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Jeeadv 2023 P 1
Jeeadv 2023 P 1
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JEE ADVANCED
2023
Question Paper,
Key & Solutions Paper 1
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JEE Advanced-2023
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy., India.
A.P T.S KARNATAKA TAMILNADU MAHARASTRA DELHI RANCHI
A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
ICON Central Office, Madhapur – Hyderabad
JEE-ADVANCE-2023-P1-Model
Time:3Hr’s IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS Max Marks: 180
MATHEMATICS:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Questions with Multiple Correct
Sec – I(Q.N : 1 – 3) +4 -2 3 12
Choice with partial mark
Questions with Single Correct
Sec – II(Q.N : 4 – 7) +3 -1 4 12
Choice
Questions with non-negative Integer
Sec – III(Q.N : 8 – 13) +4 0 6 24
Answer Type
Sec – IV(Q.N : 14 – 17) Matching Type +3 -1 4 12
Total 17 60
PHYSICS:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Questions with Multiple Correct
Sec – I(Q.N : 18 – 20) +4 -2 3 12
Choice with partial mark
Questions with Single Correct
Sec – II(Q.N : 21 – 24) +3 -1 4 12
Choice
Questions with non-negative Integer
Sec – III(Q.N : 25 – 30) +4 0 6 24
Answer Type
Sec – IV(Q.N : 31 – 34) Matching Type +3 -1 4 12
Total 17 60
CHEMISTRY:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Questions with Multiple Correct
Sec – I(Q.N : 35 – 37) +4 -2 3 12
Choice with partial mark
Questions with Single Correct
Sec – II(Q.N : 38 – 41) +3 -1 4 12
Choice
Questions with non-negative Integer
Sec – III(Q.N : 42 – 47) +4 0 6 24
Answer Type
Sec – IV(Q.N : 48 – 51) Matching Type +3 -1 4 12
Total 17 60
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
MATHEMATICS Max Marks: 60
SECTION – I
(ONE OR MORE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains THERE (03) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks: +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks: +3 if all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks: +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct;
Partial Marks: +1 if two or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, and it is a correct option;
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks: –2 in all other cases.
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark; choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark; choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark; choosing no option (i.e.
the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and choosing any other combination of options will get -2 marks.
1. Let S 0,1 1,2 3,4 and T 0,1,2,3. Then which of the following statements
is(are) true?
A) There are infinitely many functions from S to T
B) There are infinitely many strictly increasing functions from S to T
C) The number of continuous functions from S to T is at most 120
D) Every continuous function from S to T is differentiable
Ans. AD
0 1 2 3 4
Sol.
S 0,1 1,2 3,4
T 0,1,2,3
Domain of function f : S T has infinitely many elements in set S
Strictly increasing function is not possible as number of points in domain is infinite but
co–domain has only 4 elements.
If number of points in domain are n, then number of functions possible from S to T are 4n
as n 4n
Page 2
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
Number of continuous functions possible are 4C1 4C1 4C1 = 64
Because domain has 3 regions, so continuous functions are 64
As the range of continuous function is a single element in the set T which is a constant, so
every function is differentiable in all intervals as the derivative is 0 always.
x2 y 2
2. Let T1 and T2 be two distinct common tangents to the ellipse E : 1 and the
6 3
parabola P : y 2 12 x. Suppose that the tangent T1 touches P and E at the points A1 and
A2 , respectively and the tangent T2 touches P and E at the points A4 and A3 ,
respectively. Then which of the following statements is (are) true?
A) The area of the quadrilateral A1 A2 A3 A4 is 35 square units
B) The area of the quadrilateral A1 A2 A3 A4 is 36 square units
A1 y 2 12 x
A2
x2 y 2
1
6 3
A3
A4
Sol.
Consider the equation of tangent as y mx c
Page 3
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
3 3
y mx c Tangent to y 2 12 x c y mx
m m
x2 y2
It is also tangent to ellipse 1
6 3
2
3 9
m
6 m 2 3 2 6m 2 3
m
6m4 3m2 9 0
3
m 2 1, (Not possible)
2
m 1
y x 3, y x 3 Are the tangents
Point of intersection of tangents is (–3, 0)
A1 3,6 A2 2,1 A3 2, 1 A4 3, 6
Area of quadrilateral A1 A2 A3 A4
1 3 2 2 3 3
2 6 1 1 6 6
1 1
3 12 2 2 12 3 18 18 70 35 sq.units
2 2
x3 5 17
3. Let f : 0,1 0,1 be the function defined by f x x 2 x . Consider the
3 9 36
square region S 0,10,1. let G x, y S ; y f x be called the green region
the horizontal line drawn at a height h 0,1. Then which of the following statements is
(are) true?
Page 4
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
1 2
A) There exists an h , such that the area of the green region above the line Lh
4 3
equals the area of the green region below the line Lh
1 2
B) There exists an h , such that the area of the red region above the line Lh equals
4 3
the area of the red region below the line Lh
1 2
C) There exists an h , such that the area of the green region above the line Lh
4 3
equals the area of the red region below the line Lh
1 2
D) There exists an h , such that the area of the red region above the line Lh equals
4 3
the area of the green region below the line Lh
Ans. BCD
x3 5 17
Sol. f x x2 x
3 9 36
3x2 5 5 2 4
f / x 2 x x 2 2 x x 1
3 9 9 9
1 5
f / x 0 x ,
3 3
y=f(x)
13
17 1,
Red region 36
36
0 1 1 2 0 1
3
1
3
1 1
A) 1 h dx h f x dx if h lies above y = f(x)
0 0
Page 5
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
1 3
1 2h h A is incorrect.
2 4
1 1
B) hdx f x h dx
0 0
1 1
2h h if h lies below the curve y = f(x) B is correct
2 4
1
1 1
C&D) Area of green region = 1 f x dx 1 2 2
0
1
1 1
Area of red region = 1 f x dx 1 2 2
0
12
A2
3
A1 yh
A3
1
4
0 1
3
1
1 1
A2 A2 A3 Option C
2 2
A2 A1 A3 Option D
By using intermediate value theorem Option C and D are correct
y = f(x) is a curve, x = h is a line which divides the curve such that the area between the
line and curve are equal.
Page 6
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
SECTION – II
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks: −1 in all other cases
1 1
4. Let f : 0,1 be the function defined as f x n if x , where n . Let
n 1 n
x
1 t
g : 0,1 be a function such that dt g x 2 x for all x 0,1. Then
x2
t
lim f x g x
x 0
Page 7
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
2
x 1 x x 1 x sin
1
x sin 1 x 1 x
lim lim f x g x 2
x 0 x x 0
1 0 1 0 lim f x g x 2
x0
lim f x g x 2
x0
5. Let Q be the cube with the set of vertices x1 , x2 , x3 3 : x1 , x2 , x3 0,1. Let F be
the set of all twelve lines containing the diagonals of the six faces of the cube Q. Let S
be the set of all four lines containing the main diagonals of the cube Q; for instance, the
line passing through the vertices 0,0,0 and 1,1,1 is in S. For lines l1 and l2 , let
d l1, l2 denote the shortest distance between them. Then the maximum value of d l1 , l2 ,
as l1 varies over F and l2 varies over S , is
1 1 1 1
A) B) C) D)
6 8 3 12
Ans. A
Sol.
(0,0,1) (1,0,1)
F G
(0,1,1)
E D
(1,1,1)
O A
(1,0,0)
B C
(0,1,0) (1,1,0)
F OG, AF , BD, CE , CG , AD, BF , OE , DF , GE , OC , AB
S OD, BG, CF , AE
i) AF , OD
AF 1,0,0 t 1,0 1
Page 8
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
OD 0,0,0 s 1,1,1
1 0 0
1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1
Shortest distance = = =
i j k i 1 j 2 k 1 6
1 0 1
1 1 1
ii) OD, AB
OD = (0, 0, 0) + S (1, 1, 1)
AB 1,0,0 1, 1,0
1 0 0
1 1 0
1 1 1 1
Shortest distance =
i j k 6
1 1 1
1 1 0
iii) OD, BF
OD = (0, 0, 0) + s (1, 1, 1)
BF = (0, 1, 0) + r 0,1, 1
1
Shortest distance =
6
1
Similarly for other lines also the value will be
6
For OD, DF OD, AD OD, OC the shortest distance is zero.
1
So, Maximum value of d 1, 2 is
6
Page 9
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
x2 y 2
6. Let X x , y : 1and y 2
5 x . Three distinct points P, Q and R are
8 20
randomly chosen from X . Then the probability that P, Q and R form a triangle whose
area is a positive integer, is
71 73 79 83
A) B) C) D)
220 220 220 220
Ans. B
Sol.
2, 10
0,0
2, 10
x2 y2
1 y 2 5x
8 20
x2 5x x2 x
1 1 x2 2 x 8
8 20 8 4
2
x 1 9 x2
x 1, y 2 5 y 5
(1, 0) (1, 1) (1, 2) (1, –1) (1, –2)
(2, 0) (2, 1) (2, 2) (2, 3) (2, –1) (2, –2) (2, –3)
Number of ways to select 3 points = 12 C3
12 11 10
= = 2 11 10 =220
6
Area of e PQR is an integer
Triangle has two vertices on x = 1 or x = 2
1, y11, y2 2, y3 (or) 1, y3 2, y1 2, y2
Page 10
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
1
Area of e 1 y1 y2
2
y1 y2 is an even integer
Number of ways = 3 C2 2C2 7C1 for x 1
= 4 C2 3C2 5C1 for x 2
Number of triangles = 28 + 45 = 73
73
Probability =
220
7. Let P be a point on the parabola y 2 4ax, where a 0. The normal to the parabola at
P meets the x-axis at a point Q. The area of the triangle PFQ, where F is the focus of
the parabola, is 120. If the slope m of the normal and a are both positive integers, then
the pair a, m is
A) 2,3 B) 1,3 C) 2, 4 D) 3, 4
Ans. A
Normal Tangent
F Q
Sol.
P at 2 ,2at
Equation of normal is tx + y = 2at + at 3
Q 2a at 2 ,0 F a,0
P at 2 ,2 at
Area of e PFQ = 120
1
a at 2 2at 120
2
a 1 t 2 at 120
Page 11
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
Slope of normal = – t
– t, a are integers
a 2t 1 t 2 120 815 = –2(4) (3.5) = –4(3) (10)
m = – t = 3, a = 2
SECTION-III
(NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the onscreen virtual numeric keypad in the place
Designated to enter the answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme
Full Marks: +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered; Zero Marks: 0 in all other cases.
8. Let tan 1 x , , for x . Then the number of real solutions of the equation
2 2
3 3
1 cos 2 x 2 tan 1 tan x in the set , , , is equal to
2 2 2 2 2 2
Ans. 3
2
1
No. of solutions = 3
3 0 3
2 2 2 2
2
Sol.
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
9. Let n 2 be a natural number and f : 0,1 be the function defined by
1
n 1 2 nx if 0 x
2n
2 n 2nx 1 if 1 x 3
f x
2n 4n
3 1
4n 1 nx if x
4n n
n 1
nx 1 if x 1
n 1 n
If n is such that the area of the region bounded by the curves x 0, x 1, y 0 and
Page 13
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
y
A1 A2 A3
0 x
1 3 1 1
2n 4n n
1 1 1 1 1 1
A1 . . n , A2 . . n , A3 1 . n
2 2n 2 2n 2 n
Total Area = A1 A2 A3 4
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 7
. . n . . n 1 . n 4 n 1 4 n 8
2 2n 2 2n 2 n 2 2 2
Maximum value of y = n = 8
r
10. Let 75.......57 denote the r 2 digit number where the first and the last digits are 7
and the remaining r digits are 5. Consider the sum
99
98
7 5.......57 m
S 77 757 7557 ...... 75.......57 If S , where m and n are
n
natural numbers less than 3000, then the value of m n is
Ans. 1219
98
Sol. S 77 757 7557 ........ 75.......57
= 7 10 102 103 ..... 1099 50 1 11 111 ....... 7 99
7 10100 10 50
= 10 1 102 1 .... 1098 1 7 99
9 9
Page 14
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
7 10100 70 50 1099 10
= 98 7 99
9 9 9 9
50 99
=
7 10100
9
10 1 50
99 7 99
70
9 9 9
50 99
=
7 7 10100
9
10 1 1280 70
9
99
75.......57 1210
= m 1210, n 9
9
m + n = 1219
1967 1686i sin
11. Let A : . If A contains exactly one positive integer n, then
7 3i cos
the value of n is
Ans. 281
1967 1686 i sin 7 3i cos
Sol.
7 3i cos 7 3i cos
=
1967 1686 i sin 7 3i cos
49 9cos 2
1967 7 1686 3 sin cos i 1967 3cos 1686sin 7
=
49 9cos 2
Imaginary part = 0
5901 cos 11802sin 0
1
tan
2
Page 15
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
1 2
1967 7 1686 3
5 5 68845 10116
n 281
4 245 36
49 9 5
5 5
B v
A u
xQ
C w
P1
P xP
Sol.
Let P : 3 x 2 y 3 z 16
7
Let P1 bet the plane which is at a distance of units from P.
2
Let A u , B v , C w are 3 points on P1 such that u v w 1 and
u v vw wu
Page 16
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
Let P and Q are the projections drawn from origin ‘O’ to the planes P and P1 respectively.
7 1
OP 4, QP OQ and OA = OB = OC = 1
2 2
1 3
AQ BQ CQ 1
4 2
3 3 3 3 1
AB 2. .
4 4 2 2 2
e ABC is equilateral triangle and Q be its circumcentre)
u .u u . v u . w
3 9 1 2
u v 1 1 2u . v u . v and u v w v .u v .u v . w
2 4 8
w.u w. v w. w
1 1
1
8 8
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
= 1 1
8 8 64 8 8 64 8 64 8
1 1
1
8 8
1 2 1 1 243 9 3 80V
= 1 V u vw 45
64 8 8 64 256 16 3
13. Let a and b be two nonzero real numbers. If the coefficient of x 5 in the expansion of
2
4 7
ax 70 is equal to the coefficient of x5 in the expansion of ax 1 2 , then the
27bx bx
value of 2b is
Ans. 3
4 r
2 70 2 4 r 70
Sol. In ax
27bx
4
, General term Tr 1 Cr ax
27bx
Page 17
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
r
4 4 r 70 8 3r
= Cr a . x
27b
7 S
1 7 7S 1
In ax , General term TS 1 CS ax
bx 2 bx 2
S
7 S 1
7
= CS . a . . x 7 3 S
b
4 7
70 1
5
Given that coefficient of x in ax 2 = coefficient of x 5 in ax 2
27bx bx
4 2
4 3 70 7 3 1 70 1
C1 . a C4 . a 4. 35 .
276 b 27b b4
27 3
b3 b 2b 3
8 2
Page 18
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
SECTION – IV
(MATCHING TYPE)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II.
List-I has four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T).
FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the
condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks: +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks: –1 in all other cases.
14. Let , and be real numbers. Consider the following system of linear equations
x 2y z 7
x z 11
2x 3 y z
Match each entry in List-I to the correct entries in List-II.
List-I List-II
1
(P) If 7 3 and 28, then the
2
system has (1) a unique solution
1
(Q) If 7 3 and 28, then the
2
system has (2) no solution
1
(R) If 7 3 where 1 and 28,
2
then the system has (3) infinitely many solutions
1
(S) If 7 3 where 1 and 28,
2
then the system has (4) x 11, y 2 and z 0 as a
solution
(5) x 15, y 4 and z 0 as a
solution
The correct option is:
A) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 1, S - 4 B) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 5, S - 4
C) P – 2, Q – 1, R – 4, S - 5 D) P – 2, Q – 1, R – 1, S – 3
Ans. A
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
Sol. x + 2y + z = 7 _______ (1)
x z 11 _______ (2)
2x 3y z _______ (3)
7 3 2 21 2
3 1 2 3 7 x z 3 2 21 2 If
1 11
1
7 3 2 7 3 and 77 21 2 r 28
2
1
If 7 3 and 28 then the system has infinitely many solutions P 3
2
1
If 7 3 and 28 , then the system has no solution Q 2
2
1
If 7 3 , where 1 and 28 , then the system has unique solution R 1
2
1
If 7 3 where 1 and 28 , then x = 11, y 2 , z = 0 is a solution to the
2
given system S 4 .
15. Consider the given data with frequency distribution
xi 3 8 11 10 5 4
fi 5 2 3 2 4 4
Match each entry in List-I to the correct entries in List-II.
List-I List-II
(P) The mean of the above data is (1) 2.5
(Q) The median of the above data is (2) 5
(R) The mean deviation about the mean
of the above data is (3) 6
(S) The mean deviation about the
median of the above data is (4) 2.7
(5) 2.4
The correct option is:
A) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 5 B) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 1, S – 5
C) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 1 D) P – 3, Q – 3, R – 5, S – 5
Ans. A
Page 20
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
Sol. xi fi c. fi
3 5 5
4 4 9
5 4 13
8 2 15
10 2 17
11 3 20
x
fi xi 6 P 3 N 20,
N
10
fi 2
Median = Size of observation whose cumulative frequency just greater than or equal
to 10= 5 Q2
fi xi x
Median deviation about mean = 2.7 R4
fi
fi xi M
Mean deviation about median = = 2.4 S 5
fi
16.
Let l1 and l2 be the lines r1 iˆ ˆj kˆ and r2 ˆj kˆ iˆ kˆ , respectively. Let
X be the set of all the planes H that contain the line l1. For a plane H , let d H denote
the smallest possible distance between the points of l2 and H . Let H 0 be a plane in X
for which d H 0 is the maximum value of d H as H varies over all planes in X .
Match each entry in List-I to the correct entries in List-II.
List-I List-II
(P) The value of d H 0 is (1) 3
(Q) The distance of the point (0, 1, 2)
1
from H 0 is (2)
3
(R) The distance of origin from H 0 is (3) 0
(S) The distance of origin from the
point of intersection of planes
y z , x 1 and H 0 is (4) 2
1
(5)
2
Page 21
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
The correct option is:
A) P – 2, Q – 4, R – 5, S – 1 B) P – 5, Q – 4, R – 3, S – 1
C) P – 2, Q – 1, R – 3, S – 2 D) P – 5, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 2
Ans. B
Sol. 1 : r1 i j k a b
2 : r2 j k i k c d
0 1 1
Here, a c b d 1 1 1 1 0
1 0 1
x y z
Equation of H 0 is 1 1 1 0 x z 0
1 0 1
1
P) d H 0 = Shortest distance between 1 and 2 =
2
02
Q) d 2
2
00
R) d 0 H 0 passes through (0, 0, 0)
2
S) Point of intersection of given planes and H 0 is (1, 1, 1)
Page 22
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
3
17. Let z be a complex number satisfying z 2 z 2 4 z 8 0, where z denotes the
complex conjugate of z. Let the imaginary part of z be nonzero.
Match each entry in List-I to the correct entries in List-II.
List-I List-II
2
(P) z is equal to (1) 12
2
(Q) z z is equal to (2) 4
2 2
(R) z + z z is equal to (3) 8
2
(S) z 1 is equal to (4) 10
(5) 7
The correct option is:
A) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 5, S – 4 B) P – 2, Q – 1, R – 3, S – 5
C) P – 2, Q – 4, R – 5, S – 1 D) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 5, S – 4
Ans. B
Sol. Let z = x + iy
3
x 2 y 2 2 x 2 y 2 4 x 8 i 4 xy 4 y 0
If 4xy – 4y = 0 x = 1 y 0
3
If x 1 1 y 2 2 1 y 2 4 8 0
1 y2 2 1 y 2
y2 1 4 y2 3
z 1 i 3 or 1 i 3
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
2 2 2 2
z 4, z z 12, z z z 8
2
z 1 7
P 2, Q 1, R 3, S 5
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
PHYSICS Max Marks: 60
SECTION – I
(ONE OR MORE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains THERE (03) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks: +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks: +3 if all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks: +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct;
Partial Marks: +1 if two or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, and it is a correct option;
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks: –2 in all other cases.
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark; choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark; choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark; choosing no option (i.e.
the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and choosing any other combination of options will get -2 marks..
18. A slide with a frictionless curved surface, which becomes horizontal at its lower end, is
fixed on the terrace of a building of height 3h from the ground, as shown in the figure. A
spherical ball of mass m is released on the slide from rest at a height h from the top of
the terrace. The ball leaves the slide with a velocity u0 u0 xˆ and falls on the ground at a
distance d from the building making an angle with the horizontal. It bounces off with
a velocity v and reaches a maximum height h1. The acceleration due to gravity is and
1
the coefficient of restitution of the ground is . Which of the following statement(s)
3
is(are) correct?
A) u0 2 ghxˆ B) v 2 gh xˆ zˆ
d
C) 60 D) 2 3
h1
Key: - ACD
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
Sol:- By conserving energy
1
mgh mV02
2
V0 2gh
V0 2 gh x
After loosing contact with wedge
V y2 V y2 2as V y2 0 6 gh V y 6 gh
Vy 2 3h
tan 3 600 d V0t d 2 gh 2 3h
Vx g
V y1 1
After collision, e V y1 6 gh V y1 2 gh
Vy 3
V y2 d
h1 h 2 3
2g h1
19. A plane polarized blue light ray is incident on a prism such that there is no reflection
from the surface of the prism. The angle of deviation of the emergent ray is 60 (see
Figure-1). The angle of minimum deviation for red light from the same prism is
min 30 (see Figure-2). The refractive index of the prism material for blue light is 3.
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
Key :- ABCD
Sol:- By applying kirchoff’s law
15 i1 1 R 5 11 i1 3 i1 2 R3
Potential difference across capacitor before closing the switch
3 2 3 6V qmax CV 2 6 C
qmax 12C
1 3 18
Req 3 Req 3 ReqC
1 1 5 3
1
3 3
t
18
2 7.2 s q 12c 1 e
3
t
12c 12
i e imax 0.36 0.6
7.2
SECTION – II
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases
21. A bar of mass M 1.00 kg and length L 0.20 m is lying on a horizontal frictionless
surface. One end of the bar is pivoted at a point about which it is free to rotate. A small
mass m 0.10 kg is moving on the same horizontal surface with 5.00ms1 speed on a
L
path perpendicular to the bar. It hits the bar at a distancefrom the pivoted end and
2
returns back on the same path with speed v. After this elastic collision, the bar rotates
with an angular velocity . Which of the following statement is correct?
A) 6.98 rad s1 and v 4.30 ms1 B) 3.75 rad s1 and v 4.30 ms1
C) 3.75 rad s1 and v 10.0 ms1 D) 6.80 rad s1 and v 4.10 ms1
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
Key :- A
Sol:-Before collision
O
5
O
After collision
v
O
O
L L ML2
mv0 mv
2 2 3
2
0.2 0.2 1 0.2 4
0.1 5 0.1v 5 v
2 2 3 3
since collision is elastic,
Velocity of approach = velocity of separation
0.2
50 v
2
300
5v 6.98 v 4.30
10 43
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
22. A container has a base of 50 cm 5 cm and height 50 cm, as shown in the figure. It has
two parallel electrically conducting walls each of area 50 cm 50 cm. The remaining
walls of the container are thin and non-conducting. The container is being filled with a
liquid of dielectric constant 3 at a uniform rate of 250 cm3s1. What is the value of the
capacitance of the container after 10 seconds?
[Given: Permittivity of free space 0 9 1012 C 2 N 1m2 , the effects of the non-
conducting walls on the capacitance are negligible]
A) 27 pF B) 63 pF C) 81 pF D) 135 pF
Key :- B
Sol:- 2500 = 250 y y = 10
3 9 1012 500 104 20 0 0 104
C 9 1012 2
63 1012 F
2 5 10
5 10
23. One mole of an ideal gas expands adiabatically from an initial state TA ,V0 to final state
T f ,5V0 . Another mole of the same gas expands isothermally from a different initial
state TB ,V0 to the same final state T f ,5V0 . The ratio of the specific heats at constant
TA
pressure and constant volume of this ideal gas is . What is the ratio ?
TB
A) 51 B) 51 C) 5 D) 51
Key :- A
1 TA
Sol:- TAV 1 = TB 5V0 5 1
TB
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
24. Two satellites P and Q are moving in different circular orbits around the Earth (radius ).
The heights of P and Q from the Earth surface are hP and hQ , respectively, where
R
hP . The accelerations of P and Q due to Earth’s gravity are g P and gQ , respectively.
3
g P 36
If , what is the value of hQ ?
g Q 25
A) 3 /5 B) /6 C) 6 /5 D) 5 /6
Key :- A
1
2
R
gP 4
3
Sol:-
gQ 1
R h 2
2 2
36 9 R h 64 h 3R
1 h
25 16 R 2 25 R 5
SECTION-III
(INTEGER ANSWER TYPE)
• This section contains EIGHT (06) questions.
• The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 TO 9, BOTH INCLUSIVE.
• For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual Numeric keypad in the place
designated to enter the answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered; Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
25. A Hydrogen-like atom has atomic number . Photons emitted in the electronic
transitions from level n 4 to level n 3 in these atoms are used to perform
photoelectric effect experiment on a target metal. The maximum kinetic energy of the
photoelectrons generated is 1. 95 eV. If the photoelectric threshold wavelength for the
target metal is 310 nm, the value of is _______.
[Given: hc 1240 eV nm and Rhc 13.6 eV , where R is the Rydberg constant, h is
the Planck’s constant and c is the speed of light in vacuum]
Key :- 3
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
Sol:- K .Emax E photon
1 1 7
13.6 Z 2 2 2 5.95 Z 2 13.6 5.95 Z2 9 Z 3
3 4 144
26. An optical arrangement consists of two concave mirrors M 1 and M 2 , and a convex lens
L with a common principal axis, as shown in the figure. The focal length of L is 10 cm.
The radii of curvature of M 1 and M 2 are 20 cm and 24 cm, respectively. The distance
between L and M 2 is 20 cm. A point object S is placed at the mid-point between L and
M 2 on the axis. When the distance between L and M 1 is n / 7 cm, one of the images
coincides with S. The value of n is _______.
I '' I1
O V
V = 60
80 20 cm
V' U ' 80
7
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
1 1 1 1 1 1
V 10 12 V 10 12
V 60 U | 60 20
1 1 1 80
U | 80 V
V | 80 10 7
This image should be at centre of curvature of M 1 (or) at pole of M1
for the image to be formed at object itself
80 80 220
distance between M & L can be Or 20
7 7 7
n 80 (or) 220
If lens forms first image then it becomes parallel light beam and falls on mirror which
forms image at 10cm from M 1 then it again falls on lens and then again it M 2 and finally
image is formed at object.
1 1 1 1 8 1 80 150
x 10 x
80 x 10 10 x 10 80 80 7 7
27. In an experiment for determination of the focal length of a thin convex lens, the distance
of the object from the lens is 10 0.1cm and the distance of its real image from the lens
is 20 0.2 cm. The error in the determination of focal length of the lens is n%. The value
of n is _______.
Key :- 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 20
Sol:- f
v v f 20 10 f 3
f U V f 0.2 0.1 20
f 2 U2 V2 f 400 100 3
f 0.6 20 f
100 100 100 1%
f 400 3 f
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
28. A closed container contains a homogeneous mixture of two moles of an ideal monatomic
5 7
gas and one mole of an ideal diatomic gas . Here, is the ratio of the
3 5
specific heats at constant pressure and constant volume of an ideal gas. The gas mixture
does a work of 66 Joule when heated at constant pressure. The change in its internal
energy is ________ Joule.
Key :- 121
Key :- 40
Sol:-s
4 1.6
tan
x1 x2 x2
5
x x x2
2 2 1
3
x2 x1
2
Differentiating it
3 dx2 dx1 dx2 2
60 Vr 40
2 dt dt dt 3
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
30. Two point-like objects of masses 20 gm and 30 gm are fixed at the two ends of a rigid
massless rod of length 10 cm . This system is suspended vertically from a rigid ceiling
using a thin wire attached to its center of mass, as shown in the figure. The resulting
torsional pendulum undergoes small oscillations. The torsional constant of the wire is
1.2108 N m rad 1 . The angular frequency of the oscillations in n 103 rad s1 . The
value of n is _____
Key :- 10
Sol:- I K
K K
I I
2 2
m2 m1
I m1 m2
m1 m2 m1 m2
mm 1.2 108
I 1 2 2
m1 m2 60
103 102
5
102 n 103 n 10
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
SECTION – IV
(MATCHING TYPE)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
Each set has TWO lists : List-I and List-II.
List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T).
FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the
condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks:+3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks: –1 In all other cases.
31. List-I shows different radioactive decay processes and List-II provides possible emitted
particles. Match each entry in List-I with an appropriate entry from List-II, and choose
the correct option.
List-I List-II
P) 238
92 U 91
234
Pa 1) one particle and one particle
Q) 214
82 Pb 82
210
Pb 2) three particles and one particle
R) 210
81 T 82
206
Pb 3) two particles and one particle
S) 228
91 Pa 88
224
Ra 4) one particle and one particle
5) one particle and two particles
The correct option is:
A) → 4, → 3, → 2, →1 B) → 4, → 1, → 2, →5
C) → 5, → 3, → 1, →4 D) → 5, → 1, → 3, →2
Key :- A
Sol:- ZA X ZA24 X
A
Z X Z A1Y
A
Z X Z A1Y
238
92 U 91
234
Pa 42 He 0 1 e
214
82 Pb 82
210
Pb 42 He 20 1 e
210
81 T 82
206
Pb 42 He 30 1 e
228
91 Pa 88
224
Ra 24 He 01 e
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
32. Match the temperature of a black body given in List-I with an appropriate statement in
List-II, and choose the correct option.
hc
[Given: Wien’s constant as 2.9103 m K and 1.24 106 V m ]
e
List-I List-II
(P) 2000 K (1) The radiation at peak wavelength can lead to emission of
photoelectrons from a metal of work function 4 eV.
(Q) 3000 K (2) The radiation at peak wavelength is visible to human eye.
(R) 5000 K (3) The radiation at peak emission wavelength will result
in the widest central maximum of a single slit diffraction.
(S) 10000 K (4) The power emitted per unit area is 1/16 of that
emitted by a blackbody at temperature 6000 K.
(5) The radiation at peak emission wavelength can be
used to image human bones.
A) → 3, → 5, → 2, →3 B) → 3, → 2, → 4, →1
C) → 3, → 4, → 2, →1 D) → 1, → 2, → 5, →3
Key :- C
hc hc
Sol:- b EP EP T T 2000 K
b
is maxima therefore widest central maxima For T = 3000 K.
1
P of P of black body at 6000K For T = 5000 K
16
580nm so part of visible spectrum
For T 10,000K
E 4.1eV it can emit photons from metal of work function 4eV
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
33. A series LCR circuit is connected to a 45sin t Volt source. The resonant angular
frequency of the circuit is 105 rad s1 and current amplitude at resonance is I 0 . When the
angular frequency of the source is 8104 rad s1 , the current amplitude in the circuit
is 0.05 I 0 . If = 50 mH, match each entry in List-I with an appropriate value from List-II
and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
(P) I 0 in mA (1) 44.4
(Q) The quality factor of the circuit (2) 18
(R) The bandwidth of the circuit in rad s1 (3) 400
(S) The peak power dissipated at resonance in Watt (4) 2250
(5) 500
A) → 2, → 3, → 5, →1 B) → 3, → 1, → 4, →2
C) → 4, → 5, → 3, →1 D) → 4, → 2, → 1, →5
Key :- B
1
Sol:- 0
LC
V
C 2 109 F I0 0
R
5 V0 9 103
I0 R
100 2 4 399
R2 X L X C
V
R 112.5 I0 0 400mA
R
1 L r
Q 44.4 Q Bandwidth r
R C Band width Q
V2
B. = 2250 Hz Peak power 0 18 watt
R
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
34. A thin conducting rod MN of mass 20 gm, length 25 cm and resistance 10 is held on
frictionless, long, perfectly conducting vertical rails as shown in the figure. There is a
uniform magnetic field B0 4T directed perpendicular to the plane of the rod-rail
arrangement. The rod is released from rest at time = 0 and it moves down along the
rails. Assume air drag is negligible. Match each quantity in List-I with an appropriate
value from List-II, and choose the correct option.
[Given: The acceleration due to gravity g 10 ms2 and e1 0.4 ]
List-I List-II
(P) At = 0.2 s, the magnitude of the induced emf in Volt (1) 0.07
(Q) At = 0.2 s, the magnitude of the magnetic force in Newton (2) 0.14
(R) At = 0.2 s, the power dissipated as heat in Watt (3) 1.20
(S) The magnitude of terminal velocity of the rod in m s1 (4) 0.12
(5) 2.00
A) → 5, → 2, → 3, → 1 B) → 3, → 1, → 4, → 5
C) → 4, → 3, → 1, → 2 D) → 3, → 4, → 2, → 5
Key. D
dv B 2 2v v dv t 1 g kv
Sol. g g kv 0 g kv 0 dt
n t
dt mR k g
B 22
1 g kv g mgR
n
k g
t
k
v 1 e kt v 2 2 1 e mR t
B
0.2 10 1
2
1 e 5 0.2 2 1 4 0.25 1.2 = 1.2
e
16 0.25
2
P 0.14 1.2 VT 2 FB = 0.12
R R
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 60
SECTION – I
(ONE OR MORE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains THERE (03) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks :+4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks: +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks: +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct ;
Partial Marks: +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, and it is a correct option ;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks; choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark; choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark; choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark; choosing no option (i.e.
the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and choosing any other combination of options will get -2 marks..
35. The correct statement(s) related to processes involved in the extraction of metals is(are)
A) Roasting of Malachite produces Cuprite.
B) Calcination of Calamine produces Zincite.
C) Copper pyrites is heated with silica in a reverberatory furnace to remove iron.
D) Impure silver is treated with aqueous KCN in the presence of oxygen followed by
reduction with zinc metal.
Key: BCD
Sol: A) Roasting of malachite produce cupric oxide CuO not cuprite Cu2O
B) Calcination of calamine ZnCO3 produce zincite ZnO
C) Copper pyrite is heated with silica to remove iron as ferrous silicate FeSiO3
D) Statement D is correct
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
36. In the following reactions, P,Q,R and S are the major products
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
37. Consider the following reaction scheme and choose the correct option(s) for the major
products Q,R and S.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Key: B
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
Sol:
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
SECTION – II
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases
38. In the scheme given below, X and Y , respectively, are
A) CrO42 and Br2 B) MnO42 and Cl2 C) MnO4 and Cl2 D) MnSO4 and HOCl
Key: C
Sol: Metal halide is MnCl2
MnCl2 NaOH
Mn (OH ) 2 2 NaCl
(P) (Q)
2 Mn OH 2 5 H 2 SO4 PbO2
PbSO4 2 HMnO4 4 H 2O
(P) (X)
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
39. Plotting 1 / m against c m for aqueous solutions of a monobasic weak acid (HX)
resulted in a straight line with y-axis intercept of P and slope of S. The ratio P/S is
[ m = molar conductivity
0m = limiting molar conductivity
c = molar concentration
K a = dissociation constant of HX]
A) K a m0 B) K a 0m /2 C) 2 K a 0m D) 1 / K a 0m
Key: A
c 2
Sol: m K a
1
2
c 0
m
m
Ka
1 0m
m
2
K a K a . 0m c 0m
m
m
Ka Ka c m 1
0 0
m m 0 2
m
m
1 c m 1
0
m K .0 2
m
a m
1
S
K a .0m
2
1
P
0m
P 1
0 K a .m0
2
S m
K a . m0
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
40. On decreasing the H from 7 to 2, the solubility of a sparingly soluble salt (MX) of a
weak acid (HX) increased from 104 mol L1 to103 mol L1. The pK a of HX is
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 2
Key: B
Sol: MX H 2O M aq X aq ; K sp 108
K sp
MX H M HX ;
Ka
102 103 103
10 8 10 6
2 10 4 K a 104 pK a 4
K a 10
41. In the given reaction scheme, P is a phenyl alkyl ether, Q is an aromatic compound; R
and S are the major products.
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
SECTION-III
(INTEGER ANSWER TYPE)
• This section contains EIGHT (06) questions.
• The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 TO 9, BOTH INCLUSIVE.
• For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual Numeric keypad in the place
designated to enter the answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered; Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
42. The stoichiometric reaction of 516 g of dimethyldichlorosilane with water results in a
tetrameric cyclic product X in 75% yield. The weight (in g) of X obtained is___.
[Use, molar mass g mol 1 : H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, Si = 28, Cl = 35.5]
Key: 222
Sol: CH3 2 SiCl2 M.wt=129
To get tetramer, 4 moles must be taken
The M.wt. of tetrameric cyclic product x is 296
If 100% yield is there then 296
75
For 75% yield we get 296 222
100
43. A gas has a compressibility factor of 0.5 and a molar volume of 0.4 dm3mol 1 at a
temperature of 800 K and pressure x atm. If it shows ideal gas behaviour at the same
temperature and pressure, the molar volume will be y dm3mol 1. The value of / is ___.
[Use: Gas constant, R 8102 L atm K 1mol 1 ]
Key: 100
Sol: PV ZRT
0.5 RT
P 1.25RT x
0.4
1
1.25 RT Vm RT Vm y
1.25
x 1.25 RT 2
(1.25) 2 RT 8 102 800 1.25 100
y 1
1.25
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
1
44. The plot of log k f versus for a reversible reaction A g P g is shown.
T
Pre-exponential factors for the forward and backward reactions are 1015 s1 and 1011 s1 ,
respectively. If the value of log K for the reaction at 500 K is 6, the value of log K b at
250 K is ___.
[K = equilibrium constant of the reaction
k f = rate constant of forward reaction
Key: 5
Kf
Sol: K
Kb
At T 500 K
K f 109
K 106
Kf
Kb 103
K
K b 1011 e Ea / RT
Ea
e
At 500K, log Kb 11 log10 RT
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
e
3 11 log10 R Ea
500
log R Ea
e
10
500
8
e Ea
At 250 k log K b 11 log10
R 250
11 8 2
5
log K b 5
45. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas undergoes two reversible processes
( A B and B C ) as shown in the given figure:
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
V3
10
V2
A B T .V 1 constant
1
TV
1 1 T2V2 1
2 2
60010 3 60 V2 3
2 5
V2 3 10 3
5
V2 10 2
V3 10V2
7
V3 10 2
2 log V3 7
46. In a one-litre flask, 6 moles of A undergoes the reaction A g P g . The progress of
product formation at two temperatures (in Kelvin), T1 and T2 , is shown in the figure:
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 04-06-2023_JEE-Advance-2023-P1-QP & Sol’s
t=0 6 0
t = 4 2
1 1
KT2 G20 G10 RT2 ln 2 R 2T2 ln RT2 ln8 x8
2 2
47. The total number of sp 2 hybridised carbon atoms in the major product P (a non-
heterocyclic compound) of the following reaction is ___.
Key: 28
Sol:
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SECTION – IV
(MATCHING TYPE)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
Each set has TWO lists : List-I and List-II.
List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T).
FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the
condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks:+3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks: –1 In all other cases.
48. Match the reactions (in the given stoichiometry of the reactants) in List-I with one of
their products given in List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
(P) P2O3 3 H 2 O (1) P OOCH 3 Cl2
(Q) P4 3 NaOH 3 H 2O (2) H 3 PO3
(R) PCl5 CH 3COOH (3) PH 3
(S) H 3 PO2 2 H 2O 4 AgNO3 (4) POCl3
(5) H 3 PO4
A) P 2; Q 3; R 1; S 5 B) P 3; Q 5; R 4; S 2
C) P 5; Q 2; R 1; S 3 D) P 2; Q 3; R 4; S 5
Key: D
(Q) P4 3NaOH 3H 2O
3NaH 2 PO2 PH 3
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49. Match the electronic configurations in List-I with appropriate metal complex ions in List-
II and choose the correct option.
[Atomic Number: Fe = 26, Mn = 25, Co = 27]
List-I List-II
2
(1) Fe H 2O 6
6 0
(P) t2g eg
2
(2) Mn H 2O 6
3 2
(Q) t3g eg
3
(R) e 2t 23 (3) Co NH 3
6
4 2
(S) t2g eg (4) FeCl4
2
(5) CoCl4
A) P 1; Q 4; R 2; S 3 B) P 1; Q 2; R 4; S 5
C) P 3; Q 2; R 5; S 1 D) P 3; Q 2; R 4; S 1
Key: D
6 0
[Co( NH 3 )6 ]3
Sol: (P) t2 g eg
[ FeCl4 ]
(R) e2t 23
4 2
[ Fe( H 2O)6 ]2
(S) t2 g eg
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50. Match the reactions in List-I with the features of their products in List-II and choose the
correct option.
List-I List-II
R)
R3
S)
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51. The major products obtained from the reactions in List-II are the reactants for the named
reactions mentioned in List-I. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
ZnHg , HCl
(P) Etard reaction (1) Acetophenone
i KMnO4 , KOH ,
(Q) Gattermann reaction (2) Toulene
ii SOCl2
Zn ,
(5) Phenol
A) P 2; Q 4; R 1; S 3 B) P 1; Q 3; R 5; S 2
C) P 3; Q 2; R 1; S 4 D) P 3; Q 4; R 5; S 2
Key: D
Sol: 1)
2)
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3)
4)
5) R5
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