22.

AUTO FLIGHT
1.What are the basic functions of the FACs?
A - Management functions and flight envelope protection.
B - Rudder control and flight envelope protection.
C - Guidance functions and rudder control.

2.Where are the FMGC functions controlled from?

A - The MCDUs and rudder trim control panel.
B - The FCU and rudder trim control panel.
C - The FCU and MCDUs.

3.What are the functions of the FACs?

A - Yaw damper, rudder trim, rudder travel limitation, flight envelope protection.
B - Yaw damper, pitch trim, rudder trim, flight envelope protection.
C - Yaw damper, rudder trim, pitch trim.

4.The Flight Guidance functions are: 23

A - autopilot, Flight Director, autothrust.
B - autopilot modes.
C - guidance along a flight plan.

5.Aircraft position determination is computed by:

A - the guidance part of the FMGCs.
B - the management part of the FMGCs.
C - the FCU.

6.The automatic selection of navigation frequencies is made by:

A - the MCDU.
B - the guidance part of the FMGCs.
C - the management part of the FMGCs

7.In cruise, the autopilot lateral mode orders are executed by:
A - the ailerons and the rudder.
B - the ailerons and the spoilers
C - the spoilers and the rudder.

8.The nose wheel can be controlled by the autopilot:

A - on ground during take-off.
B - on ground during landing.
C - on ground during take-off and landing.

9.The aircraft is in cruise with AP 1 engaged. What happens when AP 2 is engaged?

A - AP 1 remains active, AP 2 is in standby.
B - AP 2 becomes active with AP 1 in standby.
C - AP 2 becomes active, AP 1 is disengaged.

10.The aircraft is on ground:

A - It is impossible to engage the autopilot.
B - Engines running, it is impossible to engage the autopilot.
C - Engines shut down, it is impossible to engage the autopilot..

11.The FD bars are displayed:

A - on ground, when the system is electrically supplied and just after the safety tests.
B - when the FD functions are engaged, as long as HDG V/S is displayed on the FCU and an AP/FD mode
is active.
C - as long as 1FD2 is displayed on the top right of each PFD.

12.How do the pilots change the FD bars into FPD/FPV symbols?

A - By pressing the central HDG-V/S / TRK-FPA pushbutton on the FCU.
B - By disengaging the HDG or V/S modes.
C - By pressing a FD pushbutton.

13.Which computers process the yaw damper order, if the autopilot is not engaged?80
A - Either FMGC or ELAC.
B - Either ELAC or FAC.
C - FMGC and FAC.

14.With the AP engaged, the engine failure compensation function using the yaw damper actuators is
available:80
A - In cruise.
B - In LAND mode.
C - In TO, GA or RWY modes.

15.How is the FAC engaged?

A - By pressing in the FAC pushbutton.
B - When FAC internal monitoring (including power up test time) is healthy and engagement condition
is requested.
C - A and B.

16.When does the FAC 1 (2) pushbutton white OFF light come on?
A - In case of FAC 1 (2) failure.
B - When FAC 1 (2) pushbutton is pressed in and FAC 1 (2) is not energized.
C - When the FAC 1 (2) pushbutton is released out.

17.In case of a double RTL failure, the return to low speed logic:88
A - moves the stops to restore the maximum rudder deflection upon slat extension.
B - maintains the last position.
C - moves the stops to the maximum rudder deflection at any time.

18.Which parameters are used for RTL?88

A - Vc parameters from the ADIRS.
B - The slats extended signal from the SFCC.
C - Vc parameters and slats position.

19.Pressing the RESET pushbutton enables to return the rudder to the neutral position:
A - When the AP is not engaged.
B - When the AP is engaged.
C - At any time.

20.In manual mode (AP not engaged), the yaw damper orders are normally computed by the:
A - FMGCs.
B - FACs.
C - ELACs.

21.How is the yaw damper power loop monitored?

A - By the comparator between command part and monitor part of the FAC.
B - By the comparator between the yaw order and the rudder position feedback.
C - By the changeover logic.

22.Does the yaw damper actuator move the rudder pedals?

A - Yes, if hydraulic power is available.
B - Yes, in manual mode.
C - No, it does not move the rudder pedals

23.What is the consequence of an alpha-floor detection?

A - The autothrust disengages.
B - The autopilot engages.
C - The autothrust automatically engages with full thrust.

24.When is the windshear protection not available?

A - With slats/flaps extended.
B - With slats/flaps fully extended.
C - In clean configuration.

25.The Multipurpose Control and Display Unit (MCDU) is:

A - the pilot interface with the Flight Management function of the FMGC.
B - the aircraft interface between the Flight Management and Flight Guidance functions of the FMGC.
C - an independent means of controlling the aircraft in manual flight.

26.What is the purpose of the white MCDU MENU annunciator light?

A - It alerts the crew that the MCDU has failed.
B - A system, linked to the MCDU, requests the display.
C - It alerts the crew that the MCDU MENU page is not available.

27.What is the correct statement?

A - Line Select Keys may be used to transfer data onto the scratchpad.
B - Modifiable data must first be entered onto the scratchpad before being transferred, by using the
appropriate Line Select Key.
C - Line Select Keys may be used to delete data from the adjacent data field, without using the CLR
key

28.Below 400 feet, during an ILS approach, the LAND active mode:
A - can be de-activated by pressing the LOC p/b.
B - can be de-activated by a GO-AROUND engagement.
C - can be de-activated if the APPR pushbutton is pressed.

29.Green color is used for:

A - armed modes.
B - active modes.
C - engagement status.

30.A/THR cyan indication in the engagement status zone indicates that the:
A - autothrust is disengaged.
B - autothrust is engaged and not active.
C - autothrust is engaged and active.

31.The landing category and decision height value appear when:

A - the autopilot is engaged.
B - LAND mode is armed or active.
C - an ILS frequency is autotuned.

32.Which is the master FMGC with no FD engaged and AP2

engaged?
A - FMGC1.
B - FMGC2.
C - Either FMGC 1 or FMGC 2, independently of AP, FD and A/THR engagement status.AP1 is engaged, FDs
are engaged, A/THR1 is engaged.

33.What Does Flight Management provide?

Ans. FM - functions related to flight plan definition, revision and monitoring
- flight plan selection with its lateral and vertical functions.
- navigation, performance optimization, radio navigation tuning and information display
management.

34.Where is the wind shear displayed

Ans. Predictive Windshear indications are shown on the Captain and F/O PFDs and NDs.

23. COMMUNICATIONS
1.What is the purpose of the RMPs?
A - To enable the received audio signals to be selected.
B - To enable the received audio signals and the frequencies to be selected.
C - To enable the frequencies of all the radio communication systems to be selected.

2.What is the purpose of the AMU?

A - To centralize all the audio signals and the frequencies of the communication systems.
B - To act as an interface between the users and the various radio communication and radio navigation
systems.
C - To receive audio signals only.

3.What happens if RMP2 fails?

A - The communication systems are inoperative
B - VHF2 frequencies cannot be controlled.
C - All communication frequencies can be Controlled

4.What is the function of the AMU?

A - It monitors the radio frequency selection.
B - It integrates all the crew communication functions.
C - It monitors the NAV frequency selection.

5.What happens in case of a SELCAL call on VHF2?

A - CALL light flashes amber on the VHF2 key.
B - The three green bars on the VHF2 key come on.
C - CALL light comes on white on the VHF2 key.

6.What is the function of the RESET key?

A - The RESET key is used to restart the system.
B - The RESET key is used to cancel the previous selections.
C - The RESET key is used to cancel all the lighted calls.

7.What happens when CAPT3 position is selected ?

A - The captain uses the 3rd occupant audio equipment.
B - The 3rd occupant uses the captain audio equipment.
C - The captain uses the 3rd occupant ACP.

8.When is the muting circuit operative ?

A - The muting circuit always mutes the audio output.
B - The muting circuit is operative only with the hand microphone selection.
C - The muting circuit is operative when any microphone is keyed to transmit.

9.How is the SELCAL CALL light reset?

A - By pressing the transmission key on the ACP.
B - By pressing the CLR pushbutton.
C - By pressing the RESET key on any ACP.
10.How is a SELCAL call indicated in the cockpit ?
A - by visual warning on one ACP.
B - by visual warning on all the ACPs and an aural buzzer.
C - by visual warning on all the ACPs.

11.Which action must be performed to talk through the flight interphone system ?
A - Pressing the INT transmission key and with the INT/RAD selector switch to neutral position.
B - Either setting the INT/RAD selector to INT, or pressing the INT transmission key and setting the
INT/RAD selector switch to RAD.
C - Pressing any radio transmission key and INT transmission key together.

12.How is a ground mechanic to flight crew call indicated in the cockpit?

A - An ECAM message is displayed and a buzzer sounds.
B - The MECH light flashes on the captain ACP and a buzzer sounds.
C - The MECH light flashes on all ACPs and a buzzer sounds.

13.What is the purpose of the static dischargers?

A - It’s to avoid lightning.
B - It’s to discharge static electricity.
C - It’s to control the electricity charged on the aircraft

14.What is the purpose of the CVR ?

A - To record radio communications during take off and landing.
B - To record crew conversations as soon as an incident occurs.
C - To record crew conversations and communications.

15.A/C on ground and engines shutdown, what are the conditions to erase the CVR recordings ?
A - Press the CVR ERASE pushbutton for 10 seconds.
B - Press the GND CTL pushbutton, make sure that parking brake is applied and press the CVR ERASE
pushbutton for 2 seconds.
C - Start at least one engine and press on the GND CTL pushbutton for 2 seconds

16.A break in one top line data bus:

A - Disables all DEUs.
B - Affects only type B DEUs.
C - Only affects the type A DEUs behind the crack on this bus.

17.The Area Call Panel (ACP) is connected to:

A - The directors directly.
B - The type A DEUs.
C - The type B DEUs.

18.Where are the coding switches located?

A - On the front of each DEU.
B - On each DEU mount.
C - Only on the last DEU mount of each line.

19.What are the type A DEUs connected to?

A - To the top line data bus.
B - To the mid line data bus.
C - To an ARINC 429 data link.

20.Where is the PTP located?

A - On the center pedestal in the cockpit,
B - On the Forward Attendant Station,
C - On the Aft Attendant Station.

21.When is the CVR energized with the aircraft on ground and engines shut down ?
A - When the parking brake is applied.
B - During 5 minutes after the second engine is shut down.
C - When CVR TEST pushbutton is pressed

22.Can you energise the CVR on GND when the engines are shutdown?
Ans. CVR is automatically energized in flight and on ground when at least one engine is running and
for 5 minutes after the last engine is shut down.For manual control, on the ground, the CVR has to be
energized by pressing the ground control (GND CTL) pushbutton on the recorder (RCDR) panel.

25. EQUIPTMENT AND FURNISHINGS

1.Which cabin panels are removable ?

A - Lower sidewall panels only.
B - All the panels.
C - Upper sidewall panels only.

2.Where are passenger oxygen masks stored ?

A - In the Passenger Service Unit.
B - In the seat arm rest.
C - In the overheat stowage compartment.

3.Where are the cabin depressurization doors mounted?

A - On the upper sidewall panels.
B - On the ceiling panels.
C - On the lower sidewall panels.

4.How are passenger seats attached ?

A - With retainers in the front legs and with quick release fittings in the rear legs.
B - With retainers in the front legs as well as in the rear legs.
C - With quick release fittings in the front legs as well as in the rear legs.

5.Where is the inflation reservoir of the escape slide of emergency exit located ?
A - In a container at the bottom of the door.
B - In the overhead stowage compartment over the door.
C - In the cargo compartment.

6.Smoke hoods are supplied for the cabin attendants to:

A - supply oxygen for passengers.
B - fight a fire or against emission of smoke or noxious gases.
C - breathe oxygen.

7.Where must the pressure indication be?

A - In the green GO band.
B - In the red band.
C - At zero.

8.From where is the inflation cylinder checked?

A - From the cargo compartment only.
B - From the PTP only.
C - From the cargo compartment or from the PTP.

9.Where are the rapid decompression panels installed?

A - in the cutouts of the ceiling panels.
B - in the fixed partition walls.
C - in the cutouts of the ceiling panels and lateral right sidewall linings.
10.How many Unit Load Devices (ULDs) can be loaded in the FWD cargo compartment, if the Cargo Loading
System is installed ?
A - with 0 ULD.
B - with 2 ULDs.
C - with 3 ULDs.

11.How is the PDU energized ?

A - by 26 VAC.
B - by 28 VAC.
C - by 115 VAC.

12.The cargo loading control box being supplied, which latch ensures the energization of the PDUs ?
A - the door sill latch.
B - the XZ-single latch 32.
C - the fixed YZ latch

28.FUEL

1.Which tanks are the main supply tanks?

A - Center tank and inner cells.
B - Center Tank.
C - Outer Cells.

2.The Fuel Quantity Indicating System comprises...

A - Two FQICs and two FLSCUs.
B - One FQIC and two FLSCUs.
C - One FQIC and one FLSCU

3.What is the maximum total fuel capacity?

A - 41291 LBS (18729 KG)
B - 45920 LBS (20866 KG)
C - 52174 LBS (23707 KG)

4.Are wing tank pumps running while center tank is supplying?

A - Yes, wing tank pumps are always running.
B - No, only when center tank is empty.
C - No, because of center tank pump priority.

5.The engine LP valve closes when:

A - the fuel booster pumps pressure decreases.
B - the engine is shut down or the ENG FIRE pushbutton is released out.
C - the engine fire detection system senses an engine fire.

6.When there is a low level in one inner cell:

A - one intercell transfer valve opens.
B - two transfer valves in one wing, open.
C - two transfer valves, one in each wing, open.

7.What happens if you extend the slats in flight,with fuel in the center tank, AUTO mode selected?
A - Center tank pumps start.
B - Center tank pumps stop.
C - Center tank pumps stay as they are.

8.What happens on ground, slats extended, in AUTO MODE with fuel in the center tank, and one minute
after engines start?
A - Center tank pumps are running.
B - Center tank pumps are stopped.
C - The wing tank pumps are stopped.

9.What does the MODE SEL pushbutton control?

A - Center and wing tank pumps.
B - Center tank pumps only.
C - Wing tank pumps only.

10.When the center tank is empty, in AUTO MODE, center tank pumps:
A - Must be manually switched OFF.
B - Stop automatically and wing tank pumps start running.
C - Stop automatically.

11.An excess pressure in the inner cell is relieved

via an overpressure protector:
A - Into the Outer cell.
B - Into the Center tank.
C - Overboard.

12.The Vent Float Valves:

A - Prevent fuel from entering the vent lines.
B - Allow fuel to drain from the vent lines.
C - Maintain the fuel tanks pressurized.

13.To which tank does the recirculated fuel return ?

A - Wing tank outer cell,
B - Center tank,
C - Wing tank inner cell.

14.What happens if the fuel level in the inner cell drops to the low level sensor ?
A - The Fuel Return Valve closes,
B - The Fuel Return Valve opens,
C - The center tank pumps start

15.In normal operation, which tank will be emptied first?

A - The inner cell.
B - The center tank.
C - The outer cell.

16.The by pass suction valve is in operation, therefore:

A - The two wing tank pumps are in operation.
B - Only one wing tank pump supplies its associated engine.
C - Both pumps are stopped.

17.On ground, the engines are stopped, how do you close the LP valve?
A - By releasing out the ENG FIRE P/B.
B - By removing electrical power from A/C.
C - The valve is already closed.

18.The function of the APU fuel pump pressure switch is:

A - To signal any pressure to the ECAM.
B - To control the pump operation.
C - To shut the APU LP valve in case of fire.

19.How many motors does the APU LP valve have?

A - One DC motor.
B - Two DC motors.
C - Two motors, one DC (for a battery start) and one AC.

20.The Inner cell is refuelled only when:

A - Center tank is full.
B - Outer cell is full.
C - Outer cell is empty.

21.Refuel valves may be actuated:

A - Electrically only.
B - Manually only.
C - Electrically or manually.

22.How is the Refuel valve normally opened ?

A - By energization of a solenoid and application of fuel pressure.
B - Only by pressing-in the manual command button.
C - Only by opening the panel door and application of pressure or suction.

23.When performing a Refuel, Defuel or ground transfer, the R/D electrical circuits are enabled by ?
A - Power from the aircraft electrical network only.
B - Carrying out the high level test.
C - Contact of the panel door position relay.

24.What is the purpose of the fuel drain valve ?

A - To decrease the fuel flow in the R/D gallery.
B - To avoid a reverse flow to the R/D gallery.
C - To drain remaining fuel from the R/D gallery.

25.What happens if one channel of the FQIC fails?

A - Half of the Quantity Indicating data is no longer available.
B - FQIS operates normally, only CFDS report will indicate failure.
C - Fuel warning is triggered in addition to CFDS report.

26.What happens if a quantity probe (other than 13 or 14) fails?

A - Corresponding tank qty display flashes.
B - Quantity indication disappears.
C - Quantity indication remains the same.

27.What happens when a low level is detected in the inner cell?

A - Automatically, transfer valves open to admit fuel to inner cell.
B - Automatically, transfer valves close to isolate the inner cell.
C - Restart of the pumps to suck fuel from the outer cell.

28.What is the purpose of the IDG SHUT-OFF sensor?

A - To stop the center tank pumps.
B - To restart cooling fuel recirculation.
C - To stop the cooling fuel recirculation

29.In which cells are full level sensors fitted?

A - Inner and outer cells.
B - Inner cells only.
C - Outer cells only.

30.What happens if a high level is detected?

A - A warning is triggered: too much fuel.
B - All the refuelling operations are stopped.
C - The corresponding refuel valve closes.

Are main pumps running while center tank is transfering?

A - Yes, main pumps are always running.
B - No, only when center tank is empty.
C - No, because of center tank pump priority.

The engine LP valve closes when:

A - The fuel booster pump pressure decreases.
B - The engine is shut down or the ENG FIRE pushbutton is released out.
C - The engine fire detection system detects an engine fire.

The APU can normally be supplied with fuel by:

A - Only the APU pump.
B - Only the LH main pumps.
C - LH main pumps or APU fuel pump.

What does the MODE SEL pushbutton control?

A - Center tank transfer valves and wing tank pumps only.
B - Center tank transfer valves only.
C - Wing tank pumps only.

When the center tank is empty, in AUTO MODE, the center tank transfer valves:
A - Must be manually switched OFF after 5 mn.
B - Stop automatically and wing tank pumps start running.
C - Close automatically after a time delay of 5 mn.

What happens if one channel of the FQIC fails ?

A - Half of the Quantity Indicating data is no longer available.
B - FQIS operates normally, only CFDS report will indicate failure.
C - Fuel warning is triggered in addition of CFDS report.

What happens if a quantity probe fails ?

A - Corresponding tank quantity display flashes.
B - Quantity indication disappears.
C - Quantity indication remains the same.

What is the purpose of the IDG SHUT-OFF sensor?

A - To stop the cooling fuel recirculation.
B - To stop the center tank transfer valves.
C - To restart cooling fuel recirculation.

In which tanks are temperature level sensors fitted?

A - Center tank.
B - Wing tanks and center tank.
C - Wing tanks.

What happens if a high level is detected?

A - A warning is triggered: too much fuel.
B - The corresponding refuel valve closes.
C - All the refuelling operations are stopped.

30.ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

What happens in case of loss of electrical power supply to the engine anti-ice valve ?
A - The valve opens when the engine is stopped.
B - The valve opens when the engine is running.
C - The valve closes when the engine is running.

What happens in case of insufficient air pressure to the engine anti-ice valve ?
A - The valve closes as it is spring loaded closed.
B - The valve opens as it is spring loaded open.
C - Stays as it is.

With both engine anti-ice pushbuttons set to ON, does the EPR limit change ?
A - Yes.
B - No.

When is the TAT probe heated ?

A - In flight, not on ground.
B - On ground, not in flight.
C - In icing conditions only.

When is the pitot probe heated ?

A - In flight, not on ground.
B - In icing conditions only.
C - Normal heating in flight, low heating on ground.

What happens in case of a WHC failure ?

A - The failed WHC connects to the other.
B - Both systems are lost.
C - The heating of the related side is lost.

What happens when the EIU power supply circuit breakers are pulled ?
A - Nothing happens.
B - The windshield heating is cut off.
C - The windshield and windows are heated.

How is each wiper controlled ?

A - By a three or four position rotary selector.
B - By a pushbutton.
C - Automatically, depending on the weather conditions.

When is the rain repellent system inhibited ?

A - In flight.
B - On ground.
C - On ground when the engines are shut down.

How long is the spray sequence ?

A - 0.4 second.
B - 1 second.
C - 4 seconds.

How do you perform a complete test of the drain mast heating system ?
A - From PTP.
B - From test pushbutton of the Control Unit.
C - Both.

How many levels of ice detection are provided ?

A - Two.
B - Three.
C - Seven.

38. WATER AND WASTE

Why is the potable water tank pressurized ?
A- To ease draining operation.
B - To warm up the water
C - To enable water supply from the tank to the service users.

How many valves are used during draining operation ?

A-Two.
B-Three.
C-Four.

What is used for tank filling operation ?

A-One handle, one filling valve.
B-One handle, two valves.
C-Two handles, two valves.

How many potable water service and drain panels are fitted on the aircraft ?
A - One.
B - Two.
C - Three.

Where is the fill and drain valve port located ?

A - On the potable water service panel.
B - On the forward water drain panel.
C - On both.

How many potable water quantity indicators are there ?

A - One.
B - Two.
C - Three.

Where can the potable water quantity be checked ?

A - On the indicator on the water service panel only.
B - On the FAP only.
C - On the indicator on the water service panel and on the FAP.