1.

Which is NOT true in the following statements of action potential propagation along
nerve fiber? E) Greater the length of the nerve fiber, higher the speed of the action
potential
2. After drink 12,000ml of saline solution, the person might occur which of the
following changes? E) Atrial natriurenic hormone is released
3. A 53-year-old woman with no prior illness has a routine checkup by her physician.
On examination she has a blood pressure of 150/95 mm Hg. If her hypertension
remains untreated for years, which of the following cellular alterations would most
likely be seen in her myocardium? C)Hypertrophy
4. A study of colonic polyps is performed. Malignant cells localized to the polyp are
compared to those from polyps showing invasion of the stalk. Molecular analysis
shows upregulation of certain molecules in the invasive malignant cells. Invasive
lesions are more likely to exhibit lymphatic metastases. Which of the following
markers is most likely to have increased expression in the invasive malignant
epithelial cells? B) CD44
5. An autopsy study is performed involving persons with gross pathologic findings of
the bilaterally small kidneys (<100g) that have a coarsely granular surface
appearance. Microscopic examination shows a sclerotic glomeruli, a fibrotic
interstitium, tubular atrophy, arterial thickening, and scattered lymphocytic
infiltrates. Which of the following clinical findings was most likely reported in these
patients’ medical histories? B) Hypertension
6. The coenzyme containing vitamin B1 is E) TPP
7. Cyanides produce hypoxia by B) Binding to cytochrome oxidase and blocking the
transfer of electron
8. Which cell is a respiratory macrophage? C) Dust Cell
9. Which cells produce testosterone? B) Leydig cells
10. HLA class I molecules express of the surface of B) All nucleated cells
11. GVHR can easily occur in the transplantation of C) Marrow
12. Which drug is the first choice in the treatment of glaucoma? A) Timolol
13. A 42-year-old man is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. He has tried diet and exercise
without success. A second-generation sulfonylurea agent is prescribed. Which of the
following is the most likely side effect he will experience? B) hypoglycemia
14. Which vertebrae don’t have the vertebra body or the spinous process? B) the atlast
15. The inferior digestive tube includes the following organs, except for the A)
duodenum
16. Where is the ovum fertilized usually? C) Ampulla
17. The Hardy-Weinberg law is based on all of the following assumptions EXCEPT B) the
genes involved are autosome dominant
18. Which of the following is true of mitochondrial diseases? C) All of an affected
mother’s children are affected
19. An outbreak of serious pneumonia among the inmates in an overcrowded prison has
occurred. The prison physician said that the pneumococcal vaccine might have
limited the outbreak. Which of the following structures of the pneumococcus is for
determining the serotype and is also the immunogen in the vaccine? A) Capsule
20. All the following statements concerning interferons is correct EXCEPT: A) interferon
inhibits the growth of both DNA and RNA
21. Seizures with olfactory or gustatory hallucinations, motor phenomena such as licking
or smacking lips are characteristics of the following lobe lesions: D) temporal lobe
22. A 35-years old woman with seizures usually occur when she’s asleep. She makes a
grunting sound, as if she’s clearing her throat. Then she’ll sit up in bed, open her
eyes and stare. She may clasp her hands together. If someone else ask her what
she’s doing, she doesn’t answer. After a minute or so, she lies down and goes back
to sleep. Which type of seizure does the patient have? A) Absence seizures
23. An infection is the detrimental colonization of a host organism by a foreign species.
The host’s response to infection is: A) inflammation
24. There is a phase is certain viruses’ life cycles in which after initial infection, virus
production ceases. However, the virus genome is not fully eradicated. The result of
this is that virus can reactivate and begin producing large amounts of viral progeny
without the host being infected by a new outside virus. So which of the following is
the most likely outcome of this infection? D) Latent infection
25. Female, 36 years old. She said: “when I went into the office, some of my colleagues
were talking about something. At that time, I felt they are talking some affairs about
me. I could not hear clearly what they were talking about. But I thought they were
ridiculing me, so I began to cry. I read an article from the newspaper, which talked
about raise pigs. Immediately I felt like the article was talking about me.” What’s this
symptom? C) Delusion of referrrence
26. There is impairment of consciousness in B) Delirium
27. In patients with tibial shaft fractures. Which of the following is the most common
associated finding? B) common peroneal nerve injury
28. A 22-year-old man states he ingested 20 to 30 condoms containing a total of 1 kg of
cocaine 12 hours ago. He subsequently became concerned about the rupture of the
condoms and now wants to get them out of his body. He is completely
asymptomatic. His vital signs are normal and physical examination is unremarkable.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? Surgical
removal of bags
29. –
30. –
31. –
32. –
33. Which is the most common disease of viral keratitis? B) Herpes simplex keratitis
34. ______ plays the role of “darkroom” of the eye. A) Retina
35. Which of the following factors affect the prognosis of a head and neck cancer? E) all
of the above
36. The commonest cause for unilateral nasal muco-purulent discharge in children is B)
Foreign bodies
37. Which one is the explanation of the Brunnmstrom stage I? A) Flaccid, no movement.
38. –
39. –
40. –
41. –
42. –
43. Which one is not the type of descriptive study in preventive dentistry? C) Cohort
44. Which one is the systemic fluoridation? A) Fluoride toothpaste
45. Which of the following is the most valuable method for diagnosis of bronchiectasis?
B) CT scan on chest
46. Dullness to percussion, increased tactile fremitus, bronchial breath sounds on
auscultation, these findings suggest: C) Consolidation of pneumonia
47. About aspiration lung abscess, which of the following is NOT true: E) Anaerobes are
seldom found in aspiration lung abscess
48. Decreased or absent vocal fremitus rarely occurs in ________. (there are no
options)
49. –
50. –
51. –
52. –
53. To the diagnosis of the pregnancy, the most important symptoms of the following is
A) cessation of menses
54. The disordered neoplasia growth of the lower one third of the cervical epithelial
lining is C) CIN I
55. All of the following are common symptoms or clinical manifestations of uterine
myoma EXCEPT D) constipating
56. There are ( ) stages of labor. C) three
57. –
58. –
59. –
60. A male infant is born prematurely and is small for gestational age. At birth the infant
is obviously ill with jaundice, fever, hepatosplenomegaly, myocarditis and rashes.
Neurological involvement is prominent., with hydrocephalus, intracranial
calcifications and seizures. The mother has a cat and continued to clean the cat’s
litter box during the pregnancy. Which of the following is the most likely causative
agent of the infant’s condition? D) toxoplasma
1. Risks for multifactorial diseases usually increase if ( )
A. the disease has more severe expression
B. more family members are affected
C. the affected proband is a member of the less commonly affected sex
D. all of the above
E. None of above

2. Consider a fetus affected with one of following conditions, for which condition is
the spontaneous loss during pregnancy most likely? ( )
A. Down syndrome
B. Trisomy 18
C. Neurofibromatosis type 1
D. Huntington disease
E. Cystic fibrosis

3. Which of the following arteries is NOT a visceral branch of the internal iliac artery? (
)
A. Internal pudendal artery
B. Ovarian artery
C. Uterine artery
D. Inferior rectal artery
E. Inferior vesical artery

4. Which of the following organs is NOT innervated by the parasympathetic fibers of

the vagus nerve? ( )
A. The heart
B. The lung
C. The liver
D. The stomach
E. The uterus

5. Which drug is the first choice for absence seizures (minor epilepsy, petit mal)? ( )
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Carbamazepine
D. Ethosuximide
E. Valproic acid

6. A 42-year-old man is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. He has tried diet and
exercise without success. A second-generation sulfonylurea agent is prescribed. Which of
the following is the most likely side effect he will experience? ( )
A. aranulocytis
B. hypoglycemic
C. Lactic acidosis
D. myolysis
E. heperglycemia

7. Which of the following forms myelin in the peripheral nervous system? ( )

A. Schwann cells
B. Basket cells
C. Ganglion
D. Neuroglia
E. Satellite cells

8. Which cell is a hepatic macrophage? ( )

A. Kupffer cells
B. Histocyte
C. Dust cell
D. Langerhans cell
E. Microglia
Kupffer- liver
9. A 72- year-old man takes large quantities of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
(NSAIDS) because of chronic degenerative arthritis of the hips and knees. Over the past 2
weeks, he had epigastric pain with nausea and vomiting and an episode of hematemesis,
On physical examination, there are no remarkable findings. A gastric biopsy specimen is
most likely to show which of the forewing lesions? ( )
A. Acute gastritis
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Epithelial dysplasia
D. Helicobacter pylori infection
E. Hyperplastic polyp

10. A 59-year old man experiences sudden severe chest pain that radiates to his back.
On physical examination his blood pressure is 170/110 mmHg. Heart sounds are distant.
Pulsus paradarus is observed. A pericardiocentesis is performed and yields blood. Which
of the following pathologic findings has most likely occurred in his aorta? ( )
A. Aneurysm
B. Arteriolosclerosis 
C. Vasculitis 
D. Thrombosis 
E. Dissection

11. Which of the following component is present in gram-positive bacteria, but not in
gram-negative bacteria? ( )
A. Peptidoglycan
B. Teichoic acid
C. Capsule
D. Flagella
E. Outer membrance
Present in G+ cell wall
12. Dietary fat, after being processed, is extruded from the mucosal cells of the
gastrointestinal tract into the lymphatic ducts in the form of ( )
A. Monoglycerides
B. Diglycerides
C. Triglyceride
D. Chylomicrons
E. Free fatty acids

13. The hormone primarily responsible for development of ovarian follicles prior to
ovulation is: ( ).
A. Chorionic gonadotropin
B. Estradiol
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone
D. Luteinizing hormone
E. Progesterone

14. Protein denaturation is due to ( )

A. Changes in amino acid sequence
B. Changes in amino acid composition
C. Hydrolysis of peptide bonds
D. Protein conformational damage
E. Changes in primary structure

15. Which of following substances acts as the “energy currency” of the cell? ( )
A. GTP
B. ATP
C. Glucose
D. fatty acid
E. Creatinine phosphate

16. Hapten is: ( )

A. with the property of antigenicity but not immunogenicity
B. with the property of immunogenicity but not antigenicity
C. with the property of antigenicity and immunogenicity
D. All of above is correct
E. None of is correct

17. Which one of the following cytokines can kill tumor cells directly ( )
A. IL-2
B. TNF
C. CSF
D. IL-4
E. IFN-γ

18. Which one of the following is characteristic of malignant tumors?

A) Poor prognosis
B) Minimal anaplasia
C) Typical capsule
D) Non-invasive growth
E) Grow slowly

19. … way for colorectal tumor biopsy? ( )

A. … biopsy
B. aspiration biopsy
C. … biopsy
D. endoscopic biopsy
E. incisional biopsy
Answer is colonoscopy biopsy- so probably endoscopy biopsy

20. Which one has been link to increased risk of gastric cancer? ( )
A. HPV’s
B. EBV
C. H. Pylori
D. Hepatitis B
E. Fungi

21. Which one is the gold standard to diagnose cancer? ( )

A. CT
B. MRI
C. PET-CT
D. X-rays
E. Pathologic results of biopsy

22. Which of the following neoplasm presents with increased risk of developing
melanoma? ( )
A. Acquired melanocytic nevi
B. Small congenital melanocytic nevi
C. Medium congenital melanocytic nevi
D. Large congenital melanocytic nevi
E. Lentigo simplex

23. What is he major junction between keratinocytes? ( )

A. Tight junction
B. Desmosome
C. Desmoglein
D. Desmocollin
E. None of the above

24. 31-year-female, Fifth days postpartum. Sudden dyspnea, chest pain, cough and
hemoptysis 3 hours ago, which one is the most probable diagnosis ( )
A. Bronchitis
B. bronchial asthma
C. pulmonary embolism
D. acute myocardial infarction
E. pneumonia

25. Which one of the following options is right when Ventricular fibrillation occurs ( )
A. Intravenous injection of lidocaine
B. Intravenous injection of amiodarone
C. Intravenous injection of adrenaline
D. synchronized cardioversion
E. unsynchronized cardioversion

26. Which one of the following options is not a clinical manifestation of acute carbon
monoxide poisoning? ( )
A. coma
B. cherry red lips
C. Convulsion
D. dyspnea
E. anemia

27. The typical feature on CT of acute subdural hematoma: ( )

A. Iso-density, biconvex shape
B. High density, concave shape
C. High density, biconvex shape
D. Iso-density, concave shape
E. Low density, concave shape

28. The most common cause of acute pancreatitis is: ( )

A. Cancer
B. trauma
C. sep…
D. epidemic parotitis
E. alchohol abuse and cholo…
Alcohol and gall stones- Cholithiaisis
29. Which one of the following examination is the best to diagnose the intervertebral
disk … spine? ( )
A. X-ray plain film
B. CT
C. MRI
D. ECT
E. DSA

30. Which of the following site is the most frequent site of skeletal tuberculosis? ( )
A. Long bones
B. Short bones
C. Joint
D. Spine
E. Skull

31. Three principles of rehabilitation medicine is: ( )

A. life-saving medical treatment and health, functional recovery of
B. function, improve the comprehensive recovery and return to society
C. prevention and treatment, the combination of Chinese and Western
D. physical rehabilitation and psychological rehabilitation and social rehabilitation
E. life is movement, prevention is more important than treatment, improve the quality
of life

32. The object of rehabilitation medicine service does not include: ( )

A. Disabled
B. Elderly
C. Patients with chronic disease
D. Patients with infectious disease
E. Patients with acute and early recovery

33. The most common source of bleeding of acute traumatic parietal epidural
hematoma is: ( )
A. the middle meningeal artery
B. the skull plate vein
C. the superior sagittal
D. the middle cerebral artery
E. the vessel in the pia mater

34. The most common tumors in the urinary system is: ( )

A. the nephroblastomas
B. the kidney cancers
C. the bladder cancers
D. the prostate cancers
E. the penile cancers

35. A male patient, 3 days after the appendicitis resection, the incision pain is still not
reduced, the body temperature is 39 degrees, the primary considered could be as: ( )
A. pulmonary infection
B. urinary system infection
C. incision infection
D. the electrolyte disorder
E. foreign body residues in the abdominal cavity

36. 4-week-old male infant is brought to the office due to several episodes of projectile
vomiting for the last few days. The vomitus contains milk and doesn’t contain bile or
blood. The child’s appetite has increased for the last few days. He has been fed with
goat’s milk since birth, but doesn’t seem to tolerate it anymore for the last few days. He
vomits a few minutes after feedings. He appears dehydrated, and abdominal
examination reveals no mass. Blood tests reveal macrocytosis. What is the most
appropriate next step in the management of this patient? ( )
A.Barium swallowing
B.Ultrasound of the abdomen
C.Substitute goat’s milk with another form of milk
D.Divide his feeding
E.Add folic acid to relieve his vomiting

37. A 7 year old African American boy is brought to your clinic with complaints of
bedwetting. He was toilet trained at the age of 4. He has been able to pass urine
normally in daytime, but has never been dry at night. There is no history of urgency or
frequency during daytime. There is no history suggestive of child abuse. He had two
episodes of urinary tract infections from birth until he was 2-years old, but he has not
had any episodes ever since. What is the next best step in the management of this
patient?
A. Urinalysis
B. Intravenous pyelogram
C. Ultrasound of the Kidneys
D. Prescription of Imipramine
E. Behavioral modification

38. A 5-year-old Mexican female child is brought to the office for the evaluation of a
pruritic vulva for the past fifteen days. The pruritus is felt mostly during the night. Her 4-
year-old cousin who visited them for four weeks ago has a similar complaint. On
examination, there is no vaginal discharge, but the vulva is erythematous. The rest of the
physical examination is normal. What is the most appropriate next step in the
management of this patient?
A. Detain the child with the suspicion of sexual abuse
B. Do a scotch tape test
C. Do a stool examination for parasites
D. Do vaginal fluid gram stain
E. Do wet mount of vaginal fluid

39. Lesion of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is in: ( )

A. purely upper motor neuron
B. both upper motor neuron and lower motor neuron
C. purely lower motor neuron
D. Neither upper motor neuron nor lower motor neuron
E. only upper motor neuron, not lower motor neuron

40. A 36-year-old man abruptly loses vision in one eye. His retina appears cloudy and
grayish yellow with narrow arterioles. The fovea appears cherry red, and the vessels that
are obvious appear to have segmented columns of blood. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis? ( )
A. Occlusion of the central retinal vein
B. Occlusion of the central retinal artery
C. Optic neuritis
D. Chorioretinitis
E. Myopia

41. A 32-year-old woman has an MRI done because of a first seizure. No etiology for
the seizure is found, but there is the incidental finding of an aneurism. The aneurysm is
5mm and affects the posterior communicating artery. It is very close to the third cranial
nerve. The initial sign of pressure on the third nerve is usually which of the following?
( )
A. Impaired abduction
B. Impaired elevation
C. Impaired pupillary cinstruction
D. Impaired abduction
E. Impaired vision

42. The recurrent laryngeal nerve is the branches of ( )

A. Vagus nerve
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve
C. Sublingual nerve
D. Sub-endothelial nerve
E. None of above

43. The most common infection route for acute suppurative otitis media is ( )
A. Eustachian tube pathway
B. External auditory canal approach
C. Blood flow path
D. Tympanic membrane pathway
E. Drum sinus pathway
44. The most frequently used drug for anxiety disorders is ( )
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Risperidone
C. Clozapine
D. Amitriptalin
 E. Chlorpromarine

45. The most common cause of organic amnestic syndrome is ( )

A. Infection
B. Chronic alcohol dependence
C. Alzheimer’s Diseases
D. Mental retardation
E. Vascular Dementia

46. Which one of the following is correct regarding the treatment of obsessive
compulsive disorder? ( )
A. Focus on behavioral therapy
B. Focus on cognitive therapy
C. Focus on drug therapy
D. Focus on ECT
E. Neither of the above is correct

47. The most common cause of the syncope below is ( )

A. Orthostatic hypotension syncope
B. Vas….. syncope
C. Arrhythmias syncope
D. Organic heart disease
E. None of above

48. Sensory loss of Guillain-Barre Syndrome is ( )

A. Stocking and glove
B. Segmental cutaneous sensation loss
C. Transverse sensory loss
D. Sensory loss contralateral to the lesion
E. ….. chronicus

49. Which one of the following lesions is the cause of bitemporal…..

A. Optic nerve
B. Optic chiasm
C. Optic tract
D. Optic radiation
E. None of above

50. Which of the following is not the classification of eyelid (Q incomplete)……

A. Involutional
B. Cicatricial
C. Congenital
D. paralytic
E. None of above
If its eyelid entropion then answer is D
If its eyelid ectropion answer is E

51. Which is the most sensitive to color vision? ( )

A. Optic disc
B. Macular
C. Peripheral retina
D. Epithelial retina
E. None of above

52. The indications of termination of pregnancy about post… pregnancy is not correct (
)
A. Fetal growth restriction or fetal weight greater than 400g
B. Fetal movement within 12 hours …..
C. Continuous urinary E/C ratio ……
D. ………
E. The servical conditions are ripe

53. The definition of postpartum hemorrhage is ( )

A. Vaginal bleeding in stage of labor amount more than 500ml
B. Vaginal bleeding after delivery ( fetal childbirth ) within 24 hours more than 500ml
C. Vaginal bleeding after delivery ( fetal childbirth ) within 2 hours more than 500ml
D. Vaginal bleeding after delivery ( fetal childbirth ) within 7 days more than 500ml
E. None of above

54. If the LMP of a pregnant woman is June 5, 2016, then her EDC is ( )
A. Mar 12, 2017
B. Nov 10, 2017
C. Nov 11, 2017
D. Nov 12, 2017
E. June 5, 2017

55. Which of the following risk factors for pelvic Inflammatory disease? ( )
A. Avoidance of barrier contraception
B. Use of the oral contraceptive pill
C. Multiple sexual partners
D. Pregnancy
E. None of above

56. A 45-year-old woman, two years suddenly often get headaches, dizzy, sweating,
and shortness of breath, When the sicken, her blood pressure is 200/120 mmHg, two
hours later her Symptoms away, her blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg. What is the most
likely diagnosis? ( )
A. Hypertension crisis
 B. Pheochromocytoma
C. Renal vascular disease
D. The Cushing syndrome
E. Hypertensive encephalopathy

57. Helicobacter Pylori (H.Pylori) is known cause of peptic ulcer disease. Which of the
following statements is not true regarding it : ( )
A. Its infectivity is highest in developed world.
B. Person to person transmission is common
C. It is seen in populations with low socio economic status
D. H.Pylori is a gram negative microaerophilic bacteria
E. Gastric acid is the only one cause for peptic ulcer

58. The most common respiratory symptom of secondary pulmonary tuberculosis is: (
)
A. Hemoptysis
B. Chest pain
C. Chronic cough
D. Dyspnea
E. Fever

59. The following which related to chronicity of hepatitis B are : ( )

A. The virus produces the former S protein
B. Vertical transmission leads to immune tolerance
C. Virus recurrent infection
D. There is anti-HBe in the serum
E. None of above

60. Features of epidemics include: ( )

A. Infectious agents
B. Routes of infection
C. Susceptible population
D. All of above (A, B, C)
E. None of above

1) Which of the following implies preservation of the basic outline of the involved cell for a
span of at least some days?
A) Coagulative necrosis
B) Liquefactive necrosis
C) Caseous necrosis
D) Fat necrosis
E) Gangrenous necrosis
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2) Which of the following is the hallmark of wound healing?
A) Edema
B) Hypertrophy
C) Inflammation
D) Hyperemia
E) Granulation tissue growth
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3) An arterial thromboemboli is most likely to cause a hemorrhagic infarct in which of the
following organ?
A) Kidney
B) Spleen
C) Lungs
D) Bone
E) Heart
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4) What is the name of the host which harbors the larval (juvenile) or asexual reproductive
parasite?
A) Reservoir host
B) Intermediate host
C) Definitive host
D) Paratenic host
E) Vector
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5) Malarial relapse is related with:
A) Bradysporozoite
B) Tachysporozoite
C) Residual erythrocytic parasites
D) Residual pre-erythrocytic parasites
E) Reinfected parasites
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6) What is the main damage caused by Schistosoma Japonicum?
A) Depriving the host of nutrients
B) Cercarial dermatitis
C) Mechanical and immunological injury caused by the adults
D) Migration of the worms inside the blood vessels
E) Granulomas and fibrosis triggered by deposited eggs in tissue
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7) The inferior digestive tract includes the following intestines except for:
A) Ileum
B) Duodenum
C) Appendix
D) Colon
E) Rectum
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8) Which of the following organs produces the female sex hormones?
A) Uterus
B) Uterine tube
C) Ovary
D) Vagina
E) Greater vestibular gland
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9) Which one of the following arteries is not a direct branch of the abdominal aorta?
A) Celiac trunk
B) Superior mesenteric artery
C) Inferior mesentery artery
D) Common hepatic artery
E) Median sacral artery
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10) To humans, anti-venom from horse serum is:
A) Hapten
B) Xenoantigen
C) Idiotype antigen
D) Common antigen
E) Alloantigen
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11) Which one of the following is correct about IgM
A) It has a hinge region
B) An increase in IgM indicates a late stage of infection
C) IgM may cross the placenta barrier
D) First to be synthesized in individual development
E) IgM is a monomer
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

12) The APC which can stimulate naive T-cell activation is:
A) Mast cell
B) Lymphocyte
C) Dendritic cell
D) Macrophage
E) Monocyte
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13) Protein denaturation is caused by:
A) Changes in amino acid sequence
B) Changes in amino acid composition
C) Hydrolysis of peptide bonds
D) Protein conformational damage
E) Changes in primary structure
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
14) Most of the reducing equivalents, and NADPH utilized for synthesis of fatty acids can be
generated from:
A) Mitochondrial malate dyhydrogynase
B) The pentose phosphate pathway
C) Glycolysis
D) The citric acid cycle
E) Citrate lyase
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
15) Which of the following is the key enzyme for cholesterol synthesis?
A) HMG-CoA reductase
B) Carnitine acyltrasferase
C) Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
D) Fatty acid synthase
E) L-glutamate dehydrogenase
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
16) Humoral control of the circulation is controlled by the substances as follows except:
A) Norepinephrine
B) Epinephrine
C) Bradykinin
D) ADH
E) All of the above
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
17) The appearance of glucose in the urine:
A) Occurs normally
B) Occurs in the presence of a kidney disease
C) Occurs when the transport carriers for glucose becomes saturated
D) Occurs as a result of hypoglycemia
E) Occurs after a meal
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

18) Which of these conditions produces increased compliance of lungs?

A) Airway obstruction
B) Emphysema
C) Fibrosis of lungs
D) Pulmonary edema
E) All of the above
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
19) Which drug is the first choice in the treatment of glaucoma?
A) Timolol (Beta adrenergic blocker)
B) Pilocarpine (Miotic)
C) Physostigmine (Miotic)
D) Adrenaline (Alpha adrenergic agonist)
E) Apraclonidine (Alpha adrenergic agonist)
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
20) Which drug is the strongest in the treatment of bronchial asthma?
A) Adrenaline
B) Noradrenaline
C) Ipratropium bromide
D) Isoprenaline
E) Atropine
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
21) Which statement about lipid solubility and corrects is correct?
A) More of the weak acid drug will be in the lipid soluble form at alkaline pH
B) More of the weak acid drug will be in the lipid soluble form at acid pH
C) More of the weak base drug will be in the lipid soluble form at acid pH
D) A & C
E) B & C
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
22) Cystic fibrosis is the most common autosomal recessive disease among white Americans
occurring with a frequency of 1/2500 births. What is the appropriate frequency of
heterozygous carriers for cystic fibrosis in this population?
A) 1 / 25
B) 2 / 25
C) 1 / 50
D) 1 / 250
E) 1 / 2500
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
23) What proportion of early spontaneous abortion are chromosomally abnormal?
A) 1 %
B) 5 %
C) 10 %
D) 25 %
E) 50 %
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
24) Quantitative traits are best described by which of the following statements?
A) They usually exhibit multifactoral inheritance
B) They are more frequent in monozygotic twins than dizygotic twins
C) They are continuous variable and may assume any value
D) They usually exhibit more extreme values in children than in either parent
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
25) What type of epithelium lines the trachea?
A) Simple Squamous epithelium
B) Simple Cuboidal epithelium
C) Simple Columnar epithelium
D) Stratified Squamous epithelium
E) Pseudo Stratified epithelium
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
26) Which of the following is NOT a fiber found in connective tissue?
A) Collagen fibers
B) Elastic fibers
C) Reticular fibers
D) Purkinje fibers
E) All of the above are fibers found in connective tissue
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
27) What type of muscle has visible cross striations?
A) Skeletal muscle
B) Cardiac muscle
C) Smooth muscle
D) A & B
E) A, B & C
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
28) All of the following refer to the criteria of mental disorders except for:
A) NIMH
B) CCMD-3
C) DSM-IV
D) ICD-10
E) Memory disorder
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
29) Secondary angle closure with pupillary block is the usual mechanism for glaucoma in
each of the following conditions except:
A) An intumescent lens
B) Iris neovascularization
C) Microsphereophakia
D) Ectopic lentils
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
30) The first line of treatment in acid burns to the eye is:
A) Patching the eye
B) Instilling a drop of oil in the eye
C) Immediate wash with plain water
D) Instilling a drop of surface anesthetic into the eye
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
31) What is the 'Gold Standard' for diagnosing Shigellosis?
A) Blood routine
B) Direct microscopic examination on stool
C) Bacteria culture
D) Clinical manifestation
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
32) A 22 years old student presented extremely unwell to his GP because he had chilling and
then fever, headache and was passing black urine. He had returned from a safari in Kenya 2
weeks ago. A full blood count showed Hb 9.2 g/dL. Please choose the most likely cause of
this clinical scenario.
A) Human Immunodeficiency Virus infection
B) Cholera
C) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
D) Malaria
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
33) What is the 'Gold Standard' for the assessment of pediatric OSAS?
A) Head and neck examination
B) Flexible endoscopy
C) Computed Tomography
D) Polysomnography (PSG)
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
34) Which one is the pathogenesis of Meniere's disease?
A) Tumor
B) Inflammation
C) Idiopathic endolymphatic hydrops
D) None of the above
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
35) A 64 years old man has noticed dragging of his right leg and a tremor and stiffness of the
right hand. On examination, he has a tremor of his right hand which disappears when he
reaches to grab a pen. Movements are slower on the right than the left and he has cogwheel
rigidity of the right arm. Choose the most likely diagnosis of this clinical scenario.
A) Essential tremor
B) Parkinson's disease
C) Meige's syndrome
D) Dopa-responsive dystonia
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
36) With vertigo that develops on extreme extension or rotation of the head, a patient
probably has insufficiency in the:
A) Vertebrobasilar system
B) Internal carotid arteries bilaterally
C) Left subclavian artery
D) Internal maxillary artery
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
37) Which one of the following is characteristic of malignant tumors?
A) Poor prognosis
B) Minimal anaplasia
C) Typical capsule
D) Non-invasive growth
E) Grow slowly
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
38) Which one of the following is not an advantage of surgical treatment of malignant
tumor?
A) Not suffer the limitation of neoplastic bionomics
B) No potential dangers of carcinogenesis
C) 60% of patients can be cured after operation
D) Help to define tumor location and stages (Helps with diagnosis of disease)
E) Resection of normal tissue
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
39) A patient with multiple trauma and multiple fractures suddenly appears to be in cardiac
arrest, which are the emergency treatment steps to take:
A) CPR - fixation - hemostasis - bandaging
B) Fixation - CPR - hemostasis - bandaging
C) CPR - hemostasis - fixation - bandaging
D) CPR - hemostasis - bandaging - fixation
E) Fixation-hemostasis-CPR-bandaging
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
40) What kind of arrhythmia can we give the defibrillation treatment to?
A) Cardiac arrest
B) Pulse-less ventricular tachycardia ad ventricular fibrillation
C) PSVT
D) Electric-mechanical separation
E) Atrial Fibrillation
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
41) Which of the following management options is the greatest determinant of patient
outcome in anaphylaxis?
A) Timely administration of steroids
B) Immediate identification of the allergen
C) Early airway intervention and respiratory support
D) Correct dosing of epinephrine
E) Intravenous fluids
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
42) Which of the following is the description of the mission and motto of a psychiatrist?
A) Recover
B) Promote a person's quality of life and functional outcomes
C) Adding years to life
D) Cure disease
E) Helping patient understand each other
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
43) Which of the following belongs to the clinical applications of biofeedback?
A) Muscle re-education
B) Soft tissue injuries
C) Skin infection
D) Cancer
E) TB
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
44) Which examination is the most sensitive in detecting hilar and mediastinal
lymphadenopathy?
A) CT
B) MRI
C) Fluoroscopy
D) DSA
E) Radiography
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
45) Air fluid level in the cavity is usually seen in which of the following?
A) Lung cancer
B) Tuberculoma
C) Lung abscess
D) Bronchiectasis
E) Bulla and cyst
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
46) Which of the following is the best examination for a patient who has cholecystitis?
A) DSA
B) X-ray
C) MRI
D) CT
E) Sonography
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
47) A 40 years old gentleman presented to the clinic with multiple deep seated vesicles at
the side of the fingers. They are extremely itchy, what is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Asteatatic eczema
B) Dyshidrotic eczema
C) Atopic dermatitis
D) Seborrheic dermatitis
E) Lichen Simplex Chronicus
(because it is on the palms and along the sides of the fingers)
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
48) A 45 years old lady presented to the clinic with acute puritic eruptions along the hairline
and on the scalp. The patient dyed her hair just before the eruption. Patch testing is positive
for Paraphenylenediamine (PPD). What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Allergic contact dermatitis
B) Irritant contact dermatitis
C) Psoriasis
D) Seborrheic dermatitis
E) Alopecia areata
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
49) Which of the following is the typical symptom of peptic ulcer?
A) Paroxysmal epigastric pain
B) Continuous epigastric pain
C) Regulated epigastric pain
D) Moderate epigastric pain
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
50) The main clinical manifestations of right heart failure is?
A) Dyspnea
B) Orthopnea
C) Paroxysmal (Nocturnal) dyspnea
D) Edema
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
51) Which of the following is a radiological sign which are found in patients with pulmonary
embolism?
A) Ermark's sign
B) Hampton's sign
C) Palla's sign
D) All of the above
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
52) A mother suffered from persistent vaginal bleeding after the delivery of placenta, the
placenta was reported as incomplete after inspection. What is the first step you should do?
A) Uterine massage
B) Inspect uterine cavity
C) Monitor vital signs and urinary output
D) Uterine massage and inject uterotonic agents
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
53) Which of the following are risk factors for pelvic inflammatory disease?
A) Avoidance of barrier contraception
B) Use of oral contraceptive pills
C) Multiple sexual partners
D) Pregnancy
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
54) Which of the following is the best method the cure endometrial carcinoma of stage 1a?
A) Surgery
B) Radiotherapy
C) Chemotherapy
D) Chemotherapy and surgery
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
55) The following descriptions are all about general clinical presentations of Shock except:
A) Hypotensive < 90mmHg (May be normal level or increase due to compensatory
mechanism)
B) Mean arterial pressure (MAP) < 60mmHg
C) Tachycardia: weak and thready pulse
D) Tachypnea: blow off CO2. respiratory acidosis
E) Decreased urine output
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
56) Please evaluate the size of the burn that a patient has suffered with the Chinese Rule of
Nines: A 40 years old man with both hands, forearms and left face burned by hot oil.
A) 15 %
B) 20 %
C) 12.5 %
D) 17.5 %
E) 22.5 %
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
57) Please choose the correct route of lymphatic metastasis in breast cancer.
A) Pectoralis major LN - Subclavicular - Supraclavicular - Ipsilateral axillary LN - Thoracic duct -
Venous stream
B) Pectoralis major LN - Ipsilateral axillary - Subclavicular - Supraclavicular - Thoracic duct -
Venous stream
C) Pectoralis major LN - Ipsilateral axillary - Supraclavicular - Thoracic duct - Subclavicular -
Venous stream
D) Pectoralis major LN - Supraclavicular - Ipsilateral axillary - Thoracic duct - Subclavicular -
Venous stream
E) Pectoralis major LN - Supraclavicular - Thoracic duct - Venous stream - Ipsilateral axillary -
Subclavicular
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
58) Which of the following is the most common cause of microcytic anemia in children?
A) Alpha thalassemia major
B) Beta thalassemia major
C) Iron deficiency anemia
D) Lead poisoning anemia
E) Folate deficiency anemia
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
59) The prognosis of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) is least favorable when:
A) CD 10 positive
B) Hyper diploid (> 50 chromosomes per cell)
C) t(12;21) involving TEL1 AML1
D) Low WBC count
E) Children under 2 years of age or older than 10 years old
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
60) Which of the following childhood disease is best treated with Penicillin?
A) Classical paralytic polio
B) Tuberculosis meningitis
C) Rheumatic fever
D) Pertusis
E) Lyme disease

1.Prothrombin time (PT) is normal

A. Vitamin K deficiency
B. Decompensation of liver function in chronic liver disease
C. Haemophilia
D. Oral bis-coumarin
E. CongenitalⅤfactor deficiency

2. idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, which of the following is less common

A. Intramuscular hematoma
B. Epistaxis
C. Menorrhagia
D. Oral mucosal bleeding
E. Skin petechial

3.In the course of treating Sheehan syndrome, the only thing that can induce pituitary crisis
is
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Hydrocortisone
D. Growth hormone
E. Levothyroxine sodium
Since thyroxine accelerates the degradation of cortisol and can precipitate adrenal crisis in
patients with limited pituitary reserve, hydrocortisone replacement should always
precede levothyroxine therapy.

4.Obstructive Ventilation Disorder Caused by Incomplete Bronchiole Occlusion

A. Atelectasis
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Bronchiectasis
D. Pneumothorax
E. Emphysema

5.The Most Meaningful Diagnosis For Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy

A. Deep and wide pathological Q waves in the electrocardiogram
B. Loud systolic murmur between the third and fourth ribs of the sternum
C. History of precordial stuffiness and syncope during exertion
D. Echocardiography revealed that the ratio of diastolic ventricular septal thickness to the
posterior wall of the left ventricle was greater than or equal to 1:3, with anterior mitral valve
systolic forward motion
E. Audible and third heart sounds and fourth heart sounds

6. Medical personnel engaged in human organ transplantation should be allowed to

A. Engaging in advertising on human organ transplants
B. Participation in the allocation of organs for donation
C. Participation in the rescue of post-mortem organ donors
D. Assessment of death of persons who participated in post-mortem organ donation
E. Acceptance of equipment for organ transplants, gifts from pharmaceutical companies

7. To adhere to medical ethics

A. collectivity
B. Organizational
C. practicality
D. Mandatory
E. Mobility
8. The critical period of intellectual development is
Before the age of three
Before the age of 4
Before the age of 5
Before the age of 6
E. before the age of 7

9. For patients after appendectomy, the appropriate doctor-patient model is

A. Active-passive type
B. Passive-active
C. Guidance-Cooperation
D. Participatory
E. Cooperative-guiding type

10. The most significant disease of splenomegaly is

A. Acute myeloid leukemia
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
C. acute monocytic leukemia
D. chronic myelogenous leukemia
E. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

11. The main hallmark of peritonitis is

A. Obvious abdominal distension.
B. Severe abdominal cramps
C. Abdominal mobile dullness
D. The sound of bowel sounds weakened or disappeared.
E. peritoneal irritation

12. The main clinical manifestations of abdominal cavity organ rupture are
A. Gastrointestinal symptoms
B. Peritoneal irritation
C. Systemic infection.
D. Pneumoperitoneum
E. Intestinal paralysis

13. Typical clinical manifestations of bronchiectasis are

A. Chronic cough, bloody sputum, chest pain, clubbing, lesions can have wet rales
B. Chronic cough, cough white foam sputum, rarely hemoptysis, double caw can have dry,
wet rales |
C. Chronic cough, cough a lot of purulent blood phlegm, repeated high fever, lesions can
have wet rales
D. Chronic cough, cough a large number of purulent sputum, or repeated hemoptysis, the
lesion site wet rales
E. Chronic cough, often accompanied by low-grade fever, night sweats, hemoptysis, lung can
have a moist rales

14. Characteristics of Progressive Glomerulonephritis

A large number of glomerular mesangial cells proliferated
B. significant proliferation of glomerular endothelial cells
C. marked proliferation of epithelial cells in the glomerular cyst wall
D A large number of nail-like processes on the basilar membrane of the capillaries
E. Thickening of the wall of the capillaries in a track-like shape

15. The role of benzodiazepines

A. had a significant effect on REM sleep phase
B. no anticonvulsant effect.
C. no anti-anxiety effects.
[D] compensatory rebound was more serious after withdrawal.
E. Shortening sleep induction time

16. Hemorrhagic infarction often occurs in

A. Kidney, intestine
B. Spleen and lung
C. Lungs and intestines
D. Heart and intestines
E. Kidney, heart

17. Paget's disease of the breast

A. Nipple eczema -like breast tumor
B. Inflammatory breast cancer
C. Plasma cell mastitis
D. Tuberculosis of the breast
E. Male breast hypertrophy

18. Acute appendicitis in the elderly is clinically characterized by

A. The appendix is prone to ischemia and necrosis.
B. Abdominal pain, nausea
C. They have chills and high fever.
D. The tenderness of the right lower abdomen is obvious
E. Significant abdominal muscle tension

19. The most common tumors in the posterior mediastinum are

A. Teratoma
B. neurogenic tumors
C. Thymoma
D. Lymphoid tumor
E. Intrathoracic thyroid

20. The subject of medical malpractice is the medical establishment and its medical
personnel, in which case the latter refers
All doctors and nurses in the hospital
B. All legally registered doctors and nurses
C. physicians, nurses and external staff of the hospital
D. all persons involved in the hospital's medical activities
E. Medical technical personnel are involved in medical activities in the Court

21. The main mechanism of acute gastritis caused by NSAIDs is

A. activation of pepsin
B. inhibition of preelastase
C. Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
D. Promoting gastrin synthesis
E. Inhibiting lipase

22. The codon on the mRNA recognized by the anticodon UAG is

A. Gtc
B. ATC
C. AUC
D. Cua
E. CTA

23. The basic raw material for erythropoiesis is

A. Iron, vitamin B12
B. Folic acid, vitamin B12
C. Protein, folic acid,
D. Protein, vitamin B12
E. Iron, protein

24. The following are acidic amino acids

A. Phenylalanine
B. Threonine
C. Cysteine
D. Glutamic acid
E. histidine

25. The type of specific substance involved in the blood group of red blood cells is

A. Lectin on erythrocyte membrane

B. The agglutinogen on the erythrocyte membrane
C. Receptor on erythrocyte membrane
D. Lectins in plasma
E. Agglutinogen in plasma
The raw materials required for erythropoiesis include the usual nutrients and structural
materials – amino acids, lipids, and carbs oIron is essential for hemoglobin synthesis.

26. The reason for the uneven distribution of Na + and K + inside and outside the cell is
A. K + can penetrate cell membrane more easily than Na + at rest.
B. Na + was more likely to penetrate the cell membrane than K + when excited
C. Constant outflow of K + and constant inflow of Na +
D. The Interaction of Membrane Carriers and Channel Proteins
E. Na + -K + dependent ATPase activity on the membrane

27. The memory loss of neurasthenia is due to

A. Sleep disorders
[b]. Mental retardation
C. emotional instability
[D] difficulty concentrating
E. Anxiety
a condition that is characterized especially by physical and mental exhaustion usually with
accompanying symptoms (such as headache and irritability), is of unknown cause but is
often associated with depression or emotional stress, and is sometimes considered similar to
or identical with chronic fatigue syndrome.

28. The parietal cells that secrete hydrochloric acid in the gastric mucosa are mainly
distributed in
A. Gastric fundus and cardia
B. fundus and body of stomach
C. gastric body and antrum
D. Antrum and pylorus
E. fundus and antrum

29. Gram-positive bacterial septicemia is rarely expressed as

A. heat retention B. metastatic abscess C. coma D. Rash E. Cold War
30. In plasma protein electrophoresis, the protein that swims the slowest is

A. Albumin
B. 1-globulin
C. 2-globulin
D. - globulin
E. - globulin

31. The ovum is excreted from the ovary and is not fertilized, and the corpus luteum begins
to shrink after ovulation
A.7-8 days
B. 9-10 days
C. 11-12 days
D. 13-14 days
E. 15-16 days

32. For pituitary adenomas, the location diagnosis is preferred

A. Eeg
B. CT
C. MRI
D. Radionuclide scanning
E. Cerebral angiography

33. The most serious adverse effects of the antithyroid drugs propylthiouracil and
methimazole were
A. Permanent hypothyroidism
B. Drug rash
C. Gastrointestinal reaction
D. Agranulocytosis
E. Liver damage.

34. The main basis for classification of immunoglobulin is

A. L chain
B. H-chain
C. Singular body
D. Disulfide bond number
E. Molecular weight

34. The main basis for classification of immunoglobulins is

A. L-chain
B. H-chain
C. Singular
D. Number of disulfide bonds
E. Molecular mass size

35. Macrophages in the course of immune response

A. Production of antibodies
B. Expression of TCR
C. Production of cytokines
D. Genetic rearrangement
E. Expression of CD3 molecules

36. In the monosaccharide fermentation test to distinguish between intestinal and non-
pathogenic bacteria, the monosaccharides with distinct significance are
A. Glucose
B. Maltose
C. Sugar
D. Inulin
E. Lactose

37. The legal obligations of physicians are as follows

A. Implementation of general census activities
B. Carrying out free consultations
C. Health education activities for patients
D. Carrying out health screening activities
E. Rural support for rural health

38. Patients with right heart failure often experience excessive tissue fluid build-up leading to
lower limb edema. The main reasons for this are
A. Decreased plasma colloid osmolality
B. Increased capillary pressure
C. Decreased hydrostatic pressure in tissue fluids
D. Increased colloid osmolality in tissue fluids
E. Obstruction of lymphatic return

39.2 years old, the child is about

A. 55cm
B. 65cm
C. 75cm
D. 87cm
E. 95cm

40. the closing time of infant anterior fontanel is

A. April-August
B. September-November
C. December-August
D. 19-24 months
E. 25-30 June

41.16-year-old male diagnosed with Graves disease. The treatment should be chosen
A. Anti-thyroid drugs
B. Immediate surgical treatment
C. I131 treatment
D. Encouraging eating of kelp

42. A construction worker falls from a high altitude with his left pillow on the ground. After
the injury, he has progressive disturbance of consciousness. His right pupil gradually
expands. The diagnosis should be considered first
A. Acute epidural hematoma of the left occiput
B. Acute subdural hematoma of the right occiput
C. Right frontal and temporal pole contusion with subdural hematoma
D. Contusion and laceration of the left frontotemporal brain
E. Hematoma of cerebellum

43. When hyperthyroidism occurs, the I131 uptake rate exceeds 2 hours by at least
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 30%
E. 35%

44.Elevated blood levels in children with phenylketonuria

A. Tyrosine
B. Phenylalanine
C. Dopamine
D. Serotonin
E. Alanine

45. The diagnostic accuracy of thyroid tumors can be more than 80%.
A. B ultrasonic
B. Ct?
C. ECT
D. Magnetic resonance
E. Fine needle aspiration cytology

46. The right hand of an adult

A.1%
B. 2.5%
C3%
D.3.5 %
E. 5 %
47. Early pregnant women conscious fetal movement, the majority began in

A. 12 to 14 weeks gestation
B. The gestation period was 15 to 17 weeks
C. 18 to 20 weeks gestation
D. 2123 weeks gestation
E. 24 to 26 weeks of gestation
48. The correct description of amylase determination in acute pancreatitis is

A. Acute pancreatitis can be diagnosed only with increased amylase in blood and urine
B. Serum amylase peaked at 8 hours
C. Acute pancreatitis can be diagnosed if serum amylase is more than twice normal.

D. The level of amylase does not necessarily reflect the severity of the disease.

E. The increase of urine amylase was sustainable 2 ~ 4 weeks

49. The second intercostal space between the left sternum touches continuous tremor

A. Patent ductus arteriosus.

B. Aortic stenosis
C. Pulmonary valve stenosis
D. Aortic insufficiency.
E. Pulmonary valve insufficiency

50. The best site for perforation of peptic ulcer of the stomach and duodenum is
A. Anterior wall of duodenal bulb
B. Posterior wall of duodenal bulb
C. Lesser curvature of the stomach
D. Big Bend of Stomach
E. Fundus of stomach

51. The diagnosis of periarthritis of shoulder is based on

A. Men are more than women
B. The right side is more than the
C. Shoulder pain, unrelated to movement
D. Shoulder abduction, external rotation, and extension restriction
E. No atrophy of deltoid muscle of shoulder
52. The following account of the classification of albuminuria is correct

A. Renal tubular autonuria is a benign process, is due to high fever, strenuous exercise, acute
disease and the occurrence of proteinuria
B. Glomerular proteinuria can be divided into selective and non-selective proteinuria due to
the different extent of filtration membrane damage
C. The secretion of proteinuria was mainly caused by the increase of IgM excretion in urine

D. Renal tubular proteinuria was mostly large and medium molecular proteinuria, the total
amount of urine protein was generally > 2G / d.
E. Overflow proteinuria is mainly due to renal tubular lesions can not, re-absorption of the
protein component through the normal glomerular filtration caused
53. What is the correct description of anal fissure
A. The incidence of elderly people is high
B. Often associated with massive bleeding.
C. The most common is at 12 o'clock in the anus
D. Surgery should be the main treatment.
E. Due to chronic diarrhea
54. Which of the following is not a pathophysiological type of chronic diarrhea

A. Osmotic diarrhea
B. Exudative diarrhea
C. Secretory diarrhea
D. Dysfunctional diarrhea
E. Iatrogenic diarrhea
55. Bronchial-lung infection and obstruction are the main causes of the disease.

A. Bronchiectasis
B. Bronchogenic carcinoma
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Chronic bronchitis
E. Obstructive emphysema
56. Among the various factors that cause pulmonary hypertension, pulmonary hypertension
can be reduced significantly after treatment
A. Vasculitis caused by chronic bronchitis
B. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction
C. Emphysema compresses pulmonary capillaries
D. Pulmonary vascular remodeling induced by chronic hypoxia
E. Pulmonary circulation resistance increased due to rupture of alveolar wall

57. According to the diagnostic criteria of diabetes, the diagnosis of diabetes is selected

A. Blood glucose
B. Plasma glucose
C. Glycosylated hemoglobin
D. Qualitative analysis of urine sugar
E. 24-hour urine sugar.
58. The major cations in the extracellular fluid are
A. K +
B. Na +
C. Ca 2 +
D. Mg2 +
E. Fe 2 +
59. In a quiet state, the most important humoral factor in human regulation of
thermogenesis is
A. Thyroid hormone
B. Epinephrine
C. norepinephrine
D. acetylcholine
E. Progesterone
60. The most dangerous part of acute renal failure is oliguria or anuria
A. Water intoxication
B. Decrease of serum sodium and calcium
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Metabolic acidosis
E. Hypertension.
61. Type 3 hypersensitivity disorder
A. Allergic rhinitis
B. Hemolysis of newborn
C. The Arthur reaction
D. Contact dermatitis
E. Bronchial asthma
62. Segmental radiation pain lesions are located in
A. Cortical sensory area
B. Ridge and colliculus bundle
C. Anterior horn cell
D. Maegen
E. Posterior root
63. The characteristics of the exogenous heat source are correct
A. Small molecular weight
B. its pyrogen can be destroyed by proteases.
C. activation of neutrophils and monocytes in the blood
D. acting directly on the thermoregulatory center
E. in vivo inactivation and excretion by liver and kidney
64. In the following hormones, the most significant promotion of insulin secretion is

A. Gastric inhibitory peptide

B. Gastrin
C. Pancreatin
D. Auxin
E. Cortisol

65. In the process of virus proliferation, the structure that can appear is

A. Intermediary
B. Inclusion body
C. Devouring Hugh
D. mitochondrion
E. Metachromatic granules
66.Neisseria meningitidis has different bacterial groups. Which of the following groups is the
most prevalent in China at present
A. Group A
B. Groups B
C. Groups C
D. Groups D
E. Group E

67.The most important way of removing amino groups in muscles is

A. Purine nucleotide cycle
B. Water deamination
C. Amino transfer
D. D-amino acid oxidative deamination
E. L-glutamic acid oxidative deamination
68. Patients with hypertension with angina pectoris and asthma may have renal insufficiency.
The most suitable treatment is
A. Captopril
B. Propranolol
C. Nifedipine
D. Hydrochlorothiazine
E. Piperazosin
69. blood pressure should be controlled in patients with hypertension complicated with
diabetes
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
70. The most common clinical manifestations of cardiac toxicity in digitalis poisoning are
A. Arrhythmia
B. Chest pain
C. Yellow or green
D. Nausea
E. Cough pink foamy sputum
71. The earliest clinical manifestations of hypokalemia are
A. Changes in electrocardiogram
B. Muscle fatigue
C. Bitterness, nausea
D. Cardiac conduction block
E. Heart rhythm abnormalities
72. The following items are stored iron
A. Hemoglobin iron
B. Iron myoglobin
C. Transferrin-binding iron
D. Lactoferrin-bound iron
E. Hemosiderin
73. The diseases with abnormal red cell membrane are
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Maritime anaemia
D. Sickle cell anaemia
E. Hereditary spherocytosis
74. In which of the following cases was a significant increase in neutrophil alkaline
phosphatase activity
A. Chronic granulocytic leukemia
B. Leukemia-like reactions
C. Acute granulocytic leukemia
D. Acute non-lymphocytic leukemia
E. Lymphoma
75. the preferred drug for chronic myelogenous leukemia is
A. Busan
B. Hydroxyurea
C. Indirubin
D. α - interferon
E. Cyclophosphamide
76.The body temperature is above39℃and fluctuates below1℃within 24 hours. This type of
heat is
A. Undulant fever
B. Intermittent heat
C. Retention fever
D. Relaxation fever
E. Irregular heat
77. Beck triple sign means
A. A sudden drop in blood pressure, A marked flare-up of the jugular vein, and A low, blunt,
distant tone of the heart
B. A sudden drop in blood pressure, a marked rage in the jugular vein, and increased heart
sounds
C. Sudden drop in blood pressure, a marked collapse of the jugular vein, and a low, blunt,
distant tone of the heart
D. Sudden drop in blood pressure, significant collapse of the jugular vein and increased heart
sounds
E. Sudden rise in blood pressure, marked distension of the jugular vein, and profoundness of
the heart sound
78. With respect to the description of the PTSD, it is true that
A. Delayed and persistent mental disorders
B. Fixation of a form of recurrent invasive traumatic experience reoccurrence
C. Patients often experience this kind of "repeat experience" in a vague and extremely
painful way
D. Patient's acceptance of trauma-related matters
E. Most patients develop within a few days to six months after a traumatic event and usually
take years to return to normal
79. the three main signs of intracranial hypertension are
A. Elevated blood pressure, weak pulse, weak breathing
B. Headache, vomiting and edema of the optic papilla
C. Confusion, vomiting, unsteady walking
D. Dizziness, headache and vomiting
E. Decreased blood pressure and slow pulse. Weak breathing
80. the main causes of femoral head necrosis caused by fracture of the femoral neck are
A. Osteoporosis
B. Fracture malunion
C. Age of patients
D. Impaired blood supply to the femoral head
E. Long-term bed rest
81. Which of the following is the primary therapeutic purpose of early chronic renal failure
A. Reduced albuminuria
B. Reduction of edema
C. Lowering blood pressure
D. Improving nutrition
E. Delaying renal dysfunction
82. 4-year-old boy, his mother to wear clothes when pulling the left wrist. Children suddenly
burst into tears, left elbow dysfunction, and the left hand refused to take playthings. The
possible diagnosis is
A. Left elbow dislocation
B. supracondylar fracture of the left humerus
C. avulsion fracture of the left medial condyle of the humerus
D. Avulsion fracture of the left lateral condyle of the humerus
E. subluxation of left radial head
83. In response to the 2003 SARS global pandemic, the main control measures adopted by
our country to control transmission are:
A. control of sources of infection
[b]. Cutting off transmission
C. Protecting susceptible people
D. Isolation
E. Medical observation
84. The main causes of portal hypertension are
A. Congenital malformations of the main portal vein
B. Thrombosis and stenosis of hepatic vein
C. Hepatic segment inferior vena cava obstruction
D. Liver cirrhosis
E. Excessive splenic venous blood flow due to various causes
85.if medical records cannot be written up in time for rescuing patients in critical condition,
the medical personnel concerned shall make up the records after the rescue and make clear
the facts. The time limit is
A. Within 2 hours
B. Within 4 hours
C. Within six hours
D. Within eight hours.
E. Within 12 hours.
86. The more common causes of secondary aplastic anemia are
A. Nutritional factors
B. Physical factors
C. Viral infection
D. Bacterial infection
E. Drugs and chemicals
87. The following diseases are not associated with anemia resulting from insufficient
erythropoietin secretion:
A. Renal insufficiency
B. Hypopituitarism.
C. Tumor disease
D. Hypothyroidism
E. Liver disease
88. Laboratory tests for chronic myelogenous leukemia are characterized by

A. Auer bodies were found in bone marrow cells.

B. Neutrophil alkaline phosphatase score increased
C. Ph chromosome positive
D. Glycogen staining
E. Non-specific PHENOLASE staining positive, can be inhibited by NaF
89. The general treatment for nephrotic syndrome is correct
A. You must stay in bed and recover before you can get up
B. A salt-free diet to relieve edema
C. Low protein diet to reduce proteinuria
D. Low-calorie diet prevents hyperlipidemia
E. Diet rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids
90. What is the correct description of HIV
A. Single-stranded negative-strand RNA virus
B. Single strand negative strand DNA virus
C. Double-stranded DNA virus
D. Single-stranded DNA virus
E. Single strand RNA virus
Score :
Unk
Type A2 ( answer note : case summary type best multiple-choice questions. Each of the
questions is a summary of the case, and there are five alternative answers below. When
answering the questions, just choose one of the most appropriate answers, and select the
appropriate answer in the display or the corresponding position in the answer sheet painted
black to show the correct answer. A total of 30 questions, a total of 30.0 points.)

91. Patient, female, 65 years of age. Acute heart failure 1 hour. Physical examination : BP
180 / 70 mmHg, heart rate 105 beats / min. Intravenous sodium nitroprusside was given
immediately.The main mechanism of sodium nitroprusside
A. Reducing cardiac afterload
B. Reduce the residual volume of blood in the atria
C. increase the amount of blood remaining in the ventricle
D. slow atrioventricular nodal conduction
E. Lowering the sinus node self-regulation
92. Female, 40. Obesity, hypertension, amenorrhea 2 years. Physical examination: BP 160 /
90 MmHg, concentric obesity, face circle. Many blood quality appearance, broad purple veins
can be seen in the abdomen, blood sugar 11. 8 mmol / L, the most likely diagnosis

A. Cushing's syndrome
B. Diabetes
C. Metabolic syndrome
[D] obesity
E. hypertension
93. A 38-year-old male presented with a deep abscess under the skin around the anus,
penetrating the surface of the body at one end and perforating the rectum at the other end,
with continual discharge of pus and fecal fluid. This pipe should be called

A. Cellulitis
B. Ulcer
C. Void
D. sinus
E. fistulas
94. Male, 32 years old. Wheezing, dyspnea attack 2 days, in the past have similar attack
history. Physical examination: shortness of breath, cyanosis, double lungs full of loud
wheezing sound, heart rate 120 beats / min, law Qi, no murmur. The treatment of
aminophylline and terbutaline was not effective outside the hospital. For this case, in
addition to the immediate oxygen inhalation, the first treatment should be given

A. Intravenous infusion of aminophylline and terbutaline

B. Combined intravenous antibiotics
C. Hydrocortisone succinate intravenous drip
D. Inhalation of beclomethasone dipropionate
E. 5 % sodium bicarbonate intravenously
95. Male, 49 years old. Intermittent abdominal pain for 5 years, pain episodes and mood,
diet.Physical examination : epigastric tenderness. Gastroscopy: the antral folds were flat, the
mucosa was rough and dull, and the submucosal vessels were seen through.In this case,
consider the diagnosis
A. Peptic Ulcer
B. Prolapse of gastric mucosa
C. chronic superficial gastritis
D. gastric cancer
E. Chronic atrophic gastritis
96. Female, 32. Secondary dysmenorrhea progressive increase for 5 years. G2
P1.Gynecological examination: uterus slightly larger, poor activity, left adnexal region has a
cystic mass, 7cm * 6cm, inactive.Serum CA 125: 86u / ml.The appropriate procedure

A. Resection of the left adnexa

B. Hysterectomy + left accessory excision
C. Hysterectomy + bilateral appendectomy
D. Tumor cytoreductive surgery
E. Exfoliation of left ovarian cyst
97. Female, 37 years old, recurrent dry cough, wheezing for 5 years, aggravated again on the
6th admission, admission examination : T37, P120 times / points, r36 times / min, BP 100 /
70 mmHg.Irritability, sitting breathing, lips cyanosis, lungs full of wheezing sound, arterial
blood gas: pH 7.51, Paco _ 2 29.6 mmHg, PaO 2 48 mmHg, HCO3 - 25 mmHg, FEV1 / FVC 43
percent, the most likely diagnosis
A. Acute attack of bronchial asthma
B. Non-acute attack of bronchial asthma
C. Prolonged period of asthmatic bronchitis
D. Acute exacerbation of asthmatic bronchitis
E. Remission stage of asthmatic chronic bronchitis
98. Female, 60 years old, accidentally fall, the right hand is carrying the ground, immediately
right wrist swelling and pain, wrist ptosis, the activity is limited. The preferred diagnosis

A. Colles' fracture.
B. Smith's fracture
C. Ulnar nerve injury
D. radial nerve injury
E. dislocation of the wrist
99. Male, 57 years old, body weight 76 kg, height 160cm. Due to polydipsia, polyuria was
diagnosed as type 2 diabetes. After 2 months, the fasting blood glucose was 8. 9 mmol / L, 2
hours postprandial blood glucose 13.1 mmol / L.Further treatment should be selected

A. Add sulfonylurea hypoglycemic drugs

B. Plus biguanide hypoglycemic drugs
C. Insulin treatment
D. With oral hypoglycemic agents and insulin.
E. Maintain diet, therapy and exercise
100. Male, 48 years old, with acute anterior wall myocardial infarction for 15 hours, with
acute left ventricular insufficiency, BP170/100mmHg, for the treatment of cardiac
insufficiency should be preferred
A. βreceptor blockers
B. Digoxin
C. Sodium nitroprusside
D. Angiotensin II receptor blockers
E. Captopril
101. Female, aged 65, presented with pain radiating to her left shoulder for 5 years, the
onset lasted 3-4 minutes and was relieved after rest. I had a sudden syncope this afternoon
at work. Check: BP 90/50mmHg, heart rate 140/min, The aortic valve area can be heard and
contractile jet murmur with tremor, and the murmur is transmitted to the neck. Both lungs
are breathy and clear. The most likely diagnosis
A. Hypertension
B. Aortic ectasia
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Atherosclerosis of the aorta
E. Aortic valve insufficiency
102. Male, 39, Physical examination revealed goiter with thyroid enlargement, thyroid
symmetry III degree enlargement, uneven surface, moderate hardness, no tenderness, no
blood vessel murmur, heart rate 75/min. For the diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis,
the preferred test for diagnosis is
A. TSH、FT3、FT4
B. Anti-thyroid antibodies
C. Ultrasound of thyroid B
D. Thyroid I131 prevalence
E. Thyroid CT
103. Male, 30 years old. General fatigue, low fever with left upper abdominal mass for half a
year. 2cm below the ribs of the liver, 7cm below the ribs of the spleen. Laboratory:
Hemoglobin 80g/L, white blood cell 140x109/L, Platelet 100 × 109/ L, myeloid granulocyte
0.02, Ph chromosome positive, NAP negative. The correct treatment is:
A. Large doses of antibiotics to fight infections,
B. Splenectomy
C. HOAP regimen chemotherapy,
D. Hydroxyurea oral
E. VAP regimen chemotherapy
104. The patient, male, 40 years old, was found to have high blood pressure for half a year,
with a maximum of 150/100mmHg, accompanied by fatigue, myalgia and thirst. 20 years of
smoking. Physical examination: blood pressure 170/100mmHg, obesity, heart not big, heart
rhythm, heart rate 76/min, both lower limbs not swollen. Urine routine: urine protein (+),
specific gravity 1.018, blood potassium 3.1mmol/L. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Primary aldosteronism
B. Essential hypertension
C. Renal hypertension
D. Renal vascular hypertension
E. Pheochromocytoma
105. In the hot summer sun, a busy city dweller, especially those suffering from heart disease
and lung disease, There are different degrees of redness, tears, sore throat, wheezing,
coughing, dyspnea, headache, chest tightness, cardiac dysfunction. What do you think are
the possible causes of these symptoms
A. Prevalence of certain infectious diseases
B. Smoke from nearby volcanic eruptions
C. Soot smoke events
D. CO acute poisoning
E. Photochemical smog
106. Female, 35 years old. Stop menstruation 3 months, vaginal irregular bleeding 3 days,
gynecological examination uterus such as 4 months gestational size, B ultrasonic show
uterine fall snow sign. Consider first
A. Spontaneous abortions
B. Twin pregnancy
C. Pregnancy with uterine fibroids
D. Hydatidiform mole
E. Polyhydramnios
107. Male, 28 years old. Previous rheumatic heart disease, nearly half moon fever, T 38.3 ℃,
right lower eyelid conjunctiva visible bleeding point, double lung without rales, palpable and
margin under the spleen rib, skin of both lower limbs minor purpura. Hb 100g/L, WBC
12×109/L, N 75％, Plt 150×109/L. The possible diagnosis is that
A. Hypersplenism
B. Allergic purpura
C. Acute leukemia
D. Aplastic anemia
E. Subacute infectious endocarditis
108. The child, a year old, suffered from poor appetite, little mother's milk, fed with rice
paste and porridge, without the addition of other supplementary food, was diagnosed as
undernourishedⅠdegrees. The first sign is
[A] The body length is below normal
B. Weightlessness
C. Dry skin
D. Hypodermic fat loss
E. Low muscle tone
109.56. Male, 36 years old, 3 years of palpitation, Previous physical examination: BP
130/80mmHg, double lung and wet rales, heart valve area unheard of and murmur.
Arrhythmia, ECG showed ventricular rate 140/min, P wave disappeared and replaced by f
wave of varying size. The most likely signs in this patient were
A. Cyanosis
B. mitral valve face
C. Pulse deficiency
D.A2 hyperfunction
E. edema of lower limbs
110. Female, 25 years old, lack of strength for 3 months with arthralgia and alopecia of limbs.
Laboratory: Hb 70g/L, N 0.72, L 0.25, M 0.03, Plt l 3 5×109/L, Reticulocyte 0.10, urine protein
(++), serum creatinine 93μmmol/L, negative acid hemolysis test, obvious hyperplasticity and
inversion of granulated red ratio, the most likely diagnosis being
A. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B. Myelodysplastic syndrome
C. Hypersplenism
D. Renal anemia
E. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
111. Male, 70 years old. The day after radical gastrectomy, 2000ml of blood transfusion was
given. The patient presented with distended head and dyspnea, and coughed up a large
amount of blood foam sputum. immediately
A. Semi-recumbent position, oxygen uptake, diuresis
B. Anti-infection treatment
C. Large doses of dexamethasone
D. Imported plasma or 5% albumin
E. Alkalization of urine by the importation of sodium bicarbonate
112. In patients with hematuria, the cystoscopy revealed 4cm × 5cm tumors in the triangular
region of the bladder with no pedicle and necrosis on the surface. The best treatment was T3
stage
A. Chemotherapy + radiotherapy
B. Excision of tumors
C. Partial cystectomy
D. Total cystectomy
E. Internal iliac artery embolism
113. Male, 32. The liver area was dull pain, low fever and fatigue for 6 months. There was a
history of contact with the infected water of schistosomiasis, and even drank alcohol.
Physical examination : liver subcostal 3 cm, hard. HBsAg ( + ), ALT 60 U / L, A / 0G 3.1 / 3.0,
AFP was detected twice, the results were 200ng / ml and 400ng / ml respectively.Diagnosis
should be considered first
A. Chronic active hepatitis
B. Hepatitis cirrhosis
C. Schistosomiasis hepatic fibrosis
D. Alcoholic cirrhosis
E. Hepatitis cirrhosis with primary liver cancer
114. Female, 11 years of age. Half a day to sudden upper right abdomen drill top-like severe
colic, with nausea, vomiting, intermittent complete relief, abdominal soft, no limited
tenderness, most likely diagnosed as
A. Acute gastritis
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Biliary ascariasis
D. Acute liver abscess
E. Acute pancreatitis
115. Male, 40 years old, company manager.15 years ago, he began to drink alcohol in social
entertainment, and began to drink about 100-150g liquor / time. 12 years ago, the amount
of alcohol, significantly increased, drink 50 degrees liquor > 300g / time to get drunk. 11
years ago, there is a desire to drink, often looking for drinking opportunities, do not drink is a
sense of panic.9 years ago to reduce or stop drinking in addition to feeling flustered, but also
general malaise, pain, shaking hands, symptoms disappear after drinking.Two years ago,
when he stopped drinking for 2 days because of acute appendicitis operation, he showed
flustered, fidgety, sweating, and his hands trembled, and at night he said he saw everything
on the bed bugs, still beating the sheets. The patient developed alcohol dependence
A. 15 years ago
12 years ago.
11 years ago.
D. nine years ago.
E. 2 years ago
116. Lee to apply for graduate students, want to leave the unit review, then find their high
school classmates-County Hospital, a practicing physician Wang, please ask Wang for sick
leave. Wang for Li opened a " viral myocarditis, a full month " diagnostic certificate. For
Wang's behavior, the county health bureau can give
A. Revoke the doctor's practice certificate
B. They are warned or ordered to suspend their professional activities for three to six months
and receive training and continuing education.
C. Warning or ordering them to suspend their professional activities for six months to one
year
D. To be removed from the doctor's post
E. Administrative or disciplinary action
117. Male, 25 years of age.Left abdomen and left lower chest impact injury occurred for 3
hours.Examination: consciousness, temperature 37, blood pressure 80 / 60 mmHg, pulse rate
120 times / points.Left abdominal tenderness, mild rebound pain and muscle tension, white
blood cells 20 x 109 / L. Urine microscopy red blood cells 20 / HP, the correct first aid
treatment is
A. High-dose antimicrobial therapy
B. Blood transfusion
C. Close observation
D. To correct shock, consider an immediate C-section.
E. 25 % mannitol was used to observe the change of urine
118. Male, 8 years old. Foot stab wounds 1 hour, have received planned mixed vaccination,
to prevent tetanus, the most important correct disposal is
A. The stab wound incision was not sutured
B. Injection of TAT750U
C. To inject tat1500u,
D. To inject tat3000u,
E. Tetanus toxoid 0.5 ml.
119. Female, aged 80.Right humerus surgical neck comminuted fracture, accompanied by
hypertension, pulmonary heart disease.The best treatment is
A. Triangle towel suspension
B. Shoulder arthrodesis
C. Open reduction and internal fixation with steel plate
D. Open reduction and intramedullary nailing
E. Manual reduction and external fixation
120. A 30-year-old man, who had suffered from recurrent grand mal seizures for more than
half a year, had lost his intelligence in the past month and was diagnosed as cerebral
cysticercosis by CT.The first thing to consider
A. brain parenchyma type
B. Ventricle type
C. pia mater type
D. Spinal cord
E. hybrid
Score:

III. Type A3 ) the best multiple-choice questions in the case history group.The following
provides a number of cases, each case under a number of questions.Choose the best of the
five possible answers based on the information provided in the case, and choose the answer
on the monitor or place it on the answer sheetblacked out to indicate a correct answer. A
total of 7 questions, with a total of 7.0 points. )
121-122 Common questions:
Male, 73. Body weight 62 kg, 5 days after total gastrectomy, a large number of intestinal fluid
from the abdominal cavity drainage tube, left upper abdominal pain. Physical examination :
left upper abdomen tenderness, no muscle tension
121. The basic daily calorie requirement for patients is
A. 800kcal
B. 1200kcal
C. 1,500 kcal
D. 2000 kcal
E. 2,500 kcal
122. The preferred treatment is
A. Emergency surgery
B. Parenteral nutrition
C. Essential diet
D. Regular Diet
E. Blood transfusion
123-125 Common questions:
Female, 30 years old, nearly 2 months appear buccal butterfly erythema, moderate fever,
whole body muscle pain, limb joint swelling and pain, oral ulcers. Urine routine showed red
blood cells (+), urine protein (+).
123.1. The most likely antibody to appear on an immunological test is
A. antinuclear antibodies
Anti-jo-i antibody
C. Anti-Scl-70 antibody
D. Rheumatoid factor
E. Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies
124.2. The most likely diagnosis is
A. rheumatoid arthritis
B. sepsis
C. Dermatomyositis
D. systemic lupus erythematosus
E. acute glomerulonephritis
125.3. In order to alleviate the disease, the preferred drug is
A. Antibiotics
B. glucocorticoids
C. non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
D. Analgesic
E. antimalarial drugs
126-127 Common questions:
(1-2 questions share alternative answers)
Male, 49 years old.Repeated irregular epigastric pain for 3 years, gastroscopic diagnosis of
atrophic gastritis.
Which of the following can determine the presence of active gastritis in the patient

126. Intestinal metaplasia of gastric mucosa

B. Gastric mucosal bleeding
C. polymorphonuclear leukocytosis in the gastric mucosa
[D] lymphocytes were the main increase in gastric mucosa.
E. hyperplasia of gastric mucosal fibrous tissue

127.2. If the patient is considered to have type A gastritis, it is correct that

A. Parietal cell antibody negative
B. Elevated levels of gastric acid
C. Lack of anorexia and weight loss
D. Non-occurrence of pernicious anaemia
E. Primarily in the body of the stomach
Scores:
　
C. He'll be back in a few days. Below are several sets of questions, each with five alternative
answers, followed by two or more questions, Choose the correct answer for each question
from the alternative answers, and choose the appropriate answer on the monitor or blacken
it on the answer card to indicate the correct answer. Each alternative answer can be selected
more than once, or none at all. There are 23 questions totaling 23.0 points. )

128-129 Questions Sharing Alternative Answers:

A. Bleeding time
B. Fibrinogen quantification
C. Clot contraction test
D.3P test
E. Platelet count
128.1. The tests to check the blood coagulation function are
129.2. Tests to check for fibrinolytic abnormalities are
130-133 Common answer:
A. Endocrine hyperactivity
B. Endocrine dysfunction
C. Endocrine function is normal
D. Hormone receptor insensitivity
E. Hypofunction due to feedback inhibition of hypothalamus-pituitary-target gland axis

137-138 Questions Sharing Alternative Answers:

A. Minimal change nephropathy
B. Crescentic glomerulonephritis
C. Sclerosing glomerulonephritis
D. Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis
E. Intracapillary proliferative glomerulonephritis
137.1. Pathological types of acute glomerulonephritis
138.2. Pathological types of acute glomerulonephritis
139-140 Questions Sharing Alternative Answers:
A. Differentiated cancer
B. Highly differentiated adenocarcinoma
C. Poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma
D. Well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma
E. Highly differentiated neuroendocrine carcinoma
139. signet ring cell carcinoma belongs to
140. The carcinoma associated with keratocyst formation is
141-142 Common Answer:
A. Suspension of three months to six months of practice
B. Suspension of activities for six months to one year
C. Imposition of administrative sanctions
D. Revocation of practicing doctors' certificates
E. Criminal accountability
141.1.The treatment given by the administrative department of health is to take advantage
of the position to solicit or illegally accept the patient's financial affairs or to seek other
illegitimate benefits
142.2. In case of natural disasters, epidemic diseases, sudden mass casualties and other
emergencies which seriously threaten the life and health of the people, if the circumstances
are serious, the matter shall be handled by the administrative department of public health in
accordance with the provisions of the following provisions
143-146 Common Answer:

A. Male mammary gland development

B. Esophageal varices
C. Ammonia poisoning
D. Decrease in blood clotting factors
E. Jaundice
143.1. Portal hypertension may be caused by
144.2. The decreased detoxification function of the liver
145.3. Decreased hepatic hormone inactivating function was shown as
146.4. The decrease in the synthesis function of the liver
147-148 Answers for common questions:
(1~2 Common Alternative Answers)
A. Fork-like deformity
B. shortening and external rotation of lower limb
C. Wrist Ptosis
D. shortening, internal rotation and adduction deformity of lower limb
E. Dugas test positive
147.1. Colles fracture
148.2. Dislocation of shoulder joint
149-150 Questions Sharing Alternative Answers:
A. Prolonged incubation period
B. Duration of active life
C. Inactive periods
D. Prolonged second stage of labor
E. Stagnation of the second stage of labor
149.1.Primipara, at 40 weeks pregnant, at 5 a.m., at 14 p.m., the uterus opens 5cm and at 22
p.m., the uterus opens 7cm, at which point the diagnosis should be as follows
150.2.In the case of primipara, the uterus is open for more than 2 hours, at which point the
patient shall be diagnosed as