Aakash Intensive CST - 5

CODE-A
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456
INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test - 5 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.
Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & XII

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.
PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
SECTION - A A
sin ( kr − t )
A
(1) (2) sin ( kr − t )
1. A projectile is fired from level ground at an angle r r
45° above the horizontal. The elevation  of the A
highest point on trajectory of particle as seen (3) Arsin(kr – t) (4) sin ( kr − t )
r2
from the point of projection is
4. An electron in a hydrogen atom makes transition
−1 
1
(1) tan   (2) 45° from shell N to shell M. The ratio of initial to final
4
value of magnitudes of centripetal acceleration of
 1 electron is
(3) tan−1   (4) tan–1(2)
2 (1) 81 : 256 (2) 16 : 9
2. A transverse wave is described by the equation (3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 3
  x 
Y = A sin 2  ft −   . The maximum particle 5. 90% of radioactive sample is left undecayed after
    time t has passed. What percent of initial sample
velocity is equal to four times wave velocity if will decay in a total time 2t?
A A (1) 20% (2) 19%
(1)  = (2)  =
4 2 (3) 40% (4) 38%
(3)  = A (4)  = 2A 6. A charged particle moves in a magnetic field
3. A wave travels uniformly in all directions from a B = 10i with an initial velocity u = 5i + 4 j . The
point source in an isotropic medium. The
path of particle will be
displacement of the medium at any point at
distance r from the source may be represented (1) Straight line (2) Circle
by (A is constant representing strength of source) (3) Helical (4) Parabola
(1)
CST-5 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
7. Value of escape velocity from the moon is (mass 13. Find equivalent capacitance between A and B.
of the moon = 7.4 × 1022 kg and radius of the
moon = 1740 km).
(1) 1.2 km/s (2) 2.4 km/s
(3) 3.9 km/s (4) 3 km/s
8. Which of the following option is incorrect?
(1) Electric field lines can’t cross the conducting
surface
(2) Denser field lines represent strong electric
field strength 4
(1) 5 F (2) F
(3) Electric field lines due to an infinite long 5
uniformly charged thin wire are concentric
circular curve 5
(3) F (4) 2 F
(4) Electric flux associated with any closed 4
surface, having no charge inside it, in uniform 14. Which of the following has the maximum
electric field is zero resistance?
9. Two charges +4q and –9q are placed at
(1) Voltmeter (2) Millivoltmeter
separation ‘r’ as shown in the figure.
(3) Ammeter (4) Milliammeter
15. The ammeter shown in figure consists of a 580 
Net electric field due to these charges will be coil connected in parallel to 20  shunt. Find the
zero
reading of the ammeter.
(1) At a distance 2r from –9q
(2) At a distance r from +4q
(3) At a distance 3r from +4q
(4) At a distance 3r from –9q
10. A small block of mass m is moving under
the effect of a force which is given by (1) 1.25 A (2) 0.34 A
( )
F = 3 x j + 3yi N . (3) 0.68 A (4) 0.5 A
If this force displaces the block from point A(2 m, 16. In a new system of units, mass is measured in
3 m) to another point B(1 m, 4 m), then work multiple of x kg, length in multiple of y m and time
done by the force will be in multiple of z seconds. The value of 10 watt in
(1) 30 J (2) –6 J this new system of unit is
(3) –12 J (4) Can’t be calculated
10z 2 10z
11. The velocity of an object moving rectilinearly is (1) 2
(2)
xy xy
given as a function of time by v = 4 – 3t, where v
is in m/s and t is in s. The average velocity of
10z3 10y 2
particle between t = 0 to t = 2 s is (3) (4)
xy 2 xz 2
(1) 1 m/s (2) 2 m/s
(3) 3 m/s (4) 4 m/s 17. The separation between a point source of light
12. At critical temperature, the surface tension of and screen is increased by 0.5%. The intensity of
liquid light on the screen will
(1) Is zero (1) Increase by 1%
(2) Is infinity (2) Decrease by 1%
(3) Is same as that it has at any other
(3) Increase by 0.5%
temperature
(4) Depends on the nature of liquid (4) Decrease by 0.5%
(2)
Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-5 (Code-A)
18. Following truth table is for 24. Four particles of masses m, m, 2m and 2m are
placed at the four corners of a square of side a
Inputs Output
as shown in figure. The (x, y) coordinates of the
A B Y centre of mass of system are
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
(1) NOR gate

(2) NAND gate
a  a 
(3) Ex-NOR gate (1)  , 2a  (2)  , a 
2  2 
(4) Ex-OR gate
 a 2a   3a a 
19. In the figure given, voltage of point B is (3)  ,  (4)  , 
2 3   8 2
25. A solid uniform disc of mass m rolls down without
slipping on an inclined plane with acceleration a.
The frictional force acting on the disc due to
(1) 0 V (2) –3 V surface of the plane is
(3) –2.3 V (4) –2.7 V 3ma
(1) 2ma (2)
20. The size of aperture opening to work with the 2
laws of ray optics using a monochromatic light of ma
(3) ma (4)
wavelength 550 nm to a distance of around 20 m 2
should be
3
(1) 3.316 mm (2) 4.612 mm 26. Refractive index of a medium is . For a light
2
(3) 5.312 mm (4) 6.235 mm ray incident on this medium the incidence angle
21. Which of the following is among the Maxwell’s is twice that of refracting angle. The angle of
equations of electromagnetism? incidence is
−d B −1  3  −1  3 
(1)  B  ds = 0 (2)  E  dl = dt
(1) cos  
4
(2) sin  
4
(3)  E  dl = 0 (4) Both (1) and (2) −1  3 
(3) 2cos  
−1  3 
(4) sin  
4 2
22. An ideal blackbody is one which is
(1) Black in colour (2) Perfect absorber 27. An object is kept at a distance of 40 cm in front of
a concave mirror. For getting a magnification of
(3) Ideal transmitter (4) Poor emitter
1
23. A slab of stone of area 0.48 m2 and thickness − , focal length of the concave mirror required
3
0.1 m is exposed on the lower surface to steam is
at 100°C. A block of ice at 0°C rests on the upper
(1) –20 cm (2) –10 cm
surface of the slab. In one hour, 5 kg of ice is
melted. The thermal conductivity of stone is (3) +20 cm (4) –15 cm
(Given latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.36 × 10 5 28. A straight conductor of length 6 m placed along
J/kg–1) z-axis starts moving along positive x-axis with
(1) 0.972 J/(m s °C) 5 m/s in a magnetic field B = ( 0.2iˆ + 0.1jˆ ) T . The
(2) 1.24 J/(m s °C) emf induced across the conductor is
(3) 5.02 J/(m s °C) (1) 6 V (2) 3 V
(4) 2.05 J/(m s °C) (3) 1 V (4) 5 V
(3)
29. A satellite of mass m is revolving at a height R Column-I Column-II

above the surface of earth. Here R is radius of
I = I0 sin t
(P) Only inductor
the earth. The gravitational potential energy of (A)
circuit
this satellite is
I = −I0 cos t (Q) May be CR
−mgR (B)
(1) –mgR (2) circuit
2
  (R) May be L-R
−mgR −mgR (C) I = I0 sin  t +  circuit
(3) (4)  4
3 7
30. A light string passing over a smooth pulley   (S) Only resistance
(D) I = I0 sin  t −  circuit
connects two blocks of masses m1 and m2 as  6
shown in the figure. If the magnitude of (1) A → S, B → Q, C → P, D → R
acceleration of either block is g/5, the ratio of the
(2) A → P, B → S, C → R, D → Q
masses m1 to m2 is
(3) A → S, B → P, C → Q, D → R
(4) A → S, B → P, C → R, D → Q
34. Hydrogen gas at STP in a container of volume
5 × 10–3 m3 is cooled by 100 K. What is the
amount of heat lost by the gas?
(1) 332 J (2) 457 J
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 252 J (4) 642 J
(3) 3 : 5 (4) 4 : 3
35. A magnetic needle performs 20 oscillations per
31. Poisson's ratio of a material is 0.5. If the force is
minute in a horizontal plane. If the angle of dip is
applied to a wire of this material, decrement in
30° then how many oscillations per minute will
cross-sectional area of the wire is 4%. The
this freely suspended needle perform in magnetic
percentage increase in its length is
meridian?
(1) 1% (2) 2%
(1) 16.5 (2) 19.5
(3) 2.5% (4) 4%
(3) 21.5 (4) 32.5
32. Choose the correct option regarding ideal gas.
SECTION-B
m
(1) In P = RT , m is mass of gas per unit
M 36. A body of mass 10 kg is moving with a uniform
volume speed of 6 m/s in x-y plane along the line
m 3y = 4x + 10. Magnitude of its angular
(2) In PV = RT , m is mass of one molecule of
M momentum about the origin in (kg m2/s) is
gas (1) Zero (2) 120
1 mN 2 (3) 80 (4) 30 2
(3) In P = V , m is total mass of gas
3 V rms
37. In a simple microscope, if the final image is
3kT located at infinity then its magnifying power is
(4) In Vrms = , m is total mass of the gas
m (Here symbols have their usual meaning)
33. Alternating voltage V = V0sint is applied to a D D +1
(1) (2)
circuit containing some elements in series. Match f f
the values of current in column-I with the possible f f
(3) (4)
elements connected in circuit in column-II. D +1 D
(4)
38. If the incident beam makes an angle  with the 41. Two identical masses each of mass 1.5 kg,
x-axis as shown in the figure, then the initially at rest, are at large distance apart. They
approach each other due to gravitational
y-coordinate of the central maxima is given by
interaction. The speed of each particle when they
are at distance 4 m apart is nearly
(1) 1.25 × 10–3 mm/s (2) 2.5 × 10–3 mm/s
(3) 5 × 10–3 mm/s (4) 7 × 10–3 mm/s
42. A particle having charge q enters a uniform
magnetic field of magnitude B (directed into the
plane of paper) and is deflected a distance X
after travelling a distance Y as shown. The
magnitude of linear momentum of particle is
(1) sin (2) D cos

(3) D tan (4) D cot
39. In an arrangement to amplify an audio signal, the
amplifier used has a voltage gain of Av. For an
input audio signal supply Vs, the output V0 will be
qBY qBY
(1) (2)
2 X
qB  Y 2  qBY 2
(3)  + X (4)
2  X  2X

43. A block of mass m is released from rest from the
top of a smooth path which ends into a vertical
(1)
1
(A V )
3 v s
(2)
1
(A V )
2 v s
circular path.
 RA 
(3) AvVs (4)  i v Vs
R +R
 i s 
40. Consider that force F acting on a body as
function of position (x) and time (t) is expressed
as F = A sin ( k1x ) + B cos ( k2t ) . From the given
Force applied by the surface of path on block
information, match the column I with column II. when it reaches the point ‘B’ will be
(1) 7mg (2) 5mg
Column I Column II
(3) 3mg (4) 9mg
(A) Dimensions of A (P) [M0L0T–1] 44. Consider the following statements regarding
photoelectric effect and choose the correct
(B) Dimensions of k1 (Q) [M0L–1T–1]
option.
(C) Dimensions of k2 (R) [MLT–2] (A) Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave
nature of light.
(D) Dimensions of k1k2 (S) [M0L–1T0]
(B) The number of photoelectrons emitted is
(1) A → R, B → S, C → P, D → Q proportional to the frequency of incident light.
(1) Only (A) is correct
(2) A → P, B → Q, C → R, D → S
(2) Only (B) is correct
(3) A → R, B → P, C → Q, D → S (3) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(4) A → S, B → P, C → Q, D → R (4) Neither (A) nor (B) is correct
(5)
45. A ball of relative density 0.6 falls into water from (C) Equivalent (R) R
a height of 1 m above water surface. The depth resistance between
to which the ball will move inside water is ‘b’ and ‘d’
(neglect viscous forces)
(1) A → P, B → Q, C → R
(1) 2.5 m (2) 1.5 m
(3) 4.5 m (4) 5.0 m (2) A → Q, B → P, C → R
46. A part of the circuit is shown in figure. All the (3) A → R, B → P, C → Q

capacitors have capacitance of 2 F. Then (4) A → R, B → Q, C → P
48. Following figure shows a uniform thick rope of
length 60 cm having mass of 3 kg. The strings
shown in figure are pulled by constant forces 6 N
and 24 N. The force exerted by 40 cm part of the
rope on 20 cm part will be (all surfaces are
smooth and string, pulleys are light)
(1) Charge on capacitor C1 is zero

(4) Charge on all the capacitors C1, C2, C3 is non
zero
(1) 6 N (2) 12 N
47. In the figure shown, each resistor has resistance
(3) 18 N (4) 21 N
R. Match the column I and column II.
49. Two moles of a diatomic gas (ideal) is taken
through process PT = constant. Its temperature
is increased from T to 2T. What is work done by
the system?
(1) 2RT (2) 3RT
(3) 4RT (4) 8RT
50. A non ideal coil, a capacitor and an ac source of
rms voltage 24 V are connected in series. By
varying frequency of the source, a maximum rms
Column-I Column-II current of 6 A is observed. If coil is connected to
(A) Equivalent (P) a D.C battery of emf 12 V and internal resistance
R
resistance between 2 , the current in it in steady state will be
2
‘a’ and ‘b’ (1) 1 A
(2) 1.5 A
(B) Equivalent (Q) 5R
resistance between 8 (3) 2 A
‘a’ and ‘c’ (4) 2.4 A
CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 52. Molarity of glucose solution with 18 gL–1 strength
will be
51. Which of the following has maximum mass?
(1) 1 M (2) 0.1 M
(1) 0.1 gram molecule oxygen
(3) 0.01 M (4) 10 M
(2) 10 ml H2O at STP
53. Which of the following is a colligative property?
(3) 3.01 × 1022 molecules H2SO4 (1) Osmotic pressure (2) Vapour pressure
(4) 1 gram atom hydrogen (3) Boiling point (4) Freezing point
(6)
54. Vinyl chloride is 61. Strongest acid among the following is

(1) CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl
(1) (2) CH3CH2OH

(2)
(3) CH2 = CH – Cl
(4) CH3 – Cl
(3) (4)
55. Which of the following can not be obtained by
Sandmeyer’s reaction?
62. Which of the following compounds does not react
with Hinsberg reagent?
(1) (2)
(1)
(2)
(3) (4)
56. Which of the following gases has maximum rate

of diffusion under similar conditions? (3)
(1) CO2 (2) NO2
(3) CH4 (4) O2
57. Which of the following ion will be colourless in
aqueous medium? (4)
(1) Sc3+ (2) V3+
(3) Cu2+ (4) Fe2+ 63. Addition polymer among the following is
58. Consider the following statements (1) Teflon (2) Terylene

(3) Nylon-6 (4) PHBV
I. Single N-N bond is weaker than the single
P-P bond. 64. Consider the following statements
II. Nitrogen cannot form d-p bond. I. Equanil is used in controlling depression and
hypertension.
III. Except nitrogen, all the elements of 15th
group show allotropy. II. Barbiturates are hypotonic.
Correct statement among the following is/are III. Veronal and Luminal are derivatives of
barbituric acid.
(1) I only (2) II only
The correct statement(s) among the following
(3) I and II only (4) I, II and III
is/are
59. Pyrosulphuric acid among the following is
(1) I only (2) III only
(1) H2S2O4 (2) H2S2O7
(3) I and II only (4) I, II and III
(3) H2S2O5 (4) H2SO3
65. The maximum number of electrons in third shell
60. Phenetole (ethoxybenzene) on reaction with HI of an atom can be
gives
(1) 8 (2) 9
(1) (3) 18 (4) 32
66. The correct order of increasing metallic character
(2) is given by
(1) P < Si < Be < Na
(3) (2) Na < Be < Si < P
(3) Be < Na < P < Si
(4) (4) Si < P < Na < Be
(7)
67. Which of the following nitrates does not release In the light of above statements choose the
NO2 upon heating? correct option among the following.
(1) LiNO3 (2) Be(NO3)2 (1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(3) Mg(NO3)2 (4) KNO3 incorrect
68. The total number of hydrogen bonds formed by (2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
each boric acid molecule is correct
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct
(3) 5 (4) 6 (4) Statement-I and statement-II both are
69. Which of the following solvent replaced incorrect
Cl2C = CCl2 for dry cleaning of clothes? 75. The formula of a solid compound formed by two
(1) CCl4 ( ) (2) CO2 ( ) elements A and B in which atoms of A form fcc
lattice and atoms of B occupy all the octahedral
(3) CH2 = O (g) (4) PAN (g)
voids and tetrahedral voids, is
70. Select the incorrect statement among the
(1) A2B3 (2) A2B
following.
(3) AB2 (4) AB3
(1) Dihydrogen is used as rocket fuel in space
research 76. Kjeldahl method for estimation of nitrogen is not
applicable to
(2) Dihydrogen is used in fuel cells for
generating electric energy (1) Aniline (2) Acetonitrile
(3) Atomic hydrogen and oxy-hydrogen torches (3) Pyridine (4) Benzamide
find use for cutting and welding purposes 77. Consider the following statements
(4) Protium (ordinary hydrogen) contains equal (a) Boiling point of 2-methylbutane is greater
number of protons and neutrons than n-pentane.
71. Purest form of iron is (b) Petrol and lower fractions of petroleum are
(1) Wrought iron (2) Cast iron used for dry cleaning of clothes to remove
(3) Pig iron (4) Steel grease stains.
72. The standard electrode potential (E) values of (c) Melting point of 2,2-Dimethylpropane is
Zn2+/Zn, Ni2+/Ni, K+/K and Ag+/Ag are –0.76 V, greater than pentane.
–0.25 V, –2.93 V and 0.80 V respectively. The The correct statement(s) is/are
correct decreasing order of reducing power of the (1) (b) only (2) (c) only
metals is (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(1) Ag > Ni > Zn > K
78. The pair of compounds which can be
(2) Ag > K > Zn > Ni distinguished by iodoform test is
(3) K > Zn > Ni > Ag
(4) Ni > Zn > K > Ag
73. Formula of a metal oxide with metal deficiency (1)
defect in its crystal is M0.95O. The crystal contains
M2+ and M3+ ions. The fraction of metal that exist
as M3+ ions in the crystal is
3 2 (2)
(1) (2)
38 19
11 5
(3) (4)
19 38
(3)
74. Statement-I: Specific conductance of a weak
electrolyte increases on dilution.
Statement-II: Molar conductance of a strong (4)
electrolyte on dilution marginally increases.
(8)
79. Incorrect statement among the following is SECTION-B

(1) Amylose and amylopectin are components of 86. 5 L of a gas is heated from 27°C to 227°C at
starch constant pressure, then final volume of the gas
(2) Amylose and amylopectin are insoluble in will be
water (1) 42.04 L (2) 10 L
(3) Chemically amylose is a long unbranched (3) 8.33 L (4) 14.38 L
chain with 200-1000 -D-(+) glucose units
87. The rearranged product obtained on electrolytic
(4) Amylopectin is branched chain polymer of reduction of nitrobenzene in strongly acidic
-D-glucose units medium is
80. Number of five membered ring present in
(1) Azoxybenzene (2) p-aminophenol
complex [Co(en)2Cl2]Br is
(3) Hydrazobenzene (4) Azobenzene
(1) 5 (2) Zero
88. Which of the following set of quantum numbers
(3) 1 (4) 2
is/are possible?
81. Which among the following has highest entropy
at 25°C? n l ml ms
(1) H2( ) (2) O2( ) 1
I. 4 2 –2 +
(3) O3( ) (4) CO2(g) 2
82. For which of the following rate law, overall order
1
of reaction is one? II. 2 1 1 −
2
3
(1) r = k[A] 2 [B]1 1
III. 3 1 2 +
3 2
(2) r = k[A] [B]−1
2
1
3 1 IV 1 0 0 −
(3) r = k[A] [B]
2 2 2
3
−
1 (1) I, II and III
(4) r = k[A] 2 [B] 2
(2) I, II and IV
83. Brownian movement does not depend upon
(3) II, III and IV
(1) Nature of colloid
(4) I, III and IV
(2) Size of colloidal particles
89. The correct order of melting point the following
(3) Viscosity of solution compounds is
(4) Temperature of solution
(1) NaI > NaBr > NaCl
84. Which of the following concentrations of A, B and
(2) NaCl > NaBr > NaI
C represents the equilibrium concentration for the
reaction A + 2B 2C , having Kc = 2 M–1? (3) NaBr > NaCl > NaI
(4) NaI > NaCl > NaBr
(1) [A] = 1 M [B] = 2 M [C] = 2 M
90. The oxidation states of Cr and S in CrO 5 and
(2) [A] = 2 M [B] = 2 M [C] = 1 M H2SO5 respectively are
(3) [A] = 1 M [B] = 2 M [C] = 1 M (1) +10 and +8 (2) +6 and +8
(4) [A] = 2 M [B] = 1 M [C] = 2 M (3) +6 and +6 (4) +6 and +4
85. Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in 91. The weight of zinc (atomic mass = 65.3 u)
(1) p-nitrophenol displaced by a quantity of electricity which
displaces 11200 ml of H2 at STP will be
(2) o-nitrophenol
(1) 65.3 g (2) 48.97 g
(3) Phenol
(4) Nitrobenzene (3) 32.65 g (4) 97.95 g
(9)
92. Correct order of stability of the given free radicals 96. The heat of combustion of carbon (graphite) to
is CO2 is –393.5 kJ mol–1. The heat release upon
• • • formation of 15.84 g of CO2 from carbon
( CH3 )3 C PhCH2 CH2 = CH − CH2 (graphite) and oxygen gas is
(i) (ii) (iii) (1) 212.49 kJ (2) 141.66 kJ

(3) 21.25 kJ (4) 42.5 kJ
(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii)
97. Which of the following graph is correct for zero
(2) (iii) > (i) > (ii)
order reaction A → B?
(3) (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(4) (i) > (iii) > (ii)
93. Consider the following reactions sequence (1) (2)
(3) (4)
Product B is
(1) n-propyl benzene
98. Which of the following converts alcohol into petrol
(2) Isopropyl benzene
directly?
(3) 1-ethyl-2-methylbenzene
(1) Ni
(4) 4-ethyl-2-methylbenzene
(2) NaAlO2
94. Consider the following reaction sequence
(3) ZSM–5
(4) Platinised asbestos
99. Extent of forward reaction for the equilibrium
Major product B is
2H2(g) + CO(g) CH3OH(g) can be increased
(1) (2) by
(1) Adding CH3OH
(2) Removing H2
(3) Increasing pressure
(3) (4)
(4) Increasing volume
95. Electronic configuration of iron in [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 is 100. In which of the following molecules, numbers of
(1) t 32g e2g (2) t 52g e0g sigma and pi bonds are not equal?
(1) HCN (2) CO2
(3) t 22g e3g 4
(4) t 2g e1g (3) SO3 (4) C2H4
BOTANY
SECTION - A 102. Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t.
structure of double stranded DNA?
101. In PS-II, reaction centre has an absorption (1) Cytosine pairs with guanine through two
maxima at H-bond
(1) 680 nm (2) Adenine is linked with ribose sugar by N-
glycosidic linkage
(2) 700 nm
(3) The two strands run in parallel fashion
(3) 540 nm (4) It is consist of only two different pyrimidines
(4) 440 nm in it
(10)
103. Select the incorrect match from the following 108. Select the incorrect match.
(1) DNA ligase – Opens DNA (1) Boron – Pollen germination
helix during
(2) Iron – Activates catalase
replication
enzyme
(2)  – Initiation factor
(3) Nitrogen – Water-splitting reaction
involved in
in photosynthesis
transcription
(4) Zinc – Synthesis of auxin
(3)  – Termination
factor involved in 109. Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles
transcription and their identity is lost as discrete elements
during
(4) DNA dependent – Involved in
(1) Telophase (2) Anaphase
RNA polymerase primer formation
during (3) Cytokinesis (4) Metaphase
replication 110. The homologous chromosome separate, while
sister chromatids remain associated at their
104. Which of the given genes w.r.t. lac operon codes
centromere during
for transacetylase?
(1) Anaphase II (2) Metaphase II
(1) Lac i (2) Lac z
(3) Anaphase I (4) Prophase I
(3) Lac a (4) Lac y
111. Which among the following have colonial forms?
105. Read the given statements stating them true (T)
(1) Chlamydomonas (2) Ulothrix
or false (F) and select the correct option.
(3) Spirogyra (4) Volvox
(A) Parthenium is an exotic species which came
as a contaminant with imported wheat in 112. Distinct compact structures called strobili is/are
India. found in
(B) Tropical environments unlike temperate (a) Selaginella (b) Equisetum
ones, are less seasonal, relatively more (c) Funaria (d) Porphyra
constant and predictable. (1) Only (c) and (d) (2) Only (a)
(C) Tropical environments support a little range (3) Only (a) and (b) (4) Only (b)
of species. 113. Which among the following is pre-fertilisation
(1) A–T, B–T, C–F (2) A–T, B–T, C–T event in sexual reproduction of an organism?
(3) A–F, B–F, C–F (4) A–F, B–F, C–T (1) Formation of zygote (2) Embryogenesis
106. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. ‘terror of (3) Pollination (4) Syngamy
Bengal’. 114. Match the following column I with column II and
(1) These are plants of water hyacinth select the correct option.
(2) These are most problematic aquatic weed Column I Column II
(3) They do not grow in eutrophic water bodies
A. Dedifferentiation i. Cork
(4) These were introduced by Europeans in India
B. Redifferentiation ii. Tracheary element
107. In an antiport
(1) The two types of molecules cross the C. Differentiation iii. Cork cambium
membrane in the same direction
A B C
(2) The two different molecules or substance
move in opposite directions (1) i iii ii
(3) Different molecules utilize ATP energy for (2) iii i ii
movement
(3) iii ii i
(4) A molecule move across a membrane
independent of other molecule (4) ii iii i
(11)
115. Read the following statements and state them 120. Select the incorrect match from the following.
True (T) or False (F).
(1) Alternate phyllotaxy – Mustard
A. The portion of embryonal axis above the
level of cotyledon is hypocotyl. (2) Palmately compound – Silk cotton
B. Castor is non-albuminous seed. leaves
C. Banana develop without fertilisation. (3) Whorled phyllotaxy – Calotropis
A B C (4) Pinnately compound leaf – Neem
(1) T F F 121. Identify the correct statements and choose the
(2) T F T option accordingly.
(3) F T T (a) In dicot roots, pericycle is completely
transformed into vascular cambium.
(4) F F T
(b) Lenticels regulate the transpiration rate in
116. woody trees.
(c) Bark in a tree does not include the vascular
cambium.
(d) Cork is impervious to water due to suberin
deposition in the cell wall.
Select the correct option for the given age
pyramid. (1) (a) and (d) only
(1) This is stable population (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) Pre reproductive individuals are equal to (3) (c) and (d) only
post- reproductive individuals (4) (b) and (c) only
(3) This pyramid is shown by developing or 122. Lower epidermis of leaf usually has more number
growing countries
of stomata as compared to upper epidermis in
(4) In this pyramid number of females will be
(1) Sunflower (2) Maize
more than males always
117. A bioactive molecule which is used as an (3) Grass (4) Wheat
immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant 123. The ribosomes which has larger sub-unit as 60S
patients is produced by are found in
(1) Monascus purpureus (1) Perinuclear space
(2) Trichoderma polysporum (2) Inside the rough endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Streptococcus
(3) Stroma and chloroplast
(4) Saccharomyces
(4) Cytosol of eukaryotes
118. The green plants of the ecosystem
124. The material enclosed by inner nuclear
(1) Occupy the first trophic level
membrane has
(2) Are called primary consumers
(a) DNA
(3) Use NPP for their respiration
(b) RNA
(4) Can occupy more than one trophic level
(c) Non-histone proteins
119. Which of the following is not considered to be the
main function of root system? (d) Histone proteins
(1) Providing anchorage to the plant parts The correct one(s) is/are
(2) Synthesizing hexose sugar from inorganic (1) (a), (b) and (d) only
materials
(2) (a) and (d) only
(3) Absorption of water and minerals from the
(3) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
soil
(4) (a) and (c) only
(4) Synthesizing plant growth regulators
(12)
125. The function of the membranous structures 132. Read the given features and identify the
‘chromatophore’ in cyanobacteria is similar to taxonomic aid.
that of ____________ in Euglena. (a) Used for identification of plants and animals
Select the correct option to fill in the blank. based on the similarities and dissimilarities.
(1) Nucleus (b) Are generally analytical in nature.
(2) Chloroplast (1) Flora (2) Monograph
(3) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (3) Taxonomic keys (4) Manual
(4) Vacuole 133. Taxonomy does not include
126. Carl Woese separated archaebacteria from (1) Classification (2) Nomenclature
eubacteria on the basis of major differences such (3) Phylogeny (4) Identification
as 134. One of the coenzymes for complex I is
(a) Occurrence of branched chain lipids in the (1) FAD (2) FMN
membrane. (3) UQ (4) Cyt c
(b) Absence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall 135. Read the following statements and select the
(c) Chemoautotrophic and heterotrophic mode of correct option.
nutrition A. Resistance of host plant to any disease is
Choose the correct one(s). determined by the genetic constitution of the
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) host plant.
(3) (a) and (c) (4) All (a), (b) and (c) B. Black rot of crucifers is a bacterial disease.
127. Specialised structures of cyanobacteria meant for (1) Only statement A is correct
nitrogen fixation is (2) Only statement B is correct
(1) Mesosome (2) Chromatophore (3) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Heterocyst (4) Plasmid (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
128. Select the wrong one for slime moulds. SECTION-B
(1) They have naked protoplast
136. Match the following and select the correct one.
(2) They produce thick walled spores
(3) They show phagotrophic mode of nutrition A. Lactobacillus i. Butyric acid
(4) Under favourable condition they produce B. Acetobacter ii. Citric acid
fruiting bodies
C. Clostridium iii. Lactic acid
129. Which of the following traits of pea was not taken
by Mendel for hybridization experiments? D. Aspergillus iv. Acetic acid
(1) Green seed (2) Violet flower

A B C D
(3) Green pod (4) Green leaf
(1) iii ii i iv
130. Mark the genotype that will produce maximum
number of gametes. (2) iii iv i ii
(1) AaBbCcDD (2) AaBBCcDD (3) iv ii iii i
(3) AABbCcDd (4) AaBbCcDd (4) iv i iii ii
131. A pleiotropic gene
137. During which phase of growth model, rate of
(1) Express many traits that spread across a growth is very slow?
gradient
(1) Lag phase and log phase
(2) Has more than two alleles (2) Log phase and stationary phase
(3) Controls different characters (3) Lag phase only
(4) Follows Mendel's law of dominance (4) Lag phase and stationary phase
(13)
138. Read the given statements and select the 143. Select the correct option for vegetative cell and
correct option. generative cell of pollen grains.
Statement A: Algal bloom in water bodies Vegetative Cell Generative Cell
causes deterioration of the water quality and fish
mortality. (1) Large cell with Spindle shaped
abundant food small cell
Statement B: The town people along with the
reserve
biologists of Humboldt state university created
polyblend. (2) Small cell with Large cell with
(1) Only statement A is correct circular nucleus irregular shaped
(2) Only statements B is correct nucleus
(3) Both statements are correct (3) Small cell which Large cell with small
(4) Both statements are incorrect floats in the nucleus
cytoplasm of
139. Which of the given is not true w.r.t. stability for a
generative cell
biological community?
(1) A stable community should show too much (4) Large spindle Small cell floats in
variation in productivity from year to year shaped cell with the cytoplasm of
circular nucleus vegetative cell
(2) It must be resistant to occasional natural
disturbances 144. Select the odd one out w.r.t. symmetry of flower.
(3) It must be resistant to occasional man-made (1) Tulip (2) Trifolium
disturbances (3) Allium (4) Petunia
(4) It must be resistant to invasions by alien 145. Which of the following features is not true for
species dicot stem?
140. Select the incorrect one(s) for heterochromatin. (1) Hypodermis, consists of collenchymatous cell
A. Darkly stained region (2) Cells of endodermis are rich in starch grains
B. Loosely packed chromatin (3) Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring
C. Transcriptionally it is active (4) Exarch arrangement of primary xylem
D. Densely packed chromatin 146. The cell organelle in which the components has
(1) A and C (2) B and D an organisation like the cartwheel
(3) B and C (4) A and D (1) Provides mechanical support to the plasma
141. Select the incorrect statement regarding membrane
embryo-sacs in angiosperms. (2) Involves in the synthesis of proteins
(1) They are highly reduced female (3) Forms basal body of cilia and flagella
gametophytes
(4) Has central tubules enclosed by central
(2) Each have three-celled egg apparatus sheath
(3) Each cell of an embryo-sac is diploid 147. The subviral agent discovered by T.O. Diener
(4) Its formation is preceded by meiosis (1) Has low molecular weight RNA
142. Which of the following statement is true for (2) Contains wrongly folded proteins
stomata?
(3) Is infectious to animals only
(1) The orientation of the microfibrils in the cell
(4) Has dsDNA and proteins
wall of the guard cell aids the opening of
stoma 148. Female Drosophila
(2) The inner wall of each guard cell is thin and (1) Are easily distinguishable from male by
rigid smaller body size
(3) They are bean-shaped in grasses (2) Have 4 pairs of chromosomes
(4) Cellulose microfibrils are oriented (3) Produces two types of gametes
longitudinally for easy opening of stoma (4) Have heteromorphic sex chromosomes
(14)
149. Decomposition of detritus is favoured by 150. Plants cannot be seen away from their predators.
(1) Anaerobiosis environment So, they produce certain chemicals to defend
themselves. All of the following are examples of
(2) Oxygen them, except.
(3) Lignin and chitin in detritus (1) Caffeine (2) Cardiac glycosides
(4) Low temperature (3) Strychnine (4) Cellulose
ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A 155. Match column I with column II w.r.t. diseases and
151. Arrange the following reproductive events in their symptoms or characteristics.
humans according to their occurrence. Column I Column II
(a) Gestation
a. Pneumonia (i) Constipation,
(b) Gametogenesis
abdominal pain, stools
(c) Insemination with excess mucous
(d) Fertilisation and blood clots
(e) Parturition
b. Amoebiasis (ii) Infection occurs in
(f) Implantation conducting part of
Select the option with correct sequence. human respiratory
(1) a → c → d → f → b → e system
(2) b → c → d → f → a → e c. Ascariasis (iii) Infection occurs in
(3) b → c → d → a → f → e gaseous exchange
(4) c → b → d → e → a → f part of human
respiratory system
152. Animal in which syngamy occurs inside the body
of the organism and they lay fertilised eggs d. Common (iv) Internal bleeding,
covered by hard calcareous shell cold fever, anaemia,
(1) Felis (2) Rana blockage of intestinal
(3) Corvus (4) Catla passage
153. Contraceptive method/device whose mode of Select the correct option.
action is similar to that of pills and their effective
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
period is much longer, does not
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(1) Inhibit ovulation
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(2) Alter the quality of cervical mucus
(3) Placed under skin (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(4) Reduce fertilising capacity of sperms 156. Embryo of Rohu and Alligator have a row of
154. A person had renal failure so his doctor advised vestigial gill slits just behind the head but it is a
him to undergo kidney transplantation. The functional organ only in Rohu and not found in
chances of rejection by the immune system of Alligator. This evidence for evolution was
the host is least when the kidney is taken from a proposed by
(1) Parent (1) Karl Ernst von Baer
(2) Friend (2) Ernst Haeckel
(3) Twin brother (3) Charles Darwin
(4) Cousin (4) Lamarck
(15)
157. Choose the incorrect match among the 163. All of the given statements are true w.r.t.
following. separation of DNA fragments by gel
Enzyme Site of Substrate electrophoresis except
action (1) The cutting of DNA by restriction
endonucleases result in the fragments of
(1) Nucleases Intestine Nucleic
DNA and these fragments can be separated
acids
by this technique
(2) Pepsin Stomach Dipeptides (2) The most commonly used matrix is agarose
(3) Salivary Mouth Starch which is a natural polymer extracted from sea
amylase weeds
(4) Sucrase Intestine Sucrose (3) The DNA fragments resolve according to
their size. Hence, larger the fragment size,
158. Choose the odd one w.r.t. mucosa layer of the farther it moves
alimentary canal.
(4) The separated DNA fragments can be
(1) Villi (2) Rugae
visualised only after staining the DNA with a
(3) Gastric glands (4) Brunner’s gland compound known as ethidium bromide
159. Partial pressure of O2 in systemic vein is 164. Complete the analogy and select the correct
(1) Equal to pCO2 in pulmonary artery option.
(2) More than pCO2 in oxygenated blood Glenoid cavity : Pectoral girdle :: __________:
(3) Equal to pCO2 in pulmonary vein Pelvic girdle
(4) Less than pCO2 in atmospheric air (1) Acromion process (2) Occipital condyle
160. In which of the given organisms an excretory (3) Acetabulum (4) Coracoid process
system is absent?
165. Which of the following set of bones are unpaired?
(1) Pila (2) Antedon
(1) Frontal, Parietal, Temporal
(3) Aplysia (4) Anopheles
(2) Nasal, Occipital, Mandible
161. Read the following statements and choose the
option that correctly states them as true (T) or (3) Ethmoid, Lacrimal, Palatine
false (F) w.r.t. human excretory system. (4) Sphenoid, Vomer, Frontal
(a) The cortex extends in between the medullary 166. Match column I with column II w.r.t human
pyramids as calyx. evolution and select the correct option.
(b) Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced in
Column I Column II
cortical nephrons.
(c) Kidney is situated between the levels of 12th a. Australopithecines (i) Probably ate
thoracic and 3rd lumbar vertebra close to the meat
dorsal inner wall of abdominal cavity.
b. Homo erectus (ii) Walked like
(a) (b) (c) gorillas
(1) F T T c. Neanderthal man (iii) Hunted with
(2) T F F stone weapons
but essentially
(3) F F T ate fruits
(4) F T F d. Ramapithecus (iv) Lived in near
162. How many of the organisms given in the box east and central
below exhibit metagenesis? Asia
Obelia, Hydra, Physalia, Aurelia, Gorgonia, (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
Meandrina, Pennatula, Adamsia (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(1) One (2) Three (3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) Two (4) Four (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(16)
167. Which of the following is not correct for axonal 171. A gland ‘X’ is present at the antero-superior
membrane, when a neuron is not conducting any region of ‘Y’. The cells of Y produce a peptide
impulse, i.e., resting? hormone called ‘Z’ which stimulates formation of
(1) Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions RBCs. Identify X, Y and Z and select the correct
option.
(2) Permeable to negatively charged proteins
present in axoplasm X Y Z
(3) Nearly impermeable to Na+ ions (1) Thymus Heart ANF
(4) Negatively charged on its inner surface (2) Parathyroid Thyroid TCT
168. Inner parts of cerebral hemispheres and a group (3) Adrenal Kidney Erythropoietin
of associated deep structures like amygdala, etc., (4) Neurohypo- Adenohypophysis TSH
form a complex structure which is concerned with physis
(a) Olfaction 172. Organism (a) differs from (b) in having
(b) Control of respiration
(c) Autonomic responses
(d) Expression of fear and rage
(e) Regulation of sexual behaviour
(f) Gastric secretions
Select the correct option.
(1) (a), (c), (d) and (e)
(2) (d) and (e) only
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (f)
(4) (b), (c), (d) and (f)
(1) Presence of one auricle and one ventricle
169. Select the incorrect statement among the
(2) External fertilisation
following.
(3) Separate sexes
(1) Palmitic acid has 16 carbons including
carboxyl carbon (4) Lack of capacity to regulate body
temperature
(2) Lipids are not polymers but they are
assembled from smaller molecules by 173. All the given options are functions of water
dehydration vascular system of echinoderms except
(3) Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms (1) Locomotion

including the carboxyl carbon (2) Respiration
(4) Lecithin is an example of phospholipid found (3) Reproduction
in neural tissues but absent in cell membrane (4) Capture and transport of food
170. Which of the following disease is associated with 174. Identify phyla A and B from the following set of
symptoms given below? features in box given below.
(a) Low plasma Na+ concentration
Features Phylum A Phylum B
(b) High plasma K+ concentration
a. Presence of 3 Absent Present
(c) Hypoglycemia
germ layers
(d) Increased urinary Na+
b. Hermaphroditism Present Present
(e) Fatigue
(1) Acromegaly c. Regeneration Present Present in
some
(2) Graves’ disease
members
(3) Addison’s disease
d. Digestive System Absent Incomplete
(4) Diabetes mellitus
(17)
Select the correct option. 180. Which of the following step immediately precedes
A B artificial insemination in MOET?
(1) Platyhelminthes Arthropoda (1) Superovulation in superior breed of surrogate
mother
(2) Porifera Platyhelminthes
(2) Non-surgical transfer of embryo at 8-32 cell
(3) Cnidaria Aschelminthes stage
(4) Ctenophora Annelida (3) Mating with an elite bull
175. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. the (4) Injection of FSH like hormone in genetic
epithelium found in the lining of small intestine? mother
(1) Composed of a single layer of tall and 181. EcoRI cuts the DNA between bases _______
slender cells and ______ only when the recognition sequence
(2) Nuclei are located at the base GAATTC is present in the DNA.
(3) Free surface may have microvilli Select the correct option to fill the blanks
respectively.
(4) Also lines bronchioles
(1) A and T (2) T and C
176. Resistance against infection induced by vaccines
is an example of what type of immunity? (3) G and A (4) A and C
(1) Natural active immunity 182. Read the following statements carefully.
(2) Artificial active immunity (i) PCR is used to detect mutations in genes in
suspected cancer patients.
(3) Natural passive immunity
(ii) A direct method to insert foreign gene into
(4) Artificial passive immunity plant cells is micro-injection.
177. Malpighian tubules in cockroach are present at (iii) The first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced
the junction of A and B and are human protein enriched milk, i.e., 5.4 grams
per litre.
C in number. Choose the option that
(iv) RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms
correctly fills the blanks. as a method of cellular defense.
(A) (B) (C) How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) Foregut Midgut 6-8 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
(2) Midgut Hindgut 100-150
183. How many cycles of PCR are required for
(3) Foregut Midgut 100-150 obtaining 256 molecules of dsDNA, if your
(4) Foregut Hindgut 6-8 starting material was one molecule of dsDNA?
(1) 4 (2) 9
178. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be prevented by
(3) 128 (4) 8
administering anti-Rh antibodies to
184. The ratio of maternal to foetal blood flowing
(1) Rh –ve mother post partum Rh +ve baby
through umbilical cord of a mammalian embryo is
(2) Rh +ve mother post partum Rh +ve baby
(1) 50 : 50 (2) 75 : 25
(3) Rh –ve mother post partum Rh –ve baby
(3) 0 : 100 (4) 100 : 0
(4) Rh +ve mother post partum Rh –ve baby
185. Select the option representing correct examples
179. If the enzyme commission number of an enzyme of analogous organs.
is 2.7.1.1 then it catalyse which of the following (a) Sweet potato and potato
reaction?
(b) Vertebrate hearts and brains
(1) AB + H2O  AH + BOH (c) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of
Cucurbita
(d) Eyes of the Octopus and of mammals
(2) (e) Flippers of penguin and dolphin
(3) S – G + S’ → S + S’ – G (1) (a), (d), (e) (2) (a), (b), (c)
(4) Alcohol + NAD → Aldehyde + NADH2 (3) (b), (c), (d) (4) (c), (d), (e)
(18)
SECTION-B 189. If a foreign gene of interest is inserted at SalI

recognition site of cloning vector pBR322, then
186. Assertion (A): The walls of ventricles are much
the transformants are selected by growing them
thicker than that of the atria.
on a medium containing
Reason (R): Ventricles pump blood to different (1) Tetracycline
organs and the pressure with which the blood
(2) Ampicillin
flows through them is much more than the
(3) Kanamycin
auricles.
(4) Both tetracycline and ampicillin
In the light of above statements, choose the
190. Identify the given molecule and select the
correct option.
incorrect option w.r.t. it.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (1) Its receptors are present principally in the
brain
187. Hormones which regulate gene expression or
chromosome function by the interaction of (2) It is taken by inhalation and oral ingestion
hormone-receptor complex with the genome (3) It is obtained from Papaver somniferum
excludes the hormone which (4) It affects cardiovascular system of the body
(1) Acts on CNS and influence male libido 191. Which of the following is true w.r.t. the most
variable phase of menstrual cycle w.r.t.
(2) Is secreted by stimulation from ACTH of
hormone?
pituitary and suppresses the immune
(1) Equal level of LH and FSH
response
(2) Level of estrogen and progesterone is almost
(3) Is secreted by gland located on either side of same
trachea and regulate BMR
(3) Level of LH is lower than FSH
(4) Is called emergency hormone (4) Level of estrogen is higher than progesterone
188. Match column I with column II and select the 192. How many of the following methods from the box
correct option. can be included under test tube baby
programme?
Column I Column II
ZIFT, IUT, AI, ICSI, GIFT, IUI
a. Patent on Basmati rice (i) 1983
by an American (1) Two (2) Three
company (3) Four (4) Five
b. First clinical gene (ii) 1997 193. Read the given statements and choose the
incorrect one.
therapy
(1) Oils generally have lower melting point than
c. Humulin by Eli Lilly Co. (iii) 1972 fats
d. Construction of first (iv) 1990 (2) Percentage of total cellular mass of
recombinant DNA carbohydrates is higher than that of nucleic
acids
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3) Relative abundance of carbon and hydrogen
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) with respect to other elements is higher in
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) any living organism than in earth’s crust
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) Abrin and ricin are toxins
(19)
194. B-DNA is the most common form of DNA having 198. Marine mollusc having white shell attached to
all the following salient features except white goose neck barnacles protect themselves
(1) The pitch would be 34 Å from predators. Mollusc having dark tan shell
(2) The strand turns 36° at each step of ascent attached to tan coloured rocks survive whereas
mollusc having intermediate shell colour fell prey
(3) The rise per base pair is 3.6 Å
to predator. The type of natural selection in
(4) One full turn of helical strand involves 10 above context is
base pairs
(1) Stabilising selection (2) Directional selection
195. Total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at
(3) Balancing selection (4) Disruptive selection
the end of a forced inspiration is
199. The set of hormones released by the functional
(1) VC + FRC
unit between developing embryo and mother are
(2) IC + ERV
(1) hCG, hPL, Oxytocin
(3) ERV + TV + IRV – EC
(2) Estrogen, Progesterone, FSH
(4) TV + IRV + FRC
(3) LH, hPL, Estrogen
196. Time duration between dub and lub under normal
physiological condition in an adult human is (4) hCG, hPL, progesterone
(1) 0.3 s (2) 0.5 s 200. Read the statements and select the correct
option.
(3) 0.4 s (4) 0.1 s
Statement-A: Inbreeding exposes harmful
197. Choose the incorrect match.
recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.
(1) Atherosclerosis – Lumen of arteries Statement-B: Hisardale is a new breed of sheep
become narrower developed in Punjab by interspecific
(2) Heart attack – Congestive heart hybridisation.
failure (1) Only statement A is correct
(3) Angina pectoris – Acute chest pain (2) Only statement B is correct
(4) Heart failure – Heart is not pumping (3) Both statements A and B are correct
blood effectively (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
❑ ❑ ❑
(20)
CODE-A
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MM : 720 Test-5 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.
Answers
1. (3) 41. (3) 81. (4) 121. (3) 161. (1)

2. (2) 42. (3) 82. (4) 122. (1) 162. (3)
3. (2) 43. (2) 83. (1) 123. (4) 163. (3)
4. (1) 44. (4) 84. (4) 124. (3) 164. (3)
5. (2) 45. (2) 85. (2) 125. (2) 165. (4)
6. (3) 46. (4) 86. (3) 126. (1) 166. (3)
7. (2) 47. (2) 87. (2) 127. (3) 167. (2)
8. (3) 48. (2) 88. (2) 128. (4) 168. (1)
9. (4) 49. (3) 89. (2) 129. (4) 169. (4)
10. (2) 50. (3) 90. (3) 130. (4) 170. (3)
11. (1) 51. (2) 91. (3) 131. (3) 171. (3)
12. (1) 52. (2) 92. (3) 132. (3) 172. (2)
13. (1) 53. (1) 93. (2) 133. (3) 173. (3)
14. (1) 54. (3) 94. (2) 134. (2) 174. (2)
15. (3) 55. (4) 95. (1) 135. (3) 175. (4)
16. (3) 56. (3) 96. (2) 136. (2) 176. (2)
17. (2) 57. (1) 97. (4) 137. (4) 177. (2)
18. (4) 58. (4) 98. (3) 138. (1) 178. (1)
19. (1) 59. (2) 99. (3) 139. (1) 179. (3)
20. (1) 60. (1) 100. (4) 140. (3) 180. (4)
21. (4) 61. (3) 101. (1) 141. (3) 181. (3)
22. (2) 62. (2) 102. (4) 142. (1) 182. (2)
23. (1) 63. (1) 103. (1) 143. (1) 183. (4)
24. (3) 64. (4) 104. (3) 144. (2) 184. (3)
25. (4) 65. (3) 105. (1) 145. (4) 185. (1)
26. (3) 66. (1) 106. (3) 146. (3) 186. (1)
27. (2) 67. (4) 107. (2) 147. (1) 187. (4)
28. (2) 68. (4) 108. (3) 148. (2) 188. (1)
29. (2) 69. (2) 109. (1) 149. (2) 189. (2)
30. (2) 70. (4) 110. (3) 150. (4) 190. (3)
31. (4) 71. (1) 111. (4) 151. (2) 191. (4)
32. (1) 72. (3) 112. (3) 152. (3) 192. (2)
33. (3) 73. (2) 113. (3) 153. (4) 193. (2)
34. (2) 74. (2) 114. (2) 154. (3) 194. (3)
35. (3) 75. (4) 115. (4) 155. (1) 195. (4)
36. (2) 76. (3) 116. (3) 156. (2) 196. (2)
37. (1) 77. (3) 117. (2) 157. (2) 197. (2)
38. (3) 78. (2) 118. (1) 158. (4) 198. (4)
39. (1) 79. (2) 119. (2) 159. (3) 199. (4)
40. (1) 80. (4) 120. (3) 160. (2) 200. (1)
CST-5 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
CODE-A
Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Test-5 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.
Hints and Solutions
PHYSICS
SECTION - A 4. Answer (1)
In shell N → ( ac ) 
1. Answer (3) 1
( rN )
N 2
In shell M → ( ac ) 
1
( rM )
M 2
( ac )N r 
2
= M 
 tan  =
Hmax ( ac )M r 
 N
R  rn 2
2
  (aC )N  rM 2  3 4 81
=  = =
(Symbols have their usual meaning)
(aC )M  rn   4  256
u 2 sin2 
= 5. Answer (2)
 u 2 sin 2 
2g  
 2g  N = N0 e −t (Symbols have usual meaning)
tan  tan ( 45 ) 1 At t = t, N =

90
= = = N
2 2 2 100 0
2. Answer (2) 90
 = e −t …(1)
Maximum particle velocity = A = A2f 100
Wave velocity = f  After time 2t
Given 2fA = 4f  2
 90 
A N = N0 e −(2t ) = N0   = 0.81N0
=  100 
2
3. Answer (2) N0 − 0.81N0
 % decay =  100 = 19%
Waves travel from a point source N0
1 6. Answer (3)
 Intensity  2
r Here, particle is projected at an angle  with the
1 1 direction of magnetic field. So, there exists a
(Amplitude)2  2  Amplitude 
r r component of velocity parallel to magnetic field
So option (2) is most suitable. that provides pitch to motion. Thus the trajectory
is helical.
(2)
Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-5 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
7. Answer (2) 12. Answer (1)

Escape velocity from the surface of a planet of At critical temperature, the surface tension of
mass M and radius R is liquid is zero.
2GM 13. Answer (1)
v=
R
2  6.67  10−11  7.4  1022

=
1740  103
= 2.4 km/s
8. Answer (3)
Electric field lines due to an infinite long uniformly
charged thin wire are radially outward or inward. Ceq = (1 + 2 + 2) F
9. Answer (4) = 5 F
Let, net electric field is zero at point P. So at point 14. Answer (1)
P Voltmeter has the maximum resistance.
E1 = E 2 15. Answer (3)
 580  20 
Req = 10 +   = 29.33 
 580 + 20 
K  4q K  9q
 = i=
20
= 0.68 A
x 2
( r + x )2 29.33
r +x 3 16. Answer (3)
 =
x 2 Since, [Power] = [ML2T–3]
 2r + 2x = 3x Now from n1u1 = n2u2
−3
 x = 2r M  L 
2
 T1 
10. Answer (2) n2 = 10  1   1   
 M2   L2   T2 
W =  F .dr
2 −3
 kg   m   s 
( )( )
= 10     
=  3 x j + 3yi  dxi + dy j + dzkˆ  x kg   y m   z s 
1 1  10z 3
( xdy + ydx )
(1,4)
= 3 = 10   2  z3  =
(2,3)
x y  xy 2
= 3  xy 2,3
1, 4
17. Answer (2)
1
= 3(4 – 6) = –6 J I
r2
11. Answer (1)
I  r 
v = 4 – 3t  100 = −  2  100 
I  r 
dx
= 4 − 3t I
dt  100 = −2  0.5 = −1%
x2 2
I
 x 1
dx =  (4 − 3t )dt
0 18. Answer (4)
2 Here output (Y) is high (1) if number of 1 (high) in
 3t 2  inputs is odd otherwise output is zero (low).
x2 − x1 =  4t −  =2
 2 0
Also Y = A  B = AB + AB
x The given truth table satisfy the equation of
Vavg = = 1 m/s
t Ex-OR gate.
(3)

The potential at p-side (–3 V) is lower than
potential at n-side (0 V), hence diode is reverse
biased and no current flows through 5  resistor.
 VB = VC = 0 V
20. Answer (1)
mg sin – f = ma
a2
ZF =  a2 = ZF   = 11000  10−9 = 11 10−6 Acceleration of body on inclined plane

g sin 
a=
11 K2
 a= = 3.316  10−3 m = 3.316 mm 1+
106 R2
g sin   K2 1
21. Answer (4) a=  for disc = 
1  R2 2 
1+
Maxwell equation   B  ds = 0 and 2
2g sin 
−d B  a=
 E  dl =dt
. So, these two equations are 2 3
3a
equations out of 4 equations of Maxwell.  g sin  =
2
22. Answer (2) 3ma
Now, − f = ma
A blackbody is one which is perfect absorber and 2
ideal emitter. ma
f =
2
23. Answer (1)
26. Answer (3)
According to the heat balance
sin i
T =
K  A  t = M  L sin r
x
sin i 3
100  =
 K  0.48   3600 = 5  3.36  105 i 2
0.1 sin
2
5  3.36  105  0.1 5  3.36  102 i i
 K= = 2 sin cos
3
48  36  10 2 48  36  2 2 =
i 2
K = 0.972 J/ms°C sin
2
24. Answer (3) i 3
 cos =
m1x1 + m2 x2 + m3 x3 + m4 x4 2 4
X cm =
m1 + m2 + m3 + m4 3
 i = 2cos−1  
4
m  0 + m  a + 2m  0 + 2m  a
= 27. Answer (2)
m + m + 2m + 2m
For a spherical mirror
3ma a
= = 1 1 1
6m 2 + =
v u f
m1y1 + m2 y 2 + m3 y 3 + m4 y 4 u u
y cm =  +1=
m1 + m2 + m3 + m4 v f
0 xm + 0  m + 2m  a + 2m  a u f −u
=  − =
6m v f
f
2a  m=
= f −u
3
(4)
1 f 32. Answer (1)

 − =
3 40 + f m m RT m
PV = RT  P=  = RT
 40 + f = –3f M V M M
 f = –10 cm  m = mass of gas per unit volume
28. Answer (2)
m m
(
 = v B l ) PV =
M
RT ,
M
=  , m = mass of the gas
= 5 × 0.1 × 6 = 3 V 1 mN 2
P= v , m = mass of one molecule
29. Answer (2) 3 V rms
GMm 3  kNAT kT kT
U=− v rms =
3RT
= = = ,
2R M M M m
GM mR NA
U=− 2
R 2
m = mass of one molecule
mgR
=− 33. Answer (3)
2
30. Answer (2) • In pure resistor circuit, voltage and current are
in phase.
In free body diagram
• In pure inductor circuit, current lags behind
applied ac voltage by 90°.
• In circuit containing CR, current leads voltage
by an angle 0 <  < 90°.
• In circuit containing LR, current lags voltage by
an angle 0 <  < 90°.
34. Answer (2)
m1g – T = m1a
T – m2g = m2a P = 105 N m–2, T = 273 K, V = 5 × 10–3 m3
Solving equations PV 105  5  10−3
n= = = 0.22 mol
( m1 − m2 )  g = a RT 8.31 273
m1 + m2 f 5
U = nR T =  0.22  8.31 100
m1 − m2 1 2 2
 =
m + m2 5 = 457 J (decrease)
 5m1 – 5m2 = m1 + m2 As volume is constant W = 0
 4m1 = 6m2 By first law of thermodynamics

6 3 Q = U + W
 m1 = m2 = m2
4 2 Q = U = –457 J
m1 3 35. Answer (3)
 =
m2 2
I
In horizontal plane, T = 2
31. Answer (4) MH
A 2 r r 4 1
=  =−  In magnetic meridian
A r r 2 100
I
−r T  = 2
MBe
l 2 1
= r = 

l 0.5 100

(T )2 H
l 2 =
 100 = = 4% (T )2 Be
l 0.5
(5)
( n )2 H
 H = Be cos30
39. Answer (1)
= Voltage at input of amplifier is
( n  )2 Be
 Ri   R  V
Vi =  Vs =  Vs = s
(n) 2
3  H 3 R +R +R
 i 

R +R +R 3
=  = cos30 =  s
( n  )2 2  Be
2  Now, V0 = AvVi
2  (n) 2  ( 20 ) V  A V
2 2
800
( n  )2 = = = = ( 21.48 )
2
V0 = AV  s  = v s
3 3 3  3  3
n = 21.5 oscillations/minute 40. Answer (1)
SECTION-B F = A sin ( k1x ) + B cos ( k2t )
36. Answer (2)  A = B  = F  = MLT −2 

 0 0 0  0 –1 0 
k1x  = M L T   k1  = M L T 
 0 0 0  0 0 −1 
k2t  = M L T   k2  = M L T 
k1k2  = M0L−1T0  M0L0 T –1  = M0L−1T −1 

    
41. Answer (3)
L = mvr⊥
Applying momentum conservation
10
r⊥ = cos53 = 2 m 1.5v1 – 1.5v2 = 0
3
 v1 = v2 = v
L = 10 × 6 × 2 = 120 kg m2 s–1
Now applying energy conservation
37. Answer (1) Ki + Ui = Kf + Uf
When final image is formed at infinity  6.67  10−11  (1.5 )2 
1 1
D 0+0 = (1.5 )v 2 + (1.5 )v 2 −  
Magnification (M ) = 2 2  4 
f  
38. Answer (3) 6.67  10−11  1.5
 v2 =
For the central maxima, the path difference must 4
be zero. Hence –3
v = 5 × 10 mm/s
42. Answer (3)
Path of charged particle will be circular
Let the radius of circular path be r

dsin – dsin = 0 So, using Pythagoras theorem
 = ( r − X )2 + Y 2 = r 2
y0 r 2 + X 2 − 2rX + Y 2 = r 2
Also, tan =
D
X2 +Y 2
 y0 = D tan = Dtan  r =
2X
(6)
mv 46. Answer (4)

Also r =
qB q1 + q2 + q3 = 0
 Momentum = mv = qBr C1 (VP − 2 ) + C2 (VP − 2 ) + C3 (VP − 2 − 3 ) = 0
 X 2 + Y 2  qB  Y2  VP − 2 + VP − 2 + VP − 5 = 0
qB   =  X + 
 2X  2  X 
3VP = 9
43. Answer (2) VP = 3 volt
Using conservation of energy between top most Charge on capacitor (C1) = 2(3 – 2)
point and point B
= 2 C
7R 1
 mg  = mv 2 + mgR Charge on capacitor (C2) = 2(3 – 2)
2 2
= 2 C
 v = 5gR
Charge on capacitor (C3) = 2 (3 – 1) = 4 C
Now at point B 47. Answer (2)
• Resistance between a and b:
mv 2
N=
R
m  5gR
=
R
= 5mg
44. Answer (4)
(1) Photoelectric effect demonstrates the particle
nature of light.
(2) The number of photoelectrons is proportional
to intensity of incident light.
45. Answer (2)
Let ball will sink upto depth h.
By work energy theorem
 w = change in kinetic energy

Wweight + WBuoyancy = 0 1 1 3 8
= + =
Req R 5R 5R
V b g (1 + h ) − V l g (h ) = 0 − 0
5R
V b g (1 + h ) = V l gh Req =
8
b h • Resistance between a and c:
=
l 1+ h
h
0.6 =
1+ h
0.6 + 0.6h = h
0.6 = 0.4h
h = 1.5 m
(7)
• Resistance between b and d: nCR

 P= ….(i)
V
PV = nRT (always)
V2
1
W =  PdV = nCR  dV
V1 V
= nCR 2 V2 − 2 V1 
 
=2 ( nRP2T2V2 − nRPV T
1 1 1 )
W = 2 nR ( nRT22 − nRT12 )
48. Answer (2)  W = 2nR (T2 − T1 ) = 2  2  R(T )
Common acceleration : = 4RT
24 − 6 24 − 6
a= = = 6 m s −2 50. Answer (3)
M 3 In ac circuit, current in circuit will be maximum
Mass of 20 cm length of rope when impedance is minimum and total reactance
M 3 is zero.
=  20 =  20 = 1 kg
L 60
Mass of 40 cm length of rope
M 3
=  40 =  40 = 2 kg
L 60
24
Im = (Z = R)
R
By FBD of rope of mass 1 kg
24
T–6=1×6  T = 6 + 6 = 12 N 6=  R=4
R
The force as a reaction exerted by 40 cm part is
12 N. Now when connected to d.c. circuit
49. Answer (3)

W =  PdV
PT = PT
1 1
= P2T2 = C
 PV  12 12
P.   =C  P2V = nCR I= = = 2 A (in steady state)
 nR  R + r ( 4 + 2)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 53. Answer (1)
51. Answer (2)
Relative lowering in vapour pressure, elevation in
• 0.1 gram molecule O2 = 3.2 g
• 10 ml H2O = 10 g boiling point, depression in freezing point and
• 3.01  1022 molecule H2SO4 = 0.05 mole = 4.9 g osmotic pressure are colligative properties.
• 1 gram atom hydrogen = 1 g
−1
Strength (gL ) 18
Molarity = = = 0.1 M CH2 = CH – Cl is vinyl chloride.
MW 180
(8)

Sandmeyer’s reaction is as following • Only 1° and 2° amines reacts with benzene
sulphonyl chloride (Hinsberg reagent)
• 3° amines donot react with benzene sulphonyl
chloride.
63. Answer (1)
• Teflon is an addition polymer
64. Answer (4)

• Equanil is a tranquilizer
• Derivatives of barbituric acid viz veronal,
amytal, luminal etc are important class of
56. Answer (3) tranquilizers.
1 • Barbiturates are hypotonic i.e sleep producing
Rate of diffusion 
MW agent.
Hence order of rate of diffusion : 65. Answer (3)
CH4 > O2 > CO2 > NO2 Total number of electron in nth shell = 2n2
57. Answer (1) for n = 3, number of electrons = 2(3)2 = 18.
Since Sc3+ has d° electronic configuration it can 66. Answer (1)
not exhibit d-d transition and will be colourless. Metallic characters increases down the group and
58. Answer (4) decreases along the period.
Single N-N bond is weaker than the single P-P 67. Answer (4)
bond because of high interelectronic repulsion of LiNO3 when heated gives Li2O and NO2 while
the non-bonding electrons. other alkali metal nitrates decomposes to give
• Nitrogen cannot form d-p bond because of corresponding nitrite.
the absence of d-orbital. 2KNO3 ⎯⎯
→ 2KNO2 + O2
59. Answer (2)
68. Answer (4)
Pyrosulphuric acid is oleum : H2S2O7
60. Answer (1)
61. Answer (3)

• More is the stability of conjugate base, more will 69. Answer (2)
be the acidic strength of the compound. Halogenated solvent has now been replaced by
 Order of acidic strength is liquid CO2 for dry cleaning of clothes as they
causes less harm to ground water.
70. Answer (4)
Protium : 11H  No. of protons = 1
No. of neutrons = 1 – 1 = 0
(9)

Wrought iron is the purest form of iron which
contains carbon only upto 0.5%.
72. Answer (3)
Lesser the reduction potential of a metal, more will
be the reducing power of metal. 81. Answer (4)
 RP : Ag > Ni > Zn > K Entropy of gases is generally more than entropy
So, reducing power : K > Zn > Ni > Ag of liquids.
82. Answer (4)
73. Answer (2)
3 1
−
M0.95O = (M2+)0.95–x (M3+)x (O2–)1 r = k[A] 2 [B] 2
Net charge = +2(0.95 – x) + 3(x) –2(1) = 0 Overall order = order with respect to
 x = 0.1 A + order with respect to B
 Required fraction =
x
=
0.1 2
=  3   −1 
=   +   =1
0.95 0.95 19 2  2 
• Specific conductance of a weak electrolyte • Brownian movement does not depend on
decreases on dilution as number of ions per nature of the colloid but depends on the size of
unit volume decreases. the particles and viscosity of solution.
• Molar conductance of a strong electrolyte • Viscosity depends on temperature of solution.
marginally increases on dilution due to increase 84. Answer (4)
in interionic distance on dilution which reduces
( 2)
2
[C]2
the influence of cation or anion and vice versa. Kc = = = 2 M–1
[A][B]2 ( 2 )(1)
75. Answer (4)
85. Answer (2)
In one unit cell, atoms of A = 4
Atoms of B = 4 + 8 = 12
So, A : B = 4 : 12 = 1 : 3
 Formula of compound is AB3
SECTION - B
76. Answer (3)
Kjeldahl method is not applicable to compounds 86. Answer (3)
containing nitrogen in nitro and azo groups and At constant pressure
nitrogen present in the ring such as pyridine. VT
77. Answer (3) V2 T2
=
For isomeric alkanes, greater is the surface area, V1 T1
greater is the boiling point. Surface area of V2 500
n-pentane is more than 2-methylbutane. =
5 300
78. Answer (2)
25
Iodoform test is given by compounds containing V2 = = 8.33 L
3
87. Answer (2)
79. Answer (2)

Amylose is water soluble component while
amylopectin is water insoluble component of
starch.
(10)

For l = 1, ml cannot be 2, it can only ranges from
–1 to +1 through zero.
89. Answer (2)
The melting points of alkali metal halides always
follow the trend :
fluoride > chloride > bromide > iodide 95. Answer (1)
90. Answer (3)
x + (–2) + 4(–1) = 0
96. Answer (2)
 x = +6
• C(graphite) + O2(g) ⎯⎯→ CO2(g),
H = –393.5 kJ mol–1
Heat release for formation of 44 g CO2 is
x + 3(–2) + 2(–1) + 2(+1) = 0 393.5 kJ
x = +6  For formation of 15.84 g heat release will be
91. Answer (3) 393.5
=  15.84 = 141.66 kJ
For same electricity, 44
Gram-equivalent of Zn deposited 97. Answer (4)
= Gram-equivalent of H2 displaced For zero order reaction
x 11200 kt = [A]0 – [A]
 =
 65.3  11200  Slope of concentration Vs time is negative and
 2 
  constant.
So, x = 32.65 g 98. Answer (3)
92. Answer (3) ZSM-5 is a zeolite used in petrochemical
industries for converting alcohols directly into
Correct order of stability of the given radicals is
gasoline (petrol).
• • •
CH2 = CH − CH2  PhCH2  ( CH3 )3 C 99. Answer (3)
Increase in pressure shifts the equilibrium towards
93. Answer (2)
the side having lesser number of gaseous moles
viz forward reaction.
100. Answer (4)
C2H4 has 5  and 1  bonds.
BOTANY
SECTION - A Cytosine pairs with guanine through three
101. Answer (1) H-bonds. Aadenine is linked with deoxyribose
In PS-II, reaction centre has an absorption sugar by N-glycosidic linkage. DNA contains N2-
maxima at 680 nm and is called P680. bases as purines and pyrimidines. Adenine and
102. Answer (4)
guanine are purines while, cytosine and thymine
In structure of DNA, the double strands run in anti
are pyrimidines.
parallel fashion.
(11)
103. Answer (1) 116. Answer (3)

DNA ligase joins the two DNA molecule while, Given pyramid shows expanding population or
DNA helicase opens DNA helix during replication. growing population.
104. Answer (3)
117. Answer (2)
Lac a gene codes for transacetylase.
Cyclosporin A is used as an immunosuppressive
105. Answer (1)
agent in organ transplant patient is produced by
Tropical areas receive more solar energy over the
year as they are near to equator. Thus, tropical fungus Trichoderma polysporum.
communities are more productive that can support 118. Answer (1)
a wider range of species.
The green plants of the ecosystem occupy the first
106. Answer (3)
trophic level as they are producers.
Eichhornia crassipes is the most problematic
aquatic weed and also called as ‘Terror of Bengal’. 119. Answer (2)
They grow abundantly in eutrophic water bodies, Synthesizing organic compounds from inorganic
and lead to an imbalance in the ecosystem ones by using solar energy is called
dynamics of the water body.
photosynthesis. This function is mainly performed
107. Answer (2)
by leaves in higher plants.
Antiport is a type of facilitated diffusion in which
two molecules move in opposite directions. 120. Answer (3)
108. Answer (3) One of the examples of plants having whorled
Chlorine and manganese are essential for the phyllotaxy is Alstonia. Calotropis has opposite
water-splitting reaction in photosynthesis. phyllotaxy.
109. Answer (1) 121. Answer (3)
Chromosomes reach their respective poles and In dicot roots, vascular cambium originates from
lose their individuality during telophase.
tissue located just below the phloem bundle and a
110. Answer (3)
portion of pericyte tissue above the protoxylem.
During anaphase II, centromere of each
chromosome splits and allows them to move 122. Answer (1)
toward opposite poles of the cell. In monocot leaves such as maize, grass and
111. Answer (4) wheat there is usually equal number of stomata on
Chlamydomonas – Unicellular lower and upper epidermis.
Ulothrix and Spirogyra – Filamentous form Dicots, such as sunflower, have more number of
112. Answer (3) stomata on their lower epidermis of leaf as
Selaginella and Equisetum belong to compared to upper epidermis.
pteridophytes and their sporophylls form strobili or
123. Answer (4)
cones.
113. Answer (3) 80S ribosome has sub-unit 60S and 40S. These
Pre-fertilisation event include all the events of are eukaryotic ribosomes and are found on the
sexual production prior to the fusion of gamete. surface of nucleus and rough endoplasmic
Pollination facilitate transfer of pollen grains to reticulum and in the cytosol.
stigma and it is a pre-fertilisation event. 124. Answer (3)
114. Answer (2)
Chromatin contains DNA, and some basic
Dedifferentiated tissue is cork cambium. proteins called histone, some non-histone
Redifferentiated tissue is cork. proteins and also RNA.
Tracheary element is differentiated tissue.
125. Answer (2)
115. Answer (4)
In cyanobacteria, chromatophores have
A portion of embryonal axis above the level of
photosynthetic pigments. So, these structures are
cotyledons is epicotyl, which terminate with
involved in photosynthesis i.e., similar to
plumule or stem tip.
chloroplast in Euglena.
Castor is an albuminous seed.
(12)
126. Answer (1) 138. Answer (1)

Both eubacteria and archaebacteria can be The town people along with the biologists of
autotrophs as well as heterotrophs. Carl Woese Humboldt state university created an integrated
did not differentiated archaebacteria and waste water treatment process within a natural
eubacteria on the basis of mode of nutrition. ecosystem.
127. Answer (3) 139. Answer (1)
In cyanobacteria, heterocyst have nitrogenase A stable community should not show too much
enzyme that catalyse conversion of N2 to NH3. variation in productivity from year to year.
140. Answer (3)
128. Answer (4)
Heterochromatin is darkly stained region. It is
Slime moulds produces spores and fruiting bodies
transcriptionally inactive, It has densely packed
under unfavourable condition. chromatin.
129. Answer (4) 141. Answer (3)
Green leaf colour of pea was not taken by Mendel Embryo-sac formation is preceded by meiosis, so
for hybridisation experiment. each cell of an embryo-sac is haploid.
130. Answer (4) 142. Answer (1)
Number of gametes = 2n The inner wall of guard cell is thick and elastic.
n = number of heterozygous locus The guard cell are dumb-bell shaped in grasses.
In AaBbCcDd, n = 4 143. Answer (1)
So number of gametes = 24 = 16 Pollen grain contain two cells, the vegetative cell
and generative cell. The vegetative cell is bigger
131. Answer (3) and has abundant food reserve and a large
Polygenes express many traits that spread across irregularly shaped nucleus.
a gradient. The pleiotropic gene has two alleles The generative cell is small and floats in the
only. cytoplasm of the vegetative cell.
132. Answer (3) 144. Answer (2)
Taxonomic keys are aids which are generally Tulip, Allium and Petunia have actinomorphic
analytical in nature. flowers, whereas Trifolium has zygomorphic
133. Answer (3) flowers.
145. Answer (4)
Taxonomy does not include phylogeny. It is
included in systematics. In dicot stem, arrangement of primary xylem is
endarch i.e., protoxylem lies toward the centre and
134. Answer (2) metaxylem towards the periphery.
FMN and NAD are coenzymes of complex I. 146. Answer (3)
135. Answer (3) Centrosome consists of centrioles which has an
Black rot of crucifers is caused by bacteria. organisation like the cartwheel. They form the
basal body of cilia and flagella.
SECTION-B
147. Answer (1)
136. Answer (2) Viroids were discovered by T.O. diener. They lack
Lactobacillus– Lactic acid protein coat.
Acetobacter aceti – Acetic acid 148. Answer (2)
In Drosophila females are homogametic and have
Clostridium butylicum – Butyric acid
XX sex chromosomes.
Aspergillus niger – Citric acid
149. Answer (2)
137. Answer (4) Decomposition of detritus is favoured by oxygen
During initial phase of growth, the rate of growth is and nitrogen containing compounds in detritus.
very slow i.e., lag phase. 150. Answer (4)
In stationary phase due to shortage of space, food Cellulose is structural components of cell wall. It is
and accumulation of toxins growth slows down. not formed at the time of defence only.
(13)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A Ascariasis – Characterised by internal
151. Answer (2) bleeding, muscular pain, fever,
anaemia and blockage of
The reproductive events in humans include intestinal passage
formation of gametes (gametogenesis), i.e.,
Common – Infection occurs in nose and
sperms in males and ovum in females, transfer of
cold respiratory passage but not the
sperms into the female genital tract (insemination) lungs
and fusion of male and female gametes
156. Answer (2)
(fertilisation) leading to formation of zygote. This is
followed by formation and development of Embryological support for evolution was proposed
by Ernst Haeckel based upon the observation of
blastocyst and its attachment to the uterine wall
certain features during embryonic stage common
(implantation), embryonic development
to all vertebrates that are absent in adults. For
(gestation) and delivery of the baby (parturition). example, the embryos of all vertebrates including
152. Answer (3) human develop a row of vestigial gill slits just
Animals are categorised into oviparous and behind the head, but it is a functional organ only in
fishes and not found in any other adult
viviparous based on whether the development of
vertebrates.
the zygote takes place outside the body of the
157. Answer (2)
female parent or inside, i.e., whether they lay
fertilised/unfertilised eggs or give birth to young In stomach, pepsin converts proteins into
ones. proteoses and peptones (peptides).
Nucleases acts on nucleic acids to form
In oviparous animals like reptiles and birds, the
nucleotides.
fertilised eggs covered by hard calcareous shell
Sucrase acts on sucrose to form glucose and
are laid in a safe place in the environment.
fructose.
153. Answer (4)
In mouth, salivary amylase hydrolyses about 30
Progestogen alone or in combination with percent of starch into a disaccharide - maltose.
estrogen can also be used by females as 158. Answer (4)
injections or implants under the skin. Their mode Mucosa layer of alimentary canal forms irregular
of action is similar to that of pills and their effective folds called rugae in the stomach and small finger-
periods are much longer. They inhibit ovulation like foldings called villi in the small intestine.
and implantation as well as alter the quality of Mucosa also forms glands in the stomach (gastric
cervical mucus to prevent/retard entry of sperms. glands).
154. Answer (3) Brunner’s glands are sub-mucosal glands.
Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method in 159. Answer (3)
the correction of acute renal failure (kidney
failure). A functional kidney is used in
transplantation from a donor, preferably a close
relative to minimise its chances of rejection by the
immune system of the host.
155. Answer (1)
Pneumonia – Infection occurs in alveoli of
the lungs
Amoebiasis – Characterised by
constipation, abdominal pain,
cramps and stools with
excess mucous and blood
clots
(14)
160. Answer (2) 166. Answer (3)

• In echinoderms, an excretory system is absent. Ramapithecus - Walked like gorillas
Ex:- Antedon (sea lily) and Dryopithecus and chimpanzees
• Feather like gills performs respiratory and Homo erectus - Probably ate meat
excretory function in molluscs. Ex: - Aplysia Neanderthal man - Lived in near east and
• An excretory tube removes body wastes from central Asia between
the body cavity through the excretory pore in 1,00,000 - 40,000
years back
Ascaris.
161. Answer (1) Australopithecines - They hunted with
stone weapons but
In human kidneys, the medulla is divided into a essentially ate fruits
few conical masses (medullary pyramids)
167. Answer (2)
projecting into the calyces. The cortex extends in
When a neuron is not conducting any impulse i.e.,
between the medullary pyramids as renal columns
resting, the axonal membrane is comparatively
called Columns of Bertini.
more permeable to potassium ions (K+) and nearly
162. Answer (3) impermeable to sodium ions (Na+). Similarly, the
Alteration of generation (metagenesis) is found in membrane is impermeable to negatively charged
proteins present in the axoplasm.
Obelia and Physalia.
168. Answer (1)
In Gorgonia, Adamsia, Pennatula and Meandrina,
Inner parts of cerebral hemispheres and a group
metagenesis is absent as only polyp form is seen.
of associated deep structures form a complex
163. Answer (3) structure called limbic system which is concerned
The DNA fragments separate (resolve) according with olfaction, autonomic responses, regulation of
sexual behaviour, expression of emotional
to their size through sieving effect provided by the
reactions and motivation. The medulla oblongata
agarose gel. Hence, smaller the fragment size, the
contains centres which control respiration,
farther it moves. cardiovascular reflexes, and gastric secretions.
164. Answer (3) 169. Answer (4)
Glenoid cavity articulates with the head of the Lecithin is one example of phospholipid. They are
humerus to form the shoulder joint. found in cell membrane.
The thigh bone or femur articulates with the 170. Answer (3)
acetabulum. A destruction of adrenal cortex by diseases like

tuberculosis produces Addison’s disease due to
165. Answer (4)
the deficiency of both glucocorticoids and
mineralocorticoids. Symptoms include a bronze
like pigmentation of skin, low blood sugar, low
plasma Na+, high plasma K+, nausea, acute
weakness, fatigue and diarrhoea.
171. Answer (3)
Our body has one pair of adrenal glands, one at
the anterosuperior region of each kidney.
The juxtaglomerular cells of kidney produce a
peptide hormone called erythropoietin which
stimulates erythropoiesis (formation of RBCs).
(15)
172. Answer (2) 178. Answer (1)

Organism ‘a’ is Catla while organism ‘b’ is Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs if Rh –ve mother
Scoliodon. delivers Rh +ve baby in subsequent pregnancy.
Catla belongs to class Osteichthyes, where 179. Answer (3)

fertilisation is usually external and Scolidon Transferases catalyse a transfer of a group, G
belongs to class Chondrichthyes, where (other than hydrogen) between a pair of substrate
fertilisation is internal. S and S’.
180. Answer (4)
173. Answer (3)
In MOET (Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer
The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is the
Technology), a cow is administered hormones,
presence of water vascular system which helps in
with FSH - like activity, to induce follicular
locomotion, capture and transport of food and
maturation and superovulation.
respiration.
181. Answer (3)
174. Answer (2)
EcoRI cuts the DNA between bases G and A only
Poriferans exhibit cellular level of organisation. In when the recognition sequence GAATTC is
sponges, intracellular digestion is present. All present in the DNA.
sponges are hermaphrodite and regeneration is 182. Answer (2)
present in them.
The first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced human
• Flatworms are the triploblastic animals and the protein-enriched milk (2.4 grams per litre).
digestive system is incomplete having only a Micro-injection is a method in which rDNA is
single opening to the outside of the body, that directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell.
serves both as mouth and anus. The flatworms 183. Answer (4)
are hermaphrodite.
PCR is DNA replication on a grand scale. If the
175. Answer (4) process of replication of DNA is repeated many
The columnar epithelium is composed of a single times, the segment of DNA can be amplified
layer of tall and slender cells. Their nuclei are approximately billion times, i.e., 1 billion copies
are made at the end of 30 PCR cycles. It is
located at the base. Free surface may have
possible to generate 2n molecules after ‘n’ number
microvilli. They are found in the lining of small
of cycles.
intestine.
184. Answer (3)
• Ciliated epithelium is present in the inner
The placenta is connected to the embryo through
surface of hollow organs like bronchioles and
an umbilical cord which helps in the transport of
fallopian tubes.
substances to and from the embryo.
176. Answer (2)
185. Answer (1)
Resistance induced by vaccines is an example of The structures in different organisms which are
artificial active immunity. not similar anatomically though they perform
• Artificial passive immunity is when preformed similar functions are called analogous organs.
antibodies are directly injected into the body. Eg: - The wings of butterfly and birds, eyes of
177. Answer (2) the octopus and of mammals, flippers of
Malpighian tubules in cockroach are present at the penguins and dolphins, sweet potato
and potato.
junction of midgut and hindgut and are 100-150 in
number. They help in removal of excretory • Vertebrate hearts and brains are example of
products from haemolymph. homologous organs.
(16)
SECTION-B 190. Answer (3)

186. Answer (1) The diagram is that of skeletal structure of
The walls of ventricles are much thicker than that cannabinoid molecule. Natural cannabinoids are
of the atria because they have to pump blood to obtained from the inflorescence of the plant
different organs and the pressure with which the
Cannabis sativa.
blood flows through them is much more than the
auricles. 191. Answer (4)
187. Answer (4) The most variable phase of menstrual cycle is

• Peptide, polypeptide, protein hormones and follicular phase.
catecholamines interact with membrane-bound
receptors and do not enter the target cell, but
generate second messengers.
• Hormones which interact with intracellular
receptors (e.g., steroid hormones, iodo-
thyronines, etc) mostly regulate gene
expression or chromosome function by the
interaction of hormone-receptor complex with
the genome.
188. Answer (1)
In 1997, an American company got patent rights
on Basmati rice through the US Patent and
Trademark office.
The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990
to a four-year old girl with ADA deficiency. 192. Answer (2)
In 1983, Eli Lilly an American company developed Test tube baby programme includes ZIFT, IUT
Humulin.
and ICSI.
In 1972, construction of first recombinant DNA
In-vivo fertilisation methods includes GIFT, AI, IUI
was accomplished by Stanley Cohen and Herbert
Boyer. 193. Answer (2)
189. Answer (2)
Component % of the total cellular
mass
Water 70-90
Proteins 10-15
Carbohydrates 3
Lipids 2
Nucleic acids 5-7

If a foreign gene of interest is inserted at SalI
recognition site of cloning vector pBR322, then the Ions 1
transformants are selected by growing them on a 194. Answer (3)

medium containing ampicillin.
In B-DNA, the rise per base pair would be 3.4 Å.
(17)
195. Answer (4) (a) Human chorionic Stimulates the

Total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at gonadotropin (hCG) corpus luteum in the
the end of a forced inspiration. This includes RV, ovary to continue
the production of
ERV, TV and IRV or vital capacity + residual
estrogens and
volume. progesterone to
196. Answer (2) maintain pregnancy.
Time duration between dub and lub is 0.5 (b) Estrogens and Maintain pregnancy
progesterone and help prepare
seconds.
mammary glands to
197. Answer (2) secrete milk.
In heart attack, the heart muscle is suddenly (c) Human chorionic Stimulates the
damaged by an inadequate blood supply. somatomammotropin development of the
mammary glands for
198. Answer (4)
lactation.
Natural selection can lead to stabilisation (in which
(d) Relaxin During later phase
more individuals acquire mean character value), of pregnancy, the
directional change (more individuals acquire value placenta produces
other than the mean character value) or disruption relaxin, and it relax
(more individuals acquire peripheral character pubic symphysis
value at both ends of the distribution curve). 200. Answer (1)
199. Answer (4) Hisardale, a new breed of sheep developed in
Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Merino
Hormones secreted by placenta are: rams.
❑ ❑ ❑
(18)

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CODE-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & XII

(1) NOR gate

29. A satellite of mass m is revolving at a height R Column-I Column-II

(1) sin (2) D cos

46. A part of the circuit is shown in figure. All the (3) A → R, B → P, C → Q

(1) Charge on capacitor C1 is zero

54. Vinyl chloride is 61. Strongest acid among the following is

(1) (2) CH3CH2OH

56. Which of the following gases has maximum rate

58. Consider the following statements (1) Teflon (2) Terylene

79. Incorrect statement among the following is SECTION-B

(i) (ii) (iii) (1) 212.49 kJ (2) 141.66 kJ

(1) Green seed (2) Violet flower

(3) Nearly impermeable to Na+ ions (1) Thymus Heart ANF

(3) Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms (1) Locomotion

SECTION-B 189. If a foreign gene of interest is inserted at SalI

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

1. (3) 41. (3) 81. (4) 121. (3) 161. (1)

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

Hints and Solutions

SECTION - A 4. Answer (1)

tan  tan ( 45 ) 1 At t = t, N =

7. Answer (2) 12. Answer (1)

2  6.67  10−11  7.4  1022

19. Answer (1) 25. Answer (4)

1 f 32. Answer (1)

 5m1 – 5m2 = m1 + m2 As volume is constant W = 0

 4m1 = 6m2 By first law of thermodynamics

n = 21.5 oscillations/minute 40. Answer (1)

SECTION-B F = A sin ( k1x ) + B cos ( k2t )

36. Answer (2)  A = B  = F  = MLT −2 

k1k2  = M0L−1T0  M0L0 T –1  = M0L−1T −1 

Let the radius of circular path be r

mv 46. Answer (4)

 w = change in kinetic energy

• Resistance between b and d: nCR

49. Answer (3)

55. Answer (4) 62. Answer (2)

64. Answer (4)

60. Answer (1)

61. Answer (3)

71. Answer (1) 80. Answer (4)

79. Answer (2)

88. Answer (2) 94. Answer (2)

103. Answer (1) 116. Answer (3)

126. Answer (1) 138. Answer (1)

160. Answer (2) 166. Answer (3)

acetabulum. A destruction of adrenal cortex by diseases like

172. Answer (2) 178. Answer (1)

Catla belongs to class Osteichthyes, where 179. Answer (3)

SECTION-B 190. Answer (3)

187. Answer (4) The most variable phase of menstrual cycle is

Nucleic acids 5-7

transformants are selected by growing them on a 194. Answer (3)

195. Answer (4) (a) Human chorionic Stimulates the

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