Test Date: 18/06/2022 OYM–JCT

CODE–A

Regd. Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi–110005, Ph.011–47623456

MM : 720 Time : 3 Hrs 20 Min.
FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES
(for NEET–2023)

Topics covered:
Physics : Electrostatic Potential and potential energy
Chemistry : Solutions
Botany : Mineral Nutrition
Zoology : Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white–fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.
(vii) There are two sections in each subject i.e., Section–A & Section–B, you have to attempt all 35 from section–
A & only 10 questions out of 15 from Section – B

PHYSICS
SECTION – A 2. If a charge of 0.11nC is spread uniformly on a 2m
uniform conductor, electric potential due to it at
1. A point charge ‘Q’ is kept at O.
2m from one end, along the length is

Take log 2
e  0.7 
(1) 0.7 V (2) 7 V
(3) 0.35 V (4) 3.5 V
3. An electric dipole of electric dipole moment ‘p’ is
If a point charge is moved from B to C. work done
kept in uniform electric field ‘E’. The work done to
is w1 . If moved from B to A work done is w2 .
Choose correct option turn it from stable equilibrium position to 300
away from electric field direction
(1) w1  w2

(2) w1  w2
(1) Zero (2)
pE
2

2 3 
(3) w1  w2  0
(3)
pE
2
 3 1  (4)
pE. 3
2
(4) w1  w2  0
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One Year Medical – NEET 2023 Fortnightly Test–2_(OYM _Code–A)_JCT
4. The dimensional formula of electric potential is

(1) ML2T 3 A1 (2) MLT 3 A1

   

(3) ML2T 2 A1 (4) ML2T 3 A2  (3)

   
5. If proton, deuteron and alpha particle are
released in uniform electric field, for same
distance they travelled the ratio of their kinetic
energy is
(1) 1 : 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 2 : 2
(4)
(3) 2 : 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 : 1
6. Which of the following is possible, for charge(s)
distribution, and at a point due to them, (Terms,
V, E, have usual meaning of potential and electric 9. For each of conducting droplet of radius (r)
field intensity) charge of ‘q’ is present, with 2mV potential on its
(1) V  0 but E  0 is possible surface. If such 1000 drops coalesce, electric
potential on this bigger drop formed is
(2) V  0 but E  0 is possible
(1) 2V (2) 0.2 V
(3) V  0,E  0 is possible (4) All 1,2,3 are true
(3) 0.02V (4) 20V
7. Two point charges, 9Q and 16 Q are separated
by 21 cm distance. The electric potential at a 10. Each of 10C point charge are placed on x–axis
point where the electric field intensity is zero is at x  1m,2m,4m,8m........... similarly. Each of

Q  1C 20C charge are kept at

(1) 2100 kV (2) 210 kV y  1m,3 m,9 m,27m,..........
(3) 21 kV (4) 2.1 kV The resultant electric potential at origin is
8. For a solid conducting sphere of ‘R’ radius ‘–Q’ (1) +9KV (2) –9KV
charge is given. Considering its centre at the
(3) +90 KV (4) –90 KV
origin electric potential as a function of distance
from its centre is correctly given in 11. For a short electric dipole, electric field on the
axis at d distance from its centre and equatorial
line are a, b respectively. Choose the correct
option from below

(1) a
(1) a.b  0 (2) 2
b

(3) a.b  0 (4) Both 2,3 are true

12. At how many location(s) electric potential due to a
dipole will be zero
(2)
(1) one location (2) two locations
(3) many locations (4) At no location

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Fortnightly Test–2_ (OYM _Code–A)_JCT One Year Medical – NEET 2023
13. From a point charge of 0.5C , at 10m from it, the 19. For a short dipole of dipole moment p, length 2a,
magnitude of electric potential in a dielectric at a distance x from its centre on the axial line the
medium of K  50 is (in volt) electric potential is k  1/ 40 
(1) 9V (2) 90 V 2 k.pa k.p
(1) (2)
(3) 900 V (4) 0.9 V x2 x2
14. Regarding the electric field intensity choose the k.p 2k q
(3) (4)
incorrect option from below 2x 2 x2
(1) along the direction of electric field potential 20. 3C and 2C are at 15m separation. At how
decreases
many location(s) on line joining then electric
(2) A positive charge if released moves with potential can be zero
acceleration
(1) Only one location
(3) A negative charge moving along electric field
(2) At two locations
gains the kinetic energy
(3) At many locations
(4) Both 1, 2 are true but 3 is wrong
(4) At >2 locations but not many
15. In a uniform electric field an electron travelled
from A to B, possessing speeds at A, B as 21. A uniform ring is given –Q charge. The electric
6.1106 ms1 and 4.5  106 ms1 . The potential potential due to ring on its axis at x distance, from

difference VB VA  in volt, nearly is

its centre is correctly shown as
Vx 
 e 11 C 
 take  1.76 10 
 m kg 

(1) 18V (2) –18 V (1)

(3) +48 V (4) –48 V
x
16. Electron volt is unit of
(1) Charge (2) Potential V
-x x
(3) Energy (4) dipole moment

17. If hydrogen atom radius is 5.3  1011m the (2)

electrostatic potential energy of the atom is

(1)  4.3  1018 J (2)  4.8  1017 J

(3)  4.3  1017 J (4)  8.3  1018 J V

18. A proton is fixed. At r form another a movable (3)

proton, if released, the speed of moving proton
1 x
(mass a kg) at “nr” distance is (n > 1) k 
4 0 V
-x x
ek  n  1 2ek  n  1
mr  n  m  n 
(1) (2) (4)

2ek  n  1 ek n  1
m  n 
(3) (4)
m n

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One Year Medical – NEET 2023 Fortnightly Test–2_(OYM _Code–A)_JCT
22. Two concentric shells of radii R and 2R hold +Q 27. On two insulating stands two conductor spheres
and –Q respectively. Choose correct option of radii 20 cm and 15 cm are held and having
(1) Potential at common centre is zero charges of 10 C each. They are connected by a
(2) Potential on surface of inner sphere and conductor and then separated again. Choose
centre are equal correct option
(3) Potential on outer sphere is  0 (1) Total charge will be less than 20C finally
(4) At any point outside for ‘x’ from centre V  0
(2) Electric potential will be finally equal
23. If Q and Q are at diameter of a circle of radius
(3) Electric charges will be finally equal
‘R’ are rotating on circle due to their mutual
attraction only. Total energy of the system is. (4) Electric surface charge density will be finally
equal
Q2 Q2
(1) (2)
16 0 R 8 0 R 28. The variation of potential versus distance in metre
is as shown below
Q2 Q2
(3) (4) V
16 0 R 8 0 R

24. Due to a small dipole of dipole moment p , at r

distance from its centre, the electric potential V is
8V
 
proportional to px and r y . The value of x y 2 is
6
(1) 2 (2) 4 2 4 distance in m

(3) 8 (4) 16
25. In which of the following arrangement of point at d  2.5 m , a +q charge of 5C is held. Force
charges system is having zero potential energy of acting on +q is
interaction for square side “a” (1) Zero (2) 40N

(3) 1.6N (4) 20N

(1) (2) 29. From a point charge of 5C the centre of sphere
is at 4m distance. Perpendicular to this distance
on diameter of sphere of 6 m at ends A, B
potential difference is
(1) +900V (2) –900V
(3) (4) (3) Zero (4) –90V
30. From a point charge ‘q’ at ‘r’ distance. The
electric potential is V. If twice of this charge is
26. The potential to which a conductor is raised will being distributed on conducting sphere of radius
depend on r / 2 . The electric potential on its surface is
(1) Amount of charge
(1) V (2) 2V
(2) Shape of the conductor
(3) 3V (4) 4V
(3) Size of conductor
(4) All are true

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Fortnightly Test–2_ (OYM _Code–A)_JCT One Year Medical – NEET 2023
N 35. Work done in moving a charge in an electric field
31. In a uniform electric field of 20 an ' ' particle is
C will not depend on
moved by 10 cm perpendicular to electric field.
(1) Mass of the particle
The net work done is
(2) Potential difference between the two points
(1) Zero (2) 2eV
(3) Magnitude of charge
(3) 4eV (4) 6eV
(4) Nature of charge whether positive or negative
32. The electric potential gradient is
SECTION–B
(1) Vector
36. For a non conducting uniformly charged sphere of
(2) Scalar radius R. If the total charge in volume is ‘q’, at R/2
(3) Numerical ratio distance from its centre the electric potential, in
terms of electric potential on its surface V0 is
(4) Constant of proportionality
V0
33. For the following situation given, the magnitude (1) 11V0 (2)
8
and direction of electric field is
11V0 8V0
(3) (4)
10V 8 11
20V
30V 37. The amount of work done to bring four charged
40V
particles each of ‘q’ from infinity to four corners of
135 0 square side ‘q’ is
1m 2m 3m x(m) 4kq2 2kq2
(1) (2)
a a

  kqa   kqa
2 2
N (3) 4  2 (4) 4  2
(1) 5 2 at 450 to –x–axis
C
38. In a uniform electric field, points A and B given
N
(2) 5 2 at 450 to –x–axis are at equipotential of 15 V and C is at 20V. The
C
electric field intensity is
N
(3) 10 2 at 450 to +x–axis A
C
r
N 10 cm
(4) 10 2 at 450 to –x–axis x
C
B 10 cm C
34. Three charges q  Q  q are held at equal
(1) 125 Vm1 along –x axis
distances on a straight line. If the potential energy

(2) 125 Vm1 along +x–axis

of the three system of charges is zero, then Q in
terms of q is
(3) 50 Vm1 along +x–axis
(1) 4Q  q (2) Q  2q
(4) 50 Vm1 along –x–axis
(3) Q  3q (4) Q  4q

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One Year Medical – NEET 2023 Fortnightly Test–2_(OYM _Code–A)_JCT
39. In uniform electric field A, B, C, D are three points 43. For an equilateral triangle side ‘a’, a point charge
shown. VA,VB,VC,VD are their respective ‘Q’ is kept at its centroid. On its perimeter the
potentials. Choose incorrect option maximum possible electric potential is

E  1 
A C  take k  
 40 
B
kQ 3kQ
D (1) (2)
a a
(1) VA  VD (2) VC is largest
3kQ kQ
(3) (4)
(3) VB  VC (4) VD  VC 2a 2a

40. The electric potential V at any point (x, y, z) in 44. Of eight corners of a cube side ‘a’, except at one
corner at all other remaining corners ‘Q’ charge
metre in space is defined by function V  4x2 .
The value of electric field at 2,0,1 m in N / C
each are kept. The net electric potential at the
centroid of the cube is
(1) 8 N / C along –x–axis
7Q Q
(1) (2)
(2) 16 N / C along –x–axis 20 3a 40 3a

(3) 8 N / C1 along +x–axis (3)

7Q
(4) Zero
4 30a
(4) 16 N / C1 along +x–axis
45. On a circle of radius ‘a’, N identical point charges
41. An electric dipole is in uniform electric field, E in Q each are held on its perimeter. The electric
stable equilibrium. Its dipole moment p is turned potential at the centre of circle is V0 . If two point
by ' ' to E . In the final position the potential charges of –Q each are further kept new potential
energy stored is proportional to at the centre correctly shown in

(1) sin

(2) cos

(1)
N  2V0 (2)
N  2V0
2 2 N N
  N  4V0 N  4V0
(3) sin2 (4) cos2
2 2 (3) (4)
N N
42. Choose the correct answer from the following two
46. Regarding the equipotential surfaces, choose the
statements
incorrect statement
Statement (1): Electric potential of a positively
(1) electric field intensity is perpendicular to the
charged body may be negative
tangent
Statement (2): Electric potential of a conductor is
independent of charge given to it (2) Work done on any charge moved over a
surface is zero
(1) Both (1) & (2) statements are correct
(3) If charge ‘q’ is moved between ‘A’ and ‘B’
(2) Both (1) & (2) statements are wrong
work done is W  VA VB  q
(3) Statement (1) is correct but statement (2) is
wrong (4) Electric field intensity is always along
(4) Statement (1) is wrong but statement (2) is increasing potential
true

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Fortnightly Test–2_ (OYM _Code–A)_JCT One Year Medical – NEET 2023
1 49. On a conducting sphere of radius 2R a uniform
47. On a rainy day at km above ground the electric
2 charge ‘Q’ has been kept. At R from its surface
potential was – 50V. The electric field intensity the electric potential is V. If sphere shrinks to half
direction is of the present radius, at same distance from its
surface electrical potential is
(1) 100Vm1 upward (2) 0.1V 1 downward
2V 3V
(1) (2)
3 2
(3) 0.1V 1 upward (4) 10Vm1 downward
(3) V (4) 3V
48. 1000 conducting drops having 0.1C each, having 50. For an equilateral triangle side length 2L at each
radius of 1 cm each. They combine to form big of side centre point charge Q each is held. The
drop. The big drop energy is electro static potential energy of arrangement is

(1) 4.5 J (2) 45 J 3Q2 Q2

(1) (2)
4 0L 4 0L
(3) 450 J (4) 4500 J
3Q2 Q2
(3) (4)
8 0L 8 0L

CHEMISTRY
SECTION–A 55. The solubility of gas in liquid increases with
51. Which one of the following is not a true solution (1) Increase of temperature
(1) Amalgam (2) Ornamental gold (2) Amount of liquid taken
(3) Salt water (4) Milk (3) Decrease in temperature
52. The pair of solutions which shows negative (4) Reduction of gas pressure
deviation in non – ideal solutions 56. The freezing point of 1% aqueous solution of
(1) CHCl3  CH3COCH3 calcium nitrate will be

(2) CH3COCH3  C6H5NH2 (1) 0C (2) Above 0C

(3) 1C (4) Below 0C

(3) CHCl3  C6H6
57. The ratio of the value of any colligative property
(4) All of the above
of HCl solution to that for sugar solution is nearly
53. The pair of solutions which shows positive
(1) 1.0 (2) 0.5
deviation in non ideal solutions
(3) 2.0 (4) 2.5
(1) CCl4  C6H6 (2) CHCl3  C6H6
58. Which solution will show maximum elevation in
(3) CCl4  CHCl3 (4) Both 1 & 3 boiling point
54. Four gases like H2,He,CH4 and CO2 have (1) 0.1 M KCl
henry’s constant values KH  are 69.16, (2) 0.1 M BaCl2
144.97,0.413 and 1.67. The gas which is more
(3) 0.1M FeCl3
soluble in liquid is
(4) 0.1M Fe2 SO4 3
(1) He (2) CH4

(3) H2 (4) CO2

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One Year Medical – NEET 2023 Fortnightly Test–2_(OYM _Code–A)_JCT
59. The correct relationship between the boiling 65. Lowering of vapour pressure of equimolar
points of very dilute solutions of AlCl3 (t1) and solutions of glucose, sodium chloride and barium
nitrate are in the order.
CaCl2 (t2), having the same molar concentration,
is (Assume both electrolytes ionige completely) (1) Glu cos e  NaCl  Ba NO3 2

(1) t1  t2 (2) t1  t2 (2) Glu cos e  NaCl  Ba NO3 2

(3) t2  t1 (4) t2  t1
(3) Ba NO3 2  NaCl  Glu cos e
60. When the volume of the solution is doubled, the
following becomes exactly half (4) NaCl  Ba NO3 2  Glu cos e

(1) Molality (2) Mole fraction 66. Which of the following salt has the same value of
(3) Molarity (4) Weight percent van’t hoff factor as that of K3 Fe CN 6  .
61. Which of the following has no units (Assume complete ionisation of all electrolytes)
(1) Molarity (2) Normality (1) Na2SO4 (2) Al2 SO4 3
(3) Molality (4) Mole fraction
(3) Al NO3 3 (4) NaCl
62. How many grams of CO2 gas is dissolved in 1 lit
bottle of carbonated water if the manufacturer 67. The molarity of pure water is
uses a pressure of 2.4 atm in the bottling process (1) 18M (2) 55.55 M
at 25C. Given KH of CO2 water = 29.76 atm
(3) 10 M (4) 5.55 M
mole–1lit–1
68. 250 ml of a calcium carbonate solution contains
(1) 3.52 (2) 4.2 2.5 grams of CaCO3. If 10 ml of this solution is
(3) 3.1 (4) 2.5 doubled to one litre, what is the concentration of
63. The boiling point of C6H6,CH3OH,C6H5 NH2 and resultant solutions

C6H5 NO2 are 80C,65C,184C, and 212C (1) 0.1 M (2) 0.001 M

respectively. Which will show highest vapour (3) 0.01 M (4) 104 M
pressure at room temperature.
69. 3.65 grams of HCl is dissolved in 16.2 grams of
(1) C6H6 (2) CH3OH water. The mole fraction of HCl in the resultant
solution is
(3) C6H5NH2 (4) C6H5NO2
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.3
64. 12 ‘g’ of urea is present in 1 lit solution and 68.4 g
(3) 0.2 (4) 0.1
of sucrose is separately dissolved in 1 lit of
another sample of solution. The lowering of 70. Number of Milli equivalents of solute in 0.5 lit of
vapour pressure of first solution is 0.2 N solution is

(1) Equal to second solution (1) 10 (2) 1

(2) Greater than second solution (3) 100 (4) 1000

(3) Less than second solution 71. Weight of solute present in 500 ml of 0.2 N
H2SO4 solution is
(4) Double that of second solution
(1) 14.2 g (2) 4.9 g
(3) 3.55 g (4) 1.42 g
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Fortnightly Test–2_ (OYM _Code–A)_JCT One Year Medical – NEET 2023
72. Henry’s law constant for the solubility of N2 gas 78. The magnitude of colligative properties in
colloidal dispersion is _________than solution
in water at 298 K is 1.0  105 atm. The mole
fraction of N2 in air is 0.6. The no of moles of N2 (1) Lower than (2) Higher than
from air dissolved in 10 moles of water at 298 K (3) Same as (4) None
and 5 atm pressure is
79. Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M aqueous solution of
(1) 3.0 104 (2) 4.0  105
MgCl2 at 300 K is 4.92 atm. What will be the
4 6
(3) 5.0 10 (4) 6.0 10 percentage ionisation of the salt.
73. Which of the following solutions will have the
(1) 79% (2) 59%
highest boiling point.
(1) 0.1M Al2 SO4 3
(3) 49% (4) 69%
(2) 0.05MFeCl3
80. 75.2 g C6H5OH is dissolved in 960 g of a solvent
(3) 0.2 M NaCl (4) 0.3 M urea
74. The boiling point of benzene is 353.23K. when of Kf  14 Kg mole1 . If the depression in
1.80 ‘g’ of a non volatile solute was dissolved in freezing point is 7 K, find the percentage of
90 ‘g’ of benzene, the boiling point is raised to phenol that dimerises.
354.11 K. The molar mass of solute is ( Kb for
(1) 50 (2) 80
benzene is 2.53kg mole1 )
(3) 30 (4) 40
1
(1) 58 g mole
81. The weight in grams of a non–volatile solute
1
(2) 106 g mole (M.w.t = 60) to be dissolved in 90 g of water to
produce relative lowering of vapour pressure of
(3) 174 g mole1
0.02 is
(4) 0.1 M K 4 Fe CN 6  (1) 4 (2) 8
75. Which of the following aqueous solution will have (3) 6 (4) 10
highest depression in freezing point.
82. Which one of the following is an isotonic pair of
(1) 0.1 M urea
solutions
(2) 0.1 M sucrose
(3) 0.1 M AlCl3 (1) 0.15 M NaCl and 0.1 M Na2SO

(4) 0.1M K4 Fe CN 6  (2) 0.2 M urea and 0.1 M sugar

76. Calculate the molal depression constant of a (3) 0.2 M BaCl2 and 0.2 M urea
solvent which has freezing point 16.6 and latent (4) 0.2 M MgSO4 and 0.1 M NH4Cl
heat of fusion is 180.75Jg 1
83. During depression of freezing point in a solution,
(1) 3.3 (2) 3.86 the following are in equilibrium
(3) 2.9 (4) 38.6
(1) Liquid solvent – Solid solvent
77. Calculate the osmotic pressure of a decinormal
solution of NaCl which is ionised to 80% at 27C. (2) Liquid solvent – Solid solute

(1) 4.43 atm (2) 0.443 atm (3) Liquid solute – Solid solute

(2) 0.222 atm (4) 0.111 atm (4) Liquid solute – Solid solvent

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One Year Medical – NEET 2023 Fortnightly Test–2_(OYM _Code–A)_JCT
84. The vapour pressure of pure benzene and 90. Van’t hoff factor (i) of a 0.5% w/w aqueous
toluene are 160 and 60 mm Hg respectively. The solution of KCl, which freezes at 0.24C is
mole fraction of benzene in vapour phase in
contact with equimolar solutions of benzene and
K f of H2O  1.86KKg mole1 
toluene is (1) 1.32 (2) 1.52
(1) 0.073 (2) 0.027 (3) 2.32 (4) 1.92
(3) 0.27 (4). 0.73 91. An antifreeze solution is prepared from 222.6 g of
85. Among the following gases which gas has the ethylene glycol C2H6O2  and 200 g of water
highest KH value in water at the same calculate molality of the solution.
temperature? (1) 0.414 (2) 0.795
(1) O2 (2) N2 (3) 4.14 (4) 17.95

(3) H2 (4) He 92. Density of a solution is 2g/cc which contains

equal weight of solute and solvent. The ratio of
SECTION–B
molality to that of molarity is
86. A 5% by mass of an aqueous solution of A of
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
1
molar mass 342 g mole is isotonic with 0.878%
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
by mass of an aqueous solution of another
93. The vapour pressure of 10% aqueous glucose
substance B. The molar mass of B is
solution at 100C is
(1) 120 (2) 180
(1) 750 mm (2) 755.6 mm
(3) 60 (4) 90
(3) 751.6 mm (4) 740 mm
87. The density of 20% (w/w) aqueous KI solution is
1.202 g/ml. What is the approximate molality? 94. Calculate the mass of a non volatile solute (molar
mass 40g/mol) which should be dissolved in 114
(molar mass of KI = 166)
g octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 80%
(1) 0.5 m (2) 1.5 m
(1) 2g (2) 4g
(3) 0.15 m (4) 2.5 m
(3) 8g (4) 16g
88. An aqueous sucrose (molar mass = 342) solution
is labelled as 20% (w/w). What is the mole 95. pH of 1 M HA (weak acid) is 3. Hence van’t hoff
fraction of water in this solution. factor is
(1) 0.955 m (2) 0.987 m (1) 1.01 (2) 1.001
(3) 0.961 m (4) 0.945 m (3) 1.1 (4) 1.04
89. Assertion: 0.1 M KCl, 0.1 M K2SO4 solution 96. Consider the following statements
cause the same osmotic pressure in solution. i) Maximum boiling Azoetrope is formed by
Reason: Osmotic pressure depends on the negative deviation from Raoult’s law
number of particles present in the solutions ii) The value of Kb & Kf depends upon the
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and nature of solute.
Reason is the correct explanation of iii) Minimum boiling azeotrope is formed by
Assertion positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(2) Both Assertion and Reason correct but R is Choose correct statements
not the correct explanation of Assertion
(1) (i) & (ii) (2) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(3) (i) & (iii) (4) (ii) & (iii)
(4) Reason is true but Assertion is false
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Fortnightly Test–2_ (OYM _Code–A)_JCT One Year Medical – NEET 2023
97. Which one is not equal to zero for an ideal 99. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the
solution. value of molal depression constant Ke  will be
(1) P  Pobs  Ptheoritical (1) Doubled (2) Halved
(2) H mix (3) Tripled (4) Unchanged

(3) S mix 100. PA and PB are the rapour pressure of pure liquid
components, A and B, respectively of an ideal
(4) V mix
binary solution. If XA represents the mole
98. A 0.0020 m aqueous solution of an ionic fraction of component A, the total pressure of the
compound CO NH3 5 NO2 Cl freezes at solution will be
0.00732C. No of moles of ions which 1 mole of
ionic compound produces on being dissolved in B B 
(1) P0  XA P0  P0
A  B 
(2) P0  XA P0  P0
A B 
water will be Kf  1.86C / m
A A 
(3) P0  XA P0  P0
B  A 
(4) P0  XA P0  P0
A B 
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 1 (4) 2

BOTANY
SECTION–A 105. Grey spots of oats is caused by deficiency of
101. Which of the following nutrient element helps to (1) Fe (2) Cu
maintain ribosome structure? (3) Mn (4) Mg
(1) Iron (2) Magnesium 106. Mark the correct option regarding the following
(3) Calcium (4) Sulphur step of nitrogen cycle 2NO2  O2  2NO3
102. Choose the incorrect statement about toxicity of (1) It is carried out by Thiobacillus
micronutrients.
(2) It is called nitrification
(1) The toxicity symptoms are difficult to identify.
(3) Nitrococcus causes this conversion
(2) Toxicity levels for any element also vary for
(4) It shows ammonification.
different plants.
107. State true (T) or false (F) for the following
(3) Manganese competes with magnesium for
statements.
binding with enzymes.
A. Soil harbours nitrogen fixing bacteria and other
(4) Excess of manganese enhances calcium microbes.
translocation in shoot apex.
B. Soil supplies air to the roots and acts as a
103. The enzyme nitrogenase is a matrix that stabilises the plant
(1) Mo–Fe Protein (2) Mn–Fe Protein C. Only macronutrients form components of
(3) Mo–S Protein (4) Mg–Fe Protein fertilizers

104. How many ATP molecules are required for A B C

production of 4 molecules of NH3 during (1) T T T
biological nitrogen fixation? (2) T F T
(1) 8 (2) 16 (3) T T F
(3) 32 (4) 64 (4) F T T
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One Year Medical – NEET 2023
108. Who demonstrated for the first time, that plants
could be grown to maturity in a defined soil free
nutrient solution?
(1) Joseph Priestly
Fortnightly Test–2_(OYM _Code–A)_JCT
115. Calcium
(a) Is required by meristematic and differentiating
tissues
(b) Accumulates in older leaves

(2) Julius Von Sachs (c) Activates certain enzymes and plays an
important role in regulating metabolic
(3) J.C. Bose
activities.
(4) Stephen Hales (1) Only a is correct
109. The beneficial elements are (2) Only a and b are correct

(1) C,H,O,K (2) Na, Si, Co & Se (3) All are correct
(4) Only b and c are correct.
(3) Ni, Cu, Fe, Zn (4) Mg, K, Ca & S
116. Ammonia is oxidised to nitrite by
110. Select the incorrect statement regarding amides.
(1) Nitrosomonas
(1) Most common amides are glutamine and
(2) Ammonifying bacteria
asparagine
(3) Nitrobacter
(2) They have more nitrogen than amino acids
(4) Nitrocystis
(3) These compounds have high nitrogen to
117. The essential element which activates both
carbon ratio
RuBisCO and Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase
(4) They are transported to other parts of the is absorbed as
plant via phloem always.
(1) Mn2 (2) Mg 2
111. The symbiotic nitrogen fixer of non–leguminous
plants like Alnus is (3) Zn2 (4) K 
118. Which of the following is an autotrophic, free
(1) Rhizobium (2) Azotobacter
living nitrogen fixer?
(3) Frankia (4) Anabaena (1) Rhizobium (2) Azotobacter
112. __________is a limiting nutrient for both natural (3) Anabaena (4) Frankia
and agricultural ecosystems.
119. Chlorosis is due to deficiency of
(1) Nitrogen (2) Magnesium (i) K (ii) Mg (iii) N (iv) Fe (v) Cu
(3) Carbon (4) Potassium (1) (i) & (ii) only (2) (ii), (iii) & (iv) only

113. Sulphur is not present in (3) All except (v) (4) (i), (iii) & (iv) only

(1) Methionine (2) Cysteine 120. Select the incorrect match

(1) Mg – Synthesis of DNA and RNA
(3) Coenzyme A (4) Thymine
(2) Zn – Activates Carboxylases
114. Which of the following mineral element is required
(3) Cu – Overall metabolism
in the synthesis of auxins?
(4) Fe – Constituent of ring structure of
(1) Potassium (2) Zinc
chlorophyll
(3) Magnesium (4) Copper
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Fortnightly Test–2_ (OYM _Code–A)_JCT One Year Medical – NEET 2023
121. The micromineral element required by plants in 127. Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium
the greatest amount are visible first in

(1) Is used in synthesis of middle lamella (1) Shoot apex (2) Floral buds

(2) Is required for splitting of water (3) Young leaves (4) Senescent leaves
128. Which of the following elements delay flowering if
(3) Is absorbed mainly as Fe3 their concentration is low in plants?
(4) Activates various enzymes like PEPcase (1) Mo,N,K (2) Mo,N,S
122. Nodules of soyabean export the fixed nitrogen as (3) Cu,Mo,N (4) Zn,Fe,S
(1) Ureides (2) Glutamic acid 129. Essential elements as components of energy
(3) Asparatic acid (4) Asparagine related chemical compounds in plants are
(1) Mg and Ca (2) Mg and P
123. Brown leaf spots surrounded by chlorotic veins
are due to (3) P and K (4) Ca and P

(1) Toxicity of Mg
(3) Deficiency of Mn
124. Nitrite reductase
(1) Contains copper and iron
(2) Is involved in N2 fixation
(3) Reduces nitrates to nitrites
(4) Oxidises NADH2 to NAD
125. Match the following columns and select the
correct option
Column I
a) Nitrogen fixation
b) Nitrification
c) Denitrification
d) Ammonification
a b c d
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(2) Toxicity of Mo 130. Root nodule formation occurs due to division of
(1) Root hair cells
(4) Toxicity of Mn
(2) Epidermal cells
(3) Cells of cortex and pericycle
(4) Cells of only pericycle
131. Necrosis or death of tissue, particularly leaf
tissue, is due to the deficiency of
(1) N, K, S, Mo (2) N, S, Mo
(3) Fe, Zn, Mn, Mo (4) Ca, Mg, Cu, K
132. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t criteria of
essentiality of an element.
Column II
(1) The element must support normal growth and
i) Nitrosomonas reproduction
ii) Pseudomonas (2) The requirement of the element must be
iii) Bacillus vulgaris specific
(3) The element must be directly involved in the
iv) Rhodospirillum
metabolism of the plant
(4) The deficiency of any one element can be
met by supplying some other element.

(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) 133. Statement A: There are techniques that are able
to detect the minerals even at a very low
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
concentration of 108 g / mL
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Statement B: Deficiency of any element can
126. Number of electrons and protons required for the cause multiple symptoms.
formation of ammonia from nitrite during nitrate
(1) Both the statements are correct
assimilation in plants
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(1) 6 & 6 (2) 8 & 8
(3) Only statement A is correct
(3) 6 & 12 (4) 4 & 4
(4) Only statement B is correct
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One Year Medical – NEET 2023 Fortnightly Test–2_(OYM _Code–A)_JCT
134. How many statements are correct for boron? 140. The essential element that activates the enzymes
a) Required for pollen germination of photosynthesis and respiration and involved in
synthesis of DNA and RNA is absorbed by plants
b) Required for chlorophyll synthesis
as
c) Determines solute concentration of cell
(1) Divalent cation (2) Divalent anion
d) Required for carbohydrate translocation
 
(3) Trivalent cation (4) Univalent cation
e) Absorbed as BO33 or B4O72
141. The process of mineral absorption from the soil in
(1) One (2) Two first phase is
(3) Three (4) Four (1) Slow, passive and involves symplast.
135. Sources of atmospheric nitrogen oxides are
(2) Rapid, passive and involves apoplast
(i) Industrial combustions
(3) Through transmembrane proteins and slow
(ii) Forest fires process
(iii) Automobile exhausts
(4) Fast, active and involves symplast.
(iv) Power generating stations
142. Match the following columns and select the
(1) All except (ii) (2) All except (iii) correct option
(3) All except (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Column I Column II
SECTION–B
136. Decomposition of organic nitrogen of dead plants a) Hydroponics i) Maintain osmotic
and animals into ammonia is called potential of cell
sap.
(1) Nitrification (2) Ammonification
(3) Denitrification (4) N2 fixation b) C,H,O and N ii) Absorbed as
divalent cation
137. Optimum concentration of micronutrient is
c) Nitrate, Sulphate, iii) Structural
(1) Less than 10mmole Kg 1 of dry matter elements of cells
K  , Cl 
(2) More than 10mmole Kg 1 of dry matter iv) Avoids problem of
d) Calcium and
weeds
(3) Less than 10mmole g 1 of dry matter copper

(1) a (iv), b (ii), c(i), d(iii)

(4) More than 10mmole g 1 of dry matter
(2) a (ii), b (iii), c(i), d(iv)
138. Reductive amination requires
(1)   Ketoglutaric acid (3) a (iv), b (iii), c(i), d(ii)

(2) Glutamate dehydrogenase (4) a (iii), b (ii), c(i), d(iv)

(3) Transaminase 143. Which of the following is not a deficiency

symptom of essential elements?
(4) Both (1) & (2)
139. The essential element present in plant tissues in (1) Necrosis

excess of 10mmole Kg 1 of dry matter is (2) Premature fall of leaves and buds

(1) Cu (2) S (3) Stunted plant growth

(3) Mo (4) Cl (4) Mosaic and vein clearing

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Fortnightly Test–2_ (OYM _Code–A)_JCT One Year Medical – NEET 2023
144. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t the biological 147. Choose incorrect statement
nitrogen fixation by Rhizobium (1) Ammonia is protonated to ammonium ion at
(1) Leg – haemoglobin is an oxygen scavenger physiological PH
(2) The enzyme transaminase catalyses the
(2) Nitrogenase catalyses the conversion of
transfer of amino group from one amino acid
atmospheric N2 to ammonia.
to the keto group of a keto acid.
(3) Nitrogen is reduced by hydrogen atoms (3) The energy required for N2 fixation is
provided by strong reducing agents like obtained from the respiration of the bacterial
NADPH2, FMNH2 cell.
(4) Most of the plants can assimilate nitrate as
(4) Nitrogenase is functional in presence of
well as ammonium ions.
oxygen.
148. Arrange the following events of nodule formation
145. The mineral element that activates   amylases in correct sequence of occurrence in soyabean.
and phospholipases is also involved in
a) Bacteria get modified into rod shaped
(1) Synthesis of chlorophyll bacteroides
b) A mature nodule is complete with vascular
(2) Synthesis of nucleic acids
tissues continuous with those of the root.
(3) Normal functioning of cell membrane c) Infection thread carries the bacteria to the
(4) Metabolism of urea inner cortex.
d) Rhizobium contact a susceptible root hair &
146. Match the following essential elements with their
divide near it.
deficiency symptoms
e) Division and growth of cortical and pericycle
Column I Column II cells lead to nodule formation.
(1) dcaeb (2) dacbe
(a) Phosphorus (i) Loss of apical
(3) dabec (4) cdabe
dominance
149. Select the correct statement w.r.t hydroponics
(b) Potassium (ii) Delay in seed (1) It can be employed as a technique for the
germination commercial production of tomato, lettuce &
seedless cucumber.
(c) Sulphur (iii) Plastid
(2) Nutrient solutions need not be aerated for
disintegration
optimum growth.

(d) Boron (iv) Accumulation of (3) Essential elements and their deficiency
symptoms cannot be identified.
anthocyanins
(4) Sterilised glass jar covered with black paper
maximises the risk of algal contamination.
(1) a (iv), b (iii), c(i), d(ii)
150. The micronutrient that helps in determining the
(2) a (ii), b (iii), c(i), d(iv)
solute concentration and anion – cation balance
(3) a (ii), b (iii), c(iv), d(i) in cells is
(1) K (2) Cl
(4) a (iii), b (ii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) Mn (4) Na

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One Year Medical – NEET 2023 Fortnightly Test–2_(OYM _Code–A)_JCT

ZOOLOGY
SECTION–A 156. Solubility of CO is
151. Tissues that are involved in formation of diffusion (1) 10 – 15 times more than O2
membrane are
(2) 15 – 20 times more than O2
(1) Alveolar epithelium with squamous cells only
(3) 20 – 25 times more than O2
(2) Endothelial epithelium with cuboidal cells only
(3) Both Alveolus and endothelium with (4) 200 – 250 times more than O2

squamous cells 157. List out the animals that show respiration through
(4) Alveolus, epithelial and basement membrane gills

152. Ribcage is made up of Antedon, Nereis, Limulus, Frog tadpole, Clarius,

Sphyrna
(1) Vertebral column – ventrally, sternum –
dorsally, ribs ventrally (1) 4 (2) 3

(2) Vertebral column – dorsally, Sternum – (3) 2 (4) 1

ventrally, ribs – laterally 158. Pneumotaxic centre is located in
(3) Vertebral column – laterally, Sternum – (1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum
dorsally, ribs ventrally
(3) Medulla oblongata (4) Pons
(4) Vertebral column – ventrally – Sternum –
159. Process of exchange of O2 from the atmosphere
laterally, ribs ventrally
with CO2 produced by the cells is called as
153. Partial pressure of O2 at the alveoli is
(1) Breathing (2) Digestion
(1) 104 mm of Hg (2) 45 mm of Hg
(3) Circulation (4) Excretion
(3) 40 mm of Hg (3) 95 mm of Hg
160. Match the following
154. Every 500 ml of air inhaled / exhaled in a person
Animal Mode of respiration
in sleep is
a) Sponge i) Body surface
(1) Residual volume
b) Earthworm ii) Trachea
(2) Tidal volume
c) Insect iii) Moist cuticle
(3) Total lung capacity
d) Molluscs iv) Gills
(4) Inspiratory capacity
(1) a – iv b – iii c – ii d – I
155. Choose from the given options, the enzyme that
facilitates the following reaction in both the (2) a – i b – iii c – ii d – iv
directions (3) a – i b – iv c – iii d – ii

CO2  H2O H2CO3 HCO3  H  (4) a – iv b – iii c – i d – ii

161. Nasal epithelium is made up of
(1) Permease
(1) Columnal cells
(2) Trypsin
(2) Cuboidal cells
(3) Carbonic anhydrase
(3) Pseudostratified columnar cells
(4) Renin
(4) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar cells
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Fortnightly Test–2_(OYM _Code–A)_JCT One Year Medical – NEET 2023
162. Cartilage of larynx that forms ‘Adam’s Apple’ is 169. Reflex that controls the over inflation of lungs and
respiratory passages is co–ordinated or
(1) Arytenoid cartilage (2) Thyroid cartilage
controlled through
(3) Cricoid cartilage (3) Epiglottis
(1) 10th cranial nerve (2) 9th cranial nerve
163. Trachea divided into primary bronchi at the level (3) 5th cranial nerve (4) 12th cranial nerve
of
170. Partial pressure of CO2 in the expired air
rd th
(1) 3 thoracic vertebra (2) 4 thoracic vertebra (1) 11 mm of Hg (2) 32 mm of Hg
(3) 5th thoracic vertebra (4) 6th thoracic vertebra (3) 104 mm of Hg (4) 45 mm of Hg

164. Number of alveoli in a pair of lungs in human are 171. Partial pressure of O2 in the alveoli of lungs is
(1) Equal to that of the blood
(1) 600 million (2) 300 million
(2) Less to that of the blood
(3) 400 million (4) 100 million
(3) More to that of the blood
165. Surfactant that prevents the collapsing of lungs is (4) Very less to that of blood
secreted by 172. Respiratory disorder characterised by difficulty in
(1) Type – I alveoli breathing wheezing, constriction of bronchi
(1) Asthma (2) Emphysema
(2) Type – II alveoli
(3) ORD (4) Common cold
(3) Terminal bronchioles
173. Choose the correct statement
(4) Secondary bronchioles (1) Capacity of 1 gram of Hb to combine with O2
166. Number of fissures seen in right lung are is 13.4 ml
(1) 2 (2) 3 (2) Approximately 10 ml of CO2 is delivered to
alveoli by every 100 ml of deoxygenated
(3) 4 (4) 1
blond.
167. Inspiration can be defined by which of the
(3) Under stress condition, O2 levels drop to
following features.
about 4.4 ml / 100 ml in venules
(a) Active process
(4) Arterial blood transports about 10 ml of O2
(b) Contraction of external intercostal muscles per 100 ml of blood
(c) Contraction of diaphragm 174. Match the following

(d) Relaxation of thorax Column – I Column – II

(1) a, c (2) a, b, c (a) IC (i) TV + IRV

(b) TLC (ii) ERV + TV + IRV
(3) a, d (4) b, d
(c) VC (iii) RV+ERV+ TV
168. Abdominal breathing involves
+1RV
(a) Diaphragm
(d) RC (iv) ERV + RV
(b) Costal muscles (1) a – ii b – iii c – i d – iv
(c) Abdominal muscles (2) a – iv b – ii c – iii d – i

(1) a only (2) b only (3) a – i b – ii c – iii d – iv

(4) a – iii b – ii c – iv d – i
(3) c only (4) a, b, c

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One Year Medical – NEET 2023 Fortnightly Test–2_(OYM _Code–A)_JCT
175. Percentage of O2 & CO2 carried by plasma in a 182. Diffusion of gases from alveoli to blood and blood
dissolved state is to alveoli is purely based on

(1) 3 %, 7 % (2) 7 %, 3 % (1) Partial pressure of gas

(2) Thickness of diffusion membrane
(3) 40 %, 50 % (4) 15 %, 20 %
176. Carbon monoxide in combination with (3) Temp and PH
haemoglobin forms. (4) More than one option is correct
(1) Carboxy haemoglobin 183. Chemoreceptors that identify the increase in
(2) Carbamino haemoglobin concentration of CO2 in the circulating blood are
seen in
(3) Oxyhaenoglobin
(1) Aorta (2) Carotid artery
(4) Methaemoglobin
(3) Lungs (4) 1 & 2
177. Number of O2 molecules carried by one RBC are
184. Identify the incorrect statement
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) Majority of the O2 is transported in the form
(3) 4 (4) 1
of Hb O2 4
178. During CO2 transport, which of these is incorrect
(2) Binding of Hb and O2 is reversible
statement
(1) Oxyhaemoglobin acts as strong acid (3) Comparison between adult haemoglobin &
focal Hb is w.r.t structure & affinity
(2) HCO3 ions are seen more in Plasma
(4) Haem in blood is Fe3
(3) Size of RBC increases
185. O2 transport under normal conditions is

(4) Movement of Cl into the RBC ie, Haldane’s
(1) Equal to the transport in physical exercise
effect is seen
(2) Less to the transport in physical exercise
179. ln Bohr’s effect, dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin is
(3) High to the transport in physical exercise
primarily based on
(4) More than one option in correct
(1) PP of O2
SECTION–B
(2) PP of CO2
186. Shape of the curve derived during Bohr’s effect is
(3) Low temperature (1) Parabolic curve (2) Hyperbolic curve
(4) High PH (3) Sigmoid curve (4) No curve
180. Graph moves to right in Bohr’s effect due to 187. Partial pressure of O2 required for atleast 50%
which of these conditions saturation of RBC is
(1) Low temperature (1) 25 mm of Hg (2) 50 mm of Hg

(2) High PH (3) 75 mm of Hg (4) 95 mm of Hg

(3) High conc. of 2,3 DPG 188. Affinity of Hb to bind with O2 reduces at higher

(4) Foetal Hb attitudes. This conditions is called is

181. Which of the following diseases is not an ORD (1) Attitude sickness
(2) Mountain sickness
(1) Silicosis (2) Black lung disease
(3) Diver’s sickness
(3) Siderosis (4) Emphysema
(4) More than one option is correct
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Fortnightly Test–2_(OYM _Code–A)_JCT One Year Medical – NEET 2023
189. O2 that is reserved in the circulating blood even 195. Low PCO2 , High PO2 , temporary apnea are
after usage by tissues is utilised during observed in
(1) Muscle activity (2) Suffocation (1) Regular breathing (2) Hypoventilation
(3) Asphyxia (4) Choking (3) Hyperventilation (4) Tachyapnea
190. The enzyme carbonic anhydrase is present 196. Find the mismatch
(1) More in RBC than in plasma (1) Eupnea – Normal breathing
(2) More in plasma than in RBC (2) Hyperpnea – Rapid breathing
(3) More in alveoli than in tissues (3) Dyspnea – Painful breathing
(4) More in tissues than in alveoli (4) Apnea – Slow breathing

191. Movement of Cl  ion from RBC to plasma is due 197. Find the odd one out w.r.t diseases.
to (1) Pneumonia (2) Common cold
(1) Increase of PP of O2 (3) Pneumoconiosis (4) Flu

(2) Decrease in PP to CO2 198. Hypercapnia is increase in the concentration of

…… in blood/tissues
(3) Movement of HCO3 ions into the plasma
(1) CO2 (2) O2

(4) Movement of HCO3 ions in to the RBC

(3) Temperature (4) PH
192. Reverse chloride shift happens at the level of 199. Respiratory rhythm is seen in
(1) Arteries (2) Veins (1) Medulla (2) Pons
(3) Tissues (4) Alveoli (3) Cerebellum (4) Cerebrum
193. ‘Switch off point of inspiration’ is seen in 200. Choose the incorrect feature w.r.t normal
(1) Medulla (2) Cerebellum exhalation

(3) Pons (4) Cerebmm (1) Diaphragm relaxes

194. Respiratory rhythmic centre is not stimulated by (2) Elastic recoiling of lungs contract
(3) External intercostal muscles relax
(1) CO2 (2) H  ions
(4) Intra pleural pressure becomes more
(3) High PCO2 (4) Low respiratory rate
negative

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