MICROBIOLOGY – PRELIMS PLATINGS

BACTERIAL MORPHOLOGY, STRUCTURE, CLASSIFICATION 12. Which of the following is the site of ribosomal RNA synthesis? 24. A 23-year old call center agent presents with hard painless ulcer on the shaft of his 36. Which of the ff reagents is used to demonstrate bacterial capsule?
1. A 67-year-old male diabetic admitted at the ICU was diagnosed with septic A. Peptidoglycan penis. A diagnosis of syphilis was made. This infection is caused by Treponema A. Carbol fuchsin
shock. This complication is attributable to which of the following bacterial B. Nucleolus pallidum. Which of the ff BEST describe this causative agent? B. Crystal violet
components? C. Cytoplasmic membrane A. Very fine irregular coils C. Methylene blue
A. Peptidoglycan D. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Very fine regular coils with hook on one or both ends D. Safranin
B. Core polysaccharide C. Fine regular coils with tapered ends
13. A bacterial sample was subjected to boiling water. Which of the following will allow 37. Which of the ff organisms is characterized by presence of metachromatic granules?
C. antigen D. Coarse irregular coils
certain bacteria to survive beyond boiling point? A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Lipid A – septic shock A. Outer membrane 25. These polymers are produced when phosphate is limited. B. B. subtilis
2. A 85-year old female who was confined for bacterial pneumonia developed B. Periplasmic space A. Teichuronic acid C. C. tetani
hypotension. Septic shock was entertained. Which of the following is the likely C. Spore B. Teichoic acid D. E. coli
cause of the patient’s condition? D. Pili C. Dipicolinic acid
D. Diaminopimelic acid 38. What is the role of safranin in gram staining?
A. O antigen 14. Swab taken from urethral discharge from a sexually active man revealed bacteria COUNTERSTAIN
B. Exotoxin appearing as a pair of spherical structures. Which of the following terms can be used 26. Which of the following is a distinctive characteristic of viruses?
C. Lipid A to describe the morphology of the bacteria? 39. If crystal violet is not available, what reagent can be used in its place?
A. Its ribosome is smaller than that of bacteria GENTIAN VIOLET
D. Core polysaccharide A. Coccobacilli B. Store energy and metabolites in the inclusion granules
3. Which of the following possess antigenic property? B. Diplococci C. Possess only one type of nucleic acid 40. Which component of the spore is responsible for its resistance to adverse
A. Capsule C. Spirillum D. Its outer covering is composed of glucan and mannan environmental conditions?
D. Diplobacilli DIPICOLINIC ACID or CALCIUM DIPICOLINATE
B. Peptidoglycan 27. The region between the outer membrane and the plasma membrane is the:
C. Spore 15. Which of the following is only present in gram negative outer membrane? A. Periplasm 41. Flagella are composed of which specific protein
D. Cytoplasmic membrane A. Teichuronic acid B. Lipoteichoic acid FLAGELLIN
4. A 23-year-old laborer presents with fever, hepatomegaly and icteric sclerae days B. Peptidoglycan C. Peptidoglycan 42. Flagella is usually arise from which bacterial structure?
after wading in floor waters. A diagnosis of leptospirosis caused by Leptospira C. Lipopolysaccharide D. Murein sacculus CYTOPLASMIC MEMBRANE
interrogans was made. Which of the ff BEST describe this causative agent? D. Dipicolinic acid
28. Which of the ff organisms is not Gram positive? 43. Metachromatic granules are more pronounced in older cells after growth has ceased
A. Very fine irregular coils 16. Which of the following BEST describes the bacterial chromosome? A. Staphylococcus TRUE
B. Very fine regular coils with hook on one or both ends A. Diploid B. Streptococcus
C. Course irregular coils B. Linear C. Neisseria 44. What specific characteristic of the organism’s cell wall accounts for the staining
D. Fine regular coils with tapered ends C. Feulgen positive D. Bacillus reaction of acid fast bacteria?
D. Double stranded HIGH LIPID CONTENT
5. A 10-year-old boy was seen by a pediatrician because of carbuncle on his right 29. Which of the ff organisms is not gram-negative?
buttocks. A gram stain of the discharge showed Gram positive cocci in clusters. 17. A 10-year old boy was seen by a pediatrician because of carbuncle on his right A. E. coli 45. 19. Which method of acid-fast staining is also known as the “hot method”?
Which of the following statements is correct regarding this bacterium? buttocks. A Gram stain of the discharge showed Gram positive cocci in clusters. Which B. Corynebacterium ZIEHL-NEELSEN
A. Its Gram stain reaction is due to the mycolic acid in the cell wall of the following is a component of the cell wall of this bacteria? C. Neisseria 46. What counterstain is used in the Kinyoun Method of acid-fast staining?
B. The cell wall is primarily composed of liposaccharide A. Lipooligosaccharide D. Veilonella MALACHITE GREEN
C. Has multi-layered peptidoglycan in its cell wall B. Liposaccharide
D. Its outer membrane is made up of lipoligosaccharide C. Mycolic acid 30. What is the function of flagella? 47. What is the appearance of the acid-fast bacilli after using the cold method of
D. Teichoic acid A. Energy and food storage staining. Give color of the organism and background.
6. Which of the following is correct regarding lipo-oligosaccharides? B. Resistance to adverse conditions RED ORGANISM, GREEN BACKGROUND
A. Lacks the long linear polysaccharide units 18. Mycoplasma is a group of bacteria that lacks C. Motility
B. Possess O antigen A. Cytoplasmic membrane 48. What is the primary stain used in acid-fast staining?
D. Production of energy
C. Toxic moiety of the outer membrane B. Ribosomes CARBOL FUCHSIN
D. Responsible for resistance to adverse environmental conditions C. Nucleic acids 31. Gram staining is an example of: 49. This gram staining reagent facilitates binding of the primary stain to the CW of
D. Cell wall A. Simple sstain gram positive organisms.
7. Which of the following is NOT part of the bacterial cell envelope? B. Differential stain
A. Peptidoglycan 19. Type of surface motility exhibited by piliated bacteria: IODINE
C. Special stain
B. Plasma membrane A. Aerotaxis D. Selective stain 50. In gram-negative organisms, which reagent is responsible for imparting color to
C. Cytoplasm B. Rotatory movement the organism
D. Capsule C. Twitching 32. Gram’s iodine functions as mordant. What is the role of mordant?
SAFRANIN
D. Gliding motility A. Facilitate uptake of the primary stain
8. Which of the following structures is not likely to be immunogenic? B. Give color of the gram positive organisms 51. The primary reagent in gram staining binds specifically to which component of
A. Cytoplasm 20. A tuft of flagella at one or both ends of the bacterial cell. C. Impart color to gram negative organisms the CW?
B. Flagella A. Amphitrichous D. Function as a counterstain PEPTIDOGLYCAN
C. Capsule B. Lophotrichous
D. Pili C. Monotrichous 33. Which of the ff stains is used to demonstrate the presence of spores?
METABOLISM/ PHYSIOLOGY/ GROWTH & NUTRITION
D. Atrichous A. Dorner
9. Which of the following is NOT a component of endospores? 1. Which phase in the bacterial growth curve is associated with beginning spore
B. LAMB
A. Chromosomes 21. Pili and fimbriae do not serve which function? formation?
C. Hiss
B. Diaminopimelic acid A. Cell wall division A. Decline phase
D. Leifson
C. Keratin coat B. Adhesion B. Stationary phase – sporulation
D. Small amount of moisture C. Anti-phagocytic 34. The gram staining reagent is responsible for the color of gram positive bacteria: C. Log phase
D. Genetic transfer A. Crystal violet D. Lag phase
10. Bacterial spores enable environmental survival against the following EXCEPT B. Gram’s iodine
A. Desiccation 22. Part of bacteria that plays a role in causing dental caries: 2. Which of the following organisms utilizes the Tricarboxylic acid Pathway?
C. Alcohol
B. Radiation A. Periplasmic space A. Microaerophilic
D. Safranin
C. Heat B. Outer membrane B. Obligate Aerobes
D. Antibiotics C. Plasma membrane 35. LAMB stain is used for visualization of which of the ff structures? C. Aerotolerant
D. Glycocalyx A. Cell wall D. Obligate Anaerobes
11. Which of the following is a feature of fimbriae? B. Flagella
A. Mediates bacterial conjugation 23. Which of the following is NOT a component of endospores? 3. Which environmental requirement is referred to if an organism is a mesophile?
C. Capsule
B. Antiphagocytic A. Calcium dipicolinate A. pH
D. Metachromatic granules
C. Target of antibiotics B. Volutin B. Osmotic pressure
D. Twitching motion C. Chromosomes C. Carbon dioxide
D. Keratin coat D. Temperature
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4. Which of the following is the major mechanism for generation of ATP of 15. This corresponds to the period of adjustment in bacterial growth: 4. The laboratory scientist needs to prepare and sterilize the enrichment culture 15. Which of the ff antiseptic agents classified under heavy metals is used as a
facultative anaerobes? A. Lag Phase – bacteria double its number medium for the day’s work. Which procedure/agent is required for this task? prophylactic solution against Ophthalmia neonatorum?
A. Pentose Phosphate Shunt B. Phase of Decline – wherein less viable cells are present A. Ethylene oxide A. Silver nitrate
B. Embden-Meyerhof- Parnas Pathway C. Log Phase B. HEPA B. silver sulfadiazine
C. Tricarboxylic acid Pathway D. Plateau Phase C. Autoclave – most efficient physical method of sterilization that kills all C. Merthiolate
D. Entner Doudoroff Pathway 2 16. Most medically important bacteria belong to this group based on O2 requirement: vegetative organisms including bacterial spores D. Iodine
5. Bacteroides fragilis, based on their oxygen requirement is classified as which of A. Facultative D. Hot air oven
16. To achieve complete sterilization of materials using an autoclave, which of the ff
the following? B. Obligate Aerobes 5. Which of the following agents can be used to preserve food and drinks? parameters must be implemented?
A. Microaerophilic C. Microaerophilic A. Ethyl alcohol A. 121 deg C at 20 psi for 20 min
B. Facultative anaerobe D. Aerotolerant – organisms that resist oxygen B. Aldehydes B. 100 deg C at 15 psi for 15 min
C. Aerobe C. Propionic acid C. 100 deg C at 15 psi for 20 min
17. The term facultative anaerobe refers to an organism that: D. 121 deg C at 15 psi for 15 min
D. Obligate anaerobe – organism that can’t exist in the presence of oxygen A. is killed by the presence of oxygen D. Mercurial
6. Autotrophs obtain their carbon source from which of the following? B. can grow both under aerobic and anaerobic conditions 6. To use a hot air oven for sterilization, the temperature and time should be set to 17. The process by reducing vegetative pathogens or harmful microorganisms from
A. Oxygen C. strictly requires oxygen for growth which of the following? inanimate objects and surfaces is called:
B. Glucose D. requires small amount of oxygen A. 1210C for 15 minutes at 15 psi A. Biocide
C. Nitrogen B. 1000C for 30 minutes B. Disinfection
18. An organism that can synthesize all its required organic components from CO2 C. Sanitation
D. Organic salts using energy from the sun is called: C. 1700C for 2 hours
E. Carbon dioxide D. 1600C for 2 hours D. Sterilization
A. Photoautotroph
7. Carbon dioxide is required by chemoorganotrophs for CO2 fixation and for the B. Chemoautotroph 7. To make sure that sterilization using the autoclave is adequate, a special tape is 18. This is an example of ionizing radiation:
synthesis of which of the following? C. Chemoheterotroph attached to the materials to be sterilized. What is the indicator present in the A. Tanning equipment
A. Carbohydrates D. Photoheterotroph tape? B. Microwave
B. Purines A. Bacillus stearothermophilus C. X-ray
19. If you start with one bacterium (generation 0), how many bacteria would you D. Sunlight
C. Protein have by generation 4 if it reproduced by binary fission B. Methylene blue
D. Fatty acids A. 4 C. Clostridium tetani 19. Salts and sugars inhibit the growth of microorganisms and preserve food
8. Results of the stool culture of a patient with acute gastroenteritis showed growth B. 32 D. Malachite green products by which principle?
of a halophilic organism. Which of the following should be in high concentration C. 8 8. Which of the following is true of betadine? A. A hypertonic environment limits the availability of nutrients therefore
for optimal growth of this organism? D. 16 A. Denatures protein decreasing bacterial growth
A. Osmotic pressure B. Removes dirt through the process of emulsification B. A hypertonic environment decreases the pH of food & inhibits bacterial metabolism
20. Which of the following is the suitable temperature range for mesophiles?
B. Temperature A. 20 – 40 degrees Celsius C. Binds to tyrosine residues in proteins C. It lowers the osmotic pressure causing the microorganisms to swell and burst
C. Salt B. 50 – 60 degrees Celsius D. Functions best at an alkaline pH 3 D. It deprives the microorganisms of moisture via osmotic pressure?
D. pH C. 0 – 10 degrees Celsius 20. Ultraviolet radiation kills microorganisms by which of the ff mechanisms?
D. 10 – 20 degrees Celcius
9. Which of the following can physically remove microbes from air?
9. Which of the following inorganic ions stabilizes ribosomes? A. Ultraviolet rays A. Denaturations of proteins and disruption of cell membrane
A. Magnesium 21. The reaction where simple substances are used to synthesize complex compounds: B. Sunlight B. Dissolution of membrane lipids and proteins
B. Iron A. Synergism C. Membrane filter C. Thymine-thymine dimerization of DNA
C. Potassium B. Anabolism D. HEPA filter D. Oxidizing cellular components and iodinating proteins
D. Calcium C. Metabolism 21. Lysol, well-known disinfectant in the market, is what type of phenolic compound?
D. Catabolism 10. Which of the following forms of alcohol is used as a preservative for products
10. K.G., a 32-year-old female with chronic cough, anorexia and recurrent back pain like Cetaphil? A. Cresols
was diagnosed with Pulmonary Tuberculosis Category I. The causative agent is 22. The type of stain that is used for organisms difficult to stain. A. Benzyl alcohol B. Formaladehyde
an obligate aerobe. Which metabolic pathway will it utilize to obtain energy? A. Indirect Stain B. Denatured alcohol C. Mercurial
A. Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas Pathway B. Differential Stain D. Hexachlorophene
C. Isopropyl alcohol
B. Entner Doudoroff Pathway C. Direct stain D. Ethyl alcohol
C. Tricarboxylic acid Pathway D. Special Stain 22. After 10 minutes of exposure to an antimicrobial agent, a pure culture of bacteria
D. Pentose Phosphate Shunt 11. The laboratory aide needs to sterilize the glass beakers, flasks and cylinders for use containing 100,000 cells was reduced to 10,000. What is the Decimal reduction
23. The process of reproduction by which two daughter cells arise from one parent in the Bacteriology section of the laboratory. Which equipment should be prepared?
11. Which of the following refers to time required for bacteria to double in number? time of this antimicrobial agent?
bacterial cell is known as: A. Incinerator
A. Budding time A. 100 minutes
A. Meiosis B. Desiccator
B. Generation time – time required for cell to undergo binary fission B. 90 minutes
B. Mitosis C. Autoclave
C. Growth time C. 9 minutes
C. Conjugation D. Oven
D. Lag time D. 10 minutes
D. Binary fission
12. An organism that can synthesize all its required organic components from CO2 12. Which of the following is most effective for sterilizing mattresses and plastic Petri 23. Which of the following methods is more appropriate to use to reduce or remove
using energy from oxidation of inorganic compounds is called which of the ff? dishes? microorganisms from heat-sensitive solutions and air?
STERILIZATION & DISINFECTION
A. Chemoheterotroph A. Autoclave A. Ultraviolet radiation
1. The following disinfectants act by disruptisng the plasma membrane EXCEPT:
B. Chemoautotroph B. Ethylene oxide – not an antiseptic; slow alkylating agent used for gaseous B. Filtration
A. Chlorhexidine
C. Photoheterotroph sterilization of packaged, heat-sensitive materials C. Surface acting agents
B. Hypochlorite
D. Photoautotroph C. Chlorine D. Ethylene oxide
C. Benzalkonium chloride
D. Oven
13. Which term best describes an organism that can survive in an environment with D. Cresol 24. This substance is produced when ethyl alcohol is oxidized:
low oxygen tension? 13. Which of the following is used to monitor the effectiveness of autoclaving? A. Aldehyde
2. Which of the following is the process by which soaps remove dirt?
A. Obligate aerobe A. B. stearothermophilus strip B. Catalase
A. Dehydration
B. Obligate anaerobe B. Methylene blue strip C. Acetone
B. Purification
C. Microaerophile C. Disc diffusion test D. Laccase
C. Saponification
D. Facultative anaerobe D. Litmus paper
D. Emulsification 25. It is used in wound cleansing and can be acted upon by catalase:
14. Which of the following describes an organism that is an obligate anaerobe? 14. Which method of sterilization is used to inactivate disease-producing A. Betadine
3. Which of the following is involved in microwave ovens?
A. It can grow under both aerobic and anaerobic conditions microorganisms during the processing of malt and beer? B. Mercurochrome
A. Osmosis
B. It strictly requires oxygen for growth A. Pasteurization C. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Radiation
C. It requires small amount of oxygen for its growth B. Lyophilization D. Ethyl alcohol
C. Dry heat
D. It is killed by the presence of oxygen C. Tyndalization
D. Moist heat
D. Autoclaving
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 MICROBIOLOGY – PRELIMS PLATINGS
26. Dried fish sold in the market is an example of which physical method 10. Which of the following is an example of a nosocomial infection? 21. LL, an elderly woman, was diagnosed to have COVID-19. She did not leave her 5. Which of the following mutagens act by producing free radicals that cause single
A. Lyophilization A. 62-year-old diabetic female developed abscess at the lower back house and always wore a surgical mask since the start of pandemic. She lived strand breaks in the DNA?
B. Intermittent sterilization B. 32-year-old male student developed colds two days after attending a party with her caregiver who is COVID PCR negative. She said she used delivery A. Ionizing radiation
C. Incineration C. 82-year-old female developed sepsis due to ruptured diverticulum service for her groceries and other daily needs. How would you describe the B. Alkylating agents
D. Dessication D. 78-year-old stroke patient confined in the ICU with an in-dwelling catheter manner by which she contractor the COVID-29 infx? C. Ultraviolet light
27. The following are factors affecting chemical methods of sterilization, EXCEPT developed UTI A. Biological product transmission D. Heat
A. Type of organism 11. A 5-year old child developed fever, photophobia and purpuric rashes. Six hours B. Vector-borne transmission 6. Which type of mutation occurs when a portion of a chromosome is left out?
B. Concentration of chemical agent after admission the patient died. This is an example of w/c of ff types of infection? C. Indirect contact A. Inversion
D. Direct contact
C. Medium used A. Nosocomial B. Deletion
D. Environmental conditions B. Fulminating 22. A 1 yo male developed malaise, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. He recalled C. Translocation
C. Localized that his open wound has been licked by his dog 7 days prior to his condition. The D. Insertion
NORMAL FLORA, BACTERIA & DISEASE D. Latent time from initial contact with the infectious agent until the development of initial 7. Mutations occurring in bacteria
1. Which of the following organisms are dominant in the large intestines? 12. A 42 y/o male was thought to the ER because of fever, inability to open his mouth and signs and symptoms is what stage of clinical infection? A. are seen only in Gram-positive organisms
A. Aerobes change in the level of consciousness. The patient was diagnosed to have Tetanus. A. Prodromal
B. are always induced by mutagens and never spontaneous
B. Anaerobes This condition is assc with which disease pattern based on epidemiology? B. Incubation period
C. cannot be passed on to progeny
C. Microaerophiles A. Endemic – constantly present in a locality but in low numbers C. Convalescent D. may sometimes be beneficial to them
D. Aerotolerant B. Epidemic D. Illness
C. Sporadic 8. Which of the following enzymes utilized during DNA replication functions to
2. Which of the following refers to virulence of an organism? 23. This toxin produced by bacteria can be converted to toxoids. relieve torsional strain produced during unwinding?
A. Degree of pathogenicity D. Pandemic A. Enterotoxin
A. Helicase
B. Reproduction in high salt concentration 13. A 22 y/o male who has undergone annual PE has tested positive to syphilis but B. Neurotoxin B. Primase
C. Growth under aerobic conditions is asymptomatic. This can be described as what pattern of infection? C. Exotoxin C. Ligase
D. Ability to produce disease A. Focal D. Endotoxin D. Topoisomerase
3. Physical examination performed on an asymptomatic 42-year-old male seaman B. Fulminating 24. A child developed Dengue fever. What is the mode of transmission of the
C. Latent 9. Which of the following IS NOT true of DNA structure?
revealed essentially normal findings. His hepatitis profile was positive for disease
D. Nosocomial A. Double helix
Hepatitis B surface antigen. The patient can be considered as which of the A. Arthropod borne transmission B. Backbone consists of phosphate and deoxyribose
following based on the result of his PE and blood examination? 14. Which of the organisms can survive in the acidic environment of the stomach? B. Water-borne transmission C. Consist of 2 complementary strands of the same polarity
A. Contact A. Staphylococcus C. Biological transmission D. Composed of four heterocyclic bases
B. Suspect B. Ureaplasma D. Transplacental transmission
C. Subclinical C. Helicobacter – assoc w/ dysuria, hypogastric pains, and nausea 10. Which of the following is true of the process of translation?
25. In the chain of infection, the susceptible host is more important than the reservoir
D. Carrier D. Streptococcus A. Occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum
host for propagation of the infection. B. The A site is the binding site for Trna
4. Which of the ff DOES NOT eliminate non-resident microorganisms from the skin? 15. AA, not knowing that his sister has diphtheria, still interact with her even though FALSE C. mRNA information is converted into protein
A. Alkaline pH of sweat she keeps on coughing and sneezing. Few days later, AA develops diphtheria. 26. Which of the following is true of endotoxin? D. enzyme involved is DNA polymerase
B. Presence of lysozyme This happened as a result of which of the ff modes of transmission? A. Relatively stable and can be converted toxoid
C. Constant sloughing of the epidermis A. Droplet transmission 11. In lysogeny
B. Produced by both Gram (+) & Gram (-) bacteria
D. Fatty acids in sebaceous secretions B. Vector-borne transmission A. viral DNA becomes a prophage
C. Binds to specific receptors on cell B. phage DNA cannot be passed on from one generation to the next
5. Which of the following is the chemical composition of the component of C. Airborne transmission D. Integral part of outer membrane of the bacteria & released on death of the
D. Vehicle borne transmission C. lysogenized bacteria cannot acquire virulence properties from the phage
endotoxin that is responsible for its effects on the patient? bacteria D. death of bacterial cells immediately follows entry of phage
A. Lipopolysaccharide 16. Beneficial effect of normal flora for the newborn includes which of the ff: 27. Prolonged intake of anti-microbial drugs will not alter the normal flora of our
B. Amino acid A. Maturation of the immune system of the newborn 12. During the process of translation of a particular protein, a mutation occurred
gastrointestinal tract.
C. Polypeptides B. Priming the immune system of the newborn where codon CAG that codes for an AA was changed to TAG. What type of
FALSE mutation occurred?
D. Fatty acid C. Breakdown of ammonia in GUT of newborn
D. Production of toxic product in the newborn A. Frameshift mutation
6. Which of the following is a characteristic of exotoxin? BACTERIAL GENETICS B. Silent mutation
A. Present in Gram negative bacteria only 17. A child was diagnosed to have with worms in his gastrointestinal tract. This 1. Which of the following is a feature of prokaryotic genome? C. Missense mutation
B. Closely bound to cell wall illustrates what type of host-organism relationship? A. 2 or more linear chromosomes D. Nonsense mutation – change in a sequence that leads to formation of stop codon
C. Heat stable – characteristic of endotoxin A. Antagonism B. Structure maintained by histones
D. Heat labile B. Parasitism C. With nucleoid not enclosed by a membrane 13. The initiator codon in transcription consists of which of the following?
C. Mutualism D. Diploid 4 A. AUG
7. Which of the following is synthesized by normal intestinal flora? B. UAG
A. Vitamin A D. Commensalism 2. If an incorrect amino acid is inserted into the chromosome leading to production C. UAC
B. Vitamin K 18. An infant was born with Congenital Rubella Syndrome. How could the infant of a malfunctioning protein, what type of mutation has occurred? D. ACG
C. Vitamin C have acquired the condition? A. Missense mutation
D. Vitamin E A. Vector transmission b. B. Nonsense mutation 14. Temperate bacteriophages
B. Direct contact transmission C. Silent mutation A. do not replicate and lyse the host cell immediately
8. Which of the following members of the normal flora in the genitourinary tract is B. participate in conjugation
reduced in menopaused women? C. Blood-borne transmission D. Point mutation
D. Transplacental transmission C. replicate outside the host cell
A. Staphylococcus aureus 3. According to the Central Dogma, which of the following represents the flow of D. do not participate in transduction
B. Enterococci 19. Which of the ff in the chain of infection can be considered to be the basis of genetic information in cells?
C. Streptococcus viridans isolation techniques? A. DNA to protein to RNA 15. The formation of pyrimidine dimers results from which of the ff?
D. Lactobacilli A. Mode of transmission B. Protein to DNA to RNA A. Spontaneous errors by DNA polymerase
B. Reservoir C. RNA to DNA to protein B. Exposure to ultraviolet radiation
9. Baby C has developed ophthalmia neonatorum 6 days after a normal spontaneous
vaginal delivery from a mother who has gonorrhea. Baby C has acquired the illness C. Portal of exit D. DNA to RNA to protein C. Exposure to intercalating agents
through which of the ff? D. Portal of entry D. Exposure to gamma radiation
4. What would be the effect of a nonsense mutation on the protein product?
A. Droplet 20. This refer to the mechanism by which a disease develops: A. No effect on protein product 16. Which of the ff is an example of frameshift mutation?
B. Direct contact A. Incubation B. Different protein produced A. Missense mutation
C. Vehicle C. functioning protein B. Silent mutation
B. Pathogenesis
D. Biological D. Production of truncated protein C. A deletion of a codon
C. Pathogenicity
D. Invasion D. Deletion of one nucleotide
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17. Which of the ff describes the majority of bacterial genome? 4. Which among the following is the most potent antigen? 15. Superantigen have which of the ff characteristic and feature? 6. In the final step of complement activation, w/c complement protein polymerizes
A. Double stranded and circular A. Amino acid homopolymers A. Usually binds to MCH Class III to form perforin-like structures stabilizing the membrane attack complex?
B. Single stranded and circular B. Complex proteins B. They are not mitogenic for T-cells and macrophages A. C7
C. Single stranded and linear C. Carbohydrates C. Have to be processed before recognition by the T-cell B. C8
D. Double stranded and circular D. Lipids and monosaccharides 5 D. Bind to all members of a given V beta T-cell receptor family C. C9
18. What are the plasmid statuses of bacterial cells resulting from conjugation 5. A large carrier protein is needed by which of the following substances to induce an 16. Which of the molecular signal is need by the endothelial cells for expression of MHC D. C6
between Fpos (F+) and a Fneg (F-) bacterium? immune response? Class II on its surface? 7. _____ is the complement protein that recruits inflammatory cells while _____ is
A. The F+ bacterium remain as F+ and the Fneg bacterium remain as Fneg A. Virus A. IFN-alpha the complement component which facilitates phagocytosis.
B. Two Fneg bacteria B. Antigen B. ICAM – Intracellular Cell Adhesion molecule A. C4a/C3a
C. Two F+ bacteria C. Hapten – low molecular antigen; needs to be conjugated w/ a carrier protein C. IFN-Gamma B. C5a/C5b
D. The F+ bacterium becomes Fneg and the Fneg bacterium becomes F+ to become immunogenic D. TNF C. C5b/ C3a
D. Antibody 17. Which of the ff characteristics does not apply to innate immunity? D. C3a/C3b
19. Phages that destroy host cell DNA, direct synthesis of phage particles, and
cause lysis of the host cell are called: 6. Intracellular pathogens or virus-infected cells are recognized and destroyed by which A. Rapid, immediate response 8. Engulfment and killing of organisms by phagocytic cells are facilitated through
A. Virulent phages cellular component of the innate immune system? B. Response to amplifiable the help of which complement component?
B. Prophages A. Natural Killer cells – play important role in Antibody Dependent Cells C. Present or active at birth A. C5b-C9
C. Lysogenic phages Cytotoxicity (ADCC) D. Does not possess immunological memory B. C5a
D. Temperate phages B. Activated macrophages C. C3bBb
18. Which of the ff is the part of the (MHC) class I molecule that provides stability of the
C. CD8+ Cytotoxic cells complex and participates in the recognition of peptide MHC Class I complex by CD9 D. C3b – involved in the opsonization of pathogens//microorganisms for
20. The process by which bacterial or plasmid DNA may be mistakenly incorporated D. Neutrophils co-receptor? phagocytosis & clearance of immune complexes
(during assembly) into one phage being produced by the lytic life cycle & then
that DNA transferred to bacterial cell w/c may acquire new genetic traits is called: 7. Which of the following immunoregulatory proteins induces a viral resistant state to A. Beta-2 microglobulin 9. In the Alternate pathway, which of the following serves as C3 convertase?
neighboring cells by activating its gene to inhibit viral replication? B. Peptide binding groove
A. Transformation A. C4b2b3b
B. Conjugation A. Cytokines C. Alpha 1 domain B. C4aC2b
C. Generalized transduction B. Complement protein D. Alpha 2 domain C. C4b2a
D. Specialized transduction C. Defensins D. C3bBb – enzyme stabilized by properdin in alternative pathway
19. Which of the ff is a function of an antibody?
D. Interferons
21. A plasmid is: A. Induce neutralization of viruses and bacterial toxins 10. Which of the following complement components are NOT required in the
8. The effective and specific killing of intracellular pathogens is best carried out by which B. Trigger B cell switching to IgE synthesis
A. Typically, a small, extrachromosomal strand of DNA particular component of the adaptive immune system?
alternative pathway?
B. The entire bacterial genome C. Process proteins from exogenous antigens A. C8, C9
A. Natural killer cells D. Activate mast cells and eosinophils
C. A structure that attaches cells together for conjugation B. Complement system B. C5, C6, C7
D. The structure in the nucleus that encodes for genes? 20. Which of the following cells is produced outside the thymus? C. C3bBb
C. T- cytolytic cells
22. Which of the ff refers to the uptake of naked DNA from the surrounding D. Antibodies A. Regulatory T cell D. C1, C2, C4
environment? B. Cytotoxic T cell 11. Hereditary deficiency of MAC complex is associated with which of the following
9. Which of the following agents is used to augment the effects of a vaccine by stimulating C. Multipotent progenitor cell
A. Conjugation the immune system to respond more vigorously providing increased immunity to a conditions?
B. Specialized transduction D. Helper T cell A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
particular disease?
C. Generalized transduction A. Epitope 21. Which among the following properties of antigens makes it poorly immunogenic? B. Pneumococcal septicemia
D. Transformation B. Adjuvant A. Haptens conjugated with a carrier protein C. Systemic gonococcal infection
23. Which of the ff events is most likely to be due to bacterial conjugation? C. Antigen B. Antigens that comes from distant species origin D. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
A. A gene encoding resistance to gentamicin in the E. coli chromosome appears D. Immunogen C. Homopolymers 12. A 3-week-old neonate was admitted due to sudden onset of high-grade fever
in the genome of a bacteriophage that has infected E. coli 10. Which of the following statements is true regarding natural killer cells? D. High molecular weight (HMW) CHONs and seizure episodes. In the ER, the attending physician noted bulging
B. A strain of Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces B-lactamase encoded by a A. Circulate in the blood and mature into macrophages fontanelles, with lateral gaze. The clinical impression was meningitis. Short,
plasmid similar to a plasmid of another gram-negative organism B. Contribute to innate immunity by providing protection against viruses COMPLEMENT SYSTEM gram-positive rods singly and in chains were isolated from the CSF and identified
C. A strain of Corynebacterium diphtheriae produces a toxin encoded by a C. Store enzymes and toxic proteins in granules that can be released upon 1. Which of the following cleaves C3 to C3a + C3b in the MBL pathway? as Listeria monocytogenes. This organism contains specific carbohydrate
prophage activation of the cells A. C4b2a moieties on its surface which will activate what complement system pathway?
D. An encapsulated strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae acquires the gene for D. Destroy pathogens within intracellular vesicles B. C3bBbC3b A. MBL Pathway
capsule formation from an extract of DNA from another encapsulated strain. C. C4b2b B. Properdin and Classical
11. When do you call an antigen a superantigen? D. C3bBb
A. They activate B cells in a nonspecific and uncontrolled manner C. Classical Pathway
INTRO TO IMMUNOLOGY B. They require antigen processing and binding to MHC molecules 2. The formation of C3Bb is inhibited by which of the following? D. Alternative Pathway
1. The movement of neutrophils across the endothelium to the infected site under the C. They are able to activate large numbers of T cells A. Complement receptor-1
influence of external chemical signals initially starts w/ which of the following?
13. Antigen-antibody complexes bind to which C1 complex subunit resulting to
D. They induce less amount of cytokines and interleukins B. Factor P activation of the classical pathway of complement?
A. Phagocytosis of pathogens or particulate antigens in the circulation C. Decay accelerating factor
B. The release of histamine from basophils resulting to localized vasodilation 12. Which of the following is an example of innate immunity? A. C1r
D. Factor H B. C1qr
C. Attachment of neutrophils to adhesion molecules on endothelial cells A. Medical clerk who had Covid-19 vaccination
D. Macrophages releasing cytokines that attracts neutrophils B. Reactivation of a respiratory tract infection 3. Properdin deficiency is associated with which of the following conditions? C. C1q – binds to Ab as antibody activates C1 complex in classical pathway
C. Antigen and antibody complex reaction A. Hemolytic uremic syndrome D. C1s
2. Which of the following substances involves processing by proteasomes prior to its B. Severe Neisseria bacteremia
D. Pili of Escherichia coli removed by ciliary clearance 14. A 65 -year-old male presented with a 10 days history of fever, worsening cough
delivery to the surface for presentation to CD8+ cells? C. Meningococcal infection
A. T-cell receptor proteins 13. Which of the ff is not true regarding T-cell development in the thymus? with greenish, blood streaked sputum, and increasing dyspnea. He has chronic
D. Pneumococcal septicemia obstructive lung disease (COPD). Chest X-ray revealed emphysematous
B. Superantigens A. They interact with multipotent progenitor cells in medulla
C. Exogenous antigens B. They recognize self antigens 4. Which of the ff complement components function to lyse microorganisms? changes with right upper lobe opacification and large air-fluid level suggestive of
D. Endogenous antigens C. They interact with thymic epithelial cells in the cortex A. C5-C9 cavitating pneumonia. Sputum culture and sensitivity grew capsulated
D. They recognize self major histocompatibility complex molecules B. C3-C5 Pseudomonas aeruginosa sensitive to Piperacillin/Tazobactam, and
3. Which of the following refers to the ability of the immune system to recognize self- Tobramycin. In the course of treatment, it is presumed that this organism will die.
C. C1-C9
antigens from non-self-antigens? 14. These are humoral proteins which serve as signaling molecules from injured cells and
D. C8-C9 The release of endotoxin in the circulation will activate which pathway of
A. Hypersensitivity influence the behavior of other cells to be attracted to the site of infection:
complement?
B. Tolerance A. Lectin binding proteins 5. MBL activates complement system via its ability to directly cleave w/c of the ff?
A. Classical Pathway
C. Specific immunity B. C5a and C3a A. C3
B. Ficolins
D. Antigenic immunity C. Soluble antigens B. C4
C. Mannose-Binding Lectin (MBL) Pathway
D. Cytokines C. IgM
D. Alternative pathway – spontaneous hydrolysis of C3 occurs
D. C1q
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 MICROBIOLOGY – PRELIMS PLATINGS
15. Which of the following is an important product of complement which is essential 23. The Delos Reyes family is referred to an immunologist for evaluation of a 9. Pattern recognition receptor EXCEPT 20. The processing of exogenous antigens in the endoplasmic reticulum prior to its
in the formation of the terminal complement product? possible genetic immunologic defect. 4 of 6 of the members of this family have A. interferon presentation involves:
A. C5a – by-product of complement activation w/c is strongly chemotactic for displayed increased susceptibility to extracellular bacteria and elevated serum B. NOD receptor A. Displacement of beta 2 microglobulin
neutrophils levels of IgM and IgG. Analysis of serum complement protein levels reveals near C. RIG-I B. Binding to the MHC Class II groove
B. C4b absence of component C4. This deficiency of C4 would inhibit which of the D. TLR-4 C. Proteasome-mediated cleavage
C. C3b following complement activities 10. Which of the following immune cells utilize perforin-granzyme system to kill D. Displacement of invariant chain
D. C5b A. Formation of C5 convertase via the alternative pathway pathogens? 21. Activation of naïve T-helper cell involves ligand binding B7 on a professional
16. Which complement pathway is not correctly matched with its activators? B. Formation of C3b for chemotaxis A. Macrophages antigen-presenting cell to:
C. Completion of the classic pathway to the splitting of C3
A. Classical – Antibody- antigen complexes B. B lymphocytes A. CD28
D. Formation of C5b for chemotactic attractant for neutrophils
B. Alternative – microbial surface C. Dendritic cells B. MHC Class II
C. Lectin – microbial sugars 26. Activation of the Complement System leads to production of cleavage products. D. Natural killer cells C. ICAM-1
D. Alternative – microbial sugars One of this is Complement component C3b which has which of the ff function? 11. A 45-year-old nonsmoker presents with recurrent attacks of cough and D. CD2
17. The membrane attack complex in the complement pathway consists of: A. It is a chemoattractant to neutrophils wheezing. He often uses an inhaler to control wheezing. As part of the diagnostic 22. MHC class I is found in:
B. Directly injures bacteria
A. C3b3bBb work up he undergoes a bronchial lavage. The bronchial washings show many A. Platelets
C. Acts as an anaphylatoxin
B. C5a, C5b, 6, 7, 8, 9 eosinophils. Laboratory testing revealed high levels of IgE but normal amounts B. Cell of retina
C. C5a2a3bC6, 7, 8, 9 D. Coats bacteria and facilitate phagocytosis of other Ig isotypes. Which of the following cells play a critical role in the C. Neurons
D. C5b, 6, 7, 8, 9 pathogenesis of this condition? D. Red blood cells
CELL MEDIATED IMMUNITY A. CD4+, Th2 type lymphocytes
18. The binding of lectins to mannose-containing bacterial surfaces activates which 1. What are the two signaling T helper cell-derived molecules responsible for 23. Pathogen recognition receptors act by which of following?
B. CD4+ Th17 lymphocytes
of the ff? inducing class switching from IgM to IgG? A. Recognizing molecules that are unique to pathogens
A. MASP – 2 C. CD8+ lymphocytes B. Helping to spread infection because they are found on pathogens
A. B7 and IL-7
B. C4b2b3b D. CD4+ Th1 type lymphocytSes C. All recognizing the same pathogens
B. CD34 and IL-4
C. C4b2b C. CD40 ligand and IFN-γ 12. The killer inhibition receptor (KIR) on NK cells detects which of the following? D. Recognizing molecules common to both host cells and pathogens
D. C1 complex D. CD20 and IL-2 A. Cells with MHC class I 24. Cell-surface Toll-like receptor
B. Gram-positive bacteria
19. The single best defining description of the Classical Pathway of complement 2. Which of the following cytokines enhances macrophage intracellular killing? A. NLR
activation is: C. Cells with MHC class II B. RIG-I
A. Interleukin-3
A. It generates the MAC D. Gram-negative bacteria C. C5
B. Interferon gamma
B. It acts as a cascade C. Interferon alpha 13. Effects of CMI on humoral immunity, EXCEPT: D. TLR-5
C. It produces a C5 convertase D. Interleukin-6 A. development of memory B cells 25. A subset of CD4+ T cells
D. It utilizes complement component C1r B. isotype switching from IgG to IgM
3. How do T cytotoxic cells kill pathogenic organisms? A. Cytotoxic cells
20. In antibody dependent activation of the Classical Pathway the C1 complex C. increased antibody avidity B. NK cells
A. They inhibit the immune response and work solely by perforins to kill the
attaches to IgM through its: D. increased antibody affinity C. Macrophages
microorganisms
A. Epitope B. They secrete cytokines which stimulate growth and activation of both B and 14. The NK cells function to monitor virally infected cells and tumor cells that lacks D. Treg cells
B. CH3 Domain of Fc region T cells receptors with specificity for:
26. Macrophages are major source of which of the following?
C. Microbial surface polysaccharide C. They contribute to the initiation of the classical complement pathway A. Fc region of IgG
A. IL-5
D. CH2 Domain of Fc region – in IgG D. They secrete granzyme that activates caspases B. MHC class II molecules
B. IL-7
C. Immunoglobulins-like domains *
21. Jaypee, a 14 yo, presented with a 6 month history of recurrent episodes of 4. What glycoprotein on virally infected cells provides a target for cell-mediated C. IL-1
D. MHC Class I molecules
swelling of his lips, eyes and tongue which came on suddenly, grew over a period cytotoxicity? 15. What is the mechanism of action of T cytotoxic cells in killing pathogenic organisms?
D. IFN-y
of 20 min, and lasted from 12-48H. They were not itchy but tended to give a A. MHC class II A. They secrete cytokines which stimulate growth and activation of both B and T cells 27. Recognize antigens associated with MHC class I complexes
prickly sensation. There was no obstruction of airways or abdominal pain during B. MHC class I B. They secrete perforins that create pores in the membrane of a target cell A. Dendritic cells
the attacks, w/c were often assc with intercurrent infection. His sister, aged 20 C. CD4 - they produce granzymes that stimulate apoptosis B. Natural killer cells
years, had suffered from identical problem for 4 years. PE was normal. Which of D. CD8 C. They contribute to the initiation of the classical complement pathway C. CD8 T cells
the ff complement components is most likely deficient? D. They inhibit the immune response and work solely by granzymes to kill the D. CD T cells
A. Factor I 5. Toll-like receptors are found on w/c of the ff immune (antigen presenting) cells?
A. T lymphocytes microorganisms
B. Mannan-binding lectin 28. Which of the following feature is common to both cytotoxic T-cells and NK cells?
C. C1 inhibitor B. Dendritic cells - most important APCs for initiating primary T-cell responses 16. NK cells contribute to innate immunity by: A. Synthesize antibody
against protein antigens A. Inducing IFN-alpha production B. Recognize antigen in association with MHC class II markers
D. MAC
C. B lymphocytes B. Killing virus infected cells C. Effective against virus infected cells
22. Which of the ff is a common pathway wherein all the three components of D. NK cells C. Indirect killing of tumor cells D. Requires antibodies to be present for action
complement pathways converge or meet together? D. Initiating antigen presentation
A. C3 convertase 6. The intracellular signal initiated by antigen binding to the T-cell receptor is
B. C3b4b2b generated by which set of molecules expressed on the T cell membrane? 17. What is an example of an MHC Class II molecule?
A. CD4 A. HLA-C
C. C3b molecule
D. C5b,C6,C7,C8,C9 B. CD28 B. HLA-A
C. CD45 C. HLA-DR
24. Which of the following is a component of the lectin pathway of complement D. CD3 D. HLA-B
activation?
7. T cell receptor 18. Which of the ff is a characteristic of MHC Class I?
A. Mannan-binding serine protease 1
A. has 4 chains A. Presentation of antigen to CD4+ T cells
B. Complement component 1q
B. recognizes peptide-MHC complex B. Present peptide to CD8+ T cells
C. Factor D
C. surface IgM C. Composed of two peptides
D. C3bBb3b
D. recognizes free antigen D. Has invariant chain
25. Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) can occur when the affected individual has
8. CD4 T cell that enhances neutrophil activity 19. Pattern Recognition Receptors are more adept in recognizing w/c of the ff structures?
a deficiency of what regulatory protein?
A. NK cell A. MHC Class II receptors
A. Decay Accelerating Factor
B. TH17 B. Evolutionary conserved Ag patterns
B. Factor H
C. T Reg cell C. Toll receptors – (toll-like receptors) they recognize PAMPs & DAMPs
C. Properdin
D. TH17 D. Pathogen specific epitopes
D. Membrane Cofactor Protein

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