Aakash Intensive CST - 6

CODE-A
Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456
INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test - 6 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.
Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & XII

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.
PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
SECTION-A 3. In which of the following case, potential at point
1. The motion of a body is given by the equation O is not zero?
dv
= 4 − 2v , where v is the speed in m/s and t is
dt
(1)
time in s. If the body was at rest at t = 0 then
magnitude of initial acceleration of the body is
(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(2)
(3) 6 m/s2
(4) 8 m/s2
2. If W is the work done in forming a bubble of (3)

radius r, the work done in forming a bubble of
radius 2r will be
(1) 2W
(2) 4W (4)
(3) W
(4) 3W
(1)
CST-6 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
4. The voltmeter shown in figure reads 18 V across 9. A transverse wave described as

the 50  resistor. The resistance of the voltmeter
is
( ) ( )
Y = 0.04 sin  2.0 m−1 x + 60 s−1 t  propagates
 
on a stretched string having linear mass density
of 1.5 × 10–4 kg/m. The tension in string is
(1) 0.110 N
(2) 0.135 N
(3) 0.175 N
(4) 0.210 N
10. The ratio of smallest wavelength of radiation that
may be emitted by He+ to that of Li++ is
900 500
(1)  (2) 
25 7 (1) 4 : 9
900 240 (2) 9 : 4

(3)  (4) 
7 7 (3) 3 : 2
5. Two batteries of different emfs and different (4) 2 : 3
internal resistances are connected as shown in
figure. The voltage across AB in volts is  R 
11. The graph of ln   versus In(A) (R = radius of
R
 0 
a nucleus and A = its mass number) is
(1) Straight line (2) Ellipse
(3) Parabola (4) Circle
12. A particle having a charge of 80 C and a mass
(1) 5 V (2) 10 V of 8 mg is projected in a uniform magnetic field of
20 mT with a speed of 10 m s–1. If the velocity is
(3) 15 V (4) 2.5 V
perpendicular to the magnetic field, how long will
6. The speed of satellite revolving above the
it take for the particle to come back to its original
surface of earth at a height h is
position for the first time after being projected?
2GM GM
(1) (2) (1) 15.7 s (2) 31.4 s
R R
(3) 62.8 s (4) 7.84 s
2GM GM
(3) (4) 13. Consider the following two statements
R+h (R + h )
Statement-A: In a charge free region, electric
7. Two bodies projected with initial speed of 4 m/s filed lines can be taken to be discontinuous
at two different angles 1 and 2 covers equal curves.
range, then
Statement-B: The concept of field was first
(1) sin 1 = sin 2 (2) sin 1 = cos 2
introduced by Faraday.
(3) sin 1 = tan 2 (4) sin 1 = sin 22 Which of the following option is correct?
8. The equation of wave travelling on a stretched (1) Statement A is correct while statement B is
string along x-axis is given by incorrect
2
x t  (2) Statement A is incorrect while statement B is
− + 
Y = Ae  a b  correct
The dimensional formula of a and b respectively (3) Statement A and statement B both are
are correct
(1) [T] and [L] (2) [L] and [T] (4) Statement A and statement B both are
(3) [L] and [L] (4) [T] and [T] incorrect
(2)
Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-6 (Code-A)
14. A conducting sphere of radius 5 cm has an 20. A p-n photodiode is manufactured from a
unknown charge. If the electric field at 10 cm semiconductor with band gap of 2.4 eV. The
from the centre of the sphere is 3 × 10 3 N/C and wavelength which can be detected is
points radially outward then net charge on the (1) 5000 nm (2) 5000 Å
sphere is
(3) 4000 nm (4) 600 nm
(1) 2.51 nC (2) 6.67 nC
21. Consider the following statements and choose
(3) 7.49 nC (4) 3.33 nC the correct statement(s).
15. Force acting on a body vary with the position(x) (a) Transistor oscillator utilises positive
according to the figure given below. feedback.
(b) Transistor amplifier never utilises the
negative feedback.
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
22. Using mass (M), length (L), time (T) and current
(A) as fundamental quantities, the dimensions of
Work done by this force on the body from x = 0 m magnetic permeability are
to x = 15 m will be (1) [ML2 T–2 A–2] (2) [ML T–2 A2]
(1) 120 J (2) 150 J (3) [ML2 T–2 A–1] (4) [ML T–2 A–2]
(3) 375 J (4) 75 J 23. The number of significant figures in result of
16. The maxima of decreasing intensity are observed (10.04 + 0.00230) is
in (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) Interference (2) Diffraction (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) Polarisation (4) Refraction 24. A stone of mass 0.20 kg tied to the end of a
17. An electromagnetic wave is generated by string, is whirled round in a circle of radius 1.2 m.
With what maximum speed stone can be whirled
(1) Charge moving with constant velocity
around if the string can withstand a maximum
(2) Charge at rest tension of 150 N? (Consider Horizontal circular
(3) Accelerating charges motion on smooth table)
(4) Both (1) and (2) (1) 20 m/s (2) 25 m/s
18. The latent heat of a body depends upon (3) 30 m/s (4) 35 m/s
(1) Pressure 25. A steel ring of radius 60 cm and cross-sectional
(2) Nature of phase change area 4 ×10–6 m2 is fitted on a wooden disc of
(3) Properties of substance radius 62 cm. If Young’s modulus of elasticity of
steel is 2 × 1011 N m–2, then tension with which
(4) All of these
the steel ring is expanded is
19. A cylinder of radius r and thermal conductivity K1
(1) 1.2 × 106 N (2) 2.67 × 104 N
is surrounded by a cylindrical shell of inner radius
r and outer radius 2r and thermal conductivity K2. (3) 3.48 × 105 N (4) 1.7 × 105 N
The two ends of system are maintained at 26. A heat engine operates in Carnot cycle between
temperature of T1°C and T2°C respectively. There 427°C and 27°C. It absorbed 15 kcal from the
is no heat loss from system. The equivalent source. The amount of heat that is converted into
thermal conductivity is given by work is equal to
K 2 + 3K1 K1 + 3K 2 (1) 6.23 × 103 cal
(1) (2)
4 4 (2) 7.52 × 103 cal
K1 + K 2 3K1 + 2K 2 (3) 8.57 × 103 cal
(3) (4)
2 4 (4) 9.42 × 103 cal
(3)
27. The density of a gas is 9 × 10–2 kg/m3

and root 32. For a damped oscillator, amplitude becomes
th
mean square velocity of gas molecules is  1
400 m/s. The pressure exerted by the gas on the  4  of its initial value in T time. After what time
 
walls of the vessel is th
 1 
from beginning will amplitude be   of its
(1) 4556 N/m2 (2) 8225 N/m2  64 
(3) 7520 N/m2 (4) 4800 N/m2 initial value?
28. If the apparent value of dip at a place in two (1) 2T (2) 3T
perpendicular vertical planes are respectively 60° (3) 4T (4) 5T
and 45° then true angle of dip at that place is 33. In the given magnetic flux versus time graph, find
magnitude of emf induced in the loop at t = 3 s.
(1) tan–1(2)
4
(2) tan−1  
3
 3
(3) tan−1 
 4 
 
(4) tan−1 ( 5) (1) 5 V (2) 4 V

(3) 30 V (4) Zero
29. The r.m.s. value of current I = (4 cos t + 34. An object is kept at (0, 5) and a plane mirror is
2 sin t ) is inclined at 45° with x-axis as shown in figure.
Coordinates of image formed by the mirror will be
(1) 10 A (2) 2 10 A
(3) 2 20 A (4) 2 5 A
30. A (2 × 2) square sheet is cut out from a (4 × 4)
square sheet as shown in the figure. Shift in
centre of mass will be (take length and breadth in
metre)
(1) (0, –5)

(2) (–5, 0)
(3) (5, 0)
(4) No image will be obtained
35. A thin biconvex lens is cut into four parts which
are rearranged as shown. If power of lens is P,
2 the power of combination after rearranging will be
(1) m (2) 2 2 m
3
74
(3) m (4) 1 m
3
31. A sphere is in pure rolling on the ground with
speed v. The speed of its bottom-most point at
any instant is
(1) v (2) 2v
(1) P (2) 2P
(3) 2v (4) Zero (3) 4P (4) Zero
(4)
SECTION-B 40. A particle having charge of 2 C, mass of 1 kg and

36. A sphere of radius R, made of material of relative speed of 2 m/s enters a uniform magnetic field,
density 1.5 has a concentric cavity of radius r. It having magnetic induction of 2 T at an angle
just floats when placed in a tank full of water. The  = 30° between velocity vector and magnetic
R induction. The pitch of its helical path is
value of will be (in meters)
r
1 3
(1) 3 (2) ( 3 ) 3 (1) 
2
1 (2) 3
1
 2 3
(3) ( 2) 3 (4)  
(3) 2 3
3
37. The charge on capacitor B in steady state is 3
(4) 
equal to 4
41. Three identical spheres are kept in such a way
that each touches the other two. The magnitude
of the gravitational force on any of the spheres
due to the other two is (M : mass of sphere,
a : radius of sphere)
GM 2
(1)
2a2
GM 2
(2)
20 35 4a2
(1) C (2) C
3 7 GM 2
(3) 3
(3)
60
C (4) 12 C a2
7
3 GM 2
38. In the following circuit, the current through the (4)
4 a2
resistor R = 2  connected between points A and
B, is I amperes. The value of I is 42. A uniform rope of length l and mass m is
connected to a uniform chain of length l and
mass 3m and hung vertically as shown in figure.
If the system is inverted and hung from same
point then change in gravitational potential
energy of the system will be
(1) 1 A (2) 2 A
(3) 3 A (4) 4 A
39. The stopping potential for photoelectrons ejected
from a surface by 375 nm photons is 1.870 V.
The stopping potential for 600 nm photons is
nearly
(1) 1.627 V (2) 0.627 V (1) mgl (2) 3mgl
(3) 2.627 V (4) 3.627 V (3) 2mgl (4) –2mgl
(5)
43. A slab of thickness t and refractive index 2 is (1) 12.5%

kept in a medium of refractive index 1. If two (2) 22.4%
rays parallel to each other passes through such a
100
system with one ray passing through the slab, (3) %
then the magnitude of path difference produced 13
between them due to slab will be 50
(4) %
3
47. A 3 kg block is moving in plane with its x and y.
coordinates given by x = 5t2 – 3 and y = 3t3 + 5.
Where x and y are in metre and t in second.
What is the magnitude of the force acting on this
mass at t = 2 s?
    (1) 112 N
(1)  1 − 1 t (2)  2 − 1 t
    (2) 316 N
 2   1 
(3) 59 N
(3) ( 2 − 1 ) t (4) ( 1 − 1) t (4) 138 N
44. If a = (10 ± 0.1) cm, b = (20 ± 0.2) cm and c = (80 48. An alternating emf 200 V, 50 Hz is connected to
± 0.4) cm, then the maximum percentage error in a circuit of resistance 1  and inductance 0.01 H
a2 b in series. What is the current in the circuit?
calculation of is
c4 (1) 60.6 A
(1) 6% (2) 4%
(2) 32.63 A
(3) 5% (4) 2%
(3) 72.3 A
45. The depletion width of a p-n junction depends on
(4) 50.75 A
which of the following parameters given below?
(a) Temperature 49. A man standing on a still boat jumps out
horizontally with speed of 20 m/s with respect to
(b) Type of semiconductor material
boat. If mass of man is 70 kg and that of boat is
(c) Doping concentration
210 kg. Speed of boat after man jumps will be
(d) Biasing of junction
(1) 20 m/s
(1) (a), (b), (c)
(2) 6.67 m/s
(2) (b), (c), (d)
(3) 5 m/s
(3) (a), (c), (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d) (4) 15 m/s
46. A thermodynamic process of one mole of an 50. A square sheet of area 1 mm2 is kept in front of a
ideal monoatomic gas is shown in figure. The concave mirror of focal length 30 cm. What will
efficiency of cyclic process ABCA will be be area of image formed by the mirror if its
principal axis passes through centre of sheet and
is perpendicular to it and placed at 90 cm from
mirror?
(1) 1 mm2
(2) 0.25 mm2
(3) 4 mm2
(4) 0.5 mm2
(6)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 56. Natural polymer among the following is
51. Statement-I: I-Cl is more reactive than Cl2. (1) Poly (Butadiene – Acrylonitrile)
Statement-II: Interhalogen compounds are (2) cis-1, 4-polyisoprene
diamagnetic in nature. (3) Polythene
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) Polyvinyl chloride
correct answer from the options given below. 57. Trichloro derivative of sucrose is
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is (1) Saccharin (2) Alitame
correct
(3) Sucralose (4) Aspartame
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct 58. The energy (kJ mol–1)
of one mole of electrons of
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are radiations whose frequency is 2 × 1014 Hz, is
incorrect (1) 436.1 (2) 132.8
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is (3) 79.8 (4) 624.5
incorrect
59. Match List-I with List-II and identify correct code.
52. In which of the following reactions, N2 is not
obtained? List-I List-II
(1) NH4Cl (aq) + NaNO2 (aq) ⎯⎯→ a. Unnilunium (i) Dubnium

 b. Unniloctium (ii) Bohrium
(2) (NH4)2 Cr2O7 ⎯⎯→
 c. Unnilpentium (iii) Mendelevium
(3) Ba(N3)2 ⎯⎯→
d. Unnilseptium (iv) Hassium
(4) NH2CONH2 + 2H2O ⎯⎯→
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
53. Maximum number of structural isomers possible
for the molecular formula C4H11N is (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) 5 (2) 6 60. Enzymes that utilise ATP in phosphate transfer
require which metal as co-factor?
(3) 7 (4) 8
(1) Ca (2) Mg
54. Cumene is oxidised in the presence of air to give
(3) Na (4) K
a compound X which on treating with dilute acid
gives phenol and a compound Z. 61. The ratio of 2-centre-2-electron bonds to
3-centre-2-electron bonds in diborane is
The correct statements about the above reaction
sequence are (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
(I) Compound X contains a peroxy linkage (3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 3
(II) Cumene is 1-phenylpropane 62. Which among the following is not a pesticide?
(III) Z on reaction with methyl magnesium (1) Aldrin (2) Sodium chlorate
bromide followed by hydrolysis gives a (3) Dieldrin (4) DDT
tertiary alcohol. 63. Statement I : Heavy water is used as a
(1) II and III only (2) I and II only moderator in nuclear reactors.
(3) I and III only (4) I, II and III Statement II : Perhydrol is used as an antiseptic.
55. Correct order of boiling point is In the light of above statements choose the
correct option among the following.
(1) n-butane < ethoxyethane < pentan-1-ol <
pentanal (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(2) ethoxyethane < n-butane < pentanal < (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
pentan-1-ol incorrect
(3) n-butane < ethoxyethane < pentanal < (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
pentan-1-ol incorrect
(4) n-butane < pentanal < ethoxyethane < (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
pentan-1-ol correct
(7)
64. Match the elements in column-I with their method

of purification in column-II. (1)
Column-I Column-II
a. Titanium (i) Zone refining
b. Zinc (ii) Electrolytic (2)

refining
c. Germanium (iii) van Arkel Method
d. Copper (iv) Distillation

(3)
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
65. Which of the given reaction is an example of
disproportionation reaction? (4)
(1) Br2 + 5H2O2 → 2BrO3− + 4H2O + 2H+
(2) S8 + 12OH– → 4S2– + 2S2 O32 − + 6H2O 70. Consider the following statements
(3) 2Cu2+ (aq.) + 4I– (aq.) → Cu2I2 (s) + I2 (aq.) (a) Electromeric effect is a temporary effect
(4) (NH4)2Cr2O7 → N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O (b) In negative resonance effect, the transfer of
66. Incorrect statement among the following is electrons is always from an atom or
substituted group attached to the conjugated
(1) For two-dimensions square close packing,
system.
co-ordination number is 4
(2) For three-dimensions AAA --- type of lattice, (c) Inductive effect operates through  bond
co-ordination number is 8 The correct statements are
(3) For two-dimensions Hexagonal close (1) (a) and (b) only
packing, co-ordination number is 6 (2) (b) and (c) only
(4) For three-dimensions ABCABC --- type of (3) (a) and (c) only
lattice, co-ordination number is 12
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
67. For a conductivity cell containing 10–3 M KCl
71. Statement-I : Aldehydes which do not have an
solution at 298 K, the resistance is 1500 ohm and
-hydrogen atom, undergo disproportionation
conductivity is 0.15 × 10–3 S cm–1. The cell
reaction on heating with concentrated alkali.
constant of the cell is
(1) 10 cm–1 (2) 0.1 cm–1 Statement-II : Benzaldehyde on reaction with
concentrated alkali gives sodium phenoxide and
(3) 0.115 cm–1 (4) 0.225 cm–1
sodium benzoate.
68. For NaCl crystal there is one Schottky defect per
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) 1016 ions (2) 1020 ions
correct answer from the options given below
(3) 1014 ions (4) 1022 ions
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
69. Consider the following reaction sequence correct
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
incorrect
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
Products A and B respectively are incorrect
(8)
72. Match List-I with List-II 80. Which among the following pair of solution shows
positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
List-I List-II
(1) CH3OH + H2O
(Name of (Deficiency
Vitamins) Diseases) (2) CHCl3 + CH3COCH3
(3) H2O + HNO3
a. Vitamin B12 (i) Convulsions
(4) C6H6 + C6H5CH3
b. Vitamin B1 (ii) Beri beri
81. Which of the following solutions has maximum
c. Vitamin B2 (iii) Pernicious anaemia boiling point? (Assuming 100% ionization)
d. Vitamin B6 (iv) Cheilosis (1) 0.1 m Glucose (2) 0.2 m Urea

(3) 0.1 m AlCl3 (4) 0.15 m KCl
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
82. Yellow coloured precipitate formed during
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) haloform test is of
73. 2 mol an ideal gas expanded against 1 atm (1) CHF3 (2) CHCl3
pressure from 10 L to 20 L at 27°C. Heat
(3) CHBr3 (4) CHI3
absorbed in the above process is
83. Electrophile for Reimer-Tiemann reaction is
(1) 10 L-atm (2) 20 L-atm
(1) CCl4 (2) CHCl3
(3) 40 L-atm (4) 30 L-atm
(3) :CCl2 (4) NaOH
74. Secondary valency of cobalt in complex
84. Partial pressure of H2 in a mixture of 4 g of H2
[Co(NH3)6]Cl3 is
and 16 g of O2 in an open container will be
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) 1 atm (2) 0.8 atm
(3) 6 (4) 4
(3) 0.5 atm (4) 0.67 atm
75. Equilibrium constant varies with
85. Yellow colour of potassium dichromate in basic
(1) Addition of catalyst medium is due to presence of
(2) Change in temperature (1) Cr2O72− (2) CrO24−
(3) Addition of inert gas at constant pressure
(3) Cr3+ (4) CrO5
(4) Change in volume
SECTION-B
76. is known as 86. Benzamide on reaction with lithium aluminium
hydride followed by hydrolysis gives
(1) *2pz (2) 2px
(3) *2px (4) 2pz (1) (2)
77. The process of settling of colloidal particles is
known as (3) (4)
(1) Peptization (2) Osmosis
87. Lyman series of hydrogen atom falls in which of
(3) Coagulation (4) Dialysis the following region of electromagnetic
78. Which of the following plot is straight line for first spectrum?
order reaction R → P? (1) Microwave (2) Ultraviolet
 1 (3) Visible (4) Infrared
(1) [R] vs t (2) In[R] vs  
t 88. The correct order of decreasing thermal stability
(3) t1/2 vs [R]0 (4) rate vs t is given by
79. Which of the following will contain maximum (1) BaCO3 > MgCO3 > CaCO3 > BeCO3
number of atoms? (2) BeCO3 > MgCO3 > BaCO3 > CaCO3
(1) 1 g dihydrogen (2) 2.24 L O2 at STP (3) BeCO3 > MgCO3 > CaCO3 > BaCO3
(3) 16 g SO3 (4) 10 g Ca (4) BaCO3 > CaCO3 > MgCO3 > BeCO3
(9)
89. The number of mole of KMnO4 that will be 94. Standard enthalpy of formation is non-zero for
needed to react with one mole of FeSO 4 in acidic (1) C(graphite) (2) O2(g)
medium is
(3) P(white) (4) Br2(g)
2 2 95. Which among the following complex compound
(1) (2)
3 5 can be optically active?
1 4 (1) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (2) K[Co(en)Cl2Br2]
(3) (4)
5 7
(3) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (4) [Pt(NH3)(H2O)ClBr]
90. Given : (i) Cu2+ + e– → Cu+, E° = 0.15 V 96. For the reaction 2N2O5(g) → 4NO2(g) + O2(g) if
(ii) Cu+ + e– → Cu, E° = 0.52 V −[N2O5 ] [O2 ]
is x then is
Electrode potential, E° for the reaction t t
Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu, will be nearly (1) x (2) (x)2
(1) 0.45 V (2) 0.28 V x
(3) (4) 2x
(3) 0.33 V (4) 0.39 V 2
91. IUPAC name of the given compound is 97. The accumulation of molecular species at the
surface rather than the bulk of a solid or liquid is
termed as
(1) Absorption (2) Adsorption
(3) Sorption (4) Desorption
(1) 4-Bromo-1-methyl-3-nitrobenzene
98. Bond order of S – O bond in SO24− ion is
(1) 1
(2) 2
3
92. Major product of the given reaction is (3)
2
4
(4)
3
(1) (2) 99. Which of the following can act as bronsted base
but not as Bronsted acid?
(1) HCO3−
(3) (4)
(2) HSO−4
(3) H2PO2−
93. The ester which is most easily hydrolysed in
presence of aqueous alkali is (4) H2PO4−
100. Critical temperature of a gas can be expressed

as
(1) (2)
a
(1)
27b2
8a
(2)
27Rb
(3) (4) (3) 3b
a
(4)
Rb
(10)
BOTANY
SECTION-A 107. Read the following statements and select the
101. The chief sink for the mineral elements in plants incorrect one.
are all, except (1) Turgor pressure in cells helps in extension
(1) Young leaves growth
(2) Storage organs (2) Water provides medium for enzymatic

reaction for growth
(3) Lateral meristems
(3) Nitrogen helps in release of metabolic energy
(4) Senescing parts
essential for growth activities in plants
102. Read the following statements and mark the
(4) Nutrients acts as a source of energy for
correct option:
growth in organisms
Statement-A: Rhizobium and Frankia are free-
108. Select the odd one out w.r.t. asexual
living in soil, but as symbionts, can fix
reproduction.
atmospheric nitrogen.
(1) Gamete formation can occur
Statement-B: Nitrogenase enzyme is present in
(2) Involvement of only one parent
both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells.
(3) Gametic fusion is absent
(1) Only statement A is correct
(4) Morphologically and genetically different
(2) Only statement B is correct
individuals are produced
(3) Both the statements are incorrect
109. How many sequential mitotic nuclear divisions
(4) Both the statements are correct are required for the formation of 8-nucleate stage
103. At the onset of anaphase of the embryo sac?
(1) Chromosomal material condenses (1) Eight (2) Three
(2) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform (3) Four (4) Two
(3) Chromosomes move to spindle equator and 110. Which of the following beverages is not
get aligned produced by distillation of fermented broth?
(4) Chromosomes arranged at metaphase plate (1) Wine (2) Brandy
split simultaneously (3) Whisky (4) Rum
104. In prophase I synaptonemal complex is formed 111. The similarity between mango and wheat is that
during both
(1) Leptotene (2) Diplotene (1) Belong to the same class
(3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene (2) Are members of same plant family
105. Unicellular alga which is rich in proteins and is (3) Belong to the order sapindales
used as food supplements by space travelers is (4) Share the same division
(1) Chlorella (2) Spirogyra 112. Which of the following taxonomic aids provides
(3) Gracilaria (4) Ectocarpus information about both plants and animals?
106. In gymnosperms (1) Flora (2) Botanical garden
(1) The female gametophyte have independent (3) Museum (4) Herbarium
free-living existence 113. If there is oxidation of fatty acids, proteins and
(2) Two different types of spores are produced carbohydrates then the common intermediate
(3) Ovules are enclosed by an ovary wall among them which enters the Krebs cycle is
(4) Pollen grains are carried to ovule by water (1) Acetyl CoA (2) Pyruvic acid
currents (3) OAA (4) Citric acid
(11)
114. A variety of rapeseed mustard resistant to aphids 122. What does ‘Z’ represents in equation
has been developed by IARI. It is log S = log C + Z log A for species area
(1) Pusa Sawani (2) Pusa Sem 2 relationship?
(3) Pusa Gaurav (4) Pusa Sem 3 (1) Species richness
115. Read the following statements and state true (T) (2) Regression coefficient
or false (F) for them.
(3) Y-intercept
A. The level of thermal tolerance of different
(4) Area
species determine to a large extent their
geographical distribution. 123. All of these are obligate parasites, except
B. A vast majority of organisms are stenothermal. (1) Viroid
A B (2) Tobacco mosaic virus
(1) T F (3) Rhizopus

(4) T4 phage
(2) F T
124. Neurospora does not
(3) T T
(1) Have cell wall
(4) F F
(2) Reproduce asexually by motile spores
116. Correct expression for GPP (Gross primary
(3) Have septate mycelia
productivity) is
(4) Have perfect stage in its life cycle
(1) NPP = GPP + R (2) NPP = GPP  R
125. Identify the wrong match.
(3) GPP = NPP ÷ R (4) GPP – R = NPP
117. In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, electrons are (1) Agaricus – Edible ascocarp
donated to PS-II by which of the given molecule?
(2) Gonyaulax – Flagellated protist
(1) CO2 (2) H2O
(3) Colletotrichum – Lack sexual spores
(3) NADPH (4) NADH
118. Which of the given is not a component of (4) Slime mould – Phagotrophic
nucleoside?
126. The recombination frequency between genes
(1) Purine (2) Ribose sugar A and B present on X chromosome is 17% while
(3) Phosphate (4) Pyrimidine C and D is 13%.
119. Variations at the genetic level is called Select the correct option concluded from above
polymorphism. It arises due to given information.
(1) Satellite DNA (2) Introns
(1) Genes A and B are closely situated than
(3) Mutations (4) Exons genes C and D
120. In the first phase of translation (2) Genes A and B are completely linked
(1) Smaller subunit of ribosome encounters
(3) Genes A and B must be present on one
mRNA
chromatid and C and D on sister chromatid
(2) Amino acids are activated
(4) Genes A and B are distantly situated than
(3) Peptide bond is formed
genes C and D
(4) Two amino acids are joined together
127. Select the wrong statement for persons suffering
121. Presence of large amounts of nutrients in water
with Klinefelter’s syndrome.
causes all of the given, except
(1) Such persons are sterile male
(1) Excessive growth of phytoplanktons
(2) Algal bloom (2) They have chromosome complement 44 +
XO
(3) Increase in biochemical oxygen demand
(BOD) (3) They have trisomy of sex chromosomes
(4) Increase in dissolved oxygen (DO) (4) They have feminine pitched voice
(12)
128. A colourblind male marries to a normal female 134. The functions of which of the following cell
and they have their first child as colourblind organelles are not coordinated with the members
female. What will be the genotype of the father of endomembrane system?
and mother respectively?
(1) Lysosome
(1) XCY, XX (2) XCY, XCX
(2) Vacuole
(3) XY, XCXC (4) XY, XCX
(3) Golgi complex
129. Stilt roots in maize arise from
(1) Maturation zone of radicle (4) Peroxisome
(2) Lower nodes of the stem 135. On the sides of centromere, disc shaped
(3) The junction of radicle and plumule structures are present known as
(4) Nodes of underground stem (1) Telomeres

130. Identify the statement which is true regarding the (2) Secondary constrictions
structure in the below given figure labelled as X. (3) Kinetochores
(4) Satellite
SECTION-B
136. How many plants given in the box show haplo-
diplontic pattern of life cycle?
(1) This structure in Australian Acacia expands, Ectocarpus, Kelps, Fucus, Volvox, Wolfia,
becomes green and synthesises food Eucalyptus, Ginkgo
(2) In pea plant, this structure modifies into
tendril (1) 1
(3) In Bougainvillea, this structure is modified (2) 3
into thorn (3) 2
(4) This structure becomes fleshy and stores (4) 5
food in cactus
137. Read the following statements and mark true (T)
131. Regarding the element of complex tissue in
or false (F).
flowering plants which has sieve plates, identify
the option that is not true. I. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of a
(1) Its function is controlled by an adjacent cell fungus with a root system.
(2) It lacks nucleus at maturity II. Imbibition is a special type of diffusion.
(3) It possesses peripheral cytoplasm III. Facilitated transport is not highly selective.
(4) It is mainly responsible for the transportation I II III
of water and minerals
132. The cells of secondary medullary rays in dicot (1) T F F
plants are formed by (2) T T F
(1) Pith cells (2) Parenchyma cells
(3) F T T
(3) Vascular cambium (4) Endodermal cells
133. Select the incorrect statement from the (4) T T T
following. 138. Which plant growth regulator is an adenine
(1) Genetic material in PPLO is naked derivative?
(2) Plasmids are circular single stranded DNA (1) Auxin
outside the genomic DNA
(2) Kinetin
(3) Organelles found in prokaryotes are non-
membrane bound (3) Abscisic acid
(4) Mesosome is characteristic of prokaryotes (4) Ethephon
(13)
139. Read the following statements and select the 144. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro called
correct option for blanks A, B and C. upon all nations to take appropriate measures for
I. The body of ovule fuses with funicle in the (1) Conservation of biodiversity
region called A . (2) Controlling emission of ozone depleting
substance
II. Female gametophyte is also called B .
(3) Reducing air pollution
III. C plays an important role in guiding the (4) Considering noise as air pollutant
pollen tube into synergids. 145. All of the given are dissolved materials present
as impurities in waste water, except
A B C
(1) Nitrate (2) Ammonia
(1) Hilum Embryo Antipodal cell
(3) Phosphate (4) Silt and clay
(2) Nucellus Ovary Polar nuclei 146. A protozoan without locomotory structure is
(3) Micropyle Ovary Filiform (1) Entamoeba (2) Trypanosoma
apparatus (3) Plasmodium (4) Paramecium
(4) Hilum Embryo Filiform 147. Mark the autosomal dominant disorder among
sac apparatus the following.
140. Which among the following can be directly (1) Sickle cell anaemia
released into natural water bodies? (2) Colour blindness
(1) Primary effluent (2) Secondary effluent (3) Phenylketonuria
(3) Primary sludge (4) Activated sludge (4) Myotonic dystrophy
141. 148. Regarding the position of calyx, corolla and
androecium w.r.t. ovary on thalamus, select the
example which is odd one out.
The given pyramid is most probably of
(1) Brinjal (2) Guava
(1) Energy in tree ecosystem
(3) China rose (4) Mustard
(2) Number in grassland ecosystem
149. In dicot stem, the lateral meristem which is
(3) Biomass in aquatic ecosystem
secondary in origin is
(4) Number in aquatic ecosystem
(a) Cork cambium
142. Select the incorrect statement about
(b) Fascicular vascular cambium
competition.
(c) Interfascicular cambium
(1) Totally unrelated species can also compete
The correct one(s) is/are
for same resources
(1) (a) only (2) All (a), (b) and (c)
(2) In competition, the fitness of one species is
lowered in the presence of another species (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (b) and (c) only
(3) Resource partitioning promotes co-existence 150. Select the incorrect match from the following.
(4) In general, carnivores are appear to be more (1) Phospholipids - Major lipids in
adversely affected than plants and herbivores bacterial cell
wall
143. In sickle cell anaemia, there is point mutation in
which a change of single base pair in the gene (2) Centrioles - Absent in
almost all plant
for beta globin chain results in the substitution of
cells
(1) Glutamic acid by valine
(3) Cytoskeletal - Present in
(2) Valine by glutamic acid structures eukaryotes
(3) Phenylalanine by glutamic acid (4) Compartmentalisation - Absent in
(4) Lysine by Arginine of cytoplasm prokaryotes
(14)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 156. Observe the labelling in the given figure and
151. Read the following statements carefully and select the sphincter which guards this duct.
choose the option with only correct statements.
(a) Spermatogonia produce sperm cells by
spermatogenesis that begins at puberty.
(b) All spermatogonia periodically undergo
meiosis.
(c) A primary spermatocyte completes first
meiotic division during embryonic
development.
(d) The secondary spermatocytes have only 23 (1) Sphincter of Boyden
chromosomes each.
(2) Sphincter of Oddi
(1) (a) and (b) (3) Cardiac sphincter
(2) (b) and (c) (4) Ileocecal sphincter
(3) (c) and (d) 157. The abnormal frequency of bowel movement and
(4) (a) and (d) increased liquidity of the faecal discharge is
(1) Jaundice (2) Vomiting
152. In which of the following organisms, kidneys do
not play any significant role in removal of (3) Indigestion (4) Diarrhoea
nitrogenous waste? 158. Match the formed elements in column I with their
percent in total WBCs in column II. Select the
(1) Macaca (2) Delphinus
correct option.
(3) Catla (4) Pavo
Column I Column II
153. The type of origin shown by muscles is same as
a. Eosinophils (i) 60-65%
that of blood vessels, bone and cartilage. Identify
the type of origin and select the correct option. b. Monocytes (ii) 0.5-1%
(1) Ectodermal (2) Endodermal c. Basophils (iii) 6-8%
(3) Mesodermal (4) Ecto-endodermal d. Neutrophils (iv) 2-3%
154. About ______ percent of the body weight of a (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
human adult is contributed by muscles. (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
Select the option that fills the blank correctly. 159. In which of the following adult organisms, the
(1) 40-50 (2) 60-70 blood is oxygenated by gills and is supplied to the
body parts?
(3) 70-80 (4) 20-30
(1) Frog (2) Aptenodytes
155. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
(3) Scoliodon (4) Calotes
(1) Poultry includes chicken, ducks and turkeys
160. To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected
but not geese. to the machine with three electrical leads
(2) Poultry is the class of domesticated fowl used attached one to each ‘A’ and to the ‘B’.
for food or for their eggs. Select the option correctly representing A and B.
(3) Selection of disease free and suitable breeds A B
are important components of poultry farm (1) Wrist Left chest region
management. (2) Ankle Left wrist
(4) Bird flu virus drastically affected egg and (3) Wrist Left ankle
chicken consumption. (4) Ankle Left chest region
(15)
161. Junctions which facilitate the rapid transfer of 166. Select the incorrect match w.r.t rDNA technology.
ions, small molecules and sometimes big
(1) Bioprocess – Maintenance of sterile
molecules are engineering ambience
(1) Tight junctions (2) Gap junctions
(2) Genetic – Alteration of genetic
(3) Adhering junctions (4) Desmosomes engineering material
162. In female Periplaneta, genital pouch is formed by
(3) Downstream – Biosynthetic stage
(1) 7th, 8th and 9th sternum processing
(2) 9th, 10th terga and 9th sternum
(4) Biosynthetic – Culturing of
(3) 7th, 8th terga and 9th sternum stage recombinant host cells
(4) 9th, 10th sterna and 9th tergum
167. Match column I with column II and choose the
163. How many statements given below are correct? correct option.
(a) Seed ferns are common ancestors for
Column I Column II
gnetales and cycads.
a. Salmonella (i) Source of EcoRI
(b) Zosterophyllum are avascular land plants typhimurium
evolved in Silurian period.
b. Bacillus thuringiensis (ii) Used in developing
(c) Lycopods are oldest extant vascular land transgenic tobacco
plants. plant
(d) Sphenopsids are evolved from the group of c. Agrobacterium (iii) Used in creating first
plants to which Psilophyton belongs. tumefaciens recombinant DNA
(1) Two d. Escherichia coli (iv) Gene used in

creating biopesticide
(2) Three
(3) Four (1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) One (3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
168. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the
164. Read the following statements and choose the
plasmid vector became possible with the enzyme
correct option.
_______.
Statement A: Similarities in proteins and genes
Choose the option which correctly fills the blank.
among diverse organisms indicates common
(1) Restriction endonuclease
ancestry.
(2) DNA ligase
Statement B: Humans and chimpanzees also
show biochemical similarities. (3) Alkaline phosphatase
(4) DNA polymerase
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
169. Choose the correct option to complete the
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
analogy.
Saw fish : Gill slits are present : : _____: Gill slits
(4) Only statement B is correct are absent
165. How many options given in the box are not true (1) Dog fish (2) Devil fish
for Darwinian theory of evolution? (3) Sting ray (4) Angel fish
Directional variations, Saltation, Minor 170. Choose the correct match.
variations, Inheritance of ‘factors’, Heritable (1) Balanoglossus – Stomochord
variations, Reproductive fitness (2) Cucumaria – Water canal system
(1) Four (2) Two (3) Chaetopleura – Chitinous exoskeleton
(3) Three (4) Five (4) Octopus – Dorsal hollow nerve cord
(16)
171. Match items in column-I with those in column-II 174. How many statements given below are correct?
and choose the correct option. (i) Relaxin is secreted by the ovary in the later
Column-I Column-II phase of pregnancy.
(ii) Inner cell mass differentiates into ectoderm
a. Annelids (i) Triploblastic
and endoderm just before implantation.
acoelomate
(iii) Implantation leads to pregnancy.
b. Platyhelminths (ii) Ciliated comb
(iv) Embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called
plates
morula.
c. Aschelminths (iii) Metamerism
(1) 2
d. Ctenophores (iv) Pseudocoelomates (2) 1
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (3) 4
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) 3
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) 175. Identify the label given in the diagram whose
function is to reduce friction on the lung surface
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
and if this is not present, then there will be
172. When two parents participate in the reproductive damage to the membranes which finally would
process and also involve A of B , it is affect breathing.
called sexual reproduction.
Choose the option which fills the blanks A and B
correctly.
A B
(1) Isolation Male and female gametes
(2) Fusion Male gametes
(3) Gametogenesis Only female gametes
(4) Fusion Male and female gametes

Select the correct option.
173. Assertion (A): During pregnancy the level of
several hormones like estrogens, progestogens, (1) B (2) A
cortisol, prolactin, thyroxine, etc are increased (3) C (4) D
several folds in the maternal blood. 176. How many of the following are indicators of
improved reproductive health of society?
Reason (R): Increased production of these
hormones is essential for supporting the foetal (a) More couples with larger families
growth, metabolic changes in mother and (b) Better detection and cure of STIs
maintenance of pregnancy. (c) Better post-natal care
In light of above statements, choose the correct (d) Increased number of medically assisted
answer from options given below. deliveries
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (e) Increased IMR
correct explanation of (A) Choose the correct option from the following.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (1) One
correct explanation of (A) (2) Three
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) Four
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true (4) Five
(17)
177. Rashmi had a sexual encounter with an unknown 181. Match column I with column II and select the
partner, without any protection. correct option.
In a few days she develops itching, fluid Column I Column II
discharge and swelling in the genital region. a. Phosphate and (i) Peptide bond
In spite of the discomfort she does not go to the hydroxyl group of
sugar in a nucleotide
doctor. What is the most probable reason for this
and what kind of complications can this infection b. Polymer of amino (ii) Glycosidic bond
lead to? acids
Choose the appropriate option. c. Polysaccharides (iii) Hydrogen bond

d. Adenine and thymine (iv) Ester bond
(1) Afraid of social stigma; ectopic pregnancies,
in a DNA
still birth or infertility
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(2) Afraid of social stigma; malaria, filariasis or
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
chikungunya
182. Read the statements A and B carefully and select
(3) Unafraid of social stigma; syphilis, gonorrhea the correct answer.
or genital herpes
Statement A: Enzyme-substrate complex
(4) Unafraid of social stigma; abortions, produced during a catalysed reaction is highly
ascariasis, or taeniasis reactive.
178. At present, about ______ recombinant Statement B: This complex dissociates into its
therapeutics have been approved for human-use product and changed enzyme with an
intermediate formation of enzyme-product
worldwide, and ______ of these are presently
complex.
being marketed in India.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
Choose the option that respectively fills the
blanks correctly.
(1) 12, 30 (2) 32, 14 (4) Only statement A is incorrect
(3) 27, 22 (4) 30, 12 183. Applying the general rule of thumb, calculate the
179. The optic nerve leaves the eye at a particular increase in rate of reaction if the temperature
point. rises from 20°C to 60°C.
Select the correct option.
Read the following about this point.
(1) 2 times (2) 4 times
(a) Abundant photoreceptor cells present
(3) 8 times (4) 16 times
(b) Point is slightly above the posterior pole of
184. The active form of protozoa causing amoebic
the eyeball dysentery feeds upon
(c) Macula lutea is present lateral to this point. (1) Erythrocytes only
(d) It is medial to the posterior pole of the eye (2) Mucosa and submucosa of duodenum
ball. (3) Erythrocytes, mucosa and submucosa of
Choose the option which has all the correct ones colon
from above. (4) Mucosa and submucosa of colon only
(1) a, b only (2) b, c only 185. Select the event that is responsible for the chills
and high fever recurring every three to four days
(3) a, c, d only (4) b, c, d only in a person suffering with Plasmodium infection.
180. How many hormones given in the box are (1) Entry of sporozoites in the RBCs of human
produced by pars distalis? host through mosquito bite
(2) Multiplication of sporozoites within
FSH, TSH, Birth hormone, ACTH,
hepatocytes
ADH, MSH
(3) Rupture of RBCs to release haemozoin in
(1) Two (2) Three blood
(3) Four (4) Six (4) Development of gametocytes
(18)
SECTION-B (1) Six (2) Four

186. Select the correct statement from the following. (3) Five (4) Three
(1) Kidneys are reddish brown, round-shaped 189. Assertion (A): If BamHI cuts a 12 kb linear
structures situated between the levels of last dsDNA fragment at two restriction sites which are
thoracic and third lumbar vertebra. at the same distance from the ends and each
(2) Kidneys are close to the dorsal inner wall of other, then only one band is obtained on agarose
the abdominal cavity. gel electrophoresis.
Reason (R): Three equal sized fragments will be
(3) Each kidney of an adult human measures
obtained on restriction digestion by BamHI.
0.5 - 0.7 m in width, 0.2 – 0.3 m in thickness
In the light of above statements, choose the
with an average weight of 120 – 150 g.
correct answer from the following options.
(4) Towards the centre of the inner convex
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
surface of the kidney is a notch called hilum
correct explanation of (A)
through which the ureter, blood vessels and
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
nerves pass.
correct explanation of (A)
187. Match column I with column II and select the
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
correct option.
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
Column I Column II 190. If initially two identical dsDNA fragments are
a. (i) Implant taken for in-vitro amplification, then how many
copies of DNA will be obtained after 5 cycles of
PCR?
(1) 32 (2) 64
b. (ii) Copper T
(3) 10 (4) 16
191. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct
option.
Vertebrate brains : Divergent evolution
: : Eyes of the Octopus and of mammals
c. (iii) Condom for male : ________
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Homologous organs
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Parallel evolution
d. (iv) Female condom
192. Select the incorrect match from the given
options.
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(1) Periplaneta – Head, thorax and abdomen
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(2) Pila – Head, muscular foot and visceral hump
188. How many of the stated functions are performed
(3) Rana – Head, neck and trunk
by conducting part of human respiratory system?
(4) Saccoglossus – Proboscis, collar and trunk
(a) Clearing the incoming air by trapping dust
particles present in it. 193. Read the following statements A and B and
choose the correct answer.
(b) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
Statement A: The most unique mammalian
atmospheric air.
characteristic is the presence of milk producing
(c) Conducting air from external nostrils upto mammary glands.
bronchioles.
Statement B: Mammals have one pair of limbs,
(d) Bringing the temperature of air upto the body adapted for walking, running, climbing, burrowing
temperature. swimming or flying.
(e) Making the incoming air humid by providing (1) Both statements A and B are correct
moisture produced by epithelium of nasal (2) Only statement A is incorrect
cavities.
(f) Transporting the atmospheric air to the alveoli.
(4) Only statement B is incorrect
(19)
194. Match column-I with column-II and choose the 197. Parts A and B make up the CNS.
correct answer. Select the option that correctly identifies A and B.
Column-I Column-II A B
a. Breasts in lactating (i) Presence or (1) Brain Spinal cord
mothers absence is not a
(2) Brain Somatic neural system
reliable indicator of
virginity (3) Spinal cord PNS
b. Colostrum (ii) Cushion of fatty (4) Visceral nervous Cerebrum
tissue covered by system
skin and pubic hairs 198. Match the disorders in column I with their correct
c. Mons pubis (iii) Contains several causes in column II.
antibodies absolutely Column I Column II
essential for
newborns a. Diabetes insipidus (i) Hyperthyroidism
d. Hymen (iv) 15-20 mammary b. Graves’ disease (ii) Deficiency of

vasopressin
lobes each
c. Addison’s disease (iii) Hyposecretion of
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
hormones of
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) adrenal medulla
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(iv) Hyposecretion of
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) corticoids
195. The correct route through which action potential Select the correct option.
travels in heart is
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv)
(1) SAN → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of His →
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
AV node → Heart muscle
199. Read the statements given below carefully
(2) SAN → AVN → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of regarding competitive inhibition.
His → Heart muscle (a) The inhibitor closely resembles the enzyme in
(3) AVN → Bundle of His → SAN → Purkinje its molecular structure.
fibres → Heart muscle (b) Inhibitor competes with the substrate for
(4) SAN → AVN → Bundle of His → Purkinje substrate binding site of the enzyme.
fibres → Heart muscle (c) It leads to decline in activity of the enzyme.
196. Read the following statements carefully. (d) Malonate inhibition by succinic
dehydrogenase is example of the same.
Statement A: Increased agricultural yields have
been partly due to the use of better management How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
practices and use of agrochemicals, but mainly
due to the use of improved crop varieties. (1) One (2) Two
Statement B: GMOs increased reliance on (3) Three (4) Four
chemical pesticides by producing pesticide 200. How many of the diseases given below in the box
resistant crops. are the result of autoimmunity?
(1) Both statements A and B are correct Rheumatoid arthritis, Vitiligo, Psoriasis,
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect Myasthenia gravis, Hay fever
(3) Statement A is correct, B is incorrect (1) Two (2) Three
(4) Statement A is incorrect, B is correct (3) Four (4) Five
❑ ❑ ❑
(20)
CODE-A

MM : 720 Test-6 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.
Answers
1. (2) 41. (4) 81. (3) 121. (4) 161. (2)
2. (2) 42. (3) 82. (4) 122. (2) 162. (1)
3. (3) 43. (2) 83. (3) 123. (3) 163. (1)
4. (3) 44. (3) 84. (2) 124. (2) 164. (1)
5. (1) 45. (4) 85. (2) 125. (1) 165. (2)
6. (4) 46. (3) 86. (1) 126. (4) 166. (3)
7. (2) 47. (1) 87. (2) 127. (2) 167. (4)
8. (2) 48. (1) 88. (4) 128. (2) 168. (2)
9. (2) 49. (3) 89. (3) 129. (2) 169. (2)
10. (2) 50. (2) 90. (3) 130. (1) 170. (1)
11. (1) 51. (2) 91. (3) 131. (4) 171. (2)
12. (2) 52. (4) 92. (2) 132. (3) 172. (4)
13. (2) 53. (4) 93. (2) 133. (2) 173. (2)
14. (4) 54. (3) 94. (4) 134. (4) 174. (4)
15. (2) 55. (3) 95. (2) 135. (3) 175. (2)
16. (2) 56. (2) 96. (3) 136. (3) 176. (2)
17. (3) 57. (3) 97. (2) 137. (2) 177. (1)
18. (4) 58. (3) 98. (3) 138. (2) 178. (4)
19. (2) 59. (3) 99. (3) 139. (4) 179. (4)
20. (2) 60. (2) 100. (2) 140. (2) 180. (2)
21. (1) 61. (1) 101. (4) 141. (3) 181. (3)
22. (4) 62. (2) 102. (1) 142. (4) 182. (3)
23. (4) 63. (1) 103. (4) 143. (1) 183. (4)
24. (3) 64. (4) 104. (4) 144. (1) 184. (3)
25. (2) 65. (2) 105. (1) 145. (4) 185. (3)
26. (3) 66. (2) 106. (2) 146. (3) 186. (2)
27. (4) 67. (4) 107. (3) 147. (4) 187. (2)
28. (3) 68. (1) 108. (4) 148. (2) 188. (3)
29. (1) 69. (3) 109. (2) 149. (3) 189. (2)
30. (1) 70. (3) 110. (1) 150. (1) 190. (2)
31. (4) 71. (4) 111. (4) 151. (4) 191. (3)
32. (2) 72. (2) 112. (3) 152. (3) 192. (3)
33. (2) 73. (1) 113. (1) 153. (3) 193. (4)
34. (3) 74. (3) 114. (3) 154. (1) 194. (4)
35. (4) 75. (2) 115. (3) 155. (1) 195. (4)
36. (2) 76. (1) 116. (4) 156. (2) 196. (2)
37. (3) 77. (3) 117. (2) 157. (4) 197. (1)
38. (1) 78. (3) 118. (3) 158. (3) 198. (3)
39. (2) 79. (1) 119. (3) 159. (3) 199. (2)
40. (1) 80. (1) 120. (2) 160. (3) 200. (3)
(1)
CST-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
CODE-A

MM : 720 Test-6 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.
Hints and Solutions
PHYSICS
SECTION-A V 18
So, resistance of the voltmeter R = =
1. Answer (2) i  1 18 
 2 − 50 
dv  
a= = 4 − 2v
dt 18
R=
 50 − 36 
At t = 0, v = 0  100 
 
a = 4 – 2(0) = 4 m/s2
1800
R=
2. Answer (2) 14
Work done = TA 900
R= 
7
= T(4r2)
5. Answer (1)
W 4r 2
 1 2   6 3   15 
=
W ' 4 ( 2r )2  +   +   
r r2   1 2   2 
= 1 = =
W  = 4W  1 1  1 1 3
+
 +   1 2 
 r1 r2    2
3. Answer (3)
=5V
6. Answer (4)
Gravitational force provides centripetal
acceleration:
GMm mv 2
4. Answer (3)  =
(R + h ) 2
(R + h )
Using Kirchhoff's loop law
(Symbols have their usual meaning)
30 – 24i – 18 = 0
GM
24i = 12  v=
R+h
1 7. Answer (2)
i= A
2 Range is same for complementary angles
V 18  1 + 2 = 90°
Now current in 50  resistor is = = A
R 50  sin1 = cos2
(2)
Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
8. Answer (2) 13. Answer (2)

Wave equation travelling along x-axis is • In a charge free region, electric field lines are
function of (t – Kx) continuous curves
• Concept of field was first introduced by
1 1
 has dimensional formula of K and has Faraday.
a b
14. Answer (4)
dimensional formula of 
KQ
 [a] = [L] Electric field at outside point E =
r2
[b] = [T]
Er 2 3  103  100  10−4
9. Answer (2)  Q= =
K 9  109
Comparing given equation with standard
1
format of wave equation, we get =  10 −8
3
 = 60 rad/s and K = 2 m–1
= 0.333 × 10–8 C

Wave velocity = = 30 m s−1 = 3.33 × 10–9 C
K
= 3.33 nC
T 15. Answer (2)
Wave velocity =
 Work done = Area under the force-displacement
curve
T
30 = 1 1
1.5  10 −4 =  5  10 + 5  10 + (10 + 20 )  5
2 2
 T = 1.5 × 10–4 × 900 = 0.135 N
= 25 + 50 + 75
10. Answer (2) = 150 J
 → minimum  E → maximum i.e. from 16. Answer (2)
n =  to n = 1 The maxima of the decreasing intensity are
2 observed in diffraction.
hc Z
 = 13.6 2 17. Answer (3)
 n
An electromagnetic wave is generated only by
 2 accelerating charges.
1 He+
Z  9
   =  Li  = 18. Answer (4)
2  Z  4
Z ++
Li  He  The latent heat of a body depends upon pressure,
11. Answer (1) nature of phase change as well as properties of
1
substance.
R = R0 A 3 19. Answer (2)
 R  1 4r 2  T1 − T2 
ln   = ln( A) For steady state K eq.
R l
 0  3
K1  r 2  (T1 − T2 ) K 2  3r 2 (T1 − T2 )
Above equation represents a straight line = +
X l l
similar to Y =
3 K1 + 3K 2
 Keq =
12. Answer (2) 4
The particle will move along a circle and will come 20. Answer (2)
back to initial point after one time period. hc
Eg 

2m 2  3.14  8  10−6
T = =
qB 80  10−6  20  10−3  
hc
Eg
= 31.4 s
(3)
 12400  27. Answer (4)

  Å
 2.4  Pressure of the gas
   5166 Å
 (v rms )
1 2
P=
21. Answer (1) 3
Transistor amplifier utilises negative feedback and 1
 9  10−2  ( 400 ) = 4800 N/m2
2
transistor oscillator utilises positive feedback. P=
3
22. Answer (4)
28. Answer (3)
  i2 
Since force F =  0  L 1 = 60° and 2 = 45°
 2d 
  cot2  = cot2 1 + cot2 2,  is true angle of dip
Fd = MLT  L  = MLT −2 A −2  cot2  = cot2 60° + cot2 45

2
0  =
i2  L   A 2  L     1
    cot 2  =   + 1
3
23. Answer (4)
10.04 + 0.00230 = 10.04230 4
cot  =
Upto correct decimal place the result is reported 3
as 10.04. Hence the number of significant figures  3
3
 tan  =   = tan−1 
is 4.
4  4 
24. Answer (3)  
r = 1.2 m, m = 0.2 kg 29. Answer (1)
mv 2 I = 4 cos t + 2 sin t
T =
r 42 + 22
IRMS = = 10 A
0.2  v 2
2
150 =
1.2 30. Answer (1)
150  1.2 For a uniform sheet, Mass  Area
 v2 = = 900
0.2
16 ( 2, 2 ) − 4 ( 3, 1)
v = 30 m/s  rcom =
16 − 4
25. Answer (2)
5 7
l0 = 2r, l = 2R, l = 2R – 2r = 2(R – r) = , 
3 3
F l
=Y  2 2
a l0 5  7 
Shift =  3 − 2 +  3 − 3
2 ( R − r ) Ya  ( R − r )    
l
 F = Ya  = Ya  =
l0 2r r 2
= m
 2  3
 F = 2  1011  4  10−6   
 60  31. Answer (4)
= 2.67 × 104 N For a rolling body the point of contact is at rest
26. Answer (3) relative with the surface.
Q1 = 15 × 103 cal T1 = 427 + 273 = 700 K 32. Answer (2)
W=? T2 = 27 + 273 = 300 K − bt
A = A0e 2m for damped oscillator
W T 300 400
Efficiency = = 1− 2 = 1− =
Q1 T1 700 700 At time T
− bT
400 A0
W = 15  103  = 8.57  103 cal = A0e 2m
700 4
(4)
− bT 37. Answer (3)
1
 e 2m = Let charge on capacitor B = q
4
q q
At time t + =5
3 4
− bt 7q
A0 =5
= A0e 2m 12
64
60
− bt q= C
1 7
 e 2m =
64 38. Answer (1)
6.5
− bt  −bT 
3 I=
 6  18 
 e 2m =  e 2m  2+ 
   6 + 18 
 
6.5 13
t = 3T I= = =1A
6  18 13
2+
33. Answer (2) 24
−d 39. Answer (2)
EMF induced = 
dt B hc 12400
Work function  = − eV0 = − 1.87
 3750
At t = 3, slope of B versus t graph is 4.
= 1.44 eV
34. Answer (3) For 600 nm photons
hc 12400
V = −= − 1.44
 6000
V  = 0.627 V
40. Answer (1)
Component parallel to B(v II ) = v cos30
= 3 m/s
Component of velocity perpendicular to
B(v ⊥ ) = v sin30 = 1 m/s
Line joining object to Image is perpendicular to the
 Pitch = vII × Time period
mirror.
2m  2m 
= v II   T = 
35. Answer (4) qB  qB 
A convex lens bends the light ray towards its
3  2  1
principal axis. Hence, given combination will not =
22
bend the rays falling on it.
3
= 
SECTION-B 2
Weight = Buoyancy force
4
3
( )
 R 3 − r 3 (1.5w g ) = R 3  w g
4
3
1.5 (R3 – r3) = R3
1.5R3 – 1.5r3 = R3
0.5R3 = 1.5r3
R3 = 3r3
Respective forces on sphere 1 due to sphere 2
R = (3)1/3 r and sphere 3 are as shown above
(5)
  0.1   0.2   0.4  

= 2    100 +    100 + 4    100
  10   20   80  
= (0.02 + 0.01 + 0.02) × 100
= 5%
45. Answer (4)
As depletion width of a p-n junction is given as
2
 GM 2   GM 2 
2
 GM 2 
2 20 (Vo + Vb )  1 1 
Fnet =   +  + 2 cos60 W =  + 
 4a   4a 
2 2  4a2  e  NA ND 
     
Where Vo is contact potential given by
GM 2
Fnet = 3 KT  NAND 
4a2 Vo = ln  
e  ni2 
42. Answer (3)
and Vb is biased voltage
l  3l  Hence depletion width depends on temperature,
Ui = −mg +  −3m  g   = −5mgl
2  2 biasing voltage, type of semiconductor and doping
concentration.
l  3l 
Uf = −3mg +  −m  g   = −3mgl 46. Answer (3)
2  2
1
W = PV (Cycle)
Now, change in potential energy 2 0 0
Heat supplied = QAB + QBC
U = Uf – Ui = 2mgl
3 5
43. Answer (2) Q= (P0V0 ) + (2P0V0 )
2 2
 P0V0 
 
=  2  =
Cyclic work 1
Efficiency  =
Heat supplied  13 P0V0  13
 
 2 
100
 Efficiency = %
13
47. Answer (1)
t t
Time taken by ray 1 to cross slab = = 2 F = ma
1v1 1v1
2 a = ax i + ay j
t d2x d 2y
Time taken by ray 2 to cover same distance = a= i+ j
v1 dt 2 dt 2
x = 5t2 – 3
So extra path or path difference
dx
= 10t
t     dt
=  2 − 1  v1 = t  2 − 1
v1  1   1  d2x
= 10 m/s2
44. Answer (3) dt 2
y = 3t3 + 5
a2b
Let Z = dy
c4 = 9t 2
dt
Z   a   b   c   d 2y
Then  100 = 2  +  + 4    100 = 18t
Z   a   b   c  dt 2
(6)
 a = 10i + 18t j = 10i + 36 j (t = 2 s) 49. Answer (3)

Velocity of COM will remain same if there is no
( )
F = ma = 3  10i + 36 j = 30i + 108 j external force acting on the system. Since initial
speed is given as zero.
F = ( 30 )2 + (108 )2 = 12564 = 112.08 N mm v m + mb v b
 =0
48. Answer (1) mm + mb
On substituting v m = v mb + v b
and v mb = 20i
VRMS = 200 V We get v b = −5i

n = 50 Hz 50. Answer (2)
XL = L = 2n × L = 2 ×  × 50 × 0.01 f
m= (Transverse magnification)
= f −u
R=1 =−
1
2
 Z = R 2 + X L2 = (1)2 + (  )2 Areal magnification = m2
Z = 1 + 9.86 = 10.86 = 3.3  
Area of image 1
=
Area of object 4
VRMS 200
IRMS = = = 60.6 A  Area of image = 0.25
Z 3.3
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A •
51. Answer (2) •
Interhalogens compounds are more reactive than
halogens (except fluorine) because X–X’ bond in
•
interhalogens is weaker than X–X bond in
halogens except F–F bond.
52. Answer (4) •
• NH4Cl(aq) + NaNO2(aq) ⎯⎯→
N2(g) + 2H2O(l) + NaCl(aq)
•

(NH4)2Cr2O7 ⎯⎯→ N2 + 4H2O + Cr2O3 •

• Ba(N3)2 ⎯⎯→ Ba + 3N2
54. Answer (3)
• NH2CONH2 + 2H2O ⎯⎯→
(NH4)2CO3 2NH3 + H2O+ CO2
53. Answer (4) •
• CH3CH2CH2CH2NH2
•
•
•
(7)

Correct order of boiling point is • Heavy water is used as moderator to slow
n-butane < ethoxyethane < pentanal < pentan-1-ol down the fast moving neutrons in nuclear
reactor
van der Weak dipole- Dipole- Hydrogen
dipole bonding • H2O2 is a valuable antiseptic which is sold
Waals Dipole forces
interaction under the name of perhydrol.
forces
64. Answer (4)
56. Answer (2)
• van-Arkel method is very useful for removing
Natural occurring polymer, rubber is cis-1, all the oxygen and nitrogen present in the
4- polyisoprene form of impurity in certain metals like Zr and
Ti
• Distillation method is very useful purification
for low boiling metals like Zn and Hg
• Zone refining method is very useful for
57. Answer (3) producing semiconductor and other metals of
Sucralose is a trichloro derivative of sucrose very high purity, eg. Ge, Si, etc.
58. Answer (3) • Cu is refined by electrolytic method.
E = h 65. Answer (2)
Energy of an electron
= (6.626 × 10–34) × (2 × 1014)
= 1.325 × 10–19 J
Energy of one mole of electrons
In this reaction S8 is oxidised as well as reduced
= 1.325 × 10–19 × 6.02 × 1023 J mol–1 so it is a disproportionation reaction.
= 79.8 kJ mol–1 66. Answer (2)
59. Answer (3) For 3D, AAA ---- type of lattice, co-ordination
Name according to IUPAC number is 6.
IUPAC nomenclature Official Name 67. Answer (4)
a. Unnilunium Mendelevium  l  1  l 
Specific conductance () = C ×   =   
b. Unniloctium Hassium A R A
 l 
c. Unnilpentium Dubniun  Cell constant   =  × R
A
d. Unnilseptium Bohrium
= 0.15 × 10–3 × 1500
60. Answer (2)
= 0.225 cm–1
All enzymes that utilise ATP in phosphate transfer
68. Answer (1)
require magnesium as the cofactor.
In NaCl crystal there in one Schottky defect per
61. Answer (1)
1016 ions.
69. Answer (3)
 2-centre-2-electron bonds = 4
 3-centre-2-electron bonds = 2
 Ratio  2 : 1
62. Answer (2)
Sodium chlorate is a herbicide.
(8)
70. Answer (3) • 2.24 L O2 at STP = 0.1 mol O2 = 0.2 NA atoms

In negative resonance effect the transfer of 16 1 4NA
• 16 g SO3 = mol = mol SO3 = atoms
electrons is towards the atom or substituted group 80 5 5
attached to the conjugated system. –NO2 attached
10 N
to benzene ring shows –R effect. • 10 g Ca = mol = A atoms
40 4
71. Answer (4)
80. Answer (1)
Solution of CH3OH and H2O, forms positive
deviation solution.
81. Answer (3)
Boiling point  i × m
72. Answer (2) Hence order of B.P.;
• Vitamin B12 deficiency causes pernicious 0.1 m Glucose < 0.2 m Urea < 0.15 m KCl < 0.1 m
anaemia AlCl3
• Vitamin B6 deficiency causes convulsions 82. Answer (4)
73. Answer (1)
W = – Pext (Vf – Vi )
= – 1 atm (20 – 10) L = – 10 L-atm
83. Answer (3)
 U = Q + W
Attacking reagent for Reimer-Tiemann reaction is
For isothermal process U = 0 dichlorocarbene : CCl2
So Q = – W = 10 L-atm 84. Answer (2)
74. Answer (3)
pH = H  PT
2 2
Secondary valency is equal to the co-ordination
number of metal. Here, it is six. 2 4
=  1 = = 0.8 atm
75. Answer (2) 2 + 0.5 5
Equilibrium constant for an endothermic reaction 85. Answer (2)
increases with increase in temperature while it
decreases with increase in temperature for
exothermic equilibrium.
76. Answer (1) SECTION-B
• is 2pz 86. Answer (1)

Amides on reduction with lithium aluminium
• *2pz hydride yield amines
77. Answer (3)

The process of settling of colloidal particles is
called coagulation or precipitation of the sol. 87. Answer (2)
78. Answer (3) For Lyman series of hydrogen atom, n1 = 1 and n2
0.693 = 2, 3 …. and the electronic transition occurs in
For first order reaction, t1/2 =
k ultraviolet region of electromagnetic spectrum.
1 The thermal stability of carbonates of group 2
• 1 g H2 = mol H2 = NA atoms
2 metals increases with increase of cationic size.
(9)

• Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e– Elements present in their standard states have
• MnO −4 + 8H+ + 5e → Mn2+ + 4H2O zero enthalpy of formation: Standard state of Br2
is liquid so enthalpy of formation of Br2(g) is non-
meq. of KMnO4 = meq. of FeSO4 zero.
Mole × 5 = 1 × 1 95. Answer (2)
1 K[Co(en)Cl2Br2]
 nKMnO =
4 5
90. Answer (3)
Go3 = G1o + Go2
–2  Eo  F = −1 Eo  F − 1 Eo F
Cu2 + /Cu Cu2 + /Cu+ Cu+ /Cu
0.15 + 0.52 0.67 96. Answer (3)

EoCu2+ /Cu = = 0.33 V
2 2 2N2O5(g) → 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
91. Answer (3)
1  −[N2O5 ]  [O2 ]
Rate =  =
2 t  t
1-Bromo-4-methyl-2-nitrobenzene
[O2 ] x
Therefore =
t 2
• Lowest locant rule is applied 97. Answer (2)
92. Answer (2) Accumulation of molecular species at surface
Reaction follows Anti-Markovnikov’s addition rather than bulk is known as adsorption.
98. Answer (3)
In SO24− , two  bonds are equally delocalised on
93. Answer (2) four sigma bonds, therefore bond order of S–O
4+2 6 3
bond is = =
4 4 2
99. Answer (3)
H2PO 2− cannot donate H+ but can accept H+,
therefore, act as bronsted base only.
Electron withdrawing group present at para 100. Answer (2)
position increases electrophilicity of carbonyl
8a
carbon and accordingly increases rate of TC =
27Rb
hydrolysis.
BOTANY
SECTION-A 103. Answer (4)
101. Answer (4) During anaphase, chromatids begin their
Mineral ions are remobilised from older, migration towards the two opposite poles.
senescing parts to young part.
104. Answer (4)
102. Answer (1)
Chromosomes start pairing together and form a
Nitrogenase enzyme is capable of nitrogen
reduction and it is present exclusively in complex structure called synaptonemal complex
prokaryotes. during zygotene stage of prophase I.
(10)
105. Answer (1) 117. Answer (2)

Chlorella is unicellular alga and is rich in protein. Water donates electron to PS-II in non-cyclic
It is used as source of food supplements. photophosphorylation through oxygen evolving
106. Answer (2) complex.
The gymnosperms are heterosporous as they 118. Answer (3)

produce microspores and megaspores. A nucleotide has three components - a
nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar (ribose in case
107. Answer (3)
of RNA, and deoxyribose for DNA), and a
Oxygen helps in release of metabolic energy phosphate.
essential for growth activities. Water, oxygen and
119. Answer (3)
nutrients are very essential for growth.
Variations at the genetic level is called
108. Answer (4) polymorphism. It arises due to mutations.
During asexual reproduction, individuals produced 120. Answer (2)
are exact copies of each other as well as their
Amino acids are activated in first phase of
parent..
translation.
109. Answer (2)
121. Answer (4)
The nucleus of functional megaspores divide
Presence of large amounts of nutrients in water
mitotically to form 2 nucleate embryo sac. Two
causes algal bloom which increases BOD and
more sequential mitotic nuclear divisions will form reduces DO of water body.
8-nucleate stage.
122. Answer (2)
Therefore, three mitotic nuclear division are
Species-area relationship on log-log scale is
required.
expressed as:
110. Answer (1)
Log S = Log C + Z log A
Wine and beer are beverages produced without
S = species richness, A = Area
distillation of fermented broth.
Z = Regression coefficient, C = Y-intercept.
111. Answer (4)
123. Answer (3)
Both mango and wheat share the same division
Rhizopus species can be saprophyte or parasite.
that is Angiospermae.
124. Answer (2)
112. Answer (3)
Neurospora asexually reproduce by conidia (non
Museum contains preserved animal and plant
motile spores).
specimens. So it is helpful in identifying both
125. Answer (1)
animals and plants.
Agaricus has edible basidiocarp.
113. Answer (1)
126. Answer (4)
Acetyl CoA is 2C compound. It is common
intermediate. Fatty acid and carbohydrates form Recombination frequency is directly proportional
Acetyl CoA and proteins first form pyruvic acid to the distance between genes.
then Acetyl CoA. Genes A and B have high recombination
frequency so they will be distantly situated.
114. Answer (3)
127. Answer (2)
Pusa Gaurav is a variety of mustard.
Person suffering with Klinefelter’s syndrome have
Pusa Sem 2 and Sem 3 are of flat bean varities.
chromosome complement 44 + XXY.
Pusa Sawani is variety of Okra.
128. Answer (2)
115. Answer (3)
To have colourblind daughter, the father should be
Stenothermal are organisms which are restricted colourblind and mother should be either carrier or
to a narrow range of temperature. colourblind.
116. Answer (4) 129. Answer (2)
Expression for GPP is GPP – R = NPP. Stilt roots are supporting roots in plants such as
NPP is net primary productivity. maize. They arise from the lower nodes of stem.
(11)
130. Answer (1) 140. Answer (2)

The labelled structure is petiole of a leaf. In The effluent from the secondary treatment, that is
Australia Acacia, petioles expands, becomes called secondary effluent is generally released
green and synthesises food. into natural water body like river and streams.
131. Answer (4) 141. Answer (3)
The end-walls in sieve tube elements are Pyramid of biomass is inverted in aquatic
perforated in a sieve-like manner to form the sieve ecosystem as biomass of primary producer is less
plates. These elements are responsible for than that of primary consumer.
translocation of food material in plants.
142. Answer (4)
132. Answer (3)
In general, plants and herbivores are more
At some places, cambium in dicot stem forms a adversely affected than carnivores in competition.
narrow band of parenchyma passes through the
143. Answer (1)
secondary xylem and phloem in radial direction.
These are secondary medullary rays. In sickle cell anemia, a point mutation in which a
133. Answer (2) change of single base pair in the gene for beta -
globin chain will results in the substitution of
Plasmids are circular double stranded DNA
glutamic acid by valine.
outside the genomic DNA.
144. Answer (1)
134. Answer (4)
The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992,
The endomembrane system includes
endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, lysosome called upon all nations to take appropriate
and vacuole. measures for conservation of biodiversity and
sustainable utilisation of its benefits.
Functions of these organelles are coordinated.
Peroxisome is not included in endomembrane 145. Answer (4)
system. Silt and clay are suspended solids present as
135. Answer (3) impurities in waste water.
Kinetochores are disc shapes structures present 146. Answer (3)

on the sides of the centromere. Sporozoans lack locomotary structures.
SECTION-B 147. Answer (4)
136. Answer (3) Sickle cell anaemia and phenylketonuria are
Ectocarpus and kelp show haplo-diplontic pattern autosomal recessive disorders. Myotonic
of life cycle. dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disorder.
137. Answer (2) 148. Answer (2)
Facilitated transports are highly selective and very In brinjal, China rose and mustard flowers are
specific. hypogynous, whereas in guava, flowers are
138. Answer (2) epigynous.
Kinetin (cytokinin), is an adenine derivative plant 149. Answer (3)
growth regulator. In dicot plants, cork cambium and interfascicular
139. Answer (4) cambium arise during secondary growth.
The body of ovule fuses with funicle in the region Therefore, these are secondary in origin.
called hilum. 150. Answer (1)
Female gametophyte is also called embryo sac. Phospholipids are the major lipids in cell
Filiform apparatus plays an important role in membrane. These phospholipids are arranged in
guiding the pollen tube into synergids. a bilayer.
(12)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 158. Answer (3)
151. Answer (4) Eosinophils → 2-3%
Formation of sperms by male germ cells is called Monocytes → 6-8%
spermatogenesis. Only certain spermatogonia Basophils → 0.5-1%
called primary spermatocytes periodically
Neutrophils → 60-65%
undergo meiosis to form secondary
spermatocytes which are haploid. 159. Answer (3)
In fishes (Scoliodon), the heart pumps out
152. Answer (3)
deoxygenated blood which is oxygenated by the
Many bony fishes, aquatic amphibians and gills and supplied to the body parts from where
aquatic insects are ammonotelic in nature. deoxygenated blood is returned to the heart.
Ammonia, as it is readily soluble, is generally
Frog (amphibian), – Incomplete double
excreted by diffusion across body surfaces or circulation
Calotes (reptile)
through gill surfaces (in fish) as ammonium ions.
Kidneys do not play any significant role in its Aptenodytes (bird) – Complete double
removal. circulation
153. Answer (3) 160. Answer (3)

Muscle is a specialised tissue of mesodermal To obtain a standard ECG, 3 electrodes are
origin. The mesoderm gives rise to blood vessels, attached one to each wrist and to the left ankle to
continuously monitor the heart activity.
bone, cartilage, joints, connective tissue,
endocrine glands, heart muscle, uterus, fallopian 161. Answer (2)
tubes etc. Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate
154. Answer (1) with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of
adjoining cells.
About 40-50 percent of body weight of a human
162. Answer (1)
adult is contributed by muscles.
In female cockroaches, the 7th sternum is boat
155. Answer (1)
shaped and together with the 8th and 9th sterna
Poultry typically includes chicken and ducks and form a brood or genital pouch.
sometimes, turkey and geese. The word ‘poultry' 163. Answer (1)
is often used to refer to the meat of only these
Seed ferns are common ancestors of cycads and
birds, but in a more general sense it may refer to
angiosperms. Zosterophyllum is a genus of
the meat of other birds too. vascular land plants. Lycopods are the
156. Answer (2) tracheophytes which originated from
The bile duct and pancreatic duct open together Zosterophyllum genus. Psilophyton is a genus of
into the duodenum as the common hepato- extinct vascular land plants of Devonian period
and is thought to be a part of the group from which
pancreatic duct (A). It is guarded by a sphincter
modern ferns and seed plants evolved.
called the sphincter of Oddi.
164. Answer (1)
157. Answer (4)
Similarity in banding pattern of chromosome
Abnormal frequency of bowel movement and
numbers 3 and 6 of man and chimpanzee
increased liquidity of the faecal discharge is indicates their common origin.
known as diarrhoea. It reduces the absorption of
165. Answer (2)
food.
Mendel had talked of inheritable ‘factors’
In jaundice, liver is affected. Vomiting is the influencing phenotype. Saltation is single step
ejection of stomach contents through the mouth. large mutation. Hugo de Vries believed mutation
Indigestion is a condition in which food is not caused speciation and not the minor variations
properly digested, leading to a feeling of fullness. that Darwin talked about.
(13)
166. Answer (3) 174. Answer (4)

Biosynthetic stage is part of upstream processing. Statement (2) is incorrect because immediately
Downstream processing includes separation and after implantation, inner cell mass differentiates
purification of the desired product. into an outer ectoderm and inner endoderm.
167. Answer (4) Mesoderm is formed later in between ectoderm
Salmonella – Used in creating first rDNA and endoderm.
typhimurium 175. Answer (2)
Bacillus – Gene used in creating Each lung is enclosed by two membranes known
thuringiensis biopesticide as pleura or pleural membranes. In between these
Agrobacterium – Used in developing two membranes, a narrow space is present known
tumefaciens transgenic tobacco as pleural cavity. This pleural cavity is filled with a
fluid secreted by pleural membranes known as
Escherichia – Source of EcoRI
pleural fluid. It lubricates the pleural membranes
coli
so that they may slide over each other without
168. Answer (2) friction during breathing.
DNA ligase acts on cut DNA molecules and joins
B – Bronchiole
their ends. Restriction endonucleases cut DNA.
Alkaline phosphatase removes phosphate from 5’ C – Pleural membranes
end of vector DNA to prevent its self ligation. DNA D – Alveoli
polymerase adds nucleotides to 3’ OH end of 176. Answer (2)
growing DNA strand.
Better awareness about sex related matters,
169. Answer (2)
increased number of medically assisted deliveries
Gill slits are absent in non-chordates. Dog fish,
and better post-natal care leading to decreased
sting ray and angel fish are chordates and devil
maternal and infant mortality rates, increased
fish (Octopus) is a non-chordate.
number of couples with small families, better
170. Answer (1)
detection and cure of STIs and overall increased
Balanoglossus – Stomochord
medical facilities for all sex-related problems, etc.
Cucumaria – Water vascular system all indicate improved reproductive health of the
Chaetopleura – Calcareous exoskeleton society.
Octopus – Ventral, solid and double nerve cord 177. Answer (1)
171. Answer (2) Ignoring STIs and not getting the proper treatment
Annelids – Metamerism can lead to complications like PID, abortions, still
Platyhelminths – Triploblastic acoelomate births, ectopic pregnancies, infertility or even
Aschelminths – Pseudocoelomates cancer of the reproductive tract.
Ctenophores – Ciliated comb plates 178. Answer (4)
172. Answer (4) 30 recombinant therapeutics have been approved
When two parents participate in the reproductive for human-use the world over.
process and also involve fusion of male and
In India, 12 of these are presently being marketed.
female gametes, it is called sexual reproduction.
179. Answer (4)
173. Answer (2)
The optic nerves leave the eye at a point medial
During pregnancy, several hormones increase in
maternal blood for proper foetal growth, metabolic to and slightly above the posterior pole of the eye
changes in mother and maintenance of ball.
pregnancy. Photoreceptor cells are not present in this region.
(14)
180. Answer (2) 187. Answer (2)

GH, PRL, TSH, ACTH, LH and FSH are the a. Condom for male
hormones which are produced by pars distalis.
181. Answer (3)
Phosphate and hydroxyl – Ester bond b. Implants

group of sugar
Polymer of amino acids – Peptide bond
Polysaccharides – Glycosidic bond
Adenine and thymine – Hydrogen c. Copper T

bonds
182. Answer (3)

Enzyme-substrate complex dissociates into its
product(s) and the unchanged enzyme with an
d. Female condom
intermediate formation of enzyme-product
complex. 188. Answer (3)
183. Answer (4) The conducting part consists of external nostrils,
A general rule of thumb is that rate of chemical nasal chamber, internal nares, nasopharynx,
reaction doubles or decreases by half for every larynx, trachea, bronchi and bronchioles. The
10°C change in either direction. So, for 40°C rise conducting part transports the atmospheric air to
in temperature, the rate of reaction increases by the alveoli, clears it from foreign particles,
humidifies and also brings the air to body
(2)4 = 16 times.
temperature. Exchange part is the actual site of
184. Answer (3) diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
Active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon atmospheric air.
erythrocytes, mucosa and submucosa of colon. 189. Answer (2)
185. Answer (3) In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments
The rupture of RBCs is associated with release of separate on the basis of size. Equal sized
a toxic substance i.e., haemozoin which is fragments will stack at the same distance from
cathode.
responsible for the chills and high fever recurring
every 3-4 days. 190. Answer (2)
Number of dsDNA copies obtained after n cycles
SECTION-B
of PCR = 2n.
186. Answer (2)
 After 5 cycles, 25 copies i.e. 32 copies will be
• Kidneys are reddish-brown, bean-shaped obtained from one dsDNA fragment.
structures situated between the levels of last
So, from two dsDNA fragments → 2 × 25 = 2 × 32
thoracic and third lumbar vertebra.
= 64 copies will be obtained.
• Each kidney of an adult human measures 191. Answer (3)
5–7 cm in width, 2–3 cm in thickness with an Eyes of the Octopus and of mammals is an
average weight of 120–170 g. example of analogous organs and they are the
• Towards the centre of the inner concave result of convergent evolution.
surface of the kidney is a notch called hilum 192. Answer (3)
through which the ureter, blood vessels and The body of frog (Rana) is divided into head and
nerves pass. trunk only. Neck is absent in amphibians.
(15)
193. Answer (4) Route through which action potential travels in

heart : SAN → AVN → Bundle of His → Purkinje
Mammals have two pairs of limbs, adapted for
fibres → Heart muscle.
walking, running, climbing, burrowing, swimming
196. Answer (2)
or flying.
Increased yields have partly been due to the use
194. Answer (4) of improved crop varieties, but mainly due to the
Breast – Glandular tissue divided into use of better management practices and use of
agrochemicals.
15-20 mammary lobes
GMOs reduced reliance on chemical pesticides by
Colostrum – Contains several antibodies producing pest-resistant crops.
Mons pubis – Cushion of fatty tissue covered by 197. Answer (1)
skin and hair The CNS includes the brain and the spinal cord.
198. Answer (3)
Hymen – Is not a reliable indicator of
Addison’s disease is due to the underproduction
virginity
of hormones of the adrenal cortex.
195. Answer (4) 199. Answer (2)
The inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its
molecular structure
Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
is an example of competitive inhibition.
200. Answer (3)
Autoimmune disease is a condition in which
body’s immune system mistakes its own healthy
tissues as foreign and attacks them.
Rheumatoid arthritis, vitiligo, psoriasis and
myasthenia gravis are autoimmune disorders.
❑ ❑ ❑
(16)

Aakash Intensive CST - 6

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

You might also like

Aakash Intensive CST - 6

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Aakash Intensive CST - 6

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & XII

2. If W is the work done in forming a bubble of (3)

4. The voltmeter shown in figure reads 18 V across 9. A transverse wave described as

900 240 (2) 9 : 4

27. The density of a gas is 9 × 10–2 kg/m3

(4) tan−1 ( 5) (1) 5 V (2) 4 V

(1) (0, –5)

SECTION-B 40. A particle having charge of 2 C, mass of 1 kg and

43. A slab of thickness t and refractive index 2 is (1) 12.5%

(1) NH4Cl (aq) + NaNO2 (aq) ⎯⎯→ a. Unnilunium (i) Dubnium

64. Match the elements in column-I with their method

a. Titanium (i) Zone refining

b. Zinc (ii) Electrolytic (2)

c. Germanium (iii) van Arkel Method

d. Copper (iv) Distillation

d. Vitamin B6 (iv) Cheilosis (1) 0.1 m Glucose (2) 0.2 m Urea

100. Critical temperature of a gas can be expressed

(2) Storage organs (2) Water provides medium for enzymatic

(1) T F (3) Rhizopus

(4) Nodes of underground stem (1) Telomeres

(1) Two d. Escherichia coli (iv) Gene used in

(1) Isolation Male and female gametes

(2) Fusion Male gametes

(3) Gametogenesis Only female gametes

(4) Fusion Male and female gametes

Choose the appropriate option. c. Polysaccharides (iii) Hydrogen bond

SECTION-B (1) Six (2) Four

d. Hymen (iv) 15-20 mammary b. Graves’ disease (ii) Deficiency of

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

Hints and Solutions

8. Answer (2) 13. Answer (2)

 12400  27. Answer (4)

Fd = MLT  L  = MLT −2 A −2  cot2  = cot2 60° + cot2 45

r = 1.2 m, m = 0.2 kg 29. Answer (1)

  0.1   0.2   0.4  

 a = 10i + 18t j = 10i + 36 j (t = 2 s) 49. Answer (3)

VRMS = 200 V We get v b = −5i

55. Answer (3) 63. Answer (1)

70. Answer (3) • 2.24 L O2 at STP = 0.1 mol O2 = 0.2 NA atoms

• is 2pz 86. Answer (1)

77. Answer (3)

89. Answer (3) 94. Answer (4)

0.15 + 0.52 0.67 96. Answer (3)

105. Answer (1) 117. Answer (2)

The gymnosperms are heterosporous as they 118. Answer (3)

130. Answer (1) 140. Answer (2)

Kinetochores are disc shapes structures present 146. Answer (3)

153. Answer (3) 160. Answer (3)

166. Answer (3) 174. Answer (4)

180. Answer (2) 187. Answer (2)

Phosphate and hydroxyl – Ester bond b. Implants

Polymer of amino acids – Peptide bond