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2.2 OBJ. TEST ON PARLI PROCEDURE, 2022 (1) and (2) With Answers
2.2 OBJ. TEST ON PARLI PROCEDURE, 2022 (1) and (2) With Answers
6) What happens to the business pending in the House, on adjournment of the House sine die?
(a) All the items of business lapse;
(b) Only certain business lapse, as provided in the Rules of that particular House;
(c) The business pending before the House does not lapse.
8) When is it customary for the President to address both the Houses of Parliament assembled together?
(a) At the commencement of the first session after each general elections to the House of People;
(b) At the commencement of first session each year;
(c) On both the occasions as in (a) and (b) above;
(d) None of the above is correct.
9) What happens to the business pending in the House, on the prorogation of the House?
(a) The entire business pending before the House lapses;
(b) All business pending before the House, except what is saved by Article 107(3) of the Constitution and Rule 284,
335 and 336 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, lapses.
(c) No pending business lapses
10) What is NOT true regarding bills pending consequent to ‘dissolution’ of Lok Sabha?
(a) A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses;
(b) A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not yet passed by the Lok Sabha also lapses
(c) A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in Rajya Sabha also lapses.
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11) Parliament Questions are of –
(a) Five Kinds;
(b) Four kinds;
(c) Three kinds;
(d) None is correct.
12) What is NOT TRUE about Closure and Guillotine in the context of Parliament?
(a) Both Closure and Guillotine are used for winding up of a particular ongoing discussion in the House;
(b) While Closure, requires a motion by a Member of the House, Guillotine does not require any motion;
(c) While Guillotine is used by the Speaker to cut short discussions on Demands for Grant, ‘closure’ can be moved by
any member;
(d) While Closure means closing the main doors of the House to enable ‘voting’, Guillotine is a sharp decorative blade
exhibited in the House.
13) Which one of the following statements is/are incorrect vis-à-vis Parliament procedure?
(a) Bulletin of a House and List of Business are one and the same.
(b) Bulletin is a publication containing information relating to the business of Parliamentary committees also.
(c) List of Business is prepared by the Secretary-General of the House containing details of business for that particular
day.
(d) No business, not included in the list of business for the day shall, normally, be transacted at any sitting without the
permission of the Speaker.
14) Which one of the following statements is/are incorrect vis-à-vis Parliament business?
(a) A document to be laid on the Table of either House should be authenticated by the Minister concerned, preferably
on the front page.
(b) Prescribed number of copies of such a document should be sent to the Secretariat of the House concerned, at
least two clear days in advance.
(c) The Secretariat of the House concerned should be informed whether copies of such document are kept ready for
supply to the Members.
(d) Such documents can be released to the press as soon as the Minister authenticates them.
15) What is the maximum number of words prescribed for a Parliament question?
(a) 250 words;
(b) 200 words
(c) 150 words
(d) 100 words.
16) What is the maximum number of Starred Questions that could be placed in the list of questions on any particular
day?
(a) Fifteen;
(b) Twelve;
(c) Eighteen;
(d) Twenty.
17) Which one of the following statements vis-à-vis Parliament Questions is/are incorrect?
(a)A Parliament Question shall not ordinarily contain less than 150 words;
(b)A Parliament Question shall not repeat, in substance, questions already answered or to which an answer has been
refused;
(c)A Parliament Question shall not ordinarily ask for information on matters which are under consideration of a
Parliamentary Committee;
(d)A Parliament Question shall not reflect on the character or conduct of any person whose conduct can only be
challenged on a substantive motion;
18) Which one of the following vis-à-vis Parliament Questions is/are incorrect?
(a)To get an oral answer, an ( * ) mark should be put at the right hand top corner of the Question.
(b)Only one Starred Question will be accepted from one member on a particular day.
(c)A Member of Parliament can put both Starred and Unstarred Question together.
(d)If an MP gives notice for many unstarred questions, a total of 5 unstarred questions will only be listed for a day.
19) Which one of the following vis-à-vis Parliament Questions is/are incorrect?
(a)A total of 230 unstarred questions could be listed for one day. (There could be an addn. of 25 question pertaining
to State/States under Presidents’ Rule)
(b)A supplementary question consequent to Oral answer to a question may be held ‘out of order’ if in the opinion of
the Speaker that instead of seeking information, it gives information or it seeks confirmation or denial of an opinion.
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(c)A Question may be addressed to a PRIVATE MEMBER provided it relates to a bill, resolution or any other matter for
which that particular member is responsible.
(d)If the ‘last sitting of a Session’ is cancelled, the Questions in the lists of Questions for oral as well as written answer
for that day shall be carried over to first sitting of next session.
21) Which one of the following vis-à-vis Half-an-hour discussion(Rule 55) is/are incorrect?
(a)Half-an-hour is allotted, on 3 sittings in a week, for discussion on a matter of public importance which has been the
subject of a recent question, Oral or Written, and the answer to which needs further elucidation.
(b)A member wishing to raise such a matter has to give notice in writing to the Secretary-General of the House
concerned three days in advance;
(c)Only one Half-an-Hour discussion is allowed in one sitting and only one discussion is allowed in the name of one
member in a week. No member can raise more than three discussions in one session.
(d) After ‘the member’ makes the statement, not more than FOUR members (intimated before commencement of the
sitting), can put questions for further clarification before the reply of the Minister. There is no motion nor any voting.
22) Which one of the following vis-à-vis Short duration discussions (Rule 193) is/are incorrect?
(a)An MP may give Notice for raising a discussion on a ‘matter of urgent public importance’ together with an
explanatory note stating the reasons and urgency.
(b)The Notice for ‘short duration discussion’ should be supported by atleast two members.
(c)The Speaker or the Chairman, as may be the case, may allow not more than TWO HOURS at or before the end of
the sitting. He may allow two sittings in a week for Short Duration Discussion.
(d)When called by the Presiding Officer, the MP makes a brief Statement and the Minister briefly replies. The MP who
gave notice has ‘the right to reply’.
23) Which one of the following vis-à-vis Suo Motu Statement (Rule 372) is/are incorrect?
(a)A Minister may make a Suo Moto Statement under Rule 372, on a matter of public importance, with the consent of
the Speaker.
(b)If there are any questions or Calling Attention or Adjournment Motion on the issue, the Suo Moto Statement should
cover all the relevant points. No question shall be asked.
(c) At least two copies should be given to the Lok Sabha Secretariat one day in advance or atleast at 10 AM on the
day on which the Statement is proposed.
(d)This will be included in the Agenda on the date as indicated by the Minister and normally as the last item of the
day.
30) Which one of the following is NOT correct, regarding a Subsidiary Motion?
(a) They are of three kinds viz. Ancillary, Superseding and Subordinate Motions;
(b) They depend upon or relate to other motions
(c) Most of them are dilatory motions
31) “That the Bill be recommitted to a Select Committee”. What kind of Motion is it?
(a) Ancillary Motion;
(b) Superceding Motion;
(c) Amendment;
(d) Substantive Motion.
32) “That the amount of the Demand be reduced to Re.1/-“. What kind of motion is this?
(a) Token cut Motion;
(b) Sample Cut Motion;
(c) Economy Cut Motion;
(d) Disapproval of Policy Cut Motion.
33) "That the amount of the Demand be reduced by Rs…… (specified amount)". What kind of Motion is it?
(a) Token cut Motion;
(b) Sample Cut Motion;
(c) Economy Cut Motion;
(d) Disapproval of Policy Cut Motion.
34) Which of the following is correct with regard to moving a ‘no confidence motion’?
(a) No Confidence Motion is moved in Lok Sabha under its Rule No.198(1);
(b) Speaker will grant leave only if not less than 50 members support the motion when the motion is moved;
(c) Moving such a motion becomes a possibility because of the provision in Article 75(3) which says, the COM is
collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha;
(d) All the above are correct.
35) Which of the following is correct with regard to moving a ‘no confidence motion’?
(a) A Motion moved in Lok sabha expressing ‘lack of confidence in the COM’ is called the No Confidence Motion;
(b) After leave to move the motion is granted, detailed discussion takes place
(c) After the members have spoken, usually the PM himself replies to the charges leveled, followed by reply by the
mover of the motion and voting.
(d) All the above are correct.
38) Which one of the following vis-à-vis ‘Censure Motion’ is/are incorrect?
(a)Whereas a ‘motion of no-confidence’ need not specify any grounds on which it is based, a censure motion must set
out the grounds or charges on which it is based.
(b)Censure motion can be moved against the Council of Ministers or an individual minister or a group of ministers for
the failure or against their policy.
(c)There is no specific provision in the Rules for the moving of a censure motion; such a motion is governed by the
rules applicable to motions in general.
(d)Leave of the House is required to move a censure motion.
39) Who presides over the Lok Sabha when the offices of both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker fall vacant?
(a) The Vice-President, on the orders of the President, will preside over the Lok Sabha;
(b) The Senior Most member of the Lok Sabha automatically guided to the Chair by the Leader of the House and the
Leader of Opposition;
(c) The duties of the Speaker will be performed by such member of Lok Sabha as the President may appoint, who will
be known as Speaker pro-term.
(d) All the above are incorrect.
40) Which one of the following vis-à-vis ‘Parliamentary Assurance’ is/are incorrect?
(a)Directions by the Speaker/Dy Speaker/Presiding Officer and assurances by Ministers are compiled by the Ministry of
Parliamentary Affairs as Assurances and sent to concerned units. Normal time limit for compliance of assurance is six
months, unless extended by Minister for Parliamentary Affairs.
(b)Each Section of a Ministry, maintains a Register of Assurances for Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha separately and
session-wise.
(c)The progress of compliance will be reviewed by the Section Officer every week. The Branch Officer will check the
register every fortnight if the House is in session and once in a month if the House is not in session.
(d) The S.O. should take advance action for extension of time beyond permissible time limit. Minister in charge should
approve the extension. The Branch officer will keep the higher officers and the Minister informed of the extent of
implementation and delay, if any.
41) When a non-Money bill is passed by both the Houses of Parliament, it is forwarded to the President who has the
following options. Indicate which one of these is incorrect.
(1) The President can give his assent straight-away;
(2) He can declare withholding of his assent;
(3) He can send the Bill for reconsideration. If the Bill is reconsidered and passed again, he has to give his assent.
Codes:
(a) All are correct;
(b) All but (1) are correct;
(c) All but (2) are correct;
(d) All are incorrect.
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OBJ. TEST ON PARLIAMENTARY PROCEDURE, 2022(2) TB
No. of Questions: 30 Time: 20 minutes
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1) Which one among the following statements about pro-tem speaker of Lok Sabha is NOT correct?
a. Normally, the senior most MP is appointed as pro-tem speaker.He/She is appointed by the President of India;
b. He/She takes oath/affirmation before the President in the Central Hall of Parliament;
c. The Pro-tem Speaker presides over the first sitting of the Lok Sabha. He/She administers oath/affirmation to
the newly elected Members of Lok Sabha;
d. Pro-tem is a Latin phrase which means “for the time being”. On the election of new Speaker, the office of
the pro tem speaker ceases to exist.
2) Which one of the following statements regarding Half-an-hour discussions in Lok Sabha is correct?
a.The Speaker may allot half-an-hour every day during the session;
b. A member wishing to raise a matter shall give notice to the Secretary General in writing.
c. There shall be a formal motion before the House.
d. Notice for Half-an-hour discussion can be given on any matter whether it is a subject of a recent occurrence or not.
4) Who presides over the House in the absence of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker?
(a) Any one of the Chairpersons from a panel of 10 LS members nominated by the Speaker may preside over the
House;
(b) Every such time, the President appoints one the LS members as Presiding Officer
(c) Senior most member of the House presides
(d) All are incorrect.
6) Consider the following statements comparing the Appropriation Bill and Finance Bill:
1.No amendments can be moved in case of Appropriation Bill, while they can be in case of Financial Bill;
2.The Appropriation Bill is meant only for withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund of India, while the Finance
Bill is meant for both withdrawal and putting resources of taxation into the Consolidated Fund.
3.Appropriation Bill can be rejected in Rajya Sabha, while the Finance Bill cannot be.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a.1 and 2; b.Only 3; c.1 and 3; d.All of these.
7) Consider the following statements regarding the legislative process in Parliament & indicate which one is right:
1.A bill can be referred to a Select/Joint Committee of Parliament at the first, second or third reading.
2.A bill passed by one House, must be passed by the other House within 6 months of its receiving the bill;
3.At the joint-sitting of the two Houses to pass a Bill, only the difference between the Houses are resolved through
voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. Only 1; b. Only 2; c. 2 and 3; d. All of these.
8) Consider the following points of differences between a private member bill and a government bill:
1.Private member bill has to be drafted by the member himself without any secretarial assistance unlike a Government
bill; 2. Introduction of a Private Member bill requires one months notice as compared to the notice of 7 days in the
case of Govt. bill. 3. Private bill reflects the stand of the opposition whereas the Govt. bill reflects the stand of the
ruling party or the coalition. 4. No private bill could be introduced by a non-Minister from the ruling party.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2;
b.1,2 and 3;
c. 2 and 3;
d.1 and 4.
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9) Consider the following statements vis-à-vis Committee on Pvt. Member Bills and Resolutions:
(1) This Committee is constituted after each general elections and thereafter on 1st June each year. (2) This
Committee consists of 15 members and the Deputy Speaker is its Chairman when nominated as a member of the
Committee. The Committee is nominated by the Speaker.
(3) The function of the Committee is to allot time for examination of Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions.
(4) In case, the bill seeks to amend the Constitution, it is considered by this committee, before its introduction in
Parliament.
Codes:
(a) All are correct;
(b) All are incorrect;
(c) All but (1) are correct;
(d) All but (4) are correct.
10) Consider the following statements vis-à-vis Committee on Committee on Subordinate Legislation:
(1)This Committee consists of 15 members, nominated by the Speaker. Chairman is appointed from among the
members, by the Speaker. This Committee in RS also has 15 members.
(2) Minister is not nominated to this Committee. The term of the Committee is one year.
(3) Functions of this Committee includes scrutinizing and reporting whether the rules (subordinate legislation) have
been made within the powers provided by the Constitution/Act of the Parliament;
(4) To examine whether there is any delay in making the rules, whether the Rules are ambiguous etc.
Codes:
(a) All are correct;
(b) All are incorrect;
(c) All but (1) are correct;
(d) All but (4) are correct.
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14) A Bill which is reserved for the consideration of the President who has to declare his assent within -
a. a maximum period of 6 months;
b. a maximum period of 3 months;
c. No time is imposed by the Constitution upon the President either to declare his assent or withhold;
d. None of the above.
15) Which one of the following statements with regard to the Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana is NOT correct?
a. It was launched in the year 2014 on the birth anniversary of Lal Bahadur Shastri.
b. Members of the Parliament will adopt villages to create model villages.
c. District Magistrates will act as coordinates.
d. A Rajya Sabha MP has to choose a Gram Panchayat in the State from which he or she was elected.
16) In which of the following cases is it compulsory for Governor to send the Bill to the President for consideration?
a.Any kind of Money Bill;
b.Any kind of non Money Bill;
c.Where the law in question would derogate from the powers of the High Court under the constitution; d.Where the
law in question is related to control of law and order within the territory of the State.
17) Which of the following are the right provisions regarding the joint sitting of two Houses for resolving the deadlock
on a Bill?
1.Joint sitting can also be called for Financial Bills under Article-117;
2.Joint sitting is governed by the rules of procedure of Lok Sabha and not those of Rajya Sabha.
3.The presiding officer during the joint sitting is the Speaker of Lok Sabha and in his absence, the Deputy Speaker of
Lok Sabha and in his absence, a member of the panel of Chairpersons of Lok Sabha.
4.Joint Sitting is organised through an agreement between the presiding officers of Lok Sabha and Rajaya Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a.1 and 2;
b.1,2 and 3;
c.3 and 4;
d.All of these.
18) In which among the following situations Division in the House is essential?
1.Passing of a money bill; 2.Passing of any resolution of national importance; 3.Amending the Constitution; 4.Passing
a No-Confidence Motion
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1,2,3 and 4; b. 1,3 and 4 only; c. 1 and 2 only; d. 3 and 4 only.
19) Which of the following is correct with reference to ‘breach of privilege’ of Parliament?
(1) Parliamentary Privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament, individually
and collectively, so that they can “effectively discharge their functions”.
(2)When any of these rights and immunities are disregarded, the offence is called a breach of privilege and is
punishable under rules of Parliament.
(3)A notice is moved in the form of a motion by any member of either House against those being held guilty
of breach of privilege.
(4)The Speaker/Chairperson can decide on the privilege motion himself or herself or refer it to the privileges
committee of the Parliament.
Codes:
a. All are correct;
b. 1,3 and 4 only;
c. 1 and 2 only;
d. 3 and 4 only.
20) Which among the following actions may be initiated by the Speaker in the event of grave disorder occasioned by a
Member coming into the well of the House or abusing the rules of the House persistently and wilfully obstructing the
business by shouting slogans or otherwise?
1. Such Member may be suspended from the House for five consecutive sittings or for the reminder of the Session
whichever is less;
2. The Speaker may adjourn or suspend the business of the House in case of grave disorder;
3. The Speaker may direct the Member to withdraw from the House;
4. The Speaker may send the Member to judicial custody.
Select the Correct answer using the codes given below:
a.1,2,3 and 4; b. 1,2 and 3 only; c. 1 and 4 only; d. 2 and 3 only.
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21) Which of the following circumstances would lead to the resignation of the Union government?
1.When Parliament fails to pass the budget;
2.When Parliament fails to pass a Constitution Amendment Bill introduced by the Government.
3.When a Bill introduced by the government cannot be passed in the Rajya Sabha.
4.When the vote after the debate on a motion for discussing a major policy initiative of the government goes against
the government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a.1,3 and 4;
b.1 and 4;
c.None of these;
d.All of these.
22) Which of the following is correct with reference to ‘breach of privilege’ of Parliament?
(1) Rule No 222 in Chapter 20 of the Lok Sabha Rule Book and correspondingly Rule 187 in Chapter 16 of
the Rajya Sabha rulebook governs privilege.
(2)The Constitution also extends the parliamentary privileges to certain other dignitaries like the Attorney
General of India.
(3)The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the President who is also an integral part of the
Parliament. Article 361 of the Constitution provides for privileges for the President.
(4)Privilege Committee is a Standing Committee to examine breach of privilege cases. Lok Sabha committee
has 15 members, while the Rajya Sabha committee has 10 members.
Codes:
a. All are correct; b. 1,3 and 4 only; c. 1 and 2 only; d. 3 and 4 only.
23)Which of the following statements vis-à-vis Private Member bills is/are incorrect?
a)Two and a half hours are allotted in the Lok Sabha on every alternative Friday for Private Member Bills. The other
alternative Friday is allotted for Private Member Resolutions.
b)In Rajya Sabha the entire sitting except the Question hour of a Friday is allotted to Private member business.
c)The stages through which a Government Bill and Private Member Bill have to cross are the same in the Parliament.
d)A Private Member can introduce a maximum of three bills in a session.
24) Wlhich of the following statements vis-à-vis Official bills is/are INCORRECT?
(1)Financial Memoranda inviting attention to the clauses envisaging expenditure should be got prepared by the MoF.
(2)A Memorandum explaining the proposal for ‘delegation of legislative power’ should be got prepared by DoPT.
(3)Recommendation of the President to introduce certain bills have to be obtained by the Administrative Ministry.
Code:
(a)All the three statements are correct;
(b) None of the statements is correct;
(c) 1 and 3 correct;
(d) No.3 alone is correct.
28) Consider the following statements vis-à-vis ‘circulating a bill for public opinion’:
(1) When a Bill is introduced in the House, public opinion is called for through advertisement;
(2) When a Bill is introduced in the House, public opinion is elicited through media and Parliament’s website;
(3) When a Bill is introduced in the House, public opinion is called from from State Governments only;
(4) Public opinion is called for from all the States and UTs who publish the bill in their own Gazettes for public opinion
and then forward the consolidated opinion of the public to the House from which reference was received.
Code:
(a)All are right;
(b) All are wrong;
(c) All but (1) are right;
(d) All but (4) are right.
30) Consider the following statements vis-à-vis Joint Session to consider a disputed non-Money bill:
(1) The President will notify the House through a message of his intention for joint session to deliberate on the
disputed bill and voting on it.
(2) If the House is not in session, it will be notified through a public notification. Once a Notification has been issued,
neither House should proceed with the Bill.
(3) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha (Vice President) will preside over the Joint Sitting.
(4) In the joint sitting, no amendment can be proposed except those which are found necessary due to delay in
passage of the bill.
Codes:
(a) All the statements are correct;
(b) All are incorrect;
(c) All but (2) are correct;
(d) All but (3) are correct.
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ANSWER KEY TO OBJ.TEST ON PARLIAMENTARY PROCEDURE, 2022 TB
1 C 11 C 21 C 31 B 41 A
2 C 12 D 22 D 32 D 42 C
3 A 13 A 23 D 33 C 43 C
4 A 14 D 24 B 34 D 44 C
5 C 15 C 25 C 35 D 45 C
6 C 16 D 26 D 36 D 46 D
7 C 17 A 27 B 37 D 47 C
8 C 18 C 28 D 38 D 48 C
9 B 19 D 29 D 39 C 49 C
10 B 20 B 30 A 40 A 50 A
1 B 11 D 21 B
2 B 12 D 22 A
3 B 13 A 23 D
4 A 14 C 24 D
5 A 15 A 25 D
6 A 16 C 26 D
7 B 17 B 27 A
8 B 18 A 28 D
9 A 19 A 29 C
10 A 20 B 30 D