13/06/2019 OYMR

CODE-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456
MM : 360 Time : 90 Min.
FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES
(for NEET/AIIMS-2020)
Test – 04

Topics covered :
Physics : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance: Electrostatics of conductors, dielectrics and
polarization, Capacitors and capacitance, The parallel plate capacitor, Effect of dielectrics on
capacitance, Combination of capacitors, Energy stored in a capacitor, Van de Graaff
Generator
Chemistry : Electrochemistry
Botany : Principles of Inheritance and Variation: Introduction, Mendel’s laws of inheritance,
inheritance of one gene. Laws of inheritance dominance, segregation, explanation of the
concept of dominance, incomplete dominance, co-dominance, multiple alleles, Pleiotropy,
inheritance of two genes, law of independent assortment.
Zoology : Reproductive Health, Evolution : Theories and Evidences: Origin of universe (Big Bang
Theory) solar system, theories of origin of life: panspermia theory, abiogenesis theory, theory
of biogenesis

Instructions :

(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

1. The charge stored on 3 μF capacitor, shown in 2. The capacitance of a capacitor depends on

figure is
(1) Charge given to capacitor

(2) Potential to which capacitor is charged

(3) Shape and size

(1) 100 μC (2) 150 μC
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) 60 μC (4) 50 μC
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Fortnightly Test (OYMR_FT04) Code-A One Year Medical-2020

3. Four plates each of area A, and the separation 9. Four capacitors each of capacitance C and
between the plates d, are placed one above the breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The
other. The effective capacitance of system effective capacitance and breakdown voltage of
between A and B is combination are
C V
(1) , (2) 4C, V
4 4
C V
ε A 2ε 0 A (3) , 4V (4) 4C,
(1) 0 (2) 4, 4
d d
10. A parallel plate capacitor having plate area ‘A’,
3ε 0 A 4ε 0 A and separation between the plates ‘d’ is
(3) (4)
d d charged to potential V. The energy stored in
capacitor is
4. In the circuit shown in figure, potential
difference between A and B is 100 V. Potential 2
1 V 
1 V 
difference across 6 μF capacitor is (1) ε (2) ε A
2 0  d  2 0  d 

1 2 V  1 V2
(3) ε (4) ε A
2 0  d  2 0 d

11. A parallel plate air capacitor has capacitance C.

rd
(1) 40 V (2) 60 V  1
 3  of the space between the plates is filled
(3) 80 V (4) 50 V
with a dielectric of dielectric constant k as
5. After charging, a parallel plate capacitor, shown in figure. Then new capacitance C′ is
battery is disconnected, and dielectric slab is
inserted between the plates of capacitor. Then
which of the following quantities will decrease?
(1) Charge
(2) Capacitance
(3) Potential difference between the plates
(4) All of these  3k 
(1) C (2) C  
6. A battery does 100 J of work, in charging a  2k + 1
capacitor, then final energy stored in capacitor
is  2k   2k 
(3) C   (4) C  
(1) 200 J (2) 150 J  3k + 2   2k + 3 

(3) 100 J (4) 50 J 12. Van de Graff generator is used to

7. Three capacitors each of capacitance 6 μF are
to be connected in such a way that the effective
capacitance of combination is 4 μF. This is
possible when
(1) Connecting all of them in series
(2) Connecting all of them in parallel
(3) Connecting two in parallel and one in series
(1) Store electrical energy
(2) Build up high voltages of few million volts
(3) Deaccelerate charged particles like electron
(4) Both (1) and (2)
13. Which of the following statement is false for a
perfect conductor in electrostatic condition?

(4) Connecting two is series and one in parallel (1) The surface of the conductor is an
to the series combination equipotential surface.

8. Two metal spheres of radii 1 cm and 2 cm are (2) The electric field lines just outside the
given charge 1 × 10–4 C and 2 × 10–4 C surface of a conductor is perpendicular to
respectively. If they are connected by a the surface.
conducting wire, then energy loss after (3) The electric field is continuous across the
connecting with wire is surface of conductor.
(1) Zero (2) 45 J
(4) The electric field is discontinuous across
(3) 90 J (4) 180 J the surface of conductor.
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One Year Medical-2020 Fortnightly Test (OYMR_FT04) Code-A

14. A capacitor of capacitance C1, is charged to a 19. The effective capacitance between A and B is
potential V, and then connected in parallel to an
uncharged capacitor of capacitance C2, the final
potential difference across each capacitor is

C1V
(1)
C1 + C2
(1) 9 μF
C2V
(2)
C1 + C2 (2) 12 μF
(3) 6 μF
 C 
(3)  1 + 2  V
 C1  (4) 18 μF
20. As shown in figure, if the point C is earthed and
 C  the point A is given a potential of 1500 V, then
(4)  1 − 2  V
 C1  the potential at point B is

15. If dielectric constant and dielectric strength be

denoted by k and x respectively, then a material
suitable for use as a dielectric in a capacitor
must have
(1) High k and high x
(2) High k and low x
(1) 750 V
(3) Low k and high x
(2) 1000 V
(4) Low k and low x
(3) 500 V
16. The capacitance of a spherical conductor of
radius 1 m is (4) 250 V
(1) 9 × 10–6 F In the following questions (21 to 23), a statement
of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
(2) 1 μF reason (R).
(3) 1.1 × 10–10 F (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(4) 1 × 10–5 F reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (1).
17. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor
with air between the plates is 3 μF. With the (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
introduction of a dielectric medium between the reason is not the correct explanation of the
plates, the capacitance becomes 15 μF. The assertion, then mark (2).
relative permittivity of the medium is (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(1) 5 false, then mark (3).

(2) 15 (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

statements, then mark (4).
(3) 8.86 × 10–11
21. A : Net charge on capacitor is zero.
1
(4) R : Charges on two plates of capacitor are
5 equal and opposite.
18. A soap bubble is charged to a potential of 16 V, 22. A : Capacitance of isolated spherical conductor
If its radius is doubled, then new potential of the is proportional to radius of conductor.
bubble will be
R : Capacitance of spherical conductor is
(1) 16 V 4πε0R.
(2) 8 V 23. A : Capacitance of conductor is proportional to
(3) 4 V the charge given.
R : Capacitance is defined as C = qV.
(4) 32 V

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Fortnightly Test (OYMR_FT04) Code-A One Year Medical-2020

CHEMISTRY

24. Standard hydrogen electrode is represented by 32. Net cell reaction for the cell A(s) |A2+ (1 M)||B3+
(1 M)|B (s) is
(1) Pt(s) |H2 (g, 1 bar)| H+ (aq, 1 M)
(2) Pt(s) |H2 (g, 2 bar)| H+ (aq, 1 M) (1) 2A 2+ + 3B 


 2 A + 3B
3+

(3) Pt(s) |H2 (g, 1 bar)| H+ (aq, 2 M) (2) 2A + 3B3 + 


 2+
 2 A + 3B
(4) Pt(s) |H2 (g, 2 bar)| H+ (aq, 2 M)
(3) 3A + 2B3 + 

 2+
 3 A + 2B
25. For the cell reaction
Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn2+ (aq) + Cu(s). (4) 2B + 3 A 2+ 


 3 A + 2B
3+

If E°cell = 1.1 V , the ΔrG° for the cell is 33. Unit of equivalent conductivity is
(1) 2 × F × 1.1 J (2) –2 × F × 1.1 J (1) ohm–1 cm2 eq (2) ohm–1 cm2 eq–1
(3) 4 × F × 1.1 J (4) –4 × F × 1.1 J (3) ohm–1 cm–2 eq–1 (4) ohm cm2 eq–1
26. The conductivity of a 0.25 M solution of NaCl at 34. Select the incorrect statement.
300 K is 0.025 S cm–1. The molar conductivity (1) Electrochemical cells convert chemical
of the solution is (in S cm2 mol–1) energy into electrical energy
(1) 10 (2) 50 (2) Electrolytic cells convert electrical energy
(3) 100 (4) 200 into chemical energy
(3) In electrochemical cells, reduction takes
27. Which of the following graphs is correct for place at anode
weak electrolyte?
(4) In electrolytic cells, reduction takes place at
cathode
35. The standard electrode potentials E° ,
(1) (2) I2 /I−

E° , E°Cl and EF° – are 0.54 V, 1.09 V,

Br2 /Br − 2 /Cl
−
2 /F
1.36 V and 2.87 V. The strongest reducing
agent is
(1) F– (2) Cl–
(3) (4) (3) Br– (4) I–
36. Emf of the following cell reaction is
Ni(s) + 2 Ag+(0.002 M) → Ni2+(0.2 M) + 2 Ag (s)
0
28. If Λm for CH3COONa, NaCl and HCl are x, y
(E0cell = 1.05 V)
0
and z S cm2 mol–1 respectively, then Λm for
(1) 1.41 V (2) 0.91 V
CH3COOH is
(3) 1.88 V (4) 2.09 V
(1) x + y + z (2) x + y – z
(3) x – y + z (4) x – y – z 37. For strong electrolytes, on dilution
29. During the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl (1) Λm and κ both increases
solution, the product formed at cathode is (2) Λm and κ both decreases
(1) H2 (2) Na (3) Λm increases and κ decreases
(3) O2 (4) Cl2 (4) Λm decreases and κ increases
30. The mass of copper deposited on cathode if a 38. Maximum molar conductance at infinite dilution
current of 0.965 A is passed through aqueous is of
CuSO4 solution for 1000 second is (Atomic
mass of Cu = 63.54) (1) H+ (2) Na+
(1) 6.35 g (2) 0.635 g (3) K+ (4) Ca2+
6.35 0.635 39. Select the correct statement regarding
(3) g (4) g discharging of the lead storage battery.
2 2
31. Charge required for the reduction of 1 mol (1) Reduction of Pb3O4 into Pb
MnO4– to Mn2+ is (2) Reduction of PbO2 into PbSO4
(1) 1 F (2) 2 F (3) Reduction of PbO2 into Pb
(3) 4 F (4) 5 F (4) Reduction of PbSO4 into Pb
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One Year Medical-2020 Fortnightly Test (OYMR_FT04) Code-A

40. The cell reaction that spontaneously occurs in
galvanic cell is
(1) Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s) → Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq)
(2) Cu2+(aq) + 2Ag(s) → Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq)
(3) Mg2+(aq) + 2Ag(s) → Mg(s) + 2Ag+(aq)
(4) Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)
41. Conductivity κ of an electrolyte depends on
(1) Nature of electrolyte
(2) Concentration of the electrolyte
(3) Temperature
(4) All of these
42. The metal used in galvanisation of iron, leading
to thin layer of basic carbonate, is
(1) Zn
(2) Mg
(3) Sn
(4) Ni
In the following questions (43 to 45), a statement
of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R).
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (1).
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (2).
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
false, then mark (3).
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
statements, then mark (4).
43. A : Fuel cells directly convert energy released
from combustion into electrical energy.
R : Efficiency of fuel cell is greater than
efficiency of thermal plants.
44. A : Conductivity of silver is greater than silicon.
R : Silicon is a semiconductor whereas silver is
a metal.
45. A : Ag can displace Zn from the solution of its
salt.
R : Reduction potential of Zn is greater than Ag.

BOTANY

46. Genetics deals with 51. The F2 genotypic ratio of Mendel’s monohybrid
(1) Inheritance only cross was
(2) Variation of characters only (1) 1 : 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
(3) Artificial hybridisation only (3) 2 : 1 : 2 (4) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(4) Both inheritance and variation of characters 52. Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits
are known as
47. According to law of independent assortment,
what is the probability of getting parental (1) Dominant genes
characters in F2-generation, when a dihybrid (2) Alleles
test cross is done? (3) Recessive genes
(1) 50% (2) 25% (4) Modified genes
(3) 75% (4) 100% 53. Read the following statements regarding law of
48. Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments on dominance and select correct ones.
garden pea for (a) Characters are controlled by discrete units
(1) Five years (1856–1860) called factors.
(2) Five years (1900–1905) (b) Factors occur in pairs.
(c) In a dissimilar pair of factors, one member
(3) Seven years (1856–1863)
of the pair dominates the other.
(4) Seven years (1900–1907)
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
49. Mendel selected (3) Only (c) (4) All (a), (b) and (c)
(1) 7 true breeding sweet pea plant varieties 54. A parent, heterozygous for a character, will
(2) 7 true breeding garden pea plant varieties produce only
(3) 14 true breeding sweet pea plant varieties (1) One type of gamete
(4) 14 true breeding garden pea plant varieties (2) Two types of gametes
50. Choose the option w.r.t. recessive trait in (3) Three types of gametes
garden pea. (4) Four types of gametes
(1) Stem height - Tall 55. The phenotypic ratio in F2 generation of a
(2) Flower Position – Terminal incompletely dominant gene is
(3) Pod colour – Green (1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1
(4) Seed shape – Round (3) 2 : 1 : 2 (4) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(5)
Fortnightly Test (OYMR_FT04) Code-A One Year Medical-2020

56. When both the alleles of a gene express 63. If a pea plant with seeds having intermediate
themselves equally in an organism then it is sized starch grains is crossed with plant
called producing seeds with short starch grains, then
(1) Co-dominance what will be the percentage of progeny
producing seeds with long starch grains?
(2) Incomplete dominance
(1) 50% (2) 0%
(3) Multiple allelism (3) 100% (4) 75%
(4) Pleotropism 64. Removal of anther from bisexual flowers is
57. What will be the F2 phenotypic ratio when a called
heterozygous pea plant for flower position and (1) Emasculation (2) Cross-pollination
stem height are selfed? (3) Selfing (4) Bagging
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1 65. Observable morphological appearance of an
(3) 2 : 1 : 2 (4) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 organism is
(1) Called its genotype
58. The gene which controls several phenotypes is
called (2) Called its phenotype
(3) Determined by recessive alleles only
(1) Pleiotropic gene
(4) Not determined by its genetic complement
(2) Dominant gene
In the following questions (66 to 68), a statement
(3) Recessive gene of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
(4) Incompletely dominant gene reason (R).
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
59. Which of the following traits of pea was not
reason is the correct explanation of the
studied by Mendel?
assertion, then mark (1).
(1) Pod position (2) Pod colour (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(3) Seed Shape (4) Pod Shape reason is not the correct explanation of the
60. Law of dominance and law of segregation was assertion, then mark (2).
given on the basis of the observations of (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
false, then mark (3).
(1) Monohybrid cross (2) Dihybrid cross
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(3) Trihybrid cross (4) Back cross statements, then mark (4).
61. Which of the following is an example of 66. A : Mendel conducted cross pollination
incomplete dominance? experiments on pea plant.
(1) Blood group inheritance in human R : Self pollination is absent in pea plants.
67. A : Violet flower colour is dominant over white
(2) Flower colour in dog flower
flower colour in pea plant.
(3) Seed colour in pea R : Violet colour expresses itself even in
(4) Flower colour in garden pea heterozygous condition.
62. The number of pure homozygous offsprings in 68. A : Multiple alleles can be found only when
F2 generation of Mendelian dihybrid cross is population studies are made.
(1) 2 (2) 4 R : A diploid individual can have, only two
alleles of a gene.
(3) 8 (4) 16

ZOOLOGY

69. Hormone releasing intra-uterine device is 72. Barrier method for birth control includes
(1) Cu T (2) Multiload 375 (1) Cu T
(3) LNG – 20 (4) Lippes loop (2) Condoms
70. Birth control method in which the fallopian (3) Oral contraceptive pills
tubes are cut and tied is called
(4) Lippes loop
(1) Vasectomy (2) Tubectomy
73. Saheli – the new contraceptive pill contains
(3) Hysterectomy (4) Gastrectomy
(1) Non-steroidal preparation
71. Which of the following STIs is not completely
curable? (2) Estrogen
(1) Gonorrhoea (2) Syphilis (3) Progesterone
(3) HIV infection (4) Chlamydiasis (4) Testosterone
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One Year Medical-2020 Fortnightly Test (OYMR_FT04) Code-A

74. How old is the universe? 83. One of the most widely accepted method of
(1) 20 billion years old contraception in India is
(1) Intra uterine devices
(2) 20 million years old
(2) Oral contraceptive pills
(3) 10 billion years old
(3) Tubectomy
(4) 10 million years old
(4) Vasectomy
75. The origin of the universe is explained by
84. Implant method of birth control in females
(1) Theory of panspermia contains which hormone?
(2) Big Bang theory (1) Testosterone (2) Oxytocin
(3) Theory of abiogenesis (3) Progesterone (4) Prolactin
(4) Theory of biogenesis 85. Fertilization of gametes outside the body
76. Who demonstrated experimentally that life followed by embryo transfer is called
originates from pre-existing life? (1) In-vivo fertilization
(1) Louis Pasteur (2) Intra-uterine transfer
(2) Oparin (3) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
(3) Charles Darwin (4) Intrauterine insemination
(4) S.L. Miller 86. According to the 2011 census report,
population growth rate per year was less than
77. Birth control method based in absence of
menstruation and ovulation after parturition is (1) 5 / 1000 (2) 10 / 1000
called (3) 15 / 1000 (4) 20 / 1000
(1) Withdrawal method 87. The procedure of collecting amniotic fluid for
(2) Lactational amenorrhoea the analysis of fetal cells and dissolved
substances is called
(3) Barrier method
(1) Ultrasound (2) Blood test
(4) Surgical method
(3) Amniocentesis (4) X-ray
78. Light year is used to measure
In the following questions (88 to 90), a statement
(1) Time of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
(2) Distance reason (R).
(3) Speed (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
(4) Weight assertion, then mark (1).
79. Consent of two doctors is required if MTP is to (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
be performed at which stage of pregnancy? reason is not the correct explanation of the
(1) 4 weeks (2) 8 weeks assertion, then mark (2).
(3) 10 weeks (4) 20 weeks (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
false, then mark (3).
80. Marriageable age of females in India by law is
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(1) 12 years (2) 22 years
statements, then mark (4).
(3) 18 years (4) 28 years 88. A : Contraceptive methods like condoms
81. All of the following can be used as emergency should be used by couples having casual
contraceptive methods except, sex.
(1) Progestogens R : Contraceptives like condoms avoid
(2) Progestogen – estrogen combination unwanted pregnancy and STIs.
89. A : IUD is a popular and effective method of
(3) Intra uterine devices
contraception.
(4) Diaphragms
R : IUDs may contain copper or hormones.
82. Government of India legalized MTP in the year 90. A : Earth was formed 4000 years ago.
(1) 1951 (2) 1971 R : There are no fossil records older than 4000
(3) 1991 (4) 2001 years on Earth.

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