Aakash Chemistry Study Package 1 Solutions

Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Solutions
SECTION – A
Objective Type Questions
(Mole Concept, Equivalent Mass)
1. A sample of ammonium phosphate (NH4)3PO4 contains 3.18 moles of hydrogen atoms. The number of moles
of oxygen atoms in the sample is
(1) 0.265 (2) 0.795 (3) 1.06 (4) 4.00
Sol. Answer (3)
In (NH4 )3 PO4 12 moles of 'H' are present with 4 moles of oxygen atom.
4
∴ 3.18 moles of 'H' are present with = × 3.18 = 1.06 moles of oxygen atom.
12
2. Which has the maximum number of molecules among the following?
(1) 8 g H2 (2) 64 g SO2 (3) 44 g CO2 (4) 48 g O3
Sol. Answer (1)
Maximum number of moles have maximum number of molecules
∴ calculate number of moles.
8 44
8 g H2 moles = = 4 moles 44 g of CO2 = = 1 mol CO2
2 44
64 48
64 g SO2 moles = = 1 moles 48 g of O3 = = 1 mol of O3
44 48
3. The total number of electrons in 1.6 g of CH4 to that in 1.8 g of H2O
(1) Double (2) Same
(3) Triple (4) One fourth
Sol. Answer (2)
–
[Total number of e in CH4]
1.6
Number of e– in 1.6 g of CH4 = × 10 × N0 = N0
16
[Total number of e– in H2O]
1.8
Number of e– in 1.8 g of H2O = × 10 × N0 = N0
18
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2 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Solutions of Assignment
4. When x molecules are removed from 200 mg of N2O, 2.89 × 10–3 moles of N2O are left. x will be
(1) 1020 molecules (2) 1010 molecules (3) 21 molecules (4) 1021 molecules
Sol. Answer (4)
From Equation
– =
(200 mg of N2O) – x molecules = –3

2.89 × 10 moles of N2O
200
200 mg of N2O have molecule = × 10−3 × 6.022 × 1023
44
≈ 2.7 × 1021 molecule
∴ 2.89 × 10-3 moles of N2O have molecule = 2.89 × 10-3 × 6.022 × 1023
= 1.7 × 1021 molecules
∴ 200 mg of N2O – x molecule = 2.89 × 10–3 moles of N2O
[2.7 × 1021 – x = 1.7 × 1021] molecule
[x = (2.7 - 1.7) × 1021] molecule
= 1021 molecule
5. Which has maximum molecules?
(1) 7 g N2O (2) 20 g H2 (3) 16 g NO2 (4) 16 g SO2
Sol. Answer (2)
Maximum number of moles have maximum Number of molecules.
7 20 16
Moles of N2O = ; moles of H2 = ; moles of NO2 =
44 2 46
16
Moles of SO2 =
64
H2 have maximum number of moles and have maximum number of molecules.
6. The number of molecules in 4.25 g of NH3 is approximately
(1) 4 × 1023
(2) 1.5 × 2023
(3) 1 × 1023
(4) 6 × 1023
Sol. Answer (2)
4.25
Moles of NH3 = = 0.25 moles
17
Number of molecule = 0.25 × 6.022 × 1023 molecule = 1.50 × 1023 molecule.
7. The maximum number of molecules is present in
(1) 15 L of H2 gas at STP
(2) 5 L of N2 gas at STP
(3) 0.5 g of H2 gas
(4) 10 g of O2 gas
Solutions of Assignment Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 3
Sol. Answer (1)
Gas have maximum number of moles will have maximum number of molecules 22.4 L at STP gas = 1 mole
15 5
Moles of H2(g) = = 0.67 mol; moles of N2 = = 0.223 mol
22.4 22.4
0.5 10
Moles of 0.5 g H2 gas = = 0.25 mol; moles of O2 10 g = = 0.1325
2 32
∴ maximum number of molecules = 15 L of H2 (g) at STP
8. The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of a tetraatomic gas is (NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1)
(1) 2.4 × 1022 (2) 6.026 × 1022 (3) 2.4 × 1023 (4) 3.600 × 1023
Sol. Answer (3)
23 23
Total number of atom = 0.1 × 4 × 6.022 × 10 = 2.4 × 10 atom
[4 atom are present as gas is tetra-atomic]
9. If the weight of metal chloride is x gram containing y gram of metal, the equivalent weight of metal will be
x 8( y − x ) y 8( x − y )
(1) E = × 35.5 (2) E = (3) E = × 35.5 (4) E =
y x (x − y) y
Sol. Answer (3)
Mx + + x Cl ⎯⎯
→ MClx
y (g) (x − y)(g) x (g)
weight of metal
Equivalent mass of metal in case of chlorides = × 35.5
weight of Cl
y
∴ equivalent mass E = × 35.5
(x − y)
10. Volume occupied by one molecule of water (density = 1 g cm–3) is

(1) 5.5 × 10 –23 cm3 (2) 9.0 × 10 –23 cm3 (3) 6.023 × 10 –23 cm3 (4) 3.0 × 10 –23 cm3
Sol. Answer (4)
As water is liquid its density = 1 g/mL
i.e., 1 g of H2O have volume = 1 mL
18
Mass of one molecule = g
6.023 × 1023
18 18
∴ 23 g of H2O have volume = mL = 3.0 × 10–23 mL
6.023 × 10 6.022 × 1023
11. An element, X has the following isotopic composition 200X : 90% 199X : 8% 202X : 2.0%. The weighted average
atomic mass of the naturally occurring element X is closest to
(1) 201 amu (2) 202 amu (3) 199 amu (4) 200 amu
Sol. Answer (4)
Σ percentage x atomic mass
Average atomic mass =
100
( 200 × 90 ) + (199 × 8 ) + ( 202 × 2 )
= = 199.96 ≈ 200 amu
100
(Stoichiometry & Stoichiometric Calculations)

12. Two metallic oxides contain 27.6% and 30% oxygen respectively. If the formula of the first oxide is X3O4, that
of the second will be
(1) XO (2) XO2 (3) X2O5 (4) X2O3
Sol. Answer (4)
This question can be solved by two methods.
Method I Method II
st
Oxide I Oxide II Formula of 1 X3O4
X3O4 O = 27.6% O = 30% wt of X

Eq. mass of X = ×8
wt of O
X = 72.4% X = 70%
72.4
= × 8 = 20.9 = 21
O = 27.6% X = 70% 27.6
4 8
72.4% of X = 3 mol of X Positive charge of X = 2 × =
3 3
3
70% of X = × 70 = 2.90 mol of X 8
72.4 ∴ Atomic mass of X = × 21 = 56 g
3
Similarly ∴ [Atomic mass = eq. mass × Valency]

70
27.6% of O = 4 mol of O Eq. mass of X = × 8 = 18.66
30
4
30% of O = × 3 = 4.34 atom of O Atomic mass of X = 56g
27.6
X : O Calculate from 1st oxide

2.9 : 4.34 Atomic mass 56
i.e., 2 : 3 ∴ Valency = = =3
Eq. mass 18.6
Formula will be : X2O3 Formula will be : X2O3
13. Haemoglobin contains 0.334% of iron by weight. The molecular weight of haemoglobin is approximately 67200.
The number of iron atoms (Atomic weight of Fe is 56) present in one molecule of haemoglobin is
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 3 (4) 2
Sol. Answer (1)
0.334
Weight of Fe in heamoglobin = × 67200 = 224.48 u
100
Mass of one Fe atom = 56 u
224.48
∴ Total number of Fe atom = ≈4
56
14. In the reaction, 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3

when 1 mole of SO2 and 1 mole of O2 are made to react to completion
(1) All the oxygen will be consumed (2) 1.0 mole of SO3 will be produced
(3) 0.5 mole of SO2 is remained (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (2)
2SO 2 + O 2 2SO3
2 moles of SO2 reacts with 1 mole of O2 as 1 mol of SO2 is present
∴ SO2 will be limiting reagent will formed ∴ 1 mol of SO3
15. 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water produced in
this reaction will be
(1) 1 mol (2) 2 mol (3) 3 mol (4) 4 mol
Sol. Answer (4)
2H2 + O2 ⎯⎯→ 2H2 O
4g 32 g 2 moles
As 10 g of H2 is to react with 64 g of O2
∴ O2 will complete consumed and will act as LR.
Calculation will be made on the basis of weight of O2
⎧⎪32 g of O2 gives H2O = 2 moles ⎫⎪
⎨ ⎬
⎩⎪ 64 g of O2 gives H2O = 4 moles ⎭⎪
16. Consider the following reaction sequence:
S8(s) + 8O2(g) → 8SO2(g)
2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g)
How many grams of SO3 are produced from 1 mole S8?
(1) 1280 g (2) 960 g (3) 640 g (4) 320 g
Sol. Answer (3)
1 mole S8 ≡ 8SO3 ≡ 8 × 80 g = 640 g
17. What volume of oxygen gas (O2) measured at 0°C and 1 atm, is needed to burn completely 1 L of propane
gas (C3H8) measured under the same conditions?
(1) 10 L (2) 7 L (3) 6 L (4) 5 L
Sol. Answer (4)
C3H8 + 5O2 3CO 2 + 4H2O
For 1 mol propane 5 mol O2 gas is needed.
22.4 L propane = 5 × 22.4 L of O2 gas needed
∴ 1 L propane = 5 L of O2 gas is required
(Reactions in Solutions)
18. 4 g of hydrogen reacts with 20 g of oxygen to form water. The mass of water formed is
(1) 24 g (2) 36 g (3) 22.5 g (4) 40 g
Sol. Answer (3)
2H2 + O2 ⎯⎯→ 2H2 O
4 g 32 g 36 g
When 4 g of H2 reacts with 32 g of O2 gives 36 g of H2O.
Now present oxygen is 20 g
∴ O2 will be the limiting reagent and H2O will be calculated from O2
∴ 32 g of O2 given = 36 g of H2O
36
20 g of O2 given = × 20 = 22.5 g H O
32 2
19. Calculate the molality of solution containing 3 g glucose dissolved in 30 g of water. (molar mass of glucose
= 180)
(1) 0.50 m (2) 0.56 m (3) 0.091 m (4) 0.05 m
Sol. Answer (2)
moles of solute nB
Molality = = wB = 3 g, wA = 30 g
wt of solvent (kg) w A (kg)
3
1
Molality (m) = 180 × 1000 = × 1000 = 0.56 m.
30 1800
20. How many grams of NaOH should be added to water to prepare 250 ml solution of 2 M NaOH?
(1) 9.6 × 103 (2) 2.4 × 103 (3) 20 (4) 24
Sol. Answer (3)
M × V(mL) 2 × 250
Moles of NaOH = = = 0.5 moles of NaOH
1000 1000
given mass x
Moles = ∴ 0.5 mole = given mass = 40 × 0.5 = 20 g
mol.mass 40
SECTION – B
(Mole Concept)
1. The total number of electrons in 4.2 g of N3– ion is (NA is the Avogadro’s number)
(1) 2.1 NA (2) 4.2 NA (3) 3 NA (4) 3.2 NA
Sol. Answer (3)
4.2
Total number of moles = = 0.3 mol
14
1 mol of N3– have electrons = 10 × N0.
∴ Number of e− in 0.3 mol = 0.3 × 10 × N0 = 3 × N0

2. Suppose that A and B form the compounds B 2 A 3 and B 2 A. If 0.05 mole of B 2 A 3 weighs 9 g and
0.1 mole of B2A weighs 10 g, the atomic weight of A and B respectively are
(1) 30 and 40 (2) 40 and 30 (3) 20 and 5 (4) 15 and 20
Sol. Answer (2)
Let the atomic mass of B = y g ; A = x g
In B2A3
given weight
2y + 3x = mol. mass of B2 A3 =
mole
9
2y + 3x = g
0.05
In B2A
10
∴ 2y + x = g
0.1
Solving x and y
⎧ x = 40 ⎫
⎨ ⎬
⎩ y = 30 ⎭
3. Number of Fe atoms in 100 g Haemoglobin if it contains 0.33% Fe. (Atomic mass of Fe = 56)
(1) 0.035 × 1023 (2) 35 (3) 3.5 × 1023 (4) 7 × 108
Sol. Answer (1)
0.33
Mass of Fe = 100 × = 0.33 g
100
0.33
∴ Moles of Fe = = 5.89 × 10–3 mole
56
∴ Number of atom of Fe = 5.89 × 10-3 × 6.022 × 1023 = 0.035 × 1023 atom

4. The number of electrons in 1.6 g of CH4 is approximately
(1) 25 × 1024 (2) 1.5 × 1024 (3) 6 × 1023 (4) 3.0 × 1024
Sol. Answer (3)
1.6
Moles of CH4 = = 0.1 mol
16
Number of e– of CH4 = 0.1 × 10 × N0
= 6 × 1023
5. Specific volume of cylindrical virus particle is 6.02 × 10–2 cc/gm whose radius and length are 7 Å and 10 Å
respectively. If NA = 6.02 × 1023, find molecular weight of virus.
(1) 15.4 kg/mol (2) 1.54 × 104 kg/mol
(3) 3.08 × 104 kg/mol (4) 3.08 × 103 kg/mol
Sol. Answer (1)
One molecule (gm)

M.wt.
d=
V
1 M.wt.
−2
=
6.02 × 10 πr 2 × h
π × (7 × 10 −8 )2 × 10 × 10 −8
M.Wt. (One molecule in gm) =
6.02 × 10 −2
22 7 × 7 × 6.02 × 10 −3
M.Wt. (One mole in kg) = × = 2.2 × 7 = 15.4 kg mol–1
7 6.02 × 10 −2
6. The number of mole of nitrogen in one litre of air containing 10% nitrogen by volume, under standard conditions,
is
(1) 0.03 mole (2) 2.10 moles (3) 0.186 mole (4) 4.46 × 10–3 mole
Sol. Answer (4)
10
Volume of N2 in 1 L i.e., 1000 ml of N2 = × 1000 = 100 ml
1000
22400 ml at STP = 1 mol.
1 1
∴ 100 ml at STP = × 100 = = 4.46 × 10 −3 mol
22400 224
7. Number of significant figures in 6.62 × 10–34.

(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) One
Sol. Answer (2)
Number of significant figures = Three
i.e., 6.62
(Stoichiometry & Stoichiometric Calculations)
8. Liquid benzene (C6H6) burns in oxygen according to 2C6H6 (l) + 15O2(g) ⎯→ 12CO2(g) + 6H2O(g)
How many litres of O2 at STP are needed to complete the combustion of 39 g of liquid benzene?
(1) 74 L (2) 11.2 L (3) 22.4 L (4) 84 L
Sol. Answer (4)
2C6H6 (l) + 15 O2 (g) 12 CO2 (g) + 6H2O (g)

2 × 78 g 15 × 22.4 L
From equation 15 × 22.4 L of O2 is required for = 156 g of benzene
i.e., 156 g benzene for complete combustion required O2(STP) = 15 × 22.4 L
15 × 22.4
39 g benzene for complete combustion required O2(STP) = × 39 = 84 L of O2
156
9. 1 mol of KClO3 is thermally decomposed and excess of aluminium is burnt in the gaseous product. How many
moles of Al2O3 are formed?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 1.5 (4) 3
Sol. Answer (1)
2KClO3 2KCl + 3O2
2 moles 3 moles
2 mol of KClO3 gives = 3 mol O2
3
1 mol of KClO3 gives = mol O2
2
For Al burning
3
2 Al + O2 ⎯⎯
→ Al2 O3
2
1mole
3
As mole of O2 gives 1 mole Al2O3
2
∴ 1 mole Al2O3 formed.
10. The amount of zinc required to produce 1.12 ml of H2 at STP on treatment with dilute HCl will be
(1) 65 g (2) 0.065 g (3) 32.5 × 10–4 g (4) 6.5 g
Sol. Answer (3)
Zn + 2HCl ⎯⎯→ ZnCl2 + H2 (g)
1moL 22.4 L = 22400 ml
22400 ml of H2 gas is produced from Zn = 65 g
65
1.12 ml of H2 gas is produced from Zn = × 1.12 g = 3.25 × 10–3 g
22400
i.e., 32.5 × 10–4 g
11. Volume of CO2 obtained at STP by the complete decomposition of 9.85 g Na2CO3 is
(1) 2.24 litre (2) Zero (3) 0.85 litre (4) 0.56 litre
Sol. Answer (2)
Na2CO3 is soda ash which does not decompose upon heating even to redness.
∴ CO2 will not be evolved.
12. One litre of CO2 is passed through red hot coke. The volume becomes 1.4 litres at same temperature and
pressure. The composition of products is
(1) 0.8 litre of CO2 and 0.6 litre of CO
Sol. Answer (3)
CO2 (g) + C(s) ⎯ ⎯→ 2CO(g)
Initial 1L 0 0
Final volume (1 − x) 2x
Final volume = 1 – x + x + 2x = 1.4 L
∴ x = 0.4 L
∴ Volume of CO = 2x = 2 × 0.4 = 0.8 L
Volume of CO2 = (1 – x) = 1 – 0.4 = 0.6 L
13. An organic compound containing C and H gave the following analysis C = 40%, H = 6.7%. Its empirical formula
would be
(1) CH4 (2) CH2O
(3) C2H4O2 (4) C2H4
Sol. Answer (2)
% age Atomic mass Moles Simple ratio

40
C 40% 12 = 3.33 1
12
6.7
H 6.7% 1 = 6.7 2
1
53.3
O 53.3% 16 = 3.33 1
16
∴ EF = CH2O
14. How many litre of oxygen at STP is required to burn 60 g C2H6?

(1) 22.4 L (2) 11.2 L (3) 22.4 × 7 L (4) 8.5 L
Sol. Answer (3)
2C2H6 + 7O2 ⎯⎯→ 4 CO2 + 6 H2O

2 moles 7 moles
For 2 moles of C2H6 = 7 moles of O2 required.
i.e., for 60 g of C2H6 = 7 × 22.4 L of O2 at STP required
15. For the formation of 3.65 g of HCl gas, what volume of hydrogen gas and chlorine gas are required at NTP
conditions?
(1) 1 L, 1 L (2) 1.12 L, 2.24 L (3) 3.65 L, 1.83 L (4) 1.12 L, 1.12 L
Sol. Answer (4)
H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) ⎯⎯→ 2HCl (g)

1mol 1mol 36.5 g × 2
22.4 L 22.4 L 36.5 g × 2
1.12 L 1.12 L 3.65 g
For (36.5 × 2) g of HCl volume of H2 and Cl2 required will be 22.4 L H2 and 22.4 L of CL2
∴ For 3.65 g and 1.12 L of H2 ⎫
⎬
1.12 L of Cl2 ⎭
16. The crystalline salt Na2SO4.xH2O on heating loses 55.9% of its mass ad becomes anhydrous. The formula
of crystalline salt is
(1) Na2SO4.5H2O (2) Na2SO4.7H2O
(3) Na2SO4.2H2O (4) Na2SO4.10H2O
Sol. Answer (4)
17. A certain amount of a metal whose equivalent mass is 28 displaces 0.7 L of H2 at S.T.P. from an acid hence
mass of the element is
(1) 1.75 g (2) 0.875 g (3) 3.50 g (4) 7.00 g
Sol. Answer (1)
Weight of metal whcih can displace 11.2 L of H2 gas is equivalent mass.
∴ 11.2 L of H2 (g) have mass = 28 g
28
0.7 L of H2 have mass = × 0.7 = 1.75 g
11.2
(Reactions in Solutions)
M M
18. When 100 ml of H2SO4 is mixed with 500 ml of NaOH then nature of resulting solution and normality of
10 10
excess of reactant left is
N N N N
(1) Acidic, (2) Basic, (3) Basic, (4) Acidic,
5 5 20 10
Sol. Answer (3)
M M
100 ml of H2SO4 500 ml of NaOH
10 10
N N
H2SO4 [because N factor is 1]
5 10
⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1⎞
∴ meq of H2SO4 = ⎜ 100 × ⎟ = 20 meq ∴ meq of NaOH = ⎜ 500 × ⎟ = 50 meq
⎝ 5⎠ ⎝ 10 ⎠
larger meq – smaller meq
For Neutralisation Reaction =
Total volume
50 − 20 1
= = N NaOH [because larger meq of NaOH will remain]
600 20
∴ Solution will be basic
19. Mole fraction of solvent in aqueous solution of NaOH having molality of 3 is

(1) 0.3 (2) 0.05 (3) 0.7 (4) 0.95
Sol. Answer (4)
⎧m = molality ⎫
1000 . x B ⎪ ⎪
m = x .m ⎨ xB = molality fraction of solute ⎬
A A ⎪ x = molality fraction fo solvent ⎪
⎩ A ⎭
x A + xB = 1
∴ xA = (1 – xB)
1000 . xB
m = (1 − x ) M
B A
Putting m = 3
MA = 18 because aqueous solution is present
1000 . xB
3 = (1 − x ) 18 ⇒ 54 (1 – xB) = 1000 xB
B
= 54 – 54 xB = 1000 xB
54
xB = ⇒ xB = 0.05. `
1054
∴ x A = (1 − xB ) = (1 − 0.05 ) = 0.95
20. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H2SO4 by mass and has a density of 1.80 gmL–1. Volume of acid
required to make one litre of 0.1 M H2SO4 solution is
(1) 16.65 mL (2) 22.20 mL (3) 5.55 mL (4) 11.10 mL
Sol. Answer (3)
Molarity of 98% H2SO4 by mass having density 1.80 g/ml will be
% w/w × d × 10 98 × 1.80 × 10
M= = = 18 M.
M. mass 98
M1 = 18 M M2 = 0.1 m
V1 = ? V2 = 1000 ml
Applying M1V1 = M2V2
18 × V1 = 1000 × 0.1
100
V1 = = 5.55 ml
18
21. Ammonia gas is passed into water, yielding a solution of density 0.93 g/cm3 and containing 18.6% NH3 by
weight. The mass of NH3 per cc of the solution is
(1) 0.17 g/cm3
(2) 0.34 g/cm3
(3) 0.51 g/cm3
(4) 0.68 g/cm3
Sol. Answer (1)
18.6 × 0.93 × 10
Molarity of NH3 solution = =10.17 M
17
Strength (g/L) = molarity × mol. mass

= 10.17 × 17 = 172.9 g/L
i.e., 1000 mL of solution contain NH3 = 172.9 g
172.9
1 mL or 1 cm3 of solution contain NH3 = = 0.172 g ≈ 0.17 g
1000
22. 6.025 × 1020 molecules of acetic acid are present in 500 ml of its solution. The concentration of solution is
(1) 0.002 M
(2) 10.2 M
(3) 0.012 M
(4) 0.001 M
Sol. Answer (1)
6.022 × 1020
Moles of oxalic acid = = 10–3 moles
6.022 × 1023
10 −3
Molarity = × 1000
500
= 2 × 10−3 M = 0.002 M
SECTION – C
Previous Years Questions
1. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole of XY2 weighs
10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are [NEET-Phase-2-2016]
(1) 40, 30 (2) 60, 40 (3) 20, 30 (4) 30, 20
Sol. Answer (1)
For XY2,
∵ 0.1 mole XY2 ≡ 10 g
∴ 1 mole XY2 ≡ 100 g
and X + 2Y = 100 …(i)
For X3Y2,
∵ 0.05 mole X3Y2 ≡ 9 g
∴ 1 mole X3Y2 ≡ 180 g
and 3X + 2Y = 180 …(ii)
On solving,
X = 40
and Y = 30
2. What is the mass of the precipitate formed when 50 mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO3 is mixed with
50 mL of 5.8% NaCl solution? (Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Cl = 35.5) [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) 7 g (2) 14 g
(3) 28 g (4) 3.5 g
Sol. Answer (1)
50 × 16.9
nAgNO3 = ≈ 0.05 Mole
100 × 169.8
50 × 5.8
nNaCl = ≈ 0.05 Mole
100 × 58.5
∴ AgNO3 + NaCl ⎯⎯
→ AgCl + NaNO3
t = 0; 0.05 mole 0.05 mole 0
t = t; 0 0 0.05 mole
∴ Mass of AgCl = 0.05 × 143.3
= 7.16
≈7g
3. If Avogadro number NA, is changed from 6.022 × 1023 mol–1 to 6.022 × 1020 mol–1, this would change
(1) The ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(2) The ratio of elements to each other in a compound
(3) The definition of mass in units of grams
(4) The mass of one mole of carbon
Sol. Answer (4)
Fact.
4. 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and 8.0 g magnesium
oxide. What will be the percentage purity of magnesium carbonate in the sample? (At. wt. : Mg = 24)
[Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) 60 (2) 84
(3) 75 (4) 96
Sol. Answer (2)
Δ
MgCO3 ⎯⎯→ MgO + CO2
84 g 40 g
xg 8g
84 × 8
∴ x= = 16.8 g
40
16.8
∴ % purity of MgCO3 = × 100
20
= 84%
5. A mixture of gases contains H2 and O2 gases in the ratio of 1 : 4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio of the two
gases in the mixture? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 16 : 1
Sol. Answer (3)
nH2 12 32 4
= = =
nO2 4 32 2 × 4 1
6. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how much?
(At. wt. Mg = 24; O = 16) [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Mg, 0.16 g (2) O2, 0.16 g
(3) Mg, 0.44 g (4) O2, 0.28 g
Sol. Answer (1)
2Mg + O2 ⎯⎯
→ 2MgO
2 × 24 g 32 g
∵ O2 is limiting reagent
2 × 24
∴ 32 g of O2 will react with, g
32
2 × 24 × 0.56
∴ 0.56 g of O2 will react with, = 0.84 g
32
∴ Excess of Mg = 1 – 0.84 = 0.16 g
7. When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2(g), each at STP, the moles of HCl(g) formed is equal to
[AIPMT-2014]
(1) 1 mol of HCl(g) (2) 2 mol of HCl(g)
(3) 0.5 mol of HCl(g) (4) 1.5 mol of HCl(g)
Sol. Answer (1)
H2 + Cl2 ⎯⎯
→ 2HCl
nCl2 nHCl 11.2 nHCl

= =
1 2 22.4 2
nHCl = 1
8. 6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of solution is
[NEET-2013]
(1) 0.01 M (2) 0.001 M (3) 0.1 M (4) 0.02 M
Sol. Answer (1)
6.02 × 1020
Moles of urea = = 10 −3 moles
6.02 × 1023
moles 10 −3
∴ Molarity = × 1000 = × 1000 = 10–2 M = 0.01 M
volume (mL) 100
9. How many grams of concentrated nitric acid solution should be used to prepare 250 mL of 2 M HNO3? The
concentrated acid is 70% HNO3? [NEET-2013]
(1) 90.0 g conc. HNO3 (2) 70.0 g conc. HNO3
(3) 54.0 g conc. HNO3 (4) 45.0 g conc. HNO3
Sol. Answer (4)
nHNO3
∵ M= × 1000 ,
VmL
2 × 250
∴ nHNO3 = = 0.5 mole
1000
0.5 × 63 × 100
∴ Mass of concentrated acid required = = 45 g
70
10. Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) 1.7700 (2) 0.1770
(3) 0.0177 (4) 0.0344
Sol. Answer (3)
1
χsolute = = 0.0177
1 + 55.55
11. Which has the maximum number of molecules among the following? [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) 8 g H2 (2) 64 g SO2
(3) 44 g CO2 (4) 48 g O3
Sol. Answer (1)
Number of molecules in
8 64
H2 = N = NA, SO2 = N = NA
2 A 64 A
44 48
CO2 = N = NA, O3 = N = NA
44 A 48 A
∴ Maximum number of molecules is present in 8 g H2
12. The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of a triatomic gas is (NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1) [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) 6.026 × 1022 (2) 1.806 × 1023
(3) 3.600 × 1023 (4) 1.800 × 1022
Sol. Answer (2)
Number of atoms = 3 × 0.1 × 6.022 × 1023 = 1.806 × 1023
13. 25.3 g of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3 is dissolved in enough water to make 250 mL of solution. If sodium
carbonate dissociates completely, molar concentration of sodium ion, Na+ and carbonate ions, CO32− are
respectively (Molar mass of Na2CO3 = 106 g mol–1) [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) 0.955 M and 1.910 M (2) 1.910 M and 0.955 M
(3) 1.90 M and 1.910 M (4) 0.477 M and 0.477 M
Sol. Answer (2)
moles of Na2 CO3

Molarity of Na2CO3 = × 1000
volume (mL)
25.3
Moles of Na2CO3 =
106
25.3
25.3
∴ Molarity of Na2CO3 = 106 × 1000 = × 4 = 0.955 M
250 106
→ 2Na⊕ + CO32
−
Na2 CO3 ⎯⎯
As one mole Na2CO3 gives 2 mol Na⊕ and 1 mol CO32

−
∴ Molarity of Na⊕ = 2 × molarity of Na2CO3 = 2 × 0.955 = 1.910 M

−
Molarity of CO32 = 1 × molarity of Na2CO3 = 0.955 M.
14. 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water produced in
this reaction will be [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) 3 mol (2) 4 mol
(3) 1 mol (4) 2 mol
Sol. Answer (2)
∴ 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) ⎯⎯

→ 2H2 O(l)
4g 32 g 2 mole
8g 64 g 4 mole
Amount of water produced = 4 mol
15. How many moles of lead (II) chloride will be formed from a reaction between 6.5g of PbO and 3.2 g of HCl?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) 0.029 (2) 0.044 (3) 0.333 (4) 0.011
Sol. Answer (1)
PbO + 2HCl ⎯⎯→ PbCl2 + H2 O

224 g 73 g 1 mol
As 73 g HCl reacts with 224 g of PbO
224
∴ On reaction for 3.2 g of HCl with PbO the required amount of PbO = × 3.2 = 9.81 g
73
But only 6.5 g PbO is present
∴ PbO will be the LR and calculation will be according to PbO.
224 g of PbO gives = 1 mol PbCl2
1
6.5 g of PbO gives = × 6.5 = 0.029 mole
224
16. Volume occupied by one molecule of water (density = 1 g cm–3) is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
–23 3 –23 3
(1) 5.5 × 10 cm (2) 9.0 × 10 cm
(3) 6.023 × 10–23 cm3 (4) 3.0 × 10–23 cm3
Sol. Answer (4)
∵ 18 g H2O ≡ 18 mL
18
∴ 1 molecule ≡ ≈ 3.0 × 10–23 cm3
6.022 × 1023
17. What volume of oxygen gas (O2) measured at 0°C and 1 atm, is needed to burn completely 1 L of propane
gas (C3H8) measured under the same conditions? [AIPMT ((Prelims)-2008]
(1) 10 L (2) 7 L (3) 6 L (4) 5 L
Sol. Answer (4)
C3 H8 (g) + 5 O2 (g) ⎯⎯
→ 3 CO2 (g) + 4H2 O(l)
1L 5L
18. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C, 38.71% and H,
9.67%. The empirical formula of the compound would be [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) CH4O (2) CH3O (3) CH2O (4) CHO
Sol. Answer (2)
Element %/At. wt. Simplest Ratio No. of Atoms
C (38.71) (3.22)
12 3.22 = 1 1
H (9.67) (9.67)
1 3.22 = 3 3
O (51.62) (3.22)
16 3.22 = 1 1
∴ Empirical formula = CH3O
200 199 202

19. An element, X has the following isotopic composition ; X : 90% ; X : 8.0% ; X : 2.0%
The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally occurring element X is closest to :
(1) 199 amu (2) 200 amu
(3) 201 amu (4) 202 amu
Sol. Answer (2)
200 × 90 + 199 × 8 + 202 × 2
Average atomic mass = = 199.96 ≈ 200 amu
100
20. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H2SO4 by mass and has a density of 1.80 g mL–1. Volume of acid
required to make one litre of 0.1 M H2SO4 is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) 5.55 mL (2) 11.10 mL
(3) 16.65 mL (4) 22.20 mL
Sol. Answer (1)
10χ d 10 × 98 × 1.8
M= = = 18M
MB 98
∴ M1V1 = M2V2 ⇒ 18 × V1 = 0.1 × 1000
100
∴ V1 = = 5.55 mL
18
21. How many grams of CH3OH should be added to water to prepare 150 ml solution of 2 M CH3OH?
(1) 9.6 × 103 (2) 2.4 × 103
(3) 9.6 (4) 2.4
Sol. Answer (3)
M × V mL 2 × 150
Moles of CH3OH = = = 0.3 mole
1000 1000
∴ weight of CH3OH = moles × mol. mass
= 0.3 × 32 = 9.6 g
22. The total number of valence electrons in 4.2 g of N3– ion is (NA is the Avogadro’s number)
(1) 2.1 NA (2) 4.2 NA
(3) 1.6 NA (4) 3.2 NA
Sol. Answer (3)
4.2
Moles of N3 = = 0.1 mol
42
–
∴ Total number of valence electrons in N3 = 0.1 NA × 16 = 1.6 NA
23. The number of mole of oxygen in one litre of air containing 21% oxygen by volume, under standard conditions,
is
(1) 0.0093 mole (2) 2.10 moles
(3) 0.186 mole (4) 0.21 mole
Sol. Answer (1)
21
Volume of O2 = × 1000 = 210 mL
100
210
Moles of O2 at STP = = 0.0093 mole
22400
24. The amount of zinc required to produce 224 ml of H2 at STP on treatment with dilute H2SO4 will be (Zn = 65)
(1) 65 g (2) 0.065 g
(3) 0.65 g (4) 6.5 g
Sol. Answer (3)
Zn + H2 SO 4 ⎯⎯→ ZnSO 4 + H2
1moL 22400 mL at STP
22400 mL of H2 is produced by 1 mol Zn i.e., = 65 g
65
224 mL of H2 is produced by 1 mol Zn i.e., = × 224 = 0.65 g
22400
25. Given the numbers : 161 cm, 0.161 cm, 0.0161 cm. The number of significant figures for the three numbers is
(1) 3, 3 and 4 respectively (2) 3, 4 and 4 respectively
(3) 3, 4 and 5 respectively (4) 3, 3 and 3 respectively
Sol. Answer (4)
All have same significant figures.
26. Change in volume when 100 mL PH3 decomposed to solid phosphorus and H2 gas.
(1) Increase in 50 mL (2) Decrease in 50 mL
(3) Increase in 150 mL (4) Decrease in 200 mL
Sol. Answer (1)
4 PH3 (g) ⎯⎯
→P4 (s) + 6H2 (g)
4 moles 6 moles
As 4 moles of PH3 (g) converts into 6 moles H2 (g)
∴ 4 × 22.4 L of PH3 (g) will produce = 6 × 22.4 L of H2
89.6 L of PH3 (g) will produce = 134.4 L
134.4
1 L of PH3 (g) will produce = = 1.5 L
89.6
134.4
100 mL of PH3 (g) will produce = × 100 = 150 mL
89.6
∴ Increase in volume wil be 50 mL
27. In the reaction,

4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(l )
When 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are made to react to completion
(1) All the oxygen will be consumed (2) 1.0 mole of NO will be produced
(3) 1.0 mole of H2O is produced (4) All the ammonia will be consumed
Sol. Answer (1)
4NH3 (g) + 5O 2 (g) ⎯⎯→ 4NO (g) + 6H2 O (l)
4 mol NH3 reacts with 5 mol O2
5
1 mol NH3 reacts with = 1.25 mol of O2
4
as 1 mol of O2 is taken therefore all the O2 will be consumed.
28. An organic compound containing C, H and N gave the following analysis C = 40%, H = 13.33%,
N = 46.67%. Its empirical formula would be
(1) CH4N (2) CH5N
(3) C2H7N2 (4) C2H7N
Sol. Answer (1)
Percentage At mass Moles Simple ratio

40 3.33
C 40% 12 = 3.33 =1
12 3.33
6.7 13.33
H 6.7% 1 = 6.7 =4
1 3.33
53.3 3.33
O 53.3% 16 = 3.33 =1
16 3.33
∴ Empirical formula = CH4N
29. How many g of dibasic acid (mol. weight 200) should be present in 100 ml. of the aqueous solution to give
strength of 0.1 N?
(1) 10 g (2) 2 g
(3) 1 g (4) 20 g
Sol. Answer (3)
N × E × VmL
Amount of acid (in gram) =
1000
200
Here, E = = 100
2
0.1 × 100 × 100

∴ Amount of acid = =1g
1000
30. The number of atoms in 4.25 g of NH3 is approximately
(1) 4 × 1023 (2) 2 × 2023
(3) 1 × 1023 (4) 6 × 1023
Sol. Answer (4)
4.25
moles of NH3 = = 0.25 mol
17
As 1 NH3 have 4 atoms
∴ Total number of atoms = 0.25 × 4 × 6.022 × 1023 atoms

= 6.022 × 1023 atoms
31. Volume of CO 2 obtained at STP by the complete decomposition of 9.85 gm BaCO 3 is (Mol. wt. of
BaCO3 = 197)
(1) 2.24 litre (2) 1.12 litre
(3) 0.85 litre (4) 0.56 litre
Sol. Answer (3)
Δ
BaCO3 ⎯⎯ → BaO + CO2
1mol 22.4 L
mol mass of BaCO3 197 + 12 + 48 = 257 g
9.85
moles of BaCO3 = g = 0.038 mol
257
1 mol of BaCO3 gives CO2 = 22.4 L
0.038 moL of BaCO3 gives CO2 = 22.4 × 0.038 = 0.85 L
32. Percentage of Se in peroxidase anhydrous enzyme is 0.5% by weight (at. wt. = 78.4) then minimum molecular
weight of peroxidase anhydrous enzyme is
(1) 1.568 × 104 (2) 1.568 × 103
(3) 15.68 (4) 2.136 × 104
Sol. Answer (1)
0.5% of Se by weight is present
∴ 0.5% of enzyme have weight = 78.4 g
78.4
100% of enzyme have wt = × 100
0.5
= 15680 g = 1.568 × 104 g
33. 2.5 litre of 1 M NaOH solution mixed with another 3 litre of 0.5 M NaOH solution. Then find out molarity of
resultant solution.
(1) 0.80 M (2) 1.0 M
(3) 0.73 M (4) 0.50 M
Sol. Answer (3)
for same solution

↓
M1V1 + M2 V2 = M3 (V1 + V2 )
(2.5 × 1) + (3 × 0.5) = M3 (2.5 + 3)
+ =
M1 V1 M2 V2 M3 (V1 + V2)
2.5 + 1.5 = M3 × 5.5
4
M3 = = 0.727 ≈ 0.73 M
5.5
34. Which has maximum molecules?

(1) 7 gm N2 (2) 2 gm H2 (3) 16 gm NO2 (4) 16 gm O2
Sol. Answer (2)
Maximum number of molecules of gas are present which are having maximum number of moles
7 16
for N2 = = 0.28 mol, for NO2 = = 0.34 mol
28 46
2 16
for H2 = = 1 mol, for O2 = = 0.5 mol
2 32
As H2 have maximum number of moles

∴ H2 will have maximum number of molecules.
35. In Haber process 30 litres of dihydrogen and 30 litres of dinitrogen were taken for reaction which yielded only
50% of the expected product. What will be the composition of gaseous mixture under the aforesaid condition
in the end?
(1) 20 litres ammonia, 20 litres nitrogen, 20 litres hydrogen
Sol. Answer (2)
N2 + 3H2 ⎯⎯
→ 2NH3
at STP 10 L 30 L 20 L
for 30 L 30 L
At STP 10 L of N2 reacts with 30 L of H2. gives 20 L NH3
H2 will be the LR because 30 L N2 and 30 L H2 are taken
Now the expected product will be = 50% i.e. 10 L NH3
N2 + 3H2 ⎯⎯
→ 2NH3 {Final conc n
of NH3 = 10 L because 50% of product
⎪⎧Final conc of N2 = (30 − 5) = 25 L because 10 L

n
∴ Initial conc n 30 L 30 L 0 ⎨
⎪⎩ of NH3 is formed from 5 L of N2
⎪⎧Final conc of H2 = (30 − 15) = 15 L because 10 L

n
Final conc n (30 − 5 L) (30 − 15 L) 10 L ⎨

⎪⎩ of NH3 is formed from 15 L of H2
36. The maximum number of molecules is present in

(1) 15 L of water at STP (2) 15 L of H2O gas at STP
(3) 15 g of ice (4) Same in all
Sol. Answer (1)
As of H2O is 1 g/mL or 1 kg/L
∴ 15 L of H2O ≡ 15 kg of H2O
15000
∴ nH2O = moles.
18
15
Moles of 15 L of H2O gas at STP = mole
22.4
15
Moles of 15 g of ice = mole
18
∴ Maximum number of moles are present in 15 L of H2O
37. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H2SO4 (w/v) and has a density of 1.80 gmL–1. Molarity of solution
(1) 1 M (2) 1.8 M (3) 10 M (4) 1.5 M
Sol. Answer (3)
w
%× 10
v 98 × 10
M= = = 10 M
mol. mass 98
38. An element, X has the following isotopic composition 56X : 90% 57X : 8% 59X : 2.0%. The weighted average
atomic mass of the naturally occurring element X is closest to
(1) 56.14 amu (2) 56.8 amu (3) 60 amu (4) 55 amu
Sol. Answer (1)
∑ percentage × atomic mass = ∑ percentage abundance of each × isotopic × atomic mass

100 100
( 56 × 90 ) + ( 57 × 8 ) + 59 × 2
= = 56.14 amu
100
39. 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Volume of gaseous product
after reaction
(1) 1 × 22.4 L (2) 2 × 22.4 L
(3) 3 × 22.4 L (4) 4 × 22.4 L
Sol. Answer (1)
1
H2 (g) + O2 (g) ⎯⎯→ H2O (l)
2
10 g 64 g
From the reaction 2 g of H2 (g) combine with 16 g of O2
2
∴ 64 g of O2 will combine with H2 = × 64 = 8 g of H2(g)
16
After the reaction 2 g of H2 (g) i.e., 1 mol of H2 (g) will remain unreacted
∴ volume will be 1 × 22.4 L gaseous product.
Note: Volume of H2O will not be considered as only volume of gas is asked in the question.
40. What is the [OH–] in the final solution prepared by mixing 20.0 mL of 0.050 M HCl with 30.0 mL of 0.10 M
Ba(OH)2?
(1) 0.12 M (2) 0.10 M
(3) 0.40 M (4) 0.0050 M
Sol. Answer (2)
It is neutralisation reaction
HCl Ba(OH)2
20 mL × 0.05 M 30 mL × 0.1 M
or 20 mL × 0.05 N or 30 mL × 0.2 N
meq of H⊕ = 1 meq of OH(–) = 6
6 −1 5
∴ [OH(–)] = = = 0.1 M
50 50
41. The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of a triatomic gas is (NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1)
(1) 1.800 × 1022 (2) 6.026 × 1022
(3) 1.806 × 1023 (4) 3.600 × 1023
Sol. Answer (3)
As triatomic gas means 3 atoms are present in a molecule
Number of atoms = 0.1 × 3 × 6.022 × 1023
= 1.806 × 1023 atoms
42. The total number of electrons in 2.0 g of D2O to that in 1.8 g of H2O
(1) Double (2) Same
(3) Triple (4) One fourth
Sol. Answer (2)
Both have same number of e– [Both 2.0 g D2O and 1.8 g H2O have same number of atom]
2.0
Moles of D2O = = 0.1
20
Number of e– = 0.1 × 10 × N0 = 1 × N0
1.8
Moles of H2O = = 0.1
18
Number of e– = 0.1 × 10 × N0 = 1 × N0
43. From 200 mg of CO2 when x molecules are removed, 2.89 × 10–3 moles of CO2 are left. x will be
(1) 1020 molecules (2) 1010 molecules
(3) 21 molecules (4) 1021 molecules
Sol. Answer (4)
– =
(200 mg of CO2) – x molecules = –3

2.89 × 10 moles of CO2
From Equation
200
200 mg of CO2 have molecule = × 10-3 × 6.022 × 1023
44
= 2.7 × 1021
∴ 2.89 × 10-3 moles of CO2 have molecule = 2.89 × 10-3 × 6.022 × 1023
= 1.7 × 1021 molecule
∴ 200 mg of CO2 – x molecule = 2.89 × 10–3 moles of CO2
2.7 × 1021 – x molecule = 1.7 × 1021
x = (2.7 – 1.7) × 1021 molecue
= 1021 molecule
∴ The value of x will be 1021.
44. If the weight of metal oxide is x g containing y g of oxygen, the equivalent weight of metal will be
8x 8(y − x)
(1) E = (2) E =
y x
y 8(x − y)
(3) E = (4) E =
8 y
Sol. Answer (4)
weight of metal
Equivalent mass of metal in oxide = weight of oxygen × 8
M + xO ⎯⎯→ MO A
(x − y) yg xg
x−y
Equivalent weight of metal = ×8
y
8(x − y)
E=
y
45. The number of significant figures in 2.653 × 104 is

(1) 8 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 1
Sol. Answer (2)
2.653 × 104 have only 4 significant figure
46. Mole fraction of solute in aqueous solution of 30% NaOH.

(1) 0.16 (2) 0.05 (3) 0.25 (4) 0.95
Sol. Answer (1)
30% NaOH means 30% by mass
30 g of NaOH
i.e., 100 g of solution
Weight of NaOH = 30 g
Mol. mass NaOH = 40
Weight of H2O = 100 – 30 = 70
Mol. mass = 18
30
moles of NaOH 40
Mol. fraction of NaOH = = = 0.16
moles of H2 O + moles of NaOH 70 30
+
18 40
SECTION – D
Assertion–Reason Type Questions
1. A : 1 a.m.u. = 1.66 × 10–24 gram.

R : Actual mass of one atom of C–12 is equal to 1.99 × 10–23 g.
Sol. Answer (2)
Both are correct but R is not explanation of A because 1 amu = 1.66 × 10–24 g
12
and mass of 1 atom of C = 1.99 × 10–23 = = 1.99 × 10–23 = g
6.022 × 1023
Both A and R are correct.
2. A : Unit of specific gravity is gram–cc–1.
R : Specific gravity is same as density of a liquid in normal conditions.
Sol. Answer (4)
density of substance
Specific gravity have number units becuase it specific gravity = density of H O at 4°C
2
Both A and R are incorrect.

3. A : Number of atoms in 2 mole of NH3 is equal to number of atoms in 4 mole of CH4.
R : Both are chemically similar species.
Sol. Answer (4)
Number of atoms in NH3 = 2 × 4 × N0 = 8 N0
Number of atoms in CH4 = 4 × 5 × N0 = 20 N0
Both are chemically different
4. A : In the reaction
2NaOH + H3PO4 ⎯⎯→ Na2HPO4 + 2H2O,
M
equivalent weight of H3PO4 is , where M is its molecular weight.
2
Molecular weight
R : Equivalent weight = .
n − factor
Sol. Answer (1)
2 NaOH + H3PO 4 ⎯⎯→ Na2HPO 4 + 2H2 O
M
For above reaction n-factor = 2 ∴ equivalent mass =
2
As tow ‘H’ are replaced.
mol. mass
Equivalent mass =
n-factor
A and R are correct R is correct explanation of A.

5. A : Mass of 1 gram molecule of H2SO4 is 98 gram.
R : One gram atom contains NA atoms.
Sol. Answer (2)
mass of 1 g molecule means 1 mol of H2SO4 = 98 g
1 g atom = 1 mol atom = N0
Both are correct but R is not explanation of A.
6. A : One mole of sucrose reacts completely with oxygen produces 268.8 litre of carbon dioxide at STP.
R : Amount of oxygen required for reaction is 268.8 litre.
Sol. Answer (2)

C12H22 O11 + 12O2 (g) ⎯⎯→ 12 CO 2 (g) + 11H2 O
(Sucrose)
⎡1mol sucrose produce CO2 = 12 × 22.4 = 268.8 L ⎤

⎢ ⎥
⎣1mol sucrose requre O2 = 12 × 22.4 = 268.8 L ⎦
Both are correct but reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
7. A : In the reaction
2NaOH + H2 SO4 ⎯⎯→ Na2SO4 + 2H2O ,

equivalents of NaOH, Na2SO4 and H2SO4 are equal.
R : Number of equivalents = number of moles × n–factor.
Sol. Answer (1)
All are having same equivalents
2NaOH
= H 2 SO 4 = Na 2 SO 4
2

1× 2 1× 2
n-factor = 1 2 2
Both A and R are correct R is correct explanation of A.

8. A : When 4 moles of H2 reacts with 2 moles of O2, then 4 moles of water is formed.
R : O2 will act as limiting reagent.
Sol. Answer (3)
2H2 + O2 ⎯⎯
→ 2H2 O
2 mol 1mol 2 mol [4 mol of H when reacts with 2 moles O produces moles of H O]
2 2 2
4 mol 2 mol 4 mol
When moles are taken in above reaction H2 will act on LR.
A is correct but R is wrong.

9. A : 50 ml, decinormal HCl when mixed with 50 ml, decinormal H2SO4, then normality of H+ ion in resultant
solution is 0.1 N.
R : Here, MV = M1V1 + M2V2.
Sol. Answer (3)
meq of HCl = 50 × 0.1 = 5
meq. of H2SO4 = 50 × 0.1 = 5
Total meq 10
Normality = = = 0.1N
Total volume 100
when difference solutions of different n-factors are takne than N1V1 + N2 V2 = N3 (V1 + V2 )
A is correct but R is wrong.

10. A : 50 ml, decimolar H2SO4 when mixed with 50 ml, decimolar NaOH, then normality of resultant solution
is 0.05 N.
R : Here, NV = | N1V1 – N2V2 |.
Sol. Answer (1)
Meq of H2SO4 = N × V = 50 × 0.2 = 10
Meq of NaOH = N × V = 50 × 0.1 = 5
N = m × n = 0.1 × 2 = 0.2 N H2SO4
N = m × n = 0.1 × 1 = 0.1 N NaOH
10 − 5 5
Nsolution = = = 0.05 N
100 100
larger NV - smaller NV N1V1 − N2 V2

for neutralisation = =
Total volume Total volume
R is correct exp. of A.
11. A : Ratio of empirical formula mass and molecular formula mass may be a whole number.
R : Molecular formula mass = n × empirical formula mass, where n is the simplest whole number.
Sol. Answer (2)
= mol. formula = n × Emprical formula.
= mol. mass = n × formula mass (for ionic solids).
Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
12. A : For a given solution (density = 1 gm/ml), molality is greater than molarity.
R : Molarity involves volume of solution while molality involves mass of solvent.
Sol. Answer (1)
If density u is 1 g/mL
∴ mass of solution > mass of solvent
moles
Molality = volume of solution
moles
Molality = mass of solvent
As weight of solvent is less therefore molality will be more.

Both A and R are correct R is the correct explanation of A.
13. A : 1 gram of salt in 1 m3 of solution has concentration of 1 ppm.
R : ppm is defined as number of parts by mass of solute per million parts of solution.
Sol. Answer (1)
weight of solvent 6 1 6
ppm = weight of solution × 10 = 1 × 10 = ppm ≈ 1 ppm
Both are A and R correct R is correct explanation of A.
14. A : Total charge on NA ions of CO32 − is 1.93 × 105 coulomb.
R : Charge on one electron in 96500 coulomb.
Sol. Answer (3)
CO32 − as one CO32 − ion have two unit charge
∴ 1 mole i.e., = NA CO32 − have charge = 2 × 96500 C = 1.93 × 105 C
Charge on one mole electron = 1.602 × 10-19 × 6.022 × 1023 ≈ 96478 = 96500 C
A is true but R is false.
15. A : Number of ions in 9 gram of NH+4 is equal to Avogadro's number (NA).
R : Number of ions is equal to number of atoms.

Sol. Answer (4)
9
Formula units = = 0.5 × NA
18
No formula units = moles = Number of molecules.


Chapter 2
Structure of Atom
Solutions
SECTION - A
(Discovery of Fundamental Particles, Nature of Electromagnetic Radiation)
76
1. An isotone of 32 Ge is
77 77 77 78
(1) 32 Ge (2) 33 As (3) 34 Se (4) 74 Se
Sol. Answer (2)
Isotone means same number of neutrons
Number of neutrons = Mass number − Atomic number

Number of neutron in Ge = 76 – 32 = 44
Number of neutron in As = 77 – 33 = 44
2. The ratio of specific charge of an electron to that of a proton is

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1837 : 1 (3) 1 : 1837 (4) 2 : 1
Sol. Answer (2)
e e
electron : proton electron Proton
m m
e
∴ e
Both e– α protons have same charge 1 :
1837 1
th
1
Mass e− is the mass of protons = 1837 : 1
1837
3. Atomic number and mass number of an element M are 25 and 52 respectively. The number of electrons,
protons and neutrons in M2+ ion are respectively
(1) 25, 25 and 27 (2) 25, 27 and 25 (3) 27, 25 and 27 (4) 23, 25 and 27
Sol. Answer (4)
Atomic number = 25
Mass number = 52
Number of proton = Atomic number = 25
Number of neutron = (Mass number – Atomic number)
52 – 25 = 27
32 Structure of Atom Solutions of Assignment
Number of e– = Number of protons,

but M2+ ion means 2e– are removed
∴ Number of e– = Number of protons – 2
= 25 – 2 = 23
4. The frequency of a wave is 6 × 1015 s–1. Its wave number would be
(1) 105 cm–1 (2) 2 × 107 m–1 (3) 2 × 107 cm–1 (4) 2 × 105 cm–1
Sol. Answer (2)
1 Velocity (c)
Wave number ( ν ) = =
Wavelength (λ ) Frequency (ν )
c ν
c = νλ ν = ν = c×ν ν=
λ c
6 × 1015 s−1 −1
∴ν = 8
= 2 × 107 m
3.0 × 10 m/s
5. The number of photons of light of wavelength 7000 Å equivalent to 1 J are
(1) 3.52 × 10–18 (2) 3.52 × 1018 (3) 50,000 (4) 10,0000
Sol. Answer (2)
nhc λ ×E 7000 × 10−10 m × 1J

E= n= =
λ h × c 6.6 × 10−34 J-s × 3×108 m/s
6. The threshold energy is given as E0 and radiation of energy E falls on metal, then K.E. is given as
E − E0 E
(1) (2) E – E0 (3) E0 – E (4)
2 E0
Sol. Answer (2) E
E = Incident energy E0 K.E.
E0 = Threshold energy
– – –
e e e
E = E0 + K.E.
e– e– e–
K.E. = E − E0 E = Incident energy
7. If threshold wavelength (λ°) for ejection of electron from metal is 330 nm, then work function for the
photoelectric emission is
(1) 6 × 10–10 J (2) 1.2 × 10–18 J (3) 3 × 10–19 J (4) 6 × 10–19 J
Sol. Answer (4)
hc ν 0 = threshold frequency
Work function = hν 0 =
λ0 λ 0 = threshold wavelength
6.6 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108

λ0 = 330 × 10–9 m Work function = J
330 × 10 −9
8. A certain metal when irradiated with light (ν = 3.2 × 1016 Hz) emits photo electrons with twice kinetic energy
as did photo electrons when the same metal is irradiated by light (ν = 2.0 × 1016 Hz). Calculate ν0 of
electron?
(1) 1.2 × 1014 Hz
(2) 8 × 1015 Hz
(3) 1.2 × 1016 Hz
(4) 4 × 1012 Hz
Solutions of Assignment Structure of Atom 33
Sol. Answer (2)
K. E. = h(ν – ν0)
K.E. of photoelectrons when ν = 3.2 × 1016 Hz
K. E1 = h (3.2 × 1016 – ν0)
K. E. of photoelectron when ν = 2.0 × 1016 Hz
K. E2 = h(2.0 × 1016 – ν0)
According to question K ⋅ E1 = 2K ⋅ E2
∴ h(3.2 × 1016 – ν0) = 2h(2.0 × 1016 – ν0)
3.2 × 1016 – ν0 = 4.0 × 1016 – 2ν0
ν0 = 4.0 × 1016 – 3.2 × 1016 = 0.8 × 1016 Hz = 8 × 1015 Hz = 8 × 1015 Hz
(Bohr’s Model for Hydrogen atom)
9. According to Bohr’s theory angular momentum of an electron in 6th orbit is
h h
(1) 2.5 (2) 6
π π
h 2.5h
(3) 3 (4)
π 2π
Sol. Answer (3)
nh
mvr = (n = number of shell)
2π
Angular momentum
6h 3h
for 6th shell = =
2π π
10. If r1 is the radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom, then the radii of second, third and fourth orbits in term
of r1 are
(1) r12, r13, r14
(2) 4r1, 9r1, 16r1
(3) 8r1, 27r1, 64r1
(4) 2r1, 6r1, 8r1
Sol. Answer (2)
r0 × n2
rn =
z
z=1
(for 2nd orbit) (for 3rd orbit) (for 4th orbit)
∴ r2 = r1 × 22 r3 = r 1 × 3 2 r4 = r 1 × 4 2
= 4r1, 9r1, 16r1
11. Electronic energy is negative because
(1) Electron has negative charge
(2) Energy is zero near the nucleus and decreases as the distance from nucleus increases
(3) Energy is zero at infinite distance from the nucleus and decreases as the electron comes towards nucleus
(4) These are interelectronic repulsions
Sol. Answer (3)
At infinite distance energy of electron will be zero and it will decreases as the electron approaches towards
nucleus
12. An electron jumps from lower orbit to higher orbit, when
(1) Energy is released (2) Energy is absorbed (3) No change in energy (4) It radiates energy
Sol. Answer (2)
When e– jumps from lower to higher energy level absorbed.
When e– comes from higher to lower energy level released.
13. If the energy difference between the ground state and excited state of an atom is 4.4 × 10–19 J. The wavelength
of photon required to produce this transition is
(1) 4.5 × 10–7 m (2) 4.5 × 10–7 nm (3) 4.5 × 10–7 Å (4) 4.5 × 10–7 cm
Sol. Answer (1)
ΔE = [Excited state − ground state] = 4.4 × 10 −19 J
nhc hc
According to Plank's quantum theory ⎯⎯→ ΔE = λ=
λ ΔE
6.6 × 10 −34 J-s × 3×108 m/s

= = 4.5 × 10 −7 m
4.4 × 10 −19 J
14. The ionization energy of the electron in the lowest orbit of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. The energies required
in eV to remove electron from three lowest orbits of hydrogen atom are
(1) 13.6, 6.8, 8.4 (2) 13.6, 10.2, 3.4 (3) 13.6, 27.2, 40.8 (4) 13.6, 3.4, 1.51
Sol. Answer (4)
I. E. = E∞ − E1
I.E. = 13.6 eV given

E∞ = 0
13.6 = 0 − E1
E1 = −13.6 eV
E1 2 13.6
E2 = × (1) = − = −3.4 eV
n2 4
E −13.6
E3 = 12 = = −1.51 eV
(3) 9
∴ I ⋅ E1 = E∞ − E1 = 0 − ( −13.6) = 13.6 eV
I ⋅ E2 = E∞ − (E2 ) = 0 − ( −3.4) = 3.4 eV
I ⋅ E3 = E∞ − E3 = 0 ( − ( −1.51 eV ) ) = 1.51 eV
15. En = –313.6/n2 kcal/mole. If the value of E = –34.84 kcal/mole, to which value does ‘n’ correspond?
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
Sol. Answer (2)
−313.6
En = E = – 34.84
n2
−313.6 −313.6
∴ – 34.84 = 2
n2 = =9
n −34.84
n= 9 =3
n=3
16. Which transition of Li2+ is associated with same energy change as n = 6 to n = 4 transition in He+?
(1) n = 3 to n = 1 (2) n = 8 to n = 6 (3) n = 9 to n = 6 (4) n = 2 to n = 1
Sol. Answer (3 )
In He⊕ ; n = 6 the corresponding energy level in Li2+ ion will be
⎡For He⊕ ⎤ −1312 2 1312 −1312
⎢ ⎥ → E6 = 2
× ( 2) = − ×4 =
⎣z = 2 ⎦ (6) 36 9
Li2+ 1312 2 1312 2

Corresponding energy level for = − 2 × (3) = − n = 81 n = 9
( z = 3) n 9
In He⊕ n = 4; the corresponding energy level in Li2+ ions
For He⊕ 1312 1312

E4 = − ×4 = −
( z = 2) ( 4) 2 4
⊕
Corresponding energy level for Li −1312 2 1312
= × (3) = −
( z = 3) n 2 4
n2 = 36 n=6
Shortcut
1 2⎡ 1 1⎤
= R × ( 2) ⎢ 2 − 2 ⎥ ......(1)
λHe2 + ⎣4 6 ⎦
1 2⎡ 1 1⎤
= R × (3) ⎢ 2 − 2 ⎥ ......(2)
λLi2 + ⎢⎣ n1 n2 ⎥⎦
For same energy equation (1) must be equal to equation (2) which only possible when
n1 = 6 and n2 = 9
17. Number of spectral lines in Balmer series when an electron return from 7th orbit to 1st orbit of hydrogen atom
are
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 21 (4) 15
Sol. Answer (1)
As only visible lines have to be calculated i.e. Balmer lines n=7
n=6
n=5
∴ Visible lines when ground state = 2
n=4
n1 = 2 n=3
∴ Possible arrangements 7 → 2, 6 → 2, 5 → 2, 4 → 2, 3 → 2 n=2
Total number of spectral lines = 5 n=1
All have visible region because n1 = 2
18. Zeeman effect refers to the

(1) Splitting of the spectral lines in a magnetic field
(2) Splitting up of the spectral lines in an electrostatic field
(3) Emission of electrons from metals when light falls on it
(4) Random scattering of α-particles by gold foil
Sol. Answer (1)
Splitting of line in magnetic field is known as Zeeman effect
(Towards Quantum Mechanical Model of the Atom (Dual behaviour of matter, Heisenberg’s uncertainity
Principle)
19. Assuming the velocity to be same, the wavelength of the waves associated with which of the following particles
would be maximum?
(1) An electron (2) A proton (3) An α-particle (4) A deutron
Sol. Answer (1)
h 1
λ= λ∝ for same velocity
mv m
Mass of electron is minimum than proton, deutron and α-particle
i.e., me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg mp = 1.67 × 10–27 kg mD = 1 unit mαparticle = 4 unit
∴ e– will have minimum mass and maximum wavelength

20. If the uncertainty in the position of electron is zero, the uncertainty in its momentum would be
h h
(1) Zero (2) Greater than (3) Less than (4) Infinite
4π 4π
Sol. Answer (4)
h
Δx × ΔP = if Δx = 0
4π
h h
ΔP = = =∞
4π × Δx 4π × 0
21. If kinetic energy of a proton is increased nine times, the wavelength of the de-Broglie wave associated with
it would become
1 1
(1) 3 times (2) 9 times (3) times (4) times
3 9
Sol. Answer (3)
1 1
mv 2 = K.E. ⇒ m2 v 2 = m ⋅ K ⋅ E
2 2
h
m2 v 2 = 2m ⋅ K ⋅ E λ= substitute the value of mv
mv
h 1
mv = 2m ⋅ K ⋅ E λ= ∴λ∝ ...... (1)
2m ⋅ K ⋅ E K ⋅E
1
From equation (1) when K.E. of the electron increased 9 times. The de-Broglie wavelength decreased by
3
times.
1 1
λ∝ =
9 3
22. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron travelling with 10% of velocity of light is equal to
(1) 242.4 pm (2) 24.2 pm
(3) 2.42 pm (4) 2.424 pm
Sol. Answer (2)
v = 10% of velocity of light
10
= × 3.0 × 108 m/s = 3.0×107 m/s
100
m = 9.1× 10−31 kg
h 6.6 × 10−34 J-s

λ= = = 24.2 × 10−12 m = 24.2 pm
mv 9.1× 10−31 × 3 × 107
23. The wavelength associated with a ball of 200 g and moving with a speed of 5 m/hour is of the order of
(1) 10–10 m (2) 10–20 m (3) 10–30 m (4) 10–40 m
Sol. Answer (3)
5
v = 5 m/hour = m/s
3600
m = 200 g = 0.2 kg
6.6 × 10−34 J-s × 3600

λ=
0.2 × 5
= 23760 × 10–34
= 2.3 × 10–30 m
= 10−30 m
24. The momentum of a particle which has a de-Broglie wavelength of 0.1 nm is

(1) 3.2 × 10–24 kg ms–1 (2) 4.3 × 10–22 kg ms–1
(3) 5.3 × 10–22 kg ms–1 (4) 6.62 × 10–24 kg ms–1
Sol. Answer (4)
h
λ= momentum P = mv
mv
h 6.6 × 10 −34 kgm2 s−1
∴P = =
λ 0.1× 10 −9 m
P = 6.6 × 10 −24 kg ms−1
25. The uncertainty in velocity of an electron present in the nucleus of diameter 10–15m hypothetically should be
approximately
(1) 10–11 m/s (2) 108 m/s (3) 1011 m/s (4) 10 Å/s
Sol. Answer (3)
Δx = 10–15 m
h
m = 9.1 × 10–31 kg Δx × mΔv =
4π
6.6 × 10 −34 kg m2 s −1 6.6

⇒ Δv = −15 −31
= × 1012 m/s
10 × 9.1× 10 × 4 × 3.14 114.296
= 0.05 × 1012 m/s
App. = 0.5 × 1011 m/s
(Quantum Mechanical Model of the Atom)
26. The set of quantum numbers not applicable to an electron

1 1 1 1
(1) 1, 1, 1, + (2) 1, 0, 0, + (3) 1, 0, 0, − (4) 2, 0, 0, +
2 2 2 2
Sol. Answer (1)
The value of l can never be equal to n
∴ n = 1, l = 1 which is not possible
27. The principal and azimuthal quantum number of electrons in 4f orbitals are
(1) 4, 2 (2) 4, 4 (3) 4, 3 (4) 3, 4
Sol. Answer (3)
⎡Principal quantum number (n) = 4 ⎤
For 4f electron ⎢ ⎥
⎣ Azimuthal quantum number (l) = 3 ⎦
⎡l = 0 s ⎤
⎢ l = 1 p⎥
⎢ ⎥
⎢l = 2 d⎥
⎢ ⎥
⎣l = 3 f ⎦
1
28. How many 3d electrons can have spin quantum number − ?
2
(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 10
Sol. Answer (1)
For 3d number of electrons will be 10
1
5 e– have clockwise = +
2
1
5 e– have anti clockwise = −
2
For l = 2 m = –2, –1, 0, +1, +2
⎡5 orbital = 10e− ⎤
⎢ ⎥
⎢half are clockwise ⎥
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 ⎢and half are anticlockwise ⎥
− + − + − + − + − + ⎣ ⎦
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
29. The correct order of increasing energy of atomic orbital is

(1) 5p < 4f < 6s < 5d (2) 5p < 6s < 4f < 5d
(3) 4f < 5p < 5d < 6s (4) 5p < 5d < 4f < 6s
Sol. Answer (2)
More the (n + l) value ; more will be the energy
5p 4f 6s 5d
(n + l) (5 + 1) (4 + 3) (6 + 0) (5 + 2)
6 7 6 7
According to Aufbau principle
Smaller the (n + l); smaller will be energy
For same (n + l); smaller the value of n ; lesser will be energy
∴ increasing order 5 p < 6s < 4f < 5d
30. Which shell would be the first to have ‘g’ sub-shell?
(1) L (2) M (3) N (4) O
Sol. Answer (4)
For g-subshell l = 4; the value of n will be = (l + 1) = 5
K, L, M, N, O
n =1 n=2 n=3 n=4 n=5
∴ For n = 5 corresponding is 'o' shell and it contain 'g' subshell.
31. For which one of the following set of quantum numbers an electron will have the highest energy?
1 1 1 1
(1) 3, 2, 1, (2) 4, 2, − 1, (3) 4, 1, 0, − (4) 5, 0, 0,
2 2 2 2
Sol. Answer (2)
Larger the value of (n + l) ; larger will be the energy
1
(1) 3, 2, 1, (n + l) = 3 + 2 = 5
2
1
(2) 4, 2, –1, (n + l) = 4 + 2 = 6 (Max energy)
2
1
(3) 4, 1, 0, − (n + l) = 4 + 1 = 5
2
1
(4) 5, 0, 0, (n + l) = 5 + 0 = 5
2
32. The energies of orbitals of H-atom are in the order

(1) 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d < 4p (2) 3s < 3p < 3d < 4s < 4p
(3) 3s = 3p = 3d < 4s = 4p (4) 3s = 3p = 3d < 4s < 4p
Sol. Answer (3)
As 'H' have 1 electron
∴ Orbitals are not degenerated
∴ 3s = 3p = 3d < 4s = 4p
same energy same energy
33. Which of the following set of quantum number is possible?
1
(1) n = 4, l = 2, m = –2, s = –2 (2) n = 4, l = 4, m = 0, s =
2
1
(3) n = 4, l = 3, m = –3, s = (4) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = 0
2
Sol. Answer (3)
Option 1 not possible because s can never have –2 value
Option 2 not possible because n and l cannot have same value
Option 4 not possible because s cannot have zero value
∴ Correct answer = 3
1
n=4 l=3 m = –3 s=
2
34. The maximum number of electrons in an atom which can have n = 4 is

(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 32
Sol. Answer (4)
Number of electrons = 2n2 (n = shell number)
For 4th shell = 2 × (4)2 = 32 electrons
35. In the presence of magnetic field, the possible number of orientations for an orbital of azimuthal quantum
number 3, is
(1) Three (2) One (3) Five (4) Seven
Sol. Answer (4)
When magnetic field is applied subshell will give orbital i.e.,
l=3 m = –3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3

(Total 7 orbitals are possible)
36. For a ‘p’ electron, the orbital angular momentum is
(1) 6 (2) 2 (3) (4) 2

Sol. Answer (2)
h
Orbital angular momentum = l ( l + 1) = l ( l + 1)
2π
For p-electron value of l = 1
∴ Orbital angular momentum = l ( l + 1) = 2
37. Which of the following electronic level would allow the hydrogen to absorb a photon but not emit a photon?
(1) 3s (2) 2p (3) 2s (4) 1s
Sol. Answer (4)
1s-orbital is the ground state
Further emission is not possible i.e. de excitation not possible
38. Which of the following transition will emit maximum energy in hydrogen atom?
(1) 4f → 2s (2) 4d → 2p
(3) 4p → 2s (4) All have same energy
Sol. Answer (4)
Transition energy depends upon the shell number i.e. value of principle quantum number 'n' in all the case
transition is between 4th energy level to 2nd level
∴ All have same energy
39. In an atom, which has 2K, 8L, 18M and 2N electrons in the ground state. The total number of electrons having
magnetic quantum number, m = 0 is
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 7 (4) 14
Sol. Answer (4)
Total number of e– = 30. Therefore, e– configuration will be
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10
n=1 n=2 n=2 n=3 n=3 n=4 n=3
l=0 l=0 l=1 l=0 l=1 l=0 l=2
m=0 m=0 m = –1, 0, +1 m=0 m = 0, –1, +1 m=0 m = –2, –1, 0, +1, +2
For s-subshell 1 orbital have m=0
For p-subshell 1 orbital have m=0
For d-subshell 1 orbital have m=0
∴ Total 7 orbital have m = 0 in above configuration. Therefore, total number of electron = 7 × 2 = 14

40. The probability density curve for 2s electron appears like
2 2
2
R
2
R R R
(1) (2) (3) (4)
r r r r
Sol. Answer (1)
Graph is not correct [because 2s have only one node]
Correct graph will be
R2
r
41. A p-orbital can accommodate upto
(1) Four electrons (2) Six electrons (3) Two electrons (4) Eight electrons
Sol. Answer (3)
In any orbital maximum two electrons can accommodate
[A p-orbital can accommodate upto two electrons]
42. The number of radial nodes in 4s and 3p orbitals are respectively
(1) 2, 0 (2) 3, 1 (3) 2, 2 (4) 3, 2
Sol. Answer (2)
Number of radial nodes = ( n − l − 1)
⎪⎧For 4s n = 4 l = 0 ( 4 − 0 − 1) = 3
⎨
⎪⎩For 3 p n = 3 l = 1 ( 3 − 1 − 1) = 1
43. Which of the following orbital is with the four lobes present on the axis?
(1) dz2 (2) dxy (3) dyz (4) d x 2 − y 2
Sol. Answer (4)
dx2 − y2 (all the lobes are present on axis)
X
d
x − y2
2
44. Which of the following statement concerning the four quantum number is incorrect?
(1) n gives the size of an orbital
(2) l gives the shape of an orbital
(3) m gives the energy of the electron in orbital
(4) s gives the direction of spin of electron in the orbital
Sol. Answer (3)
m = represents the orientation of orbital in magnetic field.
m = orbitals
45. Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired electrons?

(1) Mg2+ (2) Ti3+ (3) Fe2+ (4) Mn2+
Sol. Answer (4)
Number of unpaired
Mg2+ = 10 = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6 0
Ti3+ = 19 = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s0, 3d1 1
Fe2+ = 24 = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s0, 3d6 4
Mn2+ = 23 = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s0, 3d5 5 maximum number
46. Two electrons in K shell will not have

(1) Same principal quantum number (2) Same azimuthal quantum number
(3) Same magnetic quantum number (4) Same spin quantum number
Sol. Answer (4)
As K shell is the 1st shell and have maximum two electron. Therefore, to Pauli's exclusion principal two
electrons can't have the same value of all the four quantum number.
Therefore, can't have same spin quantum number
47. Which of the following electronic configuration is not possible?

(1) 2p3 (2) 2d5 (3) 4s1 (4) 5f 8
Sol. Answer (2)
Value of l cannot be greater or equal to n.
For 2d n = 2, l=2 not possible
48. The orbital diagram in which both Pauli’s exclusion principle and Hund’s rule are violated is
2s 2p
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. Answer (1)
2s 2p
According to Pauli number two electrons have same value of all the four quantum numbers i.e. pair in 2p orbital
have same spin not possible.
According to Hund's rule electrons are firstly clockwise arranged then pairing is done which is not in 2p
subshell.
49. Which of the following electronic configuration is incorrect?
(1) 1s2, 2s2, 2px2, 2py2, 2pz2, 3s2, 3px1 (2) 1s2, 2s1, 2px1, 2py1, 2pz1
(3) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d5, 4s2 (4) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3px1, 3py1, 3pz1
Sol. Answer (2)
Before 2s completely filled electrons are not further added into higher energy level.
Therefore Option 2 incorrect.
50. The number of waves in the third orbit of H atom is

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 3
Sol. Answer (4)
Number of waves = Number of shell
Circumference
Number of waves = −
de Broglie λ
h
λ=
mv
2πr × mv
Number of waves =
h
nh
mvr =
2π
Number of waves = n
Number of waves in third orbit = 3
SECTION - B
(Discovery of Fundamental Particles, Nature of Electromagnetic Radiation)
1. Which is the correct graphical representation based on photoelectric effect?
K.E. K.E.
I. II.
ν ν0 ν
No. of photons
K.E.
III. IV.
Intensity of light Intensity of light
(1) I & II (2) II & III (3) III & IV (4) II & IV
Sol. Answer (4)
For photoelectric effect
KE = h(ν – ν0)
KE = hν – hν0
No. of photons →
KE →
ν0 ν→ Intensity of light →
(II)
(IV)
ν0 = Threshold frequency
∴ [KE of e– increases after crossing. Threshold frequency]
(Bohr’s Model for Hydrogen atom)
2. What will be the longest wavelength line in Balmer series of spectrum of H-atom?
(1) 546 nm (2) 656 nm (3) 566 nm (4) 556 nm
Sol. Answer (2)
All the wavelength are in visible region i.e. between 400 nm to 760 nm. Therefore maximum wavelength line
will be 656 nm.
3. In hydrogen atom, energy of first excited state is –3.4 eV. Then find out KE of same orbit of hydrogen atom
(1) +3.4 eV (2) +6.8 eV (3) –13.6 eV (4) +13.6 eV
Sol. Answer (1)
KE
= −1
ETotal
Total energy = –3.4 eV (Given)
∴ KE = –(–3.4 eV) = +3.4 eV
4. Total number of spectral lines in UV region, during transition from 5th excited state to 1st excited state
(1) 10 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) Zero
Sol. Answer (4)
As 1st excited state means n1 = 2
For 5th excited state means n2 = 6
∴ e– will transit between 6th level to 2nd level
No transition will be upto 1st level. Because no line will appear in Lyman series i.e. UV region.
5. The first emission line in the atomic spectrum of hydrogen in the Balmer series appears at
5R 3R 7R 9R
(1) cm −1 (2) cm−1 (3) cm−1 (4) cm−1
36 4 144 400
Sol. Answer (1)
st
1 line in the Balmer series means n1 = 2, n2 = 3
1 ⎡ 1 1⎤
v = = R ⎢ 2 − 2 ⎥ z2 for H z=1
λ ⎢⎣ n1 n2 ⎥⎦
1 ⎡1 1⎤ ⎡ 1 1⎤ 5R
v = = R ⎢ 2 − 2 ⎥ × 12 = R ⎢ − ⎥ = cm−1
λ ⎣2 3 ⎦ ⎣ 4 9 ⎦ 36
6. In a hydrogen atom, if the energy of electron in the ground state is –x eV., then that in the 2nd excited state
of He+ is
4 9
(1) –x eV (2) − x eV (3) +2x eV (4) − x eV
9 4
Sol. Answer (2)
⎧Eground = x eV given
⎪⎪
Eground state
En = × z2 ⎨n = 3 because 2nd excited state
n 2 ⎪z = 2 because
⎪⎩
x 2 4
=− 2
× ( 2 ) = − x eV
(3) 9
7. The wavelength of radiation emitted, when in He+ electron falls from infinity to stationary state would be
(R = 1.097 × 107 m–1)
(1) 2.2 × 10–8 m (2) 22 × 10–9 m (3) 120 m (4) 22 × 107 m
Sol. Answer (1)
⊕
n1 = 1 For He z = 2
n2 = α given
1 ⎡1 1⎤ 2
= R ⎢ 2 − 2 ⎥ × ( 2)
λHe⊕ ⎣1 α ⎦
1
= 109678 × 4 cm−1
λHe⊕
1 1
λHe⊕ = = = 2.2 × 10−6 cm
109678 × 4 438712
= 2.2 × 10−8 m
8. In Bohr series of lines of hydrogen spectrum, the third line from the red end corresponds to which one of
the following inter-orbit jumps of the electron for Bohr orbits in an atom of hydrogen?
(1) 3 → 1 (2) 5 → 2 (3) 2 → 5 (4) 3 → 2
Sol. Answer (2)
Third line means third excited state
i.e. n1 = 2 Balmer series (visible region)
n2 = 5 Third line
∴ Third line will appear when electron comes from 5th energy level to 2nd level.
9. The correct order of energy difference between adjacent energy levels in H atom
(1) E2 – E1 > E3 – E2 > E4 – E3 (2) E2 – E1 > E4 – E3 > E3 – E2
(3) E4 – E3 > E3 – E2 > E2 – E1 (4) E3 – E2 > E4 – E3 > E2 – E1
Sol. Answer (1)
In H atom
−1312 −1312 −1312 −1312 −1312

E1 = E2 = E3 = E4 = E5 =
12 4 9 25 36
∴ (E2 – E1) > (E3 – E2) > (E4 – E3) .......
[Alternatively as the distance from the nucleus increases the value of ΔE (energy difference between two shell)
decreases]
10. Which of the following electronic in a transition hydrogen atom will require the largest amount of energy?
(1) n = 1 to n = 2 (2) n = 2 to n = 3 (3) n = 1 to n = ∞ (4) n = 3 to n = 5
Sol. Answer (3)
Largest amount of energy is required for the transition between 1 → ∞
1 ⎡1 1⎤
ΔE = hc × ⇒ hcR ⎢ 2 − 2 ⎥ [Large the difference between n and n large will be the value of DE]
λ ⎣⎢ n1 n2 ⎥⎦
1 2
11. The time taken by the electron in one complete revolution in the nth Bohr’s orbit of the hydrogen atom is
(1) Inversely proportional to n2 (2) Directly proportional to n3
h n
(3) Directly proportional to (4) Inversely proportional to
2π h
Sol. Answer (2)
circumference 2πr n3
Time period = = = 2 × 1.5 × 10−16 seconds
velocity vn z
Time period ∝ n3
12. What will be the ratio of the wavelength of the first line to that of the second line of Paschen series of H atom?
(1) 256 : 175 (2) 175 : 256 (3) 15 : 16 (4) 24 : 27
Sol. Answer (1)
First time of paschen series n1 = 3, n2 = 4
1 ⎡1 1 ⎤
= R⎢ − ⎥
λ1 ⎣ 9 16 ⎦
1 7R 144
= λ1 =
λ1 144 7R
Second line of paschen series n1 = 3, n2 = 5
1 ⎡1 1 ⎤
= R⎢ − ⎥
λ2 ⎣ 9 25 ⎦
1 16R 225
= λ2 =
λ 2 225 16R
λ1 144 16R 2304 256
= × = =
λ2 7R 225 1575 175
13. For the transition from n = 2 → n = 1, which of the following will produce shortest wavelength?
(1) H atom (2) D atom (3) He+ ion (4) Li2+ ion
Sol. Answer (4)
1 ⎡1 1⎤
= R ⎢ 2 − 2 ⎥ z2 as n ∝ n are constant
λ ⎣⎢ n1 n2 ⎥⎦
1 2
1
∴ λ ∝ 2 more the nuclear charge smaller will be the λ
z
H=z=1
D=z=1 ∴ Li2+ have shorter wavelength
He⊕ = z = 2
Li2+ = z = 3
(Towards Quantum Mechanical Model of the Atom (Dual behaviour of matter, Heisenberg’s uncertainity
Principle)
14. The uncertainty in momentum of an electron is 1 × 10–5 kg-m/s. The uncertainty in its position will be
(h = 6.62 × 10–34 kg-m2/s)
(1) 5.27 × 10–30 m (2) 1.05 × 10–26 m (3) 1.05 × 10–28 m (4) 5.25 × 10–28 m
Sol. Answer (1)
ΔP = 10–5 kgms–1
h
Δx × ΔP =
4π
6.6 × 10−34 J
Δx = = 5.2 × 10−30 m
10−5 × 4 × 3.14
15. Two particles A and B are in motion. If the wavelength associated with particle A is 5 × 10–8 m; calculate the
wavelength associated with particle B if its momentum is half of A.
(1) 5 × 10–8 m (2) 10–5 cm (3) 10–7 cm (4) 5 × 10–8 cm
Sol. Answer (2)
h h 1
λA = λB = PB = PA (Given)
PA PB 2
h
λ A PA PB 1
= =
λB h PA Putting PB = 2 PA
PB
λ A 1 PA
=
λB 2 PA
λB = 2λA [λA = 5 × 10–8m]
λB = 2 × 5 × 10–8
= 10 × 10–8 m ∵ 1 m = 100 cm
= 10–7 m = 10–5 cm
(Quantum Mechanical Model of the Atom)
16. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with l = 3 and n = 4 is
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) 16
Sol. Answer (3)
n = 4, l = 3 means 4f
for l = 3, m = –3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3 = 7 orbital

Therefore, maximum 14 electrons are present.
17. The total number of subshells in fourth energy level of an atom is
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 32
Sol. Answer (1)
18. For which of the following sets of four quantum numbers, an electron will have the highest energy?
n l m s
(1) 3 2 1 +1/2
(2) 4 2 –1 +1/2
(3) 4 1 0 –1/2
(4) 5 0 0 –1/2
Sol. Answer (2)
Energy of an electron depends upon (n + l) value
More the (n + l) value more will be the energy
n l m s (n + l)
(1) 3 2 1 +1/2 5
(2) 4 2 –1 +1/2 6 Max. (n + l). max. energy
(3) 4 1 0 –1/2 5
(4) 5 0 0 –1/2 5
19. A transition element X has a configuration (Ar)3d 4 in its +3 oxidation state. Its atomic number is
(1) 22 (2) 19 (3) 25 (4) 26
Sol. Answer (3)
Total number of e– in X+3 = [Ar] 3d4
= 18 + 4 = 22
∴ Number of electrons in X = 22 + 3 = 25
Atomic number = 25
20. Among the following which one is not paramagnetic? [Atomic numbers; Be = 4, Ne = 10, As = 33, Cl = 17]
(1) Ne2+ (2) Be+ (3) Cl– (4) As+
Sol. Answer (3)
Ions having all the electron paired will be non-paramagnetic or diamagnetic
Ne+2 = 8 = 1s2, 2s2, 2p4 2 unpaired e–
Be⊕ = 3 = 1s2, 2s1 1 unpaired e–

2s
Cl– = 18 = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6 0 unpaired e–

3p
As⊕ = 33 = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2, 3d10, 4p3 3 unpaired e–
21. Isoelectronic species are

(1) CO, CN–, NO+, C22–
(2) CO–, CN, NO, C2–
(3) CO+, CN+, NO–, C2
(4) CO, CN, NO, C2
Sol. Answer (1)
Isoelectronic species have same number of electrons
⎡CO = 14 e − NO⊕ = 14 e − ⎤
⎢ − ⎥ [All have same number of electrons]
⎢⎣CN = 14 e − C22 − = 14 e − ⎥⎦
22. Consider the following sets of quantum number

n I m s
(i) 3 0 0 +1/2
(ii) 2 2 1 +1/2
(iii) 4 3 –2 –1/2
(iv) 1 0 –1 –1/2
(v) 3 2 3 +1/2
Which of the following sets of quantum number is not possible?
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (2) (ii), (iv) and(v) (3) (i) and (iii) (4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Sol. Answer (2)
(ii), (iv), and (v) are not possible
(ii) n = 2 l=2 m=1 s = +1/2 l not equal to n not possible
(iii) n = 1 l=0 m = –1 s = –1/2 Not possible because m = –1 where l = 0
(iv) n = 3 l=2 m=3 s = +1/2 Not possible because m = 3 is not for l = 2
23. Any f-orbital can accommodate upto

(1) 2 electrons with parallel spin
(2) 6 electrons
(3) 2 electrons with opposite spin
(4) 14 electrons
Sol. Answer (3)
Any orbital have maximum of two electrons with opposite spin.
24. For principal quantum number n = 5, the total number of orbitals having l = 3 is
(1) 7 (2) 14 (3) 9 (4) 18
Sol. Answer (1)
For l = 3 m = –3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3
i.e., 7 orbitals are present
25. The four quantum numbers of valence electron of potassium are
1 1 1 1
(1) 4, 0, 1, (2) 4, 1, 0, (3) 4, 0, 0, (4) 4, 1, 1,
2 2 2 2
Sol. Answer (3)
K = 19 = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1 last e–
Last electron 4s1
1
∴n=4 l=0 m=0 s= +
2
26. In the ground state, an element has 13 electrons in its M-shell. The element is
(1) Manganese (2) Cobalt (3) Nickel (4) Iron
Sol. Answer (1)
M shell means 3rd orbit
2 2 6 2 6 2 5
Mn = 25 = 1s , 2s , 2p , 3s , 3p , 4s , 3d total 13 e– in 3 orbit
8 5
Co = 27 = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2, 3d7 total 15 e– in 3 orbit
Ni = 28 = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2, 3d8 total 16 e– in 3 orbit
Fe = 26 = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2, 3d6 total 14 e– in 3 orbit
27. Which combinations of quantum numbers n, l, m and s for the electron in an atom does not provide a
permissible solutions of the wave equation?
1 1 1 1
(1) 3, 2, − 2, (2) 3, 3, 1, − (3) 3, 2, 1, (4) 3, 1, 1, −
2 2 2 2
Sol. Answer (2)
n = 3 l = 3 [Not possible because value of l can never be equals to n]
28. The orbital angular momentum of electron in 4s orbital is

1 h h h
(1) . (2) Zero (3) (4) (2.5)
2 2π 2π 2π
Sol. Answer (2)
h
Orbital angular momentum = l ( l + 1)
4π
For 4s electron the value of l = 0 ∴ [orbital angular momentum = zero]
29. Radial nodes present in 3s and 3p-orbitals are respectively
(1) 0, 2 (2) 2, 1 (3) 1, 1 (4) 2, 2
Sol. Answer (2)
Radial nodes = (n – l – 1)
for 3s (3 – 0 – 1) = 2 ; For 3p (3 – 1 – 1) = 1
30. Quantum numbers for some electrons are given below

A : n = 4, l = 1 B : n = 4, l = 0 C : n = 3, l = 2 D : n = 3, l = 1
The correct increasing order of energy of electrons
(1) A < B < C < D (2) D < C < B < A (3) D < B < C < A (4) C < B < A < D
Sol. Answer (3)
Energy = (n + l)
A=n=4 l=1 =4+1=5
B=n=4 l=0 =4+0=4
C=n=3 l=2 =3+2=5
D=n=3 l=1 =3+1=4
According to Pauli exclusion principle
(1) Larger the (n + l); larer will be energy
(2) Same value of (n + l) ; smaller n ; more will be energy
∴ D<B<C< A
31. The number of lobes in most of the d-orbitals are

(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 4
Sol. Answer (4)
32. For which of the following options m = 0 for all orbitals?
(1) 2s, 2px, 3dxy (2) 3s, 2 pz , 3d z2 (3) 2s, 2 pz , 3d x 2 − y 2 (4) 3s, 3px, 3dyz
Sol. Answer (2)
Value of m = 0 for 3s, 2Pz and 3d z2
33. In any sub-shell, the maximum number of electrons having same value of spin quantum number is
(1) l (l + 1) (2) l + 2 (3) 2l + 1 (4) 4l + 2
Sol. Answer (3)
Total number of electron in subshell = 2(2l + 1) l = angular quantum number
2 ( 2l + 1)
Number of electrons having same spin = = ( 2l + 1)
2
[Because half e– have clockwise and half e– have anti clockwise spin]
34. If each orbital can hold a maximum of 3 electrons. The number of elements in 2nd period of periodic table
(long form) is
(1) 27 (2) 9 (3) 18 (4) 12
Sol. Answer (4)
For 2nd period electronic configuration = 2s2, 2p6
If each orbital have 3e– then electronic configuration = 2s3, 2px3, 2py3, 2pz3
Total 12 e– will present
SECTION - C
1. Which one is the wrong statement? [NEET-2017]
h
(1) de-Broglie's wavelength is given by λ = , where m = mass of the particle, v = group velocity of the
mv
particle
h
(2) The uncertainty principle is ΔE × Δt ≥
4π
(3) Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange energy, greater symmetry
and more balanced arrangement
(4) The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms
Answer (4)
Sol. Energy of 2s-orbital and 2p-orbital in case of hydrogen like atoms is equal.
2. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which n = 3 and l = 1? [NEET-Phase-2-2016]
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 10 (4) 14
Sol. Answer (1)
An orbital can accommodate maximum of 2 electrons with anti-parallel spins.
3. Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have electron density along the axes?
[NEET-Phase-2-2016]
(1) d z2 , d xz (2) dxz, dyz (3) d z2 , d x 2 − y 2 (4) d xy , d x 2 − y 2
Sol. Answer (3)

z y
dz 2 dx 2 – y 2
4. Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by [NEET-2016]

(1) Spin quantum number (2) Principal quantum number
(3) Magnetic quantum number (4) Azimuthal quantum number
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.
5. The angular momentum of electron in 'd' orbital is equal to [AIPMT-2015]

(1) 0 (2) 6 (3) 2 (4) 2 3
Sol. Answer (2)

Angular momentum = l ( l + 1) = l ( l + 1)
2π
6. What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be identified with the following quantum numbers?
n = 3, l = l, ml = 0 [AIPMT-2014]
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Sol. Answer (1)
It represents 3p orbital
7. Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light of wavelength 45 nm: (Planck's constant
h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js; speed of light c = 3 × 108 ms–1) [AIPMT-2014]
(1) 6.67 × 1015 (2) 6.67 × 1011 (3) 4.42 × 10–15 (4) 4.42 × 10–18
Sol. Answer (4)
hc 6.63 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 6.63

E= = = × 10 −17 = 4.42 × 10–18 J
λ 45 × 10 −9 15
8. Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions ? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) H+ (2) Li+ (3) Na+ (4) Mg2+
Sol. Answer (2)
9. What is the maximum numbers of electrons that can be associated with the following set of quantum numbers?
n = 3, l = 1 and m = –1 [NEET-2013]
(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 10
Sol. Answer (3)
Value of m = –1 represents one orbital. Therefore maximum number of electrons will be two
10. The value of Planck's constant is 6.63 × 10–34 Js. The speed of light is 3 × 1017 nm s–1. Which value is closest
to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light with frequency of 6 × 1015 s–1? [NEET-2013]
(1) 25 (2) 50 (3) 75 (4) 10
Sol. Answer (2)
c 3.0 × 1017 nms−1 1

λ= = = × 102 nm
v 6 × 1015 s−1 2
= 0.5 × 102 nm = 50 nm
⎛ Z2 ⎞
11. Based on equation E = –2.178 × 10–18 J ⎜⎜ 2 ⎟⎟ certain conclusions are written. Which of them is not correct?
⎝n ⎠
[NEET-2013]
(1) Larger the value of n, the larger is the orbit radius
(2) Equation can be used to calculate the change in energy when the electron changes orbit
(3) For n = 1, the electron has a more negative energy than it does for n = 6 which means that the electron
is more loosely bound in the smallest allowed orbit
(4) The negative sign in equation simply means that the energy of electron bound to the nucleus is lower than
it would be if the electrons were at the infinite distance from the nucleus
Sol. Answer (3)
In (n = 1) 1st shell e– is tightly held compared to n = 6 (6th shell)
12. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is
1 1 1 1
(1) 5, 0, 0, + (2) 5, 1, 0, + (3) 5, 1, 1, + (4) 6, 0, 0, +
2 2 2 2
Sol. Answer (1)

Rb = 37 = [Ar] 4s2, 3d10, 4p6 last 5s1 e–
1
∴ n = 5, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
2
13. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with l = 3 and n = 4 is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) 16
Sol. Answer (3)
n=4 l = 3 represents 4f subshell having 7 orbitals
∴ Total number of electrons = 14
14. The orbital angular momentum of a p-electron is given as [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
h h 3h h
(1) (2) 3 (3) (4) 6
2π 2π 2π 2π
Sol. Answer (1)

Angular momentum = l ( l+ 1)
2π
15. The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 32
Sol. Answer (3)
2
Number of orbitals = x n = number of orbit
= 42 = 16
16. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between their
wavelengths i.e. λ1 and λ2 will be [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
1
(1) λ1 = λ (2) λ1 = λ 2 (3) λ1 = 2λ 2 (4) λ1 = 4λ 2
2 2
Sol. Answer (3)
hc hc
λ1 = λ2 = E1 = 25 eV E2 = 50 eV
E1 E2
hc
λ1 = ...... (1)
25
hc
λ2 = ...... (2)
50
hc
λ1 25 λ1
= =2 ∴ =2 λ1 = 2λ 2
λ 2 hc λ2
50
17. If n = 6, the correct sequence of filling of electrons will be [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

(1) ns → np → (n − 1)d → (n − 2)f (2) ns → (n − 2)f → (n − 1)d → np
(3) ns → (n − 1)d → (n − 2)f → np (4) ns → (n − 2)f → np → (n − 1)d
Sol. Answer (2)
Putting the value of n and calculating the (n + l) value
6s < 4f < 5d < 6p

(6 + 0) ( 4 + 3) (5 + 2) ( 6 + 1)
6 7 7 7
(lower energy) → (high energy )
18. According to the Bohr Theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise to the least
energetic photon? [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) n = 6 to n = 5 (2) n = 5 to n = 3 (3) n = 6 to n = 1 (4) n = 5 to n = 4
Sol. Answer (1)
Because (E2 – E1) > (E3 – E2) > (E4 – E3) > (E5 – E4) > (E6 – E5)
As the difference is of one energy levels
∴ (E6 – E5) have less energy
{Alternatively value of ΔE [difference between two successive energy level decreases] as the distance from the
nucleus increases.}
19. A 0.66 kg ball is moving with a speed of 100 m/s. The associated wavelength will be
(h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js) [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
–32 –34 –35
(1) 6.6 × 10 m (2) 6.6 × 10 m (3) 1.0 × 10 m (4) 1.0 × 10–32 m
Sol. Answer (3)
h 6.6 × 10−34 kgm2 s2 − s

λ= = = 1.0 × 10−35 m
mv 0.66 kg × 100 m/s
20. The energy absorbed by each molecule (A2) of a substance is 4.4 × 10–19J and bond energy per molecule is 4.0 ×
10–19 J. The kinetic energy of the molecule per atom will be [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) 2.2 × 10–19 J (2) 2.0 × 10–19 J (3) 4.0 × 10–20J (4) 2.0 × 10–20J
Sol. Answer (4)
KE = Energy observed by molecule – Energy required to break one bond
4.4 × 10−19 J − 4.0 × 10−19 J

KE =
2
⎡ 0.4 × 10−19 ⎤ −19 −20

KE per atom = ⎢ ⎥ = ⎡⎣0.2 × 10 J⎤⎦ = ⎡⎣2 × 10 J⎤⎦
⎣⎢ 2 ⎦⎥
21. Which one of the elements with the following outer orbital configurations may exhibit the largest number of
oxidation states? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) 3d54s1 (2) 3d54s2 (3) 3d24s2 (4) 3d34s2
Sol. Answer (2)
22. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom is determined by the following [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) 2 + 1 (2) 4 – 2 (3) 2n2 (4) 4 + 2
Sol. Answer (4)
23. Which of the following is not permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
1 1
(1) n = 5, = 3, m = 0, s = + (2) n = 3, = 2, m = –3, s = −
2 2
1 1
(3) n = 3, = 2, m = –2, s = − (4) n = 4, = 0, m = 0, s = +
2 2
Sol. Answer (2)
1
n=3 l=2 m = –3 s= −
2
Value of m (orbital) depends upon l i.e., it cannot be more than 'l '. Therefore is wrong.
24. A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a band gap of 2.0 eV. The minimum frequency of the radiation that can
be absorbed by the material is nearly [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) 20 × 1014 Hz (2) 10 × 1014 Hz (3) 5 × 1014 Hz (4) 1 × 1014 Hz
Sol. Answer (3)
25. If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainty in velocity is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
h 1 h h 1 h
(1) (2) (3) (4)
π 2m π 2π m π
Sol. Answer (2)
h
Δx × Δp =
2π
26. The measurement of the electron position is associated with an uncertainty in momentum, which is equal to
1 × 10–18 g cm s–1. The uncertainty in electron velocity is, (Mass of an electron is 9 × 10–28g)
11 –1 9 –1 6 –1
(1) 1 × 10 cm s (2) 1 × 10 cm s (3) 1 × 10 cm s (4) 1 × 105 cm s–1
Sol. Answer (2)
27. Consider the following sets of quantum numbers

n m s
1
(a) 3 0 0 +
2
1
(b) 2 2 1 +
2
1
(c) 4 3 –2 −
2
1
(d) 1 0 –1 −
2
1
(e) 3 2 3 +
2
Which of the following sets of quantum number is not possible? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) a and c (2) b, c and d (3) a, b, c and d (4) b, d and e
Sol. Answer (4)
28. With which of the following configuration an atom has the lowest ionization enthalpy?
(1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (2) 1s2 2s2 2p5 (3) 1s2 2s2 2p3 (4) 1s2 2s2 2p5 3s1
Sol. Answer (4)
29. Given : The mass of electron is 9.11×10–31 kg. Planck’s constant is 6.626×10–34 Js, the uncertainty involved in the
measurement of velocity within a distance of 0.1 Å is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) 5.79 × 106 ms–1 (2) 5.79 × 107 ms–1
(3) 5.79 × 108 ms–1 (4) 5.79 × 105 ms–1
Sol. Answer (1)
h h
Δx × mΔv = Δv =
4π Δx × m × 4 × π
6.6 × 10−34 J-s

Δv = 6
0.1 × 10 −10 m × 9.1 × 10 −31 kg × 4 × 3.14 = 5.799 × 10 m/s
30. The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) Azimuthal quantum number (2) Spin quantum number
(3) Magnetic quantum number (4) Principal quantum number
Sol. Answer (3)
31. The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is –328 kJ mol–1; hence the energy of fourth Bohr orbit would
be [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) –41 kJ mol–1 (2) –1312 kJ mol–1 (3) –164 kJ mol–1 (4) –82 kJ mol–1
Sol. Answer (4)
1312
En = − kJ mol–1 for hydrogen
n2
32. Uncertainty in position of an electron (mass = 9.1 × 10–28g) moving with a velocity of 3 × 104 cm/s accurate
upto 0.001% will be (Use h/(4π) in uncertainty expression where h = 6.626 × 10–27 erg-s)
(1) 5.76 cm (2) 7.68 cm (3) 1.93 cm (4) 3.84 cm
Sol. Answer (3)
3 × 10 4 × 0.001
Δv = cm/second
103 × 100
h 6.6 × 10−34 J-s

Δx = = = 1.93 cm
4πmΔv 0.001
4 × 3.14 × 9.1× 10−28 × × 3 × 104
100
33. The radius of hydrogen atom in the ground state is 0.53 Å. The radius of Li2+ ion (atomic number = 3) in a similar
state is
(1) 0.53 Å (2) 1.06 Å (3) 0.17 Å (4) 0.265 Å
Sol. Answer (3)

2
r0 × n2 0.53 × ( 3 )
rn = = = ( 0.53 × 3 ) Å
z 3
1.59 Å ≈ 1.7 Å
n = 3 orbit
z = 3 Li2+
34. In a Bohr’s model of an atom, when an electron jumps from n = 1 to n = 3, how much energy will be emitted
or absorbed?
(1) 2.389 × 10–12 ergs (2) 0.239 × 10–10 ergs (3) 2.15 × 10–11 ergs (4) 0.1936 × 10–10 ergs
Sol. Answer (4)
1312
Energy of electron when n = 1 E1 = − kJ/mol
(1)2
1312 1312
Energy of electron when n = 3 E3 = − 2
=− kJ/mol
(3) 9
ΔE = E3 − E1
−1312 ⎛ −1312 ⎞
= −⎜ ⎟ = +1166 kJ
9 ⎝ 1 ⎠
= 1166 × 103 J
= 1166 × 10+10 erg
Alternatively
hc ⎡1 1⎤
ΔE = = hc × R ⎢ 2 − 2 ⎥
λ ⎢⎣ n1 n2 ⎥⎦
⎡1 1⎤
= 3.0 × 108 × 6.6 × 10−34 × 8.314 ⎢ 2 − 2 ⎥ J
⎣1 3 ⎦
⎡8 ⎤
= 3.0 × 108 × 6.6 × 10−34 × 8.314 ⎢ ⎥ J
⎣9 ⎦
35. The electronic configuration of gadolinium (Atomic No. 64) is

(1) [Xe]4f 3 5d 5 6s2 (2) [Xe]4f 6 5d 2 6d 2 (3) [Xe]4f 8 5d 9 6s2 (4) [Xe] 4f 7 5d 1 6s 2
Sol. Answer (4)
Gd have exceptional configuration e– will enter in 5d because 4f have 7 electrons and have half filled stability
Gd = [Xe]54 4f 7 5d 1 6s 2
36. The ion that is isoelectronic with CO is

(1) CN– (2) N2+ (3) O2– (4) N2–
Sol. Answer (1)
Isoelectronic means same number of electrons
CO = Number of electrons = 14
CN– = 6 + 7 + 1 = 14
37. The Bohr orbit radius for the hydrogen atom (n = 1) is approximately 0.530 Å. The radius for the first excited state
(n = 2) orbit is (in Å)
(1) 4.77 (2) 1.06 (3) 0.13 (4) 2.12
Sol. Answer (4)
r0 × n2
rn = n = Number of orbit, z = charge on nucleus
z
n=2
Ist excited state for H =
z =1
2
0.53 × ( 2 )
=
1
= 0.53 × 4 = 2.12 Å
38. The position of both, an electron and a helium atom is known within 1.0 nm. Further the momentum of the electron
is known within 5.0 × 10–26 kg ms–1. The minimum uncertainty in the measurement of the momentum of the
helium atom is
(1) 8.0 × 10–26 kg ms–1
(2) 80 kg ms–1
(3) 50 kg ms–1
(4) 5.0 × 10–26 kg ms–1
Sol. Answer (4)
h
Δx electron × ΔPelectron =
4π
h
Δxelectron =
4π ΔPelectron
Δx electron = ΔxHe = 1.0 nm
h
ΔxHe × ΔPHe =
4π
h
ΔxHe =
4πΔPHe
h h
∴ =
4πΔPelectron 4πΔPHe
ΔPHe = 5.0 × 10 −26 kg ms −1
39. Which of the following configuration is correct for iron?

(1) 1s 22s 22p63s 23p64s23d 7 (2) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d 5
(3) 1s22s22p63s 23p63d 5 (4) 1s 22s 22p63s 23p64s23d 6
Sol. Answer (4)
Fe = 26 = 1s 2, 2s 2, 2p6, 3s 2, 3p6, 4s 2, 3d 6
40. Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired d-electrons?

(1) N3+ (2) Fe2+ (3) Zn+ (4) Cu+
Sol. Answer (2)
N3+ = 4 = 1s 2, 2s 2 Zero unpaired
Fe2+ = 24 = 1s 2, 2s 2, 2p6, 3s 2, 3p6, 3d 6 Four unpaired
Zn⊕ = 29 = 1s 2, 2s 2, 2p6, 3s 2, 3p6, 4s 1, 3d 10 One unpaired

Cu⊕ = 28 = 1s 2, 2s 2, 2p6, 3s 2, 3p6, 4s 0, 3d 10 Zero unpaired
41. Who modified Bohr’s theory by introducing elliptical orbits for electron path?
(1) Rutherford (2) Thomson (3) Hund (4) Sommerfield
Sol. Answer (4)
1 2
n length of major axis 3
=
k length of minor axis
Number of elliptrical orbit in shell = (n – 1)
42. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle with mass 1 g and velocity 100 m/s is
(1) 6.63 × 10–35 m (2) 6.63 × 10–34 m (3) 6.63 × 10–33 m (4) 6.65 × 10–35 m
Sol. Answer (3)
h
λ= m = 1 g = 0.001 kg v = 100 m/s
mv
6.6 × 10−34 kg m2 s−2

λ=
0.001 kg × 100 m/s
λ = 6.63 × 10−33 m
43. The following quantum numbers are possible for how many orbitals : n = 3, l = 2, m = +2?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Sol. Answer (1)
As the value of m = + 2
i.e. one value
Therefore one orbital is represented.
44. The frequency of radiation emitted when the electron falls from n = 4 to n = 1 in a hydrogen
atom will be (Given ionization energy of H = 2.18 × 10–18 J atom–1 and h = 6.625 × 10–34 Js)
(1) 1.54 × 1015 s–1 (2) 1.03 × 1015 s–1
(3) 3.08 × 1015 s–1 (4) 2.00 × 1015 s–1
Sol. Answer (3)
c ⎡1 1⎤
ν= = c × R ⎢ 2 − 2 ⎥ z2
λ ⎣⎢ n1 n2 ⎦⎥
⎡1 1⎤ 2
ν = 3.0 × 1010 × 109678 ⎢ 2 − 2 ⎥ × (1)
⎣1 4 ⎦
10 ⎡15 ⎤
ν = 3× 10
× 109678 cm−1 ⎢ ⎥ = 3.09 × 1015 s−1
10 ⎣16 ⎦
Alternatively
I ⋅ E = E∞ – E1
2.18 × 10−18 = E∞ − E1
E1 = −2.18 × 10 −18 J
2.18 × 10−18 2.18 × 10−18

E4 = − 2
=− = −0.136 × 10 −18 J
( 4) 16
ΔE = E 4 − E1 ⎡⎣ −0.136 − ( −2.18 ) ⎤⎦ × 10 −18
hc
= 2.04 × 10 −18 λ= .... (1)
ΔE
c
v= .... (2)
λ
Put (1) in (2)
c ΔE
v= × ΔE =
hc h
2.04 × 10 −18
v= = 0.309 × 10+16 = 3.09 × 1015 s−1
6.6 × 10 −34
45. Which one of the following ions has electronic configuration [Ar]3d6?
(1) Co3+ (2) Ni3+
(3) Mn3+ (4) Fe3+
(At. nos. Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28)
Sol. Answer (1)

Electronic configuration [Ar] 3d6 represents 24 electrons
i.e. Co3+ = 24 e−
Ni3+ = 28 – 3 = 25 e–
Mn3+ = 25 – 3 = 22 e–
Fe3+ = 26 – 3 = 23 e–
46. Which of the following is not among shortcomings of Bohr’s model?
(1) Bohr theory could not account for the fine lines in the atomic spectrum
(2) Bohr theory was unable to account for the splitting of the spectral lines in the presence of magnetic field
(3) Bohr theory failed for He atom
(4) It did not give information about energy level
Sol. Answer (4)
Bohr's model explain the energy level i.e. Energy of electron in each orbital is quantized.
−1312
En = 2
z2 kJ/mol
x
47. Number of spectral lines falling in Balmer series when electrons are de-excited from nth shell will be given as
(1) (n – 2) in UV (2) (n – 2) in visible region
(3) (n – 3) in near IR (4) (n – 3) in far IR
Sol. Answer (2)
48. The ratio of the energy required to remove an electron from the first three Bohr’s orbits of hydrogen is
(1) 3 : 2 : 1 (2) 9 : 4 : 1 (3) 36 : 9 : 4 (4) 1 : 4 : 9
Sol. Answer (3)
−1312 x
En = 2
=
x x2
x x x
E1 = + E2 = E3 =
2
1 2 2
32
1 1 1 36 : 9 : 4
: : = = 36 : 9 : 4
1 4 9 36
SECTION - D
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
1. A : Orbital angular momentum of (1s, 2s, 3s etc.) all s electrons is same.

R : Orbital angular momentum depends on orientation of orbitals.
Sol. Answer (3)
2. A : Energy of electron is taken negative.
R : Energy of electron at infinity is zero.
Sol. Answer (1)
3. A : Bohr’s orbits are also called stationary states.

R : Electrons are stationary in an orbit.
Sol. Answer (3)
4. A : K.E. of two subatomic particles, having same de-Broglie’s wavelength is same.

R : de-Broglie’s wavelength is directly related to mass of subatomic particles.
Sol. Answer (4)
5. A : Electronic energy for hydrogen atom of different orbitals follow the sequence :
1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p = 3d.
R : Electronic energy for hydrogen atom depends only on n and is independent of ‘l’ & ‘m’ values.
Sol. Answer (1)
6. A : Wavelength for first line of any series in hydrogen spectrum is biggest among all other lines of the same
series.
R : Wavelength of spectral line for an electronic transition is inversely related to difference in the energy levels
involved in the transition.
Sol. Answer (1)
7. A : Zn(II) salts are diamagnetic.

R : Zn2+ ion has one unpaired electron.
Sol. Answer (3)
8. A : In third energy level there is no f-subshell.

R : For n = 3, the possible values of l are 0, 1, 2 and for f-subshell l = 3.
Sol. Answer (1)
9. A : The charge to mass ratio of the particles in anode rays depends on nature of gas taken in the discharge
tube.
R : The particles of anode rays carry positive charge.
Sol. Answer (2)
10. A : Angular momentum of an electron in an atom is quantized.

R : In an atom only those orbits are permitted in which angular momentum of the electron is a natural number
h
multiple of .
2π
Sol. Answer (1)
11. A : The radius of second orbit of He+ is equal to that of first orbit of hydrogen.
R : The radius of an orbit in hydrogen like species is directly proportional to n and inversely proportional to
Z.
Sol. Answer (4)
12. A : The orbitals having equal energy are known as degenerate orbitals.
R : The three 2p orbitals are degenerate in the presence of external magnetic field.
Sol. Answer (3)
13. A : In a multielectron atom, the electrons in different sub-shells have different energies.
R : Energy of an orbital depends upon n + l value.
Sol. Answer (1)
14. A : Isotopes of an element have almost similar chemical properties.

R : Isotopes have same electronic configuration.
Sol. Answer (1)
15. A : The number of angular nodes in 3d z2 is zero.
R : Number of angular nodes of atomic orbitals is equal to value of l.

Sol. Answer (2)

Chapter 3
Classification of Elements and

Periodicity in Properties
Solutions
SECTION - A
(Modern Periodic Law and The Present form of The Periodic Table)
1. The valence shell electronic configuration of transition elements is
(1) ns1 (2) ns2np5
(3) ns 0–2 (n – 1) d1–10 (4) ns2 (n – 1)d10
Sol. Answer (3)
Transition elements = d-block elements i.e., ns0 – 2(n – 1)d1 – 10

2. Eka-aluminium and Eka-silicon are known as
(1) Gallium and Germanium (2) Aluminium and Silicon
(3) Iron and Sulphur (4) Boron and Technitium
Sol. Answer (1)

Eka – Aluminium = Gallium
Eka – Silicon = Germanium

[Eka means have configuration similar] Name given by Mendleev
3. Which is mismatched regarding the position of the element as given below?

(1) X(Z = 89) - f block, 6th period
(2) Y(Z = 100) - f block, 7th period

(3) Z(Z = 115) - d block, 7th period
(4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
⎡ z = 89 = Ac = d − block 7th period ⎤

⎢ th
⎥
⎣⎢ z = 115 = Uup = p − block 7 period⎦⎥
66 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Solutions of Assignment
4. Modern periodic law is

(1) The physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic function of their atomic numbers
(2) The physical and chemical properties of the elements depend upon the energy of the electrons
(3) The physical and chemical properties of the elements depend upon atomic wt.
(4) None of these
Sol. Answer (1)
According to modern periodic law physical and chemical properties are periodic function of their atomic number.
5. Which of the following statements about modern periodic table is incorrect?
(1) The p-block has 6 column because a maximum of 6 electrons can occupy all the orbitals in the p-subshell
(2) The d-block has 8 columns because a maximum of 8 electrons can occupy all the orbitals in the d-subshell
(3) Each block contains a number of columns equal to number of electrons that can occupy the subshell
(4) The block indicates the value of azimuthal quantum number for the last subshell which received electrons
Sol. Answer (2)
d-block has 10 column because d-subshell have five orbitals and contain maximum 10 electrons.
6. Elements which generally exhibit multiple oxidation states and whose ions are usually coloured are
(1) Metalloids (2) Transition elements
(3) Non-metals (4) Gases
Sol. Answer (2)
Transition metal (elements except Zn, Cd, Hg) shows variable oxidation state and ions are coloured due to
d-d. transition.
7. IUPAC name of element having atomic number 108 is
(1) Unniloctium (2) Ununoctium (3) Nilniloctinium (4) Ununoctinium
Sol. Answer (1)
⎧ 1 = un
⎪
0 = nil
For 108 ⎨ 108 = Unniloctium
⎪8 = octium
⎩
8. Which of the following is a representative element?
(1) Zn (2) Sr (3) Cu (4) Fe
Sol. Answer (2)
s-block and p-block are representative elements. Sr is member of group 2. i.e., alhaline earth metals.
9. Which of the following is not correct for iso-electronic ions?
(1) They have the same number of electrons around their nuclei
(2) Higher the atomic number, higher will be positive charge in a series of isoelectronic ions of same period
(3) Isoelectronic ions have same electric charge
(4) An isoelectronic series may have both positively and negatively charged ions
Sol. Answer (3)
Isoelectronic have same number of electrons not same isoelectric charge. For example N3– O2– F– are
isoelectronic but have different charge.
Solutions of Assignment Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 67
10. Which of the following oxide is expected to react readily with NaOH?
(1) Na2O (2) CaO (3) NO (4) Cl2O7
Sol. Answer (4)
On moving in a period from left to right acidic character increases.
∴ Cl2O7 have maximum acidic character and it reacts with NaOH readily.
11. Match the following, regarding nature of the oxides
Column-I Column-II
a. N2O (i) Basic
b. BaO (ii) Amphoteric
c. As2O3 (iii) Acidic
d. Cl2O7 (iv) Neutral
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
Sol. Answer (3)
⎡ N2 O = Neutral oxide
⎢ BaO = Basic oxide
⎢
⎢ As2O3 = Amphoteric oxide
⎢
⎣ Cl2 O7 = Acidic oxide
(Periodic Trends in Physics Properties)
12. When a neutral atom is converted into a cation its
(1) Atomic weight increases (2) Atomic weight decreases
(3) Size increases (4) Size decreases
Sol. Answer (4)
When an electron is removed from neutral atom nuclear change per electron increases. As a result size decreases.
Na ⎯⎯→ Na⊕ + e−
186 pm 95 pm
13. Of the following, which one is a correct statement?

(1) Ionic radius of a metal is same as its atomic radius
(2) The ionic radius of a metal is greater than its atomic radius
(3) The atomic radius of a non-metal is more than its ionic radius
(4) The ionic radius of a metal is less than its atomic radius
Sol. Answer (4)
Metals are electropositive in nature i.e., loose e–, therefore its ionic radius will be less than the atomic radius.
i.e., nuclear charge per electron decreases
14. Which of the following N3–, O2–, F– is largest in size?
(1) N3– (2) O2– (3) F– (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (1)
More the negative charge more will be the size because attraction per electron decreases.
∴ N3– have maximum negative charge have maximum size.
15. The radii of F, F–, O and O2– are in the order

(1) O2– > O > F– > F (2) F– > O2– > F > O
(3) O2– > F– > O > F (4) O2 > F– > F > O
Sol. Answer (3)
Left to right size decreases due to increase in effective nuclear charge.
∴ Size of O > F
O is more size, F is less size
but O2– have more charge than F–
∴ O2– have more size than F(–). Size of anion is always more than neutral charges.
O2– > F– > O > F
16. Which of the following is correct?
(1) rionic ∝ Z (2) rionic ∝ Zeff
1
(3) rionic ∝ (4) rionic ∝ Z 2eff
Z eff
Sol. Answer (3)

On increasing effective nuclear charge ionic size decreases.
1
r ionic ∝
Zeff
17. Which ion has the largest radius?

(1) Se2– (2) F– (3) O2– (4) Rb+
Sol. Answer (1)
Se2– have maximum size due to less effective nuclear charge.
18. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3. What is the atomic number of the element,
which is just below the above element in the periodic table?
(1) 36 (2) 49 (3) 33 (4) 34
Sol. Answer (3)
Electronic configuration represents 'P'. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p3 = 15 down the group add 18e– because 3rd period
have 18 elements.
∴ Atomic number of element below is 33.
19. Which of the following has the greatest electron affinity?
(1) I (2) Br (3) F (4) Cl
Sol. Answer (4)
Smaller the size more will be the electron affinity due to more attraction towards new electron but as size of
F is less it is expected to have more electron affinity but actually F have 7 e– in outermost shell (and have
smaller size) cause repulsion towards new e–.
∴ Cl > F
Cl (more electron affinity), F (less electron affinity)
20. Which one of the following is correct order of the size of iodine species?
(1) I+ > I– > I
(2) I– > I > I+
(3) I > I– > I+
(4) I > I+ > I–
Sol. Answer (2)
Size of anion is more than parent atom due to less effective nuclear charge on outermost electrons. Size of
cation is less due to more effective nuclear charge.
∴ I– > I > I(+) size order.
21. The first ionization potentials (eV) of Be and B respectively are
(1) 8.29, 8.29 (2) 9.32, 9.32
(3) 8.29, 9.32 (4) 9.32, 8.29
Sol. Answer (4)
Be = 1s2, 2s2 ⎡Behave has stable configuration therefore ⎤
⎢it have more IP than B ⎥
B = 1s2, 2s2, 2p1 ⎣ ⎦
⎡9.32 eV for Be ⎤
i.e., ⎢ ⎥
⎣ 8.29 eV for B ⎦
22. Identify the correct order of the size of the following

(1) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < Cl– < S2– (2) Ar < Ca2+ < K+ < Cl– < S2–
(3) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ < Cl– < S2– (4) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < S2– < Cl–
Sol. Answer (1)
2+ + – 2–
Ca < K < Ar < Cl < S
Smaller size Larger size due to
due to more effective less effective nuclear charge
nuclear charge i.e., attraction per electron
and more the positive decreases.
charge smaller will be
the size
23. Which of the following processes involves absorption of energy?
(1) Cl(g) + e − ⎯⎯
→ Cl− (g) (2) O− (g) + e − ⎯⎯
→ O2 − (g)
(3) O(g) + e− ⎯⎯
→ O− (g) (4) S(g) + e− ⎯⎯
→ S− (g)
Sol. Answer (2)

Second electron gain enthalpy is always positive because after first e– ion will have negative charge shows
repulsion towards new electron.
24. Energy required for the ionisation of 0.02 gram atom of magnesium is x kJ. The amount of energy required to ionise
1 atom of magnesium is
3
x x × 10
(1) x kJ (2) J (3) J (4) xNA kJ
0.02N A 0.02NA
Sol. Answer (3)

0.02 g-atom = 0.02 moL atom = 0.02 × N0 atom
0.02 × N0 atom have ionisation energy = x kJ
x
1 atom have ionisation energy = 0.02 × N kJ
0
x × 103
= J
0.02 × N0
25. The element with highest electron affinity will belong to

(1) Period 2, group 17
Sol. Answer (2)
Highest electron affinity will be of Cl that is present in group 17 and 3rd period.
SECTION - B
(Modern Periodic Law and The Present form of The Periodic Table)
1. Ca2+ is isoelectronic with

(1) Mg2+ (2) Kr (3) Ar (4) Na+
Sol. Answer (3)
Isoelectronic means same number of electrons.
Ca2+ = 18
Ar = 18
2. An atom of an element has electronic configuration 2, 8, 1. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) The valency of element is 7 (2) The element exists as a triatomic molecule
(3) The element is metalloid (4) The element forms basic oxide
Sol. Answer (4)
Electronic configuration indicates that 1 e– is present in outermost shell.
It will easily lose electrons
∴ It is metal and form basic oxide
1
2 Na + O2 ⎯⎯→ Na2O
2
3. The symbol of element with atomic number Z = 109
(1) Unp (2) Uns (3) Uno (4) Une
Sol. Answer (4)
109 = Une
4. Pd has exceptional electronic configuration of 4d10 5s0. It belong to
(1) 4th period, group 11 (2) 5th period, group 10
(3) 6th period, group 9 (4) 3rd period, group 16
Sol. Answer (2)
Pd = 4d10, 5s0 member of 4d series i.e., 5th period and 10th group.
5. All elements in the third period have
(1) Three complete shells (2) Three complete subshells
(3) Three valence electrons (4) Three electrons less than octet
Sol. Answer (2)
3rd period = 3d10, 3s2, 3p6 three subshells are last electrons enters in d-subshell.
∴ It is d-block elements.
6. Which one of the following represents a d-block element?
(1) [Rn] 6d10 7s2 7p2 (2) [Xe] 4f1 5d1 6s2
(3) [Xe] 4f14 5d1 6s2 (4) [Xe] 5d1 6s2
Sol. Answer (4)
Last electrons enters in d-subshell
∴ It is d-block elements.
7. Which of the following set of atomic number represents only representative elements?
(1) 55, 12, 48, 53 (2) 13, 23, 54, 83
(3) 3, 33, 53, 87 (4) 22, 33, 55, 66
Sol. Answer (3)
Representative element includes S ∝ p-block
Li at no. = 3 1s2, 2s2
As at 33 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2, 3d10, 4p3
I at 53 5s2, sp5
Fr at 87 7s1
8. Which of the following pairs of atomic numbers represents elements belonging to the same group?
(1) 11 and 20 (2) 12 and 30 (3) 13 and 31 (4) 14 and 33
Sol. Answer (3)
Atomic number 13 = Al group 13
Atomic number 31 = Ga group 13
9. Total number of elements present in 5th period of modern periodic table is
(1) 2 (2) 8 (3) 18 (4) 32
Sol. Answer (3)
Total number of 18 elements are present in fifth period i.e.,
2, 8, 8, 18, 18, 32
1 2
st nd
3
rd
4 5 6
th th th
(Periodic Trends in Physics Properties)

10. The electronegativity follows the order
(1) F > O > Cl > Br (2) F > Cl > Br > O
(3) O > F > Cl > Br (4) Cl > F > O > Br
Sol. Answer (1)
⎡down the group e− negativity decreases ⎤

F > O > Cl > Br ⎢ −
⎥
⎣⎢left to right e negativity increases ⎦⎥
∴ F have more electron affinity than 'O',
⎡O have more than Cl due to same ⎤

⎢Cl and Br have less ⎥
⎣ ⎦
11. The correct order of shielding effect of s, p, d and f orbitals is
(1) s > p > d > f (2) s < p < d > f (3) s < p < d < f (4) s > p < d < f
Sol. Answer (1)
s is more closer to nucleus i.e., shielding effect α distance from nucleus.
∴ s>p>d>f
12. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) The ionization potential of nitrogen is greater than that of oxygen
(2) The electron affinity of fluorine is greater than that of chlorine
(3) The ionization potential of Mg is greater than aluminium
(4) The electronegativity of fluorine is greater than that of chlorine
Sol. Answer (2)
Electron affinity of F is less than chlorine because of smaller size more will be the repulsion towards new
electron.
13. Increase in atomic size down the group is due to
(1) Increase in number of orbit
(2) Increase in number of protons and neutrons
(3) Increase in number of protons
(4) Increase in number of protons, neutrons and electrons
Sol. Answer (1)
On moving down the group no. of shells are added
∴ Size increases
14. In which of the following pairs the radii of second species is greater than that of first?
(1) K, Ca
(2) H, He
(3) Mg+, Mg2+
(4) O2–, O–
Sol. Answer (2)
He has more size than 'H' because of (1s2) completely filled s-subshell.
15. The successive ionization energies for element X is given below
IE1 : 250 kJ mol–1
IE2 : 820 kJ mol–1
IE3 : 1100 kJ mol–1
IE4 : 1400 kJ mol–1
Find out the number of valence electrons for the element X.
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1
Sol. Answer (4)
Difference between IE1 and IE2 is high then the number of valence electron in the element is one.
16. If you are given Avogadro’s number of atoms of a gas ‘X’. If half of the atoms are converted into X(g)+ by energy
ΔH. The IE of X is
2ΔH
(1) NA
2NA
(2)
ΔH
ΔH
(3) 2N
A
NA
(4)
ΔH
Sol. Answer (1)
1
NA atoms have ionisation energy = ΔH
2
ΔH × 2
NA atom have ionisation energy = NA
17. Find the formula of halide of a metal whose successive ionization enthalpies are x, 2x, 5x, 100x kJ mol–1
respectively
(1) MX (2) MX2 (3) MX3 (4) M2X
Sol. Answer (3)
There is large difference between 3rd and 4th I.E.
∴ +3 oxidation state will be more stable and the formula of halide is MX3.
18. Which of the following equation represents first enthalpy of ionization ?
(1) Hg(s) ⎯→ Hg+(g) + e– (2) Hg(l) ⎯→ Hg+(g) + e–
(3) Hg(g) ⎯→ Hg+(g) + e– (4) Hg+(g) ⎯→ Hg(g)2+ + e–
Sol. Answer (3)
I.E. is the amount of energy required to remove an electron from an isolated gaseous atom.
19. The energy required to convert all atoms present in 1.2 g magnesium to Mg2+ ions if IE, and IE2 of magnesium
are 120 kJ mol–1 and 240 kJ mol–1 respectively
(1) 18 kJ (2) 36 kJ (3) 360 kJ (4) 24 kJ
Sol. Answer (1)
1.2
Moles of Mg = = 0.05 moL
24
Mg → Mg2+ + 2e– I.E. = I.E1 + I.E2 = 120 + 240
energy required
1 moL ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ = 360 kJ/moL
⎯→
energy required
0.05 moL ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ = 360 × 0.05 = 18 kJ
⎯→
20. The process requiring absorption of energy is
(1) F → F– (2) H → H+
(3) Cl → Cl– (4) O → O–
Sol. Answer (2)
I.Energy is the absorption of energy.
21. The least electronegative element has the following electronic configuration
(1) ns2np5 (2) ns2np4 (3) ns2np3 (4) ns2np6
Sol. Answer (4)
Full filled electronic configuration element do not attract electron
i.e., ns2, np6
22. Which of the following is correct order of metallic character for Si, Be, Mg, Na and P?
(1) P < Si < Be < Na < Mg (2) P < Si < Be < Mg < Na
(3) Na > Be > Mg > Be > P (4) Na > Si > Mg > Be > P
Sol. Answer (2)
Left to right metallic character decreases
Top to bottom metallic character increases
∴ P (less metallic due to smaller size) < Si < Be < Mg < Na (more metallic due to large size)
23. With which of the following electronic configuration an atom has the lowest ionization enthalpy?
(1) 1s2 2s2 2p3 (2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
(3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (4) 1s2 2s2 2p5
Sol. Answer (2)
24. The electronic configuration having maximum difference in first and second ionization energies is
(1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 (2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1
(3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2 (4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
Sol. Answer (4)
After removing 1 e– it will get stable noble gas configuration.
25. The electronic configurations of the elements X, Y, Z and J are given below. Which element has the highest
metallic character?
(1) X = 2, 8, 4 (2) Y = 2, 8, 8
(3) Z = 2, 8, 8, 1 (4) J = 2, 8, 8, 7
Sol. Answer (3)
Element Z have 1 electron in 4th shell
∴ it will easily lose to get noble gas configuration.
SECTION - C
1. The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently. It will belong to which of the following family group and
electronic configuration? [NEET-2017]
(1) Halogen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p5 (2) Carbon family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p2
(3) Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p4 (4) Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p6
Answer (2)
Sol. Z = 114 belong to Group 14, carbon family
2. In which of the following options, the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated
against it? [NEET-2016]
(1) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
(2) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– (increasing ionic size)
(3) B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
(4) I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
Sol. Answer (3 & 4)
For option (3) :
The correct order for 1st ionisation energy is B < C < O < N.
For option (4) :
The correct order for magnitude of electron gain enthalpy is I < Br < F < Cl
3. The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their radii increase?
[AIPMT-2015]
(1) K+ < Ar < Ca2+ (2) Ar < K+ < Ca2+
(3) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ (4) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar
Sol. Answer (4)
4. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented ? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) H– > H+ > H (2) Na+>F–>O2–
(3) O2– > F– > Na+ (4) Al3+>Mg2+>N3–
Sol. Answer (3)
5. Identify the wrong statement in the following. [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Atomic radius of the elements increases as one moves down the first group of the periodic table
(2) Atomic radius of the elements decreases as one moves across from left to right in the 2nd period of the
periodic table
(3) Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic radius
(4) Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the negative charge on the anion, larger is the ionic radius
Sol. Answer (3)
In isoelectronic species i.e., same number of electrons.
⎧more the positive charge; smaller will be the size ⎫

⎨ ⎬
⎩more the negative charge; larger will be the size ⎭
6. What is the value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ if IE1 of Na = 5.1 eV? [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) +2.55 eV (2) +10.2 eV
(3) –5.1 eV (4) –10.2 eV
Sol. Answer (3)
Electron gain enthalpy is negative of I.E. i.e., –5.1 eV
7. Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing electron gain enthalpy with negative sign for the
elements O, S, F and Cl ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Cl < F < O < S (2) O < S < F < Cl
(3) F < S < O < Cl (4) S < O < Cl < F
Sol. Answer (2)
8. The correct order of the decreasing ionic radii among the following is electronic species are
(1) Ca2+ > K+ > S2– > Cl– (2) Cl– > S2– > Ca2+ > K+
(3) S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+ (4) K+ > Ca2+ > Cl– > S2–
Sol. Answer (3)
9. Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order of increasing atomic radii is [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Mg < Ca < Cl < P (2) Cl < P < Mg < Ca
(3) P < Cl < Ca < Mg (4) Ca < Mg < P < Cl
Sol. Answer (2)
Mg P Cl ⎧left to right size decreases ⎫

⎨ ⎬
⎩ down the group size increases ⎭
Ca
i.e., Ca > Mg > P > Cl
10. Amongst the elements with following electronic configurations, which one of them may have the highest ionization
energy? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Ne [3s23p2] (2) Ar [3d104s24p3]
(3) Ne [3s23p1] (4) Ne [3s23p3]
Sol. Answer (4)
Half filled stability 3s2 3p3
11. Identify the correct order of the size of the following [AIPMT(Prelims)-2007]
2+ + – 2– 2+ + 2– –
(1) Ca < Ar < K < Cl < S (2) Ca < K < Ar < S < Cl
(3) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < Cl– < S2– (4) Ar < Ca2+ < K+ < Cl– < S2–
Sol. Answer (3)
12. Which one of the following arrangements represents the correct order of electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign)
of the given atomic species ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Cl < F < S < O (2) O < S < F < Cl
(3) S < O < Cl < F (4) F < Cl < O < S
Sol. Answer (2)
Cl have more electron gain enthalpy than F { due to smaller size of F and 'O' it will show repulsion}
S have more electron gain enthalpy than O
∴ Order will be O < S < F < Cl
13. Which one of the following arrangements represents the correct order of least negative to most negative electron
gain enthalpy for C, Ca, Al, F and O?
(1) Ca < Al < C < O < F (2) Al < Ca < O < C < F
(3) Al < O < C < Ca < F (4) C < F < O < Al < Ca
Sol. Answer (1)
C<O<F
Left to right electronegativity increases
Down the group electronegativity decreases
∴ Ca < Al < C < O < F
14. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p2. What is the atomic number of
the element, which is just below the above element in the periodic table?
(1) 36 (2) 49 (3) 50 (4) 54
Sol. Answer (3)
Atomic number of element = 32, below element have atomic number 32 + 18 = 50.
15. Which of the following ion is the largest in size?
(1) K+ (2) Ca2+ (3) Cl– (4) S–2
Sol. Answer (4)
All are isoelectronic and more the negative charge more will be the size.
16. The electronic configuration of inner transition elements is
(1) ns1 (2) ns2np5nd10
(3) ns 0–2 (n – 1) d1–10 (n – 2) f1–14 (4) ns2 (n – 1) d0–1 (n – 2) f1–14
Sol. Answer (4)
ns2(n – 1)d0 – 1(n – 2)f1 – 14
17. Which of the following has the smallest size?
(1) Al3+ (2) F– (3) Na+ (4) Mg2+
Sol. Answer (1)
More the positive charge smaller will be the size for isoelectronic elements.
18. Which one of the following is correct order of the size of aluminium species?
(1) Al > Al+ > Al2+ (2) Al2+ > Al+ > Al
(3) Al2+ = Al+ = Al (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Size of positive charge atom i.e., cation is always lesser than parent atom due to increase in effective nuclear
charge i.e., Al > Al⊕ > Al 2+
19. The first ionization potentials (eV) of N and O respectively are

(1) 8.29, 8.29 (2) 11.32, 11.32
(3) 8.29, 11.32 (4) 11.32, 8.21
Sol. Answer (4)
N (2s2, 2p3) have half filled more ionisation than 'O' (2s2, 2p4) stability potential not half filed
⎧N = 11.32 eV ⎫
∴ ⎨ ⎬
⎩ O = 8.21 eV ⎭
20. Correct order of Ist ionization potential among elements Be, B, C, N, O is

(1) B < Be < C < O < N (2) B < Be < C < N < O
(3) Be < B < C < N < O (4) Be < B < C < O < N
Sol. Answer (1)
Left to right in period I.E increases and half filled have more I.E.
1st I.E [B < Be (more I.E. due to half filled) < C < O < N (more I.E. than 'O' due to half filled)]
21. An atom has electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3 4s2, you will place it in which group of periodic
table?
(1) Fifth (2) Fifteenth
(3) Second (4) Third
Sol. Answer (1)
3d3, 4s2 = 5 placed in fifth group
22. Ionic radii are
(1) Inversely proportional to effective nuclear charge
(2) Inversely proportional to square of effective nuclear charge
(3) Directly proportional to effective nuclear charge
(4) Directly proportional to square of effective nuclear charge
Sol. Answer (1)
1
Ionic radii ∝
effective nuclear charge
23. Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with their atomic numbers. Which
one of them is expected to have the highest third ionisation enthalpy?
(1) Vanadium (Z = 23)
(2) Chromium (Z = 24)
(3) Manganese (Z = 25)
(4) Iron (Z = 26)
Sol. Answer (3)
Mn = 25 = 4s2, 3d5 after removing 2 electrons from 4s Mn will get stable configuration i.e., 3d5
3rd I.E. will be more
24. The element with highest electronegativity will belong to
(1) Period 2, group 17 (2) Period 3, group 17
(3) Period 2, group 18 (4) Period 2, group 1
Sol. Answer (1)
Most electronegative is 'F' belongs to group 17 and period 2.
25. The first, second and third ionisation energies of Al are 578, 1817 and 2745 kJ mol–1 respectively. Calculate the
energy required to convert all the atoms of Al to Al+3 present in 270 mg of Al vapours
(1) 5140 kJ (2) 51.40 kJ (3) 2745 kJ (4) 514.0 kJ
Sol. Answer (2)
270 × 10−3
Moles of Al = = 10−2 moles
27
Al ⎯⎯→ Al3+ + 3l–
Total I.E. = 578 + 1817 + 2745 = 5140 kJ/mol
for 1 mol have I.E = 5140
10–2 mol have I.E will be = 5140 × 10–2 = 51.40 kJ
26. The size of ionic species is correctly given in the order
(1) Na+ > Mg+2 > Cl+7 > Si4+ (2) Na+ > Mg+2 > Si4+ > Cl+7
(3) Cl+7 > Si+4 > Mg+2 > Na+ (4) Cl+7 > Na+ > Mg+2 > Si+4
Sol. Answer (2)
For isoelectronic more than negative charge smaller will be the size
∴ Na+ > Mg2+ > Si4+ > Cl+7
27. Match the following, regarding nature of the oxides
Column-I Column-II
a. H2O (i) Basic
b. Na2O (ii) Amphoteric
c. ZnO (iii) Acidic
d. SO3 (iv) Neutral
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
Sol. Answer (3)
H2O ⎯→ Neutral ZnO = amphoteric
Na2O ⎯→ Basic SO3 = Acidic
28. Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions?
(1) H+ (2) Li+ (3) Na+ (4) Mg2+
Sol. Answer (2)
– –
e e
+
H 1 H 0
He 2
+
Li 3 Li 2
2+
Be 4 Be 2
SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : Be and Al show diagonal relationship.

R : Be and Al are diagonal to each other in the periodic table.
Sol. Answer (2)
2. A : The first ionisation energy of Al is lower than magnesium.
R : Atomic radius of Al is smaller then magnesium.
Sol. Answer (2)
3. A : He and Be have similar outer shell electronic configuration of type ns2.
R : Both are chemically inert.
Sol. Answer (3)
4. A : Electron affinity of oxygen is higher than sulphur.
R : Number of valence orbitals containing electrons are different.
Sol. Answer (4)
5. A : Ionization enthalpy decreases on moving down the group.
R : Force of attraction between nucleus and electrons decreases on moving down the group.
Sol. Answer (1)
6. A : Atomic radii decreases in a period upto halogen.
R : van der Waal radii of Cl is larger than its covalent radii.
Sol. Answer (2)
7. A : Lanthanum (Z : 57) is lanthanoid.
R : Valence electrons are present in 4f orbital.
Sol. Answer (4)
8. A : Na2O is more basic than Al2O3.
R : Sodium is less electropositive than aluminium.
Sol. Answer (3)
9. A : F is most electronegative element of periodic table.
R : Cl is having highest electron affinity.
Sol. Answer (2)
10. A : Cu, Ag, Au are known as coinage metal.
R : Coinage metals are d-block metals.
Sol. Answer (2)

Chapter 4
Chemical Bonding and Molecular

Structure
Solutions
SECTION - A
(Kossel - Lewis Approach to Chemical Bonding, Ionic Bond, Bond Parameters)
1. The correct sequence of increasing covalent character is represented by

(1) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2 (2) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl
(3) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2 (4) BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl
Sol. Answer (3)
According to Fajan's Rule smaller the size of cation; larger the size of anion more will be the covalent character.
Be2+ < Li+ < Na+ size of cation.
∴ Order of covalent character will be BeCl2 > LiCl > NaCl
2. The formal charges of oxygen labelled 3,2,1 in ozone respectively are
1
O
2 3
O O
(1) –1, +1, 0 (2) 0, 0, –1 (3) –1, 0, +1 (4) 0, +1, –1
Sol. Answer (3)

+1
⎡ 1 ⎤ O1
Formal charge = ⎢ V – L – S⎥ 0 –1
⎣ 2 ⎦ O2 O
3
1
⎡ V = valence e – ⎤ F.C on O1 = 6 – 2 – × 6 = +1
⎢ ⎥ 2
⎢L = lone pair ⎥ 1
⎢ S = shared pair ⎥ F.C on O 2 = 6 – 4 – × 2 = 0
⎣ ⎦ 2
1
F.C on O 3 = 6 – 6 – × 2 = – 1
2
82 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Solutions of Assignment
3. Which of the following bonds has the highest bond energy?

(1) S–S (2) O–O (3) Se–Se (4) Te–Te
Sol. Answer (1)
Expected high bond energy is in O–O due to high electron-negativity but due to smaller size ∴ will be repulsion
and bond energy will be low
∴ [(S – S) have more bond energy than O–O bond].
4. dπ – pπ bond present in
(1) CO32–
(2) PO43–
(3) NO3–
(4) NO2–
Sol. Answer (2)
dπ – pπ bond i.e. PO43– because P have d-orbital
O–
pπ –dπ
P= P
3p 3d –
dπ –pπ bond O – O–
O
O O O
5. Which one of the following statements is not correct for sigma- and pi-bonds formed between two carbon
atoms?
(1) Sigma-bond is stronger than a pi-bond
(2) Bond energies of sigma- and pi-bonds are of the order of 264 kJ/mol and 347 kJ/mol, respectively
(3) Free rotation of atoms about a sigma-bond is allowed but not in case of a pi-bond
(4) Sigma-bond determines the direction between carbon atoms but a pi-bond has no effect in this regard
Sol. Answer (2)
σ bond is stronger than π bond ∴ B.E. of σ bond is more than π bond.
6. H2O is polar, whereas BeF2 is not. It is because

(1) The electronegativity of F is greater than that of O
(2) H2O involves hydrogen bonding whereas BeF2 is a discrete molecule
(3) H2O is linear and BeF2 is angular
(4) H2O is angular and BeF2 is linear
Sol. Answer (4)
–δ
O
H2O have angular shape because of two lone pair
+δ H H +δ
180°
BeF2 have linear shape F Be F
∴ H2O is polar BeF2 is linear
Solutions of Assignment Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 83
7. The table shown below gives the bond dissociation energies (Ediss) for single covalent bonds of carbon(C) atoms
with element A, B, Z and D. Which element has the smallest atoms?
Bond Ediss(kJ mol–1)

C–A 240
C–B 328
C–Z 276
C–D 485
(1) Z (2) D (3) A (4) B

Sol. Answer (2)
More the dissociation energy i.e. stronger the (C–D) bond. ∴ D atoms have smaller size.
8. The correct order of C — O bond order among CO, CO32–, CO2 is
(1) CO < CO32– < CO2 (2) CO32– < CO2 < CO
(3) CO < CO2 < CO32– (4) CO2 < CO32– < CO
Sol. Answer (2)
2–
CO3 O
< O O < O
–
O O
–
B.O = 2 B.O = 3
4
B.O = = 1.33
3
(The Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion Theory, Valence Bond Theory, Hybridisation)
9. Which of the following species contains three bond pairs and one lone pair around the central atom?
(1) NH2– (2) PCl3 (3) H2O (4) BF3
Sol. Answer (2)
PCl3 have 3BP and 1LP
LP 3BP
P P=
Cl Cl 3s 3p 3d
Cl
Cl Cl Cl
3
sp
10. Which one of the following pairs of chemical species contains the ions having same hybridisation of the central
atoms?
(1) NO2– and NH2– (2) NO2– and NO3– (3) NH+4 and NO3– (4) SCN– and NH2–
Sol. Answer (2)
1
H= [V + M – C + A]
2
where H = hybridisation, V = valence e–, M = monovalent, A = Negative charge, C = Positive charge
1 6
For NO2– : H = [ 5 + 0 – 0 + 1] = = 3 sp 2
2 2
1 6
For NO3– : H = [ 5 + 0 – 0 + 1] = = 3
2 2
same hybridisation sp2
11. The geometry of electron pairs around S in SF6 is
(1) Octahedral (2) Trigonal bipyramidal (3) Square pyramidal (4) Pentagonal planar
Sol. Answer (1)
1 12 3 2
SF6 : H = [ 6 + 6 – 0 + 0] = = 6 sp d
2 2
Octahedral geometry
F
F F
S Octahedral
F F
F
12. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following triatomic species is
(1) NO2+ < NO2– < NO2 (2) NO2– < NO2+ < NO2
(3) NO2– < NO2 < NO2+ (4) NO2+ < NO2 < NO2–
Sol. Answer (3)
1 LP
–
= 2e more repulsion
1e– less repulsion no electron
no repulsion
N N +
< < O N O
O O O O
[More the e– present more will be the repulsion smaller will be the bond angle]
[NO3– < NO2 < NO2]
13. In the hydrocarbon
CH3 — CH = CH— CH2 — C ≡ CH

6 5 4 3 2 1
The state of hybridization of carbons 1, 3 and 5 are in the following sequence
(1) sp3, sp2, sp (2) sp2, sp, sp3 (3) sp, sp3, sp2 (4) sp, sp2, sp3
Sol. Answer (3)
For 'C' compounds hybridisation H = sp(3-no. of π bond)

6 5 4 3 2 1
H3C CH CH CH2 C CH
sp
sp3 2
sp sp 2
sp 3
sp (2 π bonds)
1 π bond (2 π bonds)
1 π bond
⎧ C 1 sp ⎫
⎪ 3 ⎪
⎨ C 3 sp ⎬
⎪ 2⎪
⎩ C 5 sp ⎭
14. The BCl3 is a planar molecule whereas NCl3 is pyramidal because
(1) Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom
(2) BCl3 has no lone pair but NCl3 has a lone pair of electrons
(3) B – Cl bond is more polar than N – Cl bond
(4) N – Cl bond is more covalent than B – Cl bond
Sol. Answer (2)

One lp
BCl3 Zero lone pair NCl3 3 bp
B= N=
2s 2sp 2s 2sp
Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl
2 3
sp sp
∴ BCl3 have planar structure NCl3 have pyramidal structure
15. Which compound has planar structure?

(1) XeF4 (2) XeOF2 (3) XeO2F2 (4) XeO4
Sol. Answer (1)
1 12
XeF4 have H = [ 8 + 4 – 0 + 0] = = 6 = sp 3d 2 octahedral geometry
2 2
but due to two lone pair have planar shape
F F
Xe
F F
16. Which of the following pairs are isostructural?

(1) XeF2, IF2– (2) NH3, BF3 (3) CO3–2, SO3–2 (4) PCl5, ICl5
Sol. Answer (1)
XeF2 IF2–
1 10 1 10
H= [ 8 + 2 – 0 + 0] = = 5 sp 3d H= [ 7 + 2 – 0 + 1] = = 5 sp 3d
2 2 2 2
–
–
F Xe F F I F
4 lp 4 lp
17. In which of the following bond angle is maximum?

(1) NH3 (2) NH4+ (3) PCl3 (4) SCl2
Sol. Answer (2)

NH4+ have no lone pair ∴ no repulsion between lp and bp and have maximum bond angle.
18. In BrF3 molecule, the lone pairs occupy equatorial positions to minimize
(1) Lone pair-bond pair repulsion only
(2) Bond pair-bond pair repulsion only
(3) Lone pair-lone pair repulsion and lone pair-bond pair repulsion
(4) Lone pair-lone pair repulsion only
Sol. Answer (3)
lp–lp repulsion and lp–bp repulsion will be minimum when lp occupy equatorial positions.
F
Br F
19. Which of the following species has a linear shape?

(1) O3 (2) NO2– (3) SO2 (4) NO2+
Sol. Answer (4)
NO2+ have linear geometry because of no lone pair. No repulsion
O N O
20. The correct order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is
(1) sp < sp2 < sp3 (2) sp > sp2 < sp3 (3) sp > sp2 > sp3 (4) sp < sp2 > sp3
Sol. Answer (3)
More then s-character more closer towards the nucleus more will be the electronegativity
2 3
sp > sp > sp
(50%s) (33%s) (25%s)
21. In which of the following molecules all the bonds are not equal?
(1) NF3 (2) CIF3 (3) BF3 (4) PF3
Sol. Answer (2)
ClF3 have sp3d hybridisation and have 3bp and 2lp.
axial F
F
axial bonds Cl T-shape
are larger F
F Cl than equatorial
at bonds
equatorial F
position
22. In a regular octahedral molecule, MX6 the number of X – M – X bonds at 180º is
(1) Three (2) Two (3) Six (4) Four
Sol. Answer (1)
X 180°
X X
X M X bonds at 180° = 3.
M
X X
X 180°
180°
23. In NO3– ion number of bond pair and lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom are
(1) 2, 2 (2) 3, 1 (3) 1, 3 (4) 4, 0
Sol. Answer (4)

O
NO3
–
O No. of lp = 0
No. of bp = 4
O–
24. In an octahedral structure, the pair of d orbitals involved in sp3d2 hybridisation is
(1) d x 2 − y 2 , d z 2 (2) d xz , d x 2 − y 2 (3) d z 2 , d xz (4) d xy , d yz
Sol. Answer (1)
d2sp3 have d and d

x2 − y2 z2
25. The hybrid orbital having only 20% d character
(1) CCl4 (2) SF6 (3) SF4 (4) Cl2O
Sol. Answer (3)
SF4 have hybridisation sp3d i.e. five orbital total
∴ have 20% d character. 20% s and 60% p-character.
26. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) The hybridisation of Cl in ClF3 is sp2
(2) The number of lone pairs and bond pairs in I3– are 2 and 2 respectively
(3) The shape of XeF6 is distorted square bipyramidal
(4) Hybridisation of S is sp3 in SO2
Sol. Answer (3)
1 14
XeF6 H= [ 8 + 6 – 0 + 0] = = 7 sp3d3 i.e. distorted square pyramidal because of one lone pair
2 7
F
F F
Xe
F F
F 1 LP
27. Which of the following would have a permanent dipole moment?

(1) SiF4 (2) SF4 (3) XeF4 (4) BF3
Sol. Answer (2)
SF4 have sea-saw shape i.e. distorted geometry ∴ it will have permanent dipole moments.
F
F
S μ≠0
[SiF4 = BF3 = XeF4 = Planar = μ = 0]
F
F
(Molecular Orbital Theory, Hydrogen Bonding)
28. Main axis of a diatomic molecule is z, orbital px and py overlap with each other to form which of the following
molecular orbitals?
(1) π molecular orbital (2) σ molecular orbital (3) δ molecular orbital (4) No bond will form
Sol. Answer (4)
No overlapping
+ = no overlapping
PY PX
⎧i .e p z – p z ⎫
⎪ ⎪
Overlapping will only possible when lobers are symmetrical about the axis perpendicular to the axis ⎨ p y – p y ⎬
⎪ ⎪
⎩ px – px ⎭
29. N2 and O2 are converted into monoanions N2– and O2– respectively, which of the following statements is wrong?
(1) In O2–, bond length increases (2) N2– becomes diamagnetic
(3) In N2–, the N–N bond weakens (4) In O2–, the O–O bond order decreases
Sol. Answer (2)
O2 = π*2px1 = π*2py1 O2– = π*2px2 = π*2py1
N2 = π2px2 = π2py1 N2– = π2px2 = π2py2, π2py1
[N2– have compound electrons i.e. paramagnetic]
30. Which one of the following species does not exist under normal conditions?
(1) Li2 (2) Be2+ (3) Be2 (4) B2
Sol. Answer (3)
Be2 does not exist because [Nb = Na]
Be2 = 8 = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2
31. The molecular orbital shown below can be described respectively as
+
–
π 2px
+ –
– +
∗
π 2px
(1) σ, σ* (2) π, π* (3) π*, π (4) π*, σ*
Sol. Answer (2)
+ – +
+ –
[π molecular orbital]
[π * two nodal planes]
32. Which of the following molecule stabilizes by removal of electron?
(1) C2 (2) O2 (3) N2 (4) H2
Sol. Answer (2)
On removing e– from O2 its bond order increases from 2 to 2.5 ∴ stability increases.
⎧⎪ O 2 = σ1s 2 ... * 2p x 1 = * 2p y 1 ⎫⎪
⎨ + 2 1 0
⎬
⎩⎪ O 2 = σ1s ...π 2p x = * 2p y ⎭⎪
33. Number of nodal planes in π*2px are

(1) Zero (2) One (3) Two (4) Three
Sol. Answer (3)
34. The low density of ice compared to water is due to

(1) Dipole-induced dipole interactions
(2) Induced dipole induced dipole interactions
(3) Hydrogen bonding interactions
(4) Dipole-dipole interactions
Sol. Answer (3)
H2O have more density because on increases the temperature ‘H’ bonding interaction increases volume
decreases and density increases. [Density of H2O > density of ice]
35. Which one of the following has the strongest O – O bond?

(1) O2+ (2) O2 (3) O2– (4) O22–
Sol. Answer (1)
More the bond order more will the bond strength [Bond strength ∝ bond order]
O2 = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, σ2pz2, π2px2 = π2py2, π*2px1 = π*2py1
10 – 6
B.O = =2
2
10 – 5
O2+ = B.O = = 2.5
2
10 – 7
O2– = B.O = = 1.5
2
10 – 8
O22– = B.O = =1
2
O2+ have maximum bond order and have strongest O–O bond.
36. Which species does not exhibit paramagnetism?

(1) N2+ (2) O2– (3) CO (4) NO
Sol. Answer (3)
CO have 14 e– i.e. even no. and also have filled molecular orbitals.
CO = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, σ2px2 = π2py2, σ2pz2 all paired e–
SECTION - B
(Kossel - Lewis Approach to Chemical Bonding, Ionic Bond, Bond Parameters)
1. According to octet rule the compound which contain ionic, covalent and coordinate bonds
(1) CaSO4 (2) NH4Cl (3) NaNO3 (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Ca2+ SO42– NH4Cl NaNO3
Ionic + –
NH4 Cl Ionic Na+ NO3–
O OCovalent
[NH3 ⎯ → H+] Co-ordinate
S
– N H Covalent N O
O
O–
H O –
H O
Co-ordinate covalent
All have ionic, covalent and co-ordinate covalent bond
2. Which of the following molecule is having least ionic character?

(1) FeCl2 (2) ZnCl2 (3) MgCl2 (4) NaCl
Sol. Answer (2)
Full filled and half filled have maximum covalent character ∴ ZnCl2 have 3d10 configuration have maximum
polarising power.
3. In PO43– ion, the effective charge on each oxygen atom and P–O bond order respectively are
(1) –0.75, 1.25 (2) –0.75, 1.0 (3) –0.75, 0.6 (4) –3, 1.25
Sol. Answer (1)
−3 O
Effective charge =
4
P
1 5 –
O O
–
B.O. = 1 + = = 1.25 –
4 4 O
4. A certain diatomic molecule, AB has dipole moment 1.6 D and the internuclear distance is
100 pm. The percentage of electronic charge existing on more electronegative atom is
(1) 33% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 10%
Sol. Answer (1)
μ obsc 1.6 × 10 –18 esu-cm

% ionic = = = 33%
μ cal 100 × 10 –18 × 4.8 × 10 –10 esu-cm
Cl
5. Dipole moment of is 1.1 D hence dipole moment of given compound will be
Cl
Cl
Cl Cl
(1) 1.1 D (2) 4.4 D (3) 3.3 D (4) 2.56 D
Sol. Answer (1)
Cl
1 Cl
6 dipole moment of 1, 3, 5 chlorine
2
3 will be cancelled due to symmetry
Cl ∴ dipole moment exist only due to
5 4
Cl C–2. i.e. 1.1 D
6. In the given structure of a compound, the correct various bond moments direction involving atoms are shown as
(1) Br N CH2 SiH2 CH2 O CH3 (2) Br N CH2 SiH2 CH2 O CH3
(3) Br N CH2 SiH2 CH2 O CH3 (4) Br N CH2 SiH2 CH2 O CH3
Sol. Answer (3)
Electronegativity N > Br > C
7. Which molecule contains both polar and non-polar covalent bond?
(1) NH4+ (2) HCl (3) CH4 (4) H2O2
Sol. Answer (4)
H2O2 have open book structure
–8
+8
+8 O H
H O Non-polar covalent bond

because atoms of same
–8 electronegativity are present
Polar covalent bond
because different
electronegativity
atoms are present
8. Which of the following is a polar molecule?
(1) Para dichlorobenzene

(2) Carbon tetrachloride
(3) Tetrachloroethene
(4) HO OH
Sol. Answer (4)

H
O
O
H
(The Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion Theory, Valence Bond Theory, Hybridisation)
9. Which of the following is correct for XeO2F2 and PCl5?

(1) Both have same hybridisation and shape
(2) Both have same hybridisation but different geometry
(3) Both have different hybridisation but same shape
(4) Both have same hybridisation but different shape
Sol. Answer (4)
XeO2F2 PCl5
1 1
Hybridisation = [V + M – C + A] H= [V + M – C + A]
2 2
1 1
H= [ 8 + 2 – 0 + 0] H= [ 5 + 5 – 0 + 0]
2 2
10
= 5 [sp3d] H=5 sp3d
2
Shape F Cl
O Cl
Xe Cl P
F O Cl Cl
See-saw shape Trigonal bipyramidal
10. The maximum number of 180° angle possible between X-M-X bond for compounds with sp3d 2 and sp3d
hybridisation respectively are
(1) 3, 3 (2) 3, 1 (3) 1, 3 (4) 3, 0
Sol. Answer (2)
X X
X X X X M X
X M X
M 180° =3. X M 180°
X X X
X X
sp3d 2 octahedral 3
sp d trigonal bipyramidal
11. Incorrect statement regarding hybridization is
(1) It is not possible for isolated atoms
(2) Number of hybrid orbital formed is same as the number of orbitals combining
(3) Only the half filled orbitals and fully filled orbitals can participate not the empty orbital
(4) It is not a real physical process
Sol. Answer (3)
Fully filled, half filled, empty orbitals participate in ‘H’ in excited state e– excited to empty orbital.
12. In hybrid state of N atom is

N
H
(1) sp2 (2) sp3 (3) sp3d2 (4) sp
Sol. Answer (2)
N have three bond pair and one lone pair
∴ its hybridisation will be sp3
13. The shape of I3– is
(1) Linear
(2) Bent
(3) Pyramidal
(4) See saw
Sol. Answer (1)

–
I3– = [I– . I2] I I2
1
H= [V + M – C + A] I– have 8 e–
2
1 10
= [ 7 + 2 – 0 + 1] = = sp 3 d ∴ by combining with two I2, I– have 3 LP and 2 BP
2 2
I
–
Structure of I3
I3– have linear structure

I–
I
14. Number of angles of 109°28′ is present in CCl4

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8
Sol. Answer (3)
Cl1 1 Cl C Cl2
109.28° will be in
C 1 Cl C Cl3
Cl2
Total '6' Cl C Cl4
Cl4 1
Cl3
2 Cl C Cl3
2 Cl C Cl4
3 Cl C Cl4
15. Number of carbon atoms present in sp2 hybrid state of given molecule?
CH = CH—CH3
(1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 3 (4) 2

Sol. Answer (2)
sp2 sp2
2
sp CH CH2 CH3
sp22 sp
sp2 sp
sp2 Total 8 ‘C’ are present and have
2
sp hybridisation
16. In a regular trigonal bipyramidal MX5, the number of X – M – X bonds at 180º is

(1) One (2) Two (3) Six (4) Four
Sol. Answer (1)
17. Some of the properties of the two species, NO3– and H3O+ are described below. Which one of them is correct?
(1) Dissimilar hybridization for the central atom with different structures
(2) Isostructural with same hybridization for the central atom
(3) Isostructural with different hybridization for the central atom
(4) Similar hybridization for the central atom with different structures
Sol. Answer (1)
– 2 H3O+ = sp3
Hybridisation NO3 = sp
O O
Structure H Pyramidal
N H
–
H
O O
Different hydridisation and different structural
arrangement
18. Which of the following is not a correct statement?
(1) Multiple bonds are always shorter than corresponding single bonds
(2) The electron-deficient molecules can act as Lewis acids
(3) The canonical structures have no real existence
(4) Every AB5 molecules does in fact have square pyramid structure
Sol. Answer (4)
AB5 molecule geometry also depends upon the no. of lone pair
∴ always AB5 will not have square pyramid structure.
AB5 = trigonal bipyramid, or square pyramid
19. Arrange the following species in increasing order of bond angle

NF3 , NCl3, NBr3, NI3
(1) NF3 < NCl3 < NBr3 < NI3 (2) NF3 < NBr3 < NI3 < NCI3
(3) NI3 < NBr3 < NCl3 < NF3 (4) NBr3 < NI3 < NF3 < NCl3
Sol. Answer (1)
20. Which of the following is correct representation of dipole moment of NH3 molecule?
N N
(1) H (2) H H
H
H H
μresultant μresultant
(3) H H (4) NH3 being symmetrical will not show dipole moment
H
μresultant
Sol. Answer (2)
N H is less electromagnetic than N

∴ Net dipole moment will be toward
+δ ‘N’ atom
H H +δ
H +δ
(Molecular Orbital Theory, Hydrogen Bonding)
21. The ground state electronic configuration of valence shell electrons in nitrogen molecule (N2) is written as kk,
⎡π2p 2y ⎤
σ2s2, σ*2s2, ⎢ 2⎥
, σ2p 2x . Hence the bond order in nitrogen molecule is
⎣⎢π2p z ⎦⎥
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 0 (4) 1
Sol. Answer (2)
No. of bonding – No. of antibonding 8–2

Bond order = = =3
2 2
Bond order of N2 = 3
22. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Bond order of NO is 2.5
II. Bond order of NO+ is 3.0
III. Bond order of O2 is 1.5
IV. Bond order of CO is 3.0
(1) I, II, III (2) II, III, IV (3) I, II, IV (4) II, IV
Sol. Answer (3)
10 – 5
NO = 15 = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, σ2pz2, σ2px2 = π2py2, π2px1 B.O = = 2.5
2
10 – 4
NO+ = 14 = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, σ2pz2, σ2px2 = π2py2, π2px2, π*2px0 B.O = =3
2
10 – 6
O2 = 16 = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, σ2pz2, π2px2 = π2py2, π2px0 B.O = =2
2
CO = 14 = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, π*2x2 = π2py2, σ2pz2, σ*2ps2 10 – 4

B.O = =3
2
3.0
∴ ⎧NO 2.5 ⎫
⎪ + ⎪
⎨NO 3 ⎬
⎪CO 3 ⎪
⎩ ⎭
23. The number of antibonding electron pairs in O2–

(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 1 (4) 4
Sol. Answer (2)
O2– = 17 = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, σ2pz2, π2px2 = π2py2, π2px2 = π*2py1
Number of antibonding electron pairs are 3.
24. How many bonds are formed by each oxygen atom in ice?
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) May be 1 or 2
Sol. Answer (1)
Each oxygen atom will form 4 bonds i.e.

O
H-bond
H H
O
Covalent bond
H H
25. o-nitrophenol is
(1) More volatile than p-nitrophenol (2) Less volatile than p-nitrophenol
(3) Equally volatile as p-nitropheno (4) Non-volatile
Sol. Answer (1)
H
O H
O O
N Intermolecular
O H-bonding
Intramolecular (stronger bonding)
N
H-bonding O as it is with in two
O
(weaker bonding) molecules.
H
as it is in the same O
molecule.
N
O O
∴ o-nitrophenol will easily evaporated compared to p-nitrophenol
26. Which of the following pair consists of only paramagnetic species?

(1) H2, O2+ (2) N2, O2 (3) CO, N2 (4) H2+, O2–
Sol. Answer (4)
H2+ = σ 1s1 O2– = σ 1s2...π 2px2 = π 2py2, π *2px2 = π*2py1
1 unpaired electron 1 unpaired electron in π *2py1

in σ 1s
SECTION - C
1. Which of the following pairs of compounds is isoelectronic and isostructural? [NEET-2017]
(1) BeCl2, XeF2 (2) Tel2, XeF2 (3) IBr2− , XeF2 (4) IF3, XeF2
Answer (3)
Sol. IBr2–, XeF2
Total number of valence electrons are equal in both the species and both the species are linear also.
2. The species, having bond angles of 120° is [NEET-2017]
(1) PH3 (2) CIF3 (3) NCl3 (4) BCl3
Answer (4)
Cl
120°
Sol. B
Cl Cl
3. Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order? [NEET-2017]
(1) CO, NO (2) O2, NO+ (3) CN–, CO (4) N2, O2–
Answer (3)
Sol. CN(–) and CO have bond order 3 each.
4. Which one of the following compounds shows the presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond?
[NEET-Phase-2-2016]
(1) H2O2 (2) HCN
(3) Cellulose (4) Concentrated acetic acid
Sol. Answer (3)
Fact.
5. The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+ , NO3− and NH+4 respectively are
[NEET-Phase-2-2016]
(1) sp, sp3 and sp2 (2) sp2, sp3 and sp (3) sp, sp2 and sp3 (4) sp2, sp and sp3
Sol. Answer (3)
(+)
..O.. (–)
H
..O = +1 .
N = O.
(+)
; N
..
–1 N –1 ;
..O +1 .
O. H H
..
.. ..
.. ..
sp
H
sp2 sp3
6. Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic and isostructural? [NEET-Phase-2-2016]
(1) CO32− , NO3− (2) CIO3− , CO32− (3) SO32− , NO3− (4) CIO3− , SO32−
Sol. Answer (1, 4)
Option (1) :
..O.. 2(–)
O
–1
C ; N
..O O.
. ..O +1 O.
.
.. ..
.. ..
.. ..
.. ..
–1 –1 –1 –1
Both have 32 electrons with trigonal planar structure.

Option (4) :
– 2(–)
..O Cl (–).. ; ..O S

..(–)
.. ..
.. ..
..O O ..O.. O
..
..
(–)
..
..
Both have 42 electrons with pyramidal structure.

7. The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF4 are [NEET-Phase-2-2016]
(1) Octahedral, sp3d 2 (2) Trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d
(3) Planar triangle, sp3d 3 (4) Square planar, sp3d 2
Sol. Answer (1)
XeF4, has octahedral geometry where hybridisation of Xe is sp3d2.
8. Among the following, which one is a wrong statement? [NEET-Phase-2-2016]
(1) PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist (2) pπ-dπ bonds are present in SO2
(3) SeF4 and CH4 have same shape (4) I3+ has bent geometry
Sol. Answer (3)
Shape of SeF4 would be see saw whereas that of CH4 would be tetrahedral.
9. Predict the correct order among the following. [NEET-2016]
(1) lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair
(2) lone pair - lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair
(3) lone pair - lone pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair
(4) bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair
Sol. Answer (2)
Fact
10. Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statements is false? [NEET-2016]
(1) The H – C – H bond angle in CH4 is larger than the H – N – H bond angle in NH3
(2) The H – C – H bond angle in CH4, the H – N – H bond angle in NH3, and the H – O – H bond angle in H2O
are all greater than 90°
(3) The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H – C – H bond angle in CH4
(4) The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is smaller than the H – N – H bond angle in NH3
Sol. Answer (3)
Molecules Bond angle
CH4 ⎯→ 109.5°
NH3 ⎯→ 107.5°
H2O ⎯→ 104.45°
11. Decreasing order of stability of O2, O2–, O2+ and O22– is [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) O2 > O2+ > O22– > O2– (2) O2– > O22– > O2+ > O2
(3) O2+ > O2 > O2– > O22– (4) O22– > O2– > O2 > O2+
Sol. Answer (3)
Stability ∝ bond-order.
O2+ > O2 > O2– > O22–

Bond order : 2.5 2.0 1.5 1.0
12. In which of the following pairs, both the species are not isostructural? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) NH3, PH3 (2) XeF4, XeO4
(3) SiCl4, PCl4+ (4) Diamond, silicon carbide
Sol. Answer (2)
O
F F
Xe & Xe O
F F
O O
Square planar Tetrahedral
13. Maximum bond angle at nitrogen is present in which of the following? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) NO3− (2) NO2 (3) NO2− (4) NO2+
Sol. Answer (4)
NO ⊕2 have linear geometry
14. The enolic form of ethyl acetoacetate as below has [AIPMT-2015]

H H2
H3C C O H3C C O
C C C C
OH OC2H5 O OC2H5
(1) 9 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond
(2) 18 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
(3) 16 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond
(4) 9 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
Sol. Answer (2)
15. Which of the following species contains equal number of σ- and π-bonds? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) CH2(CN)2 (2) HCO3– (3) XeO4 (4) (CN)2
Sol. Answer (3)
16. The correct bond order in the following species is [AIPMT-2015]
(1) O2– < O2+ < O22 + (2) O 2+ + –

2 < O2 < O2 (3) O2+ – +
2 < O2 < O 2 (4) O+2 < O2– < O2+
2
Sol. Answer (1)
17. Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) ClO3− , SO32− (2) CO32− , SO32− (3) ClO3− , CO32− (4) SO32− , NO3−
Sol. Answer (1)
18. Which of the following options represents the correct bond order? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) O2− < O2 > O2+ (2) O2− > O2 > O2+
(3) O2− < O2 < O2+ (4) O2− > O2 < O2+
Sol. Answer (3)
19. The total number of π-bond electrons in the following structure is [AIPMT-2015]
H3C H H H
CH3
H3C
H2C H CH3
(1) 16 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 12
Sol. Answer (3)
20. Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole moment? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) CO2 (2) CH4 (3) NH3 (4) NF3
Sol. Answer (3)
21. Which one of the following species has plane triangular shape? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) N3 (2) NO3– (3) NO2– (4) CO2
Sol. Answer (3)
–
O
– + –
N N N N
O O
N
– O C O
O O
22. Which one of the following molecules contains no π bond? [NEET-2013]
(1) H2O (2) SO2 (3) NO2 (4) CO2
Sol. Answer (1)
O
H2O have only sigma bond σ
σ
H H
23. Which of the following is a polar molecule? [NEET-2013]
(1) SF4 (2) SiF4 (3) XeF4 (4) BF3
Sol. Answer (1)
24. Which of the following is paramagnetic? [NEET-2013]
– –
(1) O 2
(2) CN
+
(3) NO (4) CO
Sol. Answer (1)
25. The pair of species with the same bond order is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) NO, CO (2) N2, O2
(3) O22–, B2 (4) O2+, NO+
Sol. Answer (3)
10 – 8
O22– = 18 = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, σ2pz2, π2px2 = π2py2, π2px2 = π*2py2 B.O = =1
2
6–4
B2 = 10 = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, π2px1 = π2py1 B.O = =1
2
O22– and B2 have same bond order

26. Bond order of 1.5 is shown by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) O22− (2) O2 (3) O2+ (4) O2−

Sol. Answer (4)
27. Which one of the following pairs is isostructural (i.e. having the same shape and hybridization)?
(1) [NF3 and BF3]
(2) [ BF4− and NH+4 ]
(3) [BCl3 and BrCl3]
(4) [NH3 and NO3− ]
Sol. Answer (2)

BF4– NH4+
1 1
H= [ 3 + 4 – 0 + 1] H= [ 5 + 4 – 1 + 0]
2 2
8 8
= = 4 = sp 3 = = 4 = sp 3
2 2
Tetrahedral shape Tetrahedral shape
–
F H
B F N H
F H
F H
[Both are having tetrahedral shape and same hybridisation]

28. During change of O2 to O22– ion, the electron adds on which one of the following orbitals?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) π* orbitals (2) π orbitals (3) σ* orbitals (4) σ orbitals
Sol. Answer (1)
2 ∗ 2 1 ∗ 1
O2 = 16 = σ 1s , σ 1s ......∗ 2px = π 2py
e– added
∗
2– 2 ∗ 2 2 x 2
in π orbital
O2 = 18 = σ 1s , σ 1s ......∗ 2px = π 2py
29. Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the correct order in which the bond order is increasing in them
(1) NO < O2− < C22− < He2+ (2) O2− < NO < C22− < He2+
(3) C22− < He2+ < O2− < NO (4) He2+ < O2− < NO < C22−
Sol. Answer (4)

30. Which of the following has the minimum bond length? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) O2 (2) O2+ (3) O2– (4) O2–

2
Sol. Answer (2)
1
Bond length ∝ Bond order O2 = 2
Bond order +
O2 = 2.5 by molecular
–
O2 = 1.5 orbital theory
O2– = 1
∴ [O2+ have minimum bond length]

31. The correct order of increasing bond length of C – H, C – O, C – C and C = C is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) C–H<C–O<C–C<C=C (2) C–H<C=C<C–O<C–C
(3) C–C<C=C<C–O<C–H (4) C–O<C–H<C–C<C=C
Sol. Answer (2)
32. Which of the two ions from the list given below that have the geometry that is explained by the same hybridization
of orbitals NO2− , NO3− , NH2− , NH+4 , SCN– [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) NO2− and NH2− (2) NO2− and NO3− (3) NH+4 and NO3− (4) SCN– and NH2−
Sol. Answer (2)

33. Which of the following structures is the most preferred and hence of lowest energy for SO3 ?
|O| |O|
(1) S (2) S
|
|O
|O
|
|O
|O|
|O
|
|
|O|
S S
(3) (4)
|
|O
|O
|
|O
|O
|
|
Sol. Answer (2)

Molecule having covalent bond. Without resonance have maximum stability; minimum energy
S
O O
34. The pairs of species of oxygen and their magnetic behaviours are noted below. Which of the following presents the
correct description? [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) O2+, O2 – Both paramagnetic (2) O2, O22− – Both paramagnetic
(3) O2–, O22− – Both diamagnetic (4) O2+ , O22− – Both paramagnetic
Sol. Answer (1)
35. Which one of the following species does not exist under normal conditions? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Be2+ (2) Be2 (3) B2 (4) Li2
Sol. Answer (2)

36. In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions, the central atoms have sp2 hybridization?
(1) NO2− and NH3 (2) BF3 and NO2−
(3) NH2− and H2O (4) BF3 and NH2−

Sol. Answer (2)
37. In which one of the following species the central atom has the type of hybridization which is not the same as that
present in the other three? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
–
(1) SF4 (2) I3 (3) SbCl3– (4) PCl5
Sol. Answer (3)
38. In which of the following molecules the central atom does not have sp3 hybridization? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
–
(1) CH4 (2) SF4 (3) BF 4
(4) NH+4
Sol. Answer (2)
39. Some of the properties of the two species, NO3− and H3O+ are described below. Which one of them is correct?
(1) Dissimilar in hybridization for the central atom with different structures
(2) Isostructural with same hybridization for the central atom
(3) Isostructural with different hybridization for the central atom
(4) Similar in hybridization for the central atom with different structures
Sol. Answer (1)
40. What is the dominant intermolecular force or bond that must be overcome in converting liquid CH3OH to a gas?
(1) Dipole-dipole interaction (2) Covalent bonds
(3) London dispersion force (4) Hydrogen bonding
Sol. Answer (4)
41. According to MO theory which of the following lists ranks the nitrogen species in terms of increasing bond order?
(1) N22− < N2− < N2 (2) N2 < N22− < N2−
(3) N2− < N22− < N2 (4) N2− < N2 < N22−
Sol. Answer (1)

42. In which of the following molecules/ions BF3, NO2–, NH2– and H2O, the central atom is sp2 hybridized ?
(1) NH2− and H2O (2) NO2− and H2O
(3) BF3 and NO2− (4) NO2− and NH2−
Sol. Answer (3)

43. In the case of alkali metals, the covalent character decreases in the order [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) MF > MCl > MBr > MΙ (2) MF > MCl > MΙ > MBr
(3) MΙ > MBr > MCl > MF (4) MCl > MΙ > MBr > MF
Sol. Answer (3)
For same cation larger anion more will be covalent character
∴ MI > MBr > MCl > MF
44. Four diatomic species are listed below the different sequences. Which of these presents the correct order of their
increasing bond order? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) He2+ < O2− < NO < C22− (2) O2− < NO < C22− < He2+
(3) NO < C22− < O2− < He2+ (4) C22− < He2+ < NO < O2−
Sol. Answer (1)
45. The angular shape of molecule (O3) consists of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) 2 sigma and 1 pi bond (2) 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds
(3) 2 sigma and 2 pi bonds (4) 1 sigma and 1 pi bond
Sol. Answer (1)
O
O3 have angular shape have two σ bond
O O
and 1 π bond
46. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following triatomic species is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) NO2+ < NO2− < NO2 (2) NO2− < NO2+ < NO2
(3) NO2− < NO2 < NO2+ (4) NO2+ < NO2 < NO2−
Sol. Answer (3)
47. The correct order of (C–O) bond length among CO, CO3−2 , CO2 is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) CO < CO2 < CO3−2 (2) CO2 < CO3−2 < CO
(3) CO < CO3−2 < CO2 (4) CO3−2 < CO2 < CO
Sol. Answer (1)

48. In which of the following pairs, the two species are iso-structural ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) BrO3− and XeO3 (2) SF4 and XeF4
(3) SO32− and NO3− (4) BF3 and NF3
Sol. Answer (1)

49. Which of the following is not a correct statement? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) The electron-deficient molecules can act as Lewis acids
(2) The canonical structures have no real existence
(3) Every AB5 molecule does in fact have square pyramid structure
(4) Multiple bonds are always shorter than corresponding single bonds
Sol. Answer (3)
50. The number of unpaired electrons in a paramagnetic diatomic molecule of an element with atomic number 16 is
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1
Sol. Answer (1)
51. Which of the following species has a linear shape ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) NO2− (2) SO2
(3) NO2+ (4) O3
Sol. Answer (3)
52. The electronegativity difference between N and F is greater than that between N and H yet the dipole moment
of NH3 (1.5 D) is larger than that of NF3 (0.2 D). This is because [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) In NH3 as well as in NF3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction
(2) In NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction whereas in NF3 these are in opposite
directions
(3) In NH3 as well as NF3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in opposite directions
(4) In NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the opposite directions whereas in NF3 these are in the same
directions
Sol. Answer (2)
N N
–δ
–δ
H H F –δ F
H F
53. Which of the following molecules has trigonal planar geometry? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) IF3 (2) PCl3 (3) NH3 (4) BF3
Sol. Answer (4)
54. Which of the following would have a permanent dipole moment ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) BF3 (2) SiF4 (3) SF4 (4) XeF4
Sol. Answer (3)
55. The correct order in which the O – O bond length increases in the following is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) H2O2 < O2 < O3 (2) O3 < H2O2 < O2
(3) O2 < O3 < H2O2 (4) O2 < H2O2 < O3
Sol. Answer (3)
56. The correct sequence of increasing covalent character is represented by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2 (2) BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl
(3) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2 (4) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl
Sol. Answer (3)
57. Which one of the following oxides is expected to exhibit paramagnetic behaviour? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) CO2 (2) SO2 (3) CIO2 (4) SiO2
Sol. Answer (3)
58. Which of the following species contains three bond pairs and two lone pairs around the central atom?
(1) NH2– (2) ClF3 (3) H2O (4) BF3
Sol. Answer (2)

ClF3
Cl F [3 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs]
F
F
59. Bond order of 2.5 is shown by
(1) O22– (2) O2 (3) O2+ (4) O2–
Sol. Answer (3)
O2+ = 15 = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, σ2pz2, π2px2 = π2py2, π*2px1 = π*2py0
10 – 5
B.O = = 2.5
2
60. The outer orbitals of C in ethene molecule can be considered to be hybridized to give three equivalent sp2
orbitals. The total number of sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds in ethene molecule is
(1) 1 sigma (σ) and 2 pi (π) bonds (2) 3 sigma (σ) and 2 pi (π) bonds
(3) 4 sigma (σ) and 1 pi (π) bonds (4) 5 sigma (σ) and 1 pi (π) bonds
Sol. Answer (4)
H σ π σ H
Ethene = C σ Cσ Total no. of σ bond = 5
H σ H π bond = 1
2
sp sp 2
61. Which of the following is paramagnetic?
(1) C22− (2) Na2O2 (3) NO2 (4) CO
Sol. Answer (3)

C22–, O22–, CO have even number of electron will be diamagnetic, NO2 have unpaired electron will be
paramagnetic.
62. The geometry of electron pairs around I in IF5 is
(1) Octahedral (2) Trigonal bipyramidal
(3) Square pyramidal (4) Pentagonal planar
Sol. Answer (1)
1 12
IF5 H= [ 7 + 5 – 0 + 0] = = 6 sp 3d 2 Geometry = octahedral
2 2
63. In which of the following pair both the species have sp3 hybridization?
(1) H2S, BF3 (2) SiF4, BeH2 (3) NF3, H2O (4) NF3, BF3
Sol. Answer (3)
1 8 1 8
NH 3 H= [ 5 + 3 – 0 + 0 ] = = sp 3 H 2O H= [ 6 + 2 – 0 + 0] = = sp 3
2 2 2 2
[NH3 and H2O have same hybridisation but have different shape.]
64. In the hydrocarbon
CH3
CH 3 – C ≡ C – CH – C ≡ CH
6 5 4 3 2 1
The state of hybridization of carbons 1, 3 and 5 are in the following sequence

(1) sp3, sp2, sp (2) sp2, sp, sp3 (3) sp, sp3, sp (4) sp, sp2, sp3
Sol. Answer (3)
CH3
6 5 4 3 2 1 (3-no. of π bonds)
H3C C C CH C CH Hybridisation = sp
sp sp3 sp
65. Which of the following molecule does not possess a permanent dipole moment?
(1) CS2 (2) SO32– (3) H2S (4) SO2
Sol. Answer (1)
–8 –8
μ = 0 for CS2 S = C = S linear geometry
sp hybridisation
66. In which of the following compound there is more than one kind of hybridization (sp, sp2, sp3) for carbon?
(1) CH2 = CH–CH = CH2 (2) H–C ≡ C–H
(3) CH3CH2CH2CH3 (4) CH3–CH = CH–CH3
Sol. Answer (4)
π
H 3C σ CH CH σ CH 3 3
contain both sp ∝ sp
sp3 sp2 sp2 sp3
67. Which of the following bonds has the highest energy?

(1) C–C (2) C≡C (3) C=C (4) C–H
Sol. Answer (2)
C ≡ C have two π bond and one σ bond, therefore will be more stronger.
68. The structure and hybridization of Si(CH3)4 is
(1) Octahedral, sp3d (2) Tetrahedral, sp3 (3) Bent, sp (4) Trigonal, sp2
Sol. Answer (2)
1 8
⎡⎣Si ( CH 3 ) 4 ⎤⎦ H= [ 4 + 4 – 0 + 0] = = 4 sp 3
2 2
CH3
3
Si Tetrahedral and sp
H3C CH3
CH3
69. The number of bonding electron pairs in N2 on the basis of molecular orbital theory is
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 4
Sol. Answer (3)
N2 = 14 = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, π2px2 = π2py2, σ*2pz2
B B B B B
[No. of bonding pair = 5]
70. Which compound is electron deficient?
(1) NCl3 (2) BCl3 (3) CCl4 (4) PCl5
Sol. Answer (2)
Cl
B Planar sp2
BCl3 is electron deficient molecule
Cl Cl
71. Which compound form polymer due to H-bond?
(1) H2S (2) NF3 (3) HF (4) HCl
Sol. Answer (3)
+δ +δ
H H
–δ –δ –δ –δ –δ [Polymeric due to H-bond]
F F F F F
+δ +δ
H H H
72. Cation and anion combines in a crystal to form following type of compound
(1) Ionic (2) Metallic (3) Covalent (4) Dipole-dipole
Sol. Answer (1)
Cation and anion form ionic bond in crystal.
73. Which compound has tetrahedral structure?
(1) XeF4 (2) XeOF2 (3) XeO2F2 (4) XeO4
Sol. Answer (4)
1
XeO 4 H= [ 8 + 0 – 0 + 0]
2
8
= 4 sp 3 tetrahedral structure
2
74. In which of the following bond angle is maximum?
(1) NH3 (2) PCl4+ (3) BCl3 (4) PCl6–
Sol. Answer (4)
1 12
[PCl 6 ] – H= [ 5 + 6 – 0 + 1] = = 6 sp 3d 2 = 180°
2 2
As the bond angle is asked which is maximum in PCl6– i.e. 180° between linear pair.
75. In X – H ... Y, X and Y both are electronegative elements. Then
(1) Electron density on X will increase and on H will decrease
(2) In both electron density will increase
(3) In both electron density will decrease
(4) On X electron density will decrease and on H increases
Sol. Answer (1)
–δ –δ
X – H -------Y Electron density on X will increase and on H will decrease.
76. Main axis of a diatomic molecule is z, molecular orbital px and px overlap to form which of the following orbitals?
(1) π molecular orbital (2) σ molecular orbital
(3) δ molecular orbital (4) No bond will form
Sol. Answer (1)
π molecular orbital Px – Px
+ (Px – Px)
Px Px
77. The state of hybridization of C2, C3, C5 and C6 of the hydrocarbon,
CH3 CH3
CH3 C CH CH CH C CH
7 6 5 4 3 2 1
CH3
is in the following sequence

(1) sp, sp2, sp3 and sp2 (2) sp, sp3, sp2 and sp3
(3) sp3, sp2, sp2 and sp (4) sp, sp2, sp2 and sp3
Sol. Answer (2)
CH3 CH3
sp2 sp
H3C C CH CH CH C CH
6 5 4 3 2 1
sp3 CH3
3
sp
78. For two ionics solids CaO and KI, identify the wrong statement among the following.
(1) CaO has high melting point
(2) Lattice energy of CaO is much larger than that of KI
(3) KI has high melting point
(4) KI is soluble in benzene
Sol. Answer (4)
79. Which of the following organic compounds has same hybridization as its combustion product –(CO2)?
(1) Ethane (2) Ethyne
(3) Ethene (4) Ethanol
Sol. Answer (2)
H C C H O C O
sp sp sp
SECTION - D
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
1. A : N2, CO and CN– are having same bond order.

R : Isoelectronic species always have same bond order.
Sol. Answer (3)
2. A : Bond angle of BF3 and NF3 are different.
R : Both the molecules are having different shape.
Sol. Answer (2)
3. A : CO2 is resonance stabilized molecule.
R : Bond length of C–O in CO2 is intermediate of single and double bond length.
Sol. Answer (3)
4. A : BeCl2 in vapour phase is electron deficient molecule.
R : Any molecule in which central atom is having incomplete octet is known as electron deficient molecule.
Sol. Answer (1)
5. A : H–F forms stronger hydrogen bond than H2O.
R : F is more electronegative than oxygen.
Sol. Answer (1)
6. A : Each molecule of H2O forms four H-bond in the form of ice.
R : Ice is solid state of H2O.
Sol. Answer (2)
7. A : Both methane and tetrachloromethane are nonpolar.
R : C–Cl bond is polar bond.
Sol. Answer (2)
8. A : N2 is more stable than N2+.
R : Bond order of N2 is 3 while N2+ is 2.5.
Sol. Answer (1)
9. A : Lattice energy of CaO is higher than LiCl.
R : Lattice energy of ionic compound is directly proportional to the product of charges of ion.
Sol. Answer (1)
10. A : All P–Cl bond lengths are equal in PCl3 but different in PCl5
R : Hybrid state of central atom is different in both molecules.
Sol. Answer (2)
11. A : Equal number of sigma and π bonds are present in ethyne.
R : π bond is stronger than σ bond.
Sol. Answer (4)
12. A : Bond order of H2+ is 0.5.

R : Electrons are removed from the antibonding molecular orbital from H2.
Sol. Answer (3)
13. A : LiCl is more covalent than BeCl2.
R : Li+ ion is smaller than Be2+.
Sol. Answer (4)
14. A : O2 is paramagnetic.
R : N2 is paramagnetic.
Sol. Answer (3)
15. A : PCl5 exist but NCl5 does not.
R : Nitrogen is highly inert.
Sol. Answer (2)


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Chapter 1

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

(200 mg of N2O) – x molecules = –3

[4 atom are present as gas is tetra-atomic]

10. Volume occupied by one molecule of water (density = 1 g cm–3) is

(Stoichiometry & Stoichiometric Calculations)

X3O4 O = 27.6% O = 30% wt of X

Similarly ∴ [Atomic mass = eq. mass × Valency]

X : O Calculate from 1st oxide

14. In the reaction, 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3

∴ Number of e− in 0.3 mol = 0.3 × 10 × N0 = 3 × N0

∴ Number of atom of Fe = 5.89 × 10-3 × 6.022 × 1023 = 0.035 × 1023 atom

One molecule (gm)

7. Number of significant figures in 6.62 × 10–34.

2C6H6 (l) + 15 O2 (g) 12 CO2 (g) + 6H2O (g)

% age Atomic mass Moles Simple ratio

14. How many litre of oxygen at STP is required to burn 60 g C2H6?

2C2H6 + 7O2 ⎯⎯→ 4 CO2 + 6 H2O

For 2 moles of C2H6 = 7 moles of O2 required.

i.e., for 60 g of C2H6 = 7 × 22.4 L of O2 at STP required

H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) ⎯⎯→ 2HCl (g)

19. Mole fraction of solvent in aqueous solution of NaOH having molality of 3 is

Strength (g/L) = molarity × mol. mass

nCl2 nHCl 11.2 nHCl

∴ Maximum number of molecules is present in 8 g H2

moles of Na2 CO3

As one mole Na2CO3 gives 2 mol Na⊕ and 1 mol CO32

∴ Molarity of Na⊕ = 2 × molarity of Na2CO3 = 2 × 0.955 = 1.910 M

∴ 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) ⎯⎯

Amount of water produced = 4 mol

PbO + 2HCl ⎯⎯→ PbCl2 + H2 O

As 73 g HCl reacts with 224 g of PbO

Element %/At. wt. Simplest Ratio No. of Atoms

∴ Empirical formula = CH3O

200 199 202

22400 mL of H2 is produced by 1 mol Zn i.e., = 65 g

(1) 3, 3 and 4 respectively (2) 3, 4 and 4 respectively

(3) 3, 4 and 5 respectively (4) 3, 3 and 3 respectively

Sol. Answer (4)

All have same significant figures.

(1) Increase in 50 mL (2) Decrease in 50 mL

(3) Increase in 150 mL (4) Decrease in 200 mL

Sol. Answer (1)

As 4 moles of PH3 (g) converts into 6 moles H2 (g)

∴ 4 × 22.4 L of PH3 (g) will produce = 6 × 22.4 L of H2

89.6 L of PH3 (g) will produce = 134.4 L

∴ Increase in volume wil be 50 mL

27. In the reaction,

4NH3 (g) + 5O 2 (g) ⎯⎯→ 4NO (g) + 6H2 O (l)

4 mol NH3 reacts with 5 mol O2

as 1 mol of O2 is taken therefore all the O2 will be consumed.

Percentage At mass Moles Simple ratio

∴ Empirical formula = CH4N

0.1 × 100 × 100

∴ Total number of atoms = 0.25 × 4 × 6.022 × 1023 atoms

mol mass of BaCO3 197 + 12 + 48 = 257 g

= 15680 g = 1.568 × 104 g

Sol. Answer (3)