SAMPLE PAPER

MM : 720 Test - 01 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & XII

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / Unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A 5mgl 2mgl
2
1. A 120 kg dolphin decelerates from 15 m/s to (1) r Y (2) r 2Y
7.5 m/s in 5 s to join another dolphin in play. What
average force was exerted to slow the first dolphin 3mgl 5mgl
2 2
if it was moving horizontally? (Assume that (3) r Y (4) r Y
gravitational force is balanced by the buoyant 3. A carnot engine works as a refrigerator between
force of the water) 250 K and 300 K. It receives 500 cal heat from the
(1) 120 N (2) 18 N reservoir at the lower temperature. The amount of

(3) 180 N (4) 60 N work done in each cycle to operate the refrigerator
is nearly
2. An object of mass m is connected to a wire of
(1) 420 J (2) 2100 J
length ‘l’, radius ‘r’ and Young’s modulus ‘Y’ as
shown in figure. If the object is released from the (3) 772 J (4) 2520 J
horizontal position of the wire, then find out the 4. At which of the following temperatures does any
maximum increment in length of the wire. gas have average molecular kinetic energy double
that of at 20°C?
(1) 40°C
(2) 80°C
(3) 313°C

(1)
CST-27 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
(4) 586°C qin
5. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the
 E.ds = 0  B.ds = 0
(1) (2)
north or the south pole of a bar magnet, it is
−d B qin
(1) Attracted by both the poles  E.dl = dt
 E.dl = 0
(3) (4)
(2) Repelled by both the poles
10. The superposition of waves can result in
(3) Repelled by the north pole and attracted by
the south pole (1) Interference

(4) Attracted by the north pole and repelled by the (2) Polarisation
south pole (3) Both Interference and polarisation
6. A capacitor is of capacity C and reactance X. If (4) Neither Interference nor polarisation
capacitance and frequency become triple then 11. A rectangular coil of wire of 500 turns of area
reactance will be 10 × 5 cm2 carries a current of 2 A in a magnetic
(1) 4X (2) 3X field of induction 2 × 10–3 T. If the plane of the coil
is parallel to the field. The torque on the coil is
X X (in Nm)
(3) 9 (4) 4 (1) 0.1 (2) 0.01
(3) 0.001 (4) 1
12. A source of frequency ‘X’ gives 5 beats/s when
sounded with a source of frequency 95 Hz. The
third harmonic of source (X) gives 10 beats/s
when sound with a source of frequency 290 Hz.
The value of X is
(1) 200 Hz (2) 300 Hz
(3) 100 Hz (4) 90 Hz
7. 13. A stretched wire vibrates with a frequency of
The temperature of the black body as calculated 80 Hz when the tension is T1 and frequency of 150
from the graph is (Wien’s constant = 2.89x10-3) Hz when the tension is T2. When the tension is (T1
+ T2), its frequency of vibration is (in Hz)
(1) 1156 K (2) 1200 K
(1) 170 (2) 230
(3) 1348 K (4) 1500 K
(3) 240 (4) 210
8. Which of the following combination of properties
14. In a measurement, a choice of change of different
would be desirable for handling a cooking pan?
units
(1) Low thermal conductivity and low specific heat
(1) Does not change the number of significant
(2) Low thermal conductivity and high specific figures
heat (2) Increase the number of significant figures
(3) High thermal conductivity and high specific (3) Decrease the number of significant figures
heat
(4) May increase or may decrease the number of
(4) High thermal conductivity and low specific significant figures
heat
15. Match the following.
9. The correct expression in accordance with (a) Temperature (p) Light year
Gauss’s law for magnetism is
(b) Mass (q) Shake
(c) Length (r) Fahrenheit

(2)
 (d) Time (s) Atomic mass unit
(1) a(s), b(p), c(q), d(r)
(2) a(s), b(p), c(r), d(q)
(3) a(r), b(s), c(p), d(q)
(4) a(p), b(q), c(s), d(r)
16. An AND gate can be prepared by repetitive use of
(a) NOT gate (b) OR gate
(1) 30 m (2) 20 m
(c) NAND gate (d) NOR gate
(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct (3) 10 m (4) Zero

(2) Only (c) and (d) are correct 21. A man is sitting in a boat which is floating in a
pond. If the man drinks some water from the pond,
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct
what will happen to the level of water in the pond?
(4) All are correct
(1) Increases
17. Statement A: In intrinsic semiconductors,
conductivity is mainly due to the breakage of (2) Decreases
covalent bonds. (3) Remains same
Statement B: In extrinsic semiconductors, the
(4) Depends on weight of boat
conductivity is mainly due to the addition of
impurities. 22. For a region of constant electric potential, which of
(1) A is true, B is false the following statements is incorrect?

(2) A is false, B is true (1) The electric field may be uniform

(3) Both A and B are true (2) The electric field may be zero
(4) Both A and B are false (3) There can be no charge inside the region
18. Which of the following is true? (4) The electric field shall necessarily change if a
(1) The Lyman series has a continuous spectrum charge is placed outside the region
(2) The Balmer series is a line spectrum in the UV 23. Choose the correct statement for the circuit shown
region in figure
(3) The Paschan series is a line spectrum in the
infrared region
(4) Spectral series formula is derived from
Rutherford’s model of the hydrogen atom
19. The missing particles or nuclides in the reactions
14 14
?( p,  )16
8 O and 7 N(?, p)6 C , respectively, are (p
stands for proton and α for alpha particle)
19 1 18 2
(1) 9 F and 0n (2) 9 F and 1 H
(1) Potential difference between points B and E is
18 0 14 1 10 V
(3) 9 F and 1 e (4) 7 N and 0n
(2) Potential difference between points A and B is
20. The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a
straight line is shown in the figure. Find the 15 V
distance travelled by the body in 6 seconds. (3) The current in the 4 Ω resistor is 0.25 A
(4) The current in the 8 Ω resistor is 0.25 A
24. A uniform wire of resistance 20 Ω having
resistance 1 Ω/m is bent in the form of a circle as

(3)
CST-27 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
shown in figure. If the equivalent resistance (1) 4 minute (2) 6 minute
between A and B is 1.8 Ω, then length of the (3) 12 minute (4) 8 minute
shorter section is
29. Consider the following two statements.
(A) The gravitational force on a particle inside a
spherical shell is zero.
(B) Total mechanical energy of a body on earth’s
surface may be positive or negative.
Which of the following options is correct?
(1) Statement A is correct while statement B is
incorrect
(1) 1.8 m (2) 2 m
(2) Statement B is correct while statement A is
(3) 3.6 m (4) 4 m
incorrect
25. In a region of space, the electric field is given by
(3) Statements A & B are correct
E = 6iˆ − 4 ˆj + 7kˆ . Electric flux through a surface of (4) Statements A & B are incorrect
area 200 unit in y-z plane will be 30. Two conducting rods inclined at ‘θ’ angle from
(1) 1200 unit (2) 600 unit horizontal are kept parallel at separation ‘l’ to each
(3) 200 unit (4) 800 unit other. A resistor of resistance R joins the two rods
26. In the diagram shown below, the block has charge at their topmost points. A metal bar of length ‘l’ is
Q and is attached at one end of the light spring. free to slide on the rods as shown in figure. On
The surface is smooth and horizontal and spring releasing from rest, the maximum speed that can
is in its natural length. If the electric field E is be attained by the bar if a constant magnetic field
switched on, the maximum elongation in the B exists vertically downwards, is
spring will be

QE 2QE
Rmg sin  Rmg sin 
(1) k (2) k
2 2
(1) B l (2) B 2l 2 cos2 
QE 3QE
(3) 2k (4) 2k Rmg Rmg
2 2
27. Two springs with spring constants k1 = 1200 N/m (3) B l sin  (4) B 2 l 2
and k2 = 500 N/m are stretched by the same force.
31. The radius of circle, the period of revolution T,
The ratio of potential energy stored in the springs
initial position and sense of revolution are
will be
indicated in the figure. x-projection of the radius
25 12 vector of rotating particle P is
(1) 144 (2) 5

5 144
(3) 12 (4) 25
28. A man who can swim with a speed of 2 km/h wants
to cross a river 200 m wide. If the river is flowing
with a speed of 3 km/h then in what minimum time
can the man cross the river?

(4)
   (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
x(t ) = 5 sin  t 
(1) 5  SECTION-B
36. A prism has refracting angle of 30° and it is made
 
x (t ) = −5 sin  t 
(2) 5  of glass of refractive index 2 . At what angle
should a light ray be incident on a face of prism
 
x(t ) = 5 − 5 sin  t  such that it passes normally through the other
(3) 5  face?

  (1) 30° (2) 60°

x (t ) = −5 + 5 sin  t 
(4) 5  (3) 45° (4) 90°

32. Deviation of a light ray by a thin prism of refractive 37. From a sprinkler of length 1 m, water is thrown out
index μ and refracting angle A is with 0.5 m/s tangentially at the rate of 0.6 kg/min.
If diameter of sprinkler is 8 cm and moment of
A inertia is 500 g cm2, the rate at which angular
(1) μA (2) (  − 1) speed of sprinkler will increase is (assume there
is no resistance to motion)
A
(1) 10 rad/s2
(3)  (4) (μ – 1)A
(2) 100 rad/s2
33. A telescope with objective of focal length 100 cm (3) 1000 rad/s2
and eyepiece of focal length 5 cm is focused on a
(4) 10000 rad/s2
far object such that parallel rays emerge from
eyepiece. If object subtends an angle of 1° on 38. A block of mass 2m is moving with speed v
objective, the angular size of image is towards a spring block system as shown in the
figure. If collision of the two blocks is perfectly
(1) 10° (2) 5°
inelastic then maximum compression in the spring
(3) 20° (4) 80° will be
34. A car is skidding on an icy road with speed v and
v
tyres are rotating with angular speed 3R , where
R is the radius of tyres. The distance travelled by
car in one rotation of tyres is
3m 2m
2 R v v
(1) k (2) 9k
(1) 2πR (2) 3
2m 4m
4 R v v
(3) 3k (4) 3k
(3) 3 (4) 6πR
39. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as
35. The ratio of tensions TA : TB in two strings A and B
the nth power of distance. Then, time period of a
supporting a log of mass M as shown in figure is
planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun
will be proportional to
n −1
(1) Rn (2) R 2
n +1
(3) R 2 (4) Rn/2
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3

(5)
CST-27 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
40. A uniform wire of resistance R is stretched
uniformly to n times. It is then cut to form five wires
of equal length. These wires are arranged as
shown in figure. The effective resistance between
A and C is

mg mgd
(1) k (2) kD

mg  d mg  D 
1 −  1 − 
(3) k  D  (4) k  d

44. In which of the following numerical values, all

2 2 zeroes are significant?
n R n R
(1) 3 (2) 5 (1) 0.04040 (2) 40.4 × 1030

nR nR (3) 40.40 (4) 0.0404

(3) 5 (4) 3 IC IC
= =
41. A 1 μF capacitor is charged by 100 V supply. It is 45. In a transistor if IE and IB . If α varies
then disconnected from the supply and is 20 100
connected to another uncharged 1 μF capacitor. ,
between 21 and 101 then the value of β lies
The percentage of energy lost in form of heat and
between
electromagnetic radiation is
(1) 1 – 10
(1) 25% (2) 30%
(2) 0.95 – 0.99
(3) 60% (4) 50%
(3) 200 – 300
42. An electron of mass ‘m’ with an initial velocity
h (4) 20 – 100
0 =
v = v0iˆ is in electric field E = E0 jˆ. If mv 0 , 46. Two long straight conductors carry currents 3 A
its de Broglie wavelength at time ‘t’ is given by and 1 A into the plane of paper. A circular path is
(Check the symbols for vectors) imagined to enclose these currents. The value of

e 2E02t 2  B.dl is
0 1 +
(1) λ0 (2) m 2v 02 (1) 6μ0

0 0 (2) 4μ0

e2E02t 2  e 2E 2t 2  (3) μ0
1+ 1 + 0 
m2v 02  2 2 
(3) (4)  m v 0  (4) 3μ0

43. A cube of mass ‘m’ and density ‘D’ is suspended 47. For the setup shown in figure, the distance
from the point ‘P’ by a spring of stiffness k as between slits is much smaller as compared to the
shown in figure. The system is kept inside a distance of slits from the screen. The total number
beaker filled with a liquid of density ‘d’, where of minimas on the screen are (where
D > d. What is the elongation in the spring?
d = 4λ)

(6)
 49. An ideal gas undergoes the process 1→2 as
shown in the figure, the heat supplied and work
done in the process is ΔQ and ΔW respectively.
The ratio ΔQ : ΔW is

(1) 8 (1) γ : (γ – 1) (2) γ

(3) (γ – 1) (4) (γ – 1) : γ
(2) 5
50. In a series C-R circuit shown in figure, the applied
(3) 10 voltage is 10 V and the voltage across the
(4) 6 capacitor is found to be 8 V. The voltage across R
and the phase difference between current and the
48. For a given system find out T1′ and T2′ (forces
applied voltage will be respectively
exerted by the pulley on the support) respectively.

(1) 4 2, 6 2

4 3
(2) 72 2, 60 2 6 V, tan−1   3 V, tan−1  
(1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 80 2, 36 3 3 4

6 V, tan−1   6 V, sin−1  
(3) 4 (4) 3
(4) 40 2, 3 2

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 52. Statement I: Sulphuric acid is used to
51. Correct order of melting point is manufacture nitric acid from sodium nitrate.

(1) HI > HF > HCl > HBr Statement II: Sulphuric acid is less volatile than
nitric acid.
(2) HI > HF > HBr > HCl
In the light of the above statements, identify the
(3) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
correct option.
(4) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct

(7)
 (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is (III) Tranquilizers and analgesics are
incorrect neurologically active drugs
The correct statements among the following are
(3) Both statement I and II are correct
(1) I and III only (2) II and III only
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(3) I and II only (4) I, II and III
53. Consider the following reaction
58. When MnO2 is fused with potassium hydroxide in
presence of KNO3, the deep green compound
obtained is
(1) KMnO4 (2) K2MnO4
(3) Mn(OH)2 (4) Mn2O3
The major product formed is 59. Which of the following has lowest ionisation
enthalpy?
(1) C (2) Ge
(3) Sn (4) Pb
(1) (2) 60. Beryllium hydroxide reacts with alkali to form
(1) [Be(OH)3]– (2) [Be(OH)4]2–
(3) [Be(H2O)2]2+ (4) [Be(H2O)4]2+
61. Which among the following elements is not a
representative element?
(3) (4)
(1) Sr (2) Cl
54. In which of the following alcohols, dehydration (3) Sn (4) Zn
takes place most readily in acidic medium?
62. Which among the following will boil at highest
temperature?
(1) (2) (1) HCl (2) HBr
(3) HI (4) HF
(3) (4) 63. Which of the following is not a common
component of photochemical smog?
55. Nitroethane when heated above 573 K yields
(1) SO2 (2) NO
(1) Ethane
(3) O3 (4) HCHO
(2) Ethene
64. The correct order of increasing energy of orbitals
(3) Ethyne in a multielectron atom is
(4) Ethylamine (1) 4p < 4s < 3d < 2p (2) 2p < 3d < 4p < 4s
56. Identify the incorrect statement. (3) 2p < 3d < 4s < 4p (4) 2p < 4s < 3d < 4p
(1) Acrylonitrile is used in making acrilan. 65. The compound which is most easily soluble in
aqueous alkali is
(2) Zeigler Natta catalyst is triethylaluminium and
titanium tetrachloride.
(3) Nylon 6, 6 is a fibre
(4) High density polythene is chemically reactive. (1) (2)

57. Consider the following statements

(I) Histamine is a potent vasodilator
(II) Brompheniramine is an antihistamine (3) (4)
66. Consider the following reaction sequence

(8)
 (4)
69. Low spin complex of d4 cation in an octahedral
field will have the following energy
Major product B is
(P is pairing energy)
(1) –2.4Δ0 + P (2) –1.2Δ0 + 2P
(3) –1.6Δ0 + P (4) –0.6Δ0
70. Estimation of nitrogen using Kjeldahl’s method is
(1) (2)
applicable to
(1) CH3CH2 – NO2

(3) (4)
(2)
67. Statement-I : Phenol is converted to benzene on
heating with zinc dust.
Statement-II : Chromic acid oxidises phenol to (3)
benzoquinone.
In light of the above statements, choose the
(4)
correct answer.
71. Correct IUPAC name of the following compound is
(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect
(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
correct (1) 3-Carboxypenta-1, 5-dioic acid
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct. (2) Prop-1, 2, 3-trioic acid
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are (3) Propane-1, 2, 3-tricarboxylic acid
incorrect
(4) Hex-2, 3, 4-tricarboxylic acid
68. Compound A having molecular formula C9H10O2
72. Oxidising behaviour of H2SO4 is observed in
on reaction with dilute HCl gives compound X and
Y. X evolves CO2 on reaction with aqueous (1) 2NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2H2O
NaHCO3 and Y gives yellow precipitate on
reaction with I2/NaOH. Structure of compound A is (2) 2PCl5 + H2SO4 → 2POCl3 + 2HCl + SO2Cl2

(3) 2HI + H2SO4 → SO2 + I2 + 2H2O

(4) SO3 + H2SO4 → H2S2O7

(1)

73. The Ecell for the cell reaction
Cr + Fe2+ → Cr3+ + Fe, will be
(2)
(Given: ΔG° = –170 kJ mol–1)
(1) 0.37 V (2) 0.29 V
(3)
(3) 0.21 V (4) 0.16 V

(9)
74. Statement-I : hcp and ccp structure are equally 80. If pH of saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 12 then
efficient. Ksp of Ca(OH)2 is
Statement-II : Same number of atoms are present (1) 4 × 10–2 (2) 5 × 10–7
in a hcp and ccp unit cell. (3) 6 × 10–3 (4) 2 × 10–7
In the light of above statements choose the correct 81. The shape of molecule when the central atom
option among the following. contains 3 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs is
(1) Statement-I is correct, but statement-II is (1) Trigonal planar (2) T-shape
incorrect
(3) Pyramidal (4) Bent
(2) Statement-I is incorrect, but statement-II is
82. Optimum pH range for the enzymatic activity is
correct
(1) 1 – 3
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are (2) 3 – 5
incorrect (3) 5 – 7
75. The phenomenon of producing electrical signals in (4) 7 – 9
a crystal by applying pressure is known as
83. How many half-lives will be required for 99.9%
(1) Piezoelectricity (2) Ferrielectricity completion of 1st order reaction?
(3) Pyroelectricity (4) Ferroelectricity (1) 3 (2) 5
76. Volume of CO2 obtained at STP on heating 100 g (3) 8 (4) 10
of CaCO3 sample (25% purity) is
84. The mixture which shows negative deviation from
(1) 22.4 L (2) 11.2 L Raoult's law is
(3) 7.6 L (4) 5.6 L (1) Acetone + Chloroform
77. Statement-I: Ellingham diagram explains the
(2) Acetone + Ethanol
kinetics of reduction process.
(3) Acetone + Benzene
Statement-II: Hydraulic washing, a method of
concentration of ore is based on the differences in (4) Ethanol + Water
gravities of the ore and the gangue. 85. Assuming 100% dissociation, the van’t Hoff factor
In the light of above statements choose the correct of Hg2Cl2 is
option among the following. (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true (3) 3 (4) 4
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are false SECTION-B
(3) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false 86. Consider the following sequence of reactions,
(4) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true
78. Hydrolith on treatment with water gives
(1) H2(g) (2) O2(g)
(3) H2O2(l) (4) CaCO3 Major product C is
79. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) ⎯ Cl2(g), the sign of ΔH
and ΔS respectively are
(1) +ve and +ve (2) –ve and –ve
(3) +ve and –ve (4) –ve and +ve
(1) (2)

(10)
 91. Mesityl oxide is the aldol condensation product of
(1) Acetaldehyde (2) Acetophenone
(3) (4) (3) Acetone (4) Propionaldehyde

87. By what factor does the root mean square speed 92. For esters, prefix used in IUPAC nomenclature is
of the gaseous molecules increase when the (1) Carboxy (2) Carbamoyl
temperature is tripled? (3) Formyl (4) Alkoxycarbonyl
(1) 1.41 93. Number of products (structural isomers only)
(2) 1.73 formed by monochlorination of 3-methylpentane is

(3) 2.4 (1) 6 (2) 5

(4) 0.91 (3) 4 (4) 3

88. Identify the correct statement(s) regarding Solvay 94. Equivalent mass of Na2CO3 when it is titrated
process. against HCl in presence of phenolphthalein
indication is
(I) Sodium carbonate is generally prepared by
this process. (1) 53 (2) 79.5

(II) Ammonia is recovered when solution (3) 35.33 (4) 106

containing ammonium chloride is treated with 95. Limiting equivalent conductivity of calcium
sodium chloride. phosphate is given by
(III) It cannot be used to manufacture potassium
hydrogencarbonate. ( m )Ca2+
( m )PO3−
+ 4

(1) I and II only (2) I and III only (1) 2 3

89.
(3) II and III only (4) I, II and III
A 662 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of (2)
( m )Ca + ( m )PO
2+ 3−
4

wavelength 300 nm. The number of photons

emitted per second by the bulb is ( eq )Ca 2+
( eq )PO 3−
+ 4
[Take h = 6.62 × 10–34 Js] (3) 3 2
1021 s–1 1020 s–1
( eq )PO
(1) (2)
(3) 1018 s–1 (4) 1019 s–1 ( eq )Ca 2+
+
3−
4

90. Statement-I : 1 mol of CoCl3·5NH3 will give 2 mol (4) 2 3

of AgCl on reaction with excess AgNO3 solution. 96. If equilibrium constant Kc for a reaction is 1010 at
Statement-II : Secondary valency of Co in 27 °C, then ΔG° of the reaction at 27°C will be
CoCl3·5NH3 is 5. (1) –2303 R (2) –6909 R
Properties in light of the above statements, choose (3) –9212 R (4) 10133 R
the correct answer.
97. According to the classification based on the
(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is physical states of dispersed phase and dispersion
incorrect medium. There are how many types of colloidal
(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is sols possible?
correct (1) 3 (2) 5
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct (3) 8 (4) 9
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are
incorrect

(11)
98. Fraction of molecule having energy greater or (1) sp (2) sp2
equal to activation energy Ea at temperature T K (3) sp3 (4) dsp2
is given by
100. Heat required to raise the temperature of 5.4 g of
−Ea −E a aluminium from 35°C to 65°C is (Molar heat
(1) 1 − e RT (2) e RT capacity of Al = 24 J mol–1K–1)

Ea −RT (1) 36 J (2) 72 J

RT Ea (3) 144 J (4) 288 J
(3) e (4) e
99. Hybridisation of middle carbon in carbon suboxide
is

BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. Which of the given is not true w.r.t. CF0 of ATP
synthase?
(1) It is embedded in the thylakoid membrane
(2) It forms a transmembrane channel
(3) It carries out facilitated diffusion of protons
across the membrane
(4) It shows a conformation change in it, which
makes the enzyme synthesise several
molecules of energy-packed ATP
102. In DNA, hydrogen bond joins
(1) Nitrogenous base with pentose sugar
(2) Pentose sugar with phosphate group
(3) Two adjacent nitrogenous bases present on
the complementary strands
(4) Pyrimidines with deoxyribose sugar
103. RNA dependent DNA synthesis is related to
(1) Replication
(2) Transcription
(3) Translation
(4) Reverse transcription
104. All of the following act as a substrate in DNA
replication, except
(1) dATP (2) dUTP
(3) dCTP (4) dTTP
105. Mark incorrect statement w.r.t. anthropogenic
extinction.
(1) It is extermination of species caused directly
or indirectly by human activities
(2) It includes loss of biodiversity by habitat
destruction
(4) It occurs at a very slow rate
106. All of the given practices lead to soil erosion,
except
(1) Over cultivation
(2) Unrestricted grazing
(3) Poor-irrigation practices
(4) Restoring a forest
107. Mark the statement not true for chromosomal
theory of inheritance.
(1) Both, chromosomes as well as genes occur in
pairs
(2) A gamete contains only one chromosome of a
type
(3) Paired condition of both chromosomes as well
as Mendelian factors is restored during
gametogenesis
(4) Chromosomes retain their number, structure
and individuality throughout the life.
108. Mark the odd one w.r.t. co-dominance.
(1) Both the alleles express themselves equally
(2) F1 progeny resembles both the parents
(3) There is no mixing of the effects of the alleles
(4) F2 phenotypic ratio is 3 ∶ 1 while genotypic
ratio is 1 ∶ 2 ∶ 1
109. Which of the following traits exemplifies polygenic
inheritance?
(1) Human blood groups
(2) Skin colour in humans

(3) It is causing sixth mass extinction of species (3) Phenylketonuria disease

(12)
 (4) Starch synthesis in pea 118. The reduction in the number of chromosomes
110. Identify the incorrect match. occurs during which phase of meiosis?

(1) Euglena – Photosynthetic protozoan (1) Prophase I (2) Diakinesis

(2) Paramecium – Have two nuclei (3) Anaphase I (4) Metaphase I

(3) Trypanosoma – Pathogenic protozoan 119. Read the following statements about a
taxonomical aid and identify it.
(4) Nostoc – Symbiotic nitrogen fixer
(a) Provides index to the plant species found in a
111. Claviceps differs from Colletotrichum as the
particular area.
former
(b) Gives the actual account of habitat and
(1) Produces conidia
distribution of various plants of a given area.
(2) Have septate hyphae
(1) Monograph (2) Catalogue
(3) Produces meiospores in sac like structure
(3) Flora (4) Key
(4) Lack asexual reproduction
120. Which of the following is not a feature of all living
112. An edible fruiting body is formed by all, except organisms?
(1) Agaricus (2) Morels (1) Consciousness (2) Metabolism
(3) Truffles (4) Yeast (3) Reproduction (4) Growth
113. If a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, 121. Select the incorrect statement about Krebs cycle.
(1) Solute molecules will move out of the cell (1) Takes place in cytosol of eukaryotes
(2) It will become turgid (2) Also known as TCA cycle
(3) It will undergo plasmolysis (3) Enzymes for the cycle are found in
(4) Water will move into the cell mitochondrial matrix

114. A typical mature embryo sac in angiosperm is (4) Substrate level phosphorylation occurs at a
particular step
(1) 7-celled and 8-nucleated
122. Read the following statements and select the
(2) 4-celled and 8-nucleated
correct option.
(3) 8-celled and 4-nucleated
A. The plant part which is used in tissue culture
(4) 12-celled and 6-nucleated is called explant.
115. Algin and Carrageen is obtained from
B. Pathogen free clones of plants can be
(1) Green algae obtained through meristem culture.
(2) Brown and red algae, respectively (1) Only statement A is correct
(3) Blue green algae (2) Only statement B is correct
(4) Green and red algae, respectively (3) Both statements A and B are correct
116. Which among the following constitutes the ring (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
structure of chlorophyll and helps to maintain the
ribosome structure? 123. Many adaptations are seen in various organisms
that help them to survive in environment. Which
(1) Iron (2) Nitrogen
one of the following is not true regarding such
(3) Magnesium (4) Boron adaptations?
117. In cell division, crossing over happens during (1) Xerophytes have thick cuticle
(1) Diplotene (2) Leptotene (2) Scotoactive stomata in CAM plants
(3) Zygotene (4) Pachytene (3) Blubber in seals

(13)
 (4) Increase in binding capacity of haemoglobin to (1) Only statement A is correct
oxygen in humans at high altitude (2) Only statement B is correct
124. In the given food chain, what will be the energy (3) Both the statements A and B are correct
available to carnivore II?
(4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
Sunlight (100000 kcal)  Producer  Herbivore 
129. Stilt roots in maize arise from
Carnivore I  Carnivore II
(1) Internodes of the stem
(1) 10 kcal
(2) Lower nodes of the stem
(2) 1 kcal
(3) Fibrous adventitious roots
(3) 0.1cal
(4) 0.01 kcal (4) Elongated radicle

125. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. asexual 130. Match the following columns and select the
reproduction. correct option.

(1) It does not require the production of sex

organs Column-I Column-II
(2) It involves both meiotic and mitotic divisions
A. Offset (i) Modified axillary bud
(3) Individuals are genetically similar to the parent
(4) It has no evolutionary significance B. Thorn (ii) Swollen leaf base

126. Which of the following is binucleate cell in a C. Pneumatophore (iii) Respiratory root
mature embryo sac of angiosperm?
D. Pulvinus (iv) Sub-aerial weak stem
(1) Antipodal cell
(2) Synergid A B C D

(3) Egg cell (1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(4) Central cell (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

127. Select the incorrect match. (3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(1) Dragonfly – Use to get rid of
mosquitoes 131. Read the following statements.
a. Annual rings are more distinct in plants
(2) Trichoderma – Free living bacteria to fix
growing in tropical regions.
nitrogen
b. One annual ring has one circle of autumn
(3) Baculoviruses – Narrow spectrum wood and two circles of spring wood.
insecticidal application c. Late wood is lighter in colour and has lower
(4) Glomus – Form symbiotic density.
association with plants d. Dermatogen forms epidermis and epidermal
tissue system.
128. Read the following statements and select the
The incorrect one(s) is/are
correct option.
(1) (b) and (c) only (2) (a), (c) and (d)
Statement A: In rice, hypocotyl grows first and
cotyledons comes out of the soil. (3) (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)

Statement B: Tobacco plants flower when they 132. All of the following are absent in monocot stem,
are exposed to a photoperiod shorter than a except
critical period. (1) Hypodermis (2) Epidermis

(14)
 (3) Endodermis (4) Vascular Bundles (2) It is mixed with bitumen that is used to lay
133. Which structure in bacteria is used to monitor roads
bacterial transformation with foreign DNA? (3) The raw material for creating polyblend is any
(1) Mesosome (2) Chromatophore plastic film waste

(3) Plasmid (4) Polyribosome
134. One of the most important functions of plasma
membrane is
(1) Maintenance of the shape of the cell
(2) To protect the cell from mechanical injury
(3) Transport of molecules across it
(4) Formation of glycoproteins
135. As per the position of centromere, chromosomes
A and B shown below are (A-left, B-right)
(1) Metacentric and sub-metacentric respectively
(2) Sub-metacentric and acrocentric respectively
(3) Acrocentric
(4) It was developed by Ramesh Chandra Dagar
139. Which of the following disorders in humans is
caused by a gene present on sex chromosome?
(1) Phenylketonuria (2) Myotonic dystrophy
(3) Sickle cell anaemia (4) Colour blindness
140. Dinoflagellates are not
(1) Found in marine habitat
(2) Eukaryotes
(3) Capable to reproduce sexually
(4) Strictly heterotrophic in nature
141. Which of the following statements is correct w.r.t.
symplastic pathway?
(1) It consists of non-living parts of plant body
(2) It is faster way of transport
(3) It is directly affected by metabolic state of root
(4) Water can pass without crossing cytoplasm
and plasma membrane
142. In gymnosperms
(1) Male and female gametophytes do not have
an independent free-living existence

(4) Sub-metacentric (2) Roots are generally fibrous root

(3) Seeds and flowers are formed

SECTION-B (4) Double fertilisation takes place

136. Chromosome 1 of human beings 143. The factor that increases the rate of
decomposition of detritus is
(1) Has fewest gene
(1) Reduced moisture
(2) Has 2968 genes
(2) Low temperature
(3) Was the first chromosome get sequenced
(3) Good aeration
(4) Was sequenced by the end of May 2003
(4) Low nitrogenous compound and water-soluble
137. What is the value of Z (slope of regression) for
carbohydrates
frugivorous birds and mammals in tropical forests
of different continents? 144. A population interaction represented by ‘+’ ‘–’
symbols, refers to
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.6
(1) Parasitism (2) Amensalism
(3) 0.2 (4) 1.15
(3) Commensalism (4) Mutualism
138. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. polyblend.
145. Select the option with beverages produced by
(1) It is a fine powder of recycled modified plastic
distillation of the fermented broth.

(15)
 (1) Wine and whisky (2) Beer and brandy (3) Are sterile
(3) Brandy and rum (4) Wine and beer (4) Are united into a single bundle
146. Select the correct statement for pollen grains. 149. Which of the following is not the function of
a. They cannot be stored in liquid nitrogen. pericycle?

b. They can be used as food supplements. (1) Storage of food material

c. In majority of angiosperms, pollen grains are (2) Controlling the quantity of solutes that reach
shed at 3-celled stage. the xylem

d. Its outer layer is made up of organic material (3) Formation of a part of cambial ring
which can withstand high temperature and (4) Giving rise to the lateral roots
strong alkali.
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (d) only 150. Select the incorrect match from the following.
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
(1) Centriole – Gives rise to spindle
147. The effect of auxin that promote apical dominance apparatus
in plant, can be counteracted by
(2) Microtubules – Form axoneme of cilia
(1) Gibberellins (2) Abscisic acid
(3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene (3) Flagella – 9 + 2 organisation of
microtubules
148. Staminodes are stamens that
(1) Develop on the calyx (4) Spindle – Made up of contractile
fibres proteins
(2) Mature before the pistils

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A (3) Angiotensinogen (4) Renin
151. Consider the given statements and select the 153. Select the correct match.
option with incorrect statement. (1) Vertebrosternal – Dorsally attached to
ribs the sternum
(1) In humans, lungs are enclosed in a double
layered peritoneum formed by connective (2) Vertebral ribs – Also known as
floating ribs
tissue with a fluid between them that reduces
friction. (3) Sternum – Present on the dorsal
midline of the thorax
(2) Alveoli are the main sites where actual
(4) Pectoral girdle – Formed of three
diffusion of gases O2 and CO2 takes place
bones namely ilium,
between blood and atmospheric air. pubis and ischium
(3) During expiration, diaphragm relaxes and 154. Which of the following structures have saddle
arches upwards. joint?
(4) Value of tidal volume is the lowest among all (1) Between humerus and pectoral girdle
types of respiratory volumes. (2) Between atlas and axis
152. Identify the protein produced by liver in inactive (3) Between tarsals
form whose activated form stimulates adrenal
cortex to release mineralocorticoid that increases (4) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
the reabsorption of the Na+ ions from the filtrate. 155. Select the incorrect statement regarding
(1) ACE (2) ANF apiculture.
(16)
 (1) Bee-keeping can be practiced in any area (a) Assortative mating
where there are sufficient pastures of some (b) Absence of mutation
wild shrubs, fruit orchards etc.
(c) Gene migration
(2) Bee-keeping is very labour intensive
(d) Natural selection
(3) Management of beehives is different in Choose the correct option.
different seasons
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(4) For successful bee-keeping, knowledge
(3) (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
of the nature and habits of bees is very
important 161. Match column I with column II and choose the
correct option.
156. Which of the following processes/techniques are
included under the umbrella of biotechnology? Column I Column II
(a) In vitro fertilisation leading to a ‘test-tube’ baby a. Australopithecines (i) 900 cc cranial
(b) Synthesising a gene and using it capacity
(c) Developing a DNA vaccine b. Homo habilis (ii) Not taller than
(d) Correcting a defective gene 4 feet but walked
upright
Choose the correct option.
(1) (a) and (d) only (2) (b) and (c) only c. Homo erectus (iii) Lived between
1,00,000-40,000
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) years ago
157. The second two letters in the name of restriction
d. Homo sapiens (iv) Cranial capacity
enzymes come from the
neanderthalensis 650-800 cc
(1) Genus of the prokaryotic cell
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) Species of the eukaryotic cell
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) Strain of bacteria
162. Read the given statements and select the correct
(4) Species of the prokaryotic cell option.
158. Select the incorrect statement. (a) Primary metabolites have identifiable
(1) All plasmids replicate only when bacteria functions and play known roles in normal
divides. physiological processes.
(2) Copy number of bacteriophages is more than (b) Scents and pigments are primary metabolites.
that of plasmids. (c) Nicotine and strychnine are secondary
(3) Ori sequence is responsible for controlling the metabolites produced by plants.
copy number of the linked DNA. (1) (a) and (b) are correct while (c) is incorrect
(4) The normal E. coli cells do not carry resistance (2) (a) and (c) are correct while (b) is incorrect
genes against tetracycline and ampicillin (3) (b) and (c) are correct while (a) is incorrect
antibiotics. (4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
159. Which theory/hypothesis stated that formation of 163. Select an enzyme among the following that is not
life was preceded by chemical evolution? proteinaceous in nature.
(1) Panspermia theory (1) Nitrogenase (2) Pectinase
(2) Spontaneous generation theory
(3) Trypsin (4) Ribozyme
(3) Oparin-Haldane hypothesis
164. Select the incorrect pair among the following
(4) Theory of biogenesis w.r.t. given structures and characteristics.
160. The population in genetic equilibrium can be
disturbed by
(17)
 (1) – Structural (3) Carried by the blood
component
(4) Does not show target-specificity
of cell
membrane 168. How many of the following parts given in the box
of plants
below are associated with genital chamber of male
cockroach?

(2) – Fatty acids Dorsal anus, Collaterial glands, Ventral male

are
genital pore, Gonapophysis, Spermathecal pores
esterified
with it to
form (1) Three (2) Four
glycerides
(3) Two (4) Five
(3) – It’s 169. Match column I with column II and select the
structure
changes in correct option.
solution of
different pH Column I Column II

(4) – It is a a. Diarrhoea (i) Protein-energy

nucleoside
present in malnutrition
RNA and
DNA b. Constipation (ii) Abnormal frequency of
bowel movement and
165. The mucus present in the gastric juice protects the increased liquidity of
mucosal epithelium from the excoriating action of faecal discharge
HCl.
c. Indigestion (iii) Faeces are retained
The mucosal lining is a ___ barrier of innate
immunity. within the colon

Select the correct option to fill in the blank. d. Kwashiorkar (iv) Caused due to
(1) Physical (2) Physiological inadequate enzyme
(3) Cytokine (4) Cellular secretion

166. Read the statements given below and select the (1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
incorrect one.
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(1) Pollens and animal dander are examples of
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
allergens.
(2) Allergy is due to release of histamine and (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
serotonin from mast cells. 170. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate
(3) Memory based acquired immunity evolved in digesting enzyme?
higher vertebrates is based on ability to (1) Ptyalin (2) Steapsin
differentiate foreign organisms from self cells.
(3) Maltase (4) Amylase
(4) Vitiligo and psoriasis are auto-immune
diseases of skin and respiratory passage 171. Pharynx is perforated by gill slits in
respectively. (1) Star fish (2) Devil fish
167. Choose the incorrect option about the secretions (3) Cuttle fish (4) Dog fish
of endocrine glands.
172. Complete the analogy w.r.t. locomotory structures
(1) Non-nutrient chemicals and select the correct option.
(2) Produced in minute amounts Nereis : Parapodia : : Ctenoplana : _____

(18)
 (1) Tentacles Statement A : The motile sperms pass through
cervix and uterus after insemination and reach at
(2) Flagellated comb plates
the junction of uterus and fallopian tubes where
(3) Ciliated comb plates fertilization takes place.
(4) Jointed legs Statement B : The secretions of acrosome help
173. Match items in column I with those in column II the sperm to enter into the cytoplasm of the ovum
and choose the correct option. through the zona pellucida and the plasma
membrane.
Column I Column II (1) Both statements A and B are correct
a. Pleurobrachia (i) Oral sucker (2) Only statement A is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
b. Fasciola (ii) Collar
(4) Only statement B is correct
c. Spongilla (iii) Paired tentacles 177. The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed by
d. Saccoglossus (iv) Collar cells (1) Formation of digits in embryo
(2) Implantation of blastocyst within endometrium
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) Listening to the heart sound carefully through
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) the stethoscope
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) The first movements of the foetus
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) 178. Match column I with column II and choose the
174. Assertion (A) : No individual is immortal, except correct option.
single-celled organisms like Planaria. Column I Column II
Reason (R) : There is no natural death in single-
a. Oviduct (i) Ampulla and areola
celled organisms.
In the light of above statements. Select the b. Uterus (ii) Isthmus, ampulla,
correct option. infundibulum

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct c. Mammary (iii) Head, neck and tail
explanation of (A) gland
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the d. Sperm (iv) Fundus and cervix
correct explanation of (A)
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) (A) is true, (R) is false
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(4) (A) is false, (R) is true
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
175. During fertilisation, a sperm comes in contact with
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
the ___ layer of the ovum and induces changes in
the membrane that block the entry of additional 179. Choose the incorrect statement.
sperms. (1) In reptiles, limbs are either absent or present.
Select the option that correctly fills the blank. (2) All reptiles are oviparous and have internal
fertilisation and indirect development.
(1) Corona radiata
(3) Some of the mammals are adapted to fly or
(2) Perivitelline
live in water.
(3) Zona pellucida (4) In cartilaginous fishes, teeth are modified
(4) Granulosa placoid scales which are backwardly directed.
176. Read the following statements A and B. Choose 180. Read the given statements w.r.t. cardiac cycle and
the correct answer from the options given below. select the incorrect one.

(19)
 (1) SAN generates an action potential which
stimulates both the atria to undergo a
simultaneous contraction.
(2) The action potential is conducted to the
ventricular side by the AVN and AV bundle
from where the bundle of His transmits it
through the entire ventricular musculature.
(3) During joint diastole, semilunar valves are
closed and the tricuspid and bicuspid valves
are open; blood from pulmonary veins and
vena cava flows into the right and the left
ventricles respectively.
(4) In ventricular diastole, the ventricular pressure
falls causing the closure of semilunar valves
which prevents the backflow of blood into the
ventricles.
181. Complete the analogy and select the correct
option.
B blood group: Anti A : : O blood group : ___
(1) Anti-A only (2) Nil
(3) Anti-B only (4) Anti-A, B
185. Which was the first human hormone to be
produced by recombinant DNA technology?
(1) Insulin (2) GH
(3) Oxytocin (4) ADH
SECTION-B
186. All of the following peculiar features of
Platyhelminthes can differentiate between free-
living and parasitic forms except
(1) Dorsoventrally flattened body
(2) Presence of hooks
(3) Presence of suckers
(4) Absorption of nutrients from the host directly
through their body surface
187. Veins are best defined as the vessels which
(1) Carry blood from one visceral organ to
another visceral organ
(2) Collect deoxygenated blood from different
organs
(3) Carry blood from different organs to the heart
(4) Break up into capillaries which reunite to form
an artery

182. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from 188. Which of the following parasite feeds upon
erythrocytes, mucosa and submucosa of colon?
___
(1) Wuchereria (2) Ascaris
Select the option that correctly fills the blank.
(3) Entamoeba (4) Plasmodium
(1) Oesophagus (2) Intestine 189. Which of the following is the blood concentration
(3) Heart (4) Kidneys of monomer of maltose in a normal healthy
human?
183. Priya is pregnant with her first child, but due to
unforeseen circumstances she does not wish to (1) 2.4 mmol/L – 6.1 mmol/L
continue with her pregnancy. After a sonography (2) 0.0042 mol/L – 0.0061 mol/L
the foetus was observed to not have developed (3) 0.42 mmol/L – 0.61 mmol/L
limbs, digits etc. (4) 0.042 mol/L – 0.061 mol/L
She needs the opinion of how many medical 190. If cloning vector pBR322 has desired gene in one
practitioners to get an MTP? of the selectable marker, then in this case, one
antibiotic resistance gene helps in selecting the
(1) One (2) Two
A
, whereas the other antibiotic resistance
(3) Three (4) Four
gene which gets ‘inactivated due to insertion’ of
184. All of the following are applicable for ‘Nirodh’,
B
except alien DNA helps in selection of .

(1) Disposable Choose the option which correctly fills the blanks
A and B.
(2) Protect from STIs
A B
(3) Can be used by both males and females
(1) Non-recombinants – Non-transformants
(4) Prevents fertilisation
(2) Transformants – Recombinants

(20)
 (3) Non-transformants – Transformants (4) Mode of action

(4) Recombinants – Non-recombinants 196. Choose the mismatch from the following.

191. Select the correct match w.r.t. enzymes and their

functions. (1) Mosquito – Dipteran

(1) Exonuclease – Breaks sugar- (2) Golden rice – Insecticidal crop

phosphate backbones
of DNA (3) cryIAb – Corn borer

(2) Restriction – Removes nucleotides (4) Oil spills – Pseudomonas putida

enzyme from 5′ end of DNA 197. How many of the following are not included in the
(3) DNA ligase – Breaks phosphodiester human hindbrain?
bond Medulla oblongata, Thalamus, Corpora
(4) Methylase – Adds hydroxy methyl qudrigemina, Pons, Cerebrum, Cerebellum
groups to DNA (1) Two (2) Three
192. When more than one adaptive radiation appeared (3) Four (4) Five
to have occurred in an isolated geographical area, 198. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. nodes of
one can call this Ranvier.
(1) Convergent evolution (1) Present on dendrites
(2) Parallel evolution (2) Interruptions between myelin sheaths
(3) Divergent evolution only (3) Seen on nerve cells
(4) Co-evolution (4) Help in impulse transmission
193. Removal of loop of Henle from the nephron will 199. Assertion (A): Fallopian tubes help in transport of
result in ovum from ovary to the uterus.
(1) No urine formation Reason (R): Ciliated epithelium is present in the
(2) More diluted urine inner surface of hollow organs like fallopian tubes.
(3) More concentrated urine In the light of above statements, select the correct
(4) No change in quality and quantity of urine option.

194. Which part of brain contains neural centre to (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
moderate the cardiac function through ANS as correct explanation of (A)
well as to maintain the respiratory rhythm? (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(1) Pons (2) Cerebellum explanation of (A)

(3) Cerebrum (4) Medulla oblongata (3) (A) is true but (R) is false

195. Which one of the given options is a correct (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
difference between implant contraceptives and 200. Complete the analogy w.r.t. adrenal cortex by
oral contraceptive pills? choosing the correct option.
(1) Effect on ovulation Middle layer: Zona fasciculata :: Inner layer : __
(2) Effect on implantation (1) Zona reticularis (2) Zona pellucida
(3) Effective period (3) Zona glomerulosa (4) Zonula occludens

❑❑❑

(21)