouhani
(c) Mohammad JavadZarif
(d) RazaNajib
57. Who Defeated the Roman Capital of Constantinople?

(a) Sultan Mehmed I
(b) Sultan Mehmed II
(c) Sultan Mehmed III
(d) Sultan Mehmed IV
58. Who was the founder of the Republic of Turkey?

(a) HikmatBayur
(b) Adnan Menderes
(c) Mehmet Ali
(d) Mustafa Kemal Ataturk
Passage (Q.59-Q.63): President Ram NathKovind has given his assent to the Triple Talaq Bill that
makes giving instant oral triple Talaq or [1] a criminal offense with provisions of jail term upto three years.
The triple Talaq law or the [2], Act 2019, has come into effect retrospectively from September 19, 2018.
The ministry of Law and Justice notified the Bill as Law in the Official Gazette after receiving assent from
president Ram NathKovind who is on a tour of south Africa.
Triple Talaq also known as [2], 2019 was passed by the Indian Parliament as a Law on July 30, 2019, to
Make instant triple Talaq a criminal offence.
The RajyaSabha passed the Bill with 99 votes in its favour and 84 against it. The triple Talaq law makes
the instant triple Talaq a criminal offense and provide for a jail term of three years for a Muslim man who
commits the crimes. The law also makes the Triple Talaq a Cognisable and non-bailable offense.
According to clause 7 (c) in chapter 3, ― No person accused of an offense punishable under triple Talaq
shall be released on Bail after the Magistrate, on an application files by the accused and after hearing the
married muslim women upon whom Talaq was pronounced, that there are reasonable grounds for
granting Bail to the accused‖.
Clause 6 in chapter 3 of the Bill states that ―a married muslim women shall be entitled to custody of her
minor children in the event of pronouncement of Talaq by her husband, in such manner as may be
determined by the Magistrate.
Talaq is an Islamic word for Divorce, Denoting dissolution of marriage when a muslim man can severe all
marital ties with his wife. Under the muslim Law, Triple Talaq means Liberty from the relationship of
marriage, eventually or immediately, where the man, by simple uttering the word ―Talaq‖ three times,
ends his Marriage. This instant divorce is called Triple Talaq, also known an ‗[1]‘.

MOCK CLAT #03
59. What is the name of the practice whereby muslim men could grant instant divorce through triple talaq to
their wives whose name has been replaced with [1] in the passage above?
(a) Talaq-e-ahsan
(b) Talaq-al-Sunnah
(c) Talaq-e-Tafweez
(d) Talaq-e-biddat
60. The petitioner in the 2017 case asked for two other practices to be declared unconstitutional, in addition
to the the practice of triple talaq. Which of the following is/are practices?
(a) Polygamy
(b) Nikah-halala
(c) Talaq-ul-Raje
(d) Both, (a) and (b)
61. What is the name of the Law under which the triple talaq is declared illegal, and whose name has been
replaced with [2] in the passage above?
(a) The Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act
(b) The Muslim Women (Protection of right On Marriage) Act
(c) The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act
(d) The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights On Divorce) Act
62. What is the name of the case where supreme court barred the practice of Triple Talaq by 3-2 Majority?
(a) Mohamad Ahmed Khan Vs. Shah Bano Begum
(b) Dr. NoorJehanSafiaNiaz and Other Vs. State of Maharashtra and Others.
(c) Yasmeen Zuber Ahmed Peerzade and another Vs. Union Of India
(d) ShayaraBanoVs. Union of India and Others.
63. Respondents in the 2017 supreme court case claimed that the practice of triple talaq is protected under
which of the following articles of the constitution of India?
(a) Article 25
(b) Article 12
(c) Article 32
(d) Article 256
Passage (Q.64-Q.67): The (1) has issued the draft of Aids to Navigation Bill, 2020 for suggestions from
the stakeholders and the general public. The draft is in line with Prime Minister NarendraModi‘s vision for
boosting people‘s participation and transparency in governance.
The draft bill is proposed to replace the almost nine-decade old (2) to incorporate the global best
practices, technological developments and India's International obligations in the field of Aids to Marine
Navigation. With emerging new technologies, the aids to maritime navigation has improved. Hence, the
role of authorities regulating and operating maritime navigation has to be changed. The new law will bring
in this major shift towards modern aids of navigation from lighthouses. This Bill provides for empowering
Directorate General of Lighthouses and Lightships (DGLL) with additional power and functions such as
vessel traffic service, wreck flagging, training and certification, implementation of other obligations under
International Conventions, where India is a signatory.
64. Which one of the following will replace (1)?

(a) Union Ministry of Shipping
(b) Union Ministry of Environment
(c) Home Ministry
(d) Ministry of Commerce

MOCK CLAT #03
65. Who is the minister of Shipping?

(a) KirenRijiju
(b) Hardeep Singh Puri
(c) MansukhMandaviya
(d) Dr.Jitendra Singh
66. Which of the following will replace (2)?

(a) Lighthouse Act, 1927
(b) Maritime Act, 1930
(c) Ship Routes Act, 1927
(d) Management of Port Act, 1958
67. Who is the Directorate General of Lighthouses and Lightships?

(a) Ellappan Murthy
(b) KrishnapadDasa
(c) HardipBedi
(d) MansukhMandaviya

MOCK CLAT #03
Directions (Q.68-Q.102): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.68-Q.72): The menace of lynching, with disproportionate targeting of Muslims and Dalits, is
a grim reminder of the fair distance that Indian democracy still has to traverse to realize the promise of
‗constitutional citizenship‘ – in which one's identity is irrelevant to the realization of rights and equal
protection of the law. Apart from the majoritarian backlash, another index for testing the equal citizenship
claim is the state of civil and personal liberties in the nation, in particular the freedom to dissent.
This claim was tested when the State arrested five human rights activists and critics of the State – calling
them ‗Urban Naxals'. These human rights activists had substantial experience working with marginalized
and disadvantaged communities. Further, they had often been critical of the government in the past.
This sudden arrest by the Pune Police was seen as an attempt to freeze dissent by the heavy hand of
state machinery. In response, five eminent citizens filed a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) case in the
Supreme Court, challenging the arrests and seeking a court-monitored probe into the investigation.
The Court in a 2:1 judgment in Romila Thapar v. UOIrejected the plea for a Special Investigation Team
(SIT) to probe into the investigation, on the ground that the State had adduced sufficient evidence for the
possibility that they are members of a banned terrorist organization, CPI (M). Note that the petitioners
were not allowed to scrutinize this evidence, as it was submitted in sealed covers – only the judges
viewed it. The lone dissenting judge, DY Chandrachud, called for a court-monitored probe as he
recounted various procedural lapses in the arrest process, signalling States‘ selective targeting of critics.
This case forces one to re-examine the fragile nature of speech protection when it collides with state
power. The standards of proof, required for successful conviction, need not be met to justify a call for a
probe at initial stages. A prima facie case is sufficient to merit investigation. Further, should the power
asymmetry between citizens and the State not be factored in, when such brazenness is shown in
arresting dissenters and critics? Rather than legitimizing sealed cover jurisprudence, shouldn‘t the Court
critically assess the government's account of the facts?
68. As per the author of the above passage, which of the following is not the index for testing the equal
citizenship claim?
(a) Disproportionate majoritarian backlash on the marginalized community
(b) The state of civil and personal liberties in the nation available to its citizenry.
(c) A balance between free speech and state power, tilting towards the latter.
(d) The state of freedom to dissent available to the citizens.
69. As per the claim in the above passage, which of the following might be the reason behind the arrest of
five human rights activists and critics of the State?
I. The human rights activists had substantial experience working with marginalized and disadvantaged
communities.
II. The human rights activists have been critical of the government in the past.
III. The state by arresting them is trying to curb dissent by the heavy hand of state machinery.
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only III
(d) All I, II and III

MOCK CLAT #03
70. As per the above passage, what was the reason in Romila Thapar v. UOIrejected the plea for a Special
Investigation Team (SIT) to probe into the investigation?
I. The State had adduced sufficient evidence for the possibility that they are members of a banned
terrorist organization, CPI (M).
II. The petitioners were not allowed to scrutinize this evidence, as it was submitted in sealed covers –
only the judges viewed it.
III. There were various procedural lapses in the arrest process, signalling States‘ selective targeting of
critics.
(a) Both I and II
(b) Both I and III
(c) Only I
(d) Neither I, II or III
71. As per the above passage, the arrest of five human rights activists does not shed light on which of the
following prevailing situation in the nation?
(a) The nature of speech protection becomes fragile when it collides with state power.
(b) The jurisprudence that allows a prima facie case to be sufficient to merit investigation should be
reviewed.
(c) The Court should have critically assessed the government's account of the facts before rejecting the
formation of an SIT.
(d) That the CPI(M) has branched out its membership despite a ban by the central government.
72. Which of the below given statements is the most appropriate justification to the concept of ‗constitutional
citizenship‘ as described in the above passage?
(a) Granting of citizenship is based on the person‘s identity.
(b) One's identity is irrelevant to the realization of rights and equal protection of the law.
(c) The realization of rights is intricately connected with the identity.
(d) The state of civil and personal liberties in the nation, in particular the freedom to dissent.
Passage (Q.73-Q.78): According to the IPC, Section 420 states that whoever cheats and thereby
dishonestly induces the person deceived to deliver any property to any person, or to make, alter or
destroy the whole or any part of a valuable security, or anything which is signed or sealed, and which is
capable of being converted into a valuable security, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Under IPC, section 420 the offence is cognizable and non- bailable. There are few essential elements
under section 420 of IPC. Let us understand that-
 Cheating
The term "cheating" has been defined under Section 415 of the Indian Penal Code. The element of
cheating must be present in every offence under Section 420 of I.P.C.
Section 415 of IPC states that Whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly induces
the person so deceived to deliver any property to any person, or to consent that any person shall
retain any property, or intentionally induces the person so deceived to do or omit to do anything which
he would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and which act or omission causes or is likely to
cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property, is said to "cheat".
 Acting dishonestly
Section 24 defines that what is ―acting dishonestly‖. When the doing of any act or not doing of any act
causes wrongful gain of property to one person or a wrongful loss of property to a person, the said act
is done dishonestly.
 Property
The word property may basically be defined as all things which can be measured in terms of money.
The said thing should be capable of being possessed by a person for the exclusive use or enjoyment
as owner of that thing.
 Fraudulently
Section 25 defines the term "Fraudulently". It says that a person is said to do a thing fraudulently if he
does that thing with intent to defraud but not otherwise.
MOCK CLAT #03
 Mens rea
Mens rea is a legal phrase which used to define the mental state of a person while committing a
crime and that should be intentional. It can refer to a general intent to break the law or a specific
prearranged plan to commit a particular offense. A criminal prosecutor must show beyond any
reasonable doubt to convict an accused person that the suspect actively and knowingly contributed in
a crime that affected another person or their property.
 How Cheating is to be proved
It must be shown that there is a failure of the promise which was made. It must be shown that there
was no effort on the part of accused to perform his promise. The test of prudent man must be applied
to appreciate the evidence on record.
73. A hires B to renovate his house, and pays a certain amount of money in advance as consideration for the
same. Due to a strike by the transport department B is unable to bring in the material as promised to A
files a case against B for cheating. Will he succeed?
(a) Yes, as B induced him into thinking he will work and then later did not finish it.
(b) Yes, as B, induced him into giving away valuable property, and later defrauded him.
(c) No, as B did not have an intention to cheat, he merely couldn‘t fulfill he contractual obligation.
(d) No, as B did not take entire sum of consideration against his work, so he did as he was paid.
74. Mister Z and Mr. Y are in a contract wherein the former has promised to create a certain number of
products for the latter and have taken the consideration sum against the same. Mister Z later, pretends to
have completed part of the performance. Has Mr. Z cheated?
(a) Yes, as he knowingly gave false pretense to induce money under dishonest means.
(b) No, as he only breached his contract and did not cheat Y.
(c) Yes, as his intention was to lie.
(d) No as his intention was not to deceive, he just failed in his duty.
75. A sells and conveys an estate to B. A, knowing that in consequence of such sale he has no right to the
property, sells or mortgages the same to Z, without disclosing the fact of the previous sale and
conveyance to B, and receives the purchase or mortgage money from Z. Is this cheating?
(a) No, as it‘s the duty of the purchaser to ensure everything about the property.
(b) No, as Z should have been cautious before choosing A as his representative.
(c) Yes, as A misrepresented himself in position, to induce property.
(d) Yes, as B and Z both got defrauded out of their property, and hence both should sue him.
76. Raj high school student pretends to be older than his age to enter into a club to attend a concert of his
favorite band, ' The Rockstar'. Later his ID is discovered to be fake, and he is asked to leave the property
immediately. Has Raj cheated?
(a) Yes, as he misrepresented himself for dishonest intention.
(b) Yes, as he dishonestly tried to make a wrongful gain.
(c) No, as he did not have any wrongful gain intended out of it.
(d) No, as all the elements of cheating have not been fulfilled.
77. Mr. X. pretending to be a civil Servant at a high post, get a discount at the ration shops near his house.
Can Mr. X be accused of cheating?
(a) No as Mr. X can be accused of corruption not of cheating.
(b) No, as what Mr. X discount on certain goods cannot be termed as property.
(c) Yes, as Mr. X deceived someone for wrongful gain of property.
(d) Yes, as no civil servant gets discount on ration anyway.

MOCK CLAT #03
78. An Educational Institute by the name of law-walas started the 3 and 5-year law courses, for students after
their 12th Grade, but were not registered with any governmental recognition. Rujhan, a graduate of this
institute, unknowing of the same, applied for a job with an esteemed law firm. Seeing his graduation
degree in the resume, they filed a case of cheating against him. Will it sustain?
(a) Yes, as he applied for a job with a fraudulent degree pretending to be a law graduate.
(b) No, as he did not have the intention or knowledge of his degree being illegal.
(c) Yes, as he can then further sue the college for his reimbursement and for cheating.
(d) No, as the company should sue the college but not rujhan.
Passage (Q.79-Q.84): An act will be called insider trading if such information is provided to a third party
who benefits from his investment activities post receiving such information. It is a term used commonly in
the securities market and usually relates to illegal conduct. However, insider trading can be both legal
and illegal. In generic terms, insider trading means buying and selling of stocks and shares based on
significant information which is publicly not available.
Apart from creating a biased field which disadvantages other investors, insider trading by corporate
employees breach their utmost responsibility to work in the best interest of the shareholders.
The legality of insider trading depends on the time when the insider's official trades the information.
Analysing a global perspective, in most countries, insider trading is not illegal if the information provided
by key personnel of a company in a way which does not allow an individual to take advantage of insider
information. Importantly, the higher officials of a company are not restricted to trade in their company's
shares as contrary to the general rules; it would be unfair to prevent these officials making company's
significant decision from investing in stocks.Not only directors can be convicted under such an offence,
but the law can also penalize the brokers as well as the family members to misuse the information.
The term ‗insider‘ has been defined under Regulation 2(e) of SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading)
Regulations, 1992. Basically, the term ‗insider‘ can be classified into three broad categories, which are:
 Persons who are connected to the company,
 Persons who were connected with the company,
 Persons who are deemed to be connected to the company.
In order to become an insider a person has to fulfil three elements, viz;
 The person should be a natural person or legal entity;
 The person should be connected person or deemed to be connected;
 Acquisition of the unpublished price sensitive information by virtue of such connection.
Unpublished price sensitive information means any information which refers to the internal matters of the
company and ordinarily it is not disclosed by the company in the regular course of the business.
In India, SEBI (Insider Trading) Regulation, 1992 framed under Section 11 of the SEBI Act, 1992 intends
to curb and prevent the menace of insider trading in securities.
Section 15(G)(i) of SEBI act 2002 says, if an insider either on its own or on behalf of any person has
dealt on behalf of his company any unpublished information then he may be fined with RS. 25 crores or 3
times the profit made, whichever is higher.

MOCK CLAT #03
79. There was a company named Manas Ltd., involved in Telecom business. Manas Ltd. had a manager
named Shivani, her work involved communicating with investors, bankers, other companies, etc.
Recently, Manas Ltd got an offer from Agrawal Ltd for a merger, which was beneficial for both the
companies. It was decided that this merger would be kept confidential for some time, CEOs of both the
company and Shivani knew of this merger as of now. After a week, Manas Ltd issued a prospectus
issuing shares next month and it was also decided that information about the merger would be made
public after the allotment of the shares. Meanwhile, Shivani accidentally tells about the merger to her
friend Rachna and how this will make buying of shares more beneficial, who rely on this buy shares worth
Rs 10,00,000 of Manas Ltd. Later, the merger does not happen and therefore, Rachna does not benefit
anything from buying the share.
Can this be termed as insider trading? Should Shivani be held liable for this? Choose the option based
on the based-
(a) Yes because Shivani fulfils all the criteria to be an insider and provided with sensitive non- public
information to Rachna.
(b) No because Shivani gave the information accidentally which shows there was no intention on her side
and thus not liable.
(c) No because Rachna did not benefit from buying the shares post receiving the information.
(d) Yes because non- public information was released which would have benefitted Rachna had the
merger happened. Thus, the actual benefit is irrelevant and Shivani is liable.
80. Now assume that the merger did happen and Rachna gained on her investment made relying on his. Is
this insider trading- Will your answer change from above and why?
(a) Yes, now it is insider trading because Rachna has benefitted from the information.
(b) No because in both the cases it was insider trading, the benefit is irrelevant the information should be
sensitive and non-public.
(c) No, in both the cases the information was released accidentally and lacks the requisite intention.
(d) Yes because earlier the merger did not happen and thus the information was incorrect. Now the
merger makes the information correct and sensitive. Thus, amounting to inside trading.
81. There was a company named Sarthak Wadhwa, primarily involved in the Banking sector. Recently,
Sarthak Wadhwa decided to start the business of manufacturing and selling cement. This was a
profitable business which would boost the profits of the company, thus increasing the demand for its
share. It was decided that this would be kept confidential for the time being. All the preparations of new
business were carried out by Mr. Aarohi, the general manager of Sarthak Wadhwa. However, Mr. Aarohi
was the least trusted employee and was fired fearing he would reveal this to others, but he had no
intention to do so. On being fired, Mr. Aarohi to take revenge told this to the rival bank Sanyukta Fazudar,
who took advantage of this information and themselves started the business of manufacturing and selling
cement before Sarthak Wadhwa and earned huge profits.
Can Mr Aarohi be termed as an insider? Answer based on the three elements-
(a) Yes, because he fulfils all the three elements.
(b) No, because he does not fulfil the three elements.
(c) Yes because he provided with a third party who benefits from his investment activities post receiving
such information.
(d) No because Aarohi has left the job and is no longer connected to the company.
82. In the above question, can this be termed as insider trading. Which among the following is correct based
on the above passage-
(a) No because Aarohi is not an insider.
(b) Yes because Sanyukta Fazudar benefitted from the sensitive information provided by Mr Aarohi.
(c) No because insider trading is limited to securities market only.
(d) No because for insider trading investment must be made in the same company whose information is
being traded and that results in an unfair benefit.

MOCK CLAT #03
83. Suppose that Aarohi is not fired and while working there informed her friend Meghana at Sanyukta
Fazudar Company about Sarthak Wadhwa‘s new business. Meghana immediately invests in Sarthak
Wadhwa. After one day, Sarthak Wadhwa makes the information public. Now, when the cement
manufacturing business starts, the company earns lots of profit and its share price rises. Meghana also
earns a huge return on this. Will this amount to insider trading-
(a) Yes because Meghana unfairly benefitted from investing based on the information.
(b) No because the information was no longer sensitive and was public knowledge.
(c) No because Aarohi is not an insider.
(d) Yes but in this situation insider trading is legal.
84. In the above factual matrix, who is liable for insider trading based on the passage-
(a) No one because no insider trading occurred.
(b) Aarohi
(c) Meghana
(d) Both (b) and (c).
Passage (Q.85-Q.90): The men's rights activists claim that the anti-dowry laws are being frequently
misused to harass and extort husbands. The high rate of suicide among married men in India is also
attributed to harassment under these laws by the activists. The practice of giving dowry was first
criminalised in 1961 under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 and later the Section 498A of the Indian
Penal Code was introduced in 1983.
The Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code which deals with cruelty to a wife states that whoever, being
the husband or the relative of the husband of a woman, subjects such woman to cruelty shall be
punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine.
For the purposes of this section, "cruelty" means:
(a) Any wilful conduct which is of such a nature as is likely to drive the woman to commit suicide or to
cause grave injury or danger to life, limb or health (whether mental or physical) of the woman; or
(b) harassment of the woman where such harassment is with a view to coercing her or any person
related to her to meet any unlawful demand for any property or valuable security or is on account of
failure by her or any person related to her to meet such demand.
The Section 113-B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1879 says that if a married woman committed suicide
within seven years of marriage, it must be assumed by the court that her husband and his family abetted
the suicide, especially if there was evidence of prior dowry demands.
Until July 2014, the Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code allowed the police to arrest the persons
mentioned in the complaint without a warrant or any investigation. The crime was non-bailable, so
chances of getting bail are low and husbands usually lost their jobs while in custody. On 2 July 2014, the
Supreme Court of India in an order stopped automatic arrests under Section 498A. The Court directed
the police to use Section 41 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, which contains a checklist, to
decide whether an arrest is necessary. The Court also stated that in all arrests the magistrate must
examine whether further detention was necessary. There is also no provision of withdrawing a complaint
in case of a reconciliation. However, an amendment to rectify this has been proposed.
Former justice of Delhi High Court Shiv Narayan Dhingra has admitted that this law is being used by
women to harass their husbands and in-laws. He has claimed that these laws assume that women are
always truthful, and don't place much importance on evidence. He has termed misuse of these laws,
legal terrorism.
85. Sachin married Roma six years back and they have a 4-year-old son. One day, out of the blue, Roma
leaves her husband‘s home and files a dowry harassment case against her husband and his relatives
including the mother-in-law. Sachin and his mother get arrested. Sachin‘s mother is 71 years old and is
an asthma patient. He is trying hard to get her out on bail. Based on the information provided in the
passage, would the police consider Sachin‘s plea following Section 498A?
(a) No. Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code is a non-bailable offence.
(b) Yes. Under severe health problems, some rebates can be provided.
(c) No. Arrests couldn't have happened without any evidence.
(d) Yes. Under the law, senior citizens are compensated for barring until proven guilty.

MOCK CLAT #03
86. Sushma filed a police complaint against her husband, sister-in-law, and father-in-law under the Dowry
Prohibition Act. Sushma‘s husband, Pradeep, is a clerk with a private bank. Pradeep‘s sister is to appear
in class 12 board exams, and his father is mostly ill and bedridden. According to the information provided
in the passage, how the law allows the police to act on the complaint?
(a) Police should go for an immediate arrest.
(b) Police should launch an investigation to verify if the complaint is true.
(c) Police should not arrest them if not necessary.
(d) This is a family matter. Police should refer it to the family court.
87. Aman married Roma six years back. One day, out of a misunderstanding, Roma leaves her husband‘s
home and files a dowry harassment case against her husband and his relatives including the mother-in-
law. A couple of days later, Roma returns to the police and requests them to dismiss her complaint. She
says that it was all a misunderstanding. Based on the information provided in the passage, how does the
law allowpolice to act on Roma‘s request?
(a) Police should release the accused.
(b) Police should arrest Roma for filing a false complaint.
(c) Police should investigate the matter to check if Roma is being pressurised.
(d) Police should report it to the magistrate and await orders.
88. According to the information provided in the passage, in which of the following cases, a case could not be
registered under Section 113-B of the Indian Evidence Act?
(a) If a woman married for 5 years files a complaint of dowry harassment by her in-laws without
evidence.
(b) If a woman having a 5-year-old child files a complaint of dowry harassment by her in-laws.
(c) If a woman married for 8 years commits suicide at her in-laws‘ place.
(d) If a pregnant woman commits suicide at her in-laws‘ place.
89. Sushma filed a police complaint against her husband, sister-in-law, and father-in-law under the Dowry
Prohibition Act. Sushma‘s husband, Pradeep, is a clerk with a private bank. Pradeep‘s sister is to appear
in class 12 board exams, and his father is mostly ill and bedridden. Police sprang into action and arrested
the accused immediately. As a result of which, Pradeep lost his job, his sister failed in exams and went
into depression and his father‘s health worsened. Pradeep took this matter to the Supreme Court saying
that the police did not follow the guidelines, hence, the responsible officers should be punished.
According to the information provided in the passage, what guidelines did the police fail to follow?
(a) The police failed to follow section 41 of the Code of Criminal procedure as per court‘s guidelines.
(b) The police failed to launch a primary investigation to check if the complaint held any weight.
(c) Under the section 113b of the Evidence Act, the police failed to take a senior citizen‘s health under
consideration.
(d) As per the Supreme Court‘s ruling, the police failed to consult a magistrate first.
90. Garima had a disagreement with her husband, Sanjay, and filed a police complaint against her husband
and sister-in-law under the Dowry Prohibition Act. Sanjay claims that it is a false complaint meant to
harass and extort money from him. He wants to challenge his wife‘s testimony in the court. According to
the information provided in the passage, what is Sanjay‘s option to make his argument considerable in
the court?
(a) He can file a petition for bail depending on the turn of events.
(b) He can ask the cops to report it to the magistrate.
(c) He can file a petition to dismiss the case.
(d) He cannot do anything.

MOCK CLAT #03
Passage (Q.91-Q.96): Medical negligence also known as medical malpractice is improper, unskilled, or
negligent treatment of a patient by a physician, dentist, nurse, pharmacist, or other health care
professional. The liability of the doctor cannot be invoked now and then and he can‘t be held liable just
because something has gone wrong. For fastening the liability, very high degree of such negligence was
required to be proved. A doctor or a medical practitioner when attends to his patients, owes him the
following duties of care:
 A duty of care in deciding whether to undertake the case
 A duty of care in deciding what treatment to give
 A duty of care in the administration of the treatment
In some situations the complainant can invoke the principle of res ispa loquitur or ―the thing speaks for
itself‖. In certain circumstances no proof of negligence is required beyond the accident itself. The
principle of res ipsa loquitur comes into operation only when there is proof that the occurrence was
unexpected, that the accident could not have happened without negligence and lapses on the part of the
doctor, and that the circumstances conclusively show that the doctor and not any other person was
negligent.
There is a lot of uncertainty in medical profession, therefore in situations where there is risk involved in
surgery, it is the responsibility of the surgeon/ doctor to inform the patient about the same. Once the
patient gives consent to that risk, then he cannot claim for negligence unless any accident has happened
because of any negligent or irresponsible act committed by the doctor.
A doctor is not an insurer for the patient, inability to cure the patient would not amount to negligence but
carelessness resulting in adverse condition of the patient would. Doctors in India may be held liable for
their services individually or vicariously unless they come within the exceptions specified in the case of
Indian Medical Association vs V P Santha i.e. they treat patients for free.
In medical profession there may arise a situation where the doctor needs to make a complicated yet
important decision in order to save the life of the patient. In such situation the doctor cannot be accused
of negligence for any incident which occurs despite of taking all the necessary precaution and care.
Even after adopting all medical procedures as prescribed, a qualified doctor may commit an error. The
National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission and the Supreme Court have held, in several
decisions, that a doctor is not liable for negligence or medical deficiency if some wrong is caused in her/
his treatment or in her/ his diagnosis if she/ he has acted in accordance with the practice accepted as
proper by a reasonable body of medical professionals skilled in that particular art, though the result may
be wrong. In various kinds of medical and surgical treatment, the likelihood of an accident leading to
death cannot be ruled out. It is implied that a patient willingly takes such a risk as part of the doctor-
patient relationship and the attendant mutual trust.
91. Suresh went to a doctor for his treatment of asthma. The doctor prescribed him appropriate medicines
and started his treatment accordingly. Despite the full treatment, there was very little improvement in his
condition. He wanted to sue the doctor for medical negligence. Decide.
(a) Yes because is the duty of the doctor to cure the patients.
(b) No because the doctor had adopted the appropriate course of treatment.
(c) Yes because the doctor did not give proper treatment to the patient.
(d) No because the patient did not take reasonable care
92. Ram went to doctor for a liver surgery. The doctor informed ram of the danger and ram gave his consent
to it. During the operation the doctor by mistake cut his pancreas which resulted in lot of blood loss. The
pancreas was damaged and required another operation. Ram wanted to sue doctor for medical
negligence. Decide.
(a) Yes because the consent given was not for doctor to commit mistake.
(b) No because ram gave consent to the danger that existed in the operation.
(c) No because it was during the course of operation and was unavoidable.
(d) No because the doctor took all the precautions and care.

MOCK CLAT #03
93. Ajay was admitted in the city hospital because of Ill health. The senior doctors without testing gave him
medicines of Flu and fever. But his condition got worse. He was shifted to Max hospital where he
immediately died. They told his parents that he was suffering from typhoid. Can the parents sue the
doctors of city hospital for negligence?
(a) Yes, because they did not try to save Ajay.
(b) Yes, because they gave medicines without testing, this was their first duty.
(c) Yes, because they were senior doctor and should know about the symptoms of typhoid.
(d) No, because the symptoms of flu and typhoid are very similar and the doctor gave him proper
treatment in their part.
94. Amir met with an accident and was taken to National Hospital. He was in a very severe condition and was
unconscious. During surgery the doctors found that his one kidney is fully damaged and is causing
severe damage to his other organs. Therefore they removed his one kidney and saved his life. Can Amir
sue the doctors for removing his kidney without his consent?
(a) Yes because a person has right over his body and the decision was taken without his consent.
(b) Yes, because the doctor should have tried to save his kidney which is his first duty.
(c) No, because doctor had to make a tough choice in order to save the patient's life
(d) No, because a person whose life is saved by the doctor cannot sue him.
95. Priya was admitted in a private hospital. She was treated by a junior doctor who by mistake gave her
wrong medicines which affected Priya's Health. Priya wanted to sue the hospital for negligence. Will she
succeed?
(a) Yes, because it was a private hospital and can be sued.
(b) Yes, because the doctor was the employee or the staff of the hospital and the hospital can be sued
for his actions
(c) No, because it was an individual act of negligence, therefore the doctor alone can be sued.
(d) No, because it was not a mistake that any doctor could have made.
96. Can a doctor be sued if one of his patient dies despite of giving proper treatment and medicines?
(a) Yes because it is the duty of the doctor to save the life of his patients.
(b) No because the doctor followed his duty without any mistake.
(c) Yes because the doctor might have made some mistake in the treatment.
(d) No because everyone has to die one day.
Passage (Q.97-Q.102): Article 15 occurs in the Constitution of India under Part III that with fundamental
rights of the citizens of India. Further article 14 to18 deal with various issues related to Right to Equality.
Fundamental rights are applicable to all the citizens of the country universally is respective of race,
gender, place of birth, caste, religion. In case of citizens of India comes across a case of violation of
fundamental rights, he or she can approach the Supreme Court of India for ultimate justice. The
fundamental rights mentioned in the Indian Constitution have their origin from different sources like
England's Bill of rights, the United States Bill of Rights and France‘s Declaration of the Rights of Man.
Article 15 (1) and (2) proscribe the nation from discriminating any Citizen on the basis of any one or many
of the aspects such as religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth and others. These articles make room that
there will not be any restriction whatsoever to any person on the above ground in order to access and
make use of public facilities and amenities like shops, restaurants, places of entertainment, and others.
No person in India can be denied the use of tanks, wells, bathing ghats, roads and sides of public resort
that are created and managed fully or in part from the state funds or have been dedicated for the use of
the general public.
Starting from article 15 (3), the constitution of India attempts to deal with protective discrimination. Article
15 (3) makes it possible for the state to create special provisions for protecting the interest of women and
children.
Article 15 (4) capacitates the state to create special arrangements for promoting the interests and welfare
of socially and educationally backward classes of the society such as SC and STs.

MOCK CLAT #03
Article 15 (5) moves a step ahead and empowers the country to make reservations with regard to
admissions in the educational Institutes both privately run and those that are aided or not aided by the
government. From this rule, only the minority-run institutions such as the Madarsas are exempted.
Therefore, we can say that article 15 is the foundation stone for making reservations in the country.
97. Alex wants her son to study in a school run by a Hindu organization that focuses on Vedic studies. The
school denies admission on the grounds of her religion, which is Christianity. Alex thinks this is unfair and
decides to stand against this bias. According to the information provided in the passage, where should
she file her complain?
(a) Alex should report this to the magistrate of the town.
(b) Alex should file a petition in the Supreme Court of India.
(c) Alex should raise a complaint with the Minority Welfare Department.
(d) The school is run by private funds. Therefore, Alex has no right to challenge the decision.
98. Mr and Mrs Singh are celebrating their 25th wedding anniversary. They went to an upscale restaurant in
South Delhi but were denied entry because the husband and wife were wearing Kurta-pajama and sari
respectively. The restaurant says that they have a strict dress code policy - a blazer or tux for males and
a long gown or single piece dress for women. But Mr. Singh took believed it to be a violation of article
15 and dragged the restaurant in the court of law. However, his petition was outright rejected. Now,
based on the information given in the passage, can you tell why this happened?
(a) Because there was no violation of article 15 or any other law.
(b) Because this was a case of violation of article 14. Mr Singh made a wrong judgement.
(c) Because Mr Singh reported it in the high court. He should have moved to the supreme court directly.
99. For better English education, Amit Kumar, who falls under a reserved category, wants his son to study in
a school run by the Indo-Roman Catholic Organization, a minority-run school. The school, however,
denies admission on the grounds of caste. Amit Kumar files a petition in the Supreme Court against the
act of the school, but it gets denied. According to the information provided in the passage, can you tell
why his petition was denied by the apex court?
(a) Because he should have filed a police complaint first.
(b) Because he should have reported this to the education ministry first.
(c) Because the Supreme Court has more important issues to address.
(d) Because, by the law, the school had the right to do so.
100. According to the information provided in the above passage, can you tell what does article 15 (3) allow?
(a) Caste-based reservation in higher education.
(b) Reservation of seats for women in the local bodies.
(c) Access to shops and hotels for all.
(d) Access to religious places regardless of gender.
101. Rajan filed a petition in the Supreme Court claiming that by law, the allocation of seats for OBC in higher
education should not be more than 9%, but the government of Rajasthan passed a bill to raise it to 12%.
This is unconstitutional and should be scrapped. But the Supreme Court rules the petition to be non-
judicial. Can you tell why the Supreme Court did this?
(a) Because by the law, the state government can do that.
(b) Because parliamentary bills cannot be challenged in the court of law.
(c) Because the bill should have been challenged in the high court.
(d) Correct reason is not mentioned in the list.
102. According to the information given in the passage, which of the following does not qualify as a violation of
any of the provisions of article 15?
(a) Laxmi denied entry in Swami temple because the priest suspected she is on her periods.
(b) Ramesh was told to keep out of an eatery because he works as a scavenger.
(c) Aparna was forced to be a housewife even after being highly qualified.
(d) Roshni being denied a promotion even after being the best and deserving candidate as she was
woman.
MOCK CLAT #03
Passage (Q.103-Q.106): It is often believed that a crisis brings out the best in Indians. We have
witnessed people selflessly coming to the aid of the affected during natural calamities. Unfortunately, this
wasn‘t the case when the pandemic hit India. First, we failed in dealing adequately with the tremendous
distress caused to migrant labourers. Second, we failed to make the fight against COVID-19 a common
endeavour, irrespective of caste or community.
The government proved inept in not anticipating the adverse impact of the lockdown on millions of
migrant labourers, who were overnight deprived of their means of livelihood. While extensions of the
lockdown were rightly preceded by consultations with the State governments, keeping the initiation of the
lockdown a secret from all the stakeholders defied logic. Much later, after untold sufferings had been
inflicted on the migrants and the Supreme Court had taken cognisance of the problem, the Centre and
the States woke up to facilitate the return journeys of the migrants. This too was poorly managed. In
hindsight, it is evident that the strategies employed to control the spread of the disease have achieved
little success — India today has the third-highest number of COVID-19 cases.
The issue of spread of infection impacted communal harmony. The TablighiJamaat was mercilessly
flogged, especially by certain people and sections of the electronic media, in order to profile Muslims
adversely.
It is not implausible that the focus on the Jamaat was engineered to shift the focus away from the plight
of the migrant labourers, who were suffering and even dying. Certain TV channels were so irresponsible
that they went to the extent of presenting the murder of two sadhus in Maharashtra as a communal
incident even though this wasn‘t the case.
Unfortunately, even prior to the lockdown, with an ongoing agitation, the atmosphere was fraught with
tension. Muslims were aggrieved by the passage of the CAA, which discriminated against Muslim
refugees with regard to grant of citizenship, as well as by the plan to prepare a NRC, which was soon
followed by the announcement to prepare the NPR. While the protests against the CAA, NRC and NPR
were snowballing, the pandemic hit us and was soon followed by the lockdown. The protests had tested
both, the people‘s and the administration‘s patience, particularly because of the inconvenience caused by
blocked roads. Even some of those who believed that the CAA, NRC and NPR were iniquitous were
beginning to lose patience. The failure to initiate dialogue with the protesters and the heavy-handedness
of the police could well have been a tipping point.
This became so overt that it attracted international opprobrium with some West Asian countries and
Canada taking action against overseas Indians engaging in Islamophobia. In a TV interview, historian
Yuval Noah Harari said it was dangerous to pin the blame for the spread of the virus on Muslim minorities
and stressed the need to make the fight against the pandemic a united endeavour.

(a) Indians have failed in dealing with the pandemic.
(b) Without any ongoing crisis, Indians seldom help others.
(c) The discourse against COVID was communalised, with one community being targeted even though
its members were as much victims of the pandemic as were others.
(d) All of the above.

(a) The Indian government failed to foresee, and therefore mitigate, the adverse consequences of its
sudden decision.
(b) The fact that the exodus of migrants to their homes would cause the infection to spread to the rural
hinterland was not contemplated.
(c) The strategy of the government with respect to handling the corona epidemic has been a total failure.
(d) The courts in India acted too slowly while taking cognizance of the migrant crisis.

MOCK CLAT #03
105. Which of the following, if true, strengthen the argument of the author regarding the communalization of
the crisis?
(a) The fact that TablighiJamaat is an orthodox sect of Muslims and does not represent the community
was ignored.
(b) The government ignored the fact that the venue of the March congregation was about 50 metres from
the Nizamuddin police station.
(c) No action has still been taken against the head of the Jamaat.

(a) If the lockdown had not been imposed, protests on the scale in India could have been much larger.
(b) The lockdown was imposed with the sole motive to divert the attention away from the corona crisis.
(c) While the fight against the pandemic was an opportunity to unite us, sadly, it did materialize.
(d) It was wrong on the part of the government to blame the people associated with the Jamat for
organizing the gathering.
Passage (Q.107-Q.114): A recent report in 'News Week' magazine says that in American colleges,
students of Asian origin outperform not only the minority group students, but the majority whites as well.
Many of these students must be of Indian origin, and their achievement is something we can be proud of.
It is unlikely that these talented youngsters will come back to India and that is the familiar brain drain
problem. However, recent statements by the nation's policy-makers indicate that the perception of this
issue is changing. 'Brain bank' and not 'brain drain' is the more appropriate idea, they suggest, since
the expertise of Indians abroad is only deposited in other places and not lost.
This may be so, but this brain bank, like most other banks, is one that primarily serves customers in its
neighbourhood. The skills of the Asians now excelling in America's colleges will mainly help the USA. No
matter how significant, what Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) do for India and what their counterparts do for
other Asian lands is only a by-product. But it is also necessary to ask, or be reminded, why Indians study
fruitfully when abroad. The Asians whose accomplishments 'News Week' writes about would probably
have had a very different tale to tell if they had studied in India. In America, they found elbow room,
books and facilities not available and not likely to be available here. The need to prove themselves in
their new country and the competition of an international standard they faced there, must have cured
mental and physical laziness. But other things helping them in America can be obtained here, if we
achieve a change in social attitudes, especially towards the youth.
We need to learn to value individuals and their unique qualities more than conformity and respectability.
We need to learn the language of encouragement to add to our skill in flattery. We might also learn to be
less liberal with blame and less tight-fisted with appreciation.
107. Consider the following statements regarding the performance of Indians when they go to study in the
USA
1. It should remind us that knowledge and wisdom are not limited by the boundaries of race and nation.
2. It is better than people in the USA expect of non-whites.
3. It shows the fruits of hard work done by school teachers in India.
4. It is better than what it would have been if they had studied in India.
Which of the above statement (s) is/are brought out in the passage?
(a) Only 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2and4
(d) All of these

MOCK CLAT #03
108. Consider the following statements regarding 'brain bank' mentioned in the passage
1. It is like a local bank.
2. It doesn't cause brain drain.
3. No one can be forced to put his assets in a bank.
Which of the above statements are not mentioned or implied in the passage?
(a) Only 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None of these
109. The author feels that what the NRIs do for India
(a) Benefits other Asian countries, as a by-product
(b) Can be of service to the world community
(c) Is not their main interest and concern
(d) Has many useful side effects
110. Consider the following statements regarding the situation in India

1. We should eliminate flattery from public life.
2. We should value people's unique qualities.
3. We should encourage people by being liberal with appreciation for a job well done.
4. We should distinguish between conformity and respectability.
Which of the above statements are true as per the passage?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) All of these
111. The high level of competition faced by Asian students in the USA
(a) makes it important for them to prove themselves .
(b) helps them prove that they are as good as or better than the whites
(c) makes them lazy since the facilities there are good
112. From the passage, it can be inferred that

(a) The author commends Indian education system
(b) The author is aggrieved at the Indian education system.
(c) The author is appalled by the Indian education system.
(d) The author is indifferent to the Indian education system.
113. Which of the following strengthens the claim made by the author?
(a) In the last ten years, most of the top three positions in the coveted Spell Bee competition were
bagged by white students.
(b) The Trump administration has temporarily forbidden immigration to the US.
(c) The latest UNESCO ratings put India in the bottom 50 countries in educational infrastructure.
(d) A group of NRIs have decided to adopt hundred schools across rural India.
114. In the argument, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles?
(a) The first is a solution rejected by the argument; the second is the solution supported by the argument.
(b) The first is a solution supported by the argument; the second is the solution partially supported by the
argument.
(c) Both are solutions supported by the argument
(d) The first is a solution that if adopted, would solve the main problem; The second is a solution drawn
in order to support the main argument

MOCK CLAT #03
Passage (Q.115-Q.120): Historians have long known that there were two sides to the Populist movement
of the 1890s: a progressive side, embodying the protests of farmers against big business, and a darker
side, marked by a distrust of Easterners, immigrants, and intellectuals. In the 1950s, one school of U.S.
social thinkers constructed a parallel between this dark side of Populism and the contemporary anti-
communist crusade spearheaded by Wisconsin Senator Joseph McCarthy, which attacked liberalism,
Eastern intellectuals, and civil liberties in general. To Seymour Martin Lipset, McCarthyism represented
―the sour dregs of Populism‖; to Edward Shils, McCarthyism, like Populism, exemplified ―the ambiguous
American impulse toward ‗direct democracy.‘‖ Noting that McCarthyism and Populism had both found
their strongest support in the agrarian Midwest, Lipset argued that voters who backed agrarian protest
movements during earlier economic crises had supported McCarthy in the post- World War II period of
prosperity. ―It would be interesting to know,‖ Lipset wrote, ―what percentage of those who supported the
isolationist but progressive Bob La Follette in Wisconsin now backs McCarthy.‖ But, in the eyes of these
writers, the appeal of McCarthyism extended beyond the agrarian base of Populism to include urban
groups such as industrial workers. Lipset claimed that ―the lower classes, especially the workers,‖ had
backed McCarthy. In a more sweeping fashion, Lewis Feuer claimed that ―it was the American lower
classes who gave their overwhelming support to the attacks in recent years on civil liberties.‖
Writing a few years later, political scientist Michael Paul Rogin challenged these superficially plausible
notions, contending that they merely embodied the writers‘ own assumptions about the supposed
intolerance of lower-class groups, rather than a valid interpretation of McCarthyism. Rogin critically
examined their assertions by the simple method of testing them against the evidence. He tested Lipset‘s
claims about the continuity of McCarthyism and earlier agrarian protest movements by breaking down
statewide voting statistics on a county-by-county and precinct-by-precinct basis. He found that Wisconsin
counties that had voted strongly for Progressives before World War II did not support McCarthy;
McCarthy‘s support was concentrated in his home region and in ethnic German areas that had been
traditionally conservative. The old Progressive vote had in fact gone to McCarthy‘s opponents, the
Democrats.
To test Lipset‘s generalizations about McCarthy‘s support among lower-class groups, Rogin attempted to
determine whether industrial workers had, in fact, backed McCarthy. Correlating income and employment
statistics with voting records, Rogin found that the greater the employment in industry in a given
Wisconsin county, the lower was McCarthy‘s share of the vote. Rogin concluded that the thesis of
―McCarthyism as Populism‖ should be judged ―not as the product of science but as a ―venture into
conservative political theory.‖
115. The author would probably assert that Populism and McCarthyism
(a) were basically similar
(b) were completely opposite in character
(c) were responses to, respectively, agrarian and industrial conditions
(d) were essentially dissimilar movements that shared some common features
116. It can be inferred that Rogin‘s most serious criticism of Lipset, Feuer, and Shils‘s methodology would
probably be that they
(a) reached incorrect conclusions about McCarthy
(b) equated support for McCarthyism with anti-intellectualism
(c) placed too much emphasis on the dual character of Populism
(d) failed to examine the evidence that could support or weaken their conclusions
117. Rogin studied the class character of Wisconsin voters in order to
I. challenge the idea that less affluent socioeconomic groups supported McCarthy
II. explain the underlying causes of the links between Populism and McCarthyism
III.account for important changes in voting patterns during the twentieth century
(a) I only
(b) III only
(c) I and II only
(d) II and III only
MOCK CLAT #03
118. It can be inferred that both Lipset and Rogin made which of the following assumptions about voter
support for McCarthy?
(a) The voting patterns of industrial workers are representative of lower class political preferences.
(b) Industrial workers usually vote for conservative political candidates.
(c) Supporters of McCarthy were almost exclusively of lower-class origin.
(d) Lower-class voters generally tend to vote in favor of civil rights measures.
119. According to the passage, Rogin concluded that the writings of Lipset, Shils, and Feuer
(a) Intentionally distorted historical evidence
(b) Were flawed by political presuppositions
(c) Lent support to attacks on civil liberties
(d) Took an overly statistical approach to historical evidence
120. The author is primarily concerned with

(a) comparing positions in a political debate
(b) advocating the use of statistical methods in historical research
(c) examining the similarities between two political movements
(d) describing an instance of flawed historiography
Passage (Q.121-Q.124): The pioneers of the teaching of science imagined that its introduction into
education would remove the conventional artificiality and backward-lookingness which were the
characteristics of classical studies, but they were gravely disappointed. So, too, in their time had the
humanists, thought that the study of the classical authors in the original would banish at once the dull
pedantry and superstition of medieval scholasticism. The professional schoolmaster was a match for both
of them, and has almost managed to make the understanding of chemical reactions as dull and as
dogmatic an affair as the reading of Virgil's Aeneid.
The chief claim for the use of science in education is that, it teaches a child something about the actual
universe in which he is living, in making him acquainted with the results of scientific discovery, and at the
same time, teaches him how to think logically and inductively by studying scientific method. A certain
limited success has been reached in the first of these aims, but practically none at all in the second.
Those privileged members of the community who have been through a secondary or public school
education may be expected to know something about the elementary Physics and Chemistry of a 100
years ago, but they probably know hardly more than any bright boy can pick up from an interest in
wireless or scientific hobbies out of school hours.
As to the learning of scientific method, the whole thing is palpably a farce. Actually, for the convenience
of teachers and the requirements of the examination system, it is necessary that the pupils not only do
not learn scientific method but learn precisely the reverse, that is, to believe exactly what they are told
and to reproduce it when asked, whether it seems nonsense to them or not.
The way in which educated people respond to such quackeries as spiritualism or astrology, not to say
more dangerous ones such as racial theories or currency myths, shows that 50 years of education in the
method of science in Britain or Germany has produced no visible effect whatever. The only way of
learning the method of science is the long and bitter way of personal experience and until the educational
or social systems are altered to make this possible, the best we can expect is the production of a minority
of people, who are able to acquire some of the techniques of science and a still smaller minority, who are
able to use and develop them.

MOCK CLAT #03
121. Consider the following conclusions about the professional schoolmaster

1. He has been a pioneer in both Science and Humanities.
2. He has no interest in teaching Science.
3. He supported the humanists.
4. He thwarted attempts to enliven education.
Which of the above conclusion(s) is/are true?
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) Only 4
(d) Only 3
122. Consider the following statements about secondary and public school education in the sciences
1. It is severely limited in its benefits.
2. It is worse than that in the classics.
3. It is grossly incompetent.
4. It is deliberately obscurantist.
Which of the above statement (s) is/are not true according to the passage?
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) Only 4
(d) Only 3
123. Consider the following questions to which the author may be interested in the answers, if he were to see
how science education has changed when he wrote this passage more than 70 years ago
1. Have textbooks improved?
2. Do students spend more time in laboratories?
3. Can students apply their knowledge logically?
4. Do students know more about the world about them?
He would be most interested in answers to which of the above question(s)?
(a) Only 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
124. Consider the following conclusions inferred from the passage

1. At the time of writing, not all children received a secondary school education.
2. The author finds chemical reactions interesting.
3. Science leaching has imparted some knowledge of facts to some children.
4. The author believes that many teachers are authoritarian.
Which of the above conclusion(s) is/are true?
(a) Only 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) All of these

MOCK CLAT #03
Passage (Q.125-Q.129): The British government assisted the Company‘s rise with military and naval
resources, enabling legislation, loans from the Bank of England and supportive foreign policy. It
overcame local resistance and countered foreign competitors like the French and Dutch. But as the
Company‘s principal motive was only economic, so too were the major consequences of its rule, both for
India and for Britain itself. Britain’s Industrial Revolution was built on the destruction of India’s
thriving manufacturing industries. Textiles were an emblematic case. The British systematically
destroyed India‘s textile manufacturing and exports; substituted Indian textiles by British ones
manufactured in England. Ironically, the British used Indian raw material and exported the finished
products back to India and the rest of the world, the industrial equivalent of adding insult to injury.
The British destruction of textile competition in India led to the first great deindustrialization of the modern
world. Indian handloom fabrics were much in demand in England; it was no accident that the Company
established its first ‗factory‘ in 1613 in Masulipatnam, famous for its Kalamkari textiles.
For centuries the handloom weavers of Bengal had world‘s most desirable fabric- fine muslins, as light as
‗woven air‘. Muslins were coveted by European dressmakers. As late as the mid-eighteenth century,
Bengal‘s textiles were still being exported to Egypt, Turkey and Persia in the West, and to Java, China
and Japan in the East, along well-established trade routes, as well as to Europe. The value of Bengal‘s
textile exports alone is estimated to have been around 16 million rupees annually in the 1750s, of which
some 5 to 6 million rupees‘ worth was exported by European traders in India. During the century to 1757,
while the British were just traders and not rulers, their demand is estimated to have raised Bengal‘s textile
and silk production by as much as 33 per cent.
The Indian textile industry became more creative, innovative and productive; exports boomed. But when
the British traders took power, everything changed. In power, the British were marble-hearted. They
stopped paying for textiles and silk in pounds brought from Britain, preferring to pay from revenues
extracted from Bengal, and pushing prices still lower. They squeezed out other foreign buyers and
instituted a Company monopoly. They cut off the export markets for Indian textiles, interrupting
long-standing independent trading links. As British manufacturing grew, they went further. Indian
textiles were remarkably cheap—so much so that Britain‘s cloth manufacturers, unable to compete,
wanted them eliminated. The soldiers of the East India Company obliged, systematically smashing the
looms of some Bengali weavers and, according to at least one contemporary account breaking their
thumbs so they could not ply their craft.
125. What is the author‘s main point in the given passage?
(a) The creative, competitive, and productive Indian textile exports boomed until British took over.
(b) The company here came with the objective of establishing economic monopoly.
(c) The British here were to rule.
(d) British overcame French and Dutch to establish factory at Masulipatnam.
126. Which of the following is the main problem or question the author discusses in the passage?
(a) Ban on Indian exports.
(b) The great de-industrialization
(c) British demand for fine fabrics
(d) The economic prospect of East India Company and takeover of the booming textile industry.
127. With reference to the passage-
1) It exemplifies the author‘s claim of British industries being set up at the cost of India‘s loss of its
thriving manufacturing hubs.
2) To narrate how the British systematically destroyed indigenous manufacturing
3) A remarkable case where goods made of Indian raw material were shipped back to Indians.
4) British deindustrialization of Indian textile manufacture.
Which of the following is/ are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,2,3
MOCK CLAT #03
128. Statement- It was no accident that the Company established its first ‗factory‘ in 1613 in Masulipatnam,
famous for its Kalamkari textiles.
The above statement is-
(a) Inference Statement
(b) Strengthening Statement
(c) Weakening Statement
(d) Parallel Reasoning Statement
129. What purpose do the two statements in boldface serve?

(a) Statement 1 presents a problem; statement 2 poses an ideal solution to the problem
(b) Statement 1 presents the conclusion and statement 2 presents the basis of the conclusion
(c) Statement 1 is a partial conclusion and statement 2 is the basis of the partial conclusion
(d) Statement 1 is the basis of the conclusion and statement 2 is the conclusion
Direction (Q.130 and Q.131): Read the information carefully and answer the question.
Seven players who represented a university are to be felicitated in a function. They are A, B, C, D, E, F
and G. They are to be seated on the dais along one side of a rectangular table. Some of the conditions
are:
I. A and G are to be seated at the extreme right which is closest to the exit because they have to leave
early.
II. B is to be seated at the centre as he will be given the man of the match award.
III. C and D to be seated as far as possible because they are both wicketkeepers.
130. Which of the following may not be seated at either end of the table?
(a) C (b) D (c) G (d) F
131. Which of the following pairs may not be seated together?

(a) E and A (b) B and D (c) B and F (d) G and D
Directions (Q.132-Q.134): Read the information carefully and answer the question.
Five women decided to go shopping to M.G. Road, Bangalore.

They arrived at the designated meeting place in the following order:
1. Archana 2. Chellamma 3. Dhenuka 4. Helen and 5. Shahnaz.
Each woman spent at least Rs. 1000. Below are some additional facts about how much they spent during
their shopping spree.
The woman who spent Rs. 2234 arrived before the lady who spent Rs. 1193.
One woman spent Rs. 1340 and she was not Dhenuka.
One woman spent Rs. 1378 more than Chellamma.
One woman spent Rs. 2517 and she was not Archana.v
Helen spent more than Dhenuka
Shahnaz spent the largest amount and Chellamma the smallest.
132. What was the amount spent by Helen?

(a) Rs. 1193 (b) Rs. 1340 (c) Rs. 2234 (d) Rs. 2517
133. Which of the following amounts was spent by one of them?

(a) Rs.1139 (b) Rs. 1378 (c) Rs. 2571 (d) Rs. 2718
134. The woman who spent Rs. 1193 is:

(a) Archana (b) Chellamma (c) Dhenuka (d) Helen

MOCK CLAT #03
Directions (Q.135 – Q.139): Study the following table carefully and answer the given questions
Selling
Mobile Cost Price % of Profit Profit
Price
Samsung 35,000 ---- ---- 3,500
Apple 53,000 ---- 14% ----
Micromax ---- 22,000 ---- ----
LG 28,000 ---- ---- ----
HTC ---- 33,000 10% ----
Sony 32,000 ---- ---- 4,000
135. What is the selling price and % of Profit of Sony Mobile ?

(a) 36,000 and 12.5% (b) 36,000 and 15%
(c) 36,000 and 18% (d) 36,000 and 20%
136. What is the % of Profit Micromax, If Cost Price of Micromax is 3/5 of Cost Price of HTC mobile ?
(a) 33 1/3% (b) 26 4/9% (c) 22 2/9% (d) 24 5/9%
137. What is the selling price and % of profit of LG mobile?. If profit is 5oo more than the profit of Samsung
mobile .(a)32,000 and 14 1/7% (b)34,000 and 14 4/7%
(c)32,000 and 15 2/7% (d)32,000 and 14 2/7%
138. What is the profit earned on Apple mobile ?

(a) 7360 (b) 7450 (c) 7420 (d) 7560
139. What is the ratio between Cost Price and Selling price of Samsung ?
(a) 14:15 (b) 10:13 (c) 10:14 (d) 10:11
Directions (Q.140– Q.144): Refer to the following data to answer the questions that follow:
The result of an exam is given below:
Out of 2000 students who appeared
(i) 1316 failed in Telugu
(ii) 332 failed in Telugu and Punjabi
(iii) 744 failed in Punjabi, 868 failed in Telugu and Bengali
(iv) 1180 failed in Bengali, 252 failed in Bengali and Punjabi
140. The number of students who failed in all the three subjects is
(a) 356 (b) 146 (c) 212 (d) 252
141. The number of students who failed in Bengali but not in Punjabi is
(a) 928 (b) 784 (c) 774 (d) 944
142. The number of students who failed in Telugu but not in Bengali is
(a) 448 (b) 896 (c) 1512 (d) 928
143. The number of students who failed in Punjabi but not in Telugu is
(a) 318 (b) 198 (c) 213 (d) 412
144. The number of students who failed in Telugu or Bengali but not in Punjabi is
(a) 1234 (b) 1432 (c) 1256 (d) 1342

MOCK CLAT #03
Directions (Q.145–Q.150): Study the given table carefully to answer the following questions.
Field Shape Side (in Base(in Height (in Radius(in Cost of Cost of
Name m.) m.) m.) meter) flooring(in fencing (in
Rs. Per sq. Rs. Per
meter) meter)
A Triangle 16 12 50 20
B Rectangle 10× 20 30 15
C Square 15 40 18
D Rectangle 20 12 60 25
E Circle 10 45 22
145. What is the cost of flooring of A?

(a) Rs.4000 (b) Rs.4600 (c) Rs.4800 (d) Rs.5000
146. What is the difference between the cost of fencing of C and that of B?
(a) Rs.180 (b) Rs.120 (c) Rs.240 (d) Rs.360
147. What is the ratio of the cost of flooring to that of fencing of field D?
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 6 : 1 (c) 8 : 1 (d) 9 : 1
148. The cost of fencing of field E is approximately what percent of the cost of flooring of field C?
(a) 10.5% (b) 19.46% (c) 18.71% (d) 15.36%
149. The cost of fencing of field C is what percent of the cost of fencing of field D?
(a) 87.54% (b) 67.5% (c) 72.13% (d) 54.36%
150. What is the cost of fencing of B?

(a) Rs.400 (b) Rs.960 (c) Rs.800 (d) Rs.900

MOCK CLAT #04

Candidate Name : _________________
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
T49_MC15_ALL_03_019-20

Test Centre/Hall.
MOCK CLAT #04
Directions (Q.1-Q.29): Read the passages carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): In traditional theater forms, the roles of performer and audience are completely
separate, so that performance space can be said to encompass an actors‘ sphere and a spectators‘
sphere. Even when performers move out into the audience or when there is scripted audience
interaction, spectators do not become performers. Finally, while stories may open up the imagination or
excite audiences, according to Augusto Boal, they discourage political action by providing catharsis. The
passive spectator follows the play‘s emotional arc and, once the action concludes, finds the issue closed.
Boal reminds us that our theater etiquette creates a kind of culture of apathy where individuals do not act
communally, despite shared space, and remain distanced from art.
Workshop theater, such as Boal‘s Image Theatre and Forum Theatre, is a response to that. In the
workshop form, performance space is created for a select group of people, but the performers‘ sphere
and the audience‘s sphere are collapsed: everyone is at once theater maker and witness. In Image
Theatre, participants will come up with a theme or issue and arrange themselves into a tableau that
depicts what that issue looks like in society today, versus what the ideal situation would be. They then try
to transition from the current image to the ideal image in a way that seems plausible to all the
participants. Forum Theatre, on the other hand, creates a narrative skit depicting a certain problem. After
the actors have gone through the action of the play once, a facilitator, known as the joker (like the one in
a pack of cards), encourages those who have watched the story to watch it again and to stop it at any
time to take the place of the protagonist. The aim is to find a solution to the problem, realizing along the
way all of the obstacles involved. In Forum Theatre, just as in Image Theatre, there is not always a
solution. The main goal of this form, then, is to engage in the action, to reflect, and to understand
particular issues as being part of a larger picture, thus using art to re-cast what seem like private troubles
in a public, political light.
The main reason Boal developed these workshop styles was to grant audiences agency so that they may
create ways to free themselves of oppression. Because he found theater audiences to be locked into a
passive role—just like he found the oppressed coerced into a subservient role in relation to their
oppressors—he created the ―spectator,‖ or someone who simultaneously witnesses and creates theater.
1. The second paragraph of the passage serves to

(a) elaborate on the topic of the first paragraph
(b) provide a rationale for an artistic endeavor
(c) discuss an artistic answer to a passive culture
(d) explain the theater‘s lack of appeal
2. The author uses the word agency to mean

(a) profit (b) organization (c) publicity (d) power
3. Which of the following would Boal consider a ―spectator‖?

(a) a person who engages in political action
(b) an audience member who finds catharsis in a play
(c) any person placed in a subservient role
(d) a participant in an Image workshop
4. According to Boal, all of the following are disadvantage of traditional theater forms EXCEPT:
(a) Such productions prevent the actors from going into the audience.
(b) Such productions provide catharsis.
(c) Such productions discourage communal activity.
(d) Such productions obstruct political change.

MOCK CLAT #04
5. All of the following would be characteristic of a Forum workshop EXCEPT:

(a) Productions begin with a narrative script.
(b) Different people often play the protagonist.
(c) Some performances do not achieve catharsis.
(d) Participants arrange themselves into a tableau.
Passage (Q.6-Q.9): It is one of the disadvantages of reading books about natural scenic wonders that
they fill the mind with pictures, often exaggerated, often distorted, often blurred, and, even when well
drawn,injurious to the freshness of first impressions.
Such has been the fate of us with regard to the Falls of Niagara. There was little accuracy in the
estimates of The first obseversservers of the cataract. Startled by an exhibition of power of so novel and
so grand, emotion leaped beyond the control of the judgementand gave currency to notions which have
often led to disappointment.
In the winter of 1678 and 1679 the cataract was visited by father Hennepin, and described in a book
dedicated to the king of Great Britain. He gives a drawing of the waterfall,
which shows that serious changes have taken place since his time. He describes it as 'a great and
prodigious cadence
ofwater, to which the universe does not offer a parallel'.the height of fall, according to Hennepin, was
more than 600 feet. The waters', he says, 'which fall from this great precipice do foam and boil in the
most astonishing manner, making a noise more terrible than that of thunder. When the wind blows to the
south its frightful roaring may be heard for more than fifteen leagues'. The Baron la Hontan, who visited
Niagara in 1687, makes the height 800 feet. In 1721 Charlevois, in a letter to Madame de Maintenon,
after referring to the exaggerations of his predecessors, thus states the result of his own observations:
'For my part, after examining it on all sides, I am inclined to think that we cannot allow it less than 140 or
150 feet', — a remarkably close estimate.
As regards the noise of the fall, Charlevois declares the accounts of his predecessors, which, I may say,
are repeated to the present hour, to be altogether extravagant. He is perfectly right. The thunders of
Niagara are formidable enough to those who really seek them at the base of the Horseshoe Fall; but on
the banks of the river, and particularly above the fall, its silence, rather than its noise, is surprising. 'his
arises, in part, from the lack of resonance; the surrounding country being flat, and therefore furnishing no
echoing surfaces to reinforce the shock of the water.
6. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with doing which of the following?
(a) Discussing a problem associated with reading books about natural wonders before visiting them.
(b) Refuting those who claimed that a natural wonder was of a particular height.
(c) Describing how the initial descriptions of a natural wonder were greatly exaggerated.
(d) Explaining why an expected aural phenomenon does not actually occur.
7. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage about the height of the Niagara
Falls?
(a) The Niagara Falls were higher than any other natural waterfall at the time of writing the passage.
(b) Hennepin lied about the height of the Niagara Falls in his book dedicated to the King of Great Britain.
(c) There are no mountains in the area surrounding the Niagara Falls.
(d) The actual height of the Niagara Falls is around 150 feet.
8. According to the information in the passage, each of the following is true EXCEPT:
(a) The Niagara Falls does make a thunderous sound but it is not audible from everywhere.
(b) Reading books about natural scenery can be disadvantageous at times.
(c) A flat topography is not conducive to resonance.
(d) A person standing at the base of the Niagara Falls would actually be surprised at the silence that
greets him.

MOCK CLAT #04
9. If after reading this passage a person were to visit the Niagara Falls, which of the following would he NOT
be surprised at?
(a) The Niagara Falls is 480 feet in height.
(b) There are several tall mountains in the vicinity of the Niagara Falls.
(c) There is absolute silence at the base of the Niagara Falls.
(d) There is a river flowing in the vicinity of the Niagara Falls.
Passage (Q.10-Q.15): If you talk about the history of mathematics to any Indian mathematician, you are
most likely to have two types of reactions. Firstly, his mind would immediately flash back to the great
works of ancient Indian mathematicians, including the mathematical contents of the Vedas. Secondly, he
remonstrates that he does not know the history of mathematics in detail, nor is he interested in learning it;
in fact, he has no time to learn it. However, the history of mathematics cannot be separated from
mathematics. As Andre Weil put it, the history of mathematics in itself is mathematics and no one should
venture to enter the field unless he knows enough of mathematics. Placed between these two
extraordinary, adventitious and redundant situations, the studies of history of mathematics have suffered
hopelessly. In fact, they have yet to be initiated in the right perspective. While a good university in every
part of the world has a department of study in the history and philosophy of mathematics, it is
disappointing that there is hardly a university in India that provides facilities for such studies. In fact, a
large number of Indian manuscripts are yet to be translated from the original languages in which they
detail facts about ancient mathematics.
This has led to a deadening disposition. Due to the vacuum of studies on the history of mathematics in
India, studies by Western historians and Euro-centric academics of history of mathematics have taken
centre stage in our minds and syllabi. These historians and academicians deliberately ignore the
mathematical achievements of India. Their belief that except for the discovery of the concept of zero and
the decimal representation of numbers, everything else in mathematics was done outside India is now
universally accepted. The reason for such thinking is easy to understand. The whole of Europe learned
mathematics through the Greeks. The net result of such historians is that the history of Indian
mathematics is not even considered as a part of the world history of mathematics. For how long can we
continue to believe in the half-truths propagated by the Western historians and Euro-centric academics?
Keeping this in mind, the authors should be commended for endeavouring to take up this prodigious task.
Their aim was to highlight momentous, positive and concrete contributions made by Indian
mathematicians in the initial advancement of mathematics and relate them to the developments that
occurred in a later era in Greece, Middle East, China and Japan.
10. The Passage is most likely to be

(a) A newspaper article lamenting the lack of scientific temper among Indian historians.
(b) A blog essaying the history of mathematics from ancient times to the modern era.
(c) A preface or foreword in a book written to explore contributions made by Indian mathematicians in the
initial advancement of mathematics.
(d) An article in a journal of mathematics describing the contributions made by Indian mathematicians.
11. Match the following words used in the Passage with their meanings.
Words Meanings
Remarkably or impressively great in extent, size,
i Remonstrate A
or degree
ii Adventitious B Of great importance or significance
Happening as a result of an external factor or
iii Prodigious C
chance rather than design or inherent nature
iv Momentous D To reason or plead in protest
(a) i - B, ii - C, iii - A, iv - D (b) i - C, ii - B, iii - D, iv - A
(c) i - D, ii - C, iii - B, iv - A (d) i - D, ii - C, iii - A, iv - B

MOCK CLAT #04
12. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the Passage?
(a) Eurasia: The Cradle of History of Mathematics
(b) India and Greece: Civilizations United by Mathematics, Divided by Destiny
(c) Academic Acrobatics: Negation of Contribution by Indians in Initial Advancement of Mathematics
(d) Mathematical Contributions: A Perspective by Western historians and Euro-centric Academics
13. Based on the Passage, which of the following can be said to be true?
(a) Historians of Indian origin have a tendency to exaggerate claims of historic contribution of Indian
mathematics and Indian universities do not have the wherewithal to fund courses on history of Indian
mathematics.
(b) The belief of Euro-centric academics that except for the discovery of the concept of zero and the
decimal representation of numbers, everything else in mathematics was done outside India is true.
(c) As some texts of Indian history cannot be translated from their original languages, the contribution
made by Indian mathematicians in the initial advancement of mathematics may not be fully known.
(d) The history of Indian mathematics is not even considered as a part of the world history of
mathematics due to the Euro-centric academics that have spread a motivated version of the history of
mathematics and the lack of multiple studies determining positive and concrete contributions made by
Indian mathematicians in the initial advancement of mathematics.
14. Which of the following messages can be inferred from the Passage?
i. Indian mathematicians do not have the time, energy, resources or orientation to study about the
history of mathematics and the contribution of Indian mathematics to the history of mathematics.
ii. Highlighting concrete contributions made by Indian mathematicians in the initial advancement of
mathematics and relating them to the developments that occurred in a later era in Greece, Middle
East, China and Japan will expose the deception spread by the Euro-centric academicians about their
contribution.
iii. Unless a nation and its people work to own their place in history and present it in an appropriate
manner, they will be slaves of external projections of their histories.
iv. As history cannot be undone, it is important for academics to move ahead from the deification of the
contribution of Indians to the history of mathematics and work practically on finding new innovations
in fields such as mathematics.
v. As they have more credibility than Indian mathematicians, it is essential to find Western historians
and Euro-centric academics of history of mathematics that are willing to dig out the contribution of
Indian mathematics to the history of mathematics and fund their studies.
(a) Both (iii) and (v) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iv) (d) All except (iii)
15. Which of the following words can replace the word 'deadening' as used in the Passage?
(a) Injuring (b) Destroying (c) Stunning (d) Dulling
Passage (Q.16-Q.22): Some observers have attributed the dramatic growth in temporary employment
that occurred in the United States during the 1980s to increased participation in the workforce by certain
groups, such as first-time or reentering workers, who supposedly prefer such arrangements. However,
statistical analyses reveal that demographic changes in the workforce did not correlate with variations in
the total number of temporary workers. Instead, these analyses suggest that factors affecting employers
account for the rise in temporary employment. One factor is product demand: temporary employment is
favored by employers who are adapting to fluctuating demand for products while at the same time
seeking to reduce overall labor costs. Another factor is labor‘s reduced bargaining strength, which allows
employers more control over the terms of employment. Given the analyses, which reveal that growth in
temporary employment now far exceeds the level explainable by recent workforce entry rates of groups
said to prefer temporary jobs, firms should be discouraged from creating excessive numbers of temporary
positions. Government policymakers should consider mandating benefit coverage for temporary
employees, promoting pay equity between temporary and permanent workers, assisting labor unions in
organizing temporary workers, and encouraging firms to assign temporary jobs primarily to employees
who explicitly indicate that preference.

MOCK CLAT #04
16. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(a) present the results of statistical analyses and propose further studies
(b) explain a recent development and predict its eventual consequences
(c) identify the reasons for a trend and recommend measures to address it
(d) outline several theories about a phenomenon and advocate one of them
17. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the ―factors affecting employers‖ that are
mentioned in the passage?
(a) Most experts cite them as having initiated the growth in temporary employment that occurred during
the 1980s.
(b) They may account for the increase in the total number of temporary workers during the 1980s.
(c) They were less important than demographic change in accounting for the increase of temporary
employment during the 1980s.
(d) They included a sharp increase in the cost of labor during the 1980s.
18. The passage suggests which of the following about the use of temporary employment by firms during the
1980s?
(a) It enabled firms to deal with fluctuating product demand far more efficiently than they did before the
1980s.
(b) It increased as a result of increased participation in the workforce by certain demographic groups.
(c) It was discouraged by government-mandated policies.
(d) It increased partly as a result of workers‘ reduced ability to control the terms of their employment.
19. The passage suggests which of the following about the workers who took temporary jobs during the
1980s?
(a) Their jobs frequently led to permanent positions within firms.
(b) They constituted a less demographically diverse group than has been suggested.
(c) They were occasionally involved in actions organized by labor unions.
(d) They did not necessarily prefer temporary employment to permanent employment.
20. The first sentence in the passage suggests that the ―observers‖ mentioned in the passage would be most
likely to predict which of the following?
(a) That the number of new temporary positions would decline as fewer workers who preferred temporary
employment entered the workforce
(b) That the total number of temporary positions would increase as fewer workers were able to find
permanent positions
(c) That employers would have less control over the terms of workers‘ employment as workers increased
their bargaining strength
(d) That more workers would be hired for temporary positions as product demand increased
21. In the context of the passage, the word ―excessive‖ most closely corresponds to which of the following
phrases?
(a) Far more than can be justified by worker preferences
(b) Far more than can be explained by fluctuations in product demand
(c) Far more than can be beneficial to the success of the firms themselves
(d) Far more than can be accounted for by an expanding national economy
22. The passage mentions each of the following as an appropriate kind of governmental action EXCEPT
(a) getting firms to offer temporary employment primarily to a certain group of people
(b) encouraging equitable pay for temporary and permanent employees
(c) facilitating the organization of temporary workers by labor unions
(d) establishing guidelines on the proportion of temporary workers that firms should employ

MOCK CLAT #04
Passage (Q.23-Q.29): The following is adapted from a medical reference guide regarding the heart and
cardiovascular system.
The heart is responsible for moving blood to all of the body's tissues through a 60,000-mile network of
vessels. The pumping of the heart relies on an intricate system of muscle (myocardium),valves, coronary
vessels, the conduction (electrical) system, arteries and veins, and the sac around the heart
(pericardium) .
The human heart is divided into four chambers, the walls of which are made of the myocardium, the
muscle that contracts rhythmically under the stimulation of electrical currents. The myocardium is
composed of individual muscle cells called myocytes, which work together to contract and relax the heart
chambers in the correct sequence to pump blood to the lungs and the body. The heart is able to pump
blood in a coordinated manner because of the arrangement of the cells and the electrical messages that
pass easily between the cells. This cardiovascular pump operates by squeezing blood out of its
chambers (contraction) and then expanding to allow blood in (relaxation). The action is similar to
squeezing water out of a soft plastic bottle while holding it underwater and then releasing one's grasp so
that water is sucked back into the bottle as it re-expands.
The right side of the heart, which is composed of the right atrium and right ventricle, is responsible for
pulmonary circulation. That is, it pumps blood through the lungs, where it receives oxygen and rids itself
of carbon dioxide. The left side of the heart, composed of the left atrium and left ventricle, receives the
newly oxygenated blood and pumps it through the body where it delivers oxy-gen and picks up carbon
dioxide (waste). Blood must circle from the right side of the heart and through the lungs before being
delivered to the left side and throughout the body.
"Used blood" returns to the right side of the heart via two large veins-the superior vena cava (from the
head and arms) and the inferior venacava (from the legs and abdomen). Blood from the right heart is
dark bluish red because it is deoxygenated, or lacks oxygen. The blood from the left heart is oxygenated
and therefore is bright red. Blood from the left heart is delivered to the body through the aorta, the largest
blood vessel in the body.
Because the heart never rests while it supplies blood to the rest of the body, it actually works harder than
any other muscle in the body and needs a much richer blood supply than other muscles. Although the
heart makes up less than I percent of a person's body weight, it requires 4 to 5 percent of its blood.

(a) pulmonary circulation (b) the structure and function of the heart
(c) blood supply to the heart (d) contraction and relaxation of the heart
24. Myocytes are muscle cells responsible for

(a) opening and closing the heart valves (b) providing oxygen to the blood
(c) allowing the heart to rest (d) contracting and relaxing the heart chambers
25. "Relaxation" most nearly means

(a) resting (b) squeezing blood out of its chambers
(c) pumping (d) expanding to allow blood in
26. Pulmonary circulation is
(a) the right heart chamber
(b) the pumping of blood through the lungs, where it is oxygenated
(c) the pumping of blood through the aorta, which delivers it to the body
(d) the left heart chamber
27. "Oxygenated" most nearly means
(a) supplied with oxygen (b) in need of oxygen
(c) supplied with oxygen and carbon dioxide (d) bright red

MOCK CLAT #04
28. The author's use of quotation marks around "usedblood" implies

(a) the blood is now waste
(b) the blood is bright red
(c) the blood is deoxygenated and is now waste
(d) the blood has circulated throughout the body
29. According to the passage, the heart requires how much of one's blood supply?
(a) Less than 1 % (b) The same amount of blood as the body'sother organs
(c) 4%-5% (d) A richer supply

MOCK CLAT #04
Passage (Q.30-Q.34): More popularly known by the title, ‗[1]‘, renowned conservationist JadevPayeng of
Assam was feted with the prestigious Karmayogi Award for 2020 in New Delhi .
Payeng received the honour in recognition of his contribution to afforestation on a sandbar of the River
Brahmaputra. Now named Molai after Payeng‘s nickname, the sandbar is part of [2], the world‘s largest
river island.
Speaking after his felicitation, Payeng told a full house, ―My work is above religion or politics; it is about
nature!‖
He then went on to speak about his journey in life and the dire need to make people aware of the need to
conserve nature, sprinkling his narration with interesting episodes from his own eventful life.
Once when he learned that some people had come to his area to fell down trees, he confronted them
with the warning, ―Cut me up before you cut them down. I won‘t allow you to cut down any trees!‖
Additional commissioner of Delhi Police and co-head of SPUNER, HibuTamang, who was also present
on the dais, said that achievers like Payeng were a source of inspiration for everyone, including people of
the Northeast region.
30. Fill [1] with a suitable option.

(a) Environmentalist of India
(b) Forest Man of India
(c) Climate Checker of India
(d) Zoologist of India
31. In 2020, JadevPayeng awarded the ______ edition of Karmayogi award, instituted by _______.
(a) 4th , Forest India
(b) 6th, My Home India
(c) 4th, My Home India
(d) 6th, Forest India
32. Which is the world‘s largest riverine island, redacted as [2] in the above passage?
(a) Munroe Island
(b) Majuli Island
(c) Divar Island
(d) Rica Island
33. JadavPayeng has been awarded with the fourth-highest civilian honour of India. What is the name of the
award?
(a) Bharat Ratna
(b) Padma Bhushan
(c) Padam Shri
(d) Padma Vibhushan
34. Which of the following are the United Nations highest environmental honour?
(a) Activist of Earth
(b) Champions of the Earth
(c) Creators of the Earth
(d) Makers of the Earth

MOCK CLAT #04
Passage (Q.35-Q.38): The European Green Deal aims to transform the 27-country bloc from a high- to a
low-carbon economy, without reducing prosperity and while improving people‘s quality of life, through
cleaner air and water, better health and a thriving natural world. Climate neutrality, which can also be
expressed as a state of net-zero emissions, is realised when a country‘s emissions are balanced by
absorptions and removal of [1] from the atmosphere.
The massive green stimulus program, called [2], is aimed at giving a fillip to renewable energy sector,
accelerate the transition to clean mobility, and also increase energy savings. The funds will, however,
have to get the majority vote in the European Parliament and the unanimous nod of all the 27 members
of the bloc in the European Council, which may take months in negotiations. As the world grapples with
the coronavirus pandemic, governments across the world are under pressure to balance the transition
from managing a health crisis to charting out an economic recovery.
Source: Edited and recreated from the article ―What is the European Green Deal and will it really cost
€1tn?‖ from The Guardian
35. Which of the following components has been redacted by [1]?

(a) Carbon
(b) Chlorofluorocarbons
(c) Green House Gases
(d) Both (b) and (c)
36. The stimulus name has been redacted by [2]. What is it?
(a) EU Green Deal
(b) Next Generation EU
(c) Green Gen EU
(d) European Climate Pact
37. Who out of the following is the President of the European Commission?
(a) Charles Michel
(b) Christine Lagarde
(c) David Sassoli
(d) Ursula von der Leyen
38. The deal has set up a bloc-wide goal of net zero carbon emissions by the year -
(a) 2040
(b) 2045
(c) 2050
(d) 2055
Passage (Q.39-Q.43): The Indian Finance Minister NirmalaSitharaman announced [1] measures for the
MSME sector as part of the Modi government‘s ₹20 lakh crore stimulus package.The [1] measures for
the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) include collateral-free loans, additional debt and equity
infusion. The government has also announced a new policy that will shield the Indian MSME businesses
from unfair competition from foreign companies.
According to the MSME Development Act, [2], enterprises which are in the manufacturing and service
sectors qualify as MSMEs, subject to investment and turnover limits.
―MSMEs are critical for employment preservation and growth; firing up the MSME sector is the surest way
to accelerate job creation. The Finance Minister‘s schemes announced today will provide relief for
MSMEs that need immediate succor for their survival as well as help those enterprises that need a fillip to
grow. Expanding the definition of MSMEs and introducing new thresholds based on turnover while
elevating the investment ceilings for each segment are welcome." said, Arun M. Kumar, Chairman and
CEO, KPMG."Reduction of TDS being taken by the GOI will positively infuse the much-needed liquidity in
such turbulent times. Very bold and decisive steps by the Modi government." said, Rajat Prakash,
Partner, Athena Legal.

MOCK CLAT #04

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 10

(a) 2000
(b) 2002
(c) 2006
(d) 2010
41. Recently, definition of MSME has changed by Finance minister. What is the reason behind it?
(a) To allow for relatively bigger companies to avail the benefits of cheaper and priority loans
(b) To include agriculture based industries
(c) To make eligible for WTO loans
(d) To promote Make in India
42. An emergency credit line of ₹3 lakh crore for MSMEs from Banks and NBFCs. The credit line will be up to
______ of all outstanding credit as on February 29, 2020.
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
43. Which of the following is not the measure taken by Finance Minister for MSME sector?
(a) ₹3 lakh crore collateral-free Automatic Loans for Businesses, including MSMEs
(b) ₹20,000 crore subordinate debt for Stressed MSMEs
(c) Global tenders to be allowed up to ₹200 crores
(d) All the pending dues from the government or government-owned companies will be cleared in the
next 45 days.
Passage (Q.44-Q.48): Issues concerning the production localisation of [1] light utility helicopters are in
the process of being resolved, N.M. Srikanth, Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the Indo-Russian
Helicopters Limited (IRHL). The final deal for manufacturing the helicopters in India has been held up for
a while.
At the ongoing Defexpo 2020, Russian Helicopters (RH) signed a road map with IRHL for localisation of
[1] helicopter production in India.
Putin and Modi inspected a [1] that was flown to Vladivostok where the leaders had arrived for the
Eastern Economic Forum summit. Putin was quoted by TASS as telling Modi, ―I flew on this helicopter, I
liked it, it‘s really comfortable. It‘s good because it has coaxial rotors, there is no back rotor.
[1] is a design of Russia's famed Kamov design bureau. It is a light helicopter, with a maximum take-off
weight of over 3.5 tonnes and can carry a payload of up to 1 ton.
44. Which light utility helicopter can be replaced with [1] in the above passage?
(a) Kalashnikov
(b) S400
(c) Kamov 226 T
(d) Kazan Ansat
45. Which Indian company is part of joint-venture with Russian company to manufacture above said
helicopters?
(a) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
(b) DRDO
(c) Rostech Limited
MOCK CLAT #04
46. Why Coaxial rotors are suitable for India?

(a) They provide good thrust at higher altitudes like Himalayas
(b) They are maintenance free rotors
(c) This technology was first invented by India
(d) Their blades are of material that is only available in India
47. In which city 11th edition of DefExpo 2020 was organized?

(a) Delhi
(b) Bangalore
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Lucknow
48. Which indigenous air to ground missile was unveiled at DefExpo 2020?
(a) Khatarnak
(b) Khagantak
(c) Urja VII
(d) Urja VII
Passage (Q.49-Q.53): This year‘s Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) reveals that a majority of countries
are showing little to no improvement in tackling corruption.
Our analysis also shows corruption is more pervasive in countries where big money can flow freely into
electoral campaigns and where governments listen only to the voices of wealthy .
The index ranks 180 countries and territories by their perceived levels of public sector corruption,
according to experts and business people. It uses a scale of zero to 100, where zero is highly corrupt and
100 is very clean. More than two-thirds of countries score below 50 on this year‘s CPI, with an average
score of just 43. Similar to previous years, the data shows that despite some progress, a majority of
countries are still failing to tackle public sector corruption effectively.
The bottom countries are Somalia, South Sudan and Syria with scores of 9, 12 and 13, respectively.
These countries are closely followed by Yemen (15), Venezuela (16), Sudan (16), Equatorial Guinea (16)
and Afghanistan (16).
49. India‘s ranking in the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI-2019) has slipped from ___ to _____ compared
to the year 2018.
(a) 69,72
(b) 72,80
(c) 78,80
(d) 80,85
50. Which of the following Global Agency has released the corruption perception index, 2019 ?
(a) Greenpeace
(b) Freedom House
(c) Transparency International
(d) Reporters without Borders
51. When was the index first published by the above organization?
(a) 1888
(b) 1995
(c) 2000
(d) 2016
52. Which of the following countries topped the Index?
(a) Denmark
(b) USA
(c) UK
(d) Sweden

MOCK CLAT #04
53. Transparency International has recommended a series of measures to combat rising corruption across
the world. Which of the following is/are not one of them?
(a) Manage conflicts of interest
(b) Control political financing
(c) Support preferential treatment
(d) Reinforce checks and balances
Passage (Q.54-Q.58): Black carbon concentrations near the Gangotri glacier rose 400 times in summer
due to [1] and [2], and triggered glacial melt, says a study by scientists at the Wadia Institute of
Himalayan Geology (WIHG).
The team of scientists from WIHG, led by P.S. Negi, measured variations of black carbon concentration
at Chirbasa, near the Gangotri glacier , located at an altitude of 3,600 metres, during the year 2016. ―The
monthly mean concentration of EBC (equivalent black carbon) was found to be minimum in August and
maximum in the month of May. The observed seasonal mean concentrations of EBC indicated a pristine
glacial source and an absence of EBC sources in the locality,‖ a press statement noted.
The concentration varied from a minimum of 0.01g/cubic metre in winter to 4.62g/cubic metre during
summer.
54. Fill [1] and [2] with a suitable option.

(a) Vehicular pollution and defence equipment testing
(b) Vehicular pollution and stubble burning
(c) Stubble burning and forest fires
(d) Forest fires and Vehicular pollution
55. What is the lifespan of Black Carbon in the atmosphere?

(a) 20 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 2 years
(d) Some days to weeks
56. India is the _______ emitter of black carbon in the world.

(a) Largest
(b) Second largest
(c) Least
(d) Third largest
57. Gangotri Glacier is located in which state of India?

(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Punjab
58. How Black Carbon is originated in the atmosphere?

(a) By incomplete combustion of fossil fuel and biomass
(b) By complete combustion of fossil fuel and biomass
(c) By the use of air conditioning devices
(d) By the acid rain

MOCK CLAT #04
Passage (Q.59-Q.63): Prime Minister NarendraModi participated in the online Summit of Non Aligned
Movement (NAM) Contact Group held on the evening of May 4, 2020 to discuss response to the ongoing
COVID-19 pandemic crisis.
The online NAM Contact Group Summit on the theme of ―[x]‖. was hosted by the current Chairman of
NAM, President of Republic of Azerbaijan[y]. The objective of the Summit was to promote international
solidarity in the fight against the COVID-19 pandemic and to mobilise efforts of States and international
organisations to address the pandemic.
PM Modi‘s participation underlined India‘s longstanding commitment to the principles and values of NAM
as one of its leading founding-member. In his intervention, Prime Minister emphasized the importance of
a coordinated, inclusive and equitable response by the world to this crisis, outlining the steps India had
taken domestically and internationally, while reaffirming India‘s readiness to offer assistance in solidarity
with the Movement, to the extent possible. PM also emphasized the importance of a continued effort by
the world against other viruses, in particular terrorism and fake news.
PM Modi was joined by over 30 other Heads of State and Government and other leaders, including from
member States in Asia, Africa, Latin America and the Caribbean, and Europe.
Overall, NAM Leaders assessed the impact of COVID-19, identified needs and requirements for possible
remedies and urged action-oriented follow-up measures. Following the Summit, leaders adopted a
Declaration underlining the importance of international solidarity in the fight against COVID-19. Leaders
also announced the creation of a ‗Task Force‘ to identify needs and requirements of member States
through the establishment of a common database reflecting their basic medical, social and humanitarian
needs in the fight against COVID-19.
59. What was the theme of the Summit, redacted as [x] in the baove passage?
(a) United against COVID-19
(b) Unified World against COVID-19
(c) War against Corona
(d) Transparency and Unification during Pandemic
60. Who is the current Chairman of NAM redacted as [y] in the above passage.
(a) Josip Broz Tito
(b) Gamal Abdel Nasser
(c) HouariBoumediène
(d) IlhamAliyev
61. In the abovementioned Summit the leaders also commemorated the International day of__________?
(a) Multilateralism and Diplomacy for Peace.
(b) Gender Equality
(c) Global Peace
(d) Commemoration in Memory of the Victims of the Holocaust
62. Which among the following Conferences is the predecessor of NAM?

(a) Bretton Woods Conference
(b) Bandung Conference
(c) Yalta Conference
(d) Maastricht Conference
63. How many members are there in NAM currently?

(a) 120
(b) 122
(c) 125
(d) 130

MOCK CLAT #04
Passage (Q.64-Q.68): For the first time in its history, the United Nations will not have the hustle and
bustle that goes with the convergence of world leaders, ministers, diplomats, civil society members and
journalists for a General Assembly this year.
Rather, heads of states and governments have been asked to send pre-recorded video statements that
will be played out as the UN General Assembly (UNGA) session goes ―virtual", thanks to covid-19
pandemic sweeping the globe.
According to the programme schedule, UNGA will begin on 15 September. The General Assembly
meeting to commemorate the [x]th anniversary of the UN will take place on 21 September with a
declaration formally adopted at the end of it. The General Debate– which would under normal
circumstances have seen leaders and ministers from 193 UN member states address a global audience
from behind the iconic lectern in the General Assembly hall -- will start on 22 September.
Besides this, a bio-diversity summit is scheduled for 30 September, a meeting of the GA on the 25th
anniversary of the Fourth World Conference on Women is on 1 October while another to promote the
International Day for the Total Elimination of Nuclear Weapons is on 2 October. World leaders have been
requested to submit their recorded messages for these events as well.
A well documented anecdote is how former prime minister Rajiv Gandhi met former Turkish leader
TurgutOzal in an impromptu setting at the UN in 1985 that led to an exchange of visits and an unfreezing
of ties between India and Turkey fraught over New Delhi‘s support to the Greek Cypriots and Ankara‘s
support to Pakistan over Kashmir.
64. Where was the UN General Assembly supposed to take place?

(a) New York
(b) Hague
(c) Switzerland
(d) Geneva
65. Who will be the chairman of this session of UNGA?

(a) Tijjani Muhammad-Bande
(b) MiroslavLajčák
(c) VolkanBozkır
(d) María Fernanda Espinosa
66. Which UNGA session is this redacted as [x] in the above passage?- 75
(a) 74
(b) 75
(c) 78
(d) 79
67. Who is UN‘s current Secretary General?

(a) AntónioGuterres
(b) Ban Ki-moon
(c) Kofi Annan
(d) AlbaqGhali
68. Who will be India‘s next permanent representative to the UN, New York?
(a) Hardeep Singh Puri
(b) T. S. Tirumurti
(c) Indra Mani Pandey
(d) SamarendranathSen

MOCK CLAT #04
Direction (Q.69-Q.107): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.69-Q.73): Mistake may operate upon a contract in two ways. It may, firstly, defeat the
consent altogether that the parties are supposed to have given, that is to say, the consent is unreal.
Secondly, the mistake may mislead the parties as to the purpose which they contemplated.
Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the
agreement, the agreement is void. However an erroneous opinion as to the value of the things which
forms the subject –matter of the agreement, is not deemed a mistake as to a matter of fact. An
agreement upon the same thing in the same sense is known as true consent or consensus ad idem, and
it is the root of every contract. Two or more person are said to consent when they agree upon the same
thing in the same sense.
A contract is said to be void because of mistake when:
 Both the parties to an agreement are mistaken,
 Their mistake is as to a matter of fact, and
 The fact about which they are mistaken is essential to the agreement.
A contract is not void because it was caused by a mistake as to any law in force in India; but a mistake as
to a law not in force in India has the same effect as a mistake of fact.
Mistake as to identity occurs when one of the parties represents himself to be some person other than he
really is. There can be a mistake of identity only when a person bearing a particular identity exists within
the knowledge of the plaintiff, and the plaintiff intends to deal with him only. If the name assumed by the
accused is fictitious there will be no mistake of identity.
69. A, being entitled to an estate for the life of B, agrees to sell it to C. B was dead at the time of the
agreement, but both parties were ignorant of the fact. Decide the validity of the contract?
(a) The agreement is not void since B was alive when the contract was formed.
(b) The agreement is not void since the essential condition of the agreement was an estate and not the
presence of B.
(c) The agreement is valid and enforceable.
(d) The agreement is void since both the parties were ignorant of the death of B, which was an essential
fact of the contract.
70. A person called Hillary, brother of Ron, represented himself as Ron, and thereby induced a Government‘s
agent to contract with him. The government agent intended to contract only with Ron and not with Hillary
and Ron knew this. The government‘s offer was meant for Ron and Hillary posing as Ron accepted it.
Decide whether the consent of government‘s agent is valid or not?
(a) The consent is valid since the government agent could have easily figure out that it was Hillary and
not Ron.
(b) The consent given by the government‘s agent is not valid since he was deceived by the brothers
(c) This is a valid contract since the party to a contract is not an essential fact.
(d) The contract is not void since the brother belongs to same family and contracting with either of the
brothers does not affect the conditions of the contract.
71. Jethalal had taken over the business of one Brocklehurst. Heeralal used to deal with Brocklehurst and
not knowing of the change sent him an order for certain goods. The order was received by Jethalal who
sent the goods. Heeralal came to know of the change only when he received an invoice and by that time
he had already consumed the goods. Heeralal had a set-off against Brocklehurst and, therefore refused
to pay the price. Jethalal sued him:
(a) Heeralal is liable to pay since he consumed the goods and hence bound to pay.
(b) Heeralal is not liable to pay since he never contracted with Jethalal.
(c) Heeralal is not liable since his consent is not valid because he never consented to a contract with
Jethalal.
(d) Heeralal is liable to pay since the party to the contract is not an essential condition.

MOCK CLAT #04
72. A man called North, entered the Jeevan‘s shop and selected some pearls and some rings worth Rs.
3000. He produced a cheque book and wrote out a cheque for the amount. In signing it he said: ‗You see
who I am, I am Sir George Bullough‘ and finding on the reference to a dictionary that Sir George Bullough
lived at the address mentioned, Jeevan let him have a ring. But before the fraud was discovered he
pledged the ring to Shyam, who advanced money bona fide, and without notice. Jeevan sued Shyam for
the ring or its value. Decide whether Shyam is liable or not?
(a) Jeevan will neither get the ring nor its price since he sold it with the greedy intention to make
excessive profit.
(b) North is liable to pay the price of the ring or return it to Jeevan since it was he who committed the
fraud.
(c) Since North himself does not have good title over the ring he cannot sell it to Shyam and hence
Shyam is liable.
(d) Shyam is not liable to return the ring or pay its equivalent price to Jeevan since was innocent on his
part while purchasing it.
73. Thomas received orders in writing from a fraudulent man, called Blenkarn. The order paper had a printed
heading: ‗Blenkarn & Co.‖. There was a well know and respectable firm, named ‗Blenkiron & Co.‖ in the
same street. Thomas believing that the orders had come from this firm, sent a large quantity of
handkerchiefs. Blenkarn received the goods and disposed them off to John, who acted in good faith and
purchased them. Decide the right of Blenkarn over the goods:
(a) Blenkarn has title over the goods even though Thomas never intended to deal with him.
(b) Blenkarn has no title over the goods since Thomas never intended to deal with him and hence there
was no contract between them.
(c) Blenkarn has title over the goods since he had paid for them.
(d) There is contract between the parties since the essential condition of contract, i.e. delivery and
payment of good is met.
Passage (Q.74-Q.79): The relevant sections of the IPC are Section 269 covering negligent act likely to
spread infection of disease dangerous to life, Section 270 covering malignant act likely to spread
infection of disease dangerous to life, Section 271 covering disobedience of quarantine.
The penalties for the above offences are simple or rigorous imprisonment extendable up to 6 months or
fine or both; simple or rigorous imprisonment extendable up to 2 years or fine or both; and simple or
rigorous imprisonment extendable up to 6 months or fine or both, respectively.
While the offences under Section 269 and 270 are cognisable and bailable, offence under Section 271 is
non-cognisable and non-bailable. This would mean that unlike in bailable offences where the accused
has a right to bail, they would be at the discretion of the court in seeking a bail. Relating these general
provisions to the core theme of the article, it provides a resounding affirmation that the law does not in
any manner authorise the police to use corporal force.
Disaster Management Act, 2005
The first relevant provision of the act is Section 51. The provision has twin aspects to it. Firstly, it is
attracted by the persons who leave their homes to pursue non-essential work. In the words of Section 51,
the conditions and punishment prescribed are –
Condition: Whoever, without reasonable cause (a) obstructs any officer or employer (b) refuses to comply
with any direction. Punishment: Imprisonment of a term upto 1 year or fine (not prescribed under the
provision) or both. Secondly, the latter part of Section 51, in present conditions, is attracted by persons
who are tested positive for the Coronavirus but run away from quarantine.
In the words of Section 51, the conditions and punishment prescribed are –
Condition: Whoever, without reasonable cause (a) obstructs any officer or employer (b) refuses to comply
with any direction causing loss of lives or imminent danger thereof. Punishment: Imprisonment of a term
upto 2 years.

MOCK CLAT #04
74. Kunjbihari returned from Dubai in February, 2020 and was diagnosed with COVID-19 after he showed
symptoms of the disease. He was admitted to the hospital and recovered within 15 days after which he
was sent back home and was required to self-quarantine for the next 14 days. Kunjbihari however, was
craving street food and ventured out without knowing that the disease had recurred. He infected around
250 people with the disease. Decide
(a) Kunjbihari is liable under Section 269 and 271 of the Indian Penal Code
(b) Kunjbihari is liable under Section 270 and 271 of the Indian Penal Code
(c) Kunjbihari is not liable for any offence as he had recovered from the disease
75. Please refer to the facts mentioned above. Kunjbihari upon his return from Dubai bribed the police
personnel and evaded the mandatory screening for COVID-19 for he suspected a positive report. He
roamed around the entire city of Delhi spreading the infection to about 200 people.
(a) Kunjbihari is liable under Section 269 of the Indian Penal Code
(b) Kunjbihari is liable under Section 270 of the Indian Penal Code
(c) Kunjbihari is not liable for any offence as he would recover from the disease
76. Apurv returned from the United States. On his way out of the airport, he tried to escape screening but
was caught. When he was screened, he was found positive. However, he broke his quarantine and ran
away. He was booked by the police for offending provisions of the Indian Penal code. In addition, he was
also booked for breaking self-quarantine. Apurv‘s lawyers approached the court seeking bail and
asserted that it was their right to get bail.
(a) Apurv can seek bail as a right for it was his right to get bail under Section 269/270 of IPC
(b) Apurv cannot seek bail as a right for he is a heinous public offender who has caused significant
problems
(c) Apurv can seek bail as a right for he needs medical care at this point in time
(d) Apurv cannot seek bail as a right for he doesn‘t have a right under Section 271 of IPC
77. In the wake of the COVID19 outbreak, there has been a lockdown imposed all over the country. There
have been instances of police personnel using innovative methods to enforce such lockdowns. While
some police personnel were spotted getting citizens to do push up, some others have been spotted
getting citizens to clean roads. Decide
(a) The police personnel are justified to impose such punishments for they do not involve the use of
corporal force.
(b) The police personnel are not justified to impose such punishments for they involve the use of corporal
force
(c) The police personnel are justified to impose such punishments for they are required in the interest of
the nation
78. Please refer to the fact scenario in 6.4. The police personnel were spotted hitting a person with a lathi
after an argument happened when the person refused to head back home during the lock down.
(a) The police personnel are justified to impose such punishments for they do not involve the use of
corporal force.
(b) The police personnel are not justified to impose such punishments for they involve the use of corporal
force
(c) The police personnel are justified to impose such punishments for they are required in the interest of
the nation

MOCK CLAT #04
79. Ajinkya wanted to go out of his home during the COVID-19 lock down to see the fresh Bangalore Cherry
Blossoms everyone was talking about. It happens to be that this was a once in a 12 year opportunity and
missing this chance would mean waiting for another 12 years. He put on his suit, mask and gloves and
set out to leave. The police personnel outside Cubbon Park stopped Ajinkya. Ajinkya refused to comply.
Decide
(a) Ajinkya violated Section 51 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 for this cause is unreasonable
(b) Ajinkya did not violate Section 51 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 for the cause is reasonable
(c) Ajinkya needs to understand the gravity of the situation
(d) Ajinkya had taken all necessary precautions. Cause cannot be stated to be unreasonable in that case
Passage (Q.80-Q.85): The term ‗Force Majeure‘ appeared in the common law world in the 1900s and
was borrowed from the Napoleonic Code (see Lebeaupin v Crispin [1920] 2KB 714), although its origins
can be traced back to Roman law.
Under Indian law, one of the first decisions to deal with the concept of force majeure was the Madras
High Court decision in Edmund Bendit And Anr. vs Edgar Raphael Prudhomme. In this case, the Court
cited with approval the passage from Matsoukis v. Priestman and Co, wherein the definition given by an
eminent Belgian lawyer of force majeure as meaning "causes you cannot prevent and for which you are
not responsible", was adopted. The test for seeking to rely on a force majeure clause is that the event
and the non-performance were due to circumstances beyond a party's control. Thus, force majeure will
not include economic problems like insufficient funds. Another condition that needs to be fulfilled is that
there were no reasonable steps that could have been taken to avoid or mitigate the event or its
consequences. The party seeking to rely on the clause may also need to show it was not aware, at the
time of entering the contract, that the circumstances giving rise to the event of force majeure was likely to
occur.
If the clause refers only to performance of obligations being prevented by the relevant event, then a
party may not be able to rely on the clause if its performance has been made more difficult or delayed,
but not completely prevented (in other words, it can still perform, but it is more difficult to do so and/or it
cannot perform as expected). The fact that it is more expensive to perform will also not normally entitle
reliance on the force majeure clause (so a rise in underlying costs or expense will not normally be treated
as a force majeure event). The fact that it is more inconvenient and/or more difficult to perform will also
not normally entitle reliance on the clause. If the difficulty was due to circumstances outside a party's
control and was so great that no reasonable person in similar circumstances would be likely to overcome
it, then that might be an exception.
80. JBM Environment Ltd. has been asked to construct a solid waste management plant in New Delhi for
power generation in the year 2019. As they seek to move forward with the procurement of raw material
for construction of the plant, the NGT bans all construction activity in the area due to increasing pollution.
JBM stops all work. Decide
(a) JBM can seek the benefit of a force majeure clause for construction was stopped for circumstances
beyond their control i.e. pollution in Delih NCR
(b) JBM cannot seek the benefit of a force majeure clause for they could still have procured all raw
material
(c) JBM can seek the benefit of a force majeure clause for construction was stopped for circumstances
beyond their control i.e. NGT order.
81. Please refer to facts abovementioned. The construction ban was lifted after 2 months and JBM sought
an extension citing force majeure. They sought for 4 months extension i.e. 2 months for procurement of
raw material and 2 months for construction. However, the same was refused to them by the contracting
party. Decide
(a) JBM is entitled to 4 months of extension for force majeure reasons
(b) JBM is entitled to two months of extension for they could have taken steps to mitigate the delay.
(c) JBM is entitled to no extension for they could have still carried out with the construction.
(d) JBM should drag the party to court.

MOCK CLAT #04
82. SuperNova is an engineering company and were constructing a dam on Teesta river when a ban was
placed on the dam construction due to tribal protest. During the construction ban, there was a mass
exodus of labourers for they had no livelihood left in the area. After the construction ban was lifted, it took
around 1 month for the labourers to return to the area. Since there were only a limited number of
labourers in the city, engaging their service became quite expensive. SuperNova preferred to wait it out
for the labourers to return. When they couldn‘t meet the deadline, they cited force majeure and sought an
extension of 1 month for the time lost.
(a) SupreNOVA should be given the extension as the delay was caused due to circumstances beyond
their control
(b) SUPERNOVA should not be given extension as the construction ban had now been lifted
(c) SUPERNOVA should be given the extension as cost overruns were a major concern
(d) SUPERNOVA should not be given extension for mere difficulty to perform is not force majeure
83. Please refer to the facts above. During the construction ban, there was mass exodus of labourers. The
mass exodus of labourers meant that there were no labourers left in area and thus no construction work
could be carried out whatsoever for the next 1 month till the labourers came back. SUPERNOVA upon
not being able to fulfill the deadline asked for extension of 1 month citing force majeure.
(a) SUPERNOVA should be given the extension as the delay was caused due to circumstances beyond
their control
(b) SUPERNOVA should not be given extension as the construction ban had now been lifted
(c) SUPERNOVA should be given the extension as cost overruns were a major concern
(d) SUPERNOVA should not be given extension for mere difficulty to perform is not force majeure
84. BB is an aircraft manufacturing company. They often depend on cheaper services of mechanical
engineers from third world countries for their job. However, in 2020 due to the suspension of H1B1 Visas,
a significant shortage was seen in the influx of such engineers. The cost due to the shortage had driven
upto 10 times. The manufacturing work being engineer heavy was severely hit due to such high prices
and the Aircrafts Manufacturing Association of New Jersey (of which BB was a member) collectively
decided to ban manufacturing for 2 months feraing cost significant overruns. BB complied too. When they
couldn‘t meet the deadline, they cited force majeure and sought an extension of 2 months for the time
lost.
(a) BB should not be given extension for mere difficulty to perform is not force majeure
(b) BB should be given an extension for everyone else situated in the same position as them stopped
construction.
(c) BB should not be given extension as the construction ban had now been lifted
(d) BB should be given the extension as cost overruns were a major concern
85. Please refer to the facts above. Cost of engineers due to the shortage had driven upto 10 times. Multiple
sectors were severely hit due to such high prices. The Local Dam Builders Association of New Jersey
passed a resolution collectively decided to ban all manufacturing for 2 more months fearing cost
significant overruns. BB found this as an opportunity to halt construction and save money. When they
couldn‘t meet the deadline, they cited force majeure and sought an extension of 2 months for the time
lost.
(a) BB should not be given extension for mere difficulty to perform is not force majeure
(b) BB should be given an extension for everyone else situated in the same position as them stopped
construction.
(c) BB should not be given extension as the construction ban had now been lifted
(d) BB should not be given extension as they are not situated similarly as the Local Dam Builders
Association of New Jersey.

MOCK CLAT #04
Passage (Q.86-Q.90): Right to Privacy has always been a contentious issue. The COVID-19
pandemic has brought new considerations to the table. In the coordinated efforts of authorities across
the globe to tackle this pandemic we see a sacrifice of an individual‘s right to priva cy.
Instances of a heightened tracking of an individual‘s location, mass surveillance, applications to keep
track of your personal movement, use of travel history have raised pertinent privacy implications.
Various states have tapped phone records, CCTV footages, phone GPS and published detailed
timelines and quarantine lists of the patients and officials.
A patient‘s right to privacy with regard to their personal details was recognized in the case of Mr. X v.
Hospital Z. The court opined that the patient had the right to confidentiality and privacy as regards their
personal details; however, this right was not absolute. Further, the Apex Court has both in Puttaswamy I
and Puttaswamy II crystallized the importance of informational privacy i.e. data protection.
The Court held that any infringement of a right to privacy by the government must be reasonable a nd
proportionate, and must satisfy the following (i) the restriction must be effected through a law which
pursues a legitimate state aim, (ii) has a reasonable nexus between the objects and means to achieve
them, and (iii) is the least intrusive means to achieve the state aim.
Further, the Personal Data Protection Bill provides that the consent of the person whose personal
data is collected (Data Principal) is necessarily to be obtained by any person or the government (Data
Fiduciary). The personal data collected must be used only for a specific, clear and lawful purpose for
which the consent has been obtained. The personal data must also be used in a fair and reasonable
manner. The PDP Bill also provides that under emergent circumstances the Data Fiducia ry is exempt
from taking the consent of the Data Principal, provided that the collection and processing of personal
data is authorized under law. Though just a Bill, this can be a guiding factor in deciding the use of a
person‘s information. The state at no point in time can act disproportionately even in a pandemic.
86. Mr. Bakliwala is a doctor of immense repute. He is known for his experience and service in the field of
sexually transmitted diseases such as HIV. Karan approaches Mr. Bakliwala and gets tested for HIV and
the result turns out to be positive. Mr. Bakliwala informs Karan that with the advancements in medical
science the situation can be sustained if not completely cured. A few days later a group of researchers
come to work under Dr. Bakliwala and he shares the instances of his patients with the team, which also
includes Karan. In the end result published, Karan‘s name is included in the report. Decide:
(a) Karan‘s right to privacy has been violated by Mr. Bakliwala.
(b) Karan‘s right to privacy has not been violated by Mr. Bakliwala as the same was for research
purposes and shall in turn help the majority of public at large and thus was justified.
(c) Karan‘s right to privacy in such a situation can be curtailed as HIV is a disease which can have a
bearing on the society at large and thus it was important to release the same.
(d) Karan‘s right to privacy has been violated as the information of such a nature is a part of informational
privacy.
87. Findcaller is a mobile based application which helps individuals to intercept who is calling them. It
requires individuals to register their details and personal information and processes the same to intercept
calls. On 4th May, 2020 Findcaller accidentally revealed the details of 4 lakh customers on various
websites. A probe into this event later revealed that Findcaller was selling such data to companies who
created their databases from such information. Assuming that the PDP Bill is now an Act, decide whether
there was a breach of privacy.
(a) No, there is no breach of privacy as this right is only enforceable against the state.
(b) No, as the selling of data was for commercial purposes and the same is justified on business
grounds.
(c) Yes, as there was a public release of such information. However, only those consumers whose
information has been revealed on websites can contest a breach.
(d) Yes, there has been a breach of privacy on part of Findcaller.

MOCK CLAT #04
88. The Karnataka State Government has been ramping up its activities to tackle the COVID-19 pandemic.
Several steps have been taken to this effect and one of these steps include preparing a list of people who
have been asked to self-quarantine and uploading the same on the website of the government. This had
been duly informed to the individuals as a precondition of returning to the state from abroad or
elsewhere. As soon as the quarantine period for an individual will end his or her name would be removed
from the list. But as a result of this the individuals whose name was included in the list were ostracized.
Will such a situation amount to violation of right to privacy?
(a) No, such a situation shall not be a violation of the right to privacy as it is in the larger public interest.
(b) No, such a situation will not be a violation of the right to privacy as the restriction has been effected
through a legitimate law and is in consonance with the goal it seeks to achieve.
(c) Yes, it is a breach of privacy as it was not effected through any legislation passed by the government,
rather it was an arbitrary act of the authorities.
(d) Yes, it is a breach of the right as state cannot restrict the right in such an arbitrary manner.
89. Ram is a student who duly fills out the CLET (Common Law Entrance Test Form). He fills in information
of sensitive nature such as his contact details, address, caste etc. into the form and successfully registers
for the same. This is the only form he has filled for colleges. After a few days Ram starts getting
messages from other private universities about their law program and other coaching institutes about
their different courses. He is quite baffled as he never shared this information with anyone on any
platform. He approaches the High Court contending the violation of Right to Privacy and contends that in
all probability his data has been compromised by CLET. Decide:
(a) His contention is correct as all factors reasonably indicate that the information has been accessed via
the CLET database.
(b) His contention is correct as his personal data was for a specific purpose and such use of this data
by other universities and coaching‘s is not in consonance with law.
(c) His contention is wrong as CLET can give access to other universities in the legal domain to take
information and develop their database. This however should have been duly communicated to Ram.
(d) His contention is correct because the principles of proportionality have been violated by the CLET.
90. Mr. Bakliwala also finds out that Karan is getting married in a few days. He also knows that Karan has not
informed anyone about his HIV status and neither does he intend to inform anyone. Mr. Bakliwala goes
on to find Karan‘s fiancée and reveals this information to her. Karan says that this is a violation of his right
to privacy. Mr. Bakilwala argued that this was in furtherance of the fiancée‘s right to healthy life under
Artcile 21. Decide:
(a) This is not a violation of right to privacy as this would have had severe impacts on the life of the wife
hence that right i.e. right to health shall outweigh Karan‘s right to privacy.
(b) This is a violation of right to privacy as personal autonomy must be given to Karan.
(c) This is a violation of right to privacy as this information can have immense impact on Karan‘s life and
thus Karan should have the right over such information.
(d) This is not a violation as right to a healthy life will outweigh the right to privacy of Karan.
Passage (Q.91-Q.96): Indian hospitals have been held liable for their services- rather lack of services-
individually or vicariously. They can be sued for negligence either in Criminal Courts, Civil Courts or
Consumer Forums. The Supreme Court has held that every doctor ―has a duty to act with a reasonable
degree of care and skill‖ in the case of State of Haryana v. Smt. Santra.
The liability of a medical practitioner does not merely arise when the patient has suffered an injury; it
arises when the injury is a direct consequence of the conduct of the doctor when he failed to exercise
reasonable care. In other words, a doctor is not liable for every injury suffered by the patient. First,
existence of a duty of care by the doctor towards the patient has to be established and then the patient
must prove breach of such a duty. In case there was no breach or the injury was not a direct
consequence of the breach, the doctor will not be liable. It was held in Calcutta Medical Research
Institute v. Bimalesh Chatterjee that the onus of proving negligence and the resultant deficiency in
service was clearly on the complainant.
The liability of a hospital in cases of medical negligence could be direct or vicarious. Direct liability in this
sense would mean a deficiency in the services provided by the hospital thus making it unsafe and not

MOCK CLAT #04
suitable for treatment. Vicarious liability, on the other hand, would refer to the liability of the hospital as an
employer for the negligent acts of its employees.
The employer is responsible not only for his acts and omissions but also for those of his employees, as
long as such acts occur within the course and scope of employment. This liability is based upon the
maxims “respondent superior” which means ―let the master answer‖ and “qui facit per alium facit per
se” which means ―He who acts through another does the act himself.‖
An exception to the above principle is seen in the ―borrowed servant doctrine‖ according to which the
employer shall not be liable for acts of an employee when that employee is working under the direct
supervision of another employer.
91. Professor and Nairobi conceived a baby through IVF. In her 26 th week of pregnancy, Nairobi developed
gestational diabetes. She was prescribed with metformin. After 39 weeks, Nairobi went into tough labour
and gave a birth to baby boy. The baby was born with permanent physical disability and had to be
resuscitated. It was later found that the disability is a side effect of metformin (a drug that should not be
consumed by pregnant women). Professor and Nairobi decided to sue the doctor. Decide.
(a) The doctor will be held liable as this is a clear case of negligence. It was the duty of the doctor to
inform about the side effects of the drug.
(b) The breach of duty of care by doctor while prescribing a wrong medicine makes him accountable for
medical negligence.
(c) The hospital, along with doctor will be liable for medical negligence.
(d) The couple will not be able to proceed as it was their duty to consult an endocrinologist for diabetes
as it cannot be expected for a gynaecologist to prescribe correct medicine for diabetes.
92. Mr. Batra after getting his heart surgery done from KEM Hospital, alleged that he was treated badly by
the staff of the hospital during his stay at the hospital. He also alleged that Dr. Mahesh did not possess
the required skills for conducting a surgery and when the first procedure failed, to rectify his mistake he
performed a corrective surgery. Hospital and Dr. Mahesh denied all the allegations against them. As per
the given passage, with whom does the onus of proof lies?
(a) The onus of proof lies with defendant. Therefore, in the present case the doctor and the hospital
management should prove their innocence.
(b) The onus of proof lies with the accused. Therefore, in the present case Mr Batra should prove
negligence.
(c) The onus of proof lies with the plaintiff. Therefore it‘s the duty of Mr. Batra to provide evidence.
(d) The onus of proof lies with the deponent. Therefore it will be the duty of the Hospital and Dr. Mahesh
to provide evidence.
93. When Mrs. Menon went for her spinal cord surgery, Dr. Knight failed to convey her the risk involved in the
procedure nor did he discuss the outcomes of failure of the surgery. After the surgery, Mrs Menon was
left disabled with her lower part of the body. Mrs. Menon wishes to take your advise. Kindly advise her.
(a) Mrs. Menon will succeed against Dr. Knight as he lacked possession of required set of skills for a
surgeon.
(b) Mrs. Menon will not succeed as she never asked the doctor about the possible ill outcomes of the
surgery.
(c) Mrs. Menon will succeed as Dr. Knight owed a duty of care towards his patients to keep them well
informed and he breached his duty of care resulting in negligence.
(d) Mrs. Menon will not succeed as every surgery has a possibility of failed outcome and this should not
be regarded as a breach of duty at the hands of the doctor.

MOCK CLAT #04
94. Dr Umang and Dr Samara are the resident doctors at DAIIMS, Bangalore. Both of them are appointed
with the neo natal care unit in the hospital and are assigned the duty to monitor the babies in the unit who
are under critical care. Once on duty, Umang and Samara indulged in playing ludo and forgot to switch
on the oxygen supply, resulting in death of four children. A case was brought against the hospital decide.
(a) Hospital will not be held liable as the case doesn‘t qualify under vicarious liability.
(b) The hospital will be vicariously held liable as the medical negligence took place during the course of
employment of two doctors.
(c) Dr Umang and Dr Samara will be held liable and not the hospital.
(d) The hospital will be held liable and compensation should be paid by both the hospital as well as the
two doctors.
95. Which among the following cases are not justiciable?

i. Mistake done by anesthesiologists resulting in permanent brain damage or death.
ii. A botched procedure involving a large ethanol injection causing a child‘s face and nose to deteriorate,
requiring skin from his forehead and ear to repair it.
iii. Discharging Covid 19 suspect without conducting proper tests at the hospital quarantine centre.
iv. Person injuring himself after falling in the hospital premise due to wet floor.
v. Patient forgetting that he has already taken his medicine, consumes another dose resulting in high
blood pressure due to over dose of medicine.
vi. An obstetrician in Mumbai fails to perform a C-section in a timely manner, resulting in serious injuries
to the baby.
(a) Only I, II and III
(b) Except V, VI, and IV
(c) Except IV and V
(d) Only I, II, IV and V
96. Somu is suffering from kidney failure and requires dialysis every week. When he went to get his dialysis
done at AIIMS hospital, he caught corona virus infection and was later tested positive for Covid 19. He
decided to sue AIIIMS hospital for infecting him with Covid 19. Decide.
(a) Somu will succeed as AIIMS hospital breached its duty of care by failing to curtail the infection.
(b) Somu will succeed as AIIMS hospital failed to have separate quarantine centre for Covid 19 patience.
(c) Somu will not succeed as hospitals are breeding grounds of infections and one cannot do much about
it.
(d) Somu will not succeed as him catching corona infection cannot be regarded as breach of duty on the
part of the hospital.
Passage (Q.97-Q.102): To use insanity as a legal excuse, the defendant has to show that he/she lacked
the capacity to understand that the act was wrong, or the capacity to understand the nature of the act.
The logic of the insanity as a defence goes back to the idea of mensrea and culpability. The foundation of
this law was first laid in the M'Naughton case by the House of Lords in 1843. The basis of the
M'Naughtoncase is the inability to distinguish right from wrong. The basic idea is that some people, under
the duress of a mental disorder, cannot control their actions despite understanding that the action is
wrong.
Section 84: Act of a person of unsound mind.—Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at
the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or
that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law.
So it falls upon the accused to prove his insanity at the time of offence. It needs to be proved by the
accused that because of the accused's unsoundness of mind, he was incapable of knowing the nature of
the act or that the act was contrary to provisions of law, or was wrong.
Infancy:
Infancy is a legal incapacity to be held responsible for a crime due to the age of the perpetrator. There is
a legal incapacity for the crime under seven years of age. DoliIncapaxis a presumption of law which
provides that child has no discretion to distinguish right from wrong, thus criminal intention does not arise.
Section 82: Act of a child under seven years of age.—Nothing is an offence which is done by a child
under seven years of age.

MOCK CLAT #04
Section 83: Act of a child above seven and under twelve of immature understanding.—Nothing is an
offence which is done by a child above seven years of age and under twelve, who has not attained
sufficient maturity of understanding to judge of the nature and consequences of his conduct on that
occasion.
The essential ingredients of Sections 82 and 83 are that children under seven years of age is
doliincapax, i.e. he is incapable of committing a crime and cannot be guilty of any offence.
97. On her 7th birthday, Riddhima had costume party in which dress like a princess while the others came for
her class dressed as different Disney characters. One of the kids who was dressed like a pirate got into
an argument with a kid dress like the prince. In a pretend sword fight the pirate impaled the shoulder of
the prince with his costume‘s sword which had a pointy end. Would the child be convicted?
(a) Yes, as they were above the age of 7 years.
(b) No, as they were under the age of 12 and did not understand the nature of their activity.
(c) Can‘t say, as Riddhima was 7 but the kids could have been older or younger at the party.
(d) No, as they were merely playing and did not intend to cause any harm to each other, they also
wouldn‘t have known the risk of a costume.
98. A person Sarthak was prone to epileptic fits. During one of these situations he managed to knock over a
vase on the head of a passerby from his balcony. Being grievously injured, the spouse of this passerby
filed suit for bodily harm injury again Sarthak. Decide.
(a) The suit will not sustain as the spouse cannot file a complaint on behalf of the injured.
(b) The suit will not sustain as it was an accident.
(c) The suit will not sustain as he was not sane in that moment and can plead insanity.
(d) The suit will not sustain as the passerby should have been more cautious before walking underneath
someone‘s balcony.
99. A Six-year-old boy, Rohan after watching a series of criminal drama on television became extremely
intrigued with the concept of crime. One day when he was really upset after an argument with his mother
he decided to kill her in her sleep completely aware of the consequence. Can Rohan be convicted for
Murder?
(a) Yes, as he had complete understanding and maturity of the consequences.
(b) No, as he was under less than 7 years of age.
(c) Yes, as he acted out of provocation and anger and plotted it with intention.
(d) No, as a minor cannot be blamed for any offence, it falls under doli incapax.
100. After finding out that his wife was having an affair with their neighbor Mr. Sharma went into depression.
One day after reconsidering the situation in a fit of rage, decided to physically harm either one of them. In
his attempt for vengeance, he ended up causing the death of his neighbor. He later claimed before the
court that he had lost his sanity and that hour and hence should not be found guilty. Decide.
(a) Yes, as he was not thinking straight and had lost his sanity to make prudent decisions.
(b) No, as anger is not a ground of claiming insanity. It has to be a medically proven one.
(c) No, as he had already plotted revenge before got a fit of rage.
(d) Yes, as he have plotted something in his sanity, but he only acted on it in moments of insanity.
101. A child of 14 years of age found a lost ring in a park and decided to keep it as he found it really pretty.
Thinking that it belongs to nobody else he decided to sell the same and keep the money for himself. Has
a child committed an offense?
(a) Yes, as he knew the consequence of his action.
(b) Yes, as he was above the age of 14 years and hence can be held liable for any an offence regardless
of his maturity.
(c) Yes, as he may not have had any motive when he picked the ring, but he later sold it for wrongful
gain.
(d) Yes, as he should have handed it to any adult or the police as he is old enough to know is duties and
responsibilities.

MOCK CLAT #04
102. A school took their students on a field trip to a museum. Among the student of class 9th was Tina, who
was a kleptomaniac. Unable to contain herself she managed to swipe what are the pieces of jewelry from
under the display. She was called later by the authorities and charged for theft. Should she be convicted?
(a) Yes, as was older than the age of 12 years clearly.
(b) No, as he was a kleptomaniac and can use the defense of insanity to get an acquittal.
(c) Yes, as even though she was older than 7 years of age, she did not have the maturity or
understanding of an adult.
(d) Can‘t say as the facts do not mention her age or her mental status.
Passage (Q.103-Q.107): Religion is a matter of belief or faith. The constitution of India recognizes the
fact, how important religion is in the life of people of India and hence, provides for the right to freedom of
religion under Articles 25 to Article 28. The Constitution of India envisages a secular model and provides
that every person has the right and freedom to choose and practice his or her religion. In a number of
cases, the Apex Court has held that secularism is the basic structure of the Constitution, the most
important being the Kesavananda Bharati case.
Secularism means developing, understanding and respect for different religions. It is believed that the
word ‗Secularism‘ has its origin in late medieval Europe. In 1948, during the constituent assembly debate,
a demand was made by the KT Shah to include the word ‗Secular‘ in the Preamble to the Constitution.
The members of the assembly though agreed to the secular nature of the constitution but it was not
incorporated in the Preamble. Later, in 1976 the Indira Gandhi government enacted the 42nd
Amendment Act and the word ‗Secular‘ was added to the Preamble. The 42nd Amendment Act also
known as the ‗Mini Constitution‘, is the most comprehensive amendment to the Constitution.
Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees freedom of religion to all persons in India. It provides that all
persons in India, subject to public order, morality, health, and other provisions:
 Are equally entitled to freedom of conscience, and
 Have the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion.
It further provides that this article shall not affect any existing law and shall not prevent the state from
making any law relating to:
 Regulation or restriction of any economic, financial, political, or any secular activity associated with
religious practice.
 Providing social welfare and reform.
 Opening of Hindu religious institutions of public character for all the classes and sections of the
Hindus.
103. India has been land of various customs and usages. One of them includes the marriage of women with a
tree on account of them being Mangliks. Mangliks is an astrological concept wherein any woman having
this in their chart would lead to an early death of their husband. Therefore, the curse is broken down by
undertaking the aforementioned ceremony. This tree marriage ceremony is still practiced by few people
in northern India. The Rajasthan government decides to pass a law banning this ceremony. Decide.
(a) The law poses a reasonable restriction as such superstitions should not sustain.
(b) The law is reasonable as it affects a very smaller section of the society.
(c) The law is unreasonable as it does not instigate anything to fall under the purview of being against
public interests.
(d) The law is not reasonable as it impacts the right of women to marry.
104. St. Joseph International School is administered by a Christian family. To thank the Almighty, the school
used to have certain lines from Bible recited everyday at the school assembly. Three students refused to
be a part of the process and therefore expelled. The students filed a petition that this violates their right to
religion as they belong to a religion sect which does not allow them to take part in thanking god through
different means. Decide.
(e) The petition will succeed as their right of religion was getting affected.
(f) The petition will not succeed as it was not a matter of religion but just a way of expressing gratitude.
(g) The petition will not succeed as the religion of the students puts forth unreasonable circumstances.
(h) Both (b) and (c)

MOCK CLAT #04
105. The Government of Himachal Pradesh passes a law which makes the religious conversions or attempt of
conversions on account of force or allurement as a penal offence. Some Hindu leaders challenge the law
claiming it to be in violation if Article 25 on the ground that the term propagate in the aforementioned
article gives them the right to convert people into their belief system and faith. Decide
(i) The law is constitutional as the right to convert cannot be part of right to religion.
(j) The law is not constitutional as it violates the right of the leaders to propagate the religion.
(k) The law is constitutional as it talks about conversion on account of fraud and allurement.
(l) The law is constitutional as reasonable restrictions can be imposed based on the requirements of the
situation.
106. A religious sect has a practice of offering prayers five times in a day. While offering prayers their temple
used loudspeakers which was creating disturbance for the residents of the nearby area. A lot of residents
started complaining especially for the early and late hours. One such resident named Revathi filed a
complaint against the priest to the concerned administrative authorities. The priest justified by taking the
argument of freedom of religious practice. Meanwhile, the state passes a law restricting the use of
loudspeakers during prayer offerings in early and late hours. The priest moves to the court challenging
the law to be unconstitutional. Decide.
(m) The priest will succeed as it is violation of the right granted under Article 25.
(n) The priest will fail as it is a reasonable restriction on the method of the practice.
(o) The priest will fail as the state has to take care of unreasonable religious practices.
(p) The priest will succeed right of religion cannot be restricted through such means.
107. Momina is a Muslim girl who wears a headscarf as a religious symbol. She studies in a government
school and keeps it on even during class hours. The school prescribes for a school uniform and the scarf
is not a part of the said uniform. She is being asked to remove the scarf during class hours but she
denied. On such refusal she is punished by the authorities for not complying with the uniform. Decide.
(q) The fundamental right of religion has not been violated as it is just a matter of school uniform.
(r) The fundamental right of religion has not been violated as same uniform is mark of equality.
(s) The fundamental right has been violated as the scarf was a religious symbol.
(t) Both (a) and (b)

MOCK CLAT #04
Passage (Q.108–Q.113): Before the recent encroachments of tourism and commercialization, the culture
of the Gullah communities on the Sea Islands off the southeast coast of the United States retained a
unique identity derived partially from the Islands‘ history as an area reserved for freed slaves after the
Civil War. As an almost exclusively black community, the Gullah preserved African traditions concerning
family structure and religious practices. At the same time, as a community of ex-slaves, the residents
retained several facets of the Southern life they had left behind. This mixture provided a heritage that
until recently was strong enough to sustain a vital culture. As Patricia Jones-Jackson has pointed out, the
basic unit of social life on the Sea Islands, as in West Africa, is the extended family. Since many islands
are sectioned off into family communities, kinship ties are important to one‘s acceptance into the social
structure. Membership in the extended family also affects property rights. In the traditional Gullah system,
family members do not normally buy land from one another, but acquire it by an unwritten contract known
as ―heir‘s land.‖ Rules pertaining to marriage seem to be at least as broad in scope. Common-law
marriages are considered as legitimate as marriages recorded by contract under law. Indeed, the
infrequent occurrence of divorce and separation within the Sea Island communities demonstrates the
strong cohesion of Gullah marital and familial institutions. Unlike the laws and customs relating to family
structure, the religious practices of the Sea Islanders, on the surface at least, bespeak a U.S. heritage.
Depending on the village, a Baptist or Methodist church acts as an essential social institution. Yet, in
contrast to the dualistic body-soul approach to the individual found in Christian teaching, the Gullah
believe that a person has an earthly body, a soul that returns upon death to the Divine Kingdom, and a
separate spiritual entity that can remain on Earth and influence the lives of those still living. This belief in
a ―body spirit‖ is prevalent among West African peoples, according to Jones-Jackson. She also notes the
African influences on the interaction between the minister and the congregation: The prayers and
sermons ―embody a classical, Ciceronian rhetorical style and employ sophistic ornaments capable of
divinely inspiring and passionately persuading a congregation to respond with raucous and joyous
replies.‖
108. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(a) Religious Beliefs of the Sea Islanders
(b) ―Heir‘s Land‖—Key to the Gullah Culture
(c) African and U.S. Influences on Gullah Life
(d) Family Structure and Property Rights and the Gullah
109. According to the passage, all of the following aspects of the culture of the Sea Islanders show the
influence of African traditions EXCEPT the
(a) family structure
(b) conception of the afterlife
(c) method of acquiring land
(d) importance of the churches as social institutions
110. It can be inferred that the institution of ―heir‘s land‖ allows the transfer of property under the terms of
(a) a formal grant by the government
(b) a marriage settlement between families
(c) an oral agreement among family members
(d) a written deed of ownership
111. On the basis of information supplied by the passage, which of the following would most likely resemble a
social experience of a Sea Islander?
(a) Dividing property in a divorce settlement under court supervision
(b) Being required to sell one‘s home because it lies in the path of a new highway
(c) Growing up in a communal household composed of unrelated adults
(d) Being given employment by a relative on the basis of one‘s standing in the family

MOCK CLAT #04
112. It can be inferred that towards the Gullah, the author is:
(a) sympathetic and receptive (b) ambivalent and uncertain
(c) detached and quizzical (d) morally outraged
113. According to the passage, Patricia Jones-Jackson believes which of the following reveals an African
influence on Gullah religious services?
(a) The role of music in Gullah services
(b) The number of Gullah sermons on African topics
(c) The infrequency of divorce among Gullah families
(d) The type of vocal participation by the Gullah congregation
Passage (Q.114– Q.119): Today's developing economies use much less energy per capita than
developed countries such as the United States did at similar incomes, showing the potential for lower-
carbon growth. Adaptation and mitigation need to be integrated into a climate-smart development
strategy that increases resilience, reduces the threat of further global warming and improves
development outcomes. Adaptation and mitigation measures can advance development and prosperity
can raise incomes and foster better institutions. A healthier population living in better built houses and
with access to bank loans and social security is better equipped to deal with a changing climate and its
consequences. Advancing robust, resilient development policies that promote adaptation is needed today
because changes in the climate, already begun, will increase even in the short-term.
The spread of economic prosperity has always been intertwined with adaptation to changing ecological
conditions. But as growth has altered the environment and as environmental changes has accelerated,
sustaining growth and adaptability demands greater capacity to understand our environment, generate
new adaptive technologies and practices and diffuse them widely. As economic historians have
explained, much of humankind's creative potential has been directed at adapting to the changing world.
But adaptation cannot cope with all the impacts related to climate change, especially as larger changes
unfold in the long-term. Countries cannot grow out of harm's way fast enough to match the changing
climate. And some growth strategies, whether driven by the government or the market, can also add to
vulnerability, particularly, if they overexploit natural resources. Under the Soviet development plan,
irrigated cotton cultivation expanded in water-stressed Central Asia and led to the near disappearance of
the Aral Sea, threatening the livelihoods of fisherman, herders and farmers. And clearing mangroves —
the natural coastal buffers against storm surges to make way for intensive farming or housing
development, increases the physical vulnerability of coastal settlements, whether in Guinea or in
Louisiana.
114. Which of the following conditions of growth can add to vulnerability?

1. When the growth occurs due to excessive exploitation of mineral resources and forests.
2. When the growth brings about a change in humankind's creative potential.
3. When the growth is envisaged only for providing houses and social security to the people.
4. When the growth occurs due to emphasis on farming only.
(a) Only 1 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) All of these
115. What does low-carbon growth imply in the present context?

1. More emphasis on the use of renewable sources of energy.
2. Less emphasis on manufacturing sector and more emphasis on agricultural sector.
3. Switching over from monoculture practices to mixed farming.
4. Less demand for goods and services.
(a) Only 1 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) None of these

MOCK CLAT #04
116. Which of the following conditions is/are necessary for sustainable economic growth?
1. Spreading of economic prosperity more.
2. Popularising/spreading of adaptive technologies widely.
3. Investing on research in adaptation and mitigation technologies.
(a)Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
117. Which of the following inferences can be made from the passage?
1. Rain fed crops should not be cultivated in irrigated areas.
2. Farming under water-deficient areas should not be a part of development strategy.
(a) Only 2 (b) Both land 2
(c) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None of the above
118. Consider the following assumptions

1. Sustainable economic growth demands the use of creative potential of men.
2. Intensive agriculture can lead to ecological backlash.
3. Spread of economic prosperity can adversely affect the ecology and environment.
With reference to the passage, which of the above assumption (s) is/are valid?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
119. Which one of the following statements constitutes the central theme of the passage?
(a) Countries with greater economic prosperity are better equipped to deal with the consequences of
climate change
(b) Adaptation and mitigation should be integrated with development strategies
(c) Rapid economic growth should not be pursued by both developed and developing economies
(d) Some countries resort to overexploitation of natural resources for the sake of rapid development
Passage (Q.120–Q.124):
Peter Parker: To be honest, I feel that airplanes are much safer. When we are travelling by an airplane,
we face almost no hurdles in the sky, if not no hurdles at all; like there‘s no traffic or any object in the way
which the plane can collide with. Also, we have to consider that the auto-pilot technology employed in a
plane gives airplanes a huge advantage than rail or road transport. The less we depend on humans the
lesser is the chance of accidents.
Bruce Wayne: Okay, so the plane flies in the skies, right? You say there are no hindrances in the way.
Well, there have been so many instances of birds entering into the engines of the airplane. If such cases
happen, then remember you will be falling from such a height that you will crash into smithereens. In rail
travel or road travel, there is at least no chance of that.
120. Which of the following resembles a lot with the pattern of reasoning as has been employed by Peter
Parker?
(a) If we use robots for surgery, then we will have much higher success rates in surgery
(b) The use of smart-phones has made people smarter
(c) The more we rely on Artificial Intelligence, the more we get dumber
(d) Both a and b
121. Which of the following statements if true will weaken the arguments of Peter Parker?
(a) The pilots are highly-trained in manoeuvring the aircraft
(b) Sometimes there are air-pockets in the sky which can cause turbulence in air
(c) India‘s airlines use less advance and outdated technology
(d) The food served in airlines has deteriorated in the past few years

MOCK CLAT #04
122. Which of the following can be the conclusion of Bruce Wayne‘s arguments?
(a) Air travel is safer than road or rail travel
(b) Air travel is definitely not safer than air or road travel
(c) We can‘t say that air travel is safer than road or rail travel
(d) None of these
123. Which of the following will strengthen Bruce Wayne‘s argument?

(a) Statistically there have been less air accidents than road or rail accidents
(b) There have been rising cases of drunk-driving
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
124. Which of the following roles does Peter Parker‘s statement ―The less we depend on humans the lesser is
the chance of accidents‖ play?
(a) It is the conclusion of his argument
(b) It is the argument for the conclusion
(c) It is the premise that Peter Parker has taken
Passage (Q.125–Q.129): Almost a century ago, a fad for sleep-learning swept the industrialised world,
ending only after neuroscientists determined it was physiologically impossible. Yet today, a growing body
of research suggests they were wrong. Sleep-learning appears to be heading for a revival, on a far more
solid scientific basis than its earlier incarnation. By subjecting sleep to a few engineering fixes, we could
minimise the time our brains are offline each night, gaining precious hours for absorbing information.
Over many nights, we could vastly expand our stock of knowledge and skills, or even treat stubborn
addictions and psychological traumas. All of which raises an unsettling question: should the prospect be
welcomed or dreaded? If we harness sleep for self-improvement, will we lose something essential about
ourselves?
The first person to make money from the concept was Alois Benjamin Saliger, a Czech-born New York-
based businessman and inventor –who in 1932 patented the Psycho-Phone. A phonograph fitted with a
repeating mechanism and a tiny acoustic horn, the device was meant to sit by a sleeper‘s bed and replay
spoken-word recordings at the volume of a whisper. It was marketed with disks whose titles included
Prosperity, Inspiration, Normal Weight, and Mating. ‗I desire an ideal mate,‘ Saliger intoned on the latter
record. ‗I radiate love. I have a fascinating and attractive personality. I have a strong sex appeal.‘
The Psycho-Phone operated on the premise of an unproven theory picked up by Aldous Huxley in his
dystopian novel, Brave New World (1932). There, recorded messages are used to train sleeping children
in the values of a soulless future society. A proud official in the book calls the new method, dubbed
‗hypnopaedia‘ by Huxley, the ‗greatest moralising and socialising force of all time‘.
The backlash came in the 1950s, when scientists began using electroencephalography (EEG), in which
electrodes are used to measure the brain‘s electrical activity. With this technique, they could finally
determine whether subjects were, in fact, asleep rather than drifting near sleep or just resting. When the
Rand Corporation researchers William Emmons and Charles Simon repeatedly played a list of 10 words
to men whose EEGs showed an absence of alpha waves (a reliable gauge of sleep), their performance
on a memory test upon awakening was no better than chance. Other EEG-monitored trials drew similar
results. Scientific consensus soon concluded that the sleeping brain was incapable of absorbing outside
information, and hypnopaedia was consigned to the realm of quackery.

(a) Neurologists believe that sleep-learning is physiologically impossible.
(b) Only by making quick engineering fixes can we make sleep learning possible.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

MOCK CLAT #04
126. Which of the following is the flaw in author‘s argument about sleep learning being a possibility today?
(a) He believes that human brain can be subjected to engineering fixes.
(b) He equated learning to absorbing information.
(c) He fails to take into account the fact that sleep is a time for digesting data, not ingesting it.
127. Which of the following, if true, will strengthen the belief in the theory about hypnopaedia?
(a) Scientific studies seemed to show it worked. The technique grew particularly popular in the Soviet
Union, where whole villages were said to learn foreign languages while dozing
(b) In one study, a group of sleeping men heard a recorded list of Chinese words and their English
translations; the next day, they scored significantly better on a comprehension test than a control
group.
(c) In a study, 20 boys with a nail-biting habit were played the phrase ‗my fingernails taste terribly bitter‘
300 times a night for 54 nights; by the end of the trial, 40 per cent had reportedly overcome their vice.
128. Which of the following could be a possible application of hypnopaedia?

(a) Mass indoctrination
(b) A tool for teaching new skills or changing unwanted
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
129. On what premise did the psycho phone operate?

(a) If the machine functioned as advertised, the user would awaken filled with irresistible confidence,
ready to stride off and conquer his chosen territory.
(b) People are as suggestible while asleep as they are under hypnosis.
(c) People can learn while they‘re asleep
Directions (Q.130 –Q.133): Read the text and the statements carefully and answer the questions.
Four people who are expert in different languages live on the same side of a street in four houses each of
different colour. Each person also has a different favourite drink. The following additional information is
also known
A. The expert in English lives in the red house.
B. The expert in French drinks green tea.
C. The expert in Hindi lives in the first house on the left.
D. In the second house from the right they drink milk.
E. The Hindi expert lives adjacent to the blue house.
F. The Spanish expert drinks juice.
G. Green tea is drunk in the blue house.
H. The white house is to the right of the red house.
I. Coca-Cola is drunk in the yellow house.
130. Milk is drunk by :

(a) Hindi expert
(b) Englishman
(c) French expert
(d) None of them

MOCK CLAT #04
131. The Hindi expert drinks:

(a) milk
(b) coco-cola
(c) green tea
(d) fruit juice
132. The color of the Hindi expert‘s house is:

(a) yellow
(b) white
(c) blue
(d) red
133. Which of the following is not true?

(a) Milk is drunk in the red house
(b) French expert lives in the blue house
(c) The Spanish expert lives in a corner house
(d) The French expert lives next to the Spanish expert
134. Complete the number series given below?

13 19 37 ? 141 243
(a) 73
(b) 67
(c) 75
(d) 65
135. What will come in the place of the (?) in the following number series?
5, 14, 45, 130, ?
(a) 234
(b) 397
(c) 405
(d) 417
Directions (Q.136): The following question is followed by information given in three statements. You
have to study the question along with the statements and decide the information given in which
statement(s) is necessary and sufficient to answer the question.
136. How is M related to R?

I. T, the only son of M, has two sisters.
II. M‘s son is the brother of the only sister of R.
III. R and T are children of M.
(a) Only I and III
(b) Only II
(c) Either I or II
(d) None of these

MOCK CLAT #04
Direction: (Q.137- Q.141). Study the following graph carefully and answer the following questions given
below.
Graph 1 : Boys + Girls
Graph 2 : Boys - Girls
Graph-1
Graph-2
137. What is the difference between Number of Girls in School A and Number of Girls in School B?
(a) 100 (b) 101 (c) 102 (d) 103
138. Girls in School C forms approximately what percent of the total number students in that School?
(a) 45.5% (b) 47.5% (c) 48.5% (d) 49.5%
139. What is the ratio of Sum of Boys in School D and Girls in School E together to the Sum of Girls in School
D and Boys in School E together is?
(a) 997:1012 (b) 999:1012 (c) 1000:1011 (d) 1000:1013
140. How many number of Boys are there in School F?

(a) 5134 (b) 5234 (c) 5334 (d) 5444

MOCK CLAT #04
141. In which of the following School least no of Girls are present?

(a) School B (b) School C (c) School D (d) School E
Direction (Q.142–Q.146) : In a science exhibition 2000 student took par. 25%of the total are participating
in Raman House.50% of the remaining are participating Darwin and Dalton house in the ratio of the 3:2
and 20% of the rest are participating all houses. Rest are Raman and Darwin, Darwin and Dalton house
and Raman and Dalton house in the ratio of the 7:8:10.
142. The %of the student who did not participating in any house?
(a) 60 % (b) 10 % (c) 0 % (d) 20 %
143. What the %of the students who participate in only one house?
(a) 62.5% (b) 25 % (c) 50 % (d) None of these
144. What is the ratio of the number of student who participate in only Dalton house those who participate in
only Raman and Dalton House?
(a) 3 : 40 (b) 3 : 5 (c) 5 : 4 (d) 1:5
145. Find the number of students who participate in only one house?
(a) 500 (b) 1250 (c) 800 (d) 150
146. The students who participate in all three houses is what %of the student who participate in two house?
(a) 100% (b) 50% (c) 150 % (d) 25 %
Direction (Q.147- Q.150): Given table shows the quantity of Rice and tea (in metric tons) exported from
different countries in 2017 and quantity imported (in percentage) with respect to last year import of six
country in 2017.
Rice Tea
Nations
Export Import Export Import
India 5000 120% 240 40%
South Africa 4500 110% 140 70%
China 3760 80% 220 40%
U.S. 3800 100% 60 140%
Brazil 4100 90% 110 125%
Japan 2600 90% 135 100%
147. India's imported rice and imported tea are in the ratio of 2 :1 in year 2017. If in 2016 rice imported by
India is 120 metric ton then find the sum of total export (rice and tea) of India in 2017 and total import rice
and tea) of India in 2016.
(a) 5440 (b) 5520 (c) 5540 (d) 5515
148. If total import of Japan in 2016 is 30% of what it exported in 2017 and ratio between rice to tea imported
in 2017 is 360: 347 then what amount of rice is imported by Japan in 2017?
(a) 540 (b) 520 (c) 480 (d) 460
149. Rice imports of all countries are same in 2016 and Tea imports of all countries are same in 2017. If Rice
and Tea import of China in 2016 are in the ratio of 5 : 7 then find the ratio total Rice import in 2017 to tea
import in 2016 by countries together?
(a) 313: 450' (b) 451: 850 (c) 425 : 313 (d) 41 : 50
150. Total export by U.S. in 2017 is what percent less/more than the total export of Brazil in 2017
(approximately)?
(a) 7% (b) 9% (c) 4% (d) 8%

"Part of the most Comprehensive Classroom Training, Prep Content & Test Series across the Nation.
From the producers of the Best and the Most number of A.I.Rs in the past years, every year!"
MOCK CLAT #05

Candidate Name : _________________
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
Test Centre/Hall.
MOCK CLAT #05
Directions(Q.1-Q.30): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.1-Q.5):The locus of contemporary debates on free expression and the limits thereof across
societies and cultures is individual freedom versus communal welfare. The founding principles for this
discussion can be traced back to two seminal texts whose relevance has not diminished despite the
passage of centuries-Plato's Republic (especially Books II, in and X) and John Milton's Areopagitica.
Plato's polemical treatise builds up a strong case for exiling poets and poetry from an ideal republic he
envisages, while Milton's seventeenth century pamphlet remains a passionate espousal of free speech.
Both arguments are used knowingly or unknowingly by defenders of the faith in opposing camps of free
expression today.
Plato's position vis-à-vis poetry as exemplified through his Republic is a masterful emphasis of the
functionality of art and literature. His stance is that poetry, and by extension literature, should provide
good role models which would aid in character building and anything that does not provide it is
anathema. He is not against poetry or stories as such, since he agrees that stories are necessary to train
the young mind. However, the poetic imagination should be instructed to create only stories of a certain
kind, the story is to be avoided "whenever an erroneous representation is made of the nature of gods and
heroes-as when a painter paints a portrait not having the shadow of a likeness to the original" (Jowett
n.d.). This is why he would keep away from even great poets like Homer and Hesiod, for "the fault of
telling a lie, and, what is more, a bad lie" (ibid.). Plato's objection to poetry is when it represents the
negative emotions among the gods, like the petty rivalries and jealousies that were the cause of many a
mythological war. It is quite obvious that according to the Platonic yardstick, Vyasa and Valmiki would
have been banished along with Homer and Hesiod from the ideal polis. Plato's argument that artists are
imitators who are "thrice removed from reality" and "copy images of virtue and the like, the truth they
never reach," are reasons enough to cast the poet out of the pales of the city (ibid.). There is an implicit
acceptance that the State is right in his statement that the State should provide the template for artistic
creations: "but now the founders of a State ought to know the general forms in which poets should cast
their tales, and the limits which must be observed by them, but to make the tales is not their business.
Plato's ideal republic is also the blueprint for autocratic regimes where artists are expected to follow the
guidelines laid down by the State, like Stalin's famous exhortation.
1. Why according to the passage does Plato keeps away from the great poets such as Homer?
(a) According to Plato only those stories should be studied to aid good character.
(b) According to Plato the writings of Homer were very sub-standard.
(c) According to Plato, Homer had no idea of what he was writing.
2. How would Homer and Hesiod be same as Valmiki and Vyasa according to the passage?
(a) Vyasa and Valmiki are were the Homer and Hesiod of the east.
(b) Both the pairs were the creators of imaginative literature which does not reach the truth.
(c) Plato was against the use of poetry to create stories.
(d) Plato considered any work below his works as sub-standard works.
3. Why does the author says that Plato’s ideal republic is also the blueprint for autocratic regime?
(a) According to the author, Plato is a very ideal man.
(b) Because of the Plato’s thinking that the artists should follow the guidelines laid down by the
government.
(c) It is because of Plato’s hatred for Homer and Hesiod.

MOCK CLAT #05
4. Which of the following is the synonym of the word ‘exhortation’

(a) Insistence
(b) Courage
(c) Success
(d) Defence
5. According to Plato, what is the reason to cast the poet out of the pales of the city?
(a) That the poets are very far away from reality
(b) That they are not good for communal welfare
(c) That they are the freeloaders
(d) That the artists are not needed in an equal society.
Passage (Q.6-Q.10):In an audio file of the interview uploaded to YouTube, Ambedkar can be heard
saying that Gandhi was no reformer. “He was just an episode in the history of India, not an epoch maker,”
Ambedkar said.
While some Gandhian scholars have dismissed Ambedkar’scharacterisation of Gandhi as mere ‘polemic’,
I would argue that his sharp criticism stems from logical analysis and philosophical disagreement rather
than hatred for Gandhi as a political opponent.
After thoroughly interrogating the social and economic foundations of Gandhian philosophy,
Ambedkar diagnosed Gandhism as a dangerous doctrine.
The Gandhian prescription for an ideal society was to establish a perfect caste system. Till 1922, Gandhi
was an ardent proponent of the caste system. He saw great value in caste and openly advocated its
continuance.
Gandhi glorified caste as responsible for the durability of Hindu society; as a seed of swaraj (freedom); as
a unique power of organisation, as a means of providing primary education and raising a defence force;
as a means of self-restraint; as the natural order of society; and most important of all, as the eternal
principle of hereditary occupation for maintaining societal order.
Enunciating all these merits of caste, Gandhi declares, “These being my views I am opposed to all those
who are out to destroy the caste system.”
Later, Gandhi switched his terminology from that of caste to varna.
Around 1925, Gandhi declared that varna rather than caste was his social ideal. He suggested the
smaller castes fuse and ‘reproduce the old system of four varnas.’ The old varna system prevalent in
ancient India had society divided into four vertically hierarchical orders: Brahmins, Kshatriyas, Vaishyas
and Shudras whose socially legislated occupations were learning, warfare, trade and service to the
above three varnas respectively. Ambedkar saw no real change in Gandhi’s position as Gandhi’s varna
ideal carried forward the hereditary occupation from the caste model intact.
Ambedkar rightly pointed out that even within the framework of a Gandhian utopia, the Shudras were to
continue as a servile class. And ati-shudras (present-day Dalits) were to be integrated into the
Shudravarna.
The economic ideal of the Gandhian model was equally revolting for Ambedkar’s modernist sensibilities.
Firstly, Gandhi was against machinery and modern civilisation. In contrast, Ambedkar argues that modern
machinery enables humans to have leisure. And leisure, in turn, is the primary precondition for culture
and civilisation to thrive, which make human life worthy of its existence. Secondly, the Gandhian idea of
‘trusteeship’ is ostensibly geared towards the elimination of class struggle in the relationship between
employers and employees and between landlords and tenants. Ambedkar, being a trained economist,
was highly sceptical of the rich protecting the interests of the poor.
6. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the above passage?

(a) Ambedkar’s criticism of the Gandhi stems from logical analysis
(b) Ambedkar’s criticism of the Gandhi stems from his philosophical disagreement Gandhism
(c) Ambedkar’s analysis of the Gandhi stems from his hatred of the Gandhian lifestyle
(d) Gandhi believed in the varna system of Hindu life.

MOCK CLAT #05
7. Which of the following points to Ambedkar’s disagreement of Gandhi’s economical model?

(a) Views over the modern use of machinery
(b) Views over elimination of class struggle
(c) Views over rich protecting the interest of poor.
8. What was the role of Vaishyas in the Varna system?

(a) Learning
(b) Trading
(c) Warfare
(d) Service to other three classes.
9. Which of the following is conveys the central idea of the passage?

(a) Gandhism is a not very ideal form of philosophy
(b) Ambedkar’s criticism of the Gandhian philosophy.
(c) Caste as the basis of society’s ideal.
10. The lines, “These being my views I am opposed to all those who are out to destroy the caste system.”,
suggest the tone of the speaker to be:
(a) Reflective
(b) Apologetic
(c) Frustrated
(d) Decisive
Passage (Q.11-Q.15):If liberalization is the answer to corruption, why did the biggest corruption scandal
occur in telecommunications? After all, telecom was the biggest success story of the reforms. As a result
of market competition, India had the lowest tariffs and the second largest number of mobile phones in the
world. How did one explain the 2G scam? The one thing that the market did not control in telecom was
the radio spectrum. The state controlled it and no one reckoned with a devious minister who created
artificial scarcity in the 2G spectrum and then gave it away in driblets to those who allegedly bribed him.
The man could have been avoided had the licences been awarded via open, transparent bidding on the
Internet.
By January 2011 there was plenty of rage over 2G across the land, and at its heart was the problem of
silence. The public was furious with the prime minister. His telecom minister, Andimuthu Raja, had
announced a policy to distribute radio spectrum to companies in September 2007. Manmohan Singh,
sensing that wrongdoing was afoot, wrote to Raja, objecting to the minister's policy and exhorting him to
be transparent. Raja replied immediately, defending himself. On 3 January 2008, the prime minister
acknowledged this letter-yes, acknowledged', as though he had acquiesced. This gave Raja the
permission to go ahead and issue the controversial licences. In May 2010, the prime minister admitted
that Raja had indeed written to him.
People wanted to know why their prime minister had fallen silent after having objected initially to the
policy. In those dark months, people had desperately wanted to clutch on to an honest man. They
thought they had found one in selfless, ethical Manmohan Singh. Everyone conceded that the prime
minister was personally honest, but they insistently asked about the value of a leader who was himself
upright but whose government was corrupt. It confirmed that the most important quality in a leader was
determination-more important than even intelligence and personal integrity, both of which their prime
minister possessed in abundance. They concludes sadly that Manmohan Singh the leader was a failure.
The prime minister's silence raised questions over his integrity in some people's minds, just as it had in
the case of the venerable Bhishma, the respected and selfless grandfather in the Mahabharata. Bhishma
too had remained silent when Draupadi was being disrobed by his grandchildren. When Draupadi had
insistently looked at him in the assembly and questioned the 'dharma of the ruler', no one had replied.
Everyone, including Bhishma, had remained silent. Then Vidura spat out at the immorality of silence.

MOCK CLAT #05
Quoting Rishi Kashyapa, he had said that when a crime occurs, half the punishment goes to the guilty, a
quarter to his ally and another quarter falls to those who remain silent.
11. Why the author thinks that telecommunication was the biggest liberalization?
(a) Within two decades of liberalization, it gave the opportunity for the biggest political scam in India.
(b) India had the lowest tariff rates in the world and the second largest number of mobile phones in the
world.
(c) The radio spectrum in the telecommunication sector was controlled by the state government.
12. “When a crime occurs, half the punishment goes to the guilty, a quarter to his ally and another quarter
falls to those who remain silent”. Which of the following tone does the line presents?
(a) Scornful
(b) Angry
(c) Contemplative
(d) Satirical
13. According to the author, which of the following reason lead to the conclusion that Manmohan Singh was
a failed leader?
(a) Manmohan Singh lacked intelligence
(b) Manmohan Singh lacked determination
(c) Manmohan Singh lacked integrity
14. Which of the following is synonyms with ‘driblets’?

(a) Cheap
(b) Insignificant
(c) Lots of
(d) Free
15. Why has the author compared Manmohan Singh with Bhisma?
(a) Unlike Bhisma, Manmohan Singh kept Silent when the wrong was being committed.
(b) Like Bhisma, Manmohan Singh kept Silent when the wrong was being committed.
(c) Both of them are grand old man of their empires.
(d) Both of them are respectful characters.
Passage (Q.16-Q.20):Jesus Christ was a historical figure of staggering influence, perhaps the most
enigmatic and inspirational leaders the world has ever seen. As the prophesied Messiah, Jesus toppled
kings, inspired millions and founded new philosophies. As a descendant of the lines of King Solomon and
King David, Jesus possessed a rightful claim to the throne of the King of the Jews. Understandably, His
life was recorded by thousands of followers across the land. Teabing paused to sip his tea and then
placed the cup back on the mantel. 'More than eighty gospels were considered for the New Testament,
and yet only a relative few were chosen for inclusion - Matthew, Mark, Luke and John among them.' Who
chose which gospels to include?' Sophie asked. "Aha! Teabing burst in with enthusiasm. The
fundamental irony of Christianity! The Bible, as we know it today, was collated by the pagan Roman
emperor Constantine the Great.'
I thought Constantine was a Christian,' Sophie said. Hardly, Teabing scoffed. 'He was a lifelong pagan
who was baptized on his deathbed, too weak to protest. In Constantine's day, Rome's official religion was
sun worship - the cult of Sol Invictus, or the Invincible Sun - and Constantine was its head priest.
Unfortunately for him, a growing religious turmoil was gripping Rome. Three centuries after the crucifixion
of Jesus Christ, Christ's followers had multiplied exponentially. Christians and pagans began warring and
the conflict grew to such pro Portions that it threatened to rent Room in two Constantine decided
something had to be done. In 325 AD, he decided to unify Rome under a single religion. Christianity.
Sophie said, 'Why would a pagan emperor choose Christianity as the official religion!! Teabing chuckled.

MOCK CLAT #05
'Constantine was a very good businessman. He could see that Christianity was on the rise, and he simply
backed the winning horse Historians still marvel at the brilliance with which Constantine converted the
sun-worshipping pagans to Christianity. By fusing pagan symbols, dates and rituals into the growing
Christian tradition, he created a kind of hybrid religion that was acceptable to both parties.'
Transmogrification,' Langdon said. The vestiges of pagan religion in Christian symbology are undeniable.
Egyptian sun disk became the halos of Catholic saints. Pictograms of Isis nursing her miraculously
conceived son Horus became the blueprint for our modern images of the Virgin Mary nursing Baby
Jesus. And virtually all the elements of the Catholic ritual the mitre, the altar, the doxology and
communion, the act of "God-eating" were taken directly from earlier pagan mystery religions.
16. Which of the following is Transmogrification?

(a) The influence that Jesus had over millions of people.
(b) The rejection of lots of gospels and retaining only few to be part of new testament.
(c) The symbols of pagans transforming into the new symbols of Christianity.
17. Why according to the passage is Jesus a figure of staggering influence?

(a) He toppled the kings
(b) Found new philosophies
(c) Inspired millions on people
18. Why did Teabing called Constantine a Businessmen?

(a) On the acumen of Constantine to convert the pagan religion into Christianity.
(b) On the disability of Constantine when he got converted to Christianity on his deathbed.
(c) He made so much profit from the religion
19. Sophie said, 'Why would a pagan emperor choose Christianity as the official religion”. What expression
does Sophie has.
(a) Frustrated
(b) Satirical
(c) Puzzled
(d) Solemn
20. What is the most exact antonym of the word ‘enigmatic’?

(a) Inexplicable
(b) Delphic
(c) Simple
(d) Easy
Passage (Q.21-Q.25):The day was dawning, and the shepherd urged his sheep in the direction of the
sun. They never have to make any decision, he thought. Maybe that’s why they always stay close to me.
The only things that concern the sheep were food and water. As long as the boy knew how to find the
best pasteurs in Andalusia, they would be his friends. Yes, their days were all the same, with the
seamingly endless hours between sunrise and dusk; and they had never read a book in their young lives
and did not understand when the boy told them about the sights of the cities. They were content with just
food and water, and, in exchange, they generously gave off their wool, their company, and – once in a
while – their meat.
If I became a monster today, and decided to kill them, one by one, they would become aware only after
most of the flock had been slaughtered, thought the boy. They trust me and they have forgotten how to
rely on their own instincts, because I lead them to nourishment.
The boy was surprised at his thoughts. Maybe the church, with the sycamore growing from within had
been haunted. It had caused him to have the same dream for a second time, and it was causing him to

MOCK CLAT #05
feel anger towards his faithful companions. He drank a bit from the wine that remained from his dinner of
the night before, and he gathered his jacket closer to his body.
[Excerpts from the novel, ‘The Alchemist’ by Paulo Coelho]
21. What nature of the sheep has been highlighted by the boy in this passage?
(a) Their monotonous life
(b) Their minimalistic life
(c) Their naïve nature
(d) Their trusting nature
22. How does the boy feel about the sheep?

(a) He feels sympathy for their simple lives
(b) He feels envious of their simple lives
(c) He is just reflective about the lives of his sheep
23. In the passage, the author is concerned about which of the following?
(a) The sheep
(b) The sycamore
(c) Himself
24. In the italicized line, one error is present. Which of the following is it?
(a) There is a grammatical mistake of tenses
(b) There is a mistake in the use of punctuation-marks
(c) There is a spelling error
(d) There is no error
25. Few figures of speech have been used in the statement. Which of the following has been used?
(a) Simile
(b) Metaphor
(c) Metonymy
(d) Assonance
Passage (Q.26-Q.30):In a new report, the Washington, DC-based air-quality think tank Open AQ notes
that “more data underpins all actions on air pollution”. The report, entitled ‘Open Air Quality Data: The
Global State of Play’, makes its case by arguing that 51% of countries, representing 1.4 billion people,
don’t generate any air-quality data. And of those that do, only 38% share data in real-time.
While it’s easy to agree, in principle, with the egalitarian ideals of data democratisation and transparency,
the report errs when it argues for more investment in regulatory data generation and the government
ownership of data. Specifically, it ignores the political issues underlying the air pollution crisis.
In order to effectively address the air pollution crisis, it is important to first understand the political
economy of the crisis – i.e., acknowledging the nexus of air pollution, politics and the economy.
India’s premiere pollution watchdog agency, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), has also been
exposed to accusations. In 2019, the National Green Tribunal sought a response from the CPCB after a
petition alleged that CPCB had fudged pollution data. Accusations of data misrepresentation have been
levelled against state pollution control agencies as well. For example, in April 2017, the Maharashtra
Pollution Control Board was accused of presenting false data to shield the Koradi thermal power plant
near Nagpur from regulatory action.
The centralised control also tempts regulatory agencies to engage in the selective elimination of data,
often in response to political compulsions. On the 69th Republic Day celebrations in New Delhi, the Delhi
Pollution Control Committee shut down most of its monitors to evade negative press on the city’s air
pollution crisis, especially in the presence of 10 ASEAN state leaders.

MOCK CLAT #05
In February 2019, the citizens of Whitefield, Bengaluru, won a landmark case against a polluting graphite
factory in their neighbourhood. After paying a fine of Rs 50 lakh in 2018, the factory was subsequently
shut down in 2019 on directions from the National Green Tribunal. At the centre of this case was the
exhaustive air quality data generated by the residents of Whitefield – a feat that the region’s foremost
regulatory agency, the Karnataka State Pollution Control Board, had failed to achieve in over two
decades.
The examples above demonstrate that central ownership of data can’t pave the way to data
democratization. In that, Open AQ’s case for data transparency seems logical in an ideal world where
governments do what they ought to do.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from the article ‘Simply Generating More Data and Sharing It Won’t
Solve Our Air Pollution Crisis’ published in The Wire Science]
26. Which of the following word can be used for someone who ‘errs’?
(a) Impeccable
(b) Immaculate
(c) Fallible
(d) Unimpeachable
27. Which of the following statement is consistent with the report of think tank Open AQ?
(a) Data should be owned by private entities.
(b) Government agencies are not well equipped to own data.
(c) Data generation can stop the air pollution.
(d) The data should be controlled and governed by the government.
28. What does the author mean when he says that he wants the democratization of data?
(a) Data should be owned by private entities.
(b) Data serve no purpose in a democratic country like India when controlled by government agencies.
(c) Data should be owned by state government also.
(d) Data should be available to all without any hindrance.

(a) Data is just a number and serves no purpose to control air pollution.
(b) Data if easily available to public can become a shield against air pollution.
(c) Agencies owned by the government should be regulated by the ministry to ensure transparency.
(d) In United States, the government agencies are well suited to handle data as argued by the think tank.
30. “Delhi Pollution Control Committee shut down most of its monitors to evade negative press on the city’s
air pollution crisis, especially in the presence of 10 ASEAN state leaders”. Which of the following can best
describe the intention of the author behind this statement?
(a) Science is often pressed into the service of political agenda.
(b) Reality of pollution in Delhi might affect the relations with ASEAN nations.
(c) Science should be used to prevent air pollution.
(d) Delhi is most polluted in India.

MOCK CLAT #05
Directions (Q.31–Q.68): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.31-Q.35):The NEP proposes sweeping changes including opening up of Indian higher
education to foreign universities, dismantling of the UGC and the All India Council for Technical
Education (AICTE), introduction of a four-year multidisciplinary undergraduate programme with multiple
exit options, and discontinuation of the M Phil programme. In school education, the policy focuses on
overhauling the curriculum, “easier” Board exams, a reduction in the syllabus to retain “core essentials”
and thrust on “experiential learning and critical thinking”. In a significant shift from the 1986 policy, which
pushed for a 10+2 structure of school education, the new NEP pitches for a “5+3+3+4” design
corresponding to the age groups 3-8 years (foundational stage), 8-11 (preparatory), 11-14 (middle), and
14-18 (secondary). This brings early childhood education (also known as pre-school education for
children of ages 3 to 5) under the ambit of formal schooling. The mid-day meal programme will be
extended to pre-school children. The NEP says students until Class 5 should be taught in their mother
tongue or regional language. The policy also proposes phasing out of all institutions offering single
streams and that all universities and colleges must aim to become multidisciplinary by 2040.
31. The Education policy of 1986 was revised in which year?

(a) 1990
(b) 1992
(c) 2006
(d) 2011
32. Which of the following is not one of the recommendation of the NEP 2020?
(a) Replacing the UGC and AICTE with the Higher Education Commission of India
(b) Setting up of National Research program.
(c) Discontinuation of PhD’s
(d) Discontinuation of M.Phil.
33. Which of the following are the fundamental principles of the policy?
(a) Achieving Foundational Literacy and Numeracy in all students by Grade
(b) No hard separations between arts and sciences, curricular and extra-curricular activities, vocational
and academic streams, among others to eliminate harmful hierarchies and silos in areas of learning
(c) ‘Light but Tight’ regulatory framework to promote integrity, transparency and resource efficiency of the
educational system
34. Which of the following is not a council under the Higher Education Council of India (HECI)?
(a) National Higher Education Regulatory Council (NHERC)
(b) General Education Council (GEC)
(c) Higher Education Grants Council (HEGC)
(d) National Education Proctorial Board.
35. The National Education Policy aims to transform India’s education system by which year?
(a) 2030
(b) 2035
(c) 2040
(d) 2050

MOCK CLAT #05
Passage (Q.36-Q.40):Five years since the signing of a framework agreement between the Indian
government and the National Socialist Council of Nagalim (Isak-Muivah), the deadlock in the talks that
came about in October 2019 persists with the emergence of bottlenecks. The NSCN (I-M) has demanded
that Nagaland Governor [1] should be removed as the interlocutor for talks on the Naga accord. Talks
were expanded in 2017 by including other Naga groups under the banner, the Naga National Political
Groups (NNPGs). Clearly, the Governor’s letter in June addressed to Chief Minister Neiphiu Rio, alleging
the collapse of law and order and that armed gangs “who question the sovereignty and integrity of the
nation” were engaging in “blatant extortion”, touched a sore spot for the NSCN (I-M). While the group
defended the practice by terming it “tax collection”, the letter was not entirely off the mark. Yet, this has
become an issue for the peace process with the NSCN (I-M) going on to release details of the 2015
framework agreement that has not been shared in the public domain so far. While the other Naga groups
also took exception to the Governor’s remarks to the Chief Minister, they have differed with the NSCN (I-
M) on the demand for [1] removal as interlocutor.
36. Which of the following will replace [1]?

(a) RN Ravi
(b) PB Acharya
(c) GaneshiLal
(d) JagdishMukhi
37. Which of the following is not one of the demands of Naga groups?
(a) Separate Flag
(b) Separate Constitution
(c) Sovereign Statehood
(d) Naga national Song
38. Who formed the Naga National Council?

(a) AZ Phizo
(b) IsakChisiSwu
(c) ThuingalengMuivah

(a) In 1929, the Naga Club famously told the Simon Commission “to leave us alone to determine for
ourselves as in ancient times”
(b) The British had annexed Assam in 1826, in which they subsequently created the Naga Hills district.
(c) Indira Gandhi promised the Naga Leader to give them the dominion status under the Indian Nation.
(d) A peace accord was signed in Shillong in which the NNC leadership agreed to give up arms
40. What are the current grievances if NSCN-IM?

I. Interpretation of Agreement
II. Grievances against Interlocutor
III. Grievances with Chief Minister
(a) Both A and B
(b) Both B and C
(c) Both A and C
(d) All of the them.

MOCK CLAT #05
Passage (Q.41-Q.45):The conflict in the Caucasus Mountains has remained unresolved for more than
three decades, with periodic bouts of fighting.
Border clashes in July killed at least 16 people, prompting the largest demonstration in years in the
Azerbaijani capital [1], where there were calls for the region's recapture.
Any upsurge in violence could unsettle markets as the South Caucasus is a corridor for pipelines carrying
oil and natural gas from the Caspian Sea to world markets.
Turkish President RecepTayyipErdogan pledged support for Azerbaijan, urging the world to stand with
the country in its "battle against invasion and cruelty". Azerbaijanis are a predominantly Turkic people
with whom Turkey has close ties.
Russia, traditionally seen as an ally of Armenia, called for an immediate ceasefire and talks to stabilise
the situation.
In other reaction:
 UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres said he was "extremely concerned" over and called for both
sides to stop fighting
 France, which has a large Armenian community, called for an immediate ceasefire and dialogue
 Iran, which borders both Azerbaijan and Armenia, offered to broker peace talks
 President Donald Trump said the US was seeking to stop the violence.
41. Which of the following will replace [1]?

(a) Baku
(b) Ganja
(c) Sheki
(d) Sumkayit
42. Which of the following is the reason of dispute between Armenia and Azerbaijan?
(a) Nagorno-Karabakh region has 95% of the population as ethnically Armenian and is controlled by
them but it is internationally recognised as part of Azerbaijan.
(b) Armenia is Christian majority, while Azerbaijan is Muslim majority country.
(c) The leaders of both the nations have fuelled the issue time and again for their vested political
interests.
43. Which of the following is true?

(a) Azerbaijan supports Pakistan’s position on the Kashmir issue.
(b) Armenia supports Pakistan’s position on the Kashmir issue.
(c) Pakistan was the first country to recognise Azerbaijan’s Independence
(d) Armenia is Muslim majority nation.
44. India and Azerbaijan are both part of International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), which of the
following countries has the observer status in INSTC?
(a) Republic of Turkey
(b) Republic of Ukraine,
(c) Oman
(d) Bulgaria
45. In April 2016, violent fighting occurred between the two countries in what came to be known as?
(a) Four-day war
(b) Fifteen-day war
(c) Eighteen-day war
(d) Twenty-day war

MOCK CLAT #05
Passage (Q.46-Q.50):After more than a decade of backdoor negotiations, secret talks and interventions
by a number of interested parties, representatives of the Afghanistan government and the [2] are directly
talking to each other in the [4].
Described by US Secretary of State Mike Pompeo as a “truly momentous” breakthrough, it is however far
from clear what the outcome of the talks will be. But the fact that they are the first-ever peace talks
between the Afghan government and the [2] is historic in itself, and opens a slight window of opportunity
for peace in a country that has been ravaged by seemingly endless war for more than four decades.
India’s challenges and opportunities
If the peace process gathers steam, the [2] could end up playing a bigger role in Afghan politics. New
Delhi has reasons to be unhappy about this because Indian officials, employees and assets have been
repeatedly targeted by the ISI-backed Haqqani network.
The presence of US troops for nearly two decades meant that there was an element of stability in Kabul,
and it ensured that the national capital was not controlled by the insurgents even though they mounted
several deadly bombing attacks on the city.
There is a question mark over the safety and viability of Indian investments in Afghanistan once the
remaining US troops withdraw. New Delhi is also concerned that Pakistan, with its deep links with the
militant groups, will divert some of the hardened fighters to Jammu and Kashmir if peace prevails in
Afghanistan.
Nevertheless, unlike on some earlier occasions, New Delhi took a more pragmatic approach this time
around and participated in the intra-Afghan inaugural dialogue.
Despite New Delhi’s misgivings, not engaging with the [2] at this stage would only mean that India would
have an even lesser say in a future security architecture in Afghanistan, and give Pakistan the edge.
.
46. Which of the following deals paved the way for the above said talks?
(a) India-Afghanistan
(b) US-Taliban
(c) US-Afghanistan
(d) India-US
47. Which of the following can be replaced with [2] in the above passage?
(a) Iran
(b) Iraq
(c) USA
(d) Taliban
48. Which of the following is not one of the objectives of the deal stated in question 1?
(a) An end to violence by declaring a ceasefire.
(b) An intra-Afghan dialogue for a lasting peace.
(c) The Taliban is named in the grey list of FATF.
(d) U.S. troop withdrawal by April 2021.
49. Which of the following can be replaced with the [4] in the above passage?
(a) Doha
(b) Kabul
(c) Heart
(d) Kandahar
50. What was the reason of USA’s deployment of forces in Afghanistan?

(a) Vietnam War
(b) Gulf War
(c) 9/11
(d) Cold war with Russia

MOCK CLAT #05
Passage (Q.51-Q.56):It’s a brand-new Middle East. Within the span of only a month, the United States
has brokered peace between Israel and two Arab countries—first the United Arab Emirates, then
Bahrain. Both deals are revolutionary in scope: By normalizing ties and focusing on business, trade, and
travel, these “warm peace” agreements go beyond the often tenuous “cold peace” that Egypt and Jordan
made with the Jewish state decades ago. Not only do the UAE and Bahrain deals set the stage for a sea
change in Arab-Israeli relations, but they might even present a novel opportunity to finally solve the most
intractable issue between the two sides: the Israeli-Palestinian conflict.
Ties between Israel and the Gulf have grown exponentially in recent years. Underpinned by the common
threat from Iran, what began as whispers of covert intelligence cooperation gradually transformed to
increasingly public signs of amity. Gulf leaders have acknowledged Israel’s right to exist and defend itself,
Israel’s flag has flown at sporting events, and Israeli officials have been allowed to visit. This process
culminated in last month’s UAE-Israel deal, which seeks to break a major taboo in Arab-Israeli relations
by establishing deep bilateral ties not just between Israeli and Emirati officialdom or security
establishments, but between their peoples. That deal provides the necessary cover for other Gulf states
to follow suit.
51. Which of the following is a signification emanating from the UAE Bahrain Deal with Israel?
(a) Embassies and exchange ambassadors.
(b) The agreement shows how the Arab countries are gradually decoupling themselves from the
Palestine question.
(c) Full diplomatic ties will be established between Israel, the United Arab Emirates and Bahrain which
will have a positive impact on the entire region.
52. Choose the correct.

Which of the following is not true as per the agreement signed between UAE and Bahrain with Israel?
I. It will open door for Muslims around the world to visit the historic sites in Israel and to peacefully pray
at Al-Aqsa Mosque in Jerusalem.
II. Working together with Israel across a range of sectors, including tourism, trade, healthcare and
security.
III. Israel will boost investments in Bahrain.
(a) Only I is correct
(b) Both I and III are correct
(c) Both I and II are correct
(d) All of them are correct
53. What is the name of the accord signed between the three countries?
(a) Abraham Accords
(b) Peace Treaty
(c) Muslim-Jews peace accord
(d) Israel- Arab peace accord
54. Which of the following country had signed the first ever peace deal with Israel?
(a) Jordon
(b) Egypt
(c) India
(d) USA
55. What is the name of the Prime Minister’s Benjamin Netanyahu Political Party?
(a) Likud
(b) Blue and White
(c) Labor Party
(d) United Torah Judaism

MOCK CLAT #05
56. Which of the following countries don’t come in the geographical area of the Middle East?
(a) Jordan
(b) Bahrain
(c) Cyprus
(d) Tajikistan
Passage (Q.57-Q.62):In a unanimous decision, the Permanent Court of Arbitration at The Hague on
Friday ruled that India’s retrospective demand of Rs [1] as capital gains and withholding tax imposed on
the British telecommunication company for a 2007 deal was “in breach of the guarantee of fair and
equitable treatment”. The court has also asked India not to pursue the tax demand any more against
Vodafone Group.
As the name suggests, retrospective taxation allows a country to pass a rule on taxing certain products,
items or services and deals and charge companies from a time behind the date on which the law is
passed. Countries use this route to correct any anomalies in their taxation policies that have, in the past,
allowed companies to take advantage of such loopholes. While governments often use a retrospective
amendment to taxation laws to “clarify” existing laws, it ends up hurting companies that had knowingly or
unknowingly interpreted the tax rules differently. Apart from India, many countries including the US, the
UK, the Netherlands, Canada, Belgium, Australia and Italy have retrospectively taxed companies, which
had taken the benefit of loopholes in the previous law.
57. Which of the following amounts has been redacted by [1]?

(a) 22,100 crores
(b) 30,200 crores
(c) 31,900 crores
(d) 40,400 crores
58. Though this is a case between India and Vodafone, which is a British company, Netherlands is also
involved. How is that?
(a) Vodafone had bought Hutchinson Whampoa in May 2007, which belongs to Netherlands
(b) The Permanent Court of Arbitration is in Netherlands
(c) India had signed a Bilateral Investment Treaty with Netherlands in 1995
(d) Both (a) and (c)
59. Which of the following articles of the UNCITRAL did the PCA cite to pass the ruling in favour of
Vodafone?
(a) Article 2 (b) Article 3
(c) Article 4 (d) Article 5
60. Which of the following statements regarding this issue is incorrect?

(a) Recently, the Supreme Court of India allowed telecom companies (telcos) 5 years’ time to pay their
Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR) dues to the government.
(b) AGR is applied only to companies who shifted to the 'revenue-sharing fee' model in 1999, from the
'fixed license fee' model.
(c) The Permanent Court of Arbitration was set up in 1989.
(d) The ruling by PCA comes as a huge relief to the telecom sector in India.
61. In which of the following cases can a capital gains tax be applied?
(a) A loss making company is sold at a price lower than the cost that was requiredfor it to be set up
(b) A company bought at some price gets resold at a much higher price than the original purchase price
(c) A company being purchased by another country’s company
(d) Any purchase of asset above the cost of 1 million USD will attract CGT
62. What stake was bought by Vodafone in Hutchinson Whampoa?

(a) 51% (b) 56% (c) 62% (d) 67%

MOCK CLAT #05
. Passage (Q.63-Q.68):While telescopes offer glimpses of outer space by translating digital data into
stunning images, NASA’s [1] has gone a step further by unveiling a new ‘sonification’ project that
transforms data from astronomical images into audio. Users can now ‘listen’ to images of the Galactic
Centre, the remains of a [2] called Cassiopeia A, as well as the Pillars of Creation Nebula, which are all
located in a region around 26,000 light years away from Earth. The data has been collected by NASA’s
Chandra X-Ray Observatory, Hubble Space Telescope and Spitzer Space Telescope — each of which is
represented by a different musical ‘instrument’.
NASA’s distant telescopes in space collect inherently digital data, in the form of ones and zeroes, before
converting them into images. The images are essentially visual representations of light and radiation of
different wavelengths in space, that can’t be seen by the human eye. This project has created a celestial
concert of sorts by translating the same data into sound. Pitch and volume are used to denote the
brightness and position of a celestial object or phenomenon. So far, the astronomers behind this project
have released three examples made using data collected from some of the most distinct features in the
sky — the Galactic Centre, Cassiopeia A, and Pillars of Creation Nebula.
63. Which of the following has been redacted by [1]?

(a) Houston X-Ray Centre
(b) Chandra X-Ray Centre
(c) Data Sonification Centre

(a) Comet
(b) Asteroid
(c) Supernova
(d) Exoplanet
65. Which of the following is included in the Galactic Centre?

(a) Neutron and white dwarf stars
(b) Clouds of dust and gas
(c) A supermassive black hole called Sagittarius A*
66. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) The Hubble Space Telescope is in the Low Earth Orbit
(b) It was launched in 1990
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
67. Who out of the following had theorized the concept of Black Holes?
(a) Stephen Hawking
(b) Albert Einstein
(c) Nikola Tesla
(d) George Westinghouse
68. The "X-ray universe" refers to the universe as observed with telescopes designed to detect X-rays. How
are X-rays produced in the cosmos?
(a) When matter is hypercooled
(b) When matter travels at 5 times the speed of sound
(c) When matter is heated to millions of degrees
(d) When matter is exposed near a black-hole

MOCK CLAT #05
Directions (Q.69 – Q.106): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.69-Q.73):The meaning of offer and acceptance is the basis of a contract. To form a contract,
there must be an offer made by one party which is, in turn, accepted by another party, and then, in most
cases goods and/or services must be exchanged between the two. An offer contains 2 parts. (1) The
Expression: this is where the parties articulate in some form an inclination to enter into a contract and to
make that contract legally binding upon the acceptance by both parties. The expression may take a wide
variety of forms, from a personal discussion to a letter that lays out the basics of the terms. (2) The
Intention: This is a slightly more vague concept, and it is often left up to the courts to determine whether
or not intention was breached by a party. Essentially, intention involves a presumption by both parties
that the agreement will be legally binding and comes down to the belief that neither party would begin
discussions without the intent to live up to their side of the bargain.
Offers can really cover anything, from a verbal agreement to provide a service, such as housesitting, to a
detailed contract with legal terminology that one may find in an agreement to transfer real estate. It’s
more than a promise, because it must be made with the understanding that what is being agreed to will
be legally binding. It can be for the sale of goods, a pledge to perform a service, or even a promise not to
engage in an activity. The more complex the agreement, the greater the likelihood will be that each party
would engage legal counsel to negotiate the contract.
Acceptance is the final agreement of both parties to consent to the terms of the offer. While it is common
for the terms of the offer to be negotiated before acceptance, if it can be shown that through conduct and
communications that the parties did in fact intend to agree to the final terms of the contract, then formal
acceptance of an offer is not required for it to be legally binding. It is also not always necessary that
acceptance be in the form of a signature on a piece of paper, although this is the most commonly
accepted agreement between parties. For instance, if a party performs an act that would not otherwise
happen, such as a painting contractor painting a house or a professional moving company moving
furniture from one location to another, it would be interpreted as acceptance and agreement to the terms
of the offer of payment for these services.
69. Grant offered to buy 100 shares from Carriage Accident Insurance Co. The insurance company sent a
letter of acceptance to Grant but the letter was lost in the post and never arrived. The liquidator of the
insurance company sued Grant for the money owing for the shares. Was there a valid contract?
(a) No, the acceptance was not communicated in a manner accessible to Grant.
(b) No, as the letter and the acceptance never reached Grant.
(c) Yes, as the acceptance was communicated and the contract was formed.
(d) Yes, the contract was formed the moment the offer was accepted.
70. Ravi is extremely thirsty. He says "I would probably give 5000 rupees to anyone who brought me water at
this time." Akash hears this and expecting 5000 rupees, gets Ravi a bottle of water. Upon demanding the
money, Ravi refuses. Can Akash go to court over this?
(a) Yes. Ravi had made a general offer which was fulfilled by Akash.
(b) Yes, Ravi’s offer constituted an expression of interest to enter into a binding contract.
(c) Ravi could not have made a general offer. A specific offer to Akash is necessary for a contract to be
formed.
(d) No, there was no offer, merely a declaration of interest.
71. Neha telegraphed to Aditi, writing: “Will you sell me your Rolls Royce CAR? Telegram the lowest cash
price.” Aditi also replied by telegram: “Lowest price for CAR is Rs. 20 lakh.” Neha immediately sent his
consent through telegram stating: “I agree to buy the CAR for Rs. 20 lakh asked by you.” Aditi refused to
sell the car. Decide
(a) Aditi’s letter was the offer and Neha’s reply was the acceptance. There is a valid contract.
(b) Aditi did not intend to make an offer. She can refuse to sell the CAR as there is no valid contract.

MOCK CLAT #05
(c) Aditi did not show any willingness to enter into a contract. In the absence of a legal intention, there
can be no contract.
(d) Neha’s letter itself did not constitute an offer. There is no valid contract.
72. Arun and Ravi are supposed to be participating in a race. The night before the race, Ravi offers Arun that
if he will not participate in the race Ravi will give him 2000 Rupees. Arun agrees. Decide
(a) The contract is not valid for an offer asking to abstain is not a valid offer.
(b) An offer asking to abstain as consideration for the contract is a valid offer.
(c) A contract opposed to public policy cannot be a valid contract. Thus, this contract is invalid as it is
unethical.
(d) This is not a contract opposed to public policy. It is a contractual transaction and not unethical.
73. Ashrut is a software engineer and works at InfoSys. When his employer asked him to resign from the job,
and in return he would be paid 3 Lakh rupees, Ashrut did not say anything. However, 2 days later, Ashrut
quit his job and then demanded his boss to pay him 3 Lakh rupees. Decide
(a) Ashrut’s employer has entered into a binding contract with Ashrut. It was accepted by conduct.
(b) Ashrut’s employer has not entered into a binding contract with Ashrut. There was no acceptance
which is a fundamental requirement of a contract.
(c) Ashrut’s employer has made an offer which is contrary to public policy. This cannot be a valid
contract.
(d) Ashrut’s employer has sought a consideration which is illegal. There cannot be a valid contract with
an illegal consideration.
Passage (Q.74-Q.79):Volentinon fit injuria is a defence of limited application in tort law. A direct
translation of the latin phrase volentinon fit injuria is, 'to one who volunteers, no harm is done'. Where the
defence of volenti applies it operates as a complete defence absolving the Defendant of all liability. It is
often stated that the Claimant consents to the the risk of harm, however, the defence of volenti is much
more limited in its application and should not be confused with the defence of consent in relation to
trespass. The defence of volentinon fit injuria requires a freely entered and voluntary agreement by the
Claimant, in full knowledge of the circumstances, to absolve the Defendant of all legal consequences of
their actions. There is a considerable overlap with contributory negligence and since the introduction of
the Law Reform (Contributory Negligence) Act 1945, the courts have been less willing to make a
finding of volenti preferring to apportion loss between the parties rather than taking an all or nothing
approach.
The requirements of the defence are that there must be (1) a voluntary (2) agreement (3) made in full
knowledge of the nature and extent of the risk. The agreement must be voluntary and freely entered for
the defence of volentinon fit injuria to succeed. If the Claimant is not in a position to exercise free choice,
the defence will not succeed. This element is most commonly seen in relation to employment
relationships, rescuers and suicide.The second requirement for the defence of volentinon fit injuria is
agreement. The agreement may be express or implied. An example of an express agreement would be
where there exists a contractual term or notice. However, this would be subject to the controls of s.2 of
the Unfair Contract Terms Act 1977. An implied agreement may exist where the Claimant's action in the
circumstances demonstrates a willingness to accept not only the physical risks but also the legal
risks. For knowledge, the test is subjective and not objective and in the context of an intoxicated claimant,
the question is whether the claimant was so intoxicated that he was incapable of appreciating the nature
of the risk.
74. Two brothers Sanjay and Sunil had been working in Dheeraj’s quarry. They tried to test some detonators
without taking requisite precautions and their act was in contravention of statutory provisions and also the
orders of Dheeraj to both of them. One day, this act resulted in an explosion causing injury to Sunil. He
brought an action against Dheeraj saying that his brother was equally responsible for the accident and
that Dheeraj being the employer was held vicariously liable for his brother’s conduct. Decide.
(a) Dheeraj is not liable because he had warned them not to do the dangerous act.
(b) Dheeraj is not liable because he is protected by the defense of volentinon fit injuria.
(c) Dheeraj is liable by the principle of vicarious liability.
(d) Dheeraj is liable because there is a breach of statutory obligation.

MOCK CLAT #05
75. Ashay had to catch a flight to Mumbai. He was already late to the airport. He hailed ataxi on the road and
asked the taxi-driver Agarwal to hurry to the airport at the maximum speedpossible. Agarwal, who was
smelling strongly of liquor, started driving rashly. On the way to the airport, the taxi collided with a truck
near the airport and Ashay was severely injured. He sued Agarwal for negligence.
(a) Ashay would be successful because Agarwal was driving recklessly.
(b) Ashay would not be successful because it was Ashay who asked Agarwal to drive fast and therefore,
he voluntarily agreed to the risk.
(c) Ashay would not be successful because he knew that Agarwal was drunk and therefore, he knew that
the chances of accident were thereby increased.
76. Ratnesh is a pilot who was supposed to fly the Joint Secretary of the Karnataka Health Ministry to Delhi
for a meeting with the Prime Minister. Ratnesh instructed the Secretary about flight safety and asked to
not use his phone as it could disturb flight navigation.The Secretary however used his phone and the
navigation was disturbed which led to the flight crashing.It turns out that the system was not of a good
quality but would not have failed if not for the disturbance. The Secretary sued the airlines.
(a) The Secretary would be successful because the airlines had a bad navigation system.
(b) The Secretary would not be successful because it was him who used his mobile phone and therefore,
he voluntarily agreed to the risk.
(c) The Secretary would not be successful because he knew that the system was not in a good condition
and therefore, he knew that the chances of accident were thereby increased.
77. In which of the following circumstances, is the exercise of a free choice most likely?
(a) A politician agreeing to favour a certain party on their request and award them a tender thus risking
corruption charges.
(b) A teacher agreeing to award more marks to the principal’s son risking outrage from parents
(c) A smuggler agreeing to smuggle guns instead of a banned species of flower thus risking significantly
higher punishment
(d) A doctor agreeing to turn off the ventilator of a patient upon being threatened by goons to do so thus
risking disciplinary action.
78. Venkata was intoxicated and in a state of panic when he asked the helicopter pilot to land on ice for he
feared that there was storm ahead. This was not a practice usually done by pilots.The helicopter crashed.
When the accident occurred, Venkata sued the pilot for negligence. The pilot claimed volentinon fit injuria
(a) Venkata consented to the risk for he was in a state of panic
(b) Venkata did not consent to the risk for he was intoxicated
(c) Venkata consented to the risk for he asked the pilot to land on ice
(d) The liability shall depend on the level of Venkata’sintoxication
79. Please refer to the facts above. Venkata did not ask the pilot to land on ice but was constantly looking at
the weather and discussing with his co passengers about the safest option being the possibility of landing
on ice. The driver anticipating that Venkata might be panicking, starting descending on ice.Venkata did
not say anything. The accident occurred.
(a) Venkata consented to landing on ice by not objecting
(b) Venkata did not consent expressly to the landing on ice which was required
(c) Venkata should not have panicked in the first place
(d) Venkata did not consent. Mere silence cannot be construed as active consent

MOCK CLAT #05
Passage (Q.80-Q.85):Under common law, there are seven types of intentional torts: assault, battery,
false imprisonment, trespass to land, trespass to chattels, conversion, and intentional infliction of
emotional distress. Trespass to chattels refers to the use of property without permission of the owner.
Trespass to chattels can be easily confused with the tort of conversion because they both deal wrongful
interference of personal property.
A trespass to chattels is an intentional interference with another person's lawful possession of a personal
property. A "chattel" refers to any personal property, moving or unmoving. Trespass to chattels does not
apply to real property or any interest in land. In order to prove trespass to chattels, it must be shown that
(1) there was an intent to trespass. Merely intending to do the act is enough to show this element of
trespass. You don't necessarily need to show intent to harm a specific person. (2) The second element is
lack of the owner’s consent. There must be an unauthorized, unlawful interference, which means the
person interfered with or dispossessed the chattel without the owner's permission. Such consent must be
free. The third element is that there must be interference of chattel. A person commits a trespass to
chattel by (1) dispossessing another of the chattel, (2) using or intermeddling with a chattel in the
possession of another, or (3) damaging the chattel. Interference does include dispossession of a chattel,
but it must be something short of conversion. A mistake of ownership is not a valid defense to a trespass
to chattels. In other words, it doesn't matter if the person didn't know the property belonged to you.
Possessing or damaging the property itself is enough to show interference.
In general, a person will be held liable for a trespass to chattels in any of the following situations:
1. The person dispossesses the other of the chattel.
2. The chattel is impaired as to its condition, quality, or value.
3. The possessor is deprived of the use of the chattel for a substantial time.
4. Bodily harm is caused to the possessor, or harm is caused to some person or thing in which the
possessor has a legally protected interest.
In a trespass to chattels claim, you can only recover actual damages (as opposed to nominal damages).
Actual damages are measured by the diminished value of the chattel that resulted from the defendant's
actions.
80. Arjun stole Anand’s phone in the Delhi Metro. Arjun registered an FIR. When the police finally traced
Arjun’s phone at Anand’s place, Anand could not find the phone in his possession. It was found that
Ahuja had taken the phone from Anand’s house and was using it. Anand filed a suit.
(a) Ahuja is liable for trespass to chattel as there was intentional interference with Anand’s property
(b) Ahuja is not liable for trespass to chattel as he did not have the intent to commit the tort
(c) Ahuja is liable for trespass to chattel as Anand was in possession of property
(d) Ahuja is not liable for trespass to chattel as Anand was not in lawful possession of the property
81. Please refer to the facts above. Infuriated, Anand along with his 5 friends went in to Ahuja’s house and
threw away his property from his house on the road. Decide
(a) Anand is liable for trespass to chattel as he interfered with Ahuja’s property by throwing it on the road.
(b) Anand is not liable for trespass to chattel as he did not use Ahuja’s property
(c) Anand is liable for trespass to chattel as he intentionally committed the tort
(d) Anand is not liable for trespass to chattel
82. Munna Bhai is the goon of the locality and gets houses emptied for builders. One such house belonged
to Dr. Anand. Munna Bhai threw away Dr. Anand’s property and occupied his house.
(a) MunnaBhai is liable for trespass to chattel as he interfered with Dr. Anand’s property by occupying it.
(b) MunnaBhai is liable for trespass to chattel as he intentionally committed the tort.
(c) MunnaBhai is not liable for trespass to chattel as he interfered with his land and house.
(d) MunnaBhai is a goon and should be punished.

MOCK CLAT #05
83. Apurv bets with his friends that since his wallet is old, he will pick someone’s pocket and use their wallet.
Apurv acts on this bet and picks Baikunth’s pocket. Decide
(a) Apurv is liable for trespass to chattel as he intentionally picked Baikunth’s pocket
(b) Apurv is not liable for trespass to chattel as he did not specifically announce evil intent against
Baikunth
(c) Apurv is liable for trespass to chattel. Intent against specific person is not required.
(d) Apurv is not liable for trespass to chattel as he only acted in pursuit of a bet
84. A is B’s friend. A wants to take his book lying in B’s cupboard and asks for the lock code to his cupboard.
B refused. A was curious about what was lying in B’s cupboard so he spiked A’s water with a medicine
that made him feel drowsy. A asked B for his lock code and B told him. A accessed B’s cupboard and
took a valuable book away.
(a) A is liable for trespass to chattel as he intentionally deprived B of his property.
(b) A is not liable for trespass to chattel for he took B’s consent before accessing his cupboard
(c) A is liable for trespass to chattel as B’s consent was not free
(d) A is not liable for trespass to chattel
85. Please refer to the facts above. A’s book had been kept by B for a long while now. Despite repeated
reminders, B did not return the same. A sneaked into B’s cupboard and took his own book. However, it
turns out that A did not take his book but B’s book by mistake.
(a) A is liable for trespass to chattel as he intentionally deprived B of his property.
(b) A is not liable for trespass to chattel for he took B’s consent before accessing his cupboard
(c) A is liable for trespass to chattel as mistake of ownership is not a valid defence
(d) A is not liable for trespass to chattel as B was not giving his book
Passage (Q.86-Q.91):Extortion is a criminal offense, which occurs when a person either obtains money
or property from another through coercion or intimidation or threatens one with physical harm unless they
are paid money or property. Euphemistically, refraining from doing harm is sometimes called protection.
Extortion is commonly practiced by organized crime groups. The actual obtainment of money or property
is not required to commit the offense. Making a threat of violence or a lawsuit which refers to a
requirement of a payment of money or property to halt future violence or lawsuit is sufficient to commit
the offense.
Section 383. Extortion.—Whoever intentionally puts any person in fear of any injury to that person, or to
any other, and thereby dishonestly induces the person so put in fear to deliver to any person any property
or valuable security, or anything signed or sealed which may be converted into a valuable security,
commits “extortion”.
The element of dishonesty is the essence of this offence. The chiefelement in the offence of extortion is
that the inducement must be dishonest. Itis not sufficient that there should be wrongful loss caused to an
individual butthe person putting that individual in fear of injury must have the intention that wrongful loss
should be caused. Where the accused honestly believed that thecomplainant had taken the money
belonging to him (the accused), an attemptto get it back cannot be said to be with the intention of causing
wrongful loss tohim.
The essential elements of the crime of extortion can be enumerated as:
1. It should be shown that there was a force to create threat or fear in the victim of the wrongful act.
2. The wrongdoer must be having some interest in putting the victim under fear of any sort of threat or
injury.
3. There should be the presence of a dishonest intention.
4. Such threat or fear of injury in is caused on to the other person in order to force him to transfer any of
his property or any other valuable item.

MOCK CLAT #05
86. K on finding out that Z has been having an affair outside of his marriage, threatens to publish a
defamatory libel concerning Z unless Z gives him money. Z refuses to do so. Has K has committed
extortion?
(a) No, as K has not threatened any harm or injury to his person.
(b) No, as Z has not handed him any money, hence there was no loss.
(c) Yes, as K has caused a fear of injury to reputation in turn of causing him wrongful loss.
(d) Yes, as K has dishonest intention to get a wrongful gain out of Z’s predicament.
87. Z threatens D to sit inside his vehicle without causing any ruckus or he would harm him physically. Later
he called the family members of D to ask for ransom for the release of D or he would cause him harm.
Can Z have been said to cause extortion?
(a) No as Z did not threaten D to cause himself any wrongful gain or loss of valuable property to D.
(b) Yes, as Z caused a fear of injury to D for non-compliance to his measures.
(c) No, as Z caused extortion against D’s family, but to D it is not extortion but could be a case of
abduction.
(d) Yes, as Z has extorted both D and his family by threatening injury in turn for unlawful gain of valuable
property.
88. ‘A’ threatens Z that he will keep Z’s child in wrongful confinement, unless Z will sign and deliver to ‘A’ a
promissory note binding Z to pay certain monies to A. Z signs and delivers the note. Decide?
(a) Yes, as there was the presence of a dishonest intention.
(b) Yes, as it was in order to force him to transfer any of his property or any other valuable item.
(c) No, as there was no threat of injury to his person, it was to his son.
(d) No, as there was no dishonest intention as promissory note is a future contract and does not require
immediate transfer of valuable property.
89. A, by putting Z in fear of grievous hurt, dishonestly induces Z to sign or affix his seal to a blank paper and
deliver it to A. Z signs and delivers the paper to A. Has A committed extortion?
(a) Yes, it is as the blank paper can be turned to valuable security later.
(b) Yes, as he has threatened injury to Z for unlawful purposes.
(c) No, as a blank paper is not a valuable property, hence he couldn’t have extorted him for any wrongful
loss.
(d) No, as all the elements of extortion are not fulfilled in the above instance.
90. Mr. Y, unhappy with his daughter’s choice of groom, threated to harm himself if she did not break of such
engagement and marry a boy of his choice. Scared for her father’s life, she agreed and broke of the
bond. Has Mr. Y committed extortion?
(a) Yes, as he induced harm and injury to force her to commit an act against her will.
(b) No, as did not aim to have any gain of property through this act.
(c) Yes, as he had dishonest intention to achieve his will in her marriage.
(d) No, as family matters are not in the subject matter of extortion.
91. Bank of Hindustan, used to give out small loans against collateral to their customers. Mr. Z took a loan
against his Car and had to return the same with interest in certain installments. When a few installments
failed, the bank warned him against seizing his car in case of next default. Mr. Z filed a suit of extortion.
Decide.
(a) Yes, as the bank aims to harm the property of Z for gain of money.
(b) No, as the bank is duly owed that sum along with the collateral, and it’s not a dishonest intention.
(c) No, as the bank has a right to make any threats in case of defaulting customer.
(d) Yes, as inducing fear to gain is enough to establish extortion regardless of the fact that the loss was
caused or not.

MOCK CLAT #05
Passage (Q.92-Q.95):In the wake of the migrant crisis, several states have amended existing labour
laws, either suspending them altogether or increasing working hours. It is axiomatic that these
amendments must be in consonance with the fundamental rights guaranteed to labour, as also the
Directive Principles of State Policy which enjoin the state to further the interests of labour in its policies.
Any legal changes will inevitably be challenged in court and must meet constitutional standards to survive
such a challenge.
To be compelled to work violates Article 23 of the Constitution of India, which provides a “right against
exploitation” prohibiting human trafficking, begar, and forced labour. In PUDR vs Union of India (1982),
the Supreme Court held that laws protecting contract labour and inter-state migrant workmen were
intended to ensure basic human dignity; violating these laws would violate the right to life under Article
21. In PUDR, the Court also noted that no one would willingly work for less than the minimum wage
without some force or compunction. Yet, rather than encouraging workers to return by securing wages
and improving working conditions, the amendments introduced by the states are removing basic labour
law protections.
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), though unenforceable, are constitutionally-mandated
goals for the State to work towards when making laws. The DPSP enjoin the State to ensure that the
“operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of
production to the common detriment” (Article 39), to “make effective provision for securing the right to
work” (Article 41), “to secure to all workers a living wage, conditions of work ensuring a decent standard
of life.” (Article 43). It is tempting to see the pandemic as a once-in-a-lifetime opportunity to push through
labor reforms. Even so, it is unclear that the whole scale abrogation of the labor law system benefits
either labor or industry. If anything, this is an apt moment for the governments, at both the Centre and in
the states, to renew their commitment to the DPSP.
92. A competent court passed a sentence to a convict providing for a rigorous imprisonment for a period of
seven years. In furtherance to the same, the jailor assigns the prisoner for breaking stones and puts him
as a labourer for an ongoing construction operation inside the jail. The prisoner has not consented for
doing such manual work. Further, he challenges the work to be forced and thus violative of Article 23.
Decide.
(a) The jailor has committed an offence putting him for work against his will.
(b) The jailor has committed no offence as the circumstances would alter in case of a prisoner.
(c) The jailor has committed an offence due to absence of remuneration.
(d) The jailor has committed no offence but the court provided for rigorous imprisonment.
93. Meethesh has a family of 6 members. He is sole bread earner of the family which puts an excessive
financial burden on him. Due to such circumstances, he decides to work in the factory of Mr Bajaj at a
rate less than the minimum wage. Whether this would amount to forced labour? Decide.
(a) This cannot be considered forced labour as it is out of willingness of Meethesh.
(b) This cannot be considered forced labour as he is paid for the services from by him.
(c) This cannot be considered as forced labour but would be a violation of DPSP.
(d) This can be considered as forced labour as due to the external factors the consent is not free.
94. Aman is a diligent and laborious employee. He works for Namit who runs his own business. With an
intention of further growth, Aman decides to work at a different place. When Namit finds out, he threatens
him of false prosecution and imprisonment on account of a false charge of stealing from the business.
This was done to retain him in the business. Would this amount to forced labor. Decide.
(a) No, it would be covered under malicious prosecution.
(b) No, as reasonable compensation is being paid to Aman by Namit.
(c) Yes, as the willingness is induced by threat of prosecution and imprisonment.
(d) Yes, as the remuneration was not enough so he intended to shift to a different place.

MOCK CLAT #05
95. Mannu Singh is a daily wage worker who took a loan of Rs. 35,000/- from the moneylender, Maniram.
The loan was to be utilised for the purposes of marriage of the daughter of Mannu Singh. In exchange of
the loan, Maniram asked Mannu to work on his farm for a period of 15 years where he shall be provided
with food, shelter and a remuneration of Rs. 500 every month. Constrained by the circumstances, Mannu
Singh accepts the offer. A welfare organisation finds out about the arrangement and files a petition on the
ground thatMannu Singh is being forced to work. Decide.
(a) The petition will not succeed as the Mannu is being provided with food and shelter along with the
remuneration.
(b) The petition will not succeed as the arrangement is entered into by the consent of Mannu Singh.
(c) The petition will succeed as this amount to exploitation by Maniram.
(d) The petition will succeed due to lack of free consent.
Passage (Q.96-Q.101):Rape is a crime, which has a devastating effect on the survivors; it has been
described as a “beginning of a nightmare”. The aftershocks include depression, fear, guilt-complex,
suicidal-action, diminished sexual interest. etc., “one becomes afraid of’……..writes a victim, “half the
human race”. Referring to the pitiable condition of women in society Mr. Justice S. Ahmad observed that
“unfortunately, a woman in our country, belongs to a class or group of society who are in a
disadvantaged position on account of several social barriers and impediments and have therefore, been
victims of tyranny at the hands of men with whom they, unfortunately, under the Constitution “enjoy,
equal status”. “Women also have the right to life and liberty; they also have the right to be respected and
treated as equal citizens. Their honour and dignity cannot be touched or violated. They also have the
right to lead an honorable and peaceful life”. Rape is a stigma which exists in the society from a long
time. The dictionary meaning of word rape is “the ravishing or violation of a woman.” She is traumatized
after the event; it is very difficult for a woman to come out of this trauma. Rape in India is a cognizable
offence. There are many provisions in various Acts. The word rape is legally defined u/s 375 of Indian
Penal Code, 1860. It defines the rape and also prescribes its punishment. Whenever a man penetrates or
does sexual intercourse with a woman without her consent or will it amounts to rape. Penetration here
means that only a slightest of the touch of penis to vagina amounts to rape, unruptured hymen of woman
does not prove that rape was not committed.
The Supreme Court has expressed strong disapproval of courts casting a stigma on the victim’s
character, but stigmatization continues, leading to acquittals. Setting aside one acquittal by a Ludhiana
court that labeled the victim with ‘loose character’ while interpreting her consent to sex, the Supreme
Court in a 1996 judgment said, “The trial court interpreted that the victim was habituated to sexual
intercourse just because the speculum the doctor used entered her vagina easily and hence she was of
loose character. These observations lack sobriety expected of a judge. No stigma should be cast against
a victim of sex crime who is on trial”.
96. Madhur meets Anisha at a party where both of them exchange pleasantries. After a while, when both of
them are alone Madhur imposes himself on Anisha and forcefully engages into a sexual intercourse even
when she protests for the same. Decide.
(a) This shall amount to rape due to absence of consent by Anisha.
(b) This shall not amount to rape due to an exchange of pleasantries.
(c) This shall amount to rape due to a sexual intercourse between them
(d) This shall not amount to rape but shall fall under assault.
97. Disha and Harsh have known each other for a long time and have engaged in sexual intercourse at
various instances. All such sexual intercourses involved the consent of the individuals. However, at one
instance, both the individuals had a sexual intercourse for which Disha did not consent to. Whether this
would amount to the offence of Rape. Decide.
(a) This shall not amount to rape as they had sexual intercourse at earlier occasions for which she
consented to.
(b) This shall not amount to rape as consent is vague in the last case.
(c) This shall amount to rape as there was no consent and previous consent is not relevant.

MOCK CLAT #05
98. Apoorva went to get together of her college friends. Ramesh was also there and both of then exchanged
a pleasant conversation. They decided to engage in a sexual activity. Apoorva consented to one
particular type of sexual activity. However, when they got to the point of intercourse, she withdrew her
consent. Would this amount to the offence of Rape? Decide.
(a) No, as she consented for the sexual activity before the beginning of the intercourse.
(b) No, as such withdrawal at such a later stage would not amount to withdrawal.
(c) Yes, as she withdrew her consent for that particular sexual activity.
(d) Yes, as she consented for only one type of sexual activity.
99. Rahul engaged in a sexual intercourse with Simran who was 15 years old. The parents of Simran decide
to file a case against Rahul for the offence of rape. However, he contends that the intercourse had the
consent of Simran therefore cannot be categorized as rape. Decide.
(a) Rahul is not liable as the act was consented by Simran.
(b) Rahul is not liable as the parents cannot file the case bur only Simran
(c) Rahul is liable as the consent of Simran cannot be considered a valid consent.
(d) Rahul is liable as the parents of Simran can decide for their daughter.
100. Choose an appropriate reason of the following for the lack of gender neutral laws:
(a) Women are the ones who are the victims of such heinous crime.
(b) Women cannot commit rape due to biological reasons.
(c) Men are the aggressors in the majority of the cases.
(d) Women are the disadvantaged group due to stunted societal structure so they need more protection.
101. Robin is a police officer who met Malaika at a party. After the party, he told her that if she did not engage
into a sexual intercourse with him then he would put her in jail and harass the family members on account
of the powers he possess through his profession. They both enter into a sexual activity wherein she does
not protest or explicitly resist. Decide.
(a) Robin shall be liable as the consent was obtained by threat.
(b) Robin shall not be liable as there was no explicit resistance.
(c) Robin shall not liable due the existence of inherent consent.
(d) Robin shall be liable for coercion but not the offence of rape.
Passage (Q.102-Q.106):The Indian Penal Code provides some general defences under chapter four that
exonerate criminal liability which based on the premise that though the person committed the offence, he
cannot be held liable. This is because at the time of commission of offence, person was justified of
his/her acts, or there was absence of mensrea. However, it is not all acts that are to be punished. There
are certain defences provided under the ambit of Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 from Sections 76 to 106.
Mistake of fact arises when accused misunderstood some fact that negates an element of crime. This
legal weapon can be used, where accused succeeds to prove that he/she was mistaken to the existence
of some facts or ignorant of the existence of such facts. It is a condition that such mistake must pertain to
fact not law. Section 76 and 79 of IPC contains the provision of mistake of fact. Such mistake must be
reasonable and must be of fact and not of law. The legal maxim, "ignorantiafactiexcusatiignorantiajuris
non excusat" which means ignorance of fact is an excuse, but ignorance of law is no excuse. So it is a
basic requirement to be get protected under the sphere of this defence that mistake must be of fact.
Section 76: Act done by a person bound, or by mistake of fact believing himself bound, by law.Nothing is
an offence which is done by a person who is, or who by reason of a mistake of fact and not by reason of
a mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be, bound by law to do it.
Section 79: Act done by a person justified, or by mistake of fact believing himself justified, by law.Nothing
is an offence which is done by any person who is justified by law, or who by reason of a mistake of fact
and not by reason of a mistake of law in good faith, believes himself to be justified by law, in doing it.
Thus, the general defences enshrined under IPC are of paramount importance in establishing the
parameters of criminal offences. Criminal liability makes a person liable for the acts which are prohibited
by law. Indian Penal Code took cognizance of fact that all acts are not to be punished. The acts devoid of
mensrea are exempted from criminal liability.

MOCK CLAT #05
102. Before going to the Church, Zeeshan fired the gun and left it empty. However, during his absence,
Chester visits the house and takes the gun for shooting and while keeping it back leaves it loaded. Later
on the same day, Zeeshan takes the gun and touches the trigger. The gun goes off and kills his wife who
was sitting in front of him. Decide.
(a) Zeeshan is guilty because he was negligent and that killed the wife.
(b) Zeeshan is not guilty as he was under a mistake of fact.
(c) Zeeshan is guilty and liability should be absolute.
(d) Zeeshan is guilty as such a weapon should be handled with great care.
103. Chulbul is a renowned police officer who is ordered to catch a dangerous criminal named Hari Pandey.
After due enquiry in good faith, Chulbul, believing Prasoon to be Hari Pandey, arrests him. Decide the
liability of arresting a wrong individual and curtailing his fundamental rights.
(a) Chulbul will be liable as this impacted the fundamental rights of Prasoon.
(b) Chulbul will be liable as his enquiry was deficient making an innocent suffer.
(c) Chulbul will not be liable as he was acting under the orders.
(d) Chulbul will not be liable since he acted in good faith.
104. A complaint was made by a nurse engaged with a civil dispensary against the accused who was the
President of the Municipal office at that moment. He wrote a letter to the surgeon on the basis of the
allegations made by the renowned men of the community that the nurse had a bad reputation for having
illicit relations with a lot of men. The letter indicated that the accused approved of such allegations on the
nurse. However, there existed no proof that there was an enquiry made on such facts. Decide.
(a) The President of the Municipal office is not liable as it could be mistake of fact.
(b) The President of the Municipal office is not liable as he did not say anything about the nurse.
(c) The President of the Municipal office is not liable as he just the information further.
(d) The President of the Municipal office is liable as he failed to take due care.
105. Seeta and Geeta had a strained relationship. At one instance, certain expensive utensils were stolen
from the house of Seeta so she thought of a plan to catch hold of the thief. She thought that the thief
would come to the only village pond to fetch water and at that moment she will get hold of it. In
pursuance to the same, she hid herself behind a tree and when she saw Geeta filing water in the utensils
gave a blow with a lathi on her head. Geeta sustained injuries and filed a case against Seeta. Decide.
(a) Seeta is not liable as this would be considered a mistake of fact.
(b) Seeta is not liable as she was just trying to recover her stolen property.
(c) Seeta is liable as there was a complete lack of good faith.
(d) Seeta is liable as Geeta sustained injuries because of her blow.
106. Jadegas & Sons is a renowned firm in the business of import and export. They have been dealing with
edible and non-edible oil since the last fifty years. On one day, they were charged with the offence of
importing non- edible coconuts oil under an open general license. They pleaded that they believed it to
be a non-canalized item and therefore acted in good faith. Decide.
(a) They are not liable as the factual information suggest that they acted in good faith.
(b) They are liable as such act cannot be considered bona fide when they have been functioning for such
a long period.
(c) They are liable as the act was under mistake of law which is not excusable.
(d) They are not liable as they did not possess any dishonest intention.

MOCK CLAT #05
Passage (Q.107-Q.111):Like all other animals, our species evolved by gradual processes of natural
selection that equipped us to survive and reproduce within a certain environmental niche. Unlike other
animals, however, our species managed to escape its inherited biological role and take control of its own
destiny. It began to innovate, actively reshaping its way of life, its environment and, eventually, the planet
itself. How did we do it? What set our species, Homo sapiens, apart from the rest?
Searching for just one event, a decisive change in culture or brain structure, would probably be a
mistake.
What caused our species to break out of the pattern set by archaic humans? Again, there were probably
many factors. But from my perspective as someone who studies the human mind, one development
stands out as of special importance. There is a mental ability we possess today that must have emerged
at some point in our history, and whose emergence would have vastly enhanced our ancestors’ creative
powers.
The ability I mean is that of hypothetical thinking – the ability to detach one’s mind from the here and
now, and consciously think about other possibilities. This is the key to sustained innovation and creativity,
and to the development of art, science and technology.
How did hypothetical thinking develop? I want to introduce two suggestions, one by the Israeli linguist
Daniel Dor, the other by the American philosopher Daniel Dennett. Neither is directly about hypothetical
thinking but, combined, they offer a compelling picture of how humans acquired the capacity for it.
Dor’s proposal, made in his book The Instruction of the Imagination (2015), is about the nature and
origins of language. In outline, the story is this. As their societies became more collaborative, archaic
humans needed to communicate in more complex ways, warning, assisting, advising and instructing each
other. They did this pantomime-fashion, using gestures, expressions and vocal mimicry to direct attention
to what they meant. Their object was what Dor calls ‘experiential mutual-identification’– to get their
interlocutors to share and acknowledge their experience, to see what they saw, feel what they felt, react
as they reacted. They were highly skilled at it. Yet this experiential-mimetic form of communication had a
serious limitation. Because it worked by sharing experience, it was limited to communication about things
that were on hand to be experienced.
107. Which of the following, if true, will strengthen the argument that no single event is responsible for a
decisive change in culture or brain structure?
(a) The lifestyle of archaic humans remained largely static over vast periods of time, with few, if any,
signs of artistic activity or technical innovation.
(b) For more than 1.5 million years, archaic humans (earlier Homo species, such as Homo erectus) had
been slowly diverging from the other great apes, developing a way of life marked by increased
collaboration.
(c) Things started to change only in the past 300,000 years, with the emergence of our own species and
our cousins the Neanderthals, and even then the pace of change didn’t quicken much until 40-60,000
years ago.

(a) Archaic humans, in all probability, didn’t possess hypothetical thinking ability.
(b) Hypothetical thinking ability is the core reason why the archaic human emerged as a dominant
species.
(c) Natural selection is closely linked with the ability to think hypothetically.
(d) Archaic humans lacked the ability to think actively.

MOCK CLAT #05
109. Which of the following is true about hypothetical thinking?

(a) We do not know exactly how it developed.
(b) Daniel Dor’s and Daniel Dennett’s works have together helped us understand how exactly
hypothetical thinking developed.
(c) Daniel Dor’s and Daniel Dennett’s are both related to hypothetical thinking, and together offer a
compelling picture of how humans acquired the capacity for it.
110. Which of the following best explains how “experiential mutual-identification” works?
(a) You could communicate that there was a wolf approaching only if you could get your hearers to see
the creature for themselves.
(b) You could communicate that there was a wolf approaching by the use of hand gestures.
(c) You couldn’t communicate about a wolf approaching at all
(d) You could communicate that there was a wolf approaching by the use of sounds.
111. Which of the following would have been true about archaic humans?
(a) The static nature of their lifestyle suggests that they lived in the present, their attention locked on to
the world, and their behaviour driven by habit and environmental stimuli.
(b) In the course of their daily activities, they might accidentally hit on a better way of doing something,
and so gradually acquire new habits and skills, but they didn’t actively think up innovations for
themselves.
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
Passage (Q.112-Q.117):At first glance, the holy basil is little more than an unprepossessing plant. It has
purplish flowers and broad, flat leaves that track sunlight throughout the day. However, it's what the basil
does at night that has propelled this humble plant into the scientific spotlight. Hours before the dawn, it
springs into action, turning its leaves to face the anticipated direction of the sunrise. The basil seems to
remember where and when the sun has come up on previous days, and acts to make sure it can gather
as much light energy as possible each morning. When scientists try to confuse basilsin their labs by
swapping the location of the light source, the plants simply learn the new orientation.
What does it even mean to say that a basil can learn and remember the location of the sunrise?The idea
that plants can behave intelligently, let alone learn or form memories, was a fringe notion until quite
recently. Memories are thought to be so fundamentally cognitive that some theorists argue that they’re a
necessary and sufficient marker of whether an organism can do the most basic kinds of thinking.Surely
memory requires a brain, and plants lack even the rudimentary nervous systems of bugs and worms.
However, over the past decade or so, this view has been forcefully challenged. The basil isn't an
anomaly.Plants are not simply organic, passive automata. We now know that they can sense and
integrate information about dozens of different environmental variables, and that they use this knowledge
to guide flexible, adaptive behaviour.
For example, plants can recognise whether nearby plants are kin or unrelated, and adjust their foraging
strategies accordingly. The flowerPortulaceagrandifloraaka moss rose, is one of several species that
tends to devote a greater share of resources to growing leaves rather than roots when put with strangers
– atactic apparently geared towards competing for sunlight, an imperative that is diminished when you
are growing next to your siblings. Plants also mount complex, targeted defences in response to
recognising specific predators. The small, flowering Arabidopsis thaliana, aka thale or mouse-ear cress,
can detect the vibrations caused by caterpillars munching on it and so releases oils and chemicals to
repel the insects.
Plants also communicate with one another, and other organisms, such as parasites and microbes, using
a variety of channels - including ‘mycorrhizal networks’ of fungus that link up the root systems of multiple

MOCK CLAT #05
plants, like some kind of subterranean internet. Perhaps it's not really so surprising, then,that plants learn
and use memories for prediction and decision making.
112. Which of the following can be inferred about holy basil from the passage?
1. it is generally considered unattractive.
2. its leaves adjust themselves to face the direction and time of sunrise
3. all the light energy it needs for a day, it gathers in the early hours of the morning
4. it has been proven to have cognitive abilities.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4

(a) describing a recent discovery about holy basil.
(b) disproving a long held notion about distinction between humans and plants
(c) providing evidence to support a putative theory about plant behaviour
(d) analysing contrasting studies about cognitive abilities to arrive at a conclusion.
114. Why does the author refer to mycorrhizal networks?

(a) to give example of a defence mechanism used by plants against parasites and microbes
(b) to prove that even fungus is a type of plant
(c) to point at a possible inspiration for invention of the internet.
(d) to suggest a possible way the plants learn from each other
115. Which of the following does the author provide as a reason for a recent change in scientific beliefs?
(a) plant behaviour shows strong signs of memory despite not having a nervous system.
(b) plants do not have even a rudimentary nervous system
(c) plants can identify the difference between friends and foes, and control their growth accordingly.
(d) memories are fundamentally cognitive, and therefore necessary for thinking

1. plants have life and movement, but no higher intelligence
2. basil learn to orientthemselves to the light source even in laboratories.
3. plants can differentiate harmless agents from harmful ones and design appropriate defence
mechanisms
4. nature has enough evidence that cognition is not essentially related to memory.
117. The author provides which of the following examples to argue that plants can learn from memory ?
(a) The adjustment of basil leaves towards the direction of sunrise
(b) the defence strategy of Arabidopsis thaliana.
(c) the interplant network of fungus
(d) all the above.
Passage (Q.118-Q.123):Adam Smith is the best known of all economists, and is typically hailed as the
founding father of the dismal science itself.Furthermore, he’s usually portrayed as not only an early
champion of economic theory, but of the superiority of markets over government planning. In other words,
Smith is now known both, as the founder of economics, and as an ideologue for the political Right. Yet,
despite being widely believed, both these claims are at best misleading, and at worst outright false.
Smith’s popular reputation as an economist is a remarkable twist of fate for a man who spent most of his
life as a somewhat reclusive academic thinker. Employed as professor of moral philosophy at the
University of Glasgow, the majority of Smith’s teaching was in ethics, politics, jurisprudence and rhetoric,
and for most of his career he was known for his first book,‘TheTheory Of Moral Sentiments’.His
professional identity was firmly that of a philosopher - not least because the discipline of
‘economics’didn’t emerge until the 19th century, by which time Smith was long dead. He died in July
1790, just as the French revolution was getting into full swing.

MOCK CLAT #05
Admittedly, Smith's reputation as an economist isn't entirely mysterious.His oft-quoted ‘An Inquiry Into
The Nature And Causes Of The Wealth Of Nations’ was undoubtedly important in the eventual formation
- in the next century - of the discipline of economics.But even here things are not as straightforward as
they appear. For ‘the wealth of nations’ – a 1000 page doorstopper that blends history,ethics, psychology
and political philosophy - bears little resemblance to the ahistorical and highly mathematical nature of
most current economic theory. If anything,Smith’sbest known book is a work of political economy, a once-
prevalent field of enquiry that suffered a striking decline in the latter half of the 20th century.
Smith’s reputation, however, began to get away from him early on.Shortly after publication,‘the wealth of
nations’ was fêted in the British Parliament by the Whig leader Charles James Fox. Ironically,Fox later
admitted that he had never actually read it.Indeed,Smith suspected that those quickest to sing his praises
had failed to understand the main arguments of his work.He later described ‘the wealth of nations’ as a
‘very violent attack upon the whole commercial system of Great Britain’.Despite this, his vocal political
cheerleaders in Parliament continued to prop up the very system that Smith was railing against.

1. economics is significantly different from politics and philosophy
2. economics came into worldwide recognition only after 18th century
3. theextensive use of mathematics in current economic theory violates basic premise of economics
4. many people who admired Smiths work, did it through mere hearsay.
119. The author is likely to agree with which of the following?

(a) economics as we know today is a pseudoscience
(b) the political theory of Right advocates that government should not control markets.
(c) Adam Smith'sfirst book, ‘the theory of moral sentiments’deserves greater appreciation than his other
book ‘the wealth of nations’
(d) Adam Smith’s‘wealth of nations’ is one of the longest book ever written.
120. Why does the author criticize current economic theory?

(a) because it supports markets over government planning.
(b) because Adam Smith would not have supported the basic tenets of current economic theory.
(c) because it relies extensively on mathematics
(d) becauseinprinciples,it has departed from the work that is considered the origin of economics, and that
blended history,ethics, psychology, and political philosophy.
121. The primary idea of the passage is that

(a) Adam Smith did not like being called an economist
(b) those who call Adam Smith the father of economics, are wrong
(c) themisinterpretation of Adam Smith’s ideologies was coincidental
(d) the current economic theory has been intentionally incorrectly linked to the ideas propagated by
Adam Smith
122. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

(a) Adam Smith is the proponent of the political Right
(b) Adam Smith's work greatly helped establish modern economic theory
(c) Adam Smith was highly critical of the politico-economic scenario of Great Britain in 18th century
(d) Adam Smith despised most of those who applauded him.
123. Why does the author refer to the confession of Charles James Fox?
(a) to suggest that Adam Smith's work was too difficult to understand for most people of his times.
(b) to prove that pretence was rampant amongst British politicians during that time.
(c) to highlight how Adam Smith was applauded by those he criticized.
(d) to imply that the British Parliament unanimously considered ‘the wealth of nations’ a seminal work in
economics.

MOCK CLAT #05
124. Domestic air travel in India is not, of course, a monopoly. Indian airlines have had to contend with some
competition for many years now. But where liberalization and increased competition have lowered prices
and benefited consumers in a number of sectors, the price of domestic air travel has been remarkably
sticky. One reason is the comfortable co-habitation with Indian Airlines as the price leader. But its
privately-owned competition has been gradually intensifying, and improving the quality of service. A price
war is unlikely, however, as these airlines have, over time, learnt to live together.
Which of the following, if true, would cast most doubt on the accuracy of the prediction made in the last
sentence?
(a) The increasing efforts to improve service are most visible in the private airlines.
(b) Many private airlines are funded by conglomerates that see reduced prices as the most effective way
of gaining market share.
(c) Indian Airlines operates a pricing policy that is hard to match for any private organization.
(d) The private airlines cannot afford to lower their prices, as unlike Indian Airlines, they do not have a
large enough customer base to make this profitable.
Passage (Q.125-Q.129):An oracle was not required to tell me that I would suffer from cancer. Given my
family history (two uncles with prostate cancer, brother Barnes with lymphoma cancer, nieceKirstenDunst
– who never smoked – with lung cancer), I’ve long felt that it wasn’t so much a matter of “if,” but of
“when.” Still, last year, when I noticed that a mole on my elbow suddenly seemed darker than usual, my
“matter-of-fact” attitude faded, and I went into denial mode. “Whatever it is, it’s not serious,” I told myself.
“It’s always looked that way.” And when I could no longer ignore the voice in my head – the one that
knew better – I delayed for a few more weeks with the tried-and-true excuse of “I just don’t have time for
this right now.” As someone who is a health blogger, I know just how quickly a person’s health status can
change when they adamantly deny to get tested. Yet there I was, intentionally ignoring a symptom that I
would have told anyone else to get checked out, instantly. When I finally did see my family physician for
something unrelated, I mentioned it on as a “By the way,” to the end of the appointment. Sure enough, it
was melanoma. Ignoring symptoms of a disease with a high mortality rate is a surprisingly common
phenomenon, says Dr. WilliamLensch, Chief of Staffandprofessor at the Harvard Medical School, Boston.
“People will cognitively avoid things they don’t want to be real; it’s a natural defence mechanism,” he
says. Studies have shown the different ways it manifests – from using humour, to complete denial to
acknowledge that an illness might exist. “Many people delay seeing their doctors, and won’t even tell
their spouses,” Dr. Lensch says. And when they finally make an appointment, they tend to minimize their
symptoms. “Patients will lead the discussion in a certain way, so that the doctor will be more likely to
reassure them,” he says, which means that doctors often don’t get a true history and may make important
decisions based on inaccurate information. Denying that something is amiss, Lensch says, leads to
delayed diagnosis and treatment, and poorer outcomes. So why do otherwise rational people take an “if I
don’t see it, it isn’t there” approach to symptoms that can have a perilous effect on their health?
125. If the statements in the given passage are true, then which of the following would also be true?
(a) Doctors must find a way to help patients being calm and evade any warning signs of health risks.
(b) Doctors must find a way to help patients acknowledge a serious illness.
(c) Doctors must find a way to help patients manage their health insurance so they have a hassle free
health care experience.
126. Which of the following situations is similar in nature to the one in passage?
I. People will say ‘I’ll deal with it once X or Y is done, then I’ll be in a better place to take some time to
look after it.
II. A study published in the British Journal of General Practice in 2015 found that almost half of
tuberculosis patients realize and act upon early warning signs such as a persistent cough or an
unexplained lump.

MOCK CLAT #05
127. Which of the following is the most logical corollary of the concluding paragraph of the passage?
(a) Dr. Morepen says many people are afraid to even book an appointment because they’re worried
about what a doctor might find.
(b) Males and females have different reasons for going to the doctor. Males go to prove their strength is
untouchable and women go to calm their nerves.
(c) Past studies have shown that people who live in dismal economic conditions are more likely to be
diagnosed late.
(d) When you see a patient like that, you think, ‘How could you possibly have thought this didn’t need to
be dealt with?’
128. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the author’s arguments in the given passage?
(a) In 2015, a study in The Lancet found that only two in six people who have heart attack warning
symptoms call for help.
(b) Dr. Reddy recalls a patient with heart failure who gained 50 pounds before she finally ventured into
the hospital with huge, fluid-laden legs.
(c) We’ve discovered that people are reluctant to even mention the word ‘cancer’ in their responses to
us, almost as though if you mention it, you’re doomed.
(d) In 2016, a study in the New England Journal of Medicine found that visiting a doctor for routine
checks is surprisingly common among geriatric population.
129. In accordance with the passage, which of the following would be the best approach for people to take?
(a) If you are inundated with work, use your workload as a reason for not seeking help.
(b) If you don’t drink, eat in moderation, exercise regularly and are in good shape, there can be nothing
wrong with you.
(c) If you have a health concern and you cannot figure out what to do, you better seek professional
advice.
(d) It is easy for people who have high earnings to visit physicians, but you will manage through self-
examination.
Passage (Q.130-Q.134):Thinking deeply about a writer’s potentially shameful lack of capability to capture
a reader's interest, Francis Bacon has written several times about the experience of starting to write
books. He compared beginning text with the unpleasantness of going to a function without knowing
anyone and guessed that readers often felt revengefully eager in such situations to identify with the
character who tells you what is happening in a book or film. He also related the period before readers
became familiar with an author’s key ideas and idioms to the time before they were toilet trained. Given
how painful this can be, Bacon wondered if one of the reasons we put ourselves through such
discomforts was because we hoped to gain some cognitive privilege as a result.
Take a pause. Take another. Now, take some time before answering the following questions. Having
begun this piece of text, how are you feeling? Were you expecting me to inform you immediately why
Bacon was important; how his ideas related to various cultural historical contexts? if so, don't worry, we'll
get to that soon. As you've probably noticed, though, by addressing you directly, this introduction is taking
a more long-winded route in comparison with other things you must have read, and I am going to
continue in that style for a few pages by offering you not one, but two introductions to Bacon for reasons I
will subsequently explain. The first is autobiography ‘Why me?’ preface; the second answers the question
‘Why Bacon?’ more conventionally.
130. Identify the ‘intelligence’ of the author in writing this piece of text
(a) to introduce, he has written about Bacon’s views on how authors fail to make the reader relate to
them. He attempts to solve this problem by addressing the readers directly in the introduction itself
(b) to introduce, the author has used many unconventional methods which include addressing the reader
directly in the beginning itself

MOCK CLAT #05
(c) the author has, in the beginning itself, accepted the failure on the part of authors to make the readers
relate to the books in the beginning. He has done this so that people don't have high expectations
from him.
(d) the author has given two introductions to Bacon and has not followed the conventional ‘one-
introduction’ archetype.
131. The passage shows the usage of the following:

(a) Oxymoron (b) Hyperbole (c) chiasmus (d) analogy
132. By taking up the example of a ‘Function’ to explain how the readers feel during the beginning of a text,
which of the following assumption has been made by Bacon.
(a) people often get invited to functions where they do not know anyone.
(b) people, in general, do not enjoy functions
(c) all people feel the need to relate to someone when they go to a function where they do not know
anyone.
(d) most people generally feel the need to relate to someone when they go to a function where they do
not know anyone.
133. It can be inferred that:

(a) the author questions Bacon’s importance in the passage.
(b) the author feels that starting a book is like going to a function without knowing anyone.
(c) ‘why me’ part of the book is more conventional then ‘why Bacon’ part of the book
(d) while writing, the author chooses a long-winded route over a straight one when he has a reason for it
134. This passage could be an excerpt taken from which of the following?
(a) introduction of a book on Bacon
(b) an excerpt from how to write a book
(c) a literary article on Bacon
(d) a paper presented on literary criticism
Direction (Q.135): Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Six persons M, N, O, P, Q and R are having different heights. N is taller to P. M is taller to R but shorter
to P. At least one person is shorter to R. The number of person taller to Q is same as shorter to O. Q is
taller to M.
135. Who among the following is the shortest in thegroup?

(a) O (b) R (c) P (d) N
136. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number/alphabetic series?
X24C3, V22E5, T20G7, ______?
(a) R16I7 (b) R17I9 (c) R18I9 (d) R19I8

MOCK CLAT #05
Directions (Q.137-Q.141):Given below is the bar graph which shows the percentage of persons who like
three different types of fruits in five different cities. Study the data and answer the following questions.
Note: One person like only one type of fruit.
100%
90%
80%
percentage of persons
70%
60%
50% Mango
40% Banana
30% Apple
20%
10%
0%
A B C D E
City
137. If difference between number of persons who like apple to persons who like banana in city A is 51 while
average number of person who like mango and apple in city B is 765, then find the ratio of total number
of person in city A to total number of person in city B.
(a) 3:5 (b) 2:5 (c) 1: 3 (d) 3 : 7
138. Find the total number of person in city D. If total number of persons in city D is 200% more than that of in
city C, while difference between number of person who like banana in city D to number of person who like
apple in city C is 588.
(a) 1680 (b) 7840 (c) 3920 (d) 5040
139. Find the total number of person in city E who like Apple if difference between number of person who like
Apple and Mango together and number of person who like Mango and banana together in city E is Rs
240.
(a) 950 (b) 280 (c) 230 (d) 640
140. If Difference between number of person who like apple in city D to person who like Mango in city E is
2100 while sum of number of person who like Mango in city D and number of person who like banana in
city E is 4100, then find total number of person in city D is what percent more than that in city E?
(a) 75% (b) 300% (c) 150% (d) 175%
141. Find total number of person in city B, if ratio of number of person in city A to City B is 2 : 3 and total
number of person in city A & city B together who like apple is 816.
(a) 510 (b) 1020 (c) 1530 (d) 2040

MOCK CLAT #05
Directions (Q.142- Q.146): These questions are based on the following diagram.
Circle A represents even numbers from 2 to 50.

Circle B represents odd numbers from 2 to 50.
Circle C, represents prime numbers from 2 to 50.
142. How many elements are there in set A only?

(a) 25 (b) 24 (c) 23 (d) 22
143. How many elements are there in set B only?

(a) 14 (b) 25 (c) 10 (d) 13
144. How many elements are there in B n C?

(a) 14 (b) 11 (c) 24 (d) 13
145. How many elements are there in A n C?

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
146. How many elements are there in C' (complement of C)?

(a) 35 (b) 25 (c) 34 (d) 14
Directions (Q.147-Q.150): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.
From a class a total of 200 students appeared in an examination consisting three papers P1, P2 and P3.
56% of students passed in paper P1, 63% passed in P2 and 56.5% passed in P3. 11% students passed
only in paper P1 and P2, 8% passed only in paper P1 and P3, and 22% students passed in all three
papers.
No student failed in all three papers.
147. How many students passed in only paper P2 and P3 but failed in P1?
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 25 (d) 28
148. What is the ratio of the number of students who passed only in paper P2 to the number of students who
passed in P3 only?
(a) 3:2 (b) 4:3 (c) 5:4 (d) 6:5
149. The number of students who passed in paper P1 only is what percentage of the number of students who
passed in only paper P1 and P3 but failed in paper P2?
(a) 187.5% (b) 157.5% (c) 112.5% (d) 97.5%
150. The number of students who passed in at most one paper is what percentage of the total number of
students in the class?
(a) 43.5% (b) 44.5% (c) 45.5% (d) 46.5%

MOCK CLAT #05
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #05
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #06

Candidate Name : _________________
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
Test Centre/Hall.
MOCK CLAT #06
Passage (Q.1-Q.5):The most important empires on the Indian subcontinent- Maurya, Gupta or Mughal-
were far weaker, as I have mentioned, than the Chinese. None was able to do what the Qin dynasty
could, which was to build one of many fortifications that subsequently became the Great Wall of China to
keep invaders out. The wall forced the nomadic Xiongnu back into Central Asia, where they displaced a
series of other tribes. In a knock-on effect, this led the Scythians, or Sakas, to invade northern India, to
be followed by the Yuezhi, who established the Kushan dynasty. The Guptas could not prevent India
from being invaded by another group of tribal nomads from Central Asia, the Huns. Foreign invaders
were able to conquer India partly because of political disunity, but also because no ruler had been able to
penetrate Indian society and had left the internal social order untouched. Just as the Aryans of the Rig
Veda could not erase the traditions of the indigenous Dasas, so too were the later invaders, including the
Muslims and the British, unable to effect social change.
The strong Indian society assimilated the subsequent waves of conquests and migrations-Greeks, Sakas,
Kushans, Huns-in the manner prescribed by the dharma texts. It compartmentalized them rather than
homogenizing them. Since the laws and customs of the new social groups existed prior to the state, kings
were enjoined to uphold the diverse customs of the new social groups. Militant Islamic conquerors also
succumbed to the principle of "ordered heterogeneity. The early Turkic invaders in the twelfth century,
who were required to convert wholesale the conquered peoples by the sword, found the Indian society
too stubborn. Thus, the subcontinent did not become a homogenized Islamic country. Instead, Indian
society compartmentalized the new immigrants. Badaoni, writing in the sixteenth century during Akbar's
rule, says. "As a result of all the influences which were brought to bear on his Majesty, there grew-
gradually as the outline on a stone, the conviction in his heart that there were sensible men in all
religions. Later, Aurangzeb tried to deviate from the principle of 'ordered heterogeneity and endangered
the foundations of the Mughal Empire. The British, too, after some trial and error, yielded to the accepted
practice of the subcontinent and protected the personal laws and customs of the different communities.
1. Why does the author say that the most important empires on the Indian Sub-continent were far weaker
than the Chinese?
(a) No one was effective in keeping the invaders out by fortifying their empires like the Chinese.
(b) Unlike Chinese, no one had amassed treasures.
(c) Indian emperors were petulant unlike Chinese.
(d) Lack of effective diplomacy was the reason for weak Indian Empires.
2. Which one of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

(a) No Indian ruler was able to penetrate the social structure of Indian Society.
(b) Rulers found it too difficult to make the conquered population to follow the religion of the conqueror.
(c) Indian were too amenable when it came to accepting the faith of the conquerors.
(d) None of them.
3. Which of the following is the central idea of the passage?

(a) India is a country where the rulers never won its peoples‘ heart.
(b) Indian society has always remained heterogenic, even in the face multiple invasions.
(c) Indian has time and again homogenized by the different foreign invaders.
(d) Indian subcontinent has never seen a strong empire in its history.
4. Choose:
I. Foreign invaders were able to conquer India because of the political disunity
II. Foreign invaders were able to conquer India as no India ruler was able to penetrate the internal social
order of the society.
(a) Only I is correct
(b) Only two is correct

MOCK CLAT #06
(c) Both I and II are correct

(d) Neither I nor II is correct
5. Which one of the following is an example of the word ‗Heterogeneity‘ used in above passage?
(a) a society or group that includes individuals of differing ethnicities, cultural backgrounds, sexes, or
ages.
(b) a society or group that includes individuals of same ethnicities, cultural backgrounds, sexes, or ages.
(c) A society with the ruler chosen from a single dynasty
Passage (Q.6-Q.10):When European travelers came to India they were stuck by the weakness of
political authority. When the Mughal Empire collapsed in the eighteenth century, India reverted to its
usual dynamic, decentralized society with a weak state. The historian Chris Bayly shows in his book
Rural, Tourism and Bazaars that life continued to thrive in north India's bazaars as merchant
communities quickly adjusted to new circumstances and new opportunities, and he rectifies the old
Victorian stereotype of a static native society as a backdrop to British exploits'. Colonial historians called
the eighteenth-century India's 'black century, in which anarchy had followed the collapse of Mughal
authority, this in turn had given impetus to European expansion, leading eventually to the British Peace
after 1857. Rather than chaos, Bayly calls this time of trouble a period when society was resurgent, as
power became decentralized and commercial. Regional kingdoms emerged after the Mughal Empire
were based on a creative interactionbetween the state and an agrarian society, as new political
entrepreneurs found financial support from merchants and other intermediaries in the bazaar. The limited
nature of the Indian state explains why the Portuguese were able to move into the west coast of India
fairly easily in the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries. The Mughals regarded the Europeans as a threat but
as "pimples on the outer skin of the Empire'. They did not feel threatened because maritime trade was
not worth bothering about. In China, by contrast, the empire controlled the ports strictly and the
Europeans were forced to launch an attack on the Chinese state in order to prise out commercial
privileges.
Bayly reminds us that India's political culture depended on legitimacy. If a ruler insisted on a higher share
of revenue from the community, he had to deliver better services and infrastructure, ordinary people
regarded the state as beneficent when it built roads and canals. People praised the rulerwhen he
performed. The British Raj won the grudging respect of Indians for this reason. The British enacted the
Police Act of 1861, which resulted in posting a policeman with a common code of conduct in every
village. In this way they managed to penetrate the village. The building of the railway gave legitimacy to
the idea of a strapping, centralized state. But the British were careful regarding social norms and beliefs.
When they attempted social reform, like the change in the age of consent for marriage, it backfired and
strengthened anti-colonial sentiment. They were reluctant to touch the old system of obligations based on
relationships between joint families and castes, and shift to one based on individualism-from what
sociologists‘ call 'status' to 'contract', as had occurred during the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries in
the West.
6. Why does the colonial historian call the eighteenth-century India as black century?
(a) Because at this time power became decentralized and commercial
(b) Because at this time the Mughal empire fall and was preceded by anarchy
(c) Because at this time India became a static society
7. According to Bayly, India‘s political culture is depended on

(a) Ability
(b) Legitimacy
(c) Power
(d) Corruption

MOCK CLAT #06
8. Which of the following actions of British create the anti-colonial sentiments in Indians?
(a) Enactment of the Police Act of 1861.
(b) The building of Railways in India
(c) Change in the age of consent for marriage
(d) Creating centralized state.
9. What did the Europeans do to gain privileges on the ports of China?
(a) They offered gold and silver to the Chinese emperors
(b) They established maritime trade with the Chinese
(c) Attacked the Chinese state
10. What is the meaning of the word implausible?

(a) Mostly
(b) Unreasonable
(c) Indefinite
(d) Willingly
Passage (Q.11-Q.15):Considered the most anatomically correct drawing of its day Da Vinci's The
Vitruvian Man had become a modern-day icon of culture, appearing on posters, mouse pads and T-shirts
around the world. The celebrated sketch consisted of a perfect circle in which was inscribed a nude male
his arms and legs out-stretched in a naked spread-eagle.
Langdon felt a shiver of amazement. The clarity of Saunière's intentions could not be denied,in his final
moments of life, he had stripped of his clothing and arranged his body in a clear image of Leonardo da
Vinci's Vitruvian Man. The circle had been the missing critical element. A feminine symbol of protection,
the circle around the naked man's body completed Da Vinci's intended massage - male and female
harmony. The question now, though, was why Saunière would imitate a famous drawing. "Mr. Langdon‖
Fache said, 'certainly a man like yourself is aware that Leonardo da Vinci had a tendency toward the
darker arts.
Langdon was surprised by Fache's knowledge of Da Vinci, and it certainly went a long way toward
explaining the captain's suspicions about devil worship. Da Vinci had always been an awkward subject
for historians, especially in the Christian tradition. Despite the visionary's genius, he was a flamboyant
homosexual and worshipper of Nature's divine order, both of which placed him in a perpetual state of sin
against God. Moreover, the artist's eerie eccentricities projected an admittedly demonic aura: Da Vinci
exhumed corpses to study human anatomy; he kept mysterious journals in illegible reverse handwriting,
he believed he possessed the alchemic power to turn lead into gold and even cheat God by creating an
elixir to postpone death and his inventions included horrified never-before-imagined weapons of war and
torture. Misunderstanding breeds distrust, Langdon thought.
Even Da Vinci's enormous output of breathtaking Christian art only furthered the artist's reputation for
spiritual hypocrisy. Accepting hundreds of lucrative Vatican commission, Da Vinci painted Christian
themes not as an expression of his own beliefs rather as a commercial venture a means of funding lavish
lifestyle. Unfortunately, Da Vinci was prankster who often amused himself by quietly gnawing at the hand
that fed him. He incorporated in many of his Christian paintings hidden symbolism that was anything but
Christian tribute to his own beliefs - and a subtle thumbing of his nose at the Church Langdon had even
given a lecture once at the National Gallery in London entitled: "The Secret Life ofLeonardo: Pagan
Symbolism in Christian Art.'
11. From the passage above, which one of the following cannot be inferred regarding Da Vinci.
(a) He was a homosexual
(b) He was an alchemist
(c) He was an astronomer
(d) His journals were full of illegible writings.

MOCK CLAT #06
12. Which of the following is true regarding the Vitruvian Man?

I. It has become a modern-day cultural icon
II. The figure in the sketch is a nude male
III. The figure is inscribed inside a perfect circle
(a) Only (a) is correct.
(b) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(c) Both (b) and (c) are correct
(d) All of them are correct.
13. Why has Da Vinci been an awkward subject for historians, especially in the Christian tradition?
(a) Because he was homosexual
(b) Because he was atheist.
(c) Because of he was a nature worshipper.
(d) (a) and (c)
14. The word exhumed is used in bold in the above passage. Choose the correct part of speech.
(a) Adverb
(b) Adjective
(c) Verb
(d) Pronoun
15. Which of the following is the exact opposite in meaning to the word ‗eerie‘?
(a) Comfortable
(b) Frustrating
(c) Perplexing
(d) Easy-going
Passage (Q.16-Q.20):A swashbuckling king dressed in red and gold, sword in hand, corpse swung over
his shoulder — before digital distractions cut into the business of children‘s magazines, several
generations of young readers grew up with this image of King Vikramaditya and Betaal from the Vikram-
Betaal series in the Chandamama comics. The man behind this iconic image, artist Karatholuvu
Chandrasekaran Sivasankaran, 96, passed away in Chennai this week.
The last of the original team that had built up the hugely popular children‘s magazine, the death of
Sivasankaran, or Sankar as he was popularly known as, marks the end of a glorious chapter in children‘s
magazines in India. When it was launched in 1947 by Telugu film producers B Nagi Reddy and
Chakrapani, Chandamama was an instant success. From folktales to mythology, epics to parables, the
monthly magazine was the first of its kind to put together a selection of original and retold children‘s
stories, whose popularity ensured a surge in readership across the newly-independent country. At its
peak and over its seven-decade journey that culminated in 2013, Chandamama was published in 13
languages, and it was Sankar‘s vivid visuals that ran like a unifying thread around its diverse readership.
Sankar came to Chandamama after a five-year stint with another prominent Tamil magazine, Kalaimagal,
but, at the children‘s magazine, he finally found a home. His initial line drawings would soon be replaced
by full-blown illustrations, the near monochromes exchanged for vibrant water colours. In tone, texture
and sensibility, Sankar‘s illustrations were deeply rooted in the contemporary Indian ethos. Together with
Chithra, the chief illustrator of the magazine, Sankar would create a template that would survive the
vicissitudes of time and commerce.
In the twilight of his career, Sankar had moved to a religious magazine, but his work at Chandamama
remains his legacy. For fans of Chandamama, and of the Vikram-Betaal series, the image of a dashing
king looking over his shoulder in an eerie crematorium will forever remind them of the man whose artistry
held them in thrall in their wonder years.
16. What is the meaning of the word Swashbuckling?
(a) Heroic
(b) Laden with gold
(c) Very Rich
(d) Gullible

MOCK CLAT #06
17. Which of the following is false

(a) Chandamama was published in 13 languages
(b) Chandamama was monthly magazines with selection of original stories.
(c) Chandamama was started right after the Independence in 1947
(d) Chandamama was a children magazine
18. Which of the following terms from the passage is the antonym of perpetuity?
(a) Swashbuckling
(b) Vicissitude
(c) Eerie
(d) Twilight
19. ―A swashbuckling king dressed in red and gold‖, which of the following figure of speech is used here?
(a) Synecdoche
(b) Simile
(c) Oxymoron
(d) None of these
20. The phrase ―in the twilight of his career‖ means

(a) In the beginning
(b) Towards the end
(c) In the mid-way
(d) After being fired
Passage (Q.21-Q.25):In 1824, the Government of Bengal (which was then in the hands of the East India
Company) issued an Ordinance placing strict curbs on the freedom of the press. This gave the
government the powers to cancel a newspaper‘s license without any explanation. The Ordinance
provoked outrage among the intelligentsia of Kolkata, active in editing and publishing periodicals in
English as well as Bengali. A petition to the Government asking them to rescind the Ordinance was
drafted by Ram Mohun Roy, who obtained the signatures of some other Indians (including several
members of the Tagore family) before sending it off to the authorities.
Let us hear Ram Mohun directly. In his memorial to the East India Company, this great liberal urged the
British rulers not to be ‗disposed to adopt the political maxim so often acted upon by Asiatic Princes, that
the more a people are kept in darkness, their Rulers will derive the greater advantages from them‘. ‗It is
well known‘, he continued, ‗that despotic Governments naturally desire the suppression of any freedom of
expression which might tend to expose their acts to the obloquy which ever attends the exercise of
tyranny or oppression‘. Ram Mohun hoped that the new rulers would be more open-minded than those
who had preceded them. As he put it: ‗Every good Ruler, who is convinced of the imperfection of human
nature, must be conscious of the great liability to error in managing the affairs of a vast empire; and
therefore he will be anxious to afford every individual the readiest means of bringing to his notice
whatever may require his interference. To secure this important object, the unrestrained Liberty of
Publication, is the only effectual means that can be employed.‘
The free flow of information, argued Ram Mohun here, was imperative for good governance. If a Ruler
wished to govern wisely, and well, he should allow, indeed encourage, his subjects to bring to his
attention examples of maladministration from different parts of the country, so that his Government could
correct them. Here, this 19th century liberal strikingly anticipated the arguments of his 20th century
successor, Amartya Sen. In his book Poverty and Famines (1977), Sen argued that famines were far less
likely to take place in democracies than in authoritarian regimes, because if food scarcities did arise in
any particular district or province, they would be quickly reported in the press, compelling the government
to rush supplies to regions which urgently required them. No democracy had experienced the sort of
serious mass famine that totalitarian China did in the early 1960s, when lower level party officials were
too scared to bring shortages in their districts to the attention of their bosses in Beijing.

MOCK CLAT #06
21. What is the meaning of the word ‗obloquy‘ used in the above passage?
(a) Secret
(b) Public condemnation
(c) Sedition
(d) Literate people
22. Why did Sen think that a famine is less likely in a democracy than in authoritarian regimes?
(a) Because in democracy people are more friendly and will help each other.
(b) Because in democracy rulers are good.
(c) Because in democracy the flow of information is fast, which will make government rush to help
23. Which of following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) Indian Government has curtailed media
(b) Chinese government has curtailed media
(c) China Suffered mass famine in 1960
(d) India suffers famine regularly.
24. What is the central idea of the passage?

(a) British Government in India restricted the free flow of information
(b) Indian government after independence has restricted the free flow of information
(c) Chinese Government has restricted the free flow of information
(d) The free flow of information is imperative for the good governance.
25. The word ‗urged‘ is marked bold in the above passage. What is the part of speech used?
(a) Adjective
(b) Adverb
(c) Verb
(d) Conjunction
Passage (Q.26-Q.30):The gangrape and maiming of a 19-year-old woman from the Dalit community in
Hathras, Uttar Pradesh, ended on Tuesday night with her death, and a hasty, lonely cremation in the
dead of the night. It was a crime that stands out for being enabled by many inequalities and injustices.
The most striking is the caste privilege that allows upper-caste men entitlement, with apparent impunity,
over the bodies of Dalits. (The accused are from a Thakur family with a record of caste violence against
the victim‘s family). It is one more example of the epidemic of sexual violence that regularly crushes
Indian women and girls. UP police officials stand accused of cremating the woman, without allowing a
last glimpse to the grieving parents and without their consent. To be able to inflict so much cruelty takes
insensitivity, of course, but it is also a function of a reflex, honed over years, to bend to entrenched
systems of power.
The Uttar Pradesh police, in the last few years, has consistently chipped away at its facade of being a
professional police force. In the service of ―a tough administration‖ and a ―nationalist‖ macho government,
it has crossed several red lines. Extra-judicial killings are projected and celebrated as justice, despite
reprimands from the Supreme Court — and no police officer is held accountable. As an investigation in
this paper has shown, the National Security Act (NSA) is used recklessly in cases of cow slaughter —
often a dog whistle in heartland politics against the minorities — and also to book those protesting
against the Citizenship Amendment Act. The crackdown against protestors during the anti-CAA protests,
their naming and shaming through posters in public places, were all giveaways of a police force ready to
use a heavy hand to serve a partisan agenda.
In a democracy, the state is granted the monopoly of violence, but, in turn, it is bound to fairness, justice
and due process for all — and not just the few. But law-keepers, unless held accountable to law, remain
a weapon in the hands of the powerful. The Hathras incident underlines that the all-powerful UP
policeman, impatient with the checks of procedure and law, stands against the vulnerable and powerless.

MOCK CLAT #06
The UP police has often justified its excesses in the name of maintaining law and order; it must ask itself
what law was protected by violating the sanctity of a 19-year-old girl‘s last rites.
26. What is the meaning of ―chipped away‖?

(a) To boast
(b) To make
(c) To remove
(d) To borrow
27. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

(a) Uttar Pradesh police is corrupt
(b) No police officer in Uttar Pradesh is held accountable for extra-judicial killings
(c) The Uttar Pradesh police is against the vulnerable and powerless.
(d) Uttar Pradesh police does as they will in the name of maintaining law and order.
28. How is the crime mentioned in the passage one of inequality?

(a) The crime is committed by the upper caste people on a Dalit girl.
(b) The crime is committed with the help from police
(c) The crime is committed is the fault of the Dalit girl.
(d) The lower caste people cast aspersion on the high society people.
29. ―In a democracy, the state is granted the monopoly of violence‖. What does it mean?
(a) The State has the right to resort to violence.
(b) Only the State has the right to resort to violence.
(c) Even the State is the not allowed to use violence
(d) The State is the controller of violence in nation
30. Cremation means:

(a) Burying the body in the ground.
(b) Burning of the body.
(c) Casting the body ashes of the body into the river.

MOCK CLAT #06
Passage (Q.31-Q.35):Scientists are still trying to understand the causes for the rapid deterioration in
some patients with COVID-19. While the cytokine storm is able to explain certain aspects of what goes
wrong, doctors treating patients are often foxed by the severity with which the SARS-CoV-2 virus seems
to affect some people. A supercomputer‘s recent analysis of data on the contents collected earlier from
the lungs of patients with the COVID-19 infection has showed that a phenomenon called a ‗bradykinin
storm‘ might explain how the virus works in the body, including some of the more puzzling extreme
events.
How has this explanation emerged?
This plausible explanation has emerged from the data analytics work that a team of scientists led by Dan
Jacobson at the Oak Ridge National Laboratory (ORLN) in the U.S. have been doing employing the
super computer Summit. In a paper published in July in [2], a peer reviewed journal, Michael R. Garvin et
al advance the bradykinin hypothesis as a means of explaining some of the more deadly effects the virus
has on the human body.
Jacobson and other scientists have advocated targeting the bradykinin pathway to evolve more
therapeutic interventions to offset the severe effects of COVID-19. Repurposing of available drugs,
subject to the outcome of clinical trials, has also been suggested.
Extracted with edits and revisions from report published in The Hindu.
31. SARS-CoV-2 uses a human enzyme to enter into the cells of its host. What is the enzyme called?
(a) ACE2 (b) ACE
(c) COX (d) COX2
32. A paper was published to advance the bradykinin storm hypothesis in which journal it was published?
Refer to point (2).
(a) ChemXpress
(b) Journal of Biomedical Sciences
(c) eLife
(d) Insights in Biomedicine
33. Which country shares AI-based technology, high-end equipment with AIIMS to help combat COVID-19?
(a) Israel
(b) USA
(c) Russia
(d) India
34. Which of the following is not true regarding Cytokines?

(a) Cytokines are signaling proteins that are released by cells at local high concentrations
(b) A Cytokine Storm Syndrome (CSS) is characterized by the overproduction of immune cells and the
cytokines themselves
(c) Secretion of too many cytokines enhances the surge of activated immune cells into the lungs, thereby
helps in improving the immune response
(d) A cytokine storm is also called hypercytokinemia.
35. Which of the following is incorrect about Bradykininstorm ?

(a) The storm causes the blood vessels to expand and become leaky, leading to swelling of the
surrounding tissue.
(b) It prevents oxygen uptake in the severely affected Covid-19 patients.
(c) Bradykinin is a compound that is related to increasing blood pressure in the human body.

MOCK CLAT #06
Passage (Q.36-Q.40):India has been ranked at the [1] position in the latest edition of the World Bank‘s
annual Human Capital Index that benchmarks key components of human capital across countries.
However, India‘s score increased to 0.49 from 0.44 in 2018, as per the Human Capital Index report
released by the World Bank on Wednesday.
The 2020 Human Capital Index update includes health and education data for 174 countries – covering
98% of the world‘s population – up to March 2020, providing a pre-pandemic baseline on the health and
education of children, with the biggest strides made in low-income countries.
The analysis shows that pre-pandemic, most countries had made steady progress in building human
capital of children, with the biggest strides made in low-income countries.Despite this progress, and even
before the effects of the pandemic, a child born in a typical country could expect to achieve just 56% of
their potential human capital, relative to a benchmark of complete education and full health, the Bank
said.
―The pandemic puts at risk the decade‘s progress in building human capital, including the improvements
in health, survival rates, school enrollment, and reduced stunting. The economic impact of the pandemic
has been particularly deep for women and for the most disadvantaged families, leaving many vulnerable
to food insecurity and poverty,‖ said World Bank Group President [3].
Extracted with edits and revisions from report published in The Hindustan Times.
36. Fill in the blank ( 1) mentioned above.

(a) 117th
(b) 118th
(c) 116th
(d) 119th
37. Which of the below is not an initiative by India to strengthen Human Capital?
(a) Ayushman Bharat Yojana
(b) SamagraShiksha
(c) Atmanirbhar Bharat Yojana
(d) Rajiv AwasYojana
38. Who is the current President of the World Bank Group? Refer to point [3].
(a) Robert Zoellick
(b) David Malpass
(c) Christine Lagarde
(d) Jim Yong Kim
39. Which of the following institutions is not part of the World Bank community?
(a) ICSID
(b) WTO
(c) IDA
(d) MIGA
40. Which country has topped in Human Capital Index 2020?

(a) Singapore
(b) Japan
(c) Hongkong and China

MOCK CLAT #06
Passage (Q.41-Q.45):The National Medical Commission (NMC) has replaced the Medical Council of
India (BoG-MCI), as per information released by the Health Ministry on Friday.
Suresh Chandra Sharma, former head of ENT, All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Delhi, has
been appointed as its chairman for three years.
The change was aimed at bringing in reforms in medical education. The government dissolved the MCI in
2018, replaced it with a BoG, which was chaired by Dr. VK Paul, member (health), said the Ministry.
―Indian Medical Council Act, [1] is hereby repealed with effect from September 25. The BoG appointed
under section 3A of the Indian Medical Council Act in supersession of the MCI constituted under sub-
section (1) of section 3 of the said Act shall stand dissolved,‖ stated the gazette notification issued by the
Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoH&FW).
The NMC will have four separate autonomous boards: under-graduate medical education, post-graduate
medical education, medical assessment and rating and ethics and medical registration.
41. In which year the Indian Medical Council Act came in force? Refer to point ( 1)
(a) 1958
(b) 1957
(c) 1956
(d) 1955
42. Who recommended the replacement of Medical Council of India (MCI) with National Medical Commission
(NMC)?
(a) NITI Aayog
(b) National Innovation Council (India)
(c) National Medicial Agency
(d) Financial Stability and Science Development Council
43. NMC will have four autonomous boards to regulate the sector. Which of them is not one of them ?
(a) Undergraduate Medical Education Board
(b) Postgraduate Medical Education Board
(c) Medical Accessible and Rating Board
(d) Ethical and Medical Registration Board
44. The Bill proposes a common final year undergraduate examination called the NEXT for the students
graduating from medical institutions to obtain the license for practice. What is the full form of NEXT?
(a) National Entrance test
(b) National Exit Test
(c) National Eligibility Test
(d) None of the Above
45. Who is appointed as chairman of NMC?

(a) Ram NathKovind
(b) Suresh Chandra Sharma
(c) RK Vats
(d) NanikRupani
Passage (Q.46-Q.49):According to the regulator, D-SIIs refer to insurers of such size, market importance
and domestic and global inter connectedness whose distress or failure would cause a significant
dislocation in the domestic financial system. Thus, the continued functioning of D-SIIs is critical for the
uninterrupted availability of insurance services to the national economy.
The perceived expectation of government support may amplify risk taking, reduce market discipline,
create competitive distortions, and increase the possibility of distress in future. These considerations
require that D-SIIs should be subjected to additional regulatory measures to deal with the systemic risks

MOCK CLAT #06
and moral hazard issues, IRDAI said. The regulator said it has developed a methodology for identification
and supervision of D-SIIs. The parameters include the size of operations in terms of total revenue,
including premium underwritten and the value of assets under management; and global activities across
more than one jurisdiction. The Authority said it would identify D-SIIs disclose the names of such insurers
for public information.
In January 2019, while announcing the formation of a committee on D-SIIs, the regulator had said the
insurance sector had grown exponentially in the last 15 years and a few of the insurers have a sizeable
market share and interconnected with other financial institutions as well. The failure of D-SIIs has the
potential to cause significant disruption to the essential services they provide to the policyholders and, in
turn, to the overall economic activity of the country, it had said.
46. Which one of them has not been identified as Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs) for
2020-21 by insurance regulator?
(a) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
(b) General Insurance Corporation of India
(c) The New India Assurance Co
(d) SBI Life Insurance Company
47. Which committee recommended the establishment of IRDA?

(a) P.N. Mehrotra Committee
(b) R.N. Malhotra Committee
(c) D.R. Gadgil Committee
(d) Rajmannr Committee
48. Which of the statement is incorrect about Domestic Systemically Important Insurers?
(a) D-SIIs are perceived as insurers that are ‗too big or too important to fail‘ (TBTF).
(b) IRDAI would identify D-SIIs every two year and disclose the names of such insurers for public
information
(c) The continued functioning of D-SIIs is critical for the uninterrupted availability of insurance services
to the national economy.
(d) The three public sector insurers have been asked to raise the level of corporate governance.
49. How many insurance companies were merged to form the Life Insurance Corporation of India?
(a) 150
(b) 178
(c) 245
(d) 100
Passage (Q.50-Q.54):The Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) at The Hague (Netherlands) ruled that
India‘s retrospective imposition of a tax liability, as well as interest and penalties on Vodafone Group for a
2007 deal was violation of the Bilateral Investment Treaty with Netherlands and the arbitration rules of
United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL).
In May 2007, the British telecommunication company Vodafone Group had bought a 67% stake in a
company called Hutchison Whampoa. For this, the Indian government for the first time raised a demand
of capital gains and withholding tax from Vodafone, under the Income Tax Act of 1961. The government
argued that Vodafone should have deducted the tax at source before making a payment to Hutchison.
In 2012, the Supreme Court ruled in favour of the Vodafone Group. Later, the Finance Act was amended
(2012) giving the Income Tax Department the power to retrospectively tax such deals. Vodafone then
initiated arbitration in 2014 invoking the Bilateral Investment Treaty signed between India and the
Netherlands in 1995. The International Arbitration Tribunal at Permanent Court of Arbitration ruled that
the government‘s demand is in breach of fair and equitable treatment.
The government must cease seeking the dues from Vodafone. This was a unanimous decision meaning
that India's appointed arbitrator also ruled in favour of Vodafone.

MOCK CLAT #06
India has said it would study the order and all its aspects and take a decision on further course of action
including legal remedies before appropriate fora. According to Indian Government, as Vodafone had not
paid the initial tax demand and interest and penalty on it, the question of India paying back the amount
does not arise. India has the option to move to Singapore International Arbitration Centre as well.
Extracted with edits and revisions from report published in The Indian Express
50. Income tax can be classified as a:

(a) Direct Tax
(b) Indirect Tax
(c) Neither direct nor indirect
(d) Ad valorem tax
51. Permanent Court of Arbitration is headquartered in The Hague, Netherlands. Which of the other
organisations is also headquartered in The Hague?
(a) International Court of Justice
(b) Food and Agricultural Organisation
(c) International Monetary Fund
(d) International Maritime Organisation
52. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) The Permanent Court of Arbitration was established before the International Court of Justice.
(b) The PCA is an intergovernmental organisation dedicating to serve the international community in the
field of dispute resolution.
(c) The PCA has a two part organisational structure.
(d) The decision of the PCA is published as a writ.
53. The UNCITRAL or the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law is:
(a) A specialised agency of the UN
(b) A subsidiary body of the United Nations General Assembly
(c) An organ of the UN
(d) An independent international organisation within the UN
54. What is the most appropriate definition of the term ‗capital gains tax‘?
(a) The tax paid on the interests derived on the income of a capital asset.
(b) The tax on a tax paid on the income derived from a capital asset.
(c) The tax paid on income accruing from a Indian asset held by a foreign entity.
(d) The tax paid on income that derives from the sale or exchange of an asset, such as a stock or
property that's categorized as a capital asset.
Passage (Q.55-Q.59):Prime Minister NarendraModi on Saturday inaugurated the Atal Tunnel at Rohtang
at an altitude of above 3,000 metres in Himachal Pradesh. After the inauguration, he said the tunnel
would provide new strength to the country‘s border infrastructure. The 9.02 km-long-tunnel, built by the
[1], is the world‘s longest highway tunnel and connects Manali to Lahaul-Spiti valley. It provides all-
weather connectivity to the landlocked valley of Lahaul-Spiti, which remains cut-off for nearly six months
in a year as the Rohtang Pass is usually snow-bound between November and April.
Before the tunnel construction, the Lahaul Valley used to remain closed for vehicular movement due to
bad weather conditions. But thanks to the tunnel, the people of the Valley will have round-the-year road
connectivity. The tunnel reduces the distance by [2] between Manali and Leh and the travel time by about
4 to 5 hours. It is expected to boost tourism and winter sports in the region. The tunnel, also significant
from the military logistics viewpoint, will provide better connectivity to the armed forces in reaching
Ladakh.
In 2019, The Union Cabinet decided to name the tunnel as ‗Atal Tunnel‘ to honour former Prime Minister
AtalBihari Vajpayee for his contributions. The decision was taken in 2000 when he was the Prime
Minister. The foundation stone was laid by UPA chairperson Sonia Gandhi on June 28, 2010.

MOCK CLAT #06
55. Fill in the space by blank [1]:

(a) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
(b) Border Roads Organisation
(c) SAARC
(d) World Bank
56. Fill in the space by blank [2]:
(a) 46km
(b) 76km
(c) 26km
(d) 106km
57. The Atal Tunnel is situated in which mountain range?
(a) Zaskar Range
(b) Shivaliks
(c) PirPanjal Range
(d) DhaulaDhar Mountains
58. The shape of the Atal Tunnel is:
(a) Circular
(b) Rectangular
(c) Horseshoe shaped
(d) Elliptical type
59. Which of the following are correctly matched:
1. Rohtang Pass: Himachal Pradesh
2. Lipulekh Pass: Uttarakhand
3. Nathu La Pass: Himachal Pradesh
Options:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 & 2 only
(c) 1, 2 & 3
(d) 2 only
Passage (Q.60-Q.64):India successfully flight-tested its indigenously developed SMART torpedo system
Monday, with the [1] hailing it as a ―game changer‖ in anti-submarine warfare.
According to a defence ministry statement, the Supersonic Missile Assisted Release of Torpedo or
SMART was successfully tested from the Wheeler Island off the coast of [2]. It added that all the mission
objectives were perfectly met, which included the missile flight upto range and altitude, separation of the
nose cone, release of torpedo as well as the deployment of Velocity Reduction Mechanism (VRM).The
test reportedly encompasses hybrid technology that helps to upgrade the present system and also
increase the striking range.
A number of DRDO laboratories including DRDL, RCI Hyderabad, ADRDE Agra, NSTL Visakhapatnam
have developed the technologies required for SMART.
SMART is a missile-assisted release of lightweight Anti-Submarine Torpedo System for Anti-Submarine
Warfare (ASW) operations far beyond torpedo range. It takes off like a regular supersonic missile when
launched from a warship or a truck-based coastal battery.
Most of its flight in the air is covered at [3] with two-way data link from the warship or an airborne
submarine target detection system. It is also provided the exact location of the hostile submarine to
correct its flight path midway. When it approaches close to a submerged submarine, the missile would
eject the torpedo system into the water and the torpedo will start moving towards its target to hit the
submarine.
According to defence writer Sameer Joshi, a former Indian Air Force pilot, the SMART system combines
a solid fuel rocket with a lightweight torpedo (LWT) as its warhead.
Extracted with edits and revisions from report published in The Print.

MOCK CLAT #06
60. Fill in the space provided by blank [1]. Which of the following organisations hailed SMART as a ‗game
changer‘?
(a) Indian Space Research Organisation
(b) Defence Research and Development Organisation
(c) Indian Navy
(d) International Maritime Organisation
61. Fill in the space provided by blank [2]. Wheeler Island is located off the coast of:
(a) Odisha
(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
62. Fill in the space provided by blank [3]. SMART Torpedo covers its flight in:
(a) High altitudes
(b) Low altitudes
(c) Mid altitude
(d) Mid latitude
63. Malacca Strait separates which two landmasses?

(a) Malaysia and Singapore
(b) Malaysia and Indonesia
(c) Malaysia and Papua New Guinea
(d) Indonesia and Papua New Guinea
64. Which of the following ports are correctly matched to the countries in which they are located?
1. Gwadar Port: Pakistan
2. Chabahar Port: Iran
3. HambanthotaPort: Sri Lanka
Options:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 & 3 only
(d) 1, 2 & 3
Passage (Q.65-Q.68):The 2020 Nobel Prizes kicked off on October 5 with the naming of winners in the
field of physiology and medicine. The prestigious award comes with a gold medal and prize money of 10
million Swedish kronor (over $1,118,000), courtesy of a bequest left 124 years ago by the prize‘s creator,
Swedish inventor Alfred Nobel. The amount was increased recently to adjust for inflation.
On October 7, Emmanuelle Charpentier of France and Jennifer Doudna of the U.S. created history by
winning the Chemistry Nobel — the first time a Nobel science prize has gone to a women-only team.
Extracted with edits and revisions from report published in LiveMint.
65. What invention was Alfred Nobel known for?

(a) Dynamite
(b) Steam Engine
(c) Telephone
(d) Lifts/Elevators
66. Who was the first Indian to be awarded the Nobel Prize?
(a) SatyendraNath Tagore
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Abanindranath Tagore
(d) Sachidananda Sinha

MOCK CLAT #06
67. The Nobel Prize is awarded in which of the following fields?

1. Peace
2. Literature
3. Physiology or Medicine
4. Chemistry
5. Physics
6. Economics
Options:
(a) 1, 2 & 3
(b) 2, 3, 4 & 6
(c) 2, 3, 4 & 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6
68. This year‘s Nobel Prize in medicine has been awarded for the discovery of -
(a) Vaccination of Ebola
(b) Virus strands of SARS-Cov-2
(c) Hepatitis B vaccine
(d) Hepatitis C Virus

MOCK CLAT #06
Passage (Q.69-Q.73):The Indian Penal Code under Section 120-A defines conspiracy as “When two or
more persons agree to do or cause to be done, an illegal act, or an act which is not illegal by illegal
means, such an agreement is designated a criminal conspiracy, provided that no agreement except an
agreement to commit an offence shall amount to a criminal conspiracy unless some act besides the
agreement is done by one or more parties to such agreement in pursuance thereof.”
The very agreement between two or more persons to carry out a crime gives origin to the offence of
conspiracy irrespective of the fact whether such act has been brought into motion or not.For establishing
a conviction under Section 120A, one is required to prove the existence of an ‗agreement‘ as it is the sine
qua non for the composing an offence of conspiracy. Such a scheme regarding the commission of a
crime may be implied or express. What is required is the unity of objects and not necessarily physical
unity. A mere entertainment of an evil wish or a coincidence of adverse intentions among certain
individuals would not amount to conspiracy.Neitherit is necessary that all the conspirators must be known
to one another nor all the details of the conspiracy. Meeting of minds is to commit an illegal act or
application of illegal means is requisite. After the individuals have gained knowledge of the scheme
regarding the commission of the crime, there may be individuals possessing the intention to carry on with
the same or drop out of the scheme. The individuals who do not carry forward the plan due to the
absence of intention must not be counted in as conspirators unless they act in such a way that the
existence of intention can be inferred. In case certain individuals commit a crime or perform certain legal
acts through illegal means which is related to the object of the scheme of conspiracy, all of them will be
roped in for the commission of conspiracy even if they had not participated actively in perpetuating the
offence.Further, conspirators may cease to exist in every phase of the carrying out of the conspiratory
69. The State of Rusasa has brought a legislation banning the import of camphor. However, the law only
applies prospectively. Raza and Murad together smuggle camphor out of the warehouses in Rusasa and
sell it in the markets. Decide
(a) Raza and Murad committed an offence under Section 120 A for they committed an illegal act
(b) Raza and Murad have not committed any offence for there is no illegality involved
(c) Raza and Murad have committed an offence under Section 120 A for the act is harmful towards
another person
(d) Raza and Murad have not committed any offence under Section 120A. The harmfulness of the act
against another person cannot be proven.
70. Arnab and Rajput own factories that manufacture masks. After the imposition of lockdown due to COVID-
19, the government restricted prices of masks on all new produced stocks. Arnab and Rajput were still
selling at higher prices in the markets. When caught, they claimed that this was not newly produced
stock.
(a) Arnab and Rajput committed an offence under Section 120 A for they committed an illegal act
(b) Arnab and Rajput have not committed any offence for there is no illegality involved
(c) Arnab and Rajput have committed an offence under Section 120 A for the act is harmful towards
another person
(d) Arnab and Rajput have not committed any offence under Section 120 A for the harmful nature of the
act cannot be proven.
71. Vikash and Avinash run their own imported silk garment stores. Vikash imported Strawberry, an illegal
variety of silk on an aircraft. Avinash imported Strawberry via ships. They sold it at their own shops which
are located side by side in the same market. Decide
(a) Vikash and Avinash committed an offence under Section 120 A for they committed an illegal act
(b) Vikash and Avinash are not liable for the act was committed out of necessity
(c) Vikash and Avinash are liable for there existed an agreement in their acts
(d) Vikash and Avinash are not liable for their acts are separate thus no two persons are involved

MOCK CLAT #06
72. A group of girls went to a club for fun and frolic. One of them suddenly fired atthe bar mate for her refusal
to serve drinks and due to this bar mate got killed. The others were unaware that the accused(P)
wascarrying a loaded pistol. They had stayed at the club for about 2 hours.
(a) All of them are guilty of murder for they all constituted part of the group that murdered the bar mate.
(b) Only P is guilty of murder. There is no evidence of the group having agreed to the firing.
(c) P is guilty of murder and the others are guilty of criminal conspiracy for they acted in concert with P.
(d) The entire group is liable for criminal conspiracy to murder as there was an agreement to fire at the
bar mate.
73. A and B enter into a conspiracy to kill C. They hired goons to kill him. The goons demanded a service fee
of Rs. 20,000. They asked their servant D to deliver the packet to the goons. Decide.
(a) D knew of the purpose of delivering the money. Yet he complied. He is liable for conspiracy.
(b) D is liable for conspiracy to kill as he did not know about the contents of the package
(c) D‘s information about the contents of the package does not matter. D participated in an act that led to
illegality. Thus, D is liable.
(d) D‘s information solely determines his liability. Without any information, D cannot be said to be
partaking in the conspiracy.
Passage (Q.74-Q.79):Consumer rights are the rights given to a "consumer" to protect him/her from being
cheated by salesman/manufacturer. Consumer protection laws are designed to ensure fair trade
competition and the free flow of truthful information in the marketplace.
The laws are designed to prevent businesses that engage in fraud or specified unfair practices from
gaining an advantage over competitors and may provide additional protection for the weak and those
unable to take care of themselves. Consumer Protection laws are a form of government regulation which
aim to protect the rights of consumers.
Who is a consumer according to the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? A consumer is one that buys goods
for consumption and not for the resale or commercial purpose. The consumer also hires service for
consideration. The following are some practices that must be followed by a business under the Consumer
Protection Act. If any defect found the seller should remove the mentioned defects from the whole batch
or the goods affected. For example, there have been cases where car manufacturing unit found a defect
in parts of the vehicle usually they remove the defect from every unit or they call off the unit. They should
replace the defective product with a non-defective product and that product should be of similar
configuration or should be the same as the product purchased.
To provide simple, speedy and inexpensive redressal of consumer disputes, the CPA envisages 3-tier
quasi-judicial machinery at the National, State and District levels.
National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission, known as National Commission, deals with
complaints involving costs and compensation higher than Rs. One Crore.
State Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission, known as State Commission, deals with complaints
involving costs and compensation higher than Rs. Twenty Lakh and less than Rs. OneCrore.District
Consumer Dispute Redressal Forumknown as District Forum, deals with complaints involving costs and
compensation less than Rs. Twenty Lakh.In this, the complaining party should not value the complaint
more than 20 Lacs and once the complaint is filed the goods are sent for testing and if they found
defective the accused party should compensate and if the party is dissatisfied can make an appeal
with state commission within 30 days. State Commission is set up by each state.
74. Savita buys 12 KGs of TATA Slat fearing that a lockdown may be imposed due to COVID-19. She could
only consumer 3KGs however and the lockdown was now lifted. She doesn‘t want to store a lot of salt in
her house and sells some of the packets to her neighbours at cost. Decide
(a) Savita is a consumer as she bought the salt packets for her domestic consumption
(b) Savita is not a consumer for she resold the salt packets for commercial purpose.
(c) Savita is a consumer as she did not earn profit out of the sale of salt packets
(d) Savita is not a consumer. The resale of salt packets is enough to prove the same.

MOCK CLAT #06
75. Please refer to the facts above. What would be your answer if Savita resold the salt packets at a markup
of Rs. 5 by stating that the same was her fuel cost for the run up to the shop. Her fuel cost was Rs. 3
however.
(a) Savita is a consumer as she bought the salt packets for her domestic consumption
(b) Savita is not a consumer for she resold the salt packets for commercial purpose.
(c) Savita is a consumer as she did not intend sale of salt packets
(d) Savita is not a consumer. The resale of salt packets is enough to prove the same.
76. Anuj procured empty CDs as he was fond of listening to music. He requested a professional to record
some good music for him in those CDs for free. The professional obliged. However, since he did not like
the music he decided to sell those off at double the market price. Decide
(a) Anuj is a consumer for he brought the CDs and hired the service for his own consumption
(b) Anuj is not a consumer. The fact that he earned profit makes him a trader.
(c) Anuj is a consumer. The involvement of commercial purpose is only applicable to purchase of goods
and not hiring of services.
(d) Anuj is not a consumer. There was no hiring of service for a consideration.
77. ABC is a car manufacturing company. Sumit purchased a brand-new model called Vegeta from ABC
Company. However, it turned out that the engine of this unit (which was named Hit) of Vegeta was not
very sturdy and used to break. Sumit took the car to the company and they replaced it with a newer
model called the Zen-oh engine, which has different configuration. Decide
(a) ABC‘s replacement is justified as Sumit got better technology
(b) ABC‘s replacement is not justified as they must replace with the same technology
(c) ABC must pay compensation to Sumit
(d) Sumit must pay more money to ABC
78. Please refer to the facts above. Sumit is not happy with the replacement of the newer technology as the
new engine Zen-oh also keeps on faltering. Sumit wants the same engine again. He decides to drag ABC
to the district forum. The value of the car is 25 lakh and the value of the engine is 12 lakh. Decide
(a) The district forum shall not have jurisdiction as the value of the car is 25 lakh
(b) The district forum shall have jurisdiction as the value of the engine is 12 lakh
(c) The district forums shall not have jurisdiction as Sumit should try and negotiate the matter
79. Rathore buys mustard oil extracting machine. The new model however did not work and he complained
at the District Consumer Forum. Which of the following is true if the machine is sent for testing and is
found to be working normally?
(a) The complaint will be rejected. Rathore cannot do anything now
(b) The complaint will be rejected. Rathore can still appeal to the court withing 40 days
(c) The complaint will be rejected. Rathore cannot ask for a product of similar configuration
(d) The complaint will be rejected. Rathorecan approach the state commission within 20 days.
Passage (Q.80-Q.85):In a democratic society even the rights of the accused are sacrosanct, though
accused of an offence, he does not become a non-person. In the leading case of Kishore Singh Ravinder
Dev v. State of Rajasthan, it was said that the laws of India i.e. Constitutional, Evidentiary and procedural
have made elaborate provisions for safeguarding the rights of accused with the view to protect his
(accused) dignity as a human being and giving him benefits of a just, fair and impartial trail.Articles 10 of
the UDHR declares that everyone entitle in full equality to a fair and public hearing by an independent
and impartial tribunal, in the determination of his legal rights and obligation and of any criminal charges
against him. Articles 14(1) of the international covenants on civil and political rights provide that all people
shall be equal before the court and tribunals.
There are various facets to the right to a fair trial. The Hon‘ble Supreme Court in the case of
ZahiraHabibullah Sheikh &Anrvs State of Gujarat has held that, ―the principle of fair trial now informs and
energizes many areas of the law. It is reflected in numerous rules and practices.... fair trial obviously
would mean a trial before an impartial Judge, a fair prosecutor and atmosphere of judicial calm. Fair trial

MOCK CLAT #06
means a trial in which bias or prejudice for or against the accused, the witnesses, or the cause which is
being tried is eliminated.‖ The concept of fair trial entails familiar triangulation of interests of the accused,
the victim and the society and it is the community that acts through the State and prosecuting agencies.
Most of these safeguards to ensure a fair trial are contained under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
which contains and defines the procedure which has to be followed in criminal cases. Important features
that indicate such fair trial rules are pertaining to an accused person, at least where the charge is an
offence punishable with imprisonment, being entitled to be offered free legal aid, if he is too poor to afford
counsel; The counsel for the accused being given sufficient time and facility for preparing his defence.
The law also provides that any breach of the above-mentioned safeguards of fair trial would invalidate the
trial and conviction, even if the accused did not ask for legal aid.
80. Farid is arrested on charges of theft. A trial is held but Farid has no counsel to represent him. Not having
much luck defending himself, Farid is convicted for the offence of theft. Choose the correct statement:
(a) Farid‘s conviction is valid because there was proper evidence against him.
(b) Farid‘s conviction is invalid since he was not given legal aid.
(c) Farid‘s conviction is valid because no demand for legal aid was made.
(d) An analysis of Farid‘s socio economic condition needs to be made to arrive at a decision.
81. Vidisha, an IT consultant, is arrested for cybercrime, punishable with imprisonment. She had gone
bankrupt a few months ago, so much so, that it was hard for her to fend for herself. She is not provided
with a counsel and the trial proceeds as is, after which she is convicted of theft. Which of the following
statements, if true, would make her trial valid?
(a) Vidisha‘s friends were of good socio economic background. Non-engagement of a counsel is
reflective of her intention.
(b) Vidisha‘s parents were of good socio economic background. Non-engagement of a counsel is
reflective of her intention.
(c) Vidisha was well–read in the law but did not ask for legal aid. Her conduct implies that she did not
intend to engage a counsel.
(d) Vidisha‘s own socio economic conditions may be good enough to hire a lawyer.
82. Ishika is arrested on charges of house–trespass. She does not have the means to sustain herself. The
State forgets to assign her a legal counsel. A day before the trial, a legal counsel is assigned to Ishika.
She briefs the counsel about the case and the hearing is held the next day. Ishika is convicted of house–
trespass. Have the rules of fair trial been violated in Ishika‘s case?
(a) The very fact that hearing was held only after 1 day of preparation for the case means that the rules
of fair trial have been violated.
(b) Ishika was assigned a counsel which is enough to not vitiate a trial on grounds of violation of fair trial.
(c) It depends on the expertise of the counsel and the fact whether he could prepare in one day or not.
(d) The fact that the counsel could have asked for an adjournment is enough to show that fair trial was
given.
83. Please refer to the facts above. Ishika is in jail and wishes to file an appeal. The police rules allow for a
lawyer to only meet their client for 15 minutes once in a day. The lawyer based on those meetings
prepared a defence. Decide
(a) There is a violation of rules of fair trial as the lawyer has not been given enough time to prepare a
defence
(b) There is no violation of the rules of fair trial for the rules stipulate such duration of 15 minutes
(c) There is a violation of rules of fair trial as the counsel isn‘t learned enough
(d) There is no violation of rules of fair trial. The lawyer could have come on the next day.
84. A small child was fighting a legal battle for a sexual assault committed onto her by a man. She wishes for
the matter to be heard by the judges in private. The judges want to hear it in open court.
(a) The child is not entitled to ask for a private hearing as there is no provision to do so.
(b) The child is entitled to ask for a private hearing as a public hearing is only an entitlement and not a
mandatory requirement.

MOCK CLAT #06
(c) The child is not entitled to ask for a private hearing as the judges must do justice
(d) The child is entitled to a private hearing as a public hearing may be against morality and decency.
85. Please refer to the facts above. The accused‘s lawyer asks for a trial in open court. Decide
(a) The accused is not entitled to a public hearing as the matter is sensitive
(b) The accused is entitled to a public hearing in the interest of justice
(c) The accused is not entitled to a public hearing as he is condemnable
(d) The accused is entitled to a public hearing as it is within his rights
Passage (Q.86-Q.91):False Imprisonment may be defined as an act of the defendant which causes the
unlawful confinement of the plaintiff. To constitute false imprisonment certain factors such as probable
cause for imprisonment, knowledge of the plaintiff for imprisonment, intention of the defendant while
causing imprisonment and period of confinement matters.A private individual, a police officer or any
public authority can falsely imprison a person as well. For purposes of this law, the meaning of the police
officer includes every person who is responsible for the security of a certain place. For imprisonment it is
not necessary that the person should be put behind bars, but he should be confined in such an area from
where there are no possible ways of escape except the will of the person who is confining the person
within that area.It is not the degree of the imprisonment that matters but it is the absence of lawful
authority to justify unlawful confinement which is of relevance.As almost every tort has a defence, so
does this tort. The defences of false imprisonment are consent of the plaintiff or voluntary assumption of
the risk, probable cause and contributory negligence. The defence of consent of the plaintiff and probable
cause are complete defences while the defence of contributory negligence is used only for mitigation of
damages. To invoke the defence of consent however, courts would always look for whether free consent
is present or not.
False arrest is the arrest of the individual by the police officer or private person without lawful authority.
Although we call it false arrest, it is a part of false imprisonment only. False arrest and false imprisonment
are virtually indistinguishable except in their terminology and have been held by the courts as a single
tort.
There are three remedies for false imprisonment. They are damages, habeas corpus and self-help. Being
a tort, the basic remedy for false imprisonment is an action for damages which can be due to physical or
mental suffering, loss of reputation or even malicious intent on behalf of the defendant. If a person is
unlawfully confined then he can be released from such confinement by the writ of habeas corpus. A
person can also use reasonable force in order to escape from the confinement.
86. Rajshekhar is a lawyer who has a flourishing practice in Bangalore. One day while preparing for a case,
he was in office till late night along with his juniors. One of his juniors desperately wanted to go back to
his home but was not allowed by Rajshekhar. The junior told Rajshekhar about the risk of theft in
Nagarbhavi. Rajshekhar asked him to resign if he wanted to go. The junior did not leave and theft
occurred in his house at night. Decide
(a) Rajshekhar is liable for false imprisonment for he did not have lawful authority to confine
(b) Rajshekhar is not liable for false imprisonment for there was consent of the junior
(c) Rajshekhar is liable for false imprisonment for he is a private individual
(d) Rajshekhar is not liable for false imprisonment for there was voluntary assumption of risk on part of
the junior.
87. Rohit is a friend of Suryonshu. Suryonshu is employed as a security guard in a private university. Rohit
often visits his friend in his workplace. One day when Rohit went and met Suryonshu, he seemed to be in
a hurry to go to the gym with his mother. He asked Rohit to help him out watch his place as security
guard for some time. Rohit agreed. While Rohit was doing Suryonshu‘s duties, he happened to catch a
student smoking and confined him for 1 hour in his office till Suryonshu returned. The penalty for smoking
was onlya fine of Rs. 1000. Decide
(a) Rohit is liable for false imprisonment as he did not have any lawful authority to confine
(b) Rohit is liable as police officers can also falsely imprison a person without having lawful authority
(c) Rohit is not liable as the degree of imprisonment is not high and he was only confined for 1 hour
(d) Rohit is not liable for false imprisonment as he is a police officer at the relevant time.

MOCK CLAT #06
88. Rohit is a friend of Suryonshu. Suryonshu is employed as a security guard in a private university. Rohit
often visits his friend in his workplace. One day when Rohit went and met Suryonshu, he seemed to be in
a hurry to go to the gym with his mother. He asked Rohit to help him out watch his place as security
guard for some time. Rohit agreed. While Rohit was doing Suryonshu‘s duties, he happened to catch a
student smoking and confined him for 1 hour in his office till Suryonshu returned. The penalty for smoking
was grounding for 1 hour. Decide
(a) Rohit is liable for false imprisonment as he did not have any lawful authority to confine
(b) Rohit is liable as police officers can also falsely imprison a person without having lawful authority.
(c) Rohit is not liable as the degree of imprisonment is not high and he was only confined for 1 hour.
(d) Rohit is not liable for false imprisonment for he had lawful authority to confine the person as per
college smoking penalty rules.
89. Asur is a man of his word and never indulges in corrupt practices. Dev one day asked him for a favour
which Asur deemed to be unjust and refused. Dev held Asur‘s hands till he agreed to do it. Asur agreed.
Decide
(a) Dev is liable for false imprisonment as he did not have authority to lawfully confine Asur
(b) Dev is not liable for false imprisonment as Asur had consented to the same
(c) Dev is liable for false imprisonment as his demands were unjust
(d) Dev is not liable for false imprisonment as here merely held Asur‘s hands.
90. Please refer to the facts above. Since Asur was not agreeing to Dev‘s demands, Dev locked himself in a
room till Asur agreed to Dev‘s demands. Dev later suedAsur for false imprisonment.
(a) Asur is liable for false imprisonment he was the cause for Dev‘s confinement in a room.
(b) Asur is not liable for false imprisonment as Dev has consented to himself being confined
(c) Asur is liable for false imprisonment as he held Dev captive
(d) Asur is not liable for false imprisonment as he is morally upright
91. Kansa had confined his sister and her husband in prison. Whenever his sister gave birth to a child, Kansa
vowed to come in and kill the child. When Kansa came in to kill the 1st child of his sister, his sister, with
energy from her eyes killed Kansa and ran away.
(a) His sister is liable for causing Kansa grievous hurt
(b) His sister is not liable for causing Kansa grievous hurt
(c) His sister was acting in self defence for Kansa had falsely imprisoned her. She used a reasonable
force
(d) His sister was not acting in self defence for Kansa had falsely imprisoned her. She used
unreasonable force
Passage (Q.92-Q.96):The crimes of assault, assault and battery, and aggravated assault all involve
intentional harm inflicted on one person by another. Any crime involving a physical attack is usually
classified as an assault, a battery, or both. Depending on the seriousness of the attack (or the
dangerousness of the weapon used), these acts can rise to the level of aggravated assault. And more
than one-sided attacks can constitute assault. Fighting can lead to an assault charge, even when two
people have mutually agreed to fight.Assault is sometimes defined as any intentional act that causes
another person to fear that she is about to suffer physical harm. This definition recognizes that placing
another person in fear of imminent bodily harm is itself an act deserving of punishment, even if the victim
of the assault is not physically harmed. This definition also allows police officers to intervene and make
an arrest without waiting for the assaulter to actually strike the victim.
Historically, battery and assault were considered separate crimes, with battery requiring that the
aggressor physically strike or offensively touch the victim. In that way, a battery was a ―completed‖
assault. The criminal laws of many states classify assaults as either simple or aggravated, according to
the gravity of the harm that occurs—or is likely to occur if the assaulter follows through and strikes the
victim. Aggravated assault is a felony that may involve an assault committed with a weapon or with the
intent to commit a serious crime, such as rape.An assault may also be defined as aggravated if it occurs
in the course of a relationship that the legal system regards as worthy of special protection.

MOCK CLAT #06
It turns out that words alone won't usually give rise to assault charges either. The general policy against
punishing people for naked threats recognizes that in the heat of the moment, people often make threats
they have no intention of carrying out.
92. Hitesh and Tejas were flying in an aircraft. Hitesh did not notice that the seatbelt he was going to remove
was actually Tejas‘. After he removed the seat belt, there was sudden turbulence in the aircraft and Tejas
fell down and hit his head against the seat in the front.
(a) Hitesh is liable for battery because his action was not justified
(b) Hitesh is liable. Intention is irrelevant.
(c) Hitesh is not liable as he did not intend to commit battery
(d) Hitesh is not liable as he did not hurt Tejas majorly.
93. Munib and Shaqib are best friends. They were playing pranks onto each other meanwhileMunib fell on
the ground. After Munib fell on the ground, he felt that Shaqib had humiliated him and got up to punch
Shaqib on the face. Shaqib punched him back too and a scuffle happened. Decide
(a) Shaqib is liable for assault as he started it first
(b) Munib is liable for assault as he started the scuffle first
(c) Both are liable for assault
(d) None is liable for assault as they mutually agreed to fight.
94. Please refer to the facts above. After Munib felt on the ground, he felt insulted and threatened Shaqib
that he would beat him to death. The moment Munib said this, the police arrested him. Munib questioned
the police‘s powers
(a) The police can arrest Munib the moment a threat of assault has been made
(b) The police cannot arrest Munib. Assault has not been committed yet
(c) The police must arrest Munib as he is morally culpable
(d) The police cannot arrest Munib as he is a victim.
95. Mehta was playing cricket when the leather ball hit Harshil. Infuriated, Harshil threatened Mehta saying
that he would call the police. Mehta question police‘s powers of arresting him. Decide
(a) The police cannot arrest Mehta since naked threats are not taken cognizance of.
(b) The police can arrest Mehta since it constitutes assault
(c) The police should not arrest Mehta since naked threats are not taken cognizance of
(d) The police can arrest Mehta since he violated peace.
96. Please refer to the facts above. When Harshil got hit by Mehta‘s ball, he fell on the ground and found a
knife lying on the ground. He attacked Mehta with the knife injuring him.
(a) Harshil is liable for assault
(b) Harshil is liable for aggravated assault
(c) Harshil is liable for a felony
(d) Harshil is not liable
Passage (Q.97-Q.101):Privacy includes at its core the preservation of personal intimacies, the sanctity of
family life, marriage, procreation, the home and sexual orientation. Privacy also connotes a right to be
left alone. Privacy safeguards individual autonomy and recognises the ability of the individual to control
vital aspects of his or her life. Personal choices governing a way of life are intrinsic to privacy. Privacy
protects heterogeneity and recognises the plurality and diversity of our culture. While the legitimate
expectation of privacy may vary from the intimate zone to the private zone and from the private to the
public arenas, it is important to underscore that privacy is not lost or surrendered merely because the
individual is in a public place. Privacy attaches to the person since it is an essential facet of the dignity of
the human being. -KS Puttaswamy v UoI
97. The government in the wake of the 2011 bomb plantings, issued a directive mandating the set-up of CC
TV cameras inside the bathrooms of public malls. The cameras were to installed outside the toilet stalls

MOCK CLAT #06
but within the bathroom compound to keep a check on who enters and monitor the activities of the
janitors.
(a) This shall amount to an invasion of the right to privacy of the janitors.
(b) This is an invasion to the privacy of individuals who enter the restroom
(c) This is an accepted practice; as long as the cameras are installed outside the cubicles there is no
privacy concern
98. The parliament proposed a Bill which sought to create a provision in the IPC that in cases of murder
suspects the police will have unrestricted access to search a person's body, house, his personal
belongings including his electronic equipment and any communication he has had with anyone without a
warrant of any sort. Strictly based on the above passage, would such a bill be constitutional?
(a) The bill is unconstitutional
(b) The bill is constitutional as it is based on the reasonable classification of a ‗murder suspect‘
(c) The bill is unconstitutional inasmuch it talks about an ‗unrestricted‘ access.
99. The parliament proposed a new law which stated that when a person is sent to prison for the offence of
being involved in terrorist activities or sedition then after the person has completed his prison sentence,
once released, that person would have a GPS chip implanted near his ankle (permanently) which if tried
to tamper with would alert the authorities immediately. This process would take place under expert
medical supervision and safety. Decide the constitutionality of the law.
(a) This law is constitutional
(b) This law is unconstitutional and likely to be struck down
(c) This law is constitutional inasmuch it makes a classification between ordinary convicts and those
involved in terrorists‘ activities.
100. Based on the understanding of the passage choose the best statement that follows:
(a) An individual‘s privacy is limited to the individual‘s private auspices. The moment the individual
becomes a part of a public gathering, his privacy is naturally compromised.
(b) An individual‘s reproductive choices are covered under his right to privacy.
(c) Privacy pertains to the individual‘s choices that conform to the societal standards. As long as the
conformity is maintained, the individual choices are protected under privacy.
101. A new order proposed after an attack on the Delhi High Court by the members of Jaesh was to make it
mandatory for any individual to reveal his name, nationality, age and gender before entering any Court in
India. Decide the constitutionality of the law proposed:-
(a) Constitutional
(b) Unconstitutional
(c) partially Constitutional
(d) none of the above
Passage (Q.102-Q.106):Force Majeure (FM) event means extraordinary events or circumstances

beyond human control such as an event described as an act of God like a natural calamity or events
such as war, strike, roits, crimes but not including negligence or wrong-doing, predictable/seasonal rain
and any other event specifically excluded in the clause. FM clauses are typically used in commercial
contracts in case such specified conditions prohibit contractual obligations from being fulfilled.
A contract to do an act which, after the contract is made, becomes impossible, or, by reason of some
event which the promisor could not prevent, unlawful, becomes void when the act becomes impossible or
unlawful. Where one person has promised to do something which he knew, or with reasonable diligence,
might have known, and which the promisee did not know, to be impossible or unlawful, such promisor
must make compensation to such promisee for any loss which such promisee sustains through the non-

MOCK CLAT #06
performance of the promise. A party to a contract will only be able to consider Force Majeure to excuse
non-performance if there is a Force Majeure clause in the contract.
For an event to be covered under FM, a party will have to show that:
 An FM event has occurred which is beyond its control; and
 It has prevented, hindered or delayed its performance of the contact; and
 It has taken all reasonable steps to avoid or mitigate the event or its consequences.
A FM clause in the contract frees both the parties from contractual liability or obligation when prevented
by such events from fulfilling their obligations under the contract. A FM clause does not excuse a party‘s
non-performance entirely, but only suspends it for the duration of the FM. The firm has to give notice of
FM as soon as it occurs and it cannot be claimed ex-post facto.
Section 56 of Indian Contract Act lays down that a contract to do an act which, after the contract is made,
becomes impossible, or, by reason of some event which the promisor could not prevent, unlawful,
becomes void when the act becomes impossible or unlawful. And this is known a doctrine of frustration.
This doctrine comes into play in two types of situation, first, where the performance is physically cut off,
and, second, where the object has failed,
If there are more than one ways of performing a contract and the war cuts off only one of them, the party
is still bound to perform by the other way, however inconvenient or expensive.
102. John agreed to sell to George three hundred tons of Sudan Groundnuts. The usual and normal route at
the date of the contract was via Suez Canal. Shipment was to be in November/December. 1956, but on
November 2, 1956, the Canal was closed to traffic and it was not reopened until the following April. John
had an option to transport the goods via the Cape of Good Hope but he refuses to ship via the cape.
Decide whether by reason of the closing of the Suez route, the contract has been ended by frustration?
(a) The contract is frustrated since it was an implied term of the contract that shipment should be via
Suez.
(b) The contract is frustrated since the closure of Suez Canal renders the performance of contract
frustrated.
(c) The contract is frustrated even though there is another option available but it will add on to the cost
John.
(d) The contract is not frustrated because there is no impossibility in performing the condition of the
contract since there are different options available to deliver the groundnuts.
103. There was a contract between X and Y, who was an eminent pianist, that she should play the piano at a
concert to be given by X on a specific day. On the morning of the day of concert, Y informed X that he
was too ill to attend the concert. The concert had to be postponed and X lost a huge sum of money. X
brought an action for breach of contract against Y in the court of law which was opposed by Y contending
the frustration of contract. Decide the liability of Y.
(a) Y should not be held liable since her condition did not allow her to perform and her performance was
the foundation of the contract, failing which the whole contact rendered frustrated.
(b) Y should be held liable for breach of contract since she did not perform on the day of concert.
(c) X‘s claim of breach of contract should succeed since he incurred financial loss while arranging of the
essentials of the contract.
(d) Y should not be held liable since her health should be given priority over her performance.
104. There was contract between Zoya and Akhatar, they both belong to Kaziabad, for the supply of ―Krupps‖
steel rails, which is manufactured in Germany. But the contract deed does not specifically ask for Krupps
from Germany only. Zoya failed to supply the Krupps to Akhatar due to the outbreak of World War 2
which declared Germany as an alien nation of Kaziabad. And any kind of trade with alien enemy is not
possible. Zoya claimed that his performance of the contract became impossible and illegal. Decide
whether contract between Zoya and Akhatar become frustrated because of the World War 2?
(a) Any supervening act which is beyond the control of supplier renders the contract frustrated.
(b) The contract required Zoya to supply the Krupps steel rail which is manufactured in Germany but after
the war Germany became an alien enemy which makes any trade with it impossible.
(c) The contract is rendered frustrated since the outbreak of World War 2 is a supervening act which
make the performance of contract impossible.
MOCK CLAT #06
(d) The contract is not frustrated since there are still other sources available with Zoya to supply the
goods and the performance of the contract is still possible.
105. Suppose A and B entered into a contract where A was required to supply wall paint from his warehouse
which is located 500 kms away from B‘s shop. A used to supply the stock to B on weekly basis.
Unexpectedly there was an outbreak of Corona virus in the country. The government asked people for
complete self-isolation for 21 days and any kind of public gathering was strictly prohibited. Under these
circumstances A was unable to supply stock for the next three weeks. B sued A for breach of contract.
Decided whether A is liable or not?
(a) A is liable for breach of contract since he has an obligation to provide stock on weekly basis which he
did not supplied.
(b) A is not liable since the circumstances were out of his control and it was impossible for him to supply
goods in those three weeks since that will violate government order.
(c) A is not liable since there is complete police guard and escaping them to supply the stock is very
difficult task.
(d) A is liable since because of him the business of B is hampered.
106. By the contract in writing Jai brought to Vijay a number of dhotis to be manufactured by specified mills
and to be delivered as when the same may be received from the mills. The seller delivered only the part
of the goods owing to the mills failing to perform their contract with Vijay as they were engaged in fulfilling
certain government contracts. Jai brought an action for breach of contract against Vijay but later pleaded
frustration in the court of law. Decide
(a) This is a breach of contract and not the frustration of contract since the closing or even the destruction
of the mills would not affect the contract between third parties, which is in term absolute.
(b) This is a case of frustration since the delivery of goods is not in the hands of Vijay.
(c) This is not a case of frustration since Vijay should have engaged more with the mills and should have
ensured the delivery.
(d) This is not a breach of contract since Vijay had tried his best to procure the goods.

MOCK CLAT #06
Passage (Q.107-Q.111):In the last few years the federal government has imposed so many restrictions
and conditions on the building of nuclear power plants that it takes twice as long to build a nuclear power
plant in the United States as it does to build one in either Europe or Japan. It is no coincidence that,
during the same years, many companies have given up their plans to build nuclear power plants in the
United States. Clearly, the decisions to abandon nuclear power plant projects in the United States are a
direct consequence of government restrictions.
Whereas in India, government has proposed a law. The Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Bill, 2010
seeks to create a mechanism for compensating victims of nuclear damage arising from a nuclear
incident. The Standing Committee tabled its report in Parliament on August 19, 2010, following which the
government circulated a list of amendments to the Bill. This law also lost interest of many financers.
107. What is the main idea of the author in the first paragraph of the passage?
(a) Government restrictions have resulted into abandonment of nuclear power plant projects in the United
States.
(b) Many companies are not building nuclear power plants in the United States.
(c) Federal government has imposed many restrictions and conditions on the building of nuclear power
plants in the United States.
(d) It takes less time to build nuclear power plant in either Europe or Japan.
108. What role does the statement ―during the same years, many companies have given up their plans to build
nuclear power plants in the United States‖ play?
(a) Forms the conclusion of the above passage.
(b) Forms the premise of the author‘s idea that Government restriction has resulted into abandonment of
nuclear power plant projects in the United States.
(c) Forms premise of the authors idea that federal government has imposed many restrictions and
conditions on the building of nuclear power plants.
109. Why does the author says that ―many companies have given up their plans to build nuclear power plants
in the United States‖?
(a) Because they were suffering loss in the United States.
(b) Because it takes twice as long to build a nuclear power plant in the United States as it does to build
one in either Europe or Japan.
(c) Because it costs them less to build nuclear power plant in other countries.
(d) Federal government does not favour building of nuclear power plant in the United States.
110. The author of this passage makes his argument by-

(a) Denying the plausibility of any other point of view.
(b) Making contradictory assumptions.
(c) Drawing a generalization from an atypical case.
(d) Asserting a causal connection.
111. The nuclear law of India has many features similar to the nuclear law of US.
The above statement is
(a) Definitely true (b) Definitely false (c) Probably false (d) Cannot be ascertained.

MOCK CLAT #06
Passage (Q.112-Q.116):After the COVID-19 upended the American life, millions of college students
made the transition from sitting in campus lecture halls to live-streaming seminars at their kitchen tables.
Do students think their pricey degrees are worth the cost when delivered remotely? The answer is NO.
As a parent of a college-age child, I‘m sympathetic to these concerns. But as a college professor, I find
them terrifying. And invigorating.
To explain this, I‘ll take the example of the entertainment industry. Throughout the 20th century, the
industry remained remarkably stable, despite technological innovations that regularly altered the ways
movies, television, music, and books were created, distributed, and consumed.
Trouble arrived early in the 21st century, when upstart companies powered by new digital technologies
began to challenge the status quo. In 1997, after one music executive heard songs compressed into the
MP3 format, he refused to believe anybody would give up the sound quality of CDs for the portability of
MP3s. ―No one is going to listen to that shit,‖ he insisted. We all know how that worked out: From 1999 to
2009, the music industry lost 50 percent of its sales. Similar dynamics are at play in higher education
today.
INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY transforms industries by making scarce resources plentiful, forcing
customers to rethink the value of established products… An analogous situation prevails in higher
education,
Arguments for the inherent superiority of the residential college experience will be less convincing now
that we‘ve conferred the same credentials—and charged the same tuition—for education delivered
remotely.
I need no convincing of the value of campus life and in-classroom education. But the online platforms
can fulfill key pieces of our core mission and reach many more students, of all ages and economic
backgrounds, at a far lower cost. Indeed, that unbundling is already happening. This transition is likely to
appear first in technical degree programs, where it is relatively easy for students to certify their skills
online, there is high demand from employers, and there are plentiful courses from professors at top
universities. It is also likely to impact master‘s programs before bachelor‘s programs, because many
working professionals seeking to shift careers don‘t have the time or resources for full-time, residential
programs. Private universities may be affected before public institutions—which will be shielded, at least
initially, by lower prices and the ability to leverage taxpayer support. But this transformation won‘t stop
with technical master‘s degrees at private institutions. Ultimately, its influence will be felt at every level in
the academy, and across nearly all degree programs. Inevitably, as employers embrace new skills-based
certifications, many students may question the value of the traditional four-year degree.
112. Which of the following response will strengthen author‘s argument that students think their pricey degrees
are not worth the cost when delivered remotely?
(a) The Wall Street Journal conducted a survey in April in this regard, and one student responded with
this zinger: ―Would you pay $75,000 for front-row seats to a Beyoncé concert and be satisfied with a
livestream instead?‖
(b) 78% respondents in that survey voted that degrees are not worth the cost when delivered remotely.
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
113. Why does the author find the concerns terrifying?

(a) Because he believes the changes have the potential to render his worth as a professor obsolete.
(b) New technologies cause power shifts in industries, and the changes in store for higher education are
going to look a lot like the painful changes seen in retail, travel, news, and entertainment.
(c) Universities have long been remarkably stable institutions. That stability has bred overconfidence,
overpricing, and an overreliance on business models tailored to a physical world.

MOCK CLAT #06
114. What is the author‘s main contention in the passage?

(a) Like the entertainment executives, many of the people in higher education dismiss the threats that
digital technologies pose to the way they work.
(b) People involved in higher education often diminish online-learning and credentialing platforms such
as poor substitutes for the ―real thing.‖
(c) The threat that online education poses to traditional education must not be dismissed outrightly.
115. Which of the following will the author agree to?

(a) What online services lack in quality, they make up for in convenience.
(b) Online platforms can‘t perfectly replace what we deliver on campus.
116. Which of the following strengthen the argument that online platforms can fulfill key pieces of core mission
of education?
(a) Employers such as Google, Apple, IBM, and Ernst & Young have stopped requiring traditional
university degrees, even for some of their most highly skilled positions.
(b) When massively open online courses first appeared, making free classes available to anyone with
internet access, universities reflexively dismissed the threat. At the time, MOOCs were amateuristic,
low-quality, and far removed from our degree-granting programs. But over the past 10 years, the
technology has improved greatly.
117. Passage:Cultured pearls are pearls grown under tightly controlled conditions by pearl farmers. When
people hear ‗cultured‘, they tend to think ‗fake‘. But they are no more inauthentic than an apple picked
from a tree in an orchard. The seed may not have landed there by accident and grown into a tree
unnoticed, but that doesn‘t make the fruit any less real.
What is this argument trying to prove?
(a) An artificially grown thing can be even more authentic than the one that grows naturally on its own.
(b) That which grows naturally is generally considered more authentic than that which is grown artificially.
(c) The authenticity of a thing is not dependent on whether it was deliberately or accidentally grown.
(d) The difference between a fake thing and an authentic one is like the difference between a deliberately
and an accidentally grown thing.
118. Passage: In Maldives, all Maldivians eligible to vote must vote or pay exorbitant penalty. Since voting is
compulsory, over 99 percent of the eligible voters voted in the 2018 general elections. Thus, Ibrahim
Mohamed Solih, the winner of the 2018 election is truly the people‘s choice.
What is the assumption here?
(a) In Maldives, voters are allowed to vote for a candidate of their choice.
(b) If Maldives did not make voting compulsory, few people would vote.
(c) Only in countries where voting is compulsory do people vote the way they wish to vote.
(d) Maldives is a true democracy, in spite of the fact that all people are compelled to vote.
Passage (Q.119-Q.123): The pursuit of knowledge (Jnan), wisdom (Pragyaa), and truth (Satya) was
always considered in Indian thought and philosophy as the highest human goal. Education is
fundamental for achieving full human potential, developing an equitable and just society, and promoting
national development. This National Education Policy 2020 is the first education policy of the 21st century
and aims to address the many growing developmental imperatives of our country. There are some good
aspects to the NEP that will generate little opposition, and need only proper funding. Arrangement of an
energy filled breakfast, in addition to the nutritious mid-day meal, to help children achieve better
outcomes, is one. Creation of ‗inclusion funds‘ to help socially and educationally disadvantaged children
pursue education is another. The existing 10+2 structure will be replaced by 5+3+3+4 structure which will

MOCK CLAT #06
focus on the formative years of learning of a student. This constitutes 12 years in school and 2 years in
pre-school for each student. There will be Board examinations like before in class 10 and class 12. But
they will have lesser stakes and more stress will be given on the holistic upgrading of the student.
Where the policy fails to show forcefulness, however, is on universalization of opportunity, both in schools
and higher education; the Right to Education needs specific measures to succeed. Furthermore, fee
injunctions are present in some states even now, but the regulatory process is unable to control
profiteering in the form of unaccounted donations. Under the new system, one has to study for four years
to complete their graduation. However, the question arises as to why the student will continue with the
program if he/she can get the diploma in two years? If he/she left the program mid-way after two years,
then he/she could easily have two years of experience of work which will be valuable in the long run. The
proposal of a National Assessment Centre set up by the Central Government under the new education
policy will certainly ruffle states' feathers.
119. Which of the following is a valid inference?

(a) govt. is not able to rein in practice of making unfair profits in the form of unaccounted donations.
(b) govt. is incompetent to control the practice of making unfair profits in the form of unaccounted
donations.
(c) govt. is in collusion in the practice of making unfair profits in the form of unaccounted donations.
(d) govt. ignores the practice of making unfair profits in the form of unaccounted donations.
120. What is the main idea of the passage?

(a) The new education policy will further increase the differences between the sections of the society.
(b) Education cannot be ignored
(c) NEP 2020 is flawed.
(d) Examining the new education policy
121. Which of the following options can immediately follow the given passage?
(a) emphasis has been given on setting up Gender Inclusion Fund and Special Education Zones. This
will be beneficial for underprivileged people.
(b) similarly, a National Professional Standards for Teachers (NPST) would have to convince state
governments of its advantages.
(c) India has the problem of a disturbing teacher and student ratio. So introducing mother languages in
academic institutions for each subject is a problem.
(d) BalBhavans will be established in every state. This will be a boarding school where the students can
take part in art, play or career-related activities.
122. Which of the following, if true, weakens the author‘s argument in the first sentence of the second
paragraph (Where the policy fails to show forcefulness, however, is on universalization of opportunity,
both in schools and higher education)?
(a) education is not easily accessible to all who need it.
(b) everyone in India does not have an access to elementary education
(c) education is compulsory and easily accessible to everybody in India
(d) India has 22 active languages and not one national language like in the other countries.
123. Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?
(a) Presently, all states have fee regulations in place
(b) overhauling the education policy is a regular occurrence.
(c) the education policy that was followed till now, is not satisfactory anymore.
(d) arrangement of breakfast and midday meals to students will make academic success a surety.

MOCK CLAT #06
Passage (Q.124-Q.134):With their population still struggling to recover from hunting, the North Atlantic
right whale is now just ―one step from extinction‖, according to the International Union for the
Conservation of Nature (IUCN). It last week moved the whale’s status on their Red List from
“endangered” to “critically endangered” – on the verge of extinction in the wild.Scientists and
conservationists expressed grim hope that this move may help speed up protections for these giants.
Often found leisurely filtering plankton at the ocean surface, the right whale species was once highly
targeted by whalers: their slow speed made them easy to hunt, and they float when killed. According to
the IUCN, 30 deaths or serious injuries were recorded between 2012 and 2016 by fishing gear
entanglement.
Many scientists support stricter regulations on fishing: new regulations could mean fishermen must
bear the cost of upgrading gear, and these changes will also reduce their catch. The National Marine
Fisheries Service‘s 2019 attempt to reduce gear in the water led the Maine Lobstermen‘s Association to
back out of regional protective measures.
Right whales‘ habit of feeding leisurely at the surface made them ideal for hunting and now leaves them
vulnerable to ship strikes and entanglement in nets. The growing entanglement problem may be due to
stronger ropes, making it harder for whales to break free. Fishermen are now encouraged to use lines
with a weaker breaking strength. Climate change also plays a big role. The North Atlantic right whale‘s
primary feeding ground, the Gulf of Maine, has warmed three times faster than the rest of the world‘s
oceans.
The US and Canadian governments enforce seasonal boat speed limits in areas that right whales
frequent. Whales are now changing their usual haunts as they seek cooler waters, taking them into
places without these speed limits. Warming waters also make it harder for right whales to find food,
leading to unusually low birth rate.
Additionally, climate change has caused a lobster boom on the east coast of North America, which has
brought more fishing gear into the habitat. Overall, researchers are keenly aware that time is not on the
whales‘ side, as deaths outpace the speed of regulatory action.
―It‘s a very slow process, and keeping the public engaged and keeping funding going is tough when you
know you‘re not going to see results for 20 years,‖ said Wiley. ―That‘s not unique to right whales, but
we‘re living at the moment in time that things might get better. The fact that our activity is driving them to
extinction is something that isn‘t acceptable for us as human beings. We‘re, and can, do better than that.‖
124. What purpose do the two boldface statements serve?

(a) Statement 1 presents a problem; statement 2 poses an ideal solution to the problem
(b) Statement 1 presents the conclusion and statement 2 presents the basis of the conclusion
(c) Statement 1 is a partial conclusion and statement 2 is the basis of the partial conclusion
(d) Statement 1 is the basis of the conclusion and statement 2 is the conclusion
125. The passage suggests that-

1) Climate change is the root cause of all evil.
2) Elevating the category of threat to critically endangered is a step in the right direction
3) Humans are better and can do better to put a pause to this blind march towards extinction of the said
whales.
(a) All of the above
(b) 1 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2

MOCK CLAT #06
126. The passage implies that-

(a) Whales are generally difficult to hunt.
(b) Wires of weak strength need to be used.
(c) Limiting boat speed proved to be a futile exercise.
(d) It is impossible to save whales from getting extinct.
127. Statement- Researchers are keenly aware that time is not on the whales‘ side, as deaths outpace the
speed of regulatory action. What purpose does this statement serves in the given passage?
(a) Inference statement
(b) Weaken the argument
(c) Strengthen the argument
(d) Parallel reasoning
128. Which of the following situations will occur, if fishing regulations are strictly followed?
1) Increased cost of fishing
2) Reduction in the number of fishes caught
3) Increased use of nets
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3
(d) 3 only
129. From the passage above what is the consequence of warming waters of Gulf of Maine?
1) Climate change
2) Low birth rate of whales.
3) Whales being deprived of proper nutrition
4) Lobster boom.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 c. 1, 2 and 4 d. 1, 3 and 4
130. What according to the passage is the effect of climate change?

1) Lobster boom
2) Warming of water
3) Reduced whale catch for fishermen
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,2 and 3
131. What according to the passage fits as the best reason behind whales looking for cold water?
1) Scope of vegetation
2) Population increase
3) Leisure
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
132. Which of the following assertions is best supported by the passage?

(a) Humans and their act on climate are responsible for the critical damage to the species count.
(b) Humans are not bad enough to harm the species.
(c) The revival of species is possible in short term
(d) With the current turn of events it is unsure if the species will survive the test of extinction.

MOCK CLAT #06
133. In a certain code language, ‗pat zoo sim‘ means ‗eat good mangoes‘, ‗plus simtim‘ means ‗mangoes and
sweets‘ and ‗tim zoo kit‘ means ‗purchase good sweets‘, which word in the language means good?
(a) zoo
(b) plus
(c) sim
(d) tim
Directions (Q.134 – Q.136): Study the following information and answer the questions given below it.
In a family picnic, Shina, Divika, Snehal, Akash, Suhas and Ambar were playing a game. Shina‘s father,
mother and uncle were in the group. Group has only two females. Divika, the mother of Shina got more
points than Shina‘s father. Akash got more points in the game than Suhas but less than that of Ambar.
Niece of Suhas got the lowest points. Father of Suhas got more points than Ambar but could not win the
game.
134. Who was the lady in the group besides Divika?

(a) Snehal
(b) Akash
(c) Suhas
(d) Shina
135. Who won the game?

(a) Shikhar
(b) Divika
(c) Ambar
(d) Akash
136. Who stood second in the game?

(a) Shina
(b) Divika
(c) Snehal
(d) Ambar

MOCK CLAT #06
Directions (Q.137- Q.141): Study the following pie-charts carefully and answer accordingly:
The following pie- charts show the crimes against women in the year 2012.
Total number of cases registered as crimes against women in 2012= 1 lakh.

Note: The proportion of the nature of crime remains same for each state.
137. During 2012, the number of registered cases in UP and Others together exceeded the number of cases
in AP and TN together by (in numbers)
(a) 10000 (b) 60000 (c) 8000 (d) 12000
138. Approximately how many cases of Kidnapping were registered per day WB for the year 2012?
(a) 10 (b) 7 (c) 4 (d) 13
139. Percentage of ITPA cases registered in UP exceeded that in TN by

(a) 40% (b) 30% (c) 50% (d) 60%
140. Which of the following given crimes against women in Maharastra is less than 1500 in number?
(a) Molestation (b) Rest (c) Kidnapping (d) Dowry death
.
141. During 2012, the number of cases of Torture and Rest together exceeded the number of cases of
Molestation and Kidnapping together by (in numbers)
(a) 4120 (b) 3000 (c) 3120 (d) 2120

MOCK CLAT #06
Directions (Q.142- Q.146): GOGOAGONE PVT. LTD, is a travel service company which plans for a trip
for its customers. The Bar Chart 1 given below gives the information about the percentage of customers
out of total customers who went to Goa in every month from Jan to June in the year 2018. The Bar Chart
2 given below gives the information about the number of customers who didn‘t go to Goa in each of the 6
months.
Total number of customers of the respective months = The ones who went to Goa + The ones who didn‘t
go to Goa.
Bar chart 1
Bar Chart 2
142. The total number of customers in June was how many more than that of Jan?
(a) 1100 (b) 900 (c) 1300 (d) 750
143. In April, the ratio of males to female customers was 3 : 2. If 40% of the total number of male customers
went to Goa, then among the customers who didn‘t go to Goa how many of them were females?
(a) 225 (b) 348 (c) 216 (d) 228
MOCK CLAT #06
144. The number of customers who went to Goa in Jan and Feb together was how many less than the number
of customers who didn‘t go to Goa in March and April together?
(a) 853 (b) 933 (c) 756 (d) 923
145. In the first three months of the year 2018, the total number of female customers was 800, then what was
the total number of male customers in these months together?
(a) 3430 (b) 3840 (c) 3660 (d) 3420
146. How many customers of GOGOAGONE Pvt ltd had gone to Goa in the first six months of the year 2018?
(a) 4652 (b) 4482 (c) 4812 (d) 4962
Directions (Q.147-Q.150): The following data is about the organization of the NimbuPaani Cup.
The event was jointly organized by the cricketing boards of India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. The event was
held between 01-Mar and 31-Mar.
Inflow = Outflow = Rs 120 cr
People Resources Involved:

Players 180
Officials 1,400
Spectators 7,60,000
Security 17,000
Volunteers 14,000
147. Profits among Sri Lanka, Pakistan and India Cricket boards are split in the ratio 1:2:3. The Board of
Control for cricket in India (BCCI) pays a tax of 30%. Find the post tax profit of BCCI.
(a) Rs 8.4 cr (b) Rs 2.8 cr (c) Rs 5.88 cr (d) Rs 16.8 cr
148. If 25% of operational costs can be attributed to security, then what is the average cost of a security
personnel (Lakh)?
(a) Rs 1.11 (b) Rs 0.18 (c) Rs 2.18 (d) None of these
149. What was the average realization per spectator in the course of the games? (Assuming no overlaps of
spectators)
(a) Rs 435 (b) Rs 521 (c) Rs 400 (d) None of these
150. Volunteers had been given tickets at subsidized rates of Rs 50. If they were charged the rates of 300,
ticket sales would have changed by
(a) Rs 42 lakhs (b) Rs 4.2 cr (c) Rs 35,000,000 (d) None of these

MOCK CLAT #07

Candidate Name : _________________
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
Test Centre/Hall.
MOCK CLAT #07
Passage (Q.1-Q.5):Without, the night was cold and wet, but in the small parlour of Laburnam Villa the
blinds were drawn and the fire burned brightly. Father and son were at chess, the former, who possessed
ideas about the game involving radical changes, putting his king into such sharp and unnecessary perils
that it even provoked comment from the white-haired old lady knitting placidly by the fire. “Hark at the
wind,” said Mr. White, who, having seen a fatal mistake after it was too late, was amiably desirous of
preventing his son from seeing it. “I'm listening,” said the latter, grimly surveying the board as he
stretched out his hand. “Check.” “I should hardly think that he'd come to-night,” said his father, with his
hand poised over the board. “Mate,” replied the son. “That's the worst of living so far out,” bawled Mr.
White, with sudden and unlooked for violence; “of all the beastly, slushy, out-of-the-way places to live in,
this is the worst. Pathway's a bog, and the road's a torrent. I don't know what people are thinking about. I
suppose because only two houses on the road are let, they think it doesn't matter.” “Never mind, dear,”
said his wife soothingly; “perhaps you'll win the next one.” Mr. White looked up sharply, just in time to
intercept a knowing glance between mother and son. The words died away on his lips, and he hid a guilty
grin in his thin grey beard. “There he is,” said Herbert White, as the gate banged loudly and heavy
footsteps came toward the door.
The old man rose with hospitable haste, and opening the door, was heard condoling with the new arrival.
The new arrival also condoled with himself, so that Mrs. White said, “Tut, tut!” and coughed gently as her
husband entered the room, followed by a tall burly man, beady of eye and rubicund of visage. “Sergeant-
Major Morris,” he said, introducing him. The sergeant-major shook hands, and taking the proffered seat
by the fire, watched contentedly while his host got out whisky and tumblers and stood a small copper
kettle on the fire.
Extract taken from The Monkey’s Paw by W.W. Jacobs
1. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word ‘without’ as used in the first sentence of the
passage?
(a) Lacking something
(b) Outside
(c) Inside
(d) Unaccompanied
2. What does the expression “Pathway's a bog, and the road's a torrent.” refer to?
(a) The weather outside is very stormy.
(b) The road is not motorable.
(c) The surrounding area of the house is marshy and muddy.
(d) The area around the house is desolate.
3. What does the phrase “with hospitable haste” refer to?

(a) Mr. White got up very quickly.
(b) Mr. White got up quickly to let in the guest
(c) Mr. White got up gently and hospitably
(d) Mr. White was not expecting the guest
4. Refer to the sentence: “Mr. White looked up sharply, just in time to intercept a knowing glance between
mother and son.”
What does this sentence imply?
(a) Mrs. White was only trying to placate her husband’s loss in the game
(b) Herbert White defeated his father in every game of chess.
(c) Mrs. White and her son were conniving against Mr. White.
(d) Mr. White had never won a game of chess before.

MOCK CLAT #07
5. What is the figure of speech used in the following expression: “the gate banged loudly and heavy
footsteps came toward the door”
(a) Simile
(b) Metaphor
(c) Irony
(d) Onomatopoeia
Passage (Q.6-Q.12):We have lived in the shadow of the Bomb ever since — 75 years, much longer than
many people expected. At the news of Hiroshima, the St. Louis Post-Dispatch feared the event had
“signed the mammalian world’s death warrant, and deeded an earth in ruins to the ants.” I shivered in
that shadow as a boy growing up in a bull’s eye of the Cold War, and often doubted that I would live out a
lifetime. Now that I nearly have, my fear has changed. I worry that the United States has come to take
survival for granted.
Journalists announce and discard eras as casually as bingo numbers, but a true historical dividing line
was blasted into the sands of New Mexico. Before the blinding flash, only gods destroyed worlds. Then
the power passed into human hands. That dividing line is so stark that it obscures the long path that led
to our nuclear fate. The Bomb is often presented as a discrete choice, an option unmoored from history,
unrelated to the countless choices and decisions, accidents and discoveries, that produced it.
However, the Bomb is better understood as the terrible yet logical — and probably inevitable — result of
a chain of developments in science, technology and the nature of war going back centuries. As if running
on rails with unstoppable momentum, these developments moved in one direction only, toward ever more
fearsome weapons and ever more catastrophic wars. This momentum made the nuclear age
unavoidable.Henry Stimson, the elderly secretary of war alluded to this inevitability in April 1945. His
memo to Truman brought the new president into the tight circle of secrecy around the development of
“the most terrible weapon ever known in human history”. The Allies were given no choice but to outrace
the Germans and Japanese and Soviets to this weapon, for its scientific basis was known to physicists
around the world from the earliest days of the war. Unfortunately, the world’s “moral advancement” had
not accelerated to keep pace with its technical proficiency, Stimson added ruefully, thus: “modern
civilization might be completely destroyed.”
In the 75 years since, the famous Doomsday Clock of the Bulletin of the Atomic Scientists has never
permitted much reason for hope: Its hands have always pointed to the final minutes before midnight. Yet
the worst-case scenario remains in abeyance. What’s more, while the Bomb has not ended all wars, its
menacing umbrella has spared the world from another industrial-scale conflagration among great
powers. This is no small thing. During the last 31 years before the nuclear age, warfare consumed more
than 100 million lives, majority being civilians. The only thing worse than Hiroshima and Nagasaki was
the unspeakable brutality that preceded them.
Extracted with edits and revisions from the article Living in the Shadow of the Bomb written by David Von
Drehle.
6. From the passage, where can you say with certainty the author used to live as a boy?
(a) Close to or in New Mexico
(b) He used to live in St. Louis
(c) He used to live in a place which was a target for the USSR
(d) He used to live close to Hiroshima and Nagasaki
7. Which of the following attitude of the journalists has the author talked about in the second paragraph?
(a) Perfunctory
(b) Pretentious
(c) Riveted
(d) Purblind

MOCK CLAT #07
8. How does the author connect the second and the third paragraphs of the passage?
(a) The second paragraph presents the reasons leading to the nuclear bomb and the third paragraph
talks about the aftermath of the bomb.
(b) The second paragraph highlights the attitude shown by the journalists about the bombing and the
third paragraph shows the same of the politicians.
(c) The second paragraph talks about the reasons for the creation of the bomb and the third paragraph
talks about how it could have been avoided.
(d) The second paragraph talks about how wrongly the bomb’s inception has been perceived and the
third paragraph shows the correct perception of the bomb’s inception.
9. What did Stimson mean when he said “the world’s “moral advancement” had not accelerated to keep
pace with its technical proficiency”?
(a) The world before the World War II was not as advanced technically, but the intent to create the
nuclear bomb was there
(b) It was the World War II that urged the scientists to create the bomb, because it gave them the reason
to do so
(c) After the bomb was dropped though the technical proficiency of the world increased, it caused moral
bankruptcy among people
(d) He is trying to stop Truman from giving sanction to dropping the bomb by saying how it can destroy
humanity
10. Which of the following is a figure of speech that has been used by the author in the passage?
(a) Simile (As if running on rails with unstoppable momentum, these developments moved in one
direction only)
(b) Personification (Its hands have always pointed to the final minutes before midnight)
(c) Hyperbole (warfare consumed more than 100 million lives)
11. Choose the option that has the correct meanings of the words highlighted – unmoored, inevitable,
abeyanceand conflagration in correct order.
(a) Attached, Indelible, Inferno, Suspicion
(b) Intelligible, Indelible, Suspension, Attached
(c) Connected, Premeditated, In vain, Blatant
(d) Unattached, Predestined, Suspension, Inferno
12. Which of the following would the author not agree to?
(a) There have been events equally or more worse than the nuclear bombs even before they were
dropped
(b) The Bomb has failed to stop superpowers from engaging in wars and taking large scale drastic steps
(c) Both of the above
Passage (Q.13-Q.18):Inthe movie “Lawrence of Arabia,” the young British diplomat-adventurer T.E.
Lawrence has convinced a group of Arab tribes to mount a surprise attack against the Ottoman Empire
and leads a band of Bedouin warriors across the desert. At one point, they discover that one of the Arab
soldiers, Gasim, has fallen off his camel. Lawrence instantly decides that he must turn around and find
the lost man. Sherif Ali, the chief Arab leader objects and tells Lawrence, “Gasim’s time has come,
Lawrence. It is written.” Lawrence snaps back, “Nothing is written!” Then he turns around, ventures back,
searches amid the sands and cyclones, and finds Gasim, half-dead. Lawrence brings him back to the
camp to a hero’s welcome. When Sherif Ali offers water, Lawrence looks at him and, before quenching
his thirst, calmly repeats, “Nothing is written.”
The world that is being ushered in as a consequence of the covid-19 pandemic is new and scary. The
health crisis has accelerated a number of forces that were already gathering steam. Most fundamentally,
it is now blindingly clear that human development as it is happening now is creating ever-greater risks.

MOCK CLAT #07
The backlash from nature is evident, from wildfires to hurricanes to pandemics, of which covid-19 may
simply be the first in a series.
It is a dangerous moment. But it is also in times like these that we can shape and alter such trends. To
complete the story of our future, we must add in human agency. People can choose which direction they
want to push themselves, their societies and their world.In most eras, history proceeds along a set path
and change is difficult. But the novel coronavirus has upended society. People are disoriented. Things
are already changing and, in that atmosphere, further change becomes easier than ever.Think about the
changes we have accepted ___ our own lives ____ response ____ the pandemic. We have agreed to
isolate ourselves for long stretches. We have worked, attended meetings and had deeply personal
conversations by talking to our laptops. In a month, companies changed policies that would normally
have taken them years to revise.Attitudes toward people previously ignored or overlooked are shifting, as
can been seen in the newly adopted phrase “essential workers.”
These changes could be momentary blips — or the start of something new. We could continue with
business as usual and risk cascading crises from climate change and new pandemics. Or we could get
serious about a more sustainable strategy for growth. We could turn inward and embrace nationalism and
self-interest, or we could view these challenges — which cross all borders — as a spur to global
cooperation and action. We have many futures in front of us.
Extracted with edits and revisions from the article The pandemic upended the presentby FareedZakaria.
13. Why does the author mention the incident from Lawrence of Arabia in the first paragraph?
(a) He is trying to draw the comparison between Lawrence’s attitude and that of the world today.
(b) He is trying to encourage the world to try for something new in the face of coronavirus pandemic.
14. What does the author mean when he says “the novel coronavirus has upended society”?
(a) He means that the coronavirus has destroyed the fabric of society
(b) He means that the pandemic has changed the fabric of society drastically
(c) He means that the pandemic has given society a new hope
(d) He means that the pandemic has given society an opportunity to change
15. Which of the following steps would the author most definitely endorse in the post-pandemic world?
(a) A globalised and inter-connected world
(b) Continuation of work from home
(c) Opening up of the economy to scale a rejuvenated and higher growth
16. The author says that we need to add in “human agency”. Which of the following aspects is he covering?
(a) Economic aspect
(b) Social aspect
(c) Psychological aspect
17. Which of the following attitudes is the author exhibiting in this passage?
(a) Apprehensive
(b) Agitated
(c) Sanguine
(d) Impetuous

MOCK CLAT #07
18. In the italicized line, the prepositions are missing. Choose the option which has the prepositions in proper
order.
(a) to, in, of
(b) in, to, to
(c) in, in, to
(d) to, in, to
Passage (Q.19-Q.25):This is about the ugly street brawl that has broken out among TV news channels.
Or more precisely, between ArnabGoswami and his Republic on the one hand, and many of the rest on
the other.It’s such a delightful irony that so many channels with egos larger than their humongous
followings, would make common cause over any issue. We know that Arnab divides; now we know he
can also unite the bitterest adversaries if he is the common threat.I won’t tell you who I think is lying or
telling the truth. That’s a waste in these polarised times when, once you believe in a person or a leader,
you believe everything he says. From Trump to Modi, from Arnab to Ravish in our limited connect, that
phenomenon rules. And there’s another reason: As school children would say, what goes of my pop?
I will tell you a story-anapocryphal one. A producer assembled the largest ever cast of extras for his war-
scenes, so he’d be hailed as the showman who brought the most realistic war sequences ever to the
screen.This is spectacular, his financier told him, but I am not about to pay for all these. How will you
pay? Not a problem, said the producer. In the last scene, I will give them real weapons, so they all kill
each other. We’re all — the most powerful, popular, the best and worst of us — now caught in this mad
battle scene with real weapons. We are not talking of just the television channels. This virus is as
contagious as Covid-19 and the problem is nobody is wearing masks or sanitising either.
The media’s power is monetisable in many other ways and so many with deep pockets and much larger
interests in other sectors buy media companies. They come at a tiny price, give you a great profile, you
can receive and see off the prime minister or the chief minister at your annual event, preen on the sofa
next to him. Those that matter for your other businesses — ministers, civil servants, even judges — are
taking note.You get that immediate rub-off of intangible value, but sizeably more than the economics of
your media company. The other set of owners and senior journalists see themselves as ‘players’ in
politics and the game of power. They have to choose a side quickly, and almost always the winning side.
When you see one television channel under pressure from the police and rival media for allegedly faking
its ratings, and within hours, statements appear in its support from the president of the nation’s dominant
ruling party and the Union Information & Broadcasting Minister, you know what is at stake.
Extracted with edits and revisions from How media has hit the self-destruct button in Arnab’s Republic-vs-
other TV channels warwritten by Shekhar Gupta.
19. We see the usage of a figure of speech in the first line of the passage itself. Which of the following has
been used?
(a) Simile
(b) Metonymy
(c) Metaphor
(d) Irony
20. Which of the following idioms can express the italicized lines suitably?
(a) Keep your friends closer; your enemies closer
(b) Never interrupt your enemy when he is making a mistake
(c) Do I not destroy my enemies when I make them my friends?
(d) Enemy of my enemy is my friend

MOCK CLAT #07
21. Which of the following is the meaning of the word written in bold?
(a) Real
(b) Dark in nature
(c) Doubtful authenticity
(d) Unethical and immoral
22. In the story narrated by the author, whom does he compare with the producer of the movie?
(a) The journalists and anchors
(b) The politicians
(c) The audience
(d) The media-company owners
23. The expression used by the author “what goes of my pop?” symbolizes -
(a) Indifference
(b) Rudeness
(c) Superiority complex
(d) Under-confidence
24. Which of the following is not an advantage of owning a media-outlet as per the author?
(a) It gives a high status to the owner in the society
(b) It becomes easier to ask for favours from persons of influence
(c) They will always be on the winning side
25. With which of the following statements would the author agree?
(a) These are divisive times that we are living in
(b) The media outlet in question has some understanding with the ruling-party
(c) Mostly media outlet owners have vested interests
Passage (Q.26-Q.30):That scientists who pioneered the revolutionary CRISPR-Cas9 gene-editing

technology, the biggest game-changer in biology in recent years, will win the Nobel Prize was never in
doubt; it was only a question of when and who would get recognised for the work done to develop the
tool. The Prize awarded to Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer A. Doudna, just eight years after they
developed the tool, has finally ended the speculation of who would win it. But most importantly, this
year’s Prize for chemistry has created history by honouring an all-woman team. It all started when Dr.
Charpentier discovered an RNA molecule that is part of bacteria’s ancient immune system — CRISPR-
Cas — wherein clustered repeated sequences produced by bacteria can remember and destroy viruses
by cleaving their DNA. Teaming with Dr. Doudna, she recreated the bacteria’s genetic scissors in a test
tube and simplified the tool to make it easier to programme the system to precisely cut specific sites of
interest in any DNA, including humans. While the tool is most often used to make a cut in the DNA, newer
approaches are being attempted to add or make minor changes to the DNA. All these approaches may at
some time in the future make it easy to “rewrite the code of life”.
The gene-editing technology has opened up a vast window of opportunity. In the last six years, the tool
has enabled scientists to edit human DNA in a dish and early-stage clinical trials are being attempted to
use the tool to treat a few diseases, including inherited disorders/diseases and some types of cancer.
Though in 2016 China began the first human clinical trial to treat an aggressive form of lung cancer by
introducing cells that contain genes edited using CRISPR-Cas9, the use of the tool has so far been
limited to curing genetic diseases in animal models. Last year, a Chinese researcher used the tool to
modify a particular gene in the embryo to make babies immune to HIV infection, which led to international
furore. Though no guidelines have been drawn up so far, there is a general consensus in the scientific
and ethics communities that the gene-editing technique should not be used clinically on embryos. Unlike
in the case of humans, the tool is being extensively used in agriculture. It is being tried out in agriculture
primarily to increase plant yield, quality, disease resistance, herbicide resistance and domestication of

MOCK CLAT #07
wild species. The huge potential to edit genes using this tool has been used to create a large number of
crop varieties with improved agronomic performance; it has also brought in sweeping changes to
breeding technologies. The gene-editing tool has indeed taken “life sciences into a new epoch”.
Extract taken from The Hindu (Editorial)
26. What is the meaning of the word ‘epoch’ as used in the last line of the passage?
(a) Phase
(b) Era
(c) Beginning
(d) Conundrum
27. In the context of the passage, what are the applications of gene editing in agriculture?
1. Enhance yield and quality of plants
2. Domestication of invasive species
3. Disease resistance
4. Drought resistance
Options:
(a) 1, 3 & 4
(b) 1, 2 & 3
(c) 1 & 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
28. The expression ‘rewrite the code of life’ refers to:

(a) Replicating DNA
(b) Replicating genes
(c) Adding or making changes to DNA
(d) Cutting DNA
29. Identify the figure of speech as used in the given phrase: ‘treat an aggressive form of lung cancer’:
(a) Simile
(b) Metaphor
(c) Personification
(d) Hyperbole
30. Which of the following statements is incorrect in the context of the passage?
(a) There are no strict guidelines as to the use of gene editing in embryos.
(b) There was a lot of speculation as to who would win the Nobel Prize for Chemistry.
(c) CRISPR Cas 9 has other applications, apart from human gene editing as well.
(d) CRISPR Cas 9 technique can be used to treat diseases.

MOCK CLAT #07
Passage (Q.31-Q.35):Climate change is largely to blame for a near doubling of natural disasters in the
past 20 years, the United Nations said on Monday.
The UNDRR said 7,348 major disaster events had occurred between 2000 and 2019, claiming 1.23 lives,
affecting 4.2 billion people and costing the global economy some $2.97 trillion.
The figure far outstrips the 4,212 major natural disasters recorded between 1980 and 1999, the UN office
said in a new report entitled “The Human Cost of Disasters 2000-2019”. The sharp increase was largely
attributable to a rise in climate-related disasters, including extreme weather events like floods, drought
and storms, the report said.
Extreme heat is proving especially deadly.
“We are wilfully destructive,” UNDRR chief MamiMizutori told reporters. “That is the only conclusion one
can come to when reviewing disaster events over the last 20 years.”
She accused governments of not doing enough to prevent climate hazards and called for better
preparation for looming disasters.
“The odds are being stacked against us when we fail to act on science and early warnings to invest in
prevention, climate change adaptation and disaster risk reduction,” she said.
The report did not touch on biological hazards and disease-related disasters like the coronavirus
pandemic. But Ms. Mizutori suggested coronavirus was “the latest proof that political and business
leaders are yet to tune in to the world around them”.
Source : https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/climate-change-to-blame-for-doubling-of-
disasters/article32837772.ece
31. International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction is observed on what day every year?
(a) 14th October
(b) 11th October
(c) 13th October
(d) 9th October
32. In terms of affected countries, China topped the list with 577 events followed by which two countries
respectively?
(a) Philippines & Japan
(b) Indonesia & Japan
(c) Vietnam & India
(d) USA & India
33. What’s the deadliest disaster according to the report from year 2000- 2019?
(a) Haiti Earthquake, 2010
(b) Indian Ocean Tsunami,2008
(c) Indian Ocean Tsunami &Earthquake, 2004
(d) Haiti Earthquake, 2008
34. The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is headed by?

(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) President of India
(c) Governor of States
(d) Chief Minister of States
35. What does UNDRR stands for?

(a) United Nation Disaster Risk Reduction
(b) United Nation Disaster Risk Rate
(c) United Nation Disaster Reduction Risk
(d) United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction

MOCK CLAT #07
Passage (Q.36-Q.40):The 2020 Nobel Prizes for sciences announced this week made history of sorts
when one of it was exclusively shared by two women. Scientists ( 3) bagged the Nobel Prize for
Chemistry “for the development of a method for [x]”. The discovery of “one of gene technology’s sharpest
tools: the CRISPR/Cas9 [y]” will lead to the emergence of novel biological applications by making it
easier to [x], and “may make the dream of curing inherited diseases come true”.
Much like what Microsoft (MS) Word does for writing, the CRISPR/Cas9 system allows for adding,
altering and deleting the genomic code in living beings. (CRISPR) are pieces of DNA that bacteria snip
off from viruses that once attacked them, much like file names used to store various documents we write
in MS Word.
The COVID-19 pandemic has brought to the fore the importance of ‘memory cells’, which can quickly
produce relevant antibodies to neutralise a repeat infection by a virus. Similarly, the CRISPR are a part of
bacteria’s immunological systems that help them in recognising threatening viruses. When they sense a
lurking virus, the bacteria produce customised RNA, which is necessary to translate DNA into protein,
gleaned from the CRISPR libraries. This also contains Cas (CRISPR-associated) genes that are used to
produce enzymes such as Cas-9.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/the-hindu-explains-how-does-a-genome-editing-tool-
developed-by-two-women-scientists-help-in-tackling-diseases/article32823954.ece
36. What is Cas9 Protein that is mentioned in the news?

(a) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in the patient.
(b) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing.
(c) Store mineral ions such as potassium in your body.
(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops.
37. India’s first CRISPR test has been named Feluda which is derived from -
(a) A fictional private detective from West Bengal
(b) fictional scientist created by Satyajit Ray
(c) fictionalteacher character created by Bengali author
(d) fictional professor from West Bengal
38. What are the names of the two scientists who won Nobel Prize for chemistry? Refer to point 3.
(a) Agnes Ullmann& Frances H. Arnold
(b) Frances H. Arnold & Ada Yonald
(c) Emmanuelle Charpentier& Jennifer A. Doudna
(d) Emmanuelle Charpentier& Jenna Dewan
39. What does CRISPR stands for?

(a) Clustered Regularly Interconnected Short Palindromic Repeats
(b) Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats
(c) Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Replicate
(d) Clustered Regularly Interconnected Short Palindromic Replicate
40. Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?

(a) contains ribose
(b) made of amino acids
(c) double helix
(d) contains Uracil

MOCK CLAT #07
Passage (Q.41-Q.45):Of the six NGOs whose license under the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act
(FCRA) was suspended by the Union Home Ministry this year, four are Christian associations. An FCRA
licence is mandatory for a non-profit organisation to receive foreign funds.At least two U.S.-based
Christian donors are also under the Ministry’s scanner for funding NGOs and groups here, a senior
government official said.
“Concerns have been raised regarding the impact of U.S.-based evangelical donors including Seventh
Day Adventist Church and Baptist Church in regard to Indian associations; a probe is on,” the official
said. The four Christian groups whose FCRA was suspended are Ecreosoculis North Western
GossnerEvangelical in Jharkhand, the Evangelical Churches Association (ECA) in Manipur, Northern
Evangelical Lutheran Church in Jharkhand and New Life Fellowship Association (NLFA) in Mumbai. The
reasons for the suspension or violation were not specified.
The (5), the youth wing, had obstructed prayer meetings organised by the NLFA in Mumbai in April and
September last year. The Hindu religious group alleged that the meeting was a pretext for religious
conversion and later submitted a complaint to the police.
None of the associations responded to requests by The Hindu for a comment on the government’s
decision.
Source :https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/government-suspends-fcra-clearance-of-4-christian-
groups/article32535766.ece
41. Which of the statements below are false ?

I. The Act ensures that the recipients of foreign contributions adhere to the stated purpose for which
such contribution has been obtained.
II. Under the Act, organisations are required to register themselves every four years.
III. According to section 3(1) of FCRA, 2010, those who are prohibited from receiving foreign
contribution include election candidates.
IV. The original Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act was enacted in 1976 by the Indira Gandhi-led
government during the Emergency.
(a) I & III
(b) I & IV
(c) only II
(d) onlyIV
42. NGO not registered under the FCRA cannot receive cash or anything of value higher than what amount?
(a) 20,000
(b) 15,000
(c) 45,000
(d) 25,000
43. Earlier in 2017, another powerful U.S.- based Christian donor was forced to stop operations in India due
to encouraged religious conversions. What is the name of the donor?
(a) World Vision International
(b) Convoy of Hope
(c) Samaritan's Purse
(d) Compassion International
44. The Home ministry suspended the licenses of 6 NGOs; the four Christian groups are mentioned above,
what are the names of other two groups?
(a) Etasha Society, andChaithanya Educational and Rural Development Society
(b) the National Society for Equal Opportunities for the Handicapped and Society For Child Development.
(c) Rajnandgaon Leprosy Hospital and Clinics , and the Don Bosco Tribal Development Society.
(d) Bhavada Devi Memorial Philanthropic Trust (SENEH), and Navjyoti India Foundation

MOCK CLAT #07
45. Which organization had obstructed prayer meetings organised by the NLFA in Mumbai in April and
September last year and filed a case against it? Refer to point 5.
(a) AkhilBharatiyaVidyarthiParishad
(b) Bajrang Dal
(c) RashtriyaSwayamsevakSangh
(d) Hindu Mahasabha
Passage (Q.46-Q.50):Turkish President ( 1) has accused Greece and Cyprus of failing to fulfil “promises”
made during negotiations within the European Union and NATO and said his country would continue to
give them “the response they deserve”.
President’s Comments came days after Ankara redeployed its search vessel, (5 ), for a new energy
exploration mission in disputed waters in the eastern Mediterranean, reigniting tensions with Greece and
Cyprus over sea boundaries and exploration rights. Turkish media reports said two navy frigates are
shadowing the search vessel. Those tensions had flared up over the summer, prompting a military build-
up, bellicose rhetoric and fears of a confrontation between the two NATO members and historic regional
rivals.
“Our vessel has returned to its duty in the Mediterranean,” Turkish president told legislators of his ruling
party in a speech in parliament. “We will continue to give the response they deserve on the field, to
Greece and the Greek Cypriot administration who have not kept their promises during talks within the EU
and NATO platforms.”
He did not spell out what the promises were, but Turkish officials have been accusing Greek officials of
engaging in a series of “provocations” despite efforts to revive the so-called exploratory talks between the
neighbours that were aimed at resolving disputes and were last held in 2016.
Heiko Maas, the foreign minister of Germany, which has been mediating between Athens and Ankara in
a bid to ease the tensions, criticised Turkey on Tuesday for taking “unilateral steps” in the eastern
Mediterranean, which he said were undercutting efforts to deescalate tensions. The US Department of
State issued a statement deploring Turkey’s move.
Source: https://www.aljazeera.com/news/2020/10/14/east-med-crisis-erdogan-ramps-rhetoric-against-
greece-cyprus
46. Fill in the blank (1)

(a) RecepTayyipErdoğan
(b) AhmetDavutoğlu
(c) AhmetNecdetSezer
(d) FuatOktay
47. Which is not included in the 12 founding countries of NATO?

(a) Luxembourg
(b) USA
(c) Portugal
(d) Russia
48. Which one of the following statements about NATO is not correct?
I. NATO has 29 independent member states
II. The US is an ex-officio member of NATO
III. NATO is a collective defenceorganisation in Europe
IV. Turkey is a member of NATO
(a) I & II &III
(b) I & IV
(c) I & III
(d) Only II

MOCK CLAT #07
49. Where is the headquarters of European Union?

(a) Brussels, Belgium
(b) Maastricht, Netherlands
(c) Kirchberg, Luxembourg
(d) Paris, France
50. What is the name of the Turkish search vessel redeployed for a new energy exploration mission? refer
point 5.
(a) RV MTA Turkuaz
(b) RV MTA Selen
(c) RV MTA Oruc Reis
(d) RV MTA Sesimis
Passage (Q.51-Q.55):The Palghar administration on Tuesday asked authorities to remain alert against a
possible spread of the [1] fever in the Maharashtra district. It spreads in humans through [2].
The district administration said in the wake of the outbreak of COVID-19, this is a matter of concern for
cattle- breeders, meat-sellers and animal husbandry officials, and it is necessary to take timely
precautions as there is no specific and useful treatment for the disease. Palghar animal husbandry
department's deputy commissioner DrPrashant D Kamble in a circular said the disease has been found in
some districts of Gujarat, and is likely to spread to border districts of Maharashtra. Palghar is close to
Gujarat's Valsad district. The department has instructed authorities to take all necessary precautions and
implement preventive measures. "If the disease is not diagnosed and treated in time, 30 per cent of
patients die," the circular said. The virus causes severe viral haemorrhagic fever outbreaks, with a case
fatality rate of 10 to 40 per cent, as per the World Health Organisation (WHO).
Source: Report taken from Press Trust of India
(a) Crimean
(b) Congo
(c) Nile
(d) Egyptian
(a) flies
(b) pigs
(c) ticks
(d) crows
53. What is the name of the virus that causes this disease?
(a) Nairovirus
(b) Megavirus
(c) Norwalk virus
(d) Circovirus
54. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) The virus belongs to the Reoviridae family
(b) There is no vaccine available for either people or animals against the disease
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
55. Which of the following drugs is used to treat people for this disease?
(a) Zanamivir
(b) Tamiflu
(c) Peramivir
(d) Ribavirin

MOCK CLAT #07
Passage (Q.56-Q.59):NASA's moon-exploring coalition is starting to come together.Eight nations have

signed the Artemis Accords, a set of principles outlining the responsible exploration of Earth's nearest
neighbor, NASA officials announced today (Oct. 13).
The path is now clear for those eight nations — Australia, Canada, Japan, Luxembourg, Italy, the United
Kingdom, the United Arab Emirates and (unsurprisingly) the U.S. — to participate in NASA's Artemis
program of crewed lunar exploration. Artemis aims to land two astronauts near the lunar south pole in ( 1)
and establish a sustainable human presence on and around the moon by the end of the decade — bold
goals that NASA aims to achieve with the help of international and private-sector partners.
"This is just the beginning," NASA Administrator Jim Bridenstine said during a call with reporters
yesterday . "These accords are going to grow from here, and we're excited about bringing on new
partners as we move forward."
The Artemis Accords serve as a preamble to bilateral, government-to-government agreements that
participating nations will sign with the U.S. Those future agreements will lay out each country's specific
contribution to the Artemis program, while the newly signed accords "establish norms of behavior and
rules for space operations," Bridenstine said.
For example, signatories to the Artemis Accords affirm, among other things, that they will conduct all
space activities peacefully and in accordance with international law; help protect space heritage, such as
the Apollo landing sites; publicly release scientific data in a timely manner; render aid to astronauts who
need it; and make their hardware and other systems "interoperable" to maximize cooperative use.
Source: https://www.space.com/eight-nations-sign-artemis-accords-moon-exploration
56. Artemis aims to land two astronauts near the lunar south pole by what year. Refer to point 1
(a) 2023
(b) 2024
(c) 2025
(d) 2022
57. Which mission of NASA brought first human to moon?

(a) Apollo program
(b) Gemini Program
(c) Mercury Program
58. ARTEMIS stands for?

(a) Acceleration, Revitalize, Turbulence, and Electrodynamics of the Moon's interaction with the Sun.
(b) Acceleration, Reconnection, Turbulence, and Electrodynamics of the Moon's interaction with the Sun.
(c) Acceleration, Reinvigoration, Turbulence, and Electrodynamics of the Moon's interaction with the
Sun.
(d) Acceleration, Reopen, Turbulence, and Electrodynamics of the Moon's interaction with the Sun.
59. Consider the following statements

1. A ray of light from the sun takes about 8 seconds to reach earth
2. Light from moon takes only a second to reach earth
Select the correct statementsout of the above.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

MOCK CLAT #07
Passage (Q.60-Q.64):At the end of July, 40% of the 4,000-year-old Milne Ice Shelf, located on the north-
western edge of Ellesmere Island, calved into the sea. Canada’s last fully intact ice shelf was no more.
On the other side of the island, the most northerly in Canada, the St Patrick’s Bay ice caps completely
disappeared.
Two weeks later, scientists concluded that the Greenland Ice Sheet may have already passed the point
of no return. Annual snowfall is no longer enough to replenish the snow and ice loss during summer
melting of the territory’s 234 glaciers. Last year, the ice sheet lost a record amount of ice, equivalent to 1
million metric tons every minute.
The Arctic is unravelling. And it’s happening faster than anyone could have imagined just a few decades
ago. Northern Siberia and the Canadian Arctic are now warming three times faster than the rest of the
world. In the past decade, Arctic temperatures have increased by nearly 1C. If greenhouse gas emissions
stay on the same trajectory, we can expect the north to have warmed by 4C year-round by the middle of
the century.
“The latest models are basically showing that no matter what emissions scenario we follow, we’re going
to lose summer [sea] ice cover before the middle of the century,” says Julienne Stroeve, a senior
research scientist at the US National Snow and Ice Data Center. “Even if we keep warming to less than
2C, it’s still enough to lose that summer sea ice in some years.”
Source: https://www.theguardian.com/us-news/ng-interactive/2020/oct/13/arctic-ice-melting-climate-
change-global-warming
60. A team of scientists have identified a novel driver of new aerosol particle formation in the Arctic. What it
is?
(a) Bromic acid HBrO3
(b) Nitrous acid HNO2
(c) Chloric acid HClO₃,
(d) Iodic acid, HIO₃
61. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Arctic Council?
1. Only nations surrounding Arctic ocean can become its member or observers.
2. The 1996 Ottawa Declaration established the Arctic Council as forum for promoting cooperation,
coordination, and interaction among the Arctic States.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both (d) None
62. Which of the following are members of Arctic council?

1. Netherland
2. Finland
3. United Kingdom
4. Poland
5. Russia
(a) 1 , 2 & 3 (b) 2 & 5
(c) All (d) 1,2& 5
63. El-Nino gets established in which of the following oceans?

(a) Indian ocean (b) Arctic ocean
(c) Pacific ocean (d) Atlantic ocean
64. The enormous shelf, which was the last intact ice shelf in Canada broke off. What is the name of the
shelf?
(a) Filchner-Ronne Ice Shelf
(b) Ekstrom Ice Shelf.
(c) Brunt Ice Shelf
(d) Milne Ice Shelf

MOCK CLAT #07
Passage (Q.65-Q.68):The Union Cabinet today ratified ban on seven Persistent Organic Pollutants
(POPs) listed under Stockholm Convention and hazardous to health and environment.
“With today’s decision, India is sending out a positive message to the world that we are active in this area
and we do not tolerate health and environmental hazard,” Environment Minister Prakash Javadekar said.
The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and environment from POPs, which
are identified chemical substances that persist in the environment, bio-accumulate in living organisms,
adversely affect human health/ environment and have the property of long-range environmental
transport.
Considering its commitment towards providing safe environment and addressing human health risks, the
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change had notified the Regulation of Persistent Organic
Pollutants Rules, on March 5, 2018, under the provisions of ( 4).
The approval demonstrates India’s commitment to meet its international obligations with regard to
protection of environment and human health. The ratification process would enable India to access (2
)financial resources in updating the NIP.
Source :https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/nation/union-cabinet-ratifies-ban-on-7-hazardous-chemicals-
152437
65. Consider the following statements with respect to Stockholm Convention

I. It is the first multilateral disarmament treaty banning the production of an entire category of Chemical
weapons.
II. India had ratified the Stockholm Convention in 2006.
III. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is an international environmental treaty,
signed in 2001 and effective from May 2004.
(a) I only
(b) III only
(c) Both II and III
(d) Neither I nor II

(a) Global Environment Facility
(b) Friends of the Earth International
(c) Earth System Governance
(d) Global Green Growth Institute
67. Exposure to POPs can lead to what kind of harms?

I. cancer,
II. damage to central and peripheral nervous systems,
III. diseases of immune system,
IV. reproductive disorders and
V. interference with normal infant and child development
(a) I, III, V
(b) II,IV, V
(c) I, II, III, V
68. Under which act the Regulation of Persistent Organic Pollutants Rules was notified?
(a) Environment Protection Act, 1986
(b) Environment Protection Act ,1988
(c) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
(d) Biological Diversity Act, 2000

MOCK CLAT #07
Passage (Q.69-Q.74):Mrs Donoghue's friend ordered a drink. Then, her friend was alleged to have
committed an act of generosity that has haunted our law of tort ever since. She purchased for Mrs
Donoghue an ice cream and a ginger beer. Had Mrs Donoghue purchased the ginger beer herself she
would have had a perfectly good action for breach of contract against the retailer. The ginger beer came
in an opaque glass with the name of the manufacturer, David Stevenson, on the side. Her friend poured
part of her drink and Mrs Donoghue drank it. As her friend was proceeding to pour the remainder of the
contents of the bottle into the tumbler, a snail, which was in a state of decomposition, floated out of the
bottle. Mrs Donoghue subsequently contracted what her doctors described as “severe gastro-enteritis”.
Mrs Donoghue sued the manufacturer, Stevenson and Co. The manufacturer brought a plea of relevancy
(similar to a demurrer) all the way up through the Scottish courts to the House of Lords.
A manufacturer of products, which he sells in such a form as to show that he intends them to reach the
ultimate consumer in the form in which they left him with no reasonable possibility of intermediate
examination, and with the knowledge that the absence of reasonable care in the preparation or putting up
of the products will result in an injury to the consumer's life or property, owes a duty to the consumer to
take that reasonable care. The liability for negligence, whether you style it such or treat it as in other
systems as a species of "culpa," is no doubt based upon a general public sentiment of moral wrongdoing
for which the offender must pay. But acts or omissions which any moral code would censure cannot in a
practical world be treated so as to give a right to every person injured by them to demand relief. In this
way rules of law arise which limit the range of complainants and the extent of their remedy. The rule that
you are to love your neighbour becomes in law, you must not injure your neighbour; and the lawyer's
question, who is my neighbour? receives a restricted reply. You must take reasonable care to avoid acts
or omissions which you can reasonably foresee would be likely to injure your neighbour. Who, then, in
law is my neighbour? The answer seems to be - persons who are so closely and directly affected by my
act that I ought reasonably to have them in contemplation as being so affected when I am directing my
mind to the acts or omissions which are called in question.
69. Neha runs a small tailoring business where she procures fabric from the local market and stitches frocks
for toddlers. Neha was sued by three of her clients for selling them frocks which resulted in allergic
reaction to the toddlers. When investigated, it was found that the fabric manufacturer added chemicals in
more than the required quantity resulting in bad quality of fabric causing allergy to tender skin of toddlers.
Neha argues that it should be the liability of the local manufacturer of fabric as she was only responsible
for the stitching part. Decide.
(a) Neha is not liable as in the current fashionable world, one should not expect high quality product.
(b) Neha is not liable as her clients are not her neighbours and she doesn’t owe any duty towards them.
(c) Neha is not liable as the damage was not forceable at her end and she did not act negligently with
respect to stitching of garments.
70. Referring to the above question, local manufacturer denies liability stating that Neha’s clients do not
qualify as manufacturer’s neighbours. Applying the rules stated in the paragraph decide whether
manufacturer will be liable or not?
(a) Manufacturer will be liable as acted negligently while adding more than required quantity of chemicals
in the fabric.
(b) Manufacturer will be liable as the clients of Neha are directly affected by the act of the manufacturer.
(c) Manufacturer is liable as he breached his duty of care resulting in damage.
(d) Manufacturer will not be liable as his duty is only restricted till he sells fabric to the tailors and not
beyond that.

MOCK CLAT #07
71. Aman runs Amul Milk Parlour where he also sells daily essentials products including bread from Modern
Bread Co and Biscuits from Sunfeast Co. Mr. Duggal bought a packet of bread from Aman’s shop and
after eating it he broke his teeth due to a stone present in the bread. Mr. Duggal sued Aman for his
injuries. Decide.
(a) Mr. Aman will be held liable as Mr. Duggal suffered injuries due to his direct act of selling him a
packet of bread.
(b) Mr. Aman is not liable as he is a mere seller and is not responsible for negligence in production.
(c) Mr. Aman is not liable as he took reasonable care and such injuries were unforeseeable.
(d) Mr. Aman is liable for all the issues resulting from the product he sold in his shop, including Modern
bread.
72. In the above scenario, had Mr. Duggal found the bread to be stale and tempering with the expiration date
on the packet of bread. How will Aman’s liability change from the above question.
(a) Liability will remain same. Aman will not be held liable.
(b) Liability will be mitigated. Aman can bargain for relief in liability.
(c) Liability will be reversed. Aman will be held liable.
(d) Liability will intensify. Aman will pay heavy damages.
73. KEM Hospital purchased PPE kit from Mahesh Babu, who is a medical equipment supplier of the town.
Hospital authority realised that the kit supplied to them were defective and were of no use while treating
covid 19 patients. When a case was brought against Mahesh Babu, he argued that it is beyond his duty
of care as he is just a supplier. Decide.
(a) Mahesh Babu will be held liable as it is duty of the supplier to check for defects in the supplies.
(b) Mahesh Babu will not be held liable as his duty of care is limited to the supply related issues and not
manufacturing defects.
(c) Mahesh Babu will not be liable as he did not breach his duty of care.
74. Shalini ordered as expensive piece of glass crockery from an e-commerce website called, Maalkart.
When she received the delivery after a week, it was found the two bowls in the set of six were broken.
When she raised a complaint with Maalkart, they shrug off their responsibility by citing that it’s the
manufacturing defect. On investigation it was found that the glass crockery manufacturer shipped the
prefect piece and the damage occurred while the products were in transit. Advise Shalini.
(a) Shalini should file a case against the manufacturer as it is manufacturer’s responsibility to make sure
there is no damage done during transit.
(b) Shalini should file a case against both the manufacturer as well as the MaalKartcompany.
(c) Shalini should file a case against the Maalkartcompany as the damage was done by the seller while
the products were in transit and not by the manufacturer.
(d) Shalini should not indulge in court proceeding and should ask for a refund.
Passage (Q.75-Q.79):Clause (3) of Article 20 of the Indian Constitution, 1950 provides that “No person
accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.” This principle is espoused on
the maxim “nemoteneteurprodreaccussareseipsum”, which essentially means “NO MAN IS BOUND TO
ACCUSE HIMSELF.”
The Fundamental Right guaranteed under Article 20(3) is a protective umbrella against testimonial
compulsion for people who are accused of an offence and are compelled to be a witness against
themselves. The provision borrows from the Fifth Amendment of the American Constitution which lays
down that, “No person shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself”, same as
mentioned in the Constitution of India embodying the principles of both English and American
Jurisprudence. This libertarian provision can be connected to an essential feature of the Indian Penal
Code based on the lines of Common Law that, “an accused is innocent until proven guilty” and the
burden is on the prosecution to establish the guilt of the accused; and that the accused has a right to
remain silent which is subject to his much broader right, against self-incrimination. This protection by the
Indian Constitution is also extended to suspects. Article 20 clause 3, has been carefully crafted to protect

MOCK CLAT #07
the accused from further self-incriminating himself only if any statement of his might result in prosecution.
This article also stretches its privileges to a person who is compulsorily being made a witness and also
covers searches and seizures wherein, an accused or the person being searched is under no obligation
to be a part of the search.
The tendency of Indian legal system manifests skepticism of the police system. This is the reason
confessions of an accused is only admissible if recorded by a Magistrate in accordance with an elaborate
procedure to ensure that they are made voluntarily. Protection is also accorded by the provisions of The
Indian Evidence Act. This protection is available to every person including not only individuals but also
companies and incorporated bodies.
75. Bhanu has been alleged to have to have committed the murder Mr. Pratap. The police have been
undertaking its investigation to gather evidence to substantiate the case. They decided to take the
fingerprints of Bhanu to see whether it matches with the weapon found by them. Bhanu claims the
violation of Article 20(3). Decide.
(a) The claim is justified as this reveals his identity in a forceful manner.
(b) The claim is justified as this compulsion would result in prosecution.
(c) The claim is not justified as only objective information is being brought out without forcing him to
reveal anything.
(d) The claim is justified along with a violation and invasion of privacy.
76. Based on the factual information provided in the aforementioned question, whether DNA profiling of
Bhanu would be violative of Article 20(3). Decide.
(a) Yes, as brings out information in a without control of individual which can be considered forceful.
(b) No, as there is no element of compulsion involved under this.
(c) Yes, as it seeks for information through an invasion of privacy.
(d) No, as it is not a testimonial act through personal knowledge.
77. The police came to Dholu’s house to conduct a search for a particular case. He was not asked to be a
part of the search process. In furtherance to the same, certain documents were found by the police
inviting prosecution for Dholu. Dholu alleged for self-incrimination. Decide
(a) This amounts to self-incrimination as the documents were forcefully taken.
(b) This amounts to self-incrimination as it invited prosecution for Dholu.
(c) This does not amount to self-incrimination as there were no statements made by Dholu.
(d) This does not amount to self-incrimination as he was not forced to be a part of the search.
78. Rohan is taken under the custody for the charges of murder of Jeevan. The police conducted an
interrogation and told him that they found the weapon. They told him to confess the same. Rohan
confesses the crime in the court but later finds out that the weapon was not found by the police. He
claims protection under Article 20(3) saying he was forced to make the statement and they cannot be
used against him. Decide.
(a) The claim is justified as it was forceful as it was brought out through false information.
(b) The claim is justified as it was self- incriminating in nature.
(c) The claim is not justified as it was a confession made under police custody.
(d) The claim is not justified as it was not through compulsive means.
79. Ram went to the residence of the Deputy Superintendent of Police. He handed him an envelope. When
the DSP opened the envelope, he found a certain amount of cash. This meant Ram had come to bribe
the officer. The DSP refused it. However, he asked Ram to place the envelope and the currency notes on
the table. As soon as Ram did that he said that the cash was seized by the Police. Would this amount to
violation of Article 20(3)? Decide.
(a) It does not amount to violation of article 20(3) as he bribed the officer.
(b) It does not amount to violation of article 20(3) as Ram was under no duress.
(c) It amounts to violation of article 20(3) as Ram was compelled for the amount.
(d) It amounts to violation of article 20(3) as he was a part of the seizure.

MOCK CLAT #07
Passage (Q.80-Q.85):Ostensible literally means apparent or seeming. An Ostensible owner is a person

whoapparently or seemingly appears to be the owner, though in reality he is not. He is person
havingalindicas of ownership having being real ownership. He is different from a mere trespasser or
aperson in unlawful occupation of the property. His behaviour and conduct appear to be that of theowner
of the property with the consent or conduct of the real owner.
Transfer by ostensible owner (Section 41 of Transfer of Property Act) - Where, with the consent, express
or implied, of the persons interested inimmoveable property (within territorial jurisdiction), a person is the
ostensible owner of such property and transfers the same forconsideration, the transfer shall not be
voidable on the ground that the transferor was not authorized tomake it:
Provided that the transferee, after taking reasonable care to ascertain that the transferor had power
tomake the transfer, has acted in good faith.
1) Free Consent- By his conduct or consent or otherwise makes the other believe that aparticular person
has all the powers over the property as that of the owner over the,including that of alienation, the
transferor should be shown to have been the ostensible owner with the express orimplied consent of the
true owner but the transfer itself need not be with the consent of the true owner. The consent includes
express or implied as well. Negligence may amount to impliedconsent.
2) Alienation - Such person in fact is not authorized to alienate the property. He alienates itas an
ostensible owner.
3) The transfer is for value or consideration,
4) Transferee must take reasonable care- The transferee acts bona fide and has takenreasonable care to
ascertain that he is competent to transfer, i.e., the transferee does nothave actual or constructive notice
of the real facts, The transferee must show that he hadmade such enquires as a reasonable prudent man
would have taken to safeguard hisinterests.The burden of proving that the transferee was an ostensible
owner is on the transfereewho seeks the protection of this section.
5) Estoppel- The real owner would be prevented on disputing the validity of the transfer onthe ground that
the transferor was not, in fact, competent to do so.
Benami transactions are one of the most notorious sources of circulation and investment of black money.
The Government has recently been facing a great deal of heat on the issue of black for not doing enough
to deal with this menace. Sadly, such transactions are rampant in the real estate sector of our country.
80. A gift deed was executed by father, who was the ostensible owner of the property in favor of his daughter
and the consideration for the transfer was contended to be love and affection in favor of his daughter.
Decide the validity.
(a) Invalid as ostensible property cannot be transferred to a family member.
(b) Invalid as there is not alienation of property as the daughter will become the owner and hence it
remains with them.
(c) Invalid as it was done with free consent and without any duress, with the consent of the owner.
(d) Invalid as ostensible property cannot be transferred without any consideration.
81. Alexander bought the property in the name of BunooBebee. In June 1843, she sold the property to
RamdhoniKundoo (father of RamcoomarKundoo) by a sale deed. After which he and after his death, his
heir enjoyed undisputed ownership for 24 years. Alexander made a will and the will be stated that after
Alexander’s death, the property would go to Macqueen, who was the daughter of Alexander and
BunooBebee. When the will came to the knowledge of BunooBebee, a case was filed contending that
BunooBebee didn’t have the right to sell the property as she was merely an ostensible owner. Alexander
had no intention to transfer the property to BunooBebee. Decide.
(a) The will would be valid as during the sale, there was no way for knowing that alexander had other
intentions.
(b) Invalid as Bunoo did not have the consent of the owner to alienate this property.
(c) It would be a valid deed, as the transfree to the best of this knowledge had the expressed consent
that bunoo could make this deed.
(d) It would be invalid as alexander left the property to his daughter and as the true owner his say would
trump Bunoo’s say in the deed.

MOCK CLAT #07
82. The owner of a property died and thereafter the possession of his property was with his illegitimate sons
who were not entitled to the legal title of the property. The legal heirs of the owner filed a suit against the
illegitimate sons to recover the property. However, the illegitimate sons sold the property to a third party,
claiming themselves to be ostensible owners. The court held that section 41 cannot be invoked. Why?
(a) The court could not as they would be barred by the principle of estoppel.
(b) The court did not invoke 41 stating that the illegitimate heirs were not ostensible owners in their
rights.
(c) The court did not invoke 41 as it’s not a matter of Transfer of property act, it is criminal case of fraud.
(d) The court did not invoke section 41 as the transferee should have taken due care properly before it.
83. A husband while leaving for pilgrimage entered his land in the revenue records under his wife’s name. He
subsequently allowed her to mortgage the land. When the husband left, the wife sold the land to a third
party and the purchaser paid off the mortgage. The husband filed a suit to recover or redeem the land
from the purchaser, decide.
(a) The purchaser would have to return the land as he did not do a proper check of the land and its
ownership.
(b) The purchaser would not have to return as the wife had the consent of the husband to be ostensible
property.
(c) The purchaser would win the case as he would invoke the principle of estoppel.
(d) Both b and c are valid arguments in favor of the purchaser.
84. A Burmese husband from the very outset allowed his wife and children to hold themselves out as sole
owners of the property and to deal with it as if they were its owners. They mortgaged the property to the
mortgagee who acted in good faith and without notice of the title of the husband. Decide.
(a) The buyer would be entitled to the ownership of the land as he would have the right based on
estoppel.
(b) As the wife and children are the ostensible owner they do not have to notify the husband.
(c) The husband had given them free consent to alienate the property hence there is no conflict.
(d) Cannot be decided as this is an Indian law, and not applicable outside the territory.
85. On the death of their widowed mother, the daughters succeeded to the property of their father. But,
thereafter they allowed a parental agnate who was treated as a member of the family to take possession
of the property and they allowed him to enter into an agreement of sale of a portion of the property and
they allowed him to do so despite the fact that the eldest of them was living with him, others were far
away but had relations to watch their interest.Decide.
(a) Even though he was appointed as ostensible owner he cannot sell the land without the consent of all
the heirs.
(b) Since the elder daughter was living with him, and had given the consent it was on behalf of everyone.
(c) The parental agnate had implied consent as he was already the ostensible owner.
(d) The relatives had a share and eye on the acts and hence they would have given or withdrawn
consent if they felt like it.
Passage (Q.86-Q.90):In January 2020, while reviewing all orders of restrictions imposed in Jammu and
Kashmir in the aftermath of the scrapping of the state’s special status, the Supreme Court declared that
the indefinite suspension of the internet was not permissible and repeated shutdowns amounted to an
abuse of power.
More importantly, the court held that “the freedom of speech and expression and the freedom to practice
any profession or carry on any trade, business or occupation over the medium of internet enjoys
constitutional protection under Article 19(1) (a) and Article 19(1)”. The court also held that the restrictions
on the internet have to follow the principles of proportionality under Article 19(2). The judgment by the
court follows the Kerala high court’s judgment in FaheemaShirin v. State of Kerala, where the right to
internet access was recognized as a fundamental right forming a part of the right to privacy and the right
to education under Article 21 of the constitution.
Both judgment establish that the right to internet access has been given limited recognition as an enabler
for other rights within Article 19 and 21. Most academic and non-academic literature, especially in India,

MOCK CLAT #07
seeks to locate the right to internet within Article 19. However, an argument can be made that internet
access should be recognized as an independent fundamental right, conceivable as an aspect of the right
to life under Article 21. Internet access means access to actionable information, innovation best
practices, access to finance and credit facilities, facilitation of entrepreneurship and an enhanced
employment market. In terms of social benefits, internet access helps by facilitating and enabling an
enhanced utility value of primary necessities, internet access can prove a useful accelerator in all social
development objectives and targets of the Sustainable Development Goals.
86. Because of the pandemic that broke into the country, a lot messages on a messaging apps and social
media were being circulated, giving supposed guidelines for the prevention of the same.
However,considering the large amount of panic the false information was causing, the government
brought out guidelines to curb such circulation over the internet. Is this a violation of Article 19?
(a) Yes, as right to actionable information is part of this right to internet.
(b) Yes, it is as curbing of information access, or right to communication and best innovative practices in
private conversation is a right under Article 21 and 19.
(c) No, it’s not as proportional restrictions of fundamental right to internet is a valid act.
(d) No as it only refers to right to occupation, livelihood and education and not right to share false
messages.
87. A riot broke down in the district of XYZ and the Magistrate announced a curfew under section 133 of
CrPC. Under the same, he declared the suspension of the all movements and even internet to curb any
false information. Decide the validity of the Act.
(a) It’s invalid as it suspends the access of all to take any action for themselves through any medium.
(b) It would be valid as long as the suspension is for a limited time period.
(c) It’s invalid as at the time of such unrest people have a right to access information and news.
(d) It’s valid as it saves people from false information and being traced in their homes.
88. A law was passed by the valid authority that any messages related to hate speech or crimes (anything
that might instigate violence against a particular community) cannot be circulated or forwarded. Any and
all people involved in such chain of messages would be held guilty of this offence. A mob lynching of a
deemed lower caste man took place and the news broke of like fire. Mr. M is a journalist who shared the
same over his blog and to his contacts on messages. Can he be held guilty?
(a) No, he cannot as a journalist he was just passing on information within his rights.
(b) Yes he can as the law disallowed any discussion of such fact and he breached it by sharing such
information.
(c) No, he cannot as the law is invalid and in breach of Article 19 of speech and right to access
information over the internet.
(d) No he cannot as they law may be valid but his message does not amount to hate speech.
89. Because of the pandemic, a lot of schools decided to switch from offline mode of education. In light of the
same, Ramesh’s school also did the same and requested all their students to enroll themselves over the
online mode of classes. Ramesh was unable to get any device to be able conduct such classes. Can he
claim one under the fundamental right?
(a) Yes as right to internet is in alignment with the right to education under article 21.
(b) No, as right to internet does not give one right to devices to access internet.
(c) Yes, as right to education is also a fundamental right derivative from article 21 and 19.
(d) No, he cannot claim it his rights have not been breached under the law.
90. A state emergency has been declared. The government has decided to press censoring motions on the
internet and the information circulating through all forms for media platforms. It has hampered a lot of
activities of the people and the restrictions have been imposed indefinitely. Is this a constitutional act?
(a) Yes, it is as in the state of emergency and hence this act is proportionate.
(b) No, as the emergency does not qualify for omitting the rights of citizens to access information.
(c) Yes, it’s constitutionally valid as right can have restrictions, as long as the time period is limited and
qualified.
(d) No, it’s not as emergency does not qualify as constitutionally valid act.

MOCK CLAT #07
Passage (Q.91-Q.96):A Tax is a compulsory contribution to the government, imposed in the common
interest of all, for the purpose of defraying the expenses incurred in carrying out public functions or
imposed for the purpose of regulation, without reference to the special benefits conferred on making the
payment. Necessary corollary that follows is that its quantum need not commensurate with costs
incurred by such public authority. Further, tax is devoid of any quid pro quo. There exists no connection,
whether direct and immediate or broad and casual between the contributor of tax and benefits.
Fee, is defined to be a charge for a special service rendered to individuals by some governmental
agency. Fee may either be regulatory or compensatory. Where a fee commensurate with the cost of
rendering the service though not in ‘exact arithmetical equivalence’ it is compensatory fee. A fee charged
to regulate or control, is regulatory fee, provided it is not excessive or dominantly intending to raise
revenues for the public authority.
Article 301 of the constitution provides for freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse throughout India.
Under Article 302, Parliament, in public interest, may impose restrictions on this freedom. Article 303(1)
asserts that neither Parliament nor state legislatures can make laws discriminating between states with
respect to trade and commerce. Article 303(2) made an exception in favour of Parliament alone to enable
enactment of discriminating laws in case of scarcity. Article 304(a) enables state legislations to impose
tax on goods, provided these are non-discriminatory.
There existed a controversy whether taxing statutes came under the purview of Article 301. Atibaricase
held that such taxes that directly and immediately restrict trade would fall under the purview of Article
301. Automobile case carved out an exception to Article 304. Accordingly, 'regulatory measures and
measures imposing compensatory taxes for use of trading facilities do not come within the purview of the
restriction contemplated by article 301. Compensatory taxes were held to be the ones that do not hinder
freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse, instead facilitated the same. Working test for deciding
whether a tax is a compensatory (a) whether the trade is having the use of facilities for better conduct of
its business, (B) paying not more than what is required for providing the facilities.
91. What does the phrase “quid pro quo” mean in this article?
(a) It means that tax is not imposed in return of a specific benefit.
(b) It means that tax imposed is not commensurate with cost incurred by the public authority.
(c) It means that tax is not imposed in return of common of interest of all.
92. Shirur Math is a religious institution managed by a government appointed manager named Mr. Ashok
Verma. He looked into the management of the funds and invested funds provided by the government in
the maintenance of the math. A law governing religious institutions was passed by the government which
levied an amount of Rs. 500 on the religious institutions to be paid annually. Such an amount went into
the Consolidated Fund of India which was later utilised for various purposes. Whether the levy imposed
by the government through a law governing religious institution is tax or fee?
(a) Such a levy is not tax because there isquid pro quo involved.
(b) Such a levy is fee because the levy is in exchange of the services provided by government in
maintenance of shirur math.
(c) Such a levy is tax because it is having been levied for common interest of public and is not for the
benefits provided to the math by the government.
(d) Such a levy is fee because the amount levied is proportional to the expenses incurred by government
in maintaining the math.
93. The Uttar Pradesh Government in an initiative to promote greenery and protect environment had built
several parks and gardens with many trees and plants in the city of Lucknow. It had installed swings and
see-saws for children and walking paths for adults to take walks. It had sanctioned Rupees 2 crores for
the building the gardens and maintaining them for the public. It levied a very minimal charge of Rupee 1
for children and Rupees. 3 for adults to access the public parks and gardens. Is such a charge a tax or a
fee?
(a) Such a levy is tax because the cost incurred in building and maintaining the parks and gardens is not
proportional to the charge levied.

MOCK CLAT #07
(b) Such a levy is fee because it is being charged in return of providing the service of access to parks to
the public.
(c) Such a levy is tax because it has been levied in the common interest of public and not specifically for
giving access to parks and gardens.
(d) Such a levy is fee because it has been levied to recoup the costs of building and maintaining parks
and gardens.
94. Aman carried a trade of supply marijuana and other drugs in the city of Gurgaon to the residents of
Gurgaon. Indian law considers marijuana as an illegal drug and prevents its circulation. The State of
Haryana had passed a law banning the sale of marijuana. Aman contested such law to be violative of
Article 301 of Indian Constitution. Would Aman succeed in his claim?
(a) Yes, because it restricts his freedom of trade and commerce.
(b) No, because unlawful trade does not come within the ambit of Article 301.
(c) Yes, because it is not a reasonable restriction.
(d) No, marijuana created addiction which is harmful for a person.
95. Mihika is a seller of bidi leaves residing in Madhya Pradesh. Aleem is a manufacturer of bidi who lives in
Uttar Pradesh. Mihika has a contract with Aleem to sell bidi leaves to Aleem. It is the responsibility of
Mihika to deliver the bidi leaves to Aleem. Mihika has employed certain road transport services and uses
it to deliver the bidi leaves to her customers. Akhil is one of the truck drivers who has been employed by
Mihika to deliver bidi leaves. Akhil was delivering bidi leaves to Aleem and while crossing the border of
Madhya Pradesh to Uttar Pradesh, he had to pay a toll tax of Rs. 180. Akhil also stayed in a hotel of Uttar
Pradesh at night and had to pay some tax in addition to the room rent. When Akhil asked for
compensation of the taxes paid by him in delivering the bidi leaves from Mihika, Mihika challenged such
taxes to be violative of Article 301. Will Mihika succeed?
(a) No, because the toll tax and tax charged at the hotel are in the form of compensatory tax to facilitate
the trade.
(b) Yes, because the toll tax and hotel tax in no way help in better conduct of the business.
(c) No, because the toll tax and hotel taxes are ordinary charges to be paid in the course of business.
(d) Yes, to the extent of hotel tax because while toll tax may facilitate the trade by maintaining the roads
but hotel taxes are extra burden on the traders.
96. State of Kerala recently was flooded and majority of the state was affected because of the floods. The
State of Kerala utilised all of its funds to restore the condition and help the public with food and other
necessary items. Many other states came to help the state of Kerala in providing necessary goods to the
public and to restore the places affected by floods. One such state was State of Andhra Pradesh which
donated funds to Kerala. State of Kerala was able to restore the condition of the state and started its
other economic activities as usual. It passed a law which imposed a tax on goods like sanitizers, sanitary
napkins, cleaning products, etc. being imported from other states so as to make good the losses which
led to scarcity. Whereas, similar products being produced and sold in Kerala itself was free of any tax.
State of Andhra Pradesh challenged the constitutionally validity of such law. Would State of Andhra
Pradesh succeed?
(a) Yes, because such a tax is discriminatory in nature and is thereby violative of Article 303.
(b) No, because State of Kerala was in scarcity of funds and therefore such a tax falls within the
exception.
(c) Yes, because State of Kerala cannot make discriminatory laws even in the situation of scarcity.
(d) No, because such a tax is non-discriminatory in nature and thereby not violative of Article 303.
Passage (Q.97-Q.101):Demonetization was a big shock for the whole nation in 2016 as Rs.500 and
1000 currency notes ceased to be a legal tender as a prevailing currency in India. Just like the currency
notes, an act that was legal at one time is suddenly no longer legal and instead is illegal and prohibited
by law. These changing circumstances have led to wrongful punishment of many individuals who did not
actually commit any offense that was punishable by law and according to their knowledge, that act was
actually legal. These laws which criminalize any act or increase the punishment of any offense are called
ex post facto laws and it has been mentioned in Article 20(1) of the Indian Constitution (1). Ex post facto

MOCK CLAT #07
law is derived from the Latin word “ex post facto” which means ‘out of the aftermath’, it is a law that has
a retrospective consequence on any act committed, which is not prohibited by law, before the enactment
of a preceding law. Ex post facto laws can either label an act as an offense with retrospective effect; or
increase the punishment that is prescribed for an act committed in the past. It is important to protect the
citizens of India from being punished for an act done, which was legal when it was done but was
criminalized or the punishment for that act has been enhanced by any act that was formulated later on.
The prohibition under Article 20(1) is only for a conviction or sentence, but not trial procedure. The
objection does not apply to a change of procedure or of court.
A literal interpretation of Article – 20(1) of the Indian Constitution would mean that the safeguards
provided under this article are given against conviction for an act or omission which was not an offense
under the law that existed at the time of the commission and against any increased punishment for the
same act for which the punishment was different at the time of the commission of the act. It is usually
claimed that Article – 20(1) invalidates ex post facto law.
97. Chitmann Pandey got married to Mahima in 1975. They were happy in their marriage until Chitmann fell
in love with Shanaya in 1980 and got married to her in 1982. The Bigamy act was passed in 1990 laying
down that any person who had two spouses living at the time of enactment of the law would be
punishable with an imprisonment of 7 years. Chitmann was charged under the aforementioned act for
having two wives. Chitmann filed a petition challenging the validity of the Act on the ground that the act
was committed in past and cannot be criminalized by subsequent law. Decide.
(a) Chitmann will not succeed as the Act does not use the term retrospectively and only criminalizes the
current act,
(b) Chitmann will not succeed as the Act prohibits Bigamy in the interest of the public.
(c) Chitmann will succeed as the past acts cannot be criminalized with retrospective effect.
(d) Chitmann will succeed as the punishment of 7 years is not appropriate to the act committed by him.
98. Badri was arrested for the possession of an AK-47 rifle and was booked under Terrorist and Disruptive
Activities (Prevention) Act (TADA) which provided for an imprisonment of 10 years. After his arrest the
Government passed a new law Prevention of Terrorist Activities Act (POTA) that made the possession of
a rifle punishable for 20 years. Badri was convicted and was sentenced to 20 years in prison. He
challenged his conviction before the State High Court on the ground that punishment for the act cannot
be enhanced with retrospective effect. Decide.
(a) Badri will succeed as the law which retrospectively increases the punishment is unconstitutional.
(b) Badri will succeed as the punishment of 20 years is not reasonable.
(c) Badri will not succeed as the law does not use the term retrospectively.
99. A new taxation law was introduced by the government of India. This law provided that all the individuals
who evaded tax liability in the past six months would pay a higher penalty to the concerned tax
authorities. Kishan decided to challenge the law to be violative of the fundamental right enshrined in
Article 20 of the Constitution of India. Decide.
(a) The challenge is justified as it has increased the punishment through payment of higher penalty.
(b) The challenge is not justified as it cannot be extended to imposition of fines.
(c) The challenge is justified as it operates through a retrospective effect.
(d) The challenge is not justified because the State has to punish such tax evaders.
100. Mukesh is a sixteen years old boy who is convicted of committing an offence of house trespass along
with outraging the modesty of a girl aged seven years. In pursuance to the same, he has been sentenced
for a rigorous punishment of six months along with a fine of Rs. 50,000. After the judgment was passed,
a new legislation came into existence. This provided that an individual below the age of 21 years shall not
be sentenced to imprisonment. Therefore, Mukesh claims the benefit of the same. Decide.
(a) Mukesh cannot claim the benefit as the law was not in existence when he committed the act.
(b) Mukesh cannot claim the benefit as the judgment has been passed.
(c) Mukesh can claim the benefit since rigorous imprisonment is not a proportionate punishment to his
act.
(d) Mukesh can claim ex-post facto law could be applied to reduce the punishment.

MOCK CLAT #07
101. In order to control the corrupt practices, Prevention of Corrupt Act (PCA), 1950 was introduced. This
provided that if any public servant is found in possession of disproportionate assets without an
explanation they shall be found guilty of criminal misconduct. Sachin challenged the law on the ground
that while calculating the disproportionate assets only the assets acquired after the date of PCA can be
taken into account. If the asset acquired prior to PCA is taken into account then it shall amount
criminalizing a past act thus violative of Article 20. Decide.
(a) The offence of disproportionate assets is different from its calculation therefore no violation.
(b) It would be unjust to take past acts into consideration thus violative of Article 20.
(c) The data so available is not sufficient to reach a conclusive end.
(d) The assets acquired from more than ones known sources were made a crime only in 1950 so the
property prior to it was irrelevant for PCA.
Passage (Q.102-Q.106): In common parlance, the word ‘abet‘ signifies help, co-activity and support and
incorporates within its ambit, illegitimate reason to commit the crime. So as to bring an individual abetting
the doing of a thing under any of the conditions specified under Section 107 of the Indian Penal Code, it
isn’t just important to demonstrate that the individual who has abetted has participated in the means of
the transactions yet additionally has been associated with those means of the transaction which are
criminal.
The offense of abetment by instigation relies on the intention of the individual who abets and not upon the
act which is finished by the individual who has abetted. The abetment might be by instigation, connivance
or purposeful aid as given under Section 107 of the Indian Penal Code. Abetment under the Penal Code
involves active complicity on the part of the abettor at a point of time prior to the actual commission of
that offence, and it is of the essence of the crime of abetment that the abettor should substantially assist
the principal culprit towards the commission of the offence. Nowhere, concurrence in the criminal acts of
another without such participation therein as helps to give effect to the criminal act or purpose, is
punishable under the Code.
For an individual to be called liable for Abetment, and so as to proceed against an individual for a criminal
offense under Section 107, prosecution must claim the component of mensrea. Negligence or
carelessness can’t be named to be abetment in order to punish the liable, according to the arrangement
of penal laws.
So as to establish abetment, the abettor must have appeared to “deliberately” support the commission of
the wrongdoing. In such a case we need to just prove that the wrongdoing charged couldn’t have been
done without the association as well as intervention of the supposed abettor isn’t sufficient with the
prerequisites of Section 107.
102. Rajat and Ambika were married. However, Rajat’s mother Sashi is not fond of Ambika because of the
dowry given by her family. The conduct, language and expression of Sashi are derogatory towards
Ambika suggesting that she comes from a broke family. Ambika is mentally broken by all this and gets
depressed. One sudden day she decided to commit suicide by hanging herself. Rajat and Sashi are
prosecuted for abetting the suicide of Ambika. Decide.
(a) Rajat is liable as he did not intervene in the cruel treatment of the mother to his wife.
(b) Rajat and Sashi are both liable. The former is liable indirectly while the latter is directly responsible for
the outcome.
(c) Only Sashi is liable as her conduct stimulated the outcome.
(d) Both of them are not guilty as no active steps were taken so as to be held liable under abetment.
103. Amit and Akhila are good friends. At one instance, where they were together Akhila told Amit about the
tussle that is going on between Akhila and her business partner Abhijeet. Amit suggests the murder of
Abhijeet. However, Akhila did not murder Abhijeet and ignored the instigation. Decide.
(a) Amit is not guilty of abetment as the instigation was ignored.
(b) Amit is guilty of abetment even when it was not acted upon.
(c) Amit is not guilty as the Abhijeet was not murdered.
(d) Amit is not guilty as the words were devoid of mensrea.

MOCK CLAT #07
104. Based on the factual information provided in the aforementioned question, if Akhila stabbed Abhijeet but
he ended up recovering in the hospital, would that be considered abetment?
(a) No, it would not amount to abetment as the desired result was not achieved.
(b) No, it would not amount to abetment as Abhijeet has recovered.
(c) Yes, it would amount to abetment as the requisite effect is not an essential condition.
(d) Yes, it would amount to abetment and the liability would be shared by Amit and Akhila.
105. Aditya instigated Bheem to instigate Palash to commit the offence of theft. Palash has committed the
theft and has been arrested for the same. Bheem is also arrested and charged for the offence of
abetment. Decide the liability of Aditya.
(a) Aditya will not be liable as he was not the instigator of Palash.
(b) Aditya will not be liable as he did not intend for the outcome.
(c) Aditya will be liable for abetting Bheem.
(d) Aditya will be liable but not under the offence of abetment.
106. Based on the information provided in the passage, decide whether the words uttered in an angry state
would amount to abetment?
(a) Yes, it would amount to abetment but it has to assessed based on the result.
(b) Yes, it would amount to abetment if such words incite the other person.
(c) No, it would not amount to abetment as it is devoid of intention.
(d) No, it would not amount to abetment but negligence.

MOCK CLAT #07
Passage (Q.107-Q.112):In order to successfully reach growth and development of all the stakeholders,
there is a dire need to reconsiderthe part of the government. The initialexchange of views among experts
on fiscal policy about the extent of the government can be spurious. The most pressing requirement now
is to have an empowered government. India being a very big and complicated country, it’s an open secret
that the government officials lack the skills, means and determination to be able to provide all that is
required. Expecting the government to produce all the necessary materials, create all the important jobs
and keep a check on the prices of all materialsinevitablyleads to a big inefficient bureaucracy and
rampant corruption.
The aim must be to stay with the objective of inclusive growth that was laid down by the founding fathers
of the nation and also to take a more modern view of what the state can realistically deliver.
This is what leads to the idea of an empowered state, i.e. a government that does not try to
directly deliver to the citizens everything that they need. Instead, it (1) creates an empowered ethos
for the market, so that individual enterprise can flourish and citizens can, for the most part, provide for the
needs of one another and (2) steps in to help those who do not manage to do well for themselves, for
there will always be individuals, no matter what the system, 'who need support and help'. Hence, we
need a government that when it comes to the market, sets effective, incentive-compatible rules and
remains on the sidelines with minimal interference and, at the same time, plays an important role in
directly helping the poor by ensuring that they get basic education and health services and receive
adequate nutrition and food.
107. According to the passage,

1. the objective of inclusive growth was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation.
2. need of the hour is to have an empowered government.
3. the government should engage in maximum interference in market processes.
4. there is a need to change the size of the government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) All of these
108. According to the passage, the strategy of inclusive growth can be affected by focusing on
(a) meeting all the needs of every citizen in the country
(b) increasing the regulations over the manufacturing sector
(c) controlling the distribution of manufactured goods
(d) delivering the basic services to the deprived sections of the society
109. What constitutes an empowered government?

1. A large bureaucracy.
2. Implementation of welfare programmes through representatives.
3. Creating an ethos that helps individual enterprise.
4. Providing resources to those who are underprivileged.
5. Offering direct help to the poor regarding basic services.
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 4 and 5 (c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) All of the above
110. Why is the State unable to deliver all that is needed?

1. It does not have sufficient bureaucracy.
2. It does not promote inclusive growth.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

MOCK CLAT #07
111. What is the essential message being conveyed by the author of the passage?
(a) The objectives of inclusive growth laid down by the founding fathers of the nation should be
remembered
(b) The government needs to make available more schools and health services
(c) The government needs to establish markets and industries to meet the needs of the poor strata of the
society
(d) There is a need to rethink the role of the state in achieving inclusive growth
112. In the given argument, the portion in boldface plays which of the following roles?
(a) It is an objection that the argument rejects
(b) It is the main conclusion of the argument
(c) It is the premise on which the conclusion depends
(d) It is the solution to the problem discussed in the argument.
Passage (Q.113-Q.117):South Asia or Southern Asia is the southern region of Asia, which is defined in
both geographical and ethno-cultural terms. The region consists of Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan,
India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. Topographically, it is dominated by the Indian Plate
and defined largely by the Indian Ocean on the south, and the Himalayas, Karakoram, and Pamir
mountains on the north. The Amu Darya, which rises north of the Hindu Kush, forms part of the
northwestern border. On land (clockwise), South Asia is bounded by Western Asia, Central Asia, East
Asia, and Southeast Asia.
In 2010, South Asia had the world's largest populations of Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Jains and
Zoroastrians.South Asia alone accounts for 98.47% of Hindus, 90.5% of Sikhs, and 31% of Muslims
worldwide.
Experts are meticulously watching the environmental protection efforts of this region. India, Pakistan and
Afghanistan’s current climate policies would drivethis region above a calamitous7°C of warming by the
end of the century, according to a research that ranks the climate goals of different countries. Bhutan and
Maldives are only slightly behind with both pushing the temperature rise dangerously over 3°C above
pre–industrial levels says the research, while even Sri Lanka, which is usually seen as a climate leader in
South Asia, is on course to more than double the 2°C that scientists say is a moderately safe level of
heating. The aim of the research is to inform climate mediators as they begin a three-year process of
stepping up climate dedication, which currently fall far short of the 2°Cto 2.5°C goal set in Malefive years
ago.
113. Sri Lanka needs to drastically lower its damage to the climate.
(a) the inference is definitely true
(b) the inference is probably true
(c) the inference is probably false
(d) the inference is definitely false
114. Maldives can have some respite from climate commitments.

115. South Asian nations need to revise their climate policies.


MOCK CLAT #07
116. Most South Asian nations are behind their climate goals.
117. By the end of the century, South Asia will become an unlivable place.
Passage (Q.118-Q.122):The announcement of capital punishment to the perpetrators of the heinous

Delhi gang rape on 16 December, 2012 has been widely hailed in India and there can be no denying the
fact such heinous crimes have to be penalized in exemplary fashion, and yet the question remains, is
penology enough or does death penalty to the perpetrators arrives at a closure of such crimes? Or, after
such punishments, larger questions about the rationality of such punishments remain unexplored? While
one needs to reiterate that the Delhi crime deserves the severest possible punishment to prevent future
occurrences of such crimes against women, a study of the background of those perpetrators is absolutely
necessary before we arrive at any conclusion about the ultimate forms of punishment or the right age for
giving capital punishment.
A 15-17 years teenager, sent under compulsion to our metropolises by indigence, commits the rarest of
the rare crimes and we vociferously insist for sending him to the gallows, and while the legality of
retribution demands cannot be doubted, should we not contemplate what we as society have done with
such pauper juveniles who are robbed off their childhood and are thrown in unfriendly and pathetic
conditions by pernicious state of affairs and destitution? Should we, the proponents of death penalty ask
ourselves what kind of gentle and compassionate condition could be given to such unfortunate denizens
of society, who roam around in the metropolises vagrant, hungry, unmentored, uncared? Are we right in
anticipating chivalry and urbaneness from a juvenile, who feels isolated in the most egregious and
barbaric living conditions of our metropolises ? Or more aptly, are we supportingtoxicenvironsand
simultaneously sparking massive vocal outcries at the horrible repercussions? Would we not explore why
a boy of 16 years brutalizes a girl in such a fashion? Why does he get fun in mercilessly raping and killing
a girl? Who is responsible for such demonization? Only the perpetrator?
118. Which of the following options best fits to continue this passage?
(a) Why does such a boy define fun only through such crimes?
(b) NGO workers would tell you of thousand such juveniles in Delhi alone and many of whom are drug
addicts.
(c) The quest of livelihood brought in both, the family of Nirbhaya (the victim of the Delhi gang rape) as
well as the perpetrators of the crime to Delhi.
(d) The consequences of such sub-human living are well known but few bother to consider such reality
checks.
119. With which of the following will the author most probably agree with?
(a) Only strict punishments will serve as a crime deterrent.
(b) We may evade such disturbing questions, but one needs to find answer to such questions if we want
to ensure a better future.
(c) The courts should have shown leniency to the perpetrators of the crime.
(d) Such abominable crimes are a hallmark of our metropolises.

MOCK CLAT #07
120. What is the theme of the passage?

(a) Who is the real criminal?
(b) Are we delivering the right amount of punishments?
(c) Such punishments are not rational.
(d) The exemplary punishment to the perpetrators of the heinous Delhi gang rape is commendable.
121. Which of the following is a valid inference?

(a) Poverty is the root cause of crimes
(b) Education is the panacea for crimes
(c) Nothing can be done to get rid of such obnoxious crimes.
(d) The impoverished face hostile conditions in large cities.
122. Which of the following can be implied from the passage?

(a) Poverty may lead a person to commit crime.
(b) Equal opportunities should be provided to all the people of cities.
(c) Migration is a major problem faced by cities.
(d) Civic amenities are lacking in large cities, resulting in pathetic conditions.
Passage (Q.123-Q.127):More than two decades of experience in development and emergency response
have shown me how education can make a lasting difference in children’s lives. But education’s not just
good for children, it’s good for nations. Investing in education isn’t just the right thing to do, it’s smart
economics.
That’s the argument I presented to global leaders this morning at the World Economic Forum meeting in
Davos.
Education can put people on a path towards good health, empowerment and employment. It can help to
build more peaceful societies. And the benefits of girls’ education extends to their own children who are
often healthier and more educated because their mothers went to school.
Yet, There’s an education crisis. Right now, in 2015, more than 120 million children are out of school.
And worse, we face a learning crisis. An estimated 130 million children cannot read or count despite
reaching Grade 4.
On top of that, the children who would most benefit from an education are those most denied it through
no fault of their own. Perhaps their families are poor. Perhaps they live with disabilities and cannot
access school. Perhaps they live in remote areas or belong to nomadic communities.
More than half of the children who don’t go to school live in conflict-affected countries. This is especially
sad. Education can offer them safety and the opportunity to learn skills that will help them to heal wounds
and rebuild their societies.
And the challenge is growing. By 2030, over 600 million more children will need to be enrolled in school
to achieve basic education for all.
So, what do we have to do to get more children in school and learning?
These issues, and more, are addressed in a new UNICEF report: The Investment Case for Education
and Equity, which I launched today.
First, we must invest more in education. We need $26 billion more to get children in school and learning.
Second, we must invest more effectively: in learning; expanding preschool; abolishing school fees;
improving learning assessment; and being more accountable to communities for education results.
And third, we must invest more equitably. So that the children who are most in need have access to
quality learning.

MOCK CLAT #07
That is wrong. We cannot, we must not, ignore this injustice. This knowledge must be an impetus for
changing the way we finance global education.
The Investment Case for Education and Equity calls for urgent action.
There is no time to lose.

(Source: https://blogs.unicef.org/blog/education-the-most-powerful-investment-in-our-future/ )
123. Which option has a similar pattern of reasoning as the one described in passage?
(a) one of the main points which many countries have in common is that they are increasingly
"multicultural" societies within which, as a result of substantial migration since the beginning of the
century, different cultural communities and forms of cultural expression now exist side by side.
(b) children of immigrants face lack of proper nutrition as they are generally denied basic amenities and
do not do as well as their non-migrant counterparts on most parameters.
(c) it is speculated that as much as 60 percent of marriages are arranged. And while research on the
success rates of arranged couples is thin, one study done in 2012 shows the divorce rate of arranged
marriages being less than 4 percent.
(d) SRK admitted that the gender wage gap does exist in Bollywood as in the rest of the world and
women do not receive equal recognition for their hard work. Actresses put in a lot of efforts but find it
difficult to achieve the stardom a male actor easily gets.
124. The author’s argument is strengthened by which of the following?

(a) Evidence shows that, on average, each additional year of education impairs a person’s income by 10
per cent and slashes a country’s GDP by 18 per cent.
(b) Some researchers estimate that if every child learned to read, around 170 million fewer people would
live in poverty.
(c) On average, in low-income countries, about half of all public education resources must be allocated to
the 10% of students that are most educated.
(d) Resources to the wealthiest quintile of children must be up to 18 times larger than those to the
poorest quintile.

(a) Given that today’s students will be tomorrow’s citizens and leaders, a good and relevant education is
essential to turn aspirations into reality.
(b) Education is at the center of building human capital.
(c) For individuals, education raises self-esteem and furthers opportunities for employment and earnings.
(d) Educated children are at the heart of healthy, productive and prosperous societies. If that is the future
we want tomorrow, we must invest today.
(a) Waking up early in the morning to go to your 7 am class can be a pain. You would rather stay in bed
and listen to the latest hits on your top notch Bluetooth headphones
(b) The world has an abundance of knowledge and information. In school, we study different subjects
that cover history, biology, arts, literature, math, physics, physical education, geography, and many
more.
(c) Dropping out of schools help in intellectual development and makes a person street-smart.
(d) If you have an interest that you want to be really good at, you need a place where you can harness it
effectively. Schools around the world have student clubs that focus on particular hobbies and
interests for students who would like to delve deeper into their chosen sport or pastime.
127. Which of these methods will not help the mission of universalization of education?
(a) Allocate more resources to education in the early grades.
(b) Target resources to the poorest areas and most marginalized children so that education becomes
accessible.
(c) Students who excel academically should be motivated further by awards and accolades.

MOCK CLAT #07
(d) Strengthen learning assessment systems and implement accountability measures that involve
parents and communities.
Passage (Q.128-Q.133):Armen Sarkissian suggested in the 1920s that the ice ages were caused by
fluctuations in the Earth’s orbit around the Sun. For some time this theory was considered untestable,
largely because there was no sufficiently precise chronology of the ice ages with which the orbital
variations could be matched.
A recent discovery makes itpossibleto determine the relative amounts of land ice that existed at various
times in the Earth’s past: relative land-ice volume for a given period can be deduced from the ratio of two
oxygen isotopes, 16 and 18, found in ocean sediments.
Almost all the oxygen in water is oxygen 16, but a few molecules out of every thousand incorporate the
heavier isotope 18. When an ice age begins, the continental ice sheets grow, steadily reducing the
amount of water evaporated from the ocean that will eventually return to it. Because heavier isotopes
tend to be left behind when water evaporates from the ocean surfaces, the remaining ocean water
becomes progressively enriched in oxygen 18. The degree of enrichment can be determined by
analyzing ocean sediments of the period, because these sediments are composed of calcium carbonate
shells of marine organisms, shells that were constructed with oxygen atoms drawn from the surrounding
ocean. The higher the ratio of oxygen 18 to oxygen 16 in a sedimentary specimen, the more land ice
there was when the sediment was laid down.
As an indicator of shifts in the Earth’s climate, the isotope record has two advantages. First, it is a global
record: there is remarkably little variation in isotope ratios in sedimentary specimens taken from different
continental locations. Second, it is a more continuous record than that taken from rocks on land. Because
of these advantages, sedimentary evidence can be dated with sufficient accuracy by radiometric methods
to establish a precise chronology of the ice ages. The dated isotope record shows that the fluctuations in
global ice volume over the past several hundred thousand years have a pattern: an ice age occurs
roughly once every 100,000 years. These data have established a strong connection between variations
in the Earth’s orbit and the periodicity of the ice ages.
However, it is important to note that other factors, such as volcanic particulates or variations in the
amount of sunlight received by the Earth, could potentially have affected the climate. The advantage of
the Sarkissian theory is that it is testable; changes in the Earth’s orbit can be calculated and dated by
applying Newton’s laws of gravity to progressively earlier configurations of the bodies in the solar system.
Yet the lack of information about other possible factors affecting global climate does not make them
unimportant.
128. In the passage, the author is primarily interested in

(a) suggesting an alternative to an outdated research method
(b) introducing a new research method that calls an accepted theory into question
(c) emphasizing the instability of data gathered from the application of a new scientific method
(d) presenting a theory and describing a new method to test that theory
129. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about the
ArmenSarkissian theory?
(a) It is the only possible explanation for the ice ages.
(b) It is too limited to provide a plausible explanation for the ice ages, despite recent research findings.
(c) It is one plausible explanation, though not the only one, for the ice ages.
(d) It is not a plausible explanation for the ice ages, although it has opened up promising possibilities for
future research.

MOCK CLAT #07
130. It can be inferred from the passage that the isotope record taken from ocean sediments would be less
useful to researchers if which of the following were true?
(a) It indicated that lighter isotopes of oxygen predominated at certain times.
(b) It had far more gaps in its sequence than the record taken from rocks on land.
(c) It indicated that climate shifts did not occur every 100,000 years.
(d) It indicated that the ratios of oxygen 16 and oxygen 18 in ocean water were not consistent with those
found in fresh water.
131. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the ratios of oxygen isotopes in ocean
sediments?
(a) They indicate that sediments found during an ice age contain more calcium carbonate than sediments
formed at other times.
(b) They are less reliable than the evidence from rocks on land in determining the volume of land ice.
(c) They can be used to deduce the relative volume of land ice that was present when the sediment was
laid down.
(d) They are more unpredictable during an ice age than in other climatic conditions.
132. It can be inferred from the passage that precipitation formed from evaporated ocean water has
(a) the same isotopic ratio as ocean water
(b) less oxygen 18 than does ocean water
(c) less oxygen 18 than has the ice contained in continental ice sheets
(d) a different isotopic composition than has precipitation formed from water on land
133. It can be inferred from the passage that calcium carbonate shells
(a) are not as susceptible to deterioration as rocks
(b) are less common in sediments formed during an ice age
(c) are found only in areas that were once covered by land ice
(d) reflect the isotopic composition of the water at the time the shells were formed
Directions (Q.134–Q.136): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them
sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at
the four corners face the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
P who faces the centre sits third to the right of V. T who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour
of V. Only one person sit between V and W. S sits second of right of Q. Q faces the centre. R is not an
immediate neighbour of P.
134. Who sit second to the left of Q?

(a) V (b) P (c) T (d) Y
135. What is the person of T with respect of V?

(a) Fourth to the left (b) Second to the left
(c) Third to the left (d) Third to the right
136. Four of the following five are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
(a) R (b) W (c) V (d) S

MOCK CLAT #07
Directions (Q.137–Q.140):A school has four sections A, B, C, D of Class IX students.
The results of half yearly and annual examinations are shown in the table given below.
No of Students
Result
Section A Section B Section C Section D
Students failed in both Exams 28 23 17 27
Students failed in half-yearly but
14 12 8 13
passed in Annual Exams
Students passed in half-yearly but
6 17 9 15
failed in Annual Exams
Students passed in both Exams 64 55 46 76
137. If the number of students passing an examination be considered a criteria for comparison of difficulty
level of two examinations, which of the following statements is true in this context?
(a) Half yearly examinations were more difficult.
(b) Annual examinations were more difficult.
(c) Both the examinations had almost the same difficulty level.
(d) The two examinations cannot be compared for difficulty level.
138. How many students are there in Class IX in the school?

(a) 336 (b) 189 (c) 335 (d) 430
139. Which section has the maximum pass percentage in at least one of the two examinations?
(a) A Section (b) B Section (c) C Section (d) D Section
140. Which section has the maximum success rate in annual examination?
(a) A Section (b) B Section (c) C Section (d) D Section
Directions (Q.141–Q.145):Study the following line graph and answer the questions based on it.
Number of Vehicles Manufactured by Two companies over the Years (Number in Thousands)
160 159
139
141
128
No. of Vehicles in Thousands
140
120 120 148
119
120
100
100 99
107
80 78
60
40
1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002
Years
Company Y Company X

MOCK CLAT #07
141. What is the difference between the number of vehicles manufactured by Company Y in 2000 and 2001?
(a) 50000 (b) 42000 (c) 33000 (d) 21000
142. What is the difference between the total productions of the two Companies in the given years?
(a) 19000 (b) 22000 (c) 26000 (d) 28000
143. What is the average numbers of vehicles manufactured by Company X over the given period? (Rounded
off to nearest integer)
(a) 119333 (b) 113666 (c) 112778 (d) 111223
144. In which of the following years, the difference between the productions of Companies X and Y was the
maximum among the given years?
(a) 1997 (b) 1998 (c) 1999 (d) 2000
145. The production of Company Y in 2000 was approximately what percent of the production of Company X
in the same year?
(a) 173 (b) 164 (c) 132 (d) 97
Directions (Q.146- Q.150):

Performance Total
Average Good Excellent
Male - - 10 -
Female - - - 32
Total - 30 - -
A professor Keeps data on students tabulated by performance and gender of the student.The data are
kept on a computer disk but, unfortunately; some of them are lost because of a virus.
Only the following could be recovered:
Panic buttons were pressed but of no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the
following facts were self-evident:
(a) Half the students were either excellent or good
(b) 40% of the students were females
(c) One third of the male students were average
146. How many students are both female and excellent?

(a) 0 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32
147. What proportion of good students are male?

(a) 0 (b) 0.73 (c) 0.4 (d) 1.0
148. What proportion of female students are good?

(a) 0 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.5 (d) 1.0
149. How many students are both male and good?

(a) 10 (b) 16 (c) 22 (d) 48
150. Among average students, what is the ratio of male to female?

(a) 1: 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 2 : 3

MOCK CLAT #08

Candidate Name : _________________
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
Test Centre/Hall.
MOCK CLAT #08
Directions (Q.1-Q.30): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): Long-term exposure to outdoor and household air pollution contributed to over
1.67 million annual deaths from stroke, heart attack, diabetes, lung cancer, chronic lung diseases
and neonatal diseases in India in 2019, according to the State of Global Air 2020 by the U.S.-based
Health Effects Institute. Overall, air pollution was now the largest risk factor for death among all
health risks, the report noted. Outdoor and household particulate matter pollution also contributed to
the deaths of more than 1, 16,000 Indian infants in their first month of life last year. More than half of
these deaths were associated with outdoor PM2.5 and others were linked to use of solid fuels such
as charcoal, wood, and animal dung for cooking.
For the youngest infants, most deaths were related to complications from low birth weight and
preterm birth. India faced the highest per capita pollution exposure — or 83.2 μg/cubic metre — in
the world, followed by Nepal at 83.1 μg/cubic metre and Niger at 80.1, according to the report which
sources its data from publicly available sources. Countries with the least population exposure are
below 8 micrograms (μg) per cubic metre.
The government has claimed that average pollution levels in India are declining over the past three
years but these have been marginal, particularly in the Indo-Gangetic plains which see extremely
high particulate matter pollution especially during winter.
After a decline in pollution due to the nationwide lockdown in late March and the months-long
process of reopening, pollution levels are again rising and air quality has dipped to ‘very poor’
category in several cities.
COVID-19, a disease for which people with heart and lung disease are particularly at risk of infection
and death, has claimed more than 1, 10,000 lives in India. Although the full links between air
pollution and COVID-19 are not yet known, there is clear evidence linking air pollution and increased
heart and lung disease, creating a growing concern that exposures to high levels of air pollution
during winter months in South Asian countries and East Asia could worsen the effects of COVID-19.
“This newest evidence suggests an especially high risk for infants born in South Asia and sub-
Saharan Africa,” said HEI president Dan Greenbaum in a statement. Although there [1] been slow
and steady reduction [2] household reliance on poor-quality fuels, the air pollution [3] these fuels
continues to be a key factor in the deaths of these youngest infants.
Taken from The Hindu
1. Which of the following represents the main conclusion of the passage?

(a) Air pollution is now the biggest health risk in India.
(b) Covid 19 has increased the health risks posed due to air pollution.
(c) Air pollution has resulted in an exponential number of deaths.
(d) The lockdown improved air quality but not permanently.
2. Which of the following statements, if true, contradicts the government’s claim regarding pollution levels?
(a) India faced the highest per capita pollution exposure in the world.
(b) Pollution levels have risen again after reopening of the lockdown.
(c) Air pollution was now the largest risk factor for death among all health risks.
(d) The laws regarding environmental impact assessment are extremely lax leading to setting up of a lot
of polluting industries.
3. What can be assumed regarding air pollution and Covid 19?

(a) Both have claimed a significant number of lives in India.
(b) Both are deadly for people with breathing troubles.
(c) They are most likely to have a lethal combined effect.
(d) Covid 19 affects the heart and lungs.

MOCK CLAT #08
4. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to ‘neonatal’?

(a) Maternal (b) Masculine (c) Nascent (d) Newborn
5. Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions:

Although there [1] been slow and steady reduction [2] household reliance on poor-quality fuels, the air
pollution [3] these fuels continues to be a key factor in the deaths of these youngest infants.
(a) Have; in; from (b) Has; on; from (c) Have; on; from (d) Has; in; from
Passage (Q.6-Q.11): The sudden escalation of an ongoing tussle between the judiciary and the
ruling YSR Congress party in Andhra Pradesh makes for an unpleasant spectacle. The limits of
propriety are being stretched, as the allegations being bandied about have taken distinctly political
overtones. With the CM, Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy, writing to the Chief Justice of India, S.A. Bobde,
complaining about the allegedly hostile attitude of the Andhra Pradesh High Court against him and
his government, and making public details of the letter that contains explosive allegations against a
serving Supreme Court judge, the conflict is embarrassingly out in the open. Meanwhile, the High
Court has directed the CBI to take over the investigation into the registry’s complaints against
allegedly defamatory, inciting and derogatory social media posts against the judiciary as well as
individual judges, and to examine whether these attacks were part of a larger conspiracy. The CM
alleges that the High Court is being controlled by loyalists of his predecessor in office and political
rival, N. Chandrababu Naidu, and has passed a slew of orders against his regime and its actions.
The High Court, the petitioner on the administrative side, argues that not only is the State police
reluctant to take action against those carrying on an online campaign against the court but it is
actively pursuing complaints of similar offences against Mr. Jagan Mohan and arresting the
perpetrators. It says many of those posting on social media against the High Court judges are from
the YSR Congress.
The conflict is based on mutual accusations that the High Court is hostile to the State government,
and that the latter is abetting a political campaign against the judges. It is disturbing enough that
some judicial orders are seen in a political light, or lend themselves to such an interpretation. It
becomes quite ominous if these charges give rise to open threats and abuse. The government has
sought to ease the situation by offering no objection to CBI inquiry. It is presumably waiting for
outcome of the CM’s unusual missive to the CJI, who in turn faces a dilemma as he cannot be seen
as either ignoring a written complaint from an elected leader or giving undue credence to charges
from a disgruntled litigant. The problem is that allegations of possible judicial bias, which are difficult
to establish, are combined with those of misconduct, a serious charge. The right thing would
probably be for the CJI to order an inquiry into the letter in accordance with the apex court’s internal
procedure. Regardless of what happens, it may end the recriminations. India can ill-afford a public
perception that judges have strong political loyalties. For, that will undermine faith in an independent
judiciary.
6. Which of the following represents the main conclusion of the passage?

(a) The tussle between the executive and the judiciary should not be allowed to escalate.
(b) Judiciary should remain independent.
(c) Judges should not have strong political loyalties.
(d) Judicial orders should not be given a political colour.
7. How have the allegations taken ‘distinctly political overtones’?

(a) The judiciary is no longer independent as it used to be.
(b) The judiciary is being accused of siding with certain political factions.
(c) A judicial scandal is out in the open.
(d) The executive is disgruntled with the judiciary.
8. Which of the following statements, if true, would significantly weaken the CM’s allegations?
(a) State police reluctant to take action against those carrying on an online campaign against the court.

MOCK CLAT #08
(b) State police is actively pursuing complaints of similar offences against Mr. Jagan Mohan and
arresting the perpetrators.
(c) The government has a political agenda against the High Court.
(d) The orders passed by the High Court against the CM’s government are neither excessive nor
arbitrary.
9. Which of the following represents the best case scenario to end the tussle?
(a) An end to the recriminations.
(b) An inquiry ordered by the Chief Justice into the contents of the letter.
(c) Appointing non-biased judges in the High Court of Andhra Pradesh.
(d) The CM being able to function independently of the judiciary.
10. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
(a) An independent judiciary is the hallmark of a true democracy.
(b) There are bound to be tussles between the executive and the judiciary if both are given wide powers.
(c) The Constitution has provided a voice to everyone, the executive as well as the judiciary.
(d) Defamation combined with judicial bias and misconduct is a serious charge.
11. Which of the following would be the most suitable antonym for the word ‘derogatory’?
(a) Flattering (b) Deprecating (c) Denigrating (d) Sacrilegious
Passage (Q.12-Q.17): Faced with a potential reversal of gains that India has made in slowing the spread
of COVID-19, Prime Minister Narendra Modi has appealed against weakening the fight during the annual
festival season. Over the past six months, numerous individual events have enabled the infection to
explode and spread. These have ranged from the opening of wholesale markets and political gatherings
to big funerals; many were infected when places of worship were allowed to be thronged. Mr. Modi’s
appeal, which comes during Navratri celebrations, and ahead of Dussehra, Deepavali and other festivals,
is to be welcomed, although the opportunity to caution the public was not grasped early enough. Also, in
spite of the call to “mask up” on October 8, as part of a communication campaign he launched, its
visibility has remained low. Moreover, virus estimations remain a mosaic of data, without a standardised
system for testing, tracing and isolation across States. Only broad-brush statistics are available, even as
the economy has reopened. The Union Health Ministry’s data point to a rising trend in daily cases in
Bihar, Delhi, Maharashtra, Manipur, and West Bengal, while Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil
Nadu, with their high levels of incidence earlier, have started showing a decline in test positivity rates, a
more reliable metric than absolute cases. Kerala has experienced a wave blamed on lax behaviour
during Onam.
Health messaging on the dangers of another wave of infections can be effective if it’s not drowned by
repeated emphasis of massive recoveries. States, anxious to present a picture of near-normality to boost
economic activity, highlight recoveries over risk, and people are lowering their guard. Mr. Modi has
suggested that the fight must not weaken until there is a vaccine, and experts and WHO want countries
to learn to live with this virus. In India, the reality is that even as of October 21, the official death toll in a
day stood at 717, not so inconsequential, and there were 7.4 lakh active cases. The emphasis, therefore,
has to be on preparing for the new normal, adopting acknowledged defences like masking, distancing
norms and hand hygiene. In parallel, the Centre should launch policy reform to transform a predominantly
commercialised health system into one providing universal coverage. COVID-19 has meant double
jeopardy — a loss of income on the one hand and a steep rise in health insurance premiums on the
other, after insurers were asked to provide cover for more conditions. Under such circumstances, the
cheapest protection against disease and financial loss is prevention, now and into the future. The Centre
says it has a communication strategy centred on the theme of safety until March next year. Its efficacy
will be tested immediately, by the festival season.
12. What are the factors that led to the spread of Covid 19 in the past six months?
1. Opening of malls
2. Large gatherings for political or religious purposes
3. Funerals
MOCK CLAT #08
Options:
(a) 1 & 2 only (b) 2 & 3 only (c) 1, 2 & 3 (d) 1 & 3 only
13. Which of the following are drawbacks of handling the spread of the virus by the government?
1. No uniform testing mechanism
2. Allowing celebration of festivals
3. Emphasis on recoveries from the virus
Options:
(a) 1 & 2 only (b) 1 only (c) 1, 2 & 3 (d) 1 & 3 only
14. What is being referred to in the phrase ‘its visibility has remained low’?
(a) Visibility in Delhi due to air pollution.
(b) The opportunity to caution people.
(c) Any legislation to make wearing of masks compulsory.
(d) The call against public gatherings.
15. Why do states want to emphasise on repeated recoveries?

(a) To increase economic activity.
(b) To provide reassurance to the people.
(c) To present a picture of near normalcy.
(d) To make people lower their guard.
16. What is the meaning of the phrase ‘double jeopardy’ in the context of the passage?
(a) The prosecution or punishment of a person twice for the same offence
(b) Simultaneous disadvantage from two sources
(c) A stroke of bad luck
(d) Financial losses
17. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to ‘efficacy’?

(a) Ecstacy (b) Benevolent (c) Insolent (d) Potency
Passage (Q.18-Q.23): Preliminary results of Sunday’s Presidential election in Bolivia point to an

emphatic victory for the former President Evo Morales’s Movement Toward Socialism (MAS)
party almost a year after he was ousted by protesters and the military. While official results will not
be announced for days, exit polls give his hand-picked candidate, Luis Arce 53% of the popular vote
against his main rival Carlos Mesa’s 29.5%. Mr. Mesa, who was President between 2003 and 2005,
has conceded the election. This is as much a victory for Mr. Morales, Bolivia’s first indigenous
leader, as it is for Mr. Arce. Mr. Morales left the country, first for Mexico and then for Argentina, after
the Generals asked him to stand down in November 2019. Since then, Jeanine Añez, a right-wing
conservative Senator, has been the acting President, rolling back many of Mr. Morales’s policies and
going after his supporters. But MAS mobilised its supporters and fought back. Mr. Arce promised
voters that if elected, he would carry forward the pro-poor socialist legacy of Mr. Morales, while MAS
portrayed Mr. Mesa as a representative of the pre-Morales elites, whose rapid privatisation and pro-
market policies had triggered frequent mass protests. The results demonstrate that the voters chose
the equity-oriented socialist stability, which MAS offered, over the free-market conservatism of its
rivals.
The new leader could learn from the achievements and mistakes of Mr. Morales, credited with
turning around South America’s poorest country economically. Under his government, Bolivia saw a
drop in extreme poverty, from 33% of the population in 2006 to 15% in 2018. He also stepped up
public investments, opened more schools and health clinics, built roads and nationalised the oil and
gas industry, all while ensuring that the economy continued to expand. These policies helped MAS
build a strong connect with the poor, a base which continued to back the party despite last year’s
political turbulence. At the same time, his push to stay in power beyond the term limits set by the
Constitution helped the Opposition organise itself. He got the ban lifted by a constitutional court after
his bid failed in a referendum. This raised questions about the legitimacy of his candidacy in the

MOCK CLAT #08
October 2019 election, which he won but was accused of fraud, leading to protests and his ouster.
Mr. Arce’s biggest challenge would be to continue Mr. Morales’s welfare policies, while keeping the
economy on track. Moreover, the anti-Socialist and mostly white opposition is now more powerful,
after ousting Mr. Morales and having run the interim government for a year with the U.S.’s support.
Mr. Arce can keep the galvanised opposition at bay only by continuing MAS’s socio-economic
“revolution” to expand its support base in a divided country.
18. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to indigenous?

(a) Foreign (b) Genius (c) Ingenuous (d) Aboriginal
19. Consider the sentence: This is as much a victory for Mr. Morales, Bolivia’s first indigenous leader, as it is
for Mr. Arce.
What does it imply?
(a) Mr. Morales and Mr. Arce share a close relationship.
(b) Mr. Morales and Mr. Arce belong to the same political faction.
(c) Mr. Arce could come into politics only because of Mr. Morales.
(d) Mr. Morales can be considered Mr. Arce’s political mentor.
20. What has contributed to the victory of MAS in the election?

(a) Its pro people agenda. (b) Its pro-democracy manifesto.
(b) Its pro poor stance. (d) Its Marxian brand of socialism.
21. How can Mr. Arce keep the galvanised opposition at bay?
(a) Keep political turbulence under control.
(b) Opening more schools and health clinics.
(c) Placating the powerful Opposition.
(d) Garner public support for its socialistic policies.
22. What is the greatest test for the current victors?

(a) The galvanised Opposition
(b) Balancing welfare policies and the downtrodden economy
(c) Last year’s political turbulence
(d) A divided country.
23. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to ‘legitimacy’?

(a) Dexterity (b) Agility (c) Adeptness (d) Authority
Passage (Q.24-Q.30): The ugliness of the Indian male politician was on show again in Madhya Pradesh
this week. In Gwalior to campaign for the coming bypolls, state Congress chief Kamal Nath sniggered
before an audience at a woman leader from the BJP, who he wouldn’t deign to name. “You know her
better. What an item she is,” he said, before breaking into derisive laughter. It’s a trick as old as entitled
masculinity: If you are up against a woman, run her down with innuendo and the cheap shot, and
swagger in the illusion that you have won the debate. In Indian politics, unfortunately, this sexist playbook
is used generously by all political parties, and comes with little or no consequences — the Congress
initially brazened it out in Nath’s defence, and even Rahul Gandhi’s disapproval has not inspired the
former Madhya Pradesh chief minister to budge from his non-apology. Sexist abuse is, of course,
deployed more fearlessly against women from marginalised communities. The target of Nath’s coarse
attack was Imarti Devi, a woman from a Dalit family of labourers, who spent two decades in the Congress
before she switched sides to the BJP in March this year, helping bring Nath’s government crashing down.
The few Indian women who dare to enter public life are reminded almost daily that they have crossed
over into a hostile, male world, where the rules are loaded against them. From Mamata Banerjee to J
Jayalalithaa and Smriti Irani, women leaders are routinely subject to demeaning language, even when
they are careful not to transgress patriarchal norms. For years now, BSP leader Mayawati has been at
MOCK CLAT #08
the receiving end of dehumanising abuse. The internet, too, has emerged as a vicious space for women
politicians. Even so, a morphed video of a young tribal BJD leader that went viral in Odisha ahead of the
Lok Sabha elections last year marked a new low. Chandrani Murmu was eventually elected from
Keonjhar parliamentary constituency. Investigations into the slanderous video have led the MP to accuse
a channel run by a BJP leader of harassment.
If Indian politics is a negotiation with entrenched power structures and multiple bigotries, both instances
underline how and why women continue to be at a disadvantage; and how easy it is [1] turn [2] the tap [3]
prejudice to discredit women [4] public life. But Imarti Devi’s and Chandrani Murmu’s dogged persistence
in the face of men who snigger and slander from behind the shield of their feudal privileges is also a sign
— women politicians may be few in number, but they are not backing away from a hard fight.
Taken from The Indian Express
24. Which of the following words is the most suitable antonym for ‘coarse’?
(a) Heavy (b) Light (c) Smooth (d) Rough

If Indian politics is a negotiation with entrenched power structures and multiple bigotries, both instances
underline how and why women continue to be at a disadvantage; and how easy it is [1] turn [2] the tap [3]
prejudice to discredit women [4] public life.
(a) In; of; on; to (b) From; of; on; to (c) To; on; from; off (d) To; on; of; in
26. Which of the following represents the central idea of the passage?
(a) The sexist playbook is used by all parties with little or no consequence.
(b) Sexist abuse is deployed more fearlessly against women from marginalised communities.
(c) The internet has emerged as a vicious space for women politicians.
(d) Feminism needs to be brought into Indian politics.
27. What according to the passage is comparable with ‘entitled masculinity’?

(a) An old trick
(b) Demeaning women to win an argument
(c) Using the internet as a platform to denigrate unattractive women
(d) Using toxic masculinity to lower the position of women
28. Why does the author say that usage of sexist slurs comes with almost no consequence?
(a) Kamal Nath got away without an apology.
(b) There is no law to protect women from sexist remarks.
(c) Politicians are uneducated and brutal in their manner of dealing with women.
(d) Women are not respected by male politicians.
29. What is meant by transgress in the context of the passage?

(a) Flout (b) Understand (c) Join (d) Demean
30. In which of the following sentences has the word deign been used correctly?
(a) He deigned me to enter the temple as according to him I belonged to a lower caste
(b) I do not want to deign to even look at you
(c) Those who are famous, can’t be deigned
(d) I deign you to come in front of me and debate on this issue

MOCK CLAT #08
Passage (Q.31-Q.35): The Supreme Court (SC) October 14, 2020 upheld a 2011 order of the Madras
High Court (HC) on the Nilgiris elephant corridor, affirming the right of passageof the animals and the
closure of resorts in the area.
The Madras HC had, in July 2011, declared that the Tamil Nadu government was fully empowered under
the 'Project Elephant' of the Union government as well as article 51 A(g)of the Constitution to notify the
elephant corridor in the state’s Nilgiris district. The elephant corridor is situated in the Masinagudi area
near the [1] National Park in the Nilgris district.
“The Supreme Court Bench of S Abdul Nazeer and Sanjiv Khanna dismissed the special leave petition
filed by the Hospitality Association and Others against the 2011 Judgment of the Madras HC,” Vishal
Sinha, an advocate in the case, told Down To Earth (DTE).
The court also allowed the formation of a committee led by a retired HC judge and two other persons to
hear the individual objections of resort owners and private land owners within the corridor space.
“Many petitioners argued they had due permissions to operate their resorts and were inhabitants of the
area living in residential spaces. The SC then expressed its inclination to appoint a three-member enquiry
committee to look at the grievances of all petitioners and take a call as to which establishments should be
demolished or relocated,” Sinha told DTE.
Chief Justice of India SharadBobde had stated “the area was a fragile ecosystem, where the will of men
must give way to elephants,” during the last hearings in the case in January 2020.
Source:https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/nilgiris-elephant-corridor-sc-upholds-
madras-hc-order-affirming-animals-right-of-passage-
73791#:~:text=The%20Supreme%20Court%20(SC)%20October,of%20resorts%20in%20the%20area.&t
ext=The%20court%20had%20taken%20the,petition%20on%20the%20same%20issue.
31. ‘Right of Passage’, an 800-page study released in August 2017, published by?
(a) WWF-India (b) Nature Conservation Foundation
(c) Traffic (d) Wildlife Trust of India
32. Project Elephant was launched by the Government of India in which year?
(a) 1992 (b) 1994 (c) 1995 (d) 1997
33. Fill in the blank [1]

(a) Mukurthi National Park (b) Mudumalai National Park
(c) Guindy National Park (d) Karian Shola National Park
34. “World Elephant Day” is celebrated on

(a) August 18 (b) September 08 (c) August 12 (d) October 10
35. What does Article 51 A(g) of the Indian Constitution says?

(a) The State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and
wild life of the country.
(b) to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;
(c) to develop humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform the wild life.
(d) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to
have compassion for living creatures.
Passage (Q.36-Q.40): The Union Cabinet today ratified ban on seven Persistent Organic Pollutants
(POPs) listed under Stockholm Convention and hazardous to health and environment.
“With today’s decision, India is sending out a positive message to the world that we are active in this area
and we do not tolerate health and environmental hazard,” Environment Minister Prakash Javadekar said.

MOCK CLAT #08
The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and environment from POPs, which
are identified chemical substances that persist in the environment, bio-accumulate in living organisms,
adversely affect human health/ environment and have the property of long-range environmental
transport.
Considering its commitment towards providing safe environment and addressing human health risks, the
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change had notified the Regulation of Persistent Organic
Pollutants Rules, on March 5, 2018.
The approval demonstrates India’s commitment to meet its international obligations with regard to
protection of environment and human health. The ratification process would enable India to access
Global Environment Facilityfinancial resources in updating the NIP.
Source:https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/nation/union-cabinet-ratifies-ban-on-7-hazardous-chemicals-
152437
36. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as a financial mechanism for a few conventions. Which of
the following conventions is not one of them?
(a) Minamata Convention on Mercury
(b) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
(c) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
(d) Friends of the Earth International
37. Under which act the Regulation of Persistent Organic Pollutants Rules was notified?
(a) Environment Protection Act, 1986
(b) Biological Diversity Act, 2000
(c) The Biomedical waste (Management and Handling) Rules,1998
(d) Environment Protection Act ,1988
38. How many POPs are banned by the Stockholm Convention?

(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 14
39. In which year did India ratify the Stockholm Convention?

(a) 2001 (b) 2002 (c) 2004 (d) 2006
40. Which from the below are not one of the Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) which have been banned?
(a) Pentachlorobenzene (b) Chlordecone
(c) Hexachlorobutadiene (d) Tetrachlorobenzene
Passage (Q.41-Q.45): [1] has been ranked third out of 65 departments/ministries based on its
performance in the implementation of central schemes. It is in second place among 16 economic
ministries/departments." with a score 4.11 on a scale of 5 on Data Governance Quality Index (DGQI)," an
official statement said on Friday.
A survey was conducted by (DMEO), NitiAayog, to assess different Ministries /Departments''
performance on the implementation of Central Sector Schemes (CS) and Centrally Sponsored Schemes
(CSS).Chemicals and Fertilisers Minister DV SadanandaGowda said, "The effort of DMEO, NitiAayog to
bring out such a report card of the Ministries / Departments is highly appreciable. It will immensely help
improve the implementation framework of government policies, schemes and programmes to achieve the
desired goals".
The DMEO has undertaken DGQI exercise: self-assessment based review of data preparedness levels
across ministries/departments to produce a DGQI scorecard, the statement said, explaining the
process.Accordingly, a survey was initiated to assess the data preparedness of ministries/departments
on a standardised framework to drive healthy competition among them and promote cooperative peer
learning from best practices.

MOCK CLAT #08
In the survey, an online questionnaire was prepared under six major themes of DGQI -- data generation;
data quality; use of technology; data analysis, use and dissemination; data security and HR capacity and
case studies. Weightages were assigned to the themes and sub-weightages to each question within
every theme to arrive at final DGQI scores ranging between 0 to 5 for every scheme.
To avoid straightforward irrelevant comparisons, ministries/departments were classified into six

categories: [2]. "Questionnaire was then shared with Ministries / Departments, which are implementing
CS / CSS schemes. Inputs have been collected from 65 Ministries / Departments implementing 250 CS /
CSS schemes and their scores were accordingly calculated," the statement said.
Source:https://www.businesstoday.in/current/economy-politics/department-of-fertilisers-ranked-3rd-
among-65-ministries-in-implementing-central-schemes/story/417624.html
41. Fill in the blank [1] - which department has been ranked 3rd out of 65 departments/ Ministries ?
(a) Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals
(b) Department of Fertilizers
(c) Department of Pharmaceuticals
(d) Department of Science and Technology (DST)
42. Ministries/Departments were classified in six categories. Which one of them is not one of them? Refer to
point 2.
(a) Accountability
(b) Administrative
(c) Strategic
(d) Infrastructure
43. What does DMEO stands for?

(a) Developing Monitoring and Evaluation Office
(b) Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office
(c) Development Monitoring and Estimation Office
(d) Development Monitoring and Efficient Office
44. Consider the following statements on Centrally Sponsored Schemes. Choose the false statement/s?
i. Centrally Sponsored Schemes are the schemes by the centre where there is financial participation
by both the centre and states.
ii. Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) are again divided into Core of the Core Schemes, Core
Schemes and Optional schemes.
iii. Bharatnet, NamamiGange-National Ganga Plan are some of the examples of CSS
(a) Only i
(b) ii & iii
(c) Only iii
45. Which of the following is not matched correctly about NITI Aayog?
(a) NITI Aayog head office: Delhi
(b) NarendraModi: Chairman
(c) Parent Agency: Government of India
(d) NITI Aayog replaced: National Development Council
Passage (Q.46-Q.50): CRIMES AGAINST women increased 7.3 per cent from 2018 to 2019, and crimes
against Scheduled Castes also went up 7.3 per cent in the same period, according to the annual National
Crime Record Bureau’s “Crime in India” 2019 report released on Tuesday.
In terms of absolute numbers, Uttar Pradesh reported the highest number of cases in both these
categories. But Assam reported the highest rate of crimes against women (per lakh population), while
Rajasthan had the highest rate of crimes against Scheduled Castes.

MOCK CLAT #08
“A total of 4,05,861 cases of crime against women were registered during 2019, showing an increase of
7.3% over 2018 (3,78,236 cases). Majority of cases under crime against women under IPC were
registered under ‘cruelty by husband or his relatives’ (30.9%), followed by ‘assault on women with intent
to outrage her modesty’ (21.8%), ‘kidnapping & abduction of women’ (17.9%) and ‘rape’ (7.9%). The
crime rate registered per lakh women population is 62.4 in 2019 in comparison with 58.8 in 2018,” says
the NCRB report.
UP reported the highest number of crimes against women (59,853), accounting for 14.7 per cent of such
cases across the country. It was followed by Rajasthan (41,550 cases; 10.2 per cent) and Maharashtra
(37,144 cases; 9.2 per cent). Assam reported the highest rate of crime against women at 177.8 (per lakh
population), followed by Rajasthan (110.4) and Haryana (108.5).
Rajasthan reported the highest number of rapes with 5,997 cases, followed by UP (3,065) and Madhya
Pradesh (2,485). In terms of rate of rape cases, Rajasthan was the highest at 15.9 (per lakh population),
followed by Kerala (11.1) and Haryana (10.9).
UP also had the highest number of crimes against girl children under the POCSO Act with 7,444 cases,
followed by Maharashtra (6,402) and MP (6,053). The highest rate of these crimes were in Sikkim (27.1
per lakh population), MP (15.1), and Haryana (14.6).
Source:https://indianexpress.com/article/india/ncrb-data-7-rise-in-crimes-against-women-6636529/
46. Which state has highest cases booked under IPC as per the latest report released by NCRB?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Kerala (d) Maharashtra
47. Data for the report is collected by -

(a) National Data Bank (b) National Crime Data Sharing
(c) Indian statistical Crime Bureau (d) State Crime Records Bureaux
48. The NCRB report uses the population estimates for 2019 on the basis of which Census for this
calculation.?
(a) 2001 (b) 2011 (c) 1991 (d) 1971
49. National Crime Records Bureau was set-up under which ministry?
(a) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Law and Justice
(d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
50. The first edition of 'Crime in India' pertains to which year?

(a) 1953 (b) 1964 (c) 1977 (d) 1968
Passage (Q.51-Q.55): NEW DELHI : India and France were re-elected as the president and co-
president respectively of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) for a two-year term at its third assembly
that began Wednesday.
According to an ISA statement, representatives of [2]were chosen as the vice-presidents for Asia Pacific
Region of the first treaty-based international government organization headquartered in India. While
Mauritius and Niger will be the vice-presidents for Africa Region; UK and Netherlands will hold this
responsibility for Europe. Also, Cuba and Guyana assumed the vice presidency for Latin America and
Caribbean region.
ISA has been viewed as a counterweight against China’s ambitious One Belt One Road initiative that
seeks to invest billions of dollars in infrastructure projects including railways, ports and power grids
across Asia, Africa and Europe. Indian state-run firms on their part have been trying to leverage ISA to
land projects in its member nations under the (CSCA) initiative.
“The Assembly also approved the initiatives of the ISA Secretariat in institutionalizing ISA’s engagement
with the private and public corporate sector through the (CSCA). Ten public sector organisations in India
presented a cheque for 1 million USD each at the assembly," the statement added.
Source :https://www.livemint.com/

MOCK CLAT #08
51. The first two assemblies of ISA were held in India in which years?
(a) 2017 and 2018 (b) 2018 and 2019 (c) 2015 and 2016 (d) 2016 and 2017
52. Fill in the blank [2].

(a) Fiji and Nauru (b) Tuvalu and Marshall Island
(c) Tonga and Niue (d) Samoa and Niue
53. International Solar Alliance was founded by -

(a) France (b) India and France
(c) Japan and France (d) India
54. The Kalpana Chawla award was conferred to -

(a) Dr. Bhim Singh and Dr. AaeshaAlnuaimi
(b) DrRajendra Singh and DrMarayam Abdullah
(c) DrShalendra Gupta and DrAditi
(d) Dr Raj Kewat and Dr Sarah Ahmad
55. Which country is the 87th and the latest country to sign the agreement ISA?
(a) Panama (b) Cuba (c) Nicaragua (d) Costa rica
Passage (Q.56-Q.60): Up to 226,000 people lost their lives when these devastating weapons were used
on Japan.
This United Nations was born out of the devastation of those years. And this General Assembly was
clearly committed to nuclear disarmament from its inception: the very first resolution passed in 1946
aimed to achieve global nuclear disarmament.
Excellencies,
Nuclear weapons continue to pose a grave threat to international peace and security.
The only sure way to eliminate this threat is to eliminate the weapons themselves. There is no alternative.
It is therefore unfortunate that the architecture developed over decades to support the goals of
disarmament and enhance security is under significant strain with rising global tensions.”
Source: https://www.un.org/pga/75/2020/10/02/un-high-level-meeting-to-commemorate-and-promote-the-
international-day-for-the-total-elimination-of-nuclear-weapons/
56. Which of the following days is observed as the International Day for the Total Elimination of Nuclear
Weapons (Nuclear Abolition Day)?
(a) 24th September (b) 23rd September (c) 26th September (d) 27th September
57. With respect to Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT) Treaty, consider the following statements:
i. It was brought in 1974, in response to the Indian nuclear test: “Smiling Buddha”.
ii. All the five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council are among its members.
iii. India, Pakistan and South Sudan are the only nuclear countries that are non signatories to this
agreement.
iv. India always considered the NPT as discriminatory and has refused to sign it.

(a) i , ii and iv (b) iii and iv (c) i and ii (d) i , ii and iii
58. Which from the below are not considered as nuclear-weapon states (NWS) as recognized by NPT?
(a) China (b) France (c) Russia (d) Israel
59. Due to which event India declared No First Use policy in 2003 ?
(a) India first adopted a “No first use” policy after its second nuclear tests, Pokhran-II, in 1998.
(b) After India's first successful nuclear bomb test on 18 May 1974 ,Pokhran- I
(c) After its face-off with China in the 1962 war
(d) After India refused to sign the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT).

MOCK CLAT #08
60. Who is Volkan Bozkir?

(a) UNGA Chairperson (b) UNGA President
(c) UNSC Chairperson (d) UNSC President
Passage (Q.61-Q.65): While the Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister NarendraModi had
approved the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) setting up (InvIT) in December 2019, the
company has recently started meeting investor groups, as it prepares to come up with its InvIT issue.
The issue will enable NHAI to monetise its completed National Highways that have a toll collection track
record of at least one year. The NHAI reserves the right to levy toll on identified highways and it will help
the company raise funds for more road development across the country.
While the fund will be raised by monetising the completed NHs, the regulations say that the project SPV
would distribute not less than 90 per cent of net distributable cash flow to the trust in proportion of its
holding in each of the project SPV and further not less than 90 per cent of the net distributable cash flow
of the trust will get distributed to the unitholders. The unitholders will get the distributions at least once
every six month.
The fund raised can be invested in the project SPVs by way of an issue of debt. The trust can utilise it to
repay their loans or even for prepayment of certain unsecured loans and advances availed by such
project SPVs from the sponsor, the project manager and certain members of the sponsor group.
The Indian InvIT market is not yet mature and has supported formation of 10 InvITs till date — in roads,
power transmission, gas transmission and telecom towers sectors — of which only two are listed,
according to a report of the task force on National Infrastructure Pipeline. The InvITs listed on the stock
exchange are IRB InvIT Fund and India Grid Trust.
The listed are required to maintain a maximum-leverage ratio of 49 per cent, which can be increased to
70 per cent subject to certain conditions, such as six continuous distributions to unit-holders and AAA-
rating.
With the significant amount of funding required in the infrastructure sector and a gap in availability of
long-term funds, this structure helps close that gap by enabling fund raising from capital markets.
It is important to note that in October 2017, the Centre had launched [2], its flagship highway
development programme, for development of 24,800 km of roads at a total investment of Rs 5,35,000
crore.
Source:https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-how-nhai-plans-to-monetise-its-highways-
through-invits-6605500/
61. What does InvITs stand for?

(a) Infrastructure Investment Trust(s) (b) Initial Investment Trust(s)
(c) InstitutionalInvestment Trust(s) (d) India Investment Trust(s)

(a) SetuBharatam (b) BharatmalaPariyojana
(c) Operation Highway (d) Urja Project
63. InvITs are regulated by?

(a) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2013.
(b) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2011.
(c) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2012.
(d) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014.
64. Like mutual funds,InvITs have a trustee, sponsor(s), investment manager and project manager.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct statements.
i. Trustee has the responsibility of inspecting the performance of an InvIT.
ii. Sponsor(s) are promoters of the company that set up the InvIT.
iii. Investment manager is entrusted with the task of supervising the assets and investments of the InvIT.
iv. Project manager is responsible for the execution of the project.

MOCK CLAT #08
(a) i, ii (b) i, iii, iv (c) ii ,iii (d) All of the above
65. Which of the following isn’t the reason for NHAI to take this step?
(a) Fund-raising and investing in infrastructure will boost the economy post-lockdown
(b) It will increase private sector investment
(c) It will increase FDI in roadways
(d) It will give rise to employment in the country
Passage (Q.66-Q.68): [1] on Tuesday became the first State in the country to formally reject theCentral
government’s three agriculture sector legislations, with its Legislative Assembly on Tuesday unanimously
passing three Bills to negate the Union laws.The Assembly passed a resolution rejecting the Central
legislations and the proposed Electricity Amendment Bill and demanding their immediate annulment.
The three State Bills provide for imprisonment of not less than three years and fines for sale-purchase of
wheat or paddy under a farming agreement below the MSP, besides prevention of hoarding and black-
marketing of agricultural produce, among other things.The Essential Commodities (Special Provisions
and [1] Amendment) Bill, 2020, seeks to amend the Centre’s ‘The Essential Commodities (Amendment)
Act, 2020’ by amending section 1(2) and section 3(1A) of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. It seeks
to ensure status quo ante as on June 4, 2020 with regard to implementation of the Central Act namely,
‘The Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act, 2020’.
66. Which of the following states has been redacted by [1]?

(a) Chhattisgarh (b) Punjab (c) Maharashtra (d) Kerala
67. Which of the following crops have been excluded from the Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act,
2020?
i. Cereals
ii. Pulses
iii. Onion
iv. Potato
(a) Only i, ii and iii (b) Only ii, iii and iv (c) Only iii and iv (d) i, ii, iii and iv
68. Which of the following is a probable outcome of the Farm Bills passed by the Centre?
(a) Farmers can have an option to sell their produce directly to these new zones outside APMCs
(b) Stock-holding limits won’t be there
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b

MOCK CLAT #08
Passage (Q.69-Q.73): Under National legislative enactments of Indian Penal Code, 1890, Section 330
and 348 laid down the punitive provisions for the offence of torment. But, when the same offence of
torment is committed by the police officials on duty, the provision does not apply, thus, giving a gate-way
to the authorities in uniform.
Rudul Shah v. State of Bihar marked the first instance which prompted the rise of a compensatory statute
for the infringement of rights of the prisoner under the purview of the Constitution. In the case, the liability
was imposed upon the state for the wrongful detention of the petitioner. In Nandani Sathpathy v. P.L.
Dani, the Supreme Court held that “A person while being examined under Section 161 of the CrPC is not
required to answer those questions that have a tendency to self-incriminate.”
This principle can be extended as even the police authority while interrogating an accused cannot force
an individual to reveal any information, which can be self-incriminating or pose them to any physical and
mental harm. In Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, the Apex Court reiterated that the safety of the inmate
must be maintained by the police authority, in custody.
The Supreme Court in D.K. Basu v. State of Bengal recognized the right of the prisoner against custodial
torture and deaths in police custody. In addition, the Supreme Court also extends to pay the
acknowledgement and recognizes the Right against cruel and unusual punishment, Right to free legal
Aid and fair trial, Right to Speedy Trial and Rights of Inmates of protective homes. This implies that the
Apex Court had already in receipt of the threat of custodial torture while the executive always fails to
adopt a path to curb it. Thus, it can be drawn that a specific statute is required to abolish police brutality.
69. Deepak, a farmer was arrested by police for alleged rape of a girl in her village. He was in remand till the
whole trial and also during the appellate stages. Till the appeal reached the Supreme Court he had
already been in judicial custody for 8 years. He was finally held to be not guilty and acquitted by the
Supreme Court. Even after the judgment of the Supreme Court, Deepak was not released from custody
for four more years. Deepak filed an SLP before the Supreme Court for his release. The Supreme Court
regretted the incarceration of Deepak for so long, ordered his immediate release and ordered the
concerned state government to pay a compensation of 2 Lacs to Deepak. Can the Supreme Court order
compensation to be paid by the State?
(a) Yes, the payment of compensation can be ordered as Deepak was wrongfully detained for around 13
years despite being acquitted of the crime by the Supreme Court.
(b) No, despite the detention of Deepak after the acquittal order by the Supreme Court and that must be
classified as defence of exercise of statutory duty and be overlooked.
(c) Yes, the payment of compensation can be ordered as due to the casual attitude of our judiciary
Deepak had to be detained for over 13 years despite being innocent.
(d) No, as the State cannot be made to pay any compensation unless any mistake on its part is an
outcome of gross negligence by the employees while exercising their official duties.
70. Pranav married Pooja, and both shifted to Mumbai after their marriage. Both lived happily together until
one day when Pooja was found dead in their apartment. Pranav being the only one who had access to
the house was the prime accused in the case. Police arrested Pranav, who was sent to police remand of
10 days by the magistrate. He made a formal complaint before a magistrate that he is being tortured by
the officers in the station. He stated that he has been told to confess to the crime else he will be given
more severe punishment if the court finds him guilty in the court. He grieved that the same has inflicted
mental torture on him and therefore makes the concerned officers liable for the same. Is the complaint
valid?
(a) The complaint is invalid as any action to be taken against custodial violence has to be taken by a
court exercising its power to take suo motu cognizance of a matter.
(b) The complaint is valid as the Supreme Court recognizes right against custodial violence as a valid
right and a victim can enforce it when needed.
(c) The complaint is invalid as threatening a victim with the penalizing provisions is not any form of
mental torture of violence against him.

MOCK CLAT #08
(d) The complaint is valid as being the prime accused of the offence; Pranav is more likely to be
compelled by the Police to confess to reduce their burden of investigating the case.
71. Rajmohan, the CM of Orissa, was in highlights during his term for allegations of gross misconduct and
corruption. After his term ended, he no longer was in the office as he lost the election because he was
booked for corruption during his term. He was brought to the police station and was interrogated. During
the time of interrogation, he refused to utter a word from his mouth. He was informed that answering
questions, asked during police examination is mandatory in law. He put forth that he is exercising his
fundamental right against self-incrimination. Police lodged another complaint against Rajmohan for not
answering the question, asked by a public officer, on the ground that right against self-incrimination is
only available to an accused in trial. Is the further FIR legal in law?
(a) FIR is legal, as Rajmohan has refused to answer the questions asked by a public officer in official
capacity, which is not only an offence but also obstructs the legal procedure of investigation.
(b) FIR is illegal, as no person can be forced to give a confession against himself and the same has to be
done with free will and consent.
(c) FIR is legal, as right against self-incrimination is a fundamental right that extends to an accused
during the trial, so that he cannot be forced to confess against himself.
(d) FIR is illegal, as a person even during examination by the police can refrain from answering questions
that would be self-incriminatory in nature.
72. Rizwaan, was arrested from his house, without giving appropriate reasons to her mother for the arrest, for
aiding a politician with her illegal practices. He was kept in custody, after producing before a magistrate.
Her mother went to the police station where she was neither allowed to meet Rizwaan and nor was she
told about his well-being. After few days, a dead body was found near a railway track, which was
identified as Rizwaan’s. His mother made representations to authorities but was given no reply. She
made a petition before the Supreme Court, where State contended that death of Rizwaan was not an
outcome of any torture commited by the police officers and may be it was the attempt by the politician
to eliminate a witness against her. The Supreme Court allowed the petition and held the State liable for
the death and imposed a compensation of 5 lacs to be paid to the mother by the State. Choose the
correct option?
(a) The State shall be liable as they should be prepared to deal with such a situation when they have
arrested someone who could be a potential witness against someone else.
(b) The State shall not be liable as death of Rizwan was not an outcome of any brutality or cruelty he was
subjected to in the police custody and State shall only be liable for torture that has been committed by
the officers only.
(c) The State shall be liable as the safety of any accused in the police custody is the responsibility of
Police Officers only, so any harm caused to Rizwan during custody makes the State liable for the
same.
(d) The State shall not be liable as Rizwan was murdered by the Politician herself because she was
under the threat of being arrested herself if Rizwan gave any statement against her.
73. A merciless group of terrorists entered Mumbai, the gateway of India. They killed over a thousand people
in their attacks that lasted for as long as 4 days. Azeer, one of the terrorists, was caught shooting openly
on the crowd at one of the most crowded stations in the city. He was finally arrested and put in police
custody. He was tortured by police to make him say the name of the mastermind of their plan and their
local link in Mumbai. Azeer, did not utter a word and was admitted to hospital due to severe injuries. The
Supreme Court took the suo motu cognizance of the case and ordered police to act civil to all the
criminals, including Azeer. Can police use torture as a measure to ensure efficiency of the trial?
(a) Police can use torture, to some extent, to reach truth in complex cases where investigation has not
reached a conclusion despite months of hardwork at the end of Police.
(b) Police cannot use torture to reach to truth as the same is a punishable in law and can be enforced
even against public servants exercising their official duty.
(c) Police can use torture in cases involving special laws such as terrorist acts wherein such practices
are permitted to establish links in the case and reach a conclusive end.

MOCK CLAT #08
(d) Police cannot use torture as the same is impermissible as per the rulings of the Supreme Court, and
victim has right against any form of such torture.
Passage (Q.74-Q.78): The Bench of Justices R Banumathi, AS Bopanna, and Hrishikesh Roy held that
only a prima facie case is needed to be considered at this point, and that the law does not require an
elaborate inquiry under Section 228 of Code of Criminal Procedure. The judgment states, for framing the
charges under Section 228 of the Code, the judge is not required to record detailed reasons. As pointed
out earlier, at the stage of framing the charge, the court is not required to hold an elaborate enquiry; only
prima facie cases are to be seen.
This judgment was delivered in an appeal against a decision of the Madhya Pradesh High Court, which
had quashed the charges against accused persons on the ground that the trial court failed to apply its
judicial mind while framing the charges. The High Court had held that the trial court ought to apply its
mind while framing charges and must give concise reasons for the charges framed. This order was
challenged by the complainant-appellant before the Supreme Court.
The Supreme Court, while dealing with the issue at hand, delved into the scope of Sections 226, 227,
and 228 of the Code of Criminal Procedure. While Section 226 of the Code provides for opening of the
criminal case by the public prosecutor, Section 227 provides for discharging of the accused persons if
there are insufficient grounds to proceed against them.
The judge may proceed with framing the charges against an accused under Section 228 if, after perusal
of the records and documents, there is prima facie reason to presume that a triable offence may have
been committed by the accused. The judge is not required to record his reasons for framing of charges,
the Supreme Court observed, placing reliance on the precedents laid down in this regard.
74. Mr. Sethmalani was a very cunning lawyer, who was known for his defence tactics and for taking up
difficult criminal cases. He has been undefeated in his entire career, and has no plans of altering this. He
took the case of Manu Sharma, who was alleged of assault of his wife Tanu. The prosecution produced
evidence showing grave wounds and burn marks, along with the certified medical report and statements
of Tanu, admitting that her husband was usually cruel and brutal to her. Mr. Sethmalani asked permission
for producing their evidence, to prove that his client Manu Sharma is innocent. Magistrate, however,
declined analyzing the evidence of Mr. Sethmalani and proceeded with the framing of charges against
Mr. Manu Sharma. Mr. Sethmalani, filed an appeal on the grounds that Manu Sharma cannot be
convicted before considering the evidence presented by defence and no proper trial was conducted.
Decide:
(a) The appeal will sustain, as even if the court is not required to conduct a thorough inquiry at the stage
of charge framing but there is need to listen to both the sides before passing the order of conviction.
(b) The appeal will not sustain, as a magistrate is not bound to record reasons at the stage of charge
framing and thus neither is accountable to superior courts nor his decision at this stage is subject to
appeal.
(c) The appeal will sustain, as rule of law commands that principles of natural justice shall be followed,
which allows accused to produce evidence in his favour so as to ensure his acquittal.
(d) The appeal will not sustain, as to proceed with framing of charges the court just needs to make sure
that there is prima facie case against the accused that he has committed a triable offence, and
charge framing is not as same as conviction.
.
75. Rihan, whose father served in jail despite being acquitted due to an overburdened judiciary, completes
his law and clears M.P Judiciary. Zealous about his new role, he decides that he will be as quick as
possible in disposing of the cases so that somebody else need not suffer as his own father did. In a
murder case before him, he asked both the parties to produce all the evidence and witnesses at the
stage of charge framing so as to reduce the delay in decision making that arose due to a full trial. He
considered the evidence and held the accused to convict of the rape case and thus sentence him with an
imprisonment of 7 years. His steps are appreciated by the common people due to instant justice and he
is now an internet sensation. What is the legal flaw in the process employed by Rihan?
(a) Rihan cannot ask the prosecution to present their side of the case at the stage of framing of charges
as there is no need to conduct an elaborate trial at this stage.

MOCK CLAT #08
(b) Rihan cannot have convicted accused at the stage of framing of charges by having a summary trial at
this stage, and by enquiring the case elaborately to give instant justice.
(c) Rihan cannot decide the evidence produced by the prosecution to have a prima facie impression of
the accused having committed the offence as the same would create biases in his mind.
(d) Rihan cannot let his personal emotional reasons to blind him while adjudicating cases in court of law
as the same impair the entire process of administration of justice.
76. Abhik, a businessman, using his power and dominant position compelled his secretary to indulge into a
sexual relationship with him for keeping her job. Secretary, in need of the job and money, agreed to the
same reluctantly. After some time, she filed an FIR against Abhik for her rape. Abhik was arrested but
later released on bail. He hired the best lawyers in the country for his case. At the stage of framing of
charges, prosecution could not make out a prima facie case that the accused had committed a triable
offence and thus was discharged by the court of his offence. The prosecution rose the question of how
could an accused be acquitted for an offence unless it is an outcome of a trial. The court rejected the
contention and did not proceed with the framing of charges. Choose the correct option.
(a) The question raised is invalid, as when the court is not convinced by the case, presented by the
prosecution that the accused has committed a triable offence, it can discharge the accused from the
offence.
(b) The question raised is valid, as the accused cannot be permanently released from the case unless
the charges are framed and the accused is properly tried providing both the sides to present their
evidence and witnesses as well as substantiate them.
(c) The question raised is invalid, as the magistrate holds ultimate discretion while making decisions
regarding conviction or acquittal of an accused and the same cannot be confined by the statutory
laws as in the judicial hierarchy; a judge holds the paramount pedestal.
(d) The question raised is valid, as the principles of natural justice suggest that a proper trial be
conducted to decide on an offence, especially that are a threat to the society in large.
77. Motu and Patlu were two smart thieves, who always managed to escape after a theft. Always two steps
ahead of Police, Motu and Patlu plan every robbery so that they leave no sign of their presence at the
place. A new police officer, Jai, made a plan to nab them the next time they robbed a place. The plan
went successful and they were both nabbed by Police red-handed. Prosecution presented the case with
concrete evidence to approve that both the accused have committed offences triable by the court, and so
the court proceeded with the framing of charges. Motu and Patlu, to comprehend what made them
caught this time, studied the copy of the order in which they found no reasons for framing charges
against them. They filed an appeal before a superior court against the framing of charges. Which of the
following is correct?
(a) Appeal has no merit, as the court is not required to record reasons at the stage of framing of charges,
because it only has to check that there is a prima facie case against the accused.
(b) Appeal has merit, as the court is not required to record reasons as long as neither of the party has
requested for the same, but when either of the party makes an application for recording of the
reasons the court is bound to comply with it.
(c) Appeal has no merit, as whenever an accused is not discharged at the stage of framing of charges,
he is entitled to know the reasons for initiating the trial against him.
(d) Appeal has no merit, as in the present case neither of the parties made an application to the court for
recording reasons, so nothing binds to record the reasons for proceedings with the framing of charge.
78. Balu Yadav was the chief minister of the State of Dihar. Balu began as a local leader and his popularity
took him to making him the head of the government. He was loved by people and thus remained in power
for multiple terms. Once he was alleged for being involved in a mammoth scam that involved a whopping
sum of money. He was arrested and after the submission of the final report the magistrate called both the
parties for framing of charges. Prosecution presented its case and made out that Balu is accused of a
triable case. The court discharged Balu, holding that presented evidences are not enough to convict Balu
of the offence. Which of the following is corrected?
(a) Balu can be discharged by the court because if it does not find that there is prima facie evidence for
his conviction then it may not proceed with the framing of charges and the trial.

MOCK CLAT #08
(b) Balu cannot be discharged because the same is the result of his popularity and influence, and not
because the prosecution failed to make out a prima facie case against him.
(c) Balu can be discharged as the magistrate has given the proper reasoning of his discharge and thus it
is neither arbitrary nor biased in any manner.
(d) Balu cannot be discharged by the court on the ground that there is not enough evidence to convict
him, as there is no need to prove conviction at this stage.
Passage (Q.79-Q.84): Protection of rights of the religious and ethnic minorities is the backbone of India's
secular values. With a legacy of bringing all religions under its fold, India has always advocated the
principle of equality. The Article 30 of the Indian constitution is one of the many provisions that ensure
preservation of minority rights. Article 30 is classified under Part III of the Indian Constitution that throws
light on the fundamental rights provided to the citizens of India irrespective of their caste, religion and
sex. Article 30 promises the rights of minorities "to establish and administer educational institutions".
Article 30 (1) promises to all linguistic and religious minorities the ‘right to establish’ and the ‘right to
administer’ educational institutions of their own choice. The right is provided by this clause on two types
of minorities, namely, religious and linguistic minorities. The right vested in the above minorities is to
establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. The basic ground for a community to be
nominated as a religious minority/linguistic minority is the numerical strength of the community. The word
"establish" indicates the right to bring into existence, while the right to administer an institution means the
right to effectively manage and conduct the affairs of the institution. The administration implies
management and affairs of the institution. The management must be free of control and restrictions so
that the founders of their community can frame the institution as they think fit in correspondence with their
views and ideas of how the interest of the community in general and the institution will be delivered. Thus
it gives choice to the minority community to establish such educational institutions as it will serve both
purposes, that is, the purpose of protecting their religion, language or culture, and also the purpose of
giving through general education to their children in their own language.Article 30 (2) restricts the State
from making discrimination in the matter of providing help to any educational institution on the ground
that it is managed by a religious minority or linguistic minority.
Article 29 of the Indian Constitution uses the word ‘minorities’ in its marginal heading but it speaks about
"any section of the citizens inhabiting the territory of India or any part of the country should have the right
to protect their language or script or culture which is different and varied. It also says that citizens should
be allowed to take admission in any educational institution which is maintained by the State or getting
help from State funds whether they vary in religion, race, caste, language or any of them.
79. Charminder decides to set up a dance institute for the dying art of Pranammiya, a dance form originating
in South India, aeons ago. Which of the following is true?
(a) Charminder, under the constitution of India has the right to establish such an institution
(b) Article 29 does not give Charminder, the right to establish such an institution
(c) Charminder must belong to a religious/linguistic minority for him to have this right to establish an
institution.
(d) Charminder’s right exists, as long as he can prove that Pranammiya is an ancient dance form.
80. The State refuses to provide aid to Charminder’s dance institute, calling it a waste of resources. Which of
the following statements is correct?
(a) The State has discriminated against Charminder for educational institutes like his cannot be
discriminated
(b) The State has not discriminated against Charminder since he does not belong to a minority.
(c) The State has discriminated against Charminder on the ground that the institute belongs to a non-
state actor.
(d) It cannot be determined.
81. Please refer to the facts above. Assume that Charminder is a Muslim and the community has been
classified as a religious minority. Would Charminder’s school of Pranammiya, fall within Article 30?
(a) Charminder’s school will fall under Article 30 since Muslims being a religious minority have the right to
establish institutes based on their choice

MOCK CLAT #08
(b) Charminder’s school will not fall under Article 30 since Charminder is not a religious group.
(c) Charminder’s school will fall under Article 30 since Muslims are a religious minority
(d) Charminder’s school will not fall under Article 30 for a school on Pranammiya does not protect religion
and culture of the Muslim community.
82. Rajat is a Muslim and the community has been classified as a religious minority. Would Rajat’s school of
a north east Indian tribal dance, fall within Article 30?
(a) Rajat’s school will fall under Article 30 since Muslims being a religious minority have the right to
(b) Rajat’s school will not fall under Article 30 since Rajat is not a religious group.
(c) Rajat’s school will fall under Article 30 since Muslims are a religious minority
(d) Rajat’s school will not fall under Article 30 for a school on North Eastern Tribal Dance does not
protect religion and culture of the Muslim community.
83. Please refer to the facts above. Assume that instead of North Eastern Tribal Dance, Rajat wishes to open
a community run school to teach English language. Which of the following is true?
(a) Rajat’s school will fall under Article 30 since Muslims being a religious minority have the right to
(b) Rajat’s school will not fall under Article 30 since Rajat is not a religious group.
(c) Rajat’s school will fall under Article 30 since Muslims are a religious minority and the school fulfills a
purpose of general education of Muslim children
(d) Rajat’s school will not fall under Article 30 for an English language school does not fulfill the purpose
of Article 30
84. Lajpat is a Hindu which is the majority community. He decides to open a school on vedic scriptures and
seeks government aid under Article 30 for the same. Decide
(a) Lajpat is not a religious/linguistic minority and thus should not be allowed such funding
(b) Lajpat’s case falls within “any section” phrase used in Article 29 of the Constitution
(c) Lajpat does not run a in a community and thus cannot be given the benefit
Passage (Q.85-Q.90): In India, the statutory provisions which come closest to encapsulating the
principles of force majeure are Sections 32 and 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
“32. Enforcement of contracts contingent on an event happening.—Contingent contracts to do or not
to do anything if an uncertain future event happens cannot be enforced by law unless and until that event
has happened. If the event becomes impossible, such contracts become void.”
“56. Agreement to do impossible act.—An agreement to do an act impossible in itself is void.
Contract to do an act afterwards becoming impossible or unlawful.—A contract to do an act which, after
the contract is made, becomes impossible, or, by reason of some event which the promisor could not
prevent, unlawful, becomes void when the act becomes impossible or unlawful.
Section 56 encapsulates the doctrine of frustration of contract. The parties seeking to invoke Section 56
will face consequences under Section 65, wherein any advantage that has been received by any party to
a contract shall have to be restored.
The law in India has been laid down in the seminal decision of Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur
& Co...What was held was that the word “impossible” has not been used in the Section in the sense of
physical or literal impossibility. The performance of an act may not be literally impossible but it may be
impracticable and useless from the point of view of the object and purpose of the parties. If an untoward
event or change of circumstance totally upsets the very foundation upon which the parties entered their
agreement, it can be said that the promisor finds it impossible to do the act which he had promised to do.
The key factor that has to be borne in mind is that there is a difference between impossibility vis-a-vis
commercial difficulty. Commercial difficulty is not excused.

MOCK CLAT #08
85. What is the major difference between a Contingent contract stipulated under Section 32 and Doctrine of
Frustration under Section 56?
(a) Contingent contracts depend on a future event but Doctrine of frustration need not be dependent on a
future event.
(b) Contingent contracts do not refer to impossible acts whereas Doctrine of Frustration is based on acts
becoming impossible.
(c) Contingent contract governs express force majeure clauses in contracts whereas Doctrine of
frustration operates in absence of force majeure clauses in the contract.
86. Amy and Jack entered into a lease agreement under which Jack leased his property to Amy for 4 years.
When Amy started moving her belongings in the house, the local authority closed down the only access
road to the leased premises. The road was closed because it passed a derelict and dangerous building,
which could endanger a passer-by’s life. The local authority closed down the road for 12 months for
revamping the building and making the road safer for everyone. Amy therefore argued that the tenancy
has been frustrated because of the change in circumstances. Has the contract been frustrated under
Indian law?
(a) Yes, because it is no longer possible for Amy to access the premises.
(b) No, because the closure of access was temporary and does not frustrate the lease for remaining 3
years.
(c) Yes, because the very foundation of lease agreement is that the tenant has access to leased
premises.
(d) No, because the closure of the only access road was done in order to ensure of safety of passer-by
like Amy.
87. Ocean Trawlers Ltd. owned several fishing trawlers. Maritime Fish Co. hired one of the fishing trawlers
from Ocean Trawlers named “Rosemary” which was to be employed in the fishing industry. Both the
parties were aware of the law which provided that such trawlers could be only used after obtaining a
license form the government. Maritime Fish Co. was using five trawlers and therefore sought five licences
from the government. But the government only allowed 3 licenses and asked Maritime Fish Co. to name
the three trawlers for the license. The Maritime Fish Co. did not name the “Rosemary” fishing trawler for
the license. When Ocean Trawlers asked for the payment for the “Rosemary” Trawler, Maritime Fish Co
repudiated the charter of hire and claimed frustration. Would Maritime Fish Co. succeed in claiming
frustration?
(a) Yes, because the government had not given the license to use the “Rosemary” trawler due to which
the contract has become impossible to perform.
(b) No, the impossibility of performing the contract is due to Maritime Fish Co.’s own election to exclude
the “Rosemary” trawler form the licenses granted.
(c) Yes, because both the parties had knowledge that the trawler could be used only if the license is
granted by the government and the contract was dependent on the license.
(d) No, because the contract has to be performed irrespective of whether the license has been granted or
not as it is independent of the license granted from the government.
88. Prakash let certain premises to Prabhu for a restaurant. The premises were near a ground where a
concert was going to be held from 31st March to 30th April and would have visitors from all over the
country and also from foreign countries. The agreement was to remain in force for the period of the
concert and then the terms had to be renewed. The amount of rent fixed was higher as compared to the
general rent in the area. Prabhu had agreed to the higher rent because he was expecting higher profits
during the time of the concert. Due to Covid-19 outbreak, the concert was cancelled. Prabhu claimed
frustration of contract because of the covid-19 outbreak. Will Prakash succeed?
(a) Yes, the contract has become impossible to perform because the concert has been cancelled.
(b) No, because the cancellation of concert does not affect the contract between Prakash and Prabhu.
(c) Yes, because the Prabhu would not have agreed to higher rent apart from expectation of deriving
higher profit from concert visitors and therefore is disadvantaged.

MOCK CLAT #08
(d) No, because the situation has become commercially difficult for Prabhu which has made the
performance unprofitable and expensive but such cannot be excused.
89. Ramakrishanan and Monika entered into a contract where Ramakrishnan agreed to pay Rs. 10,000 to
Monika if it becomes really cold in December in Delhi. Is this a contingent contract?
(a) Yes, because the contract is dependent on a future event.
(b) No, because the contract is not dependent on a future event.
(c) Yes, because the contract is dependent on an uncertain event.
(d) No, because the contract is not dependent on an uncertain event.
90. The Batala Municipal Committee is in charge providing taxi stands to the taxi drivers so as to maintain
road traffic. Hakim Singh entered into a lease agreement with the Municipal Committee. As per the
agreement, the Municipal Committee leased out certain taxi stands to Hakim Singh for a period of 1 year
in consideration of Rs. 10000. Hakim Singh paid the amount at the beginning of the lease agreement
period and aimed to profit from the fees levied on the taxi drivers for using the taxi stands. During the
period of the lease agreement, due to lockdown no taxi driver used the stands and Hakim Singh failed to
realize anything. Therefore, Hakim Singh claimed the contract has become void and asked for refund of
Rs. 10000. Will Hakim Singh succeed?
(a) Yes, because the lease was granted under the assumption that taxi stands would be used by the
drivers and Hakim Singh would recover fees from them.
(b) No, because the lease was merely for providing the land to Hakim Singh without any intention of it
being used as a taxi stand for recovering fees,
(c) Yes, because the non-use of taxi stands by the taxi drivers was not under the control of any of the
parties to the contract.
(d) No, because the non-use of taxi stands by the taxi driver was not contemplated by the Municipal
Committee.
Passage (Q.91-Q.96): Section 509 of the Indian Penal Code reads “Whoever, intending to insult the
modesty of any woman, utters any word, makes any sound or gesture, or exhibits any object, intending
that such word or sound shall be heard, or that such gesture or object shall be seen, by such woman, or
intrudes upon the privacy of such woman, shall be punished.
The court noted the dictionary meaning of the word `gesture' and said: " It is not necessary that a person
uses any body signs to make a gesture. He can convey or express his intentions by sending a doctor,
writing a letter or by making a phone call etc.
Modesty of Woman
The modesty of an adult female is writ large on her body. Young or old, intelligent or imbecile, awake or
sleeping, the woman possesses modesty. Modesty is a virtue which attaches to a female owing to her
sex. If the word uttered or the gesture made could be perceived as one which is capable of shocking the
sense of decency of a woman, then it is an act of insult to the modesty of the woman.
Section 354D which now reads: Stalking.—(1) Any man who— (i) follows a woman and contacts, or
attempts to contact such woman to foster personal interaction repeatedly despite a clear indication of
disinterest by such woman; or (ii) monitors the use by a woman of the internet, email or any other form of
electronic communication, commits the offence of stalking.
Mischief Rule
Since there is no Section which directly deals with an act of outraging modesty of a woman by word,
gesture or act intended to insult the modesty of a woman in Information Technology Act, it can be safely
said that Section 509 can be charged against those who does the crime on virtual world as well. By
applying the mischief rule, one has to essentially ask what part of the law did the law not cover, but was
meant to be rectified by the legislature. Section 509 was enacted at a time when there was not even a
concept of internet. The mischief that was sought to be suppressed was the act of outraging modesty of a
woman. Now, such mischief has to be remedied by applying Section 509 to crimes done in virtual world
as well.

MOCK CLAT #08
91. Maria lived alone in a flat in Verghese Colony. She was often ridiculed by her neighbours and others in
the colony for living alone, interacting with boys and for wearing short clothes. Therefore, she could not
have a good relationship with people in her colony. She filed complaint against two boys who used to
take bath from the tap fitted on the rear side of her building in full nudity under Section 509 for insulting
her modesty. She claimed that the tap is clearly visible from her rear window and the boys have a
bathroom in their house. Will Maria succeed under Section 509 of IPC?
(a) Yes, because the act of bathing in full nudity which is visible to Maria amounts to insulting modesty of
a woman.
(b) No, because one has the right to choose to bath in open or in closed space.
(c) Yes, because she is often ridiculed by the people in the colony and insulted for her choices
amounting to insult to modesty of a woman.
(d) No, because it cannot be established that the two boys had intention to insult her modesty.
92. The Street Offences Act was enacted to prohibit solicitation in public space. Therefore, no one was
allowed to solicit in public spaces like roads, footpaths, etc. Ragini, Razia and Rachel were prostitutes.
They stood on the balconies and near the windows of the private premises near the road such that they
were easily seen by public and soliciting from there. They were charged under the Street Offences Act for
soliciting in public space. Would they be liable under the Street Offences Act?
(a) Yes, as per the Mischief Rule, the act of soliciting from windows and balconies comes under the
mischief of solicitation in public place, meant to be rectified by the Act.
(b) No, because the solicitation was technically done from the private premises which is not covered
under the objective of the Street Offences Act.
(c) Yes, because the prostitutes could be seen soliciting from road which is a public place and therefore
would amount to solicitation in public space.
(d) No, because the act of soliciting from windows and balconies does not come under the mischief of
solicitation in public place as per the Act.
93. Madhurima lives in a high class society with proper security. Therefore, she does not always lock the
door of her flat during daytime. Pankaj is Madhurima’s neighbour and both of them share good friendship.
On a Sunday afternoon, Madhurima was taking a nap without being fully dressed in her house. Pankaj
wanted to borrow a book from Madhurima and therefore knocked on her door. When she did not open,
he found the door to be unlocked. He entered the house to take the book without any hesitation because
both of them were good friends. While he was going through Madhurima’s bookshelf, he saw Mahurima
lying on her bed. He got tempted by seeing her and tried to touch her legs. Will Pankaj’s act amount to
insult to modesty of a woman under Section 509 of IPC?
(a) Yes, because he intruded upon the privacy of a woman when he entered Madhurima’s house without
permission.
(b) No, he entered Madhurima’s house without permission because of the friendship he shared with her.
(c) Yes, because he intentionally intruded upon Madhurima’s privacy by touching her legs when she was
asleep.
(d) No, because Madhurima was sleeping and therefore incapable of possessing modesty which could
be insulted by Pankaj’s touch.
94. Priyansh has invited job applications for the post of his private secretary. He received several
applications. He asked another employee to shortlist the applications as per the requirement of the post
and bring 10 applications to him. He also mentioned that all applicants should be female commenting that
“women are better at this job.” When he received the shortlisted applications, he went through them. He
shortlisted further five applications from the ten. Then, he checked the linkedin and other social media
profiles of all the five women and noted down the relevant information. Thereby, he invited all five of them
for the interview and questioned them about their qualifications and other things including the things they
have mentioned on their social media accounts. Madhuri, one of the applicants who was rejected and got
offended by Priyansh’s questions filed complaint of stalking against Priyansh. Will Madhuri succeed?
(a) Yes, because Priyansh has monitored her social media profile and noted down personal information
which amounts to stalking.

MOCK CLAT #08
(b) No, because Priyansh’s action of merely accessing their social media profiles does not amount to
monitoring of their use of internet.
(c) Yes, because Priyansh had specifically asked for all female applicants and also noted down their
information on social media.
(d) No, because Madhuri had only filed the complaint as she was upset for being rejected.
95. The Licensing Act makes it an offence to be ‘drunk while in charge on any highway…of any carriage,
horse, cattle, or steam engine’. The Act was passed to prevent danger to anyone on road and highway.
In this case Rose was riding her bicycle under the influence of alcohol. Can Rose be charged under the
Licensing Act?
(a) Yes, as per the mischief rule, a carriage would include a bicycle as Rose can cause danger to herself
and others while riding bicycle under influence of alcohol.
(b) No, the Act sought to prevent danger from riding heavy vehicles under influence of alcohol as they
are capable of causing danger to others on road.
(c) Yes, a bicycle is a carriage as per the dictionary meaning as it is capable of carrying people and
goods.
(d) No, because a bicycle would not cause the same danger as any other vehicle if being driven while
being drunk.
96. A boy of age 21 years found a baby lying in her cradle. He made obscene gestures by touching his penis
and made lewd comments at the baby. Can he be charged for insulting the modesty of the baby?
(a) Yes, because the gesture could be perceived as one which is capable of shocking the sense of
decency of a woman
(b) No, because an infant is not capable of possessing modesty.
(c) Yes, because the boy was an adult and capable of understanding the meaning of his actions.
(d) No, because an infant cannot perceive such gestures as insulting.
Passage (Q.97-Q.102): Many see the ending of the Supreme Court’s case of criminal contempt against
Mr Bhushan as a moral victory for him, for all he had to do was pay a fine of one rupee. Yet the Supreme
Court convicted Prashant Bhushan of criminal contempt of court, which includes scandalizing the
institution and its officers, thus lowering its dignity in the eyes of the people. This definition of criminal
contempt is usually linked to words or acts that are intended to obstruct the delivery of justice or the
administration of the judicial system. The court decides whether lowering its dignity is also affecting its
functioning.
There was widespread response on mainstream and social media, where his point of view received
publicity. This special focus would be lacking in the case of a citizen not so well-known. The court’s
conviction for criminal contempt stands; it has further said that the right to freedom of speech is not
absolute — it cannot be abused in order to scandalize a public institution and its officers who cannot
defend themselves. Anyone who is not a known figure convicted of criminal contempt would be unlikely
to receive the benefit of publicly expressed professional. Mr Bhushan’s case underlines the need for a
review of the law. Why is criticism of the court or of judges, even if baseless, a crime? Britain abolished
this law after 1930; the United States of America, Canada and Australia no longer apply it. Free public
expression of opinion can only strengthen an institution, the court is not so fragile as to wither away at
criticism. Not fear, but fairness, should be the foundation of an institution’s superiority.
97. Which of the following would be a strong argument opposing the author’s opinion?
(a) India being a democratic country, judiciary plays a very important role. Therefore, it is essential to
respect such an institution and its order.
(b) India’s judicial system is different from that of Britain, United States of America, Canada and Australia
and therefore the criminal contempt of court cannot be done away with.
(c) Free criticism of the court would instill fear in the mind of courts and affects its independence in
judicial decisions.
(d) Contempt of court is a reasonable restriction of freedom of speech and expression.

MOCK CLAT #08
98. Raksha and Darshika had a long-standing property dispute over a piece of land. Both claimed it to be
theirs. Their case had finally reached the High Court which was supposed to settle the matter on the next
date of the hearing. Darshika realized that Raksha’s counsel has come up with evidence and arguments
that could favour the case of Raksha. Therefore, Raksha wrote a letter to Raksha’s counsel telling him
that if he does not back out of the case and miss the next scheduled hearing before the court, his
daughter’s life would be in danger. Would Darshika’s actions amount to criminal contempt of court?
(a) Yes, because it amounts to obstruction of administration of justice.
(b) Yes, because it amounts to blackmailing.
(c) No, because it does not affect the court in any manner.
(d) No, because Darshika did not threaten the judges.
99. Several lawyers of the Supreme Court created a union and went on a strike in front of the court. The
strike was conducted to highlight and improve lawyers’ plight in current times. They argued that since
independence, lawyers’ condition in India has not improved. Their work is undervalued and the courts
have a major role in worsening lawyers’ conditions in India. These lawyers blocked the entrances of the
court and did not let other lawyers, judges and litigating parties to enter the court. Indian law allows lawful
strikes. Would such an action of the lawyers’ union amount to criminal contempt of court?
(a) Yes, since it amounts to interference in the administration of justice.
(b) Yes, since lawyers cannot strike in front of the court.
(c) No, since strikes are legal in India and lawyers have the right to strike.
(d) No, since a strike by few lawyers does not affect the overall functioning of the court.
100. A senior lawyer of the Supreme Court, Mr. Bhakti Bhoshan posted a tweet about the Chief Justice of
India. The tweet consisted of a photo of the Chief Justice of India riding a Harley Davidson bike amidst
the lockdown imposed due to the coronavirus pandemic. Along with the picture, Mr. Bhakti criticized the
Chief Justice of India for not wearing a mask and roaming around in the public during a situation of
lockdown when the entire country is struggling with the situation of lockdown. He emphasized how such
an action would create a bad example for the members of public. Would Mr. Bhakti Bhoshan’s tweet
amount to criminal contempt of court?
(a) Yes, since it lowers the dignity of the Chief Justice of India in the eyes of people.
(b) Yes, since it obstructs the delivery of justice by the court.
(c) No, since the Chief Justice was wrong in not wearing a mask and going out in public during a
lockdown.
(d) No, since it is a personal remark on the Chief Justice and does not scandalizes the court in any
manner.
101. Ms. Medha is the editor of “India Speak” magazine. In one of her article, she criticized the Supreme Court
for its inability to tolerate criticism. She also accused three Supreme Court judges of carrying out their
personal vendetta against some people while deciding the cases. The Supreme Court initiated suo moto
case against Ms. Medha for criminal contempt of court. Ms. Medha argued that Supreme Court is
impinging upon her fundamental right of speech and expression. Which of the following is correct
according to the passage?
(a) Ms. Medha cannot be held liable for criminal contempt of court because it is a fair criticism by a
newspaper editor.
(b) Ms. Medha can be held liable for criminal contempt of court because her freedom of speech and
expression is limited in cases where it scandalizes court or its officers.
(c) Ms. Medha cannot be held liable for criminal contempt of court because she has the fundamental
right of freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a).
(d) Ms. Medha can be held liable for criminal contempt of court as her article interferes with delivery of
justice by the Supreme Court and the three judges in particular.

MOCK CLAT #08
Passage (Q.102-Q.106): A curative petition is a way to ask the court to review and revise their own
decision even after a review petition is dismissed or used. In a recent judgement regarding the Nirbhaya
case, AP Singh, the lawyer of convict Vinay Sharma, has placed the argument that young age and the
socio-economic background should be considered as mitigating factors. But, the court has been very
cautious in the use of such a petition. The court clearly stated that such kind of petitions must be rare
instead of regular and to ensure it, the court in its guidelines to file the petition stated that to file such a
petition a gross violation of a principle of natural justicethe court needs to be proved by the contending
party, unlike other petitions. Also, to prove such violations, a senior advocate needs to certify and point
out substantial grounds for the petition to be entertained. The same would be reviewed by the three
senior-most judges of the court alongside the judges who passed the judgement, and if the majority feels
that there was a violation, the curative petition would be heard by the same bench. Adding to the
specialty, a curative petition is not governed by the provisions of the Limitations Act but the court made it
clear that itto be filed within a reasonable time.
102. Shyam was part of a land dispute regarding a certain piece of ancestral property. Disheartened by the
judgement of the High Court, he decided to file an appeal before the Supreme Court. The bench upheld
the order by the High Court. What remedy does Shyam have?
(a) Shyam should file a curative petition against the said order.
(b) Shyam has no remedy as the Apex court is the highest court of Appeal.
(c) Shyam has a remedy to file for a review petition of the said verdict.
(d) Shyam has no remedy as this is a personal matter without public interest.
103. Shyam and Sundar were senior advocates who had jointly filed a case of corruption against one of the
judges of the Supreme Court. However, the judge was the part of the bench when the hearing was held,
and they decided against the petition of Shyam and Sundar. If principle of natural justice requires
removal of bias, can they file a curative petition?
(a) Yes, as there is gross violation of principles of natural justice in this case.
(b) Yes, as they are also both senior advocates with a substantial question about the decision-making
process.
(c) No, as they must first file a review petition for the same and then claim a curative one.
(d) No, as the accused judge would have to be the part of the curative petition bench and it would defeat
the purpose.
104. Smriti want to file a PIL for the rights of children working in factories. But due to insufficient proof the High
Court rejected the plea. Later she filed a petition before the Supreme Court and they held verdict in favor
of Smriti. The bench consisted of 5 judges from the Supreme Court roster. Decide.
(a) If the state wants to argue the matter further, they would have to file an appeal to a seven judge
bench.
(b) If the state wants to file for appeal they would have to review it by the same bench first.
(c) If the state would have to file for appeal, then they would have to file a curative petition with the bench
of 8 judges.
(d) If the state wants to pursue the matter further, they would have to file a review before the high court
bench first then appeal to the Supreme Court.
105. Ramesh filed a case before the Supreme Court and it was rejected by a single judge bench. He filed for a
review before the three-judge bench which also rejected his plea. He filed for a curative petition before
the court. Decide the quorum.
(a) The quorum would consist of the single judge, the three judges from the review bench and 3 of the
senior most judges.
(b) The quorum would be three judges from the review bench and three senior most judges.
(c) The quorum would be 3 senior most judges and 3 other judges as was the bench in review petition.
(d) The quorum would be 3 senior most judges, the review petition bench, the single judge bench and a
senior advocate.

MOCK CLAT #08
106. Raghav has finished his graduation in law from a prestigious college in the country. He wants to file a
petition for the unconstitutionality of a law which curbs the freedom of speech and expression before the
Apex Court. Can he do so without a senior advocate’s substantial arguments before a court?
(a) No, as a case before the Supreme Court requires substantial argument from a senior advocate.
(b) Yes, if he proves gross violation of principles of natural justice.
(c) Yes, if he can prove social and economic backwardness as a mitigating consideration to his petition.
(d) Yes, as this is merely a petition, anybody can raise such a case.

MOCK CLAT #08
Passage (Q.107-Q.112): In describing the underlying principles of the course of study known as
historical sociology – the examination of history using methods of sociology – historical sociologist
Kristalina Georgieva argues that, while people are made by society as much as society is made by
people, sociologists’ approach to the subject is usually to focus on only one of these forms of influence to
the exclusion of the other. Kristalina insists on the necessity for sociologists to move beyond these one-
sided approaches to understand society as an entity constructed by individuals who are at the same time
constructed by their society. Kristalina refers to this continuous process as “structuring”.
Kristalina also sees history as the result of structuring. People, both individually and as members of
collectives, make history. But our making of history is itself formed and informed not only by the historical
conditions we inherit from the past, but also by the prior formation of our own identities and capacities,
which are shaped by what Kristalina calls “contingencies”—social phenomena over which we have
varying degrees of control. Contingencies include such things as the social conditions under which we
come of age, the condition of our household’s economy, the ideologies available to help us make sense
of our situation, and accidental circumstances. The ways in which contingencies affect our individual or
group identities create a structure of forces within which we are able to act, and that partially determines
the sorts of actions we are able to perform.
In Kristalina analysis, historical structuring, like social structuring, is manifold and unremitting. To
understand it, historical sociologists must extract from it certain significant episodes, or events, that their
methodology can then analyze and interpret. According to Kristalina, these events are points at which
action and contingency meet, points that represent a cross section of the specific social and individual
forces in play at a given time. At such moments, individuals stand forth as agents of history not simply
because they possess a unique ability to act, but also because in them we see the force of the specific
social conditions that allowed their actions to come forth. Individuals can “make their mark” on history, yet
in individuals one also finds the convergence of wider social forces. In order to capture the various facets
of this mutual interaction, Kristalina recommends a fourfold structure to which she believes the
investigations of historical sociologists should conform: first, description of the event itself; second,
discussion of the social context that helped bring the event about and gave it significance; third, summary
of the life history of the individual agent in the event; and fourth, analysis of the consequences of the
event both for history and for the individual.
107. Which one of the following most accurately states the central idea of the passage?
(a) Kristalina argues that historical sociology rejects the claims of sociologists who assert that the
sociological concept of structuring cannot be applied to the interactions between individuals and
history.
(b) Kristalina argues that historical sociology assumes that, despite the views of sociologists to the
contrary, history influences the social contingencies that affect individuals.
(c) Kristalina argues that historical sociology demonstrates that, despite the views of sociologists to the
contrary, social structures both influence and are influenced by the events of history.
(d) Kristalina describes historical sociology as a discipline that unites two approaches taken by
sociologists to studying the formation of societies and applies the resulting combined approach to the
study of history.
108. Given the passage’s argument, which one of the following sentences most logically completes the last
paragraph?
(a) Only if they adhere to this structure, Kristalina believes, can historical sociologists conclude with any
certainty that the events that constitute the historical record are influenced by the actions of
individuals
(b) Only if they adhere to this structure, Kristalina believes, will historical sociologists be able to counter
the standard sociological assumption that there is very little connection between history and individual
agency.

MOCK CLAT #08
(c) Unless they can agree to adhere to this structure, Kristalina believes, historical sociologists risk
having their discipline treated as little more than an interesting but ultimately indefensible adjunct to
history and sociology.
(d) By adhering to this structure, Kristalina believes, historical sociologists will be able to better portray
the complex connections between human agency and history.
109. The passage states that a contingency could be each of the following EXCEPT:
(a) a social phenomenon
(b) a form of historical structuring
(c) an accidental circumstance
(d) a condition controllable to some extent by an individual
110. Which one of the following is most analogous to the ideal work of a historical sociologist as outlined by
Kristalina?
(a) In a report on the enactment of a bill into law, a journalist explains why the need for the bill arose,
sketches the biography of the principal legislator who wrote the bill, and ponders the effect that the
bill’s enactment will have both one society and on the legislator’s career.
(b) In a consultation with a patient, a doctor reviews the patient’s medical history, suggests possible
reasons for the patient’s current condition, and recommends steps that the patient should take in the
future to ensure that the condition improves or at least does not get any worse.
(c) In an analysis of a historical novel, a critic provides information to support the claim that details of the
work’s setting are accurate, explains why the subject of the novel was of particular interest to the
author, and compares the novel with some of the author’s other books set in the same period.
(d) In a presentation to stockholders, a corporation’s chief executive officer describes the corporations’
most profitable activities during the past year, introduces the vice president largely responsible for
those activities, and discusses new projects the vice president will initiate in the coming year.
111. The primary function of the first paragraph of the passage is to

(a) outline the merits of Kristalina’s conception of historical sociology
(b) convey the details of Kristalina’s conception of historical sociology
(c) anticipate challenges to Kristalina’s conception of historical sociology
(d) identify the basis of Kristalina’s conception of historical sociology
.
112. Based on the passage, which one of the following is the LEAST illustrative example of the effect of a
contingency upon an individual?
(a) the effect of the fact that a person experienced political injustice on that person’s decision to work for
political reform
(b) the effect of the fact that a person was raised in an agricultural region on that person’s decision to
pursue a career in agriculture
(c) the effect of the fact that a person lives in a particular community on that person’s decision to visit
friends in another community
(d) the effect of the fact that a person’s parents practiced a particular religion on that person’s decision to
practice that religion
Passage (Q.113–Q.116): But, such a view of life, we are told, is intolerable and would destroy the
instinctive energy by which men persist. The way of escape that they have found is through religion and
philosophy. However alien and indifferent the outer world may seem, we are assured by our comforters
that there is harmony beneath the apparent conflict. All the long development from the original nebula is
supposed to lead up to man as the culmination of the process. Hamlet is a very well-known play, yet few
readers would have any recollection of the part of the “First Sailor,” which consists of the four words:
“God bless you, sir.” But suppose a society of men whose sole business in life was to act this part;
suppose them isolated from contact with the Hamlets, Horatios, and even Guildensterns: would they not
invent systems of literary criticism according to which the four words of the “First Sailor” were the kernel
of the whole drama? Would they not punish with ignominy or exile any one of their number who should
suggest that other parts were possibly of equal importance? And the life of mankind takes up a much

MOCK CLAT #08
smaller proportion of the universe than the “first sailor’s” speech does of Hamlet, but we cannot listen
behind the scenes to the rest of the play, and we know very little of its characters or plot.
In the days before Copernicus there was no need of philosophic subtlety to maintain the anthropocentric
view of the world. The heavens visibly revolved about earth, and on the earth man had dominion over the
beasts of the field. But when the earth lost its central position, man, too, was deposed from his eminence,
and it became necessary to invent a metaphysic to correct the “crudities” of science.
Apart from all utilitarian arguments, the search for a happiness based upon untrue beliefs is neither very
noble nor very glorious. There is a stark joy in the unflinching perception of our true place in the world,
and a more vivid drama than any that is possible to those who hide behind the enclosing walls of myth.
There are “perilous seas” in the world of thought, which can only be sailed by those who are willing to
face their own physical powerlessness. And above all, there is liberation from the tyranny of Fear, which
blots out the light of day and keeps men groveling and cruel. No man is liberated from fear who dare not
see his place in the world as it is; no man can achieve the greatness of which he is capable until he has
allowed himself to see his own littleness.
(Source: https://users.drew.edu/~jlenz/br-dreams.html )
113. ‘But, such a view of life’ as used in the passage implies

(a) a view that would destroy the energies of men
(b) a view that supports living a life involved in religion and deep philosophy
(c) an anthropocentric view as held during the times of Copernicus and like that described in Hamlet.
(d) a view that awakens mankind to the fact that life in reality is not harmonious, but is fraught with
conflict at the fundamental level.
114. To truly see his place in the world, man must

(a) stop fearing nature and accept it as an ally in mankind’s existence.
(b) search for happiness that comes from myths instead of untrue beliefs.
(c) see his place in the world as it is and realize his own littleness, thereby achieving greatness.
(d) both, (b) and (c)
115. The author believes that

(a) philosophical subtlety was an essential theory in the days before Copernicus.
(b) religion and philosophy were concepts developed in order to restore the lost position of mankind as
the logical culmination of all cosmic developments.
(c) the world of matter is the only real appearance.
(d) The heavens revolve about earth, and on the earth man has dominion over the beasts of the field.
116. Bertrand Russell, the author of this passage, speaks of Hamlet to bring out
(a) the role of the First Sailor in the play since he is usually a lesser known character.
(b) the presence of a society of men whose sole business in life was to punish those who opposed
themselves and/ or those who spoke against the importance of First Sailor.
(c) the reality of man’s smallness in the vast scheme of the universe.
(d) the fact that the comfort and happiness in life lies in the struggle of man with each other.
Passage (Q117- Q120): Here is the first line of a long mantra: naipaulamishzadieanitakureishi. But this
interminable mantra, as a whole, is nothing but mumbo-jumbo mumbled by a West that wants to be
radical without feeling seriously inconvenienced.
The West has increasingly turned its gaze onto itself in recent years. There it stands in front of gilded
mirrors, gazing at itself in admiration. What it sees is no longer the whiteness it saw in the far past. What
it sees now is multi-hued, variously dressed, many voiced. For, the Western self, particularly in literary
and cultural circles, has long accepted the fact of being creolized. When the West gazes into its mirrors, it
sees its own new post-war multicultural self. It sees Amish Tripathi, V.S. Naipaul, Anita Desai, Zadie
Smith. And it likes to pretend that it is seeing the Other.

MOCK CLAT #08
I am not accusing Amish and Naipaul of bland mimicry or of consciously catering to Western opinions.
These, and many others like them, are excellent writers, and people of much independence of thought
and posture. And yet, they belong to a tradition that is less uncomfortable for the cultured Western reader
and critic to face up to. If they present difference, they present just a different aspect of the West.
Choice of language, of course, is one hammer used to strike at such authors. I refuse to take up that
hammer. What if they write in English or French? Only dishonest critics would use that forced/free choice
to dismiss work of a writer. I repeat my observation: they are a reflection of the new post-war multi-
cultural West. They are the mirror images that make the liberal West feel comfortable with itself, because
it feels that in gazing on them (and their works) it is reading and championing the Other.
The choice of language should not be criticized, but surely it has to be noted. An Indian who writes in
English does not abandon India per se, but she does occupy a position of authorship that is significantly
different from an Indian who writes in Hindi or Tamil.
There are other ‘global’ literatures, but they are not visible today. But gilded mirrors are not likely to reflect
them. Just as there are other Asian, African, post-colonial writers, but they are hardly visible today. After
a short period in which at least some Western critics and writers were genuinely interested in difference,
in other cultures – a period that enabled the publication of novels like Achebe’s Things Fall Apart – the
West is back to gazing at gilded mirrors. And by chanting the mantra of ‘global’ literature or
multiculturalism, the West conveniently forgets that the reflections it sees in those mirrors are, after all, its
own.
117. What is implied by the sentence, ‘What it sees is no longer the whiteness it saw in the far past’?
(a) The West sees itself as the champion of freedom of expression and egalitarianism.
(c) The West feels that it has embraced cultural values from the world over, and holds this as a sign of its
own superiority.
(c) The West now sees itself as the melting pot of artistic genius coming from a multitude of cultures.
(d) The West feels that it has failed to retain the cultural and nationalistic ideas of the pre-War times.
118. What is the author’s stance on writers like Amish and Naipaul as regards their importance to the West?
(a) The author opines that these writers are over-hyped and merely imitate the lifestyle of the West.
(b) The author acknowledges that these writers are praiseworthy but points to their preference of
Western shores to their own homelands.
(c) The author acknowledges that these writers possess skill and creativity but believes they are mere
poster-boys for a self-obsessed West.
(d) The author acknowledges the literary worth of these writers but points out that they fit in well with the
self-image of the West.
119. Which of these is a major criticism that the author levels against the “global” literature of the West?
(a) The West ignores home grown literary talent, while choosing to place foreign writers on a pedestal
before the world.
(b) The mindset of the West is fixed and inflexible, and it rigidly differentiates between greatness and
mediocrity using its own definitions.
(c) The West’s pride in and display of its own ‘multiculturalism’ is a cloak that hides its self-absorbed and
exclusivist mentality, especially regarding literature.
(d) The West excludes writers with genuine creativity in order to promote and establish its own mediocre
standards of literature.
120. If the West were to be personified, which of these qualities/attitudes could be most ascribed to it in the
context of the passage?
(a) Hedonism
(b) Egocentrism
(c) Indulgence
(d) All of these

MOCK CLAT #08
121. Passage: Mordo: Dr. Stephen Strange, a neurosurgeon, has convincingly demonstrated that his theory
about the determinants of guinea pig behavior generates consistently accurate predictions about how
guinea pigs will perform in a maze. On the basis of this evidence, Dr. Strange has claimed that his theory
is undeniably correct.
Dormammu: Then Dr. Strange is not a responsible neurosurgeon. Dr. Strange’s evidence does not
conclusively prove that his theory is correct. Responsible neurosurgeons always accept the possibility
that new evidence will show that their theories are incorrect.
Which one of the following can be properly inferred from Dormammu’s argument?
(a) Dr. Strange’s evidence that his theory generates consistently accurate predictions about how guinea
piges will perform in a maze is inaccurate.
(b) Neurosurgeons who can derive consistently accurate predictions about how guinea pigs will perform
in a maze from their theories cannot responsibly conclude that those theories cannot be disproved.
(c) No matter how responsible neurosurgeons are, they can never develop correct theoretical
explanations.
(d) Neurosurgeons who accept the possibility that new evidence will show that their theories are incorrect
are responsible neurosurgeons.
122. Passage: The greater the number of people in a team, the greater is the need for coordination. This is
because a larger number of people leads to increased number of opinions, which results in a greater
burden on team leaders and, potentially, in a greater number of disagreements between the team
members. There are always more teams working on short-term projects than on long term projects.
If all of the statements given are true, then which of the following must also be true?
(a) Disagreements are more frequent in goal oriented projects than in long term projects.
(b) There are more ideas that surface up in a long term project than in a short term project.
(c) The need for coordination in short term projects is greater than in long term projects.
(d) A team leader's task is easier in a short term project than in a long-term project.
123. Passage: There is a theory of emotions, which came from Aristotle but was elaborated and made famous
by Freud. It is catharsis – certain events initiate a psychological purging process, through which fear and
anxiety and sadness are released, and we feel better, calmer and purified afterward. We suffer through
the aversive experiences, then, because of the positive payoff at the end – for the release. Perhaps this
happens sometimes – there are people who claim to feel better after a good cry – but catharsis is a poor
theory of the emotions, one that has no scientific support. It is just not true that emotional experiences
have a purging effect. To take a much-studied case, watching a violent movie doesn’t put one in a
relaxed and pacifistic state of mind – it arouses the viewer. People don’t leave horror movies feeling
mellow and safe; they don’t walk out of tragedies feeling happy. The typical result of feeling bad is feeling
worse, not feeling better. The pleasure of horror and tragedy, for example, can’t be explained as some
sort of blissful afterglow.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s case against catharsis as a theory of
emotions?
(a) Studies have shown that people who regularly watch horror movies are less likely to be nervous or
easily spooked.
(b) One’s emotions are not as engaged while watching fiction, like violent or tragic movies, as they are
while seeing violence or tragedy in real life.
(c) In the immediate aftermath of watching a violent movie, one may feel worse, but in the long term, the
experience makes one more peaceable.
(d) The cathartic effect of watching horror or tragedy does not necessarily involve experiencing the exact
opposite emotion, but rather experiencing some positive emotion.

MOCK CLAT #08
Passage (Q124 –Q128): Through considering hoarding, I will show how the question of which conditions
should be included in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual(DSM) of Mental Disorders depends not only
on empirical facts, but also on conceptual and ethical questions.
Still, although rubbish may be relative, and although hoarding has not always been possible, shouldn’t we
admit that those who fill their houses from floor to ceiling with precarious piles of newspapers and boxes
have a mental health problem? I accept that the relationship between hoarder and possessions is
unusual, and also think that it is unwise to fill one’s house with junk, but I am still not entirely convinced
that hoarding is best thought of as a mental disorder. Remember, first, that there are many habits and
behaviours that are unwise but that we do not pathologize. For example, many of us reduce our life
expectancy by years because we fail to exercise or to eat healthily. Others fail to back-up computer files,
or to save adequately for old age. Maybe hoarding differs from such examples of folly in that hoarding is
more unusual, but rarity in itself cannot transform a pattern of behaviour from a bad habit into a disorder.
Those who consider hoarding a disorder will likely point out that hoarding disorder is associated with
distinctive patterns of brain activity, and can be further distinguished from ‘normal behaviour’ by its
natural history, treatment response, and the way in which it seems to run in families.
Whether hoarding should be considered a disorder must depend also on whether we consider it to be the
sort of problem that is appropriately dealt with by medical means, and here we should pause.
Source: https://blogs.lse.ac.uk/theforum/what-does-hoarding-tell-us-about-mental-health/
124. Which of the following weakens the premise of hoarding?

(a) it is similar to coin collection.
(b) it is not an occurrence which can be clearly reported.
(c) it is impossible to hoard due to paucity of space these days.
(d) what one may look at as amassing of unimportant or valueless material is a relative perception.
125. Why does the author feels that it is difficult to state unquestionably that hoarding is a mental disorder?
(a) it is not mandatory that we pathologize every other unwise activity.
(b) we do not consider chewing tobacco as a pathological disorder.
(c) if not exercising can be considered natural then hoarding too can be
(d) It is not genetic in nature as other mental health issues.
126. Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?
(a) Weird activities are surely not mental disorders
(b) saving adequately for the future is a form of madness.
(c) Neither A nor B
(d) both A and B
127. Which of the following has a similar pattern of reasoning as used by the author?
(a) Novelty does not mean that the advent of something is sudden.
(b) how a person eats and stores food cannot determine his wellbeing.
(c) moonwalk (a dance style popularized by Michael Jackson) was rare in 1980s but still it was not
considered a new art form.
(d) Doctors are unsure if Orthopoxvirus (a rare virus) causes monkeypox (a rare disease)
128. Which of the following can determine mental health disorders?

(a) having more than one perception of reality.
(b) unique cerebral functioning
(c) a strong history of family illness.
(d) differentiating characteristics from normal people

MOCK CLAT #08
Passage (Q.129-Q.133): When Mithali Raj’s team had lost the final to England in 2017, watching the
women’s game was still a kind of novelty. Fans watched only when they had a little spare time however,
March 8 was appointment viewing.
While it does feel disappointing that the campaign did not end up in triumph, it has to be said that the final
appearance will surely contribute to narrowing down the pay gap between the men and women’s teams.
No more was the tournament treated as a compulsion by broadcasters across the world. Rather, with the
best in the business on the mike in Australia and elsewhere it was every bit built up as the spectacle that
it deserved to be.
For the women’s game the process started in 2017. When Harmanpreet smashed her career best 171
not out against Australia in the semi-final in England the world watched in awe. We, in India, were
reminded of the talent and ability of the girls and the way the team was feted round the country on their
return was an indication of things to come. March 8, 2020, and the process is almost complete. Almost
because India is still to be world champion. And it is something the team should aspire to in 2021 when
Mithali and Jhulan Goswami play the last time for India.
In every other way the game has arrived. Going forward it is only a matter of time for the women’s IPL to
become a full-fledged reality, our girls already have a calendar and Sourav Ganguly and his team will feel
the need to relook at the central contracts knowing they have the force of public opinion behind them.
The battle may have been lost at the MCG but the war has been won. The game now has respectability
and economic viability and it can only get better from here on. With the emergence of stars like Verma,
young girls now know what to do. And in doing so none of them will have to dress like boys anymore to
play.
Source: Times of India – editorial March 10, 2020: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/blogs/toi-edit-
page/the-battle-may-have-been-lost-at-mcg-but-the-war-has-been-won-womens-cricket-is-now-a-mass-
commercial-spectacle/
129. Why does the author say that ‘none of them will have to dress like boys anymore to play’?
(a) because the national uniform for women’s cricket has undergone a revolution.
(b) because the game of cricket that is looked upon with respect and reverence is lost.
(c) because the attitude of India towards the game of cricket has changed.
(d) because what a person wears cannot decide the outstanding abilities of a person.
130. What is the main idea of the argument?

(a) The women’s cricket has arrived as a mass commercial display.
(b) The entire country is applauding Team India.
(c) The women’s cricket team of India should not look back, but move ahead to create history.
(d) The battle may have been lost at the MCG but the war has been won
131. Which of the following is not an example of what the author says applies to March 8, 2020?
(a) ‘the girls in blue’ are the talk of the town.
(b) thousands of unsold tickets were readily available on the eve of the finale, between Indian and
Australian women cricket.
(c) biopics on the lives of the women cricketers are in the making.
(d) some women cricketers have been endorsed as the faces of the respective brands.
132. The statement that ‘the tournament was treated as a compulsion by broadcasters across the world’
plays which one of the following roles?
(a) Forms the premise of the argument that broadcasters refused to broadcast cricket shows on
television.
(b) Forms a premise for argument that broadcasters rarely follow their own instincts.
(c) Offers a clarification on the status quo of Indian women’s cricket
(d) Forms the conclusion that broadcasters consider their role responsibly.

MOCK CLAT #08
133. In the light of the passage, which of the following is true?

(a) Women have come a long way, but still have miles to reach their goal.
(b) It is the agility and valour of the Indian women cricket team that have given them their recognition.
(c) The long-due process of equality has already gathered momentum.
(d) It is high time that men change their perceptions about women of India.
Directions (Q134): In the question below, some statements are given followed by some conclusions.
You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts. You have to decide which of the following conclusions logically follows from the given statements.
Give answer.
134. Statements:
No A is C.
All B is C.
No B is D.
Conclusions:
I. Some C is definitely not D.
II. All B is not A.
(a) Neither I nor II follow.

(b) I and II follow.
(c) Only I follow.
(d) Either I or II follow.
Directions (Q135): In each of these questions two Conclusions have been given followed by four sets of
possible statements. You have to take the given Conclusions to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with the commonly known facts and then decide that the Conclusions logically follows for which
of the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
135. Conclusions:
I. All A can never be B
II. Any A which is a D is also C.
Statements:
(a) Some A is B. All B is C. Some C is D
(b) Some A are D. All A are C. No B is D
(c) No A is C. All C are B. Some C is D
(d) All A are C. Some C are D. No D is B
136. A family consists of six members P, Q, R, X, Y and Z. Q is the son of R but R is not mother of Q. P and R
are a married couple. Y is the brother of R. X is the daughter of P. Z is the brother of P. Which is a pair of
brothers?
(a) P and X (b) P and Z (c) Q and X (d) R and Y

MOCK CLAT #08
SECTION - E: QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.137 - Q.150): Refer to the line graph below and answer the questions that follow
Directions (Q137-Q141): Study the following line graph and pie chart carefully and answer the
questions.
The following line graph shows the number of male and female employees in the five different
Companies.
The following pie chart shows the percentage of employees in different age groups of each company.
137. How many employees of company P belongs to the age group of 31-40?
(a) 300 (b) 320 (c) 360 (d) 400
138. Which one of the following disciplines has the lowest ratio of male to female employees?
(a) S (b) R (c) Q (d) P
139. If the number of male employees of Company R in the age group of 41-50 is equal to 20% of all the
employees of Company R in the same age group, then what is the number of female employees of
Company R in the age group of 41-50?
(a) 146 (b) 156 (c) 166 (d) 176
140. The number of female employees of company T is what percentage of the all the employees in company
T?
(a) 41% (b) 43% (c) 45% (d) 47%
141. What is the total number employees in all the companies together?
(a) 6450 (b) 6550 (c) 6650 (d) 6750

MOCK CLAT #08
Direction (Q.142-146): Study the following pie-chart and table carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Some values are missing. Answer the questions on the basis of given table and information in question.
Person Speed Time

Suhail 60 km/h 300 min.
Sunil - -
Saurabh - 4 Hour
Sanjay - -
Sumit 50 km/h -
142. If the time taken by Sunil is 3 hours more than that of Suhail to cover the given distance and the ratio of
the distance between Sunil and Sanjay is 7:4, find the Sunil Speed.
(a) 55 km/h (b) 62 km/h (c) 87.5 km/h (d) 72.5 km/h
143. With the help of question 6, Find the average speed of Sunil and Suhail.
(a) 73.75 km/h (b) 62 km/h (c) 50 km/h (d) 76.92 km/h
144. Sumit is going to Delhi with a speed of x km/h. Delhi is 384 km far from his house. If the time is taken by
him as same as to travel 324 km with the speed of 15m/s. Find the value of x.
(a) 50 km/h (b) 64 km/h (c) 75 km/h (d) 80 km/h
145. If the difference between the speed of Saurabh and Sanjay is 55 km/h and time taken by both is 14 hours
to cover the given distance. What will be time taken by Sanjay to cover the distance of 250 km.
(a) 6.25 hour (b) 5 hour (c) 5.25 hour (d) 7.5 hour
146. Find the ratio of the speed between Saurabh and Sumit.
(a) 11:8 (b) 10:19 (c) 15:7 (d) 19:10

MOCK CLAT #08
Directions: (Q.147-Q.150): In city X, students prepare for CLAT is 250. In Y ratio of student Prepare for CLAT
and AILET is 3:2. Average student prepare for CLAT and AILET in Z is 230. In Z, students prepare for CLAT is
10 less than AILET in Y. Where at Y, CLAT student is 50 more than AILET student at Z. Average of total
student in X is 235.
147. What is the ratio of total student from X and Y?

(a) 43:21 (b) 43:87 (c) 47:52 (d) 47:32
148. In which city total student (CLAT + AILET) is maximum?

(a) Y (b) X & Y (c) X (d) Z
149. What is difference between total CLAT student from X and Y together and total AILET student from Z and
Y?
(a) 99 (b) 97 (c) 95 (d) 92
150. In CITY W, only CLAT student is their and its 20% more than total student of X. What is total student at
W?
(a) 567 (b) 564 (c) 578 (d) 456

MOCK CLAT #08
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #08
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #09

Candidate Name : _________________
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with
a BALL PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and
in the spaces provided for.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal
prosecution.
12. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, pagers or calculators are strictly not permitted inside the Test
Centre/Hall.
MOCK CLAT #09
(Passage Q.1-Q.5): Complementarity between computers and humans isn't just a macro-scale fact. It's
also the path to building a great business. I came to understand this from my experience at Pay Pal. In
mid-2000, we had survived the dot-com crash and we were growing fast, but we faced a huge problem: we
were losing upwards of $10 million to credit card fraud every month. Since we were processing hundreds
or even though sands of transactions per minute, we couldn't possibly review each one-no human quality
control team could work that fast.
So we did what any group of engineers would do: we tried to automate a solution. First, Max Levchin
assembled an elite team of mathematicians to study the fraudulent transfers in detail. Then we took what
we learned and wrote software to automatically identify and cancel bogus transactions in real time. But it
quickly became clear that this approach wouldn't work either: after an hour or two, the thieves would catch
on and change their tactics. We were dealing with an adaptive enemy, and our software couldn't adapt in
response.
The fraudsters' adaptive evasions fooled our automatic detection algorithms, but we found that they didn't
fool our human analysts as easily. So Max and his engineers rewrote the software to take a hybrid
approach: the computer would flag the most suspicious transactions on a well-designed user interface, and
human operators would make the final judgment as to their legitimacy. Thanks to this hybrid system-We
named it "Igor" after the Russian fraudster who bragged that we'd never be able to stop him—we turned
our first quarterly profit in the first quarter of 2002 (as opposed to a quarterly loss of $29.3 million one year
before). The FBI asked us if we'd let them use Igor to help detect financial crime. And Max was able to
boast, grandiosely but truthfully, that he was "the Sherlock Holmes of the Internet Underground."
This kind of man-machine symbiosis enabled PayPal to stay in business, which in turn enabled hundreds
of thousands of small businesses to accept the payments they needed to thrive on the internet. None of it
would have been possible without the man-machine solution-even though most people would never see it
or even hear about it.
(a) Combination of humans and computers can lead to doomed business
(b) Combination of humans and computers can build great business
(c) Humans and computers are not compatible in business environment
(d) Humans and computers combinations are a must for any business in this century.

(a) Authors business got a huge blow in the dot com crash.
(b) Author works at or for Pay-pal.
(c) Author along with other engineers was building an algorithm to identify fraudulent transactions.
(d) The FBI asked the author and his company to share their software to detect financial crimes .
3. How did they finally managed to defeat the fraudsters?

(a) They used the mathematical algorithm to build a software which detected and declined to accept the
bogus transactions.
(b) They hired a outsider firm to manage every single transaction humanly to eliminate the bogus
transaction.
(c) They used to human and machine combination where computers flagged the suspicion and then
humans made final call to permit or reject transaction.
(d) They used the hybrid where humans flagged the suspicious transactions and then the computers finally
decided to accept or reject the transaction.

MOCK CLAT #09
4. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the term ‘Bogus’

(a) Real (b) Illusion (c) Simple (d) Hard
5. The above passage has an underlined phrase, “the Sherlock Holmes of the Internet Underground”. Which
of the following figures of speech is used in the sentence?
(a) Alliteration (b) Anaphora (c) Hyperbole (d) Simile
(Passage Q.6-Q.10): For people to be fully committed, they should be properly compensated. Whenever
an entrepreneur asks me to invest in his company, I ask him how much he intends to pay himself. A
company does better the less it pays the CEO-that's one of the single clearest patterns I've noticed from
investing in hundreds of start-ups. In no case should a CEO of an early-stage venture-backed startup
receive more than $150,000 per year in salary. It doesn't matter if he got used to making much more than
that at Google or if he has a large mortgage and hefty private school tuition bills. If a CEO collects $300,000
per year, he risks becoming more like a politician than a founder. High pay incentivizes him to defend the
status quo along with his salary, not to work with everyone else to surface problems and fix them
aggressively. A cash-poor executive, by contrast, will focus on increasing the value of the company as a
whole.
Low CEO pay also sets the standard for everyone else. Aaron Levie, the CEO of Box, was always careful
to pay himself less than everyone else in the company-four years after he started Box, he was still living
two blocks away from HQ in a one-bedroom apartment with no furniture except a mattress. Every employee
noticed his obvious commitment to the company's mission and emulated it. If a CEO doesn't set an example
by taking the lowest salary in the company, he can do the same thing by drawing the highest salary. So
long as that figure is still modest, it sets an effective ceiling on cash compensation.
Cash is attractive. It offers pure optionality: once you get your pay check, you can do anything you want
with it. However, high cash compensation teaches workers to claim value from the company as it already
exists instead of investing their time to create new value in the future. A cash bonus is slightly better than
a cash salary at least it's contingent on a job well done. But even so-called incentive pay encourages short-
term thinking and value grabbing. Any kind of cash is more about the present than the future.
6. Which one of the following is one of the reasons given in the passage for which a CEO of an early stage
startup might want more than $150,000 per year in salary?
(a) To repay hefty private school tuition fee
(b) To maintain his lifestyle as he was paid more than that before becoming CEO
(c) He has large mortgage to pay
7. Why did the author says that if a CEO of early state startup gets more than $300,000 then he risks
becoming more like a politician than a founder?
(a) High pay leads to comfortable life which is bad
(b) High is the motivation for work so the author is wrong
(c) High pay restricts the him to work on surface problems and incentivises status quo.
8. Why is a cash bonus slightly better than cash salary?

(a) Because case salary makes person lazy unlike cash bonus
(b) Because people get happy at getting cash bonus but cash salary does not make people happy.
(c) Because cash bonus is dependent on the good work unlike cash salary.
9. The word ‘aggressively’ is used in bold in the above passage. Choose the correct part of speech.
(a) Adverb (b) Adjective (c) Verb (d) Pronoun

MOCK CLAT #09
10. Which of the following words from the passage means to imitate?
(a) Contingent (b) Emulate (c) Status Quo (d) Modest
(Passage Q.11-Q.15): Professors downplay the cutthroat culture of academia, but managers never tire of
comparing business to war. MBA students carry around copies of Clausewitz and Sun Tzu. War metaphors
invade our everyday business language: we use head-hunters to build up a sales force that will enable us
to take a captive market and make a killing. But really it's competition, not business, that is like war:
allegedly necessary, supposedly valiant, but ultimately destructive.
Why do people compete with each other? Marx and Shakespeare provide two models for understanding
almost every kind of conflict.
According to Marx, people fight because they are different. The proletariat fights the bourgeoisie because
they have completely different ideas and goals (generated, for Marx, by their very different material
circumstances). The greater the differences, the greater the conflict.
To Shakespeare, by contrast, all combatants look more or less alike. It's not at all clear why they should
be fighting, since they have nothing to fight about. Consider the opening line from Romeo and Juliet: "Two
households, both alike in dignity." The two houses are alike, yet they hate each other. They grow even
more similar as the feud escalates. Eventually, they lose sight of why they started fighting in the first place.
In the world of business, at least, Shakespeare proves the superior guide. Inside a firm, people become
obsessed with their competitors for career advancement. Then the firm themselves become obsessed with
their competitors in the marketplace. Amid all the human drama, people lose sight of what matters and
focus on their rivals instead. Let's test the Shakespearean model in the real world. Imagine a production
called Gates and Schmidt, based on Romeo and Juliet. Montague is Microsoft. Capulet is Google. Two
great families, run by alpha nerds, sure to clash on account of their sameness. As with all good tragedy,
the conflict seems inevitable only in retrospect. In fact was entirely avoidable. These families came from
very different places. The House of Montague built operating systems and office applications. The House
of Caplet wrote a search engine. What was there to fight about?
Lots, apparently. As a startup, each clan had been content to leave the other alone and prosper
independently. But as they grew, they began to focus on each other. Montagues obsessed about Capulets
obsessed about Montagues. The result? Windows vs. Chrome OS, Bing vs. Google Search, Explorer vs.
Chrome, Office vs. Docs, and Surface vs. Nexus.
Just as war cost the Montagues and Capulets their children, it cost Microsoft and Google their dominance:
Apple came along and overtook them all. In January 2013, Apple's market capitalization was $500 billion,
while Google and Microsoft combined were worth $467 billion.
11. Why does the author think that Shakespeare is the superior guide?
(a) Because according to author in real life people do not focus on themselves but on their rivals.
(b) Because according to author in real life people focus on themselves and not on their rivals
(c) Because according to author people fight because they are different
(d) Because according to the author the actual fight is the fight of class struggle
12. Which of the following is the theory supported by Marx

(a) the actual fight is the fight of class struggle
(b) in real life people focus on themselves and not on their rivals
(c) in real life people do not focus on themselves but on their rivals.
(d) people fight because they are different

MOCK CLAT #09
13. Which of the following words from the passage is similar in meaning to ‘looking back’
(a) Valiant (b) Retrospect (c) Captive (d) Inevitable
14. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the above passage?
(a) MBA students carry copies of war books
(b) Business is war
(c) Winner of feud between Microsoft and Google is Apple
(d) Shakespeare and Marx explain two theories of conflict
15. The word ‘came’ is used in bold in the above passage. Choose the correct part of speech.
(a) Adverb
(b) Adjective
(c) Verb
(d) Pronoun
(Passage Q.16-Q.20): ESCAPING COMPETITION will give you a monopoly, but even a monopoly is only
a great business if it can endure in the future. Compare the value of the New York Times Company with
Twitter. Each employs [1] few thousand people, and each gives millions of people a way to get news. But
when Twitter went public in 2013, it was valued at $24 billion more than 12 times the Times's market
capitalization-even though the Times earned $133 million in 2012 while Twitter lost money. What explains
the huge premium for Twitter? The answer is cash flow. This sounds bizarre at first, since the Times was
profitable while Twitter wasn't. But a great business is defined by its ability to generate cash flows in the
future. Investors expect Twitter will be able to capture monopoly profits over the next decade, while
newspapers' monopoly days are over. Simply stated, the value of a business today is the sum of all the
money it will make in the future. (To properly value a business, you also have to discount the future cash
flows to their present worth, since a given amount of money today is worth more than the same amount in
the future.) Comparing discounted cash flows shows the difference between low-growth businesses and
high-growth startups at its starkest. Most of the value of low-growth businesses is in the near term. An Old
Economy business (like a newspaper) might hold its value if it can maintain its current cash flows for five
or six years. However, any firm with close substitutes will see its profits competed away. Night Clubs or
restaurants are extreme examples: successful ones might collect healthy amounts today, but their cash
flows will probably dwindle over the next few years when customers move on to newer and trendier
alternatives. Technology companies follow the opposite trajectory. They often lose money for the first few
years: it takes time to build valuable things, and that means delayed revenue. Most of a tech company's
value will come at least 10 to 15 years in the future.
16. Why was twitter valued more than Times even when it was in loses and Times made huge profits?
(a) Because Times is expected to close down soon.
(b) Because of Twitter’s ability to generate cash flow in the future
(c) Because of the revolution Twitter has created in the market.
(d) Because everybody uses Twitter and nobody reads papers.
17. “Escaping competition will give you a monopoly, but even a monopoly is only a great business if it can
endure in the future.” Which of the following is author trying to say?
(a) That monopolies are bad for business
(b) That monopolies are only good when it has survival in the future
(c) That monopolies create bad market by escaping the competition
18. How are tech companies different than old economic model?
(a) Tech company make their product value for some year while their suffer loses, only to earn delayed
revenue.
(b) Tech companies can earn good if they can maintain their cash flow for some years.
MOCK CLAT #09
(c) The CEOs of Tech companies should not take much money as cash salaries.
19. Which of the following is the antonym of the word ‘bizarre’

(a) Strange (b) Ordinary (c) Extravagant (d) Parsimonious
20. Which of the following articles will replace [1] in the above passage?
(a) A (b) An (c) The (d) None of the above
(Passage Q.21-Q.26): Once upon a time, in the far northern princedom of Kif, there lived a prince who had
two beautiful daughters, a son of equally remarkable good looks, a brand-new Rolls-Royce motor car, and
excellent political contacts. This prince, or Nawab, believed passionately in progress, which was why he
had arranged the engagement of his elder daughter to the son of the prosperous and well-known General
Zulfikar; for his younger daughter he had high hopes of a match with the son of the President himself. As
for his motor-car, the first ever seen in his mountain-ringed valley, it roared like a lion out of a jungle. He
loved it almost as much as his children; it grieved him that his subjects, who had become used to using the
roads of Kif for purposes of social intercourse, quarrels and games of hit-the-spittoon, refused to get out of
its way. He issued a proclamation explaining that the car represented the future, and must be allowed to
pass; the people ignored the notice, although it was pasted to shop fronts and walls and even, it is said, to
the sides of cows. The second notice was more peremptory, ordering the citizenry to clear the highways
when they heard the horn of the car; the Kifis, however, continued to smoke and spit and argue in the
streets. The third notice, which was adorned with a gory drawing, said that the car would henceforth run
down anybody who failed to obey its horn. The Kifis added new, more scandalous pictures to the one on
the poster; and then the Nawab, who was a good man but not one of infinite patience, actually did as he
threatened. When the famous singer Jamila arrived with her family and impresario to sing at her cousin's
engagement ceremony, the car drove her without trouble from border to palace; and the Nawab said
proudly, 'No trouble; the car is respected now. Progress has occurred.
21. The above passage has an underlined phrase, “it roared like a lion out of a jungle. He loved it almost as
much as his children”. Which of the following pair of figures of speeches is used in the sentence?
(a) Metaphor and Simile (b) Irony and Simile
(c) Onomatopoeia and metaphor (d) Personification and Simile

(a) The Rolls-Royce was the first of its kind car in the princedom of Kif.
(b) In the second notice the Prince threatened to run over the person who comes in the way of car.
(c) For his younger daughter the Prince had thought of a match with the son of president.
(d) All of them can be inferred from the passage.
23. What is the meaning of the word ‘impresario’?

(a) Organiser (b) Close friends (c) Relatives (d) None of the above
24. “No trouble; the car is respected now. Progress has occurred.” What does this line in the passage means?
(a) The people have finally started giving way to the car
(b) The people have realised how expensive is the car
(c) Famous singer Jamila herself came in the car making it worthy
(d) The car is the symbol of progress of Kif
25. Which of the following words from the passage means ‘insisting on immediate attention’:
(a) Peremptory (b) Gory (c) Scandalous (d) None of the above

MOCK CLAT #09
26. Which of the following is not true about the prince

(a) The prince had two daughters and a son
(b) The younger daughter of the prince was more beautiful
(c) The prince owned Rolls-Royce
(Passage Q.27-Q.32): Our Bombay, Padma! It was very different then, there were no night-clubs or pickle
factories or Oberoi Sheraton Hotels or movie studios; but the city grew at breakneck speed, acquiring a
cathedral and an equestrian statue of the Mahratta warrior-king Shivaji which (we used to think) came to
life at night and galloped awesomely through the city streets - right along Marine Drive! On Chowpatty
sands! Past the great houses on Malabar Hill, road Kemps Corner, giddily along the sea to Scandal Point!
And yes, why not, on and on, down my very own Warden Road, right alongside the segregated swimming
pools of Breach Candy, right up to huge Mahalaxmi Temple and the old Willingdon Club... Throughout my
childhood, whenever bad times came to Bombay, some insomniac nightwalker would report that he had
seen the statue moving; disasters, in the city of my youth, danced to the occult music of a horse's grey,
stone hooves. And where are they now, the first inhabitants? Coconuts have done best of all. Coconuts
are still beheaded daily on Chowpatty beach; while on Juhu beach, under the languid gaze of film stars at
the Sun'n'Sand hotel, small boys still shin up coconut palms and bring down the bearded fruit. Coconuts
even have their own festival, Coconut Day, which was celebrated a few days before my synchronistic birth.
You may feel reassured about coconuts. Rice has not been so lucky; rice-paddies lie under concrete now;
tenements tower where once rice wallowed within sight of the sea. But still, in the city, we are great rice-
eaters. Patna rice, Basmati, Kashmiri rice travels to the metropolis daily; so the original, ur-rice has left its
mark upon us all, and cannot be said to have died in vain. As for Mumbadevi - she's not so popular these
days, having been replaced by elephant-headed Ganesh in the people's affections. The calendar of
festivals reveals her decline: Ganesh - 'Ganpati Baba' - has his day of Ganesh Chaturthi, when huge
processions are taken out and march to Chowpatty bearing plaster effigies of the god, which they hurl into
the sea. Ganesh's day is a rain-making ceremony, it makes the monsoon possible, and it, too, was
celebrated in the days before my arrival at the end of the tiktok countdown - but where is Mumbadevi's
day? It is not on the calendar. Where the prayers of pomfret folk, the constancy of crab-catchers?
27. Who were the first inhabitants of the city?
(a) Coconut (b) Rice (c) Mumba Devi (d) Ganesh
28. Which one of the following is not related to Ganesh?

(a) Huge Procession (b) Plaster Effigies (c) Pomfret folk (d) Rain-making ceremony
29. What used to happen when bad time came to Bombay?

(a) Whenever bad times came, Mumba Devi always saved Bombay
(b) Whenever bad times came, Ganesh procession were held
(c) Whenever bad times came, news of Shivaji Maharaj moving in Bombay was reported
30. What is the meaning of the word ‘languid’?

(a) Hasty (b) Lazy (c) Crazy (d) Perplexing
31. The above passage has an underlined phrase, “constancy of crab-catchers”. Which of the following figures
of speech is used in the sentence?
(a) Alliteration (b) Anaphora (c) Metaphor (d) Simile
32. Which of the following words from the passage means ‘to throw’
(a) Shin up (b) Hurl (c) Synchronistic (d) None of them

MOCK CLAT #09
Passage (Q.33-Q.37): Artillery strikes on civilians in the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict could amount to war
crimes, the U.N. human rights chief said on Monday, reiterating a call for Azerbaijan and Armenia to halt
attacks on towns, schools and hospitals in the mountain enclave. Separately, Armenia’s prime minister
called for an investigation into the presence of “foreign mercenaries” in Nagorno-Karabakh after ethnic
Armenian forces said they had captured two fighters from Syria.
Azerbaijan denied the presence of foreign combatants. Fierce battles continued along the front line of a
conflict that has killed at least 1,000 people, and possibly many more. Nagorno-Karabakh is internationally
recognised as part of Azerbaijan but is populated and controlled by ethnic Armenians. U.N. High
Commissioner for Human Rights [1] said indiscriminate attacks in populated areas in and around the
conflict zone contravened international humanitarian law. She said in a statement that repeated calls for
both Armenia and Azerbaijan to avoid the loss of civilian life and damage to civilian infrastructure had gone
unheeded.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from news reporting by Reuters
33. Where has the recent ceasefire signed between Azerbaijan and Armenia and has been violated quite
frequently since then?
(a) Baku (b) Yerevan (c) Moscow (d) Geneva
34. Which of the following is incorrect?

(a) Azerbaijan is an observer in SCO grouping
(b) The INSTC passes through Azerbaijan
(c) India has sold the SWATHI weapons-seeking radar to Armenia
(d) Azerbaijan supports Pakistan in the Kashmir issue
35. Ilham Aliyev is -

(a) the Azeri President (b) the Azeri Prime Minister
(c) the Armen President (d) the Armen Prime Minister
36. Whose name has been redacted by [1]?

(a) Michelle Bachelet (b) Augusto Pinochet
(c) Sebastan Pinera (d) Cecelia Morel
37. In which year was Nagorno-Karabakh established within Azerbaijan?

(a) 1917 (b) 1918 (c) 1919 (d) 1920
Passage (Q.38-Q.42): [1] is to normalise relations with Israel - the latest in a series of Arab League
countries to do so.At the same time, US President Donald Trump has removed [1] from the US list of state
sponsors of terrorism, unblocking economic aid and investment. Announcing the normalisation, Mr Trump
said "at least five more" Arab states wanted a peace deal with Israel. This deal comes weeks after similar
moves by the United Arab Emirates (UAE) and Bahrain.
The two Gulf states became the first in the Middle East to recognise Israel in 26 years. The UAE's foreign
ministry said it welcomed [1]’s decision, calling it "an important step to boost security and prosperity in the
region."[1] and Israel said in a three-way statement with the US that delegations would meet "in the coming
weeks". "The leaders agreed to the normalisation of relations between [1] and Israel and to end the state
of belligerence between their nations," it said.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from news reporting of BBC News
38. Which of the following countries has been redacted by [1]?

(a) Syria (b) Kuwait (c) Sudan (d) Oman

MOCK CLAT #09
39. Who is the Prime Minister of [1]?

(a) Abdel Fattah al-Burhan (b) Abdalla Hamdok
(c) Mohamed Hamdan Dagalo (d) Omar al-Bashir
40. For whom this peace-deal can be beneficial?

(a) Mahmoud Abbas (b) Jens Stoltenberg
(c) Donald Trump (d) All of the above
41. The recent peace deals with Arab countries by Israel comes after -
(a) 10 years (b) 18 years (c) 21 years (d) 26 years

(a) The Gulf countries come within Middle East
(b) Iraq comes in Middle East but is not a country of the Persian Gulf
(c) [1] is not a member of the GCC
(d) Not all Middle eastern countries are Arabic countries
Passage (Q.43-Q.47): Last week, India got a chance to bury its image as a tax jurisdiction characterised
by arbitrariness. The Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) in [1], ruled in favour of Vodafone International
in its dispute with the Indian government. The court ruled that the UPA’s retrospective tax amendment of
[2] to overturn a Supreme Court verdict violated the India-Netherlands bilateral investment treaty. In
financial terms, the verdict is of limited consequence to either side as the aggregate tax liability of about
Rs [x] was not realised. But India’s reputational loss is incalculable.
The government has said that it’s studying the verdict. It must let go and make a fresh start. The dispute’s
roots lie in the government challenging Vodafone’s indirect acquisition of its Indian telecom assets. The
matter slowly wound its way to the SC, which ruled in Vodafone’s favour. Finance minister Pranab
Mukherjee in [2] retrospectively amended the Income Tax Act to neutralise the apex court’s verdict. The
decision shook investor confidence and contributed to the decline of the India story.
Extracted with edits and revisions from news reporting of The Times of India.
43. Which of the following places have been redacted by [1]?

(a) Geneva (b) Paris (c) The Hague (d) Copenhagen
44. Which of the following years has been redacted by [2]?

(a) 2010 (b) 2011 (c) 2012 (d) 2013
45. Which of the following articles of the UNCITRAL did the PCA cite to pass the ruling in favour of Vodafone?
(a) Article 2 (b) Article 3 (c) Article 4 (d) Article 5
.
46. 67% stake of Hutchinson Whampoa was bought by Vodafone International Holdings BV in 2007. Which of
the following places is this Hutchison Whampoa based?
(a) England (b) Italy (c) Hong Kong (d) South Korea
47. Which of the following has been redacted by [x]?

(a) Rs. 12,000 crores (b) Rs. 15,000 crores
(c) Rs. 18,000 crores (d) Rs. 20,000 crores
Passage: (Q.48-Q.52): The Supreme Court today issued notices on the writ petition filed by
Kothamangalam native Dr Jo Joseph and Kothamangalam block panchayat members Sheela
Krishnankutty and Jessymol Jose in the issue of a lack of supervision of the water level in the Mullaperiyar
dam.The petitioners have alleged that the supervisory committee was evading the responsibilities given by
the constitution bench. This petition was filed against the supervisory committee constituted by the
constitution bench to evaluate the safety of Mullaperiyar dam. The notice has been issued to both the
parties including Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

MOCK CLAT #09
The court also decided to hear the new writ petition along with the writ petition filed in [1] seeking to
reduce the water level in Mullaperiyar dam. The bench headed by Justice Rohinton Nariman pointed out
that a petition filed in [1] seeking to reduce the water level in Mullaperiyar dam to the maximum was
under the consideration of another bench. Considering all the facts the apex court clarified that the writ
petition against the supervisory committee can be heard along with the petition filed in [1].
Extracted with edits and revisions from news reporting of IndiaLegal.
48. Which of the following years has been redacted by [1]?

(a) 2015 (b) 2016 (c) 2017 (d) 2018
49. For how many years was the lease indenture called the Periyar Lake Lease Agreement signed between
the Maharaja of Travancore and the Secretary of State for India for the Periyar Irrigation works?
50. What is the length of the Periyar river?

(a) 186 km (b) 215 km (c) 232 km (d) 244 km

(a) Tamil Nadu operates the Mullaperiyar Dam
(b) The Central Water Commission had asked to change the water stored in the dam’s reservoir from
136 feet to 142 feet
(c) The first cracks in this agreement surfaced in 1979 when a minor earthquake had resulted in cracks
in the dam
(d) The dam is located on the confluence of the Mullayar and Periyar rivers
52. In which year was the Mullaperiyar Dam constructed?

(a) 1895 (b) 1898 (c) 1901 (d) 1902
Passage (Q.53-Q.57): India on Saturday successfully test-fired indigenously developed hypersonic

nuclear-capable Shaurya missile, an advanced version of (SLBM) K-15 (B-05).
The test was carried out by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) from a defence
facility off [1] coast, said reports.
The 10-metre-long nuclear-capable Shaurya missile has a strike range of around 800 kilometres.
Capable of carrying a payload of up to one tonne, the missile is a land variant of K-15 SLBM and can be
stored in a composite canister, said sources.
The missile is less vulnerable to anti-ballistic missile defence systems due to its high manoeuvrability,
added sources.
The test-flight of Shaurya missile comes just a couple of days after the country successfully test-fired an
extended range version of surface-to-surface supersonic cruise missile BrahMos off coast. The missile was
tested on September 30 from Chandipur Integrated Test Range (ITR) at 10.30 AM in Balasore district,
nearly 250 km from here.
The extended version of BrahMos is capable of hitting targets at more than 400-km range. The airframe
and booster of this missile has been developed indigenously. The missile can be launched from
submarines, ships, aircrafts, as well as from land platforms.
[3] is regarded as the fastest supersonic cruise missile in the world. It is operational with Indian Army, Navy
and Air Force.
Source: https://www.deccanchronicle.com/nation/current-affairs/041020/india-test-fires-new-version-of-
nuclear-capable-shaurya-missile.html

(a) Maharashtra (b) Odisha (c) Karnataka (d) Chennai

MOCK CLAT #09
54. Where is the headquarters of DRDO?

(a) Chennai (b) Bengaluru (c) Delhi (d) Mumbai
55. Which is regarded as the fastest supersonic cruise missile in the world?
(a) Hsiung Feng III (b) Brahmos (c) P-270 Moskit (d) YJ-91
56. What type of missile Shaurya is?

(a) Surface to surface (b) Surface to air
(c) Air to water (d) Air to air
57. Consider the following statements and choose the false ones.
i. The capability of SLMBs has great strategic importance in the context of achieving a nuclear triad,
especially in the light of the ‘no first use’ policy of India which acts as a deterrent.
ii. The development of these capabilities is important in light of India’s relations with the two neighbours
China and Pakistan.
(a) Only I (b) Only ii (c) Both (d) None
Passage (Q.58-Q.62): [4] ranked as essentially the most polluted state on a mean of three years’ PM10
monitoring knowledge, adopted by Jharkhand and Uttar Pradesh.
A brand new dashboard launched on Wednesday offers a complete image of India’s Nationwide Ambient
Air High quality Requirements (NAAQS), which come underneath the Nationwide Air High quality
Monitoring Programme (NAMP).
The Centre had launched the Nationwide Clear Air Programme on January 10, 2019 to deal with air air
pollution in 122 cities. These cities are known as non-attainment cities as they didn’t meet the nationwide
ambient air high quality requirements for the interval of 2011-15 underneath the Nationwide Air High quality
Monitoring Programme.
The dashboard launched Wednesday, arrange by local weather and vitality news web site [1] in affiliation
with Mumbai-based start-up [1], presents a comparative image of particulate matter (PM) for all 122 cities
since 2016. It establishes a three-year rolling common development for PM2.5 and PM10 ranges
throughout the cities from 2016 to 2018.
Respirer Residing Sciences CEO Ronak Sutaria stated at a webinar Wednesday, “When analysing the
info, it’s essential to see the variety of displays obtainable in every metropolis, the rise or lower of monitoring
capability 12 months over 12 months and the variety of readings obtainable per monitor yearly. The
dashboard provides a transparent snapshot of which cities had what number of displays, what was their
uptime and what’s the confidence in that knowledge.”
source: https://www.thepressreporter.in/dashboard-to-monitor-air-quality-of-indian-cities/
58. Which two organizations have released the dashboard?

(a) Ziqitza and Sitemap
(b) Butterflies and Diplaya
(c) Carboncopy and respire living sciences
(d) Greenpeace and the Nature conservancy
59. National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP) based dashboard was built on data from
(a) NAAQM (b) NAAM (c) NQM (d) NAAOM
60. Which ranked worst in performance of PM 2.5 level?

(a) Agra (b) Delhi (c) Kolkata (d) Noida
61. Which ranked as the most polluted on PM10 level?

(a) Noida (b) Delhi (c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar pradesh

MOCK CLAT #09
i. System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research, known as "SAFAR", for greater
metropolitan cities of India to provide location specific information on air quality in near real time. It
was introduced by the Ministry of Earth Science.
ii. Under the NAMP, each station records about 104 observations a year covering four pollutants–
Sulphur dioxide (SO2), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), suspended particulate matter (SPM), and respirable
suspended particulate matter (RSPM).
Passage (Q.63-Q.67): National Highway 306's blockade on the Assam-Mizoram border entered the fourth
day today, starving the latter of essential supplies, even though Central intervention had eased tensions
between the two northeastern states last week.
Locals on the Assam side are not allowing trucks carrying goods to enter Mizoram. They want that state to
withdraw its security forces posted at the border; the Mizoram government has simply refused to oblige,
accusing officials of the Assam government of instigating the fresh blockade. Mizoram claims it is protecting
its historical boundary.
Social media photos showing Mizoram's security forces digging up trenches and building bunkers along
the border are not helping the matter in any way.
The issue took a turn for the worse on Friday after the Mizoram government announced that it won't be
withdrawing its security personnel.
Agitators in southern Assam, too, refused to call off their blockade, now in its fourth day, till Mizoram
withdraws its security personnel. An Assam government release said that Environment and Forest Minister
Parimal Suklabaidya had visited the troubled areas along the inter-state border to allay locals' fears. He
urged them not to panic, saying the government was making all efforts to resolve the dispute.
Festering since October 9, the situation along the [1] km Assam-Mizoram border took an ugly turn on
October 17 with around 20 shops and houses being burnt and over 50 people injured in clashes.
The Union Home Ministry has been trying to solve the dispute, but with little success.
Source:https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/mizoram-hardens-stand-on-assam-border-blockade-enters-
fourth-day-2318485

(a) 164.6 (b) 166 (c) 168 (d) 161.6
64. When did the dispute begin between Mizoram and Assam?
(a) 1888 (b) 1890 (c) 1875 (d) 1867
i. Earlier in October 2020, a similar clash took place on the border of Karimganj (Assam) and Mamit
(Mizoram) districts.
ii. Mizoram civil society groups blame “illegal Bangladeshis” (alleged migrants from Bangladesh) on the
Assam side.
66. Assam has boundary problems with many of its neighbours. Which one of them doesn’t have a disputed
boundary?
(a) Nagaland (b) Sikkim
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Meghalaya
67. Other than Assam and Mizoram, which of the other states does the Barak river flow through?
(a) Manipur and Nagaland only
(b) Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh only
(c) Tripura, Manipur and Nagaland only
(d) Nagaland and Tripura only

MOCK CLAT #09
(Passage Q.68-Q.73): Over the years, new consumer protection laws were needed owing to the drastic
change in the manner market functions. The New Act has brought in some major changes and provides
for more protection to the
consumers in parimateria to the earlier 1986 Act.
A consumer is defined as a person who "buys any goods" and hires or avails of any service" for
consideration but does not include a person who obtains goods for resale or goods or service for
commercial purpose. It shall now include both online and offline transactions through electronic means.
The New Act introduces, for the first time, a definition of misleading advertisement. Under the New Act
"misleading advertisement " in relation to any product or service, means an advertisement, which— (i)
falsely describes such product or service; or (ii) gives a false guarantee to, or is likely to mislead the
consumers as to nature, substance, quantity or quality of such product or service; or (iii) conveys an
express or implied representation which, if made by the manufacturer or seller or service provider thereof
would constitute an unfair trade practice; or (iv) deliberately conceals important information".
Under the New Act, Consumers can challenge contracts that are unreasonable. "Unfair Contract" means a
contract between the manufacturer/trader/service provider and the consumer and includes, (i) demand for
huge payments to fulfil the contractual obligations; (ii) imposing penalty on consumer for breach of contract
when the consumer has already suffered a greater loss due to the breach; (iii) unilateral termination of
contracts without proper reasons; (iv) imposing inequitable conditions that affect consumers.
Under the new act, “product liability” means the responsibility of product manufacturer or product seller, of
any product or service, related to the product or service to compensate for any the harm caused to a
consumer by such defective product manufactured or sold or by deficiency in services relating to a product.
No liability will be fastened on the product seller if at the time of harm, the product was misused, altered or
modified.
68. The company, Motorola Pvt. Ltd. purchased a computer from Zenith Computers. The computer was merely
used by the employees of Motorola Pvt Ltd. to deal with its customers and their issues with the products of
Motorola Pvt. Ltd. The computer ran into constant trouble from the date of its first use and such was not
attended by Zenith computers properly. Therefore Motorola Pvt. Ltd. filed a consumer complaint against
Zenith computers. Zenith computer argued that Motorola Pvt. Ltd. is not a consumer under the definition
of “consumer” under Consumer Protection Act because the computer was used for commercial purposes.
Will Motorola Pvt. Ltd. succeed?
(a) Yes, because the computer system was not directly used for commercial purposes but only to facilitate
the work of the company.
(b) No, because the computer was being used by the employees of the company.
(c) Yes, because the computer was used for providing customer service which is not the actual business
of Motorola Pvt. Ltd.
(d) No, because the computer system was a part of assets of the company which contributed to its business
and was bought out of business income.
69. Nidea Cellular is a network service provider. While advertising the Nidea Internet Network (NIN), Nidea
cellular came up with series of advertisements which showed several characters who use NIN services to
achieve their dreams of learning engineering, algebra, cooking, foreign languages, etc. It had shown female
characters from remote locations of Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh who could not step out of the
house to gain higher education. These characters had been shown to use NIN services to fulfil their dreams
of higher education. Some ads had also shown celebrities using NIN services to study while shooting their
films at various locations. Several complaints were filed against Nidea Cellular to be misleading the public
by showing NIN service as an alternative institution which teaches different things. Will such complaints
succeed?
(a) Yes, because such ads mislead public by giving false impression of the nature of the NIN service.
(b) No, because such ads describe internet services which can be used to learn different things as claimed
by the ads.

MOCK CLAT #09
(c) Yes, because such ads mislead public by falsely describing the NIN service.
(d) No, because such ads do not mislead the public as it does not falsely describe the service.
.
70. Totstar is a subscription based streaming service that allows its members to watch TV shows,
documentaries and movies without commercials on an internet connected device. Totstar has a provision
where if the customer opts for “automatic renewal”, then at the end of a member’s subscription, it is
automatically renewed if the customer does not cancel it within the two days of the ending of subscription.
One has to untick the option of “automatic renewal” and then click on “Agree” button to opt out of automatic
renewal. Zoya had subscribed to Totstar for a month on 1st December 2019 for her vacation and in a hurry
clicked on “Agree” button without removing the tick from automatic renewal option. She had given her
account details to Totstar which they had saved for further subscriptions. Zoya went on a trip to Jammu
and Kashmir on 30th December and had difficulty in accessing the internet throughout her trip. On 8th
January 2020, after Zoya returned from her trip, she got the notification that her subscription to Totstar has
been renewed and it had deducted the money for the same. Zoya did not intend to continue the subscription
because her vacation had ended. Zoya sued Totstar for the terms of contract being unfair. Would Zoya
succeed?
(a) Yes, because the “automatic renewal” provision imposes an inequitable condition on the consumers by
burdening them to cancel it within limited time of 2 days.
(b) No, because Zoya had agreed to the terms and failed to cancel the subscription in the required time
due to her own negligence.
(c) Yes, because the “automatic renewal” option is already ticked and one has to actively remove it, thereby
imposing inequitable condition affecting customers.
(d) No, because the contact provides the option to the consumer to opt out of the “automatic renewal”
option by removing the tick and then agreeing to it.
71. Yuba Power Products Inc. manufactured a gadget called “Shopsmith” which was a combination power tool
that could be used as a saw, drill and a wood lathe used to make wood rods into cylindrical rods. Greenman
was passing the shop of mechanical tools and stopped to see the retailer demonstrating the Shopsmith
gadget. He went on to read the brochure provided by the company and then left the shop. His wife later
gifted him the Shopsmith gadget because she knew her husband was fascinated by it. He bought
necessary attachments as prescribed in the brochure to use it as a drill. He followed every information
provided in the brochure and used it to drill various object twice without any difficulty. He plugged it in the
socket without switching the switch off before plugging in. and started drilling a small wooden piece. The
gadget suddenly threw a piece of wood striking him in the head, inflicting serious injuries. Therefore, he
sued Yuba Power Products Inc. for compensation for the injury inflicted due to some defect in the under
“product liability” provision of the new Consumer Protection Act. Will Greenman succeed?
(a) Yes, because he has read the brochure and acted as per the instructions.
(b) No, because he plugged in the gadget without switching off the switch first, implying the misuse on his
part.
(c) Yes, because he was injured due to the manufacturing defect in the gadget Shopsmith.
(d) No, because the gadget worked properly in its first two uses, implying no defect in the gadget.
72. What does the term “parimateria” mean in the article?

(a) The new act repeals the earlier 1986 Act.
(b) The new Act overrides the earlier 1986 Act in case of conflict between the provisions of two laws.
(c) The new act and the 1986 act have to be analysed in reference to each other as they deal with same
subject matter.
(d) The new Act is an addition to the earlier 1986 act and the provisions of both laws do not conflict.
73. A man buys a jeep from the Jeep Company and uses it to run as a taxi. Within a month, the jeep faced
several issues. One day, while he was driving, the brake of the jeep failed causing him leg injury. Therefore,
the man sued the Jeep Company. Will the man succeed?
(a) Yes, because he can claim compensation for harm caused to him due to defect in the goods under the
provision of product liability.
(b) No, because he does not fall within the definition of consumer under the new Act.

MOCK CLAT #09
(c) Yes, because he is a consumer under the new act as he has purchased the jeep in return of an
adequate consideration.
(d) No, because the jeep was not meant to be used as a taxi.
(Passage Q.74-Q.79): Relevant laws that are applicable to a contract involving an arbitration agreement,
are as follows:
1. Applicable law — Contract
The law governing the performance of the obligations under the contract may be distinct from the law that
is applicable to the arbitration clause. Applicable law or the proper law of the contract are terms which refer
to a legal system in which a contract may be executed.
2. Applicable law — Arbitration agreement
A clause referring parties to arbitration is treated as a separate agreement. Therefore, any dispute
pertaining to the validity of the contract itself, does not render the arbitration agreement inoperative.
Juridical seat or lex arbitri
The law that is applicable to the arbitration proceeding is the law of the juridical seat of the arbitration or
more commonly referred to as lex arbitri. The lex arbitri would determine the courts which can exercise
supervisory jurisdiction over the arbitration proceedings. Parties may choose as the seat of arbitration
proceeding, a legal system which has no nexus with the parties simply to obviate the possibilities of bias
or unfamiliarity.
The provisions relevant for understanding concept of seat and venue under the 1996 Act are Sections 2(2)
reads as “This Part shall apply where place of arbitration is in India” and Section 20 reads as “Place of
arbitration.—(1) The parties are free to agree on the place of arbitration.”
Analysis of Judgements:
In Bhatia, the court interpreted Section 2(2) in a manner because of which the distinction between “seat”
and “venue” (in this case the word “place” means venue) was obliterated. According to it, an international
commercial arbitration where an Indian party is involved, being proceeded with in any part of the world,
would confer jurisdiction on Indian courts to exercise powers under Part 1 of the 1996 Act.
The court in BALCO expressly overruling Bhatia, observed that the section has to be interpreted to mean
that only when the seat/place of arbitration is in India, will Part I apply, restoring the distinction between
seat and venue.
Enercon clarified the position of law in case the parties have failed to mention the law applicable to the
arbitration agreement. The court observed that the legal system in which the arbitration is taking place or
the system which has the closest and most intimate connection with the arbitration proceedings is relevant.
74. Mr. James and the Indian Classics company entered into a contract wherein Mr. James agreed to supply
raw material for the manufacture of saris to the Indian Classics Company. The contract had an arbitration
clause where they agreed that if any dispute arises, it would be arbitrated by an arbitrator chosen by the
parties. Later, the Indian Classics Company claimed that the contract has been entered based on a
misrepresentation by Mr. James where he misrepresented to supply a distinct quality of the raw material.
The Indian Classics Company went to the court against Mr. James. Mr. James said that the dispute should
be arbitrated as per the contract. The Indian Classics company claimed that the contract is invalid and
therefore, the court has appropriate jurisdiction. Which of the following is true?
(a) The court has the appropriate jurisdiction because the question is of the validity of the contract.
(b) The dispute can be resolved by arbitration because the arbitration clause is a separate agreement,
unaffected by the invalidity of the contract.
(c) The whole contract has been rendered invalid and therefore, the arbitration clause is vitiated.
(d) The dispute has to be resolved by the arbitration agreement because the applicable law on contract is
distinct from the applicable law on arbitration agreement.
75. Kabab Ji is a Lebanese company. It entered into a franchise development agreement with Khan Kabab,
an Indian company as licensee. Article 3 of the Franchisee development agreement stated that “All the
clauses of this Agreement would be governed by and construed in accordance with Indian laws.” Whereas
Article 14 of the Agreement stated that “The arbitration shall be conducted in Paris, France in English
language.” In 2018, Khan Kabab became a subsidiary of Kabir Food Company and a dispute arose under
the Franchisee Development Agreement. Kabab Ji referred the dispute to arbitration before the
MOCK CLAT #09
International Code Council (ICC) in Paris which was opposed by Khan Kebab. Which of the following is
true?
(a) The dispute will be rightly adjudicated in Paris because the law governing the arbitration agreement is
decided by the seat.
(b) The dispute will be adjudicated by the Indian courts because the agreement clearly stated that all its
provisions would be governed by the Indian laws.
(c) The dispute will be adjudicated in Paris so as to avoid any bias in favour of the Khan Kabab as it is an
Indian company.
(d) The dispute will be adjudicated by Indian courts because the governing law of the arbitration agreement
in this case is Indian law.
76. Rinz & Minz Co. is car manufacturing and selling company in India. It gets outer body of the car made by
a German company called Vladoisir Wagen Co. Thus, Rinz & Minz had entered into an agreement with
Vladoisir Wagen Co. to exclusively supply their outer body which is of distinct design to Rinz & Minz Co.
Article 10.1 of the Agreement stipulated that “if a dispute arises, it will be resolved by Arbitration.” Article
10.2 stated that “The arbitration shall be held in International Chamber of Commerce (ICC), Paris, France.”
Vladoisir Wagen Co. sold some of its outer body parts to a Chinese Company called MiMi Qiche Co.
Therefore, a dispute of breach of contract arose between Rinz & Minz and the Vladoisit Wagen Co. Rinz
& Minz initiated arbitration proceedings in ICC and simultaneously filed an application under Part I of Indian
Arbitration Act of 1996 seeking injunction against Vladoisir Wagen Co. from further selling the car bodies
to any other company. Will an Indian court have jurisdiction when the seat of the arbitration has been
chosen as ICC according to the BALCO judgement?
(a) Yes, because the seat of the arbitration is India and inly when the seat of the arbitration is India, would
the Part I of the 1996 be applicable.
(b) No, because the law governing the contract is not Indian law but law of Paris.
(c) Yes, because when one of the parties to the contract is Indian, Part I of the 1006 Act would be
applicable.
(d) No, because the seat of arbitration is ICC, Paris and only when the seat of the arbitration is India, would
the Part I of the 1996 be applicable.
77. Which of the following if held by a court would be contrary to the Bhatia judgement?
(a) In case both of the parties to the contract is Indian, Part I of the 1996 Act would apply.
(b) In case none of the parties to the contract are Indian, Part I of the 1996 would not apply.
(c) Expression “Place” used in Section 2(2) connotes seat and not the venue.
(d) Expression “place” used in Section 2(2) depends on the parties to the contract.
78. A Sale and Purchase Agreement was signed between Mr. Allhuwalia and Ms. Parineeti Chopra. Both the
parties were Indian and the contract was drafted according to the Indian provisions. The parties included
an arbitration clause which provided that the disputes arising between the parties have to be resolved by
arbitration. When the dispute arose, the party chose England to conduct the arbitration proceedings. Which
of the following is true as per the laws clarified by the judgements?
(a) England law will be applicable to the arbitration agreement because it is the seat of arbitration.
(b) Indian law will be applicable to the arbitration agreement because both the parties to the contract are
Indian.
(c) The applicable law to the arbitration agreement is unclear and therefore, Indian courts will have
jurisdiction.
(d) The applicable law to the arbitration agreement is unclear and therefore England courts, where the
arbitration proceedings are conducted will have jurisdiction.
79. What is the final ruling after the three judgements discussed in the article?
(a) The seat of arbitration determines the courts which would exercise jurisdiction over the arbitration
proceeding.
(b) The seat of arbitration decides the governing law of the contract including the arbitration agreement.
(c) The venue where the arbitration is agreed to be held decides the courts which would have supervisory
jurisdiction over arbitration proceeding.

MOCK CLAT #09
(d) The law governing the contract decides the courts which would exercise jurisdiction over the arbitration
proceeding.
(Passage Q.80-Q.83): According to English law, if one of the several joint promisors dies, the rights and
liabilities under the contract develops upon the surviving joint promisors. The representatives of the
deceased promisor neither obtain any rights nor assume any liability, unless they are the representatives
of the last surviving promisor. This rule sometimes causes injustice, inasmuch as the creditor loses the
security of the solvency of a promisor, Section 42 of the Contract Act therefore lays down a different rule:
When two or more persons have made a joint promise, then, unless a contrary intention appears by the
contract, all such persons, during their joint lives, and, after the death of any of them, his representatives
jointly with the survivor or survivors, and, after the death of the last survivor, the representatives of all jointly,
must fulfill the promise.
According to Section 45 of Indian Contract Act, devolution of joint right is governed by almost the same
kind of principles as the devolution of joint liabilities. When a promise is made to more than one person
jointly, the right to claim performance rests with all of them jointly. If anyone of them dies, it rests with his
legal representatives jointly, with the survivors and after the death of the last survivor, with the
representatives of all jointly.
When two or more persons make a joint promise, the promise may, in the absence of express agreement
to the contrary, compel one or more of such joint promisors to perform the whole of the promise.
Each of two or more joint promisors may compel every other joint promisor to contribute equally with himself
to the performance of the promise, unless a contrary intention appears from the contract. If any of two or
more joint promisors make default in such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss
arising from such default in equal shares. A joint promisor who has been compelled to perform the whole
of the promise, may require the other joint promisors to make an equal contribution to the performance of
the promise. Nothing shall prevent a surety from recovering, from his principal, payments made by the
surety on behalf of the principal, or entitle the principal to recover anything from the surety on account of
payments made by the principal.
When a promise is performed on a certain day, and the promisor has undertaken to perform it without
application by the promise, the promisor may perform it at any time during the usual hours of the business
on such day and at the place at which the promise ought to be performed.
80. A, B and C borrowed Rs. 3000 from D and they jointly promise to pay the amount to him. But on the day
of making the payment A and B fled away from the country. D compelled C to make the payment whole
payment of Rs. 3000. Decide the liability of C.
(a) C can be liable to pay the amount of even A and B, i.e whole Rs. 3000.
(b) C is not liable to pay the arrears of A and B, and should only pay his share of money.
(c) C cannot be made liable to pay the whole amount since the money was borrowed on individual capacity.
(d) C cannot be compelled to pay for A and B because it will be very unfair for C to pay the borrowed
money of other two.
81. In the above question suppose C, under compulsion paid the arrears of even A and B to D. But he now
demands the equal contribution to the performance of the promise. Can A and B be made liable to pay
their equal share?
(a) A and B are not liable to pay their share of money to C.
(b) A and B are liable to pay their share of money to C.
(c) A and B cannot be compelled by C to pay the remaining amount to him since C paid in his individual
capacity.
(d) A and B are not liable to pay their share to C since there was no express agreement between the three
to pay on behalf of each other.
82. X promises to deliver goods at Y’s warehouse on the 1st January. On that particular day X brings the good
to Y’s warehouse, but only after the usual hour for closing it because he was struck in traffic. And because
the warehouse was closed till the time goods reached, Y could not receive them. Y sued X for the non-
performance of the contract. Decide the liability of X.

MOCK CLAT #09
(a) X is not liable for non-performance since he was only a little late when the usual hour of business
closed.
(b) X is not liable since usual hour of business has subjective inferences and he not expected to have
knowledge of usual hour of every business.
(c) X is liable for non-performance of contract since he did not deliver the goods on during the usual hour
of the business.
(d) X is not liable since being struck in traffic is beyond his control and hence he should be pardoned for
being late.
83. A, in consideration of Rs. 5000, lent to him by B and C, promises B and C jointly to repay them that sum
with interest on a day specified. Unfortunately, B died in an accident. When the day of payment came, A
paid C his share but did not pay the share of B to his representatives. B’s representatives sued A for the
B’s share to be paid to them. Decide whether their claim would succeed or not?
(a) Their claim would not succeed since A did not enter into contract with them and hence not liable to pay
to them.
(b) Their claim would succeed since non-performance of promise results in the loss of monetary income
to B’s family.
(c) Their claim would succeed since the right to claim performance of the promise rests with them after the
death of B.
(d) Their claim would not succeed because when A entered into contract with B, he only had a legal
intention to form a contract with B and not with his representatives and hence A is not liable to pay
them.
(Passage Q.84-Q.89): From its establishment as an amendment to the original Information Technology
Act in 2008, Section 66A attracted controversy over its unconstitutional nature. It says that any person who
sends by any means of a computer resource any information that is grossly offensive or has a menacing
character; or any information which he knows to be false, but to cause annoyance, inconvenience, danger,
obstruction, insult shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and
with fine.
In December 2012, P Rajeev, a Rajya Sabha member from Kerala, tried to pass a resolution seeking to
amend Section 66A. P Rajeev pointed out that cartoons and editorials allowed in traditional media were
being censored in the new media. He also said that law was barely debated before being passed in
December 2008.
In November 2012, IPS officer Amitabh Thakur and his wife social activist Nutan Thakur filed a petition in
the Lucknow bench of the Allahabad High Court claiming that the Section 66A violated a fundamental right
guaranteed in the Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India. They said that the section was vague and
frequently misused. The petitioners have said that section 66A IT Act information encompasses any
message or information that is offensive or that has a menacing character or causes annoyance,
inconvenience, danger, obstruction, insult, hatred, injury, criminal intimidation, enmity or ill will. These
words have not been defined in the IT Act and are vague, wide, all-pervasive, confusing, slack, and
ambiguous which has a possibility of being misused and abused.
Also, in November 2012, a Delhi-based law student, Shreya Singhal, filed a Public Interest Litigation (PIL)
in the Supreme Court of India. She argued that the Section 66A was vaguely phrased, as result, it violated
Article 14, 19 (1)(a) and Article 21 of the Constitution.
On 24 March 2015, the Supreme Court of India gave the verdict that Section 66A is unconstitutional in
entirety. The court said that Section 66A of IT Act 2000 is "arbitrarily, excessively and disproportionately
invades the right of free speech". But the Court turned down a plea to strike down sections 69A and 79 of
the Act, which deals with the procedure and safeguards for blocking certain websites.
84. Based on my permission provided in the passage, as per the ruling of the court of law, in which of the
following cases original section 66A of the IT Act is not being misused?
(a) A woman was arrested for questioning why Mumbai was shut down on Facebook? Another woman
was arrested for just liking this post.
(b) A businessman in Pondicherry who was arrested for commenting on a politician in a tweet.
(c) Arresting a cartoonist for publishing cartoons in a magazine, depicting widespread corruption in India.

MOCK CLAT #09
(d) A chemistry teacher arrested for sharing a cartoon of a politician on Quora.
85. Raju is a right-wing columnist. He was arrested in 2009 for writing and publishing articles against the leftist
government on his website - which was also blocked. However, a year later, when section 66A was
amended, he was released from the captivation, but his website is blocked till date. Raju filed a petition in
the court of law to lift restrictions from his website too, but it was turned down. Based on the information
provided in the passage, why did the court not consider Raju’s argument?
(a) Because the contents of the website were considered a threat to national integrity.
(b) Because even after the amendment, certain websites can still be blocked.
(c) Because the website had some obscene images on it.
(d) Because the website still had wrongful allegations against some important politicians.
86. According to the petition filed in the High Court, section 66A of the IT Act violated a fundamental right
guaranteed in Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India. Based on the information provided in the
passage, which fundamental right it did section 66A of the IT Act invade?
(a) Freedom of speech
(b) Freedom of worship
(c) Right to equality before the law
(d) Freedom to travel anywhere in the country
87. Munna shared a tweet accusing a politician and his son of corruption, religious bigotry, and being involved
in frauds. On the complaint of the politician, Munna was arrested under section 66A of the original IT Act,
and the charges were later expended to sedition under IPC. Later, the charges under section 66A were
removed after the amendment of the Act, but Munna was not released from jail. Why did the law still hold
Munna captive even after original charges no more existed?
(a) Because an amendment does not mean nullification of the arrests made earlier.
(b) Because an amendment does not mean nullification of the other charges as well.
(c) Because an amendment does not hinder the ongoing proceedings of a case.
88. Ramesh, an investigative journalist, somehow managed to break in his colleague Barkha’s phone and
found that large sums of money have been deposited into her bank account from some offshore accounts.
Ramesh took it to Twitter and Facebook, and accused Barkha of corruption and being dishonest to her
profession. In turn, Barkha had Ramesh booked under the IT Act. A couple of months later, section 66A
was slashed down but Ramesh wasn’t released. Ramesh filed a plea in the court to dismiss the case
against him, but it got rejected. Why did the court uphold accusation against Ramesh?
(a) Because Ramesh was facing a defamation suit for falsely accusing Barkha.
(b) Because breaking into someone’s phone is still an offence.
(c) Because an amendment does not mean nullification of the arrests made earlier.
(d) Because an amendment does not hinder the ongoing proceedings of a case.
89. In his latest movie, Anurag Kashyap portrayed the atrocities committed by the upper caste leading to the
victimization of a woman belonging to a lower caste and her pitiful living conditions. In the movie, the
woman was forced to take up the route of crime to escape the clutches of poverty. This story enraged a lot
of people, belonging to the upper castes, of course, including many social media trolls and right-wing
bloggers, who began harassing, insulting, and intimidating Anurag to the extent where it started hurting his
work and professional image. Anurag Kashyap believed it to be a conspiracy and called his lawyer
intending to sue the initiators for orchestrating a social media war against him. According to the information
provided in the passage, what all options do Anurag’s has under the law to have the belligerents punished?
(a) Anurag can have the belligerents booked under section 66A of the IT act.
(b) Anurag can sue the belligerents for thrashing his image in public.
(c) Anurag can have the bloggers booked under section 69A.
(d) Anurag cannot do anything.

MOCK CLAT #09
(Passage Q.90-Q.95): The Trafficking of Persons (Prevention, Protection and Rehabilitation) Bill, 2018,
provides for the prevention, rescue, and rehabilitation of trafficked persons.
The district and state anti-trafficking committees will undertake measures to protect and prevent vulnerable
persons from being trafficked. These measures include: (i) facilitating the implementation of livelihood and
educational programmes for vulnerable communities, (ii) facilitating the implementation of various
government programmes and schemes for prevention of trafficking, and (iii) developing law and order
framework to ensure prevention of trafficking.
The Bill specifies various penalties. All offences are cognizable (i.e. police officers can arrest without a
warrant) and non-bailable. Note that if a person is found guilty under the Bill and also under any other law,
the higher punishment will apply.
Trafficking of one person can fetch imprisonment of 7-10 years, and fine, whereas trafficking of more than
one person is punishable with imprisonment of 10 years to life, and fine.
Trafficking of a minor attracts a penalty of 10 years to life imprisonment, and fine. Trafficking of more than
one minor brings life imprisonment, and fine.
If a public servant or public official is found involved in trafficking, the penalty could be life imprisonment,
and fine.
Aggravated Forms of Trafficking may attract imprisonment of 10 years to life imprisonment, and fine of at
least Rs 1,00,000. Repeat Trafficker of Aggravated Offences may get Life Imprisonment, and fine of at
least Rs 2,00,000.
Buying or selling persons brings Imprisonment of 7-10 years, and a fine of at least Rs 1,00,000.
Trafficking with the aid of the media brings imprisonment of 7-10 years, and fine of at least Rs 1,00,000.
If caught managing the premises of trafficking for the first time: Imprisonment of up to 5 years with a fine
of up to Rs 1,00,000; Subsequent conviction brings at least 7 years with a fine of up to Rs 2,00,000.
However, the owner/occupier of premises of trafficking may get up to 3 years imprisonment with fine of up
to Rs 1,00,000 for the first-time conviction; Subsequent conviction: at least 5 years with fine of up to Rs
2,00,000.
Publication or distribution of obscene material which may lead to trafficking: Imprisonment of 5 - 10 years,
and fine of Rs 50,000 – 1,00,000.
The omission of Duty by an authority: First-time conviction: fine of minimum Rs 50,000; Subsequent
conviction: up to one-year imprisonment with fine of at least Rs 1,00,000.
The Bill permits attachment of property if there is an apprehension of the commission of an offence. Upon
conviction, such properties shall be forfeited to the government. The government may sell the properties
and remit the sale proceeds to the Rehabilitation Fund.
90. When Sonu reached puberty, her uncle tried to trade her into commercial prostitution when a joint team of
NGO and police raided and released Sonu. in their statements, Sonu’s uncle pleaded about his being poor
and holds the circumstances and government policies guilty, and the buyer claims that it was his first time
and since the trade has not been realised, he shall not be held guilty. According to the information provided
in the passage, who should face the penalty under the new anti-trafficking law?
(a) Sonu’s uncle. Since he was trying to trade Sonu for his selfish gains.
(b) The buyer. Even if it’s his first time as a pimp, it’s a crime.
(c) Both the parties. Sonu was being trafficked into prostitution business.
(d) No one. The arguments of both the parties are valid.
91. The Maharashtra government appointed a nodal officer in the anti-trafficking department and instructed
him to be present during the raids and rescue operations. But during one of the operations, the officer was
absent from the duty without any prior information. Nor could he explain his absence. According to the
information provided in the passage, what punishment is the officer entitled to receive under the law?
(a) Considering that it happened for the first time, the officer should be let go with a warning.
(b) The officer should be fined with Rs 50000 for deserting his responsibilities.
(c) The officer should face imprisonment for a minimum of 6 months.
(d) The officer should be suspended.
92. A group of five young girls were being escorted to Hyderabad by a man via train. The girls appeared scared
and hungry. An onlooker informed Hyderabad police of susceptible case of human trafficking. The anti-

MOCK CLAT #09
trafficking department sprang into action and arrested the man at Hyderabad railway station. During the
interrogation, the man revealed that a police officer from Madhya Pradesh was also involved in the
trafficking syndicate. He was arrested too. According to the information provided in the passage, what
penalty is the policeman entitled to under the new law?
(a) The policeman should be fined with Rs 50000.
(b) The policeman should be removed from the force and should be tried as a civilian in the court.
(c) The policeman should be jailed for 5 years with a fine.
(d) The policeman should face imprisonment for life and fine.
93. Rocky was arrested for trafficking a minor boy. In another case, he was found guilty of murder. The act of
murder and trafficking won him imprisonment of 5 years and 3 years consecutively. According to the
information provided in the passage, what length of the penalty in total would Rocky have to bear?
(a) 5 years of imprisonment.
(b) 3 years of imprisonment and appropriate fine compensating the rest of the penalty.
(c) 8 years of imprisonment.
(d) 5 years of imprisonment and appropriate fine compensating the rest of the penalty.
94. Raju owned a building in the outskirts of the city which he let to a transport company to use as a warehouse.
The company was later found to be involved in trafficking people from different villages. The police arrested
Raju too and presented him before the court, where he pled not guilty as he was not aware of the company's
unlawful activities. According to the information provided in the passage, does the argument of the landlord,
Raju, hold validity before the law?
(a) Yes. Raju cannot be held guilty for unawareness.
(b) No. Raju should have made sure about the tenant's background before letting his property.
(c) Yes. Raju was not himself involved in the crime.
(d) No. Aware or not, Raju has to face the penalty.
95. Sara recruited and duped many girls into trafficking masquerading as a modelling agent on social media.
When an organ syndicate was busted by the police, Sara was also arrested. According to the information
provided in the passage, what penalty would Sara be entitled to under the new anti-trafficking law?
(a) Minimum 7 years of imprisonment and a fine of Rs 100000.
(b) Rigorous imprisonment for 3 years.
(c) A fine amounting to Rs 500000.
(d) Imprisonment for life.
(Passage Q.96-Q.100): Unlike the prosecution which needs to prove its case beyond reasonable doubt,
the accused merely needs to create reasonable doubt or prove their alternate version by mere
preponderance of probabilities. Thus, once a plausible version has been put forth in defence at the Section
313 (power to the court to examine an accused), Code of Criminal Procedure examination stage, then it is
for the prosecution to negate such defense plea, stated the judgment authored by Justice Surya Kant.
Allegedly the appellant called the prosecutrix to her house and tried to entice her to indulge in illicit
intercourse with the rich tenant boy in return for clothes and trips from him. The appellant pushed the
prosecutrix into the room with the tenant boy and bolted it from outside. Later, the appellant caught hold of
the prosecutrix and threatened to kill her and her brother if anyone was informed of the matter.
It was after this incident that the prosecutrix went to lodge a police complaint with her father about the two
incidents.
During the trial, the appellant denied all allegations and offered an alternate version in her statement under
Section 313 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, claiming that there was no tenant at all in her home and
that the complaint was nothing but motivated revenge at the instance of one Bhola Singh against whom
she had leveled allegations of rape a few months ago.
The Supreme Court noted that, under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 after the prosecution closes
its evidence and examines all its witnesses, the accused is given an opportunity of explanation through
Section 313(1) (b). Any alternate version of events or interpretation proffered by the accused must be
carefully analyzed and considered by the trial Court in compliance with the mandate of Section 313(4).
Such opportunity is a valuable right of the accused to seek justice and defend oneself. Failure of the trial

MOCK CLAT #09
Court to fairly apply its mind and consider the defence renders the entire proceedings void if the decision
violates the rights of the accused.
96. Prem is a famous and loved Indian actor, who is known for his action movies. A Toyota Landcruiser, which
is personally used by Prem, hit some people sleeping by the side of the road one night. The car did not
stop or took the victims to the hospital. A FIR was lodged against Prem and the trial initiated at the court.
Prem in his explanation told that he was not present in the car during the accident and the same was driven
by his driver Shankar and produced valid documents to support his statements. The prosecution just
submitted that Prem’s alibi should not be relied on and he should be awarded strict punishment. What
should be the course of action by the court?
(a) Prem should be held guilty as he was personally driving the car because the car was always used by
him personally and so the alibi presented by him before the court is false.
(b) Prem should not be held guilty as he produced a reasonable doubt before the court which was not
properly negated by the advocate for prosecution, thus failing to prove the guilt of Prem.
(c) Prem should be held guilty as he failed to back his defence of alibi with enough evidence and did not
conclusively prove that he was not present in the car at the time of accident.
(d) Prem should not be held guilty as prosecution failed in establishing the guilt of Prem before the court
and therefore the court could not rely on prosecution to determine the guilt in the case.
97. Rehan and Vivek started a business of exporting tea together. Soon a dispute arose between them and
they decided to split their business. Vivek accused Rehan of misappropriation of profits and also threatened
to ruin him and his family. Rehan’s son was 8 years old and was found dead in unknown circumstances
after a week of their fight. Rehan told police that all of this is Vivek’s revenge as he said that he will ruin his
family. Vivek was arrested and produced before the court. Rehan asked justice for his innocent kid. A
servant of Rehan also said that he saw his son with Vivek before he got missing. Just after hearing this,
the court announced that Vivek is guilty as the incident happened in lieu of his words after a week. Was
the decision of the court justified?
(a) Yes, the court is right in holding him guilty as he threatened to ruin Rehan’s family and the incident
happened just after a week.
(b) Yes, the court is right in holding him guilty as he was the one with whom Rehan’s kid was seen just
before he was gone missing.
(c) No, the court is not right in holding him guilty just after hearing Rehan and his servant because he has
the right to be given an opportunity of hearing and explanation.
(d) No, the court is not right in holding him guilty as he just threatened Rehan because he misappropriated
the profits of their business and there is no proof that he actually killed Rehan’s son.
98. Billu and Manu were cousins sharing the same house for a long time. Soon they started having disputes
regarding the division of their ancestral property. Due to this feud, Billu started throwing Manu’s stuff from
the land and challenged him to claim the property if he can. This led to a fight between the two, where
Manu threatened Billu to kill him if he acts like this again. A few days later Billu went to a police station
informing that Manu fought with him and broke his leg to warn him to refrain from claiming his own share
of land in future. In the trial, Manu just submitted before court that he was out of town for some work when
the incident is alleged to have happened. The court, on the basis of facts found Manu guilty of the crime
and awarded him punishment. Manu filed an appeal to the superior court against the order on grounds that
his defence was not properly negated by the prosecution. Which of the following is correct?
(a) There is no need for negation of Manu’s contention as no reasonable doubt was created by him with
the defence of his alibi as it was a mere statement and not supported by proper documents.
(b) There is no need for negation of Manu’s contention as it was only after threat that Billu approached the
police station to register a complaint against Manu.
(c) There is a need for negation of Manu’s contention as every reasonable doubt created by the accused
is required to be negated by the prosecution, which did not happen in the present case.
(d) There is a need for negation of Manu’s contention as mere threat does not eliminate the legal necessity
of negating a reasonable doubt created by the accused in a case.

MOCK CLAT #09
99. Sneha always wanted to be a dancer but her family always objected because of their orthodox beliefs that
dancing is not a profession for rich and big family’s girls. She was very dejected by her family's response
but she otherwise chose to pursue dancing as her career. Meanwhile her uncle was always supportive of
her decision and they soon grew a strong bond. One day, her parents got the news and were very angry
with her and even threw her out of the house. Her uncle took her into his house and seeing that she was
vulnerable, he raped her. She filed a complaint of rape against him. Which of the following is true?
(a) The burden to prove that she was raped by her uncle is on Sneha as the prosecution has to prove her
side of the case beyond reasonable doubt and not by mere preponderance of probabilities.
(b) The burden to prove that she was not raped is on her uncle as in the case of rape offences, the burden
to prove the innocence beyond reasonable doubts lies on the accused.
(c) The burden of proof lies with the both parties as both of them have to prove their sides of the case
beyond reasonable doubts to convince the court of their innocence.
(d) The burden of proof is on Sneha but she only has to show some preponderance of probabilities that
she was raped by her uncle.
100. Rana was an infamous gangster, with multiple charges and trials pending against him. Once in a gang war
he killed four people before some police constables. They arrested Rana from the site and registered a
complaint against him for murder. In the court the prosecution very well presented the case against Rana
and backed their arguments with evidence and witnesses. Rana explained that his act was merely an act
of private defence and that the members of other gang, he fought with, were his arch nemesis and had
threatened him with life multiple times. The magistrate, well aware of the reputation of Rana, convicted him
without paying heed to his explanations. Was the magistrate right in holding Rana guilty?
(a) Yes, as he murdered four people right before the police officers who witnessed the entire incident and
corroborated with the submissions of the prosecution.
(b) No, as his explanations were not given due consideration by the magistrate.
(c) Yes, as the case against him was well presented by the prosecution and the magistrate relying on the
evidence and witness has rightly held Rana to be guilty of murders.
(d) No, as Rana opted for violence as a resort to protect himself which has been submitted by him, a person
is permitted by law to use force as measure for private defence.
(Passage Q.101-Q.105): The Jharkhand High Court has reiterated that non-bailable warrant of arrest and
processes and order of attachment under the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) cannot be issued in a
mechanical manner, and the court has to record its satisfaction with regard to the pre requisites before
passing such an order.
In terms of Section 73 of CrPC, the court opined that a Magistrate has jurisdiction and power to issue
warrant of arrest, which can be directed against any escaped convict, proclaimed offender, or against any
person who is an accused of a non-bailable offence and is evading arrest. A person, against whom warrant
of arrest can be issued, must fall in any of the aforesaid three categories.
It observed that only being an accused of a non-bailable offence is not a ground to issue warrant of arrest,
as per the provisions of Section 73 of the Code. The said accused, who is wanted in a case involving a
non-bailable offence, must also be evading his arrest. The word ‘and’ used in Section 73(1) of the Code is
a conjunctive clause. Thus, both the conditions should simultaneously exist to enable the Court to issue a
warrant of arrest.
The Court has to record his satisfaction that the conditions laid down in the law for issuing warrant of arrest
has been fulfilled and the procedure has been complied with. The Court has to prima-facie be satisfied that
the person accused of committing a non-bailable offence is also evading his arrest. There has to be material
before the Court to reach at the aforesaid conclusion. Without recording such subjective satisfaction to the
effect that the accused is also evading his arrest, which should be on the basis of the materials placed
before the Court, warrant of arrest cannot be issued. This satisfaction can be derived from the police paper/
case diary.
Section 82 of CrPC prescribes the procedure for declaring a person as a proclaimed offender and
prescribes that only after the Court is satisfied that the person is absconding, or is concealing, and it is not
possible to arrest him, the Court should issue proclamation requiring the accused to appear on a specified
date on specified time not less than 30 days from the date of publication of such proclamation.

MOCK CLAT #09
101. A nationwide protest broke after people gathered on the roads against a law that not only propagates
discrimination but also does it explicitly. The protest was led by Jasmine Qureshi, a practicing advocate.
She gave a speech on how the law manifests propaganda against the minorities of the nation, giving
fundamentalist majority a supreme pedestal. Many FIRs were lodged against her for inciting violence, hate
speech and disturbance of public order. The police, upon a warrant by the local magistrate, arrested
Jasmine and kept her in station for all night. The next day she filed an application for unlawful arrest, on
the ground that the magistrate stated no reasons for his satisfaction to allow arrest and this is gross non-
compliance of law. Decide:
(a) The arrest was unlawful, as any magistrate issuing a warrant for arrest is required to state reasons as
to explain why he is satisfied that all the requisites in the law have been complied with and there is a
reason to allow the arrest.
(b) The arrest is lawful, as in haste, when a person is trying to escape arrest, some mere procedural
infirmity can be overlooked for the sake of preventing the accused from avoiding the administration of
justice.
(c) The arrest is lawful, as opposing a law promulgated by the state is cognizable offence called sedition,
therefore warrant is not a mandatory requirement and an infirmity in the same is irrelevant.
(d) The arrest is unlawful, as the act of consolidating the minority by opposing the tyrannical policies of the
government flows through the very fabric of our Constitution and cannot be punished by law.
102. Sunil was a big fan of Bollywood movies, and always copied the dialogues and actions of the leads.
Following one such movie, he proposed to a girl before the entire college. Sunil thought the girl's behaviour
to be an initial reluctance and shyness on the part of the girl and kept being persistent like a hero in a
movie. Sunil abducted the girl to marry her when she was on her way home from college, which is a non-
bailable offence. He was arrested upon a warrant by the magistrate, and kept in custody for several hours.
The defence lawyer made an application stating the arrest to be unlawful as the permission was given by
the local magistrate, even if it is a case of such a grave offence. The application was rejected and the
lawyer filed the appeal. The appeal states that in severe cases of cognizable offence, the same should
have been given by the Sessions judge. Should the appeal be allowed?
(a) The appeal shall be allowed, as a warrant being issued by a magistrate is gross non-compliance of law
that renders the entire exercise of arrest futile, and vitiates the trial if initiated by the state.
(b) The appeal shall not be allowed, as magistrates have jurisdiction to issue a warrant for arrest in their
jurisdictions, irrespective of the nature or gravity of the offence committed.
(c) The appeal shall be allowed as Sunil wanted to marry the girl and meant her no harm, the case did not
reflect urgency and thus all procedural requirements should be satisfied.
(d) The appeal shall not be allowed, as in the offence was a non-bailable one and Sunil had escaped from
the arrest so the warrant in such grave cases shall be issued by the nearest magistrate.
103. Megha Hatkar was a renowned social activist leading the fight for tribal rights in India for over two decades.
Known for her fierce nature, Megha called for a nationwide strike of all the tribals working in industry or
offices. The industrialists facing loss filed a complaint against Megha for disruption of public order and riots,
both non-bailable offences. She submitted herself in the police station. When presented before a magistrate
she was released on bail, on her assurance that she would be available whenever needed regarding the
case. She was again, later, arrested on a non-bailable arrest warrant, which also declared her a proclaimed
offender, despite her giving regular attendance in the local police station and not leaving the city without
prior approval. The warrant is challenged in the Sessions court. Is the arrest warrant valid?
(a) Arrest warrant is unlawful, as strike is a peaceful way of demonstration and it neither causes violence
nor disturbs the public order, it was only due to the loss being borne by industrialists that they lodged
an FIR against Megha.
(b) Arrest warrant is lawful, as she could have easily evaded the arrest in the guise of her assurance to
show up whenever needed in the police station or the court.
(c) Arrest warrant is unlawful, as the reason for the same is her being a proclaimed offender. Megha is
neither absconding nor is she impossible to arrest, as she gives regular attendance as required and
has not acted beyond the confines of law.

MOCK CLAT #09
(d) Arrest is lawful, as she is dictating an entire group of people across the nation to come on streets disrupt
the public order and to not cooperate with the government and its policies which is a serious offence
against the state, thus requiring her immediate arrest.
104. Kancha, a drug mafia, controlled the entire drug network of Mandwa. Vijay, the new Superintendent of
Mandwa, started preparation of nabbing all the criminals of the island. After getting all the criminals
convicted Kancha was last on his list. He raided his properties but could not find any evidence against him,
and the people in Mandwa were too scared to be witnesses. He received a complaint for a person being
assaulted, and the complainant identified Kancha as the principal accused. This being a non-bailable
offence magistrate listed no other reasons for Kancha’s arrest. Kancha was sent to custody by the
magistrate. Decide, whether the arrest of Kancha complied with all the prerequisites or not?
(a) Arrest of Kancha satisfies all requisites, as the offence committed is serious and non-bailable and thus
there is no requirement for any other requisites to be met.
(b) Arrest of Kancha does not satisfy all requisites, as issuing of warrant is not a magistrate’s discretion,
for every non-bailable offence a warrant shall be issued and not recording the reasons in such a case
would be gross non-compliance of legal provisions.
(c) Arrest of Kancha satisfies all requisites, as to arrest a hardened criminal like him failure to record
reasons for satisfaction that arrest is compulsorily required is just a mere irregularity that can be
complied with even after the arrest.
(d) Arrest of Kancha does not satisfy all requisites, as when a magistrate issues an arrest warrant recording
the reasons for his satisfaction that all requisites have been complied with, is a necessary criterion that
cannot be dispensed with.
105. Rick and Morty were known inter-galactic thugs and the security forces of many galaxies were trying to
chase them. They decided to rob a new planet this time and landed on Biggum. They looted a shop which
was a bailable offence on the planet. They fled and were arrested only after 5 years when they came again
to rob the planet. On questioning the reason for their arrest, they were told that they have been arrested
upon an arrest warrant for looting a shop, and evading their arrest. Only after thorough perusal of the law
of Biggum they realized that they cannot be arrested for a bailable offence and thus made an application
stating the arrest to be unlawful. Presuming all the above stated law in the comprehension applies on the
planet of Biggum. Decide:
(a) Rick and Morty could be arrested upon the warrant, as they are wanted inter-galactic thugs committing
offences all over the universe and so they could be nabbed without even a warrant.
(b) Rick and Morty could not be arrested upon the warrant, as they committed loot, a trivial offence, in
Biggum, which does not warrant arrest and thus issuing a warrant is unlawful.
(c) Rick and Morty could be arrested upon the warrant, as when they came to loot the planet, for the second
time, their previous offence became a non-bailable one and thus they can be arrested upon a warrant
by a magistrate.
(d) Rick and Morty could not be arrested upon the warrant, as an arrest warrant can be issued by a
magistrate for committing a non-bailable offence by the accused, and cannot be issued for bailable
offences like in the present case.

MOCK CLAT #09
(Passage Q.106-Q.110): The editor of The Oregonian has recently claimed that the Alameda Electric
Company, Portland, is mismanaged, citing as evidence the company's failure to slow production in
response to a recent rise in its inventory of finished products. It is doubtful whether an editor's sniping at
management can ever be anything other than counterproductive, but in this case, it is clearly not justified.
It is true that an increased inventory of finished products often indicates that production is outstripping
demand, but in Alameda's case it indicates no such thing. It is a well-known fact the clientele of the Alameda
Electric’s is on an ever expending streak, which doesn’t seem to slow down in the near future.
106. Which of the following if true will weaken the claim made by the editor?
(a) The increase in the inventory is the attributable to the infusion of the capital from a foreign investor.
(b) The increase in inventory is entirely attributable to products that have already been assigned to orders
received from customers.
(c) The increase in the inventory is attributable to the lack of managerial capacity of its CEO
(d) The increase in the inventory leads the people to believe that the company is doing good.
107. What assumption has been made by the author when he states, “It is doubtful whether an editor's sniping
at management can ever be anything other than counterproductive”?
(a) The editor does not have the inside-out knowledge of the day to day working of the company.
(b) The editor does not know anything about the company.
(c) The author has commented this because it happened all the time in the market.
(d) The editor’s sole concern is to make good reputation on his editorial.
108. The editor claims that the company is mismanaged; the basis of his claim is, “the company's failure to slow
production in response to a recent rise in its inventory of finished products”. What assumption has the editor
made to reach the conclusion?
(a) Rising size of the inventory of the finished products means the market value of the company is not
good.
(b) Rising size of inventory of finished product means that the production has outstripped the demand.
(c) Rising size of the inventory of finished product is the prove of the fact that the management is not in
control.
(d) Rising of the inventory of finished product is not good for any company.
109. The editor’s claim that, “the company is mismanaged” –

(a) Forms the premise of his statement that the production has not slowed even in the event of rise of
inventory of finished product.
(b) Forms the conclusion for his statement that the production has not slowed even in the event of rise of
inventory of finished product offers a clarification on his proof.
(c) It’s just the generalized part of his statement.
(d) It’s an assumption to the fact that the production has not slowed even in the event of rise of inventory
of finished product.
.
110. Which of the following if true will strengthen the editor’s claim?
(a) The increase in inventory is entirely attributable to products that have already been assigned to orders
received from customers.
(b) The increase in the inventory is attributable to the lack skilled workers.
(c) The increase in the inventory leads the people to believe that the company is doing good.
(d) The increase in inventory is entirely attributable to company’s over-spending in production at the time
there is huge budget cuts in marketing and promotions.

MOCK CLAT #09
(Passage Q.111-Q.114): Ronak- War and peace are mutually exclusive. Peace is “the absence of war.” In
other words, peace has been defined “negatively,” almost always in the context of inter-state political
violence. This binary opposition between peace and war entails the further belief that peace and war are
mutually exclusive—e.g. nations are either “at peace” or “at war”—and that there is no continuum between
war and peace. It also implies that nations (at least from the 17th century on) and empires (through the end
of World War I) have been the major peacemakers and belligerents. Therefore, a nation cannot be
preparing for both war and peace simultaneously.
Ankit- But isn’t the United State and the Russia is precisely doing that? They are spending vast amounts
of money on war research and arms while at the same time they are negotiating trade agreements and
nuclear arms treaties that are designed to secure peace. China in its official statement said that although
we are building a large amount of arms and weapons but we do not want war. Although countries are
maintaining a shaky peaceful coexistence, they are preparing for both war and peace simultaneously.
111. Which one of the following statements is true?

(a) Ankit is preferring peace over war.
(b) According Ronak war and peace can exist mutually.
(c) United State is preparing nuclear weapons to attack other countries.
(d) There are nuclear treaties between nations to secure peace in the world.
112. Which of the following is a hidden assumption that has been made by Ankit in his arguments?
(a) Spending money on war research and arms means preparation for war and not preparation for self-
defense.
(b) United States is the most powerful country in the country.
(c) There is an animosity between United States and Russia.
113. Which one of the following can be a suitable conclusion for Ankit’s arguments?
(a) Both United States and Russia are ready to attack any other nation any time.
(b) Both Russia and United States wants peace in the world, but at the same time they are ready to go at
war with other nations.
(c) Both Russia and United States does not want peace in the world.
(d) Both Russia and United States are indulged in nuclear fight with each other.
114. In order to refute Ronak’s conclusion, Ankit:

(a) Demonstrate that a nation can be at war and at peace at the same time.
(b) Points out that there are several different meanings to the words “war” and “peace”.
(c) Uses a different meaning for the term “simultaneously” than Ronak does.
(d) Shows that preparing for war and preparing for peace are not mutually exclusive.
(Passage Q.115-Q.119): Social customs and laws concerning drinking alcohol in public vary significantly
around the world. "Public" in this context refers to outdoor spaces such as roads, walkways or parks, or in
a moving vehicle. Drinking in bars, restaurants, stadiums, and other such establishments, for example, is
not generally considered to be "in public" even though those establishments are open to the general public.
In some countries, such as India and Sri Lanka, as well as in larger regions, such as the Muslim world,
public drinking is almost universally condemned or outlawed, while in other countries, such as Portugal,
Spain, Germany, the United Kingdom, New Zealand, Japan and China, public drinking and public
intoxication is socially acceptable, although may not be entirely legal.
The government of India should enact a bill that would prohibit the sale and consumption of alcohol on
commuter trains. Recently, the state, exercising its legitimate authority, passed a law to protect the health
of commuters by prohibiting smoking on the commuter line. When intoxicated riders get off the train, get in
their cars, and drive, the public is exposed to at least as much danger as are nonsmoking rail passengers
who are forced to inhale cigarette smoke.

MOCK CLAT #09
115. Which of the following statements is consistent with the author’s main idea as has been enumerated in the
2nd paragraph of the passage?
(a) Sale and consumption of alcohol on commuter trains are as dangerous as smoking on the commuter
train.
(b) The government should enact a bill that would prohibit the sale and consumption of alcohol on
commuter trains.
(c) An intoxicated rider causes accidents on the roads.
(d) Consumption of alcohol is dangerous to the health of the people.
116. The author’s statement that “the government should enact a bill that would prohibit the sale and
consumption of alcohol on commuter trains”.
(a) Forms the conclusion of the author’s idea that the State passed a law to protect the health of commuters
by prohibiting smoking on the commuter line.
(b) Forms the conclusion of the author’s idea that consumption of the alcohol is dangerous for health.
(c) Forms the premise of the author’s idea that consumption of alcohol in train is as dangerous as smoking
in train.
(d) Forms the premise of the author’s idea that consumption of alcohol is dangerous for health.
117. Which of the following quotations would most likely to weaken the main idea of the author in the IInd
paragraph of the passage?
(a) Intoxicated riders when they get off the train, then they do not travel by their own vehicle, but by public
transport.
(b) Nonsmokers are anyhow exposed to deadly smoke.
(c) Law to prohibit the smoking on the commuter line was not successful.
118. In arguing that alcohol consumption on commuter trains should be banned, the author relies on-
(a) The fact that drinking alcohol is dangerous to one’s health.
(b) The principle that people need to be protected from their own actions.
(c) The use of emotionally charged descriptions of smoking and drinking alcohol.
(d) A comparison between the effects of smoking and the effects of drinking alcohol.
119. The statement “Right to drink in public is a social problem that causes over-consumption and violence.” is
(a) Probably true. (b) Definitely true. (c) Probably false. (d) Definitely false.
(Passage Q.120-Q.124): Yesterday, there was a rather interesting news article on Bloomberg Quint. It
read — China’s purchases of iron ore from India rocketed to an eight-year high in the first half of 2020,
fueled by supply shocks at major producers and record steel output at the world’s largest steelmaker.
Shipments of the raw material from India more than doubled to 20 million tons in the six months through
June from a year earlier, according to China’s customs data. It was also the highest since the South Asian
country shipped out 27.8 million tons in the first half of 2012.
Now, parts of this argument do make sense, but ideally, they’d be looking at Australia or Brazil to fill the
supply void. But natural calamities have disrupted that equation. Meaning, Chinese steelmakers have had
to look elsewhere. And it seems they have turned to India.
But then this does not explain everything. After all, it’s not like demand for steel is skyrocketing at the
moment. Auto manufacturers are crippled. Real Estate isn’t exactly booming either. Construction activity is
yet to reach top gear.
We need to dig in further.
Most steel plants in China still use the blast furnace — a large structure that takes in hot air and converts
iron ore into molten iron under extremely high temperatures. The molten iron has to be purified and shaped
into cuboids before you can carve steel parts out of it. But the blast furnace is a key component of any
integrated steel-making plant.
However, the whole arrangement is a bit peculiar since you don’t really turn off a blast furnace unless
you’re shutting it down for good. You have to keep it running. If you don’t, the blast furnace cools down and
the iron and slag that collect at the bottom turn into a solid mass.

MOCK CLAT #09
Once this happens it’s extremely difficult to re-melt all of this stuff and start the furnace once again. In the
meantime, the steel-making process comes to a grinding halt. The entire plant has to cease operations.
So even if demand for steel does not necessarily keep pace with production numbers, manufacturers are
still compelled to produce steel. And this brings us back to the India equation.
India mainly exports lower grade iron ore (~58% iron content). They could export higher-quality ore, but
that would attract a 30% duty and it would inevitably push prices higher. Chinese steelmakers import the
lower grade iron from India…It’s a perplexing way of doing business but one that’s still pretty cost-effective.
120. Based on the argument, identify the correct description of the following statement.
Statement: A dam rupture in Brazil hit the country's biggest mining company and the tropical cyclone
Veronica affected production in Australia.
(a) Conclusion statement (b) Strengthening Statement
(c) Inference statement (d) None of the above
121. What we can say about the following statement? “It makes no economic sense to keep producing large
amounts of steel at a time when buyers are hard to come by.
(a) Definitely true (b) Definitely false
(c) Probably true (d) Nothing can be said
122. Which of the following is/are a possible reason(s) for India exporting lower grade iron?
(a) Foreign manufacturers won’t pay the high premium associated with high grade iron. So most domestic
exporters simply stick to low-grade iron.
(b) Chinese steel mills, desperately trying to keep costs low, have resorted to importing large quantities of
cheap iron ore from India.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
123. Which of the following, if true, explain why the author says that “part of this argument do make sense”?
(a) China is the world’s largest steelmaker. They are responsible for half of the global steel output and they
need a lot of iron ore to keep meeting their lofty production targets.
(b) Considering the Chinese economy is slowly getting back up to speed, it makes sense to beef up the
country’s iron ore stockpile right now.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
124. What we can say about the following statement? “When the effects of the pandemic slowly start waning,
Chinese steelmakers will finally get rid of all this excess stockpile they've been hoarding so far.”
(a) Definitely true (b) Definitely false (c) Probably true (d) Nothing can be said
125. Passage: Storing energy is one of the biggest obstacles to the widespread adoption of alternative sources
of power. Batteries can be bulky and slow to charge. Hydrogen, which can be made electrolytically from
water and used to power fuel cells, is difficult to handle. But there may be an alternative: magnesium. As
school chemistry lessons show, metallic magnesium is highly reactive and stores a lot of energy. Even a
small amount of magnesium ribbon burns in a flame with a satisfying white heat. Researchers are now
devising ways to extract energy from magnesium in a more controlled fashion.
In the argument given, the two boldfaced portions play which of the following roles?
(a) The first states the problem that the argument as a whole poses; the second provides solution to the
problem stated in the argument.
(b) The first states the problem that the argument as a whole poses; the second states the conclusion of
the argument as a whole.
(c) The first is evidence that has been used to magnify a problem that the argument as a whole poses; the
second provides information to undermine the force of that evidence.
(d) The first states the problem that exists in the solution to the problem the passage as a whole poses;
the second provides solution to the problem stated in the argument.

MOCK CLAT #09
126. Passage: Cycle Studio, Bhopal claims to provide happiness through fitness by selling best bicycles. It
recently expanded business by following aggressive policies. However, it is facing problems in maintaining
delivery records. The owner is planning to install Spyder, a new software application to better keep record
of the deliveries. The new software will run the tracking program four times faster than the present software.
Which of the following casts most doubt that Spyder should be purchased?
(a) The new program will not run four times, but five times faster than the present software
(b) The sales of Cycle Studio has been increasing by a phenomenal 10 to 15 percent every fortnight for
the past few months.
(c) Cycle Studio’s computer system cannot run the software and cannot be updated.
(d) There are not many software applications which can serve the purpose of Cycle Studio.
.
(Passage Q.127-Q.132): The foundations of the difficulty had been laid in the reign of King James. In many
matters he suffered himself to be a puppet in the hands of the profligates who surrounded him, he had yet
a certain amount of cleverness, and an obstinacy which nothing could overcome. He brought with him from
Scotland an overweening opinion of the power and dignity of his position as a king. He believed implicitly
in the divine right of Kings to do just as they chose, and in all things, secular and ecclesiastical, to impose
their will upon their subjects. The people saw with indignation and amazement the royal power becoming
infinitely greater and more extended than anything to which Henry VIII or even Elizabeth had laid claim.
Thus when at King James' death King Charles ascended the throne, he inherited a legacy of trouble.
Unfortunately, he had also inherited his father's counselors. The conflicts which had continued throughout
the reign of his father between king and Parliament speedily broke out afresh. The Commons refused to
grant supplies, unless the king granted rights and privileges which he deemed alike derogatory and
dangerous. The shifty foreign policy of England was continued, and soon the breach was as wide as it had
been during the previous reign.
After several Parliaments had been called and dissolved, some gaining advantage from the necessities of
the king, others meeting only to separate after discussions which embittered the already existing relations,
for ten years the king dispensed with a Parliament. So far the errors had been entirely upon the side of the
king. The demands of the Commons had been justified by precedent and constitutional rule. The doings of
the king were in equal opposition to these. When at last the necessity of the situation compelled Charles
to summon a Parliament, he was met by them in a spirit of absolute defiance. The attitude thus assumed
by Parliament drove from their ranks a great many of the most intelligent and enlightened of those who had
formerly sided with them in their contest against the king. Thus there were on both sides earnest and
conscientious men who grieved deeply at being forced to draw swords in such a quarrel, and who felt that
their choice of sides was difficult in the extreme.
The above is but a brief sketch of the circumstances which led the Cavaliers and Puritans of England to
arm themselves for civil war.
127. Why does the author say “The above is but a brief sketch….”
(a) to suggest that there was a rather longer and more complicated history behind the origin of civil war in
England.
(b) to imply that he has already described the most important reasons that led to the civil war in England.
(c) to conclude that Cavliers and Puritans were responsible for the civil war in England.
(d) to suggest that the lines that follow this line will further describe the other circumstances that led to the
civil war in England.
128. Which of the following has not been mentioned as a flaw in King James?
(a) he despised the idea of the Commons getting rights and privileges.
(b) he often relied on others to make crucial decisions for him.
(c) he combined his cleverness and obstinacy for only the wrong decisions.
(d) he believed the king not just had authority over governance but also over religion.
129. The author is likely to agree with which of the following?

(a) King James, not King Charles, was responsible for the civil war.
(b) In the conflict of King Charles with the Commons, King Charles was at fault.

MOCK CLAT #09
(c) King James was as much power hungry as Queen Elizabeth or King Henry VIII before him.
(d) King James lost public support because he belonged to Scotland.
130. The author, GA Henry, does not mention which of the following as the cause of the civil war in England?
(a) King Charles disrespected the Parliament by avoiding a session for a decade.
(b) The parliament showed unnecessary defiance towards the authority of King Charles.
(c) King Charles changed the foreign policy, which upset his loyal supporters.
(d) The Commons were denied of their lawful privileges and rights.
131. Why does the author mention that King James was from Scotland?
(a) to imply that he had ruled with the same principles while he was the King of Scotland.
(b) to suggest that Scots had orthodox views on a King's rights and authority.
(c) to hint that he wanted to teach a lesson to England for being prejudiced against Scotland.
(d) to merely mention his place of birth.

(a) the stubbornness of King Charles was the only reason for the civil war in England.
(b) the commons were wrong in asking for privileges and rights.
(c) there were many participants during the civil war who did not want the war at all.
(d) King Charles had no intelligent men by his side during the civil war.
Directions (Q.133-Q.135): Answer the questions based on the following information.

Seven friends L, J, K, T, R, H and V are working in three different organizations X, Y and Z with at least
two persons in each organization. Each one of them is in a different department - Operations, HR,
Marketing, Research, Design, Accounts and Administration not necessarily in the same order.
J works in operations in organization Y. H works in Design in organization X only with L. Those who work
in HR and Administration work in the same organization K works in organization Z but does not work in
Research department. V works in Administration for organization Y. The one who works in Accounts works
in organization X. T works in organization Y.
133. Who works in HR?

(a) K (b) T (c) R (d) J
134. Which of the following combinations is correct?

(a) Z-R-HR (b) Y-K-Marketing (c) X-L-Administration(d) None of these
135. Three persons work in which organization?

(a) Y (b) Z (c) X (d) Y or Z
Directions (Q.136 and Q.137): In each of the following questions, statements are given followed by
conclusions. You have to consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and decide which of the following conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts. Select the conclusion/s that
logically follow/s the given statements.
136. Statements: All pens are pencils. All pencils are glasses. No glass is a sharpener. All sharpeners are
books.
Conclusion:
I. Some glasses are pens.
II. Some pencils are glasses.
III. No sharpener is a pen.
IV. No pencil is a book.
(a) Only II and IV follow (b) Only I, III and IV follow
(c) Either II or IV follows (d) I, II and III follow

MOCK CLAT #09
137. Statements: All bottles are fluids. All trains are fluids. Some compartments are trains. Some tracks are
fluids.
Conclusion:
I. Some bottles are compartments.
II. All compartments are fluids.
III. Some tracks are bottles.
IV. No bottle is compartment.
(a) None follows (b) Only II follows.
(c) Only II and either I or IV follow. (d) Only either I or IV follows.
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #09
Directions (Q.138-Q.140): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
A company was established on January 1, 2008 with 3, 4, 5 and 6 employees in the Finance, HR, Marketing
and Operations departments respectively to start with. No employee left or joined the company in the first
three months of the year 2008. In the next four years, the company recruited one person in each of the four
departments. All these new persons, who joined the company subsequently over the years, were 20 years
old at the time of their joining the company. All of them joined the company on April 1. During these four
years, one employee aged 55 retired from the company. The following diagram gives the department wise
average age (in terms of number of completed years) of employees as on April 1 of 2008,2009, 2010 and
2011.
50
46.5 47.5
44.33 45.5 45.2
44
45 42.8
41 40 41
39 40 40
38 39
40
40
35
30
25
20
15
10
0
FINANCE HR MARKETING OPERATIONS
2008 2009 2010 2011

138. Naveen and Deepak, two employees in the finance department, who had been with the company since its
inception, share a birthday which falls on 20th November. One was born in 1960 and the other one in 1963.
On April 1, 2013, what would be the age of the third person, who has been in the same department since
inception?
(a) 42 (b) 45 (c) 46 (d) 47
139. In which year did the new employee join the marketing department?
(a) 2008 (b) 2009 (c) 2010 (d) 2011
140. What was the age of the new employee, who joined the operations department, as on April 1, 2011 ?
(a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 22 (d) 23
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #09
Directions (Q.141–Q.145): A total of x students appeared in a class test consisting of three papers, viz
Physics, Chemistry and Maths. The following Venn diagram shows the number of students who passed
these three papers. None of the students failed in all the three papers together. Answer the given questions
based on this diagram.
141. How many students are there who passed in Chemistry and Maths but failed in Physics?
𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥
(a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 20 (d) 5
142. What is the difference between the number of students who passed in Chemistry and the number of
students who passed in Physics? (The number of students who passed in all the three papers is 15.)
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 20
143. How many students are there who passed in exactly one paper, if the number of students who passed in
exactly two papers is 110.
(a) 160 (b) 165 (c) 170 (d) 175
144. The number of students who passed in at least two papers is what percentage of the total number of
students?
2
(a) 33.3% (b) 413% (c) 44% (d) 47%
145. The number of students who passed in only Maths is what percentage more than the number of students
who passed in all the three papers?
(a) 20% (b) 80% (c) 120% (d) 400%
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #09
Direction: (Q.146-Q.150): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Chart showing schedule of train from Anant Vihar to Mughal Sarai and number of passengers boarding at
each station.
No. of passengers
Station Arrival Departure Halt Time(in Distance travelled
boarding the train at
Name Time Time minutes) from origin (in km)
each station
Anant
Start 07 : 30 - 0 400
Vihar
Aligarh 09 : 19 09 : 21 2 min 125 251
Kanpur 13 : 45 13 : 55 10 min 434 339
Allahabad 16 : 45 16 : 55 10 min 628 203
Mughal
19 : 45 End - 782 None
sarai
146. Distance between which two station is third lowest?

(a) Anant Vihar – Aligarh (b) Aligarh – Kanpur
(c) Kanpur – Allahabad (d) Allahabad – Mughal Sarai
147. What is the approximate average speed of train between Kanpur and Allahabad?
(a) 63 kmph (b) 65 kmph (c) 68 kmph (d) 70 kmph
148. How much time does the train takes to reach Kanpur after departing from Aligarh?
(a) 4 hour 26 minutes (b) 4 hour 24 minutes
(c) 4 hour 36 minutes (d) 4 hour 34 minutes
149. If out of 400 passengers who boarded the train from Anant Vihar, 200 passengers got down at Aligarh.
Then find the ratio between the number of passengers who travelled between Aligarh- Kanpur and the
number of passengers who boarded the train from Allahabad.
(a) 400:203 (b) 251:203 (c) 651:203 (d) 451:203
150. If the halt time of the train at Aligarh is increased by 28 minutes and the halt time at Kanpur is decreased
by 5 minutes. At what time will the train reach Mughal Sarai?
(a) 20:00 (b) 20:08 (c) 20:13 (d) 19:53
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #09
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #10

Candidate Name : _________________
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with
a BALL PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and
in the spaces provided for.
prosecution.
Centre/Hall.
MOCK CLAT #10
(Passage Q.1-Q.5): There are certain moments in history created by unique circumstances that have
to be seized upfront. Such moments, if utilised properly, provide huge potential for progress, harmony
and justice. But if such moments are lost, the unique opportunities they could have provided rarely
return, leaving behind a trail of deep regret for missing out on the possibilities of great achievements for
the betterment of humanity.
Such a moment in India’s history came in when three of the country’s bravest – Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev
Thapar and Shivaram Rajguru – were sentenced to death by the highly arbitrary, contrived and
manipulated justice system of the colonial regime. Violations of the principles of justice during the course
of the trial were widely recognised, such that there was even a campaign in Britain to take back the
death sentence. In India, people across the country were vociferous in their demand for the death
sentence to be withdrawn.
This was just the right time for the Congress-led mainstream freedom movement to launch a huge
national level campaign demanding the death sentence be taken back, perhaps going so far as to say
that a prison sentence would be accepted.
In early 1931, the nation was ready for such a mass movement. It is well kn own that the Bhagat Singh
Appeal Committees had been set up in all districts of Punjab and people, including students, had come
out in huge numbers on the streets, braving police attacks, to demand the commutation of Bhagat Singh,
Sukhdev and Rajguru’s death sentences. What may not be known is that at the other end of the country,
the Tamil Nadu Congress Committee had insisted that commuting this death sentence was an essential
condition for peace.
While Sukhdev and Rajguru were extremely brave and capable persons, Bhagat Singh should
be singled out as someone who in due course would have emerged as a stalwart of the global socialist
movement, in addition to his significant national role. Even a cursory look at his achievements in his
young life is enough to convince anyone of the man’s potential.
The great sacrifices that Bhagat Singh and his close colleagues like Jatindra Nath Das made in jail,
including fasting for over 60 days and enduring torture and beatings, inspired a great number of people
to join and support the freedom movement. Several thousand people gathered at various places to pay
homage to Das when he died after a 63-day fast. Given this nation-wide sentiment, it is safe to assume
that had a national movement been launched seeking the withdrawal of the death sentences, many
people would have been inspired to join the larger freedom movement.
1. In the context of the passage, which of the following is the lost opportunity which the author is talking
about in the first paragraph?
(a) The greater role that Bhagat Singh and his Comrades could have played if they were the part of the
Indian National Congress.
(b) The mass campaign which the Congress could have led to commute Bhagat Singh and his
Comrades death sentence.
(c) The role which the leaders such as Subhash Chandra Bose and Ganesh Shankar Vidyarthi could
have played if the Congress had allowed them.
(d) The greater role which the Gandhi could played in getting us early freedom from the British.

(a) Jatindra Nath Das died following the harsh beating that he received in the British jail.
(b) Bhagat Singh Appeal Committees had been set up in all districts of Punjab.
(c) Tamil Nadu Congress Committee had insisted that commuting the death sentence of Bhagat S ingh
is only condition for peace.
(d) Such demand as envisaged by the author would have been within the principles of Gandhi’s non -
violence.

MOCK CLAT #10
3. Which of the following reason is given by the author to convince that a movement should have been
launched with immediate aim of saving their lives?
(a) That a large number of Children and Women felt emotionally attached to Bhagat Singh.
(b) That the Popularity of Bhagat Singh was far more than any other leader of the world as protest were
happening for him even in Britain.
(c) That Bhagat Singh’s achievement at such a young age was enough to convince that he was soon
to be a global socialist leader.
4. Which of the following terms from the passage means ‘loud and vehement opinions’?
(a) Stalwart (b) Vociferous (c) Defiance (d) Contrived
5. The word ‘launch’ is used in bold in the above passage. Choose the correct part of the speech from the
following.
(a) Adverb (b) Adjective (c) Verb (d) Pronoun
(Passage Q.6-Q.9): Recently I’ve begun to question the bond my mother and I share. We are poles
apart, by personality and experience. She married at 20, and a year later, I “forced myself out” (her
words, not mine.) My only focus at that age was to try everything – good or bad – that life could offer.
By 25, she was saddled with two colicky children; the 25-year-old me was living alone, working as a
bartender, getting sick on Patron shots, psychedelics, and backpacking across Europe. Despite these
differences, we’ve always maintained a wholesome, jocular relationship.
A close member of the family physically assaulted me recently. When my mother found out, her first
words were: sounds like someone finally gave it back to you. I stood in front of her with bruises across
my body, and scratches on my neck, still gasping for air from my attacker’s petrifying chokehold and my
own rage at being physically attacked.
In that moment this woman – whom I’d shared countless jokes with and supported every day of my life
without question – suddenly became a stranger. Her failure to stand by me will forever hurt harder than
my assailant’s punches. Yet, eventually, I will let her back in –– she’s my mother, after all.
Serendipitously, What We Carry, Maya Shahbag Lang’s memoir about her relationship with her
psychiatrist mother came to me at the same time.
The book begins with a conversation between mother and daughter. “Mayudi, I want to tell you a story,”
says Lang’s mother. She proceeds to tell her depressed daughter a story of a woman crossing a river
with a toddler in tow – a son. This woman is holding the baby in her arms, desperate to keep her head
above water. Eventually, the mother is faced with a choice any parent would consider a nightmare:
either she can save her baby boy or her own life.
This is a parable for motherhood – a lifelong struggle between a woman’s wellbeing and desires, and
the safety and security of her child(ren). As a beginning, this is beautiful in its simplicity, and, for the
same reason, immensely moving.
We live in a society where mothers are regularly shamed for not doing enough for their offspring.
Mothers, not fathers, are expected to give up worldly pleasures for an unborn baby’s health. Becoming
pregnant is almost always the beginning of the end of a woman’s career. Abortion is considered
shameful – even in India, where it has been legal for decades. The game is rigged, and mothers cannot
win. Too much care and they’re spoiling the child; pursue careers, passions and desires with baby in
tow, and people will brand you the “bad mom.”
6. Which of the following does the word ‘Serendipitously’ mean?

(a) When someone intentionally discovers something.
(b) When someone accidently finds something.
(c) When some accepts something unwillingly.
(d) When someone tries to resist the knowledge of something.

MOCK CLAT #10
7. What does the author mean when she says that the game is rigged?
(a) That her mother was not happy with her and condemned her for her actions irrespective of
consequences.
(b) That it is fixed that the women has to save the child at the cost of herself.
(c) That a woman has no choice and will be condemned for her action irrespective of consequences.
(d) All of the above are the examples of a rigged game.
8. “In that moment this woman – whom I’d shared countless jokes with and supported every day of my life
without question – suddenly became a stranger.” Read the sentence carefully and choose the correct
tone of the author?
(a) Condescending (b) Melancholic (c) Whimsical (d) Idyllic
9. What is the central theme of the passage?

(a) The passage is a memoir of the author.
(b) The passage revolves around the relation of mother-daughter.
(c) The passage revolves around motherhood.
(d) The passage is commentary on position of women.
(Passage Q.10-Q.14): Over 37 million Myanmar citizens, including 5 million first-time voters, will go to
the polls on November 8. The election represents a litmus test for the popularity of National League for
Democracy leader Aung San Suu Kyi, who was placed under a house arrest by the military for about 15
years intermittently between 1989 and 2010.
Much is at stake in this election, but the role of the military still looms large in Myanmar politics. The
constitutional change needed to further democratise Myanmar is impossible without the military’s
consent, so achieving major political transformation through the election alone seems unlikely.
In 2011, after about five decades of military rule, the military nominally handed power to the government
of President Thein Sein and his Union Solidarity and Development Party. Soon after, in the 2015
election, Suu Kyi’s National League for Democracy party won a landslide victory. She is now Myanmar’s
incumbent state counsellor (equivalent to prime minister) but her international standing has taken a hit
in recent years.
Critics accuse her of allowing widespread abuse of minority Rohingyas. Many Rohingya villages were
burned down during a military crackdown in 2016 and 2017. Meanwhile, armed conflicts between ethnic
armed organisations and the military continue, especially in the Rakhine state and the northern
borderlands, and Myanmar’s transition to democracy is faltering.
The election campaign will bring to light complex issues around Myanmar’s rich ethnic diversity: the
continuation of armed conflict, demand from ethnic minorities for federalism, devolution of state power
and better economic opportunities. Despite the National League for Democracy’s promise of greater
freedom and civil liberties, Suu Kyi’s government has prosecuted more journalists, social media users
and human rights activists than the previous government. Myanmar’s economic and infrastructure
development has been limited and, as my research argues, has been manipulated for political gain by
powerful interest groups. This has helped radicalise a section of Buddhist extremists. The middle class
and rural poor have not benefited greatly from development policies. More than 24% of people still live
below the national poverty line.
Deep reforms for a federal system and equitable economic development policies are needed to bring
real progress toward peace between ethnic armed groups and the government. The way land
ownership and natural resources are managed would need to be overhauled. Such reforms, however,
are constrained by provisions in Myanmar’s constitution that ensure state power is shared with the
military. Constitution allows military to occupy 25% of parliamentary seats. Only serving military officers
can lead three most powerful ministries – defence, home affairs and border affairs. This makes the
military a very powerful political institution, which effectively controls the peace process and the direction
of the transition.
10. Why does it seems implausible to achieve a major constitutional change to further democratise
Myanmar by achieving major political transformation?
(a) Because the change is not possible without Aung San Suu Kyi and her is declining.

MOCK CLAT #10
(b) Because the change is not possible without a special majority in the parliament.
(c) Because the change is not possible without the military’s consent.
(d) Because the opposition party is strong and does not want to further democratise Myanmar.
11. Why has the international standing of Aung San Suu Kyi taking hit?
(a) Her international standing has taking hit due to the fact that in Myanmar women are seen as inferior
than men.
(b) Her international standing has taken hit due to allegations of allows atrocities against the Rohingyas.
(c) Her international standing has taken hit due not allowing the immigrants into Myanmar.
(d) Her international standing has taken hit due her smooth and favouring behaviour towards
Rohingyas.
12. Which of the following issues will not be brought-forth by the election?
(a) The continuation of the armed conflict.
(b) Devolution of State Powers
(c) Better Economic opportunities.
(d) The domination of the Military Might.
13. Which of the following is needed to greater peace and progress in the Myanmar:
I. Equitable Economic development.
II. Reforms in federal structure.
III. The Overhaul in the role of Military in Politics.
(a) Only I (b) Only II and III (c) Only I and II (d) All of the above.
14. In the underlined line, the articles have been removed. In how many places will the definite article ‘the’
should be present, which would not alter the meaning of the statement?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
(Passage Q.15-Q.19): Social historian Daniel Boorstin, writing in the 1960s, called advertising “the most
characteristic and remunerative form of American literature”. Writing around the same time, Marshall
McLuhan ranked advertising among the 20th century’s greatest art forms.
As it has played out, neither man was exaggerating. The ‘persuasion industry’ is well entrenched today,
and it is hardly surprising that the 45-second commercial created by jewellery brand Tanishq should have
taken up so much mind space these past few weeks.
We are no strangers to religious controversy nor has fanaticism been the preserve of any one community.
From the exile of M.F. Husain to the blacklisting of Taslima Nasreen to regular book burnings and film bans,
the fanatics excel at outrage. But this time they outdid themselves. The ad that was viciously trolled showed
a Muslim mother-in-law celebrating her Hindu daughter-in-law’s pregnancy with Hindu rituals. In other
words, they were offended not by intolerance but by tolerance.
Through the 20th century, as advertising took upon itself the role of shaping the aspirations and desires of
entire societies, its function expanded vastly beyond the mere selling of products to selling a way of life.
The streaming images — beautiful woman, muscular man, uniformed chauffeur — point not just to a car
but to mindsets and life choices that can make that car come true. That’s why Roland Barthes called
advertising supreme mythmaker of our age and ads closest modern approximation to ancient
myths. When Nike uses Serena Williams to relate the story of women in sports, it isn’t just selling sports
shoes, it is selling the myth of women’s empowerment — the social condition that lets women play sports
and buy sports shoes.
By ‘selling’ at this subliminal level, advertising insinuates itself into everyday customs and practices, and
becomes popular culture. It defines social constructs, such as ‘modernity’ or ‘success’ — ‘modern’ men
load washing machines; ‘successful’ women use food delivery apps. And via these definitions, advertising
is able to construct new social mores — where men aren’t ridiculed for washing clothes, nor women for not
MOCK CLAT #10
cooking. The motive might be commercial, but that advertising is constantly moulding and reflecting society
is indubitable.
15. What is the idea that the author is trying to convey through this passage?
(a) That how fanatics can create an outrage over trivial issues.
(b) That how modern advertisement industry is lucrative for the producers & the sellers.
(c) That how the advertisement industry is responsible for shaping the mindset of the people in today’s
world.
(d) That how the advertisements are promoting gender equality.
16. What is the antonym of the word ‘subliminal’?

(a) Subconscious (b) Unconscious (c) Hidden (d) Explicit
17. What is the meaning of the word ‘indubitable’?

(a) Unquestionable (b) Compelling (c) Emphatic (d) Patent

(a) That the outrage caused by the fans on the Tanishq advertisement was unnecessary.
(b) That the advertisement industry in the modern times is shaping the minds of individuals. It is breaking
all the pre conceived notions that exist in the society. The problem, however, lies with intolerance of
the fan base.
(c) That the advertisement industry is promoting a modern outlook in the society.
(d) That advertisement industry is positively effecting societal issues like women empowerment.
19. In the bold sentence the articles have been removed. In how many places will the definite article ‘the’ should
be present, so as to not alter the meaning of the sentence?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
(Passage Q.20-Q.24): Abracadabra! In the second century AD, Serenus Sammonicus, a sage and
physician to the Roman emperor, wrote in Liber Medicinalis that wearing an amulet of parched paper with
a triangular encryption of this word at the top and just an ‘A’ at the bottom tip would drive away lethal
diseases. It was widely practised to ward off malaria at that time. Even during the Great Plague of the 17th
century, many Londoners pasted the amulet on their doorways to ward off evil and illnesses. With
improvements in hygiene and scientific understanding, abracadabra got relegated from its supposed role
in preventing diseases to a loud utterance by magicians while pulling out rabbits from hats.
The relentless march of COVID-19, despite significant knowledge about the mode of its spread, makes
one wonder whether the amulet of yore has to be revisited. Proper use of a simple cloth mask that covers
the nose and mouth, along with physical distancing, is the most effective means to stall the spread of the
virus. Instead, the mask is often worn round the neck, like a necklace. The reasons for such a strange
adornment varies from excuses such as “can’t breathe” to reassurances such as “nothing will happen and
don’t be scared”. Psychiatrists have an explanation for this behaviour — denial.
In 1969, Elizabeth Ross, a Swiss-American psychiatrist, described five stages of response to the stress of
grief — denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance, or DABDA. While dealing with heart attacks,
doctors try to navigate quickly from the first stage of denial to the fifth of acceptance and get an “informed
consent” to start treatment. Staying far too long in denial with statements like “Doctor, are you sure?” and
“No, it can’t be, let’s wait for more relatives to come” will cause more damage to heart muscles with each
minute of delay. Most doctors are sensitive to the DABDA responses, while some patients wish for a quick
magical solution, akin to abracadabra.
Extrapolating the stage of denial to the current pandemic, non-compliance with effective measures of
prevention such as masking and social distancing is letting the virus spread far and wide. The high recovery
rate is reassuring, but the virus wreaks havoc on the elderly and those with co-morbidities. The pandemic
has strained healthcare facilities and prevented appropriate treatment of other illnesses.
MOCK CLAT #10
While breaking bad news, the doctor is able to communicate effectively when the patient reaches the stage
of acceptance. Applying the same coping mechanism to the COVID-19 pandemic, the sooner we accept
the proven preventive measures and prepare for the “new normal”, the better it is for everyone. It is high
time we all said, “exit abracadabra”, and moved forward collectively from “denial” to “acceptance”.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/open-page/only-mask-no-magic/article32820019.ece

(a) That ‘Abracadabra’ amulet can cure lethal diseases.
(b) That if the patient and his relatives go through all the DABDA stages, he/she will be healthy in no time.
(c) That Covid-19 virus can be tackled by wearing a mask.
(d) That there is no miracle that can address the issues of the current pandemic. The solution lies in simpler
things that people need to follow religiously and resort to superstitions.
21. What does the author try convey by the phrase the ‘new normal’?
(a) Believing in the miracles is the solution.
(b) Acceptance of the fact that the Covid-19 pandemic is not temporary is the new normal.
(c) Wearing a mask & practicing social distancing is the new way of life
(d) Both (b) & (c)
22. What is the meaning of the term amulet?

(a) A locket
(b) An instrument used by the magicians
(c) An object that brings good luck
(d) A mascot
23. What is the author trying to convey through ‘amulet of yore’?

(a) Revisiting an object that was made of a particular yarn.
(b) Revisiting the thought of resorting to superstitions like abracadabra amulet used long time ago to cure
Covid-19.
(c) Using an instrument that is used to wade away evil & unhappiness.
(d) Wearing an amulet of parched paper with a triangular encryption of this word at the top and just an ‘A’
at the bottom tip.
24. In which form of part of speech has the term ‘extrapolating’ been used?
(a) Verb (b) Adverb (c) Adjective (d) Noun
(Passage Q.25-Q.29): In the last two columns of 2017, I would like to examine some of the words used in
common parlance with disturbing consequences. It is important for journalists to realise that in the past
three decades, many of our earlier assumptions have proved to be wrong. We were certain that some ideas
seemed incendiary but did not represent the mainstream view. We felt that the gap between the periphery
and the centre would be guarded by a sense of collective egalitarianism. However, history has proved the
fallibility of journalists in a cruel manner; dangerous fringe groups have galloped to occupy the core of our
public narrative. The fundamental nature of flawed words is that the perpetrators of violence, intolerance
and bigotry create them. The core principle of journalism is to use words that are descriptive, not use loaded
terms that colour our perception. By reproducing the words used by those who shun inclusivity and
diversity, journalism in a way contributes to further escalating the crisis rather than defusing it.
In this first instalment, let me examine a term that has gained currency over the last decade: ‘honour killing’.
In 2008, Pakistani journalist Beena Sarwar wrote a powerful edit page lead article titled “There is no ‘honour’
in killing”. One of her arguments, which essentially dealt with specific cases in Pakistan, applies to India
too. She wrote: “Some would prefer not to discuss such issues because this ‘brings a bad name to the
country’… They need to ask themselves who is responsible: those who perpetuate the violence, or those
who are its victims? What would make us a better, stronger nation: dealing with the issue, or burying it in
the sand?”

MOCK CLAT #10
Dexter Dias and Charlotte Proudman, legal researchers at Harvard University and practising barristers,
wrote about how linguistic labels matter: “The term ‘honour killing’ not only cedes too much power to the
perpetrator, but is offensive to survivors and women. Instead, we need to see the crime through the eyes
of those attacked, because these acts of gender violence attack something more than women’s bodies,
something precarious and precious: the challenge by thousands of courageous young women around the
world to oppressive patriarchy and stultifying social convention. In this sense, they are an attack on us all.”
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/Readers-Editor/cloak-and-dagger-words/article21827520.ece
25. What is the meaning of the term ‘incendiary’ in the passage?

(a) Flammable (b) subversive (c) stirring (d) provocative
26. What idea is the author trying to convey in the first paragraph?
(a) Journalism plays a crucial role in nation building as they have the power to influence the common
masses through responsible reporting.
(b) It is the duty of the journalists to give meaning to the words that have disturbing consequences.
(c) The perpetrators of violence & bigotry colour the meaning of the words by their intolerance.
27. What is the theme that Dexter Dias & Charlotte Proudman trying to convey?
(a) That honour killing is a crime against women.
(b) That honour killing gives too much power to the perpetrator.
(c) Honour killing is an attack freedom of choices of a women. It is a symbol of oppressive patriarchy &
therefore has to be dealt in a more strict fashion.
28. In which form of part of speech has the term ‘galloped’ been used?
(a) Verb (b) Adverb (c) Adjective (d) Noun
29. What will be the most appropriate title for this passage?
(a) India’s own pandemic of casteist patriarchy.
(b) Honour killing: A major offence in India.
(c) ‘Honour’ crimes: An assault on women’s autonomy.
(d) Socio-Legal Dimensions of Honour Killing in India.
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #10
Passage (Q.30-Q.34): STARS project worth Rs 5718 crore has got an approval from the Union Cabinet of
PM Narendra Modi. The STARS project will get the financial support from the World Bank amounting to
US $ 500 million (approximately Rs. 3700 crore).
The overall focus and components of the STARS project are aligned with the objectives of (1).The STARS
project seeks to support the states in developing, implementing, evaluating, and improving interventions
with direct linkages to improved education outcomes and school to work transition strategies for improved
labour market outcomes. This project will cover six states.
Some of the measurable outcomes of the project are Increase in students achieving minimum proficiency
in grade 3 language in selected states, improvement in secondary school completion rate, improvement in
governance index scores, strengthened learning assessment systems, partnerships developed to facilitate
cross-learning between states, and improvement in the state level service delivery such as strengthening
planning and management capacities for decentralized management by training of BRCs and CRCs,
strengthened school management by training of Head Teachers and Principals for improved education
service delivery.
Source: India Today
30. What is the full form of STARS?

(a) Scheme for Translational and Advanced Research in Science
(b) Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States
(c) Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System
(d) Satellite Tracking and Ranging System
31. Which policy’s name has been replaced with (1) in the above passage?
(a) SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active learning for Young Aspiring Minds)
(b) Unnat Bharat Abhiyan
(c) New Education Policy 2020
(d) Global Initiative of Academic Networks
32. The project targets six states currently. Which of the following states is not covered under this programme?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Rajasthan (d) Himachal Pradesh
33. Which department of the Ministry of Education will implement this project?
(a) Department of School Education & Literacy
(b) Department of Higher Education
(c) Department of Expenditure on Education
(d) Both (a) & (c)
34. The project envisages the establishment of a National Assessment Center for student assessment and
evaluation for all recognized school boards, including state boards, over which the Centre has thus far
exercised no control. What is the name of this center?
(a) DIKSHA (b) SHIKSHA (c) SHAGUN (d) PARAKH
Passage (Q.35-Q.38): India’s first indigenous (1) missile, Rudram, developed for the Indian Air Force, was
successfully flight-tested from a (2) jet off the east coast. These missiles are designed to detect, track and
neutralise the adversary’s radar, communication assets and other radio frequency sources, which are
generally part of their air defence systems. Such a missile’s navigation mechanism comprises an inertial
navigation system — a computerised mechanism that uses changes in the object’s own position — coupled
with GPS, which is satellite-based.
For guidance, it has a “passive homing head” — a system that can detect, classify and engage targets
(radio frequency sources in this case) over a wide band of frequencies as programmed. Officials said once

MOCK CLAT #10
the Rudram missile locks on the target, it is capable of striking accurately even if the radiation source
switches off in between.
Scientists said modern-day warfare is more and more network-centric, which means it comprises elaborate
detection, surveillance and communication systems that are integrated with the weapons systems.
Source: The Indian Express
35. What type of missile has been referred to in the above passage?
(a) Anti-tank Missile (b) Surface to surface Missile
(c) Anti- Radiation Missile (d) Cruise Missile
36. Which fighter aircraft’s name has been replaced with (2) in the above passage?
(a) Sukhoi-30 MKI (b) Mirage 2000 (c) MiG- 29 (d) MiG- 21 Bison
37. What is the maximum flight altitude range of Rudram?

(a) 100m to 10km (b) 500m to 10km (c) 100m to 15km (d) 500m to 15km
38. Who are the producers of Rudram in India?

(a) Bharat Dynamics Limited (b) Bharat Electronics Limited
(c) Bharat Earth Movers (d) Both (a) & (b)
Passage (Q.39-Q.44): Paul R. Milgrom and Robert B. Wilson were awarded the Nobel Prize in Economics
for "improvements to auction theory and inventions of new auction formats.”
Auctions are everywhere and affect our everyday lives, said the Nobel committee in its statement, adding,
"this year’s Economic Sciences Laureates, Paul Milgrom and Robert Wilson, have improved auction theory
and invented new auction formats, benefitting sellers, buyers and taxpayers around the world."
The award caps a week of Nobel Prizes and is technically known as the Sveriges Riksbank Prize in
Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel. Since its establishment in 1969, it has been awarded 52
times and is now widely considered one of the Nobel prizes.
Source: Times of India
39. How many Indians have received a Noble Prize?

(a) 11 (b) 10 (c) 9 (d) 8
40. All the Nobel Prizes are presented in Stockholm except one. Which category of the Nobel Prize is awarded
in Oslo?
(a) Economics (b) Medicine (c) Literature (d) Peace
41. Who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020?

(a) World Food Programme (b) Freedom from Hunger
(c) Food Bank of New York city (d) Feeding America
42. Drs. Harvey J. Alter, Michael Houghton and Charles M. Rice received the Nobel Prize for Medicine for
discovering which virus?
(a) Measles (b) Smallpox (c) Covid-19 (d) Hepatitis C
.
43. Malala Yousafzai is the youngest Nobel Laureates who got the Peace Prize in 2014. What was her age
when she received the prize?
.
44. Who selects the Noble Laureate in Literature?
(a) Norwegian Parliament (b) Swedish Academy
(c) Karolinska Institute (d) King of Oslo

MOCK CLAT #10
Passage (Q.45-Q.49): Scientists at the (1) in West Bengal have installed a ‘solar tree’ that is likely to be
the largest of its kind in the world. A solar tree is a metal structure resembling a tree that has solar panels
fitted on the branches. The solar panels connected through metal branches produces solar power. It can
produce around 12,000–14,000 units of clean and green power in a year, the solar tree has the potential
to save 10–12 tons of CO2 from being released into the atmosphere every year.
“Solar trees because of their design use less space and hence can produce more power per unit area. But
one of the major hurdles of solar tree is its capital investment. This pushes up the cost of one unit of
electricity produced. The cost is almost double than that of solar roof top panels which takes around Rs 3.5
to produce one unit,” said SP Gon Choudhury, renewable energy expert and a Green Oscar awardee. This
solar tree is a quantum leap towards making an energy reliant and carbon negative India.
Source: The Hindustan Times
45. Which institute’s name has been replaced by (1) in the above passage?
(a) Central Mechanical Engineering Research Institute
(b) National Institute of Technology
(c) Council of Mechanical Research
(d) IIT-Kanpur
46. Where is this solar tree installed?

(a) Kolkata (b) Durgapur (c) Hoogly (d) Darjeeling
47. What is the estimated production capacity of the world’s largest solar tree?
(a) 12000 watts (b) 11000 watts (c) 11500 watts (d) 8600 watts
48. India has targeted to produce _______ of solar energy by the year 2022?
(a) 75 GW (b) 100 GW (c) 125 GW (d) 175 GW
49. Where is the world’s second largest solar tree located?

(a) London (b) New York (c) Washington (d) Sri Lanka
Passage (Q.50-Q.54): Prime Minister Narendra Modi today inaugurated six sewage treatment plants worth
over ₹ 500 crore in Uttarakhand under the 'Namami Gange' mission, saying with the projects' completion
the sewage treatment capacity of the state has gone up nearly four-fold in six years.
The six sewage treatment plants or STPs were inaugurated at six different places via video conference.
Describing Ganga as a symbol of the country's cultural glory and faith, PM Modi said that from the point of
the river's origin at Gaumukh in Uttarakhand to where it merged with the sea in West Bengal, the mighty
river enriched the lives of half of the country's population.
The six projects are a big step towards ensuring the cleanliness of the river. The Prime Minister said the
Namami Gange mission is not confined to just cleaning the Ganga but has been expanded into the
country's biggest river conservation programme.
Source: NDTV India
50. Which of the following is not a location for the above mentioned newly inaugurated six sewage treatment
plants?
(a) Haridwar (b) Badrinath (c) Rishikesh (d) Kedarnath
51. Along with the inauguration of these six treatment plants, a museum of Ganga that is dedicated to
showcase the biodiversity, rejuvenation and culture in Ganga river was also inaugurated. What is the name
of the museum?
(a) Ganga Avalokam (b) Ganga Sparsh
(c) Ganga Nirakshan (d) Ganga Parikshan
52. Where is this museum located in Uttarakhand?

(a) Badrinath (b) Kedarnath (c) Haridwar (d) Dehradun

MOCK CLAT #10
53. What was the name of the book which was launched on the same day and is co-published by National
Mission for Clean Ganga and Wildlife Institute of India?
(a) River of life, River of death
(b) Rowing Down the Ganges
(c) Ganges: The Many pasts of an Indian River
(d) A Walk along the Ganges
54. The Prime Minister also released a logo of Jal Jeevan Mission on the same day. Jal Jeevan Mission, is
envisioned to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections to
all rural households by which year?
(a) 2020 (b) 2022 (c) 2023 (d) 2024
Passage (Q.55-Q.58): Five Rafale fighter jets were formally inducted into the Indian Air Force on Thursday
at a glittering ceremony in the Ambala air base, in a major boost to India's air power capability at a time the
country is engaged in a tense border row with China in eastern Ladakh. Defence Minister Rajnath Singh,
his French counterpart Florence Parly, Chief of Defence Staff Gen Bipin Rawat and Air Chief Marshal RKS
Bhadauria were among the dignitaries who attended the ceremony.
The multi-role Rafale jets, built by French aerospace major (1), are known for air-superiority and precision
strikes.
A fleet of indigenously-developed combat jet Tejas and Sarang helicopter aerobatic team of the IAF too
displayed a range of aerial manoeuvres demonstrating their agility at the ceremony which was attended by
India's top military brass and executives of several French defence firms involved in the Rafale programme.
Source: The Economic Times
55. Rafale is the second major acquisition of fighter planes by India. Which fighter planes were acquired first
by India from Russia?
(a) Sukhoi (b) Mirage (c) MiG (d) Jaguar
56. Which French producer’s name has been replaced by (1) is the above mentioned passage?
(a) Lockheed Martin (b) Dassault Aviation (c) Super Hornet (d) Strike Eagle
57. How many Rafale Jets has India inked to procure from France for Rs 59,000 crore?
(a) 28 (b) 30 (c) 32 (d) 36
58. What kind of missiles come along with Rafale jets?

(a) SCRAMBLE (b) SKULL (c) SCALP (d) SCOOP
Passage (Q.59-Q.62): The Administration asked authorities to remain alert against a possible spread of
the Congo fever in the Maharashtra district. The district administration said in the wake of the outbreak of
COVID-19, this is a matter of concern for cattle- breeders, meat-sellers and animal husbandry officials, and
it is necessary to take timely precautions as there is no specific and useful treatment for the CCHF. The
animal husbandry department's deputy commissioner Dr Prashant D Kamble in a circular said the CCHF
has been found in some districts of Gujarat, and is likely to spread to border districts of Maharashtra. "If
the disease is not diagnosed and treated in time, 30 per cent of patients die," it said. The CCHF is a
widespread disease caused by a tick- borne virus. The virus causes severe viral haemorrhagic fever
outbreaks, with a case fatality rate of 10 to 40 per cent, as per the World Health Organisation (WHO). There
is no vaccine available for either people or animals against the disease, it said.
Source: NDTV India
59. Where was the Congo Fever was first discovered in the world?
(a) Russia (b) China (c) Crimea (d) Congo
60. Where did the virus first originate in India?

(a) Valasad (b) Palghar (c) Chandrapur (d) Amravati

MOCK CLAT #10
61. How is this viral fever transmitted?

(a) Mosquitos (b) Flies (c) Fruit Bats (d) Ticks
62. What is the name of the virus that causes Congo Fever?
(a) Nairovirus (b) Marburg (c) SARS- COV (d) MERS-COV
Passage (Q.63-Q.68): It is Election day in the United States of America and millions have already cast
their votes to either choose a new President in Joe Biden or stick with Donald Trump for his second term.
President Donald Trump and Democratic presidential nominee Joe Biden have gone on full-scale attack
on each other as the D-Day nears. Voting will also be different this time as the coronavirus pandemic
grapples with the whole world - the most affected country being US with over 9 million infections.
Americans have voted in large numbers, already casting a record 93 million ballots, about two-thirds of the
overall 2016 vote count of 138.8 million. Some 239 million people are eligible to vote this year.
The mail-in ballots could take days or weeks to be counted in some states - meaning a winner might not
be declared in the hours after polls close on Tuesday. The figure of 93 million includes 33 million in-person
votes and 58 million mail-in ballots.
Donald Trump, 74, toured five battleground states of Michigan, Iowa, North Carolina, Georgia and Florida
while his 77-year-old rival Joe Biden spoke at a campaign event in Pennsylvania, where the race also looks
tight.
In all but two of the country's 50 states, either President Trump or Mr Biden will win all the electors from
each state by winning the popular vote there, with the most populous states holding the most electors.
Source: NDTV India
63. The year 2020 witnessed which edition of the U.S. Presidential Elections?
(a) 56th (b) 57th (c) 58th (d) 59th
64. Every fourth year, the Presidency Elections happen on which day of the week?
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Wednesday (d) Thursday
65. As per the U.S. Constitution, how many times can a President be re-elected?
(a) Once (b) Twice (c) No limit (d) Not even once
66. Who is the running mate of Joe Biden?

(a) Mike Pence (b) Hilary Clinton (c) Kamala Harris (d) Jeff Colby
67. What is the total number of members in the U.S. Electoral College?
(a) 270 (b) 538 (c) 540 (d) 542
68. The presidency candidate shall be a resident of US for how many years before contesting for the elections?
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #10
Passage (Q.69-Q.73): Privacy includes at its core the preservation of personal intimacies, the sanctity of
family life, marriage, procreation, the home and sexual orientation. Privacy also connotes a right to be left
alone. Privacy safeguards individual autonomy and recognises the ability of the individual to control vital
aspects of his or her life. Personal choices governing a way of life are intrinsic to privacy. Privacy protects
heterogeneity and recognises the plurality and diversity of our culture. While the legitimate expectation of
privacy may vary from the intimate zone to the private zone and from the private to the public arenas, it is
important to underscore that privacy is not lost or surrendered merely because the individual is in a public
place. Privacy attaches to the person since it is an essential facet of the dignity of the human being. -KS
Puttaswamy v UoI
69. The government in the wake of the 2011 bomb plantings, issued a directive mandating the set-up of CC
TV cameras inside the bathrooms of public malls. The cameras were to installed outside the toilet stalls
but within the bathroom compound to keep a check on who enters and monitor the activities of the janitors.
(a) This shall amount to an invasion of the right to privacy of the janitors.
(b) This is an invasion to the privacy of individuals who enter the restroom
(c) This is an accepted practice; as long as the cameras are installed outside the cubicles there is no
privacy concern
70. The parliament proposed a Bill which sought to create a provision in the IPC that in cases of murder
suspects the police will have unrestricted access to search a person's body, house, his personal belongings
including his electronic equipment and any communication he has had with anyone without a warrant of
any sort. Strictly based on the above passage, would such a bill be constitutional?
(a) The bill is unconstitutional
(b) The bill is constitutional as it is based on the reasonable classification of a ‘murder suspect’
(c) The bill is unconstitutional inasmuch it talks about an ‘unrestricted’ access.
71. The parliament proposed a new law which stated that when a person is sent to prison for the offence of
being involved in terrorist activities or sedition then after the person has completed his prison sentence,
once released, that person would have a GPS chip implanted near his ankle (permanently) which if tried
to tamper with would alert the authorities immediately. This process would take place under expert medical
supervision and safety. Decide the constitutionality of the law.
(a) This law is constitutional
(b) This law is unconstitutional and likely to be struck down
(c) This law is constitutional inasmuch it makes a classification between ordinary convicts and those
involved in terrorists’ activities.
72. Based on the understanding of the passage choose the best statement that follows:
(a) An individual’s privacy is limited to the individual’s private auspices. The moment the individual
becomes a part of a public gathering, his privacy is naturally compromised.
(b) An individual’s reproductive choices are covered under his right to privacy.
(c) Privacy pertains to the individual’s choices that conform to the societal standards. As long as the
conformity is maintained, the individual choices are protected under privacy.
73. A new order proposed after an attack on the Delhi High Court by the members of Jaesh was to make it
mandatory for any individual to reveal his name, nationality, age and gender before entering any Court in
India Decide the constitutionality of the law proposed: -

MOCK CLAT #10
(a) Constitutional (b) Unconstitutional

(c) partially Constitutional (d) none of the above
Passage (Q.74-Q.78): A cheque is defined as a bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and not
expressed to be payable otherwise than on demand There are three essential parties to a cheque: The
Drawer of a cheque, the drawee of a cheque and the payee of a cheque. On Section 138 negotiable
instruments act Supreme Court judgments have time and again highlighted various important provisions.
Every year holiday under negotiable instruments act is declared and a cheque cannot be presented on a
holiday. Section 139 of Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 talks about the liability of a person who is issuing
a cheque which has been dishonoured Such a person is presumed to be guilty until and unless he proves
his innocence. When an offense under section 138 is constituted, there is a set of admitted facts and
situations where it is presumed that the person is guilty.
In Krishi Vikas Kendra v Mukund, the amount due was paid partly by the accuse(d) This amounts to a
transaction made and the court held that the burden of proof is on the accused to prove his innocence with
respect to dishonoured cheque. Under section 139 there is a presumption that a cheque presented is for a
discharge of the liability of debt either partially or wholly. And until and unless the respondent purposes any
purpose other than the discharge of liability, it shall be presumed under section 138. Such purpose may be
through conduct or express words. The accused person cannot merely escape by saying it was only given
as security and the day cheque was issued there was no liability towards the person.
Once the presumption of liability is rebutted, the burden of proof shifts to the complainant to prove that the
same cheque was issued for discharge of liability. In the case of Rangappa v. Sri Mohan, it was held that
if to any fact the accused has not replied in the statutory notice (notice under section 138) proves to be a
merit for the complainant side. This presumption is governed by the rule of evidence which is dealt by in
section 118(a) of chapter XIII. Section 140 talks about the possible grounds which may not be allowed as
a ground of defence for prosecution under section 138. It is a presumption only with regard to existing
debts. So, if the amount on the cheque exceeds the amount which is due to the person, then section 138
and section 139 shall not be attracted, this was held in the case of Angu Parameswara Textiles P Lt(d) v.
Sri Rajan and co.
[Source: https://legodesk.com/legopedia/section-139-ni-act/]
74. A and B enter into a contract for supply of cotton. When A delivers the cotton to B, B gave him a cheque
dated 20/2/2019. On 21/2/2019, when B went to the bank to present it, the cheque could not be processed
for the cheque was dishonoured. Which of the following is not a correct statement to be made?
(a) B is entitled to a legally enforceable debt against A in pursuance of the contract
(b) There is a presumption of liability against B under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act
(c) The burden of proof to prove that the cheque was issued to discharge the liability of cotton is on B.
(d) The presumption of liability as per Kisan Vikas Kendra case comes after proving liability.
75. When the cheque was dishonoured, A filed a complaint in the court of law. Which of the following is a
correct statement regarding the next step to be taken?
(a) In line with the burden of proof in such cases, A has to show that he innocent.
(b) In line with the burden of proof in such cases, B must show that A is guilty.
(c) A must break the link between the cheque and the debt in question.
(d) B must link the cheque to the debt in question.
76. B issued the cheque as payment for the contract. However, at the same time, B had also to pay off for the
transportation charges which were supposed to be paid by him as per the contract however, were paid in
cash by A. B claims that he intended to pay off for the transport and not for the contract.
(a) B is liable for payment for the transport is also part of the contract
(b) B is not liable for the contract is only for cotton and transport payment is separate
(c) B must show that he intended to only pay for the transport
(d) B may not show anything as his conduct reflects his claim
77. Ashish is a dealer in alcohol. He often gets Razzak to sell him cheap alcohol which is smuggled from
Indonesia Ashish then uses the liquor in his stores making 200% profit on every bottle sold Razzak

MOCK CLAT #10
however, asks for the money in advance before he goes to Indonesia When Ashish issued a cheque to
Razzak to get his alcohol from Indonesia, the cheque bounced Decide
(a) Ashish is not liable for the bouncing of the cheque. The cheque was given as security.
(b) Ashish is liable for the bouncing of the cheque. The cheque may have been given prior to the delivery,
but forms part of the same transaction.
(c) Ashish is not liable for the bouncing of the cheque as there is illegal supply of alcohol in question. There
did not exist a legally enforceable debt.
(d) Ashish is liable for the bouncing of the cheque as the moment he placed an order, the terms of the
order placed a legally enforceable onto him.
78. Aftab is an oil trader. Vishnu purchased a few barrels from him which Aftab was supposed to deliver at his
door. Aftab was to get paid extra for delivery of the oil. Vishnu issued him a cheque which bounced Which
of the following is the best defence that Vishnu can possibly take?
(a) Vishnu issued the cheque for discharging the liability for transport expenses
(b) The contract amount was less than the amount in the cheque.
(c) The cheque was issued as security to Aftab for his further transactions.
(d) Vishnu had asked Aftab to wait for a couple days before putting the cheque in the bank so that he could
organize enough balance.
Passage (Q.79-Q.84): Consideration is an essential element to make a contract. It must be provided for a
contract to be legally binding. In contract law, it is said that "consideration must move from the promisee".
Drawing out the subtlety of this statement, it seems that if there is "a promisee", there must already be a
promisor; The promisor has already made a promise to the promisee, which is sufficient to form a contract
(but it's not formed at this point); The promisee must give something back to the promisor - a promise;
When the promisee promises to do something - gives consideration (and it doesn't have to be given to the
promisor - a legally binding contract is formed, provided the other elements have been satisfied
The first element is (i) Consideration must move at the desire of the promisor: Consideration can be offered
by the promisee or a third-party only at the request or desire of the promisor. It is important to note that
there can be a stranger to consideration but not a stranger to the contract. Thus, consideration may move
to a person who is not the other party to the contract.
When contracting parties are already contracted with one another, a promise to do something that they
have already contracted to do can't be "fresh" consideration. It's consideration which has been provided in
the past, and not at the time of formation of the contract. It is important to note that past consideration is
not considered for a new promise since it is not been given in lieu of the promise. According to Indian law,
‘past considerations’ is ‘good consideration’ if it was given at the desire of the promisor. Consideration is
able to be minimal.
Contracts supported by small consideration are enforceable, because Courts will look for consideration for
a promise, rather than examine the commercial merits of the contract. Courts are reluctant to interfere with
contracts which are freely made between contracting parties. If the promises to be performed at a later
date or at the time the contract is made, it is sufficient. The law looks for some value in an economic sense
- even minuscule.
Further, the same should be over and above the promisor’s existing obligations. If the promisor is already
obligated either by his promise or law to perform or abstain from a certain act, then it is not a good
consideration for a promise. Finally, a consideration cannot be unlawful.
[Source: https://hallellis.co.uk/contractual-consideration/]
79. A, due to his admiration for the U.P. Chief Minister, builds a stage on a ground owned by him so that the
CM can hold his rally. After the elections, the stage is used by a drama company for staging plays. They
promise to pay him. Later, the drama company doesn't pay him.
(a) There is no contract between A and the drama company due to invalid consideration.
(b) There is no contract between A and the drama company.
(c) There is a contract between A and the drama company not for using the stage but for using the ground
on which the stage exists.
(d) There is a contract between A and the drama company for using the stage.

MOCK CLAT #10
80. Abhishek was chased by a group of thugs near the police station. The inspector, Mr. Navedia happened to
be Abhishek’s neighbour. went to Mr. Navedia’s house later in the evening and narrated his misery. He
requested Mr. Navedia to look into the matter and said he would help him in the investigation. Mr. Navedia
promised to nab the culprits at the earliest and make the area more secure.
(a) The promise between Abhishek and Mr. Navedia is a promise with consideration
(b) The promise between Abhishek and Mr. Navedia is a promise without consideration
(c) The promise between Abhishek and Mr. Navedia is a contract
(d) It cannot be determined from the facts given
81. Pawan was asked by Rohan to buy her some goods as he returned from office. She persuaded him by
saying she'd keep hot tea and halwa ready for him when he got home. Pawan, while buying the goods
slapped the shopkeeper. The shopkeeper seeks to hold Rohan liable. Can he do so?
(a) No, since Pawan had not been authorised to slap the shopkeeper.
(b) No, since there is no contract of agency.
(c) Yes, since Pawan was authorised to buy the goods.
(d) No, since Pawan acted without authority.
82. Please refer to the facts above. What would the answer be if Rohan had asked Pawan that he would
withhold Pawan’s share of monthly profits if he did not oblige?
(a) Yes, since there is a valid contract of agency.
(b) No, since there is no contract of agency.
(c) Yes, since Pawan was authorised to buy the goods.
(d) No, since Pawan acted without authority.
83. Asur and Rohan are partners in a firm. Asur asked Rohan to enter into a contract of agency with him. Asur
said that he would give his share of monthly profits in advance if he obliged.
(a) Yes, there is a valid contract of agency.
(b) No, there is no contract of agency.
(c) Yes, Rohan is authorised to buy goods.
(d) No, since Rohan is stupid.
84. A husband promises his wife a monthly maintenance if she agrees to live separately, since their marriage
is on the rocks. He also signs a document to the affect. Is the contract valid?
(a) Yes, since the agreement is a written one.
(b) No, since there is no natural love and affection.
(c) No, since there is no consideration.
(d) No, since any agreement in restraint of marriage is void ab initio.
Passage (Q.85-Q.89): After the sub-prime crisis, speedy recovery of debts became the prime concern of
banks and financial institutions world over. To this end, they incorporated split or hybrid arbitration
agreements in their facility agreements.
“Split” or “hybrid” arbitration agreements allow one or both parties the right to elect either litigation (by way
of civil suits) or arbitration once the dispute has arisen.
Split arbitration agreements are of two types: “sole option,” where one party has the right of election, and
“mutual option,” where both parties have the right of election.
Since the Indian courts have not specifically adjudicated on this issue, the above arbitration agreement is
susceptible to two views:
VIEW 1: The arbitration agreement is not enforceable.
At the time of signing the arbitration agreement, it gave the option to either party or a sole party to, “in its
discretion”, trigger the arbitration agreement or pursue litigation. Thus, since the words used in the
arbitration agreement are “The Lender (either party) may”, it does not reflect the absolute intention of the
parties to adjudicate disputes by way of arbitration alone, especially at the time of signing the arbitration
agreement.
Thus, the principle of interpretation in good faith could be applied, i.e. the parties' intention at the time of
signing the agreement, to state that the absolute intention of the parties was not to solely arbitrate.

MOCK CLAT #10
Arbitration agreement being uncertain, causes hopeless confusion by giving an option to the parties to
either pursue litigation or arbitration, thus the arbitration agreement is not enforceable.
View II: Such an arbitration agreement is valid and enforceable.
As per the principle of effective interpretation, where a clause can be interpreted in two different ways, the
interpretation enabling the clause to be effective should be adopted in preference to that which prevents
the clause from being effective.
It could therefore be argued that the presumption always lies in favour of the validity of the arbitration
agreement and the choice of the parties rather than against it.
85. Palak wanted to buy a house with modern interior and modern furniture. Palak really liked the house owned
by Mehak situated in Neeti Bagh, Delhi. Mehak had put the house on sale. On visiting the house, Palak did
not like the interior of the house which was unlike her expectations. The price of the house in the market
was Rs. 4 crores. Palak agreed to buy Mehak’s house situated in Neeti Bagh, Delhi for Rs. 6 crores
provided Mehak renovates the house with modern interior decoration and modern furniture. Is this contract
enforceable?
(a) Yes, because the contract has been entered in good faith.
(b) No, because the contract has not been entered into good faith.
(c) Yes, because the terms of the contract are clear and certain without any ambiguity.
(d) No, because the terms of the contract are uncertain.
86. Rohit and Prachi are friends from their school time. Rohit ran a business of selling different types of
materials and fabrics to various designers and people directly. Prachi planned to start her own business of
designer saris and suits. She asked for help from Rohit to arrange for fabric for her designer clothes and
Rohit agreed to sell fabrics to Prachi at cheaper rates. Rohit and Prachi entered into an agreement where
Rohit agreed to sell 100 meters of silk fabric to Prachi every month. A clause in the contract stated that “in
case of any dispute, parties may refer to arbitration. Is such an arbitration agreement enforceable?
(a) Yes, because the contract was performed with the intention to sell and but the fabric at cheaper rate.
(b) No, because the parties do not have absolute intention to refer the dispute to arbitration.
(c) Yes, because the parties have discretion to decide if they want to refer the dispute to arbitration.
(d) No, because Prachi is taking advantage of friendship with Rohit and such a contract is not in good faith.
87. Willows owns a poultry processing plant from which considerable amount of waste organs, blood, feathers
and other residues were produces as a by-product. Therefore, Willows entered into an agreement with
Marquest, according to which Marquest at its own expense would erect a system at Willows plant, for the
disposal of the by-product. Such system would become the property of Willows in return of which Willow
agreed to sell all of its by-products to Marquest at Rs. 1000 per month for five years. Clause 10 of the
agreement stated that “In the event Willows becomes insolvent within 2 years or change management or
ownership in any way, new management or owner must honour this agreement until expiration or reimburse
Marquest to the full amount.” The management and ownership were transferred to Can poultry in a year
and Can poultry send notice of termination of the agreement to Marquest. Marquest claimed that Clause
10 is uncertain as the term “full amount” and “reimburse” are unclear as to what amount. Thus, Marquest
claimed that Can poultry have to oblige by the agreement. Which of the following is true as per the principle
of effectiveness?
(a) Clause 10 is enforceable as it can be made certain by interpreting “reimburse the full amount” to mean
reimburse the expenditures already incurred in erecting the system.
(b) Clause 10 is unenforceable because it is impossible to render it effective by any way of interpretation.
(c) Clause 10 is enforceable because the sole purpose of the clause was to allow the new management
or owners to be empowered to terminate the contract with Marquest.
(d) Clause 10 is unenforceable because it is uncertain whether “full amount” means mere expenditure
incurred by Marquest or the by-products it was to receive for 5 years.
88. Amrita agreed to sell 100 tons of oils to Neelam for a consideration of Rs. 10,000. When Amrita delivered
the oil, Neelam found that it is mustard oil, whereas she wanted to buy Groundnut oil. Neelam refused to
pay and claimed that the agreement is uncertain and therefore unenforceable. Which of the following is
true as per the principle of effective interpretation?

MOCK CLAT #10
(a) The contract is enforceable because it can be interpreted to mean that Neelam agreed to but any kind
of oil, to make it effective.
(b) The contract is unenforceable because the contract is uncertain as to what kind of oil.
(c) The contract is enforceable because Neelam cannot at the end moment refuse to pay.
(d) The contract is unenforceable because the parties did not agree to the same thing in same sense.
89. The basic principle of an arbitration agreement is party autonomy and flexibility. Does hybrid or split
agreement adhere to this principle?
(a) Yes, it allows the party to decide if they want to refer the dispute to arbitration or not.
(b) No, as it gives more autonomy to one of the parties to the agreement.
(c) Yes, it allows the lender to recover debt as per a procedure which would make it easier.
(d) No, as hybrid or split arbitration agreement cannot be called an agreement to refer the dispute to
arbitration.
Passage (Q.90-Q.94): Criminal liability stands on the basic rule i.e. an act is wrongful only when it is done
with a wrongful state of mind However, a corporation neither has a mind which can possess knowledge or
intention, nor does it have hands to carry out its intentions. To address this issue, the original application
of criminal liability to corporate entities were derived from the common law tort doctrine which says masters
had “vicarious” liability for the wrongful actions of their servants. As a result, the courts were soon willing
to hold corporations criminally liable for almost all wrongs except rape, murder, bigamy, and other crimes
of malicious intent.
In the United Kingdom, in case of Tesco v. Nattrass held that an employee was not a part of the ‘directing
mind’ of the corporation and, therefore, his conduct was not attributable to the act of corporation. However,
in Meridian Global case the Privy Council ruled that a company can be held liable for the crimes of its senior
personnel, committed without the knowledge of the company. The identification theory imposes vicarious
liability of an organisation for the acts committed by agents of the organisation and was identified in the
above two judgments.
Both vicarious liability and Respondent Superior employ the ‘identification’ approach pioneered in England
Respondent Superior provides that a corporation may be held criminally liable for the acts of any of its
agents [who] (1) commits a crime, (2) within the scope of employment, (3) with the intent to benefit the
corporation. This standard is quite broad, permitting organisational liability for the act of any agent, even
the lowest level employee.
The special vicarious liability doctrine adopted in India emanates from the common law principle which
enables the courts to hold the directing minds responsible for the actions and affairs of the company. In the
landmark case of Iridium the Supreme Court observed that corporate houses can no longer claim immunity
from criminal prosecution on the ground that they are not capable of possessing mens rea.
[Source (edited): Cyril Amarchandas Mangaldas, Corporations-Legal Fiction or an Unborn Predator, SCC
Online, (July 13, 2020), available at https://ezproxy.nujs.a(c)in:2053/blog/post/2020/07/13/corporations-
legal-fiction-or-an-unborn-predator/.
90. Bigamy is a criminal offence in India Mr. and Mrs. Mukherjee got married in 2015. Mrs. Mukherjee wanted
to go on a one-month cruise that would start in January 2016. Mr. Mukherjee clearly refused for the cruise
because he did not have time. In December 2015, Mrs Mukherjee deserted Mr. Mukherjee. Mr. Mukherjee
made all possible enquiries about his wife but could not find her. He got the information that Mrs. Mukherjee
was purchasing the ticket for the cruise which was set to sail in January 2016. On 20th January, he received
the information that the cruise has been destroyed and majority of the people on the cruise have died He
still could not find Mrs. Mukherjee and assumed that might have died with cruise destruction. In March
2017, he remarried another woman. In December 2017, Mrs. Mukherjee returned after being stranded in a
different country for several years. She was shocked to find Mukherjee being married with another woman
and filed the case of Bigamy. Will she succeed?
(a) Yes, because Mr. Mukherjee intentionally married another woman while being in a marriage with Mrs.
Mukherjee.
(b) No, because Mr. Mukherjee believed that Mrs. Mukherjee is dead and thereafter married another
woman.

MOCK CLAT #10
(c) Yes, because Mr. Mukherjee was wrong in assuming that Mrs. Mukherjee would have been on the
cruise that was destroyed.
(d) No, because Mr. Mukherjee made all possible enquiries to find her but remarried on being unable to
find Mrs. Mukherjee.
91. Prashant works as a pump attendant at Morrisson Petrol Pump. Prashant had personal enmity with Mihir
from their college times. Mihir once arrived at Morrissons Petrol Pump and bought fuel for his car. After
getting the fuel, Mihir stopped at the forecourt of the petrol pump to buy some snacks when Prashant saw
him. Prashant was angry from his last interaction with Mihir where Mihir had physically assaulted him.
Therefore, when Prashant saw Mihir, he went and started punching and kicking Mihir, resulting into severe
back injury to Mihir. Mihir brought a claim against Prashant and Morrisson Petrol Pump for the injuries he
suffered as a result of assault by Prashant. Will he succeed against Morrisson Petrol Pump?
(a) Yes, because Prashant wasa acting as the servant of Morrisson Petrol pump and therefore Morrisson
is vicariously liable for Prashant’s actions.
(b) No, because when Prashant assaulted Mihir, he was not acting as Morrisson’s servant but acting out
of personal enmity between Prashant and Mihir.
(c) Yes, because the assault had been committed on Morrisson’s premises and the supervisors at
Morrisson didn’t do anything to stop Prashant.
(d) No, because the assault had not been committed at any of the pumps but at the forecourt and therefore
Prashant cannot be said to be acting as Morrisson’s servant.
92. Motorala Inc floated a private placement memorandum (PPM) to obtain funds/investments to finance the
Iridium project. The project was “represented as being the world’s first commercial system designed to
provide global digital hand-held telephone data and it was intended to be a wireless communication system
through a constellation of 66 satellites in low orbit to provide digital service to mobile phones and other
subscriber equipment locally.” Such representations were drafted by Sakshi, the director and the manager
of Motorola Inc Several financial institutions invested in the project based on the information contained in
the PPM including Gonsola Corporation. However, Gonsola found that the representations made by
Motorola Inc were false and that the project turned out to the commercially unviable resulting in significant
loss to Gonsola Corporation. Therefore, Gonsola filed a criminal complaint for cheating under Section 420
of IPC read with conspiracy under Section 120B of IPC. Motoral Inc claimed that the corporation is
incapable of cheating as it has no mind of its own and therefore a criminal complaint against it would not
succeed Will Gonsola Corporation succeed against Motorola Inc under Indian law?
(a) Yes, because a company is capable of having mens rea for the offence of cheating as it has mind of
its own.
(b) No, because a company is incapable of having mens rea for the offence of cheating as it has no mind
of its own.
(c) Yes, because Sakshi is the directing mind of the Motorola Inc who can be held responsible for the
actions of company.
(d) No, because Sakshi is merely an employee of the company whose actions cannot hold a company
criminally liable.
93. Michael is employed as a security guard at Artolia Antique Items Shop. It is a large, and very busy shop.
Michael has been employed to walk around the shop so as to creating a presence to reduce theft. Jack is
a customer who was looking around and touching every item. Michael grew suspicious of him and politely
asked him to refrain from touching every item. Jack took it as an insult and started an argument with Steve.
Jack as then ushered out the door by another security guard Michael, however, became very angry and
followed Jack out into the parking lot, and punched him so as to establish that nobody can cause mischief
in Artolia Antique Items Shop. Jack therefore filed a small claims lawsuit seeking payment for medical bills,
as well as for pain and suffering against the owner of Artolia Antique Items Shop. Will the owner be liable
as per the principle of Respondent Superior?
(a) Yes, because Michael committed the crime within the scope of employment so as to benefit the Shop
owner.
(b) No, because Michael did not commit any crime when he was acting under self defence to protect the
items of the shop.

MOCK CLAT #10
(c) Yes, because though Michael chased Jack out of the shop and punched him, was acting for the benefit
of the shopowner so as to establish that no harm can be done.
(d) No, because when Michael got angry and went out to punch Jack, he cannot be said to act in the course
of employment.
94. What is the Identification theory recognised in the two cases of United Kingdom?
(a) It holds a corporation criminally liable for the acts committed by its employees.
(b) It is a vicarious liability theory which hold a corporation liable for the acts of its servants.
(c) It is a principle which identifies the directing mind of the corporation to hold the corporation criminally
liable for their actions.
(d) It is a principle to impose the criminal liability on the employees of a corporation instead of the
corporation.
Passage (Q.95-Q.99): A victim is defined u/s.2(wa) of the CrPC as a person who has suffered any loss or
injury caused by reason of the act or omission for which the accused person has been charged and the
expression 'victim' includes his or her guardian or legal heir. Despite introduction of a victim in the CrPC
and his/her rights to prefer an appeal u/s.372 Proviso, these rights suffer from vital deficiency in case of
Appeal against the inadequate sentence/s.
This has been demonstrated in case of Parvinder Kansal where court held that Appeal filed by Victim
seeking enhancement of sentence is not maintainable.
The proviso u/s.372 of the CrPC is restricted only to three eventualities: i. acquittal of the accused; ii.
Conviction of the accused for lesser offence; iii. for imposing inadequate compensation.
The 2nd eventuality 'convicting for a lesser offence' does not give any right to victim to prefer an appeal for
enhancement of sentence. The simple reading of these words means, conviction is imposed, but it is in
respect of lesser offence. It does not include 'less quantum of punishment - either in a form of sentence for
imprisonment or fine'.
There are cases, in which sentences were not awarded properly i.e. in proportionate to crime or as per the
victim's expectation, but then, 'victim' has no statutory remedy under the law to prefer an appeal to the
higher forum against it.
Criminal Law clearly differentiates between the conviction and sentence. Conviction is 'the act or process
of judicially finding someone guilty of a crime; the state of having been proved guilty, whereas the Sentence
is the (actual) punishment imposed on a criminal wrongdoer. The difficulty is: the proviso of S.372 CrPC
does not specify the word 'sentence'.
Undoubtedly, u/s.377 of the CrPC an Appeal by the State Government against the quantum of sentence
on the ground of its inadequacy is maintainable, but then, only State can challenge the quantum of sentence
and not the victim.
[Source (edited): Kashyap Joshi, “Why Victim cannot seek enhancement of sentence U/s. 372 of The
CrPC”, LiveLaw, (Sept 1, 2020), available at https://www.livelaw.in/columns/why-victim-cannot-seek-
enhancement-of-sentence-us372-of-the-crpc-162242].
95. Rashi was raped by Amit. An FIR was filed against him and court proceedings also began. At the end of
the court proceedings, court imposed a sentence of 5 years imprisonment and directed him to pay Rs.
1000 every month to Rashi. Rashi’s mother sought to file an appeal under Section 372 of CrPC against the
sentence given by the court. Which of the following is most appropriate?
(a) Only state can file appeal against the sentence because a crime is an offence against humanity and
not an individual.
(b) Rashi’s mother has rights of a victim because she is the legal guardian of her daughter.
(c) Only Rashi can file appeal against the sentence because she has suffered injuries due to the act
committed by Amit.
96. Mahesh has been charged with the offence of murder under Section 302 of IPC for committing the murder
of Ramesh. The trial court conducted its proceeding and at the end found Mahesh guilty of culpable
homicide not amounting to murder under Section 304 of IPC. Ramesh’s father filed appeal against the trial
court’s order under the power granted under Section 372 proviso of CrPC. Will he succeed?

MOCK CLAT #10
(a) Yes, since S. 372 provides the power to file appeal against conviction for lesser offence.
(b) Yes, since S. 372 provides the power to victim to appeal for enhancing the punishment.
(c) No, since S. 372 does not provide the power to file against trial court’s conviction.
(d) No, since Ramesh’s father doesn’t have locus standi.
97. Rakesh Sharma is an IPS officer. His daughter is getting married the next month. Rakesh Sharma had kept
around Rs. 10 lakhs cash in his cupboard for his daughter’s wedding. Rakshit worked as the peon of
Rakesh Sharm(a) He closely assisted Rakesh Sharma in his work and had knowledge about Rs. 10 lakhs.
One night, he entered Rakesh Sharma’s house and stole Rs. 7 lakh and some jewelleries that were kept
in Rakesh’s cupboar(d) While leaving, Rakesh Sharma caught Rakshit and threatened him with his gun.
Rakshit had no option and therefore used a glass vase and smashed it on Rakesh Sharma’s head, leaving
him unconscious. Rakshit ran with the money and jewelleries. Raskhit was charged with the offence of
theft. The trial court on analysing the facts of the case held him guilty of robbery and awarded him 3 years
of imprisonment instead of 10 years which is prescribed by the law. Can Rakesh Sharma file an appeal to
enhance the punishment to 10 years?
(a) Yes, Rakesh can appeal under Section 377.
(b) Yes, since the law prescribes 10 years of imprisonment if held guilty for the offence of robbery.
(c) No, since Section 372 does not envisage the right to appeal for enhancement of sentence.
(d) No, since the trial court has already convicted him for the offence of robbery instead of theft when he
had no intention to commit robbery.
98. The proviso to Section 372 had been added with the objective that “A victim-oriented approach to certain
aspects of criminal procedure was advocated in the Law Commission of India's 154th Report, 1996, which
noted that "increasingly, the attention of criminologists, penologists and reformers of criminal justice system
has been directed to victimology, control of victimization and protection of the victims of crimes…victims
are the worst sufferers in a crime and they don’t have much role in the court proceedings. They need to be
given certain rights and compensation, so that there is no distortion of criminal justice system.” Is the
judgement of Parvinder Kansal in consonance with the objective of the addition of the proviso as per the
author?
(a) Yes, the Parvinder Kansal case categorized the right of victim to appeal against the acquittal of
accused, conviction for lessor offence and for inadequate compensation.
(b) Yes, the judgement has tried to provide the rights to the victim so as to maintain the criminal justice
system.
(c) No, the judgement fails to provide the very basic right to the victims to appeal for enhancement of a
sentence.
(d) No, the judgement goes against the statutory remedy provided by the proviso under Section 372 of
CrPC.
99. Radhika was returning from a party thrown by her friend She was intoxicated but was in conscious state of
mind She was driving back to her home when she met an accident with Rahul’s car. Rahul was driving
rashly and negligently at a very fast speed Rahul suffered injuries on head whereas Radhika suffered minor
cracks. Rahul filed case against Radhika in court alleging negligent driving. The court held that Radhika is
guilty of “drunk driving” and imposed a fine of Rs. 5000. Radhika challenged the conviction before the court.
Which of the following is true?
(a) Radhika can challenge appeal against the conviction under Section 372 of CrPC.
(b) Radhika can challenge the imposition of fine of Rs. 5000 to reduce it.
(c) Rahul can challenge the conviction under Section 372 of CrPC.
(d) Rahul can challenge the imposition of fine of Rs. 5000 to increase it.
Passage (Q.100-Q.104): Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act provides:

“the fact that any person was born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any
man, or within two hundred and eighty days after its dissolution, the mother remaining unmarried shall be
conclusive proof that he is the legitimate son of that man unless it can be shown that the parties to the
marriage had no access to each other at any time when he could have been begotten”.

MOCK CLAT #10
For refuting the presumption of the legitimacy of such a child, it would have to be proved that during the
subsistence of a valid marriage, the parents of the child did not have access to each other.
In Morris v. Davies it was held that the burden to prove ‘non-access’, or lack of an opportunity of sexual
intercourse between the parties, lies on the party contesting so.
However, of late, the exponential growth in science and technology has questioned this provision. As per
studies, comparing genetic profiles of a man and a child can ascertain the paternity of that child with laser-
like precision. This makes the DNA test scientifically accurate and irrefutable.
Although DNA tests are not explicitly mentioned as an exception to the conclusive proof of Section 112.
Indian courts have, in some instances, allowed parties to conduct the same to ascertain paternity. However,
this practice is not uniform or regulated
In Nandlal Wasudev case the Supreme Court stated, “when there is a conflict between a conclusive proof
envisaged under the law and a proof based on scientific advancement accepted by the world community
to be correct, the latter must prevail over the former.”
[Source (edited): Ansh Singh Luthra, “Indian Evidence Act and Society Dynamics: A Call for a Review”,
Bar and Bench, (June 11, 2020), available at https://www.barandbench.com/columns/indian-evidence-act-
and-society-dynamics-a-call-for-a-review].
100. Ritika was married to Amit for five years. Recently Amit had started drinking and beating Ritika Therefore,
Ritika divorced Amit by law. After the end of their marriage, Amit visited Ritika several times to accept him
as her husband and remarry but Ritika refused After 200 days of the dissolution of their marriage, Ritika
married Soham, her childhood best friend After a month of their marriage, Ritika gave birth to a daughter
Riya Whose legitimate daughter is Riya as per Section 112 of the Evidence Act?
(a) Riya is the legitimate daughter of Soham because Ritika is married to Soham now.
(b) Riya is the legitimate daughter of Soham because Ritika and Amit did not have access to each other.
(c) Riya is the legitimate daughter of Amit because Ritika had only been married for a month to Soham.
(d) Riya is the legitimate daughter of Amit because Riya was begotten within 280 days of dissolution of
Amit and Ritika’s marriage.
101. Naina and Aman have been married but got divorced in January because Naina was cheating on Aman.
Naina got into relationship with Ritwik after the divorce. Naina conceived a baby on 15th June. Naina
remained unmarried after the divorce. Naina claimed that her baby is the legitimate child of Aman. Aman
refuted being the father of the baby. He proved that he didn’t have access to Naina from 13th June till 20th
June because he was in Singapore for a business trip. Is it true that the Aman is successful in proving that
the baby is not the legitimate child of Aman?
(a) Yes, since he did not have access to Naina on 15th June, i.e. when the baby was conceived.
(b) Yes, since Naina was in a relationship with Ritwik at the time when the baby was conceived.
(c) No, since Aman should be able to prove that he did not have access to Naina at any time the baby
could have been begotten.
(d) No, since the relationship with Ritwik is of no importance in deciding the legitimacy of the baby.
102. Rahul and Tina have been validly married for ten years. They had been trying for a baby for several years
but could not have one. Later, Rahul got distant from Tina and started an extra-marital affair with Anjali. He
left his house to live with Anjali. He had been living with Anjali for almost a year. He was planning to divorce
Tina when he heard the news that Tina conceived a baby. Tina claims that Rahul is the father of her baby.
But Rahul wants to divorce Tina and marry Anjali and therefore refuted the fact that he is the father of the
baby. Rahul proved that he had been living with Anjali for almost a year and did not have access to Tina
Which of the following is correct?
(a) The baby will be considered the legitimate child of Rahul because Rahul and Tina have been validly
married throughout.
(b) The baby will be considered the legitimate child of Rahul because Tina was not in any extra marital
relationship at the time of conceiving the baby.
(c) The baby will not be considered the legitimate child of Rahul because Rahul was involved in an extra
marital affair with Anjali.
(d) The baby will not be considered the legitimate child of Rahul because Rahul had been living separately
from Tina and did not have access to her at the time.

MOCK CLAT #10
103. Veer and Zaara are validly married Zaara gave birth to a baby girl named Viza Veer alleged that Viza is
not his legitimate daughter but he could not prove that he and Zaara did not have access to each other
during the time when Viza could have been begotten. Veer got a DNA test done. The results of DNA test
said that the DNA of Viza and Veer does not match. Which of the following is correct as per the case of
Nandlal Wasudev?
(a) Viza is not the legitimate child of Veer because Veer did not have knowledge of her birth.
(b) Viza is not the legitimate child of Veer because the DNA of both of them did not match as per the result
of the DNA test.
(c) Viza is the legitimate child of Veer because he failed to prove that he did not have access to Zaara at
the time when Viza could have been begotten.
(d) Viza is the legitimate child of Veer because Veer and Zaara are in a valid marriage.
104. Which of the following arguments weakens the decision of the Nandlal Wasudev case?
(a) The practice of conducting DNA test to assess paternity is not uniform and unregulated
(b) The conclusive proof as envisaged by law is based on child welfare so as to prevent child from being
bastardised and face social stigma
(c) DNA tests are 99.9% accurate and rarely used to assess paternity test.
(d) Scientific innovation would lead to changes in the law and allow reading of scientific advancement
under laws.
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #10
(Passage Q.105-Q.109): From childhood you look up to your parents when you are in doubt or are faced
with a challenge. You tend to do so when you become parents yourselves. You deem them the best person
to turn to for parenting advice. After all, they are the ones who brought you up. However, sometimes parents
do not agree with your parenting style or do not heed to the instructions you give them when they are with
their grandchildren.
Most of the times, children are left home with their grandparents when their parents are out for work. In
such a case, if their parents and grandparents are not on the same page when it comes to parenting, it
takes a toll on the child.
It is important to set boundaries in such a case. Boundaries help you protect your relationship with your
child and your parents. However, it can get difficult to set such harsh boundaries with your parents. You
tend to feel awkward when you must assert such power over the people who raised you. You are scared
that you will be disrespectful to them. However, it is important that you set these boundaries for the sake
of your children.
The next step is to remind them that they too took their time at perfecting the art of parenting. It is alright
to tell them that you, too, need your time and space to make mistakes and understand the intricacies of
parenthood. Tell them that you do not expect them to be you; however, some fundamental rules need to
be followed. Tell them that you would appreciate their love and support while you embark on the journey
of parenthood.
105. Which of the following is similar to the reason the author gives for setting boundaries?
(a) Parenting is emotionally and intellectually draining, and it often requires professional sacrifice and
serious financial hardship.
(b) Experienced parents give new parents a ton of advice – ultimately you decide what works best for your
family.
(c) Parental happiness is a psychological defence –a fiction we imagine to make all the hardships
acceptable.
(d) Parents all feel the weight of parenthood at some time or another – some more than others.
(a) More and more mothers have been speaking up about postpartum depression, and today most people
see it as a normal physiological response experienced by some new mothers.
(b) Studies have shown that when parents are fatigued, this can affect their overall wellbeing, as well as
their ability to respond to their children with sensitivity and confidence.
(c) Research suggests that communicating with your family regarding your decisions about raising your
children helps them see you as independent and capable.

(a) Joyful parenting is a myth.
(b) Exhaustion is integral to parenting.
(c) Parenting is a learning process.
(d) Parenting is expensive.
108. Why does the author say that setting boundaries is hard?
(a) Because it may seem uncomfortable.
(b) Because it may be too sentimental.
(c) Because it may not be good for your mental health.
(d) Because it may make you seem overconfident.

MOCK CLAT #10
109. Which of the following best represents the main point of the given passage?
(a) We must not rely on our parents for parenting advice.
(b) We must consult other parents in the community before bringing a child into this world.
(c) We must set boundaries when our parents do not agree with our parenting style.
(d) Our parents were experts and instinctively knew what was right for us.
(Passage Q.110-Q.113): Because of the unstructured nature of the group, the major problem faced by the
participants is how they are going to use their time together - whether it be eighteen hours of a week-end
or forty or more hours in a one-week group. Often there is consternation, anxiety, and irritation at first -
particularly because of the lack of structure. Only gradually does it become evident that the major aim of
nearly every member is to find ways of relating to other members of the group and to himself. Then as they
gradually, tentatively, and fearfully explore their feelings and attitudes towards one another and towards
themselves, it becomes increasingly evident that what they have first presented are façades, masks. Only
cautiously do the real feelings and real persons emerge. The contrast between the outer shell and the inner
person becomes more and more apparent as the hours go by. Little by little, a sense of genuine
communication builds up, and the person who has been thoroughly walled off from others comes out with
some small segment of his actual feelings. Usually his attitude has been that his real feelings will be quite
unacceptable to other members of the group. To his astonishment, he finds that he is more accepted the
more real that he becomes. Negative feelings are often especially feared, since it seems certain to each
individual that his angry or jealous feelings cannot possibly be accepted by another. Thus one of the most
common developments is that a sense of trust slowly begins to build, and also a sense of warmth and liking
for other members of the group. A woman says on Sunday afternoon, 'If anybody had told me Friday
evening that by today I would be loving every member of this group I would have told him that he belonged
in the nut house.' Participants feel a closeness and intimacy which they have not felt even with their spouses
or members of their own family, because they have revealed themselves here more deeply and more fully
than to those in their own family circle.
Thus, in such a group the individual comes to know himself and each of the others more completely than
is possible in the usual social or working relationships. He becomes deeply acquainted with the other
members and with his own inner self, the self that otherwise tends to be hidden behind his façade. Hence
he relates better to others, both in the group and later in the everyday life situation.
110. Which of the following best describes the attitude of the author towards Encounter Groups?
(a) Philosophical but unsure (b) Modest appreciation
(c) Dissatisfied (d) Optimism
111. The author develops his idea by

(a) comparison and contrast.
(b) comparing opinions and facts.
(c) explaining a chronology of events.
(d) providing illustrations to support his theory.
112. The author is most likely to discuss which of the following in the paragraph that would immediately follow
the last paragraph above?
(a) Challenges faced by participants in Encounter Groups
(b) Describing experiences of people who benefitted from Encounter Groups
(c) Advocating Encounter Groups as a part of psychotherapy.
(d) Benefits of psychoanalysis in improving effectiveness of Encounter Groups
113. Why does the author refer to the woman’s example in first paragraph?
(a) To highlight the rapidness with which people become comfortable in Encounter Groups
(b) To explain that initial reluctance to open up is very short lived
(c) To highlight that even women are comfortable in Encounter Groups

MOCK CLAT #10
(Passage Q.114-Q.117): Are you worried? Do you have many “what if” thoughts? You are identified with
your mind, which is projecting itself into an imaginary future situation and creating fear. You can stop this
health- and life-corroding insanity simply by acknowledging the present moment. All that you ever have to
deal with, cope with, in real life is this moment. Ask yourself what “problem” you have right now, not next
year, tomorrow, or five minutes from now. What is wrong with this moment? You can always cope with the
Now, but you can never cope with the future – nor do you have to. The answer, the strength, the right action
or the resource will be there when you need it, not before, not after. Are you a habitual “waiter”? How much
of your life do you spend waiting? What I call “small-scale waiting” is waiting in line at the post office, in a
traffic jam, at the airport, or waiting for someone to arrive, to finish work, and so on. “Large-scale waiting”
is waiting for the next vacation, for a better job, for the children to grow up, for a truly meaningful
relationship, for success, to make money, to be important, to become enlightened. It is not uncommon for
people to spend their whole life waiting to start living. There is nothing wrong with striving to improve your
life situation. You can improve your life situation, but you cannot improve your life. Life is primary. Life is
your deepest inner Being. It is already whole, complete, perfect.
Your life situation consists of your circumstances and your experiences. If you are dissatisfied with what
you have got, or even frustrated or angry about your present lack, that may motivate you to become rich,
but even if you do make millions, you will continue to experience the inner condition of lack, and deep down
you will continue to feel unfulfilled. You may have many exciting experiences that money can buy, but they
will come and go and always leave you with an empty feeling and the need for further physical or
psychological gratification. So give up waiting as a state. When you catch yourself slipping into waiting …
snap out of it. Come into the present moment. Just be, and enjoy being. If you are present, there is never
any need for you to wait for anything. So next time somebody says, “Sorry to have kept you waiting,” you
can reply, “That's all right, I wasn't waiting. I was just standing here enjoying myself – in joy in my self.”
114. The primary purpose of the passage is to propose that

(a) the present moment is its own death.
(b) the self is based on mind identification.
(c) we practise monitoring our inner mental-emotional state.
(d) we awake out of waiting into the present.
115. According to the author, the future

(a) is a mental phantom.
(b) is an imaginary mind projection.
(c) will always seem better.
(d) accelerates ageing by accumulating the past in your psyche.
116. According to the passage, habitual waiting

(a) is reducing the present moment to a means to an end.
(b) is a perfect recipe for permanent dissatisfaction and non-fulfillment.
(c) greatly reduces the quality of your life by making you lose the present.
(d) unconsciously creates inner conflict between your now and your projected future.
117. According to the author, true prosperity

(a) is keeping us trapped in time.
(b) does not abide in Being.
(c) is the fullness of life now.
(d) is the background static of perpetual discontent.
118. Passage: To build a house, you need both money and labour. Labour is missing. Therefore, the house
cannot be constructed.
Which of the following most closely follows the logic of this statement?
(a) You can cook food on a stove. You do not have a stove. Therefore you cannot cook food.
(b) You should have a black pen to write the paper. You can’t write the paper. Therefore, you don’t have a
black pen.

MOCK CLAT #10
(c) One should have a good work experience to be able to handle HR responsibilities. He is unable to
handle the HR role. Therefore, he does not have any work experience.
(d) For an organization to exist there is a need of excellent staff. Absence of excellent staff is a setback.
Therefore the organization cannot exist.
119. Passage: It’s that time of year when the ministry of finance begins to receive demands for grants from their
counterparts, and allocation for defence has always been a point of debate. Despite substantial increase
in budget allocation, military spend as a percentage of GDP has been declining in India. This trend has
been the subject of much criticism because India would always have to contend with the possibility of a
two-front war scenario with China and Pakistan.
Which of the following is the most plausible course of action that can be taken?
(a) To demand an escalation in the defence budget
(b) To increase integrated planning on procurement amongst the armed forces
(c) To ponder why budget allocation is biased
(d) To demand equal distribution of funds among different sectors of economy, so as to fight powers like
China and Pakistan
120. Passage: India, with a population of over 1.2 billion, has seen tremendous growth in the past two decades.
Its gross domestic product has increased 4.5 times and per capita consumption has increased threefold.
Similarly, food grain production has nearly doubled. However, despite the phenomenal industrial and
economic growth and while India produces sufficient food to feed its population, the nation is unable to
provide access to food to a large number of people, especially women and children.
With reference to the above passage, which of the following is logically consistent?
(a) When it comes to treatment, women and children in India are maltreated.
(b) Majority of women in India are anemic.
(c) India accounts for a quarter of undernourished population in the world.
(d) An alarming number of people in India are dying of starvation every year
121. Passage: In 2015 the rate of inflation was 5 percent, but for the year 2016 it has been 9 percent. Brinda
Karat has therefore averred that inflation is on the rise and the rate will increase the next year.
Which of the following will most weaken the claim of Brinda Karat?
(a) Government interference cannot affect the rate of inflation.
(b) Increase in the pay of some workers is linked to the level of inflation; these pay outs raise the level of
inflation.
(c) The inflation figures were computed on the basis of a representative sample of economic data rather
than all of the available data.
(d) A fall in oil prices brought inflation temporarily below its recent stable annual level.
(Passage Q.122-Q.126): Aflatoxin was flagged as a potential carcinogen as far back as 2000 by the MP
Pollution Control Board (PCB), yet use of the chemical has grown exponentially since, with the chemical
giant Dow Chemical Company dominating the market. Numerous reports have covered the internal
company documents showing how Dow’s influence over the PCB succeeded in suppressing health
concerns.
In fact, rather than restricting the use of Aflatoxin, the PCB has raised the legal threshold for residues on
some foods up to 300-fold above levels deemed safe in the 1990s. And unlike with other commonly used
pesticides, the government has turned a blind eye for decades when it comes to monitoring Aflatoxin –
failing to test for it on food and in our bodies.
122. Which of the following can be inferred about some foods?

(a) the maximum permissible limit of Aflatoxin in 1990 was lower than it is now.
(b) the maximum permissible limit of Aflatoxin in 1990 was higher than it is now.
(c) the maximum permissible limit of Aflatoxin in 1990 was similar to what it is now.
(d) the maximum permissible limit of Aflatoxin in 1990 was first reduced but then finally increased.

MOCK CLAT #10
123. Which of the following is the logical corollary to the last sentence of the given passage?
(a) “I would love to get those pesticides out of my body and my family’s bodies,” said B.S. Jamod of Bhopal,
a participant and father of two.
(b) So it’s no surprise that Roundup – the world’s most widely used weed killer – shows up in our bodies.
(c) the agency's slipshod regulation has led to a dramatic increase in exposure.
(d) Switching to an organic diet decreased levels of Aflatoxin, by 70% in just six days.
124. Which of the following most accurately represents the author's main point in the passage?
(a) The MP government strictly monitors the use of pesticides.
(b) Aflatoxin is a pesticide that has been allowed to be used by the PCB
(c) C. Aflatoxin is a less harmful pesticides than other pesticides.
(d) pesticides are found in abundance in foods these days.
125. Which of the following is LEAST consistent with the author's reasoning in the passage?
(a) the MP PCB labelled Aflatoxin as a chemical that causes cancer.
(b) the use of Aflatoxin has grown in an unprecedented manner.
(c) Dow's internal documents point to the fact that it has influence over the PCB.
(d) the use of Aflatoxin is now monitored, and the level of its presence has decreased considerably.
126. What can be inferred about the MP government and the MP PCB from the given passage?
(a) they are considering disallowing the use of Aflatoxin
(b) they monitor the use of Aflatoxin
(c) they are prone to influence from external agencies
(d) they work alongside each other to ban the use of pesticides.
(Passage Q.127-Q.131): Las Vegas, Graveyard Time scans the plush interiors of the Desert Inn and
Caesar's Palace casinos - places designed to make people spend and lose money. Chips are stacked, the
roulette wheel spins, but there's no background noise - no commotion, no real motion. Just the sound of
the roulette wheel. Eerie.
Then there's an abrupt cut to the interior of the Hoover Dam which supplies water to Las Vegas. Juxtaposed
are the power of money - the casinos - and their dependence on a different kind of power provided by the
Hoover Dam. This film is the latest in a series by the Wilsons centred around architecture and power.
But it is My Bed which has grabbed the media's attention. This installation by Tracey Emin, based on bed-
ridden days of depression and physical illness, has provoked shock and derision. The viewer is compelled
to examine crumpled sheets, torn pillows, blood-stained knickers, screwed-up tissues, empty vodka bottles
and cigarette packets, a pair of slippers. It's personal. We've all been there. Oh, I almost forgot to mention
the suitcases in chains. There's anger and alienation. It screams out. Emotion. Betrayal. A series of pen
and ink drawings and words sprawl across another wall. In the next room, a number of short films give
further insights into Emin's life and attitudes.
It is all uncompromising, explicit and loud. Evidently, some sections of the 'art establishment' have grown
bored of Emin's use of personal trauma and pain. But this sounds more like contrived outrage to an
assertive, aggressive woman. This is no comfort zone. This art will move you whether you like it or not.
But, if Tracey Emin manages to deal with some of the symptoms of class society, Jane and Louise Wilson
hit a higher level. The Wilsons' works are broad and general. They make you consider the superstructure
of society, wealth and control. Ultimately, there is a questioning of the nature of society itself. They come
nearer to identifying the disease.
Steven Pippin's work is a mix of engineering and imagination: photographs of a horse and rider, and of
himself walking and running. The photographs are the same size as the front of washing machines - he
adapted machines in a New Jersey laundromat into cameras, chemicals in the powder dispenser, the lot.
Called Laundromat-Locomotion, the result is a load of large, unclear photographs taken by the machines.
The machine becomes the watcher - a cleaner version of Big Brother? There's a play between people
watching washing and watching TV.

MOCK CLAT #10
127. Las Vegas, Graveyard Time is in reality

(a) a movie depicting an eerie place where a person would get entrapped and lose his money.
(b) an actual place that has casinos and pleasure activities, designed for people to lose their money and
themselves.
(c) a movie that runs over two different themes of architecture and power, shot in an eerie style, mixing
the two themes.
(d) a movie that runs over two different themes of architecture and power, shot in a unique style, mixing
two perspectives of the subject together.
128. 'My Bed' has captured the media's attention because

(a) of the compelling visual imagery that depicts crumpled bed sheets, torn pillows, bloodstained knickers
etc.
(b) it is based on bed-ridden days of depression and physical illness, has provoked shock and derision,
and this attracts the media.
(c) the visual imagery is very personal, and relates to the personal experience of suffering of every
individual. This makes it very compelling.
(d) the compelling imagery arouses sentiments of shock and derision in the mind of the viewer and thus
has a strong impact.
129. The passage speaks of the impact and probable future of Emin's art in light of the evident boredom of
others in the art community with her style. According to the passage:
(a) this form of art is on its way out as the consistent use of personal tragedy as a medium of expression
has lost its novelty.
(b) whether one likes it or not it makes a strong impact and moves the viewer.
(c) there is anger and alienation in the art community for using such powerful imagery.
(d) it questions the superstructure of society, wealth and control and is thus anti establishment.
Consequently, it may not survive
130. Laundromat - Locomotion is about

(a) washing machine as the subjects and a cleaner Big Brother as the viewer.
(b) Watching TV while washing in the washing machines by people.
(c) washing machines as the viewer and a cleaner Big Brother as the subject.
(d) washing machines as the viewer with a subtle allusion to the cleansing of the society.
.
131. The aim of the passage seems to be
(a) an appraisal of the prevalent styles of art.
(b) a critical analysis of artists and their art forms
(c) it is unclear although it seems that an effort has been made to provide objective views on the artists
and their art forms.
132. If white is called blue, blue is called red, red is called yellow, yellow is called green, green is called black,
black is called violet and violet is called orange, what would be the colour of human blood?
(a) Red (b) Green (c) Yellow (d) Violet
Direction: (Q.133): The question consists of two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have
to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the
statements and give answer
(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone
are not sufficient in answer the question.
(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) if the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) if the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

MOCK CLAT #10
133. V, W, X, Y, Z and A are sitting in a straight line facing north. Who sits on the immediate left of V?
I. Only two persons sit on the right of Z. Only one person sits between Z and A.
II. Z sits second to the left of V, who sits at the extreme end of the line, X sits third to the right of A.
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #10
Directions (Q.134-Q.150): Refer to the line graph below and answer the questions that follow
Directions: (Q.134-Q.138): Study the following pie - charts carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Percentage breaks up of the number of children in five different villages and break up of children
attending school from those villages
134. What is the total number of children not attending school from village V₂and V₃together?
(a) 528 (b) 508 (c) 518 (d) 618
135. The number of children attending school from village V₁is approximate, what percent of the number of
children from that village?
(a) 54% (b) 56% (c) 60% (d) 58%
136. What is the approximate average number of children not attending school from village V₂, V₃and
V₄together?
(a) 269 (b) 258 (c) 264 (d) 270
137. The number of children not attending school from village V₄ and V₅ is approximately what percent of the
total number of children from village V₄ and V₅ together?
(a) 43.65% (b) 42.5% (c) 48% (d) 46%
138. What is the ratio of the total number of children from village V₄ to the number for children attending
school from the same village?
(a) 22:21 (b) 29:28 (c) 29:21 (d) 29:27

MOCK CLAT #10
Directions: (Q.139-Q.143): The following data shows the working hours for three employees (Shashi,
Neha, and Ashok) in six days to complete a task. The working hours also indicates the time taken by them
to complete the same task alone.
139. What is the difference between the average of working hours of Shashi on Day 1 and Day 6 together and
the average of working hours of Neha on Day 5 and Day 6 together?
(a) 4.5 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 0
140. On Day 2, If Shashi takes half the working hour time to complete a work while Neha takes equal time as
Shashi, and Ashok takes 50% more time to complete the same work alone. What will be the ratio of their
working efficiency to complete a work?
(a) 12: 18: 7 (b) 18: 18: 7 (c) 9: 9: 7 (d) 12: 12: 7
141. Working hours on Day 5 by Shashi, Neha, and Ashok are the time taken by them to complete a work
alone. How much time will they take to complete thrice the same work working together?
8 9 7
(a) 413 hours (b) 313 hours (c) 413 hours (d) None of these
142. On Day 4, Shashi was supposed to complete the task on time. Due to health issues, he stopped when
only one-third of the task was completed. Half of the remaining work was completed by Neha alone and
the rest by Ashok alone. What is the total time taken by them to complete the task?
1 1
(a) 7 hours (b) 73 hours (c) 62 hours (d) 8 hours
143. What is the ratio of total working hours of Shashi and Ashok together throughout the period of six days to
that of Neha’s throughout the period of six days?
(a) 71: 33 (b) 77: 34 (c) 74: 33 (d) None of these
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #10
Direction: (Q.144-Q.148): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
beside.
A father divided his property between two sons A and B and one daughter C. The person has Rs. 80000
in cash, Rs. 5 lakhs as land and Rs. 6 lakhs as gold. He gave half of the gold to his daughter and remaining
gold divided between sons in equal proportion. He gave only 20% of total land to his daughter and divided
the remaining land between sons A and B in the ratio of 3 : 1 respectively on the condition that the child
who received highest share of land will give Rs. 2500 per month to his father. He gave 75% of the total
cash amount to his daughter and remaining cash amount was divided between sons in equal proportion.
144. How much total property (in cash, land and Gold together) did C get?
(a) Rs. 4.9 lakhs (b) Rs. 4.6 lakhs (c) Rs. 4.7 lakhs (d) Rs. 4.8 lakhs
145. The share of son A in total property was how much more than that of son B in total property?
(a) Rs. 2 lakhs (b) Rs. 2.1 lakhs (c) Rs. 1.9 lakhs (d) Rs. 2.2 lakhs
146. After dividing the property, the father had lived for another 10 years, then the son who had received the
highest share of land was left with how much total property after 10years ?
(a) Rs. 2.6 lakhs (b) Rs. 1.4 lakhs (c) Rs. 1.65 lakhs (d) Rs. 1.6 lakhs
147. The share of land received by Son A was how much percentage more than that by daughter C?
(a) 300% (b) 200% (c) 150% (d) 100%
148. What was the respective ratio of the total property received by son A and that by son B?
(a) 21 : 11 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 25 : 13 (d) 23 : 13
Direction: (Q.149 and Q.150): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
beside.
In city A and B there are four types of people living i.e. Writer, Painter, Singer, and Dancer. Writer of city B
is 20% more than the writer of A. Ratio of painter in city A and B is 7:5. Dancer at A is 14 less than painter
at Band
Dancer at B is 28 less than the painter at A. Total dancer is 78. Difference of singer A and B is12. Ratio of
singer of A and B is 17:13. Writer at B is 48.
149. Find Ratio of total people of A with total people of B?

(a) 191:167 (b) 193:197 (c) 193:199 (d) 197:179
150. Total painters in both A and B is how much percent more or less than the total singer?
(a) 29% (b) 33.33% (c) 12.2% (d) 25%
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #10
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #10
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

From the producers of the Best and the Most number of A.I.Rs in the past years, every year!
MOCK CLAT #11

Candidate Name : _________________
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
Test Centre/Hall.
MOCK CLAT #11
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): Donald Trump promised the American people that he would “Make America Great
Again” by pursuing an America First foreign policy as president. The pledge, made on his inauguration
day, stemmed from his belief that the international liberal order created by the US at the end of the
second world war no longer served its purpose. America’s expensive commitments abroad had left the
country exhausted and overstretched. While Washington’s elites acted as the policeman of the world, as
he saw its European allies were given a free pass on American largesse. Unfair trade agreements and
globalisation had caused much damage to the US economy and, as a consequence, Americans
struggled with wage stagnation and a rising cost of living. He was not far from the truth: American foreign
policy has been in dire straits for quite a few decades.
As Trump’s administration approaches its endpoint, this is probably the most significant aspect of his
foreign policy legacy. He pointed out an inconvenient truth that both the Democratic and Republican
parties had refused to acknowledge: the US could no longer sustain a policy of global supremacy at the
expense of domestic economic stability. Unfortunately for the American people and the rest of the world,
Trump was unable to deliver on his promise to make America great again. Even though he did not win a
second term in the Oval Office, he leaves behind a foreign policy legacy that will make the job of his
successor, Joe Biden, very difficult.
Trump spent his one term in the White House rolling back or striking down many of the policies of his
predecessor, Barack Obama, withdrawing from international institutions and treaties, and weakening
historical alliances. Biggest example being the stepping away from the Paris Agreement. It also allowed
Beijing to claim the moral high ground on an issue that affects the entire planet, thus strengthening
Chinese soft power. But he never put forward a cohesive foreign policy strategy that would renew US
global leadership, strengthen the economy and protect national security.
By appointing inexperienced family members to lead foreign policy issues, shifting foreign policy-making
into White House and forcing a business-like restructuring of the State Department, he undermined the
administration’s ability to think strategically about the US role in the world and its long-term goals in
specific regions. He also failed to fully transition from businessman to commander-in-chief. He often
relied on short-term solutions and quick fixes. His private character and operating style, such as the
reckless use of Twitter-diplomacy, left allies and enemies puzzled, to say the least, about his knowledge
and understanding of his role. This eroded the credibility of America’s international commitments and its
capacity to act effectively in the international realm.
[Excerpt taken from As ‘America first’ finishes second, Trump is leaving behind a trying foreign policy
legacy for Biden by Mara Oliva. Available at https://scroll.in/article/978186/as-america-first-finishes-
second-trump-is-leaving-behind-a-trying-foreign-policy-legacy-for-biden]
1. Which of the following reason has Donald Trump given for the American foreign policy being in dire
straits?
(a) His belief in the fact that the international liberal order created by them at the at of the world war II
does not serve its purpose anymore.
(b) His belief that unfair trade agreements and globalisation has caused much damage to the US
economy.
(c) America’s expensive commitment in other countries has exhausted the countries.
2. What is the most significant aspect of foreign policy legacy which the Trump administration left?
(a) His only legacy was to not being able to fulfil the promises his made in this inauguration pledge.
(b) His most important legacy was to withdraw from major international institutions.
(c) That the America cannot be a global superpower at the cost of the domestic economic stability.
(d) He is leaving a policy legacy which will make it difficult for his successor to fulfil.

MOCK CLAT #11
3. Consider the following and Choose which are true according the passage.
I. Trump’s rejection of International Organisation has made the position of US stronger.
II. China took the advantage of portraying itself as the soft power by taking the position of US after the
latter withdrew from the Paris Agreement.
III. Trump’s Twitter diplomacy has proved to be a stroke of genius as it helped him to establish
transparency in system.
(a) Only II is true (b) Only I is true.
(c) Both II and III are true. (d) All of the them are true.

(a) Leaving the World Health Organisation was a mistake on the part of US(a)
(b) Trump undid many of the policy decisions of his predecessor Barak Obama.
(c) Biden has indicated his plans to stay away from the Paris Agreement.
(d) Trump failed in transforming from a businessman to commander-in-chief.
5. Which of the following words from the passage means ‘lack of activity or growth’?
(a) Transnational (b) Dire Straits (c) Stagnation (d) Pandemic
Passage (Q.6-Q.10): Under Section 306 of IPC, abetment to suicide could result in jail term that may
extend to ten years and a fine. Section 107 of the IPC, which defines abetment. It can occur in three
major ways: instigation, conspiring to do or illegally omit to do an act and intentionally aiding the
commission of suicide.
In Ramesh Kumar v. the State of Chattisgarh, the SC held that the prosecution has to prove: that the
deceased was instigated and that the accused knew with reasonable certainty that his instigation would
incite such consequences. In Chitresh Chopra v. State, the SC said that instigation could be in the form
of goading, provoking or urging someone forward until they teeter on the edge of ruin and see no other
choice. Elucidating the concept of intentionally aiding suicide, the SC in Sohan Raj Sharma v. the State
of Haryana said that abetment is not only a mental process of instigating a person but also involves
intentionally aiding that person in committing the act. Most importantly, for a conviction to be sustained, it
is necessary that an active act or direct act of the abettor led the deceased to take such a step, the SC
said in Gangula Mohan Reddy v. Andhra Pradesh.
For charges of abetment under Section 306, it has to be proven that there is existence of mensrea or
intention on part of the accused. In Gurcharan Singh v. the State of Punjab it was laid down that mensrea
cannot be assumed: but be blatantly evident. To prove mensrea, it has to be shown that the accused had
a guilty mind and in furtherance of that state of mind through a direct act abetted the suicide of the
deceased. However, Justice SS Shinde had previously laid down an exception. In Vaijnath Kondiba
Khandke vs. the State of Maharashtra, he held that in cases where the accused people have no such
intention, but they limit the deceased’s choices by causing “tremendous mental tension” to push the
deceased to take their life, it can be said that the accused instigated the commission of suicide.
While suicide note is often regarded as clinching evidence, in certain cases like non-payment of dues,
the court will also analyse extenuating circumstances. Often, the victim’s decision to end their life is
unaccompanied by a direct act or instigation by the accused despite the contents of a suicide note. In the
ArnabGoswami case, the prosecution would have to prove that three accused people purposely and
maliciously withheld payment of dues knowing about Naik’s fragile mental and financial state. If these
elements are satisfied, then non-payment of dues could be held as grounds for abetment of suicide.
[Excerpt taken from ArnabGoswami case: Is ‘non-payment of dues’ legitimate grounds to claim abetment
to suicide? By ManviRathod and KeiyaBarot. Available at https://scroll.in/article/978201/arnab-goswami-
case-is-non-payment-of-dues-legitimate-grounds-to-claim-abetment-to-suicide]

MOCK CLAT #11
6. Which of the following is not true about Section 306 of the IPC?
I. It is necessary that the accused is instigated by the victim.
II. Section 306 is read with section 107 of the IP(c)
III. For abetment, it is necessary to prove mensrea.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Only III (d) None of the above.
7. In which one of the following cases it was held that the abetment involves the intentionally aiding the
person in the commission of the act.
(a) VaijnathKondibaKhandke vs. the State of Maharashtra
(b) Ramesh Kumar v. the State of Chattisgarh
(c) Sohan Raj Sharma v. the State of Haryana
(d) Gangula Mohan Reddy v. Andhra Pradesh.
8. Which of the following position is correct in the context of the suicide note?
(a) Suicide note is the most important aspect and conclusive proof of the crime of abetment to murder.
(b) Suicide note is not a reliable piece of evidence.
(c) Suicide notes, however strong cannot be the sole basis of conviction.
(d) Suicide note are not admissible as evidence in a Court of Law.
9. Which of the following is cannot be inferred with respect to mensrea from the passage?
(a) That it cannot be assumed.
(b) That it has to be blatantly evident.
(c) To prove mensrea, it has to be proved that the accused had a guilty mind.
(d) That the mensrea is not indispensable to the abetment.
10. From the context of the passage, what is the meaning of clinching evidence?
(a) Material Evidence.
(b) Non-essential evidence.
(c) Evidence not admissible in Court
(d) Evidence whose reliability is in question.
Passage (Q.11-Q.15): The state governments of UP, Haryana and Karnataka have announced their
intentions to bring in laws to curb the bogey of ‘love jihad’. In a bizarre statement, the chief minister of UP
has even warned men who ‘hide their identities’ and ‘play with the honour of daughters and sisters’ to get
ready for their own funerals.
‘Love jihad’ caught public attention in 2009, when a website hindujagruti.org claimed that some
organisation called Muslim Youth Forum had put up a poster regarding ‘love jihad’, which entailed
‘trapping’ Hindu girls in love with the aim of converting them for marriage. Later, its existence in some
other states too was claimed. The claim of hindujagruti.org that five Islamic websites mentioned by them
had references to love jihad was found to be false. After a sustained investigation, the Kerala police
concluded that it was a campaign with no substance. Eventually, Justice M. SasidharanNambiar of the
Kerala high court held that ‘inter-religion marriages were common in our society and it could not be seen
as a crime’ and closed the investigation.
The Union government itself has admitted before parliament, “The term ‘love jihad’ is not defined under
the extant laws. No such case of ‘love jihad’ has been reported by any of the central agencies.”
In the Hadiya case of 2018, the National Investigation Agency had alleged that Hadiya was a victim of
what they had, for obvious reasons, hypothesised as indoctrination and psychological kidnapping. SC
observed that matters of belief and faith, including whether to believe, are at core of constitutional liberty
and state or ‘patriarchal supremacy’ could not interfere in her decision. Justice Chandrachud wrote that
the ‘absolute right of an individual to choose a life partner is not in the least affected by matters of faith’.
In November 2019, the UP State Law Commission (UPSLC) had submitted its eighth report to the state
government along with draft legislation recommending a new law to regulate and control conversions.

MOCK CLAT #11
Conceptually, it is similar to the (bizarrely named) Freedom of Religion Acts (essentially anti-conversion
laws) in Arunachal Pradesh, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh,
Jharkhand, and Uttarakhand, which seek to prevent conversion through forcible or fraudulent means, or
by allurement or inducement. In Rev. Stainislausvs State of Madhya Pradesh &Ors (1977), a constitution
bench of the SC had upheld the validity of the Madhya Pradesh Dharma SwatantrayaAdhiniyam, 1968,
and the Orissa Freedom of Religion Act, 1967. Making a fine legal point, the court had held that the right
to propagate did not include the right to convert any person. In other words, propagation is different from
proselytization, which needed to be regulated.
[Excerpt taken from Ulterior Motive of ‘Love Jihad’ Laws Is to Drive Muslims Out of the Social Ecosystem,
by N.C Asthana. Available at https://thewire.in/communalism/love-jihad-laws-muslim-exclusion-ulterior-
motive-hindutva]
11. Which of the following explains love jihad according to the passage?
(a) Inter-religious marriage with the intention of converting the religion of the girl.
(b) Inter-religious marriage with the intention of converting the religion of the boy.
(c) Trapping of Hindu girl in love to convert their religion after marriage.
(d) Trapping of Hindu boy or girl in love to convert their religion after marriage.

(a) That the SC has laid down that the right to choose life partner is not affect by the matters of faith.
(b) The claim of hindujagruti.org regarding the Islamic website was true.
(c) If the state bring law against the inter-religious marriage to curb love-jihad, it won’t sustain.
(d) All of them are true.
13. In the underlined line, the articles have been removed. In how many places will the definite article ‘the’
should be present, which would not alter the meaning of the statement?
14. What is the meaning of the word ‘Proselytize’?

(a) Converting from one religion to another
(b) Converting the religion of wife to the religion of husband
(c) Converting the religion for the purpose of marriage.
(d) Converting the religion because of the belief in other religion.
15. I. Right to propagate includes the right to proselytize.

II. Right to choose life partner is not affected by the matters of faith.
Which of the following is correct with regards to the above statements.
(a) Both I and II are correct.
(b) Both II and II are incorrect.
(c) Option I is correct but II is incorrect.
(d) Option I is incorrect but II is correct.
Passage (Q.16-Q.20): T-shirts may be the most popular choice of attire at home or elsewhere, but it’s
too mundane and irrelevant to be addressed or to qualify to be a part of an academic enquiry. T-shirts
don’t have the capacity to represent caste, class, or power as much as some of the traditional forms of
apparel. No wonder why Indian scholars, even those who are working on contemporary visual and
popular cultures, have never considered T-shirts as relevant texts.
T-shirt is a garment like no other, with enormous possibilities of textile variations. T-shirt’s ability to
accommodate a whole range of texts and images implies the inherent hollowness of the commodity. It is
otherwise so meaningless that anything can be imprinted on it. At the same time, the imprinted texts and
images are not seriously representative of anything because of unceremonious nature of the garment
where they appear. Images and texts on T-shirts derive their appeal from the fact that they are casually
imprinted.

MOCK CLAT #11
What are the characteristics of its casualness? First, it is flexible and ambiguous. Second, it is
minimalistic and has a mass appeal, as it rehashes the clichés of popular culture. Third, it is
androgynous. Fourth, it is dispensable or it can be easily discarded. Fifth, and most importantly, it is
symbolically empty.
A T-shirt can be bought anywhere, anytime, and anyhow without too much thought. It can also be
disposed of without much regret—or the same product can be purchased yet again without much
consideration. Most T-shirts can be bought whimsically, worn un-pressed, and thrown away as they fade
with time and use. It is essentially hollow and empty, which is why it makes allowance for images or texts
to inhabit its body so casually and ever so easily. The T-shirt does not have any emphatic social marker,
which is why it can easily accommodate arbitrary visual or textual elements. This is also the reason why
we do not mind wearing a T-shirt with random images or texts on it (unless it truly offends our
sensibilities), whereas we may find it extremely inappropriate to wear a shirt or a sari with similar texts
and images.
The T-shirt is an exception to established correlation between the commodity and its signifying ability. It’s
an example of an aberration of representational framework. It may convey informality, but nothing truly
substantial. Unlike any other traditional clothing or formal dresses, which prepare one for certain
professions, places, activities, or rituals, a T-shirt is inherently casual, even when it is loaded with texts
and images. Only t-shirts can possibly accommodate and entertain erratic spontaneity without any
obligation of conveying anything cogent. It can even subvert the communicative abilities of the text
imprinted on it.
[Excerpt taken from Wear Che Guevara, Johnny Walker and Gandhi on your T-shirts, but it says nothing
about you by Shreedeep Bhattacharya. Available at https://theprint.in/pageturner/excerpt/wear-che-
guevara-johnny-walker-and-gandhi-on-your-t-shirts-but-it-says-nothing-about-you/533759/]
16. Which of the following is false regarding a t-shirt?

(a) A whole range of text and images can be printed on a t-shirt without a thought.
(b) The imprinted text and images of a t-shirt can represent anything.
(c) Images and texts on T-shirts derive their appeal from the very fact that they are casually imprinted
(d) The T-shirt is an exception to the established correlation between the commodity and its signifying
ability
17. Why haven’t the Indian scholars working on contemporary visual and popular cultures, have never
considered T-shirts as relevant texts?
(a) Because t-shirts comes with enormous possibilities of textile variations.
(b) Because a t-shirt, unlike other traditional apparel does not represent any class, class or power.
(c) Because t-shirt is everybody’s favourite.
(d) Because t-shirts are the most popular attires at home.
18. Which of the following does not contributes to the casualness of the T-shirts?
(a) It is not associated with any specific gender.
(b) It is has no symbolical meaning.
(c) It has definite and precise.
(d) It can be easily discarded.
19. Which of the following words in the passage is opposite in meaning to the word ‘precise’?
(a) Hallow (b) Ambiguous (c) Aberration (d) Whimsical
20. What is the meaning of the term androgynous?

(a) Of indeterminate sex
(b) Not belonging to either male of female
(c) Not recognising the sex allotted at the time of birth.

MOCK CLAT #11
Passage (Q.21-Q.24): The art of painting reached new heights under the Akbar and his successors. New
subject matter and techniques were incorporated by the Persian masters working under Mughal
patronage in collaboration with Indian painters, producing a sublime style. Its influence soon reached the
royal courts of Rajput rulers, who came to be inspired by their Mughal overlords and competed with them
by extending lavish patronage to painters.
During Akbar’s reign, the fertile tracts of present-day Pathankot, then part of Nurpur state, as well as the
area of Guler state, were annexed to the Mughals. After the conquest, Akbar’s revenue minister
Todarmal had sarcastically informed that he had ‘taken the flesh and had left the bare bones for the
Pahari landlords’. To compensate for this, the Nurpur and Guler states’ rulers were conferred the position
of mansabdar by the Mughal emperor. Rajput warriors were held in high regard in the Mughal court and
assigned prestigious ranks in military expeditions. The Pahari Rajput rulers were thus indebted to the
Mughal rulers and, being mansabdars, used to frequent the Mughal court to pay tribute.
The rulers of Nurpur and Guler states were gallant warriors and led the Mughal army many times. Thus,
they were well versed with trends of the Mughal court. Mughal culture sought reflection not only in their
attire but also in fine arts, lavish princely hobbies, and material luxuries. Consequently, the 17th to 19th
centuries saw a great revolution in art and culture. The pictorial art of this period, which evolved and
flourished under the patronage of the princely hill states, garnered fame in the world as ‘Pahari miniature
painting’.
The hill region comprised many big and small princely states, and most maintained ateliers. The rulers
had extraordinary love for art and used to embellish temples, spacious mansions, and palaces in their
principalities. They took into service the tarkhan-chitera (carpenter-painters), exhibiting a marked
inclination towards fostering Pahari miniature painting. Perhaps the art of painting manifested the most
beautiful medium of expression for their romantic passions and sexual impulses. Like medieval European
knights, Rajput rulers, too, considered ‘love’ and ‘war’ as great pursuits of life. Epic tales of their amorous
dalliances and great conquests, as also legends of love, thus form the subject matter of Pahari painting.
Imbibing many of the finer aspects of Mughal painting, Pahari painting is characterised by rhythmic line
drawings, brilliance of colours, and minute decorative details. In the exposition of worldly and unworldly
love, the painting tradition of Kangra valley is par excellence. Pahari painting occupies a place of pride in
Indian art. The phrase ‘Kangra painting’ was first coined by John Kipling, an art connoisseur and the first
principal of Mayo School of Art in Lahore.
[Excerpt taken from How love, war and Mughal fine art inspired Kangra painting by Vijay Sharma.
Available at https://theprint.in/pageturner/excerpt/how-love-war-and-mughal-fine-art-inspired-kangra-
painting/533500/]
21. How were the rulers of Nurpur and Guler states well versed with the trends of The Mughal Courts?
(a) Because the Mughals forced their art styles on everyone in their empire.
(b) Because of the close association of the rulers of Nurpur and Guler states with Mughals.
(c) The rulers of Nurpur and Guler states liked to imitate the good arts from all over the world.
22. The reflection of the Mughal Culture can be seen in which of the following:
(a) In their attire (b) In their fine arts (c) In their hobbies. (d) All of the above.
23. Which of the following is similar to the word ‘imbibing’ in the context of the passage?
(a) Drinking in (b) undeceive (c) Assimilate (d) Close
24. Which of the following characterises the Pahari Paintings?

(a) Rhythmic line drawings (b) Brilliance of Colours
(c) Minute decorative details (d) All of the above.

MOCK CLAT #11
Passage (Q.25-Q.28): AmartyaSen is very clear that one of the central features of democracies which
advance public reasoning in the world is support for a free and independent press. Unrestrained and
healthy media are, he argues, important for five main reasons, the first four of which are:
1. The most elementary connection concerns the ‘direct contribution of free speech in general and of
press freedom in particular to the quality of lives’. Media freedom is critically important for us to have
the capability to do something we have reason to want: ‘to communicate with each other and to
understand better the world in which we live’. Without free media, the quality of human life drops or is
reduced, ‘even if the authoritarian country that imposes such suppression happens to be very rich in
terms of gross national product’..
2. The press has a major informational role in disseminating knowledge and allowing critical scrutiny.
This is true of both investigative journalism and more everyday journalism. The former is vital in
unearthing information that otherwise might not have been revealed. The latter – everyday journalism
– is also crucial as more ‘mundane’ matters and information also play an important role in keeping the
citizenry generally informed.
3. Relatedly, the media provides an important ‘protective function in giving voice to the neglected and
disadvantaged, which can greatly contribute to human security’; the media forces rulers to face the
misery of common people, however insulated the former would like to remain.
4. ‘Informed and unregimented formation of values requires openness of communication and argument’;
in other words, the freedom of the press, and the fact that it helps spread new norms and priorities, is
vital for the interactive process of value formation. In this instance, Senmakes particular reference to
the role of the press as regards tolerance and how important that value is in the protection of minority
rights within majority rule.
As will be clear, these four functions of the media help us identify the four main component parts of public
reason: unhindered communication; critical scrutiny; human security; and value formation. Then, in sum,
Sen points out the fifth main function of a free and independent press in enabling democracy as public
reasoning: ‘a well-functioning media can play a critically important role in facilitating public reasoning in
general … [that is] the evaluation needed for the assessment of justice is not just a solitary exercise but
one that is inescapably discursive’
[Excerpt taken from AmartyaSen said no democracy, with a free press, has ever had major famines by
LAWRENCE HAMILTON, available at. https://theprint.in/pageturner/excerpt/amartya-sen-said-no-
democracy-with-free-press-has-had-major-famines/534152/]
25. Which of the following is not one of the reasons to have unrestrained and healthy media?
(a) To fulfil the rule of disseminating knowledge.
(b) To give voice to neglected and disadvantaged.
(c) To enable democracy as public reasoning.
(d) To enable the steady flow of income in the economy.
26. How does the media helps the critical scrutiny component of public reason?
(a) By direct contribution of free speech in general and of press freedom in particular to the quality of
lives.
(b) By providing protective function in giving voice to the neglected and disadvantaged.
(c) By disseminating information through both investigative journalism and everyday journalism.
27. Which of the following words from the passage is opposite in meaning to the word ‘impede’?
(a) Unrestrained (b) Scrutiny (c) Unregimented (d) hindered
28. In the passage, the word ‘argues’ has been written in bold. In which form of parts of speech has this word
been used?
(a) Noun (b) Adjective (c) Adverb (d) Verb

MOCK CLAT #11
Passage (Q.29-Q.33): [1] e-Governance division has put together a draft for the Data Centre Policy
2020 to position India as a global data centre hub.
With this policy, the government is also looking to boost investment in the sector and encourage
domestic manufacturing of data centre equipment manufacturing in a draft. The data centre is a
dedicated secure space within a building or a centralised location where computing and networking
equipment is concentrated for the purpose of collecting, storing, processing, distributin g or allowing
access to large amounts of data.
The draft highlights the need for data centre infrastructure within the boundaries of the country due
to the data localisation provisions proposed in the Data Protection Act. The draft policy essentially
laid out a policy framework including various structural and regulatory interventions. It also
identifies possible areas of participation by MSMEs, start-ups and other Indian IT companies. The
draft highlighted, “The need for data centre infrastructure in the country already opens up a
potential opportunity for investments of the order of $4.9 billion by 2025, which could be further
increased given we progress in the direction of becoming a data centre location of choice for global
players.”
29. Which of the following will replace [1] in the above passage?
(a) The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
(b) The Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology
(c) The Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
30. Which of the following is not the objectives of the policy?

(a) Making India a Global Data Centre hub
(b) Promote investment in the sector
(c) To achieve the faster infrastructural growth
(d) Propel digital economy growth
31. The policy strengthens which of the following initiatives of the Indian Government?
(a) Atmanirbhar Bharat Initiative
(b) Make in India Initiative
(c) National Digital Health Mission
(d) Digital India Initiative
32. Which of the following is provided in the policy?

(a) Setting-up of at least four Data Centre Economic Zones (DCEZ) in the country,
(b) Data centres will be declared as an Essential Service
(c) An independent Data Centre Industry Council (DCIC) is proposed to be set up
33. The size of the digital economy in India is estimated to grow from USD 200 billion in 2017-18 to USD
________ by 2025
(a) 250 billion (b) 500 billion (c) 1 trillion (d) 5 trillion

MOCK CLAT #11
Passage (Q.34-Q.38): US Pharma giant Pfizer and German biotechnology company [1], which are
testing four vaccine candidates for Covid-19 as part of Project [2]. The project with four vaccine
candidates is based on [1] proprietary mRNA-based technology platforms. It began in mid-January after
the genetic sequence of SARS-CoV-2 was made public.
Two of these four candidates — BNT162b1 or BNT162b2 — have gone into human trials so far. Both are
in Phase 1/2 human trials in the United States and Germany. On July 27, researchers announced that
after extensive review of preclinical and clinical data and in consultation with the US FDA’s Center for
Biologics Evaluation and Research , they have chosen to advance their BNT162b2 vaccine candidate
into the Phase 2/3 study, where 30,000 participants will be taking part.
What is BNT162b2?
It is a single nucleoside-modified messenger RNA (modRNA) vaccine candidate. It is made of a short
segment of genetic material — the messenger RNA — which provides instructions for a human cell to
make a harmless version of a target protein, in this case the spike protein of SARS-CoV-2, in order to
activate an immune response against the protein.
In phase 1 in the US, at 7 days after the second dose of 30 micrograms, the candidate demonstrated
strong immunogenicity in both younger and older adults when compared to levels found in a
convalescent serum panel (the serum obtained from one who has recovered. Recently,Pfizer has claimed
that the vaccine candidate BNT162b2 is more than 90% effective in preventing Covid-19 in participants
without evidence of prior SARS-CoV-2 infection.
(a) BioNtech (b) Covishield (c) AstraZeneca (d) Moderna
35. Sputnik V, the Russian vaccine is developed by which of the following?

(a) Gamaleya Institute (b) BioNtech
(c) Zydus (d) Bharat Biotech
36. During the trial which of the following aspects are assessed?
(a) Reactogenicity (b) Immunogenicity (c) Safety (d) All of the above
(a) Project Lifesaver (b) Project Cureworld
(c) Project Lightspeed (d) Project Speedrecovery
38. Which of the following condition related to the vaccine mentioned in the passage is true?
(a) Requiring Storage at ultracold temperature
(b) Requiring Storage at hot temperatures
(c) Rapid solidifying of the liquid vaccine
(d) Rapid Liquifying of the solid vaccine
Passage (Q.39-Q.43): The Chabahar project is ambitious and will require deep pockets, but New Delhi
has always weighed its strategic benefits above the costs. India-Iran relations are historic and New Delhi
has sought to maintain these ties in the face of opposition from Iran’s adversaries, namely the United
States, Saudi Arabia and Israel. The Chabahar project ties India and Iran together as New Delhi deals
with its difficult neighbour to the west, Pakistan. A major trade and connectivity hub on Iran’s coast not
only gives India an alternative route to Afghanistan, bypassing Pakistan, but also has the potential to
provide an Indian strategic counter to Pakistan’s [1] port being developed by China right next door to
Chabahar. The Chabahar trade zone could be an important weigh station for India’s energy imports and
food and material exports coming from Kandla and Mundra ports. And the rail project will allow India an
independent corridor not only to Afghanistan, which Pakistan has denied it, but also to Central Asia and
Russia someday.

MOCK CLAT #11
39. Where is the Chabahar port located?

(a) Persian Gulf (b) The Gulf of Oman
(c) Gulf of Aden (d) Caspian Sea
40. The Chabahar port consists of how many separate ports?

(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Six
41. The project has links with which of the following forces of Iran?
(a) Iran’s armed forces
(b) Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps
(c) Iran Revolutionary Guard Corps
(d) Special Intelligence Unit of Iran
(a) Gwadar Port (b) Port Qasim (c) Karachi Port (d) Sind port
43. Farzad-B gas plant, which also involves Indian interest is located in?
(a) Persian Gulf (b) The Gulf of Oman
(c) Gulf of Aden (d) Caspian Sea
Passage (Q.44 - Q.48): Ramsar Sites are the wetlands that have international importance. The term was
coined when the International Treaty for the Conservation and Sustainable Use of Wetlands was signed
at a city of Iran called Ramsar in 1971. It aims to develop a global network of wetlands for conservation of
biological diversity and for sustaining human life. Wetlands provide a wide range of important resources
and ecosystem services such as food, water, fibre, groundwater recharge, water purification, flood
moderation, erosion control and climate regulation. Over 170 countries are party to the Ramsar
Convention and over 2,000 designated sites covering over 20 crore hectares have been recognised
under it
The Convention’s mission is “the conservation and wise use of all wetlands through local and national
actions and international cooperation, as a contribution towards achieving sustainable development
throughout the world. The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of
International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are
likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. It
is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.
44. According to the latest data, how many Ramsar Sites are there in India?
(a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 39 (d) 41
45. Which Indian State has the most number of Ramsar Sites?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Assam (d) Manipur
46. Which is the largest Ramsar Site in India?

(a) Renuka Wetlands in Himachal Pradesh
(b) Chilika Lake in Orrisa
(c) Keoladeo National Park in Rajasthan
(d) Asan Conservation Reserve in Uttarakhand
47. Meteor lake and the Soor Sarovar, both are the latest addition to the list of Ramsar sites in India. Where
are they located, respectively?
(a) Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh (b) Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh and Orrisa (d) Manipur and Maharashtra

MOCK CLAT #11
48. World Wetland day is celebrated on which day?

(a) 15th October (b) 10th May (c) 2nd February (d) 18 November
Passage (Q.49-Q.53): India on Monday successfully test-fired its Quick Reaction Surface to Air Missile
(QRSAM) system, likely to be inducted into the armed forces by 2021.
The missile, developed by the [1], was flight-tested from the Integrated Test Range (ITR) at [2] at 1145
hrs, a defence statement said.
The QRSAM was flight-tested with full configuration in deployment mode Intercepting the target mid-air,
meeting the mission objectives, it said.
“The entire event was monitored by ground telemetry ems, range radar systems and electro optical
tracking system the statement said.
The QRSAM weapon system, which operates on the move, comprises fully automated command and
control, active array battery surveillance radar, active array battery multifunction radar and launcher. Both
the radars are four-walled having 360-degree coverage with search on move and track on move
capability, it said,
With this mission, the developmental trials of the weapon system have been successfully completed and
it is expected to be ready for induction by 2021, the Defence statement said.
(a) Defence Science Organisation
(b) Defence Research and Development Organisation
(c) Technical Development Establishment
(d) Hindustan Aeronautics limited
50. Who is the Chairman of DRDO?

(a) Dr. G Sateesh Reddy (b) Shri Arvind Kumar
(c) Shri SushilIssar (d) Dr. Nupur Gupta
(a) Chandipur (b) Gopalpur (c) Puri (d) Dinga
52. What is the Maximum range of QRSAM?

(a) 90-100 kms (b) 40-50 kms (c) 25-30 kms (d) 10-12 kms
53. Which of the following is not true regarding the QRSAM?

(a) It has fully automated command and control system.
(b) Both radars have 360-degree coverage
(c) The maximum range is 90-100 kms.
(d) The entire weapon system has been configured on a mobile and manoeuvrable platform
Passage (Q.54-Q.58): [1] has recorded the highest sex ratio in the country compared to other states as
per the 2018 report on “vital statistics of India based on the Civil Registration System.” The report was
published by the Registrar General of India.
Sex ratio at birth is number of females born per thousand males. It is an important indicator to map the
gender gap of a population.
The ratio was determined on the basis of data provided by 30 States and Union Territories as the
requisite information from six States namely Bihar, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Sikkim, Uttar Pradesh and

MOCK CLAT #11
West Bengal is not available. Major states are states with populations 10 million and above as per the
2011 Census.
[1] recorded 1,084 females born per thousand males, followed by Nagaland (965), Mizoram (964), Kerala
(963), and Karnataka (957).
Taking stock of the matter, Minister of State (MoS) Kiren Rijiju stated, "I'm an extremely proud man! My
home State, Arunachal Pradesh is the only state in India which has more females born than males in the
entire country. With 1,084 females born per 1000 males, we have shown our preference for female child
and gender equality. #Beti Bachao Beti Padhao."
(a) Kerala (b) Manipur (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Nagaland
55. Registrar General of India is an office under which ministry?

(a) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(c) Ministry of Health
(d) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
56. Which of the following states recorded the worst Sex Ratio?
(a) Delhi (b) Manipur (c) Punjab (d) Haryana
57. Which of the following events are recorded under the Civil Registration System?
(a) Birth (b) Death (c) Stillbirths (d) All of the above
58. Which of the following personality wrote the famous article “Missing Women”, statistically proving that
during the last century, 100 million women have been missing in south Asia.
(a) Abhijit Banerjee (b) Daniel Kahman (c) NandanaSen (d) AmartyaSen
Passage (Q.59-Q.63): After eight years of negotiations, [1] Asia-Pacific nations have finally signed the
Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP), hailed as one of the biggest free trade deals in
history. It covers over 2.2 billion people and accounts for 30 per cent of the world’s economy. India chose
to opt out of this trade agreement that was signed Sunday (15 November) among 10 Association of
Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) members — Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar,
Philippines, Singapore, Thailand and Vietnam — and their six trade partners — Australia, China, Japan,
South Korea and New Zealand.
Prime Minister NarendraModi had in November last year said the decision to not be a part of RCEP was
guided by the impact it will have on the “lives and livelihood of all Indians, especially vulnerable sections
of the society”. The RCEP was first proposed at the 19th ASEAN meet in November [2] with an aim to
create a consolidated market for the 10 member countries and their trade partners. The guiding principles
of RCEP state, “The objective of launching RCEP negotiations is to achieve a modern, comprehensive,
high quality and mutually beneficial economic partnership agreement among the ASEAN member states
and ASEAN’s FTA (free trade agreement) partners.”

(a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15

(a) 2010 (b) 2011 (c) 2012 (d) 2013
61. The RCEP was later also conceived by the ASEAN members and China as a response to –
(a) G20 (b) BRICS (c) TPP (d) Quad

MOCK CLAT #11

(a) To be in RCEP can have the same effect as having FTAs with the members of RCEP
(b) Stronger economies would gain the most out of RCEP
(c) The Peterson Institute for International Economics has estimated that by 2030 RCEP may be able to
increase global national income by $186 billion annually
(d) India didn’t join RCEP because it would have harmed the interests of the local manufacturers
63. It is expected that RCEP will eliminate a series of tariffs on imported products for the member nations in
the coming _____ years
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 20

MOCK CLAT #11
Passage (Q.64-Q.68): The police have power under law to compel an accused to give blood samples
against his wish for the purposes of investigation. This is clear from Section 53 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, which expressly says that ‘reasonable force’ can be used for the medical examination of an
accused by a police officer. The explanation to that provision states that examination will include
examination of blood, blood stains, semen, swabs in case of sexual offences, sputum and sweat, hair
samples and fingernail clippings etc.
The compulsory extraction of bodily substances for criminal investigation will not amount to violation of
Article 20(3) i.e. protection against self-incrimination. State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu Oghad held that
taking thumb impressions, finger prints, and specimen handwritings of an accused will not violate Article
20(3). The protection of Article 20(3) is available to matters within the subjective consciousness of a
person and not to his physical features, the Court reasoned. Such physical objects did not amount to
testimony and one cannot be said to have been forced to be a witness against oneself in those cases.
The giving of finger impression or of specimen signature or of handwriting, strictly speaking, is not to be a
witness. To be a witness means imparting knowledge in respect of relevant fact, by means of oral
statements or statements in writing, by a person who has personal knowledge of the facts to be
communicated to a court or to a person holding an enquiry or investigation.
The Supreme Court in Selvi v. State drew a distinction between investigative techniques such as narco-
analysis, brain mapping, polygraph tests etc, and compulsory taking of bodily substances. The Court held
that compelling a person to undergo narco-analysis, brain mapping and polygraph resulted in violation of
Article 20(3). However, the compulsory drawing of bodily substances will not be hit by Article 20(3),
added the Court. There is also an endorsement of the view that the use of 'force as may be reasonably
necessary is mandated by law and hence it meets the threshold of procedure established by law.
64. Shruti and her husband Hassan constantly kept fighting over various issues. One day, Shruti was found
dead in the kitchen of her house while Hassan was not in the house. Police kept looking for him for
several days and then he was found in a friend’s house after 2 months. He claimed that he was scared
after seeing his wife’s body and therefore ran away from the house but the police were certain that Shruti
was murdered by Hassan. Due to the lack of evidence, the police requested the District Magistrate to
allow brain mapping of Hassan. The permission was granted but Hassan was very reluctant to go through
the same. He was finally compelled by the police to go through brain mapping and it was then found that
he was the one who killed Shruti and then ran away to hide from the police. Is the brain mapping test of
Hassan legal?
(a) The brain mapping test of Hassan is legal as the Police are empowered to use force on anyone to
take any information which might be useful in finding out the real culprit.
(b) The brain mapping test of Hassan is not legal as compelling a person to go through a brain mapping
test which could provide information that might be a personal knowledge of facts to the accused is
self-incriminating in nature.
(c) The brain mapping test of Hassan is legal as all the evidence related to Shruti’s murder were against
Hassan and it is permissible under law to take any information that is not a subjective consciousness
of a person.
(d) The brain mapping test of Hassan is not legal as the police cannot force a person to go through any
test that could provide them the name of the real culprit without any evidence.
65. Meena was in love with a boy named Mahesh. Even after many efforts made by Meena to impress
Mahesh, he was very reluctant to talk with her. Meena was infuriated with this rejection and therefore she
kidnapped Mahesh’s sister and blackmailed him to talk to her if he wants his sister to be safe. Mahesh
filed a complaint against Meena and she was later caught by the police. Her lawyer claimed that neither
Mahesh nor the police have any evidence against Meena to arrest her. The police then forced Meena to
tell them where she kept Mahesh’s sister. Her lawyer then filed a complaint in the Session Court
contending that her right under Article 20(3) of the Indian Constitution is violated by the police. Decide.

MOCK CLAT #11
(a) Meena’s right protected under Article 20(3) of the Indian Constitution is not violated by the police as
she blackmailed Mahesh to talk with her if he wanted his sister safe which is evident enough to show
that she was the real culprit.
(b) Meena’s right protected under Article 20(3) of the Indian Constitution is not violated by the police as
the Police are empowered to use force on anyone to take any information which might be useful in
finding out the real culprit.
(c) Meena’s right protected under Article 20(3) of the Indian Constitution is violated by the police as they
had no evidence against her and still they forced her to give statements that might be self-
incriminating.
(d) Meena’s right protected under Article 20(3) of the Indian Constitution is violated by the police as she
was forced to be a witness against herself by orally stating where she had kept Mahesh’s sister which
is a personal knowledge to her.
66. Jignesh was a very creative person and he can copy any handwriting very efficiently. The Chief Minister
of Jal Pradesh was receiving so many letters under various names, all threatening to kill him. The Police
began their search for the writers of the letters and after a continuous search of 3 months, they caught
Jignesh. The police asked Jignesh to give the specimen of his handwriting and to their surprise his
handwriting did not match any of the letters’ handwriting. He was then asked to give his thumb
impressions and fingerprints to which Jignesh denied by claiming that they have no evidence against him
and cannot ask him to do anything that could be self-incriminating. Can the police force him to give his
thumb impressions and fingerprints? Decide.
(a) Yes, the police can force Jignesh to give his thumb impressions and fingerprints as under Section 53
of the Code of Criminal Procedure reasonable force can be used for the medical examination of an
accused by a police officer.
(b) Yes, the police can force Jignesh to give his thumb impressions and fingerprints as the Police are
empowered to use force on anyone to take any information which might be useful in finding out the
real culprit.
(c) No, the police cannot force Jignesh to give his thumb impressions and fingerprints as his handwriting
sample was already taken which did not match with any of the letters’ handwriting.
(d) No, the police cannot force Jignesh to give his thumb impressions and fingerprints as he has already
given his handwriting sample to prove that he is not the one who wrote letters to the Chief Minister
threatening to kill him.
67. The body of a girl was found in a club in a very critical condition with blood all around her. It was later
found in the medical examination that she was raped and brutally beaten. It also showed that apart from
the blood of the girl, there is blood of three more types. The police examined every member of the club
present on that day and recorded their statements. They were also asked to give their blood samples.
Mihika denied to give her blood samples as it would violate her right under Article 20(3) of the Indian
Constitution. She also claimed that the police cannot compel her to give any information that is personal
to her. Nevertheless, she was forced by the police to give the blood sample which was later not matched
with the other three blood specimens found near the body. Mihika filed a complaint in the Sessions Court
against the police. Choose the correct answer.
(a) The action of the Police forcing Mihika to give her blood sample was illegal because randomly asking
any person present in the club that day to give their blood sample is not logical at all.
(b) The action of the Police forcing Mihika to give her blood sample was not illegal as taking blood
samples of an accused is not something that is subjective consciousness of a person.
(c) The action of the Police forcing Mihika to give her blood sample was not illegal as the Police is
empowered to use force on anyone to take any information which might be useful in finding out the
real culprit.
(d) The action of the Police forcing Mihika to give her blood sample was illegal because taking blood
samples of an accused is something that is subjective consciousness of a person andnot just a
physical feature.

MOCK CLAT #11
68. Decide which of the following are protected under Article 20(3) of the Indian Constitution.
(a) The police officer compelled a girl aged 20 to give her hair samples in a case where a body was
found cut in small pieces and stored in the refrigerator of her house.
(b) The police officer forced a boy aged 17 to give his semen samples in a case where he was accused
of a gangrape of a girl aged 24.
(c) The police officer compelled a boy aged 20 to go through a blood test in a case where he was unable
to recall anything that he did to his friend under the influence of alcohol, with his consent.
(d) The police officer forced a girl aged 17 to go through a polygraph test in a case where she was
unable to recall anything that she did to her friend, without her consent.
Passage (Q.69-Q.73): The doctrine of privity of contract in the common law of contract provides that a
contract cannot confer rights or impose obligations arising under it on any person or agent except the
parties to the contract. The premise is that only parties to contracts should be able to sue to enforce their
rights or claim damages in case of breach. The term “parties” may seem simple enough but there are
situations where it may become doubtful as to exactly who the parties are and resultantly, who, in the
eyes of the law should be liable or should be compensated in event of inevitable breaches that may occur
from time to time.
Doctrine of Privity” is one of the most controversial doctrines under law of contracts, including that in the
country of India. The debates are not just due to the lack of clarity in the statutes or dissenting judicial
pronouncements but much of these owe to the academic and judicial debates linked with the ground
roots of this doctrine.
The debates and discussions on the Doctrine of Privity are relevant not only in daily life commercial
contracts but also in the less frequent and comprehensive transactional contracts. It can be seen that
practices such as imposing obligations on other party’s affiliates, relatives and agents with respect to
terms like restrictive covenants, non-compete and confidentiality obligations are quite common for the
parties under a contract these days. Interest of such third parties secured by the contracting parties
through which they have been benefited or burdened by the contract. No doubt there are volumes of
cases in the books and journals in which such related third parties who are not parties to a contract have
been allowed to sue upon it and their interest is secured against any breach by the counter party. But
those cases are based on the view that such related third parties are claiming through a party to the
contract, that it is in the position of a “cestuique trust” or trust or admission or of a principal suing through
an agent, that under the old procedure he/it could have filed a suit in equity, even if he/it could not have
sued at common law.
69. Anita and Vijay were going to get married. Vijay’s father and his prospective father-in-law, mutually
agreed to pay sums of money to Vijay on the event of marriage. Vijay got married but the father-in-law
died before making the payment of his portion of money. Vijay wanted to sue the representatives for
claiming the amount. Decide.
(a) The claim will succeed as the obligation has not been performed.
(b) The claim will not succeed as Vijay is a stranger to the agreement.
(c) The claim will not succeed as the representatives cannot be made liable in the existing situation.
(d) The claim will succeed as the agreement was for the benefit of Vijay.
70. The wife of Y left him because of his cruel tendencies towards her. Later, Y executes an agreement with
his father stating to treat the wife properly. On failure of fulfillment of the obligation, he would be entitled
to pay monthly maintenance along with a dwelling to her. However, she was mistreated again and
decided to file a suit for the same. Decide.
(a) The suit is maintainable as she has a substantial interest in the agreement.
(b) The suit is not maintainable as she is not the party to the agreement.
(c) The suit is maintainable as it is purported out of trust.
(d) The suit is not maintainable as it would defy the privity of arrangement.

MOCK CLAT #11
71. Yashwardhan was appointed as the successor by his father and was provided with possession of his
entire estate. In consideration of the same, Yashwardhan agreed to pay a certain sum of money and give
a village to Johan, the illegitimate son of his father. This was to be undertaken on his attaining of majority.
After few years Johan came to know about it and decided to claim as per the agreement. Decide.
(a) The claim is not justified as he was not a part of the agreement.
(b) The claim is justified as it was made for his benefit.
(c) The claim is justified as there existed an element of trust.
(d) The claim is not justified as he did not provide any consideration.
72. Narayan makes a contract with Devi to provide her with a monthly allowance of Rs. 10,000 during her
lifetime and after that to her son Vinod. The transaction has been admitted in the presence of Vinod.
However, after the death of Devi, Narayan fails to pay the amount. Vinod decides to file a suit to claim the
predetermined amount. Decide.
(a) Vinod will not succeed due to him not being a party to the transaction
(b) Vinod will succeed as acknowledgement was made in his presence.
(c) Vinod will not succeed as he did not provide for consideration.
(d) Both (a) and (c).
73. X acts an agent on behalf of Z against a third-party Y in the sale of tulip farm. Y fails to make the payment
for aforementioned sale. Aggrieved by the same, Z decides to file a suit against Y to claim the amount.
Decide.
(a) The suit is maintainable as X acts on behalf of Z.
(b) The suit is not maintainable as the arrangement was between X and Y.
(c) The suit is maintainable on account of trust and equity.
(d) The suit is not maintainable as only X has the right to sue Y.
Passage (Q.74-Q.78):The Convention (Convention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination

Against Women) relates not only to ILO action on sexual harassment and gender-based discrimination at
work, but even to forced labour and trafficking, child labour, migrant workers, pregnant workers and
workers with family responsibilities, domestic workers as well as indigenous and tribal women.
The new Convention on harassment is thus based on the two traditional tracks followed by ILO.The two-
track approach to violence and harassment is evident in the definitions adopted. Under Article 1,
‘violence and harassment’ refers to ‘a range of unacceptable behaviours and practices…that aim at,
result in, or are likely to result in physical, psychological, sexual or economic harm, and include gender-
based violence and harassment’. Gender-based violence and harassment is defined as violence and
harassment ‘directed at persons because of their sex and gender, or affecting persons of a particular sex
or gender, and includes harassment’. The ‘harm’ as defined by the new Convention is thus explicated by
tangible effects (physical, psychological, sexual or economic) of an occupational health hazard nature,
rather than violation of human rights (dignity and self-determination) per se (however, the definition also
reflects the CEDAW definition of discrimination).
The scope of the Convention covers ‘workers and other persons in the world of work…irrespective of
their contractual status’ (Article 2). The Convention applies, for example, to persons in training, and to
volunteers. The new Convention applies to ‘violence and harassment in the world of work occurring in the
course of, linked with or arising out of work’, and even applies to work in the informal economy. The
scope of the Convention covers violence and harassment ‘occurring in the course of, linked with or
arising out of work’, for example when commuting to work, or using work-related communication
technologies (Article 3). The Labour Office commentary reminds us, however, that where the employer
has no or little control of a situation, the Convention should not place an undue burden upon it.
The core principles (Article 4) include promoting and realizing the right to work free from harassment and
violence. The parties are to adopt a set of measures to that end: legal prohibitions, policies, a

MOCK CLAT #11
comprehensive prevention strategy, monitoring, remedies, sanctions, awareness raising and investigation
by competent bodies such as labour inspectorates. Implementation shall involve employers, workers, and
governments in their complementary roles. Each Member shall adopt ‘an inclusive, integrated and
gender-responsive approach’ (Article 4 (2). Legislative means are required (Article 7). The requirements
concerning non-standard forms of employment (such as crowd work and gig economy) are not very clear.
Members are to recognize the important role of authorities in case of informal economy workers (Article 8
(a).
74. Which of the following situations is not covered under the purview of the sexual harassment provision as
mentioned in the convention?
(a) a female domestic help subject to sexual abuse by her employer.
(b) a newlywed wife being sexually harassed by her husband.
(c) a female intern in the journalism department of a media house being subject of sexual harassment by
the strangers while covering a news story.
75. Which of the following situations fall out of the jurisdiction of the convention completely?
(a) a woman facing harsh and violent backlash in the firm she’s been employed in for wearing prohibited
dress code.
(b) an auto rickshaw driver harassing a female legal intern on her way to home from office.
(c) a female director not being paid equally by the producer as against to male co director.
(d) none of the above.
76. Which of the following measures shall not be a welcomed move in accordance to Article 4 of the
convention?
(a) HR department of a law firm is set to constitute an all-female member board to deal with the issues of
sexual harassment arising out of their workplaces.
(b) Central government is set to devise a policy mandating all the state governments to increase the
salary of the female employees during the maternity leave period so as to ensure no drop-outs.
(c) Both a & b
77. According to the ILO’s convention which of the following does not constitute as ‘harm’?
(a) a female candidate upon joining the army faces discriminatory behaviour with respect of food items
she gets as compared to the ones served to the males.
(b) State government mandating a particular territory to be evacuated by a tribal community. Many
female members of this community profess handicrafts business on this territory.
(c) A trans women facing discrimination while filling out the recruitment application form in a firm which
does not allow for a column of her gender identity.
78. The commentary of the labour office shall be sought for, in which of the following situations?
(a) not placing the burden upon the employer for the acts of sexual harassment carried out by the
watchmen of the head office of the firm.
(b) not placing the burden upon the employer for the acts of sexual harassment carried out by the HR of
the firm.
(c) Both a & b

MOCK CLAT #11
Passage (Q.79-Q.83): The Supreme Court’s ruling excluding the “creamy layer” from reservation in
promotions for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes has predictably sparked a debate.
AlokPrasanna Kumar argues that the court erred by holding that the Scheduled Castes and the
Scheduled Tribes can avail of reservation in promotions only if they are backward, and challenges its
presumption that backwardness and untouchability will disappear if a generation or two of Dalits and
Adivasis get access to education and jobs. This presumption is also rebutted by PS Krishnan, who points
to instances of Dalits having been treated as untouchable even after occupying high office. Christodas
Gandhi argues that the creamy layer rule may reduce reservation in promotions, although the exclusion
criteria he fears may be applied are radically different from those currently used for the Other Backward
Classes. Across the aisle, Devika Agarwal supports the filtering out of the creamy layer from all caste-
based reservation. Rajeev Dhavan, one of the senior advocates involved with the matter, reiterates in
print his argument in the court that the creamy layer principle is a necessary facet of equality and, thus, a
part of the Constitution’s basic structure. There’s one premise of the creamy layer principle, though, that
has not been properly anaylsed. The court set it out thus:
“The whole object of reservation is to see that backward classes of citizens move forward so that they
may march hand in hand with other citizens of India on an equal basis. This will not be possible if only the
creamy layer within that class bag all the coveted jobs in the public sector and perpetuate themselves,
leaving the rest of the class as backward as they always were.”
The observation is predicated on a 1975 judgement where the Supreme Court held:
“In the light of experience, here and elsewhere, the danger of ‘reservation’, it seems to me, is three-fold.
Its benefits, by and large, are snatched away by the top creamy layer of the ‘backward’ caste or class,
thus keeping the weakest among the weak always weak and leaving the fortunate layers to consume the
whole cake.”
This line of reasoning, that the poorer among Dalits and Adivasis are losing out on reservation benefits
because the creamy layer corners all opportunities, is not backed by evidence. Consider the central civil
services: senior officials from Dalit and Adivasi communities are too few to even fill all reserved positions.
In fact, posts set aside for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes often go unfilled and the
government has to undertake special drives to fill backlog vacancies.The “weakest among the weak” are
not being deprived by the creamy layer, but by the same obstacles that made reservation necessary in
the first place. To exclude, through the creamy layer test, the people who have overcome such
hindrances to the extent they are able to avail of reservation goes against the very purpose of
reservation.
[Extracted from ‘Why the creamy layer test for SC/ST promotions may be more harmful than using it for
recruitment’. Published by Scroll.in]
79. The passage starts with the notion that the Supreme Court’s ruling excluding the “creamy layer” from
reservation in promotions for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes has predictably sparked a
debate. What are the two arguments?
I. The court erred by holding that the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes can avail of
reservation in promotions only if they are backward.
II. It is based on the presumption that backwardness and untouchability will disappear if a generation or
two of Dalits and Adivasis get access to education and jobs.
III. There are instances of Dalits having been treated as untouchable even after occupying high office.
(a) Both II and III (b) Both I and II (c) Only II (d) All I, II and III
80. As per the judgement of the court, excerpted in the above passage, what is the ultimate objective of
introducing reservation in the country?
I. That the backward classes of citizens move forward so that they may march hand in hand with other
citizens of India on an equal basis.
II. That the creamy layer within any class bag all the coveted jobs in the public sector and perpetuate
themselves, leaving the rest of the class as backward as they always were

MOCK CLAT #11
81. As per the judgement of the court, excerpted in the above passage, what is the danger of the ongoing
practice of reservation to backward classes in the country?
I. The benefits of reservation policy are snatched away by the top creamy layer of the ‘backward’ caste
or class.
II. The weakest from amongst a class remains always weak and leaving the fortunate layers to consume
the whole cake.
82. Which of the following reasoning does the author of the above passage not use to rebut the line of
reasoning, that the poorer among Dalits and Adivasis are losing out on reservation benefits because the
creamy layer corners all opportunities?
(a) The author mentions that the claim is not supported by evidence.
(b) He argues that the reserved sears central civil services for Dalit and Adivasi communities are not
even filled completely, let alone competition. In fact, posts set aside fo
(c) Posts set aside for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes often go unfilled and the
government has to undertake special drives to fill backlog vacancies.
(d) The “weakest among the weak” are not deprived by the creamy layer, but this problem dates back to
before the country has a reservation policy
83. As per the above passage, how does the exclusion through the creamy layer test goes against the very
purpose of reservation?
I. By excluding the creamy layer, the people who have overcome such hindrances to the extent they
are able to avail of reservation are disallowed benefits.
II. Reservation was meant to uplift the backward community, but what constitutes the backward
community cannot be decided by the creamy layer test.
III. Creation of classes within classes was not the intended purpose of offering reservation.
(a) Both I and II (b) Both II and III (c) Only I (d) Only III
Passage (Q.84-Q.88): Whether the obligation on the part of the Judicial Magistrate to record the
statement of the victim of any of the offences specified in sub-section (5A) of Section 164 Cr.PC., is
limited only to those cases where the victim is mentally or physically disabled? A rape victim can be
considered as an example.
Clause (a) of sub-section (5A) of Section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) enjoins that the
Judicial Magistrate shall record the statement of the person against whom any of the offences specified
therein has been committed. This includes a rape victim also. Such victims may or may not include
persons who are mentally or physically disabled.
The Supreme Court of India in State of Karnataka by Nonavinakere Police v. Shivanna had issued
directions to all police stations in the country in the case of rape victims. Upon receipt of information
relating to the commission of offence of rape, the Investigating Officer shall make immediate steps to take
the victim to any Metropolitan / preferably Judicial Magistrate for the purpose of recording her statement
under Section 164 CrPC; a copy of the statement should be handed over to the Investigating Officer
immediately with a specific direction that the contents of such statement should not be disclosed to any
person till chargesheet/report under Section 173 CrPC is filed; if there is any delay exceeding 24 hours in
taking the victim to the Magistrate, the Investigating Officer should record the reasons for the same in the
case diary and hand over a copy of the same to the Magistrate; Section 164 A CrPC imposes an
obligation on the part of Investigating Officer to get the victim of the rape immediately medically
examined.
Thus, regardless of the question as to whether the rape victim is under a disability or not, recording of her
statement by a Judicial Magistrate is a must and such Magistrates cannot refuse to record the statement
of a rape victim or a victim of the other offences specified in sub-section (5A) of Section 164 CrPC, for the
reason that she is not under any disability.

MOCK CLAT #11
84. Neena, a blind girl, went to the market with her sister Seem(a) On their way back to home, they boarded
a city bus which had only a few passengers. After a few stops, they realized that the driver did not stop at
any bus stop. Seema asked the driver to stop the bus but he paid no attention and the other male
passengers in the bus grabbed her and then raped both of them. They then threw them out of the bus.
After a few days when Seema regained consciousness, she went to file a complaint. The police officer
immediately took her to the Magistrate but she refused to record Seema’s statement. The Magistrate
recorded Neena's statement and asked Seema to be present at the court to give her statement on oath.
Seema filed a petition in district court requesting the judge to take action as she was denied the
protection provided under section 164 of CrPC. What should the judge decide?
(a) The judge should take action as the Magistrate refused to record her statement and denied her the
protection provided under section 164 of CrPC.
(b) The judge should not take any action as the Magistrate’s refusal to record the statement under
section 164 of CrPC is correct because Seema was not under any disability.
(c) The judge should take action as the Magistrate should have recorded the statement of both Neena
and Seema or should have refused to record either statement because both were the victims of rape.
(d) The judge should not take any action as it is the discretion of the Magistrate to record the statements
on the merits of the incident.
85. Priya was working in a call centre and due to her late-night shifts, she was always late in returning to
home. Once when she was on her way back to home, two drunk boys started following her. After that, the
same thing happened for 3 more days and when she shouted at them, one of the boys grabbed her and
then they both raped her and left her there. She went to the police station and the police officer
immediately recorded her statement. She was then produced before the Judicial Magistrate within the
next 24 hours. The Magistrate told her that her statement is already recorded by the police under section
162 of CrPC, and therefore she is not required under the Code of Criminal Procedure to record the
statement again. Choose the correct option.
(a) The Magistrate is correct as Priya’s statement was already recorded by the police officer under
section 162 of CrPC and the same is not necessary to be recorded again.
(b) The Magistrate is not correct as it mandatory that the statement of the rape victim must be recorded
by the Judicial Magistrate under section 164 of CrPC.
(c) The Magistrate is correct as Priya was not under any mental or physical disability and therefore
recording of her statement is not mandatory under section 164 of CrPC.
(d) The Magistrate is not correct as Priya’s statement recorded by the police officer holds no ground
under CrPC and the same is required to be recorded by any Magistrate.
86. Mani, a 12-year-old girl, went to a picnic with her school friends. An old man lured her to visit his house
for chocolates and ice creams. She went with the man and he then raped her every day for a month.
After choking her with a belt and thinking that she was dead, he threw her in front of the park where she
met him. She was admitted in the hospital by the park owner and after a week she regained
consciousness. An FIR was already registered by the park owner and the medical examination reports
clearly suggested that she was raped continuously for a long time. After regaining consciousness, she
was to be produced before the Magistrate but while talking with the police officer she again lost her
control after remembering everything. She was then produced before the magistrate after two days.
Decide.
(a) The police officer should have taken Mani directly to the magistrate after she regained consciousness
as her medical examination clearly suggested that she was raped continuously for a long time.
(b) The police officer should have recorded Mani’s statement himself as she was not in a good condition
and then he should have provided the copy of the statement to the Magistrate.
(c) The police officer should have recorded in the case diary the reasons for delay beyond 24 hours in
producing Mani before the Magistrate and should also have provided the copy of the same to the
Magistrate.
(d) The police officer did no wrong in taking Mani to the Magistrate after 2 days when her condition was
completely stable as her medical examination was already conducted for the evidence.

MOCK CLAT #11
87. Kirti had to travel long distances for her work. One day while she was out for her work in Bhopal, some
boys tried to molest her. She went to the police station to report the incident. The investigating officer
registered the FIR but did not take any action. After a month, when she was travelling from Indore to
Jhansi, she was raped in the train by three boys. She went to the same police station to again file a
complaint of the rape against the boys. The police officer immediately recorded her statement and took
her to the nearest Judicial Magistrate for the purpose of recording her statement under Section 164 of
CrPC. Kirti later alleged that the police officer had violated the directions of the Supreme Court given in
State of Karnataka v. Shivanna as he took no action on the FIR filed by her earlier. Decide.
(a) The police officer has violated the directions of the Supreme Court as he should have taken action
when the FIR regarding the molestation has been filed by Kirti.
(b) The police officer has violated the directions of the Supreme Court as he has no right to record Kirti’s
statement under section 164 of CrPC.
(c) The police officer has not violated the directions of the Supreme Court as producing Kirti before the
magistrate in case of her molestation is not mandatory and the incident of her rape was not related to
her molestation.
(d) The police officer has not violated the directions of the Supreme Court as he immediately produced
Kirti before the nearest Judicial Magistrate after she filed a complaint informing about her rape in the
train.
88. With the above context, the Judicial Magistrate after recording Kirti’s statement under Section 164 of
CrPC handed a copy of the statement to the investigating officer. The Magistrate directed him to keep the
contents of the statement confidential until the closure report or chargesheet is filed. After the
Investigation was completed, a chargesheet was filed by the officer under Section 173 of CrPC against
the boys. Raju’s mother, one of the three alleged rapist's mothers, approached the police officer to know
about the allegations made by Kirti in her statement against Raju. The police officer informed her about
the same. Kirti’s lawyer contended in the court that the officer has disclosed the content of Kirti’s
statement against the direction of the Magistrate. Choose the correct answer.
(a) The police officer has not disclosed the content of the statement against the direction of the
Magistrate as the chargesheet under section 173 of CrPC has already been filed by him against the
three boys.
(b) The police officer has disclosed the content of the statement against the direction of the Magistrate as
he informed Raju’s mother about the allegations made by Kirti in her statement against Raju.
(c) The police officer has disclosed the content of the statement against the direction of the Magistrate as
he was asked by the Magistrate to keep the information or content of the statement confidential.
(d) The police officer has not disclosed the content of the statement against the direction of the
Magistrate as informing an accused or his family about the allegations or charges against him does
not amount to disclosing the information.
Passage (Q.89-Q.93): The ordinance punishes any 'act of violence' against 'healthcare service
personnel', ie any person who has epidemic-related responsibilities, and thereby comes in contact with
affected patients – including doctors, nurses, etc at private and public hospitals. The definition of an act
of violence includes not just direct harm, injury, obstruction or intimidation of the healthcare worker, but
also covers harassment impacting their living or working conditions, and damage to property (equipment,
ambulances, etc) or documents connected to a healthcare worker.
Investigations into such cases are to be completed within 30 days of the registration of an FIR regarding
the incident, and trials are to be fast-tracked to be completed within 1 year. The punishment for anyone
convicted of committing an act of violence against healthcare service personnel or damaging any
property relating to them such as their equipment is three months to five years of imprisonment, and a
fine of Rs 50,000 to Rs 2 lakh. Cases, where the violence was not severe, can be compounded, ie
settled, with the consent of the victim.
If the person committing an act of violence also causes grievous hurt to the healthcare worker, things are
different. Firstly, the punishment is more severe: a minimum of six months’ imprisonment and aRs 1 lakh
fine, and a maximum of seven years’ imprisonment and a Rs 5 lakh fine. Secondly, in cases involving
grievous hurt, the ordinance also reverses the burden of proof and creates a presumption of guilt. If a

MOCK CLAT #11
person is prosecuted for having committed such serious violence, it will be presumed they committed the
offence and had the intention of doing so, unless the accused person can prove otherwise.
Generally, in criminal law, the burden of proof is on the prosecution to prove beyond reasonable doubt
that a person has committed a criminal offence. By reversing this burden of proof, the ordinance will
require those tried in grievous hurt cases to prove, beyond reasonable doubt, that they did not commit
the offence, or did not have the required mental state to do it.
In all cases – whether those involving grievous hurt or otherwise – the person convicted of committing an
act of violence will also have to pay compensation for the violence against a healthcare worker and/or
damage to property. In property cases, the compensation will be equal to twice the fair market value of
the property or loss caused.
89. Three doctor officials are sent to a slum area where they have to test a number of people for COVID-19
symptoms. The area is an underprivileged and uneducated are(a) A rumour runs amongst the slum
people that the doctors have come to take their children away from them. This causes chaos in the are(a)
The doctors somehow escape from the are(a) On coming back, one of the doctor’s files an FIR against a
person allegedly abusing him in the public and threating to cause him grievous hurt. However, there is no
proof with him to establish his allegations. His co-doctors were not present at the moment and the slum
people are not ready to testify. Decide.
(a) The court will not accept the allegations made by the doctor because they are evidence less and
cannot be proven in the court of law.
(b) The court will accept the allegations as there is no need for the doctor to show evidence as the
burden of proof is on the defence.
(c) The court will not accept the allegations as this is a trivial case which should not be tried and court’s
time must be saved in these desperate times.
(d) The court will accept the allegations as doctors are sacrificing their everything for the nation and
these types of incidents should not be entertained.
90. Tabrez is a resident of Bareilly district of Uttar Pradesh. He opens his grocery shop daily even amid this
pandemic. He is really respected by his colony residents as without him, it would have been highly
difficult to get daily products. He is a big help for them as he risks his life to make others’ easy. One fine
day, while giving the products, he gets into an argument with a person over some money. He files an FIR
against him claiming that he has hurt him grievously on the head. The accused said that he did not hit
him and it was Tabrez who hit himself to file a case against him. Due to lockdown, there was no witness
to the incident. Decide.
(a) The court will accept the allegations as Tabrez is important for the society and he should be
safeguarded.
(b) The court will not accept the allegations made by Tabrez because they are evidence less and cannot
be proven in the court of law.
(c) The court will not accept the allegations as this is a trivial case which should not be tried and court’s
time must be saved in these desperate times
(d) The court will accept the allegations as burden of proof is on the accused to prove as this is a case of
grievous hurt.
91. A medical nurse is sent to a locality to check on recovered COVID-19 patients. While being there, she
enters in an argument with one of the family members of a recovered patient about something and amid
the argument, she gets hit grievously by them. This happens on 17th May 2020 and she files an FIR on
20th May 2020. Decide, as to, by when investigation is to be completed as per the new rules.
(a) 20th June 2020 (b) 19th June 2020 (c) 17th June 2020 (d) 16th June 2020
92. In the cases of healthcare service personals being grievously hurt, which of the following, the accused
can prove in the court of law to be acquitted from the case?
(a) That they have not committed the offence.
(b) That they were not in a requisite mental state to commit the offence.
(c) They have to prove nothing as he will be presumed to be innocent.
(d) Both (a) & (b).

MOCK CLAT #11
93. A doctor is attacked in his office by angry members of one of his deceased patients on 16th April 2020.
He was stuck inside his clinic for the next 3 days, as the attackers wouldn’t let him out. On 19th April,
somehow, he gets out and reaches home. On 21st April, he goes to file an FIR. The police refuse to file
an FIR as the attackers had political connections. Finally, amid media pressure, FIR is filed on 26th April
2020. Decide, by when, the trial will be completed respectively.
(a) 21st April 2021 (b) 16th May 2020 (c) 26th April 2021 (d) 26th May 2020
Passage (Q.94-Q.98): Section 125 of Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966 read with
Section 126 enables the state/Planning authority to acquire land. Section 65 read with Section 66, on the
other hand, protects the interests of the owners. Considering all the relevant provisions, the Court held
that on a proper construction of Section 88, when land is acquired for the purposes of a Development
Scheme, the same vests in the State free from encumbrances. No third party can claim any right of
easement to the land, or claim any right as an occupier, licensee, tenant, lessee, mortgagee or under any
sale agreement. However, “Section 88 of the Regional and Town Planning Act cannot be read in
isolation. It has to be read with Section 125 to 129 relating to compulsory acquisition as also Section 59,
69 and 65.”
Article 300A of the Constitution of India embodies the doctrine of eminent domain which comprises two
parts; possession of property in the public interest; and payment of reasonable compensation. “In case of
dispossession except under the authority of law, the owner might obtain restoration of possession by a
proceeding for Mandamus against the Government.” The Court was hearing the case pertaining to a
private road in Pune being declared as being owned by Pune Municipal Corporation whilst in the property
records, there was no private road. In 1970, by an order of the Pune Municipal Corporation, a Plot was
divided into 4 plots and a private road admeasuring 414.14 square meters.
On perusal of the documents, the Court noticed that there can be no doubt at all that the road in question
measuring 444.14 sqm. never belonged to the Pune Municipal Corporation. In the property records, there
was no private road. The Municipal Corporation was never shown as owner of the vacant plot or of any
private road. Even assuming that there was any policy decision to have an approach road to every plot, it
was incumbent upon the authorities concerned to acquire the land. “There is no whisper as to how the
road came to be shown as in possession of Pune Municipal Commissioner nor of the procedure adopted
for effecting changes, if any, in the property records.”
The Court, hence, held that the Pune Municipal Corporation had a public duty under Section 91 to
appropriately modify the scheme and to show the private road as property of its legitimate owners, as per
the property records in existence, and or in the award of the Arbitrator. It, hence, directed the Municipal
Corporation to “delete the name of the Pune Municipal Corporation as owner of the private road in the
records pertaining to the Scheme and carry out such other consequential alterations as may be
necessary under Section 91 of the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966.”
94. In the city of Bhopal, a 16,000 sqmetres land in the backyard of the Bhopal Municipal Corporation is
possessed by one Mr. Rashid Khan. The land is often used for parking the vehicles and there is barely
any part of the land in use by Mr. Khan. The BMC takes possession of the land and pays the respected
amount to Mr. Khan. Decide.
(a) The possession was legal as it was done in a good faith and proper amount was paid to the owner.
(b) The possession was illegal as the BMC is not competent enough to do so.
(c) The possession was illegal as the owner was not asked before the sale.
(d) The possession was legal as the possession of land was necessary to be taken for the welfare of the
city.

MOCK CLAT #11
95. In the above case, Mr. Khan files a complaint with the collector office and the collector, after hearing the
case in a quasi-judicial capacity, gives the order against the complainant. Decide.
(a) The possession will be legal as the BMC is not doing this job in isolation but is backed up by proper
judicial standings.
(b) The possession will be illegal as the owner’s consent is something which can be done away.
(c) The possession will be legal as there is no merit left in the case of the complainant i.e. Mr. Khan.
(d) The possession will be illegal as the BMC is not competent enough to do so.
96. RakeshSikarwar has a land in the outskirts of Delhi. DMC ‘s director Mr. Santosh More wishes the land to
be converted into a petrol pump in a similar way it has a petrol pump across the road so that the vehicles
coming from the other way do not have to turn and go to the old petrol pump on the opposite side or
travel 500 m to another petrol pump on the same side. Under Article 300A, the land is possessed by the
DMC and proper amount is paid. Decide.
(a) The possession is legal as all the act is done is public interest and proper amount is paid.
(b) The possession is illegal as the act doesn’t amount to be that of public interest.
(c) The possession is legal as there exists no fundamental right to property and property, thus can be
acquired by state at any time in any way.
(d) The possession is illegal as the fundamental right of Mr. Sikarwar is violated.
97. A person’s land is wrongfully acquired by the state administration. There is a clear non – compliance of
Article 300A of the Indian constitution. He moves to the Supreme Court under Article 32 asking for a
remedy of a violation of his fundamental right and gross negligence committed towards him. Decide.
(a) The court will give him remedies as it’s a clear case on merits and will issue a writ of mandamus.
(b) The court will not give him remedies as it’s not his fundamental right to property and hence the state
is allowed to take possession of his land.
(c) The court will not give him remedies as it’s not its jurisdiction to decide upon.
(d) The court will give him remedies as not doing so will set an authoritarian precedence and might give
rise to anarchy.
98. In the above case, the person instead of going to Supreme Court, goes to the High Court under Article
226. Decide.
(a) The court will give him remedies as it’s a clear case on merits and will issue a writ of mandamus.
(b) The court will not give him remedies as it’s not his fundamental right to property and hence the state
is allowed to take possession of his land.
(c) The court will not give him remedies as it’s not its jurisdiction to decide upon.
(d) The court will give him remedies as not doing so will set a authoritarian precedence and might give
rise to anarchy.
Passage (Q.99-Q.102): Article 131 deals with the original and exclusive jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court, under which the suit challenging the validity of CAA has been filed.
Jurisdiction of a court is its power or authority to hear and determine a matter.
Jurisdiction could be pecuniary (power of court based on the amount of money involved in the matter),
territorial (power of court based on the geographical limit where the cause of action arises or offence is
committed), subject-wise (power of court based on a particular subject matter), original (power of court to
hear a case from its beginning), appellate (power of court to hear a case on appeal)
A judgment passed by a court without jurisdiction is a corum non judice (in presence of a person, not a
judge). It is null and void and its validity can be challenged at any stage.
Original jurisdiction of a court refers to its power to hear a case first.The constitution of India, under
Article 131, confers the Supreme Court original jurisdiction in certain special matters.
The exclusivity factor of the jurisdiction provides an exceptional and particular power to the Court to hear
and decide the matter than any other Courts.
What are the matters where jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 131 is provisioned?

MOCK CLAT #11
Any dispute involving a question of law or fact on which existence of legal right depends comes under
original jurisdiction of the SC. The disputes may be:
(a) between the government of India and one or more states;
(b) between the government of India and any state/states on one side and one or more states on the
other;
(c) between two or more states
Is there any bar on jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 131?
Yes, the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to:
(a) A dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement or other similar instrument
executed before the commencement of the constitution and continues to be in operation or which
provides that the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court shall not extend to such a dispute;
(b) The parliament may exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in disputes relating to the use,
distribution, or control of the water of any inter-state river;
(c) Suits brought by private individuals against the government of Indi(a)
The Supreme Court has held in a previous case that Article 131 is attracted only when a dispute arises
between or amongst the states and the union in the context of constitutional relationship that exists
between them and the powers, rights, duties, immunities, liabilities, disabilities and the like flowing
therefrom.
[Extracted, with edits and additions, from ‘What Is Article 131, Under Which Kerala Has Challenged
CAA?’, The Wire, 16th January, 2020]
99. BrijeshwarDalmia is involved in a property dispute. The worth of the disputed property was Rs. 60 lakhs
and it was located in Kollam. He filed a case in Kollam district court as any property dispute under Rs. 2
crores are to be filed in district court. The court ruled in favour of Mr. Bharath, the other party. Mr. Dalmia
then approached the High Court of Kerala as he thought that justice had not been done. Which of the
following is/ are true in the mentioned case?
I. Kollam district court heard the matter as it had pecuniary jurisdiction over it.
II. Kollam district court heard the matter as it had original jurisdiction over it.
III. Kollam district court heard the matter as it had territorial jurisdiction over it.
IV. High Court of Kerala heard the matter as it had original jurisdiction over it.
V. High Court of Kerala heard the matter as it had appellate jurisdiction over it.
(a) Only I and V. (b) Only I, III and IV.
(c) Only I, II, III and V. (d) Only I, II and V.
100. Determine in which of the following cases shows exclusive jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
(a) Entry of a particular sect of people was barred in a temple in Andhra Pradesh. Some people of that
sect felt their right to life and right to equality was violated. They could approach High court under
article 226 but anticipating that the verdict of high court will be challenged in front of the apex court,
they directly approached Supreme Court for remedy.
(b) The Constitution of India says that any dispute arising out of the elections of President will be heard
and decided only by the Supreme Court.
(c) The Delhi High Court decriminalized homosexuality. Some people were not happy with the judgment
and Supreme Court was the only court they could go to. So, they approached Supreme Court which
heard the matter and gave its decision.
(d) A Voluntary Consumer Organisation (VCO) had filed a case on behalf of a consumer. NCDRC
refused VCO appearance before the commission saying it cannot voluntarily represent the consumer.
However, VCO did not think that the ruling served the ends of justice for the consumer. They had no
alternative but the Supreme Court to represent their case.

MOCK CLAT #11
101. Indo Sikkim treaty was signed in 1950 between the Maharaja of Sikkim and the Indian government.
Sikkim finds the treaty to be against the principles of federal autonomy which are recognized by Indian as
well as international laws. The government of Sikkim wants changes in some sections of the treaty. It has
tried to negotiate with the union government but it did not work. Can the government of Sikkim approach
the Supreme Court under Article 131?
(a) This is a matter concerning constitutional relationship of the state with the union and hence Sikkim
government is free to approach Supreme Court under Article 131.
(b) Sikkim government cannot approach Supreme Court as it would encourage other states to demand
for autonomy which might lead to dismemberment of states.
(c) Sikkim government can approach the Supreme Court under Article 131 only if the Indo Sikkim treaty
was signed after 26th January.
(d) Sikkim government should try to settle the dispute out of court as it will lead to a mutually acceptable
solution in a fairly quick time.
102. Consumer Protection Act, 2019 provides for jurisdiction of various commissions. Cases where amount
claimed is less than one crore will be heard by district commission, those from one to ten crore by state
commission and those over ten crores by national commission. It also provides that the case has to be
instituted at a place where the respondent carries his/ her business.
Mr. Gautam, a resident of Bengaluru purchased a fairness cream after watching the advertisement on a
television channel. He applied the cream as per instructions but his skin color remained same. He felt
cheated and approached Karnataka State Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission claiming amount of
one crore as compensation. The company did not carry on its business from its sole office in Noida, Uttar
Pradesh. The state commission decided in favour of Mr. Gautam and awarded him the desired
compensation. Which of the following is most appropriate?
(a) The decision of the commission is valid as it had both pecuniary and territorial jurisdiction over the
given matter.
(b) The decision of the commission is null and void because it did not have territorial jurisdiction over the
given matter.
(c) The decision of the commission is null and void because it did not have pecuniary jurisdiction over the
given matter.
(d) The decision of the commission is null and void because it did not have both territorial and pecuniary
jurisdiction over the given matter.

MOCK CLAT #11
Passage (Q.103 to Q.107): In a study conducted by University of Wyoming (U of W), a group of

teenagers who have been playing violent video games is sent outdoors to play with a group of teenagers
who have not been playing violent video games, the teenagers who have been playing violent video
games commit a much greater number of violent acts in their play than the other group. Therefore, the
study recommends that teenagers at play can be prevented from committing violent acts by not being
allowed to play violent video games.
However, only video games could not be blamed for the violent behavior, other sources are also
responsible, such as, movies, sitcoms, etc. Teenagers who share maximum time with computer in the
form of their game partner are seen to be more aggressive. But, the other side of this argument could not
be declined that teenagers playing soft or puzzle games have opposite effect. Sometimes, it enhances
the problem solving ability in them.
103. What is the conclusion of the study in the above passage?

(a) Teenagers can be prevented from committing violent acts by not being allowed to play video games.
(b) Video games affect the mental health of the teenagers.
(c) Video games play a vital role in the life of teenagers.
(d) Teenagers learn many things from the video games.
104. Which of the following statements will actually weaken the conclusion of the study?
(a) By playing violent video games, teenagers try to imitate the violent acts at home.
(b) In a study conducted, it was found that teenagers whose parents are abusive at home, those
teenagers are more violent.
(c) Parents should have control over video games.
(d) Teenagers should not be allowed to play video games.
105. Which of the following statements will actually strengthen the conclusion of the study?
(a) By playing violent video games, teenagers try to imitate the violent acts at home as well as with their
friends.
(b) In a study conducted it was found that teenagers whose parents are abusive at home, those
teenagers are more violent.
(c) Video game is the only factor which is responsible for the violent acts of the teenagers.
106. The statement that “the teenagers who have been playing violent video games commit a much greater
number of violent acts in their play than the other group” -
(a) Forms the conclusion of the study.
(b) Forms the conclusion of the study that teenagers are violent.
(c) Forms the premise of the conclusion that teenagers can be prevented from committing violent acts by
not being allowed to play violent video games.
(d) Forms the premise of the author’s idea that teenagers are violent.
107. The argument in the passage assumes which one of the following in para 1?
(a) Video game has a harmful effect on society.
(b) Parents are responsible for the acts of their teenagers.
(c) Violent actions and passive observation of violent actions are not related.
(d) There are no other differences between the two groups of teenagers that might account for the
difference in violent behavior.

MOCK CLAT #11
Passage (Q.108 to Q.112): So, just last week I had bought a very costly electronic device which was
guaranteed by the shopkeeper to work for at least 2 years. I had bought this for a garage sale that was
supposed to happen today. But now the electronic device has already broken. It had already started
malfunctioning two days after the purchase. It’s just another example of the poor quality products that we
are seeing more and more these days. The thing was probably manufactured in Dharavi.
One of my friends also had complained about the same thing. It’s been a recurring incident now these
days.
108. What is the purpose of the last paragraph of the passage?

(a) It is used by the author to bolster his argument.
(b) It is the conclusion of the argument.
(c) It answers a question beforehand.
(d) It aptly highlights the plight of the author.
109. Which one of the following is the unstated premise that underlies the author’s reasoning in the passage?
(a) If a manufacturer uses poor quality products to make an electronic device, the device is likely to break
quickly.
(b) If electronic device breaks quickly it was probably manufactured in Dharavi.
(c) If an electronic device for garage was manufactured in Dharavi, it should not be sold in this country.
110. Which of the following statement if true will actually weaken the conclusion of the author in the passage?
(a) Many but not all electronic devices which were manufactured in Dharavi are of poor quality.
(b) All electronic devices which were manufactured in Dharavi are of poor quality.
(c) All electronic devices which were manufactured in Dharavi are of good quality.
(d) Many but not all electronic devices which were manufactured in Dharavi are expensive.
111. The author’s statement that “It’s just another example of the poor quality products that we are seeing
more and more these days”-
(a) Forms premise of the above passage.
(b) Forms conclusion of the above passage.
(c) Forms assumption of the author to the above passage.
112. The patterns of reasoning in the above passage closely resembles the pattern of reasoning in all of the
following except –
(a) Atul bought hair dryer from the market, but it broke within a week, therefore he said that it must be
made in China.
(b) Rajesh’s son bought sweets from market and gave it to his father, sweets were not of good quality,
and Rajesh said that you must have bought it from Heeralal’s shop.
(c) Even after attending driving school Anu was not able to drive properly, Anu’s mother told her that you
must have attended Shiksha driving school.
(d) Afsha bought a gadget for her kitchen and it broke within a week, and all the gadgets which break
quickly must have been manufactured in China. Therefore, this gadget was probably manufactured in
China.

MOCK CLAT #11
Passage (Q.113 to Q.117): At the beginning of the 20th century, the father of modern Hindustani
literature, Munshi Premchand, said, ‘If we Indians want to have an educated citizenship in a modern
technological society, we need to teach them three things: reading, writing, and statistical thinking.’ At the
beginning of the 21st century, how far have we gotten with this programme? In our society, we teach
most citizens reading and writing from the time they are children, but not statistical thinking. The
mathematician SrinivasaRamanujan has called this phenomenon ‘innumeracy’.
There are many stories documenting this problem. For instance, there was the weather forecaster who
announced on Doordarshan that if the probability that it will rain on Saturday is 50 percent and the
probability that it will rain on Sunday is 50 percent, the probability that it will rain over the weekend is 100
percent. In another case, an inspector in the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) visited a restaurant
famous for its ‘Bhurji’ made from four fresh eggs. She told the owner that according to FDA research,
every fourth egg has salmonella bacteria, so the restaurant should only use three eggs in a ‘Bhurji’.
We can laugh about such examples because we easily understand the mistakes involved, but there are
more serious issues. When it comes to medical and legal issues, we need exactly the kind of education
that Premchand was asking for, and we haven’t gotten it.
113. Assuming that the FDA finding that every fourth egg has salmonella bacteria is true, which of the
following should logically follow?
(a) Restaurants should throw away every fourth egg.
(b) Restaurants should only prepare dishes that require three eggs or fewer.
(c) Restaurants should check all the eggs they buy for signs of salmonella.
(d) Restaurants should thoroughly cook every fourth egg they use, in order to kill all the bacteria.
114. What role does the quotation by MunshiPremchand play in the argument in the passage?
(a) It expresses an idea that the author of this passage argues in favour of.
(b) It expresses an idea that the author of this passage argues against.
(c) It demonstrates a difference in beliefs from the early 20th century to the early 21st century.
(d) It demonstrates that a programme begun in the early 20th century has come to fruition in the early
21st century.
115. Which of the following examples is similar to the weather forecaster’s mistake in calculating percentages?
(a) Mrunmai got 50% on her maths exam in her first year of college, and 50% again in her second year,
so over the two years, she got 100%.
(b) During a sale, Sakshi bought a top for 50% less than its original price and a skirt of the same original
price also for 50% less, so in total, she saved 100% of the value of either piece of clothing.
(c) Every time a coin is flipped, there is a 50% chance that it will land on heads and a 50% chance that it
will land on tails, so there is a 100% chance it will land on either heads or tails.
(d) There’s a 50% chance that the items you ordered online will be delivered tomorrow, and a 50%
chance they will be delivered the day after tomorrow, but either way, it’s 100% certain they won’t be
delivered today.
116. Which of the following examples does not involve a mistake similar to that of the FDA inspector?
(a) Statistics say that one in five people is crazy; so if your four closest friends are all sane, then you are
the crazy one.
(b) The documents you are looking for must be in one of these six drawers; so if they aren’t in the first
five you looked in, they will be in the sixth one.
(c) The report says that there is an accident on this road once every seven days; so the obvious way to
prevent accidents would be to close this road one day per week.
(d) They say that one in eight people who enroll in a college course never graduate; since the other
seven people in my family have already graduated from college, it is unlikely that I will ever do so.

MOCK CLAT #11
117. Which of the following people suffers from a case of ‘innumeracy’?

(a) A child in kindergarten who is unable to count up to 20
(b) A teenager who fails the math exam in his boards, but passes the rest with flying colours
(c) An engineering student who has trouble grasping complex numbers
(d) A doctor who is unable to tell his patient what her chances of having a particular disease are
Passage (Q.118 to Q.122): A report tabled in Parliament by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
has highlighted the grave financial situation of the Railways. The net revenue surplus dropped alarmingly
by 54.8 per cent from Rs. 5,824 crore in 2016-17 to Rs 1,342.81 crore in 2017-18. The CAG noted that
the decline in generation of internal resources resulted in the Railways' greater dependence on gross
budgetary support and extra budgetary resources for meeting its capital expenditure.
The 'Give Up' scheme, started in 2017 to encourage senior citizens to forgo their train fare concession,
has flattered to deceive. The dismal numbers show that the Railways has failed to generate awareness
among senior citizens about the initiative aimed at enhancing revenue. The sorry state of affairs is a far
cry from the days of Lalu Prasad Yadav as Railway Minister in the UPA-I government. His tenure was not
controversy-free, courtesy the IRCTC hotels' tender allotment scam, but he is credited with turning
around the Railways' fortunes. Lalu's homespun management model even attracted Harvard and
Wharton business schools, though the CAG was unimpressed by his 'cash and investible surplus' claim.
He took the populist route by neither hiking passenger fares nor retrenching workers, while allowing
overloading of freight wagons and simplifying the freight tariff.
Even as an empowered group set up by the NDA government is looking into the feasibility of upgrading
50 railway stations to world-class standards and allowing private players to operate 150 trains, the
Railways needs to walk a tightrope — rationalise its workforce on the one hand and scale up services to
meet passengers' expectations on the other. Timely replacement of old assets and curtailing wasteful
expenditure would be in order too. The nation's lifeline awaits a new lease of life.
118. Which of the following further suggests that the railways need to walk a tightrope?
(a) Indian Railways has to make travel easier for passengers across the country from connecting remote
areas.
(b) Indian Railways has decided to introduce double-decker trains on many routes.
(c) Indian Railways is suffering from a shortage of coaches as per the recently introduced plan to
improve the railways.
(d) Indian Railways has determined the optimal level of the staff strength without having to compromise
with the quality of services offered.
119. Which of the following most accurately describes the role played by the statement that the sorry state of
affairs is a far cry from the days of Lalu Prasad Yadav as Railway Minister in the UPA-I government?
(a) It is the conclusion drawn in the passage.
(b) It is a claim that the argument shows to be inconsistent with available evidence.
(c) It is a premise offered in support of the conclusion drawn in the argument.
(d) It describes evidence that the text later refutes.

(a) Railways is one of the most important assets of the country.
(b) The railways department is on the verge of collapsing due to financial losses.
(c) Lalu Prasad Yadav was the best Railway Minister ever in India.
(d) The government is working to popularise the use of railways
121. Which of the following could have increased awareness about 'The Give Up' scheme?
(a) Running campaigns on social media platforms which are regularly visited by youngsters.
(b) Penalise the concession holders for not giving up their concessions.
(c) Preparing a nationwide campaign to encourage more concession holders to give up their concession.
(d) Sending a personalised letter by Railway Minister to those who give up their concession

MOCK CLAT #11
122. Which of the following describes the grave financial situation that the Indian Railways is in?
(a) The national transporter recorded an operating ratio of 97.33 per cent in 2017-18.
(b) It spent Rs 98.66 to earn Rs 100, way above the figures in 2010-11 (Rs 93.8) and 2011-12 (Rs 94.9).
(c) Of the 3.91 crore elderly passengers, only 2.8 per cent opted to give up 50 per cent rebate and just
3.87 per cent did not avail a fare waiver.
(d) The railways' internal revenue for 2018-19 is estimated at Rs 2.01 trillion, 7% higher than the revised
estimates for 2017-18
Passage (Q.123 to Q.127): When the Tulalip Entertainment Department Fisheries boat capsized near
Jetty island, the police arrested the department's ticket collector, Charlie Cortez, based on the allegation
that he did not check the tickets properly. The gravest charge that police can level against him is of
negligent behavior. While the boat owner’s lobby, the real culprit for allowing more people on boat than is
allowed go scot free, the innocent at the bottom level of the chain become the fodder in the hands of the
system. This has become the rule, justice is sold at the hands of the people with money. Could Charlie,
the poor daily wage worker be the real culprit?
123. Which of the following is not what the passage is intended to indicate?
(a) Charlie may not be the real culprit.
(b) Charlie has not checked the tickets properly.
(c) Charlie may be the main person behind the mishap.
(d) The police have behaved irresponsibly.
124. Which of the following is the assumption made by the police in arresting Charlie?
(a) Charlie was sleeping at the time of his duty.
(b) Charlie is a notorious man.
(c) Charlie took the bribe from the boat owner to let more people on boat.
(d) Charlie is a poor man and holding him accountable would be easiest.
125. Author’s statement that, “police arrested the department's ticket collector, Charlie Cortez, based on the
allegation that he did not check the tickets properly” -
(a) Forms the premise for his further statement.
(b) Forms the conclusion for his statement.
(c) Offers a clarification on the incident.
(d) It’s just the generalized part of his statement.

(a) Charlie may not be the real culprit.
(b) Charlie has not checked the tickets properly.
(c) This has become a norm where the real culprits go free while the ones who are innocent suffer on
their behalf.
(d) The police system has become corrupt at the hands of rich people.
127. Which of the following resonates with the statement of the author in the above passage?
(a) Police arrests a person at whose premises lots of illegal weapons are found.
(b) Police arrests the driver of a celebrity for accident. He was in passenger seat while the celebrity was
driving.
(c) Police arrest the person for illegally breaking and entering into a house.
(d) Police arrest the minister on the charges of corruption.

MOCK CLAT #11
Passage (Q.128 to Q.130): “Pursuant to NITI Aayog's decision dated 5th September, 2019, in case of
claims where the Arbitration Tribunal has passed an arbitral award (the "Arbitral Award") and Govt.
Department/PSU has challenged the Arbitral Award, an amount equal to 75% (seventy five percent) of
the Arbitral Award awarded in favour of the Concessionaire/Contractor may be paid to the
Concessionaire/Contractor against Bank Guarantee without prejudice to the rights and stand of Govt.
Department/PSU and subject to the final order of the court in the matter under challenge.”
128. Which of the following is correct inference?

(a) Merely passing of an Arbitral Award in one’s favour doesn’t automatically make the Judgment Debtor
pay the Decree Holder the entire amount in case where the Judgment debtor has challenged the
Award.
(b) Arbitral Award is like a money decree and hence the entire amount ought to be released.
(d) Neither a nor b
129. Choose the correct option

(a) Airport Authority of India has challenged the Award made in favour of X Ltd.
X Ltd. has withdrawn 75% of Arbitral Award against equivalent BG
(b) Airport Authority of India has not challenged the Award made in favour of X Ltd.
X Ltd. has withdrawn 75% of Arbitral Award against equivalent BG.
(c) Both a and b
(d) X Ltd. has sued Airport Authority of India, but its case won’t be properly defended in the court.
130. Which of the following may follow?

(a) Regardless of challenge or no challenge to the Award, only 75% monies can be released.
(b) 100% monies were released without BG to Y Co. Ltd.
National Hydro Power Corporation has not challenged the Arbitral Award.
(c) Neither a nor b
(d) Both a and b
131. Choose the missing terms out of the given alternatives.

4F, 12I, 28L, 60O, 124R, ?
(a) 246 S
(b) 256 T
(c) 248 Q
(d) 252 U
Directions (Q.132 to Q.134): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
I. Kamal is available at home from 12 noon to 4 p.m. on Tuesday, Thursday and Sunday.
II. His younger brother Navin is available at home on Monday, Thursday, Friday and Sunday between
10 a.m. to 2 p.m.
III. The eldest brother Rajiv is available between 9 a.m. to 12 noon on Monday, Wednesday and
Thursday and 2 p.m. to 4 p.m. on Friday, Saturday and Sunday.
132. A day of a week when all the three brothers are available at home at the same time?
(a) None
(b) Sunday
(c) Thursday
(d) Cannot be determined

MOCK CLAT #11
133. On how many days, the youngest brother is available at home after 12 noon?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
134. On which day(s) of a week, the youngest and the eldest brothers are available at the same time?
(a) Only Monday
(b) Only Thursday
(c) Only Friday
(d) Both Monday and Thursday

MOCK CLAT #11
Directions (Q.135 to Q.139): The following table shows different vessels, type of their shapes and
different dimensions of these vessels.
(Note: Some values are missing, you need to calculate those values if required.)
Dimension (in cm.)

Vessels Type of Shape
Length Breadth Height Radius
A Cube 35 - - -
B Cuboid - - 25 -
C Cone - - 28 -
D Cylinder - - 20 -
E Hemisphere - - - 21
135. Vessel E is filled with water and then the water is poured from vessel E to vessel D. If the radius of the
vessel D is same as the height of vessel C, then what is the height of water in vessel D?
3 1 5 7
(a) 7 cm (b) 7 cm (c) 7 cm (d) 7 cm
8 8 8 8
136. If the area of the bottom of vessel B is 1260cm2, then the capacity of vessel A is how much percent more
than that of vessel B?
1 1 1 1
(a) 33 3% (b) 36 9% (c) 35 3% (d) 33 9%
137. What is the ratio of lateral surface areas of vessel C and vessel E if the ratio of radius and height of
vessel C is
3: 4?
(a) 5 : 6 (b) 6 : 5 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 3
138. Capacity of another cylindrical vessel F is 10% more than that of vessel A. If the height of vessel F is 49,
then radius of vessel F is how much percent less than that of vessel E?
2 2 2 2
(a) 18 % (b) 22 % (c) 16 % (d) 14 %
11 9 3 7
139. Vessel D needs to be painted on the lateral surface while vessel A needs to be painted on lateral surface
as well as on the bottom. What will be the total expenditure of painting these vessels if the cost of
painting is Rs.0.2/cm2 if the radius of the vessel D is same as the height of vessel C?
(a) Rs.1919 (b) Rs.1939 (c) Rs.1909 (d) Rs.1929

MOCK CLAT #11
Directions (Q.140 – Q.144): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
In a city, there are three colleges A, B and C with two courses namely Arts and Science. Total number of
students in the college is 5000. The following bar graph represents the percentage of students in each
course with respect to total number of students in the college.
The following table contains some unknown data.
Arts Science
College
Male Female Male Female
A X - 100 _ _ X
B 2X X _ 400
C _ 0 400 _
140. What is the ratio of number of Male Arts to the number of Female science in college C?
(a) 2: 3 (b) 4: 5 (c) 1: 2 (d) 1: 1
141. Total number of students in college B is what percent more or less than the total number of students in
college A?
(a) 50% more (b) 50% less (c) 33.33% less (d) 33.33% more
142. Find the average number of Science students in three colleges.

(a) 980 (b) 680 (c) 588 (d) 490
143. What is the ratio of total number of male students to that of female students?
(a) 49: 75 (b) 80: 23 (c) 23: 80 (d) 76: 49
144. In college B, 50% of male and 75% of female students cleared the course and got job. Find the ratio of
students who got job to students who did not get job.
(a) 31: 43 (b) 47: 23 (c) 25: 47 (d) 43: 29

MOCK CLAT #11
Directions (Q.145 to Q.148): Study the following information carefully and answer the related questions.
In LE, there are total 1800 students who are preparing for three exams CLAT, AILET and MHCET exams.
Number of students preparing for CLAT exams was twice the number of male students preparing for
MHCET exams. Average weight of students preparing for MHCET is 59 kg and total weight of male
students preparing for MHCET exams is 20475 kg. Ratio of number of students preparing for AILET and
CLAT are in the ratio 8: 7 respectively. 60% students who are preparing for CLAT are males and
remaining 252 are females. Female students who are preparing for AILET are 80 less than number of
males preparing for same exam.
145. If total weight of female students who are preparing for AILET is 11520 kg, then what is the respective
ratio of average weight of female students who are preparing for MHCET to AILET?
(a) 4: 3 (b) 15: 14 (c) 11: 10 (d) 5: 4
146. Number of boys preparing for CLAT is what percent of number of boys preparing for AILET?
(a) 95.5% (b) 94.5% (c) 93.5% (d) 92.5%
147. Approximately what percent students in LE are females?

(a) 42% (b) 48% (c) 45% (d) 39%
148. What is the difference between number of female students preparing for CLAT and number of male
students preparing for MHCET?
(a) 57 (b) 45 (c) 63 (d) 39
Directions (Q.149 and Q.150): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Out of 200 people who attended a marriage party 100 had GolGape, 120 had Chicken Tica and 40 had
none of these two. 100 people had exactly one of two items.
149. Find how many people like had both of the given items?
(a) 35 (b) 50 (c) 55 (d) 60
150. Person who like only Golgape is what % more or less than the person who like only chicken Tica?
(a) 38.5% (b) 25.6% (c) 15.2% (d) 33.33%

MOCK CLAT #11
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #11
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #12

Candidate Name : _________________
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
Test Centre/Hall.
MOCK CLAT #12
(Q.1-Q.32): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
(Passage Q.1-Q.6): In a little district west of Washington Square the streets have run crazy and broken themselves
into small strips called "places." These "places" make strange angles and curves. One Street crosses itself a time or
two. An artist once discovered a valuable possibility in this street. Suppose a collector with a bill for paints, paper
and canvas should, in traversing this route, suddenly meet himself coming back, without a cent having been paid on
account!
So, to quaint old Greenwich Village the art people soon came prowling, hunting for north windows and eighteenth-
century gables and Dutch attics and low rents. Then they imported some pewter mugs and a chafing dish or two
from Sixth Avenue, and became a "colony."
At the top of a squatty, three-story brick Sue and Johnsy had their studio. "Johnsy" was familiar for Joanna. One
was from Maine; the other from California. They had met at the table d'hôte of an Eighth Street "Delmonico's," and
found their tastes in art, chicory salad and bishop sleeves so congenial that the joint studio resulted.
That was in May. In November a cold, unseen stranger, whom the doctors called Pneumonia, stalked about the
colony, touching one here and there with his icy fingers. Over on the east side this ravager strode boldly, smiting his
victims by scores, but his feet trod slowly through the maze of the narrow and moss-grown "places."
Mr. Pneumonia was not what you would call a chivalric old gentleman. A mite of a little woman with blood thinned
by California zephyrs was hardly fair game for the red-fisted, short-breathed old duffer. But Johnsy he smote; and
she lay, scarcely moving, on her painted iron bedstead, looking through the small Dutch window-panes at the blank
side of the next brick house.
Extract taken from The Last Leaf by O Henry
1. The expression ―…"Johnsy" was familiar for Joanna..‖ actually means:

(a) Johnsy is short for Joanna
(b) Johnsy was a familiar person to Joanna
(c) Joanna is Johnsy‘s nickname
(d) Only familiar persons referred to Johnsy as Joanna
2. The expression ―the streets have run crazy and broken themselves into small strips called "places‖ can be classified
as which of the following figures of speech:
(a) Simile (b) Metaphor (c) Onomatopoeia (d) Personification
3. The word ―squatty‖ as used in the passage is closest in meaning to:

(a) Broad (b) Narrow (c) Stunted (d) Towering
4. What is the difference between the impact of Pneumonia in the east side and the ―places‖?
(a) It affected the inhabitants of both the places alike.
(b) The persons inhabiting the east side were worse affected than those inhabiting ―places‖.
(c) Pneumonia spread slowly over the east side and faster in the ―places‖.
(d) The spread of the disease was uncontrolled in both the sides.
5. The expression ―red fisted and short breathed old duffer‖ actually refer to:
(a) The physical attributes of Mr. Pneumonia
(b) The symptoms of the disease
(c) The description of Pneumonia‘s formidability
(d) The comparison between California Zephyr‘s and Pneumonia‘s effects
6. Why did Joanna and Sue take up a joint studio?

(a) They had similar interests
(b) They needed money to split the rent
(c) They liked art
(d) They had similar tastes in food

MOCK CLAT #12
(Passage Q.7-Q.12): Baldeo, the watchman, was awake. He stretched himself slowly unwinding the heavy shawl
that covered him. It was close on midnight and the chill air made him shiver.
The station, a small shack backed by heavy jungle, was a station in name only; for trains only stopped there, if at
all, for a few seconds before entering the deep cutting that led to the tunnel. Most trains merely slowed down
before taking the sharp curve before cutting.
Baldeo was responsible for signalling whether or not the tunnel was clear of obstruction, and his manual signal
stood before the entrance. At night it was his duty to see that the lamp was burning, and that the overland mail
passed through safely. ‗Shall I come too, Father?‘askedTembu sleepily, still lying in a huddle in a corner of the hut.
‗No, it is cold tonight. Do not get up.‘ Tembu, who was twelve, did not always sleep with his father at the station, for
he had also to help in the home, where his mother and small sister were usually alone.
They lived in a small tribal village on the outskirts of the forest, about three miles from the station. Their small rice
fields did not provide them with more than a bare living and Baldeo considered himself lucky to have got the job of
Khalasi at this small wayside signal stop.
Still drowsy, Baldeo, groped for his lamp in darkness then fumbled about in search of matches. When he had
produced a light he left the hut, closed the door behind him and set off along the permanent way.
Tembu had fallen asleep again.
Baldeo wondered whether the lamp on the signal- post was still alight. Gathering his shawl closer about him, he
stumbled on, sometimes along the rails, sometimes along the ballast. He longed to get back to his warm corner in
the hut. The eeriness of the place was increased by the neighbouring hills which overhung the main line
threateningly. On entering the cutting with its sheer rock walls towering high above the rails, Baldeo could not help
thinking about the wild animals he might encounter. He had heard many tales of the famous tunnel tiger, a man-
eater, which was supposed to frequent this spot; he hardly believed these stories for since his arrival at this place a
month ago, he had not seen or even heard a tiger.
There had, of course, been panthers, and only a few days ago the villagers had killed one with their spears and
axes. Baldeo had occasionally heard the sawing of a panther calling to its mate, but they had not come near the
tunnel or shed.
Extract taken from Ruskin Bond‘s The Tiger in the Tunnel
7. The expression ―was a station in name only‖ means:

(a) No train ever stopped there.
(b) Very few trains passed through the station.
(c) It was a small station.
(d) It served as a transitory station before the tunnel.
8. What is the ‗overland mail‘ as referred to in the passage?

(a) One of the trains that passes through the station.
(b) goods train
(c) passenger train
(d) shipment of letters
9. Why does Tembu ask his father if he could come with him to the station?
(a) It is a mere formality as he falls asleep after his father leaves.
(b) He cares about his father the most in his family.
(c) He does not wish to leave his father alone at that time of the night.
(d) He wants to go for a night time stroll with his father.
10. The word ―cutting‖ has been used at several places in the passage. What does the word refer to?
(a) to depart abruptly from a straight line or course
(b) to shorten
(c) to divide into two
(d) to deliberately ignore
11. The expression ―sawing of a panther‖ can be classified as which of the following figures of speech:
(a) Personification (b) Metaphor (c) Idiom (d) Onomatopoeia

MOCK CLAT #12
12. Which of the following statements would imply that the passage is set in a time before the modern day?
(a) Baldeo wears a shawl at night.
(b) Baldeo uses a manual signal at the station.
(c) Baldeo uses a lamp lit with matches.
(Passage Q.13-Q.18): And then he told us the real history of the fish. It seemed that he had caught it himself,
years ago, when he was quite a lad; not by any art or skill, but by that unaccountable luck that appears to always
wait upon a boy when he plays the wag from school, and goes out fishing on a sunny afternoon, with a bit of string
tied on to the end of a tree.
He said that bringing home that trout had saved him from a whacking, and that even his school-master had said it
was worth the rule-of-three and practice put together.
He was called out of the room at this point, and George and I again turned our gaze upon the fish.
It really was a most astonishing trout. The more we looked at it, the more we marveled at it.
It excited George so much that he climbed up on the back of a chair to get a better view of it.
And then the chair slipped, and George clutched wildly at the trout-case to save himself, and down it came with a
crash, George and the chair on top of it.
―You haven‘t injured the fish, have you?‖ I cried in alarm, rushing up.
―I hope not,‖ said George, rising cautiously and looking about.
But he had. That trout lay shattered into a thousand fragments – I say a thousand, but they may have only been
nine hundred. I did not count them.
We thought it strange and unaccountable that a stuffed trout should break up into little pieces like that.
And so it would have been strange and unaccountable, if it had been a stuffed trout, but it was not.
That trout was plaster-of-Paris.
Extract taken from Jerome K. Jerome‘s A Fishy Story
13. What does the expression ―playing the wag‖ imply?

(a) Running away (b) Skipping school
(c) Pretending to be sick (d) Bunking a class
14. The expression ―the end of a tree‖ actually means:

(a) A twig (b) A branch (c) A leaf (d) The roots of the tree
15. The sentence “And then he told us the real history of the fish” implies:
(a) Every story before this one had been false.
(b) The fish was a historical one and there were several accounts of how it was caught.
(c) George and the author had been listening to several stories about the fish.
(d) The fish was a legendary one.
16. The word ‗astonishing‘ as used in the context of the passage means:
(a) Stunning (b) Trite (c) Blasé (d) Banal
17. The excerpt is taken from a short story called ‗A Fishy Story‘. Given how the story ends, it can be inferred that the
word ‗fishy‘ is:
(a) A pun (b) A metaphor (c) A simile (d) An irony
18. What technique has the author used in the end of the story?
(a) An ironical ending (b) A surprise humorous ending
(c) A suspenseful ending (d) A book end finish

MOCK CLAT #12
(Passage Q.19-Q.23):Long after ShaheenBagh became a potent symbol of democratic resistance against a
discriminatory law, the Supreme Court has ventured to hold that any such indefinite blockade of a public pathway is
unacceptable. And that the administration ought to take action to remove ―encroachments and obstructions‖ placed
during such protests. The Court‘s assertion was made even while ―appreciating the existence of the right to
peaceful protest against legislation‖. On the face of it, the Court‘s view arises from a straightforward balancing of
two contrasting rights — the right to protest and the right to free movement. However, a moot question is whether
the manner and content of a protest should always conform to forms deemed acceptable by the law. Protests, by
their very nature, are not always rooted in legality, but rather derive legitimacy from the rightness of the underlying
cause and the extent of public support. In many cases, they are against laws and regulations perceived as unjust. A
flash strike, a spontaneous road block, a call for a complete shutdown, or a campaign to fill up jails by defying
prohibitory orders — each of these is not, in a strict sense, legal; but, at the same time, it is an inevitable part of the
culture of protest in a democracy. In this case, the Court rightly notes that the administration neither negotiated with
the protesters in ShaheenBagh nor tried to clear the scene.
Any finding that a peaceful protest had continued too long, or in a place deemed inconvenient to others should not
encourage the administration to seek early curbs on the freedom of assembly. After the pandemic led to the end of
the protests, there was little left for adjudication, and the Court‘s remarks might come across as a gratuitous offering
to administrators looking to de-legitimise protests. Following the earlier judgment that any ‗bandh‘ is illegal, courts
routinely stayed sector-wide strikes. Another aspect of the present ruling is the assertion that protests should be
confined to ―designated places‖. Such judicial certitude may end up undermining the larger democratic need for
public expression of dissent in a manner and place that would be most effective.
While notified demonstrations are subject to regulations regarding time and space, it may not be possible to extend
the same to spontaneous, organic and leaderless protests driven by a cause. The ruling should not form the basis
for suppression of such protests by the force of the state.
Both principles — the need for balance between the right to protest and the right to free movement, and the rule
that protests should take place at designated spots — are salutary from an administrative point of view. But these
cannot become unquestionable axioms to the point of rendering any and all protests that cause inconvenience to
others the target of the strong arm of the state.
Taken from The Hindu (Editorial Section)
The Right Balance: On ShaheenBagh and the Right to Protest

(a) It is impossible to strike a balance between the right to protest and the right to free movement.
(b) Sudden, organic protests should not automatically invite the state‘s strong arm.
(c) There is a need for legislative intervention in the field of unorganised protesting and assembly.
(d) The manner and content of a protest should conform to the forms deemed acceptable by law.
20. Which of the following remarks of the court would favour the quashing of protests?
1. Declaration of ‗bandh‘ as illegal
2. Staying sector wide strikes
3. Restricting protests to selected places
Options:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 & 3 (c) 1, 2 & 3 (d) Only 1 & 3
21. What does the expression “judicial certitude” mean in the context of the passage?
(a) The permanence of a court‘s ruling
(b) The certificate given by a court
(c) The precedence of a court‘s ruling
(d) The certainty of a court‘s ruling
22. Consider the statement: Both principles — the need for balance between the right to protest and the right to free
movement, and the rule that protests should take place at designated spots — are salutary from an administrative
point of view.
What does the author mean by salutary in the given sentence?
(a) Nominal (b) Advisory (c) Beneficial (d) Optional
23. According to the passage, where do protests derive legitimacy from?

(a) The protestors (b) The courts (c) The legislature (d) Upright cause

MOCK CLAT #12
(Passage Q.24-Q.28): A new story is playing in the Hindi film industry. In many ways, and as it has often done, it
mirrors themes of the larger social and political landscape. But this time, the drama is mostly off-screen. And the
central tension that is driving the plot has a harder, more explicitly political edge. A government that has won a large
mandate, not once but twice, has armed itself with a strategy of winner-should-take-all. Spaces political and non-
political will be encroached, even if this means weaponising agencies and laws, and using prime-time
megaphones to signal that there‘s only one game — and one new sheriff — in town.
But Bollywood has always been a special place. It is not that the Hindi film industry has not played politics, or hasn‘t
ever been politically played. Yet, despite the Emergency, films with political themes and film stars who took the
political plunge, in spite of the Censor Board and Income Tax department wielded as instruments of control, the
intimacies between film and politics in Bollywood, unlike in the country‘s south, have been flickering — and much
has been left to the imagination. Now, as the Sushant Singh Rajput case becomes a turning point, and the spectre
of a purge takes shape, that precious ambiguity stands imperilled.
While the government‘s aggressive bid to colonise the Hindi film industry is visible, and digital platforms may well
be next, it is also clear that Bollywood needs a better-judged, more thoughtful script. In its push back, 38 leading
cinema associations and production houses have sought a ―perpetual and permanent‖ court injunction against two
TV channels seen as proxies for the ruling establishment from making ―irresponsible, derogatory and defamatory
remarks‖. While the outrage against the media‘s ―parallel and private investigations‖ is understandable, by seeking
a gag order, Bollywood is standing up by seeking to intimidate.
Extract taken from The Indian Express (Editorial: The Dirty Picture)
24. What does phrase “prime time megaphones” refer to, in the context of the passage?
(a) News channels (b) Loudspeakers (c) Daily soaps (d) Public television
25. Consider the following sentence: Now, as the Sushant Singh Rajput case becomes a turning point, and the spectre
of a purge takes shape, that precious ambiguity stands imperilled.
What is the “precious ambiguity” being referred to in the passage?
(a) The fact of politicians financing films in Bollywood
(b) The elusive connection between Bollywood and politics
(c) Bollywood‘s dark underbelly connected to the underworld
(d) Film stars later becoming politicians as they do in South India
26. What does the phrase “weaponising agencies and laws” mean?
(a) Arming the agencies of the State with ammunition
(b) Manipulating the State agencies to become mouthpieces of the government
(c) Planting government pawns in state agencies and the Parliament
(d) Only showcasing the good side of the government
27. What is meaning of the word ―colonise‖ in the context of the passage?
(a) send settlers to a place and establish political control over it
(b) settle among and establish control over the indigenous people of an area
(c) appropriate a place or domain for one's own use
(d) annex a territory
28. Why does the author say that Bollywood is “standing up by seeking to intimidate”?
(a) In the absence of a thoughtful script, Bollywood has limited options.
(b) Seeking court injunctions against media houses is a form of intimidation.
(c) Gag orders will scare politicians from making derogatory remarks.
(d) Bollywood can only silence cinema houses using gag orders.

MOCK CLAT #12
(Passage Q.29-Q.32):―I never believed in Santa Claus. None of us kids did. Mom and Dad refused to let us. They
couldn‘t afford expensive presents and they didn‘t want us to think we weren‘t as good as other kids who, on
Christmas morning, found all sorts of fancy toys under the tree that were supposedly left by Santa Claus. Dad had
lost his job at the gypsum, and when Christmas came that year, we had no money at all. On Christmas Eve, Dad
took each one of us kids out into the desert night one by one.
―Pick out your favorite star‖, Dad said.
―I like that one!‖ I said.
Dad grinned, ―That‘s Venus‖, he said. He explained to me that planets glowed because reflected light was constant
and stars twinkled because their light pulsed.
―I like it anyway‖ I said.
―What the hell,‖ Dad said. ―It‘s Christmas. You can have a planet if you want.‖
And he gave me Venus.
Venus didn‘t have any moons or satellites or even a magnetic field, but it did have an atmosphere sort of similar to
Earth‘s, except it was super-hot, about 500 degrees or more. ―So,‖ Dad said, ―when the sun starts to burn out and
Earth turns cold, everyone might want to move to Venus to get warm. And they‘ll have to get permission from your
descendants first.
We laughed about all the kids who believed in the Santa myth and got nothing for Christmas but a bunch of cheap
plastic toys. ―Years from now, when all the junk they got is broken and long forgotten,‖ Dad said, ―you‘ll still have
your stars.‖
The Glass Castle by Jeannette Walls
29. Why did the author‘s parents refuse to let her believe in Santa Claus?
(a) They did not want the author to be a spoilt brat.
(b) They did not want the author to believe in persons who did not exist.
(c) They did not want the author to compare herself with other rich kids.
(d) They did not want the author to waste money.
30. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to the word „pulsed‟ as used in the passage?
(a) Throb (b) Sweep (c) Glow (d) Glare

(a) Understanding the true spirit of Christmas
(b) Not encouraging children to believe in Santa Claus
(c) Encouraging children not to value material things
(d) Understanding the cosmos
32. What is the best word to describe ‗Dad‘ in the context of the passage?
(a) Sarcastic (b) Positive (c) Happy (d) Cheerful

MOCK CLAT #12
Passage (Q.33-Q.37):Researchers have found that a rare Ebola-like illness that is believed to have first originated
in rural Bolivia in 2004 can spread through human-to-human transmission.Researchers from the ¬___(1)___ have
discovered that Chapare virus, which is a rare Ebola-like virus that can spread from human to human. The illness
caused by this virus first originated in rural Bolivia in 2004.According to the researchers, healthcare workers should
remain on alert as they are at higher risk of contracting the illness from Chapare virus. Fragments of RNA,
associated with Chapare, were also found by CDC researchers in the semen of one survivor after he was infected.
The researchers noted that the Chapare virus could also be sexually transmitted. ―The genome sequence of the
RNA we isolated in rodent specimens matches quite well with what we have seen in human cases,‖ Cossaboom
said.
Source: https://zeenews.india.com/health/chapare-virus-all-about-the-deadly-virus-that-can-spread-between-
humans-2325419.html
33. What kind of a fever is caused by Chapare virus?

(a) Viral haemorrhagic fever (b) Intermittent fever
(c) Remittent fever (d) Neutropenic fever
34. This virus belongs to which family of virus?

(a) Bunyaviruses (b) Filoviruses (c) Arenaviruses (d) Flaviviruses
35. Which organization has discovered this virus can spread person-to-person?
(a) U.S. Center for Micro-biology
(b) U.S. Center for Disease Control & Prevention
(c) National Center for Emerging and Zoonotic Infectious Diseases
(d) Division of High-Consequence Pathogens and Pathology
36. In which year did the virus first occur?

(a) 2019 (b) 2005 (c) 2007 (d) 2003
37. The second outbreak happened in which district of Bolivia?

(a) Chapare (b) Caranavi (c) Cobija (d) Cochabamba
Passage (Q.38-Q.42):The Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation System is considered to be one of the world‘s largest multi-
purpose projects. It is designed to provide water for irrigation and drinking purposes to about 45 lakh acres. The
cost of the project is Rs 80,000 crore, but is expected to rise to Rs 1 lakh crore by the time it is completely
constructed by the end of 2020.
Kaleshwaram will transform Telangana into an agricultural powerhouse. The project will enable farmers in
Telangana to reap multiple crops with a year-round supply of water wherein earlier they were dependent on rains
resulting in frequent crop failures. This year, Telangana farmers have already delivered bumper rabi crops of paddy
and maize due to better irrigation facilities and an extended monsoon.
KLIS covers several districts which used to face rainfall deficit and the groundwater is fluoride-contaminated. Apart
from providing water for irrigation to 45 lakh acres, a main component of the project is supply of drinking water to
several towns and villages and also to twin cities of Hyderabad and Secunderabad.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-why-ngt-wants-a-relook-at-kaleshwaram-project-
6821482/
38. Kaleshwaram Project starts at the confluence of two rivers. One of them is Godavari, which is the other one?
(a) Pranahita (b) Ravi (c) Yamuna (d) Ganges
39. This project is proposed to support other missions for clean drinking water. What is the name of the mission?
(a) Mission Bhima (b) Mission Kakatiya
(c) Mission Bhagirathi (d) Both (b) and (c)

MOCK CLAT #12
40. In October 2020, the National Green Tribunal, India's court for environmental issues, directed the Telangana
government to halt work on the KLIP except the drinking water supply component. Who filed this petition?
(a) Ministry of Environment (b) A farmer of Siddipet
(c) A law student (d) Amicus Curia
41. Who inaugurated this project?

(a) AllaNani (b) Y.S. JagMohan Reddy
(c) K. ChandraShekar Rao (d) ‎NallariKiran Kumar Reddy
42. This project is designed to provide water for irrigation and drinking purposes to how many districts of Telangana?
(a) 19 (b) 21 (c) 31 (d) 20
Passage (Q.43-Q.47):China has begun work on a strategically significant railway line - its second major rail link to
Tibet - that will link Sichuan province with _______, which lies near the border with India‘s Arunachal Pradesh.
Underlining the special importance that the Chinese government has placed on the project, President Xi Jinping on
Sunday officially ―gave the instruction‖ to being work on the project and called it ―a major step in safeguarding
national unity and a significant move in promoting economic and social development of the western region.‖
Zhu Weiqun, a senior Party official formerly in charge of Tibet policy who earlier headed the Ethnic and Religious
Affairs Committee of the National Committee of the Chinese People's Political Consultative Conference, or upper
house, was quoted as saying by state media the railway will help "transport advanced equipment and technologies
from the rest of China to Tibet and bring local products out‖.
"If a scenario of a crisis happens at the border, the railway can act as a 'fast track' for the delivery of strategic
materials,‖ he said.
XiongKunxin, an academic at the Tibet University in Lhasa, told the Global Times the railway "is also of great
significance in safeguarding national unity and consolidating border stability‖. ―As the railway runs near China's
southwest border areas, it will largely improve the efficiency and convenience of military personnel and material
transportation and logical supplies,‖ he said.
Source:https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/china-begins-work-on-railway-up-to-arunachal-
border/article33087125.ece#:~:text=China%20has%20begun%20work%20on,border%20with%20India's%20Arunac
hal%20Pradesh.
43. The proposed rail line will connect Sichuan to which city?
(a) Ngari (b) Lhasa (c) Nagqu (d) Nyingchi
44. This will be the second such route linking the Tibet Autonomous Region (TAR) to the hinterland. The first one was
Qinghai-Tibet railway line which connected Lhasa to which city in Tibet?
(a) Xining (b) Zang (c) Guanjio (d) Tanggula Pass
45. The first segment of this project was completed in 2018. Which two cities in Sichuan were connected in this
segment?
(a) Lhasa- Nyingchi (b) Chengdu- Yaan
(c) Yaan- Nyingchi (d) Lhasa- Chengdu
46. The longest road-rail bridge connecting Assam to Arunachal Pradesh was inaugurated in 2018. The bridge was
constructed to facilitate quicker movement of troops and equipment to areas near the India-China border. What is
the name of the bridge?
(a) Changlang bridge (b) Sisseri River Bridge
(c) Bogibeel Bridge (d) Se La Pass Bridge
47. India will spend 10% funds of the Border Area Development Programme (BADP) only to improve the infrastructure
along the China border. The BADP was launched by the Ministry of Home Affairs as part of a comprehensive
approach to Border Management. This initiative was a part of which five year plan?
(a) Fifth (b) Sixth (c) Seventh (d) Eighth

MOCK CLAT #12
Passage (Q.48-Q.53):Modi said India will use its capacity in production and distribution of vaccines to help the
entire humanity in fighting the pandemic.
In an indirect reference to the Chinese infrastructure projects in Pakistan Occupied Kashmir, Prime Minister
NarendraModi on Tuesday urged members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) to respect ―territorial
integrity‖ and ―sovereignty‖.
―To further deepen connectivity network (among the SCO members), it is necessary to respect each other's
sovereignty and territorial integrity,‖ Mr. Modi said, reminding that India has traditionally supported infrastructure and
connectivity development projects in the SCO region. He named the Chabahar port and the North South Corridor
among the projects that India has supported.
Tuesday‘s 20th Summit of SCO Heads of State is important as it brought President Xi Jinping of China and Mr.
Modi together in the virtual format even as both sides are caught in the high tension confrontation in Eastern
Ladakh along the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
President Xi also hinted at the difficulties among members and said differences should be resolved through
dialogue. ―We need to deepen solidarity and mutual trust and resolve disputes and differences through dialogue
and consultations,‖ he said in his remarks which resonated with the backdrop of the LAC confrontation.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/prime-minister-narendra-modi-addresses-sco-summit-through-
videoconference/article33066158.ece
48. Who chaired the 20th SCO Summit?

(a) NarendraModi (b) Vladimir Putin (c) Ashraf Ghani (d) Ali Khamenei
49. Who amongst the following was not a participant of the Summit?
(a) Secretary General of the SCO Secretariat
(b) Executive Director of the SCO Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) Prime Ministers of the four Observers (of the SCO)
50. Which of the following is not a member state of SCO?

(a) Kazakhstan (b) Kyrgyzstan (c) Belarus (d) Tajikistan
51. When was the last time that the Pakistan Prime Minister visited India?
(a) 2014 (b) 2015 (c) 2020 (d) 2019
52. Who is the chairman of SCO next year?

(a) President EmomaliRahmon
(b) President Vladimir Putin
(c) Prime Minister NarendraModi
(d) President Xi Jinping
53. Shanghai Coorporation organization was formed in the year :

(a) 1992 (b) 1999 (c) 2001 (d) 2004
Passage (Q.54-Q.58): New Delhi: Even as India is in the midst of the worst border stand-off with China in decades,
New Delhi announced on Monday that Australia is set to join the Malabar military trilateral exercises comprising
India, (1) and the United States next month.
With the inclusion of Australia, it will mean that the Malabar exercise will include all the countries of the so-called
‗Quad‘ after the grouping got its second wind three years ago.
―As India seeks to increase cooperation with other countries in the maritime security domain and in the light of
increased defence cooperation with Australia, Malabar 2020 will see the participation of the Australian Navy,‖ the
Indian defence ministry said in a statement on Monday.
It added that the exercise will strengthen the coordination between the participating navies. ―They collectively
support free, open and inclusive Indo-Pacific and remain committed to a rules based international order,‖ said the
Indian statement.
Due to the COVID-19 pandemic, the exercise has been planned on a ‗non-contact-at-sea‘ format. The annual
exercise is expected to held in the (2) and (2) this November.
Australia had been keen to join the Malabar naval exercises, but India had been reluctant to ruffle China‘s feathers.
The ongoing stand-off with China which began in early May in eastern Ladakh, which led to the first fatalities in the
border in four decades, seems to have influenced India‘s policy reevaluation earlier this year.
MOCK CLAT #12
In a statement from Canberra, Australian defence minister Linda Reynolds said the Malabar exercise was a
showcase for the ―deep trust between four major Indo-Pacific democracies and their shared will to work together on
common security interests‖.
―High-end military exercises like MALABAR are key to enhancing Australia‘s maritime capabilities, building
interoperability with our close partners, and demonstrating our collective resolve to support an open and prosperous
Indo-Pacific,‖ she said
Source: https://thewire.in/diplomacy/australia-quad-malabar-naval-exercise

(a) South Korea (b) Russia (c) France (d) Japan
55. Where is the annual exercise expected to held in November?

(a) Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea
(b) Caribbean sea and Gulf of Mexico
(c) South Atlantic ocean and Atlantic ocean
(d) Bay of Bengal and Caribbean sea
56. The exercise began as bilateral naval exercise between India and the USA in which year?
(a) 1995 (b) 1992 (c) 1990 (d) 1997
57. Australia and which other country were non permanent participants of the Malabar exercise?
(a) China (b) Thailand (c) Singapore (d) Russia
58. The idea of Quad grouping was first conceptualised by whom?

(a) Jean Castex (b) NarendraModi (c) Shinzo Abe (d) YoshihideSuga
Passage (Q.59-Q.63):Panna Tiger Reserve (PTR) in Madhya Pradesh (MP) was included in the global network of
biosphere reserves by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) last week,
said an official report. Union Minister for environment, forest and climate change Prakash Javdekar congratulated
PTR authorities via a social media post for their stellar effort to conserve tigers. The post accompanied a 50-second
video of tigers in the reserve. The UNESCO‘s recognition cited PTR as a critical tiger habitat. ―The area has
undergone substantial ecosystem restoration in the buffer zone. With only three urban centres and over 300
villages, agriculture is the main source of income together with horticulture, forestry and cultural and eco-tourism,‖
the UNESCO stated.
―PTR was notified as a biosphere reserve by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(MoEFCC ) in 2011 and after nine years the UNESCO included it in the (4) ,‖ said Alok Kumar, principal chief
conservator of forests (PCCF), (wildlife), MP. ―It‘s a proud moment for us because the MP forest department did a
lot of hard work to create a conducive environment in PTR to reintroduce the population of tigers. In 2008, PTR had
lost all its tigers. The forest department had reintroduced a male and a female tiger in 2009 and within a decade the
animal‘s population increased to over 50,‖ Kumar said.
However, Kumar expressed concern about poaching, as a tiger was recently killed by a poacher in the reserve.
Source:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/unesco-declares-panna-tiger-reserve-a-biosphere-
reserve/story-UeIXY6iH9nlAfvI0CRvlsM.html
59. The PBR is the third in Madhya Pradesh to be included in the list after which other two?
(a) Pachmarhi and Amarkantak. (b) Bhedaghat and Khajurao
(c) Orchha and Pachmarhi (d) Khajurao and Sanchi Stupa
60. The Panna region is also famous for?

(a) Currency printing (b) Diamond mining
(c) Cotton textile (d) Oil wells
61. The first biosphere reserve of the world was established in which year?
(a) 1983 (b) 1975 (c) 1979 (d) 1987

MOCK CLAT #12
62. Fill in the blank ( 4)

(a) Biosphere Programme
(b) Environment and Biosphere Programme
(c) Flora & Fauna and Biosphere Programme
(d) Man and Biosphere Programme
63. Which was the 1st BR from India to be included in the WNBR.?
(a) Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve
(b) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
(c) Nanda Devi biosphere reserve
(d) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere reserve
Passage (Q.64-Q.67): New Delhi: The Chandrayaan-1 Moon data indicates that the Moon's poles are home to
water, this is what the scientists are trying to decipher," the statement said.
Images sent by Chandrayaan-1, India's first lunar mission, suggest that the Moon may be rusting along the poles,
Union Minister Jitendra Singh said on Sunday.
Chandrayaan-1 was launched in ( 1).
"ISRO's maiden mission to the Moon has sent images which show that the Moon may be rusting along the poles.
"The sign of this finding is that even though the surface of the Moon is known to have iron-rich rocks, it is not known
for the presence of water and oxygen, which are the two elements needed to interact with iron to create rust," said
Mr Singh, who is the Minister of State for the Department of Space.
Scientists at the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) say that this could be because the Earth's
atmosphere is lending a helping hand which, in other words, means that the Earth''s atmosphere could be
protecting the Moon as well, the statement said.
"The Chandrayaan-1 Moon data indicates that the Moon's poles are home to water, this is what the scientists are
trying to decipher," the statement added.
Source:https://www.ndtv.com/science/moon-may-be-rusting-along-poles-suggest-chandrayaan-1-images-2291357

(a) 2010 (b) 2009 (c) 2007 (d) 2008
65. With what program, NASA will land the first woman and next man on the moon by 2024?
(a) Gemini (b) Artemis (c) Orion (d) Apollo
66. Which mineral is a form of iron oxide, or rust, produced when iron is exposed to oxygen and water which is found on
moon?
(a) Hematite (b) Magnetite (c) Goethite (d) Limonite
67. How many instruments were onboard on Chandrayaan-1?

(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 11 (d) 4
Passage (Q.68-Q.71):New Delhi: India climbed [x] spots on the Global Innovation Index 2020 and is now at (1)
position in the list of top 50 innovative countries in the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) annual
ranking.
Switzerland, Sweden, US, UK and (3) are in the top spots of this year's ranking. According to an official release,
India occupied the 52nd position in 2019 and was ranked 81st in the year 2015.
The WIPO had also accepted India as one of the leading innovation achievers of 2019 in the central and southern
Asian region, as it has shown a consistent improvement in its innovation ranking for the last 5 years.
As per the release, the consistent improvement in the global innovation index rankings is owing to the immense
knowledge capital, the vibrant startup ecosystem, and the amazing work done by the public and private research
organizations.
The India Innovation Index, which was released last year by the NITI Aayog, has been widely accepted as the major
step in the direction of decentralization of innovation across all the states of India.
A constant thrust in monitoring and evaluating India's position in global rankings has been provided by the NITI
Aayog, including the global innovation index, the release stated
Source: https://www.livemint.com/

MOCK CLAT #12
68. What is the ranking of India in Global Innovation Index 2020?

(a) 50 (b) 58 (c) 48 (d) 38
69. What is the theme of 2020 year‘s Global Innovation Index?

(a) Who will Finance Innovation?
(b) The Future of Medical Innovation.
(c) Energizing the World with Innovation'
(d) Innovation Feeding the World.
70. Fill in the Blank ( 3)

(a) Japan (b) China (c) Netherland (d) New Zealand
71. Consider the following statements and choose the correct ones.
i. India has become the third most innovative lower-middle-income economy in the world.
ii. India ranks in the top 15 in indicators such as the Information and Communication Technology (ICT) services
exports, government online services, graduates in science and engineering, and Research and Development-
intensive global companies.
iii. GII is published annually by Cornell University, INSEAD and the WIPO.
(a) Only I (b) ii & iii (c) i& ii (d) All of them

MOCK CLAT #12
(Passage Q.72-Q.76): The tort of intentional infliction of emotional distress (IIED) is defined as the plaintiff acting
abominably or outrageously with the intention of causing the defendant to suffer severe emotional distress. This is
typically done by a defendant vocally issuing the threat of future harm to a plaintiff. The elements of establishing a
prima facie case in this regard are (1) the defendant acts (2) the defendant‘s conduct is outrageous (3) the
defendant acts for the purpose of causing the victim emotional distress so severe that it could be expected to
adversely affect mental health (4) the defendant's conduct causes such distress.
Certain intentional actions which may meet the prima facie case for an IIED (particularly as related to the
outrageous conduct components) may not qualify for tort liability as an IIED, depending on the person at whom the
conduct is directed or who commits the action. Typically, a court will not assign IIED tort liability to a defendant who
speaks harmfully about public figures. Further, as per Texas v. Johnson (1989), ―Government may not prohibit the
expression of an idea simply because society finds the idea itself offensive or disagreeable.‖
There are certain possible defences to the tort too. If the plaintiff gives consent to the defendant to engage in the
outrageous conduct, then courts will likely consider the conduct to be non-outrageous, thus negating the prima facie
claim. Further, context matters as well. If the conduct is done in a situation in which it may be deemed normal or
appropriate, then the prima facie claim is likely negated. Some jurisdictions will expand IIED liability by modifying
the prima facie case. Rather than requiring that the defendant's action causes emotional distress in an intended
plaintiff, some jurisdictions will allow that even if the defendant directs conduct at plaintiff A, but someone close to
Plaintiff A (Plaintiff B) suffers severe emotional distress, then Plaintiff B is allowed to bring an IIED claim against the
defendant.In Snyder v Phelps (2010), the Supreme Court signaled a move away from imposing IIED liability. The
Court set aside the trial court's jury verdict that found IIED liability: "[Applying the IIED tort] would pose too great a
danger that the jury would punish [the defendant] for its views on matters of public concern."
[Source: https://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/intentional_infliction_of_emotional_distress]
72. Sugriv and Bali are brothers but bitter enemies. There have been multiple instances where Bali has beaten up
Sugriv badly and Sugriv now hates and fears Bali badly. On April 1, Bali passes by Sugriv‘s home. Sugriv is scared
and distressed. Decide
(a) Bali is liable for IIED for he has caused severe emotional distress to Sugriv
(b) Bali is not liable for IIED for he did not act thus the elements of IIED are not fulfilled.
(c) Bali is liable for IIED for his act was walking in front of Sugriv‘s house.
(d) Bali is not liable for IIED for Sugriv is super sensitive
73. Rajesh has quite a few enemies in his neighborhood. One such enemy hires a goon who is now standing outside
Rajesh‘s house with a sunflower. Rajesh has allergy to sunflower pollen but no one except his family knows about
the same. Decide
(a) The goon is liable for IIED for he has caused severe emotional distress to Rajesh
(b) The goon did not act in an outrageous manner thus is not liable for IIED
(c) The goon is liable for IIED for Rajesh was scared suspecting that the goon might know about his allergy
(d) The goon is not liable for he did not act.
74. Anand‘s father does not like his son for he did not make life choices as per his wishes. One day, Anand‘s father
stood outside his son‘s house with a flower bouquet. However, he knew that Anand was allergic to a few flowers in
the bouquet. Decide.
(a) Anand‘sfatheris liable for IIED for he has caused severe emotional distress to his son, as he knew about his
allergy
(b) Anand‘s father did not act in an outrageous manner thus is not liable for IIED
(c) Anand‘s father is liable for IIED.
(d) Anand‘s father is not liable for it was only a flower that would have made him sneeze
75. Vishal and his brother Anil were former members of a band and lovers of Meera, the famous beer brand. The band
broke up and it did not end well with Vishal and Anil hitting each other with beer bottles. Vishal wished to end the
rivalry between the two. He went to meet Anil with a bottle of beer to recount their old memories. Decide
(a) Vishal is liable for IIED for he has caused severe emotional distress to Anil as he knew about his allergy
(b) Vishal did not act in an outrageous manner thus is not liable for IIED
(c) Vishal is liable for the context does demonstrates an outrageous act
(d) Vishal is not liable for the context does not demonstrate an outrageous act

MOCK CLAT #12
76. A case occurred in Kerala wherein a Malyalam magazine printed a picture of a woman breastfeeding her child.
There was objection raised on the decency and obscenity of the same and that the picture hurt the sentiments of
the society causing them distress. Decide
(a) The magazine is liable for IIED for it has caused severe emotional distress to Bali
(b) The magazine is not liable for IIED for they have not acted in an outrageous manner
(c) The magazine is liable for IIED for it threatened the fundamental values of Indian society
(d) The magazine is not liable for IIED for only the society finding it offensive is not a good ground to establish IIED.
(Passage Q.77-Q.81):The Indian Penal Code under Section 300 defines murder. The code lays down
circumstances in which an act of culpable homicide may become an act of murder. The first instance is where an
act by which death is caused was done with intention of causing death. Here action also includes intentional
omission. Where a child was very ill and his family members refused to take him to the hospital for providing
necessary treatment, as a result the child dies. Such a case shall be called as murder. The second instance is
where there is an intention to cause bodily injury which is likely to cause death. Here the offender has the intention
to cause bodily harm and knowledge that by his act death will be caused. This clause may include those cases
where the victim was suffering from a trauma or disease that the offender knew about and used it as an advantage
by inflicting bodily injury which resulted in death of that person, what may not have caused death of a normal
person. The third is when injury is sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature. For this clause the
offender must have intention and would‘ve caused a bodily injury that is sufficient enough to cause death to any
other person in ordinary course of nature. The fourth is having knowledge of the dangerousness of the act. Where
the offender doing the act knows the gravity of his actions that it will, in all probability, will cause death of the person
or the bodily injury that is inflicted is likely to cause death, and still commits such act without any prominent excuse
for causing death or such injury. This is applicable on cases of dangerous action without any intention to cause
specific injury. For e.g., rash driving.
[Source: http://lawtimesjournal.in/murder/]
77. Rathore is a scientist. He administered a new variety of glucose to a human subject intending to test the substance.
The subject seemed to have the intended reaction at first, however, died later. Rathore however, never intended for
the subject to die. When an enquiry was conducted it was found out that the glucose was of a dangerous nature
and significantly harmful to human health. Which of the following is a defence that Rathore can take?
(a) Rathore is not liable for murder as there was no intention to kill the subject.
(b) Rathore is not liable for murder as the glucose would not in the ordinary course, lead to death.
(c) Rathore is not liable for murder as he did not know that the glucose was so dangerous to human health.
(d) The results of the experiment were beyond Rathore‘s control and he cannot be liable for such actions.
78. After Bittu hit Amish on his head with an iron rod, he was taken to the hospital. The doctor refused to take care of
Amish, who could have been saved. Amish died
(a) The doctor is liable for murder of Amish for they had an intention of causing death
(b) The doctor is not liable for murder of Amish as he did not intend to cause A‘s death
(c) The doctor is liable for murder of Amish for his inaction is read as an ―act‖ within Section 300, IPC.
(d) The doctor is not liable for murder of Amish as he was busy attending other patients.
79. After Bittu hit Amish on his head, he was taken to the hospital. The doctor could not attend to Amish‘s condition as
he was busy examining other patients. Decide
(a) The doctor is liable for murder of Amish for they had an intention of causing death
(b) The doctor is not liable for murder of Amish as he did not intend to cause A‘s death
(c) The doctor is liable for murder of Amish for his inaction is read as an ―act‖ within Section 300, IPC.
(d) The doctor is not liable for murder of Amish as he was busy attending other patients.
80. Aftab likes to play PUBG. He learns how to make Molotov cocktails online, makes them and starts throwing the
same in his neighbourhood. Luckily for Aftab, they do not explode but Betty trips on one of the bottles, hits his head
on the ground and dies. Decide
(a) Aftab is liable for murder for he should have realised the dangerousness of his act
(b) Aftab is not liable for murder for there was no intention of killing Betty
(c) Aftab is liable for murder for he knew that someone may trip on the bottle
(d) Aftab is not liable for murder. He started playing COD instead.

MOCK CLAT #12
81. Please refer to the facts above. Aftab makes better molotovs now. One of them explodes near a car and the car
explodes. As a result of the car explosion, a neighbor die. Decide
(a) Aftab is liable for murder for he should have realised the dangerousness of his act
(b) Aftab is not liable for murder for there was no intention of killing Betty
(c) Aftab is liable for murder for he knew that someone may trip on the bottle
(d) Aftab is not liable for murder. The neighbor was killed in car explosion.
(Passage Q.82-Q.86): Quite recently, the World Health Organisation (WHO) declared the novel Coronavirus
(COVID-19) a pandemic. According to the WHO, a pandemic is defined as the "worldwide spread" of a new
disease. WHO, however, also remarked that it is a pandemic which can be controlled if governments around the
world undertake effective measures. In response to the novel virus which has claimed more than 5000 lives
worldwide and affected more than 1,45,000 people, governments around the world have imposed, prohibiting any
mass gathering. Furthermore, leading multinational corporations have asked their employees to work from home
and all major sporting events have been suspended.
However, a piece of news recently garnered a storm over social media when it was reported that a COVID-19 victim
who had been quarantined in Bengaluru escaped from Bengaluru on March 8, took a flight to New Delhi and further
travelled to Agra to be with her parents. In addition to this, they faced resistance on making attempts to quarantine
the said person. The questions which now arise for consideration from a legal perspective are: Which law provides
the state the power to use appropriate force against such persons in order to place them into quarantine? What is
the legal framework in relation to the control of epidemics in India? What are the gaps in the existing framework and
what is the framework in some other nations?
There are two legislations which have been invoked by the Union and State Governments to effectively tackle the
outbreak and spread of COVID-19. The first is the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897. As the year of enactment
suggests, the Epidemic Diseases Act is a colonial era legislation which was primarily enacted to tackle the epidemic
of bubonic plague that had spread in the erstwhile Bombay Presidency in the 1890s. Using powers conferred by the
Act, colonial authorities would search suspected plague cases in homes and among passengers, with forcible
segregations, evacuations, and demolitions of infected places. Section 2 of the Impugned Legislation is a sweeping
section that empowers the state governments/UTs to prescribe special measures and formulate regulations for
containing the outbreak and spread of an epidemic if it thinks that the ordinary provisions of the law for the time
being in force are insufficient for the purpose. These regulations can range from prescribing such temporary
regulations to be observed by the public or by any person or class of persons as it shall deem necessary to prevent
the outbreak of such disease or the spread thereof to the inspection of persons travelling from railways or
otherwise, segregation in hospital, creation of special wards etc. Section 2A provides similar powers to the Central
Governments in reference to ports, vessels etc. Section 3 penalises a person for disobedience of any order given
by any public servant. For such a violation to occur, there must be 1) an order promulgated by a public servant 2)
such public servant must have been lawfully empowered to promulgate such order 3) a person must have
knowledge of the existence of such an order 4) such disobedience must cause or tend to cause obstruction,
annoyance, or injury. Section 4 of the act provides immunity to any person acting under the act. [Source:
https://www.livelaw.in/columns/covid-19-decoding-the-legal-framework-for-pandemic-control-153880]
82. A virus named PAX-12 spread from a village in Western Africa in 2007. This virus showed symptoms of infectivity
through coughing and could also travel on dust particles present in the air and had a long life in water causing
transportation by sea to be another means of transmission. The virus gradually spread from person to person and
through air to multiple countries in Western Africa killing more than a whopping 1756 people. Concerned, the WHO
decides to label the disease as a pandemic.
(a) PAX-12 cannot be labeled as a pandemic for it has not yet claimed enough lives
(b) PAX-12 can be labeled as a pandemic for it has affected multiple countries.
(c) PAX-12 cannot be labeled as a pandemic for the disease has not spread worldwide.
(d) PAX-12 can be labeled as a pandemic for the disease may otherwise spread worldwide.
83. A case of 6 members of a family was discovered in Kerala who had travelled from Italy. These family members
failed to inform the government of their travel history and were staying at their home for about 10 days before the
emergency medical teams arrived at their homes. The medical team demanded that they be allowed to search the
home of the family. The family resisted. Decide
(a) The emergency medical team is justified in searching the place of the family under the Epidemics Act
(b) The emergency medical team is unjustified in searching the place of the family for they have a right to privacy.
(c) The emergency medical team is justified in searching the place of the family only if state has formulated rules
expressly allowing such search.
(d) The emergency medical team is unjustified in searching the place of the family since the police exist.

MOCK CLAT #12
84. The state of Punjab has prescribed sweeping norms that require mandatory testing of any person who deplanes in
India and is coming from abroad especially Canada. Gurpreet comes from Kuwait on board a ship to Mumbai. He
then takes a flight from Mumbai to Amritsar. He is subjected to testing by the authorities.
(a) Gurpreet should be tested for he has come from abroad.
(b) Gurpreet should not be tested for he has deplaned from a flight that took off from Mumbai
(c) Gurpreet should be tested for he might be a danger to the community.
(d) Gurpreet drinks lots of cow milk. He can never catch coronavirus.
85. The State of Tripura has imposed a curfew due to coronavirus. The existing laws impose a penalty of Rs. 1000 and
imprisonment for violation of such curfew by any individual. However, the state assembly, in light of the pandemic of
COVID-19 has declared an additional penalty of 2 years imprisonment upon the violation of the curfew. Dheer, a
resident challenge such enhanced penalty.
(a) The state of Tripura is justified in imposing the ban due to the urgency and necessity of the same.
(b) The state of Tripura is unjustified in imposing the ban for it is unreasonable punishment.
(c) The state of Tripura is justified in imposing the ban for the Epidemic Act allows it to do so.
(d) The state of Tripura is unjustified in imposing the ban for existing laws are sufficient to prevent harm.
86. The State of Karnataka has banned L&L from conducting any classes in light of the impending COVID19 threat.
L&L challenges such decision of the government before the High Court of Karnataka.
(a) L&L shall be given relief for such ban cannot be imposed on their right to trade.
(b) L&L shall not be given relied for Epidemic Act allows for such a ban to be placed on them.
(c) L&L shall be given relief for Epidemic Act allows to place such a ban only on a class of persons.
(d) The information given about the nature of ban is insufficient for a decision to be made.
(Passage Q.87-Q.91):Section 97 was part of the Indian Penal Code as enacted in 1860. Explaining Section 97,
Supreme Court speaking through Justice Vivian Bose in Amjad Khan Vs the State (1952) held as follows: "Under
section 97 of the Indian Penal Code the right extends not only to the defence of one's own body against any offence
affecting the human body but also to defending the body of any other person. The right also embraces the
protection of property, whether one's own or another person's, against certain specified offences, namely theft,
robbery, mischief and criminal trespass".
The right of private defence, however, cannot be claimed by an accused, if the facts suggest that the parties had
involved in a free fight between them, and it could not be determined as to which party was the first aggressor, thus
forcing the other party to use force against the aggressor, so as to defend.
The Supreme Court, in Suresh Singhal vs. State, has held that a mere reasonable apprehension of danger to life is
enough to put the right of self-defence into operation and it is not necessary that there should be an actual
commission of the offence in order to give rise to the right of private defence.
This court has held that a person who is in imminent and reasonable danger of losing his life or limb may in exercise
of self-defence inflict any harm even extending to death on his assailant either when the assault is attempted or
upon being directly threatened. We are inclined to think that the appellant had been put in such a position,‖ the
bench said, referring to Darshan Singh vs State Of Punjab.
The court said: ―In the instant case, Suresh Singhal had exceeded the power given to him by law in order to defend
himself, but we are of the view that the exercise of the right was in good faith, in his own defence and without
premeditation.‖ ―In such a situation, it would be unrealistic to expect the appellant to calmly assess who would have
the upper hand before exercising his right of private defence,‖ the bench said.
[Ashok KM ‗Right To Private Defence Is Available Even When There Is Reasonable Apprehension Of Danger To
Life: SC‘ Live Law <https://www.livelaw.in/right-private-defence-available-even-reasonable-apprehension-danger-
life-sc/?infinitescroll=1> as accessed on 17 September 2020]
87. Sandhus and Randhwas were two most powerful families of Sikha village, with a long history of feud between them.
When one of Randhawa‘s married Sandhu girl, infuriated Sandhus began slaying every Randhwa they could find in
the village. In the process, they killed every man, woman and even elderlies of the family and buried them all in the
ground. At last when they found a small boy crying in a room, they slit his throat and left him there to die. Their
justification to the crime was their right to private defence, as the boy would have sought vengeance in future had
they left him alive. Decide whether the act of killing the boy, in isolation, was an act of private defence.
(a) It was not an act of private defence, Sandhus had no imminent threat from the little boy as he could have not
caused any harm to any person or property, thus no right to private defence invoked at the end of Sandhus, to
exercise.
(b) It was an act of private defence, as the boy would have sought vengeance against Sandhus after he would
grow up, this causes a threat of life from the boy and therefore gives Sandhus right to private defence against
the boy.

MOCK CLAT #12
(c) It was not an act of private defence, as the threat from the boy was very far-fetched and the force used against
the boy was too disproportionate as compared to the threat he radiates.
(d) It was an act of private defence, as leaving the boy alive would have furthered the feud between the two
families, causing threat to life of members of both families. Therefore, killing the boy was an exercise of lawful
right to private defence.
88. Kabir was gifted a Bullet bike by her grandmother. After her demise, the bike reminded her of her grandmother and
therefore he looks after the bike really well. Once in a football competition, he was embroiled in a fight with the
players of the opposing team and beat one of them, Karan, brutally. The next day, when he parked his bike in front
of the college, Karan started denting his bike with a stick. Kabir saw it happening, while coming out of the college,
and he threw a stone at him. The stone hit Karan and injured him. Karan filed a police complaint, and argued in the
trial that if no harm was caused to Kabir himself he has no right to cause harm to Karan. Kabir is seeking the right
under private defence. Decide:
(a) There is no valid right to private defence, as the fight between the two was a free fight agitated by Kabir and
thus he gets no right to exercise private defence against Karan, even if the same is to defend a person or any
property.
(b) There is valid right to private defence, as the right to private defence also extends to property, along with the
human body, thus an act to protect his bike by throwing a stone at Karan was a valid act of self defence.
(c) There is no valid right to private defence, as there was no threat to the life of Kabir when he threw stone at
Karan, mere denting of a bike does not invoke any right to private defence at the end of Karan.
(d) There is valid right to private defence, as Karan became a threat to Kabir, when Kabir beat him up after the
football match, so when he dented Kabir‘s bike, it was a threat not only to his property but also a potential threat
to his life.
89. Bablu and Guddu, were two youngsters who stepped in the underworld from a very early age. They became trusted
men of Kaleen Bhaiya, the don of Mirzapur. Where Bablu was a smart person, with great strategies, Guddu was the
one who expanded the fear of Kaleen Bhaiya in nearby territories. Their meticulous involvement in the business
was not appreciated by Munna, son of Kaleen Bhaiya. After Kaleen Bhaiya‘s death, the throne of Mirzapur was lying
vacated. All of them decided to find the successor by a gang war. They all met at SudarshanChowk in Mirzapur to
fight. During the fight, Guddu shot Munna, to save Bablu from being thrashed on his head. Was shooting Munna
would be an act of self defence on the part of Guddu?
(a) The act of shooting Munna is not an act of private defence, as their fight was a free fight in which no one gets a
right to private defence even if the action was in furtherance of protecting a person‘s body or any property.
(b) The act of shooting Munna is an act of private defence, as Munna approaching Bablu to thrash him with a stick,
created a reasonable apprehension of threat to Bablu‘s life, consequently invoking the right to private defence.
(c) The act of shooting Munna is not an act of private defence, as Munna claimed the throne to Kaleen Bhaiya‘s
business, and became an aggressor by forcing Guddu and Bablu to indulge in a fight, and the act of Guddu
was, thus, to defend Bablu.
(d) The act of shooting Munna is not an act of private defence, as Munna had not yet hit Bablu when Guddu shot
him and thus there was apprehension of threat to Bablu‘s life. Therefore, there arose no right to private defence.
90. Dimpy woke up at night after hearing some noise in their kitchen. She slowly stood up and walked towards the
kitchen, and saw somebody stealing food from their kitchen. Dimpy shouted to wake everybody, scared thief slowly
moved towards Dimpy and waived knife, who till then picked up a gun in her hands. Seeing the gun, the thief ran to
save his life and jumped out of the window. After he escaped the house, Dimpy shot at him to prevent him from
getting away. The bullet hit the thief‘s leg and injured him badly. The thief has now filed an FIR against Dimpy, for
causing hurt and attempt to murder. During the trial Dimpy claims the defence of private defence, for protecting her
own body and property. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Dimpy can take the right to private defence, as she fired the shot to prevent the thief from running, who was
waving a knife at her which caused her imminent threat and apprehension of danger to life.
(b) Dimpy cannot take the right to private defence, as when the thief was shot he had already escaped the house of
Dimpy and thus there was neither any threat to anyone‘s body or property. Therefore, the act of shooting the
thief was not an act of private defence.
(c) Dimpy can take the right to private defence, as if the thief had escaped, there would have been a reasonable
apprehension of his returning back at Dimpy‘s home. Thus, the act was reasonable in the view of apprehension
to life.
(d) Dimpy cannot take the right to private defence, as her action was highly disproportionate and grave as
compared to the actions of the thief, she could have used the right to private defence against the actions of the
thief but could not shoot her for waiving a knife.

MOCK CLAT #12
91. Seema was about to get to bed after finishing all her daily chores, at around 1:00 in the night. She heard a distant
gunshot and came out of her house to check what happened. She saw a silhouette of a man coming towards her
with a gun on his shoulders, he shouted to ask who it was but got no reply. As an immediate reflex, she brought a
knife from her house and killed the man when he came close to him. It was found in the morning, the person who
died was Seema‘sneighbour, who was coming back from hunting in the forest. Police filed the FIR and made
Seema the accused for culpable homicide, not amounting to murder. Both the subordinate courts, i.e. trial court and
High Court, have convicted Seema. The appeal against the judgment is now pending before the Supreme Court of
India. Decide:
(a) Seema is not guilty of culpable homicide, as there was no malafide intention, i.e. mensrea, on the part of
Seema, which is a determinant factor while classifying a case as culpable homicide.
(b) Seema is guilty of culpable homicide, as there was no reasonable or imminent apprehension of danger or threat
on her part and therefore killing a person in such a case is an evident case of culpable homicide.
(c) Seema is not guilty of culpable homicide, as her act of killing the person approaching her with a knife was in
furtherance of private defence, the need for which arose from the imminent threat when a man was approaching
her with a gun right after she heard a gunshot.
(d) Seema is guilty of culpable homicide, as she intentionally killed the man, which is clear from her action of
harming him before she inflicted any harm on her. Intentional act of killing cannot be shrouded with the
exception of private defence.
(Passage Q.92-Q.96):The recent decision of the Supreme Court in the case of P Chidambaram v. Directorate of
Enforcement yet again gives rise to the eternal debate between custodial interrogation and anticipatory bail. Section
438 of the Criminal Procedure Code deals with ‗grant of bail to a person apprehending arrest‘ and empowers the
High Court or the Court of Sessions to grant anticipatory bail upon exercising discretion. Anticipatory bail can be
granted subject to conditions that the accused shall make himself available for investigation as and when required
and not threaten or influence witnesses or tamper with evidence.
The judgment in Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia v. State of Punjab sends out a word of caution that Courts should be
particularly mindful of the stigma attached to arrest of an individual as well its ramifications while deciding an
application for grant of anticipatory bail. For this purpose, Courts should look into the authenticity of the allegations
to rule out ulterior motives and potential objectives to injure and humiliate an applicant by having him arrested.
The Supreme Court, in its decision in the case of SiddharamMhetre v. State of Maharashtra (2011), added a new
dimension to the interpretation of Section 438 by specifying that there is no requirement to make out a ‗special case‘
for exercise of power under Section 438. It held that custodial interrogation should be avoided in cases where the
accused has joined investigation and is fully cooperating with the investigating agency and is not likely to abscond.
NandiniSatpathy v. PL Dani broke new ground by its opinion that Article 20 (3) becomes operative from the stage of
police interrogation. The judgment took a step further and pronounced that in terms of Article 20 (3) read with Article
22 (1) of the Constitution, the police is required to permit the advocate of the accused to be present at the time he is
examined.
It is common knowledge that custodial interrogation is the weapon wielded by investigating agencies to secure
clinching evidence against an accused. On the other hand, anticipatory bail is the shield deployed by an accused to
avoid the inclemency of arrest and custody. Divergent opinions and views emanate from the Supreme Court in
cases involving anticipatory bail. Subjectivity has become the hallmark in bail matters because peculiar facts play a
pivotal role in influencing the Court‘s decision to grant or refuse bail.
[ChinmoyPradip Sharma ‗Anticipatory Bail versus Custodial Interrogation: Striking a balance‘ Bar and Bench
<https://www.barandbench.com/columns/column-debate-custodial-interrogation-versus-anticipatory-bail> as
accessed on 18 September 2020]
92. Bala was a dacoit, who lives in the forests of Sunderbans. He knows the forest so well, that the Police have failed to
nab him several times, as he manages to escape. Now that he knows that Police comes with more force every time
to nab him, he decided to avoid arrest by filing for an anticipatory bail application for all the prosecutions pending
against him. He made the application before a local magistrate, promising to fully cooperate with the investigation.
The magistrate, however, declined his request as well as the application. Bala was arrested by the Police from the
magistrate‘s court. He feels cheated and has challenged the order of the magistrate by which he did not grant the
anticipatory bail. Which of the following is the correct option?
(a) The court could not have declined the bail application, as Bala assured his full cooperation in the investigation,
and the court could have reasonably made out that he would also not try to tamper with the evidence and the
witnesses, if he had himself submitted to the jurisdiction of the court.
(b) The court could have declined the bail application, as the court has to be extra cautious while deciding cases of
hardened and notorious criminals, as they would abscond or tamper with the evidence.
(c) The court could not have declined the bail application, as the court shall look beyond the ulterior motives, and
potential objectives to injure and humiliate an applicant by having him arrested.
MOCK CLAT #12
(d) The court could have declined the bail application, as the court can exercise discretion while deciding an
application for anticipatory bail, on the grounds that the person would neither abscond or nor tamper with the
witnesses.
93. Sushil returned to his village after completing his post-graduation in law from Cambridge University. While resolving
a property dispute between his and his uncle‘s family, he had to throw stone at his cousin to defend his father from
being hurt. The stone inflicted a serious wound and the cousin is admitted in a hospital. Sushil knows he will easily
get acquitted as his actions were covered under the right to self defence, however, he applied for an anticipatory
bail, assuring that he is a law student and won‘t abuse the criminal procedure. Sushil was already cooperating with
the investigating agency, while the application was pending before a magistrate. His application was denied, and he
was arrested. In the light of the judgment in SiddharamMhetre v. State of Maharashtra, decide whether the
magistrate's order was correct or not.
(a) The decision of the magistrate was incorrect, as Sushil had committed the offence in exercise of his right to
private defence and has already been cooperating with the investigation; in such a case his arrest shall be
avoided.
(b) The decision of the magistrate was correct, as the magistrate has the discretion while allowing any application
for anticipatory bail and he can decline such an application if he feels that the requisites are not met.
(c) The decision of the magistrate was incorrect, as Sushil was a meritorious law graduate and was well aware of
the law and would never take any step that would result in harming the law's very sanctity.
(d) The decision of the court was correct, as arrest gives a more beneficial outcome in the investigation of an
offence, so the bail shall be granted in only special cases and be declined in the rest.
94. Abu Mallick was being searched by Police due to the violence that he created due to his hate speech against the
government and its ideology about the minorities of the nation. He was reported to have been seen in Allahabad, so
a team of six officers travelled to Allahabad to bring him to Bangalore. The orders were to arrest him and bring him
to Bangalore, where he would be examined. He was arrested, and after obtaining a transit remand from the local
magistrate was being taken to Bangalore. He reiterated that he wants to see his lawyer, which is also his
constitutional right. However, for being in transit his request was denied. Decide whether the denial of right to a
lawyer in the present case is a breach of fundamental right.
(a) There is a denial of fundamental rights, as the constitution of India gives a right to a lawyer to every arrested
person and non-compliance of the same is a breach of the fundamental right by the state.
(b) There is no denial of fundamental rights, as the right to lawyer to an arrested person only accrues at the stage
of examination of the arrested person by the police and not before.
(c) There denial of fundamental rights, as the police failed to give the right to lawyer to Abu in Allahabad before
transiting him to Bangalore for examination.
(d) There is no denial of fundamental rights, as the same can be exercised with reasonable restrictions, and a
lawyer cannot be provided to Abu during the transit, however if the same is not done after reaching Bangalore
then the same would be a breach of fundamental rights.
95. Lathika is a law student, who has already started extending help to others in terms of legal advice. When a friend of
hers eloped with a minor, she suggested him to apply for an anticipatory bail, to avoid arrest in case he is charged
with abduction. The friend hired a lawyer and applied for an anticipatory bail, which was denied and he was arrested
when FIR was filed for abduction of the girl. Lathika has now suggested the friend to challenge the order of denial of
the anticipatory bail and to file another application for anticipatory bail alongside. She further suggested the friend to
give assurance of cooperating in the investigation, as the same is the ultimate criteria for allowing anticipatory bail
application, and it could not be denied this time. According to you, were suggestions of Lathika legally accurate?
(a) Lathika‘s advice is legally inaccurate, as the court is not bound to allow the anticipatory bail application, even
upon an assurance of the applicant to neither abscond nor tamper with the evidence and witness.
(b) Lathika‘s advice is legally accurate, as the court, when assured of the criteria as listed by the Supreme Court in
the aforementioned cases, like cooperation in investigation, shall allow the application, to save the applicant
from the humiliation that the arrest entails.
(c) Lathika‘s advice is legally inaccurate, as an application for anticipatory bail can be filed before a court when
there is apprehension of arrest and not when the same is already made.
(d) Lathika‘s advice is legally accurate, as the application for cooperation in the investigations is the only relevant
criteria, while deciding an application for the anticipatory bail.

MOCK CLAT #12
96. Mrs. Lizzy was mid-aged woman who runs a flower shop in Prism County. The county witnessed several cases of
missing children, who were never to be found. The county sherif was conducting regular patrolling but still the kids
kept going missing. A neighbour of Mrs. Lizzy‘s, saw blood dripping out of her drain and made out it to be a
human‘s. The news spread like a wildfire, that Mrs. Lizzy is a cannibal who has eaten all the missing children.
Apprehended of arrest, Mrs. Lizzy filed for an anticipatory bail application, the judge scrutinizing the same, asked
her for the reasons of applying for the bail. Concluding that there is no medical illness or no dependants of Mrs.
Lizzy declined the application. Mrs. Lizzy was arrested for the crime of cannibalism and is being tried in a court.
Decide:
(a) The bail application was not rightly declined, as the court could have shown consideration taking into account
that an arrest would be humiliating to her reputation, putting her in a more miserable position than she is
already in, after the rumors against her.
(b) The bail application was rightly declined, as for crimes as serious as cannibalism the person shall not be left in
the open, because the same would be a threat to the society, putting more life in danger.
(c) The bail application was not rightly declined, as there is no need for special reasons to grant anticipatory bail by
a judge, only if requisites in the law are satisfied the application could be allowed.
(d) The bail application was rightly declined, as there is no need for an anticipatory bail if Mrs. Lizzy is unable to
furnish valid reasons for the same to be granted by the judge.
(Passage Q.97-Q.101): In a bizarre case Bombay High Court recently allowed an application filed to quash an
order of the Trial Court by way of which Section 498A, IPC proceedings were initiated for inflicting cruelty on a
woman.
In doing so, Justice AM Badar opined that Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) would not be attracted for
every instance of cruelty against a married woman. After extracting the provision in the judgment, the Court said,
"Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code does not come into play in every case of harassment and/or cruelty to a
married woman. What is required to be shown is willful conduct of such a nature as is likely to drive or propel or
compel a married woman to commit suicide or to cause grave injury or danger to her life, limb or health. It must be
shown that acts were of such a nature, as were sufficient for causing a married woman to lose her normal frame of
mind."
The Court explained that, "the term ―cruelty‖ implies harsh and harmful conduct with certain intensity and
persistence. It covers acts causing both physical and mental agony and torture. In order to hold that the acts
amount to cruelty, it must be shown that such acts amount to unbearable, continuous, repeated acts of brutality."
On the other hand, Section 498A says - Husband or relative of husband of a woman subjecting her to cruelty —
Whoever, being the husband or the relative of the husband of a woman, subjects such woman to cruelty shall be
punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine.
Explanation. — For the purposes of this section, ―cruelty‖ means—
(a) any wilful conduct which is of such a nature as is likely to drive the woman to commit suicide or to cause grave
injury or danger to life, limb or health (whether mental or physical) of the woman; or
(b) harassment of the woman where such harassment is with a view to coercing her or any person related to her to
meet any unlawful demand for any property or valuable security or is on account of failure by her or any person
related to her to meet such demand.
Source- https://www.barandbench.com/news/litigation/it-must-be-shown-that-the-acts-were-sufficient-to-cause-a-
married-woman-to-lose-her-frame-of-mind-bombay-hc-while-interpreting-section-498a
97. Praful and Hansa are married for 5 years and have a son named Bittu. Praful was not happy with his Hansa as she
was devoting all her time in learning English rather than taking care of the household. He once shouted at her and
asked her to pay attention to household chores and their son. Hansa is upset after this incident. Decide
(a) Praful has committed cruelty for he has induced his wife Hansa to commit suicide.
(b) Praful has not committed cruelty for mere shouting is not enough.
(c) Praful is liable under domestic violence act for he coerced her to meet an illegal demand
(d) Praful is trying to dominate her and as a resultant have caused Hansa mental torture.
98. Bhaiyaji‘s wife Bhabhiji is a famous drug peddler in Mumbai. She sources drugs from African countries through her
links in customs department. Once Bhaiyaji asked Bhabhiji to get him an expensive stolen laptop delivered from US.
Getting a stolen laptop through customs was difficult and therefore Bhabhiji denied Bhaiyaji‘s request. As a
resultant, Bhaiyaji beat her up black and blue and Bhabhiji broke her wrist. Decide
(a) Bhaiyaji is liable to be punished under Section 489A of IPC as he harassed his wife for an illegal demand of
property.
(b) Bhaiyaji is not liable for the property was legal to be imported.
(c) Bhaiyaji is liable for causing mental harassment to Bhabhiji for refusing his demands.
(d) Bhaiyaji's liability will depend on the statement given by Bhabhiji in the court of law.
MOCK CLAT #12
99. Heera and Panna are childhood buddies and considers each other as family. Heera is married to Sona who is an
income tax officer. Panna who runs a grocery business was caught by authorities for committing tax fraud. Panna
has been harassing Sona to get his case settled and when Sona couldn‘t get it settled, he defamed her calling her
to be a bad character person. Sona brought as case against Panna under Section 498A of IPC. Decide.
(a) Panna is liable for he is as good as Heera‘s family and harrassedHeera‘s wife.
(b) Panna is not liable for he is not a relative and will not be charged under Section 498A.
(c) Panna is not liable for he is not a relative though he can be charged under some other law.
(d) Panna is liable for he not only harassed Sona but also defamed her.
100. Mr. Brainless was a staunch believer in Chanakya's philosophy which stated that from 0-5 years, a child must
always be forgiven, from 5-18 years he must be beaten/rebuked for his mistakes and after 18, he becomes a friend
of his parents. Mr. Brainless used to beat up his children often when they committed mistakes. Their mother, Mrs.
Sensible however did not like this beating at all and often complained. Decide
(a) Mr. Brainless is liable under Section 498A of IPC as his beating of children forms part of cruelty.
(b) Mr. Brainless is not liable under Section 498A of IPC for his acts are not enough to constitute cruelty.
(c) Mr. Brainless is liable under Section 498A of IPC for the mental health of Mrs. Sensible was affected by such
beating.
(d) Mr. Brainless is not liable. He is only following Chanakya's philosophy.
101. Pooja file as case a case against her husband Dooja seeking divorce on the grounds of cruelty, for not taking her
out on vacations and mostly cancelling their movie dates. Dooja in his response pleaded heavy work load in his
office as a reason for cancellation of plans. Pooja is adamant in taking her divorce petition ahead on grounds of
cruelty. Decide.
(a) Pooja will succeed as by cancelling plans every now and then Dooja caused mental trauma to Pooja.
(b) Pooja will not succeed as Dooja‘s act doesn‘t qualify as harmful conduct done intentionally.
(c) Pooja will succeed as she is denied her conjugal right of having company of her husband.
(d) Pooja will not succeed as cancelling plans is not enough and there should be more act to constitute
harassment.
(Passage Q.102-Q.106): The transgender person‘s bill 2019 defines a transgender person as one whose gender
does not match the gender assigned at birth. It includes trans-men and trans-women, persons with intersex
variations, gender-queers, and persons with socio-cultural identities, such as kinnar and hijra. Intersex variations is
defined to mean a person who at birth shows variation in his or her primary sexual characteristics, external
genitalia, chromosomes, or hormones from the normative standard of male or female body. The bill states that
transgender persons will have the right to ―self-perceived‖ gender identity. But in the same section, it adds that a
transgender person must make an application to the district magistrate to receive an identity certificate. The
certificate ―shall confer rights and be a proof of recognition of his [their] identity as a transgender person.‖ In case a
person undergoes a sex reassignment surgery, then they must apply for another certificate to change their gender
identity. The district magistrate will analyse the ―correctness‖ of the medical certificate issued by the medical
superintendent or chief medical officer, according to the bill.
Causing harm of any kind, including physical or sexual abuse, to a transgender person, could attract punishment
from six months and extend up to two years.
The bill provides for the formation of a National Council for Transgender Persons that will advise the government on
formulating policies for the community, and monitor the implementation, and address grievances, among others.
Besides this, the bill does not make any mention of reservation in education and employment for the transgender
community. The legislation also states that the court can decide to place a transgender person in a rehabilitation
centre if their families are unable to take care of them. It also adds that the Centre will provide for healthcare
services, including sex reassignment surgery and hormonal therapy. The bill is, however, not specific on whether
these services would be free or subsidised by the government. It adds though that there will be ―provision for
coverage of medical expenses by a comprehensive insurance scheme for sex reassignment surgery, hormonal
therapy, laser therapy or any other health issues of transgender persons.‖ (Extracted and edited from prsindia.org &
Quartz India)

MOCK CLAT #12
102. The state of Avarumal rolled out a policy decision granting all transgender 25% reservation in the state services
examination. Avanti who was born as a girl always found it difficult to subscribe to the standard gender roles. She
soon realized that she was more of a man than a woman. However, she was too afraid to disclose it to her parents
and continued with her hidden identity. She would dress up in her father‘s clothes when no one was home. Once,
she moved to her college she found the environment to be more accepting and eventually came out. However, her
identity remained hidden from her friends and family at home and she did not get an identity certificate either.
After her graduation she took the State service exams and cleared the cut-off set for transgenders. However, the
state refused to consider her eligible.
(a) The state has wronged the rights of Avanti
(b) Avanti is entitled to reservation
(c) Avanti is not entitled to reservation
(d) Both a and b
103. Ligma was a 37-year-old transgender. He was actively employed as a labourer under a govt. scheme. He used to
face a lot of backlash and harassment in his village by his relatives and others for his biological differences. This
made him fall into severe depression over the course of a few years. He was having suicidal thoughts and even
tried to commit suicide once by jumping off an under-construction building, however he survived. An NGO for
mental health wrote a letter to the government to provide him with therapy and medication if needed for free. Decide
whether: -
(a) The government is liable to provide him with all said services free of cost.
(b) He will first need an identity certificate issued by the district magistrate.
(c) The government is not liable to provide said services free of cost.
(d) Insufficient information in the passage.
104. Nayantara was born as a female. At 19 years of age she got herself enrolled into a medical university availing the
reserved quota for females. The university provided for a separate female quota both for entrance as well as
placements. In the third year of her college, she came out to the public as a queer person and underwent a sex-
reassignment surgery, post which she surgically got her genitals changed to that of a male‘s. She later took up the
pronouns they/them. Their certificate for identification as a male was however rejected by the district magistrate on
unspecified grounds.
Nayantara nevertheless secured a job through the reserved quota for females. Her colleagues challenged her
appointment.
(a) Nayantara cannot avail the reserved quota for placement as she does not fall into the category of a woman
anymore.
(b) Her admission to the university happened as a female therefore regardless of her gender transformation she
can avail the services of reserved quota for female.
(c) Nayantara is entitled to the reservation in placements as a female.
(d) Both b and c
105. Nayantara was born as a female. At 19 years of age she got herself enrolled into a medical university availing the
reserved quota for females. The university provided for a separate female quota both for entrance as well as
placements. In the third year of her college, she came out to the public as a queer person and underwent a sex-
reassignment surgery, post which she surgically got her genitals changed to that of a male‘s. She later took up the
pronouns they/them. Their certificate for identification as a male was accepted by the District magistrate. Their
batchmates challenged her continuation as a university student as she was now legally a male and had been
admitted on the grounds of the women‘s quota.
(a) Nayantara‘s continuation with the university will be terminated.
(b) Nayantara is no longer a female as her identity certificate now calls her a male. Therefore, she has to forego the
benefit that she availed when she was a female.
(c) Her admission to the university cannot be challenged on the given grounds.
(d) Both a and b.
106. Varamullupu was born as a trans-woman and she lived her life as a female and also identified as one. One day in
college she was subject to physical abuse for being a trans-woman. She filed an offence against the perpetrators
under the bill and requested for them to be imprisoned for 2 years i.e. the maximum punishment under the said bill.
Decide: -
(a) The perpetrators will be punished according to the provision under the bill.
(b) The perpetrators will be punished if Varamallupu presents an identity certificate issued by the district magistrate.
(c) The perpetrators will not be punished.
(d) Varamallupu has to go under IPC for relief
MOCK CLAT #12
Passage (Q.107-Q.112):There are these two guys sitting together in a bar in the remote Alaskan wilderness. One
of the guys is religious, the other is an atheist, and the two are arguing about the existence of God with that special
intensity that comes after about the fourth beer. And the atheist says: ―Look, it‘s not like I don‘t have actual reasons
for not believing in God. It‘s not like I haven‘t ever experimented with the whole God and prayer thing. Just last
month I got caught away from the camp in that terrible blizzard, and I was totally lost and I couldn‘t see a thing, and
it was 50 below, and so I tried it: I fell to my knees in the snow and cried out ‗Oh, God, if there is a God, I‘m lost in
this blizzard, and I‘m gonna die if you don‘t help me.‘‖ And now, in the bar, the religious guy looks at the atheist all
puzzled. ―Well then you must believe now,‖ he says, ―After all, here you are, alive.‖ The atheist just rolls his eyes.
―No, man, all that was a couple Eskimos happened to come wandering by and showed me the way back to camp.‖
107. According to the religious guy, who came to save an atheist?

(a) God came to save an atheist guy.
(b) A couple of Eskimos saved an atheist guy.
(c) It was an atheist guy who saved himself.
(d) A couple of Eskimos was sent by god to save an atheist guy.
108. What is the hidden assumption made by the religious guy in the above passage?
(a) A couple of Eskimos was sent by god to save an atheist guy.
(b) It was an atheist guy who saved himself.
(c) A couple of Eskimos saved an atheist guy.
109. Which of the following is the main conclusion of Atheist‘s argument?

(a) God helps everyone.
(b) Humans are God.
(c) If one cannot help himself, than nobody will help him.
(d) God does not exist, and it is humans who help each other.
110. Why does the religious guy says that ―Well then you must believe now‖?
(a) Because atheist guy was alive after asking for help from god.
(b) Because atheist guy did not believed in god.
(c) Because atheist guy got caught away from the camp in the terrible blizzard.
(d) Because atheist guy did not get any help.
111. Which of the following statements will actually weaken the main idea of the religious guy in the passage?
(a) On the same night Mike also got caught in the same blizzard, he asked for help from god, but he wasn‘t able to
survive in that blizzard.
(b) On the same night Mike also got caught in the same blizzard, he asked for help from god, couple of Eskimos
came to help him, he didn‘t took their help and said god will come to help him and died.
(c) Neither A nor B.
(d) Both A and B.
112. Atheist‘s statement that ―No, man, all that was a couple Eskimos happened to come wandering by and showed me
the way back to camp.‖
(a) Forms the premise for his conclusion that God doesn‘t exist.
(b) Forms the premise for his conclusion God helped him.
(c) Offers a clarification on why he is an atheist.
(d) Forms the conclusion for his statement that God doesn‘t exist.

MOCK CLAT #12
Passage (Q.113-Q.117):The official assertion that the NPR will be a ‗simple‘ technology–based enumeration in
which all data will be collected in a hassle–free manner from home or online indicated that the NPR and the Census
2021will be technology–driven and centralised. This naturally brings the focus on the torturous digitalisation India
has gone through from 2014, relying on coercive methods not seen in any nation with a functioning democracy.
Multiple Government of India websites, including the one for NPR, state that it is compulsory for every citizen to
register in NRIC and that NPR is the first step towards preparation of NRIC.
At the core of the Central government‗s aggressive digitalisation push since 2014 has been an obsession with
identity of Indian residents and an excessive zeal in linking almost all personal data to centralised databases
administered by the Centre. While this forced almost everyone to be included in numerous databases, it gave very
little in return by way of greater accountability or transparency of the State.
Digitalisation results in hyper centralisation which virtually eliminates the role of the state government wherever
digitalisation prevails. The wider ramifications of digitalisation for federalism also deserve attention.
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/blogs/et-commentary/risks-of-digitalisation-with-npr/
113. Which of the following is most supported by the author‗s argument?

(a) NPR is an unnecessary exercise.
(b) The focus on digitalisation by the government since 2014 has proved to be a futile exercise.
(c) Digitalisation by the government since 2014 has proved to be of little help when it comes to making the
government more answerable.
(d) No other country with a functional democracy has undertaken digitalisation at such extensive levels as India.
114. Which of the following, if true, weakens the author‗s claim regarding the methods used for digitalisation by the
government?
(a) The linking of Aadhar number to bank accounts is viewed with suspicion by the Supreme Court.
(b) A vast majority of the people participated willingly in the process of digitalisation of various services and
schemes as required by the government.
(c) Digital India is perceived to be a big selling point to the foreign investors.
(d) Digitalisation has enabled such measures as delivery of all Government Services electronically (e–governance)
and introduction of digital payments, which make it possible to bring the unbanked on–board.
115. Which of the following, if true, weakens the author‗s argument regarding digitalisation and centralisation?
(a) Technologies allow decentralised options that accord significant political and certain fiscal autonomy to the
states.
(b) Hyper–centralisation is a natural result of digitalisation.
116. Which of the following, if true, strengthens the author‗s argument regarding digitalisation and centralisation?
(a) All efforts to digitalise previous data or collect new data is being done at the Central government level with
individual states playing no role.
(b) In some countries where digitalisation has happened not all digitalised data and processes are centralised;
some are under the state governments.
117. What could be an apt heading for the passage?

(a) Digital India
(b) Risks of digitalisation
(c) Relationship between Centre and States since 2014
(d) Effects of implementing NPR

MOCK CLAT #12
Passage (Q.118-Q.122):Old Major was a high-quality boar who- a couple of daysbefore he died- held a meeting,
where he told everyoneabout his vision of a farm where animals could befree with no humans to torment them.
From thismeeting came the seven commandments ofanimalism by which all animals should live, with themost
important one being 'All animals are equal'.
It soon came to be, due to passing of power into thewrong hands, that the command had been changedinto 'All
animals are equal, but some are more equalthan others‘.
(Extracted from: Animal Farm by George Orwell
118. Which of the following can be inferred as aview that the author will most definitely agreewith?
(a) Equality is a flawed concept
(b) Even though it may appear that there isequality, but on the ground level there isdiscrimination
(c) All animals are not equal
(d) Humans torment animal
119. Which of following is a logical corollary based on the information given above?
(a) An elite group of people enjoy more powerthan the rest
(b) Humans don't understand the concept ofanimalism
(c) Old major's death, had it been delayed,would have established real equality
(d) Seven commandments were not equallyfollowed
120. Which of the following, if true, strengthensthe author's argument?

(a) Democracy is not the right way toestablish equality
(b) Some elite groups have more influentialpower
(c) Animals are like humans in a lot of ways
(d) Animal farm was democratic
121. Which of the following situations is similar innature to the intuitive decisions mentioned inthe passage?
(a) Corporates tend to influence governmentspolicies
(b) People vote for the candidate who theythinks is the most suited for the position
(c) Religious governments don't professequality
(d) Every form of government is corrupt
122. Which of the following is the most suitabletitle for the passage?
(a) Dystopian government
(b) True equality
(c) Corrupt animals
(d) Flawed equality
Passage (Q.123-Q.127):For many years, the debate on clinical drug trial is going on in different parts of the world.
Clinical research is a crucial part of drug discovery and development process. In a simple term, drug trials can be
defined as a practice or any investigation on human subject taken out the whole process by pharmaceuticals in
order to discover the effect of any medicinal molecule on human beings or the reaction of medical product before
reaching the adverse market.
Doing so, for example, is often the only way to test drugs and vaccines for diseases that predominantly afflict
people in these countries; trying to test the safety and efficacy of a malaria vaccine in Europe or North America
would be relatively futile given the lack of patients. Beyond the obvious and direct public health benefits—in terms of
both new knowledge and new treatments—clinical research also helps to build research and health care capacity
and can improve local infrastructure and boost the economy. In fact, many developing countries have been actively
trying to attract clinical research for these reasons.
Source: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4428044/
123. Which of the following option can be a conclusion for the above article?
(a) India is certainly setting itself to attract more and more researchers from around the world to carry on their
clinical trial studies in India. The new laws are being amended to facilitate and channelize the entry of the big
pharmaceutical houses. There is a need to alter and implement the existing intellectual laws with high ethical
standards that will lead the clinical trial of India to the next level in international market.

MOCK CLAT #12
(b) The trials of small scale pharmaceutical companies should be stopped to an extent on illiterate human subject
as it can lead to adverse affect that will be quite unbearable. Being the second largest populated country in the
world, India can contribute positively in the global medical researches and drug development program, etc.
(c) Both (A) and (B)
(d) None of these
124. Which of the following options if true, strengthens the clinical trials mentioned in the above article?
(a) Clinical trials and the research and health care that accompany them can directly benefit patients, in particular
those who would otherwise have no or only little access to health care services.
(b) Clinical trials and the research and health care that accompany them take advantage of deprivation and allow
you to see the world as a convenient population of sick people where you can go and get the data that you
need to make more robust health systems in high income countries.
(c) Clinical trials can pose real health risks to participants, as the safety and side effects of the drugs or vaccines
being tested are not yet fully known.
(d) All the above.
125. Which of the following if true, weakens the concept in the above article?
(a) In the infamous Tuskegee Syphilis study, conducted from 1932 to 1972, US physicians denied penicillin, a
known treatment for syphilis since the late 1940s, to a cohort of syphilis-infected African American
sharecroppers to study the natural course of advanced syphilis.
(b) Clinical trials lead to the thalidomide scandal in Germany in the early 1960s. Many children were born with
severe deformations of their extremities; it subsequently became clear that thalidomide, a sedative developed
by the German company Grünenthal, caused birth defects in babies whose mothers had been taking the drug
during pregnancy.
126. Which of these options weakens the conclusion?

(a) Clinical drug research has grown exponentially over the phases in India because of many major advantages,
easily available cost advantage, qualified doctors' treatment naïve patients, etc. India is the second most
preferred destination to conduct clinical trials by the big pharmaceutical companies.
(b) In India, Drug Controller General of India (DCG) is the main authoritative body for approving clinical trials as
well as marketing and manufacturing of the drug. The clinical trial industry in India is pegged at over rupees
3500crore and is growing at 10-12% annually.
(c) India is the only country with the genetic diversity of the population where the clinical trials are on the easier
track.
(d) A major thrill that country faces is the problem in the area of low literacy level which always kept regulation
suspicious about the possibility of the participants being not informed about the risk involved under which they
are undertaking.
127. The main question arises that whether the participant who is taking part in the drug trial is well informed about it?
Which of the following option provides the answer?
(a) The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization‘‘ (CDSCO) is one of them that help in strengthening the safe
clinical drug trials. Various drug companies are attracted to India, there are several reasons for the same
including the work force, low cost and friendly drug-control system and one more that is the large number of
patients available.
(b) There are instances which show that the pharmaceutical companies do not follow the government regulations
and specific laws which they should follow for the same.
(c) Clinical drug research on a human subject is regarded as an essential part of drug research and development.
Many researches on human subjects in recent years have been influenced by the growing financial force and
the growing effect of advances in science has led them to unethical paths which have affected the human life on
a great scale.
(d) Human beings are easily exposed in various types of trials, especially people with mental disability, especially
the children‘s, prisoners, people suffering from several illnesses, etc. These are the few of the numerous breath
taking human rights violations that have been seen in the field of clinical trials. All these instances clearly show
the loophole in our Indian legal system for penalizing the big pharmaceutical houses that violate the rules and
follow an un-ethical way of conducting the trials.

MOCK CLAT #12
Passage (Q.128-Q.132):James DiNicolantonio, a cardiovascular research scientistat St. Luke‘s Mid America Heart
Institute, is a passionatedefender of the theory that sugar and carbs are the truecause of obesity and metabolic
disease. He also encouragespeople who want to lose weight to eat more high-fat, highcaloriefoods to make them
feel more full.
But even he notes that the high-carb Japanese diet works, andit‘s because of the quality of the food they eat, how
little fatthey eat, and their activity levels, he explained to HuffPost.
DiNicolantonio, who was not involved in the study, saysthat it‘s a uniquely Japanese combination of
macronutrientsthat may be saving them from obesity and metabolicdisease. ‗Combining a high intake of
carbohydrates and fatis the perfect storm for obesity,‘ he said. ‗The Japanese tendto eat high carb (both rice and
vegetables) but a low intakeof fat.‘ DiNicolantonio also noted that Japanese people tendto eat lots of seafood, which
is rich in healthy omega-3 fattyacids, and they don‘t eat as many processed foods.
What‘s more is that the average Japanese person walksover 7,000 steps a day, while Americans walk an average
ofabout 5,000 steps per day. Also of note: the health trend towalk 10,000 steps per day actually started in Japan.
Given their diet of whole, unprocessed foods, as well astheir active lifestyle, it‘s no wonder that Japanese
peoplecan tolerate more grains than the average American, saidDiNicolantonio. ‗I think the best takeaway for
Americans,when looking at the Japanese, is that if we restrict ourintake of refined sugar, industrial seed oils, and
increase[our] intake of marine omega-3s, then we might be able totolerate eating more rice,‘ he said. ‗We can learn
a lot abouthow to be healthy from the Japanese, and it really comesdown to ―eat real food‖ and ―exercise‖.‘
Source: https://www.greenplanetcleaningservices.com/the-healthiest-people-in-the-world-eat-a-lot-of-carbs/
128. Which of the following is true about the American people?

(a) Americans consume a lot of carbs already.
(b) Americans consume a lot of liquor which is not compatible with carbs.
(c) Americans consume a lot of refined sugar and bad fats.
(d) Americans consume a lot of high quality fish rich in omega acids.
129. We can infer from the passage that:

(a) Japan has superior health statistics.
(b) Eating large quantities of food is good for you.
(c) America is a highly modern nation.
(d) The food business is going through a severe lossglobally.
130. Which of the following, if true, fails to support theauthor‘s arguments in the given passage?
(a) According to a new study by researchers atthe Harvard medical school, people who strongly comply to Japan‘s
recommended dietary guidelines are18 percent less likely to die of any cause such ascardiovascular disease
and stroke, compared tothose who don‘t comply to them.
(b) In the U.S., where the tide appears to be turningtowards processed foods, Japan‘s contrastingfood guidelines
are a good reminder that thereis great nutrition in what is locally produced.
(c) Japanese annual consumption of rice per capita,which was 115 kg in the fiscal year 1996, hadfallen to 63 kg in
the fiscal year 2019. This isbelieved to be the result of the diversification ofstaple foods to include such things
as processedsnacks and dairy.
(d) Among people who are physically active,low fat diets with higher grain intake do notnecessarily contribute to
poor health outcomesand conditions like obesity.
131. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the author‘s arguments in the given passage?
A. The Japanese have the second-highest life expectancies compared to any other country in the world (the U.S.
comes in at number 43).
B. The Japanese have an obesity rate of just 3.5 percent, which is one-tenth of America‘s 35 percent obesity rate.
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B

MOCK CLAT #12
132. Which of the following best represents the mainmessage of the given passage?
(a) Recently, there‘s been an increase in the numberof people with an aversion to white rice becausethey say it
doesn‘t have much flavour.
(b) The Japanese people have always believed ineating fresh produce, enjoying healthy mealsand staying active
before these practises begantrending globally.
(c) The Japanese concept of ‗kochuchomi‘ –chewing plain white rice and side dishesalternately and mixing them in
one‘s mouth – isa characteristic of Japanese cuisine that appearsto be declining.
133. In a certain coding system, ‗JUNE‘ is written as ‗PQRS‘ and ‗AUGUST‘ is written as ‗WQFQMN‘. How will ‗GUEST‘
be written in that coding language?
(a) FQTMN (b) FPSMN (c) FQSMN (d) FQSNM
134. If a day before yesterday was Tuesday, then what day of the week will it be on a day after tomorrow?
(a) Monday (b) Wednesday (c) Friday (d) Saturday

MOCK CLAT #12
Directions(Q.135 – Q.139): Study the following radar Graph and answer the given question:
Number of new companies registered (in thousands) in four countries in various years
135. In which year is the average of the number of companies registered the maximum?
(a) 2008 (b) 2006 (c) 2010 (d) 2011
136. The number of companies registered in 2012 is what percentage more or less than the number of companies
Registered in the years 2005?
(a) 33.33% (b) 24% (c) 22% (d) 38.46%
137. What is the ratio of the number of companies registered in japan to that in China during 2005 to 2012?
(a) 40 : 41 (b) 40 : 43 (c) 38 : 41 (d) 39 : 41
138. In which country is the average number of companies registered the maximum?
(a) japan (b) china (c) germany (d) france
139. The total number of companies registered in france is how much more or less than the total number of companies
registered in china.
(a) 42% less (b) 44.14% less (c) 34.14% less (d) 42% more

MOCK CLAT #12
Direction(Q.140- Q.145): Refer to the following bar graph and line graph and answer the questions given
below.
Distances from India by sea.
Distance from India by sea

2000
1800
Distance in Nmiles
1600
1400
1200
1000
800
Japan
Mali
Bankok
korea
Finland
Srilanka
Number of ship passages from India to

Srilanka, Bankok, Mali, Korea, Japan and
Finland
600
Number of passages per month
500
400
300
200
100
0
J F M A M J J A S O N D
Month (1998)

MOCK CLAT #12
Notes:
 An Nmile is a nautical mile and is 10% greater than a mile (used to measure distance on land).
 Tropical storms January −March.
 Ships only make these passages before or after the tropical storm season.
 The mouth of May offers the best weather conditions.
 The indian ocean current runs at 2 knots/hour west to east all year.
 Ships on passage to Srilanka and Bankok must push against the indian ocean current-
 Ships on passage to Mali, Korea and Japan are carried along by the indian ocean current.
 Ships on passage to Finland cross the current and so experience no counter or favourable effect.
140. How far is it from Srilanka to Finland?

(a) 3,000 Nmiles (b) 2,000 Nmiles (c) 800 Nmiles (d) Cannot tell
141. Over a 30 - day period during the 1978 storm season, 5 days were classed as experiencing storm conditions. What
is the ratio of stormy and non-stormy days during this period?
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 1 : 5 (d) 1 : 6
142. What proportion of the total passages for the year 1978 was made in the months June, July, August and
September?
(a) < Half (b) >Half (c) Exactly half (d) Cannot tell
143. Taking account of the distances and the currents, if a ship were to sail to India to Bankok return and then India to
Korea return at a constant speed, which passage would you expect to be completed the quicker?
(a) India - Bankok return
(b) Both passages would take the same amount of time
(c) India - Korea return
(d) Cannot tell
144. If 12% of all passages made in 1978 were to Korea, how many sailings were there to this destination that year?
(a) 306 (b) 302 (c) 298 (d) 294
145. A ship on passage from India to Srilankaaverages 10Nmiles/hour through the water and 8 Nmiles hour over the
ground. How many hours would the journey take by Ground?

MOCK CLAT #12
Direction (Q146-Q150): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow:
In a bilateral cricket series between India and Australia, the probability that India wins the first game is
0.4. If India wins any game, the probability that it wins the next game is 0.3; otherwise the probability is 0.2.
146. Find the probability that India wins the first two games.
(a) 0.08 (b) 0.32 (c) 0.18 (d) 0.12
147. Find the probability that India wins at least one of the first two games.
(a) 0.48 (b) 0.32 (c) 0.56 (d) 0.52
148. Find the probability that India wins the first three games.
(a) 0.028 (b) 0.030 (c) 0.032 (d) 0.036
149. Find the probability that India wins exactly one of the first three matches.
(a) 0.416 (b) 0.396 (c) 0.096 (d) 0.404
150. Find the probability that India wins exactly one of the first two games.
(a) 0.20 (b) 0.40 (c) 0.44 (d) 0.36

MOCK CLAT #12
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #12
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #12
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #13

Candidate Name : _________________
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
Test Centre/Hall.
MOCK CLAT #13
Passage (Q.1-Q.7): Festivals in India have managed to stay rooted in the past and yet get a tech
upgrade. It is the worst combination ever, one that replaces all the right feelings with robotic precision.
We stick on to inexplicable rituals that are performed with much fervour, like invoking a sky-full of deities
right into our shanty little 2BHK (with terrace and servant’s room), but we don’t make any space for
empathising with others who are in our physical proximity and could really use a hug. Then, technology
steps in to really hold up a mirror to our hollowed out existence — playing prayers on Spotify because no
one remembers the words or, worse still, their significance, looking up the right way to put a vermilion
teeka, or with which hand to do the aarati?
Festivals are a farcical parody of what they were originally intended for. They rob days like Diwali of all
their joyous mirth. Here are some things I could do without...
Greetings: It surprises me how people mix sincere emotions with obligations. Sending cheesy, generic,
forwarded wishes along the lines of, “May this Diwali/New Year bring you/your loved ones
health/wealth/joy and may God/Almighty/Guruji shower you with his/their blessings” convey nothing at all.
Stop. You really want to make my Diwali brighter, call me, or better yet, send me a gift, the kind that I can
feel solid between my hands and not one that, as per the adage, “only counts in thoughts”.
Gifts: While on gifts, let’s get this clarified too. Every year India plays the great game of pass-the-parcel
where gifts are received and forwarded. Much like Newton’s Law, no new gifts have been made or used
in the last five decades, they simply exchange hands and get passed around endlessly. I bet if we
actually opened one we won’t find anything useful but it will certainly have great museum value, and a
blemish of a carbon footprint. So if you want to send me something, work on trying to, and make it
meaningful and relatable.
Firecrackers: Honestly, I have difficulty recreating the scene where the revered Lord Rama returns with
his devoted family to his heavenly kingdom amidst sounds of “Seeti rockets” and “Lakshmi/Gola bombs”.
Was He returning to Operation Desert Storm? Would He not have just turned around and promptly gone
back to the forest where the air was cleaner and the environs, silent and peaceful? Firecrackers are a
ridiculous waste of resources and harm too many elements. But if philanthropy is lost on you, then simply
burn a few wads of ₹2,000 notes and in that silence you will hear the sound of your incurable stupidity
shouting out loud!
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/columns/skip-these-bombs/article33092232.ece
1. What is the author trying to convey in the first paragraph?
(a) That we are so engrossed in the materialistic rituals that we forget the true meaning of the festivals.
(b) That we forget to greet our neighbors.
(c) That we are too passionate about the Diwali Puja.
(d) That our reliance on technology has increased immensely.
2. What is the meaning of the word ‘farcical’?
(a) Unamusing
(b) Killing
(c) Riotous
(d) Senseless
3. What does the author mean by the phrase, “I can feel solid between my hands and not one that, as per
the adage…”?
(a) It is the thought of the gift that matters.
(b) Diwali wishes are more valuable than gifts
(c) The author feels that generic forwarded Whatsapp messages are not enough to make someone feel
special. A call or a tangible gift is better way to wish someone.
(d) He is grateful for a gift from someone even though it is cheap.
MOCK CLAT #13
4. What is the meaning of “a blemish of a carbon footprint”?

(a) Too old
(b) Too dirty
(c) Of pre-historic times
(d) Modern
5. What part of speech does ‘incurable’ represent in the last line?

(a) Verb
(b) Noun
(c) Adverb
(d) Adjective
6. Which of the following can be said about the author’s character?

(a) She doesn’t like to partake in the tradition of gifts
(b) She doesn’t believe in Lord Ram
(c) She feels Indians have a hollowed existence
(d) She feels festivals are a farce in India
7. Which of the following figures of speech has been used in the italicized line?
(a) Metaphor
(b) Simile
(c) Satire
(d) Sarcasm
Passage (Q.8-Q.12):E.S., as I knew and called him over the last four decades and more, took the world
body’s responsibilities and its stirring Charter seriously. But never his own contributions to their
mandates. In fact, he under-stated his work to the point of obscuring it. “You must write your memoirs,
E.S.,” I would urge him, as did many of his friends in India, South Africa and elsewhere. “There are better
ways of spending time,” he would always say, “even for a person who has retired.” Not that he had time
to spare in his retirement. His wife of over seven decades, Niloufer, knew that well. His apartment
overflowed with reams and reams of documents and books. He would donate trolley-full of them to
universities and archives. But they would keep piling up.
And if asked, which those “better ways of spending time” were, he would say “Researching and
documenting the work of un-acknowledged freedom fighters in India and of those who gave their best
years to the liberation struggle in South Africa, many dying in the course of their work.” I told him, “There
are others who can do that ... but no one other than you can tell the story of how a student in Madras way
back in the 1940s got interested in the South African struggle, and how, as a scholar freshly arrived in the
U.S., met, at a New York reception, Dr. A.B. Xuma, President-General of the African National Congress,
who had come to lobby the United Nations Organisation (UNO), thus beginning a life-long association
with anti-apartheid work at the UNO and beyond.”
“This self-effacing method of yours,” I ventured, “may be a good addition to the chronicles of humility,
they are not good for our curiosity about the India-South Africa connect”. “Oh…humility! That is a virtue
reserved for giants,” E.S. said, reminding me of the famous instance of Golda Meir ticking off a minister in
her cabinet: “Don’t be so humble-humble, you are not that great.” So, if you could not remonstrate with
E.S. about his humility, you were not allowed to flag it either. If, therefore, the news of his death, or, in
fact, his name does not send bells ringing today, there is one person utterly unaffected — E.S. himself.
He excelled in working beyond human scales of stamina, perseverance and meticulousness. The books
he authored on South Africa and on personalities who interested him are numerous. The books he
helped others to author, giving them almost complete, ready-to-print drafts, are even more numerous.
Source:https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/a-lifetime-of-anti-apartheid-struggle/article33016641.ece

MOCK CLAT #13
8. How would you describe E.S. as a person?

(a) A humble person
(b) A dedicated person
(c) A person devoted towards his nation
9. What is the opposite of ‘obscuring’?

(a) Confuse
(b) Disguise
(c) Reveal
(d) Loose
10. Which of the following is the definition of memoir?

(a) Story of person’s life written by that person
(b) Collection of memories written by the person themselves
(c) Non-fiction piece of work giving an account of a person’s life
(d) Objective account including details of key events
11. What is the difference between remonstrate & demonstrate?

(a) Both are the same
(b) Remonstrate is to object; demonstrate is the method of using an object
(c) Remonstrate is to convince; demonstrate is the method of using an object
(d) Remonstrate is to argue; demonstrate is the method of using an object
12. What will be another word for a self-effacing person?

(a) Shyly inconspicuous
(b) Haughty
(c) Supercilious
(d) Self-deprecating
Passage (Q.13-Q.17):Mumtaz has a specific learning disorder or SLD - dyslexia. This is a condition that
makes it difficult to read and write, often accompanied by difficulties in math. Reading requires (1)
decoding or converting symbols into sounds and (2) comprehension or understanding the meaning of
words. Dyslexics may have difficulty in either or both. Dyslexics have poor phonological awareness, the
ability to recognize similarities and differences in sounds, for example in rhyming words. They may have
trouble sequencing; for instance remembering sequences such as days of the week. They may also have
a weak working memory such as difficulty in listening to the teacher while taking. Working memory is like
the RAM of a computer, where you temporarily store bits of information to be retrieved for daily activities.
Children with dyslexia may look like they are not paying attention, but in reality they are struggling to
keep it all together. Dyslexia is a very diverse condition.
For most of our existence we Homo sapiens have communicated verbally. As modern societies began
embracing universal school-based standardized education, instead of the usual apprenticeship for
vocational training, we stumbled upon dyslexia.
Dyslexia often runs in the family. Comparisons of genomes of dyslexic people with proficient readers
have found changes in many genes that could be associated with dyslexia. These studies are opening
new windows into our understanding of how the brain learns. The brain istoo complex for us to yet be
able to figure out whether these genes have any direct role in reading deficits. In humans, the area
known as visual word form area (VWFA — that recognises written words) in the brain is connected to the
language region even before children have learned to read. This must be one of those evolutionary
inventions that set us up to be linguists and decoders meant for greater things. Comparisons of functional
MRI (fMRI) scans of brains of skilled and dyslexic readers clearly show differences in regions related to
reading and language processing. But they also show many other differences. Differences in our brain
are what make us sociable, moody, imaginative or creative. Thus, these differences in the brains of
dyslexics manifest in the way they look at the world, think about and solve problems. Dyslexic individuals
are more likely to miss the details while being able to see the larger picture. They may have better pattern

MOCK CLAT #13
recognition and visual-spatial abilities even as they struggle with reading and sequencing. They may be
better at dealing with social interactions and managing people. Perhaps these are traits that helped
Albert Einstein and Agatha Christie and Steve Jobs, all dyslexics, to make their mark in world.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/helping-dyslexic-children-bloom/article32966278.ece

(a) That how dyslexia is a hereditary disease.
(b) That how dyslexic children have problems to cope up with the environment
(c) That what dyslexia actually is and what is the difference in the brain functioning
(d) That how can one overcome dyslexia
14. What does ‘vocational’ mean?

(a) Specialized courses
(b) Relating to an occupation or employment
(c) Training
(d) A particular kind of skill set
15. What does ‘our’ refer to in the given line?

“Differences in our brain are what make us sociable, moody, imaginative or creative”
(a) Dyslexic children
(b) General public
(c) Albert Einstein and Agatha Christie
(d) Parents of dyslexic children
16. What trauma do dyslexic children face in school?

(a) Being bullied by other children
(b) Inability to understand things
(c) Inability to learn things
(d) They may look like they are not paying attention, but in reality they are struggling to keep it all
together.
17. In the bold sentence the articles have been removed. In how many places will the definite article ‘the’
should be present, so as to not alter the meaning of the sentence?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Passage (Q.18-Q.22):India’s fight against COVID-19 is at a critical juncture. Against the backdrop of
recent economic reforms by the government, and significant stimulus packages, recovery measures are
poised to lift millions from this unprecedented economic and health crisis and tackle widening
inequalities. The recovery is offering India two golden opportunities: one, to build climate resilience for
the most vulnerable by ensuring that stimulus measures are green; and two, to meaningfully address
long-standing gender equality issues.
The pandemic has exacted a heavy toll. Fragile health systems and frontline health workers are
overburdened and lives and livelihoods impacted. The poor, Adivasis, migrants, informal workers, sexual
minorities, people with disabilities and women all face a greater brunt than most. Beyond this, the causes
and effects of climate change — stressed agriculture, food insecurity, unplanned urban growth, thinning
forest covers, rising temperatures and shrinking water resources — have also hit vulnerable groups
disproportionately.
Women in particular have their work cut out for them. Greater demands of unpaid care work during the
pandemic and rising rates of reported violence are a stark reminder of the work that remains to be done.
According to the India Voluntary National Review 2020, female labour force participation rate for the 15-
59 age group is showing a declining trend and stands at 25.3%. This is one of the lowest rates in the
world.

MOCK CLAT #13
Meanwhile, the International Monetary Fund estimates that equal participation of women in the workforce
will increase India’s GDP by 27%.
The Indian government has invested nearly $22.5 billion in COVID-19 recovery. Strengthening social
protection using targeted and appropriate fiscal and policy measures is a good start. Aligning these
recovery packages with India’s commitments on climate change by investing in green jobs will improve
lives and make our planet healthier. These green investments ought to be reflected across agriculture,
urban planning, energy and the health sectors and in climate-resilient civil works, including under
MGNREGA.
Women, particularly those from indigenous and marginalised communities, play a significant yet unsung
role in various sectors. Comprising more than 50% of the agricultural labour force, and nearly 14% of all
entrepreneurs, women’s relationship with the environment and the informal economy can be a useful
lever of action to transform the lives and livelihoods of their families and communities.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/women-at-the-heart-of-recovery/article32947201.ece
18. What are the consequences of the Covid-19 pandemic?

(a) The health worker are burdened with extra work and high risk
(b) Certain backward groups of the society are more vulnerable than the others
(c) The cause & effects of climate change has also affected the Indian population disproportionately
19. What are the major problems faced by women during this pandemic?
(a) Increased unpaid household work
(b) Becoming victims of domestic violence
(c) Both (a) & (b)
20. What is the need for the hour to cope up with this pandemic?
(a) Creating more jobs
(b) Sensitizing women about their rights
(c) Handout employment allowances to people who have been rendered jobless due to Covid-19
(d) Developing a comprehensive recovery plan where climate change obligations & creating jobs runs
hand in hand
21. What part of speech does the word ‘lever’ represent?

(a) Verb
(b) Adverb
(c) Noun
(d) Adjective
22. What would be the appropriate title of the passage?

(a) How to deal with the pandemic?
(b) Women at the heart of recovery from the pandemic
(c) Women at the heart of recovery from climate change
(d) Who is the worst affected by the pandemic
Passage (Q.23-Q.27):Come summer, women trudge miles and miles for precious water. Elsewhere,
people keep plastic pails in line and go about their work till they hear the horn of water tankers. But how
do the clever crows quench their thirst in the gruelling heat?
Flying high above, they spot leaky taps. So it was one day I saw a crow catching the drops of water from
a tap. The muddied water on the ground was not to its liking. I was amazed at its skill.
Next, the crow watched me offering water down my palms to the sun. It looked from a distance and flew
away. I got the message. I stopped my ritual in the middle, got a container filled with water, kept it on the
boundary wall and continued my worship. Wherever the crow was hiding, it came down in a swoop,
looked at either side, then looked up and down, gulped some water, shook its neck and flew to the top of
a tall tree in the park opposite our house. The crow must have signalled to its ilk as I saw more of them

MOCK CLAT #13
coming for water. As I continue the practice, two or three crows come at the same time. Researchers on
crows and ravens say the birds have remarkable memory of human beings who have hurt them even
years before. There is as yet no finding that they remember human beings for kind acts like providing
water.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/open-page/the-clever-crows/article33048680.ece
23. What is the meaning of the word ‘trudge’ in the above passage?
(a) A swift walk
(b) Hobbling
(c) Strolling
(d) A difficult or laborious walk.
24. What is the synonym of the word ‘gruelling’?

(a) Enervating
(b) Debilitating
(c) Fatiguing
25. In what sense is the word ‘ilk’ used here?

(a) Of the place
(b) Estate of the same name.
(c) A type of person or thing similar to one already referred to.
(d) Vintage
26. What is the theme of the entire passage?

(a) That how difficult it is for a bird to find water, whereas how easy it is for a human to put some water
for them everyday
(b) That how crows drink water
(c) That how difficult it is for the women to fetch water everyday in the scorching sun
(d) Both (b) & (c)
27. What is the idea that the author is trying to convey in the first paragraph?
(a) That is very difficult to fetch water in rural areas.
(b) That the women have to walk long miles to fetch water from the well
(c) It is easier to procure water for women in urban areas
(d) That it is not easy for human beings to fetch water in summers but the plight of the crows is real bad.
Passage (Q.28-Q.32): Come Class 6, children some decades ago would be dreaming of going to school
on bicycles.
The fumes-spewing, honking vehicles, traffic snarls and big SUVs make me afraid when I see them near
schools. Young men rushing past recklessly on their motorbikes make my heart pound. Can we allow our
children to cycle to school in this?
We all know how good cycling is for all of us. It is an excellent form of exercise in these sedentary times
of gadgetry. It’s ecofriendly. It makes little children gain in confidence as they move out and deal with
those small issues that are due to crop up on the way, like skipping of the chain or a puncture. I still
remember the exhilaration of being able to do something by myself when I was able, for the first time, to
put back the chain which had slipped off the sprocket. It helps in socialising as the little cyclists pedal
away together talking, joking to school and being of help to one another in times of need.
In addition, cycles are such great levellers in a socio-economic and gender sense. All of us cycled to
school whether we were girls or boys and whatever section of society we hailed from.
A cycle distribution programme in Bihar was much more cost effective at increasing girls’ enrolment than
comparable conditional cash transfer programmes in South Asia.
In spite of being aware of the benefits, the greatest hurdle in sending our children on bicycles is our fear
of monster bikes and cars on the roads with huge egos riding them.

MOCK CLAT #13
Can’t we then ensure that all our schoolchildren ride to school, unless, of course, if there is some special
reason for not being able to do so? For this, the parents, the school authorities and the administrative
authorities, all will have to come together.
The rules, as they exist, permit a 16 year old to ride a gearless motorbike. This ought to be amended as
gearless two-wheelers available today have powerful engines and the adolescents riding them, with their
overflowing adrenaline, pose quite a danger to others.
The plying of all motor vehicles (except the essential ones) should be barred near schools for about half
an hour during their opening and closing times.
Cycling will only result in lessening obesity and vitamin D deficiencies in our growing kids and make their
bones and joints strong. It will also make them sociable and confident beings. In fact, if cycling to school
is made compulsory, the concept of neighbourhood schooling can also be ensured in the long run, as
people may then like to choose a school that is at a cycleable distance!
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/open-page/brakes-on-cycling/article31600132.ece
28. What is the antonym of the word ‘sedentary’?

(a) Somewhat in active
(b) Tending to spend much time seated
(c) Stationary
(d) Constantly moving
29. What are the risks associated with sending children to school on a cycle?
(a) Pollution from the vehicles
(b) Traffic congestions
(c) Reckless driving by youngsters
30. What are the advantages of riding a bicycle to school for the children?
(a) Is a form of exercise
(b) Makes them more confident
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Promoting gender equality
31. How does cycling promote gender equality?

(a) As boys & girls ride to school together, it promotes gender equality
(b) As the parents do not have to pay the bus fee, they tend to send their girls to school more.
(c) As it is a good exercise, parents prefer to send their girls to school more.
(d) As the government is providing free cycles, it is a more cost effective option.
32. What are the solutions that the author suggests to given problem?
(a) That 16 year olds shall be barred from riding gearless motorbikes.
(b) Wearing of helmets shall be made compulsory
(c) Plying of vehicles shall be prohibited in the neighborhood of the school
(d) A separate lane shall be constructed for the movement of cycles

MOCK CLAT #13
Passage (Q.33-Q.38): India ranked 94 among (2) countries in the Global Hunger Index 2020 and is in
the ‘serious’ hunger category with a score of (1) , according to report released on Friday. India’s rank was
102 out of 117 countries last year.
In the index, India features behind Nepal (73), Pakistan (88), Bangladesh (75), Indonesia (70) among
others. Out of the total countries, countries fare worse than India including countries like Rwanda (97),
Nigeria (98), Afghanistan (99), Liberia (102), Mozambique (103), Chad (107) among others.
Seventeen nations, including China, Belarus, Ukraine, Turkey, Cuba and Kuwait, shared the top rank
with GHI scores of less than five, the website of the Global Hunger Index, that tracks hunger and
malnutrition, said. The under-five mortality rate stood at 3.7 per cent.
According to the report, 14 per cent of India’s population is undernourished. It also says that the country
recorded a child stunting rate of 37.4 per cent. Stunted children are those who have a “low height for their
age, reflecting chronic undernutrition”.
The Global Hunger Index is a peer-reviewed annual report, jointly published by (3) and Welthungerhilfe,
designed to comprehensively measure and track hunger at the global, regional, and country levels.
“Data from 1991 through 2014 for Bangladesh, India, Nepal, and Pakistan showed that stunting is
concentrated among children from households facing multiple forms of deprivation, including poor dietary
diversity, low levels of maternal education, and household poverty,” the GHI report stated.
“In many countries the situation is improving too slowly, while in others it is worsening. For 46 countries in
the moderate, serious, or alarming categories, GHI scores have improved since 2012, but for 14
countries in those categories, GHI scores show that hunger and undernutrition have worsened. The latest
GHI projections show that 37 countries will fail to achieve even low hunger by 2030,” the report said.
33. What score did India get in Global hunger Index 2020?
(a) 27.2
(b) 28.3
(c) 25.5
(d) 26.2

(a) 117
(b) 109
(c) 107
(d) 110
35. The Global Hunger Index is published jointly by Welthungerhilfe and?

(a) NetHope
(b) Oxfam
(c) Concern Worldwide
(d) Action Against Hunger
36. The annual report was firstly produced in which year?

(a) 2008
(b) 2007
(c) 2005
(d) 2006

MOCK CLAT #13
37. Consider the following statements on four indicators to assess GHI scores and choose the correct ones.
I. Undernourishment: Share of the population with insufficient caloric intake.
II. Child Wasting: Share of children under age five who have low weight for their height, reflecting acute
undernutrition.
III. Child Stunting: Share of children under age five who have low height for their age, reflecting chronic
undernutrition.
IV. Child Mortality: The mortality rate of children under the age of three.
(a) Only i
(b) ii, iii, i
(c) iii, iv, i
38. Which of the following fields was not included in the Nobel Prize category at the time the Nobel Prizes
were first established?
(a) Medicine
(b) Economics
(c) Physics
(d) Literature
Passage (Q.39-Q.43): Americans Harvey J Alter and Charles M Rice, and British scientist Michael
Houghton were awarded the Nobel Prize for Medicine or Physiology on Monday for the discovery of the
(1) virus.
Announcing the prize in Stockholm on Monday, the Nobel Committee noted that the trio’s work helped
explain a major source of blood-borne that couldn’t be explained by the other viruses.
Their work make possible blood tests and new medicines that have saved millions of lives, the committee
said.
Thanks to their discovery, highly sensitive blood tests for the virus are now available and these have
essentially eliminated post-transfusion hepatitis in many parts of the world, greatly improving global
health, the committee said.
Their discovery also allowed the rapid development of antiviral drugs directed at , it added. For the first
time in history, the disease can now be cured, raising hopes of eradicating virus from the world
population.
The World Health Organisation estimates there are over 70 million cases of virus worldwide and 400,000
deaths each year. The disease is chronic and a major cause of liver inflammation and cancer.
The prestigious Nobel award comes with a gold medal and prize money of 10 million Swedish kronor
(over USD 1,118,000), courtesy of a bequest left 124 years ago by the prize’s creator, Swedish inventor
Alfred Nobel.

(a) Hepatitis C
(b) Hepatitis A
(c) Hepatitis B
(d) Hepatitis E
40. Who has been awarded the SverigesRiksbank Prize in Economic Sciences, 2020 for their work on
commercial auctions?
(a) Paul Milgrom and Robert Wilson
(b) Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer A Doudna
(c) Alvin E Roth and Robert B Wilson
(d) BengtHolmstrom and Susan Athey

MOCK CLAT #13
41. Who have been awarded the 2020 Nobel Prize in Chemistry for developing CRISPR/Cas9 genetic
scissors, one of gene technology’s sharpest tools?
(a) Feng Zhang and Andrea M
(b) Jamie Cate and Fenz Zhang
(c) Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer A Doudna
(d) Jennifer A Doudna and Phillpe Horvath
42. When does the formal Nobel Prize ceremony take place every year?
(a) 10th January
(b) 10th December
(c) 14th December
(d) 14th January
43. Who was the first woman to get Nobel peace prize?
(a) Mother Teresa
(b) Marie Curie
(c) Bertha Won Suttner
(d) Jane Adams
Passage (Q.44-Q.48): ISRO is scheduled to launch its Venus mission in 2025 and France will participate
in it, French space agency CNES said on Wednesday.
The VIRAL instrument co-developed with the Russian federal space agency (2 ) and the LATMOS
atmospheres, environments and space observations laboratory attached to the French national scientific
research centre CNRS has been selected by the ISRO after a request for proposals, it said in a
statement.
ISRO chairman K Sivan and CNES president Jean-Yves Le Gall held talks and reviewed the areas
driving cooperation between France and India in space.
"In the domain of space exploration, France will be taking part in ISRO's mission to Venus, scheduled to
launch . CNES will coordinate and prepare the French contribution, the first time a French payload will be
flown on an Indian exploration mission," CNES said in a statement.
However, there was no comment from ISRO.
After the Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan) and Moon missions Chandrayaan-1 and 2, ISRO has set its
eyes on Venus for carrying out its inter-planetary mission.
France and India share a robust collaboration in arena of the space. It is one of the three nations with
whom India collaborates in the strategic sectors of nuclear, space and defence -- the other two being the
US and Russia.
In March 2018, the two countries also issued a 'Joint Vision for Space Cooperation'.
India and France are also working on ISRO's human space mission (3) project, which aims to send three
Indians to space by 2022.
Since September 2018, CNES and ISRO have set up a working group focused on cooperation in the field
of human spaceflight, the French agency said.
"The two nations are pooling their expertise, notably in the domains of space medicine, astronaut health
monitoring and life support. Initial exchanges have concentrated on training for India's flight physicians
and technical teams and the supply of CNES flight systems," it added.
44. Consider the following and choose the correct statements.

I. Venus is the second hottest planet of the solar system.
II. It is also called Earth’s Twin.
III. There are no moons or rings around Venus.
(a) ii and iii
(b) Only i
(c) i and ii

MOCK CLAT #13

(a) JAXA
(b) Roscosmos
(c) Rosotam
(d) Blue Origin

(a) Jugnu
(b) Saral
(c) Swayam
(d) Gaganyaan
47. So far, 42 Venus missions have been sent to Venus from planet Earth. Which is Currently flying around
Venus?
(a) Naruto
(b) Zetsu
(c) Akatsuki
(d) Konan
48. India’s space agency aims to launch its Venus orbiter namely?
(a) Shukrayaan
(b) Chandrayaan
(c) Aditya
(d) Venera
Passage (Q.49-Q.53): China will build a major hydropower project on Brahmaputra river in Tibet and a
proposal for this has been clearly put forward in the (1) Five-Year Plan to be implemented from next year,
the official media on Sunday quoted the head of a Chinese company tasked to build the dam as saying.
Yan Zhiyong, chairman of the Construction Corp of China, said China will "implement hydropower
exploitation in the downstream of the River" and the project could serve to maintain water resources and
domestic security, the Global Times reported.
Speaking at a conference on Thursday, Yan said the project was clearly put forward in the proposals for
formulating the country's Five-Year Plan (2021-25) and its long-term goals through 2035 made by the
Central Committee of the ruling Communist Party of China (CPC), it quoted an article on the WeChat
account of the Central Committee of the Communist Youth League of China on Sunday.
"There is no parallel in history it will be a historic opportunity for the Chinese hydropower industry," Yan
told the conference organised to celebrate the 40th anniversary of the founding of the China Society for
Hydropower Engineering.
The Five-Year Plan (2021-2025) and National Economic and Social Development and the Long-Range
Objectives Through the Year 2035 were adopted by Plenum - a key policy body of the CPC - last month.
Details of the plan were expected to be released after the formal ratification by National People's
Congress (NPC) early next year.

(a) 15th
(b) 14th
(c) 16th
(d) 13th
50. What is the Tibetan name for Brahmaputra?

(a) Lancang
(b) Yangtze
(c) Mekong
(d) YarlungTsangpo

MOCK CLAT #13
51. India has been expressing concerns on Brahmaputra since 2015 when China operationalised its project
at ?
(a) Zangmu
(b) Maquan
(c) Shuangji
(d) goupitan
I. Brahmaputra originates under the name of Siang or Dihang, from the Chemayungdung glacier of the
Kailash range near the Mansarovarlake.
II. It enters India west of Sadiya town in Arunachal Pradesh
(a) Only i
(b) Only ii
(c) Both
(d) None
53. The state-owned hydropower company signed a strategic cooperation agreement with the Tibet
Autonomous Region (TAR) government to implement hydropower exploitation as part of the new Five
Year Plan .name the company?
(a) Powerchina
(b) China construction corp
(c) Vinci SA
(d) China communist Construction
Passage (Q.54-Q.58): Nokia's network equipment will be installed remotely on the Moon's surface using
a lunar hopper built in late (1)
NASA announced last week it would distribute $370 million to 14 companies to supply 'Tipping Point'
technologies for its mission.
With competition among Earth's telecoms providers as fierce as ever, equipment maker Nokia
announced its expansion into a new market on Monday, winning a deal to install the first cellular network
on the Moon.
The equipment manufacturer said it was selected by NASA to deploy an "ultra-compact, low-power,
space-hardened" wireless 4G network on the lunar surface, as part of the US space agency's plan to
establish a long-term human presence on the Moon by 2030.
The $(3) contract, awarded to Nokia's US subsidiary, is part of NASA's (2) which aims to send the first
woman, and next man, to the moon by 2024.
The astronauts will begin carrying out detailed experiments and explorations which the agency hopes will
help it develop its first human mission to Mars.
Nokia's network equipment will be installed remotely on the Moon's surface using a lunar hopper built by
(4), Nokia said.
"The network will self-configure upon deployment," the firm said in a statement, adding that the wireless
technology will allow for "vital command and control functions, remote control of lunar rovers, real-time
navigation and streaming of high definition video."
The 4G equipment can be updated to a super-fast 5G network in the future, Nokia said.
54. Nokia's network equipment will be installed remotely on the Moon's surface using a lunar hopper built in
which year?
(a) 2021
(b) 2023
(c) 2024
(d) 2022

MOCK CLAT #13
55. The lunar network will be part of the U.S. space agency's efforts to return humans to the moon by 2024
and build long-term settlements there under its which program?
(a) Apollo
(b) Gemini
(c) Artemis
(d) Lunar getaway
56. Fill in the blank( refer 3)

(a) 14.1 million
(b) 14.5 million
(c) 13.1 million
(d) 16.1 million
57. The network equipment will be installed remotely on the Moon's surface using a lunar hopper built by
which firm?
(a) OrbitBey
(b) Intuitive Machines
(c) Ispace
(d) Moon Express
58. Nokia is a company of which country?

(a) Finland
(b) South Korea
(c) Japan
(d) North Korea
Passage (Q.59-Q.63):Indian PM NarendraModi virtually unveiled the Statue of Peace in Rajasthan

today, on the (1) birth anniversary occasion of Jain monk Acharya Shree Vijay
VallabhSurishwerJiMaharaj.
The country has tall statue after the world's tallest (3) , and the upcoming Lord Rama statue in Ayodhya.
The 151 in tall statue has been made using (2) , which comprises, majorly, of copper and a combination
of eight metals. The statue has been installed at Vijay VallabhSadhana Kendra in Rajasthan.
The Prime Minister, after virtually inaugurating the statue, stated that Vijay NityanandSurishwerJiMaharaj
used to say that the land of Gujarat gave two Vallabhs, i.e., SardarVallabhbhai Patel in the political field,
and Jain Acharya Shree Vijay VallabhSurishwerJiMaharaj in the spiritual field.
He added that both the visionaries dedicated their lives for India’s unity and brotherhood, and that he is
fortunate enough to inaugurate both the statues.
The saint, Shree Vijay VallabhSurishwerJiMaharaj, lived during (4) , and worked selflessly to spread the
message of Lord Mahavira. It is common knowledge that the saint also worked tirelessly for the welfare of
masses, abolition of social evils, and spread of education. He also actively supported the freedom and
Swadeshi movement, a statement added.
As per the official statement, more than 50 educational institutions of eminence, including schools,
colleges, and study centres have been built with his inspiration, and are operational till across several
states.
59. To mark which year birth anniversary occasion of Jain monk Acharya Shree Vijay
VallabhSurishwerJiMaharaj the statue of peace is unveiled?
(a) 150th
(b) 151th
(c) 152th
(d) 153th

MOCK CLAT #13
60. The statue is made of combination of eight metals which one is one of them?
(a) Gold
(b) Zinc
(c) Silver
(d) Lead
61. Fill in the blank( refer 3)

(a) Statue of Unity
(b) Spring temple
(c) LaykyunSekkya
(d) UshikuDaibutsu
62. Shree Vijay VallabhSurishwerJiMaharaj, lived during ?

(a) 1877-1954
(b) 1870-1960
(c) 1880-1980
(d) 1870-1954
63. He was a disciple of ?
(a) VijayanandSuri
(b) Rajendrasuri
(c) Acharya Tulsi
(d) Acharya Vidyasagar
Passage (Q.64-Q.67): The cyber wing of the Maharashtra Police recently acquired a software from
Interpol that would help them track down child pornography uploaded online. How does the software
work and how much of a boost will this be against child pornography?
What is the new software that is used by Interpol to act against child pornography online?
The Interpol has a software that uses various mechanisms like detecting nudity in images, recognising
age of the person through facial structures, among other filters. It also has in-built algorithms to look for
keywords around child pornography that would for example help law enforcement agencies track forums
that indulge in these crimes. Based on these filters, the software ‘(1) scans the net looking for such
images, videos and text. If they find any such media, it is added to the database after which officers
identify cases that could fall under child pornography.
While initially the database was with Interpol, they have now also provided the software to Maharashtra.
Earlier this year, 12 officers of Maharashtra cyber were trained by the Interpol officers in the use of this
software after which they were provided access to it. Kerala too was to undergo training by Interpol last
year after several such media was found to be uploaded from there.
64. The cyber wing of Maharashtra police has recently acquired a software what from the INTERPOL?
(a) Bug
(b) Worm
(c) Crawler
(d) Crone
65. What does TRACE stands for?
(a) Tactical ReviewAgainst Cyber Child Exploitation.
(b) Team Response Against Cyber Child Exploitation.
(c) Team ReviewAgainst Cyber Child Exploitation.
(d) Tactical Response Against Cyber Child Exploitation.
66. What is the operation name in which software will be used and to deploy the TRACE team?
(a) Child Free
(b) Black face
(c) Black fire
(d) No more

MOCK CLAT #13
67. Where is the Headquarters of INTERPOL?

(a) Lyon
(b) Nice
(c) Toulouse
(d) Rhone
Passage (Q.68-Q.71): A rare Ebola-like illness that is believed to have first originated in rural Bolivia in
(1) can spread through human-to-human transmission, researchers from the US Centers for Disease
Control and Prevention (CDC) have discovered.
The biggest outbreak of the ‘Chapare virus’ was reported in 2019, when three healthcare workers
contracted the illness from two patients in the Bolivian capital of (2) Two of the medical professionals and
one patient later died. Prior to that, a single confirmed case of the disease and a small cluster were
documented in the Chapare region over a decade ago.
While governments, scientists and health experts across the world struggle to contain a second wave of
coronavirus outbreaks, researchers at the US’ CDC are now studying the virus to see if it could
eventually pose a threat to humankind.
The Chapare hemorrhagic fever (CHHF) is caused by the same (3) family that is responsible for
illnesses such as the Ebola virus disease (EVD). According to the CDC website, arenaviruses like the
Chapare virus are generally carried by (4) and can be transmitted through direct contact with the infected
rodent, its urine and droppings, or through contact with an infected person.
The virus, which is named Chapare after the province in which it was first observed, causes a
hemorrhagic fever much like Ebola along with abdominal pain, vomiting, bleeding gums, skin rash and
pain behind the eyes. Viral hemorrhagic fevers are a severe and life-threatening kind of illness that can
affect multiple organs and damage the walls of blood vessels.
However, not a lot is known about the mysterious Chapare virus. Scientists believe that the virus could
have been circulating in Bolivia for many years, even before it was formally documented. Infected people
may have been misdiagnosed with dengue as the mosquito-borne illness is known to cause similar
symptoms.
68. A rare Ebola-like illness that is believed to have first originated in rural Bolivia in which year?
(a) 2007
(b) 2004
(c) 2005
(d) 2010
69. Fill in the blank ( refer 2)

(a) Sucre
(b) La Paz
(c) Uyuni
(d) Potosi
70. Which family does Chapare Virus belong to?

(a) Bunyaviridae
(b) Filoviridae
(c) Flaviviridae
(d) Arenaviridae
71. Chapare virus are generally carried by ?

(a) Rat
(b) Bat
(c) Mosquito
(d) Fish

MOCK CLAT #13
Passage (Q.72-Q.77): Section 16 of ICA states that ‘a contract is said to be induced by undue influence
where the will of the party consenting is able to be dominated by the other one due to the existence of the
relation subsisting between them’. One party influences the other while the contract is formed to get an
unfair advantage over the other. It further qualifies that a person is able to dominate the will of the other if
he (1) has a real or apparent authority arising out of fiduciary relations (relationship of trust) between
them, or (2) forms the contract with a person whose mental capacity, due to illness or age or due to
mental distress is temporarily or permanently affected. The burden of proof to prove that the contract was
not affected from undue influence lies with the defendant i.e. the person who was in a position to
dominate the will of the other. In addition, this section mentions that it will not affect Section 111 of the
Evidence Act, 1872 which talks about good faith in the transaction between the parties. Every contract
which involves undue influence comes under the ambit of the principle of equity.
The following elements are required to vitiate a contract for reasons of undue influence. (1) Dominating
Position: The existence of dominating position along with its use is mandatory to invoke an action. If once
dominance is established, unless any contrary object appears, it is presumed that there was a use in the
particular instance. (2) Unfair Advantage: Unfair advantage is the advantage or enrichment which is
obtained through unrighteous or unjust means. It comes into existence when the bargain favours the
person who enjoys influence and which proves unfair to others. (3) Real and Apparent Authority: In this
type of influence, there is a real authority like a police officer or an employer who uses his dominance for
his enrichment. Apparent authority is pretending real authority without its existence. (4) Fiduciary
Relationship: This type of relationship is solely based on the existence of trust between the parties for
each other. It is such that one of the parties naturally reposes its confidence in the other one and with an
increase in that confidence gradually, one party starts influencing the other. Under Section 19A of the
Contract Act, an agreement induced by undue influence is voidable at the option of that party whose
consent was taken by influencing him/her. Performance of such agreements may be avoided absolutely
or on prescribing certain terms and conditions.
72. Rajesh is a school student. He often sneaks in and out his exam sheet to edit it and score better marks.
He has befriended a school peon for this task and pays him some money now and then. The peon and
Rajesh enter into a contract. Decide
(a) The contract is valid for the peon and Rajesh are not in a fiduciary relationship
(b) The contract is voidable for the peon has a dominating position over Rajesh
(c) The contract is valid for the peon and Rajesh are mere friends and undue influence cannot occur
(d) The contract is voidable between Rajesh and the peon.
73. Please refer to the facts above. It is stated that Rajesh is 15 years old and studies in the 4th standard.
The peon enters into a contract with Rajesh. Decide
(a) The contract is valid for the peon and Rajesh are not in a fiduciary relationship
(b) The contract is voidable for the peon commands influence over Rajesh
(c) The contract is valid for there is no presumption of the peon misusing his dominance over Rajesh
(d) The contract is voidable for Rajesh’s mental capacity is distressed
74. Patil is the owner of an engineering firm which often takes government contracts. He has a few good
connections with people in the department who give him information on the tender amount. Patil now
enters into a contract with one such employee. On whom does the burden of proof of proving undue
influence lie?
(a) The burden of proof lies on Patil since he still needs to continue his privilege of changing grades in
the marks sheet.
(b) The burden of proof lies on the employee since he is in a fiduciary relationship with Patil
(c) The burden of proof lies on Patil since the contract is voidable at his option.
(d) The burden of proof lies on the employee since he is the dominating party in this contract

MOCK CLAT #13
75. Please refer to the facts above. Assume that the employee has a dominating position over Patil. Which of
the following facts would rebut the presumption of the use of such dominating position?
(a) The employee is poor and Patil only helped him out with the money he paid for the employee’s
services
(b) The employee during the time of signing the contract was not in school
(c) The employee had quit his position at the department prior to signing the contract
(d) The employee during the time of signing the contract was travelling to the north pole and there was
no communication whatsoever
76. Rashomon had entered into an unfavourable contract and now does not want to abide by. He speaks to
his family lawyer. The lawyer tells him that filing a legal challenge would be tedious and he should refer
the same to mediation instead. The lawyer charged more for mediation proceedings. However, mediation
proceedings were also more effective. Decide
(a) Rashomon and the lawyer are in a fiduciary relationship. The lawyer abused his dominant position for
unjust enrichment
(b) Rashomon and the lawyer are in a fiduciary relationship. The lawyer did not abuse his dominant
position for unjust enrichment.
(c) Rashomon and the lawyer are not in a fiduciary relationship. The lawyer abused his dominant position
for unjust enrichment
(d) Rashomon and the lawyer are not in a fiduciary relationship. The lawyer did not abuse his dominant
77. Please refer to the facts above. The lawyer instead of a mediation settlement, suggested filing a writ
petition. The lawyer charged the most for arguing a writ petition. However, a writ petition would be the
most ineffective in this case.
(a) Rashomon and the lawyer are in a fiduciary relationship. The lawyer abused his dominant position for
unjust enrichment
(b) Rashomon and the lawyer are in a fiduciary relationship. The lawyer did not abuse his dominant
(c) Rashomon and the lawyer are not in a fiduciary relationship. The lawyer abused his dominant position
for unjust enrichment
(d) Rashomon and the lawyer are not in a fiduciary relationship. The lawyer did not abuse his dominant
Passage (Q.78-Q.81): In a reference dealing with the interpretation of Section 65B of the Evidence Act,
1872 that deals with admissibility of electronic records, the 3-judge bench of Supreme Court has held that
the certificate required under Section 65B(4) is a condition precedent to the admissibility of evidence by
way of electronic record, as correctly held in by the 3-judge bench in Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer, and
incorrectly “clarified” by a division bench in Shafhi Mohammad v. State of Himachal Pradesh. The Court
further clarified that the required certificate under Section 65B (4) is unnecessary if the original document
itself is produced.
The Court after quoting Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer, it was found that a Division Bench judgment in
Shafhi Mohammad v. State of Himachal Pradesh may need reconsideration by a Bench of a larger
strength. The Division bench, in the Shafhi Mohammad judgment, had “clarified” that the requirement of a
certificate under Section 64B(4), being procedural, can be relaxed by the Court wherever the interest of
justice so justifies, and one circumstance in which the interest of justice so justifies would be where the
electronic device is produced by a party who is not in possession of such device, as a result of which
such party would not be in a position to secure the requisite certificate.
The 3-judge bench in the present case, holding the Shafhi Mohammad judgment to be incorrect said,
“the major premise of Shafhi Mohammad (supra) that such certificate cannot be secured by persons who
are not in possession of an electronic device is wholly incorrect. An application can always be made to a
Judge for production of such a certificate from the requisite person under Section 65B(4) in cases in
which such person refuses to give it.”
In Anvar P.V. case it was held that:

MOCK CLAT #13
The Court also clarified the confusion in the Anvar P.V. Case and held that the last sentence in Anvar
P.V. case which reads as “…if an electronic record as such is used as primary evidence under Section 62
of the Evidence Act…” is to be read without the words “under Section 62 of the Evidence Act,…”
It said:
“The clarification referred to above is that the required certificate under Section 65B(4) is unnecessary if
the original document itself is produced. This can be done by the owner of a laptop computer, computer
tablet or even a mobile phone, by stepping into the witness box and proving that the concerned device,
on which the original information is first stored, is owned and/or operated by him. In cases where the
“computer” happens to be a part of a “computer system” or “computer network” and it becomes
impossible to physically bring such system or network to the Court, then the only means of providing
information contained in such electronic record can be in accordance with Section 65B(1), together with
the requisite certificate under Section 65B(4).”
[SOURCE (edited): Prachi Bhardwaj, SC clarifies law on admissibility of electronic evidence without
certificate under Section 65B of Evidence Act, 1872, https://www.scconline.com/blog/post/2020/07/14/sc-
clarifies-law-on-admissibility-of-electronic-evidence-without-certificate-under-section-65b-of-evidence-act-
1872/ ]
78. In a trial producing certificate for secondary evidence becomes onerous. The device so produced as
evidence is in possession of a third-party. Assuming that the case of Shafhi Mohammad v. State of
Himachal Pradesh holds superior authority, decide the outcome.
(a) The evidence becomes inadmissible as a certificate is mandatory for secondary evidences according
to Section 65B(4).
(b) The evidence may or may not be admissible taking into consideration other facts of the case.
(c) The judge must compel the third-party to produce certificate for the secondary evidence.
(d) The evidence is admissible according to the interpretation provided under the judgement of Shafhi
Mohammad v. State of Himachal Pradesh.
79. In a case the issue considered by the court was whether the produced evidence is either primary or
secondary. Decide the conditions for admissibility of the evidence.
(a) If the evidence produced is clarified to be primary, producing a certificate for the admissibility of the
same is unnecessary.
(b) The evidence is admissible, irrespective of it being primary or secondary, as producing a certificate is
not mandatory as per the Shafhi Mohammad case.
(c) If the evidence produced is clarified to be secondary, producing a certificate for the admissibility of the
same is discretionary.
(d) The evidence is admissible only if a certificate is produced as per the latest clarification by the
Supreme Court
80. The prosecution failed to obtain the certificate for the secondary evidence from the third-party possessor.
Discover alternate methods to ensure admissibility of the evidence.
(a) Investigate and produce wholly alternate evidence.
(b) File a case in the Supreme Court to amend the existing Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
(c) Request the presiding judge to order production of certificate by the third-party.
(d) Produce the primary source of the secondary evidence as evidence.
81. In a trial a USB containing videography of the crime scene was produced as evidence. Determine the
conditions necessary for admissibility of the evidence.
(A) It is primary evidence as the video directly contains the events of the crime.
(B) It is secondary evidence.
(i) A certificate must be provided for the evidence to be admissible.
(ii) Production of certificate is not necessary.
(a) (A) and (ii)
(b) (B) and (i)
(c) (B) and (ii)
(d) The evidence is inadmissible.

MOCK CLAT #13
Passage (Q.82-Q.85): According to section 2(b) of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 civil contempt
means willful disobedience to any judgement, decree, direction, order, writ or other process of a court or
wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court. Thus, from the abovementioned definition it can be
ascertained that there are two important essentials to constitute civil contempt:
Disobedience of any judgement, decree, direction, order, writ or other process of a court or an
undertaking given to the court.
There should be disobedience of a valid order to constitute contempt of court. An order includes all kinds
of judgements, final, preliminary, ex-parte and contempt order. Disobedience of a decree, direction, writ
or other process of a court, or an undertaking given to the court, will also amount to contempt.
The basis behind the breach of undertaking as contempt of court is that the contemnor obtains a
beneficial order for himself from the court, by giving an undertaking and if he fails to honor the
undertaking at a later stage, he plays a serious fraud on the court and thereby interferes with the
administration of justice. A willful breach of an undertaking would amount to contempt of court. An
undertaking can be given to the court in two ways:
 By moving an application or filing an affidavit before the court clearly stating the terms of the
undertaking.
 By giving clear and express oral undertaking which is incorporated by the court in the order.
The Disobedience or breach must be willful, deliberate and intentional.
Mere disobedience or breach of the court’s order by the person is not sufficient to constitute civil
contempt. Such a disobedience or breach must be willful, deliberate and intentional. In order to exercise
its power to punish the contemnor the court has to be satisfied beyond reasonable doubt that he/she has
willfully, deliberately and intentionally violated the court’s order. No court including contempt court is
entitled to take trivialities and technicalities into account while finding fault with the conduct of the person
against whom contempt proceeding is taken. Where the order has been substantially complied with and a
reasonable explanation has been provided for the delay in compliance with the order, the contempt will
not lie as the violation is not willful and deliberate.
82. The High Court of Maharashtra summoned the defendant to attend the next trial. The defendant failed to
appear before the court, hence, the HC of Maharashtra passed an Ex-parte judgement and notified the
same to the defendant. The defendant failed to honor the judgement as he claimed that he was not heard
before the court. Decide.
(a) The defendant failing to appear before the court constitutes civil contempt of court
(b) The defendant failing to honor the ex-parte judgement constitutes civil contempt of court
(d) Audi alterampartem principle is not followed by the court hence the judgement is invalid
83. Rani school in the state of Haryana is a government school. It denies admission to girls below the age of
12, also no such restriction is observed in the case of boys. A PIL is filed by an NGO in the Supreme
Court claiming that the school has violated the fundamental right. The Supreme Court issues writ of
mandamus to enforce the fundamental right. The school does not follow the orders of the Supreme
Court.
(a) The act of the school constitutes civil contempt of court
(b) Fundamental rights are not violated since only girls below the age of 12 are denied admissions to the
school, hence, the writ issued by SC is invalid
(c) NGO cannot file a PIL as it is not in any way involved in the issue
(d) As the school is a govt. school it has the discretion to choose to whether to follow or not follow the
decisions of the SC
84. The High Court of West Bengal passes a judgement in a case ordering community service along with a
fine payment of Rs.10000. The defendant due to health emergency could not perform the community
service for a period of time. Later, he complies with the judgement and serves accordingly. Decide.
(a) Civil contempt of court can be initiated against the defendant as the community service was delayed
(b) Contempt of court is not observed as the defendant did not willfully disobey the court order
(c) Community service is a social service and no one is obligated to perform it
(d) Health emergency cannot be considered as a reasonable explanation
MOCK CLAT #13
85. Raja is accused of damaging the public property, i.e., cutting down of 100 trees in an area without prior
permission from the govt. The court orders him to pay a compensation of Rs.70000. Raja is from a poor
household and is unable to pay the fine, hence, he agrees to plant 100 trees in a year along with a fine of
Rs.10000. The court incorporates the oral undertaking given by Raja in the order and thereby reduces
the fine payment. Raja plants 100 trees by the end of the year, but fails to pay the fine. Decide.
(a) Raja is liable to pay Rs.70000 as he failed to honor the undertaking
(b) The undertaking cannot be accepted as the defendant is benefitted by it and justice is not served
(c) Planting 100 trees and a fine payment of Rs.10000 is not equivalent to a fine payment of Rs.70000,
hence, the judgment is invalid
(d) Raja can be charged under civil contempt of court as he did not honor the undertaking as well as the
order passed based on the undertaking
Passage (Q.86-Q.90): Duress is a situation whereby a person performs an act as a result of violence,
threat or other pressure against the person. According to the Black’s Law Dictionary, duress may be “any
unlawful threat or coercion used… to induce another to act [or not act] in a manner [they] otherwise
would not [or would]”.
Duress is the weapon with which the common law protects the victim of improper pressure. The court
intervenes where a party enters into a contract as a result of pressure which the law regards as
unacceptable. There is a thin between acceptable and unacceptable pressure, which has been shifting
over time. The boundaries of what is considered unacceptable pressure have been pushed outwards to
encompass many more forms of pressure, including economic pressure. In the case of economic duress,
some judges are already adopting a restrictive approach, which makes it more difficult for relief to be
available on this ground. The conceptual framework for allowing a duress defense generally stems from
the laudable notion that one should not be forced into contracting with another, but should come to the
bargain voluntarily. Volition is the touchstone of the freedom to contract. At common law, when an
agreement is the product of coercion and not entered into voluntarily, it was considered void ab initio.
The nature of the coercion that would support a defense was limited historically to threatened or actual
imprisonment or fear of loss of life and limb. As the law developed in the early part of the last century, the
threats that could qualify under the duress doctrine broadened in scope to include threats to detain
goods. In addition, courts began to find that threatened breaches of contract resulting in irreparable harm
constituted duress.
Originally, the parameters of the doctrine were very narrow in that an agreement could be avoided for
duress only where the duress was in the form of a threat to the person. Subsequently, it was accepted
that duress of goods can also vitiate consent to an agreement, and recent developments in respect of
economic duress show that the categories of duress should not be regarded as closed.
86. X and Y are neighbors. X comes to know that Y had stolen the goods of Z. X tells Y to sell him certain
books at a price Rs.500 wherein the actual price of the books is Rs.5000. Y refuses to this arrangement
but X threatens to file a complaint for the theft due to which Y agrees. Decide the validity of the contract.
(a) The contract is void ab initio as it was not voluntarily entered.
(b) The contract is not valid as the consideration has to be reasonable.
(c) The contract is valid as it was based initiating a lawful prosecution against the person.
(d) The contract is not valid and it amounted to economic duress.
87. There was an agreement between Ghanshyam, a young song writer and FITZI Music Company. The
arrangement was for the period of five years and would automatically be extended for another 5 years if
the worth of Ghanshyam reaches to an amount of Rs 10, 00,000. However, the company could terminate
the contract at any time with a month’s notice. Ghanshyam did have that and therefore, he opted out of it.
Decide.
(a) There was no pressure exercised but the terms were conditional.
(b) There was no pressure as Ghanshyam had the liberty to not enter into the agreement.
(c) There existed some pressure evident from the terms of the contract.
(d) There was no pressure as a reasonable time duration was offered before the termination of the
contract.

MOCK CLAT #13
88. Zen is a renowned doctor undertaking the treatment of Mona, an 80-year-old woman for a period of 15
years. They develop a healthy relationship wherein Zen takes care of her as a mother. Mona also
considers Zen like a son. At an instance, Mona decides to gift a house to Zen out of her property. Decide.
(a) There existed an element of duress as Zen is taking care of her for a long time puts him into a
dominant position.
(b) There existed no element of duress as this arrangement was out of will by Mona.
(c) There existed no element of duress as they developed a healthy relationship.
(d) There existed an element of duress as because Mona felt obligated to do this in exchange of the care
she received.
89. Monica is an unemployed person and Zoto is the Chief Operating Officer in an organization. Monica
meets Zoto and gets her some expensive gifts to secure a position in the organization. Decide whether
there exists an element of duress in the existing situation.
(a) Yes, as it puts an obligation on Zoto to reciprocate.
(b) Yes, as it was intended to secure employment in the organization.
(c) No, as this gift has not impacted the arrangement.
(d) No, because Monica is not in a dominant position but Zoto.
90. Harman is resident of New Delhi. Sharman lives in New York. Sharman threatens Harman to enter into a
contract with him otherwise he would kidnap his son and kill his wife. Due to this, he enters into the
contract. After some time, Harman denies fulfilling the obligations and alleges that he was coerced.
Decide.
(a) The claim is justified as he was threatened through an act against his family.
(b) The claim is not justified as it would have not been possible for Sharman to commit the act.
(c) The claim is not justified as it gave enough access and time to Harman to approach for protection
before entering the contract.
Passage (Q.91-Q.95): The Indian Penal Code provides some general defences under chapter four that
exonerate criminal liability which based on the premise that though the person committed the offence, he
cannot be held liable. This is because at the time of commission of offence, person was justified of
his/her acts, or there was absence of mensrea. However, it is not all acts that are to be punished. There
are certain defences provided under the ambit of Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 from Sections 76 to 106.
Mistake of fact arises when accused misunderstood some fact that negates an element of crime. This
legal weapon can be used, where accused succeeds to prove that he/she was mistaken to the existence
of some facts or ignorant of the existence of such facts. It is a condition that such mistake must pertain to
fact not law. Section 76 and 79 of IPC contains the provision of mistake of fact. Such mistake must be
reasonable and must be of fact and not of law. The legal maxim, "ignorantiafactiexcusatiignorantiajuris
non excusat" which means ignorance of fact is an excuse, but ignorance of law is no excuse. So it is a
basic requirement to be get protected under the sphere of this defence that mistake must be of fact.
Section 76: Act done by a person bound, or by mistake of fact believing himself bound, by law. Nothing is
an offence which is done by a person who is, or who by reason of a mistake of fact and not by reason of
a mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be, bound by law to do it.
Section 79: Act done by a person justified, or by mistake of fact believing himself justified, by law. Nothing
is an offence which is done by any person who is justified by law, or who by reason of a mistake of fact
and not by reason of a mistake of law in good faith, believes himself to be justified by law, in doing it.
Thus, the general defences enshrined under IPC are of paramount importance in establishing the
parameters of criminal offences. Criminal liability makes a person liable for the acts which are prohibited
by law. Indian Penal Code took cognizance of fact that all acts are not to be punished. The acts devoid of
mensrea are exempted from criminal liability.

MOCK CLAT #13
91. Before going to the Church, Zeeshan fired the gun and left it empty. However, during his absence,
Chester visits the house and takes the gun for shooting and while keeping it back leaves it loaded. Later
on, the same day, Zeeshan takes the gun and touches the trigger. The gun goes off and kills his wife who
was sitting in front of him. Decide.
(a) Zeeshan is guilty because he was negligent and that killed the wife.
(b) Zeeshan is not guilty as he was under a mistake of fact.
(c) Zeeshan is guilty and liability should be absolute.
(d) Zeeshan is guilty as such a weapon should be handled with great care.
92. Chulbul is a renowned police officer who is ordered to catch a dangerous criminal named Hari Pandey.
After due enquiry in good faith, Chulbul, believing Prasoon to be Hari Pandey, arrests him. Decide the
liability of arresting a wrong individual and curtailing his fundamental rights.
(a) Chulbul will be liable as this impacted the fundamental rights of Prasoon.
(b) Chulbul will be liable as his enquiry was deficient making an innocent suffer.
(c) Chulbul will not be liable as he was acting under the orders.
(d) Chulbul will not be liable since he acted in good faith.
93. A complaint was made by a nurse engaged with a civil dispensary against the accused who was the
President of the Municipal office at that moment. He wrote a letter to the surgeon on the basis of the
allegations made by the renowned men of the community that the nurse had a bad reputation for having
illicit relations with a lot of men. The letter indicated that the accused approved of such allegations on the
nurse. However, there existed no proof that there was an enquiry made on such facts. Decide.
(a) The President of the Municipal office is not liable as it could be mistake of fact.
(b) The President of the Municipal office is not liable as he did not say anything about the nurse.
(c) The President of the Municipal office is not liable as he just the information further.
(d) The President of the Municipal office is liable as he failed to take due care.
94. Seeta and Geeta had a strained relationship. At one instance, certain expensive utensils were stolen
from the house of Seeta so she thought of a plan to catch hold of the thief. She thought that the thief
would come to the only village pond to fetch water and at that moment she will get hold of it. In
pursuance to the same, she hid herself behind a tree and when she saw Geeta filing water in the utensils
gave a blow with a lathi on her head. Geeta sustained injuries and filed a case against Seeta. Decide.
(a) Seeta is not liable as this would be considered a mistake of fact.
(b) Seeta is not liable as she was just trying to recover her stolen property.
(c) Seeta is liable as there was a complete lack of good faith.
(d) Seeta is liable as Geeta sustained injuries because of her blow.
95. Jadegas& Sons is a renowned firm in the business of import and export. They have been dealing with
edible and non-edible oil since the last fifty years. On one day, they were charged with the offence of
importing non- edible coconuts oil under an open general license. They pleaded that they believed it to
be a non-canalized item and therefore acted in good faith. Decide.
(a) They are not liable as the factual information suggest that they acted in good faith.
(b) They are liable as such act cannot be considered bona fide when they have been functioning for such
a long period.
(c) They are liable as the act was under mistake of law which is not excusable.
(d) They are not liable as they did not possess any dishonest intention.

MOCK CLAT #13
Passage (Q.96-Q.101): Consumer rights are the rights given to a "consumer" to protect him/her from
being cheated by the salesman/manufacturer. Consumer protection laws are designed to ensure fair
trade competition and the free flow of truthful information in the marketplace. The consumer is defined as
someone who acquires goods or services for consideration for direct use or ownership rather than for
resale or use in production and manufacturing.
To provide simple, speedy and inexpensive redressal of consumer disputes, the CPA envisages 3-tier
quasi-judicial machinery at the National, State and District levels.
National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission, known as National Commission, deals with
complaints involving costs and compensation higher than Rs. One Crore.
State Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission, known as State Commission, deals with complaints
involving costs and compensation higher than Rs. Twenty Lakh and less than Rs. One Crore.
Section 11 of the Consumer Protection Act states: "(2) A complaint shall be instituted in a District Forum
within the local limits of whose jurisdiction," (a) the opposite party or each of the opposite parties, where
there are more than one, at the time of the institution of the complaint, actually and voluntarily resides or
2 [carries on business or has a branch office or] personally works for gain, or (b) any of the opposite
parties, where there are more than one, at the time of the institution of the complaint, actually and
voluntarily resides, or 3 [carries on business or has a branch office], or personally works for gain,
provided that in such case either the permission of the District Forum is given, or the opposite parties
who do not reside, or 4 [carry on business or have a branch office], or personally work for gain, as the
case may be, acquiesce in such institution; or (c) the cause of action, wholly or in part, arises.
96. Mr A purchased 100 Kgs of cotton as raw material to produce cloth in his factory. Later, he finds out that
the cotton was not the one he ordered and also was not fit for further production. He files a complaint
against the seller under consumer protection law. Is the seller liable under the consumer protection act-?
(a) Yes, the seller was negligent in delivering the wrong order, not fit for production.
(b) No, the buyer should be aware and careful while making the purchase.
(c) Yes, the seller should be aware and protect the interest of the consumer by following fair trade
practices.
(d) No, Mr A is not a consumer and thus, the seller is not liable under the Consumer Protection Act.
97. In the above factual matrix, Mr A instead of using it for further production purchases it for self-
consumption. However, the cotton was of substandard quality and not fit for consumption. He files a
complaint against the seller under consumer protection law. Is the seller liable under the consumer
protection act-?
(a) Yes, the seller was negligent in delivering the wrong order, not fit for production.
(b) No, the buyer should beware and careful while making the purchase.
(c) Yes, the seller should beware and protect the interest of the consumer by following fair trade
practices.
(d) No, Mr A is not a consumer and thus, the seller is not liable under the Consumer Protection Act.
98. Mr B purchases a premium limited edition Roli watch for a price of Rs. 18 Lakhs from Mr C for his
wedding. Later he finds out that the watch was a copy of the original watch. He fills a complaint against C
for selling duplicate products and using unfair trade practices. He claims compensation for Rs 22 lakhs
which includes the price of the watch and compensation for mental agony and all the costs incurred.
Which among the following is correct-?
(a) Mr B should file the complaint in the State Commission as the claim is Rs 22 lakhs.
(b) Mr B should file the complaint in the District Forum as the cost of the watch is Rs 18 lakhs.
(c) Mr B is not a consumer and thus, can’t file a complaint.
(d) Mr B can claim only Rs. 18 lakhs.

MOCK CLAT #13
99. Rhea was a shopkeeper and was selling a sample face cream GLOW UP for free on her shop. In her
shop, she used to sell goods manufactured at her own small factory. Meghana went to buy some
products from Rhea’s shop and also takes that face cream. After applying it for one week, she has a skin
reaction and boils all over her faces. She sees a doctor and finds out that the ingredients used to make
the face cream her of substandard quality. Also, two ingredients were of opposing nature and when used
together produce a harmful effect. Is Rhea liable under the Consumer Protection Act-
(a) Yes, Rhea was careless and negligent to use such ingredients and thus, should be made liable.
(b) No, Meghana should have known the contents of the product and then used it.
(c) Yes, Rhea was using substandard and harmful ingredients has violated the consumer rights of
Meghana and thus, should be made liable.
(d) No, Meghana is not a consumer and thus, Rhea is not liable under COPRA.
100. Shantanu lives in Bhopal and during his visit to Delhi buys a music system from Prajjawal. Prajjawal lives
in Kolkata but has a branch office in Delhi and gives with a warranty of 5 years on the product. On
returning to Bhopal, the Speakers becomes dysfunctional and he asks Prajjawal to repair them. He
refuses to repair or exchange them citing his place of business in Mumbai and only goods sold in Mumbai
have a warranty. Now, Shantanu files a complaint against him in the Consumer Forum. In which city can
Shantanu file a complaint as per COPRA-
I. Bhopal
II. Delhi
III. Mumbai
IV. Kolkata
(b) I, II, III
(c) II, III, IV
(d) I, IV, II
101. Who among the following is a consumer-?

(a) Patient getting free treatment at a Doctor’s camp
(b) A person buys a bike and resells it.
(c) A person buying a cinema ticket of the movie and makes the payment online
Passage (Q.102-Q.107): Malicious prosecution is the malicious institution of unsuccessful criminal or civil
proceedings against another without reasonable or probable cause. This tort balances competing
principles, namely freedom that every person should have in bringing criminals to justice and the need for
restraining false accusations against innocent persons. Malicious prosecution is an abuse of the process
of the court by wrongfully setting the law in motion on a criminal or civil charge. The foundation lies in the
abuse of the court process by wrongfully setting the law in motion and it is designed to encourage the
perversion of the machinery of justice for a proper cause. The tort of malicious position provides redress
for those who are prosecuted without cause and with malice. In order to succeed the plaintiff must prove
that there was a prosecution without reasonable and just cause, initiated by malice and the case was
resolved in the plaintiff’s favour. It is necessary to prove that damage was suffered as a result of the
prosecution.
In an action of malicious prosecution, the plaintiff must prove:
 That he was prosecuted by the defendant.
 That the proceeding complained was terminated in favour of the present plaintiff. The claimant must
show that the prosecution ended in his favour, but so long as it did, it is of no importance how this
came about,
 That the prosecution was instituted against without any just or reasonable cause.
 That the prosecution was instituted with a malicious intention, that is, not with the mere intention of
getting the law into effect, but with an intention, which was wrongful.
 That he suffered damage to his reputation or to the safety of the person, or to security of his property.
The action for malicious prosecution being an action on the case it is essential for the claimant to
prove damage.
MOCK CLAT #13
102. Polla files a case of defamation against dots. The Court issues a notice against dots and proceedings for
the case starts against him. Later, the case was dismissed due to lack of proper evidence. Can Dots sue
Polla for malicious prosecution-
(a) Yes, as all the elements for the institution of malicious prosecution have been satisfied.
(b) No, issuing of notice does not amount to prosecution
(c) No, there was no damage caused to Dots.
(d) Data insufficient.
103. Taimur committed theft at the house of Saif stealing all the precious jewellery from his home. Later, Saif
files a case against Kareena, his neighbour for theft. He knows she is innocent but nevertheless files a
case against her to take revenge. The Court finds Kareena guilty of committing theft and sentences her
to 5 years of prison. Taimur, who is Kareena’s son, feels miserable and after 5 months confesses his
crime and Kareena is released. Can Kareen file a case for Malicious Prosecution against Saif-
(a) Yes, all the essentials have been satisfied.
(b) No, the suit for malicious prosecution cannot be filed after the person is convicted.
(c) Yes, a mother should not be held liable and pay for her child’s crime.
(d) No, the prosecution did not result in favour of Kareena as now her son will be convicted.
104. A murder of a boy was committed at a Supermarket and Abhirup the father and also the sole witness. He
saw the crime and the murderer’s face, who was Aarohi. Later, during investigation he tells that Sarthak
committed the murder just to take revenge from Sarthak, his business revival and teach him a lesson.
The case reached court and during the investigation it was found that both Aaarohi and Sarthak
conspired to commit the murder. They both were convicted of committing the murder. Can Sarthak file a
suit of malicious prosecution against Abhirup-
(a) Yes, all the elements are satisfied.
(b) No, all the elements are not satisfied.
(c) Yes, Abhirup held Sarthak liable with malice and had no reasonable cause.
(d) No, the essentials are not satisfied.
105. Jisoo filed a FIR against YG for fraud. Later during the investigation, due to lack of evidence, the FIR was
dismissed. Can YG file a case for malicious prosecution against Jisoo-
(a) Yes, all the essentials are satisfied.
(b) No, filing of FIR does not amount to prosecution.
(c) Yes, it is important to punish people for filing frivolous complaints.
(d) Data insufficient.
106. Henry is a petty thief who commits theft on a small scale and never gets caught due to lack of evidence.
Once he committed a thief of Rs 1 crore from a bank, now he had enough case and decided not to steal
ever in life. The next day another thief was committed and Henry was spotted near the crime scene 5
minutes before the thief. Thinking that he has committed the crime he was arrested and a case was filed
against him. In the court proceeding, it was discovered that this time it was someone else and Henry was
acquitted. Can Henry sue for Malicious Prosecution-
(a) Yes, all the elements are satisfied.
(b) No, he was not convicted was this crime but will be convicted for the theft of Rs 1 crore.
(c) Yes, if he is not allowed to sue now, he may return to being a petty thief again.
(d) No, all the elements are not satisfied.
107. Which among the following is not essential for malicious prosecution-
(a) The case must result in favour of the plaintiff.
(b) Some monetary loss must be caused to the plaintiff.
(c) The prosecution was instituted with malice
(d) The prosecution was instituted without a reasonable cause.

MOCK CLAT #13
Passage (Q.108-Q.112): Canadian Prime Minister Justin Trudeau’s comments professing solidarity with
farmers from Punjab protesting at Delhi’s borders against the recently approved farm legislation should
not have come as a surprise to South Block. After all, in recent years, India has made a point of
harnessing the political power of its diaspora across the world. With numerous glitzy events in world
capitals, the government has underlined since 2014 that it considers Indians who are citizens of other
countries as force multipliers for Delhi, and indeed, for the BJP, in the larger world. In turn, some world
leaders have tried to talk up their relations with the Indian leadership to win the hearts of their
constituencies. David Cameron’s declaration at a packed Wembley stadium in London in 2015, with Modi
by his side, that “achche din aagayehain”, was an early example of this, much before the back-to-back
Trump-Modi fests in Houston and Ahmedabad. The Canadian PM’s intervention, however, may remind
India of a time when elected leaders in the mother country did not have diasporas eating out of their
hands, and these diasporas used their political clout in their adopted countries to highlight perceived
issues and problems back home. In this backdrop, Delhi’s response to Trudeau, calling his comments “ill-
informed”, sounded churlish, as if only India has the right to play diaspora politics. More than that, it made
it appear insecure and resentful. The fact is, Indian diplomacy has come a long way since the “foreign
hand” bogey, when a large amount of its energies were devoted to convincing the rest of the world about
India’s credentials as a robust democracy. Having said that, however, it would be in Trudeau’s interests,
and Canada’s, to be aware of the hazards of playing to galleries in the Sikh diaspora. Canada has its
own share of tragic memories, and political and security failures on the “Khalistan” issue. Trudeau’s
week-long sojourn in India in February 2018 would have made it clear to him that in today’s Punjab, there
is little tolerance for extremism 2.0. His government has steered clear of backing the Pakistani-sponsored
“2020 Sikh referendum”. But by reaching out to the protesting farmers outside Delhi under pressure from
a section of the Liberal Party Sikh MPs, Trudeau is only putting the farmers at risk of what they are
themselves keen to avoid — being identified with those outside the country who would want to stir trouble
in Punjab once again.
108. Justin Trudeau’s comments on the farmers’ protests resonates with the attitude of –
1. NarendraModi
2. Donald Trump
3. David Cameron
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
109. Which of the following inferences can be worked out of the passage?
(a) The Indian government previously used to try to impress the global leaders
(b) The Indian government previously used to try to impress the Indian diaspora in foreign countries
(c) The Indian government used to get much help from the Indian diaspora in foreign countries previously
110. What kind of attitude has the author talked about in the passage?
(a) Cheering the elected leaders of other countries to get more support from the diaspora
(b) Impressing the elected leader of other countries to enter their good books and get benefits for their
respective country
(c) Cheering the Indian diaspora for electoral gains in respective countries
(d) Placating the respective diaspora and the leaders in unison for electoral gains
111. What would be the most logical reason for this attitude undertaken by world leaders, including India’s?
(a) India’s reputation of democracy
(b) India’s soft-power clout
(c) The Indian population

MOCK CLAT #13
112. What does the author want to say? Trudeau’s attitude can risk the farmers of–
(a) Being projected as terrorists
(b) Being likened to Khalistanis
(c) Being projected as outsiders
(d) Being projected as enemy of the state
Passage (Q.113-Q.117): The most central assumption in economics is that human beings are rational
maximizers of their individual satisfactions, and, in turn, respond to incentives. A rational maximizer of
personal satisfaction adjusts means to ends in the most efficient way possible. It is important to realize
that economics, as understood here, is not restricted to analysis of monetary issues; there are
nonmonetary as well as monetary satisfactions. Every potential satisfaction is implicated in the calculus
of economic satisfactions and therefore can be investigated according to economic or meAnswer:end
rationality and the trade-off of costs and benefits. Normally what is aimed at through economic reasoning
is the improvement of efficiency.
A more efficient allocation is one that increases the net value of resources. Efficiency in the allocation of
resources is distinguished from equity, which is concerned with justice in the distribution of wealth.
Because some people value specific goods higher or lower than others, economic efficiency can often be
raised through voluntary transfers of goods. The most common example of a transfer promoting
efficiency is that of a freely entered into contractual relationship. Because one party to the transaction
values money more than the item owned, and the other values the item owned more than the asking
price, the exchange produces a net gain in economic goods. Each person ends up better off than before.
Some economists have gone so far as to argue that such a contractual exchange is morally optimal
because it works within both Kantian and utilitarian theories of morality. They argue that it works with
Kantian theories because a contract is thought to represent a good example of interaction between free
and rational agents. It works with utilitarianism because the idea of wealth maximization intuitively
translates into more utility.
Economists have a variety of terms to describe possible outcomes of economic exchanges. For instance
Pareto optimality is defined as a point where resources are allocated such that no one is willing to trade
further. Pareto optimality is the eventual endpoint of a series of Pareto superior moves. A Pareto superior
change makes at least one person better off without making anyone worse off. Because no one is worse
off after the trade there are no losers in Pareto improvements, although there may be many different
Pareto optimal endpoints. Furthermore, economists have developed the concept of Kaldor-Hicks
efficiency to compensate for obstacles to freely contracted exchanges. Kaldor-Hicks efficiency, or
potential Pareto superiority, results when the overall economic gains outweigh the losses. In other words,
the gains in economic efficiency are large enough that the winners could, if they had to, compensate the
losers in the new allocation of goods and still remain better off.
113. “Normally what is aimed at through economic reasoning is the improvement of efficiency.” [Paragraph 1]
What does ‘economic reasoning’ mean?
(a) When humans are presented with various options under the conditions of scarcity, they would choose
the option that maximizes their individual satisfaction.
(b) People weigh the relative costs and benefits of each alternative when faced with a choice and then
choose the one that provides them with the greatest anticipated benefits.
(c) When humans are presented with various options, their preferences do not invalidate the economic
analysis of alternatives, even if their choice is irrational.
(d) Because humans are emotional and easily distracted beings, they make decisions that are not in their
self-interest.
114. All these are examples of ‘efficiency in the allocation of resources’ EXCEPT:
(a) Seats are reserved for economically backward classes in government jobs.
(b) Most of the inventory in stock in a toy shop is a toy that is in the greatest demand.
(c) An expressway that has been designed to give the maximum mileage per litre of fuel.
(d) Spare capacity of a manufacturing unit is leased to a competitor at a reasonable rent.

MOCK CLAT #13
115. “…contractual exchange is morally optimal” in utilitarianism [paragraph 2] because…

(a) It considers subjugation of one’s interests in order to fulfill another’s, as morally superior.
(b) The exchanged economic good is considered ‘morally’ appropriate by the beneficiary as well as by
the benefactor.
(c) It places the locus of right and wrong solely on the outcomes.
(d) The exchange happens voluntarily between two ‘free’ and ‘rational’ agents.
116. According to the passage, Kaldor-Hicks efficiency…

(a) produces more benefits than costs.
(b) is at all times a true pareto improvement.
(c) is the eventual endpoint of pareto superior moves.
(d) ensures that no one person is better off than others.
117. Which of the following, if true, would undermine the passage’s main argument?
(a) People evaluate the costs and benefits of different alternatives and choose the best to maximize their
happiness.
(b) When incentives change, people's behaviour changes in unpredictable ways.
(c) Human beings possess the innate wisdom to reject factors that undermine optimal economic
efficiency.
(d) People recognize that an important type of cost is opportunity cost: the next best alternative that
people give up when they make a choice.
Passage (Q.118-Q.122): Lata: One in every six women who gave birth in the hospital died, in the last
century. The death was usually caused by the fever contracted post-delivery of the child. The reasons for
this include the unhygienic conditions of the hospitals in the past century, the dirty hand and instruments
in the hospital lead to pathogens entering a women’s bloodstream. We are grateful that the hygienic
conditions have improved and women are well off today.
Simran: The number of doctors per thousand patients is very low, which tells us that the doctors are
overburdened. While aware of the hygiene standards, they don’t find much time to maintain those
standard and therefore, the likelihood of infections due to unhygienic conditions of the hospitals has not
improved.
118. Which of the following is the central idea of Lata’s argument?
(a) The central idea is that the conditions of the hospitals have improved in this century compared to the
last century.
(b) The central idea is that the hospitals are the most unhygienic place.
(c) The central idea is that the children born at home with assistance of mid-wife are better than those
born at hospital
(d) The central idea of Lata’s argument is that children should be born at home only.
119. Which of the following, if true, weakens Lata’s argument?
(a) It has been found in the study that the dirty hospitals were the biggest reason for the post-delivery
fever in women.
(b) It has been found in the study that not hygiene but the improvement in medical science has helped in
lowering down the post-delivery death of women.
(c) It has been the opinion of many professionals that there are better doctors in this century than the
last.
120. Which of the following, if true, strengthens the argument of Simran?
(a) In a survey of hundred hospitals, it was found that the hospital management had expelled ten doctors
for notfollowing the hygiene.
(b) In a survey of hundred hospitals, it was found that the dustbins were not disposed of in weeks.
(c) In an interview of a doctor of reputed hospital, he said that he doesn’t have time for his family due to
work.
(d) All of the above support Simran’s statement.

MOCK CLAT #13
121. Lata’s statement that “We are grateful that the hygienic conditions have improved and women are well off
today” –
(a) Forms premise of the Lata’s argument.
(b) Forms conclusion of the Lata’s argument.
(c) Forms assumption of Lata to the above passage.
122. The conclusion of Simran’s argument is based on which of the following premise?
(a) That the doctor patient ratio is not very good.
(b) That the doctors are overburdened
(c) That the doctors don’t find time to maintain the hygienic standards.
(d) That the unhygienic condition of the hospitals hasn’t improved.
Passage (Q.123-Q.126): Two major positions have emerged in the debate about the nature of kinship.
One argues that kinship can only be analysed from the framework of the biological necessities of human
reproduction. The other argues that this position is nothing more than ethnocentric view of kinship
derived from European culture and that only a broader cultural approach can provide a meaningful
analysis of kinship. In this approach, it is necessary to analyse kinship around the world from a
perspective derived from within each different culture.
That the anthropological study of kinship ultimately rests upon the biological foundation of human
reproduction is not a novel idea. Since the modern study of kinship began in the middle of the 19th
century, there has been an intimate connection between kinship and biological processes. This
relationship continues to be expressed today. A number of anthropologists (e.g., Fox, Goodenough, Holy,
Scheffler) have agreed with Gellner that the processes of reproduction, birth, and nurturance, in one form
or another provide the essential foundation of kinship. Furthermore, the biological processes often are
taken to represent human nature and are seen to provide the necessary constant for systematic cross-
cultural comparison. Culture, by comparison, is to be considered an epiphenomenon. It is useful for
describing particular systems of kinship and describing human behavioral variety, but it is dependent
upon human nature (defined in biological terms) and cannot serve as the framework for comparison.
Comparative analysis is the foundation of science. In kinship, for Gellner, et al., this hinges on biology.
On the other side of the debate, in the Philosophy of Science, were John Barnes and Rodney Needham.
They countered Gellner’s position by arguing that kinship was primarily a matter of culture. It was the
interpretation of the processes of reproduction and not simply the processes in themselves that
constituted kinship. This position would then be expressed by David Schneider in one of the most
influential publications concerning kinship since Morgan’s Ancient Society in 1877. In his “A Critique of
the Study of Kinship (1984)”, Schneider [1987] argued that the biological framework – held out to be the
natural foundation for the analysis of family and marriage relationships around the world – is, actually, an
ethnocentric construct. It is a cultural construct based upon Eurocentric notions of reproduction and is not
shared by other people around the world.
123. Which of the following best states the position, which has been described by opposing anthropologists,
as resting on Eurocentric notions of kinship?
(a) The process of reproduction in itself, is basis of kinship.
(b) Kinship is decided at birth on the basis of the social class into which one is born.
(c) Kinship cannot be separated from birth because biological ties are stronger than other surrogate
ones.
(d) Directly or indirectly, reproduction, birth and nurturance lay the essential foundations of kinship.
124. Which of the following is posited by Gellner, et al., as the reason why biology and not culture should be
the basis for the study of kinship?
(a) Reproduction and birth because of their universality serve as ideal the yardstick for comparative
analysis of kinship unlike culture, which is specific.
(b) Culture can only describe behavioral aspects and not the fundamental biological processes.
(c) Culture cannot be quantified and hence cannot be used as a tool in any scientific analysis.
(d) Comparative analysis demands the use of processes with an objective base rather than those with a
subjective base and hence biology, not culture, should be the basis for the study of kinship.
MOCK CLAT #13
125. According to the passage, Schneider argued against the use of the biological frame of reference for
analyzing kinship on which of the following grounds?
(a) Marital relationships across the world are different because of cultural reasons not biological.
(b) Human relationships and hence kinship has evolved over the years from being centered around
family and marriage to being centered out social or peer groups.
(c) It cannot be used universally because the notion of birth and family being the foundation of kinship is
Eurocentric and hence specific.
(d) Some people around the world attach more importance to culture than biology.
126. It can be inferred that according to Schneider:
(a) Biological processes play no role in determining kinship.
(b) Eurocentric biological processes are different from those in the rest of the world.
(c) The primacy of marriage and family is a purely European notion.
(d) Culture provides the interpretation of biological processes which in turn constitutes kinship.
Passage (Q.127-Q.130): Word 'philosophy' is one of which meaning is by no means fixed. Like word
'religion', it has one sense when used to describe certain features of historical cultures, and another when
used to denote a study or an attitude of mind which is considered desirable in the present day.
Philosophy, as pursued in universities of Western democratic world, is, at least in intention, part of pursuit
of knowledge aiming at same kind of detachment as is sought in science, and not required by authorities
to arrive at conclusions convenient to government. Many teachers of philosophy would say that
knowledge should be sole purpose of university teaching; virtue should be left to parents, schoolmasters
and the churches.
But philosophy, in historically usual sense, has resulted from attempt to produce a synthesis of science
and religion. Philosophy was distinguished from religion by the fact that, nominally at least, it did not
appeal to authority or tradition; it was distinguished from science by fact that an essential part of its
purpose was to tell men how to live. Sometimes ethical motives influenced the philosopher's views as to
the nature of the universe, sometimes his views as to the universe led him to ethical conclusions. And
with most philosophers, ethical opinions involved political consequences: some valued democracy, others
oligarchy; some praised liberty, others discipline. Almost all types of philosophy were invented by the
Greeks, and the controversies of our own day were already vigorous among the pre-Socratics.
The fundamental problem of ethics and politics is that of finding some way of reconciling the needs of
social life with the urgency of individual desires. This has been achieved, in so far as it has been
achieved, by means of various devices. When a government exists, the criminal law can be used to
prevent anti-social action on the part of those who do not belong to the government, and law can be
enforced by religion wherever religion teaches that disobedience is impiety. Where there is priesthood
sufficiently influential to enforce its moral code on lay rulers, even the rulers become to some extent
subject to law; of this there are abundant instances in the Old Testament and in medieval history.
Philosophers, when they have tackled the problem of preserving social coherence, have sought solutions
less obviously dependent upon dogma than those offered by official religions. Most philosophy has been
a reaction against scepticism; it has arisen in ages when authority no longer sufficed to produce the
socially necessary minimum of belief, so that nominally rational arguments had to be invented to secure
the same result. This motive has led to a deep insincerity infecting most philosophy, both ancient and
modern.
127. Which of the following has led to a deep insincerity infecting most philosophy?
(a) Most philosophy aims at weakening the popular force of tradition, and targets dogma.
(b) As a result of scepticism, philosophy is increasingly becoming politically conservative.
(c) Philosophers are forever trying to frame rational arguments to preserve social coherence.
(d) There is an unconscious fear among philosophers that clear thinking would lead to anarchy.
128. According to the author, the historical origins of philosophy can be traced to:
(a) An attempt to reconcile religion and science.
(b) The effort to reconcile the needs of social life and the urgency of individual desires.
(c) A reaction against scepticism prevalent in contemporary society.
(d) The pure pursuit of knowledge for its own sake.

MOCK CLAT #13
129. According to the passage, which of the following is true about philosophy?
(a) Its ethical connotations have no political significance.
(b) Cosmological and ethical theories are closely connected.
(c) Philosophy is not a matter in which official authorities have an opinion.
(d) It taught mere scepticism and attacked existing dogmas.
130. The author is LEAST likely to agree with which of the following statements?
(a) Knowledge is the sole purpose of university teaching.
(b) Most types of philosophy were invented by the Greeks.
(c) Philosophy is detached from politics.
(d) The word 'philosophy', like 'religion', is used in two senses.
131. Despite reporting a 10% increase in profits over last year the share price of Kavit Industries fell heavily
after the results were announced. Contrastingly, Jump Networks which reported a 20% decrease in
profits over last year saw its share price rise by nearly 15%. This just goes on to show that the workings
of the stock markets do not follow any logical pattern and investors do not use rationality in making their
buying and selling decisions.
Which of the following most seriously weakens the author’s conclusion?
(a) Buyers base their decisions on long term growth prospects and while Kavit Industries’ total revenues
fell, Jump Networks’s revenues grew by nearly 50%.
(b) A survey has shown that 90% of stock market investors hold professional educational degrees.
(c) The unpredictability and volatility of the stock markets has decreased significantly in the last fifty
years.
(d) Profit is the most correct indicator of a company’s performance.
132. Many psychologists believe that close childhood friendships not only increase a child’s self- esteem and
confidence, but also help children develop the skills for healthy adult relationships. If children’s
friendships are sanitized by adults, a child will not be emotionally prepared for both the affection and
rejection likely to come later in life. Therefore, it is best for adults to not try and sanitize children’s
friendships.
The argument is flawed primarily because
(a) it assumes that sanitized friendships cannot grow into becoming close friendships.
(b) it does not account for those friends who are not known to parents.
(c) it does not mention the degree to which childhood friendships are similar to adult relationships.
(d) it assumes that affection and rejection cannot affect a child.
Directions (Q.133-Q.135): Study the following information and answer the given questions.
D is daughter of N. E is wife of N.
G is sister of D. C is married to G.
N has no son. K is mother of E.
Q is only daughter of C.
133. How Q is related to D?

(a) Daughter (b) Cousin (c) Niece (d) Sister in law
134. How N is related to K?

(a) Brother-in-law (b) Cousin (c) Son in law (d) Sister
135. Six persons L, M, N, O, P and Q, each having different scores, M scored less than only O. L scored more
than N and Q but less than P. Q did not score the lowest. How many persons scored more than Q?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) More than three

MOCK CLAT #13
Directions (Q.136 – Q.140): Study the following bar charts and answer the questions.
Foreign Trade (Imports and Exports) by countries for the year (1993 - 1994)
Trade Surplus = Export – Import

Trade Deficit= Input - Export
136. The ratio of the maximum exports to the minimum imports was closest to ?
(a) 64 (b) 69 (c) 74 (d) 79
137. How many countries exhibited a trade surplus ?

(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 6
138. The total trade deficit/surplus for all the countries put together was ?
(a) 11286 surplus (b) 11286 deficit
(c) 10286 deficit (d) None of these
139. The highest trade deficit was shown by which country ?

(a) C (b) G (c) H (d) L

MOCK CLAT #13
140. The ratio of Exports to Imports was highest for which country ?
(a) A (b) I (c) J (d) K
Directions (Q.141–Q.145): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
beside.
Viratkohli scored runs against different countries in three different years.
NOTE: Total runs scored in a year= Australia + England + Others
2015: The total runs scored in 2015 were 1200. The runs scored against England were 1/3rd of the runs
against Others in 2016. The average runs scored against Australia and England was 300.
2016: The total runs scored against Australia and Others was 1200. The ratio of the total runs scored
against Others in 2015 to that of the total runs scored against Others in 2016 is 4:3. The total runs scored
against England in 2016 were equal to the total runs scored against England in 2017.
2017: The sum of the total runs scored against Australia and England is equal to the total runs scored
against Others. The total runs scored in 2017 were 1400. The runs scored against Australia were twice of
the runs scored against England in 2015.
141. What were the total runs scored in 2016?

(a) 1100 (b)1500 (c) 1600 (d) 1400
142. What is the sum of the runs scored against England in all three years?
(a) 800 (b) 950 (c) 850 (d) 1050
143. What is the ratio of the total runs scored against Australia in 2015 to that of the total runs scored against
England in 2017?
(a) 7 : 9 (b) 9 : 7 (c) 11 : 7 (d) 9 : 8
144. What is the difference between the total runs scored against Others in 2015 to the total runs scored
against Others in 2016?
(a) 150 (b) 200 (c) 100 (d) 300
145. The total runs scored against Australia in 2016 is what percentage of the total runs scored against
Australia in 2017?
(a) 125% (b) 100% (c) 250% (d) 200%
Directions: (Q.146-Q.150) Answer the questions based on the information given below.
The given table shows the data regarding the number of Officers and Secretaries in various ministries of
a country.
Total Attendants = Officers (Male + Female) + Secretaries (Male + Female)
Total
Number of officers Ratio of male to
Ministry officer
per secretary female officers
s
Finance 960 48 7:5
Agriculture 1080 36 5:4
Human Resource
720 45 7:5
Development
Panchayati Raj 560 40 5:3
Communication and
520 26 8:5
Information Technology
146. If the ratio of male Secretaries to female Secretaries in Finance Ministry is 3:2, respectively then male
Secretaries from Finance Ministry is what percentage of the total male officers from Communication and
Information Technology Ministry?
(a) 2.5% (b) 3.75% (c) 5% (d) 7.25%

MOCK CLAT #13
147. Find the average number of Secretaries from Agriculture, Human Resource Development and Panchayati
Raj Ministry.
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 16 (d) 14
148. Total number of Officers from Human Resource Development Ministry is what percentage of total number
of Officers from Panchayati Raj Ministry and Communication and Information Technology Ministry taken
together?
(a) 25% (b) 33.33% (c) 66.67% (d) 75%
149. The ratio of male Secretaries to female Secretaries from Agriculture Ministry and Human Resource
Development Ministry are 8:7 and 5:3, respectively. Find the absolute difference between total males
(Officers + Secretaries) in Agriculture Ministry and Human Resource Development Ministry taken
together and total females (Officers + Secretaries) in Agriculture Ministry and Human Resource
Development Ministry taken together.
(a) 464 (b) 536 (c) 628 (d) 246
150. The Government is going to start a new Ministry named Youth Ministry, where total number of Officers
will be equal to the average number of Officers from Agriculture and Human Resource Development
Ministry whereas number of Officers per Secretary in that Ministry will be 60. Find out the number of
Secretaries who will be in Youth Ministry.
(a) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17

MOCK CLAT #13
Use for Rough work

MOCK CLAT #14

Candidate Name : _________________
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
Test Centre/Hall.
MOCK CLAT #14
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): As he wipes the condensation off the mirror, he is momentarily taken aback unable
to recognize those dull, tired eyes and aged face of his, with the wrinkles looking as though they had
multiplied in the past few weeks. His palms are calloused and raw from all the scrubbing and washing.
He is finding it difficult to stand for long, with varicose veins twisting around his leg like ivy running up a
wall. He looks warily at the bottle of liquid soap and wonders how long he can make it last. With the ever-
growing demand for this liquid gold and meagre supply, every drop is precious.
She rests on an armchair with a vacant expression in her eyes. The mobile phone grasped in her
withered hands, she waits impatiently for someone, nay, anyone to call. Her son who works in Bangalore
doesn’t talk much on phone these days as he is busy working from home. The last time she had heard
from her daughter in the U.S., the total number of cases reported in Chennai was just 8,000. That seems
to be many weeks ago. Time was slipping through her fingers, like worthless coins. Now, thousands of
cases are being reported daily! Her thoughts are interrupted as the doorbell rings. Before the pandemic
struck, the door was rarely shut as friends would drop in often and she would never let them leave
without offering them a steaming cup of masala chai with hot, crispy snacks. Now, their only visitors are
the milkmaid and delivery boys.
Laboriously, she lifts her body off the chair. She smooths her nightgown and reaches out for the walking
stick. Shifting her weight onto her sturdy companion, she slowly begins her journey towards the door.
Gloved hands holding out a delivery packet await her as she opens the door. She smiles at the young
boy, a gesture so rare these days that her muscles feel stiff. She isn’t sure if the smile was returned
beneath the black mask.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/open-page/lonely-together/article32051583.ece
1. What idea is the author trying to convey in the first paragraph

(a) That the hand wash is a very expensive commodity in this pandemic.
(b) That for elderly, its twin battle now as they have to fight the virus and travails of living alone.
(c) That the elderly are too tired to wash their hands again & again.
(d) That the elderly are facing a lot of health issues due to the pandemic
2. What is the plight of the woman in the second paragraph?

(a) Walking towards the door.
(b) That her children live too far from her
(c) That she has to deal with the entire pandemic all by herself with no support from anyone.
(d) That the neighbors don’t come to wish her very often
3. What is the meaning of the word ‘calloused’ here?

(a) Insensitive
(b) Unsympathetic
(c) Indifferent
(d) Made hard
4. What is the synonym of the word ‘varicose’?

(a) Swollen
(b) Twisted
(c) Lengthened
5. What is the antonym of the word ‘sturdy’?

(a) Strong
(b) Solid
(c) Hefty

MOCK CLAT #14
Passage (Q.6-Q.10): As the video of George Floyd’s death due to racist police brutality in the U.S. went
viral, protests ripped through the world. The protesters were not just blacks, and their diversity reflected
the changing times.
Every human born anywhere in this universe, of any skin color, race, creed, gender or religion, is first a
human being and only then the citizen of a country. Anyone who vents his inner conflicts and emotions
by hurting or using violence, under the ruse of duty, on innocent humans should unlearn these
tendencies.
Even if you are in law enforcement, the law of the land applies to you. The price of a white life is the
same as that of a black life. Every human being matters. For somewhere out, there is someone who
loves her or him. Break down the barriers, if colour of the skin is a hindrance to follow the path of justice
and truth.
While teaching in Lagos, Nigeria for many years, I had felt the students, teachers, working staff and
others whom I met were just the same as my people back home. Each one of us, wherever we belong
have the same fears, aspirations, trepidations, wishes and hopes. We all love our family, our religion, our
friends and above all our country. Every human being wants peace and happiness. Then why this
differentiation between ourselves? Don’t look at the skin colour, instead feel that heart ticking in there. If
only the police officer had heard his own heart telling him to stop and the victim’s cry, “I can’t breathe,”
one precious human life could have been saved.
This bug is present in every country but in different forms. In some, it is skin colour, and in others, caste,
gender, religion, age and disability, to name a few.
This bug has infiltrated every aspect of our lives, be it education, housing, employment, social life and
workplace. Innocent people are wrongfully oppressed, hurt and even killed brutally in broad daylight by
the so-called law-enforcement officials themselves. It is high time we built deeper relationships with one
another. To achieve this, we have to put pride aside and have a candid dialogue, have an open mind,
educate ourselves and vow never ever to discriminate against any human being because all lives matter.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/open-page/a-world-without-discrimination/article32051616.ece
6. What part of speech does the word ‘vents’ in the second para represent?
(a) Verb
(b) Adverb
(c) Noun
(d) Adjective
7. What is the meaning of the word ‘ruse’?

(a) Gambit
(b) Man oeuvre
(c) Tactic
8. What differentiation does the author talk about in the third paragraph?
(a) Difference of hopes & aspirations
(b) Differences pertaining to your origin
(c) Differences based on the color of your skin
(d) Differences due the income
9. What is the idea that the author is trying to convey in the above passage?
(a) That there should be no discrimination on the basis of the color of the skin
(b) Discrimination based on any criteria is not acceptable
(c) The law enforcement agencies take advantage of their power and harass innocent people.
10. What can be the most appropriate title for the above passage?
(a) All live matter
(b) Say no to Apartheid
(c) Brutality by Police Officers
(d) The plight of George Floyd
MOCK CLAT #14
Passage (Q.11-Q.15): It was January 2018, and I was on fieldwork as part of my curriculum. The village I
went to was suffering from a seasonal irrigation problem, and the people wanted the government to
construct a small check dam. I was staying with them and discovering how the “water stress” magnifies
during the summers and how it affects everyday life. A check dam could have helped in the drought-
prone region.
One day, the sarpanch came and requested me to do something to build the dam. I told him that I was a
student and nobody would pay heed to me. He said, “No! You write it in your report that the dam ‘must’
be built.”
I assured him I would do that, but still, he should not have any hopes, as I knew my report was worth
nothing more than 100 marks. Anyway, he was happy to know that somebody is going to document their
woes.
I met several other village folks who told me that the rich had dug bore wells and raised lucrative water-
intensive crops. They charge for using the water from their bore wells. A small dam would be free to use,
besides it would save groundwater. The poor farmers had small plots of land and bought water and
rented tractors for farming. They worked in the fields of the rich to supplement their income. Some of
them were women whose husbands had left for the city to earn.
They used to see me wandering in the village. Often, I used to go to them while they were working in the
fields and they would offer me a banana or a sugarcane piece. For them, I was an outsider who had
come to “inspect” things.
They had high hopes of me. They thought when I went back, the Sarkar would listen to me and construct
the dam.
I tried my best to make them understand that I had come here as part of my studies and that I had no
business with the government. Some of them understood this, but most did not. This made me anxious.
When you fail to live up to someone’s expectations, it feels bad. In the words of Voltaire, “Every man is
guilty of all the good he did not do.” They were not the “poor farmers” who were showering me with
whatever they had. It was me who was poor, who had nothing to give them back. It was me who was
helpless and not the farmers, who were fighting poverty in the best way they could. Academia has
documented a lot of problems as “data”, but could not solve them. Nobody is to blame.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/open-page/a-minefield-of-empty-hopes/article32051589.ece
11. What part of speech does the word ‘magnifies’ in the first para represent?
(a) Adverb
(b) Verb
(c) Adjective
(d) Noun
12. What was the biggest problem faced by the farmers?

(a) Paying for water to the rich farmers who had personal bore wells
(b) Paying the rent of tractors
(c) Working in the fields of other farmers to supplement their income
13. What do you think is the author’s problem in the above passage?
(a) The confidence that the villagers reposed in him that he can persuade the government to allow the
construction of the dam
(b) That he had come here as part of his studies and that he had no business with the government
(c) That his guilt pangs about the fact that he cannot do anything about their expectations was making
him anxious
(d) That the poor farmers were showering him with whatever they had
14. Why is the author calling himself poor?
(a) Because he had could pay the farmers.
(b) Because he was helpless and could do anything to reduce the water irrigation problems faced by the
poor farmers.
(c) Because he did not have the money to construct a dam
(d) Because he was just there for fieldwork and had nothing to do with the government.
MOCK CLAT #14
15. What is the antonym of ‘woes’?

(a) Afflictions
(b) Excruciations
(c) Travails
(d) Alleviations
Passage (Q.16-Q.20): Having a pretty long nose does not always imply a sharp nasal sensory system.
But my nose has been my best sensory organ right from childhood. My earliest memories of people and
places are associated with distinctive smells, leaving me with specific olfactory memories.
Our kitchen used to smell differently as seasons change. The warm kitchen with its soft smells cuddled
me from the cold during the monsoon mornings, a precious feeling my sister and I cherished and the only
reason we woke up early. But the kitchen in summer suffocated us with the smells of sautéing and
simmering and the fetid humid heat.
Kerala winters are not remarkably "wintery", but still the chilly winds at night, combined with the
redolence of Christmas delicacies such as palappam, stew and roasted meat, smell ecstatic.
Each mode of transport carries olfactory memories for me. Journeys to our paternal house in Nilambur, a
town in Malappuram district, still stand out for their assorted scents. The early-morning auto rickshaw trip
to the railway station, with its brimming enthusiasm and joyous anticipation, smelled of the crispiness of
dawn. I still love the railway station at daybreak for the freshness of the aromas wafting from the
samovars and vegetarian refreshment rooms. Even the newspaper and book stalls smell good. A whiff of
the train — I later identified it as the odour of rust — still transports me back to those nostalgic rides and
pleasures of travelling with family. My mother packed our meals in banana leaves made pliable over fire
and reinforced with newspaper sheets. The aroma when opening each packet has no parallel, giving you
a ready appetite as the smells of rice and curries and the subtly seared leaves combine to set your mouth
watering.
The smell of air travel mesmerised me in my childhood with its undertone of luxury and tidiness, but novel
notions of nature and greenery rule it out from my nostalgic memories.
The facial masks that now guards us from the virus are the need of the hour, though they suppress our
olfactory peregrinations.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/open-page/led-by-the-nose/article31986365.ece
16. What is the idea that the author is trying to convey in the above passage?
(a) That he has very strong olfactory senses
(b) That he associates everything in his life with the smell of that thing
(c) That due to the pandemic the facial masks act as a hindrance to his olfactory senses. However, the
masks are very important to guard us from the virus
17. What will be the most appropriate title of the above passage?
(a) Led by the nose
(b) Importance of wearing a mask in the Covid-19 pandemic
(c) Best sense: the sense of smell
(d) I love my nose
18. What is the meaning of the term ‘fetid’?

(a) Stinking
(b) Malodorous
(c) Niffing
19. In what sense is the word ‘redolence’ used?

(a) Used to denote sight
(b) Used to denote smell
(c) Used to denote touch
(d) Used to denote sound

MOCK CLAT #14
20. What part of speech does the word ‘brimming’ denote?

(a) Verb
(b) Adverb
(c) Adjective
(d) Noun
Passage (Q.21-Q.25): The art and science of avianbehavior is lost on me. Hence, one summer
afternoon this year, when we found a pigeon hatching an egg in a cosy corner of our balcony, we were
knocked down with a feather. Her partner was flitting around nearby. The bird had chosen a comfortable
maternity seat — a flattish bag of loose soil behind the external air-conditioner unit, away from the April
sun and predators.
The way the parents dedicatedly took turns to incubate the egg set major parenting goals even for
humans. Our eager anticipation kept mounting until we caught the first glimpse of the chick —a scraggly
mess of dark purple and black feathers coiled into a tiny fluff ball. Our joy knew no bounds, and we
named him Popo.
Popo gradually blossomed into a fine young bird, taking his first clumsy, cautious, curious steps on our
balcony floor with trepidation and daring. He picked up the art of flapping his small wings, preening
himself, and letting out sweet chirrups. After a few days of relentless practice, Popo took his first short
flight as my heart skipped a beat and I muttered a silent prayer. His parents would hover around but
would not accompany him anymore. Birds had their own way of weaning, we surmised.
One evening, it started raining very heavily. We looked out for Popo — he was not there. As we craned
our necks out of the balcony, we spotted him precariously perched on the terrace wall of a vacant house
next door. The blinding rain made it impossible for him to spot us or fly back to safety. After a disturbed
and seemingly endless night, I got up at the crack of dawn and ran out to look for Popo. He had
disappeared. But after about an hour, a feeble, familiar twitter suddenly broke my grief. Sitting on the
grille was Popo — wet, sheepish, shaken but certainly not stirred.
Popo has graduated to solo flying and comes with a flock of birds. They hop, skip and jump all over the
balcony, playing around my feet, scooping up grain. Whoever coined the idioms “eat like a bird” or “have
a bird-brain” had not met Popo and company.
For us, each day with Popo brings new joys as we watch in wondrous delight how a tiny egg
metamorphosed itself into a living, breathing creature and taught us life lessons in aiming high.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/open-page/the-bird-in-the-balcony/article33150713.ece
21. In what sense is the word ‘avian’ used?

(a) Of/or relating to land
(b) Of/or relating to bird
(c) Of/or relating to air
(d) Of/or relating to flying
22. What does the author mean by using the phrase ‘major parenting goals’?
(a) That pigeons are great parents.
(b) That the male & the female pigeon take due care of the eggs turn by turn for the betterment of the
chick. This is something the humans should also learn.
(c) That the male pigeon is also very helpful in incubating the eggs.
(d) That the female pigeon is immensely dedicated towards his younger ones.
23. What does the author try to convey when he says ‘Birds had their own way of weaning’?
(a) The author is trying to say that by not accompanying Popo constantly, his parents are preparing him
to face his own fears.
(b) The author is trying to say that once the child is born the parents have a responsibility towards them
and the parent pigeons are completing those responsibilities.
(c) Popo is supposed to learn to fly on his own. The parents have no role to play.

MOCK CLAT #14
24. What is the meaning of the word ‘perched’?

(a) Land
(b) Be located
(c) Stand
(d) Alight
25. What does the idiom ‘eat like a bird’ mean?

(a) Have a wholesome meal
(b) Eat very little
(c) Have a satisfactory meal
(d) Eat in big portions
Passage (Q.26-Q.30): I was lucky to spend my toddler years amid the wilderness of coffee plantations.
Our cottage was located in a valley that fringed a reserve forest area, and our nearest human neighbours
were half a kilometer away.
Elephants visited us often, and lion-tailed macaques ransacked our vegetable garden often. Reptiles
were free to roam as long as they did not find a cosy nook inside the house.
Animal encounters had never surprised us, a family of three. However, one rendezvous stay etched in
our minds.
It was a winter evening with only the sound of distant trumpeting wafting through the still air. The one-
year-old me was deep asleep. From our bedroom window, the grassland atop the mountainside was
visible, and my mother noticed some strange movements there. She saw a deer being chased by a
cackle of hyenas. As they moved closer to our cottage, the pregnant doe was fighting a losing battle.
Hyenas are a clever clan. They had chased the poor doe to exhaustion and were waiting for it to give up.
When the doe staggered towards the clearing in front of our cottage, it must have been tired to the
bones. My mother looked on helplessly from our bedroom window as the hyenas surrounded their prey.
Their cackle, a kind of sneering laughter they make, echoed throughout the valley. The sound woke me
up, a mere tot with the lung capacity of a blue whale. My mother said I gave a blood-curdling scream,
startling the hyenas. The poor doe, I assume, would have been resigned to its fate by then and stood
rooted to the ground. Before the confused hyenas could decide what kind of a weird animal could let
out such a heinous cry, I had caught my breath and with renewed energy, let out another scream. The
hyenas, the whole pack, did not want to risk it, my mother said.
Nothing, not even a plump deer, was worth confronting an animal that had such an awful howl. All of
them took to their heels. Considering that the hyenas were formidable predators and could maul a gaur,
my performance was regaled as spectacular.
The doe, I am sure, is now recounting this tale to her grandchildren, thanking the screaming animal that
had saved her skin.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/open-page/a-cry-that-froze-a-clan/article33150696.ece
26. What is the meaning of the word ‘etched’ in this passage?
(a) To cut a pattern, picture, etc. into a smooth surface.
(b) Impress clearly
(c) To create a very scary impression
(d) Using acid on some surface
27. What part of speech does the word ‘wafting’ represent?

(a) Adjective
(b) Adverb
(c) Verb
(d) Noun
28. Who is the ‘doe’ in the third paragraph that the author is referring to?
(a) A pregnant deer
(b) A pregnant roe
(c) A pregnant rabbit
(d) A pregnant hyena
MOCK CLAT #14
29. What does the idiom ‘fighting a losing battle’ mean?

(a) Trying hard to do something
(b) Giving up on something
(c) To try hard to do something when there is no chance that you will succeed
(d) To try very hard to achieve something and be a winner
30. What does the phrase ‘stood rooted to the ground’ here means?
(a) Gravitation
(b) To lay down
(c) To stand in confidence
(d) So frightened that you cannot move

MOCK CLAT #14
Passage (Q.31-Q.36): Recently, a rapid decline in minimum temperature in Delhi was noted from
14.4 degrees Celsius to 4.1 degrees. The dip was five degrees below the normal temperature for
this time of the year.
What is causing the dip in Delhi’s temperature?
There has been a significant amount of snowfall over the past few days in states falling in the
western Himalayan range Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand under the
influence of a ______[1]____________.
Snowfall in the western Himalayan range means cold, north-westerly winds blowing over Delhi
from the direction of this high altitude area, and clearing of cloud cover with the passing of
______[1]__________, and leads to a fall in temperatures.
The lack of cloud cover also leads to higher radiation from the Earth’s surface into the
atmosphere at night time, which also cools the ground. Moreover, under the influence of an
active ____[2]______ climate pattern, temperatures across the globe have been dipping.
31. Fill in the blank [1] with the appropriate weather phenomenon:
(a) Westerlies
(b) Easterlies
(c) North East Trade Winds
(d) Western Disturbances
32. Fill in the blank [2] with the appropriate climate pattern:
(a) El Nino
(b) La Nina
(c) Jet Streams
(d) Polar Vortex
33. Out of the following states, the Himalayas do not pass through:
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Sikkim
34. Which of the following statements is false with respect to India’s geography?
(a) The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through India.
(b) The Indus does not originate in India.
(c) The Western Coastal Plains are more continuous than the Eastern Coastal Plains.
(d) The major forests found in India are of dry deciduous type.
35. India shares the longest border with which of the following countries?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Bhutan
(d) Afghanistan
36. With reference to El Nino, choose the correct statements:
i. El Niño is accompanied by high air pressure in the western Pacific and low air pressure in the eastern
Pacific.
ii. The cool phase of ENSO is La Niña.
iii. The words El Nino in Spanish mean ‘the boy’.
Options:
(a) i only
(b) ii & iii only
(c) i & iii only
(d) i, ii & iii
MOCK CLAT #14
Passage (Q.37-Q.40): Hundreds of thousands of ethnic minority labourers in China’s

northwestern Xinjiang region are being forced to pick cotton through a coercive state -run
scheme, a report has said.This report is likely to heap more pressure on global brands such as
Nike, Gap and Adidas, which have been accused of using Uighur forced labour in their textile
supply chains.
Human Rights activists have said Xinjiang is home to a vast network of extrajudicial internment
camps that have imprisoned at least one million people, which China has defended as vocationa l
training centres to counter extremism.
Over the past few decades, as economic prosperity has come to Xinjiang, it has brought with it in
large numbers the majority Han Chinese, who have cornered the better jobs, and left the Uighurs
feeling their livelihoods and identity were under threat. This led to sporadic violence, in 2009
culminating in a riot that killed 200 people, mostly Han Chinese, in the region’s capital Urumqi.
And many other violent incidents have taken place since then. Beijing also says Ui ghur groups
want to establish an independent state and, because of the Uighurs’ cultural ties to their
neighbours, leaders fear that elements in places like Pakistan may back a separatist movement
in Xinjiang.
Therefore, the Chinese policy seems to have been one of treating the entire community as
suspect, and launching a systematic project to chip away at every marker of a distinct Uighur
identity.
37. What is the religion of the Uighur people?

(a) Christianity
(b) Shamanism
(c) Islam
(d) Hinduism
38. Which states of India border the Xinjiang province in China?

i. Union Territory of Ladakh
ii. Uttar Pradesh
iii. Sikkim
Options:
(a) i only
(b) i & ii only
(c) i, ii & iii
(d) ii only
39. During the time of the British rule in India, two boundary lines were proposed between India and China in
the Western Sector:
(a) Macmahon Line and Durand Line
(b) Radcliffe Line and Macmahon Line
(c) Macdonald Line and Macmohan Line
(d) Johnson Line and Macdonald Line
40. Which of the following Indian states share a border with China?
i. Himachal Pradesh
ii. Uttarakhand
iii. Arunachal Pradesh
Options:
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) i & iii only
(d) i, ii & iii

MOCK CLAT #14
Passage (Q.41-Q.44): The Maharashtra Shakti Bill, 2020, and the Special Court and Machinery
for Implementation of Maharashtra Shakti Criminal Law, 2020 have been criticised by prominent
women’s rights advocates for being “draconian” and “anti-women”.The activists have said that the
two Bills should have been discussed with lawyers, activists, and academics working on women’s
issues before they were passed by the state Cabinet.
An amendment has been proposed to Section 375 (rape) of the IPC, to add an “explanation” that
says that in cases where parties are adults and their conduct suggest there was “consent or
implied consent”, a presumption of consent will be made. This, the activists say, “feeds into th e
patriarchal construct of consent and conduct of women”.Section 12 of The Special Courts and
Machinery for the Implementation of Shakti Act, 2020, will punish the filing of false complaints.
This, according to the signatories, “perpetuates the patriarchal notions of viewing women with
suspicion, as unworthy of being believed” — and will deter victims from reporting sexual
offences.Besides, the 15 days’ time-frame will not be sufficient for gathering all evidence and will
become an excuse for police to not conduct a proper investigation. A hurried investigation and
trial, they said, is likely to lead to miscarriage of justice.Also, the death penalty in the new law
reduces both the reporting of sexual offences and of conviction rates
41. Which of the following states enacted a progressive bill against rape (Disha Bill) in the year
2019?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Telangana
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
42. Which of the following committees was formed after the Nirbhaya Rape Case in India to give guidelines
as to treatment of the victim and other necessary aspects?
(a) Justice Krishna Iyer Committee
(b) PN Bhagwati Committee
(c) Justice Srikrishna Committee
(d) Justice Verma Committee
43. According the principles of law making as given in the Constitution, if there is a conflict between
a Union Law and a State enacted law, then:
(a) The State Law will prevail since India is a federation in structure.
(b) The Union Law will prevail since India is unitary in spirit.
(c) The President will decide the conflict.
(d) The Parliament will decide the conflict.
44. Which law in India gives death penalty to the rapists?

(a) Indian Penal Code
(b) Code of Criminal Procedure
(c) Indian Evidence Act
(d) Crimes Against Women Act
Passage (Q.45-Q.48): Anthrax was confirmed as the cause of the death of two female elephants
a week ago in the Joypur rainforest in Assam. The two elephants died after ingesting anthrax
spores that can remain buried underground for 25-30 years.
Following this, the authorities have undertaken a drive to vaccinate livestock around this area.
This is the second case of anthrax in the State after two Asiatic water buffaloes died in the
Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary in October 2019.
Anthrax has been used in biological warfare by agents and by terrorists to intentionally infect. It
was spread in US through a mail. It killed 5 people and made 22 sick.
In June last year, DRDO and JNU scientists developed a potent Anthrax vaccine. They Claim
new vaccine superior than existing ones as it can generate immune response to anthrax toxin as
well as spores.

MOCK CLAT #14
45. Anthrax is caused by:

(a) Bacteria
(b) Virus
(c) Fungi
(d) Plasmodium
46. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Anthrax?
i. People can get anthrax from contact with infected animals, wool, meat, or hides.
ii. It does not spread directly from one infected animal or person to another; it is spread by
spores.
Options:
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) Both i & ii
(d) Neither i nor ii
47. Which of the following wildlife sanctuaries/national parks are located in Assam?
i. Namdapha Wildlife Sanctuary
ii. Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary
iii. Manas National Park
Options:
(a) i only
(b) ii & iii only
(c) i & ii only
(d) i, ii & iii
48. Which of the following diseases are caused by bacteria?

i. Plague
ii. Tuberculosis
iii. Measles
Options:
(a) i only
(b) ii & iii only
(c) i & ii only
(d) i, ii & iii
Passage (Q.49-Q.53): India dropped two ranks in the United Nations’ Human Development Index this
year, standing at (1) out of 189 countries. However, if the Index were adjusted to assess the planetary
pressures caused by each nation’s development, India would move up eight places in the ranking,
according to the report.
For the first time, it was introduced a new metric to reflect the impact caused by each country’s per-capita
carbon emissions and its material footprint, which measures the amount of fossil fuels, metals and other
resources used to make the goods and services it consumes. This paints a “less rosy, but clearer
assessment” of human progress, said India’s representative Shoko Nada.
Norway, which tops the HDI, falls 15 places if this metric is used, leaving (3) at the top of the table. In
fact, 50 countries would drop entirely out of the “very high human development group” category, using
this new metric, called the HDI, or PHDI. Australia falls 72 places in the ranking, while the United States
and Canada would fall 45 and 40 places respectively, reflecting their disproportionate impact on natural
resources. The oil and gas-rich Gulf States also fell steeply. China would drop 16 places from its current
ranking of 85.
China’s net emissions (8 gigatonnes) are 34% below its territorial emissions (12.5 gigatonnes) compared
with 19% in India and 15% in Sub-Saharan Africa.
“No country has yet been able to achieve a very high level of development without putting a huge strain
on natural resources. We have to be the first generation to do things right,” said Ms. Nada. She praised

MOCK CLAT #14
India’s record in achieving its carbon emissions goals so far, and urged Indian policy makers to take the
path of sustainable development.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-ranks-131-in-2020-un-human-development-
index/article33348091.ece
49. What India ranked in HDI 2020?

(a) 136
(b) 135
(c) 138
(d) 131
50. Under which agreement India pledged to reduce the emission intensity of its GDP from the 2005 level by
33-35 percent by 2030?
(a) Paris agreement
(b) Bonn agreement
(c) Kyoto protocol
(d) Convention on GDP and GHG
51. Fill in the blank [3]?

(a) Switzerland
(b) Finland
(c) Ireland
(d) Netherlands
52. The new metric PHDI stands for?

(a) Planetary-Pressures Adjusted HDI
(b) Planet-Preserves Adjusted HDI
(c) Planet-Prevent Adjusted HDI
(d) Planetary-Preserves Adjusted HDI
53. The HDI report is released by ?

(a) UNICEF
(b) UNDP
(c) UNHCR
(d) UNEP
Passage (Q.54-Q.58):The first of three stealth frigates, Himgiri, being built by the (1) under Project (2)
for the Navy was launched into water on Monday. In Goa, the 5th and the last of the Offshore Patrol
Vessels (OPV) in the series, Saksham, being built at Goa Shipyard Limited, was launched into water and
is expected to be delivered to the Coast Guard by October 2021.
Under project ships with a displacement of around 6,670 tonnes will be the most advanced state-of-the-
art guided missile frigates once inducted, said in a statement. The contract for construction of three
stealth frigates under Project is valued at over ₹19,293 crore.
This project is unique that it is being built simultaneously at two locations, in Kolkata and Mazgaon Docks
Limited in Mumbai. Fincantieri of Italy is the knowhow provider for technology upgrade and capability
enhancement in this project.
Advanced stage
The indigenous OPV project was launched on November 13, 2016. Since then two vessels have been
commissioned and all five have been launched, the ICG said in a statement
“In spite of the ongoing COVID-19 situation and disruptions in supply chains, it is creditable for the
shipyard to complete the 100% hull construction and launch the vessel within 18 months from keel laying
which was in June 2019,” the ICG said. The vessel is in advanced stage of outfitting and will be ready for
delivery by October 2021, as per the contractual schedule, it added.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/stealth-frigate-himgiri-for-navy-launched-into-
water/article33328052.ece

MOCK CLAT #14

(a) Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers
(b) Great Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers
(c) Grade Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers
(d) Gear Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers
55. What is the project called under which Himgiri is launched?

(a) Project 17A
(b) Project 16A
(c) Project 17B
(d) Project 16B
56. The ship was launched into the waters of?

(a) Damodar
(b) Hooghly
(c) Ganga
(d) Jhelum
57. The project was approved by the Government of India in which year?
(a) 2012
(b) 2014
(c) 2016
(d) 2015
58. Earlier Himgiri was commissioned into the Indian Navy in 1974 and decommissioned in which year?
(a) 2001
(b) 2005
(c) 2003
(d) 2010
Passage (Q.59-Q.63): (2) will host the World Economic Forum's (WEF) annual meeting next May,
which will see top political, business and academic leaders gather to discuss pressing global issues.
Announcing its decision to shift the annual forum from Switzerland in view of the Covid-19 situation in
Europe, the WEF said last night that the meeting in host country "will be the first global leadership event
to address worldwide recovery from the pandemic".
The WEF said it decided host country was best placed to host the meeting in the light of the current
Covid-19 situation worldwide.
host country Ministry of Trade and Industry (MTI) said on Monday (Dec 7) that the WEF's decision
reflects its confidence in the country's management of the Covid-19 pandemic and will also boost the
Republic's meetings and conferences sector.
host country had two community cases in the past week.
Said WEF founder and executive chairman (1): "A global leadership summit is of crucial importance to
address how we can recover together.
The Special Annual Meeting 2021 will be a place for leaders from business, government and civil society
to meet in person for the first time since the start of the global pandemic. Public-private cooperation is
needed more than ever to rebuild trust and address the fault lines that emerged in 2020."
Hosting the WEF will give a boost to host country 's meetings, incentives, conferences and exhibitions
(Mice) sector and other sectors like hospitality, said MTI.
It will be held from May 13 to 16 next year, before returning to (4) , Switzerland, in 2022.
Source: https://www.straitstimes.com/singapore/world-economic-forum-to-be-held-in-singapore-in-may
(a) Klaus Martin Schwab
(b) Michael porter
(c) Thierry malleret
(d) George soros
MOCK CLAT #14
60. Which country is hosting the WEF annual meeting?

(a) Iceland
(b) Singapore
(c) Thailand
(d) France
61. This is only the second time since its inception that the event, it will be hosted outside Switzerland. The
inception year is?
(a) 1989
(b) 1971
(c) 1995
(d) 2001

(a) Arosa
(b) Churr
(c) Davos
(d) zermatt
63. Where is the headquarters of WEF ?

(a) Confignon
(b) Collonge-Bellerive
(c) Geneva
(d) Cologny
Passage (Q.64-Q.68): After (2), Lakshadweep is the first Union Territory to become 100 per cent
organic as all farming is carried out without the use of synthetic fertilisers and pesticides, providing
access to safer food choices and making agriculture a more environment-friendly activity. The ministry of
agriculture has declared the island as organic.
“Lakshadweep can benefit much from marketing organic products such as desiccated coconut and
coconut milk. The organic tag will allow farmers to realize a premium for the farm produce there,” said OP
Mishra, Secretary, agriculture, Lakshadweep.
Coconut is the only major crop on the islands. There are eight lakh coconut trees that produce 11 crore
coconuts in a year. Besides, horticulture crops such as brinjal, spinach, Banana, Drumstick, Pumpkin,
Chillies, Snake Gourd, Cucumber, Beans, Ladyfinger, Ridge Gourd, Papaya, Watermelon are grown but
in very small quantities. As per data,1500-2000 tons of vegetables are grown through natural processes.
The coconut palms are grown under natural surroundings. As per data, there are 12450 farmers in the
island.
In a communique to Secretary, ( agriculture) Lakshadweep, the agriculture ministry said, “After going
through the evidences and certificates provided by the administration of UT, competent authority has
approved the proposal for declaration of the entire territory of Lakshadweep as organic”.
Source: https://www.dailypioneer.com/2020/india/lakshadweep-first-ut-to-become-100--organic.html
64. Which one was the first state to launch Organic Farming Policy in the year 2000?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Kerala
(d) Uttarakhand
65. fill in the blank ( refer 2)

(a) Rajasthan
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Sikkim
(d) Kerala

MOCK CLAT #14
66. 1/3rd area of the island Lakshadweep was certified as organic in which year?
(a) 2014
(b) 2015
(c) 2011
(d) 2012
67. The Union Territory has acquired the “100% organic” certification with the help of the central
government’s scheme known as?
(a) ParamparagatKrishiVikasYojana
(b) Stand Up India Scheme
(c) Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana
(d) Pradhan MantriSurakshaBimaYojana (PMSBY)
68. Under the PGS , the entire islands has been declared as an organic agriculture area.what does PGS
stands for?
(a) Part Guarantee System
(b) Participatory Get System
(c) Participate General System
(d) Participatory Guarantee System

MOCK CLAT #14
Passage (Q.69-Q.73): A contract is an agreement enforceable by law. [Section 2(h) of The Indian
Contract Act, 1872]. For every contract, there should be an agreement that is made by the free consent
of parties competent to contract, for a lawful consideration and with a lawful object. The agreement
should not be declared void hereby to form a contract. This definition of contracts as per Indian Contract
Act, 1872 is based on Sir Pollock’s definition which states that every agreement and promise enforceable
at law is a contract. Thus for the formation of a contract, there must be an agreement and something in
addition to that, i.e., an agreement, and its enforceability at law.
The word contingent ordinarily means ‘subject to chance’. In the Indian Contract Act, 1872, this word has
been used to mean conditional, just the way we use it generally. Uncertainty is the hall-mark of the future.
Estimating the chances of an uncertainty becoming certain, calculating the results if the event doesn’t
happen and then measuring the potentiality to deal with its consequences are all about contingent
contracts. Parties may stipulate that performance of obligations under a contract is dependent on a
contingency, even though the contract is validly formed. The parties agreeing to the conditions agree that
the rights will be enforced and the obligations will be due on the happening of the contingency on the
contracting of a valid contract.
Section 31 to 36 of The Indian Contract Act, 1872 deal with this type of contract. Section 31 of the Act
defines ‘contingent contract’ thus:
A contingent contract is a contract to do or not to do something, if some event, collateral to such contract
does or does not happen.
Every contingent contract is thus a contract primarily. Like any other contract, it is also a contract to do or
not to do something. It is not, however, an absolute and unconditional one, without any reservations or
conditions, which is to be performed under any event. Its performance is dependent on some event’s
happening or not happening- the contingency.
[Yashu Bansal, Contingent Contracts https://www.lawctopus.com/academike/contingent-contracts/]
69. ABC is a renowned insurance company. Y approaches the company for fire insurance policy for his
godown. The policy states that an amount of Rs 50,000 shall be provided in case the godown is burnt.
Decide whether this would be a contingent contract.
(a) The contract is contingent in nature as there is an element of uncertainty of the event.
(b) The contract is not contingent but compensatory in nature.
(c) The contract is not contingent but holds a guarantee element.
(d) The contract is not contingent as the terms are uncertain to be called valid.
70. Dhara is a bookmaker and promoter who takes interest in the new entrants in the Derby. She comes to
know about the bank loan of Geeti and her default. She suggests her to put some amount on the racing
business in the adjacent turfs. Further, Dhara tells Geeti that if her horse wins then she will buy her horse
and pay out the loan. However, in case she loses then Dhara will forfeit the horse. Geeti’s horse wins and
now she is claiming the amount. Decide.
(a) The claim is justified as it was a contingent contract.
(b) The claim is not justified as Dhara did not intend to create a legal obligation.
(c) The claim is not justified as it is not legally enforceable.
(d) The claim is justified as the agreement was entered into by the free consent of the parties.
71. Badri is a renowned businessman who promises to give a huge donation of Rs 20lakh to Sumit for the
construction of a library. Based on this, Sumit took a loan and initiated the construction work. Badri was
unaware of the progress so undertaken. Now, Badri is reluctant to make the payment. Decide the validity
of the contract.
(a) The contract is not valid as it lacked consideration.
(b) The contract is not valid as the promise has no value in the eyes of law.
(c) The contract is valid as the promise was based on consideration.
(d) The contract is valid as it was for a lawful object.

MOCK CLAT #14
72. Free consent cannot be obtained when it is obtained by means of:

(a) Mistake of law
(b) Unilateral Mistake in an agreement
(c) Misrepresentation
73. EasyPay Bank lends an amount of Rs. 50,000 to Balwant to be awarded as a prize to Nisha for winning
the horse race. Later, Bhanu refuses to pay claiming it to be based on wager and betting therefore void in
its very nature. EasyPay Bank decides to claim the amount. Decide.
(a) The claim will not succeed as it is not a contingent contract but wager.
(b) The claim will not succeed as the interest of associated parties is limited to monetary aspects.
(c) The claim will succeed as it is a collateral contract.
(d) The claim will succeed as the arrangement is between EasyPay and Balwant.
Passage (Q.74-Q.78): A petition has been filed in the Supreme Court challenging the constitutionality of
several provisions of the Special Marriage Act, 1954. The provisions of the Act which call for making
public the personal details of the couple intending to marry seriously damage one’s right to have control
over personal information, the plea contends. Section 5 of the Act requires that a notice of intended
marriage is given by the parties to the Marriage Officer of the district where at least one of the parties to
the marriage has resided for a period of not less than thirty days immediately preceding the date on
which such notice is given. Section 6 mandates that all such notices received shall be entered in the
marriage notice book and the Marriage Officer shall publish a notice by affixing a copy thereof.
The provisions also allow anyone to submit objections to the marriage and empower the Marriage Officer
to inquire into such objections. The requirement of notice before marriage is absent in the Hindu Marriage
Act, 1955, and Customary laws in Islam. Therefore, the said provision is also discriminatory and violative
of Article 14 of the Constitution of India.
It states that the impugned provisions, by throwing the personal information of the individuals open to
public scrutiny, seriously damage one’s right to have control over her or his personal information and its
accessibility.
[Source: Chilling effect on the Right to Marry: Petition filed in SC challenging provisions of Special
Marriage Act on disclosure of details, Debayan Roy, Sept 3, 2020,
https://www.barandbench.com/news/litigation/petition-supreme-court-challenging-provisions-of-
special-marriage-act]
74. Praveen and Shilpa want to elope from their houses to another city and decide to get married by the
registrar as they both belong to different religions. They reached the registrar’s office only to be denied
certification. Decide.
(a) They could not because there is objection against their marriage.
(b) They could not as neither of them is a residents of the city.
(c) They could not as Special Marriage Act, is just court marriage, not for eloping couples.
(d) They can as they fulfill all requirements about the Special Marriage Act.
75. Mary and John are practicing Christians and want to get married by a court official. However when
informed for a period to file a notice seeking any objection they found it to disagreeable. Christianity
however has a provision for asking for objections before confirming the matrimony. Can they file a
petition against it?
(a) No they cannot as it would be violative of SMA.
(b) No they cannot as their religion permits the validity of seeking objection.
(c) Yes they cannot as their religion is unlike Hinduism and Islam allows for such rituals.
(d) Yes they can as it’s a violation of fundamental rights.

MOCK CLAT #14
76. Parveez and Meena’s union as couple was frowned upon in their respective communities because they
belonged to the different religions. From the above para select the argument that dissuades their
publication of information under section 6.
(a) It is against both their religious belief to have such publication.
(b) It is against their privacy to have such public scrutiny of their relationship.
(c) It is unlawful to publish such statements as under other acts there is no such requirement.
(d) None of the above can be used to dissuade such publication.
77. Article 21 enshrines the fundamental right to life and personal liberty, the above petition states that these
provisions are in violation of article 14. Select the arguments that could help them favor Article 21 from
the given options.
(a) The right to live with dignity as without public scrutiny of your choices.
(b) The right to exercise, freedom of religious belief and faith.
(c) The right to secure your privacy and information from public eye.
78. Rahul and Meena are in a relationship and they are both Hindus, but want to register their marriage
under Special Marriage Act, hence they submit a notice, fulfill the perquisite of Section 5. However under
the public notice, certain objections are bought forth to their union, based on the law who has the
adjudication power to confirm the same?
(a) The parties of the union, to justify their stance.
(b) The marriage officer after through inquiry into the matter.
(c) The courts, after the verdict of the petition filed.
(d) The parties who raised such objection.
Passage (Q.79-Q.84): Plea Bargaining, in the most traditional and general sense, refers to a pre-trial
negotiation between the defendant, who is represented by a counsel and the prosecution, during which
the defendant agrees to plead guilty in exchange for certain concessions by the prosecutor. Plea
Bargaining is further divided into two categories – "charge bargaining", where the negotiation is to reduce
or dismiss some of the charges brought against the defendant in exchange for a guilty plea and
"sentence bargaining", where the prosecutor promises to recommend a specific sentence or refrain from
making any sentence recommendation defendant in exchange for a guilty plea. Despite its resounding
success in the countries like the United States of America, there were divided opinions with respect to
introducing Plea Bargaining in the Indian criminal justice system. In this article, we will examine all the
concerns raised at various public institutions in India with respect to introducing Plea Bargaining in India
so that we can proceed, very cautiously to dovetail interests of the society and met demands of the
justice system.
The Indian Parliament on Plea Bargaining Plea Bargaining was included in the Code of Criminal
Procedure (Cr.P.C) under chapter 21A from Section 265A to Section 265L through the Criminal Law
(Amendment) Act, 2005 (2 of 2006) on with effect from 5th July, 2006 as a prescription to the problem of
overcrowded jails, overburdened courts and abnormal delays.
Now, more than ever, India is at crossroads. With innovative investigative tools and the use of technology
in pinning down criminal involvement, plea bargaining has a very important role to play in the dispensing
of justice- both to the victim and the accused. Its benefits are certainly many. Nonetheless, we need a set
of clear and decisive guidelines taking into account the concerns vis-à-vis plea bargaining. It has to be a
fair deal- for all.
Following are the silent features of Plea Bargaining;
1. It is applicable in respect of those offences for which punishment is up to a period of 7 years.
2. It does not apply to cases where offence is committed against a woman or a child below the age of 14
years
3. When court passes an order in the case of plea bargaining no appeal shall lie to any court against
that order.
4. It reduces the charge.
5. It drops multiple counts and press only one charge.
6. It makes recommendation to the courts about punishment or sentence.

MOCK CLAT #14
Plea Bargaining can be described as a process whereby the accused may bargain with the prosecution
for a lesser punishment. In simple words, Plea Bargaining is an agreement (contract) between the
accused and the prosecution regarding disposition of the criminal charge leveled by the prosecution
against the accused. In layman’s language, it is bargaining done by the accused of a serious and severe
offence, with the authority for a lighter punishment in lieu of a full- fledged trial.
[Source: (edited): https://www.livelaw.in/know-the-law/plea-bargaining-in-india-156160]
79. A man Mr. X is accused of killing his wife. While there is no concrete evidence put up against him yet, the
counsel of Mr. X asks him to admit to the guilt and get a lesser sentence in case of a trial, as the
punishment for it could lead to life imprisonment. Should Mr. X agree?
(a) No, as there is no concrete evidence Mr. X would not be penalized in the first place.
(b) Yes, as this could lead to serve a shorter sentence.
(c) No, as this deal would not be valid in the first place.
(d) Yes, as Mr. X should heed to his counsel’s advice as he has better legal knowledge than him.
80. A man Mr. Z agrees to plea bargain with the prosecution and lessened his sentence from 7 to 4 years.
Later he realized that the police did not garner enough evidence against him. Can he revoke his deal?
(a) No, as a plea bargained for cannot be revoked.
(b) No, as a plea bargained for cannot be appealed.
(c) Yes, as he was never going to be convicted in the first instance.
(d) Yes, as he was not going to be released due to the lack of evidence.
81. Raghav a 17 year old boy committed an offence which had a sentence for 6 years as punishment under
the Indian Penal Code. Can he plead guilty and ask for a plea bargaining deal?
(a) No, he cannot as he is a minor.
(b) Yes, he can as minors and children under 14 cannot be tired for offences.
(c) Yes, he can, as it’s not an offence under the Indian Penal Code.
(d) Yes he can as the offence he committed was for under 6 years of punishment.
82. Shikha committed an offence under Narcotics and Drugs Act of India and was charged for a probable
punishment of 14 years. Can she ask for a Plea Bargaining Deal?
(a) No she cannot as offences for under 14 years cannot fall under the law.
(b) No, as her offence is not criminalized under Indian Penal Code.
(c) Yes, as her offence is not criminalized under Indian Penal Code.
(d) No, as the offence has punishment for over 7 years.
83. In a situation where a person is charged with more than one offence, wherein some have a punishment
less than 7 years but some more than 7 will he be eligible for Plea Bargaining?
(a) No, as to get the effect of plea bargaining the offences have to be less than 7 years.
(b) Yes, as plea bargaining can help him drop multiple charges for just one charge
(c) Yes, as it could reduce the charges for his other offences that could lead to imprisonment over 7
years.
(d) No, as this is a provision only for the case of a singular offence, not multiple offences.
84. Person H committed an offence with a punishment of no less than 3 years of imprisonment. He was put
on trial without being told of the option of plea bargaining. Can he invoke this right mid trial?
(a) Yes, as plea bargaining is tool to replace the necessity of going through a full-fledged trial.
(b) No, as once the order is given you cannot plea or revoke the plea bargaining agreement.
(c) Yes, as he was not aware of his rights hence his counsel should be blamed for it not the accused.
(d) Can’t say based on the above information.

MOCK CLAT #14
Passage (Q.85-Q.90): “A new law ought to be prospective, not retrospective in its operation.”
Ordinarily, a legislature has power to make prospective laws, but Art.20 of the Indian Constitution, 1950
provides certain safeguards to the persons accused of crime and so Art. 20(1) of the Indian constitution
imposes a limitation on the law making power of the constitution. It prohibits the legislature to make
retrospective criminal laws however it does not prohibit a civil liability retrospectively i.e. with effect from a
past date. So a tax can be imposed retrospectively. Clause (1) of the Article 20 of the Indian Constitution
guarantees rights against ex-post facto laws. It provides that
“ no person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the
commission of the act charged as an offence, nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might
have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence.”
The retrospective operation of an enactment may mean one thing and its affecting the rights of parties
another. Normally, an enactment is prospective in nature. It does not affect that which has gone, or
completed and closed up already. Ordinarily, the presumption with respect to an enactment is that,
unless there is something in it to show that it means otherwise, it deals with future contingencies, and
does not annul or affect existing rights and liabilities or vested rights, or obligations already acquired
under some provisions of law although its effect is that it does not affect an existing right as well. If an
enactment expressly provides that it should be deemed to have come into effect from a past date, it is
retrospective in nature. It then operates to affect existing rights and obligations, and is construed to take
away, impair or curtail, a vested right which had been acquired under some existing law. If an enactment
is intended to be retrospective in operation, and also in effect, the legislature must expressly, and in clear
and unequivocal language, say so, in the enactment itself. A retrospective operation is not given to a
statute, so as to impair an existing right or obligation, otherwise than as regards matters of procedure
unless that effect cannot be avoided without doing violence to the language of the enactment. If the
enactment is expressed in a language which is capable of either interpretation, it ought to be construed
prospectively.
[Source: http://www.legalservicesindia.com/article/517/Prospective-Vs.-Retrospective.html]
85. A law was passed criminalizing begging on the signals. A lot of people previously known to have been
doing this were rounded by the police and put under custody. Were they right in doing so?
(a) No, as this is against the criminal procedure code.
(b) No as this is against the Article 20 of the Indian Constitution.
(c) No, as this is against the rules of retrospective laws.
(d) No, as this is against the rules of arrest and evidence.
86. Section 234D of the Act was introduced by the Finance Act, 2003 with effect from June 1, 2003, wherein
an assessed getting a refund under the provisional assessment and liable to pay up the same on the
regular assessment is liable to return the same with interest at 18 per cent per annum from the date of
the refund to the date of the regular assessment. Will this law be applied prospectively?
(a) No, as taxation laws can be read and applied retrospectively.
(b) Yes, as it does not mention any explicit application of retrospective application.
(c) Yes, as it mentions the date from which it would have effect.
(d) No, as since it talks about all refunds hence it could be operated even retrospectively.
87. A law was brought into force claiming that any person engaged in the activity of importing coffee beans
from certain nations listed by the government would be penalized under the Custom Duty Act with hefty
fines. Would this law have a retrospective or prospective effect?
(a) It would be retrospective as it’s a civil law which imposes fines.
(b) It would be prospective as its Article 20 state all laws have to be prospective in nature.
(c) It would be retrospective as the act does not explicitly mention if it would have a prospective
operation.
(d) It would be prospective as it’s a penal offence and it cannot have retrospective operation unless
explicitly mentioned.

MOCK CLAT #14
88. Supreme Court of India Decriminalized Sec 377 of the IPC which made anyone participating in
homosexuality an offence as it was against the fundamental rights of the land. The legislation passed a
law, explicitly stating that 377 would still be intact and functioning, retrospectively to the judgment of the
Supreme Court. Is this a valid law?
(a) It would be valid as the law mentions that it has a retrospective operation till the time the judgment
was declared.
(b) It would be unconstitutional as they cannot bring a law retrospectively to overhaul a fundamental
right.
(c) It would be invalid as criminal laws cannot be retrospective in nature and Art 20 states that in case of
penalty it has to be according to the current interpretation only.
(d) It would be valid as the legislature has the power to make anything an offence and penalize it.
89. An Emergency was declared in the State of Madhya Pradesh, which suspended the law securing right of
publishers to be void of censorship regime. A journalist was stripped of his license to print his articles
during this time as it was against this fundamental right to speech and expression. Will his suit sustain?
(a) No, it wouldn’t as a person can be penalized for his action with any law in force at the time
(b) Yes, as it was against his fundamental right to speech and expression.
(c) No, as there is no retrospective saving clause for prior to emergency period and he would be
penalized according to the current law.
(d) Yes, as even during emergency the media and newspapers run full time eg. COVID crisis.
90. In the new budget, the tax slab of payment was altered to benefit the tax payer, it increased the limit of
exemption from payment of tax to 5,00,000 p.a. instead of 2,50,000 p.a. The taxation authorities deemed
it to be those taxpayers who started earning post this amendment, and taxpayers deemed it to everyone
post this amendment. Whose interpretation would you follow?
(a) The taxpayers as there is no explicit mention of retrospective operation.
(b) The taxpayers as there is no explicit mention of excluding any earners.
(c) The tax authorities as taxation statutes have retrospective operation.
(d) The tax authorities as they are the final assessors of the taxation amounts.
Passage (Q.91-Q.95): There is an inflamed controversy as to when judges should recuse themselves
from hearing a case. By now this should be reasonably obvious. But the controversy has been brought to
the fore by unhappiness that Justice Arun Mishra refused to recuse himself in a case on which he had
admittedly strong views stated in a Supreme Court judgment on the subject of the manner of payment of
compensation to be awarded in certain classes of cases under the old Land Acquisition Act 1894. It
would be difficult to sustain a broad proposition that judges with strong views, or for that matter strong
views on a particular area, should never hear cases on which they have strong views.
Can lawyers object to judges hearing a matter? Usually not. But lawyers do tell judges to consider
whether there is a conflict of interest or because there are other reasons for the judge or bench not to
hear the matter. Indeed, some judges recuse themselves if they feel there is a case for doing so. In the
Babri first appeal case, Justice U.U. Lalit was reminded that he had appeared in an earlier criminal case
concerning Babri as evidenced by the orders showing his appearance in the criminal case. On bringing
this to the judge’s notice without any allegation of bias, Justice Lalit decided to recuse himself as a matter
of propriety and within what I call the 1% rule. I think that it is the duty of lawyers to give voice to their
bonafide apprehensions. The emphasis is on the word ‘bonafide’ not on unscrupulous forum shopping.
There is one other matter that needs discussion. Sometimes, judges take the unusual stance which goes
something like this: “I know that I should not hear this case, but if you lawyers agree, I will proceed to
hear it and pass judgment”. With this, the onus passes on the lawyer to agree to an impropriety. At this
juncture, what is the lawyer to say? For many reasons, lawyers agree to the judge hearing the case
because they do not want to attack the judge for unfairness, or prejudice their client’s case, or anger the
judge in respect of future appearances before him or her.

MOCK CLAT #14
For the present, it needs to be said that the lawyers were right to express their apprehensions about
Justice Mishra’s inclusion in the bench hearing the land acquisition case. Then-Chief Justice Gogoi could
have resolved the problem but did not. Justice Arun Mishra’s long judgment in his own case begs
precisely the question of propriety which lawyers placed before him in a bench that was not fairly
constituted. Eventually, even his colleagues’ defence of his stance was half-hearted, guarded and
contradictory. Justice was ill served by the judges closing ranks to defend a colleague.
[Extracted from ‘Judges and Recusal: The Issue Is Propriety, Not Bias’, Editorial at The Wire.]
91. Which of the following is the correct argument of the author as per the above passage?
(a) The question of propriety or impropriety is for the lawyers to decide who appear before an apparently
unfairly constituted bench.
(b) The lawyers did not want Justice Arun Mishra to preside over the matter as they apprehended
unfairness, or prejudice towards their client’s case, or anger the judge in respect of future
appearances before him or her.
(c) The decision of Justice Arun Mishra to preside over his own judgment and not recuse from the matter
places a question mark on the accepted practice in the judiciary.
(d) That is because judges with strong views, or for that matter strong views on a particular area, should
never hear cases on which they have strong views.
92. What is the major reason behind the demand for Justice Arun Mishra’s recusal from hearing the case?
(a) His prior involvement in the case gives rise to the issue of conflict of interest and an element on bias.
(b) His unhappiness and unwillingness to recuse himself from hearing the Land Acquisition matter.
(c) His strong views on the matter, and thus should never hear cases on which they have strong views.
(d) The provisions of the 1% rule due to which Justice Lalit recused himself from the Babri Masjid Case.
93. Why did Justice U.U. Lalit recuse himself from the BabriMashid case appeal?
(a) Because of the 1% rule relating to the recusal of judges established by commonly accepted practice.
(b) Because of his strong views on the matter which were expressed in the earlier judgment.
(c) Because he did not want the lawyers to point out the chances of want unfairness, or prejudice their
client’s case.
(d) Because he was made aware of him involvement in an earlier criminal case concerning Babri matter.
94. In the case where there is an apparent conflict of interest or reason of bias due to the involvement of a
judge, what is the duty of the lawyers?
(a) To clearly allege the said judge for unfairness and prejudice in his client’s case irrespective of his
future appearances before him or her.
(b) To not say anything in this regard and let the judges decide the fate of their involvement in the said
matter.
(c) To assess the propriety in the judge’s involvement and accordingly allow him to proceed with the
matter and pass the judgment.
(d) To give voice to their bonafide apprehensions relating to the judge’s involvement and not
unscrupulously.
95. What does the author feels the lawyer does when the onus of impropriety in shifted on them by the
judges.
(a) The lawyers will surely raise their voice if they have bonafide apprehensions regarding the
involvement of the judge in the given case.
(b) The lawyers allow the judge to hear the matter as they do not want to attack the judge for unfairness,
or prejudice their client’s case, or anger the judge in respect of future appearances before him or her.
(c) The lawyers do not allow the judge to hear the matter upholding the commonly established practice in
the judiciary.
(d) The lawyers should precisely beg the question of propriety before the bench that was not

MOCK CLAT #14
Passage (Q.96-Q.100): A decree of restitution of conjugal rights implies that the guilty party is ordered to
live with the aggrieved party. Restitution of conjugal rights is the only remedy which could be used by the
deserted spouse against the other. A husband or wife can file a petition for restoration of their rights to
cohabit with the other spouse. But the execution of the decree of restitution of conjugal rights is very
difficult. The court though is competent to pass a decree of restitution of conjugal rights, but it is
powerless to have its specific performance by any law. The non-compliance of the issued decree results
to constructive destruction on the part of the erring spouse. At present as per the provisions available
under the Indian personal laws, the aggrieved party move a petition for a decree of divorce after one year
from the date of the passing of the decree and the competent court can pass a decree of divorce in
favour of the aggrieved party. The decree of restitution of conjugal rights can be enforced by the
attachment of property, and if the party complained against still does not comply, the Court may also
punish him or her for contempt of court. But under no circumstances the court can force the erring
spouse to consummate marriage. Decree of restitution of conjugal rights could be passed in case of valid
marriages only. Under all personal law, the requirements of the provision of restitution of conjugal rights
are the following:
a. The withdrawal by the respondent from the society of the petitioner.
b. The withdrawal is without any reasonable cause or excuse or lawful ground.
c. There should be no other legal ground for refusal of the relief.
d. The court should be satisfied about the truth of the statement made in the petition by the petitioner
(Source: Indian National Bar association)
Based on the understanding of the passage and assuming that everything mentioned in the questions is
true, answer the following: (The first three questions are in continuation of the same factual matrix)
96. Atul was an abusive husband. He would come late to home at nights, heavily drunk and force himself on
his wife Mridula. Mridula had been facing the atrocities of her marital home for quite some time now.
However, she would endure everything without any complaints as she believed that her husband loved
her nevertheless. On March 2019, Mridula caught her husband cheating on her. There was a violent
altercation between that ended in Atul slapping Mridula and storming out of the house. Months passed
and there was no communication from Atul. He had completely cut off his ties from Mridula and had
started living with his mistress. Mridula tried contacting him but every time she would be rebuffed. She
filed for a petition of restitution of conjugal rights.
(a) Her petition would fail as it a case of domestic violence
(b) The withdrawal by her husband is justified as there was clearly a matrimonial discord between them.
(c) Her petition will sustain as her spouse has withdrawn from the society without any reasonable cause
or lawful excuse.
(d) Both (a) and (b).
97. In the above question, Mridula and Atul mutually decided to part their ways. However, both of them were
reluctant to file for divorce. Atul nevertheless started living with his mistress. After months of living with
his mistress, he realized that this is not something that makes him happy and he would rather go back to
resume his matrimonial home with Mridula. When he discussed the same with his mistress she got angry
and threatened to file for a decree of RCR.
(a) Her petition is not maintainable as Atul has reasonable grounds to withdraw from her society
(b) Her petition is not maintainable
(c) The withdrawal from her society has not yet taken place. Atul is only at the stage of contemplation.
Therefore, she can’t file for RCR at this stage.
98. Atul decides to move back with his wife however she blatantly refused to resume cohabitation with him.
After, a lot of unsuccessful attempts at convincing his wife,Atul finally moved the court with the petition of
Restitution of Conjugal rights.
(a) His petition will fail as it was a mutual decision of both the spouses to part their ways
(b) There is a valid and reasonable excuse for Mridula to not resume cohabitation with her husband
MOCK CLAT #14
99. Based, on the understanding of the passage what is the recourse available to the aggrieved party under
the petition of RCR?
(a) The aggrieved party gets a portion from the property of the party complaint against
(b) The court may order the specific performance of the decree
(c) The aggrieved party, on the refusal of the other party to oblige by the decree, gets a ground to
divorce the party complaint against
100. Based on the inferences drawn from the paragraph the non-compliance of the decree leads to:
(a) Annulment of marriage if the non-compliance persists for more than six months
(b) Lapse of the decree of RCR
(c) Attachment of property of the complying party
Passage (Q.101-Q.106): In Sodan Singh v. New Delhi Municipal Committee, the five-judge bench of
the Supreme Court distinguished the concept of life and liberty within Art.21 from the right to carry on any
trade or business, a fundamental right conferred by Art. 19(1)(g) and held the right to carry on trade or
business is not included in the concept of life and personal liberty. Article 21 is not attracted in the case of
trade and business.
The petitioners, hawkers doing business off the paved roads in Delhi, had claimed that the refusal by the
Municipal authorities to them to carry on the business of their livelihood amounted to the violation of their
right under Article 21 of the Constitution. The court opined that while hawkers have a fundamental right
under Article 19(1) (g) to carry on trade or business of their choice; they have no right to do so in a
particular place. They cannot be permitted to carry on their trade on every road in the city. If the road is
not wide enough to be conveniently accommodating the traffic on it, no hawking may be permitted at all
or may be permitted once a week.
Footpaths, streets or roads are public property and are intended to several general public and are not
meant for private use. However, the court said that the affected persons could apply for relocation and
the concerned authorities were to consider the representation and pass orders thereon. The two rights
were too remote to be connected together.
Article 19 (1) (g) of Constitution of India provides Right to practice any profession or to carry on any
occupation, trade or business to all citizens subject to Art.19 (6) which enumerates the nature of
restriction that can be imposed by the state upon the above right of the citizens. Sub clause (g) of Article
19 (1) confers a general and vast right available to all persons to do any particular type of business of
their choice. But this does not confer the right to do anything consider illegal in eyes of law or to hold a
particular job or to occupy a particular post of the choice of any particular person. Further Art 19(1) (g)
does not mean that conditions be created by the state or any statutory body to make any trade lucrative
or to procure customers to the business/businessman. Moreover, a citizen whose occupation of a place is
unlawful cannot claim this fundamental right.
The right to carry on a business also includes the right to close it, at any time depending upon the desire
of the owner.
Sources:
https://www.lawctopus.com/academike/article-21-of-the-constitution-of-india-right-to-life-and-personal-
liberty/
101. Jaggu owns a small café near the main road cross-section. His business is legal and does exceptionally
well. But the road is congested and suffers jams almost every day. One day, a state authority shuts down
the entire road and began construction of a fly-over. The work got delayed by 2 years and Jaggu’s
business gets hit adversely. Jaggu took this matter to the court of law stating that his livelihood is in
danger. He also seeks compensation from the state for mental and financial harassment. The court,
however, denies Jaggu’s plea. Based on the information given in the passage, can you tell why?
(a) because it is an individual vs. the state. Law always favours the state.
(b) because the fly-over was made for public convenience. The state could not be held responsible for
the delay due to heavy traffic load.
(c) because Jaggu’s café was one of the reasons for traffic jams. Therefore, he is not eligible for any
compensation.
(d) because Jaggu had the right to move into some other occupation or place to carry his business all the
time, but he did not.
MOCK CLAT #14
102. Raju, a hawker who sells munchies outside an illegal pub, was beaten by the pub owner and removed
forcibly. His place was then given to some kin of the pub owner. Raju took this matter to the court of law
claiming that this is a violation of his rights under Art. 19 (1) (g), and pleaded for help. His petition,
however, was denied outright. Based on the information given in the passage, can you tell why?
(a) because Raju’s business was not registered with the Municipal Authority.
(b) because Raju’s claim should fall under Art. 21. Mention of Art. 19 (1)(g) was wrong here.
(c) because Raju might be carrying out his business at the pub owner’s personal property.
(d) because the pub was already an illegal establishment, his claim was unacceptable.
103. Mr Shah owns and operates a sugar refinery on a big scale. He employees over 300 workers and labours
in his factory and is known for his generosity. He is also seen as a local beneficiary as he procures
sugarcane from the local farmers at a reasonable rate. One day he decides to sell the sugar refinery to a
sugar baron at a good price. The prospective new management is infamous for exploiting its employees
and farmers. The employees and farmers come together to form a union and take Mr Shah to the court of
law calming that he is ignoring their collective good for his personal benefit. Therefore, he should not be
allowed to sell the business. But the court rules in favour of Mr Shah. Based on the information given in
the passage, can you tell why?
(a) because Art. 21 gives Mr Shah right to exercise personal liberty.
(b) because Mr Shah’s trade of his business will provide the Government with a hefty amount as tax.
(c) because Art. 19(1)(g) allows Mr Shah to exit any business at his will.
(d) because Mr Shah’s generosity will eventually doom the business and force him to sell.
104. Karan is the owner of an electronics store. However, his store is registered and records an enormous
sale every year, he rarely pays any sales tax. He avoids giving bills to the customers promising after-
sales service verbally. Once, on a large order paid in advance, his supplies dupe him by swapping the
original technology of the articles with counterfeit ones. Karan threatens the supplier to take this matter to
the court of law but the supplier is indifferent. Based on the information given in the passage, can you tell
why?
(a) because Karan’s mode of operation is illegal.
(b) because Art. 19 does not guarantee any protection to his business.
(c) because Art. 19 (6) provides immunity to the supplier.
(d) all of the above.
105. Based on the information given in the passage, which of the following cases is not exercisable by the
law?
(a) Parents forcing a boy to join the family business.
(b) Municipality officers forcing hawkers to shut down their business.
(c) Revenue department revoking the licences of liquor shops.
(d) A lawyer not practising his/her profession.
106. Rajan is a graduate from IIT Mumbai and IIM Chennai. He got placed with a reputed America bank
operating in India with a yearly package of 2 crore rupees. While working with the bank, he gets married
to a beautiful girl in a big fat Indian wedding. After a few months of getting married, Rajan resigns from
his job to open a small tea shop near railway station. Irked from his actions, Rajan’s wife sues him for
fraud and demands a settlement. She says he lied about his carrier plans before marrying her. Based on
the information given in the passage, does this case hold any weight?
(a) Yes. Rajan should go back to his job.
(b) No. Rajan can do what he wants to.
(c) Yes. But both of them need a family counselling.
(d) No. unless there is any written proof, Rajan’s wife cannot claim any settlement.

MOCK CLAT #14
Passage (Q.107-Q.111): India’s decision on Tuesday to block another 43 Chinese mobile applications
hardly comes as a surprise. Since June, following escalation of tensions with China at the border, India
has blocked over 250 Chinese mobile apps, a bunch at a time, on the grounds that they have been
engaging in activities “which are prejudicial to sovereignty and integrity of India, defence of India, security
of state and public order”. The latest instance of app blocking has come at a time when the two sides,
while still talking, are struggling to come up with an agreement for disengagement along the Line of
Actual Control. China, not for the first time either, has charged India with using national security as an
excuse to target Chinese apps. Zhao Lijian, spokesperson of the Chinese Foreign Ministry, has asked
India to “correct its discriminatory approach and avoid causing further damage to bilateral cooperation”.
But the question to ask is: would this have come about if all was hunky-dory between the two countries?
In the short run, it may be useful for India to use its vast market for Internet services as a leverage in its
attempts to keep China in check at the border. Indian app alternatives may also find the much-needed
space to grow now, and initial reports indicate as much. But there are a few risks with this approach,
especially given India’s global ambitions in technology. First, this approach runs the risk of triggering an
unconventional battle between the two countries in the larger technology realm, if not in the larger
business space. China, being an important player in the technology global supply chain, will be hard, if
not impossible, to sideline. Second, there is a risk that moves such as blocking apps would be perceived
adversely by global investors and Internet companies. While it is true that there has been some push
back against Chinese companies and technology globally, India must stick to a rules-based approach in
regulating the Internet. There is a need to implement the long-pending data protection law. It is also
important to engage with the ecosystem and provide clarity on these issues as India has to win the
technology battle as well.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/tech-tact-the-hindu-editorial-on-indias-apps-blocking-
spree/article33195952.ece
107. Which of the following facts would be ironical to China’s stand made in its response to India?
(a) China uses apps to get access to private information of people
(b) China has itself maintained a tightly controlled and heavily censored internet for a long time
(c) China is the aggressor in the recent Indo-China standoffs that have taken place
108. Why does the author think that this step is good for India but only in the short run?
(a) It can give some space to the Indian app-makers to utilise the Indian app-market.
(b) This step might not be sufficient for India to win the technology-battle.
(c) India’s data-protection law might take a hit.
(d) India might experience a reduction in investor-confidence.
109. Which of the following cannot be inferred from this passage?

(a) India is trying to bring China down by putting it in a spot of bother on the economy front
(b) Judging by India’s response, it is China which has actually taken an aggressive stand at the border
(c) Indian apps would find it difficult to compete with Chinese apps in a free market
(d) This step is a departure from India’s regulated internet ecosystem
110. Does the author support India’s stance against China?

(a) No, the author is for a well-regulated internet ecosystem
(b) Yes, he is crusading for this measure by India to fight Chinese apps
(c) Yes, though he wants India to be cautious in this approach
111. Which of the following statement(s) can be called true as per the passage?
(a) India might garner some support of some other countries with its policy of banning Chinese apps
(b) The talks between India and China might not make progress after this reaction by India
MOCK CLAT #14
Passage (Q.112-Q.116): The internet has a mind of its own, you think that you are controlling it but the
actual truth can be lot more different and deceiving. When people start debating on whether the effects of
the internet are good or bad, it is the content they wrestle over. What both enthusiasts and skeptics miss
is the fact that as a window onto the world, and onto ourselves, the internet shapes what we see and how
we see it, and eventually, if we use it enough, it changes who we are as individuals and as a society. It
controls the scale and form of human association and delivers a new form of human being, whose
qualities are suited to it.
112. Which of the following, if true, will strengthen the author’s argument that the internet changes who we are
as individuals and as a society?
(a) A survey found out that 90% of the internet users buy only the products that the internet webpages
show them as their interests.
(b) A survey found that the internet trolls became the reason of death of many people.
(c) A survey found that many people prefer online dating over meeting somebody in person.
(d) A survey found that the internet consumption doubles every two years.
113. Author’s statement that – “When people start debating on whether the effects of the Internet are good or
bad, it is the content they wrestle over” –
(a) Forms the premise for his statement that the debate over internet is misplaced.
(b) Forms the conclusion for his statement that the debate over internet is misplaced.
(c) Offers a clarification on the misplaced debates over the internet.
(d) It’s just the generalized part of his statement.
114. What is the point made by the author when he states that “people wrestle over the content on internet”?
(a) Those debates always revolve around how the internet is changing the people
(b) Those debates always revolve around how the internet is changing the society
(c) Those debates always revolve around the good and bad impacts of the internet.
(d) Those debates always revolve around how the internet controls human associations.
115. Which of the following, if true, will weaken the author’s argument?
(a) The internet changing who we are as individuals and as a society is in itself a bad effect of internet.
(b) The internet is full of good content and makes human better.
(c) The internet has helped many to get jobs.
(d) It is upon people to use internet how they want.
116. Which of the following options best represents the primary argument of the paragraph?
(a) The debate on the internet's content is pointless; content does not matter.
(b) The Internet is neither good nor bad; it is the way it is used that determines its value.
(c) The focus on the Internet's content can blind us to its effects on our thought and action.
(d) The Internet distracts our mind by flooding us with content
Passage (Q.117-Q.121): Tilak’s first trial for sedition had its origin in the famine of 1896. It is hard to
believe that between 1876 and 1900, 18 famines occurred, taking a staggering 19,000,000 lives. Kesari,
the weekly newspaper started by Tilak, had a series of articles that criticised the conduct of officials who
insisted on collecting land tax even during a famine, and for not implementing the Famine Relief Code.
On July 27, 1897, Tilak was arrested and tried for sedition before the Bombay High Court.
It is a matter of deep regret that when Tilak’s trial was about to begin, none of the leading lawyers of the
Bombay HC were willing to appear for him. W C Bonnerjee, a Congress leader, MotiLal Ghosh, the
founder of the Amrit Bazar Patrika, and Rabindranath Tagore collected almost Rs 20,000 from donors
and this was used to send two leading English barristers from Calcutta to appear for Tilak.
The trial before Justice Arthur Strachey was a farce. Strachey’s address to the jury was deplorable and it
is almost unbelievable that an article on the killing of Afzal Khan by Shivaji could be part of the foundation
of a case of sedition. Even more bizarre was Strachey’s ruling that “disaffection” which constitutes the
offence of sedition, under section 124A of the IPC, was simply “the absence of affection”. He sentenced

MOCK CLAT #14
Tilak to 18 months’ imprisonment. While the Anglo-Indian press gloated over his conviction, the ruling
was criticised in England.
The partition of Bengal and the killing of two English women by a bomb hurled by Khudiram Bose led to
large-scale repression. The Anglo-Indian press attacked Tilak for provoking the youth to engage in violent
protests. Once again, Tilak wrote several articles in Kesari and asked the government to stop repressing
freedom. He pointed out that the best way to stop violence and bombs was to grant self-rule to the
people of India and, in one article, criticised the Explosives Act. Once again, Tilak was arrested in June
1908 and charged with sedition.Tilak pointed out that the English translation of his articles had serious
errors and asked for a correct version, but this plea was rejected. He was sentenced to six years
imprisonment. Tilak was sent to Mandalay jail in Burma and returned in 1914.
Tilak’s imprisonment by invoking the law of sedition failed to suppress the freedom struggle. The two
trials teach us useful lessons in dealing with public protests. A wise government would do well to
ascertain the opposite viewpoint and have the grace to correct its path wherever necessary.
https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/bal-gangadhar-tilak-death-anniversary-sedition-
6533181/
117. What we can say about the following statement? “Strachey’s interpretation of DISAFFECTION was
unacceptable in England.”
(a) Definitely true
(b) Definitely false
(c) Probably true
(d) Nothing can be said
118. Which of the following is a valid conclusion based on the passage?

(a) Judicial system is misused to silence the voice of freedom.
(b) Suppressing widespread dissent or criticism always proves counterproductive.
119. Statement: If criticism is punished as sedition, “the government is on a perilous path”.

(a) Conclusion statement (b) Strengthening Statement
(c) Inference statement (d) None of the above
120. What can we say about the following statement?

“Tilak wrote an article justifying the killing of Afzal Khan by Shivaji.”

(a) Tilak was not allowed a fair trial in the second case.
(b) A nation cannot survive if dissent and criticism are curtailed.

MOCK CLAT #14
Passage (Q.122-Q.126): As the world faces a global pandemic, there are millions ofpeople we all should
be thanking: the doctors, nurses, andother medical personnel who are on the front line of the waragainst
Coronavirus COVID-19.
While many of us are trying to figure out how to stay awayfrom people as much as possible to avoid
illness, thesefolks are gearing up for battle and running into the fire.
People who work in clinics, hospitals, and care facilities arethe courageous heroes of this worldwide
story, knowinglyputting themselves at risk to save lives.
In China, it was a young physician, an ophthalmologist namedLi Wenliang who first sounded the alarm in
Wuhan aboutthe virus. He was also among the first wave of people to diefrom it. Liu Zhiming, a
neurosurgeon who was the director of Wuhan’s Wuchang Hospital and who led its coronavirusresponse,
also succumbed to the virus. Doctors there haveworked tirelessly to treat an outbreak of an illness
thatnone of them had seen before, some dying of fatigue andexhaustion as well as the infection.
Doctors in current outbreak epicenters, such as northernItaly, are working round the clock as hospitals
areoverwhelmed with critically ill patients. In some places,they are having to choose which patients they
will treat withthe equipment they have, and which will be left to perish, ahorrifying position to be put in,
but reality when there aremore patients than hospital apparatus.
Nurses, who rarely get the recognition they should forthe vital work they do already, are also making
sacrifices above and beyond the call of duty. A nurse named AlessiaBonari from Tuscany, Italy shared a
selfie on Instagram that illustrated what doctors and nurses are going throughin a country where more
than 10,000 people have beendiagnosed and more than 800 have died of the virus.
122. Which of the following best represents the mainpoint of the given passage?
(a) We owe a huge thank you to the heroes on thefrontline of the coronavirus pandemic.
(b) It is the duty of medical and health professionalsto put all personal work aside and focus
oneradicating health hazards.
(c) When we are struck by global health calamitieswe prioritize our own needs above those ofothers’.
(d) No education teaches us to socially andemotionally distance ourselves from peoplewho need
attention and care.
123. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens theauthor’s arguments in the given passage?
(a) Doctors in Italy are afraid because the mask usedto protect them might not stick properly to theface
causing vulnerability to the coronavirus.
(b) Iran has announced that the country willdesignate medical staff who have died fromCOVID-19 as
“martyrs,” giving them the samehonor as slain soldiers.
(c) The World Health organization states that thebest formula for coping with a disaster is tocombine
technical expertise with communityknowledge.
124. Which of the following, if true, most weakens theauthor’s arguments in the given passage?
(a) Doctors are psychologically tired with constant caregiving and no rest but they continue to servethe
patients.
(b) Doctors are psychologically tired with theincreasing number of patients leading to glitchesin accuracy
of diagnosis and treatment.
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
125. Why does the author say that the coronavirus is a“global pandemic”?
(a) Doctors from all over the world have cometogether to find a cure for the virus.
(b) During disasters humanitarianism is requiredto show solidarity towards people who areaffected.
(c) The said disaster is affecting people aroundthe world and is not pertaining to a particulargeography.
(d) Disasters in one part of the world affect theeconomies of all the countries and affects
globaldevelopment.

MOCK CLAT #14
126. Which of the following is an assumption, on whichthe arguments in the passage are based?
(a) There are few highly qualified doctors in theworld.
(b) The coronavirus is highly contagious.
(c) Coronavirus deaths among the nursingcommunity are being ignored.
(d) Symptoms of coronavirus include breathlessnessand high fever.
Passage (Q.127-Q.129): In 1883, cholera did not arise in Egypt from filthalone, but from importation. It
did not commence at Alexandria, but at Damietta, which is the nearest Nile port to Port Said, which is the
outlet of the Suez Canal. There were 37,500 deaths from cholera in the Bombay Presidency in 1883.
Bombay merchants came both to Port Said and Damietta to attend a great fair there, to which at least
15,000 people congregated, in addition to the 35,000 inhabitants. The barbers who shave and prepare
the dead are the first registrars of vital statistics in many Egyptian towns, and the principal barber of
Damietta was among the first to die of cholera; hence all the earliest records of deaths were lost, and the
more fatal and infective diarrhoea cases were never recorded. Next, the principal European physician of
Damietta had his attention called to the rumors of numerous deaths, and investigated the matter, to find
that cases of cholera had occurred in May, whereas none had been reported publicly until June 21. A
“zadig” or canal, runs through Damietta from one branch of the Nile to another, and this is the principal
source of the water supply.
Mosques and many houses are on the banks of this canal, and their drainage goes into it. Every mosque
has a public privy, and also a tank for the ablution, which all good Muslims must use before entering a
holy place. There was, of course, great choleraic water contamination, and a sudden outburst of cholera
took place. The 15,000 people who came to the fair were stampeded out of Damietta, together with about
10,000 of the inhabitants, who carried the disease with them back into Egypt. Only then was a rigid
quarantine established, and a cordon put round Damietta to keep everybody in, and let no one go out,
neither food, medicines, doctors, nor supplies of any kind.
Source: https://collections.wip.nlm.nih.gov/ocr/nlm:nlmuid-101236667-bk
127. What was the reason that cholera was detected in Damietta much later than expected?
(a) Mosques had public privies and tanks for ablution which everyone had to use, and it caused a rapid
spread.
(b) The disease was brought by outsiders from Bombay.
(c) The principal barber of Damietta, whose duty was to register vital statistics of diseases, was himself
one of the first victims to die from Cholera.
(d) A canal ran through Damietta and was the principal source of water supply.
128. Which of these was not a reason for the outbreak and spread of Cholera in Damietta?
(a) Visiting traders from Bombay presidency.
(b) Early death of the principal barber.
(c) Water used in public privies and tanks in mosques being infected.
(d) Proximity to the Nile River.
129. Which of the following is a valid assertion based on the information given in the passage?
(a) Having just one person as the first registrar of vital statistics can be detrimental for a town’s well-
being.
(b) Egypt should have ceased all trading ties with the Bombay Presidency.
(c) People should have stopped praying in mosques.
(d) The canal should have been eliminated.

MOCK CLAT #14
130. Democracy in India can be a success onlywhen the Indian women are politicallyawakened. The political
awakening cannot bean isolated phenomenon; it requires somechanges in social structure so that
womencan enjoy as important a place as menoccupy. Moreover they should be free toexpress their
opinion, to act as they like andto assert themselves in all departments oflife.
With reference to the above passage, whichof the following is the most valid assumption?
(a) Democracy has forever been a failure inIndia.
(b) Women in India are suppressed by men,especially in the political sphere.
(c) Indian democracy faces an obstacle inthe path of its success, in the form ofpatriarchy.
(d) The bigotry between men and women hasbeen in existence since ages.
131. For a soccer team to participate in atournament, 11 players in the team is a must.The Indian team did not
participate in the Durando Cup. Therefore, at least one of the players is unwell.
Which of the following most closely followsthe logic of this statement?
(a) For a market to exist there is a need ofboth supply and demand. There is nomarket. Therefore, there
is no demandand supply.
(b) For an institution like marriage to exist,there is a need of both a woman and aman. The woman is
missing. Therefore,marriage cannot take place.
(c) If there are 3 players, a team canparticipate in a table tennis tournament.The team did not participate.
Therefore, itdid not fulfill the eligibility criteria.
(d) To appear for SSC exams, one ought tohave completed 25 years of age. She willturn 25 in 10 days.
Therefore, she cannever appear for the exam.
132. In spite of increased prices of raw materials, Brittany Publishersdecided not to increase the price of its
books.Instead it decided to use low-priced inferiormaterial. This, it feels will not result in any changein
business and continue to give it the samemonetary benefits as earlier.
Which of the following, if true, strengthens the aboveargument?
(a) Most other publishers in the market chargealmost the same as what this publisherdoes
(b) The fashion of reading books is fast catching upwith the people in urban society and they
areunmindful of the price.
(c) Most readers are unmindful of the quality ofbooks so far as the print is legible.
(d) The WTO predicted that inflation in cities wouldcome down in the forthcoming quarter.
Directions (Q.133): Study the following information carefully to answer the given question:
If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the father of B’
If ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’
If ‘A % B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’
If ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the son of B’
If ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’
133. Which of the following options is true if the expression ‘E + T $ C ÷ W + Q % S’ is definitely true?
(a) C is the grandson of E (b) S is the daughter in law of W.
(c) Q is the son of C. (d) All of the above
134. X and Y start from the same point X walks 40 m North, then turns West and walks 80 m, then turns to his
right and walks 50 m. At the same time, Y walks 90 m north. Where is Y now with respect to the position
of X?
(a) Y is 30 m to the East of X
(b) Y is 80 m to the West of X
(c) Y is 30 m to the west of X
(d) Y is 80 m to the East of X
135. In a group of 6 students P, Q, R, S, T and U each one having different height. P is taller than T but not as
tall as U. Q and U are not the tallest and also R is the shortest. Who is the Second tallest among them?
(a) U (b) S (c) Q (d) Data Inadequate

MOCK CLAT #14
Direction (Q.136): Statements are followed by 4 conclusions. Determine which conclusion(s) follow(s)
from the given statements.
136. Statements: All B are F. Some H are F. All P are H. No J is F.

Conclusions:
I. All J being H is a possibility
II. Some P are not J
III. Some H are not J.
IV. Some P are F
(a) Only II, III and IV follow. (b) Only I and III follows
(c) All follows. (d) None of these

MOCK CLAT #14
Directions (Q.137–Q.141): Read the following information carefully and answer the following questions
carefully.
Day Upstream speed : Downstream speed

Mon 4:5
Tuesday 3:7
Wednesday 2:3
Thursday 5:6
Friday 1:4
Following diagram show the speed of Boat
137. On Monday 240 km downstream and 300 km upstream distance is covered in Y time. What is the value
of Y?
(a) 12.5 (b) 12.3 (c) 12.1 (d) 12.6
138. Average Downstream speed is what %es more or less than the average Upstream speed on Tuesday
and Wednesday together?
(a) 110% (b) 120% (c) 100% (d) 135%
139. On a river Trip a boat is covered 250 km downstream on Thursday and return upstream on the next day.
Again, he travelled upstream for 150 km more on same day. Find total time taken to cover the distance
mentioned above?
(a) 185/7 hr. (b) 255/6 hr. (c) 421/13hr. (d) 265/6 hr.
140. On Friday total Distance covered upstream and downstream is 2X km in (1:1) in 10 hr. while on Tuesday
Ratio between distance covered Downstream to Upstream 5:3. Find out the time take to cover the
distance on Tuesday. (Note- Total distance is same for all day)?
(a) 25/8 (b) 24/7 (c) 25/3 (d) 8/7
1
141. Distance covered on Friday (Downstream) is 33 3 % more than the distance covered on Wednesday
(Downstream). Time taken to cover total distance on Friday and Wednesday (Downstream) is 14hr. find
the difference between the downstream distance covered on Friday and Wednesday?
(a) 70 (b) 75 (c) 46 (d) 50

MOCK CLAT #14
Direction (Q.142-Q.146): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
In the given graph total number of match played by five batsman (W, X, Y, Z, V) is given and their
average runs also given. Take the value and answer the flowing the question.
142. Which batsman score highest run in all matches?

(a) X (b) V (c) Z (d) W
143. Total run score by V and W is what percent of total run score by Y and Z?
(a) 147% (b) 123% (c) 142% (d) 124%
144. In next match X score 34 runs, Y score 94 runs, and Z score 62 runs. Find the average of their new
averages?
(a) 93.6 (b) 16.39 (c) 36.33 (d) 25.3
145. Find the difference between the total run score by V, X and Z and total run score by W, Y and Z?
(a) 1102 (b) 1431 (c) 1236 (d) 1203
146. Average runs score by W and X together is what percent of average score by Y and Z?
(a) 136% (b) 125% (c) 142% (d) 120%
Directions (Q.147–Q.150): Read the following information carefully and answer the following questions
carefully.
In a medical college there are 1600 students studying Dentistry and Homeopathy. Each student from
each course knows one or more languages out of English, Hindi and Bengali. 45% of the students study
Dentistry and the remaining students study Homeopathy. Out of the students studying Dentistry, boys
and girls are in the ratio 5:3. Out of the boys studying Dentistry, 16% know only English, 10% know only
Hindi and 4% know only Bengali. 24% know English as well as Hindi, 20% know English as well as
Bengali and 14% know Hindi as well as Bengali. The remaining boys know all the three languages. Out
of the girls studying Dentistry, 20% know only English, 10% know only Hindi and 10% know only Bengali.
20% know English as well as Hindi, 20% know English as well as Bengali and 10% know Hindi as well as
Bengali. The remaining girls know all the three languages. Out of the students studying Homeopathy,
boys and girls are in the ratio 4:7. Out of the boys studying Homeopathy, 20% know only English, 15%
know only Hindi and 5% know only Bengali. 15% know English as well as Hindi, 25% know English as
well as Bengali and 10% know Hindi as well as Bengali. The remaining boys know all the three
languages. Out of the girls studying Homeopathy, 15% know only English, 15% know only Hindi and 5%
know only Bengali. 20% know English as well as Hindi, 20% know English as well as Bengali and 15%
know Hindi as well as Bengali. The remaining girls know all the three languages.

MOCK CLAT #14
147. How many students studying Dentistry know only either English or Hindi?
(a) 198 (b) 126 (c) 72 (d) None of these
148. How many students in the college know all the three languages?
(a) 298 (b) 169 (c) 172 (d) 196
149. What percent of the total number of girls in the college know Bengali?
(a) 20% (b) 30% (c) 40% (d) 50%
150. Out of the students studying Homeopathy, what is the ratio of the number of boys knowing English to the
number of girls knowing Hindi?
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 5 (c) 2 : 3 (d) None of these

MOCK CLAT #15

Candidate Name : _________________
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
Test Centre/Hall.
MOCK CLAT #15
(Passage Q.1-Q.6):The report of the parliamentary Standing Committee on Home Affairs calling for
a comprehensive Public Health Act, as a response to the extreme stresses caused by COVID-19, is a
welcome call to reform a fragmented health system. When the pandemic arrived, National Health Profile
2019 data showed that there were an estimated 0.55 government hospital beds for 1,000 people.
Prolonged underinvestment in public health infrastructure thus left millions seeking help from a highly
commercialised private sector with little regulatory oversight; the situation was even worse in rural areas,
where care facilities are weaker, and urban workers fled to their villages, afraid of the cost of falling sick
in cities. Acknowledging these distortions, and the inadequacy of existing legal frameworks, the panel
has called for an omnibus law that will curb profiteering during such crises and provide robust cashless
health insurance. Its indictment of the feverish commerce surrounding health-care provision, however,
can serve a larger purpose if it covers overall system reform, addressing the structural asymmetry
created by misguided policies. India has committed itself to covenants such as the Sustainable
Development Goals, but continues to evade making the right to health a full legal and justiciable right
under the National Health Policy.
Among the committee‘s observations is the absence of insurance cover for many and oversight on
hospitals to ensure that patients are not turned away in a crisis such as COVID-19. While the panel is
right to view this as a breach of trust, one of the pandemic‘s impacts has been a staggering rise in
premiums, especially for senior citizens, of even up to 25% of the insured value. What is more, the
insurance regulator, IRDAI, set 65 as the maximum age of entry for a standard policy earlier this year,
affecting older uninsured citizens. Such age limits must be fully removed. The answer to creating an
equitable framework lies in a tax-funded system, with the government being the single and sole payer to
care providers. This is a long-pending recommendation from the erstwhile Planning Commission, and
should be part of any reform. The government, as the single-payer if not sole care provider at present,
would be better able to resist commercial pressures in determining costs. This is equally applicable for
central procurement of essential drugs, which can then be distributed free. Legal reform must provide for
a time-bound transition to universal state-provided health services under a rights-based, non-
exclusionary framework, with States implementing it. Private arrangements can be an option. COVID-19
has exposed the dangers of excessive reliance on private tertiary care. The corrective lies in raising
public spending to the promised 2.5% of GDP on public facilities that are universally accessible.
1. Which of the following represents an accurate summary of the passage?

(a) COVID-19 has exposed the dangers of excessive reliance on private tertiary care.
(b) Parliamentary panel‘s call for a new health law post-COVID-19 is a kernel for reform.
(c) The government, as the single-payer if not sole care provider at present, would be better able to
resist commercial pressures in determining costs.
(d) India has committed itself to covenants such as the Sustainable Development Goals, but continues to
evade making the right to health a full legal and justiciable right.
2. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word ‗indictment‘?

(a) Charge (b) Impediment
(c) Intrinsic (d) Involuntary

Among the committee‘s observations is the absence [1] insurance cover [2] many and oversight [3]
hospitals to ensure that patients are not turned [4] in a crisis such as COVID-19.
(a) Away; for; on; of
(b) On; of; away; for
(c) Away; on; for; of
(d) Of; for; on; away

MOCK CLAT #15
4. What according to the passage is the purpose of the proposed Public Health Act?
(a) To make the government the sole controller of the health sector.
(b) To undermine the highly commercialised private sector.
(c) Check exploiting during public health crises and provide for health insurance.
(d) To ensure that another pandemic does not hit us again.
5. What “structural asymmetry” is being referred to in the first paragraph of the passage?
(a) The one created by misguided policies.
(b) Dominance of a highly commercialised private sector and lesser government hospital beds available
for people.
(c) Not enough attention to healthcare in India.
(d) Exploitation and profiteering done by the private sector.
6. Why does the author want the government to be the single payer and sole care provider to the citizens?
(a) The government will care for the welfare of the citizens unlike the private sector whose aim is profit
maximization.
(b) Government can implement laws more strictly.
(c) Government will never be insolvent or ask for insurance.
(d) The Government is well equipped to deal with a crisis unlike the private sector.
Passage (Q.7-Q.12): The government has kicked the can down the road by deciding to keep in
abeyance critical provisions of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) of 2016 till March 31, 2021.
To recap, because of large-scale economic hara-kiri triggered by the COVID-19 pandemic and
lockdown, the government had raised the threshold of loan defaults that would spark off insolvency
proceedings from ₹1 lakh to ₹1 crore on the day of the lockdown‘s announcement — March 24. It had
indicated that if things did not improve by April-end, the suspensions of certain sections of the IBC for six
months could be considered to prevent companies at large from being forced into the insolvency process
for a ‗force majeure‘ default. An ordinance, in June, indefinitely barred the initiation of insolvency
proceedings both, voluntarily or by creditors, for defaults arising on or after March 25, 2020, for a period
of six months that could be stretched to a year. When the initial six months of forbearance under the IBC
expired, it was extended till December 25. Union Finance Minister NirmalaSitharaman‘s pronouncement
now, of a further suspension, would mean the one-year limit permitted by the law is fully used up. The
government must make it clear that this is the last such window of respite, even as the necessity for a
blanket suspension of IBC at this point in time is not as apparent as it was in the first or second quarter of
2020-21.
Stretching IBC‘s abeyance doesn‘t square up with the government‘s proclamations of a firm, V-shaped
economic recovery. Finance Ministry mandarins have repeatedly talked up growth prospects by flagging
indicators returning to pre-COVID-19 levels, in several sectors. Surely, businesses in those sectors need
no longer be sheltered from exits if they are not competitive. The government, by now, should know
which sectors continue to remain in trouble. And if it is concerned about small and medium businesses, it
could tweak the default threshold limit a tad higher, while letting bankruptcy processes function again for
larger loan accounts. But a catch-all suspension could burden banks further and does not appear to have
enthused industry either. One reason could be that the suspension also cuts off businesses‘ ability to
voluntarily enter insolvency — for many, post-COVID-19 operations may not seem viable. Denying them
an exit route so as to cut their losses, while their assets shed value is a lose-lose proposition for both
borrower and lender. A more nuanced approach would have been better for banks, businesses and the
economy. Delaying the inevitable would mean greater financial stress ahead, as the restructuring and
recovery of bad loans shall get tardier and future growth momentum would be punctured at the cost of
understating present systemic stress.
7. Which of the following represents the overall message of the passage?

(a) A more nuanced approach would have been better for banks, businesses and the economy.
(b) Delaying the inevitable would mean greater financial stress ahead.
(c) Restructuring of bad loans will get tardier as the bankruptcy code is kept in abeyance
(d) We should not understate present systemic stress.

MOCK CLAT #15
8. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word „abeyance‟?

(a) Deterrent
(b) Pandemonium
(c) Remission
(d) Growth
9. In the context of the passage, what is a „force majeure‟ default?

(a) An Act of God.
(b) Default on part of the creditors to approach the Board.
(c) The default on part of the government not being able to control the economic situation in the wake of
the pandemic.
(d) Certain unforeseeable circumstances that would lead to non-fulfillment of obligations.
10. Why does the author believe that we cannot have a firm V shaped recovery?
(a) The IBC abeyance is actually a worse off situation for both the lender and the borrower, as it delays
the inevitable which would mean greater stress later on.
(b) Banks will not be able to deal with the burden of innumerable insolvency applications.
(c) Economic recovery is not a function of insolvency but of demand and supply.
(d) The economy needs some time to sort older issues out before it can deal with newer problems.
11. What according to the author is a „lose-lose proposition‟?

(a) The borrower does not have an exit route (insolvency) as he is unable to pay his debt and the creditor
is not being returned his money.
(b) The borrower cannot pay and the creditor cannot lend again.
(c) The borrower does not have access to the creditor.
(d) The economic system has not been shocked out of its crisis.
12. Identify the figure of speech in the following sentence:

The government must make it clear that this is the last such window of respite, even as the necessity
for a blanket suspension of IBC at this point in time is not as apparent as it was in the first or
second quarter of 2020-21.
(a) Simile
(b) Metaphor
(c) Idiom
(d) Personification
Passage (Q.13-Q.18): Farm leaders said Tuesday that they have asked British-Punjabi leaders to appeal
to UK Prime Minister Boris Johnson to not come to India as the chief guest for next year‘s Republic
Day event till the Centre repeals its ―black laws‖. The leaders also said they have deferred their meeting
by a day to Wednesday, to decide on a response to the Government‘s letter asking them to fix a date for
the next round of talks. Besides, they issued an appeal to ―boycott all stores run by Ambani and Adani‖.
In Punjab, farm leaders hit out at Union Agriculture Minister Narendra Singh Tomar‘s fresh appeal for
talks and said that instead of responding to their demand to scrap the three laws, the Government is
engaged in ―propaganda‖ to promote them. Speaking to reporters at the Singhu border, Harender Singh
Lakhowal, state convener, BKU (Lakhowal), said: ―We are requesting the British Prime Minister to not
come to India as long as the demands of the farmers are not met. We have made the appeal through
leaders from Punjab who are now in England politics and have won elections there.‖ Last week, visiting
British Foreign Secretary Dominic Raab announced that Johnson would be Chief Guest at the Republic
Day celebrations in January. Raab also said that he ―discussed‖ the situation arising out of the farmer
protests with External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar, and underlined that ―your politics‖ is, in some sense,
―our politics‖ because of the Indian diaspora in Britain.

MOCK CLAT #15
13. Why does the author put double quotes when he states that Raab "discussed” the situation regarding
farmers protests?
(a) It is just to show that these were words spoken by Raab to Prime Minister Johnson.
(b) The author wants to underscore that importance of the word.
(c) The author wants to give it an undertone of irony.
(d) The author wants to quote the Prime Minister.
14. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to boycott?

(a) Shut (b) Accept (c) Allow (d) Spurn
15. What are the “black laws” being referred to in the passage?
(a) The Farmers‘ Bill which has resulted in the agitation across Punjab.
(b) The Central position as to the farm laws.
(c) The States‘ position as to the farm laws.
(d) Ambani and Adani receiving all the premium business in India.
16. Which of the following words is the most suitable antonym for ‗scrap‘?
(a) Precede (b) Remove (c) Reject (d) Preserve
17. Why have the farmers made a demand for the British Prime Minister not to come to India?
(a) The Indian diaspora in Britain is a vital link between the two nations and the Prime Minister‘s absence
at the function will send across a statement of solidarity.
(b) The Indian diaspora in Britain is vehemently against the Prime Minister Boris Johnson.
(c) The Indian diaspora in Britain is against Prime Minister Modi.
(d) It will cause disruption of the Republic Day function and create a nuisance.
18. What could be the possible link between Ambani and Adani and the farmers‘ protest?
(a) The farmers hate wealthy industrialists.
(b) There is no link between the two.
(c) The two industrialists have shown support to the government.
(d) The farmers believe that Ambani and Adani will be potential beneficiaries of the farm laws.
Passage (Q.19-Q.24):There must have been a moment, a point in the ongoing agitation led by Punjab
farmers, when a line was crossed. When men and women began talking less about the three Central
farm laws that sparked small dharnas at petrol pumps and toll plazas across the state and more about
those who started travelling to Delhi‘s doorstep to huddle together in the cold. That moment, when the
protests became a character in their own right, was missed by the BJP-led government at the Centre.
That‘s where it will need to go back to, to find a resolution. What is more, as The Indian Express found in
a week-long journey through villages and cities across Punjab‘s three regions of Malwa, Doaba and
Majha, talking to scores of farmers and their families, the image of the un-seeing Centre is compounded
by the spate of name-calling.
The protests are ―misguided‖, it was said, driven by a ―lobby‖ of Leftist Modi-baiters, professional
malcontents. Or hijacked by the ―Khalistanis‖, who are always seen — and imagined — in the nooks and
shadows of a state that fought and defeated extremism in the 1990s and lived to tell the tales. But to
many here, especially Jat Sikh farmers, at the centre of the economy, politics and culture of the state
which has historically nurtured an anti-Centre streak, the Centre is again talking down to Punjab. And
forcing its way.
―Nobody is a leader in these protests, everyone has minus-ed themselves and the farmer has taken
centrestage‖, says Balkar Singh, who retired as professor in Punjabi University, Patiala. ―Look at them,
sitting there in the cold. The person who is leaving behind his children and the comfort of home is not
doing it at anyone‘s bidding‖, says Baljit Singh in Malwa‘sKotraLehal village. ―The government has a
point‖, says Amritpal Singh, a farmer who also runs a shop in village Dhesian, district Hoshiarpur, in
Doaba region, from where the largest numbers migrate abroad and which is less roiled by the agitation
than Malwa. ―But how can it not listen to those who are sitting out in the open?‖

MOCK CLAT #15
To get a sense of this agitation that is assuming a life of its own with every day that passes without a
resolution, you could begin with two men and a woman.
Meet Sardara Singh Johl in Ludhiana, BibiJagir Kaur in village Begowal, and NarendraModi in-the-
Punjab-fray. There‘s no point arguing the merits of the farm laws now, says 92-year-old Johl, the grand
old man of agriculture economics in the state. ―I have supported the Bills, I can answer all the questions,
but if I do it now, it will be DrJohl versus Rest of Punjab‖.
19. Why does the author say that the Centre missed the moment when the protest acquired a character in its
own right?
(a) The Centre believes the protests are misguided.
(b) The centre believes the protests do not seem genuine.
(c) The Central Government has not paid attention to the concerns of the farmers but indulged in petty
name-calling.
(d) The moment when the protest acquired a character of its own, the centre was busy propogating its
own agenda.
20. What is the purpose of stating ―Nobody is a leader in these protests.‖?

(a) There is no calculating strategy and no ulterior motive underlying the protests.
(b) It lacks central leadership.
(c) The farmers have taken centre stage.
(d) There is no agenda of the protest.
21. What is the word closest in meaning to ‗hijacked‘?

(a) Flotsam
(b) Debris
(c) Control
(d) Seize
22. What does the author mean by the phrase “historically nurtured an anti centre streak”?
(a) The state of Punjab has been known for protests and mass agitations.
(b) Punjab has always voted the Opposition party to power in its state elections.
(c) The state is known to oppose the centre on its policies as historical records show.
(d) The law and order situation in Punjab is out of control.
23. Which of the following is a suitable antonym for ‗resolve‘?

(a) Question
(b) Accept
(c) Reject
(d) Combine
24. When was the „line crossed‟ according to the author?

(a) When the protest acquired a character in its own right.
(b) When the government realised that the protest had become too big to handle.
(c) When the government indulged in name-calling.
(d) When the focus of the protest shifted from Punjab to Delhi.
Passage (Q.25-Q.30):As a hard year closes out in US, and the electoral college voting seals Joe Biden‘s
win, the oft-ignored power that individuals possess in a democracy has once more been highlighted. In
America‘s quaint system, the choice of a state‘s voters for the nation‘s president is formalised by
―electors‖ named by the winning party, who vote one by one in ceremonies separately conducted, on the
same day, in each state or federal territory. This year, the rituals were performed on December 14.
But rituals may be a misleading phrase. These ―electors‖ could have cheated and voted [1] their party,
that is, [2] their state‘s verdict. However, every one of the 306 Democratic ―electors‖ voted for Biden, and
each of the 232 Republicans for Donald Trump. This time, with Trump continuing to deny his defeat (and

MOCK CLAT #15
to rouse his supporters to somehow transform it into a win), ―electors‖ became targets of intimidation.
Prevention of voting and even abduction was feared, but public servants saw the exercise through.
In this and other ways, officers and ―electors‖ across the US overcame pressures and did their duty. In so
doing, public servants in states like Georgia and Arizona probably destroyed their political futures, at
least for the short term. But they saved their country‘s prestige. In India, too, doing our duty in the teeth of
pressures and inducements is not a small matter, whether we are public servants, or members of a local,
state or national council, or just citizens.
Yielding to pressure from Trump and his base, many Republican members of Congress shamelessly
endorsed a Supreme Court plea, initiated by Texas‘s attorney general, to invalidate the popular vote in
Pennsylvania, Michigan, Georgia and Wisconsin. In a decision that showed that the Supreme Court, too,
knew its duty, all its nine justices, including the three nominated by Trump, decided against entertaining
the brazen plea. Though Trump reacted by tweeting that the court lacked ―wisdom‖ and ―courage‖, the
justices had shown precisely those virtues. Biden‘s dislodging of Trump is, therefore, not the former‘s
personal feat. It is the outcome of duty done by a great many. Equally crucial to the outcome was the
outspoken and broad rejection of the continual Trumpist hint, obvious to everyone and appealing to
many, that America belonged primarily to its Whites. Twinned to this insinuation was a call against
―pampering Blacks‖. In refutation, Americans said on social media, in newspapers, on TV, in daily
conversation, and in marches on the street that their country belonged to all, and that the real problem
was the neglect of Black needs. Confronting the Trumpist line was thus not left to an Obama, a Biden or
a Kamala Harris. It became an American duty.
25. What have the American election results shown?

(a) The citizens in the USA are well informed of their rights.
(b) The Constitution of the USA has empowered the citizens really well.
(c) The citizens in the USA have been given universal adult franchise.
(d) The ordinary citizen in the USA has the ability and duty to call out a wrong.
26. How did public servants in Georgia and Arizona save the country‘s prestige?
(a) They performed their duty to the best of their ability.
(b) They did not let political pressures come in the way of their duty.
(c) They did not let people vote whose name was not on the electoral role.
(d) They protected the electors in their states.
27. Why does the author compare India and USA in terms of elections?
(a) Both India and the USA are democracies.
(b) Both India and the USA are known for free and fair elections.
(c) Both India and the USA have popular leaders coming to power based on their charisma.
(d) Public servants in India and the USA have to overcome incentives and pressures in order to fulfill
their duty.
28. Why does the author say that Biden‘s dislodging of Trump is not a personal feat?
(a) The author believes that Biden dislodged Trump because of Trump‘s vices and not his virtues.
(b) The author believes that it was the citizens who led to Trump‘s downfall and not Biden alone.
(c) The Supreme Court of the USA led to Trump‘s downfall.
(d) Biden‘s victory is still a blur of facts and circumstances.
29. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to ‗brazen‘?

(a) Brash (b) Metallic (c) Brass (d) Brown

These ―electors‖ could have cheated and voted [1] their party, that is, [2] their state‘s verdict.
(a) Against; against (b) For; against
(c) Against; for (d) Between; against

MOCK CLAT #15
(Passage Q.31-Q.35): One of the largest diplomatic meetings of Muslim countries will not include a
discussion on the Kashmiri dispute.
In another setback for the long-suffering people of India-administered Kashmir, the Organisation of
Islamic Cooperation (OIC) meeting of foreign ministers has refused to have time set aside to discuss their
plight.
A statement released by the OIC made no mention of Kashmir and there will be no special session to
discuss India‘s draconian military measures that have resulted in a lockdown of the region lasting over a
year.
The OIC host, Niger, turned down a request by Pakistan to discuss the Kashmiri issue. This follows a
decision earlier this year in which Saudi Arabia also refused Pakistan‘s request to have Kashmir on the
agenda of foreign ministers.
OIC Secretary General Secretary General Dr Yousef Al Othaimeen was quoted as saying that the
meeting would discuss a ―list of topics and issues of concern to the Muslim world.‖
The 47th session of the Council of Foreign Ministers will be held in the capital of Niger, Niamey, on 27
and 28 November 2020.
On the agenda will be the Palestinian cause, the fight against violence, extremism and terrorism,
Islamophobia, the plight of Muslim minorities and communities in non-member states and fundraising for
the Rohingya case at the International Court of Justice.
India and Pakistan control parts of Kashmir and the region is hotly contested by the two sides leading to
two full-blown wars in 1947 and 1965, and the Kargil War of 1999.
In August of 2019, India‘s Hindu nationalist Prime Minister, NarendraModi, stripped the region of its long-
held autonomous status. For many in the Muslim-majority region, the move sparked fears that New Delhi
was attempting to change the demographics by encouraging Hindu migration.
Since then there has been a swift crackdown on any forms of dissent in the Indian state and the more
than 12 million people have seen their access to the outside world regularly cut off.
Increasingly the OIC has struggled to remain relevant as a body that represents issues that Muslims
around the world face.
Source: https://www.trtworld.com/magazine/organisation-of-islamic-cooperation-snubs-kashmir-again-
41815
31. The OIC was formerly known as?

(a) Organization of the Islamic Conference
(b) Organization of the Islamic Collaboration
(c) Organization of the Islamic Coordination
(d) Organization of the Islamic Coopetition
32. It is the second largest inter-governmental organization after which one?

(a) Organization for Economic and Co-operation Development
(b) United Nations
(c) World Bank group
(d) IMF
33. Where is its permanent Secretariat?

(a) Jeddah, Saudi Arabia
(b) Riyadh , Saudi Arabia
(c) Dammam, Saudi Arabia
(d) Mecca, Saudi Arabia

MOCK CLAT #15
34. Consider the following statements and choose the correct statement .
i. The OIC‘s stated objective is ―to safeguard and protect the interests of the Muslim world in the spirit
of promoting international peace and harmony among various people of the world‖.
ii. OIC has reserved membership for Muslim-majority countries. Russia, Thailand, and a couple of other
small countries have Observer status.
(a) Only i
(b) Only ii
(c) Both
(d) None
35. Consider the following statements and choose the false statement.
i. In 1969, India was dis-invited from the Conference of Islamic Countries in Rabat, Morocco at
Pakistan‘s behest.
ii. In 2019, India made its maiden appearance at the OIC Foreign Ministers‘ meeting in Abu Dhabi, as a
―guest of honour‖.
(a) Only i (b) Only ii (c) Both (d) None
(Passage Q.36-Q.40): New Delhi: A parliamentary panel has sought the Centre‘s response to a long-
pending demand for amending the Constitution to clear ambiguity over definition of ‗office of profit‘, which
bars lawmakers from taking up any positions that offer remunerations. Parliamentarians and legislators
can avoid disqualification if they join offices which figure in the exempted category outlined in the [1] .
On constant prodding of Parliament's Joint Committee on Office of Profit, the law and justice ministry had
prepared a draft note for the Union cabinet to ―examine the constitutional and legal position relating to
office of profit‖ and circulated it to other stakeholders for comments in February 2019, people aware of
developments told ET. The ministry's approach, however, was found to be sluggish by the parliamentary
panel even as it had handed over a cabinet note on the issue to the committee in February last year.
The law and justice ministry will now give ―oral evidence‖ on November 18 to the parliamentary panel on
the draft bill to amend the Constitution to define office of profit, said the people.
The panel was of the view that constitutional amendments to articles[5] would be required for
incorporating definition of office of profit and for a comprehensive review of the Act.
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/parliamentary-panel-seeks-
governments-view-on-defining-office-of-profit/articleshow/79178592.cms

(a) Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1989
(b) Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1977
(c) Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1969
(d) Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959
37. The Supreme Court in which case laid down the four broad principles for determining whether an office
attracts the constitutional disqualification?
(a) PradyutBordoloivsSwapan Roy
(b) KesavanandaBharatiSripadagalvaru&Ors. v. State of Kerala &Anr
(c) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India
(d) Minerva Mills Ltd. and Ors. v. Union Of India and Ors
38. A petition was filed seeking disqualification of which member of the Upper House of Parliament alleging
that the post of special representative of the Andhra Pradesh government being held by the YSR
Congress Party MP was an office of profit?
(a) P. V. Midhun Reddy
(b) YeduguriSandintiJaganmohan Reddy
(c) Vijaysai Reddy
(d) Anil Kumar YadavPoluboina

MOCK CLAT #15
39. Consider the following statements and choose the correct statement.
i. The expression ―office of profit‖ has not been defined in the Constitution
ii. The expression is defined in the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
(a) Only i
(b) Only ii
(c) Both
(d) None

(a) 102 (1) (a) and Article 191 (1) (a)
(b) 109 (1) (a) and Article 119 (1) (a)
(c) 100 (1) (a) and Article 129 (1) (a)
(d) 112(1) (a) and Article 167 (1) (a)
(Passage Q.41-Q.45): The virtual G20 Summit in [1], which was organised), was indeed able to
showcase the leadership capability of the Kingdom on the global stage.
As expected the coronavirus pandemic topped the agenda of the two-day Summit major economies, with
countries committing to ensure "affordable and equitable" access to vaccines worldwide and to be
prepared to deal with future health crises.
International pandemic treaty
Charles Michel, President of the [2], proposed an international agreement on the pandemic to prevent
future pandemics.
"It should be negotiated with all nations, UN organisations and agencies, in particular the WHO. The
WHO must remain the cornerstone of global coordination against health emergencies", Michel said.
The G20 leaders pledged over [3] billion at the outset of the crisis to support funding in global health
capacities, according to a statement by G20. Moreover, the members have injected over $11 trillion so far
to shield the economy and protect livelihoods, it said.
International leaders expressed their collective determination to strengthen Covid-19 vaccine production
and distribution, extend social protection guarantees to low-income countries, and cement crucial debt-
relief extensions.
Action on Climate Change
By taking climate initiative into its own hands, the G20 dispelled the notion that an external stimulus may
be necessary to trigger progression on climate-aligned
SDG commitments. Instead, the desire to commit to voluntary climate communication is a welcome
departure from previous evidence that found G20's climate commitments to be at relative odds with the
emissions reductions goals set out under the Paris Accord. Speaking about the climate issue, Merkel said
all states except the US made a commitment to follow the goals of the Paris Climate Agreement.
Source: https://www.business-standard.com/article/current-affairs/post-coronavirus-economic-growth-
tops-agenda-list-of-2020-g20-summit-120113000289_1.html
41. The virtual G20 summit was held in - [1]?

(a) South Africa (b) South Korea (c) Saudi Arabia (d) Turkey
42. Charles Michel is the president of which organization - [2]?

(a) European council (b) IMF (c) World Bank (d) NATO
43. Fill in the blank - [3]

(a) $ 30 (b) $ 40 (c) $21 (d) $ 41
44. Who is the founder of G20?

(a) Group of Seven (b) G4 nations (c) Group of eight (d) WTO
45. Paris agreement was adopted in which year?

(a) 2014 (b) 2015 (c) 2016 (d) 2017

MOCK CLAT #15
(Passage Q.46-Q.50): A conflict between the government of Ethiopia and forces in its [1] Tigray region
has thrown the country into turmoil.
Fighting has been going on for almost two weeks, destabilising the populous country in East Africa, with
reports of hundreds dead.
A power struggle, an election and a push for political reform are among several factors that led to the
crisis.
Here, we've broken them down to explain how and why this conflict has flared.
In simple chunks of 100, 300 and 500 words, this is the story of the crisis so far.
The conflict started on 4 November, when Ethiopian Prime Minister Abiy Ahmed ordered a military
offensive against regional forces in Tigray.
He said he did so in response to an attack on a military base housing government troops in Tigray.
The escalation came after months of feuding between MrAbiy's government and leaders of Tigray's
dominant political party.
For almost three decades, the party was at the centre of power, before it was sidelined by MrAbiy, who
took office in 2018 after anti-government protests.
MrAbiy pursued reforms, but when Tigray resisted, a political crisis ensued.
The roots of this crisis can be traced to Ethiopia's system of government.
Since [2], Ethiopia has had a federal system in which different ethnic groups control the affairs of 10
regions.
Remember that powerful party from Tigray? Well, this party - the Tigray People's Liberation Front (TPLF)
- was influential in setting up this system.
It was the leader of a four-party coalition that governed Ethiopia from 1991, when a military regime was
ousted from power.
Source: https://www.bbc.com/news/world-africa-54964378

(a) Northern (b) Southern (c) Western (d) Eastern
47. Since when Ethiopia has had a federal system in which different ethnic groups control the affairs of 10
regions?
(a) 1990 (b) 1994 (c) 1890 (d) 1888
48. The full-scale humanitarian crisis is unfolding as thousands of refugees flee ongoing fighting in Ethiopia‘s
Tigray region each day to seek safety in ?
(a) Chad (b) Yemen (c) Sudan (d) Somalia
49. The TPLF was founded in which year as a resistance army of the Tigrayan people against the military
dictatorship, which was called the Derg?
(a) 1976 (b) 1975 (c) 1989 (d) 1979
50. What is Ethiopia‘s capital?

(a) Addis Ababa (b) Accra (c) Abuja (d) Dakar
(Passage Q.51-Q.55): Left exploited farmers in Tripura, Kerala, Bengal; their stand on farm laws
hypocritical, claims BJP
Terming the Left parties' stand on the three farm laws "hypocritical", the BJP on Wednesday accused
them of "exploiting" the farmers while in power in Tripura, Kerala and West Bengal.
Wherever the Left parties were in power, there was "nothing left" for the farmers and the economy, party
spokesperson SambitPatra told reporters. "For 25 years, till 2018, there was a Left government in
Tripura. I feel sad in saying that there was no MSP in the state for 25 years. Today, the Left leaders are
acting as well wishers of the farmers, but all they did was to exploit them.
"The first thing the BJP did after coming to power in Tripura in 2018 was procurement of paddy. As much
as 48,716 tonnes of paddy was procured from 27,735 farmers at an expenditure of Rs 86.65 crore," he
said.

MOCK CLAT #15
Under the Left government, farmers in Tripura were selling rice for Rs 10-12 per kilogramme. Now, under
the BJP government they are selling it for Rs 18.50, he claimed.
Patra also remarked that the agricultural growth rate was 6.4 per cent when the Left was in power in
Tripura in 2017-2018. "In two consecutive years -- 2018-19 and 2020-2021 -- it rose to 13.5 percent," he
said. "Wherever there is Left, the farmers have been exploited," the BJP spokesperson alleged.
Source: https://www.firstpost.com/india/farmers-protest-live-updates-steps-taken-in-interest-of-farmers-
pm-will-not-let-them-get-hurt-says-rajnath-singh-9138341.html
51. Ex-India Hockey Captain to Return Padma Shri In Support Of Farmers' Protest. Name him?
(a) Rajindersingh
(b) Gurmailsingh
(c) Milkasingh
(d) Pargatsingh
52. A pan-Indian umbrella organisation comprising 250 farmers' organizations is at the forefront of the
protests. What is the name of it?
(a) Bharat kisan union
(b) Bharatiyakisan union
(c) All India KisanSangarsh Coordination Committee
(d) All India KisanSangarsh Coordination organisation
53. (APMC) is a marketing board established by state governments in India to ensure farmers are
safeguarded from exploitation by large retailers. What does it stand for?
(a) Agricultural Produce Market Committee
(b) Agricultural Product Market Community
(c) Agricultural Product Market Committee
(d) Agricultural Produce Market Community
54. Consider the following statements and choose the correct statements.
i. Minimum Support Price is a safety net given to the farmers to ensure guaranteed prices and assured
markets.
ii. The MSP is fixed twice a year on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and
Prices (CACP), which is a statutory body and submits separate reports recommending prices for
kharif and rabi seasons.
(a) Only i
(b) Only ii
(c) Both
(d) None
55. Arhatiyas, as they are called in which states, are commission agents?
(a) Punjab
(b) West Bengal
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Passage (Q.56-Q.60): Election Commission is one agency in India that works round the clock,
throughout the year.
The country has adopted a quasi-federal set-up in our Constitution. India is neither unitary like [1] nor
fully federal like the US. Members are elected for the LokSabha and the Legislative Assembly.
The anti-defection law is special to India. It has, however, failed in its mission. Split and merger gave
room for conflict between the Speaker‘s jurisdiction and the court‘s role. The prime cause for the
instability of elected governments must be traced to the decision of the party in power at the Centre to
dismiss State governments run by opposition parties.

MOCK CLAT #15
56. Mark the incorrect statement regarding election commission.

(a) it is common to both the Central government and the state government
(b) It controls elections of parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of
vice-president of India
(c) It conducts the election of panchayats and municipalities in the states
(d) The appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners shall be made
by the president.
(a) Austria
(b) Germany
(c) Britain
(d) Switzerland
58. Which article of constitution has provisions for election commission?
(a) 223
(b) 320
(c) 324
(d) 368
59. Recently, state election held in which of the following states of India?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Delhi
(c) Bihar
(d) Madhya Pradesh
60. How many schedules are there in Indian constitution?

(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 13
(d) 14
Passage (Q.61-Q.64): A Ramsar Site is a wetland site designated to be of international importance.

These wetlands are protected under strict guidelines of the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands.
The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands, also known as the Convention on Wetlands, is an
intergovernmental treaty for the conservation and wise use of wetlands.
The convention, signed in [1] by UNESCO in the Iranian city of Ramsar, is one of the oldest inter-
governmental accords for preserving the ecological character of wetlands.
India has [2] wetlands, the highest in South Asia, with two more added to the list of recognised sites of
international importance under the treaty of Ramsar Convention.

(a) 1960 (b) 1968 (c) 1971 (d) 1975

(a) 36 (b) 42 (c) 45 (d) 51
63. The Lonarlake in _________ and Sur Sarovar, also known as ________, in Agra.
(a) Himachal Pradesh, Shriyam lake
(b) Maharashtra, Keetham lake
(c) Andhra Pradesh, Suryam lake
(d) Uttarakhand, Vinesh lake
64. Montreux Record is under the Ramsar convention. From India how many sites are under this record?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 7
MOCK CLAT #15
Passage (Q.65-Q.68): The Jammu & Kashmir administration has recently released a series of lists of
alleged beneficiaries of the Roshni Act of [1], now scrapped, which gave ownership rights to the
unauthorised occupants of state land.
Following a recent order by the Jammu & Kashmir High Court, the administration has annulled the Act (it
was earlier repealed prospectively) and decided to retrieve land transferred under the Roshni scheme.
Right-wing groups in Jammu have described the scheme as being aimed at changing the demography of
Jammu region, while mainstream political parties have accused the government of being selective
against Muslims.
65. What was the aim of the Roshni Act?

(a) To distribute land equally among residents of state
(b) To give a boost to the state's infrastructure
(c) To fulfil the right to property enshrined in the constitution
(d) To raise funds for hydroelectric projects

(a) 1993
(b) 1997
(c) 2001
(d) 2005
67. Under the act, the government gave free ownership right to:
(a) Farmers
(b) People of BPL category
(c) A person having an annual income of below 1lakh
(d) Jammu residents
68. When was Roshni Act scrapped?

(a) 2010
(b) 2013
(c) 2015
(d) 2018

MOCK CLAT #15
SECTION – C : LEGAL REASONING
Passage (Q.69-Q.74): The judgment first discussed the evolution of the principle of promissory estoppel
in the English law and the development of the doctrine of legitimate expectation as its offshoot.
Promissory estoppel developed as an equitable remedy to grant relief to a person who has acted on a
promise even in the absence of a contractual relationship or consideration. It can be used as a "shield" in
a legal proceeding and not as a "sword". In other words, promissory estoppel will not by itself constitute a
cause of action and was allowed to be used as a defence in a legal proceeding.
The doctrine of legitimate expectations developed in parallel to the doctrine of promissory estoppel. It is
founded on the principles of fairness in government dealings. It comes into play if a public body leads an
individual to believe that they will be a recipient of a substantive benefit.
Under English Law, the doctrine of legitimate expectation initially developed in the context of public law
as an analogy to the doctrine of promissory estoppel found in private law. However, since then, English
Law has distinguished between the doctrines of promissory estoppel and legitimate expectation as
distinct remedies under private law and public law, respectively.
Another difference between the doctrines of promissory estoppel and legitimate expectation under
English Law is that the latter can constitute a cause of action. In other words, doctrine of legitimate
expectation can be used as a 'sword'.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, https://livelaw.in/know-the-law/doctrine-of-legitimate-expectation-
promissory-estoppel-166715]
69. Raju promised to make maintenance payments to his separated wife Sheetal in 2019. However, due to
the advent of coronavirus, he was unable to do so. Sheeteal brings a lawsuit against Raju in December
(a) Promissory Estoppel is applicable as a valid consideration is not needed in promissory estoppel
(b) Promissory Estoppel is not applicable as Raju and Sheetal do not have a contractual relationship
(c) Promissory Estoppel is applicable due to the principle of fairness.
(d) Promissory Estoppel is not applicable as it cannot be a cause of action.
70. A vendor makes an oral promise to the customer to replace the goods if they do not fit the customer size
requirements. The customer purchases the clothes and takes them home. However, the customer
proposes to return the clothes to the vendor relying on the vendor oral promise. Which of the following is
true?
(a) Promissory Estoppel is not applicable due to lack of consideration
(b) Promissory Estoppel is not applicable as contractual relationship is over.
(c) Promissory Estoppel is not applicable as it can only be used as a shield and not a sword.
71. Ramesh was an employee in a company owned by Suresh. One fine day, Suresh, being extremely happy
with Ramesh‘s work, promised lifetime retirement pensions if he resigns. Ramesh retired the next day.
Suresh refused to pay him. Which of the following is true?
(a) Promissory Estoppel is inapplicable as Suresh did not make the decision in his right mind.
(b) Promissory Estoppel is inapplicable as the doctrine cannot be used as a sole cause of action.
(c) Promissory Estoppel is applicable as Ramesh acted upon Suresh's promise, making it a valid
defence.
(d) Promissory Estoppel is applicable as the act of retiring was a valid consideration for retirement
pensions.
72. Rishabh and Mansi wanted to settle a tenancy dispute. They appointed a private arbitrator to resolve the
dispute in a fair and equitable manner. However, while hearing the dispute, the arbitrator failed to follow
due process. Which of these is true?
(a) The doctrine of legitimate expectation is applicable as principle of fairness has been violated.
(b) The doctrine of legitimate expectation is applicable and it can be used as a cause of action to
challenge the arbitrator's decision.
(c) The doctrine of promissory estoppel is applicable due to a private arbitrator.
(d) The doctrine of legitimate expectation is inapplicable.

MOCK CLAT #15
73. After winning the elections with a landslide victory, Prime Minister Rodie, as the representative of the
government promised concessions in cost of electricity in his hometown Splitsvilla for the coming five
years. However, no such concession was provided by the government in those 5 years. A resident of
Splitsvilla, Ranvijay, sought the enforcement of the policy with retrospective effect. Which of the following
is likely?
(a) The retrospective enforcement would be allowed due to legitimate expectation
(b) The retrospective enforcement would be allowed due to promissory estoppel.
(c) The retrospective enforcement would not be allowed as the government usually makes such hollow
promises.
(d) The retrospective enforcement would be allowed as the doctrine of legitimate expectation can be
used as a cause of action.
74. A severely disabled woman was promised in clear and unqualified terms a home for life by the municipal
corporation if she agreed to give up her existing accommodation. The woman, on the promise made to
her, left her existing accommodation. However, no such home was provided to her. Which of the
following is true?
(a) The doctrine of promissory estoppel is applicable
(b) The doctrine of legitimate expectation is applicable.
(c) The Municipal Corporation can be estopped through both the doctrines.
(d) The doctrine of promissory estoppel is not applicable due to lack of contractual relationship.
Passage (Q.75-Q.80): The Supreme Court has held that the offence of dowry death under Section 304B
of the Indian Penal Code cannot be made out if the cause of death has not been established as
unnatural.
The Court also held that it has to be shown that the deceased wife was subjected to cruelty or
harassment in connection with demand for dowry soon before her death.
The judgment authored by Justice K M Joseph explained the ingredients of the offence under Section
304B IPC as follows:
"The ingredients of the offence are well-settled. A marriage performed within seven years before the
death of the wife. The death must be unnatural. Soon before the death, the deceased wife must have
been at the receiving end of cruelty or harassment, on account of demand for dowry. It is described as
dowry death. The relatives concerned, including husband, become liable. Section 113B of the Evidence
Act comes to the rescue of the prosecutor by providing for a presumption that a person has caused
dowry death if, it is shown that soon before her death, she was subjected by such person for cruelty or
harassment for or in connection with demand for dowry"
Extracted, with edits and revisions, https://livelaw.in/know-the-law/dowry-death-section-304b-ipc-
supreme-court-unnatural-death-166833
75. Ramesh married Seema on 31st December 2001. The pregnancy report taken on 20th December 2006
showed positive result. However, taunts on carrying of an illegitimate child by the society led the victim to
take her life after a month. Which of the following is likely?
(a) This is a case of dowry death as the taunts started within 7 years of the marriage.
(b) This is not a case of dowry death as the victim took her life after the period of 7 years.
(c) This is not a case of dowry death as the taunts were not issued by relatives but the society
(d) This is not a case of dowry death as there is no case of Seema been harassed or subjected to the
demand for dowry.
76. Ramesh married Seema on 31st December 2001. The pregnancy report taken on 20th December 2008
showed positive result. However, taunts on carrying of an illegitimate child by the society led the victim to
take her life after a month. Which of the following is true?
(a) This is a case of dowry death as the taunts started within 7 years of the marriage.
(b) This is not a case of dowry death as the victim took her life after the period of 7 years.
(c) This is not a case of dowry death as the taunts were not issued by relatives but the society.

MOCK CLAT #15
77. Khusboo married Luthra in the year 2010. A year after the marriage, Khushboo suffered from lung
cancer. After knowing this, Luthra‘s parents started demanding dowry from Khushboo to conduct
marriage of Luthra with someone else in the coming years. Thus continued for another year and
Khushboo died from cancer. Khushboo‘s father filed a case of dowry death.
(a) This is not a case of dowry death.
(b) This is a case of dowry death as Khushboo was subjected to cruelty
(c) This is a case of dowry death as Khushboo was subjected to constant mental trauma.
(d) This is a case of dowry death as clearly her in-laws demanded dowry from her.
78. Khusboo married Luthra in the year 2010. A year after the marriage, Khushboo suffered from lung
cancer. After knowing this, Luthra‘s parents started demanding dowry from Khushboo to conduct
marriage of Luthra with someone else in the coming years. Thus continued for another year and
Khushboo died from cancer. Khushboo‘s father filed a case accusing Khushboo‘s in-laws of dowry death.
(a) As a cardinal principle of criminal law, the presumption lies on the prosecution, Khushboo‘s father to
prove the case
(b) The burden lies on Luthra to prove that Khushboo was not subjected to any cruelty before her death
(c) The burden lies on Khushboo‘s in-laws to prove that Khushboo was not subjected to any cruelty
before her death.
(d) The initial presumption to move forward in this case would be in favour of Khushboo‘s father
79. Mike married Rachel in the year 2001. Soon after their wedding Rachel started receiving letters from
Mike‘s parents demanding dowry. After much efforts Mike persuaded his parents to not send such letters.
On 25th December 2006, Rachel was fired from her firm. When she was at home, she saw those letters
sent to her by Mike‘s parents. Reading the letters added fuel to fire and she concluded her life. Which of
the following is likely?
(a) This is a case of dowry death as the letters by Mike‘s parents led to her death
(b) This is not a case of dowry death as the letters were sent way back in 2001 and not soon before her
death.
(c) This is a case of dowry death as all the ingredients of the offence are fulfilled
(d) The presumption lies against Mike of having committed the offence
80. Shanti was married to Nikhil. At the time of marriage Nikhil‘s family received a dowry of 40 thousand
rupees. Soon after the marriage Nikhil demanded a buffalo as additional dowry. Shanti was tortured
constantly. One day when her brother visited the family of in-laws he found out that Shanti had died.
(a) Nikhil and his family would be liable under Section 304B IPC.
(b) Nikhil and his family would not be liable under Section 304B IPC.
(c) The burden of proof rests upon Nikhil and his family to prove their innocence.
Passage (Q.81-Q.84): Singapore Court has adopted a ‗one-dimensional facet‘ of liberty. This form of
liberty exists in constitutional text but cannot be enforced in real world. The aforementioned comment is
in response to the Court‘s argument that a homosexual person is not being prosecuted for his identity,
but rather for the ‗acts‘ he does in furtherance of this identity which are socially comprehended to be of
gross indecency. Highlighting that it is the ‗act‘ which is penal, the Court remarked that even a
heterosexual person committing such an act can be prosecuted under Section 377A.
Sexual identity is ‗personal‘ to an individual and the ‗liberty‘ to express such identity by way of behaviour,
sexual acts or choice of life partner falls well within the ambit of Article 9. By penalising conduct
which does not fall within the binary, the Court is inevitably prosecuting homosexual people for their
identity.
The Court referred to various scientific evidences and expert testimony to conclude that sexual
orientation of a person may vary over time, and therefore, it is not ―immutable‖. This deduction can be
rebutted from two different angles. On one hand, reliance can be laid on the judgement rendered

MOCK CLAT #15
in Navtej Singh Johar to argue that sexual orientation of a person is innate, ingrained and inherent. On
the other hand, it can be argued that with more and more people identifying themselves as LGBTQIA+,
people around the globe are in the process of exploring their true unchanging or immutable self. Thus,
their sexual orientation is not changing, rather their understanding of themselves is. This argument is
based on the premise that sexuality is fluid in nature. Even if the reasoning of the Court is accepted, it
does not in any manner justify that heterosexuality is the only ‗normal‘ and just because the orientation of
a person can vary, they should be forced by penal measures to resort to heterosexual ways of sexual
expression.
81. FarrokhBulsaraan as acclaimed celebrity, artist and musician in Singapore has been involved in a
controversy, he has been accused of indulging in act of carnal intercourse, in pursuant to which a case
has been filed against him under Section 377A. You are a Lawyer who is obsessed with winning a case.
Which role, amongst the following, are you most likely to choose in order to maintain your win-loss ratio
(a) Prosecution.
(b) FarrokhBulsaraan.
(c) Amicus Curie.
(d) Legal view is conflicting, cannot be determined.
82. After contemplating morality and significance of this case you agreed to take this high profile case. WRT
the passage above, provide legal advice to Farrokh.
(a) Indulging in homosexual activities is not a crime and Section 377 has been decriminalized by the
Supreme Court of India, there is nothing to worry about any legal prosecution.
(b) Sexual Orientation is a personal choice and a right to life and personal liberty of an individual, as per
the law no one can be prosecuted in India for indulging in homosexual activities.
(c) The act against the nature, i.e. the act of unnatural sex, is not only against the law but also
considered gross indecency.
(d) Even if Navtej Singh Joharcase is considered the court has yet not decriminalized the act of
homosexuality, the only recourse is to challenge the judgement.
83. Mary Austin ex-girlfriend of farrokh gave testimony that farrokh forced her in committing sodomy, thou
Mary stopped it immediately after the first successful attempt. Farrokh claims, it happened by mistake.
Help farrokh understand the future of the case:
(a) Nothing done by mistake, or without intention to commit a crime can be prosecuted under penal law,
mensrea is essential.
(b) Farrokh indulged in homosexual activity, whether by mistake or by will, offence has been committed.
(c) There is no case against farrokh.
(d) Farrokh will be prosecuted as the act is punishable per se.
84. After the news of Mary‘s testimony got out several people came out and accused farrokh for the same,
including Paul Painter former best friend of farrokh. Paul accused farrokh of forcing him to indulge in oral
sex and produced unverified evidence for the same. Decide the recourse.
(a) Oral sex is not considered a homosexual activity therefore farrokh cannot be prosecuted for the
same, charges are frivolous.
(b) Farrokh will be prosecuted.
(c) Farrokh will be held liable for indulging in homosexual activity under Section 377A.
(d) Farrokh has committed an ultimate sin, which is not only against the law but also considered gross
indecency in the eyes of the society.

MOCK CLAT #15
Passage (Q.85-Q.88):A confession or an admission is evidence against the maker of it, unless its
admissibility is excluded by some provision of law. Section 24 excludes confessions caused by certain
inducements, threats and promises. Section 25 provides: "No confession made to a police officer, shall
be proved as against a person accused of an offence." The terms of s. 25 are imperative. A confession
made to a police officer under any circumstances is not admissible in evidence against the accused. It
covers a confession made when he was free and not in police custody, as also a confession made before
any investigation has begun. The expression "accused of any offence" covers a person accused of an
offence at the trial whether or not he was accused of the offence when he made the confession. Section
26 prohibits proof against any person of a confession made by him in the custody of a police officer,
unless it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate. The partial ban imposed by S. 26 relates to
a confession made to a person other than a police officer. Section 26 does not qualify the absolute ban
imposed by s. 25 on a confession made to a police officer. Section 27 is in the form of a proviso, and
partially lifts the ban imposed by ss. 24, 25 and 26. It provides that when any fact is deposed to as
discovered in consequence of information received from a person accused of any offence, in the custody
of a police officer, so much of such information, whether it amounts to a confession or not, as relates
distinctly to the fact thereby discovered, may be proved.
Source: AghnooNagesia v. State of Bihar [AIR 1966 SC 119]
85. Bob lived in a village with his old aunt, her son, daughter-in-law and a four year old grandson. One
morning, following a fight, he kills his aunt, his cousin with a scythe, and throws the scythe in the canal
outside the village. He runs away without anybody noticing the happening of the criminal act. Late in the
afternoon, his conscience is shaken, and consequently, he goes to the police station, and narrates the
entire episode to the officer on duty. The officer wrote down Bob‘s entire confession, took him into
custody, and now wants to prove Bob‘s confession in the trial for the murders.
(a) Bob can be convicted based on the confession because he has accepted his guilt.
(b) Bob cannot be convicted based on the confession because his confession was made to a police
officer.
(c) Bob can be convicted because when he was making the confession, he was not yet accused of
murder, and hence the section 25 restriction would not apply.
(d) Bob cannot be convicted because there are no witnesses to the commission of the act.
86. Based on the details told by Bob, police go to the canal, and find the scythe, wrapped in a gunny bag.
The police want to prove the murder weapon in the court.
(a) The police cannot prove the murder weapon because the confession was made in police custody.
(b) The police cannot prove the weapon because the confession was not made in the presence of a
magistrate.
(c) The police may prove the weapon, because it was discovered in pursuance of information received
from Bob, and it related distinctly to a fact discovered.
(d) The police must prove the murder weapon, because otherwise the accused would have to be
acquitted.
87. David Abraham is accused of indulging in drugs trade, money laundering and terrorist activities. After
being at large for over a decade, he returns to India. A police team, in an attempt to nab him, sets up a
trap and asks a journalist to set up a telephonic conversation. On the phone call, unaware of the trap,
David brags about his drug empire and the wealth, and how the police have been unable to get hold of
him. The police record the conversation, and arrest David. David pleads not guilty, and this recording is
presented in the court as evidence against him.
(a) This recording of the phone call cannot be proved because the confession was being overheard by
the police, and hence is barred under section 25.
(b) The recording of the phone call cannot be proved because it was not made to a magistrate but to a
journalist.
(c) The recording of the phone call can be proved as evidence because a confession made to a journalist
is not prohibited.
(d) The recording of the phone call can be proved in court because this call was the basis of his arrest.

MOCK CLAT #15
88. Raju and Rashi had been married to each other for a decade. Raju had been an alcoholic, and indulged
in domestic violence against Rashi very frequently. Fed up with the constant torture and violence, Rashi
sought the help of the police. Mr. Charlie, the police inspector, talked to Raju, and warned him of serious
consequences if he does anything again. He accepted that he used to hit Rashi under the influence of
alcohol, and promised to never do it again. He stopped this behaviour and started working. During the
COVID lockdown, he lost his job, and started drinking again. One day, after drinking a lot, he started to
argue with Rashi, and slapped her hard. Having given up on him, finally Rashi files a suit for divorce on
grounds of cruelty and presents Inspector Charlie as a witness.
(a) Inspector Charlie cannot be a witness and Raju‘s statement cannot be proven in evidence because it
falls within ‗confession made to a police officer.‘
(b) Inspector Charlie cannot be a witness because this is a domestic affair and police are not supposed
to interfere in domestic matters.
(c) Inspector Charlie can be a witness and testify in the trial because the section 25 bar applies only to
criminal trials, when the person making the confession is accused of an offence, and this is a divorce
proceeding.
(d) Inspector Charlie can be a witness because he was aware of the nature of domestic violence and
harassment which Rashi was subjected to, and was the investigating officer when Rashi had
complained to the police.
Passage (Q.89-Q.93):Just recently, it has come to light that the State of Arizona has put forward a new
death penalty plan given the lack of availability of anaesthetics and sedatives previously used in the
death chamber. The plan being put forward is a provision that puts the onus on a death row inmates‘
lawyer to provide the drugs so the State can follow through with the planned death penalty. To say that
this plan throws some ethical issues in the face of those lawyers would be a great understatement.
One of the main duties of any lawyer is to act in the clients‘ best interests and in accordance with their
instructions. Here we have a situation where Arizona is attempting to put a duty on a lawyer to act in the
state‘s best interests and as per their instructions rather than the client‘s. This flies in the face of the
duties of a lawyer to their client. This is before we even take into account the fact that it is against Federal
law in the US to import these drugs. It should be noted that a lawyer is bound to not assist or take part in
criminal conduct with their client but here, Arizona expects a lawyer to commit a criminal act for the State
so that they can execute their client? The fact that committing a criminal act can be seen to indicate that
the lawyer is not fit to practice and can amount to professional misconduct.
We could also turn our mind to the matter of professional ethics which stipulates that a lawyer must act
independently and impartially in providing legal services but the plan being put forward is essentially
asking the lawyer to be a slave to the aims of government and hammer their client to the stake, so to
speak. Further, when acting with this independence the lawyer is given the right to refer to considerations
such as moral, social and political factors in addition to matters of law. However, it is perfectly fine for a
lawyer to buy end-of-life drugs for someone who is not choosing to die.
Even more ironic than any of the above would have to be the professional rule that Arizona lawyers are
bound by, which insists that a lawyer should reveal any information they receive that could prevent their
client from committing a criminal act that would result in death. But here we are expecting a lawyer to
commit a criminal act that results in the death of their client?
At the end of all that, we can also add the fact that the lawyer has also likely engaged in conduct that
could be seen to be prejudicial to the administration of justice. Now we could potentially end up with a
bunch of lawyers who will have been acting in the way they have so been ordered by the State, yet are
likely in prison themselves for importing an illegal substance into the US. Is Arizona trying to ensure the
end of the lawyers that advocate for these people too?
[Tasha Russell, ‗Arizona‘s Death Penalty Procedures & Professional Ethics‘ Jurist
<https://www.jurist.org/commentary/2017/03/arizonas-death-penalty-procedures-professional-ethics/>
accessed on 23 May 2020]

MOCK CLAT #15
89. In light of the state of affairs as highlighted in the above passage, which of the followings is not likely to
be a measure which the state of Arizona is going to implement on its land?
(a) the lawyers to be given some financial help for buying the drugs which shall be used for executing the
death sentence.
(b) the lawyers to be allowed the immunity to hold representations against the directions of the state in a
completely free manner.
(c) to organise a medical workshop for the lawyers, seeking to train the candidates to administer the drug
in a right manner in order to execute death sentence.
(d) Both a & c
90. In light of the professional ethics, the author suggests which of the following upholds the author‘s view?
(a) Compelling the lawyers to buy drugs can result in commencement of the trial on themselves which
amounts to professional misconduct.
(b) Asking the Arizonian lawyers to reveal any information about their client to the state before the
institution of the death sentence amounts to professional misconduct.
(c) Not following Federal US law and the directions of the government amounts to professional
misconduct on part of the lawyers.
(d) Compelling the lawyers to act on the directive of the state which imply acting partiality in favour of the
state‘s amounts to professional misconduct on the part of lawyers.
91. Which of the following reasons does the author believe would be probable for the Arizonian lawyers to
land up behind the bars?
(a) For importing life-threatening drugs to the US for the purpose of killing their clients.
(b) For resisting to follow the state orders with respect of executing the death sentence of their clients.
(c) For not revealing enough information about their clients before the pronouncement of death sentence.
92. Let‘s say, the state of Arizona, in addition to the above state of affairs, implements a provision
whereunder, all the lawyers practicing in the state of Arizona shall be exempted to be held liable for
importing the drugs required for the execution of their clients who have been sentenced by the court. In
such a case, which of the followings most likely still remains as the author‘s concern?
(a) Lawyers not receiving enough medical training to administer the drug on their client.
(b) Lawyers not being able to fulfil their professional ethics and still functioning on the state orders which
fall contrary to their duties.
(c) Lawyers not being able to practice again in the legal field due to violating law.
93. The author ends the passage by posing a question that is - ‗Is Arizona trying to ensure the end of the
lawyers that advocate for these people too?‘ What does author imply here?
(a) the author asks the readers to ponder over the recent changes that the Arizonian state has imposed.
And in addition to this, analyse as to how through these changes the lawyers would lose to profess
their professional duties at the cost of benefit of the state.
(b) the author asks the reader to observe the implications of state sanction murders committed by the
lawyers and how it will further the apprehension of the Arizonian citizens towards the lawyers of this
state.
(c) the author asks the reader to give consideration towards the possibility that the Arizonian state is
conspiring to put all the layers behind the bars.
(d) Both a & b

MOCK CLAT #15
Passage (Q.94-Q.98):As the Australian government struggles to keep up with the rapid pace of COVID-
19 (coronavirus), societal freedoms are being restricted. At the same time, certain constraints around
criminal procedure are being loosened. In Australia‘s most populous state, New South Wales (NSW), the
government has introduced the COVID-19 Legislation Amendment (Emergency Measures) Bill 2020
(Emergency Legislation) that amends laws around pre-recorded evidence in criminal trials.
NSW, along with most other states and territories in Australia, already allows for pre-recorded evidence
from witnesses who are cognitively impaired or children who are victims of sexual assault. This
Emergency Legislation expands the categories of witnesses that can give pre-recorded evidence prior to
the trial taking place. Witnesses eligible to give pre-recorded evidence will now include complainants of
serious violence, including domestic and sexual offences, alongside complainants or witnesses who may
have a greater risk of harm from coronavirus.
This timely change self-evidently responds to concerns in relation to criminal procedures which are far
removed from social distancing. While change is therefore necessary in the current health crisis, it is
important to ensure that such change does not unduly impact the accused‘s right to a fair trial. This
fundamental right is inscribed internationally within Article 14 of the International Covenant on Civil and
Political Rights, to which Australia is party.
In a process evaluation report of the NSW program for pre-recorded evidence from victims of child sexual
assault, the University of NSW Social Policy Research Centre outlines the key concerns to the accused‘s
right to a fair trial. These concerns are two-fold: (i) short timeframes may impact the accused‘s ability ‗to
know the full case before cross-examination of the main witness‘, and (ii) new evidence ‗sought after the
pre-recording‘ may impact the accused‘s ability to know ‗the entirety of the evidence prior to the balance
of the trial‘. In the expanded context within which pre-recorded evidence will be allowed under the
emergency legislation, both of these concerns are also valid.
While emergency legislation is important considering the unprecedented times within which we are living,
such times should not allow for the health concerns of an individual witness to be unnecessarily placed
above an accused‘s right to a fair trial. This is critical in situations where an accused‘s liberty is at risk.
Alternative options are being explored within different states in Australia. In Victoria, Australia‘s second
most populous state, the expanded use of virtual courts is being actively considered in the wake of
coronavirus. Such alternative options should be explored nationally.
Yet this emergency legislation may also prove advantageous to sexual assault victim advocates. In the
context of child victims of sexual assault, pre-recorded evidence has been found to reduce the trauma
and abuse such victims may endure if required to give evidence in court. In extending pre-recorded
evidence to adult victims of sexual assault, this legislation could create the impetus needed to extend this
program permanently to all victims of sexual assault.
[Samantha O'Donnell, ‗Pre-recorded evidence in Australia in an era of COVID-19‘ Oxford Human Rights
Hub <https://ohrh.law.ox.ac.uk/pre-recorded-evidence-in-australia-in-an-era-of-covid-19/> accessed on
23 May 2020]
94. Daniel, a NSW citizen recently tested positive for COVID – 19. He is scheduled to provide his testimony
in a case where his brother, George is accused of domestic violence. Amongst which of the following, is
the author of the passage most likely to agree with?
(a) if in case after Daniel records his testimony there occurs some change of events, crucial for the
administration of justice, George might not have a fair chance to represent himself before the court of
law.
(b) Daniel‘s health condition can be compromised against George‘s right to fair trial.
(c) George‘s right to access a fair justice procedure cannot be prioritized over
(d) Both a & b

MOCK CLAT #15
95. The author of the passage does not agree on which of the followings?
(a) virtual courts do not disadvantage the accused from his/her rights as enshrined under International
Covenant on Civil and Political Rights.
(b) the emergency legislation implemented in view of the current health crisis has acted as a long due
step which was required to take the concerns of the adult witnesses of the sexual assault into
consideration.
(c) both a & b
96. In light of the situation prevailing before the implementation of the emergency legislation, which of the
following is most likely to be true?
(a) all the sexual assault victims in Australia used to provide their testimony on virtual courts.
(b) only the child sexual assault victims were allowed to give pre-recorded testimony.
(c) the Article 14 of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights went unimplemented as a
national legislation of Australia.
(d) both b & c
97. Leslie, a major witness to the child sexual assault survivor is supposed to provide her testimony before
the court but due to COVID -19, is asked to provide a pre-recorded evidence. According to the author, by
such a procedure, she shall be saved from which of the followings?
(a) by contacting the COVID – 19.
(b) she shall not have to face the potential abuse from the accused in the courtroom thus not resulting in
any form of additional trauma.
(c) she shall not be held liable for going against the statute.
98. NSW has implemented the current emergency legislation with which of the following objectives?
(a) to incorporate the international obligation mentioned under article 14 of the International Covenant on
Civil and Political Rights.
(b) to devise an inclusive approach, taking into consideration all the aspects of witness protection in a
criminal case.
(c) to adopt an approach which ensures social distancing
Passage (Q.99-Q.102):According to the Delhi High Court‘s decision in Myspace v. Super Cassettes,
intermediaries (which include online messaging platforms like Telegram) can claim the status of
intermediaries and can claim the ‗safe harbour‘ from liability for copyright infringement, available under
Section 79 of the Information Technology Act (IT Act). According to Section 79 and the rules made
thereunder, the intermediary can claim such safe harbour from liability provided it does not have ‗actual
knowledge‘ of the illegal (here, infringing) content, and does not fail to expeditiously take down such
content upon receiving such knowledge. The more unsettled question is the liability for unlawful content
on closed forums or online groups. This is a question that‘s being hotly debated under Indian law – with
the Supreme Court adjudicating a matter concerning WhatsApp‘s responsibility for unlawful content.
Similarly, there are numerous examples of orders under Section 144 of the CrPC being issued to hold
administrators of WhatsApp groups liable for ‗fake news‘ and unlawful content distributed on the group.
The question of liability of an intermediary for online content becomes significantly muddier if the
intermediary itself has no knowledge or means of examining the content in question, as is the case with
certain encrypted messaging services.
The administrator of a closed forum would not be granting permission for the content to be posted on the
forum; therefore, the administrator will have no direct control for granting permission for the content
posted on the forum. Therefore, the role of the administrator will have to be considered, to see if they
have control over the infringing content shared on the channels or groups, to see if they generally
exercise editorial control (such as removing posts or filtering messaged), or if they permit unlawful activity
MOCK CLAT #15
despite knowledge of the same. Liability of this nature may, in fact, be attributed to both the platform
(intermediary) as well as the administrators responsible for an online forum like Telegram channels.
(The extract has been taken with edits from https://spicyip.com/2020/06/delhi-hc-directs-telegram-to-take-

down-channels-circulating-infringing-e-newspapers.html)
99. Ravish is the administrator of a WhatsApp group, where small scale business owners offer their products
for sale to potential customers. Ravish is only has the access to add or remove members, he cannot
regulate the content in any manner. Aman posted the pictures of gown that he proclaimed to have
created and offered it for sale to the users of the forum. Mr. Goenka, a fashion designer discovered the
design of the gown to be very similar to a limited-edition gown manufactured under his label. Mr
Goenka‘s Company has decided to initiate action against Ravish for the plagiarism of their design. Would
Ravish be liable for infringement of Mr. Goenka‘s copyright?
(a) Yes, Ravish was is the administrator of the group and the liability for the content posted on the group
lies with him.
(b) No, Ravish only acted as the administrator of the group, he did not have the access to moderate the
content.
(c) Yes, Ravish had a responsibility to check the authenticity of the content being posted on the forum.
(d) Yes, Ravish has been an accomplice to Aman in the act of infringing Mr. Goenka‘s copyright over his
design.
100. ABC Resident‘s welfare association created a WhatsApp group exclusively for its members. Manish, the
President of the association was the administrator of the group. Over time it was found that Jatin a
member of the association had been publishing defamatory messages and insidous rumours against
some members of the association in the members exclusive WhatsApp group. Can the administrator
Manish be held liable in the present case?
(a) No, Manish was only the administrator of the group and he is not responsible for the content posted
by the members of the group.
(b) Yes, Manish was aware of the defamatory nature of the content and could see that malicious content
was being posted on the platform without any supporting evidence to authenticate the same, but still
failed to take any action.
(c) No, this was a dispute between some members of the group and Manish is not a party to the same.
(d) Yes, posting derogatory material about a person without sufficient proof is an act of defamation
punishable by law and Manish has permitted the act to continue despite being aware of the same.
101. ORM is an online video sharing application. Members registered on the application can upload their
videos and share it further on other Platforms. Kay a musician has sent a letter to ORM informing them of
a particular video uploaded on the Application comprising of a musical note similar to his creation and the
same has been used without his permission. Receiving no response Kay proceeds to file a case of
infringement of his copyright making ORM a party to the same. Can ORM be held liable?
(a) No, ORM is only an intermediary who host the videos on their application, they are not responsible for
the content uploaded in the videos.
(b) Yes, ORM was informed about the unauthorised use of the copyrighted musical work of Kay but failed
to take down the same upon being informed.
(c) Yes, ORM would be responsible as they permitted uploading of the content on the platform without
verification of the same.
(d) No, the user responsible for uploading the content on the ORM Application alone would be
responsible as the right for the work vests with them alone.
102. Insta an instant messaging platform has been made a party to a copyright infringement case by Nation
Today, a monthly magazine for permitting circulation of the illegally downloaded PDF version of the
magazine on several of its user groups and failing to take action even upon being reported about the
same by Nation Today. To what extent is Insta liable in the present case?
(a) Insta does not bear any liability in the present case, it only hosts the groups and facilitates messaging
on the groups and is not responsible for the content shared.

MOCK CLAT #15
(b) Insta is liable for aiding in the unauthorised circulation of the magazines as they failed to remove the
groups or ensure removal of the infringing content.
(c) Insta is liable in the present case as despite being informed of the illegal activity failed to take
reasonable measure to correct the same.
(d) Insta would bear the liability as an intermediary who failed to take corrective action despite breach of
law by the users of the Platform, despite being aware of the same.
Passage (Q.103-Q.106):Doctrine of proportionality finds its place in the Administrative law and is used at
the stage of judicial review. The doctrine asserts that there must be a reasonable nexus between the
desired result and the measures taken to reach that goal. The action taken must not be shockingly
disproportionate to the consciousness of the court and the said action can then be challenged by way of
judicial review. It can be better understood with the help of an illustration. Let's say, if in a workplace
some workers remain absent from their duty then the punishment for it must be proportional, that is, the
employer may treat it as leave without pay and may warn them or may even levy a fine but to dismiss
them from service permanently would be disproportional.
Sir John Laws has described 'proportionality' as a principle where the court is concerned with the way in
which the decision maker has ordered his priority.
Lord Diplock in R vs. Goldstein in a bit to explain 'proportionality' said, "This would indeed be using a
sledge-hammer to crack a nut" 'Proportionality' involves a "Balancing test" which keeps a check on the
excessive or arbitrary punishments or encroachment upon the rights and "Necessity test" which takes
into account other less restrictive alternates. The principle of proportionality evaluates two aspects of a
decision:
(1) Whether the relative merits of differing objectives or interests were appropriately weighed or "fairly
balanced"?
(2) Whether the measure in question was in the circumstances excessively restrictive or inflicted an
unnecessary burden on affected persons?
The court in such a case will not be concerned with the correctness of the decision rather the method to
reach such decision. The decision making process involves attributing relative importance to various
aspects in the case and there the doctrine of proportionality enters.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from Doctrine of Proportionality - An Explainer by Saransh Sharma,
Live Law
www.livelaw.in/know-the-law/doctrine-of-proportionality-an-explainer-161433]
103. An Army Officer disobeyed the lawful command of his superior officer by not eating food offered to him.
Court-martial proceedings were initiated and a sentence of one-year rigorous punishment was imposed.
He was also dismissed from service, with added disqualification that he would be unfit for future
employments. Which of these can be the possible reasoning of the court?
(a) The decision taken through the court-martial proceedings was right as the interests of the army are far
greater than the individual's interest.
(b) The decision taken through the court-martial proceedings are wrong as the punishment is excessive
in nature.
(c) The court-martial proceedings considered the objective of deterring individuals in the future from
disobeying the commands of senior officers. In such circumstances, the court was right to implement
excessive restrictive harm to the officer.
104. Certain Employees went on an illegal strike. They also prevented others from discharging their duty. The
company held that the acts amounted to "Serious misconduct." The employees were punished through
the stoppage of increment in the coming months. This was challenged by the court. Which of these can
be a possible reasoning of the court?
(a) The punishment imposed on the employees is wrong as they have a right to protest.
(b)The punishment seeks to deter individuals in the future from going on illegal strikes against the
company. Therefore, it is not over-restrictive.
(c) The punishment imposed upon the employees is right as it was an illegal strike against the company.
(d) Both (b) & (c)

MOCK CLAT #15
105. The internet was shut down and the movement were restricted in the State of Kammu and Jashmir due to
mob protests throughout the State. The following order of the government was challenged through
judicial review. Which of these could be the reasoning of the court in reaching a conclusion?
(a) The order is invalid as it violates Article 19(1)(d) of the constitution.
(b) The order is valid as it helps in maintaining peace in the State.
(c) The government did not weigh the fundamental rights against maintaining peace of the State
appropriately and has put an unnecessary burden upon the people of Kammu and Jashmir.
(d) The order of the government was overly restrictive and should be struck down.
106. SedwardNowden, an Indian citizen, approached the Supreme Court when he came to know that the
government was tracking his every movement on the purported grounds that Sedward was going to leak
important government documents to an enemy country. Which of these could be a possible reasoning of
the Supreme Court for dealing with the issue?
(a) Sedward should be provided with appropriate relief as his right to privacy has been breached.
(b) Government‘s breach of right to privacy of Sedward to secure national interest was over-restrictive in
nature.
(c) National Security is far more critical in comparison to the right to privacy of a single person.
Therefore, the measure was not over-restrictive.
(d) Both (b) & (c)

MOCK CLAT #15
Directions (Q.107-Q.112): After the Citizenship (Amendment) Act was passed, something vital changed
about our identity as Indians. Up until then there was a quiet assurance that our Constitution and the
associated statutory laws defined our political character as secular-democratic. Even when our socio-
political practice remained sullied by caste, gender, racial and communal hierarchies, our constitutional
structure, official institutions, their internal checks and balances, even the transgressions and the
anomalies were broadly conducted within the ambit of a secular democratic ethos. With the passing of
the CAA we officially, formally and constitutionally adopted religion as an adjudicating principle of Indian
citizenship. While the Act itself, formally at least, only excludes (deemed) illegal Muslim migrants, what it
elliptically and insidiously does is to cast a shroud of doubt on many legal, valid Muslim citizens of India.
Political theorists may use descriptors like authoritarian-democracy, majoritarian-fascism, fasco-liberalism
and so on. ―But even the most astute political theorist knows that two terms stitched together by hyphens
are yesteryear oxymoronic foes, conceptually insufficient to grasp the nature of the disorder.‖ Let me
make an audacious suggestion and argue that this time India may well have taken a step in the direction
of becoming a ‗constitutional theocracy‘. Unlike a pure theocracy where the political head is also the
religious head, or at least the religious leader assumes a leading role in the state, a constitutional
theocracy operates within the bounds of the constitution. The religious character of the Indian variant is
less transparent and visible. It manifests itself in the public sphere through essentially two ways,
disturbingly both constitutional. The first: fundamental transformations of constitutional identity towards a
more religious order occur through formal constitutional measures. A second way in which a
constitution‘s religious character may emerge is the fundamental transformations of constitutional identity
toward a more religious order are effected covertly through political and judicial actors.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from thewire.in‘s article: Has India Descended Into a
Constitutional Theocracy? by Rajshree Chandra.
107. Which of the following instances would not weaken the author‘s view about the pre-CAA India?
(a) India had denied shelter to Rohingya Muslims in 2015, the minority community of Myanmar, who has
suffered much communal violence.
(b) The Supreme Court of India had judged the government‘s decision of internment of nearly 3000
Chinese Indians in the Deoli camp after the 1962 Indo-Chinese war as unjust and wrong
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
108. According to the author which of the following would be a feature of a constitutional theocracy that India
might end up being?
(a) The Constitution selects a specific religion to be the official religion of the country
(b) The Constitution doesn‘t prescribe an official religion but it states that the laws of the land would be
based on the laws of the religion
(c) A religious leader may become the head of a state or the entire country
(d) Communal acts in favour of the major religion end up getting constitutional safeguards

(a) The first way is a much more subtle and translucent way of creating a constitutional theocracy than
the second way.
(b) The second way is a much more subtle and translucent way of creating a constitutional theocracy
than the first way.
(c) The first way is a much more subtle and transparent way of creating a constitutional theocracy than
the second way.
(d) The second way is a much more subtle and transparent way of creating a constitutional theocracy
than the first way.

MOCK CLAT #15
110. “But even the most astute political theorist knows that two terms stitched together by hyphens
are yesteryear oxymoronic foes, conceptually insufficient to grasp the nature of the disorder.”
Following are a few words that have been used by our political theorists quite often and in vogue. Which
of the following options would fit the above description properly?
(a) Neo-colonialism (b) Socio-capitalism (c) Good-terrorism (d) Religious-oligarchy
(a) India has never been a democracy as we have always been plagued with notions of race, caste,
creed, religion etc.
(b) The concerned act mentioned by the author can creep in doubts in the minds of educated and well-off
Muslim citizens of India.
(c) With the passage of the CAA, India has become a constitutional democracy.
(d) With the passage of the CAA, India has officially granted its majoritarian religion as the adjudicating
principle of Indian citizenship.
112. Which of the following is an example of becoming a constitutional theocracy by the first way according to
the author?
(a) The reading-down of Article 35 A that‘ll change the demographic profile of the only Muslim majority
state of India.
(b) Arresting the pregnant anti-CAA protestor and ‗pinjra tod‘ activists, but not registering an FIR against
BJP MLA Kapil Mishra and MP Anurag Thakur, who openly incited violence
(c) Sending the meat, and not the body of murdered Akhlaq, for forensic analysis.
(d) The refusal of the Supreme Court to stay the CAA in January 2020 despite 144 plus petitions
challenging the constitutionality of the law
Directions (Q.113-Q.117): Romila Thapar is an Indian historian. She is the author of several books
including ‗A History of India‘, and is currently Professor Emerita at Jawaharlal Nehru University in New
Delhi. She argued in 2001 that after India‘s independence (August 15, 1947), an ideology of ―republican
motherhood‖ resulted in a surge of educational opportunities for women in India. Thapar maintained that
the leaders of the new nation wanted women to be educated in order to raise politically virtuous sons. A
virtuous citizenry was considered essential to the success of the country's republican form of
government; virtue was to be instilled not only by religious places and schools, but by families, where the
mother's role was crucial. Thus, according to Thapar, motherhood became pivotal to the fate of the
republic, providing justification for an unprecedented attention to female education.
Introduction of the ―republican motherhood‖ thesis dramatically changed historiography. Prior to Thapar's
work, educational historians barely mentioned women and girls; Ramchandra Guha's 1979 work is the
notable exception. Examining newspaper advertisements for academies, Guha found that educational
opportunities increased for both girls and boys around 1940. Pointing to ―An Essay on Woman‖ (1943) as
reflecting a shift in view, Guha also claimed that practical education for females had many advocates
before the Independence. Guha's evidence challenges the notion that the country‘s independence
changed attitudes regarding female education, although it may have accelerated earlier trends.
Historians‘ reliance on Thapar's ―Republican motherhood‖ thesis may have obscured the presence of
these trends, making it difficult to determine to what extent the Independence really changed women's
lives.
113. According to the passage, Thapar maintained that which of the following led to an increase in educational
opportunities for women in India after independence?
(a) An unprecedented demand by women for greater educational opportunities in the decades following
the independence
(b) A new political ideology calling for equality of opportunity between women and men in all aspects of
life
(c) A belief that the Indian educational system could be reformed only if women participated more fully in
that system
(d) A belief that women needed to be educated if they were to contribute to the success of the nation's
new form of government

MOCK CLAT #15
114. According to the passage, within the field of educational history, Ramchandra Guha's 1979 work was
(a) innovative because it relied on newspaper advertisements as evidence
(b) exceptional in that it concentrated on the period before the Indian Independence
(c) unusual in that it focused on educational attitudes rather than on educational practices
(d) atypical in that it examined the education of girls
115. The passage suggests that Guha would have agreed with which of the following claims regarding ―An
Essay on Woman‖?
(a) It expressed attitudes concerning women's education that were reflected in new educational
opportunities for women after 1940.
(b) It persuaded educators to offer greater educational opportunities to women in the 1940s.
(c) It articulated ideas about women's education that would not be realized until after the Indian
Independence.
(d) It offered one of the most original arguments in favor of women's education in India in the twentieth
century.
116. The passage suggests that, with regard to the history of women's education in India, Thapar's work
differs from Guha's primarily concerning which of the following?
(a) The extent to which women were interested in pursuing educational opportunities in the twentieth
century
(b) The extent of the support for educational opportunities for girls prior to the Indian Independence
(c) The extent of public resistance to educational opportunities for women after the Indian Independence
(d) Whether attitudes toward women's educational opportunities changed during the twentieth century
117. According to the passage, Thapar argued that political leaders thought that the form of government
adopted by India after Independence depended on which of the following for its success?
(a) Women assuming the sole responsibility for instilling political virtue in children
(b) Girls becoming the primary focus of a reformed educational system that emphasized political virtue
(c) The family serving as one of the primary means by which children were imbued with political virtue
(d) The family assuming many of the functions previously performed by schools and religious places
Directions (Q.118-Q.122): I agree with Kara Swisher‘s recent submission to The Washington Post that
social distancing advocated by health authorities worldwide, as a means of combating the spread of the
coronavirus, can only be a part of firefighting. The rapid worldwide spread of Covid-19 has a lot to do with
the fallout of globalization, including the travel industry, tourism and the neoliberal attack on universal
health care. Moreover, unfettered promotion of social distancing can reinforce existing social prejudices
driven by different forms of social exclusion.
In illustrating how social distancing actually works in the periphery, I will draw from a few examples from
corona affected countries. The Covid 19 epidemic in Iraq started with the controversial Yazidis, an
endogamous and mostly Kurmanji-speaking minority, indigenous to Upper Mesopotamia. This cult
facilitated the transmission of the disease from Wuhan to Iraq because of frequent travel among its
followers.
Consequently, more than half of all Covid -19 patients at the onset of the epidemic belonged to this
religious movement, which accounted for less than 2% of the Iraqi population. Social isolation among
new immigrants in Iraqi cities was incidentally a major incentive for people to join this cult. In this context
social distancing was not popular among them due to the simple reason that the movement served as an
extended family for many of its members. In this instance, social distancing once successfully introduced
may have actually served to contain the epidemic, but it also further stigmatized a religious group already
in the margins of Iraqi society, interfering with disease containment.

MOCK CLAT #15
118. Which of the following can be inferred as the conclusion of the passage?
(a) Social distancing has further stigmatized a social group already at the margins of Iraqi society.
(b) Social distancing is not popular among the marginalized sections of the society.
(c) Unbridled promotion of social distancing can reinforce existing social prejudices.
(d) Social distancing can only be a part of firefighting as a means of combating the spread of the
coronavirus
119. Which of the following, if true, weakens the argument of the author?
(a) during the last global epidemic, countries across the world reported a decrease in manifest social
prejudices as a result of social distancing.
(b) during the last global epidemic, social distancing proved to be ineffective in controlling the epidemic
and resulted in further disturbances in society's fabric.
(c) during the last global epidemic, social distancing was very popular among the marginalized sections
of the society.
(d) during the last global epidemic, the followers of Yazidism were marginalized in the first place.
120. Assume that the population of Iraq is 10 million.

Which of the following can approximately be the total number of Covid 19 cases in Iraq?
(a) 100000 (b) 200000 (c) >20000 (d) Data insufficient
121. What is the overall structure of the argument?

(a) It provides a premise and arrives at a conclusion
(b) A statement is made and then proved with an example.
(c) A claim is made and then contradicted by giving an example.
(d) It gives a judgement and then presents counter-facts.
122. Which of the following is a valid conclusion?

(a) social distancing can successfully combat the spread of covid-19
(b) Iraqi society is deeply religious
(c) social distancing is not free from potential problems
(d) Yazidism is the sole reason behind the epidemic in Iraq
Directions (Q.123-Q.126): The pressure on New Delhi‘s jail is increasing rapidly. These jails are old and
overcrowded. They are supposed to hold up to 43,000 people 9,000 fewer than now. Tihar Jail, which
has 10,533 inmates, is designed for 6,200. The number of foreigners inside jails has also been
increasing. In various reports produced by the Committee since 2000 concerning visits to Delhi jails, the
experts pointed to situations of overcrowding in the prisons they had visited.
The warnings presented by the Committee are echoed in the Charles Sobraj judgment. In this decision,
the lack of personal space caused by overcrowded cells was considered for the first time and, in itself,
formed sufficient grounds for the identification of a violation of the detainee‘s rights, regardless of the
hygienic conditions of the cells or the individuals and disregarding the availability of spaces outside the
cells. During the opening ceremony of the 2018 judicial year, the minister of law, Jitender Singh Tomar,
and the attorney-general of the Supreme Court, KK Venugopal, outlined some possible solutions to the
emergency brought about by the overcrowded conditions in prisons: the decriminalization of minor crimes
and the strengthening of alternative measures to imprisonment and called for the amnesty policy so that
tension may not snap in prisons.
123. Which one of the following, if true, would have most influenced the recommendation of the minister and
attorney-general regarding use of pardons?
(a) Opinions polls have indicated that many Delhiites favour a general pardon.
(b) The opposition may be persuaded to help since amnesties must be approved by a two-third majority
in Legislative Assembly.
(c) During a recent visit to large prison, Baba Ramdev, whose pronouncements are taken seriously,
appealed for ―a gesture of clemency‖.
(d) Shortly before a recommendation was made, 98 prisons reported disturbance in a period of two
weeks.
MOCK CLAT #15
124. What assumption has been made by the minister when he recommended to the Government an amnesty
policy?
(a) Amnesty policy will lead to a decrease of inmates inside jails and then the tension will not snap inside
prisons.
(b) Amnesty policy will help the poor inmates to get justice.
(c) Justice delayed is justice denied.
(d) Amnesty policy will be according to the guidelines issued by the government of India.
125. What assumption has been made by the minister and attorney general when they recommended to the
Government the decriminalization of minor crimes?
(a) People will not commit minor crimes anymore.
(b) Decriminalization of minor crimes will lead to less number of crimes and then the prisons will not get
so much overcrowded.
(c) After committing minor crimes, prisons are the safest place to live in.
126. Which of the following statements will actually weaken the idea of the attorney general and minister that
decriminalization of minor crimes will solve the problem of overcrowded conditions in prisons?
(a) If minor offences are decriminalized then people will commit many minor offences and when these
minor offences are put together, they will form one major offence and it will lead to overcrowding of
prisons.
(b) Imprisonment of fine defaulters exacerbates overcrowding.
(c) The decriminalization of certain offences may have a secondary, but important, impact of enabling
such cases to be tried at lower courts, thereby speeding up the trial process or allowing for bail to be
used more frequently.
127. In 1978, Mitsubishi, a Japanese multinational company, introduced a policy to encourage women towards
excellence and create gender equality among its top management. According to the policy, 33% of the
top posts were reserved for women. The remaining 67% posts were open to both men and women.
Which of the following statements, if true, provides the best evidence that the reasoning used to
introduce the policy was flawed?
(a) Women already constituted close to 33% of the top management.
(b) Over the past few years, most of the people who had selected or interviewed top management
executives had shown a bias towards men.
(c) There was a drop in the average performance of the women managers a year after the policy was
introduced.
(d) From the second year of introduction of this policy, a better crop of women managers started
appearing in the top management.
Directions (Q.128-Q.131): Marijuana advocate: Drug liberalization is the process of eliminating or

reducing drug prohibition laws. Variations of drug liberalization include: drug legalization, drug
relegalization and drug decriminalization. Drug legalization calls for a return to the pre-20th century
situation in which almost all drugs were legal. This would require ending government-enforced prohibition
on the distribution or sale and personal use of specified (or all) currently banned drugs. If marijuana were
legalized in states, the states could start assessing tax on the drug, increasing state revenues. Since
sales would be legal, the criminal culture supporting the drug would vanish; as crimes cease, the state
would save money on fighting crime. Overall, the state has a tremendous amount to gain by making the
drug legal.
Solicitor general- Legalization has been tried before—and failed miserably. Manipur's experiment with
legalization in the 1970s led to the state's teens using marijuana at more than twice the rate of other
youths nationally. This led Manipuris to vote to re-criminalize marijuana in 1990. Studies of legalizing
previously illegal drugs in other countries suggest that criminals controlling the business will not be eager

MOCK CLAT #15
either to sacrifice their profits or to play by the rules. Moreover, diverting money from crime-fighting after
such legalization gives those criminals more free rein.
128. Which of the following could be best inferred from the Solicitor general‘s argument?
(a) Crime, violence and drug use go hand in hand.
(b) Frequent use of hard drugs is one of the strongest indicators of a criminal career.
(c) War on drugs can never be won.
(d) Failure to police speeding drivers simply allows inordinate harm to be inflicted on other individuals.
129. Which of the following could be the conclusion of the Marijuana advocate‘s arguments?
(a) Mass arrests of local growers of marijuana, not only increase the price of local drugs, but also lessen
competition.
(b) War on drugs can never be won.
(c) Legalising marijuana could mean a big push for state economies and big bucks for the states.
(d) The War on Drugs has resulted in the outlawing of the entire hemp industry in the United States.
130. The Solicitor General used which one of the following techniques in responding to the marijuana
advocate?
(a) Putting new evidence that calls the conclusion into question.
(b) Suggesting, by analogy, potential drawbacks that might outweigh the predicted advantages.
(c) Asking the question about an unstated assumption.
(d) Demonstrating that the conclusion is true, but not for the reasons cited.
131. Which of the following statement could strengthen the argument of Marijuana advocate?
(a) Prohibition protects the drug cartel insofar as it keeps the distribution in the black market and creates
the risk that makes smuggling profitable.
(b) Criminal behaviour can importantly be the direct result of drug use.
(c) Psychoactive drugs can have a powerful impact on behaviour which may influence some people to
commit crimes.
132. In the number series:

4, 10, 23, 50, 104, 216, 439. There is a wrong number, what should be correct number instead of that
wrong number?
(a) 104 (b) 23 (c) 50 (d) None of these
Directions (Q.133): Read the following information carefully to choose best option for the question:
‗L % M‘ means that M is brother of L
‗L x M' means that L is mother of M.
‗L ’ M' means that L is the sister of M.
‘L = M‘ means that M is father of L.
133. Which of the following means "I is the nephew of Q?"

1. Q % J = I
2. Q ÷ M × B % l
3. C ÷ I = B % Q
(a) Only 3 (b) Only 1 (c) Only 2 (d) Both 1 and 2
134. Two ladies and two men are playing bridge and seated at North, East, South and West of a table. No
lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to each other are not of the same sex. One man is facing
South.
Which direction are the ladies facing to?
(a) South and East. (b) North and West. (c) East and West. (d) None of these.

MOCK CLAT #15
Directions (Q.135 and Q.136): In the following question some capital alphabets are written in a row,
below them their coding has been given. In the question, a particular word has been coded in a particular
manner using codes as given below the capital letters. You have to understand the pattern of coding and
have to answer the question asked subsequently.
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
U a 2 v b w 3 t 4 x s y 5 z 6 c d 8 7 e r h 9 I p q
135. If DASH is 2a84, then SMASH is?
(a) 7 5 U 7 t (b) e y a 8 4 (c) 8 z q e 3 (d) S z q e 4
136. If FASHION is z64t7Uw, then POSITION is?

(a) z 6 4 e 4 7 6 c (b) z 6 4 e 4 7 c 6 (c) c 6 7 4 e 4 6 z (d) c 6 7 4 e 4 z 6

MOCK CLAT #15
Directions (Q.137– Q.141): T-Nation, a T-Shirtmanufacturing company has unleashed 5-5-5 strategy,
five brands (Ultimate, Supreme, Smash, Paramount, Astute), jive sizes (S, M. L, XL, XXL), and five
Stores (SI, S2, S3, S4, S5) to capture New Delhi market. Number ofT-Shirts in each of the store is given
in the stacked bar chart below.
57 122
84
utimate
128 55 48 65 supreme
30 smesh
111 108
85 137 paramount
79
astute
30 60
69
105
116 50
101
111 91 80
48 30
store 1 store 2 store 3 store 4 store 5
Note: Visibility of a brand in a store is given by number of T-shirts of the brand in the store by total
number of T-shirts in the store. Visibility across the stores is measured by sum of the scores of visibility of
a brand in a store.
137. Which brand of T-shirts has more visibility across the stores?
(a) Astute (b) Supreme (c) Paramount (d) Smash
138. Which brand has lowest visibility score in any of the stores?
(a) Astute (b) Smash (c) Paramount (d) Ultimate
139. Suppose, size M constitutes 22% of all the T-shirts owned by T-nation. It is also given that 'size M T-
shirts' in stores 1, 2 and 5 are 10% of the total T-shirts in these stores. Then, the total number of T-shirts
of size M in store 4 cannot be less than
(a) 23 (b) 28 (c) 32 (d) 44
140. What is the approximate share of Supreme brand in all stores together?
(a) 19 (b) 22 (c) 18 (d) 20
141. Approximately, by what percentage are Smash T-shirts greater than Ultimate T-shirts in all the stores
together'?
(a) 79 (b) 50 (c) 35 (d) 23

MOCK CLAT #15
Directions (Q.142–Q.146): Given below is the data about Domestic Investment (DI) and Foreign Invest-
ment (FI) in 9 different sectors over 5-year period.
(In RS. Crores)

Sectors 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013
DI FI DI FI DI FI DI FI DI FI
Basic Materials 1500 800 1500 1300 2500 1400 2000 900 2500 800
Communication
2000 1400 1200 1000 1600 1100 1000 300 500 1200
Services
Consumer
1000 1500 1200 1500 1100 3000 500 700 900 1900
Cyclical
Consumer
1300 1000 700 1600 1500 800 2000 500 1800 1600
Defensive
Energy 800 1200 500 1400 700 2500 600 1000 1100 500
Financial
1800 500 400 2000 1200 1600 1000 1500 700 1400
services
Healthcare 2000 3000 600 3000 400 6000 1000 1500 3500 600
Real Estate 500 2000 1000 1500 4000 3000 6000 1500 2000 2100
Technology 1500 2500 1000 2800 1500 5000 1200 2000 3000 4000
Note : DI = Domestic Investment; FI = Foreign Investment
142. What is the approximate ratio of the total investment in Energy sector to that of Financial services sector?
(a) 1 : 1.2 (b) 3 : 4.5 (c) 1 : 0.5 (d) 2 : 3.8
143. Absolute difference between the Total DI and Total FI is highest for which sector?
(a) Technology (b) Healthcare (c) Basic Material (d) None of the above
144. Which year the average DI is the highest?

(a) 2013 (b) 2011 (c) 2010 (d) 2009
145. Which Sector has received the 2nd lowest investfrom DI for the total period?
(a) Consumer cyclical (b) Consumer durable
(c) Energy (d) None of the above
146. What is the approximate ratio of total DI to total FI?

(a) 1 : 1.10 (b) 2:2.36 (c) 0.75: 1 (d) 0.75 : 1.5

MOCK CLAT #15
Directions (Q.147–Q.150): The following 2 bar charts represent revenues and expenses (In thousands)
A Ltd, B Ltd, and C Ltd over a period of five year.
Revenues of A Ltd, B ltd, C Ltd for the period 2011 - 2015
120
2015 165
150
135
2014 150
180 C Ltd
180 B Ltd
2013 165
135
A Ltd
180
2012 150
165
150
2011 180
120
100 110 120 130 140 150 160 170 180 190
Expenses of of A Ltd, B ltd, C Ltd for the period 2011 - 2015
100
2015 135
110
100
2014 135
125 C Ltd
190 B Ltd
2013 130
100
A Ltd
155
2012 115
185
165
2011 135
105
90 100 110 120 130 140 150 160 170 180 190 200
Profit = Revenue - Expenses
147. For which company, the average annual expenses were maximum in the given period?
(a) A Ltd (b) B Ltd (c) CLtd (d) Both A Ltd and B Ltd
148. For which year, the average annual revenue (considering all three companies) was the maximum?
(a) 2011 (b) 2012 (c) 2013 (d) 2014

MOCK CLAT #15
149. What was the approximate percentage decline in the revenue of C Ltd in 2015 as compared to the
revenue in 2012?
(a) 16 (b) 25 (c) 33 (d) 40
150. What was the approximate absolute difference between the average revenue of A Ltd in 2011, 2012
and 2013 and the average revenue of B Ltd in 2013, 2014 and 2015?
(a) 20 (b) 160 (c) 20000 (d) 26000

MOCK CLAT #15
Use for Rough Work

MOCK CLAT #15
Use for Rough Work

MOCK CLAT #15
Use for Rough Work

MOCK CLAT #16

Candidate Name : _________________
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
2. There are 150 multiple choice objective type questions.
Test Centre/Hall.
MOCK CLAT #16
Passage (Q.1-Q.6): PM K. P. Oli’s move to opt for fresh elections rather than bow to demands from
within the Nepal Communist Party (NCP) to accommodate his rivals in the power structure has pushed
Nepal into political uncertainty. Oli’s recommendation to dismiss the House of Representatives and have
fresh elections, nearly two years ahead of schedule, was immediately accepted by President Bidya Devi
Bhandari. Legal experts and politicians described the decision as a “constitutional coup” and have
challenged it in the Supreme Court. All these moves will test the fragile consensus on the country’s
constitution and, possibly, force a vertical split in the NCP.The origins of the current crisis can be traced
back to the formation of the NCP in 2018, after the merger of the CPN-United Marxist Leninist and CPN-
Maoist Centre. Oli, the face of CPN-UML, had led the combine to nearly a two-thirds majority in the
elections the previous year. Though it was decided that power will be shared between leaders of the two
parties that merged, Oli was reluctant. Confident that it was his popularity on account of taking a strident
anti-India position in the wake of the 2015 border blockade that enabled the communist alliance to sweep
the polls, Oli chose to impose his will on the NCP. This was bound to deepen the divisions within the
party. The CPN-UML and the CPN-Maoist had been bitter rivals after the communist movement split in
the 1990s over ideological issues and the Maoists launched a guerrilla war against Kathmandu.
For years, Oli had demanded that the Maoists under Pushpa Kamal Dahal be held accountable for war
crimes, including the killings of CPN-UML cadres. These differences were papered over when the two
parties decided to contest to parliament under a new constitution in 2017 and merge into one outfit post
elections. Clearly, there has been no reconciliation within the outfit. Besides, party rivals have accused
Oli of engaging in one upmanship and unwilling to share power. On his part, Oli sought to fob off all
criticism about his conduct by suggesting that his rivals were conspiring with India to remove him from
office.Oli had the mandate to iron out the rough edges of constitution, address the concerns of Madhesi
groups, and strengthen Nepal’s institutions. But he preferred to consolidate power and sought to rally
support by adopting anti India postures and cosying up to China. With the NCP unravelling and Oli
preferring fresh elections over a truce with rivals, Delhi has little role to play but watch the internal
dynamics of Nepal’s domestic politics play out. Given the internecine wars and erosion of his own
standing within, an election may not deliver clean slate that Oli is hoping for.
1. Why have leaders and politicians in Nepal described the Prime Minister’s decision as a “constitutional
coup”?
(a) Dissolving the House of Representatives and interrupting the normal governance in Nepal is very
much like a coup, the only saving grace being that there was no military force involved.
(b) The Prime Minister’s decision is sound according to the Constitution of Nepal.
(c) The recommendation being accepted by the President has given the dissolution legitimacy from the
Constitution.
(d) The Prime Minister’s decision has pushed Nepal into political uncertainty.
2. Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage?

(a) The political scenario in Nepal has been affected significantly by communist ideology.
(b) Prime Minister Oli was willing to share his power with other leaders from party factions.
(c) Internal tussle in Nepal’s ruling party forces Prime Minister Oli to seek early elections, a vote may not
settle the issue.
(d) Nepal is pro-China and anti-India.
3. Which of the following statements is false about Oli’s leadership?

(a) Oli believes that taking an anti-India stance will aid his popularity.
(b) Oli believes that China is a better and more useful ally than India.
(c) Oli came to power with a good mandate.
(d) Oli is a tyrannical leader who wants to do things for his personal benefit.

MOCK CLAT #16
4. What should Oli have done, according to the author, instead of ordering fresh elections?
(a) He should have opted for a truce with his rivals and strengthened the fragile constitutional consensus
in the country.
(b) He should have ironed out the rough edges in the Constitution.
(c) He should have gone for other modes of coup rather than dismissal of the House of Representatives.
(d) He should have addressed the concerns of the Madhesi groups.
5. Identify the figure of speech:

A clean slate
(a) Idiom (b) Metaphor (c) Simile (d) Onomatopoeia
6. Which of the following is a suitable antonym of the word ‘internecine’?

(a) Guerilla (b) Desultory (c) Restorative (d) Desolate
Passage (Q.7-Q.12): If BJP is to be defeated in Bengal, TMC, Left and Congress must stich a
strategic alliance
There cannot be a three-way election in 2021. That would mean an advantage for BJP, as it will
cannibalise on the factionalism in the former and on the irrelevance of the latter.
TMC, BJP and a CPM-Congress combine have hinted that they will fight each other in the polls. But facts
and the political winds are chiming one simple arithmetic: That there cannot be a three-way election in
2021. That would mean an advantage for BJP, as it will cannibalise on the factionalism in the former and
on the irrelevance of the latter. If the BJP is to be defeated, the TMC and the Left-Congress combine
must come together to form a strategic alliance. There is immediate and successful precedence in
Maharashtra, while the grand alliance in Bihar, even in defeat, has created the promise of a non-BJP
future. History is witness that after a millennia of fighting each other, France and Britain did come
together against Germany in both the world wars. Why is it such an impossible prospect in Bengal?
An alliance is going to ensure — mathematically speaking — an unassailable political behemoth; and will
be electorally insurmountable even if the BJP unleashes its most diabolic campaign. An alliance will also
cut down on cost, disincentivise defection and allegations of dynasticism in TMC. It would also minimise
the political violence that Bengal routinely witnesses before polls. These are quantifiable gains. So, what
is at stake?First, if the Left is willing to court BJP and sit out till 2026 (hypothetically counting their return
to glory), why not do the same instead for TMC? For after Mamata, there would be no TMC to speak of
anyway, giving a real chance to CPI(M)’s so-far unreal hopes. Second, Bengal’s history for decades
since the 1960s is full of the bloody rivalry between local Congress and CPI(M). If that can be
conveniently forgotten to forge an alliance, why not the same for TMC? Third, a coalition in power will
keep Mamata’s monocracy in check, end CPM’s long isolation from governance; and create a pool of
political progeny for the future. As for TMC, it is anyway a party without a belief, so how will it matter if it
sides with the Left?Most importantly, such a strategic and timely alliance would successfully turn the
tables on BJP’s spin doctors, while ensuring that Bengal does not suffer the ignominy of having fallen to
the ultra-right. What can be better for Bengal?
7. What does the author refer to by using the phrase “one simple arithmetic”?
(a) The author wants to emphasise his point by using the phrase.
(b) The author wants to make it very clear that there cannot be a three-way election in 2021.
(c) It refers to a fundamental truth that there cannot be a three-way election and the ultimate competition
will be between two sides only.
(d) The author is unsure as to how to do arithmetic.

MOCK CLAT #16
8. Why does the author cite France and Britain’s example?

(a) He wants Bengal to follow the example.
(b) He is a Leftist and wants to overthrow the democratically elected government in the state.
(c) He wants to cite an example from history.
(d) He wants to highlight how two nations came together to defeat a more formidable and seemingly
invincible power.
9. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to ‘behemoth’?

(a) Party (b) Monster (c) Political alliance (d) Game
10. What are the benefits of creating an alliance according to the author?
(a) Reduce the violence in Bengal caused due to the political climate.
(b) Minimise expenditure for both the parties who create the alliance.
(c) Reduce the probability of party members defecting from one party to another.
11. What are the benefits of a coalition according to the author?

(a) It will provide for persons who can be future leaders in Bengal.
(b) It will give authoritarian power to Mamata Bannergee.
(c) It will ensure the demise of the BJP in Bengal.
(d) It will lead to political consensus in the TMC.
12. What is the meaning of the idiom “turn the tables”?

(a) Turning disadvantage to advantage (b) Turning evil into good
(c) Turning victory into defeat (d) Turning insult into glory
Passage (Q.13-Q.18): Not just a job

A politician decided to switch jobs, leaving her husband’s party. No one would care if they were
investment bankers.
There’s a reason for that old adage, “Don’t discuss politics or religion at the dinner table”. But then,
there’s a counter-cliche: “Communication is the key to a successful relationship.” On Monday, Sujata
Mondal Khan, wife of BJP MP Saumitra Khan, joined the Trinamool Congress. She has been a long-time
member of the BJP and her chagrin at her now-former party stems from the fact that “corrupt leaders
from other parties” were being given positions in the BJP at the expense of party loyalists. Saumitra Khan
broke down at a press conference held shortly after his wife’s departure and said he would send her a
“divorce notice”.
Defections and counter-defections are hardly a new phenomenon in Indian politics. But in families,
particularly in ideologically and politically polarised Bengal, switching parties is clearly more than just
switching jobs. Remember, this is a time when family feuds erupt in WhatsApp groups over everything
from the CAA to farmer protests. That impulse may well be compounded in families where both partners
are politicians. Perhaps, politics should stop at the water’s edge, and beyond the threshold, more
mundane domesticity should rule the roost. But that’s easier said than done — like business and
Bollywood, a political career is often a family concern. Children take over political parties from their
parents, spouses become stand-in chief ministers. In fact, when Saumitra was banned by a court from
entering Bankura during the 2019 Lok Sabha elections, Sujata became the chief campaigner for her
husband.
In an ideal world, where the political lines would not be so sharply drawn, a spouse switching parties
wouldn’t be as upsetting as it seems to be. Political couples could ask each other, “how was your day”
without worrying about defections, optics, elections and the burdens of ideology. After all, when
investment banker couples switch jobs, there are no press conferences expressing anguish.

MOCK CLAT #16
13. What does the author mean when he uses the phrase “counter cliché”?
(a) A statement that is pitted against another maxim of similar nature.
(b) A statement which is pitted against another maxim of opposite nature.
(c) A statement which enhances the meaning of the given adage.
(d) A statement which undermines the meaning of the given adage.
14. Which of the following statements cannot be concluded about politician Sujata Mondal Khan?
(a) She considers herself a BJP loyalist.
(b) She considers herself deserving of positions that are being given to other leaders.
(c) She considers herself not corrupt.
(d) She wanted to divorce her husband.
15. What does the author mean when he says “switching parties is clearly more than just switching jobs”?
(a) Switching jobs does not involve as much thought and discussion as is involved in switching political
parties.
(b) Switching political parties is a question of ideology and not of getting better opportunities.
(c) The impact of switching political parties has greater ramifications than switching occupations.
(d) Switching political parties involves leaving one’s family life behind.
(a) Politics and Bollywood are inherently similar.
(b) A political career is often a family concern.
(c) Indian politics is rampant with examples of defections in political parties.
(d) Bengal is a state that is particularly polarised on ideological lines.
17. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to ‘feud’?

(a) Stand by (b) Stand in (c) Coercion (d) Clash
18. Match the idioms with their appropriate meanings:

i. Rule the roost – (a) Be in complete control
ii. Drawing a line – (b) To put a limit on
iii. Stop at the water’s edge - (c) To contain something within
Options:
(a) i (b) ii (c) iii (a) (b) i (a) ii (b) iii (c)
(c) i (c) ii (b) iii (a) (d) i (a) ii (c) iii (b)
Passage (Q.19-Q.24): Chinese intrusions in Eastern Ladakh earlier this year have provoked a review of
India’s intelligence apparatus. After all, how could the PLA mobilise and deploy a significant number of
troops from its interior for an ingress across a heavily militarised border without a timely Indian counter-
response? All signs point to an intelligence failure. Understandably, a number of analysts have reiterated
the need for reforming India’s intelligence apparatus that can plug loopholes and avoid a similar ill-fate in
the future. But, all these policy suggestions — while valuable in some sense — rest on an erroneous
assumption: Intelligence can be made full-proof if certain operational and organisational infirmities are
overcome. I argue, it cannot.
M K Narayanan, former National Security Adviser, argues that it is “axiomatic that leaders make better
decisions when they have better information”. The Chinese made no effort to conceal PLA troop
mobilisations in Pangong Tso and Hotsprings-Gogra and so there was no question of them having
evaded India’s high-quality imagery intelligence (IMINT) and signals intelligence (SIGINT) capabilities. He
concludes, therefore, that the intelligence failure occurred at the “interpretation” or “analysis” stage.
Indian intelligence analysts failed to “decipher China’s intentions in time”. On this front, he criticises the
decision of the National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS) to dismantle the Joint Intelligence
Committee (JIC), and laments the lack of China experts in India’s premier foreign intelligence agency,
R&AW.

MOCK CLAT #16
Richard K Betts in his oft-cited paper from 1978 agrees with Narayanan’s argument that intelligence
failures are seldom the result of a shortcomings in tasking or data collection. Rather, they are mainly
produced due [1] mistaken analysis [2] behalf [3] intelligence analysts or political elites.However, how
will more “expert” information or a JIC resolve this issue?
19. What are the signs that point to an intelligence failure in India?
(a) Chinese entry into Eastern Ladakh without a prompt response from India.
(b) Lack of militarization across the Indian border.
(c) Lack of army troops in Eastern Ladakh.
(d) Neglect of border security forces across India and China border.
20. What is the significance of “better information” according to the passage?

(a) It will assist in decision making process in case of a conflict.
(b) It will assist a natural leader.
(c) It will help prevent Chinese ingress in the future.
(d) It will lead to lesser conflict across the borders.
21. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
(a) Intelligence can be made full-proof if certain operational and organisational infirmities are overcome.
(b) India has a lot of experts in the field of border conflict but none when it comes to handling China.
(c) India is known for its high quality intelligence apparatus.
(d) Shortcomings in data collection are part of operational infirmities.
22. Which of the following statements undermines MK Narayanan’s criticism of dismantling the Joint
Intelligence Committee?
(a) This is merely an organisational infirmity and will not really solve the problem of intelligence failure as
it occurred at the analysis stage.
(b) Intelligence failure happens because of wrong analysis and the committee could be empowered to
analyse the situation properly.
(c) Intelligence failure is not concerned with organisational or operational infirmities.
(d) The lack of China experts in India is more daunting.
23. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to ‘mobilise’?

(a) Marshal (b) Move (c) Motile (d) Motion

Rather, they are mainly produced due [1] mistaken analysis [2] behalf [3] intelligence analysts or political
elites.
(a) To; on; of (b) To; of; on (c) On; to; of (d) To; to; of
Passage (Q.25-Q.30): There has been much disquiet in the “liberal” circles over Asadduddin Owaisi’s
rise in national politics as the face of India’s Muslims. There is great indignation over how he is cutting the
Congress-Mahagathbandhan vote share and directly benefitting the Sangh Parivar.
Writing about the Congress’s landslide victory in the 1937 provincial elections in Bihar, Maulana Azad in
his book India Wins Freedom wrote that the general secretary of the AICC, Syed Mehmud, was the
natural candidate for the position of chief minister of the first autonomous provincial government in Bihar.
But voices within the Congress, led by Rajendra Prasad, felt that a Muslim chief minister would alienate
the majority and so Krishna Sinha was called from the Upper House of the Central Legislative Assembly
in Delhi and groomed for chief ministership: “One has to admit with regret that the nationalism of the
Congress had not then reached a stage where it could ignore communal considerations and select
leaders based on merit without regard to majority and minority.” This extract was part of the portions that
Maulana Azad had left out of the original text of his book and willed that they be released 30 years after
his death, as he felt India was not yet ready for it when he was writing. Azad died in 1958, and these

MOCK CLAT #16
portions were released in a revised edition only after a court order in 1988. Maulana Azad, however,
made a gross error of judgment in his assessment. India would still not be ready for this insight 30 years
after his death.Eighty-three years after the election of the first autonomous provincial government in
Bihar, nothing seems to have changed. While a Muslim chief minister is no longer even a distant dream,
the “secular” intellectuals of our country are now complaining that Owaisi even contesting the elections in
Bihar led to the polarisation of the electorate. It is a strange animal, this electorate of their
imagination. It was not polarised by the demolition of the Babri Masjid or by the riots in Mumbai and
elsewhere that followed, nor by the riots in Gujarat in 2002 or North-East Delhi in February 2020. The
electorate is not polarised by mob lynchings of Muslims on the suspicion of cow slaughter, or by the
attempts in the shape of legislation passed by both Houses of Parliament to make religion a ground for
granting citizenship, nor by a law in Uttar Pradesh that effectively criminalises marriages between
Muslims and non-Muslims. The electorate of their imagination only gets polarised when a Muslim
with a beard and a skullcap contests an election.
25. Why did Maulana Azad feel that India was not yet ready for his writing?
(a) India was still divided on communal lines and was not truly secular.
(b) The Congress had pro Hindu leaders.
(c) The Congress did not want a Muslim CM as it would alienate the majority.
(d) India was not experienced as it was a relatively new state.
26. What do you think the author means by “polarization of the electorate”?
(a) The electorate is not concerned with the political party but only the religion of the candidate.
(b) The voters are divided along religious lines and vote for the candidate belonging to their religion.
(c) The voters can be swayed along the lines of religion.
(d) The voters in India are not secular.
27. The electorate of their imagination only gets polarised when a Muslim with a beard and a skullcap
contests an election.
What is the purpose of this sentence at the end of the passage?
(a) This sentence is to point out the hypocrisy that secular Indians are indulging in.
(b) The sentence is placed to point out the sarcastic tone at the end.
(c) The sentence wants to convey a strong message.
(d) The sentence is not placed with any purpose.
28. What was the gross error of judgment Maulana Azad made?
(a) The communal feelings of disharmony that he believed Indians would get over thirty years after his
death have not died even to the present date.
(b) He was mistaken as India did not really have any communal disharmony after independence.
(c) He wanted Indians to be able to look past communal feelings and become secular according to the
Constitution.
(d) India is a multilingual and multicultural society which Azad failed to notice.
29. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to ‘slaughter’?

(a) Butcher (b) Homicide (c) Regicide (d) Matricide
30. Which of the following words is a suitable antonym for ‘imagination’?

(a) Truth (b) Concrete (c) Freeze (d) Real

MOCK CLAT #16
Passage (Q.31-Q.34): The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) has been accepted as a
component of the World-Wide Radio Navigation System by the [1] for its operation in the Indian Ocean
Region. This will enable the vessels to use IRNSS to obtain position information similar to GLONASS and
GPS.
The navigation system up to 1,500 km in the Indian Ocean waters can now replace GPS. This means
that the ships in the Indian Ocean can obtain information from IRNSS for their position at sea.
India has now become the fourth country in the world to have independent regional satellite navigation
system and recognized by [1] under its WWRNS.
The entire process to get recognized for the IRNSS took two years.
Also, it increases military security of the country. This is because Indian ships will no longer depend on
US or Russian navigational system to obtain position information at sea
(a) International Maritime Organisation
(b) International Telecommunication Union
(c) United Nations Industrial Development Organisation
(d) World Meteorological Organisation
32. Which of the following does not have its own Navigation System?
(a) USA (b) EU
(c) Japan (d) China
33. How many satellite are a part of India’s IRNSS?

(a) 5 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9
34. What is the name of Global Navigation System of Russia?

(a) GPS (b) GLONASS
(c) Galileo (d) BeiDou
Passage (Q.35-Q.39): The death anniversary of Dr Babasaheb Ambedkar, which falls on [1], is dubbed
as Mahaparinirvana Divas. On this day each year, millions of people throng to Dr Ambedkar’s Samadhi in
Mumbai, which is called [2] to pay respect to the father of Indian Constitution. This year, due to the on-
going pandemic, the Maharashtra government has urged people to refrain from visiting this site and
observe the day staying home.
Mahaparinirvan is one of the major goals of Buddhism. It means ‘’Nirvana after death”. Parinirvan is
written as Parinibbana in Pali. Pali language is native to Indian continent. The Buddhist text
“Mahaparinibbana Sutta” considers the death of Lord Buddha at the age of 80 as the original
Mahaparinirvan.
Ambedkar is called the father of constitution of India. He was the first minister of law and Justice of
independent India and is considered as the chief architect of the Constitution of India. He was an Indian
economist, jurist, social reformer and politician. He inspired several dalit Buddhist movements and fought
against social discrimination towards untouchables. He on doctor it’s in Economics from University of
London and Columbia University.
In 1956, he converted to Buddhism and initiated mass conversions of the lips. He was awarded with the
India’s highest civilian award, Bharat Ratna in 1990.

MOCK CLAT #16
(a) December 8 (b) December 10
(c) December 6 (d) December 12
36. When was Dr. Ambedkar born?

(a) 14 April 1891 (b) 14 April 1893
(c) January 15, 1889 (d) 6 December 1869
37. Which of the following statements is correct about Dr. Ambedkar?

(a) Dr. Bhimrao got married at the age of 15 years with a nine-year-old girl "Ramabai".
(b) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was based on the ideas of Ambedkar, which he recommended to
the Hilton Young Commission.
(c) He was the first Law and Justice Minister of independent India.
38. Under which of the following Prime Minister did Dr. Ambedkar got the Bharat Ratna?
(a) H.D. Deve Gowda (b) P.V. Narsimha Rao
(c) Chandra Shekhar (d) Vishwanath Pratap Singh
39. Which one of the following will replace [2] in the above passage?
(a) Chaitya bhoomi (b) Rajgruha
(c) Ambedkar Menorial Park (d) Bhim Janm Bhoomi
Passage (Q.40-Q.44): The G20 summit of 2020 was hosted by [1] recently. The subsequent G20
summits are to be held in Italy in 2021, Indonesia in 2022, India in 2023 and Brazil in 2024.
The main focus of the Summit was on resilient, inclusive and sustainable recovery from covid-19 crisis.
During the Summit the leaders discussed on the preparedness of the countries in response to the
pandemic. They also shared their vision on building a resilient future
Prime Minister Narendra Modi participated in the 2020 G20 summit that was held under the theme of [2].
The theme mainly focuses on empowering people, safeguarding the planet, shaping new frontiers. In
order to mark the G20 Presidency of [1] the country released a commemorative banknote.
After the financial crisis of 1997-98, it was agreed that the participation of major emerging market
countries are essential in the International Financial System. In order to achieve this the G7 finance
ministers agreed to establish the G20 meeting in 1999. The G20 finance Ministers and the central Bank
governors meet mainly focuses on monetary policy issues and major economic decisions. Their main
objective is to achieve stable and sustainable Global economic growth.
40. When was G20 established?

(a) 1995 (b) 1999
(c) 1985 (d) 2000
(a) Turkey (b) Saudi Arabia
(c) UK (d) Iceland
42. Which of the following is not the member of the G20?

(a) Indonesia (b) Singapore
(c) Mexico (d) Turkey

MOCK CLAT #16
(a) Shaping an Interconnected World
(b) Human-Centred Future Society
(c) Making the world together
(d) Realising opportunities of the 21st century for all
44. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the G20?
(a) In the meetings of the G20, EU is represented by the European Commission and by the European
Central Bank
(b) The G20 economies account for around 85% of the gross world product (GWP)
(c) The G20 economies account for around 80% of world trade
(d) The G20 economies account for around 40% population of the world
Passage (Q.45-Q.49): The Booker Prize of the year 2020 was won by [1] for his debut novel “Shuggie
Bain”. The shortlist of Booker Prize consisted of five more titles such as Burnt Sugar. The Burnt Sugar
was published in India as “Girl in White Cotton”. It also included “The New Wilderness” by Diane Cook,
“The Shadow King” by Maaza Mengiste, “This Mournable Body” by Tsitsi Dangarembga, “Real Life” by
Brandon Taylor and “The Shadow King” by Maaza Mengiste.
Apart from these authors, the event also witnessed the participation of former US President Barack
Obama. He recently published the first volume of his book “A Promised Land”. The book was written by
Obama during his tenure as the President of United States (2009-17)
The Booker Prize is a literary prize awarded annually for the best novel. The prize is awarded to novels
written in English and published in Ireland or UK. It was formerly known as “Booker-McConnell Prize”
(1969-2001) and Man Booker Prize (2002-2019). While the International Booker Prize is awarded to
books that are translated into English and published in United Kingdom. The 2020 winner of International
Booker Prize is Marieke Lucas Rjineveld for the book [2]. It was translated by Michele Hutchison.
(a) George Saunders (b) Elearnor Catton
(c) Douglas Stuart (d) Anna Burns
46. Who is the first Indian to win the Bookers Prize?

(a) Arundhati Roy (b) Arvind Adiga
(c) Salman Rushdie (d) V.S. Naipaul
47. Which of the following is the first authors to win the Bookers prize twice?
(a) Hilary Mantel (b) JM Coetzee
(c) Peter Carey (d) Margret Atwood
(a) The Discomfort of Evening (b) A Horse Walks into a Bar
(c) Flights (d) Celestial Bodies
49. Which of the following author has won the best of the Bookers prize?
(a) JM Coetzee (b) Margret Atwood
(c) Salman Rushdie (d) Sir V.S. Naipaul

MOCK CLAT #16
Passage (Q.50-Q.54): Every year, the World Fisheries Day is celebrated on [1]. According to the United
Nations, more than two-thirds of the world fisheries are overfished. Therefore, it is important to celebrate
the day to create awareness about sustainable fishing.
Small scale fisheries employ more than 90% of people employed in fisheries. Around 65% of fish caught
from inland fisheries are from low-income food deficit countries. More than 25% of world dietary protein is
provided by the fish. The total fish consumption in the world is 100 million tonnes. Therefore, it is
important to focus on changing the way the world manages global fisheries in order to ensure sustainable
fish stocks.
For the first time, the Department of Fisheries operating under the Ministry of Fisheries is celebrating
World Fisheries Day. The Department is to confer best performing states in Fisheries award on World
Fisheries Day.
(a) November 21 (b) November 10
51. Who is the Minister responsible for the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying
(a) Gajendra Singh Sekhawat (b) Dharmendra Pradhan
(c) Giriraj Singh (d) Piyush Goyal
52. Which state has won the prize for best State award under the category of best hilly and North Eastern
State in Fisheries
(a) Assam (b) Odisha
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Manipur
53. Which state has won the prize for best State award under the category of best performing state award
among inland states?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Odisha
(c) West Bengal (d) Jharkhand
54. Which of the following schemes has been started by the Government of India to aid the fisheries sector?
(a) Pradhan Mantri Matsya Rojgar Yojana
(b) Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kshetra Yojana
(c) Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana
(d) Pradhan Mantri Matsya Vikaas Yojana
Passage (Q.55-Q.59): Every year, India celebrates National Education Day on [1]. It is also called
Rashtriya Shiksha Diwas. The day is celebrated to mark the birth anniversary of Maulana Abul Kalam
Azad.
In 2008, the Ministry of Human Resource Development announced November 11 as the National
Education Day. The ministry was recently renamed as Ministry of Education. The ministry in 2020 has
Ministry of Education has organised National Education Day programmes at IIT Bombay. The programme
mainly discussed about the National Education Policy, 2020.
Maulana was born in Mecca, Saudi Arabia. Azad’s family relocated to Calcutta to provide him better
education.
He served as the Education Minister of independent India between 1947 and 1958. During his service
period, he was one of the Congress leaders who established the National Education System. His primary
focus was on providing free education to the country. He was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1992 for his
contribution in the field of education and for his service to the country as a freedom fighter.

MOCK CLAT #16
(a) November 21 (b) November 11
(c) November 01 (d) November 30
56. Which of the following magazines was started by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad?
(a) Mooknayak (b) Al Hilal
(c) Punjabi (d) Navayug
57. Which of the following book was written by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad?
(a) India Wins Freedom (b) An Indian Pilgrim
(c) The Arctic (d) Unhappy India
58. Under which of the following Prime Minister did Maulana Abul Kalam Azad got the Bharat Ratna?
(a) H.D. Deve Gowda (b) P.V. Narsimha Rao
(c) Chandra Shekhar (d) Vishwanath Pratap Singh
59. At what age did Azad became the President of Indian National Congress?
(a) 30 (b) 35
(c) 40 (d) 45
Passage (Q.60-Q.64): Every year, the Goa Liberation day is celebrated on [1] in India. The day is
celebrated to mark the victory of Indian armed forces to free Goa from 450 years of the Portuguese rule.
The Portuguese colonized several parts of India in 1510. However, by the end of 19th century their
colonies were limited to Daman, Dadra, Goa, Diu, Nagar Haveli.
After India gained its independence from the Britishers in 1947, Goa was still under the rule. Portuguese
refused to give up Goa and other Indian territories. The independent India decided to launch a military
intervention following an unsuccessful negotiation and diplomatic efforts with the Portuguese. India had
also taken the issue to United Nations. India was reluctant to put pressure over the issue as Portugal was
a member of NATO.
The Usgalimal Rock Engravings in Goa exhibit that people had settled in the region during the upper
Paleolithic or Mesolithic periods. During the Iron Age Goa was ruled by Mauryan and Satavahana
Empire. During the medieval period Goa was ruled by Kadamba Kingdom, Vijayanagara Kingdom,
Bahmani Sultanate and Bijapur Sultanate. Goa was invaded by the Portuguese during the rule of Bijapur
Sultanate.
(a) December 16 (b) December 19
61. In which of the following year was Goa granted the Statehood by the Indian Government?
(a) 1975 (b) 1987
(c) 1992 (d) 1998
62. On December 18, 1961, India launched a 36-hour military operation to reclaim Goa called
(a) Operation Polo (b) Operation Vijay
(c) Operation Azad (d) Operation Vikram
63. Which of the following was the capital of Goa before the Portuguese moved the capital to Panjim?
(a) Old Goa (b) Vasco Da Gama
(c) Margao (d) Ponda

MOCK CLAT #16
64. Which of the following is the official language of Goa?

(a) Konkani (b) English
(c) Hindi (d) Marathi
Passage (Q.65-Q.68): The resolution to celebrate International Migrants Day was adopted in 1990
during the International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members
of their families. The day is celebrated by the United Nations to highlight the contributions made by the
migrants. According to UN, there are roughly around 272 million migrants in the world. This includes 41
million internally displaced persons.
With the COVID-19 crisis, the migration in India has increased. According to Census 2011, there were
45.6 crores of migrants. This is roughly 38% of the country’s population. In 2001, the migrant population
was 31.5 crores. The migrant population between 2001 and 2011 has increased by 18%.
In India, the major reasons of intra-state migration were marriage and family. The female migration was
higher as compared to that of the males. 83% of females moved for marriage and family as compared to
39% males.
Challenges faced by migrants

 The migration in the world is increasing due to ethnic violence, natural disasters and employment.
The increase in violence against migrants is accelerated by social media. In urban areas, migrants
lack access to basic amenities such as clean drinking water, electricity, safe houses, etc.
 Because of the unstable nature of their jobs, the migrants are often declared as illegal residents.
 The Climate Changes have triggered large mass of migration lately.
 Recently, fake messages were triggered against a mass exodus of labourers from the North East.
65. When is the International Migrants Day celebrated?

(a) 15th December (b) 20th December
(c) 18th December (d) 21st December
66. Who is the head of the International Organisation for Migration?

(a) António Vitorino (b) Madeleine Sumption
(c) Mário Soares (d) Demetrios G. Papademetriou
67. When was International Organisation for Migration established?

(a) 1950 (b) 1951
(c) 1990 (d) 1991
68. What is the theme of International Migrants Day 2020?

(a) Migration with Dignity (b) We together
(c) Reimagining Human Mobility (d) Safe Migration in a World on Move

MOCK CLAT #16
Passage (Q.69-Q.74): In this age of corporatisation, most jurisdictions recognise the concept of a
company as a separate juristic person, with an identity distinct and independent of its shareholders,
members or directors. This corporate existence separates a company’s identity from that of its promoters
or shareholders. It enables the company to contract in its own name, with its shareholders and third
parties, to acquire and hold property in its own name, and to sue and be sued in its own name…
This independence or distinction is not a new concept. In the late 19th Century, the judgment in the
classic case of Salomon v. Salomon was passed, ruling that a company is a separate legal entity distinct
from its members and so insulating Mr. Salomon, the founder of A. Salomon and Company, Ltd., from
personal liability to the creditors of the company he founded…
Each company upon incorporation, is treated as a separate legal entity, unless two or more companies
function as a single economic entity, in which case the corporate veil may be lifted. So, for instance,
where the subsidiary does not in fact act autonomously and essentially only carries out instructions given
to it by its parent, it is possible to say that the subsidiary and the parent are really one and the same, thus
ignoring their separate legal status and lifting the veil. Among the factors a court would consider in this
regard, are whether the companies were “guided by the same head and brain” and whether the parent
controlled the actions of its subsidiary. Courts have also lifted the corporate veil if it is found that a
subsidiary company has been constituted with the sole intention of concealing the true facts, to act as a
façade and thereby perpetrate a fraud, or to “look at the realities of the situation and to know the real
state of affairs”.
69. Crazy Foods Ltd. is a Gurugram based company which mainly deals in frozen foods. It has a subsidiary,
namely Gogo Foods Ltd., in the Southern part of the country to facilitate the distribution in the said
region. Crazy Foods has been a remarkable success in the Northern region, which it oversees. However,
Gogo Foods has not been able to fully establish itself in its native market. To boost its revenue and
capitalize more on its cold storage facilities, Gogo Foods entered into a contract with a milk delivery start-
up Daily Dairy. The start-up is in its early stages, however, its partnership with Gogo Foods has given it
an edge in the market. However, unaware of this arrangement, Crazy Foods has unilaterally decided to
exit the Southern market. Therefore, it starts selling the assets of Gogo Foods Ltd. Now, decide whether
Crazy Foods decision will be upheld in a court of law.
(a) Yes, Gogo Foods being a subsidiary is a part of Crazy Foods. Therefore, it has the right to strip off its
subsidiary’s assets.
(b) Yes, Gogo Foods mainly was created with the sole purpose of handling the Southern distribution of
the parent company. Therefore, they are selling and marketing the same product under different
disguises.
(c) No, Gogo Foods Ltd. must be consulted before selling off its assets.
(d) No, Daily Dairy must be consulted before selling off Gogo Foods assets.
70. Daily Dairy did well for a few months, however it was not able to raise the capital it needed to sustain
itself. Therefore, the business goes under and Gogo Foods sustains huge losses. The parent company
ultimately intervenes and bails out the business. It chides the Board and the subsidiary’s CEO for their
failings and removes them from their position. The changes made were such that they are in tune with
the Frozen Foods distribution in South and the brand’s overall interest. To cut further losses the newly
appointed CEO then takes initiative to launch new frozen products in the market to match the demand of
the Southern parts. However, Gogo Foods was still unable to revive itself and the parent company has no
choice but to sell its business. Decide.
(a) Crazy Foods can sell the business as it is in a better position as a parent company.
(b) Daily Dairy has to compensate for the losses it has caused to Crazy Foods and Gogo Foods.
(c) Gogo Foods has to be consulted before making this choice.
(d) New CEO’s efforts cannot be ignored as he has launched their own products in the market making
Gogo Foods a separate entity.

MOCK CLAT #16
71. New Horizon is a joint venture between three of the biggest publishers in the country. It is a newly
established entity with experienced staff members from the constituent organisations. Department of
Telecomm has invited tender for the publication telephone directories. New Horizon offered the best bid
(cost-wise), however they were rejected by the Tender Committee for not fulfilling the minimum
experience requirement. The company then decides to pursue legal means. Decide.
(a) New Horizon has the best bid, it cannot be rejected in the name of equity, justice and good
conscience.
(b) New Horizon is a joint venture of different recognised publishers therefore it qualifies for the bid.
(c) New Horizon is a joint venture and it is a legal entity in its own. It as a newly established entity cannot
bid unless it develops the relevant experience under its own name.
(d) New Horizon as a joint venture of various publishers is infact better suited for the bid.
72. Jingalala Corp, a public company, finds itself unable to pay back a bank loan of a total of Rs. 15,000
Crores. The Bank authorities want the CEO to cough up the money from his assets since his reckless
decisions caused huge losses to the company from which it was not able to recover. Infact, both the
assets of the CEO and the company are not sufficient to cover the said amount. Aggrieved by this, the
CEO approaches the court to direct the bank officials from going after his assets. Decide.
(a) The CEO’s assets are his own and have nothing to do with the bank loan.
(b) The CEO’s property should be attached so that the loan can be recovered.
(c) It was the CEO who ultimately caused losses to the company therefore he has to pay for his wrongs.
(d) Actions of the CEO directly reflect that of the company’s, therefore CEO is liable for the losses his ill
decisions made.
73. Dodaphone is a multinational telecom company based out of UK. They have had presence in India for a
long time, however, under a different brand name Kutch. Kutch was later renamed as Dodaphone India
to make it more synonymous with the international brand, later Dodaphone sold its majority share in the
Indian company to another foreign entity. The tax officials claim that this is a case of tax evasion and veil
should be lifted to see that the parent company is the one which has benefited from this transaction.
Decide.
(a) This is a classic case of tax fraud and hence the veil can be lifted.
(b) The Indian entity is different. The veil cannot be lifted as the Indian entity or its Directors did not
benefit from the transaction.
(c) Dodaphone changed its name to make it synonymous with the original brand therefore it is controlled
for the benefit of the actual owners.
(d) Dodaphone UK controls and benefits the Indian arm and therefore the transaction is liable to be
taxed.
74. Now, Dodaphone India is the largest Telecomm services provider in India, to obtain the 4G spectrum the
officials of Dodaphone India frequently visited the Minister for Telecomm and Communication and it
raised some suspicions regarding Insiders Trading. A case has been filed against Dodaphone for insiders
trading. Decide.
(a) Dodaphone cannot be prosecuted as a mere meeting, of officials with the minister, suggests nothing
and such arguments are baseless.
(b) While dealing with Tenders it is of utmost importance that the bidders maintain a safe distance from
the authorities concerned. Dodaphone will be held liable for insiders trading.
(c) Dodaphone is a company concerned with their business in telecom and has nothing to do with
insiders trading.
(d) The fact that the respondent managed to become the largest telecom service provider within such a
short period suggest some inappropriate conduct and the action of officials and ministers suggest the
same, Dodaphone must be prosecuted.

MOCK CLAT #16
Passage (Q.75-Q.79): In Delhi’s Shaheen Bagh, women led peaceful protests were organised to oppose
the enactment of the Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019 (CAA)
The Court highlighted that these rights (a right to protest and express dissent) are subject to reasonable
restrictions pertaining to the sovereignty of the State and public order. Relying on its decision in Mazdoor
v. UoI, the Court said that the rights of the protestors have to be balanced with the rights of the
commuters…
The Supreme Court had previously dealt with the clash between the right to protest and convenience of
the public in the case of Himat Lal v. Commissioner of Police. While settling the issue, the Court said that
a reasonable restriction in the form of seeking prior permission of the authorities to hold the protest at a
designated time and place can be imposed. However, in doing so, the Court said that authorities should
not have discretionary powers in granting permission to the protestors. In the case at hand, the Court has
imposed an additional requirement on the protestors which is to not occupy public places, regardless of
seeking prior permission of the authorities. This decision not only limits the right to protest but makes way
for the authorities to clear any and every protest carried out at a public place. Further, the Court also did
not lay down any clear guidelines for the administrative authorities to adhere to. This decision gives
enormous power to the authorities to limit the number of protestors, the duration of the protest and most
importantly, the usage of public spaces. Emphasizing on how the expression of dissent in a self-ruled
democracy cannot be the same as it was under colonial rule, the Court in this decision has taken away
the entire essence of the right to protest by giving administrative authorities the discretion to limit the
usage of public places, where most protests are carried out.
75. The Parliament passed 3 laws recently. However, the laws have not been well received by the
businessman in certain states of the country. To voice their dissent, they plan to gather for a peaceful
protest around the national capital Delhi, without occupying public places. However, their request for
permission was rejected by the competent authority on the grounds that protesting against an Act passed
by the parliament is against the national interests of the country. Decide.
(a) Permission cannot be rejected, it is the right of the people to protest and discretion cannot take away
a right bestowed upon by the constitution.
(b) Protest not only hamper the security of the state but also the economic condition, allowing wide scale
protests is against national interest and the permission was denied rightfully.
(c) In times of corona right to protest has to be suspended, in times of social distancing allowing people
to gather endangers them and are a liability to the state.
(d) Permission cannot be rejected as the businessman need to raise their voices, and protest is the only
way for them to have their voices heard when the government doesn’t
76. Later the request for protest was accepted and businessman occupied a designated area, it was
observed that the road adjacent to the protest site met with severe traffic jam. On the basis of disruption
of commuter’s authorities cancelled the permission of protest and vacated the protesters, is this decision
correct?
(a) Yes, the protest resulted in a traffic jam and according to the court right of commuters cannot be
compromised because of a protest.
(b) No, the authorities cannot cancel the permission for protest on baseless reasons.
(c) No, the authorities do not want the protest to happen and are finding reason to disallow the protest
and snatching away a fundamental right of the citizens to protest, this decision goes against the law.
77. If in the above facts, say the protesters move into public places and block them indefinitely until the
government listens to their demands. The government is also adamant in its stance and wants them to
clear the public places. According to the author does the right to protest in the current situation fulfils the
basic requirement of the right?
(a) This move is wrong. Permission to protest cannot be rejected because of standstill between the
government and protesters.
(b) I agree with the authorities. People should not occupy public places as this has been very explicitly
made clear by the court

MOCK CLAT #16
(c) The right to protest is being dominated and the essence has been destroyed by allowing the
authorities to decide the important aspect of the protest.
(d) The government and the authorities have a right to object to such demands when security of the
nation is at stake, rightfully rejected.
78. Poppu, a politician, wants to hold a rally in favour of farmers’ right. His supporters will brandish their
personal traditional farming tools in the rally as a show of strength. The authorities have rejected the
request for grant of permission. Why do you think permission was rejected?
(a) The protests which threaten the public order should be discouraged.
(b) The protests by politicians are not new and they can always voice their opinions in the concerned
state legislature, such protest tactics are used to create a political turmoil.
(c) Protest that is backed by political motive should be discouraged and allowing such protest to happen
threatens the very essence of democracy.
(d) Rallies are done on road and roads are a part of public place, allowing people to occupy public place
is against the law.
79. The farmers are standing before the court and arguing to allow the protest to carry on. what reason could
they give for the court to accept such request?
(a) Farmers just want their voices heard and protesting publically is the only way to get in sight of the
government, it must be allowed.
(b) It is a fundamental right of a citizen to protest and brandishing is important to showcase the tools,
faux tools for safety, which put the food on everyone’s plate and are essential symbolism for the
protest and farmers will change the tactic and will now use fake tools to remove the apprehension of
danger, the authorities must allow them the permission.
(c) Tools will not be used for any purpose other than brandishing and the protest is peaceful.
(d) The rally will not occupy any public place and has no intention of threatening anyone; therefore, the
fundamental right to protest must be upheld.
Passage (Q.80-Q.85): Article 21 states that “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty
except according to procedure established by law”. The term ‘life’ is interpreted in a very wide sense; the
inhibition against its deprivation extends to all those limbs and faculties by which life is enjoyed and is
available to both citizens and non-citizens. Hence, any form of mutilation, amputation or the destruction
of any other organ of the body is prohibited under this Article.
This is followed by Article 22, which immediately tells us exactly how the State can take away this right to
life and personal liberty. So, we find general protections in Articles 22(1) to (3): every person arrested
must be informed of the grounds of arrest and be permitted to engage legal counsel of her choice [Article
22(1)], as well as be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours of being detained [Article 22(2)]. This,
interestingly, is followed up by 22(3) which specifically takes away these rights in case of “enemy
aliens” and “persons arrested and detained under preventive detention laws”. The remainder of Article 22
– clauses (4) to (7): moves on to lay down the limits of preventive detention laws to prevent their misuse
and confer certain limited rights upon detenues i.e. detainees. Thus, ordinarily preventive detention is
capped at three months unless reviewed by an Advisory Board which recommends otherwise [Article
22(4)], where the case is not of a category warranting special treatment [Article 22(7)]. Detenues have a
right to be informed of the grounds behind a detention order as soon as may be [where disclosure is not
contrary to public interest as per Article 22(6), and also to make a representation against the order
[Article 22(5)].
[Extracted with minor revisions from ‘Preventive Justice Part 1 – The History behind Article 22’ by
Abhinav Sekhri, Indconlawphil.wordpress.com
https://indconlawphil.wordpress.com/2016/12/03/guest-post-preventive-justice-part-1-the-history-behind-
article-22/]

MOCK CLAT #16
80. Johnny was arrested for robbery on 3rd June 2016 at 5pm. He was produced before a magistrate on 4th
June at 1pm who took cognizance of the matter and asked Johnny to be presented before a judge for
trial on 1st July. Johnny was poor and could not afford any lawyer to fight his case so no one represented
him in his case. Without a lawyer, Johnny could not prove his innocence before the judge and was found
guilty and imprisoned. Are his fundamental rights being violated?
(a) Yes, Articles 22(1) and 22(2)
(b) Yes, Article 22(1)
(c) Yes, Article 22(5)
(d) Yes, Articles 22(2) and 22(5)
81. Thomas Shelby is a student activist notorious for his speeches criticising the government. He was taken
into custody by the police without being informed of the grounds of his arrest on 22 nd March 2019 for his
speech which was deemed violative of the ‘Public Safety Act’. This Act permits arrest or detention of any
person who uses hate speech against the government in order to incite people, deeming it to be against
public safety. He is produced before a magistrate on 22nd May 2019. Which of the following fundamental
rights are being violated in this case?
(a) Article 22(2)
(b) Article 22(6)
82. Based on your reading of the passage, the protection against arrest and detention under Article 22 is
available to:
i. Indian Citizens
ii. Foreigners
iii. A person detained under a preventive detention law
iv. A Non-resident Indian
(a) i. and ii
(b) ii. and iii
(c) i., ii. and iv
(d) iii. and iv
83. Gian spat a chewing gum on the road and was immediately arrested by the police who told him that he
violated the ‘Cleanliness’ Act. He was not aware that it was illegal to chew gum in the country and spitting
it on the road was punishable. Is it a violation of Article 22?
(a) No, because he was informed about the grounds of his arrest
(b) Yes, because he was informed about the grounds of his arrest
(c) No, because it was his duty to be aware of the laws of the land
(d) Yes, because he was not aware that chewing gum was punishable in the country
84. The countries of Liberalia and Leftistan share a border but have maintained peaceful relations since their
Partition. One day an unknowing villager from Leftistan crosses into Liberalia by mistake. He was
arrested by the Border Police that mistook him for a secret spy. The Border Police kept torturing the
villager so much so that his left ear became less functional. Subsequently, it was found after an
investigation that he was innocent. Can the villager claim a violation of his right to life and personal liberty
under Article 21?
(a) No, because the villager was an ‘enemy alien’
(b) No, because none of his organs were ‘mutilated’ or ‘amputated’ to constitute a violation of Article 21
(c) Yes, because Article 21 is an inalienable right available to every person
(d) Yes, because Article 21 is an inalienable right available to every citizen

MOCK CLAT #16
85. Liberalia and Leftistan are at war. An enemy soldier from Liberalia is taken into custody by the forces of
Leftistan and kept in jail for 6 months. He is not given any opportunity to make a representation. Is it a
violation of his fundamental rights under under the laws of Leftistan?
(a) Yes, because Article 22 is available to both citizens and non-citizens
(b) No, because he does not have the protection of any fundamental rights
(c) No, because he is an ‘enemy alien’
Passage (Q.86-Q.91): The distinction between kidnapping and abduction can often seem perplexing at a
first glance but the two are fundamentally different. In Kidnapping, the minor is simply taken away. The
means used may be innocent. In abduction, force, compulsion, or deceitful means are used. Moreover, in
the former, the consent of the person taken is immaterial; while in the latter, the consent of the person
moved can condone abduction.
Kidnapping from lawful guardianship under the Indian Penal Code can be understood as, a person taking
away or enticing a minor or a person of unsound mind, from his/her guardian without their consent. The
word ‘take’ doesn’t necessarily connote taking by force and is not confined only to the use of force, actual
or constructive. It merely means cause to go, to escort, or to get possession. The mental attitude of the
minor is not relevant in the course of taking. On the other hand, the word ‘entice’ seems to involve the
idea of inducement or allurement by giving rise to hope or desire in the other.
On the other hand, abduction, includes the use of brute force or any deceitful means to take a person
from one place to another. It is defined under Section 362 of the Indian Penal Code, as, if a person
compels another person to go from one place, or induces some person to go from one place, then the
offence of abduction is committed. In a more restricted sense, it is also confined to the taking of females
for marriage, concubine, or prostitution.
[Extracted with minor revisions from ‘Criminal Law: Kidnapping and Abduction’ by Kumar Writwick and
Shivani Panda, lexlife.in https://lexlife.in/2020/05/31/criminal-law-kidnapping-and-abduction/]
86. Eleanor was born on 1st June 1995. She decided to run away from her house and marry Chidi, her best
friend. She asked Chidi to pick her up from her house on 31st July 2013. She sat in his car while he
silently drove away.
(a) Chidi is liable for kidnapping because consent is immaterial in kidnapping
(b) Chidi is liable for abduction because he picked Eleanor from her house so that they could get married
(c) Chidi is not liable for abduction
(d) Both Chidi and Eleanor are liable for abduction
87. Jason was the 8yr old son of Michael. One day, when Michael was out for work, Jason was playing alone
in the park outside his house. A stranger came up to Jason and seeing that he was alone, offered to play
with him. This became a routine and the stranger started playing with Jason every day when Michael was
not at home. The two had almost become friends. One of these days, he asked Jason to sit in his car and
Jason agreed. When Michael came back home, he was unable to find Jason.
(a) The stranger has not committed the offence of kidnapping
(b) The stranger has committed the offence of kidnapping
(c) The stranger has not committed the offence of kidnapping because he was friends with Jason
(d) The stranger has committed the offence of kidnapping because Jason agreed to sit in his car
88. Blue Ivy was a 20yr old woman, suffering from a medical condition which caused her to become unsound
for three days after taking her medications. She was trying an unconventional therapy, and this was a
side effect of the medication. She took her medication on Wednesday and went on a walk on Saturday
with her mother. Her mother stopped to talk to her friends, but Blue Ivy kept walking. A man came up to
her, held her hand and walked away with her.
(a) This is case of abduction because Blue Ivy was not a minor.
(b) This is a case of kidnapping because Blue Ivy was of sound mind
(c) This is a case of abduction because Blue Ivy was of unsound mind
(d) This is a case of kidnapping because Blue Ivy was of unsound mind.

MOCK CLAT #16
89. Mala was coming back home from office when a van stopped in front of her. A group of 5 people pushed
her into the van. She tried to resist but was unable to stop them. Mala continued to scream to alert the
people outside, but they drove the van in silence. Three hours later, they dropped Mala in a locality two
streets away from her neighbourhood.
(a) This is a case of abduction because they took Mala from one place to another
(b) This is not a case of abduction because they dropped her near her neighbourhood
(c) This is a case of abduction because they compelled Mala to come with them
(d) This is not a case of abduction because they did not use any force
90. Shanaya and Ahaana were best friends. For Shanaya’s birthday, Ahaana surprised her with a treasure
hunt with clues hidden all around the city. If she found all the clues, Ahaana would give her a special gift.
Shanaya went from one place to another looking for clues for 5 hours straight with Ahaana. Did Ahaana
abduct Shanaya?
(a) Yes, because Ahaana induced Shanaya to look around for clues
(b) Yes, because Ahaana compelled Shanaya to look for clues
(c) No, because Ahaana did not take Shanaya from one place to another
91. David was 16yrs old. One day, he was upset with his parents because they scolded him for scoring bad
marks. While his parents were away, his father’s friend Keith came to their house. David said that he
wanted to get away from his parents for some time and asked Keith to help him so, Keith offered to take
him to his house so he could play with their new dog. Has Keith committed any offence?
(a) No, because he was a family friend
(b) No, because he was only trying to help David clear his head
(c) Yes, because he escorted David to his house
(d) Yes, because he agreed to help David
Passage (Q.92-Q.96): Tamil Nadu Gaming and Police Laws (Amendment) Ordinance 2020 amends the
Tamil Nadu Gaming Act, 1930 (TN Gaming Act) and extends its territorial scope to cover the entire state
of Tamil Nadu.
The Ordinance comes in the wake of the observations of the Madras High Court regarding the addictive
nature of online games and its negative effect on the masses. It has made the following key changes to
the TN Gaming Act:
Instruments of gaming earlier only included any articles used or intended to be used as a subject or
means of gaming. The definition has now been expanded to specifically include items such as cards,
dice, gaming table or cloth, board, computers, computer system, computer network, computer resource,
any communication device, or any other article used or intended to be used as a subject or means of
gaming. It also includes electronic records that are used as registers or records or evidence of any
gaming. Further, instruments of gaming include proceeds of any ‘gaming’, including any online transfer of
funds or transactions. Moreover, the definition of gaming has been expanded to include wagering and
betting in cyberspace.
The Ordinance introduces a new offence of wagering and betting in cyberspace. It criminalizes wagering
or betting in cyberspace using computers, computer system, computer network, computer resource, any
communication device or any other instrument of gaming, by playing ‘rummy’, ‘poker’ or ‘any other game’.
For this purpose, wagering or betting is deemed to include collection or soliciting of bets, and the receipt
or distribution of winnings or prizes, including through electronic transfer of funds.
However, the Ordinance does not put a blanket ban on offering online games. Online games involving
skill continue to be exempted from the application of the restrictions under the TN Gaming Act.
[Extracted from ‘Tamil Nadu promulgates ordinance to ban online gaming’ by Surbhi Kejriwal, Rishabh
Bharadwaj and Abhishek Rao in lexology.com
https://www.lexology.com/library/detail.aspx?g=cf34354e-d48f-4156-a979-dc69]

MOCK CLAT #16
92. Allie loved hosting gaming parties at her home. She invented a new game wherein every player was
supposed to throw coins in cups laid out on a table at different distances. The players are also allowed to
speculate and place bets on which cup will have the maximum coins. The winner is given the entire prize
money. Is this legal under the ordinance?
(a) Yes, because it is not wagering or betting
(b) Yes, because the prize money is not distributed through electronic transfer
(c) No, because wagering or betting is criminalized by the Ordinance
(d) No, because there is no evidence to prove that bets are being solicited
93. Sujan plays a game called ‘Real Rummy Rambo’ online. It allows him to play rummy with multiple players
around the world. A unique feature of the game is that it allows a player to enjoy the game without using
any real money. The game allows players to bet using Rambo coins which are allocated to the top
performers of the game every day. IS Sujan committing an offence by playing this game?
(a) Yes, because he is playing rummy
(b) Yes, because his data is being recorded in an online register
(c) No, because the game does not use any real money
(d) No, because he is not soliciting bets
94. Prachi loves playing games online. She uses a website called Mega player which has multiple games
such as hidden object games, Russian roulette, poker, colouring games etc. Is Mega player prohibited?
(a) Mega player is prohibited because it offers games like poker and Russian roulette
(b) Only some game from Mega player are prohibited
(c) Mega player is not prohibited because it does not involve any transfer of funds
(d) Mega prohibited is not prohibited because it is a free website.
95. Based on your reading of the passage, which of the following could have prompted the promulgation of
such an ordinance?
(a) People end up incurring debts in connection with online gambling activities
(b) Online games involving betting and wagering can inculcate negative behaviours in the youth
(c) There are instances of people dying by suicide when unable to repay these debts
96. Although horse racing is a game of skill, it still involves people placing bets on different horses and
runners in the derby. Is it allowed under the given Ordinance?
(a) No, because it still involves betting
(b) Yes, because it is a game involving skill
(c) Horse Racing is allowed but betting on horses is not allowed
Passage (Q.97-Q.102): The right to protest peacefully is enshrined in the Indian Constitution under
Article 19(1)(b) which assures citizens the right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
In the case of Ramlila Maidan Incident vs. Home Secretary, Union of India, the Supreme Court had
stated, “Citizens have a fundamental right to assembly and peaceful protest which cannot be taken away
by an arbitrary executive or legislative action.”
It was in Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India that Justice Bhagwati had said, “If democracy means
government of the people by the people, it is obvious that every citizen must be entitled to participate in
the democratic process and in order to enable him to intelligently exercise his rights of making a choice,
free & general discussion of public matters is absolutely essential.”
At this point, it is critical to note that all protests are legal only if they are non-violent and carried out with
appropriate permissions. Article 19(1)(3) says that this right is subject to “reasonable restrictions” in the
interest of public order.
These reasonable restrictions include situations wherein the security of the state is in jeopardy; the
friendly relationship that we share with a neighbouring country is at stake; public order is disturbed; there
is contempt of court; or India’s sovereignty and integrity are threatened.

MOCK CLAT #16
In a recent matter on the scope of right to protest, the Supreme Court held that public places cannot be
occupied indefinitely. The Court said that although Dissent and democracy go hand in hand, protests
must be carried out in a designated area.
[Extracted from ‘Citizen Protests in India: Rights, Duties & Permissions Needed’ by Vidya Raja,
thebetterindia.com https://www.thebetterindia.com/206831/how-to-protest-in-india-constitution-rights-
right-fundamental-duties-police-permission-nrc/]
97. The Parliament of Schitt’s Creek passed a new law to support the fishermen of the town with thumping
majority in both the houses. This new law allowed the fishermen to directly take up contract fishing with
big corporates thus, eliminating the middlemen. Moreover, the dispute resolution mechanism of the new
law mandated any complainant to take up their concerns with the Lok Adalat ‘without causing any ruckus
to get their demands met in any designated, public or government property’. Is this valid?
(a) No, because it was an arbitrary legislative action
(b) Yes, because the law is not arbitrary since it was passed with thumping majority in both the houses
(c) No, because right to protest is fundamental in nature which cannot be taken away by the Parliament
arbitrarily
(d) Yes, because Parliament has the discretion to put reasonable restrictions on the right to protest
98. A majority of the fishermen were unhappy with this law because they wanted the middlemen to stay for
the additional support they provided. They immediately protested by going on a strike and occupying the
Parliament road till their voices were heard. Any subsequent attempt at negotiating with the government
also failed. Therefore, they decided to continue to sit on a protest till the new law was repealed. It has
now been 15 months, but they continue to protest like it’s their first day. Can they do so?
(a) Yes, because they are not occupying a public space
(b) No, because they cannot occupy a public space indefinitely
(c) No, because right to protest in designated areas is a fundamental right
(d) Yes, because their protest is peaceful in nature
99. The citizens of Atlantis were protesting a new government policy that increased the tax on every citizen
by 40% since December 2019. In January 2019, in lieu of a worldwide outbreak of the SARS virus which
spreads by contact, the government refused to allow more than 4 people at the protest site at a time. Is
their right to protest being violated?
(a) No, because such a restriction is reasonable in nature
(b) Yes, because such a restriction is not reasonable in nature
(c) No, because such a restriction is not reasonable
(d) Yes, because such a restriction is reasonable
100. The notorious terrorist group ‘SISI’ had released a video message on the internet claiming that they had
planted a bomb in a crowded space. The government immediately issued an advisory preventing any
assembly or gathering of people and forbade people from leaving their houses till further notice. A citizen
X claims that this a violation of Article 19(3).
(a) Yes, this is a violation of the fundamental right to assembly
(b) Yes, this is a violation of Article 19(3) because it is an arbitrary exercise of power
(c) No, it is not a violation of Article 19(3) because public order is disturbed
(d) No, it is not a violation of Article 19(3) because the security of the state is in danger
101. A group of students were protesting against an arbitrary fee hike by a government university. The matter
was already being heard and the Court ordered the students to clear the site of protest and, the university
was directed to resolve the matter by holding consultations with the students. Having lost no faith in the
administration, some students continued to sit for protest till the fee hike was revoked. Can they do so?
(a) No, because the matter was already being heard in the Court
(b) No, because this would amount to contempt of Court
(c) Yes, because no restriction was imposed on their right to protest
(d) Yes, because Article 19 is a fundamental right

MOCK CLAT #16
102. In light of the government’s failure to curb the rising number of crimes against women and holding the
perpetrators of such crimes accountable for their actions, a large mass of outraged people went on
protest at India Gate. In order to boost their morale, some protestors started singing songs on unity and
fraternity of the people. Fearing that a prolonged protest would turn violent, the government ordered the
police to fire rubber bullets to displace the protestors. Is this a violation of their fundamental rights?
(a) No, because singing songs of unity and fraternity could have incited the protestors
(b) No, because the protest was a peaceful assembly of people
(c) Yes, because the protest was a peaceful assembly of people
(d) Yes, because right to protest is a fundamental right without any restrictions
Passage (Q.103-Q.106): The Uttar Pradesh Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Ordinance,
2020, was promulgated on November 27. The ordinance makes religious conversion a cognisable and
non-bailable offence, inviting penalties of up to 10 years in prison if found to be affected for marriage or
through misrepresentation, force, undue influence, coercion, allurement or other allegedly fraudulent
means.
A first information report (FIR) in this regard can be lodged by the “aggrieved person, his/her parents,
siblings, or any other person who is related to him/her by blood, marriage or adoption”, as per the
Ordinance.
It says any marriage done with the sole purpose of “unlawful conversion or vice-versa” by a man of one
religion with a woman of another religion, “either by converting himself/herself before or after marriage, or
by converting the woman before or after shall be declared void”.
Further, the burden to prove that a conversion was not done through misrepresentation, force, undue
influence, coercion, allurement, fraudulent means or for marriage would be on the person who caused
the conversion or the person who facilitated it.
[Extracted with revisions from ‘U.P. Governor promulgates ordinance on unlawful conversion’ by Omar
Rashid, The Hindu https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/up-governor-gives-assent-to-
ordinance-on-unlawful-conversion/article33198888.ece]
103. Farida, a follower of Islam fell in love with Hemant, a devout Hindu. Although, their families were not
happy with their union, the two decided to marry each other. After marriage, Hemant while in all his
senses, decided to convert to Islam. Subsequently, Hemant’s parents lodged an FIR under this
ordinance. Is Hemant’s act punishable?
(a) No, because only the conversion of women after marriage is criminalized
(b) No, because he converted after marriage not before
(c) No, because the religious conversion was not the sole purpose of their marriage
(d) No, because Farida and Hemant were genuinely in love
104. Murad married Sybil, who was a Christian. After marriage, Murad told Sybil that if she does not convert to
his religion of Maradonianism and change her name to Safeena, then he will hurt her. He offered to
facilitate the conversion process. Sybil converts to Maradonianism. Is the conversion illegal?
(a) Yes, because Sybil converted out of her own will
(b) Yes, because Sybil converted due to coercion
(c) No, because Sybil did not convert due to coercion
(d) No, because Sybil converted due to undue influence since Murad was her husband
105. Sybil’s father was very upset that he would now have to call his daughter Safeena because he gave her
the name ‘Sybil’. Her brother John lodged an FIR with the police contesting this conversion. Murad
disagrees. Who has to prove that the conversion was valid?
(a) Sybil, because she was the one who converted
(b) John, because he contested the conversion
(c) Police, because it is their duty to investigate in this regard
(d) Murad, because he made Sybil convert.

MOCK CLAT #16
106. Soham told Moeena and her family that he will bear all the expenses of Moeena’s family for the next 50
years if Moeena converts to his religion. Since her family was very poor and in desperate need of
financial help, she offered to convert her religion. Is this lawful?
(a) No, because Soham allured Moeena to convert
(b) No, because Soham convicted misrepresentation for conversion
(c) No, because Soham only married her to convert her
(d) No, because Soham coerced Moeena

MOCK CLAT #16
(Passage Q.107-Q.109):
Do not go gentle into that good night,
Old age should burn and rave at close of day;
Rage, rage against the dying of the light.
Though wise men at their end know dark is right,
Because their words had forked no lightning they
Do not go gentle into that good night.
Good men, the last wave by, crying how bright
Their frail deeds might have danced in a green bay,
Wild men who caught and sang the sun in flight,
And learn, too late, they grieved it on its way,
Grave men, near death, who see with blinding sight
Blind eyes could blaze like meteors and be gay,
And you, my father, there on the sad height,
Curse, bless, me now with your fierce tears, I pray.
From -Do not go gentle into that good night by Dylan Thomas
107. Which of the following lines from the poem best represents the theme of the poem?
(a) Though wise men at their end know dark is right, / Because their words had forked no lightning.
(b) Old age should burn and rave at close of day; / Rage, rage against the dying of the light.
(c) Good men, the last wave by, crying how bright / Their frail deeds might have danced in a green bay.
(d) And you, my father, there on the sad height, / Curse, bless, me now with your fierce tears, I pray.
108. Why does the poet classify men into four categories?
(a) To persuade his father not give himself up easily to death and be full of rage.
(b) To comfort his father that he was a wise man and his words would be always remembered.
(c) To make his father realize that no matter what, everyone has to finally face death.
(d) To make his father realize that irrespective of life’s choices, there is always a reason to live.
109. According to the poet, the reason for ‘wild men’ grieving is most likely that:
(a) They spent their life in action.
(b) They did not achieve what they wanted.
(c) They were daredevils who faced dangers boldly.
(d) They realize that they lived in folly and ignorance.
Passage (Q.110-Q.113): Congested streets and polluted air are common experiences in India’s
metropolises, although the average Indian contributes only minuscule amounts of transport-related
carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions to global climate change. Patterns of road transport, however, diverge
widely between cities and districts. Delhi tops the charts and emissions are more than twice as high as
other Indian megacities, such as Mumbai, Bengaluru or Ahmedabad. In fact, the Global Carbon Project
reports that India’s carbon emissions are rising more than two times as fast as the global rise in 2018.
Globally, the transport sector accounts for a quarter of total emissions, out of which three quarters are
from road transport. Reducing CO2 emissions of road transport leverages multiple co-benefits, for
example, improving air quality and increasing physical activity, which are critical for well-being,
particularly in urban areas. Climate action also requires an understanding of how emissions vary with
spatial context. The way cities are built and the design of public transit are critical for low-carbon mobility
systems. Average per capita commuting emissions are highest for the most affluent districts, which are
predominantly urban, and that heavily use four-wheelers for commuting. This is a surprising result, as in

MOCK CLAT #16
other parts of the world such as the United States, commuting emissions are low in urban areas but high
in suburban or ex-urban settings. In contrast, average per capita commuting emissions are lowest for
Indian districts that are poor, and commuting distances are short and rarely use three-wheelers.
110. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from the facts stated in the above paragraph?
(a) India’s carbon emission is almost at twice the global level.
(b) Average Indian contributes negligibly to global climate change.
111. What can we say about the following statement?

“Studies show that India’s road transport emissions are small in global comparison but increasing
exponentially.”
(a) Probably false
(b) Definitely false
(c) Probably true
(d) Data insufficient
112. Based on the passage, which of the following recommendation can work effectively in reducing emission
levels?
(a) Mayors and town planners should organise cities around public transport and cycling.
(b) India should double down in its strategy to transition to electric two and three-wheelers.
113. Which of the following will strengthen the following statement?

“Emissions vary with spatial context.”
(a) In India, a new study suggests, that income and urbanisation are the key determinants of travel
distance and travel mode choice and, therefore, commuting emissions.
(b) Average commuting emissions in high-emitting districts (Delhi) are 16 times higher than low-emitting
districts (most districts in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh).
Passage (Q.114-Q.118): A much bigger reality is unfolding, on an epic scale: the entire Indian opposition
is being by–passed by the biggest protests since independence, ostensibly against the CAA, NRC and
NPR but, as they gather momentum, the whole establishment. The dilemma of today's liberals' face: they
cannot give up on capitalism (therefore imperialism) even in its post globalization, post 2008 avatar. They
often find themselves standing with the powerful establishments which redirect popular resentment
against inequality, for instance, towards issues of immigration, ethnic identities.
So you have the Prime Minister hand–pick Jair Bolsonaro, the Pinochet copycat in Brazil, to be the Chief
Guest at the Republic Day Parade. It must, therefore, be assumed that the Prime Minister nurses him as
a model. This lot is clearly what the protests are arrayed against. The eager–beavers looking for a
suitable and urgent outcome have not noticed that the movement has already altered the scene. A
movement that can provoke stalwarts of the ruling party into such glorious absurdities, deserves a trophy.
If a peaceful nationwide movement can drive the ruling party to such reckless intemperance, it has clearly
achieved a great deal. Another great achievement of the protests has been the secularisation of the
Muslim ghetto. The docile, homebound Muslim woman has for the first time being seen in her public
avatar, articulate, dignified, involved. The hijab and the bindi are mingling –– an elegant sight. This is not
a simple phenomenon. It is not without a sociological readjustment within the family and community.
Across communities, it has promoted a new bonhomie.
Source: https://www.thecitizen.in/index.php/en/NewsDetail/index/4/18250/Shootout-At-Shaheen-Bagh-
An-Aberration-Movement-Much-Bigger

MOCK CLAT #16
114. All of the following regarding the protests against CAA, NRC and NPR find support in the passage
EXCEPT?
(a) The protests are the biggest in India since it got independence.
(b) The protests have caused the leaders of the ruling party to indulge in foolish and reckless behaviour.
(c) The Prime Minister inviting Jair Bolsonaro as the chief guest of the Republic Day has further angered
the protesters.
(d) The protests are happening in the Muslim localities.
115. Which of the following, if true, weakens the author‘s claim that the Prime Minister probably nurses Jair
Bolsonaro as a model?
(a) The Prime Minister has, in the past, called upon leaders to be the Chief Guest at the Republic Day
who are ideologically dissimilar to Jair Bolsonaro.
(b) The Prime Minister has, in the past, called upon leaders to be the Chief Guest at the Republic Day
who are ideologically dissimilar to himself.
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
116. Which of the following best represents the main point of the passage?
(a) Muslim ghettos are getting secularised in India.
(b) Muslim women have become empowered as a result of anti CAA, NRC and NPR protests.
(c) The role of liberals in the protests against CAA, NRC and NPR is noteworthy.
(d) The protests against CAA, NRC and NPR has rattled the ruling party.
117. What can be inferred about the liberals from the passage?
(a) It was expected of the liberals to give up on capitalism more in its post globalisation, post 2008 avatar
than before.
(b) The liberals redirect popular resentment against inequality towards issues of immigration, ethnic
identities.
118. What can be inferred about Muslim women from the passage?
(a) Prior to the protests against CAA, NRC and NPR, the Muslim women collectively had never
expressed their thoughts and opinions so overtly.
(b) The Muslim women live in ghettos.
(c) No Muslim woman is homebound and docile any longer.
(d) The Muslim women have no objection to wearing bindis during protests against CAA, NRC and NPR.
Passage (Q.119-Q.122): Job satisfaction is ‘an individual’s general attitude toward his or her job’. It
explains how satisfied an employee is with his job. The common facets of job satisfaction are:
appreciation, communication, co-workers, benefits, job conditions, nature of work itself, organization
itself, organization policies and procedures, pay, personal growth, promotional opportunities, recognition,
security and supervision. An employee job satisfaction is measured by various factors, such as, pay,
promotion, benefits, policies and procedures, and relationship with higher authority, work timings, work-
family conflict, and the job itself. The people who are happy with their job are also more satisfied with it. A
positive relationship is noted between emotional intelligence, job performance and job satisfaction. The
effective functioning of police organization is directly related to job satisfaction. Dissatisfied police
personnel adversely affect the quality of services and damage their image in the public.
A survey conducted by an NGO has showed that many police personals in certain States are not satisfied
with their jobs. The survey also showed that most of the dissatisfied police officers believe that they have
little control over their job assignments. Therefore, to increase job satisfaction of the police officers, the
State Government need only to concentrate on changing police officers’ beliefs regarding the degree of
control they have over their job assignments.

MOCK CLAT #16
119. Which one of the following, if true, would most seriously undermine the conclusion made by the author of
the passage?
(a) The number of police officers in the state who are satisfied with their jobs is greater than the number
who are dissatisfied.
(b) The police officers in the state are more dissatisfied than workers in other states.
(c) The police officers who are satisfied with their jobs believe that they have a lot of control over their job
assignments.
(d) The dissatisfied police officers feel that their wages are too low and working conditions are
unsatisfactory.
120. Which of the following options is an incident that follows the pattern of reasoning as has been
enumerated by the author in the second paragraph of the above passage?
(a) Mr. Sharma is not satisfied with his job at company X. He quit his job at company X and joined
company Y.
(b) Mr. Sharma is not satisfied with his job at company X because of low wages. Company X increased
his wages to increase the job satisfaction of Mr. Sharma.
(c) Ashwin did not get selected in the Indian cricket team; therefore he started playing in Ranji matches
to make his place in Indian cricket team.
121. Authors’ statement that “the survey also showed that most of the dissatisfied police officers believe that
they have little control over their job assignments”-
(a) Forms the premise for his statement that many police personals are not satisfied with their jobs.
(b) Forms the conclusion for his statement that many police officers are not satisfied with their jobs.
(c) Forms the premise for his conclusion that to increase the job satisfaction of the police officers their
beliefs regarding the degree of control they have over their job assignments should be changed.
(d) Forms the conclusion for his statement that many police officers are satisfied with their jobs.
122. Which of the following statement must be true?

(a) All police officers are not satisfied with their jobs in certain states.
(b) All police officers are not satisfied with their jobs in certain states because they have little control over
their job assignments.
(c) Many police officers but not all police officers are dissatisfied with their jobs in certain states.
(d) All police officers are dissatisfied because they have little control over their job assignments.
123. Passage: It looks like teenagers are more susceptible to illnesses during the summer season when
compared to sexagenarians. Statistics show that during the last summer season, 11, 24,463 people
between 13 to 19 years of age as compared to only 7, 17,643 people between 61 to 69 years of age,
were treated for illnesses that are common during the summer season.
Which of the following information is necessary for the above argument to be true?
(a) What is the level of severity of the illnesses suffered by teenagers as compared to sexagenarians?
(b) How fit are teenagers when compared to sexagenarians?
(c) To what extent are the illnesses caused because of not following proper precautions and having
unhygienic street food?
(d) What percentage of each group were treated for illnesses common during summer season last year?
124. Passage: Diljit Dosanjh, the farmer, wishes to grow maximum possible wheat in his fields in Phillaur
tehsil, Jalandhar district, Punjab. Wheat needs water and manure for growth. Diljit has an organic source
of manure from which he can get the manure for free. Else, he can buy artificially synthesized manure
which is expensive. Diljit decides to only use the artificially synthesized manure instead of the organic
one.
Which of the following if true provides the strongest support for the farmer’s decision to buy and use the
artificial manure instead of the organic manure?
(a) Artificially synthesized manure does not work with water whereas organic manure does.
(b) Use of the artificially synthesized manure gives a higher yield than use of organic manure.

MOCK CLAT #16
(c) The insecticides used by Diljit are artificially synthesized.

(d) There is very little organic manure available in the market.
125. Passage: In Madhya Pradesh, people from higher income groups maintain proper hygiene in their
houses and thus do not need to spend much on medical facilities. On the other hand people from the
lower income groups do not maintain proper hygiene in their houses, which results in a slew of health
problems to the family. Hence, the expenditure on medical facilities of lower income people is greater
than that of the people from higher income group.
Which of the following, if true, weakens the argument most above?
(a) Houses with income lower than average sometimes do not provide education to children and make
them work in unhygienic conditions.
(b) The Government makes no distinction between the rich and the poor so the poor has to spend as
much amount as the rich for medical care services.
(c) The people with low income utilize free medical facilities for all health problems, provided by NGOs
and other governmental agencies.
(d) People in the low income group do not take their children to free vaccination camps.
126. Passage: Amazon.com has found out through internal surveys that employee productivity is adversely
affected due to stress. Employees experiencing some sort of stress could be clearly classified into one of
the following two groups: those who suffered from work related stress and those who suffered from stress
in their personal lives. Amazon has developed a joint five-day workshop on Stress Management for all its
employees, designed to enable them to handle stress through an easy four-step method. The
management believes that this workshop would help their employees to de-stress and thus improve their
productivity.
Which of the following, if true, casts most serious doubts on the efficacy of the management’s strategy to
improve the productivity of stressed out employees?
(a) Employee productivity like all other performance variables has an upper limit, it cannot increase
beyond a certain limit.
(b) Many employees do not report personal life related stress and hence they might not be included in
the workshop in the first place.
(c) Stress is only one of the reasons or factors that affects an employee’s productivity; studies have
suggested office space comfort and relationships between employees as more important factors.
(d) Personal life and work life related stress are totally different, while the latter can be treated in a group,
as in the workshop, the former needs personal psychiatric counseling.
Passage (Q.127-Q.31): Evolution is a fascinating field but can be rife with misunderstanding. One
misconception is that evolution has some innate sense of direction or purpose. In reality, evolution is a
mindless, plan-free phenomenon, driven into endless possibilities by random mutations, the most
successful of which win out. There are some areas of evolutionary biology where benefits are murkier
and, in some instances, where traits seem to make no sense at all. As important as the concept of
survival of the fittest is to evolution, there are many examples that seem to undermine this idea. In fact,
various aspects of evolutionary biology may seem counterintuitive and could even be seen as a reason to
reject evolution as a whole.
Many species invest heavily in camouflage and other means of blending into the surroundings to avoid
predators. So the physically heavy and downright ostentatious plumage of birds of paradise, peacocks
and many other birds seems like a clear invitation to be eaten. But crucially they help these birds pass on
their genes because they increase their chances of attracting a mate. This is what’s known as sexual
selection at its finest. It strengthens the theory of evolution in that these seemingly weaker individuals are
actually showing how well they can do in the face of adversity. It’s the evolutionary equivalent of using a
pretty over-confident dating profile to impress potential partners.
When an anatomical structure appears frankly inept, it is probably a vestigial trait. This is a feature that
no longer does whatever made it advantageous enough to evolve in the first place. If we could embody
evolution as a person, then he or she would be creative but inherently lazy. If something is not being
used then why bother maintaining it? It’s hard to say why they haven’t disappeared altogether but give it
another million years and perhaps they will. Some snakes, for example, still show vestigial traits harking

MOCK CLAT #16
back to their four-legged ancestry. Male pythons have little claw-like structures towards the tail, which,
although they aid courtship, are all that remain of their hind limbs.
Spandrels are in many ways, the rarest and hardest to see “weird” evolutionary quirks. An evolutionary
spandrel is a physical structure or behavioural characteristic that is a by-product from some other
functional adaptation.
One genuine exception is something that defines our species as modern human beings: the chin. As
human diets changed, the bones and muscles in our jaws became smaller so we didn’t waste energy on
them but we were left with a protruding bone at the bottom of the face. And no one has come up with a
wholly convincing reason why.
Source: https://www.independent.co.uk/news/science/evolution-evidence
127. What is the principal argument that the author is making in this passage?
(a) Seemingly obscure and useless traits of creatures actually have a reason or explanation that ties in
with evolution.
(b) None of the biological traits and characteristics of humans and animals have a basis in functional
adaptation or evolution.
(c) Sexual selection may have had a much larger role to play in the evolutionary process than was earlier
believed.
(d) Some of the physical or biological traits like the ‘chin’ are merely quirks that exist for their own sake.
128. Which of the following is NOT true based on the information provided in the passage?
(a) Spandrels are incidental traits that appeared as a result of adaptation.
(b) Evolution is like a creative person that is lazy.
(c) The show of plumage in birds of paradise is for the purpose of camouflage.
(d) Male pythons were known to have back limbs once upon a time.
129. Which of the following, if true, would nullify the central argument of the passage?
(a) Survival of the fittest is considered vital in the evolutionary process.
(b) Vestigial traits or spandrels are functioning only during fetal development and not later.
(c) Some structures that were once thought of as vestigial are now understood to be useful.
(d) Evolution eliminates only those random mutations or features that are harmful.
130. According to the passage the difference between a vestigial structure and a spandrel is …
(a) Both are useless structures or traits in the evolutionary history of organisms.
(b) Vestigial structures provided an evolutionary benefit at some point in the long evolutionary process,
but spandrels were remnants from the extinct ancestral forms of the creature.
(c) Vestigial structures performed evolutionary functions while spandrels were only support systems.
(d) Evolution discards vestigial structures over long period of time but spandrels are not.
131. The passage supports the inference that:

(a) Vestigial structures and spandrels provide sufficient ground to reject the idea of evolution.
(b) The apparently useless features of evolution actually serve as evidence for the theory.
(c) Evolutionary biology provides innumerable examples of truly useless spandrels.
(d) The idea that evolution is a mindless, plan-free phenomenon is not sustainable on scrutiny.

MOCK CLAT #16
Directions (Q.132 and Q.133): Each of the following questions consists of six statements followed by
options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the options
that indicates a combination where the third statement can be logically deduced from the first two
statements and that option will be your answer.
132. Statements:
I. All S are T.
II. Some T are A.
III. No A is P.
IV. Some P is R.
V. All R is X.
VI. Some X is P.
(a) [ IV, VI, V]
(b) [ I, II, V]
(c) [ II, III, VI]
(d) [ IV, V ,VI]
133. Statements:
I. All R is X.
II. Some X is P.
III. No P is Q.
IV. No X is T.
V. Some Q is R.
VI. No R is T.
(a) [ I, II, V]
(b) [ II, III, V]
(c) [ I, IV, VI]
(d) [ III, V, VI]
Directions (Q.134-Q.136): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
Each of the six family members A, B, C, D, E and F are of different age. C is older than only A and E. D is
younger than only B. E is not youngest. The one who is third oldest is 81 year old. E’s age is 62 year.
134. Which of the following could possible age of C?

(a) 70 year (b) 94 year (c) 86 year (d) 61 year
135. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?
(a) D’s age is definitely less than 60 (b) F is oldest.
(c) Only two people older than C. (d) None is true.
136. The person, who is oldest, has an age which is 13 years more than F’s age. Which of the following can
be D’s age?
(a) 94 (b) 60 (c) 89 (d) 78

MOCK CLAT #16
Directions (Q.137-Q.141): Study the following the pie-chart and table carefully to answer the questions
given below:
The following pie-chart shows the distribution of the monthly family budget of a person.
The following table shows the further distribution (in percent) of the above-mentioned items among the
five family members i.e P (the person himself), W (his wife), Rahul (son), Rohit (son), and Preeti (his
daughter). His monthly family budget is Rs. 1,20,000
Education Food Entertainment travelling Other expenses

P 10 30 10 40 20
W 15 25 30 10 25
Rahul 40 20 20 25 20
Rohit 25 15 25 10 10
Preeti 10 10 15 15 25
137. What is the average expenses of P?

(a) Rs. 5620 (b) Rs. 5640 (c) Rs. 5460 (d) Rs. 5480
138. What is the approximate percentage increase in the amount Which Rahul enjoys for entertainment as
compared to Preeti for the same?
(a) 33% (b) 31% (c) 37% (d) 35%
139. The average expenses of Rohit is approximately what percent of the average expenses of W (Wife)?
(a) 76.4% (b) 81.5% (c) 79.5% (d) 83.5%
140. Find the difference (in percentage of the budget) between the average expenses of Education and the
average expenses on Entertainment of the couple?
(a) 1.3% (b) 0.9% (c) 2% (d) 2.5%
141. The total amount spent by Rahul on Travelling and Food is approximately what percent of the total
amount spent by Preeti on Education and Food?
(a) 168% (b) 171% (c) 175% (d) 174%

MOCK CLAT #16
Directions (Q.142 – Q.146): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Ram’s age 2 years ago and Bala’s age 5 years ago are in the ratio 6: 5. The sum of their ages is 95, as
Ram is (A) years old and Bala is (B) years old. Ram and Bala decided to keep them young by doing
swimming. Ram swims 20 km upstream and returns back where current speed is 5 kmph. Swimming in
upstream takes 1 hour more than downstream. Bala swims in still water at (C) kmph which is twice that of
Ram. While coming back from swimming pool, they sell their cycles at a profit of (D)% after giving a
discount of 10% and the markup is 25%. The profit earned is lent at a rate of 4% compounded annually
for 2 years which amounts to 43264. The same principal is lent at 15% simple interest for 2 years
amounts to (E). After reaching home, they decided to enter into partnership. Ram invests Rs.900 for 6
months and Bala invests (F) for the whole year. At the end of one year the profit ratio of Ram and Bala is
15: 13.
142. What will come in place of A and B?

(a) 40, 35 (b) 35, 40 (c) 45, 50 (d) 50, 45
143. What will come in place of C?

(a) 60 kmph (b) 30 kmph (c) 90 kmph (d) 15 kmph
144. What will come in place of D?

(a) 37.5 % (b) 25% (c) 12.5% (d) 16.667%
145. What will come in place of E?

(a) 24000 (b) 36000 (c) 10000 (d) 12000
146. What will come in place of F?

(a) 390 (b) 490 (c) 360 (d) 460
Directions (Q.147-Q.150): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Name Total Salary Expenditure Savings

A 45,000 37,500 …………….
B 38,000 29,500 ……………..
C 27,000 …………… ………………
D ………….. …………... 4,200
E …………… 22,000 ……………….
F 32,000 …………… 5,500
147. If E Spends 88% of his salary, what is ratio between his total salary and savings?
(a) 24:3 (b) 23:4 (c) 26:3 (d) 25:3
148. F spends 20% of his Expenditure on education. Find what amount he spends on Education?
(a) 5,500 (b) 5,600 (c) 5,300 (d) 5,400
149. C saves 12% of his monthly salary and he spends 10% of expenditure on House rent. How much amount
he spent on house rent?
(a) 2,375 (b) 2,376 (c) 2,377 (d) 2,378
150. A's salary is increased 20% and his expenditure also increased 10%. Find the difference between his
new savings and present savings?
(a) 5,000 (b) 5,250 (c) 5,500 (d) 5,750

MOCK CLAT #16
Use for Rough Work

MOCK CLAT #16

MOCK CLAT #17

Candidate Name : _________________
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
Test Centre/Hall.
MOCK CLAT #17
Passage (Q.1-Q.6): One of the many ways in which Indian cities and towns tell women that they are
unwanted in public spaces is by the absence of a woman’s toilet. In metropolises like Mumbai and Delhi,
the number of toilets for men consistently outnumber those for women by a large margin; women’s toilets
in large toilet blocks remain locked, especially in the evenings (because what are women doing outside
the home after dark, anyway?). If they are unlocked, they are filthy — and sometimes even unsafe —
spaces that women venture into at the risk of ill-health and violence. The denial of a woman’s body and
its natural bodily urges, then, is not only a matter of cultural practices of shame, but it is written into the
design of a city itself. A new “period room” in a Mumbai slum, the first of its kind in a public toilet,
therefore, suggests a refreshing reimagination of the public space. The Thane Municipal Corporation’s
move is an attempt to inculcate menstrual hygiene, one that it wants to replicate in 120 community
toilets.
The “period room” includes a urinal, a jet spray, a toilet roll-holder, soap, running water, hooks to hang
clothes and a dustbin to dispose of menstrual waste — rare amenities in public toilets. For the women of
the Lokmanya Nagar slum, in which few families have the luxury of a private toilet, the structure offers
precious space and privacy. A study carried out by an NGO that assisted with the project found that 56
per cent of girl students in the area had no access to clean toilets in schools; nor did 18 per cent working
women at their workplace.
A “period room” that does not try to hide its function as a space for menstruating women might also,
hopefully, cut through the punishing taboo around periods. More importantly, it becomes a small step to
stake claim on the city — on behalf of its women.
1. How is the denial of a woman’s body and its natural bodily urges written into the design of the city itself?
(a) By making the women feel unwanted.
(b) By locking women’s toilets at night.
(c) By making more number of toilets for men.
2. What does the author refer to in the phrase “refreshing reimagination”?

(a) Creation of a period room in a slum.
(b) Slums are areas of unhygienic people.
(c) Creation of a period room in place of a toilet for women.
(d) Mumbai Municipal Corporation’s attempt at honouring women.
3. What is the most suitable antonym for the word ‘replicate’?

(a) Copy (b) Emulate (c) Inculcate (d) Vary
4. Identify the tone of the author in the phrase “luxury of a private toilet”.
(a) Hypocrisy (b) Irony (c) Agony (d) Antagonism
5. Which of the following statements does not support the need for a period room in Mumbai?
(a) A study carried out by an NGO that assisted with the project found that 56 per cent of girl students in
the area had no access to clean toilets in schools.
(b) Women are able to claim stake to a city that belongs to them as well.
(c) There are fewer toilets for women than for men in Mumbai.
(d) Women’s toilets remain locked in the evenings.
6. Why is it so important to make period rooms in community toilets?

(a) Community toilets are mostly frequented by women.
(b) Community toilets are within the jurisdiction of the Municipal Corporation.
(c) Community toilets will accelerate the removal of taboo around menstruation.
(d) Community toilets are protected under the law.

MOCK CLAT #17
Passage (Q.7-Q.12): In November 2016, days after Donald Trump was elected US President, Facebook
Founder and CEO Mark Zuckerberg rejected the idea that content on the company’s platforms influenced
elections. “I think it’s a pretty crazy idea… Voters make decisions based on their lived experiences,” he
said. On January 6, after the US Capitol was stormed by Trump supporters, Facebook, Twitter, Snapchat
and Twitch suspended the president’s account to prevent him, ostensibly, from inciting more violence.
The move is too little, and coming after a mob egged on by the US President laid siege to the Capitol, it
is too late. In times when “lived experiences” are increasingly online, the social media giants have been
much too slow in acknowledging their responsibility and addressing real-world consequences.
Trump has a long record of sharing falsehoods and bigotry on social media, beginning with his assertions
that his predecessor Barack Obama was not born in the US, to sharing anti-Muslim and White
supremacist posts and videos. As recently as the Black Lives Matter protests last year, he tweeted,
“when looting starts, shooting starts”. Trump and his falsehoods, though, are only a part of a larger digital
ecosystem that has devalued facts, created “communities” of conspiracy theorists and, at times, even
contributed to violence. Long before the pro-Trump mob stormed the Capitol, WhatsApp and Facebook
have been used to pedal falsehoods and incite mobs in countries like Burma and Sri Lanka. These
outcomes are an unfortunate consequence of the algorithms and user experience and user interface that
follow a “persuasive design” model. In essence, the algorithm is meant to keep users glued to the
screen and get more of the same. For example, someone watching “flat earth” videos, or “the history of
forced conversion in India” or, more recently, the bizarre conspiracy theories about a film star’s suicide,
could well be led to something like a QAnon page (a group that believes Trump is saving the US
government from a corporate “deep state”) or to fake news that whips up prejudice against minority
groups.
While Big Tech has moved forward from complete denial of its culpability — under pressure from
governments and the threat of external regulation — and instituted some measures for fact-checking and
verifying sources, the fundamental structure of its platforms remains unaltered. Companies must confront
the challenge and address it at the level of the technology, urgently. But the responsibility for a political
discourse that respects facts and decency cannot just be on tech companies. Political parties, for
instance, need to be held accountable for their leaders’ and members’ conduct. Blocking a loudmouth or
despot or leader of a mob is hardly the answer.
7. Why is the move described as “too little” by the author?

(a) The damage has already been done.
(b) Trump is more popular than Biden and cannot be stopped even after suspending his social media
accounts.
(c) Mere suspension of Trump’s social media accounts will not remedy the violence and anarchy already
caused due to him and his supporters.
(d) Trump and his followers should have been in jail by now.
8. Which of the following supports Zuckerberg’s statement about voters?

(a) The lived experiences are increasingly being experienced online.
(b) Voters do not give social media that much importance.
(c) Voters are rational people who give daily experiences more importance.
(d) Social media platforms are merely for the purpose of entertainment.
9. Even though it is too little, why where Trump’s social media accounts suspended?
(a) Trump has a long record of sharing falsehoods on social media.
(b) Trump has no regard for the truth or public opinion.
(c) Trump wants to mobilise gangsters in his favour and wreak havoc in America.
(d) Previous fabricated social media posts of Trump have contributed to violence.

MOCK CLAT #17
10. What is the “persuasive design” model in the context of social media?
(a) Making the users believe in falsehoods using mild coercion.
(b) Providing users with similar content to their liking so they are kept hooked on.
(c) Social media being used as a tool to mobilise public opinion.
(d) Social media’s dark underbelly being exposed.
11. Which of the following is closest in meaning to ‘despot’?

(a) Dictator (b) Loudmouth (c) Glutton (d) Victim
12. Which of the following words is a suitable antonym of ‘culpable’?

(a) Guilty (b) Exculpatory (c) Culture (d) Innocent
Passage (Q.13-Q.19):External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar’s three-day visit to Sri Lanka was significant
not for any specific outcomes but for what was achieved in political and diplomatic messaging by both
sides. Jaishankar’s reminder in Colombo that the 13th Amendment is essential to ethnic reconciliation
came at a time when powerful Sri Lankan politicians close to President Gotabaya Rajapaksa and his
brother, Prime Minister Mahinda Rajapaksa, are calling for its scrapping. The cancellation of elections to
the provincial councils, apparently due to a spike in COVID-19 cases, is being viewed as a first step
towards this end. Jaishankar’s message, that India still sees the 1987 amendment — the constitutional
basis for the provincial councils — as central to addressing Tamil political aspirations came within days of
a statement by the DMK’s T R Balu, just as Tamil Nadu hits its election season, asking Prime Minister
Narendra Modi to ensure that the provincial council system remains intact. Sri Lankan Tamils themselves
no longer set that much store by India’s or Tamil Nadu’s pronouncements on their problems. Delhi’s
waning influence in Sri Lanka is an open secret. Yet, it would be a diplomatic and political
embarrassment for the Narendra Modi government if the 13th Amendment was indeed abolished.
Delhi’s other challenge in Sri Lanka at this point is to operationalise a 2019 agreement to develop along
with Japan a container terminal at Colombo Port, where China has a controlling stake in the adjoining
Colombo International Container Terminal. The India-Japan-Sri Lanka agreement had triggered a strike
at the port ahead of last year’s parliamentary election, resolved only after assurances from the Rajapaksa
brothers that it would not be handed over to foreign developers. During the EAM’s visit, the prime minister
and president sent out mixed signals amid calls not to let the port fall victim to geopolitical rivalries in the
Indian Ocean.
Sri Lanka, for its part, has two main demands from India at this time. One, it wants supplies of the anti-
COVID vaccine. Its other request for a $1 bn currency swap has been pending since last year. India has
already said it will prioritise vaccine supplies to its neighbours and should have no problem in accepting
Rajapaksa’s request quickly on humanitarian grounds — it can only help Delhi’s image in that country. As
for the currency swap, its use as a bargaining chip can last only as long as Colombo does not look
elsewhere for help.
13. What is the 13th amendment in reference to?

(a) The rights of Tamil people in India.
(b) The rights of Tamil Sri Lankans with respect to elections in provincial councils.
(c) The rights of Sinhala people of Sri Lanka.
(d) The rights of Tamils in India who have family in Sri Lanka.
14. Why do the Sri Lankan leaders want to scrap the 13th amendment?
(a) They do not want to address Tamil political aspirations in Sri Lanka.
(b) They do not want Sri Lankan politics to emulate India’s.
(c) They do not wish for intervention from India.
(d) They do not want ethnic reconciliation.

MOCK CLAT #17
(a) The 13th amendment came out in 1987.
(b) The system of provincial councils is prevalent in India.
(c) S. Jaishankar’s visit to Sri Lanka did not have a specified outcome.
(d) India has accepted its diminishing influence over Sri Lanka.
16. What can be used as a bargaining chip by India?

(a) Sri Lanka’s need for the currency swap can be used as leverage by India.
(b) The need for the vaccine by Sri Lanka.
(c) The need for loans and other supplies by Sri Lanka.
(d) The currencies swap agreement that Sri Lanka wishes India to enter into.
17. What is the most suitable antonym for ‘waning’?

(a) Declining (b) Diminishing (c) Waxing (d) Alleviating
18. Which of the following is a synonym of ‘reconciliation’?

(a) Settlement (b) Congeniality (c) Amiability (d) Affability
19. The reference to ‘prime minister and president’ in the second paragraph of the passage is to:
(a) The Indian Prime Minister and the Sri Lankan President
(b) The Sri Lankan PM and the Indian President
(c) The Rajpaksa brothers
(d) The Chinese Premier and the Sri Lankan PM
Passage (Q.20-Q.25): The United States of America just about managed to retrieve itself from the
brink. Joe Biden’s 302-232 win in the US Congress against the outgoing Donald Trump team may have
come as a huge sigh of relief for a kind of global polity. Not just in Washington DC, which is, almost
unimaginably, still under curfew. Democratic-minded people across the world are invested in this.
A siege of the famed Capitol Hill of the ‘world’s oldest democracy’ is a rather unprecedented and
shocking level of mayhem, which does get described by the toll of four dead and a few more injured. That
we live in unusual times, what with the pandemic, need not be restated. But the unsettling effect on the
‘developed world’ is not something we have seen before.
Just how much a virus has unspooled the established world order, as obtained from the last century, is a
revelation that must be read with the scenes of those mobs. A semblance of order was restored, and a
Biden victory decisively certified. A relatively sobered Trump thereafter conceded defeat and agreed to
an ‘orderly transition’ on January 20, when Biden will formally take over as POTUS.
It came with trademark Trumpisms though—on how ‘facts bore out’ the reasons why he ‘disagreed with
the outcome of the elections’. Or him calling the rioters as “very special”, the fact that there were ones
who were still mesmerised by Trumpism, still willing to believe that his first term was the ‘greatest’ in US
history! That politics clearly lives. The speculation now is whether he would run again in 2024.
Whether Biden and Kamala Harris can bring America and its foreign policy out of the chaos of the Trump
era, only time will show. But for the world and for democracy itself, today’s events in America are a
lesson, an illustration of what a combination of demagoguery and ignorance can do to even a mighty
nation. And that what we need to come out of this is, again, simply, a belief in democracy.
20. What does the phrase ‘retrieve itself from the brink’ mean?
(a) To bury the hatchet (b) To be on enemy lines
(c) To give a hard time (d) To have a close shave
21. Why are democratic minded people across the world invested in the curfew in D.C.?
(a) It has had an unsettling effect on the ‘developed world’.
(b) America is the world’s oldest democracy.
(c) The events in DC are grave and shocking to everyone.

MOCK CLAT #17
(d) It is an illustration of what ignorance does to a powerful democratic nation, which if left unchecked
could be replicated in other democracies as well.
22. What is the meaning of the word ‘demagoguery’?

(a) Democracy (b) Rabble-rousing (c) Badmouthing (d) Appeal
23. How did the siege at Capitol Hill have an unsettling effect on the developed world?
(a) It has unspooled world order.
(b) It has aggravated the effect of the Pandemic.
(c) It has given a free hand to Trump supporters.
(d) The siege has led to dilution of faith in free and fair elections in a democracy.
24. What does the author refer to by the phrase ‘trademark Trumpism’?
(a) Trump’s continuous blabber on his social media accounts.
(b) Trump’s attempt to undermine Joe Biden’s victory.
(c) Trump’s statements justifying his defeat and that he did not win due to some conspiracy against him.
(d) Engagement in violence and protest despite a certified victory for Biden.
25. Why does Trump call the rioters at Capitol Hill ‘very special’?
(a) Trump is strengthened by their support towards him.
(b) Trump is known to favour violence.
(c) Trump is known to have soft corner for his supporters.
(d) They supported him despite his defeat and are therefore special.
Passage (Q.26-Q.32): A corporate war among pharmaceutical vaccine producers is the last thing a
Covid-weary population needs after tens of thousands of deaths and millions waiting impatiently to take a
safety jab. In this context, Adar Poonawalla, CEO of Serum Institute, which is partnering to produce the
AstraZeneca vaccine in India, had named three vaccines as efficient, while labelling others safe “just like
water”. Taking umbrage, Bharat Biotech CMD Krishna Ella hit back at “doubters” in a press conference,
claiming its vaccine Covaxin was ready for use.
By the same measure, the two companies must be congratulated for burying the hatchet on Tuesday. A
joint statement said it was more important “to save lives” and they promised to work together “for a
smooth rollout”. Meanwhile, there are concerns highlighted by patient groups that while efficacy data was
not available for Bharat Biotech’s Covaxin till December 30, it had been hurriedly given the go-ahead on
January 2. The health department would do well to be slow rather than sloppy in green-lighting
‘emergency-use’ vaccines.
Lives are at stake and the country’s mass immunisation programme is too big to go wrong. At the same
time, the demand for millions of doses cannot be met by one or two companies. Pricing issues too
between the government and the Serum Institute, which is going to market AstraZeneca’s Covishield,
have caused delays and it appears a large stock of 70 million doses has built up as the stalemate
continued. The spat has cost us precious time, when the country is struggling with over 10 million
infections.
Three days ago it appears the matter was resolved after Serum Institute agreed to sell a 100 million
doses to the government at a special price of Rs 200 a unit. When countries like the US and UK are fully
into their vaccination programme, it is not right that deployment and supply arrangements are held up
because of pricing issues. The companies involved cannot be allowed to profiteer; at the same time, the
government has to agree to spend the extra rupee to save lives.
26. What does the author refer to by the phrase ‘safety jab’?
(a) An injection of the vaccine. (b) A Covid free environment.
(c) A mask free environment. (d) A safe and effective vaccine.

MOCK CLAT #17
27. Why did Bharat Biotech CMD Krishna Ella take offense at Adar Poonawala’s comment?
(a) Bharat Biotech and the Serum Institute are engaged in a corporate war.
(b) Poonawala referred to Ella’s vaccine as safe like water, as water does not cure anything and is
potentially useless.
(c) Krishna Ella wants to promote his vaccine at the cost of Poonawala’s.
(d) The Serum Institute has been victorious in producing an efficient vaccine and CMD Ella is resentful of
the same.
28. How did the two companies bury the hatchet?

(a) They realised that a corporate war will only diminish their profits.
(b) They realised that corporate war is not something India needs right now.
(c) They issued a joint statement in favour of public interest.
(d) They promised not to be obstacles of one another.
29. Why should the health department be ‘slow rather than sloppy’?
(a) The health department should not favour one pharmacological company over another.
(b) Millions of lives are at stake due to the Pandemic and any ill effect of the vaccine will affect human life
directly.
(c) It is better to be safe rather than sorry.
(d) Prevention is always better than cure.
30. What does phrase ‘cost precious time’ mean?

(a) Unnecessary wait (b) Caused unnecessary expense
(c) Wasting time (d) None of the above
31. What is the most suitable antonym for the word ‘umbrage’?
(a) Offense (b) Annoyance (c) Anger (d) Reconciliation
32. The ‘stalemate’ as referred to in the passage is between:

(a) The central and state governments
(b) The government and Bharat Biotech
(c) Bharat Biotech and Serum Institute
(d) The government and Serum Institute

MOCK CLAT #17
Passage (Q.33-Q.38): Britain and the European Union struck a hard-fought trade agreement on 31st Dec
2020, settling a bitter divorce that stretched over more than four years and setting the terms for a post-
Brexit future as close neighbours living apart.
The deal, which must be ratified by the British and European Parliaments, came together in Brussels
after 11 months of grinding negotiations, culminating in a last-minute haggle over fishing rights that
stretched into Christmas Eve, just a week before a year-end deadline.
Despite running to thousands of pages, the agreement leaves critical parts of the relationship to be
worked out later. And it will not prevent some disruption to trade across the English Channel, since British
exports will still be subjected to some border checks, adding costs for companies and causing potential
delays at ports.
But it is nonetheless a landmark in the long-running Brexit drama — the bookend to Britain’s departure
from the European Union in January and a blueprint for how the two sides will coexist after severing deep
ties built over a 47-year relationship. A failure to come to terms could have left Britain and the European
Union in a bitter standoff, poisoning relations for years to come.
“It was a long and winding road, but we have got a good deal to show for it,” said [1], the president of the
European Commission, the bloc’s executive arm. “This moment marks the end of a long voyage.”
Source: https://www.nytimes.com/2020/12/24/world/europe/brexit-trade-deal-uk-eu.html
33. Which of the following will replace [1] in the passage?

(a) Boris Johnson (b) Ursula von der Leyen
(c) Joseph Deiss (d) Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
34. When was European Union founded?

(a) 1975 (b) 1947 (c) 1993 (d) 2000
35. How many countries are there in European Union after Brexit?
(a) 28 (b) 27 (c) 29 (d) 26
36. Where are is HQ of European Union located?

(a) Paris, France (b) Madrid, Spain
(c) Stockholm, Sweden (d) Brussels, Belgium
37. What was the foundational treaty of European Union?

(a) Treaty of Paris (b) Treaty of Maastricht
(c) Treaty of Rome (d) Treaty of Versailles
38. Which of the following countries does not constitute United Kingdom?
(a) Northern Ireland (b) Scotland (c) Wales (d) Norway
Passage (Q.39-Q.43): The decision of the Centre to not hold the Winter Session of parliament,
ostensibly on account of the COVID-19 pandemic, has been criticised by sections of the opposition.
Critics have said that the BJP government has done so to avoid discussions around the ongoing farmers
agitation, the economic crisis facing the country, the pandemic and the crisis on the China border.
Normally, there are three sessions – the [1] session, held from end of January to early April; the ……,
from July to August, and the ….. from November to December. So two sessions are related to the season
and one is related to the Budget. That is how the sessions are planned.
Union parliamentary affairs minister, [2] had cited concerns around COVID-19 as the primary reason for
not having the session. It was stated that several MPs and parliament officials who had attended the
Monsoon Session held over 10 days from September 14 had tested positive for the novel coronavirus.
Besides, three MPs and Union minister of state for railways also died after contracting the virus.
Source: https://thewire.in/government/parliament-winter-session-constitution-pdt-achary

MOCK CLAT #17

(a) Monsoon (b) Winter (c) Budget (d) Joint session

(a) Prahlad Patel (b) Giriraj Singh
(c) Mukhtar abbas Naqvi (d) Pralhad Joshi
41. Under which article of the constitution does Joint session or Joint sitting of Parliament is called?
(a) 108 (b) 109 (c) 111 (d) 112
42. Which session of the Parliament is the shortest of all?

(a) Budget (b) Winter (c) Summer (d) Monsoon
43. Which of the following statements regarding Money bills is correct?

SI: Money bills can be presented before Rajya Sabha.
SII: Money bills cannot be presented before the Joint sitting of the Parliament.
(a) Statement I is true but II is false.
(b) Statement II is true but I is false.
(c) Both the statements are true.
(d) Both the statements are false.
Passage (Q.44-Q.48): Nepal President, [1], dissolved the House of Representatives on the advice of
Prime Minister [2], who claimed that he had lost majority within the ruling party, Nepal Communist Party
(NCP). The next elections will be held in March-April 2021 – less than three years after the communist
electoral alliance got a majority in the polls.
“We have noted the recent political development in Nepal. These are internal matters for Nepal to decide
as per its democratic processes. As a neighbour and well-wisher, India will continue to support Nepal and
its people in moving forward on the path of peace, prosperity and development,” said Ministry of External
Affairs (MEA) spokesperson Anurag Srivastava at the weekly online briefing on Thursday.
Oli’s decision to go for snap elections was a result of a long-standing conflict with Pushpa ‘Prachanda’
Kamal Dahal over power-sharing in the party. It stemmed from the merger of Oli’s CPN-UML and
Prachanda’s CPN (Maoist Centre) to form the NCP after the 2017 victory.
Source: https://thewire.in/external-affairs/nepals-political-crisis-is-their-internal-matter-mea

(a) Ram Baran Yadav (b) Bidya Devi Bhandari
(c) Sher Bahadur Deuba (d) Chandrika Bandaranaike

(a) Madhav Kumar Nepal (b) Sushil Koirala
(c) Sher Bahadur Deoba (d) KP Sharma Oli
46. In which year did Nepal become a Federal Democratic Republic?

(a) 2008 (b) 2000 (c) 2004 (d) 2006
47. Who is the Indian ambassador to Nepal?

(a) Subramanyam Jaishankar (b) Vinay Mohan Kwatra
(c) Vikram Kumar Doraiswami (d) Ajay Bisaria
48. Which Paramilitary force guards the border between India and Nepal?
(a) Border Security Force (b) Into-tibetan Border Police
(c) Rashtriya Rifles (d) Sashastra Seema Bal

MOCK CLAT #17
Passage (Q.49-Q.53): A delegation from the Taliban arrived in the Qatar’s capital [1] to begin talks with
delegates from the Afghan republic in Kabul. The goal is to reach a peace accord to end the
world’s deadliest war.
The long-delayed talks come after an agreement in February between the US and the Taliban, which
included a conditional the United States troop withdrawal within 14 months, a controversial prisoner swap
and the Taliban’s promise to cut ties with Al-Qaeda.
The hope is that a political settlement could help reduce the likelihood of Afghanistan becoming a safe
haven for terrorists once the US withdraws its troops. But the peace talks, known as the intra-Afghan
negotiations, have a rocky road to success. Apart from fundamental differences on the type of post-
peace government and women’s rights, the challenge will be whether any agreement on a lasting
ceasefire can be reached until political progress is made.
Source: https://scroll.in/article/972562/before-the-us-and-taliban-can-strike-a-peace-deal-they-will-have-
to-confront-these-tricky-issues

(a) Doha (b) Al Khalifat (c) Manama (d) Dukhan
50. The U.S., together with its NATO allies, launched the United States invasion of Afghanistan. The mission
was code named as?
(a) Operation Blue Freedom (b) Operation Rolling Thunder
(c) Operation Barbarossa (d) Operation Enduring Freedom
51. Osama Bin Laden, who took the responsibility for the terrorist attacks of 9/11, belonged to which terrorist
organisation?
(a) Taliban (b) Al-queda
(c) Jaish-e-Mohammad (d) ISIS
52. In which of the following cities did Osama Bin Laden shot dead by the famous Navy Seals of USA?
(a) Kabul, Afghanistan (b) Kandahar, Afghanistan
(c) Lahore, Pakistan (d) Abbottabad, Pakistan
53. Who is the President of Afghanistan?
(a) Ashraf Ghani (b) Recep tayyip Erdogan
(c) Barham Salih (d) Khalifa Bin Zayed Al Nahyan
Passage (Q.54-Q.58): U.S. President Donald Trump signed into law a Bill which calls for establishing a
U.S. consulate in Tibet and building an international coalition to ensure that the next Dalai Lama is
appointed solely by the Tibetan Buddhist community without China’s interference.
The Tibetan Policy and Support Act of 2020 modifies and re-authorises various programmes and
provisions related to Tibet. The U.S. Senate last week unanimously passed the Bill despite [1] protest.
It authorises assistance to non-governmental organisations in support of Tibetan communities in Tibet;
and places restrictions on new Chinese consulates in the United States until a U.S. consulate has been
established in Lhasa, Tibet.
Beijing views the 14th Dalai Lama as a “separatist” working to split Tibet from China. Some of the
prominent measures approved by the U.S. Congress include imposing sanctions on Chinese officials,
including travel restrictions. Noting that the 14th Dalai Lama advocates the Middle Way Approach, which
seeks genuine autonomy for the six million Tibetans in Tibet, the new law says the Dalai Lama oversaw a
process of democratisation within the Tibetan polity and devolved his political responsibilities to the 23
elected representatives of the Tibetan people in exile in 2011.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/trump-signs-tibet-policy-to-preempt-chinese-move-
on-dalai-lamas-succession/article33435635.ece
54. During the 1959 Tibetan uprising, the Dalai Lama escaped to a country, where he currently lives in exile.
Name the Country.
(a) Nepal (b) Bhutan (c) Mongolia (d) India

MOCK CLAT #17
55. Which of the following country will replace by [1] in the passage?
(a) Tibet’s (b) India’s (c) China’s (d) Nepal’s
56. In which year the Dalai Lama was awarded the Noble Peace Prize?
(a) 1979 (b) 1989 (c) 1999 (d) 2009
57. Which of the following statements are correct?

SI:The Tibetan Policy and Support Act of 2020, authorises assistance to non-governmental organisations
in support of Tibetan communities in Tibet;
SII: It places restrictions on new Chinese consulates in the United States until a U.S. consulate has been
established in Lhasa.
(a) Statement I is correct but statement II is false.
(b) Statement II is correct but statement I is false.
(c) Both are correct.
(d) Both are false.
58. What is the currency of China known as?

(a) Yen (b) Renminbi (c) Togrog (d) Baht
Passage (Q.59-Q.63): The Centre has finally decided to bite the bullet by instituting major reforms in the
labour and agriculture sectors. The reforms were announced piggy-backing on the COVID-19 relief
package. Parliament has passed three bills on agriculture reform. This has evoked protests, largely in
Punjab and Haryana. Unfortunately, politics in India has been played in the name of the farmer. Parties
across the political spectrum have, at some point of time or other, advocated the reversal of the archaic
mandi system. However, some parties continue to decry the steps taken.
Taking recourse to Article 254 of the Constitution, the Punjab government has passed its own bills to
nullify some provisions of the central acts. Similar action by the Chhattisgarh and Rajasthan governments
seems to be on the anvil. Let us analyse the legal implications of this action and how it might impact
farmers in these states.
59. Agriculture is a subject of which of the following list under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of
India?
(a) Union List (b) State List (c) Concurrent List (d) None of the above
60. Which article of the Constitution of India divides the legislative powers between the Union and the State?
(a) Article 245 (b) Article 246 (c) Article 248 (d) Article 252
61. Which of the following is not one of the bills against which the farmers are protesting?
(a) Farmers’ Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Act
(b) The Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act
(c) The Farmers (Empowerment and Protection) Agreement on Price Assurance and Farm Services Act
(d) The Farmers Debt and borrowings Regulation Act.
62. Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) is established by:

(a) State Governments (b) NABARD
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs (d) Central Government
63. Which Minister resigned from his/her post against the three Farm Bills 2020 introduced by the Central
Government?
(a) Prakash Singh Badal (b) Harsimrat Kaur Badal
(c) Capt. Amarinder Singh (d) Manpreet Singh Badal

MOCK CLAT #17
Passage (Q.64-Q.67): The new SARS-CoV-2 variant was revealed to be the reason behind the rapid
surge in Covid-19 cases in South and East England. It is being referred to as VUI (Variant Under
Investigation) 202012/01, or the B.1.1.7 lineage.
The variant was identified in genomic surveillance by COVID-19 Genomics UK (COG-UK), a consortium
that analyses genome sequencing data from the UK. COG-UK is the largest contributor to the global
Covid-19 database GISAID.
The variant is the result of multiple mutations in the [1] of the novel coronavirus SARS-CoV-2, as well as
mutations in other genomic regions of the RNA virus. Preliminary analysis suggests that it is more
transmissible than previously circulating variants. COG-UK identified one of these mutations as “N501Y”,
in an area of the spike protein that binds to a key protein in the human cell, the ACE2 receptor. This was
an indication that the alterations may, theoretically, result in the virus becoming more infectious. “Efforts
are underway to confirm whether or not any of these mutations are contributing to increased
transmission,” the consortium said.
(a) RNA sequence (b) Spike protein (c) D-Cell (d) T-Cell
65. Name a clinical trial in which blood is transfused from recovered COVID-19 patients to a coronavirus
patient who is in critical condition?
(a) Plasma Therapy (b) Solidarity (c) Remdesivir (d) Hydroxychloroquine
66. From where coronavirus got its name?

(a) Due to their crown-like projections.
(b) Due to their leaf-like projections.
(c) Due to their surface structure of bricks.
67. The first case of novel coronavirus was identified in .....

(a) Beijing (b) Shanghai (c) Wuhan, Hubei (d) Tianjin

MOCK CLAT #17
Passage (Q.68 – Q.73): Mid-August, the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 (2019 Act) received
Presidential assent and came into effect. Notably, the 2019 Act, repeals the previous consumer
protection legislation which had been in effect since 1986 (1986 Act). While using the same phrase in its
preamble, “to provide for better protection of the interests of consumers”; the new act has substantially
enhanced the scope of protection afforded to consumers, by bringing within its purview advertising
claims, endorsements and product liability.
The definition of “consumer” under the 2019 Act includes those who make purchases online.
Endorsement of goods and services, normally done by celebrities, are also covered within the ambit of
the 2019 Act. In fact, an additional onus has been placed on endorsers, apart from manufacturers and
service providers, to prevent false or misleading advertisements. In contrast to the 1986 Act, the
definition of “goods” has been amended to include “food” as defined in the Food Safety and Standards
Act, 2006.
A significant addition to the 2019 Act is the introduction of “product liability” whereby manufacturers and
sellers of products or services have been made responsible to compensate for any harm caused to a
consumer by defective products, manufactured or sold, or for deficiency in services.
The definition of “unfair trade practices” has been enlarged to include electronic advertising which is
misleading, as well as refusing to take back or withdraw defective goods, or to withdraw or discontinue
deficient services, and to refund the consideration within the period stipulated or in the absence of such
stipulation, within a period of thirty days.
All these changes signify an attempt to create more transparency in the marketplace, through legislative
protection, with a view to ensure that consumer interests are above all else.
[Extracted from ‘Consumer Protection Act 2019: Enhancing Consumer Rights’ by SatvikVarma from Bar
& Bench https://www.barandbench.com/columns/consumer-protection-act-2019-enhancing-consumer-
rights#:~:text=Bar%20%26%20Bench&text=The%202019%20Consumer%20Protection%20Act,without%
20proposing%20adequate%20administrative%20safeguards.]
68. KiratVohli is a famous cricketer who endorses the energy drink ‘Bluebull’. The drink claims to increase
productivity, concentration and instantly uplift the consumer’s mood. X, an avid fan of Kirat buys the drink
and does not experience any of the claimed results. Does he have a case under the given Act?
(a) No, because he did not consume the Bluebull for long enough to experience its benefits
(b) No, because he does not fit the definition of ‘consumer’ under the Act
(c) Yes, because he was lied to
(d) Yes, because the product was fake
69. In the same case, if X bought Bluebull from Future Retail, a large wholesale shop after watching Kirat’s
advertisement on television, who is liable under the Act?
(a) Kirat and Bluebull Co.
(b) Kirat and Future Retail
(c) Bluebull Co.
(d) Kirat, Future Retail and Bluebull Co.
70. Birbal orders a veg biryani from an online food platform called Trimato. When he received the order, he
found that the biryani had pieces of chicken in it. He asked Trimato for a refund but they refused. Can
Birbal sue Trimato?
(a) No, because Biryani is a food item which is not covered under the Act
(b) Yes, because online food platforms are liable to give him a refund for the deficient services
(c) Yes, because it is Trimato’s fault that they gave him the wrong order
(d) No, because online food platforms do not fall in the purview of the Act

MOCK CLAT #17
71. To seek admission in a medical coaching institute, Farida was made to deposit a lump sum fee for two
years within the first six months. Farida decided to leave the course midway because the quality of
services provided at the institute was deficient and subpar. She asked for a refund of the remaining
amount. The institute refused. Based on your reading of the passage, can the institute be sued?
(a) Farida cannot sue the institute because education is not a service
(b) Farida can sue the institute because they misled her
(c) Farida cannot sue the institute because a student is not a consumer
(d) Farida can sue the institute for a refund
72. Donna and Steve were at a café in Glasgow. Steve ordered and paid for her drink. The cafe purchased
the product from the manufacturer. The ginger beer came in a Dark bottle, and the contents were not
visible from the outside. Donna drank some of the contents and Steve lifted the bottle to pour the
remainder of the ginger beer into the tumbler. The remains of a decomposed snail dropped out of the
bottle into the tumbler. Who is liable?
(a) No one
(b) The café
(c) The café and manufacturer
(d) The manufacturer
73. A Builder ‘ELF’ launched a residential project in Gurunagar. H, a Flat Purchaser entered into an
Agreement with ELF to purchase an apartment in the said project. ELF was to make all efforts to apply
for the Occupancy Certificate within 39 months from the date of agreement and offer possession of the
flat to H. ELF failed to apply for the Occupancy Certificate in the given time and also did not allow H a
refund on his payment. Subsequently H approached the National Consumer Forum. Based on your
reading of the passage, what do you think was held by the Court?
(a) ELF made deficiency of service by not applying for the Certificate in the requisite time
(b) H was entitled to seek refund of the money deposited along with compensation.
(c) ELF’s conduct constituted an ‘unfair trade practices’ under the Act
Passage (Q.74 – Q.77): The anti-defection law seeks to provide a stable government by ensuring that
legislators do not switch sides.
‘Aaya Ram Gaya Ram’ was a phrase that became popular in Indian politics after a Haryana MLA Gaya
Lal changed his party thrice within the same day in 1967. The anti-defection law sought to prevent such
political defections which may be due to reward of office or other similar considerations.
The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985. It lays down the process by which
legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on
a petition by any other member of the House. A legislator is deemed to have defected if he
either voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or disobeys the directives of the party leadership
on a vote. This implies that a legislator defying the party whip on any issue can lose his membership of
the House. The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies.
However, the law is not without exceptions. Legislators may change their party without the risk of
disqualification in certain circumstances. The law allows a party to merge with or into another party
provided that at least two-thirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger. In such a scenario, neither
the members who decide to merge, nor the ones who stay with the original party will face disqualification.
The phrase ‘Voluntarily gives up his membership’ has a wider connotation than resignation. The law
provides for a member to be disqualified if he ‘voluntarily gives up his membership’. However, the
Supreme Court has interpreted that in the absence of a formal resignation by the member, the giving up
of membership can be inferred by his conduct.
[Extracted with minor revisions from ‘The Anti-Defection Law Explained’ by Vibhor Relhan in prsindia.org
https://www.prsindia.org/theprsblog/anti-defection-law-explained]

MOCK CLAT #17
74. Jayanti Lal is a minister of the Dilli Janta Party (DJP). The DJP brings out a bill which makes it difficult for
certain minorities to acquire citizenship. When the bill is up for voting, Jayanti Lal votes against the law.
Next day, he doesn’t come to the Parliament. Has he defected?
(a) Yes, because he defied the party by voting against the bill
(b) No, because as a legislator he has a choice in how to exercise his vote
(c) Yes, because he party policy is above his personal vote
(d) No, because he was never asked to vote in favour of the bill only
75. In the same situation, the party whip has asked the members of DJP to support this historic bill that would
strengthen the national character of their country. At the time of casting vote, Jayanti Lal abstains. Can
he be disqualified?
(a) Yes, because abstention amounts to violation of party policy
(b) Yes, because abstention amounts to defiance of the party whip
(c) Yes, because abstention is not allowed in the house
(d) Yes, because abstention is illegal
76. Sahul Sandhi is a member of the Indian National Party (INP). He asks Tony to leave DJP and offers him
a chance to contest elections from his constituency of Varanasi from INP. Tony offers a resignation letter
to the DJP head. DJP refuses to accept the resignation letter. Tony starts attending INP meetings while
still representing his old constituency in the Parliament. Is he in violation of the anti-defection law?
(a) Yes, because he started attending INP meetings even though his resignation from DJP was not
accepted
(b) Yes, because he started attending INP meetings before the next elections
(c) Yes, because his conduct shows that he has voluntarily given up the membership of his party
(d) Yes, because the act of sending a resignation shows that he likes INP better
77. What could be the possible drawbacks of the anti-defection law?

(a) Legislators are encouraged to change their parties frequently
(b) Legislators cannot change their policy even if the party policy goes against the concerns of the voters
in their constituency
(c) It makes legislators a tool in the hands of the Speaker of the house
(d) Legislators are forced to keep quiet on important issues and cannot give an opinion on any matter in
party meets
Passage (Q.78 – Q.82): In a recent matter on Workmen’s Compensation, an application for

compensation was filed by mother of the deceased, who worked as a lorry driver. The applicant
contended that when the lorry reached Surat, the deceased felt severe stomach pain and he was rushed
to the hospital for treatment, where he died on the same day. The claim for compensation was made after
seven years. A separate delay petition was also filed along with claim which pleaded that the delay was
because the applicants were illiterate, sick, poor and had to depend on intermediaries, who did not give
proper advice.
The Commissioner, while condoning the delay held that the applicant had a legal claim for compensation
and accordingly, passed an order for compensation of Rs 4,11,900 with interest against the respondents.
Subsequently, the respondents filed for an appeal. It was submitted that according to the Employee’s
Compensation Act, 1923 the claim for compensation ought to be filed within two years of the cause of
action.
In appeal, the Court observed that the Commissioner was not justified in condoning of delay and there
must be a sufficient cause and evidence to do so. More importantly, on the question of cause of death,
the Court noticed that in the post-mortem report, the final cause of death was shown as food poisoning.
Hence, considering this evidence, it was held that such death could not be said to be causally connected
with the work in which the deceased was engaged. The Court stated that, unless stomach pain had
causal connection or association with the work in which the deceased was employed, it cannot be
reckoned to be an accident to fasten liability on the employer for payment of compensation. Hence, the
decision was ordered to be set aside.

MOCK CLAT #17
[Extracted with revisions from ‘Unless injury complained of had connection with employment in which
deceased was engaged, he cannot make a legal claim for compensation; HC reiterates legal position’
published 29 Dec 2020 on scconline.com,
https://www.scconline.com/blog/post/2020/12/29/ker-hc-unless-injury-complained-of-had-connection-with-
employment-in-which-deceased-was-engaged-he-cannot-make-a-legal-claim-for-compensation-hc-
reiterates-legal-position/]
78. Soham had been employed with a mining company since 12 years. His job involved spending more than
12 hours a day deep into the Earth’s surface, mining for precious minerals. One day when he was on the
job, he suddenly collapsed and died on the spot. His co-workers revealed that he had been coughing a
lot since the past two weeks. Can a legal claim for compensation be made?
(a) No, because his death has no direct connection with his employment
(b) Yes, because mining is a harmful occupation which can cause long term health consequences
(c) No, because he had been coughing for more than two weeks which indicates he may have had some
other illness
(d) Yes, because the coughing can be attributed to spending so much of time in mines which may have
caused his death
79. Soham’s post mortem report revealed that his death was due to a terminal lung disease whose
symptoms include coughing. As per the doctor, the cause of such disease is usually ‘long-term exposure
to harmful chemical fumes and mineral dust’. Is the Company liable for payment of compensation?
(a) Yes, because his terminal lung diseases couldn’t be attributed to mining
(b) Yes, because his death could be attributed to long-term exposure to such compounds
(c) Yes, because mining is an occupation which involves ‘long-term exposure to harmful chemical fumes
and mineral dust’
(d) Yes, because his illness had no connection with the employment he was engaged in
80. X was a daily wage labourer employed in a construction site in Delhi since 1st June 2014. One day, while
on the job, a large iron rod accidentally fell from an overhead lever from an adjoining construction site
and severely injured X’s leg. He was rushed to the hospital and in order to save the remaining body from
contracting infection, an amputation surgery was performed on 9th June 2017 which was paid for by the
Company. X did not turn up for work from the next day. Is X eligible to be paid compensation?
(a) No, because his leg injury was not related to the construction work that he was employed in
(b) Yes, because his leg injury no had connection with his employment
(c) Yes, because his injury was caused due to his nature of work
(d) Yes, because his injury was associated with the work he was engaged in
81. X stayed in the hospital for 6 months after the surgery. Even after leaving the hospital, he had to undergo
physiotherapy and other therapies to get used to walking with one leg. He retained all the reports and
receipts of the same. X did not receive any money from anywhere and had no friends or family who could
take care of him. He decided to file a claim for compensation against the company on 13th June 2019. Is
the Company liable to pay?
(a) Yes, because the injury was causally connected to X’s work
(b) Yes, because there was a sufficient cause of delay
(c) No, because the delay in filing the claim cannot be condoned
(d) No, because there was no sufficient cause of delay
82. Mohan is a traffic police officer. His occupation requires him to manage traffic while standing in the centre
of a busy road. The road is a hotspot for speeding and rash drivers so Mohan has to be extra cautious
and ensure public safety along with traffic management. Mohan was walking back home along the road
after his shift and met with an accident. Can he make a legal claim for compensation?
(a) Yes, because he met with an accident at the road where he was stationed
(b) Yes, because his accident could be attributed to his employment as a traffic police officer
(c) No, because he met with an accident after his shift was over and not while working
(d) No, because the traffic police department is not liable for his accident

MOCK CLAT #17
Passage (Q.83 – Q.88):Article 21 which guarantees personal liberty and protects against exploitation,
also includes the Right to Shelter as an implied fundamental right.
The debate around 'Right to shelter' has always been tabled in context with the poor or the vulnerable
class, because they are mostly exploited and neglected by the stake holders. Recently, the Karnataka
High Court directed the State to reconstruct the huts, which were burnt due to misinformation. Poor
migrant labours were evicted from their native shelters and the concerned huts were demolished. This
direction is not only a positive ray for those dwellers, but also another brick into the 'Shelter-
jurisprudence'.
The observations made by the Supreme Court in Chameli Singh v. State of U.P, is pertinent to note,
which was also referred by the Karnataka High Court during the course of hearing. The Supreme Court
had rightly observed that "Shelter for a human being, therefore, is not a mere protection of his life and
limb. It is a home where he has opportunities to grow physically, mentally, intellectually and spiritually.
Right to shelter, therefore, includes adequate living space, safe and decent structure, clean and decent
surroundings, sufficient light, pure air and water, electricity, sanitation and other civic amenities like roads
etc. so as to have easy access to his daily avocation.
In Oliga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation, the court observed that "An equally important facet of
that right is the right to livelihood because, no person can live without the means of living, that is, the
means of livelihood. Deprive a person of his right to livelihood and you shall have deprived him of his
life.”
[Extracted with revisions from ‘Reconstructing The “Right to Shelter”' by Areeb Uddin, published 14 Dec
2020 in livelaw.com
https://www.livelaw.in/columns/shelter-right-to-shelter-karnataka-high-court-article-21-shelter-
jurisprudence-supreme-court-jhuggies-167215]
83. The government placed 20 women in a shelter who were rescued from a trafficking racket. The owner of
the shelter had to conduct some repairs in the main building so he moved the women to the basement of
the building. The basement was a dark place with no electricity, windows or washroom. Is their right to life
being violated?
(a) No, because they have already been provided with shelter
(b) No, because the basement is temporary and the house provides decent living conditions
(c) Yes, because they do not have adequate living conditions
(d) Yes, because they are being deprived of basic sanitation facilities
84. Migrant labourers from a distant state had settled in the town of Singapura. Over the course of 10 years,
as the population grew, a slum colony developed in a public park complete with a makeshift school and
hospital. An eviction notice was passed and the labourers were asked to vacate the park. They were not
given any alternative housing. Is it a violation of Article 21?
(a) Yes, because right to life includes right to shelter
(b) Yes, because they cannot be asked to vacate without being provided with alternative shelter
(c) Yes, because they had been living there for more than 10 years so it was their legal dwelling
(d) No, because they were encroaching on a public space
85. In order to get the park vacated faster, the Municipality offered the slum dwellers housing in a new colony
being developed by the government of Singapura for below poverty line families. The slum dwellers
refused to move because most of them were employed in the construction areas near their present
dwellings, while other worked as house help in the residential areas surrounding the park. The new site
was in a remote, undeveloped part of the town. Can the Municipality force them to vacate the park?
(a) Yes, because their right to life is not being violated since they have been offered alternative housing
(b) Yes, because they are occupying a public space and creating nuisance
(c) No, because their right to shelter is being violated since they will have to move from their established
dwellings
(d) No, because their right to livelihood will be violated

MOCK CLAT #17
86. A government NGO provided safe homes for children in conflict with the law or those in need of
protection. Skill training was provided to make them self-dependent and fit to do small tasks like stitching,
cooking etc. However, over time the number of child residents in the house increased. So, those
residents who were above 18 years of age and had completed basic skills training were asked to vacate
to make space. Is it a violation of their right to shelter?
(a) No, because they have been imparted with skills that enable them to earn and live adequately
(b) No, because right to life exists to protect against exploitation
(c) No, because their personal liberty is being violated
(d) Yes, because if they are asked to vacate they will not have a roof over their heads
87. A dam was being constructed in a village ABC to generate hydro-electricity. The government ordered the
farmers to vacate their lands near the river for the construction of the dam. The farmers were offered
compensation for their lands at market rates. The farmers challenged this saying that their river lands are
important for agriculture which is their only source of income. Can they do so?
(a) Yes, because their right to livelihood is being violated
(b) Yes, because their right to shelter is being violated
(c) Yes, because proving compensation at market rates is not enough
(d) No, because their right to life is not being violated
88. Joginder, a habitual petty offender was sentenced to spend time in a juvenile correction home. The
juvenile home had a triple room occupancy system and shared bathrooms. There was also a spacious
library which had computers. Joginder asked for a personal laptop to attend a free online educational
course but, the same was refused. He says that it is a violation of his right to shelter
(a) No, because he has a home to protect his life and limb
(b) Yes, because a personal laptop is necessary for his right to education
(c) No, because he has adequate space to grow physically, mentally and spiritually
(d) Yes, because a personal laptop is necessary for growing mentally and intellectually
.
Passage (Q.89 – Q.92): The commercialization of traditional and modern sports has paved the way for
online platforms to increase engagement in these activities. There are a host of online games that are
available, from money games such as online poker and fantasy football or cricket, to casual games such
as Candy Crush and Temple Run, and then of course, e-sports such as Counter-Strike or FIFA.
The rise of fantasy sports raises questions about the legality of such activity, that is, whether it would
amount to gambling or betting. Under the Constitution of India, gambling and betting are State subjects,
with each state forming its own laws. Some states, such as Assam, Orissa, and Telangana, prohibit any
gaming activity for money. Other states permit gambling with respect to games of skill.
The expressions “gambling” and “game of skill” have been dealt with by a Constitution Bench of the
Supreme Court in the case of Dr. KR Lakshmanan v. State of Tamil Nadu & Anr. Following the earlier
decisions in RMD Chamarbaugwala & Anr. v. Union of India & Anr. and State of Andhra Pradesh v K
Satyanarayana & Ors, the Court held that gambling is the payment of consideration for a chance to win a
prize. A game may be of chance or of skill, or a combination of both elements. A game of chance is
determined entirely or largely by luck, whereas a game of skill depends on the players superior
knowledge, experience and adroitness. The Court concluded that though an element of chance exists in
a skill game, the element of skill predominates over the element of chance.The Court authoritatively held
that a ‘game of chance’ would fall within the vice of gambling and is prohibited as per state law, whereas
a ‘game of skill’ is distinguishable from gambling and enjoys protection under Article 19(1) (g) of the
Constitution.
Source – [Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: “Legal Matrix of Online Fantasy sports in India”, by
Sachit Jolly & Priyanka MP, Bar and Bench, dated 24.11.2020]
https://www.barandbench.com/columns/legal-matrix-of-online-fantasy-sports-in-india-2

MOCK CLAT #17
89. Rohit wants to develop a Gaming App based on the concept of Fantasy Football which would involve
picking players from a real-life match from both sides and forming a team, if the team wins then the user
wins cash prizes amounting to more than INR 1 crore. Is the App that Rohit wants to develop legal?
(a) Yes, since the App being developed involves a Football game which is not a game of chance.
(b) No, since this App is based on a concept which allows its users to Gamble huge amounts of cash
amounting upto 1 crore.
(c) Yes, since the App allows gives freedom to the user to make his own team.
(d) No, since the App is based on the concept of gaming for money which is prohibited in several states.
90. Preeti is a part of an exclusive club which places bets on Horse Racing. Rita also wants to join the club
but she suspects that the club is not legal. Is it legal to form such clubs in India which places bets on
Horse Racing?
(a) No, it is illegal since betting for money is strictly prohibited under Indian law.
(b) Yes, it is legal since betting is a state subject and some states allow betting activity.
(c) No, it is illegal since betting on Horses for money involves a high degree of luck.
(d) Yes, it is legal since betting on horses is not illegal.
91. Riya and Rohan decide to play a friendly game of Rummy for INR 200, Riya is the undefeated champion
of Rummy since she uses certain memory tricks. Is the game of Rummy for stakes between Riya and
Rohan legal?
(a) No, since card games like Rummy depend highly on luck.
(b) Yes, since Riya and Rohan were part of a friendly game and the amount involved was not high.
(c) No, since several states like Telangana, Assam, Orissa etc have prohibited playing games for money
which makes it illegal.
(d) Yes, since playing Rummy for stakes in not prohibited by law.
92. Raghav develops an App ‘Casino – 8’ through this App the users can play casino game like Slots digitally
and also bet for money. The user spins the reels having different type of symbols and wins if he/she gets
the combination of winning symbols on the reel. Is the app being developed by Raghav legal in India?
(a) Yes, since the app being developed by Raghav is based on online gaming concept.
(b) No, since the users of the app are allowed to place bets for money.
(c) Yes, since the game of slots is not totally dependent of chance.
(d) No, since casino games are not regulated and not allowed on India.
Passage (Q.93 – Q.96):For Information like money spent on advertisements, accounts blocked,
audience targeted and other stats, can the Twitter handle of let’s say the Prime Minster – which is not
independent of his prime ministry – be considered a ‘body’ under the definition of ‘public authority’ in the
RTI Act?
Krishna Iyer, J. has defined ‘authority’ from the Law Lexicon by P.RamnathIyer to say that an “Authority is
a body having jurisdiction in certain matters of a public nature”. A Governments Twitter account has the
ability to affect the rights and liabilities of a user which may have far-reaching consequences, and thus be
considered an authority. An authority can also be an ‘instrumentality or agency’ of the State, provided
there is governmental ownership and/or control. In this case, the authority in the form of the
Governmental Twitter account is owned and controlled by the Government. Thus, the Governmental
account can also be considered as an ‘instrumentality or agency/ of the State.
A public authority, as has been held by the Supreme Court as a body which has public or statutory duties
to perform and which performs those duties and carries out its transactions for the benefits of the public
and not for private profit.
A public authority under the RTI Act, 2005 has been defined as follows –
“Public authority” means any authority or body or institution of self-government established or constituted
a. by or under the Constitution;
b. by any other law made by Parliament;
c. by any other law made by State Legislature;
d. by notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government,

MOCK CLAT #17
And includes any –

- body owned, controlled or substantially financed ;
- (ii) non – Government organisation substantially financed,
Directly or indirectly by funds provided by the appropriate Government”
Therefore the definition can be extended to include an official Twitter account that is owned and
controlled by the Government and is used for discharging public functions.
Source – [Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: Can a Twitter Account of the government be a ‘Public
Authority’ under the RTI Act? By RaghavAhooja, Live Law, dated 26.12.2020]
https://www.livelaw.in/columns/government-twitter-account-rti-public-authority-167664
93. Delhi Cricket Association (DCA) is an autonomous association formed by retired State and National level
Cricket players with the aim to support upcoming talented cricket players. The role of Government of NCT
of Delhi is limited to providing assistance in travel, transportation of sportsmen and sports managers for
matches across the country. Rajat files an RTI against DCA enquiring into the source of funding of the
Association and the salary of Sports Managers and Coaches. The RTI filed by Rajat was rejected and the
reason cited for rejection was that DCA does not fall under the category of a Public Authority under the
RTI Act. Rajat decides to file an appeal against this decision, will he be successful in his Appeal?
(a) Yes, DCA holds a preeminent position and has control over the selection of players to compete at
National level which affects the rights of the players.
(b) No, since DCA is an autonomous association which makes it fall outside the purview of RTI Act.
(c) No, since DCA was not formed by an act of the Legislature or of the State or Central Government.
(d) Yes, since DCA is a Public Authority under RTI Act.
94. ‘Ray of Hope’ is a NGO which helps and support the Senior Citizens in India and also runs an
autonomous Elder Care Home. The State Government, as part of its initiative to support the Senior
Citizens, provides subsidies in Electricity and Water bill to Elder Care Homes including the Elder Care
Home run by Ray of Hope. Will the NGO - Ray of Hope fall under the purview of the RTI Act?
(a) Yes, as the Elder Care Home run by it receives funding from the State Government in form of
Subsidies.
(b) No, as the Elder Care Home is run autonomously and there is no control of the Government.
(c) Yes, as Ray of Hope is a NGO receiving indirect funding from State Government which makes it fall
under the definition of Public Authority under the RTI Act.
(d) No, as Ray of Hope does not fulfil the essentials to be categorized as Public Authority under RTI Act.
95. The Central Government decided to undertake various initiatives in order to provide better Healthcare
facilities to its citizens. As part of this initiative the Government allotted 150 acres of land at a prime
location in Delhi to an autonomous trust for construction of a state of the art hospital with the best
medical amenities. The Trust is solely responsible for the administrative and policy decisions relating to
the Hospital. The salaries of the staff and the running cost of the Hospital is funded solely by the Trust.
The Central Government provides zero funding for running the Hospital and has no control over its
management. Will the Hospital fall under the category of a Public Authority under the RTI Act?
(a) It is a Public Authority since the hospital is set up as a part of a government initiative.
(b) It is not a Public Authority since the hospital is run by an autonomous trust.
(c) It is not a Public Authority since the government does not provide funding and has no control over the
management of the Hospital.
(d) It is a Public Authority since the trust has received funding from the Government.

MOCK CLAT #17
96. Isha is part of a Credit Co-operative Society which provides loans to its members at low interest rates.
The Co-operative society is registered under the Maharashtra Cooperative Societies Act, 1960. As per
the provisions of the act, the authority established under the act has the power to conduct audits and
enquire into the irregularities of a Co-operative society registered under the act. The Co-operative Society
does not receive any funding from the government and there is no say of the government in its
administration. Is the Co-operative Society bound to disclose information under the RTI Act?
(a) Yes, since the Co-operative Society is bound to disclose information for audits and enquiry by the
authority.
(b) No, since the government does not provide any funding directly or indirectly.
(c) No, since Co-operative Societies do not form a part of the definition of Public Authority under the RTI
act.
(d) Yes, since the Co-operative Society is registered under the Maharashtra Cooperative Societies Act,
1960.
Passage (Q.97 – Q.101): Bailment as defined in section 148 of the Indian contract act 1872 is the
delivery of goods by one person to another for some specific purpose, upon a contract that these goods
are to be returned when the specific purpose is complete. The person delivering the goods is known as
bailor and the person to whom goods are delivered is known as bailee. However, if the owner continues
to maintain control over the goods, there is no bailment.
Essentials of Contract of Bailment: (1) The existence of a valid contract is a foremost condition in
bailment which implies that goods are to be returned when the purpose is fulfilled. (2) The whole concept
of bailment revolves around the fact that the goods are delivered for a temporary period and bailee
cannot have permanent possession. Delivery of goods can be done through actual delivery or through
constructive delivery which means that doing something which has the effect of putting the goods in
possession of bailee or any other person authorized by him. (3) The bailee is bound to return the goods
to bailor after the purpose for which it was taken is over. If the person is not returning the goods then it
will not be bailment.
Bailee’s Liabilities: (1) Care to be taken by the bailee (Section 151 and 152) - The bailee is bound to take
as much care of goods bailed to him as a man of ordinary prudence would have under similar
circumstances and therefore, he will not be liable for any loss, destruction or deterioration of the thing
bailed if he has taken care. (2) The duty of the bailee to return the bailed goods (Section 160 and 161) -
Bailee is under the duty to return or deliver goods according to the bailor’s direction as soon as the time
for which goods were bailed has expired. (3) Bailee’s duty to deliver increase profit from the bailed goods
to the bailor (Section 161) - In the absence of any agreement, bailee is bound to deliver to the bailor any
increase in profit or any benefit which may have accrued from the goods bailed.
[Source: https://blog.ipleaders.in/what-is-the-contract-of-bailment/ ]
97. Ram was running home for it was raining. He happened to meet Shyam on the way who offered him an
umbrella. Ram took the umbrella and kept it at his home. Decide
(a) This is a contract of bailment as goods have been given for a specific purpose.
(b) This is not a contract of bailment as goods have not been given for a specific purpose
(c) Shyam merely offered help to Ram. He did not intend to enter into a contract
(d) As essentials of a contract are not fulfilled, this cannot be construed to be a contract of bailment.
98. Please refer to the facts above. Ram upon returning the umbrella offered Shyam some money as reward
for his help. Shyam accepted the same. Decide
(a) This is a contract for bailment for all essentials of a contact are now fulfilled
(b) This is not a contract of bailment for both parties only intended to help each other
(c) This is a contract of bailment for goods were delivered for a specific purpose
(d) This is not a contract of bailment. Essentials of a valid contract have not been fulfilled.

MOCK CLAT #17
99. Radhey had given Raman a lighter when he needed to light a cigarette. When Raman went to give the
lighter back, Radhey asked Raman to get its handle repaired. Decide
(a) Radhey can do so since past consideration is valid consideration.
(b) Radhey cannot do so for a contract of bailment requires a bailee to supply goods in the same
condition as they were taken in
(c) Radhey can ask for the same. Raman got help and he needs to pay consideration for the help.
(d) Radhey cannot ask for the same as both of them are friends.
100. Upon giving a football to Jeevan to play, Raone asked him to get a puncture repaired and give it back.
Jeevan used to small repairs on his own usually. He also tried to fix the puncture and damaged the
same. Decide
(a) Jeevan is liable for the deterioration as he did not take reasonable care of the goods
(b) Jeevan is not liable for deterioration of the football. He took care of the football like he did with all
other things of his.
(c) Jeevan is liable for deterioration. He did not fulfill his bailee duties properly
(d) Jeevan is not a bailee as per the fact situation. Thus, he is not liable
101. Please refer to the facts above. Jeevan went to the repair shop and asked the owner to repair the
puncture in the football. However, the cloth of the football was also torn and Jeevan got that repaired too.
Decide
(a) Raone must pay for the cloth repair too as Jeevan paid for it out of his own pocket
(b) Raone may not pay for the cloth repair as Jeevan unauthorisedly used the goods
(c) Raone must pay for the improved football as he only had instructed Jeevan to get it repaired.
(d) Raone may not pay for the cloth for repairing the cloth was not part of the original contract
Passage (Q.102 – Q.105): The Delhi High Court refused to entertain a plea challenging the domicile
reservation in National Law School University of India University, Bangalore. The plea comes after the
Karnataka state government recently passed a state amendment allowing for 25% horizontal reservation
for Karnataka students in NLS. This plea was massively protested against by the national media and the
public in common.
One of the students giving CLAT in Delhi had filed a petition against the amendment at the Delhi High
Court. In refusing, the judges reasoned that the amendment act was passed by the State of Karnataka,
thus disallowing them to exercise any territorial jurisdiction over the matter. They also noted that NLS is in
Bangalore, Karnataka and that it is not appropriate for them to decide in the matter.
[Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/hc-refuses-to-entertain-plea-challenging-karnataka-
govts-decision-on-quota/article31984748.ece]
102. Asad owns a sweet shop in Hyderabad, Telangana. His sweets are famous for the particular flavor
throughout the country. With increasing popularity to his products, he decided to open franchises in
Chennai and other cities around the country. The sweets were made in Hyderabad and brought to these
stores for sale. Tamil Nadu state government had recently passed a state legislation about sanitary
measures in the manufacture of food products. Among them was the mandatory use of gloves, shower
caps and other protective gear by the cooks while making the food products. A few days back, Shankar
gets a viral video of the sweet-making process in Asad’s sweet shop. Being a fan of Asad’s sweets, he
was aghast when he found out that none of the cooks wore gloves. Aggrieved by it, he goes to the
Madras High Court for compensation. Will he win?
(a) No, the sweets were manufactured in Hyderabad, so the State law cannot be applied.
(b) The only issue in this case is of jurisdiction. Jurisdiction resides with the court in Hyderabad.
(c) Yes, the sweets being sold in Chennai would mean that the State law shall be applied.
(d) Compensation cannot be awarded in such an event. State law only provides for adoption of hygienic
measures but no penalty has been specified.

MOCK CLAT #17
103. Rohan is a college student living in Bangalore. Being an introvert, the only way he could belong in his
college atmosphere was if started doing drugs. Naturally he needed more money as days went on. So to
earn more pocket money he decided to start peddling marijuana in his neighborhood. He claimed that his
source was Modi from Kanpur. When he placed his first order to Modi, his father, Rohan Sr., receives the
package in Delhi accidently and comes to know of Rohan’s drug racket. Peddling marijuana is a
punishable offence under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances which was passed by the
Parliament in 1985. Charges are pressed against Rohan at the Delhi High Court.
(a) Yes, as the package was received in Delhi and therefore the concerned high court will have territorial
jurisdiction.
(b) Rohan who was in fact smuggling, so Modi should not be charged. Modi merely fulfilled the order
given to him. Thus, since the order was placed from Bangalore, Karnataka HC should have
jurisdiction.
(c) NDPS Act is a national act and the provisions will apply equally at all places. The petition may be
entertained at the Delhi HC.
(d) No, Modi hails from Kanpur, so he cannot be charged at the Delhi HC. The order was dispatched
from Kanpur so Lucknow HC should have jurisdiction.
104. At the initial hearing at the High Court, the petition is dismissed. Rohan Sr decides to appeal to the
Supreme Court. Can he take the case to the Supreme Court?
(a) Yes, Supreme Court should hear it as it is the final court of appeal in the country.
(b) No, Supreme Court cannot hear it as it is a question of jurisdiction which must be solved by the
concerned High Court only.
(c) Yes, Supreme Court is eligible to hear cases concerning national legislations and since NDPS Act is
a national legislation, SC cannot refuse.
(d) No, Supreme Court cannot hear it as Rohan cannot appeal. He should have filed a Special Leave
Petition instead.
105. The Parliament passes a bill to allow state governments to levy duties on use of agricultural lands for
industrial purposes. The state governments had to pass an additional act in their state legislatures to
make the duties legal. The state of Rajasthan, in dire need of agricultural land, imposes a 50% duty on
the value of the land. Industrialists based in Rajasthan file a complaint at the Rajasthan High Court,
claiming it is unjust to impose such amount of duties. Will the Industrialists win?
(a) No, it is a central legislation and the Rajasthan high court cannot rule on the case.
(b) Yes, it is a state legislation and Rajasthan High Court is the legitimate authority to hear the matter.
(c) The legislation was not passed by the Rajasthan legislature. Thus, the Rajasthan HC is not the
legitimate authority.
(d) Yes, the industrialists are based in Rajasthan, so they can claim at the Rajasthan High Court even if it
was a UP state legislation.

MOCK CLAT #17
Directions (Q.106-Q.137): Read and analyse the passages and answer the questions:-
Passage (Q.106-Q.111): Bruce: For too long politics has been dominated by a self-perpetuating, corrupt
elite, detached from the concerns of ordinary people. Populists – be they of the left or right – can give the
people a voice again. Democracy sometimes needs a shock to the system. Concern that democracy is
being eroded by populists can push decent people to re-engage with politics again. This could counter
demagogues who claim only they represent the people. Recent history is full of examples of “people
power” rising up against corrupt and tyrannical regimes. The phrase defined the peaceful movement that
toppled Filipino dictator Ferdinand Marcos in 1986; was applied to the uprisings that liberated eastern
Europe in 1989; and Ukraine’s resistance to corrupt, authoritarian governments. As governments become
more barefaced in their erosion of basic rights or their taste for corruption, perhaps a more positive form
of populism will keep them in check – recent events in Bucharest could be a taste of things to come.
Wayne: By its very nature, populism is based on quick fixes aimed at bringing easy solutions to appease
the disaffected masses. In the very short term that can work, but it never takes long before populist
economic policies go pear-shaped. Today’s populists are the inheritors of the 19th-century Luddites who
smashed up machinery in a vain attempt to turn back the Industrial Revolution. Globalisation is here to
stay and efforts to wish it away will be as unsuccessful as the Luddites were. Populism thrives on the
demonisation of the “other.” Internal or external enemies are essential for such regimes to survive,
especially when their unworkable economic model starts to collapse. Populists exploit fear of their chosen
scapegoat to clamp down on civil liberties, reject criticism as “treason” and remove the checks on their
power from opposition parties, the media or judiciary.
Source: Excerpts taken and curated from the website debatingeurope.eu
106. Which of the following resonates with the logic of Bruce?

(a) The rise of Robin Hood in England for wealth-redistribution among English commoners. He used to
rob the rich to distribute the loot among the poor folk.
(b) There should be a huge natural disaster in the world like a large scale earthquake or heavy cyclones
or flooding for the people to sit up to environment-protection.
(c) People don’t understand complex, high-sounding logic, but they should be given easily
understandable reason. This becomes popular and forms populism.
(d) Both a and b
107. Which of the following statements can be used by Wayne to strengthen his arguments?
(a) Donald Trump gave the call that he would build a wall to stop the Mexicans in his election manifesto
(b) In France, generations of politicians coming from the same elite schools have alternated in power
with little interaction with the public beyond the “grandesécoles” (elite education) bubble.
(c) In 1975, Indira Gandhi proclaimed emergency in India to crush protests against her Government as
armed rebellion
(d) After an economic collapse there is always an anti-austerity drive that is followed by the
establishment
108. Which of the following is the difference between the debating styles of Bruce and Wayne?
(a) Bruce is more concerned towards the carrying out of governance in the right way while Wayne is
more concerned towards the formation of governments to set a correct path of politics
(b) Bruce uses observation to form his arguments to describe his disfavor for the elite non-populist
governance, while Wayne uses examples to validate his arguments in favour of non-populist
governance
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b

MOCK CLAT #17
109. According to the Merriam-Webster dictionary, “a believer in the rights, wisdom, or virtues of the common
people” is the definition of populist. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) It strengthens the arguments of Bruce
(b) It strengthen the arguments of Wayne
(c) It weakens arguments of both
(d) It is a mere definition. It doesn’t have any effect on anyone’s argument
110. Which of the following can be inferred from the debate?

1. Wayne thinks that populists always support localization
2. Bruce thinks a populist government will not be corrupt
3. Bruce thinks populism can renew democracy
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
111. Here are some quotes –

1. “Populism is seen as dangerous because democracy is dangerous”
2. “Populism…has been redefined as the pathology of the simple minded masses”
3. “The modus operandi of populism is not to reason but to roar”
Which of the above should Bruce use?
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 and 3 (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) None of the above
Passage (Q.112-Q.115): Raindrops might be pumping bacteria into the sky, according to a recent study.
Scientists have known for a while that bacteria somehow make their way into the air, impelling cloud
formation, as well the transmission of some diseases. What they haven’t known is how.
This new study builds on previous research that looked at how droplets interact with porous surfaces,
said study author Cullen Buie, an Associate Professor at MIT.
The person in question worked on a tropical disease called melioidosis. Meliodosis occurs in parts of
Australia and Vietnam and is caused by bacteria that disperse into the air. Scientists knew that incidents
of people getting this infection went up after a rainfall, but they weren't sure exactly how rain was
involved. Buie’s study suggests a mechanism—bioaerosolization, or the suspension of particles that
contain living organisms like bacteria.
On certain surfaces, when droplets hit at kind of the right speed the droplets would trap air. That trapped
air would form small bubbles that would rise to the surface of the liquid and then burst, much like what
you would see if you drink a carbonated beverage.
In short, when a rain drop hits soil, small bubbles are formed. When the bubbles burst, they send soil into
the air with them. And those tiny bits of soil carry even tinier bacteria. Using high-speed cameras,
fluorescent imaging, and computer models, Buie and his colleagues were able to determine that a single
rain drop can transfer 0.01 per cent of bacteria on the soil surface to the atmosphere.
Once in the atmosphere, the bacteria can survive for upwards of an hour. In total, the researchers think
that rain transfers between 1.6 and 25 per cent of the total bacteria in the atmosphere—depending on
local soil types.
To get this result, Buie took five different soil types (to account for differences in density) and treated
them with particles of various sizes (including some benign bacteria). The synthetic particles were
already fluorescent, while the bacteria particles were treated with an agent to make them glow. The
researchers then exposed the soil samples to rain-like conditions, and the resulting aerosols were
collected on a nearby sampling plate. Buie's team found that sandy clay soils have best properties for
aerosol generation. Warmer temperatures also seem to propel bacteria more efficiently, though the
researchers are not sure why.

MOCK CLAT #17
Now that the study is gaining popularity Buie stresses that this isn’t something we should be concerned
about—the process of bacteria entering the air is one that has always occurred all around us. But now,
we can see it for ourselves—and understand how it works.
Source: https://www.popsci.com/raindrops-launch-bacteria-into-air/
112. What was the objective of the new study undertaken by Buie and his colleagues?
(a) To understand the interaction between water droplets and porous surfaces.
(b) To measure the amount of bacteria discharged into atmosphere through rain.
(c) To examine how rain droplets carried bacteria that were present in the soil.
(d) To understand the role of atmospheric bacteria in the transmission of diseases.
113. From the results of the experiment involving various soil types, it can be concluded that sandy clay soil:
(a) sent the least amount of bacteria into air owing to its low density.
(b) was ideal for aerosol generation owing to its high particle density.
(c) discharged more bacteria when exposed to warmer temperature.
(d) sent more bacteria into the atmosphere than any other soil type.
114. Which of the following explains the increased incidence of melidosis in the rainy season?
(a) Melidosis is caused by the suspension of the disease bearing bacteria in the particles in the air.
(b) Bacteria causing melidosis are dispersed into air via raindrops that interact with porous surfaces like
soil.
(c) The amount of the disease bearing bacteria present in the atmosphere increases with frequency of
rainfall.
(d) Porous surfaces release the disease bearing bacteria into the atmosphere on contact with water.
115. Based on the passage, which of the following is NOT a factor influencing the discharge of bacteria into
the atmosphere?
(a) Density of the soil (b) Climatic conditions
(c) Velocity of raindrops (d) Size of the bacteria
Passage (Q.116-Q.121): Attractive people are not like the rest of us. By nature of their good looks,
people treat them differently. And according to decades of psychology research, that can shape many
facets of their lives from their jobs, to their personalities, to how they see the world.
First, it might be helpful to define what “attractive” even means. There are a few things that are
universally associated with attractiveness, such as facial symmetry, facial shape, and clear skin, because
they may have evolved as shorthand for the health of a potential mate. Average-looking faces are also
usually considered more attractive, studies show.
Attractiveness doesn’t rest on the ability to see beauty, but to detect flaws. The fewer the flaws, the more
attractive someone appears to be, says Kristin Donnelly, a doctoral student in experimental psychology at
the University of California, San Diego. Other elements of attractiveness, such as body shape, weight,
and skin color, can be more subjective and influenced by culture. There are less physical things that can
make a person seem attractive, too, like a person’s confidence, smell, or voice.
Researchers have been looking into the effects of attractiveness for decades. The results show that
being considered attractive generally means that other people treat you better. “We assume attractive
people have positive equalities that have nothing to do with their physical attractiveness,” says Lauren
Human, an assistant professor of psychology at McGill University. This is some times called the halo
effect. Attractive people are generally assumed to be more intelligent, more trustworthy, and have better
social skills. We find them more interesting and pay more attention to attractive people, so we tend to get
a better sense of who they are as individuals. Good-looking people are more successful - they are paid
more at work and are promoted more quickly. They’re often happier, too.
Even parents treat cute babies better than ugly ones. It’s not that unattractive people are viewed more
negatively, Human says, they just aren’t viewed as positively as their prettier counterparts.
Source: https://www.vice.com/en/article/gvezeq/the-agony-and-the-ecstasy-of-being-incredibly-hot

MOCK CLAT #17

(a) If you’re an attractive person going through the world, everyone is opening doors for you.
(b) If you’re an attractive person going through the world, everyone is throwing stones at you.
(c) If you’re an attractive person going through the world, everyone wants to take advantage of you.
(d) If you’re an attractive person going through the world, everyone knows you are not opening doors for
others.
A. Attractive people are less happy in their relationships and even have short marriages.
B. Less attractive people are more likely to feel insecure or fear rejection.
(a) Only A (b) Only B (c) Both A and B (d) Neither A nor B
(a) Beautiful people have a brazen attitude because of all the attention they get.
(b) When you are not conventionally beautiful you work in the service of the lesser privileged.
(c) Beauty has a lot of positive things that come along with it.
(d) We are all treated the same as part of one human race.
119. Which of the following is an assumption on which the passage is based?

(a) We are all beautiful.
(b) Beauty lies in the eyes of the beholder.
(c) Good looking people have to work extra hard to be taken seriously.
(d) Everyone is not equally attractive.
120. Which of the following is an example of the halo effect?

(a) When an attractive employee performs one task and so is assigned leadership for another unrelated
task.
(b) When an employee gets away with showing up late, missing deadlines and otherwise
underperforming compared to his peers due to good looks.
(c) An employee gets a favourable appraisal only on the basis of his/her prima and proper
dressingsense.
121. Which of the following behaviours is unlikely of people based on what the author describes?
(a) People ask themselves, “What can I do to makethis attractive person my friend?”
(b) People often reflect, “What assumptions have I made based on the person’s looks”
(c) People often say, “The people who are beautiful have such a good heart and are so kind.”
(d) People comment, “S/he is beautiful and attractive, s/he will be so good at their job.”
Passage (Q.122-Q.126): Sampras: The requirement of being a living thing is that it must be made of
cells. The viruses do not pass this requirement for life. Moreover, living things grow. Viruses do not grow.
Therefore, viruses are not alive. There are some characteristics of viruses that put them on the
borderline— they have genetic material: DNA or RNA. It's not the same thing as a rock, but it's clearly not
the same thing as even bacteria, in terms of that self–sustaining and self–generated action. So, even
though they replicate, viruses are more like androids, which rely on host materials to build and power
themselves.
Agassi: Fundamental to the argument that viruses are not alive is the suggestion that metabolism and
self–sustaining replication are key definitions of life. Viruses are not able to replicate by itself
independently without the metabolic machinery of the cell. But, the only satisfactory definition of life lies in
the most critical property of genetic heredity: independent evolution. Life is the manifestation of a
coherent collection of genes that are competent to replicate within the niche in which they evolve. Viruses
fulfil this definition. In any case, their recognition as primarily pathogens is wrong. On the contrary, they
are most important as drivers of evolution, as transmitters of genetic material, as innovative agents.

MOCK CLAT #17
122. Which of the following can be inferred from Sampras‘s argument?

(a) Bacteria is a living organism.
(b) Bacteria do not have genetic material.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) Neither (a) nor (b).
123. Which of the following about viruses will Agassi and Sampras may agree upon?
(a) Viruses have genetic material.
(b) Viruses are made of cells.
(c) Viruses are capable of self–sustaining replication.
(d) Viruses can be categorised as living only if they can evolve independently.
124. Which of the following arguments is most closely paralleled by the pattern of reasoning displayed in the
argument by Sampras to conclude viruses are not alive?
(a) The major differentiating factor between plants and animals is that plants can produce their own food
through photosynthesis while animals have to rely on food sources. Corals are animals, therefore,
because they do not make their own food.
(b) Unlike living things, crystals do not grow by adding mass from within; instead, they grow when
matching molecules are deposited on the outside of the crystal surface. Therefore, crystals are not
alive.
(c) Like living organisms, fungi absorb food to use it for energy to make compounds they need to grow,
and they also use DNA to reproduce like all other living organisms. So, fungi are considered living.
(d) There are essential requirements to define whether or not an organism is alive, namely; the potential
for reproduction, the potential for growth and change, and passing on hereditary information to
offspring. Therefore, bacteria can be considered alive.
125. Which of the following is the point at issue between Sampras and Agassi?
(a) whether definition of life should include independent evolution as a necessary condition
(b) whether viruses have the ability to evolve independently
(c) whether viruses can replicate independently
(d) whether replication in viruses be considered proof of them being alive
126. Which of the following may not find support from Agassi?
(a) Viruses are not pathogens.
(b) Viruses are living organisms.
(c) Viruses can replicate.
(d) Viruses do have a metabolism system of their own.
Passage Q.127. A World Bank funded online game that bills itself as a 10 week crash course in
changing the world, offers young users points for completing 10 weekly challenges that call for “world
changing” skills like collaboration, creativity, sustainability and local insight in its target continent, Africa. It
aims to get people aware of and engaged in solving real problems that people face in developing
countries.
Source: https://www.foxnews.com/tech/world-banks-online-game-isnt-a-real-world-solution-critics-say
127. Which of the following, if true, would cast the most serious doubt on the accuracy of the achievement of
the main aim?
(a) Users need not complete all 10 weekly challenges to become aware of the problems facing people in
developing countries.
(b) Africa has one of the lowest ratios for number of internet connections per lakh people.
(c) In spite of being funded, the game charges $1.5 per user per 10 week course and thus has earned
more than $80,000 since it was launched.
(d) The 10 weekly challenges have no similarity to the real problems faced by people in developing
countries.

MOCK CLAT #17
Passage (Q.128-Q.130): A recent study was conducted by Lovely Professional University on the fitness
levels of people living in cold regions like Kashmir, Ladakh and Jammu and from hot regions like
Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Orissa. On a scale of 1 to 10, if 1 is the best and 10 is the least in fitness and
health, the former scored from 2 to 4 while the latter scored from 8 to 10, in matters of not just fitness, but
overall health itself.
128. Which of the following if true, would most weaken the conclusion?
(a) Kashmir, Ladakh and Jammu are more conducive to healthy eating than Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and
Orissa.
(b) Hot places make people sweat a lot, eliminating the toxins from their bodies.
(c) The people in Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Orissa don’t have enough money to subsist, compared with
those in the colder regions mentioned in the study.
(d) There is no correlation between climate and health.
129. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the conclusion?

(a) People need to exercise often in order to keep themselves warm in cold climates.
(b) There are more women than men in Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Orissa as compared to Kashmir,
Ladakh and Jammu.
(c) The population of places like Kashmir, Ladakh and Jammu is scarce compared with that of
Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Orissa.
(d) Warm climates are easier to live in than cold ones.
130. What is the conclusion that can be drawn from the above?
(a) People who live in cold regions are healthier than those living in hot climates.
(b) Cold climates induce people to exercise well.
(c) Cold climates are more conducive to healthy living than hot ones.
(d) Cold climates are easier on people than hot ones.
Directions (Q.131): In the question, four statements are given followed by four conclusions. One of
which definitely does not logically follow (or is not a possibility of occurrence) from the given statements.
That conclusion is your answer.
131. Statements: Some logics are reasons.

All reasons are arguments.
All arguments are fights.
No fight is a discussion.
Conclusions
(a) All discussion being logics is a possibility
(b) No discussion is an argument
(c) All logics being discussion is a possibility
(d) All reasons are fights
Directions (Q.132 and Q.133): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Given an input, a machine generates pass codes for six batches each day as follows:
Input: these icons were taken out from the sea.
Pass Codes:
Batch I : from sea the out taken were icons these
Batch II : from icons these were taken out the sea.
Batch III : from icons out sea the taken were these
Batch IV : from icons out sea these were taken the and so on.
First batch starts at 10.00 a.m. and each batch is for one hour. There is a rest period of one hour after the
end of the fourth batch.

MOCK CLAT #17
132. What will be the pass code for the batch at 3.00 p.m. if input is “four of the following five form a group”?
(a) a five following form four group the of
(b) a five following form group the of four
(c) a five following form four of the group
(d) a five following form four group of the
133. If the pass code for the batch at 1:00 p.m. on a day was “back go here people who settle want to”, what
was the pass code for the batch at 3:00 p.m. on that day?
(a) back go here people settle who want to
(b) back go here people to want settle who
(c) back go here people settle to want who
(d) Cannot be determined
134. In a group of persons, 70% of the persons are male and 30% of the persons are married. If two sevenths
of males are married, what fraction of the females is single?
(a) 2/7 (b) 1/3 (c) 3/7 (d) 2/3
135. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Following are the
conditions for selecting Marketing manager in an organisation.
The candidate must
(i) be a Graduate in any discipline with atleast 55% marks.
(ii) have secured atleast 40% marks in the selection interview.
(iii) have post qualification work experience of atleast five years in the marketing division of an
organization.
(iv) have secured atleast 45% marks in the selection examination.
(v) have a post Graduate degeree/diploma in Marketing-Management with atleast 60% marks.
Which of the following condition show candidate is not selected?

(a) Candidate is daughter of a renowned freedom fighter from another state
(b) Candidate has a post Graduate degree in Finance with 60% marks
(c) Candidate has completed his graduation with 80% marks
(d) Candidate does not own a house in Noida
Directions (Q.136): In these questions, a statement is given followed by four inferences A, B, C and D.
Which of these definitely follows from the given statements?
136. 'Soldiers serve their country.'

(a) Those who serve their country are soldiers
(b) Women do no serve their country because they are not soldiers
(c) Men generally serve their country
(d) Some men who are soldiers serve their country
137. A3P means A is mother of P. A4P means A is brother of P. A9P means A is husband of P. A5P means A
is daughter of P. Which of the following means that K is the mother-in-law of M and J is the brother-in-law
of M?
(a) M 9 N 3 K 4 J (b) M 9 N 5 K 3 J
(b) K 5 J 9 M 3 N (d) None of these

MOCK CLAT #17
Turnover in No. of distributors

Rank Company 2002 in
(in Rs. Cr) 2002 (in lakhs)
1. Wamay 472 3.65
2. Codimare 165 4.95
3. Nova 110 0.68
4. Balife 78 0.2
138. What is the average simple annual growth rate of turnover of direct selling business in India during
the given period?
(a) 42% (b) 60% (c) 78% (d) 137.5%
139. If Wamayand Nova were the only companies in the direct selling business in India till 1998 with the
Wamaymarket share three times that of Nova, then what is the percentage growth in Nova’s turnover
during the given period?
(a) 10% (b) 15.6% (c) 35% (d) 46.7%
140. Balifewas launched in 2000. Since then, the number of its distributors is increasing by 25% every
year and its turnover by 20%.Then what was the approximate ratio of Balife turnover to number of
distributors during its launching year?
(a) 36120 (b) 39820 (c) 42320 (d) 45720
141. Which of the following is definitely false?

(a) The ratio of turnover to number of distributors is maximum for Balife during 2002.
(b) Top four companies together have more than 80% of total number of distributors in the direct
selling business in India during 2002.
(c) There are not more than18 companies in direct selling business in India during 2002.
(d) None of these
142. During which year, the ratio of turnover to number of distributors shown maximum percentage
increase over the previous year?
(a) 1999 (b) 2000 (c) 2001 (d) 2002

MOCK CLAT #17
Directions (Q.143-Q.145): The figure below represents the total number of students and the number of
girls in college ABC for the five years from 2005-06 to 2009-10. During this period, the total number of
students increased from 100 to 700, while the number of girls increased from 50 to 400.
800
700
700
600 550
500
400 400
400
300 250
200
200 150
100 100
100 50
0
2005-06 2006-07 2007-08 2008-09 2009-10
Number of girls Total number of students
143. If K is defined as the ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of students, then K was
maximum in the year
(a) 2005-06 (b) 2009-10 (c) 2007-08 (d) 2008-09
144. With reference to K as defined in question 3, it can be concluded that

(a) The value of K did not increase during the period from 2005-06 to 2006-07.
(b) The value of K did not decrease during the period from 2008-09 to 2009-10
(c) K remained constant during the period from 2007-08 to 2008-09
145. Difference in percentage point between the percentage increase in the number of girls and percentage
increase in the number of boys during in the given period is?
(a) 75% (b) 40% (c) 200% (d) 50%
Directions (Q.146-Q.150): Study the following table carefully to answer these questions.
Profit made (in Rs. 000) by six persons in the different days of a week.
Day
Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday
Person
P 9.5 8 7.6 12.3 14.35 13.7
Q 5.6 3.8 2.1 4.7 5 6.12
R 32.4 28.8 51 57 49.5 44.3
S 55 62.5 65.3 56.2 49.8 40
T 21.7 35.5 25.6 14.25 30 15.65
U 10.5 12 16.5 18 22.3 26.7
146. What is the average profit per day earned by ‘S’ in the given week?
(a) Rs. 54.8 (b) Rs. 62.5 (c) Rs. 54,800 (d) Rs. 6250
147. On which day, the profit of ‘P’ is maximum in percentage when compared to the previous day?
(a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday (c) Thursday (d) Friday

MOCK CLAT #17
148. What is the ratio of the total profit earned by ‘Q’ and ‘R’ on Monday, Tuesday and Friday to the total profit
earned by ‘T’ and ‘U’ on same day?
(a) 440/471 (b) 471/440 (c) 417/440 (d) 440/417
149. By what percent were R’s profit on Wednesday is more than the T’s profit on Saturday?
(a) 69.3% approx. (b) 225.88% approx. (c) 135.32% approx. (d) 242.5% approx.
150. Who among the P,Q, R, S, T, and U always earn more profit than the previous day?
(a) P (b) R (c) T (d) U

MOCK CLAT #17
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #17
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #17
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #18

Candidate Name : _________________
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
Test Centre/Hall.
MOCK CLAT #18
Directions(Q.1-Q.29): Read the passages carefully and answer the questions.
Passage(Q.1-Q.7):
If thou must love me, let it be for nought
Except for love's sake only. Do not say
I love her for her smile ... her look ... her way
Of speaking gently, ... for a trick of thought
That falls in well with mine, and certes brought
A sense of pleasant ease on such a day'—
For these things in themselves, Belovèd, may
Be changed, or change for thee,—and love, so wrought,
May be unwrought so. Neither love me for
Thine own dear pity's wiping my cheeks dry,—
A creature might forget to weep, who bore
Thy comfort long, and lose thy love thereby!
But love me for love's sake, that evermore
Thou may'st love on, through love's eternity.
If thou must love me, Elizabeth Barrett Browning
1. What is the main theme of the poem?

(a) Love (b) Joy (c) Sadness (d) Elation
2. What is the poetic form used by Browning to frame this work?

(a) Ballad (b) Haiku (c) Sonnet (d) Free verse
3. What does the speaker mean by saying ‘Let it be for nought’?

(a) through the words, the poet insists her lover to love her deeply
(b) through the words, the poet insists her lover to love her for her thoughts and nothing else
(c) through the words, the poet insists her lover to love her for nothing else, but love’s sake alone
(d) through the words, the poet insists her lover to love her for eternity
4. What does the poet mean by ‘Thine own dear pity’s wiping my cheeks dry’?
(a) The emotional connection between the lovers gets stronger every time her lover wipes her tears
(b) The love between the lovers is full of ups and downs and brings laughs as well as tears
(c) The love between them used to be beautiful but with age has decayed and that is the reason the poet
weeps
(d) The love between a man and a woman should not be based on one feeling sorry for the other and
wishing to wipe her tears.
5. Which of the following is true about the poem?

(a) The poet is listing down how love should not be
(b) The poet is saying that it is the mental connect that should be the reason of love between two people,
not their physical attributes.
(c) The poet is averse to love at first sight
(d) The poet is averse to love in general
6. What is the essence of the poem?

(a) love based on physical attributes does not last
(b) love based out of any reason, except for love itself, is vulnerable to time
(c) for love to last, the two lovers must go beyond the physical attributes and focus on each others’
mental attributes
(d) understanding each others’ sorrows is what is the meaning of true love.

MOCK CLAT #18
Passage(Q.7-Q.11):
Earth has not anything to show more fair:
Dull would he be of soul who could pass by
A sight so touching in its majesty:
This City now doth, like a garment, wear
The beauty of the morning; silent, bare,
Ships, towers, domes, theatres, and temples lie
Open unto the fields, and to the sky;
All bright and glittering in the smokeless air.
Never did sun more beautifully steep
In his first splendour, valley, rock, or hill;
Ne'er saw I, never felt, a calm so deep!
The river glideth at his own sweet will:
Dear God! the very houses seem asleep;
And all that mighty heart is lying still!
-Composed Upon Westminster Bridge, September 3, 1802, William Wordsworth
7. ‘Earth has not anything to show more fair’ what is the poet referring to as fair in this line?
(a) the morning sun (b) the city (c) the river (d) the ships
8. “The river glideth at his own sweet will” What literary device is used here?
(a) Personification (b) Simile (c) Motif (d) Allegory
9. What time of the day is the poet talking about?

(a) early morning (b) break of dawn
(c) early noon (d) late noon
10. Who does the poet call dull?

(a) One who doesn’t go take walks in the nature
(b) One who does not appreciate the beauty of the ship yards
(c) One who passes by this sight without appreciating it
(d) One who does not appreciate nature
11. What is the poet marveling at in the poem?

(a) The industrious city
(b) the magnificence of the ships and shipyard
(c) The serenity that encompasses the city
(d) the beauty of nature
Passage(Q.12-Q.15): About 75 million elderly people in India suffer from chronic diseases, shows the
first part of The Longitudinal Ageing Study in India (LASI), released last Wednesday. About 45 million
have cardiovascular diseases and hypertension; about 20 million suffer from diabetes; and 24% of the
elderly have difficulty in performing daily functions. With the demographic transition underway, from 9% in
2011, the 60-plus population is likely to go up to 20% in 2050.
The LASI study is a pressing reminder that India needs to invest substantial financial and human
resources in geriatric care. Traditional support systems have weakened over the years due to fewer
children in each family, increased employment opportunities for women, and the rise of nuclear families.
According to another study by Post Graduate Institute of Medical Education and Research (PGIMER),
Chandigarh, there is no specialised training in geriatrics in most medical schools. And whatever little
geriatric care is available, it is restricted to tertiary hospitals in urban areas and is prohibitively expensive.

MOCK CLAT #18
The Centre’s National Programme for the Health Care of Elderly in 2011 promises preventive, curative
and rehabilitative care, specialised training of health professionals, and aims to ensure full participation of
the elderly in society. To meet this objective, geriatric health care services must be made part of the
primary health care services. Importantly, as the PGIMER report says, the Centre must come up with a
comprehensive preventive package, which provides awareness regarding common geriatric problems
with a focus on nutrition, exercise, and the promotion of mental well-being.
12. What is the antonym of chronic?

(a) long term (b) persistent (c) acute (d) perennial
13. The change in demography will lead to which of the following phenomena?
(a) more than doubling over of geriatric population in the coming thirty years
(b) better geriatric care in local hospitals
(c) lesser geriatric population in every house because of nuclear families
(d) more research in the field of geriatrics
14. Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?
(a) the geriatric population in the country has been suffering from various kinds of ailments, some not
even commonly known.
(b) India has one of the worst medical treatments for the elderly in the world
(c) India makes up for a huge part of the global elderly population
(d) geriatric health care services are not a part of the primary health care services right now
15. Which of the following are not a traditional support system for the elderly?
(a) joint families (b) women of the house
(c) children of the house (d) delayed retirement
Passage(Q.16-Q.20): During the revolutions in France and Russia, palaces were looted and monarchs,
along with the aristocracy, were overthrown. In Afghanistan, after president Mohammed Najibullah was
publicly hanged, fundamentalists were seen dancing. In Iraq, American soldiers demolished fallen
dictator Saddam Hussein’s palaces. But the difference in the US is that the violence was instigated by the
President himself.
The problem with many politicians is that they think that power, once won, is a fundamental entitlement.
Donald Trump came to power by challenging existing traditions. His slogans such as America First and
Make America Great Again, with the accompanying exclusionary rhetoric, went against the liberal grain of
the US. He chose to overlook, and often demonise, those who came from different places, including
native Americans, African Americans and Hispanics.
Most people in the US recognise that it is diversity which makes the country a beacon of hope. This is
why a deep sense of regret has now set in among many sections. A number of Trump’s colleagues have
resigned. But there are some difficult questions that need to be answered. Now, at the end of his tenure,
there is pressure on Trump to resign. Even his own party leaders are upset with his behaviour. Much of
social media has banned him. Many are wondering about what further havoc he would wreak before he
steps down. There is a demand, and rightfully so, that he should be kept away from the nuclear button.
And Trump has no one to blame for all this but himself.
One of the biggest contributory factors to all this is the misuse of social media. When Trump chalked out
his election strategy back in 2016, he used professionals to map the predilections of people through
Facebook and Twitter. This enabled him to formulate misleading slogans and promises for his campaign.
Great leaders in the past were able to gauge the popular pulse through their own instincts and their
movements were constructive and peaceful. Today, many politicians want instant gratification, instant
results. For this, they have armed themselves with the often false information generated on social media.
Politicians across the world need to realise that the genie released by false social media information is
out of the bottle. The US must lead by example given the resilience of its democratic institutions in
battling this scourge. Karl Marx once called for workers of the world to unite. The time has now come for
all those who espouse democracy across the world to unite.

MOCK CLAT #18
16. What is the key difference between the revolutions in France, Russia, Afghanistan and Iraq on one hand
and the U.S. on the other?
(a) no palaces were looted in the U.S.
(b) The president was not hanged in the U.S.
(c) the guardian of democracy himself usurped it
(d) the purpose of revolution was noble in the other countries
17. Which of the following cannot be inferred about Trump from the passage?
(a) Trump is not liberal in his ideologies
(b) Trump is inclusive towards non-Americans while making policies
(c) Trump does not appreciate the diversity that U.S.A comprises
(d) Trump is being pressurized to step down form power
18. According to the passage, which of the following statements are false about social media?
(a) Trump wrongfully used social media to win elections
(b) Today, politicians seek instant gratification by use of social media
(c) Politicians nowadays do not shy away from using social media generated fake news as a weapon
(d) Social media, when it comes to politics, has never been a very reliable tool in making decisions.
19. The U.S. must lead by example in battling what scourge, according to the passage?
(a) the negative use and impact of social media on politics
(b) the extremism that leaders like Trump follow
(c) the disruption of the democratic strand by right leaning groups
(d) using political power to create differences in various communities
20. What is the synonym of “espouse”?

(a) support (b) justify (c) breach (d) believe
Passage(Q.21-Q.25):
I leant upon a coppice gate
When Frost was spectre-grey,
And Winter's dregs made desolate
The weakening eye of day.
The tangled bine-stems scored the sky

Like strings of broken lyres,
And all mankind that haunted nigh
Had sought their household fires.
The land's sharp features seemed to be

The Century's corpse outleant,
His crypt the cloudy canopy,
The wind his death-lament.
The ancient pulse of germ and birth
Was shrunken hard and dry,
And every spirit upon earth
Seemed fervourless as I.
At once a voice arose among
The bleak twigs overhead
In a full-hearted evensong
Of joy illimited;
An aged thrush, frail, gaunt, and small,
In blast-beruffled plume,
Had chosen thus to fling his soul

MOCK CLAT #18
Upon the growing gloom.

So little cause for carolings
Of such ecstatic sound
Was written on terrestrial things
Afar or nigh around,
That I could think there trembled through
His happy good-night air
Some blessed Hope, whereof he knew
And I was unaware.
-The Darkling Thrush, by Thomas Hardy
21. What is the tone of the poem?

(a) somber (b) cheerful (c) hopeful (d) horrifying
22. Which of the following is an example of hyperbole?

(a) "so little cause for carolings/ of such ecstatic sound"
(b) "all mankind that haunted nigh/ had sought their household fires."
(c) "at once a voice arose among/ the bleak twigs"
(d) "every spirit upon earth/ seemed fervourless as I."
23. Which of the following best expresses the meaning of "outleant" in line 10?
(a) leaning out (b) revived (c) on display (d) escaped
24. The poem talks about the death of which of the following?
(a) the outgoing century (b) the thrush
(c) the climbers on the wall (d) the people of the village
25. In the last stanza, what is the poet unaware of?

(a) Why the world around him is dreary and gloomy
(b) Why are the streets empty and devoid of public
(c) The cause behind the thrush’s cheerful singing
(d) The reason behind the cloud canopy
Passage(Q.26-Q.29):
Two roads diverged in a yellow wood,
And sorry I could not travel both
And be one traveler, long I stood
And looked down one as far as I could
To where it bent in the undergrowth;
Then took the other, as just as fair,
And having perhaps the better claim
Because it was grassy and wanted wear,
Though as for that the passing there
Had worn them really about the same,
And both that morning equally lay
In leaves no step had trodden black.
Oh, I kept the first for another day!
Yet knowing how way leads on to way
I doubted if I should ever come back.
I shall be telling this with a sigh
Somewhere ages and ages hence:
Two roads diverged in a wood, and I,
I took the one less traveled by,
And that has made all the difference.

MOCK CLAT #18
- The road not taken, by Robert Frost
26. Why are the trees yellow?

(a) It is autumn (b) The trees are beech trees
(c) The trees are laden with yellow flowers (d) It is a play on imagery by the poet
27. Why does the poet say that the other road has the better claim?
(a) because it was greener
(b) because it seemed less walked upon
(c) because he wanted to come back to it again
(d) because it seemed like a safer option
28. What does the poet mean by, “Oh, I kept the first for another day!”
(a) He postponed his travel to some other day
(b) He got confused between the roads and decided to come back another day
(c) He felt that both the roads were equally enchanting, and while he chose one, he will travel on the
other some other day
(d) he regretted taking the one that he did, and decided to pursue the first road some other day
29. What was the poet’s opinion about both the roads?
(a) They were both the same
(b) They were both challenging in their own ways
(c) They both led to rewarding outcomes
(d) One was less travelled and one was more worn

MOCK CLAT #18
Passage (Q.30-Q.34): Israel's new government, headed once again by Prime Minister [1], was sworn
into office on May 17, 2020 ending nearly a year-and-a-half of political stalemate involving three stormy
elections and multiple rounds of coalition negotiations.
The ceremony, which took place in Israel’s parliament, known as [2], in accordance
with coronavirus social distancing directives, marked a fifth term for [1]and the first time an Israeli
leader indicted on criminal charges will formally lead the country.
[1] opened the televised ceremony with a speech, followed by Benny Gantz, a onetime rival turned
partner, who will serve in the specially created role of alternate prime minister, as well as defence
minister, for the first 18 months of the term before taking over the top job for an equal period.
The rotation is part of a complicated and somewhat unprecedented coalition agreement between [1]’s
right-wing bloc of political parties and Gantz’s much smaller Blue and White faction. Under the deal, both
leaders will be responsible for the ministers from his own faction and have the power to veto certain
government decisions made by the other side. The arrangement has also produced the largest and
perhaps most politically broad government in Israel’s history. It could spare Israelis another round of
elections for at least three years, but could also hamper its ability to function.
Source:https://www.washingtonpost.com/world/middle_east/after-three-elections-and-political-deadlock-
israel-finally-swears-in-new-government/2020/05/17/ba25e752-9807-11ea-87a3-
22d324235636_story.html
30. Which of the following will replace [1] in the passage above?
(a) Ehud Olmert
(b) Benjamin Netanyahu
(c) NikolPashinyan
(d) Florin Citu

(a) Diet
(b) Oireachtas
(c) Eduskusta
(d) Knesset
32. What is the name of intelligence agency of Israel?

(a) Mossad
(b) FSB
(c) ASIS
(d) Mi6
33. What is the capital of Israel?

(a) Tel Aviv
(b) Jerusalem
(c) Gaza
(d) Netanya
34. What is the most widely spoken language in Israel?

(a) English
(b) Russian
(c) Hebrew
(d) Arabic

MOCK CLAT #18
(Passage Q.35-Q.39):Recent clashes between India and China over the Line of Actual Control (LAC)
have created a potential existential crisis for the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO). The dispute
flared up in May of this year, escalating in June and resulting in the first deaths of Indian soldiers at the
hands of Peoples’ Liberation Army (PLA) soldiers since 1967. Both China and India are members of the
SCO cooperative security framework, which faces pressure to resolve the stand-off. Such pressure is
increased by the potential for the border dispute to expand into a greater conflict between the two
nuclear-armed powers.
The crisis erupted when China pushed back against Indian road construction, with Chinese troops
repeatedly intruding across the LAC and into de facto Indian Territory at various points along the Galwan
valley, Pangong Tso, Hot Springs, and Depsang in the eastern Ladakh region. On June 15, PLA troops
clashed with Indian Army soldiers. No firearms were used, as they had been banned by previous
agreements, but casualties occurred on both sides.India and China traded blame for the outbreak of
violence, and at the time of writing the specific origins of the incident remain uncertain. Notably, the
Galwan valley is an extension of the disputed Aksai Chin region, which China claims in its entirety. The
Aksai Chin serves as a strategic corridor between China’s provincial-level Tibet Autonomous Region
(TAR) and Xinjiang Uighur Autonomous Region (XUAR), and is seen by China’s leadership as being
strategically vital to domestic security.
Source: https://jamestown.org/program/the-shanghai-cooperation-organizations-limited-role-in-easing-
tensions-between-china-and-india/
35. What was Shanghai Cooperation Organization previously called?

(a) G-5
(b) Shanghai Five
(c) ASEAN
(d) OPEC
36. When did India formally joined Shanghai Cooperation Organization?

(a) 2005
(b) 2010
(c) 2017
(d) 2020
37. Where is the HQ of Shanghai Cooperation Organization?

(a) Hong Kong
(b) Shanghai
(c) Beijing
(d) Wuhan
38. How many members are there in Shanghai Cooperation Organization?

(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 5
(d) 15
39. Which of the following statements regarding Shanghai Cooperation Organization is/are correct?
S1: Following the accession of Uzbekistan to the organisation in 2001, the Shanghai Five was renamed
the Shanghai Cooperation Organization.
S2: India and Pakistan joined the organization in 2017.
(a) Statement 1 is correct but 2 is false
(b) Statement 2 is correct but 1 is false
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are false

MOCK CLAT #18
(Passage Q.40-Q.43):In the backdrop of the coronavirus outbreak, the first phase of Census 2021 and
the updation of National Population Register (NPR) has been postponed until further orders in Uttar
Pradesh, informed the state government. The Census 2021 was scheduled to be conducted in two
phases - Phase I that is House Listing and Housing Census during April-September, 2020 and Phase II
that is Population Enumeration from February 9 to February 28, 2021. The updation of NPR was also
proposed to be done along with the Phase I of Census 2021 in all the States and Union Territories,
except [1]. The first phase of Census 2021 and updation of NPR, which was to begin on various dates
decided by the State/UT governments beginning April 1 and various related field activities, was
postponed after the Ministry of Home Affairs issued an order with regard to the same.
Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/national-population-register-npr-2021-exercise-
postponed-in-up-in-view-of-covid-19-pandemic/articleshowprint/75774122.cms
40. Which of the following will replace [1] from the following?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Nagaland
(d) Assam
41. The NPR is being prepared under provisions of which act?

(a) National Population (Registration) Act, 2020
(b) Citizenship Act, 1955
(c) National Registration of Citizens Act, 2020
(d) The Census Act, 1948
42. Which authority will conduct NPR throughout India?

(a) Registrar General of India
(b) Comptroller Auditor and General of India
(c) Central Vigilance Commission
(d) Election Commission of India
43. Which of the following statements are correct regarding NPR?

S1: The NPR is a database containing a list of all usual residents of the country.
S2: A usual resident for the purposes of NPR is a person who has resided in a place for eighteen months
or more and intends to reside there for another eighteen months or more.
(a) Statement 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect
(b) Statement 2 is correct but 1 is incorrect
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both are incorrect.
(Passage Q.44-Q.48):U.S. President Donald Trump on 15th September 2020 hosted Prime Minister of [1]
Benjamin Netanyahu and foreign ministers of the United Arab Emirates and Bahrain for the signing of the
historic Abraham Accord, which is the first Arab-[1] peace deal in 26 years.
“We are here this afternoon to change the course of history. After decades of division and conflict we
mark the dawn of a new Middle East,” Trump said, moments before the accord was signed at the South
Lawns of the White House.
The UAE was represented by Foreign Minister Abdullah bin Zayed and Bahrain by Foreign Minister
Abdullatif Al Zayani. The Arab Accord essentially bilateral agreements with [1] does not mention the [1]-
Palestinian conflict.
“Thanks to the great courage of the leaders of these three countries we take a major stride towards a
future in which people of all faiths and backgrounds live together in peace and prosperity,” Trump said.
As per the agreements, the UAE and Bahrain will establish embassies, exchange ambassadors,
cooperate and work together with [1] across a range of sectors, including tourism, trade, healthcare and
security.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/israel-uae-and-bahrain-sign-abraham-accord-
trump-says-dawn-of-new-middle-east/article32616867.ece

MOCK CLAT #18

(a) Syria
(b) Italy
(c) Russia
(d) Israel
45. Who is the president of UAE?

(a) Khalifa Bin Zayed Al Nahyan
(b) Mohammad Bin Rashid
(c) Mohammad Bin Salman
(d) BarhamSalih
46. Which was the first Arab State to sign a deal with Israel in 1979?
(a) Palestine
(b) Egypt
(c) Saudi Arabia
(d) United Arab Emirates
47. In which of the following cities does the famous Al-Aqsa Mosque situated?
(a) Tel Aviv
(b) Mecca
(c) Jerusalem
(d) Medina
48. Which of the following is the capital of Bahrain?

(a) Manama
(b) Astana
(c) Tripoli
(d) Beirut
(Passage Q.49-Q.53):In a deal brokered by United States President Donald Trump’s outgoing
administration, Morocco became the latest Arab country to normalise ties with Israel.
As part of the agreement announced on 10th December 2020, Trump agreed to recognise Morocco’s
sovereignty over the disputed territory of Western Sahara, where there has been a decades-old dispute
with Morocco pitted against the Polisario Front. The Algeria-backed breakaway movement Polisario Front
seeks to establish an independent state in the region.
Western Sahara has been on the United Nations list of non-self-governing territories, a stance also taken
by the African Union, the International Court of Justice (ICJ), as well as the European Union. The conflict
ignited after Spain’s colonial withdrawal from the region in 1975, leaving Mauritania, Morocco and the
Polisario Front in an entrenched conflict over its sovereignty. The same year, the ICJ, while recognising
Morocco and Mauritania’s historical ties to the area, filed an advisory opinion which stated those ties,
which are central to Morocco’s sovereignty claim, did not amount to ownership over the territory.
The Polisario Front, which represents the Sahrawi Arab Democratic Republic from exile in Tindouf,
Algeria, made peace with Mauritania in 1979. But pockets of fighting with Morocco continued until 1991
when the two parties reached an agreement which called for a referendum to be held, while preserving
the status quo of the time and the implementation of a UN-backed buffer zone.
Source: https://www.aljazeera.com/news/2020/12/11/western-sahara-conflict-in-500-words
49. How many countries are there in the African Continent?

(a) 34
(b) 44
(c) 54
(d) 64

MOCK CLAT #18
50. Which is the Largest Hot desert in the world?

(a) Gobi
(b) Sahara
(c) Namib
(d) Sonoran
51. What is the capital of Morocco?
(a) Marrakesh
(b) Rabat
(c) Casablanca
(d) Bamako
52. Which Ocean lies along the border of Western Sahara?
(a) North Pacific Ocean
(b) b) South Pacific Ocean
(c) c) North Atlantic Ocean
(d) d) South Atlantic Ocean
53. Which of the following straits separates Spain in Europe from Morocco in Africa?
(a) Mesina Strait
(b) Bab-el-Mandeb Strait
(c) Bering Strait
(d) Strait of Gibraltar
(Passage Q.54-Q.58):A few weeks ago, news broke that a more transmissible strain of the coronavirus,
the B.1.1.7 lineage, has been circling around in [1].
The strain, thought to be up to 70 percent more transmissible than the original strain, thrust the [1] into a
lockdown. And the B.1.1.7 lineage has already been detected in several locations in the United States.
On Jan. 4, South African health officials announced they, too, have detected a new, seemingly more
contagious strain. Called the B.1.351 lineage, the new strain identified in South Africa is thought to be
more transmissible.
It’s no surprise that the coronavirus has mutated — that’s what viruses do. Most mutations are useless,
but every so often, a mutation will improve a virus’s ability to infect people. Given the swift spread of the
new variants, experts suspect the new strains contain mutations that make it easier for the virus to bind to
our cells.
Source: https://www.healthline.com/health-news/the-coronavirus-is-mutating-what-we-know-about-the-
new-variants#A-new-strain-in-South-Africa
(a) Italy
(b) Spain
(c) United Kingdom
(d) United States
55. A mutation in an RNA virus often happens when the virus makes a mistake while it is making copies of
itself. What is the full form of RNA?
(a) Rabid Nucleic Acid
(b) Ribonucleic Acid
(c) Radioactive Nucleic Acid
(d) Reverse Mutation Nucleic Acid
56. In which of the following cities was the first case of Covid-19 detected?
(a) Beijing
(b) Shanghai
(c) Hong Kong
(d) Wuhan

MOCK CLAT #18
57. Which of the following Prime Minister cancelled his visit to India to be the chief guest at India's Republic
Day parade on January 26?
(a) Boris Johnson (UK)
(b) MahindaRajapaksa (Sri Lanka)
(c) Prayut Chan-o-cha (Thailand)
(d) Saad Hariri (Lebanon)
58. What is the name of the Vaccine indigenously developed by Bharat-Biotech in India?
(a) Covishield
(b) Covaxin
(c) CoviGuard
(d) Coronil
(Passage Q.59-Q.64):Protesting farmer leaders on January 14 said they will attend the ninth round of
talks with the government amid indication that it may be the last such meeting with the Centre, but added
that they don’t have much hope as they will not settle for anything less than the repeal of the contentious
farm laws.
Since a Supreme Court-appointed panel on farm laws is likely to hold its first meeting on January 19, the
meeting on January 15 between with the government and the unions may be the last one. BhartiyaKisan
Union (EktaUgrahan) Joginder Singh Ugrahan said, “We are going to hold talks with the government
tomorrow. We don’t have much hope from the Friday meeting as the government will cite the SC-
appointed panel. The government doesn’t have good intention to resolve our issues.” Mr.Ugrahan said
that the unions do not want any committee, adding “we just want a complete repeal of three farm laws
and legal guarantee on minimum support price for our crops”. He said that farmers will not call off their
protest until their demands are met.
While the previous eight rounds of negotiations have failed to end the protests continuing for several
weeks on various borders of the national capital, Agriculture Minister [1] said earlier in the day that the
government is hopeful of positive discussions at the scheduled January 15 meeting.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/farmers-protest-farmers-to-attend-ninth-round-of-talks-
with-government-without-much-hope/article33576862.ece
59. Which of the following act/acts sparked strong protests from farmers, especially from the states of Punjab
and Haryana?
(a) The Farmers' Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Bill, 2020
(b) The Farmers (Empowerment and Protection) Agreement of Price Assurance and Farm Services Bill,
2020
(c) Essential Commodities (Amendment) Bill, 2020.
60. APMC is a marketing board established by state governments in India to ensure farmers are safeguarded
from exploitation by large retailers. What does it stand for?
(a) Agricultural Produce Market Committee
(b) Agricultural Product Market Community
(c) Agricultural Product Market Committee
(d) Agricultural Produce Market Community
61. What are the Commission Agents in the State of Punjab known as?
(a) Arhtiyas (b) Kamartiyas
(c) Jamartiyas (d) Dalaliyas
62. Which Article of the Constitution places “agriculture” and “markets and fairs” in the State List?
(a) Article 244
(b) Article 245
(c) Article 246
(d) Article 247

MOCK CLAT #18
63. How many crops are covered under Minimum Support Price?
(a) 13
(b) 23
(c) 33
(d) 44

(a) Dharmendra Pradhan
(b) Ramesh Pokhriyal
(c) Pralhad Joshi
(d) Narendra Singh Tomar
(Passage Q.65-Q.68):The government is likely to amend the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) to
introduce pre-packs as a resolution mechanism, according to a government official aware of the
developments.
A pre-pack is an agreement for a distressed company’s debt resolution between secured creditors and
investors instead of a public bidding process, as under the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process
(CIRP) of the IBC. The Corporate Affairs Ministry formed a committee led by [1], chairperson of the
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India, to look into including pre-packs as a resolution mechanism
under the IBC. Pre-packs may also offer an alternative for creditors to initiate insolvency proceedings as
the government has suspended initiation of fresh cases for any defaults occurring post-March. The
government, in June, issued an Ordinance preventing initiation of insolvency proceedings against
companies for defaults in the six-month period starting March 25 under the IBC and, subsequently,
extended the suspension till March 24, 2021.
Non-adherence of prescribed timelines under the IBC is a key criticism that the government is seeking to
address through the inclusion of pre-packs under the IBC, with 1,442 of a total 1,942 ongoing insolvency
proceedings having passed the 270-day mark.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/banking-and-finance/eyeing-faster-resolution-govt-
may-amend-ibc-to-bring-in-pre-packs-7140069/

(a) Dr. M.S. Sahoo
(b) Sunil Arora
(c) G.S. Murmu
(d) Arvind Kumar
66. In which year was IBC introduced?

(a) 2012
(b) 2014
(c) 2016
(d) 2018
67. What is the duration of moratorium period granted under IBC for Companies?
(a) 60 days
(b) 90 days
(c) 180 days
(d) 360 days
68. Who is the Finance Minister of India?

(a) ArunJaitley
(b) NirmalaSitharaman
(c) Rajnath Singh
(d) SmritiIrani

MOCK CLAT #18
Directions (Q.69 – Q.104): Read thecomprehension carefully and answer the questions based on it.
(Passage Q.69-Q.73):Custodial death is one of the worst crimes in a civilized society governed by Rule
of Law. Does a citizen shed off his fundamental right to life, the moment a policeman arrests him? Can
the right to life of a citizen be put in abeyance on his arrest? The answer, indeed, has to be an emphatic
‘No’. In cases of police torture or custodial death, it is rare that direct ocular evidence of the complicity of
the police personnel would be available. To take care of this problem, the law has envisaged a process of
mandatory parallel Magisterial Inquiry in addition to the inquiry or investigation held by the police,
immediately after the incident, as per S.176(1A) of the CrPC. It deals with cases of death, disappearance
or rape in police custody. This inquiry cannot be done by an Executive Magistrate and must be carried
out by a Judicial Magistrate who within 24 hours of the death of the person, forward the body with a view
to it being examined to the nearest Civil Surgeon.
Registration of FIR in a case of custodial death is mandatory but despite the mandatory nature of this
provision, its compliance is highly rare. Therefore S.154A of CrPC gives right to any person aggrieved by
a refusal on the part of an officer in charge of a police station to record the information in cases relating to
custodial offences, may file a petition before the Chief Judicial Magistrate, in case of custodial offences
other than those involving death of the victim, or before the Sessions Judge, in cases of custodial
offences involving death of the victim.
The SC was of the opinion that protection of S.197 CrPC which provides sanction to prosecute police
officers accused of custodial torture was not available for offences which have no connection with official
duties. The defence of S.197 CrPC was raised by accused officers in many cases of custodial torture.
Therefore the law commission recommended that the provisions of this section do not apply to any
offence committed by a judge or public servant, being an offence against the human body committed in
respect of a person in his custody, nor to any offence constituting an abuse of authority. But this
recommendation has not been acted upon yet.
[‘Custodial Deaths: What Is The Procedure For Inquiry?’ Live Law <https://www.livelaw.in/know-the-
law/custodial-deaths-what-is-the-procedure-for-inquiry-159030> accessed on 5th July 2020]
69. On 22nd January 2020, communal riots were incited in the NCR of Delhi. The police officers of the
concerned area arrested Shashi, a member of the riot. During investigation the police officers asked him
to reveal the names of all the leaders to save his life. He refused to answer them and remained silent.
The Inspector of the station in order to break his silence kicked and punched him due to which Shashi
suffered many injuries. Ritesh, another member of the riot went to register FIR but the police officer
refused to do so. He then went to the Sessions judge to file a petition against the police officer for
refusing to file the FIR. The Sessions judge rejected the petition. Decide:
(a) The Sessions judge was wrong in doing so because it was his duty to initiate a mandatory inquiry as
per S.176(1A) of the CrPC.
(b) The Sessions judge was wrong in doing so because the registration of FIR is a mandatory provision
of CrPC in case of cognizable offences and the police officer in refusing to do so violated the
provisions of CrPC.
(c) The Sessions judge was right in doing so because the police officer has the protection of s.197 of
CrPC which provides sanction to prosecute police officers accused of custodial torture.
(d) The Sessions judge was right in doing so because in case of custodial offences other than those
involving death of the victim the petition should be filed before the Chief Judicial Magistrate.
70. Jeevan and Mayank are brothers. Due to some property dispute fight broke off between them and they
hit each other with lathis. Both suffered many injuries. Rajesh, their neighbour, tried to stop them and in
the meanwhile to avoid him Jeevan pushed his brother who suffered serious head injuries and died. The
police arrested Jeevan. Rajesh went to the police station to give his statement where Jeevan was also
present. He was outraged to see him and started abusing and kicking him. The police officer in order to
quiet him pushed him in the lock up and he hit his head and suffered injury. He filed a petition to the CJM.
The police officer took the defence of s. 197 of CrPC. Decide:

MOCK CLAT #18
(a) The police officer will be absolved because the act was committed by him in the connection of his
official duties.
(b) The police officer will not be absolved because the sanction of s.197 does not apply to any offence
committed by a public servant, against the human body committed in respect of a person in his
custody.
(c) The police officer will be absolved because he was only discharging his duty and since there were
already injuries on the head of Jeevan, it cannot be concluded if he was saying truth.
(d) The police officer will not be absolved because the act of pushing done by him was not in connection
of his official duty.
71. Shree was convicted of murder of Alia, a famous Bollywood singer, and was sentenced for life
imprisonment. Some of the prisoners and officers were staunch fan of her and left no chance to harm him
and always threatened to kill him. He was scared and tried to escape from prison twice to save his life.
But he was unsuccessful. Suddenly he was disappeared and police started searching for him. Later he
was found dead on the terrace of the prison building after 3 days. Shree’s wife wants justice for him.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) She should register an FIR and it is mandatory for the police to register in a case of custodial death.
(b) She should file a petition to the magistrate against the police officers complaining about the threats
and abuses they use to project towards Shree and accusing them for the disappearing and then
killing Shree.
(c) She should not go to the Executive magistrate since there is no substantive proof that Shree was
killed by the police officers during custodial violence and that Shree has many enemies in the prison.
(d) She should go to the Judicial magistrate to file a complaint who is to initiate magisterial inquiry in
addition to the inquiry or investigation held by the police for the disappearance and death of Shree.
72. Riya and Naman fell in love during their college. They wanted to marry but their families were against it.
So they decided to run away and get married. But before they could do so Naman got in a fight with
Riya’s brother and was arrested for disturbing public peace. Riya’s uncle was the officer in charge of the
police station. He told Naman to go away from Riya’s life otherwise he will charge him for various
offences and he will have to spend the rest of his life in prison. He tried to escape and so the officer shot
him and he died. He took the defence of s.197. Decide:
(a) He will get the defence as although he had a personal clash with Naman still the act done by him is in
furtherance of discharging his official duty. He shot at Naman because he was trying to escape and it
was his duty to stop him.
(b) He will not get the defence as the sanction of s.197 does not apply to any offence constituting an
abuse of authority. The force used by him was unreasonable and an abuse of his authority.
(c) He will not get the defence as the act done by him was of malicious intent and there is no reasonable
connection between the act of shooting and the discharge of his official duty.
(d) He will get the defence as it was not custodial death and he is a public servant and can use force to
stop anything wrong happening.
73. With the context of above question, NirmalJeeven, an NGO working for disabled people went to the
police station to register an FIR for the death of Naman but the police officers refused to do so as Naman
was killed while escaping from the jail. They went to the Sessions Judge to file the complaint but the
judge refused to do so. Was he right in doing so?
(a) No, because if a person is refused by officer in charge of a police station to record the information,
they may file a petition before Sessions Judge.
(b) Yes, because the NGO has no nexus with Naman and so they could not file any complaint on behalf
of him or his family.
(c) Yes, because the person filing the complaint should be Riya or any family member of Naman and
since the act was committed while he was running from jail so it is not custodial death and so there
can be no complain.
(d) No, because instead of rejecting the complaint he should have asked the chief judicial magistrate to
look into the matter as it was his power to do so.

MOCK CLAT #18
(Passage Q.74-Q.77): Noting the frailties in Centre-State relations in our quasi-federal setup, the
Punchhi Commission in its famous report gave out guidelines delineating the role of Governor in
appointment of a Chief Minister in situations of hung assembly. The guidelines were given out in wake of
large uproar against the alleged misuse of office of Governor by the Central Government against an
opposite party in power in the State. A hung assembly is a situation wherein no individual political party
or an alliance thereof possesses a clear majority (i.e. fails to cross the 50% seat mark) and hence unable
to form any working government. Giving the Governor guidelines to follow in such situations, the
Commission said:
1. The party or combination of parties which commands the widest support in the Legislative Assembly
should be called upon to form the Government
2. If there is a pre-poll alliance or coalition, then it should be treated as one political party and leader of
such alliance should be called upon to form Government upon attaining majority
3. The following order of preference should be followed:
(a) Group of parties having pre-poll alliance commanding largest number of seats
(b) Single largest party staking claim to form government with support of others
(c) Group of parties forming post electoral alliance
(d) Post electoral alliance with some parties joining the government and remaining including
independents supporting the government from outside. Upon formation of alliance in post electoral
circumstances, the newly chosen Chief Minister is called upon to prove majority in the Assembly by a
vote of confidence.
74. In the recently concluded elections in State A, the 2 major political parties (Conservatives and Liberals)
ended up winning 45% seats each in the legislative assembly. The remaining 10% seats got scattered
amongst various independent candidates. All the independent candidates having won the seats had a
pre-poll alliance of forming government with the position of Chief Minister being chosen by lottery after
release of election results. However, even when they miserably failed to obtain seats they stood with their
alliance and refused to support any political party. With other political parties not breaching the 50%
mark, it was a situation of hung assembly. The Liberals somehow managed to secure support of 6% of
the independent seats and wrote to the Governor claiming majority and request to allow formation of
government. The Governor allowed the move. However, the break of alliance of independents was
challenged by the remaining independent candidates and case was taken before the Supreme Court.
Would the action succeed?
(a) Yes, attempt to form alliance by Liberals does not amount to a pre-poll alliance and hence not
acceptable.
(b) Yes, breaking an already existing pre-poll alliance to secure support amounts to causing defection
and hence anti-defection law would be attracted
(c) No, post poll alliance did not include an alliance with other parties but only independent candidates
(d) No, a post poll alliance is acceptable with newly formed government being subject to vote of
confidence, evidencing sufficient support
75. In State B, the two major political parties (Democrats and Republicans) had agreed on a pre-poll alliance
for formation of government. The position of Chief Minister was agreed to be held by a candidate from the
Democrats party irrespective of the total seats secured by either parties. In a unique turn out of events,
Democrats (an otherwise political heavyweight in the state) ended up securing only 30% seats with
Republicans securing 48% seats. The remaining 22% seats got scattered amongst other political parties.
The pre-poll alliance fell apart with Republicans now changing mind to give away the Chief Minister’s
position. The Governor instead of inviting the pre-poll coalition of Democrats and Republicans to form
government imposed President’s rule citing insufficient majority with either party to form a government.
The Republicans secured support from several small parties and reaching 50% mark approached the
Governor to form government. The Governor did not allow. Action was brought against the Governor. Will
it succeed?
(a) No, since the Governor should give priority to only pre-poll alliances
(b) Yes, the Governor imposed President’s rule to support the sentiment of Democrats
(c) Yes, a post poll alliance can be invited to form government if a pre-poll alliance breaks
(d) No, since the Governor was acting neutrally by seeing the pre-poll coalition as one political party

MOCK CLAT #18
76. State C has a legislative assembly with total 200 seats. Upon successful completion of elections Party X
with support of Party Y comfortably secured 101 seats and Party Z secured 90 seats with remaining 9
seats being won by independents. The Governor instead of promptly inviting Party X+Y to form
government prioritized other official duties and which resulted in delay in the formation of government.
Meanwhile Party Z secured support of 5 candidates from Party Y and who upon resigning from Party Y
independently supported Party Z. Now Party Z ended up securing support of all 14 independent
candidates and claimed to have majority to form government. The Governor meanwhile got free from
other duties and invited leader of Party Z to form government. Was the action correct?
(a) Yes, Governor could not control individual choices of candidates in Party X. Their choice to support
Party Z was an independent decision
(b) Yes, Governor has to allow a post-poll alliance securing sufficient majority. Also, there is no specific
time-frame to invite a party to form government.
(c) No, Governor’s action of delaying the invitation seem with an ulterior objective to prevent Party X from
forming any government
(d) Yes, Governor rightly foresaw a hung assembly in future and dutifully decided to wait for Party Z to
come up with a more stable coalition
77. State D has a very fragmented political landscape with several political ideologies flourishing in the State
and each one enjoying considerable support. Parties P and Q agreed upon a pre-poll alliance against
Party R and contested the elections. In the results, P and Q combined secured 47% seats and R secured
48% seats. Before R party could secure support from remaining 5% seats, P and Q pounced upon the
seats and secured their support with threat and coercion, thus leading to a support of 52%. They
approached the Governor to allow forming government. The Governor allowed the coalition to form a
government. In a surprise turn out of events, the 5% candidates voted against the coalition during vote of
confidence. Party R then requested their support and formed a government with their support.
Government formed by R was challenged by P and Q before court. Will the action succeed?
(a) Yes, P and Q had secured a perfect post poll alliance which R dismantled to form government on its
own
(b) Yes, Governor should have ordered re-election since there was no clear majority with either parties
(c) No, independent candidates’ choice to vote against P and Q cannot be questioned in any court.
Governor merely followed procedure as prescribed
(d) No, there could be multiple post poll alliances by and between different political parties with various
combinations possible. Independents now supporting R is also valid
(Passage Q.78-Q.82): The Indian Telegraph Act,1885 defines ‘telegraph’ “any appliance, instrument,
material or apparatus used or capable of use for transmission or reception of signs, signals, writing,
images and sounds or intelligence of any –nature by wire, visual or other electromagnetic emissions,
Radio waves or Hertzian waves, galvanic, electric or magnetic means. An explanation is added to section
3(1AA), which says that ‘radio waves’ or ‘Hertzian waves’ means electromagnetic waves that have
frequencies lower than 3,000 giga-cycles/second propagated in space without artificial guide.
No private individual has the right to incept the communication of another individual, only the government
of India has the power to take possession of any licensed telegraphs in case of a public emergency or in
the interest of public safety. Section 5 states, where the government can order interception of
communication and reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the right to privacy in the interests of the
“sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the state, friendly relation with foreign states or public
order or for preventing incitement to the commission of an offence”.
Wiretapping is of two types first is Passive, which is completely legal because it can only be done by the
government by following proper procedure and the second one is Active wiretapping/illegal interception
where the attachment made to an unauthorized device to gain every single access to data for instance by
generating false messages, etc. The act of telephone tapping affects the right to privacy of an individual
as well as the right to freedom of speech and expression, both are Fundamental Rights under the
Constitution.
There are two statutory pre-conditions for the exercise of the power to intercept, either the “occurrence of
any public emergency” or “the interest of public safety”. Central Government or a State Government or

MOCK CLAT #18
any of its officers specially authorised by the Central Government or the State Government, as the case
may be to exercise powers of interception, under the IT act 2000.
For obtaining orders in remote areas, Interception rules, 2009 state that it would be permissible to carry
out interception after obtaining the orders of the Head or Second Senior most officer of security and law
enforcement at the Central level, and an authorized officer not below the rank of Inspector General of
Police at the State or Union Territory Level.
78. Abdul and Razia were a happily married couple. After few years of their marriage, things between them
started to change. Abdul started tumbling into bad practices, such as drinking excessive alcohol, not
coming home for days, unnecessary brawling with Razia and many more. One day Razia found Abdul
making love to Razia’s best friend ‘Hasina’, at Abdul’s office. Slowly the toxicity in relationship, between
the couple started to increase. Abdul promised Razia, that he will be a changed man and such things
won’t happen further. After few weeks, Abdul gets promoted in his job and also got a chance to induct a
secretary for his office, which will be situated in Dubai. Without giving any thought, Abdul inducted Hasina
as his secretary. Razia after knowing, that his husband will be moving to Dubai, with her best friend
whom she caught making love red handedly, got angry and decided to divorce Abdul. For having
sufficient evidence in front of the court of law, she tapped Abdul’s office telephone and got enough
evidence how his husband was cheating on her, with Hasina. Can Razia file a Divorce, with these
evidence in hand in the court?
(a) Yes, since Husband and Wife are considered as a singular entity and nothing is a secret between the
both of them. The relationship they command, saves Razia from declaring this evidence as legal.
(b) No, since no private individual has the right to incept the communication of another individual, only
the government of India has this power that too with restrictions and conditions.
(c) Yes, since though the privacy of Abdul and Hasina was breeched, but for a better good. A married
individual, having relationship with another women is already a crime and this cannot be proved,
without proper evidence.
(d) No, since proper approval from the centre/state government should have been taken by Razia before
committing such actions. After following a proper protocol, any person can legally tap any
communicating device.
79. Shubham and Priya are residents of Hastinapur, a rural area of Bihar. Hastinapur is a backward place,
where the people are very poor and the standard of living was below average, as labours were the
majority there. The major issue faced by them was the connectivity issue as not sufficient network towers
were installed in Hastinapur. Seeing a big business opportunity, Shubham and Priya separately started a
STD-PCO at a huge level. Their business started to boom from the first day itself. However, after a
couple of weeks, Inspector general of the Hastinapur police department, with proper orders visited
Shubham’s office, demanded him to tap the telephone calls of ‘Sudheer’ who was a spy of the
neighbouring country. Shubham knew that, the act of telephone tapping affects the right to privacy of an
individual as well as the right to freedom of speech and expression, both are Fundamental Rights under
the Constitution. Additionally, his only business will be severely affected as nobody will trust his STD-
PCO since private and personal information of people will be at sake whenever they will be using his
services and also, they had another option too. Finally, Shubham was forced to tap the calls and also had
to incur high losses in his business. Shubham pleads under the court of law, whether the acts committed
by the government officials were legal or not?
(a) Yes, since it is the job of the government agencies to work for the people and stop crime in any
situation. The officials were just performing their job as they are authorized to tap calls at any time, if
the situation demands so.
(b) No, since the fundamental rights of Shubham as well as Sudheer are at stake. It affects the right to
privacy of an individual as well as the right to freedom of speech and expression, both are
Fundamental Rights under the Constitution in every sense.
(c) Yes, since the act was committed after following a proper procedure as they had a valid order with
them. Additionally, the Indian Telegraph Act,1885 and interception rules, 2009 protects them too.
(d) No, since the government cannot force Shubham to tap his customers telephone for their benefit.
Shubham can be requested to hand over the recordings to the government agencies as it is his

MOCK CLAT #18
business. The fundamental right to practise business and the Indian Telegraph Act,1885 legally
protect Shubham in this situation.
80. Which government has the authority to start an enquiry to conduct a Passive wiretapping on any
individual for the interest of public safety in the country?
(a) Only the Central government.
(b) Only the State government.
(c) Both the Centre and the State have the power.
(d) The power is completely vested in the centre as President or Governor provide the due assent and
both these posts are directly vested in the authority of the centre.
81. Sanjay is a pseudo left wing activist, who under the fundamental right to free speech and expression has
been giving critical remarks on the government. He gained lime light recently, for having some
connections with the underworld as been alleged by some reputed news journalists. When this news
caught fire, government security agencies came into action. The Chief of Research and Analysis Wing
(RAW), ‘Vikram Singh’ to get a reality check of the situation as well as to collect evidence by catfishing,
first obtained his telephone number and then called him for the enquiry. He did not took any permission
from any senior authority nor the centre/state government too. Adding to that, without the consent of
Sanjay he recorded his telephone call for show casing Sanjay’s motive. In the recorded conversation,
Sanjay was agreeing for his connections with the underworld. Taking this an evidence, Vikram demanded
to tape Sanjay’s telephone for security reasons. After knowing this Sanjay pleaded in the court of law that
his call was been illegally recorded and demanded protection under the Indian Telegraph Act,1885 and
interception rules, 2009. Is the argument of Sanjay valid?
(a) Yes, since for conducting any recording or taping of any individual a due process has to be followed
by the government agencies, which were not at all followed here by Vikram under the Indian
Telegraph Act,1885 and interception rules, 2009.
(b) No, since whenever sovereignty and integrity of India and the security of the state are in trouble,
certain exceptions are been provided under the Indian Telegraph Act,1885. The acts committed by
Vikram fall under these exceptions and thus stand legal.
(c) Yes, since the fundamental right of free speech and expression under the Article 19 of the Indian
constitution is been violated here by the government agencies. Fundamental rights are the backbone
of the constitution and hence cannot be violated in any circumstance legally.
(d) No, since the argument laid by Sanjay do not fall in the scope of under the Indian Telegraph Act,1885
and interception rules, 2009.
82. Ramesh is a student at the National Institute of Technology, Bhopal. He is a student of computer science
and electronics. With immense hard work and smart work, he was able to make a device which was been
considered way ahead of its generation. When asked about the device, he stated that ‘he has developed
a device which transmits images with the help of electromagnetic waves which have a frequency of
20,000 gigacycles per second and the information stored is on end-to-end encryption with the help of
internet’. Does the device developed by Ramesh in this situation falls under the definition of telegraph, of
the Indian Telegraph Act?
(a) Yes, since any device which can receive or transmit any information comes under the definition of an
‘telegraph’ the Indian Telegraph Act.
(b) No, since the frequency are higher than as provided under the explanation added to section 3(1AA),
thus not under the scope of radio and Hertzian waves. Additionally, the information is encrypted on
the internet, which makes it fall out of the scope.
(c) Yes, since it does not depend upon the frequency of the waves to be added or not in the definition of
a ‘telegraph’. Every end-to-end encrypted device falls under the scope of the definition of ‘telegraph’
such as Facebook, WhatsApp, etc.
(d) No, since it is not possible to put any device which receive or transmit any information into the scope
of ‘telegraph’. Only telegraph comes under the scope of this definition and all other devices comes
under the act not the definition.

MOCK CLAT #18
(Passage Q.83-Q.86): Medical negligence or medical malpractice refers to the improper, unskilled, or
negligent treatment of a patient by a physician, dentist, nurse, pharmacist, or other health care
professional. Medical malpractice occurs when a health-care provider strays from the recognized
“standard of care” in the treatment of a patient. This “standard of care” is understood to mean what a
reasonably prudent medical provider would or would not have done under the same or similar
circumstances.
Professionals are persons professing some special skill or job, who are trained to profess in that area
specially and bear the responsibility of professing with due care. Such professionals include lawyers,
doctors, architects etc. The Supreme Court in Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab explained: a
professional entering into certain profession is deemed to have knowledge regarding that profession and
it is assured impliedly by him that a reasonable amount of care shall be taken to profess his profession.
The person can be held liable under negligence if he did not possess the required skills to profess or he
failed to take essential amount of care to profess the said profession.
In the recent case of SunandabaiKisanji Dhole v. Dr VinodBele, the Complainant failed to produce any
cogent evidence or any expert opinion that the accused doctor treated the patient negligently and caused
post injection radial nerve palsy. It was found that the Complainant’s disability was due to long standing
arthiritis but not due to nerve palsy as alleged. Therefore, it was held that “No cure is not negligence if
there is no improvement despite reasonable treatment”.
[Extracted with revisions from ‘Medical Neglience’ by Aakarsh Shah, lawctopus.com/academike
https://www.lawctopus.com/academike/medical-negligence/]
83. Derek Shepherd was a world-class neurosurgeon who had successful surgeries 99% of the time. Having
knowledge of the same, Alex asked Derek to remove his brother Dalex’s stage IV brain tumour. Despite
Derek’s best efforts, he could not save Dalex due to some unforeseeable complications during the
surgery. Alex sues Derek for medical negligence.
(a) Derek was not negligent because he took reasonable care
(b) Derek was not negligent because he did not take reasonable care
(c) Derek was negligent because he did not possess the requisite skill for the surgery and still performed
it
(d) Derek was negligent because he did not take reasonable care
84. Sheetal was a nurse employed in Grey Sloan Hospital who loved to catch up with her other nurse friends
on phone while taking rounds to check up on the patients. One day, while she was talking to her friend
Meetal, she failed to notice that the urine bag of one of the patients was full and needed to be replaced.
Consequently, the bag burst causing an infection to the patient.
(a) Sheetal is not liable for medical negligence
(b) Meetal is liable for medical negligence
(c) Grey Sloan is vicariously liable for the medical negligence of the nurse
85. Mr Dharma went to the pharmacy to buy a prescribed medicine Y for his medical condition. The
Pharmacist told him that Y was out of stock but he could instead give him medicine Z which had the
same salts. The pharmacist was aware that Z could cause adverse reactions in people with lactose
intolerance. He did not ask Mr. Dharma if he was lactose intolerant. Mr. Dharma consumed the medicine
and had an adverse reaction. Is the Pharmacist liable for medical negligence?
(a) No, because the Pharmacist was not a medical professional
(b) Yes, because the Pharmacist was a healthcare professional
(c) Yes, because the Pharmacist failed to take the reasonable standard of care
(d) No, because the Pharmacist was unware of Mr Dharma’s lactose intolerance

MOCK CLAT #18
86. A doctor while performing a surgery accidentally left her musical watch inside the patient’s stomach. After
three months, the watch automatically started playing music while inside the patient’s stomach although
he suffered no consequences and seemed fine. He sued the doctor for failing to take reasonable care. Is
the doctor liable for medical negligence?
(a) Yes, because any doctor is expected to remove any accessories before surgery
(b) Yes, because she failed to take the reasonable amount of care that was expected of her
(c) No, because the patient did not suffer from any consequences and was fine
(d) No, because there was no problem in the surgery or treatment of the doctor as such
(Passage Q.87-Q.90): In contracts, a mistake may operate in two ways. Firstly, it may defeat the consent
of the parties’ altogether and secondly, it may mislead the parties about the purpose of the contract.
Section 13 of the Act defines consent as, “Two or more persons are said to consent when they agree
upon the same thing in the same sense.” basically, for consent, there should be consensus ad idem.
When the mistake of the parties does not defeat the consent but only misleads the parties then Section
20 of the Indian Contract Act shall apply. It reads as, “Where both the parties to an agreement are under
a mistake of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void.”
A contract is not voidable merely of the fact that it was caused by the mistake of law in India, but a
mistake of law, not in force in India has the same effect as a mistake of fact. Further, the Act also
provides that, “A contract is not voidable merely because of the fact that it was caused by the mistake of
the fact of one of the parties.”
There cannot be an exhaustive list of facts which are essential to contract and those which are not. The
importance of the facts depends upon the nature of the contract which varies in every case. Broadly,
certain facts which are essential to every agreement include the identity of parties, identity and nature of
the subject matter of the contract,and the nature and content of the promise itself.
[Extracted with minor revisions from ‘Free Consent of Parties to Contract’ by SubodhAsthana in
blog.ipleaders.in
https://blog.ipleaders.in/free-consent-parties-contract/amp/]
87. AX and BY make a contract grounded on the erroneous belief that a particular debt is barred by the
Indian Law of Limitation. The contract is:
(a) Void
(b) Voidable
(c) Voidable at the option of A
(d) Valid
88. AY and BX make a contract grounded on the erroneous belief that a particular debt is barred by the
French Law of Limitation. The contract is:
(a) Void
(b) Voidable
(c) Voidable at the option of AY
(d) Not voidable
89. Sitaram is a jeweller. A man named AkashAmbani entered his store and told him his name. Sitaram
thought he was the son of MukeshAmbani and will therefore, pay him back on time. So he agreed to
contract for a sale of diamonds with him worth Rs. 30 lakhs. Later on, he found out that he was a different
AkashAmbani. He wishes to avoid the contract. Can he do so?
(a) Yes, because the contract is voidable since there is a mistake of fact
(b) No, because the contract is already void since there is a mistake of fact
(c) Yes, because the contract is voidable at his option since there is a mistake of fact
(d) No, because the contract is not voidable at his option since there is no mistake of fact

MOCK CLAT #18
90. Jim had a ship named "Queen of the Blue Sea" and a big blue diamond of the same name. Jim wanted to
sell his ship. Pam was a connoisseur of diamonds. Jim contracted for the sale of Queen of the Blue Sea
with Pam. Later on it was found that Pam wanted to buy the diamond and not the ship and thought that
the contract was for the diamond.
(a) The contract is void at the option of Jim, since he wanted to sell the ship
(b) The contract is void at the option of Pam, since she wanted to buy the diamond
(c) The contract is void because there was consensus ad idem, leading to mistake of fact
(d) The contract is void because there was no consensus as idem, defeating the consent of the parties
(Passage Q.91-Q.94): The Maharashtra government this week presented a draft bill making changes to
existing laws on violence against women and children. The Bill, proposed to be enacted as Shakti Act,
2020, has provisions for enhancing punishment including death penalty for rape, fine up to Rs 10 lakh on
perpetrators of violence, faster investigations and quicker disposal of cases. The draft Bill proposes to
make changes to the Indian Penal Code, the Code of Criminal Procedure and the Protection of Children
from Sexual Offences Act. The changes are proposed in existing sections of rape, sexual harassment,
acid attack and child sexual abuse. The draft Bill proposes an additional law to deal with abuse of women
on social media. Section 354E is added to include intentional acts creating “a sense of danger,
intimidation, fear to a woman” apart from insulting her modesty by any act, deed or words including
offensive communication will be an offence with a maximum punishment of two years and a Rs 1 lakh
fine. The Bill also proposes to add an explanation to Section 375 (rape) of the IPC, “Rape committed in
circumstance including but not limited to some form of assurance including promise of marriage or
understanding between the parties, where they are consenting adults, and from conduct it appears that
act has been committed with consent or ‘implied consent’ may be presumed that valid consent is given.”
The existing law does not have a blanket assumption of consent being implied in such cases. The Bill
also proposes setting up of a “Women and Children Offenders Registry” linked to the National Registry of
Sexual Offenders and will be made available to law enforcement agencies with details of persons
convicted of specified offences of sexual violence against women and children. A separate police team
will also be set up in each district to probe such cases.
Source – [Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: Explained: Death Penalty, steep fines and other
changes in Maharashtra Bill on Sexual Crime, SadafModak, The Indian Express, dated 15.12.2020]
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/maharashtra-shakti-act-law-on-violence-against-women-and-
children-explained-7100588/
91. Seema was on her way to School to attend Republic Day function. She was stopped by two unknown
men who enquired the way to her school and as she was explaining them the way, they started pulling
her arm trying to push her inside the van. Some people came to her rescue after she raised an alarm.
Will this act of the two men constitute as an offence under the draft bill?
(a) The mere act of pulling by arm will not constitute an offence under the act.
(b) The act is an offence if Seema was not rescued timely and harm is done to her.
(c) The act of grabbing and pulling her hand threatened Seema.
(d) The act is not an offence since she was rescued timely before any harm was done to her.
92. X is an accused in a Rape case however he was recently granted Bail by the court. He goes to visit his
girlfriend and proposes to her for marriage and expresses his love towards her. She rejected his proposal
and started walking away, in an attempt to persuade her and stop her he held her hand. Threatened by
this act she raises alarm and calls the police. The police take Sunil under custody for outraging the
modesty of a woman. Which of the following holds true in context of the draft bill?
(a) X is guilty of the offence since the girl felt threatened by his act, outraging her modesty.
(b) X held her hand when she started walking away without her consent making it an offence under the
act.
(c) The act of holding hand without any sexual intention cannot be constituted as an offence.
(d) The act of holding hand of a woman is not an offence under the act.

MOCK CLAT #18
93. David and Emma were deeply in love. Emma always imagined herself getting married to David and
discussed about the same with David, he smiled and changed the topic whenever
Emma brought the topic of marriage. Emma under the pretext of marriage to David engages in sexual
intercourse with him. After sometime David breaks up with Emma and marries another girl. She files a
complaint against David accusing him of Rape. Will her claim be successful under the existing law?
(a) He is guilty of Rape since Emma did not give her consent for sexual intercourse.
(b) He is not guilty of Rape since there was an implied consent on part of Emma.
(c) He is guilty of Rape since Emma did not give free consent to engage in sexual intercourse.
(d) He is not guilty since at the time of sexual intercourse Emma gave her free consent.
94. Stuart and Amy have a disagreement over a telephonic conversation. During the conversation he
threatens to break into her flat tomorrow to Rape Amy and click intimate pictures of her which he will
upload on Facebook. Amy, scared by all this calls her friend to stay with her. Due to the threats made by
Stuart she stops going to College. Amy finally decides to file a complaint against him a month after he
made such threats. The police refused to register her FIR stating the reason that Stuart has not
contacted Amy since that incident. In light of the draft bill, which of the following reasoning is correct?
(a) The threats made by Stuart were empty threats which do not constitute an offence.
(b) The threats made by Stuart will constitute an offence if he actually sexually assaults Amy.
(c) The threats will not constitute an offence since Stuart did not tried to contact or threaten her since that
incident.
(d) The threats will constitute an offence since Amy felt scared since that incident.
(Passage Q.95-Q.99): Section 41 of the CrPC commends: When police may arrest without warrant (a
document issued by a legal official authorizing the Police to make an arrest). Sub-section (1)(a) says that
whoever commits, in the presence of a police officer, a cognizable offence. However, Section 41(2)
specifies that no person concerned in a non-cognizable offence shall be arrested except under a warrant
or order of a Magistrate.
In this section, three situations have been indicated before making an arrest, namely, against whom a
reasonable complaint has been made, or credible information has been received, or a reasonable
suspicion exists. If the above circumstances are present, then also, to justify the arrest it is necessary to
follow any condition as mentioned below; (a) to prevent such person from committing any further offence;
(b) for proper investigation of the offence; or (c) to prevent such person from causing the evidence of the
offence to disappear or tampering with such evidence in any manner; (d) to prevent such person from
making any inducement, threat or promise to any person acquainted with the facts of the case so as to
dissuade him from disclosing such facts to the court or to police officer (e) as unless such person is
arrested, his presence in the Court whenever required cannot ensured.
Thus, any of the above conditions have been fulfilled, Police can make an arrest, and this, of course, will
be applicable for the offence punishable up to 7 years. Besides, the police are required to record the
reasons in writing for making such arrest. However, in case of woman, the police officer shall not touch
the woman for making her arrest, unless the police officer is a female and the circumstances require.
Besides, to avoid arbitrary arrest, there is also a statutory provision u/s. 41-B that every police officer
while making an arrest shall bear an accurate, visible and clear identification of his name, will prepare a
memorandum of arrest, attested by a witness from arrestee’s family or a respectable member of the
locality, where the arrest is made.
[Kashyap Joshi, ‘Arrest under Criminal Law: Who, When, Why and How?’ (2020) Live Law
<https://www.livelaw.in/know-the-law/arrest-under-criminal-law-who-when-why-and-how-165503> as
accessed on 27 November 2020]

MOCK CLAT #18
95. A notification was issued by the Central Government which clarified that aiding any convict in hiding or
escaping is a cognizable offence. A complaint was filed against Vishesh, by one of his neighbours,
Shashank, for helping a murder convict in hiding from the police and in concealing the incriminating
evidence. The police officer after filing the complaint immediately rushed to find Vishesh and arrested
him, as per the guidelines issued under the notification. Vishesh challenged his arrest on the grounds
that there is no proper evidence that he had done anything to help any convict in hiding or escaping. Is
Vishesh’s arrest legal?
(a) Yes, Vishesh’s arrest is legal as he was helping an offender who was accused of murdering a person.
This aid in itself is a crime for which he had to be arrested immediately; otherwise he would have run
away from the clutches of the police.
(b) No, Vishesh’s arrest was not legal as there is no proper evidence that he actually did anything that he
was accused of. He cannot be arrested on mere allegations of a neighbour.
(c) Yes, Vishesh’s arrest is legal as he was accused of helping a convict in hiding from the police and it
could be reasonably presumed that had he not been arrested immediately, he would have tampered
the incriminating evidence or disappeared the convict or any other relevant information necessary to
prove his guilt.
(d) No, Vishesh’s arrest was not legal as the police officer was not authorised by any Magistrate to arrest
Vishesh and neither the officer had any warrant issued against him to make his arrest.
96. Indumati was the MLA of Dholakpur region. Her opposition party made Chhutki, a local leader, their
campaign ambassador during the election period. She was very popular among the local public and so it
was easy to predict that if she continues to campaign for the Indumati’s opposite party, she will definitely
lose in the coming elections. Suddenly one day, Chhutki was killed on her farm and it was alleged that
Indumati murdered her. Police after getting the information went to arrest Indumati but she refused to
cooperate and deined the allegations. The police officer forcefully took her to the station and locked her
up in a cell. She filed a petition against the police officer for forcefully making her arrest and touching her
despite being a male officer. Decide:
A. No police officer shall touch the woman while making her arrest, if she is denying the same, as an
accused is also entitled to the right of their body and personal liberty under the Indian Constitution.
B. A woman police officer can touch the woman while making her arrest only if the accused is not
cooperating or is reluctant to go to the police station.
C. A male officer shall not touch the woman while making her arrest as it would be against the dignity of
a woman.
D. A police officer can touch the woman while making her arrest if the accused is not cooperating or is
reluctant to go to the police station.
Which of the following is/ are correct?

(a) Only D
(b) Both B and C
(c) Only B
97. Which of the following circumstances are necessary to justify the arrest of a person without any warrant
or order from the Magistrate?
(a) If any credible information has been received against a person for committing a non-cognizable
offence, such person shall be arrested to prevent him from making any inducement, threat or promise
to any person acquainted with the facts of the case so as to dissuade him from disclosing such facts
to the court or to police officer.
(b) If any reasonable complaint has been filed against a person for committing a cognizable offence,
such person shall be arrested to prevent him from committing any further offence.
(c) If any reasonable suspicion exists against any person for committing any offence, such person shall
be arrested for proper investigation of the offence.
(d) If any credible information has been received against a person for committing any cognizable offence,
such person shall be arrested to prevent other person from committing the same offence.

MOCK CLAT #18
98. Misha was a habitual offender. She was involved in many crimes including counterfeiting currency, but
she was able to escape from the police every time. Sarla, a police officer, while she was on her
honeymoon vacation in Goa, got an anonymous phone call informing about Misha’s whereabouts in Goa.
She immediately rushed to the place and found Misha. She tried to arrest Misha and when she resisted,
Sarla forcefully took her to the nearest police station and locked her up. Sarla was later punished under
Section 41B of CrPC. Decide Why?
(a) Because while making the arrest, Sarla was not working under the color of her office and neither she
was bearing a clear identification of her name.
(b) Because while making the arrest, Sarla forcefully arrested Misha and locked her in a police station
not under her jurisdiction.
(c) Because while making the arrest, Sarla was not in the area which is under her jurisdiction. Therefore
she should have informed the local police instead of making the arrest herself.
(d) Because while making the arrest, Sarla forcefully arrested Misha which is prohibited as no police
officer shall touch the woman while making her arrest, if she is denying the same.
99. On 18th Feb, 2020, the Chief Minister of Lanka was lynched by an angry mob, due to his discriminatory
policies against the Suryavanshis. Rita, one of the leaders of the Suryavanshi group, was arrested on the
next day from her house. Although she resisted her arrest and demanded memorandum of arrest from
the police officer, she was not provided anything and was locked up in a cell. She later challenged her
arrest in the court as being illegal and arbitrary. Decide:
(a) Rita’s arrest was not arbitrary as she was apprehended of leading a mob that lynched the Chief
Minister of Lanka, which is a cognizable offence and no document is required while making arrest in
such cases.
(b) Rita’s arrest was arbitrary as it is mandatory for a police officer to provide the accused of all the
necessary documents and inform them about the offence for which they are being arrested.
(c) Rita’s arrest was arbitrary as she was forcefully arrested by a police officer even when she resisted
her arrest and demanded the memorandum of her arrest.
(d) Rita’s arrest was arbitrary as it is mandatory for a police officer to prepare a memorandum of arrest,
attested by a witness from arrestee’s family or a respectable member of the locality, where the arrest
is made.
(Passage Q.100-Q.104): Torture in custody represents a naked breach of human dignity and
deterioration that, in large part, personally destructs the individual. This is a predicted attack on human
dignity, and civilization takes a step backwards whenever human dignity is injured. The Indian
Constitution has fundamental rights that take the place of pride. Unless the procedure established by the
law, Article 21 stipulates that no person shall be deprived of his life or his personal liberty. Personal
freedom is, therefore, a constitutionally sacred and valued right.
The term “life or personal freedom” has been taken as a guarantee toward torture, attacks, or assaults by
the State or its officials, to include the right to live with human dignity. Article 22 provides for safeguards
in such cases against arrest and detention, providing that, without being told of the reasons for such
detainment, no person who is apprehended shall be held in custody and that a lawyer of his choosing
shall not refuse the right of consultation and defense of himself. Consequently, in all cases of arrest and
detention, the Court considered it necessary to make the following requests as preventative measures in
that respect until legal provisions are made.
 The police who carry out the detention and treat the arrested person should have accurate,
noticeable, and consistent identity tags and names. All police staff involved in the questioning of the
detained must be recorded in a register.
 That the police officer carrying out an arrest must make notice of arrest before the arrest is made and
that a notice of attestation must also be given by at least a witness who may be either a member of
the family of the arrested person or a reputable individual from the location from which an arrest is
performed.
 The convicted party must be informed of the opportunity to tell others of his detention or incarceration
as soon as he or she is placed in jail.

MOCK CLAT #18
100. Xiano Ronadhonalo, citizen of Catalonia, is in business of making low quality trophies and certificates
and is very well known internationally for his work. He visited India to deliver a consignment of trophies.
Quality Control Bureau of Customs Department of India detected use of illegal material in the trophies, as
and when this news reached Xiano he went into hiding in India fearing prosecution. Police caught Xiano
in an abandoned villa and took him in custody. Maussi, a police officer, knew that Xiano does not have
any fundamental rights and he tortured Xiano to extract information of his buyer; now Xiano claims that
the treatment he received is against his Human Dignity. Decide.
(a) Foreigners do not have Fundamental Rights, especially when they are breaking the laws in our
country. Maussi did the needful, taking in account the status of law, and need of the hour to find the
buyers of illegal substances.
(b) Maussi is an honest cop doing his duty; Xiano on the other hand is a fugitive criminal who does not
have the rights he claims to have. Xiano was tortured because he wouldn’t co-operate and to save
time and ensure that justice is not delayed Maussi took the route of torture.
(c) Xiano should contact his lawyer as soon as possible only way for him to get out of this mess is to
finally approach the problem with the laws of India.
(d) None of the Above.
101. After two days in jail Xiano demands to be represented by Zudon, a very well-known human rights activist
in India. Zudon after listening to the merits of the case conveyed his condolences to Xiano and denied to
represent him citing reason of incapability to do so. Based on the passage did Zudon do anything wrong
by denying representation?
(a) Zudon knew that Xiano is beyond saving therefore it is a waste of time to defend him.
(b) ifZudon says he is incapable of representing Xiano then Zudon cannot be forced to fight this case.
(c) Xiano ran away as a fugitive, tried to smuggle illegal substance in India against the law and now
demanding representation of his choosing is beyond acceptance, no such right is bestowed on
foreigners.
(d) Yes, by law Zudon is mandated to defend Xiano because Zudon is of Xiano’s choosing and refusal to
defend him could get Zudon in trouble with law.
102. Currently Xiano’s case is being heard in the court of law, he claims mishandling of the case as he was
not provided with an opportunity to contact his family and inform them about his situation. Police on the
other hand claims that an opportunity to call his family was provided, but his wife refused to talk because
they are having a divorce. Were the court’s guidelines not followed?
(a) An opportunity was given to Xiano, even though only informing of such opportunity is mandatory,
therefore guidelines were followed.
(b) Xiano being a foreigner has no such right, moreover getting an opportunity to place an international
call is more than enough and police in not obligated to serve such privileges.
(c) Police has no duty to allow such opportunity to Xiano therefore following the guidelines isn’t even a
matter of dispute.
(d) Xiano was unable to contact any of his peers or family about his situation and such ignorance of
whereabouts of Xiano is against law; his family must know where and how Xiano is and that is why
guidelines were not followed absolutely.
103. Stan lee is a civil and human rights activist in India, and a patient of Parkinson’s disease. He was
arrested by the police under the charge of armed robbery. He has difficulty picking things as his hands
malfunction and is unable to even pick up a glass of water; he requested a straw to ease his suffering.
Police refused to provide him with any accessory and conveyed to him that in jail no one is special. Such
refusal resulted in Stan getting dehydrated and admitted to hospital currently under coma. What could be
the valid reason for such refusal?
(a) In jail no one is treated specially, precisely why Stan cannot be provided a stray, this will result in
influx of demand from the prisoners.
(b) Stan is under trial for armed robbery, providing anything apart from explicitly allowed items in jail
could hamper the security of jail and may aid Stan in escaping.
(c) Stan can drink water without having to hold the glass of water; several jail officials also help Stan to
drink water. There was no need or urgency to provide such unreasonable demand.

MOCK CLAT #18
104. Has Stan been tortured?

(a) Police did not even touch him least inflicting harm; therefore Stan has not been tortured.
(b) Stan was not been provided with bare necessities and later we was admitted to the hospital, definitely
constitute torture.
(c) Essential part of torture is to cause illegal harm to a person, it can be noted that Stan was neither
harmed legally nor illegally. No question of torture arises.
(d) Keeping a patient of Parkinson’s disease in a normal prison is a torture in itself; such prisons aren’t
compatible for people with special conditions.

MOCK CLAT #18
Passage (Q.105-Q.110): Justin - Social networks started as a place to connect with your friends in an
easy and convenient way. It provided us the opportunity to build better relationships with friends whom
we are unable to meet personally. We are able to communicate our thoughts and perceptions over
different topics with a large number of audiences, and raise our voice. Businesses have used the value of
social networks and they are using different techniques to promote their products. There are a number of
customized applications being made on the social platforms, whose main purpose is to promote the
product or brand.
Beiber - Many studies have shown that the extensive use of social media can actually cause addiction to
the users. Extreme usage of social media has reduced the level of human interaction. Because of social
networks the interaction with other people has become effortless and people have isolated their lives
behind their online identities. It is a great distraction to employees, who may show more interest in what
their friends are posting than in their work tasks. Teens and young adults are considered particularly at
risk to negative effects. They’re a generation raised on the internet, social media, and digital technology
so these things are integral, indispensable parts of their lives. Young people also are impressionable,
eager for acceptance, and relatively inexperienced, which can cloud judgment. Adults since they had a
life without social networks can keep themselves out of this addiction.Viraling of fake and false
information has become very easy.
Source: Compiled and curated from various websites.
105. Which of the following aspects of the social networks has been used by the Business entities for using
the same as per the passage?
(a) It has become an indispensable tool for the people in general
(b) The products on social networks can make easy impressions on young people
(c) It’s easier to connect with friends through social networks
106. Which of the following benefits listed below have been touched by Justin about social networks?
1. Ravi and Virat were old school-friends, but they drifted apart later on. They found each other again on
Facebook and they chat regularly now though live cities apart.
2. DigiLife is a new technology-start-up company. It uses Instagram to garner attention.
3. Ruchi is a social activist regarding women empowerment. She uses Twitter to make people aware.
4. NDRF used the I AM SAFE feature of Facebook to locate people in distress when Amphan struck
India.
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 3 and 4 (c) Only 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
107. Which of the following can be inferred from Beiber’s arguments?

(a) The use of social network leads to a person being totally dependent on the same.
(b) Social networks can lead to identity-duality in a person
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
108. Through social networks an idea can be propagated easily by reaching like-minded people without
hindrance.
This point -
(a) Strengthens Justin’s argument only
(b) Strengthens Beiber’s argument only
(c) Strengthens both Justin’s and Beiber’s arguments
(d) Weakens both Justin’s and Beiber’s arguments

MOCK CLAT #18
109. “New technology products have become available that allow social networks to be blocked, but their
effectiveness remains spotty.”
Which of the following regarding the above statement is correct?
(a) It strengthens Justin’s argument
(b) It weakens Justin’s argument
(c) It strengthens Beiber’s argument
(d) It weakens Beiber’s argument
110. Which of the following options exhibit the same logic as has been exhibited by the last few sentences of
Beiber (They’re a generation raised on the internet, …………… information has become very easy.)
(a) A person born in a family with criminal records and tendencies will most probably end up being a
criminal
(b) A person who starts consumingalcohol at the age of 50 years will probably not fall addicted to the
same
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
Passage (Q.111-Q.116): Many would argue that dissent in all its different varieties has fallen upon hard
times in democracies. If you look at the range of laws that have been enacted in the last 35-40 years,
whose spirit is incompatible with the spirit of liberal democracy, the whole panoply, in a sense, of legal
instruments that are brought into place by liberal democratic states is actually making dissent much more
difficult, paradoxically, even in liberal democracies. Is there something inevitable in the form in which we
have conceived of liberal democracy that it will, more and more, construe the dissenter as a figure of
criminality? That it has no other language in which to understand the figure of a dissenter. While we sing
the praises of dissent – for pragmatic reasons, for principled reasons – actual dissent in any political
order always invokes anxiety. There is a familiar anxiety – a self-serving anxiety of holders of power –
that dissent will displace them, attenuate their power or diminish it. A different kind of worry about dissent,
which is somewhat less self-serving but it’s also still psychological, is that dissent as a word almost
seems too negative. Dissent itself is not a freestanding value. To construct dissent as a freestanding
value is to conjure up the image of somebody who simply says, “Whatever you are for, I am against it”.
Gandhian idea of dissent, which is grounded in satyagraha – a rebellion grounded in truth – I think, had
more going to it than the mere word dissent does. Now, even opposition for opposition’s sake might be
valuable. There is, sometimes, an inherent value to, you might say combating docility – just for its own
sake. But simply saying ‘I am a dissenter’ or ‘I have a right to dissent’ or ‘I dissent’, without specifying the
normative context in which that dissent is being articulated can be a double-edged sword.
Excerpts of the speech given by Mr. PratapBhanu Mehta of the Project 39A annual lecture on December
4, 2020
111. Whom or what does Mr. Mehta seek to question in the above given speech?
(a) The dissenters
(b) The place of dissent in a liberal democracy
(c) The role of the state to suppress dissent
112. Mr. Mehta says that dissent is not freestanding. What is it pegged to then?
(a) The people in the dissent (b) The rulers
(c) Moral judgement (d) Democracy
113. Which of the following can be inferred from Mr. Mehta’s speech?
(a) If deemed freestanding then even fascists can be called legitimate dissenters even if they protest
against democratic establishments
(b) Dissenters are people who will dissent for self-serving interests
(c) Liberal democracies nowadays have criminalized dissent

MOCK CLAT #18
114. “Today’s dissenters may, in turn, also fear other dissenters. It’s often true of dissenting groups. They fear
internal dissent.”
What can be the role of the above statement?
(a) It can strengthen Mr. Mehta’s statement that dissent is a negative word
(b) It can weaken Mr. Mehta’s statement that dissent is not freestanding
(c) It can strengthen Mr. Mehta’s statement that dissent is not freestanding
(d) It can strengthen Mr. Mehta’s statement that the authority has a self-serving fear of dissent
115. Which of the following can be said about Mr. Mehta in an assured manner?
(a) He doesn’t believe that there should be a right to dissent in a liberal democracy
(b) He believes that dissenting has become very difficult since the past few decades
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
116. Mr. Mehta says that “even opposition for opposition’s sake might be valuable”. Which of the following
options is correct regarding this statement?
(a) It contradicts his argument that dissent should not be freestanding
(b) It strengthens his argument that dissent should not be freestanding
(c) It contradicts his argument that dissent has a psychological effect
Passage (Q.117-Q.121): For the elite scientists, engineers and military brass of the Army’s remote
nuclear weapons facility at Los Alamos, New Mexico, the night of July 15–16, 1945, was one of
excruciating tension.
The world’s first atomic bomb, nicknamed the “Gadget,” was scheduled to be tested at a carefully
selected site codenamed Trinity in a barren valley near Alamogordo, New Mexico, 200 miles south of Los
Alamos. It represented the culmination of the Manhattan Project, the massive, top-secret effort mobilizing
American scientific ingenuity and industrial might to produce a superweapon unlike any the world had
seen. Sparked by a 1939 letter from Albert Einstein and physicist Leo Szilárd to President Franklin D.
Roosevelt warning of Nazi Germany’s nuclear weapons potential, the project was fully authorized in
1942. It would eventually employ hundreds of thousands of people across the nation, few of whom had
any inkling of the goal of their labours.
Today, those few who are still alive are a rare breed. Among them is Peter Lax, a 94-year-old
mathematics genius and retired professor at New York University, who at the time of the Trinity test was
just a 19-year-old corporal stationed at Los Alamos. Recruited for his already-evident mathematical
prowess, Lax was far from a critical player in the development of the bomb, but his memories of the time
shed light on the challenge facing the scientists, many of whom had fled Hitler’s Europe and found refuge
in the United States.
“There was a feeling of great urgency,” Lax says today of the Manhattan Project. “At the outset, we did
not know how far along the Germans were with the bomb as it turned out, not very far at all. But we felt
as if the fate of the world was in our hands.”
I first knew Peter as the endlessly interesting, witty and tolerant dad of my best friend in high school,
John, and the Laxes became a kind of surrogate family for me, as they were for many people. In sitting
down with Peter in James’ Manhattan apartment, I came to learn how he escaped the Holocaust as a
Hungarian Jewish teenager and just three years later, joined the team that tackled one of science’s
greatest challenges, spawning an era of new ones in the process.
There was enormous pressure: With World War II still raging in Asia and the Pacific and the geopolitical
fate of a devastated Europe in flux, the stakes were sky-high. On July 17, President Harry S. Truman,

MOCK CLAT #18
only a few months into office following the death of Franklin D. Roosevelt, would attend the Potsdam
Conference.
Source: https://www.smithsonianmag.com/history.
117. According to the passage, Trinity was …

(a) Nazi Germany’s nuclear weapons test site.
(b) Code name of the top-secret project to produce the atomic bomb.
(c) A barren valley near Alamogordo, New Mexico.
(d) Nickname of the world’s first atomic bomb.
118. All of the following statements are TRUE according to the passage, EXCEPT:
(a) On the night of July 15 - 16, 1945, President Franklin D. Roosevelt gave the final go-ahead for the
world’s first nuclear weapon test.
(b) The thousands of people employed in the project were kept in the dark about the making of the
world’s first atomic bomb.
(c) The device was assembled at Los Alamos, and was transported 200 miles away, to the Trinity test-
site.
(d) The world’s first atom bomb was developed by America to counter the threat posed by the Nazi
Germany’s nuclear weapon potential.
119. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the Manhattan Project?
(a) The project was urgent, as it was not known how much Germany has advanced in its plans to create
the world’s first nuclear bomb.
(b) Peter Lax is one of the very few surviving members who were aware of the ultimate goal of the
project during its conception and planning.
(c) On the night of July 15-16, 1945, USA became the first nation to use the nuclear weapon against the
enemy in war.
(d) In response to a letter from Albert Einstein and physicist Leo Szilárd, President Franklin D. Roosevelt
authorised the Manhattan Project in 1939.
120. Which of the following best sums up the overall purpose of the passage?
(a) To present Peter Lax’s first-hand account of the world’s first nuclear test in 1945.
(b) To make known to the public the lesser known facts of the confidential project.
(c) To give us an overall picture of the atmosphere that pervaded a pre-war Europe.
(d) To indicate the plight of thousands, like Lax, who had to leave their homeland due to WW2.
121. At the time of the Trinity nuclear test, Peter Lax was involved in the Manhattan Project…
(a) As a professor of mathematics at New York University.
(b) As a mathematical genius, part of the elite scientists of the project.
(c) As a corporal in the US Army stationed at the nuclear weapons facility.
(d) As a Jew who escaped the Holocaust and ended up as a critical player in the project.
Passage (Q.122-Q.125): Many global movements wish to impose their perception of the world. Often the
object is control over an ever-increasing base of followers. They swallow large numbers of people, if their
ambitions are realized, in proselytizing campaigns designed to play on the common fears of the masses.
They observe that people are afraid, claim to know why they are afraid, and they offer a solution
designed to allay these fears. They are certain they have the key to peace, salvation, safety and
contentment, what Lifton calls ‘sacred science’.
Germany during Hitler’s reign, Eastern Europe under the Soviets, Iran under Khomeini, or Cambodia
under Pol Pot are conspicuous examples. It is possible to define nationless entities as well; for example
the religio-politification of fundamentalist movements such as the Shiite extremists, the Jews for Jesus.
Those that also bear close observation are Jerry Falwell of former Moral Majority (or Liberty Foundation),
and Pat Robertson, the creator of the Christian Broadcasting Network and the Christian Coalition.

MOCK CLAT #18
Some movement leaders, such as Farrakhan, Hitler and Khomeini, define an enemy who must be
destroyed, an enemy defined as the source of primordial evil. Others, like Stalin, Falwell and Robertson,
see the evil in ideas and life-styles and initially attempt conversion. In either case, these movements
begin out of moral imperative, and change once they achieve power and control. Goodness is an early
posture. Later goodness is transformed into destruction as amply demonstrated by the Jonestown
example. The struggle for power is one thing, but its attainment and subsequent applications quite
another. Initially the identification of both problems and their solutions is oversimplified, thus offering the
follower a quick answer to the existential dilemma created by questions such as where did I come from,
why am I here, and where am I going. People are offered oversimplified answers that dispel fear created
by doubt and uncertainty created by internal psychological conflict and external social forces. This has
become particularly dangerous in the 20th century because of sophisticated communication technology
and increasing expertise of the psycho-social sciences.
One way these forces operate is by discouraging critical thinking and moral speculation in favour of a
prepackaged imagery and doctrine designed to create impressions rather than reveal substance, to
capture people’s hearts rather than stimulate their minds. Polarization and overzealous fundamentalism,
whether derived from movements that are religious, social or political, right or left, radical or reactionary,
psychoanalytic or humanistic, Christian, Muslim or Jewish, can grip us with a particular intensity. Perhaps
it is not yet time for alarm, but surely we must learn to recognize leaders with autocratic tendencies
before they attain power, before it is too late.
122. The passage suggests that:

(a) The strength of demagogues can increase.
(b) Religious groups differ in their working from political groups.
(c) No one benefits from leaders who claim to have the key to peace and salvation.
(d) Sacred science is a fairly recent phenomenon.
123. Which of the following titles best describes the passage?

(a) The Moral Majority
(b) Autocratic Power
(c) Dictators – A Universal Entity
(d) The Relativity of Truth
124. The author has mentioned the Jonestown example in order to:
(a) Emphasize the danger in autocratic tendencies.
(b) Show that misrepresentation plays a role in furthering a cause.
(c) Isolate the reason for the mass conning of the public.
(d) Underline that simple answers are usually the wrong ones.
125. The author’s attitude towards autocrats is:

(a) Pragmatic but disapproving.
(b) Biased but polite.
(c) One of rational criticism.
(d) One of strong opposition.
Passage (Q.126-Q.131): The world is less globalized today than it was at the beginning of the century.
Job tenure has not declined and labor mobility did not increase despite foreign competition, technological
change and labor market deregulation. The latter led to an enhanced flexibility of firms and of hiring and
firing practices due to temporary or part-time workers but this is because many workers actually prefer
casual work with temporary contracts to a permanent position. Granted, people have been and are
moving from failing firms and declining industries to successful ones and booming sectors. But they are
still reluctant to change residence, let alone emigrate. Thus, jobs remain equally stable in deregulated as
in regulated labor markets. Yet, this phobia of losing one's job arising from the aforementioned erroneous
beliefs serves to increase both the efficiency and productivity of workers and to moderate their wage
claims.

MOCK CLAT #18
It is safe to assume that collective bargaining led to increased wages and, thus, to less hiring and less
flexible labor markets. It is therefore surprising to note that despite the declining share of unionized labor
in two-thirds of the OECD countries, unemployment remained stubbornly high. But a closer look reveals
why. Both France and the Netherlands (where unionized labor declined from 35% of the actually
employed to 26%), for instance, extended the coverage of collective agreements to non-unionized labor.
It is only where both union membership and coverage by collective agreements were reduced (USA, UK,
New Zealand, Australia) that employment reacted favorably.
Thus, at one extreme, we find the USA and Canada where agreements are signed at the firm or even
individual plant level. At the other pole, we have Scandinavia where a single national agreement prevails.
All the rest are hybrid cases. Britain, New Zealand and Sweden decentralized their collective bargaining
processes while Norway and Portugal centralized it. The evidence produced by hybrid cases is not
conclusive. Decentralized bargaining clearly reduced wage pressures but centralized bargaining also
moderated wage demands since union leaders tended to consider the welfare of the whole workforce.
Still, it seems that it is much preferable to choose one extreme or the other rather than opt for hybrid
bargaining.
Source: https://www.ilo.org/wcmsp5/groups/public/---ed_protect/---protrav/---
travail/documents/publication/wcms_travail_pub_20.pdf
126. On the basis of the first paragraph, it can be inferred that deregulation of the labor markets was expected
to lead to:
(a) firms transferring their entire work force from permanent to temporary job status.
(b) shorter job tenures and increased movement of labor between jobs and countries.
(c) lack of job security for local workers because of huge influx of cheap foreign labor.
(d) slow down in the manufacturing sector leading to an exodus of the work force to the newer age
technological sector.
127. The passage states which of the following as the reason why jobs have remained stable even after
deregulation of the labor markets?
(a) The market did not offer as many jobs as expected and hence very few people moved out of their
jobs.
(b) Workers did not leave their jobs because a change of job did not result in wage increases.
(c) Firms were willing to hire only on a temporary basis, which acted as a huge deterrent against shifting
jobs.
(d) Workers were reluctant to shift their residence or move out of a country.
128. Which of the following is “the aforementioned erroneous belief” for increased efficiency referred to in para
1?
(a) The prospect of being forced to emigrate because of an economic slowdown.
(b) Technological innovation leading to a large section of the work force being laid off.
(c) The fear of losing one's job under flexible hiring and firing policies at the disposal of firms due to the
deregulation of the job market.
(d) The lack of sufficient skills to become employable in sectors that are booming.
129. Based on the passage, it can be inferred that unionized labor:

(a) led to higher wages and lower hiring by firms because of collective bargaining by all the workers as
part of the union.
(b) led to an economic downturn because of the high unemployment rate.
(c) was detrimental to the interests of the workforce in OECD countries as it resulted in lesser hiring.
(d) was a failure in the USA, UK, New Zealand and Australia.

MOCK CLAT #18
130. The passage states which of the following as the reason why unemployment was stubbornly high in
OECD countries despite the decrease in the proportion of the labor force that was unionized?
(a) The labor force of OECD countries was not skilled to take up jobs in the new technology sector, which
was where the bulk of the jobs were.
(b) Though unionized labor decreased in proportion it still had collective bargaining power as most of the
workers were bound to its ideology.
(c) Though unionized labor decreased, the collective agreements coverage was extended to non-
unionised labor as well.
(d) All workers, unionized or not, were covered by collective agreements.
131. The author cites which of the following as reasons why the totally decentralized or totally centralized
model is better than a hybrid model?
(a) Hybrid models are inherently flawed as they try to combine two inherently contradictory groups,
whereas centralized and decentra-lized models are homogenous.
(b) Pressures on wages have been reduced under both decentralized and centralized models, whereas
in the case of hybrid models the evidence is still inconclusive.
(c) Wages in countries with hybrid models have not come down unlike in the case of countries with
decentralized and centralized models.
(d) Hybrid models do not incorporate the welfare of the whole workforce and hence often lead to higher
wage structures.
132. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
(a) KQWC
(b) FLRY
(c) NTZF
(d) RXDJ
133. In the question three statements are given, followed by three conclusions, I, II and III. You have
to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You
have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.
Statement:
I. No marble is granite
II. All stones are marble
III. Some rocks are stones
Conclusion:
I. Some rocks are granite
II. Some marble are rocks
III. No stones are granite
(a) Only conclusions I and II follow
(b) Only conclusions II and III follow
(c) Only conclusions I and III follow
(d) All conclusions I, II and III follow

MOCK CLAT #18
Direction (Q.134-Q.137): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
The graph below shows the length of five different trains (in m) and speed of the same trains is given
134. What is difference between the time taken to cover y (m) length platform by train A and train B where y is
the missing number of below series? 4, 10, 22, 40, 64, 94, y
(a) 3.6. (b) 7.5. (c) 2.9. (d) 6.5
135. Find the difference between the average time taken by train A and E to cross a post to the average time
taken by train B and D to cross a man standing in a platform?
(a) 3.92. (b) 1.22. (c) 0.52. (d) 3.36.
136. Find the sum of time taken by train A to cross train E when they moving same direction and the time
taken by train C and B to cross each other when they moving opposite direction?
(a) 47.68. (b) 72.48. (c) 69.38. (d) 69.78
137. Find the ratio between average of the speed of A and B to the average of the speed of D and E?
(a) 38:63.
(b) 23:63.
(c) 24:56.
(d) 14:78.
(e) 12:69

MOCK CLAT #18
Directions (Q.138-Q.141): Study the following charts carefully and answer the given questions. Seven
Companies A, B, C, D, E, F and G are engaged in production of two products I and II. The comparative
data about production of these products by the seven companies is given in the following graph and the
table. Study them carefully and answer the questions given below.
Cost to the total production (both products together) by seven companies = 25 crore
Percentage of the total production produced by the seven companies
Ratio of production between products I and II and the per cent profit earned for the two products
Company Ratio of Production Percent profit earned
Product I Product II Product I Product II
A 2 3 25 20
B 3 2 32 35
C 4 1 20 22
D 3 5 15 25
E 5 3 28 30
F 1 4 35 25
G 4 2 30 24
138. What is the total cost of the production of product I by companies A and C together in Rs crore?
(a) 9.25
(b) 5.9
(c) 4.1625
(d) 4.9
139. What is the amount of profit earned by company ‘D’ on product II ?

(a) Rs. 31.25 crore
(b) Rs. 3, 125 crore
(c) Rs. 31, 25 crore
(d) Rs.0.3125 crore

MOCK CLAT #18
140. Cost of production of product 1 by company F is what per cent of the cost of the cost of production of
product II by company D?
(a) 20%
(b) 33.33%
(c) 66.67%
(d) 12.5%
141. What is total profit earned by company ‘G’ for product I and II together?
(a) Rs. 78 lakh
(b) Rs. 84 lakh
(c) Rs. 7.8 crore
(d) Rs. 16.2 lakh
beside. Krishna invested some money under 20% per annum simple interest in Axis bank. At the end of
one – year, he withdrew all amount from the Axis bank and invested in Bandhan bank at the rate of R %
per annum under compound interest compounded annually for two years and received Rs. 57600 as total
interest from the Bandhan bank. The first year’s interest at Bandhan bank was Rs. 24000.
142. In starting, how much money had Krishna invested in Axis bank?
(a) Rs. 60000
(b) Rs. 75000
(c) Rs. 10000
(d) Rs. 50000
143. Total how much interest did Krishna get from the Axis bank and the Bandhan bank together?
(a) Rs. 68600
(b) Rs. 67600
(c) Rs. 64600
(d) Rs. 71200
144. If the rate of interest was interchanged i.e. Axis bank had offered R% per annum simple interest and
Bandhan bank had offered 20% per annum compound interest then how much less money Krishan would
have received at the end of 3 years?
(a) Rs. 16800
(b) Rs. 15800
(c) Rs. 14800
(d) Rs. 16400
145. If Krishan had invested the sum of money only in Axis bank for 3 years under 20% per annum simple
interest then at the end of 3 years, total how much simple interest he would have received from the Axis
bank?
(a) Rs. 25000
(b) Rs. 30000
(c) Rs. 40000
(d) Rs. 20000
146. If the first year’s interest at Bandhan bank was same as the simple interest received from the Axis bank
at the end of 1 year and the rate of interest for the Bandhan bank remained constant then what should be
the rate of interest for Axis bank?
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
2
(c) 66 3 %
1
(d) 33 3 %

MOCK CLAT #18
Directions (Q.147-Q.150): In college A, total teachers are 300, out of this 70% are asst. professor, rest
of is lab asst. In college B total number of teachers is half of the teacher of A At B, 80% is asst. professor.
Total teacher at C is 10 less than the no of asst professor at A In college C, lab asst. is equal to the lab
asst. of B In college D, total lab asst is 40, which 25% of total teacher.
147. What is difference between total asst professor of A and B together and total lab asst of C and D
together?
(a) 432 (b) 342 (c) 260 (d) 234
148. In college D, 60% asst professors are female where was 20% lab asst are female So no of total female in
college D is?
(a) 80 (b) 67 (c) 56 (d) 68
149. In college B, out of the asst professors some have Phd, some have not. So the ratio of phd holder with
the non Phd holder is 3:5. So the non of PhD holder in college B is?
(a) 43 (b) 65 (c) 76 (d) 75
150. Lab asstof A is how much more or less to the Lab asst of D?
(a) 123% (b) 125% (c) 122% (d) 123%

MOCK CLAT #18
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #19

Candidate Name : _________________
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
Test Centre/Hall.
MOCK CLAT #19
(Passage Q.1-Q.5): In a bemusing revelation, at least 799 cases are still pending against people under
the scrapped Section 66A of the Information Technology Act. It will be recalled that Sec 66A was struck
down by the Supreme Court in 2015. But the findings published by digital advocacy group Internet
Freedom Foundation in collaboration with Civic Data Lab, covering 11 states, show that 1,307 cases
were registered even after the apex court declared the law unconstitutional. Sec 66A was found to be an
impediment to free speech – and therefore against the right to freedom of expression – as it penalised
offensive messages online while failing to define offensiveness. This led to widespread misuse, with
police booking people for criticising those in political authority.
That the police continue to apply the statute despite it being nullified by the apex court shows legal
illiteracy on the part of law enforcers. In fact, in order to please their political masters the police often
blindly take recourse to draconian provisions without realising their validity or scope. In the same vein as
Sec 66A, the police have also been guilty of liberally using the draconian National Security Act and
sedition charges to curb dissent and curry favour with ruling parties and social groups linked to them.
This, despite SC guidelines protecting free speech against draconian legal provisions.
The solution lies in professionalising police forces and making them independent of political influence.
Police reforms have been pending for ages, with appointments and transfers of officers still dictated by
political preferences. In an effective democracy the police need to be a strong, independent institution.
For inspiration, look to law enforcement in the US where those involved in the Capitol riot are being
identified and arrested despite being supporters of President Donald Trump.
1. What is the meaning of the term ‘bemusing’ in the passage?

(a) funny
(b) serious
(c) saddening
(d) puzzling
2. What can be inferred from the passage?

(a) Section 66A of the IT Act is still being legally enforced
(b) Section 66A of the IT Act curbed free speech of citizens
(c) Section 66A of the IT Act relates to sedition through online platform
(d) Section 66A of the IT Act is a liberal provision, granting immense power to citizens
3. What can be inferred from the passage?

(a) Section 66A of the IT Act was ambiguous.
(b) In a democracy, like the U.S.A., police is a part of the executive, not legislature
(c) The Supreme court tried to declare section 66A unconstitutional, but in vain.
(d) Donald Trump holds influence over the police in the U.S
4. What cannot be said to be true about section 66A?

(a) that it is unconstitutional
(b) that it is against free speech
(c) that it is draconian
(d) that it is used by the police to moral police citizens online
5. What is the underlying theme of the passage?

(a) the police’s disobedience of the court’s orders
(b) the illegality of section 66A of the IT Act
(c) the police’s inefficiency in being a body independent from politics
(d) the danger to freedom of speech in india

MOCK CLAT #19
(Passage Q.6-Q.12):
Shall I compare thee to a summer’s day?
Thou art more lovely and more temperate:
Rough winds do shake the darling buds of May,
And summer’s lease hath all too short a date;
Sometime too hot the eye of heaven shines,
And often is his gold complexion dimm'd;
And every fair from fair sometime declines,
By chance or nature’s changing course untrimm'd;
But thy eternal summer shall not fade,
Nor lose possession of that fair thou ow’st;
Nor shall death brag thou wander’st in his shade,
When in eternal lines to time thou grow’st:
So long as men can breathe or eyes can see,
So long lives this, and this gives life to thee.
Sonnet 18: Shall I compare thee to a summer’s day?- By William Shakespeare
6. In the poem, the speaker compares his beloved to a summer’s day in the first line. According to the poet,
the comparison is…?
(a) proper and appropriate
(b) unworthy
(c) scandalous
(d) unclear from the passage
7. What is meant by “eternal summer” in the poem?

(a) the poet’s beloved’s youth and beauty
(b) the sun and its gold complexion
(c) the permanence of death
(d) the rough winds of May
8. What does the poet mean by “And every fair from fair sometime declines”?
(a) the beauty is eternal
(b) that the sun’s light is the only permanent beauty on earth
(c) that even beauty falls away from beautiful people with time
(d) that only beauty of nature is permanent
9. What is ‘this’ in “So long lives this, and this gives life to thee.”?
(a) the sun
(b) the poet’s beloved
(c) the verse
(d) eternal summer
10. What is the mood of the poem?

(a) romantic
(b) depressing
(c) rhetorical
(d) intriguing
11. How does the sonnet eternalize his beloved’s beauty?

(a) by comparing him to the sun
(b) by referring to his beauty as a summer day
(c) by calling it as permanent as death
(d) by writing this sonnet

MOCK CLAT #19
12. What is the antonym of ‘eternal’?

(a) transient
(b) perpetual
(c) ceaseless
(d) perennial
(Passage Q.13-Q.18):
Tyger Tyger, burning bright,
In the forests of the night;
What immortal hand or eye,
Could frame thy fearful symmetry?
In what distant deeps or skies.

Burnt the fire of thine eyes?
On what wings dare he aspire?
What the hand, dare seize the fire?
And what shoulder, & what art,

Could twist the sinews of thy heart?
And when thy heart began to beat,
What dread hand? & what dread feet?
What the hammer? what the chain,

In what furnace was thy brain?
What the anvil? what dread grasp,
Dare its deadly terrors clasp!
When the stars threw down their spears

And water'd heaven with their tears:
Did he smile his work to see?
Did he who made the Lamb make thee?
Tyger Tyger burning bright,

In the forests of the night:
What immortal hand or eye,
Dare frame thy fearful symmetry?
The tiger, by William Blake
13. What is the underlying theme of the poem?

(a) the question as to what kind of divine being could create the tiger
(b) that the nature is fearsome and unforgiving
(c) that there is a power higher than nature, and even the strongest tiger that roams this planet
(d) that the tiger is a marvelous being, a force of nature
14. The poet uses the tiger as a symbolism to show which of the following qualities?
(a) attractive and symmetrical
(b) ferocious
(c) moral
(d) beautiful yet dangerous
15. What does the poet mean by “fearful symmetry” of the tiger?
(a) the aesthetic beauty
(b) a beauty so perfect that it is intimidating
(c) beautiful and frightening
(d) fiery and symmetrical

MOCK CLAT #19
16. The tiger does not invoke which of the following feelings in the poet?
(a) awe
(b) fear
(c) familiarity
(d) curiosity
17. What literary device does the author use in the following lines?
“When the stars threw down their spears
And water’d heaven with their tears:”
(a) metaphor
(b) simile
(c) alliteration
(d) personification
18. Why does the poet wonder whether the tiger and the lamb have been made by the same entity?
(a) As both of them are starkly opposite
(b) As the tiger preys on the lamb
(c) as a lamb is weak
(d) as the tiger is magnificent and the lamb is not
(Passage Q.19-Q.23): In a chapter of S. Hareesh’s JCB award-winning recent novel, Moustache, the
narrator, speaking at a book launch, is rebuked for suggesting that the best stories need not offer any
political or philosophical insight because we go to them for the sheer joy of reading. “Writers were under
attack, even being killed, and yet there were those who waxed eloquent about the literary merits of the
hare and the tortoise story,” says a young man in the audience, asserting that such people “are
responsible for the fascist mindset that had spread across India”.
The visibly unjust assault unsettles the narrator and leads him to self-flagellation. “Such was his oratory,
that I found myself wanting to agree with him. I looked pathetically at myself.”
This episode, albeit fictional, echoes an overwhelming truth of our times — the division of India into two
extreme ideological poles and the growing isolation, even demonisation, of the non-adherent citizen. The
most innocuous act of this citizen can invite their wrath, one of whom carries the ‘anti-national’ sword and
the other moves with the ‘fascist’ scimitar.
The unfortunate placard — if not with me, you are with them — that both sides wear on their chest has
reduced the space for any meaningful political possibility along the centre. One cannot easily make an
argument without inviting an accusation from the people one is trying to stand for. A remark on the
failures of Rahul Gandhi, for instance, may be construed as one aimed at strengthening the Bharatiya
Janata Party (BJP). But if political correctness demands that all questions are aimed at the opposite
camp, and none at one’s own for the fear that it might adversely affect any political campaign, it gradually
leads to an unexamined life.
19. Which of the following is the most appropriate inference of the dialogue “Writers were under attack, even
being killed, and yet there were those who waxed eloquent about the literary merits of the hare and the
tortoise story” spoken by the young man in audience?
(a) The young man opposes the idea of narrator and accuses him of supporting the fascist ideology
(b) The young man agrees with the narrator that people read stories for the sheer experience of joy in
reading and hence, the stories need not contain any political or philosophical insight.
(c) The young man criticizes the narrator for suggesting to undermine political or philosophical insight in
stories when writers are being attacked for creating pieces of substance for the society.
(d) The young man suggests that philosophical and political insights should be an important part of the
stories as they create awareness among the citizens about the attacks on writers.

MOCK CLAT #19
20. According to the passage, the sentence “if not with me, you are with them” suggests:
(a) It is difficult for a person to have neutral or no political views.
(b) A person whose beliefs do not align with a particular political group is accused to be supporting the
political group in opposition.
(c) There are two existing ideologies in the country.
(d) There is no scope for a third political group to thrive in today’s political scenario.
21. According to the passage, which among the following cannot be considered an innocuous act?
(a) Students failing in an examination
(b) Injury occurring while playing sports
(c) Blasphemy
(d) Worshipping god in temples
22. Which of the following word is synonymous with the word ‘Belligerence’ occurring in the passage?
(a) Animosity
(b) Amicable
(c) Tranquility
(d) Concordant
23. On the basis of your reading of the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the writers who
are being attacked in the country:
(a) They believe in anarchy.
(b) They support the opposition party.
(c) They have unconventional thoughts which is not acceptable to the people with extremist ideologies.
(d) They want to enter politics but opposed by the existing political parties.
(Passage Q.24-Q.28): The latest ‘in’ thing to do is to pack up one’s data bags and leave WhatsApp for
‘safer’ options like Telegram and Signal. While this mass migration to other apps is indicative of a more
data-conscious user base, it is also WhatsApp’s ‘Facebook’ moment. Just like Facebook went from being
a cool website for the younger generation to being a playground for our family elders, WhatsApp also
eventually became an uncle-aunty country and is now being ditched for trendier alternatives.
Facing tremendous backlash, WhatsApp has now pushed the implementation date of compulsorily
making users agree to its updated privacy policy to 15 May. But as far as new Signal and Telegram users
are concerned, the damage is already done. This ‘Facebook’ moment is the eventual decline of a social
media platform after a period of intense domination. Arguably, it became very explicit in Facebook’s case
after the mega-popular platform suffered a significant decline in users around 2017-18, and some
even blamed poor parents for ‘killing it’.
Now, it seems like WhatsApp is following a similar trajectory. For the last five years or so, the messaging
app has been the dominant medium of communication in India. From loud and proud ‘Good Morning’
messages (that literally clogged the internet) to endless memes and videos, the application’s ‘free’
service was a game-changer for a country that for so long was held back by 100-texts per day plans.
But with [1] good came [1] bad, and then [1] very bad. Preachy lectures by distant relatives on family
groups aside, ‘WhatsApp University’ became synonymous with fake news and disinformation, which
could be forwarded as easily as one received it. “Verification, fact-checking, what’s that?” became the
sentiment, as a lengthy message received on some obscure group became as trusted as something
you’d read in a book or trusted news source.
Spamming and scamming have become part-and-parcel of the WhatsApp experience. But the recent
software update that allegedly compromises quite a bit of user data is just cherry on the top. The recent
update, which will come into effect on 8 February, has raised concerns about the app’s data sharing
policy with its parent company Facebook. While WhatsApp has always shared data with Facebook,
users do not have the option of opting out of this particular update.

MOCK CLAT #19
24. According to the passage, which of the following cannot be said about social media apps ‘Telegram’ and
‘Signal’?
(a) They are safer than Whatsapp
(b) They are trendier than Whatsapp or Facebook
(c) The older generation is unaware of these apps
(d) They are following the trajectory of Whatsapp and Facebook
25. The ‘Facebook moment’ signifies:

(a) Declination of Whatsapp
(b) Generation gap in the society
(c) A business milestone for Facebook
(d) Increase in tech-savvy population
26. Identify the figure of speech in the sentence “While this mass migration to other apps is indicative of a
more data-conscious user base, it is also WhatsApp’s ‘Facebook’ moment”:
(a) Personification
(b) Onomatopoeia
(c) Alliteration
(d) Metaphor
27. Which article replaces [1] in the above passage?

(a) a
(b) an
(c) the
28. What is the central idea being conveyed by the author in the above passage?
(a) The new privacy policy introduced by Whatsapp has caused a state of turmoil among its users. It
already had no regulation over circulation of fake news.
(b) Whatsapp is following trajectory of Facebook as older generation has started to use whatsapp more
and more due to which there is a decline in users from the younger generation.
(c) The already deteriorating image of the social media giant, Whatsapp, among younger generation has
been further tarnished because of the new privacy policy introduced by the company being a cause of
concern, due to which, Whatsapp is losing its users to new apps like ‘Telegram’ and ‘Signal’.
(d) Once a social media giant has lost its users to trendier apps like ‘Telegram’ and ‘Signal’ because of
no regulation over fake news circulation, no verification and fact checking. Also, Whatsapp is
following a similar trajectory followed by Facebook.

MOCK CLAT #19
(Passage Q.29-Q.33): Union Home Minister Amit Shah on Sunday said the implementation of Inner Line
Permit (ILP) was the biggest gift given by the Centre to Manipur since its creation as a state. “ILP was a
long-standing demand of the indigenous people of Manipur. They demanded it for so long that once they
forgot it. Prime Minister Narendra Modiji thought denying ILP will be an injustice to the people of Manipur.
So, he gave it to the state in December last year. This is the biggest gift given by the Centre to Manipur
since it was established as a state,” Shah told people at a programme in Imphal.
He appealed to the state’s civil society groups to have faith in the government. He urged them to include
Manipur’s development in their charter of demands. He will meet them before flying back to New Delhi
later in the day. The civil society organisations on Saturday said the people of Manipur would not accept
any ethnic-based territorial council within Manipur. They said such an arrangement would create more
political and ethnic problems in the state. According to media reports, the Centre will set up a territorial
council each in Manipur and Arunachal as it tries to solve the protracted Naga political problem.
29. Who established Inner line Permit in India?

(a) Indian Government
(b) Mugal Empire
(c) Portuguese Empire
(d) British Government
30. Which states are under ILP?

(a) Nagaland
(b) Mizoram
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) All of above
31. For how many days temporary permit is issued?

(a) 15 days
(b) 20 days
(c) 25 days
(d) 30 days
32. The Inner Line Permit is applicable under which Schedule of the Constitution?
(a) Second
(b) Fourth
(c) Sixth
(d) Eighth
33. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Inner Line Permit?
1. Inner Line Permit can be obtained by foreigner to visit north eastern India.
2. Except for Manipur all North east states require Inner line permit.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both
(d) None

MOCK CLAT #19
(Passage Q.34-Q.38): Out of 189 countries, India has ranked 131 on the Human Development Index
2020 prepared by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). With an HDI value of 0.645, the
country fell in the medium human development category. The UNDP has revised and updated the
underlying data and adjusted the goalpost, making it difficult to accurately compare India’s ranking this
year and in 2019. However, the UNDP in its country report gave some statistics tracing India’s journey in
human development between 1990 and 2019.
The report stated that since 1990, the HDI value of India has increased to 0.645 from 0.429, registering
an increase of over 50%. During the same period, the life expectancy at birth in India rose by nearly 12
years, while mean years of schooling witnessed an increase of 3.5 years. During this while, the expected
years of schooling also rose by 4.5 years. Moreover, during this period,GNI per capita of India also
increased, registering a rise of nearly 274%.
34. Which state of India is going to develop India’s first Snow leopard Conservation Center?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Andhra Pradesh
35. Which of the following indices is not released by the UNDP?

(a) Human Development Index
(b) Multidimensional poverty Index
(c) Gender Development Index
(d) Environment Quality Index
36. Who develop Human Development Index?

(a) Leandro Prados de la Escosura
(b) John Graunt
(c) Ferdinando Galiani
(d) Euclid
37. Which of the following are the major criteria of HDI?

(a) Life expectancy for health
(b) Expected years of schooling
(c) Gross National Income
(d) All of above.
38. Which country has lowest HDI in year 2019?

(a) Syria
(b) South Sudan
(c) Niger
(d) Mali
(Passage Q.39-Q.43): US President Joe Biden has signed an executive order to rejoin the historic Paris
agreement on climate change, a commitment that he made during his election campaign. The Trump
administration on November last formally withdrew from the Paris accord, a decision originally announced
three years ago, arguing that the agreement was disadvantageous for the US, while it gives benefits to
countries like China, Russia and India. Former President Donald Trump had said the deal could be
economically detrimental and cost 2.5 million Americans their jobs by 2025.
The Paris accord committed the US and 187 other countries to keeping rising global temperatures below
2C above pre-industrial levels and attempting to limit them even more, to a 1.5C rise.Rejoining the
climate deal was one of the few executive orders that Biden signed in front of a pool of reporters in the
Oval Office on Wednesday soon after his arrival at the White House as the 46th President of the United
States."...that's one I'm going to do while you're all here -- is a commitment I made that we're going to
rejoin the Paris Climate Accord, as of today,” he said.

MOCK CLAT #19
39. When was the Paris agreement adopted?

(a) 16 November 2004
(b) 14 October 2010
(c) 12 December 2015
(d) 18 January 2020
40. What are cons of Paris agreement?

(a) Different rules for different countries.
(b) Beneficial for only countries China, Russia and India
(c) Creates clean energy jobs only to Americans
(d) All of above
41. The Paris agreement deals with the following-

A. Climate change and Clean Energy
B. Global Public health
C. Adaptation
D. Finance
(a) A/ B/ C
(b) A/ C/ D
(c) B/ C/ D
(d) A/ B / D
42. Who was the first to withdraw from Paris Agreement?

(a) Barack Obama, US President
(b) BounnhangVorachith, laos President
(c) Donald Trump, US President
(d) Jovenel Moise, Haiti President
43. What did the Prime Minister Narendra Modi launch with the French president, François Hollande, at the
Paris COP21 climate summit?
(a) The Clean Energy Plan
(b) The International Climate Initiative
(c) The International Solar Alliance
(d) Global Warming Solution Act
(Passage Q.44-Q.48): The US has yet again warned India that it could face sanctions over it acquiring
five [1]Almaz-Antei S-400 Triumf self-propelled systems for $5.5 billion.Senior US officials told Reuters on
January 15 that New Delhi was unlikely to get a waiver over Washington invoking its Countering
America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act (CAATSA) on the Indian Air Force (IAF) for its S-400 buy.
Reuters reported that this position was unlikely to change under the incoming US administration headed
by President Joe Biden that assumed office on Tuesday.
“We urge all of our allies and partners to forego transactions with [1] that risk triggering sanctions under
CAATSA,” Reuters quoted a US embassy spokesman in Delhi as saying. CAATSA, the official added,
does not have any blanket or country-specific waiver provision. Approved in July 2017, CAATSA is
Washington’s response to [1] annexation of [2] in 2014 and its alleged interference in the US presidential
elections two years later, in 2016.In his recent farewell address, the returning US ambassador to Delhi
Kenneth Juster too warned India that Washington could invoke CAATSA against it for buying the S-400.
Speaking in parables, Juster stated that India will have to make certain ‘choices’ on its overall approach
on acquiring military hardware, but mystifyingly added that CAATSA sanctions were never designed to
harm friends and allies, of which Delhi was undoubtedly one.
(a) China (b) Russia (c) Israel (d) Turkey

MOCK CLAT #19
45. US imposed sanctions on which of the following Countries for acquiring the Russian S-400 ground-to-air
defenses in mid-2019?
(a) Egypt
(b) India
(c) Turkey
(d) Iran
(a) Crimea
(b) Kyiv
(c) Odesa
(d) Sumy
47. CAASTA was passed by the US Congress in which year?

(a) 2014
(b) 2015
(c) 2016
(d) 2017
48. S-400 is which of the following?

(a) Air to Air Missile System
(b) Surface to Air Missile System
(c) Water to Air Missile System
(d) Surface to Surface Missile System
(Passage Q.49-Q.53): The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 is an act of
the Parliament of India with the objective to provide for protection of rights of transgender people, their
welfare, and other related matters. The act was introduced in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the
Parliament, on 19 July 2019 by the Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, Thawar Chand Gehlot,
in light of the lapse of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill, 2018 (Bill No. 210-C of 2016).
The 2019 act and the immediately preceding 2018 bill, were both preceded by a 2016 version. They were
met with protests and criticism by transgender people, lawyers, and activists in India. The 2016 bill was
sent to a standing committee which submitted its report in July 2017. Following this, the Lok Sabha
tabled and passed a newer version of the bill in December 2018. However, it did not incorporate many of
the committee's recommendations. Although members of the opposition criticised the 2019 act and
assured transgender people that they would not vote in favour of it, it was passed by the Lok Sabha on 5
August 2019 and by the Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Parliament, on 26 November 2019.
The president assented to it on 5 December 2019, upon which the act was published in the Gazette of
India. It has been in effect since 10 January 2020 following a notification of the same in the Gazette on
the same day.
49. What are the factors that influence gender identity?

(a) Physical factor
(b) Mental Factor
(c) Social Factor
(d) All of above
50. What is it called when it's for both genders?

(a) Bigender
(b) Androgyne
(c) Androgynous
(d) Agender

MOCK CLAT #19
51. Who is the chairperson of National Council for transgender persons?

(a) Union Minister of State Education & Empowerment
(b) Union Minister of Social Justice & Empowerment
(c) Union Minister of State for Social Justice & Empowerment
(d) Union Minister Of Social Health and Family Welfare.
52. Name of the judge who gave Judgment on third gender?

(a) Justice Sanjav Khanna
(b) Justice Y. V. Chandrachud
(c) Justice K.S Radhakrishna
(d) Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi
53. What are the rights granted to third gender under the Constitution of India ?
(a) Recognition for Persons transitioning within male/female binary.
(b) Rehabilitation and right of residence.
(c) Prohibition of discrimination against Transgender individuals.
(d) All of above
(Passage Q.54-Q.58): Atal Tunnel is a highway tunnel built under the Rohtang Pass in the eastern Pir
Panjal range of the Himalayas on the Leh-Manali Highway in Himachal Pradesh, India. At a length of
9.02 km, it is the longest tunnel above in the world and is named after former Prime Minister of India, Atal
Bihari Vajpayee.
The tunnel reduces the travel time and overall distance between Manali and Keylong on the way to Leh.
The route, which previously went through Gramphu, was 116 km (72.1 mi) long and took 5 to 6 hours in
good conditions. The traveller now reaches the South Portal of the tunnel from Manali, a distance of
24.4 km (15.2 mi) in about 50 minutes, goes through the 9.02 km (5.6 mi) long tunnel in about 15
minutes, and reaches Keylong which is 37 km (23.0 mi) away in about 60 minutes. The new route via the
tunnel brings down the total distance travelled to 71 km (44.1 mi) which can be covered in about 2 hours
and 5 minutes, a reduction of around 3 to 4 hours when compared to the earlier route. Moreover, the
tunnel bypasses most of the sites that were prone to road blockades, avalanches, and traffic snarls.
54. What is the old name of Atal tunnel?

(a) Himalayan Tunnel
(b) Rohtang Tunnel
(c) Heaven Tunnel
(d) The Blue tunnel
55. The project was announced by the Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee in which year?
(a) 1998
(b) 2000
(c) 2002
(d) 2004
56. The electromechanical work in the construction of Atal Tunnel in Himachal Pradesh was undertaken by a
…… .
(a) American Company
(b) Turkish Company
(c) Canada Company
(d) France Comapny
57. What is the total cost of entire project?

(a) ₹900 crore
(b) ₹1,500 crore
(c) ₹2,100 crore
(d) ₹3,200 crore

MOCK CLAT #19
58. Who construed Atal Tunnel?

(a) L&T Engineering & Construction Division (L&T ECC)
(b) Hindustan Construction Company
(c) AFCONS Infrastructure Limited and STRABAG AG
(d) Tata Projects Ltd and Nexus Infrastructure
(Passage Q.59-Q.63): A Ramsar site is a wetland site designated to be of international importance under
the Ramsar Convention. The Convention on Wetlands, known as the Ramsar Convention, is an
intergovernmental environmental treaty established in 1971 by UNESCO, which came into force in 1975.
It provides for national action and international cooperation regarding the conservation of wetlands, and
wise sustainable use of their resources. Ramsar identifies wetlands of international importance,
especially those providing waterfowl habitat.
As of 2016, there were 2,231 [1] sites, protecting 214,936,005 hectares (531,118,440 acres), and 169
national governments are currently participating.
The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Ramsar wetlands of international
importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as
a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. It is a voluntary mechanism
to highlight specific wetlands of international importance that are facing immediate challenges. It is
maintained as part of the List of [1] wetlands of international importance.
59. Where is Ramsar situated?

(a) China
(b) Afghanistan
(c) Iran
(d) US
60. Which Ramsar is man made?

(a) Kolleru Lake
(b) Deepor Beel
(c) Nalsarovar Bird Sanctuary
(d) Harike Wetland
61. Which Wetlands of India are registered under Montreux Record?

(a) Chilka Lake and Keoladeo National Park
(b) Ashtmudi and Keoladeo National park
(c) Loktak Lake and Chilka lake
(d) Keoladeo National Park and Loktak lake
62. Which is the 27th Ramsar site in India?

(a) Indian Sudarban
(b) Asan Barrage
(c) Kanwar Lake
(d) Sur Sarovar
63. How many Ramsar Sites are there in Kerala?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

MOCK CLAT #19
Passage (Q.64-Q.67): In the absence of a doctrine of consideration, the category of intention to create
legal relations plays the role of filter on agreements that are to be enforced as contracts. In Carlill v
Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. [1893] however, the “puff”, “was analysed in terms of intention to create legal
relations.” In Balfour v Balfour [1919], intention to create legal relations was pressed into service to deny
enforceability to an agreement of a domestic nature between a husband and wife. Then came, Rose &
Frank v Crompton & Bros [1925], where the category was expanded to deny effect to an agreement of
honour which two businesses had mutually agreed to be not legally binding as a contract.
It would be incorrect to suppose that all these three cases are natural, organic instantiations or
extensions of a single doctrine or that they are all logically subsumed under it. The fact is that a label-
intention to create legal relations–came to be attached to various different legal consequences
unconnected by a common theme.
[Extracted from ‘Things, not Words: Disambiguating Intention to Create Legal Relations’ by V. Niranjan in
indiacorplaw.in https://indiacorplaw.in/2016/03/things-not-words-disambiguating.html]
64. A husband and wife entered into an agreement that once the husband goes to England for work, he
would send money to his wife every month for her expenses. Gradually the relations between them
became sour and he stopped sending her money. The wife sued her husband for breach of contract.
Does she have a case?
(a) No, because matters between husband and wife are domestic in nature
(b) No, because there is no evident intention to create legal obligations
(c) Yes, because payment of monthly expenses amounted to consideration
(d) Yes, because there was an intention to create legal obligations
65. Gita and Sita decide to meet at Starbucks at 5pm on 1st December 2020 to discuss their notes. Gita
arrives early waits for Sita. She waited for 3 hours but Sita does not turn up. Next day Gita sues Sita for
breach of contract. Is her claim valid?
(a) Yes, because there was an intention to create legal obligations
(b) Yes, because there was no intention to create legal obligations
(c) No, because there was no intention to create obligations
(d) No, because there was an intention to create legal obligations
66. Ram contracts with Shyam to buy his old bike for Rs 15,000 so that he can go on a solo trip to Ladakh.
He books his hotel for 1st July 2020. He meets Shyam to buy the bike on 30th June and starts talking
about his trip. In their conversation they both forgot about the money and Ram leaves with the bike. Next
day Ram left for Ladakh so Shyam thought of asking for the money once he's back. Once back, Ram
returned the bike and refused to pay the money.
(a) Ram has to pay the money because there was an intention to create legal obligations
(b) Ram has to pay the money because it was the consideration for the bike
(c) Ram does not have to pay the money because there the money does not amount to consideration
(d) Ram does not have to pay the money because there was no intention to create legal relations.
67. Mrs Jones was living alone in England so she called her daughter who was working in Canada to live
with her. She told her daughter that if she comes to England to live with her then she will sponsor the
funds required to complete her education in England. Is this a valid contract?
(a) Yes, because there is an intention to create legal obligations
(b) Yes, because offering to pay for her daughter's education amounts to consideration
(c) No, because there is no intention to create legal obligations
(d) No, because offering to pay for her daughter's education does not amount to consideration

MOCK CLAT #19
Passage (Q.68-Q.73): The Karnataka Prevention of Slaughter and Preservation of Cattle Bill, 2020
seeks to ban slaughtering of all cattle. Section 1 (2) of the Bill reads, “‘Cattle’ means cow, calf of a cow
and bull, bullock and he or she buffalo below the age of thirteen years.”
The violation of the legislation, on conviction, would attract imprisonment ranging from three years to
seven years with a fine not less than ₹50,000 per cattle and may be extended up to ₹7 lakh or both.
The Bill, makes even selling/disposing the cattle for slaughtering or intentionally killing the cattle an
offence. If the accused is convicted, then the court can forfeit the confiscated cattle, vehicle, premises,
and material on behalf of the State government.
The Bill has exempted cattle operated for vaccine lymph, serum, or any experimental or research
purpose at any government or recognised institute from its provisions. It has also allowed slaughter if it is
certified by a veterinary officer as being necessary in the interest of public health and in the case where
the cattle are suffering from any disease which is certified by veterinary officer as contagious and
dangerous to other cattle. Similarly, the slaughter of terminally-ill cattle and buffalo which is above the
age of 13 will be allowed upon certification by veterinary officer.
Interestingly, the new Bill seeks to protect persons acting in good faith to prevent cow slaughter.
[Extracted with minor revisions from ‘New Bill seeks to ban slaughter of all cattle; has stringent penal
provisions’ published on 9 Dec 2020 in TheHindu
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/new-bill-seeks-to-ban-slaughter-of-all-cattle-has-
stringent-penal-provisions/article33292885.ece]
68. Y operates a slaughterhouse. He sells fresh cattle and poultry in his shop as required by his customers.
An enquiry revealed that all the cattle are above 12 years of age. Is Y liable under the Bill?
(a) No, because all cattle are above 12 years of age
(b) Yes, because the Bill bans slaughter of cattle
(c) No, because he is not intentionally killing the cattle
69. Y sources his meat fresh from a local farm owned by Z. Z raises young cows and buffaloes using ethical
methods for sale and consumption. After buying cattle from Z, Y keeps the animals in his shed and takes
them out one by one for butchering only when he receives an order. Many restaurants purchase their
meat from Y for serving to their customers. Who all will be liable as per the passage?
(a) Y, Z, restaurant owners who buy fresh meat from Y
(b) Y
(c) Z
(d) Y and Z
70. Dom was a lorry driver. One day he was transporting draught cattle by his lorry to a nearby farm for tilling
the field. He was stopped mid-way for checking by the police and when they saw cattle in his lorry, they
convicted him under the Prevention of Slaughter and Preservation of Cattle Act. Is Dom’s conviction
valid?
(a) Yes, because he was disposing off cattle
(b) Yes, because he was transporting cattle with the intention to kill them
(c) No, because merely transporting cattle is not prohibited
(d) No, because he would never have slaughtered the cattle
71. John Snow managed a cow shed or ‘gaushaala’ where he used to provide food and shelter for stray
cattle, both young and old. He came across a young 1-year-old calf that had a severe foot infection which
was rapidly spreading to its other body parts. He did not have the funds to arrange a veterinary doctor.
He did not want to keep the calf in his gaushala because he was worried that the infection might spread
to other cows. So he fed the calf and added poison to its food to end the animal’s suffering. Is he liable
under the Act?
(a) No, because he did not intend to kill the calf
(b) No, because he was acting in good faith to protect the other cows from getting infected
(c) Yes, because he killed the calf without getting it certified from a veterinary doctor
(d) Yes, because he intended to kill the calf

MOCK CLAT #19
72. Tara had two buffaloes on her farm. The buffaloes although otherwise healthy, were well over 13 years of
age and had lost milk giving capacity. Due to their old age, they were also unfit for draught purpose.
Paying for their upkeep was becoming increasingly unprofitable for Tara so she decided to sell them to a
slaughterhouse. Will she face be liable under the Act?
(a) No, because the buffaloes were over 13 years of age
(b) No, because their upkeep was becoming unprofitable
(c) Yes, because it was unnecessary
(d) Yes, because the buffaloes were not terminally ill and were healthy
73. Tara decided to donate her buffaloes to a government research institute that tested ayurvedic products
on animals before certifying them for human trials. The buffaloes died at the institute because of the
harsh dietary and environmental changes they were exposed to at the institute. Is the institute liable for
cattle slaughter?
(a) Yes, because they exposed the cows to harsh living conditions leading to their death
(b) Yes, because it killed two otherwise healthy buffaloes
(c) No, because the buffaloes died due to research purposes
(d) No, because the institute never intended to kill the buffaloes
Passage (Q.74-Q.75): The Supreme Court agreed to look into whether it should examine the
constitutionality of the proclamation of national Emergency in 1975. The issue came up before the court
as 94-year old Veera Sarin is seeking compensation for the loss she suffered due to the proclamation of
emergency.
On June 25, 1975 then President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed relying on Article 352 of the Constitution
declared a national Emergency in the country. In 1975, the President could impose Emergency if
satisfied with the “persistence of a grave threat to the security of the whole of India or a territory of India,
either by war, external aggression or internal disturbances.”
From media censorship, suspension of civil liberties and attempts to fundamentally change the
Constitution to suit the government, the Emergency is reckoned as a dark period in India’s democracy.
The 38th- 42nd Constitutional amendments were passed during the Emergency which led to a tussle
between the executive and the judiciary that would have a lasting impact on the Parliament’s power to
amend the Constitution.
Mrs Gandhi sought to expand the power of the President and barred judicial review of the proclamation of
Emergency by the President or any ordinance issued by the President even if it infringed upon the
fundamental rights guaranteed under the Constitution. In the 42nd amendment, the Parliament expanded
its powers to amend the Constitution, even its ‘basic structure’ and curtail any fundamental rights.
Changes were made to the Preamble, which was subsequently considered to be a part of the basic
structure.
Much of these changes were corrected in the 44th amendment. Right to Property was removed from the
list of fundamental rights and made a legal right under Article 300A. The Press was also given the right to
report freely and without censorship the proceedings in the Legislature. Judicial interventions were also
made which prohibited any changes to the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. Now, the provisions of the
Constitution forming a part of its basic structure cannot be amended.
[Extracted with revisions from ‘Plea in SC against Emergency: Why is the petitioner seeking relief now?’
by Apurva Vishwanath, published 18 Dec 2020 in theindianexpress
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-plea-in-supreme-court-against-emergency-and-
why-is-the-petitioner-seeking-relief-now-7108883/]
74. The government wants to acquire the lands of rich landowners and zamindars to distribute them to poor
tenants who work on the farms. It wants to do so to make land ownership more equitable. Can it do so?
(a) No, because right to property is a fundamental right
(b) No, because right to property is a constitutional right
(c) No, because the government cannot infringe upon fundamental rights
(d) None of these

MOCK CLAT #19
75. Saif was a farmer in Punjab who owned 200 bighas of land near the highway. The Legislature passed an
order to take over the lands near the highway without any compensation to expand the length of the
highway. Can Saif take any recourse to the law to get compensation?
(a) No, because Right to Property is not a fundamental right
(b) No, because he is not liable for compensation since it is a reasonable infringement
(c) Yes, because his Right to Property is being violated
(d) Yes, because the Executive can be made liable for its actions after the Emergency
76. ‘Patrika’ a leading national daily published a detailed description of parliamentary proceedings which
turned violent due to opposing policies of different parties that condemned a bill for discussion by
creating a ruckus. The government asked Patrika to censor the article and omit the violent outcome of the
proceedings. Can it do so?
(a) No, because right to free press is a fundamental right in the Constitution
(b) No, because media has the right to report parliamentary proceedings
(c) Yes, because the Legislature can ask media to censor content during an Emergency
(d) Yes, because censorship of parliamentary proceedings is allowed
77. The Legislature seeks to add the phrase ‘to ensure domestic tranquillity’ in the Constitution to foster a
spirit of peace and harmony in light of increasing domestic dissatisfaction amongst different groups. Is
this action valid?
(a) Yes, because the Preamble is a part of the basic structure
(b) Yes, because the Preamble can be amended
(c) No, because it is arbitrary
(d) No, because the Preamble is a part of the basic structure
78. The Parliament seeks to make a new law which will prohibit reservation of seats for women in Local
Bodies. Currently, such reservation of seats is allowed under Article 15(3) of the Constitution. Is this
action valid?
(a) Yes, because it can amend the constitution
(b) Yes, because reservation of seats for women is unnecessary
(c) Yes, because it is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution
(d) No, because it is a fundamental right in the Constitution
(Passage Q.79 – Q.84): Genocide: - "any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole
or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, as such: killing members of the group; causing
serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group; deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of
life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part; imposing measures intended to
prevent births within the group; [and] forcibly transferring children of the group to another group."
Universal jurisdiction is a unique concept which, in its broadest sense, allows states to exercise criminal
jurisdiction against a person accused of grave international crimes regardless of the place in which the
crime was committed or the nationality of the accused or the victim.
Certain countries have used this principle to try individuals in the past and as per a report published
by Amnesty International in 2012, various states have incorporated different forms of universal jurisdiction
for genocide, crimes against humanity and torture.
India has so far failed to criminalise grave international crimes such as genocide and crimes against
humanity. It ratified the Genocide Convention, 1951 in 1959. However, to date, there exists no domestic
law on genocide. Also, India has not yet included the provision on crimes against humanity in its
domestic criminal code. Although the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court defines genocide,
crimes against humanity and war crimes in 2002 (and the crime of aggression in 2010), India is not a
state party to the statute.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions from “Argentina Is Taking a Unique Route to Try Myanmar's
Leaders for Crimes on Rohingya” https://thewire.in/rights/argentina-universal-jurisdiction-myanmar-
rohingyas

MOCK CLAT #19
79. Pakodastan is a country signatory to Geneva Convention. It has 2 religious’ sections DBZ and
Shippuden. 74% of the population follow Shippuden and the rest follow DBZ, both the religious sections
in 2002 had a fight over whose god is stronger and the evidences suggested that God of DBZ is the
strongest. This conclusion sends a wave of unrest amongst the Shippudens. Military and the government
have 90% of Shippudens, owing to the majority in the parliament the government of Pakodastan made a
law to uplift the minority and made it mandatory for the DBZ to send their kids for military training in order
to increase their immunity, the law was met with harsh criticism and association of DBZ refused to follow
this harsh law. Is the new law Genocide?
(a) Yes, taking away the kids forcefully is a genocide.
(b) No, the kids aren’t taken forcefully but with law and good intentions, cannot be genocide.
(c) Yes, because the kids of minority are taken away forcefully, i.e. one group to the other group.
(d) No, genocide requires killing of people of certain group at an exceptionally huge level. Taking away
kids does not qualify to be a genocide.
80. The DBZ kids are forcefully taken to the military camps and they are trained extensively, after a month
40% of the kids could not survive the training but the remaining became super soldiers with immune
system as strong as a vaccinated person. Though the kids were traumatised and refused to come back to
civilization and they now believe in the spirits of the jungle and the rule of the jungle is their law. Decide.
(a) The DBZ kids ultimately lost their faith; therefore, Shippudens are a part of genocide.
(b) The death of 40% of the kids was the price paid by the DBZ community to make their future
generation stronger; the rest 60% has a very well-developed immune system. Therefore, not a
genocide.
(c) None of the above.
(d) This was not genocide as the intent of the Government was not to destroy religious group DBZ but to
make their kids stronger which ultimately happened.
81. What is the most probable reason for including ‘forcibly transferring children of the group to another
group’ in the definition of genocide?
(a) Children represents the future of the whole generation, taking away the kids forcefully could be used
as a bargaining chip later on.
(b) Children are innocent they can be brain washed into believing anything, they must be protected and
therefore they have been included in definition of genocide to stop such kidnapping.
(c) Children are the future, annihilating them or their beliefs annihilates the future of the whole
community, if they are allowed to be taken away or killed the whole new generation is gone, therefore
a genocide.
82. India, being a neighbour of Pakodastan, is concerned about the wellbeing of DBZ minority and seeks to
prosecute the officials of Pakodastan, is India capable of prosecuting them?
(a) Yes, under universal jurisdiction country has a right to prosecute people for international crimes.
(b) No, because India is not a party to the convention that allows the country to prosecute international
criminals.
(c) Yes, India can prosecute them to safe guard the humanity and make the criminals pay for genocide.
(d) No, India has not inserted any law related to genocide in their domestic law. Absence of such
provisions restricts the jurisdiction of India.

MOCK CLAT #19
83. Three weeks after DBZ lost their kids, they revolted against the government of Pakodastan and the
majoritarian regime was over thrown. The officials responsible for the law ran away. Now the new
government & military with equal representation made it mandatory for all children to join the military
training regardless of their religion. Shippudens didn’t protest against the law but 70% of the Shippudens
were against sending their children, regardless they were sent to the military camp. This time results
were worst, 60% of the Shippuden children died and the rest were too traumatised to get back in the
society. Is it genocide?
(a) Yes, because the children were taken forcefully and DBZ wanted to take revenge on the Shippuden.
(b) No, this is not genocide as the children of all religion were asked to join the military, it wasn’t
selective.
(c) Yes, definitely genocide 60% of the new generation of Shippuden died.
(d) No, it is not genocide.
84. Which amongst the following factors was also present in the factual matrix?
(a) Killing members of the group;
(b) Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group;
(c) Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction
in whole or in part.
(d) Both a & c.
Passage (Q.85 – Q.88): The provision of sedition in India has been mentioned within Section 124A of the
IPC, and has been subsequently dealt with in a number of cases. A person is said to have committed
sedition when he or she by way of words or by signs and visual representations, brings or attempts to
bring in hatred or contempt or incite disaffection towards the lawful government.
Sedition is punishable with life imprisonment along with fine or with imprisonment which may extend up to
a period of three years along with fine. Sedition is considered by many as being opposed to the freedom
of speech and expression guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) however the position regarding the
constitutionality of Section 124A was settled in Kedar Nath v. State of Bihar.
This landmark judgment on sedition upheld the constitutionality of Section 124A of the Indian Penal
Code, 1860, and ruled that the offense of sedition shall be framed only when the alleged seditious
speech or expression made was intended at inciting violence, hampering public disorder or peace. The
HC did uphold Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 but narrowed down its scope so as to
maintain the sanctity of freedom of speech and expression which is a fundamental right guaranteed to all
the citizens of India.
Sedition as a penal offense was included in the IPC during the times of British Rule in India. It was then
considered as a severe weapon deployed by the British for suppressing the voices of the Indians seeking
independence from the British rule. Even after seven decades of existence, the viewpoint that Section
124A is a draconian piece of law aimed at suppressing the voice of the masses is prevalent as it is a
restriction on the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression as detailed under Article
19(2) of the Constitution.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions from “Freedom of speech and sedition: the Amulya Leona case”
https://blog.ipleaders.in/freedom-of-speech-and-sedition-the-amulya-leona-case/amp/
85. In a public gathering, Gajendar Singh, the leader of the opposition party stated that “The current
Government of foolish and scoundrels, is full of scamsters. They deserve to be overthrown and we
should do it, we should teach them a lesson by the time results of the next election comes” Gajendar
Singh is being prosecuted for sedition. Decide.
(a) Gajendar Singh is guilty of sedition for making such provocative and agitating statements against the
Government.
(b) Gajendar Singh is not guilty of sedition because his words cannot incite the people against the
government leading to violence and breakdown of law and order.
(c) Gajendar Singh is not guilty of sedition as he is merely exercising his freedom of speech and
expression.
(d) Gajendar Singh is guilty of sedition as his words are capable of instigating and provoking violence
amongst the people.
MOCK CLAT #19
86. Which one of the following is punishable as sedition?

(a) Criticism of the government with the intention to overthrow it.
(b) Inducing people to cease to obey the law and lawful authority.
(c) A publicist and attack on the policies of the government.
(d) An attempt to remove the ministers from power.
87. Based on complaints against the students from NLUI, for raising slogans like “Azaadi” during a protest,
the police arrested them. The students claim that they were protesting against the delay in announcing
the dates for the students’ union elections.
(a) The students are not guilty of sedition as they are only exercising their freedom of speech in public.
(b) The students are guilty of sedition as their statement would incite students towards violence leading
to protest against the college authorities, which is State under Article 12 of the Constitution of India.
(c) The students are not guilty of sedition as they were merely protesting against mal administration and
did not make any statement transpiring into contempt or attempt disaffection towards the
Government.
(d) None of these
88. Zorawar Ahmed, the controversial stand-up comedian made the following two statements at his stand-up
comedy routine show –
I. I was watching The Burning Train on TV. My father came and told me not to watch such nonsense
and turned off the channel. I was like, ‘why so?’ He was like this “it is the video of Godhra kaand.” and
this is a news channel. I said “I thought it is a movie directed by Ommit Shah (home minister),
produced by RSS. I don’t know also if the 2002 Godhra ‘cartoon’ also was a piece of planned art”.
II. Remove all these corrupts and rascals, who are running this nation, whether they are leaders of the
ruling party or the government servants, come help me clean this nation and destroy these politicians.
DECISION:
(a) Zorawar is not guilty of sedition for having made the statement (i) and (ii) as he was exercising his
fundamental right of freedom of speech and expression.
(b) Zorawar is guilty of sedition for having made the statement (i) and (ii).
(c) Zorawar is guilty of sedition for making statement (i) only.
Passage (Q.89 - Q.92): In a marriage, the partners do not hand over their right to bodily autonomy to the
other. Each partner in the relationship has the right to their privacy and independence. Article 14 affords
every person equality in gender. In 17th Century England, Sir Matthew Hale developed the contractual
consent theory wherein he posited, “the husband cannot be guilty of a rape committed by himself upon
his lawful wife, for by their mutual consent and contract, the wife has given up herself this kind unto her
husband which she cannot retract.” This is the harsh reality even today in the 21st century. Such a
situation rips the wife of her fundamental rights. The criminalization of marital rape is premised on the
basic argument that while in marriage the spouse has the right to have sex with his/her partner, that right
cannot be imposed by force, coercion or abuse of authority. The current law in India concerning marital
rape is in a sorry state. Section 375 of the Indian Penal code (IPC) states (state amendment), ‘sexual
intercourse by a man with his own wife, the wife not being under fifteen years of age, is not rape’. While
the legal age to marry for women in India is 18, the amendment to Section 375 comes into question,
ultimately rendering it redundant. In the eyes of law, the relationship between the victim and the
perpetrator should not matter, and if there is coercion for sex it is rape and must be criminalized. In July
2018, it was stated by a two-judge bench that in a relationship like marriage, both men and women have
the right to say “no” to physical relations. The central government in its reply before the bench submitted
an affidavit stating, ‘criminalizing marital rape may destabilize the institution of marriage’. These remarks
by the state reflect the ingrained sense of patriarchy which our systems have internalised.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions from, Rape in the Secrecy of Marriage: Need for Criminalization,
December 7, 2020, https://www.lawctopus.com/academike/rape-in-marriage-need-for-criminalization/]

MOCK CLAT #19
89. A and B, both adults, are in a live-in relationship and are sexually active with each other. One day, A
comes home from work, having had a rough day, he tries to engage in sexual intercourse with B. B tries
to reject his advances on that particular day, however A continues to coerce her and even behaves
roughly with her, and ultimately does engage in sexual intercourse with B.
According to the author of this passage, should such an act on part of A come under the ambit of marital
rape?
(a) No, this will not come under the ambit of marital rape because A and B were sexually active, and that
is considered a good reason to engage in sexual intercourse whenever they want, even if one of the
partners does not consent to it on a particular day.
(b) No, this will not come under the ambit of marital rape as the basic necessity of marital rape is
marriage, an institution which A and B had not entered into.
(c) Yes, this will be considered marital rape because in a relationship, the partners do have the right to
say “no” to sexual intercourse, and there can be no coercion to engage in the same.
(d) No, this won’t come under the ambit of marital rape as both A and B are sexually-active adults and
should engage in sexual intercourse if one of them is going through a rough day.
90. A and B have been married for three years, and have a child together. A is a worker in a shoe-making
factory. Recently, A has lost his job due to the global covid-19 pandemic, and in the pressure of feeding
his family without any source of income has been an alcoholic and gambler. One night, upset over his
loss in gambling he forcefully tries to have sex with his wife who rejects his advances. However, A forces
himself over B and threatens to harm their child if she does not have sex with him. Having left with no
other option, B does as she is told.
According to the passage, can this come under the ambit of marital rape?
(a) Yes, this can come under the ambit of marital rape as even in marriage the partners have the right to
say ‘no’ to sex and there can be no form of coercion in order to engage in sex.
(b) No, this does not come under the ambit of marital rape, as what goes on in the private bedchambers
of two people cannot be ascertained by the State.
(c) Yes, this can come under marital rape as the couple was married and using coercive methods to
engage in sex in a marriage is wrong.
(d) No, this cannot come under marital rape as the husband is the superior figure in a marriage and has
right over the body of his wife.
91. According to the passage, does the non-criminalization of marital rape have to do with the patriarchal
notions of the Indian society?
(a) Yes, because the society believes that the husband is the supreme lord in a marriage and if he
refused something in the relationship, it might destabilize the marriage.
(b) No, marital sex has not been criminalized only because it is not possible for the State to know for sure
what went on in private between two individuals, thus it is difficult to trust one party and declare the
other guilty based on one person’s statement.
(c) No, because what goes on between two private individuals are not to be adjudged by the society’s
norms and regulations as it is their personal matter.
(d) No, men are aware of the fact that they don’t have authority over a woman’s body.
92. Ramesh and Sheetal are having problems in their marital life and have become bitter towards each other.
One day, Ramesh has his friends Anuj and Raj over for drinks, and in a state of intoxication and rage he
allows his friends to rape Sheetal. Will this act of Anuj and Raj constitute as marital rape?
(a) No, because marital rape can only be done by a partner or spouse.
(b) Yes, because Ramesh is the husband and rape done on his saying is considered as marital rape.
(c) Yes, because rape done in the household of the victim is called marital rape.
(d) No, because the men were not in their right state of mind due to the intoxication and thus should be
excused.

MOCK CLAT #19
Passage (Q.93-Q.96): Conceding that the state had the right to impose Prohibition and confiscate
property, the Bombay High Court held that the legislature had the power to regulate only “alcoholic
liquors” and not all “intoxicating liquors,” as the BombayPA sought to do. Therefore, articles of everyday
use that contained alcohol but were not ordinarily used as a beverage, such as eau de cologne or
medicines, could not be proscribed under the act. Although the court recognized the possibility that such
liquids could be used as a substitute for alcohol, the state could not prohibit their legitimate use, and in
fact such a ban would violate Article 19, which included the right to acquire and hold property. Further
restrictions on medicines and cosmetics would hurt the objectives of public health and social welfare
promulgated by the state. Thus, although the court did not recognize a fundamental right to drink, it
argued that the right to property conferred on citizens the right to possess liquids containing alcohol.
The exemption granted to the army was held to be arbitrary and without any reasonable basis. The
judges rejected any attempt to show that the army should be treated differently from Indian citizens.
Since India was not a military state, the judges ruled, the army was not entitled to special rights and
privileges. The judges were particularly scathing toward attempts to distinguish the army from other
categories of public servants. The maintenance of public order could not be said to be a higher order of
responsibility, because a similar responsibility was conferred on the police, and they received no such
exceptions [Source: Rohit De, A People’s Constitution: The Everyday Life of Law in the Indian Republic,
Chapter 1, Page 48]
Answer the following questions, assuming the above decision is valid law:
93. Akash is a general store vendor in Maharashtra who sells a variety of items. Since he is the only such
vendor in his locality and due to the high population of women in that area, the product “acetone”
(propanone) sells like hot cakes. India’s largest supply of acetone comes from China, but due to the
pandemic and political tensions, the import has been significantly disrupted. The Maharashtra
government passed a legislation requiring vendors to limit the amount of acetone they sell every month.
Akash is aggrieved by this decision and seeks to challenge it. Will he succeed?
(a) Yes, the State restricting any usage or sale of alcoholic liquids is violative of right to property under
Article 19.
(b) No, the context surrounding the legislation indicates that the restriction was reasonable, thus it must
stand.
(c) This a political act by the government to infuse nationalism and hatred against China. In this context,
it cannot be said that the restriction is a reasonable restriction.
(d) Yes, the right to use any form of alcohol is a fundamental right based on the above decision.
94. Suppose the above legislation restricted sale of Russian vodka due to supply chain disruptions from the
pandemic. What would be the most effective argument before a court?
(a) The restriction against all forms of alcohol consumption violates fundamental rights of an individual.
(b) The right to consume intoxicating alcohol is not a fundamental right, and the State has legitimate
reasons to restrict consumption.
(c) The restriction cannot be validly invoked as there is no rational basis to discriminate against Vodka.
(d) For the state to impose such a restriction validly, there must be shown a rational basis to impose the
restriction on individuals.
95. The government in Maharashtra also passes a law where it establishes a sophisticated system of ID
cards, wherein those who have issues with intoxicants will not be allowed more than a prescribed amount
of alcohol per week. Kizzyanu, a drunkard, is extremely displeased with this law, and saves money by not
drinking for 10 days, and uses that to challenge this law. Will he succeed?
(a) Yes, the law arbitrarily and unreasonably discriminates against Kizzyanu, like the Bombay legislation
did against non-army persons.
(b) Yes, in accordance with the reasoning above, every citizen has a fundamental right to consume
alcoholic beverages and the same cannot be restricted.
(c) No, the restriction is both proportionate and based on a rational distinction from other categories,
unlike the Bombay legislation.
(d) Yes, the restriction is not a proportionate restriction on Kizzyanu’s fundamental right to consume
alcohol.

MOCK CLAT #19
96. The Armed Forces Special Powers Act as imposed in Jammu & Kashmir and several parts of North
Eastern States provides special powers to the army. Under the act, a military official is exempted from
prosecution without consent from the central government for any killings/offences done by them either of
terrorists or of local people. Using his powers, an army man kills a stone pelter in Kashmir and is not
prosecuted for the same. The stone pelter’s family seeks to challenge the AFSPA. What would the court
hold according to the passage above?
(a) The army is a special force installed in the state with AFSPA powers for a special purpose. Thus, the
restriction on their prosecution is rational and proportional.
(b) Since India is not a military state, there is no special immunity that must be granted to the army and
thus the law is invalid.
(c) A balance must be struck between the two actions. Even if the AFSPA is valid due to the special
nature of the army’s positioning in Kashmir, the action of killing of stone pelter must be prosecuted.
(d) India is a republic and the army’s powers must be comparable to that of the police since both are
public servants. Thus, the AFSPA cannot validly stand.
Passage (Q.97 - Q.102): The offense of criminal breach of trust, as defined under section 405 of IPC, is
similar to the offense of ‘embezzlement’ under the English law. A reading of the section suggests that the
gist of the offense of criminal breach of trust is ‘dishonest misappropriation’ or ‘conversion to own use’
another’s property, which is nothing but the offense of criminal misappropriation defined u/s 403.
The essential ingredients of the offense of criminal breach of trust are (1) The accused must be entrusted
with the property or with dominion over it, (2) The person so entrusted must use that property, or; (3) The
accused must dishonestly use or dispose of that property or wilfully suffer any other person to do so in
violation, (a) of any direction of law prescribing the mode in which such trust is to be discharged, or; (b) of
any legal contract made touching the discharge of such trust.
For criminal breach of trust, the accused is entrusted with property or with dominion or control over the
property. As the title to the offense itself suggests, entrustment or property is an essential requirement
before any offense under this section takes place. The language of the section is very wide. The words
used are ‘in any manner entrusted with property’. So, it extends to entrustments of all kinds-whether to
clerks, servants, business partners or other persons, provided they are holding a position of trust. “The
term “entrusted” found in Section 405, IPC governs not only the words “with the property” immediately
following it but also the words “or with any dominion over the property.”
There are two distinct parts involved in the commission of the offense of criminal breach of trust. The first
consists of the creation of an obligation in relation to the property over which dominion or control is
acquired by the accused. The second is misappropriation or dealing with the property dishonestly and
contrary to the terms of the obligation created[vi]. The principal ingredients of Criminal Breach of Trust
are thus ‘entrustment’ and ‘dishonest misappropriation’.
[Source: https://www.lawctopus.com/academike/criminal-breach-trust/ ]
97. The Crime Department is investigating a major bank fraud case. One of the employees X, who is
entrusted with handling the matter has lost an important file which has information on the whereabouts of
the accused. Decide
(a) X has committed criminal breach of trust as he dishonestly disposed of the property
(b) X has not committed criminal breach of trust as he was not dishonest in disposing of the property
(c) X has committed criminal breach for he was bribed
(d) X’s liability cannot be determined
98. Please refer to the facts above. An intel is received that there was a phonecall between the accused and
X before the file went in missing. Decide.
(a) X has committed criminal breach of trust as he dishonestly disposed of the property
(b) X has not committed criminal breach of trust as he was not dishonest in disposing of the property
(c) X has committed criminal breach for he was bribed
(d) X’s liability cannot be determined

MOCK CLAT #19
99. Anil and Bhadu are working at the police department. A phone call was traced at Bhadu’s place late at
night. In addition to a phone call, a man wearing plain clothes was also seen taking money to Bhadu’s
place and documents concerning an important case went missing on the next day. This is viewed as
credible evidence of bribery. Decide
(a) Bhadu has committed criminal breach of trust as he dishonestly disposed of the property
(b) Bhadu has not committed criminal breach of trust as he was not dishonest in disposing of the
property
(c) The very allegation of bribery is enough to show that Bhadu has committed criminal breach of trust.
(d) Bhadu is a public servant within the meaning of the IPC and thus, he cannot be held liable for criminal
breach of trust.
100. Albert wanted to give some documents to his junior. The documents were entrusted to the junior X over a
phone call. X agreed. After hanging up the phone, Albert asked the peon to deliver the documents to X’s
office. The file never reached X’s office.
(a) The peon is liable for criminal breach of trust as he was entrusted with the documents
(b) The peon is not liable for criminal breach of trust as he was not entrusted with the documents. He
only delivered it.
(c) The peon is liable for criminal breach of trust and X is vicariously liable
(d) The peon is liable for criminal breach of trust and Albert is vicariously liable for he was the one who
entrusted the file to the peon.
101. Please refer to the facts above. It turns out that the peon had spilt some water onto the file. Scared, he
put the file out in the sun and lied to X about the superior not giving the file. Decide
(a) The peon is liable for criminal breach of trust as he misappropriated the property with a dishonest
intention
(b) The peon is not liable for criminal breach of trust as he did not have a dishonest intention.
(c) The peon is liable for criminal breach of trust as he lied to X about his superior and thus has a
dishonest intent.
(d) The mere fact that the peon lied about it, is enough to show the presence of dishonest intention.
102. Anil took a file along with him with the intent of taking it away from the police station. Till this time, there is
no evidence of Anil accepting a bribe.
(a) Anil has committed criminal breach of trust as he dishonestly disposed of the property
(b) Anil has not committed criminal breach of trust as he was not dishonest in disposing of the property
(c) Anil has not committed criminal breach of trust for he has not misused the property
(d) Anil’s liability is subject to further evidence of causing the government wrongful loss which is the
accepted metric of a dishonest intention.

MOCK CLAT #19
Passage (Q.103 - Q.107): In a pluralistic society censorship in arts is not needed because it takes away
the freedom of consumers of arts to decide what they want to see.
Censorship is very damaging to the arts community, because it leads to self- censorship, which is when
artists take out certain things they think will cause them to get a fine, and this dilutes the artistic integrity
of the artwork. Furthermore, censorship also removes the chance for the audiences to ponder or debate
about certain issues portrayed in the artwork. Censorship basically shows the government's insecurity
and refusal to listen to dissident voices. What good is art if it does not make a person think? What good is
art when it makes the viewer or audience feel comfortable?
Also, in a pluralist society, it is theoretically supposed to accommodate diverse views. Censorship in a

pluralist society is just like saying, "People in a pluralist society can have many diverse and sometimes
opposing views, but any view which portrays someone or something negatively is not allowed."
Hence, because of the primary role of art, which is to make a person think, censorship is not necessary,
because it limits the artists tremendously, and it is ironic for a pluralist society to have censorship.

(a) The censorship is against the right of consumer to choose what kind of art they want to consume.
(b) Censorship leads to self-censorship of artists.
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B

(a) Censorship should not be allowed in a pluralistic society as it takes away the freedom from the people
to choose what they want to see.
(b) Censorship in a pluralistic society is counterproductive as it not only limits the arts but also restricts
the diverse views.
(c) Censorship in a diverse society is productive as it restricts the chances of clashes between the
communities.
105. Why does the author think that censorship is ironic in a pluralist society?
(a) The role of art is to make people think and censorship restricts it.
(b) It is ironic because instead of questioning and holding diverse views as it should be in a pluralistic
society, censorship works to keep the mind of the people narrow.
(c) It is ironic because censorship lead to the co-existence of people with harmony in a society which is
inherently divided.
106. Which of the following statement if true will actually strengthen the conclusion of the author in the
passage?
(a) It is found that in the countries which have too many censorship laws, the people tend to have radical
ideology.
(b) It is found that in the countries which have no censorship laws, the people tend to have radical
ideology.
(c) It is found that in the countries which have too many censorship laws, the people are not inclusive.
(d) It is found that in the countries which have no censorship laws, the people are more inclusive.

MOCK CLAT #19
107. Which of the following is an assumption made by the author when he says that censorship invites self-
censorship?
(a) When there is a law for censorships, the artist loses his freedom of expression.
(b) When there are laws for censorship, the artist becomes a rebel and tries to break the barriers of those
laws.
(c) When there are laws for censorship, the artist tries to work inside the bounds of those censorship.
(d) When there is a law for censorship, the artist is free to challenge those laws.
Passage (Q.108-Q.112): There are a few blurred lines when it comes to the topic of abortion primarily
when the exact moment a foetus, becomes a "live human being".
A few points that I would like to throw out is that fetuses have no consciousness and do not feel pain prior
to 20 weeks. I agree that a foetus should not be aborted late in its development as it would be overall
better to bear the child prematurely and put it up for adoption.
But, I will say that a foetus is not a functioning and productive member of society, it does not have a
social security number nor can it survive on its own without its host. Not all these are needed to be
considered human or even important at all but the difference that many forget to realize with abortion is
the decision of the woman.
As a woman if I decide I do not wish to be pregnant, a foetus with no conscious opinion or even a thought
in the world should not have the ability to stop that. If a termination of the foetus results in her wishes to
no longer be pregnant, it is solely her choice.
108. Which of the following is the central idea of the passage?

(a) The idea is that the foetus should not have any rights which the humans have.
(b) The idea is to explain that the life of the foetus is not valuable.
(c) The ideas is that woman’s rights should be placed higher than the rights of a foetus.
(d) The idea is that the there is a lot of controversy related to abortion.

(a) A foetus cannot feel pain after 20 weeks of pregnancy.
(b) A foetus is assigned a social security number at the time of detection of pregnancy.
(c) It is not clear when a foetus becomes a living human.
(d) A foetus has its own conscious choices.
110. Which of the following, if true, will weaken the conclusion of the author in the passage?
(a) Scientific study has shown that a foetus has consciousness and the ability to feel pain.
(b) Scientific study has shown that a foetus starts to feel pain after the 20 weeks.
(c) Scientific study has shown that the foetus does not feel any pain and does not develop any
consciousness till it is born.
111. What assumption has the author made while stating that it is not clear when the foetus becomes a living
human being?
(a) That there is no scientific method to establish when a foetus becomes a baby.
(b) That different foetuses become human at different times.
(c) That the method to determine when the foetus becomes a baby is arbitrary.
112. Which of the following is the most appropriate conclusion to the passage?
(a) The rights of a women are more important than the rights of an unborn person.
(b) The rights of an unborn person are more important than the rights of a women.
(c) There should be a balance of rights between women and the unborn person.
(d) The women should have the right to terminate her pregnancy as per her own choice.
MOCK CLAT #19
Passage (Q.113 - Q.117): It is argued that far from creating ideal market conditions in which prices
reflect the real cost of production, agricultural trade liberalization distorts the market by creating unequal
competition between high income countries and low income countries. This is because high income
countries have better means of productions through their large-scale and capital intensive systems
compared to developing nations’' labor-intensive means of production. As such, seeing that they cannot
compete against these high income countries, there is a tendency for low income countries to forego
investment in domestic production and they just rely on international trade to meet their consumption
needs. In addition, proponents of agricultural trade liberalization have pushed for a reduction in
agricultural subsidies by the government. Why did the government fail to meet domestic consumption
needs? This reduction of state subsidies on and investment in agriculture industry diminishes the
developing countries' ability to maintain agricultural production and thus only increase their reliance on
imported food.
Source: https://www.files.ethz.ch/isn/25338/244_Effects%20of%20Trade%20Liberalization.pdf
113. Which option best summarizes the main idea?

(a) Negative effects of agricultural trade liberalization
(b) positive effects of agricultural trade liberalization
(c) trade dynamics between high income countries and low income countries
(d) Ideal market condition and trade liberalization.
114. In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that;

(a) low income countries do not have favourable climatic condition to nurture agrarian practices
(b) low income countries are often riled by corruption in the political establishment
(c) the consumption needs of the low income countries are met through exporting foods to others.
(d) the consumption needs of the low income countries are met through importing foods from others.
115. The author is most likely to agree with which of the following?
(a) Agricultural trade liberalization is a concept borrowed from the low income countries.
(b) Some trade policies can be double edged swords.
(c) Agricultural trade liberalization is yet to be successfully implemented in India
(d) Agricultural trade liberalization should be studied in schools.
116. Which of the following options can follow the last sentence of the passage?
(a) The entry of imported goods in the domestic market would result in the loss of income for farmers as
their share in the domestic market would decrease.
(b) Ideally, the solution to this dilemma is for greater cooperation among countries, however, that itself is
difficult to achieve due to the lack of leadership and imperfect information.
(c) The individual actions of each country resulted in a chain reaction in the global economy which
propelled the prices higher.
(d) Likewise, the under-investment in agricultural industry has contributed to the slow growth in
production of food crops which ultimately led to agricultural prices rising in the world market.
117. Which of the following, if true, can undermine the argument in the passage?
(a) low income countries are not adequately represented in world bodies such as the UN
(b) low income countries are embroiled in political controversies and hence, are at a disadvantage when
compared to the developed countries
(c) low income countries receive a lot of economic aid from the UN and high income countries for
investment in infrastructure
(d) low income countries are often politically unstable and so, cannot compete against the developed
countries.

MOCK CLAT #19
Passage (Q.118 - Q.122): Like a brain, an ant colony operates without central control. Each is a set of
interacting individuals, either neurons or ants, using simple chemical interactions that in the aggregate
generate their behaviour. People use their brains to remember. Can ant colonies do that? This question
leads to another question: what is memory? For people, memory is the capacity to recall something that
happened in the past. We also ask computers to reproduce past actions – the blending of the idea of the
computer as brain and brain as computer has led us to take ‘memory’ to mean something like the
information stored on a hard drive. We know that our memory relies on changes in how much a set of
linked neurons stimulate each other; that it is reinforced somehow during sleep; and that recent and long-
term memory involve different circuits of connected neurons.
Any living being can exhibit the simplest form of memory, a change due to past events. Look at a tree
that has lost a branch. It remembers by how it grows around the wound, leaving traces in the pattern of
the bark and the shape of the tree. You might be able to describe the last time you had the flu, or you
might not. Either way, in some sense your body ‘remembers’, because some of your cells now have
different antibodies, molecular receptors, which fit that particular virus.
Past events can alter the behaviour of both individual ants and ant colonies. Individual carpenter ants
offered a sugar treat remembered its location for a few minutes; they were likely to return to where the
food had been.
An ant of Sahara Desert ant species can remember how far it walked, or how many steps it took, since
the last time it was at the nest.
A red wood ant colony remembers its trail system leading to the same trees, year after year, although no
single ant does. In the forests of Europe, they forage in high trees to feed on the excretions of aphids that
in turn feed on the tree. Their nests are enormous mounds of pine needles situated in the same place for
decades, occupied by many generations of colonies. Each ant tends to take the same trail day after day
to the same tree. During the long winter, the ants huddle together under the snow. When the ants
emerge in the spring, an older ant goes out with a young one along the older ant’s habitual trail. The
older ant dies and the younger ant adopts that trail as its own, thus leading the colony to remember, or
reproduce, the previous year’s trails.
Source: the wire.in
118. Which of the following observations about the ant colony, if true, would provide further support to the
author’s thesis?
(a) When the movement of the ant colony was disturbed, the ants switched tasks and positions and the
patterns of ant colony could not shift back to the undisturbed state.
(b) A foraging ant who has found some food does not recruit others because there are not likely to be
other foods nearby.
(c) The ant colony’s shape changes every day as individual ants trace different foraging paths, switch
talks and positions in the colony, but the colony returns the original shape.
(d) Foraging ants individually search for scattered foods, without leaving any chemical trail and return to
the nest with the food they may have found.
119. Which of the following cannot be inferred about red wood ants?
(a) Red wood ants are known to have huge nests that occupy the same place for decades on end.
(b) In winter red wood ants live under the snow only to emerge in spring.
(c) In red wood ants the younger ants establish their own trails by taking older ants with them.
(d) Red wood ants hunt down high trees for the droppings of other insects.
(a) Some ant colonies have been known to have older ants that train the younger ones to follow their
trails.
(b) In all species of ants, individual ants exhibit the exact same memory as that of ant colonies.
(c) It has been studied that like all other living beings, past events can lead to changes in the behaviour
of ants.
(d) Certain species of ants can remember the location of food, and trace their way back to it.

MOCK CLAT #19
121. What is the central argument that the author is making?

(a) Different species of ants have different codes and means of functioning.
(b) Ant colonies possess memory, much like individual ants and most other living species.
(c) Red wood ants have shown signs of significant retention and long term memory vis-à-vis the Sahara
Desert ant.
(d) Ants share their memories in the form of linked traces stored in their neurons.
122. “Either way, in some sense your body ‘remembers’, because some of your cells now have different
antibodies, molecular receptors, which fit that particular virus,” (Paragraph 2). The sentence serves which
of the following purposes?
(a) To build an argument through an example or reference.
(b) To counter an argument presented earlier in the passage.
(c) To refute the conventional approach to what ‘memory’ is.
(d) To show how some memory exists not in the brain but only in the body.
123. Passage: The Courtyard by Marriott Hotel plans to reduce its yearly expenditure on the hotel water
heating system. The hotel is considering switching from the electricity powered water heaters to solar
powered heaters as the electric coils in the former burn out over time. Compared to electric heaters, solar
heaters consume significantly less energy and cost about the same to purchase.
Which of the following would be the most useful to know in determining whether replacing the electric
heaters would help reduce the hotel’s yearly maintenance costs?
(a) Whether solar heaters heat the water as effectively as electric heaters do.
(b) Whether the maintenance crew at the hotel knows how to convert the existing electric system to a
solar power based system.
(c) The cost of replacement and the expected service life of the heating mechanism of the solar heater.
(d) Whether the hotel plans on changing room tariffs and hence can afford higher maintenance costs.
124. Passage: There are several new cars in the market that do not use petrol or diesel as fuel. The fuel used
in these cars generally is methane (CNG) and some of the advanced models run on electricity alone.
These cars are eco-friendly and have helped in reducing the overall pollution levels.
Source: https://www.energuide.be/en/questions-answers/are-natural-gas-cars-a-real-alternative/198/
Which of the following, if true, strengthens the argument above?

(a) The cars that run on methane and electricity have a higher mileage than the cars that run on petrol.
(b) The introduction of cars that run on electricity has increased the consumption of electricity.
(c) The cars that run on electricity have a higher carbon footprint than their counterparts due to the
thermal power generation.
(d) Use of methane and electricity in cars generates less harmful byproducts compared to the use of
other fuels like petrol and diesel.
125. Which of the following option most logically completes the paragraph?
Passage: Ethical choices are rarely black or white, and individuals are not very good at assessing the
purity of their own motivations. In a new book about behavioural biases, “You’re About To Make A
Terrible Mistake”, Olivier Sibony of HEC business school in Paris writes that “as soon as there is any
ambiguity about a judgment … we reason in a way that is selective enough to serve our interests and yet
plausible enough to convince others (and ourselves) that we are not intentionally distorting the facts.”
____________.
Source: https://www.economist.com/business/2020/09/17/how-do-you-stop-corporate-fraud
(a) People are more likely to break the speed limit if everyone else is doing so.
(b) Philosophers call such morally ambiguous decision-making “bounded ethicality”.
(c) It means that a culture of cheating can spread quickly.
(d) Individuals are more likely to lie when they are set excessively difficult goals.

MOCK CLAT #19
Passage (Q.126 - Q.130): Other factors include comparatively high illiteracy among elderly women, lack
of awareness about their rights, social norms and, above all, their higher level of patience and tolerance.
Therefore, most elderly women remain within the four walls of their homes and majority of them are
abused by their own family members,” added Mr. Rath.
Like him, other activists who have been working on the issue, opine that the government must create
awareness about the rights of the elderly. “Advocacy of old age issues at all levels of governance and
most importantly implementation of policies pertaining to protection of interests of older persons should
be ensured,” said C.M. Sharma, an activist for old-age rights.
But more than the government, it ultimately comes down to the loved ones of the aged who are truly
responsible for keeping them happy and healthy.
Source: The Hindu editorial by Sweta Goswami
126. Based on the author’s arguments in the given passage, what would be the best way for the governments
to empower the elderly?
(a) They should be more thoughtful about the elderly in the homes and should not leave them all alone.
(b) Special pension allowance must be dedicated for the elderly persons to give better financial
independence to them.
(c) Some entertaining facilities can be arranged for them like playing indoor games such as carom or
cards.
(d) It should be realized that everyone has to pass through different developmental stages one day or the
other.
(a) After retiring from formal employment, scores of the country’s elderly people are made to live a life of
relaxation and indulgence.
(b) According to a latest study conducted by Agewell Foundation, 65 per cent of old people still have
money, properties, savings, investments, inheritance and above all supportive children.
(c) What is essential to understand is that irrespective of their financial status, most old people face
mistreatment in one form or the other.
(d) The elderly people have strong ideologies and insist their offspring follow their principles; this
emotional abuse is causing strain on the younger generation and relationships within families.
128. Which of the following would most strongly strengthen the author’s argument?
(a) In India, the elderly have always been treated with great respect and occupied a prominent position in
the family.
(b) Rural India still lacks a facility to hire a caregiver or a nurse, who would take care of the elderly.
(c) The World Health Organization estimated that the overall prevalence rate of depressive disorders
among the elderly has increased from 10% to 20%.
(d) According to the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India, in its document
on the National Policy for Older Persons, one-third of the elderly population is below the poverty line.
129. Which of the following is the assumption made by the activist mentioned in the argument ?
(a) India’s elderly population aged 60 years and above is projected to rise from 8% in 2010 to 19% in
2050.
(b) According to the 2001 census, in India, out of 19.31 crore households, 9.98 crore or 51.7% are
abusive joint-family households.
(c) According to the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, under Section
24, a caregiver abandoning his/her parent, shall be punishable under the Act with imprisonment of 3
months.
(d) India, now home to 1.3 billion people, is projected to overtake China in about a decade to become the
world’s most populous country.

MOCK CLAT #19
130. Which of the following can be inferred from the author’s description of old age?
(a) One must discuss with older relatives their views on illness and wellbeing.
(b) One must keep abreast of changes in their health and ability to live independently.
(c) Schools must sensitize children about the needs of old age.
(d) It just takes giving some respect and care to the elderly to make their day.
below:
In a certain code language
'make good finance plans' is written as ‘zt mn lo xy'
'good economy helps finance’ is written as 'dn oj mn zt'
'make good progress now' is written as 'xy fs zt br'
'progress helps develop country' is written as 'oj rt cl br'. (All the codes are two - letter codes only)
131. Which of the following represents the code for 'make plans now' in the given code language?
(a) oj xy zt (b) lo fs xy (c) lo oj mn (d) fs oj xy
132. What is the code for 'finance' in the given code language?
(a) lo (b) xy (c) dn (d) mn
133. What is the code for 'good' in the given code language?
(a) mn (b) oj (c) zt (d) br
134. What does the code 'cl' stand for in the given code language?
(a) either 'country’ or 'helps’
(b) develop
(c) either 'develop' or 'country’
(d) helps

MOCK CLAT #19
Directions (Q.1 – Q.3): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
The table given below shows the number of people required for various projects to be completed in
various days.
Situations Situation 1 Situation 2
Projects Number of workers Days required Number of workers Days required
A X + 20 30 x 45
B 𝑌+5 𝑌−5 Y 𝑌−1
C Z2 175 M2 252
135. If 75 people were working on project A, how many days did it take to complete the work?
(a) 16 days (b) 20 days (c) 24 days (d) 26 days
136. If 0.6Y people work on project B for 20 days and then 5 more people join the project after 20 days. How
many days will it take to complete the project B?
137. Find the time taken by a team of 5Z × 6M members to complete the project C.
Directions (Q.138 – Q.142): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
The given line graph shows the sum of the cost price and selling price, and the discount offered on five
different articles.
The sum of the discounts offered on all these articles is Rs. 2300
138. The selling price of article ‘A’ is Rs. 100 more than its cost price. If the article ‘A’ had been marked up by
20% less amount than the original, then how much discount should be offered on the article so that there
is a profit of 14%.
(a) Rs. 80 (b) Rs. 50 (c) Rs. 75 (d) Rs. 60
139. The selling price of article ‘C’ is Rs. 200 less than its cost price. If the cost price of the article ‘C’ had been
25% more and the amount by which article C has been marked up is 15% more than the original, then
find the profit/loss percent if the discount offered on the article remained the same.
(a) 9.6% (b) 7.4% (c) 8.2% (d) 6.25%
140. The cost price of the article ‘F’ is 2.5 times the discount offered on article ‘D’. The sum of the selling price
and cost price of article ‘F’ is equal to that of ‘E’. If the discount offered on article ‘F’ is 25% of the sum of
the selling price and cost price of article ‘B’, then find the amount by which article ‘F’ is marked up.
(a) Rs. 1080.5 (b) Rs. 720 (c) Rs. 740 (d) Rs. 662.5

MOCK CLAT #19
141. The profit earned on article ‘D’ is Rs. 240. If the discount offered on article D had been Rs. 390 less then
what should be the cost price of the article so that the percentage by which article is marked up above its
cost price and the selling price remain the same.
(a) Rs. 2700 (b) Rs. 2500 (c) Rs. 3100 (d) Rs. 2800
142. If the article ‘B’ has been marked up by 20% and then same discount is offered on it then the sum of the
selling price and cost price decreases by Rs. 90. Find the percentage by which the article was marked up
above its cost price originally.
(a) 40% (b) 25% (c) 20% (d) 35%
Directions (Q.143 – Q.146): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A survey was conducted in five cities viz. Assam, Bihar, Gujarat, Haryana and Kerala, for the percentage
of people using O (Oppo), R (Redmi), V(Vivo)different mobiles. Number of persons surveyed in the states
Assam, Bihar, Gujarat, Haryana and Kerala are 2000, 4000, 6000, 3000 and 8000 respectively. Refer to
the data in the triangular bar diagram to answer the questions that follow.
143. Which mobile is used by the least number of persons in all the given states?
(a) Oppo (b) Redmi (c) Vivo (d) Vivo and Redmi
144. The state where the least number of persons uses Redmi mobile is
(a) Haryana (b) Gujarat (c) Bihar (d) Assam
145. The average number of persons using Oppo mobile in Assam, Bihar, Gujarat and Kerala is?
(a) 1980 (b) 1750 (c) 1950 (d) 1875
146. Among the given five states, the states where less than 30% of the people use Vivo mobile?
(a) Assam and Gujarat (b) Assam, Bihar and Gujarat
(c) Bihar and Kerala (d) Assam, Bihar and Haryana
Directions (Q.147 – Q.150): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
There are 2500 student in a college. All the students play different game. Each player either district or
state level player. 30% out of total player plays Football. No of district level Cricket player is equal to the
no of district level Basketball player. Ratio of total Basketball players to the total Cricket player is 3:5.
10% out of total of students are Hockey players. Total Hockey players are half of total Volleyball players.
Difference of district level Volleyball and State Volleyball player is 200.District Volleyball players are equal
to District Football players. Difference of District Cricket player and State Hockey is same as District
Hockey player.

MOCK CLAT #19
147. If the ratio of district Hockey player to the state Hockey players 1:9.then district Hockey players is what
percent of state Cricket players?
(a) 3.23 (b) 4.67 (c) 6.66 (d) 5.61
148. What is the ratio of total district Football player and district Cricket playars to the total State Volleyball
player and state Basketball player?
(a) 24:11 (b) 13:12 (c) 11:19 (d) 11:23
149. Out of total Volleyball player 28% is participate in college sports in some team. If one team has 7 Player
than how many team has participate?
(a) 33 (b) 25 (c) 23 (d) 20
150. Total Basketball players is what percent more or less total District Football player.
(a) 7.07 (b) 7.14 (c) 6.19 (d) 4.44

MOCK CLAT #19
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #19
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

Part of the most Comprehensive Classroom Training, Prep Content & Test Series across the Nation. From the
producers of the Best and the Most number of A.I.Rs in the past years, every year!

MOCK CLAT #20
3. A. Candidates, who are writing the test at centres will be provided with a separate physical OMR Sheet to
fill in their answers.
B. Candidates, who are writing the test from elsewhere need to fill in their answers on the digital OMR Sheet
(Link given at the end of this page)
4. There is negative marking of 0.25 for every incorrect answer. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks
are 150
5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with a BALL
PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the Taj Mahal located?", the correct answer is (b).
6. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered incorrect
and no marks will be awarded for the same.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and, in the
spaces, provided for.
9. After the Test is over, the candidate has to return the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator. The candidate
should take the Test Paper along with them.
prosecution.
Centre/Hall.
Duration : 120 Minutes For candidates writing the test at home,

Max Marks : 150 access the digital OMR from link below.
Centre Name : _______________________ https://bit.ly/OMR_MockCLAT_20
Candidate Name : _______________________
Batch : _______________________
Contact No. : _______________________
Date of Exam : _______________________
MOCK CLAT #20
Passage (Q.1-Q.6): Delhi police’s arrest of young climate activist Disha Ravi on multiple charges like
sedition, criminal conspiracy and promoting enmity between groups – alleging her involvement in a farm
agitation toolkit publicised by Greta Thunberg – appears disproportionate. Police sought Disha’s custodial
remand to ‘unearth’ her purported links to a Khalistani group that allegedly originated the toolkit. Police
have claimed that events unfolding in Delhi including the January 26 violence reveal execution of the
“action plan” detailed in the toolkit Greta initially posted and then deleted. But this allegation will be
scrutinised against the feeble ground presence of Disha’s Fridays For Future India group.
The police’s task is to gauge if the yardsticks for invoking sedition like incitement to imminent violence
can be applied against a ragtag bunch of activists led by Disha. Globally, toolkits are used by activist
groups to provide basic information about their cause and offer suggestions on social media tags and on-
site protests. However, Delhi police has only itself to blame for the public outrage now. Disha’s hush-hush
arrest with no clarity on whether a transit remand from a Bengaluru court was obtained and the remand
hearing in Delhi where she was represented by a legal aid counsel rather than a lawyer of her choice
lead to questions on whether her constitutional rights were prejudiced.
The police action, if intended to quell the domestic and international left-wing support that the farm
agitation has evoked, is having the opposite effect of alienating more domestic constituencies like
farmers and youth. A youth movement, against what they see as intransigence of older generations on
climate change, is gathering pace. If climate activists are misinformed about the farm laws and fail to
recognise the culpability of the current MSP regime for groundwater depletion and air pollution, a
conversation can be initiated.
If high handed actions are undertaken instead even liberal opinion, which keeps its distance from the
Left, will turn. Those supporting the farm laws may prefer silence now, for concern that their principled
position on reforms will be misunderstood as support for heavy handed tactics. Certainly, the alleged
Khalistani hand can be unravelled without an ungainly hitching of that menace to little known green
activists. Arrest the draining away of international soft power, stop seeing activists as seditionists.
1. Which of the following is true as per the above passage?

(a) the sedition charges against Disha have been proven, but the matter is yet to go to a magistrate
(b) the sedition charges against Disha have just been filed and the investigation is still going on
(c) the sedition charges against Disha have not been proven, but the charges of criminal conspiracy has
been proved
(d) the charges against Disha have not been proved and the police has taken illegal custody of the
activist
2. Where did the toolkit in question allegedly originate from?

(a) Greta Thunberg
(b) Disha
(c) An unnamed Khalistani group
(d) it is unclear from the passage
3. What is the meaning of the term “feeble”?

(a) invigorated
(b) enthusiastic
(c) frail
(d) enviable
4. The police must ensure which of the following to charge Disha and her group with sedition?
(a) that Disha was present at the scene where sedition took place
(b) that Disha and her group actually were actually able to stir up violence
(c) that Disha and her group have consensually spread the toolkit responsible for the 26th January riots
(d) all of the above

MOCK CLAT #20
5. Why has there been a public outrage regarding Disha’s arrest?

(a) as she is an activist doing commendable job for the society
(b) as it is an overreach by the current government and the police
(c) as it was done in an unclear manner, in all probability not conforming to the legalities
(d) as it is an attempt to silence the liberal, left wing youth
6. What can be an appropriate title to the passage?

(a) No witch hunts: Scrutinise sedition and other charges on Disha Ravi against feeble ground presence
of her green group
(b) India and its intolerance reaching new heights
(c) Why must Disha suffer due to systematic failure?
(d) youth against the police: welcome to new India
.
Passage (Q.7-Q.12): I doubt not God is good, well-meaning, kind
And did He stoop to quibble could tell why
The little buried mole continues blind,
Why flesh that mirrors Him must some day die,
Make plain the reason tortured Tantalus
Is baited by the fickle fruit, declare
If merely brute caprice dooms Sisyphus
To struggle up a never-ending stair.
Inscrutable His ways are, and immune
To catechism by a mind too strewn
With petty cares to slightly understand
What awful brain compels His awful hand.
Yet do I marvel at this curious thing:
To make a poet black, and bid him sing!
- Yet do I marvel, by Countee Cullen
7. What is the main question being asked in the poem?

(a) why does a loving God allow for so much suffering in the world?
(b) why did the god create diseases which kill the humans he himself created?
(c) why does God let the criminals commit crimes against his devotees?
(d) what makes God so great?
8. What does the poet think about God’s ways?

(a) they are cruel
(b) they are not understandable
(c) they are merciful
9. The poet differentiates humans and God on what grounds?

(a) humans feel pain while God does not
(b) humans have a finite existence while God does not
(c) humans don’t have the power to perform miracles, while God does
10. Which of the following can be assumed about the speaker?

(a) the speaker is a man
(b) the speaker is Black
(c) the speaker is a poet

MOCK CLAT #20
11. What does the speaker think of God?

(a) that God is kind and mercirful
(b) that God is kind and well-meaning, but the speaker is doubtful about the same
(c) the God is evil
(d) it is unclear
12. Which of the following is an example of alliteration?

(a) I doubt not God is good
(b) If merely brute caprice dooms Sisyphus
(c) To catechism by a mind too strewn
(d) With petty cares to slightly understand
Passage (Q.13-Q.16): Former US President Donald Trump was acquitted for a second time in a historic
Senate impeachment trial, but not before he was rebuked by several Republican senators for the
January 6 Capitol riots. The final vote was 57 guilty to 43 not guilty, short of the 67 guilty votes needed to
convict Trump. Importantly, seven Republican senators joined their Democratic colleagues in finding
Trump guilty, highlighting bipartisan consensus about the former president’s actions that led to the
right-wing insurrection.
There’s no denying that Trump put out a stream of falsehoods on losing the presidential polls, and openly
urged his supporters to march to the US Congress. There’s no way he can escape responsibility for the
attack on the seat of US power. However, the Senate vote means that despite being impeached twice,
Trump can technically still come back and contest the 2024 presidential polls. In fact, the Senate vote
revealed the dilemma that the Republican Party faces with Trump still retaining considerable popularity
among the party base.
Meanwhile, the Democrats could have done a better job of calling witnesses for the trial, instead of
rushing the process through. In the end they went for a compromise which was never going to be
enough. Perhaps President Joe Biden wanted to move on and foster the spirit of Congressional
bipartisanship that he thought was needed to tackle Covid and myriad other challenges that America
faces. But the failure to convict Trump highlights how divided America remains – repairing those fissures
won’t be easy. That is music to the ears of autocrats like China’s Xi Jinping. From Delhi’s point of view,
however, US instability and division would be a negative development. Biden did say “America is back”.
Delhi badly needs that to happen to balance China’s rise.
13. What is an appropriate title of the passage?

(a) Trump survives: Failure to convict former US president highlights how divided America remains
(b) The systematic failure of the U.S. Senate
(c) Republicans v. Democrats v. Trump: when will we avenge the Capitol?
(d) Why does the Trump chapter never close? An account from inside the senate
14. What is the synonym of the term “rebuked”?

(a) reprimand
(b) blame
(c) punish
(d) condescend
15. What does the author mean by “bipartisan consensus”?

(a) that both the parties are conflicted about Trump’s involvement in the riots
(b) that both the parties are unable to reach common ground
(c) that both the parties hold Trump accountable for the riots

MOCK CLAT #20
16. What is the meaning of “music to the ears”?

(a) something that someone is very happy to hear
(b) something that is highly doubtful
(c) something dubious
(d) a song like reference
17. Who is an autocrat?

(a) an anarchist
(b) a dictator
(c) an elected leader
(d) an appointed leader
Passage (Q.18-Q.27): I have a rendezvous with Death

At some disputed barricade,
When Spring comes back with rustling shade
And apple-blossoms fill the air—
I have a rendezvous with Death
When Spring brings back blue days and fair.
It may be he shall take my hand

And lead me into his dark land
And close my eyes and quench my breath—
It may be I shall pass him still.
I have a rendezvous with Death
On some scarred slope of battered hill,
When Spring comes round again this year
And the first meadow-flowers appear.
God knows ’twere better to be deep

Pillowed in silk and scented down,
Where love throbs out in blissful sleep,
Pulse nigh to pulse, and breath to breath,
Where hushed awakenings are dear...
But I’ve a rendezvous with Death
At midnight in some flaming town,
When Spring trips north again this year,
And I to my pledged word am true,
I shall not fail that rendezvous
I have a rendezvous with death, by Alan Seeger
18. What is the meaning of the term “rendezvous”?

(a) a meeting
(b) an adventure
(c) a secret gathering
(d) an accident
19. What is the theme of the poem?

(a) death on the battlefield
(b) the fragility of human body
(c) death and acceptance
(d) heaven and hell

MOCK CLAT #20
20. What is the author’s tone in the poem?

(a) accepting
(b) defiant
(c) critical
(d) content
21. What does the author say about his death?

(a) that it will be because of an illness
(b) that it will happen in Spring
(c) that it will be because of a lover
(d) that it will be instant
22. What has the speaker pledged to do?

(a) avoid meeting death
(b) bidding adieu to his lover
(c) meeting death for their appointment
(d) waiting for Spring
23. Which of the following lines of the poem show uncertainty on the part of the speaker?
(a) When Spring comes round again this year\
(b) And lead me into his dark land
(c) And the first meadow-flowers appear.
(d) On some scarred slope of battered hill,
24. What does the author mean by saying that he has a rendezvous with death?
(a) that he knows for sure when he is to die
(b) that death is sure to come, whenever it does
(c) that he has figured out ways to cheat and slip away from death
25. The author relates his death with the onset of spring. What literary device is being used here?
(a) assonance
(b) juxtaposition
(c) consonance
(d) metaphor
26. What can be assumed about the speaker?

(a) he is a soldier
(b) he is a clairvoyant
(c) he is a fortune teller
(d) he is a poet
27. What feelings does the author have towards death?

(a) he is scared of death
(b) he pleasantly welcomes death
(c) he knows that death is imminent
(d) he is trying to cheat death

MOCK CLAT #20
Passage (Q.28-Q.32): If I should die, think only this of me:

That there’s some corner of a foreign field
That is for ever England. There shall be
In that rich earth a richer dust concealed;
A dust whom England bore, shaped, made aware,
Gave, once, her flowers to love, her ways to roam;
A body of England’s, breathing English air,
Washed by the rivers, blest by suns of home.
And think, this heart, all evil shed away,

A pulse in the eternal mind, no less
Gives somewhere back the thoughts by England given;
Her sights and sounds; dreams happy as her day;
And laughter, learnt of friends; and gentleness,
In hearts at peace, under an English heaven
The Soldier, by Rupert Brooks
28. What does the speaker mean by “A body of England’s, breathing English air”?
(a) that his body belongs to England and he has breathed English air
(b) that he is waging war on English soil and the air is filled with the musky scent of weapons
(c) that the air is filled with cries of Englishmen
(d) that the air smells of rich, English perfumes
29. What emotion forms the basis of the poem?

(a) love
(b) honor
(c) patriotism
(d) defiance
30. Which of the following do not form the themes of the poem?
(a) war
(b) patriotism
(c) nationhood
(d) the horrors of war
31. What can be assumed about the speaker from the poem?
(a) that he is near death
(b) that he is a soldier
(c) that he is injured
(d) that he is on enemy land
32. What does the soldier feel towards his death?

(a) defiance
(b) acceptance
(c) fear
(d) cheated

MOCK CLAT #20
Passage (Q.33-Q.37): Tata Electronics has inked an MoU with the Tamil Nadu government. The
company is set to invest Rs 4,684 crore in a new plant in Krishnagiri that will employ an estimated 18,250
people. This MoU was one among the total of 28 MoUs that were signed by the State on Tuesday with
companies for Rs 28,053 crore that will provide employment to 68,775 people in the State.
Tamil Nadu has been working vigorously to attract investment through the pandemic. With the elections
around the corner too, analysts believe the Chief Minister Edappadi Palaniswami has been on overdrive
to cash in on the goodwill that he has garnered through the handling of the pandemic and promotion of
Tamil Nadu as an investment destination. The Chief Minister also went on to unveil the State's new
industrial policy on Tuesday which aims at achieving an annual growth rate of [1] in the manufacturing
sector during the policy period which extends from 2021 to 2025.
Further, the policy envisages attracting investments worth Rs 10 lakh crore (USD 135 million) and create
jobs for opportunities for 20 lakh people during the same time frame. Finally, the policy said one of the
critical goals would be to increase the contribution of the manufacturing sector to 30% of the GSVA by
2030.
33. Tata Electronics has signed a MoU with the Tamil Nadu government to set up a facility for
manufacturing…….. components.
(a) TV (b) AC (c) Computer (d) Mobile
34. Who founded Tata Group?

(a) Naval Tata (b) Jamsetji Tata (c) Ratanji Tata (d) Dorabji Tata’
35. What is/are the Salient features of TN's Industrial Policy (2021-2025)?
(a) Encourages balanced regional industrial development
(b) Encourages development of industrial infra
(c) Encourages higher participation of women
(d) All of above
36. In terms of GDP, Tamil Nadu ranks at which place among all the states in India?
(a) 5th (b) 4th (c) 1st (d) 2nd
37. What would replace [1] in above passage?

(a) 12% (b) 20% (c) 33% (d) 15%
Passage (Q.38-Q.42): The Union Defence Minister Rajnath Singh on February 11, 2021, virtually
inaugurated more than 57,000 water structures in Madhya Pradesh under the [1]. 57000 water structures
were constructed during COVID era. The constriction work for the water structure was carried by linking it
with the MNREGA scheme. The Union Minister Narendra Singh Tomar also attended the event virtually
organized in the presence of the Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh Shivraj Singh Chouhan at Bhopal.
During the inauguration, the Union Minister Narendra Singh Tomar highlighted the need for water
conservation and mentioned that in view of climate change, it is the need of the hour and water structures
that are built under the campaign will be helpful in this task. While speaking on the occasion, the Union
Minister Narendra Singh Tomar stated that MP is the first in India in many schemes. He added that the
achievements in the state have been possible only because of the sensitivity of the CM Shivraj Singh
Chouhan towards the poor and the villages and along with housing, work on corona control, road
construction has also been done in the state.

(a) Jal Shakti Abhiyan (b) Kipling Campaign
(c) Swajal Campaign (d) Jalabhishekam Campaign

MOCK CLAT #20
39. Under which Scheme water structures in Madhya Pradesh inaugurated?

(a) The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Irrigation Scheme.
(b) Research & Development Programme in Water Sector
(c) Atal Bhujal Yojana
(d) Jal-Jeevan-Haryali Abhiyan
40. Under whose Prime Ministership was the MNREGA was implemented?
(a) Manmohan Singh (b) Narendra Modi
(c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (d) None of the above.
41. What is the aim of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act?
(a) The right to work (b) The right to participate in decisions
(c) The right to safety (d) All of above
42. Which is the traditional water harvesting system of Madhya Pradesh?
(a) Pat system (b) Kul system (c) Naula system (d) Zing system
Passage (Q.43-Q.47): Defence Minister Rajnath Singh on Sunday launched an online portal that aims to
provide online municipal services to more than 20 lakh citizens across 62 Cantonment Boards through a
multi-tenancy central platform. The defence minister said the residents of cantonment areas can register
their complaints regarding civic issues and resolve them while sitting at home. "Our government is
committed to refine the system and improve the Ease of Living for people. Ease of living' government's
mantra: Rajnath Singh on 'e-Chhawani' app launch. The defence minister emphasised that the portal is a
step towards smart governance to provide citizen-centric services to residents of Cantonment areas
across the country. Saying that 'ease of living' is the mantra of government, Singh expressed gratitude
towards everyone who worked on the 'e-Chhawani' app. "We request the people associated with
consumer boards to take the portal's feedback on regular periods. The government is making changes
make the system citizen-friendly," he added. "In the trade and economy sectors, India has become a
country of expectations for the world."
43. 'e-Chhawani' app developed by?
(a) Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
(b) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology; Indian government
(c) Tata Consultancy Services.
(d) Infosys
44. What kind of services offered by 'e-Chhawani' app?
(a) Trade licence,
(b) Sewerage connectivity applications
(c) Filing of property and building tax
45. Which is the biggest cantonment in India?
(a) Kanpur cantonment (b) Mhow cantonment
(c) Jhansi (d) Delhi
46. The 'e-Chhawani' portal was launched in the presence of?
(a) Chief of the Army Staff — General Manoj Mukund Naravane.
(b) Chief of Defence Staff General Bipin Rawat
(c) Chief of the Naval Staff — Admiral Karambir Singh.
(d) Chief of the Air Staff — Air Chief Marshal Rakesh Kumar Singh Bhadauria.
47. The Cantonment Board is a civic administration body working under which of the following?
(a) Prime Minister’s Office (b) Ministry of Defence
(c) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (d) Ministry of Home Affairs

MOCK CLAT #20
Passage (Q.48-Q.52): After Prime Minister Justin Trudeau called up Prime Minister Narendra Modi for
coronavirus disease (covid-19) vaccine, India has in principle approved supply doses of Covishield
vaccine for Canada in February. The Modi government has also decided to supply Covid vaccine to
armies of Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan and other neighbouring countries. The process of army to army
supply has already begun and the vaccine will be distributed by Indian Army to friendly countries. The
supplies will be a mix of Covaxin and Covishield vaccine, the same way as has been applied to Indian
Army’s frontline troops. According to people aware of the development, while the supply and delivery of
Astra-Zeneca vaccine to Canada is in the process of being tied up, the request from Ottawa was
approved last week. Canada has asked for one million doses of the Covishield vaccine on February
5.The vaccine supply to Canada was approved in principle after PM Trudeau called up PM Modi on
February 10. While the Canadian Prime Minister discussed vaccine supplies with PM Modi, he also
assured safety and security for Indian diplomats and diaspora, who were being targeted by separatists
elements based in Toronto and Vancouver. The Indian envoys in Ottawa and Vancouver were threatened
by so-called Khalistan separatists under the garb of protests against the three farm laws. However, action
against identified culprits by Indian High Commission is still to be taken even as the Royal Canadian
Mounted Police is investigating the issue. Closer to home, the Ministry of External Affairs on Saturday
approved supply of Covid vaccine to armies of friendly countries with Bhutan, Bangladesh and Nepal top
on the priority list. It was decided that the supplies to armed forces of friendly countries will be dealt by
Indian armed forces as a sign of deepening defence cooperation.

(a) Covaxin (b) Moderna vaccine (c) Pfizer-BioNTech (d) Oxford-AstraZeneca
49. How many doses of Covid vaccine India will supply to Canada?
(a) 5 lakh doses (b) 10 lakh does (c) 1 lakh doses (d) 2 lakh doses
50. Which countries has India plans to supply the vaccine under GAVI's (Global Alliance for Vaccines and
Immunisation) COVAX facility.
(a) Africa , United Nations. (b) Bangladesh, Nepal.
(c) Canada , Australia. (d) Afghanistan and Pakistan.
51. When was GAVI (Global Alliance for Vaccines and Immunisation) established?
(a) 2004 (b) 2001 (c) 2003 (d) 2000
52. Covaxin vaccine is developed using …………..derived platform technology.

(a) Whole-Virion Inactivated Vero Cell
(b) Madin-Darby Canine cells
(c) The Pertussis component
(d) The Toxoids and pertussis whole cell
Passage (Q.53-Q.57): Prime Minister Mario Draghi has put climate change at the heart of his plans to
run Italy by creating a super ministry to ensure a transition to green energy drives recovery and makes
full use of European Union funds. Draghi first job will be to redraft Italy Recovery Plan, which must be
handed to the European Commission by April to tap more than 200 billion euros ($240 billion) of funds
needed to revive the recession-hit economy. Under an EU agreement, 37% of this money must be
dedicated to the transition to a[1]. The former European Central Bank chief, who took office on Saturday
as the head of a unity government created to steer Italy out of the coronavirus crisis and economic slump,
has picked physicist Roberto Cingolani to head a new ecology transition ministry. Ours will be an
ecological government Draghi told his first cabinet meeting on Saturday. In his role, Cingolani will take
over energy matters previously shared with other ministries and combine them with the environment
portfolio. Chief technology and innovation officer at Italian defence group Leonardo and a Ferrari board
member, the 59-year-old has worked in top scientific research centres in Germany, Italy, Japan and the
United States, focusing on robotics, artificial Intelligence and digital humanities

MOCK CLAT #20
53. Which organization has released the Climate Risk Index (CRI) 2021?
(a) German watch (b) UNFCCC (c) WHO (d) FAO
54. Mario Draghi is former

(a) World Bank Chief (b) International Monetary Fund Chief
(c) European Central Bank Chief (d) European Union Chairman’
55. According to Climate Risk Index which Countries Affected most in 2019?
(a) Mozambique (b) Zimbabwe (c) The Bahamas (d) All of the above
56. According to Global Climate Risk Report Index 2021,what is India’s rank?
(a) First (b) Second (c) Fifth (d) Seventh
57. Which country topped the Climate Change Performance Index 2020?
(a) Philippines (b) Canada (c) Japan (d) Sweden
Passage (Q.58-Q.62): The Union Culture Ministry’s flagship festival, the Rashtriya Sanskriti Mahotsav
(RSM), will be held in West Bengal this time, with the inauguration at Cooch Behar Palace on Sunday,
the Ministry said in statement on Saturda.“This RSM which is being organised in West Bengal will
enhance mutual understanding and bonding between people of diverse cultures, thereby securing
stronger unity and integrity of India,” the Ministry said. Renowned artistes, including local artistes, would
participate in the festival of folk art forms, it said. The festival would give visitors a chance to reconnect
with indigenous culture, it said. The 11th edition of the festival would kicked off with the inauguration by
West Bengal Governor Jagdeep Dhankar and would include events in Cooch Behar from Sunday till
February 16; in Darjeeling from February 22 to February 24; and in Murshidabad on February 27 and
February 28“This RSM assumes more significance as it is taking place as we are emerging out of the
COVID-19 pandemic which has severely impacted the cultural sector. Through this event, the
Ministry endeavours to provide the much-needed support and assistance to the artists as well as the
confidence that cultural functions can be now organised taking into account all necessary precautions,”
the Ministry said.
58. Where was the 10th edition of the festival held?

(a) Gujarat (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Delhi (d) Bengaluru
59. The Rashtriya Sanskriti Mahotsav (RSM) flagship festival was first organized in:
(a) 2015 (b) 2016 (c) 2012 (d) 2010
60. Who is the Minister of State for Culture, Tourism of India?

(a) Prahlad Singh Patel (b) Mahesh sharma
(c) Alphons Kannanthanam (d) Arvind ganpat sawant
61. Rashtriya Sanskriti Mahotsav (RSM) covers fusion art form of how many states?
(a) 26 (b) 16 (c) 22 (d) 20
62. Which of the following are not the main objectives of the initiative of Bharat Shreshta Bharat?
(a) To celebrate unity and diversity of the Nation
(b) To promote the spirit of national integration
(c) To show case the rich heritage and culture, traditions and customs of the country.

MOCK CLAT #20
Passage (Q.63-Q.67): Insurance sector regulator Insurance Regulatory Authority of India (IRDAI) in a
circular dated February 9, 2021, advised all Insurance companies to issue digital insurance policies via
the government DigiLocker app. This will lead to better customer experience with faster claims
processing and settlement, reduction in disputes and reduction in fraud, said the Ministry of Electronics
& Information Technology (MeITY) in a statement on Friday. “In order to promote the adoption of
Digilocker in the insurance sector, the Authority advises all insurers to enable their IT systems to interact
with Digilocker facility to enable policyholders to use the app for preserving all their policy documents.
The circular also mentions that the insurers should inform their retail policyholders about Digilocker and
how to use it. Insurers are also advised to enable the process by which the policyholders can place their
policies in the app. Digilocker team in NeGD (National e-Governance Division) under MeITY will provide
necessary technical guidance and logistic support to facilitate the adoption of Digilocker, added the
statement.
63. Where IRDAI head quarter is located?

(a) Hyderabad (b) Delhi (c) Mumbai (d) Kolkata
64. Who is the chairman of IRDAI?

(a) Ashok Kumar Mathur (b) Subhash Chandra Khuntia
(c) Muhammad Mustafa (d) Ajay Tyagi
65. What documents can be stored in Digi Locker?

(a) PAN cards (b) mark sheets (c) insurance policies (d) All of the above
66. By which operating system digi Locker works ?

(a) IOS , Android (b) Windows, (c) OS X, (d) Linux.
67. App digi Locker made by ,

(a) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology; Indian government
(b) Infosys
(c) Tata communication
(d) Wipro

MOCK CLAT #20
Passage (Q.68-Q.72): Attorney-client privilege or lawyer-client privilege is the common law concept that
makes all communications between a lawyer and their client confidential, and such confidentiality is
protected by law. "Privileged professional communication" is the immunity accorded to the
communication between the legal advisor and the client. According to the Black's Law Dictionary,
attorney-client privilege is "a client's right to refuse to disclose and to prevent any other person from
disclosing confidential communications between the client and the attorney."
In Upjohn Co. v. United States, the United States Supreme Court stated that by assuring confidentiality,
the privilege encourages clients to make "full and frank" disclosures to their attorneys, who are then
better able to provide candid advice and effective representation.
In Woolley v. North London Railway (1868-1869) LR 4 CP 602, the court held that information called for
by the client and provided by an employee or a third-party agent, on the request of, and for the purpose
of submission to, the attorney may also be protected.
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides protection to professional communications and confidential
communications with the legal advisors under Sections 126, 127, 128, and 129. The Evidence Act
encompasses within its scope attorneys, barristers, pleaders or vakils and not in-house lawyers.
Section 126 of the Act defines the scope of privilege attached to professional communications in an
attorney-client setting. Section 126 expressly prohibits legal representatives from disclosing any
communications exchanged with the client. It also prohibits stating the contents or conditions of
documents in possession of the legal representative during the course of the professional engagement.
In Kalikumar Pal v. Rajkumar Pal 1931, the court ruled that the communications between an attorney and
client are privileged even if they contain information from third parties.
[Extracted from ‘What Is Attorney-Client Privilege?’ by Afreen Alam & Hamza Lakdawala published 26
Dec 2020 in livelaw.in
https://www.livelaw.in/know-the-law/attorney-client-privilege-indian-evidence-act-bar-council-of-india-
rules-167667]
68. Raju is the owner of Laxmi Chit Fund. He was scammed by Anuradha Enterprises for a certain amount of
money. The money that he lost also included money that he had received from Baburao under false
pretences in the hopes of doubling it. Raju engages a lawyer and shares that he has been a victim of a
scam. However, he is hesitant to share that the money lost also included money which he had taken from
Baburao under false pretences. Should he do so?
(a) No, because Raju is liable for misrepresentation and this disclosure does not fall within ‘privileged
professional communication’
(b) No, because Raju is a victim of fraud and hence, this disclosure is privileged in nature
(c) Yes, because Raju is a victim of fraud and hence, he will not be penalized for sharing such
information with his lawyer
69. Subsequently, Baburao finds out that something is wrong. Baburao is now asking about the details of the
same from Raju’s lawyer since he has also been defrauded. Should he disclose the details revealed by
Raju?
(a) Yes, because the money belonged to Baburao and the lawyer is liable to disclose this information to
the true owner of the money
(b) Yes, because Raju is the agent of Baburao and hence, information shared by Raju to his lawyer is not
confidential since it concerns the principle also
(c) No, because this information is privileged professional communication and disclosure is prohibited
(d) No, because the lawyer was not engaged by Baburao himself to make him accountable to Baburao

MOCK CLAT #20
70. In a bid to find out the truth of the matter and what Raju shared with his lawyer, Baburao engages Raju’s
lawyer as his own. In their first meeting, Baburao asks him to share the details of his conversations with
Raju. Can the lawyer do so?
(a) No, because that information is still not privileged as per Upjohn Co. v. United States
(b) No, because that information is still confidential as per attorney-client privilege
(c) Yes, because that information is still privileged as per Upjohn Co. v. United States
(d) Yes, because that information is not privileged or confidential now that there is a new attorney-client
relationship
71. Anuradha Enterprises engages Louis Litt as their lawyer. They share with Louis documents, which
included a detailed list of all the transactions through which they scammed people like Raju. Is Louis
bound to disclose this evidence to the police?
(a) Yes, because Louis Litt is the in-house lawyer of Anuradha Enterprises and is exempt from such
disclosure under the Indian Evidence Act
(b) Yes, because the documents were part of a “full and frank” disclosure as per Upjohn Co. v United
States
(c) No, because the documents were not part of a “full and frank” during the course of the professional
engagement as per the Evidence Act
(d) No, because it falls within the scope of privilege under Section 126 of the Indian Evidence Act
72. Mike Ross was caught by the police in a case of identity theft. Mike’s lawyer was Harvey with whom he
had discussed his options earlier and who was aware about the entire matter. The prison in-charge
Shawn offered Mike a deal to reduce his sentence if Mike revealed Harvey’s strategies. Mike refused.
Can Shawn force him to disclose the information as the prison in-charge?
(a) No, because that information is part of a “full and frank disclosure” under privileged professional
communication
(b) No, because it cannot be confidential as it is not privileged professional communication
(c) Yes, because prison-in-charges can claim exemption under the Evidence Act
(d) Yes, because the same was upheld in Woolley v. North London Railway
Passage (Q.73-Q.77): The Supreme Court has observed that before punishing a person for non-
compliance of the decision of the Court, the Court must not only be satisfied about the disobedience of
any judgment, decree, direction, writ or other process but should also be satisfied that such disobedience
was wilful and intentional.
The bench observed that a person does not commit contempt of court if during the pendency of certain
proceedings, he takes recourse to other judicial proceedings open to him, even though the latter
proceedings put the other party at a loss. It said:
"such action of a person which he takes in pursuance of his right to take legal action in a court of law, will
not amount to interfering with the course of justice, even though that may require some action on the part
of the other party in connection with his own judicial proceedings. The principle is, that a party is free to
take action to enforce his legal right.”
The Court reaffirmed the view that a person does not commit contempt of court if during the pendency of
certain proceedings, he takes recourse to other judicial proceedings open to him, even though the latter
proceedings put the other party at a loss.
The Court said: "In a contempt proceeding before a contemnor is held guilty and punished, the Court has
to record a finding, that such disobedience was wilful and intentional. It has been held, that if from the
circumstances of a particular case, though the Court is satisfied that there has been a disobedience but
such disobedience is the result of some compelling circumstances, under which it is not possible for the
contemnor to comply with the same, the Court may not punish the alleged contemnor."
[Extracted with revisions from ‘Only Wilful And Deliberate Disobedience To Court's Order Amounts To
Contempt: Supreme Court’, published 21 Jan 2021 in livelaw
https://www.google.com/amp/s/www.livelaw.in/amp/top-stories/wilful-deliberate-disobedience-contempt-
supreme-court-168721]

MOCK CLAT #20
73. Mujrim was being tried in a case of theft. The trial was ongoing and Mujrim was out on bail. The condition
of granting bail was that Mujrim must appear in Court every time he is called and he must not move out of
the state without taking prior permission from the police. Mujrim was asked to appear in Court at 4 pm but
he got late because he was stuck in traffic even though he started on time. Can he be charged with
contempt of Court?
(a) Yes, because his disobedience was wilful and intentional
(b) Yes, because his disobedience was not the result of some compelling circumstances, under which it
is not possible for Mujrim to reach the court on time
(c) No, because Mujrim’s disobedience is the result of some compelling circumstances, under which it is
not possible for him to reach the court on time
(d) No, because his disobedience was not wilful and intentional
74. Akshara was fighting a case against Funny Company in Consumer Court because she had not received
her refund for a defective product. Funny Company asked Akshara to settle outside Court. Akshara
agreed and took her case back. In the settlement, she received less compensation than she would have
in a Court case. Did she commit contempt of the process of the Consumer Court?
(a) No, because Akshara is free to take action to enforce her legal right
(b) Yes, because by settling outside court she has been put at loss as compared to fighting the case in
court
(c) Yes, because she took recourse to other proceedings during the pendency of her case with the
consumer court
(d) No, because she may take recourse to other proceedings during the pendency of her case with the
consumer court
75. Dholu and Bholu were fighting a property battle. The Court directed Dholu to not sell his ancestral
property till further orders from the Court. Two weeks after the Court order, Bholu found out that Dholu
was making a deal with someone to sell his ancestral property. Dholu was discussing offers for sale
because he urgently needed money to pay for his wife's surgery. Can Dholu be held in contempt of the
Court order?
(a) Yes, because Dholu’s disobedience was not wilful or intentional
(b) Yes, because Dholu’s disobedience was not the result of some compelling circumstances, under
which was not possible for him to comply with the Court order
(c) No, because his disobedience of the Court order was wilful and intentional
(d) No, because Dholu’s disobedience was the result of some compelling circumstances, under which it
was not possible for him to comply with the Court order
76. Dholu was a rich businessman and Bholu was the poorer of the two brothers. After considering the facts
and circumstances given in the previous question, would a Court now execute the decree of a contempt
proceeding?
(a) Yes, because Dholu’s disobedience was wilful and intentional since he was rich enough to afford a
surgery without selling the property
(b) No, because Dholu’s wife’s surgery was a compelling circumstance for the Court to consider
irrespective of whether he was rich or not
(c) No, because the only reason he sold the property was to pay for his wife’s surgery so his
disobedience was not wilful or intentional
(d) Yes, because his wife’s surgery was a compelling circumstance for the Court to consider

MOCK CLAT #20
77. Ranjhana, who was in love with Sonam, was accused in a love jihad case by Sonam's parents. Ranjhana
was out on bail on the condition that he be present in every single stage of the trial, without fail. While
Ranjhana was at home, communal violence broke out in his colony. He went outside to break the mobs
but instead, he got caught up in the fight and was badly injured. Next day, he did not appear in Court.
Can he be punished for contempt in wilful disobedience?
(a) Yes, because he committed disobedience of a Court order by not appearing in Court which was his
condition of bail
(b) Yes, because there were circumstances which made it impossible for him to comply with the
conditions of the bail granted to him
(c) No, because there were no compelling circumstances as he himself went out to go and control the
mob
(d) No, because there were circumstances which made it impossible for him to comply with the
conditions of the bail granted to him
Passage (Q.78-Q.82): The petition was filed by an ex-army officer who was dismissed by the Lucknow
bench of the Armed Forces Tribunal in 2018 after attacking his senior officer with stones.
The defense presented before the court was that the officer was depressed since 2006 and had even
been taking treatment for the same. The defence of unsoundness of mind which is given as a general
exception under section 84 of the Indian Penal Code was contended before the Supreme Court.
The bench of Justices R. Nariman, Navin Sinha and Krishna Murthy had held that depression does not
qualify as unsoundness of mind. The provision under Indian Penal Code states that nothing is an offence
which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of
knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law. Section 84 is to
be used in those cases when the accused has no sense of right or wrong or any differentiation. The
appeal for pension was also dismissed along with the petition to reverse the Armed Forces Tribunal’s
order.
Source-https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/depression-not-unsoundness-of-mind-for-s-84-ipc-sc-junks-
appeal-against-dismissal-by-ex-armyman-165257
78. Facts: Mr. Raichand was a businessman by profession having a vast empire stretched across the
country. He was well known in the aluminium and cement industry. In the year 2005, when market
plunged Mr Raichand incurred huge losses. Due to this, he was disturbed and regularly fought with his
wife, Nandini. One night after an altercation with his wife, in a fit of rage, he stabbed her with a knife. He
stabbed her 5 times and his sons Rahul and Rohan caught him with the weapon on hearing the cries of
their mother. Mr. Raichand was charged with murder by the police but he took the defence of insanity.
Decide whether his defense will sustain.
(a) No, as the act was done in a fit of rage and not due to unsoundness of mind.
(b) No, since Mr. Raichand deliberately killed his wife to get rid of financial burden he had after incurring
huge loss in business.
(c) Yes, because Mr. Raichand cannot adjudge his act. The fact that he inflicted his wife with deadly
blows evidently proves that he was unable to judge the casualties caused by him.
(d) Yes, since Mr. Raichand was mentally disturbed due to huge losses in business and may have been
under insanity while committing the act.

MOCK CLAT #20
79. Gordon had undergone treatment over a period of one year for depression. One night his neighbours
were woken up at 3 a.m. in the morning on hearing his wife, Siera cries of pain. When they opened the
door, they found Siera lying on the floor in a pool of blood and with a lot of injury marks on her body. On
seeing the neighbours, Gordon jumped out through an open window and started running away from the
crowd, but he was shortly intercepted by some of the people who ran after him. Siera died shortly
thereafter. Gordon confessed to having attacked her after the neighbours took him to the police station,
initially denying any role in the affair. In his trial, Gordon cited his previous illness and asked for
exemption from the charges on the ground that he was incapable of knowing the nature of the act or that
it was wrong or contrary to law due to his mental condition. Would Gordon be successful in his defence?
Outcome:
(a) Gordon’s mental condition, marked by depression, rendered him incapable of knowing the nature of
the act, therefore he will succeed in claiming the defense of insanity.
(b) That Gordon ran away from the crowd on seeing them shows he knew what he had done was wrong
and thus he was afraid of being caught. Therefore he will not succeed in claiming the defense of
insanity.
(c) Though Gordon knew the nature of the act, his mental condition prevented him from knowing it was
wrong or contrary.
(d) That he tried to deny his act in front of the police initially before confessing shows that he knew it was
an act contrary to law.
80. Ali suffered from schizophrenia. He was under the delusion that his neighbour Jasmine wanted him to kill
her ex-husband Shahid. While under treatment, one day Ali saw a man loitering around Jasmin’s house.
Thinking it was Shahid he talked the man into following him home and promptly knifed him to death.
When the police come to arrest him he claims that Jasmin asked him to commit the murder and was
rejoicing after doing a good deed.
(a) Ali has committed no offence.
(b) Ali has committed an offence as he showed a great presence of mind to kill Shahid.
(c) Ali has committed no offence as Jasmin was the mastermind of the plan.
81. Anay is a mentally ill person undergoing treatment. He has been responding to the treatment so well that
he was lately allowed to move around in his home. When his younger brother, Sonu, returns home after
work, he usually brings a piece of chocolate for Anay. Today, however, Sonu gets very late at night in
returning home, and therefore is unable to bring the usual piece of chocolate. Anay demands his
chocolate, and on being denied one, all hell breaks loose and he runs out, jumps into his brother’s car,
finds the keys in place, drives away at a very high speed into a dark street and runs over a pavement
dweller sleeping right on the road, who in the process got seriously injured. Is Anay liable?
(a) The pavement dweller was reckless enough to sleep on mid road. Thus, he has only himself to
blame.
(b) Sonu is liable as he had carelessly left the keys on the jeep to be driven away, knowing fully well that
his brother was still somewhat mentally deranged.
(c) Anay is liable, as he was completely out of his mind.
(d) Nobody is liable.
82. Rao is suffering from mental illness. Doctors have forbidden his family members to not to leave him alone
in the house. One day Rao was with his sister and 1 year old nephew, he wished to take bath near the
well. His sister accompanied him. While Rao was taking bath near the well and his nephew was playing
in soil, Rao saw him covered with dust, threw him in the well so that he could have a good bath and get
cleaned. As a result the 1 year old child died. Decide.
(a) Rao is liable for murder.
(b) Rao is not liable for murder because he was of unsound mind.
(c) Rao is not liable for murder but he is liable for culpable homicide not amounting for murder.
(d) Rao is liable for culpable homicide amounting to murder.

MOCK CLAT #20
Passage (Q.83-Q.87): Now, the court has repeatedly said in its oral comments that it views the protests
as completely legal and part of the exercise of citizens’ rights under Article 19 of the Constitution. And it
has also said that the police alone can take a call on the security aspect. The court is not even framing
these cases before it in legal terms. But it has still gone ahead and intervened in this manner, noting that
the government has not been particularly successful in negotiating with the farmers’ groups. It has
decided that it can do better than the government and appointed its own committee.
If you look at the January 12 order, what is striking is that the court does not even set out clearly what the
legal grounds of challenge are. The petition filed by the Bharatiya Kisan Party argues that under our
constitutional scheme, agriculture and farm produce are matters reserved under entries 14, 18, 30, 46,
47 and 48 of List II of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution, which lays out the subjects on which
State Legislatures are competent to enact law. The argument is that the Centre simply could not pass the
farm bills as it did not have legislative competence.
Courts are, of course, competent to issue stay orders on parliamentary laws, but they need to set out
legal reasons. When you look at the reasoning given by the court, in paragraph 8, the court says, “We
are also of the view that a stay of implementation of all the three farm laws for the present may assuage
the hurt feelings of the farmers and encourage them to come to the negotiating table with confidence and
good faith.” Now, this is a strange reason and arguably not a sound legal reason. To issue a stay, courts
usually state the legal and constitutional arguments which make them take the view that the law, on its
face, raises a question of constitutional violation. But when the court cites “assuaging hurt feelings” of a
section of people who are protesting against the laws as a reason to stay a parliamentary law, the order
does not seem to have a clear legal basis. That’s why some commentators have asked whether the court
is looking at administrative concerns rather than legal considerations
[Extracted, with edits, from, ‘Are courts encroaching on the powers of the executive?’ Anuj Bhuwania and
Arun Thiruvengadam discuss this question in a conversation moderated by Jayant Sriram, The Hindu, 22
Jan 2021, https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/are-courts-encroaching-on-the-powers-of-the-
executive/article33629172.ece]
83. TYP Lt. is a cargo company owned by the government which operates through ships. The government
decided to raise the price of the shipment transportation by 5,000 per week. This impacted the small
company owners to a heavy threshold and they started protesting against the government. The
protesters also went to the Supreme Court and prayed that the government not implement new plans.
Should the SC, according to the passage, take cognisance of such case?
(a) Yes because it is a matter of national importance and the Supreme Court is the responsible for
helping the government in resolving the same.
(b) Yes, as the Supreme Court is the highest court in the country and has the responsibility of checking
the actions taken by the executive.
(c) No, because taking the policy an action is the legislative action and not the judicial action.
(d) No, because there is no question of legal issues involved in this matter.
84. The parliament, after having several debates, issued the notice that a new kind of tax will be levied on the
purchase of Wheat and rice over the country. Representatives of the poor, after failed discussions with
the executive, filed a petition in the Supreme Court that the poor will not be able to afford this tax.
According to the passage, should the Apex Court pass any order to interfere with the notice?
(a) Yes because if the Supreme Court won’t here the poor people of the country then the poor people
won’t have a say in the policy making that affects them the most.
(b) No, as the legislation has the responsibility to make policy decisions of the country.
(c) No, because the policy made by the legislation can only be checked by the executive who will
implement it.
(d) Yes, because the judiciary has the power to check the workings of the Legislative as well and is not
inferior to it.

MOCK CLAT #20
85. Which of the following would strengthen the author’s arguments, evoked in the passage?
(a) The government has to follow the rule of law and because of that it has to abide by every decision the
Apex court give it even if the Apex Court is entering into the domain of making policies.
(b) The Supreme Court does not have the authority to make legislation or implement any policies.
(c) The legislative in India is weaker than the Legislative in England and hence cannot pass decisions
on social issues without the intervention of the judiciary.
(d) The Apex Court should adjudge the matters in Social or Social-economic matters according to the
constitutional matters.
86. Which, among the following, the authors of the above passage may agree with?
(a) The courts should not procure stay on implementation of the policies put forward by the legislative
authority of the state.
(b) The court should not take into account the issues of minorities, but as democratic institutions should
follow the majority opinion.
(c) The court should adjudicate on reasons which are constitutional or at least legal in nature.
87. The Bombay municipal office, according to the Bombay municipal act, ordered the street vendors who
were living on the street to vacate the place as they were causing difficulty to the people owing residence
at the place. The vendors filed a petition in the Supreme Court and argued that the municipal office is
violating their right to life as per article 21. The Court, according to the passage, should or should not
take cognisance of such matter?
(a) The court should take such matter into cognisance as it involves the issue of fundamental rights of
the citizen of the country.
(b) The court should not interfere in the regulation as it has been according to the procedure established
by law.
(c) The court should not enter into the domain of executive, which in this case is the Bombay municipal
office.
(d) None of the above reasons are adequate as per the question.
Passage (Q.88-Q.92): One of the oldest, most pernicious and widespread forms of abuse of state power
in India involves the police and enforcement agencies selectively targeting political and ideological
opponents of the ruling dispensation to interrogate, humiliate, harass, arrest, torture and imprison them,
ostensibly on grounds unrelated to their ideology or politics, while sparing comparably placed supporters
and friends of rulers of the day.
The problem is that the illegality involved in this type of prosecution is not self-evident. At first glance, the
prosecution appears legally kosher— acting on information about legal infractions, the police pursue the
accused as per law. The illegality becomes plain when two legal questions are clearly distinguished and
separated: first, the legality of the exercise of prosecutorial discretion in the selection of the accused for
being investigated and prosecuted; and second, the merits of the criminal case filed against them. The
two are independent legal issues and should not be wrongly conflated.
On the first question, the applicable legal standard is that while the police and prosecutors in common
law jurisdictions enjoy vast discretion in deciding who they may pursue and who they may spare, the
choice of accused must not be based on grounds that violate Constitutional rights, including the Article 14
right to equal protection of the law. In the words of then Chief Justice W. Rehnquist of the United States
Supreme Court, “A selective-prosecution claim is not a defence on the merits to the criminal charge itself,
but an independent assertion that the prosecutor has brought the charge for reasons forbidden by the
Constitution.” The theory is that the Constitution cannot be violated to uphold the law — such an
approach would spell doom for the Constitution. The selective prosecution claim must be adjudicated as
a threshold issue, with the prosecution being quashed at the outset of the criminal case if the claim is
justified.
[Extracted, with edits, from, ‘Defending liberty against political prosecution’, G. Mohan Gopal, The Hindu,
22 Jan 2021, https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/defending-liberty-against-political-
prosecution/article33629363.ece]

MOCK CLAT #20
88. A is a student is an esteemed university in India. He is known to be a political leader of the opposition
party. He, with some of his friends, takes on protests in the streets against the Citizenship act passed by
the government and during the protest attacked the policemen. He was arrested by the policemen but his
friends escaped from the scene. Is this an example of selective prosecution?
(a) Yes as no one other than A has been arrested even after committing the same crime.
(b) No because A has actually committed a crime by attacking the police and the fact that he is belonging
to any political party is immaterial.
(c) No because his friends escaped.
(d) Yes, because protesting against the democratically elected government is against the rule of law.
89. Which of the following concur with the opinion of Justice Rehnquist?
(a) The accused will be free if he/she has committed crime but has selectively chosen.
(b) The accused will be not tried if he/she has not committed a crime but has been selectively chosen.
(c) The accused will be charged, irrespective of how he/she has been chosen because there are legal
grounds available for the same.
(d) The accused being guilty and him being selectively chosen are not coherent question of law.
90. A and B were friends from childhood. One fine day B and C were drunk and they abused A in front of her
wife’s family. A was defamed and hence filed a suit against C but not (b) Will A be successful?
(a) Yes because he filed a suit against the party he wanted to claim damages from.
(b) No because he selectively filed suit against only C and not B because B was his friend.
(c) Yes, because A and B were friends and one friend cannot defame other and B was only Joking.
91. which of the following will the author of the passage agree with?
(a) The accused should not be tried before confirming the intention behind such prosecution in the court
of law.
(b) A criminal should not be abridged from his/her right to life as per article 21.
(c) An alleged person should be given proper chance to explain why he/she has done, what he/she has
been charged for and given punishment as per his/her explanation.
(d) All of the Above
92. Abx Lt. is a company which operates a mall in the sundarnagri area in Rajasthan. It has been alleged for
the adulteration of some food products provided in the shop due to which three persons have died. The
company owner is known to be a rival of the prime minister from a long time. A petition is filed by the
government as Union of India against the company. Will this come under selective prosecution as per the
passage?
(a) Yes as the company owner was a rival of the leader of the ruling party.
(b) No because the company has indeed alleged for some crime and it should be tried for the same
(c) No because the company and the owner are different legal entities. The owner is a rival of PM and
not the company.
(d) No because there is no one who has not been prosecuted for the same alleged crime at the same
time.
Passage (Q.93-Q.96): The conception that house makers do not "work" or that they do not add economic
value to the household is a problematic idea that has persisted for many years and must be overcome,
Justice NV Ramana observed in a judgment delivered today in an appeal arising out of a motor accident
compensation claim. The court was disposing an appeal arising out of Motor Accident Compensation
Claim filed by heirs of a deceased couple who died in an accident. One of the deceased in this case was
a house maker. The judge penned a separate opinion while concurring with the judgment authored by
Justice Surya Kant.
In his opinion, the Judge noted that there are two distinct categories of situations wherein the Court
determines notional income of a victim. The first category of cases relates to those wherein the victim
was employed, but the claimants are not able to prove her actual income, wherein the Court "guesses"

MOCK CLAT #20
the income of the victim on the basis of the evidence on record, like the quality of life being led by the
victim and her family, the general earning of an individual employed in that field, the qualifications of the
victim, and other considerations, the judge said. The second category of cases relates to those situations
wherein the Court is called upon to determine the income of a non-earning victim, such as a child, a
student or a homemaker. The judge also made the following observations:
"...It is a recognition of the multitude of women who are engaged in this activity, whether by choice or as
a result of social/cultural norms (...) It is an acceptance of the idea that these activities contribute in a very
real way to the economic condition of the family, and the economy of the nation, regardless of the fact
that it may have been traditionally excluded from economic analyses."
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from “Conception That House Makers Do Not "Work" Or That They
Do Not Add Economic Value To The Household Is A Problematic Idea: SC In Motor Vehicle
Compensation Case”, LiveLaw News Network, Live Law, 5th Jan 2021; https://www.livelaw.in/top-
stories/supreme-court-homemakers-house-hold-work-economic-value-motor-vehicles-comeepensation-
167981]
93. Amy and Jake are high school sweethearts who were raised in a small village. To create a good life for
themselves, they decide to move to the city and open their own establishment. They start small and open
a tea stall. Soon, after accumulating some savings and taking a small loan, they open a small food truck.
Thanks to Jake’s culinary skills and Amy’s financial management, they start to gain popularity for their
food, which consisted of fusion street food.
Their newfound popularity was noticed by many people, including one Doug Judy, who was the local thug
of the area. One day, he arrived on their truck before its opening hours and threatened them to pay him
his hafta, or to face the consequences. Amy and Jake refused. Angered at their refusal, he flashed them
his knife and threatened them to think about it for a day or worry about the dire consequences later, and
then left.
Scared yet still not daunted, they go on with their everyday tasks and do not pay the hafta, despite
numerous threats made by Doug Judy and his goons. After a few months pass in similar fashion, one
night while with his friends, Doug Judy gets extremely angry and decides to kill the couple and be done
with it. His friends advise him against it but he goes to their place anyway, and finds their truck and
house empty. When he was almost about to leave, he finds Amy on the other side of the road, picking
apples from a nearby tree. When she was crossing the road, a car came out of nowhere and ran her
over. Doug Judy rushed her to the hospital, but she was declared to be brought dead.
Jake files a Motor Vehicle Compensation Case as the sole heir of his wife. The counsel for the other side
contends that using the formula provided in the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, the income of a spouse could
be calculated as one-third of the income of the earning surviving spouse, if the other spouse is a
homemaker. If the previous statement is true, what should be the outcome of the case?
(a) Amy’s notional income should be calculated as one third of Jake’s total income.
(b) Amy’s notional income should be calculated using any method that would be employed to calculate
the income of a non-earning member.
(c) Amy’s notional income should be estimated depending upon the quality of life, the general earning of
an individual employed in that field, her qualifications, etc.
(d) Amy’s notional income should be equal to that of Jake since they ran a business together.
94. Which of the following ideas are discussed in the paragraph given above?
(a) The bias and reason behind the exclusion of the work put in by home makers in economic analysis.
(b) The challenges faced in calculating the notional income of homemakers, and the steps taken to
resolve them.
(c) The criterion for estimating the income of earning individuals in Court, if it is not known.
(d) Methods employed to calculate the income of home-makers, children, and other non-earning
members.

MOCK CLAT #20
95. According to the passage, the meaning of the term ‘notional income’ could be inferred to be:
(a) It is an estimated figure for a person’s income, when it is not known, or cannot be proved.
(b) Notional Income can be referred to as an additional source of income along with one’s primary
income.
(c) It is a calculated figure used in place of a person’s income in case of it being not known in cases of
Motor Accident Compensation Claims.
96. Saroj is a homely, middle-aged woman. Her life is based in and around her house, and she is extremely
devoted in taking care of her immediate and distant family members. She has two sons, and once they
came of age, decided to leave their country and settle abroad permanently. Saroj and her husband
decided to stay back in their ancestral home, despite their requests.
With the kids being gone and there being not much work in the household, Saroj decided to upon up a
small, informal business by selling some homemade pickles in her neighbourhood. Her business did not
accrue much earnings, neither did it require much investment, as it was done majorly to pass her time.
However, it did go on for a long time well, even after her husband died.
A few years after the death of her partner, Saroj was run over by a bus while she was crossing the road
at a red light. Her sons filed a Motor Accident Compensation Claim, being the heirs of the deceased. Will
Saroj’s sons be compensated adequately?
(a) Yes, and the notional income of Saroj will be estimated on a variety of factors, such as quality of life
being led by the victim and her family, the general earning of an individual employed in that field, the
qualifications of the victim, and other considerations.
(b) Yes, and the notional income of Saroj will be estimated on a variety of factors, such as quality of life
being led by the victim and her family, the general earning of an individual employed in that field, the
qualifications of the victim, and other considerations, provided her actual income cannot be proved.
(c) Yes, as Saroj’s status as that of a home-maker should not affect her estimated income that will be
used in calculating compensation, and the bias of social and cultural norms, along with erring
economic analysis should not affect the calculation.
Passage (Q.97-Q.100): The Centre on Wednesday moved a plea seeking clarification on an earlier
Supreme Court order decriminalising adultery, with the intention of retaining adultery as a crime in the
armed forces. The plea said that when jawans and officers are posted in inhospitable areas, their families
are taken care of at base camp by field unit officers, and should not harbour any misgiving about any
promiscuous activity. Attorney General K.K. Venugopal told the bench that the judgement decriminalising
adultery among men does not take into account the Armed Forces Act. In the Army Act, there’s a
provision where an officer can be court-martialled for “unbecoming conduct”.
In September 2018, the apex court had declared Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) – that
makes adultery a punishable offence for men – unconstitutional and struck it down. According to Section
497 of the IPC, a man who has sex with a woman “whom he knows or has reason to believe to be the
wife of another man, without the consent or connivance of that man, such sexual intercourse not
amounting to the offence of rape, is guilty of the offence of adultery”. “Adultery can be ground for civil
issues including dissolution of marriage but it cannot be a criminal offence,” the apex court had said. The
apex court had also declared Section 198(1) and 198(2) of the CrPC, which allows a husband to bring
charges against the man with whom his wife committed adultery, unconstitutional.
Section 497, which treated a woman as a property of her husband, criminalised adultery through
patriarchal control over their bodies. Though the law criminalised only men, it’s equally anti-women
because it further violated a woman’s dignity by preventing her from exercising her freedom and making
choices for herself.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from “Centre Moves SC to Keep Adultery as a Crime in the Armed
Forces”, The Wire Staff, The Wire, 13th January 2021; https://thewire.in/law/centre-sc-adultery-crime-
armed-forces-patriarchy-gender-rights]

MOCK CLAT #20
97. Pearl and Tarun are in a loving marital relationship for the past seven years. Theirs was an arranged
marriage, and the continued to discover new things about each other every single day. However, this
fairy tale ended when Pearl suffered from a miscarriage, as a result of which their relationship got
strained. When things started to get worse, they decided to live separately without going through with a
divorce.
Avinash was a co-worker and close friend of Tarun. He knew about Pearl and Tarun’s strained
relationship, and when heard the news of them living separately, assumed that they were now divorced.
Tarun started to meet Pearl frequently at her residence, and as they had been lovers in the past, they got
into a casual relationship as well. All of this unbeknownst to Tarun, who did not know about Avinash and
Pearl’s past. One day, while stopping by at Pearl’s residence to finally hand over divorce papers, he
catches the two of them in the act. Deeply angered by his friend’s betrayal, he files charges of adultery
against Avinash. Avinash argues that he was unaware of the fact that Pearl and Tarun were not divorced.
What should be the verdict?
(a) Avinash should not be liable for adultery.
(b) Avinash will be liable for adultery as according to Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code, he had
engaged in sexual intercourse with Pearl, without Tarun’s consent.
(c) Avinash will not be liable for adultery, as he had no reason to believe that Pearl was the wife of
another man, since they lived separately.
(d) Avinash will be liable for adultery as it was his responsibility to confirm his assumptions of a divorce
which he failed to do, and hence he is liable for his actions.
98. What could best explain the reason behind the Section 497 being ‘anti-woman’?
(a) The Section only charged men for an act that both the man and the woman in the sexual relationship
are responsible for.
(b) It assumes that woman are docile and quiet, and cannot be commit adultery as it is unbecoming of
their ‘innate nature’.
(c) The section assumes that wife is a husband’s property, hence the person violating such property
should be charged. It shows patriarchal control.
99. Swayam and Sharon met in high school, and have been in love ever since. Swayam had always dreamt
of joining the Army, and had preparing for it from the very start. Sharon supported his dreams, even
though she was always scared of his safety and well-being and would rather prefer him being employed
in any other profession. After Swayam got done with his training, they soon got married and became
parents to a girl named Sasha as well.
Swayam eventually leaves for his posting in an inhospitable area, and Sasha and his daughter live in
their assigned quarters at the base camp. Shivam was posted as a field officer at the same camp, and
was an acquaintance of the family. As they were living alone, with Sharon having recently given birth,
Shivam occasionally visited them in case they needed any help. A few officers noticed Shivam’s and
Sharon’s harmless friendship. This news eventually reached to Swayam as well, who came back home
and confronted Sharon immediately. They had a big argument, wherein Swayam decided to divorce
Sharon, however she still wanted to continue the marriage. During the proceedings, Swayam’s legal
counsel pleads for divorce on the basis of allegations of adultery. Sharon’s legal counsel replies in
defence that such action is not possible, as adultery is no longer an offense. Is this defence valid?
(a) Yes, as Adultery has been struck off by the Apex Court in the case of Joseph Shine v. Union of India.
(b) No, as divorce requires the consent of both the parties to dissolve the marriage, which is not the case
here.
(c) No, as adultery can be used as a ground for dissolution of marriage.
(d) Yes, as adultery has not taken place in the circumstances provided, as there has been no sexual
intercourse.

MOCK CLAT #20
100. Meet is hardworking soldier in the Indian Army, and has recently married Riya. Since it was an arranged
marriage decided by their parents, they did not know each other. They decided to get to know each other,
but could not gel well together romantically and decided they were better off as friends. However, for the
sake of their parents’ happiness, they decided to not get divorced.
A few months after, he met Kiya, who was the wife of his superior officer. She was younger than her
husband and was stuck in a physically and emotionally abusive relationship. Love blossomed as soon as
they saw each other, and started spending more and more time with each other, since her husband was
away executing his duties. One day, her husband caught them going to the movies together, and
discovered the relationship. He locked up Kiya in her house, and filed a case against Meet accusing him
of adultery and conduct unbecoming of an officer. Will Meet be liable?
(a) Meet will not be liable.
(b) Meet will be liable for both the charges.
(c) Meet can be liable for conduct unbecoming of an officer only.
(d) Meet can be liable for adultery only.
Passage (Q.101-Q.104): India’s Data Protection Bill recommends that the person to whom the data
relates be given rights over its control. Such data may only be processed “on the consent given by the
data principle” [Section 11(1)]. Given the ease with which we consent to give away our data in exchange
for free apps, marginal discounts, and online games, the law fails to address the core problem. Indian
courts may ultimately be called upon to intervene and balance the unequal bargaining power embedded
in these data transactions.
The Data Protection Bill suggests that personal data should include data “…relating to a natural person
who is directly or indirectly identifiable, having regard to any characteristic, trait, attribute or any other
feature of the identity… or any combination of such features, or any combination of such features with
any other information…” [Section 3(28)]. Verbiage apart, the Bill essentially says that any data that
identifies you in connection with any other information is your personal data.
All that said, how does India propose to regulate all this information? Borrowing heavily from the
European Union’s General Data Protection Regulation, the Bill obligates organizations to (a) act
transparently in its processing of data, (b) implement appropriate security measures, and (c) promptly
notify the authority about any data breaches. Additional obligations include yearly audits and accurate
record keeping.
In turn, individuals have the right to (a) determine what personal information is being processed in the
organization’s possession, (b) request correction of any inaccurate information, and (c) have the data
portable to any other organization rendering the same service. Chillingly, the proposed law does not
grant a person the right to secure deletion of all his data in another’s possession. The Bill proposes that it
apply to (1) organizations that collect or process data in India, or (2) foreign companies profiling the data
of individuals within India.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from “The Great Data Protection Debate: India’s new Data Protection
Bill”, Rohin Dubey, Bar & Bench, 28th December 2020; https://www.barandbench.com/columns/the-
great-data-protection-debate-indias-new-data-protection-bill]
101. Among the following list of persons whom shall the Bill be applicable to at present?
(a) Citizens only.
(b) Citizens and residents both.
(c) Residents only
(d) The bill will not apply to any one.
102. Assuming that the bill becomes an act, which of the following will be considered as Data in the Data
Protection Bill?
(a) Monthly sales projections of a Pharmacy firm.
(b) Database of an anonymous survey conducted by a think tank targeting MBBS students.
(c) Precipitation data pertaining to the states of Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh for the first quarter of
2019 collecting by Indian Meteorological Department.
(d) CV database of a law firm named Bhayana Chand and Sons.

MOCK CLAT #20
103. Mrs. Rai has been a practicing lawyer in India for more than two decades and has recently been made
partner in the firm AXV, having left her previous firm ZXV. Her data has been transferred from the
databases of ZXV to AXV, however, one of her details pertaining to her education has been entered
incorrectly but since she was with ZXV for so long, she was given assurances that this wouldn’t be an
issue. However, AXV requires correctly filled out details and thus asks her to get the same corrected.
Assuming that the Bill is in force as an Act, what would be the correct course of action for Mrs. Rai?
(a) The fact that Mrs. Rai has had incorrect credentials stored in the database of her previous firm just
because she had been working there for eso long is a grave misuse of her position.
(b) Mrs. Rai has the right to get her data corrected under the ambit of the Act.
(c) It is unclear that the Act would govern the firm or not.
(d) The bill will not govern this firm as the personal data in question is not directly/indirectly identifiable.
104. Foodpallate co. is an online culinary giant that stores mounds and mounds of data pertaining to its
subscribers and through its infinitely complex algorithms creates and suggests palatable cuisines for
them. The company all of a sudden faces a data leak by a disgruntled ex-employee with access to such
sensitive data regarding its subscribers and threatens the company to leak the data should he be
prosecuted for the breach. What should be the ideal course of action for the firm, assuming that the bill
becomes an act?
(a) The firm should report the breach at the earliest so that the sensitive data stays under the protection
of the concerned authorities.
(b) The firm should give in to his demands so that he keeps the information safe.
(c) The firm should do nothing as the data has been willing provided by the subscribers and has been
transparently stored by the firm.
(d) The employee does not command any credibility and would be ridiculed by the intelligent society
should he leak the information.

MOCK CLAT #20
Passage (Q.105-Q.109): ‘Echolocation’ helps bats from flying into obstacles or predators in the dark. It
keeps them physically safe and helps them find communities, food and safe places to rest. Echolocation
is enabled when ultrasonic sounds made by the bat hit surfaces and return to it. The duration of the
delay, altered strength and frequency of the refracted signal helps the bat generate a detailed aural
portrait of the environment it is in.
The experience of 2020 will forever be etched in the minds of those who lived through it. A time of great
collective suffering and loss, it also saw new articulations of justice, community and intimacy.
To regard these moments simply as events would be to miss the crucial suggestion that 2020 could have
for our imagination of collective life. Even as most of us were under physical lockdowns imposed to
contain the spread of the virus, our touch and vision restricted, we sensed and responded to intensities
from a distance. This process, however, was not without its own share of interruptions. One such
instance was on March 22, 2020, when PM Modi asked people to display ‘public spirit’ and thank medical
workers fighting on the COVID-19 frontlines. He asked everyone to stay inside their houses for the day
and at 5 pm in the evening, come onto their balconies to bang utensils as a token of their gratitude and
support to “COVID warriors”. He christened this enforced retreat and orchestrated gathering as Janta
Curfew/‘People’s curfew’. Less than 72 hours later he appeared on television again, this time with the
news that the nation was going into a complete lockdown.
The cacophony of ‘nationalism’ and bullish demonstrations of ‘togetherness’ – duly amplified by television
and social media – was an impediment to the possibilities of critical hearing. This increased the distress
of medical, migrant and contract workers, made doubly vulnerable by the virus and state apathy.
However, there were also those who refused to participate in this republic of noise and held onto
mutinous networks of solidarity and hearing. It was a recognition of the tempestuous churning we find
ourselves in. It was an echolocative act.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from “Being as Echolocation: Some Thoughts on Community
in the Pandemic Year” by Pallavi Paul from The Wire.
105. Which of the following aspects of remaining silent to the vitriolic discourse of media does the author refer
to as an echolocative act?
(a) This silence represented a recognition that has crept up in the minds of logical thinkers
(b) This silence was the representation of one side losing its voice in the national field
(c) This silence was the response to the loud discourse of the media that was going on
(d) This silence helped the Indians to find a proper location as to where they are in the national scene
106. Why does the author dub the ‘Janta Curfew’ as an interruption?
(a) Because it was enforced on people and against their wishes
(b) Because there was an announcement of a nationwide lockdown soon after that
(c) Because people obeyed the lockdown rules
(d) Because the people reacted publicly and in unison at 5 pm
107. According to the author which of the following would be an instance of his version of echolocating in the
Indian scenario?
(a) Arnab Goswami getting arrested as a payback for his vitriolic campaign against Rhea Chakraborty
(b) The Indian society gets ready for safety and nourishment on the back of the pandemic
(c) News channels bemoaning Greta Thunberg’s toolkit on farmer’s protest.
(d) Rancorous television debates on the role of Priyanka Gandhi in Congress.

MOCK CLAT #20
108. Less than 72 hours later he appeared on television again, this time with the news that the nation was
going into a complete lockdown.
What is the role of the above sentence in the passage?
(a) It provides evidence which is later refuted by the author.
(b) It supports the argument that has been given by the author in the paragraph
(c) It is the conclusion of the arguments put forth by the author in the paragraph
(d) It undermines the implicit assumption of the paragraph.
109. Which of the following assumptions has been made by the author in the passage?
(a) PM Modi has not been able to control the pandemic
(b) The media cacophony had ignored the plight of the medical, migrant and contract workers
(c) Bats can’t see in the dark
(d) Both b and c
Passage (Q.110-Q.113): Two-party system, is a political system in which the electorate gives its votes
largely to only two major parties and in which one or the other party can win a majority in the legislature.
The United States is the classic example of a nation with a two-party system. The contrasts between two-
party and multiparty systems are often exaggerated. Within each major party in the United States, the
Republicans and the Democrats, many factions are struggling for power. The presence of divergent
interests under a single party canopy masks a process of struggle and compromise that under a
multiparty system is out in the open.
The two-party system moderates the animosities of political strife. To appeal for the support of a majority
of voters, a party must present a program sympathetic to the desires of most of the politically active
elements of the population. In the formulation of such a program an effort must be made to reconcile the
conflicting interests of different sectors of the population.
It is sometimes mooted that there can be democracy in a two party system. That would be correct if
politics were a game like cricket or football; but politics is not sports.
Source: https://www.britannica.com/topic/two-party-system
110. Which of the following would strengthen the argument that “there can be democracy in a two party
system, that would be correct if politics were a game like cricket or football; but politics is not sports.”?
(a) Two party system functions well.
(b) Politics is a dirty game.
(c) Two political parties limit the choice of the voters.
111. Which of the following would weaken the argument that “there can be democracy in a two party system,
that would be correct if politics were a game like cricket or football; but politics is not sports.”?
(a) The game of politics is played like any other game, for example, football.
(b) Politics is not a sport.
(c) Political parties struggle for power.
(d) None of these.
112. What is the hidden assumption of the author when he argues that “there can be democracy in a two party
system, that would be correct if politics were a game like cricket or football; but politics is not sports.”?
(a) Politics is not a game.
(b) Two party system is ideal for democracy.
(c) Cricket is played by two teams.
(d) All the above.

MOCK CLAT #20
113. Which of the following argument will strengthen the argument in favour of two party system?
(a) Two party system is less competitive.
(b) The two-party system promotes governmental stability because a single party can win a majority in
the parliament and govern.
(c) Two party system encourages voter apathy since there is a perception of fewer choices.
(d) Multi-party governments permit wider and more diverse viewpoints in government.
Passage (Q.114-Q.118): Governments should act with the same urgency on climate as on the corona
virus, leading campaigners say, as evidence mounts that the health crisis is reducing carbon emissions
more than any policy. Unlike the response to global heating, it has shown how political and corporate
leaders can take radical emergency action on the advice of scientists to protect human wellbeing. In
China the actions taken by authorities have inadvertently demonstrated that hefty 25% carbon dioxide
cuts can bring less traffic and cleaner air with only a small reduction in economic growth, according to a
study by Carbon Brief. Even a slowdown in CO2 could buy time for climate action and, more importantly,
inspire long-term behavioural changes – particularly in travel. More carbon savings will come from the
cancellations of international conferences. Global air traffic decreased by 4.3% in February with
cancellations of tens of thousands of flights to affected areas. But Rob Jackson, the chair of Global
Carbon Project, said this would only be meaningful if it led to long-term behavioural change, particularly
in aviation.
There are encouraging signs. The 189-nation International Monetary Fund and its sister lending
organisation, the World Bank, will replace their usual spring gathering in Washington with a virtual
teleconference. This is a one-off emergency measure, but the economic and carbon savings could
prompt calls for this to become the norm every year.
Source: Article by Jonathan Watts dated March 10, 2020 - The Guardian
114. Which of the following is similar to the way politicians and corporate leaders look at climate change?
(a) Chivalry is intangible, hence it does not exist.
(b) Students are allowed to appear for annual exams only if they have satisfactory attendance.
(c) Despite massive inundations, opposition party didn't extend a helping hand out of fear that the ruling
party will be strenthened.
(d) Prime Minister Narendra Modi has stressed the importance of differentiating between 'Andolankari'
and 'Andolanjivi', saying the latter are the ones who hijacked the "pure" farmers' movement for their
vested interests, including seeking the release of those jailed for serious offences.
115. Which of the following can be used to support that avaiation is detrimental to climate?
(a) People take flights to attend conferences
(b) Corporate leaders invest mostlty in avaiation.
(c) Aviation is the reason behind a globalised world and globalisation has exacerbated global warming.
(d) Aviation is the prime focus when it comes to transportation and carbon savings.
116. Which of the following observations maybe true keeping in mind the above passage?
(a) Mass behavioral changes are possible only when humanity faces radical adversities.
(b) Health crisis makes strange bedfellows.
(c) Corona virus will force human beings to become individualistic
(d) Teleconferences are the way forward for humanity.
117. Which of the following was used to weaken the fight against carbon emmission?
(a) It will make environmental studies redundant.
(b) It will adversely impact economy.
(c) It will stop the need for travelling
(d) International seminars would get affected.

MOCK CLAT #20
118. Which of the following can be a valid inference ?

(a) reducing global warming is an insurmountable task.
(b) international gatherings contribute to climate change.
(c) The worlds of entertainment, fashion and sport are similarly affected.
(d) All the above.
Passage (Q.119): According to a survey by mechanical department of MANIT, the level of public
awareness about the dangers posed by emissions from gasoline cars to the environment has increased
significantly in the past decade. Automobile companies should switch to manufacturing electric cars.
There will be huge demand for electric cars because they do not harm the environment.
119. Which of the following is the assumption on which the above argument is based?
(a) Gasoline vehicle emissions are the only major source of damage to the environment.
(b) People have become increasingly concerned about safeguarding the environment.
(c) Automobile manufacturers have a moral responsibility to manufacture environment- friendly cars.
(d) Increased levels of public awareness of the dangers posed by gasoline cars to the environment will
result in people switching to buying electric cars.
120. According to a survey by Hamad Medical Corporation, 78.7 percent of 1200 respondents claimed that
health-warning messages written on all cigarette packs do not effectively communicate the extent of harm
caused by smoking. The researchers claim that the survey has conclusively proved that current warnings
on cigarette packs do not serve the intended purpose.
Which of the following best completes the passage above?
(a) Hence, the sale of cigarettes should be made illegal.
(b) A more effective way of warning smokers should be devised.
(c) Smokers do not care about the health damage caused by smoking cigarettes, so there is no point in
displaying warnings on packs of cigarettes.
(d) 21.3% of respondents notice the warning on cigarette packs.
121. Last year, Singapore Airlines successfully completed its acquisition of Kingfisher Airways. Since then,
Singapore's stock prices have soared and it has had a 60 percent increase in ticket sales. The recent
decision of the top management at Singapore Airways to speed up Singapore’s acquisition of Jet Air will
lead to a further significant increase in the ticket sales.
Which of the following casts most serious doubts on the validity of the argument above?
(a) Jet Air is a relatively unknown brand and has a very small turnover.
(b) Many Jet Air passengers are loyal to the airlines and would not switch to Singapore after the merger.
(c) Singapore Airline's CEO was recently named the 'Businessman of the Year' by a popular business
magazine.
(d) Last year, Singapore Airways offered the lowest possible airfares by giving a 50 percent discount on
all its tickets.
122. The question has a statement which is taken to be true. From the options choose the one that logically
follows from the given statement.
Statement: Children are maimed if a landmine blows up.
(a) A landmine blew up. Jan Bibi Uoz Bashi is maimed, she is a kid.
(b) Saoud Rahman is a kid, he is maimed.
(c) A landmine blew up, Anthony Neal, a kid, was maimed.
(d) Ten landmines blew up, Ambarish Rai, was maimed.

MOCK CLAT #20
Passage (Q.123-Q.129): The coronavirus is an infectious agent with a difference. The culture and
structure of its formation seem to invite the life sciences to revisit the very idea of life and living organism.
Issues such as the mutation of the virus, the way it intrudes into the human body and its afterlife, the
immune system, and other biological crises might compel disciplines like microbiology and biochemistry
to reorganize their disciplinary configuration.
An equally urgent intellectual task ahead is to reassemble the humanities and social sciences since the
pandemic has made a devastating impact on humanity at large. It brings to our vision the power of non-
human over humans. Scientists in France conducted inquiries into the role of non-human and non-living
actors in human affairs during the 1980s and ’90s. In their studies, Bruno Latour, Michel Callon, John
Law, Peter Lodge and others stumbled upon a new insight, which has come to be known as the Actor
Network Theory (ANT), that nothing is outside the network, and everything is connected in the social.
According to ANT, the social world is not merely a conglomeration of people as loosely understood by
classical social scientists, but an assemblage of human, non-human and non-living entities, caught in the
network of associations. It is these associations of things that social scientists have to pay attention to,
marginalising anthropocentric assumptions.
ANT practitioners observe, human society has changed over a period of time, and innumerable objects
like pen, camera, telescope, airplane, cell-phone, and non-human entities like microbes constitute the
social. Our life is woven into the network of these things, and in this network, non-human entities, which
have no will, intention and mind like humans, make a difference to our life. Therefore, in the framework of
ANT, humans are not the only agents to make a difference to this network, but viruses like corona and
objects like airplanes become active agents of change.
Non-human and non-living entities are called actors because they bring about change in the network of
the social. Therefore, Latour elsewhere observes that the virus is the real globaliser, not just the MNCs.
However, the capacity of non-human actors to make a difference is not intrinsic to them. They are
powerful because they are participants in the network. They become influential in their association with
the larger network of things including humans and vice versa. The lesser the power of the network, the
minimal will be their impact.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/coronavirus-covid-19-spread-ant-6517092/
123. What purpose do the following statements serve in the passage?

1. The coronavirus is an infectious agent with a difference.
2. It brings to our vision the power of non-human over humans.
(a) Statement 1 presents a fact; statement 2 is the basis of the fact.
(b) Statement 1 is the solution and statement 2 presents the problem.
(c) Statement 1 is a partial statement and statement 2 is the basis of the partial conclusion
(d) Statement 1 is the problem and statement 2 is the solution to the problem.
124. Statement- The lesser the power of the network, the minimal will be their impact.
What purpose the statement serves in the passage?
(a) Inference statement (b) Weaken the argument
(c) Flawed argument (d) Strengthen the argument
125. Why do you think the author says the coronavirus is different?
(a) It has the ability to go to anyone’s body.
(b) It questions the power of life, non-humans, humans, and organisms.
(c) Because the biological and chemical configuration is peculiar.
(d) It demands to reconsider life, science, and the organisms.

MOCK CLAT #20
126. Consider the following statements regarding ANT-

1. Anything outside the network is anti-social.
2. Viruses and pandemics can set their feet large through ANT.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
127. Which of the following is an inference argument?

(a) Multinational companies are not global companies.
(b) Viruses do not see boundaries.
(c) Viruses are an intrinsic part of the globalised world order.
(d) None of these
128. Why does the author feel that virus is a bigger globaliser than MNC’s?
1. Only Viruses are non-human globaliser.
2. Viruses are part of the global world.
3. Viruses are a part of the social.
4. Only viruses, under ANT, can change the course of things.
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above
129. What according to the passage is ANT-

1. A new social network
2. A sociological theory by Bruno Latour and his team.
3. It contains people, organizations, and institutions too.
4. Non-human agents work only within their specified network.
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above
Passage (Q.130-Q.134): It would be a lie to say that we’re not nervous, too. The news from Italy
suggests that 20 percent of health care workers have been infected, and several have died. Thousands
of Chinese health care workers became sick with the coronavirus. Our job is not without risk, one we
debate every day as we balance our family obligations with professional duties. The memories of medical
workers who contracted H.I.V., Ebola, hepatitis C and tuberculosis over the years are never far from our
minds. As a co-worker said ruefully to me, ‘Our colleagues could soon be our patients.’
Hospitals aren’t known for fleet-footed bureaucracy – don’t even ask how long it took to get a water
cooler for the staff lunch area – but they do know how to mobilize in a crunch.
When Hurricane Sandy flooded Bellevue in 2012, the staff formed a bucket brigade to haul 500 gallons of
fuel – hand to hand in small containers – up to the 13th floor to keep the generators running. Later, those
same hands helped carry the patients down those same stairs when we eventually had to evacuate. The
vast Northeast blackout of 2003 left hundreds of hospitals without power. A doctor or nurse was planted
at the bedside of every patient on a ventilator, ready to start pumping oxygen manually should the
generators fail. And of course there was Sept. 11. Within an hour of the attacks, the emergency
departments of New York City’s hospitals were overrun with medical volunteers. Most, sadly, ended up
spending that day idle.
In our hospital now, the entire I.C.U. wing of the emergency department has been converted to a
respiratory unit for patients with suspected coronavirus infections who are too ill to remain at home. All
elective surgeries have been cancelled, freeing up surgical staff, operating rooms and post-op units.
Expedited discharges have opened up scores of inpatient beds. Every available corner of the hospital is
being repurposed for patient care, to prepare for the onslaught that is already beginning. And every other
hospital is doing the same.
These colossal rejiggerings have created a breathless feel to our work. Every day things are different, but
there’s comfort in the concreteness and agility of the process. No doubt there will be miscalculations

MOCK CLAT #20
along the way – even when you hew to solid science, logistics always require improvisation – but the
ground troops are moving purposefully.
Source: https://www.nytimes.com/2020/03/20/opinion/sunday/coronavirus-hospitals-doctors.html
(a) Doctors, nurses and other staff members in a variety of hospital departments face new uncertainty
with coronavirus.
(b) In intensive care units, health care providers have very little exposure to people who have contracted
the coronavirus and hence less risk.
(c) A doctor in Washington State woke up one night not long ago with nightmares of being surrounded by
coughing patients.
(d) The story of coronavirus is still being written. Italy and China offer possibilities of how Chapter 1 might
play out. But make no mistake, there will certainly be Chapters 2, 3, 4 and more.
131. Which of the following can be assumed from the passage?

(a) The author is a doctor. (b) The author contracted coronavirus.
(c) The author is a bureaucrat. (d) The author is a volunteer.
132. Which of the following behaviours is unlike that of the doctors that the author describes?
(a) Doctors and nurses feel just as baffled about coronavirus as everyone else.
(b) Doctors watch the news on coronavirus with just as much anxiety as the general public.
(c) Most doctors have never seen anything like coronavirus and this level of angst and anxiety in their
careers.
133. Which of the following situations is similar in nature to the one that the author describes?
(a) A flash flood triggered due to glacier burst on February 07 in Chamoli district. Medics from ITBP
Hospital rushed to the spot.
(b) During the AIDS scare there was an all-hands-on-deck attitude, especially in the public hospitals and
local health departments.
(c) Part of a hydroelectric dam system under construction collapsed in Champasak Province, Laos on
July 23, 2018. The collapse lead to widespread destruction and homelessness. Many hospitals
created a 24/7 schedule to cater the victims.
A. The epidemics of polio, Ebola, H.I.V., measles and now Coronavirus, all remind us that public health
is an ongoing, never-take-it-lightly effort.
B. As the coronavirus expands around the country, doctors and nurses working in emergency rooms are
quite positive about being able to help everyone walking in the door with a cough.
(a) Only A (b) Only B (c) Both A and B (d) Neither A nor B

MOCK CLAT #20
Directions (Q.135-Q.139): Answer the questions based on the information given below. A survey was
done by ICMR in 2020 on 160000 people to find out the number of people affected by different diseases.
The given line graph show the data regarding the percentage of people affected by different diseases
While the Bar graph show number of men and women affected by different diseases.
Number of men and women affected by different diseases
50000
40000
15000
30000
16000
20000
25000 6000 10000 9600

10000
14000
10000 8000 7200
0
Typhoid Dengue Corona Cancer TB.
Men Women
Note – Number of people affected by a diseases = Number of (Men + Women + Children) affected by the
disease.
135. Total number of people affected by Cancer and TB. Taken together is what % more or less than the total
number of children’s affected by Typhoid?
(a) 396% (b) 356% (c) 290% (d) 255%
136. Total number of people affected by Corona in 2020 is increased by 50% as compared to 2019, and then
number of people affected by Corona in 2019 was what % of the number of men affected by TB. In
2020?
(a) 64.32% (b) 133.33% (c) 164.33% (d) 126.25%
137. Find the ratio of number children affected by Typhoid and Corona taken together in 2020 to the number
children affected by TB in 2020?
(a) 2:3 (b) 4:3 (c) 3:2 (d) None of above

MOCK CLAT #20
138. Find the difference between the average number of men affected by Corona and Cancer taken together
and the average number of women affected by Cancer and TB. taken together?
(a) 440 (b) 400 (c) 780 (d) 450
139. Find the average number of children affected by Typhoid, Dengue, Corona and Cancer taken together?
(a) 11200 (b) 6400 (c) 5400 (d) 7600
Directions (Q.140-Q.145): Rahul goes to gym and runs 40 minutes on tread mill. For starting 15 minutes
he runs at a uniform speed of 5 km/hr and after that he runs at uniform speed of 9km/hr for remaining
time. He runs total (A) km on tread mill. After that he comes to his house and get ready for office which is
45km away from his house. He reaches office in 1.5hours at 9:30a.m. In office he gives some work to his
sub ordinates P1 and P2 at (B). P1 can complete that work in 6hours while efficiency of P1 and P2 is in
the ratio 5:4. P1 and P2 together completes 75% of that work at 12:30 p.m. Rahul and P2 together can
complete same work in 3hours. Rahul is (C) % more efficient than P1. After that work he comes back to
home in upstream (Speed of stream is 3km/hr and his speed in still water and distance between his
house and office are same as earlier). He takes (D) hours to reach home. When he reaches home, two of
his friends Aman and Raman come at his house. All three starts to play a game in which 2 dices are used
by each person. (E) is the number of out comes in which first Rahul and then Aman throw their respective
dices. In agame, all three throw their dices and each one of them get 8 as the sum of numbers in their
dices and any one of two not get same outcomes. Winner is the one who gets highest number as the
sum of the square of the number comes in dices. (F) Should be the outcomes of the dices of Raman if
Raman is winner of the game.
140. What value will come at the place of 'A' ?

(a) 4.25km (b) 3.75km (c) 5km (d) 5.25km
141. What value will come at the place of ‘B’?

(a) 10:45am (b) 11am (c) 10:30am (d) 10am
142. What value will come at the place of 'C' ?

2 1
(a) 16 3 % (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 33 3 %
143. What value will come at the place of 'D' ?

1 2
(a) 2 hours (b) 1.5 hours (c) 7 8 hours (d) 1 3 hours
144. What value will come at the place of 'E' ?

(a) 72 (b) 42 (c) 36 (d) 108
145. What value will come at the place of 'F'?

(a) 3 and 5 (b) 2 and 6 (c) None of the given (d) Can not be determined

MOCK CLAT #20
Directions (Q.146– Q.150): Read the following information carefully and answer the following questions
given below.
The following Table show the run scored by a batsman against different countries in one-day
internationals (ODI) and Twenty (T20) Champions trophy. Runs scored by the batsman in ODI and T20
are given below in the table. Some value is given while some value is missing you have to calculate the
missing value according the questiongiven below.
ODI T20
Team Run score in ODI Run scored in T20
% of total run % of total run
India 45% - - 165
Australia - 650 35% -
Pakistan - - 25% 175
South Africa - 320 - -
Note – Total run scored against any team = Run scored in ODI + Run scored in T20
146. Total run scored against Australia and Pakistan together is how much more or less than the total run
scored against Pakistan and South Africa. Also, it is known than only 20 % of total run is score in T20
against South Africa?
(a) 600 (b) 700 (c) 800 (d) 900
147. Total runs scored against India and Australia together is what fraction of total number of runs scored
against Pakistan in ODI, s only?
10 2 10
(a) 3/9 (b) 4 21 (c) 3 21 (d) 2 21
148. Against USA, total run scored in ODI is 80% more than total run scored in T20s, which is 20 % more than
the total run scored in ODIs against India. Find out Total run scored against USA? (If some values come
in fraction take it Approx. Value)
(a) 252 (b) 292 (c) 172 (d) 169
149. Total run scored against South Africa is 4x. Also total run scored in ODIs is 1/3 more than total run score
in T20s against same team. Find the value of x2+2x-50 =?
(a) 13310 (b) 21830 (c) 17600 (d) 19830
150. What is the difference between total run scored in T20s against (India, Australia and Pakistan together)
and average run scored in ODIs against all the team together?
(a) 248.75 (b) 308.75 (c) 283.75 (d) 228.75

MOCK CLAT #20
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

Part of the Most Awesome and Consistently Successful Study Material and Test Series Module, spanning across both
Physical and Online Programs in the entire Country. While most of the world fumbled and faltered, 2020 has been
another inspiring Success story both for us and those who chose to trust us. As a result LE was able to engineer Clean-
Sweep-Landslide figures of a handsome 35 Selections under 100 ranks, and a whopping 180 selections under 500 ranks
in CLAT 2020. With AILET being no different, a total of 30 LEtians found their way into NLUD in 2020. Read on!

MOCK CLAT #21
4. There is negative marking of 0.25 for every incorrect answer. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are 150
5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with a BALL PEN
(BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
6. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered incorrect and no
marks will be awarded for the same.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and, in the spaces,
provided for.
9. After the Test is over, the candidate has to return the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator. The candidate should take the
Test Paper along with them.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal prosecution.
12. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, pagers or calculators are strictly not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall.

Centre Name : _______________________ http://bit.ly/OMR_MockCLAT-21
Candidate Name : _______________________
Batch : _______________________
Contact No. : _______________________
Date of Exam : _______________________
MOCK CLAT #21
Passage (Q.1-Q.6): The Delhi session’s court order granting bail to climate activist Disha Ravi ends the
trauma of jail for the 22-year-old. The ten days she endured in custody on the basis of “scanty and
sketchy evidence” raise questions on Delhi police. It struggled to present any evidence in court that could
link Disha to the Republic Day violence or make a cogent case for saying that Disha’s actions were
tantamount to inciting violence. Further, additional sessions judge Dharmender Rana’s 18-page order
peppered with insightful observations also offers good reasons to junk sedition laws.
With police and prosecution harbouring no compunction presenting dissent as crime, the safeguards
against sedition are failing. Judge Rana writes: “Perusal of the said ‘toolkit’ reveals that any call for any
kind of violence is conspicuously absent. In my considered opinion, citizens are conscience keepers of
government in any democratic nation. They cannot be put behind bars simply because they choose to
disagree with state policies. The offence of sedition cannot be invoked to minister to the wounded vanity
of governments.” By invoking sedition indiscriminately, including against idealistic young activists,
government harms its own moral authority.
On Disha collaborating with Greta Thunberg and Canadian pro-Khalistani activist Mo Dhaliwal, the judge
noted that India’s 5,000 year civilisation was never averse to ideas from varied quarters. “In my
considered opinion, the freedom of speech and expression includes the right to seek a global audience.
There are no geographical barriers on communication,” said Rana, quoting the Rig Veda verse: “Let
noble thoughts come to me from all directions.” Indeed, youngsters like Disha taking up activism and
living this Rig Vedic ideal isn’t surprising. Cataclysmic climate change knows no national borders and will
impact young people the most.
Judge Rana’s concern over further restricting Disha’s liberty “on the basis of propitious anticipations”
speaks to recent cases of prolonged incarceration on tenuous grounds. Supreme Court’s observation in
the bail hearing of DHFL promoters Kapil and Dheeraj Wadhwan – that agencies are satisfied with
keeping people behind bars “for some days” instead of fast trial and conviction – also points to warped
priorities. A reputed US digital forensics firm’s report of incriminating documents allegedly planted
through malware to implicate accused persons in the Elgar Parishad case calls for speedy trial, or
alternatively bail. As Justice Chandrachud observed while granting Arnab Goswami interim bail in
Mumbai police’s abetment to suicide probe: “Liberty survives by the vigilance of her citizens, on the
cacophony of the media and in the dusty corridors of courts alive to the rule of (and not by) law.”
1. What is the status quo of Disha Ravi’s case?

(a) she has been cleared of all sedition charges and acquitted
(b) she has not been acquitted, but bail has been granted
(c) the constitutionality of sedition laws needs to be evaluated before the case goes further
(d) she has been given bail, but the duration set by the court is awfully short
2. Which of the following is implied in the passage?

(a) Citizens provide much needed constructive criticism to the government, and plays an important role in
furtherance of a democracy
(b) Sedition is an archaic law, and has been long used to shush dissent
(c) While the evidence against Disha was sketchy, sedition is a relatively graver offence and must be
viewed through a stricter lens
3. Which of the following is true as per the passage?

(a) dissent is a crime, with no actual safeguards in place
(b) dissent is not a crime, and the safeguards are sufficient for non-defaulters
(c) dissent is not a crime, but is being treated like one, with failing safeguards
(d) dissent is the same as sedition, unless it falls within one of the safeguards

MOCK CLAT #21
4. Which of the following speaks to the state’s extremism?

(a) It struggled to present any evidence in court that could link Disha to the Republic Day violence or
make a cogent case for saying that Disha’s actions were tantamount to inciting violence.
(b) On Disha collaborating with Greta Thunberg and Canadian pro-Khalistani activist Mo Dhaliwal, the
judge noted that India’s 5,000 year civilisation was never averse to ideas from varied quarters.
(c) With police and prosecution harbouring no compunction presenting dissent as crime, the safeguards
against sedition are failing.
(d) Judge Rana’s concern over further restricting Disha’s liberty “on the basis of propitious anticipations”
speaks to recent cases of prolonged incarceration on tenuous grounds
5. “Going by its history, India was more … in the olden times than today.” Which of the following is an apt
adjective for the blank?
(a) tolerant (b) liberal (c) restrictive (d) regressive
6. What is the synonym of “incarceration”?

(a) imprisonment (b) wrongful accusation
(c) witch hunt (d) victimizing
Passage(Q.7-Q.11): In October 2017, a commission was set up by the government under former Delhi
high court chief justice G Rohini to work out a ‘scientific’ method to subcategorise the Central list of OBCs
who benefit from reservation of jobs and in educational institutions. The task was to be completed in
three months. Three years on, the commission is still at it, with end-July being the latest deadline. The
commission isn’t responsible for the delay. It’s a thankless task doing fine-grained analysis of over 2,000
castes to slice and dice the Central OBC list to provide for equitable distribution of benefits.
Will this exercise achieve its aim? Turn to states for answers as India’s reservation history has distinct
regional patterns. In Tamil Nadu, over three decades after a successful agitation by the Vanniyar
Sangam led to a carve out of 20% MBC sub-quota for some castes within the 50% BC category, trouble
is brewing again. Vanniyar representatives want an exclusive internal reservation within the MBC quota.
The permutations are limitless. In Karnataka, even a dominant group such as Lingayats is pushing for a
bigger share of reservations.
Reservation also leads to pernicious identity formation. People are trapped in narrow group identities,
with fresh reservation demands representing benefits for one group at the expense of another. It’s an
endless zero sum game, like a cat chasing its own tail; the very obverse of ‘sabka saath, sabka vikas’. If
distribution of benefits is [X], the existing provision to remove the creamy layer is a better way to broad-
base benefits. History teaches us slicing and dicing eventually creates more problems while inhibiting
fraternity and solidarity in society.
7. Which of the following can aptly replace [X]?

(a) unequal (b) inequitable (c) impossible (d) immoral

(a) reservation patterns differ from state to state
(b) only minorities ask for (and deserve) reservation in India
(c) to give or not give reservations is the sole discretion of the State, and nothing affects this decision
except for historical context
9. Why does the author say that reservation schemes nowadays are like “like a cat chasing its own tail”?
(a) as it is starkly opposite to “sabka saath, sabka vikaas”
(b) as while it gives benefit to one section, it takes it away from another
(c) as reservation in current times is not based on equity
(d) as reservation is a reflection of socio-political demand, not historical injustice

MOCK CLAT #21
10. Which of the following aptly depicts India’s diversity?

(a) In October 2017, a commission was set up by the government under former Delhi high court chief
justice G Rohini to work out a ‘scientific’ method to subcategorise the Central list of OBCs who benefit
from reservation of jobs and in educational institutions.
(b) If distribution of benefits is inequitable, the existing provision to remove the creamy layer is a better
way to broad-base benefits.
(c) It’s a thankless task doing fine-grained analysis of over 2,000 castes to slice and dice the Central
OBC list to provide for equitable distribution of benefits.
(d) The tendency to slice and dice is a reflex emanating from India’s poor record in providing quality
education to all children and inadequate vibrancy in the economy
11. What can be assumed to be the meaning of “slice and dice” as per the passage?
(a) affording benefits to a select few (only the deserving ones)
(b) compartmentalizing individuals based on caste
(c) advocating for the rights of a select few while neglecting others
Passage(Q.12-Q.17): If a democracy’s health were to be judged by how many people exercise the vote,
the US presidential election 2020 couldn’t have gone better. It has seen the largest participation since
1900, with an estimated 66.9% of the potentially eligible population voting. But from the racial polarisation
of the electorate to the embattled naming of the winner, fake news galore adding to the din, there are
signs aplenty of a democracy in distress. As a significant portion of this dysfunction can be laid at the
doorstep of President Donald Trump, it is difficult seeing him repair it in a second term. But former vice-
president Joe Biden is in a different mould and therefore it is good news that, at the time of going to
press, he is within striking distance of becoming the next US president.
Even as counting continues in some states, Biden has already won more overall votes than any other
presidential candidate in US history. Of course Al Gore and Hillary Clinton also won the popular vote,
only to fade into electoral college coma. This is the fate Democrats have been determined to avert this
time. Quite a bit of the historic voter participation that the pandemic has unexpectedly mobilised is in the
form of mail-in ballots. It is on these that the next presidency now hinges, with the Trump campaign
launching legal challenges in battleground states like Georgia and Pennsylvania, which Biden is looking
to flip after Michigan and Wisconsin.
The exigencies of the pandemic have combined with the American federal spirit and penchant for
experimentation, to introduce many new processes and guidelines for this election. That it should
therefore take time, indeed several days, to count every vote is no disgrace. What is indefensible is the
head of state stoking misinformation (and potential for violence) by accusing his opponent of “trying to
steal the election”. It epitomises the hyper-partisanship and “alternative facts” that are crying to be
mended.
The world also looks to the US to provide better leadership on issues ranging from climate change to
global security. But that cannot begin to happen without a rules based order at home, where the
undermining of norms and institutions must cease. Biden-Harris would not be a miracle cure but they
would be a welcome shift in direction. They may well begin by addressing the gulf between the citizens of
colour, a majority of whom voted for them, and the white people who didn’t.
12. Which of the following describes the author’s views?

(a) democracy is measured by the number of people exercising their right to vote
(b) democracy must be measured by the number of people exercising their right to vote
(c) democracy is not aptly measured by the number of people exercising their right to vote
13. What does the author mean by “this dysfunction can be laid at the doorstep of President Donald Trump”?
(a) the dysfunction can be partially attributed to Donald Trump
(b) the dysfunction has led to the election of Donald Trump
(c) the dysfunction has taken place in Trump’s political party
(d) the dysfunction has been caused by Trump followers

MOCK CLAT #21
14. Which of the following best describes this year’s election turnout?
(a) unprecedented (b) unparalleled (c) remarkable (d) all of the above
15. Which of the following sentences reflects the “the undermining of norms and institutions” the author talks
about?
(a) The exigencies of the pandemic have combined with the American federal spirit and penchant for
experimentation, to introduce many new processes and guidelines for this election
(b) What is indefensible is the head of state stoking misinformation (and potential for violence) by
accusing his opponent of “trying to steal the election”.
(c) Of course Al Gore and Hillary Clinton also won the popular vote, only to fade into Electoral College
coma
(d) They may well begin by addressing the gulf between the citizens of colour, a majority of whom voted
for them, and the white people who didn’t.
16. Which of the following “social evils” that are prevalent in the U.S. are being showcased in the passage?
(a) patriarchy (b) racism (c) illiteracy (d) sexism
17. Which of the following are implied by the author?

(a) Biden is a democrat i.e., belonging to the democratic party
(b) Biden is more popular than Trump among colored people
(c) U.S.(a) is a global leader in some of the most important arenas
Passage(Q.18-Q.22): Laws against love jihad under consideration by Uttar Pradesh and Haryana betray
an obsession with excessive legislation having no perceptible benefits and ample scope for harassment
and rights violations. India’s penchant for over-legislating has been well-documented: Take cannabis
used by Indians including ascetics for centuries, but criminalised overnight by the NDPS Act 1985. Where
existing penal laws are hardly being implemented with vigour to prevent heinous offences, a law to forbid
a phantom crime defies common sense. After all, love jihad remains a bogey despite being in political
circulation for long.
The Union home ministry told Lok Sabha earlier this year that no “love jihad” cases were reported by
central agencies in Kerala, where the pejorative phrase is believed to have originated in 2009. This is
despite NIA probing two suspected cases. The horrific Ballabhgarh shooting that has stoked outrage in
Haryana, and could be the driving force behind chief minister ML Khattar’s proposed law, must be
recognised for what it is: Male entitlement, stalking culture and VIP mentality that violently rejected a
woman’s agency to withhold consent. Focussing solely on the divisive interfaith dimension while
neglecting the gender aspect could condemn more women to Nikita Tomar’s fate.
The love jihad bogey is no less a negation of women’s agency. It treats women as gullible, defenceless
participants in relationships. Any law regulating interfaith marriage would cast the state as arbiter
between consenting adults where the state’s sanction sanctifies the marriage. Some state laws against
religious conversions that require official permission for a person to change faiths flow from similar
paternalism. Not just interfaith couples, every person in love could be tripped up if such laws at odds
with the Constitution’s guarantee of civil liberties and prohibition of discrimination by the state on grounds
of religion and gender enter the body politic.
Instead of new laws, there exists already the Special Marriage Act providing a marriage officer to vet
identities and ensure consent. Recently, Allahabad high court bemoaned a Hindu woman changing her
faith to marry her Muslim lover and recommended the SMA for such people. Personal choices aside,
religious marriages officiated by a priest or qazi offer lesser hassles for eloping couples than SMA, with
its archaic one month public notice for soliciting objections. Instead of one more law – one that may
criminalise love – reform the here and present SM(a)

MOCK CLAT #21
18. Why does the author call “love jihad” a phantom crime?
(a) because it is a heinous crime
(b) because it is fiction
(c) because it is a relatively newer form of crime
(d) because it is a communal crime
19. What is true about the love jihad laws being considered in U.P. and Haryana?
(a) they are a form of overreach by the police and the executive
(b) these laws find their root in sexism prevalent in the country
(c) while these laws are excessive, they are made for a cause prevalent in the society
20. What is the meaning of the term “paternalism”?

(a) a father-like affection that India harbors for its citizens
(b) over protectiveness which has led to violation of civil liberties of individuals
(c) the notion of being a “know-it-all”
(d) a restrictive and oppressive mindset
21. The love jihad laws are an example of …?

(a) legislative overreach (b) a breach of democracy
(c) bi-partisanship (d) toxic populism
22. Which of the following is true about the SMA?

(a) it is the primary law governing inter-faith marriages in India
(b) it is archaic in nature
(c) it is riddled with complications and difficulties
Passage(Q.23-Q.27): The candidature of Kamala Harris has put [X] spotlight on Indian-Americans in the
US. This is not a large vote bank, at around 1% of the country’s population. But the nature of the 2020
contest has made it worth wooing hard, by both Democrats and Republicans. As Joe Biden wrote in an
oped, it can make “all the difference from North Carolina and Virginia to Pennsylvania and Michigan to
Georgia and Texas”. In other words, it can give a critical nudge in the swing states. To illustrate, there are
61,000 Indian-American voters in Pennsylvania, a state which Donald Trump won by less than 45,000
votes last time, and which is close to being a must-win for him this time.
Overall these voters tilt blue, with the Indian American Attitudes Survey finding that 72% of them plan to
vote for Biden and 22% for Trump. The combination of being brown and very well-educated is predictive
of this tilt, with 47% of Indian-American citizens classifying themselves on the liberal spectrum as
compared to 23% on the conservative one. From press freedoms to the Black Lives Matter movement,
liberal attitudes dominate especially among those born in America.
For long the model minority tag of the community also signified that they didn’t adventure beyond
professions like engineering, medicine or academics. But over time they have become far likelier to get
involved in politics as compared to other Asian groups. Many of them now staff Capitol Hill and this
election may also see the Samosa Caucus, collective nickname for Indian-American lawmakers in
Congress, grow larger. If Harris does indeed become the first woman vice-president of the US, that would
give strong new momentum to the diaspora’s political ambitions up and down the tickets. But the trend is
already here.
23. What can be the appropriate title to the passage?

(a) A liberal lot: US election puts a spotlight on Indian Americans
(b) Biden v. Trump: A tale as old as time
(c) Harris all set to become the next VP: A win for women all over the world
(d) Why have Indians been neglected till now? The votes show a major change

MOCK CLAT #21
24. According to the passage, what can be inferred about the Indian vote bank?
(a) it is minute, but can be a game changer
(b) it consists mostly of people belonging to the mainstream, conventional professions
(c) they are to vote for Biden, solely because of his affiliation with Harris
25. What is cited as the core reason behind the Indian voters voting for Biden?
(a) atrocities on certain communities in the U.S
(b) Liberalism
(c) literacy

(a) Indians born in America are more liberal than Indians who have immigrated to the U.S
(b) Biden and Kamla belong to the more liberal party than not
(c) Literacy plays a factor in liberalism
27. What can aptly replace [X] in the above passage?

(a) an unparalleled
(b) an unprecedented
(c) an edgy
(d) a well deserved
Passage(Q.28-Q.32): The ministry of electronics and information technology was recently ticked off by
the Central Information Commission (CIC), which oversees the implementation of RTI. In response to a
query related to the Aarogya Setu app’s origin, the government said that it did not have the information.
This invited CIC’s censure and another hearing next month. The government subsequently clarified the
matter in a media statement and provided information. Yet, it is noteworthy that it chose not to provide the
same information when it had a legal obligation to do so to a statutory body.
The episode raises questions about the government’s approach to RTI. This legislation is a tool to ensure
accountability to citizens. Accountability is fundamental to the quality of a democracy. It’s precisely
because RTI is effective that people seeking to ensure accountability in public spending have been killed.
Given this context, it doesn’t help that CIC today is without a chief information commissioner and only
50% of the sanctioned strength of central information commissioners have been filled. Over the last six
years CIC has had repeated gaps between the tenures of successive chiefs.
On Aarogya Setu, the government has clarified that this contact tracing app was developed in 21 days
through a public private partnership initiative. The source code for the app was made available in open
domain in May. Aarogya Setu had become unavoidable when the unlock phase began in June. The scale
of personal data that is being harvested is a reminder that India still does not have a comprehensive
legislation regulating use of personal data. The pandemic has quickened the pace of digitisation in all
areas. With it, humungous data is being harvested by multiple entities. If the SC’s landmark judgment
which upheld privacy as a fundamental right is to be realised, we need a legislation soon.
28. The CIC is a …?

(a) Legislative body (b) Statutory body
(c) Constitutional body (d) A quasi judicial body
29. What is the synonym of “censure”?

(a) cauterize (b) chastise (c) abhor (d) laud

MOCK CLAT #21
30. Why is accountability necessary in case of the Aarogya Setu app?

(a) as it has emerged as a beacon of hope in Covid times
(b) as it was the main form of connection during the lockdown period
(c) as it holds large amount of private information
(d) as it is a tool in the hands of the government to manipulate Covid related data
31. What can be inferred from the passage about CIC?

(a) it is an important entity, but losing relevance at an alarming rate
(b) its allegiance to the Executive makes it biased and unreliable
(c) the body itself stands for a good cause, but the inherent corruption has made it severly ineffective
(d) it is in a sorry state of affairs, considering its relevance and importance
32. What is an appropriate title to the above passage?

(a) Transparency and data: The electronics ministry’s approach to an RTI on Aarogya Setu holds lessons
(b) Keeping up with the Aarogya Setu App: the electronics ministry must too
(c) Why the CIC is falling behind? Current times highlight the need for an active CIC
(d) Corruption within and without: the CIC battling within itself.

MOCK CLAT #21
Passage (Q.33-Q.37): India has the second-highest number of confirmed COVID-19 cases in the world,
second only to the US. Though a vaccine will be the key to recovering from the pandemic, the importance
of scaling up testing cannot be ignored. The current gold standard test, RT-PCR, is highly reliable and
accurate. However, considering the growing need for even more extensive testing, the fact that RT-PCR
requires advanced infrastructure and up to [1]to deliver the results warrants a better alternative.
This is where the efficient COVID-19 detection test developed by a research team at the CSIR-Institute of
Genomics and Integrative Biology comes in. The test – named Feluda– was approved by the Drug
Controller General of India (DCGI) for commercial launch. It gets its name from the fictitious detective in
novels written by Satyajit Ray. The Feluda test provides quicker results, without compromising the
accuracy, which is a breakthrough in COVID-19 detection.
It employs the cutting-edge [2] which earned the discoverers [3] prize this year.
Since the groundbreaking work was published in 2012, the technique has successfully been applied in
gene editing and diagnostics.
33. Which of the following has been redacted from [1]?

34. Which of the following has been redacted from [2]?

(a) Volumetric Absorptive Microsampling
(b) Dynex technologies
(c) CRISPR-Cas9
(d) Single-photon emission computed tomography
35. What is the full-form of RT-PCR?

(a) reverse transcription-quantitative polymerase chain reaction
(b) rotatory transcription-qualitative polymerase chain reaction
(c) reverse transfered-qualitative polymerase chain reaction
(d) reverse transfered-quantitative polymerase chain reaction
36. Why [2]is used in COVID test?

(a) Because Oxford recommended it
(b) As it is a technique through which we can edit gene
(c) As WHO restricted RT- PCR usage
37. CSIR, specified in the paragrapgh is located in _________.

(a) Pune (b) Delhi (c) Chennai (d) Mumbai

MOCK CLAT #21
Passage (Q.38-Q.42): In recent times, there has been a spurt of elephant intrusions into human
settlements and tea gardens in the Nilgiri Hills. For several decades, there were no major settlements at
Kallar in the foothills of the Nilgiri Hills along the ghat road from Mettupalayam to Ooty other than the
government horticultural farm and a few hutments amid acres of arecanut and banana plantations.
Conflict between wild elephants and human beings was relatively unknown in the region. In the mid-
1990s, a school (Satchidananda Jothi Niketan) was built inside the forest after clearing a large area
despite protests by environmentalists. The electric fencing to protect the property from elephant intrusion
has already electrocuted a few baby elephants, and people nowadays illegally feed their fences with
direct power, causing a greater threat.
The setting up of the school, and settlements between the school gate adjacent to the Kallar railway
crossing, changed the scene. The first to come was the watersport park, Black Thunder, and hotels and
shops to cater to the swelling number of visitors.
38. Which of the following are the examples of human wildlife conflict?
(a) Man cutting forests and killing animals
(b) Animals entering into human’s colony or vice versa
(c) Animals dying in the zoo
(d) Setting up residents on barren lands
39. Nilgiri biosphere reserve is not a part of which of the following states?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Karnataka (c) Kerala (d) Andhra Pradesh
40. On what basis Supreme court upheld Madras High court judgement?
1. Government is fully empowered under Project elephant
2. Protection of environment is enshrined in part IV of the Indian constitution
3. Protection of environment is enshrined in part VI of the Indian constitution
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only
41. What are keystone species?

(a) species that has a disproportionately large effect on the communities in which it lives.
(b) Another name of top predators
(c) species that are on the verge of extinction
(d) species that enter into other ecosystem as an infiltrator
42. ‘Right of Passage’, an 800-page study first released in August _____ , authored by experts and published
by the Wildlife Trust of India (WTI).
(a) 2016 (b) 2017 (c) 2018 (d) 2019
Passage (Q.43-Q.47): The GHI 2020 report has placed India [1] position among [2] countries, much
behind Bangladesh, Pakistan and Nepal. The situation is grim and the country is battling widespread
hunger.
GHI is based on four indicators:
The proportion of undernourished in a population
The proportion of children under the age of five suffering from wasting (less weight in proportion to their
height)
The proportion of children under five suffering from stunting (low height in proportion to their age)
The mortality rate of children under five
The GHI score is determined on point scale based on these four parameters. Countries with score within
the range 20-34.9 are considered to be grappling with acute hunger. High-income countries and those
with very low populations were excluded from evaluation.
In Poverty and Famines, Amartya Sen introduced the idea of ‘exchange entitlement decline’ as a reason
for starvation and famines. It is characterised by an adverse shift in the exchange value of endowments
for food. It essentially means the occupation a section of people are engaged in is not remunerative
enough to buy adequate food.

MOCK CLAT #21
43. Fill [1] and [2] with a suitable option.

(a) 94, 107 (b) 97,110 (c) 99,112 (d) 99, 115
44. Which of the following initiatives of Indian government are not for battling hunger?
(a) Ration distribution through PDS
(b) Mid day meal scheme
(c) Free gas connection to BPL families
(d) Huge stock of grains with FCI
45. The GHI determines hunger on a what -point scale?

(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 150 (d) 200
46. India ranked below from which two neighboring countries this year ?
(a) Bhutan and Nepal (b) Bhutan and Sri lanka
(c) Pakistan and Bangladesh (d) Pakistan and Sri Lanka
47. Right to food in Indian constitution is a:

(a) Fundamental right
(b) DPSP
(c) Not included in the constitution
(d) Fundamental right but could be declined under special circumstances
Passage (Q.48-Q.52): The 1.8 kilometre long [1] bridge connecting Sabrum in India with Ramgarh in [x]
will be completed by December this year.
This was announced on Tuesday by the Road Transport, Highways and MSMEs Minister Nitin Gadkari
while laying the foundation stone of nine National Highway projects in Tripura through video
conferencing.
According to a press release issued by the Ministry, Road Transport Minister Nitin Gadkari said that the
[1] bridge being built at the cost of Rs. 129 crore will ease the transportation of goods across ports. An
integrated check post is also proposed to be built near Sabrum.
He said that the construction of the RCC bridge over [1] will improve connectivity to the international
border with Bangladesh.
Describing Tripura as the gateway of the ‘Act East Policy’ of the government , Union Minister of State for
Development of North Eastern Region (DONER) Dr. Jitendra Singh said that very soon a train to
Bangladesh from Tripura will start. It will herald a new chapter and open new vistas in the development of
this region by providing the entire region access to the seaports.

(a) Bogibeel (b) Bailey (c) Feni (d) Dibang river
49. [1] is a name of river, which forms a India and [x]border. Name [x].
(a) Nepal (b) Bangladesh (c) Sri lanka (d) Tibet
50. [1] Bridge is also known as ______ in Chattogram

(a) Mrinalini Setu (b) Fida setu (c) Maitree setu (d) Miragyee setu
51. The river [1] is a tributary of –

(a) The Ganges (b) Brahmaputra (c) Padma (d) None of the above

MOCK CLAT #21

(a) The water sharing dispute between India and Pakistan began in 1948.
(b) Pakistan reported that, “India is trying to draw out water from Feni River for irrigation projects in
exchange of solving erosion issue in Bangladesh side of this bordering river.”
(c) According to an Indian declaration on the water sharing, “Feni River has been added to its mandate in
the 36th JRC meeting”
Passage (Q.53-Q.57): Closely after Union finance minister Nirmala Sitharaman proposed the
introduction of a “National Hydrogen Energy Mission” in her budget speech, the government has started
preparations for holding auctions for green hydrogen, which is hydrogen produced from renewable
energy sources. Union power minister RK Singh said on Friday that the government is planning to call for
green hydrogen bids in “4-5 months”. The minister added that talks are on with other ministries to
increase the penetration of domestic green hydrogen in industries such as fertilizer, steel and oil
refineries, which otherwise import natural gas and ammonia to produce hydrogen. There are also
discussions to put a mandate on using around 10% of domestic green hydrogen in such industries.
State-run power generator [1] has already signed an MoU with Siemens for production of green
hydrogen from the company’s renewable energy plants and its use in transportation. It has also planned
pilot projects to run five hydrogen-cell electric buses and five cars in Delhi and Leh. In its laboratories, [1]
is designing a prototype for hard/sea water electrolysis and reactors for hydrogen production through the
photo-electro-chemical process.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from the news reporting of The Financial Express
53. How much funds have been allocated for the National Hydrogen Mission and renewable-energy
development in the Union Budget 2021-22?
(a) Rs. 100 crore (b) Rs. 500 crore (c) Rs. 1000 crore (d) Rs. 1500 crore

(a) OIC (b) BP (c) NTPC (d) Both a and c
55. Why would the HFCEVs be better than EVs in India?

(a) India has got inadequate supply of electricity for the EVs
(b) India has got better support-infrastructure for HFCEVs than for EVs
(c) Most of India’s power-plants are coal-fired
(d) India has a huge infrastructure for producing green hydroggen
56. Which of the following features of hydrogen is incorrect?

(a) It is the first element on the periodic table
(b) Weight of Hydrogen is lesser than that of air
(c) At room temperature the hydrogen gas tastes a tad salty
(d) Hydrogen is a component of more compounds than any other element.
57. Which of the following is a concern that have been voiced regarding HFCEVs?
(a) There are safety concerns regarding the storage of Hydrogen in car-bellies
(b) There is a dearth of hydrogen-gas reservoirs in India
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b

MOCK CLAT #21
Passage (Q.58-Q.62): The United States has extended the New START nuclear disarmament treaty with
Russia for [1] years starting Wednesday, Secretary of State [2] said. "President Biden pledged to keep
the American people safe from nuclear threats by restoring U.S. leadership on arms control and
nonproliferation," Mr. [2] said in a statement. "Today, the United States took the first step toward making
good on that pledge when it extended the New START Treaty with the Russian Federation for [1] years.
"Russian President Vladimir Putin signed off last Friday legislation extending the accord.
The New START treaty is the last remaining arms reduction pact between the former Cold War rivals.
The agreement, which was due to expire on February 5, is seen as a rare opportunity for compromise
between Moscow and Washington, whose ties have dramatically deteriorated in recent years. Signed in
[x], New START caps the number of nuclear warheads that can be deployed by Moscow and
Washington, which control the world's largest nuclear arsenals.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from the news reporting of The Hindu

(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 10
59. Who is the Secretary of State of USA, whose name has been redacted by [2]?
(a) Mike Pence (b) Mike Pompeo (c) Kamala Harris (d) Antony Blinken
60. Which of the following years has been redacted by [x]?

(a) 1991 (b) 2000 (c) 2010 (d) 2016
61. The New START Treaty has limited the number of nuclear warheads that can be deployed by Russia and
USA to -
(a) 700 strategic launchers and 1,550 operational warheads
(b) 1,600 strategic delivery vehicles and 6,000 warheads
(c) 1,100 strategic delivery vehicles and 4,500 warheads
(d) 900 strategic launchers and 2,550 operational warheads
62. In which year was the INF Treaty signed?

(a) 1984 (b) 1987 (c) 1989 (d) 1991
Passage (Q.63-Q.67): The Parliamentary Standing Committee on science and technology headed by [1]
has recommended that the government assuage concerns raised over the DNA Technology (Use and
Application) Regulation Bill, 2019 both in Parliament and outside. While recognizing that it’s an important
bill for criminal investigation, a number of members who deposed before the Committee have raised fears
that the bill could be misused to target different segments of society based on religion, caste or political
views. “These fears are not entirely unfounded and have to be recognized and addressed by the
Government and by Parliament as well. It does not, however, negate the need for such legislation
especially when DNA technology is already in use,” the Committee noted in its report which was tabled in
the Parliament on Wednesday. “In fact, its use in recent months has exposed a false encounter in which
innocents were killed contradicting initial claims made that they were militants. The Committee is of the
strong opinion that an enabling ecosystem must be created soon to ensure that DNA profiling is done in a
manner that is fully consistent with the letter and spirit of various Supreme Court judgments and with of
the Constitution of India,” the report added.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from the news-reporting article of The Hindustan Times
63. Whose names out of the following has been redacted by [1]?
(a) Shashi Tharoor (b) Asad-ud-din Owaisi
(c) Jairam Ramesh (d) Anand Sharma

MOCK CLAT #21
64. A very pertinent issue that has been raised against this bill is the caste-based profiling. Due to which of
the following things can this happen?
(a) In India there is a huge belief of caste-based bias among the police department
(b) In India, the SCs, STs, OBCs and Muslims have a large chunk in the jailed population
(c) In India, the DNA regulation is not that strict, so it can be misused for profiling the minorities and the
weaker sections
65. Which of the following is not a concern raised over the Bill?
(a) Formation of a unified database
(b) Overriding the consent clause for procuring a person’s DNA sample
(c) Lack of regulation for training personnel in DNA laboratories
(d) The appointment of directors of the National DNA Data Bank
66. Which of the following articles of the Constitution is being deemed will be in conflict if this Bill is passed?
(a) Articles 20(3) and 21 (b) Articles 20(1) and 21(1)
(c) Articles 23 and 24(1)(a) (d) Articles 19(3) and 21
67. Which of the following is not an index that will be maintained in the DNA Technology Bill?
(a) Suspects’ or undertrials’ index (b) Offenders’ index
(c) Crime scene index (d) Juveniles’ index
Passage (Q.68-Q.70): Israel and the United States have begun developing the Arrow-4 missile defense
system that includes next-generation interceptors and will replace the Arrow-2 over the next decades,
according to a statement from Israel’s Defense Ministry.
“The Arrow weapon system, which was one of the first in the world to intercept ballistic missiles, will be
upgraded with a significant capability. The interceptor will be the most advanced of its kind in the world
and will provide a new layer of defense to the State of Israel and its citizens,” said Jacob Galifat, general
manager IAI’s MLM Division.
The MLM Division is the principal contractor for the Arrow weapon system and is a design, development
and system engineering organization, according to IAI, which is the prime contractor for Arrow-4′s
development. The system will be designed to prepare Israel for the future battlefield and ever-evolving
threats in the Middle East and around the world, Israeli Defense Minister Benny Gantz said Thursday.
The system is also expected to counter threats both inside and beyond the atmosphere, making it
endoatmospheric and exoatmospheric.
68. Who is the father of “the Arrow anti-ballistic missile"?

(a) Herodotus (b) Dov Raviv (c) Otto Hahn (d) Ernest Rutherford
69. The first launch of the Arrow interceptor took place in which of the following year?
(a) 1989 (b) 1940 (c) 1990 (d) 2000
70. The Arrow-4 and ……. .are meant to replace the existing MIM-104 Patriot batteries in service.
(a) Iron Dome (b) David’s Sling (c) Barak-8 (d) Iron Beam

MOCK CLAT #21
Directions (Q.71 –Q.108): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions based on it.
(Passage Q.71-Q.74): The Allahabad high court recently granted pre-arrest bail to Mohammad Chand,
one of the people who had offered namaz inside the premises of the Nand Baba temple in Mathura. In its
order, the bench of Justice Siddharth noted that “irrational and indiscriminate arrests are gross violation
of human rights”.
As for the government counsel’s contention that “in view of the seriousness of the allegations made
against the applicant, he is not entitled to grant of anticipatory bail,” the bench held that this apprehension
was “not founded on any material on record”.
Justice Siddharth further held that “personal liberty is a very precious fundamental rights and it should be
curtailed only when it becomes imperative. According to the peculiar facts and circumstances of the
peculiar case the arrest of an accused should be made.”
He added that “the courts have repeatedly held that arrest should be the last option for the police and it
should be restricted to those exceptional cases where arresting the accused is imperative or his custodial
interrogation is required. Irrational and indiscriminate arrests are gross violation of human rights.”
Granting anticipatory bail to the accused, he said: “Hence without expressing any opinion on the merits of
the case and considering the nature of accusations and antecedents of applicant, he is directed to be
enlarged on anticipatory bail as per the Constitution Bench judgment of the Apex Court in the case of
Sushila Aggarwal vs. State (NCT of Delhi) 2020.”
[Extracted with revisions from ‘Irrational, Indiscriminate Arrests Are Gross Violations of Human Rights:
Allahabad HC in Mathura Namaz Case’ published 23 Jan 2021 in thewire
https://thewire.in/rights/irrational-indiscriminate-arrests-are-gross-violations-of-human-rights-allahabad-
hc-in-mathura-namaz-case]
71. A, B, C, D and E were a group of five friends. They call their group “Hum Paanch”. They were severely
disappointed with the government’s functioning so they decided to plant a harmless smoke bomb to
scare the people and show their dissatisfaction with the regime. Before they could execute their plan and
while they were still in the planning phase, B and C were arrested for “terrorist conspiracy of bomb blast”.
Is this an indiscriminate arrest as per the passage?
(a) No, because irrational and indiscriminate arrests are gross violations of human rights
(b) No, because arresting them was imperative when considering the peculiar facts of the case at hand
(c) No, because of the seriousness of the allegations made against them which is not an exceptional
case
72. John and Rimjhim fell in love. Even though their families were not happy with their union due to their
vastly different religious backgrounds, John and Rimjhim decided to get married. John wanted to get
married the traditional way so he Rimjhim to convert to his religion. Rimjhim agreed without any protest
because she did not mind changing her religion. A few days later, John was arrested by the police based
on an anonymous tip for forcefully converting Rimjhim to his religion without giving him an opportunity to
say anything. Is this a valid arrest?
(a) No, because personal liberty is an unrestricted fundamental right and should be curtailed only when it
becomes imperative
(b) Yes, because arrest is a necessary option since custodial interrogation of John is required to get to
the bottom of the matter
(c) No, because arrest should be the last option for the police and it should be restricted to those
exceptional cases where arresting the accused is imperative
(d) Yes, because arrest cannot be the last option for the police as the case of love jihad falls in the
bracket of exceptional cases

MOCK CLAT #21
73. Funawar Maruqi was a budding stand-up comedian. He was getting ready to perform his show and the
audience was seated in the auditorium. His comedy set included a few jokes on Babri Masjid. Before he
could even go on the stage to perform his set, police came to the venue and arrested Maruqi. When
Maruqi enquired about the reason of his arrest, he was told that he was arrested on the “apprehension of
making a joke that may have hurt religious sentiments”. Is this an indiscriminate arrest?
(a) Yes, because his personal liberty is being violated with a valid justification
(b) Yes, because the totality of the fact imply that Maruqi’s arrest was not exceptional
(c) No, because irrational and indiscriminate arrests are gross violations of human rights and Maruqi’s
arrest was on a rational basis only
(d) No, because arresting Maruqi was imperative as his custodial interrogation was required to ascertain
the contents of his comedy set
74. HP was an enthusiastic political activist who often addressed large rallies. He was very vocal about his
alienation from the government and devoted his life to bring the inconsistencies of the government before
public eyes. He decided to form his own political party and before the elections itself, everyone knew that
he was a strong contender for becoming the next Prime Minister. Politician from Opposing party. HP
was addressing one rally when he said that “the highest court of the country seems to be in with the
government”. He was arrested for contempt of court. Is this a valid arrest?
(a) Yes, because of the seriousness of the allegations made against them which is not an exceptional
case to arrest
(b) No, because the allegations against him were not very serious and could have been investigated
without arresting him
(c) No, because HP’s personal liberty was curtailed without any rational basis and not necessary for the
case at hand
(d) Yes, because he could have incited people and curtailing his personal liberty was necessary for the
case at hand
(Passage Q.75-Q.78): The MP Freedom of Religion Bill 2020, which came into force in the state on
January 9, provides for one to five years of imprisonment and a fine of Rs 25,000, for forcing religious
conversion.
A public interest litigation was filed by a Bhopal-based student which states that “the provisions contained
in the ordinance are a grave violation of constitutional provisions and a blatant attack on the religious
autonomy of individuals”.
Under the provisions of the anti-conversion law, it is mandatory to relay information to the district collector
60 days about the conversion before doing it. The petitioner has alleged that it is in violation of the
fundamental rights.
Under the MP Religious Freedom Act 1968, it was stated that if a person was forced to convert, they
could file a complaint to the police and the collector. The MP Freedom of Religion Ordinance 2020 states
that if a person is converted under pressure, the person concerned as well as his parents and family can
also file a complaint to the police and the collector.
Governments in some other states have also decided to introduce laws aimed at preventing inter-faith
marriage. The Haryana government has formed a three-member drafting committee to frame a law on the
matter. Karnataka and Assam governments have made similar announcements.
These actions are despite the fact that in February 2019, the Centre told the Lok Sabha that no “case of
‘love jihad’ has been reported by any of the central agencies”.
[Extracted from ‘Madhya Pradesh HC issues notice to state government on plea against anti-conversion
law’, published 30 JAN 2021 on thescroll
https://scroll.in/latest/985527/madhya-pradesh-hc-issues-notice-to-state-government-on-plea-against-
anti-conversion-law]

MOCK CLAT #21
75. Nora Fatehi was a 25 yr old Muslim woman. She fell in love with Raju, a 22 yr old Hindu man. Raju told
her that his family would not accept their union since Nora belonged to a different religious community.
Nora offered to change her religion. Nora's father threatened her against doing so and said that if she
changed her religion, he would file a case against her. Is he correct?
(a) Yes, because her father could file a case for forceful conversion under the MP Religious Freedom Act
(b) Yes, because her father could file a case for forceful conversion under the MP Freedom of Religion
Ordinance
(c) Yes, because her father, as a person concerned as well as being her parent can file a complaint to
the police and the collector
76. In the year 1975, Daku Mangal Singh kidnapped a young girl Babli. Babli belonged to religion X and
Daku Mangal was a devout follower of religion Y. He was mesmerized by Babli's beauty and was
desperate to marry her. In order to do so, he forced Babli to marry him by converting to religion Y. Babli's
father liked Daku Mangal Singh but was angry that he made his daughter change her religion. Can he file
a case against Daku Mangal Singh under the laws mentioned in the passage?
(a) Yes, because her father, as a person concerned as well as being her parent can file a complaint to
the police and the collector
(b) Yes, because Babli was forced to convert her religion by Daku Mangal Singh under the MP Freedom
of Religion Act
(c) No, because Babli was not converted under pressure and it is a case of kidnapping
77. If the previous incident would have taken place in 2021, would Babli be eligible to file a case for forceful
conversion against Daku Mangal Singh?
(a) Yes, because Babli is eligible to file a complaint to the police and the collector under the MP Religious
Freedom Act 1968
(b) Yes, because Babli was kidnapped and converted under pressure by Daku Mangal Singh
(c) Yes, because forceful conversions are a grave violation of constitutional provisions and a blatant
attack on the religious autonomy of individuals
(d) No, because Babli is not eligible to file a case under the provisions of the MP Freedom of Religion
Ordinance
78. Rimjhim was a follower of Zoroastrianism. She wanted to marry Soda Bottleopener wala who was also a
Parsi. In Soda's community, Parsis could only marry other Parsis. If Rimjhim and Soda get married
according to Parsi customs, can a case be filed for conversion according to the laws mentioned in the
passage?
(a) No, because Soda Bottleopenerwala asked Rimjhim to convert in violation of her religious autonomy
(b) No, because Rimjhim has not violated the provisions of the MP Freedom of Religion Ordinance
(c) No, because Rimjhim has not violated the provisions of any law given in the passage
(d) Yes, because Rimjhim is adopting Parsi customs under force and pressure

MOCK CLAT #21
(Passage Q.79-Q.82): In a Delhi court order on Umar Khalid’s application against the media trial against
him, the Magistrate said that ‘any news item should be published after verifying and clarifying all the
facts’. The order specifically mentions one news item as an example of problematic reportage.
The order reads: In one of the news items, the news starts with words “Radical Islamist and Anti Hindu
Delhi Riots accused Umar Khalid....”. The news report portrays the entire Delhi riots as anti-Hindu, when
that is not the case. “However, in fact this does not appear to be the case, as all the communities have
felt the consequences of those riots,” the order reads.
Explaining how media reported on accused Umar Khalid admitting to his involvement in Delhi riots, based
on confessional or disclosure statements, the order states that ‘a confessional statement made to a
police official is not admissible as evidence in law’. The order states that news reports only highlighted
that Khalid had confessed to his involvement, however none of them clarified to its readers that such a
statement could not be used by the prosecution as evidence.
“A reporter should have such a basic knowledge of law as readers/viewers consider news item as true
without verifying the facts. Further, general public might not be aware of the law as above mentioned.”
Speaking about how problematic reportage can deprive the accused of his dignity, the order reads that
any news item should be published after verifying and clarifying all the facts.
“The deliberate and unfair targeting of the applicant/accused by selectively quoting and misquoting is
aimed at damaging the reputation of the applicant/accused and destroying the presumption of the
innocence of the applicant/accused unless proved guilty,” the order notes.
[Extracted with revisions from ‘Delhi Court on Umar Khalid’s Trial by Media: News Must be Verified’, by
Aishwarya S Iyer, published 23 Jan 2021 in the quint
https://www.thequint.com/news/india/delhi-riots-2020-court-order-on-umar-khalid-media-trial-plea#read-
more]
79. "Jan Hit Mein Jaari" is a popular news channel in Macchipuram. On 3rd November 2020, a bomb blast
occurred in a crowded marketplace and several people, belonging to different communities lost their lives
in the unfortunate incident. It was later found that the bomb blast was caused by the terrorism group Al
Qaeda. Jan Hit Mein Jaari reported the incident with the headline, "Several Hindus died in religiously
motivated terrorist act by Al Qaeda”. Is this in consonance with the principle laid down in the passage?
(a) No, because there is no deliberate and unfair targeting or misquoting of the terrorist attack
(b) No, because the headline was based on the facts, circumstances and nature of the event being
reported
(c) Yes, because any news item should be published after verifying and clarifying all the facts
(d) Yes, because the headline constitutes deliberate and unfair targeting of Hindus
80. The terrorist accused for committing this atrocious act on the soil of Macchipuram was caught. While in
police custody, he was tortured till he revealed the names of his accomplices. He also confessed that the
bomb was purposely planted in the crowded area where the majority of the traders were Hindus. Can this
be used to convict him in court for a hate crime?
(a) Yes, because he can be convicted based on his confessional and disclosure statements
(b) Yes, because a confessional statement made to a police official is admissible as evidence in law
(c) No, because a confessional statement made to a police official can be admissible as evidence in law
(d) No, because a confessional statement made to a police official is not admissible as evidence in law
81. Jan Hit Mein Jaari also publishes a weekly newsletter. The governments of several countries released
statements of solidarity with Macchipuram and condemned the terrorist attack. Jan Hit Mein Jaari
reported these statements with the headline "International support for the Hindu majority of Macchipuram
pours in from all over the world". Based on your reading of the passage, is this headline legally sound?
(a) Yes, because there is no indiscriminate or unfair targeting of any particular community through
selective quotations
(b) Yes, because the headline based on the international support is factually correct quotation
(c) No, because the headline is selectively quoting and misquoting the statements of solidarity
(d) No, because the headline is aimed at damaging the reputation of the accused terrorist and destroying
his presumption of the innocence

MOCK CLAT #21
82. Jamun was taken into police custody at 6 am in the morning due to charges of drug trafficking. Since
Jamun was a famous celebrity, the media started reporting on this status starting at 6 am itself. As time
progressed, the media kept highlighting how Jamun had been in custody for more than 12 hours at 7pm
in the evening. There was constant reportage on how Jamun, a poor young boy had been kept in custody
without being granted bail for so long. It is legal to keep an accused in custody for less than 24 hours.
Jamun was granted bail at 12am and finally released at 5 am next morning. Can the media be held liable
for problematic reportage?
(a) Yes, because the media misrepresented the position of the law in their constant reportage without
verifying the facts of the case
(b) Yes, because the general public may not have been aware of the position of law regarding bail and
the reportage was not concerning
(c) No, because a reporter cannot have such a basic knowledge of law as readers/viewers consider
news item as true without verifying the facts
(d) No, because the media did not deprive Jamun of his dignity even if the reportage was problematic in
nature
(Passage Q.83-Q.87): The 500-page long Whatsapp conversations between Goswami and Das Gupta
found their way into social media after Mumbai Police annexed it in its supplementary charge filed in the
TRP rigging case. The first thing we have to keep in mind is that an "electronic record" is also included in
the definition of "evidence" under Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act. It is treated as 'documentary
evidence'. According to Section 2(1) (t) of the Information Technology Act, an electronic record is "data,
record or data generated, image or sound stored, received or sent in an electronic form or micro film or
computer-generated micro fiche". The Evidence Act allows giving of evidence in respect of facts in issue
and relevant facts. So, an electronic record can be evidence in a trial if it relates to a fact in issue or
relevant facts of a case. Section 65B says that any information contained in an electronic record which is
printed on a paper, stored, recorded or copied in optical or magnetic data produced by a computer will be
deemed to be a document. But for such records to be admissible as evidence, the certain conditions
have to be fulfilled. There are certain decisions which have observed that Whatsapp chats can be
admitted in evidence provided they fulfil the conditions under Section 65B of the Evidence Act. In
Ambalal Sarabhai Enterprise Ltd vs. KS Infra space LLP Limited and Another, the SC, while hearing a
petition challenging an injunction order made a reference to the Whatsapp chats produced as evidence in
the case. Whatsapp Forward without original cannot be evidence. The Delhi High Court in a case has
held that a Whatsapp forward message, without an unknown source, cannot be treated as evidence
(National Lawyers Campaign for Judicial Transparency and Reforms vs. UOI). The Court held that such a
forwarded message, without its original, cannot be regarded as 'document' under the Evidence Act.
[Source- ‘Are Whatsapp Chats Admissible in Evidence?’, Live Law, <https://www.livelaw.in/know-the-
law/whatsapp-chats-admissible-evidence-admissibility-arnab-goswami-chats-168460>, as accessed on
09th Feb. 2021]
83. Sahil was a student of class 12th and was indulged in petty business of selling pornographic films and
pictures to his classmates for a considerate amount of money. He also sold them to his friend Sohail. He
asked Sohail to return the pen drive in two days after copying the pornographic films. While copying them
in his computer, Sohail’s father caught him and asked him for the source he is getting such films. Sohail,
in fear of being beaten up by his father, revealed Sahil’s name. Subsequently complaint was filed against
Sahil for selling pirated copied of pornographic films. In a trial against Sahil,
(a) The court will admit the pen drive as the documentary evidence because electronic records are
considered to be evidence under section 3 of Evidence Act.
(b) The court will not admit the pen drive as the documentary evidence because it is not an electronic
record and hence not covered under section 3 of Evidence Act.
(c) The court will admit the pen drive as the documentary evidence as contents of the pen drive will be
considered to be electronic record and hence document under section 65B of Evidence Act.
(d) The court will not admit the pen drive as the documentary evidence because its contents are not
electronic records and not covered under section 65B of Evidence Act.

MOCK CLAT #21
84. Priyank was good friend of Raman. Priyank was in need of money and asked Raman for sum of Rs. 20
lakhs and assured to return it back in a month. After a month, when Raman asked Priyank for the
amount, he requested for extra time of 15 days to manage the amount. Raman after 20 days from such
request visited Priyank’s farm house and met him there. They get into discussions and after an hour
arguments the matter was solved. Priyank asked Raman to wait for him outside at the swimming pool.
Raman did the same. Priyank attacked Raman from back, pushed him into the pool and due to blood
loss, Raman died. The police reported the murder and find a copy of CCTV footage from the farm house.
Decide –
(a) CCTV footage is not admissible as documentary evidence in court of law as it does not fall within the
definition of electronic records.
(b) CCTV footage is admissible as documentary evidence in the court of as it is in the form of electronic
record and deemed to be document under Evidence Act.
(c) CCTV footage is not admissible in the court of law as documentary evidence as it must be original
record to be deemed to be document under Evidence Act.
(d) CCTV footage is admissible as it is deemed to be electronic record under IT Act but not evidence
under section 65B of Evidence Act.
85. A murder case was reported in district of Uttar Pradesh. Manu was arrested by the police as a suspect.
The deceased was his girlfriend whom he cheated and was caught by her. The police officers
investigated the case and find evidence against Manu. In the trial for murder, the prosecuting lawyer
present the evidence i.e Telegram chats of Manu and the deceased shared over the mails. The court
held Manu guilty of murder. The defence lawyer contended that chats over email were not evidence and
cannot be admissible in court. Decide-
(a) Telegram Chats over emails are admissible evidence under section 65B of Evidence Act but not
under IT Act.
(b) Telegram Chats over emails are not admissible as the source is unknown and hence not
documentary evidence under Evidence Act.
(c) Telegram Chats over emails are not admissible evidence as they are not electronic records as per IT
Act and hence not a document.
(d) Telegram Chats over emails are admissible evidence as they are electronic records as per IT Act and
hence deemed to be document.
86. Piyush, a Hindu boy, was truly devoted to lord Ram and was working in large community to spread and
promote religious teachings. One day he was lynched by people of Muslim community, as he gets
indulged in a debate with them. 5 accused were arrested by the police and joint trial was started against
them on the charges of mob lynching and murder of an innocent boy. One of the evidences presented
before the court was call recordings of the accused persons to meet at the place where Piyush was
lynched. Defence lawyer contended these recordings to be inadmissible by the court. The court can-
(a) Consider the evidence as admissible as call recordings are documentary evidence and fall within the
ambit of electronic records related to relevant facts of the case.
(b) Consider the evidence as inadmissible as call recordings are not documentary evidence, though
electronic records related to relevant facts of the case.
(c) Consider the evidence as inadmissible as call recordings are not documentary evidence and are not
related to relevant facts of the case.
(d) Consider the evidence to be admissible as call recordings are documentary evidence and electronic
records, but are not related to relevant facts of the case.

MOCK CLAT #21
87. Rahul, a young boy of 23 years, was indulged in illegal recordings of movies and selling their pirated
copies before their official release. One of his customers was not satisfied with the quality of the film and
asked him to return back his money or else he will complain against him for doing such illegal work.
Rahul denied returning the money. A complaint was filed against Rahul for selling pirated movies. In a
trial, the plaintiff presented the CD/DVD he bought from Rahul as evidence. The court rejected the
evidence as inadmissible. The court was –
(a) Correct as CDs and DVDs are not electronic records within the definition under section 2 of IT Act
and hence not deemed to be document.
(b) Incorrect as CDs and DVDs are valid electronic records within the definition under section 2 of IT Act
and hence deemed to be document.
(c) Correct as CDs and DVDs are inadmissible documentary evidence as their source is unknown and
not conclusive in nature.
(d) Incorrect as CDs and DVDs are not electronic records but deemed to be documentary evidence
under section 3 of Evidence Act.
(Passage Q.88-Q.92): The time spent in “unlawful custody” cannot be included while computing the 90
days period prescribed for grant of default bail under section 167(2) of the Criminal Procedure Code, the
Bombay High Court held while rejecting senior journalist-activist Gautam Navlakha’s petition for bail.
Navlakha was arrested in the Elgar Parishad- Maoist Links case, twice. He was placed under house
arrest and released in October after his arrest was declared illegal. The division bench held that the 34
days Navlakha had spent under house arrest can’t be used to calculate his total detention period,
especially since his arrest, “As the transit remand order was stayed, it can’t be said that the appellant was
under detention of police for investigation. And the section 167(2) assumes the detention is authorised by
a magistrate, and 90 days upward from that day can be used to calculate the period of custody for default
bail.” However, once the authorisation by the Magistrate is declared illegal consequently rendering the
detention itself illegal, the said period cannot be construed to be an authorised custody.” The court said.
The bench relied on the decision of Chaganti Satyanarayan and others vs. State of Andhra Pradesh
where the SC held that the period of 90 or 60 days, as the case may be, will commence running only
from the date of remand and not from any anterior date inspite of the fact that the accused may have
been taken into custody earlier by a police officer and deprived of his liberty. A Magistrate can authorise
the detention of the accused for a maximum period of 15 days from the date of remand and place the
accused either in police custody or in judicial custody during the period of 15 days’ remand. Beyond that
period no Magistrate can authorise the detention of the accused in police custody.”
[Source- ‘Default Bail- Period Of 90/60 Days Will Commence From Date Of Remand Only, Not From Any
“Unlawful Custody” Prior To It: Bombay High Court’, Live Law, <https://www.livelaw.in/top-
stories/bombay-high-court-gautam-navlakha-default-bail-house-arrest-unlawful-custody-remand-maoist-
bhima-koregaon-169560>, as accessed on 10th Feb. 2021]
88. Rohan was charged with the serious charges of rape and murder of a 12 year old minor girl in village of
Uttar Pradesh. The UP police arrested the accused on 11-10-1019 from a hideout area near slum locality.
He was taken to Police Station on 12-10-2019 and was locked up for further investigation. He was
dictated of his grounds for arrest and presented before the magistrate on 13-10-2019. The Magistrate
granted the remand under police custody. Decide-
(a) Rohan can be under remand of police custody till 26-10-2019 as period of remand is exclusive of date
of arrest and after expiry of such period can demand default bail.
(b) Rohan can be under remand of police custody till 25-10-2019 as period of remand is inclusive of date
of arrest and after expiry of such period can be sent to judicial custody.
(c) Rohan can be under remand for police custody till 27-10-2019 as period from remand is computed
from the date when magistrate approves such period of remand under police custody.
(d) Rohan can be under remand for police custody till 09-01-2020 as remand under police custody can
be extended maximum up to period of 90 days from day of arrest.

MOCK CLAT #21
89. A murder of a renounced journalist, Sudhir Choudhary, was reported by Delhi Police on 13th July 2020.
Simran, one of the suspects, was taken into custody on 15th July. Delhi police has no evidence against
her which infer her connection with the case. The period for remand ended and the defence lawyer
applied for the bail before the magistrate on 31st July. The prosecuting lawyer contended for further
extension for period of remand as investigation officers get new evidence a day before the application of
bail which proves the allegations against the accused. As a Judge, you would-
(a) Extend the period of remand for 60 days till 12th September 2020 and sent the accused into judicial
custody for further investigation.
(b) Extend the period of remand for 90 days till 12th October 2020 and sent the accused into judicial
(c) Extend the period of remand for 60 days till 29th September 2020 and sent the accused into police
(d) Extend the period of remand for 90 days till 29th October 2020 and sent the accused into police
90. Arman was a reputed teacher in his locality. He was suspected of committing heinous crime and was
accused of sexual assault of minor girl in name of tuition classes. Police arrested him under alleged
charges of POCSO and was taken into custody on 10-03-2020. He was tortured by the investigating
official to accept his crime and ask him to confess. Before the magistrate, Arman dictated the incident
and was sent to judicial custody on 15-03-2020. On 17-03-2020, prosecuting lawyer applied for the police
custody of Arman for further investigation in the case and undertakes that no such torture would be done
again. Decide –
(a) The court will send Arman back to police custody till 24-03-2020 to complete the further investigation
by the officers and cannot punish the innocent until proven guilty.
(b) The court will not send Arman back to police custody just on undertaking as he was tortured and
forced to confess by the officials.
(c) The court will send Arman back to police custody till 27-03-2020 as remand period for police custody
is for 15 days and will be calculated in total excluding the period of judicial custody.
(d) The court will not send Arman back to police custody for the remaining time period of 10 days as
police custody can be given once for maximum period of 15 days and not beyond that.
91. Preetam was interrogated about the recent crime incident happened in the outskirts of city of Mumbai.
The investigation officer arrested Mr. Khan on such statements of Preetam. He was taken into custody on
April 7th and kept in remand under police for period of 10 days and was then sent to judicial custody due
to lack of evidence against Mr. Khan. The magistrate on request of prosecuting officer denied the default
bail to the accused and extended the remand for period of 60 days due to gravity of offence alleged. No
charge sheet was filed by the Mumbai Police and court extended the remand for period of 90 days. The
defence lawyer filed the bail application on July 6th. Decide-
(a) The bail application would not be allowed as period of remand was ended before 06th July as it was
further extended by the court for period of 60 days afresh which ends on 20th June.
(b) The bail application would not be allowed as period of remand was not ended on 06th July as it was
further extended by court for period of 90 days afresh which ends on 20th July.
(c) The bail application would be allowed as period of remand ended on 06th July as 90 days of remand
was in total inclusive of police remand and judicial remand.
(d) The bail application would not be allowed as charge sheet is being filed by the investigating officer
and no bail can be demanded after filing of charge sheet.

MOCK CLAT #21
92. A bomb blast took place in Mumbai on 10th January 2020. Sanjay was one of the suspects behind the
blast and was alleged of being terrorist. He was taken into custody on 15th January. Magistrate court
extended his remand under judicial custody after expiry of 15 days. In the mean while, CBI alleged
Sanjay of committing money laundering and wanted to interrogate him in this regard. They applied to
court to sent Sanjay in police custody for investigation purpose. Court rejected the application of CBI and
directed them to proceed with the interrogation in judicial custody only. The Court is-
(a) Correct in rejecting the application as Sanjay can be interrogated in the judicial custody itself and no
need for further new period of remand under police custody.
(b) Incorrect as offence of money laundering is different from previous alleged offence for which Sanjay
was sent to judicial custody and hence new period of remand under police custody can be granted.
(c) Correct as period of 15 days of police custody for Sanjay has been ended and once sent to judicial
custody he cannot be sent back to police custody.
(Passage Q.93-Q.97): Disha Ravi, a 22-year-old Bengaluru-based environmental activist, has been
accused of sedition, promoting religious enmity and engaging in criminal conspiracy, among other
offences. After the Delhi Police detained her in Bengaluru on Saturday, and formally arrested her the next
day, a Delhi magistrate has remanded her to a 5-day police custody. The principal basis for the
allegations against Ms Ravi is that she was involved in framing and editing a “toolkit”, which outlined
measures to protest against farm laws; that she provided activist Greta Thunberg the “toolkit”; that the
violence on January 26 copied the “action plan” in the toolkit; and this also had the involvement of
Khalistani groups. Ms Ravi’s arrest throws up three issues. The first is the role of the State. The
government has decided to politically invest in a narrative of a global foreign conspiracy against India, of
which the “toolkit” is evidence. But the evidence to suggest such a conspiracy is limited. Despite its
objectionable characterisation of the Indian State in parts, did the “toolkit” — a common technique in both
political and civil society campaigns now. The second is the role of the judiciary. The metropolitan
magistrate’s decision to remand Ms Ravi to custody, without her private counsel being present, without
questions about the process of her arrest, and without adequate scrutiny of the charges and evidence,
does not reflect well. Courts must treat cases involving personal liberty with more rigour, rather than
casually send people to jail when bail should be the norm. And finally, Dissent is indeed a right, and
taking up positions — even if they are logically inconsistent, is also a right. But often, activists end up
getting used in larger political games.
[Source- ‘Disha Ravi’s arrest is wrong’, The Hindustan Times,
<https://www.hindustantimes.com/editorials/disha-ravi-s-arrest-is-wrong101613395013507.html >, as
accessed on 18th Feb. 2021]
93. Rishu, a student of JNU student, was engaged with international organisation and work for them to share
personal internal information regarding secret agencies and other government actions. He conspires with
them and had planned a bomb blast in the city of Delhi in the Parliament of India. Suddenly, protests
were started in India, few months back and Rishu find an opportunity to execute their plan. He shared the
relevant information with groups of people and assigned them their roles to be performed on the day of
bomb blast. Before the plan can get executed, the information get leaked to police personals and Rishu
was arrested before execution of the plan. He was presented before the magistrate and he claimed for
bail as there is no evidence against him. Police official stated about the call recordings and witnesses to
testify against Rishu and bail was denied. Decide-
(a) The court is incorrect in denying the bail to Rishu as there are no strong evidences against Rishu to
prosecute him for planning a bomb blast in the Parliament.
(b) The court is correct in denying the bail to Rishu as there are strong and sufficient evidences against
him which proves his involvement in the case of bomb blast.
(c) The court is incorrect in denying bail to Rishu as though there are weak evidences, court favoured the
government as plan was to be against the government and thus no fulfil its role to serve justice.
(d) The court is correct in denying bail to Rishu as they have lead accused in the case and can give
more time to police officials to investigate and collect more evidences against Rishu.

MOCK CLAT #21
94. Ms. Vijaya Kala, a feminist, started a group called “The Leaders of Future” and works to promote and
upgrade the position of women in the society and awareness about their role in bringing about the
change. She was giving a public speech on International Women’s Day where she stated about few
Indian Women leaders who helped to achieve freedom and few who were in the constitution drafters
which gave India its sole, The Indian Constitution. She continued with such examples and turned to the
government where no such representation is sought from women in the Parliament and called the
present government the ill minded patriarchs. She sharply pointed out how Indian Parliament
discriminates against the women representation and asked the people to revolt against them. She
demanded for 50 % reservation for women in each public department and asked everyone to move the
idea forward with large violent protests. Decide-
(a) Police can arrest Ms. Kala for charges of sedition as she had incited and instigated the people to
revolt against the government violently and thus is liable.
(b) Police cannot arrest Ms. Kala for sedition as her speech was not inciting but was only a form of
dissent towards the working of the present government.
(c) Police can arrest Ms. Kala for conspiring against the government and cannot claim her speech to be
exercising right to freedom of speech and expression under article 19.
(d) Police cannot arrest Ms. Kala for conspiring against the government and she has a right to protest
against her rights and instigate others for the same.
95. Ms. Swara was a renounced journalist of Bangalore and she was totally anti-government. She mainly
works for downgrading the government for every action and criticising them to the best of her skills. In all,
she was a good and competent journalist of whom government always has eyes upon. After the
enactment of new Animal Laws which puts a ban of beef eating and selling, she published an article in a
national newspaper asking the government to lift up beef ban and claiming it to be their political agenda.
Violent protests were started in state of Karnataka and Ms. Swara was found dead the next day in her
hotel room. Many alleged it to be the act of government and called them murderers. Soon the situation
was taken under control and no such investigation was done in regards to murder of Swara. Decide-
(a) The state of Karnataka has to investigate into the murder of Ms. Swara as she was renounced
journalist and there can be found some political linkage behind her murder.
(b) The state of Karnataka need not investigate into the murder of Ms. Swara as she was liable for her
own acts and state has no role to play with regards to such investigation.
(c) The state of Karnataka has to investigate into the murder of Ms. Swara as it is the duty of the state to
look after cases where there is violation to human body and rights attached to it.
(d) The state of Karnataka need not investigate into the murder of Ms. Swara as it is implied that it was
the act of government behind her murder as she was anti-government.
96. Aryan and Shayant were models and good friends too. But there arise some rift between them due to
some misunderstandings. They were not in talking terms for past two months. Aryan was drunk one night
and was partying with her friend model Priti. Priti find it a good opportunity to kill Aryan took all his
property with her. She seduced her and made him engage with sexual intercourse and stabbed him with
a sharp knife in his back. She left the crime scene and informed the police of the murder. She also asked
Shayant to clear his misunderstandings with Aryan and continue their friendship. Shayant reached the
place and saw Aryan dead. He took the knife into his hand to observe the actual scenario. Police reached
the place and arrested Shayant for murder of Aryan. He was not informed about the grounds of arrest
and was taken into custody. He was put for remand for 90 days and police didn’t find any evidence
against him. The court can-
(a) Held Police liable for illegal detention of Shayant and keeping him under custody for long without
having any strong evidence against him.
(b) Held Police not liable for illegal detention of Shayant as they were of the clear view of him being the
suspect and had right to keep any such suspect in remand for infinite period.
(c) Held Police liable for illegal detention of Shayant as they should have investigated first into the case
for a month and then go for arresting the accused or suspect as the case may be.
(d) Held Police not liable for illegal detention of Shayant as they had sufficient evidences against Shaynat
being the murderer of Aryan and he can be convicted.

MOCK CLAT #21
97. There stands a massive difference between the definitions of ‘arrest’ and that of ‘detention’; therefore, it
is necessary for one to know how to differentiate between the two. ‘Arrest’ under the Criminal Procedure
Code has a different procedure altogether while detention is not as grave as arrest; detention is of a
shorter time period than arrest, therefore, needs less burden of proof. A Police officer can detain an
individual, if he has reasonable doubt or suspicion that a crime has been or will be committed, or if he
reasonably believes that an individual may have information regarding the same, the Police officer may
then have the liberty of detaining the individual for a short span of time, in order to investigate into the
matter. What is the rationale behind the idea of not having illegal detention of the accused person?
(a) The idea behind illegal detention is state protects the right of victim as well as of the accused even if
he is arrested and works on principle of innocent until proven guilty.
(b) The idea behind illegal detention is to provide liberty and freedom to the individual even though he is
accused and provide him right to life with dignity.
(c) The idea behind illegal detention is enshrined under Indian Constitution which doesn’t allow
executives or their servants to be infringing the fundamental rights of the individuals.
(d) The idea behind illegal detention is to adopt the procedure of fairness, justness and reasonableness
into the justice delivery system and support justice to be the main motive.
(Passage Q.98-Q.102): The question of choice has been extensively dealt with in Justice KS
Puttaswamy v. Union of India. The Court unanimously held that “the right to privacy is protected as an
intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21” and also held that the fundamental
right to privacy would cover at least the following three aspects - (i) privacy that involves the person, (ii)
informational privacy and (iii) privacy of choice, which protects an individual’s autonomy over fundamental
personal choices.
Shortly after the Puttaswamy case, two judgments were delivered in quick succession by the Supreme
Court in which it held that the right of a person’s choice to marry whom she pleases in an inherent part of
individual dignity and intrinsic to Article 21. While the aforesaid judgments have in no uncertain terms
upheld that the right to marry is a fundamental right, none of them pertained to same-sex marriages. This
question can be answered in Navjet Singh Johar v. Union of India. Though the Court only concerned
itself with the constitutional validity of Section 377, the majority opinion and the concurring opinion by Dr
DY Chandrachud J did rely on cases for the question of freedom of choosing a life partner of one’s own
choice and recognized the “sexual autonomy of an individual”. In the concluding portion of his concurring
opinion, in which he has specifically held that members of the LGBT community “are entitled, like all other
citizens, to the full range of constitutional rights including the liberties protected by the Constitution” and
are entitled to equal citizenship and “equal protection of law.”
Therefore, it is beyond doubt that the fundamental right to marry a person of one’s own choice has to be
conferred on same-sex couples intending to marry. And if such a right is denied, they can certainly knock
the doors of the Constitutional Courts to enforce these basic and inherent rights.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from “The fundamental right to marry in India and its application to
same-sex marriage”, Dormaan J Dalal, Bar & Bench, 3rd January 2021;
https://www.barandbench.com/columns/the-fundamental-right-to-marry-in-india-and-its-application-to-
same-sex-marriages]

MOCK CLAT #21
98. Tahir is a successful owner of a brand-new business that focuses on providing necessary kitchen
appliances and ingredients to restaurants through an application. Their business idea has received great
response, and is popular in the kitchens of many high-end hotels. While attending a business meeting
with an investor, he meets Riya, who works as the investor’s personal secretary. They plan to meet
outside of work, and eventually fall in love with each other. Both of them belonged to different religions,
with Tahir being a Buddhist and Riya being a Christian, and wanted to marry each other despite the
potential backlash they might face by their communities and families.
After 2 years of dating, Riya and Tahir decide to marry each other, which causes an uproar in their
communities, due to Tahir’s popularity as an upcoming entrepreneur. Riya and Tahir start to get ominous
messages by anonymous people who threaten to kill them if the marriage takes place. Meanwhile,
people start boycotting Tahir’s application, as most of the restaurant owners of the city belong to the
Buddhist community. Riya and Tahir decide to file a writ petition in the Supreme Court alleging violation
of their fundamental rights, and seeking protection. What should be the verdict?
(a) Yes, Riya and Tahir’s right to equality has been violated as they are being discriminated against, and
not being treated at par with other couples who want to marry each other.
(b) Yes, as the circumstances presented go against the idea of secularism, which is an integral part of
the Indian Constitution.
(c) Yes, as their fundamental right to life under Article 21 has been violated.
(d) Yes, as Tahir and Riya are entitled to the full range of constitutional rights including the liberties
protected by the Constitution.
99. Kelly is a nurse in an established chain of hospitals. She is a paediatric nurse, and mostly deals with
infants and children, and occasionally teenagers. One night while she was on her night shift, a teenage
patient comes in with a severe pain in his chest, and after initial examination, is recommended surgery.
Kelly assists the doctors during the surgery, and is entrusted to take care of the boy post-surgery as well.
While taking care of him, she realises that the patient is none other than Philip Halpert, son of the famous
actors Jim Halpert and Pam Beesly. Nonetheless, she takes care of him like any other patient of the
hospital.
A day after Philip is discharged from the hospital, Ryan comes in the hospital for a common cold. While
Kelly was noting his symptoms down for the doctor, he kept asking her a lot of questions about Philip
Halpert and his health, and telling her that he was a ‘big fan’ of the young star. Convinced, without any ill-
intention, Kelly told him about Philip’s genetic heart condition and his surgery, and how he had to be
under observation for weeks. The next day, this news becomes the front page of a reputed entertainment
weekly, which touts Kelly as the source. Philip’s legal counsel files a case against Kelly, accusing her of
infringing his right to privacy. Is Kelly liable?
(a) No, Kelly is not liable as there was no mal-intention behind her actions and she genuinely believed it
to be an innocent query rather than a media probe.
(b) Yes, as revealing such sensitive information violates Philip’s right to privacy as given in the case of
Navjet Singh Johar v. Union of India.
(c) No, Kelly is not liable, as a public personality such as Philip Halpert cannot claim the right to privacy
especially when Kelly and the other staff were made to sign no non-disclosure agreements.
(d) Yes, as an intrinsic part of Philip’s life and personal liberty was violated by Kelly, and hence she is
liable.
100. “And if such a right is denied, they can certainly knock the doors of the Constitutional Courts to enforce
these basic and inherent rights.”
What ‘ basic and inherent rights’ does this statement refer to?
(a) Fundamental Rights.
(b) All rights and liberties that are guaranteed by the Constitution.
(c) The freedom of choosing a life partner of one’s own choice.
(d) The right to privacy of all kinds.

MOCK CLAT #21
101. Elena is a dedicated and hardworking teacher, who teaches children studying in kindergarten and
nursery classes. She loves spending time with children, and this was a primary reason behind choosing
her profession. The parents of the children rarely have any complaints about her, and hold her in high
regard. Elena identified as a lesbian, and had a female partner who she lived happily with it. However,
nobody apart from her family and close friends knew about this fact. After working for more than 3 years
at her current place of employment, she finally decided to reveal this part of her life to her school’s
administration and some parents of the children she taught, at a yearly event hosted by the school.
Contrary to her expectations, the attendees of the even didn’t react as positively as she expected.
The next few days after the event, the school administration started to receive many complaints
addressed to Elena, with multiple parents requesting the school administration to either fire Elena or
relocate their children to another class. In her work place as well, her colleagues had started to behave
strangely with her, and excluded her from workplace activities and gatherings. Such behaviour started to
make Elena feel ostracised and secluded. Soon, the school administration informed Elena of their
decision to fire her, attributing it to the discomfort of parents being taught by a woman who identifies as a
lesbian, as according to them that would result in their children being impacted by such ‘immoral’ lifestyle
and values.
Disheartened and enraged, Elena files a writ petition in the High Court alleging discrimination and
violation of her rights. What would be the verdict?
(a) The behaviour exhibited is discriminatory, and is violative of Article 14 of the Constitution, that talks
about equality of persons.
(b) The behaviour exhibited by the school administration and parents is discriminatory, and every
individual has a right to choose a partner of their choice without being discriminated for it.
(c) The parents are liable for discriminating against Elena on the basis of her identity and sexuality. The
school administration was merely acting on the complaints of the parents, and hence should not be
held liable.
(d) The school administration is liable for firing Elena, and making her feel ostracised just because she
identified as a lesbian. The parents were expressing concerns about their children, but were not
responsible for her dismissal, and hence should not be held liable.
102. Within the context of the passage given, which of the following situations provided would not be covered
under the Right to Privacy?
(a) Farah has recently got constructed a house of her own. She holds a housewarming ceremony and
invites many close friends and family. During the party, she spots an unknown man lurking about her
house. She attempts to escort him out of her property, only to later find out that he is a friend of one
of her uncle’s, and he had brought him along. Later, the man approaches her and asks her many
questions about the house, such as its cost, its legal owner, and security systems. Farah feels
uncomfortable and escorts him out of her property.
(b) Rishabh is an archaeologist, and historian. He was recently at one of his dug-outs where the
excavations were midway, when he stumbled upon some pieces of broken pottery. With the pieces
seeming he important, he analyses them in secret. Upon studying them for weeks, he discovers that
the script engraved on the pottery greatly helps in deciphering the script of one of the first
civilizations, the Meluhha Valley. He continues to keep this discovery a secret, to make sure nobody
else steals it. Jamal, his assistant, was extremely curious about this study, and kept creeping upon
his tent and stealing his notes to figure out the topic of his research. One day, he steals the pottery
pieces.
(c) Gargi was an air-hostess in an international airline, and was frequently out of her house, and her city,
for days at a stretch. On the few days that she stayed at home; she usually invited some friends over
to have a small party. However, she was always ensured that no inconvenience was caused to the
neighbours in any manner. Her landlord lived a floor below hers, and constantly supervised the
people who came and went. He had also instructed the guards to keep a check on the people coming
in Gargi’s house, and to inform them first if any of them were male.
(d) Zoran had been trying to eat healthy and exercise, since his doctor had recommended him to lose
weight for his fitness. As a consequence, he had been watching his weight and his nutrition according
to a diet plan. However, since he was embarrassed about his weight, he chose not to inform about his
decision. His co-worker Matthew, spots him eating salad one day at work, and gets suspicious. To

MOCK CLAT #21
satiate his curiosity, he rifles through Zoran’s office and finds his diet plan, and doctor’s report. Soon,
the news spreads from Matthew to other employees in the office, who ridicule him behind his back for
even trying to reduce weight, and call him names. One day, Zoran overhears a similar conversation
near the water cooler, and goes back home disheartened. He soon stops his workout and diets, and
confines himself in his house. After seeking psychological help, he is diagnosed with depression.
(Passage Q.103-Q.108): In a detailed judgment rendered on Tuesday, the Kerala High Court expounded
the modalities of detention of vehicles and seizure of goods in transit under the GST laws. It emphasized
that detention and seizure of goods and vehicles is a reasonable restriction on the exercise of free trade
and movement, but it would nevertheless have to be exercised strictly only in order to prevent possible
tax evasion. The Court drew from GST legislation to state that there are two essentials that should be
present when goods are being transported - an invoice presented by the supplier of goods specifying
details about the goods as well as the tax paid thereupon and an e-way bill .A tax official on suspicion of
a transaction involving possible evasion in tax, is empowered to seize the goods or detain the vehicle
upon an order to that effect, following which he can issue notice upon the consignee. Only after a proper
application of mind, based on the material available can an order of detention be issued, the Court said.
At the same time, if the situations envisaged in the legislation for detention are met, the goods should be
seized or detained without any laxity, the Court said. The Court said, the consignee can choose to make
the stipulated payments as per the notice, after which the notice would be concretised in the form of
another order and the proceedings closed. If consignee chooses to challenge the detention, he can
furnish a security in the form of a bank guarantee covering the prescribed sum and get his goods/vehicle
released provisionally and then make his representation. If aggrieved, the consignee can approach the
relevant authority under the legislation in appeal, but cannot approach the High Court at this stage, the
Court said.
Extracted with edits and revisions from an article published by Bar and Bench dated 15th January 2021
(https://www.barandbench.com/news/litigation/kerala-high-court-detailed-judgment-detention-of-goods-
gst-law )
103. Ryan is a company that manufactures slate pencils. The goods are manufactured in Dum-Dum, West
Bengal and transported to Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala. The goods are transported by Motorbike. X is
the person who rides the bike and transports the goods. Ryan provided X with an invoice of the
transported goods and an e way bill concerning the tax paid. X didn’t had a haircut for 2 months, the tax
official on seeing X suspected that she is a criminal and seizes the vehicle. According to the given facts,
which of the following is true?
(a) The tax official performed his duty by preventing a criminal from transporting the goods.
(b) The act done by tax official is in good faith and he is correct
(c) The tax official is not empowered by any act to seize in the current case
(d) The tax official is empowered to seize the vehicle at his discretion
104. The GST act states that transporting laptops with any other electronic gadgets is prohibited, even if there
is invoice and an e-way bill. Zyan is a manufacturer of electronic devices. He manufactures laptops,
tablets, desktops, mobile phones, chargers and Bluetooth devices. Zyan took 20 laptops and 5 desktops
and began to transport them to sell them in a local mandi. 8, a tax official detains the vehicle immediately.
Which of the following is a valid defense to Zyan?
(a) Zyan can sue 8 for misusing the powers conferred on him
(b) Zyan can state that he has both invoice and e-way bill
(c) Zyan can state that he is not aware of the law

MOCK CLAT #21
105. Uma was informed by the tax officials that she violated the GST act and the officials seized her Vehicle
and imposed a fine of 50 rupees. But Uma knows that she did not violate the law and the officials had
intentionally seized her vehicle. Frustrated with the act of tax officials, she approaches an advocate and
asks him to give a solution. If you are Uma’s advocate what advice would you give to her?
(a) I will ask Uma to file a harassment complaint in the nearest police station
(b) I will ask Uma to produce the said amount in the form of a bank guarantee and get her vehicle
released provisionally
(c) I will ask Uma to pay 50 rupees to the official and continue transporting her goods.
(d) I will ask Uma to pay a sum of 50 rupees as bribe to the official to avoid unnecessary legal process.
106. Let’s presume that Uma is not satisfied with the conduct of officials in the process of getting her vehicle
back. Uma feels frustrated and wants to challenge the conduct of the officials in the High court. Uma
comes to you again for advice, what would you suggest her?
(a) I will suggest her to go ahead and file a complaint in the high court
(b) I will suggest her to file a complaint in the appellate office under the GST act
(c) I will suggest her to file a petition in the GST Tribunal
(d) I will suggest her not to file a complaint in the high court
107. Most of the businessmen feels that the provisions of seizure/detention of the GST act is imposing
unnecessary restrictions on free trade and movement. Are the arguments of the said businessmen in
consonance with the principles laid down in the passage?
(a) Yes, the arguments of the businessmen are true
(b) No, the arguments of the businessmen are not true
(c) The arguments of the businessmen should not be considered
(d) The arguments of the businessmen should be taken seriously
108. Statement 1: A tax official can seize transporting adulterated goods if there is possible tax evasion
Statement 2: A tax official can seize transporting adulterated goods if there is no invoice
Which of the following are incorrect?
(a) Only a
(b) Only b
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b

MOCK CLAT #21
Directions (Q.109-Q.136): Read and analyse the passage and answer the questions: -
Passage (Q.109-Q.113): Social justice needs to be understood in terms of representation and integration
of the members of Scheduled Castes and Tribes and backward classes in the social mainstream. One
out of four Indians continues to practice untouchability a study conducted by the NCAER and the
University of Maryland in 2014 found. Thus, questioning the reservation system instead of the flaws in
social justice delivery is the biggest irony of the reservation debate. The general perception about
reservations is that they are “perpetuating caste”. OBC candidates are being denied reservations at the
all-India level under the National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test (NEET), denying 11,000 candidates from
backward classes an opportunity to compete for seats in medical and dental colleges around the country
since 2017.
The concept of creamy layer among OBC has further diluted their institutional representation. In a way,
rather than creating a class distinction, the creamy layer concept has contributed to diluting the purpose
of reservations, which is to ensure integration of the oppressed masses and the privileged few. Many
arguments against reservation are also a Brahmanical gimmick, wherein Dalit-Bahujans are painted in
inferior light. Social media is adding to this cacophony by circulating rumours about how affirmative action
in the form of reservation compromises merit, promotes caste, and so on. The elite castes have not yet
distanced themselves from their social, political, cultural and economic privileges. To understand these
privileges consider the representation of the privileged members of the upper castes in the bureaucracy,
media, judiciary, educational institutions, and so on. Reservations in education and jobs are being
nullified in practice by heavily privatising educational institutions and contractualising employment.
Another argument that is often pitched against the reservation system is that it has benefited “very few” or
that it is a “failed” policy. However, the benefits of reservation reaches a small number of SC, ST and
OBC aspirants only because fewer and fewer vacancies are being created in the government sector.
Reservation was introduced by Shahuji Maharaj, the ruler of Kolhapur, in 1902 as 50% reservations for
backwards and Dalits. Reservation was explicitly discussed during the Poona Pact of 1932, when
Babasaheb Ambedkar pitched for separate electorates along with Rettamalai Srinivasan.
109. According to the passage which of the following is the author dissatisfied with?
1. NEET 2. Privatisation of educational institutions
110. What is the role of the italicized line (Thus, questioning the reservation system instead of the flaws in
social justice delivery is the biggest irony of the reservation debate) in the passage?
(a) It forms an assumption of the author
(b) It forms an argument, which is later contradicted by the author
(c) It forms the conclusion of his arguments
(d) It weakens the author’s argument
111. For what purpose has the author given the example of NEET?
(a) He wants to prove that the system of entrance in medical colleges is itself very anti-backward classes
(b) He opposes the argument that reservation in entrance exams have reduced merit in the country
(c) He opposes the argument that reservation, instead of creating equity, has brought in divisiveness in
the society
(d) Both a and b
112. Which of the following arguments has the author tried to contradict?
1. There are historical evidences against reservation
2. Reservation has failed to reach the intended target beneficiaries
3. Reservation compromises merit in the country
(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Both 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

MOCK CLAT #21
113. Which of the following arguments can weaken the author’s point-of-view?
(a) A research says if everyone is not given equal opportunities then the underdogs may turn parvenu.
(b) The country has 85% Dalit-Bahujan composition
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
Passage (Q.114-Q.118): Dogs are human’s best friends and that human includes the tribal too. And the
same way an act of cutting a beautiful flower and given to our loved ones does not represent our hate for
the flowers, the consumption of meats of pigs, beef, chicken, and dog meat is not out of enmity or hatred
towards the animals. These animals are domesticated for their meat. Nevertheless, if the Government in
its infinite wisdom, while representing the will of the people for their betterment, felt it justified banning
killing and selling of dogs, the public has no choice but to trust the people they have elected to represent
them. All the same, the elected representatives should not only convince the people for resorting to ban
dog meat but also assure them that, their rights- especially cultural rights will not be encroached and a
commitment that they, the Govt. would be open to relook their decision, if so demanded by the public
In what now appears like Animal rights versus Tribal rights, the general perceptions of the generals will
highlight the attitude towards the tribal people. If we cannot love our fellow beings but profess our love for
animals, either we are lying or we need to be tamed! While there are serious issues around us to get to
grips with at this juncture, the least fruitful would be to engage our time and energy on what should
appear on the plates of the tribal people. At the end of the day, it is the tribal people that should have the
last say in matters related to the law and governance, let alone food choices, of their land and not some
animals or for that matter their lovers!
While we draw the thin line between Animals rights and Human rights, one crucial element is the need to
get rid of our whimsical concept that- only some animals feel pain; dogs to be precise. Also, worthy to
note is the cultural food habits of people concerned Benighted self-proclaimed activists are not relied
upon to be conscious of the massive sociological challenges our founding fathers would have gone
through when formulating a constitution for a diverse country like India and the accommodative elements
thus required for the idea that is Indi(a) Not to mention the 5th and 6th schedule of the Indian constitution
which acknowledges the tribal people and their rights, any right-thinking person is expected to respect
the diversity of this beautiful country, repeatedly corrupted by radical thoughts and actions that could
destabilize the unifying fabric of the nation by imposing unwarranted diktats on the tribal people.
Source: Times of India editorial by T S Haokip – 7.15.2020
114. With reference to the above passage, which of the following is true?
1. Killing animals for human consumption is unjustified
2. Tribal culture and food habits are different from people living in urban centers.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these
115. With regards to tribal people, it can be inferred from the passage that-
1. Tribal people have their own constitutional rights.
2. Animal lovers follow a biased approach towards tribal people.
116. According to the passage it can be implied that-

1. All animals have rights.
2. Government needs to ensure tribals that their rights will be protected
117. Consider the following statements regarding animal activists-

1. They are aware of the diversity of our country.
2. They are unaware of the diversity and its challenges.
3. They follow an impeccable system of advocating animal rights.
4. They are not reliable.
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) only 2

MOCK CLAT #21
118. Statement- It is the tribal people that should have the last say in matters related to the law and
governance, let alone food choices, of their land and not some animals or for that matter their lovers!
The above statement is-
(a) Flaw in the argument (b) Weakens the argument
(c) Supports the author’s view-point (d) Parallel Reasoning.
Passage (Q.119-Q.123): Priyanshu: Anita Desai (b) 1937) is the one of the greatest English authors
and easily surpasses the level of writing done by her contemporaries all over the globe. It wasn’t her style
of writing, but it was her enthralling and engaging plots that got readers of various ages hooked from the
very first word Having had more than 600 million copies of her books sold, with a net worth of $100
million, she can be considered one of the most successful authors in the world She wrote on what people
liked to read, mostly mysteries and detective books, with ‘Fire on the mountain’, ‘The village by the sea’
and the Mystery Series being the most popular books.
Nupur: I have always loved Anita Desai, but her writings don’t appeal to me as I prefer fantasy. Ursula K.
Le Guin is the person whom I wish to emulate. She didn’t have a rich family, and rose to fame and riches
by her own hard work, making her a role model. I’m often caught reading Earthsea books during my
classes. In spite of selling 500 million copies, less than Anita Desai, Ursula has a net worth of more than
$1 billion, and is the most successful author in the world The only reason she lost her billionaire status
was because she contributed large amounts of money towards charity. However, her biggest donation
has been the Earthsea books, which acted as a safe space for several children who felt shunned
119. Which of the following must be true about Ursula if the information given in the above passage is true?
(a) She elevated charity above personal wealth.
(b) She never had any interest in being a billionaire.
(c) She never believed she would become a billionaire only by writing.
(d) She never wrote for fame.
120. Which of the following is/are an example of the reasoning that Nupur applies to measure Ursula’s
success and her being a role model?
(a) Roger Federer is a better tennis player than Rafael Nadal, because he is richer than Rafael.
(b) Anil Kumble is a more successful bowler than Zaheer Khan because he has got more wickets.
(c) Hugh Jackman aka Wolverine/ Logan is a role model because of the struggles he faced as a child,
which he overcame and made a name for himself.
(d) Both (a) and (c).
121. What does Priyanshu imply when he says Anita Desai can easily surpass the level of writing done by her
contemporaries?
(a) Anita Desai was one of the greatest authors in India in the twentieth century.
(b) Anita Desai is the best author to ever exist.
(c) Anita Desai’s position as the best author in the world is temporary and it keeps fluctuating.
(d) No other author in the better part of the twentieth century was better than Anita Desai.
122. According to Nupur, the biggest contribution Ursula made to society is that:
(a) She donated a large number of books to people who were suffering.
(b) She donated vast sums of money to various charities.
(c) Her books helped out children who felt lonely.
(d) She never stopped writing the books we all have come to love.
123. What can be inferred from the reason Priyanshu gives for readers of various ages to be hooked onto
Anita’s writings?
(a) Anita Desai had a very poor style of writing.
(b) Anita Desai was famous only because of her plots.
(c) Anita Desai was better known for her plot than for her style of writing.
(d) Anita Desai wrote with good style and plot.

MOCK CLAT #21
124. In immunotherapy, people are given a small amount of the substance they are allergic to – for example
Pine nut - every day for Pine nut-allergy. It works by prompting the immune system to produce antibodies
that reduce the body's allergic response, so if someone is accidentally exposed to a small amount of Pine
nut, they can tolerate it and are less at risk of a serious reaction. Therefore the widespread belief that
allergies cannot be cured is incorrect.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the claim that allergies are curable?
(a) Treating allergies with regular exposure to small amounts of the allergen is effective only as long as
patient stays on the therapy.
(b) Pine nut allergy like most allergies can be managed effectively by completely avoiding the allergen.
(c) The body continues to produce antibodies that reduce the body’s allergic response long after one is
exposed to the allergen.
(d) Immunotherapy exploits the body’s immune system which helps the body fight infections and other
diseases.
125. Choose the option that shows the numbered conclusion/s that is/are logically consistent with the Main
Statement.
Main Statement: Nora Fatehi does not dance unless the lights are not off.
A. Nora dances only when the lights are off.
B. When the lights are not on Nora dances.
C. Nora dances only when the lights are on.
D. Nora does not dance when the lights are on.
(a) A only (b) C only (c) B and C (d) A and D
126. Secrets fester in the gloom. They grow larger and scarier, and they have the power to shape our whole
lives without our even knowing it. But if we shine light on those secrets, the most extraordinary thing
happens: we realize that we are not alone.
Which of the following is not necessarily the underlying assumption of the author in the paragraph
above?
1. Everyone has secrets kept under wraps through elaborate practices of concealment.
2. Secrets are harmful, and disclosing secrets publicly is beneficial.
3. Secrecy doesn’t exist in a simple or dichotomous relationship with disclosure.
(a) 3 only (b) 1,2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3

MOCK CLAT #21
Passage (Q.127-Q.129): A successful transaction between two people - a sale and purchase - should
benefit both. If it benefits one and not the other, it is exploitation, and it does nothing to raise the standard
of living. The history of human prosperity lies in the repeated discovery of non-zero-sum bargains that
benefit both sides. That’s the trick by which the world gets rich. Yet it takes only a few sidelong glances at
your fellow human beings to realize that remarkably few people think this way. Zero-sum (win-lose)
thinking dominates the popular discourse, whether in debates about trade or in complaints about service
providers. You just don’t hear people coming out of shops saying, ‘I got a great bargain, but don’t worry, I
paid enough to be sure that the shopkeeper feeds his family, too.’ This may be because during our
evolutionary history, we lived in a zero-sum world, in which one person’s gain meant another person’s
loss.
This is a shame, because the zero-sum mistake was what made so many -isms of past centuries so
wrong. Mercantilism said that exports made you rich and imports made you poor, a fallacy mocked by
Adam Smith when he pointed out that Britain selling durable hardware to France in exchange for
perishable wine was a missed opportunity to achieve the ‘incredible augmentation of the pots and pans of
the country’. Marxism said that capitalists got rich because workers got poor, another fallacy. Some
speculative markets in capital and in assets may be a zero-sum game, but not markets in goods and
services. The notion of synergy, of both sides benefiting, just does not seem to come naturally to people.
If sympathy is instinctive, synergy is not.
For most people, therefore, the market does not feel like a virtuous place. It feels like an arena in which
the consumer does battle with the producer to see who can win. Long before the credit crunch of 2008
most people saw capitalism (and therefore the market) as a necessary evil, rather than an inherent good.
It is almost an axiom of modern debate that free exchange encourages and demands selfishness,
whereas people were kinder and gentler before their lives were commercialized, that putting a price on
everything has fragmented society and cheapened souls. Perhaps this lies behind the extraordinarily
widespread view that commerce is immoral, lucre filthy and that modern people are good despite being
enmeshed in markets rather than because of it.
Source: Economics and its enemies by William Coleman.
127. Which of the following would the author most likely disapprove of?
(a) Importing goods (b) An increase in taxation
(c) Speculative investments (d) Buying goods at a bargain sale
128. Which of the following statements would the author disagree with?
(a) The credit crunch of 2008 made people rethink their views about capitalism.
(b) Despite what Marxists think, capitalists and workers can get rich simultaneously.
(c) Human history and biology have made people prone to thinking in terms of zero-sum games.
(d) Synergy, unlike sympathy, does not come instinctively to people.
129. What does the author imply in the following statement ‘It is almost an axiom of modern debate that free
exchange encourages and demands selfishness’?
(a) There have been many debates regarding free exchange in modern times.
(b) People wrongly believe that free exchange is a bad thing
(c) Free exchange is a necessary evil.
(d) Free exchange is not necessarily bad, but it does have some negative effects.
Passage (Q.130-Q.132): Two months ago, Soda village of Rajasthan elected its first female ‘Sarpanch’
(village chief) Chhavi Rajawat. Chhavi is an M.Phil. in Political Science but is a new comer to the world of
politics. Her father Raman Rajawat is a veteran politician and Chhavi seeks his counsel on many issues.
This has created a rift among her party members as Raman is considered to be a highly ethical man.
Five years ago, he retired from active politics after his movement to eradicate corruption failed due to lack
of public support. Chhavi is not as idealistic as her father is. Now Raman wants to restart his anti-
corruption movement and has asked Chhavi to lend him official support.

MOCK CLAT #21
130. Chhavi wants to support her father yet doesn't wish to appear as being directly involved Which of the
following will help her achieve her goal most convincingly?
(a) She must not let her name be involved in the advertisements run by her father's party.
(b) She must not be bothered about public opinion as she is only doing her duty as a daughter.
(c) She should support her father in a personal capacity but must not let the official machinery be used in
his movement.
(d) She must allow her party to take all decisions and not take any personal ownership.
131. One of the party workers, Dholu Bholu, has called Chhavi's support to her father as unethical. Which of
the following will support Dholu's stance the most?
(a) Chhavi has let her father use the public office to plan and execute his movement.
(b) Chhavi has never publicly spoken against her father even when he was wrong.
(c) Chhavi has given financial help to her father.
(d) Chhavi's name appears on the website of her father's organization as a donor.
132. Chhavi decides to support her father. Raman restarts his anti-corruption movement. During one of his
rallies, there is a violent clash between two rival gangs and 10 people die. Now Dholu wants Chhavi to
resign taking moral responsibility. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen Dholu's case the
most?
(a) Chhavi did nothing wrong as she didn't participate in the rally herself.
(b) As the village chief, Chhavi is responsible for maintaining law and order.
(c) The two rival gangs had never ever clashed violently.
(d) One of the members killed was Dholu's cousin. Hence, it is a mere personal vendetta
below:
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven teachers of a school. All of them belong to different city viz. Varanasi,
Pune, Jaunpur, Agra, Bhopal, Mumbai, and Lucknow but not necessarily in the same order. Each of
them teach different subjects viz. English, Science, Chemistry, Physics, Math, Hindi and Sanskrit, but not
necessarily in the same order.
Q belongs to Agra and does not teach either Math or Physics. R teaches English and does not belong to
Jaunpur or Mumbai. T belongs to Bhopal and teaches Hindi. The one who teaches Science belong to
Lucknow. S belongs to Varanasi. W teaches Sanskrit. P does not belong to Lucknow. The one who
teaches Physics belong to Jaunpur.
133. W belongs to which of the following city?

(a) Agra (b) Mumbai (c) Lucknow (d) Pune
134. P teaches which of the following subject.

(a) Physics (b) Math (c) English (d) Chemistry
135. S teaches which of the following subject.

(a) Chemistry (b) Physics (c) Math (d) Data inadequate
136. Which of the following combinations of teachers–city–subject is correct?

(a) T–Bhopal–Math (b) W–Agra–Sanskrit
(c) Q–Agra–Physics (d) V–Lucknow–Science

MOCK CLAT #21
Directions (Q.137-Q.141): The following graph indicates the population of three different villages in five
successive year, and bar graph shows ratio of male to female of three villages in five successive years.
Ratio of male to female population

years
1991 1992 1993 1994 1995
Villages
X 11 : 9 5:3 5:3 3:5 2:3
Y 3:5 2:3 8:7 3:7 1:1
Z 9:7 3:4 3:2 5:4 4:5
137. What is the ratio between total number of males of village 𝑋 & 𝑌 together in 1992 to the population of
village 𝑍 in 1995?
(a) 3 : 7 (b) 7 : 9 (c) 11 : 9 (d) 9 : 7
138. Which of the following villages shows continuous and uniform increase/decrease in their population over
the years?
(a) Y (b) Z (c) X (d) X & Y
139. Number of males in village Z over the years in how many times the number of females in village X over
the years? (around two decimal places)
(a) 1.76 (b) 1.56 (c) 2.76 (d) 2.54
140. Number of males from all villages in 1993 & 1994 together is how much percent more or less than the
number of females of village Y in same years? (approx….)
(a) 135 % less (b) 141.3 % less (c) 135 % more (d) 141.3 % more
141. Find the difference between the average of females from village X and average population of village Z
over the entire years?
(a) 63100 (b) 65200 (c) 63300 (d) 60000

MOCK CLAT #21
Directions (Q.142-Q.146): The given below data is about students who like three different cricket
players. Read the data carefully and answer the questions
There are I to XII standard in school and capacity of each standard is 180. Total number of students who
like M.S Dhoni is 25 % of total number of students in the school and total number of students who like
Virat Kohli is 40 % more than total number of students who like M.S Dhoni. 75 % of remaining number of
student in the school like Rohit sharma and remaining students do not like any three of them. Total
number of students who like M.S Dhoni & Virat Kohli but not Rohit Sharma is 25 % of total number of
students who like Virat Kohli and number of Students who like Virat Kohli & Rohit Sharma but not M.S
Dhoni is 21 more than Total number of students who like M.S Dhoni & Virat Kohli but not Rohit Sharma.
1
Total number of Students who like M.S Dhoni & Rohit Sharma but not Virat Kohli is 39 more than 122% of
total number of students who like Rohit Sharma. Total number of students who like all three players are
50 % of Total number of Students who like M.S Dhoni & Rohit Sharma but not Virat Kohli.
142. Total number of students who like only M.S. Dhoni only Virat Kohli Together is what percent more than
total number of students who like only Rohit Sharma?
17 17 17 17
(a) 8343 % (b) 8143% (c) 8543 % (d) 8743%
143. Find total number of students who like at least two players?
(a) 579 (b) 589 (c) 575 (d) 580
144. Total number of students who like all three players is what present less total students do not like any
players?
2 2 2 2
(a) 659% (b) 759% (c) 729% (d) 799%
145. Find total number of students who like at least one player?
(a) 1844 (b) 1944 (c) 1644 (d) 1744
146. Find the ratio between total number of students who like M.S Dhoni & Virat Kohli but not Rohit Sharma to
total students who like Virat Kohli & Rohit Sharma but not M.S Dhoni?
(a) 9 : 10 (b) 10 : 9 (c) 9 : 11 (d) 9 : 13
Directions (Q.147-Q.150): Given below the table shows types of interest offered by five banks, principal
amount, time of period and rate of interest. Some of the data is missing. Calculate that according to
information given in questions.
Bank Type of interest Principle (Rs) Time (year) Rate Amount(Rs)

ICICI Compound -- -- 15% --
SBI Simple -- 4 -- 26250
YES Compound 20000 3 10% --
UCO Compound -- 2 -- 29160
IDBI Simple 10000 -- 6% -
147. If the ratio of interest rate of IDBI to that of UCO is 3: 4, then find the difference between principle
invested in UCO bank and amount obtained from IDBI, if time period for both banks is same?
(a) Rs. 13800 (b) Rs.12800 (c) Rs.11800 (d) Rs.13600
148. If rate of interest offered by SBI and Yes bank is same. Then find principle invested in SBI is
approximately what percent of amount obtained from YES bank?
(a) 52% (b) 59% (c) 70% (d) 65%
149. What is amount of interest obtained from ICICI bank, if ratio of principle invested in ICICI bank to principal
invested in Yes bank is 7 : 5 and time period is one year less for ICICI bank than time period of YES
bank?
(a) Rs.9020 (b) Rs.8030 (c) Rs.9030 (d) Rs.7030
MOCK CLAT #21
150. If ratio between rate of interest offered by SBI bank to IDBI bank is 5 : 3 and ratio between time period is
2 : 1 respectively, then find the sum of principle invested in SBI bank and amount obtained from IDBI
bank?
(a) Rs.27850 (b) Rs.28850 (c) Rs.29950 (d) Rs.27950

MOCK CLAT #21
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #21
USE FOR ROUGH WORK


MOCK CLAT #22
provided for.

Centre Name : _______________________ http://bit.ly/OMR_MockCLAT-22
Candidate Name : _______________________
Batch : _______________________
Contact No. : _______________________
Date of Exam : _______________________
MOCK CLAT #22
SECTION-A: ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): Canberra is pressing ahead with its News Media Bargaining Code that would make
internet giants Google and Facebook pay for news content. In fact, the Australian government
announced that it would amend the draft law after its ministers held discussions with Facebook CEO
Mark Zuckerberg and Google’s chief executive Sundar Pichai so that publishers would be paid lump
sums rather than per click on news articles. But the overall integrity of the draft law remains intact. This is
welcome as the Australian move creates a helpful template for revenue sharing between online platforms
and news publishers.
Presently, Google and Facebook corner a mammoth share of online ad revenues, leaving next to nothing
for media outlets on whose news content they piggyback on. The argument that the internet giants bring
additional traffic for news websites is specious. Given the massive scale of Google and Facebook,
monetising online traffic is to their advantage. Meanwhile, it’s the media houses that painstakingly curate,
verify and publish news through a network of experienced reporters and editors. For Google and
Facebook to skim off all that news content without having a journalistic infrastructure of their own is
patently [X].
In France, Google stopped displaying news content after that country adopted the 2019 EU copyright
rules that allow press publications to secure royalties from online platforms. But the French competition
watchdog ruled Google’s move an abuse of market dominance and the internet giant was forced to reach
an agreement with news publishers to pay them for news content. As the Covid pandemic has shown,
accurate news is critical to fighting misinformation and rumours. And that can only happen if internet
platforms and news publishers work together and support each other. India must follow Australia and
France, and mandate revenue sharing between digital platforms and news publishers.
1. Which of the following is an appropriate title to the passage?

(a) Fair share: Like Australia, India must get internet giants to pay for news
(b) Fair and square: Stop monetizing off of media houses
(c) Australia’s move might backfire: see highlights below
(d) Why must India follow France? Make newer policies, in India, for India
2. What does the author feels about the recent move by Canberra?
(a) he commends it
(b) he is skeptical about it
(c) he is surprised by it
(d) he is weary of it
3. Which of the following best describes the author’s views as reflected from the passage?
(a) that social media giants are a huge revenue generating entity which must be shared with the
government
(b) that social media giants unfairly earn profits off of the media houses
(c) that social media giants are way more popular in India than in Australia and even lesser in France
(d) that social media giants in India must be held accountable for fake news
4. Which of the following is false as per the passage?

(a) It is better to pay publishers lump sums that per click on news articles
(b) The internet giants help the news websites by bringing over more audience
(c) there was a lot of misinformation spread during Covid-19
5. What should replace [X] in the above passage?

(a) a strong statement (b) commendable
(c) disturbing (d) unfair

MOCK CLAT #22
Passage (Q.6-Q.9): In 1985, the Indian government began levying import duty on newsprint imported
from abroad along with an auxiliary customs duty. This resulted in an increase in the price of newspapers
and reduced their circulation. These levies were challenged by several publishers, editors and printers of
daily newspapers for stifling their freedom of speech and expression. In response, the government
argued that these duties had been levied on newsprint in ‘public interest’ so as to augment revenue.
While deciding this matter, the Supreme Court held that the freedom of press was encompassed within
the contours of the ‘freedom of speech and expression’. This freedom, the Court explained, means
freedom from interference from any authority which would have the effect of interference with the content
and circulation of newspapers.
The Court arrived at this conclusion by recognising how a free press is integral to social and political
discourse:
“[T]he press has now assumed the role of the public educator making formal and non-formal education
possible in a large scale particularly in the developing world, where television and other kinds of modern
communication are not still available for all sections of society. The purpose of the press is to advance
the public interest by publishing facts and opinions without which a democratic electorate cannot make
responsible judgments …”
The Supreme Court ultimately held that the government was indeed empowered to levy taxes affecting
the publication of newspapers but within reasonable limits and so as not to {X} on the freedom of
expression. In the particular facts before it, the Court observed that the excessive nature of the burden
owing to the levy of duties on newsprint was neither adequately proven by the petitioners nor adequately
refuted by the respondents. In a finely nuanced judgment, the Court directed the government to re-
examine the taxation policy by evaluating whether it constituted an excessive burden on the newspapers.
This judgment is a landmark for establishing a cogent connection between the freedom of speech and
expression, the role of the press in a democracy, and people’s right to know. It is of particular relevance
in present times, given that in 2020, India was ranked 142nd on the World Press Freedom Index,
released by the international organisation Reporters Without Borders. At a time when the means of
access to information have substantially increased, the quality of such information is critical. To ensure
this, it is imperative that the press remains free from censorship imposed at the state’s behest. At the
same time, the judgment places a weighty obligation on the press to report responsibly and in a manner
which befits its role as the educator of the masses.
6. Which of the following forms the main subject of the passage?

(a) public good
(b) the ability- or the lack thereof- of government to levy taxes on press
(c) the constitutional guarantee of freedom of speech and expression
(d) the importance of freedom of press
7. Which of the following is not being discussed in the passage?

(a) the government’s scope of levying taxes on publication of newspapers
(b) the importance of free press in a developing nation
(c) striking a balance between levying of taxes on press and their freedom of expression
(d) the Supreme Court’s commendable stance of upholding the constitutional directive principles of state
policy
8. Which of the following is true about the 1985 Supreme court judgment being discussed in the passage?
(a) the judgment pronounced that the taxes levied by the government were excessive
(b) the judgment pronounced that the taxes levied by the government were not excessive and were very
well within the powers of the government to levy
(c) the judgment pronounced that the taxes levied were excessive, but permissible on the grounds of
public good
9. What can replace {X} in the above passage?

(a) impinge (b) exceed (c) add (d) cut
MOCK CLAT #22
Passage (Q.10 and Q.11): The clouds had given their all –
two days of rain and then a break
in which we walked,
the waterlogged earth
gulping for breath at our feet
as we skirted the lake, silent and apart,
until the swans came and stopped us
with a show of tipping in unison.
As if rolling weights down their bodies to their heads
they halved themselves in the dark water,
icebergs of white feather, paused before returning again
like boats righting in rough weather.
‘They mate for life’ you said as they left,
porcelain over the stilling water. I didn’t reply
but as we moved on through the afternoon light,
slow-stepping in the lake’s shingle and sand,
I noticed our hands, that had, somehow,
swum the distance between us
and folded, one over the other,
like a pair of wings settling after flight
- Winter Swans, by Owen Sheers
10. What do the swans represent in the poem?

(a) safety (b) commitment (c) peace (d) nature
11. Why does the author compare his and his partner’s hands as “like a pair of wings settling after flight”?
(a) as they are clasped tightly, similar to a bird’s feathers in winters
(b) as they are unnaturally held, reflecting discomfort
(c) as they show comfort and relaxation, just a relaxed bird’s feathers
Passage (Q.12-Q.20): Invoking sedition against 22-year-old green activist Disha Ravi, just days after
politician Shashi Tharoor and six noted journalists were booked, flags a fundamental infirmity in the
sedition law. Police officers [X] reading Indian Penal Code’s Section 124A are quick to slap sedition on
those whose actions and words incite opposition to the government. The guard rails imposed by the
Supreme Court, requiring direct and immediate incitement to violence to qualify as sedition, have had no
effect.
The zeal to invoke sedition brooks no meaningful opposition – in other words dissent – against any state
or central government. Indeed, flawed application of sedition disregarding SC strictures qualifies for
invoking contempt of court, if not outrightly quashing this archaic provision from the era of kings and
colonial rule. SC must also take note of sedition cases spiking year-on-year from 35 in 2016 to 70 in 2018
and 93 in 2019. No less egregious is a concurrent trend of wielding the anti-terror Unlawful Activities
(Prevention) Act (UAPA) against political activists.
Its unique provisions forbidding judges from granting bail where the case diary/ chargesheet show
“reasonable grounds for believing” the accusations as “prima facie true” deny accused persons the usual
grounds for bail. If trials were speedy, such provisions could have been countenanced. But NCRB data
reveals 5,922 UAPA arrests between 2016 and 2019 against a mere 132 convictions. At 2019’s start,
3,908 UAPA cases were pending investigation from previous years in which police filed 257
chargesheets in 2019. Meanwhile, against 1,876 cases pending trial from previous years and 485 cases
sent for trial in 2019, courts completed trial in just 113 cases, with a 29% conviction rate. Such a glacial
pace with no prospect of bail heightens the injustice towards pretrial/ undertrial prisoners and those
ultimately acquitted. In UAPA cases of political activists with no apprehensions of them absconding, bail
not jail must be preferred.

MOCK CLAT #22
12. Which of the following summarises the passage?

(a) the Supreme court must take a stronger action for the rights of sedition under trials
(b) the UAPA must be repealed and laws relating to sedition must be amended
(c) Supreme Court must scrap sedition, consider bail in long pending UAPA cases
(d) The government’s intolerance must not be tolerated
13. What should replace [X] in the above passage?

(a) cursorily (b) strictly (c) occasionally (d) liberally
14. What is the meaning of the term “infirmity”?

(a) lacunae (b) laxity (c) frailty (d) strength

(a) the Supreme court has put qualifications on invoking the charge of sedition which are a hindrance in
police’s lax use of the law
(b) the Supreme court has put qualifications on invoking the charge of sedition which, unfortunately, have
not deterred the police
(c) the Supreme court is yet to give a strong, stringent ruling against the police’s action of invoking
sedition charges on the most minute grounds.
16. Which of the following describes the author’s views?

(a) that the law of sedition needs amendment and is not fit for today’s time
(b) that law of sedition is being used nowadays to shush dissent
(c) it is relatively more difficult to get bail in sedition charges than in other offences

(a) direct and immediate incitement to violence must be there to qualify as sedition
(b) direct and immediate incitement to violence is an element of sedition but not the qualifying one
(c) direct and immediate incitement to violence is one of the many elements of sedition and not
necessarily present in all cases of sedition
(d) none of the above’
18. Which of the following is an antonym of “egregious”?

(a) marvelous (b) shocking (c) deceitful (d) plentiful
19. Which of the following best describes the author’s feelings towards the current scenario regarding
sedition?
(a) critical (b) disapproval (c) anger (d) all of the above
20. Which of the following does not aggravate the injustice against under trials in cases of sedition?
(a) the slow pace at which sedition cases progress
(b) the excess difficulty in procuring bail in sedition cases
(c) the police’s overreach of power in sedition cases

MOCK CLAT #22
Passage (Q.21-Q.25): On Thursday, government introduced sweeping new rules that encompass a wide
spectrum of digital content. But the way in which these rules force-fit social media, streaming
entertainment, and digital news portals all under one umbrella, is untenable. News content already
undertakes compliance with various standalone legislations. Plus news sites follow print and TV norms,
besides the extensive self-regulation done in multiple layers between journalists and editors every day.
Social media by contrast has run [X], without accountability.
Leave alone discussing these far-reaching changes with stakeholders in digital news, government has
sidestepped even a cursory parliamentary scrutiny by introducing the sweeping regulatory framework as
subordinate legislation. And now, at a time when news media are already battling adverse economic and
legal environments, with serious charges like sedition being levelled on frivolous grounds, a whole new
set of compliance measures will bring fresh costs and dangers. For example, the oversight authority set
up with government officials and suo motu powers could both encourage strong-arming by the state and
trolls mounting a deluge on a selected media target, to hurt it punitively.
Government’s aim to impose accountability on social media to tackle a pandemic of fake news and
hatred is sound. But it’s the mainstream news platforms that have offered the strongest checks on this
dangerous phenomenon, by amplifying the credible facts and information. The three-tier grievance
redressal mechanism proposed in the rules is only going to put constraints on this work. It is not minimum
government, maximum governance and it’ll not provide benefits to society. It’s best to drop the current
rules. Instead, government can use the ongoing parliamentary exercise in fleshing out a data protection
legislation to meet its objectives of regulating social media content.
21. Which of the following is the underlying theme of the passage?

(a) news platforms must not be clubbed with social media
(b) the new rules must be scraped as they are regressive
(c) the new rules do not serve the purpose the government is trying to solve
(d) the government must unbridle news media outlets
22. How is news content different from the other types of content it is clubbed with under the new rules?
(a) it goes through various check points, unlike other forms of content
(b) it is more important and relevant than the other forms of content
(c) it is more nation centric than the other forms of content
23. What can effectively replace [X] in the above passage?

(a) independent (b) infamous (c) rogue (d) amuck
24. These new rules have comes as a result of which of the following?
(a) the almost negligible accountability of social media sites
(b) to counter the ever prevalent false information easily available on the internet
(c) the regulate the digital content, which has far reaching effects on the public
(d) to curb sedition against the government
25. Which of the following lines from the passage imply State overreach?
(a) On Thursday, government introduced sweeping new rules that encompass a wide spectrum of digital
content.
(b) But the way in which these rules force-fit social media, streaming entertainment, and digital news
portals all under one umbrella, is untenable.
(c) For example, the oversight authority set up with government officials and suo motu powers could both
encourage strong-arming by the state and trolls mounting a deluge on a selected media target, to hurt
it punitively.
(d) It is not minimum government, maximum governance and it’ll not provide benefits to society.

MOCK CLAT #22
Passage (Q.26-Q.30): I first became acquainted with the Amazon jungle halfway through 1958, thanks to
my friend Rosita Corpancho. Her function at the University of San Marcos was vague; her power
unlimited. She prowled among the professors without being one of them, and they all did whatever she
asked; thanks to her wiles, doors of officialdom stuck shut were opened and paths of bureaucracy
smoothed.
“There’s a place available for someone on an expedition to the Alto Marañón that’s been organized by
the Institute of Linguistics for a Mexican anthropologist,” she said to me one day when I ran into her on
the campus of the Faculty of Letters. “Would you like to go?” I had finally managed to obtain the
fellowship to Europe I’d coveted and was to leave for Spain the following month. But I accepted without a
moment’s hesitation.
Rosita is from Loreto, and if you listen carefully you can still catch in her voice an echo of the delightful
singsong accent of eastern Peru. She protected and promoted – as no doubt she still does – the Summer
Institute of Linguistics, an organization which, in the forty years of its existence in Peru, has been the
object of virulent controversy. I understand that as I write these lines it is packing its bags to leave the
country. Not because it has been expelled (though this was on the verge of happening during General
Velasco’s dictatorship), but on its own initiative, since it considers that it has fulfilled the mission that
brought it to Yarinacocha, its base of operations on the banks of the Ucayali, some ten kilometers from
Pucallpa, from which it has spread into nearly all the remote folds and corners of Amazonia.
What exactly is the purpose of the Institute? According to its enemies, it is a tentacle of American
imperialism which, under cover of doing scientific research, has been engaged in gathering intelligence
and has taken the first steps toward a neocolonialist penetration of the cultures of the Amazonian
Indians. These accusations stem, first and foremost, from the Left. But certain sectors of the Catholic
Church – mainly the jungle missionaries – are also hostile to it and accuse it of being nothing more than a
phalanx of Protestant evangelists passing themselves off as linguists. Among the anthropologists, there
are those who criticize it for perverting the aboriginal cultures, attempting to Westernize them and draw
them into a mercantile economy. A number of conservatives disapprove of the presence of the Institute in
Peru for nationalist and Hispanist reasons.
26. Which of the following writing technique has been used by the author in this passage?
(a) Narrative (b) Descriptive (c) Expository (d) Persuasive
27. Which of the following option correctly represents the meaning of the word ‘envangelist’ as has been
used in the passage?
(a) a person who seeks to convert others to the Christian faith, especially by public preaching.
(b) an action intended to deceive someone; a trick.
(c) involving or limited to basic principles
(d) a general vote by the electorate on a single political question which has been referred to them for a
direct decision.
28. Which of the following option correctly represents the meaning of the word ‘phalanx’ as has been used in
the passage?
(a) a person regarded as lacking culture or moral principles.
(b) a body of troops or police officers standing or moving in close formation.
(c) favouring confrontational or violent methods in support of a political or social cause.
(d) an attempt to achieve a goal.
29. Which of the following statements is/are true with respect to the context of the passage?
Statement 1: Rosita has a very distinct and noticeable accent of eastern Peru in her voice.
Statement 2: The Summer Institute of Linguistics is well respected by both the left and right wing political
parties.
(a) Statement 1 (b) Statement 2
(c) Statement 1 and 2 both (d) Neither Statement 1 nor 2

MOCK CLAT #22
30. Which of the following is the correct statement with respect to the context of the passage?
Statement 1: Rosita Carpancho’s role at the University of San Marcos was of much power and influence.
Statement 2: The author first met Rosita in 1958.
(c) Both Statement 1 and 2 (d) Neither Statement 1 nor 2

MOCK CLAT #22
SECTION-B: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS
Passage (Q.31-Q.35): On 31 December 2017, a group of activists, political leaders and even retired
judges came together at Shaniwar Wada in Pune.
Called the Elgar Parishad, the organisers of this event included former Supreme Court judge, Justice
P.B. Sawant, and former Bombay High Court judge, Justice B.G. Kolse-Patil. The event saw songs,
street plays and speeches on various issues, including Dalit rights and criticism of the Narendra Modi
government.
Elgar Parishad itself was a curtain raiser of sorts for a yearly celebration of the ‘Battle of Bhima
Koregaon’.
Every year on 1 January, Ambedkarite Dalits gather at Bhima Koregaon to pay their respect at the [1].
However, that year saw violent clashes between Dalit and Maratha groups instead, resulting in the death
of at least one person and injuries to several others.
31. What would replace [1] in the above passage?

(a) Vijay Sthamb (b) Daman Sthamb (c) Ashoka Sthamb (d) Fateh Sthamb
32. 2020 was the ______ anniversary of Bhima-Koregaon battle.

(a) 200 (b) 201 (c) 202 (d) 203
33. The annual celebration, also called Elgar Parishad convention. What does the term “Elgar” means?
(a) loud declaration (b) loud augmentation
(c) loud voice (d) loud protest
34. The Battle of Koregaon fought between the British East India Company and …………
(a) the Maratha (b) the Dalits
(c) the both A and B (d) None of above
35. The UAPA(Unlawful Activities Prevention Act) impinges the personal liberty of the citizens as ….
(a) Section 20 of the acts provide for punishment upto life imprisonment for having the membership of
such organizations, but the word membership has not been defined.
(b) Section 43D(5) of the act prohibits granting of bail by court if the police report indicates accusations
against the arrested person to be true prima facie.
(c) Section 46 of the act makes intercepted communications admissible in court though confessions are
not admissible in courts in regular cases.
(d) All of Above
Passage (Q.36-Q.40): By ruling that “mere engagement with persons of dubious credentials” is not a
crime, the Delhi trial court, which granted bail to climate activist Disha Ravi Tuesday, has, effectively,
raised the bar for the State to initiate prosecution for being part of a “larger conspiracy.” This is significant
given this charge is now recurrently levied in cases related to riots and protests.
“Any person with dubious credentials may interact with a number of persons during the course of his
social intercourse. As long as the engagement/interaction remains within the four corners of law, people
interacting with such persons, ignorantly, innocently or for that matter even fully conscious of their
dubious credentials, cannot be painted with the same hue,” Additional Sessions Judge Dharmender
Rana said in his order.
36. For whom Sedition law was first used in India?

(a) Bhagat Singh (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri (d) Subhash Chandra Bose

MOCK CLAT #22
37. Under which section of IPC Sedition law inserted?

(a) 120D (b) 124A (c) 128B (d) 122C
38. Who introduced sedition law in India?

(a) Amherst (b) William Cavendish
(c) George Barlow (d) James Fitzjames Stephen
39. Disha Ravi is now accused of being a “key conspirator” for preparing and sharing the document having
pro khalistani elements.In which decade Khalistan movement started?
(a) 1970s (b) 1980s (c) 1990s (d) 2000
40. What is/are the Punishment for the Offence of Sedition?

(a) imprisonment up to three years to a life term
(b) barred from a government job
(c) they have to live without their passport
(d) all of above
Passage (Q.41-Q.45): An official survey that has been withheld by the government shows India's
unemployment rate rose to a 45-year high during 2017-2018, the Business Standard newspaper reported
on Thursday, delivering a blow to Prime Minister Narendra Modi just months before what is expected to
be a closely fought general election.
The assessment by the National Sample Survey Office conducted between July 2017-June 2018,
showed the unemployment rate stood at 6.1 percent, the highest since 1972-73, the newspaper reported.
The report said that joblessness stood at 7.8 percent in urban areas compared with 5.3 parts in the
countryside. The data is significant because this was the first comprehensive assessment of India's
employment situation conducted after Modi's decision in November 2016 to withdraw most of the
country's banknotes from circulation overnight, the report said. The government declined to confirm or
deny the report. "We have not released the report. I do not want to comment on it," Pravin Srivastava,
India's chief statistician told Reuters.
41. In which type of unemployment does the marginal productivity of the workers is zero?
(a) Disguised Unemployment (b) Involuntary unemployment
(c) Seasonal unemployment (d) Structural Unemployment
42. Which scheme was launched in 2005 to provide social security by guaranteeing a minimum of 100 days
paid work per year?
(a) NREP (b) IRDP (c) MNREGA (d) TRYSEM
43. Who is the father of modern employment theory?

(a) Alfred Marshall (b) John Robinson (c) John Maynard (d) Amartya Sen
44. What is the right formula to know the unemployment rate?

(a) Total number of unemployed / total labour force X 100
(b) Total labour force / Total number of unemployed x 100
(c) Total number of unemployed / total labour force x 1000
(d) Total labour force / Total number of unemployed x 1000
45. Consider the following statements.

i. Usual Status Approach estimates only those persons as unemployed who had no gainful work for a
major time during the 365 days preceding the date of survey.
ii. Weekly Status Approach records only those persons as unemployed who have gainful work even for
an hour on any day of the week preceding the date of survey.
Which of the above statements is/are correct.
(a) Only I (b) Only ii.
(c) Both i and ii (d) None of above

MOCK CLAT #22
Passage (Q.46-Q.49): Global terror watchdog Financial Action Task Force (FATF) on Thursday
announced that Pakistan will continue to remain on its grey list due to failure to comply with all the points
of a plan of action set by it to combat terror financing. The FATF said that there had been serious
deficiency on the part of Pakistan in checking terror financing and hence it will continue to remain on the
"increased monitoring list", another name for the "Grey List".
The Paris-based FATF had placed Pakistan on the grey list in June [1] and asked Islamabad to
implement a plan of action to curb money laundering and terror financing by the end but the deadline was
extended later on due to the Covid-19 pandemic.
A virtual plenary meeting of the FATF, held over the past three days, concluded that Pakistan will
continue on its grey list. FATF president said, "Pakistan will remain under increased monitoring as
serious deficiencies remain related to terror financing. While Pakistan has taken important steps, there
are three important points from 27 action points remaining to be acted upon."
46. Which of the following countries share a place with Pakistan on the FATF GREY list?
(a) North Korea (b) Iran (c) Iraq (d) Syria
47. What would replace [1] in the above passage?

(a) 2017 (b) 2018 (c) 2019 (d) 2020
48. How many members are there in the FATF?

(a) 28 (b) 39 (c) 26 (d) 37

i. The FATF listing makes it extremely difficult for Pakistan to get financial aid.
ii. China proposed that the members should consider Pakistan’s good work and instead of waiting for
completion of the remaining six of the 27 parameters
(a) Only I (b) Only ii.
(c) Both i and ii (d) None of above
Passage (Q.50-Q.53): The PM would also lay the foundation stones of one bridge and perform ground-
breaking ceremony (bhumi pujan) of another in Assam on Thursday via video conferencing. Prime
Minister Narendra Modi would launch the Mahabahu-Brahmaputra initiative and lay the foundation stones
of one bridge and perform a ground-breaking ceremony (bhumi pujan) of another in Assam on Thursday
via video conferencing. “Tomorrow, 18th of February is a landmark day for Assam’s development
journey. The Mahabahu-Brahmaputra initiative will be launched. The foundation stone of 2 bridges will
also be laid,” the PM had tweeted on Wednesday. According to a PIB release, the launch of Mahabahu-
Brahmaputra, will be marked by the inauguration of the Ro-Pax vessel operations between Neamati-
Majuli Island, North Guwahati-South Guwahati and Dhubri-Hatsingimari. Foundation stone of Inland
Water Transport Terminal at Jogighopa and various tourist jetties on Brahmaputra and launch of digital
solutions for Ease-of-Doing-Business will also be a part of the initiative. “The programme is aimed at
providing seamless connectivity to India and includes various development activities for the people living
around River Brahmaputra and River Barak,” said the release.
50. The name of the project 'Mahabahu Brahmaputra', the words seem to have been inspired by the song by
the same name that was sung by noted Assamese singer. What is the name of the singer?
(a) Jayanta Hazarika (b) Zubeen Garg
(c) Bhupen Hazarika (d) Parveen Sultana

MOCK CLAT #22
51. How will it benefit people of Assam?

i. Large-scale industries of the region will derive logistical benefits to grow faster.
ii. Ro-Pax services will help in reducing the travel time.
iii. Will provide seamless connectivity to the Western parts of India.
iv. Will enhance various development activities for the people living around River Brahmaputra and River
Barak.
Select the code form the following.
(a) Option i, and iii (b) Option ii and iv
(c) Option i, ii and iii (d) Option i, ii, iii and iv
52. The Dhubri-Phulbari bridge will reduce the distance of 205km to …….km.
(a) 14 km (b) 19 km (c) 20 km (d) 24 km
53. Name of the bridge that will connect Neematighat and Kamalabari.
(a) The Rongram bridge (b) The Dhubri-Phulbari bridge
(c) The Jogighopa bridge (d) The Majuli bridge
Passage (Q.54-Q.57): The Centre Thursday notified new guidelines for intermediaries in “soft touch
oversight” rules, saying these were needed to hold social media and other companies accountable for
“misuse and abuse”. These will require Big Tech platforms to set up stronger grievance redressal
mechanisms, and appoint executives to coordinate with law enforcement in India.
For social media platforms like Twitter, Facebook, etc, the guidelines essentially remove the “safe
harbour” provided to these companies — it limited their liability over content that users posted on their
platforms — if the platforms do not comply with due diligence norms.
The rules also call for a three-tier regulation mechanism for over-the-top (OTT) platforms like Netflix,
YouTube, etc and require them to self-classify their content into five categories based on age suitability.
The government’s move comes amid a flurry of activity across geographies over the last 12 months to
frame new regulations aimed at policing Big Tech, which may force some of the world’s most valuable
companies to fundamentally recalibrate their business models in order to stay in line with these
regulations.

i. DCCC (Digital Curated Content Complaints Council)was launched by the Online Curated Content
Providers (OCCP) in February 2020 to empower consumers to make informed choices on viewing
content over OTT platforms and to also provide consumers with a complaints redressal mechanism.
ii. IAMAI (Internet and Mobile Association of India) is a not-for-profit industry body registered under the
Societies Registration Act, 1860. Its mandate is to expand and enhance the online and mobile value-
added services sectors
(a) Only I (b) Only ii. (c) Both i and ii (d) None of above
55. Which of the following rules have been notified to bring in the changes talked about in the passage?
(a) Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021.
(b) Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules 2021
(c) Information Technology (Social Media and Over the Top Services) Rules 2021
(d) Information Technology (Soft touch oversight) Rules 2021
56. Which is/are true regarding the Rules?

(a) Intermediaries shall appoint a Grievance Officer to deal with complaints and share the name and
contact details of such officers.
(b) It will give the government control over these platforms
(c) The OTT platforms, called as the publishers of online curated content in the rules, would self-classify
the content into five age based categories- U (Universal), U/A 7+, U/A 13+, U/A 16+, and A (Adult).
(d) All of above

MOCK CLAT #22
57. In January 2019, eight video streaming services had signed a self-regulatory code that laid down a set of
guiding principles for content on these platforms which prohibited content. Which is/are from the
following?
(a) promotes child pornography
(b) promotes or encourages terrorism
(c) banned for exhibition or distribution by law or court
(d) all of above
Passage (Q.58-Q.63): The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved a proposal to impose President's
Rule in Puducherry, days after a Congress-led government in the union territory lost power during a vote
of confidence.
Announcing the Cabinet decision, Union Minister Prakash Javadekar told reporters that the decision was
taken as no party came forward to stake claim to form the government in Puducherry following the
resignation of the chief minister.
Subsequently, the Lieutenant Governor had recommended President's Rule there and the Union Cabinet
has approved the same, the minister said.
After the President's assent, the assembly will be dissolved, Mr Javadekar said, while adding that further
necessary steps for administrative work in Puducherry would be taken soon.
58. Under which provisions of article, The Government of Union Territories Act, 1963 enacted by the
Parliament?
(a) Article 239A (b) Article 230B (c) Article 229A (d) Article 220B
59. Who currently lost the floor test held in Puducherry Assembly?
(a) V. Vaithilingam (b) V Narayanasamy
(c) N. Rangaswamy (d) P. Shanmugam
60. What is the meaning of President’s Rule in a State?

(a) President’s Rule implies the suspension of a state government.
(b) The imposition of direct rule of the Centre.
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of above
61. A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within
……….. months from the date of its issue.
(a) six (b) four (c) two (d) one

i. The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries on the state administration with the help of the
chief secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the Prime Minister.
ii. A proclamation of President’s Rule may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent
proclamation.
(a) Only I (b) Only ii. (c) Both i and ii (d) None of above
63. Which commission recommended that the report of the governor regarding the President's rule has to be
objective and also the governor should exercise his own judgment in this regard?
(a) The Punchhi commission
(b) Justice V.Chelliah Commission
(c) The Sarkaria Commission
(d) The Administrative Reforms Commission

MOCK CLAT #22
Passage (Q.64-Q.67): Facebook said late Monday it will restore the ability of [1] users to share links to
news articles following a new deal with the local government. The agreement, which gives Facebook and
the [1] government two more months to negotiate a long-term agreement, ends a nearly weeklong period
during which Facebook users in [1] could not access or share news stories on the platform. Facebook
had restricted news-sharing in response to impending legislation that would have required it to let an
independent arbiter determine how much compensation it had to give to publishers for linking to their
stories. Users could not share links or access news stories from Australian or global outlets. The new
deal includes amendments that give Facebook greater control over how it compensates publishers.
“Going forward, the government has clarified we will retain the ability to decide if news appears on
Facebook so that we won’t automatically be subject to a forced negotiation,” Campbell Brown,
Facebook’s head of news partnerships, said in a statement. “The current arrangements allow greater
flexibility for digital platforms and now encourages publishers to reach commercial agreements rather
than racing to arbitration,” Facebook spokesperson Adam Isserlis told NBC News. “Arbitration is a true
last resort.”
64. Which of the following is a suitable option for [1]?

(a) Australian (b) Indian (c) Chinese (d) Japan
65. Which is the largest online news consuming nation?

(a) China (b) India (c) Australia (d) Iceland
66. Which of the following [1] law was Amended in order to make the Facebook pay for the News content?
(a) The News Media Bargaining Code
(b) The Media Regulation Code
(c) The Online Media and News Regulation Code
(d) The Code for the Payment of Due Act.
67. After the passing of the law, Facebook has revealed a deal with which of the following News publishing
companies?
(a) CNBC (b) Rupert Murdoch’s News Corp
(c) Seven West Media (d) All of the above.

MOCK CLAT #22
SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.68 –Q.104): Read the comprehensions carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.68-Q.72): Admissibility of Whatsapp chats as evidence is under question post conversations
between Goswami and Das Gupta found their way into social media. The nature of evidence in the case
of online conversations will be secondary in nature. The evidence produced in the court with respect to
online chats will be printouts of the backup documents or of the screen-shots of the chats, unless the
device itself is produced. The normal rule of evidence is that a document must be proved by primary
evidence by proving the document itself. Oral evidence about the contents of the documents is barred by
the Evidence Act by Section 92 of the Indian Evidence Act. Section 64 of the same says that documents
must be proved by primary evidence except in the circumstances mentioned in Section 65.
To admit the electronic record as evidence, it must be accompanied with a certificate from a person who
produced the copy certifying that the same fulfills the four conditions of section 65B. The Supreme Court
in Arjun Pandit Rao v. Kailash Kushanrao settled conflicting decisions to authoritatively rule that a
Certificate under Section 65B is mandatory to the admissibility of evidence by way of electronic record.
It further held that a Certificate is not necessary if the 'original document' itself is produced as a primary
evidence. This can be done by the owner of the electronic device, and proving that the concerned device,
on which the original information is first stored, is owned and/or operated by him. Section 65B
differentiates between the original information contained in the “computer” itself and copies made
therefrom, the former being primary evidence, and the latter being secondary evidence.
In Ambalal Sarabhai Enterprise Ltd v. KS Infraspace LLP Ltd the Supreme Court stated that the
WhatsApp messages are matters of evidence with regard to their meaning and its contents to be proved
during trial. The e - mails and messages will have to be read cumulatively to decipher whether there was
a concluded contract or not. Further, the Delhi High Court in National Lawyers Campaign for Judicial
Transparency and Reforms v. Union of India has held that a Whatsapp forward message, without an
unknown source, cannot be treated as evidence. The Court held that such a forwarded message, without
its original source, cannot be regarded as 'document' under the Evidence Act.
Pasted and edited, ‘Are WhatsApp Chats Admissible in Evidence?’ (Live Law, 16 January 2021)
<https://www.livelaw.in/know-the-law/whatsapp-chats-admissible-evidence-admissibility-arnab-goswami-
chats-168460> as accessed on 13 February 2021.
68. Saurav and Neelima were a married couple who were living apart for quite some time. After three months
from their separation, Neelima committed suicide. Neelima’s family accused Saurav of threatening
Neelima with her life if her family did not pay 5 Lacs to Saurav. During the trial, the family produced the
whatsapp chats in the phone of Neelima, which were evidence of the threatening messages from Saurav.
Saurav’s lawyer has contested the admissibility of the chats as they were not coupled with the certificate
under section 65B. Decide whether the chats could be admitted by the court or not.
(a) The chats can be admitted as the court can excuse the requirement of a certificate if a person
testifies that the chats are original and have been first stored in Neelima’s phone only.
(b) The chats cannot be admitted as electronic evidence cannot be considered by a court unless it is
coupled with the certificate proving its authenticity and undertaking that produced evidence is first and
originally stored in the same manner as produced before the court.
(c) The chats can be admitted as the chats in the phone are primary evidence and not secondary
electronic evidence, which requires a certificate to prove the originality.
(d) The chats cannot be admitted as electronic evidence are secondary evidence and shall be a last
resort in a criminal trial with severe penalty.

MOCK CLAT #22
69. Police have been trying to nab Jaggi, a notorious criminal, for long but could not find any evidence
against her. In the process, they got hold of Teerath who is a servant at Jaggi’s house and Teerath
agreed to testify before the court about Jaggi’s crime. Police on the basis of Teerath’s statements filed a
chargesheet holding Jaggi accused of extortion, abduction and money laundering. Before the court,
Teerath testified that he has seen the ledger wherein Jaggi keeps account of all her crimes. Court, relying
on the testimony, convicted Jaggi of all the crimes she was charged with. Jaggi has filed an appeal
against the ruling. Decide which of the following could be the best possible ground for the appeal.
(a) Court could not have relied on the testimony as no person can give oral testimony regarding the
contents of a document either electronic or not, and thus the court could not convict her on the basis
of the same.
(b) Court could not have relied on the testimony as the original document has not been produced before
it and the court in no circumstance can rely on secondary evidence to convict her.
(c) Court could not have relied on the testimony as the same is a secondary evidence which could not be
proven without a certificate under section 65B proving its originality.
(d) Court could not have relied on the testimony as the record of crimes committed is not conclusive
evidence unless it ties the accused directly with the crimes allegedly committed.
70. Prajjawal was an activist who was fighting against the recent farm laws enacted by the government. All
the activists have been allowed to demonstrate in front of the Parliament but they are prohibited from
entering the campus. In fact, the government promulgated an ordinance, criminalising entry of any activist
in the Parliament premises until any further orders. Prajjawal got a whatsapp forward that the government
has now allowed demonstration in the premises while the Parliament is in session. He was arrested and
is now being tried for the offence. In his defence, he has produced the whatsapp forward accusing the
government of propagating false information as their agenda to suppress the protest. Choose the correct
option?
(a) The message is admissible in the court as it has been produced in the original form in the device itself
and Prajjawal as the owner of the device is also vouching for its authenticity.
(b) The message is admissible in the court as electronic evidence are admissible as documents in a
court under the Indian Evidence Act.
(c) The message is inadmissible in the court as same is an electronic evidence and has to be coupled
with a certificate proving its originality and authenticity before being produced before a court.
(d) The message is inadmissible in the court as the same is a forward from another source and therefore
cannot be treated as evidence by the court.
71. Archana was an intelligence operative who was following an international criminal, Rouf Lala. Archana’s
mission was to gather evidence against Lala, so that he can be tried in India. She managed to get hold of
Lala’s computer, and copied contents pertaining to his criminal empire in a pen drive. During the trial, the
pen drive was submitted as primary evidence and Archana stated before the court that the contents of
the pen drive were original and were herself stored by her. The Lala’s lawyers have challenged the
admissibility of the evidence due to the absence of the certificate under section 65B. Choose the correct
option?
(a) Contents of the pen drive are admissible in the court as the same are a primary evidence and the
owner has proven that the information is original.
(b) Contents of the pen drive are inadmissible in the court as the pen drive is not the device in which the
information was first stored, thus, it was not a primary evidence. Therefore, it shall be submitted with
the certificate under section 65B.
(c) Contents of the pen drive are admissible in the court as Archana has proven its originality before the
court which excuses the requirement of the certificate.
(d) Contents of the pen drive are inadmissible in the court as Lala, being the original owner of the device
where the information was first stored, shall prove the originality.

MOCK CLAT #22
72. Thomas, an engineering student filed a complaint in the police station that he is ragged and abused by
his college seniors. As per the Indian Penal Code, inflicting physical or mental agony by ragging is
punishable by upto 6 years of punishment. Police are reluctant to file the chargesheet because many
such cases in the past have been found to be false. Thomas gave police screenshots of the seniors
which proves that Thomas was ragged by them. During the trial, this evidence was produced before the
court along with the certificate under section 65B of the Evidence Act. Decide whether the screenshots
can be admitted as evidence by the court or not.
(a) Screenshots cannot be admitted as the same is a secondary evidence and the court cannot convict a
person relying entirely on a secondary evidence.
(b) Screenshots can be admitted despite it being the secondary evidence if coupled with the certificate as
per guidelines given in section 65B.
(c) Screenshots cannot be admitted as the screenshots are not original documents and therefore cannot
be relied upon to convict a person.
(d) Screenshots can be admitted as the screenshots would become primary evidence when coupled with
the certificate as per the guidelines given in section 65B.
Passage (Q.73-Q.77): Section 313(1)(b) castes an imperative duty upon the court to give the accused an
opportunity to explain any incriminating circumstances or inculpatory evidence put by the prosecution
against him. Further, it can be used to test the veracity of the prosecution's case. However, by virtue of
313 (3), the accused can refuse to or provide false answers during the examination. the accused an
absolute 'right to silence'. This essential safeguard in criminal procedure emanates from Article 20(3) of
the Constitution as a right against self-incrimination or 'testimonial compulsion'. The accused has an
absolute right to silence which emanates from Article 20(3) of the Constitution as a right against self-
incrimination or testimonial compulsion.
In Phula Singh v. State of H.P., the court held that the accused has a duty to furnish an explanation
regarding any incriminating material that has been produced against him. The accused has freedom to
remain silent, however, the court would be entitled to draw adverse inference against the accused as
may be permissible in accordance with law.
The court in State of West Bengal v. Mir Mohammad, ruled that when any fact is especially within the
knowledge of any person, the burden of proving that fact is upon him. This becomes an important
standard for drawing adverse inference where the accused especially withholds the knowledge that is
impossible for the prosecution to prove and only the accused knows the truth of the matter. The court in
State of Maharashtra v. Ashok Chotelal Shukla held that even though the respondent failed to explain
incriminating circumstances against him, the other circumstances do not coherently lead to the
conclusion that he had caused the death of his wife.
By this inference, the Constitutional provision of Article 20(3), is not violated as the right to remain silent
envisages immunity to the accused from being compelled to give testimony against himself. Secondly, it
is mostly in circumstantial evidence where furnishing such an explanation becomes imperative. Finally,
the accused is not compelled, and can refuse to answer. If adverse inference was equal to deducing his
guilt, the accused would've been forced to answer but silence only becomes a factor in the larger
mitigating circumstances.
Pasted and edited, Sanskriti Gupta, 'Can Adverse Inference Be Drawn From Silence Of Accused ?' (Live
Law, 07 February 2021) <https://www.livelaw.in/know-the-law/can-adverse-inference-be-drawn-from-
silence-of-accused--169517> as accessed on 20.02.2021

MOCK CLAT #22
73. Shree worked as a journalist who got invited to interview a politician at his farmhouse. When she reached
the farmhouse there was no one but the politician’s son, Manu, who tried to commit rape on her. In her
protection, she threw a vase at him, as result of this injury, Manu dies then and there. She informs the
police and reports that when she reached the farmhouse he was already lying there dead. During the
trial, the prosecution presented many evidence incriminating Shree including her finger prints on the
vase. The courts then imposed the burden on Shree to explain the circumstances and on her silence
convicted her of the murder. Shree’s lawyers have filed an appeal against the order of conviction.
Choose the correct option.
(a) She cannot be convicted as she attacked Manu in self defence when he was trying to commit rape on
her, which is an absolute defence to the offence of murder.
(b) She can be convicted as the prosecution produced incriminating evidence against her and unless she
offers a reasonable explanation to the same, the court can pass an order of conviction based on the
evidence before it.
(c) She cannot be convicted as it is the burden of the prosecution to prove the guilt beyond reasonable
doubt and not the defendant to prove their innocence.
(d) She can be convicted as the court can draw adverse inferences from the silence on the basis of
which guilt of the accused can be proven.
74. Taking advantage of the university protest, two students Guddu and Bablu broke into the examination
department to steal the question papers of mid-term examination. When this news broke out university
administration filed a police complaint against both of them. In the trial, the court asked both the accused
to offer explanations regarding copies of question paper and other corroborating evidence found by the
Police from them. Further, they were strictly warned about the consequences of their silence and the
evidence furnished against them. On their conviction, Guddu and Bablu filed a petition before the
Supreme Court for protection of their right against self-incrimination under article 20(3). Which of the
following is the correct option?
(a) Petition shall not be allowed as the right against self-incrimination gives the accused the right to not
give evidence against themselves but does not prevent the court to rule their silence as their guilt.
(b) Petition shall be allowed as if a person is bound to speak to prevent their conviction then the right to
remain silent that emanates from article 20 (3) would just be a dead letter with no application.
(c) Petition shall not be allowed as the accused are just being asked to furnish explanation for the
incriminating evidence against them, in defiance of which the court can convict them relying on the
evidence produced.
(d) Petition shall be allowed as their conviction was a consequence of their silence which is violation of
their right against self-incrimination.
75. Hari has been made the prime suspect in a murder case, because he was found near the house of his
dead batchmate whom he threatened to kill. The Police could not gather enough evidence to incriminate
Hari but during the trial the judge asked Hari to explain the circumstances he refused to do so. Hari was
convicted due to his silence, and made an appeal to the high court. Choose the correct option?
(a) Hari has been rightly convicted as the court can draw adverse inference for his silence to convict him
of the offence of murder.
(b) Hari has been wrongly convicted as being found in the vicinity of the murder is not enough evidence
to hold him guilty of murder.
(c) Hari has been rightly convicted as it is burden of Hari to prove his innocence and when he did not, he
was found guilty of murder.
(d) Hari has been wrongly convicted as the court has found him guilty solely on the basis of his silence.

MOCK CLAT #22
76. In which of the following circumstances the right against self-incrimination of a person is not violated:
I. An accused being forced by the Police and prosecution to confess to guilt in exchange of lesser
sentence.
II. An accused being asked by the judge to explain their presence at the crime of murder and their prints
on the murder weapon.
III. A witness being forced to share only their true knowledge regarding an event else will be charged for
perjury.
IV. An accused confessing to their crimes in exchange of life imprisonment instead of death sentence.
V. An accused being threatened to speak and prove their innocence else they will be convicted on the
grounds of their silence alone.
Which of the following is the correct answer?
(a) II, III and IV (b) II, III, IV and V
(c) I, II and III (d) II only
77. Simran has been working as an employee at a jewellery shop for over 10 years now. She is a trusted
employee, who opens and closes the shop every day. One morning, when the owner reached the shop
Simran had not reached the shop. He opened the shop himself and found multiple valuable pieces of
diamonds and other jewelleries missing. The computer system and CCTV cameras show that Simran
was the last one to leave the shop and since then no one has entered it. During the investigation, Simran
was found in possession of a whopping sum of money that was unlikely to be found with someone doing
an averagely paying job. Upon her silence, the court held her guilty of stealing the jewelleries and
sentenced her with imprisonment of 5 years. Choose the correct option.
(a) The accused has been wrongly convicted, as guilt cannot be deduced solely on the basis of silence.
That would amount to compulsion to speak which is in violation of right against self-incrimination.
(b) The accused has been rightly convicted as the court ordered the conviction on the grounds of
circumstantial evidence and drawing adverse inference from the silence and failure to explain the
evidence against her.
(c) The accused has been wrongly convicted as circumstantial evidence is secondary evidence and
cannot be solely relied on to order conviction.
(d) The accused has been rightly convicted as all the produced evidence pointed in the direction of her
guilt and her being silent or not is irrelevant to the order of conviction made by the court.
Passage (Q.78-Q.81): The Bench of Justices TV Nalawade and MG Sewlikar passed the order in a plea
filed by one Rajendra Ambhore seeking reliefs to prevent advertisements on TV channels from promoting
sale of articles like the Hanuman Chalisa Yantra. The Court examined the case through the lens of
provisions of the Maharashtra Prevention and Eradication of Human Sacrifices and other Inhuman, Evil
and Aghori Practices and Black Magic Act, 2013 (‘Act’).On perusal of the Black Magic Act, the Court held,
"The definition of propagation, quoted already, shows that advertisement of present nature is covered by
the definition. Section 3 of the Black Magic Act prohibits not only commission of act of black magic, evil
practices etc., but also propagation, promotion of such practices and magic. Section 3(2) of this Act
shows that abetment of such propaganda is also an offence. Thus, TV channels, which telecast such
advertisement also become liable under Section 3 of the Black Magic Act."
The plea came to be filed in 2015 when Ambhore came across the advertisement of Hanuman Chalisa
Yantra on TV channels. The Court observed that despite having reformists like Mahatma Phule and Dr.
Babasaheb Ambedkar, who worked to remove evil practices and spread awareness against superstition,
a progressive and reformist state like Maharashtra was required to enact the 2013 Act. It came to the
conclusion that the advertisement of the Yantra was aimed to exploit persons who feel that "they are in
trouble and they need some kind of help which may be of supernatural nature".
Source- [Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: “Advertisement/ sale of articles claiming they have
miraculous or supernatural properties is illegal: Bombay High Court”, Bar and Bench, dated 06.01.2021]
https://www.barandbench.com/news/litigation/advertisement-sale-articles-miraculous-supernatural-illegal-
bombay-high-court

MOCK CLAT #22
78. Richa’s elder brother Samar is suffering from cancer. They consulted the best doctors and tried various
treatments but to no avail. A family friend suggest to consult Mr. X who had a track record of miraculous
recovery of all his patients suffering from cancer. Mr. X suggest Samar that his condition is caused due to
some evil forces and he will have to perform a ceremony to get rid of the same. He asked Samar to pay
INR 6 Lakhs to buy 4 pigeons from a special place in the village. These pigeons will form part of the
ceremony. Samar paid the amount and within a week after the ceremony was conducted he started
feeling better and had a miraculous recovery. Will Mr. X be liable under the Act?
(a) He will not be liable since he merely suggested to perform the ceremony and not promised to cure
Samar.
(b) He will be liable if he had promised miraculous recovery to Samar.
(c) He will not be liable since Samar recovered from cancer after his ceremony.
(d) He will be liable since he performed the ceremony claiming to cure Samar.
79. Mr. Y suffered huge losses in his business. He was approached by Ms. Z who suggested him to visit a
Guru in her village. Ms. Z promised Mr. Y that all his problems will be resolved by the Guru and she
herself vouched for him. Following Ms. Z’s advice he visited the Guru who told him that he suffered
losses due to his wife. According to the Guru, he should beat his wife with a stick so that evil forces leave
her body. Mr.Y followed the advice of the guru and started beating his wife with the stick, due to this she
suffered grave injuries and was admitted to the hospital. Have they committed an offence under the Act?
(a) The Guru will be liable since he promoted black magic and evil practice.
(b) Mr Y’s will not be liable since he acted on the advice of the Guru.
(c) Mr. Y, Ms. Z and the Guru will be liable since they followed black magic.
(d) They will not be liable since there was no serious harm done to Mr. Y’s wife.
80. Rick is the brand ambassador of a ‘Lucky Charm’ device. He recently shot an advertisement where he
was told to promote the device’s magical qualities. The advertisement was broadcasted by a local news
channel, seeing the advertisement several people ordered the device believing in its magical qualities.
Can Rick be made liable under the act?
(a) He can be made liable since he made false promises regarding the device.
(b) Only the advertising company and the company making the device will be made liable since they
promote black magic.
(c) He cannot be made liable since he is an actor and he was only doing his job.
(d) He can be made liable since he claimed the device has magical qualities.
81. Mrs. Z visited a famous Baba in her village. He advised her to perform a yagna which will guarantee that
she will have a baby boy. As part of the Yagna she had to sacrifice two lambs of a particular breed which
can be found in a small south Indian village. Knowing about the yagna and the need for two lambs,
Sushma who was a friend of Mrs. Z used her contacts to procure the lambs and gave them to Mrs. X.
The baba then performed the yagna guaranteeing the birth of a boy. Can they be made liable under the
act?
(a) The Baba will be made liable under the act since he promoted black magic.
(b) They will not be made liable since performing a yagna is not black magic.
(c) Mrs. Z and the baba cannot be made liable since they only performed the yagna and no harm was
done to anyone.
(d) Mrs. Z, Baba and Sushma will be made liable since they performed act of black magic.

MOCK CLAT #22
Passage (Q.82-Q.85): A consensual love affair is not a defence against the criminal charge of
kidnapping a minor girl under 18 years of age, the Supreme Court has held in a judgment. “Section 361
of the Indian Penal Code (kidnapping from lawful guardianship) bestows the ability to make crucial
decisions regarding a minor’s physical safety upon his/her guardians. Therefore, a minor girl’s infatuation
with her alleged kidnapper cannot by itself be allowed as a defence, for the same would amount to
surreptitiously undermining the protective essence of the offence of kidnapping,” Justice Surya Kant
observed in the recent judgment authored for the Bench, which included Justice S. Abdul Nazeer.
Though, he was found guilty of rape by the trial court, the Gujarat High Court, in 2009, acquitted him of
the crime, but held him guilty of kidnapping her by enticing her to flee with him.
“Such ‘enticement’ need not be direct or immediate in time and can also be through subtle actions like
winning over the affection of a minor girl. However, mere recovery of a missing minor from the custody of
a stranger would not ipso facto establish the offence of kidnapping,” the apex court upheld the High Court
verdict on January 12.
Source - [Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: “Consensual love affair not a defence against criminal
charge of kidnapping minor girl: SC”, The Hindu dated 15.01.2021]
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/consensual-love-affair-not-a-defence-against-criminal-charge-of-
kidnapping-minor-girl-sc/article33582012.ece
82. Rajat and Reema were best friends. They both went to a birthday party together and while coming back
they decided to visit the local café. Reema’s parents got worried seeing that she hasn’t returned from the
birthday party and started searching for her in the neighbourhood and enquired about her whereabouts.
Shriya, a friend of Reema informed her parents that she is at a local café with Rajat. Reema’s parents got
furious at Rajat because he took Reema to the café without their permission. They decide to report him to
the police for committing the offence of Kidnapping. Will Rajat be charged with kidnapping?
(a) He will be charged since he took Reema without her parents permission.
(b) He will not be charged since his act was not grave enough to be charged with kidnaping.
(c) He will be charged since he enticed Reema to go with him to the café.
(d) He will not be charged since he did not commit the offence of Kidnapping.
83. Rohan, Lilly and Rita are in 10th standard and good friends. They decide to go on a trip to Rishikesh.
Rohan and Lilly take permission from their parents to go on the trip however Rita did not take permission
from her parents. Rita decided to run away and go on the trip with Rohan and Lilly. Rita’s parents got
worried seeing her missing and informed the police. The police found Rita with Rohan and Lilly at a hotel
in Rishikesh. They decide to charge Rohan and Lilly along with the manager of the hotel, since he played
the role of an accomplice, for the offence of Kidnapping. Decide if they can be charged for kidnapping.
(a) Only Rohan and Lilly will be charged with kidnapping since they enticed Rita to go with them.
(b) They will not be charged with Kidnapping since Rohan and Lilly are themselves minor.
(c) They will not be charged with Kidnapping since they did not entice Rita.
(d) They all will be charged since the Hotel manager also played a part as an accomplice.
84. Vivek and Rose are very close friends and are in the same MBA college. They both fell in love. Vivek
asks Rose to go on a trip with him to Shimla. Rose refuses saying her parents won’t allow but Vivek
continues to compel her to go with him. She finally gives in and goes on the trip without informing her
parents. Rose’s parents are furious on finding out that she is missing and decide to file a police complaint
against Vivek for the offence of Kidnapping. Will Vivek be charged for kidnapping?
(a) He will be charged for kidnapping since he took Rose without her parent’s permission.
(b) He will be charged for kidnapping if he took Rose against her will.
(c) He will not be charged since he did not commit the offence of kidnapping.
(d) He will be charged since he compelled her to go on a trip which amounts to enticing.

MOCK CLAT #22
85. Chole’s parents are in the process of getting a divorce. The court gives Chole’s custody to her mother.
Chole’s father has visitation rights. Her father visits her every Saturday. Chole persists her father to take
her for a concert happening in Goa on Sunday. On seeing her willingness her father decides to take her
to the concert on Sunday. Chole’s mother got furious and decided to file a kidnapping case against
Chole’s father. Will her mother succeed in her claim?
(a) He will not be charged for kidnapping since he is her father.
(b) He will be charged for kidnapping since he took her to Goa for the concert.
(c) He will be charged for kidnapping since he enticed her and took her to Goa.
(d) He will not be charged for kidnapping since parents cannot be charged for kidnapping their children.
Passage (Q.86-Q.89): In explaining the ambit of Article 25, the Supreme Court held that Clause 1 of the
provision “does not grant the right to convert another person to one’s own religion but to transmit or
spread one’s religion by an exposition of its tenets.” The Court stated that “Article 25(1) guarantees
‘freedom of conscience’ to every citizen,” and “if a person purposely undertakes the conversion of
another person to his religion, as distinguished from his effort to transmit or spread the tenets of his
religion, that would impinge on” such a guarantee.
The Supreme Court failed to discuss the definitions of inducement and allurement, which was the primary
bone of contention. It also did not revert to the legislative history of Article 25—the term propagate was
included in the Constitution as a compromise to assure Christians that it would include freedom to
convert. Moreover, if one takes the reductionist understanding of propagation—given the court in this
case—the inclusion of such a term in the Indian Constitution would be rendered meaningless. The mere
right to propagate for the enlightenment of others would already be covered under the right to free
speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution.
Thus, we submit that the right to convert was actually included in Article 25, and, as such, the decision of
the Supreme Court in Stainislaus not only was erroneous but also led to instability in society, as Indian
Christians feel they have been cheated in this matter. The assurances given to them in the Constituent
Assembly on the inclusion of the word propagate have not been fulfilled, and the government has done
nothing to remedy the situation arising out of the highly restrictive interpretation of the term propagation
by the Supreme Court.
(Extract with edits from

https://digitalcommons.law.byu.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=3113&context=lawreview)
86. Indiana is a country in the North of Europe. Jattism and Saintism are two major religion followed there.
Jattism followers have always propogated their religion and try to expand it. The Jattis allow conversion
from other religions to theirs only if its voluntarily. For such conversions the rites and rituals have been
increased recently and involves yagnas and offerings to holy river, Vamuna which is the source of water
and life for the majority of the country. The environment activist lawyers have filed a PIL against the same
on the ground that such rites are causing pollution and contagious to the health of the people. Decide in
the light of Article 25.
(a) The propogation is protected as is not forceful conversion. Thus, withing the vires of Article 25.
(b) The propogation is protected because there is only performance of rites and rituals not any
conversions
(c) The propogation is not protected as it is harmful to the environment.
(d) The propogation is not protected as Supreme Court is against the conversion.

MOCK CLAT #22
87. Indiana is a country in the North of Europe. Jattism and Saintism are two major religion followed there.
Jattism followers have always propogated their religion and try to expand it. The Jattis allow conversion
from other religions to theirs only if its voluntarily. For such conversions, the rites and rituals have been
increased recently and involves yagnas and offerings to holy river, Vamuna which is the source of water
and life for the majority of the country. The environment activist lawyers have filed a PIL against the same
on the ground that such rites are causing pollution and contagious to the health of the people. The
Saintism preachers move to the court for the conversion discussed above. Will they succeed?
(a) Yes, since the conversion against Article 25 as it does not grant the right to convert another person to
one’s own religion but to transmit or spread one’s religion by an exposition of its tenets.
(b) No, Since it is within the purview of Article 25 because it , if one takes the reductionist understanding
of propagation
(c) Yes, because it is involuntary
(d) None of above
88. Talpade is a staunch follower of Vaishnism. He out of curiosity attends series of religious events of
Saintism and reads its scared books. Amid all this, he eventually gets influenced and starts to follow
Saintism leaving Vaishnism completely. Decide
(a) The conversion is protected as it is unfair to allow other religion person to attend such events and get
influenced.
(b) The conversion is not protected within Article 25 as it violates the right of Talpade
(c) Both A and B
89. Decide, suppose Saintism holds an event on the occasion of birth of their Lord whom they consider to be
the divine power behind the creation of the world and in whose name most of their rites and rituals are
held. The event has various cultural and religious programs like - reciting of holy books, sacrifices, holy
bath, dances and bhajans etc. The event show cases the limelight of the Saintism followers life and
liberal beliefs. There are no restrictions on visitors of other religion while allowing other religion followers
the front seat. The organizers also arranges for conversion rites for those who want to follow it, leaving
Jattism or other minor religions.
(a) Court can hold it constitutional under the reductionist idealogy of propagation
(b) Court can hold it unconstitutional under the reductionist idealogy of propagation
(c) Protection under Freedom of speech and expression as said that they were only holding an event to
propogate their religion under Article 25 and Article 19
(d) Both B and C
Passage (Q.90-Q.94): The Jharkhand High Court on Thursday made significant observations with
respect to payment of victim compensation under Section 357A of the Code of Criminal Procedure.
A Single Bench of Justice Ananda Sen has held that: The role of the Court is recommendatory in nature
and it cannot fix any quantum of victim compensation nor can direct the authority to make payment of the
same to the victim while exercising jurisdiction under Section 357A of CrPC. When a person is an
accused and the Court is not sure as to whether he has committed the offence or not, in that situation,
the accused cannot be saddled with the liability to pay compensation. To direct an accused to pay any
compensation or victim compensation under Section 357A of the Code at the stage of bail by terming it
as a condition of bail also may amount to prejudging the guilt of an accused and such a course of action
runs completely contrary to the basic principle of criminal jurisprudence, i.e., presumption of innocence
until proven guilty, the Bench held. It held that in terms of Section 357A of the Code, even if the accused
is not identified or he is discharged or acquitted, the victim is entitled to get compensation from the fund,
which is created by the State. Even if the accused is acquitted or discharged or even if the accused is not
identified, it is the duty of the State to protect its citizens and to rehabilitate them if they suffer loss and
injury arising out of a crime, the Court held. The Court is not vested with the power under Section 357A of
the Code to quantify the amount of compensation, rather that power is vested with the Legal Services
Authority.
[Source- Akshita Saxena, ‘Section 357A- Court's Role Is Only Recommendatory, Court Cannot Fix Any
Quantum of Compensation to Victim: Jharkhand High Court’, Live Law, <https://www.livelaw.in/news-

MOCK CLAT #22
updates/jharkhand-high-court-victim-quantum-of-compensation-357a-bail-stage-169841>, as accessed
on 16th Feb. 2021]
90. Pihu was a paramour of Salim. They want to get married but her family was against the inter caste
marriage. They decided to run away and get into wedding ties. But Pihu’s brother gets to know about this
plan and informed other family members of the same. He went to Salim and asked him to stay away from
her sister or else he will be beaten up to death soon. Salim’s friend Asim was enraged with this
unhealthy conversation and went to Pihu. He trapped her into a conversation and suddenly throws a
bottle full of acid on her face. She gets badly burnt and was taken to hospital. Salim testified Aim to be
the attacker and Asim was arrested by the police. The trial court-
(a) Can provide the compensation to Pihu under section 357A of Cr.P.C to incur medical expenses and
other additional charges spend for curing acid attack.
(b) Cannot provide the compensation to Pihu under section 357A of Cr.P.C as court do not have power
to fix such compensation for victim and direct Asim to provide the same.
(c) Can provide the compensation to Pihu as court is only quantifying the amount of compensation but
only directing Asim to pay whatever the amount incurred for medical expenses by Pihu.
(d) Cannot provide the compensation to Pihu as court has only recommendatory power under section
357A of Cr.P.C and thus, has to direct the local authorities to pay the amount.
91. Nitu was a medical student aged 21 years was with her friend Shalin. They went for dinner one night and
were returning back to home at about 12 in night. They were waiting for a bus and saw a mini bus coming
towards them with 3-4 passengers in it. They get into the bus and saw that all 5 people in bus had
conspired to hire Nitu and her friend. They ran to get down from the bus but were forcefully taken to back
seat of the bus and were tied separately. The boy was beaten up badly and was thrown out of bus in mid-
way. One by one other boy including the driver went back seat to Nitu and attempted rape with her. She
was brutally assaulted and was left half dead in the bus. The police reported the crime and arrested 4 out
of 5 accused and trial begins. The magistrate denied the bail at prima facie case and asked for
compensation of Rs. 1,00,000 to be payable to victim suffering medical expenses in Singapore. The
defence lawyer contended it to be unlawful. Decide-
(a) The court cannot grant such victim compensation to Nitu in case of rape as there is no sufficient proof
prima facie that these 4 accused had committed the offence.
(b) The court can grant victim compensation to Nitu as 4 out of 5 accused were arrested and can be
asked to pay the medical expenses incurred by the victim to save her life.
(c) The court cannot grant such victim compensation to Nitu as it has to assess the injury caused and
ascertain the amount to be paid and can only direct state authorities for the same.
(d) The court can grant victim compensation to Nitu as crime committed by accused was grave in nature
and victim was brutally assaulted and raped.
92. Munii, a minor girl of 13 year old, was sexually abused by a 30 year old man, Mr. Rajesh. Mother of Munii
filed a complaint in the District Legal Services Authority (DLSA) of state of Odisha. DLSA took the case to
trial court and charges were framed under POCSO against Mr. Rajesh. Bail application was denied and
court asked for the compensation to be paid to the family members of Munii for mental and physical
trauma suffered by her. Mr. Rajesh consulted his lawyer and contended that court cannot ask for victim
compensation unless his guilt his decided and as such no bail is granted does not prove his guilt in the
case. Regardless of this, court asked the DLSA authorities to supervise the compensation to be paid to
victim for injuries done. Decide-
(a) The court was not correct in granting victim compensation to Munii and contention put forth by Mr.
Rajesh is valid. No compensation can be granted unless his guilt is proved.
(b) The court was correct in granting victim compensation to Munii and contention put forth by Mr. Rajesh
is invalid. Court has validly directed the DLSA to look after the compensation to be paid.
(c) The court was incorrect in granting victim compensation to Munii as it has no power under section
357A of Cr.P.C to quantify such compensation and force the accused to pay the said amount.
(d) The court was correct in granting victim compensation to Munii and contention put forth by Mr. Rajesh
is invalid because principle under POCSO Act is guilty until proven innocent and hence Mr. Rajesh is
guilty of the said offence.

MOCK CLAT #22
93. A recent case was observed by the Supreme Court where accused was in live-in-relationship with her
paramour and was having sexual pleasures timely with each other consent. Later, she asked the
accused to marry her or she will file a frivolous case against him for committing rape with her. Also, it
comes to the notice of the accused that the girl was minor and she deliberately had not disclosed her age
to him. He refused for marrying the girl as he was with him only to fulfill his sexual needs. The court dealt
with the case and found accused to be guilty of the offence of rape, prima facie, and that too of a minor
girl. The court refused bail to the accused and asked him to marry the girl if he wanted to be acquitted or
pay her the compensation for the same. The accused readily agreed to the same. Decide-
(a) The court cannot grant the accused bail based on the condition to marry the victim. The court can
only ask him for compensation to be paid.
(b) The court can neither grant conditional bail to marry the victim girl nor can ask accuse for
compensation. It can only convict the accused based on sufficient evidences.
(c) The court can grant the accused conditional bail to marry the victim girl but cannot ask him for victim
compensation as it has no power to direct such orders.
(d) The court can grant both conditional bails to the accused to marry the girl and ask him for the
compensation to be paid to the victim. It is under the power and jurisdiction of the court.
94. The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 was enacted to constitute legal services authorities for providing
free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society to ensure that opportunities for
securing justice were not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities and to organize
Lok Adalats to ensure that the operation of the legal system promoted justice on a basis of equal
opportunity. The system of Lok Adalat, which is an innovative mechanism for alternate dispute resolution,
has proved effective for resolving disputes in a spirit of conciliation outside the courts. What can be the
reason behind introducing Legal Services Authorities in each state?
(a) Legal Services Authorities in each state would ensure that cases are being decided fluently and act
as check and balance on judiciary.
(b) The State being the paramount protector of the life and liberty of each and every citizen has some
responsibility towards them. So victim compensation has to be paid by from state funds.
(c) The State has the duty to safeguard the fundamental rights of the citizens and in any offence
committed against the victim is deemed to be against the state and thus has to safeguard its
interests.
(d) Legal Services Authorities are being introduced to interfere with the arbitrary rulings of the court in
order to provide victim compensation and legislature overlaps with the working of judiciary.
Passage (Q.95-Q.99): “...we hold that once the parties agree to file a joint petition, pursuant to an
agreement/compromise in pending proceedings, then the parties are estopped from resiling from the
agreement. Therefore, the unilateral withdrawal of consent by the respondent, especially after the
appellant has performed his part of the terms in the memorandum of agreement, is only a sharp practice
which cannot be permitted or tolerated for a moment as it would shatter the faith of the litigants in the
justice delivery system and make a mockery of alternative dispute resolution mechanism", observed a
division bench comprising Justices A M Muhammed Mustaque and CS Dias of the Kerala high court. The
judgment authored by Justice Dias observed:"Section 2 (e) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 states that
every promise and every set of promises, forming the consideration for each other, is an agreement.
There were reciprocal promises agreed by the parties, falling within the ambit of Section 51 of the Indian
Contract Act, 1872, which was duly performed by the appellant. The respondent on getting the custody of
the children and receiving the compensation was obliged to perform her part of the agreement, i.e., to
give her consent for dissolution of the marriage". A reference was made to the judgment of the Bombay
High Court in Prakash Alumal Kalandari v. Jahnavi Prakash Kalandari which held that when the parties
agree to convert a pending petition for divorce to a petition for divorce by mutual consent, on the basis of
a compromise, and on one of the parties fulfilling the terms of the compromise, the other party cannot
unilaterally withdraw consent. The Court held that the wife was precluded from withdrawing her consent
by the principles of promissory estoppels. "We are of the definite opinion that the unilateral withdrawal of
consent by the respondent is unsustainable in law and the Family Court erred by allowing the
applications filed by the respondent and dismissing the original petition", the judgment held.

MOCK CLAT #22
[Source- -‘Unilateral Withdrawal of Consent from Joint Divorce Petition, After Other Party Has Performed
Obligations under Agreement, Cannot Be Permitted: Kerala’, <https://www.livelaw.in/news-
updates/unilateral-withdrawal-consent-from-joint-divorce-petition-impermissible-kerala-high-court-
169752>, as accessed on 17th Feb. 2021]
95. Sneha and Shaily entered into an agreement in which Sneha will be delivering 100 bulks of fashionable
clothes to Shaily and she will be sharing the profits whatsoever earned from sale of those clothes. Shaily
sold the 90 pieces on the decided price and shared those profits with Sneha as decided among them.
The last ten pieces she sold with extra margin of Rs. 100 per piece and kept that extra profit with her and
shared the usual profit with Sneha. Sneha get to know about this arrangement Shaily has done and
asked her to share the profit earned from extra margin. But Shaily refused to do so. Decide-
(a) Shaily has to share that part of extra margin with Sneha as she was party to the contract and they
both had entered into a valid agreement.
(b) Shaily need not have to share that part of extra margin with Sneha as she had done her part in the
agreement and Sneha cannot claim for something which is not agreed between them.
(c) Shaily need not have to share the part of extra margin with Sneha as there has to be some
consideration from Sneha for claiming that extra profit.
(d) Shaily has to share the part of extra margin with Sneha as Sneha has validly performed her part and
she cannot withdraw from the agreement as decided.
96. Dheeraj has two house properties and he decided to give one of them at rent. Since it was double storey
building, he thought to have two tenants instead on one to have more rental income and shared an
advertisement in the newspaper regarding the same. Mohit and Manoj approached Dheeraj to have the
rental apartment and subsequently decided their rental amount of Rs. 5000 each per month. Manoj
asked Dheeraj that he will be shifting to the house after a period of month as he is busy with his prior
commitments, to which Dheeraj accepted. Soon after a week, Mrinal approached Dheeraj and asked him
to give her the apartment for rent to which she will pay Rs. 8000 per month, more than Manoj. Dheeraj
agreed to the proposal and gave her the apartment. Mohit informed Manoj of the same and Mohit sued
Dheeraj for breach of contract. Decide-
(a) Dheeraj is liable for breach of contract and cannot give Mrinal apartment on rent though for higher
amount as he is bound by the contract with Manoj and estopped from doing so.
(b) Dheeraj is not liable for breach of contract and can give Mrinal apartment on rent as he is getting a
benefit of Rs. 3000 from her and there was no valid acceptance of proposal by Manoj.
(c) Dheeraj is liable for breach of contract as he had validly accepted the proposal of Manoj and can
trace back from his promise if given much higher amount than Manoj.
(d) Dheeraj is not laible for breach of contract as there was no sufficient consideration from Manoj in the
agreement for rent and hence Dheeraj gave it to Mrinal for higher amount.
97. Mr. Shahjad was a business man and was great lover of music. He visited Singapore for business
purpose and met Rahul Vaidya, one of the best singers of India and asked him for a concert on his
anniversary. Rahul agreed to the proposal and asked for amount of Rs. 5 lakh to be given in advance. On
day of anniversary of Mr. Shahjad, Rahul didn’t turn up as he was suffering from cold and having the bad
throat. Mr. Shahjad sued Rahul for specific performance or refunds the amount with damages. Rahul
contended it not to be breach of contract and he is not liable to refund the amount of Rs.5 lakh. Decide-
(a) Rahul is correct in his contention and he is not liable for breach of contract as there is no sufficient
consideration paid by Mr. Shahjad for the agreement to be valid.
(b) Rahul is incorrect in his contention and he is liable for breach of contract as he cannot withdraw his
consent unilaterally from the agreement and has to perform in the concert as promised.
(c) Rahul is correct in his contention and he is not liable for breach of contract as there was no reciprocal
promise on part of either party and thus, he can unilaterally withdraw his consent.
(d) Rahul is incorrect in his contention and is liable for breach of contract as there is valid acceptance
and proposal from both sides and valid consideration given. Rahul has to go for specific performance.

MOCK CLAT #22
98. Priya and Sushil were in love of each other and never want to be separated. Priya asked Sushil to
promise that he will never leave her alone in her lifetime. They started living in live-in-relationship without
actually being married to each other. Sushil got married to another girl named Sukanya and they were
living their happy life. Priya got to know about their marriage and claimed the marriage to be invalid as
she has already taken promise from Sushil. Sushil cannot revoke his promise and he has to take divorce
from Sukanya. Sushil refused Priya and stated her that he still loves her but cannot marry her or divorce
Sukanya. Priya sued him for breach of contract. Decide-
(a) Sushil cannot withdraw his consent unilaterally from the promise given to Priya and he has to keep
his promise which he breached after marrying to Sukanya.
(b) Sushil can withdraw his consent unilaterally from the promise given to Priya as it was given by
mistake and there is no valid acceptance to such proposal.
(c) Sushil cannot withdraw his consent unilaterally from the promise given to Priya as there is sufficient
consideration in form of love from Priya and it’s a valid agreement.
(d) Sushil can withdraw his consent unilaterally from the promise given to Priya as it was not a valid
agreement between them and just mere promise which is not reciprocal.
99. A divorce petition was filed in the family court of Patna where Arti and her husband Shubham want to get
divorced for not having mutual understanding as to their marriage. She claimed that her marriage was
done in forceful circumstances and she does not think this marriage to be fit to be continued. Shubham
also alleged that Arti is not a woman of good character and he does not want to share his remaining life
with her. The court assumes both of them to be on mutual grounds and suggested for outside court
settlement of any sum or amount to be taken or returned back. Court will not interfere unless the decision
is reached within period of 2 months. In outside court settlement they decided to give child custody to Arti
and taking it as good opportunity to claim more monetary benefits, Arti withdraws her consent to go by
outside court settlement and want court to decide the matter. Decide-
(a) Arti cannot do so as she first mutually agreed for outside court settlement and cannot withdraw her
consent unilaterally from such agreement.
(b) Arti can do so as it was mere agreement to go for outside court settlement and she can withdraw her
consent unilaterally from such agreement and go by court orders.
(c) Arti cannot do so as Shubham as already agreed to the outside court settlement decision and she
cannot withdraw her consent once the decision is reached.
(d) Arti can do so as there was no agreement as to not withdrawing her unilateral consent from outside
court settlement procedure and can exercise it as her right.
Passage (Q.100-Q.104): Section 129 of the Criminal Procedure Code includes the power to dissolve
an unlawful assembly by civil force. The terms civil force, as opposed to armed force, suggest the
police’s use of force. In the case of Karam Singh v. Hardayal Singh, it was held th at there are three
prerequisites to be fulfilled before any force can be used.
Firstly, there should be an unlawful assembly with the object of committing violence or an assembly of
five or more persons likely to cause a disturbance of the public peace. Secondly, such an assembly
should be ordered to be dissolved and, thirdly, the assembly should have refused to disperse despite
such orders to disperse. Thus the police can never have any justification from their supervisors or the
political executive for not acting or waiting for orders.
It is a popular misconception that the police need an order from a magistrate in order to act. Section
129 CrPC speaks of ‘Any executive magistrate or officer in charge of a police station or, in the
absence of such officer in charge, any police officer, not below the rank of a sub-inspector’. This
means that any one of them can order the use of force to disperse an unlawful assembly. One often
finds police officers taking a plea that while they wanted to use force, the exe cutive magistrate did not
issue orders even though the law does not say that only an executive magistrate can issue such an
order.
If there is an executive magistrate around, it is generally considered good practice to obtain her or his
orders, but it is not stated anywhere that it is mandatory. On the contrary, police officers would be
wrong in presuming that no fault can be found with them if the order to use force or lethal force was
duly given by an executive magistrate.

MOCK CLAT #22
[N.C. Asthana, ‘Explained: Why the Police Fails at Handling Riots’ (2020) The Wire
<https://thewire.in/law/delhi-police-riots> as accessed on 28 November 2020]
100. Inspector Varun is in charge of a squad of five police constables tasked with arresting Richa, a
notorious gangster who has been running away from the police for some time. He receives information
that Richa is hiding in a remote Mumbai suburb and decides to take the local train as soon as possible
to catch her. In order to board the train, the Inspector and his team arrive at Dadar station, but when
they get there the platform is incredibly crowded and they are unable to get to the train. Inspector
Varun yells at the people on the platform angrily, asking them to get out of the way, but no one hears
him, since it’s the rush hour. To clear the crowd, Inspector Varun opened fire. As he is called up for
doing so by the police, he pleads that he simply exerted his powers under Section 129 CrPC. Is his
argument valid?
(a) No, Inspector Varun’s argument is not valid since it would have been better for him to take a police
van to capture Richa rather than boarding a local train.
(b) No, Inspector Varun’s argument is not valid since the crowd on the platform did not constitute an
unlawful assembly, and the Inspector did not have the authority to use force on them under
Section 129 of the CrPC.
(c) Yes, Inspector Varun’s argument is valid since by obstructing the police from catching the train,
the people on the platform constituted an unlawful assembly.
(d) Yes, Inspector Varun’s argument is valid since he had already warned the people to disperse, and
he only used force when they did not disperse and refused to follow his commands.
101. Inspector Varun and his team finally reached the location where Richa was hiding, a park in a remote
suburb. There, they found Richa talking to two of her associates, and overhear them planning to r ob a
nearby bank. Inspector Varun shouts out to Richa and her associates, telling them to “Stand still” and
“Do not move!” Richa and her associates instead start running away from the spot, and Inspector
Varun and his team chase them down and start hitting them with lathis (wooden sticks). Once again,
Inspector Varun claims that this was a valid exercise of his power under Section 129 of the CrPC.
Which of the following are reasons why this was not a valid exercise of the Inspector’s powers under
Section 129 of the CrPC?
(a) Richa and her two associates together constitute three people which is less than five in number,
and therefore they did not constitute an unlawful assembly.
(b) Inspector Varun had ordered Richa and her associates to stand still, rather than disperse, and
therefore the requirements of Section 129 of the CrPC were not fulfilled.
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
102. Richa and her associates ran away from the spot, and when Inspector Varun’s team finally caught up
with them, five more of Richa’s associates have joined her. The eight of them were standing outside a
local bank, armed with sticks and stones, and were breaking the windows of the bank in an attempt to
scare people and rob the bank. As Inspector Varun was tired of chasing Richa and her group and had
stopped somewhere to rest, sub-inspector Kumar was leading the police team, and he ordered the
team to start firing upon Richa’s group to stop them. Did he have the authority to do so?
(a) No, Kumar has no authority to do so since a sub-inspector does not have the authority to order the
use of force under Section 129 of the CrPC.
(b) No, Kumar has no authority to use force against Richa and her group since they did not constitute
an unlawful assembly.
(c) Yes, Kumar has the authority to use force against Richa and her group since their actions clearly
showed that they constituted an unlawful assembly.
(d) Yes, Kumar has the authority to use force under Section 129 CrPC against Richa and her group to
disperse the unlawful assembly since he was leading the police team at the time.

MOCK CLAT #22
103. With the above context, Inspector Varun finally caught up with his team, and managed to stop them
just before they opened fire on Richa and her associates. He then shouted at Richa and her group to
disperse, and when they did not, he tried to call up the local executive magistrate, to obtain her order
to use force on Richa and her associates. Was it necessary for him to obtain the executive
magistrate’s orders in that situation?
(a) Yes, it was necessary for Inspector Varun to obtain the executive magistrate’s orders since only an
executive magistrate can order the use of force under Section 129 of the CrPC.
(b) No, it was not necessary for Inspector Varun to obtain the executive magistrate’s orders since the
sub-inspector Kumar had already issued the order to use force on Richa and her associates, and
there was no need for another order.
(c) No, it was not necessary for Inspector Varun to obtain the executive magistrate’s orders since he
himself had the authority under Section 129 of the CrPC to order the use of force to disperse an
unlawful assembly.
(d) Yes, it was necessary for Inspector Varun to obtain the executive magistrate’s orders since
obtaining the permission of the executive magistrate in such situations is always more advisable.
104. When the executive magistrate did not pick up Inspector Varun’s call, he decided to take matters into
his own hands. He shouted again at Richa’s group, telling them to disperse. This time, Richa and her
group got scared, and ran away in different directions. Inspector Varun was, however, very keen to
catch them, and he then ordered his team to start firing at them. Did he have the authority to do so
under Section 129 of the CrPC?
(a) Yes, Inspector Varun has the authority to do so since an inspector can order the use of force to
disperse an unlawful assembly under Section 129 of the CrPC.
(b) Yes, Inspector Varun has the authority to do so since Richa and her group did not listen to his
order to disperse when he shouted at them for the first time.
(c) No, Inspector Varun has no authority to do so since Richa and her group did not constitute an
unlawful assembly.
(d) No, Inspector Varun has no authority to do so since Richa and her group has already dispersed in
response to his orders.

MOCK CLAT #22
SECTION - D: LOGICAL REASONING
Passage (Q.105-Q.109): Everyone you know is on Facebook, Twitter, Instagram, and WhatsApp. Almost
everyone. When ‘almost everyone you know’ is on a platform, it becomes difficult to not be on it. You also
won’t be able to function in society. Day to day conversations sound alien to you. This is the power of
‘network effect’. Every ‘platform’ out there is striving to reach a point where ‘everyone’ is forced to use
their platform. This is why every new user is of great value to any platform.
We see network effect, or effects, play out in various scenarios. Elections in India are all about the
network effect. A lot of voters, more than enough to influence the outcome, like to vote for the candidate
or party ‘everyone’ is voting for. This is what is colloquially known in the Hindi heartland as the ‘hawa’.
Rumours of WhatsApp’s death may be vastly exaggerated, but you never know. A recent privacy policy
update on WhatsApp doesn’t change much, because it was already sharing your metadata with
Facebook. Thanks to end-to-end encryption, your content data is not shared. Or so we are supposed to
believe. This has increased the migration towards the new app Signal.
What’s common in mass-market social media platforms that succeed is that their early adoption and
promotion is done by techies and nerds. This makes new platforms objects of curiosity and desire.
Platforms that start out politically don’t succeed, because they can by definition never achieve network
effect. Some time ago, liberals rebelling against Twitter wanted to shift to Mastodon, but the idea soon
fizzled out. Peddling any kind of agenda on social media, or just hollow influencer-ing to make money,
needs the social media platform to have network effects. Given the supreme power of network effect,
what would it be like if you were banned from a ‘universal’ platform? It would be akin to social
ostracisation. Trump and his supporters are also unhappy with their second-biggest weapon, Fox News,
which they feel didn’t stand by Trump and projected Joe Biden as the winner on counting day. Trump
now wants to have his own TV channel, his own social media platform. Good luck to him.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from article published in The Print.
105. Which of the following strengthens one of the arguments put forward by the author?
(a) Many social media accounts like Orkut, Google+, MySpace etc. have died out as users have moved
on
(b) Many rumors have been started on WhatsApp regarding moving away from social media
(c) Netflix has increased its revenues in huge amounts during the pandemic-lockdown
106. Which of the following can’t be an example of network effect as cited by the author?
(a) The start of Mastodon and liberals shifting away from Twitter and immigrating to the former
(b) The immigration to Signal from WhatsApp in recent times
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b

(a) The Hindi heartland of India is more prone to Network effects
(b) All media platforms are formed by nerds and tech-whiz people
(c) Every social media platform tries to cash in on the Network effect
108. Which of the following misconceptions have been indicated by the author?
(a) Signal has better encryption than WhatsApp
(b) Twitter is not an ideal place for liberals
(c) Products of tech-geniuses create curiosity and desire among the daily-users
(d) The recent update in WhatsApp is a drastic one in terms of privacy

MOCK CLAT #22
109. Which of the following would the author agree with?

1. Network effects can be achieved only in ‘universal’ platforms
2. Trump won’t be able to achieve much with his new social media and/or TV channel
3. Not everyone is on social media platforms
Passage (Q.110-Q.114): Bullying is a greater problem than most people realize. The prompt is
misinformative. Bullying still exists. In fact, It's more rampant than ever. With the introduction of the
Internet and more exposure to social media, bullying has more fuel to keep burning. Yes, Bullying
SHOULD stop. However, saying this is nothing more than being idealistic.
Bullying is a greater problem than most people realize. In fact, among teenagers, the second leading
cause of death is suicide (more teens die from suicide each year than from homicides). In fact, the
percentage of depression and anxiety in kids aged 6 to 17 has nearly doubled from 2007 to 2012: from 5.
4 to 8. 4 percent. This is not a problem that you can shrug off. In fact, one in five students has been
reported to been bullied (this figure is probably higher due to people being too embarrassed to share their
experience).
And what's with the edgy saying "man up"? People seem to think bullying is mostly a bunch of jeering
and simple one-liners, like "you're ugly", But this is not the primary reason bullying is a huge problem. To
be a bully is to take a magnifying glass, peer into a person's insecurities and vulnerabilities, and fault
them for it: repeatedly. To be a bully is to relentlessly, and consciously, say hurtful things about a
person's living situation (maybe their parents can't get food on the table), a person's social situation
(maybe they have high-functioning autism and can't make any friends), or something about their physical
appearance (a girl who can't lose weight despite trying).
Yes, it's beneficial to stop being so melodramatic in today's society, to use our logical minds once in a
while to stop, think, and process information before acting. But normalizing bullying isn't it.
110. Which of the following conclusion supports the passage?

(a) Being ugly is a signal to be bullied.
(b) Bullying is more rampant than ever.
(c) Anxiety and Depression should stop immediately among 6 to 17 years kids.
(d) Bullying a kid leads to mental disorder.
111. Which of the following if true most strengthens the passage?

(a) Bullying should be an integral part of student curriculum.
(b) Internet is the main cause of suicide among students.
(c) Bullying leads to mental disorder among kids that leads to suicidal depression.
(d) Bulling leads to the overall development of a children.
112. The following statement “In fact, the percentage of depression and anxiety in kids aged 6 to 17 has
nearly doubled from 2007 to 2012, from 5. 4 to 8. 4 percent.
(a) Forms the premise of the passage.
(b) Forms the assumption of the passage.
(c) weakens the passage.
(d) is inference of the passage.
113. Which of the following if true would cast the most doubt on…?
(a) Bullying should be abolished specially among kids.
(b) Kids and adults are equally affected from bullying.
(c) One out of five students suffer from depression due to bullying.
(d) Bullying decreases with time.

MOCK CLAT #22
114. Which of the following statements best supports the conclusion.

(a) Bullying is directly proportional to the increase in depression level of people.
(b) Bullying is not directly proportional to the increase in depression level of people.
(c) Bullying leads to the feeling of inferiority which in turn leads to depression.
Passage (Q.115-Q.119): Global warming is caused by the excessive release of CO2 (carbon dioxide)
into the air. These released amounts of carbon dioxide gather in the ozone layer, which is supposed to
protect the world from the sun's dangerous ultra-violet rays. When the CO2 is in the ozone layer, instead
of defending the world from the heat, it absorbs it. This is where “global warming” comes from. It literally
is like it sounds. When this heat is in the ozone, it causes serious climatic changes in many regions
throughout the world.
One of the issues that attracts most of the world is the rapid melting of the ice caps located in the
Antarctic region. When the ice caps melt, it adds to the oceans around the world. This happens due to
the fact that the heat trapped inside the Ozone increases the temperature. This rapid increase of water
amount can lead to flooding and the disruption of the North Atlantic Current. This also contributes to
climate changes. Flooding would have to attain most of the world's attention. This is primarily due to
major cities that lie on the coasts. An example of why this issue is most important is the fact that one of
the last pieces that broke off the ice caps was about the size of Rhode Island.
115. Which of the following is true as per the above passage?

(a) The melting ice of the Antarctic region adds to the rising water levels in the oceans all around the
world.
(b) Melting of the ice cap about the size of Rhode island is bad.
(c) Absorption of the CO2 in the ozone layer heats up the climate in the world.
116. Which of the following assumption is made by the author of the passage in concluding that absorption of
CO2 in the Ozone layer causes climate change?
(a) The Ozone layer changes its role to a protector while trapping the CO2.
(b) The heat is responsible for the melting of the ice.
(c) The heat trapped into the Ozone layer due to the absorption of CO2 raises the temperature.
(d) All the above
117. Which of the following statement, if true, weakens the author’s argument?
(a) A study in New Scientist (a weekly magazine that covers all aspects of science and technology)
reported peer-reviewed research that Ozone layer traps gargantuan amounts of atmospheric CO2.
(b) Many people ardently believe that climate change is just a hoax.
(c) A study in Nature (a British weekly scientific journal) reported peer-reviewed research that Ozone
layer traps picayune amounts of atmospheric CO2.
118. Which of the following is the most appropriate conclusion of the passage?
(a) The excessive melting of the ice cap is the reason for the rise of Global Warming.
(b) The excessive release of the CO2 in the air is the reason for the Global Warming.
(c) The rise of the Global Warming will lead to the instability of the planet Earth.
(d) The Ozone layer is meant to protect us from the ultra-violet rays of the sun.
119. Based on the information given in the passage, which of the following is most likely to be true?
(a) The water which comes from the melting of the ice caps is then added to the oceans throughout the
world.
(b) The rapid increase of water in the oceans causes floods and destruction.
(c) The excessive release of the CO2 also leads to the melting of ice caps.

MOCK CLAT #22
120. The year 2016 saw many road accidents on highways in Madhya Pradesh. Under the guidance of Alok
Sanjar (member of Parliament), a high powered committee was constituted to identify the cause for the
same and suggest remedial measures. They came to the conclusion that as most vehicles were driven at
high speed on highways, the drivers would lose control of the same and accidents would follow.
Consequently, a speed limit of 65 kms. per hour was set for the highways. The subsequent two years
saw a fall in the total number of road accidents. However, since 2018 the average speed of the vehicles
on highways has shown a remarkable increase. Surprisingly, the number of accidents still continues to
fall.
Which of the following most reasonably explains why the number of accidents continue to fall despite an
increase in the average speed of the vehicles driven on highways?
(a) The committee had erred in concluding that the high speed of the vehicles driven on highways was
the cause of the large number of accidents.
(b) The fall in the number of accidents was due to a fall in the total number of cases of drunk driving
detected since 2018.
(c) Those exceeding the speed limit are doing so by a very high margin.
(d) Since 2018, more drivers than before have become aware of the dangers of speeding on highways
and hence drive more carefully.
121. Statement: Should ‘Personal Finance’ be taught in schools?

Arguments:
I. Yes. It will equip the school students with knowledge about investing, savings etc. and help them in
making informed decisions when they’re earning.
II. No. School students should be kept away from money matters as it can have a negative impact on
them.
(a) only argument I is strong (b) only argument II is strong;
(c) either I or II is strong (d) neither I nor II is strong;
122. Shad Ali’s next movie Soorma, which again features Abhishek Bachhan, is slated to hit the theatres in
September. Judging by the immense success of his first movie titled Bunty aur Bubly, which has a
fabulous performance by Abhishek Bachhan, this movie is expected to do well at the box office.
Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument in the passage above?
(a) Bunty aur Bubly did not win Filmfare Award in spite of its success.
(b) Bunty aur Bubly, though a success, was not appreciated by all sections of society
(c) Abhishek Bachhan has had six flops in a row after Bunty aur Bubly
(d) Shad Ali has been asked to write the script for Shahrukh Khan’s next movie.
Passage (Q.123-Q.127): Economic freedom is essential to economic growth and true measure of
economic freedom is free trade. Of the 142 nations whose economies have been observed during a
seven-year period for a study, the nations with the most free trade had more economic growth than the
nations with the least free trade. A growing economy increases the demand for goods and services. As
demand increases, businesses start to expand and create more and better-paying jobs.
Innovation provides new technology that allows countries to produce more, cure more diseases, pollute
less, improve education, and choose from a greater range of investment opportunities. This results in
economic growth allowing for better-paying jobs, higher standards of living, and greater appreciation of
benefits of living in a peaceful society. New technologies bring about change in the market which, as US
history shows, benefits society as a whole. One of the reasons why economic recessions and
depressions happen would be because of new technologies challenging older methods of production.
This makes some sectors suffer until they can adapt to the new changes which end the economic woes
and benefit society as all sectors would be advanced in the current technology now.

MOCK CLAT #22
123. The author’s main point is that…

(a) Free trade leads to economic development of the country.
(b) Businessman makes lot of money from free trade.
(c) Technology changes the living standard of the nation
(d) Some sectors suffer until they can adapt to the new changes.
124. Which of the following if true most undermine the passage?

(a) Improving technology makes some service processes obsolete.
(b) Free trade gives rise to more instances of business frauds.
(c) USA gives more leverage to trade than does any other country in the world.
125. Which of the following is an assumption made in the passage?

(a) USA spends lot of money in economic development.
(b) Increase in unemployment is due to increase in technology.
(c) Free trade gives people to think innovatively which leads to economic development.
(d) Decrease in unemployment is due to decrease in technology.
126. Which of the following Best supports the passage?

(a) Countries with less free trade leverage are never poor.
(b) Increase in free trade has a huge impact on poverty.
(c) Employment of a nation can be affected by its free trade policy.
(d) Opportunities in business increases with more free trade leverages.
127. Author’s statement that “Of the 142 nations whose economies have been observed during a seven-year
period for a study”
(a) Forms the assumptions of the passage.
(b) Undermines the passage
(c) Forms the evidence to support the passage.
Direction (Q.128.-Q.132): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
All the streets of a city are either perpendicular or parallel to one another. The streets are all straight.
Streets N, O, P, Q and R are parallel to one another. Streets S, T, U, V, W, X, and Y are horizontally
parallel to one another,
i. Street N is 1 km east of Street O.
ii. Street O is ½ km west of Street P.
iii. Street Q is 1 km west of Street R.
iv. Street S is ½ km south of Street T.
v. Street U is 1 km north of Street V.
vi. Street W is ½ km north of Street X.
vii. Street W is 1 km south of Street Y.
128. If W is parallel to U and W is ½ km south of V and 1 km north of T, then which two streets would be 2 km
apart?
(a) U and W (b) V and S (c) V and T (d) W and T
129. Which of the following possibilities would make two streets coincide?
(a) X is ½ km north of U (b) P is 1 km west of Q
(c) O is ½ km east of R (d) O is ½ km east of Q

MOCK CLAT #22
130. If street R is between O and P, then the distance between P and Q is?
(a) ½ km (b) 1 km (c) 1.5 km (d) 1.25 km
131. If street R is between O and P, then which of the following is false?

(a) Q is 1.75 km west of N (b) P is less than 1 km from Q
(c) R is less than 1 km from N (d) Q is less than 1 km from O
132. Which of the following is necessarily true?

(a) R and O intersect (b) Q is 2 km west of O
(c) Y is 1.5 km north of X (d) O is at least 2 km west of N
Directions (Q.133 and Q.134): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F have different amount of money. D has less money than B and F. C has
more money than E. C has less money than only two person. E has more money than only one person. D
has not the least amount of money. B has not the highest money. The persons who have second highest
and the third lowest money have 50 rupee and 30 rupee respectively.
133. Who among following has highest money?

(a) A (b) F (c) B (d) D
134. Who among following have possibly 20 rupee?

(a) F (b) E (c) C (d) Data Inadequate

MOCK CLAT #22
Directions (Q.135-Q.139): Study the graphs below and answer the questions that follow.
Rainfall in August and rainfall during the entire June – September season over the years
in August Total rainfall in June-Sept
1100
890 900 880 895 890

900
Rainfall(in mlimetres)
700
700
500
300 280
300 250 255 265
190
100
2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011
Year
Production of foodgrains(in millions tonnes) over years

Rice Wheat Peas
110
100 100
Production (in millions tonnes)
90 90
85
80 70 78 78
70 70 68
60 60 60 68
50 50
40 40 42
32 35
30 30
25
20
10
0
2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011
Year
135. What is the approximate percentage of average rainfall in August with respect to that in June to
September for all the given years?
(a) 32% (b) 35% (c) 30% (d) 38%

MOCK CLAT #22
136. What is the percentage of rainfall in August 2009 with respect to that in same month in all the years
together?
(a) 14.66% (b) 12.33% (c) 16.13% (d) 18.43%
137. In which of the following years the percentage rainfall in August is maximum with respect to the total rainfall
in that year?
(a) 2006 (b) 2007 (c) 2008 (d) 2009
138. In which of the following years the production of wheat is maximum with respect to total rainfall in the same
year?
(a) 2006 (b) 2007 (c) 2008 (d) 2009
139. In which of the following years percentage increase/decrease in the production of rice is maximum with
respect to that of the previous year?
(a) 2006 (b) 2007 (c) 2008 (d) 2010
Directions (Q.140-Q.144): Study table below and answer the questions that follow:
Market share of Mosquito Repellent in Four Metropolitan Cities.
Period/ Mumbai Kolkata Delhi Chennai

Product 2003-04 2003-04 2003-04 2003-04
Baygon 20-15 35-40 20-15 20-30
Finit 20-25 30-15 15-10 20-20
Hit 45-40 25-35 35-35 10-10
Mortein 15-20 10-20 10-10 50-40
140. The maximum percentage increase in market share is :

(a) 60% (b) 50% (c) 80% (d) 100%
141. The city in which minimum number of products decreased their market shares in 2003-04 is :
(a) Mumbai (b) Delhi (c) Kolkata (d) Chennai
142. The market shares of which product did not increase in any city between the years 2003 to 2004 ?
(a) Baygon (b) Finit (c) Hit (d) None of these
143. The number of cities where the four brands taken together did not account for 100% market share for any
of the two given years is :
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
144. The number of products which had constant markets shares in one or more cities is:
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
Directions (Q.146-Q.150): From the data given below solve the questions:
Two brothers, Harish and Sanjay bought four acres of land in 1990 and started cultivating it in 1991. They
produced 1,000 Kg of jowar per acre that year. Being the elder brother, Harish decided the proportion in
which the total production would be shared. He retained 1,800 kg and gave the rest to Sanjay. In 1994
when the production was twice that in 1991, Harish gave 60% of the production to Sanjay. Sanjay found
that Harish was more considerate in that year than in 1992, when he had received 2,700 kg which was
only 200 kg more than what Harish would have retained, had the production been divided equally. In
1995 when the production was twice that of 1993, Harish retained 9,000 Kg Which was 75% of the total
production in 1995.
145. In 1991 Harish and Sanjay had shared the production in the ratio:
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 9 : 11 (c) 11 : 9 (d) none of the above

MOCK CLAT #22
146. The increase in production between 1993 and 1994 was:

(a) 1,000 Kg (b) 1,500 Kg (c) 2,000 Kg (d) 3,500 Kg
147. The quantity of jowar received by Harish in 1991 as a ratio of quantity received in 1995 is closer to :
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 5 (d) 1 : 4
148. The quantity received by Sanjay in 1994 was :

(a) four times the production of 1993 (b) one-fourth the production of 1993
(c) twice the production of 1992 (d) 40% of the production of 1995
149. Production in 1991 is what percent of production in 1995?

(a) 9.09% (b) 10% (c) 8.5% (d) 33.33%
150. Production in 1991 is what percent of production in 1993?

(a)66.67% (b) 33.33% (c) 11.11% (d) 22.22%

MOCK CLAT #22
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #22
USE FOR ROUGH WORK


MOCK CLAT #23
provided for.

Centre Name : _______________________ http://bit.ly/OMR_CLAT-23
Candidate Name : _______________________
Batch : _______________________
Contact No. : _______________________
Date of Exam : _______________________
MOCK CLAT #23
SECTION-A: ENGLISH LANGUAGE
(Passage Q.1-Q.5): Julio Ribeiro, iconic police officer who courageously led Punjab police during some
of the worst years of the Khalistan militancy, has written to Delhi police commissioner SN Shrivastava
demanding a fair probe in the northeast Delhi riots. According to him: “Delhi police has taken action
against peaceful protesters, but deliberately failed to register cognisable offences against those who
made hate speeches that triggered the riots in NE Delhi.” Delhi police should pay heed to Ribeiro, who
battled the fires sparked by Bhindranwale’s hate speeches and almost paid with his life. He must not be
cast aside as a political or ideological voice.
Riots recur in India because of the impunity accorded to one section by the political establishment of the
day. That has been the sad history of the 1984 Delhi riots, which must not be repeate(d) Police must
clearly distinguish between peaceful anti-CAA protesters and those who actively instigate violence. The
latter could fall on either side of the CAA-NRC political divide, and police must strictly follow the evidence
in this regard rather than taking sides themselves.
As CPM general secretary Sitaram Yechury said: “It’s my fundamental right and duty to stand up for
peaceful protest in defence of constitutional rights.” This democratic right must be permitted, while those
actively instigating violence must be hauled up. Questions have been raised, by Ribeiro among many
others, why the role of BJP politicians such as Kapil Mishra, Anurag Thakur and Parvesh Verma hasn’t
been properly investigated, when some of their statements in the lead-up to the riots have been
inflammatory. Proximity to the ruling party shouldn’t be an answer. Ribeiro reminds IPS officers of their
vow to uphold the Constitution. This also means not judging citizens by their political or religious beliefs.
1. In the passage, which of the following does Ribeiro implore the Police to do?
(a) uphold the citizens fundamental right to protest
(b) to play a fair and non-partisan role in investigating Delhi riots
(c) to investigate the real reason for the Delhi riots
(d) to make sure that police stays away from religious influence while investigating the cases of riots
2. Why is India prone to riots?
(a) as India is as diverse as a country can be, housing different religions and sects
(b) as the socio-political climate of India is such as is conducive to violence and riots
(c) as the political party in power is always showing bias to one sect or the other
(a) all kinds of protest are a fundamental right of the individual which cannot be snatched away by the
police or the government.
(b) fundamental right to protest cannot be assumed to extend to police functions in certain cases
(c) the police should arrest pro-CAA protestors who are mostly responsible for inciting violence
(d) Police must arrest whoever instigates violence, irrespective of their own bias towards the law in
question.
4. The right to protest is a fundamental right. This right arises out of which of the following?
(a) to actively state dissent against the reigning government
(b) in furtherance of the democratic thread of India
(c) It is an extension of the constitutional values of secularism
(d) it is an effective function by which the citizens can let the government know of their views about a
policy
5. Which of the following can be assumed about the author?
(a) the author is anti-CAA and sides with the peaceful protestors
(b) the author believes in the cause of the protestors who have been detained by the police
(c) the author does not have a political affiliation with BJP

MOCK CLAT #23
(Passage Q.6-Q.10): A northeast Delhi riots case where police arraigned two men as accused for
attempted murder speaks volumes about criminal investigation in the country. Additional Sessions Judge
Amitabh Rawat discharging Babu and Imran for the attempted murder charge, but accepting prima facie
evidence to charge them with rioting and similar offences said: “The gunshot injury is stated to be caused
to Rahul but where is he? His statement is not on record… The state is categorical in saying that the
police never saw Rahul. That being the case, who is going to say who shot whom and by whom and
where?”
With no victim in the crime, the bitter [X] is that the shoddy investigation may have produced two victims.
Proponents of encounter killings may want to rethink – in the light of such cases – the perils of investing
cops with powers of judge and executioner too. Judge Rawat evocatively quotes Dostoevsky in his
judgment: “From a hundred rabbits you can’t make a horse, a hundred suspicions don’t make a proof.”
Babu and Imran were in jail until November when they secured bail. With the most serious charge against
them in a half-baked chargesheet failing, their trial for other offences must be expedited. The innocent
until proven guilty dictum is rarely subscribed to, evident in jails packed with undertrial prisoners.
Such false or poorly investigated cases also highlight the dangers of media trials, with police or netas
having vested interest in shaping public opinion on probes in a certain way. Activists accused of criminal
conspiracy in the northeast Delhi riots have charged police with leaking chargesheets to the media before
courts took cognisance and copies were furnished to them. The media must be alive to the possibility of
unprofessional or unethical policing, which endangers the rights of accused to a fair trial.
On many such fronts, be it Supreme Court directing CCTV camera installations with night vision and
audio recording at police stations and other investigating agencies covering interrogation rooms, lockups,
entries and exits, police reforms are low priority for the political class. Accountability to citizens for law
and order failures lies with elected leadership, but that doesn’t imply they exercise stifling control over
policing. It is also the political class that must take the blame for recurring communal riots in India,
stemming from shoddy investigations that often incriminate innocents while failing to catch and punish
the actual rioters.
6. What is the meaning of the term “expedite”?

(a) to acquit someone of charges
(b) to fasten the process
(c) to bring to justice
(d) to do what one must
7. What is the status quo of the two accused persons?

(a) they have been acquitted of all offences
(b) they have been discharged of murder, but convicted of sedition and rioting offences
(c) they have not be convicted for any offence as of yet
8. Which of the following is a direct inference from the passage?

(a) until a person is convicted by the courts for an offence, he must be considered innocent.
(b) under trial prisoners have the same rights as convicted prisoners, and rightly so
(c) media must not be involved in a case unless the courts specifically invite its involvement
9. What seems to be the anomaly in the police’s act of charging the two accused with murder?
(a) there seems to be bias in play against a particular community
(b) there is prima facie lack of professionalism shown by the police while handling the case
(c) there is improper evidence against the accused persons
(d) there is political affiliation of the police with the reigning political party
10. Which literary device can effectively replace [X] in the passage?
(a) contrast (b) allegory (c) juxtaposition (d) irony

MOCK CLAT #23
(Passage Q.11-Q.15): BMC’s demolition of alleged illegal alterations in Kangana Ranaut’s building at
incredibly short notice indicates political motivation. BMC’s caveat in Bombay HC to preempt ex-parte
orders favouring Kangana without hearing its version, while proceeding to demolish without informing the
court, betrays contempt for judiciary and lack of due process for citizens. Kangana’s plight seems to hold
a mirror to that of Rhea Chakraborty, pursued unrelentingly by three central agencies, so-called evidence
like personal chats leaked to create unfavourable perceptions and a sense of scandal around her. Rhea’s
plight is in many ways even worse – she’s a non-political citizen in jail, while Kangana’s baiting of Shiv
Sena has BJP’s support, evident from quick deployment of elite Y+ category security.
The Narcotics Control Bureau, which placed Rhea under arrest on charges like procuring cannabis for
Sushant Singh Rajput, is an apex body mainly coordinating national and international action against drug
syndicates with other agencies. A top NCB official has admitted this wasn’t a case – one with no drug
recoveries from Rhea – the agency normally dealt with. Bizarrely, the so-called “Justice for Sushant”
investigations have descended into uncharitable revelations about the late actor, painting him a regular
drug user and implicitly, partner in crime.
Even if one sets aside questions of legality or morality, and looks at Rhea’s arrest as an act of pure
politics, it still makes little sense. If she is being targeted for the Bihar elections and Sushant’s Bihar ties,
then Bengal elections follow soon after. If NCB can’t defend its case with a credible chargesheet, Rhea
must sue for compensation over the harassment meted out. Given today’s situation when the
fundamental principle of democratic jurisprudence – that one must be presumed innocent till proven guilty
– is being turned on its head, the judiciary is the last line of defence and must stand strongly for civil
liberties, as it did recently in Kafeel Khan’s case.
11. Which of the following indicates political motivation in Kangana’s case?

(a) the notice given to Kangana was shorter than in usual cases
(b) the alterations were not proven to be illegal
(c) the BMC demolished the alterations without due information to the court
12. What is the difference between Riya’s case and Kangana’s?

(a) While Kangana has BJP’s backing, Riya has Bihar’s reigning party’s
(b) While Kangana had a media trial, Riya did not
(c) While Kangana was the one who initiated the quarrel, Riya was just a victim
(d) While Kangana has powerful allies in the political world, Riya does not
13. Caveat is a term often used in the legal worl(d) While here it means “a notice”, what does it mean in
general parlance?
(a) a warning
(b) a threat
(c) an impetus
(d) a public acclamation
14. Why is the difference in Riya’s case and the usual cases NCB deals with?
(a) Riya’s case is politically motivated while NCB deals with non-political cases
(b) Riya’s case is one where Riya was not in possession of drugs, while NCB has mostly seen and dealt
with cases where drugs have been recovered from the arrestee’s person
(c) Riya’s case is a relatively high profile case, while NCB usually gets cases which are not in the
limelight
15. What inference can be drawn from the passage?

(a) The legal circumstances are relatively easier for Kangana than they are for Riya
(b) The makeshift allegations against Kangana will not stand in court
(c) Riya has been unfairly implicated in a drug use case
(d) Courts have been quick to come to the rescue of Bollywood celebrities, because they are high rated
cases

MOCK CLAT #23
(Passage Q.16-Q.20): Supreme Court’s rejection of a PIL pleading for invoking sedition against veteran
Kashmiri politician Farooq Abdullah, for his opposition to Article 370 nullification, calls for rethink by the
top court on sedition’s constitutionality. Against SC’s 1962 Kedar Nath Singh judgment that retained
sedition in IPC by strictly mandating that police proceed only when there is incitement of violence,
legitimate instances of dissent are getting criminalise(d) In recent weeks, courts at various levels heard
bail pleas on sedition cases filed by police in multiple states, including one by a 22-year-old climate
activist.
“The expression of a view which is a dissent from a decision taken by the Central Government itself
cannot be said to be seditious. There is nothing in the statement which we find so offensive as to…
initiate proceedings,” said SC, while fining the petitioners Rs 50,000 for frivolous litigation. But the
wastage of judicial time, and more importantly at a personal and political level, the harassment of
individuals and silencing of dissent must prompt SC to reexamine the infirmity of sedition in light of
frequent undermining of the fundamental right to dissent.
With tolerance for dissent in short supply, a law leaving a wide berth for misinterpretation and abuse
becomes problemati(c) The quashing of Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, which was
similarly wielded against dissidents and suffered from the same propensity to incriminate free speech,
can guide SC again if it chooses to strike down the sedition provision. Such moves would also reverse
the trend of India’s soft power taking a big hit, latest evidence coming from the ‘Freedom in the World
2021’ report where India has fallen from “Free” to “Partly Free” status. A similar downgrade had
happened in this Freedom House report during the Emergency too.
The report cites “increased pressure on human rights organisations, rising intimidation of academics and
journalists, and a spate of bigoted attacks, including lynchings, aimed at Muslims” since 2014 as reasons
for India’s decline. While India’s score of 34/40 in political rights tallied with many “free” countries, a
dismal 33/60 score in civil liberties dragged it down to the level of “partly free” countries with failing
democracies. It is time the Supreme Court treated patently unjustified sedition cases as contempt of its
judgments narrowing the applicability of sedition. The chilling effect from frequent political witch hunts is
contributing to India’s international embarrassment too.
16. What does the author seems to (after reading the passage) feel about the SC’s rejection of PIL pleading
for invoking sedition against veteran Kashmiri politician Farooq Abdullah?
(a) the author is in favor of the rejection
(b) the author is ambiguous about the rejection
(c) the author supports the rejection, but questions the court’s stance as per sedition laws
(d) the author is in favor of the rejection, but not the recent sedition rulings of the court
17. What is true about sedition laws in India?

(a) their constitutionality is in question
(b) nowadays, the cases of genuine sedition are increasing in numbers by manifold
(c) they are attracted when an individual dissents with the Central government
(d) they can only be attracted when there is incitement of violence
18. Which of the following is a similarity between section 66A and sedition laws?
(a) both are unconstitutional
(b) both have room for ambiguity
(c) both are on the verge of being squashed
19. Which of the following best describes sedition law as it stands today?
(a) archaic
(b) unconstitutional
(c) draconian
(d) ambiguous

MOCK CLAT #23

(a) Indian use of sedition law to curb dissent
(b) India’s poor ranking as a “partly free” democracy
(c) Sedition laws overdue scarping
(d) the thinning of India’s undemocratic thread
(Passage Q.21-Q.24): With same sex couples approaching Delhi high court for legal sanctity of marriage
to their relationships, how long can Centre oppose the idea that has gained gradual acceptance in
progressive jurisdictions? For many people, marriage is the next logical step in formalising their
relationships. And thus the legal fight now after Supreme Court decriminalised homosexual relationships
in 2018.
Centre’s affidavit rejected a fundamental right to same sex marriage, noting its incompatibility with the
“Indian family unit concept of a husband, a wife and children, which necessarily presuppose a biological
man as ‘husband’, a biological woman as ‘wife’ and the children born out of the union between the two.”
The heterosexual marital union described here is a limited interpretation of family. Marriage also works as
a civil contract between consenting adults and as societal signalling by the couple. When formalised
through religious rituals, marriage further acquires sacramental significance.
Denying these benefits of a marital union to couples whose relationship gained legal acceptance in 2018
can be interpreted as a denial of their fundamental rights to life with dignity, equality before law, and right
against discrimination by the state on grounds of gender. The legal challenge against Section 377 IPC
was preceded by a long struggle to humanise the plight of homosexual persons and reverse the
colonisation of the Indian mind by Victorian morality, which effaced the much older Indian tradition of
acceptance of gender and sexual diversity. Centre’s affidavit won’t be the last chapter of this epic
struggle.
21. The act of the courts denying legality to same sex marriage is an example of …?
(a) state paternalism
(b) state extremism
(c) state minimalism
(d) state authoritarianism
22. Which of the following reasons were cited to deny legality to same sex marriage by the court?
(a) the Victorian influence over India
(b) the regressive Indian practices
(c) section 377 IPC
(d) the orthodox definition of a family in Indian context
23. What, according to the author, is the reason for the plight of homosexual persons in the country?
(a) India’s regressive culture
(b) Britain’s influence over India
(c) the Indian definition of a family unit
(d) section 377 IPC
24. According to the author, what does he think of the laws relating to homosexuality in India?
(a) they are regressive
(b) they are archaic
(c) they offer a restricted interpretation

MOCK CLAT #23
(Passage Q.25-Q.29): At core sexual harassment is about refusing to hear no, or even countenance that
woman has the choice to assent or not. Witness the common sight of men on motorcycles swerving to
yell sexual innuendoes at women. Up and down the country this behaviour is accepted as unavoidable.
More systematic stalking draws more censure. But even in such cases, pursuing police action against
stalkers is not the norm. Two cases this week highlight why it should be. In Faridabad, Touseef Ahmed
shot dead Nikita Tomar whom he met at school. In Mumbai Yogesh Kumar Singh stabbed Malvi Malhotra
whom he met at work. She is recovering in hospital. But the takeaway is how quickly this everyday crime
can escalate into murder.
Changes in law after the Nirbhaya case included notifying stalking as a criminal offence, with repeat
offences being non-bailable and punishable by five years imprisonment. But a Kafkaesque justice
system, insensitive subcultures of police and the social stigmatisation of victims mean that seeking the
law’s protection remains rare. More often the woman will change her routine in various ways, sometimes
too traumatised to keep going to school or work. In Nikita’s case a 2018 complaint against Touseef was
withdrawn, reportedly under pressure from his politically powerful family. In countless other cases,
maleness bestows sufficient impunity in and of itself.
Obviously the policing of stalkers must improve. But a host of other institutions from schools to families
also need to do a much better job of socialising gender relations. Today, dominant notions of romance
reek of male entitlement. While modernity is making men and women engage on technically equal terms
on the outside, that transition needs to happen on the mental plane as well. This needs open
conversations about what relationships mean, what love means. It’s not coercion. It’s choice.
25. Which of the following lines of the passage hint at the patriarchy prevalent in India?
(a) In countless other cases, maleness bestows sufficient impunity in and of itself.
(b) Witness the common sight of men on motorcycles swerving to yell sexual innuendoes at women.
(c) But a Kafkaesque justice system, insensitive subcultures of police and the social stigmatisation of
victims mean that seeking the law’s protection remains rare.
26. What can be a suitable title to the passage?

(a) An increasing number of stalking cases reveal the gender bias in India
(b) the poor state of affairs: Modi Government’s incapacity to protect the country’s daughters
(c) Understand consent: Stalking will remain a common crime if romance is seen as masculine
entitlement
(d) An insight into India’s dilapidating social structure
27. Which of the following is not responsible for the prevalent sexual harassment in India?
(a) lack of gender sensitization
(b) the lack of importance given to consent of women
(c) the power dynamic in both the genders
(d) all of the above are reasons contributing to the sexual harassment in the country
28. Which of the following is a synonym for “censure”?

(a) to discourage
(b) to chastise
(c) to promote
(d) to counter

(a) there is gender equality in India, but in name only.
(b) Indians generally are more regressive as compared to people of other countries, which directly results
in heinous crimes like sexual harassment
(c) prescribing tougher punishments has resulted in a steep decline in crimes against woman
(d) crimes against women in India are common, and thus are not a matter to be excessively concerned
about

MOCK CLAT #23
SECTION-B: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS
Passage (Q.30-Q.34): The Ministry of [1] has constituted the National Council for Transgender Persons,
a requirement under the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019.
A notification by the Ministry on August 21 stated that the Social Justice Minister would be the
chairperson of the Council and members would include officials of the Ministries of Health and Family
Welfare, Home Affairs, Housing and Urban Affairs, Minority Affairs, Human Resources Development,
Rural Development and Labour and Employment, the Department of Legal Affairs, the Department of
Pensions and Pensioners Welfare and the [2].
The council also includes [3] nominated members from the transgender community — Laxmi Narayan
Tripathi, Gopi Shankar Madurai, Meera Parida, Zainab Javid Patel and Kak Chingtabam Shyamcand
Sharma.
Terming the constitution of the council historic, Laxmi said on Sunday that the council would work with
States to ensure that transgender welfare boards are set up in all States and essential needs of the
community, like housing, food, healthcare and education are met.
Source:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/centre-forms-national-council-for-transgender-
persons/article32422814.ece
30. Which ministry has constituted the National Council for Transgender Person?
(a) Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
(c) Department of Legal Affairs
(d) Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
31. Which organization’s name shall be replaced by (2) in the above passage?
(a) NITI Ayog
(b) National Human Rights Commission
(c) National Commission for Women

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
33. What is not included in the definition of transgender as per the Act?
(a) Transmen & transwomen
(b) Persons with inter sex variations
(c) Gender-queers
(d) Persons who do not have a sexual orientation
34. From where can a certificate of identity be obtained?

(a) Police Commissioner
(b) National Council for Transgenders
(c) District Magistrate’s Office
(d) Online application on Ministry of Social Justice website

MOCK CLAT #23
Passage (Q.35-Q.39): Three Thai protest leaders were jailed on Monday pending their trial for insulting
the country’s powerful monarchy, their lawyer said, after the state prosecutor indicted 18 activists for
sedition over anti-government rallies last year. The jailed protesters had broken traditional taboos by
criticising King [1], risking prosecution under a strict lese majeste law that makes insulting or defaming
the king, queen, heir and regent punishable by up to 15 years in prison.
The criminal court denied bail for Panusaya “Roong” Sithijirawattanakul, 22, Panupong “Mike Rayong”
Jadnok, 24, and Jatupat “Pai Daodin” Boonpattararaksa, 29, who faced charges of lese majeste and 10
other offences including sedition over a Sept. 19 protest near Bangkok’s royal palace. The three denied
all charges, but the court rejected their bail request on the grounds they could re-offend, one of their
lawyers, Krisadang Nutcharat told Reuters, adding their trials were set for March 15.
Extracted with edits and revisions from The Reuters

(a) Bhumibol Adulyadej (b) Ananda Mahidol
(c) Vajiravudh (d) Maha Vajiralongkorn
36. Who out of the following is the Prime Minister of Thailand?

(a) Prawit Wongsuwan (b) Thaksin Shinawatra
(c) Prayuth Chan-ocha (d) Thanathorn Juangroongruangkit
37. Panusaya “Roong” Sithijirawattanakul is also known for a remarkable feat. What is that?
(a) She has led from the front the Bad Students Movement
(b) She had read out the Ten Demands
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
38. Which of the following organisations do the Thai protestors want to be removed from the control of the
King?
(a) Bureau of the Royal Household
(b) Crown Property Bureau
(c) Office of the Royal Development Projects Boards
(d) Royal Institute of Thailand
39. In which year was the last elections held in Thailand?

(a) 2016 (b) 2017 (c) 2018 (d) 2019
Passage (Q.40-Q.44): After the Sri Lankan government set the ball rolling for a new constitutional
amendment that would remove many of the curbs on presidential power, there have been rising
questions on how India, which has remained largely silent, will view the move. In New Delhi, the main
worry is not the provisions of the [1] amendment, but whether the political will demonstrated to remake
the constitution means that the constitutional provisions introduced through the [2] bilateral accord are
endangered.
On September 2, the Sri Lanka government published the draft of the [1] amendment, which kickstarts
the legislative process that will replace several provisions of the previous constitutional amendment that
sought to put some curbs on presidential powers and introduced independent commissions. This will be
the [1] amendment to the constitution introduced 42 years ago by Prime Minister Junius Richard
Jayawardene.

(a) 20th (b) 21st (c) 22nd (d) 23rd

MOCK CLAT #23
41. Which of the following Amendments is being rolled back by the [1] Amendment?
(a) 18th Amendment (b) 19th Amendment
(c) Both a and b (d) Neither a nor b

(a) 1985 (b) 1986 (c) 1987 (d) 1988
43. Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has signed an agreement for extending a ________ currency
swap facility to Sri Lanka.
(a) USD 100 million (b) USD 200 million
(c) USD 300 million (d) USD 400 million
44. Which of the following is joint naval exercise conducted by India and Sri Lanka?
(a) SLINEX (b) Mitra Shakti (c) Samudra Shakti (d) Varuna
Passage (Q.45-Q.49): Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Saturday inaugurated Atal Tunnel in Rohtang,
which is the highest altitude tunnel in the world and has strategic significance. The historic decision to
construct a strategic tunnel below the Rohtang Pass was taken on 2000 when Atal Bihari Vajpayee was
the Prime Minister.
The Union Cabinet decided in 2019 to name the Rohtang Tunnel as Atal Tunnel to honour the
contribution made by Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
The feasibility study for the Atal Tunnel was first done in 1990. The foundation stone for the access road
to the south portal of the tunnel was laid on May 6, 2002. The first blast took place in 2010 and the last
blast in 2017. The tunnel was constructed using drill and blast NATM (New Austria Tunnelling Method)
techniques. The long tunnel connects Manali to Lahaul-Spiti valley throughout the year. Earlier the road
remained impacted for about six months every year owing to snowfall. The tunnel is built with ultra-
modern specifications in the Pir Panjal range of Himalayas.
It reduces the road distance by 46 km between [1] and the time by about four to five hours. The hard
work put in by Border Roads Organisation in the last 10 years is reaching the final stage.
Officials said the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) worked relentlessly to overcome major geological,
terrain and weather challenges that included the most difficult stretch of the 587-metre Seri Nalah Fault
Zone. The breakthrough from both ends was achieved on October 15, 2017.
Source:https://www.livemint.com/news/india/atal-tunnel-to-be-inaugurated-today-by-pm-modi-5-facts-
about-engineering-marvel-11601689838516.html
45. What is the length of the tunnel?

(a) 8.76 km (b) 9.02 km (c) 10.04 km (d) 11.23 km
46. Which of the following is correct?

(a) It is the country’s first tunnel to have an escape tunnel within the main tunnel
(b) It is the longest highway tunnel in the world above the height of 10,000 metres.
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b

(a) Lahaul and Spiti (b) Manali and Chandigarh
(c) Leh and Ladakh (d) Manali and Leh
48. Atal Tunnel has been designed for traffic density of how many cars per day and trucks per day with max
speed of 80 km/hr respectively?
(a) 4000 cars and 2000 trucks (b) 3000 cars and 1000 trucks
(c) 3000 cars and 1500 trucks (d) 3500 cars and 1000 trucks

MOCK CLAT #23
49. Which one is not a pass situated in Himachal Pradesh?

(a) Chang La Pass (b) Hamta Pass
(c) Pin Parbati Pass (d) Rohtang Pass
Passage (Q.50-Q.54): India ranked 94 among [1] nations in the Global Hunger Index 2020 and is in the
'serious' hunger category with experts blaming poor implementation processes, lack of effective
monitoring, siloed approach in tackling malnutrition and poor performance by large states behind the low
ranking.
Last year, India's rank was [2] out of 117 countries.
The neighbouring Bangladesh, Myanmar and Pakistan too are in the 'serious' category but ranked higher
than India in this year's hunger index. While Bangladesh ranked 75, Myanmar and Pakistan are in the
78th and 88th position.
Nepal in 73rd and Sri Lanka in 64th position are in 'moderate' hunger category, the report showed.
[3] nations, including China, Belarus, Ukraine, Turkey, Cuba and Kuwait, shared the top rank with GHI
scores of less than five, the website of the Global Hunger Index, that tracks hunger and malnutrition, said
on Friday.
According to the report, 14 per cent of India's population is undernourished.
It also showed the country recorded a 37.4 per cent stunting rate among children under five and a
wasting rate of 17.3 per cent. The under-five mortality rate stood at 3.7 per cent.
Source:https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/india-ranks-94-out-of-107-nations-in-global-hunger-index-
categorised-serious-2311582

(a) 107 (b) 114 (c) 117 (d) 124
51. The annual report is published by whom?

(a) Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe
(b) UNICEF
(c) Oxfam
(d) Action against hunger

(a) 112 (b) 106 (c) 102 (d) 98

(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 14 (d) 17
54. The world is not on track to achieve the second Sustainable Development Goal - known as Zero Hunger
for short - by what year?
(a) 2025 (b) 2035 (c) 2030 (d) 2040
Passage (Q.55-Q.59): Here is one way of looking at it: the visit of US Secretary of State Mike Pompeo
and Defense Secretary Mark T Esper to New Delhi for the Indo-US 2+2 Dialogue comes extremely deep
into what would, in India, be the period of operation of the model code of conduct. Coming ahead on an
election, the code bars the government from making any major political announcements. There is just a
week until the US goes to the polls, on November 3. Already, millions of Americans have made their
choice by sending mail-in ballots ahead of time.
This has been one of the most divisive US elections in recent times. The American Opposition has not
hestitated to call out the actions of US President Donald Trump at home or abroad, especially since some
of those efforts have appeared to be aimed solely at ensuring his re-election.

MOCK CLAT #23
Yet the visit of Pompeo and Esper to sign a major defence deal with Indian Prime Minister Narendra
Modi, a leader whose open embrace of Trump has come in for criticism in both countries, barely a week
before election has not come in for partisan criticism in the US.
55. Which of the following agreements were signed in the latest Indo-US 2+2 Dialogue?
(a) BECA (b) LEMOA (c) GSoMIA (d) COMCASA
56. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. India holds ministerial-level 2+2 talks only with the USA.
2. The 2+2 Dialogue is an invention of the Japanese in the world of Diplomacy
Options:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
57. Which of the following will be exchanged between the two countries after the signing of the agreement?
(a) ICBMs (b) Geospatial data
(c) UAVs (d) Classified military information
58. What is Predator B in the context of the agreement signed?
(a) Unmanned aerial vehicle (b) Drone
(c) Ballistic Missile (d) Rocket launcher
59. The 2 countries have decided to expand joint capacity building activities with partner countries in the -
(a) South China Sea region (b) Arabian Sea region
(c) Indo-Pacific region (d) Indian Ocean region
Passage (Q.60-Q.63): Sudan and Israel sign an agreement to normalize relations. US President Donald
Trump has removed Sudan from the US list of state sponsors of terrorism, unblocking economic aid and
investment. Announcing the normalisation, Mr. Trump said "at least five more" Arab states wanted a
peace deal with Israel. The Sudan deal comes weeks after similar moves by the [1]. The two Gulf States
became the first in the Middle East to recognise Israel in [2] years.
"The leaders agreed to the normalisation of relations between Sudan and Israel and to end the state of
belligerence between their nations," it said. Until last month only two Arab nations - Egypt and Jordan -
had officially recognised Israel. The two countries signed peace agreements in 1979 and 1994
respectively, following US mediation.
The growing number of Arab countries formalising relations with Israel has been condemned by the
Palestinians, who see it as a betrayal of their cause. Historically, Arab countries conditioned peace talks
with Israel on its withdrawal from territories occupied in the 1967 war and the establishment of a
Palestinian state with East Jerusalem as its capital.
Palestinian Authority President Mahmoud Abbas said that he rejected the new agreement, saying no-one
had the right to speak on behalf of Palestinians. Hamas, which controls Gaza, said it was a "political sin".
Shortly after Mr. Trump formally moved to remove Sudan from the US list of state sponsors of terrorism,
reporters in Washington were taken to the Oval Office where the president was on the phone to the
Sudanese and Israeli leaders.
60. Which of the following countries have been redacted by [1]?
(a) Egypt and Jordan (b) UAE & Bahrain
(c) Bahrain and Egypt (d) Bahrain and Jordan
(a) 26 (b) 28 (c) 30 (d) 32
62. Which of the following can be an outcome due to the Accord?
(a) Shia-Sunni rifts in the region may get wide and violent
(b) In South Asia, it will put Pakistan in a bind
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b

MOCK CLAT #23
63. What is ‘Hamas’ in the context of the Israeli-Palestinian Conflict?

(a) Militant organization (b) Part of Palestinian Army
(c) Part of Israeli Army (d) Part of ISIS
Passage (Q.64-Q.68): Unrest has gripped Myanmar, with demonstrators pouring into the streets in a
challenge to the country’s powerful military after it overthrew the fragile democratic government in a coup
d’état on Feb. 1.
Military leaders’ initially restrained response to the first waves of protests, civil disobedience and work
stoppages has grown more forceful over time, escalating into a brutal effort to put down the movement
that has so far left hundreds injured and scores dead.
The coup returned the country to full military rule after a short span of quasi-democracy that began in [1],
when the military, which had been in power since 1962, implemented parliamentary elections and other
reforms. In the weeks since the coup, Daw Aung San Suu Kyi, the country’s ousted civilian leader, has
faced charges in a secret court.

(a) 2008 (b) 2009 (c) 2010 (d) 2011
65. What has been India’s stand in the whole controversy?

(a) As a form of protest, India has cut-off relations with the military junta of Myanmar
(b) India has surprisingly supported and recognized the military junta of Myanmar
(c) India has offered to mediate between the two parties
(d) India has not cut-off relations with the Myanmar military
66. Which of the following ports is being jointly developed by India and Myanmar?
(a) Thilawa Port (b) Dawei Port (c) Sittwe Port (d) Yangon Port
67. The Military imposed state of emergency citing which of the following?
(a) Charges of election fraud on Aung San Suu Kyi
(b) Incapacity of handle governance
(c) Security Threats
(d) Changes of Corruption on Aung San Suu Kyi
68. Who is the Myanmar Military Chief?

(a) Win Myint (b) Min Aung Hlaing (c) Than Shwe (d) Kyu Kyu Hla

MOCK CLAT #23
SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.69 –Q.105): Read the comprehensions carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.69-Q.73): Every person who enters into a profession assures of a skilled and efficient work.
He/she assures to work with reasonable care and skill and guarantees that the skills possessed by
him/her shall be exercised with due diligence. Similarly, a medical professional does not guarantee the
results of treatment to a patient. A surgeon may not assure of a 100% affirmative result of the operation
but guarantees that the skills possessed by him in that branch of practice would be performed by him/her
with reasonable competence. Therefore, according to these standards, a professional would be negligent
under two instances- first, either the professional did not possess the requisite skills he/she was required
to possess; secondly, the professional did not exercise with reasonable competence. Any person who
provides medical treatment or advice to others impliedly undertakes his possession of knowledge and
skills. Therefore, such person has certain duties to consider, such as decision regarding the undertaking
of case by him/her and decision regarding the kind of treatment to be administered. Any breach of such
duties indicates negligence on the person’s part and gives a right of action against him/her. As it is said,
to err is too human, but causing injury to others due to mere carelessness is negligence. However, an
error in judgement by a medical professional does not amount to negligence as due to change of
circumstances or even in the same circumstances, there can be instances where the decision of the
doctors goes wrong. But, considering the essential factors related to treatment, if a wrong judgement is
taken, then it would be negligence as the medical professional had the efficient knowledge of the factors.
The Supreme Court of India in Kusum Sharma vs. Batra Hospital held that a doctor adopts procedure
involving higher element of risk, but he/she has an honest belief of greater chances of success in the
treatment. Therefore, if the doctor performs the treatment and it does not yield affirmative results, then it
does not amount to medical negligence.
[Source- Priyanjali Priyadarshini, ‘Medical Negligence under law of Torts’,
<https://www.lawcolumn.in/medical-negligence-under-law-of-torts/>, as accessed on 14th Feb. 2021]
69. Mr. Purohit was a reputed cardiologist in Gupta Hospital and runs a private clinic in other hospital.
Shushma, a 60 year old diabetic woman, had breathing problem. She was not able to find a good doctor
to cure her disease. Her friend, Ms. Leela suggested her of Dr. Purohit and asked her for consultation.
Shushma took his appointment and Mr. Purohit asked her to undergo typical tests to confirm whether she
is suffering from asthama or not. Unaware of Shushma being claustrophobic, she was exposed to typical
tests and as a result of which she died. Decide –
(a) Mr. Purohit cannot be held liable for this negligence as such facts regarding personal information has
to be conveyed by Shushma voluntarily before the tests.
(b) Mr. Purohit and the hospital can be held liable for the negligence as it is his duty to collect relevant
information of the patient before putting them to tests.
(c) Mr. Purohit cannot be held liable as he was not negligent. It is not his duty to ask Shushma regarding
her personal information.
(d) Mr. Purohit can be held liable because he should have applied his due diligence to collect relevant
information from Shushma before putting her to tests.
70. Aryan was a special child as he was born with certain vitamin deficiencies and had undeveloped bone
marrow. His parents consulted various doctors and therapists and approached Dr. Malti to cure their
child. Doctor recommended several tests including blood pressure and sugar checkups. After going by
the reports, Dr. Malti prescribed certain heavy dose medicines to the child and asked the parents to
revisit after a month to observe the effect and curing of the child. After 15 days of such appointment,
Parents approached Dr. Malti and alleged of her incompetency. Dr. Malti was unable to understand the
situation and came to know that she misread the count for white blood platelets as red blood platelets
and had given wrong tablets. She is –
(a) Not liable for medical negligence as she had only misread the reports and cannot be alleged for not
taking due care and diligence for prescribing medicines.
(b) Liable for gross medical negligence as she was professionally competent and had efficient knowledge
of effect of prescribing wrong medicines to the child.

MOCK CLAT #23
(c) Not liable for medical negligence as she was only at fault to misread the reports and can be said to
take wrong decision but not negligent.
(d) Liable for medical negligence as she should take reasonable care and use her due diligence before
going by the reports as she was professionally competent doctor.
71. Rahul was a 4th year student of M.B.B.S. Before his graduation, he went for a short trip with his friends.
On his trip, he met new experiences and explored different sides of his studies. On one fine day of the
trip, Rahul encountered an old lady, badly wounded, lying on the path and was asking for help. Rahul
analysed the problem and suggested her to apply paste of wild plants to cure the wound. He himself
made the paste and applied to the wound. Due to much poisonous content in the wild plant, it get mixed
with the blood and eventually the lady died. Rahul can be-
(a) Held liable for medical negligence as he was not having proper knowledge regarding the components
of wild plants and has not applied reasonable care before applying it to the wound.
(b) Held not liable for medical negligence as though he is professionally competent but does not has
requisite skills and knowledge regarding components of wild plants and was helping the lady to cure
the wound.
(c) Held liable for medical negligence as he was completing his graduation and can be implied that he
possess sufficient knowledge and skills of performing such medical help to the injured persons.
(d) Held not liable for gross medical negligence as he is not professionally competent to perform such
medical help to injured persons and he do not possess such requisite skills or knowledge for the
same.
72. Abhinav was a brilliant student and has secured a good rank in his college times. He studied the other
fields of biology and Vedic science and has researched much upon these aspects. Soon he opened his
own Hamdard Dawakhana and relied on homeopathic curing of diseases. Nirmala listened much of this
Dawakhana and visited for treatment of her pancreatic pain. Due to overcrowd and rush at Dawakhana
Abhinav gave Nirmala wrong pills and as a result her internal reproductive parts get damaged. She
claimed compensation from Abhinav for her treatment. Abhinav refused and contended that it was mere
mistake and he is not liable for negligence. Decide-
(a) Abhinav is not liable for medical negligence as he rightly contended that it was mere mistake on his
part and not negligence in prescribing wrong medicines to Nirmala.
(b) Abhinav can be held liable for negligence as he should take reasonable care and apply his due
diligence before prescribing medicines to Nirmala.
(c) Abhinav cannot be held liable for medical negligence as he is not professionally competent and does
not has requisite skills or knowledge as to cure such diseases.
(d) Abhinav can be held liable for medical negligence as he has implied knowledge or skills as to effect of
such homeopathic medicines and should pay compensation to Nirmala.
73. Shruti, a pregnant lady, was having her child after 20 years of her marriage. She was under continuous
guidance of gynaecologist, Dr. Suman. She analysed the critical circumstances and stated that there can
be complications in delivering the child of Shruti as she was diabetic and hence to undergo surgery.
Shruti insisted for normal delivery but Dr. Suman refused to the proposal. Delivery was done perfectly but
while doing the surgery, the Suman forget to stitch an organ properly and it was left unclosed. Since no
harm was caused to Shruti, Dr. Suman asked her to perform another surgery to mend the mistake. Shruti
can –
(a) Held Dr. Suman liable for medical negligence as she should have taken reasonable care while
performing the surgery and use her due diligence while stitching the parts.
(b) Held Dr. Suman not liable for medical negligence as she was not professionally competent to perform
the surgery and had done a mistake on her part.
(c) Held Dr. Suman liable for medical negligence as Shruti asked for normal delivery but she has refused
for it and is liable for her decision to undergo surgery for delivering the child.
(d) Held Dr. Suman not liable for medical negligence as she was correct with her decision to perform
surgery and not normal delivery of the child and had committed mere mistake while performing
surgery.

MOCK CLAT #23
Passage (Q.74-Q.77): Negligence as a tort has evolved from the English law and accepted by the
Indian law as a substantially important tort. Negligence is of two types, civil and criminal and each has
various repercussions. In order to prove that an act was negligent, it is necessary to prove all the
essentials namely duty, breach of duty, damages and actual and proximate cause. An important maxim
regarding negligence i.e Res Ipsa Loquitur is used by the courts when a negligent act cannot be
explained. Also, the defences in a suit for negligence can be used by the defendant to defend himself
from a suit issued by the plaintiff.
Criminal negligence is said to take place when a person acts in a particular way which is an extreme
departure from which a reasonable person would act in a similar or same circumstance. The difference in
civil negligence is that the conduct may not be seen as a radical departure from the way a reasonable
person would have responded.
Civil negligence occurs when a person fails to exercise ordinary care or due diligence but criminal
negligence relates to a conduct that is considered so extreme and rash that it is a clear divergence from
the way an ordinarily prudent person would act and is considered to be more than just a mistake in
judgment or distraction.
In civil negligence, there is a lesser burden of proof because the plaintiff in such a case only has to prove
that it is most likely that the defendant was negligent. But in criminal negligence, the plaintiff has to prove
“beyond a reasonable doubt” that the defendant was negligent which is the highest standard of proof
which means that the evidence is so strong that there is no other logical explanation besides the fact that
the defendant acted with criminal negligence.
The punishment for a person who was liable in a civil negligence case only extends to the extent of
damage caused to the plaintiff i.e compensation for the damages.
In criminal negligence cases, the punishment is much more serious and can be convicted for a prison
term, fine and probation supervision. Example the punishment for criminal negligence amounting to death
under section 304A of IPC can extend to 2 years of jail and fine or both.
74. Akash is a surgeon, who while operating a child of 12 years old unintentionally leaves in his body a
scalpels. It was a knee resection surgery. As a result, the child suffers internal bleeding and infection
causing him permanent impairment. Decide in light of civil wrong
(a) Yes, Akash is liable as he had duty of care towards his patient.
(b) No, Akash is not liable as it was done unintentionally.
(c) Yes, Akash is liable as he is a part of a noble profession which requires him to be more vigilant and
perform reasonable care.
(d) No, because the impairment was not the proximate cause of Akash’s act.
75. Suppose, in the above question after the operation, the patient recovered without complication noticed,
but later after 1.5 months, the child falls while playing in the garden. As a consequence, there started
internal bleeding, near the knee. The family took him to the hospital and found out about the scalpels and
an dormant internal infection that it caused. He underwent other surgery to remove the scalpel found and
to stop bleeding. However, he got permanently impaired. Now, decide, if Akash be liable for negligence.
(a) Yes, Akash is liable for negligence since the impairment was caused due to the negligence act of his.
(b) No, Akash is not liable since the internal bleeding and impairment was not result of his breach of duty
of care.
(c) Yes, because if not internal bleeding but the infection found was the direct consequence of the
negligent act of Akash.

MOCK CLAT #23
76. A, was driving a car on a clear road. He drove safe within the permissible speed limit. However, while his
phone rang and he got distracted, a boy of 5 years from a nearby shop ran to pick up his toy car in the
middle of the street. Ms. B, the mother of the child, a young aged woman, who was busy dealing with the
shopkeeper. She saw him running but did not come to stop her, carelessly. A, suddenly applies break,
but hits the child. Decide.
(a) A is liable, though he was on a secluded street as he negligently drove the car and breached the duty
of care.
(b) A is not liable as he took the reasonable care of driving within the norms and applying the brakes.
(c) A is liable as but Ms. B is also liable for contributory negligence as she failed to take care of her child.
(d) A is not liable as the child ran and came in front of the car out of nowhere and A couldn’t have
foreseen such happening.
77. Wilson was an event manager hired by Mr. Sharon for his daughter’s destination wedding. While
preparing for the reception, he took charge in his hand and helped his decorators to do various tasks as
time was running out and many things were clogged up. Wilson and two of his men were fixing a
chandelier at a height of about 7 feet above the ground. There were people on the ground, when
suddenly Wilson was distracted by a call on his phone and he releases the rope tied to it. Consequently,
the chandelier fell on Mr. Sharon and he died. Decide
(a) Wilson is liable for criminal negligence.
(b) Wilson is liable for Tortious Liability of negligence.
(c) Wilson is not liable for tortious liability alone, but with his two men.
(d) Wilson is not liable for criminal liability as there is was no mens rea behind his act, which is an
essential requisite to constitute crime
Passage (Q.78-Q.81): The constitutional text also creates certain express defenses to crimes.
Consider the Bill of Attainder and Ex Post Facto Clause. The first half bars a legislature from enacting a
law that names and convicts someone of a crime without a trial. The second half forbids a legislature
from retroactively applying a statute defining a new crime or enhancing the penalty for an old one. The
First Amendment also takes away from Congress the authority to make any law trespassing on certain
civil liberties, which naturally includes any law making it a crime to engage in the conduct that the
provision safeguards. Defendants in both federal and state criminal cases may defend against a charged
federal offense on the ground that the statute violates the First Amendment. The clauses have this in
common: they all address aspects of substantive criminal law. One defines a crime in the text of the
Constitution. Some describe the type of conduct that the government should outlaw. Others place certain
primary conduct entirely out of bounds. The Due Process Clause does none of those things. Instead it
ensures that no one can be criminally punished unless he has committed a criminal offense defined by a
different positive law and then only in compliance with whatever procedural restraints the law elsewhere
requires.
The phrase “due process of law” comes from a fourteenth century act of Parliament, stating that “no Man
of what Estate or Condition that he be, shall be put out of Land or Tenement, nor taken, nor imprisoned,
nor disinherited, nor put to Death, without being brought in Answer by due Process of the Law. That
provision, in turn, traces its lineage to Chapter 39 of Magna Carta of 1215, a document that rivals our
own Constitution in the protections it affords against arbitrary government conduct. Chapter 39 provided
that no free man is to be taken or imprisoned or disseized or outlawed or exiled or in any way ruined, nor
will we go or send against him, except by the lawful judgement of his peers or by the law of the land.
(Extract with edits from https://www.harvard-jlpp.com/wp-content/uploads/sites/21/2020/01/Larkin-
Canaparo-FINAL.pd)

MOCK CLAT #23
78. Indiana is a highly developed country. It has become the first country in world whose complete
demographic area comes under CCTV surveillance since January 2014. In December 2017, the Indiana
parliament enacted a law which had provisions that if any person is caught under the camera committing
a crime, he will be assumed guilty during the trial and he will have the burden to prove that he has not
committed the crime. Decide
(a) The law deprives the accused of a trial
(b) The law does not deprive the accused of a trial
(c) The motive behind enacting the law is good
(d) The conduct of the government is arbitrary
79. Based on the above question, In January 2020, the parliament of Indiana brought an amendment for
extending the new law to the acts committed after March 2019 and punish convicts for the same. The
amendment is:
(a) Against chapter 39 of Magna Carta
(b) Against second half of the Bill of Attainder and Ex Post Facto Clause
(c) Against first half of the Bill of Attainder and Ex Post Facto Clause
80. In January 2020, Indiana successfully developed a technology “Lie Detect” which can identify if a person
is speaking a lie or not with 100% accuracy. If the government plans to use the same for convicting a
person found lying by it, how would the author response to it
(a) He will find it as conviction of the accused without a trial.
(b) He will allege retroactive application of a statute defining a new crime or enhancing the penalty for an
old one.
(c) Both a and b
81. If “Lie Detect” is used to determine veracity of the statements of the accused for his past acts and
reducing his punishment if he is found to tell the truth, the author will
(a) Not find it problematic
(b) Find it problematic against the Bill of Attainder and Ex Post Facto Clause
(c) Find it problematic for not following due process
(d) Find it problematic with Chapter 39 of Magna Carta of 1215
Passage (Q.82-Q.87): Article 14 of the Indian constitution of India provides that the state shall not deny
to any person Equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws in the Territory of India.
Article 14 uses two expressions "Equality before law "which implies the absence of any special privileges
in favour of individuals and the subject of all classes to the ordinary law and equal protection of the law
which implies "Equal Treatment in Equal Circumstances". Article 14 permits classification but prohibits
class legislation. Class legislation is that which makes an improper discrimination by conferring particular
privileges upon a class of person arbitrarily selected from a large number of persons. Article 14 does not
forbid reasonable classification of persons, Objects, transactions by the legislature for the purpose of
achieving specific ends but the classification should be reasonable. Associated article is Article 15 of the
Constitution. It states that no citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or
any of them, be restricted with regard to the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats maintained wholly or partly
out of State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public. Article 15 of the Constitution also states
that any provisions made for the betterment of women and children shall not stand in violation of Article
14 standards. It also states that the State shall not deny to any person equality before law and equal
protection of the laws within the territory of India.

MOCK CLAT #23
82. Suraj Rathi is the 'sarpanch' of a small village Charanpur located in Rajasthan. Due to scarcity of rainfall,
the villagers faced a lot of problems arising from water shortage. In order to tackle this problem, Suraj
Rathi got 15 wells constructed at various locations in the village. On the inaugration of these wells, he
dedicated the wells for use by the inhabitants of the village only. Certain students from Theatre Institute
of Mumbai, born in Delhi, arrived in Charanpur to shoot a documentary on the lives of Rajsthani women.
They were to stay in the village for a week. SurajRathi made it clear that the wells are meant to be used
only by villagers and hence the students cannot use it. One of the students, Nayantara, filed a writ
alleging violation of her fundamental rights under Article 15. Is Nayantara’s fundamental right being
violated?
(a) Yes, because she and her friends are being discriminated against on the basis of their place of birth
(b) Yes, because Suraj Rathi is violating their right to life by denying them usage of water from the wells
(c) No, because the wells have been especially constructed for usage by the villagers only
83. Assume that Suraj Rathi had constructed a well in his own house for his private use but as a matter of
courtesy, he allows the inhabitants of village to draw water from it. Now if Nayantara files a writ alleging
violation of her fundamental rights under Article 15 then will she succeed?
(a) Yes, because denial of a basic necessity like water violates right to life
(b) No, because the ambit of Article 15 does not include within itself the private wells
(c) No, because Nayantara cannot force Suraj Rathi to extend his courtesy to her as well
84. Assume that in the given situation, instead of students, there would have been a group of foreigners
visiting Charanpur who wanted to stay there to experience the rural life of India and they were denied
usage of wells by SurajRathi. Would it amount to violation of Article 15 of the Constitution?
(a) Yes, because water is a basic necessity and its denial amounts to violation of right to life.
(b) Yes, because India follows the concept of 'vasudhaivakutumbakam' and it is not proper to deny water
to foreigners who are our guests
(c) No, because Article 15 is applicable only for citizens of the nation.
85. Assume that seeing the plight of inhabitants of Charanpur, the government constructed certain wells for
usage by women. Menfolk of the village file a writ alleging violation of their fundamental rights. Will they
succeed?
(a) Yes, because the State is bound to provide equal treatment to all its citizens
(b) No, because the State has made a special provision for women.
(c) Yes, because their fundamental right to equality is being violated
86. Sanjay Shukla is a medical professional who runs a laboratory specializing in performing Coronavirus
diagnostic tests. By way of a government notification, his laboratory was disallowed from performing
these tests. No similar ban was placed on any other laboratory. Shukla is aggrieved and seeks to
challenge this notification.
(a) Shukla shall get relief for he was unjustly denied his fundamental right to trade.
(b) Shukla shall not get relief as this was a class based legislation
(c) Shukla shall get relief only if he is able to show that he is in the same circumstances as other
laboratories.
(d) Shukla shall not get relief as the government is supreme under such circumstances of health
emergency.

MOCK CLAT #23
87. Shukla’s laboratory was banned but all other laboratories were open. The state gave a reasonable
explanation for the same. Decide
(a) The state needs to reasonably classify. Only a class of labs may be banned
(b) The state needs to reasonably classify. Shukla’s laboratory can form a class in itself.
(c) The state needs to ensure that Shukla’s circumstances are different
Passage (Q.88-Q.93): The Thane Government Railway Police (GRP) arrested four people on Monday
for allegedly running a fatka racket in Thane and are believed to be involved in five incidents in January
this year. Of the four who were arrested Hussain Shah (24) and Danish Sheikh (25) stole mobile phones
from train commuters by slapping and distracting them, while Bilal Khan (25) and Mohammad Sayyed
(32) sold them, the police said. “Shah and Sheikh had a previous record of committing fatka crimes in the
region. We checked our records and located their current whereabouts,” said Smita Dhakne, senior
police inspector, Thane GRP station. They have been charged under Section 382 of the Indian Penal
Code, which pertains to committing theft by acts that may have resulted in death. Ms. Dhakne said the
two are under police custody and being interrogated. Theft under the Indian Penal Code is said to occur
whenever any person dishonestly takes any movable property out of the possession of any other person
without his consent. Courts always try to analyse whether such consent is free consent or not. Such
taking away may not be actual in nature but can also be constructive i.e. taking away from the mental
possession of someone. The presence of a dishonest intention however is a very important element that
needs to be proved under every circumstance. In the event that such an act of theft leads to death of any
individual, the act in addition to being punishable under Section 382, is also punishable under Section
304 of the Indian Penal Code that penalizes individuals for murder caused due to negligence. Such
provisions must be construed reasonably however and the intent of a person must be kept in mind.
[Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/mumbai/thane-grp-arrest-four-for-operating-fatka-
racket/article30846827.ece]
88. Abhinav Gangotri is a leading businessman. He is the CEO of Gangotri Enterprises which is a leading
publishing house. Gangotri is an ardent reader himself and often visits informal discussion groups with
his friends wherein his friends discuss the books they have recently read. Gangotri comes to see a friend
Yamuna Menon one day. He has always been fascinated by Menon’s love for books. Generally looking
through her book shelf, Gangotri finds a book titled “The life of Rohit Patni” and is very fascinated about
it. He keeps the book with him for 15 days, reads it and returns the same to Menon; all without her
knowing anything about it.
(a) Gangotri must be punished under Section 382 of IPC for the book was taken away without Menon’s
consent.
(b) Gangotri must be punished under Section 382 of IPC for a moveable property was taken away.
(c) Gangotri always intended to return the book. He cannot be punished under Section 382 for there is
no dishonest intention.
(d) Gangotri must not be punished under Section 382 of the IPC for the book was never moved out of the
constructive possession of Menon.
89. After Gangotri took the book out of Menon’s cabinet without her consent, he accidentally dropped the
book on the main road right outside Menon’s bunglaw. Aakriti found the book lying on the road. Being
very interested in the life of Rohit Patni, Aakriti took the book to keep it with her.
(a) Aakriti has committed an offence within Section 382 of IPC for she failed to return the book to the
local police station.
(b) Aakriti must be punished under Section 382 of IPC for the book never belonged to her in the first
place.
(c) Aakriti must not be punished under Section 382 of IPC for it would be against public policy to deny
her, the right to education.
(d) Aakriti must not be punished under Section 382 of IPC for she did not take it out of anyone’s
possession.

MOCK CLAT #23
90. When Gangotri took the book out of Menon’s cabinet, Gangotri kept the book in his pocket with the intent
of taking it and making it a part of his own collection.
(a) Gangotri commits an offence under 382, IPC the moment he picked up the book and intended to
dishonestly keep it.
(b) Gangotri commits an offence under Section 382 because he has moved the book from Menon’s table
without her consent.
(c) Gangotri does not commit an offence under Section 382 because Menon is careless about her
valuables.
(d) Gangotri did not commit an offence under Section 382 because he has still not left Menon’s house
and thus the book has not left Menon’s possession.
91. Gangotri with the intention of taking the book away without Menon’s consent hid it somewhere in her
garden. He decided to come later and pick the book up so that he could make it a part of his own
collection as it was a very valuable book.
(a) Gangotri is guilty under Section 382 of the IPC as he took away the book from Menon’s possession
dishonestly.
(b) Gangotri is not guilty under Section 382 of the IPC as the book was never taken away from Menon’s
possession. It was still lying in her garden.
(c) Gangotri is guilty under Section 382 of IPC as he did not inform Menon about the whereabouts of the
book.
92. Gangotri was always a book thief and Menon knew this fact. She was always extra cautious with him.
When Gangotri entered Menon’s place, he looked at one book and wanted to take it away. He put a red
cover on it which was similar to another book in Menon’s cabinet. He asked Menon if he could take the
book with the red cover. Menon agreed. Decide
(a) Gangotri is liable for theft as he dishonestly took Menon’s book without her consent.
(b) Gangotri is not liable for theft as Menon knew that Gangotri was a trickster and thus there was implied
consent for him taking the book
(c) Gangotri is liable because Menon’s consent was based on a mistake of fact
(d) Gangotri is not liable. He always intended to return the book.
93. When Menon found out that her precious book had been stolen by Gangotri, she was shocked. She hit
her head with a stone and died for she could not tolerate being apart from the book that Gangotri had
stolen. Decide
(a) Gangotri is liable under Section 382 for he has caused the death of Menon
(b) Gangotri is liable under Section 304 for he negligently caused the death of Menon
(c) Both A and B
(d) Gangotri is not liable
Passage (Q.94-Q.99): The main criminal laws in India include the Indian Penal Code, Indian Evidence
Act and Criminal Procedure Code. People often refer to these three as general laws. Apart from these
three laws, we also have other laws that relate to specific kinds of offences. The following are the most
important elements of a crime. (1) Accused person: In order to constitute a crime, it is important for
somebody to commit it. The law should always be able to pinpoint the person who is responsible for
committing an offence. The term accused “person” does not suggest that only a human being can commit
offences. According to Section 11 of IPC, the term “person” also includes a company and an association
or body of persons. (2) Mens rea: A mere person will never commit a crime unless he possesses some
intention to commit it. The element of mens rea itself comprises of certain inherent elements. These
include intention, motive or knowledge. Which of these elements must exist in order to constitute an
offence generally depends on the relevant provision. (3) Actus reus: Merely possessing a guilty mind and
thinking of committing a crime is not enough. The accused person must also act on that intention and do
something in its furtherance. Actus reus basically refers to an act or omission which leads to the
completion of an offence. Both mens rea, as well as actus reus, together are important to create an
offence. Actus reus can be a positive act, such as stabbing a person to cause his death. It can also be an

MOCK CLAT #23
omission (failure) to perform an action. (4) Injury: The last of the basic elements of crime is an injury.
There can be no crime if no person faces some kind of an injury. According to Section 44 of IPC, “injury”
means any harm caused to a person illegally either in mind, body, reputation or property. However, there
can be some crimes which might not require injuries to anybody.
[Source: https://www.toppr.com/guides/legal-aptitude/indian-penal-code/elements-of-crime/]
94. A has been found dead in his home. The police are trying to figure out who did it. The neighbours stated
that they had seen a UFO come and aliens from the UFO getting off and into A’s home. Decide
(a) This is a crime for aliens come within the definition of persons within Section 11
(b) This is not a crime for aliens do not come within the definition of persons within Section 11
(c) This is a crime for a murder is always a crime irrespective of whatever happens
95. ABC Ltd. is a partnership firm which indulges in chit funds. They robbed 7 persons of their money through
these chit funds. Decide
(a) The robbery is a crime for it was committed by a partnership firm which is a company.
(b) The robbery is not a crime for it was committed by a partnership firm which is not a company
(c) The robbery is a crime for ABC Limited laundered money which is always a crime.
96. C went out to hunt. When he thought that a deer was drinking water from a nearby stream, he hot at the
deer. The deer suddenly turned into a man. It turns out that the man was a magician and had become a
deer through magic. Assume that killing a deer is not a crime. Decide
(a) C is liable for a crime for C had the mens rea to kill
(b) C is not liable for a crime for C only shot at the deer
(c) C is liable for a crime for he had the mens rea to shoot at the magician
(d) C is not liable for a crime for he did not have the intent to kill the magician.
97. A with the knowledge that B has a weak liver forced him to consume a lot of alcohol. B dies. Decide
(a) A is liable for a crime for he has caused the death of B as he knew about B’s disease.
(b) A is not liable for any crime for he did not have the required mens rea to commit a crime
(c) A's liability will depend on the circumstances of the death
(d) A's liability will depend on the provision he's being made liable under
98. A is a doctor who handles patients in emergency. A comes across B who was badly injured in an
accident. B however requests A to not treat him. A seeing lack of resources and that B has consented to
his death, does not treat him and B dies. Decide
(a) A is liable for a crime as he is a doctor and he omitted from treating B
(b) A is not liable for a crime as he had received Bs consent for such omission
(c) A's liability will depend on the circumstances of the case
(d) A's liability will depend on the provision he is being sought to be brought under
99. Brett Lee bowls a fast ball which hits Undertaker on the head and kills him. However Undertaker is known
for having 8 lives and fans know that he will resurrect again. Decide
(a) Brett Lee is not liable for a crime for no injury has been caused by killing Undertaker. He will come
back again
(b) Brett Lee is liable for a crime for injury has been caused by killing Undertaker
(c) Brett Lee's liability will depend on the facts and circumstances of the case
(d) Brett Lee's liability will depend on whether Undertaker actually returns to life or not.

MOCK CLAT #23
Passage (Q.100-Q.105): The Bombay High Court on Friday granted permanent injunction against a
clothing manufacturer from using the trade name ISCKON and declared that the International Society For
Krishna Consciousness (ISCKON) is a well-known trade mark in India within the meaning provided in
Sections 2 (1)(zg) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999.
Justice Colabawalla observed-
"At the outset, it is important to note that the claim of the Plaintiff that ISKCON is a well-known trade mark
is not disputed by the Defendant. It is clear that ISKCON is a coined trademark of the Plaintiff that is to
say that the said term ISKCON did not exist prior to the Plaintiff's adoption and use of the same. Since it
is a coined trademark which is associated exclusively with the Plaintiff, it undoubtedly deserves the
highest degree of protection. The documents / material evidently show that the Plaintiff's trade mark
ISKCON has acquired immense and long-standing reputation and goodwill throughout India and abroad.
There can be no doubt that the trade mark ISKCON is associated with the Plaintiff and no one else."
Furthermore, the Court said- "In view of the above, I have no doubt in my mind that the Plaintiff's
trademark ISKCON has come to enjoy a personality that is beyond the mere products/services rendered
thereunder and the recognition, reputation and goodwill of the said trade mark ISKCON is today no
longer restricted to any particular class of goods or services. From the material placed on record, it is
evident that -
(a) the Plaintiff's trademark ISKCON has wide acceptability;
(b) the popularity of the Plaintiff' s trademark ISKCON extends not only in India but in other countries as
well;
(c) the Plaintiff is using its trade mark ISKCON openly, widely and continuously since the beginning; and
(d) the Plaintiff has taken several actions against various infringers in the past.
I am therefore of the opinion that Plaintiff's trade mark ISKCON satisfies the requirements and tests of a
well-known trade mark as contained in Sections 11(6), 11(7) and other provisions of the Trade Marks Act,
1999."
Thus, Court held the Plaintiff's trademark ISKCON is a 'well-known' trade mark in India within the
meaning provided in Sections 2 (1)(zg) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 and decreed the suit.
Source- https://www.livelaw.in/news-updates/isckon-a-well-known-trademark-bombay-hc-restrains-
clothing-manufacturer-from-using-trade-name-isckon-159048
100. Plaintiff Apple Inc, a multinational technology company has filed a case against the defendant for
violating their well known, well established trademark by launching a music company named, Apple
Corps. Decide.
(a) Plaintiff will succeed in their suit as the defendant have violated their trademark.
(b) Plaintiff will succeed in their suit for trademark violation but will not be able to claim any
compensation.
(c) Plaintiff will not succeed in their suit for trademark violation as Plantiff’s is a technology company
whereas defendant has started a music company.
(d) Plaintiff will succeed in their suit for trademark violation only if they are able to prove that they are well
established brand.
101. Kart Box is an e-commerce company selling apparels and footwear. Forever 21, a fast fashion retailer
filed a case against Kart Box for launching its in house clothing brand named “Ever 100” for being similar
to a well-known brand of the plaintiff. Will Forever 21 succeed in its claim for trademark violation?
(a) Forever 21 will not succeed as this is not a case of trademark violation.
(b) Forever 21 will not succeed as Ever 100 is not deceptively similar and is not qualifying as trademark
violation.
(c) Forever 21 will succeed in its case of trademark violation as both the marks are similar.

MOCK CLAT #23
102. Yipee noodles filed a case against Nestle Maggi for using the term “Magic Masala” and filing an
application with the registrar of Patents and trademark for grant of trademark for the said term. Nestle
Maggi argues that the term “Magic Masala” is associated with Maggi since time inception and consumers
have been association Maggi tastemaker with the name Magic Masala. Which among the following would
be the counter argument by Yipee noodles in the present case?
(a) Nestle Maggi was the first one to start using the term “Magic Masala” for its tastemaker.
(b) Nestle Maggi owns the trademark for “Magic Masala” and has all rights reserved for the mark.
(c) “Magic Masala” is a general term used by many other brands such as Lays chips and therefore the
trademark shouldn’t be granted to Nestle.
(d) “Magic Masala” is a general term used in every household of India and therefore should be perceived
as a generic term.
103. “Lal Balm” a pain relief ointment is a product by a local manufacturer sold in retail shop in and around
Amritsar. Manufacturers of Lal Balm filed a case against Dabur for selling “Dabur Lal Teil” an ayurvedic
baby massage oil. Dabur has been in the business of selling “Dabur Lal Teil” for more than a decade and
has been selling their products not just in India but outside India as well. Decide.
(a) Dabur will not be liable for trademark infringement as they started using the disputed term way before
the plaintiff entered the business.
(b) Dabur will be liable for trademark infringement as the disputed term is resulting in deception.
(c) Dabur will not be liable for trademark infringement as they are well known brand not just in the
country but also outside the country.
104. Bata, a well-recognized shoe making company filed a case against Bata Pvt. Ltd. for selling shoe polish
and other shoe accessories. Bata argued that Bata Pvt. Ltd has made customers believe that the shoe
polish too is from the Plantiff’s brand. Decide.
(a) Bata will succeed against Bata Pvt. Ltd. for trademark violation.
(b) Bata will succeed against Bata Pvt. Ltd. as it’s a clear case of copying one’s trademark to earn benefit
out of it.
(c) Bata will not succeed against Bata Pvt. Ltd. as one is a shoe maker while other is into shoe
accessory business.
(d) Bata will not succeed against Bata Pvt. Ltd. as Bata haven’t suffered any loss yet.
105. Which among the following statement is not a relevant argument in a suit filed for trademark
infringement?
(a) Party A’s trademark being deceptively similar to that of Party B.
(b) Party A’s trademark having same color and design scheme as that of party B.
(c) Party A selling its product at much lower price as that of party B.
(d) Party A having a well-established and well-known brand in the market and party B being a new
company.

MOCK CLAT #23
(Passage Q.106-Q.111): Thailand’s cyber repression seems to be linked to its troubled history of military
coups. At the advent of the 2006 military coup, the Computer Crime Act was passed, authorising state
agencies to block internet content deemed a threat to national security. It encouraged “netizens” (web
users, many of them young) to monitor and report transgressive internet behaviors. This early effort
emerged from alarm about the fact that the country’s two main factions, the red shirts and the yellow
shirts, had taken their fight to cyberspace, with the red shirts vocally opposing the coup and questioning
the country’s monarchy. Internet control increased tremendously after the May 2014 coup, staged to
facilitate royal secession and preserve elite status quo in Thailan(d)
Hundreds of websites were blocked during May 2014 alone, and working groups were set up to monitor
and analyse internet content. And in 2015, the Single Gateway proposal sought to monitor internet
content by reducing the existing 12 internet gateways to a single, state-controlled portal. Opposition to
the Single Gateway plan cleverly centred not on digital rights and freedom of expression (though those
concerns were evident in the debate), but on more universal issues, such as e-commerce and the
economy.
An anonymous group calling itself the Thailand F5 Cyber Army utilised a so-called “distributed denial of
services” (DDoS) system to wage cyber war on the Thai government. It demanded that the junta
completely cancel its Single Gateway policy. They encouraged netizens to visit official websites and to
repeatedly press the F5 key, which causes the webpage to refresh constantly, overwhelming servers.
The attacks caused many government web pages to shut down temporarily, in part because the sites
were technologically outdate(d) Coupled with other forms of resistance, this virtual civil disobedience
worke(d) On October 15 2015, the junta announced that it had scrapped the plan.
Source: https://thewire.in/external-affairs/cyber-activists-thailand
106. Which of the following is most supported by the author’s argument?

(a) The cyberspace has become the new ground of protests against the state
(b) State control always leads to curtaining of digital rights and freedom of expression
(c) The people of Thailand were more concerned with issues of e-commerce and the economy rather
than any other
(d) The Thailand authorities completely shut down the internet to ensure that the coup was not fought
against
107. Which of the following necessarily follows from the author’s argument?
(a) Thailand’s cyberspace will never resort to normalcy unless the Junta are removed from power
(b) Had the government websites been regularly updated, Thailand F5 Cyber Army’s plan would not
have worked at all
(c) The Computer Crimes Act provides the existing government with excessive control over the state of
internet affairs of its citizens
(d) Netizens have a humanitarian right to express themselves which has been taken away from them
108. Which of the following, if true, would seriously undermine the author’s argument?
(a) The Thai government has only blocked those sites that allow for external communication by Thai
people and the internal channels of communication are intact
(b) The Thai people want to restore only those sites that are related to e-commerce and the economy
(c) The previous government had also installed various safety measures in Thailand that restricted
access to the web
109. The author’s statement that “Thailand’s cyber repression seems to be linked to its troubled history of
military coups” forms the:
(a) Premise of the above passage (b) Conclusion of the above passage
(c) Assumption in the above passage (d) Hypothesis of the above passage

MOCK CLAT #23

(a) Cyber activists’ crusade against Thai government
(b) Thailand isn’t the paradise you imagine
(c) Cyberspace is succinctly holy
(d) The acrimonious nature of the Thai government
111. A major influence on art collectors is the notion that their collection is exclusive and not like those owned
by other art aficionados. For this reason, it is not a good idea for art galleries to publicize the number of
paintings sold by a particular artist if the number is very high.
Which of the statements below follow from the above argument?
(a) Exclusivity is the only factor buyers consider while purchasing art.
(b) Art galleries do not thoroughly think through their publicity campaigns before conducting them.
(c) An artist who has never sold a painting in his/her life will be in high deman(d)
(d) If an artist has sold a lot of paintings, it may hamper his/her chance of selling more paintings if certain
art aficionados know that fact.
(Passage Q.112-Q.116): Conceptually, state sovereignty is demarcated by physical territory. For island
states, that means, in effect, their shoreline. As sea levels rise, many island states could soon be
annihilated and their residents forced to flee, rendering extinct their societies. The latest report on rising
sea levels released in January 2017 by the US National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
(NOAA), predicts the worsening scenario of global sea levels rising between 0.3 and 2.5 metres by the
year 2100. This projection is an increase from the group’s December 2012 estimate of a maximum rise of
two metres.
Driven by the urgency to deal with the effects of rising sea levels, an Alliance of Small Island States
(AOSIS) was established in 1990. The Polynesian island of Tuvalu is one of them. There, freshwater
supply from reservoirs are already gradually being replaced by seawater. In parallel, it is also being
contaminated by sewage. Agricultural production, Tuvalu’s economic lifeline, will likely be affected by the
diminishing supply of potable water. If individual small island states could negotiate with such like-minded
countries as China, Japan and the Netherlands, they might start a strategic joint-venture partnership. To
be sure, such relationships – with their great power asymmetries – must be delicately managed and
based solely on environmental cooperation. No politics can be involve(d)
If better-off international partners are willing and able to exercise this extra sensitivity and, rather than
take advantage of the smaller island states, grant them preferential treatment instead, it could forge a
new path for global cooperation around shared climate challenges. Small island states could grant tenure
to partner countries to safeguard and invest in an island or group of islands for a 99-year period, say.
Together, they would co-develop marine-based industries such as sustainable aquaculture and
renewable energy sources, such as floating solar farms and tidal-powered generators.
Source: Article by Christopher H. Lim and Vincent Mack – theconversation.com
112. Which of the following, if true, weakens the authors claim?

(a) The individual small island states are the worst affected party for rising sea levels around the world
(b) The big nations may make promises but as history is witness, there is bound to be manipulation and
rule of the dominant player
(c) Small islands have a thriving economy due to enormous tourist attraction
(d) The AOSIS has not been joined by all small island states
113. Which of the following is an assumption the author makes?

(a) Small island states, other than, Tuvalu, are not prepared for the rising sea levels
(b) A global partnership will create an even better environments for islands to grow
(c) Global climate change has really affected the natural processes of the Earth
(d) The relationships between big countries and small island nation may be delicate and tricky

MOCK CLAT #23
114. All of the following can be inferred except?

(a) Big countries would be interested to invest in island states if they are favorable to saving them and
getting to invest long term
(b) Tuvalu only has a few years before its shores are completely destroyed and submerged under water
(c) The studies conducted now show that the situation of rising sea levels is becoming more severe than
before.
(d) Rising sea levels is a matter of state sovereignty for island states
115. The statement “marine based-industries is the way to the future” is:
(a) Probably True (b) Definitely True (c) Probably False (d) Definitely False
(a) No politics. Please.
(b) Water may be the next thing that kills you
(c) Developed countries looking for joint ventures
(d) Can we save low-lying island nations from rising seas?
(Passage Q.117-Q.121): The most striking component of PM Narendra Modi's address to the country on
the choice to scrap Articles 370 and 35A was its transient focus: what's to come. This served to both fill
the account with expectation and skirt the muddled political dissension going before and going with the
choice to eliminate Jammu and Kashmir's exceptional status.
He likewise held out the guarantee that J&K would make the progress from Association domain to full
statehood, without setting a cut-off time for that change. He additionally clarified that Ladakh's partition
from what used to be a realm of different areas would be perpetual.
The discourse conveys forward the undertaking of coordinating the disturbed state into the Indian
standard by spreading out before them a variety of chances for building another future for themselves
and for the country overall.
The PM held out carrots in abundance, delicious ones. Better pay rates and administration conditions for
government employees and J&K police officers, a quick whirlwind of occupations as the public authority
moved to fill all opening, new grants and instructive freedoms, new rights as undeniable residents of India
and new openings that Indian undertakings, State-possessed and private, would make.
On the off chance that a pioneer holds out a carrot, a stick can't yet be important for the bundle. Be that
as it may, if the PM employed one, it was not in plain view. He alluded to rebellion and fear, yet verifiably
regarded them as just knocks along the way to standardization and get back to statehoo(d)
The point-by-point rundown of advantages and lawful privileges that individuals of Jammu and Kashmir
presently remain to acquire, represented as they would be by the Constitution and overall set of laws of
India, is probably going to have the ideal effect of moving the focus on the advantages of the political
change, from the costs that have been generally self-evident.
The head administrator did well to report unwinding, as right on time as next Monday, when Eid would
commence, on the lockdown set up in the state. His call to the remainder of India to participate in
reconstructing the state should get control over lumping compulsion to target Kashmiris outside Kashmir.
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/blogs/et-editorials/call-to-move-ahead-out-of-a-morass/
117. "If a pioneer holds out a carrot, a stick can't yet be essential for the bundle" What is a carrot and stick
strategy?
(a) Offering reward and enforcing with discipline
(b) Offering impetuses to build profitability
(c) Offering counting calories which is troublesome; however it creates great wellbeing
(d) Offering carrots cooked on a stick to build strength
118. Which of the following is/are not incentive(s) referred to in the passage?
(a) Maternity leave for working ladies
(b) Better compensations and administration conditions for government employees
(c) New grants and instructive freedoms Three-fourth
(d) New rights as undeniable residents of India

MOCK CLAT #23
119. According to the passage, what was the impact of the most striking element of the Executive's location to
the country in regards to the choice to scrap Articles 370 and 35A?
I. Help in keeping away from the disharmony that was caused because of the rejecting of the said
articles
II. Help in illustrating trust for what's to come.
III. Help in having a discussion regarding the upsides and downsides of rejecting the previously
mentioned articles
(a) Only II and III (b) Only I and III (c) Only III (d) Only I and II
120. Which of the following assertions is the author well on the way to concur with?
(a) The motivations given out are sufficiently not.
(b) Articles 370 and 35 A ought to have been rejected
(c) Separatism and fear are going about as undetectable sticks.
(d) The leader committed an error in tending to the issue.
121. Which of the following can be construed from the passage?

I. There was a lockdown in Jammu and Kashmir.
II. Benefits given to the J&K occupants may have taken the spotlight from the expense.
III. India is not, at this point under any danger from Pakistani militants.
(a) Only I and III (b) Only I and II (c) Only II (d) Only I
Directions (Q.122-Q.123): In each question below are given three statements followed by three
conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
122. Statements:
Some cat are dog.
Some dog are rat.
All rat are cow.
Conclusions:
I. Some dog are cow.
II. All cow are being cat is a possibility.
III. All cat being rat is a possibility.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only I and II follow
(c) Only III follows (d) All follow
123. Statements:
Some book are table.
No table is a chair.
All chair are wood.
Conclusions:
I. No book is a chair.
II. Some table are wood.
III. No chair is a table.
(a) Only I follows (b) Both I and II follow
(c) Only III follows (d) None of these

MOCK CLAT #23
Directions (Q.124-Q.128): Study the information and answer the given questions:
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H will go to tour in the month of February and March. In each
month, they will go on dates 3rd, 7th, 11th and 13th of the given month. Not more than four person will go
in same month.
F will go to tour before G. D will not go to tour on 7th of any of the given month. Only three person will go
to tour before E. Two persons will go to tour between E and C. One person will go to tour between C and
A. More than three persons will go to tour between C and H. Only two persons will go to tour between H
and B.
124. Who among following will go on tour immediately after H?

(a) D (b) E (c) A (d) No one.
125. How many person/s will go to tour between F and D?

(a) One (b) Three (c) Five (d) Four
126. D will go to tour on which of the following day?

(a) 7th February (b) 7th March (c) 11th March (d) 11th February
127. If C is related to A and G is related to H, in the same way B is related to?

(a) A (b) C (c) G (d) D
128. Who among following will go to tour on 3rd March?

(a) H (b) G (c) A (d) B
Directions (Q.129-Q.131): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given
below.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight students each having a different height.

(ii) D is shorter than A but taller than G.
(iii) E is taller than H but shorter than C.
(iv) B is shorter than D but taller than F.
(v) C is shorter than G.
(v) G is not as tall as F.
129. Which of the following is definitely true?

(a) G is shorter than F
(b) C is shorter than F
(c) F is taller than C
(d) All are true
130. If another student J who is taller than E shorter than G is added to the group, which of the following will
be definitely true?
(a) C and J are of same height (b) J is shorter than D
(c) J is shorter than H (d) J is taller than A
131. Which of the following will definitely be the third from top when the eight students are arranged in
descending order of height?
(a) B (b) F (c) B or G (d) Cannot be determined
132. If in a certain code language, REQUEST is written as S2R52TU, then how will PEARL be written?
(a) L13TN (b) T42NP (c) R31PN (d) Q21SM

MOCK CLAT #23
133. In the following question, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter
series shall complete it?
_cca_a_ca_ac_ab
(a) abcbb (b) abcbc (c) abbcc (d) abccb
134. What should come in place of question mark in following series?

4, 9, 26, 105, 524, ?
(a) 3145 (b) 2473 (c) 627 (d) 4275

MOCK CLAT #23
Direction (Q.135-Q.137): The pie charts, given here show some automobile pats manufactured by an
automobile company at its Pune and Nagpur plants in the year 2009. Study the pie charts and answer
questions. The number of total auto parts produced at both plants are same.
Nagpur Plant
Tubes Tyres
25% 32%
Gear
box
14% Lights
Horn
26%
3%
Pune Plant
Tubes Tyres
28% 30%
Horn
7% Lights
Gear box 20%
15%
135. If the Nagpur plant produced 800000 tyres, then the number of horns produced by it was:
(a) 12000 (b) 18500 (c) 75000 (d) 60000
136. How many percent more tubes were produced at the Pune plant than those Nagpur plant?
(a) 14% (b) 12% (c) 8% (d) 3%
137. The ratio of number of horns produced at Nagpur plant to that produced at Pune plant is:
(a) 3 : 7 (b) 10 : 3 (c) 7 : 3 (d) 7 : 10

MOCK CLAT #23
Directions (Q.138-Q.141): Given, here is a multiple bar diagram depicting the changes in the strength of
a college in four departments from 1990-91 to 1992- 93. Study the diagram and answer the questions
based on it.
Arts Science Commerce Law
600
550
500
450
400
Student strength
350
300
250
200
150
100
50
0
1990-91 1991-92 1992-93
Year
138. In which department was there a regular decrease in students strength?

(a) Arts (b) Science (c) Commerce (d) Law
139. The percentage of students in Science department in 1990-91 was :

(a) 26.9 (b) 27.8 (c) 29.6 (d) 30.2
140. The total students strength in 1991-92 was how many times that of commerce students in the same
year?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
141. What was the percent increase in Science students from the year, 1990-91 to 1992 -93?
2
(a) 50 (b) 66 (c) 75 (d) 150
3

MOCK CLAT #23
Directions (Q.142 – Q.146): The bar char given below shows the percentage distribution of the
production of various models of a mobile manufacturing company in 2007 and 2008. The total production
in 2007 was 35 lakh mobile phones and in 2008 the production was 44 lakh, Study the chart and answer
the following question.
142. Total number of mobiles of models A, B and E manufactured in 2007 was:

(a) 2450000 (b) 2275000 (c) 2100000 (d) 1925000
143. For which h models was the percentage variation in production from 2007 to 2008 the maximum?
(a) B and C (b) C and D (c) D and E (d) A and B
144. What was the difference in the number of B type mobiles produced in 2007 and 2008?
(a) 355000 (b) 27000 (c) 225000 (d) 175000
145. If the percentage production of A type mobiles in 2008 was same as that in 2007, then the number of A
type mobiles produced in 2008 would have been:
(a) 1400000 (b) 1320000 (c) 1170000 (d) 1050000
146. IF 85% of the D type mobiles produced in each year were sold by the company, how many D type
mobiles remained unsold?
(a) 76500 (b) 93500 (c) 118500 (d) 144750
Directions (Q.147 – Q.150): There are five Taps of different capacities - T1, T2, T3, T4 and T5.
T1: It takes 10 minutes to fill the 20% of the tank.
T5: It takes 35 minutes to fill the 25% of the tank
147. A tank has 3 taps. T1 and T2 to fill the tank and third Tap to make it empty. The 3rd tap is takes 60
minutes to empty 75% of the tank. All the 3 taps are opened in the beginning. After 14 minutes, 3rd tap is
closed. In how much time, will the rest of the tank be full?
(a) 30.0625 minutes (b) 15.125 minutes
(c) 45.0312 minutes (d) 60 minutes E. None of these

MOCK CLAT #23
148. Taps T3 and T4 are filling the tank while a 3rd tap can empty the full tank in 50 minutes. T3 and T4 are
kept open for 10 minutes in the beginning and then 3rd tap is also opened. In how much time will the tank
be emptied?
(a) 28 minutes (b) 25 minutes (c) 21 minutes (d) 20 minutes
149. Taps T1 and T5 are used to fill the tank. There is a 3rd tap in the bottom of tank to empty it. If all the three
taps are simultaneously opened, then the tank is full in 50 minutes. In how much time, the 3rd Tap alone
can empty the tank?
150. If all the pipes are opened and used to fill the tank, then find the time taken by all the pipes working
together.

MOCK CLAT #23
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #23
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

Part of the Most Awesome and Consistently Successful Study Material and Test Series Module, spanning across
both Physical and Online Programs in the entire Country. While most of the world fumbled and faltered, 2020
has been another inspiring Success story both for us and those who chose to trust us. As a result LE was able to
engineer Clean-Sweep-Landslide figures of a handsome 35 Selections under 100 ranks, and a whopping 180
selections under 500 ranks in CLAT 2020. With AILET being no different, a total of 30 LEtians found their way
into NLUD in 2020. Read on!

MOCK CLAT #24
Candidate Name : _________________

Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with a
BALL PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and in
the spaces provided for.
prosecution.
Centre/Hall.
MOCK CLAT #24
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): The announcement of dates for Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Assam and Puducherry
assembly elections has focused attention on the strong repercussions their outcome will have for national
politics. BJP governs Assam, is a strong challenger in Bengal, and its ally AIADMK administers TN. Any
setback for BJP in Bengal and Assam and ally AIADMK in TN could bring the opposition roaring back into
contention in national politics. Consequently, BJP will face greater questioning over farm policy, high fuel
prices and attempts to pursue economic reforms like privatisation. But a BJP/ NDA victory in these three
states will pose existential questions to its rivals. For instance, a strong opposition voice like Mamata
Banerjee losing sway over Bengal will signal a version of pan-India primacy of BJP.
Not surprisingly, the contestation is fiercest in Bengal, with both sides boasting evenly matched
resources. Foreseeing intense political violence, Election Commission has announced an eight-phased
poll for Bengal, which some fear may only prolong the unrest. With Mamata invoking Bengali pride to
counter the rush of Hindi heartland leaders campaigning against her, BJP is making a strong pitch for
“poriborton” and attempting to ride anti-incumbency in Bengal.
Much like 2019, PM Modi remains BJP’s most saleable face in Bengal. But an assembly election may
dim Modi’s traction, requiring local leaders to up their game. With Assam and Bengal elections coinciding,
the CAA has forced BJP into a delicate balancing act. While the party hopes CAA will give it huge traction
among East Bengal Hindu migrants, it’s unpopular in Assam where BJP has to underplay it. Delays in
notifying CAA rules can be read as a symptom of BJP’s dilemma, allowing TMC to dub it a gimmick.
Pursuing a third straight term in TN, AIADMK passed a quota for the influential Vanniyar community.
AIADMK must also grapple with Sasikala’s return from prison, which could turn into a full blown power
struggle if the party loses. TN would worry BJP for its sizeable industrial base, which will bolster UPA’s
fundraising ability if it wins. Wiped out of Bengal and Tripura, CPM faces a difficult task in Kerala with its
history of voting out incumbents. For Congress, wins in Kerala, Assam, TN and Puducherry will help
regain lost respectability amid constant setbacks and counter growing dissidence against Rahul Gandhi.
The summer of 2021 promises big changes in national politics.
1. What is the passage primarily about?

(a) the fact that Assembly elections in four states could reconfigure national politics
(b) the interrelated political alliances of various parties
(c) the controversies regarding CAA and BJP’s maneuvering it in its favor
(d) the notion of political parties devising policies not for the betterment of their citizens but to stay in
power
2. These passage mentions the following:

(i) Bengal (ii) Tamil Nadu
(iii) Kerala (iv) Assam
(v) Puducherry
Which of the above are currently governed by the BJP, as per the passage?
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii)
(d) only (i)
3. Which of the following is a direct consequence of BJP losing power in any of the above mentioned
States?
(a) the influence of Mamta will become paramount in Bengal, making her undefeatable in the subsequent
elections
(b) BJP might get a lot of slack for their national policies and governance
(c) BJP might have problems passing policies
(d) might lead to Rahul Gandhi’s political redemption

MOCK CLAT #24
4. Which of the following is untrue about the impending elections in Bengal?

(a) both the parties are almost at par in the State, and the results can tilt either way
(b) the people of Bengal are likely to vote for BJP because of Modi, but mostly because of the popularity
of the local BJP leaders in Bengal, which is the main worrying point for Mamta
(c) Both the parties have gotten down to using community based politics
(d) all of the above are true
5. Which of the following is true about the CAA?

(a) CAA was passed by the BJP government
(b) CAA is widely popular in all the states mentioned above
(c) The delay in notifying the CAA rules might lead to TMC winning the elections
Passage (Q.6-Q.9): On Thursday, government introduced sweeping new rules that encompass a wide
spectrum of digital content. But the way in which these rules force-fit social media, streaming
entertainment, and digital news portals all under one umbrella, is untenable. News content already
undertakes compliance with various standalone legislations. Plus news sites follow print and TV norms,
besides the extensive self-regulation done in multiple layers between journalists and editors every day.
Social media by contrast has run [X], without accountability.
Leave alone discussing these far-reaching changes with stakeholders in digital news, government has
sidestepped even a cursory parliamentary scrutiny by introducing the sweeping regulatory framework as
subordinate legislation. And now, at a time when news media are already battling adverse economic and
legal environments, with serious charges like sedition being levelled on frivolous grounds, a whole new
set of compliance measures will bring fresh costs and dangers. For example, the oversight authority set
up with government officials and suo motu powers could both encourage strong-arming by the state and
trolls mounting a deluge on a selected media target, to hurt it punitively.
Government’s aim to impose accountability on social media to tackle a pandemic of fake news and
hatred is sound. But it’s the mainstream news platforms that have offered the strongest checks on this
dangerous phenomenon, by amplifying the credible facts and information. The three-tier grievance
redressal mechanism proposed in the rules is only going to put constraints on this work. It is not minimum
government, maximum governance and it’ll not provide benefits to society. It’s best to drop the current
rules. Instead, government can use the ongoing parliamentary exercise in fleshing out a data protection
legislation to meet its objectives of regulating social media content.
6. Which of the following is the underlying theme of the passage?

(a) news platforms must not be clubbed with social media
(b) the new rules must be scraped as they are regressive
(c) the new rules do not serve the purpose the government is trying to solve
(d) the government must unbridle news media outlets
7. How is news content different from the other types of content it is clubbed with under the new rules?
(a) it goes through various check points, unlike other forms of content
(b) it is more important and relevant than the other forms of content
(c) it is more nation centric than the other forms of content
8. What can effectively replace [X] in the above passage?

(a) independent
(b) infamous
(c) rogue
(d) amuck

MOCK CLAT #24
9. These new rules have comes as a result of which of the following?

(a) the almost negligible accountability of social media sites
(b) to counter the ever prevalent false information easily available on the internet
(c) the regulate the digital content, which has far reaching effects on the public
(d) to curb sedition against the government
Passage (Q.10-Q.14): Migrants move in search of safer and better lives. They contribute to the welfare
and sustainable development of their countries of origin and destination. Yet, they face complex human
rights challenges and vulnerabilities that we must address to ensure that no one is left behind.
In the Asia-Pacific region, the number of international migrants has grown from 52 million in 1990 to over
65 million today, roughly 25% of all the world’s international migrants. Notably, 70% of all international
migrants in Asia-Pacific come from within the region.
Most of the region’s migrants send remittances to families and others in their origin countries. This is
important because remittances support household consumption and contribute to poverty reduction.
Between 2009 and 2019, remittances to the region rose from $183 billion to $330 billion, nearly half of
the 2019 global total of $717 billion. But since COVID-19, remittances have declined drastically. Those to
Eastern Europe and Central Asia declined over 16% from $57 billion in 2019 to $48 billion in 2020.
Remittances in East Asia and the Pacific have fallen more than 10% over the same period, from $147
billion to $131 billion.
The Asia-Pacific Migration Report 2020 shows that voluntary and involuntary causes drive migration
between countries in Asia and the Pacific and in other regions of the world. The primary reason is
temporary labour migration. Many people also migrate for education, to escape poverty and inequality,
food insecurity and climate change, to reunite with family or for permanent settlement and retirement.
People often move for more than one reason.
Migrants often lack access to essential services, constrained by laws, fees, language barriers and
restrictions related to residency and migration status. Women migrants, especially domestic workers, are
particularly at risk of discrimination, violence, abuse and exploitation. Migration-related child protection
risks are also a significant concern throughout Asia and the Pacific.
10. The main theme of the passage revolves around:

(a) In the Asia-Pacific region, the number of international migrants has grown since 1990.
(b) Safe and Orderly Migration in the Asia-Pacific is needed.
(c) Basic statistical scenario of international Migration before and after pandemic.
(d) Rights and exploitation of international migrants throughout Asia and the Pacific.
11. Which of the following option best represent the meaning of the word ‘remittance’ as has been mentioned
in the context of the passage?
(a) a sum of money sent in payment or as a gift.
(b) the use of energy, time, or other resources.
(c) a payment, especially one made by a solicitor to a third party and then claimed back from the client.
(d) the action or process of getting rid of something.
12. Which of the following statements is/are true?

Statement 1: In Eastern Europe and Central Asia, remittances have rose drastically since COVID-19.
Statement 2: Women migrants, especially domestic workers, are particularly at risk of discrimination,
violence, abuse and exploitation.
(a) Statement 1
(b) Statement 2
(c) Statement 1 and 2
(d) Neither Statement 1 nor 2

MOCK CLAT #24
13. According to the passage, which of the following is the main cause that drive migration between countries
in Asia and the Pacific and in other regions of the world?
(a) Education
(b) Food Insecurity and Climate change
(c) Temporary labour migration
(d) To escape poverty and insecurity
14. Which of the following option best represent the meaning of the word ‘involuntary’ as has been
mentioned in the context of the passage?
(a) denoting an outstanding or supreme example of a particular kind of person or thing.
(b) causing one to lose courage or confidence; disconcerting
(c) done against someone's will; compulsory.
(d) (especially of a position or view) not able to be maintained or defended against attack or objection.
Passage (Q.15-Q.19): In the early 1900s when legendary musicologist, Pandit V.N. Bhatkhande,
reached the south of India as part of his epic sojourn through the country to consolidate music systems,
he was disappointed.
In accounts of these tours recorded in his travelogue, Majha Dakshinecha Pravaas (My Musical Journey
in Southern India), and in some of his letters and lectures, he expressed his dissatisfaction not only with
what he described as “this yaiyy yaiyy style of singing” but also with the fact that south of India did not
quite turn out to be the land of untouched Shastric music that he was seeking. It was instead a colourful
amalgam that included folk, Islamic and Christian musical styles too. The ardent, anti-Muslim Sanskritist
in him was not pleased.
Bhatkhande was not alone in his conception and more than a hundred years after his not-so-pleasant
discovery, this narrative of the ‘pure South’ continues to drive the scholarship and public consumption of
its classical arts. According to Davesh Soneji, Associate Professor, Department of South Asia Studies,
University of Pennsylvania, this notion has resulted in the erasure of a rich tradition of Tamil Muslim and
Christian music and many other art forms practised by non-Brahmin or Hindu artist communities.
At a webinar titled ‘The Arduous Arts: Caste, History, and the Politics of “Classical” Dance and Music in
South India’, organised by the University of California, Los Angeles, on January 11, Soneji and others
examined these and related issues that rarely get discussed. With conversations about equity gaining
prominence, said Professor Anna Morcom, Mohindar Brar Sambhi Chair of Indian Music, UCLA
Department of Music, “now seemed the right time to run this panel, because of the momentum of BLM
which is causing more discussion and reflection about class amongst South Asian scholars internationally
and in India… The debates on caste are becoming more open and heated especially in the world of
south Indian classical dance… (and) it is imperative that these debates are grounded in evidence-based
research… I was really keen to present a panel on caste with a highly authoritative lineup of leading
scholars, performers, and activists,” she said.
The theme of erasure – a natural corollary of hegemony – resonated persistently throughout its 3.5-hour
duration. T M Krishna, singer and activist who has persistently talked about this issue, raised the question
of ‘aesthetic erasure’, a process by which [musical] sounds that do not conform to the classical Carnatic
style are deemed plebian and thus undeserving of recognition. It begs the question of what indeed is
“classical” and who decides its parameters.
15. Which of the following statements is/are true with respect to the context of the passage?
Statement1: Pandit V.N. Bhatkhande, was amused when he reached the south of India as part of his epic
sojourn through the country to consolidate music systems.
Statement 2: The accounts of the tours recorded in his travelogue is called, Majha Dakshinecha Pravaas.
(a) Statement 1
(b) Statement 2
(d) Neither Statement 1 nor 2

MOCK CLAT #24
16. Which of the following options best convey the meaning of the word ‘hegemony’ as has been used in the
passage?
(a) leadership or dominance, especially by one state or social group over others.
(b) the practice or quality of including or involving people from a range of different social and ethnic
backgrounds and of different genders, sexual orientations, etc.
(c) (in Hinduism and Buddhism) the sum of a person's actions in this and previous states of existence,
viewed as deciding their fate in future existences.
(d) praise and honour received for an achievement.

(a) a brief account of a recent webinar organized by the UCLA Center for India and South Asia, where
scholars and artists laid bare the seldom-discussed problem of caste in the performing arts of South
India.
(b) The life and work of legendary musicologist, Pandit V.N. Bhatkhande.
(c) A discussion on ‘aesthetic erasure’, a process by which [musical] sounds that do not conform to the
classical Carnatic style are deemed plebian and thus undeserving of recognition.
(d) detailed discussion on the erasure of a rich tradition of Tamil Muslim and Christian music and many
other art forms practised by non-Brahmin or Hindu artist communities.
18. Which of the following best represent the meaning of the word ‘plebian’ as has been used in the
passage?
(a) member of the general citizenry in ancient Rome as opposed to the privileged patrician class (mainly
used as a derogatory term for pupils of lower social classes).
(b) the practice of engaging in the same behavior or activity for which one criticizes another or the
practice of claiming to have moral standards or beliefs to which one's own behavior does not conform.
(c) a strong supporter of a party, cause, or person.
(d) a lack of cooperation between rival political parties.
19. Given below are the effects of the narrative of the ‘pure South’ which continues to drive the scholarship
and public consumption of its classical arts. Choose the option which contains the correct answer.
1) Professor Anna Morcom, Mohindar Brar Sambhi Chair of Indian Music, UCLA Department of Music,
got disappointed when she visited South India and experienced the cultural environment there.
2) The debates on caste became more open and heated especially in the world of south Indian classical
dance.
3) South of India did not quite turn out to be the land of untouched Shastric music.
4) Erasure of a rich tradition of Tamil Muslim and Christian music and many other art forms practised by
non-Brahmin or Hindu artist communities.
Codes:
(a) (2), (3) and (4)
(b) only (1)
(c) (1) and (3)
(d) only (4)
Passage (Q.20-Q.24): In December 1943, a 20-year-old named Ruth Elias arrived in a cattle car at the
Auschwitz-Birkenau concentration camp. She was assigned to Block 6 in the family camp, a barracks that
housed young women and the camp’s male orchestra, an ensemble of incarcerated violinists, clarinet
players, accordion players and percussionists who played their instruments not just when the prisoners
marched out for daily labor details, but also during prisoner floggings.
Performances could be impromptu, ordered at the whims of the SS, the paramilitary guard of the Nazi
Party. In a postwar interview, Elias discussed how drunken SS troops would often burst into the barracks
late at night.
Music is often thought of as inherently good, a view exemplified in the playwright Wilhelm Congreve’s oft-
cited aphorism “music hath charms to soothe a savage beast.” It is also often seen as a form of art that
ennobles those who play and listen to it. Its aesthetic qualities seem to transcend the mundane and
horrific.

MOCK CLAT #24
Yet it’s also been used to facilitate torture and punishment, a topic I think is worth exploring. When I was
researching my book Drunk on Genocide: Alcohol and Mass Murder in Nazi Germany, I was struck by the
ways in which music accompanied deaths in the camps, the ghettos and the killing fields.
The fusion of alcohol, music and song with mass murder shows how violence was normalised – even
celebrated – by the Nazis. Under the Nazi regime, music and song forged community, camaraderie and
shared purpose. In unit bars, around campfires and at the killing sites, the addition of music was more
than just a form of entertainment. It was also an instrument for promoting a common purpose and
bringing people together. Through rituals of song, drink and dance, the Nazis’ actions could be
collectivised and normalised – and their larger project of violence that much easier to pull off.
Ultimately, genocide is a societal endeavour; music and song – like political philosophies – are part of a
society’s cultural artefacts. So when mass murder becomes a central tenet of a society, perhaps it
shouldn’t be a surprise that these atrocities are carried out against a backdrop of stirring song, a rousing
military march or a sentimental Schumann melody.
20. Which of the following option correctly represents the meaning of the word ‘tenet’ as has been mentioned
in the passage?
(a) a principle or belief, especially one of the main principles of a religion or philosophy.
(b) tending to keep a firm hold of something; clinging or adhering closely.
(c) able to be maintained or defended against attack or objection.
(d) very weak or slight.
21. Which of the following statement/s is/are true according to the context of the passage?
Statement 1: The book Drunk on Genocide: Alcohol and Mass Murder in Nazi Germany, was written by
Wilhelm Congreve.
Statement 2: Music was an instrument for promoting a common purpose and bringing people together in
the Nazi regime.
(a) Statement 1
(b) Statement 2
(d) Neither statement 1 nor 2
22. Which of the following option correctly represents the meaning of the word ‘camaraderie’ as has been
(a) a small group of people, especially a group of advisers to a ruler or politician, with a shared purpose.
(b) a warning or proviso of specific stipulations, conditions, or limitations.
(c) a dashing and attentive man, especially one acting as a lady's escort.
(d) mutual trust and friendship among people who spend a lot of time together.
23. According to the passage, which one of the following was the main purpose of music during the Nazi
regime?
(a) Playing music helped them gain popularity among the masses.
(b) playing music was just a form of entertainment around campfires.
(c) music was used to validate and normalize genocide as a purpose and part of a society’s cultural
artefacts.
(d) for their enjoyment as they held drunken parties.
24. Which of the following writing styles does the author follow in this passage?
(a) Narrative
(b) Persuasive
(c) Expository
(d) Descriptive

MOCK CLAT #24
Passage (Q.25-Q.29): Under the auspices of the Corbett Centre for Maritime Policy Studies comes a
thoughtful book by Jeremy Stocker, Architects of Continental Sea-power: Comparing Tirpitz and
Gorschkov, shedding light on Grand Admiral Tirpitz and Admiral Sergei Gorschkov, two important naval
figures of the 20th century, who wrestled with the problems and challenges of creating formidable navies
for primarily continental countries.
Tirpitz was a product of Wilhelmine Germany and used his contacts with chancellor Bulow to satisfy
Kaiser Wilhelm’s ambition to make a ‘great power’ of the newly created state. The Kaiser’s passion for
heraldry, uniforms, military pomp and ceremony carried itself forward into a disastrous foreign policy,
which would eventually lead to war and the destruction of the nascent state.
How much of an accomplice in this tragic endeavour was Tirpitz is rightly brought out by the author, who
writes that Tirpitz’s ambition need not necessarily have resulted in a fleet of battleships, but battleships
were large, with an overwhelming presence and glory. This, unlike, for instance, the U-boats of Germany
that eventually did more damage to the enemy in the first world war.
The author rightly criticises both the Kaiser and Tirpitz for having unsatisfactory strategic objectives, in
building a battle line, other than giving Germany ‘a place in the sun’ and building a navy of a ‘great
power’. Having served in the navy at about the time that Alfred Thayer Mahan was writing his great work,
The Influence of Sea Power Upon History: 1660–1783, Tirpitz did not seem to have taken Mahan’s
caution of maritime geography, seriously enough.
Although given enough funds to build three capital ships a year, the High Seas Fleet played little part in
influencing the land-centric centre of gravity, permitting as many as seven infantry divisions to be landed
by Britain on the coast of France, without interference.
Tirpitz’s ambition set off a naval arms race with Britain, in which the latter, with its vast financial
resources, easily outpaced the German building capacity. Eventually, Britain, the chief trading partner of
pre-war Germany, opted for a strategy of a distant blockade, which crushed the morale of the German
people and forced the yet undefeated German army to sue for peace.
Tirpitz was partly right in foreseeing that building a battle fleet would result in a Mahanian decisive battle,
and so it occurred at Jutland, but it was too little, too late. The British Grand Fleet though tactically
defeated, continued to rule the waves, while Admiral Hipper was forced to shelter Wilhelms. The author
rightly says that if the funds spent on Tirpitz’s fleet had been given to the army, the German army might
have pulled it off on the Western front.
25. The main theme of the passage revolves around which of the following options?
(a) Discussing and comparing two important naval figures of the 20th century, who wrestled with the
problems and challenges of creating formidable navies for primarily continental countries.
(b) Discussing modern naval tactics and warfare strategies.
(c) Discussing about how the British Grand Fleet got defeated but continued to rule the waves, while
Admiral Hipper was forced to shelter Wilhelms.
(d) Discussion about how the funds spent on Tirpitz’s fleet should have been spent more effectively and
wisely.
26. Which of the following options correctly conveys the meaning of the word ‘nascent’ as has been used in
the passage?
(a) having or showing an excessive interest in or admiration of oneself and one's physical appearance.
(b) a condition characterized by an extreme tendency to fall asleep whenever in relaxing surroundings.
(c) (especially of a process or organization) just coming into existence and beginning to display signs of
future potential.
(d) (of a person or manner) feeling or appearing casually calm and relaxed; not displaying anxiety,
interest, or enthusiasm.

MOCK CLAT #24
27. Which of the following statement/s is/are true as per the context of the passage?
Statement 1: The Influence of Sea Power Upon History: 1660–1783, was written by Alfred Thayer
Mahan.
Statement 2: The Kaiser’s passion for heraldry, uniforms, military pomp and ceremony carried itself
forward into a disastrous foreign policy.
(a) Statement 1
(b) Statement 2
(c) Statement 1and 2
(d) Neither Statement 1 nor 2.
28. Which of the following options correctly represent the meaning of the word ‘infantry’ as has been used in
the passage?
(a) soldiers marching or fighting on foot; foot soldiers collectively.
(b) incapable of making mistakes or being wrong.
(c) a general increase in prices and fall in the purchasing value of money.
(d) an arrival or entry of large numbers of people or things.
29. Which of the following reasons crushed the morale of the German people and forced the yet undefeated
German army to sue for peace?
(a) The U-boats of Germany eventually did more damage to the enemy in the first world war.
(b) Tirpitz’s ambition set off a naval arms race with Britain, in which the latter, with its vast financial
resources, easily outpaced the German building capacity and Britain being the chief trading partner of
pre-war Germany, opted for a strategy of a distant blockade.
(c) The Kaiser’s passion for heraldry, uniforms, military pomp and ceremony carried itself forward into a
disastrous foreign policy.
(d) As a product of Wilhelmine Germany, Tirpitz used his contacts with chancellor Bulow to satisfy Kaiser
Wilhelm.

MOCK CLAT #24
Passage (Q.30-Q.34): Starlink is a plan by [1] to put [2] satellites into low Earth orbit (LEO) that offer
high-speed, low-latency, cheap internet access to anyone anywhere on the planet. That’s the end-game.
All you would need to use Starlink is a $200 pizza box-sized receiver. Each satellite will talk to four others
using lasers as they constantly orbit Earth, together creating a web of Ku-band and Ka-band broadband
connectivity as fast as the speed of light that surrounds the planet at all times, and for all locations.
In order to beam connectivity to the surface, a massive network of ground-based stations will also be
necessary. So although [2] satellites sounds like a lot, it's only a fraction of the infrastructure that
SpaceX will have to construct.
Space internet is simply satellite-powered Internet access. This is not a new thing. Telecommunications
satellites mostly sit in a geostationary orbit thousands of miles above Earth's equator and follow the
direction of Earth's rotation, so appearing to stay in one place to serve one region. Their distance from
Earth means a lag of about a second or more.
(a) Tesla
(b) Space X
(c) Blue Origin
(d) Virgin Galactic
31. Low Earth Orbit extend up to how many km above Earth’s surface?
(a) 2000 km
(b) 1000 km
(c) 500 km
(d) 200 km
32. Which of the following is one of the advantages of the Space internet?
(a) The signals from satellites in space can overcome obstacles faced by fibre-optic cables
(b) The presence of satellite at a lower height from the Earth’s surface, will help to bring the lag down to
20-30 milliseconds.
(c) Space Internet will be able to deliver the internet in remote areas or places with difficult terrain.
33. What is the name of Space Internet project launched by Amazon?

(a) Blue Origin
(b) OneWeb
(c) Project Kuiper
(d) Virgin Galactic
(a) 4000
(b) 8000
(c) 10000
(d) 12000
Passage (Q.35-Q.39): A SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket launched a new batch of 60 Starlink internet satellites
into orbit early Sunday (March 14) and nailed its landing at sea to top off a record-setting mission. The
flight comes just days after the company's last launch, where a different Falcon 9 rocket took off from
neighboring Space Launch Complex 40, at Cape Canaveral Space Force Station. Both missions
delivered a full stack of 60 Starlink satellites to orbit, helping SpaceX inch ever-closer to filling its initial
constellation of 1,440 satellites.

MOCK CLAT #24
With an eye to further strengthen India’s friendly ties with Bangladesh, Prime Minister Narendra Modi
Tuesday virtually inaugurated the 1.9-km-long ‘Maitri Setu’ or the India-Bangladesh Friendship Bridge,
built over [1] that connects Sabroom district in south Tripura to Ramgarh in Bangladesh.
Inaugurating the bridge, Modi said it will not only boost friendly ties between the two neighbours but also
prove to be a strong link of business. Bangladesh Prime Minister [2] in a video message said the bridge
will usher a new chapter in relations between the two countries.
Announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2015, the 1.9 km-double lane bridge, which also includes
approach roads, was constructed at a cost of Rs 133 crore by the [3], a government-owned company
under the road transport and highways ministry.
(a) Kushiyara River
(b) Karnaphuli River
(c) Brahmaputra River
(d) Feni River
36. The 1.9 Km long bridge joins _____ in Tripura with ________ in Bangladesh.
(a) Sabroom and Ramgarh
(b) Ramgarh and Sabroom
(c) Belonia and Matiranga
(d) Matiranga and Belonia
(a) Khaleda Zia
(b) Sheikh Saima Wazed
(c) Sheikh Hasina
(d) Sheikh Rehana
(a) National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Limited
(b) National Highway Authority of India
(c) Ministry of Road Transport
(d) Border Roads Organisation
39. The Maitri Setu is being called which of the following?

(a) Gateway of Northeast
(b) Gateway of Bangladesh
(c) Gateway of friendship
(d) Gateway of India
Passage (Q.40-Q.44): The World Bank report released Tuesday said an analysis done by them
previously found that improving transport connectivity between the two countries could result in a 172 per
cent increase in India’s exports to Bangladesh and a 297 per cent increase in Bangladesh’s exports to
India.
Along with the Maitri bridge, Modi also laid the foundation stone of an Integrated Check Post (ICP) at
Sabroom. The ICP aims to ensure seamless movement of goods and passengers between India and
Bangladesh.
The leaders of the "Quad" group of nations - a regional alliance seen as part of efforts to balance China's
growing military and economic power - discussed "free, open and inclusive Indo-Pacific region" as well as
the coronavirus pandemic.
The leaders of the "Quad" group of nations - a regional alliance seen as part of efforts to balance China's
growing military and economic power - discussed "free, open and inclusive Indo-Pacific region" as well as
the coronavirus pandemic.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi said, "It is good to be among friends. I thank President Biden for this
initiative. We are united by our democratic values and our commitment to a free, open and inclusive Indo-

MOCK CLAT #24
Pacific. Our agenda today covers areas like vaccines, climate change and emerging technologies make
the Quad a force for global good."
"I see this positive vision as an extension of India's ancient philosophy of Vasudeiva Kutumbakam which
regards the world as one family. We will work together, closer than ever before for advancing our shared
values and promoting a secure, stable and prosperous Indo-Pacific," he said.
"Today's summit meeting shows that Quad has come of age. It will now remain an important pillar of
stability in the region," added. President Biden said a free and open Indo-Pacific region was essential to
the futures of all four countries.
The Biden administration has said the Quad nations will announce financing agreements to support an
increase in manufacturing capacity for coronavirus vaccines in India, something New Delhi has called for
to counter China's widening vaccine diplomacy.
40. Which of these countries is not the part of Quadrilateral framework?

(a) Japan
(b) Australia
(c) Russia
(d) None of these
41. Which of these was not the major topic of discussion in the summit?
(a) areas of the cooperation to maintain a free, open and inclusive Indo-Pacific region
(b) regional and global issues which are of shared interest
(c) efforts to combat the Covid-19 pandemic
(d) Skirmishes with China
42. QUAD is also known as the Asian

(a) NATO
(b) SCO
(c) APEC
(d) UIJA Summit
43. This forum was initiated by Shinzo Abe with the support of Prime Minister of India, Manmohan Singh;
Vice President of US, Dick Cheney in which year?
(a) 2007
(b) 2008
(c) 2010
(d) 2011
44. USA sees this grouping as an opportunity to regain its influence in the Indo-Pacific region in a counter to
increasing influence in the East Asia by
(a) Iran
(b) Russia
(c) China
(d) UAE
Passage (Q.45-Q.49): At the back of nationwide protests against government policies and a crackdown
on civil liberties, India has fallen two places in the 2020 Democracy Index report released by The
Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU).
A significant and novel aspect of this year remains that the Coronavirus pandemic’s impact on freedom
and democracy was also measured. Asia’s regional score fell to its lowest since 2013, as policies
adopted by governments to curb the spread of the virus in these countries resulted in stringent
constraints on individual freedom and civil liberties.
The country’s ranking over the period has seen a sharp drop from the 27th position in 2014 with a score
of 7.92. The report alleges the political fabric of the country has been damaged by religious strife and
anti-Muslim feeling under the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) who it claims has purposely created policies
that have heightened discontent.

MOCK CLAT #24
45. How many countries are covered under this report?

(a) 165
(b) 166
(c) 167
(d) 168
46. Which of these is not among the categories in which report is classified?
(a) Flawed
(b) Hybrid
(c) Authoritarian
(d) Laisse-Faire
47. How many countries falls under the category of ‘full democracies’?
(a) 23
(b) 32
(c) 53
(d) 42
48. Which one of these neighbouring countries don’t fall in the category of Hybrid Regime?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Bhutan
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Sri Lanka
49. What was India’s rank in the year 2019?

(a) 50th
(b) 51st
(c) 52nd
(d) 53rd
Passage (Q.50-Q.54): While presenting the Union budget for the FY 2021-22, Finance Minister Nirmala
Sitharaman announced that Operation Green (OG) will be expanded beyond tomatoes, onions, and
potatoes (TOP) to 22 perishable commodities. Although we don’t know yet which other commodities have
been included in OG, we welcome this move as it reflects the government’s intentions of creating more
efficient value chains for perishables.
Out of the Rs 500 crore from its initial outlay, Rs 50 crore were reserved for the price stabilisation
objective, wherein [1] was to intervene in the market wherever prices crashed due to a glut, to procure
some excess arrivals from the surplus regions to store them near major consuming centres. Another Rs
450 crore has been reserved for developing integrated value chains projects. Such projects are given 50
per cent grants-in-aid with a maximum limit of Rs 50 crore per project. This subsidy goes up to 70 per
cent in case the project is of a Farmer Producer Organisation (FPO). As of February 23, six projects
worth Rs 363.3 crore have been approved for the scheme, of which Rs 136.82 crore has been approved
as grant-in-aid. But so far, a mere Rs. 8.45 crore has been actually released, which may be because the
scheme envisages the payment of subsidy on a reimbursement basis.
50. Which of the following has been replaced by [1] in the above passage?
(a) NAFED
(b) AIFPA
(c) IFCA
(d) FSSAI
51. Operation Green was originally launched in

(a) 2017
(b) 2018
(c) 2019
(d) 2020

MOCK CLAT #24
52. There were three basic objectives when OG was launched. Which of these is not one of them?
(a) containing the wide price volatility
(b) building efficient value chains
(c) reducing the post-harvest losses
(d) increase of domestic agricultural production and sector contribution to the Gross Domestic Product
(GDP)
53. What is/are issue(s) in Operation Green replicating operation flood?

(a) There are so many varieties of TOP vegetables, grown in different climatic conditions and in different
seasons, making marketing intervention (processing and storage) all the more complex.
(b) TOP are mostly traded in APMC markets, with layers of mandi fees and commissions, and farmers
get less than one-third of the consumer’s rupee.
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
54. For increasing higher Processing-to-Production Share, which of the following strategies is not relevant?
(a) the government should run campaigns in association with industry organizations, as was done for
eggs.
(b) the government needs to promote the food processing units in horticulture
(c) distributing milk through an organized retail network.
(d) There has to be a separate board to strategize and implement the scheme
Passage (Q.54-Q.58): Over the past days and weeks, some instances of multilateral diplomatic activism have
been witnessed towards eliminating the deadlock that has been formed around the issue of the United States’
potential return to the JCPOA. Vienna, Geneva, Brussels, Paris, Berlin, Washington, New York, and Tehran
have been playing host to this activism.
U.S. President Joe Biden’s attempts to revive the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA), better known
as the Iran nuclear deal, have not seen any breakthrough with both sides waiting for the other to blink. The
Biden administration says it would return to the deal if Iran starts complying with its terms. Tehran, on the other
side, asks the U.S., which unilaterally quit the deal under the Donald Trump administration in May 2018, to
return to the agreement first and lift sanctions on Iran. The EU’s efforts to organise direct U.S.-Iran talks were
also unsuccessful as Tehran reportedly rejected the offer. Iran has also accelerated its nuclear programme.
This game of chicken continues as the clock is ticking. Iran will elect a new President in June. Hassan
Rouhani, who bet his presidency on the deal — only to be repudiated by Mr. Trump — cannot stand in a third
consecutive election. There is no guarantee that a moderate like Mr. Rouhani would be elected this time. And it
is not a secret that there is considerable opposition among the hardliners, a powerful constituency, towards
any kind of engagement with the U.S. Mr. Biden’s best bet is to get the nuclear agreement back on track
before Mr. Rouhani leaves office.
To be sure, Mr. Biden has moved with a sense of urgency after assuming power. He appointed a special envoy
for Iran, showed signs of rebalancing ties with Saudi Arabia, and sent clear signals to Tehran about America’s
desire to get back to the deal. But these actions do not seem to be enough to rebuild the trust after the
acrimonious Trump years. Some of Iran’s concerns are genuine. After the September 11, 2001 terrorist attack,
Iran had cooperated with the U.S. in the war against the Taliban. But once the Taliban were driven out of
power, the Bush administration branded Iran as part of an “Axis of Evil” along with Iraq and North Korea. As
President Barack Obama offered diplomacy, the Iranians grabbed the opportunity, leading to the signing of the
JCPOA in 2015. And Iran was fully compliant with the agreement when Mr. Trump pulled the U.S. out of it. So
Iran would seek some consistency in U.S. policy.

MOCK CLAT #24
55. Joe Biden has been sworn as the ________ president of the United States
(a) 45th
(b) 44th
(c) 46th
(d) 47th
56. J--CPOA was signed in 2015, but former US President Trump has withdrawn from it in
(a) 2016
(b) 2017
(c) 2018
(d) 2019
57. The JCPOA was the result of prolonged negotiations from 2013 and 2015 between Iran and P5+1. Which
one of the following is not the part of it?
(a) China
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) India
58. The U.S. decision of withdrawing was criticized by all other parties to the JCPOA (including the European
allies) because Iran was in compliance with its obligations, as certified by the
(a) International Atomic Energy Agency
(b) European Organization for Nuclear Research
(c) Institute of Nuclear Materials Management
(d) International Energy Agency
Passage (Q.59-Q.62): The National Cyber Security Policy, which was first drafted in the wake of reports
that the US government was spying on India and there were no technical or legal safeguards against it.
India was among the first few countries to launch a cybersecurity policy back in 2013 and now it is
looking to revamp that framework. According to Bloomberg, the new rules will be approved by the cabinet
committee on security headed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. Considering the fluid nature of
cyberattacks, the law should enable collaborative efforts amongst states and union territories of the
country and also at a cross-jurisdiction level," explained Supratim Chakraborty, a partner at Khaitan &
Co.
More importantly, experts are hoping that this time the regulations will have a little more bite in order to
be effective against cyber threats. “India's cyber threat canvas has evolved and now includes persistent
and penetrating attacks targeting India's national and commercial computer networks. The move to set
up a new system comes amid increasing reports of hackers from other countries targeting users in India
and the country’s critical infrastructure. According to cybersecurity firm Recorded Future, a new group
called the [1] has its cyber guns trained on India’s power grid, and may be linked to the massive power
outage in Mumbai that crippled banks and the glitch at the National Stock Exchange (NSE), which the
authorities are still investigating.
(a) Bureau 121
(b) Morpho
(c) Red Echo
(d) APT28 (Fancy Bear)
60. According to EY’s latest Global Information Security Survey (GISS) 2018-19, the highest number of cyber
threats have been detected in which country?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) India
(d) China

MOCK CLAT #24
61. According to which section of the Information Technology Act, CII is defined as a “computer resource, the
incapacitation or destruction of which, shall have debilitating impact on national security, economy, public
health or safety”?
(a) Section 70(1)
(b) Section 71(4)
(c) Section 69(2)
(d) Section 56(3)
62. Which agency is specialized within the United Nations and plays a leading role in the standardization and
development of telecommunications and cyber security issues?
(a) Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN)
(b) Internet Governance Forum (IGF)
(c) International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
(d) None of these
Passage (Q.63-Q.66): The government under the ambit of the [1], brought in detailed guidelines for
digital content on both digital media and Over The Top (OTT) platforms, while giving overriding powers to
the government to step in.
The new rules were unveiled at a joint press conference by Information Technology Minister Ravi
Shankar Prasad and Information and Broadcasting Minister Prakash Javadekar. The Centre's new,
stricter guidelines for social media intermediaries make it mandatory for platforms such as WhatsApp to
aid in identifying the “originator” of “unlawful” messages.
It also requires the likes of Twitter, Facebook and YouTube to take down such messages within a specific
time-frame, set up grievance redressal mechanisms as well as assist government agencies in
investigation. The guidelines have invited criticism that instead of soft-touch monitoring, the government
has opted for predatory new rules.
63. The new guidelines on social media were framed in accordance with which section of the Information
Technology Act, 2000
(a) section 78 (2)
(b) section 72 (1)
(c) section 88 (1)
(d) section 87 (2)
64. Which IT Act provides the Central Government with the authority to issue instructions to public, to restrict
online access to information
(a) Section 67
(b) Section 67A
(c) Section 69
(d) Section 69A
65. Under which sections of the IT Act, Safe Harbour Provision is defined?
(a) Section 69
(b) Section 59
(c) Section 79
(d) Section 89
(a) Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021.
(b) Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules 2021
(c) Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines on Social Media and OTT Platforms) Rules 2021
(d) Information Technology (Intermediaries Restrictions) Rules 2021

MOCK CLAT #24
Directions (Q.67 – Q.104): Read the comprehensions carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.67-Q.71): The Calcutta High Court recently had occasion to rule that even a trespasser,
unless evicted by the due process of law, is entitled to electricity (Sukla Kar v. The Calcutta Electric
Supply Corporation Ltd. & Ors.)
Justice Arindam Mukherjee, however, clarified that even the electricity connection is granted to such a
person, it would not create any other right in her favour as regards the property.
The petitioner in this case had moved the High Court after her application for a new service connection
was rejected by the Calcutta Electric Supply Corporation (CESC). Mere possession doesn’t mean that
the possessor will have any rights, title and interest in respect of the said premises.
The CESC told the Court that it cannot provide a new service main in the premises occupied by the
petitioner as there already existed once. However, the petitioner can be provided a new meter and a new
connection from the existing main service, the Court was informed.
Other private respondents told the Court that the petitioner did not have rights over the property where
the electricity connection was sought. It was submitted that she had earlier been enjoying electricity from
an existing meter on the basis of an arrangement between the petitioner and the private respondents. On
account of failure to pay bills, the electricity was disconnection, they contended.
The High Court opined that the disputes over the premises, whether it be ownership, title or interest,
cannot stand in the way of the petitioner getting a new electricity meter in her name, when the
possession of the premises by her is admitted.
"Assuming without admitting that the petitioner does not have any right, title and interest in respect of the
said premises, the petitioner’s status then is that of a trespasser. Even a trespasser, unless evicted by
due process of law, is entitled to electricity. Electricity connection, if granted to the petitioner, will not also
create any right in her favour", reads the order.
Therefore, Justice Mukherjee proceeded to direct the petitioner to make a new application for a meter
and new electricity connection within 7 days. It further issued directions for the CESC to process the
application, inspect the premises, raise a quotation and install a new meter to grant the petitioner a new
electricity connection.
The Court added that it has not gone into the dispute between the petitioner and the private respondents,
nor will its order create or affect any right for the petitioner in respect of the premises.
[Meera Emmanuel, ‘Even a trespasser, unless evicted by law, is entitled to electricity: Calcutta High
Court’ < https://www.barandbench.com/news/litigation/even-a-trespasser-unless-evicted-by-law-is-entitle-
to-electricity-calcutta-high-court> as accessed 27th December, 2020]
67. A has been in possession of B’s house since long. C, his neighbour files a case against him on the
grounds that his cow ate leaves from a poisonous tree from his garden and died. Decide.
(a) A is not liable because it was not A who planted the tree
(b) is not liable since he just had a mere possession of the house and not the garden
(c) is not liable because he did not do anything intentionally
(d) is not liable because having possession doesn’t mean he has rights and liabilities for the same
68. A being the possessor of B’s house even after lawful eviction had stopped paying the electricity bills after
which he requested for a new connection in his name for which he was rejected. He had therefore filed a
case regarding the same. Decide
(a) He will lose since he has no rights over the property
(b) He will lose since he is just a mere possessor of the property
(c) He has to clear the previous bills; only then can he get a new one

MOCK CLAT #24
69. A being the possessor of B’s house had stopped paying the electricity bills after which he requested for a
new connection in his name for which he was rejected. He had therefore filed a case regarding the same.
Decide
(a) He will lose since he has no rights over the property
(b) He will lose since he is just a mere possessor of the property
(c) He has to clear the previous bills; only then can he get a new one
70. A was staying at B’s property for past 3 years. The property had a huge garden in which many beautiful
shrubs including poisonous ones grew. Once, it so happened that A’s dog chew on a such a poisonous
flower and died. A then sues B for the same. Will he win?
(a) No, because B is no longer liable for his property.
(b) Yes, because it is B’s property.
(c) No, because A should have been careful while walking his dog.
(d) Yes, because B should’ve let A know of the types of plants present in the garden.
71. A has possession of B’s property. A had stopped paying electricity bills and thus his electricity was cut
off. He therefore went on to file an application for a new connection on July 24th, 2020 for which she was
denied one. On July 25th, 2020, he got an eviction notice from the court. She files a petition regarding the
same. Decide
(a) She will get the connection since had asked for one before she was served an eviction notice.
(b) She will not be given the connection since currently she is no more entitled to electricity.
(c) She will not get the electricity connection since has to first clear the previous bills
(d) She will not get the electricity connection since the whole country is under lockdown and it is
impossible to get a connection during the lockdown period
Passage (Q.72-Q.76): ‘Indians have nothing to fear,’ has been the refrain of the proponents of the
Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA). On the corollary move to implement a National Register of Citizens
(NRC), they keep changing their positions — sometimes they say NRC and CAA have no link at all; other
times they say the CAA will protect non-Muslims excluded from the NRC exercise. At times they say it is
an internal matter of India, but they also promise to send back the “infiltrators” to places where they
allegedly came from. The argument that Indians have nothing to fear — made repeatedly by Prime
Minister Narendra Modi and Home Minister Amit Shah among others — is less a reassurance and more
an assertion of the intent of the NRC-CAA. Yes, Indians have nothing to fear. But to be assured of no
fear, she has to first PROVE that she is an Indian! The NRC puts onerous requirements that most Indians
will find unable to meet, Hindu or Muslim. But non-Muslims have, at least theoretically, a route to
citizenship under CAA. Muslims, if they cannot get into NRC — as a large number of them like all other
communities, will end up — will have no route to citizenship.
But the statement that ‘Indians have nothing to fear’ — while there are many reasons why they are
worried — also suggests that those who are worried, the protesters, are not Indians or less Indians. The
very act of protest itself undermines one’s credentials as Indians. Considering the reflex response of the
regime that labels every critic of it ‘anti-national,’ this is a new twist. If you are Indian, you have nothing to
worry. And inversely, if you are worried, you may not be Indian! [Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/opinion-citizenship-amendment-act-the-fear-
factor/article80881479.ece]
72. Which of the following views can be correctly attributed to the author of the above passage?
(a) The Indians should not take to the streets to protest against the CAA NRC as the newly introduced
law will not affect them in any manner.
(b) The intention of the CAA NRC law is to make the Indians feel less worried about their citizenship
(c) Despite multiple assurances by Prime Minister Modi and Home Minister Amit Shah there is
speculation that the CAA NRC might strip off the citizenship of many people including Hindus as well.
Hindus might be able to use this to retain their citizenship but the Muslims will have no way out.
(d) Indians should not be worried about CAA NRC exercise as it is being brought about to deal with the
Muslim infiltrators in the country

MOCK CLAT #24
73. As per the passage given above what is the reason given by the government for bringing the CAA law?
(a) To send back the Muslim infiltrators where they belong
(b) To protect the non-Muslim excluded from the NRC exercise
(c) To strip the citizenship of the protesters who are less Indian
(d) To strip the citizenship of the government critic and Anti National
74. Suppose if one Mr X is a Muslim and another Mr Y is a Hindu. Both X and Y feel to satisfy the
requirement under the NRC. As per as per the law explain above what effect will the CAA have on their
status of citizenship?
(a) Both Mr X and Mr will be denied citizenship as the field in the NRC exercise
(b) Both Mr X and Mr Y will be granted citizenship as even though they were excluded by the NRC they
will be observed as citizens under the CAA
(c) Mr X will continue to be a citizen of India as per the provisions of the CAA but Mr Y will not be
considered to be a citizen of the country
(d) Mr Y will continue to be a citizen of India as per the provisions of the CAA but Mr X will not be
considered to be a citizen of the country
75. The author has expressed his views in support of the NRC CAA exercise. The above given statement is
true or false?
(a) True as the author constantly argues that the Indians have nothing to worry about the NRC CAA
(b) False, as the author has argue that the concept of who is an Indian has itself come into question after
the government's response to criticism
(c) True as the author appreciates the reassurance given by Prime Minister Modi and Home Minister
Shah that Indians have nothing to worry about
(d) False as the author is worried about the non-secular nature of the law
76. According to the above passage what is the response of the government to every critic?
(a) Critics will have no route to citizenship under the NRC CA
(b) Critics are labeled as Anti National and less Indian and thus they are raising their voice against the
law
(c) Critics should not worry as they are Indians and the law will not affect Indians
(d) Critics will not be able to meet the onerous requirements and the NRC
Passage (Q.77-Q.82): A contract of insurance is very similar to indemnity contracts. Here, the insurer
promises to compensate the insured for his losses. In return, he receives consideration in the form of
premium. However, the Contract Act does not strictly govern these kinds of transactions. This is because
the Insurance Act and other such laws contain specific provisions for insurance contracts.
Parties under Indemnity Contracts
There are generally two parties in indemnity contracts. The person who promises to indemnify for a loss
is the Indemnifier. On the other hand, the person whose losses the indemnifier promises to make good is
the Indemnified. We can also refer to the Indemnified party as the Indemnity Holder. For example, in the
earlier example, C is the Indemnifier and B is the Indemnity Holder.
Nature of Indemnity Contracts
An indemnity contract may be either express or implied. In other words, parties may expressly create
such a contract as per their own terms. The nature of circumstances may also create indemnity
obligations impliedly. For example, A does an act at the request of B. If B suffers some losses and A
offers to compensate him, they impliedly create an indemnity contract.
Rights of an Indemnity Holder
When parties expressly make a contract of indemnity, they can determine their own terms and conditions.
However, sometimes they may not do so. In such a case, the indemnity holder can enforce the following
rights against the indemnifier:
1) The indemnifier will have to pay damages which the indemnity holder will claim in a suit.
2) The indemnity holder can even compel the indemnifier to pay the costs he incurs in litigating the suit.

MOCK CLAT #24
3) If the parties agree to legally compromise the suit, the indemnifier has to pay the compromise amount.
77. A wheelchair manufacturer enters into an agreement with a large hospital to provide 500 wheelchairs at a
discount price. The manufacturer asks that a clause be included in the contract, in which the hospital
agrees to protect the company from any losses or lawsuits should patients be injured while using any of
the wheelchairs. Is the following an indemnity clause?
(a) Yes, it is, as the patients would be compensated incase they face any injury.
(b) No, injured patients would be indemnified, and since they are not party to the contract this won’t be
an indemnity clause.
(c) Yes, as the hospital indemnifies the wheelchair company, or the hospital guarantees for any losses or
injuries that may occur.
(d) No, as the manufacturer is not protected from any litigations or compensatory charges.
78. Lola has a homeowner’s insurance policy on her home in Texas. The insurance company has agreed to
indemnify Lola against damages to her home and the personal property kept there, from many types of
damage, including fire, burglary, and liability if someone gets injured on Lola’s property. A visiting
neighbor trips on a crack in the walkway and falls, breaking her arm. Will her contract protect her from
liability?
(a) No, as the indemnity is only in terms of injury from fire, burglary or someone getting hurt due to these.
(b) No, as the person tipped on the walkway which is not part of the home and outside it’s periphery.
(c) Yes, the insurance company would protect Lola from the medical bills and other losses claimed by
the neighbor by paying the claim.
(d) Yes, as the contract of indemnity protects you from all the future losses incurred to you.
79. Luke takes his car to the shop for repairs that will take a few days. The shop offers Luke a loaner car so
he can get back and forth to work. Luke signs the shop’s loaner car agreement, which requires Luke
have insurance, and includes an indemnifing clause. While driving through town in in the loaner car, Luke
rear-ends a car at a stoplight. Luke suffers minor injuries, but the driver of the other car has several
moderate injuries, and the damage to the loaner car is substantial. A couple of weeks later, the other
driver demands payment from the repair shop, as owner of the car that hit her, for medical bills, repairs to
her own car, and pain and suffering. Who is responsible for this compensation?
(a) Luke as his written agreement to indemnify the repair shop protects the business from liability.
(b) The lady will claim it from the repair shop and later they can make the dealing with Luke based on
compromise.
(c) Luke, who is solely responsible for any events surrounding the accident, as he was driving the car.
(d) The repair shop as they are the owner of the car and thus responsible for who they let drive their
vehicle.
80. Robert is remodelling his house to transform it into the home of his dreams. The front porch and yard are
being torn down and reconstructed, leaving Robert to worry about whether one of the contractors may
trip over debris and sue him for injuries. To protect himself, Robert asks all of the contractors and
laborers working on his home to sign an indemnity and hold harmless agreement for the same. A worker
while leaving the site for his house, falls and injures himself over the pavement. Will he be indemnified by
Robert?
(a) No, he won’t as the injury is not work related.
(b) Yes, he would, as he wouldn’t have been hurt if he wasn’t leaving from work itself.
(c) No, as the indemnity agreement protects him for paying for any liability caused due to injury.
(d) Yes, as he is the indemnifier for all liabilities caused to his workers employed on the site.
81. Mr. X is a surgeon and currently doing practice in India. Mr. Y offers him Job in Pakistan and asks him to
start his practice here. Mr. Y also promises him that he will save him from loss incurred due to practice
here. Identify the indemnifier?
(a) Mr X is the indemnifier because he benefits from the contract.
(b) Mr. Y is the indemnifier because he would take up the liability.
(c) Indemnity contracts cannot work in foreign nations, as it is part of Indian Contract Act.
(d) Third person would be indemnifier as, indemnity contracts require a third person to bear the liability.
MOCK CLAT #24
82. A contracts with the Governments to return to India from abroad after completing his studies and serve
the Government for a fixed period. He fails to return to India. Is this a contract of indemnity?
(a) This is a contract of indemnity and he is bound to reimburse the Government.
(b) This is a contract of indemnity but he is not the indemnifier.
(c) This is not a contract of indemnity but a contractual obligation.
(d) This is not a contract of indemnity as it does not fulfill the requisites for it.
Passage (Q.83-Q.88): Exceptions to Offence of Murder under Section 300 IPC, which could mitigate it to
culpable homicide not amounting to murder are:-
Exception I – Grave and Sudden Provocation as mitigation
Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, whilst deprived of the power of self-control by grave and
sudden provocation, causes the death of the person who gave the provocation or causes the death of
any other person by mistake or accident.
Essentials – The following conditions must be complied with in order to invoke the benefits of this clause:-
1. The deceased must have given provocation to the accused.
2. The provocation must be grave.
3. The provocation must be sudden.
4. The offender, by reason of the said provocation, should have been deprived of his power of self-
control.
5. The accused killed the deceased during the continuance of the deprivation of the power of self-
control.
6. The offender must have caused the death of the person who gave the provocation or that of any other
person by mistake or accident.
Exception II – Exceeding the Right of Private Defence
Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, in the exercise in good faith of the right of private
defence of person or property, exceeds the power given to him by law and causes the death of the
person against whom he is exercising such right of defence without premeditation, and without any
intention of doing more harm than is necessary for the purpose of such defence.
Exception III – Public servants exceeding his powers
Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, being a public servant or aiding a public servant acting
for the advancement of public justice, exceeds the powers given to him by law, and causes death by
doing an act which he, in good faith, believes to be lawful and necessary for the due discharge of his duty
as such public servant and without ill-will towards the person whose death is caused.
Exception IV — Sudden Fight
This exception applies to cases wherein death is caused in a sudden fight without premeditation in the
heat of passion in a sudden quarrel; so long as the fight is unpremeditated and sudden, the accused,
irrespective of his conduct before the quarrel, earns the mitigation provided for in Exception 4 to Section
300, IPC. Subject to the condition that he did not in the course of fight take undue advantage of or act in
a cruel or unusual manner.
Exception V – Consent
Culpable homicide is not murder when the person whose death is caused, being above the age of
eighteen years, suffers death or takes the risk of death with his own free and voluntary consent.
[Source: Indian Penal Code, 1860, https://www.legalbites.in/law-notes-ipc-exceptions-to-offence-of-
murder/]
83. Ram came home from work and found that his neighbor Sunil was molesting his 8 years old daughter. He
was so shocked and angry that he took axe and went towards Sunil to kill him. Seeing him, Sunil pushed
him and ran for his life. Ram ran behind Sunil with the axe and found him 6 hours later hiding behind a
bus. Ram caught him and killed him with his axe. Decide whether the exception of Grave and sudden
provocation will apply or not.
(a) Yes, because Sunil’s act could be considered as an heinous crime and was grave in nature.
(b) Yes, because seeing his daughter getting molested, the father was filled with rage and anger.
(c) No, because the act of killing Sunil was not sudden.
(d) Yes, because the act of Sunil deserves to be punished in this manner.

MOCK CLAT #24
84. Raj was sleeping in his house when a thief entered his house. Due to the noise, Raj woke up and caught
the thief. The thief tried to threaten raj with a baseball bat kept there and started to escape from the
house. Raj in order to prevent the thief from escaping, took out his pistol from the shelf and fired at him,
thus killing him. Will he be sued for murder or any exception can be granted.
(a) No, because the thief was threatening raj and could have harmed it, therefore raj acted in private
defence
(b) Yes, because killing is not a justified punishment for stealing.
(c) Yes, because Raj used more power than was necessarily required for private defence.
(d) No because the thief committed mistake and should have been punished.
85. X was a policeman who was trying to catch a dangerous armed culprit, who was hiding in a factory.
Unaware of this, the watchman of the factory who was taking round suddenly appeared in front of the
policeman holding his gun. As it was dark, “X” couldn’t see properly and shot him dead. Will he be
charged with murder?
(a) Yes, because it was because of his negligence that the watchman got killed.
(b) No, because he fired in discharge of his duty, thinking him to be the armed culprit.
(c) No, because it was an accident which took place because it was dark.
(d) Yes, because the policeman should have given warning before firing bullet.
86. Mukesh and Nitin had a conflict due to which they had physically fought many times before. Mukesh
wanted to end this chapter so he called Nitin and asked to meet him in person. He carried with him a
knife. Soon their conversation got heated up and both got involved in a physical fight. Finding the right
time, Mukesh stabbed nitin with his knife many times. Will any of the exception apply here?
(a) Yes, the exception of grave and sudden provocation will be applicable as Mukesh killed Nitin in the
heat of the moment.
(b) No, because the exception of sudden fight cannot be applied as it was planned by Mukesh
beforehand and was executed in a cruel manner.
(c) No, because he killed Nitin out of personal conflict and rage.
(d) Yes, because he acted in self defence against Nitin.
87. A 19 year old blind person named Jai was living with his guardian who used to be very rude to him. He
used to torture Jai over his disability and taunted him everyday that he is a burden to everyone. Finally,
Jai got depressed and requested his guardian to kill him in order to give him relief from all the pain. Will
the guardian be liable of murder?
(a) Yes, because the consent given by Jai was not voluntary and free will, he was forced by his guardian.
(b) Yes, because he killed jai because of his personal motive.
(c) No, because the guardian relieved Jai from all the pain and sufferings.
(d) No because the guardian had the consent of Jai who was over the age of 18 and had given voluntary
consent.
88. “A” is a police officer who was investigating a matter related to terrorism in Delhi. He arrested few people
who were suspected to be involved in the crime. During investigation, he found that none of them were
involved in the crime and had to release them. One of those suspect “X” met the police officer “A” while
he was not on duty and engaged into a physical conflict with him. “X” tried to stab “A” with a knife that he
brought with him but “A” quickly shot him dead with his personal licensed gun. Will “A” will be charged of
murder.
(a) Yes, because he did not kill “X” in the discharge of his duty therefore the exception of public servant
exceeding his powers is not available.
(b) No, because he killed “X” out of private defence who was otherwise trying to stab him to death.
(c) No, because he killed “X” out of mistake.
(d) Yes, because he went to meet “X” with a personal gun which shows that it was pre planned.

MOCK CLAT #24
Passage (Q.89-Q.94): In an interesting order, Justice Rajiv Narain Raina of the Punjab and Haryana
High Court adjourned a Civil Revision on Petitioner's counsel's pleading that the court was in a bad mood
and he would like to argue the case on some other day. The order dated February 4 discloses that
Justice Raina dismissed four urgent cases listed before him that day, one after the other. This led to the
Petitioner's counsel, Advocate KS Sidhu, assuming that the court was not in the right mood to allow his
case.
"Counsel assuming that mood of the Court is bad this morning dismissing the first four urgent cases one
after the other with orders dictated in Court, prays that time may be granted to him to argue the case on
some other day. I grant permission for an adjournment but not without saying that those cases were not
worth admission," the order read.
The rules for adjournments are listed under Order XVII of the CPC. Rule 1 thereunder clearly stipulates
that the Court may grant an adjournment to a party if "sufficient cause" is shown; provided that no such
adjournment shall be granted more than three times to a party during hearing. Sub-Rule (2) of Rule 1
further stipulates that adjournments are to be granted only if the circumstances are "beyond the control"
of the party who seeks it. However, these rules may be applicable only in cases of civil courts and not
any other authorities. [Extracted (edited) from: LiveLaw News Network, https://www.livelaw.in/news-
updates/lawyer-seeks-adjournment-as-the-mood-of-the-court-is-bad-hc-allows-the-request-read-order-
152972]
89. Anahad Narain was arguing before the NCDRC which is a commission defending Piramal Healthcare
Limited in a tough case. As the judge started grilling him on the nitty-gritties of the matter, Narain started
to find it uncomfortable as there were too many things he did not have answers to. Narain feigned
unconsciousness. As he pretended to regain his consciousness, he sought an adjournment citing ill-
health from the Chairman of the Commission. To his utter shock, the chairman denied such adjournment.
Narain argued that adjournment must be granted for the circumstances were beyond his control. Is the
chairman bound by Narain’s argument?
(a) Narain may be granted adjournment for he is not well in the mind of the judge.
(b) Narain may not be granted adjournment for he has feigned unconsciousness.
(c) Narain may be granted adjournment for the case is a tough one and he needs to prepare.
(d) Narain may not be granted adjournment for the CPC does not apply to Commissions and thus they
are not bound by the rule of circumstances being “beyond his control”.
90. Narain always feigns unconsciousness before a judge whenever he is put in a tight spot. A case was
being argued before the Calcutta High Court. Since Narain is now very experienced at falling
unconscious and seeking adjournments, he keeps doing it whenever he finds a case difficult to deal with.
As expected, this time too, the judge believes him to be genuinely unwell.
(a) Narain may be granted adjournment for he is not well.
(b) Narain may not be granted adjournment for he has feigned unconsciousness.
(c) Narain may be granted adjournment for the case is a tough one and he needs to prepare.
(d) Narain may not be granted adjournment for such acts are against the interest of justice.
91. Narain is lazy and keeps procrastinating since the feigning adjournment business has been working for
him quite well now. Before the same judge, he has taken adjournments on 23/05/2016 and on 5/08/2016.
The lawyer for the other side, learning from Narain’s tactics also performs similar courtroom drama in the
form of extreme headache and the judge grants him adjournments on 29/08/2016 and 11/09/2016.
Narain is again found to be in a tough spot during the final arguments on 30/09/2016 and yet again seeks
for adjournment. This time however, Narain is genuinely feeling unwell because of too much partying last
night.
(a) Narain may not be granted an adjournment for he’s the reason for such immense delay.
(b) Narain may be granted an adjournment for the circumstances are beyond his control.
(c) Narain may not be granted an adjournment for the matter has been adjourned for more than three
times now.
(d) Narain may be granted an adjournment in the interest of justice.

MOCK CLAT #24
92. Which of the following scenarios would be the most likely to be granted an adjournment by the court?
(a) Devgan was arguing before Justice Amish of the Trivandrum Civil Court. He sought an adjournment
on the ground that his junior was sick and there was no one to take care of the junior. Such
circumstances were beyond his control and thus fell under the relevant rule.
(b) On 29/04/2019, having argued for almost 2 hours, Goswami stated that his medical condition did not
allow him to argue for more than 2 hours before the court and thus sought for an adjournment. He
has already sought adjournments on 23/01/2019, 24/02/2019 and 15/03/2019.
(c) Rabish submitted before the court that he wanted to pick his daughter up from school and was thus
constrained to seek an adjournment before the court.
(d) None of these would be eligible for an adjournment.
93. Laxmi, an advocate appears before the Karnataka High Court. While arguing, she seeks her fourth
adjournment on a frivolous ground. The judge however grants her an adjournment. Decide
(a) The judge has acted illegally for he could only grant adjournments on reasons which are beyond
Laxmi’s control.
(b) The judge has acted illegally for he could only grant 3 adjournments to one person.
(c) The judge has acted legally for the rules above do not apply to his court.
(d) The judge has acted legally for adjournments are at his discretion.
94. Laxmi appears before the civil court in Rampur. She argues that she had to see a friend immediately in
the hospital and thus cannot argue a matter. Upon being asked whether she can send a junior to argue
the matter, she stated that since the matter is close to her heart, she would want to argue the same
herself. Decide
(a) The judge can grant her an adjournment for the circumstances are beyond her control.
(b) The judge should not grant her an adjournment for the matter being close to her heart is not a
circumstance beyond her control.
(c) The judge must be sensitive to Laxmi’s friend being admitted in the hospital.
(d) The judge must order Laxmi’s junior to argue the case.
Passage (Q.95-Q.99): The definition of "private part" has to be interpreted as per the social context, a
Special Court dealing with cases pertaining to the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO)
Act said convicting a person for committing sexual assault under Sections 354, 354A of the Indian Penal
Code and Section 10 of the POCSO Act. (State of Maharashtra vs. Sahar Ali Shaikh). The designated
POCSO judge MA Baraliya had to consider whether the act of "touching the bums" of the victim by the
accused would constitute an offence under Section 7 of the POCSO Act. Clarifying that “the term private
part is to be interpreted into the context what is meant by it in our society,” the Court held that Google’s
definition of not including bum in private part may not be an acceptable interpretation as far as Indians
are concerned. Section 7- “whoever, with sexual intent touches the vagina, penis, anus or breast of the
child …or does any other act with sexual intent which involves physical contact without penetration is said
to commit sexual assault.” Accused and other three were laughing at her, when she been to buy bread.
Second time when she was going still, they were laughing at her. Past conduct of accused laughing at
her and then touching her manifests that it was all with sexual intention, to grab the chance. The Court
noted that the accused had not touched the vagina, breast or anus of the victim. However, it ruled that
touching the posterior of the victim cannot be said to be without sexual intention. Sexual intention is the
state of mind, May not necessarily to be proved by direct evidence, such intention is to be inferred from
the attending circumstances of the case," the order read. While holding so, the Court sentenced the
accused to five years of rigorous imprisonment and payment of fine of Rs. 10,000.
[Source- Neha Joshi, ‘Google's definition of not including bum as 'private part' may not be acceptable in
Indian context: Mumbai Court convicts man under POCSO’, Bar and Bench,
<https://www.barandbench.com/news/litigation/term-private-part-to-be-interpreted-as-per-context-in-
indian-society-mumbai-court>, as accessed on 21st Feb. 2021]

MOCK CLAT #24
95. Minakshi and Sheetal were best friends. One day they were playing in a park and Minakshi saw a boy
playing alone. She went to him and starts playing with him. In a meanwhile, Suraj, father of the boy, saw
Sheetal playing alone. He went to her and inquired her about her family. Taking the opportunity in favour,
Suraj asked Sheetal to touch upon his private body parts and offered her chocolates for doing so. He
went on to make her feel comfortable and grab her from back and put his fingers across her private parts
without unclothing her. Minakshi saw the incident and went to Sheetal’s mother and stated her same. FIR
was lodged against Suraj under POCSO. Decide-
(a) Suraj is liable for sexual assault of Sheetal as he had touched upon her private parts and had undue
physical contact with her, though he had no such intent to do so.
(b) Suraj is not liable for sexual assault of Sheetal as though he had touched upon her private parts, he
had not unclothed her and there was no skin-to-skin contact.
(c) Suraj is liable for sexual assault of Sheetal as he had sufficient intention to have sexual contact with
Sheetal and had touched upon her private parts is material.
(d) Suraj is not liable for sexual assault of Sheetal as though he had touched upon her private parts, it’s
not clear whether its vagina, breasts or anus and definition is still unclear.
96. Payal was a young girl and pretty looking. She was the most beautiful girl in her locality. She went to
shopping with her friend Saloni and was encountered with a gang of bad boys who were stalking them
from past 10 minutes. She asked her not to follow them or else she will call the police. Boys asked her to
remain silent and let them enjoy her beauty. They all were giggling and one of them commented that he
wants to sleep one night with Payal and other with Saloni. Payal got enraged and called up police. The
boy attacked Payal and snatched her phone and ran away. Payal went to police station and complained
of the gang. Decide-
(a) Sexual intention is to be inferred from the statements made by the boy and not only by the physical
acts or conduct. This can amount to sexual assault.
(b) Sexual intention can only be concluded by direct evidence and has to be proved in court of law. This
cannot be said to be sexual assault.
(c) Sexual intention can be inferred from circumstantial evidences and not merely by the act or conduct
of the accused. But it alone cannot amount to sexual assault.
(d) Sexual intention has to be inferred from the conduct of the boys and even though they have it, its a
case of mere stalking and not sexual assault.
97. Mehul and Tamana were in relationship from long time. But their families were against each other. They
fixed Tamana’s marriage with Rahul to which Tamana agreed readily. She asked Mehul to forget their
long relationship and she cannot go against her family decisions. Mehul got angry with Tamana and
planned to take her from home and get into sexual intercourse after which her family cannot deny their
marriage. He asked Tamana to meet her for the last time and take her to a hotel for dinner. He takes her
to the bedroom and made her unconscious. He forcefully had sexual intercourse with her and asked her
to marry him. Tamana went to her family and stated the incident. They filed a case against Mehul for
sexual assault under IPC. The defence lawyer claimed that Mehul has not committed alleged offence as
he had used protection while having sexual intercourse and there was no physical contact between them.
Decide-
(a) The defence is correct as there was no skin to skin contact between Tamana and Mehul and the act
of sexual intercourse amount to sexual assault.
(b) The defence is incorrect as there was physical contact between Tamana and Mehul irrespective of
skin to skin contact and it amounts to sexual assault.
(c) The defence is correct as though there was sexual intention and forceful sexual intercourse, the act
has to be physical which not the case here is as Mehul used the protection.
(d) The defence is not correct as the act of Mehul of forceful sexual intercourse with Tamana amounts to
much graver offence of rape along with sexual assault.

MOCK CLAT #24
98. Shabana, a Muslim girl of 10 years old, was made through typical practices of her religion from time long.
She asked her mother about the same to which her mother responded that Female Genital Mutilation and
Nikah Halala were long set religious practices followed by their community and thus everyone has to
follow it. She claimed it to be wrong and approached court to file complaint against Maulana who helped
her family in conducting FGM successfully. She alleged him of sexual assault as he had touched upon
her private parts without her due consent and should be punished for the same. Decide-
(a) The court will held Maulana liable for sexual assault of Shabana as he had touched upon her private
parts and hence construed physical contact with her.
(b) The court will not held Maulana liable for sexual assault of Shabana as he was only following the
customary practices of their religion and had consented her family for the same.
(c) The court will held Maulana liable for sexual assault of Shabana as there were enough direct
evidences to prove the alleged offence and religious practices is not an exception to the offence.
(d) The court will not held Maulana liable for sexual assault of Shabana as there was no sexual intention
and physical contact with private parts were part of religious practice.
99. Section 354 of IPC and other related sections covered the offences of Sexual Assault and Sexual
Harassment prescribing the punishment with gravity of offence committed. Then what is the need for
implementing same clauses with different or graver punishments under POCSO Act.
(a) Sexual Assault under IPC is different from POCSO and hence there was need to redefine the same
under the POCSO Act with higher punishment.
(b) Sexual Assault and Sexual Harassment offences are graver and heinous in cases of child and to
grant much protection to them, POCSO was implemented.
(c) POCSO Act is much more comprehensive in nature and gives detailed essentials of Sexual Assault
and Harassment then IPC and thus has overriding effect over it.
(d) IPC covers only limited number of cases of sexual assault and is gender neutral but POCSO is not
gender neutral and thus was need to implement it.
Passage (Q.100-Q.104): The incidence of income tax under the Income-tax Act, 1961 is based on the
residence of the taxpayer in a previous year, which is from 01st April to 31st March and the source(s) of
his or her income. While a person "resident" in India is taxed on his or her worldwide income, non-
residents are only taxed on their India-sourced income. Section 6 of the ITA treats an individual to be
"resident" in India in any previous year if he or she is in India for: (a) 182 days or more in that year; or (b)
60 days or more in that year and has been in India for 365 days or more in the four years preceding that
year.
A writ petition was filed before the Supreme Court by a UAE-based NRI who, having come to India in
March 2020, was finally able to return to the UAE only after spending upwards of 182 days in India during
FY 2020-21. The petitioner therefore sought a direction to the effect that he would be considered "non-
resident" for Indian income tax purposes for FY 2020-21, irrespective of the duration of his stay in India,
on account of the COVID-19 pandemic.
Taking note of the fact that certain relaxations had been granted by the Central Board of Direct Tax for
FY 2019-20 through the Circular, and the fact that the pandemic had continued beyond March 31, 2020,
because of which many people had remained stranded in the country, the Supreme Court directed the
petitioner to make a representation to the CBDT and further directed the CBDT to consider the same
within three weeks of the receipt thereof.
English courts have held since time immemorial that residence must be "adopted voluntarily and for
settled purposes", and Indian courts have followed suit. For instance, in CIT v. Suresh Nanda, the Delhi
High Court held that where a person was compelled to stay in India because his passport was
impounded had to be excluded in determining whether he was "resident" in India for the relevant
assessment year. Delhi high court held that if the record discloses materials that the stay (to qualify as
resident Indian) lacked volition and was compelled by external circumstances beyond the individual's
control, she or he cannot be treated as a resident Indian.
Anandapadmanabhan Unnikrishnan, Tax Residency In The Time Of COVID - What Does The Supreme
Court Ruling In Gaurav Baid v. Union Of India Mean For NRIs? (Live Law, 01 March 2021)

MOCK CLAT #24
<https://www.livelaw.in/columns/covid-19-tax-residency-supreme-court-gaurav-baid-v-union-of-india-
170505> as accessed on 06 March 2021.
100. Dheer was an Indian citizen, who worked at TCS, Bengaluru as a consultant for a salary of INR 55,000
per month. He worked there from 01 April 2019 to 27 September 2019. After he resigned, he applied for
jobs at multinational companies in foreign countries for better career prospects. On 01 October 2019 he
left for the USA, where he had been invited to work as chief project engineer for SpaceX for a salary of
INR 1,20,000. He worked there from 1.10.2019 to 31.3.2020. His salary for October to December 2019
was credited in his USA bank account and the salary for January to March 2020 was credited in his
Bombay account directly. Decide which of his income would be taxable in India for the previous year
2019-20.
(a) Since he is a citizen of India, all the income that he earns anywhere around the world would be
taxable in India as per the Income Tax Act.
(b) Since he is a non-resident only the income that he earned from TCS in the concerned previous year
would be taxable in India as per the Income Tax Act.
(c) Since he is a resident, all the income that he earns anywhere around the world would be taxable in
India as per the Income Tax Act.
(d) Regardless of his residential status, the income earned from TCS and the income from Google that
was deposited in a Bank account in India would be taxable in India as per Income Tax Act.
101. Which of the following is/are not a conclusion of the article:

A. Only Indian residents are liable to pay tax on their worldwide income, whereas non-residents have to
pay taxes on only income earned in India.
B. A person shall be liable to pay taxes if they satisfy the mere letter of the provisions and voluntariness
of their stay is irrelevant in the determination of their residential status.
C. Subject to factual circumstances, a person who was compelled to stay for external reasons shall not
be liable to pay taxes as a resident of the nation.
D. The Supreme Court upheld the ruling of Delhi High Court and allowed the petition by excluding the
period of involuntary stay of the petitioner in India for the purpose of determining residential status.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) II and IV
(b) I and III
(c) I, III and IV
(d) III and IV
102. Azaan was a spice trader from Afghanistan, who imports spices from India. Once, when he was in India
to close a deal, Pakistan declared a war against India. As a result, all of the Indian borders were sealed
and no person was allowed to enter or leave the country. The war lasted for 7 months and for all this time
Azaan was compelled to stay in India. After the war ended, he prepared to go back to Afghanistan,
however, he received a notice to pay income tax on all the income he has earned in the previous year as
he qualifies as the resident of India. He has contended that he was forced to stay in the country due to
the ongoing war and did not volunteer to do so. The case is now pending before a high court. Which of
the following is the correct answer?
(a) Azaan shall be liable to pay income tax on his entire income earned worldwide as he has satisfied the
criteria of being an Indian resident.
(b) Azaan shall be liable to pay income tax on his entire income earned worldwide as the source of all his
income is the spice that he imports from India
(c) Azaan shall be liable to pay tax on only income earned in India as he is an Afghan citizen and the
Income Tax applies on only Indian citizens.
(d) Azaan shall be liable to pay income tax on only income earned in India as he has been involuntarily
staying in India and could not return to Afghanistan due to the war.

MOCK CLAT #24
103. Mitchell was a lawyer from the UK, who was in India to represent a multinational automobile company.
When the Supreme Court reserved the judgment to be given after 3 months, the lawyer decided to stay
to spare the cost of travelling. The judgment was given in the favour of the multinational company and
Mitchell prepared for going back to the UK. When he filed returns to pay tax on income earned in India,
he was notified that he had stayed in India for a period of 193 days and thus was an Indian resident for
the previous year, and thus shall be liable to pay tax on all the income earned. He appealed against the
notification before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal on the grounds that he was compelled to stay in
India because the judgment was reserved for a later date. Choose the correct option.
(a) Appeal shall be allowed as Mitchell did not volunteer to stay in India and was under compulsion to
save the cost of travelling, thus the period of his stay shall not be counted to determine his residential
status.
(b) Appeal shall not be allowed as Mitchell was under no compulsion to stay in India and volunteered to
stay for a specific purpose and thus is a resident of India
(c) Appeal shall be allowed as Mitchell is just representing the company in India and payment for that
case would not be income earned in India Therefore, Mitchell shall not pay any taxes on his income in
India
(d) Appeal shall not be allowed as payment received to defend a client in India amounts to income in
India which is taxable regardless of the residential status of Mitchell.
104. Anas was a student from Bangladesh, completing his bachelors and masters degree from India in 2015.
In November 2021, he decided to go back to Bangladesh to start up a tech firm of his own. His firm did
very well in the very first year and he earned enough to pay off all his education loans. In April 2022, he
received a notice from the Assessing Officer of Income Tax Department, Delhi to pay tax on all the
income he earned in the previous year 2021-22. He has made representation before the authority and
contended that he did not earn a single penny in India and all his income in the relevant year has been
earned in Bangladesh only. Which of the following is the correct option?
(a) Anas shall be liable to pay income tax on all the income he earned including that in Bangladesh as in
the relevant previous year, he was a resident of India
(b) Anas shall not be liable to pay any taxes in India for the relevant previous year as he did not earn any
income in India even if he was a resident in that previous year.
(c) Anas shall be liable to pay income tax on only the income that has been earned in India, if any, in the
relevant previous year.
(d) Anas shall not be liable to pay any taxes in India as he is a non-resident and he did not earn any
income in India in the concerned previous year.

MOCK CLAT #24
Directions(Q.105-Q.109): During the pandemic, the internet has been an indispensable health tool to
millions. Telehealth services have provided a safe way for patients to make appointments for COVID-19
testing and other types of medical care. In fact, there was a 154% increase in telehealth visits during the
last seven days of March 2020 compared to the same period in 2019. This was most likely due to public
health mandates that required a shift away from in-person care. Access to the internet is essential during
a pandemic.
This has been particularly true as the vaccine has been rolled out. Signing up for the vaccine has
predominantly occurred online. This means that far fewer older adults from under resourced racial and
ethnic minority communities have been able to make appointments. In 2018, more than one in four
Medicare beneficiaries had no digital access at home. Those without digital access were more likely to be
85 years or older, members of racial or ethnic minority communities and from low-income households.
Over the years, medical and public health experts have identified social factors – structural racism, a
person’s neighborhood, access to fresh food, exposure to toxins, income and education – that play a
major role in health. These factors are often called the social determinants of health. Experts consider
structural racism, or racism ingrained in social, business, educational and health policy and practice, to
be one of the most damaging determinants.
To address the internet gap, we believe that policymakers must identify lack of internet access as a
barrier and protect against its effects. This could include reserving vaccines in under resourced racial and
ethnic minority communities for local residents and designating senior hours for those 65 and older.
Source: https://science.thewire.in/health/how-lack-of-internet-access-is-limiting-vaccine-availability-for-
minorities/

(a) Accessibility to internet is a dispensable factor in getting access to healthcare
(b) Under resourced racial and ethnic minority communities usually have to rely on outdated modes of
communication thus, reducing avenues that provide access public healthcare
(c) Systemic racism is absolute violation of one’s right to life and life with dignity
(d) Medical service providers have been recorded to operate while being governed by racist policies

(a) The author is a person who wishes to bring changes to the medical policies to counter the effect of
unequitable distribution of resources
(b) The author is a person who wishes to ensure that virus vaccine is given to all without any problem or
delay
(c) The author is a person who wishes to provide access to internet to every household in his country
(d) The author is a person who wishes to ensure that social factors should not be given heed to in
medical work
(a) Medical professionals are known to be very fair and unbiased when it comes to giving vaccines
(b) Scientists suggest that COVID-19 is bound to vanish off Earth within the next year
(c) The impact of social factors could be seen to affect medical services even before the age of internet
(d) Citizens of every country can reserve vaccines on a phone call without any problems or delays
108. The author’s statement that “Experts consider structural racism, or racism ingrained in social, business,
educational and health policy and practice, to be one of the most damaging determinants”-
(a) Forms premise of the above passage
(b) Forms conclusion of the above passage
(c) Forms assumption of the author to the above passage

MOCK CLAT #24
(a) All citizens may not be given access to internet services
(b) All citizens may not be given access to vaccines for the virus
(c) None of the under resourced racial and ethnic minority communities would be able to get access to
vaccines
(d) Both (A) & (B)
110. In the country of Mohenjo Daro,

(1) Cricket is bigger than Football and smaller than Tennis.
(2) Hockey is smaller than Tennis and bigger than Cricket.
(3) Football is bigger than Hockey.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(a) True (b) False (c) Uncertain (d) Cannot be determined
Directions(Q.111-Q.115): As another virtual university semester unfolds — the second or even third for
some since the beginning of the pandemic — fatigue and declining satisfaction with this remote format
seem to be increasingly felt on both sides of the screen. On the one hand, there are students worried
about the quality of the courses they are taking, but above all, they are missing out on campus and
community life. On the other hand, there are teachers feeling breathlessly short of resources, who have
been pushed overnight to change their practices and run their classes from home. Beyond the purely
pedagogical impacts, the issue of mental health for everyone is of concern today.
What if one of the answers to the challenges of distance learning is to go back to basics and set up
contexts that are less “techno” and more human? So, instead of using yet another collaborative tool
during a Zoom course, why not simply create an atmosphere conducive to reflection through a warm
decor, a little nature, something to watch or music that is pleasant to listen to?
Similarly, why not open the virtual rooms earlier, or close them later, for those who want to exchange in a
more informal setting. Why not send the content in advance so as to take advantage of these so-called
“synchronous moments” to interact and inject some human warmth? Finally, it is possible to enhance
non-visual stimuli to allow students to take a break from their screens for a brief moment. The simple act
of recording podcast episodes or transmitting assessments via audio not only gives students a break for
their eyes but also offers more flexibility in when and where they can view the content. The opportunity
has also come to rediscover the charms of a simple telephone conversation, instead of another
videoconference.
Source: https://theconversation.com/distance-learning-how-to-avoid-falling-into-techno-traps-153249

(a) It is expected that school will reopen by next summer and students will be able to get back to actual
class
(b) Students have become so tired with virtual classes that they are asking to open school even if it is
dangerous to do so
(c) The atmosphere in a virtual class is more conducive and productive than that of the actual classroom.
(d) The marks attained by students have reduced to some extent since the schools have closed

(a) Teachers are under a lot of pressure to come up with innovative techniques to engage students
(b) Students are under a lot of pressure to continue to concentrate and pay attention in virtual classes
(c) Inaccessibility to technology has become a major concern in virtual classrooms
(d) Distance learning has had a significant impact on mental health of various individuals
113. Which of the following statements will the author deem the truest?
(a) Students would enjoy a virtual class taught via the ‘Among Us’ videogame setting more than a dry
recorded audio lecture
(b) Teachers would be uncomfortable to now revert back to classroom teaching
(c) Students would fare better if they are taken back to class where teaching was more perceptive

MOCK CLAT #24
114. Which of the following, if true, supports the author’s conclusion?

(a) 80% of the students are protesting to open up school for children
(b) 30% of the students are failing classes due to problems with their recently developed short attention
span
(c) 45% of the teachers are protesting to keep the schools closed until the vaccine drive is over
(d) 73% parents are concerned their kids are getting addicted to their smartphones which were to be
used to attend classes
115. The patterns of reasoning in the above passage closely resembles the pattern of reasoning in each of the
following except –
(a) X is suggested to practice shooting arrows an extra hour every day to improve his accuracy
(b) Y is gradually increasing the number of weighted squats he does every day to achieve a higher level
of fitness
(c) Q has started spending 15 minutes reading in the middle of his 8 hour writing job to increase
efficiency
(d) J has been working tirelessly for 7 days a week for this entire year
Directions: (Q.116): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I
and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to
answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer
(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question,
(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
116. Who among P, Q, R, S, T and U teaches Biology? Each person teaches one subject amongst English,
Hindi, Biology, History, Geography and Sanskrit.
I. P and U do not teach Hindi, Biology, History or Geography. Q and S do not teach Biology or
Geography. T does not teach Geography.
II. P and U teach English and Sanskrit but not necessarily respectively. Similarly, Q and S teach either
Hindi or History.
Directions(Q.117-Q.121): Certainly, much everyday writing humans now do may soon be done by
machines with artificial intelligence (AI). The predictive text commonly used by phone and email software
is a form of AI writing that countless humans use every day. According to an industry research
organisation Gartner, AI and related technology will automate production of 30% of all content found on
the internet by 2022. Literacy increasingly means and includes interacting with and critically evaluating
AI. This means our children should no longer be taught just formulaic writing. Instead, writing education
should encompass skills that go beyond the capacities of artificial intelligence.
Back at school, teachers experience pressure to teach writing for student success in narrowly defined
writing tests. But instead, the prospect of human obsolescence or “technological unemployment” needs
to drive urgent curriculum developments based on what humans are learning AI cannot do — especially
in relation to creativity and compassion. AI writing is said to have voice but no soul. Human writers, as the
New Yorker’s John Seabrook says, give “colour, personality and emotion to writing by bending the rules”.
Students, therefore, need to learn the rules and be encouraged to break them.
Students need to practise writing in which they are invested, that they care about and that they hope will
effect change in the world as well as in their genuine, known readers. This is what machines cannot do.
AI is not yet as complex as the human brain. Humans detect humour and satire. They know words can
have multiple and subtle meanings. Humans are capable of perception and insight; they can make
advanced evaluative judgements about good and bad writing.
Source: https://www.weforum.org/agenda/2021/02/ai-students-human-writing-education-artificial-
intelligence-written/

MOCK CLAT #24

(a) The writing style of humans is now obsolete and requires a technological upgrade
(b) If enough information is given to an AI program, it can easily mimic the writing style of any human
(c) Students can be taught to write in a manner that is inimitable by machines
(d) Teachers need to keep up with recent developments in the field of AI
118. Which of the following, if true, supports the author’s view?

(a) On February 7, 2021, a software was able to write an article for the New York Times in the similar
manner as another human writer
(b) AI software’s are faster at writing than humans
(c) Students can be taught to write more creatively but only if they possess certain inherent traits
(d) Studies suggest that AI might take over the world if we keep on developing it as this pace

(a) AI software may be able to learn to write in a better manner but they can never replicate the subtleties
and innuendos
(b) Students need to be encouraged to break all the rules established by schools from long before
(c) AI is replacing human writers as its product is faster to achieve and more efficient
120. The statement “With proper coding, AI will be able to replicate and replace human writers in entirety” is
121. On the basis of information provided above, what is the problem with the current system of schooling?
(a) The teachers and school authorities focus more on academic subjects rather than co-scholastic
subjects that expand the horizons of students
(b) The teachers are more concerned with students getting more marks rather than exploring their
creativity
(c) The orthodox pedagogical methods are outdated as they focus on primary skill development that is
easily replicable
(d) The books that students learn from are outdated and do not provide for the recent technological
upgrades in the society, especially AI
122. Karan’s house is south facing. From the front door of his house Karan started walking and after walking
20 metres straight he turned to his left and walked 50 metres. After this he turned to his right and walked
80 metres. Find the distance between the point from where he finished his walk and the door of his
house.
(a) 50√5 metres (b) 5√50 metres (c) 10 metres (d) 120 metres
Directions(Q.123-Q.127): Insurance regulator IRDAI has permitted dispersion of all micro-insurance

items through point-of-sales (PoS), with a point to further increment insurance entrance in the country.
The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has made an extraordinary class
of insurance strategies called micro-insurance approaches to advance insurance inclusion among
financially weak areas of society. A micro-insurance strategy is a general or disaster protection strategy
with a whole guaranteed of Rs 50,000 or less.
Consenting to the recommendations of insurance organizations, IRDAI in a round has discarded the act
of pre-fixing the word 'PoS' on life, general and wellbeing items sold through PoS. The regulator said it
has gotten portrayals from insurance organizations mentioning to get rid of the prefix 'POS' in the item
name.
Guarantors made portrayals to change the standards that made it mandatory for each strategy sold
through the 'Point of Sales People's to be independently recognized and pre-fixed by the name ‘POS'.
IRDAI said the prerequisite was to recognize the individual associated with the sales interaction.
The IRDAI (Protection of Policyholder’s Interest) Guidelines, 2017, under the issue to be expressed
throughout everyday life, general and health care coverage strategy, makes it mandatory to give the
subtleties of the individual engaged with the sales cycle. "By uprightness of this necessity, the need to

MOCK CLAT #24
have the prefix 'PoS' gets excess as the insurance strategy itself will convey the subtleties of the
individual selling such an arrangement," the regulator said. The Authority, "thus, ends prerequisites" of
utilizing the word 'PoS' prefixed before the PoS item name forever, general and wellbeing items.
Also, IRDAI said it has been seen that points of interest like higher insurance infiltration, lower costs,
expanded choice to clients, which would otherwise accumulate to the policyholder by making micro-
insurance items accessible through POS channel are being lost. "Therefore, the Authority in the wake of
inspecting the position, thus permits all Micro Insurance results of Life, General and Health care coverage
to be disseminated through the POS additionally," the round said.
On the way of managing instances of wellbeing/individual mishap (Dad) arrangements where whole
guaranteed crosses the cutoff determined under the POS rules, IRDAI said the supporting substance is
permitted to perceive such approaches as being sourced by the POS and pay the charges to the POS.
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/banking/finance/insure/irdai-allows-pos-to-
distribute-all-micro-insurance-products/articleshow/66014239.cms?from=mdr
123. Which among the following is right in regards to the goal of IRDAI to permit the conveyance of micro
insurance arrangements through the POS conveyance channel?
(a) The IRDAI is keen on expansion of insurance inclusion to an ever-increasing number of individuals in
the country.
(b) POS channel is the most mainstream dispersion network in the country and that is the reason the
vast majority of individuals are depending on this as it were.
(c) The IRDAI has perceived that micro insurance strategies are not well known as the typical
approaches and they ought to be discarded.
(d) Banks and insurance organizations are a lot keen on guaranteeing that the micro insurance items
sold in India are not the worldwide ones.
124. Which among the following is/are right in regards to the Micro Insurance approaches given by insurance
organizations in India?
I. Micro Insurance arrangements are just given by banks and insurance organizations since others are
not authorized by IRDAI to issue such approaches
II. Micro Insurance strategies are intended to offer inclusion to individuals who have a place with the
oppressed segment of the general public
III. Micro Insurance strategies are to such an extent that the total guaranteed in these approaches is Rs
50000 or not exactly that.
(a) Both II and III (b) Both I and II (c) All I, II and III (d) Only II
125. Which among the following is/are right according to the data given the passage?
I. The POS channel of dispersion of insurance items will be utilized by just IRDAI and no insurance
organization will actually want to utilize it
II. The insurance organizations are primarily dependable behind the choice of the IRDAI to eliminate the
prefix 'POS' from the names of the insurance items.
III. The POS channel can likewise be utilized to disseminate arrangements of insurance past the
admissible furthest reaches of inclusion.
(a) Both II and III (b) Both I and II (c) Both I and III (d) All I, II and III
126. Which among the following effectively clarifies the explanation of the new rules of the IRDAI in regards to
the withdrawal of the prefix POS in the names of the insurance strategies sold by POS?
(a) IRDAI made it mandatory to add the prefix of the approach nature in any strategy sold by the
insurance organizations in India.
(b) IRDAI isn't authorized to sell approaches online since it is the managing body of the insurance
business in the country however it likewise needs to keep a tab on the authorized mediators.
(c) The IRDAI has made it mandatory that all the approaches gave by the micro insurance specialists will
be sold through point of sales people as it were.
(d) The IRDAI currently has the data with respect to the point of sales people selling the insurance
strategies in India and it doesn't bode well to distinguish such approaches by name.

MOCK CLAT #24
127. Which among the following is/are right in regards to the advantages that were not there before the choice
of the IRDAI permitting the micro insurance items to be sold through the POS channel?
(a) The policyholders couldn't get profited by lower and serious expenses offered by insurance
organizations.
(b) The insurance organizations were not after the policyholders to take their strategies without making
any sort of customizations with respect to the insurance organizations.
(c) There were less choices accessible to the policyholders to browse the insurance items accessible on
the lookout.
(d) Both A and C
Directions(Q.128 and Q.129): Read the following passage and answer the items that follow :
A, B, C, D, E and F are cousins. No two cousins-are of the same age, but all have birthdays on the same
day of the same month. The youngest is 17 years old and the oldest E is 22 years old. F is somewhere
between E and D in age. A is older than (b) C is older than (d) A is one year older than (c)
128. Which one of the following is possible?

(a) D is 20 years old (b) F is 18 years old
(c) F is 19 years old (d) F is 20 years old
129. What is the number of logically possible orders of all six cousins in terms of increasing age?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Directions(Q.130-Q.134): It’s been a busy – and controversial – year for Wonder Woman. In October
2016, the United Nations made a curious appointment: Wonder Woman would be the global
organisation’s new Ambassador for Women’s Empowerment. But it was met with a great deal of criticism.
While the fictional feminist icon has long been a representative of strong, liberated women, her Western
appearance, sexualised image and unrealistic beauty don’t resonate with millions of young women
around the world. They’re actually alienating.
This woman-directed, woman-led film tells a story of justice, of a character who fights evil forces for the
greater good. As Wonder Woman, Gal Godot overcomes the trite “damsel in distress” narrative and
rescues her own damn self. But are we being overly generous with the feminist label here? Rather than
represent real women, Wonder Woman satisfies the societal image of the ideal woman. Inhumanly
strong, super sexy and bolstered by her exceptionalism, Wonder Woman is a “walking contradiction of
the competing demands placed on women’s shoulders today”.
How many actual women or girls around the world can live up to Wonder Woman as a role model? Would
we even want them to? Also lacking in laudatory reviews of Wonder Woman is the idea of
intersectionality – the acknowledgement that women’s multiple identities (not just sex but also gender
identity, race, class, sexual orientation, religion and others) expose them to numerous forms of
oppression. Why haven’t feminists noted that the film is, quite simply, too Western and too white?
Source: https://thewire.in/film/wonder-woman-symbol-oppression
(a) It is imperative that we have more female superheroes
(b) It is pertinent to create more life-like female superheroes
(c) It is important to have more male superheroes which have a feministic approach
(d) It is pertinent to have more female superheroes which have a feministic approach

(a) More representation in the superhero space has got women celebrate a breakthrough all over the
world
(b) Majority of the audience members view the film as a dramatization of an average women’s life which
still hold certain fundamental empowering elements
(c) The film has been banned by Lebanon for its lead character being portrayed by an Israeli actor
(d) Both (A) & (B)

MOCK CLAT #24

(a) Simply having a female lead is not enough if it fails to involve any intersectionality
(b) Gal Godot was an ideal choice to play the character of Wonder woman
(c) The movie should have been directed by a man which would have made it appeal to a larger
audience
(d) Young women look up to women superheroes more than princesses in other films
133. The author’s statement “Wonder Woman is a walking contradiction of the competing demands placed on
women’s shoulders today” forms the:
(a) Premise that portrayal of wonder woman is not as feminist as it’s supposed to be
(b) Conclusion that portrayal of wonder woman is not as feminist as it’s supposed to be
(c) Premise that the character of wonder woman is not as feminist as it’s supposed to be
(d) Conclusion that the character of wonder woman is not as feminist as it’s supposed to be

(a) Wonder woman symbolises women’s oppression
(b) Wonder Woman: feminist icon or symbol of oppression?
(c) Female superheroes are a necessity
(d) Gal Gaddot – true Wonder Woman
135. In a plane, line X is perpendicular to line Y and parallel to line Z; line U is perpendicular to both lines V
and W; line X is perpendicular to line V.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Z, U and W are parallel. (b) X,V and Y are parallel.
(c) Z, V and U are all perpendicular to W. (d) Y, V and W are parallel.

MOCK CLAT #24
Directions (Q.136-Q.140): Answer these questions on the basis of the following information :
The owner of an Arts and Crafts shop sells a certain number of articles of 4 different varieties –
Carpets (∆), Jars ( ), Table lamps ( ) and Diwans (X).
136. Which variety of articles has the lowest average cost price?
(a) Diwans (b) Table lamps (c) Carpets (d) Jars
137. Which variety of articles has the highest average selling price?
138. The article of which variety earned the highest profit?

139. Which variety has the lowest average profit?

140. For how many articles, the profit is more than 50% of the cost price?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

MOCK CLAT #24
Directions (Q.141-Q.145): The histogram below shows the results of a survey conducted in a city. It
shows the number of families in that city having various daily incomes.
700
600 600
600
500
Number of Families 500
400
400 350 350 350
300 300
300 250
200
100
0
1000 2000 3000 4000 5000 6000 7000 8000 9000 10000
Daily Income in rupees
141. How many families have daily income which is at least ₹7000?
(a) 1200 (b) 850 (c) 1600 (d) 1000
142. How many families have daily income which is less than ₹4000?
(a) 950 (b) 1250 (c) 1100 (d) 1450
143. How many families have daily income not less than ₹2000 but less than ₹6000?
(a) 1550 (b) 1150 (c) 1250 (d) 1400
144. What percentage of the total number of families have daily income which is at least ₹6000?
(a) 35% (b) 52.50% (c) 45% (d) 53.33%
145. What is the approx average daily income of families whose incomes are at least Rs.5000 and at most
Rs.8000?
(a) Rs.6879 (b) Rs.6355 (c) Rs.7145 (d) Rs.6124

MOCK CLAT #24
Directions (Q.146-Q.150): Study the following pie-chart and table carefully to answer the questions that
follow:
Total cars = 700

Distribution of cars
State-1
State-4 14%
26%
State-2
State-3 28%
32%
Table showing the ratio diesel to petrol engine cars which are distributed among four different states
State Diesel Engine Cars Petrol Engine Cars

State – 1 3 4
State – 2 5 9
State – 3 5 3
State – 4 1 1
146. What is the difference between the number of diesel engine cars in State – 2 and the number of petrol
engine cars in State-4?
(a) 159 (b) 21 (c) 28 (d) 34
147. The number of petrol engine cars in State – 3 is what percent more than the number of diesel engine
cars in state-1?
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 300 (d) 125
148. If 25% of diesel engine cars in State- 3 are AC and the remaining cars are non- AC. What is the number
of diesel engine cars in State-3 which are non-AC?
(a) 75 (b) 45 (c) 95 (d) 105
149. What is the difference between the total number of cars in State-3 and the number of petrol engine cars
in State – 2?
(a) 106 (b) 112 (c) 102 (d) 98
150. What is the average number of petrol engine cars all the states together?
(a) 86.75 (b) 89.25 (c) 89.75 (d) 86.25

MOCK CLAT #24
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #24


MOCK CLAT #25
Candidate Name : _________________

Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
prosecution.
Centre/Hall.
Passage(Q.1-Q.6): In the televised interview of Meghan Markle, the couple spoke of the way they’d been
treated by the Royal Family, and the racist media headlines that targeted Meghan after the couple’s
wedding.These detailsstruck a chord with historian Priya Atwal, whose research specializes in empire,
monarchy and cultural politics.
The day before the interview aired in the U.S., Atwal posted a Twitter-thread detailing the experiences of
people of color from across the British Empire who became Queen Victoria’s “godchildren” over the
1850s and 1860s, noting some of the parallels between the way they’re treated by the institution and the
press, and the current situation with Meghan.
The mid-19th century was a period of rapid change for Britain, the British Empire and the British
monarchy. The Empire was dramatically expanding around the world, with control of India transferring to
the direct rule of the British Crown starting in 1858, and trading networks in Asia and Africa plundering
nations for their natural resources.
The monarch informally adopted several wards as her godchildren from different corners of her empire.
Victoria did take a personal interest in all of these young children from across the Empire and took them
under her wing, “they essentially were put up as poster children in many respects.”
Among them were Princess Gouramma of Coorg, who came with her father to England in 1852.
Gouramma became the first Indian Royal to convert to Christianity in a ceremony where the Queen
became her godmother. And while Gouramma was often seen with the Royal Family and was given fine
clothing and jewelry along with the title of honorary princess, her life and upbringing was closely
controlled by Queen Victoria. “Victoria doesn’t allow Gouramma to see her father again, and Gouramma
eventually loses the ability to speak Hindi.” says Atwal. “The lens through which Gouramma is seen is
through this colonial mindset. It’s all about making sure that what she does and how she behaves fits to
protect the royal family.” Gouramma tried to run away several times as a teenager, felt very
misunderstood—a parallel with the Meghan Markle.
Atwal says that despite the different circumstances, comparisons between the situations show how little
has changed within the machinery of the monarchy. “The problem remains that the culture of royalty and
the way the institution operates to protect its own image is actually very problematic. It tries to assimilate
these people, because ultimately, it doesn’t care about those people to the same degree as it does about
the crown,” says Atwal. “And if the interests of the crown are threatened, then it doesn’t matter what
collateral damage happens to the lives of people that are being assimilated. They are expendable.”

(a) the rapid industrial change that Britain went through in the mid-nineteenth century
(b) the colonizing of the Asian subcontinent and the drastic change of trade routes by the British
(c) the deeply imbedded racism in the “the Institution” which has come to the forefront very recently
(d) a comparison between Meghan’s plight and that of the “wards” of queen Victoria
2. The author of the passage has tried to draw parallels between Meghan and various “wards” of the
Queen. Which of the following is the most relevant point of similarity in between the two, its relevance
being dependant on how well it aligns with the theme of the passage?
(a) Both Meghan and the wards are people of color
(b) Both Meghan and the wards belong to countries which were colonized by Britain
(c) Both Meghan and the wards had their rights limited as soon as they entered the Royal family
(d) Both Meghan and the wards suffered primarily because of their race
3. As per the passage, why did Meghan specifically become the target of racism and backlash from the
media as well as the Royal Household?
(a) as she is a person of color
(b) as she married Prince Harry, being a person of color
(c) as she belongs to a country which was a colony of the Great Britain in the past
(d) as she has similarities with the wards that the Queen had adopted in the past

4. What can be inferred to be the Queen’s attitude towards the wards?
(a) the Queen did not necessarily care about the wards, “adopting” them was mostly a way to gain
acceptance in colonized states
(b) the Queen cared deeply about the wards, going to the length of assimilating them into the royal family
and providing them with all possible riches and luxuries
(c) the Queen “adopted” the wards as a way to compensate for the plundering and looting of its colonies
(d) the Queen did care about the wards, but not nearly as much as she did for the crown and the
institution of monarchy
5. By way of this passage, the author aims to do which of the following?

(a) draw an eerily similar parallel between the wards and Meghan
(b) bring to light the systematic racist attitude of the Royal Family towards people of colour, not just today
but since colonisation
(c) show the plight of people of color associated with the Royal Family
(d) show the Queen’s kind and altruist history, thus disproving the veracity of Meghan’s interview
6. Which of the following would the author agree with, as per the passage?
(a) As India has been a colony in the past, India’s deep seated racism comes from the Victorian
Influence
(b) Indians who were a ward of the Queen were made to give up their culture and adopt British traditions
(c) Meghan’s interview was a wake-up call for people indulging casual racism all across the globe, not
just in Britain
(d) India’s caste system is a more detailed form of racism
Passage(Q.7-Q.12): Legal positivism has a long history and a broad influence. It has antecedents in
ancient political philosophy and is discussedin mediaeval legal and political thought.
The modern doctrineowes little to these forbears. Its most important roots lie in the political philosophies
of Hobbes and Hume, and its first full elaboration is due to Jeremy Bentham whose account Austin
adopted, modified, and popularized. For much of the next century an amalgam of their views, according
to which law is the command of a sovereign backed by force, dominated English philosophical reflection
about law.
By the mid-twentieth century, this account had lost its influence among working legal philosophers. Its
emphasis on legislative institutions was replaced by a focus on law-applying institutions like courts. The
most important architects of contemporary legal positivism are the Austrian jurist Hans Kelsenand the
two dominating figures in the analytic philosophy of law, H.L.A Hart and Joseph Raz, among whom there
are clear lines of influence, but also important contrasts.
Legal positivism’s importance isn’t confined to the philosophy of law. It can be seen throughout social
theory, particularly in the works of Marx, Weber, and Durkheim, and also among many lawyers, including
the American “legal realists” and most contemporary feminist scholars. Although they disagree on many
other points, these writers all acknowledge that law is essentially a matter of social fact. Some of them
are, it’s true, uncomfortable with the label “legal positivism” and therefore hope to escape it. Their
discomfort is sometimes the product of confusion. Lawyers often use “positivist” abusively, to condemn a
formalistic doctrine according to which law is always clear and, however pointless or wrong, is to be
rigorously applied by officials and obeyed by subjects. It’s doubtful that anyone ever held this view, but
it’s in any case false and has nothing to do with legal positivism.
The view that the existence and content of law depends ultimately on social facts doesn’t rest on a
particular semantic thesis, and it is compatible with a range of theories about how one investigates the
social world, including non-naturalistic accounts. To say that the existence of law depends on facts and
not on its merits is a thesis about the relation among laws, facts, and merits, and not otherwise a thesis
about the individual relata. Hence, many traditional “natural law” moral doctrines—including the belief in a
universal, objective morality grounded in human nature—don’t contradict legal positivism. The only
influential positivist moral theories are the views that moral norms are valid only if they have a source in
divine commands or in social conventions. Such theists and relativists apply to morality the constraints
that legal positivists think hold for law.

7. Which of the following must be given the credit for Legal positivism as it stands today?
(a) mediaeval legal and political thought (b) Hume
(c) Bentham (d) H.L.A Hart
8. As per the passage, what is the meaning of Legal positivism?

(a) a theory of command of the sovereign
(b) a moral sociological philosophy
(c) a philosophy to discern what is law in actuality
(d) a theory propounded by philosophers to create a clear distinction between courts and legislative
bodies
9. What is the aim of the author as per the passage?

(a) to define legal positivism
(b) to shed light on the importance of legal positivism
(c) to trace the history of legal positivism till present time
(d) to talk about the pros of legal positivism and advocate it as the most widely prevailing theory of law
10. Which of the following do not find mention in the passage?

(a) the history of legal positivism
(b) the main philosophers who propounded the theory of legal positivism
(c) the wider usage of legal positivism, outside of the legal realm
(d) the comparison of legal positivism with natural law
11. Why is legal positivism used abusively by lawyers today?

(a) because of the wrong inference drawn by people about legal positivism
(b) as legal positivism is a rigorous philosophy and does not have much room for a parallel thought
(c) as legal positivism does not accommodate any other contradictory theory of law
(d) as legal positivism brings forth a wrong notion of the philosophers following it
12. Which of the following best describes legal positivism as it stands today?
(a) law is the command of a sovereign backed by force
(b) the emphasis must be on legislative institutions instead of courts
(c) an amalgamation of the views of Austin, Hugh, Raz and Bentham
Passage(Q.13-Q.17): In 1972, Selma James started the International Wages for Housework Campaign
(IWFHC) in Manchester as a grassroots women’s network campaigning for recognition and payment for
all caring work, in the home and outside. They wanted to change the situation of dependency of women,
reverse the relations of power, and redistribute the wealth that they produced. Because the demand was
for a wage ‘for housework,’ for any individual who performed it, and not a wage ‘for housewives,’ it was in
a position to destabilise the socio-sexual division of labour. The “Statement of the International Feminist
Collective” issued in 1972 in Italy, rejected a separation between unwaged work in the home and waged
work in the factory, pronouncing housework as a critical terrain in the class struggle against capitalism.
Throughout the 80s and 90s, the IWFHC lobbied the United Nations Conferences on Women on unpaid
work, and got the UN to pass resolutions that recognised the unwaged caring work that women do in the
home, on the land and in the community. On March 8, 2000, women from over 60 countries around the
world participated in the Global Women’s Strike (GWS). This strike was called for by the Wages for
Housework Campaign, demanding among other things, “Payment for all caring work – in wages,
pensions, land and other resources.”
In a 2018 interview to the Boston Review, Silvia Federici noted, “The politics of wages for housework was
shaped by women who had an understanding of capitalism, imperialism and the anti-colonial struggle.
Thus we could not accept that women’s liberation could be a struggle for ‘equality with men’ or that it
could be limited to equal pay for equal work. We saw that in the same way as the racialization of black

men and women had served to justify slavery, so had gender-based discrimination served to exploit
women as unpaid workers in the home.”
Thus, it is time we started valuing women’s household work. Paying salaries to women for housework
can give women respect, recognition, dignity and empowerment. The question then is, who will pay for it?
Can the government take on this additional burden? It is worth mentioning here that in 2006 the then
president of Venezuela, Hugo Chavez, announced that its homemakers would receive 380,000
Venezuelan Bolivares per month ($185), which was about 80% of the Venezuelan minimum wage. If
Venezuela is able to do it, I do not see why India cannot consider the option. It is time we started working
out the logistics to implement this idea whose time has come.

(a) How the racialization of black men and women had served to justify slavery.
(b) A comparison on gender equality in between Indian and Venezuelan socio-economic scenario.
(c) The importance of paying salaries to women for housework in order to provide them with respect,
recognition, dignity and empowerment.
(d) A brief account on how in 1972, Selma James started the International Wages for Housework
Campaign (IWFHC) in Manchester to focus on gender equality.
14. Which of the following writing styles has been followed by the author in the passage?
(a) Narrative (b) Expository (c) Persuasive (d) Didactic
15. Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect according to the passage?
Statement 1: In the year 1972, Selma James rejected a separation between unwaged work in the home
and waged work in the factory, pronouncing housework as a critical terrain in the class struggle against
capitalism.
Statement 2: On March 8, 2000, women from over 60 countries around the world participated in the
Global Women’s Strike called by the International Wages for Housework Campaign.
(c) Statement 1 and 2 (d) Neither statement 1 nor 2
16. Which of the following options correctly represents the meaning of the word ‘imperialism’ as has been
(a) the advocacy of women's rights on the ground of the equality of the sexes.
(b) dislike of, contempt for, or ingrained prejudice against men (i.e. the male sex).
(c) a policy of extending a country's power and influence through colonization, use of military force, or
other means.
(d) the theory that knowledge is wholly or mainly derived from pure reason.
17. Which of the following options correctly represents the meaning of the word ‘capitalism’ as has been used
in the passage?
(a) an economic and political system in which a country's trade and industry are controlled by private
owners for profit, rather than by the state.
(b) allegiance to one's own ethnic group rather than to the wider society.
(c) a theory or system of social organization in which all property is owned by the community and each
person contributes and receives according to their ability and needs.
(d) a 20th-century avant-garde movement in art and literature which sought to release the creative
potential of the unconscious mind, for example by the irrational juxtaposition of images.
Passage(Q.18-Q.21): Just before the next round of talks between Indian and Chinese military
commanders to resolve the standoff in eastern Ladakh, US national security adviser Robert O’Brien has
said that time has come to accept that dialogue will not persuade Beijing to change its ways. O’Brien has
a strong point. Beijing’s [X] and extravagant territorial claims have only been growing in recent years.
That said, counterbalancing an aggressive China through platforms like Quad and keeping channels of
communication open with Beijing should not be seen as mutually exclusive. Doing so raises the
probability of misjudgement and conflict, which is in nobody’s interest. In this regard, China has in recent

weeks hinted at reviving the 1959 LAC with India. As per this proposal, China will pretty much retain
Aksai Chin in the Ladakh region while giving up its claims on Arunachal Pradesh.
Retaining what each side has and making it the basis for settling the international border is the best
solution to the India-China confrontation. After all, New Delhi has no hope of wresting Aksai Chin from
Beijing just as Chinese claims on Arunachal are a pipe dream. But the deal needs to be sold to domestic
constituencies. Just as it’s said that only a Republican president such as Richard Nixon could have made
a rapprochement with Mao’s China, Prime Minister Narendra Modi alone has the capacity to sell an LAC
deal in India, as no one will question his nationalist credentials. With Modi and Xi slated to come face-to-
face at the virtual Brics summit next month, New Delhi should explore if Beijing is serious about the 1959
LAC proposal. If it is, then Modi could actualise a historic deal. Else, with the situation deadlocked on the
LAC we are heading towards its LoC-isation, which will inflict a heavy military and economic burden on
India.
18. What can most aptly replace [X]?

(a) belligerence (b) standoffishness (c) selfishness (d) peaceful intrusion

(a) China will be given the possession of the Aksai Chin area after the revival of the 1959 proposal
(b) the revival of the proposal will reinforce the status quo
(c) the revival of the proposal will give unfair gain to China
(d) the revival of the proposal will lead to wrongful gain to India
20. What is the author mean about China’s claim over Arunachal Pradesh being a pipe dream?
(a) it is a possibility, but not in the near future
(b) it is almost an impossibility
(c) it is a surety, set to happen in near, but uncertain future
(d) it is bound to happen in the coming years
21. According to the author, why is Modi well suited to get the LAC proposal revived?
(a) as he is a dynamic leader, one who might be able to influence local leaders
(b) as Modi can is a renowned leader, with a tough international standing
(c) as Modi has been known to be vigorous while furthering national interests, he is bound to be trusted
on his international policies
Passage(Q.22-Q.26): On 2nd October every year, we remember the greatness of Mahatma Gandhi – [X]
of non-violence. Every political dispensation makes use of its share of Gandhi: Prime Minister Narendra
Modi themed the Swachh Bharat mission on Gandhi, a decade before that the UPA invoked him for
MGNREGA. Yet the tensions between Gandhian ideals and application of draconian laws raise
increasingly disturbing questions.
Gandhi’s legacy of non-violent protest continues to echo across India, despite strong crackdowns.
Gandhi opposed sedition laws all his life. Yet this British Raj era provision gets inappropriately wielded
against dissenters. A more recent misuse involves the National Security Act and Unlawful Activities
(Prevention) Act. NSA is to be clamped only sparingly, for an unmanageably strong threat to public order.
Detainees mustn’t be imprisoned longer than necessary. UAPA is India’s sword arm against terrorism.
But its use against activists, most recently anti-CAA protesters, undermines its credibility.
Some of the chargesheets filed against arrested activists deploy leaps of logic, and make for tendentious
reading. For instance a chargesheet against Sharjeel Imam, accused of inciting anti-CAA “chakka jams” –
a form of protest that’s routinely wielded by political outfits across India – cites as evidence of his
radicalization his reading of political scientist Paul R Brass, while mentioning disapprovingly Brass’s
conclusion that communal violence must be understood as the work of organised groups rather than
spontaneous outbreaks of passion. Two points are noteworthy here. First, reading academic works about
riots doesn’t make one a rioter. Second, seeing riots as a spontaneous outbreak of passions is the more
radical point of view, rather than the debunking of such a notion. Overall, such language in chargesheets

suggests thought policing in the guise of investigation. It’s worth reflecting on what Gandhi would have
made of such a case.
Likewise, Narcotics Control Bureau claiming Rhea Chakraborty’s alleged crime is worse than murder is
redolent of moral policing. If allegedly procuring ganja is so abhorrent, recall its legality between the dawn
of civilization and 1985 when NDPS Act wasn’t law yet. Exaggerating threats of Bollywood immorality or
shutting down Amnesty International could cramp India’s soft power, at a time when a weak economy is
widening its hard power deficit against Chinese machinations. Beyond paying tributes to Gandhi, our
netas must adhere to his belief in empowering citizens. Using laws to liberate citizens, as in the recent
farm reforms, is the way to go.
22. What can suitably replace [X] in the above passage?

(a) epitome (b) epoch (c) apostle (d) protector
23. The fact that Gandhi’s name is being used in relation to draconian policies is …?
(a) hypocritical (b) ironic (c) contrasting (d) a juxtaposition
24. The author talks about the following legislations in the passage:
i. sedition laws ii. UAPA iii. NSA iv. CAA
Which of the above mentioned legislations are being used in discordance with Gandhian Principles?
(a) only i and iii (b) i, ii, iii
(c) only ii and iv (d) all of the above
25. Complete the sentence:

Seeing the sad legal-political state of the country, Gandhi would be… ?
(a) be turning in his grave (b) shaken up
(c) on cloud nine (d) spaced out
26. What is the passage mainly about?

(a) draconian laws prevalent in present day India
(b) a contrast between Gandhian principles and the laws place in India today
(c) a comparison on India in Gandhi’s era and today
(d) Free speech and the right to protest
Passage(Q.27-Q.30): Some provisions of the Special Marriage Act, 1954, that violate the fundamental
right to privacy could come under the judicial scanner, which is most welcome. The Supreme Court has
sought Centre’s response on a PIL challenging these provisions which require marriage officers to put up
public notices for 30 days to solicit objections before the marriage is registered. The notice reveals
personal details of the couple like their current and permanent addresses, which often become an
avenue for harassment and personal injury. The petitioners flagged the incidents of honour killings and
parental and societal opposition to inter-caste and inter-religious marriages.
For decades, the Act has been upheld as a template for a uniform civil code. Men and women opting for
a secular marriage or escaping the clutches of arch-conservative families and religious personal laws find
refuge under the Act. But SC ruling privacy as a fundamental right renders its “objection” provisions [X]
and [Y]. Among the purported benefits of a public notice are that it will help families track eloping couples
and prevent bigamy. The counter to this is that marriage is a relationship between consenting adults and
both men and women must fully own the repercussions of their decisions. This vestige of maibaapsarkar
must be ended.
The marriage officer’s task is to ascertain that identification and age-proof documents presented are not
forgeries and there is consent in the relationship. False information, coercion and fraud can render the
marriage invalid under the Act, apart from criminal action under IPC. The public notice can have
dangerous implications: Many young couples breaking caste or religious taboos are ruthlessly hunted
down in rural, and sometimes urban, India. Representatives of caste organisations and votaries of
political bogeys like love jihad have their roving eyes on these notices. Such vigilantes have foiled many
legitimate marriages. The law cannot empower them.

Revealing private information that poses threat to life and free choice doesn’t pass the right to privacy
judgment’s test of proportionality. Laws must unambiguously recognise equal agency for men and
women in choices about marriage, divorce, gender, childbirth, succession etc. Paternalism of state,
society and family over personal choices of individual citizens is a hollowing out of the promise of liberty,
equality and fraternity in the Constitution. Progressive changes in the Act can be a marker of the distance
India has traversed from 1954 to 2020.

(a) the fundamental right to marry
(b) the fundamental right to privacy
(c) how the SMA intrudes upon the individual’s fundamental rights
(d) the regression of Indian political parties
28. Which of the bellow combinations can best replace X and Y?

(a) archaic, illegal (b) orthodox, regressive
(c) harsh, disproportionate (d) mercurial, censured
29. Why was the Act held as a template of UCC?

(a) because of its prompt objection provisions
(b) because of its secular nature
(c) because it did not differentiate on the basis of gender
(d) because its aim is marriage between two consenting adults belonging to different castes
30. Which of the following are untrue about the SMA?

(a) some provisions of SMA are an example of State Paternalism
(b) SMA breaches innumerous constitutional rights of an individual
(c) interfaith marriages per se are illegitimate under the SMA
(d) all of the above are true

Passage (Q.31-Q.36): India's economy returned to growth in the December quarter, ending a recession
induced by two successive quarters of economic contraction, and the recovery, which the government
termed as '[1]' shaped, is expected to gather pace.
The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) grew 0.4 percent in the October-December 2020 period compared
with the same period a year back, data released by the National Statistics Office on Friday showed.This
growth compares with revised contractions of 24.4 percent in April-June 2020 and 7.3 percent in July-
September. GDP had expanded by 3.3 percent in October-December 2019. While India has become one
of the few major economies to post growth in the last quarter of 2020, the annual GDP estimate for the
fiscal year ending 31 March has been revised to an [2] percent contraction, deeper than an earlier
estimate of (-) 7.7 percent.
China's economy grew by 6.5 percent in October-December 2020, faster than the 4.9 percent growth in
July-September 2020.Commenting on the growth numbers, the finance ministry in a statement said real
GDP growth has "returned the economy to the pre-pandemic times of positive growth rates.
It is also a reflection of a further strengthening of [1]-shaped recovery that began in Q2 of 2020-21 after a
large GDP contraction in Q1 followed one of the most stringent lockdowns imposed by government
relative to other countries.

(a) U
(b) V
(c) Inverted-U
(d) Inverted-V
32. The NSO has revised its advance national income estimates for FY21 to project decline in GDP by [2].
What is [2]?
(a) 7%
(b) 7.3%
(c) 8%
(d) 7.8%
33. A technical recession is when a country faces a continuous decline for

(a) three consecutive quarters in the GDP
(b) two consecutive quarters in the GDP
(c) two consecutive years in the GDP
(d) None of these
34. India is likely to end up with an “elongated ______-shape” recovery due to the weakness of the economy
going into the Covid crisis as well as the inadequate fiscal stimulus measure taken by the government.
(a) V-shape
(b) U-shape
(c) L-shape
(d) Z-shape
35. According to which report by the World Bank, India’s growth is likely to remain at 1.5-2.8% in 2020-21
which is the slowest since 1991 economic reforms.
(a) World Economic Outlook
(b) South Asia Economic Focus
(c) Global Financial Stability Report
(d) World Development Report

36. Who among the following Indians serves on the International Monetary Fund's Board of Governors as an
ex-officio Governor?
(a) RBI Governor
(b) Foreign Affair Minister
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Chairman of National Statistical Commission
Passage (Q.37-Q.42): Amidst growing concerns around lack of transparency, accountability and rights of
users related to digital media and after elaborate consultation with the public and stakeholders, the
Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021 has been
framed in exercise of powers under section 87 (2) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 and in
supersession of the earlier Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules 2011.
While finalizing these Rules, both the Ministries of Electronics and Information Technology and Ministry of
Information and Broadcasting undertook elaborate consultations among themselves in order to have a
harmonious, soft-touch oversight mechanism in relation to social media platform as well as digital media
and OTT platforms etc.Social media companies with more than [1] registered users will be considered
'significant social media intermediaries'
Part- II of these Rules shall be administered by Ministry of Electronics and IT, while Part-III relating to
Code of Ethics and procedure and safeguards in relation to digital media shall be administered by the
Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
Over the years, the increasing instances of misuse of social media by criminals, anti-national elements
have brought new challenges for law enforcement agencies. These include inducement for recruitment of
terrorists, circulation of obscene content, spread of disharmony, financial frauds, incitement of violence,
public order etc.
It was found that currently there is no robust complaint mechanism wherein the ordinary users of social
media and OTT platforms can register their complaint and get it redressed within defined timeline. Lack of
transparency and absence of robust grievance redressal mechanism have left the users totally
dependent on the whims and fancies of social media platforms. Often it has been seen that a user who
has spent his time, energy and money in developing a social media profile is left with no remedies in case
that profile is restricted or removed by the platform without giving any opportunity to be heard.
37. Which of these is not a part of Additional Due Diligence that is to be followed by Significant Social Media
Intermediary?
(a) Appoint a Chief Compliance Officer
(b) Appoint a Nodal Contact Person
(c) Publish a monthly compliance report
(d) Making of online Portal for filing complaint

(a) 10 lakh
(b) 25 million
(c) 50 million
(d) 100 million
39. Which section Information Technology Act empower the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting to
implement the Rules
(a) 86 (a)
(b) 87
(c) 87(a)
(d) 88

40. Publisher shall appoint a Grievance Redressal Officer based in India who shall be responsible for the
redressal of grievances received by it. The officer shall take decision on every grievance received by it
within
(a) 7 Days
(b) 15 Days
(c) 30 Days
(d) 48 Hours
41. The safe harbour provisions have been defined under which Section of the IT Act
(a) Section 79
(b) Section 97
(c) Section 66
(d) Section 82
42. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting shall formulate an oversight mechanism which will
I. publish a charter for self-regulating bodies, including Codes of Practices
II. establish an Inter-Departmental Committee for hearing grievances
III. oversee the adherence by the publisher to the Code of Ethics and address grievances that have not
been resolved by the publisher within 15 days.
Which of the above statement is/are incorrect?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) None of these
Passage (Q.43-Q.48): As U.S. President Joe Biden begins a diplomatic push to revive a 2015 nuclear
agreement between Iran and world powers, supporters of the deal say he will need a long-term effort to
succeed, while opponents say he should focus instead on pressuring Tehran into a new and tougher
deal.The 2015 agreement, the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action, or JCPOA, was reached between
Iran and the five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council plus [1], known as the
P5+1. It requires Iran to undertake eight- to [2]-year-long curbs in nuclear activities with potential for
weaponization in exchange for international sanctions relief. Former U.S. President Donald Trump
withdrew from the deal in 2018 saying it was not tough enough on Iran, which has retaliated by
exceeding the deal’s nuclear limits since 2019.“We’re prepared to reengage in negotiations with the P5+1
on Iran’s nuclear program,” Biden said Friday at the White House, in a speech to a virtual version of the
Munich Security Conference, an annual forum on international security policy.Biden, who has pledged to
return to the JCPOA if Iran first resumes full compliance, responded positively to an EU proposal made
Thursday for the six world powers and Iran to attend an informal meeting to discuss how to revive the
agreement. A State Department spokesman said the U.S. would accept such an invitation, which has yet
to be publicly offered.

(a) Russia
(b) India
(c) Germany
(d) France
44. The U.S. decision of withdrawing was criticized by all other parties to the JCPOA(including the European
allies) because Iran was in compliance with its obligations, ascertified by the
(a) International Atomic Energy Agency
(b) European Organization for Nuclear Research
(c) Institute of Nuclear Materials Management
(d) International Energy Agency

(a) 15
(b) 18
(c) 20
(d) 21
46. Which of these is not among the signatories agreed to lifting their nuclear-related sanctions on Iran?
(a) European Union
(b) United Nations
(c) United States
(d) None of these
47. Iran accused the United States of reneging on its commitments, and faulted Europe for submitting to U.S.
unilateralism. In a bid to keep the agreement alive, France, Germany, and the United Kingdom launched
a barter system, known as
(a) SINTEX
(b) INSTEX
(c) INSXET
(d) SINXET
48. Who is the current President of Iran?

(a) Mustafa Al-Kadhimi
(b) Mahmoud Ahmadinejad
(c) Barham Salih
(d) Hassan Rouhani
Passage (Q.49-Q.53): The peculiar nature of Puducherry politics and the size of each assembly seat
explains what makes it easier for legislators here to shift their loyalties, especially when much more has
happened to the ruling AIADMK in the neighbouring state of Tamil Nadu in the past four years.
On an average, a Puducherry MLA represents about 20,000 to 25,000 voters, which is only as big as an
average city corporation ward in India. And the political transactions here are largely ‘personal’ than
‘political,’ with politicians having a significant personal rapport with people in their smaller localities,
mostly based on community and caste factors, besides a little politics.
Even if majority of Puducherry population speaks Tamil, and several policies, schemes and areas such
as education are influenced by Tamil Nadu, the stake of DMK and AIADMK in Puducherry has also been
very limited, as both parties hardly had a special interest in Puducherry affairs. In a tiny Union territory
with hardly 30 elected MLA seats, which are scattered across Puducherry (23), Karaikal in Tamil Nadu,
Mahe in Kerala and Yanam in Andhra Pradesh, Puducherry has been traditionally a Congress
stronghold.
49. The Government of Union Territories Act, 1963 was enacted by the Parliament in accordance with the
provisions of article -
(a) 238C
(b) 238A
(c) 239B
(d) 239A
50. Which Part of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration of Union Territories?
(a) VI
(b) VII
(c) VIII
(d) None of these

51. Which of these is not provided with a legislative assembly and a council of ministers headed by a chief
minister?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Delhi
(c) Puducherry
(d) Lakshadweep
52. Which of these statement is wrong about President’s rule in a state

I. President’s Rule implies the suspension of a state government
II. imposition of direct rule of the Centre
III. also known as ‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional Emergency
(a) III is wrong
(b) II is not completely right
(c) I and III are right
(d) None of these
53. The President’s Rule is imposed through the invocation of which Article of the Constitution?
(a) Article 355
(b) Article 357
(c) Article 356
(d) Article 354
Passage (Q.54-Q.60): In [1], after decades of tensions and sniping along the Line of Control, the de facto
international border in disputed Kashmir, India and Pakistan finally agreed to a cease-fire. The
agreement came in the aftermath of a major crisis in 2001-2002, which had brought the two states to the
brink of war.
That meltdown started with an attack that Jaish-e-Mohammed, a Pakistan-based terrorist organization,
launched on the Indian parliament in December 2001. In response, India undertook a massive military
mobilization along its borders with Pakistan to force it to end its support for a range of terrorist groups
operating from its soil. Pakistan made some nods toward reining in various terrorist groups, but it was
clear that it was not prepared to bow to Indian pressure.
The [1] accord lasted a mere [2] years, but it nevertheless proved to be robust during that period.
According to reliable sources, neither side violated its terms during that period. Now, after a couple of
years in which Indian-Pakistan relations have taken a nosedive over a series of bloody border clashes,
the two sides have agreed to strike another deal. Both will hold their fire and continue negotiations to end
the long-simmering conflict between them. There is reason for optimism; even a fragile peace is better
than continued conflict. That said, given the fraught history of peace agreements between India and
Pakistan, there is ample reason for caution as well.
54. The Line of Control was created in the aftermath of the third India-Pakistan war, in the year?
(a) 1971
(b) 1972
(c) 1973
(d) 1974

(a) 2003
(b) 2004
(c) 2005
(d) 2006

56. Dialogue of 2015 broke down soon thereafter because of the -
(a) Bhimber Gali Assassination
(b) Pulwama Terror Attack
(c) Pathankot Airbase Attack
(d) None of these
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
58. Who is the current Chief of Army Staff and the chairman of the Indian Army?
(a) General Manoj Mukund Naravane
(b) General Bipin Rawat
(c) General Bikram Singh
(d) GeneralKarambir Singh
(a) In 2020, there were more than 5000 cases of ceasefire violations by Pakistan
(b) The [1] Ceasefire Agreement’s written draft is very loosely worded which has led to so many
violations
(c) There has been a general softening of stance by both India and Pakistan
60. Who has been appointed as the new DGMO of India?
(a) Lt Gen. B.S. Raju
(b) Lt Gen. D.P. Pandey
(c) Lt Gen. Paramjit Singh Sangha
Passage (Q.61-Q.65): The Kingdom of Saudi Arabia proposed a new peace initiative on Monday that
would usher in the end of the war in [1].Saudi Foreign Minister Prince Faisal bin Farhan Al Saud said
Monday that the plan would include a nationwide cease-fire, reopening Sanaa airport and would allow
fuel and food imports through [x] port.The Yemen civil war escalated in 2014 when [y] forces, who are in
alliance with former Yemeni President [2], took over the nation’s capital.Since March 2015, Saudi Arabia
and the UAE have carried out attacks in [1] against the [y]. Former President Donald Trump’s
administration had backed the Saudi-led intervention in Yemen.Trump vetoed a measure in 2019 aimed
at ending U.S. military assistance and involvement in [1]. At the time Trump said that the congressional
resolution was “unnecessary” and that it endangered “the lives of American citizens and brave service
members, both today and in the future.”Lawmakers who backed the measure criticized Saudi Arabia for a
slew of bombing campaigns that caused thousands of civilian deaths in [1].
61. Which Country is being discussed in the above passage – [1]?

(a) Lebanon
(b) Syria
(c) Somalia
(d) Yemen
62. In June 2018, the coalition launched a major offensive to capture from the [y] a city whose port is the
principal lifeline for almost two thirds of [1]’s population.It has been redacted by [x]. What is [x]?
(a) Aden
(b) Hajjah
(c) Hudayadh
(d) Taiz

(a) Ali Abdullah Saleh
(b) Abdrabbuh Mansur Hadi
(c) Ali Mohsen al-Ahmar
(d) Ali Salem al Beidh
64. The [y] are said to be receiving aid from –
(a) Iraq
(b) Russia
(c) Iran
(d) UAE
65. Yemen is strategically important for war’s significance for the world because it sits on
(a) Bab-el-Mandeb strait
(b) Doumeria strait
(c) Perim strait
(d) Ras Manheli strait
Passage (Q.66-Q.68): The Centreopposed any changes to the existing laws on marriage to recognise
same sex marriages, saying such interference would cause “a complete havoc with the delicate balance
of personal laws in the country”.
“Living together as partners and having sexual relationship by same sex individuals is not comparable
with the Indian family unit concept of a husband, a wife and children which necessarily presuppose a
biological man as a ‘husband’, a biological woman as a ‘wife’ and the children born out of the union
between the two,” the Centre argued in the [1] High Court.
It said the 2018 landmark judgment of the Supreme Court decriminalising consensual homosexual sex in
India was “neither intended to, nor did it in fact, legitimize the human conduct in question”.
In an affidavit filed in response to petitions seeking to recognize same sex marriage, the Central
government said, “Despite the decriminalisation of Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), the
petitioners cannot claim a fundamental right for same-sex marriage being recognised under the laws of
the country”.
The Centre submitted that “registration of marriage of same sex persons also results in violation of
existing personal as well as codified law provisions — such as ‘degrees of prohibited relationship’;
‘conditions of marriage’; ‘ceremonial and ritual requirements’ under the personal laws governing the
individuals”.
66. Which of the following has been redatced by [1]?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Allahabad
(c) Delhi
(d) Calcutta
67. Marriage is regulated through various statutory enactments and developed through judicial decisions of
India’s Supreme Court.Such declaration of law is binding on all courts throughout India under which
Article of the Constitution.
(a) Article 121
(b) Article 141
(c) Article 35
(d) Article 47
68. While referring to Article 16 of Universal Declaration of Human Rights and the Puttaswamy case, the SC
held that the right to marry a person of one’s choice is integral to which Article of the Constitution.
(a) Article 16(2)
(b) Article 377
(c) Article 141
(d) None of these

SECTION – C: LEGALREASONING
Directions(Q.69 – Q.106): Read the comprehensions carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.69-Q.72): Res ipsa loquitur is a Latin phrase that means “the thing speaks for itself.”
It is considered to be a type of circumstantial evidence which permits the court to determine that the
negligence of the defendant led to an unusual event that subsequently caused injury to the plaintiff.
Although generally the duty to prove that the defendant acted negligently lies upon the plaintiff but
through res ipsa loquitur, if the plaintiff presents certain circumstantial facts, it becomes the burden of the
defendant to prove that he was not negligent.
This doctrine arose out of the case of Byrne vs Boadle (1863). The plaintiff was walking by a warehouse
on the road and suffered injuries from a falling barrel of flour which rolled out of a window from the
second floor. At the trial, the plaintiff’s attorney argued that the facts spoke for themselves and
demonstrated the warehouse’s negligence since no other explanation could account for the cause of the
plaintiff’s injuries.
Thus, the following are the three essential requirements for the application of this maxim-
1) The thing causing the damage must be under the control of the defendant or his servants
2) The accident must be such as would not have happened in the ordinary course of things without
negligence.
3) There must be no evidence of the actual cause of the accident.
Source- Law Times Journal
69. Shekhar, a hosteler in Sheerwood School was sleeping in his room when ceiling fan of his room fell on
him, causing minor injury to him. The reason for the falling of the fan was a latent defect in the tensile
strength of the suspension rod along with poor fixing of the fan. In an action against the Sheerwood
School, Sheerwood School is:
(a) Liable because it was a hostel maintained by Sheerwood School and he was rightfully living there.
(b) Not liable because injury was not foreseeable. Rather the manufacturer should be held liable.
(c) Liable because of res ipsa loquitur doctrine will be applicable in the present case.
(d) Liable because the injury was foreseeable, but liability will that be of the manufacturer.
70. Sureeli is a housewife and in her free time, she prepares pickles. In monsoon, she thinks it fit to keep the
bottles filled with pickles on the iron railing of her home’s terrace so that they get some sunlight and don’t
get spoilt. Sureeli instructs her maid Bimla to remove the bottles in an hour but Bimla forgets to do the
same. While Chandragupt was passing by the road in the evening, suddenly one of the bottles fell from
the railing on his head severely injuring his skull. Decide who will be responsible for the damage caused
to Chandragupt.
(a) It is a case of contributory negligence by Chandragupt since he should have seen the obvious danger
beforehand.
(b) Since Bimla forgot to remove the bottles, she will be liable since her act of forgetting was not under
the course of employment.
(c) Sureeli shall be liable since she was negligent in not foreseeing that the bottles can fall down and
injure someone.
(d) Sureeli shall not be liable since she had taken due care in instructing Bimla to remove the bottles.
71. Ashok is living as a tenant on the ground floor of Manoj's house and Manoj himself lives on the first floor.
One day Manoj's brother, who is quite hefty, leans against a wall in Manoj's house. The wall conies
crashing down and falls on Ashok, who is standing on the ground floor. Ashok sues Manoj.
(a) There is no negligence by Manoj. It was his brother who caused the wall to crash.
(b) Manoj is liable only if Ashok can show how Manoj has been negligent.
(c) Manoj is liable. Doctrine of Res ipsa loquitur applies.
(d) Manoj is not liable because it was an act of god.

72. Manorama was a happily married women with two children at her home. After two children she wanted to
have tubectomy. One day she went to Doctor Patchy to get herself operated for the removal of her
uterus. Doctor Patchy performed the successful operation. After a couple of days Manorama started to
feel pain in her stomach. She took medicine, but it didn’t cure. Later she went to another surgeon and got
herself ultra sound. In the ultra sound, an abdominal pack was located in her abdomen, which was a
resultant of patchy work done by Doctor Patchy during the operation. In this case-
(a) Doctor Patchy cannot be held responsible because it is merely a human error.
(b) Doctor Patchy cannot be held responsible because during operations, such risks are involved.
(c) Doctor Patchy can be held responsible but Manorama will have to prove in the court of law that the
Doctor was grossly negligent.
(d) Doctor Patchy will be responsible and Manorama need not to prove doctor’s negligence because
presence of abdominal pack in her abdomen is sufficient proof therefor.
Passage (Q.73-Q.78): The state shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal
protection of the laws within the territory of India. Prof. Dicey, explaining the concept of legal equality as it
operated in England, said: “with us every official, from the Prime Minister down to a constable or a
collector of taxes, is under the same responsibility for every act done without any legal justification as any
other citizen.”
The phase “equality to the law” find a place in all written constitutions that guarantees fundamental rights.
“All citizens irrespective of birth, religion, sex, or race are equal before law; that is to say, there shall not
be any arbitrary discrimination between one citizen or class of citizens and another.” “All citizens shall, as
human persons be held equal before law.” “All inhabitants of the republic are assured equality before the
laws.”
PantanjaliSastri, has expressed that the second expression is corollary of the first and it is difficult to
imaging a situation in which the violation of laws will not be the violation of equality before laws thus, in
substance the two expressions mean one and same thing.
According to Dr. Jennings said that: “Equality before the law means that equality among equals, the law
should be equal for all. And should be equally administered, that like should treated alike. The right to
sue and be sued, to prosecute and prosecuted for the same kind of action should be same for all citizens
of full age and understanding without distinctions of race, religion, wealth, social status or political
influence.”
“Equal protection of law” has been given in Article 14 of our Indian constitution which has been taken
from section 1 of the 14th amendment act of the constitution of the United States.
Source: Legal Services India
73. The state government of Uttarakhand invites tender for wooden coffee mugs for official use in its
government offices and rest houses. Many manufacturers send in their bids. The terms of the invitation
for tenders was that the bidders quoting the lowest bid will get the contract. Kumaon Cups Ltd. Who
applied for the binding found that they had quoted the lowest rates and ordinarily the bid would have
been awarded to Kumaon Cups Ltd. but due lobbying it was awarded to Hill Woods Ltd, (a company run
by local politician belonging to Hindu community).Kumaon Cups Ltd., a company run by Christian
minority has challenged the tender process in the High Court of Judicature of Uttarakhand. Decide the
case.
(a) Kumaon Cups Ltd will succeed in their claim as their bid was an acceptance of the offer of the State
of Uttarakhand
(b) Kumaon Cups Ltd will succeed in their claim as theirs was the best quotation in the bidding and they
were discriminately rejected on the basis of religion.
(c) Kumaon Cups Ltd will not succeed in their claim as their bid was an invitation to offer for supply of
stationery items
(d) Kumaon Cups Ltd will not succeed in their claim as their bid was an offer for the supply of stationery
items

74. With 2020 annual budget, the Income Tax Act revised its rule providing that people with annual income
up to Rs. 5 lakhs per annum shall pay 10% of their income as tax and those above Rs. 5 lakhs per
annum to below Rs 10 lakhs per annum shall pay 20% of their income as tax. Ramesh who got promoted
last year and draws the salary of Rs. 5.2 lakhs per annum challenge the legislation on the ground that it
is in violation of the principle of equality before law.
(a) Ramesh will succeed, because the law discriminates against the people who earn more than Rs. 5
lakhs per annum.
(b) Ramesh will not succeed, because the people who earn more than Rs. 5 lakhs per annum are not
equal to the people who earn less than Rs. 5 lakhs per annum.
(c) Ramesh will not succeed, because this law enables the Government to equalise the incomes of all
the people in the country.
(d) Ramesh will succeed because as per the constitution everyone shall be treated equally.
75. Jasmine is an employee of Extreme Fair Traders and is a part of marketing team along with four more
male employees. Jasmine along with others worked for same number of hours and even achieved more
customer count as compared to her male counterparts. At the end of the month when remunerations
were paid, Jasmine noticed that she received a salary of Rs. 50,000 whereas her male counterparts
received Rs. 90,000. When she brought up the matter to the authorities, she was told that Extreme Fair
Traders have believe that men run the family therefore they are paid little more money as compared to
the women employees. Jasmine seek to bring action against the unfairness done by the Extreme Fair
Traders. Help.
(a) Jasmine is discriminated on the basis of sex and is entitled to the same salary as her male colleagues
(b) Jasmine cannot claim the same salary as her male colleagues as the salary has been fixed as per the
division of work in the marketing team
(c) Jasmine cannot claim the same salary as her male colleagues as she has just been recruited
(d) Jasmine can claim equal pay as her male colleagues for she is a woman and more qualified than the
others
76. Anandi, a woman and Bismil, a man were Professors at a State-run University. There was a stark
difference between the salaries of Anandi and Bismil where Bismil earned more than Anandi in spite of
holding the same position in the University. A few years later, Anandi got married. When the University
administration came to know about the same, they terminated Anandi’s services on the grounds that
since Anandi is married now, she would move to a different city to be with her husband. On the other
hand, when Bismil got married, he continued living on the campus and teaching at the University. Anandi
filed a suit for wrongful termination and gender discrimination. Was Anandi treated equal to her male
counterpart at the University?
(a) Yes. Anandi was treated equal to her male counterpart at the University as they were holding the
same post.
(b) No. Anandi was not treated equally as she was not getting the same remuneration as Bismil at the
University.
(c) Yes. Anandi was treated equally as she was getting the same facilities there as Bismil.
(d) No. Anandi was not treated equally as she was not given the same treatment as Bismil at the
University.
77. Sunny applied for admission in a minority institution, which is governed by the government fund. College
administration denied admission to him on the ground that it is a minority institution and only student from
a particular religion is admitted in this institution. Sunny filed writ petition in the Supreme Court
challenging the decision of college administration as violative of his fundamental right. Decide
(a) Sunny will not succeed as the institution is private.
(b) Sunny will succeed as it is discrimination on the basis of religion.
(c) Sunny will succeed as it is government institution run out of the government fund.
(d) Sunny will not succeed as the state has a margin of appreciation to frame laws.

78. Anahita works in a government company. She works as executive engineer. Office timings for female
employees in the company are 10 am to 6 pm, for the male employees they are from 10 am to 7 pm. The
timings for the female employees is less because the company is situated in the outskirts of the city so for
the safety of the women the timings are different plus the work profile of male and female employees are
different. Anahita challenged this disparity in Supreme Court as it is violative of her fundamental right.
(a) There is no violation of fundamental rights as timing for the male and female employees are different.
(b) There is violation of fundamental rights.
(c) There is violation of fundamental rights as there no sufficient cause to give less salary to women.
(d) Supreme Court has no authority to decide the matter because it is authority of the state to make law
on this issue.
Passage (Q.79-Q.82): A question that has vexed countless non-resident Indians (NRIs) who were forced
to remain in India on account of international travel restrictions introduced to combat the spread of
COVID-19 is: will they be considered "tax resident" in India for Indian income-tax purposes?
The incidence of income tax under the Income-tax Act, 1961 ("ITA") is based on the residence of the
taxpayer and the sources of his or her income.While a person "resident" in India is taxed on his or her
worldwide income, non-residents are only taxed on their India-sourced income.
Section 6 of the ITA treats an individual to be "resident" in India in any previous year if he or she is in
India for:
(a)182 days or more in that year; or
(b)60 days or more in that year and has been in India for 365 days or more in the four years preceding
that year.
It was anticipated that an obligated stay due to the lockdown might unintentionally render NRIs, while on
visit to India during FY 2019-20, were forced to remain in India due to the imposition the lockdown and
the accompanying suspension of international flights, "resident" in India and therefore subject their
worldwide income to Indian taxation.
To allay these concerns, the CBDT issued a Circular clarifying that the period from March 22, 2020 to
March 31, 2020 would be excluded in determining the residential status of an individual under Section 6of
for FY 2019-20. Additionally, it was stated that as the lockdown had continued into FYFY 2020-21, a
further circular excluding the period of stay of individuals stranded in India up to the date of normalisation
of international flight operations, for determining the residential status during FY 2020-21, would be
issued after such normalisation.
[Extracted from ‘Tax Residency in The Time of COVID - What Does the Supreme Court Ruling in Gaurav
Baid v. Union of India Mean for NRIs?’ by Anandapadmanabhan Unnikrishnan on 1 Mar 2021 on livelaw
https://www.livelaw.in/columns/covid-19-tax-residency-supreme-court-gaurav-baid-v-union-of-india-
170505]
79. Mr. Worldwide is a businessman. He is involved in the trade of international export and import of clothes
in different parts of the world and frequently moves back and forth between the United States and India.
In 2019, his income from his business was geographically divided as follows: Miami 2 million EUR, New
York 10 million EUR, New Jersey 5 million EUR and New Delhi 7 million EUR. He spent 184 days in the
United States in 2019. What portion of his income will not be taxable under the Income Tax Act, 1961?
(a) 15 million EUR from New York and New Jersey
(b) 7 million EUR from New Delhi
(c) 24 million EUR from Miami, New York, New Jersey and New Delhi
(d) 17 million EUR from New York, New Jersey and Miami
80. Suresh is a Non-resident Indian. He came to India on 1st January 2019 and left on 1st September 2019.
His net salary during that period was Rs 1 crore. On 1st April 2020, he received a notice for non-payment
of income tax during the Financial Year of 2019 from the Indian Income Tax Department. Suresh believes
that this notice is erroneous and incorrect because he is not liable to pay income tax in India for that
Financial Year as he does not qualify as a resident for the purposes of Section 6 of the Income Tax Act.
Is he correct in his assessment of the situation?

(a) No, because Suresh qualifies as a resident of India for the Financial Year of 2019 as he spent 60
days of that year in India and had been in India for 365 days in the four years preceding that year
(b) No, because Suresh qualifies as a resident of India for the Financial Year of 2019 as he spent more
than 182 days in India during that time
(c) Yes, because Suresh does not qualify as a resident of India for the Financial Year of 2019 as he
spent less than 182 days in India during that time
(d) Yes, because Suresh does not qualify as a resident of India for the Financial Year of 2019 as he did
not spend 60 days of that year in India and had not been in India for 365 days in the four years
preceding that year
81. Suresh's brother Rakesh also accompanied him to India. However, unlike Suresh, Rakesh left India on
1st February 2019. He again came to India on 15th January 2020. He was scheduled to leave in March
but was stuck due to the worsening situation of the pandemic. Rakesh is worried that he may be forced to
pay income tax in India, even though he ordinarily resides in Antigua and Barbados. Is Rakesh's income
taxable for the Financial Year of 2020?
(a) Yes, because as the lockdown had continued into FY2020-21, he became a resident of India for the
purposes of income tax
(b) Yes, because the lockdown and extended lockdown period of stay of a non-resident Indian is
excluded from the determination of the residential status of an individual
(c) No, because the lockdown and extended lockdown period of stay of a non-resident Indian is excluded
from the determination of the residential status of an individual
(d) No, because even though the lockdown was extended to FY2020-21, the same was not excluded
from the period of stay of non-resident Indians
82. Mohini is a famous dancer in Dubai who teaches dance to students at her academy as well as through
online classes. Although she is originally from India, she has been residing in Dubai for the last 10 years.
She came to India on 1st December 2019 to visit her family and friends. In March 2020, a nationwide
lockdown was imposed and international travel was banned. If international flight operations were
normalized on 15 May 2020, and Mohini left for Dubai on 3rd December 2020, will her income be taxable
for this period?
(a) No, because she is not an Indian resident and the worldwide income of non-resident Indians is not
taxable
(b) No, because the lockdown period in March as well as extended lockdown till normalization of flight
operations is included from the calculation of residence period for income tax purposes
(c) Yes, because Mohini spent 182+ days in India even though flight operations were normalised on 15
May 2020
(d) Yes, because Mohini spent 182+ days in India excluding the period of lockdown in March 2020 as
well as the extended lockdown later on in the year
Passage (Q.83-Q.86): The Election Commission (EC) has opined in favour of 12 MLAs from Manipur,
who were facing disqualification in a 2018 ‘office of profit’ case for holding the position of parliamentary
secretaries.
While the law relevant to office of profit bars MPs and MLAs from holding a position under the
government, the MLAs did not seem to commit any violation as they had held the posts of parliamentary
secretaries in the state under an exemption granted by two laws passed over the last decade.
Both Acts ceased to exist after the Manipur High Court pronounced them invalid and unconstitutional in a
judgment on 17 September 2020. Subsequently, a disqualification of these MLAs was sought on account
of holding the position of parliamentary secretaries, which qualified as ‘office of profit’.
The opinion of the EC was sought which is said to have opined that since the Acts mentioned above
were in force at the time they held the office, the MLAs could not be disqualified for holding office of profit
retrospectively.
The EC is learnt to have based its view on Article 191(1) of the Constitution.
The Article says a person can be disqualified as MLA “if he holds any office of profit under the
Government of India or the Government of any State specified in the First Schedule, other than an office
declared by the Legislature of the State by law not to disqualify its holder”.

The case for the disqualification of the Manipur MLAs had made a reference to the Supreme Court order
in the case of Bimalangshu Roy v. State of Assam, according to which appointing elected representatives
of the land as parliamentary secretaries violates the law.
However, the Manipur MLAs case is different since there was a protection granted to them in law earlier,
which was subsequently declared unconstitutional.
[Extracted with minor revision from ‘EC sees “no ground for disqualification” of 12 Manipur BJP MLAs in
office of profit case’ by Sanya Dhingra, published 2 Mar 2021 in theprint
https://theprint.in/india/ec-sees-no-case-for-disqualification-against-12-manipur-bjp-mlas-who-held-office-
of-profit/614393/]
83. Wakanda announced a new law to regulate the conduct and salaries of its MLAs in the legislative
assembly of Wakanda. Anju and Panju were two representatives who were elected from the
constituencies of Red and Yellow. Both Anju and Panju had previously worked in the capacity of an
assistant to the earlier MLAs from these constituencies. Now, those earlier MLAs were working in a
government-run policy think tank. Anju and Panju felt that they still had a lot to learn so in their spare
time, they continued to assist the earlier MLAs in their research work for the think tank and received a
nominal stipend for the same from the think tank itself. Are they risking disqualification by such conduct?
(a) No, because the Wakandan law to “regulate the conduct and salaries of its MLAs in the legislative
assembly of Wakanda” was in operation which explicitly does not prevent them from working in the
think tank
(b) No, because merely assisting the earlier MLAs in exchange for a nominal stipend from the
government think tank does not amount to “office of profit”
(c) Yes, because they are violating Article 191(1) by assisting the other two MLAs for their research work
in the government think tank
84. The law of Wakanda which regulated the conduct and salaries of its MLAs was passed in 2019 and
subsequently repealed in January 2020 after an order of the Wakandan High Court. The law provided for
an explicit exemption clause which allowed MLAs to assist research think tanks in exchange for a
nominal amount in order to help MLAs gain policymaking experience. Anju and Panju started working in
the capacity of a secretary to the earlier MLAs for the government think tank in December 2018. Are they
liable to be disqualified from their position as MLAs?
(a) No, because Anju and Panju did not commit any violation as they had held the posts of secretaries
under an exemption granted by the Wakandan law
(b) Yes, because the Wakandan law in question was repealed in January 2020 so Anju and Panju can be
disqualified on account of holding the position of secretaries, which qualifies as ‘office of profit’
(c) No, because Anju and Panju cannot be disqualified from their positions on account of a retrospective
application of law
85. Jonty Rhodes was a proficient lawyer and handled all the high profile cases in the state. Eventually, he
also contested as a candidate to represent his constituency in the Lok Sabha. Jonty won the election by
a thumping majority. However, law was still his first love so he continued his practice as a lawyer in the
Supreme Court. Katari is concerned that Jonty may be disqualified on account of holding an “office of
profit”. Is his concern valid?
(a) Yes, because Jonty is holding an office of profit by continuing his practice as a lawyer in the Supreme
Court while also being an MLA
(b) No, because continuing his practice does not amount to a violation of Article 191(1) of the
Constitution
(c) Yes, because he is in violation of the rules laid down by the Election Commission as well as judicial
pronouncements
(d) No, because he is not in violation of the judicial principle laid down in the case of Bimalangshu Roy v.
State of Assam

86. Jonty wanted to serve the state in a higher capacity than just as an MLA or a lawyer. He had a passion
for putting criminals behind bars and make the society free of miscreants and nuisance. So, he decided
to temporarily suspend his personal practice and become a public prosecutor for the state. He believes
that this jump will help him fulfil his passion as well as work for the society’s welfare. Before finalising this
switch, he asks your opinion on the same. Would you advise to leave his personal practice and become a
public prosecutor for the state while he continues to be an MLA?
(a) Yes, because this move will help him realise his passion as well as work further for society’s welfare
and it also doesn’t threaten his position as an MLA rather it complements the same
(b) Yes, because a becoming a public prosecutor does not amount to an office of profit under the
government which could raise disqualification concerns
(c) No, because if he becomes a public prosecutor he may be disqualified for violating Article 191(1) of
the Constitution
(d) No, because an MLA cannot become a public prosecutor due to the rules provided by the Election
Commission as well as the Constitution and this threatens him with disqualification
Passage (Q.87-Q.92): In one of its most recent judgments, in the case of Padia Timber Company (P)
Ltd. Vs The Board of Trustees of Visakhapatnam Port Trust Through its Secretary, the Hon'ble Supreme
Court considered the issue of regarding formation of the contract between the parties, which was the
bone of contention between the parties. The decision of the Apex Court in the above judgment is based
on simply following the first principles of law of contract. Parties must agree on the same thing, in same
sense is the sin-qua-non for formation of a valid contract. Without consensus ad-idem no valid contract
can be formed. Similarly, for examining at whether and when a valid contract was formed recourse
should be taken to the principles of 'offer', 'acceptance' and 'revocation of acceptance' as mentioned in
Chapter 1 of the Contract Act. Parties by agreement cannot deviate from the said principles, and yet
contend that valid contract was formed. The offer, acceptance, revocation etc should be well
communicated to all the concerned parties.
It is relevant to refer to saving to Section 1 of the Contract Act which reads as under:
"Saving. - Nothing herein contained shall affect the provisions of any statute, Act or regulation not hereby
expressly repealed, nor any usage or custom of trade, nor any incident of any contract, not
inconsistent with the provisions of this Act."
Therefore, only such contracts which were not inconsistent with the provision of the Contract Act were
saved at the time when Contract Act was brought on statute book. Accordingly, it can be contended that
all contracts must comply strictly with the principles enunciated in the Contract Act, to be adjudged as
valid. Source: Live Law
87. Anandi was a widow who lived in a huge kothi outside the city. She offered her neice Brinda to buy her
estate. Brinda said that if Anandi did not hear from her for the next 7 days then the offer on the estate
would be deemed to have been accepted by Brinda. Anandi did not agree to this. In the course of those 7
days, Anandi’s manager Chandu, mistakenly sold the estate to Dr.Oswal. Can Brinda bring a suit for
breach of contract against Anandi?
(a) Yes. Since Anandi did not hear from Brinda in the course of 7 days, the offer was deemed to have
been accepted by Brinda.
(b) No. Since Anandi did not agree to silent acceptance, the silence of Brinda for the course of 7 days is
not considered as a valid acceptance.
(c) Yes. Anandi relied upon Brinda’s acceptance and set aside the estate for her.
(d) No. There was no acceptance as in the course of those 7 days, the estate was already sold to
Dr.Oswal.

88. Ross and Chandler have been friends for the last 10 years. Ross has a sister named Monica who is very
intelligent but is suffering from lung cancer. Monica is fond of animals and wants a dog for herself. She is
also a tech-savy. Chandler has a female dog which recently gave births to two puppies named Bentley
and Mercedes. Three days back Ross promised Monica to buy her Bentley if she gives her car Porsche
(the car she got from her parents) to Ross. Monica thought that he is talking about the puppy named
Bentley. Ross was talking about a car named Bentley. As Monica only had Ross and no one else to take
care of her, she gave in and sign the contract. Is the contract valid?
(a) The contract is valid as the object was lawful and so is the consideration.
(b) The contract is not valid as it lacked consensus ad idem as Ross and Monica did not agree on the
same thing when they entered into the contract.
(c) The contract is not valid as Monica is a strong independent woman and she doesn’t need Ross to buy
her things. Also, there was undue influence done by Ross.
(d) The contract is not valid as Chandler’s consent was not taken.
89. Mamta read Sonu’s mail and replied saying: “I humbly decline your offer.” The mail automatically went to
the ‘Trash’ folder in Sonu’s email account. On 02.01.2021, Sonu’s consignment reached Mamta’sgodown
in a truck which bore the name “Sonu Fresh Fruits Pvt Ltd”. Mamta mistook the consignment to have
come from Katty, her long-time trading partner. She received the consignment but refused to make
payment.
(a) There was no option of revoking through email. The only option of revocation was to refuse to receive
the consignment. Since, consignment has been received payment must be made.
(b) The revocation is valid since it has been put in the course of the transmission as to be out of the
control of the person making the revocation.
(c) The revocation is not valid since it has not come to the knowledge of Sonu.
(d) Since Mamta received the consignment her revocation cannot be considered valid.
90. Bank of Bhubaneshwar, in its council meeting, decided to appoint Sharma as its Bank Director. Decision
was made followed by an application for the post was received from Sharma by the Bank. Before the
Council could communicate to Sharma, later was become aware of the Council decision by Suresh, a
servant at Bank of India. Later, Council decided to revoke the appointment. Sharma challenged the
revocation on the ground that proposal has already been received by him. Will he succeed?
(a) Sharma will not succeed since there was no communication of acceptance of his job proposal.
(b) Sharma will not succeed since there was no official confirmation made by the bank to Sharma.
(c) Sharma will succeed since decision was communicated as soon as servant informed Sharma.
(d) Sharma will succeed since decision was communicated as soon as Council made the decision.
91. Rahul promises to his two children that he will purchase for them a ‘Seltos’ car in case they stand first in
the ensuing examinations. Both the children stood second and third in their respective classes. However,
they claim that the examiner had some grudge against them and mendaciously deducted their marks.
Rahul refused to purchase the cars as promised by him. Can the children sue Rahul in the court of law
for breach of contract?
(a) Yes, as there was offer by Rahul and acceptance by the children by doing the required act.
(b) No, the condition for a valid contract are not met and therefore children will not succeed in their suit.
(c) Yes, as this was a case of oral contract and such contracts are honored in the court of law.
92. Sameer the owner of a dog, announces a reward to anyone who will bring back his lost dog, Rocky.
Abhishek, a friend of Sameer, gives information which leads to recovery of the lost dog from Mr. Jain,
who had no knowledge about the reward. Later when Abhishek comes to know about the announcement
of the reward by Sameer, claims the reward. Decide.
(a) No, as Abhishek had no knowledge of the offer before performing the required task.
(b) Yes, as by performing the condition of the proposal, he gave acceptance to the general offer made by
Sameer.
(c) No, as Abhishek was only doing his duty as a friend.
(d) Yes, as Sameer has a duty to reimburse Abhishek for helping him find his dog.

Passage (Q.93-Q.98): Sections 390 to 402 deal exclusively to offences like robbery and dacoity. These
offences are basically aggravated and more serious forms of simple theft. This is because they involve
physical harm to the victim. In order to prevent such offences, the law provides for severe punishment.
The interpretation of the law is always done in a manner that serves the purpose of the existence of the
law.
According to Section 390, there is either theft or extortion in every robbery. In other words, the offence of
robbery is an aggravated form of either: (1) theft, or (2) extortion.
(1) When theft is robbery: Theft, in simple words, means taking a movable property out a person’s lawful
possession without his consent. Robbery generally takes place when, while committing theft or moving
the property subject of theft, the offender: (a) voluntarily causes or attempts to cause death/hurt/wrongful
restraint to any person, or (b) voluntarily causes or attempts to cause fear of instant death/hurt/wrongful
restraint. In other words, theft becomes robbery when the offender commits any of the above two acts
while committing theft. It can also happen when he completes the theft and tries to move the property
away from lawful owner possession.
(2) When extortion is robbery: Extortion basically means obtaining some kind of property from a person
by instilling a fear of injury. Extortion becomes robbery when the offender is in the presence of the victim
while committing it. The offender must also put the fear of instant death/hurt/wrongful restraint in the
victim or another person. Furthermore, the victim of this extortion must deliver the extorted property to the
offender. If all of these conditions exist, the offence of extortion becomes a robbery.
The difference between robbery and dacoity simply depends upon the number of offenders involved.
When five or more people conjointly commit or attempt robbery, their offence becomes dacoity. Similarly,
even if the number of people attempting or abetting robbery is five or more, they are guilty of dacoity.
93. Gabbar is a famous daaku. He once went to Thakur's home to take away his new jewellery. He hit
Thakur's servant and took his gold ring with him. The ring however fell from Gabbar's pocket in Thakur's
yard. Decide.
(a) Gabbar is liable for robbery for he came and moved Thakur's property and committed hurt in the
process.
(b) Gabbar is not liable for robbery as he hurt Thakur's servant and not Thakur himself.
(c) Gabbar is liable for robbery as he is a famous daku and his actions are always criminal
(d) Gabbar is not liable for he never committed theft in the first place as property was still in Thakur's
possession.
94. Gabbar came in to rob Thakur of his jewellery. After he robbed Thakur of 15 gms of gold, he ran away.
Thakur chased him. Gabbar got irritated and while Thakur was chasing him, hit Thakur on the head with
the back of his gun.
(a) Gabbar is liable for robbery as he voluntarily hurt Thakur during the process of theft.
(b) Gabbar is not liable as he hurt Thakur after the process was complete.
(c) Gabbar is liable as the process of theft was not complete till the actual hitting happened.
95. Gabbar kidnapped Thakur's child to extort money out of him. He called Thakur to ask him to deliver
money. During the call, he video call the Thakur to show that his child was with Gabbar. Decide
(a) Gabbar is liable for robbery as he was in the presence of the victim at the time of extortion
(b) Gabbar is not liable for robbery as presence over video call is not sufficient presence to cause
robbery
(c) Gabbar is liable for robbery for he is an evil man and always makes money by crooked manner

96. Thakur was scared for his child's life who had been abducted by Gabbar. He decided to pay via Bitcoins
for the ransom and transferred some Bitcoins in Gabbar's name on 24/02/2010. Gabbar couldn't use
bitcoins so changed the same into rupees on 26/02/2010 which were credited into his account on
28/02/2010. On what date is extortion completed?
(a) The extortion is complete on 26/02/2010
(b) The extortion is complete on 24/02/2010
(c) The extortion is complete on 28/02/2010
(d) Extortion has not been committed
97. Gabbar was to receive ransom money in Bitcoins. Thakur transferred the same on 24/02/2010. However,
Gabbar returned the Bitcoins and threatened to send cash instead on 26/02/2010. Thakur transferred the
cash on 28/02/2010. Decide
(a) The extortion is complete on 26/02/2010
(b) The extortion is complete on 28/02/2010
(c) The extortion is complete on 24/02/2010
98. Gabbar had threatened to take away Thakur's jewelry. He did take away his ring but dropped it on the
way. X found the ring and took it to his place. On the way, he also hit Thakur's child. Decide
(a) X is liable for robbery as he moved the property and also caused hurt
(b) X is not liable for robbery as the act of causing hurt is an independent act and doesn't have to do with
stealing
(c) X is liable as he moved the property of theft from one place to another
Passage (Q.99-Q.102): Contributory negligence means that when the immediate cause of the damage is
the negligence of the plaintiff himself, the plaintiff cannot sue the defendant for damages and the
defendant can use it as a defense. This is because the plaintiff in such a case is considered to be the
author of his own wrong. It is based on the maxim volenti non fit iniuria which states that if someone
willingly places themselves in a position which might result in harm, they are not entitled to claim for
damages caused by such harm.
The plaintiff is not entitled to recover from the defendant if it is proved that-
1) The plaintiff by the exercise of ordinary care could have avoided the consequence of the defendant’s
negligence.
2) The defendant could not have avoided the consequence of the plaintiff’s negligence by an exercise of
ordinary care
3) There has been as much want of reasonable care on the plaintiffs part as on the defendants part and
the former cannot sue the latter for the same.
The burden of proving contributory negligence rests on the defendant in the first instance and in the
absence of such evidence, the plaintiff is not bound to prove its non-existence
In the case of Shelton Vs L & W Railway (1946), while the plaintiff was crossing a railway line, a servant
of the railway company who was in charge of crossing shouted a warning to him. Due to the plaintiff
being deaf, he was unable to hear the warning and was consequently injured. The court held that this
amounted to contributory negligence by him.
Source: Law Times Journal
99. Evelyn had a farmhouse in the outskirts of the city of Delhi. Since he enjoyed spending his weekends
writing at the farmhouse, he decided to employ a servant Roshan to take care of the house on a regular
basis. A few months later, Evelyn adopted a ferocious dog named Tiger and asked Roshan to care for
Tiger as well. A few days after bringing in the dog to the farmhouse, Evelyn asked Roshan to install a
notice on the gate which read: Beware of the dog. However, the notice fell off from the gate to the ground
due to the lack of proper installation. Despite Evelyn’s reprimands, Roshan did not get around to
installing the notice again. Meanwhile, a young couple who was passing by the farmhouse decided to
enter inside and steal some mangoes for the journey. Unaware of the dog, both the husband and the wife

climbed through the fence and went inside, only to be attacked seconds later by Tiger, the dog. The
couple later sued Evelyn for negligence. Is Evelyn liable?
(a) Yes, since Evelyn is responsible for the wrongful actions of his servant Roshan, which in this case,
was the negligence to install a proper notice.
(b) Yes, as the owner of the property, Evelyn was responsible for putting up a notice to warn outsiders of
the dangerous dog in the farmhouse.
(c) No, since Evelyn has the right to use all means necessary to protect his farmhouse.
(d) No, since this is a case of contributory negligence and Evelyn is only partially responsible for the
harm caused to the couple.
100. The claimant, Dhram and Veer were friends. After going out for an evening and few drinks down, Veer
gave lift to Dhram on his new motor bike. Veer had no expertise in driving a bike nor license to drive. This
was very much known to Dhram ye he agreed to take a lift from his friend. They met with a brutal
accident due to high speed driven by Veer. The eye witnesses testified for the high speed and negligent
driving by Veer. The accident had a brutal result as Veer died on the spot and Dhram suffered multiple
grave injuries. In an action brought by Dhram against the representative of Veer, decide.
(a) The defence of Volenti non fit injuria may be raised as Dhram was aware of the risk involved in sitting
behind Veer in that intoxicated state.
(b) The defence of ex turpi causa non orituractio can be raised as Dhram was aware of the illegality in
Veer driving the bike at age 16 and being in an intoxicated state while doing so.
(c) The defence of contributory negligence may be raised as Dhram was also intoxicated and hence
contributed to his injuries.
(d) Both (a) and b)
101. Iyer and Tiwari were neighbors. Iyer had a big Labrador named Nayyar. Tiwari hated dogs. But Tiwari's
daughter Jaimal enjoys playing with Nayyar. Every evening she generally brought Nayyar over to their
garden to play with him. One evening when Nayyar was playing in Tiwari's garden he went and chewed
up Tiwari's prized roses. Tiwari wants to sue Iyer.
(a) Iyer can be held liable because as the owner of the animal, he can be held responsible for all the
wrongful acts of her dangerous animal.
(b) Iyer cannot be held liable because dogs are not inherently dangerous animals.
(c) Iyer cannot be held liable because Nayyar was brought on to Tiwari's premises by her daughter
(d) Iyer cannot be held liable because the plaintiff has not come with clean hands.
102. Chandu carelessly left a pole protruding across a public road. Mukesh, riding a motorcycle, saw the pole
but, since he was driving at a speed substantially above the posted limit, he collided with the pole and
was injured. In an action by Mukesh against Chandu.
(a) Mukesh will win because if it had not been for Chandu’s carelessness, Mukesh would not have been
injured.
(b) Mukesh will win because Chandu had an opportunity to prevent the injury by putting up a warning.
(c) Mukesh will lose because he was already breaking the law by driving too fast.
(d) Mukesh will lose because if he had not been speeding, he would not have been injured.

Passage (Q.103-Q.106): The offence of criminal conspiracy is defined under Section 120-A of Chapter
V-A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. According to Section 120-A, when two or more persons come
together and agree to do, or cause something to be done, which constitutes an illegal act or a legal act
carried forward by illegal means, such persons would be guilty of the commission of the offence of
criminal conspiracy. In simpler terms, conspiracy refers to the meeting of minds for the commission of an
offence. However, no such agreement would constitute the offence of criminal conspiracy, unless and
until an act is performed in furtherance of such an agreement. The explanation attached to Section 120-A
makes it clear that it is immaterial whether the illegal act committed in furtherance of such an agreement,
is the focal point of the agreement or, is merely incidental to the performance of the ultimate goal of the
agreement.
For the establishment of the offence of criminal conspiracy, the existence of an agreement between the
parties is a sine qua non. This agreement may be express or implied, the important factor is consensus
ad idem, i.e., meeting of minds. The agreement must be read as a whole and the object ascertained. It is
not necessary that more than one person must always be convicted for the offence of criminal
conspiracy, it is sufficient if the court is convinced that more two or persons were actually involved in the
conspiracy. The offender might join the conspiracy from the start itself or at any time before the
completion of the objective of the agreement, irrespective of the time of joining, each party to the offence
would be held equally responsible. A criminal conspiracy is said to persist as long as the parties to the
agreement continue to act in furtherance of the objects of the agreement.
[Source: https://lexlife.in/2020/06/04/criminal-law-concept-of-criminal-conspiracy/ ]
103. A and B decided to rob a house of Mr. D. In the process of doing so, A killed Mr. D’s son. Is there a
criminal conspiracy under Section 120A?
(a) Yes, both A and B are part of the criminal conspiracy.
(b) No, only A is responsible for the criminal conspiracy as there was no agreement between A and B for
the murder but only for the robbery.
(c) There is no criminal conspiracy as the essential ingredients for such an act are prior agreement and
involvement of more than two persons.
(d) B cannot be said to be part of the criminal conspiracy. B is not liable.
104. In the above facts, if they blackmailed Mr. D’s guard to help them in the robbery, is it a criminal
conspiracy?
(a) Yes, all three of them are part of the criminal conspiracy under Section 120A.
(b) Only A and B form part of the criminal conspiracy.
(c) This is a case of robbery and not criminal conspiracy.
(d) There is no criminal conspiracy since there was no prior agreement between the guard andA & B.
105. On Monday, Ashfaq and Bittu committed theft in a house. In addition, there were three other persons
Paras, Qasim and Rohit who happened to rob the same house on the same day. All five of them were
caught by the police. Is there a commission of criminal conspiracy?
(a) All five of them formed the part of criminal conspiracy.
(b) Only Ashfaq and Bittu formed the part of criminal conspiracy.
(c) Only Paras, Qasim and Rohit formed the part of criminal conspiracy.
(d) There is no criminal conspiracy as there is no prior agreement.
106. In the above facts, Qasim wanted to kill the house owner’s son due to his old rivalry with him but Paras
and Rohit did not agree to this as they only wanted to rob the house. Qasim killed the owner’s son after
taking their all money and jewellery.
(a) All three of them committed criminal conspiracy.
(b) Only Qasim committed criminal conspiracy.
(c) There is no criminal conspiracy as the prior agreement was only of robbing the house and not murder
of the owner’s son.
(d) This is a case of murder and not criminal conspiracy.

Passage (Q.107-Q.111): There is a long-standing debate about the value of restoring natural
environments. Opponents say that we are not really able to return degraded landscapes to their previous
states. They claim that this perception risks more destruction because it generates the expectation that
things can always be put back together. This problem is known as moral hazard. If restoration is feasible,
then what’s to stop mining companies from blowing mountains up and then just “repairing” them? On the
opposite side of the debate are pragmatists, who believe restoration efforts do more good than harm.
They’re not unconcerned about moral hazard, nor do they assert that humans are able to recover
landscapes to exactly as they once were. But, they say, if we can make terrible situations better for
people and nature alike, why not try?
This is the view taken by the Bronx River Alliance, a not-for-profit organisation that has been engaged in
restoring the Bronx River for the better part of a decade. After centuries of being used as a dumping
ground for industrial and residential waste, the river can never be returned to its pre-colonial state,
replete with thick forest along its banks. Nor can we simply wish away the Kensico dam or the Cross-
Bronx Expressway.
But it is possible to make the Bronx River healthy. The Alliance has learned that the key to doing this
effectively is local involvement: to heal the river and keep it that way, it must become meaningful in
people’s lives. And the surest way for people to feel that they have a stake in something is by acting on
its behalf. From West Farms and Hunts Point to Norwood and Williamsbridge, a network of Bronx
volunteers engages in outreach and education, monitors the river’s vitals and helps restock it with fish.

(a) Restoration ecology is a useless practice as it will only promote more exploitative behavior
(b) Restoration ecology is extremely important as it is the only way we can repair the damage done to the
Earth in a sustainable manner
(c) The Bronx river project is a failure as it can never be returned to its pre-colonial state
(d) One of the major reasons for the success of restoration ecology is the local community involvement

(a) If a broken thing can be mended then people may use it as an excuse to break other similar things
(b) Only natural surroundings that are destroyed by human involvement should be restored back to their
original self
(c) Restoration ecology has a significant impact on the nature of the surrounding areas of such a place
(d) At least some members of a local community step in and take it upon themselves to fix the
depreciation of natural resources

(a) There exist many projects where restoration is impossible
(b) The supporters of the movement don’t aim to recover the whole of the natural scenario but just do
some improvements
(c) The Bronx river may never be fully brought back to its original setting
(d) Unless the nature is properly promoted, people may not be very excited to join in on restoring the
environment
(a) Majority of the nations across the world do not have such restoration projects
(b) The opponents of this practice are many more than its supporters
(c) The Bronx river was much cleaner before the local community decided to clean it themselves
(d) The Bronx river may have become cleaner had it been left undisturbed for 25 years

111. Which of the following conclusions can be properly drawn from the statements above?
(a) An essential element of any ecological restoration project is participation from the local community
(b) There exist at least some natural environments than can be restored beck to some extent
(c) You can easily find volunteers for restoration projects who are like-minded and conscious of
environment protection
(d) Both (a) & (b)
Passage (Q.112-Q.116): Disasters occur when people are affected by natural or technical hazards –
when lives are lost or property is destroyed. Research conducted in Sri Lanka suggests that while heavy
rainfall is the trigger for the flooding, the root causes of the disaster are social, in particular widespread
poverty, conflict-induced migration and problematic land-use practices. These characteristics are not
homogeneous, meaning different places and people are affected differently. The social characteristics of
communities are extremely important for hazard managers because they increase peoples’ vulnerability
to hazards.
Understandably, economically disadvantaged communities exposed to hazards have to date received the
most attention from Disaster Risk Reduction (DRR) specialists. This is because hazards tend to harm
predominantly those social groups that were already disadvantaged before a disaster. Large focus has
been placed on “underdeveloped” or “developing” nations, where the economic disadvantage factors are
particularly obvious. However, examples, from affluent and less affluent countries, suggest the need to
consider economic vulnerability in more geographically and demographically nuanced ways when
implementing DRR activities. On the one hand, poorer communities might bring alternative capabilities to
DRR that are non-financial. On the other hand, ignoring existing economic disadvantage within affluent
contexts risks significant loss of life and property, and forgoes the opportunity to improve the
circumstances of the affected sub-populations.
Across all stages of the disaster cycle – preparedness, response, and recovery – knowledge about the
nature and location of economically vulnerable groups is critical for effective DRR. Before an event,
knowing which groups have low levels of preparedness is essential for planning tailored risk
communication and support initiatives. During a disaster, information on vulnerable groups can help to
increase the effectiveness of response measures, for example, by establishing priorities during
evacuations.
Source: https://theconversation.com/understanding-the-root-causes-of-natural-disasters-80017

(a) Sri Lanka is heavily prone towards natural disasters
(b) We do not have the appropriate technology to predict most natural disasters
(c) In majority of the affluent nations, the rich usually inhabit areas that are more prone to destruction
during disasters than any other areas
(d) Poorer nations are severely affected by natural disasters that take a toll on their economy

(a) DRR specialists need to create uniform plans that need to be enforced across all nations irrespective
of their affluence
(b) Previous surveys and information can help better prepare from natural disasters
(c) The trigger and root cause of natural disasters may be different
(d) The poorer regions have it worse when it comes to natural disasters
(a) Mexico had an earthquake which was easily managed considering the financial aid they received
from international bodies.
(b) Cancun had various problems with floods as their government refused to rectify the sewage systems
(c) Parts of Laos still haven’t recovered from the thunderstorm and majority of the people in penury are
still homeless
(d) Kolkata has installed a new software that helps in calculating the impact of natural disasters 24 hours
in advance

(a) The DRR specialists need to create disaster management dependent on the financial situation of a
country and identify different groups of people that may be affected
(b) Even developed nations have poor populations that may be similarly affected as the people from
developing nations
(d) Neither (A) nor (B)
116. The author’s statement that “These characteristics are not homogeneous, meaning different places and
people are affected differently”-
Passage (Q.117-Q.121): A small boost in microlending to the developing world could lift more than 10.5
million people out of extreme poverty. Currently, 836 million people – or 12% of the world’s population –
experience extreme poverty, living off less than US$1.25 a day. Using data from 106 developing
countries from between 1998 and 2013 to examine the efficacy of microlending as a poverty-reduction
tool, I found that just a 10% increase in the gross microfinance loan portfolio per client could cut this
number by 1.26%. In 2017, the market for microfinance investments in micro, small and medium
enterprises, as well as the provision of financial services to those businesses, is projected to grow by an
average of 10% to 15%. Even stronger growth is expected in India and the Asia-Pacific region.
Access to credit enables poor people to become entrepreneurs, increasing their earnings and improving
their quality of life. Many lenders accompany their small loans and financial services with peer support,
networking opportunities and even health care to improve their clients’ odds of building a successful
small business. In doing so, many economists submit, they show that microfinance has a powerful
potential to reduce poverty. But evidence that microfinance actually works is mixed. Studies examining its
impact in rural Pakistan, urban Kenya and Uganda, among other developing countries, have both
confirmed and contradicted this premise: Microfinance is no panacea. Numerous studies have shown that
country-specific and cultural factors are determinants in how microfinance will interact with poverty, and
there are occasionally devastating tales of failure in which the inability to repay a very small loan has
plunged households further into desperate penury. Overall, however, my study suggests that more
microcredit would benefit poor countries. National governments and international development agencies
can continue to promote microfinance as a tool for reducing poverty, while bearing in mind the limitations
of any single strategy in tackling an entrenched global problem.
Source: https://theconversation.com/yes-microlending-reduces-extreme-poverty-78088
(a) The poor population usually uses any sporadic money towards satisfying their instant needs and
desires
(b) Governments that provided microfinances to their population only recovered 20% of what was lent
(c) The private players responsible for micro financing received ownership of many real estates as
manypeople were unable to repay their debts.
118. Which of the following statements is in line with the author’s line of thoughts?
(a) Microfinancing cannot work in developed nations
(b) Microfinancing can only work in developed nations
(c) Microfinancing can only work if it is given a uniform colour
(d) Microfinancing can never work if it is given a uniform colour

119. On the basis of information provided above what might be the reason, if true, for failure of some of the
microfinancing schemes?
(a) The target group of some schemes are sometimes misplaced
(b) The social factors inherent in the community are sometimes ignored
(c) The information pertaining to income strata as well as general financial behavior of a country is often
misplaced
120. The statement “Not all microfinancing schemes are effective” is:
(a) Probably True
(b) Definitely True
(c) Probably False
(d) Definitely False

(a) The market for microfinance investments is not an ever-growing enterprise that has failed to support
certain economies
(b) Poor people have keen business acumen and they only lack enough finances to get their shop up-
and-running
(c) Some developing nations have failed to introduce the microfinancing scheme
(d) Poverty reduction is an important goal for developing countries today
122. The Indian music industry is singing. Singing thesongs of the future. A future in which it would be
ridingthe wave of technology and, in fact, like elsewhere inthe world contributing to the GDP. The future
is brightbecause it is not just physical sales that had beenthreatened by piracy. The digital revolution is
bringingall the players onto one platform. ________.
Theabove question has a paragraph from which the last sentenceis deleted. From the options given,
choose the one thatcompletes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
(a) Technology is something that this industry hasbeen forced into.
(b) This augurs well for an industry that has been ina slump for some time now.
(c) The slump in the industry is also reflected in thesale of hardware.
(d) To understand this, all you need to do is walkround the marketplace; nobody buys musicsystems or
speakers
123. The Indian postal service is badly maintained.Twenty years ago, first-class letter deliverycost only three
rupees. Since then, the pricehas increased severely, with an actualdecrease in the reliability of service.
Which of the following weakens the aboveargument?
(a) The volume of mail handled by the postalservice has increased dramatically overthe last thirty years.
(b) Unprecedented increases in the cost offuel for trucks and planes have put severeupward pressures
on postal deliverycosts.
(c) The average level of consumer pricesoverall has decreased fourfold over the lastthirty years.
(d) Private delivery services usually chargemore for comparable delivery services
124. In a certain code, BREAKTHROUGH is written as EAOUHRBRGHKT. How is DISTRIBUTION written in

that code?
(a) TISTBUONDIRI
(b) STTIBUONRIDI
(c) STTIBUDIONRI
(d) RISTTIBUDION

125. If the first and the second letters of the word UNPRECEDENTED are interchanged with the last and the
second last letters and similarly, the third and the fourth letter are interchanged with the third and the
fourth letter from the last respectively, then what will be the seventh letter to the right of the third letter
from the left?
(a) C
(b) E
(c) P
(d) R
126. Pointing to a lady, Vikram said, "she is the only daughter of my father-in-law's wife". How is this lady
related to Vikram?
(a) Mother
(b) Wife
(c) Cousin
(d) Sister
Passage (Q.127-Q.131): Deforestation has historically been the price of development, but the world is
now going through a forest transition; since 2015, there has been net global reforestation. The pace and
quality of this transition is mixed. In the world’s remaining high conservation-value forests, deforestation
rates are high and poverty persists but development opportunities are within sight. These forests are
mainly located in the tropical developing world and have growing human populations. Because as forest-
dependent people are increasingly involved in cash economies, they use their forests to participate in
markets. This will inevitably lead to changes in forests.
Conservationists typically respond to this in one of two ways. They either tackle the threat head on and
try to counter it or they hand over forest management to local people. But neither threat-based
conservation nor local management has proven successful for preserving forests. Tropical forests are still
subject to high deforestation rates in less developed countries and conservationists lament the ongoing
decline in biodiversity and ecosystems.
To local people, tackling threats to forests is seen as opposing development and ergo it will continue to
fail. Opposing new roads in areas where people are deprived of development opportunities, for instance,
is clearly not a viable way forward. But the alternative strategy of handing management over to local
people in the hope that they will protect biodiversity is also not pragmatic. If the only options on offer are
forest protection or development at their expense (plantations, for instance, or mines and agriculture)
then most people will, naturally, choose the latter.
It’s mindful that local peoples’ needs and aspirations change with time. People living near forests will say
their preferred future includes the continued existence of forests and therefore, biodiversity and intact
ecosystems. The challenge is to achieve this alongside improvements in livelihoods.
Source: https://www.business-standard.com
127. On the basis of information provided above, why would the local people fail in preserving forests?
(a) Because the inherent nature of people is self-serving and everyone wants to live comfortably
(b) Because for the local people, intervention is bad and ought to be stopped
(c) Because the local people hate to share their resources with others which results in de-
commercialization of forests
(d) Both (A) & (B)
128. Which of the following statements is in line with the author’s line of thoughts?
(a) Deforestation and reforestation is happening all around but the movement is sporadic and in need of
an analysis
(b) Human population and forests can be separated but the local population need more convincing
(c) Developing countries have more deforested land than developed countries
(d) Local population can make forest conversation if they are paid monthly wages for the same

(a) Many conservationists are actually pro-local people and believe in leaving the forests in their hands
(b) The government has enough resources to form a group of forest rangers that may protect the
affected areas
(c) Big corporations are the major threat to deforestation in less developed countries
130. The author’s statement that “To local people, tackling threats to forests is seen as opposing development
and ergo it will continue to fail”-

(a) Forests are the lungs of the Earth
(b) Once green is today’s obscene
(c) Conserving forests: beyond ideas of local integration
(d) Local communities are their life
Directions (Q.132-Q.136): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four
corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four
corners face the centre while those who sit In the middle of the sides face outside.
Two females sit in the middle of the sides and two at the corners, A sits second to the left of G. G sits In
the middle of one of the sides. C sits fourth to the right of his wife and his wife is not an immediate
neighbour of A or G. B sits third to right of her husband. B does not sit at any of the corners. Only D sits
between B and H. H is the husband of A. E is a male.
132. Whcih of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
(a) No two males are immediate neighbours of each other
(b) G and H do not face each other in the seating arrangement
(c) E and D are immediate neigh-hours of each other
(d) A sits in the centre of one of the sides of the square table
133. Who amongst the following is B's husband?

(a) C (b) G (c) E (d) F
134. How many people sit between B and C when counted in anti-clockwise direction from B?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three
135. Who amongst the following is the wife of C?

(a) D (b) F (c) B (d) G
136. What is the position of E with respect to C?

(a) Immediately to the left
(b) Second to the left
(c) Third to the right
(d) Second to the right

Directions (Q.137-Q.141): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions given below it
Number of articles manufactured (in lakhs) by two Companies P and Q and percentage of articles sold by
both over the years.
Percentage sold by P Articles manufactured by P

Articles manufactured by Q Percentage sold by Q
40 80
35 70
Number of Articles (in lakhs)
30 60
Percentage sold
25 50
20 40
15 30
10 20
5 10
0 0
2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007
Years
137. How many articles were sold by both companies together in 2005?
(a) 14,62,000 (b) 42,18,000 (c) 31,25,000 (d) 29,60,000
138. What is the approximate average number of articles manufactured by Company P over the years?
(a) 29 (b) 38,14,886 (c) 38 (d) 29,16,667
139. What is the percent increase in the number of articles sold by Company Q in 2004 from the year
2002?(rounded off to two digits after decimal)
(a) 136.85 (b) 152.78 (c) 35 (d) 40
140. What is the ratio of number of the articles not sold by Company P to that of those by Company Q in the
year 2002?
(a) 5 : 7 (b) 9 : 13 (c) 7 : 5 (d) 13 : 8
141. In which year was the maximum number of articles manufactured from both Companies together?
(a) 2005 (b) 2005 and 2007 (c) 2007 (d) None of these

Directions (Q.142–Q.146): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions that follow.
External Public Debt from 1980 to 1986

(in Rs. crore)
40000
30500
30000 26880 28200
25530
23380
20825 21570
20000
10000
0
1980 1981 1982 1983 1984 1985 1986
142. During the years 1980-82, public debt rose by approximately?

(a) 6% (b) 8% (c) 12% (d) 15%
143. Public debt rose by _______ (in crores) from 1983 to 1984 ?
(a) 1000 (b) 1200 (c) 1250 (d) 1350
144. Public debt rose by about 5.3% during the period?

(a) 1980-81 (b) 1982-83 (c) 1983-84 (d) 1984-86
145. Increase in public debt was minimum during the period?

(a) 1980-81 (b) 1981-83 (c) 1980-84 (d) 1984-86
146. Percentage increase in public debt was maximum during the period?
(a) 1981-82 (b) 1982-83 (c) 1983-84 (d) 1985-86

Direction (Q.147-Q.150): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that are based on it.
The table shows the dimensions of various shapes of iron blocks.
Blocks Length(cm) Breadth(cm) Height(cm) Radius(cm)

Cube 20 20 20 -
Cuboid 12 8 5 -
Sphere - - - 35
Cylinder - - 14 8
Cone - - 28 21
147. Find the number of cones (of given dimension) that can be formed by melting 18 spheres of given
dimension.
(a) 252 (b) 265 (c) 250 (d) 270
148. Find the cost of painting 630 conical blocks of given dimension provided that only the curved surface
area is to be pained at Rs. 5 per 𝑚2 .(approx.)
(a) Rs. 777 (b) Rs. 727 (c) Rs. 780 (d) Rs. 725
149. Find the total number of cubical blocks of given dimension required to raise the water level to the brim of
a cylindrical container having dimensions 10 times than that of the given cylinder. Initially container is half
filled.
(a) 176 (b) 80 (c) 220 (d) 128
150. Find the ratio of total surface area of cylinder, cone and sphere.
(a) 88: 294: 1225 (b) 575: 352: 89 (c) 18: 119: 54 (d) 2: 8: 13


MOCK CLAT #26
Candidate Name : _________________

Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
prosecution.
Centre/Hall.
Passage(Q.1-Q.7): I was born of honest parents in one of the humbler walks of life, my father being a
manufacturer of dog-oil and my mother having a small studio in the shadow of the village church, where
she disposed of unwelcome babes. In my boyhood I was trained to habits of industry; I assisted my father
in procuring dogs for his vats and my mother in carrying away the debris of her work in the studio. In
performance of this duty, I sometimes had need of all my natural intelligence for all the law officers of the
vicinity were opposed to my mother's business. They were not elected on an opposition ticket, it just
happened so. My father's business of making dog-oil was less unpopular, though the owners of missing
dogs sometimes regarded him with suspicion, which was reflected, to some extent, upon me. My father
had, as silent partners, all the physicians of the town, who seldom wrote a prescription which did not
contain what they were pleased to designate as Ol. can. It is really the most valuable medicine ever
discovered. But most persons are unwilling to make personal sacrifices for the afflicted, and it was
evident that many of the fattest dogs in town had been forbidden to play with me--a fact which pained my
young sensibilities, and at one time came near driving me to become a pirate.
Looking back upon those days, I cannot but regret, at times, that by indirectly bringing my beloved
parents to their death I was the author of misfortunes profoundly affecting my future.
One evening passing my father's oil factory with the body of a foundling from my mother's studio I saw a
constable who seemed to be closely watching me. Though young, I had learned that a constable's acts,
of whatever apparent character, are prompted by the most reprehensible motives, and I avoided him by
dodging into the oilery by a side door. I locked it and was alone with my dead. The only light in the place
came from the furnace. Within the cauldron the oil still rolled in indolent ebullition, occasionally pushing
to the surface a piece of dog.
It had been my custom to throw the babes into the river which nature had thoughtfully provided for the
purpose, but that night I did not dare to leave the oilery. "After all," I said to myself, "it cannot greatly
matter if I put it into this cauldron. My father will never know the bones from those of a puppy, and the few
deaths which may result from administering another kind of oil for the incomparable ol. can. are not
important in a population which increases so rapidly."
Extracted with edits and revisions from the short-story “Oil of Dog” written by Bierce Ambrose
1. Bierce Ambrose has taken a first-person approach to writing this short-story. What is the tone of the
above-given passage with respect to the narrator?
(a) Memoir (b) Commentary (c) Reporting (d) Can’t be said
2. How was the narrator’s mother’s work viewed in the town?

(a) It was illegal (b) It was a sensitive matter politically
(c) Both a and b (d) Neither a nor b
3. Which of the following can’t be inferred from the passage?

(a) The people of the town were not entirely against the narrator’s father’s business
(b) The doctors of the town must have extended full support on the dog-oil business
(c) The incident that the narrator describes brought lots of problems to his parents
(d) The town people never knew that Ol. can contained dog-oil
4. What was the narrator’s attitude towards dogs?

(a) He hated them (b) He liked to play with them
(c) He had no particular feelings (d) It can’t be inferred from the passage

5. Which of the following can be true as per the passage?
(a) To the narrator it was natural to kill off the so-called “unwelcome babies”
(b) To the narrator deaths of a few persons, dogs and babies wouldn’t matter in a world burgeoning with
people
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
6. Which of the following can be a synonym for the word that has been highlighted in bold in the passage?
(a) Languid (b) Ameliorating (c) Doggedly (d) Unwieldy
7. What can’t be taken away from this passage?
(a) There are sections of society that support illegal activities
(b) The narrator was drawn into crime because of his family’s background
(c) The church supported illegal activities in the town
(d) The narrator had correctly judged his parents
Passage(Q.8-Q.11): Kamal Haasan promised a salary to homemakers, as part of his poll promises in his
seven-point governance and economic agenda, if his party, Makkal Needhi Maiam (MNM), is voted to
power. Kangana Ranaut opposed the idea, saying, “Don’t put a price tag on sex we have with our love,
don’t pay us for mothering our own, we don’t need salary for being the Queens of our own little kingdom
our home, stop seeing everything as business. Surrender to your woman she needs all of you not just
your love/respect/salary.” Tharoor responded, “I agree w/@KanganaTeam that there are so many things
in a homemaker’s life that are beyond price. But this is not about those things: it’s about recognising the
value of unpaid work & also ensuring a basic income to every woman. I’d like all Indian women to be as
empowered as you!”
DMK chief M.K. Stalin announced that if his party is voted to power, they would give Rs 1,000 per month
to every homemaker in the state. Following DMK’s announcement, the next day, the chief minister of
Tamil Nadu, E.K. Palaniswami, announced a monthly allowance of Rs 1,500 to homemakers as part of
the AIADMK’s manifesto. Haasan’s party has not indicated how much they would pay the homemakers. It
is not clear at this stage how these parties are proposing to source the funds needed for this and other
freebies they are promising.
According to a recent government economic survey, 60% of women in the “productive age group” of 15
to 59 were engaged in full-time housework. Nearly 84% of women’s working hours are spent on activities
they do not get paid for, while for men 80% of their work time is spent on paid work. The average boy
spends more time on leisure and learning than his sisters, while the average girl spends more time on
household work than her brothers. Boys participate less in regular household chores. A typical woman’s
day starts at about 5 am and ends after 9 pm. The value of women’s unpaid household work amounts to
nearly 40% of India’s current GDP (globally, it is 13%). Although, the Indian constitution grants men and
women equal rights, a strong patriarchal system shapes the lives of women with traditions going back
many millennia. Manusmriti lays down how a woman’s life is to be regulated: “In childhood, a female is
subject to her father, in her youth to her husband, and when her ‘lord’ is dead then to her sons.” Parents
see daughters as liabilities and make them feel inferior to their brothers.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from https://thewire.in/women/its-time-we-start-valuing-
womens-household-work-by-paying-homemakers
8. What is the basic difference between the outlook of Kangana Ranaut and Shashi Tharoor on this issue?
(a) Kangana has looked at the whole issue from a womanly point-of-view, while Tharoor has done so
from the point-of-view of an economist.
(b) Kangana has looked at the whole issue from a philosophical outlook, while Shashi Tharoor has
looked at it from a narrower and materialistic outlook than Kangana.
(c) Kangana has looked at the matter from a family-member point-of-view, while Tharoor has taken a
political standpoint.
(d) Kangana has looked at the matter from a narrow point-of-view while Tharoor has taken up a bigger
prism of economics and logic.

9. Which of the following can be a statement that the author will readily agree?
(a) This issue has become a very popular one in the Tamil Nadu elections and has been agreed upon by
all political outfits in the state
(b) The political parties have taken a very less thoughtful approach regarding this
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
10. According to the passage from where does gender disparities in Indian society originate?
(a) Patriarchal society (b) Constitution
(c) Ancient times (d) Both a and c
11. Which of the following can’t be inferred from the above passage?
(a) There must be a system of rewarding the homemakers monetarily abroad
(b) Kangana is against women empowerment and independence of women
(c) It is mostly women who are engaged in homemaking work
(d) The female child in India face much more difficulties in studying than the male child
Passage(Q.12-Q.16):The issue of global food waste is quickly becoming a billion tonne problem.
According to the United Nations Environment Programme’s 2021 food waste index, the world produces
931 million tonne of food waste every year, of which 569 tonne comes from households. The remaining
amount is attributed to the food service (244 million tonne) and retail sectors (118 million tonne). The
average global household produces 74kg of food waste per capita annually and that figure is broadly
similar across country income groups which suggests that widespread improvement is needed to tackle
the problem.
The index states that if food loss and waste were a country, it would be the third biggest source of
greenhouse gas emissions on the planet. So just how wasteful are individual countries when it comes to
food? The highest absolute figures for food waste were unsurprisingly recorded in the two countries with
populations of more than a billion people. China wastes an estimated 91.6 million tonnes of food per year
while India discards 68.8 million tonnes. The US is a little further down the ranking with 19.4 million
tonnes of food waste while in Europe, France and Germany produce between five and six million tonnes
annually.
Things look rather different when it comes to waste produced per capita. For example, the average
household in India discards 50kg of food per year while that rises to 59kg in the United States. Despite
appearing to have a relatively low level of total food waste compared to other countries with 2.6 million
tonne per year, the index shows Australia as having a high level of per capita waste at 102kg per
household per year. By comparison, Russia’s total household waste comes to an estimated 4.9 million
tonnes each year with waste per capita only coming to 33kg.
12. Which of the following country has recorded the highest absolute figures for food waste according to the
passage?
(a) United States (b) India (c) China (d) France
13. According to the United Nations Environment Programme’s 2021 food waste index, which of the following
is the main source of food waste?
(a) Retail sectors (b) Households (c) Food services (d) Hospitals
14. Which of the following writing style has been followed by the author here in this passage?
(a) Narrative (b) Persuasive (c) Expository (d) Descriptive
15. Which of the following options correctly represents the meaning of ‘per capita’ as has been used in the
passage?
(a) per person (b) per city (c) per capital (d) per household

16. Which of the following options correctly represents the meaning of the word ‘attributed’ as has been used
in the passage?
(a) regard something as being caused by.
(b) the process of reducing something's strength or effectiveness through sustained attack or pressure.
(c) provide or serve as clear evidence of.
(d) reduce the force, effect, or value of.
Passage(Q.17-Q.21):The Congress party, it would seem, has never lost an opportunity to lose an
opportunity.
To compound its woes, seven Congress leaders, including two former CMs — Bhupinder Singh Hooda
and Ghulam Nabi Azad — and former ministers like Raj Babbar, Manish Tewari and Anand Sharma, held
a rally in Jammu last week, declaring the party was weakening and they had come together to strengthen
it. These leaders are part of a group of 23 Congressmen, the so-called G23, who had sent Sonia Gandhi
a letter on August 15 last year asking for organisational elections and a more 'active and available
leadership’. In Jammu, Sharma even attacked the party for allying with the Indian Secular Front in West
Bengal. Bit by bit, the party seems to be consuming itself.
There is a strange role reversal here. The Congress seems beset by a ruling party-like complacency
even as the ruling BJP and the tenacious Modi-Amit Shah duo exhibit an opposition party’s untiring
aggression. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has cleverly appropriated all their planks, presenting himself
as a great reformer and pro-poor leader, while pushing the Congress to prove its Hindu credentials. It is
hard to tell what the Congress actually stands for today other than being a punching bag for the ruling
party. The main battering ram against the government remains their former president Rahul Gandhi, 50,
who holds no official post. He also has a penchant for picking up issues against Prime Minister Modi that
either backfire on him or don’t catch on, be it his Modi Chor Hai slogan, Rafale corruption allegations or
accusing the government of cowardice in the face of Chinese incursions. Sonia Gandhi has been interim
president for almost two years now and is in frail health. Priyanka Gandhi is a party general secretary in
charge of UP who spends most of her time outside the state.
Congress party, or whatever remains of it, still believes their meal ticket lies with Gandhis. As a result, the
Gandhi siblings sporadically hit the campaign trail. Rahul Gandhi was recently seen trying to cultivate a
man of the masses image by diving into the sea and joining students in push-up contests. Priyanka
Gandhi hit the ground running in Assam with photo-ops of her picking tea, trying to make a dent on her
party’s behalf. But it could be a case of too little, too late. The party is in disarray. It is bereft of cadre and
leaders on the ground. Worse, Brand Gandhi, the glue that once held the party together, has lost its
stickiness and its currency in the electoral marketplace. Ironically, this comes when the Congress has
three family members active in politics for the first time in recent years.
[ Excerpt is taken from: https://www.dailyo.in/politics/congress-gandhi-family-sonia-gandhi-rahul-gandhi-
india-today-magazine/story/1/34319.html]
17. Which of the following statements would the author agree with?
Statement 1: Indian National Congress is in a disorganized state currently.
Statement 2: Congress never had three family members active in politics in recent years.
(c) Statement 1 and 2 (d) Neither Statement 1 nor 2
18. What does the author mean by using the sentence “But it could be a case of too little, too late” that has
been underlined in the passage?
(a) The sentence is being used to introduce an ideological difference among the G23 members of
Congress.
(b) It is being used to introduce the reason for how the lack of a proper strategy, organizational skills, and
effort has made Congress deprived of cadre and leaders on the ground
(c) It is being used to emphasize the charisma of the Narendra Modi-Amit Shah duo affecting common
people in recent times
(d) It is being used to introduce the idea of portraying Sonia Gandhi’s role in the organizational elections
and more active and available leadership.

19. In the context of the passage, what would the word “dent” refer to?
(a) It refers to a slight hollow in a hard even surface made by a blow or pressure.
(b) It refers to a reduction in amount or size.
(c) It refers to having an adverse effect on; diminish.
(d) It refers to the process by which a person can impact something with their work; leave a mark.
20. Which of the following figures of speech has been used by the author in the italicised line?
(a) Wit (b) Humour (c) Anaphora (d) Fallacy
21. In the italicized and underlined line above, the articles are missing. Which of the following is the correct
order of the missing articles?
(a) the, the (b) a, the, an, the (c) a, the, an, a (d) the, the, an, a
Passage(Q.22-Q.26):I would have been 24 in the year when we had what looked like a bumper crop of
paddy dancing in the September breeze. The rice plants were weighed down by emerald earrings turning
golden. Water had been drained so that the ground was dry and hard for the heavy harvesters to go
about their business, in a month, without being caught in the mud. I cut across the farm with a book in my
jacket and a Walkman plugged to my ears. The year being 1988, that was entertainment then. There was
little to be done but wait for the crop to ripen, so the routine became this lazy saunter and reading in
solitude watched by nature.
As I surveyed__colours of__canvas before me, __few patches of yellow stood out amongst__different
shades of green. We farmers look for such symptoms as does a doctor examining the tongue of a child.
A closer examination threw up a shock and a reminder that a crop is considered a bumper only when it is
in the bags, not a minute earlier. A brown hopper infestation was spreading and sucking out life close to
the roots of the plants. Soon healthy green would turn sickly brown and we could lose up to 50 per cent
of the expected yield.
Thank God for poisons. The next day the entire farm was treated to a granular insecticide called Hevvy
Vate 10G (name changed). The broadcasters did mention how foul it smelled and how giddy they felt.
Anyway, the 50 acres were covered completely in a costly two-day operation akin to an emergency
military exercise.
When I returned a day later, I held my nose and beheld war-like devastation. Billa, our manager-driver,
put a hand on my arm and told me to look down and walk. I could see why. A smell of death and decay
hung over a perfectly-preserved paddy crop. The killer had worked only too well.
I saw a dead jackal and its pups. I saw egrets and sparrows and mynahs and magpies and kingfishers
and parrots and pigeons and owls and hundreds of birds I didn't know, lying dead or dying. I saw a half-
dazed wild cat pull itself out of sight with slow silent painful motions. I saw snakes, deadly and friendly,
strewn like guts in a butcher shop. I saw other reptiles and mammals already rotting. I saw eagles and
vultures soaring like a grey cloud, having seen the feast. I saw them alight, partake of what they pleased
and die an agonising end. I saw the senseless battlefield of Kalinga. And I was the cause.

(a) The author narrating a tragic event from his past and describing his role in it.
(b) The description of a healthy ecological environment in nature.
(c) The benefits of using pesticides and insecticides in the farming fields.
23. Which of the following can best describe the above passage?
(a) An aphorism (b) An allegory (c) A parable (d) An elegy
24. The whole passage is full of figures of speech. Which one of the following is in most abundance?
(a) Metaphor (b) Simile (c) Ellipsis (d) Synesthesia

25. In the italicised line above, the articles are missing. Which of the following is the correct order of the
missing articles?
(a) the, the, a, the (b) a, the, an, the (c) a, the, an, a (d) the, the, an, a

1. The author was extremely grateful for a poison that saved their crops.
2. The story explains the tragic aspect of using insecticides.
Passage(Q.27-Q.31):Facebook Inc. Chief Executive Officer Mark Zuckerberg pushed his idea this week
that Big Tech can self-police content by publishing reports and data on how well the industry removes
objectionable posts. The problem is Facebook has a system in place already that’s done little to improve
accountability, according to outside experts.
“Transparency can help hold the companies accountable as to what accuracy and effectiveness they’re
achieving,” Zuckerberg told Congress on Thursday. Facebook wouldn’t have to change much if such a
system was the industry norm, he added. “As a model, Facebook has been doing something to this effect
for every quarter.”
Zuckerberg has pushed his proposal many times amid widening calls to make social media companies
more responsible for the content users post. As tech platforms come under fire for an increase in harmful
posts, from hate speech to threats of violence, U.S. lawmakers are debating how to reform Section 230 of
the Communications Decency Act, which shields companies from liability for user-generated content.
While a crackdown on Big Tech has been deliberated for years, the call for renewed action comes after
social media companies were criticized for playing a part in spreading misinformation that fuelled the
Capitol riots in January and false claims about Covid-19. Thursday’s hearing brought Congress no closer
to a legislative solution, giving Facebook an opportunity to influence the outcome.
However, the self-reported numbers aren’t as transparent as they sound. Facebook, for instance,
reported in February that more than 97% of content categorized as hate speech was detected by its
software before being reported by a user, and that it acted on 49% of bullying and harassing content on
its main social network in the fourth quarter before it was flagged by users, up from 26% in the third
quarter. But the denominator of the equation is what Facebook’s AI took down — not the total amount of
harmful content. And Facebook doesn’t share how many people viewed the postings before they were
removed, or how long they were up.
The pitfalls of Facebook’s reliance on AI were outlined earlier this year by the company’s external
oversight board, an independent panel that Facebook created to review its most contentious content
decisions. The board recently overturned Instagram’s decision to remove an image raising awareness for
breast cancer symptoms, even though breast cancer awareness was an allowed exception to the
company’s nudity policy.
27. Which of the following is the objective of the section 230 of the Communications Decency Act?
(a) The Section manifests consequence and punishment to companies for hate speech and related
content.
(b) The Section shields companies from the liability for user generated content.
(c) The Section shields the individual from being prosecuted for posting online.
28. What suggestion has Zuckerberg presented before the congress to hold companies accountable?
(a) Zuckerberg has advocated stricter punishment to the defaulters of the Communications Decency Act.
(b) Zuckerberg has advocated more transparency and presented Facebook as a model for it.
(c) Zuckerberg has asked for the complete self-regulation of the companies.
(d) Zuckerberg has submitted to the congress for a single law to govern all the online media services.

29. According to the author, what is the problem with the modal suggested by Zuckerberg?
(a) The author believes that numbers can be manipulated by the big companies.
(b) The author believes that the small companies cannot follow this modal.
(c) The author believes that the self-reported numbers are not as transparent as they sound.
30. How were the Social media companies responsible for the Capitol Hill?
(a) It was a Facebook group which carried out the action on Capitol Hill
(b) The President gave the call of the incident on Social Media
(c) Social Media helped in spreading Mis-information which fuelled the incident

(a) The Congress has no solution on how to effectively regulated Social Media
(b) Zuckerberg is positive that the self-policing of content through AI is the best way forward.
(c) Social Media has a role to play in the spread of mis-information on COVID 19
(d) Social Media has proved helpful in providing news in many parts of the world in the time of lockdown.

Passage(Q.32-Q.36): Sri Lankan President Gotabaya Rajapaksa has conveyed his "heartfelt gratitude"
to his Chinese counterpart Xi Jinping for China's vote against a recent UNHRC resolution on the island
nation's rights recor(d) During the telephone conversation on Monday, Xi pushed the Sri Lankan leader to
speed up Beijing's major infrastructure projects under the Belt and Road Initiative (BRI). Rajapaksa
conveyed his "heartfelt gratitude" to Xi and the Chinese government for the support to Sri Lanka at the
recently concluded [1] Session of the UN Human Rights Council, Sri Lanka's online newspaper Colombo
Page quoted the President's Media division as saying. Rajapaksa also thanked China for providing
600,000 doses of COVID-19 vaccines to Sri Lanka.
The UN Human Rights Council in Geneva on March 23 adopted a strong resolution against Sri Lanka's
rights record, in a setback to Colombo, which made determined efforts to garner international support
ahead of the voting. The resolution titled "Promotion of Reconciliation Accountability and Human Rights
in Sri Lanka' was adopted by the UNHRC after [2] members out of 47 voted in favour of it. Eleven
members voted against the resolution.

(a) 44th (b) 45th (c) 46th (d) 47th

(a) 36 (b) 31 (c) 27 (d) 22
34. Which of the following considerations has/have not guided India’s stand on the issue at the UNHRC?
(a) India’s support to the Tamils of Sri Lanka
(b) Ensuring the unity, stability and territorial integrity of Sri Lanka
(c) Ensuring the formation of the new Constitution of Sri Lanka
35. Which of the following amendments of the Sri Lankan Constitution is India most concerned about and is
asking the Sri Lankan Government to get it implemented?
(a) 13th (b) 16th (c) 19th (d) 20th
36. Which of the following are the basis on which the resolution was brought against the Sri Lankan
Government at the UNHRC?
1. increasing militarisation of governmental functions
2. intimidation of civil society
3. increasing oppression on the minority Tamils in the Northern areas
Passage(Q.37-Q.41): NISAR is an SUV-sized satellite that is being jointly developed by the space
agencies of the US and Indi(a) The partnership agreement was signed between NASA and ISRO in
September 2014. The name NISAR is short for NASA-ISRO-SAR. SAR here refers to the [1] that NASA
will use to measure changes in the surface of the Earth. Essentially, SAR refers to a technique for
producing high-resolution images. Because of the precision, the radar can penetrate clouds and
darkness, which means that it can collect data day and night in any weather.
During the course of [2] years, the images will allow scientists to track changes on the earth’s surface.
“The images will be detailed enough to show local changes and broad enough to measure regional
trends. As the mission continues for years, the data will allow for better understanding of the causes and
consequences of land surface changes, increasing our ability to manage resources and prepare for and
cope with global change,” NASA has said.

(a) Short aperture radar (b) Synthetic aperture radar
(c) Short astronomical reader (d) Synthetic aperture reader

(a) two (b) three (c) four (d) five
39. These are the equipment that will be aboard NISAR –

1. Reflector
2. High-rate communication subsystem for science data
3. GPS receivers
4. Spacecraft bus
5. S-band radar
6. Payload data subsystem
Which of the above will be provided by ISRO?
(a) Only 2, 3, 4 and 6 (b) Only 4 and 5
(c) Only 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 (d) Only 2, 4 and 5
40. Which of the following is correct?

(a) The GSLV Mk-II will be used to launch NISAR
(b) It will be an all-weather satellite
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
41. Which of the following can’t be studied with the help of NISAR?
(a) Spotting warning signs of imminent volcanic eruptions
(b) Helping to monitor groundwater supplies
(c) Tracking the rate at which ice sheets are melting
(d) Predicting the weather of a region
Passage(Q.42-Q.49): India's gross domestic product (GDP) for the third quarter (Q3) ended December
2020 stood at [1] per cent, government data released on Friday showe(d) "GDP at constant (2011-12)
prices in Q3 of 2020-21 is estimated at Rs 36.22 lakh crore, as against Rs 36.08 lakh crore in Q3 of
2019-20, showing a growth of [1] per cent," data released by ministry of statistics and programme
implementation showe(d) With the quarterly growth, India has now exited the technical recession phase.
The economy had shrunk by an unprecedented [1] per cent in the first quarter this fiscal following the
coronavirus pandemic and resultant lockdowns. However, due to spurt in economic activities in the
second quarter, the GDP decline narrowed to 7.3 per cent.
The recently released [2] had projected Indian economy to contract 7.7 per cent in current fiscal and
growth to rebound to 11 per cent next fiscal. Economists have raised their forecasts for the current and
next fiscal year, expecting a pick-up in government spending, consumer demand and resumption of most
economic activities. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which has slashed its repo rate by a total of 115
basis points since March 2020 to cushion the shock from the pandemic, has projected growth of 10.5%
for the fiscal year starting April.

(a) 1.1 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.6 (d) 0.4

(a) Economic Survey
(b) State of the Indian Economy Report
(c) World Development Report
(d) State of the Economy Report

44. India is now out of Technical Recession. A country is said to be in a technical recession, if it registers
contraction for consecutive -
(a) three quarters (b) four quarters (c) two quarters (d) five quarters
45. Which of the following factors have helped a lot in the recovery of the Indian economy?
(a) The positive business-cycle in the world
(b) Biden’s win in the US elections, which has bettered Indo-US trade ties
(c) The Vaccine drive of India
46. Which of the following countries other than India have registered positive growth in the third quarter?
1. USA
2. UK
3. Japan
4. China
5. Turkey
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only (c) 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
47. India has registered a V-shaped recovery after the lockdown had started However, if the second wave of
the pandemic, the country’s economy might have to register a -
(a) Z-shaped recovery (b) U-shaped recovery
(c) M-shaped recovery (d) W-shaped recovery
48. Which of the following can be a detrimental factor to India’s economic recovery in the future?
(a) The continuing trend of global crude oil prices
(b) Elections in various states of India
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b

(a) The government has revised annual GDP estimates for the fiscal year 2020-21 and has predicted a
lower contraction than the earlier estimate.
(b) Manufacturing PMI has registered growth
(c) India’s eight core sectors recorded a meagre 0.1% rise in output in January 2021
(d) The V-shaped recovery of India has been made possible due to the government’s initial policy of
“lives over livelihood”.
Passage(Q.50-Q.54): Mount Everest, the world’s highest mountain peak, (about [1] feet) higher than
previously calculated, Nepal and China have said in a joint announcement. Since it stands on the border
between the two countries, mountaineers make the climb from both sides. Surveyors from both China
and Nepal had co-ordinated to come to a common agreement on the new height. The countries joined
hands to re-measure Everest and as per a 2019 MoU, the respective teams had to announce their
findings together. The announcement was expected earlier but was delayed because of the COVID-19
pandemi(c) While China sent its team of surveyors in May this year, Nepal’s expedition occurred in 2019.
The expected announcement had been creating a lot of buzz in geological circles as well as the
mountaineering community who keep a tab on such developments.
The height of the Himalayas was determined by the Survey of India in [2], using instruments like
theodolites and chains, with GPS still decades away. In 1999, a US team put the elevation at 29,035 feet
(nearly 8,850 m). This survey was sponsored by the National Geographic Society, US. The Society uses
this measurement, while the rest of the world, except China, had accepted 8,848 m so far.
50. What has been redacted by [1]?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

51. Why there was a need to re-measure the height of Mount Everest?
(a) Shifting of tectonic plates due to the 2015 earthquake
(b) Climate change has changed the rock structure
(c) The disagreement between India and Nepal over the calculated length
(d) Due to the upcoming CPEC project, it was a required activity
52. Out of the 10 highest peaks of the world, _____ are located in the Himalayas.
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9

(a) 1947 (b) 1950 (c) 1954 (d) 1958
54. Which of the following countries has provided technical assistance to Nepal for measuring the height of
Mt. Everest?
(a) Australia (b) China (c) New Zealand (d) India
Passage(Q.55-Q.58): The passage of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill, 2019, has
caused great disappointment to the transgender community in India that had urged the Rajya Sabha to
refer the Bill to a select committee.
The Bill failed to incorporate crucial recommendations of the Parliament Standing Committee and several
depositions by the transgender and intersex community. According to the Bill, a transgender person “may
make an application to the [x] for a certificate of identity indicating the gender as ‘transgender’” and a
revised certificate may be obtained “if a transgender person undergoes surgery to change gender either
as a male or female”.
While Bill seeks to prohibit discrimination, it does not explicitly define what constitutes discrimination. It
also fails to extend protection to transgender persons who might face sexual abuse as the Indian Penal
Code recognises rape in strict terms of men and women as perpetrator and victim, respectively. While the
Bill makes “sexual abuse” punishable, it does not define the acts that constitute sexual offences, making
it complicated for transgender persons to report such crimes.
55. For a Certificate of Identity, a Transgender person has to make an application to [x]. Name [x].
(a) District Collector (b) District Magistrate
(c) Deputy Commissioner of Police (d) Municipality Corporation
56. Which of the following provisions are not there in the Act?
(a) Opportunity to hold public or private office
(b) Right to movement, right to reside, rent, or otherwise occupy property
(c) rights of health facilities to transgender persons including separate HIV surveillance centres
(d) an effective mechanism to enforce the legal prohibition against discrimination on the ground of
gender identity
57. In which of the following cases verdict SC held the reservations to transgenders in admissions to
educational institutions and jobs?
(a) National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India
(b) ADM Jabalpur v Shivakant Shukla Case
(c) Minerva Mills v Union of India
(d) Waman Rao v Union of India
58. Which ministry has constituted the National Council for Transgender Person?
(a) Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
(c) Department of Legal Affairs
(d) Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment

Passage(Q.59-Q.62): NASA’s SOFIA telescope has made its way back to California after over a month
flying missions from [x] Airport. The telescope is mounted on a Boeing 747SP and is the world’s only
flying infrared observatory. The aircraft is now back at its home base of Palmdale, California, preparing
for its next mission.
SOFIA, or Stratospheric Observatory for Infrared Astronomy, is a specialized telescope flying on a
Boeing 747SP. The telescope is a joint project by NASA and DLR, flying missions around the world to
record sensitive data about ongoing space phenomen(a) In February, SOFIA began its first mission from
[y]. According to Aviation24, the telescope flew 15 eight to nine hour flights over the Atlantic,
Scandanavia, and the Mediterranean during its time at Cologne. The purpose of the missions was to
study matter in interstellar space and the effect on the matter by cosmic radiation, along with learning
more about the birth of massive stars.
59. With the help of SOFIA, scientists have detected the most ancient type of molecule. Name it.
(a) Helium Hydride Ion (b) Methane Hydride Ion
(c) Neon Hydride Ion (d) Di Chloride Ion
60. Which of the following layers are found at 39,000 feet?

(a) Stratosphere (b) Troposphere (c) Ionosphere (d) Exosphere
61. With which of the following country’s space research centre has NASA collaborated for this project?
(a) Germany (b) France (c) Russia (d) England
62. SOFIA has also discovered the Clavius Crater which is in -

(a) Moon’s southern hemisphere (b) Moon’s northern hemisphere
(c) Moon’s equator (d) Moon’s northern polar cap
Passage(Q.63-Q.66): India now ranks [1] among 107 countries in terms of hunger and continues to be in
the ‘severe’ hunger category according to the Global Hunger Index 2020. According to the study, 14% of
India’s population is undernourished.
Last year, India’s GHI rank was 102nd out of 117 countries. South Asia and [2] have the worst hunger
conditions among global regions, the GHI foun(d)
The GHI is “a tool designed to comprehensively measure and track hunger at the global, regional, and
national levels”. Data from the United Nations and other multilateral agencies are used for the calculation.
India ranks lower than most of its South Asian neighbours – Pakistan (88), Nepal (73), Bangladesh (75),
Sri Lanka (64) and Myanmar (78) – and only Afghanistan fare worse, at 99th place. The statistics for
Bhutan are not available.
South Asia has the highest child wasting rate for any region, and India is the worst performer. At 17.3%,
India’s child wasting rate is only slightly better than it was last year, at 20.8%. Child stunting is also
extremely high across South Asia. Data from 1991 through 2014 for Bangladesh, India, Nepal, and
Pakistan showed that stunting is concentrated among children from households facing multiple forms of
deprivation, including poor dietary diversity, low levels of maternal education, and household poverty.

(a) 92 (b) 94 (c) 102 (d) 110
64. Which of the following reasons cannot be stated for India’s poor position in GHI?
(a) Decreasing agricultural output of small and marginal holders
(b) Relative income of one section of people has been on the decline
(c) The kind of work a section of people have been doing are less remunerative
(d) Large food stock with FCI

65. The Global Hunger Index is published jointly by Welthungerhilfe and -
(a) NetHope (b) Oxfam
(c) Concern Worldwide (d) Action Against Hunger

(a) Middle East (b) Sub-Saharan Africa
(c) South East Asia (d) South America

Directions(Q.67 – Q.104): Read the comprehensions carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.67-Q.72): As per Section 498-A, “Whoever, being the husband or the relative of the
husband of a woman, subjects such woman to cruelty shall be punished with imprisonment for a term
which may extend to 3 years and shall also be liable to fine.” For the purpose of this section, ‘cruelty’
states (a) any deliberate conduct which is of such a nature as is likely to induce a woman to commit
suicide. Moreover, it may cause a serious injury or danger to life or health (whether mental or physical) of
the woman; or (b) harassment of the woman where such harassment is with an intention of coercing her
or any person related to her to meet any illegal demand for any property or valuable security. Moreover, it
includes coercion on account of failure by her or any person related to her to meet such demand. In
order to identify as a women, it is sufficient that the person was born a woman.
In 1983, domestic violence was decided as a specific criminal offense with the introduction of section
498-A into the IPC. This section deals with cruelty by a husband or his relatives against a married
woman. Four types of cruelties are which are under this law. Firstly, conduct which is likely to induce a
woman to suicide, secondly, conduct which is likely to cause serious injury to the life or health of the lady,
harassing with the purpose of forcing the lady or her known to give some property, or lastly, harassment
because the woman or her relatives are unable to fulfill the demands for more money items.
The various forms of cruelty are Persistent refusal of eatables, Insisting on continuous sexual conduct,
Continuous locking a lady out of the house, Physiological violence, Taunting, demoralizing and putting
down the lady with the aim of causing mental harm, Confining the woman at the house and not allowing
her normal social interaction, Abusing children in their mom’s presence with the aim of causing her
mental harm, Threatening with divorce for dowry.
67. Laxmi was married to Menon. At the time of marriage, she identified herself as a woman for she was born
that way. However, she does not identify as a woman anymore. She is subject to cruelty by her husband.
Decide
(a) Laxmi can resort to domestic violence laws for she is a woman.
(b) Laxmi cannot resort to domestic violence laws for she does not identify herself as a woman any more.
(c) Laxmi can resort to domestic violence laws for cruelty was committed onto her
68. Rajesh was not happy with his wife for she did not cook good food. He once yelled at her for the food did
not taste good. Decide
(a) Rajesh has committed cruelty for he has induced his wife to commit suicide
(b) Rajesh has not committed cruelty for mere yelling is not enough
(c) Rajesh is liable under domestic violence act for he coerced her to meet an illegal demand
(d) Rajesh's liability will depend upon the facts of the case.
69. Rajesh's wife is a smuggler and smuggles gold from Afghanistan. Rajesh asked her to get diamonds for
himself from Afghanistan to avoid the hefty import duty. Even though diamonds were legal, his wife did
not comply. Rajesh beat her up. Decide
(a) Rajesh is liable to be punished under domestic violence act as he harassed his wife for an illegal
demand of property.
(b) Rajesh is not liable for the property was legal to be imported.
(c) Rajesh is liable for diamonds could not be imported legally into India
(d) Rajesh's liability will depend on the circumstances of the case.

70. Ram has a good friend Shyam who he considered as family. Shyam always took part in the decisions of
the family including who to marry Ram with. Ram's wife was an RTO officer and Shyam always
harrassed her for not getting his license processed in time. Decide
(a) Shyam is liable for he is a relative and harrassed Ram's wife
(b) Shyam is not liable for he is not a relative and did not harass Ram's wife
(c) Shyam is not liable for he is not a relative. But harassed Ram's wife
(d) Shyam is not liable for he is a relative. But he did not harass Ram's wife.
71. Raman was a staunch believer in Chanakya's philosophy which stated that from 0-5 years, a child must
always be forgiven, from 5-18 years he must be beaten/rebuked for his mistakes and after 18, he
becomes a friend of his parents. Raman used to beat up his children often when they committed
mistakes. Their mother however did not like this beating at all and often complained. Decide
(a) Raman is liable under domestic violence laws as his beating of children forms part of cruelty
(b) Raman is not liable under domestic violence laws for his acts are not enough to constitute cruelty.
(c) Raman is liable under Domestic Violence Act for the mental health of the mother was affected by
such beating
(d) Raman is not liable. He is only following Chanakya's philosophy.
72. Raman beat up his child only because he knew their mother did not like it. He did it to get her to sign a
contract with his friend Raghav.
(a) Raman is liable under domestic violence laws for he committed cruelty to get his illegal demand
accepted.
(b) Raman is not liable under domestic violence laws for entering into a contract is not an illegal demand.
(c) Raman is liable for domestic violence for he asked a valuable security to be delivered illegally.
(d) Raman is not liable for domestic violence as a contract is not a valuable security.
Passage (Q.73-Q.76): Article 20 of the Constitution provides protection in respect of conviction of

offences and guarantees protection against self-incrimination, double jeopardy i.e. being punished for the
same offence twice and, ex post facto laws i.e. laws that declare any activity or action as illegal, with
retrospective effect. The right against self-incrimination means that no person in the country can be
forced or compelled to provide any testimony against himself. Forced or compelled testimony is not only
limited to confessions or statements but also includes incriminatory statements.
Article 21 of the Constitution provides that “no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty
except according to procedure established by law”. This can be interpreted as a guarantee to live life with
dignity, free from any kind of torture or cruel, inhuman, and degrading treatment or punishment.
The right to life and personal liberty as guaranteed by the Constitution establishes that nobody’s life and
liberty can be taken away and nobody can be deprived of their right to life and personal liberty unless
there is a procedure that has been established by law.
The Supreme Court of India has further interpreted the “procedure established by law” as “due process of
law” and thus stated that as per Article 21 of the Constitution, the procedure of law must be fair, just, and
reasonable and not arbitrary, cruel, or whimsical, which thus provides a triangular relationship between
Articles 14, 19, and 21.
[Extracted with revisions from an excerpt of ‘Torture Behind Bars: Role of the Police Force in India’ by
Joshua N Aston, published on scroll.in
https://scroll.in/article/955552/this-book-reminds-us-of-what-counts-as-torture-by-the-police-according-to-
the-indian-constitution]
73. Majnu was arrested for allegedly abducting Laila. The investigation was still going on and it had not been
proved that Majnu is the offender. The police officer in charge of investigating the same asked Majnu to
sign a confession that admitted that he actually abducted Laila. Majnu was illiterate and refused to sign
anything that he couldn’t understand. The police officer didn’t say anything but forced Majnu to stamp his
thumb print even though he kept persuading him to not do that. Is this a violation of Article 20?
(a) Yes, because compelled testimony is not only limited to confessions or statements but also includes
incriminatory statements

(b) Yes, because Majnu is being forced to sign a confession against his will and his right against self-
incrimination is being violated
(c) No, because Article 20 does not provide protection against stamping of thumb prints on confessions
while in police custody
(d) No, because Majnu is not being forced to sign a confession against his will and his right against self-
incrimination is not being violated
74. Dholakpur government enacted ABC law which made it mandatory for all citizens to wear a badge of the
national flag on their clothes at all times outside the house. The law came into effect on 31 st Jan 2021
but, discussions about the same had been going on since a long period of time in both the Parliament as
well as in public discourse. However, ABC law was repealed on 28th March 2021. Jaggu was arrested
and convicted on 29th March for wearing a red badge, instead of one featuring the national flag. Is any
constitutional right being violated in this case?
(a) No, because Jaggu was not convicted under any law with retrospective application as he was
arrested on 29th March
(b) No, because such laws are in the interests of fostering a spirit of patriotism which is exempt from the
scope of Article 20
(c) Yes, because ABC law has been repealed and no one can be convicted under a repealed law
(d) Yes, because Jaggu was convicted under ABC law with retrospective application as it had already
been repealed before the conviction
75. Sanju was arrested and convicted under the “Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act [TADA]”
for being in possession of military grade firearms. After his sentence was over, proceedings were again
started against Sanju under TADA for ‘conspiring to hurt the national integrity of the country’. Sanju’s
lawyer challenges this saying that if Sanju was convicted again then it would amount to Double Jeopardy.
Is the challenge correct?
(a) Yes, because the second investigation is a violation of Sanju’s right to protection against ex-post
facto laws
(b) Yes, because being convicted twice under TADA amounts to double jeopardy which is a violation of
Article 20
(c) No, because being in possession of military grade firearms and conspiring to hurt the national
integrity of the country are two separate offences and not the same offence
(d) No, because being in possession of military grade firearms and conspiring to hurt the national
integrity of the country are the same offence under TADA
76. In general terms, ‘bail is the rule and jail is the exception’. However, when Sanju was arrested under
TADA, he was not granted any bail. He remained in police custody till the trial ended. Under TADA, an
accused can be arrested and bail may be refused. Such steps are allowed because the same is
considered to be in protection of national interest. Can the refusal of bail under TADA be considered a
violation of right to life and personal liberty?
(a) Yes, because bail is the rule and jail is the exception and nobody can be deprived of the right to bail
(b) Yes, because the right to life and personal liberty as guaranteed by the Constitution establishes that
nobody’s life and liberty can be taken away
(c) No, because being granted bail is not a part of right to life and personal liberty
(d) No, because bail was not granted to Sanju as he was arrested under TADA which allows such a step
as per the provisions established in the law itself\

Passage (Q.77-Q.80): The concept of mistake is mentioned in Chapter II of the Indian Contract Act,
which deals with voidable contracts and voidable agreements.
The Act provides that “Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact
essential to the agreement, the agreement is void”. This implies that anerroneous opinion as to the value
of the thing which forms the subject-matter of the agreement is not to be deemed a mistake “as to a
matter of fact.”“As to matter of fact” here would signify that the parties to the case have consent but a
subject matter/ fact has misled them or they weren’t aware of it.
The effect of mistakes as to law: a contract is not voidable because it was caused by a mistake as to any
law in force in India, but a mistake as to a law not in force in India has the same effect as a mistake of
fact.
A leading case law on the concept of mistake is Gallaway vs. Gallaway. In this case, both the parties
were under a mistake of fact that they were married. Subsequently, the two of them agreed to separate
and thus, made an agreement. It was then found that the man’s first wife was still alive, unknown to both
of them. The court held that the separation deed was void on the ground that the agreement had been
done on the belief that they were married to each other, but turned out otherwise with the first wife being
alive.
[Extracted with revisions from ‘Mistake under the Indian Contract Act, 1872’ byMohammad Shuja Uzair,
published on lexforti.com
https://lexforti.com/legal-news/mistake-under-the-indian-contract-act-1872/]
77. Chunnu and Munnu are two merchants involved in sea trade. Chunnu agrees to sell a consignment of
coal that was being carried by a ship named ‘Sea Queen’ from London to Surat. They sign a contract on
24th March 2021. It was subsequently found that Sea Queen drowned after hitting an iceberg on 23rd
March 2020. Munnu sues Chunnu for breach of contract. Chunnu claims that the contract is void. Is he
correct?
(a) No, because the fact that Sea Queen drowned before signing the contract does not void the contract
as the ship was not essential to the contract
(b) Yes, because Sea Queen forms part of subject matter essential to the contract and the fact that it had
drowned before the contract was signed implies a mistake of fact
(c) Yes, because a failure to assess the status of Sea Queen at the time of signing of contract was a
mistake of law which renders the contract void
78. A wants to buy B’s horse named Chetak. Although Chetak was of unsound mind, he was a strong horse
with a good pace and could run very fast. The fact that Chetak was of unsound mind was not known to B,
who was the owner of the horse. A asks B to sell Chetak to him because he admired his fast speed and
B agrees. The next day, A found out that Chetak was of unsound mind. A claims that the contract is void
while B disagrees. Is A correct?
(a) Yes, because the fact that Chetak was of unsound mind is a matter of fact which forms an essential
part of the contract
(b) Yes, because A would not have agreed to buy Chetak if he was aware that the horse was of unsound
mind
(c) No, because the fact that Chetak was of unsound mind and this was not known to A and B while
signing the contract does not constitute a mistake of fact
(d) No, because the fact that Chetak was of unsound mind is not a matter of fact which forms an
essential part of the contract

79. Hari wanted to buy a painting for his wife Meena. He went to a shop and asked for ‘Mona Lisa’. The
shopkeeper showed Hari a painting as well as a necklace, both of which were named Mona Lisa.
Subsequently, he kept the necklace back and informed Hari about the cost of the painting. He paid for
the same and the shopkeeper packed it for him. Next morning, Hari went back to the shop and told the
shopkeeper that he had packed the incorrect item since he wanted to buy the Mona Lisa necklace and
not the painting. Hari asked him to return his money as the contract had become void since there was a
mistake of fact. The shopkeeper refused to agree. Based on your reading of the passage, is the
shopkeeper correct in doing so?
(a) Yes, because although there was a mistake of fact regarding the two Mona Lisas, this was not
essential to the contract between Hari and the shopkeeper
(b) Yes, because there was no mistake of fact as Hari agreed to buy the painting and the shopkeeper
agreed to sell the painting only
(c) No, because there was a mistake of fact between Hari and the shopkeeper concerning which Mona
Lisa to buy and sell respectively
80. Chulbul Pandey wanted to buy a pair of custom Pay Ban sunglasses. He went to the Pay Ban store and
asked for the same. Mr. Pay helped Chulbul with his request. After the pair of sunglasses were selected
and customised, he sold the pair to Chulbul for Rs. 5000 and Chulbul went back home. Subsequently,
Mr. Pay found out that the average market cost for a pair of custom sunglasses is Rs 10,000. He sought
to set aside the contract as it was void due to a mistake of fact. Chulbul disagreed and said that there
was no mistake of fact. Is he correct?
(a) No, because the value of the sunglasses is a part of the subject matter of the agreement and an
incorrect value can be deemed as a mistake of fact
(b) No, because an incorrect value being ascertained to goods can constitute a mistake of law and this
can be used to set aside a contract
(c) Yes, because an incorrect value being ascertained to goods can constitute a mistake of law and this
can be used to set aside a contract
(d) Yes, because the fact that sunglasses were bought for a cheaper price than the market average does
not render the contract of sale void
Passage (Q.81-Q.84): Theft, robbery and dacoity are three types of crimes under the law on crimes
known as the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
Theft is when someone steals a movable property out of your possession with the intention of stealing it
from you. For example, if Shikar steals five hundred rupees from your wallet when you were not in the
room, then it is an act of theft.
Robbery is an aggravated form of theft, so if someone attempts or causes any hurt, wrongful restraint or
death in order to commit an act of theft, it is known as robbery. For example, if Shikar comes to your
house, beats you up and then steals five hundred rupees from your wallet, it is an act of robbery.
Dacoity is a crime when 5 or more people commit or attempt to or aid someone to commit an act of
robbery together. For example, if Shikhar and his 4 friends come to your house and beat you up to steal
your money and jewellery, then it is an act of dacoity.
The punishment for these crimes are also different. If you commit theft you may be punished with jail time
up to 3 years or a fine or both. If you commit robbery you may be punished with jail time up to 10 years or
a fine or both. If you commit dacoity then you may be punished with jail time which may be for life and a
fine.
[Extracted with minor revisions from ‘What is the difference between theft, robbery and dacoity?’
published on nyaaya.org
https://nyaaya.org/questions/theft/what-is-the-difference-between-theft-robbery-and-dacoity/]

81. Mogambo was a small time sandalwood smuggler. In the dead of the night, he used to go to X’s farm
where he used to cultivate sandalwood trees. He started cutting the trees and severing them off the earth
one by one. He then put all the trees in his truck. Just as he was about to drive his truck away, police
caught him and arrested him for theft. Did Mogambo commit theft?
(a) Yes, because he had the intention of stealing X’s sandalwood trees and it doesn’t matter if they were
immovable in nature
(b) Yes, because he severed the sandalwood trees off the earth and was stealing them from X by taking
them out of his possession
(c) No, because sandalwood trees cannot be stolen as they are immovable and cannot be taken away
from someone’s possession
(d) No, because he did not commit theft as there is a difference between theft and smuggling and
sandalwood trees can only be smuggled
82. Sonpari was an old lady who was walking her dog in the neighbourhood park. Suddenly, Z came out of
nowhere and showed Sonpari a knife. Z threatened to kill Sonpari’s dog if she made any noise. Sonpari
was frightened but she stood still. Z while holding the knife in his hand, snatched her gold chain from
neck forcefully and ran away. Is this an act of robbery?
(a) No, because Z did not attempt or cause any hurt to Sonpari and merely showed her a knife
(b) No, because Z committed theft and not robbery because he stole a movable property out of Sonpari’s
possession with an intention of stealing it from her
(c) Yes, because Z committed an aggravated form of theft by threatening to kill her dog and snatching
her chain while showing her a knife
83. Roald and Dahl are two friends. Roald had a very good book collection so Dahl decided to visit his house
to borrow a book. However, when Dahl went there, Roald was not home. So, Dahl picked up the book
from Roald’s bookshelf and asked his mother if he may borrow the same. Roald’s mother permitted Dahl
to take the book but she forgot to inform Roald about it. When Roald came home, he thought that Dahl
had stolen his book. Can Roald accuse Dahl of theft?
(a) Yes, because Dahl took a movable property out of Roald’s possession without informing him
(b) Yes, because Dahl had the intention of stealing Roald’s book otherwise he would’ve waited to take
permission from Roald himself
(c) No, because Dahl asked Roald’s mother for permission before taking the book and he wouldn’t have
done that if had a criminal intention
(d) No, because merely taking a book out of someone’s possession without asking them does not
constitute theft
84. Shinchan was going on a vacation to Chambal. Suddenly, Jagga Daaku and his gang of 7 members
appeared on the lonely highway with guns and surrounded Shinchan’s vehicle, forcing him to stop. They
asked Shinchan to come out of the car so that they could steal all the valuables in the car as well as
petrol and other parts from the car itself. They forced Shinchan to sit on his knees and one of Jagga
Daaku’s men held a gun over Shinchan’s head. After they had taken whatever they wished to take, they
left Shinchan and rode away on their horses. Has Shinchan been a victim of dacoity?
(a) Yes, because Jagga Daaku and his gang together stole Shinchan’s valuables while by threatening to
hurt him by holding him at gun-point
(b) Yes, because although Jagga Daaku and his friends didn’t actually threaten to hurt Shinchan they
stole movable property out of his possession
(c) No, because this was an act of theft and not dacoity as there was no force or aggravation involved in
the incident

Passage (Q.85-Q.89): The Supreme Court said on March 3 that it is “not seditious to have views different
from the government.”The apex court was hearing a Public Interest Litigation – which it eventually
dismissed – filed against former Jammu and Kashmir chief minister Farooq Abdullah for his remarks on
the Centre’s move to read down Article 370.
The Supreme Court’s observation is significant considering the spate of sedition cases slapped against
activists and journalists recently. In a recent interview, retired Supreme Court judge, Justice Deepak
Gupta, had said Section 124A is used by governments to create fear in the citizenry to prevent or throttle
dissent. He said the law is widely misused and, worse, cases of its misuse are increasing “exponentially”.
Section 124 A of the Indian Penal Code prescribes the punishment for Sedition which defines the offence
as “Whoever, by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise,
brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards,
the Government established by law”.
[Extracted with revisions from ‘'Not Seditious to Have Views Different from Govt': SC Quashes PIL
Against Farooq Abdullah’ published 3Mar2021 on the wire
https://thewire.in/law/supreme-court-sedition-government-farooq-abdullah-article-370-china]
85. Risha Davi was a student activist. There were large scale farmer agitations going on in her country so
she shared a “toolkit” with necessary information and helplines on her Instagram account. She edited two
lines of the said toolkit which she had obtained from an international activism page to make it India
centric and more precise. Two days after sharing the edited toolkit, Risha was arrested by the police on
the pretext of sedition for “harming India’s international image and encouraging unrest and rebellion”. Is
the arrest valid?
(a) Yes, because sharing of toolkit amounts to exciting disaffection for the government established by law
through visual representation
(b) Yes, because sharing of toolkit amounts to bringing hatred, contempt and disaffection towards the
government established by law
(c) No, because sharing of toolkit does not bring contempt or hatred towards the government established
by law
(d) No, because sharing of toolkit by way of words does not amount to exciting disaffection towards the
government established by law
86. Nemo was a famous documentary director. He was renowned for making documentaries that depicted
the "real India" in a raw manner, instead of portraying a fictional image like commercial Bollywood
movies. His latest documentary depicted violence in jails and how policemen employ violent means to get
people to confess their crimes. The film also graphically highlighted the corruption committed by high
level authorities and how they hide police brutality in such cases. The government asked the police to
arrest Nemo for portraying it in such a bad light. Is it a case fit for sedition?
(a) No, because it is seditious to present the government in a different light than the views advocated by
it to the public
(b) No, because it is not seditious to present the government in a different light than the views advocated
by it to the public
(c) Yes, because it is seditious to present the government in a different light than the views advocated by
it to the public
(d) Yes, because it is not seditious to present the government in a different light than the views
advocated by it to the public

87. The documentary was edited in the production stage before finally being made available for free on
online streaming platforms. It now contains a disclaimer in the beginning that states "all incidents are
based on true and real life incidents and may bear resemblance to real life". Although no proof for the
same has been furnished or relied upon. The end of the documentary also encourages the viewers to
take mass action against the government, even if it turns violent, in order to control the situation. Does
this amount to sedition?
(a) Yes, because the disclaimer is seditious in nature and encourages disaffection towards the
government
(b) Yes, because the documentary is seditious and encourages disaffection towards the government
(c) Yes, because the end of the documentary is seditious in nature and encourages disaffection towards
the government
88. The Supreme Court declared that homosexuality is not illegal or criminal in nature. The government did
not agree with this view of the Supreme Court and although it did not arrest people for being homosexual,
it did not support the same and actively discouraged it. To celebrate the Supreme Court's decision, a
pride parade was organised and people from all walks of life participated in it. The next day, police
arrested the organizer of the parade for the offence of sedition. The official stand on the parade was that
it was "violative of government policy, Indian morality and good public behaviour". Is the arrest justified?
(a) No, because holding a pride parade does not constitute a violation of Section 124A
(b) No, because the law is being misused to create fear in the citizenry to prevent or throttle dissent
(c) No, because it is not seditious to have views different from the government
(d) Yes, because a pride parade contrary to officially government policy may incite contempt towards the
government
89. Balchandra Bala is a poet by profession. His latest poem is a narrative of all the contentious activities and
actions taken by the government in the last five years. The poem is very descriptive in nature and was
published in a national newspaper. The last stanza is particularly elaborate which ends with a call of
action towards the reader and how they must take charge of the situation and hold the government
accountable for its misdeeds. Can Balchandra Bala be held liable for attempting to excite disaffection
towards the government?
(a) Yes, because he is attempting to bring in hatred and excite disaffection towards the government
established by law by spoken words
(b) Yes, because he is attempting to bring in hatred and excite disaffection towards the government
established by law by written words
(c) Yes, because he is attempting to bring in hatred and excite disaffection towards the government
established by law by signs
(d) Yes, because he is attempting to bring in hatred and excite disaffection towards the government
established by law by visual representation
Passage (Q.90-Q.94): In practical terms, 'transit remand order' means on order passed by a Judicial
Magistrate remanding an arrested person to police custody for the purpose of his transit to another state.
Further, the local Magistrate authorizes the other-state police to take the arrestee out of his home state.
Section 167 lays down the procedure when the investigation cannot be completed in 24 hours as fixed by
Section 57 and requires the police officer to transmit to the nearest Jurisdictional Magistrate a copy of the
entries in the diary relating to the case, The Magistrate in turn may authorise detention of the accused for
a term not exceeding 15 days, and if he has no jurisdiction, then he may order the accused to be
forwarded to a Magistrate having such jurisdiction. Article 22 (2) of the Constitution prescribes that every
person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a
period of twenty-four hours exclusive of the time taken for journey of such arrest from the place of arrest
to the court of the magistrate and no such person shall be detained in custody beyond the said period
without the authority of the magistrate. With the aim of ensuring protection of the personal liberty of an
individual, the Courts have evolved the concept of 'transit remand’ in cases where the person is sought to
be taken out of state by police from a different state. In such cases, the person ought to be produced

before the nearest Magistrate soon after the arrest, and ought to be taken out of the arrestee's home
state only on the strength of a 'transit remand order' issued by such Magistrate. Article 22(1) of the
Constitution of India states that a person who is arrested, shall not be denied the right to consult and to
be defended by a legal practitioner of his choice.
[Source- Radhika Roy, ‘Explainer: Inter-State Arrest, Transit Remand & Right to Legal Representation’,
Live Law, <https://www.livelaw.in/know-the-law/inter-state-arrest-transit-remand-right-to-legal-
representation-170188>, as accessed on 21st Feb. 2021]
90. Santosh was alleged to be the murderer of famous journalist, Kavya, which took place in Mumbai. He
belongs to state of West Bengal but was in Mumbai for some business purpose. He was arrested and
was taken into police custody for a period of 10 days. Later on, during the investigation, police find some
clue at his place, which can be strong evidence against Santosh. For collecting the same, they took
Santosh with them to West Bengal and presented the accused before the magistrate with the evidence
after 20 days. On which ground, court can claim the irregularity in the proceedings-
(a) The police have taken the accused Santosh into police custody for period of more than 15 days which
cannot be the case at all.
(b) There was no order authorised by Judicial Magistrate for transit remand to take Santosh out of
Mumbai to state of West Bengal.
(c) The police have not presented the accused Santosh before the Magistrate within 48 hours of arrest.
(d) Santosh was allowed to consult his lawyer after taking into police custody and his personal liberty
was being protected by the investigating officers.
91. Manish was alleged to be one of the co-accused in case of rape of minor girl under POCSO and was
taken into police custody. He was presented before the nearest judicial magistrate and was investigated
in the case. Police took 17 days for the investigation and presented the accused before the court for the
trial. The defence side claimed bail for Manish as he is innocent and cannot be kept in police custody
further. Also, the trial cannot be taken further as there are certain irregularities in the proceedings. Police
cannot keep Manish under custody for period of more than 15 days. The prosecution can claim-
(a) Contention of defence to be incorrect as Manish was under police custody for period of only 15 days
and remaining period was counted under transit remand.
(b) Contention of defence to be correct as Manish was under police custody for period of more than 15
days and it amounts to irregularity under set procedure.
(c) Contention of defence to be incorrect as Manish was under police custody with the order of
magistrate and 2 days extra under police custody is a minor irregularity to be ignored.
(d) Contention of defence to be correct as Manish cannot be under police or judicial custody for more
than 15 days and there has to be reasons given in writing for any such irregularity.
92. A crime was said to be committed in Bhopal district of state of Madhya Pradesh and accused Pontu was
arrested near Indore district. A suit was filed against him in Indore District Court and was taken into
custody. Police investigated the case and held that there have to be strong evidences against the
accused to held him liable. Within 15 days of police custody, Indore Police find direct evidence in the
case and court solely relied on that direct evidence. Pontu was convicted by the trial court and appeal
was filed in Madhya Pradesh High Court. The defence claimed that Trial Court order has to be quashed.
On what ground it can be quashed-
(a) The trial court convicting Pontu has no jurisdiction to try the case and thus the order passed by the
court is not valid and amounts to irregularity.
(b) The trial court has not authorised the police remand for further investigation to the police officers and
cannot convict the accused without enough evidences.
(c) The trial court was not presented with the police diaries relating to the case and conviction of Pontu
was done solely on the basis of direct evidence.
(d) There were no such major irregularities in the proceedings of Trial Court and order of conviction of
Pontu is valid one. It cannot be quashed.

93. Monika was of unsound mind and do not possess basic understanding of a reasonable man. She was in
love with Mohit, his neighbour. Mohit was engaged to Sumona and was happy with her. One day, Monika
saw him over the terrace with Sumona and they both were making love. She felt enraged and hit them
both with a stone. Mohit was hurt badly and was taken to hospital. He died there. Police arrested her and
taken into police custody. She was presented before the judicial magistrate after 28 hours of arrest. In the
trial against her, the defence claimed that she has to be presented before the magistrate within 24 hours
of arrest and it amounts to irregularities if not followed. It violates the personal liberty of the accused and
thus the proceedings are void. The police claimed that delay of 4 hours is due to long journey they had to
take to the way to Magistrates house. Decide-
(a) The contention by the investigating officer is incorrect as the time period of 24 hours is inclusive of
time taken to reach out to the judicial magistrate.
(b) The contention by the investigating officer is correct as the time period of 24 hours is exclusive of time
taken to reach out to the judicial magistrate.
(c) The contention by the investigating officer is incorrect as the time period of 24 hours is exclusive of
time taken to reach out to the judicial magistrate.
(d) The contention by the investigating officer is correct as the time period of 24 hours is exclusive of time
taken to reach out to the judicial magistrate.
94. In which of the following situations, transit remand cannot be ordered by the judicial magistrate.
(a) Where accused A was arrested in state of Uttar Pradesh and has to be taken to trial court in Andhra
Pradesh as murder was committed in that state.
(b) Where accused B was taken from Jaipur district to Jodhpur district as Jodhpur district court has the
jurisdiction to try the case.
(c) Where accused C was taken to state of Uttrakhand for the purpose of investigation and collecting
further evidences.
(d) Where accused D was to be presented before the judicial magistrate in Bikaner district of state of
Rajasthan and was arrested in Barmer district.
Passage (Q.95-Q.99): Section 2 (11) of Consumer Protection Act, 2019 defines Deficiency of Service as
“any fault, imperfection, shortcoming or inadequacy in the quality, nature and manner of performance
which is required to be maintained by or under any law for the time being in force or has been undertaken
to be performed by a person in pursuance of a contract or otherwise in relation to any service and
includes (a) any act of negligence or omission or commission by such person to the consumer and (b)
deliberate withholding of relevant information by such person to the consumer.”The term ‘defect’ is
defined under Section 2 (10) of Consumer Protection Act, 2019 as “any fault, imperfection or shortcoming
in the quality, quantity, potency, purity or standard which is required to be maintained by or under and law
for the time being in force or under any contract, express or implied or as is claimed by the trader in any
manner whatsoever in relation to any goods or products and the expression ‘defective’ shall be construed
accordingly “.In any buyer-seller relationship, deficiency of service prevails. Such as legal aid, banks,
railways, construction, transportation, education, electricity, entertainment, restaurant, hospitality, etc.
The consequences of deficiency of service can range from inconvenience or harassment to mental or
physical injury to death, thereby leading to legal consequences. In Indian Medical Association vs. V.P.
Shanth, the liability of doctor and hospital management arises when a patient is admitted. The standard
duty of care must be maintained by the hospital. When a patient is admitted, he/she is also considered as
a consumer. Deficiency in services plays a vital role to a consumer as well as the service provider. The
Consumer Protection Act, 2019 has successfully managed to incorporate as aspect of deficiency that
may be found in a product or service, hence giving the consumer the power to take any unfair practice to
the court of law.
[Source- Akanksha Bhattarai, ‘Deficiency in Service under Consumer Protection Act, 2019’
<https://www.latestlaws.com/articles/deficiency-in-service-under-consumer-protection-act-2019/>, as
accessed on 19th March 2021]

95. Manohar was the driver of Charbhuja bus services. He was on duty for last 10 years. Due to some
technical bus failures, he was on leave for a week and left the bus for repairing purpose. He resumed his
services back on Monday and took the ride for Nagpur from Bombay. On the way, suddenly a truck came
into his way and he applied breaks but breaks were not working and the bus met with an accident. Sunil,
one of the injured passengers, sued Manohar and Charbhuja bus services for negligence. Manohar
contended that it was the fault of mechanic Chintu who was given bus for repairing and had negligently
ignored the breaks fault. Can Sunil claim compensation from Chintu?
(a) Sunil can validly claim compensation from Manohar as he was negligent to check the technical fault
of bus before taking the ride.
(b) Sunil cannot validly claim compensation from Manohar as bus services are held to be liable for
negligence as it is there duty to check technical faults of the bus.
(c) Sunil can validly claim compensation from Chintu as he was negligent in repairing the technical fault
of breaks.
(d) Sunil cannot validly claim compensation from Chintu as Manohar has the duty to check the repair
works done by Chintu.
96. Sheetal, a beautician was in habit of applying cosmetics. She had a fixed buyer. She purchases it from
Motilal Cosmetics Ltd. This directly supplies from the manufacturer. She asked him for facial spa beauty
product. He arranged it for her and asked for Rs.1000 per pack. She paid him. When she went home,
she checked the product. It was 50 grams less. She filed a complaint against the manufacturer in the
consumer forum for such defect. Decide-
(a) She cannot claim for such defect in the customer forum as it is such a trivial defect to be claimed for
compensation.
(b) She can claim for such defect in the customer forum as the less quantity in beauty product is a defect
and damages can be claimed for.
(c) She cannot claim for such defect in the consumer forum as there was no customer service provider
relationship from Sheetal.
(d) She can claim for such defect only from manufacturer and not from the shop owner as manufacturer
was the real seller.
97. Mahima, a journalist, ordered a brand new style kurti from Payzone app. She ordered it on 15th January
2021. When she got the product, it was a defective product and not up to her satisfaction. She returned it
and got it exchanged with another same product. This time it was not fit for her size and she sent back
the product and claimed for refund. Payzone refused such refund as their policy states for one time
exchange/refund/return which was clearly visible in the invoice. Decide-
(a) She can file a complaint in consumer forum for such fraud by Payzone and get refund for her amount
duly paid.
(b) She cannot claim for such refund as no complaint can be filed against Payzone in consumer forum
and she was negligent about refund policy.
(c) She can claim compensation from Payzone along with refund for not bringing such policy to her
notice and sending defective products.
(d) She cannot claim any refund or compensation with Payzone as thei refund policy was clearly
mentioned and she consents to it.
98. Rakesh, was travelling in a train from Surat to Bombay and was depart at Nagpur. One of the passengers
Suresh, left at Ahmadabad and took Rakesh’s luggage. After long journey to Nagpur, Rakesh get to know
about his luggage and asked the authorities to help him find his luggage. He was informed that Suresh
had submitted it in cloak room at Ahmadabad station. Rakesh gets back to Ahmadabad and found his
luggage lost. He asked the authorities and was informed that he is the only one who has to take care of
goods as per given in terms and conditions in their receipts.
(a) Rakesh can claim compensation from railway authority and file a complaint in consumer forum for
such negligence on their part.
(b) Rakesh cannot claim compensation from railway authorities and cannot file a complaint in consumer
forum for such negligence.

(c) Rakesh can claim compensation from railway authority as they should inform Rakesh or Suresh
about their terms and conditions in railway receipts.
(d) Rakesh cannot claim compensations from railway authorities and he was negligent in reading terms
and conditions of railway receipt.
99. The relationship between the buyer and seller can be said to be of fiduciary relationship where there is
element of trust and on breach of such trust, buyer/customer has all the rights reserved to claim
compensation or damages from the seller/manufacturer. From the following below, identify the other
essential elements of fiduciary relationship if any, which cannot be part of buyer-seller relationship.
I. Fiduciary may derive a profit for himself at the expense of beneficiary whose interest is bound to
protect.
II. Fiduciary undertakes to act voluntarily and is not getting any remuneration for his services unless
contrary is provided.
III. Fiduciary office is onerous and hence, fiduciary to perform and to act for the protection of the interest
of the person whom is bound to protect as a matter of confidential obligation he has undertaken to
fulfill.
IV. Fiduciary transaction must be good faith transaction.
(a) Only III. (b) Both I and II. (c) I, II and IV. (d) Only IV.
Passage (Q.100-Q.104): The Supreme Court reiterated that the anticipatory bail once granted by the
court does not automatically end on the filing of the charge sheet. In this case, theAllahabad High Court,
on an application made by the complainant held that the anticipatory bail granted to the accused by the
Trial Court came to an end with the filing of a charge sheet, and directed him to surrender and apply for
regular bail. Challenging this order, the accused approached the Apex Court relying on recent
constitution bench judgment in Sushila Aggarwal and Ors. Vs. State (NCT of Delhi) and Anr. to contend
that there is no principle of law which required that anticipatory bail once granted automatically comes to
an end on the filing of the charge sheet. The bench noted that in Sushila Aggarwal it was observed that
'mere fact that an accused is given relief under Section 438 at one stage, per se does not mean that
upon the filing of a charge sheet, he is necessarily to surrender or/and apply for regular bail.' The court
held that “the life or duration of an anticipatory bail order does not end normally at the time and stage
when the accused is summoned by the court, or when charges are framed, but can continue till the end
of the trial. Again, if there are any special or peculiar features necessitating the court to limit the tenure of
anticipatory bail, it is open for it to do so”. It was further held in the said judgment that 'mere subsequent
event of the filing of a charge sheet cannot compel the accused to surrender and seek regular bail. In
view of the above, we are of the opinion that the High Court wrongly held that the anticipatory bail
granted to the accused had come to an end with the filing of the charge sheet, the bench said while
allowing the appeal.
[Source- ‘Anticipatory Bail Once Granted Does Not Automatically End With Filing Of Charge sheet,
Reiterates Supreme Court’, Live Law, <https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/anticipatory-bail-granted-filing-
of-chargesheet-supreme-court-170855>, as accessed on 12th March 2021]
100. Manoj and Divya were in friendly relationship with each other. They get into sexual relations too. Soon,
Divya asked Manoj to marry her. He refused to do so and stated that his family was never in favor of their
relationship and he was with her for only a short period of relationship and experience the live in
relationships. She filed as frivolous case against Manoj under sec. 354 of IPC. The police took Manoj in
custody and was presented before the court for trial. The investigating officer asked for extension of
custody and defence lawyer claimed for anticipatory bail. The court-
(a) Can grant anticipatory bail to Manoj as he has not committed the said offence and no charge sheet
has been filed by the investigating officer.
(b) Cannot grant anticipatory bail to Manoj as he has been taken into custody by investigating officer.
(c) Can grant anticipatory bail to Manoj as he has not taken into judicial custody by investigating officer
and charge sheet has been filed.
(d) Cannot grant anticipatory bail to Manoj as he has committed the said offence and charge sheet has
been filed by the investigating officer.

101. Vijay Malia, the politician of well known political party, was involved in a money laundering case. He was
being party to lots of corruption taking place within the party and was handling the accounts for the same.
He asked his assistant to keep the accounting information hidden as a secret and should not put it in
public domain. Unfortunately, his assistant leaked the information and it was all over the media that huge
scandals take place in the political party and they are soon to be tried by the Apex Court. Vijay Malia
approached the court for anticipatory bail. Choose the appropriate contention.
(a) Anticipatory bail cannot be claimed as his assistant leaked the information and he cannot be alleged
for the said offence of money laundering.
(b) Regular bail can be granted instead of anticipatory bail. There is no such anticipation for Vijay Malia
to be arrested and tried for the case.
(c) Anticipatory bail can be claimed as there are reasonable appreciations that Vijay Malia can be tried
for the money laundering case by the Apex Court.
(d) Regular bail cannot be granted as there is no such arrest made and Vijay Malia, being a public
servant, given special treatment under law.
102. Montu was a business man and was having enmity with his competitor. He played a chance and asked
his friend Shontu to approach his competitor company and became the employee of the same. Shontu
take into confirmation the opposite company and became accounting head of the same. Soon he got a
chance, he intentionally mismatched the accounting books and made a big scam of Rs.50,000 Crore.
The company gets into losses and was dissolved soon. They get to know that these malpractices was by
Montu and simultaneously filed a case in NCLT to take action against Montu and his company. NCLT
passed an order for investigation into the case and an interim order for arrest of Montu. Decide-
(a) NCLT cannot grant anticipatory bail to Montu as it is not a court and power to grant anticipatory bail is
with courts only.
(b) NCLT can grant anticipatory bail to Montu as no arrest was made and no charge sheet has been filed
by the investigating officers against Montu.
(c) NCLT cannot grant anticipatory bail to Montu as interim order for his arrest has already being made
and bail cannot be granted in such cases of fraud.
(d) NCLT can grant anticipatory bail to Montu only when strong evidences are to be proved against him
and no reasonable doubt has been made.
103. Pritam was a young boy of 21 years of age. He was not in good friend circle and was influenced by his
friend where he was forced to have sexual relation with a girl to exist in a society. He was questioned on
his virginity. He approached a girl and gets much close to her. He gets this opportunity and one day took
her out for dinner. He offered her a drink with drugs and as soon as she lost her senses, he took her to
room and sexually assaulted her. The girl filed a complaint against Pritam and he got anticipatory bail.
The investigating officer still arrested him. He was kept in judicial custody for period of 50 days and
charge sheet was filed. He applied for regular bail, but was rejected prior to filing of charge sheet. The
investigating officer forgets to add some charges and filed a supplementary charge sheet in the court.
The defence again claimed regular bail but was rejected by the court. Choose the incorrect option-
(a) Pritam cannot be taken and kept into custody for period of 50 days as he was granted anticipatory
bail pre filing of charge sheet.
(b) Pritam can be granted regular bail once the charge sheet has been filed and anticipatory bail does
not come to an end post filing of charge sheet.
(c) Pritam can be granted regular bail post filing of supplementary charge sheet and the anticipatory bail
does not come to an end post filing of supplementary charge sheet.
(d) Pritam cannot be granted regular bail post filing of supplementary charge sheet and the anticipatory
bail does come to an end post filing of supplementary charge sheet.
104. Which among the following can be valid considerations before the court for not granting anticipatory bail?
I. No chances that he may threaten the witnesses and tamper the evidences.
II. Gravity of allegations and injustice to be caused.
III. Antecedents of the accused approaching for the anticipatory bail.
IV. Whether no malicious prosecution is possible.
(a) Both II and III (b) I,III and IV (c) Only III (d) All I,II,III and IV

Passage (Q.105-Q.109): Over the past three years, the monsoon – the rainy season that runs from June
through September, depending on the region – has been weak or delayed across much of India, causing
widespread water shortages. With the onset of summer this year, southern India, particularly Karnataka,
Kerala and Tamil Nadu states, are already wilting under a blistering sun and repeated heatwaves.
Drought is expected to affect at least eight states in 2017, which is a devastating possibility in a country
where agriculture accounted for 17.5% of GDP in 2015 and provides the livelihood for nearly half the
population. Across rural India, water bodies, including man-made lakes and reservoirs, are fast
disappearing after decades of neglect and pollution.
Water scarcity is also exacerbated by a growth in water-intensive industries, such as thermal power
production, extraction and mining, as India seeks to feed and power its growing population. In addition to
affecting biodiversity, these activities also alter natural water systems. Still, successive governments have
pursued the same old supply-centric policies, paying little heed to the country’s waning clean water
supplies. For nearly 50 years, a misguided groundwater policy has sucked India dry; water tables have
declined by an average of one metre every three years in some parts of the Indus basin, turning it into
the second most over-stressed aquifer in the world, according to NASA.
Even so, residents of New Delhi or Kolkata today use more than twice as much water, on average, than
people in Singapore, Leipzig, Barcelona or Zaragoza. Excess consumption is attributable in part to citizen
indifference about conserving water after so many years of plentiful supply. Since large swaths of many
Indian megacities lack piped supply of clean water, leaks and theft are common. At this point, the only
viable option for India would seem to be managing demand and using water more efficiently.
(a) Water conservation is impossible now and Indians must start treating water as a luxury good
(b) Shifting our population from the agriculture sector to the tertiary sector will help conserve more water
(c) The government’s hollow promises and inattentive attempts at preserving water further attribute to the
problem
(d) The people of the country can be made more interested in the cause if a daily limit is issued for
everyone

(a) It is estimated that many water sources are going to vanish in the next three years if no action is
taken
(b) Scientists indicate that if the residents of major cities save some water, it would be enough to
replenish ponds and lakes in nearby developing areas
(c) Importing of drinking water is becoming a very lucrative venture now-a-days
(a) The general sentiment of the Indian population is to save water
(b) In the present year, India received plenty of rainfall which replenished the groundwater back to its
status as seen 25 years ago
(c) NASA usually conducts studies in all nations around the world to show adverse effects on nature
(d) The government will always tackle the issue in a precarious manner
108. The author’s statement “At this point, the only viable option for India would seem to be managing demand
and using water more efficiently” forms the:
(a) Premise that water conservation is a lost cause
(b) Conclusion that water conservation is a lost cause
(c) Premise that we are a long way into losing the battle against water shortage
(d) Conclusion that we are a long way into losing the battle against water shortage

(a) India – a class of uneducated people
(b) Rain fails us again
(c) India’s water tables are running dry, fast
(d) What the government is not telling you
Passage (Q.110-Q.114): Allergic diseases are on the rise in the Northern Hemisphere. Nearly one in
every two Europeans has either a food or environmental allergy, and both have increased in frequency
and severity over the last decade. Many allergies start in childhood. According to the studies around 65%
of children are affected by 18 months of age. These reports that well over 20% of European youngsters
show allergic reactions to inhalants or food at some point during their childhood. Although genetic
predisposition is an important risk factor, experts have also known for some time that what pregnant
women eat and breathe can impact their unborn babies.
It is stated that an association between exposure to traffic-related air pollutants before birth (mainly
nitrogen dioxide and the particle PM10) and the development of asthma symptoms or wheezing in three-
year old toddlers. Thus, we know that chemical exposure before birth may have an impact on a child’s
allergy risk later in life. Frequent consumption of fruits, vegetables and fish, on the other hand, are
associated with a lower prevalence of asthma. And a diet of fish rich in n-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids
can actually counterbalance the pro-allergenic response.
But it appears that extreme or chronic exposure, as may occur if there is starvation, overeating or
chemical exposure during pregnancy, may alter the epigenetic pattern so intensively that it leaves a
permanent “mark” on the child’s DNA. This marker can be passed on to the next generation, thus
increasing their risk of disease even more from the very beginning of life and highlighting the critical
importance of prenatal care in raising healthy future generations.

(a) Asthma is generally less commonly found than food allergies in adolescents
(b) Almost all mothers are exposed to chemicals and chemical pollutants during pregnancy.
(c) Over-eating fruits and vegetables can also have a severe effect on the child
(d) Most women choose not to drive during their pregnancy

(a) There may be some children that are born with certain diseases and allergies
(b) Majority of children develop or are diagnosed with allergies well before they become adults
(c) Women who are pregnant should not be out on the road or drive at all
(d) Some allergens may be subdued with proper care and diet
(a) It is possible for a fetus to develop allergies as well
(b) One of the reasons for allergies is the genetic information inherited from the parents
(c) A child’s DNA is different from that of an adult which makes it vulnerable to develop allergies
(d) Allergic diseases are dormant in the Southern Hemisphere
113. The statement “Eating right during pregnancy has negligible bearing on the child’s health” is:
(a) Probably True
(b) Definitely True
(c) Probably False
(d) Definitely False
(a) Women should travel and move to a safe environment with clean air during pregnancy
(b) A responsible mother starts taking care of her child even before his birth
(c) Once the birth has taken place, a child is allergy proof from other substances

115. The new technology Swype, which was developed by Cliff Kushler, allows users to glide a finger across
the virtual keyboard to spell words, rather than tapping out each letter. Swype’s software detects where a
finger pauses and changes direction as it traces out the pattern of a word. While many smartphones have
features that autocomplete words, correct typos on the fly and add punctuation, through Swype, Mr.
Kushler claims to have laid the foundation for the next level of typing pace and comfort.
Source: The Hindu, dated - June 21, 2010
Which of the following, if true, weakens Kushler’s argument?
(a) It is estimated that the software can improve even the nimblest text messager’s pace by 20 to 30
percent.
(b) Companies selling phones with the Swype software are charged a licensing fee for each device sold
(c) Phones with the Swype software may load other applications at a much lower speed than phones
without Swype.
(d) A technology similar to Swype was introduced a year ago by a Smartphone major in 4 test markets
across the globe.
116. Statement: The standard playing time in a football match is 90 minutes.

Assumptions:
I. Footballers feel fatigued after playing for 90 minutes.
II. 30 minutes of extra time is sometimes provided to decide the outcome of a match.
Choose the correct assumption:
(a) only assumption I is implicit.
(b) only assumption II is implicit
(c) both assumptions I and II are implicit
(d) neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit.
117. In a certain code, BROUGHT is written as SGFVAQN. How is SUPREME written in that code?
(a) DLDSTVQ
(b) DLDSRTO
(c) FNFSRTO
(d) RTOSDLD
118. Statement: Can ‘Thappad’ be considered a good movie?

Arguments:
I: Yes. It won the ‘Best Movie’ award at the 66th Vimal Elaichi Filmfare Awards 2021.
II: Yes. It stars Taapsee Pannu, who is widely known for her brilliant acting.
(a) only argument 1 is strong
(b) only argument 2 is strong
(c) both the arguments are strong
(d) neither of them is strong.
Passage (Q.119-Q.125): In general, happiness increases positive interactions between people. Happy
people are more poised, assertive, and skillful communicators; they smile more, and they are generally
perceived as more likable than sad people.
However, in situations where a more cautious, less assertive and more attentive communication style
may be called for, a sad mood may help. In one study, participants who first viewed happy or sad films
were unexpectedly asked to go and request a file from a person in a neighboring office. Their requests
were surreptitiously recorded by a concealed tape recorder. Analyses showed that the sad mood
produced more polite, elaborate, and hedging requests, whereas those in a happy mood used more
direct and less polite strategies.
Why would this be? In uncertain and unpredictable interpersonal situations, people need to pay greater
attention to the requirements of the situation to formulate the most appropriate communication strategy.
They must be able to read the cues of the situation and respond accordingly. Sad people are more
focused on external cues and will not rely solely on their first impressions, which happy people are more
inclined to trust.

In other experiments, we found that people in a sad mood are also more persuasive, produce more
effective and concrete arguments to support their position, and are better able to convince others than
are people in a positive mood.
Here’s another example: In social science experiments, researchers use the ultimatum game to study
things like cooperation, trust, and generosity. They give players money and tell them to allocate as much
as they want to another person who has the power to accept or reject the offer. If the offer is rejected,
neither side gets anything. Past research has found that those in the giver role are not simply driven by
maximizing benefits for themselves. However, the impact of mood on such decisions has not been
previously measured.
My colleagues and I asked participants to play the ultimatum game after they’d been induced to feel
happy or sad. We measured how long it took for them to make their allocation decisions and how much
they gave. Those in sad moods gave significantly more to others than did happy people and took longer
to make their decisions, suggesting that they paid greater attention to the needs of others and were more
attentive and thoughtful in making their decisions.
In addition, when researchers looked at receivers in the game, they found that those in a sad mood were
also more concerned with fairness, and rejected unfair offers more than did those in the happy condition.
Source: https://medium.com/@nuzhat
119. The last line of the passage can be followed by:

(a) In other words, mood can also influence selfishness and fairness.
(b) In other words, mood can also influence physical and mental health.
(c) In other words, mood can also influence generosity and trust.
(d) In other words, mood can also influence processes and outcomes
120. Which of the following is the author likely to agree with?

(a) Sadness can improve your memory.
(b) Sadness can improve judgment.
(c) Sadness can improve motivation.
(d) Sadness can improve interactions
121. Which of the following weakens the argument of the passage?

(a) Sad moods reduce common biases and stereotypes, and attribute fair intentionality of behavior while
considering situational factors.
(b) Depression, a mood disorder defined, at least in part, by prolonged and intense periods of sadness
can debilitate social interactions.
(c) Research finds that happiness can produce less focused and attentive processing and so increases
the chances of misleading information being incorporated into memory, while a negative mood
improves attention to detail and results in better memory.
(d) Sadness has some adaptive functions, and so should be accepted as an important component of our
emotional repertoire
122. The author’s research suggests that:

(a) We should try to induce sadness as a way of combating memory decline.
(b) Though much has been made of the many benefits of sadness, it’s important to consider that
happiness can be beneficial, too.
(c) Mild, temporary states of sadness may actually be beneficial in handling various aspects of our lives.
(d) Happy moods may increase perseverance as people see greater potential benefits of making an
effort
123. Which of the following strengthens the arguments made in the passage?
(a) Evolutionary theory suggests that we should embrace all of our emotions, as each has an important
role to play under the right circumstances.
(b) So, though you may seek ways to increase happiness, don’t haphazardly push away your sadness.
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B

124. Which of these can be an assumption on which the passage is based?
(a) Sadness is not usually valued in our current culture.
(b) Sadness is a “problem emotion” and needs to be kept at bay.
(c) Being sad is the new being happy.
(d) Happiness is desirable in many situations
125. A suitable title for the passage would be;

(a) Survive your sorrow
(b) Sorrow may be good for you
(c) Silent Sorrow: grief and loss of others
(d) Living with negative emotions
Passage (Q.126-Q.130): Secretary of Residential Society- According to the CID, a burglar strikes every
25.7 seconds in India. That adds up to more than two burglaries every minute and over 3,300 burglaries
per day. That could be why 62% of the respondents to our State of Safety survey named a break-in as
their top property crime worry. The average loss from a burglary is Rs. 8,579/-. In addition to the
monetary cost, burglaries also take a big emotional toll. Statistics has also shown that burglars often
target houses that appear unoccupied. Therefore, when home owners are away from their homes for
several days, I recommend that they leave lights on, to give the impression that the house is occupied.
CID DSP- But the CID’s most current crime data shows that burglaries fell down to 12% between 2017
and 2018. Even better in other Statistics, the Bureau of Justice Statistics found a 56% drop from 1993 to
2011. Although, it seems counter-intuitive but more burglars do their misdeeds in the bright light of day
instead of under cover of darkness. And in addition to this, if home owners leave their lights on for
several days, then the same lights continuously on all night long with no change give a potential burglar a
clear signal that the house is unoccupied.
126. What hidden assumption has been made by the Secretary of Residential Society when he says that “In
addition to the monetary cost, burglaries also take a big emotional toll.”?
(a) Owners may need to recover from a financial setback at the same time they’re mourning the loss of
things with sentimental value and the feeling of safety they had before the break-in.
(b) Monetary cost of the things which are lost is too much.
(c) Even though people are worried about burglaries, the property crime is on the decline.
127. The CID DSP uses which one of the following techniques in responding to the Secretary of Residential
Society?
(a) Putting new evidence that validates the conclusion.
(b) Asking the question about an unstated assumption.
(c) Pointing out an undesired effect of a recommendation.
(d) Demonstrating that the conclusion is true, but not for the reasons cite(d)
128. Which of the following statements if true will weaken the arguments of CID DSP that “more burglars do
their misdeeds in the bright light of day instead of under cover of darkness.”?
(a) Respondents to the burglary survey said that—58% burglary happened in the evening or overnight,
while just 33% happened during the day.
(b) Burglaries are more frequent during the summer months.
(c) More people were burglarized in June than in any other month, according to the burglary survey.
(d) New Delhi is the most burglarized state in India, along with other rural states including MP, Orissa,
Mizoram, and Jharkhand
129. Which of the following can be the conclusion of CID DSP’s arguments?
(a) Burglars hit renters more frequently than homeowners.
(b) The most common time for burglaries is between noon and 4 p.m.
(c) When temperatures rise, so do the number of burglaries.

130. Even though people are worried about burglaries, this property crime is on the decline.
(a) Probably true.
(b) Definitely true.
(c) Probably false.
(d) Definitely false.
131. Consider the following two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. Then decide which of the given conclusions is a possibility or may be logically derived from
two given statements. Select the correct alternative.
Statements
Some lawyers are extroverts.
All extroverts are wisemen.
Conclusions
I. Some lawyers are wisemen.
II. Some extroverts are wisemen.
III. All lawyers can be wisemen.
IV. Some lawyers are extroverts.
V. All wisemen can be lawyers.
(a) Only I and II follows
(b) Only I, II and IV follow
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) All follows
Directions (Q.132-Q.136): On the basis of the information provided below, answer these questions.
Six people A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting on the ground in a hexagonal shape. A ll the sides of the
hexagon so formed are of same length. A is not adjacent to B or C. D is not adjacent to C or E. B and C
are adjacent F is in the middle of D and C.
132. Which of the following is not a correct neighbor pair?

(a) A and F (b) D and F (c) B and E (d) C and F
133. Who is at the same distance from D as E is from D?

(a) B (b) C (c) D (d) F
134. Which of the following is in the right sequence?

(a) A, F, B (b) F, A, E (c) B, C, F (d) D, A, B
135. If one neighbor of A is D, who is the other one?

(a) B (b) C (c) E (d) F
136. Who is placed opposite to E?

(a) B (b) C (c) D (d) F

Directions (Q.137-Q.141): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Percentage of Marks obtained by Different students in Different subjects
Hindi Eng. Maths S.St. Sci. Marathi
Students
(100) (50) (150) (125) (150) (50)
Aditya 98 88 84 88 64 68
Ram 77 92 92 88 84 80
Sanjay 81 80 84 80 78 90
Girish 90 86 76 64 66 56
Mahesh 69 66 66 76 72 72
Anil 89 90 70 92 60 66
137. How much marks did Aditya get in all the subjects together?
(a) 508 (b) 477 (c) 454 (d) 537
138. What is the average marks obtained by all students together in Marathi?
(a) 72 (b) 48 (c) 28 (d) 36
139. How many students have scored the highest marks in more than one subject?
(a) None (b) one (c) two (d) three
140. What is Sanjay’s overall percentage of marks in all subjects together?

(a) 85.92 (b) 72.64 (c) 81.44 (d) 76.32
141. Who has scored the highest marks in all the subjects together?
(a) Aditya (b) Ram (c) Mahesh (d) Anil

Directions (Q.142-Q.146): Read the graph and answer the following questions: profit = income –
expenditure
142. What is the difference in profit between 1983 and 1984 (in Rs. Lakh rupees)?
(a) No profit (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 15
143. The number of years in which the income is more than the average income of the given years is:
144. The ratio of the average income of all the years to the average profit is :
(a) 24 : 13 (b) 48 : 17 (c) 12 : 7 (d) 6 : 5
145. Percentage increase in profit in 1986 over 1982 is :

(a) 150% (b) 120% (c) 100% (d) 80%
146. The total income exceeds the total expenditure over the years 1982 to 1986 by:
(a) 85 lakhs (b) 105 lakhs (c) 115 lakhs (d) 120 lakh

Directions (Q.147-Q.150): The pie-chart provided below gives the distribution of land (in a village) under
various food crops. Study the pie-chart carefully and answer the questions.
SALES
Wheat
,72°
Others, 99°
Rice
,72°
Maize
,45°
Bajra
Barley
,18° Jower
,18° ,36°
147. If the total area under bajra was three hundred acres, then the total area (in hundred) acres under rice
and barley together is:
(a) 18 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 20
148. The combination of three crops which contribute to more than 50% of the total area under the food crops
is:
(a) Wheat, rice and maize (b) Wheat, rice and jowar
(c) Wheat, rice and bajra (d) Wheat, barley and maize
149. The ratio of the land used for rice and barley is:
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 3 : 2
150. If 10% of the land reserved for rice be distributed to wheat and barley in the ratio 2 : 1, then the angle
corresponding to wheat in the new pie-chart will be:
(a) 38.4° (b) 76.8° (c) 75.6° (d) 45.5°


MOCK CLAT #27
Candidate Name : _________________

Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
prosecution.
Centre/Hall.
Passage (Q.1-Q.6): A political conference was held in Amritsar from 11th of April to the 13th of April
along with the conference for the youth. A great deal of debate and discussion centred around two or
three points. One of the issues was religion. Though no one would have raised the question of religion,
but a resolution was proposed against communal organizations, and those who were supporting these
communal organizations under the pretext of religion wanted to protect themselves. This question could
have remained buried a little longer; but once it was brought to the public arena, discussion regarding it
could take place and the concomitant question of solving the issue of religion also arose.
Later even in Lahore a meeting of Naujawan Bharat Sabha was held. Several speeches were made and
advice dispensed by some gentlemen who used religion for their benefit and also by those who were
afraid to discuss this divisive issue, lest it led to tension.
The most important thing that was reiterated repeatedly and upon which Shriman Bhai Amar Singh ji
Jhabaal laid special emphasis was that the question of religion should not be touched at all. This was
very good advice. If anyone’s religion is not creating an obstacle in another person’s happiness and
peace then why should anyone have a reason to raise a voice against it? But the question that arises is
this: what has experience taught us up till now? Even in the last agitation, the same question of religion
had arisen and every one had been given complete freedom. So much so that mantras and aayats began
to be read from the Congress dais as well. Those days anyone lagging behind in religion was not
considered to be good. As a result, narrow-mindedness was on the rise. The ill-effects of this are not
hidden from anyone. Now the nationalist people and lovers of freedom has grasped the truth on
religion and think of it as a obstacle in their path.
The moot point is that even if one keeps one’s religion a private matter, does it not heighten a feeling of
alienation in people’s hearts? Does it not affect the aim of attaining complete freedom for the country? At
this time, the worshippers of complete freedom call religion a kind of mental slavery. They also feel that
telling a child that God is omnipotent and man nothing but a mere statue clay, is to make the child
weak forever. It is to destroy the strength of his heart and his sense of self-confidence.
1. Which of the following statement/s is/are false according to the passage?

Statement 1: According to the author’s personal opinion, a person can not achieve complete freedom if
they have strong religious beliefs.
Statement 2: Shriman Bhai Amar Singh ji Jhabaal laid special emphasis that issues regarding religion
should not be touched at all during political conferences or discussions.
(a) Statement 1
(b) Statement 2
(c) Both statements 1 and 2
2. Choose the missing preposition in the italicized sentence above.

(a) Of
(b) For
(c) From
(d) By

(a) How religious extremism is turning out to be a need of the hour.
(b) Discussing the changes that should be made inside the Indian National Congress in the backdrop of
their religious involvement.
(c) How religious beliefs create unnecessary alienation in society hence religion and politics should not
be mixe(d)
(d) Discussing the idea that the true sense of freedom lies only through believing in the omnipotent Go(d)
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|http://www.legaledge.in Page 2 of 40

4. Spot the error in the sentence that has been underlined in the above passage.
(a) Error in subject-verb agreement
(b) Error in article
(c) Both
5. ‘This question could have remained buried a little longer; but once it was brought to the public arena,
discussion regarding it could take place and the concomitant question of solving the issue of religion also
arose.’
Which of the following option serves the function of being an adjective in the above sentence?
(a) Buried
(b) Issue
(c) Concomitant
(d) Arena
6. Which of the following would the author agree to?

(a) A person who has a myopic view of things will be religious
(b) A person who is religious will be petty in his thoughts
(c) Whenever there has been a rise in narrow-mindedness there has been a rise in religious attitude of
the people
(d) Whenever religion has risen its head petty thoughts have crept in the society
Passage (Q.7-Q.12): Throughout 2020, there was some good news among the bad concerning that
other great infirmity: the sickly state of climate. When economies are booming, greenhouse gasses soar.
Economic slowdowns and global lockdowns led energy use and greenhouses gas emissions to
plummet—and they did.
According to a report, 2020 saw a total drop-off in global CO2 emissions of 6%—the largest annual
decline since World War II—keeping almost 2 billion tons of planet-warming gasses out of the sky.
However, as the global economy begins to stir—thanks to the uneven if undeniable success of
lockdowns, social distancing and vaccines—emissions are on the rise. In December 2020, CO2 rose to a
level 2% higher than in December 2019.
The overall arc of emissions in 2020 closely mirrored the pandemic’s severity. In April, when worldwide
CO2 emissions were roughly 14% lower than they were in April of 2019—just at the point at which most
countries were retreating into their first and strictest wave of lockdowns.
Different sources of CO2 were affected in different ways throughout the year. Aviation was down by a
staggering 70% during the April low. Overall, emissions from the sector fell by 45% in 2020. Vehicle
transportation accounted for 50% of the year’s total drop in CO2 emissions. Demand for oil and coal also
fell down.
Geography mattered, too. China, the world’s largest emitter of GHGs and the first country hit by the
pandemic, went into lockdown in February, resulting in its CO2 output falling by 12%. The country’s swift
action and strict quarantine rules had it returning to almost normal by April, when CO2 emissions in the
country rose above 2019 levels. China finished 2020 with overall CO2 output 5% higher than it was in
2019.
India’s emissions fell by 40% in April, the largest decline of any major economy. The slowdown in
industrial and freight output had major Indian cities experiencing clearer skies than ever. But the good
environmental times didn’t last. In September, CO2 output returned to 2019 levels. Brazil similarly saw its
output fall by over 20% in April and was similarly back above 2019 levels by the year-end.
One thing the pandemic didn’t affect was the ongoing increase in the share of energy coming from
renewable sources. In 2020, renewables accounted for 29% of all energy generated, compared to 27% in
2019—the largest year-over-year increase on record. But the upward drift of fossil fuel use at the end of
the year nonetheless discourages experts.
“In March 2020, the IEA urged governments to put clean energy at the heart of their economic stimulus
plans to ensure a sustainable recovery,” said Fatih Birol. “But our numbers show we’re returning to
carbon-intensive business-as-usual.”

7. Which of the following processes is the basis of discussion in the passage?
(a) the decrease of CO2 emissions in the year 2020
(b) the decrease of CO2 emissions in the initial months of 2020 followed by subsequent increase in the
latter months
(c) the tracing of CO2 emission chart of various countries during 2020
(d) the decreasing and subsequent increase of CO2 emissions by major economies of the world
8. What is the main underlying theme of the passage?

(a) the shift to renewable sources of energy
(b) how the COVID-19 pandemic's impact on global CO2 emissions did not last long
(c) the need to shift on clean energy sources
(d) how the major economies of the world are falling short on upholding their end of the bargain when it
comes to carbon emissions
9. What is the main reason for the decrease in CO2 emissions in 2020?
(a) the global pandemic
(b) the lockdown imposed in China, the world’s largest emitter of greenhouse gasses
(c) the overall global decline in aviation industry
(d) the lessening of the global vehicle usage
10. Reading the passage in 2021, which of the following can be said to be the silver linings of 2020?
(a) the decreased levels of carbon emissions
(b) the realization of dangers posed by climate change by the economies with the biggest carbon
footprints
(c) the increase in the usage of cleaner sources of energy
(d) the reduction in usage of fossil fuel based energy
11. Which of the following is a logical deduction from the passage and solely from the passage?
(a) fossil fuel is not a renewable source of energy
(b) lockdowns have led to a sustainable decrease in carbon levels globally
(c) Asian countries have shown a higher decrease in carbon emissions than other countries
(d) there has been a global shift towards cleaner energy sources than the orthodox carbon based energy
sources.
12. Which of the following options contains a pair which consists of two separate but substantial problems
pervading the planet as per the passage?
(a) carbon emissions, lack of availability of clean energy sources
(b) climate change, pollution by aviation industries
(c) carbon footprint of big economies, climate change
(d) impact of carbon emission on climate, the COVID-19 pandemic
Passage (Q.13-Q.17): The news of Pratap Bhanu Mehta’s resignation from Ashoka University has filled
me with an immeasurable sense of loss. I have known Pratap since he was a post-doctoral fellow at
Harvard in the mid-1990s. His field was moral and political philosophy and, even before he had
completed the book whose peer-reviewed acceptance for publication is virtually a pre-condition for even
applying for, let alone securing tenure (i.e lifetime professorship) at Harvard, his colleagues had taken it
for granted that he would be among the very few post-docs who would be granted it when his fellowship
came up for review.
But Pratap did not wait for the tenure review and returned to India because his heart had been set upon
it from the very beginning. What pulled him back was, simply put, a burning desire to serve his
country. Soon after he returned, he submitted his first article to the Indian Express. I remember that one
very well because on reading it I realised straight away that he had brought an element into political
commentary that had been lacking before. This was an ethical yardstick, based upon his understanding
of the moral and political foundations upon which great nations have rested, and whose betrayal has led

to their downfall. Needless to say readers of the Indian Express, and its editors, also saw this, and
Pratap’s column in the Indian Express, which he has sustained till this day, was instantly born.
When the founders and trustees of Ashok university chose him to succeed its first vice-chancellor,
Rudrangshu Mukherjee, they could not have made a better choice. For not only had they chosen a
renowned scholar, but one who had already shown, as the director of the Centre for Policy Research,
that he has the self-confidence to allow an already well-governed institution to continue governing itself
and grow through collective endeavour, and confine his role to protecting that growth. Among several
private universities that were set up in glory days of United Progressive Alliance (UPA)
government, distinctive feature of Ashoka University was its decision not to open gates of
admission wide to ensure its financial viability but to enroll only students who meet admission
standards comparable to those of best universities in world. As a result, the quality of its student
body, its faculty, the seminars they hold, and the research the PhD students do has been attracting
growing respect in centres of higher education across the world.

(a) How the UPA government controlled the best universities in the country.
(b) A brief account of the life and works of Pratap Bhanu Mehta
(c) A detailed account of the friendship between the author and Pratap Bhanu Mehta
(d) A detailed account of the distinctive features of Ashoka University as a premier educational institution.
14. Which of the following statement/s is/are false according to the passage?
Statement 1: Pratap Bhanu Mehta has discontinued writing in the Indian Express column.
Statement 2: The author and Pratap Bhanu Mehta are childhood friends.
(a) Statement 1
(b) Statement 2
(c) Both
15. Which of the following options represent the common noun in the italicized sentence above?
(a) him
(b) burning
(c) country
(d) desire
16. The founders and trustees of Ashok university chose Pratap Bhanu Mehta as its ______vice-chancellor.
(a) 1st
(b) 2nd
(c) 3rd
(d) last
17. Choose the correct order of articles that have been omitted in the bold and underlined sentence of the
passage.
(a) the, a, the, a, a, the, the.
(b) a, a, a, the, the, the
(c) a, a, the, the, a, the, the
(d) the, the, the, the, the, the.

Passage (Q.18-Q.23): In the 16th century, an age of great marine and terrestrial exploration, Ferdinand
Magellan led the first expedition to sail around the world. As a young Portuguese noble, he served the
king of Portugal, but he became involved in the quagmire of political intrigue at court and lost the king’s
favor. After he was dismissed from service by the king of Portugal, he offered to serve the future Emperor
Charles V of Spain.
A papal decree of 1493 had assigned all land in the New World west of 50 degrees W longitude to Spain
and all the land east of that line to Portugal. Magellan offered to prove that the East Indies fell under
Spanish authority. On September 20, 1519, Magellan set sail from Spain with five ships. More than a
year later, one of these ships was exploring the topography of South America in search of a water route
across the continent. This ship sank, but the remaining four ships searched along the southern peninsula
of South America. Finally they found the passage they sought near 50 degrees S latitude. Magellan
named this passage the Strait of All Saints, but today it is known as the Strait of Magellan.
One ship deserted while in this passage and returned to Spain, so fewer sailors were privileged to gaze
at that first panorama of the Pacific Ocean. Those who remained crossed the meridian now known as the
International Date Line in the early spring of 1521 after 98 days on the Pacific Ocean. During those long
days at sea, many of Magellan’s men died of starvation and disease.
Later, Magellan became involved in an insular conflict in the Philippines and was killed in a tribal battle.
Only one ship and 17 sailors under the command of the Basque navigator Elcano survived to
complete the westward journey to Spain and thus prove ones and for all that the world is round,
with no precipice at the edge.
18. In which of the following century did Ferdinand Magellan serve the king of Portugal?
(a) 16th
(b) 15th
(c) 18th
(d) 14th
19. Which of the following option is true according to the passage?

(a) Magellan found the passage they sought near 50 degrees S latitude which he named after himself.
(b) A papal decree of 1493 had assigned all land in the New World west of 50 degrees W longitude to
Spain and all the land east of that line to Portugal which included East Indies.
(c) Magellan offered to serve the future Emperor Charles V of Spain.
(d) On November 20, 1519, Magellan set sail from Spain with five ships.
20. Spot the error in the sentence that has been bold and underlined in the above passage.
(a) Error in verb conjugation
(b) Error in the preposition
(c) Both
21. According to the passage, ‘insular conflict’ took place in which of the following century?
(a) 16th century
(b) 14th century
(c) 17th century
(d) 15th century
22. Which of the following literary styles has the author followed in the above passage?
(a) Expository
(b) Narrative
(c) Descriptive
(d) Persuasive

23. Out of the five ships mentioned in the passage above, how many ships full of sailors were privileged to
gaze at that first panorama of the Pacific Ocean?
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 3
Passage (Q.24-Q.29): Although he was a poet, Diddinu was a wild and brutal man who dealt severely
with his family, in particular with his daughters. His family respected him, but they all feared him. In the
presence of her father, Maria Franzisca would hardly have dared to sit down close to her dear Predu.
According to the custom of engaged couples, she kept a distance from her fiancé, only to charm him
more, enticing him with the lovely movements of her body, veiled in the fleecy scarlet vest embroidered
with flowers, and the blazes of her turquoise-green, almond-shaped eyes.
Thus, it was Christmas Eve—gray day, dimmed but mild since east wind was blowing, carrying
enervating warmth of distant deserts and humid scent of sea. It appeared that, somewhere among
the mountains, their slopes green from the cold grass of winter, or in the valleys where the shaking
almond trees prematurely bloomed, throwing to the wind the white petals of snow as if from harm, there
burned a great fire, the flames of which were not seen, but which was the source of the heat. And the
clouds incessantly issuing from the mountaintops and spanning the sky seemed to be the smoke of that
invisible fire.
The country sounded from the ringing of feast; people, yielding to the strange Levantine wind, crowded
streets and houses, gathering to celebrate the birth of Christ. Families exchanged their gifts: suckling pigs
roasted whole, lambs of autumn, meat, sweets, cakes, and dried fruit. Shepherds brought to their
masters the first milk of their calves, and the lady of the house returned the container to the shepherds,
filled with vegetables or other things, having first carefully emptied it in order not to bring down ruin on the
cattle.
Predu Tasca, who was a swineherd, had accordingly killed his finest little pig, painted it with its blood,
filled it with bundles of asphodel, and sent it as a gift to his fiancée. And his fiancée returned the basket
with a cake of honey and almonds, giving a scudo of silver [5 lire] to the woman who brought it.
Towards evening, the young man came to the house of the Frau’s and pressed his young lady’s hand.
She blushed, radiant with joy, and withdrew her hand from his grip; but in her palm, hot from the amorous
squeeze, she found a gold coin concealed. In the next moment, she went about the house discreetly
showing Predu’s beautiful present.
Outside the bells chimed joyfully, and the east wind spread the metallic sound in the tepid damp
of the dusk.
24. Which of the following literary devices have been used in the italicized sentence above?
(a) Personification
(b) Anachronism
(c) Eulogy
(d) Cliffhanger
25. Maria Franzisca’s fiancé is by occupation a:
(a) Shepherd
(b) Farmer
(c) Baker
(d) Swineherd
26. Which of the following statements is/are true according to the passage?
Statement 1: Maria Franzisca is a generous and timid woman.
Statement 2: The shepherds rebelled against their masters for the tyranny they faced every day.
(a) Statement 1
(b) Statement 2
(c) Both

27. Choose the correct order of articles that have been omitted in the bold and underlined sentence.
(a) a, an, the
(b) the, the, the
(c) the, an, a, the.
(d) a, an, the, a, the
28. According to the passage, the almond trees in the valley usually bloom in:
(a) Autumn
(b) Winter
(c) Spring
(d) Summer
29. ‘The country sounded from the ringing of feast; people, yielding to the strange Levantine wind, crowded
streets and houses, gathering to celebrate the birth of Christ.’
Identify the word from the given options that serve as an adjective in the above sentence.
(a) Yielding
(b) Strange
(c) Levantine
(d) Celebrate

Passage (Q.30-Q.35): Nagaland Chief Minister Neiphiu Rio said on Thursday the message from the
government of India is clear that there will be only “one solution” for the Naga political issue. Mr. Rio was
addressing over 150 members of the civil society groups in Kohima who had met to discuss the ongoing
Naga peace talks and the Naga political issue. He said he met Union Home Minister Amit Shah on
September 19 in Delhi and one of the reasons for Thursday’s meeting was to convey the Centre’s “one
solution” message.
“Having understood that there will be only one solution, we need to deliberate and support the peace
process, strengthen the negotiations and facilitate the journey towards achievement of this one solution
in the earliest time possible. Looking back at history, we must come to an understanding that our
achievements and our failures are all collective. We need to cross the bridge of blame and move towards
a matured approach of collective responsibility for all our achievements and failures,” he said.The Naga
talks hit a roadblock in August this year after the NSCN(IM) leadership refused to hold any dialogue with
Naga interlocutor R.N. Ravi who is also Nagaland’s Governor. A team of Intelligence Bureau officials
were deputed to hold forth the discussions with National Socialist Council of Nagaland-(Isak Muivah). Mr.
Ravi and the NSCN(IM) signed a framework agreement on August 3, 2015 in the presence of Prime
Minister Narendra Modi. The NSCN(IM) has been demanding [1] for the Nagas and the assimilation of all
Naga-inhabited areas in [2]. In 2017, Mr. Ravi included more Naga groups in the dialogue process and
signed a preamble with the [x].

1. A separate constitution
2. A separate flag
3. A separate anthem
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 2 and 3
31. Which of the following states is not in [2]?

(a) Assam (b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Mizoram (d) Manipur
32. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Thuingaleng Muivah had created the Naga National Council (NNC).
(b) The NSCN agreed to give up arms after the Shillong Accord in 1975
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
33. “The government of India sent in the Army to crush the insurgency and, in 1956, enacted the Armed
Forces (Special Powers) Act. Presently, AFSPA, 1956 is operational in entire States of Assam,
Nagaland, Manipur (except Imphal Municipal area), three districts namely Tirap, Changlang and
Longding of Arunachal Pradesh and the areas falling within the jurisdiction of the eight police stations in
the districts of Arunachal Pradesh. AFSPA gives armed forces the power to maintain public order in
“disturbed areas. They have the authority to prohibit a gathering of four or more persons in an area, can
use force or even open fire after giving due warning if they feel a person is in contravention of the law.”
Which aspect of the above statement is wrong?
1. The year in which AFSPA was enacted
2. The states in which AFSPA is operational
3. Number of persons that can gather under AFSPA
4. Warning need not be given
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 3 and 4 (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) Only 2 and 4

34. What are the hurdles in the Naga Peace Process?
(a) The Naga insurgents at one time were given assistance by Myanmar, China and Pakistan
(b) The government is clueless as to how to manage all the weapons in the NSCN camp
(c) Taxes levied by insurgent groups have created problems with the Central government
35. How many parties are there in [x]?

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
Passage (Q.36-Q.39): The number of people fleeing Myanmar facing persecution after the military coup
and seeking refuge in India has doubled over the last week. Earlier, the figure was around 300 but it has
jumped to 733 now, official data shows. While the total number of refugees taking shelter in [1] bordering
the [2] state of Myanmar stands at 642, there are 91 other people who have been put in the
“unconfirmed” category, according to the official report of the state government. The maximum numbers
are reported from Champhai district where 324 people are staying and there are another 91 not
accounted for who have entered recently.
The next most affected district is Siaha with 144 people. Other districts where people from the
neighbouring country are taking shelter are Hnahthial (83), Lawngtalai (55) Serchhip (15), [x] (14),
Saitual (3), Kolasib (2) and Lunglei (2). Most are staying in community halls near the borders that are
meant to facilitate accommodation under the Free Movement Regime (FMR) arrangement while some
others have taken shelter with relatives away from the border areas. “Most of them who have come are
restricted to the FMR zones near the borders,” said a senior official tracking development. The Myanmar
military in a coup had overthrown the democratically elected government on February 1.
36. Which of the following states has been redacted by [1]?

(a) Manipur (b) Mizoram
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Nagaland

(a) Rakhine (b) Kaya (c) Shan (d) Chin
38. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) Many people coming in to [1] are policemen of Myanmar
(b) All the refugees who have come in have deep cultural ties with [1] and speak the state’s language
(c) 3 states share borders with Myanmar
(d) India and Myanmar share a 1143 km long border
39. Which of the following is incorrect about the FMR?

(a) FMR permits the tribes residing along the border to travel 16-km across the boundary
(b) There are no visa restrictions for travelling under FMR
(c) India has FMR only with Myanmar
(d) The Centre is planning to remove FMR with context to the recent developments
Passage (Q.40-Q.44): The Parliament of India has merged two TV channels into an integrated channels
“Sansad TV”. According to an order dated 1 March 2021, issued by the new channel, the decision was
jointly taken by Rajya Sabha Chairman M. Venkaiah Naidu and Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birl(a) A retired
IAS officer of the 1986 batch, has been appointed as Sansad TV Chief Executive Officer for one year
who will be responsible for working out the final details of the merger. Sources in the government told that
there could be two channels under Sansad TV, to give equal weight to live proceedings of both Houses,
among other reasons. In a separate order issued, the Rajya Sabha secretariat terminated the services of
channel CEO Manoj Kumar Pandey. He was a member of the panel formed in 2019 to chalk out the
modalities and prepare guidelines for the merger. Apart from broadcasting the proceedings of both
Houses of Parliament, the channels aired discussions and other programmes on a range of topics.

According to sources in the two channels, the secretariats of the two Houses started deliberations on the
merger in 2017. On 7 November 2019, a committee was constituted and tasked with chalking out the
modalities of the merger, and preparing guidelines for pooling of resources and technology.
Source: Excerpt from The Print, written by Amrita Nayak Dutta (Dated 2 March 2021)
40. Parliament of India has recently merged two channels to form “Sansad TV” to show the live telecast of
parliamentary procedure. This channel was formed by merging which two channels?
(a) DD News & DD Bharti (b) DD India & DD News
(c) RSTV & LSTV (d) None of the above
41. The proposal for the merger of two entities was put forward in 2019 which was headed by-
(a) Shashi Shekhar Vempati. (b) Dr. A Surya Prakash.
(c) Dr. Mrinul Pandey. (d) Jawhar Sircar.
42. Who has been appointed as CEO of Sansad TV for one year?
(a) Shri Atul Chaturvedi. (b) Shri M Ramakrishnan.
(c) Shri Anil Kumar KC. (d) Shri Ravi Capoor.
43. When was Rajya Sabha TV launched?

(a) 2011 (b) 2006 (c) 2009 (d) 2010
44. Which Hon’ble Speaker launched the Lok Sabha Television in 2006?
(a) Om Birla. (b) Manohar Joshi.
(c) Somnath Chatterjee. (d) Meira Kumar.
Passage (Q.45-Q.49): The Supreme Court on Monday said the issue of whether it is time to scrap the
50% ceiling on reservations in educational institutions and jobs needs to be answered in the context of
the “changed social dynamics of the society” and recent constitutional amendments, and sought the
views of the states - a radical departure from the legal precedent that has, for three decades now, held
the ceiling as inviolable. Any attempt to increase the ceiling is loaded with political significance- various
states (ruled by governments of varying hues) have sought, in vain until now, to do this to address the
grievances of one politically important constituency or other. The court’s observation itself, came in a
case where a reservation for Marathas in Maharashtra caused a breach in the ceiling. On 8 March 2021,
the bench, which also comprised justices L Nageswara Rao, S Abdul Nazeer, Hemant Gupta and S
Ravindra Bhat, framed a total of six questions, including the one on review of the 50% ceiling, while
considering the constitutional validity of a 2018 Maharashtra law that sought to provide reservation to the
Maratha community in jobs and admissions, a move that would take total reservations in the state in
excess of 50%.
Source: Except from Hindustan Times written by Abraham Thomas and Utkarsh Anand (dated 09 March
2021)
45. Which judgment did Supreme Court decide to examine which fixed reservation for the marginalised and
the poor in Government jobs and educational institutions at 50%?
(a) State of Madras v. Smt. Champakan Dorairajan.
(b) M.R. Balaji and Ors. v. State of Mysore.
(c) Indra Swahney v. Union of India.
(d) M. Nagaraj v. Union of India
46. Based on which commission did Maharashtra SEBC Act of 2018 originally provided 16% of reservation to
Marathas?
(a) Mandal Commission (b) Gaikwad Commission
(c) Kalelkar Commission (d) Backward Classes Commission

47. Which Constitutional Amendment is in question which introduced the National Commission for Backward
Classes?
(a) 103rd Amendment (b) 95th Amendment
(c) 104th Amendment (d) 102nd Amendment
48. The Bombay High Court reduced the Maratha Reservation Policy to-
(a) 12-13% (b) 13-14% (c) 14-15% (d) 15-16%
49. Which Article empowers the President to specify the socially and educationally backward communities in
a State?
(a) Article 340 (b) Article 338A (c) Article 342A (d) Article 330
Passage (Q.50-Q.53): India on Thursday proposed the inclusion of Iran’s Chabahar port in the
International North South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a 7,200km multi-mode route spanning 13
countries, and also called for two countries to be made part of the corridor. Chabahar port, where an
Indian state-run firm operates a terminal, is a key part of India’s plans to enhance connectivity to
Afghanistan and the Central Asian states. The port played an important role in shipping humanitarian aid
to Afghanistan amid the Covid-19 pandemic and India recently supplied heavy cranes to boost its
capabilities. Addressing the virtual “Chabahar Day” event organised on the margins of the Maritime India
Summit 2021, External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar and Minister of State for Shipping spoke about plans
to include the Iranian port in INSTC. Jaishankar welcomed the interest shown by Uzbekistan and
Afghanistan in joining the multilateral corridor and said: “Establishing an eastern corridor through
Afghanistan would maximise its potential.” The INSTC project, which includes India, Iran, Russia, Turkey,
Armenia, Azerbaijan, Belarus, Kazakhstan, the Kyrgyz republic, Tajikistan, Oman, Syria and Ukraine,
was first proposed in 2000 to cut costs and time in moving cargo and to improve connectivity between the
regions.
Source: Excerpt from Hindustan Times, written by Rezaul H Laskar (dated 04 March 2021)
50. International North-South Transport Corridor is a corridor to increase trade between

(a) Iran and Russia. (b) Afghanistan and Turkey.
(c) India and Russia. (d) Afghanistan and Uzbekistan.
51. Which countries are the founding members states of INSTC?

(a) Armenia, Azerbaijan and Russia. (b) Oman, Turkey and Syria.
(c) Belarus, India and Iran. (d) Russia, India and Iran.
52. Which two countries are to be included to expand the INSTC membership?
(a) Afghanistan and Uzbekistan. (b) Kazakhstan and Afghanistan.
(c) Mongolia and Georgia. (d) Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan.
53. India proposed that land route via Kabul and Tashkent would form the INSTC’s-
(a) Western Corridor. (b) Eastern Corridor.
(c) North-East Corridor. (d) South-West Corridor.

Passage (Q.54-Q.58): The [1] government Wednesday decided to bring in an ordinance to grant official
status to the Bodo language. The cabinet also approved an ordinance to create a Bodo Kachari
Autonomous Welfare Council outside the Sixth Schedule areas for the Bodo community.
The move is seen as an attempt by the state government to appease the Bodos, while gradually fulfilling
the promises made by the Modi government during the signing of the third Bodo accord on 27 January.
The State cabinet Wednesday also resolved to request the State Election Commission to schedule the
much-talked about Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC) elections for December this year.
The elections were to be held on 4 April but were postponed due to the Covid-19 pandemic. The 40-
member tribal council, established in 2003 under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, looks after the
administrative affairs of the four Bodoland Territorial Area Districts (BTAD) districts of Baksa, Chirang,
Kokrajhar and Udalguri, all of which have a sizeable population of the Bodo community in State.
The current BTC’s five-year term ended on 27 April. State Governor Jagdish Mukhi currently leads the
caretaker government but his rule ends on 27 October.
54. Which of the following statement is not correct about Bodo Statehood Movement?
(a) The armed group Bodo Security Force arose, which subsequently renamed itself ‘National
Democratic Front of Bodoland (NDFB)’, an organisation that is known to be involved in attacks,
killings, and extortions. It later split into factions.
(b) First organised demand for a Bodo state came under the banner of the political party Plains Tribals
Council of West Bengal
(c) Indian security forces launched extensive operations against the NDFB, causing the latter to flee to
bordering Bhutan.
(d) The ABSU-led movement from 1987 culminated in a 1993 Bodo Accord, which paved the way for a
Bodoland Autonomous Council (BAC), but ABSU withdrew its agreement and renewed its demand for
a separate state.
55. In 2003, the second Bodo Accord was signed by the extremist group Bodo Liberation Tiger Force (BLTF),
the Centre and the state. This led to the Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC). BTC is an autonomous body
under the which Schedule of the Constitution?
(a) fifth Schedule (b) Seventh Schedule
(c) Sixth Schedule (d) Eighth Schedule
56. Which of these has been replaced by [1] in the above passage?
(a) West Bengal (b) Assam (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Kerala
57. Which of the following statement about tripartite agreement is/are true?
I. It provides for “alteration of area of BTAD” and “provisions for Bodos outside BTAD”
II. The Bodoland Territorial Region (BTR) was renamed BTAD.
III. It provides for more legislative, executive, administrative and financial powers to BTC.
IV. Provision for rehabilitation of surrendered militants of NDFB and bringing a special development
package of Rs. 1,500 crore for the region.
(a) I II III (b) II IV (c) I III IV (d) I IV
58. According to historians, they belong to the Tibeto-Burman family of the which race?
(a) Australoid race (b) Capoid race (c) Mongoloid race (d) Caucasoid race

Passage (Q.59-Q.63): The bill stats that the legislative assembly shall not make any rule to enable itself
or its committees to consider the matters of the day-to-day administration of the national capital or
conduct inquiries in relation to the administrative decisions.
"Any of the rule made in contravention of this proviso, before the commencement of the Government of
National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Act, 2021, shall be void," it says.
According to the statement of objects and reasons of the bill, to give effect to the interpretation made by
the Supreme Court which had ruled that the city government need not obtain the lieutenant governor's
"concurrence" of every issue of day-to-day governance, the bill has been brought.
"The said bill will promote harmonious relations between the legislature and the executive, and further
define the responsibilities of the elected government and the L-G, in line with the constitutional scheme of
governance of the National Capital Territory of Delhi, as interpreted by the Supreme Court," the
statement of objects said.
59. the central government introduced the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment)
Bill, 2021 in the Lok Sabha to amend the
(a) Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1991
(b) Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1995
(c) Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1990
(d) Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1989
60. Which of the following statement is not correct about the provisions of the Bill?
(a) The expression 'Government' referred to in any law to be made by the Legislative Assembly shall
mean the Lieutenant Governor (LG).
(b) The Bill gives discretionary powers to the LG even in matters where the Legislative Assembly of Delhi
is empowered to make laws.
(c) It seeks to ensure that the LG is “necessarily granted an opportunity” to give her/his opinion before
any decision taken by the Council of Ministers (or the Delhi Cabinet) is implemented.
(d) The amendment also says that “Legislative Assembly can make any rule to enable itself to consider
the matters of day-to-day administration of the Capital or conduct inquiries in relation to the
administrative decisions after discussion with LG”.
61. Which section of the 1991 Act says that all executive actions of the LG, whether taken on the advice of
his Ministers or otherwise shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the LG?
(a) Section 34 (b) Section 44 (c) Section 46 (d) Section 35
62. Delhi’s current status as a Union Territory with a Legislative Assembly is an outcome of which
Amendment Act?
(a) 66th Amendment Act (b) 56th Amendment Act
(c) 69th Amendment Act (d) 57th Amendment Act
63. Which of the following issues doesn’t come under the jurisdiction of LG as per the verdict of 2018?
(a) Land (b) Police
(c) Executive matters (d) Public order

Passage (Q.64-Q.68): At least 170 people have been reported missing after a glacier broke off near
Raini village in Tapovan area of Chamoli district in the Garhwal Himalayas on Sunday morning, triggering
massive damage in its wake that was reminiscent of the 2013 Kedarnath tragedy. By evening, bodies of
seven men were recovered, but no one could say how many have died in the catastrophe that has once
again shaken Uttarakhand.
The State Emergency Operation Centre said, of the missing persons, 148 were in the NTPC hydropower
site whereas 22 were at the Vishnugad project. Most of them are believed to be workers involved in the
hydropower projects.
"The maximum water level at the Tapovan barrage is 1,803 metres, but as per initial reports, the water
level crossed 1808 metres, causing the breakage," said Piyoosh Rautela, executive director of the state's
disaster mitigation and management centre (DMMC).
Chief minister Trivendra Rawat, who conducted an aerial survey and went to areas near the disaster site,
announced Rs 4 lakh relief to the next of kin of those killed. PM Modi also announced ex-gratia of Rs 2
lakh for the families of the deceased. Later in Dehradun, Rawat said a team of 100 Army personnel,
including those from the engineering task force, and 250 personnel from ITBP's 1st battalion are engaged
in rescue operations.
64. Recently, a glacial break in the Tapovan-Reni area of Chamoli District of Uttarakhand led to massive
Flash Flood in Dhauli Ganga and
(a) Gori Ganga (b) Rishi Ganga (c) Sarayu (d) Alaknanda
65. Due to the falling of a portion of which glacier in the river exponentially increased the volume of water
caused Flash Flood in Uttarakhand in river Rishi Ganga
(a) Gangotri Glacier (b) Satopanth Glacier
(c) Nanda Devi Glacier (d) Rishiganga Glacier
66. Which of the following statement is not correct about the glacier burst?
(a) Rishi Ganga Power Project, a privately owned 130MW project got destroyed.
(b) Tapovan Vishnugad Hydropower Project on the Alaknanda, a 520 MW run-of-river hydroelectric
project got effected.
(c) glacial break in the Tapovan-Reni area damaged houses and the nearby Rishiganga power project.
(d) other projects on the Dhauliganga and Bhagirathi river basins in northwestern Uttarakhand have also
been impacted by the flood.
67. Which of the following statement about glaciers is not true?

(a) Glaciers are a bulk of ice moving under its weight. It forms in areas where the amassing of snow goes
beyond its ablation over many years.
(b) They are generally seen in the snow-fields.
(c) This largest freshwater basin covers around 10% of the land surface of the Earth.
(d) According to the topography and the location of the glacier, it can be categorized as Mountain Glacier
(Alpine Glaciers) or Piedmont Glacier (Ice Sheets).
68. Which of the following statement is not correct about Dhauliganga?

(a) It originates from Vasudhara Tal, perhaps the largest glacial lake in Uttarakhand.
(b) Dhauliganga is one of the important tributaries of Alaknanda, the other being the Nandakini, Pindar,
Mandakini and Yamuna.
(c) Dhauliganga is joined by the Rishiganga river at Raini.
(d) It merges with the Alaknanda at Vishnuprayag.

Passage (Q.69-Q.73): The Supreme Court briefly explained the scope of Section 311 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure in its two recent judgments. As per Section 311, any Court may, at any stage of any
inquiry, trial or other proceeding under this Code, summon any person as a witness, or examine any
person in attendance, though not summoned as a witness, or recall and re-examine any person already
examined if his evidence appears to it to be essential to the just decision of the case.
The Court observed that the object underlying Section 311 CrPC is that there may not be failure of justice
on account of mistake of either party in bringing the valuable evidence on record or leaving ambiguity in
the statements of the witnesses examined from either side. Court observed “At the same time, the
discretionary power vested under Section 311 CrPC has to be exercised judiciously for strong and valid
reasons and with caution and circumspection to meet the ends of justice.”
The bench referred to Swapan Kumar Chatterjee Vs. CBI “the court has vide power under this section to
even recall witnesses for re-examination or further examination, necessary in the interest of justice, but
the same has to be exercised after taking into consideration the facts and circumstances of each case.
The power under this provision shall not be exercised if the court is of the view that the application has
been filed as an abuse of the process of law.
In another case, the bench observed that the true test for invoking Section 311 CrPC is whether it
appears to the Court that the evidence is essential to the just decision of the case. Rather, it noted that
“the length/duration of a case cannot displace the basic requirement of ensuring the just decision after
taking all the necessary and material evidence on record. In other words, the age of a case, by itself,
cannot be decisive in the matter when a prayer is made for examination of a material witness”, the bench
noted while allowing the appeal.
Aim Of Every Court Is To Discover The Truth: supreme Court Explains Scope of Section 311 CrPC (Live
Law, 06 March 2021) <https://www.livelaw.in/know-the-law/scope-of-section-311-crpc-supreme-court-
recalling-of-witnesses-170824> as accessed on 07 March 2021.
69. Madhya Pradesh High Court has been hearing case of a mob lynching for 7 years. Police had filed
chargesheet against 4 accused, one of which is a woman. Court, after analysing all the evidence, gave
prosecution and defence to conclude their arguments. However, defence made an application to produce
before the court a key witness. The application states that this is a crucial witness who was present at the
scene of the crime. The application was opposed on the ground that the case has already been dragged
for a long time and shall not be extended anymore. The prosecution further contends that the defence
has deliberately filed the application to waste the time of the court. The court, however, allowed the
application and fixed a date for examining the witnesses. Choose the correct option:
(a) The court should not allow the application as the case has been heard for 7 years now and the
defence has made the application maliciously to further delay the judgment.
(b) The court should allow the application as it would be against the principles of natural justice if the
court gives a judgment without considering the defence’s version of the facts.
(c) The court should not allow the application as the court has already heard the witnesses from both
sides and there is no need to give another opportunity to either of the sides.
(d) The court should allow the application as it has been filed to present before the court a crucial witness
and listening to their testimony is crucial to preserve the instrument of justice.
70. Ali, an IAS officer has been charged under Prevention of Corruption Act for taking bribes to pass a tender
for construction of roads. The defendant’s lawyer 2 witnesses before the trial court after examination of
which the court fixed the next date for concluding arguments. On the next hearing, the defendant filed an
application for presenting two more witnesses to bring to light some crucial evidence in favour of the
defence. The trial court rejected the application, and asked parties to proceed with final hearing.
Defendant has filed an appeal before the High Court against the denial of the application; High Court has
allowed the appeal and directed the trial court to decide a date for examining the two witnesses. Which of
the following is the correct answer with respect to the order of the High Court?

(a) High Court has rightly allowed the appeal as no party shall be deprived of an opportunity to present
all their witnesses before the court, in the interest of justice.
(b) High Court has wrongly allowed the appeal as the court had already fixed the date for conclusion of
the arguments and application for examination of the witness implies the malicious intention behind
filing the application.
(c) High Court has rightly allowed the application as the same would afford defence an opportunity to
produce a crucial witness and prevent the court from reaching a decision prior to considering all the
relevant evidence on record
(d) High court has wrongly allowed the application as the trial court felt that allowing the application
would be an abuse of the process of law.
71. Srikanth was a minor charged under various sections of Indian Penal Code, for rioting, criminal
trespassing and abduction being tried before a juvenile court, along with some adults whose case was
being tried before Sessions Court. The prosecution presented two witnesses, who testified against
Srikanth. However, these witnesses did not support the prosecution's version of the facts before the
Sessions Court in the simultaneous trial. Srikanth filed an application for resummoning the witnesses for
cross-examination. Prosecution has not particularly opposed the application. However, the Juvenile Court
finds that the application is malicious and rejects the request. Decide whether the application should be
rejected or not.
(a) Application has been rightly rejected as after prosecution presented its witness, the defence was
given a chance to re-examine the witness and there is no further need to allow a re-examination.
(b) Application has been wrongly rejected as the witness has given contrary testimonies at both the trial
and therefore Srikanth shall be allowed to re-examine the witness in the cause of justice.
(c) Application has been rightly rejected as the two trials are separate ones and the testimony of the
witness in other trial has no bearing on the instant case.
(d) Application has been wrongly rejected as a minor shall be shown more consideration than adult
accused to ensure that a minor is not wrongly accused of a crime they have not committed
72. TarunGawli was a popular politician and gangster in Mumbai. A contractor pressed charges against him
for extortion and assault. During the trial, Gawli’s lawyer produced witnesses to support their case. After
summation of arguments, the court reserved the judgment for a later date. In the meantimeGawli filed an
application for producing more witnesses that would corroborate his alibi, however, nothing material was
stated by the witnesses to support the defence side. Court fixed another date for judgment, but Gawli
filed another application to recall previous witnesses. The court denied the application against which
Gawli has filed an appeal before the High Court. Which of the following shall be the order of the high
court?
(a) Appeal shall be allowed as there may not be failure of justice on account of mistake of either party in
bringing the valuable evidence on record or leaving ambiguity in the statements of the witnesses
examined from either side.
(b) Appeal shall not be allowed as witnesses produced by the defence have not stated anything to
support defence’s version of the facts and thus the process under section 311 is just being used to
abuse the consideration given under the law.
(c) Appeal shall be allowed as the court would be acting beyond the bounds of law if it reaches a
decision before considering the evidence or witness produced by the defence side.
(d) Appeal shall not be allowed as TarunGawli is a powerful person who could produce fake witnesses to
support his case and therefore the court shall no more consider an application for re-examining the
witnesses.
73. Which of the following is not the objective of section 311 of the Code of Criminal Procedure:
I. There may not be failure of justice on account of mistake of either party in bringing the valuable
evidence on record
II. No evidence crucial to a just decision by the court is missed.
III. To ensure that the just decision is reached after taking all the necessary and material evidence on
record, unless it causes any delay in the process of law.

IV. To ensure that courts are under duty to consider only those witnesses and evidence that are
produced before them with the bonafide intention.
Which of the following is the correct option?
(a) I, II and IV
(b) I and II
(c) III and IV
(d) III only
Passage (Q.74-Q.78): The Bombay High Court on Thursday (04th March) directed media organizations
to observe restraint and not publish any content related to the incident of death of a Pune woman who fell
from the balcony of her house and subsequently died. The Bench of Justice S. S. Shinde & Justice
Manish Pitale also directed the media organizations to scrupulously follow the guidelines which the Court
had laid down in the case of Nilesh Navlakha v. Union of India [Sushant Singh Rajput case] and not to
give any unnecessary publicity to the illicit relationship of the Woman. Soon after the death of the
Petitioner's daughter, allegedly, various news in print and electronic media emerged and started
circulating reports alleging that his daughter was having illicit relations with one Y.
In Nilesh Navalakha The Bombay High Court, gave judgment on a clutch of PILs regarding 'media trials'
in the Sushant Singh Rajput death case, observed that the media ought to avoid reports touching upon
an ongoing investigation and present facts that are in the public interest rather than what, according to
the media, the public is interested in. The Court in this case had laid down various guidelines for
reporting on "sensitive criminal matters, including death by suicide, and had held that the media should
avoid putting photographs of victims, depicting the deceased as a weak character, or try to reconstruct
the incident while the investigation is underway. The division bench of Chief Justice Dipankar Dutta and
Justice GS Kulkarni had directed the print and electronic media to exercise restraint and refrain from
publishing any news item, debate, discussion on interview while reporting on certain cases or at a
particular stage of investigation.
In this significant pronouncement, the Bombay High Court had held that media trial during criminal
investigation interferes with the administration of justice and hence amounts to 'contempt of court'
as defined under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.
Sparsh Upadhyay, "Exercise Restraint And Follow 'Nilesh Navlakha Case' Guidelines On Media Trial
Scrupulously": Bombay High Court To Media (Live Law, 05 March 2021) <https://www.livelaw.in/news-
updates/media-trial-nilesh-navlakha-case-guidelines-bombay-high-court-to-media-170776> as accessed
on 07 March 2021.
74. Shanaya was a successful actress who committed suicide in her bunglow just a day before screening of
her film. After her death, screenshots of her chats with Faizaan, her co-actor in the movie spread like
wildfire. Various news channels exploited the wave of sympathy to raise their TRP and conducted debate
on whether Shanaya committed suicide because of her affair with Faizan, who was already married.
Many channels targeted Faizaan on his alleged affair with Shanaya and alleged him to be the reason
Shanaya committed suicide. Both Shanay’s brother and Faizaan had made an application before the
Delhi High Court to restrain news channels from broadcasting any judgments on the case, while it is still
under investigation. Media houses, however, are defending that they have been broadcasting what is
already in public domain. Choose the correct option?
(a) Application shall not be allowed as the information is already in public domain and the news channels
were not the first ones to publish it, thus they cannot be restrained from broadcasting on the case.
(b) Application shall be allowed as the reporting is defamatory to the reputation of both Faizaan and
Shanaya, and holds Faizaan guilty while the case is under investigation.
(c) Application shall not be allowed as the news channels are raising mere questions regarding the
cause of the Shanaya’s death which would aid in the investigation rather than interfering with it.
(d) Application shall be allowed as the reporting amounts to media trial of a sensitive criminal matter and
interferes with the administration of justice.

75. Assertion: Courts can restrain media houses from broadcasting any sensitive information about a case
under investigation.
Reasoning: Such information will be defamatory to the parties involved in the case.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Both are correct and R is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) A is true, R is false.
(d) A is false, R is true.
76. Kunal Singh was one of the three popular Singh’s in the Bollywood industries, known as the trinity of the
film industry. One day, he was found dead in his apartment. ‘News Forever’ a news broadcasting
channel, disclosed videos of Kunal being with Sunil Singh the other one of the trinity, a night before his
death. The channel further reported the growing competition between the two actors in the recent year
due to which there was tension between the two actors. Sunil has made an application before the
Sessions Court to restrain News Forever from connecting the case with his name and passing any
judgment on him when the case is under investigation. The court has held the reporting to be an
interference with the administration of justice as it changes the direction of investigation and imposed a
restraint on further reporting on the case. Which of the following is the correct option with respect to the
order of the court?
(a) The order has been rightly passed as the channel was reporting on the sensitive matters of the case
which amounts to interfering with the administration of justice.
(b) The order has been wrongly passed as the channel was merely reporting on the case and life of the
actor and broadcast did not imply any connection of Sunil with case of Kunal’s death.
(c) The order has been rightly passed as no news channel shall be allowed to report on delicate and
complex matters such as the present one.
(d) The order has been wrongly passed as the same is violative of the right to trade and profession and
freedom of press as granted by article 19 of the Indian constitution.
77. The entire nation was shook when a 14 years old girl was brutally raped and then murdered in Noida,
U.P. The family of the girl is enraged by the act and is protesting before a police station for proper actions
against the accused. Meanwhile, a news reporter managed to get a video of the girl’s corpse and the one
news channel broadcasted the entire video on the prime time show. Although the video was broadcasted
the entire video after a trigger warning, the family of the accused is demanding that the video be not
shown on TV anymore and the news channel be prevented from publishing anymore of such content.
News channel has opposed the application stating that the video is being shown only post a warning and
people exercise their own will by choosing to watch it. Decide whether application shall be allowed or not.
(a) The application shall be allowed as publishing video of the deceased girl amounts to reporting on
sensitive criminal matters, which is prohibited by the order of Bombay High Court.
(b) The application shall not be allowed as the channel has warned the viewers about the triggering
nature of the video and thus has attempted to avoid triggering people by its content.
(c) The application shall be allowed as news channels shall be considerate towards the sufferings of the
families of the victims prior to reporting any illicit content regarding a case.
(d) The application shall not be allowed as the channel broadcasted the video in public interest to make
people aware of the complete incident without leaving out any details.
78. Recently, when Kamlesh Thadani, a business tycoon, died, all his property was inherited by his ex-wife
Salma. Police after the due investigation concluded that the reason for death is natural causes however
they are exploring murder as one of the options. Dastak, a newschannel, boradcasted a television
programme completely dedicated to case of Kamlesh’s murder. The programme showed how police has
failed to consider Salma as the primary accused, as she is the only one who could benefit from
Kamlesh’s death. Salma is now facing a lot of resentment from the public in general for killing her own
husband for money. After, an application by Salma court has directed Dastak to refrain from broadcasting
any such news any further else they would be charged for contempt. Dastak has filed an appeal against
the order. Choose the correct option.

(a) Appeal shall be allowed as the channel is not interfering with the ongoing investigation but aiding to
explore the new dimensions to the case.
(b) Appeal shall not be allowed as the channel has been interfering with the investigation by reporting on
the case and assuming facts on the ongoing investigation.
(c) Appeal shall be allowed as the reporting by the channel has no proximate cause with the resentment
that Salma is receiving from the public and the channel has no control over the views of the public at
large.
(d) Appeal shall not be allowed as reporting by the channel is defamatory to Salma and no person is
guilty of an offence until proven so in Indian law.
Passage (Q.79-Q.83): The bench comprising Justices AM Khanwilkar, Indu Malhotra and Ajay Rastogi of
SC observed that the condition predicated in Section 31 of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973,
of obtaining "previous" general or special permission of the Reserve Bank of India for transfer or disposal
of immovable property situated in India by sale or mortgage by a person, who is not a citizen of India, is
mandatory. The bench clarified that the transactions which have already become final including by virtue
of the decision of the court of competent jurisdiction, need not be reopened or disturbed in any manner
because of this pronouncement. Referring to Section 31 of the Act, the bench held that that the
requirement of taking "previous" permission of the RBI before executing the sale deed or gift deed is the
quintessence; and failure to do so must render the transfer unenforceable in law.
"It is well established that a contract is void if prohibited by a statute under a penalty, even without
express declaration that the contract is void because such a penalty implies a prohibition. Further, it is
settled that prohibition and negative words can rarely be directory. In the present dispensation provided
under Section 31 of the 1973 Act read with Sections 47, 50 and 63 of the same Act, although it may be a
case of seeking previous permission it is in the nature of prohibition as observed by a three Judge Bench
of this Court in MannalalKhetan&Ors. vs. Kedar Nath Khetan& Ors. In every case where a statute
imposes a penalty for doing an act, though, the act not prohibited, yet the thing is unlawful because it is
not intended that a statute would impose a penalty for a lawful act. When penalty is imposed by statute
for the purpose of preventing something from being done on some ground of public policy, the thing
prohibited, if done, will be treated as void, even though the penalty if imposed is not enforceable."
[Source- ‘Contract Is Void If Prohibited By Statute Under A Penalty Even If It Does Not Expressly Declare
It Void: Supreme Court’, Live Law, <https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/contract-void-statute-prohibited-
under-penalty-supreme-court-170524>, as accessed on 01st March 2021]
79. Jatin, a resident of India, had a property in Chennai. He asked his agent, Kunal, citizen of India, to sell
that property for not less than RS. 25 lakh. Kunal informed a broker about the same and asked him to
find such customer who is interested to buy the land in Chennai for Rs. 30 lakh as opening price. Broker
contacted Rohan, a non-citizen of India, and tells him about the deal. He showed his interest and
negotiated to buy the property at Rs. 28 lakh. No such prior permission was taken by the RBI before the
sale deed concluded. Decide-
(a) The sale deed concluded between Rohan and Jatin require prior permission of RBI as Jatin is not a
citizen of India and thus sale of property is invalid
(b) The sale deed concluded between Rohan and Jatin need not require prior permission of RBI as Jatin
is a citizen of India as resident and citizen means the same and thus sale of property is valid
(c) The sale deed concluded between Rohan and Jatin require prior permission of RBI as Rohan is a
non-citizen of India and thus sale of property is invalid

80. Shagun and Mehul, non-citizens of India, entered into the gift deed on 20th September 2019 where
Shagun agreed to gift her ancestral property in West Bengal to Mehul for consideration of two famous
and populated hotels in Bangalore as soon as the construction work gets over. The deed is to be
executed in month of April 2021. Shagun get to know about the recent judgment where prior permission
of RBI was made mandatory in such sale deeds. As a lawyer, suggest Shagun-
(a) The gift deed between Mehul and Shagun is held to be invalid as prior permission of RBI is necessary
at time of execution of the deed
(b) The gift deed between Mehul and Shagun is held to be valid as prior permission of RBI is not
necessary at time of execution of the deed
(c) The gift deed between Mehul and Shagun is held to be valid as prior permission of RBI is necessary
only in cases of sale deed and not gift deed
(d) The gift deed between Mehul and Shagun is held to be invalid as prior permission of RBI is necessary
at time of entering into the deed
81. Pushpa and Sunita were neighbours and they were not in good terms with each other. Sunita deliberately
played loud music at midnight to disturb and cause nuisance to Pushpa so that she cannot sleep and get
sleeping disorders in her routine. Pushpa filed a civil complaint against Sunita for the same and claimed
damages. Sunita had not paid heed to this action of Pushpa and had not filed her written statements in
the court within the prescribed limit of 30 days. Further, she has also not filed the same within the
extended period of 90 days. Prosecution lawyer claims such provision Order VIII Rule 1 of Code of Civil
procedure which states “the defendant shall, at or first hearing or within such time as the court may
permit, present a written statement of his defense”, is mandatory in nature. Decide-
(a) The contention is incorrect as Order VIII Rule 1 of CPC has not provided any prohibition or penalty for
non-compliance; it is only directory in nature.
(b) The contention is correct as Order VIII Rule 1 of CPC has provided prohibition or penalty for non-
compliance; it is mandatory in nature.
(c) The contention is incorrect as Order VIII Rule 1 of CPC has not provided any prohibition and it
depends upon case to case basis whether it is directory or mandatory in nature.
(d) The contention is correct as Order VIII Rule 1 of CPC has been enacted with a lawful purpose to
compensate for wrong and thus written statements has to be filed within the time limit. It is mandatory
in nature.
82. Manu and Kamu were best friends and were much interested in earning money from short temporary
sources. They get to know about the horse race betting and entered into a wager where the losing party
will give the other party cash reward of Rs. 20,000. Manu won the bet and claimed Kamu the decided
amount. Kamu refused to pay the same and stated that under Indian Contract Act, Wagering agreements
are void per se and Manu cannot claim anything out of such agreement via help of court procedures.
Manu asked his lawyer and was consulted. As his lawyer, you would suggest-
(a) The agreement was void under Indian Contract Act as agreements in form of wager are not
recognised as lawful and is prohibited
(b) The agreement was not void under Indian Contract Act as agreements in form of wager are not
recognised as unlawful and is not prohibited
(c) The agreement was void under Indian Contract Act as agreements in form of wager are not
recognised as lawful but is not prohibited
(d) The agreement was voidable under Indian Contract Act as agreements in form of wager are not
recognised as unlawful but is prohibited
83. Which among the following provision(s) is/are not mandatory in nature?
I. Section 197 of Cr.P.C states that no court shall take cognizance of any offence alleged to have been
committed by a public servant, judge, magistrate, or member of the armed forces.
II. Rule 27 of the Uttar Pradesh Forest Service Rules 1952 states that if the Governor is satisfied that
the operation of any rule regarding conditions of service of the members caused undue hardship in a
particular case, he may consult the Public Service Commission.

III. Rule 47 of the Representation of the People 1951 provided that a ballot paper shall be rejected if it is
spurious or if it was so damaged or mutilated that its identity as a genuine ballot paper could not be
established.
IV. Article 124(2) of Indian Constitution states that Every Judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed
by the President by warrant under his hand and seal after consultation with such of the Judges of the
Supreme Court and of the High Courts in the States as the President may deem necessary for the
purpose and shall hold office until he attains the age of sixty five years.
(a) Only I
(b) Both II and IV
(c) Only II
(d) Both III and IV
Passage (Q.84-Q.88): In a significant verdict, the Supreme Court on Tuesday held that consumer
complaints filed before the coming into effect of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 (CPA 2019) should
continue in the fora in which they were filed as per the pecuniary jurisdiction under the previous
Consumer Protection Act of 1986 (CPA 1986). This significant pronouncement, which settles a
widespread confusion prevailing in consumer fora across the country, came in the case of NeenaAneja
and others vs. Jai Prakash Associates Ltd. The 2019 Act had increased the pecuniary jurisdiction of
consumer fora as follows- District Forum- Increased to Rs. One Crore from Rs. Twenty Lakhs. State
Commission- Increased to Rs. Ten Crores from Rs. One Crore and for National Commission- Above Rs.
Ten Crores from Rs. One Crores. Section 107 (2) has saved "the previous operation" of any repealed
enactment or "anything duly done or suffered there under to the extent that it is not inconsistent with the
provisions of the new legislation". Section 107(3) indicates that the general application of Section 6 of the
General Clauses Act is not prejudiced. Section 6 of the General Clauses Act provides governing
principles with regard to the impact of the repeal of a central statute or regulation. These governing
principles are to apply, "unless a different intention appears". Clause (c) of Section 6 inter alia stipulates
that repeal would not affect "any right, privilege, obligation or liability acquired, accrued or incurred under
any enactment so repealed". Clause (e) of Section 6 ensures that a legal proceeding which has been
initiated to protect or enforce "such right" will not be affected and that it can be continued as if the
repealing legislation has not been enacted. The Court observed that it would be difficult to attribute to
Parliament, whose purpose in enacting the Act of 2019 was to protect and support consumers, with an
intent that would lead to financial hardship, uncertainty and expense in the conduct of consumer litigation.
[Source- Manu Sebastian, ‘All Consumer Complaints Filed before CPA 2019 Should Be Heard by Fora as
per Pecuniary Jurisdiction under CPA 1986: Supreme Court’’, Live Law, <https://www.livelaw.in/top-
stories/consumer-complaints-before-cpa-2019-should-be-heard-by-fora-as-per-pecuniary-jurisdiction-cpa-
1986-supreme-court-171226>, as accessed on 15th March 2021]
84. Manisha was a regular customer of Bikajilal Shop in Delhi. She trusts the shopkeeper and orders her
purchase items on telephonic calls only. One day she ordered for edible food items amounting to
Rs.30,00,000. But the shop keeper made her a bill of Rs.58,00,000 and asked his worker to collect the
amount first and then deliver the product. The worker asked for the payment but Manisha refused to do
so and argued for extra Rs.28, 00,000 in the bill. She claimed that the shop keeper is taking undue
advantage of her trust and she decided to file a complaint in consumer court on 12th September 2020.
She can-
(a) File a complaint against Bikajilal Shop owner in State Commission as it has the pecuniary jurisdiction
over the matter and complaint has to be filed there.
(b) File a complaint against Bikajilal Shop owner in District Forum as it has the pecuniary jurisdiction over
the matter and complaint has to be filed there.
(c) Cannot File a complaint against Bikajilal Shop owner in State Commission as the ground for filing the
complaint is frivolous and she cannot do so.
(d) File a complaint against Bikajilal Shop owner in both District forum and State Commission as both
have the pecuniary jurisdiction over the matter.

85. Mr. Ratnani was owner of largest Cotton Manufacturing Company of India. A suit was filed long back in
year 2015 against the company for claiming the cotton to be smooth and iching free. But the quality of
cotton was not matched with the market standards. The opposite party was claiming the compensation of
amount Rs.1,10,00,000 as his clothing company suffers loss due to his bad quality cotton. In pendency of
proceedings it was discovered that Mr. Ratnani has profited himself with adulterating the cotton and
mixing it with poor quality one. The consumer party added new amount of Rs. 50,00,000 more for
claiming compensation. Decide-
(a) The pecuniary jurisdiction will be shifted from National Commission to State Commission as limits
have been amended in the new act of 2019.
(b) The pecuniary jurisdiction will not be shifted from National Commission to State Commission as
though the new act of 2019 has no retrospective effect.
(c) The pecuniary jurisdiction will be shifted from National Commission to District Forum as limits have
been extended beyond twenty lakh.
(d) The pecuniary jurisdiction will not be shifted from National Commission to State District Forum as no
limits have been amended in the new act of 2019.
86. Mr. Prabhu Ramchandani was owner of largest Coffee Manufacturing Company of India having a
subsidiary in UK. A suit was filed long back in year 2010 against the company for claiming the coffee to
be of fine quality and coco rich content. But the quality of coffee was not matched with the market
standards. The opposite party was claiming the compensation of amount Rs.7,00,00,000 as his coffee
powder company suffers loss due to his bad quality coffee. In pendency of proceedings it was discovered
that Mr. Prabhu has profited himself with adulterating the coffee and mixing it with poor quality one. The
consumer party filed a suit against the subsidiary company claiming amount of Rs. 9,00,00,000 more for
compensation. Decide-
(a) The pecuniary jurisdiction will be of State Commission only as limits have been amended in the new
act of 2019.
(b) The pecuniary jurisdiction will be shifted from National Commission to State Commission as though
the new act of 2019 has no retrospective effect.
(c) The pecuniary jurisdiction will be of both National Commission and District Forum as limits have been
extended beyond twenty lakh.
(d) The pecuniary jurisdiction will be shifted from National Commission to District Forum as no limits have
been amended in the new act of 2019.
87. The Court shall be competent to entertain the proceedings. The Competency is legally termed as
jurisdiction. Pecuniary Jurisdiction is based upon the valuation of a subject matter of the suit. With
regards to territorial jurisdiction of the court, several other factors with regard to recovery, rent, partition,
sale, redemption, determination of right of immovable property, it shall be instituted in the court within the
local limits of whose jurisdiction the property is situated. On the other hand, Subject matter jurisdiction
relates to the subject matter of the suit without its reference to the pecuniary valuation or a territorial
jurisdiction of the subject matter. In the exercise of Original Jurisdiction, a court of first instance decides
suits, petitions, application etc. Appellate Jurisdiction refers to the court’s authority to review or re-hear
the cases that have been already decided in the lower courts by way of any appeal, revision etc. Choose
among the following which is best suitable example of only pecuniary jurisdiction of the trial court?
I. Family court of Jaipur dealing with the case of dowry death involving amount of Rs. 5,00,000 and
domestic violence under sec.498 of IPC.
II. Criminal Court of Delhi convicting the accused for theft of Rs. 20,00,000 and charged under POCSO
for attempt to rape of a minor girl.
III. Cuttack District Forum dealing with a dispute between manufacturer and consumer claiming
compensation of Rs. 15,00,000. Appeal filed to state commission in Bhubaneswar.
IV. Nagpur Civil court of second class magistrate dealing cases of trivial matters up to sum of Rs. 2500
and other petty cases of civil nature.
(a) Both I and III
(b) Only IV
(c) Both III and IV
(d) Only II

88. Choose the most appropriate option-
Assertion (A): The amendment in Consumer Protection Act 1986 was brought by CPA 2019 which
changed the pecuniary jurisdiction of respective forums keeping National Commission to be the highest
authority.
Reasoning (R): The parliament intended the amendment to be with retrospective effect so that the public
do not suffer any financial hardships and uncertainty in filing consumer litigations.
(a) Assertion is true but Reasoning is false.
(b) Both Assertion and Reasoning is false.
(c) Both Assertion and Reasoning is true and Reasoning is correct explanation of Assertion.
(d) Assertion is False but Reasoning is true.
(e) Both Assertion and Reasoning is true but Reasoning is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
Passage (Q.89-Q.93): The Centre has opposed any move to accord legal sanction to same-sex
marriages in India. Decriminalization of Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code on 7 Sep 2018 does not
automatically translate into a fundamental right for same-sex couples to marry, the Centre’s counsel told
the Delhi High Court in an affidavit on Thursday. The Supreme Court’s ruling granted same-sex couples
the freedom to lead a dignified private life, but allows them only “basic right to companionship so long as
such companionship is consensual, free from the vice of deceit, force, coercion, and does not result in
the violation of fundamental rights of others,” it said, citing the court ruling in the Navtej Singh Johar case.
The ruling applied to “personal private domain of individuals akin to the right to privacy and cannot
include a public right like recognition of same-sex marriage and thereby legitimizing a particular human
conduct,” In case of issues concerning personal relationships like marriage, divorce, adoption,
maintenance, etc., either the codified law or the personal law occupies the field, it said, suggesting that
laws are enacted by Legislature’s wisdom in a manner concomitant with “societal values” and “national
acceptability”. “The fundamental right under Article 21 is subject to the procedure established by law and
the same cannot be expanded to include the fundamental right for a same-sex marriage to be recognized
under the laws of the country which mandate the contrary.” The institution of marriage had a certain
sanctity attached to it across the country, it added. It enjoins the parties belonging to different sexes to
bring up children in the “most natural way possible”. Seeking a declaration recognizing same-sex
marriages has more legal ramifications than simple legal recognition. The parties to same-sex marriage
would not fit the legislative scheme which talks about a biological woman who is the wife and a man who
is the husband, it said.
Source: THE ECONOMIC TIMES Feb 25, 2021, 09:21 PM
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/same-sex-partners-not-comparable-with-
indian-concept-government/articleshow/81209328.cms
89. Vibhi and Vaibhav are sharing the same room in the boy's hostel since 2020. They both have emotional
and physical intimacy between them and confessed their relationship status publicly which offended the
hostel administration, in return the administration forcefully parted them in the hostel by changing their
room. Is Hostel administration is legally right?
(a) No, the Hostel administration can’t force anyone to change room because all are paying equally
therefore they have the right to enjoy freedom.
(b) Yes, hostel administration is legally right because Gay relationship is against “societal values” and
“national acceptability in India.
(c) No, The Supreme Court’s ruling granted same-sex couples the freedom to lead a dignified private life
and allows them the basic right to companionship.
(d) No, “The fundamental right under Article 21 is subject to the procedure established by law and the
same cannot be expanded to include the fundamental right for a same-sex marriage to be recognized
under the laws of the country which mandate the contrary.

90. considering the above facts now Vibhi and Vaibhav wanted to marry to avoid any societal pressure and
they read the Supreme Court judgment of decriminalizing section 377 after that decided to marry nearby
court. Decide their decision is legally acceptable with appropriate reasoning.
(a) No, a cultured country like India will never accept the marriage of the LGBTQ community it is against
moral principles and customary laws.
(b) No, Decriminalisation of Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code does not automatically translate into a
fundamental right for same-sex couples to marry.
(c) Yes, we have the fundamental right to freedom to marry with our own choice, and the constitution of
India gives equal rights to all its citizens.
(d) No, it is against the order of nature.
91. Rachel and Monica are consensually living in Bombay and having intercourse with the consent of each
other but after 1 week Rachel is threatening Monica by knife and trying to make a physical relationship
without her consent. Threatened by the conduct of her partner she doesn’t want to live with her but
Rachel is forcing her not to leave the premises. Do they have the right to leave together? Answer
considering the facts decided with legal reasoning.
(a) Yes they have every right to be in companionship because Section 377 is unconstitutional.
(b) No, they have a basic right to companionship so long as such companionship is consensual, free from
the vice of deceit, force, coercion, and does not result in the violation of fundamental rights of others.
But there is a violation of rights of Monica.
(c) Yes, they have a basic right to companionship so long as such companionship is consensual, free
from the vice of deceit, force, coercion, and does not result in the violation of fundamental rights of
others. But there is a violation of rights of Monica.
(d) It is their matter we should not bridge their right to privacy by interfering in their life.
92. David and John are in a physical relationship in 2017 and publicly kissing and setting in an intimate
position in the garden. Are they having the right to do so answer considering passage?
(a) Yes, Decriminalisation of Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code granted same-sex couples the
freedom to lead a dignified private life.
(b) Yes, The Supreme Court’s ruling granted same-sex couples the freedom to lead a dignified private
life.
(c) No, Gay relationship is against “societal values” and “national acceptability in India.
(d) No, in 2017 the section 377 of the Indian penal code is constitutional. Therefore same-sex couples
don’t have the right to be in a physical relationship.
93. X and Y are in a same-sex relationship to marry each other X who is a man decided to dress as a woman
and soon developed a womanish way of living and considered him the wife of Y. Are they legally fit in the
legislative scheme of marriage?
(a) No, same-sex marriage is against the order of nature.
(b) No, would not fit the legislative scheme of marriage which talks about a biological woman who is the
wife and a man who is the husband.
(c) Yes, would fit the legislative scheme which talks about a woman who is the wife and a man who is the
husband.

Passage (Q.94-Q.99): The Punjab & Haryana High Court on 10th March registered its disapproval of
'new concept of contractual Live-In-Relation' backed by a deed, wherein parties state that their live-in-
relationship is not 'Marital Relationship'.
The Counsel for the petitioners submitted that Petitioner No.1 Moyana Khatun (aged 18 years) and
Petitioner No.2 Labh Singh (aged about 19 years) executed a deed of Live-In-Relationship dated
04th March 2021 and certain terms and conditions have been settled in the deed of live-in-relationship by
way of mutual consent.
The said deed specifically stated that both the parties have agreed that their live-in-relationship is not a
'Marital Relationship' and further, the parties will fully cooperate with each other without any dispute and
issue and will not claim anything against each other.
The said deed also stated that if any of the parties backs out from the aforesaid deed, the other party will
have a right to approach a competent Court of law for the implementation of the same and that, in the
end, on attaining marriageable age the parties agreed to solemnize marriage.
The Counsel for the states opposed the prayer of the petitioners on the ground that such deed of live-in-
relationship is impermissible in law when the parties have not attained the age of performing marriage
under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006.
It was further submitted that Section 5 (iii) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 prohibits marriage of a girl
below 18 years and boy below 21 years of age.
It was also contended that Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 provides that an agreement in
restraint of marriage is a void agreement and therefore, it cannot be enforced as per Section 14 of the
Specific Relief Act, 1963.
It was thus, submitted that the Live-In-Relationship agreement set up by petitioners being void agreement
cannot be accepted.
94. Avantika is junior to Prateek in college. After pursuing Prateek for a year, they eventually fell in love and
now wish to get married. Both Avantika and Prateek belong to two different communities and their
parents oppose their union. When their parents met, they got into serious argument. As a resultant,
Avantika’s parents made her sign a deed that she will marry anyone but Prateek. The agreement was
drafted by a lawyer and was duly notarized. In this case-
(a) Avantika and Prateek cannot legally marry each other because of the ongoing contract.
(b) Avantika and Prateek can marry each other but it will be considered illegal.
(c) Avantika and Prateek can marry legally and the contract will be considered as void.
(d) The parents could have allowed Avantika and Prateek to marry which would have promoted national
integrity.
95. Neil agrees to pay Anshul a sum of Rs.1 lakh if Anshul marries Kavita within a period of six months.
Anshul could marry Kavita only during the seventh month as the marriage ceremonies were prohibited
due to covid 19 lockdown. Anshul claims Rs.1 lakhs from Neil. Was the contract in restraint of marriage?
(a) The contract between Neil and Anshul was in restrain and was invalid.
(b) The contract between Neil and Anshul was not in restraint of marriage.
(c) The contract between Neil and Anshul was not in restraint of marriage as six months duration was
mentioned in the contract.
(d) The contract did not restrict Anshul to marry another girl, therefore it was not in restraint of marriage.
96. Chinamma makes three deals with her three sons. She agrees to pay the first son a lakh if he marries
Lakshmi. She agrees to pay the second son a lakh if he doesn't marry Saraswati. She agrees to pay the
third son a lakh if he marries a Hindu girl. Which among the following is a valid deal?
(a) Deal with 1st Son.
(b) Deal with 2nd son.
(c) Deal with 3rd son.
(d) All deals are invalid

97. Dashrath enters into an agreement with Janak for marrying Sita, Janak’s daughter, who was 15 years of
age. Janak promises to pay a sum of Rs.2, 00,000/- and advances a sum of Rs.25,000/- to Dashrath. On
the day of the marriage, Janak refuses to pay the remaining sum of Rs.1,75,000/- to Dashrath. Are such
marriages permissible?
(a) The contract between Dashrath and Janak are illegal.
(b) The marriage of a girl below 18 years is prohibited under the legal provisions.
(c) Dashrath and Janak would face legal action for getting into such immoral contracts.
(d) Such marriages are permissible only with the consent of Sita
98. Bimal and Beena are high school sweethearts. They couldn’t marry because Beena is just 17 year old
now. So Bimal and Beena signed a live-in relationship agreement. The clauses mentioned their live-in
partnership till they get married. Bimal to formally propose Beena with a diamond ring on the inland cliff
and their wedding to take place in Palace in Udaipur. The agreement also mentions to not involve their
respective parents throughout their relationship and have no off spring in future. They seek your advice
on the validity of their agreement as per the law.
(a) The agreement will be notarized as it is duly signed with consent of Beena and Bimal.
(b) The object of the agreement was illegal so Bimal will not be able to get it notarized.
(c) Such agreements are considered void by the Apex Court.
(d) The agreement is valid and binding, as it was not is restrain of the marriage.
99. In the above question, If Bimal made an agreement with Beena that he will not marry anybody else but
Beena if she can wait for him for 3 more years, so that he gets enough time to establish his business and
she can finish her graduation. Beena waited for 3 years and when she asked Bimal to marry her, he
refuses. Decide.
(a) The contract is void, as it restrains Bimal from marrying anybody else than Beena.
(b) The contract is void as Beena didn’t pay any money to make the contract valid.
(c) The contract is valid, as it is not in restraint of marriage.
Passage (Q.100-Q.104): The long title of the new Consumer Protection Act, 2019 in the least number of
words explains the whole and sole purpose of the Act.
Key features of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019
“Advertisement” is defined as any audio or visual publicity, representation, endorsement or
pronouncement made by means of light, sound, smoke, gas, print, electronic media, internet or website
and includes any notice, circular, label, wrapper, invoice or such other documents.
• A provision for a minor being a consumer has been introduced where the parent or legal guardian can
approach the authorities through the minor seeking relief.
• “consumer” is defined as a person who “buys any goods for a consideration which has been paid or
promised or partly paid and partly promised, or under any system of deferred payment and includes
any user of such goods other than the person who buys such goods for consideration paid or
promised or partly paid or partly promised, or under any system of deferred payment, when such use
is made with the approval of such person, but does not include a person who obtains such goods for
resale or for any commercial purpose”
Thus, a consumer will now mean any person who “buys any goods” and “hires any services” which
shall include both online and offline transactions through electronic means, teleshopping, direct
selling or multi-level marketing.
• The new additions include “e-commerce” “electronic service provider” along with the prescribed
liabilities in relation to internet frauds.
• under Section 2(34) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 as “the responsibility of a product
manufacturer or product seller, of any product or service, to compensate for any harm caused to a
consumer by such defective product manufactured or sold or by a deficiency in services relating
thereto;”
Source: SSC Online Blog

100. Murphy 17 year CLAT aspirant wants to crack Clat 2021 but due to coronavirus unable to join offline
coaching center therefore he has taken subscription of online clat course of 10,000 rupees from unknown
clat preparation website named as” Guaranteed success”.Even after the payment and waiting for a long
time the “Guaranteed success” not given him study material that was promised while taking a
subscription. Can Murphy file a complaint against “Guaranteed success” under the consumer protection
act 2019? Answer with Appropriate reasoning.
(a) No, Murphy cannot file a complaint against Guaranteed success because the consumer should be
aware of dire consequences before involving in such activities while taking subscriptions from illegal
and unknown sources.
(b) Yes, Murphy can file complaints as it the responsibility of a product manufacturer to compensate for
any harm caused to a consumer by such defective product manufactured or sold.
(c) Yes, Murphy can file complaints through a legal guardian as it is the case of internet fraud by online
service provider Guaranteed success.
(d) Yes, Murphy should file a complaint as being an Indian citizen and aware consumer he has every
right to get compensations from fraud sellers.
101. Beautylovely is cosmetic cream manufacturing company promoting their product through ambassador
Nami Gautam via online advertisement and vouch for the fair and glowing face for all skin types within 1
week. Millions of Indian women purchased Beautylovely by seeing Persuasive advertising based on the
claims of the advertiser. But none of them received fair and glowing faces even after using for 1 month.
Saanvi law student aggravated by such misleading advertisement and now want to seek relief can she do
so?
(a) Yes, Saanvi is eligible to seek relief from Beautylovely because the company wasted her money and
crucial time.
(b) No, Saanvi cannot seek relief as it was not a misleading advertisement by the company because it is
presumed that beauty products don’t have 100% result and layman have knowledge about what to
purchase and what not.
(c) Yes, Saanvi can get relief because this comes under misleading advertisement defined under section
2 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
(d) None of above
102. Beena Devi is selling sarees to women in her locality therefore is ordered 12 sarees directly from the
manufacture via WhatsApp and after delivery of the product found 2 sarees damaged and when
requested for exchange manufacturer denied. Can Beena Devi file a complaint against the manufacturer
under the consumer protection act 2019. Explain with reasonable reasoning.
(a) Yes, because it is the responsibility of a product manufacturer or product seller, of any product or
service, to compensate for any harm caused to a consumer by such defective product manufactured.
(b) Yes, being a consumer it is her right to get qualitative and safe delivery of the product.
(c) No, she can't sue the manufacturer because she is not the consumer according to the definition of
consumer in the Consumer Protection Act of 2019.
(d) No, she can't sue the manufacturer because she ordered sarees online and online transactions not
covered under the Consumer Protection Act of 2019.
103. Saanvi aggrieved by misleading advertisement went to consumer court for filling complaint but denied by
the judge. Can she claim the right to be heard? Answer considering the passage.
(a) yes, the consumer has the right to be heard and to be assured that the consumer’s interests will
receive due consideration at appropriate fora.
(b) No, she can't claim the right to be heard.
(c) yes, she has every right to file a complaint against anyone according to her wish.

104. We had The Consumer Protection Act 1986 and worked effectively for 3 decades so what can be
reasons for amendments in the existing act and bringing new Consumer Protection Act of 2019.Answer
with reasonable reasoning.
(a) Being around three decades old, did not inculcate the needful things that would have solved the
problems of the modern and technology-dependent consumers, which is why a need was felt to
replace the whole Act with a new one and bring a fundamental change.
(b) Democratic countries should always change law according to the dynamic nature of society to
maintain rule of law.
(c) Both A and B

Passage (Q.105-Q.109): Post-war Europe has seen populist movements of both the left and the right,
but they have mainly operated on the margins of national politics. While no populist party or politician has
been able to actually win a national election in Western Europe over the past seven decades, research
shows that populism has been advancing slowly yet steadily in Europe since the 1960s. Today, virtually
every European country has a populist party represented in national or regional parliaments which most
being right-winged. These parties’ aims and agendas are driven by different national histories, traditions
and circumstances, but all are anti-immigrant and anti-EU.
Populism’s appeal remains too small to actually win elections in most of Europe, but it is shaping national
and European politics in various ways, reframing debates on immigration, the Eurozone and national
security, among other examples. Political views once considered extreme or taboo are now firmly present
in mainstream political discourse. In response, some mainstream politicians have co-opted parts of the
populists’ message or have felt pressure to move to the right on some issues to blunt the populist
advance.
To effectively contain populism, Europe must accurately diagnose how and why it emerged in the first
place. The sources for such concerns are not likely to disappear, so populism is more of a long-term
challenge than a temporary crisis. European leaders should also challenge the populists’ message, and
in particular press these firebrands to provide details about their policy proposals. Populists are big on
divisive rhetoric but vague when it comes to what they would actually do about immigration, economic
policy, or national security. Challenging them to get specific will highlight inconsistencies for voters and
show that many populist policy proposals would likely prove ineffective in practice.
Source: https://theconversation.com/populism-is-still-a-threat-to-europe-heres-how-to-contain-it-78821

(a) With the advent of populism, the liberal and conservative movement has also been on a consistent
rise
(b) Once a populist leader is elected, it will open a Pandora’s box for others
(c) Europe has been witnessing several changes and even paradigm shifts
(d) Some European countries do not have any populist parties

(a) Populist politicians are on the rise and will soon win elections in at least some countries
(b) Framing policies now-a-days is taking too much time considering the plethora of viewpoints that have
germinated in EU
(c) The mainstream political discourse is impervious to change
(d) The populist movement does not pose an imminent threat but they may become one gradually
(a) The anti-immigrant sentiment has been growing in people because of the rise of populist movement
(b) The populist movement has been advancing with greater participation from people because of the
rise of the anti-immigrant sentiment
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(a) The mainstream political discourse is impervious to change
(b) EU policies have always remained pro-immigration
(c) Populist politicians are well-versed and great orators
(d) The policies laid down by the populist movement has but little social application

(a) To be a populist politician, one must have an anti-immigration stance
(b) The effect of the populist movement is subtle but can be strongly felt
(c) There may come a time when populism become a threat to mainstream political ideologies
Passage (Q.110-Q.114): It would take tomes to explain Brazil’s fall in full, but here’s a whirlwind
summary. First, there’s the clear problem of money in politics. President Temer and Senator Aecio
Neves, once a rising political star, are only the latest politicians to succumb in the current corruption
scandal. Of the 594 congressional representatives and senators elected in 2014, 318 have been
investigated for wrongdoing under the so-called Lava Jato (Carwash) probe. The spate of investigations
and arrests is a sign that political watchdog agencies, such as the public ministry, attorney general’s
office and the federal police are better equipped today than in the past. These institutions gained
considerable autonomy and capacity under the successive Workers’ Party (PT).
However, these institutions have also repeatedly used unlawful and unconstitutional measures that
increasingly impinge on the rights of citizens, journalists and bloggers. Nor has the media been a neutral
agent in this process. Citing freedom of expression, major national newspapers, magazines and
television channels have leaked judicial operations and publicly condemned politicians before the due
process of law. Just days ago, leaked material suggested that Reinaldo Azevedo, a conservative
journalist who had recently become a ferocious critic of the judicial investigations, was actually involved
with its key actors.
The courts aren’t helping things by moving very slowly in some cases (mostly when bringing cases
against politicians on the right) and extremely fast in others (when taking down PT officials). It took the
Supreme Court more than four months to decide on Eduardo Cunha’s ouster, but less than 24 hours to
prevent Lula from being appointed minister under then-president Rousseff. Government and business
elites may lack a shared vision for the future but people on the streets know exactly what they want to
“graduate” to: snap elections to restore democracy, the rule of law, social development and human rights.

(a) The international community has recently witnessed many political scandals
(b) Brazil has been performing exceptionally well in stabilizing their economy and fared better than all
previous governments on the political front
(c) It is likely that the ministers in Brazil have actually committed the crimes they are being tried for
(d) The courts in Brazil are holding some media houses accountable for negligence

(a) The carwash probe is the largest scam to hit Brazil which has taken down many politicians
(b) The political situation is not satisfactory in Brazil.
(c) The judicial bodies have only cause further trouble in the cauldron of political scandals
(d) The political watchdogs are performing their functions really well to some extent
(a) The president of Brazil is going to be jailed.
(b) The media trial by various media houses has helped in taking down the government
(c) The citizens of Brazil will take to the streets to protest against the corrupt politicians
113. The author’s statement that “The courts aren’t helping things by moving very slowly in some cases and
extremely fast in others”-

(a) The politicians that aren’t the same
(b) Brazil is heading towards a crisis
(c) Brazil racing to the bottom of developing countries
(d) Politics is a dirty game
115. The total number of deaths due to automobile accidents in Madhya Pradesh was 5762 in the last quarter.
The corresponding number for Uttar Pradesh was 7512. From this it is evident that Madhya Pradesh is a
safer place to drive than is Uttar Pradesh, as the rate of fatal automobile accidents is lower.
Which of the following would be most beneficial to verify the validity of the above claim?
(a) Comparing the accident rates of the two states with the national average.
(b) Expressing the difference between the number of automobile accidents in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar
Pradesh as a percentage of the total number of such accidents in the country.
(c) Comparing the number of deaths due to automobile accidents of each state as a percentage of the
total number of automobiles driven in that state in the given period.
(d) Comparing the death rate per thousand from automobile accidents to the death rate per thousand
from other accidents in each respective state.
116. Sujana, Ramya, Sudha, Honey & Lalita all are of different heights. They stand in a queue in the
decreasing order of their heights (tallest person first). Sujana & Ramya are neither the tallest nor the
shortest. The number of persons who are not shorter than Honey is the same as the number of persons
who are not taller than Honey. Sujana is not taller than Ramya.
Which of the following statements is definitely false?
(a) Lalita is the tallest.
(b) Honey is the 3rd tallest.
(c) Sudha is the tallest of all.
(d) The exact position of no girl can be determined.
Passage (Q.117-Q.121): China may be the new driver for globalization and it is seeking to achieve this
through the Belt and Road Initiative (BRI), also known as the 21st-century Silk Road. Formally
announced in 2013, the BRI brings together a number of pre-existing as well as novel elements to
provide a strong link between China’s domestic imperatives and its global orientation. It has thus become
a focal point for the country’s resources, institutions and ideas. The BRI is a concept with Chinese
features; it is characterized by incrementalism, inductive thinking, and experimentation. It is not a uniform
project, as different legs and sections of it differ from each other considerably – it includes a major China-
Pakistan Economic Corridor, which has a notable developmental component, for instance, and buying
and operating ports in other countries such as Greece.
Today, China is not only the second-largest economy (poised to overtake the US in the near future), but
also the engine of the world economy. It is central to global economic growth. It is thus expected that
China will assume a more significant role in shaping the future of the global economy. And the BRI is one
way it will do this. One of the main concepts that define China’s approach is production capacity
cooperation – best described as the pooling together of resources to meet each other’s needs. The goal
of this is to contribute to strengthening trade routes and supply chains, and to ensure sustainable flows of
goods and services.
To describe this complex state-market nexus in China, researchers propose the purposefully self-
contradicting term “state neoliberalism” as opposed to the Western-style “market neoliberalism”. It posits
that the party-state needs to be powerful and politically stable in order to be able to act decisively in fine-
tuning (both advancing and reversing) market flows, the scope and intensity of regulation, and to create
exceptions

(a) Only the Chinese government is acting as a neoliberal state in the international sphere
(b) The BRI is the latest project of China in their pursuit to reach to the top spot in the world
(c) China is biased towards Pakistan and is favoring them by creating a specific section for them
118. Which of the following, if true, weakens the author’s argument?

(a) China had initially planned to start the BRI initiative in 1990’s
(b) Other neighboring countries will benefit much more from the BRI than China
(c) The U.S. is trying its level best to not be bested by Chinese attempts
(d) The BRI is set to finish off and get ready for commuting not before 2025

(a) The government in China is banking on the BRI to get re-elected in the country
(b) The indigenous population has been constantly protesting against the BRI initiative and with it their
mandatory relocation
(c) The BRI is going to dramatically improve the trade of China with almost all countries
(d) Greek traders are still unsure whether they wish to increase trade with China
120. Which of the following conclusions can be properly drawn from the passage?
(a) The Chinese authorities are gradually moving away from a strict communist regime in certain areas in
a restricted sense
(b) Once the BRI is complete, China will automatically supersede U.S.
(c) Only Pakistan can stop China from growing any further
(d) International trade will collapse if China fails to construct the BRI
121. The statement “After completion of BRI, China will dominate the world trade routes” is:
122. In a row of girls facing North, Reena is 10th to the left of Pallavi, who is 21st from the right end. If Malini,
who is 17th from the left end, is fourth to the right of Reena, how many girls are there in the row?
(a) 37
(b) 41
(c) 43
(d) 49
Passage (Q.123-Q.127): Recent figures in the annual report of the International Organisation of Wine
and Vine (OIV) confirm that the world wine industry is undergoing considerable change. Long-dominant
European nations are finding being challenged by the emergence of countries, such as China, both as
producers and consumers. Globally, demand has risen slightly, to 242 million hectolitres (mhl) down from
its peak of 250mhl in 2008, but up from the low of 240mhl in 2014. And there are signs of long-term
growth. Another encouraging sign for the industry is that wine is finding new customers in countries with
large populations. A substantial market has already been established in Brazil in spite of negative 2017
economic trends, and there are great expectations for India. With these new markets often being driven
by emerging local production, the number of wine-producing countries is also increasing. The example of
Australia is most familiar, but few know the experience of countries such as Canada.
But it’s China that’s leading the industry shake-up, by virtue both of its size and determination. Wine
enjoys great symbolic value there, linked to the fact that it’s a product of the land and has strong
historical roots. It also functions as a “high class” social marker. Either way, China is now the sixth
leading consumer of wine in the world and with a new market and a government working to build the
foundations for a national wine industry; China has now the second-largest area under cultivation in the
world.
Although how we consume wine is shaped to a large extent by cultural context, knowledge of the world of
wine and techniques for analysing its sensory qualities, trends set by certain internationally known

experts also play a part. Countries with newer wine industries must therefore introduce their wines to
other nations while steadily building recognition and a kind of wine-making pedigree. This too has the
effect of stimulating international trade.
Source: https://thewire.in

(a) China is the newest member of the OIV
(b) The wine consumption is at an all-time high because of the new producers entering the market
(c) Canada is the underdog of the wine industry in terms of its production
(d) India is making exceptional leaps in the winery industry

(a) China will have the largest area under cultivation for wine in a couple of years.
(b) The wine industry is bound to take a dip in its unusual growth as per the estimated cycle
(c) The Indian market has considerable potential
(d) Countries must focus on domestic production before venturing out to partner with others
(a) The wine industry is predicted to have a projected upscale of 10% globally
(b) The new entrants in the wine industry will have to compete with established businesses from France
(c) Various Asian nations such as China and India are mulling over to a through and through ban on
alcohol to curb its abuse.
(d) Once the initial barriers are broken, it is relatively easy to expand in the wine market
126. The author’s statement “the world wine industry is undergoing considerable change” forms the:
(a) Premise that the wine industry is bound to grow even further
(b) Conclusion that the wine industry is bound to grow even further
(c) Premise that the wine industry is witnessing new entrants
(d) Conclusion that the wine industry is witnessing new entrants

(a) Wine and dine has an updated meaning
(b) Wine calls for a new world order
(c) When China calls, you answer
(d) Attention call to all wine connoisseurs
128. In the question below are given statements followed by conclusions. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
I. Some desks are chairs
II. Some chairs are pens
III. Some pens are drawers
Conclusions:
I. At least some drawers are desks
II. There is a possibility all drawers are chairs
III. No drawer is a chair
(a) Only II follows

(b) Only I and II follow
(c) Only I and either II or III follow
(d) All follow

Passage (Q.129-Q.133): North America is in the midst of a drug overdose disaster. In British Columbia,
Canada, where nearly 1,000 people died of overdose in 2016, officials have declared a public health
emergency. The possibility of opioid overdose is an unusual new threat for people who use crack, which
is a stimulant. Its consumption, either through smoking or injection, is not necessarily deadly. If misused,
though, crack can certainly cause health harms, including cuts and burns from unsafe pipes. Sharing
pipes can also transmit infectious diseases such as HIV and hepatitis (c) In the long run, frequent and
heavy crack consumption may contribute to psychological and neurological complications. Now Canadian
scientists are working on an unconventional substitution for it. Research done in Vancouver shows that
using cannabis may enable people to consume less crack.
We found that people who intentionally used cannabis to control their crack use showed a marked
decline in crack consumption, with the proportion of people reporting daily use dropping from 35% to less
than 20%. As per the study, cannabis use peaked during the first three months of follow-up, with only
occasional use of cannabis reported in the six months after that.
Other research has shown that long-term cannabis dependence might increase cocaine cravings and risk
of relapse. Rather than contradict findings from Canada, Brazil and Jamaica, these discrepancies
suggest that patterns of cannabis use and dependence, and the timing of self-medication with cannabis,
may play a role in individual outcomes. Canada’s recent move to legalise and regulate marijuana should
facilitate this work. For decades, stigma and prohibition have blocked rigorous scientific evaluation of
cannabis. Now these obstacles are beginning to disappear, enabling our team to better understand and
unlock the therapeutic potential of cannabinoids.
Source: https://theconversation.com
(a) Dealing with crack addiction is tougher than dealing with cannabis addiction
(b) Cannabis carries an unruly reputation that must be done away with to avoid pre-conceived notions
(c) The problem of crack may come in control if crack is made legal
(d) South America is still doing really well when it comes to opioid addiction
(a) Scientists may start to produce safer versions of crack to reduce fatality rate
(b) The Governments may prohibit the use of crack and further clamp down on its operations
(c) The doctors may start prescribing cannabis as part of cocaine rehab.
(d) Crack-addicts may start using cannabis to get even more high.
131. Which of the following, if true, weakens the author’s argument?

(a) The government in Canada only recently took cognizance of the opioid drug abuse issue during their
elections
(b) Credible evidence suggests that cannabis legalization drive has a big lobby behind it with large
corporations looking to make huge but guile profits.
(c) Cannabis is pretty addictive if misused and mismanaged
(d) An ounce of cannabis costs more than an ounce of crack.
132. The author’s statement that “these discrepancies suggest that patterns of cannabis use and dependence,
and the timing of self-medication with cannabis, may play a role in individual outcomes”-
133. On the basis of the information above, is cannabis a good drug?

(a) Cannabis is definitely a good drug
(b) Cannabis is definitely not a good drug
(c) Cannabis may be good dependent on its use and medical application
(d) There is not enough material to comment upon this

Directions (Q.134-Q.138): The following bar graph shows the population (in lakh) of five cities in the
years 2008 and the line graph shows the percentage of literate among them.
134. What is the number of literate people from village A in Lakhs in 2008?
(a) 18 (b) 16.5 (c) 15 (d) 17.5
135. What is the total literate population of all cities together in the year 2008?
(a) 13.94 Lakh (b) 79.3 Lakh (c) 81 Lakh (d) 48.3 Lakh
136. In which of the following cities is the population in the year 2008 is maximum iliiterate among all the
cities?
(a) B (b) A (c) D (d) C
137. What is the average number of literate population among all the cities together?
(a) 12.5 Lakh (b) 23 Lakh (c) 9.8 Lakh (d) 15.86 Lakh
138. What is the total illiterate population of all cities together in the year 2008?
(a) 24.7 Lakh (b) 18 Lakh (c) 15 Lakh (d) 25.9 Lakh

Directions (Q.139-Q.143): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
The following table represents time taken (in hours) by different pipes to fill a cistern. Some values are
missing.
139. If A and C kept open for 4 hours then A is replaced by D and kept open for 5 more hours, the tank is
fille(d) In how many hours pipe C alone can fill the cistern?
3 1 5 3
(a) 7 4 hours (b) 13 2 hours (c) 6 6 hours (d) 12 4 hours
140. Two pipes D and E are opened simultaneously to fill the cistern. After how much time should D be closed
so that E alone can fill the cistern in another20 hours?
141. If C takes half of the time taken by F to fill the cistern and F takes half of the time taken by B to fill the
cistern and all of them working together can fill the cistern in 48 hours, What is the time taken by F to fill
the cistern?
142. Two pipes A and D can fill the cistern. If they are opened on alternative hours and if pipe A is opened
first, in how many hours will the cistern be full?
(a) 24 (1/3) hours (b) 26 (3/5) hours (c) 26 (3/4) hours (d) 25 (1/2) hours
143. Three pipes A, D and F together can fill the cistern in 8 hours. Find the time taken by F alone to fill the
cistern?

Directions (Q.144-Q.148): Vitamin C tablet sell in shop at P in March is 330. Where in April at Q is 480.
At R in March total sell is 10% more than total sell in march at P. Total sell at R in March and April is 783.
Average sell at Q is 400. And sell in April at P is 25% more than the sell in March at Q. Total sell in March
at P, Q, R and T is 1324 And total sell in April 25% more than in March at all the shop
144. Total sell of P is what percentage of total sell of Q in both months?

(a) 91.34 (b) 89.99 (c) 91.25 (d) 95.55
145. What is average sell in April all the shop together?

(a) 413.75 (b) 411.23 (c) 422.1 (d) 456.7
146. What is ratio of total sell in R to the T in both month?

(a) 89:79 (b) 78:79 (c) 23:79 (d) 87:74
147. In June at P 20% and at Q 25% sell increase than April. Then what is total sell in June at P and Q?
(a) 1236 (b) 1080 (c) 1452 (d) 2596
148. In P, per piece price is Rs 5 where in R is Rs 4. What is total amount of vitamin C sell in March in these
two shop?
(a) 3102 (b) 2345 (c) 6545 (d) 4564

Directions (Q.149-Q.150): These questions are based on the graph given below, which shows the
number of deaths due to fire accidents in the summer of 1992.
30th Mar to 11th Apr 12th Apr to 15th Apr 16th Apr to 23rd Apr
24th Apr to 27th Apr 28th Apr to 5th May 6th May to 8th May
9th May to 12th May
170
160
150
140
130
120
100
Number of deaths
149. The average number of deaths per day during the given period is
(a) 22.04 (b) 22.5 (c) 23.09 (d) 21.08
150. Out of the total deaths from 30th March to 8th May, if 22% occurred in place X and 10% of them are
because of cigarettes, then the number of fire accidents for the given period in place X because of
cigarettes is approximately.
(a) 20 (b) 19 (c) 22 (d) 23

Notes:


MOCK CLAT #28
Candidate Name : _________________

Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
prosecution.
Centre/Hall.
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): Probably, if I had lately left a good home and kind parents, this would have been the
hour when I should most keenly have regretted the separation; that wind would then have saddened my
heart; this obscure chaos would have disturbed my peace! as it was, I derived from both a strange
excitement, and reckless and feverish, I wished the wind to howl more wildly, the gloom to deepen to
darkness, and the confusion to rise to clamour.
Jumping over forms, and creeping under tables, I made my way to one of the fire-places; there, kneeling
by the high wire fender, I found Burns, absorbed, silent, abstracted from all round her by the
companionship of a book, which she read by the dim glare of the embers.
And in five minutes more she shut it up. I was glad of this.
"Do you come a long way from here?"
"I come from a place on the borders of Scotland."
"Will you ever go back?"
"I hope so; but nobody can be sure of the future."
"You must wish to leave Lowood?"
"No! why should I? I was sent to Lowood to get an education; and it would be of no use going away until I
have attained that object."
"But that teacher, Miss Scatcherd, is so cruel to you?"
"Cruel? Not at all! She is severe: she dislikes my faults."
"And if I were in your place I should dislike her; I should resist her."
"Probably you would do nothing of the sort: but if you did, Mr. Brocklehurst would expel you from the
school; that would be a great grief to your relations. It is far better to endure patiently a smart which
nobody feels but yourself, than to commit a hasty action whose evil consequences will extend to all
connected with you; and besides, the Bible bids us return good for evil."
"But then it seems disgraceful to be flogged, and to be sent to stand in the middle of a room full of
people; I could not bear it."
"Yet it would be your duty to bear it, if you could not avoid it: it is weak and silly to say you cannot bear
what it is your fate to be required to bear."
I heard her with wonder: I could not comprehend this doctrine of endurance; and still less could I
understand or sympathise with the forbearance she expressed for her chastiser. Still I felt that Helen
Burns considered things by a light invisible to my eyes. I suspected she might be right and I wrong; but I
would not ponder the matter deeply; like Felix, I put it off to a more convenient season.
(Source: Excerpt from Jane Eyre by Charlotte Bronte

https://www.shmoop.com/jane-eyre/volume-1-chapter-6-full-text-3.html)
1. Which of the following can we conclude about the narrator?

(a) She was separated from her good home and family
(b) She is not happy with the place she is in and would resist the treatment if she could.
(c) The place where she is at, is new to her.
2. What does “both” refer to in “I derived from both a strange excitement”?

(a) good home and kind parents
(b) reckless and feverish
(c) gloom and clamour
(d) wind and obscure chaos

3. “It is far better to endure patiently a smart which nobody feels but yourself, than to commit a hasty action
whose evil consequences will extend to all connected with you” On the basis of the quote mentioned
above, which of the following statements is Burns most likely to agree with?
(a) Patience is the key to all matters of the ego.
(b) It is better that one suffers than five.
(c) When one acts, he or she is acting for all.
(d) No suffering is worse than a disgrace to one’s person.
4. Who is the narrator calling “her chastiser”?

(a) Mr. Brocklehurst (b) Miss Scatcherd
(c) Lowood (d) Felix
5. What did the narrator mean when she said “Helen Burns considered things by a light invisible to my
eyes”?
(a) She does not see what Helen Burns can see.
(b) She is unable to understand Helen Burns perspective on the issue.
(c) She thinks Helen Burns is wrong in her views.
Passage (Q.6-Q.10): One Hundred Years of Solitude begins with: “Many years later, as he faced the
firing squad, Colonel Aureliano Buendía was to remember that distant afternoon when his father took him
to discover ice.”
“Time,” my teacher at a writing course said, “goes in one direction. Forward, not back.” She continued,
“We only have to look at the seasons to be reminded of that.” And then it occurred to me. “Time is
different for us in the tropics.” García Márquez was from the tropics, like me.
In a temperate climate, the world is constantly shifting before your eyes: a constant reminder of the
passing of time. But it isn’t so everywhere. Consider where I come from, there is no lengthening and
shortening of the day: either it is day or night. There’s no widespread shedding of leaves, no sense of
death or rebirth. The only real variation is the rain. For half of the year, it is very dry, for the other, very
rainy. And then, of course, at our perimeter, is the sea, coming in, then going out. Thus our rhythm is a
simple never-ending one-two like ticking of a metronome: in-out, dry-wet, or day-night. Our landscape
suggests the never-endingness of time.
‘Many years later’ connects two points in time. Point X, in the past, and the time many years later, Y. The
phrase “many years later” is not in itself a stroke of genius. ‘when he was to face the firing squad’—here’s
where it gets crazy as the opening line of a novel presents us with knowledge of something which is
usually unknowable, the moment of one’s own death. Immediately, we move into the slightly surreal
territory of omniscience.
Next, we come to the ‘was to remember’. Where are we in time? Are we at X or Y? The moment when
the character does the remembering happens at time Y, but was to remember seems to suspend us
outside time altogether.
At the end of the sentence, we find the X. The fact that it is the father taking the son to “discover”
something hints at something ancient, something further past even than the “distant afternoon,” and gives
the impression of knowledge of previous generations rippling through time.
All this is captured in this single elegant sentence, this brief moment when the character is able to see
the whole stretch of his life, from end to end. García Márquez manages to present an alternative notion of
time. He writes as if there were a kind of parity to past and future, almost as if there were no forward
arrow of time at all.
(Source: https://lithub.com/on-the-iconic-first-line-of-one-hundred-years-of-solitude/)

6. What was so peculiar about the opening line of One Hundred Years of Solitude that stuck out to the
author?
(a) The very first sentence of the novel throws the reader into quite an emotionally shocking situation
where he is side by side the character facing a firing squad.
(b) The line presents time in a manner peculiar to one part of the world.
(c) The line suggests passing of time using the symbolism of ice and summer, even though the
combination of ice and summer is unusual.
7. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

(a) A writer’s conceptions and expressions depend on the landscape he or she comes from.
(b) García Márquez is a genius and does not conform to rules of writing.
(c) The transient nature of the world is something that cannot be escaped
(d) That sentence is García Márquez’s greatest work.
8. Why does the author compare the tropics to a ‘never ending ticking of a metronome’?
(1) The tropics are known for their connection to rhythm and music
(2) There is no significant change in the environment akin to the seasonal changes in temperate climates
(3) The tropics have a constant one-two environmental rhythm
(a) 1 and 2. (b) 2 and 3. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1,2 and 3
9. Why, according to the author, is the usage of the word “discover’ significant?
(a) It seems to suggest the exploration of something older than would otherwise have been anticipated.
(b) It lets the reader know that something as common as ice is unknown to the character.
(c) The word discover is a mistranslation from the original Spanish expression, and yet works quite well
to add meaning to the sentence.
10. Which of the following words from the passage mean the same as “dreamlike”?
(a) elegant (b) parity (c) surreal (d) omniscience
Passage (Q.11-Q.16): It was Monday and my grandmother was sitting by the fire. Today her Sunday
skirt was one layer closer to her person, while the one that had basked in the warmth of her skin on
Sunday swathed her hips in Monday gloom. She coaxed the first cooked potato out of the ashes with her
branch and gazed wide-eyed across the field toward the nearby horizon, sectioned by telegraph poles
and the brickworks chimney.
Three men were darting between the poles, they made for the chimney, then round in front, then one
doubled back. Short and wide he seemed, he took a fresh start and made it across the brickyard, the
other two, long and thin, just behind him. Short and Wide seemed to be in more of a hurry than Long and
Thin. Suddenly they were gone and the little one disappeared too, behind the horizon, in the middle of his
jump from the chimney.
Taking advantage of the intermission, my grandmother tried to spit another potato, but missed it.
Because Short and Wide climbed up over the horizon as if it were a fence. He was still in a hurry. My
grandmother missed her potato again; because it’s not every day that you see this kind of thing. Three
full-grown men, though they hadn’t grown in exactly the same directions, hopping around telegraph
poles, leaping through the field that Vincent had plowed two days before.
Then all three of them disappeared into the narrow lane and my grandmother ventured to spit another
potato, which by this time was almost cold. They must be from the brickworks, she thought if she thought
anything. She was still chewing with a circular motion when one of them jumped out of the lane, wild eyes
over a black mustache, reached the fire in two jumps. He hit his knees, panting, his whole face a tremble.
He ventured to crawl closer, towards my grandmother’s boots, peering up at her like a little animal.
Heaving a great sigh, which made her stop chewing on her potato, my grandmother lifted high all her four
skirts, high enough so that Short and Wide, who was not from the brickworks, could crawl underneath. All
was as still as on the first day of Creation or the last; and my grandmother smoothed down her

uppermost skirt neatly and sensibly over the second one; she scarcely felt him under her fourth skirt, and
her third skirt wasn’t even aware that there was anything new and unusual next to her skin. What else
could she have done? Then Long and Thin popped out of the lane. They were indeed long and thin and
they wore the uniform of the rural constabulary.
(Excerpt from The Tin Drum by Günter Grass.

Source: https://www.nobelprize.org/prizes/literature/1999/grass/prose/)
11. How many characters in total appear in this extract?

(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 5
12. Narrator’s grandmother seems to wear skirts in a unique manner. Which of the following can be
ascertained as true about the same?
1. She has one skirt for each day of the week, as known through the expression “her Sunday skirt”.
2. She wore multiple skirts at the same time.
3. There was a cyclic pattern to her wardrobe.
4. She must be in regular habit of hiding things under her skirt.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
13. The short and wide man disappeared and emerged several times from different places. Which of the
following is not one of the places he disappeared in?
(a) Behind the horizon (b) Into the chimney
(c) Into the narrow lane (d) Under grandmother’s skirt
14. How is grandmother’s response to the scene significant for the reader?
(a) She barely reciprocates the chaos of the scene with mild distant interest. It makes the incident seem
insignificant and theatrical.
(b) It is only through grandmother’s eyes that the reader is able to see the scene. She watches keenly
and eagerly and plays an active role in helping the man.
15. Which of the following words from the passage mean the same as “put a long, thin stick through
something in order to hold”?
(a) peer (b) section (c) spit (d) coax
16. Which of the following is the exact opposite to word ‘Gloom’?

(a) Sadness (b) Shadow (c) Bright (d) Melancholic
Passage (Q.17-Q.22): Among other things, in The Great Derangement, Amitav Ghosh notes, medieval
texts across language and region have a wide-ranging engagement with nature. The illustrations aren’t
static accessories; they are essential to the ‘grammar’ of these texts.
Ghosh’s Jungle Nama is an illustrated verse retelling of a Sunderban legend of the forest deity, Bon Bibi.
The pre-existing versions of the story call it Bon Bibi Johuranama.
Jungle Nama introduces us to a cunning merchant who enlists his nephew in a honey-gathering mission
into the Sunderban mangrove forest. Led by greed, he ends up invading the territory of a “mighty spirit
feared by all under the sky” who “preyed on humans in a tiger avatar”. The beautiful, idiosyncratic
illustrations of the book subtly drive home the story’s finer points.
Ghosh says: “Modern literature has become completely logocentric. If you look at the Persian epics or
even something like Charles Dickens’ serialised novels, the images that they use are very distinctive.
They add a dimension to the text that cannot be achieved by words alone. I wanted Jungle Nama to tap
into those modes of creation that were not completely bound up with words.”

In a interview, Ghosh describes how premodern texts like the Johuranama have been on his mind since
the writing of The Great Derangement. “When I wrote The Great Derangement, I was thinking about a lot
of premodern texts from around the world that seemed to share certain concerns about natural resources
and human greed. To my mind, their understanding of these issues was often more humane and
sophisticated than books written hundreds of years afterwards.”
Jungle Nama, like the existing Johuranamas, is written in the form of an epic poem in dwipodi-payar, the
‘two-footed’ metre used in Bengali folk literature over hundreds of years. The metre is designed for
chants and songs, meant to be read aloud. Ghosh points out that reading or chanting these works was a
community experience. “Reading alone and silently only started in 18th century Europe and has now
become universal to the point where people subconsciously associate these acts with solitude.”
Moreover, working your ideas into verse was the linguistic equivalent of a preservative; it made sure that
the core of your message survived transport and localised variations. As Ghosh says, “Verse is a way of
harnessing the power of language. Because verse makes you concentrate what you’re saying. It makes
you channel your message through very rigorous forms of expression and in doing so, makes it
memorable.”
Jungle Nama ends with a couplet that encapsulates the book’s ecological message perfectly: “A world of
endless appetite is a world possessed, is what your munshi’s learned, by way of this quest.”
(Source:https://www.thehindu.com/books/modern-literature-has-become-completely-logocentric-amitav-
ghosh/article34221754.ece)
17. Which of the following seems to be the central point of discussion in the passage?
(a) The legend of the Sunderban diety Bon Bibi.
(b) Amitav Ghosh’s rendition of Bon Bibi’s tale.
(c) The evolution of literature from pre-modern times to now.
(d) Amitav Ghosh’s concerns for the environment from his book ‘The Great Derangement’
18. What did Ghosh mean when he called a verse a ‘linguistic equivalent of a preservative’?
(a) Dwipodi-payar, the ‘two-footed’ metre, has been in use since time immemorial in Bengali literature
(b) Before the use of verses in literature, all literary affairs were a community experience where reciting
to each other was the norm.
(c) Literature composed in verses have a way of surviving the test of travel.
19. How, according to the passage, was pre-modern literature different from modern literature?
(1) Illustrations were a major contributor to the value of the work in pre-modern times.
(2) Modern literature doesn’t engage with legends and folklore as much as it was done in pre-modern
times.
(3) Pre-modern literature engaged with nature in a profound way.
(a) 1 and 2. (b) 2 and 3. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1,2 and 3
20. Which of the following cannot be concluded about Amitav Ghosh from the reading of this passage?
(a) Ecological themes are important to him in his work.
(b) He has made significant contribution to history of literature through his study.
(c) He has authored at least two books.
(d) He has faith in music as a literary device.
21. Which of the following words from the passage mean the same as “developed to a high degree of
complexity”?
(a) Logocentric (b) Idiosyncratic (c) Modern (d) Sophisticated

22. What is the meaning of the term ‘encapsulate’ used in the above passage?
(a) Sum up (b) Conclude (c) Surround (d) All of the above
Passage (Q.23-Q.28): I was born a small city (medium by Spanish standards) called Las Palmas
de Gran Canaria, the Canary Islands, a group of islands that belong to Spain but are
geographically located very close to the coast of northwestern Africa.
People have always simply called this place Las Palmas, a name well known in Sindhi circles as it is one
of the enclaves around the world where a sizeable Sindhi diaspora somehow ended up settling, and with
one of the biggest Indian communities in Spain. I don’t think I’d be wrong if I said that any Sindhi around
the globe has probably at some point had a relative, friend or acquaintance living in Spain, and good
chances are that that person was living in Las Palmas.
Surprisingly, over 95% of Indians here are Sindhis and we now have even third and fourth generation
Sindhis here; however, statistics may not really portray the true picture of how many Sindhis or Indians
live in Spain or the Canaries, as a majority have obtained Spanish citizenship, or were even born
Spanish by law if their parents had already nationalised themselves beforehand.
My identity has a lot to do with my origins; with what and who I feel I am; with where I come from; with to
where I feel a sense of belonging. Perhaps one of the reasons for this is because I was born and raised
in a country and culture-of-the-land totally different to that of my parents’.
Among people of my generation or circumstances, however, it may not necessarily be same; weight of
their or their parents’ origin in their identities can be weaker or stronger. Some people feel closer to the
land where they have been born and raised, others feel closer to their parent’s places of origin. And
some, like me, are somewhere in the middle, in between two poles, where the shades of grey are infinite
yet equally valid.
Today, being in the grey areas is a good feeling but it wasn’t so easy when I was a teenager and into my
early twenties to figure out where I actually belonged. I felt divided between India and Spain. Sometimes I
even had these crazy passing thoughts like, “If there was a war between India and Spain, which side
would I be on?” or “Which side would I support in a hockey or football match between Spain and India?”
Questions I could not answer.
23. Choose the option representing the correct order of omitted prepositions in the bold and underlined
sentence of the passage.
(a) At, in (b) In, in (c) In, at (d) At, at

(a) Describing the life of almost every Sindhi kid growing up with their parents in a foreign land.
(b) Portraying the importance of paying heed to one’s culture and heritage.
(c) Portraying deep emotional turmoils the author went through while being born and brought up in a
Sindhi household abroad.
25. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct according to the passage?
Statement 1: The author is still not content with how he feels about his identity.
Statement 2: Statistics can’t portray the true picture of how many Sindhis or Indians live in Spain or the
Canaries, as a majority have obtained Spanish citizenship.
(a) Statement 1 (b) Statement 2 (c) Both (d) Neither statement 1 nor 2.
26. Which of the following options represents the correct order of articles in the italicized sentence of the
passage?
(a) the, a (b) a, the (c) a, the, the (d) the, the

27. ‘And some, like me, are somewhere in the middle, in between two poles, where the shades of grey are
infinite yet equally valid.’
Which of the following literary devices has been used in the above sentence?
(a) Dramatic Irony (b) Extended Metaphor
(c) Allegory (d) Anachronism
28. What is the meaning of the word ‘Diaspora’ used in the passage?
(a) A group of people from one country, spreading into another.
(b) A group of natives who are in minority in their own original country.
(c) A group of indigenous tribes.

Passage (Q.29-Q.33): “From our point of view, we encourage both Russia and the United States to use
these next five years to negotiate further reductions in their nuclear weapons, as well as new agreements
that can address the emerging nuclear weapons challenges of our time and make the world a better
place,” he told a daily press briefing.
The spokesman expressed the hope that more countries that have nuclear weapons will join nuclear
disarmament efforts.
“It is clear that the more countries that have nuclear weapons engage in disarmament talks and move
towards a world free of nuclear weapons, the better we will all be,” he said.
The New Treaty, signed in April 2010 by the US and Russia, limits the number of deployed strategic
nuclear warheads to 1,550 and deployed missiles and bombers to 700 for each country.
The US and Russia on Wednesday officially announced a five-year extension of the treaty, the maximum
period allowed by the treaty, two days before expiration.
The former US administration led by Donald Trump tried to conclude a shorter extension of the treaty last
year after rounds of negotiation with Russia. But the two sides failed to finalize a formal agreement.
Immediately after taking office, US President Joe Biden proposed a full five-year extension, a move
welcomed by the Kremlin.
29. Which treaty is being discussed in the above passage?

(a) STAR (b) TARS (c) START (d) RATS
30. Which of the following statements is not correct about the treaty?
(a) It entered into force on 5th February, 2011.
(b) It is a successor to the START framework of 1991 (at the end of the Cold War) that limited both sides
to 1,600 strategic delivery vehicles and 6,000 warheads.
(c) It continues the bipartisan process of verifiably reducing U.S. and Russian strategic nuclear arsenals
by limiting both sides to 700 strategic launchers and 1,550 operational warheads.
(d) It will lapse in February 2022 unless extended for a five-year period.
31. This step by Russia is a welcome move after suspension of the Intermediate-Range Nuclear Force
Treaty (INF Treaty) in 2019 and withdrawal of USA and Russia from which treaty?
(a) Strategic Offensive Reductions Treaty
(b) Open Skies Treaty
(c) UN Arms Treaty
(d) START II Treaty
32. The term ‘strategic offensive arms’ applies to nuclear warheads deployed by
(a) Strategic Nuclear Delivery Vehicles (b) Special Atomic Demolition Munition
(c) Hypersonic Glide Vehicles (d) Medium Atomic Demolition Munition
33. Consider following statement about New treaty

I At the United Nation’s virtual meeting, the President of Russia hailed the decision to extend the treaty
as “a step in the right direction,” but also warned about the rising global rivalries and threats of new
conflicts.
II The pact’s extension doesn’t require congressional approval in the USA, but Russian lawmakers
must ratify the move and its President has to sign the relevant Bill into law.
Which of the following statement is/are true?

Passage (Q.34-Q.38): The treaty, due to its very provisions, did not find much support from the P-5
countries of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) despite being party to the Nuclear Non-
Proliferation Treaty (NPT). This is since it prevents countries from participating in any nuclear weapons-
related activities, including development, testing, possession, stockpile, use, or threat of use of nuclear
weapons.
India had refused to be a party to the talks, which concluded in New York on 7 July 2017, when the treaty
was being negotiated at the UN. Earlier in March that year, New Delhi had abstained on this resolution
and provided a detailed ‘Explanation of Vote’. Further, India expressed its position on the issue of its non-
participation in these negotiations at a Plenary of the Conference on Disarmament, also held in March
2017.
However, it was due to Honduras that the treaty finally came into effect as it completed the required 50
ratifications in October 2020.
34. Which treaty is being discussed in the above passage?

(a) Anti-Nuclear Weapons Treaty (b) Humanity Against Nuclear Treaty
(c) Prohibition of Nuclear Weapon (d) Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty\
35. Which of the following statements are not correct about the Treaty discussed in the above passage?
(a) India remains committed to the policy of No First Use (NFU) against nuclear weapon states and non-
use against non-nuclear-weapon states.
(b) India is a key partner in global efforts towards disarmament and strengthening the non-proliferation
order.
(c) India believes that nuclear disarmament can be achieved through a step-by-step process
underwritten by a universal commitment and an agreed multilateral framework after meaningful
dialogues among all States possessing nuclear weapons, for building trust and confidence.
(d) However, India didn’t show its support to the commencement of negotiations on a “comprehensive
Nuclear Weapons Convention in the Conference on Disarmament”. It is the only multilateral
disarmament negotiating forum that works on the basis of consensus.
36. Consider the following statement about the Treaty

I The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) had approved the “Treaty on the Prohibition of
Nuclear Weapons” in the year 2017.
II The treaty was supported by the NATO alliance as well.
(a) Only II (b) Only I (c) Both I and II (d) None of these
37. Which of the following country is not the part of The recognized “Nuclear weapon States”
(a) USA (b) France (c) North Korea (d) China
38. Which of the following is a proposed international agreement that prohibits the production of two main
components of nuclear weapons: highly-enriched Uranium and Plutonium?
(a) Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty
(b) Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons
(c) Comprehensive Nuclear Weapons Convention
(d) Fissile Material Cut-off Treaty

Passage (Q.39-Q.43): The final version of the must-pass annual defense policy bill unveiled Thursday
mandates the U.S. president sanction [1] for its acquisition of the S-400 air missile defense system.
Though President Donald Trump has held off sanctioning [1] for the purchase under the 2017 Act, the
defense bill would order that five or more sanctions under the Act be imposed within 30 days.
The duty would fall to the Trump administration unless the bill is signed after next week. Otherwise it
would fall to President-elect Joe Biden, who is due to be inaugurated Jan. 20.
NATO says the S-400s pose a threat to the military alliance and particularly endanger the technical
secrets of the F-35 aircraft.
The language, sought by Democrats and the Republican chairman of the Senate Foreign Relations
Committee, Sen. Jim Risch, would determinethat [1] $2.5 billion purchase of the S-400 constitutes a
“significant transaction” under the ACT, which offers a range of sanctions against any nation procuring a
major defense article from Russia.
39. Which Act is being discussed in the above passage?

(a) CAASAT (b) CAATAS (c) CAATSA (d) CAAATS
40. Which of these has been replaced by [1] in the above passage?
(a) Iran (b) Iraq (c) Turkey (d) Solvenia
41. Which of the following statement is not correct about the Sanction?
(a) Sanctions were imposed on country’s main defence procurement agency, the Presidency of Defense
Industries (SSB).
(b) These sanctions comprise a ban on granting specific U.S. export licenses and authorisations for any
goods or technology.
(c) Also, a ban on loans or credits by U.S. financial institutions totaling more than 10 million USD in any
15-month period.
(d) A ban on U.S. Export-Import Bank assistance for exports and mandated U.S. opposition to loans by
international financial organisations to SSB.
42. How many types of Sanctions does the Act contains?

(a) 14 (b) 12 (c) 10 (d) 15
43. The Act was Enacted in 2017, it is a US federal law that imposed sanctions on which of the following
Country
(a) Iran (b) North Korea (c) Russia (d) All of the above
Passage (Q.44-Q.48): Approximately two years after country passed its controversial nation state law,
the country’s Supreme Court assembled on Tuesday this week for a special session to hear a petition by
citizens and rights groups asking for the scrapping of this law. The petition asks for a declaration that
articles in this law are unconstitutional, specifically those pertaining to Country’s official language and
land allocation laws, which petitioners claim are discriminatory towards non-Jewish citizens.
It has been a tumultuous year for country’s President Benjamin Netanyahu’s government and for the
leader himself. Country is scheduled to hold its fourth elections in two years after the country’s two main
parties in its unity government failed to meet a deadline in a dispute over government budgets.
In the midst of this, Netanyahu, who is on trial for corruption, has been aiming for a sixth term in the
country’s highest office, while simultaneously facing mass protests this year from citizens calling for his
resignation. The coronavirus pandemic has exacerbated the leader’s problems, with protesters also
accusing him of mishandling the outbreak.
44. Which country is being discussed in the above passage?

(a) Turkey (b) Iran (c) Kazakhstan (d) Israel

45. Which of the following statement is not correct about the legislation?
(a) Lays down that Israel, with the ‘whole and united’ Jerusalem as its ‘capital’ is the historic homeland of
the Islamic people and they have an exclusive right to national self-determination in it.
(b) Defines the promotion, encouragement, establishment and consolidation of Jewish communities as
being in the national interest.
(c) Stripping Arabic, the first language of 1.8 million citizens, of its national language status and only
granting it a ‘special status’ while making Hebrew the country’s national language.
(d) None of these
46. In which year, the six-day war took place between Israel and Palestine?
(a) 1967 (b) 1970 (c) 1979 (d) 1975
47. How many Constitutional laws are there in the Country?

(a) Twelve (b) Thirteen (c) Fourteen (d) Fifteen
48. In which year the law was enacted?

(a) 2016 (b) 2017 (c) 2018 (d) 2019
Passage (Q.49-Q.53): Mt. Everest, the highest mountain above sea level on Earth, has seen a revision
in its height, which makes it even higher than before. The joint announcement by China and Nepal, who
had previously disagreed on the actual height of the peak, came on Tuesday. Interestingly, both nations
agreed on one point in that they had pegged the height of Mt. Everest to be higher than the past recorded
measurements.
Foreign ministers of China and Nepal - Wang Yi and Pradeep Gyawali, respectively - had simultaneously
pressed buttons during a virtual conference, post which the new measurement was displayed on the
screens.
Surveyors from Nepal had measured the peak back in 2019, with Chinese surveyors also scaling the
mountain in 2020. The unanimous agreement on the current figure was based on these readings.
After a major earthquake hit Nepal in 2015, there had been debates regarding the height of the mountain.
The natural calamity that had destroyed about a million structures in Nepal and caused 9,000 fatalities,
was also believed to have shrunk Mt. Everest owing to an avalanche on the mountain, which also took 19
lives.
49. Nepal and China have announced the revised height of Mount Everest as
(a) 8,844.66 metres (b) 8,848.76 metres
(c) 8,848.86 metres (d) 8,846.96 metres
50. By which of the following name does Everest is known in Nepal

(a) Annapurna Himal (b) Sagarmatha Himal
(c) Lhotse Himal (d) Makalu Himal
51. In which year the first survey of Everest was carried out
(a) 1847 (b) 1947 (c) 1858 (d) 1958
52. It was first scaled in 1953 by the Indian-Nepalese Tenzing Norgay and New Zealander
(a) Mark Woodward (b) Mike Roberts
(c) Ang Karma Sherpa (d) Edmund Hillary
53. Which Country’s government provided Global Navigation satellite and trained technicians to Nepal to
measure the mountain?
(a) India (b) Australia (c) New Zealand (d) France

Passage (Q.54-Q.58): President Ram Nath Kovind on Sunday, March 28, gave his assent to the GNCTD
Bill (Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Bill), 2021, which vests more power
in the hands of Delhi's Lieutenant Governor (L-G). It accords primacy to the national capital's L-G over
the elected government.The Centre announced about the presidential assent to the GNCTD Bill, 2021 via
a gazette notification. As per the legislation, the "government" in Delhi means the "Lieutenant Governor"
and the city government will now have to seek L-G's opinion before taking any executive decision. The
GNCTD Bill was passed in the Lok Sabha on March 22 and the Rajya Sabha on March 24.Union Minister
G Kishan Reddy said the amendments would lead to transparency and clarity in governance in the NCT
of Delhi and enhance public accountability.Explaining the rationale behind the bill, he said the
amendments had been brought in to remove ambiguities in the existing Act.He stressed that changes in
the law have been sought in the spirit of what has been said in a Supreme Court judgment.Reddy said
there was no political angle, and the amendments are on "technical" grounds."The proposed bill does not
curtail in any manner any of the powers enjoyed by the government of NCT Delhi which are already
provided in the Constitution," he said.
Source: Excerpt from Business Today (dated 29 March 2021).
54. When was Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act introduced?
(a) 1995 (b) 1992 (c) 1991 (d) 1990
55. The Elected Government will now seek the opinion of Lieutenant General for any
(a) Legislative action. (b) Executive action.
(c) Administrative Action. (d) None of the above.
56. Which amendment made Delhi, a Union Territory with an elected Legislative Assembly?
(a) 69th Amendment (b) 70th Amendment
(c) 63rd Amendment (d) 64th Amendment
57. Which of the following is not a Union Territory with a Legislative Assembly?
(a) National Capital Territory of Delhi
(b) Puducherry
(c) Ladakh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
58. Which of the following statements are incorrect about the NCT of Delhi (Amendment) Bill-
(a) The bill is against the federalism. It gives more powers to the Centre.
(b) The Bill aims to hand over the accountability of Delhi to an elected, centrally appointed government
functionary.
(c) The Bill gives more power to the directly appointed administrators.
(d) The Bill is against the provisions of Representative Democracy.

Passage (Q.59-Q.63): PM Modi’s first foreign visit after the COVID-19 pandemic to Bangladesh is,
therefore, a reiteration of his government’s focus on the neighbourhood. Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur
Rahman gave the leaders of the subcontinent a worldview based on the principle of equitable distribution
of wealth and resources as well as development at the grassroots. This theme is close to Modi’s heart as
well.The neighbours came together to ink the historic Land Boundary Agreement in 2015. Rahman
dreamed of a united Bay of Bengal, which more than four decades after his martyrdom has been made
possible by his daughter, Bangladesh Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina, and India’s Prime Minister Narendra
Modi.As Bangladesh celebrates two momentous events — 50 years of its independence, and the
centenary of Bangabandhu — PM Modi’s visit to Dhaka, that concluded last week, assumes great
significance. The visit is not just an acknowledgement of the sacrifices made by the people in both
countries to gain freedom, but also a commitment to advance the visionary worldview of Bangabandhu. It
is an endeavour to realise his dreams for the subcontinent. Connectivity is the core principle of PM Modi’s
outreach to Bangladesh. It will energise people-to-people contact. India restored four out of the six pre-
1965 cross-border rail links with Bangladesh and the remaining two shall be completed soon. The
development of three other rail links is also on the anvil.
Source: Excerpt from The Indian Express, written by Anil Baluni (dated 29 March 2021)
59. The Father of the Nation of Bangladesh Sheikh Mujibur Rahman is awarded with-
(a) Bhagwan Mahavir World Peace
(b) Indira Gandhi Award for National Integration
(c) Gandhi Peace Prize
(d) Indira Gandhi Prize
60. Which day will be recognised as MaitriDiwas?

(a) 6th December (b) 5th September (c) 17th February (d) 6th January
61. How many common rivers does India and Bangladesh share?
(a) 53 (b) 50 (c) 6 (d) 54
62. Which body will Bangladesh assume its chairmanship for working towards Maritime Safety and Security
in 2021?
(a) Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)
(b) Baltic and International Maritime Council (BIMCO)
(c) International Maritime Organisation (IMO)
(d) International Labour Organisation (ILO)
63. What is the total length of India-Bangladesh border?

(a) 4000 km (b) 4068 km (c) 4096.70 km (d) 4018.50 km

Passage (Q.64-Q.67):Necessity as a defence is defined under section 81 in Indian Penal Code as:
“Act likely to cause harm, but done without criminal intent, and to prevent other harm. Nothing is an
offence merely by reason of its being done with the knowledge that it is likely to cause harm, if it be done
without any criminal intention to cause harm, and in good faith for the purpose of preventing or avoiding
other harm to person or property.”
The explanation of the same is that it is a question of fact in such a case whether the harm to be
prevented or avoided was of such a nature and so imminent as to justify or excuse the risk of doing the
act with the knowledge that it was likely to cause harm.
The defence of necessity requires the defendant to prove on his part that the unlawful act committed by
him satisfies the following elements:
 It was not a result of his own negligence;
 S/he acted to avoid a significant risk of harm;
 No other alternative lawful means were available;
 Harm avoided was greater than the harm which resulted due to his act;
 The harm was imminent and the act was reasonable.
[Extracted with revisions from ‘Necessity – public and private’ by Shantanu Rathore
https://www.lawctopus.com/academike/necessity-public-and-private/]
64. Ram Lorry Services was a company which provided transport services for goods all over the country.
Pyare Lal was a truck driver employed with Ram Lorry Services and he was transporting a consignment
of bananas from Kerala to Punjab. The shelf life of bananas is very limited and so they must reach the
seller within 10 days of being dispatched. Pyare Lal was scheduled to make a timely delivery but on the
way he encountered a large traffic jam. All roads from Haryana onwards were blocked due to a religious
procession. Since the bananas would have become rotten by the time Pyare Lal reached Punjab, he
decided to sell the consignment to the nearest seller he could find in Haryana. When his employer came
to know he got angry at Pyare Lal because the seller in Punjab was scheduled to get the consignment
and he would've paid a higher price. Can Pyare Lal take the plea of necessity?
(a) Yes, because it was reasonable and necessary to sell the consignment of bananas to save them from
getting rotten
(b) Yes, because the traffic jam was long and would have wasted a lot of time
(c) No, because there was no imminent risk to the consignment if the bananas were not sold
(d) No, because there was a contract to sell the bananas only to the seller in Punjab
65. Shyam Lal was also a truck driver employed by Ram Lorry Services. He was carrying a consignment of
winter clothes from Uttar Pradesh to Srinagar. On the way he encountered a cold weather storm and as a
result, the temperature suddenly dropped to minus degrees. When he was about to reach the retailer
who had contracted to buy the winter clothes, Shyam Lal saw several poor and destitute people sitting on
the road, many of whom were women and children. Shyam Lal decided to distribute half of the winter
clothes to them. In doing so, he violated the contract with the retailer. Can Shyam Lal take the defence of
necessity to justify his acts?
(a) Yes, because he distributed the clothes in good faith without any criminal intention
(b) Yes, because the harm avoided by distributing warm clothes to the needy was greater than the harm
which resulted to the contracting parties due to his act
(c) No, because it was neither necessary nor reasonable to distribute clothes which had already been
contracted to someone else due to a change in temperature
(d) No because although the harm was imminent due to the cold weather, the act of distributing half of
the consignment of winter clothes for free was reasonable

66. A ship was carrying passengers on board as well a batch of COVID-19 vaccines. Before reaching its
destination, the ship had a minor accident and started to sink. In order to stop it from sinking, it was
important to reduce some of the load it was carrying otherwise everyone on board could have died. The
captain decided to unload the precious COVID-19 vaccines off the ship by throwing large crates of the
vaccines into open sea. This caused a loss of tremendous amount of money, resources and already
limited vaccines along with causing environmental damage. However, with this move the ship finally
became light enough to restart the engine and get it moving to reach the nearest port. Can the captain
take the defence of necessity?
(a) Yes, because it was necessary to throw the vaccines into water even though the harm was not
imminent in this case
(b) Yes, because the harm to human lives was greater than the harm which resulted as a consequence
of throwing the vaccines into water
(c) No, because the harm to be prevented was not of such a nature and so imminent as to justify the
unloading of precious vaccines
(d) No, because alternative lawful means were available and he could have waited for rescue ships to
save all the passengers as well as the vaccines
67. Lakhan lived in a hut next to a big mansion which had an attached well. The owner of the well did not
allow anyone to step foot on his property. One day, Lakhan’s hut caught on fire and all his valuable and
precious material was inside. The nearby well in the mansion was the closes source of water. Without
giving it a second thought, Lakhan hurriedly drew several buckets of water from that well to douse the fire
and save his hut. When the fire was finally put out, the owner of the mansion charged Lakhan with
“trespass of property” because he used water from his well without his permission. Can Lakhan plead the
defence of necessity?
(a) No, because lawful alternatives were available and it is irrelevant that the well was the closest source
of water
(b) Yes, because Lakhan acted to draw water from the well to avoid a significant harm
(c) Yes, because there was no alternative available as the well was the closest fsource of water which
could be used to douse the fire
(d) Both b and c
Passage (Q.68-Q.71): Section 4 of the Contract Act, 1872 deals with the completion of a proposal,
acceptance and revocation of a contract and states:
The communication of a proposal is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is
made. The communication of an acceptance is complete, as against the proposer, when it is put in a
course of transmission to him so as to be out of the power of the acceptor; as against the acceptor, when
it comes to the knowledge of the proposer. The communication of a revocation is complete, as against
the person who makes it, when it is put into a course of transmission to the person to whom it is made, so
as to be out of the power of the person who makes it; as against the person to whom it is made, when it
comes to his knowledge.
In the case of postal service, the communication becomes complete when the letter is posted from the
offeror and the offeree is bounded by it. But, electronic modes such as fax and telephonic
communications become complete when the acceptance is received by the offeror.
In the Entores case it was held that the postal rule cannot be applied to instantaneous mode of
communications, such as telephone and telex. If a phone line “went dead” just before the offeree said
“yes”, it would be absurd to assume that the contract was formed and the parties would not have to call
each other back. Therefore, the contract could only be formed when the telex was received.
[Extracted with revisions from ‘is section 4 of contract act, 1872 in pace with 21st century’ by
AyushPandia, published on scconline blog
https://www.scconline.com/blog/post/2018/03/13/is-section-4-of-contract-act-1872-in-pace-with-21st-
century/]

68. X sends a letter to Y on 2nd January 2021 offering to sell his cow for Rs10,000. Y receives the letter on 3rd
January 2021 proposing to buy the cow for Rs7000 instead of Rs10,000. X received Y’s letter on 4 th
January 2021 and send his acceptance via mail on 5th January 2021. The acceptance reaches Y on 6th
January 2021. When is the acceptance of the offer complete against Y?
(a) On 3rd January when Y received X’s letter
(b) On 4th January when X received Y’s letter
(c) On 5th January when it was sent by X to Y via mail
(d) On 6th January when it came to the knowledge of Y via mail
69. Sonu and Monu were discussing an offer over the phone. Sonu called Monu to ask him if he would sell
his car to him for Rs 1 lakh. At that time, Monu was at the metro station but he was interested in selling
his car so he continued to discuss the offer with Monu. Monu heard Sonu’s offer loud and clear and was
willing to sell his car to him in exchange for this amount. However, just as he was confirming his
acceptance, a metro train arrived on the station creating a lot of noise and Sonu could not hear Monu. Is
the acceptance of the offer complete?
(a) Yes, because Monu was willing to accept the offer and he was about to verbally confirm the same so
the noise created by the metro does not matter
(b) No, because the noise created by the metro did not allow Monu to properly communicate the
acceptance to Sonu
(c) No, because the acceptance was not put in the course of transmission to be received by Sonu
(d) Yes, because the acceptance was already put in the course of transmission by Monu and is valid
against Sonu
70. Jalebi Bai accepted an offer by Makkhi Chand to buy a horse for Rs. 20,000. Later, Makkhi Chand
realised that Rs 20,000 was too low of a price and insufficient for selling such a fine horse. So, he wrote a
letter to Jalebi Bai for revocation on 30th May 2020. Independently, Jalebi Bai thought that Rs 20,000 was
a very high price. So, she also independently wrote a letter to Makkhi Chand on 29th May 2020.
Assuming that Makkhi Chand received the letter on 1st June and Jalebi Bai received the letter on 2nd
June, when was the communication of revocation completed against Makkhi Chand?
(a) On 30th May 2020 when he wrote a letter to Jalebi Bai
(b) On 29th May 2020 when Jalebi Bai wrote a letter to him
(c) On 1st June 2020 when he received the letter by Jalebi Bai
(d) On 2nd June 2020 when Jalebi Bai received his letter
71. Sanjana ran a successful Instagram store and did a majority of her business online. One day, she was
talking to her supplier regarding a contract to purchase some books over a zoom call. In the background,
her young baby was making loud laughing noises while playing with his toys. The supplier offered to sell
the books at Rs 150 each and Sanjana accepted. If Sanjana’s communication of acceptance was audible
to the supplier on zoom but it was marked by loud noises in the background, would the acceptance of
offer be complete?
(a) Yes, because the zoom call line did not go “dead” as required in the Entores case
(b) Yes, because the acceptance was received as it was audible to the supplier even if there were loud
noises in the back
(c) No, because in instantaneous modes of communication the acceptance is complete when it is
received by the offeror
(d) No, because the loud baby noises in the background could have created problems in the
communication of acceptance over zoom

Passage (Q.72-Q.76): Insults to religion made unwittingly or carelessly without any deliberate or
malicious intention to outrage the religious feelings of a class would not attract Section 295A of the
Indian Penal Code (Sri Dulal Ghosh v. State of Tripura). A single-judge bench of Chief Justice
AkilKureshi, therefore, quashed a First Information Report (FIR) which was filed against one Dulal
Ghosh (petitioner) for a Facebook post on Bhagavad Gita. The Court was dealing with a case, where FIR
was registered against Ghosh under Section 295A of the IPC for a Facebook post on Bhagwat Gita.
The complainant contended that the petitioner- accused made distasteful and derogatory comments on
the Hindu religion by posting on Facebook in Bengali that the Gita (sacred religious text) is a "thakbaji
Gita" (deceitful). The petitioner, on the other hand, contended that the Facebook post in question was
'deliberately twisted and misinterpreted by the complainant. He argued that his post did not convey the
meaning that Gita was deceitful or swindling. Instead, the petitioner had put the post conveying that the
Gita is a pan that fries swindler. The Court at the outset placed reliance on the 1957 Supreme Court
judgment in Ramji Lal Modi v. the State of UP to elucidate the scope of Section 295A. "Section 295A
does not penalize any and every act of insult or an attempt to insult the religion or the religious beliefs but
it penalizes only those acts of insults or attempts which have been perpetrated with the deliberate and
malicious intention of outraging the religious feelings of a particular class," the Court said.
The expression thus used by the petitioner which is in total isolation, without virtually any background or
foreground, therefore would require much twisting to fit within the scheme of Section 295A of IPC which
would be wholly impermissible, the Court held. As a parting note, the Court said that "the petitioner can
hold his personal beliefs and within the framework of law can also express them, as long as he does not
transgress any of the restrictions imposed by law to the freedom of his speech and expression."
Source: BAR and BENCH 8 march 2021
https://www.barandbench.com/news/litigation/insults-religion-carelessly-intention-outrage-religious-
feelings-will-not-section-295a-ipc-tripura-high-court
72. Lodi is giving a speech in his political rally and said the Muslim religion is a hindrance in the development
of India because of their stubborn religious beliefs and rituals. Their govt will not promote such religious-
centric activities in the country. Decide Lodi would attract Section 295A of the Indian Penal Code or not?
(a) No, because the statement by Lodi is made unwittingly or carelessly without any deliberate or
malicious intention.
(b) Yes, said statement has been perpetrated with the deliberate and malicious intention of outraging the
religious feelings of a particular class.
(c) Yes, restrictions imposed by law on the freedom of speech and expression of political leaders.
(d) No, the petitioner can hold his personal beliefs and within the framework of law can also express
them.
73. Janvi is a content writer in Indian times and given her opine on women rights to inter Sabarimala temple
but her article aggrieved group of people and filled petitions against her on grounds of the malicious
intention of outraging the religious feelings of a particular class. Will Janvi be liable to decide with legal
reasoning?
(a) No, the person can hold his personal beliefs and within the framework of law can also express them,
as long as he does not transgress any of the restrictions imposed by law to the freedom of his speech
and expression.
(b) No, the accused made distasteful and derogatory comments on the Hindu religion.
(c) No, there is malicious intention to outrage the religious feelings of a class that would not
attract Section 295A of the Indian Penal Code.

74. FIR was registered against Ghosh under Section 295A of the IPC for a Facebook post on Bhagwat Gita.
The complainant contended that the accused made distasteful and derogatory comments on the Hindu
religion by posting on Facebook that the Gita (sacred religious text) is not given rights to lower class
people during Mahabharata because Karna had not given an education. Will Ghosh attract Section 295
A?
(a) No, because he has the right to freedom of speech and expression without restrictions.
(b) No, Insults to religion made unwittingly or carelessly without any deliberate or malicious intention to
outrage the religious feelings of a class.
(c) Yes, distasteful and derogatory comments on the Hindu religion attract Section 295A of the Indian
Penal Code.
(d) Both A and B
75. What Supreme Court elucidated in the 1957 Ramji Lal Modi v. State of UP judgment?
(a) Section 295 does not penalize any and every act of insult or an attempt to insult the religion or the
religious beliefs but it penalizes only those acts of insults or attempts which have been perpetrated
with the deliberate and malicious intention of outraging the religious feelings of a particular class,"
(b) Section 295A does penalize any and every act of insult or an attempt to insult the religion or the
religious beliefs but it penalizes only those acts of insults or attempts which have been perpetrated
with the deliberate and malicious intention of outraging the religious feelings of a particular class,"
(c) The Court said that "the petitioner can hold his personal beliefs and within the framework of law can
also express them, as long as he does not transgress any of the restrictions imposed by law to the
freedom of his speech and expression."
(d) None of above
76. Deeksha Ingle Assistant professor of History at National Law University Rewa giving a brief introduction
of Sati practice and said it was the heinous and derogatory practice of the Hindu religion in the medieval
period. Decide she will attract section 295A or not.
(a) Yes,attempts have been made by her with the deliberate and malicious intention of outraging the
religious feelings of the Hindu religion.
(b) No, the petitioner can hold his personal beliefs and within the framework of law can also express
them, as long as he does not transgress any of the restrictions imposed by law to the freedom of his
speech and expression.
(c) No,opinion to religion made without any deliberate or malicious intention to outrage the religious
feelings of a class.
(d) Both B and C
Passage (Q.77-Q.81): On February 25, 2021, the Ministry of Information, Government of India enacted
the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021.
Rule 4 entails that the intermediary is under an obligation to prominently publish on his website or
application, or both, the privacy policy and the usage of personal data or information for its users.
Furthermore, the privacy policy or user agreement should be drafted in such a way so that it embraces
that the user is under the obligation not to host, display, upload, modify, publish, transmit, store, update
or share any information which is derogatory to the rules of the society or unethical or defamatory to the
general public or misleads the general public. Furthermore, the intermediaries are under the obligation to
notify the users that in case such unethical information is transmitted, then it would call for either
termination of their account or removal of the information that is not in conformity with the user agreement
or privacy policy.
The intermediary is to publish on its website or application or both, as the case may be, the name of the
Grievance Officer and his/her contact details as well as the mechanism by which a user or a victim may
make a complaint against violation of the provisions of Rule 4 or other matters pertaining to the computer
resources made available by it. Moreover, the Grievance Officer is under an obligation to acknowledge
the complaint within three working days and resolve the same within one month from the receipt of the
complaint. Furthermore, an intermediary is under the strict compulsion to remove information within
twenty-four hours on the complaint of a person which portrays such a person in bad light or exposes their

private parts, or shows such a person in a sexual act or nudity. Regarding the aforementioned burden, a
complaint can be filed by an individual or any person on his/her behalf.
Source:https://ssrana.in/articles/analysis-of-the-information-technology-intermediary-guidelines-and-
digital-media-ethics-code-rules-2021/?utm_source=Mondaq&utm_medium
77. Webnexe.com is an emerging website in India for sharing thoughts virtually on legal and political news.
What points should take under consideration by Webnexe.com to avoid violation of IT rules 2021?
(a) Under an obligation to prominently publish on his website or application, or both, the privacy policy
and the usage of personal data or information for its users.
(b) Under the obligation to notify the users that in case such unethical information is transmitted, then it
would call for either termination of their account or removal of the information.
(c) The intermediary should not publish on its website or application or both, as the case may be, the
name of the Grievance Officer and his/her contact details as well as the mechanism by which a user
or a victim may make a complaint against violation of the provisions of Rule 4.
78. Phasebook is a social media platform and one of the Phasebook users is sharing obscene video content
which is unethical and against the user agreement or privacy policy. What is the course of action for the
same in IT rules 2021?
(a) The intermediaries are under the obligation to notify the users that in case such unethical information
is transmitted,
(b) It would call for either termination of their account or removal of the information that is not in
conformity with the user agreement or privacy policy.
(c) Both A and B
(d) An intermediary is under the strict compulsion to remove information within twenty-four hours
79. XYZ is facing abuse and defamatory messages on Phasebook by unknown Id.XYZ reported the same to
the Grievance Officer on 10 march 2021 but unfortunately not received any response till 10 April and on
15 April received the response. Will the grievance Officer is liable.
(a) Yes,the Grievance Officer is under an obligation to acknowledge the complaint within three working
days and resolve the same within one month from the receipt of the complaint, and the officer has not
responded within the limited time.
(b) Yes, the Grievance Officer is under an obligation to acknowledge the complaint within three working
days and resolve the same within one month from the receipt of the complaint
(c) No, the victim may make a complaint against violation of the provisions of Rule 4 and there is no
violation of Rule 4
80. Actor X who makes adult movies was portrayed in bad light her private parts on the website named
Entertainment.com without her approval. Regarding the aforementioned burden, a complaint was filed by
her against the website. Will the website will be liable and what obligations are should be followed by the
website.
(a) No website will not be liable because Actor X is making adult movies and show her private parts in
many movies Therefore Portraying her is not a Violation of Rights.
(b) Yes website is under the strict compulsion to remove information within twenty-four hours on the
complaint of a person which portrays such a person in bad light or exposes their private parts.
(c) under an obligation to prominently publish on his website or application, or both, the privacy policy
and the usage of personal data or information for its users.
(d) Both A and B

81. Unethical information is transmitted by XYZ through a page named Addsup which conformed to the user
agreement or privacy policy of Addsup. Will termination of the account of XYZ will take place.
(a) Yes,the intermediaries are under the obligation to notify the users that in case such unethical
information is transmitted, then it would call for either termination of their account or removal of the
information that is not in conformity with the user agreement or privacy policy.
(b) No,the information conforms to the user agreement or privacy policy of the website.
(c) No, there is a fault of the website for not drafting the user agreement carefully.
Passage (Q.82-Q.86): A polygraph test can be conducted only after obtaining the consent of the
accused; mere silence will not amount to consent: Karnataka High Court
A polygraph test cannot be administered without obtaining the written consent of the accused person to
whom it is to be administered, the Karnataka High Court ruled (Virendra Khanna v. State of
Karnataka). Mere silence of the concerned person will not amount to the consent of such person, a
single-judge Bench held.
"Mere silence of the said person would not amount to consent on behalf of such person. If a person was
to refuse the administration of polygraph test, no such polygraph the test could be administered and even
if administered, the result of the said the test would be void and cannot be considered by a Court of Law,"
the judgment said.
It also held that an investigating officer has no right to disclose the private data seized from the
smartphones or electronic gadgets of an accused to a third party, without the written permission of the
concerned court. "The consent in writing to be obtained from such a person before directing the
administration of the polygraph test. Merely because an accused is silent, neither accepts or rejects the
administration of polygraph test would not amount to consent being provided by the accused," the
judgment said.
In the instant case, the Court observed that the trial court had passed its order directing a polygraph test
without there being any application filed by the prosecution. Further, no opportunity to be heard was
provided either to the petitioner or his counsel and no consent was obtained for administration of the test,
the High Court noted.
Source: 17 Mar 2021, BAR and BENCH
82. Jonas was accused of committing murder and for collection of the evidence investigation officer forced
him to give consent for a polygraph test but Jonas remained to moan without uttering a single word
regarding his consent. Can the investigation officer can take polygraph test of Jonas in these
Circumstances.
(a) No, Mere silence of the concerned person will not amount to the consent of such person.
(b) Yes, a Polygraph test can be administered without obtaining the written consent of the accused
person to whom it is to be administered.
(c) No, investigating the officer has no right to take a polygraph test without the written permission of the
concerned court.
(d) Both A and C
83. Jonas was accused of murder given his consent in front of the investigation officer. Will this consent is
eligible to take a polygraph test?
(a) Yes, the accused is not silent he accepts the administration of the polygraph test.
(b) No, investigating officer has no right to take a polygraph test without the written permission of the
concerned court
(c) No. A polygraph test cannot be administered without obtaining the written consent of the accused
(d) Yes, a Polygraph test cannot be administered without obtaining the written consent of the accused

84. Jonas the accused refused the administration of polygraph test and Singham new police inspector
administered it. Decide the result of the said test would be considered by a Court of Law or not.
(a) No, the result of the said test would be void and cannot be considered by a Court of Law.
(b) No, Polygraph test cannot be administered without obtaining the written consent of the accused
person to whom it is to be administered,
(c) No, Mere silence of the concerned person will not amount to the consent of such person.
85. It also held that an investigating officer has disclosed the private data seized from the smartphones of
accused Jonas to the Media with the permission of the judge in the case by the telephonic call. Will the
Investigation officer be held liable?
(a) Permission from the court is granted to the investigation officer therefore he will not be liable.
(b) Investigating officer has no right to disclose the private data seized from the smartphones of the
accused during duty.
(c) Telephonic call is not the written permission of the concerned court. The investigation officer will be
liable.
(d) Both B and C.
86. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
(a) Test should administer after obtaining the written consent of the accused person to whom it is to be
administered.
(b) Mere silence of the said person would not amount to consent on behalf of such person
(c) In Virendra Khanna v. State of Karnataka no opportunity to be heard was provided either to the
petitioner or his counsel and no consent was obtained for administration of the test,
(d) All of the above are true.
Passage (Q.87-Q.91):1. The Supreme Court observed that the time period for investigation specified
under Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure cannot be extended by seeking to file
supplementary charge sheet qua UAPA offences. The bench comprising Justices Sanjay Kishan Kaul
and R. Subhash Reddy, while granting default bail to FakhreyAlam, a person accused under Section 18
of the UAPA Act, reiterated that default bail under first proviso of Section 167(2) of the Cr.P.C. is a
fundamental right and not merely a statutory right.
Court held that the State can take advantage of the fact that in one case there is one charge sheet and
supplementary charge sheets are used to extend the time period in this manner by seeking to let the
supplementary charge sheet qua the offences under the UAPA Act even beyond the period specified
under Section 167 of the Cr.P.C beyond which default bail will be admissible. That period having expired
and the charge sheet not having been led qua those offences (albeit a supplementary charge sheet), we
are of the view the appellant would be entitled to default bail in the aforesaid facts and circumstances.
When an investigation is not completed in 24 hrs, it is in these circumstances that Section 167 of the
Cr.P.C. provided for the time period within which the investigation should be completed, depending upon
the nature of offences. Since liberty is a Constitutional right, time periods were specified in the default of
which the accused will have a right to default bail, a valuable right, for an offence with punishment of
death, life imprisonment or imprisonment of 10 years or more such specified time period is 90 days for
other offences it is 60 days. After the stipulated period every accused shall be furnished a bail if they are
prepared and do furnish bail. In Bikramjit Singh case it was held that default bail under first proviso of
Section 167(2) of the Cr.P.C. is a fundamental right and not merely a statutory right as it is, a procedure
established by law under Article 21 of the Constitution.
Default Bail : State Cannot Take Advantage Of Filing One Charge Sheet First And Seeking Time To File
Supplementary Charge-sheets To Extend The Time Limit U/S 167(2) (Live Law, 16 March 2021)
<https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/default-bail-uapa-offences-supplementary-chargesheet-supreme-
court-extend-the-time-limit-us-1672-171262?infinitescroll=1> as accessed on 17 March 2021.

87. Kalpana was charged with murder of her employer and arrested by Police. When she was produced
before a magistrate after 24 hrs, a local magistrate allowed a judicial custody of 90 days. Police has been
investigating since and could not find any significant evidence against her. On the 91st day Kalpana filed
an application for bail but before it could be accepted, Police filed a chargesheet against Kalpana and an
application for extension of custody. Both, the chargesheet and the bail application are pending before
the magistrate. Decide which of the two shall be allowed by the magistrate.
(a) Bail application shall be allowed as when the period of 90 days expired Kalpana had a default right to
bail. She filed an application of bail which shall be allowed if the chargesheet has not been filed
before it.
(b) Application for extension of custody be allowed as the chargesheet has been filed by the Police
before the bail application was allowed and thus the period of custody can be extended.
(c) Bail application shall be allowed as the as after the expiry of a period of 90 days in judicial custody,
the time period for custody cannot be extended under any circumstances.
(d) Application for extension of custody can be allowed upon the discretion of the magistrate if the
chargesheet presents enough reasons for the extension of the custody of the accused.
88. The Indore Police department has been investigating a series of bomb blasts in the city just a few days
before the Prime Ministers rally. On the basis of suspicion, Police has made several arrests and all the
accused have been sent into judicial custody for 90 days and the same period has been allowed to the
Police department to conclude the investigation. Due to its inability to find any material evidence, Police
filed a chargesheet containing charges based on whatever little evidence they had to avoid these
accused getting bails after the expiry of 90 days. Extension on the period of custody and time for filing
supplementary chargesheet was granted by the magistrate. Further, Police filed supplementary
chargesheets later in the process with more consolidated data and charges. The accused have raised
objection against a same in a writ petition filed before the high court. Choose the correct option with
respect to the petition.
(a) The writ petition shall not be allowed as the Police has filed a chargesheet in view of which the
custody of the accused can be extended by the magistrate.
(b) The writ petition shall be allowed as the legal provision has been exploited to avoid the bail of the
accused and to get an extension on the period to file the actual chargesheet.
(c) The writ petition shall not be allowed as a magistrate enjoys absolute discretion in the matters of
extending the custody of the accused in the interest of justice.
(d) The writ petition shall be allowed as after the stipulated period of 90 days an accused has a
fundamental right to receive bail under article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
89. Assertion: State cannot file a chargesheet and apply for an extension to file supplementary chargesheet
and extension of custody of the accused after stipulated period under section 167 of CrPC.
Reasoning: Under section 167 an accused can be sent into custody only for a period of 90 or 60 days
subject to the nature of offence alleged to be committed.
(a) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true R is false.
(d) A is false R is true.

90. Porus was a politician from the opposition who has been arrested on charges of money laundering. He
was sent into judicial custody for a period of 60 days u/s 167 of the CrPC so that Police can conclude
investigation and prepare chargesheet without Porus influencing with the process. Before Porus’s
lawyers could file an application for bail, Police filed the chargesheet on the 64th day and decided to
prosecute Porus for the offence of money laundering. Porus was further sent into judicial custody after
filing of the chargesheet upon order of the local magistrate. Porus has challenged the order in a writ
petition filed before the High Court contending that he had a default right to bail, which he has been
denied. Choose the correct option regarding the order of the high court.
(a) Petition shall be allowed as chargesheet was filed after the period of 60 days when the accused had
a default right to bail, which was denied to him.
(b) Petition shall be allowed as once the person has been sent into custody for the stipulated period no
further extension in the period of custody can be allowed.
(c) Petition shall not be allowed as the accused has a right to bail after the expiry of the stipulated period
only if they are prepared to furnish a bail.
(d) Petition shall not be allowed as once the Police files the chargesheet custody of the accused can be
extended regardless of the bail application made by the accused.
91. A massive protest in the National Capital Region entailed a violent communal riot. Police made 15 arrests
and later dropped charges against 8 of the arrested persons and released them. The rest of the arrested
people were sent to judicial custody of 90 days. The Police filed a chargesheet against the arrested
persons on the 74th day and the magistrate himself ordered an extension on the custody further for a
period of 45 days. One week later, Police filed a supplementary chargesheet with additional charges
against the accused. The accused filed an application against the order of the magistrate, contending
that Police cannot just file a chargesheet for extension of the custody citing the judgment of the Supreme
Court in the comprehension above. Decide whether the application should be allowed or not.
(a) Application shall be allowed as an accused has a default right to bail after the expiry of the stipulated
period under section 167 of CrPC.
(b) Application shall not be allowed as the Police has already filed the chargesheet after which extension
of the custody can be allowed by the magistrate.
(c) Application shall be allowed as the Police filed a preliminary chargesheet and later filed
supplementary chargesheet only to get an extension on the period of custody
(d) Application shall not be allowed as the Police did not apply for an extension of the custody just by
filing a preliminary chargesheet and the court itself relied on the chargesheet to order an extension on
the period of custody.
Passage (Q.92-Q.96): Section 311 deals with the power to summon material witness, or examine a
person present. Any Court may, at any stage of any inquiry, trial or other proceeding under this Code,
summon any person as a witness, or examine any person in attendance, though not summoned as a
witness, or recall and re-examine any person already examined; and the Court shall summon and
examine or recall and re-examine any such person if his evidence appears to it to be essential to the just
decision of the case, the provision reads.
The bench particularly referred to the observations made in Swapan Kumar Chatterjee v. Central Bureau
of Investigation that the first part of this section which is permissive gives purely discretionary authority to
the criminal court and enables it at any stage of inquiry, trial or other proceedings under the Code to act
in one of the three ways, namely, to summon any person as a witness; or to examine any person in
attendance, though not summoned as a witness; or to recall and re-examine any person already
examined. The second part, which is mandatory, imposes an obligation on the court to summon and
examine or to recall and re-examine any such person if his evidence appears to be essential to the just
decision of the case.
In Manju Devi v. State of Rajasthan, a two-Judge bench of this Court noted that an application under
Section 311 could not be rejected on the sole ground that the case had been pending for an inordinate
amount of time (ten years there). Rather, it noted that the length/duration of a case cannot displace the
basic requirement of ensuring the just decision after taking all the necessary and material evidence on

record. In other words, the age of a case, by itself, cannot be decisive in the matter when a prayer is
made for examination of a material witness, the bench noted while allowing the appeal.
Aim Of Every Court Is To Discover The Truth: Supreme Court Explains Scope of Section 311 CrPC (Live
Law, 6 March 2021) <https://www.livelaw.in/know-the-law/scope-of-section-311-crpc-supreme-court-
recalling-of-witnesses-170824> as accessed on 9 March 2021
92. Richa was an MBA student in JNK College. Her fellow student Munna, son of a very influential politician,
proposed Richa for marriage. She rejected the proposal as she was in love with another boy named Bittu.
Soon Richa and Bittu decided to marry each other. On their wedding day, Munna stormed into the
wedding hall with some of his friends and started firing. A bullet shot Richa and she died on the spot.
Bittu filed a complaint against Munna and when the case went to the court, all the witnesses who had
seen Munna firing bullets, turned hostile. This led to the case being delayed for 8 years, but suddenly an
old man named Kiku approached Bittu and told him that he is ready to give his statement and will also tell
the court that he, along with all other eyewitnesses, was threatened by Munna and his father. Bittu’s
lawyer filed an application under Section 311 for permission to re-examine the witness. Whether the
application should be accepted or not?
I. The application filed under Section 311 should be accepted as an application to re-examine a witness
can be filed at any stage of trial to reach the just decision of the case.
II. The application filed under Section 311 should not be accepted as it was already delayed for 8 years
and such an inordinate amount of time taken indicates that there are no merits in the case.
III. The application should not be accepted as Bittu was only trying to waste the court’s time and blame
Munna for a crime against which there is no evidence or witnesses.
IV. The application filed under Section 311 should be accepted as it cannot be rejected on the ground
that the case had been pending for an inordinate amount of time.
The correct answer is:
(a) Only I
(b) Both I & IV
(c) Only II
(d) Either I or IV
93. An FIR was filed against Girish on 18.05.2008 for fraudulently using forged documents as original and
defrauding many people. After the investigation was over, a charge sheet was filed against him as all the
evidence found by the police was against him. During the trial, the prosecution presented 46 witnesses
for examination in the course of over 54 hearings to prove that he has defrauded many people. There
was only one witness from the side of Girish. The trial court thereafter fixed the date for final hearing on
4.03.2021. Girish filed an application under Section 311 for permission to examine 3 more witnesses
present in the court. Should the trial court accept the application?
(a) The trial court should not accept the application filed under Section 311 as Girish was only trying to
waste the court’s time by requesting to examine 3 more witnesses when the date for final hearing is
already fixed.
(b) The trial court should accept the application filed under Section 311 as the court can allow
examination of any person in attendance at any stage of trial if their evidence appears to it to be
essential to the just decision of the case.
(c) The trial court should accept the application filed under Section 311 as the court shall allow
examination of any person at any stage of trial upon the defendant’s request.
(d) The trial court should not accept the application filed under Section 311 as the prosecution had
already presented 46 witnesses for examination in the course of over 54 hearings which clearly
proves that Girish is guilty of fraud.

94. Mahesh was arrested for the murder of his ex-wife Rashmi. When the case was in trial at the court, the
prosecution presented Rashmi’s sister Geeta as the prime eye witness. She explained to the court that
she has seen Mahesh holding their dog’s red coloured chain and choking Rashmi with it until she died.
The prosecution also presented many witnesses to prove that Mahesh is violent by nature and since
Rashmi was going to marry someone else, he couldn’t digest it and so he killed her. On the date of final
hearing, Mahesh’s lawyer filed an application under section 311, praying therein to cross-examine Geeta
as it came to their knowledge that the dog’s chain was of blue colour and not red. The prosecution, on
behalf of Geeta replied that the application has been filed with a view to linger on the proceedings. She
further claimed that she was cross-examined at length on all aspects averred in the application as such;
the application deserves to be dismissed. Whether the application should be dismissed or not?
(a) The application filed under Section 311 should be dismissed as she was already cross-examined at
length on all aspects averred in the application and allowing it at such a time would further linger on
the proceedings.
(b) The application filed under Section 311 should be dismissed as such an application cannot be
entertained in the later or final dates of the trial.
(c) The application filed under Section 311 should not be dismissed as it came to the knowledge of
Mahesh’s lawyer that Geeta was lying and so it is necessary to cross-examine her in order to know
the real reason.
(d) The application filed under Section 311 should not be dismissed as even if it was filed on the date of
final hearing, the cross-examination of Geeta is necessary to reach the just decision of the case.
.
95. Assuming that the court dismissed Mahesh’s application filed under Section 311 to cross-examine Geeta,
he again filed an application under section 311 praying therein to examine a person named Ritesh as a
witness present in the court. His lawyer claimed that Ritesh was present with Mahesh on the night of his
wife’s murder. He was not ready to come before the court as they were gambling on the night and he was
afraid that his family might know about it if he gave a statement to the court. The prosecution opposed
that by saying that the application has been filed with a view to further linger on the proceedings and that
too on the day of final hearing of the case. He also contended that Ritesh was not summoned as a
witness by the court and therefore his testimony cannot be held valid. What is your opinion on what the
court should decide?
I. The court should allow the application as even if Ritesh was not summoned as a witness by the court,
the court has the power to allow the examination of any person present in attendance of the court to
reach the just decision of the case.
II. The court should not allow the application as it was filed on the final date of hearing of the case. Any
application to examine a new witness cannot be entertained at this stage of the trial.
III. The court should not allow the application as Ritesh was not summoned as a witness by the court
and no person can be examined as a witness unless they are summoned by the court.
IV. The court should not allow the application as it was filed on behalf of Mahesh with a dishonest
intention of lingering on the proceedings before the court.
The correct answer is:
(a) Only I
(b) Only III
(c) Both II & III
(d) Either I or II, III & IV
96. Assertion: Section 311 imposes an obligation on the court to summon and examine or to recall and re-
examine any such person if his evidence appears to be essential to the just decision of the case.
Reasoning: An application filed under Section 311 could be rejected on the ground that the case had
been pending for an inordinate amount of time.
(a) A is true, R is false.
(b) A is false, R is true.
(c) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A

Passage (Q.97-Q.102): Defamation is the act of communicating false statements about a person that
injure the reputation of that person when observed through the eyes of ordinary man. Any false and
unprivileged statement published or spoken deliberately, intentionally, knowingly with the intention to
damage someone's reputation is defamation. A man's reputation is treated as his property and such
damage are punishable by law. It could be written or verbal. Written defamation printed, or typed material
or images is called as libel and spoken defamation is called slander.
Article 19 of the Constitution grants various freedoms to its citizens. However, Article 19(2) has imposed
reasonable exemption to freedom of speech and expression granted under Article 19(1) (a). Contempt of
court, defamation and incitement to an offence are some exceptions.
Defamation is an offence under both the civil and criminal law. In civil law, defamation is punishable
under the Law of Torts by imposing punishment in the form of damages to be awarded to the claimant.
Under the Criminal law, Defamation is a bailable, non-cognizable offence and compoundable offence.
Hence a policeman may arrest only with an arrest warrant issued by a magistrate. The Indian Penal Code
punishes the offence with a simple imprisonment up to two years, or with fine, or both.
Source: Legal Service India
97. Krishna told Gopi “You are a thief. You stole my heart". Gopi was furious, and she felt that she was
defamed.
(a) Krishna has defamed Gopi and hence he is liable to pay damages.
(b) Krishna is liable to pay as Gopi's reputation was lowered in the eyes of right thinking people.
(c) Krishna is not responsible, as right-thinking people will not mistake this statement.
(d) None of the above answers is correct.
98. Denny, patient of Dr. Grey, is dissatisfied with the treatment. He discontinues the treatment and after
some time leaves the city. Sometime after his illness was automatically cured by laps of time. Denny was
upset because Dr. Grey had made him spend a lot of money on his illness which was cured on its own.
He writes a letter accusing Dr. Grey for cheating. He alleges that Dr. Grey magnified the effects of the
illness, deliberately treated him in a manner so that it persisted and caused deterioration of his health.
The letter is shown by Dr. Grey to his lawyer. In consultation with the lawyer Dr. Grey files a suit for
damages against Denny for defamation.
(a) Denny has defamed Dr. Grey and is liable to pay compensation.
(b) Denny has defamed Dr. Grey when the letter was seen by the lawyer and therefore the compensation
has to be paid.
(c) Denny has not defamed Dr. Grey as it was not communicated to the ordinary people.
(d) Denny has not defamed Dr. Grey but should pay compensation.
99. The well-known politician Hardik Pandeya is invited to a famous chat show. During that chat show he is
asked what he thinks of the opposition party. Hardik Pandeya says that the opposition part is a "bunch of
thieves who are looting the country". Christian Gale, who is a party member, sues Hardik Pandeya for
defamation. Will he succeed?
(a) Christian Gale will succeed since Hardik Pandeya made injurious statements.
(b) Christian Gale will not succeed since it is not defamation.
(c) Christian Gale will succeed since Hardik Pandeya made the statements on a public talk show.
(d) Christian Gale will succeed since this disparaging remark is a case of defamation.
100. Aditya is a capitalist who publishes an article calling all the members of the communist party anti-
nationals. The communists get affronted, and the Communist party of India decides to file a suit against
Aditya for defamation. Decide.
(a) Aditya is liable since the article was published.
(b) Aditya is liable since the statement was defamatory.
(c) Aditya is not liable since truth is a defence.
(d) Aditya is not liable since no one has been specifically mentioned.

101. Malhotra and Verma are business partner. The two had an argument over an upcoming deal and Verma
resigned. While leaving Malhotra’s office Verma yelled abuses and spoke ill of Malhotra’s business
sense. The entire floor heard Verma’s rantings. After Verma left, work continued normally. Though things
were running smoothly, a week later Malhotra was still perturbed about the scene created by Verma and
seeks help from his lawyer to sue Verma for defamation.
(a) Verma had made statements that reflected poorly of Malhotra and thus, defamation would be a valid
ground for a suit.
(b) Verma had made statements that reflected poorly of Malhotra in front of his entire staff and thus,
defamation would be a valid ground for a suit.
(c) Verma’s statements were spoken in a fit of rage and had no impact on the reputation of Malhotra,
thus defamation would not be a valid ground for a suit.
(d) Mr. Dhiru was apprehended that all of his business failures would now be seen in light of Verma’s
remarks and therefore Verma should be liable for defamation.
102. Which one of the following is not a Libel?

(a) A defamatory matter in printing or writing
(b) Talking cinematograph film
(c) Sounds or gestures

Passage (Q.103-Q.106): Food is not only a source of nutrition for humans, but also plays various roles in
our daily life, beliefs, and socioeconomics. Food has many symbolic meanings; it not only expresses but
also establishes the relationship between people and their environment as well as between people and
what they believe. Therefore, food is an important component of a society. The term gourmet can refer to
a person with refined or discriminating taste who is knowledgeable in the craft and art of food and food
preparation.
Some good cooks are gourmet cooks who pride themselves on always using extravagantly rich
ingredients in power elaborate recipes. Some good cooks can be characterized as fast food cooks. They
may use rich ingredients as long as the recipes are easy to follow and take little time. Other good cooks
are health food enthusiasts, who are concerned primarily with the nutritional value of food. But even
though not all good cooks are big eaters, they all enjoy preparing and serving food.
103. If the information in the passage is true, which one of the following statement must be true?
(a) Gourmet cooks, fast-food cooks, and cooks who are health food enthusiasts are all big eaters.
(b) All good cooks enjoy preparing and serving foods.
(c) Fast food cooks use extravagantly rich ingredients in elaborate recipes.
(d) All good cooks are concerned with nutritional value of food.
104. What would be the most likely hidden assumption of the author in the passage in drawing the conclusion
that “But even though not all good cooks are big eaters, they all enjoy preparing and serving food”?
(a) To see their consumers satisfied after eating the food, which is made by good cooks, gives utmost
happiness to the good cooks.
(b) More good cooks who use extravagantly rich ingredients are big eaters than are good cooks who do
not use such ingredients
(c) Everyone who enjoys preparing and serving food is good cook.
(d) Most good cooks do not use extravagantly rich ingredients.
105. While cooking food Manav uses rich ingredients only when the recipes are easy to follow and take little
time, which type of cook is Manav?
(a) Gourmet cooks. (b) Fast food cooks.
(c) Health food enthusiast. (d) Cannot be predicted.
106. If the information in the passage is true, which one of the following CANNOT be true?
(a) Most good cooks do not use extravagantly rich ingredients.
(b) Everyone who enjoys preparing and serving food is a good cook.
(c) All good cooks are big eaters.
(d) The symbolic meanings conveyed by food expresses the relationship between people and what they
believe.
107. In a reply to the people opposing the recent FDI reforms, the ruling party spokesperson stated that we
must either accept the reforms or face slow economic growth and reduced job opportunities.
Which one of the following best identifies a flaw in this argument?
(a) The ruling party believes that citizens will not oppose any reform that promises better job
opportunities.
(b) The ruling party assumes that FDI is the solution to all the economic problems of the country.
(c) The ruling party believes that economic growth and job opportunities can be achieved only by FDI
reforms.
(d) The ruling party believes that people will readily accept the reforms once they are enforced and ask
no further question.

Passage (Q.108-Q.112): Murari Lal Jalan: We should not take definite sides. It doesn’t matter whether
our political leanings are rightist or leftist, we should support a party only one issue at a time. If BJP
comes out with a good law, then we should support BJP on that issue. If BJP brings out a law that is bad
for the country then we should protest against BJP on that issue. This will make a person logical and not
a blind devotee.
Ashish Chhawchharia: Your path will leave us neither here nor there. You have to have some sort of an
opinion – either you are a rightist or a leftist. You should pick your side and support it all the way. This is
the only way which can clear your stand. It doesn’t matter if you are called a blind devotee, at least you
will have a cause in your life.
108. In support of which of the following does Murari state his view that we should not take sides?
(a) We should support a party only one issue at a time
(b) We will be logical and not a blind devotee
(c) We will have a fixed path
(d) We have to be firm on our stand
109. Murari’s statement that “This will make a person logical and not a blind devotee”-
(a) Forms the premise for his statement that we should not take definite sides
(b) Forms the conclusion for his statement that we should support a party only one issue at a time
(c) Offers a clarification on which party to support at a given time
(d) Forms the conclusion to his statement that we should not take definite sides
110. The pattern of reasoning in Murari’s argument closely resembles the pattern of reasoning in all of the
following except -
(a) Atul is a die-hard fan of Virat Kohli, but he wishes that Kohli would tone down his aggression on field
and not use abusive language
(b) Oliver is a proud German. He is proud of the strict disciplinarian culture the country has. One day, he
meets his Israeli friend Adam, who while talking brings up the issue of holocaust by the Nazi
Germany. Oliver apologises for his country.
(c) Fahim is a proud father of his fifteen year old son Mustafa. Mustafa is a brilliant student in his class
and brings good marks in his exams. However, Fahim comes to know that Mustafa is a kleptomaniac
and he has stolen the cricket-bat of his neighbor’s son Debdoot. But when Debdoot comes to
complain about Mustafa to Fahim, the latter denies that his son could do such a job.
(d) In this sutra, the Buddha describes the Noble Eightfold Path as the middle way of moderation,
between the extremes of sensual indulgence and self-mortification.
111. Which of the following is the main conclusion of Ashish’s arguments?

(a) Murari’s path will leave people neither here nor there
(b) We should have a cause in life
(c) We should have a firm stand and support it always
(d) We should be a blind devotee and not care if anyone calls us that
112. Why does Ashish say that we should have some sort of an opinion?
(a) To be neither here nor there
(b) To have a cause in our life
(c) To be a blind devotee
(d) To find which side we should support

113. The chef at Milan Restaurant can either purchase flour physically from the local flour mill, Bhopal Flour
Mill, or order online from Flipkart which send it from a flour mill, Indore Flour Mill, situated in another city.
The cost of the flour from Indore Flour Mill is 10 percent less than the cost of the flour from Bhopal Flour
Mill. Even after shipping and handling fees are added, it is still cheaper to order flour that has to be
shipped from Indore than to buy flour locally from Bhopal Flour Mill.
The statements above, if true, best support which of the following assertions?
(a) Production costs at Indore Flour Mill are 10 percent below those at Bhopal Flour Mill.
(b) Buying flour from Indore Flour Mill will eliminate 10 percent of the local flour mill jobs.
(c) The shipping and handling fees for a batch of flour purchased from Indore Flour Mill are less than 10
percent of the cost of an identical batch of flour purchased from Bhopal Flour Mill.
(d) The shipping and handling fees for a batch of flour purchased from Indore Flour Mill are more than 10
percent of the cost of Indore’s flour.
Passage (Q.114-Q.118): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight friends P, M, R, T, Q, U, V & W are sitting in two opposite rows, facing each other. Each row has 4
persons. P is between U and V and is facing North. W is opposite to Q who is to the immediate left of M.
R is between T and M. W is to the immediate right of V.
114. Who is to the immediate right of R?

(a) T (b) U (c) M (d) Cannot be determined
115. Which of the following pairs has the person sitting opposite each other?
(a) MV (b) RV (c) TV (d) UR
116. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(a) TP (b) RV (c) QP (d) QV
117. Which of the following pairs of persons has a second person sitting to the immediate left of the first
person?
(a) UP (b) VP (c) QM (d) RT
118. Who is sitting opposite of R?

(a) U (b) Q (c) V (d) P
Passage (Q.119-Q.122): On July 11, World Population Day, a Union Minister expressed alarm, in a
Tweet, over what he called the “population explosion” in the country, wanting all political parties to enact
population control laws and annulling the voting rights of those having more than two children. Just a
month earlier, a prominent businessman-yoga guru wanted the government to enact a law where “the
third child should not be allowed to vote and enjoy facilities provided by the government”. This, according
to him, would ensure that people would not give birth to more children.
Both these demands are wayward and represent a warped thinking which has been rebutted rather well
in the Economic Survey 2018-19.
The demand for state controls on the number of children a couple can have is not a new one. It feeds on
the perception that a large and growing population is at the root of a nation’s problems as more and more
people chase fewer and fewer resources. This image is so ingrained in the minds of people that it does
not take much to whip up public sentiment which in turn can quickly degenerate into a deep class or
religious conflict that pits the poor, the weak, the downtrodden and the minorities against the more
privileged sections. The implications of such an approach are deep but not easily understood because
the argument is couched in sterile numbers and a rule that, it would seem, applies to all sections equally.
On the contrary, what is suggested is the ugliest kind of discrimination, worse than physical attacks or
social prejudice because it breaks the poor and the weak bit by bit, and in a very insidious way.

The fig leaf of population control allows for the outrageous argument to be made that a family will be
virtually ostracised and a citizen will be denied his or her basic rights if he or she is born as the third child.
This has of course never been public policy in India.
In fact, a far-sighted and forward-looking National Population Policy (NPP) was implemented in 2000.
The essence of the policy was the government’s commitment to “voluntary and informed choice and
consent of citizens while availing of reproductive health care services” along with a “target free approach
in administering family planning services”.
Source:https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/having-the-last-word-on-population-
control/article28701719.ece
119. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the statements in the above passage?
(a) Family health, child survival and the number of children a woman has are closely tied to the levels of
health and education of the parents.
(b) Usually, the poorer the couple, the more the children they tend to have.
(c) The number of children that a couple has, depends upon the opportunities, choices and services that
are available to the people.
120. Statement: Family Planning programme in India is target free and voluntary in nature and it is the
prerogative of the clients to choose a family planning method best suited to them as per their
reproductive right.
(c) Weakening Statement (d) Parallel reasoning statement.
121. Which of the following will strengthen the following statement?

“Both these demands are wayward and represent a warped thinking which has been rebutted rather well
in the Economic Survey 2018-19.”
(a) The economic survey noted that India is set to witness a “sharp slowdown in population growth in the
next two decades”.
(b) By the 2030s, some States will start transitioning to an ageing society as part of a well-studied
process of “demographic transition” which sees nations slowly move toward a stable population as
fertility rates fall with an improvement in social and economic development indices over time.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
122. According to the passage, what we can say about the following statement?
“demographic dividend can work to support growth and drive opportunity for ordinary people only when
the population is healthy.”
Passage (Q.123-Q.127): Many scholars argue that the voyages of Admiral Zheng He of the Chinese
Ming dynasty heralded and eclipsed the European voyages of discovery. Between 1405 and 1433,
Zheng led seven huge armadas from China to the far reaches of the Indian Ocean. The largest of these
comprised almost 300 ships and carried close to 30,000 people. They visited Indonesia, Sri Lanka, India,
the Persian Gulf, the Red Sea and East Africa. Columbus’ fleet of 1492 – which consisted of three small
ships manned by 120 sailors – was like a trio of mosquitoes compared to Zheng He’s drove of dragons.
Yet there was a crucial difference. Zheng He explored the oceans, and assisted pro-Chinese rulers, but
he did not try to conquer or colonize the countries he visited. Moreover, the expeditions of Zheng He
were not deeply rooted in Chinese politics and culture. When the ruling faction in Beijing changed during
the 1430s, the new overlords abruptly terminated the operation. The great fleet was dismantled, crucial
technical and geographical knowledge was lost, and no explorer of such stature and means ever set out
again from a Chinese port. Chinese rulers in the coming centuries, like most Chinese rulers in previous
centuries, restricted their interests and ambitions to their kingdom’s immediate environs.

Source:https://www.khanacademy.org/humanities/big-history-project/expansion-
interconnection/exploration-interconnection/a/zheng-he
123. What role does the author’s claim that Zheng He’s fleet was like a ‘drove of dragons’ compared to
Columbus’ ‘trio of mosquitoes’ play in the argument in the passage?
(a) It serves as the premise of the author’s argument in this passage.
(b) It provides support for the author’s overall conclusion in the passage.
(c) It casts doubt on the other scholars’ views about Zheng He cited at the beginning of the passage.
(d) It provides support for other scholars’ views about Zheng He cited at the beginning of the passage.

(a) Zheng He’s voyages took him all around the Indian and Pacific Oceans.
(b) Columbus sailed only across the Atlantic Ocean, not the Indian and Pacific Oceans.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) Neither (a) nor (b).
(a) The Chinese Admiral Zheng He was a more accomplished explorer than Columbus.
(b) While the Chinese did produce a great explorer – Zheng He – they did not produce anyone as
accomplished as Columbus.
(c) When the Chinese did eventually get around to making voyages of discovery, they did so on a much
larger scale than Columbus and other Europeans did.
(d) While the Chinese explorer Zheng He’s voyages were on a much grander scale than Columbus’, the
Chinese had a very different attitude towards exploration than the Europeans.
126. If the author were to claim that Zheng He’s voyages are still remembered reverentially by the Chinese
and that Zheng is considered a national hero by them, how would this affect the conclusion of this
passage?
(a) It would strengthen the conclusion.
(b) It would weaken the conclusion.
(c) It would neither strengthen nor weaken the conclusion.
(d) It would both strengthen and weaken the conclusion
127. Which of the following, if true, would best explain why the new overlords in Beijing abruptly terminated
Zheng He’s expeditions in the 1430s?
(a) The new ruling faction was political opponent of Zheng He and wanted to take him down a peg.
(b) The new ruling faction decided that Zheng He’s expeditions posed a security risk for China and
wanted to pursue a policy of greater isolationism.
(c) The new rulers felt that Zheng He’s policy of not attempting to conquer or colonize the countries he
visited was not in China’s best interests.
(d) The new rulers felt that Zheng He’s great fleet of ships would better serve China’s interests if they
remained closer to home.
128. Statement I: Refraction occurs due to a change in the speed of light when it goes from one medium to
another.
Statement II: Ponds often appear shallower than they are.
(a) I is the cause and II is the effect
(b) II is the cause and I is the effect
(c) Both I and II are independent causes
(d) Both I and II are effects of independent causes

129. Doctors are not allowed to do advertising for healthcare products like toothbrush, common medicines
which do not require to be prescribed, nutrition food and energy drinks, skin ointment in any form of
media. Lawmakers believe that consumers lack the complete information to judge such advertisements
and blindly purchase a product without further consultation because it has been advertised by a doctor.
Which one of the following if true would undermine the lawmakers’ argument?
(a) it has become mandatory for manufacturers to give complete information about the product on the
package along with details of any side effects that may occur with the use of the product.
(b) most health care products have the disclaimer or ‘as advised by your physician’ printed along with the
‘how to use’ instructions
(c) nowadays the consumers are very educated and do their own research before purchasing any
product
(d) medical professionals are known to prescribe products that are not really required by the patient in
return for cash or gifts from the manufacturers
130. A study by researchers from the University of Istanbul in Turkey has found that healthy new-borns can
learn speech sounds while asleep. The study published in The Atlantic, says a group of new-borns was
made to hear speech sounds /y/i/ and /yi/ in their sleep. The involuntary ‘brain waves’ that resulted from
the detection of sounds was recorded by EEG machines. When the babies were subjected to the same
sounds a day later, a part of their brain waves called DAN was stronger, showing that they had learned to
recognize the sounds. It thus has the potential of on-line early sleep-learning.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the finding of the study above?
(a) The sounds were learnt by the babies only if their mothers uttered them.
(b) Children who nap in class do not show any learning whatsoever.
(c) The ability of new-borns to learn in their sleep disappears after a few months. .
(d) When new speech sounds /d/i/ and /di/ were played in their sleep, the new-borns registered a
stronger DAN.
Passage (Q.131-Q.134): Study the following information and answer the questions given :
Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a circle. Five of them are facing the centre while two of
them are facing opposite to the centre. C sits third to the left of D and both are facing the centre. E is
neither an immediate neighbour of D nor of C. The one sitting exactly between D and F is facing opposite
to the centre. G sits third to the right of A and G is facing the centre. One of B’s neighbour is facing
opposite to the centre.
131. Which of the following pairs represents persons, facing opposite to the centre?
(a) A and F (b) E and F (c) A and E (d) Cannot be determined
132. Who is sitting second to the left of A?

(a) C (b) G (c) E (d) B
133. Who is sitting to the immediate left of E?

(a) C (b) G (c) B (d) A
134. What is the position of F with respect to B?

(a) Fourth to the left (b) Second to the right
(c) Third to the right (d) None of these

Directions (Q.135-Q.139): Bar graph shown below shows the percentage of expenditure of a person in
year 2016 on verious things. Total expenditure in 2016 is 10 lakh.
30
25
Percentage expenditure
20
15
10
135. If total expenditure of die person in 2016 is 80% of its Earnings then expenditure on Food is what percent
of its total earnings.
(a) 10% (b) 12% (c) 14% (d) 16%
136. What is the ratio of total expenditure on Food and House Rent together to the total expenditure on
education and transport together.
(a) 30 : 17 (b) 12 : 11 (c) 25 ; 23 (d) 22 : 19
137. If house rent increase by 20% then expenditure on clothing should be reduced by what percent so that
overall expenditure remains constant (consider changes takes place only on expenditure on Clothing and
House rent. All other expenditure remain constant)
(a) 8% (b) 7% (c) 9% (d) 10%
138. Average of expenditure on Clothing and Food together is what percent of expenditure on ‘other’ and
Education together
(a) 75% (b) 100% (c) 80% (d) 90%
139. What will be the average of expenditure on all thing except Transport and Health?
(a) 2L (b) 1.5 L (c) 1.8 L (d) 1 L

Direction (Q.140-Q.144): Read the following table and answer the following question.
The table given bellows gives the total number of children that took birth in different districts in year 2005
and percentage of boys out of these children.
Districts
No. of children that took birth Percentage of boys out of total children
A 450 30%
B 500 64%
C 470 50%
D 350 36%
E 650 48%
F 525 32%
140. Total number of baby boys from district A and B together is how much more/less than total number of
baby girls from district E and F together?
(a) 240 (b) 230 (c) 250 (d) 300
141. The average number of children from district E, C and D together is approximately what percent
less/more than the no. of baby boys from districts D, E and F together?
(a) 33.33 % (b) 19.14% (c) 26.66% (d) 16.66%
142. Find the ratio of the baby boys from district D and E together lo the baby girls from district D, E and F
together?
(a) 410 : 931 (b) 431 : 941 (c) 438 : 919 (d) 419 : 919
143. The no. of baby girls from district C is what percent more/less than the baby boys from district A?
[rounded off to nearest integer)
(a) 64.07% (b) 54.07% (c) 44.07% (d) 74.07%
144. Find the ratio of no. of children from districts B and E to the no. of baby girls from districts C and A?
(a) 21:43 (b) 21:23 (c) 23:11 (d) 23:12

Directions (Q.145 – Q.149): This data is regarding total number of employees working in Administration
[admin). Operations (Ops.) and other departments of corporate divisions of Companies A and B.
The total number of employees working in both the companies together is 4800. The respective ratio of
number of employees in Companies A and B is 5 : 7. Each employee works in only one of the 3
Departments
i.e. "Ops", "Admin" and "others".
In company A, 70% of the total employees are males. 60% of die total male employees work in 'Ops'. Out
1
of the remaining male employees, 8th work in 'Admin'. Out of the total female employees, 24% work in
5
'Admin' and 8th of the remaining female employees work in 'Ops'.
In company B, 80% of the total employees are males. 65% of the total male employees work in 'Ops'-
Number of male employees who work in other departments in Company B is 20% more than the male
employees who work in 'Other Department in company A. Number of female employees who work in Ops
in Company B are less than the number of male employees who work for 'Ops' in the same company by
1
75%, Out of the remaining female employees, work in 'Admin'.
4
145. What percent of the total number of male employees in company A work in 'other' departments?
(a) 45% (b) 25% (c) 30% (d) 35%
146. What percent of the total number of female employees in company B work in administration department?
(a) 18.5% (b) 8.75% (c) 14% (d) 16%
147. What is the total number of female employees who work in Ops in Company A and B together?
(a) 681 (b) 781 (c) 689 (d) 649
148. What is difference between the average number of males working in ‘Admin’ in both the companies
together and average number of females working ‘other Departments’ in both the companies together?
(a) 26 (b) 36 (c) 16 (d) 24
149. In company B, what is the respective ratio between the total number of employees (both male and
female) who work in ‘Admin’ and total number of employees (both male and female) who work in ‘Other
Department’ in the same company?
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 3 : 5
150. What is the total number of male employees who work in Ops in Company A and B together?
(a) 840 (b) 1456 (c) 2296 (d) 649

Notes:

Notes:

Notes:


MOCK CLAT #29
Candidate Name : _________________

Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
prosecution.
Centre/Hall.
Passage (Q.1-Q.6): Pinkwashing, a term popularized by feminists has come to describe a process by
which various capitalist enterprises, profess their support and love for LGBTQIA+ rights by co-opting the
movement and presenting themselves as ―queer friendly‖ to distract from their otherwise negative or
conservative behaviour. It‘s often very disingenuous, as these brands or organizations never take any
concrete actions in actually helping the queer community and are more concerned with keeping a façade
of liberal values and tolerance.
In India, since the striking down of section 377 in 2018, a lot of brands have been re-branding
themselves, often using rainbow imagery to show support for the LGBTQIA+ community. Many people
argue that this is a good thing, as the movement needs to be backed up by powerful conglomerates and
companies to ensure that these ideas become more ―mainstream‖ and reach larger sections of society.
There is some truth to that argument, because a brand‘s advertising can be very persuasive to an
audience, however is adding a rainbow logo with a heartfelt message of support enough to create
awareness? Are they really advocating for queer rights? A pride flag for a brand, isn‘t simply a call for
allegiance, it‘s a calculated PR move. The truth is that none of these brands are ―taking a stand‖ for
queer rights despite their marketing techniques making you believe so. They‘re just trying to make
money. Plain and simple.
It‘s very similar to tokenism in films or TV shows. Especially in regards to the characterization of LGBTQ
individuals in films, saying that the token ―gay best friend‖ technically brought visibility to gay people is
downright absurd because it denies all the harmful stereotypes associated with the tokenistic
representation and how that affects LGBTQ people.
Pinkwashing tends to encourage the complacency that leads to widespread discrimination. When we
celebrate brands (who engage in Pinkwashing) as our ―woke‖ heroes, we need to remember that we‘re
praising them for doing the bare minimum. Pinkwashing merely allows companies to profit off pride
merchandise and also erases the problems of caste, gender, race, religion and economic class that also
intersect with those relating to their sexual orientation, because let‘s face it, intersectionality doesn‘t make
them as much money.
True brand commitment to pride would be ensuring that their companies provide safe work environments
for queer people. Creation of a safe work culture that‘s respectful and treats people with dignity is
something that companies should be held accountable for. Pinkwashing is just brands masking their
agendas of profit by being ―woke‖ and inclusive during the month of June before going back to their
regular strategies. And that‘s just not good enough.
(Source: https://havethetalk2020.wordpress.com/2020/11/18/pinkwashing-how-brands-monetize-pride/
1. Which of the following situations does not fall under ―pinkwashing‖?

(a) Swishy is a very popular online food delivery and ordering platform. The company was facing a lot of
criticism for only offering the jobs of delivery persons to men. In order to make amends and show
their support towards inclusivity, they changed their uniforms for delivery persons to a pink t-shirts
coupled with heavy discounts on orders placed by women for all of Women‘s history month.
(b) Ms. Ramani is a self-made business woman who runs a very successful clothing line. She is very
impassioned advocate of women rights and an inspiring feminist. She has often spoken publicly about
how women face a threat to their person in public spaces. In order to amplify awareness of the issue
she launched a line of merchandise during the Pride month aimed to highlight the potential threat
transwomen pose to feminism.
(c) Zenith Co. was one of the top companies in the IT sector. It was particularly preferred by the urban
youth because of vocal support towards the LGBTQIA+ community by its CEO, Mr. Abhilash.
However, several employees of the companies raised complaints of the work environment not being
queer friendly. Mr. Abhilash responded by instituting an immediate enquiry in the incidents as they

brought bad name to the institution and set up an internal committee to come up with a policy
regarding protection of the queer community within the company from persecution and discrimination.
(d) Burger Queen is a popular fast food chain. They have made a name for themselves as a responsible
corporation that gives back to society. It is one of their very celebrated initiatives to start a donation
campaign at the counter of their outlets where customers can contribute during Pride month. All
proceeds go to the queer community within the employees of Burger Queen.
2. Why according to the author is the argument that conglomerates bring LGBTQIA+ issues to the
mainstream not valid?
(a) It is a tactical PR move with the agenda of profit-making.
(b) Applauding the bare minimum leads to complacency
(c) It gives the companies a fake positive image and enables them to get away with a lot of actual
problematic acts.
3. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

(a) The gay best friend character was crucial in providing representation the gay community
(b) The gay best friend character trope perpetuated a lot of harmful stereotypes.
(c) The tokenism in cinema with respect to representation was a stepping stone to a better place for the
community despite its drawbacks.
4. What is the author implying when she says ―intersectionality doesn‘t make them as much money‖?
(a) Involvement of companies is never good as they cannot be held accountable for their motives.
(b) Companies‘ engagement with activism depends upon its profitability.
(c) Involvement of companies in activism is good as they are able to monetize various social issues.
5. Which of the following words from the passage mean the same as ―loyalty‖?
(a) co-opting (b) allegiance (c) commitment (d) support
6. Which of the following is the synonym of the word ―complacency‖ used in the passage?
(a) Discontentment (b) Satisfaction (c) Regret (d) Disregard
Passage (Q.7-Q.12): The color pink is overwhelmingly associated with femininity. That, however, is a
recent development. "If you go back to the 18th century, little boys and girls both wore pink and blue and
other colors uniformly," said Valerie Steele, director of the Museum at the Fashion Institute of
Technology, in New York. In fact, pink was even considered to be a masculine color. "It was related to
the mother color of red, which was ardent and passionate and more active, more aggressive, said
Leatrice Eiseman, a color expert and executive director of the Pantone Color Institute.
According to Steele, the gendering of pink is complicated. "By the 1890s and the early 20th century,
manufacturers attempted to sell more children's and infants' clothes by color-coding them," she said.
Some manufacturers branded pink for boys and blue for girls, and vice versa. "There was no unanimity at
all," Steele said. "People were starting to think by the 1920s, because of the manufacturer's attempt, that
there was a distinction between pink and blue for boys and girls."
Steele believes that the acquisition of two 18th-century paintings by American millionaire Henry
Huntington in 1921 started turning the tide in favor of pink being a girls' color. "The Blue Boy" depicted a
boy dressed in blue, and "Pinkie" portrayed a girl in pink attire. Huntington's purchase was widely
publicized in the American press, Steele said.
Today, a boy or man can't wear pink without it being some kind of statement, said Jo Paoletti, academic
and author of "Pink and Blue: Telling the Girls From the Boys in America." Eiseman agrees that there has
been a steady growth in the usage of pink for men.
Researchers at Pantone found that the color pink is being adapted more by men than it ever had been
before, Eiseman said. Shirt makers like Pink in London and Ralph Lauren's pink polo shirts have helped
make it a popular color among men.

Eiseman said that for some men, the bias against pink comes naturally. But things are changing. "I think
in general, the younger generation simply don't have some of the prejudices about certain colors that
perhaps the fathers and grandfathers do,‖ she said.
Paoletti believes we haven't yet reached the point where pink is just a color, but she is hopeful this can
change. She noted that in the late 1800s, if a young woman was wearing black, people would assume
that someone had died and that she was in mourning. "Now, we see young women wearing black all the
time, and nobody asks them who died. It's just a color," she said.
(Source: https://kvoa.com/news/2018/04/18/the-complicated-gender-history-of-pink/)
7. Which of the following options depict the correct chronological order of events?
1. men are not shy to wear pink as a stand
2. the purchase of blue boy and pinkie paintings
3. pink was an aggressive colour
4. blue
(a) 4-1-3-2 (b) 3-2-1-4 (c) 3-4-2-1 (d) 1-3-2-4
8. Which of the following options depicts the correct combination of truth/falsehood of the following
statements?
1. The gendering of colour pink was the doing of manufacturers.
2. Fashion history shows that colour were devoid of any social connotations prior to the 20th century
3. Pink is being reclaimed as a popular part of men‘s clothing now
(a) 1-F, 2-F, 3-T (b) 1-T, 2-T, 3-F (c) 1-T, 2-F, 3-F (d) 1-F, 2-T, 3-T
9. What is the tone of the passage?

(a) Incendiary (b) Analytical (c) Informative (d) Self-aware
10. Which of the following is the correct meaning of the word ―statement‖ as used in the passage?
(a) denoting a visually striking piece of jewellery, clothing
(b) an expression of an attitude or belief
(c) an official account of facts, views, or plans, especially one for release to the media
11. Which among the following can be the reasons why pink is still considered to be a very feminine colour?
(a) Its association with femininity is pretty recent from a historic stand point.
(b) Brands like Ralph Lauren in their attempt to popularize pink are only strengthening its association
with wealthy delicacy and fashions.
(c) Men are naturally biased against the colour pink.
12. What is the meaning of the word ‗Ardent‘ used in the context of the passage?
(a) Glowing (b) Avid (c) Half-hearted (d) Emotional
Passage (Q.13-Q.17): Even as the world anxiously awaits vaccination against the coronavirus, some
unsung genius somewhere has made an inventive breakthrough by concocting a haldi-flavoured ice
cream. The beneficial effects of haldi – turmeric in English – have long been recognised in India, where
it‘s traditionally used in skin lotions and as an essential cooking ingredient which aids digestion. In the
West, health-conscious patrons of bars now opt for haldi ‗shots‘ in preference to alcoholic beverages. So
sooner or later the condiment was destined to turn up in an ice cream avatar. The creation of a haldi-
flavoured ice cream may or may not find mention in the footnotes of culinary history, but it does invoke
memories of my childhood in what was Calcutta. As a treat I‘d be taken by my mother, or an assortment
of aunts and uncles, to the great green sprawl of the Maidan which fronts the Victoria Memorial and
where a number of ice cream carts would be lined up. Though there were several different brands of ice
cream they all had the same basic product: you could have any flavour you wanted, provided it was
vanilla. Then one day ice cream reinvented itself in a new flavour: strawberry. Now you had a choice of
two types of ice cream – white vanilla and pink strawberry. Would wonders never cease. And they didn‘t.

For not long after along came brown chocolate ice cream, followed by golden mango, and green
pistachio, and coffee that had the colour, and taste, of a cup of café au lait. Then came a US-based
company which offered no less than 32 different kinds of ice cream, including one that tasted of bubble
gum, another of cheesecake, and yet another of cookies. There is kulfi ice cream, and coconut ice cream,
and sitaphal ice cream and anjeer ice cream. There‘s even a chilli ice cream. A sweet treat that is mirchi?
How hotly cool, or coolly hot is that. And now we have haldi ice cream. What next? Heeng ice cream?
Jeera? An ice cream tasting like pizza? And future generations might even marvel at a truly novel flavour
of ice cream. Vanilla? How way out is that.
13. What was the author trying to convey through "And they didn't."?
(a) Vanilla and strawberry remained all time favourite for the author.
(b) Wonders never ceased for the author.
(c) His relatives and parents didn't let him choose between the two available flavours.
14. Why does the author call haldi flavoured ice cream an inventive breakthrough?
(a) It was invented before the vaccine for Coronavirus and must be a work of genius.
(b) The author was lauding the insight that called for a haldi ice cream with its health benefits in light of
the pandemic.
(c) The author was marvelling at the genius which came up with such a unique flavour.
15. Which of the following can be inferred through "So sooner or later the condiment was destined to turn up
in an ice cream avatar"?
(a) Turmeric and its benefits have been known since ancient times and were bound to be adopted in
modern cooking through ice cream.
(b) All culinary trends find their way into becoming an ice cream flavour.
(c) An ice cream flavour is the culmination of all culinary trends.
16. Pick the option with the appropriate pairs of expression and figures of speech employed in the same.
A. Anxiously awaits I. Sarcasm
B. Great green II. Assonance
C. you could have any flavour you wanted, provided it was vanilla III. Oxymoron
D. Coolly hot IV. Alliteration
(a) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (b) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(c) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (d) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
17. Which among the following words from the passage mean the same as "a miscellaneous collection of
things or people"?
(a) Novel (b) Line up (c) Assortment (d) Sprawl
Passage (Q.18-Q.22): A JPEG file went under the hammer at Christie‘s on March 11 and was sold for
$69.3 million, which was paid in cryptocurrency. The world — including the work‘s creator, digital artist
Beeple — watched in disbelief.
First, let‘s get our basics clear. What‘s an NFT? It‘s a unique token attached to a digital work of art that
proves the work‘s authenticity. It gives ownership to the buyer, who gains the right to trade the piece. The
tokens are ‗minted‘ or generated on blockchain, making their ownership and original creator clear and
traceable. To mint an NFT, you have to cough up a gas fee, a payment for the computing energy used in
Ethereum transactions. This exclusivity, traceability and authenticity make NFT artworks scarce and thus
valuable. In 2020, the NFT market reached a total value of more than $250 million.
In February 2021, Delhi-based animator and art director Amrit Pal Singh sold two pieces on Foundation
for 15 ETH (roughly ₹18 lakh). These were toy face renditions of Daft Punk. In a nine-year career, Singh
has launched mobile apps, a merchandise store, card games and a directory platform, but nothing has

succeeded like the toy face NFTs. ―But it‘s not as easy as it‘s made out to be", he says. He benefited
from his active social media presence and awareness about his work amongst his clients. My initial
bidders were some of my clients,‖ he adds.
NFTs allow digital artists to sell their work as a product rather than as a service, so you can quote a
better price. They also allow an artist to earn royalty on his or her art every time a work is sold.
The promise of the metaverse is that it allows artists to take control of the value of their work within a
version of the Internet that‘s owned and operated collectively and independent of corporate control. Art in
the form of NFTs opens up the creative potential for monetising a digital work‘s virality, which right now
exists merely in metrics of likes, shares and views.
Crypto mining, the process of creating cryptocurrency, involves a network of machines that release CO2,
putting it at the heart of the ecological debate. According to Digiconomist, a platform that reflects on
digital trends from an economic point of view, bitcoin mining generates 38 million tonnes of CO2 per year
— comparable to the carbon footprint of Ireland. Mining economics is complex, and for every article
dissecting blockchain‘s unsustainability, there‘s an article discounting it as ‗grossly miscalculated‘. NFTs
are taking all the heat for crypto mining lately and many people have formed polarised perspectives on its
carbon footprint.
18. Which of the following options accurately describe NFTs?

(a) NFTs are digital art pieces
(b) NFTs are tokens which gives the buyer ownership and the right to trade
(c) Its a unique token attached to a digital work of art that proves the work‘s authenticity.
(d) Both B & C
19. Which of the following can be the reasons why artists prefer NFTs?
(a) Digital artists can be recognized and given the praise that they deserve
(b) NFTs allow digital artists to sell their work as a product rather than as a service and they also quote
royalties for future use.
(c) NFTs allow artists to quote higher prices for their artwork
(d) NFTs monetizes the potential for various player to profit from selling digital arts, allowing for
newcomers to even the playing field
20. What is the tone of the passage?

(a) Incendiary (b) Analytical (c) Informative (d) Sardonic
21. Which of the following is the correct meaning of the word "exclusivity" as used for the passage?
(a) The practice of excluding or not admitting other things.
(b) Restriction to a particular person, group, or area.
(c) The fact of an item or story not being published or broadcast elsewhere.
(d) Exclusivity is defined as a state of being limited, unique or hard to access
22. Which of the following is the correct reason for why NFTs can be a polarizing topic?
(a) NFTs still depend on one company staying in business to verify your art.
(b) NFTs still depend on the old-fashioned pre-blockchain internet,
(c) NFTs are taking the heat for crypto-mining

Passage (Q.23-Q.27): Scientology is a body of beliefs and practices started in 1952 by science fiction
writer L Ron Hubbard. Hubbard founded Scientology with the publication of his book, Dianetics: The
Modern Science of Mental Health. This book is regarded by Scientologists as the most important text
relating to Scientology. Hubbard was succeeded by the current leader of Scientology, David Miscavige, in
1987.
The Church of Scientology was granted tax exemption by the US Inland Revenue Service in 1993, on
this basis that it was a ‗religion‘. Scientology is also recognised as a religion by countries including
Sweden, Spain and Portugal. However, other nations, like Canada and the United Kingdom, do not afford
Scientology religious recognition. Many people go as far as to suggest that it is a cult, on the basis that it
brainwashes and extorts its followers. This is because it is impossible to ascend the ranks of the Church
of Scientology without paying cash to advance through the various levels, which range from ‗Clear‘ to
‗Operating Thetan Level XV‘.
It can be widely read on the internet (which practising Scientologists are discouraged from using), that
Scientology scriptures make reference to a character named Xenu. As dictator of the "Galactic
Confederacy", Xenu supposedly brought billions of his people to Earth 75-million years ago, stacked
them around volcanoes and killed them using hydrogen bombs. Some ex-Scientologists have said that
the Church of Scientology only tells its followers about Xenu when they reach Operating Thetan Level III.
Scientology has been embroiled in various controversies since its inception. Its history includes
allegations of criminal behaviour, harassment of people of other religions, attempts to pressure search
engines to censor information which is critical of the Church, and physical violence against members. The
most significant and widely reported controversy occurred in 1978, when various high-ranking
Scientologists, including Mary Sue Hubbard, L Ron Hubbard‘s wife, were convicted of domestic
espionage.
Perhaps the most famous practitioner of Scientology is Tom Cruise, who ranks as an Operating Thetan
Level VII. Cruise has deep links to the Church of Scientology; David Miscavige was Tom Cruise‘s best
man at his wedding to Katie Holmes in 2006. Cruise has spoken in favour of the Church of Scientology
many times since joining in it in 1990, including on public chat shows, and has donated a vast amount of
money to the cause. This has led to many internet parodies and memes of Cruise as well as conspiracy
theories about his involvement with Scientology.
23. Which of the following about Scientology cannot be drawn from what the writer has said in the passage?
(a) Scientology is based on the science fiction of L Ron Hubbard
(b) Scientology is a cult
(c) Scientology is recognised as a religion in some countries but not others
(d) Scientology actively looks to recruit celebrity followers
24. From what the writer has said, which of the following statements is most likely to be true?
(a) David Miscavige is related to L Ron Hubbard
(b) Reference to Xenu is easily found online
(c) Scientologists never go on the internet
(d) Katie Holmes is a scientologist
25. Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the argument that Scientology is a cult?
(a) Senior Scientologists claim they have not been brainwashed
(b) Senior Scientologists have not paid any money to the Church of Scientology
(c) Scientology is granted tax exemptions in over 20 countries
(d) Scientology does not ban followers from using the internet
26. Assuming what the writer has said in the passage is true, which of the following statements are also true?
(a) Tom Cruise has paid money to the Church of Scientology
(b) L Ron Hubbard died in 1987
(c) There are many Scientologists in Spain
(d) Canada and the UK have the same tax system

27. Give a synonym for the term ―Espionage‖
(a) Interrogation (b) Felony (c) Spying (d) Enquiry
Passage (Q.28-Q.32): Lance Armstrong was one of the world‘s most celebrated sportsmen, having won
seven consecutive Tour de France races between 1999 and 2005. This feat was all the more remarkable
as it came after he was diagnosed with advanced testicular cancer in 1996. Armstrong undeniably
achieved things that have never been matched before or since, and was respected as much for his work
off the bike as on it. In 1997, he launched the Lance Armstrong Foundation to provide support to Cancer
sufferers. The name of the foundation was changed to Livestrong in 2003 and popularised by the sale of
yellow wristbands, which raised more than $325 million.
Rumours had long circulated that Armstrong might have been involved with doping. These had always
been fiercely rebuffed by Armstrong and his representatives. For example, he successfully sued The
Sunday Times and its writer David Walsh for alleging that he had cheated during his Tour successes.
However, in 2012 Armstrong was given a lifetime ban by the United States Anti-Doping Agency
(USADA); he did not appeal the ban, citing the pressure it would put on his family as the reason. He was
accused by USADA of running ‗the most sophisticated, professionalized and successful doping program
that professional cycling has ever seen‘, not only taking performance enhancing drugs himself, but also
putting pressure on teammates to do so. As a result of his decision not to appeal the ban, Armstrong was
unceremoniously stripped of all titles that he had won since August 1998, including his Tour titles.
After initial protestations, Armstrong admitted to taking banned substances when he appeared on the
Oprah Winfrey Show in January 2013; a spectacle which was widely reported by the media and
publicised online. He declined to testify about the full extent of his doping habits; however, there were a
number of legal and financial consequences to his admission. Among other things, Armstrong was
dropped by sponsors, sued by SCA Promotions for the $12million it paid out insuring his Tour wins, and
was also counter-sued by the Sunday Times. At the time Armstrong was said to have lost $75 million
dollars ‗in one day‘.
Lance Armstrong‘s story serves as a staunch reminder of the dangers of competitive sport. When
athletes become obsessed with winning, it can lead to disastrous consequences, not merely for those
athletes involved but for the sport at large and the millions of fans for whom the athletes are role models.
In Armstrong‘s case, his actions have even tarnished Livestrong; the very charity that Armstrong
instituted and championed for so long.
28. Which of the following was not a consequence of Armstrong‘s admission that he took banned
substances?
(a) He was given a lifetime ban by USADA
(b) He lost some sponsorship
(c) He was sued by multiple parties
(d) The Sunday Times took legal action against him
29. What is the closest synonym to ‗unceremoniously‘ here?

(a) Quickly (b) Unfairly (c) Unhappily (d) Abruptly
30. What is the main argument in the last paragraph?

(a) Lance Armstrong acted irresponsibly
(b) Athletes have a duty to act in a responsible way
(c) Competitive sport can lead to an obsession with winning
(d) Lance Armstrong has destroyed himself through his actions
31. What sport did Lance Armstrong play?

(a) Sprinting (b) Formula 1
(c) Road Cycle Racing (d) Hurdle Racing
32. What is the antonym of the word ―Rebuff‖?

(a) Refuse (b) Reject (c) Accept (d) Permission

Passage (Q.33-Q.37): Presiding officers of both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha accepted that Lok Sabha
Television (LSTV) and Rajya Sabha Television (RSTV) have been merged into a single TV channel, of
which retired IAS officer Ravi Capoor will be the Chief Executive Officer for a year.
The decision was taken in line with the proposals given by a panel headed by former Prasar Bharati
chairman. It was appointed by Rajya Sabha chairman M Venkaiah Naidu in consultation with LS speaker
Om Birla.
The panel, which had consulted some members of Parliament also, had suggested that Parliament
should have only one channel, which could be called Sansad TV. The panel had submitted its report in
June last year. It is still undecided whether the same programme will be run separately in Hindi and
English, or whether Lok Sabha would like to have separate programmes made for their platforms, is not
decided yet. There is also a suggestion that only one platform can function in bilingual during the inter-
Session period,‖ an official said.
The panel had suggested that the new channel should capture ―various activities beyond the proceedings
of the two Houses, including the functioning of committees and development activities of the members in
their constituencies.
33. The government of India has announced the merger of the Lok Sabha TV and the Rajya Sabha TV. The
channels from now on will be known as
(a) Sabha TV
(b) Sansad TV
(c) Bharatiya Sabha TV
(d) Bhartiya Sansad TV
34. Which of the following statement is not correct about Lok Sabha TV?
(a) The Lok Sabha TV has been in operation since 2006.
(b) Lok Sabha TV was the first Parliamentary channel of India.
(c) The LSTV was the brainchild of Former Lok Sabha Speaker Somnath Chatterjee.
(d) The idea of a 24×7 Parliamentary Channel with the objective to familiarise citizens with the
functioning of Parliament, was given by Manohar Joshi.
35. Consider the following statement about Rajya Sabha TV

I. The RSTV was launched in 2011. It will telecast the live proceedings of the Rajya Sabha. It also
brings analyses of parliamentary affairs and provides a platform for knowledge-based programmes.
II. The budget of the RSTV is bigger than that of the LSTV. The Union Budget allocates funds for the
running of channels. The RSTV also employs more people than the LSTV.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) None of these
36. In 2019, a committee was set up to look into the merger of two channels under former Prasar Bharati
Chairman
(a) Jawhar Sircar
(b) Surya Prakash
(c) Dr Mrinal Pande
(d) Shashi Shekhar Vempati

37. Which of the following statement is not correct about the recommendations made by the panel?
(a) The committee has suggested that a merged Sansad TV should have two separate channels—
SansadLS and SansadRS.
(b) One channel will telecast the live proceedings of the Lok Sabha. On the other hand, the other channel
will telecast the live proceedings of the Rajya Sabha.
(c) When Parliament is not in session, the first channel can air Hindi content and the second channel can
air English content. This will result in better branding and increased viewership of Sansad TV.
(d) None of these
Passage (Q.38-Q.42): The Suez Canal blockage was a curve ball that was thrown by a combination of
factors. While the role of nature — a severe sandstorm — is evident, the other factors that contributed to
this major disruption will be known only after a thorough investigation.
On March 23, a container ship [1] belonging to the Taiwanese shipping line Evergreen ran aground on
the eastern bank blocking the canal. The Suez Canal, opened in 1869, connects Port Suez on the Red
Sea to Port Said on the Mediterranean Sea cutting short the voyage time from the east to the west by a
week.
A cursory analysis throws up possible decreased engine power exacerbated by high velocity winds which
used the resistance offered by the wall of containers (surface of roughly 14,000 sq m) virtually converting
it into an effective sail, as probable causes for driving the ship aground. Regardless, it ended up causing
a massive disruption to the global maritime supply chains, with 422 ships waiting due to this blockade.
The Suez Canal last year handled almost 25,000 vessels averaging 55-75 vessels a day and this seven-
day interruption hugely impacted the throughput of world trade.
Estimates by analysts, including Lloyds, put the cost at $9.6 billion for each day. Allianz, the insurer of the
ship, pegged the cost to global trade between $6 billion and $10 billion. The accident is expected to affect
negatively the global maritime trade by 0.2 to 0.4 per cent.
38. Which of the following statement is not correct about the Suez Canal?
(a) The modern Suez was built in the mid-19th century through efforts by the French and opened for
navigation on November 17, 1869.
(b) In 1858, the Universal Suez Ship Canal Company was tasked to construct and operate the canal for
99 years, after which rights would be handed to the Egyptian government.
(c) The Suez Canal is pivotal in connecting Europe and Africa, as it negates the need to navigate around
the Cape of Good Hope in Africa and thus cutting distances by up to 7,000 km.
(d) The Suez Canal put Egypt at a strategic junction between Asia and Europe. In the wave of assertion
by colonies and quasi-colonies, Gamal Abdel Nasser nationalized the canal in 1956.
39. Located in Egypt, the artificial sea-level waterway was built between 1859 and 1869 linking the
Mediterranean Sea and
(a) Caribbean Sea
(b) Black Sea
(c) Caspian Sea
(d) Red Sea
40. Consider the following statement about Suez Canal

I. The construction of the Suez Canal was a tectonic development for global maritime connectivity and
impacted colonial history in a definitive manner. The rise of the British Empire was enabled
considerably by this canal.
II. The Suez along, with the Panama Canal (that links the Pacific and Indian oceans), are the two most
critical canals in the global maritime domain along with the Volga-Don and the Grand Canal (China).
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) None of these

(a) Black Ship
(b) Blue Whale
(c) Ever Green
(d) Dead Red
42. What is the amount that Egyptian authorities have asked the owners of the Ship to pay in compensation?
(a) $50 million
(b) $1 billion
(c) $10 billion
(d) $5 billion
Passage (Q.43-Q.47): Almost a month after Uttar Pradesh cleared an ordinance to curb 'Love Jihad' in
the state, the BJP in Madhya Pradesh has now approved a bill on similar lines. The Madhya Pradesh
cabinet on Saturday approved the Religious Freedom Bill 2020, which provides for prison term of up to
10 years and fine of Rs 1 lakh for conversion through marriage or by any other fraudulent means. Briefing
about the Bill after the cabinet meeting, state Home Minister Narottam Mishra said "the Bill has been
approved after detailed discussions in the cabinet." Giving details of the new bill, the home minister said
that the bill once enforced, will be the most stringent law in the country against religious conversion
carried out by fraudulent means, allurement or threat. Co-accused in such crime will be dealt with as
prime accused only. Also, religious gurus/clerics or religious institutions convicted for solemnizing or
aiding religious conversion through such marriages too will be dealt sternly under the proposed law. ―All
such marriages which have been solemnized with the intent of religious conversion will be declared null
and void, but children born due to such fraudulent marital union will have right over the properties of both
mother and father. Also, the woman victim and her children will have the right to maintenance.‖ While
maintaining that those accused under this will be booked for cognizable and non-bailable offences. The
home minister said "any marriage solemnized only for the purpose of converting a person will be
considered null and void under the provisions of this proposed legislation‖.
SOURCE: Excerpt from The Indian Express, (dated 26th December 2020).
43. The bill is to replace ____________

(a) Religious Freedom Act, 1969.
(b) Religious Freedom Act, 1968.
(c) Religious Freedom Act, 1958.
(d) Religious Freedom Act, 1960.
44. The accused will face imprisonment ranging from two to ten years with a fine of Rs. 50,000 if the victim
is-
(a) Belongs from SC/ST Community
(b) A minor
(c) A woman
45. How many days in advance does a person needs to apply in district administration for wilful conversion?
(a) 15 days.
(b) 30 days.
(c) 10 days.
(d) 60 days.
46. What punishment is prescribed if the conversion is done through marriage or by any other fraudulent
means?
(a) Up to 5 years of imprisonment with Rs. 1,00,000 of fine.
(b) Up to 2 years of imprisonment with Rs. 50,000 of fine.
(c) Up to 10 years of imprisonment with Rs. 1,00,000 of fine.
(d) Up to 7 years of imprisonment with Rs. 50, 000 of fine.

47. When was Madhya Pradesh Freedom of Religion Ordinance, 2020 was promulgated-
(a) December 29, 2020
(b) December 31, 2020
(c) January 5, 2021
(d) January 7, 2021
Passage (Q.48-Q.52): India helped Iran to fight the worst locust invasion of the past 25 years by
supplying 25 tonnes of the drug Malathion in June 2020 through Chabahar. The second batch of 25
tonnes of Malathion recently reached Chabahar, he added.
Afghanistan, Iran and India signed an agreement on developing Chabahar port and setting up a trilateral
transport and transit corridor in 2016. India then set up India Ports Global Limited to operate the Shahid
Behesti terminal at Chabahar.
Since the Indian firm began operations in December 2018, the port has handled 123 vessels, 13,752
containers and 1.8 million tonnes of cargo, Mandaviya said. There has also been an increase in the
average monthly calls by merchant vessels, and 110,000 tonnes of wheat and 2,000 tonnes of pulses
have been shipped to Afghanistan.
48. India expressed its intent to include Chabahar port in the 13-nation International North South Transport
Corridor (INSTC) that extends from India to
(a) Iran
(b) Afghanistan
(c) Russia
(d) Uzbekistan
49. Which of the following statement is not correct about the Chabahar port?
(a) It is the only Iranian port with direct access to the Indian ocean and consists of two separate ports
named Shahid Beheshti and Shahid Koushah.
(b) It is located on the Gulf of Oman and is only 72 km away from the Gwadar port in Pakistan which has
been developed by China.
(c) Chabahar Port is a key element in India's Indo-Pacific strategy that also includes Eurasia's
connection with the Indian Ocean Region.
(d) None of these
50. Which agreement was signed by Afghanistan, Iran and India on developing Chabahar port and setting up
a trilateral transport and transit corridor in 2016?
(a) Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA)
(b) Triferential agreement
(c) Tripartite agreement
(d) None of these
51. Consider the following statement about INSTC

I. It is a multi-modal transportation established on 12th September 2000 in St. Petersburg, by Iran,
Russia and India for the purpose of promoting transportation cooperation among the Member States.
II. This corridor connects India Ocean and the Persian Gulf to the Caribbean Sea via the Islamic
Republic of Iran and then is connected to St. Petersburg and North Europe via the Russian
Federation.
Which of the statement is/are true?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) None of these

52. Which of the following Country is not the part of the INSTC‘s expanded eleven new members?
(a) Tajikistan
(b) Turkey
(c) Ukraine
(d) Vietnam
Passage (Q.53-Q.57): The entire Nagaland was on Wednesday declared a ―disturbed area‖ for six more
months by the central government. This enabled the continuation of the controversial AFSPA which
empowers security forces to conduct operations anywhere and arrest anyone without any prior warrant.
The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) has been in force in Nagaland for several decades.
The MHA said in a notification that the central government is of the opinion that the area comprising the
whole of Nagaland is in such a ―disturbed and dangerous condition‖ that the use of armed forces in aid of
the civil power is necessary, reported PTI. Now, therefore, in exercise of the powers conferred by the
Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 (No. 28 of 1958), the central government hereby declares that
whole of the State of Nagaland to be 'disturbed area' for a period of six months with effect from 30th
December 2020 for the purpose of the said Act,‖ PTI quoted the notification. A home ministry official said
the decision to continue the declaration of Nagaland as a "disturbed area" has been taken as killings, loot
and extortion have been going on in various parts of the state which necessitated the action for the
convenience of the security forces operating there., reported PTI.
As per a report in PTI, the AFSPA has not been withdrawn even after a framework agreement was
signed on August 3, 2015 by NSCN-IM. The framework agreement came after over 80 rounds of
negotiations spanning 18 years, with the first breakthrough in 1997 when the ceasefire agreement was
sealed after decades of insurgency in Nagaland. However, the peace process has been stuck for some
time as the NSCN-IM has been pressing for a separate flag and Constitution, a demand rejected by the
central government, reported PTI.
SOURCE: Excerpt from India Today, (dated 31st December 2020)
53. Under which section of AFSPA, Nagaland was declared as ―disturbed area‖?
(a) Section 4
(b) Section 3
(c) Section 6
(d) Section 5
54. Who can declare a region as ―Disturbed Area‖?

(a) State Government
(b) Governor of the State
(c) The President
(d) The Home Minister
55. NSCN-IM is a
(a) Political Party
(b) Regional Group
(c) Insurgent Group
56. For how long, the region is declared as ―disturbed‖ according to The Disturbed Areas (Special Courts)
Act, 1976?
(a) Four months
(b) Six months
(c) Twelve months
(d) Three months

57. What were the demands put forward by NSCN-IM?
(a) Separate Flag and Constitution.
(b) Increment in the Reservation policy.
(c) Allocation of Resources.
Passage (Q.58-Q.62): The protests began in June 2019 over plans - later put on ice, and finally
withdrawn in September - that would have allowed extradition from Hong Kong to mainland China. They
then spread to reflect wider demands for democratic reform, and an inquiry into alleged police brutality.
Now, China is proposing to introduce a new national security law, which critics believe could be used to
crack down on rights and political activists. This is not all happening in a vacuum. There's a lot of
important context - some of it stretching back decades - that helps explain what is going on.
Hong Kong's mini-constitution, the Basic Law, says that ultimately both the leader, and the Legislative
Council, should be elected in a more democratic way - but there's been disagreement over what this
should look like.
The Chinese government said in 2014 it would allow voters to choose their leaders from a list approved
by a pro-Beijing committee, but critics called this a "sham democracy" and it was voted down in Hong
Kong's legislature. In 28 years' time in 2047, the Basic Law expires - and what happens to Hong Kong's
autonomy after that is unclear.
58. According to the new electoral system, The number of Hong Kong‘s Legislative Council (HKLC) members
will be increased to
(a) 70
(b) 80
(c) 86
(d) 90
59. Consider the following statement about the electoral policy

I. The change will give Beijing-appointed politicians a greater say in running the Hong Kong Special Act
Region (HKSAR), marking the biggest change since the handover in 1997.
II. An increased number of pro-Beijing officials would weaken the power of the opposition to influence
the city's leadership.
Which of the statement is/are true?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) None of these
60. Which of the following statement is not correct about the implications on India due to the new electoral
policy?
(a) Hong Kong is a destination for re-export of Indian goods to the global market.
(b) Hong Kong is the second largest export market for India.
(c) India is of the view that Hong Kong can play an important role in strengthening ties with China, as it is
considered a gateway to China.
(d) Thus, global tensions due to political unrest in Hong Kong carry consequences for India‘s trade with
the rest of the world, as well as with China.
61. According to the which treaty, China would reassume control of Hong Kong, which was occupied by
Britain after the Opium War in 1840
(a) Sino-British Joint Declaration
(b) China-British Joint Declaration
(c) Quing-British Joint Declaration
(d) Sino-Qing Joint Declaration

62. Under policies which are stipulated in the Basic Law, the city‘s mini-constitution, it has been stated that
China's basic policies regarding Hong Kong will remain unchanged for how many years
(a) 5 Years
(b) 20 Years
(c) 15 Years
(d) 50 Years
Passage (Q.63-Q.67): The Supreme Court on Monday said the issue of whether it is time to scrap the
50% ceiling on reservations in educational institutions and jobs needs to be answered in the context of
the ―changed social dynamics of the society‖ and recent constitutional amendments, and sought the
views of the states — a radical departure from the legal precedent that has, for three decades now, held
the ceiling as inviolable.
Any attempt to increase the ceiling is loaded with political significance — various states (ruled by
governments of varying hues) have sought, in vain until now, to do this to address the grievances of one
politically important constituency or other. The court‘s observation itself, came in a case where a
reservation for Marathas in Maharashtra caused a breach in the ceiling.
Almost 30 years after a nine-judge bench in the [1] case (famously known as the Mandal Commission
case) imposed the ceiling of 50% on total reservation, a bench of judges agreed to examine whether the
1992 ruling should be reconsidered in the wake of various states providing for quota exceeding 50% and
the central government framing a law in 2018 for reservation to economically and socially backward
classes.
63. Which bench of judges examine whether the 1992 verdict by a nine-judge bench capping quota at 50%
needed to be revisited in view of subsequent constitutional amendments and changed social dynamics?
(a) Divisional Bench
(b) Three Judge Bench
(c) Constitutional Bench
(d) Five Judge Bench
64. Which of the following statement is not correct about the Reservation for Marathas?
(a) The court‘s observation came in a case where a reservation for Marathas in Maharashtra caused a
breach in the 50% ceiling.
(b) The Maharashtra government decided to grant 20% reservation of total seats to the Marathas.
(c) It was reduced by the Bombay High Court to 12% in govt jobs and 13% in educational institutions.
(d) None of these
65. Which Article says that the claims of SCs and STs shall be taken into consideration constituently with the
maintenance of efficacy of the administration.
(a) Article 333
(b) Article 334
(c) Article 335
(d) Article 336
66. 10% reservation for EWS. was made by the which amendment to the Constitution.
(a) 101st amendment
(b) 102nd amendment
(c) 103rd amendment
(d) 104th amendment
(a) Navtej Singh Johar
(b) Maneka Gandhi
(c) Indra Sawhney
(d) M. Nagaraj

Passage (Q.68-Q.71): The ‗Five Eyes‘ intelligence partnership called on China to ―live up to‖ its duty to
the people of Hong Kong after Beijing moved to demand loyalty from the city‘s lawmakers, prompting its
opposition to resign en masse. The countries that make up the alliance, reiterated ―serious concern‖ over
China‘s new rule in a joint statement on Hong Kong. The group called on China‘s central government ―to
re-consider their actions against Hong Kong‘s elected legislature and immediately reinstate the
Legislative Council members.‖ China‘s move to disqualify lawmakers not deemed sufficiently loyal
was one of its strongest yet to stifle protest and dissent in the former British colony. The measure has
fuelled concerns about basic freedoms in the city and its future autonomy from the mainland. The Five
Eyes has increasingly expanded beyond intelligence cooperation to weigh in on geopolitical issues of
shared concern, and is a potential platform for President-elect Joe Biden‘s incoming administration to
rally its allies against a more assertive Beijing. The alliance in August issued a statement saying it was
―gravely concerned‖ about candidate disqualifications in Hong Kong and the postponement of the city‘s
legislative election. The Chinese Foreign Ministry pushed back, saying it ―deplores‖ the statement and
that it had interfered in China‘s internal affairs.
SOURCE: Excerpt from The Print, written by Karen Leigh and Chelsea Mes (dated 19 November, 2020)
68. The Five Eyes (FVEY) Alliance consists of-

(a) U.S, Australia, Canada, Russia, Indonesia
(b) U.K., Australia, New Zealand, Canada, France
(c) U.S., Australia, New Zealand, Canada, U.K.
(d) U.S., New Zealand, Canada, Australia, Russia
69. The Five Eyes (FVEY) is ________ alliance?

(a) Political
(b) Economic
(c) Intelligence
(d) Military
70. Which country is on its way to become the ‗sixth eye‘ of the alliance?
(a) Japan
(b) North Korea
(c) Turkey
(d) Iraq
71. The countries are signatory to____________

(a) UN Charter
(b) BECA
(c) COMCASA
(d) USUKA Agreement

Passage (Q.72-Q.76): Five Hindu women and a NGO have approached the Supreme Court challenging
the practice of bigamy permitted under Muslim personal law.
The petition claimed that while there exists a clear bar under law on polygamous relationships under
Section 494 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) which makes it punishable, such personal laws make its
provision discriminatory as other religions are unable to enjoy this benefit.
The petition has sought striking down Section 2 of Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937
which recognises the system of bigamy or polygamy prevalent in Muslim community.
It said, ―The system of bigamy is the history of past and has no place in present day scenario at
International level. There is unanimity between nations that such a practice is unscrupulous,
discriminatory, exploitative and anti-women, and must come to an end.‖
Section 494 of IPC provides that ―whoever, having a husband or wife living, marries in any case in which
such marriage is void by reason of its taking place during the life of such husband or wife, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall
also be liable to fine‖.
The petition has said that there should be unanimity in the field of penal law relating to prohibition of
bigamy. The petitioners have prayed that the words ―in any case in which such marriage is void by
reasons of its taking place‖ occurring in Section 494 of IPC be read down or struck down as the same is
discriminatory and oppressive for women and will be hit by Article 14 (right to equality) and 15(1) (Right
against discrimination) of the Constitution of India.
Source: Bar and Bench
72. Uttam was married to Neema at the age of 16 and the girl‘s age was of 15. Later, when he turned 24
years of age, he started liking another girl. He has read somewhere that marriage performed below the
age of 18 is a void marriage, therefore believing that he is not validly married to Neema, left her without
giving her divorce and marries the girl he liked. In this case-
(a) Uttam has committed an offence of bigamy by marrying other women without divorcing his first wife.
(b) Uttam has not committed an offence of bigamy, because he was not of major age when he married to
Neema
(c) Uttam can marry to the girl he likes because now he is of 24 years of age and can take his own
decision.
(d) These rules are bogus and against one‘s fundamental right to choose partner.
73. Salim Ali at 19 years, a Muslim by religion, married to Sara (17 years), a Muslim Girl. Later, when he
turned 28 years of age, he fell in love with another girl, Valima. He left Sara and married Valima. When
Sara found out about Ali‘s second marriage, she wants to bring an action against him for committing
bigamy. Decide.
(a) Salim Ali has committed an offence of bigamy.
(b) Salim Ali has not committed an offence of bigamy, because he was not of major age when he married
to Sara.
(c) Salim Ali can marry to the girl he likes because now he is of 28 years of age and can take his own
decision.
(d) Salim Ali has not committed the offence of Bigamy.

74. Atimabh is married to Maya and both are leading a happy married life. Both of them decide to go on a
vacation to Bangkok for a week for business and pleasure. During their trip, in one of the industrial fairs,
Maya and Atimabh get separated and in spite of several efforts by Atimabh, the local police and the
media, he can't locate Maya. With a heavy heart, he decides to leave for India. Two years pass by and he
meets a divorcee called Meekha. They meet regularly to share their loneliness and eventually decide to
get married. The next year, Maya comes home and finds out that Atimabh has married Meekha. Which of
the following statements is true?
(a) Atimabh and Meekha are liable for bigamy
(b) Since Maya was still alive, Atimabh's marriage to Meekha will be considered as a case of bigamy.
(c) Since Maya was absent for several years, a presumption will be made in law that she was not alive.
Hence, Atimabh's marriage with Meekha is valid
(d) Maya is liable for deserting her husband, hence, she is liable
75. Sourabh and Premlata are both Hindus and got married in Punjab. Later, Sourabh went to Ohio, US to
complete his Master‘s degree. He fell in love with one of his batchmates Manisha and wished to marry
her. The local laws of Ohio allowed people to marry more than once during the presence of their living
spouse. Sourabh went ahead and divorced Premlata without her knowledge. After a year, when Premlata
went for Saurabh‘s convocation she got the information about his second marriage to Manisha.
Devastated, Premlata moved a petition in Indian court against Saurabh for committing bigamy. Which of
the following is true?
(a) The marriage of Sourabh with Manisha is valid as a competent court of law dissolved the marriage of
Sourabh with Premlata
(b) Since Sourabh has been residing in Ohio, his marriage and divorce shall be governed by the law
there
(c) Since Sourabh did not divorced Premlata before marrying Manisha, he will be held liable for
committing bigamy under Indian Penal Code.
(d) Since Sourabh got married in Punjab, the Indian law should be applicable to his case
76. Rakhi got married to Daniel in 2011. Tired of Rakhi‘s publicity stunts, Daniel left her and started living
separately. Rakhi met Mika in a concert and fell in love with him. The duo even launched their new item
number which got immense popularity. Mika who is an ardent news follower read the above article and
believed that bigamy is allowed for all in the country and not just Muslim men. He broke this news to
Rakhi and the very next day they married at a small ceremony on an isolated island and broke the news
to their fans through Instagram live. When Daniel saw the Instagram live, he went furious and filed a case
against Rakhi for bigamy. Is she guilty?
(a) Rakhi guilty as her act of remarrying is an offence under the penal codes of the country.
(b) Rakhi is not guilty as she genuinely believed that bigamy is allowed to all the citizens in the country.
(c) Rakhi.is not guilty as she was anyway living separately from her husband making it a valid ground for
divorced.
(d) Mika is guilty for the offence of adultery.
Passage (Q.77-Q.81): The 2018 amendment to Section 10 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 has
significantly curtailed the power of the courts to refuse specific performance of a contract, especially
when the terms of the contract clearly warrant it. This has put a huge onus on all entities entering into
commercial contracts to expend more time and attention while negotiating and entering into such
contracts.
The real significance and impact of the amendment stems from the fact that it has made the specific
performance of contracts the (general) rule rather than an optional remedy.
Prior to the amendment, Section 10 of the Act stated that "the specific performance of any contract may,
in the discretion of the court, be enforced" since the legislative intention at the time of the enactment of
the Act was to give full judicial discretion to the courts to direct/enforce or not to direct/enforce the specific
performance of a contract.
Post the amendment, the Section reads that "the specific performance of a contract shall be enforced by
the court subject to the applicability of the provisions contained in Section 11(2), Section 14 and Section

16 of the Act." This clearly shows the change in the approach of the legislature to limit or restrict the
judiciary‘s wide discretionary powers qua specific performance of contracts.
It is well-established under contract law that with respect to the interpretation of contracts, the doctrine
of contra proferentem applies against the party which drafted the terms of the contract or imposed any
specific conditions therein in that any ambiguity in the contract will be construed against the party that
drafted the contract. This holds good irrespective of the nature of the contract or the bargaining
power/position of the parties.
[Extracted with minor revisions from ‗Judicial discretion to enforce contracts in India curtailed: Effect on
post-COVID litigation‘ by NL Rajah and Aparna Raman, published 24 Fed 2021 in barandbench
https://www.barandbench.com/columns/judicial-discretion-to-enforce-contracts-in-india-curtailed-effect-
on-post-covid-litigation]
77. A and B entered into a contract in 2016 for the sale of 10,000 pairs of plastic slippers. Under the contract,
A was supposed to make half of the payment at the time of contracting and the other half upon delivery of
the slippers. B was due to make good on his obligations before March 2020 however, he failed to do so
due to interruptions in supply chains in light of severe travel restrictions. On 1st April 2020, A sued B for
specific performance of the contract. Is the court bound to direct B to perform the contract?
(a) Yes, because the amendment to the Specific Relief Act significantly curtailed the power of the courts
to refuse specific performance of a contract
(b) Yes, because the terms of the contract clearly warrant specific performance of obligations by B before
March 2020
(c) No, because the courts have discretion to direct/enforce specific performance by B
(d) No, because the wide discretionary powers of the court is limited with respect to ordering specific
performance by B
78. In the previous factual scenario, assume that B was bound to deliver the plastic slippers before March
2018. However, B was unable to fulfil his contractual obligations because the truck carrying the raw
material for making the slippers met with an accident and the slippers could not be completed in time. If A
sues B for specific performance of contractual obligations, is the Court now bound to give an order in A's
favour?
(a) No, because Section 10 of the Specific Relief Act restricts the judiciary‘s wide discretionary powers
qua specific performance of contracts
(b) No, because Section 10 of the Specific Relief Act states that "the specific performance of any contract
may, in the discretion of the court, be enforced"
(c) Yes, because Section 10 of the Specific Relief Act states that "the specific performance of any
contract may, in the discretion of the court, be enforced"
(d) Yes, because Section 10 of the Specific Relief Act restricts the judiciary‘s wide discretionary powers
qua specific performance of contracts
79. Chota and Bheem entered into a contract for the sale and purchase of hand sanitizers in January 2020.
Due to the lockdown restrictions in March 2020, Bheem could neither fulfil nor deliver the sanitizers to
Chota in the time period stipulated under the contract. Chota gave him an additional time period of one
month. Bheem was now in a position to make good on his obligations but he refused to do so because he
wanted to spend his lockdown time with his family and do no work. If the contract is not concerned with
the provisions of Sections 11(2), 14 and 16, can Chota undoubtedly seek specific performance of the
contract by Bheem?
(a) Yes, because the specific performance of contracts is the general rule rather than an optional remedy
(b) Yes, because there is a change in the approach of the legislature to limit or restrict the judiciary‘s
wide discretionary powers qua specific performance of contracts
(c) Yes, because the amended Specific Relief Act doesn't significantly curtail the power of the courts to
refuse specific performance of a contract, especially when the terms of the contract clearly warrant it

80. Dekisuki and Nobita enter into a contract wherein Nobita offers to pay Dekisuki Rs 500 if he completes
his maths homework. The contractual performance date was surpassed and Nobita wants to sue
Dekisuki for specific performance so that he may submit his homework on time. If this contract relates to
the provisions under Section 11(2), Section 14 and Section 16 of the Specific Relief Act, can Nobita seek
specific performance of the contract to submit his homework on time?
(a) Yes, because the specific performance of the contract is enforceable when these provisions are
applicable
(b) No, because the specific performance of the contract is not enforceable when these provisions are
applicable
(c) No, because the specific performance of the contract is not enforceable when these provisions are
not applicable
(d) Yes, because the specific performance of the contract is enforceable when these provisions are not
applicable
81. Harry was in the business of selling juice to retail shops. Mitsi was a retailer who used to buy goods from
wholesalers and sell them in her shop in Patparganj. Harry and Mitsi enter into an agreement, drafted by
Harry, to contract for the sale and purchase of 2 crates of "high quality, premium orange juice". When
Harry delivered the crates, Mitsi refused to accept the goods because the juice boxes were non-pulpy.
Because of this reason, she believed that the juice boxes were not of premium quality, unlike what was
promised in the contract. Both of them sued each other for contractual performance. As a legal counsel,
who do you think has a better position to get a remedy in their favour according to the law?
(a) Harry, because Contra proferentem applies and there was an ambiguity in the contract with respect to
what qualifies as "premium"
(b) Mitsi, because Contra proferentem applies and there was an ambiguity in the contract with respect to
what qualifies as "premium"
(c) Harry, because Contra proferentem does not apply as there was no ambiguity in the contract since he
provided premium juices even though they were non-pulpy
(d) Mitsi, because Contra proferentem does not apply as there was no ambiguity in the contract since
non-pulpy juices can never be premium in nature
Passage (Q.82-Q.86): Damages in contract law can be defined as a sum of money paid to the innocent
party in compensation for a breach of contract. When parties make an agreement, they will hope that
they both fulfil their obligations. Therefore, the intentions of the parties cannot usually be used in order to
calculate an amount of damages that should be awarded under the contract. Instead, the amount of
damages will be awarded based on the value of the interest the innocent party has in the contract. The
purpose of awarding such damages is to compensate parties for the loss suffered and not to improve
their position more than what it would have been if the contract had been duly performed.
There are different types of damages that are awarded by courts. Compensatory damages are an award
of a sum of money which aims to compensate the claimant for his loss under the contract. Non-
compensatory damages are an award of a sum of money not only to compensate the claimant for his
contractual losses, but also aim to compensate the claimant in relation to any bad conduct of the other
party including mental agony.
In order to assess whether an innocent party may be entitled to damages, there are six things that should
be considered. The first step is to ascertain the loss the claimant has suffered under the contract. The
general rule is that the claimant may only recover for his own loss. Secondly, it must be considered
whether or not the loss suffered is actionable. In order for a loss to be actionable, the claimant must show
that the breach of contract caused the loss. Causation requires both legal, and factual causation. The
next step is to figure out whether the type of loss was reasonably foreseeable. The purpose of this step is
to figure out the remoteness of the damage. The next step is if the claimant contributed to the loss in
question, the courts may reduce the amount of damages the claimant is able to claim, proportionately in
line with the fault of the claimant. The final analysis looks at whether there was an agreed damages
clause in the contract that was breached later and such amount is usually the final amount of damages.
[Source: Damages for Breach of Contract, New York University available at
https://www.law.nyu.edu/sites/default/files/ECM_PRO_063763.pdf ]

82. Naik wanted to buy agricultural land. He contracted with a surveyor Somashekhar to inspect the land and
measure its fertility and possible profits he would make on agricultural produce. Somashekhar surveyed
the land and valued it for Rs. 1 crore. S, however, failed to notice the immediate layer of red soil below 3
feets of black soil and had he taken note of it, the agricultural land would have been worth only Rs. 50
lakhs. Naik followed Somashekhar‘s advice and bought the land for Rs. 1 crore and thereafter spent Rs.
40 lakhs for arranging for black soil and irrigation system. He filed a suit against Somashekhar claiming
Rs. 40 lakhs as damages. He also asked for Rs. 1,00,000 for mental agony.
(a) Naik should get 40 lakhs and Rs. 1, 00, 000.
(b) Naik should get Rs. 50 lakhs, since he paid additional Rs. 50 lakhs on account of Somashekhar‘s
negligence.
(c) Naik should get Rs. 4 lakhs, since that loss was attributable to Somashekhar‘s negligence.
(d) Naik should not get any amount as compensation. There is no foreseeability.
83. Hari enters into a contract with Krishan to construct a strong wall in his house. While this wall was being
constructed, Hari‘s son dug a hole in the wall and escaped. He went out into the city and became a victim
of an unfortunate accident which broke his leg. Hari sued Krishan for damages due to breach of contract.
(a) Krishan is liable for damages due to such breach as had it not been for the weak wall Hari‘s son
would not have been injured.
(b) Krishan is not liable for damages as he ensured due diligence while constructing the wall
(c) Krishan is liable for damages as it has caused Hari immense mental agony
(d) Krishan is not liable for causation of injury is not linked to the breach of contract
84. Please refer to the facts mentioned above. Hari had specifically mentioned to Krishan as part of the
contract that this wall was required to protect his child from going out. Yet, Hari‘s son escaped due to a
weak constructed wall
(a) Krishan would be liable for damages as the contract breach directly led to the injury
(b) Krishan would not be liable for damages as the contract breach did not cause the injury
(c) Kirshan would be liable for damages as the wall was not properly built
(d) Krishan would not be liable as he could not have foreseen the injury.
85. Rakesh had asked Manjappa to construct a house with strong walls for a Delhi Metro tunnel was nearby.
In order to save cost, while preparing the cement mix, Manjappa added cheaper ingredients which
resulted in weaker adhesive bonds of the bricks and consequently weaker walls of the house. Per the
contract, it was Rakesh‘s duty to water the walls for about 10 days regularly for a strong bond as per
Rakesh‘s requirements. Rakesh however, went off to Thailand and forgot about watering the wall.
(a) Manjappa would be liable for damages as the contract breach directly led to the injury
(b) Manjappa would not be liable for damages as the contract breach did not cause the injury
(c) Manjappa would be partly liable since Rakesh‘s negligence also contributed to the damage
(d) Manjappawould not be partly liable since construction was solely Rakesh‘s job.
86. Please refer to the facts above. The contract contained a clause that stated in the event of any breach,
the party responsible for such breach shall be liable to pay damages of INR 10,000. Rakesh‘s son was
injured when the wall fell due to vibrations from the nearby Delhi Metro. Rakesh had to spend an amount
of INR 50,000 in getting his son treated at the hospital.
(a) Manjappa would be liable to pay INR 50,000 as he was totally responsible for the damage
(b) Manjappa would be liable to pay INR 10,000 as the contract stipulated so
(c) Manjappa would be liable to pay INR 60,000 as medical expenses plus damage in contract
(d) Manjappa would be liable to pay nothing as the damage was too remote.

Passage (Q.87-Q.91): Free speech of the citizens of this country cannot be stifled by implicating them in
criminal cases, unless such speech has the tendency to affect public order, the Supreme Court remarked
while quashing FIR registered against Shillong Times Editor Patricia Mukhim over a Facebook post on
violence against non-tribal people in Meghalaya. The facebook post was directed against the apathy
shown by the Chief Minister of Meghalaya, the Director General of Police and the DorbarShnong of the
area in not taking any action against the culprits who attacked the non-tribals youngsters.
Sections 153 A and 505 (1) (c) of the Indian Penal Code, states that only where the written or spoken
words have the tendency of creating public disorder or disturbance of law and order or affecting public
tranquility, the law needs to step in to prevent such an activity. The intention to cause disorder or incite
people to violence is the sine qua non of the offence under Section 153 A IPC. The intention has to be
judged primarily by the language of the piece of writing and the circumstances in which it was written and
published. The matter complained of within the ambit of Section 153A must be read as a whole. One
cannot rely on strongly worded and isolated passages for proving the charge nor indeed can one take a
sentence here and a sentence there and connect them by a meticulous process of inferential reasoning.
The first test for the Courts to apply is the hate speech prohibition objectively and in so doing, ask
whether a reasonable person, aware of the context and circumstances, would view the expression as
exposing the protected group to hatred. The second test was to restrict interpretation of the legislative
term "hatred" to those extreme manifestations of the emotion described by the words "detestation" and
"vilification". The third test was for Courts to focus their analysis on the effect of the expression at issue,
namely, whether it is likely to expose the targeted person or group to hatred by others. Mere repugnancy
of the ideas expressed is insufficient to constitute the crime attracting penalty.
Free Speech Of Citizens Cannot Be Stifled By Implicating Them In Criminal Cases: Supreme Court (Live
Law, 25 March 2021) <https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/free-speech-citizens-criminal-cases-supreme-
court-171739> as accessed on 30 March 2021.
87. Sushmita was the chief editor at E-Quality Magazine, which featured her own article titled ‗Homosexuality
not against Indian Culture‘. The piece highlighted that how sculptures at many Indian temples not only
acknowledge but also celebrate homosexuality and this is a clear indication that homosexuality is not
against Indian culture. Therefore, the Indian society should break their preconceived notions regarding
the issue and have an unbiased opinion on it. Many people across the country disputed the veracity of
the fact and criticised Sushmita online for her hurtful and reckless comment. Amidst this furore,
somebody filed a complaint against Sushmita under section 153A of the IPC for causing public disorder
and affecting public tranquility. During the trial, Sushmita argued that her. Choose whether Sushmita
shall be held guilty of the offence or not?
(a) Sushmita shall be held guilty of the offence as her article caused immense public disorder and
completely disrupted the public tranquility and in such a case intention is barely of any significance.
(b) Sushmita shall not be held guilty of the offence as she had no intention to vilify any religious group
and her article was just an attempt to show the existence of homosexuality in a culture since the very
beginning.
(c) Sushmita shall be held guilty of the offence as the article had a evident intention to outrage the
people who take offence by such connection of homosexuality and their culture. This led to causing
public disorder and disruption of public tranquility.
(d) Sushmita shall not be held guilty of the offence as one should take into consideration the entire article
before drawing any deductions regarding the intention of writing the article.

88. Hema was an environmental and social activist, who has been working for animal rights and their better
treatment for years. At an environmental conference she presented a paper which stated how religious
practices have been a profound reason for ill treatment of animals and for example she quoted statistics
on deaths of goats in Islamic Festivals. The entire Muslim community started showed extreme
disapproval of her statements and demanded grave punishment for her for insulting Islam. Taking into
account the nationwide furore, the Bombay High Court took the suo moto cognizance of the matter and
charged Hema under section 153A. Decide whether she shall be convicted of the offence or not.
(a) Hema shall be convicted of the offence as she exposed entire Muslim community to hatred by
pointing a particular practise and insulting the community on the basis of that practise.
(b) Hema shall not be convicted of the offence as there is no way to deduce her intention to cause public
disorder by outraging the feelings of the community.
(c) Hema shall be convicted of the offence as sacrifice of goats is an essential practice in the Islamic
festivals and criticising it clearly amounts to vilifying the community.
(d) Hema shall not be convicted of the offence as the intention behind her statement cannot be deduced
from a single sentence she spoke and the entire context is relevant to adjudicate guilt.
89. Raman was a cabinet minister in the state government of Odisha. In a political rally he said that all the
people ‗Pudali‘ tribe have been joining naxals gradually and it would be in best interest of the people if
the State takes preemptive action against them. Resultantly, the people from the Pudali tribe suffered
violence and brutality from the rest of the communities of the state. The state government eventually had
to announce a lockdown to control the statewide disorder and unrest. Opposition party has demanded a
trial against Raman for inciting disorder and violence against people of Pudali community. Raman is
defending himself arguing that he just propounded an opinion and had no intention of causing such
disruption. Which of the following is the correct option in the light of the third test given in the above
passage?
(a) Raman shall be convicted of the offence as Raman‘s statement exposed the Pudali tribal community
to hatred and violence to an extreme extent causing disruption across the state.
(b) Raman shall not be convicted of the offence as he just propounded an opinion which is a clear
indication that he had no intention to expose any group to hatred or violence.
(c) Raman shall not be convicted of the offence as he just demanded a State intervention and
preemptive action against the tribes to prevent the consolidation of naxals in the state.
(d) Raman shall be convicted of the offence as it was due to his extreme manifestations of emotions that
vilified the tribal community outraging the people of Pudali community.
90. Rujhita, a feminist writer, wrote a book to highlight the celebrated judgment of the Supreme Court
wherein it upheld the dignity of the women and improve their status in the society. In that book, she
criticised the rituals that undermine the position of the women such as sati, triple talaq or lack of
coparcenary rights in various fragments throughout the book. Hemant pressed charges against Rujhita
for vilifying the Hindu religion amongst others despite the reformative policies adopted by it. Even during
the trial Hemant argued that the highlighted practices are no more prevalent but Rujhita has highlighted
them solely for the purpose of disrespecting the religion. Decide whether Rujhita has committed the
offence under section 153A and 505 (1)(c).
(a) Rujhita has not committed the offence as mere highlighting of old oppressive practices does not
establish that she had any intention of causing public disorder or affecting public tranquility.
(b) Rujhita has committed the offence as despite such practices being held unconstitutional. The only
reason to connect these practices with a religion that no longer follows them is disrespecting the
religion and resultantly spreading hatred.
(c) Rujhita has not committed the offence as the actual intention was to celebrate the progressive
judgments by the Supreme Court. Hemant has made above mentioned accusations by relying on
different fragmentations from different parts of the book which does not sum up the intention of the
book.
(d) Rujhita has committed the offence as a reasonable person who is already aware of the context
andthese forbidden practices would perceive the book as an attempt to expose certain religions to
hatred.

91. Which of the following are offences under section 153A in the light of the second test given in the
passage?
I. A leader giving a speech that the majority religion is trying to force the minorities out of the country
resulting into nationwide riots.
II. A researcher commenting in a conference that females have been oppressed by males for centuries,
the comment outrage many males who criticized the comment on social media.
III. After the assanination of a certain minister, two of his followers chanted slogans against the entire
religious community to which the accused belonged.
IV. Akul milk published a cartoon in the newspapers showing people of four different religions praying
before a light to celebrate secularism in India on the occasion of Independence Day, which resulted in
a little violence in some parts of the nation.
Choose the correct option:
(a) II, III and IV (b) I and III (c) II and IV (d) I, II and III
Passage (Q.92-Q.96): Under Indian law, people seeking refuge are defined as ―foreigners‖ under the
Foreigners Act, 1946 as they enter the nation without valid travel papers. According to the Foreigners
(Report to the police) Order, 2001, made under the Foreigners Act 1946, anyone giving shelter to such a
foreigner has to report him or her to the police within 24 hours.
Despite this, all people living within the borders of India, including foreigners, migrants, refugees, have
two very important rights under the Indian Constitution. The rights under Article 14 and Article 21 of the
Constitution are available for all persons, whether they are citizens or foreigners, whether they are legally
inside the country or not.
Globally, a refugee is defined as a special category of foreigner who is compelled to seek refuge in
another country because of persecution in the country of their origin based on certain identities like race,
creed, belief, religion , ethnicity etc.
The basic protection for anyone seeking asylum under any refugee law is the right to non-
refoulement.The principle of non-refoulment prohibits states from transferring or deporting individuals
from their jurisdiction or effective control when there are substantial grounds for believing that the person
would be at risk of irreparable harm upon return, including persecution, torture, ill-treatment or other
serious human rights violations.
Non-refoulement is a right under refugee law which is a part of international humanitarian law. India is a
signatory to international human rights treaties and is under obligation to respect basic human rights
principles.
Since India does not have a refugee law ,UNHCR would ascertain whether a person is qualified to be a
refugee and then issues them an identity card, helps them with a stipend, and often resettles the
refugees in other countries.
https://scroll.in/article/990494/india-must-offer-shelter-to-myanmarese-asylum-seekers-even-though-it-
lacks-a-refugee-protection-law
92. Phizo is a Burmese citizen, he is infamous in his country for running a drug cartel, he is also involved in
other criminal activities including extortion, forgery and fraud. They government of his country designs a
plan to capture him but he deceives them and escapes through the porous border to the neighbouring
nation of India. The government of India captures him and initiates the procedure of his deportation, but
he argues that his life would be in danger in Myanmar and India should accept him as a refugee, Is his
request viable?
(a) He is correct as his life would be in danger back in his country and all persons within the territory of
India possess article 21 which is right to life.
(b) He is correct as under the principle of non-refoulment, he cannot be deported.
(c) His request isn‘t viable as he does not qualify as a refugee and the Burmese government isn‘t
targeting him based on any of his identities.
(d) He is a criminal operating a drug cartel, he will not be allowed to stay as refugee.

93. Adil is a Rohingya refugee who fled Myanmar and is settled in India for the past 10 years, In the year
2020 the government of India enters into an agreement with the government of Myanmar according to
which all refugees stationed in India will have to be deported to Myanmar. The legality of this treaty is
challenged in the court.
(a) The court will let the government proceed with this treaty as this is a policy matter and the court does
not have locus standi.
(b) India is bound by international treaties and also is liable to follow the principle of non-refoulment,
hence the court would scrap this treaty
(c) Article 14 and 21 of the Constitution are available to all persons within the territory of India, hence the
government cannot deport the refugees staying in India.
(d) India does not have a refugee law hence the country isn‘t bound to allow Rohingya refugees in India.
94. Sajid is a human rights activist working in the north-eastern part of India, he is deeply pained by the
military crackdown on Rohingyas in Myanmar and wishes to help them, he eventually sets up a refugee
camp and helps the Rohingyas in India financially. He is arrested by the police on the charges of helping
the refugees evade deportation and of hiding them in order to protect them, is he liable?
(a) No, he is not liable as the government cannot deport refugees under international law
(b) Yes, he is liable as anyone giving shelter to a foreigner has to report him or her to the police within 24
hours under Foreigners Act 1946
(c) Yes , he is liable as India does not have a law to protect refugees and refugees are considered as
foreigners
(d) No, he is not liable as India isasignatory to international human rights treaties which call for protection
of refugees and non-refoulment
95. A group of refuges have been residing in Delhi for several years now, some of these refugees recently
have been found to be in touch with a supposed human rights organisation which is known to be involved
in anti- India activities, due to this they have been detained , is this infringement of their right as
refugees?
(a) Yes, this is a clear violation of their right to life guaranteed under article 21 of the constitution
(b) Yes, refugees also enjoy several rights under the Indian constitution.
(c) No, police has the right to inspect them because the organisation in suspicious in nature
(d) No, they have been booked under due process of law and not because of their status as refugees
96. Abel belongs to the Rohingya ethnicity who are often persecuted in Myanmar , growing up he and his
family also has faced discrimination and persecution. This instilled a feeling of enmity and desire for
revenge in him, at the age of 20 he formed an organisation to cater to the needs of Rohingyas. His
organisation is infamous for violence against civilians and causing deadly riots and other war crimes.
Recently he has fled to India to secure refuge and escape action from the army of his nation, the Indian
government arrests him and plans to deport him back, he claim security under article 21, what will be the
course of action?
(a) He cannot be deported back to Myanmar as the Indian constitution allows him right to life under
article 21.
(b) He cannot be deported as Non-refoulement is a right under refugee law as his life would be under
threat back in Myanmar
(c) He will be deported back to Myanmar as he is accused of war crimes and he should be tried
according to the procedure established by law.
(d) He will be deported back to Myanmar as India does not have a refugee law and recognises them only
as illegal immigrants.

Passage (Q.97-Q.101): In November 2020, the state Assembly passed the Haryana State Employment
of Local Candidates Bill, 2020 paving the way for more employment opportunities for locals in the private
sector. On March 2, the Governor gave his assent to the Bill.
All the registered companies, societies, trusts, partnership firms and any person employing 10 or more
persons and an entity, as may be notified by the government from time to time shall come under the
ambit of this Act. The definition of ―employer‖ given in the Bill means a Company registered under the
Companies Act, 2013 or a Society registered under the Haryana Registration and Regulation of Societies
Act, 2012 or a Partnership Firm as defined under Indian Partnership Act, 1932 or any person employing
10 or more persons on salary, wages or other remuneration for manufacturing or providing any service or
such entity, as may be notified by the government from time to time. It shall not include the central
government or state government or any organization owned by the central or state government.
A candidate ―who is domiciled in the State of Haryana‖ is called a local candidate and shall be able to
avail the benefit of this reservation while seeking employment in the private sector. Every employer shall
be required to employ 75 percent of local candidates for the posts where the gross monthly salary or
wages are not more than Rs. 50,000 or as notified by the government from time to time.
An employer can claim exemption only if the government-appointed officers believe that the employer‘s
request seeking exemption holds merit. The employer may claim exemption where an adequate number
of local candidates of the desired skill, qualification, or proficiency is not available. The employer can be
fined a minimum of Rs. 10,000 to a maximum of Rs. 2 lakh once it is established that the employer has
violated provisions of the Act.
Source: Indian Express March 2, 2021
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-what-haryanas-move-to-reserve-75-private-jobs-
means-for-companies-6995688/
97. J and A is a newly established cyber law firm in Haryana which isa Company registered under the
Companies Act, 2013, currently working on international cyber laws and want to seek exemptions from
Haryana State Employment of Local Candidates Bill, 2020 because not getting local experts in
international cyber law in Haryana. J and A firm will be eligible for exemption decide with legal reasoning.
(a) No,every employer shall be required to employ 75 percent local candidates for the posts.
(b) Yes,the Employer can claim an exemption if the government-appointed officers believe that the
employer‘s request seeking exemption holds merit. J and A rightly claimed that an adequate number
of local candidates of the desired skill is not available.
(c) J and A rightly claimed that an adequate number of local candidates of the desired skill is not
available.
(d) Yes, J and A firm not come under the ambit of this Act.
98. Wit and Wisdom is a Book publication company in Sonepat Haryana that comes under the ambit of the
central govt and is funded by the central govt and not giving opportunities to local candidates of Haryana
underHaryana State Employment of Local Candidates Bill, 2020. Aggrieved by this Student filled petition
against the company. Will the company be liable under the Haryana State Employment of Local
Candidates Bill, 2020?
(a) Yes, the company will be liable for the violation of the Haryana State Employment of Local
Candidates Bill, 2020 because it Company registered under the Companies Act, 2013.
(b) Yes, it will be liable because comes under the ambit of this Act.
(c) No,the act not includes the central government or state government, or any organization owned by
the central or state government.
(d) No, the act shall include the central government or state government or any organization owned by
the central or state government.

99. Legal aid society is a privately owned society in Haryana. Society is not registered under the Haryana
Registration and Regulation of Societies Act, 2012 and violating rules of the Haryana State Employment
of Local Candidates Bill, 2020. Will it be liable for compensation and violation under the said act?
(a) Yes, All the registered companies, societies, trusts, partnership firms and any person employing 10 or
more persons and an entity, as may be notified by the government from time to time shall come under
the ambit of this Act.
(b) The employer can be fined a minimum of Rs. 10,000 to a maximum of Rs. 2 lakhs once it is
established that the employer has violated provisions of the Act.
(c) Both A and B
(d) No, because Legal aid society is not registered. Therefore,it will not come under the ambit of the act.
100. Concise Pvt Limited is Pen manufacturing company in Haryana but even after several warnings not
adhering to Haryana State Employment of Local Candidates Bill, 2020 and not employing 75 percent of
local candidates for the posts where the gross monthly salary or wages are not more than Rs. 50,000.
Decide with the appropriate course of action.
(a) The employer can be fined a minimum of Rs. 10,000 to a maximum of Rs. 2 lakh once because there
is a clear violation of provisions of the Act.
(b)The employer can be fined a minimum of Rs. 10,000 to a maximum of Rs. 2 lakh once it is established
that the employer has violated provisions of the Act.
(c) The company should be closed because they are doing illegal work by not allowing local candidates
of Haryana.
(d) All of the Above.
101. There is an amendment by govt of Haryana that 75 percent of local candidates for the posts where the
gross monthly salary or wages are not more than Rs. 30,000 and manufacturing companies will not come
under the ambit of the above act. Considering Que 4, decide with the appropriate course of action liability
of Concise Pvt limited.
(a) The employer can be fined a minimum of Rs. 10,000 to a maximum of Rs. 2 lakh once because there
is a clear violation of provisions of the Act.
(b) The employer can be fined a minimum of Rs. 10,000 to a maximum of Rs. 2 lakh once it is
established that the employer has violated provisions of the Act.
(c) Company will not be liable underHaryana State Employment of Local Candidates Bill, 2020.
(d) Both A and B
Passage (Q.102-Q.106): The Rajya Sabha on Tuesday passed the Medical Termination of Pregnancy
(Amendment) Bill, 2020. Introduced by Union Health Minister Dr. Harsh Vardhan, the Bill seeks to amend
Section 3 of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, extends the upper limit for medical
termination of pregnancy to 24 weeks, from the present stipulation of 20 weeks, for certain categories of
women which will be denied in the MTP Rules. These categories will include 'vulnerable women'
including rape victims.
The Statement of Objects and Reasons annexed with the Bill states, "With the passage of time and
advancement of medical technology for safe abortion, there is a scope for increasing upper gestational
the limit for terminating pregnancies especially for vulnerable women and for pregnancies with substantial
foetal anomalies detected late in pregnancy. Further, there is also a need for increasing access of
women to legal and safe abortion service in order to reduce maternal mortality and morbidity caused by
unsafe abortion and its complications."
The opinion of one doctor will be required for termination of pregnancy up to 20 weeks; and opinion of
two doctors will be required for termination of pregnancy of 20 to 24 weeks. They have to be of the
opinion that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve a risk to the life of the pregnant woman or of
grave injury to her physical or mental health; or that there is a substantial risk that if the child were born, it
would suffer from any serious physical or mental abnormality. Confidentiality Of Identity The Bill also
stipulates that the name and other particulars of the woman whose pregnancy is terminated will not be
revealed, except to a person authorized in any law which is in force; and any person acting in

contravention of this provision will be punished with imprisonment which may extend to one year, or with
fine, or with both.
Source: Live Law 16 March 2021 7:20 PM
https://www.livelaw.in/news-updates/parliament-passes-bill-to-increase-upper-limit-for-legal-abortions-to-
24-weeks-171256
102. What are the reasons for amendment in Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 in the context of the
Passage?
(a) It was essential to make modification in the MTP Act, 1971 to avoid serious physical or mental
abnormality to women.
(b) Due to negligence of medical experts‘ pregnancies with substantial foetal anomalies detected late
therefore to give extra time to avoid any kind of dire consequences amendment in MTP Act 1971 was
vital.
(c) Due to the advancement of medical technology for safe abortion, it is possible to increase the upper
gestational limit for terminating pregnancies and reducing maternal mortality and morbidity caused by
unsafe abortion.
103. Which is not untrue according to the passage?

(a) Privacy of woman whose pregnancy is terminated will be maintained.
(b) Opinion of one or two doctors will be required for termination of pregnancy of 20 to 24 weeks.
(c) In Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 stipulation limit is 5 months.
(d) Both A and C.
104. X is 4-month pregnant woman and wants to terminate her pregnancy due to substantial foetal anomalies
detected in her Sonography. She terminates her pregnancy in Mumbai Hospital and don‘t want to reveal
her identity but Hospital given her name, date, and time of termination of pregnancy to a Government
officer who is authorized by law in force to collect data on abortions from all private and government
hospitals. Decide hospital will be legally liable for violating Medical Termination of Pregnancy
(Amendment) Bill, 2020 Clause of maintaining the privacy of women?
(a) No, Hospital will not be liable because they have given her identity to a person authorized by the law
in force.
(b) No, Hospital will not be liable because MTP Bill 2020 talks about 24 weeks pregnancy and women is
only 4 months pregnant.
(c) Yes, they will be liable the bill stipulates that the name and other particulars of the woman whose
pregnancy is terminated will not be revealed.
(d) Yes, they will be liable the bill stipulates that the name and other particulars of the woman whose
pregnancy is terminated will not be revealed and will be punished with imprisonment which may
extend to one year, or with fine, or with both.
105. Y is rape victim 6 month pregnant and wants to terminate her pregnancy on 6 march 2018 because she
is not physically and mentally prepared to be a mother. Can she legally terminate her pregnancy on 6
March 2021? Give the answer with legal reason?
(a) Yes, she can terminate her pregnancy after consulting with the doctor and they have to be of the
opinion that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve a risk to the life of the pregnant woman.
(b) Yes, she can terminate her pregnancy with the opinion of two doctors and they have to be of the
opinion that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve a risk to the life of the pregnant woman.
(c) No, She can‘t terminate her pregnancy because in the 2018 Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act,
1971 is enforceable and only termination up to 20 weeks is allowed in it but Y is 24 weeks pregnant?
(d) No, unmarried rape victims are not legally allowed to terminate their pregnancy.

106. Z is 5 months pregnant and wants to terminate her pregnancy because she is not financially able to
afford a child in the year 2021. The doctor was of the opinion that continuance of the pregnancy would
not involve a risk to the life of the pregnant woman or of grave injury to her physical or mental health; or
that there is a not any substantial risk that if the child were born, it would suffer from any serious physical
or mental abnormality. Can she lawfully terminate her pregnancy?
(a) No, she cannot legally terminate her pregnancy.
(b) Yes, she can legally terminate her pregnancy.
(c) Yes, she can legally terminate her pregnancy after the opinion of one Doctor.
(d) Yes she can legally terminate her pregnancy because she is not financially able,

Passage (Q.107-Q.111): India's monetary fortunes keep on being attached to the forcefully fluctuating
cost of oil. At a social event of noticeable oil clergymen in New Delhi on Monday, Head administrator
Narendra Modi asked oil-delivering nations to decrease the expense of energy to help the worldwide
economy in its way towards recuperation. Mr. Modi likewise required a survey of instalment terms,
requesting the fractional utilization of the rupee rather than the U.S. dollar to pay for oil, to facilitate the
weight on oil-bringing in nations in the wake of the reinforcing of the dollar. With well more than 80% of its
oil request being met through imports, India obviously has a great deal in question as oil costs have
ascended by 70% in rupee terms over the most recent one year. Prominently, talking at a similar
occasion, Saudi Bedouin Energy Pastor Khalid (a) Al-Falih declined to transparently resolve to bring
down oil costs, picking rather to say that the cost of oil might have been a lot higher yet for the
endeavours taken by his nation to support supply. This isn't astonishing given the shortfall of critical
opponent providers in the worldwide oil market willing to assist India
India's policymakers currently face the troublesome errand of securely guiding the economy amidst
numerous outer headwinds. For one, the current record shortage broadened to 2.4% of total national
output in the primary quarter of 2018-19 and is relied upon to arrive at 3% for the entire year. The rupee,
which is down about 16% since the start of the year, doesn't appear to give any indications of
recuperation by the same token. Further, the development in the deals of petroleum and diesel has just
been influenced antagonistically as their costs have shot through the rooftop. What is required is a lofty
cut in Focal and State charges for the advantage to bring through to the shoppers, which, obviously, is
impossible given the public authority's financial necessities. Another drawn out answer for the oil issue
will be to progressively take advantage of home-grown wellsprings of energy supply while at the same
time urging buyers to change to other green options. This will require a more grounded strategy system
and usage. Temporarily, the public authority could hope to broaden its global provider base to oversee
stuns better. Be that as it may, a particular choice conveys international dangers, for example, on
account of Iran. Since it will require some investment to wean the economy off oil imports, policymakers
ought to likewise think past only the following political decision if India's over-dependence on oil is to
reach a conclusion for better.
107. Which among the following is the explanation that India is a lot of worried about the oil costs in the
worldwide market?
(a) India imports most of its oil interest and that is the reason the costs in the worldwide market influence
the economy of the country.
(b) India is a main maker of oil and furthermore a main economy in the country accordingly it ought to
have fortress over the elements of the worldwide oil costs.
(c) There is consistently the choice that India can pick to sell its oil squares to the nations that need to
come and work together in India
(d) The worldwide oil costs ought not be more than that in India and that is the reason India should
realize the costs winning in the global market.
108. Which among the following is a drawn-out arrangement offered by the author to address the energy
supply related issues winning in India?
(a) The government should zero in on guaranteeing that there is no oil supply from the outside nations to
guarantee that no one is making any misfortune.
(b) India should attempt to expand its stockpile base since more nations ought to be included the
rundown of providers to the country.
(c) The government should open more oil investigation organizations so that there is no opposition and
everyone ought to have the option to make benefits.
(d) India should zero in on investigating the home-grown assets for oil accessible in the country as
imports are making all the issues.

109. Which among the following effectively clarifies the assessment of the Oil Clergyman of Saudi Arabia with
respect to the expanding oil costs in the global market?
(a) There is zero chance that oil costs will descend soon and really everyone ought to say thanks to
Saudi Arabia that the oil costs are not higher than the current rates.
(b) There is the idea among US and its partners that Saudi Arabia can generally reduce down on the oil
costs however it isn't doing as such.
(c) The Oil Clergyman of Saudi Arabia is of the assessment that no other nation is willing with respect to
the expanding oil costs in the global market and India ought not say anything negative.
(d) There is no other arrangement accessible to Saudi Arabia separated from expanding the costs of oil
with the goal that it can finance its war costs.
110. Which among the following is a transient advance that ought to be taken by the public authority to
address the issues in regards to oil supply in the country?
(a) It is critical to take note that the public authority has declared to chop down the assessments on the
important things so that cost of oil can be expanded.
(b) There ought to be a different service to deliver the issues relating to the oil and oil-based commodities
in the country so that there is no weight on some other service.
(c) The government ought to have more oil providers to the country so that there is no shortage of
alternatives before the public authority.
(d) The government should attempt to connect more nations for sends out from the country with the goal
that it can strike bargains for import of oil from every single such country.
111. Which among the following is right in regards to the solicitations made by the Executive of India in the
gathering of the Oil Priests in New Delhi, as depicted in the passage?
(a) The Head administrator mentioned that the providers of oil ought to permit India to cause a piece of
its instalment in the homegrown cash to deflect the variances in the conversion scale.
(b) The Leader mentioned that the expense of oil ought to be diminished to make energy reasonable on
the planet.
(c) The Leader mentioned that the Indian Oil Organizations ought to be provided legitimate preparing to
deliver more oil from the homegrown sources.
(d) Both a and b
Passage (Q.112-Q.116): Indeed, even while telecom administrators in India are amidst turning out 4G
organizations, the priest for telecom has reported that India would abound in 5G by 2020, a time period
that has been acknowledged by worldwide normalization bodies, merchants, and specialist co-ops in
numerous pieces of the world. South Korea and Japan need to exhibit driving 5G applications in the
Colder time of year and Summer Olympics in 2018 and 2020, individually.
In any case, Indian administrators face a few difficulties for 5G move outs from a business perspective.
They have undeniably less range in contrast with global administrators. This builds their expense of
tasks. A large number of them are additionally overloaded by obligation. At any point quicker adjusts of
new innovation presentation when earlier innovation speculations have not been recovered add further
intricacy. This juggernaut of truly advancing ages of innovation and impending 5G require a strong
strategy and administrative climate. Without it, the area's wellbeing and India's monetary intensity would
be enormously debilitated. The objectives of staying serious and shopper requests of quicker and better
administrations leave minimal choice to administrators yet to put resources into 5G.
To comprehend the components of the approach and administrative climate, we initially distinguish the
qualities of 5G. Not at all like prior ages that accommodated ever higher velocities and more transmission
capacity, 5G likewise guarantees super solid, exceptionally quick rates and high transfer speed versatile
network and supports enormous interconnected gadgets spread across wide territories. 5G gives top
velocities of multiple times, contrasted with 4G, like that needed in augmented simulation applications. It
is additionally intended to give idleness at multiple times lower than 4G. Low dormancy is needed in
applications managing basic crisis medical services, independent vehicles or debacle the board.

Since 5G move outs are likely even before 4G is widely sent, the embraced guide for 5G ought to
guarantee that the current and not so distant future interests in 4G can be utilized. One recommended
approach has been that since administrators are probably going to convey 5G in groups that they are at
present utilizing for 4G, arrangement ought to encourage this by making range use a rationalist help. The
part of wired foundation, particularly fibre optic links, is basic and reciprocal to development of remote.
This is on the grounds that extremely enormous limits are needed in the backhaul to oblige applications
empowered through 5G. This would involve quickening the BharatNet program for conveying fibre optic
links to gram panchayats and expanding the association of the private area to take advantage of
complementarities and efficiencies of the private area.
112. What are a few different ways to facilitate the change to 5G?
I. Increase inclusion of the private area.
II. Spectrum utilization ought to be made compatible.
III. Deploy more remote foundation.
(a) Only I and II (b) Only III and I (c) Only III (d) All of the above mentioned
113. Which of the following is/are false according to the passage?

I. 5G would give a pinnacle speed of multiple times versus 4G.
II. 5G would uphold monstrous interconnected gadgets spread across wide territories.
III. The telecom Industry needs a strong approach climate else the area's wellbeing would be
significantly hindered.
(a) Only III and II (b) Only III and I
(c) None of the above mentioned (d) All of the above mentioned
114. according to the passage, what are a portion of the difficulties looked by Indian administrators concerning
5G?
I. Lack of accessibility of obligation.
II. The ceaseless need to put resources into better innovation.
III. The nature of their range is helpless when contrasted with global administrators.
(a) Only III and II (b) Only III (c) Only II (d) Only I and II
115. "India should abound in 5G by 2020." - said the clergyman for telecom.
I. No. Telecom administrators have not yet viably actualized 4G organizations and need additional time.
II. Yes. Many driving countries are enthusiastic about showing their items supporting 5G innovation on
worldwide stages and India ought not to give up.
III. Yes. The time period has been acknowledged in numerous pieces of the world and India should
follow after accordingly.
Which of the following contentions is solid as for the assertion above?
(a) Only III and I (b) Only II (c) Only I and II (d) Only I
116. According to passage, use in which of the following element/s make/s 5G innovation better?
(a) Medical services (b) Augmented Simulation Application
(c) idleness (d) All of the above
Passage (Q.117-Q.118): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.
A bank is disbursing educational loans to applicants who possess the following criteria.
The candidate of India.
(i) be a citizen in India.
(ii) have secured admission to a post graduate course (Masters or PG Diploma) offered by an Indian or a
foreign university in India.
(iii) have secured 60 % marks in the entrance examination for the course.
(iv) have security (property/LIC policy) equivalent to the loan amount.
However, if the application fulfils the above-mentioned criteria except.
1. at (ii) above the case may be referred to the loan committee.

2. at (iv) above guarantee of a third party who has an account with the bank may be obtained.
Give answer
(a) If the loan is to be sanctioned
(b) If the data provided is inadequate to take a decision
(c) If the loan is to be referred to the loan committee
(d) If a guarantee from an account holder is needed
117. Abhinav has applied and secured admission for a post graduate degree in advertising at BHU University,
Varanasi. He has an LIC policy equivalent to the loan amount. He secured 70% in the entrance test for
the course and is an Indian citizen.
118. Ankit has applied for a post graduate course in IT and Animation which will commence from January in
IIT Kanpur. He has secured admission to the course, having obtained 60% in the written entrance test.
His uncle who has an account with the bank is willing to stand as guarantor.
Passage (Q.119-Q.123): The chances of a illness–free world are bleak. Most illnesses are caused by
very powerful and numerous microorganisms whose response to medicines is that they quickly evolve
immunities to those medicines while maintaining their power to infect and even kill man. Our evolutionary
history has been a continual arms race against the pathogens that plague us. For eons, this war has
weeded out the weak, and in a less combative environment, mechanisms to sustain human survival
would have grown lax. However, this is not quite as problematic as it might seem. People are already
kind of artificial animals. We have all these ways of intervening when people get sick, when otherwise
they would have died and we would see some natural selection for people with more robust immune
systems. But as long as doctors keep having a way to render moot those diseases that used to kill us,
natural immunity isn't essential. We absolutely can evolve resistance to some diseases. But only some,
and perhaps only temporarily before the microorganisms evolve newer means to overcome our defences.
And we will never evolve resistance to all diseases.
119. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the author‗s claim about the human immune system?
(a) The human immune system does not need to evolve as long as doctors and medicines continue to
fight with pathogens for us.
(b) The human immune system will continue to evolve to resist new diseases at the same pace as
pathogens evolve to overcome our defences.
(c) The intervention of medicines and healthcare has rendered the human immune system, on average,
less robust than what it would have been without medicines.
(d) The human immune system would have been more vulnerable had it not been involved in an
everlasting fight with pathogens.
120. The answer of which of the following questions can be found in the passage?
(a) Can humans evolve to be immune to diseases?
(b) Is our immune system more robust than before?
(c) What if we eradicate all diseases?
(d) Are we more equipped to fight diseases than before?
121. Which of the following, if true, weakens the author‗s claim about the human immune system without
medical intervention?
(a) Many diseases target the young and mould the evolution of people by killing children with feeble
immune defences leaving behind those with malaria–resistant genes.
(b) Majority of diseases could be eradicated through medicines without any loss of evolutionary
robustness of the immune system.
(c) Heightened immunity to some diseases carries the risk of causing the immune system to over– react
to the body‗s own tissues.

122. Which one of the following most accurately describes the role played in the arguments by the claim that
the chances of illness–free world are bleak?
(a) It is a conclusion that is claimed to follow from the premise that microorganisms are too numerous for
medical treatment to eliminate them entirely.
(b) It is a conclusion for which the response of microorganisms to the medicines is given as premise.
(c) It is a premise used to conclude on the response of microorganisms to the medicines humans
consume to kill them.
(d) It is a conclusion that follows from the premise that people fight pathogens by unduly relying on
medicines.
123. Which of the following, according the passage, is an example where the disease is ―rendered moot by
doctors and natural immunity is not essential?
(a) Malaria that is so rampant in Africa is being eradicated by vaccination.
(b) The decline of TB because of pasteurization of milk which slowed transmission of bovine TB to
humans.
124. Statement: With elections looming, India‘s biggest political parties have announced cash– transfer
schemes to attract the poor.
I. Congress has proposed a contributory pension scheme for workers in the unorganised sector, which
employs some 5 crore people.
II. Cash transfers help in pleasing the voters which could mean more votes.
(a) I is the right assumption
(b) II is the right assumption
(c) Neither I nor II is the right assumption
(d) Both I and II are correct underlying assumptions
125. At Jehan Numa Hotel, Bhopal, randomly chosen guests were surprised with a complimentary portion of
snacks on their being seated at a table. It was found that those tables that were served complimentary
snacks had a higher average per head billing compared to those that were not served any complimentary
snacks. It can thus be concluded that if the restaurant wants to increase its average per head billing, it
must start serving its guests complimentary snacks on their arrival.
Which of the following is an assumption implicit in the argument given above?
(a) People in general are pleased at getting something they did not expect.
(b) The total cost of complimentary snacks served will be lower than the additional value of food ordered.
(c) People will be inclined to order more even if complimentary snacks become a regular feature.
(d) Other food served by the restaurant will be as tasty or tastier than the complimentary snack offered.
126. Assertion (A): Birds need gravity to swallow.

Reason (R): Birds need gravity to lift their beaks.
(a) both S and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of S
(b) S is true but R is false
(c) S is false but R is true
(d) both S and R are False
127. Assertion (A): Aishwarya Rai is a recognized name in Bollywood.

Reason: This is because she is married to Abhishek Bachhan, son of super star Amitabh Bachhan.
(a) both S and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of S
(b) S is true but R is false
(c) S is false but R is true
(d) both S and R are False

128. The question given below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of
the following argument is ‗strong‘ argument and which is a ‗weak‘ argument.
Statement: Should Cricket be included in Olympics?
Arguments:
I. Yes. It is hugely popular in countries like India and England.
II. No. On a whole, only a handful of countries have prominent cricket teams, whereas Olympics require
participation from most of the countries of the World.
(a) only argument I is strong;
(b) only argument II is strong;
(c) either I or II is strong;
(d) neither I nor II is strong;
Passage (Q.129-Q.132): Yogesh: Sanju, I hope you‘ll admit it at least now that the economy‘s been
going steadily downhill since the UPA‘s golden era. The UPA-2 left behind a quarterly GDP growth of 8
per cent and the NDA has successfully levelled it to 5 per cent.
Sanju: You‘re kidding me, right? The UPA-2‘s economic policies are the root of all our current troubles.
The UPA during its two stints averaged a GDP growth of 6.9 per cent. The NDA in the last five years has
averaged 7.5 per cent. Look at the evidence, Sherlock!
Yogesh: Watson, I dispute the evidence, I‘m not convinced about the GDP back series. Under the old
series, the UPA averaged 7.5 per cent from FY04 to FY14. Come on, even going by numbers from listed
companies or bank credit growth, the UPA years felt like boom times.
Sanju: Nice that you should mention bank credit. It is bank credit drying up that has hurt the economy.
And who‘s responsible for this? UPA-1! The economy took off vertically between FY03 and FY08 with the
global commodity super-cycle and strong global growth at 3-4 per cent. India‘s private sector put up
mega steel, power, metal and mining projects and went on a global acquisition spree. With political
nudging, banks lent liberally to these projects. Everyone thought the good times would last forever. But
they didn‘t, right?
129. In the above conversation Yogesh supports which of the following government?
(a) UPA (b) NDA
(c) Both UPA and NDA (d) Neither UPA nor NDA
130. In the above conversation Sanju supports which of the following government?
(a) UPA (b) NDA
(c) Both UPA and NDA (d) Neither UPA nor NDA
131. Which of the following statement will strengthen the argument of Sanju?
(a) In the year 2011, India‘s GDP growth crashed to 3.1 per cent. Projects were stalled and banks were
left holding the baby.
(b) The UPA-2 left behind a quarterly GDP growth of 8 per cent.
(c) The UPA government averaged GDP 7.5 per cent from FY04 to FY14.
132. Which of the following can be the conclusion of the Sanju‘s argument in the above conversation?
(a) The economy took off vertically between FY03 and FY08.
(b) The NDA in the last five years has averaged GDP 7.5 per cent.
(c) The UPA-2‘s economic policies are the root of all our current economic troubles.
(d) Everyone thought the good times would last forever. But they didn‘t.

Passage (Q.133-Q.134): These questions are based on the following information:
Each of six students P, Q, R, S, T and U gets different marks in a Law Entrance Test out of 100 marks.
Only two students get less mark than T. S gets more mark than U but gets less marks than P. P does not
get highest mark. R gets less mark than U. The student who got second highest marks gets 70 marks.
133. If the addition of marks of P and T is 120, then what may be the mark of S?
(a) 60 (b) 80 (c) 45 (d) 40
134. Who among following gets second lowest marks?

(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) U

Directions (Q.135-Q.139): Study the following pie chart and table carefully to answer the questions that
follow. Pie Chart Showing Percentage wise Distribution of Cars in Four Different States
Distribution of Cars
Total Cars = 700

Table showing Ratio between Diesel and Petrol Engine Cars which are Distributed among Four Different
States
States Diesel Engine Cars Petrol Engine Cars
State 1 3 4
State 2 5 9
State 3 5 3
State 4 1 1
135. What is the difference between the number of diesel engine cars in state 2 and the number of petrol
engine cars in state 4?
(a) 159
(b) 21
(c) 28
(d) 34
136. Number of petrol engine cars in state 3 is what per cent of the number of diesel engine cars in state 1?
(a) 100%
(b) 200%
(c) 300%
(d) 125%
137. If 25% of diesel engine cars in state 3 are AC and remaining cars are non-AC, what is the number of
diesel engine cars in state 3 which are non-AC?
(a) 75
(b) 45
(c) 95
(d) 105
138. What is the difference between the total number of cars in state 3 and the number of petrol engine cars in
state 2?
(a) 96
(b) 106
(c) 112
(d) 98

139. What is the average number of petrol engine cars in all the states together?
(a) 86.75
(b) 89.25
(c) 89.75
(d) 86.25
Directions (Q.140-Q.144): Study the pie chart carefully and answer the following questions.
140. Time taken to fill the tank by tap P and S is ________ min.
(a) 240
(b) 360
(c) 120
(d) 100
141. Tap Q opens for 21 min and taps R opens for 18 min after that tap P used to empty the tank and open for
10 min. Amount of water in tank is _________ litre. Consider tank was initially empty.
(a) 32
(b) 37
(c) 45
(d) 50
142. Tap Q and R start to empty the full tank at 10∶00 PM. At what time, tank will be empty?
(a) 11∶50 PM
(b) 12∶00 AM
(c) 12∶00 PM
(d) 11∶30 PM
143. Initially tank was 3/5 filled. After empty the tank by 30 liter using the tap S, tap Q open to fill. How much
time tap Q takes to fill the tank?
(a) 1 hour 30 min
(b) 1 hour 40 min
(c) 1 hour 54 min
(d) 1 hour 25 min

144. Tap P and R open to fill the tank at the same time tap Q and S open to empty the tank. Under this
condition, how much time it take fill the tank till mid level?
(a) 2 hours 50 min
(b) 3 hours 15 min
(c) 4 hours 40 min
(d) 5 hours
Directions (Q.145-Q.150): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.
From a class a total of 200 students appeared in an examination consisting three papers P1, P2 and P3.
56% of students passed in paper P1, 63% passed in P2 and 56.5% passed in P3. 11% students passed
only in paper P1 and P2, 8% passed only in paper P1 and P3, and 22% students passed in all three
papers. No student failed in all three papers.
145. How many students passed in paper P2 and P3 but failed in P1?
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 25 (d) 28
146. What is the ratio of the number of students who passed only in paper P2 to the number of students who
passed in P3 only?
(a) 3:2 (b) 4:3 (c) 5:4 (d) 6:5
147. The number of students who passed in paper P1 only is what percentage of the number of students who
passed in paper P1 and P3 but failed in paper P2?
(a) 187.5% (b) 157.5% (c) 112.5% (d) 97.5%
148. The number of students who passed in at most one paper is what percentage of the total number of
(a) 43.5% (b) 44.5% (c) 45.5% (d) 46.5%
149. What is the difference between the number of students who passed in paper P3 and the number of
students who passed only in paper P3?
(a) 81 (b) 83 (c) 85 (d) 87
150. The number of students who passed in exactly two papers is what percentage of the total number of
(a) 43.5% (b) 44 % (c) 22 % (d) 31.5%

Notes:


MOCK CLAT #30
Candidate Name : _________________

Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Date of Exam : _________________
prosecution.
Centre/Hall.
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): It’s because drowsiness is always hovering, ready to pounce… Or let’s just say it’s
sleep’s tyranny. I’ve never been much good at waiting for anything without nodding off, but here, for
some reason, I haven’t had to work at resisting sleep. The doziness I can never normally shake from my
head and limbs hasn’t come over me here, even though in this room I can’t find anything stimulating to
keep me pleasantly occupied. All I can do is to go on taking stock of the room’s contents, sizing up the
furnishings one by one as if they have some significance, as if every object will yield a grand meaning.
When a person has nothing to do, when you’re just floating in a void, you can’t help trying to attach
meanings to the objects around you, to find some connection with them. As if I can retrieve some
memory of them, as if I’m already familiar with them, like they have some sort of place in my life or tell a
story I already know. I’ve told myself, for instance, that the knob on the wardrobe door looks like the one I
remember seeing in my aunt’s home, in the old flat, the one she left during the war.
I stare at the wardrobe’s double doors, following the patterns of the wood grain until my eyes are
watering. Then I shift my attention to the drawer in the little bedside table, indecisive about whether to
open it or not. I already know what is inside: a Bible, its pages thin and delicate, like you find in every
hotel room in Europe, and an old telephone directory that no one uses any longer, and hasn’t for a long
time. The hotel cleaners must have forgotten about it.
How many of those who’ve stayed in this room have spent as much time as I have contemplating every
one of its objects? Apart from whoever it was who left the letter inserted between the pages of the hotel
directory. And that directory is surely not something most guests would open. In the first place, there’s no
need for a directory in a hotel as small as this. No need for it in any hotel, in fact, now that people have
smart phones. It must be the owners’ attempt at giving their hotel a veneer of luxury, a touch of the
dignity of age. The directory looks old, its pages slightly crumpled and eaten away. Neglected and
forgotten here, like the Bible.
1. From the author’s description of the hotel, what is the look and feel of the hotel?
(a) Ancient and old (b) Vintage and luxurious
(c) Old and unattended (d) None of the above
2. “Or let’s just say it’s sleep’s tyranny” which tyranny is the author trying to infer?
(a) That people have forgotten Bible even though it’s a holy book;
(b) Not even the hotel cleaners pay attention to the old telephone dictionary
(c) Sleeping during important events in life
(d) Not being able to sleep when he actually wants to
3. What does the phrase ‘ready to pounce’ mean?

(a) Quickly take hold of something (b) Something that is unexpected
(c) An unwanted invasion in life (d) None of the above
4. Choose a word closest to the author’s emotions and feelings while he said this “I’ve told myself, for
instance, that the knob on the wardrobe door looks like the one I remember seeing in my aunt’s home, in
the old flat, the one she left during the war”?
(a) Grief (b) Déjà vu (c) Nostalgia (d) Anxious
5. “The directory looks old, its pages slightly crumpled and eaten away. Neglected and forgotten here, like
the Bible” what is author trying to say?
(a) Directory is old and needs replacement
(b) Directory has not been looked after and deserves more attention than
(c) Directory is being neglected by people just like the holy books and values
(d) Books these days are not valued enough by the people

Passage (Q.6-Q.10): Trees are mankinds lifeline. If they are destroyed, there is no way that human
beings can survive. From the oxygen that we breathe in, the food that we eat, to the clothes we wear, we
owe it all to the trees. Not only this, trees act as purifiers of air and receptacles of our waste products. We
get fuel, fodder, timber, medicines and numerous other valuable products from the trees. It is, therefore,
not surprising that trees were given great importance in our culture, our tradition, our mythology and
legends. The entire Panchatantra revolves around forests and its inhabitants. Tulsi plant is always found
and worshipped in a traditional home. Pipal tree is revered by all. Neem is valuable as an insecticide,
germicide and medicine, in the times when there were no coolers or air conditioners people comforted
themselves in the cool shades of mango, neem and other trees during summer heat. Today, however,
the forests are in danger. Their survival is at stake as man, in his blind pursuit of wealth and power, is
bent upon destroying them. The urgent need today is to save our forests from extinction. For sustaining
ecological balance, for environmental and other reasons, it is important that at least one third of our land
is covered with forests. However, today we have less than 20% area under forests and much of it is
degraded forest. Over felling of trees, hindering natural process of pollination and germination and
diverting land for other purposes have all taken their toll on forests. So, the need of the hour is to work
to save existing forests and help in bringing larger area under forests. The need to conserve forests and
upgrade them was recognized decades back by the Indian Government. Subsequently, to promote
research in forestry and allied sciences, a Forest Research Institute, and for forest management, an
Indian Institute of Forest Management were opened. While Indian Forest Service was organized on an
efficient basis by Sir John Strachedy, a new orientation was given to it after independence. The need to
involve public was felt and so social forestry scheme was launched. The purpose was to make forestry a
mass movement. One tree for every child, Trees for Eco-development and numerous other schemes
were launched. To provide financial support, Forest Development Boards were set up. To make use of
the waste lands, marginal lands and desert lands, energy plantations, fodder plantations etc. were
attempted. Under DDP, forests were sought to be promoted not only to restore fragile ecological balance
but also to provide people with the means of livelihood.
6. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the above passage?
(a) Importance of forests (b) Conserving forests
(c) Role of forests in our lives (d) All of the above
7. What does the author mean by ‘need of the hour’ used in the above passage?
(a) Measures should be taken that day itself
(b) Measures should be taken sometime
(c) Measures should be taken immediately
8. Assertion: Trees are mankind’s lifeline

Reason: We get fuel, fodder, timber, medicines and numerous other valuable products from the trees.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
9. As per the author, the urgent need today is to:

(a) Save our forests from extinction (b) bring larger area under forests
(c) Both a and b (d) None of the above
10. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

(a) The purpose of forestry was to make forestry a mass movement.
(b) Under DDP, forests were sought to be promoted only to restore fragile ecological balance.
(c) To promote research in forestry and allied sciences, a Forest Research Institute, was opened.

Passage (Q.11-Q.15): We were fifteen by then, already into our last year at Hailsham. We’d been in the
pavilion getting ready for a game of rounders. The boys were going through a phase of “enjoying”
rounders in order to flirt with us, so there were over thirty of us that afternoon. The downpour had started
while we were changing, and we found ourselves gathering on the veranda – which was sheltered by the
pavilion roof – while we waited for it to stop. But the rain kept going, and when the last of us had
emerged, the veranda was pretty crowded, with everyone milling around restlessly. I remember Laura
was demonstrating to mean especially disgusting way of blowing your nose for when you really wanted to
put off a boy.
Miss Lucy was the only guardian present. She was leaning over the rail at the front, peering into the rain
like she was trying to see right across the playing field. I was watching her as carefully as ever in those
days, and even as I was laughing at Laura, I was stealing glances at Miss Lucy’s back. I remember
wondering if there wasn’t something a bit odd about her posture, the way her head was bent down just a
little too far so she looked like a crouching animal waiting to pounce. And the way she was leaning
forward over the rail meant drops from the overhanging gutter were only just missing her – but she
seemed to show no sign of caring. I remember actually convincing myself there was nothing unusual in
all this – that she was simply anxious for the rain to stop – and turning my attention back to what Laura
was saying. Then a few minutes later, when I’d forgotten all about Miss Lucy and was laughing my head
off at something, I suddenly realised things had gone quiet around us, and that Miss Lucy was speaking.
She was standing at the same spot as before, but she’d turned to face us now, so her back was against
the rail, and the rainy sky behind her.
“No, no, I’m sorry, I’m going to have to interrupt you,” she was saying, and I could see she was talking to
two boys sitting on the benches immediately in front of her. Her voice wasn’t exactly strange, but she was
speaking very loudly, in the sort of voice she’d use to announce something to the lot of us, and that was
why we’d all gone quiet. “No, Peter, I’m going to have to stop you. I can’t listen to you anymore and keep
silent.”
11. The above passage, the rain was referred to as:

(a) Downpour (b) Demonstration
(c) Enjoying rounders (d) None of the above
12. What can be concluded about the person referring herself as “I’ in the passage?
(a) She does not like rain
(b) She wanted the boys present there to flirt with her
(c) She was really interested in Lucy’s actions
13. “I was stealing glances” in the passage means?

(a) To quickly look at someone else
(b) Trying to hide ones shyness
(c) Looking at someone you live and admire
(d) Trying to get everyone’s attention
14. What was unusual about Lucy looking at rain?

(a) Rain drops from the overhanging gutter were only just missing her
(b) The way she was looking at rain drops
(c) Her leaning over the railing
(d) Her back
15. The closest meaning to ‘everyone milling around restlessly’ is

(a) Moving in order to save themselves (b) Moving without any purpose
(c) Moving to flirt with girls (d) None of the above

Passage (Q.16-Q.20): One of the objects of newspaper is to understand the popular feeling and give
expression to it; another is to arouse among the people certain desirable sentiments; and the third is
fearlessly to expose popular defects. M K Gandhi.
Historically, social structure and tradition in India remained impervious to major elements of modernity
until the contact with the west began through colonization. This contact had a special historicity which
brought about many far reaching changes in culture and social structure of Indian society. There was,
however, one important feature of Indian modernization during the British period. The growth of this
process was selective and segmental. It was not integrated with the microstructure of Indian society, such
as family, caste, village community. At these levels, the British by and large followed a policy of least
interference, especially after the rebellion of 1857. Later, in the twentieth century, as the nationalist
movement gathered momentum which felt strong need to mobilize masses in the active policies. The
press became the chief instrument for carrying out the task that is for arousing, training, mobilizing and
consolidating nationalist public opinion. The influence of the media on Indian masses was tremendous. It
not only educated the masses politically, but also motivated them to discard irrational, old and evil social
practices.
The media of communication which have accelerated the rate of growth and cultural diffusion of
modernization have also been introduced in India by the colonial masters. Printing was introduced by the
Portuguese in the second half of the sixteenth century and incentive for this was provided by the
Christian missionaries. In the British territory, the first press appeared in Bombay in 1674 on the initiative
of an Indian named Bhimji Parekh. In early eighteenth century a printing press was established in South
India by the Danish Lutheran Mission. Written newspapers called Akbar are known to have been in
circulation during the time of the Mughal Empire, but the printed newspapers came into existence only
after the contact with the west. A beginning in this direction was made about the first quarter of the 18th
century. Similarly, the British also introduced telegraph, railways and modern postal system in India.
The changes which have followed since the expansion in these communication media in India constitute
an indirect but concrete index of modernization. During 1940-41, India had between 3000 to 4000 printed
newspapers and periodicals published from a variety of centers in seventeen different languages, a few
bilingual. The number of newspapers and periodicals increased by almost 42.7 percent in almost twenty
years. At the end of 1966 their number was 10, 977.
16. The media of communication which have accelerated the rate of growth and cultural diffusion of
modernization have also been introduced in India by the colonial masters. The best explanation to this
from the following is:
(a) Communication and media are the reasons britishers came to India
(b) Mass media and communication is the reason for cultural exchange
(c) Media and Communication can never accelerate the growth
17. Assertion: Printing was introduced by the Portuguese in the second half of the sixteenth century.
Reason: The first press appeared in Bombay not on the initiative of an Indian named Bhimji Parekh
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
18. Historically, social structure and tradition in India remained impervious to major elements of modernity
until the contact with the west began through colonization. ‘Impervious’ here means:
(a) Unaffected (b) Disinterested (c) Alien (d) Distant
19. Which of the following words from the passage mean the same as “developing or happening more
quickly”?
(a) Mobilize (b) Movement (c) Beginning (d) Momentum

20. In “the growth of this process was selective and segmental” which process is being referred by the
author?
(a) Process of expansion of communication
(b) Process of modernization
(c) Process of educating the masses
(d) Process of colonization
Passage (Q.21-Q.26): Ambedkar offered a substantive definition of democracy, radically different from
the procedural definition that dominated the 20th-century theories of democracy. He was not unmindful of
the procedural aspects of democracy, but for him, all these democratic mechanisms like elections and
parliament were there for a purpose: “to bring about welfare of the people”. He went on to offer a
definition of democracy for our times that would set him apart from the dominant theorists of democracy.
For him, democracy was “a form and a method of government whereby revolutionary changes in the
economic and social life of the people are brought about without bloodshed”. [Conditions Precedent for
the Successful Working of Democracy, 1952]
Departing from Western democratic imagination that foregrounds liberty, Ambedkar put equality and
fraternity at the heart of democracy. “The roots of democracy lie not in the form of Government,
Parliamentary or otherwise. A democracy is more than a form of Government. It is primarily a mode of
associated living. The roots of Democracy are to be searched in the social relationship, in terms of
associated life between the people who form a society.” [Prospects of Democracy in India, 1956] For this
ideal, he turned to the Buddhist tradition. He insisted that Buddhist Sanghas were the models for
parliamentary democracy.
In the light of this ideal, Ambedkar offered a thoroughgoing critique of the existing societies that claimed
to be democratic. Though his critique was general, his focus was, understandably, on Indian society. The
“associated living” that democracy presupposes simply did not exist in India. Caste system has divided
the Indian society into many parallel, self-contained communities that did not allow for the conversation
and negotiation necessary for a healthy democracy. Thus Ambedkar’s critique of the caste system was
not merely that it was unjust and oppressive for the “depressed classes”, but also that it fractured national
unity and made democracy impossible.
Ambedkar turned this critique into a general theory of preconditions for a successful democracy. He
reminded us, “democracy is not a plant that grows everywhere”. He would often cite the case of Italy and
Germany where absence of social and economic democracy led to the failure of nascent political
democracy. For him, the first and foremost condition for democracy was that there should be no glaring
inequalities, that every citizen should enjoy equal treatment in everyday administration and governance.
This needs to be backed up by popular acceptance of constitutional morality, widespread public
conscience and the upholding of moral order in society. Finally, Ambedkar reminded us that there is no
democracy without the existence of and respect for opposition, that tyranny of majority is antithetical to
democracy.

(a) Ambedkar believed that the sole function of democracy was to create an egalitarian society.
(b) Ambedkar believed that the society which is democratic is destined to greatness.
(c) Ambedkar believed in a notion of democracy where changes can be brought about without the need
for violence.
22. According to the passage, which of the following explains the phrase associated living?
(a) The idea of associated living is that the democracy lies in the institutions that are just.
(b) The idea of associated living is that the democracy lies in the social relationship between people.
(c) The idea of associated living is that the democracy lies in the liberty of people.

23. Why did Ambedkar believed that the associated living which democracy requires is not present in India?
(a) It does not exist in India as our county is fractured because of the rampant Corruption.
(b) It does not exist in India as our country is divided on the basis of caste and class.
(c) It does not exist in India as India was forced to be a unity of States.
(d) It does not exist in India as democracy as a form of governance was imposed upon us.
24. What is the meaning of the word fraternity used in the context of passage?
(a) The feeling of closeness based on the sharing common religion.
(b) The feeling of closeness based on sharing form of government.
(c) The feeling of closeness or a sense of belonging with the country.
25. According to Ambedkar, what is the precondition for existence of democracy?

(a) There should be respect for the political opposition.
(b) There should not be a glaring inequality.
(c) There should be moral order in the society.
26. What is the meaning of the word antithetical?

(a) Identical (b) At odds with (c) Uniform (d) Of a piece
Passage (Q.27-Q.32): The Battle of Chancellorsville, one of the most famous battles of the Civil War,
took place in Virginia in the spring of 1863. For months, the two armies had been staked out on opposite
banks of a narrow river. The Confederate troops were led by perhaps the most revered military tactician
in American history, General Robert E. Lee. The Union soldiers were led by “Fighting” Joe Hooker.
In appearance, personality and lifestyle, these men were nearly perfectly opposites. Lee, an old man in
poor health with a gray beard, had a somber, measured demeanour. Hooker was a blonde, strapping
young man whose vanity over his appearance was but one aspect of his egotism. Whereas Lee was
devout and principled, Hooker was known for his rollicking enjoyment of women and whiskey.
Despite the fact that the Confederacy had won the last four major battles and the Union soldiers were
famished, exhausted, and demoralized, Hooker proclaimed, “My plans are perfect. And when I start to
carry them out, may God have mercy on Bobby Lee, for I shall have none.” Why, aside from a
propensity for narcissism, was Hooker so confident?
Hooker had used spies, analysts, and even hot air balloons to compile a vast amount of intelligence
about Lee’s army. He had discerned, for example, that Lee had only 61,000 men to Hooker’s own
1,34,000. Buoyed by his superior numbers, Hooker covertly moved 70,000 men fifteen miles up and
across the river and then ordered them to sneak back down to position themselves behind Lee’s army. In
effect, Hooker had cut off the Confederate soldiers in front and behind. They were trapped. Satisfied with
his advantage, Hooker became convinced that Lee’s only option was to retreat to Richmond, thus
assuring a Union victory.
Yet Lee, despite his disadvantages of both numbers and position did not retreat. Instead, he moved his
troops in position to attack. Union soldiers who tried to warn Hooker that Lee was on the offensive were
dismissed as cowards. Having become convinced that Lee had no choice but to retreat, eating supper,
completely unprepared for battle. They abandoned their rifles and fled as Lee’s troops came shrieking out
of the bush, bayonets drawn. Against all odds, Lee won the Battle of Chancellorsville and Hooker’s forces
withdrew in defeat.
27. Based on information in the passage, it can be concluded that Hooker lost the Battle of Chancellorsville
mostly because of his
(a) Vanity (b) Ignorance (c) Overconfidence (d) Faulty Information

28. Based on its use in paragraph 3, it can be inferred that the word propensity belongs in which of the
following word groups?
(a) Fondness, partiality, affection (b) Flaw, fault, shortcoming
(c) Distaste, aversion, dissatisfaction (d) Tendency, inclination, predisposition
29. The term Buoyed used in the passage most nearly means
(a) Strengthen (b) Anchored (c) Floated (d) Heartened
30. According to the author, Hooker’s advantages going into the Battle of Chancellorsville included:
I. Numbers II. Positions III. Strategy
(a) I only (b) II only (c) I and II only (d) II and III only
31. In paragraph 3, the author quotes Hooker as saying, “My plans are perfect. And when I start to carry
them out, may God have mercy on Bobby Lee, for I shall have none.” The author most likely includes this
quote in order to
(a) Demonstrate Hooker’s belief in his own infallibility
(b) Provide an example of the way language has changed since 1863
(c) Reveal that Hooker was a deeply religious man inspite of his lifestyle
(d) Foreshadow Hooker’s defeat at the hands of Lee’s Army
32. Which of the following is exact opposite to the word demeanour used in the passage?
(a) Behaviours (b) Impropriety (c) Propriety (d) Manners

Passage (Q.33-Q.37): On Tuesday, India abstained from voting on a resolution in the United Nations
Human Rights Council (UNHRC) that makes a wide-ranging and damaging commentary on the human
rights situation in Sri Lanka. This is the eighth resolution on Sri Lanka at the Human Rights Council since
the end of the war against the LTTE in [1]. India’s record of voting on these resolutions shows the ups
and downs of New Delhi-Colombo relations, the pressures on coalitions in India, the influence of politics
and parties in Tamil Nadu, and the ebb and flow of regional and international geopolitics.
Resolution 46/L1 has decided, among other things, to “strengthen” the Office of the High Commissioner
on Human Rights “to collect, consolidate, analyse, and preserve information and evidence and develop
possible strategies for future accountability processes for gross violations of human rights or serious
violations of international humanitarian law in Sri Lanka, to advocate for victims and survivors, and to
support relevant judicial and other proceedings, including in Member States, with competent jurisdiction”.
(a) 2007 (b) 2010 (c) 2009 (d) 2011
34. Consider the following about the resolution put forward by Sri Lanka
I. The resolution among other things, talks about strengthening the Office of the High Commissioner of
Human Rights.
II. It also talks about encouraging the Sri Lankan government to implement the requirements of the
previous 30/1 resolution.
Which of the above is/are correct:
35. Who among the following is currently the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights?
(a) Mrs. Mary Robinson (b) Michelle Bachelet Jeria
(c) Ms. Navanethem Pillay (d) Mr. Sergio Vieira de Mello
36. Consider the following about UNHRC

I. UNHRC was reconstituted from its predecessor organisation, the UN Commission on Human Rights.
II. The UNHRC has 51 members serving at any time with elections held to fill up seats every year.
Which of the above is/are correct?
37. The new draft resolution talked about in the passage is called?
(a) The First Draft (b) The Zero Draft
(c) The Final Report (d) The Last Report
Passage (Q.38-Q.42): Parliament on Thursday passed a bill to set up the National Bank for Financing
Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) to fund infrastructure projects in India. The Rajya Sabha
passed the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) Bill 2021 by voice vote
on Thursday. The bill was passed in the Lok Sabha on March 23, 2021.
The bill seeks to establish the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development to support the
development of long-term non-recourse infrastructure financing in India including development of the
bonds and derivatives markets necessary for infrastructure financing and to carry on the business of
financing infrastructure and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

38. Which of the following about NaBFID is correct?
(a) NBFID will be set up as a corporate body with authorised share capital of one lakh crore rupees.
(b) Initially, the central government will own 100% shares of the institution which may subsequently be
reduced up to 26%.
(c) NBFID will be governed by a Board of Directors.
39. Which of the following is correct procedure for appointment of Chairperson of NaBFID?
(a) The Chairperson will be appointed by the President after Consultation the Prime Minister
(b) The Chairperson will be appointed RBI in consultation with the Central Government.
(c) The Chairperson will be appointed by the committee consisting of Prime Minister, Leader of
opposition in Lok Sabha and the Governor of RBI.
(d) The Chairperson will be appointed by the central government in consultation with RBI.
40. What is the source of funding for the Development Financial Institutions like NaBFID?
(a) Market (b) Government
(c) Multilateral Institution (d) All of the above
41. Which of the following is not correct about Development Financial Institutions?
(a) DFIs are set up for providing long-term finance for such segments of the economy where the risks
involved are beyond the acceptable limits of commercial banks.
(b) Development Financial Institution can take deposits from people.
(c) DFI’ can source funds from the market, government, as well as multilateral institutions
42. In the Union Budget 2021-22, the government has promised a grant of how much rupees to the NBFID
by the end of the first financial year?
(a) 15,000 Crore (b) 10,000 Crore (c) 05,000 Crore (d) 02,000 Crore
Passage (Q.43-Q.47): [1] and ISRO are collaborating on developing a satellite called NISAR, which will
detect movements of the planet’s surface as small as 0.4 inches over areas about half the size of a
tennis court.
The satellite will be launched in 2022 from the Satish Dhawan Space Center in Sriharikota, India, into a
near-polar orbit and will scan the globe every [2] over the course of its three-year mission of imaging the
Earth’s land, ice sheets and sea ice to give an “unprecedented” view of the planet.
The images will be able to capture changes in the Earth caused by certain activities. For instance,
drawing drinking water from an underground aquifer can leave signs on the surface. If too much of it is
drawn out, the ground begins to sink, which is what scientists believe the images will be able to show
them.
(a) Centre national d'études spatiales
(b) National Aeronautics and Space Administration
(c) Canadian Space Agency
(d) European Space Agency
44. Which of the following is not one of the goals of NISAR mission?
(a) Tracking subtle changes in the Earth’s surface
(b) Spotting warning signs of imminent volcanic eruptions
(c) Helping to monitor groundwater supplies
(d) Tracking the rate of rotation of earth on its axis

45. ISRO will provide which of the following for NISAR?
(a) A payload data subsystem
(b) GPS receivers
(c) A high-rate communication subsystem for science data
(d) The spacecraft bus
47. What kind of Radar is ISRO providing to the NISAR?
(a) R-Band Radar (b) S-Band Radar (c) P-Band Radar (d) A-Band Radar
Passage (Q.48-Q.52): The entire Nagaland was on Wednesday declared a “disturbed area” for six more
months by the central government. This enabled the continuation of the controversial AFSPA which
empowers security forces to conduct operations anywhere and arrest anyone without any prior warrant.
The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) has been in force in Nagaland for several decades.
The MHA said in a notification that the central government is of the opinion that the area comprising the
whole of Nagaland is in such a “disturbed and dangerous condition” that the use of armed forces in aid of
the civil power is necessary, reported PTI. Now, therefore, in exercise of the powers conferred by the
Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 (No. 28 of 1958), the central government hereby declares that
whole of the State of Nagaland to be 'disturbed area' for a period of six months with effect from 30th
December 2020 for the purpose of the said Act,” PTI quoted the notification. A home ministry official said
the decision to continue the declaration of Nagaland as a "disturbed area" has been taken as killings, loot
and extortion have been going on in various parts of the state which necessitated the action for the
convenience of the security forces operating there., reported PTI.
As per a report in PTI, the AFSPA has not been withdrawn even after a framework agreement was
signed on August 3, 2015 by NSCN-IM. The framework agreement came after over 80 rounds of
negotiations spanning 18 years, with the first breakthrough in 1997 when the ceasefire agreement was
sealed after decades of insurgency in Nagaland. However, the peace process has been stuck for some
time as the NSCN-IM has been pressing for a separate flag and Constitution, a demand rejected by the
central government, reported PTI.
SOURCE: Excerpt from India Today, (dated 31st December 2020)
48. Under which section of AFSPA, Nagaland was declared as “disturbed area”?
(a) Section 4 (b) Section 3 (c) Section 6 (d) Section 5
49. Who can declare a region as “Disturbed Area”?

(a) State Government (b) Governor of the State
(c) The President (d) The Home Minister
50. NSCN-IM is a
(a) Political Party (b) Regional Group
(c) Insurgent Group (d) None of the above
51. For how long, the region is declared as “disturbed” according to The Disturbed Areas (Special Courts)
Act, 1976?
(a) Four months (b) Six months
(c) Twelve months (d) Three months
52. What were the demands put forward by NSCN-IM?
(a) Separate Flag and Constitution.
(b) Increment in the Reservation policy.
(c) Allocation of Resources.

Passage (Q.53-Q.57): The global water crisis is one of the greatest challenges facing humankind. The
crisis is manifesting due to the progressive decline in availability, rampant misuse of the precious
resource and societal inability to deliver water where it is needed.
India’s tryst with fighting the water crisis began with the Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan. While providing health
and sanitation facilities to each household, it soon became clear that water security was an essential
component for the success of the project. With this insight, the government launched the ambitious Jal
Jeevan Mission (Rural) in 2019 and Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban) in 2020.
The initiatives must be community driven, as this increasing the chances of these resources being
actively sustained. The Pani Samitis are a great example of how to manage at the micro level. Access to
safe water is not a privilege but a fundamental right. Corporate houses, communities and the government
need to work together to ensure that this resource is protected, preserved and distributed equitably
amongst all.
53. Under the Budget 2021-22, Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban) is announced under which of the following
ministry?
(a) Ministry of Jal Shakti
(b) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
(c) Ministry of Health and Family welfare
(d) Ministry of Environment, forest and Climate Change
54. Under the Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban), what percentage of city’s water demand should be met by using
recycled water?
(a) 25% (b) 10% (c) 15% (d) 20%
55. India is ranked at what place in the WaterAid’s Water Quality Index?
(a) 120th (b) 123rd (c) 100th (d) 101th
56. Funding for the mission from the Central Government is based on outcome initially achieved by the
State/City/ UT. What is the ratio in which funding will be given?
(a) 30:30:40 (b) 20:40:40 (c) 40:40:20 (d) 40:30:30
57. As per the Union Budget 2021-22, the government has promised to provide 2.64 crore sewer
connections/septage in how many AMRUT cities?
(a) 300 (b) 100 (c) 500 (d) 250
Passage (Q.58-Q.62): The bridge 'Maitri Setu' has been built over the [1] which flows between the Indian
boundary in Tripura and Bangladesh.
The name 'Maitri Setu' symbolizes growing bilateral relations and friendly ties between India and
Bangladesh. The construction was taken up by the [2] at a project cost of Rs. 133 Crores.
With this inauguration, Tripura is set to become the 'Gateway of North East' with access to Chittagong
Port of Bangladesh.
Prime Minister will also inaugurate and lay the foundation stone of multiple infrastructure projects in
Tripura during the event.
He will lay the foundation stone for setting up an Integrated Check Post at Sabroom. It will help ease the
movement of goods and passengers between the two countries, provide new market opportunities for
products of North-East states and assist seamless movement of passengers to and from India and
Bangladesh.

58. The 1.9 Km long bridge joins _____ in Tripura with ________ in Bangladesh.
(a) Sabroom and Ramgarh (b) Ramgarh and Sabroom
(c) Belonia and Matiranga (d) Matiranga and Belonia
(a) Kushiyara River (b) Karnaphuli River
(c) Brahmaputra River (d) Feni River
60. Which of the following will now become the nearest city to an international sea port in India
(a) Imphal (b) Agartala (c) Aizawl (d) Kohima
(a) National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Limited
(b) National Highway Authority of India
(c) Ministry of Road Transport
(d) Border Roads Organisation
62. Consider the following:

I. After this bridge is operation, the Indian state of Tripura will become the ‘Gateway of North East’ with
having access to Chittagong Port in Bangladesh.
II. Prime Minister Modi will also lay down the foundation stone to set up an “Integrated Check Post at
Sabroom” on the occasion.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Passage (Q.63-Q.67): US president Joe Biden has declared it was time “to end America’s longest war”
as he announced that nearly 10,000 US and NATO troops would return home from Afghanistan in the
run-up to the 20th anniversary of 9/11. Addressing the world from the White House, Biden said 2,500 US
troops plus a further 7,000 from “NATO allies” including 750 from the UK would gradually leave the
country starting on 1 May. “The plan has long been in together, out together,” he added. Biden said he
was the fourth president to preside over the US-led fight against the Taliban. Member states did not
oppose the plans for a full withdrawal once the US has made its intentions clear earlier this week, partly
because they cannot guarantee the security of their own forces without the presence of the US. Minutes
after Biden’s confirmation of the withdrawal plan, all NATO members, including the UK, put out a joint
statement, confirming they would join in with an “orderly, coordinated, and deliberate” removal of troops
alongside the US. The alliance said that it had achieved a goal to “prevent terrorists from using
Afghanistan as a safe haven to attack us” but acknowledged also there was no good reason to stay on.
“There is no military solution to the challenges Afghanistan faces,” NATO members said. The UK, which
has been present alongside the US for nearly 20 years, had been preparing to withdraw for several
weeks, once the new administration had decided on its plans. If they [the Americans] go, we’ll all have to
go. That’s the reality of it,” a British defence source said.
SOURCE- Excerpt from The Guardian, written by Dan Sabbagh and Julian Borger (dated 14 April 2021)
63. Foreign troops under NATO command will withdraw from Afghanistan in coordination with a U.S. pull-out
by-
(a) May 1, 2021 (b) August 12, 2021
(c) September 11, 2021 (d) June 29, 2021
64. NATO-led security mission ‘ISAF’ is abbreviation of-

(a) International Security Alliance Force.
(b) International Science Alliance Force.
(c) International Scientific Atomic Firm.
(d) International Security Assistance Force.

65. When will U.S. troops begin its final withdrawal from Afghanistan?
(a) September 11, 2021 (b) August 20, 2021
(c) July 12, 2021 (d) May 1, 2021
66. When was Taliban ousted from power by a U.S. invasion?

(a) Late 1980 (b) Late 2000 (c) Late 2001 (d) Late 2003
67. What is the key reason for a coordinated withdrawal of US troops from Afghanistan?
(a) NATO relied on U.S. political support.
(b) NATO relied on U.S. Military.
(c) NATO relied on U.S. Airlift capabilities.
Passage (Q.68-Q.71): Trade minister of India on 15 April 2021 chaired the first meeting of National
Startup Advisory Council (NSAC) set up to advise the government on measures needed to build a strong
ecosystem for nurturing innovation and startups in the country. In the inaugural address, Trade Minister
said that this council shall act as the guiding light for many budding startup entrepreneurs in India. He
said that this is the first time in our nation’s history where such a high-powered team of people from the
private sector and the government have come together, so that they take their own policy decisions.
DPIIT in January had constituted the Council to drive sustainable economic growth and generate large
scale employment opportunities. Besides the ex-officio members, the council has a number of non-official
members, representing various stakeholders such as founders of successful startups, veterans who have
grown and scaled companies in India, persons capable of representing interest of investors into startups,
persons capable of representing interests of incubators and accelerators, representatives of associations
of stakeholders of startups and representatives of industry associations. Describing the startups as the
new champions of Aatmanirbhar Bharat, the Trade Minister said that India has the potential to become
world’s largest and most innovative startup ecosystem. He said that the government has and will always
be a supportive partner in charting progress of Indian startup ecosystem. He also called upon the
successful entrepreneurs to take initiative to share their knowledge, experience, ideas and mentor
students and youth.
SOURCE: Excerpt from Mint, written by Asit Ranjan Mishra (dated 15 April, 2021)
68. Who is the present Trade Minister of India?

(a) Suresh Prabhu (b) Kamal Nath (c) Piyush Goyal (d) Anand Sharma
69. Which department constituted the National Startup Advisory Council?

(a) Department of Promotion of Innovation and Internal Technology
(b) Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
(c) Department of Promotion of Industry and International Trade
70. How many non-official members are nominated on the National Startup Advisory Council?
(a) 21 (b) 30 (c) 23 (d) 28
71. The National Startup Advisory Council will be chaired by-

(a) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
(b) Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
(c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
(d) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

Passage (Q.72-Q.76): Time has come to initiate action against persons who file frivolous complaints
under Sections 354, 354A, 354B, 354C, 354D IPC, etc. only for an ulterior purpose, the Delhi High Court
has just recently on February 23, 2021, in the latest decision has imposed a cost of Rs. 30,000 on the
petitioners with a warning not to file false and frivolous cases. It is a national tragedy that we see that
laws meant for protection of women are fast turning into weapons of stabbing men in the most gruesome
manner.
It is a matter of national disgrace that a man named Vishnu Tiwari had to suffer without committing any
offense 20 years of incarceration in connection with a false rape case filed against him by a woman
owing to an alleged land dispute in Lalitpur district in UP. Offenses under Sections 354, 354A, 354B,
354C, 354D IPC are serious offenses. Such allegations have the effect of tarnishing the image of the
person against whom such allegations are made.
Sexual harassment and punishment for sexual harassment.
Section '354A- A man committing any of the following acts-
I Physical contact and advances involving unwelcome and explicit sexual overtures; or
ii. A demand or request for sexual favors; or
iii. Showing pornography against the will of a woman; or
iv. Making sexually colored remarks shall be guilty of the offense of sexual harassment.
Section 354B - Any man, who assaults or uses criminal force to any woman or abets such act to disrobe
or compel her to be naked, shall be punished.
Section 354C - Any man who watches, or captures the image of a woman engaging in a private act in
circumstances where she would usually have the expectation of not being observed either by the
perpetrator or by any other person at the behest of the perpetrator or disseminates such image shall be
punished on first the conviction with imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less
than one year, but which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Sources: Legal service India
legalservicesindia.com/law/article/1880/5/It-Is-Now-Becoming-A-Trend-To-Register-FIRs-Alleging-
Sexual-Harassment-Cases-To-Force-A-Party-To-Withdraw-Complaint-Or-To-Arm-Twist-A-Party-Delhi-
HC
72. X is boss of Y a female employee, after office hours X requested Y to watch pornography content
together for business purpose as a company is doing research on Hormonal control methods but Y is not
uncomfortable for some minutes and then she did not deny or show any disapproval for watching porn.
Will Boss is liable for sexual harassment to decide in context of the passage.
(a) Yes, shall be guilty of the offence of sexual harassment because showing pornography against the
will of a woman is sexual harassment.
(b) Yes, he is guilty of the offence of sexual harassment as indirectly X demanding and requesting for
sexual favor from Y.
(c) No, showing pornography with the will of a woman is not sexual harassment.
73. What can be inferred from “It is a national tragedy that we see that laws meant for the protection of
women are fast turning into weapons of stabbing men in the most gruesome manner” in context with the
passage.
(a) All women are misusing laws that are meant for their protection against sexual harassment.
(b) Law that protects women are being misused in a heinous way by some people against men for
ulterior motives.
(c) Law is enforceable in society for women's protection but misusing it in an unlawful way is derogatory
for society at large.
(d) Law is for providing justice and misuse of the same legal law is illegal in any legal system.

74. C a woman is changing clothes at a roadside Open restaurant. Unintentionally Z, an employee in a
restaurant watched her changing clothes. She filed a complaint against Z under section 354C. Decide Z
will be liable or not under Section 354C.
(a) Yes, Section 354C.Any man who watches, or captures the image of a woman engaging in a private
act in circumstances where she would usually have the expectation of not being observed.
(b) Yes, 354C.Any man who watches, or captures the image of a woman engaging in a private act image
shall be punished on first conviction with imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not
be less than one year.
(c) No, circumstances in which she was changing the clothes, it has the possibility of being observed.
(d) Both A and B
75. Which is true in the context of the passage?

(a) Due to land dispute in Lalitpur district in UP between a woman and Vishnu Tiwari a false rape case
filed against him by a woman.
(b) False Rape allegations have the effect of tarnishing the image of the person against whom such
allegations are made.
(c) Law that protects women are being misused in a heinous way by some people against men for
ulterior motives.
(d) All of the Above
76. What punishment should be given to women in the context of the passage? Who filled false allegations
against men?
(a) Fine up to Rs 30,000.
(b) Imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than one year, but which may
extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(c) In accordance with the law in the force.
Passage (Q.77-Q.81): Supreme Court has issued new guidelines for all courts to adhere to while passing
bail orders in cases involving crimes against women. The judgment came on a plea filed by nine women
lawyers who contended that such bail orders have the effect of trivializing sexual offenses.
Guidelines for judges, lawyers to follow
In its judgment, the court passed seven key directions for courts to follow when bail orders are dictated.
“The act perpetrated on the survivor constitutes an offense in law and is not a minor transgression that
can be remedied by way of an apology, rendering community service, tying a rakhi or presenting a gift to
the survivor,” the court said. Among the key directions in the judgment are that bail conditions should not
mandate or permit contact between accused and victim should seek to protect the victim, not discuss the
complainant’s behaviour, dress, past conduct, or morals and the complainant should immediately be
informed about the bail order. The bench also said courts must desist from expressing any stereotype
opinion about women, in words were spoken during proceedings, or in the course of a judicial order.
Further, the top court said the expressions that should not find their way into any verdict include phrases
such as “women are physically weak and need protection”, “women are incapable of or cannot take
decisions on their own”, “men are the head of household and should take all decisions relating to the
family” and “good women are sexually chaste”. “The causes and factors of violence against women
include entrenched unequal power equations between men and women that foster violence and its
acceptability, aggravated by cultural and social norms, economic dependence, poverty and alcohol
consumption, etc.,” the court said.
Source: The Print 19 March 2021 9:29 am
https://theprint.in/judiciary/no-rakhi-tying-suggesting-marriage-or-discussing-victims-dress-new-sc-guide-
on-sexual-offence-cases/624463/

77. Court gives bail order on condition to give half property of X convicted for sexual harassment against
women Y for the remedy of the offense of X and giving justice to Y. The Bail order of the court is in line
with Supreme Court new guidelines that all courts have to adhere to while passing bail?
(a) No, It is a minor transgression that can be remedied by way of an apology.
(b) No, It is not a minor offense that can be remedied by presenting a gift to the survivor.
(c) No, this is against the law in force
78. Tara was the victim of a sexual offense and during giving bail to accused bail conditions discuss Tara's
past behaviour of alleging false complaint against his boss and her Bar dancer profession. Is this
violation of guidelines issued by the Supreme Court?
(a) Yes, that bail conditions should not mandate or permit contact between accused and victim should
seek to protect the victim, not discuss the complainant’s behaviour, dress, past conduct or morals.
(b) Yes, courts must desist from expressing any stereotype opinion about women, in words spoken
during proceedings, or in the course of a judicial order.
(c) Yes, the court should seek to protect the victim.
(d) Yes, such bail orders have the effect of trivializing sexual offenses.
79. What can be inferred from “The causes and factors of violence against women include entrenched
unequal power equations between men and women that foster violence and its acceptability, aggravated
by cultural and social norms, economic dependence, poverty and alcohol consumption, etc.”?
(a) Violence against is due to increasing alcohol consumption by their husbands.
(b) Violence against women is committed because many women are not economically independent and
they have to face abusive violence.
(c) Women are not given equal position like a man in society many spheres of their life,
(d) Both B and C.
80. Which are following Guidelines are given by Supreme Court in context of the passage?
(a) That bail conditions should mandate or permit contact between accused and victim, should seek to
protect the victim, not discuss the complainant’s behaviour, dress, past conduct, or morals.
(b) Courts must desist from expressing any stereotypical opinion about women, in words spoken during
proceedings, or in the course of a judicial order.
(c) Courts must desist from expressing any stereotype opinion about women, in words spoken during
proceedings, or in the course of giving bail.
81. Court in its verdict said that for ensuring safety and giving protection to women legislature, executive and
judiciary need to work together because women need protection due to increase in crime against them.
Decide in context of the last paragraph that using such the phrase will violate guidelines of court?
(a) Ye,s using such phrase infers meaning that “women are physically weak and need protection”.
(b) Court verdict does not violate guidelines because no stereotypical phrase being used in the verdict.
(c) Verdict of the court says that women are incapable of protecting themselves.
(d) All are not true.

Passage (Q.82-Q.87): Negligence is the failure degree of care in conduct that a reasonable man in
situation would observe but this is just one way of formulation of this concept. Limiting negligence to only
this definition without further explanation would be obscure that there could be inconsistent application to
this principle to similar cases. One significant benefit of anthropomorphizing the negligence test is to
make vivid a negligence standard would otherwise be abstract. Does a reasonable person standard
amount only to a useful rhetorical device for helping the fact-finder to analyse and apply considerations
that are relevant? If negligence should be understood as an unreasonable balance of advantages and
disadvantages of taking precaution, perhaps the reasonable man is just a person who does this balance.
The reasonable person formulation then adds nothing of substance to the content of negligence test.
Personification might serve 3 additional functions. First, it seems preferable to an ‘Impersonal’ Learned
Hand Balancing test in accounting for cases of deficit skill in conducting an activity. The surgeon whose
hand slips during surgery, we describe their fault if we try to characterize it as an unreasonable balance
of taking precautions. Second, a reasonable person can readily be calibrated along the dimension of
civilizations in asking what a reasonable person under all the circumstances would have done; we can
relate negligence to certain capacities and traits. This test is overly idealised and homogenous in nature.
A reasonable should be what a person would take if he/she were to have reasonable beliefs and values.
Third, this test precludes separate analysis of different dimensions of unreasonableness. A final value of
personification should include excused and justified conduct.
[Source- Kenneth W. Simons, “Dimensions of Negligence in Criminal and Tort Law”,
<https://www.researchgate.net/publication/311813946_Dimensions_of_Negligence_in_Criminal_and_Tor
t_Law>, as accessed on 04th April 2021]
82. Mahadev Bus Services was the well known transport services in city of Bhopal which covers every small
routes and villages for wider services to be availed by the passengers. They hired Prabhu as the bus
conductor. He has his own private bus and asked the transport services to use it under their services and
they can pay the amount for the petrol and other maintenance charges during his services. Prabhu,
before starting his services at Mahadev Transportation, decided to give his bus for maintenance and
other repairing works to Kapil Mechanics. After a week, he took his first ride from Bhopal to Indore. In the
way, he realised that breaks are not working properly and subsequently they met with an accident.
Suraiya, one of the passengers in the bus, filed a suit against Prabhu and Mahadev Bus Services for
negligence. Decide-
(a) She will win in her case as Prabhu and Mahadev Bus Services were negligent about the break
failures and should have applied due and reasonable care before providing the services.
(b) She will fail in her case against Mahadev Bus Services as they were not negligent, and it was fault of
both Prabhu and Kapil Mechanics who should have applied due and reasonable care while providing
bus services repairing bus respectively.
(c) She will win in her case against Prabhu and not Mahadev Bus Services as there was no agent-
principle relationship between them and Prabhu was negligent about the break failures and should
have applied due and reasonable care before providing the services.
(d) She will fail in her case against Prabhu and Mahadev Bus Services but can win against Kapil
Mechanic as he was the one who was negligent to check the break failures and should have applied
due and reasonable care.
83. Priya Malik was a well-known athlete and she was a good swimmer. She bought a new mansion and had
constructed a swimming pool wide enough with filters to avoid overflowing. She also hired a staff to carry
out maintenance and cleaning services of the pool. One day, she was out of the town for her fellowship
programme. Staff person opened the pipes filing the pool and left it unattended. Filters of the pool also
got blocked. Soon the swimming pool gets overflowed and the water runs out of the mansion to the public
road. Jatin, a biker and racer, was passing through outside her mansion and was in a high speed. Due to
wet and slippery road from the overflowed water, he met with an accident and crushed through side of his
face. He claimed compensation and damages from Priya for her negligence. Decide-
(a) Priya is not liable for damages as she was not negligent. The act of overflowing of water was just an
accident and hence Jatin will fail in his suit.

(b) Priya is vicariously liable for damages as she was negligent in applying due care and diligence. There
exists principle-agent relationship between her and the staff and hence Jatin will succeed in his suit
for damages.
(c) Priya is not liable for damages as her staff was negligent in taking due care and diligence. She cannot
be held liable as principle for the negligent acts of her staff and hence Jatin will fail in his suit.
(d) Priya is liable for damages as she was negligent. But Jatin will not succeed in his suit because he
was also negligent as he was driving bike in very high speed and he should have taken reasonable
care while driving.
84. Manohar, a well known chef in Pyarelal Restaurent, was famous for his Grated Cheese Pizza Patties
dish. He usually purchases a packet of cheese cubes from the nearby shop in his locality which is
different in texture from other cheese cubes and that’s what makes his dish delicious and different. On
day, a customer, Mr. Sharma went to the restaurant and ordered his favorite dish Grated Cheese Pizza
Patties. He was served with the mouth- watering dish and he tasted it. He didn’t like the taste as it was
not as usual as before and complained the manager of the bad dish. He smelled the same and stated
that cheese used in the dish is giving foul smell and asked to call the chef. On testing, it was found that
cheese cubes brought by Manohar were 6 months expired. Mr. Sharma gets to know this and claimed
damages from Manohar for his negligent act of using the expired cheese for his dishes. Decide-
(a) Mr. Sharma can validly claim damages from Manohar as he was negligent and he should have taken
reasonable care and due diligence before buying and using cheese in his dishes.
(b) Mr. Sharma can validly claim damages from both Manohar and restaurant as there exists principle-
agent relationship between them and under vicarious liability they are liable.
(c) Mr. Sharma cannot claim damages from Manohar as he was not negligent in his act and it’s the shop
owner who should have taken reasonable care and due diligence before selling the cheese to its
customers.
(d) Mr. Sharma cannot claim damages from Manohar and restaurant authorities as he had wished for the
dish and had consented for the same. He was negligent in ordering such dish and he should have
taken reasonable care for the same.
85. Qui Facit per Alium Facit per se means he who does things through others does it himself.
Facts: Jetali and Mehul were best friends and were employed in the same office and under same
departmental heads. Jetali was not well and she decided to take leave for the day. She asked Mehul to
take her car to attend the meeting scheduled in their office and return back the same to her by night.
Mehul agreed to her and asked her to take rest. On the way to office, Mehul was on a call and hit a
pedestrian, Rahul who was crossing the road in a hurry. He was injured badly and was taken to taken
hospital. Decide-
(a) Rahul can claim damages from Mehul only as he was negligent while driving car and having a call at
the same time. He has a duty of reasonable care and due diligence against Rahul and other
pedestrians.
(b) Rahul cannot claim damages from Mehul as he was not negligent while driving the car. He has not
duty of reasonable care and due diligence against Rahul or other pedestrians.
(c) Rahul cannot claim damages from Mehul or Jetali as they were not negligent. Rahul must have taken
reasonable care while crossing the road.
(d) Rahul can claim damages from both Mehul and Jetali as Mehul was negligent while driving car and
having a call at the same time and Jetali being owner of the car is also liable.
86. Choose the appropriate option.

Assertion (A): While determining the degree of negligence in the conduct of the person, the standard of
care by reasonable man has to be applied.
Reasoning (R): As legally defined, a reasonable person is one who acts carefully and/or makes
reasonable balance between advantages and disadvantages.
(a) Both A and R is correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R is incorrect.
(c) Only A is correct and R is incorrect.
(d) Both A and R is correct but R is incorrect explanation of A.

87. Various tests and principle of reasonable person has been discussed by the author in the above passage
with regards to negligence. What is the stand of the author while stating those tests and their validity with
the time?
I. The author has not find these tests to determine and apply the principle of standard reasonable care
perfect but a suitable option to be used as compared to other options available.
II. She/he finds such test of reasonable person very interesting and appreciated the full proof validity of
the same with changing time.
III. The author seems to be very indifferent when it comes to the principle of reasonable man.
(a) The author has showcased the orthodox view while applying the test of reasonable man and standard
care for determining the negligent act. Both I and III
(b) Only IV
(c) Both II and IV
(d) I, III and IV
Passage (Q.88-Q.92): Full Bench of the Bombay High Court, Goa Bench on Friday held that the Goa
State Cooperative Bank Ltd. is not a 'State' nor does it fall within the ambit of 'any other authority' for the
purposes of Article 12 of the Constitution of India. The bench also went ahead to observe that the said
Bank does not discharge any public functions which would warrant issuance of a writ in the nature of
mandamus. The bench comprising of Justice M.S. Sonak, Justice Dama Seshadri Naidu and Justice
Bharati H. Dangre was dealing with a reference order adjudicating major issues- Whether Goa State
Cooperative Bank Ltd. is a 'State' or any instrumentality thereof, for the purposes of Article 12 of the
Constitution of India and whether it performs any public functions, which would warrant issuance of writ in
the nature of mandamus in discharge of its performance of the public functions? Two division benches of
the High Court in the cases of Ganesh Morto Naik vs. Goa State Co-operative Bank and Surendra J.
Kalangutkar vs. Goa State Cooperative Bank Ltd. held that the Goa State Cooperative Bank Ltd. is a
'State' for the purpose of Article 12 and that since it is discharging public functions, it is amenable to writ
jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India. In another decision by the Full Bench of the HC
in Shamrao Vithal Co-operative Bank Limited vs. Padubidri Pattabhiram Bhat, it was held that Multi State
Co-operative Bank is not a 'State' within the meaning of Article 12, though it is governed by the Banking
Regulations Act, 1949 and it performs public functions. By applying various tests as developed by the
Courts under Article 12, the Court observed that a writ in the nature of mandamus would also lie against
a private body, but only when such body performs any public function. Therefore, a commercial business
of banking though is a function of public importance is not a public function. Providing life insurance cover
comes under the ambit of public function.
[Source- Nupur Thapliyal, ‘Goa State Cooperative Bank Ltd. Not A 'State' Under Art. 12, Does Not
Discharge Any Public Functions: Full Bench Of Bombay High Court’, Live Law,
<https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/goa-state-cooperative-bank-ltd-not-a-state-under-art-12-does-not-
discharge-any-public-functions-full-bench-bombay-hc-170825>, as accessed on 13th March 2021]
88. Amit was the student of National Law University Jodhpur and was a studious child. One day, he gets to
know that his grandfather is sick and is admitted in ICU ward. He has to urgently leave for his home in
Amritsar to meet his grandfather. He was in dilemma as mid semester exams were approaching in the
coming week. He went to Amritsar without informing the authorities and came back after two weeks. He
was marked absent for his exams and was marked zero for the same. He approached the administration
to give him a chance to justify his reasons for not attending the exams. Being a studious child, such
action would affect his total grades. But he was refused for any such hearing. He filed a case against the
university stating it to be a State within article 12 of the Constitution and thus, it cannot violate his
fundamental right of fair hearing. Decide-
(a) NLUJ is not a state within the ambit of article 12 of the Constitution as it was not serving any public
function and thus is not liable for violation of fundamental right.
(b) NLUJ is not a state but an instrumentality of state which is serving public function of educating the law
graduates and thus is liable for violation of fundamental right.

(c) NLUJ is not a state within the ambit of article 12 of the Constitution though it was not serving public
function of educating law graduates but is a private body and thus is not liable for violation of
fundamental right.
(d) NLUJ is a state within the ambit of article 12 of the Constitution as it was governed by the state
government and thus is liable for violation of fundamental right.
89. Suyash was a agent of Life Insurance Corporation Ltd. (LIC). His oldest of all customers was Mr. Bhide
whom he had family relations too. Mr. Bhide deposits a sum of Rs. 1000 every month with Suyash for life
insurance cover policy and get receipts for the same in return. Suyash was not an honest employee and
he cheated Mr. Bhide. He only deposits Rs. 500 per month as life insurance cover and kept the
remaining 500 for his personal use. This fraud came into notice of Mr. Bhide when he went to LIC office
and asked for his insurance amount due for the remaining years. Mr. Bhide filed a suit for recovery of
damages from Suyash and compensation as well. The court decided in favour of Mr. Bhide and held
Suyash liable for the same. One of the issues brought up before the court was to held LIC to be liable as
there is principal-agent relationship between Suyash and LIC Ltd. The court went on to seek the nature of
LIC ltd. Decide-
(a) Life Insurance Corporation Ltd. is not a state as it giving life insurance cover does not amount to
public function and hence is not liable for any damages to Mr. Bhide.
(b) Life Insurance Corporation Ltd. is instrumentality of state as it discharges public function of giving life
insurance cover and hence is liable for damages to Mr. Bhide.
(c) Life Insurance Corporation Ltd. is not a state but a private body which does discharge public function
of giving life insurance cover but is not liable for damages to Mr. Bhide.
(d) Life Insurance Corporation Ltd. is not a state or instrumentality of state. The question here for
consideration is irrelevant as there do not exist any principal-agent relationship between Suyash and
LIC Ltd.
90. K.L Rahul, one of the renounced cricketer of India was admitted in Indian Cricket Team by BCCI (Board
of Control for Cricket in India). For the new test series against England, BCCI decided to give a chance to
new players and had not selected K L Rahul for the series. He was very disappointed. Seeing his last
performances, he was expecting to be in the team for this series and in this regard, he had a talk with the
chairman of BCCI. He contended that he should be in the team for this series and they can give chance
to new comers in other upcoming events scheduled. BCCI refused him again and asked him to wait for
more opportunities in the next month. He made a point to file a case against BCCI for unfair practices in
selecting players including the corruption charges. BCCI chairman asked him to file the same and
contended that BCCI is not a state that it will protect the fundamental rights of the players. Decide-
(a) The contention of BCCI is correct as it is not a state within the meaning of article 12 as it does not
discharge any public function and hence is liable for infringing FR.
(b) The contention of BCCI is not correct as it is an instrumentality of state within the meaning of article
12 as it discharges public function of representing India in game of Cricket at global level and hence
is liable for infringing FR.
(c) The contention of BCCI is not incorrect as it is not an instrumentality of state or state within the
meaning of article 12 as it is a private body discharging function of public importance and hence is not
liable for infringing FR.
(d) The contention of BCCI is incorrect as it is a state within the meaning of article 12 as it discharges
both public function and of public importance by representing India at global level in game of Cricket
and hence is not liable for infringing FR.

91. In case of Rajasthan State Electricity Board (RSEB) vs. Union of India, it was held by the court that
RSEB is a state within the ambit of article 12 as it discharges functions similar and under the guidance of
state government of Rajasthan and can be said to be its instrumentality for the purpose. Going by the
ruling of the case, a private electricity board was set up by name of Balaji Electricity Suppliers and was
charging fewer fees for supplying electricity to the connected areas. RSEB filed an action against the
Balaji Electricity Suppliers for violating the terms of market competition and performing similar function
without any authority. Balaji Electricity Suppliers contended that they are also the State within the
meaning of article 12 and RSEB cannot stop them from performing public function. Decide-
(a) Balaji Electricity Suppliers are not state or instrumentality of state although they perform similar
functions of RSEB. They are private body performing function of public importance.
(b) Balaji Electricity Suppliers are state or instrumentality of state as they perform similar functions of
RSEB. Though, they are private body performing public functions, they are very well within the ambit
of article 12.
(c) Balaji Electricity Suppliers are not state but instrumentality of state as they perform similar functions
of RSEB. They are performing function of public importance which are per se public functions.
(d) Balaji Electricity Suppliers are state but not instrumentality of state. Although they perform similar
functions of RSEB but RSEB is instrumentality of state and not state per se.
92. Which of the following statement(s) with respect to writ of Mandamus is/are incorrect?
I. A writ of mandamus is used to order a lower court or government agency to complete a duty to
uphold the law or to correct an abuse of discretion.
II. A writ of mandamus is deemed necessary when the actions (or inaction) of government bodies or
corporate officials are so inappropriate or egregious that immediate, emergency action needs to be
taken by the legal system.
III. Scope of Writ of Mandamus also extends to Chief Justice of Supreme Court and other distinct High
Courts.
IV. The writ of mandamus can be issued against the Head of the State, that is, the President on a
national level or Governor at the state level.
(a) Both II and IV
(b) Only I
(c) Both III and IV
(d) Both I and III
Passage (Q.93-Q.97): Section 171C(1) forbids the use of undue influence at elections. As per the
section, undue influence is the interference with the free exercise of any electoral right. Section 171C (2)
specifies the ways in which undue influence can be exercised. As per clause (b) of the subsection, a
person who induces or attempts to induce any candidate or voter to believe that he or any other person in
whom he is interested would face spiritual censure or divine displeasure, commits the offence of undue
influence at elections. The purpose of section 171C and that of other sections under chapter IX-A
(offences related to elections) of IPC is to ensure that elections are conducted freely and the righteous
freedom of any voter or candidate (with respect to elections) is not adversely affected. To truly ensure
this righteous freedom, it is important to appreciate that undue influence at elections is not limited to overt
threats of divine displeasure. The opening of sub-section (2) which reads “without prejudice to the
generality of provisions of sub-section (1)” conveys that a specific mention of divine displeasure in sub-
section (2)(b) doesn’t render other religiously based acts (which can unduly influence the elections) out of
the scope of the section. In Shiv Kirpal Singh’s case, the SC laid down a relatively liberal definition of
undue influence. According to the decision an element of threat or compulsion is not a sine qua non for
establishing undue influence. Also, it is not necessary that an actual interference with free exercise of
electoral right is caused and that even an attempt to do so would amount to undue influence. Moreover,
considering the huge diversity in India and therefore the significance of religion in Indian politics, it is
important that section 171C is not read in a literal and narrow sense.
[Source- Vaibhav Yadav, ‘Legality of Hindutva Politics under Section 171C IPC: Scope of the Section and
Hindutva’s Varied Interpretations’, <https://criminallawstudiesnluj.wordpress.com/2021/03/12/legality-of-

hindutva-politics-under-section-171c-ipc-scope-of-the-section-and-hindutvas-varied-interpretations/>, as
accessed on 20th March 2021]
93. Meenal was contesting for upcoming Uttar Pradesh elections of 2021. She asked her husband to help
her out for votes and make her win these elections. Her husband was not much happy with her wife
contesting the elections and wants her candidature to be rejected. They called a Priest and asked about
her winning chances. The Priest forecasted that she will win by a good majority number but goddess
Durga will not be much happier of her winning. She should not contest these elections. Decide-
(a) The forecast by Priest was in form undue influence and fall under the said section 171C amounting to
divine displeasure.
(b) The forecast by Priest was not in form of undue influence and does not fall under the said section
171C i.e divine displeasure or spiritual censure.
(c) The forecast by Priest amounts to only undue influence but do not fall under section 171C amounting
to divine displeasure or spiritual censure.
(d) The forecast by Priest doesn’t amount to undue influence but was only a divine displeasure not falling
under section 171C.
94. Banku, a minister wants to contest elections again for the upcoming Karnataka elections 2021. He filed
his candidature on 1st January 2021 and starts preparing for influencing votes by rallies, posters etc. On
5th January 2021, he met with fortune teller and asked him that he will lose the elections and he should
not contest the same. On 7th January 2021, his candidature was rejected due to invalidity. He filed a
complaint against Prakash, the opponent, as he got to know that fortune teller was fraud send by him
only. Decide-
(a) Banku can file a valid complaint against such rejection for his candidature as it was fraud in name of
divine displeasure.
(b) Banku cannot file a valid complaint for his candidature as it was rejected for reasons of its invalidity
and not undue influence.
(c) Banku can file a valid complaint for candidature as the act of Prakash falls under section171C i.e
divine displeasure and spiritual censure.
(d) Banku cannot file any valid complaint against such rejection for his candidature as there was no
undue influence. Only spiritual censure under section 171C.
95. Meenakshi was a house wife of Mr. Ratan. Rattan does not want her to get into politics and asked her not
to file candidature for upcoming Panchayat elections of their village. Meenakshi doesn’t listen to him and
made him to agree with her decision. Soon, she filed the candidature and before the day of voting, she
withdraws the same. The council asked her the reasons and she stated that she doesn’t want to contest
while making her husband and family upset from her decision. Ratan was glad to hear that and in her
place filed his nomination. Decide-
(a) The candidature of Meenakshi was withdrawn due to undue influence exercised by her husband and
falls under section 171C.
(b) The candidature of Meenakshi was withdrawn not due to undue influence of her husband and her
family but because of her own voluntary decision. She does not want to contest the same.
(c) The candidature of Meenakshi was withdrawn due to only undue influence of Ratan but does not fall
within section 171C.
(d) The candidature of Meenakshi was withdrawn was due to other reasons than undue influence but
they form part of section 171C.

96. Anant , an MLA, of Chattarpur was again contesting elections for year 2021. His opposition candidate
Munna was not happy as he has fair chances of losing the elections. He asked Anant to withdraw his
candidature, but Anant refused to do so. Munna warned him time again and threatened him to take back
his candidature or else he will kill his family members. Anant, to save his family, took back his
candidature and eventually Munna won the elections. Decide-
(a) Anant has taken back his candidature due to threat and compulsion of Munna and said it to be undue
influence under section 171C.
(b) Anant has taken back his candidature but not due to threat and compulsion of Munna and cannot be
said to be undue influence under section 171C.
(c) Anant has taken back his candidature due to threat and compulsion of Munna but it does not amount
to undue influence under section 171C.
(d) Anant has taken back his candidature due to threat and compulsion of Munna and amount to undue
influence but not under section 171C.
97. Choose the most appropriate option.
Assertion: Right to vote and right to file candidature are one of the important part of Indian democracy
and are categorised as civil rights of an Individuals.
Reason: Civil rights are secured by positive government actions in contrast to civil liberties which are
secured by restraints on government.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Only Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect.
(c) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
Passage (Q.98-Q.101): It was clearly laid down as early as in 1953 in Raj Bahadur v. State of W.B.,
that traffic in human beings means to deal in men and women like goods, such as to sell or let or
otherwise dispose of. It would include traffic in women and children for immoral or other purposes.
The Supreme Court in Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India, elucidated the rehabilitation of bonded
labour and directed the Government to award compensation to released/rescued bonded labour under
the provisions of Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976 after taking note of serious violation of
fundamental and human rights:
“The bonded labourer who is released would prefer slavery to hunger, a world of ‘bondage and illusory
security’ as against a world of freedom and starvation.”
The Constitution of India also incorporates several safeguards in this respect.
Article 23 – It specifically prohibits “traffic in human beings and begar and other similar forms of forced
labour”.
Article 39 – It states that men and women should have the right to an adequate means of livelihood and
equal pay for equal work; that men, women and children should not be forced by economic necessity to
enter unsuitable avocations; and that children and youth should be protected against exploitation. It is
enshrined in the Constitution in the form of a directive to be followed while formulating policies for the
State.
[Extracted with revisions from ‘Human Trafficking’ by Arunima Bose, published on scconline blog
https://www.scconline.com/blog/post/2020/09/20/human-trafficking/]
98. X employs a number of street children or urchins and sends them to people’s houses on contract basis to
clean houses. He keeps the children in a bungalow where he gives them two meals a day. Whatever
money is earned by the children; X keeps all of it without giving any share to the children. When a child
turns 18, X gives an option to either continue to participate in the business the same way or leave the
bungalow and find other ways to survive. Is this a violation of the principles mentioned in the passage?
(a) Yes, because “traffic in human beings and begar and other similar forms of forced labour” are
prohibited under Article 23 which includes making children work for immoral purposes
(b) Yes, because women and children should not be forced by economic necessity to enter unsuitable
avocations and the same is prohibited under Article 39
(c) No, because the children were working out of their own will and were not being exploited but rather
given a place to stay and food to consume
99. Y lost his father at a very young age. His mother tried to apply several times to the unemployment bureau
to earn some money but she was never able to secure a job. This forced Y’s mother to enter into
prostitution, even though she detested the same. As bigger expenses fell upon the family, such as paying
for Y’s education, Y also had to resort to taking up odd jobs like cleaning the sewers, even though he was
just 10 years old. Is the condition of Y’s family in violation of Article 39?
(a) Yes, because prostitution and cleaning of sewers amounts to begar or forced labour as well as
human trafficking
(b) Yes, because women and children should not be forced by economic necessity to enter unsuitable
avocations and should not be exploited
(c) No, because prostitution by women and cleaning of sewers by children does not amount to
exploitation as they are respectable means of earning a livelihood
(d) No, because Article 39 is a directive principle of state policy and not a fundamental right whose
violation can be mandatorily claimed
100. A group of 30 girls were rescued from the home of a drug dealer. He used to sell these girls to rich
households in other countries so that they could be used as objects for any purpose by those
households. The girls were kidnapped or taken from their parents at a young age under false pretences
in exchange for a meagre amount of money given to their families. Is such a business in violation of the
principles mentioned in the passage?
(a) Yes, because it amounts to human trafficking as the girls are being treated like goods which are
bought and sold
(b) Yes, because the girls are being forced by economic necessity to enter unsuitable avocations like this
(c) No, because it not begar or forced labour as the girls are not being forced to provide services for free
or a very minimum charge
(d) No, because there is no economic exploitation of the girls as their families were paid money in
exchange for their services
101. Rama and Ramesh were working in the same company. Rama was paid a salary of Rs. 20,000 for her
work as an assistant to the regional manager while Ramesh was paid a salary of Rs. 35,000 for his work
as assistant regional manager. Can Rama challenge this as arbitrary and claim the same salary as
Ramesh?
(a) Yes, because Article 39 provides that men and women should not be forced by economic necessity to
enter unsuitable avocations
(b) Yes, because Article 39 provides that men and women should have the right to an adequate means
of livelihood and equal pay for equal work
(c) No, because Rama and Ramesh are not doing the same work to claim the same salary so there is
nothing arbitrary about their earnings
(d) No, because Rama is being exploited as she is not being paid the same salary for the same work
Passage (Q.102-Q.107): State of mind to commit a particular crime "must be visible" to determine the
culpability for offence of abetment, the Supreme Court has said while setting aside the conviction of a
man who was accused of abetting his wife's suicide in 1997.
The apex court said that ingredient of "mens rea" (intention) cannot be assumed to be ostensibly present
but has to be "visible and conspicuous".
A bench set aside the order of the Punjab and Haryana High Court which had upheld the trial court's
verdict convicting the man for the offence under section 306 (abetment of suicide) of the Indian Penal
Code.
"As in all crimes, mens rea has to be established. To prove the offence of abetment, as specified under
sec 107 of the IPC, the state of mind to commit a particular crime must be visible, to determine the
culpability," said the bench.
An FIR was lodged in the matter in August 1997 at Barnala on the basis of statement of the deceased's
father and the prosecution had alleged that the woman was harassed after marriage for insufficient
dowry.
The apex court noted that there is no direct evidence of cruelty against the husband or the in-laws in the
case.

"Insofar as the possible reason for a young married lady with two minor children committing suicide, in
the absence of evidence, conjectures cannot be drawn that she was pushed to take her life by the
circumstances and atmosphere in the matrimonial home," the bench said.
"In view of the foregoing, we are persuaded to conclude that the decisions under challenge cannot be
legally sustained. Consequently, interfering with the impugned judgment of the high court and the trial
court, the appellant's conviction under section 306 IPC is set aside and quashed," it said.
Source: The New Indian Express
102. Arya and Bhakti went for hunting deer. Arya knows Zia (her arch enemy) to be behind a bush. Bhakti
does not know it. Arya induces Bhakti to fire at the bush. Bhakti fires and kills Zia. Will Arya and Bhakti be
held liable for murder?
(a) Arya had mens rea but no actus reas. Bhakti had actus rea but no mens rea. No one is guilty.
(b) Arya induced Bhakti to fire at the bush with the knowledge that Zia is there. Arya is guilty of murder
but Bhakti is not guilty of any offence.
(c) Both Arya and Bhakti are guilty.
103. Punnu was in his car when he was approached by a police officer who told him to move the vehicle.
Punnu did so, reversed his car and rolled it on to the foot of the police officer. The officer forcefully told
him to move the car off his foot at which point Punnu swore at him and refused to move his vehicle and
turned the engine off. Punnu was convicted for assaulting a police officer, whereas Punnu argues that it
was an accident Was it an accident?
(a) He is not liable because there cannot be an assault in omitting to act and that driving on to the
officer's foot was accidental, meaning that he was lacking mens rea when the act causing damage
had occurred.
(b) He is not liable as the act neither amount to an attempt nor a threat to commit an offence that
amounts to an actionable act of assault.
(c) Punnu's crime was not the refusal to move the car but that of having driven on to the foot of the officer
and decided not to cease the act, he had established a continual criminal act.
(d) He is neither liable for assault nor battery as he accidently drove his car on the police officer's foot.
104. Amit while on a jungle safari, is attacked by a lion and lion drags him while he is crying for help. Pooja, a
co-passenger in Amit’s safari picks up Amit’s gun in good faith and fires at lion which injures Amit. Pooja
has never used the gun before. Decide the liability.
(a) Pooja is liable for the injury because she knew that she can injure Amit as she has never used any
gun before
(b) Pooja is not liable as she has done the act in good faith and without any mens rea.
(c) Pooja is liable because she has not taken A’s consent before firing
(d) Pooja is liable because she has used Amit’s gun without his consent
105. Osama, a terrorist having links with various extremist organizations, plans various attacks on major
metropolitans of the country during the festive week of Durga Pooja. He hires a small-time gangster,
Ballu Badshah, and instigates him by brainwashing him to help out with the attacks. Ballu Badshah asks
his brother Chota Chetan, who is a chartered accountant to arrange funds without telling him his real
motives. Chota Chetan arranges the funds and the attacks are carried out as planned. Can Osama be
held liable to abet the attacks by instigating Ballu Badshah to arrange it?
(a) Osama can be held liable to abet the attacks by instigating Ballu Badshah since he brainwashed him
to arrange it.
(b) Osama cannot be held liable since Ballu Badshah did not directly carry out the attacks.
(c) Osama can be held liable to abet the attacks since he was the mastermind behind it.
(d) Osama cannot be held liable to abet the attacks since he did not actively engage with Ballu Badshah
to plan the same.

106. Can Ballu Badshah be held liable to abet the attacks by intentionally engaging with Osama and Chota
Chetan to carry out the attacks?
(a) Ballu Badshah cannot be held liable to abet by intentionally engaging with Osama and Chota Chetan
since he was brainwashed.
(b) Ballu Badshah can be held liable to abet by intentionally engaging with Chota Chetan to carry out the
attacks but not with Osama since he was brainwashed by Osama.
(c) Ballu Badshah cannot be held liable to abet by intentionally engaging with Chota Chetan since Chota
Chetan did not know of the actual purpose but he can be liable to abetment by intentionally engaging
with Osama.
(d) Ballu Badshah can be held liable to abet by intentionally engaging with both Osama and Chota
Chetan.
107. Can Chota Chetan be liable of abetment by intentionally aiding the carrying out of the attacks by
arranging for the funds for the same?
(a) Chota Chetan can be held liable for abetment by aiding since he arranged for the funds for the
attacks.
(b) Chota Chetan cannot be held liable for abetment by aiding since he did not know the true motives of
his brother and did not intentionally aid in the carrying out of the attacks.
(c) Chota Chetan can be held liable for abetment since intention and knowledge is irrelevant to be held
liable for abetment.
(d) Chota Chetan cannot be held liable for abetment since he did not actively engage in the carrying out
of the attacks.

Passage (Q.108-Q.112): Now, normalcy is exactly what a lockdown is not — being stuck in your home
with your favourite cactus and pets and humans for company for an entire month (or longer, in some
cases). And if that sounds bad, it’s even worse for businesses like hospitality that depend on the daily
buzz of regular life to keep things going. There appears to be a direct correlation between death rate and
unemployment, according to this report, with a 370 percent increase in chances of death if one is
unemployed. So, it comes down to this: death and morbidity due to COVID-19 or slow starvation — of not
only yourself but your entire family and all those who depend on you. And that is the cold hard
mathematics that governments across the world are doing.
With a poor social security net, underfunded health systems and large population near or under the
poverty line, lockdowns are not just an option — neither is widespread disease-spread which would push
the healthcare system beyond capacity. Despite a second COVID-19 wave, with elections around the
corner in five Indian states, the virus is no longer just in the minds of the people or for that matter the
government’s thought process. For, if your locality goes into lockdown, you have admitted ‘defeat’ and
your own ineffectiveness.
Remember, most of us believe that this will not happen to us, but Statistics is a cold hard beast and plays
by the rules. It is simply a matter of when — not if — someone we know who gets severely sick, and then
finally it is us who will also have to pay the price. No point in blaming governments then, because
governments in democracies do what the people want, and it is clear that the people do not care about
their health or that of others.

(a) The major driving point this election is par excellent or poor handling of COVID - 19
(b) Lockdowns are the only way we can slow down the spread of COVID - 19
(c) The people, indirectly, have chosen to brave the spread of COVID – 19 over financial instability
caused due to lockdowns
(d) The government is the main party to blame for such chaotic times

(a) The situation today is much better than the situation the country was in one year ago
(b) Despite lockdown, the general fatality rate may remain higher than pre-lockdown era
(c) If the people start to be more careful, the government will automatically start supporting the
movement of curtailing COVID-19
(a) The government is doing everything in their power to protect people from the spread of COVID-19
(b) The elections in 5 states have made the matters worse by diverting attention at such a crucial time
(c) Both (A) & (B)
(a) Majority of the states have failed to control the spread of COVID-19
(b) The states with on-going elections have negligible cases of COVID-19
(c) COVID-19 is rapidly spreading in smaller cities rather than metros
(d) Hospitals are almost at full capacity all throughout the country
112. The author’s statement that “It is simply a matter of when — not if — someone we know who gets
severely sick…”-

Passage (Q.113-Q.117): A recent report reveals that during the lockdown, almost nine out of every 10
released prisoners lost their source of income, while only 12 percent could continue earning, as the
economy tanked. Due to the absence of a safety net and access to welfare schemes, most released
prisoners suffered the worst wrath of the economic crisis that followed the COVID-19 lockdown. The
access to continuous employment and stable income for women was already significantly lesser
compared to that of men, before the lockdown. The imposition of the lockdown aggravated that divide, by
pushing a vast majority of former women inmates out of the workforce.
The experiences of the respondents in the study reveal how that section of society fares. A section that
has historically struggled to make a decent living due to the absence of safety nets and inadequate
access to welfare schemes. However, their struggles were aggravated manifold by the lockdown. Many
struggled to meet even the basic needs of their families, with 87 percent saying they required support for
their ration needs. Moreover, online education, which is the new medium of instruction in most schools,
was not accessible to many of these children.
The report further highlights that the lockdown magnified the anxiety of those who had a member of their
family in prison due to the stoppage of ‘mulakat’ or meetings in prisons and special homes at the time.
This period also saw delays in trials, which added to the stress faced by these families. Many reported
difficulties in meeting legal expenses after a drop in their incomes. The poor rate of support and
employment, coupled with rising financial and psychological crises, suggests that released prisoners are
at risk of falling back into the cycle of crime or victimisation.

(a) Prisoners should never have been released in such turbulent times
(b) COVID-19 has equally impacted all communities and members of society
(c) Crime rate is likely to increase as majority of prisoners are financially instable
(d) There is a good probability that these released prisoners may become repeat offenders

(a) Female prisoners have suffered much more than male prisoners after getting released
(b) Calling such prisoners back is the best solution to the problem stated above
(c) Both (A) & (B)
(a) Majority of the prisoners were anyways about to be released in this accounting year
(b) The aforesaid prisoners would have been in the same condition even if COVID-19 had not been
affecting the nation
(c) Majority of foreign jurisdiction have support legislation for prisoners released from jails
(d) Majority of foreign jurisdiction do not have support legislation for prisoners released from jails
(a) Our reform system is pristine.
(b) Living in prisons may be considered better than being released early in present times
(c) Enforcement of beneficial legislations can easily protect the poorer sections of society from the
COVID-19 destruction
117. The author’s statement that “…released prisoners are at risk of falling back into the cycle of crime or
victimization” forms the:
(a) Premise that once a man commits a crime, he can never be properly reformed
(b) Conclusion that once a man commits a crime, he can never be properly reformed
(c) Premise that reformation stops at putting criminals in prisons
(d) Conclusion that reformation does not stop at putting criminals in prisons

Passage (Q.118-Q.122): Challenging and displacing the narratives of colonialist like Joyce Cary and
Joseph Conrad meant for Achebe the appropriation of ethnographic modes of representation to prove
that the communities of his African past were neither 'primitive' nor 'without history'. James Clifford,
borrowing from Bakhtin, argues that since culture is not 'a unified corpus of symbols and meanings that
can be definitively interpreted", ethnographic representation must incorporate a narratological dialogism
that reveals culture's "contested, temporal, and emergent " nature. As George Marcus also contends, this
dialogical approach to ethnographic representation must be borne in mind by both "outsiders" like Conrad
and Cary writing about the Other and "insiders" like Achebe writing about themselves and their own
cultures. Henrietta Moore, among anthropologists welcoming the new dialogical ethnography of Clifford
and others, agrees with them on the use of "new forms of writing such as those predicated on dialogue,
intertexuality and presence of various varieties within one language to unmask and displace the unitary
authority" of the author.
Excerpt from: Chinua Achebe's Things Fall Apart by Harold Bloom, published 2010
118. What is the main point of contention in the passage?

(a) The fact that new forms of writing and modes of representations of culture have given the texts more
autonomy, dialogue and openness to interpretation.
(b) A sharp criticism of colonial authors such as Joyce Carry and Joseph Conrad by presenting counter
arguments by Bakhtin, Moore and others.
(c) To outline the distinction between various cultural interpretations of colonial literature.
(d) To reinforce the point that only an "insider" has the right to write about his culture and stories related
to it.
119. Identify the assumption in the following statement:

"new forms of writing such as those predicated on dialogue, intertexuality and presence of various
varieties within one language to unmask and displace the unitary authority" of the author.
(a) There is more than one from of writing
(b) Author is in a position of authority within the text.
(c) Both the above
120. According to your understanding of the passage, which of the following captures the representation of
Africans by authors such as Joyce Cary and Joseph Conrad?
(a) Africans and their culture as complex and sophisticated.
(b) Africans having a rich history and culture.
(c) Africans as primitive and a historical beings.
(d) Africans as people ready to be suppressed.
121. Which of the following group of authors can be seen as supporting each other's claims/ arguments in the
passage?
(a) Cary, conrad and Achebe
(b) Bakhtin, Conrad, Achebe and Moore
(c) Bakhtin, Marcus, Cary and Clifford
(d) Bakhtin, Marcus, Moore and Clifford.
122. Which of the following can be inferred as a statement supported by Bakhtin?

(a) New forms of writing can displace the unitary auhority of author within a text.
(b) Culture is not a static body. It exists in a state of flux depending on its interpretation.
(c) culture exists independent of time.
(d) The essence of culture always remains the same. Only some of its parts change with time.

Passage (Q.123-Q.126): If Alok Sharma (Mayor of Bhopal since February 2015) accepts new traffic
transgression penalty, income of Nagar Nigam will certainly rise, since multiple researches have
irrefutably proved that, if such traffic rules have come into effect, then there is a rise in the breach of such
traffic rules, and a rise in traffic transgression will result in more number of traffic penalties collected.
In Madhya Pradesh, where fines are so large as to be unaffordable, traffic tickets become an extremely
regressive form of covert taxation, as it disproportionally affects people of lesser means. Also, a
deliberate attempt to move traffic enforcement towards targeting the majority of careful drivers rather than
dangerous individuals can only result in growing public distrust towards governmental authorities and
politicians. The ultimate goal of governmental authorities towards road transportation should be to
promote safety, not revenue generation for its own sake. This can best be achieved through fact-based
engineering approaches (e.g., design and maintenance of the road, adequate signage, speed limit
setting), education, and sensible enforcement. And in the end, the additional revenues generated by
automated traffic enforcement (ATE) programs should be dedicated to further promoting road safety by
being invested in improved infrastructure rather than become a permanent revenue generation fixture in
governmental budgets.
123. The pattern of reasoning in the first paragraph of the above passage closely resembles the pattern of
reasoning in which one of the following statement-
(a) There is an increase in tax rate, and this led to the increase in the revenue of the city.
(b) There is an increase in the court fee, and this led to the dropping of number of cases filed in the court.
(c) There is an increase in the stamp duty, and this led to the increase in number of registries.
124. What is the conclusion of the 1st paragraph of the above passage?
(a) An increase in traffic regulations will eventually lead to the increase in revenue of the city.
(b) An increase in traffic regulation will lead to the traffic violations.
(c) An increase in the traffic regulations will eventually lead to the greater number of fines collected.
(d) New traffic regulation is the best regulation ever made.
125. If the statements in the passage are true, which one of the following must also be true?
(a) Unless there is an increase in the number of traffic violations in the city, city revenues will not
increase.
(b) If Nagar Nigam institutes new traffic regulations, it will fall from favor with the citizens.
(c) Nagar Nigam will institute new traffic regulations only if an increase in city revenues can be expected
to result.
(d) If Nagar Nigam’s new regulation causes more traffic violation and fine charged on it, the city revenue
will increase.
126. Which of the following statement could strengthen the argument in favour of automated traffic
enforcement (ATE)?
(a) Artificially low speed limit settings, increased fines, and rigorous enforcement can deter dangerous
driving behaviours.
(b) The implementation of proven engineering practices (such as better signage et(c)) is the most
effective way of reducing traffic violations and collisions.
(c) ATE programs have the potential to create perverse incentives and conflicts of interests over revenue
generation.

127. Editorial: The roof of Bhopal's municipal equipment-storage building collapsed under the weight of last
week's heavy snowfall. The building was constructed recently and met local building-safety codes in
every particular, except that the nails used for attaching roof supports to the building's columns were of a
smaller size than the codes specify for this purpose. Clearly, this collapse exemplifies how even a single,
apparently insignificant departure from safety standards can have severe consequences.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the editorial's argument?
(a) The only other buildings to suffer roof collapses from the weight of the snowfall were older buildings
constructed according to less exacting standards than those in the codes.
(b) The amount of snow that accumulated on the roof of the equipment-storage building was greater than
the predicted maximum that was used in drawing up the safety codes.
(c) Because the equipment-storage building was not intended for human occupation, some safety-code
provisions that would have applied to an office building did not apply to it.
(d) The municipality of Bhopal itself has the responsibility for ensuring that buildings constructed within its
boundaries meet the provisions of the building-safety codes.
128. Statement: The entire south India, including Daman and the neighbouring states remained 'powerless'
the whole day of April 24,2021 as the southern grid supplying electricity to the seven states collapsed yet
again.
Assumptions:
1. The southern grid had collapsed earlier.
2. The grid system of providing electricity to a group of states is an ineffective type of power supply
system.
(a) Only assumption I is implicit (b) Only assumption II is implicit
(c) Both I and II are implicit (d) Neither I nor II is implicit
129. Pablo Picasso: A copy of a painting should be worth exactly what the original is worth if the two paintings
are visually indistinguishable. After all, if the two paintings are visually indistinguishable, they have all the
same qualities, and if they have all the same qualities, their prices should be equal.
Frida Kahlo : How little you understand art, Picasso! Even if someone could make a perfect copy that is
visually indistinguishable from the original, the copy would have a different history and hence not have all
the same qualities as the original.
Frida uses which of the following techniques in attempting to refute Picasso’s argument?
(a) Attacking his assumption that the price of a painting indicates its worth.
(b) Raising a point that would undermine one of the claims on which his conclusion is based.
(c) Questioning his claim that a perfect copy of a painting would be visually indistinguishable from the
original.
(d) Giving reason to believe that Picasso is unable to judge the quality of a painting because of his
inadequate understanding of the history of art.
130. Statements:
I. The government has allowed private airline companies in India to operate to overseas destinations.
II. The national air carrier has increased its flights to overseas destinations.
Identify the correct relationship between the given statements.

(a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(c) Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(d) Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

131. The mayor of Bhopal has announced that magistrate Kavindra, who was on the seven-member panel
appointed to resolve the Narmada Bachao Andolan, will have sole responsibility for resolving the Upper
lake catchment dispute. Since in its decision the Narmada panel showed itself both reasonable and fair,
the two sides in the catchment dispute are undoubtedly justified in the confidence they have expressed in
the reasonableness and fairness of the arbitrator assigned to their case.
Which one of the following contains flawed reasoning most parallel to that contained in the passage?
(a) Representing the school board, Alia presented to the school’s principal a list of recently elected
school board members. Since only an elected member of the school board can act as its
representative. Ms. Alia’s name undoubtedly appears on that list.
(b) Saif, who likes being around young children, has decided to become a pediatrician. Since the one
characteristic common to all good pediatricians is that they like young children, Mr. Saif will
undoubtedly be a very good pediatrician.
(c) Hrithik is a teacher at a music school nationally known for the excellence of its conducting faculty.
Since Mr. Hrithik has recently been commended for the excellence of his teaching, he is undoubtedly
a member of the school’s conducting faculty.
(d) Kareena, who has sold real estate for Budhwara Realty for many years, undoubtedly sold fewer
houses last year that she had the year before since the number of houses sold last year by Budhwara
Realty is far lower than the number sold the previous year.
132. Statement 1: If you wish to understand the causes that existed in the past, look at the results as they are
shown in the present.
Statement 2: Prabhas did not work as hard as his classmates but got first position in the annual
semester.
Which of the following options is correct with respect to the above two statements?
(a) If Statement II is right, Statement I is invalid
(b) Statement I and Statement II are contradictory to each other
(c) Statement II supplements Statement I
(d) Statement I will hold true even if Statement II is valid
Directions (Q.133 – Q.135): In each question below are given some statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give
answer-
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If both conclusions I and II follow.
133. Statements: Some cats are rats. Some rats are fishes. All fishes are birds.
Conclusions:
I. Some fishes are rats.
II. All cats being birds is a possibility
134. Statements: Some flowers are roses. No rose is red. All red are leaves.
Conclusions:
I. Some flowers are definitely not red.
II. Some leaves are definitely not roses.
135. Statements: All cards are sheets. All files are cards. Some sheets are papers.
Conclusions:
I. All files being papers is a possibility.
II. All files are not sheets.

below:
The first pie chart represents total number of students appeared for an exam from five cities.
The second pie chart represents total number of students passed the exam from five cities.
The table represents ratio of number of boys and number of girls passed the exam from five cities
TOTAL NUMBER OF TOTAL NUMBER OF

STUDENTS APPEARED= STUDENTS PASSED=
60,000 25,000
Delhi Pune Delhi

Pune 10%
20% 16% 15%
Varanasi
Chennai
Varanasi Chennai 25%
20%
15% 25%
Mumbai Mumbai
24% 30%
City Boys : Girls

Delhi 8:7
Chennai 3:2
Mumbai 2:3
Varanasi 14:11
pune 3:2
136. Number of girls who passed the exam from Delhi is what percent of the number of boys who passed the
exam Chennai?
(a) 60%
(b) 58%
(c) 65%
(d) 52%
137. What percent of the students are passed from Mumbai?

(a) 64%
(b) 48%
(c) 52%
(d) 56%
138. Find the respective ratio of number of girls passed from Varanasi and number of boys passed from
Mumbai.
(a) 7:9
(b) 9:10
(c) 11:12
(d) 11:18

139. Out of the total number of students appeared from Pune 56% are girls. Find the number of failed girls
from Pune.
(a) 2880
(b) 3860
(c) 4320
(d) 5720
140. Find the total number of passed girls from all the cities.
(a) 14000
(b) 16000
(c) 18000
(d) 12000
Directions (Q.141-Q.145): Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follow.
In a school there are total 120 staff members and 800 students. 65 per cent of the number of staff
members are teachers and the remaining staff members are administrative officials. Out of the total
number of students 45 per cent are girls. Twenty per cent of the number of girls can speak only Hindi.
The remaining girls can speak both Hindi and English. Three-fourths of the number of boys can speak
only Hindi. The remaining boys can speak both Hindi and English. Two-thirds of the number of teachers
are males. Five-fourteenths of the number of administrative officials is females.
141. What is the difference between the number of boys (student) who can speak both Hindi and English and
the number of girls (student) who can speak both Hindi and English?
(a) 164 (b) 178 (c) 188 (d) 174
142. The total number of girls (student) is what percentage of the total number of staff members in the school?
(a) 350 (b) 300 (c) 400 (d) 450
143. What is the difference between the total number of female administrative officials, female teachers and
the number of male administrative officials?
(a) 16 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 14
144. What is the ratio of the total number of teachers to the number of boys (student) who can speak Hindi
only?
(a) 11 : 56 (b) 13 : 54 (c) 13 : 55 (d) 11 : 54
145. What is the total number of male administrative officials, female teachers and girls (student) who can
speak Hindi only?
(a) 125 (b) 115 (c) 127 (d) 117

Directions (Q.146 - 150): Study the following graph to answer the given questions:
Percent profit earned by two companies over the given years.

% profit = [(income-expenditure)/(expenditure)]*100
146. If the expenditure of company 1 in 2010 was Rs. 400 crores, what was its income?
(a) 500 (b) 520 (c) 560 (d) 580
147. If the income of company 2 in 2014 was Rs. 300 crores, what was its expenditure?
(a) 222 (b) 240 (c) 280 (d) 284
148. If the incomes of two companies are equal in 2011, what was the ratio of their expenditures?
(a) 25:27 (b) 27:26 (c) 26:27 (d) 30:31
149. What is the percent increase in the percent profit for company 2 from year 2010 to 2012?
(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 33.33% (d) 46.67%
150. If the expenditure of both the companies are equal in 2015, find the ratio of their income?
(a) 14:15 (b) 16:15 (c) 15:16 (d) 15:14

@MaterialBhaiya All LE 2021 Mocks Questions

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

You might also like

@MaterialBhaiya All LE 2021 Mocks Questions

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

@MaterialBhaiya All LE 2021 Mocks Questions

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2021

MOCK CLAT #01

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

1. The passage is primarily concerned with

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 2 of 35

14. Consider the following statements

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 4 of 35

15. The primary purpose of the passage is to

16. Each of the following is mentioned in the passage except

19. One function of the second paragraph of the passage is to

20. Master Smiths took great care to ensure

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 5 of 35

Passage (Q.21-Q.29): Samuel Taylor Coleridge, BiographiaLiteraria

Doubtless this could not be, but that she turns

21. The primary mode of composition of the passage is:

22. The chief rhetorical strategy in the first paragraph is:

23. In context, the word “subordination” in line 5 most nearly means:

24. According to paragraph two, the poet does the following:

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 6 of 35

25. Imagination is defined as:

26. All of the following pairs are represented as opposites except:

29. The writer of the passage uses the poem to:

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 7 of 35

SECTION-B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS

32. What is India’s rank in Environment Performance Index (EPI)?

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 8 of 35

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 9 of 35

44. Consider the following aims and objectives.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 11 of 35

45. Name the minister redacted as [x] in the above passage

47. Where is the headquarter of NADA?

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 12 of 35

53. Which Article of Constitution provides for Solicitor General of India?

56. Name the project[y] as mentioned in the above passage.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 14 of 35

63. What is the manner of election of a President in India?

64. Who was elected the Vice President of Malawi?

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 15 of 35

65. Who is the current Sports Minister of India?

66. When was TOPS Scheme launched?

67. Where is 2028 Olympics scheduled to be held?

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 16 of 35

SECTION – C :LEGAL REASONING

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 17 of 35

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 18 of 35

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 19 of 35

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 20 of 35

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 21 of 35

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 22 of 35

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 23 of 35

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 24 of 35

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 25 of 35

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 26 of 35

SECTION - D : LOGICAL REASONING

107. According to the passage, it can be inferred that :-

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 27 of 35

109. The author’s attitude toward the aye-aye, could be implied as