Examination NQ.

4957

Level ill Basic Examination for SNT-TC-1A 1992

Question numbers 1 through 25 pertain to Recommended Practice No. SNT·TC-IA, 1992

1) "_____ " is the condition of being in written form.

a. Detailed
b. Proceduralized
c. Documented
d. Published
e. Qualified

2) Under supervision of guidance of a Level n or Level III, a Level I:

a. must perform, evaluate and sign for test results as a condition of employment
b. may perform, evaluate and sing for test results if under constant supervision
c. may act as an independent instructor for trainees in the applicable NDT method
(!i-:l may independently perform, evaluate and sign for results of nondestructive tests provided
they are in accordance with written procedures and documented interest the employer's
written practice
e. is never allowed to take independent action when performing, evaluating or signing for
results of NDT tests •

3) The actual administration and grading of Level III examinations:

a. must be performed by the employer

b. may be performed by any individual without employer authorization
@ may be performed by a qualified representative of the employer
d. is not required for initial (first time) Level III certification
e. is the responsibility of the Level ill from the outside agency

4) Vision examinations should assure natural or corrected near-distance acuity in at least one
eye such that the applicant is capable of reading a minimum of Jaeger Number:

a. 1 or equivalent type and size letter

~ 2 or equi valent type and size letter
c. 3 or equivalent type and size letter
d. 4 or equivalent type and size letter
e. 5 or equivalent type and size letter

5) When a candidate for Level III certification has a valid endorsement on an ASNT Level III
certificate, which of the following examinations is recommended prior to certification?

a a specific and a vision examination

a vision examination only
c. a basic examination
d. a method examination
e. no additional examinations or other considerations are necessary
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 Examination No. 4957

Level III Basic Examination for SNT-TC-IA 1992

6) Qualification is:

a. the work activities accomplished in a specific NDT method under the direction of
qualified supervision.
b. a company who provides NDT Level III services
~ demonstrated skill or knowledge and documented training and experience required for
personnel to properly perform the duties of a specific job
d. the organized program developed to impart the knowledge and skills necessary for
qualification
e. a set of guidelines to assist the employer in developing NDT procedures

7) Documented training and/or experience gained in positions and activities equivalent to those
of Levels I, II and/or III prior to establishment of the employer's written practice may:

a. be considered only if documented and validated by the previous employer

b. not be considered for certification
c. be considered only if approved by ASNT
d. not be recognized for certification under any circumstances
® be considered for certification under any circumstances

8) Which of the following NDT methods was added to the 1992 Recommended Practice No.
SNT-TC-IA?

a. Acoustic Emission Testing

b. Electromagnetic Testing
~) ThermallInfrared Testing
d. Ultrasonic Testing
e. Neutron Radiographic Testing

9) is an individual who is not currently certified but who is in the process of being
initially trained, qualified and certified.

GD A trainee
b. A candidate
c. A certifying authority
d. A" grandfathered" Level III
e. An examiner

10) When writing a Level III Basic examination, it is recommended that:

® Level II questions which are similar to published Level II questions for other appropriate
NDT methods be added
b. only Level III questions in the applicable method be administered
c. that the employer, in addition to the Level II, be administered a basic examination
d. only Level III questions for other appropriate NDT methods be added
e. none of the above
2

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 Examination No. 4957

Level III Basic Examination for SNT-TC-IA 1992

11) The duration of interrupted service in an NDT method or methods that requires re-
examination and re-certification:

a. is 1 month from the time of the interruption

b. is 3 months from the time of the interruption
c. is 6 months from the time of the interruption
d. is 1 year from the time of the interruption
6J should be included in the employer's written practice

12) The NDT Level III individual should demonstrate familiarity with other appropriate NDT
methods as demonstrated by:

a. the General Examination

b. the Practical Examination
c. the Written Examination

o d. the Specific Examination

the ASNT Basic Exam or other means
The training program should
include sufficient examinations
13) An organized I\1])T training program: to ensure understanding of the
necessary information.

‫ﺍﺳﺗﻭﻋﺏ‬
o should include sufficient examinations to assure that the necessary information has been
comprehended
b. should include a minimum of 3 examinations in the applicable NDT method
c. should include a test during each day of training
d. should require training examinations that, if failed , will allow for completion of the
training course
e. SNT-TC-IA does not address training program examinations

14) If a candidate possesses a science or engineering degree, the experience factors for NDT
Level III certification:

a. increase
® decrease
c. remain the same
d. must also include previous qualifications and certification as a Level I
e. none of the above

15) A closed book examination is defined as:

a. an examination with access to all reference materials

b. an examination without necessary material references supplied with or in the examination
@ an examination administered without access to reference material except for materials
supplied with or in the examination
d. an organized program developed to impart the knowledge and skills necessary for
qualification
e . an examination conducted exclusively by an outside agency
3

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 Examination No. 4957

Level III Basic Examination for SNT-TC-IA 1992

16) At least how many different checkpoints requiring an understanding of the NDT variables
and employer procedural requirements should be included in a NDT Level II practical
examination?

a. five (5)
® ten (10)
c. fifteen (15)
d. thirty (30)
e. eighty (80) percent of the procedure variables

17) The recommended experience for a person being qualified directly to a Level II with no time
as a Level I is:

@ the sum of the times recommended for Level I and Level II

b. the time recommended for Level II only
c. the same as recommended for a Level III candidate
d. six months within any method
e. none of the above

18) Which of the following is false relative to near vision acuity examinations?

a. The examination should assure natural or corrected near-distance acuity in at least one
eye.
b. The applicant should be capable of reading a minimum Jaeger Number 2 or equivalent
type and size letter.
c. Distance of eye examination should not be less than 12 inches on a standard Jaeger test
chart
d. The ability to perceive an Ortho-Rater minimum of 8 or similar test pattern is acceptable

o for near vision acuity examination.

The examination should be administered at three (3) year intervals.

19) The recommended composite passing grade for qualification is:

a. 70%
b. 75%
C0 80%
d. 85%
e. 90%

20) The written testimony of qualification is referred to as:

a. the recommended NDT guidelines

b. the documented training
c. the written practice
© certification
e. the initial qualification
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 Examination No. 4957

Level III Basic Examination for SNT-TC-1A 1992

21) When an examination is administered and graded for the employer by an outside agency who
issues grades of pass and fail only, on a certified report, the employer may accept the pass
grade as for that particular examination.

a. 70 percent
b. 75 percent
@ 80 percent
d. 90 percen t
e. 100 percenl

22) The questions for Levels I and II General examinations and Level ill Method examinations
which are published in the Question and Answer Books can be obtained from ASNT:

a. are intended to be used, as is, when qualifying and certifying NDT personnel
b. must be used verbatim for qualification examinations
c. may be used verbatim with written permission from ASNT

o d. may be used as reference data during an examination

are intended as examples, an should not be used verbatim

23) The vision examination should demonstrate the capability

a. of distinguishing red and green for contrast analysis

b. of differentiating contrast
c. to perceive rated contrast differences as measured by the Ortho-Rater
of distinguishing and differentiating contrast between colors sued in the method
e. for determining distance vision

24) The employer's written practice should describe the responsibility for determining
the acceptability of materials or components in accordance with the applicable codes,
standards, specifications, and procedures.

a. of the Level I onl y

b. of the Level II onl y
c. of the Level ill only
d. of the employer
f each level of certification

25) The employer who purchases outside NDT training services is responsible for assuring that
such services are in accordance with:

a. the most stringent guidelines of SNT-TC-1A

b. the outside services written practice
r1J the employer's written practice-
'--( the ASNT certification requirements
e. none of the above
5

Exam material © 1995 by Hellier Associates, Inc. All rights reserved

 Examination No. 4957

Level III Basic Examination for SNT-TC-IA 1992

Question numbers 26 through 55 pertain to Materials, Fabrication, and Product

Technology

26) Which of the following discontinuities usually appears in the form of a star with small
cracks emanating from a central point?

a. Burst crack
b. rater crack
c. Grinding crack
d. Heat treating crack
e. Machining crack

27) When used with respect to machine tools, the acronym N/C means:

a. non-metal cutter
b. non-corrosive coolant
rc.J numerical control
Y. non-conventional
e. negative clearance

28) Deviation from the main composition at a particular location in a solidified metal is referred
to as: -

a. pipe
b. inclusions
Q segregation
d. bri ttleness
e. dross

29) A zone or area of minute discontinuities in castings, produced during solidification, is

called:

a. a burst
b. hot tears
c. flakes
d. fatigue cracks
@ Shrinkage

30) Material properties, as used in design, are most frequently determined by:

a. theoretical analysis
@ material testing
c. the National Institute of Standards and Technology
d. fracture mechanics
e. none of the above
6

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 Examination No. 4957

Level III Basic Examination for SNT-TC-1A 1992

31) The highest completely reversed stress whose repeated application can be endured for an
indefinitely large number of cycles without failure is referred to as the:

a. torsional limit
b. yield limit
ultimate tensile limit
d: endurance limi t
e. breaking limit

32) The maximum stress to which a material may be subjected, without any permanent strain
remaining upon complete release of stress, is called the:

a. ultimate yield strength

<.V elastic limit
c. ultimate tensile strength
d. endurance limit
e. Modulus of Elasticity

33) A lamination is a discontinuity which is found in:

a. castings
b. welds
c. extrusions
® sheet or plate material
e. none of the above

34) The ability of a material to absorb energy without fracture is referred to as:

@ toughness
b. elasticity
c. ductility
d. strength
e. hardness

35) Service discontinuities can be defined as:

a. discontinuities related to the manufacturing processes

b. acceptable flaws that propagate to an unacceptable level
C9 discontinuities that are related to the various service conditions such as stress corrosion,
fatigue or wear
d. discontinuities formed during the initial making of the metal
e. depending when discovered, any of the above

Exam material © 1995 by Hellier Associates, Inc. All rights reserved

 Examination No. 4957

Level ill Basic Examination for SNT-TC-1A 1992

36) When used as an in-process treatment, recrystallation can:

a. decrease ductility
b. increase hardness
c. modify the alloy content
@ refine grains
e. improve corrosion resistance

37) When producing a casting, shrinkage can occur:

a. only when the metal is in a liquid state

b. only during the transformation from a liquid to a solid
c. only after the transformation from a liquid to a solid
d. only after the transformation to a sold
(9 before, during and after the transformation from a liquid to a solid

38) Carbon steels can be described as:

a. ordinary carbon steel to which has been added elements such as chromium, nickel, etc.
CD steel which does not contain significant amounts of alloying elements other than carbon
c. steel whose constituents remain in solution with each other at room temperature, and are
non-magnetic and corrosion resistant
d. an alloy containing tin, lead or antimony, and about 77 percent copper
e. metals containing aluminum, magnesium and beryllium

39) The modulus of elasticity, or Young's modulus, is a measure of a material's relative:

a. tensi Ie strength
b. compressive strength
c. resistance to stress
® stiffness or rigidity
e. yield strength

40) is the deterioration of metals by the chemical action of some surrounding or

contacting medium which may be liquid, gas, or some combination of the two.

a. Abrasion
® Corrosion
c. Wear
d. Gouging
e. Thinning

Exam material © 1995 by Hellier Associates, Inc. All rights reserved

 Examination No. 4957

Level ill Basic Examination for SNT-TC-IA 1992

41) Heat-absorbing devices inserted in the cast mold near the cavity to absorb heat rapidly while
occasionally improving physical properties are referred to as:

a. chills
risers
c. feed heads
d. chaplets
e. cores

42) A casting process in which pressure is applied to the liquid metal to cause it to flow rapidly
and uniformly into the cavity of the mod is referred to as:

a. permanent mold casting

die casting
c. green sand casting
d. investment casting
e. shell mold casting

43) A test to measure energy absorption utilizing a pendulum to break a specimen that is
notched and supported on both ends is called a:

ta\.charpy test
'It.drop-weight test
c. nick-break test
d. transverse rupture test
e. fatigue test

44) In foundry practice, metal supports for holding cores in place within sand molds are known
as:

a. core supports
b. chills
c. blind risers
@ chaplets
e. weldments

45) The process of returning ductility to a cold-worked low carbon steel is called:

a. precipitation
bJ recrystallization
c. allotropic change
d. austenitization
e. recovery

Exam material © 1995 by Hellier Associates, Inc. All rights reserved

 Examination No. 4957

Level ill Basic Examination for SNT-TC-IA 1992

46) The most common failure mechanism which is associated with sharp fillets, notches, and
undercut, is known as:

@ fatigue cracking
b. crystallization
c. shrink
d. lapping
e. laminar tearing

47) During the solidification of a casting, the shrinkage that occurs:

G may cause cavities that are enlarged by the evolution of gasses

h. requires that the pattern used be slightly smaller than the desired dimension of the
finished casting
c. is uncontrollable and therefore renders the casting unusable
d. may cause porosity cavities primarily on the outer surfaces where the metal cools first
e. may cause cold shuts

48) Bodies of mold material, usually in the form of inserts that exclude metal flow to form
internal surfaces in a casting, are referred to as:

a. chaplets
b. risers
c. chills
@ cores
e. gates

49) Another term for investment casting and the lost wax process is:

Q precision casting
f. permanent mold casting
g. centrifugal casting
h. die casting
i. plaster mold casting

50) A major purpose of pressing the metal powders during metallurgy processing is to:

a. squeeze out excess moisture

b. further refine the grains
@ compact the powders into mechanical and atomic closeness
d. strai n harden the powders
e. create mechanical and atomic separation of the powders

10

Exam material © 1995 by Hellier Associates, Inc. All rights reserved

 Examination No. 4957

Level III Basic Examination for SNT-TC-1A 1992

51) Which of the following discontinuities is not associated with castings?

a. hot tears
<!) laminations
c. cold shuts
d. microshrinkage
e. porosity

52) The hardness test is an important mechanical test of a material because it is directly
proportional to:

a. ductility
b. toughness
cP strength
d. elasticity
e. none of the above

53) Three types of weld metal cracks are:

a. underbead, undercut and laminar

h. laminar, through and oblique
c. intermittent, laminar and deformation
R shallow, deep and intermittent
~ longitudinal, transverse and crater
54) Which of the following best describes the cause of metal fatigue?

a. loading beyond the yield strength of the material

b. impact loading
<9 cyclic loading
d. compression loading
e. constantly increasing static loading

55) Excessive stress concentrations do not usually occur:

a. at notches
b. where variable residual stresses are present
c. if the loading applied is different than design loading
@ when changes in cross section are gradual
e. if loading applied exceeds the design load

11

Exam material © 1995 by Hellier Associates, Inc. All rights reserved

 Examination No. 4957

Level III Basic Examination for SNT-TC-IA 1992

Question numbers 56 through 60 pertain to Radiographic Testing

56) The unit measure of X or gamma radiation in air is referred to as:

a. Curie
([) Roentgen
c. Half-life
d. Kilo-electron-volts (Kev)
e. Roentgens per hour

57) Radiographic film with large grain size:

a. will produce radiographs with better definition than film with small grain size
b. has slower speeds than film with a relatively small grain size
@ has high speeds than film with a relatively small grain size
d. will take no longer to expose properly than film with relatively small grain size
e. has higher contrast than film with relatively small grain size

58) The radiation energy of a radioactive isotope is:

a. determined by the size of the source

® determined by the isotope used
c. can be varied by the operator
d. is greater in lridium-l92 than Cobalt-60
e. depends upon the distance from the source

59) What is the primary difference between x-rays and gamma rays of the same energy?

a. wavelength
b. frequency
c. velocity
Q) origin
e. energy level

60) An image quality indicator is used to evaluate:

a. the size of discontinuities that can be detected in the part

b. the density of the film
c. the amount of the film contrast
@) the quality of the radiographic technique
e. the graininess of the film

12

Exam material © 1995 by Hellier Associates, Inc. All rights reserved

 Examination No. 4957

Level III Basic Examination for SNT-TC-IA 1992

Question numbers 61 through 65 pertain to Magnetic Particle Testing

61) In magnetic particle inspection, an indication that is held by contamination and not by a
leakage field is a:

CD false
b. residual indication
c. surface indication
d. true discontinuity
e. defect

62) A is used in measuring concentration and strength of the magnetic particle liquid
testing medi urn.

a. meniscis cup
@ centrifuge tube
c. liquid applicator
d. steel rule
e. none of the above

63) When prods are used for magnetic particle inspection, the flux lines are:

c;) distorted circular

b. circular
c. longitudinal between the prods
d. radial from the prods
e. oriented in a straight line

64) is a small, pocket-sized device that measures the strength of a field against a set
of small enclosed permanent magnets which restricts the needle movement on a relative
scale.

a. a horseshoe magnet
b. a steel-site indicator
c. a sensitivity gage
d. a demagnetizing coil
re:> ~ ~.4<..
65)'When conducting magnetic particle inspection using longitudinal magnetization, the
effective magnetic field induced in a part by a coil extends approximately _ _ __
beyond either end of the coil.

a. 1 to 3 inches
b. 3 to 6 inches
@ 6 to 9 inches
d. 9 to 12 inches
e. 12 to 18 inches
13

Exam material © 1995 by Hellier Associates, Inc. All rights reserved

 Examination No. 4957

Level III Basic Examination for SNT-TC-IA 1992

Question numbers 66 through 70 pertain to Liquid Penetrant Testing

66) Of the following, which would be the principal factor in selecting a fluorescent penetrant
over a visible penetrant for a particular situation?

J4.. The part had anodic or chromate treatment.

Q;) Resolution of fine indications below the visual threshold is required.
c. The part had been cleaned in either an alkal ine or acid bath.
U. Resolution of fine inctications that arc above the visual threshold is required.
e. None of the above influences the choice.

67) What instrument is used to measure blacklight intensity?

a. a light spectrometer
b. a photo fluorometer
c. a brightness comparator
d. a photo densi tometer
@ a radiometer

68) The penetrants employed in the post-emulsified process:

a. contain a built-in emulsifying agent

(§) do not contain an emulsifying agent
c. are water soluble
d. do not require and emulsifier to render the part water washable
e. contain a built-in developer

69) Which of the following characteristics is false

a. Water-washable penetrants are easily washed with water.

b. Water-washable penetrants are relatively inexpensive
c. Water-washable penetrants can be visible or fluorescent
@) Water-washable penetrants are difficult to remove from shallow discontinuities.
e. Water-washable penetrants are good on a wide range of discontinuities.

70) When employing a portable penetrant kit for inspection, which of the below listed materials
is not usually included?

a. penetrant
b. wi pi ng clothes and brushes
c. sol vent cleaner
d. penetrant remover
CV emulsifier

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Exam material © 1995 by Hellier Associates, Inc. All rights reserved

 Examination No. 4957

Level III Basic Examination for SNT-TC-IA 1992

Question numbers 71 though 75 pertain to Ultrasonic Testing

71) Use of a wheel transducer is normally considered:

a. a contract method
b. a dynamic scanning method
('c.). an immersion method
'<f. a static scanning method
e. a surface wave method

72) Which of the following is a disadvantage of ultrasonic contact testing over immersion
testing?

a. decreased attenuation
b. portability
@ difficulty in maintaining a uniform acoustical coupling
d. confined to high frequency testing only
e. improved resolution

73) An ultrasonic technique in which two transducers are used in a constant position relative to
each other is referred to as :

through transmission
contact testing
c. pulse echo
d. continuous wave
e. surface wave inspection

74) Sound waves with particle displacement ~nsverse to the direction of wave travel are known
as:

a. longitudinal waves
@ shear waves
c. Rayleigh waves
d. plate waves
e. surface waves

75) In ultrasonic testing, abnormally large grain size in the test material may be indicated by:

a. an abnormally high back reflection

b. discontinuities which are unacceptable without interpretation
c. high amplitude, spurious echoes which are not repeatable
@ high levels of baseline noise or hash
e. none of the above

15

Exam material © 1995 by Hellier Associates, Inc. All rights reserved

 Examination No. 4957

Level III Basic Examination for SNT-TC-IA 1992

Question numbers 76 though 80 pertain to Electromagnetic Testing

76) Eddy current testing is based on the principle of:

a. magnetorestriction
~ eletronmagnetic induction
c. piezoeletric energy conversion
d. magnetomoti ve
e. none of the above

77) The inducti ve reactance voltage in the coil is out of phase with the resistance voltage by:

a. 15 degrees
b. 30 degrees
c. 45 degrees
@ 90degrees
e. 180 degrees

78) At a fixed frequency, in which of the following materials will the eddy current penetration
be greatest?

a. Aluminum (61 % lACS conductivity)

b. Brass (15 % lACS conductivity)
c. Copper (100% lACS conductivity) ~ J J ~~
@ Lead(7%IACSconductivity) (IV\.1U-r..rJ,W-oJ A V\V\~" ,. -(
e. Magnesium (37% lACS conductivity) s.;t~ ~rcA)
79) When utilizing eddy current testing, an object is considered ____ when an increase in
field intensity produces little or no additional flux.

(]) saturated
b. balanced
c. stabilized
d. at magnetic threshold
e. none of the above

80) A term used to describe the effect observed due to a change in the eletromagnetic coupling
between a test specimen and a surface probe when the distance of separation between them
is a varied is referred to as:

a. edge effect
b. end effect
c. fill factor
d. frequency test
@ lift uff
16

Exam material © 1995 by Hellier Associates, Inc. All rights reserved

 Examination No. 4957

Level III Basic Examination for SNT-TC-1A 1992

Question numbers 81 through 85 pertain to Visual Testing

81) is the use of chemical solutions to attack material surfaces to improve the visibility
of discontinuities for visual inspection at normal and low power magnifications.

a. Hydroblasting
b. Standard soap cleaning
c. Caustic cleaning
@ Macroetching
e. Vapor degreasing

82) Of the following, which statement is .!!2l.!!:!Je when choosing a visual magnifier?

Power or magnification is not a concern.

The working distance of the magnifier is very important
c. The field of view must be considered in making a magnifier selection
d. To eliminate color fringing, chromatic correction must be attained.
e. Binocular or monocular vision must be taken into consideration.

83) The distance a magnifier can be moved toward or away from a subject with the subject
remaining in good focus (sharply defined) is referred to as:

a. simple magnification
b. visual acuity
c. remote visual advantage
d. image enhancement
G depth of field

84) According to the Illuminating Engineering Society, visual testing requires a minimum light
intensity of for critical viewing.

a. 20 foot-candles
b. 75 food-candles

~ 350 foot-candles
100 foot-candles

e. in excess of 450 foot-candles

85) Which of the following are three inherent faults with lenses?

a. magnifying power, focal length, parallel rays

b. smears, scratches, distortion
@ distortion , spherical aberration, chromatic aberration
d. scratches, displacement, positive aberration
e. none of the above

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Exam material © 1995 by Hellier Associates, Inc. All rights reserved

 Examination No. 4957

Level ill Basic Examination for SNT-TC-IA 1992

Question numbers 86 through 87 pertain to Leak Testing

86) In leak testing, there are two (2) basic types of leaks. They are:

a. choked and sonic leaks

b. permeation and molecular leaks
c. transitional and viscous
d. laminar and tubular
@ real leaks and virtual leaks

87) When utilizing the bubble leak testing method, a major advantage is:

very little training and skill is required for personnel conducting the test compared to
other leak testing methods
b. the ability to quantify the results
c. the ability to test contaminated surfaces of test specimens
d. very high sensitivities are attainable
e. the low capacity for detecting gross leakage

Question numbers 88 through 89 pertain to Neutron Radiographic Testing

88) When utilizing the neutron radiography transfer exposure technique, a neutron converter of
_ _ _ _ is used because of the reasonably long radioactive half-life.

a. gadolinium
b. silver
dysprosium
Ci( cadmium
e. lithium

89) Neutron radiography will not generally be very useful as an inspection method for all
materials, such as aluminum. This however, is not a serious limitation because neutron
radiography is meant to be:

a. a viable alternative when used in conjunction with the fluorescent penetrant inspection
method
b. an alternative to ultrasonic inspection
@ a supplementary inspection technique with X and gamma radiography
d. an enhancer for visual inspection
e. none of the above

18

Exam material © 1995 by Hellier Associates, Inc. All rights reserved

 Examination No. 4957

Level III Basic Examination for SNT-TC-IA 1992

Question number 90 pertains to Acoustic Emission Testing

90) The key element in an acoustic emission resonant sensor is _ _ _ _ that converts
movement into an electrical voltage.

a. a geometrical discriminator
~ a piezoelectric crystal (transducer)
c. waveform transformation
d. the preamplifier
e. the emission counter

19

Exam material © 1995 by Hellier Associates, Inc. All rights reserved