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Vmts Jee Part Test 7
Vmts Jee Part Test 7
PHYSICS
1. Electron volt is a unit of
(A) potential (B) Charge (C) Power (D) Energy
2. If alpha particle, proton and electron move with the same momentum, then their respective de Broglie wavelengths
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, p, e are related as
(A) = p= e (B) < p< e (C) > p> e (D) p > e >
D
3. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron having kinetic energy E is given by the expression
h 2h 2 2mE
(A) (B) (C) 2mhE (D)
4.
2mE mE
N h
When the energy of the incident radiation is increased by 20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted
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from a metal surface increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work function of the metal is
(A) 1.3 eV (B) 1.5 eV (C) 0.65 eV (D) 1.0 eV
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5. Light of wavelength 5000Å falls on a sensitive plate with photoelectric work function of 1.9 eV. The kinetic energy
of the photoelectron emitted will be
(A) 0.58 eV (B) 2.48 eV (C) 1.24 eV (D) 1.16 eV
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6. The number of photons of wavelength 540 nm emitted per second by an electric bulb of power 100W is (taking h =
6 × 10–34 J-s)
ET
7. Two identical metal plates show photoelectric effect by a light of wavelength A falling on plate A and B on plate B
(A = 2B). The maximum kinetic energy is
(A) 2KA = KB (B) KA < KB/2 (C) KA = 2KB (D) KA > KB/2
8. If V be the accelerating voltage, then the maximum frequency of continuous X-rays is given by
eh hv eV h
(A) (B) (C) (D)
V e h eV
9. On increasing the number of electrons striking the anode of an X-ray tube, which one of the following parameters
of the resulting X-rays would increase
(A) penetration power (B) Frequency (C) Wavelength (D) Intensity
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11. K and K X- rays are emitted when there is a transition of electron between the levels
(A) n = 2 to n = 1 and n =3 to n = 1 respectively
(B) n = 2 to n = 1 and n =3 to n = 2 respectively
(C) n = 3 to n = 2 and n =4 to n = 2 respectively
(D) n = 3 to n = 2 and n =4 to n = 3 respectively
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n 2h 2 n 2h 2 4n 2 h 2 4n 2 h 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 2 m 2 r 3 2n 2 r 3 2 m 2 r 3 4 2 m 2 r 3
The nuclear reaction 2H + 2H 4He (mass of deuteron = 2.0141 a.m.u. and mass of he = 4.0024 a.m.u.) is
D
13.
(A) Fusion reaction releasing 24 MeV energy
(B) Fusion reaction absorbing 24 MeV energy
(C) Fission reaction releasing 0.0258 MeV energy
(D) Fission reaction absorbing 0.0258 MeV energy
N
SI
14. A radioactive nucleus with Z protons and N neutrons emits an -particle, 2-particles and 2 gamma rays. The
number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus left after the decay respectively, are
(A) Z – 3, N – 1 (B) Z – 2, N – 2 (C) Z – 1, N – 3 (D) Z , N – 4
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238 A
92 U X Z Y
(A) 92, 236 (B) 88, 230 (C) 90, 234 (D) 91 , 234
16. A radioactive nucleus undergoes - emission to form a stable element. What will be the recoil velocity of the
daughter nucleus if V is the velocity of -emission and A is the atomic mass of radioactive nucleus
3V 2V 4V 2V
(A) (B) (C) (D)
A4 A4 A4 A4
17. If 10% of a radioactive material decays in 5 days, then the amount of original material left after 20 days is approxi-
mately
(A) 60 % (B) 65 % (C) 70 % (D) 75 %
18. Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constants 5 and respectively. At t = 0 they have the same
2
1
number of nuclei. The ratio of number of nuclei of A to those of B will be after a time interval
e
1 1
(A) (B) 4 (C) 2 (D)
4 2
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19. A load of 10 kN is supported from a pulley, which in turn is supported by a rope of cross-sectional area 103 mm–2 and
modulus of elasticity 103 Nmm2 as shown in the figure. Neglecting friction at the pulley, then downward deflection
of the load (in mm) is
600 mm 900 mm
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D
10 kN
20.
(A) 3.75 (B) 4.25
N (C) 2.75 (D) 4.00
A body is in the form of solid revolution, radius of upper face of the body is r0 and volumetric density is . The solid
body supports a load P. If the compressive stress at all cross-sections should be same, then the radius r as a
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function of y (see figure) is
r0
P
y
O
O
r0 r02 y/2P
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23. A liquid of density is in a bucket that spins with angular velocity as shown in the figure. What is the pressure
at point A, which is at a radial distance r from the centre as shown in the figure ? Atmospheric pressure is p0.
r A
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2 r 2 2 2 2 1 2 2
(A) p 0 (B) p 0 r (C) p 0 r (D) None of the above
2 3 3
D
24. The tension in a string holding a solid block below the surface of a liquid (of denstiy greater than that of solid) as
shown in figure is T0, when the system is at rest. What will be tension in the string if the system has an upward
acceleration a?
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SI
a
O
O
a a
(A) T0 (B) T0 1
g g
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a
(C) T0 (a g) (D) T0 1
g
25. An incompressible liquid flows through a horizontal tube as shown in the figure. The velocity v of the fluid is
(Given, v1 = 3 ms–1 and v2 = 1.5 ms–1)
2
etre
Am v2
v1
2
A metre
1.5
Am v
etr 2
e
(A) 3 ms–1 (B) 1.5 ms–1 (C) 1.0 ms–1 (D) 2.25 ms–1
26. In a horizontal pipeline of uniform area of cross-section, the pressure falls by 8 Nm–2 between two points separated
by 1 km. What is change in KE per kg of the oil flowing at these points ? (Given, oil = 800 kgm–3)
(A) 0.1 Jkg–1 (B) 0.001 Jkg–1 (C) 1 Jkg–1 (D) 0.01 Jkg–1
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27. Eight spherical raindrops of equal size are falling vertically through air with terminal velocity of 0.10 ms–1. What
should be the terminal velocity if these drops were to combine to form one large spherical drop ?
(A) 0.1 ms–1 (B) 0.3 ms–1 (C) 0.6 ms–1 (D) 0.4 ms–1
28. A marble of mass x and diameter 2r is gently released in a tall cylinder containing honey. If the marble displaces mass
y (< x ) of the liquid, then the terminal velocity is proportional to
xy xy
(A) x + y (B) x – y (C) (D)
r r
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29. How much work will be done in increasing the diameter of a soap bubble from 2 cm to 5 cm ? Surface tension of soap
solution is 3 × 10–2 Nm–1.
(A) 2.96 × 10–4 J (B) 3.96 × 10–4 J (C) 4.96 × 10–4 J (D) 1.96 × 10–4 J
30. There is a rectangular wire frame having a thin film of soap solution. A circular ring of massless thin wire of area of
D
cross-section A is placed on the surface of the film. The radius of the ring is R. Now, inside portion of the ring is
pricked. If the surface tension of soap solution is T and Young’s modulus of wire is Y, then change in radius of the
wire is
N
SI
R
O
TR 2 2TR 2 TR 2 TR 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
AY AY 3AY 2AY
O
ET
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CHEMISTRY
31. How many possible monochloro products (without counting mirror images) are formed when methyl cyclohexane is
treated with Cl2 in presence of sunlight?
32. (a), (b) and (c) are elements in the third short period. Oxide of (a) is ionic , that of (b) is amphoteric and of (c) a giant
molecule. (a), (b) and (c) have atomic numbers in the order of-
(A) (a) < (b) < (c) (B) (c) < (b) < (a) (C) (a) < (c) < (b) (D) (b) < (a) < (c)
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H 2O , H 2SO 4 / HgSO 4
33. B D2O
, HgSO 4 / H 2SO 4
A,
A, B and C are
D
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(A)
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(B) Y, X and Z
(C) Y in all cases
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34. Which of the following atomic numbers belong to III A group of the periodic table-
(A) 3, 11, 19, 37 (B) 5, 13, 21, 39 (C) 7, 15, 31, 49 (D) 5, 13, 37, 49
ET
35. Four Newman projection formula of compound CH2OH–CHOH–CHOH–CHO are shown below, which of the following
represent erythro isomers.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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36. Which of the following have higher difference in the values of IInd and IIIrd I.P. –
(A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1 (B) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
(C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (D) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
H5C2 Cl H5C2 Cl
37. Statement 1 : C=C and are structural isomers.
C=C
CH3 Br
Br CH3
Statement 2 : The above mentioned compounds can show geometrical isomerism.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
(D) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
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38. Which of the following oxide is neutral ?
(A) CO (B) SnO2 (C) ZnO (D) SiO2
39. X
LiAlH
4 Y + Z
Both Y & Z give +ve iodoform test. Structure of X is: D
N
O
||
SI
(A) CH 3CH 2 C O CH 2 CH 3
O
||
O
(B) CH 3 C O CH
CH 3 O
O
| ||
(C) CH 3 C — — C — O CH — CH 3
| |
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CH 3 CH 3
O
||
(D) CH 3 CH— C — O CH — CH 3
| |
CH 3 CH 3
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(A) I > II > III (B) III > II > I (C) I > III > II (D) II > III > I
F Cl
42. CH3 C CH2 C CH3
CH2CH3 CH2CH3
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The IUPAC name of this compound is :
(A) 2-fluoro-4-chloro-2,4-diethyl pentane (B) 3-fluoro-5-chloro-3-methyl-5-ethyl hexane
(C) 3-chloro-5-fluoro-3,5-dimethyl heptane (D) 3,5-dimethyl -5-fluoro-3-chloro heptane
43.
(A) Ca(OH)2 (B) Na2CO3
D
Both temporary and permanent hardness is removed on boiling water with -
(C) CaCO3 (D) CaO
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44. IUPAC name of the following compound is –
O
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CH3–CH CH–C–CH2Br
C
O
O
H3 C CH3
(A)1-Bromo-3,5-epoxy-4,4-dimethyl-2-hexanone (B)1-Bromo-3,3-dimethyl-2-oxo-2-hexanone
O
Cl Br Cl Br
I. C=C II. C=C
H Br H CH3
Cl CH3 H Br
III. C=C IV. C=C
Br H Cl CH3
(A) I and II (B) I and III (C) II and IV (D) III and IV
46. Which one of the following compounds is most reactive for ArSN2 reaction ?
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97°
180° H O H
(A) (B) O–O (C) OH (D) O=O
H–O–O–H H H H
48. What is formed when calcium carbide reacts with heavy water ?
(A) C2D2 (B) CaD2 (C) Ca2D2O (D) CD2
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50. The correct statements about the compounds a, b and c is/are
H
COOCH3
OH H
COOH
OH H
COOH
OH D
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H OH H OH OH H
COOH COOCH3 COOCH3
(a) (b) (c)
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(A) a and b are identical (B) a and b are diastereomers
(C) a and c are enantiomers (D) a and b are enantiomers
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51. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists -
List I List II
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(A) 1–C, 2–D, 3–B, 4–A (B) 1–B, 2–A, 3–C, 4–D
(C) 1–B, 2–D, 3–C, 4–A (D) 1–C, 2–A, 3–B, 4–D
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25 25
53. An optically pure compound X gave an []D = + 20.0°. A mixture of X and its enantiomer Y gave [ ]D = +10°.
The ratio of X to Y in the mixture is
CH 3
|
CH3–CH3 CD3–CD3 CH 3 C CH 3
|
CH 3
(I) (II) (III)
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(A) II < I < III (B) I < II < III (C) III < I < II (D) II < III < I
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(A) CH3CH2CH2CHCOOH ;
Cl
2-Chloro pentanoic acid
(B) CH3CCCHCOOH ;
Cl
2-Methyl hex-3-enoic acid
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CH3
4-Methyl pentanal
CONH 2
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is :
(A) 2-bromo methyl-3-oxo hexanamide
(B) 1-bromo-2-amido-3-oxo hexane
O
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MATHEMATICS
61. If a > 2b > 0 then the positive value of m for which y = mx – b 1 m2 is a common tangent to x2 + y2 = b2 and (x –
a)2 + y2 = b2 is
2b a 2 4b 2 2b b
(A) 2 2 (B) (C) (D)
a 4b 2b a 2b a 2b
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62. The equation of the circle passing through (1, 1) and the points of intersection of the circles x2 + y2 + 13x –3y = 0 and
2x2 + 2y2 + 4x –7y –25 = 0 is
(A) 4x2 + 4y2 – 30x – 10y – 25 = 0 (B) 4x2 + 4y2 + 30x – 13y – 25 = 0
D
2 2
(C) 4x + 4y – 17x + 10y + 25 = 0 (D) None of these
dy ax 3
63. If the solution of the differential equation represents a circle, then the value of ‘a’ is
(A) 2 (B) –2
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dx 2y f
(C) 3 (D) – 4
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64. 8-digit numbers are formed using the digits 1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 4, 4. The number of such number in which the odd digits
do not occupy odd places, is-
(A) 60 (B) 48 (C) 160 (D) 120
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dy
65. If y(x) is the solution of the differential equation (x + 2) = x2 + 4x –9, x –2 and y(0) = 0, then y(– 4) is equl to-
dx
(A) 2 (B) 0 (C) –1 (D) 1
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67. The distance, from the origin, of the normal to the curve, x = 2 cos t + 2t sin t, y = 2 sin t – 2t cos t at t = , is
4
68. If all the words, with or without meaning, are written using the letters of the word QUEEN and are arranged as in
English dictionary, then the position of the word QUEEN is :
(A) 47th (B) 45th (C) 46th (D) 44th
69. The tangent at the point (2, – 2) to the curve x2y2 –2x = 4(1 – y) does not pass through the point :
1
(A) (–2, – 7) (B) (8, 5) (C) (–4, – 9) (D) 4,
3
70. Equation of the tangent to the circle, at the point (1, –1), whose centre is the point of intersection of the straight lines
x – y = 1 and 2x + y = 3 is :
(A) x + 4y + 3 = 0 (B) x – 3y – 4 = 0 (C) 4x + y – 3 = 0 (D) 3x – y – 4 = 0
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3
71. Let C be a curve given by y(x) = 1 +4x 3 , x > 4 . If P is a point on C, such that the tangent at P has slope 2/3 then
a point through whicht the normal at P passes, is
(A) (3, –4) (B) (1, 7) (C) (2, 3) (D) 4, –3
dy y tan x
72. The solution of the differential equation + sec x , where 0 x < and y(0) = 1, is given by :
dx 2 2y 2
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2 x x x 2 x
(A) y 1 (B) y 1 (C) y 1 (D) y 1
sec x tan x sec x tan x sec x tan x sec x tan x
73. If point P has co-ordinates (0, –2) and Q is any point on the circle, x2 + y2 – 5x – y + 5 = 0 then the maximum value of
(PQ)2 is-
D
47 10 6 25 6
(A) 8 5 3 (B) (C) 14 5 3 (D)
2 2
74.
the abscissa increases, are
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The coordinates of the point on the ellipse 16x2 + 9y2 = 400 where the ordinate decreases at the same rate at which
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(A) (3, 16 / 3) (B) (–3, 16 / 3) (C) (3, –16 / 3) (D) (3, – 3)
75. The number of numbers between 2,000 and 5,000 that can be formed with the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 (repitition of digits is
not allowed) and are multiple of 3 is :
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1
77. If the Rolle’s theorem holds for the function f(x) = 2x3 + ax2 + bx in the interval [–1, 1] for the point c , then the
2
value of 2a + b is
(A) 2 (B) –2 (C) –1 (D) 1
78. The set of all real values of for which exactly two common tangents can be drawn to the circles
x2 + y2 – 4x – 4y + 6 = 0 and x2 + y2 – 10x – 10y + = 0 is the interval
(A) (18, 48) (B) 12, 24) (C) 18, 42) (D) (12, 32)
79. The volume of the largest possible right circular cylinder that can be inscribed in a sphere of radius = 3 is
4 8
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 3 (D) 2
3 3
dy 1 , x [0,1]
80. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation 2y f (x) , where f (x)
dx 0 , otherwise
3
If y(0) = 0. then y is :
2
e2 1 1 e2 1 e2 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
e3 2e 2e 4 2e3
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81. Two different families A and B are blessed with equal number of children. There are 3 tickets to be distributed
amongst the children of these families so that no child gets more than one ticket. If the probability that all the tickets
1
go to the children of the family B is , then the number of children in each family is :
12
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 4
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83. If two parallel chords of the a circle, having diameter 4 units, lie on the opposite sides of the centre and subtend
1 1
angles cos and sec–1(7) at the centre respectively, then the distance between these chords, is
7
D
8 16 4 8
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7 7 7 7
84.
through the point :
1 1 1 1
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The curve satisfying the differential equation, ydx – (x + 3y2) dy = 9 and passing through the point (1, 1), also passes
1 1 1 1
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(A) , (B) , (C) , (D) ,
4 2 3 3 4 2 3 3
x
4 4
85. If f(x) = (ab +b +1) x+ (cos sin ) d is an increasing function of x for all x R and b R, b being independent
2
O
of x, then
(A) a (0, 6) (B) a ( 6, 6) (C) a ( 6,0) (D) None of these
O
x
2
86. If f(x) = (t 2t 2)dt , where x [2, 4], then
0
ET
32
(A) the maximum value of f(x) is (B) the minimum value of f(x) is 10
3
(C) the maximum value of f(x) is 26 (D) none of these
87. Two women and some men participated in a chess tournament in which every participant played two games with
each of the other participants. If the number of games that the men played between themselves exceeds the number
of games that the men played with the women by 66, then the number of men who participated in the tournament lies
in the interval :
(A) (14, 17) (B) [8, 9] (C) (11, 13] (D) [10, 12)
1 1
d2 y dy
88. If 2x y 5 y 5 and (x 2 1) 2
x ky 0 , then + k is equal to :
dx dx
(A) 26 (B) –24 (C) –23 (D) –26
89. The function f(x) = |ax – b| + c|x| x (–), where a > b > 0, c > 0, assumes its minimum value only at one point
if
(A) a b (B) a C (C) b c (D) a = b = c
x 2 y2
90. Let P(3sec, 2 tan ) and Q (3 sec, 2 tan) where , be two distinct points on the hyperbola 1.
2 9 4
Then the point of intersection of the normals at P and Q is
11 13 13 11
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2 2 3
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PHYSICS
ANSWER KEY
1. D 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. B
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29. B 30. B
CHEMISTRY
ANSWER KEY
D
N
31. D 32. A 33. A 34. D 35. A 36. C 37. B
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38. A 39. B 40. A 41. D 42. C 43. B 44. A
45. C 46. C 47. B 48. A 49. C 50. D 51. D
52. B 53. C 54. A 55. B 56. A 57. A 58. D
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59. B 60. A
O
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MATHEMATICS
ANSWER KEY
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