Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1of 24

SBI Clerk Prelims 202233 (SOLUTION)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. (b):The proof of all options except option (b) being an effect of climate change can be derived from the entirety of
the first paragraph of the passage.
Thus, option (b) is the correct answer, as it does not find any mention in the passage explicitly as an effect of
climate change.
2. (c): To corroborate the truth of option (c), refer to the lines of the second paragraph “Permanently frozen ground, or
permafrost, is thawing more rapidly, threatening the release of large amounts of long-stored carbon that could
in turn make warming even worse, in what scientists call a climate feedback loop.”
This makes option (c) the correct choice of answer.
3. (d):The validity of option (d) as an answer can be found in the third paragraph of the passage. Refer to the lines
stating “Prominent researchers have warned that the acceleration of ice loss and other effects of climate change
have brought the world “dangerously close” to abrupt and irreversible changes, or tipping points. … ‘In our view,
the consideration of tipping points helps to define that we are in a climate emergency’…”
All other options fail to incorporate the account in the text. Thus, option (d) is the correct answer to the question
S4. (e): To justify the correctness of option (e) as the answer, refer to the entirety of the fourth paragraph which states
“Using satellite data, a 2018 study found that global sea level rise is now about 4.5 millimetres a year. The rate is
increasing by about a 10th of a millimetre a year … there is a high level of uncertainty about future sea levels.”
All other options are either wrong or incorrectly state the facts in the quoted text. Thus, option (e) becomes the
obvious answer.
5. (b):Option (a) is incorrect as can be understood by referring to the first line of the third passage “Prominent
researchers have warned that the acceleration of ice loss and other effects of climate change have brought the
world “dangerously close” to abrupt and irreversible changes, or tipping points.”
The given text and the following states that tipping points are abrupt and irreversible changes to the world due
to climate change. Thus, option (a) is wrong.
To confirm the validity of option (b), refer to the lines in the third paragraph which say, “Among these, the
researchers said, were the collapse of at least part of the West Antarctic ice sheet — which itself could
eventually raise sea levels by four feet or more — or the loss of the Amazon rainforest.”
The above text corroborates the truth of the fact that the loss of Amazon forest will be one of the consequences
of rise in sea levels. Thus, the statement given by option (b) is correct.
To check if option (c) is correct, refer to the sentence in the second paragraph which says that “the amount of
Arctic sea ice has declined so rapidly that the region may see ice-free summers by the 2030s.”
The quoted text mentions that the rapid melting of Arctic sea ice will result in absence of ice in summers in the
surrounding region. The statement given by option (c) is thus irrelevant and cannot be proved to be true.
For option (d), refer to the sentence in the second paragraph, stating that “glaciers are melting at a pace many
researchers did not expect for decades.” This directly contradicts the statement given by option (d), as the ice is
melting at an unprecedented rate. Thus, option (d) is wrong.
To check if the statement given by option (e) is correct, refer to the beginning lines of the fourth paragraph,
which state “Using satellite data, a 2018 study found that global sea level rise is now about 4.5 millimetres a
year. The rate is increasing by about a 10th of a millimetre a year.” From this we conclude that the rise in sea
level is recorded to be 4.5 millimetres presently, and the rate of increase in sea level is increasing by a 10 th of a
millimetre a year. This makes option (e) incorrect.
As option (b) gives the only correct statement, it becomes the answer to the given question
6. (d):The author states in the last paragraph that the only solution is to “get rid of fossil fuels in power production,
industry and transportation”. This indicates that these activities are the ones responsible for the current
conditions of climate, and thus, the use of fossil fuels is the main factor for climate change.

1
As option (d) is fully and completely correct on its own, the correct answer to the question is option (d).
7. (a): mitigation – the action of reducing the severity, seriousness, or painfulness of something
alleviation – the action or process of making suffering, deficiency, or a problem less severe
escalation – a rapid increase; a rise
intensification – the action of making or becoming more intense
augmentation – the action or process of making or becoming greater in size or amount
aggravation – the state of becoming worse or more serious; exacerbation
8. (b):The definitions of some words are given below to aid in understanding the answer:
inculcate – instil (an idea, attitude, or habit) by persistent instruction
inconsistency – the fact or state of being inconsistent
sustain – strengthen or support physically or mentally
impede – delay or prevent (someone or something) by obstructing them; hinder
shortcomings – a fault or failure to meet a certain standard, typically in a person's character, a plan, or a system
9. (d):The definitions of some words are given below to aid in understanding the answer:
trivial – of little value or importance
reprimand – a formal expression of disapproval
crucial – decisive or critical, especially in the success or failure of something
impersonate – pretend to be (another person) for entertainment or fraud
10. (d):Only the second words of the pairs of options (c), (d), and (e) follow coherency of tense. Among these options,
the first words of options (c) and (e) do not fit in their respective blanks contextually. Thus, option (d) becomes
the correct answer.
11. (a): Options (b) and (d) are disqualified on that basis of the fact that the second words of the pairs of these sentences
contain a noun and an adverb respectively, while the context requires a verb for the blank. Options (c) and (e)
are eliminated on the basis on not being fir for context.
The definitions of some words are given below to aid in understanding the answer:
refrain – stop oneself from doing something.
moderate (v) – make or become less extreme, intense, rigorous, or violent
12. (a): The definitions of some complex words are given below to aid in understanding the answer:
levity – the treatment of a serious matter with humour or lack of due respect
steer – guide or control the movement of
urgency – importance requiring swift action
13. (c): “To coincide” means “to occur at the same time”. Only options (i) and (ii) give the correct usage of the word. The
word does not provide any meaning to statement (iii).
For statement (iii), substituting “coincided” with “provided” can make it meaningful.
This makes statement (iii), “The factory provided its worker with a helmet and other safety equipment before
he began his shift.”
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
14. (a): “Dogged” means “having or showing tenacity and grim persistence”. Only options (ii) and (iii) give the correct
usage of the word. The word does not provide any meaning to statement (i).
For statement (i), substituting “dogged” with “insisted” can make it meaningful.
This makes statement (i), “Before he would give the man the keys to his car, the demanding mechanic insisted
on being paid.”
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
15. (d):“Unsurpassed” means “better or greater than any other”. Only option (iii) gives the correct usage of the word.
The word does not provide any meaning to statements (i) and (ii).
For statement (i), substituting “unsurpassed” with “determined” can make it meaningful.
This makes statement (i), “People told Judy that she couldn’t be a cop, but she was determined to prove them
wrong.”
For statement (ii), substituting “unsurpassed” with “obsessed” can make it meaningful.
his makes statement (i), “The workout fanatic was obsessed with losing weight and spent night and day in the
gym.”
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).

2
16. (a): In option (a) the verb “yield” should be used in its second form, “yielded”, as the sentence is in simple past tense.
Thus, option (a) contains the error and becomes the answer.
17. (b):In option (b), the context indicates singularity of the subject (an individual), and thus, “needs” is the only
deviation from grammatical and contextual accuracy in the sentence. It must be replaced with “need”, as it
follows “does”, and according to the rules of subject-verb agreement. Thus, as option (b) contains an error, it
becomes the choice of answer.
18. (c): Option (c) contains the error as “supervision” is meant to be associative of “a doctor” and the missing
apostrophe makes that part of the sentence devoid of meaning. Changing “doctors” to “doctor’s”, the
grammatical structure of the sentence is restored. The answer to the question becomes option (c).
19. (d):Option (d) contains an error as “their” has to be replaced with “his” as the subject is singular. Thus option (d) is
to be marked as the answer.
20. (b):In option (b), “clear” has to be replaced with “clearly” as the latter is an adverb, and an adverb is what can
describe how the objects of the sentence can “see”. Thus, option (b) is the answer.
21. (d):Only the given option gives a match that forms a grammatically consistent and contextually coherent sentence.
The sentence thus formed is, “Glaring out at the crowd, the angry police officer ordered the protesters to leave
immediately.
22. (a): Only the given option gives a match that forms a grammatically consistent and contextually coherent sentence.
The sentence thus formed is, “If any of the guests remain in the lobby, the ushers will lead them to their seats
shortly.”
23. (b):Only the given option gives a match that forms a grammatically consistent and contextually coherent sentence.
The sentence thus formed is, “The nun displayed her generosity by dedicating her entire life to the church’s
orphanage.”
24. (e): Only the given option gives a match that forms a grammatically consistent and contextually coherent sentence.
The sentence thus formed is, “The woman felt like a snitch when reporting her co-workers, but knew it was the
right thing to do.”
25. (b):Only the given option gives a match that forms a grammatically consistent and contextually coherent sentence.
The sentence thus formed is, “He had no idea that his proposal would evoke such negative reactions from his
colleagues.”
26. (d):The given sentence is an account and not a general truth, and thus is in simple past tense. Only option (d)
adheres to that tense while also following subject-verb agreement very well unlike some other options. Thus,
option (d) is the answer.
27. (b):Only option (b) follows subject-verb agreement, while giving the required preposition “to” which the context
requires, and following the proper tense. “informations” is wrong as “information” is a mass noun/uncountable
noun, therefore it does not have a plural form. Thus, option (b) is the correct answer.
28. (d):Prepositions “in” and “of” suitably connect the schools to the town as part of the subject. Also, although a
reference for the tense of the sentence is unfounded, the change in tense plays no role among the options
anyway as they are already eliminated on the basis of inclusion of the preposition “on”. Moreover, “in order to”
is the only phrase that make grammatical and contextual sense. All these points of accuracy can be observed in
option (d), and thus, it is the preferred answer.
29. (e): The given sentence contains no errors, and this no correction is required. Option (e) becomes the answer to the
question.
30. (c): As the word “tend” is intended to be an extension of the adjective “pliable”, it should be in present continuous
form as no conjunction is provided to separate the context. Option (c) is the answer.
31. (c):

3
32. (d):

33. (b):

34. (a):

35. (b):

36. (c):

S37. (b):

4
38. (a):

39. (e):

40. (b):

41. (c):

42. (b):

5
43. (b):

44. (d):

45. (a):

46. (d):

47. (a):

48. (d):

49. (e):

6
50. (b):

51. (a):

52. (d):

53. (d):

54. (e):

55. (a):

7
56. (c):

57. (c):

58. (a):

59. (d):

60. (b):

61. (c):

8
62. (d):

63. (c):

64. (a):

65. (e):

66. (b):From the given statements, five boxes are placed below box Q. One box is placed between box P and box Q. Here
we have 2 possible cases. Three boxes are placed between box P and box K.

Box O is placed three places above box K. Here Case 2 is ruled out now.

Box M is placed three places below box N. Box J is not placed at bottom most position. Which means box L is
placed at the bottom most position. So, the final arrangement is-

9
5th position of box N from the bottom most position

67. (c): From the given statements, five boxes are placed below box Q. One box is placed between box P and box Q. Here
we have 2 possible cases. Three boxes are placed between box P and box K.

Box O is placed three places above box K. Here Case 2 is ruled out now.

Box M is placed three places below box N. Box J is not placed at bottom most position. Which means box L is
placed at the bottom most position. So, the final arrangement is-

Box K is placed immediate above box J

10
68. (d):From the given statements, five boxes are placed below box Q. One box is placed between box P and box Q. Here
we have 2 possible cases. Three boxes are placed between box P and box K.

Box O is placed three places above box K. Here Case 2 is ruled out now.

Box M is placed three places below box N. Box J is not placed at bottom most position. Which means box L is
placed at the bottom most position. So, the final arrangement is-

Box P is placed on the topmost position

69. (c): From the given statements, five boxes are placed below box Q. One box is placed between box P and box Q. Here
we have 2 possible cases. Three boxes are placed between box P and box K.

Box O is placed three places above box K. Here Case 2 is ruled out now.

11
Box M is placed three places below box N. Box J is not placed at bottom most position. Which means box L is
placed at the bottom most position. So, the final arrangement is-

Four boxes are placed between box J and box P

70. (b):

71. (c):

72. (e):

12
73. (b):

74. (b):From the given statement, T sits three places away from K who does not sit in any middle side of table. Here we
get 2 possible cases. A sits immediate right of T.

H faces to U but both are not an immediate neighbor of A and T. From this condition case 1 is ruled out now.

V sits 2nd to the left of U and sits immediate left of S. N sits immediate right of J. Now only one place left i.e., for R.
So, the final arrangement is-

sits opposite to R
75. (d): From the given statement, T sits three places away from K who does not sit in any middle side of table. Here we
get 2 possible cases. A sits immediate right of T.

H faces to U but both are not an immediate neighbor of A and T. From this condition case 1 is ruled out now.

13
V sits 2nd to the left of U and sits immediate left of S. N sits immediate right of J. Now only one place left i.e., for R.
So, the final arrangement is-

R and K are the immediate neighbours of H

76. (c): From the given statement, T sits three places away from K who does not sit in any middle side of table. Here we
get 2 possible cases. A sits immediate right of T.

H faces to U but both are not an immediate neighbor of A and T. From this condition case 1 is ruled out now.

V sits 2nd to the left of U and sits immediate left of S. N sits immediate right of J. Now only one place left i.e., for R.
So, the final arrangement is-

14
Two persons sit between N and S, when counted from left side of N
77. (c): From the given statement, T sits three places away from K who does not sit in any middle side of table. Here we
get 2 possible cases. A sits immediate right of T.

H faces to U but both are not an immediate neighbor of A and T. From this condition case 1 is ruled out now.

V sits 2nd to the left of U and sits immediate left of S. N sits immediate right of J. Now only one place left i.e., for R.
So, the final arrangement is-

U sits third to the left of K


78. (b): From the given statement, T sits three places away from K who does not sit in any middle side of table. Here we
get 2 possible cases. A sits immediate right of T.

15
H faces to U but both are not an immediate neighbor of A and T. From this condition case 1 is ruled out now.

V sits 2nd to the left of U and sits immediate left of S. N sits immediate right of J. Now only one place left i.e., for R.
So, the final arrangement is-

Except T all of them sit in the middle side of table

79. (e): Both follow – there is no direct relation between Laptop and Watch but in possibility its hold true in the both
conclusions.

80. (c): Both are not followed individually in definite statement but satisfy either or condition so either I or II holds true

81. (b): I does not follow because no direct relation between Game and card
II follow because no relation between Game and card but in possibility its holds true

16
82. (a): From the given statements, V sits diagonally opposite to L. Here we get 2 possible cases. Two persons sit
between L and M.

Y sits 2nd to the right of the one who faces to M. Here Case 2 is ruled out because no place left of Y in case 2.

J faces to W who sits right of Z. K does not sit at any extreme ends of row. After these conditions’ places of X, N
and K are fixed. So, the final arrangement is-

L sits opposite to X
83. (c): From the given statements, V sits diagonally opposite to L. Here we get 2 possible cases. Two persons sit
between L and M.

17
Y sits 2nd to the right of the one who faces to M. Here Case 2 is ruled out because no place left of Y in case 2.

J faces to W who sits right of Z. K does not sit at any extreme ends of row. After these conditions’ places of X, N and K
are fixed. So, the final arrangement is-

N sits immediate right of M

84. (a): From the given statements, V sits diagonally opposite to L. Here we get 2 possible cases. Two persons sit
between L and M.

Y sits 2nd to the right of the one who faces to M. Here Case 2 is ruled out because no place left of Y in case 2.

J faces to W who sits right of Z. K does not sit at any extreme ends of row. After these conditions’ places of X, N
and K are fixed. So, the final arrangement is-

18
Y sits opposite to K
85. (b): From the given statements, V sits diagonally opposite to L. Here we get 2 possible cases. Two persons sit
between L and M.

Y sits 2nd to the right of the one who faces to M. Here Case 2 is ruled out because no place left of Y in case 2.

J faces to W who sits right of Z. K does not sit at any extreme ends of row. After these conditions’ places of X, N
and K are fixed. So, the final arrangement is-

One person sits between W and X

86. (a):

19
87. (c):

88. (a):

89. (d):

90. (b): From the given statements, there are two floors gap between P and D but both of them does not live in the same
flat. P lives on an even numbered floor. S lives on an odd numbered floor and to the west of B’s flat. Here, we
have two possible cases i.e., case1 and case2.

Only one floor gap is between P and C. C and D live in the different flat. A is living above Q’s floor in the same
flat. R is living on an even numbered flat. So, case1 gets eliminated here and the final arrangement is:

91. (c): From the given statements, there are two floors gap between P and D but both of them does not live in the same
flat. P lives on an even numbered floor. S lives on an odd numbered floor and to the west of B’s flat. Here, we
have two possible cases i.e., case1 and case2.

20
Only one floor gap is between P and C. C and D live in the different flat. A is living above Q’s floor in the same
flat. R is living on an even numbered flat. So, case1 gets eliminated here and the final arrangement is:

92. (e): From the given statements, there are two floors gap between P and D but both of them does not live in the same
flat. P lives on an even numbered floor. S lives on an odd numbered floor and to the west of B’s flat. Here, we
have two possible cases i.e., case1 and case2.

Only one floor gap is between P and C. C and D live in the different flat. A is living above Q’s floor in the same
flat. R is living on an even numbered flat. So, case1 gets eliminated here and the final arrangement is:

93. (d):From the given statements, there are two floors gap between P and D but both of them does not live in the same
flat. P lives on an even numbered floor. S lives on an odd numbered floor and to the west of B’s flat. Here, we
have two possible cases i.e., case1 and case2.

Only one floor gap is between P and C. C and D live in the different flat. A is living above Q’s floor in the same
flat. R is living on an even numbered flat. So, case1 gets eliminated here and the final arrangement is:

21
94. (c): From the given statements, there are two floors gap between P and D but both of them does not live in the same
flat. P lives on an even numbered floor. S lives on an odd numbered floor and to the west of B’s flat. Here, we
have two possible cases i.e., case1 and case2.

Only one floor gap is between P and C. C and D live in the different flat. A is living above Q’s floor in the same
flat. R is living on an even numbered flat. So, case1 gets eliminated here and the final arrangement is:

95. (e):

96. (a):

97. (b):

98. (a): From the given statements, R scores 5 runs more than V. Here we get 3 possible cases.

M scores 3 runs more than R. Here Case 3 is ruled out now. Difference between Scores of A and P is 1 run. Here
case 2 is ruled out now. Which means S scores 14 runs.

No one score between M and A. So, the final arrangement is-

22
V scores 11 runs

99. (a): From the given statements, R scores 5 runs more than V. Here we get 3 possible cases.

M scores 3 runs more than R. Here Case 3 is ruled out now. Difference between Scores of A and P is 1 run. Here
case 2 is ruled out now. Which means S scores 14 runs.

No one score between M and A. So, the final arrangement is-

P score the highest runs

100. (c): From the given statements, R scores 5 runs more than V. Here we get 3 possible cases.

23
M scores 3 runs more than R. Here Case 3 is ruled out now. Difference between Scores of A and P is 1 run. Here
case 2 is ruled out now. Which means S scores 14 runs.

No one score between M and A. So, the final arrangement is-

3 runs difference between the scores of M and P

24

You might also like