Tahsili Physics-Problems and Questions

TAHSILI-PHYSICS BOOKLET
PREPARED BY:
SCIENCE DEPARTMENT -
INTERNATIONA HIGH SCHOOL – BOYS
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Mechanics Question
Name of Equation Formula Symbols
Number
d: Distance
Distance d=v.t v=speed 1
t=Time
Vi=Initial velocity
Vf=Vi + at 14 , 15,
Motion with constant Vf= Final velocity
ΔX= Vit + at2/2 16 ,17 22,
acceleration a=acceleration
Vf2= Vi 2+ 2aΔx 18, 23,64
Δx= displacement
F= Force
Newton’s second Law Fnet=ma m=mass 32, 33
a= acceleration
W=weight
m=mass
Weight W=mg 42, 50
g= gravitational
acceleration
μk = Coefficient of kinetic
Friction
Coefficient of Friction μk =F/N 58
F =force
N= normal force
a= acceleration
Acceleration on a g= gravitational
a=g sin θ 61
slope acceleration
Θ= angle
τ = Torque
τ = rF sin θ
Torque F= Force 97
r= distance
p=mv
P= momentum
Momentum 109, 114,
m1v1i + m2v2i = m1v1f + m2v2f m= mass
115
V= velocity
KE = ½mv2 m= mass
Kinetic Energy 121,136
V= velocity
m= mass
Gravitational g= gravitational
PE= mgh 139, 140
Potential Energy acceleration
h= height
W= work
Power P=W/t 128
t= time
2
F= force
Work W= Fd cos θ d= displacement 126
Θ= angle
α= Δω/ t α = Angular acceleration

Rotational motion 89
ω= Δθ/t ω= Angular velocity
Definitions
is the rate of change of velocity of an object

Average acceleration
is the velocity at a specific instant in time.

Instantaneous velocity
is the acceleration on an object caused by force of gravity. It is equal
Gravitational acceleration 9.8 m/s2
an object is moving in a curved path through the air

Projectile
Centripetal Acceleration Property of the motion of a body moving in a circular path.
a force that acts on a body moving in a circular path and is directed
Centripetal Force toward the center around which the body is moving.
An object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion

with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an
Newton’s First Law
unbalanced force.
The acceleration of an object as produced by a net force is directly

proportional to the magnitude of the net force, in the same direction as
Newton’s Second Law
the net force, and inversely proportional to the mass of the object.
For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

Newton’s Third Law
A certain amount of force is required to set the objects in motion than to
Kinetic Friction keep them in motion.
the friction that exists between a stationary object and the surface on
Static Friction which it's resting.
All planets move in elliptical orbits, with the sun at one focus.
Keplar’s First law
A line that connects a planet to the sun sweeps out equal areas in equal
Keplar’s Second law times.
The square of the period of any planet is proportional to the cube of the
Keplar’s Third law semi major axis of its orbit.
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An apparent force that acts outward on a body moving around a center,
centrifugal force arising from the body's inertia.
the region of space surrounding a body in which another body

Gravitational field experiences a force of gravitational attraction.
Angular Velocity The rate of change of angular position of a rotating body.

Is the angle in radians through which a point or line has been rotated in
Angular displacement a specified sense about a specified axis.
The change in angular velocity that a spinning object undergoes per unit
Angular acceleration
time.
A point representing the mean position of the matter in a body or

Center of mass
system.
The quantity of motion of a moving body, measured as a product of its

Momentum mass and velocity.
The SI unit of work or energy, equal to the work done by a force of one
Joule newton when its point of application moves one meter in the direction
of action of the force,
Watt The SI unit of power, equivalent to one joule per second
The exertion of force by means of a lever or an object used in the

Leverage manner of a lever.
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1- A motorcycle moves with a constant speed of 4m/s, what is the distance covered in 5 seconds?
a) 1.25m b) 5m c) 10m d) 20m
2- Representing the object's motion by a sequence of single dots called

a)Particle model b) Ray light model c)Dual nature d) wave nature
3- Physical quantities that have a magnitude and direction
a) Scalar quantities b) Numerical Quantities

c) Vector Quantities d) Digital quantities
4- Physical quantities that have a magnitude but no direction
a) Composite quantities b) Constant quantities

c) Vector quantities d) Scalar quantities
5- Displacement and velocity are quantities
a) Numerical b) Constant c) Vector d) Scalar
6- The following graph represents
a) An object at rest b) An object with constant velocity

c) An object with increasing acceleration d) An object with decreasing acceleration
7- A vector quantity represents the change in objects location in a certain direction
a) Distance b) Displacement c) Velocity d) Acceleration
8- The change in an objects location divided by the time taken for this change
a) Instantaneous acceleration b) Linear displacement

c) Average velocity d) Angular velocity
9- The rate at which an object changes its velocity
a) Displacement b) Acceleration c) Velocity d) Distance
10- acceleration: the change in velocity divided by an elapsed time.
a) Average b) Instantaneous c) Relative d) Angular
11- Acceleration’s unit of measure is
a) m b) m/s c) m/s² d) m²/s²
12- When an acceleration vector is in the opposite direction of the velocity

vectors, the object:
a) Slowing down b) speeding up c) At rest d) has no acceleration
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13- When an acceleration vector is in the positive direction, the acceleration of the object is
a) Zero b) Negative c) Positive d) Decreasing
14- A racing car increases its speed from 4m/s to 36m/s in 4s, the acceleration equals
a) 8m/s² b) 10m/s² c) 12m/s² d) 16m/s²
15- A bus moves with a speed of 24m/s, suddenly the driver presses the break then the car stopped after
3s, the acceleration is
a) -27 m/s² b) -21 m/s² c) -8 m/s² d) -3 m/s²

16- a ball was set off with a speed of 4m/s and then the speed decreased in a rate of 2 m/s² , the speed of
the ball after 2s
a) Zero b) 4m/s c) 8m/s d) 10m/s

17- a car was set off from rest with an acceleration of 2 m/s², what is the distance covered until the car
reaches a speed of 20m/s
a) 20m b) 40m c) 60m d) 100m

18- A car accelerates at a constant rate from 15 to 25m/s and covers 125m, what is the acceleration of the
car
a) 1.6 m/s² b) 2.6 m/s² c) 16 m/s² d) 26 m/s²
19- The object's motion under the influence of the gravity only is called
a) Free fall b) Rotational motion c) Vibrational motion d) wave motion
20- Acceleration of a free falling object under the effect of gravity equals:
a) -1.6 m/s² b) -9.8 m/s² c) 9.8 m/s² d) 8.9 m/s²
21- The acceleration of a body at maximum height during flight equals
a) 0 b) 1.6 m/s² c) 1.9 m/s² d) -9.8 m/s²
22- When an object falls from a building, the speed of the object after 4s
a) 9.8 m/s² b) 19.6 m/s² c)29.4 m/s² d)39.2 m/s

23- A student dropped a ball from a window 3.5m high, acceleration of the ball the moment it touches the
ground equals:
a) -1.6 m/s² b) -9.8 m/s² c) 9.8 m/s² d) 8.9 m/s²
24- When you drop two balls with the same size from the same height, but one of them is made of
aluminum and the other from wood
a)The aluminum will reach before the wood b) The aluminum will reach after the
wood
c) The wood will reach before the aluminum d) They will reach at the same time
25- The force that produced when an external object touches a specified system is
a) Field force b) Gravity force c) Contact force d) Magnetic force
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26- The force affecting bodies regardless of any contact between them
a) Field force b)Contact force c) Tangential force d) Friction
27- A physical model showing the forces affecting a system
a) Wave model b) Ray model c) Free body diagram d) Optical model
28- As the force exerted on an object increases, the object’s acceleration will be:
a) Less b) Equal to the force c) greater d) opposite to the force

29- The vector sum of all the forces on an object is called:
a) Net force. b) Displacement c) Velocity d) Acceleration
30- The acceleration of an object is equal to the net force acting on the object divided by the
mass of the object.
a) Newton’s first law b) Newton’s second law

c) Newton’s third law d) Newton’s law of universal gravitation
31- Newton’s second law is represented by the following equation:
a) F=ma b) F=m/a c) F=a/m d) F= m/a²
32- A 420 N force acted on an object with a mass 60 kg, what is the acceleration of the object
a) 3.5 m/s² b) 7 m/s² c) 14 m/s² d) 60 m/s²

33- Two vertical forces one of them 225 N and the other 165 N both act on the same boat in the same
direction, what is vertical resultant force
a) -60 N b) 60 N c) 390 N d) 460 N

34- an object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and in the
same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force
a) Newton’s first law b) Newton’s second law

c) Newton’s third law d) Newton’s law of universal gravitation
35- A property of objects that resist any change in their state of motion
a) Acceleration b) Motion force c) Friction d) Inertia

36- A 1 kg body is hanged to a balance in an elevator. If the reading on the balance is 9.3N, the elevator is
a) Not moving
b) b) Moving upwards with a constant speed
c) Moving upwards with a constant acceleration
d) Moving downwards with a constant acceleration

37- If the net force acting on an object is zero, the object is
a) Accelerating b) Slowing down c) In equilibrium d) Not in equilibrium
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38- An object is in equilibrium when it is
b) At rest b) Moving with constant velocity
c) Acceleration equals zero d) All of the above
39- A contact force acting against the sliding motion between surfaces
a) Normal force b) Gravitational force c) Friction d) Inertia
40- A force affecting an object connected to a rope is called:
a) Normal force b) Tension c) friction force d) Inertia
41- An object’s…………………is the gravitational force experienced by that object.
a)Inertia b) gravitational field c)Friction d) Weight

42- If a mass of 4 Kg was put on a weight scale, what would the scale read?
A- 4 N B- 8 N C- 39.2 N D- 400 N
43- A force that accelerating an object is:

A- Real weight B- Apparent weight C- Friction force D- Pulling force
44- The resistance force that a moving object experience’s in a fluid is:
A- Drag force B- gravitational force C- Pulling force D- Pushing force
45- The constant velocity that is reached when the drag force equals the force of gravity is called:
A- Angular velocity B- Terminal velocity C- Angular acceleration D- Angular vibration
46- a set of two forces that are in opposite directions, have equal magnitudes, and act on different objects:
A- Interaction pairs B- Bimetallic Strip C- Electric pair D- Dual nature.
47- All forces appear as pairs. In every pair the magnitudes are equal, the directions are opposite, and each
force effects a different object.
A- Newton’s 1st law B- Newton’s 2nd law C- Newton’s 3rd law D- Newton’s gravity law
48- Contact force between a surface and an objects:

A- Normal force B- Pulling force
C- Gravity D- Inertia
49- Using the figure, what is the acceleration of the object?

A- 0.2 m/s2 B- 0.4 m/s2
C- 1m/s2 D- 2.5 m/s2
50- A mass of 50 Kg is suspended by a rope, what is the tension in the rope?

A- 4.9 N B- 49 N C- 59.9 N D- 490 N
51- What is the magnitude of the resultant displacement of two displacements, the first is 3 Km, the second
is 4 Km with an angle of 90 degree between them?
A- 1 Km B- 5 Km C- 7 Km D- 12 Km
52- The force exerted on one surface by another when the two surfaces rub against each other because
one or both surfaces are moving is called:
A- Static friction B- Kinetic friction C- Circular friction D- Elastic friction
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53- The force exerted on one surface by another when there is no motion between the two surfaces is
called:
A- Static friction B- Kinetic friction C- Circular friction D- Elastic friction
54- As the pushing force on a not moving object increases, the friction force……
A- Decreases B- Increases C- Doesn’t change D- Multiplied by half
55- The relationship between the kinetic friction force and the normal force is:
A- Directly proportional B- Inversely proportional
C- quadratic relationship D- No relationship
56- The slope of the linear relationship between Kinetic friction and normal force is called:
A- Yong constant B- Viscosity C- Coefficient of Static friction D- Coefficient of Kinetic friction
57- The multiplication of Kinetic friction coefficient and the normal force is:
A- Buoyant force B- Yong constant C- Kinetic friction force D- Viscosity
58- A skateboard weighs 50 N. If a 30 N horizontal force is applied while moving at a constant velocity
on a street, what is the coefficient of the kinetic friction?
A- 0.6 B- 0.9 C- 1.6 D- 1.9
59- The result of the multiplication of the static friction coefficient and the normal force is the static
friction force.
A- Half of B- Double of C- the minimum value of D- the maximum value of
60- What force makes an object in equilibrium?

A- Weight B- Equilibrant C- Friction force D- Viscosity
61- A ball is rolling on an incline with an angle of 300. What is the acceleration of the ball?
A- 4.9 m/s2 B- 9.4 m/s2 C- 9.8 m/s2 D- 19.6 m/s2
62- An object shot through the air ,with only force on it is gravity, is called:
A- Projectile B- Path C- Pair D- Acceleration
63- The path of a projectile (a trajectory) has a shape called:

A- Ellipse B- Hyperbola C- Parabola D- Circle
64- A stone was thrown horizontally with an initial velocity of 5 m/s from the top of a building 78.4m high.
How much time will the stone take to land on the ground?
A- 2 s B- 3 s C- 4 s D- 5 s
65- In the projectile that is lunched with an angle, the time the projectile needs to
reach maximum height is the time it needs to reach the ground from the maximum height.
A- Shorter than B- Equal to C- Longer than D- Double
66- If the time a projectile took to reach its maximum height is 1.5 s, what is the total time of the projectile?
A- 0.75 s B- 1.5 s C- 3 s D- 6 s
67- The motion of an object with constant velocity on a circle with constant radius is called:
A- Rotational motion B- Circular motion C- Wave motion D- Harmonic motion
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68- The direction of the centripetal acceleration is towards the:
A- Center of the circle B- Circumference of the circle
C- Tangent of the circle D- Radius of the circle
69- is the square of the velocity divided by the radius of the circular motion.
A- Linear acceleration B- Angular acceleration
C- Gravitational acceleration D- Centripetal acceleration
70- The centripetal force that affects a rotating object is equal to its mass times its centripetal acceleration.
A- Newton’s first law of circular motion
B- Newton’s second law of circular motion
C- Newton’s third law of circular motion
D- Newton’s universal law of gravitation
71- A car is moving with a speed of 8 m/s in a U shaped turn with a radius of 16 m. What is the centripetal
acceleration of the car?
A- 0.5 m/s2 B- 2 m/s2 C- 2.5m/s2 D- 4 m/s2
72- A 0.4 kg stone is suspended from a 0.5 m string. If the stone is in circular motion, and the linear speed is
2.5m/s, what is the tension force on the string?
A- 2.5 N B- 5 N C- 7.5 N D- 12.5 N
73- A plane flies to the north with a speed of 150 km/h with respect to the wind, and the wind is towards
the east with a speed of 75 km/h with respect to the earth. What is the speed of the plane with respect
to the earth?
A- 167.7 km/h B- 225 km/h C- 267.7 km/h D- 367.7 km/h
74- A train is moving with a speed of 15 m/s with respect to earth. Inside the train, a person moves towards
the front of the train with a speed of 2 m/s with respect to the train. What is the speed of the person
with respect to earth?
A- 7.5 m/s B- 13 m/s C- 17 m/s D- 30 m/s
75- The planets move in elliptical orbits where the sun is one of the centers of the ellipse.
A- 1st law of Kepler B- 2nd law of Kepler
C- 3 law of Kepler
rd D- Universal gravitational law
76- The imaginary line from the sun to a planet covers equal areas over equal periods of time.
C- 3rd law of Kepler D- Universal gravitational law
77- the square of the ratio of the periods of any two planets revolving about the Sun is equal to the cube of the
ratio of their average distances from the Sun.
C- 3 law of Kepler
78- objects attract other objects with a force that is proportional to the product of their masses and
inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
C- 3 law of Kepler
79- Gravitational force is inversely proportional to .

A- Mass B- Mass squared C- Distance D- Distance squared
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80- The measuring unit of the universal gravitational constant is:
A- N.m/kg B- N.m2/kg2 C- N.kg/m D- N.kg2/m2
81- Two bodies 10 kg each and are 1 m apart, if the gravitational constant is 6.67×10-11 N.kg2/m2, what is
the gravitational force between them?
A- 6.67×10-5 N B- 6.67×10-7 N C- 6.67×10-9 N D- 6.67×10-11 N
82- As you travel away from the earth, the earth’s gravitational acceleration on you .
A- Decreases B- Doesn’t change C- Increases D- Doubles
83- Two Satellites are in orbits around the earth, the first is 150 km above and the second is 160 km above
the earth.
A- The first has a longer period
B- The first has a shorter period
C- The first is slower
D- The second has a shorter period
84- Inertial mas is Gravitational mass.

A- Smaller than B- Equal to C- Larger than D- Double
85- A full revolution is equal to .

A- 2π rad B- 4π rad C- 6π rad D- 10π rad
86- The change in the angle during the rotation of an object is called:
A- Angular speed B- Angular frequency
C- Angular acceleration D- Angular displacement
87- When Angular displacement is divided by the time we get:

A- Angular frequency B- Angular acceleration C- Angular velocity D- Full rotation
88- The measuring unit of angular velocity is:

A- rad B- rad/s C- rad/s2 D- s/rad
89- The Angular speed of the earth is:

A- 7.27×10-5 rad/s B- 7.27×10-3 rad/s C- 7.27×10-2 rad/s D- 7.27×10-1 rad/s
90- A fan spins by 100 rev/s, its angular speed is:

A- 214 rad/s B- 314 rad/s C- 628 rad/s D- 828 rad/s
91- A rotating circular object has a diameter of 1.5 m. If its linear speed at the tangent is 3 m/s, what is
its angular speed?
A- 1.5 rad/s B- 2 rad/s C- 4 rad/s D- 4.5 rad/s
92- The change in the angular velocity divided by the time it took to change is called:
A- Angular frequency B- Angular acceleration C- Angular speed D- Full revolution
93- If the linear acceleration of a truck was 2 m/s2, and the angular acceleration of its wheels was
4 rad/s2, what is the diameter of its wheels?
A- 0.5 m B- 1 m C- 6 m D- 8 m
94- The number of full revolutions an object does in one second is called:
A- Angular frequency B- Angular acceleration C- Angular speed D- Full revolution
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95- The vertical distance between the center of rotation and the point of the applied force is called:
A- Torque B- lever-arm C- Applied force D- Momentum
96- The ability of a force to causes a rotation is called:

A- Torque B- lever-arm C- Applied force D- Momentum
97- A wrench of 0.2 m long was used to loosen a nail, if the force on the free tip of the wrench is 200 N with
an angle of 30 degrees from the vertical, what is the torque?
A- 20 N.m B- 50 N.m C- 100 N.m D- 250 N.m
98- The point on the object that moves in the same way that a point particle would move is:
A- Inertial mass B- Gravitational mass C- Center of rotation D- Center of mass
99- An object is stable if its center of mass is:

A- Out of its base B- Below its base C- Above its base D- Next to its base
100- If the net force on an object is zero, then the object is :

A- not in equilibrium B- in mechanical equilibrium
C- in rotational equilibrium D- in translational equilibrium
101) If the net torque acting on an object is zero, the body is experiencing
A- Static equilibrium B- Mechanical equilibrium
C- rotational equilibrium D- translational equilibrium
102) The apparent force that draws a rotating body away from the center of rotation.
a) Centrifugal force
b) Static friction
c) Kinetic friction
d) Central attractive force
103) The equation of centripetal
acceleration is
104) is the product of the average force acting on an object and the time
a) Torque
b) Impulse
c) Pressure
d) Work
105) The measuring unit of the impulse is
a) N/s c) N/m
b) N.s d) N/s2
106) The product of the mass and velocity of an object
a) Torque
b) Force
c) Momentum
d) Work
107) The measuring unit of the momentum is
a) Kg.m
b) Kg/s
c) Kg.m/s
d) Kg.s.s
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108) “The impulse on an object equals the final momentum minus the initial momentum”
a) The work-energy theory
b) The impulse-momentum theory
c) The law of conservation of momentum
d) The law of conservation of kinetic energy
109) What is the momentum of a truck with a mass of 725kg moving at 30m/s
a) 695 kg.m/s
b) 755 kg.m/s
c) 16955 kg.m/s
d) 21750 kg.m/s
110) What is the impulse when a force of 100N acts on an object for 0.01 sec
a) 0
b) 1 N.s
c) 10 N.s
d) 100 N.s
111) A system that does not lose or gain mass is
a) Open
b) Closed
c) Isolated
d) Constant
112) If the external net force acting on a system equals zero, the system is
a) Open
b) Closed
c) Isolated
d) Constant
113) ” The momentum of any closed and isolated system does not change”
a) Work-energy theory
b) Impulse-Momentum theory
c) The law of conservation of momentum
114)Two objects of 10kg each crashed into each other and stuck together. One was at rest while the other
was moving at 4m/s. What is their final speed after the collision?
a) 1 m/s
b) 2 m/s
c) 3 m/s
d) 4 m/s
115)A 0.5kg ball moving at 2 m/s towards the North hit another ball of mass 0.3 kg moving towards the
West at 1m/s. They stuck together. What is their final speed after the collision?
a) 1 m/s
b) 1.3 m/s
c) 2 m/s
d) 4 m/s
116) The product of the force acting on an object in the same direction of the object's displacement is
a) Work
b) Momentum
c) Impulse
d) Torque
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117) is the ability of an object to cause a change in itself or its surrounding
a) Impulse
b) Momentum
c) Torque
d) Energy
118) The product of half an object's mass and the square of its velocity
a) Kinetic energy
b) Potential energy
c) Momentum
d) Impulse
119) If the velocity of an object doubles, what happens to its kinetic energy?
a) It does not change
b) It becomes halved
c) It doubles
d) It quadruples
120) ;If work is done on an object, its kinetic energy changes
a) Work-momentum theory
b) Work-energy theory
c) Energy-force theory
d) Work-Impulse theory
121) If a 2kg object moves at 1 m/s, what is its kinetic energy?
a) 0.25 J
b) 0.5 J
c)1 J
d)2.5 J
122) If work is done on a system from the outside, the work is
a) Zero
b) Negative
c) Positive
d) doubled
123) If a system does work on the surrounding, the system’s work
a) Stays constant
b) Decreases
c) Doubles
d) Increases by 3 time
124) If the force and the displacement are perpendicular, the work is
a) Zero
b) The minimum
c) The maximum
d) Changeable
125) The work done by the friction is
a) In the same direction of the motion
b) At 45o of the motion
c) In opposite direction as the motion
d) Perpendicular to the motion
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126)What is the work done when a person pulls a box at 60o from the horizontal with a force of 100N
along a 10m distance
a) 50J
b) 100J
c) 200J
d) 500J
127) What is the work done divided by the time?
a) Torque
b) Power
c) Displacement
d) Acceleration
128)An electric motor raises an elevator 9m during 15s while applying a 104N force. What is the power
produced by the motor?
a) 2000W
b) 4000W
c) 6000W
d) 8000W
129) The ratio of resistance force to effort force is called:
a) Mechanical Advantage
b) Efficiency
c) Torque
d) Effectiveness
130) The displacement of the effort force divided by the displacement of the resistance force is :
a) Efficiency
b) Ideal mechanical advantage
c) Coefficient of linear expansion
d) Elastic potential energy
131) The ratio of the work done to the work applied is
a) Torque
b) Mechanical advantage
c) Power
d) Efficiency
132) A machine that composes two simple machines and makes the task easier is
a) Fixed pulley
b) Movable pulley
c) Simple machine
d) Compound machine
133) The level at which the potential energy equals zero is called
a) The friction level
b) The sloping level
c) The reference level
d) The gravity level
134)The product of an object's mass by the acceleration due to gravity by the object’s height from the
ground
a) Gravitational potential energy
b) Kinetic Energy
c) Friction done by work
d) Couple torque
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135) At reference level , the gravitational potential energy is
a) The maximum
b) Zero
c) Negative
d) Positive
136)The speed of a bicycle increased from 4 m/s to 6 m/s. if the mass of the cyclist was 55kg, what was
the work done to increase the speed?
a) 11J
b) 28J
c) 550J
d) 55J
137) When an object is thrown upwards, the kinetic energy gradually changes to energy
a) Friction
b) Potential
c) Circular
d) Thermal
138) When an object is thrown upwards, its speed at the maximum height is
a) The maximum
b) In the negative direction
c) In the positive direction
d) Zero
139) A 1.8kg object fell 10m. What is its change in potential energy?
a) -176.4 J
b) -96.4 J
c) 76.4 J
d) 96.4 J
140) What is the energy needed to lift a 4.5kg box to a 1.5m high shelf?
a) 46 J
b) 66 J
c) 76J
d) 96 J
141) The potential energy stored in an object due to a change in its shape is called
a) Gravitational potential energy
b) Elastic potential energy
c) Potential energy
d) Kinetic energy
142)The energy stored in a system resulting from the mass of the object times the square of the speed
of light.
a) Rest energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Thermal energy
d) Elastic energy
143) : in a closed, isolated system, energy can neither be created nor destroyed; rather, energy is
conserved
a) The law of conservation of mass
b) The law of conservation momentum
c) The law of conservation of energy
d) The law of quantization of energy
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144) The sum of the kinetic energy and the potential energy
a) Potential energy
b) Mechanical energy
c) Potential energy
d) Elastic energy
145)The law of conservation of : The sum of the potential and kinetic energy before and after a
change are equal
a) Mass
b) Momentum
c) Kinetic energy
d) Mechanical energy
146) When a pendulum is at the lowest point, its potential energy is
a) Zero
b) The maximum
c) Negative
d) Positive
147) A collision that has no change on the kinetic energy is
a) Inelastic
b) perfectly inelastic
c) Elastic
d) Explosive
148)A collision that has the kinetic energy after the collision lower than the kinetic energy before the
collision is
a) Inelastic
b) perfectly inelastic collision
c) Explosive
d) Super elastic
17
States of Matter
18
Important Laws:
Law Equation Symbols

Celsius to Kelvin 𝐾𝐾 = 273 + oC K: Kelvin oC: Celsius
Q: amount of heat m: mass ∆𝑇𝑇: change
Amount of heat Q = mCΔT in temperature
Final temperature of Tf: final temperature of the mixture m:mass
Mixture C:specific heat T:initial temperature
Heat of Fusion Q = mHf Q: amount of heat m: mass Hf= heat of fusion
Q: amount of heat m: mass Hf= heat of
Heat of vaporization Q = mHv vaporization
∆𝑈:Change in internal energy Q: amount
1st law of thermodynamics ΔU = Q-W of heat added W: work done
P: Pressure F: Force A: Area 𝜌𝜌: density of
Pressure
fluid h: depth g: acceleration due to
gravity
General Law of Gases P: pressure V: volume T: temperature in kelvin
P: pressure V: volume T: temperature n:
Ideal Gas Law PV=nRT
number of moles R: Gas constant
Fp = ρVg Fb: Buoyant force ρ: density of fluid V: Volume
Archimedes Principle of submerged object g: acceleration due to
gravity
F1: Force on small press F2: Force on large
Hydraulic Press Rule press A1: Area of small press A2: Area of large
press
𝛼𝛼:coefficient of linear expansion ∆𝐿𝐿: change in
Linear Expansion length 𝐿𝐿1: initial length ∆𝑇𝑇: change in
temperature
19
A process in which kinetic energy is transferred by the collisions of
Thermal Conductance
particles
The energy transported between two touching objects usually from
Heat
hot to cold
A type of heat transfer caused by the difference in temperature in
Convection
different parts of a fluid
Radiation The transfer of energy via electromagnetic waves.
The amount of heat required to raise a specific unit of mass of a
Specific Heat Capacity
material by 1 degree
The amount of heat required to change 1kg of a substance from solid
Latent heat of fusion
to liquid at the melting point
The amount of heat required to change 1kg of a substance from
Latent heat of vaporization
liquid to gas at the boiling point
The change in thermal energy of an object equals the amount of heat
1st law of thermodynamics
added minus the work done by the object
A device that changes heat energy to mechanical energy
Heat engine
continuously by requiring a high heat energy source
Entropy The degree of disorder or randomness in the system.
Natural process occur to conserve or to increase the total entropy in
2nd law of thermodynamics
the universe
Fluids A liquid or gas that can flow and do not have a definite shape
For a certain quantity of an ideal gas, the product of the pressure and
General Gas Law
volume divided by temperature in kelvin equals a constant
In an ideal gas, the product of the pressure and volume equals the
Ideal gas law
number of moles times the R constant and the temperature in Kelvin
The tendency of matter to change in volume in response to a change
Thermal Expansion
in temperature, through heat transfer.
An ionized gas consisting of positive ions and free electrons that can
Plasma
conduct electricity
The sticking together of particles of the same substance caused by
Cohesion electromagnetic attraction forces. It is responsible for surface
tension
The sticking together of particles of different substances caused by
Adhesion electromagnetic attraction forces. It is responsible for the capillary
tube effect.
Pressure exerted anywhere in a confined incompressible fluid is
Pascal’s principle
transmitted equally in all directions
Buoyant Force An upward force that pushes a submerged object upwards
A body totally or partially immersed in a fluid is subject to an
Archimedes Principle
upward force equal in magnitude to the weight of fluid it displaces.
Bernoulli’s Principle An increase in a fluids velocity decreases its pressure
Flow lines Lines that show the flow of fluids around objects
A stable and constant arrangement formed when the temperature of
Crystal lattice
a liquid decreases
A substance that has a definite mass and volume, but no crystal
Non-Crystalline material
lattice arrangement
The change in length divided by the product of the initial length and
Coefficient of linear expansion
the change in temperature
Coefficient of volume The change in volume divided by the product of the initial volume
Expansion and the change in temperature
20
149) A process in which kinetic energy is transferred when particles collide
a) Convection
b) Conduction
c) Radiation
d) Thermal equilibrium
150) A state in which the flow of energy between two objects is equal in both direction
a) Convection
b) Conduction
c) Radiation
151) A measure of the motion of the particles in an object
a) Convection
b) Conduction
c) Radiation
d) Temperature
152) The minimum temperature
a) Zero kelvin
b) Zero Fahrenheit
c) Zero Celsius
d) Zero Centigrade
153) 127oC equals
a) 273 K
b) 373 K
c) 400 K
d) 473 K
154) The energy that is always transferred from hot objects to cold objects
a) Work
b) Power
c) Torque
d) Heat
155) The motion of a fluid caused by a difference in temperature

a) Convection
b) Conduction
c) Radiation
156) Thunderstorms are examples of
a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
157) The transfer of energy via electromagnetic waves
a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
158) the amount of energy that must be added to a unit mass of the material to raise its temperature
21
by one temperature unit is called:
a) Latent heat
b) Specific heat
c) Heat capacity
d) Boiling Point
159) The amount of heat gained or lost is directly proportional to the
a) Velocity of the object
b) Acceleration of the object
c) Displacement of the object
d) Mass of the object
160) When the temperature of 5kg of a liquid (Specific heat= 1000J/Kg.K) is raised by 10K, the
energy absorbed equals
a) 500 J
b) 5000 J
c) 50000 J
d) 500000 J
161) A device used to measure a change in thermal energy
a) Kelvin
b) Calorimeter
c) Newton
d) Watt
162) 0.2 Kg of water with a temperature of 80oC was mixed with 0.2Kg of water with a temperature
of 10oC (Specific heat= 4180J/KgoC). What is the final temperature of the mixture?
a) 30oC
b) 35oC
c) 40oC
d) 45oC
163) The temperature at which a substance changes from solid to liquid is called point
a) Boiling
b) Evaporation
c) Melting
d) Freezing
164) When a solid is melting, its temperature
a) Decreases
b) Does not change
c) Increases
d) Doubles
165) The temperature at which a substance changes from liquid to gas is called point
a) Boiling
b) Sublimation
c) Melting
d) Freezing
166) When a liquid is boiling, its temperature
a) Decreases
b) Does not change
c) Increases
d) Doubles
167) The amount of heat needed to melt 1kg of a substance
22
a) Heat of fusion
b) Heat of vaporization
c) Melting Point
d) Boiling Point
168) The amount of heat needed to vaporize 1kg of a substance
a) Heat of fusion
b) Heat of vaporization
c) Melting Point
d) Boiling Point
169) The amount of heat needed to melt a solid is directly proportional to
a) The mass of the substance
b) Specific heat
c) Heat capacity
d) Melting point
170) What is the amount of heat needed to melt 10Kg of ice if its heat of fusion is 3.34 x 105 J/Kg
a) 3.34 x 103J
b) 3.34 x 104J
c) 3.34 x 105J
d) 3.34 x 106J
171) What is amount of heat needed to vaporize 2Kg of water if its latent heat of vaporization=
2.26x106J/Kg
a) 1.13x106J
b) 2.26x106J
c) 4.52x106J
d) 6.78x106J
172) law: “The change in internal energy in an object equals the heat added to it minus the
work the object does.”
a) The first law of thermodynamics
b) The second law of thermodynamics
c) The “work energy” theory
173) A device used to continuously convert thermal energy to mechanical energy
a) Electrical generator
b) Transformer
c) Heat engine
d) Electric heater
174) Energy that is not converted to work and leaves the vehicle
a) Latent heat
b) Absorbed heat
c) Lost heat
d) Heat input
175) Most engines don’t have an efficiency of 100% because of
a) Latent heat
b) Absorbed heat
c) Heat input
d) Lost heat
176) A device used to move thermal energy from a cold body to a hot body
23
a) Heat pump
b) Transformer
c) Heat engine
d) Electric heater
177) The amount of work done by a balloon that absorbed 75J of heat and expanded without
changing its temperature is
a) -75J
b) 0 J
c) 75 J
d) 150 J
178) The degree of disorder or randomness of a system
a) Entropy
b) Internal Energy
c) Added Heat
d) Work
179) When heat is added to a system, entropy
a) Decreases
b) Does not change
c) is zero
d) Increases
180) If an object does work without changing temperature its entropy
a) Decreases
b) Does not change
c) Is zero
d) Increases
181) Heat added to a body divided by the temperature of a body in Kelvin is
a) Work
b) Thermal energy
c) Change in entropy
d) Latent heat
182) law: “All natural processes occur in such a way that the total entropy of the universe
increases.”
a) First law of thermodynamics
b) Second law of thermodynamics
c) “Work energy” theory
d) Law of conservation of kinetic energy
183) Substances that flow and do not have a definite shape
a) Fluids
b) Solids
c) Semiconductors
d) Hard objects
184) Force over area equals
a) Work
b) Impulse
c) Torque
d) Pressure
24
185) If the atmospheric pressure at sea level equals 105 Pa, what is the force on a 0.1m2 surface at sea
level?
a) 102
b) 103
c) 104
d) 106
186) law: “When the temperature is constant, the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to the
pressure exerted on it”
a) Charles
b) Boyle
c) Gay-Lussacs
d) Pressure
187) Charles suggested the temperature at which the volume of a gas would equal zero
a) 0oF
b) 0oC
c) Absolute Zero
d) 0oCentigrade
188) law: “when the pressure is constant, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the
temperature”
a) Charles
b) Boyle
c) Gay-Lussacs
d) Pressure
189) law ‘The product of the pressure of the gas and its volume divided by its temperature
equals a constant”
a) Boyle
b) Gay-Lussacs
c) Pressure
d) General gases
190) law” The product of the pressure and volume of a gas equals the number of moles times R
times its temperature in Kelvin”
a) Boyle
b) Gay-Lussacs
c) Ideal gas
d) General gases
191) A gas tank contains 200L of gas at 200K and 106 Pa. What will the new pressure be if the
temperature was raised to 300K and the volume was decreased to 100L?
a) 3x106 Pa
b) 3x107 Pa
c) 2x108 Pa
d) 2x109 Pa
192) The circulating of air in a room is an application of what property?
a) Viscosity
b) Pressure
c) Thermal expansion
d) Stress
25
193) The greatest density of water is at
a) 0K
b) 0C
c) 4C
d) 100C
194) The ionized gas consisting of negative electrons and positive ions
a) Solvent
b) Electrolyte
c) Semiconductor
d) Plasma
195) One of the properties of plasma
a) Conducting electricity.
b) Solid
c) Malleable
d) High Boiling Point
196) Surface tension is caused by
a) Adhesive forces
b) Cohesive forces
c) Viscosity
d) Buoyant force
197) The curvature of a surface of a liquid to occupy the least surface area possible
a) Viscosity
b) Pressure
c) Buoyant force
d) Surface tension
198) The most viscous liquid is
a) Water
b) Oil
c) Lava
d) Honey
199) Electromagnetic attraction forces between particles of different substances
a) Adhesion forces
b) Cohesion forces
c) Viscosity
d) Buoyant force
200) The rising of the water from the bottom to the top of soil and roots is caused by
a) Viscosity
b) Capillary action
c) Buoyant force
d) Surface tension
201) law/principle “any change in pressure applied at any point on a confined fluid is
transferred undiminished throughout the fluid,”
a) Bernoulli
b) Archimedes
c) Charles
d) Pascal
26
202) What is the apparent weight of a brick of volume 10-3m3 and density of 4x103kg/m3
Immersed in water with 103kg/m3 density(g = 10 m/s2)
a) 30 N
b) 40N
c) 50N
d) 60 N
203) A machine pushes with a force of 50N on a hydraulic lift with a 0.01m2 area to lift a small car.
What is the weight of the car if it is standing on an area of 2 m2?
a) 1000N
b) 5000N
c) 7500N
d) 10000N
204) Bernoulli’s principle states that when a fluid’s velocity increases, its pressure
a) Decreases
b) Stays constant
c) Does not change
d) Increases
205) A carburetor in a benzene engine is an application of what law/principle?
a) Bernoulli
b) Archimedes
c) Charles
d) Pascal
206) A consistent pattern/arrangement that forms when a liquid’s temperature decreases
a) Plasma
b) Gaseous state
c) Liquid state
d) Crystal lattice
207) A substance that has a definite shape and volume, but it does not have a consistent crystal lattice
arrangement
a) Crystalline substance
b) amorphous solid.
c) Plasma
d) Gaseous substance
208) When pressure on water increases, its freezing point
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Stays constant
d) Does not change
209) The ability of solids to go back to their original shape when an external force is released
a) Stress
b) Strain
c) Elasticity
d) Viscosity
210) Rod “A” 2m and rod “B” 1m are exposed to the same change in temperature. If they are made of
the same material then
a) Rod A expansion=1/4(rod B expansion)
b) Rod A expansion=1/2( rod B expansion)
c) Rod A expansion=2( rod B expansion)
d) Rod A expansion=3(rod B expansion)
27
211) Coefficient of volume expansion=x(coefficient of linear expansion)
a) X=1/4
b) X=1/2
c) X=2
d) X=3
212) A 2 m rod expanded by 0.001m when the temperature increase was 50oC. What is the
coefficient of linear expansion?
a)1.0x 10-5 oC-1
b) 2.0x 10-5 oC-1
c) 2.5x10-5 oC-1
d) 1.5x 10-5 oC-1
213) A strip made of two metals used in thermostats
a) Thermal pump
b) Bimetallic strip
c) Carburetor
d) Steam engine
28
Waves
29
Important Laws:
Mathematical Question
Principal Name Symbols
Equation NO.
F: spring force, k: spring constant,
Hooke’s Law F= - kx x: displacement from the 218
equilibrium position.
k: spring constant, x:
Spring Potential
PEspring=½kx2 displacement from the 219
Energy
equilibrium position.
L: pendulum length, g:
Pendulum period T=2π√(L/g) 221
gravitational acceleration
λ : wavelength, v: velocity of the
Wavelength λ =v/f 228
wave, f: frequency of the wave
fd: received frequency, fs: source
Doppler Effect (sound) fd=fs((v-vd)/(v-vs)) 243
frequency, v: sound speed.
Luminosity E=P/(4π r2) E: luminosity, P: luminous flux 257
fobs: observed frequency,
Doppler Effect (light) fobs= f 1±(v/c) v: relative speed, f: real 267
frequency, c: speed of light
Ɵi: incidence angle, Ɵr: reflected
Reflection Law Ɵi=Ɵr 269
angle.
f: focal point, do: distance
Lenses Law 1/f=(1/di )+(1/do) 296,284
from object, di: distance from
image.
m: magnification ratio, hi: image
Magnification Law m= hi/ho =-di /do 285
height, ho: object height.
n: index of refraction. Ɵ1:
Snell’s law n1sinƟ1=n2sinƟ2 incidence angle, Ɵ2: 288
refracted angle.
x: distance between two fringes
Young’s Double-slit d: distance between the slits
λ = (xd)/L 358
experiment L: distance between the slits and
the screen
d: thickness of the film
Thin-film interference d= λ/4n 309
n: index of refraction.
2x1: width of the fringe
SINGLE-SLIT
2x1=(2λL)/W L:distance from the screen, 311
DIFFRACTION
W:width of the slit
30
Important Definitions:-
Term Defenition
Periodic Motion A motion that repeats in a regular cycle.
Simple Harmonic Any system in which the force acting to restore an object to its equilibrium
Motion position is directly proportional to the displacement of the object.
Period The time needed for an object to repeat one complete cycle of the motion
Amplitude the maximum distance the object moves from the equilibrium position
The magnitude of the force exerted by a spring is equal to the spring constant
Hook’s Law times the distance the spring is stretched or compressed from its equilibrium
position.
The tendency of a system to oscillate with greater amplitude at some
Resonance
frequencies none than at others
A disturbance that carries energy through matter medium) or space without
Wave
transferring matter.
Wave pulse a single bump or disturbance that travels through a medium
Periodic wave A wave that is generated when disturbance continue at a constant rate.
A wave that disturbs the particles in the medium parallel to the direction of
Longitudinal wave
the wave’s travel
A wave that disturbs the particles in the medium perpendicular to the
Transverse wave
direction of the wave’s travel
The wave which the medium’s particles follow a circular path that is at times
Surface wave parallel to the direction of travel and at other times perpendicular to the
direction of wave travel.
Wavelength The shortest distance between points where the wave pattern repeats itself
Principle of States that the displacement of a medium caused by two or more waves is the
superposition algebraic sum of the displacements caused by the individual waves.
Wave front a line that represents the crest of a wave in two dimensions.
The point that does not move at all where the pulses meet and are in the
Node
same location, the displacement is zero.
Antinode The area that has the maximum displacement when to pulses are met
Law of reflection States that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
The highness or lowness of a sound, which depends on the frequency of
Pitch
vibration. It makes the difference between highness or lowness of a sound.
The intensity of the sound as perceived by the ear and interpreted by the
Sound Loudness brain. This intensity depends primarily on the amplitude of the pressure
wave.
A logarithmic scale used to measure the wide range of sound intensities
Sound level: humans can detect. The sound level depends on the ratio of the intensity of a
given sound wave to that of the most faintly heard sound.
Decibel (dB) The most common unit of measurement for sound level.
The change in frequency of sound caused by the movement of the source, the
Doppler effect
detector, or both.
Fundamental The lowest frequency of sound that resonates in a musical instrument.
Frequency
Dissonance An unpleasant set of pitches.
Two frequencies that are nearly identical interfere to produce oscillating high
Beat
and low sound levels.
States that light travels in straight lines and that its direction can be changed
Ray model of light
by encountering a boundary.
Luminance The rate of light striking on a surface per unit area, measured in lux
Diffraction Nanc The bending of light as it passes the edge of a barrier
31
Polarization Light is vibrating in one plane
The intensity of light coming out of a second polarizing filter is equal to the
intensity of polarized light coming out of a first polarizing filter multiplied by
Malleus’s Law
the cosine, squared, of the angle between the polarizing axes of the two
filters.
The reflection produced by smooth surface, in which parallel light rays reflect
Regular reflection
in parallel.
Diffuse reflection The scattering of light off a rough surface.
A type of image formed by diverging light rays. It is always on the opposite
Virtual image
side of the mirror from the object.
Inverted and larger image than the object formed by the converging light
Real image
rays
The point where incident light rays that are parallel to the principal axis
Focal point
converge after reflecting from the mirror.
Focal length The distance between the mirror and the focal point
Spherical Defect occurs in spherical mirror occurs because the light rays do not
aberration converge at a focal point, which makes an image look fuzzy.
Is equal to speed of light in the vacuum divided by the speed of light in the
The index of
medium
Refraction
The product of the index of refraction of the first medium and the sine of the
angle of incidence is equal to the product of the index of refraction of the
Snell’s Law
second medium and the sine of the angle of refraction.
The angle at which the refracted light ray lies along the boundary of the two
Critical angle
mediums
Occurs when light traveling from a region of a higher index of refraction to a
region of a lower index of refraction strikes the boundary at an angle greater
Total internal
than the critical angle such that all light reflects back into the region of the
reflection
higher index of refraction.
The separation of white light into a spectrum of colors using a glass prism or
Dispersion water drops in the atmosphere.
An effect caused by the light that passes through a lens that is slightly
Chromatic
dispersed, especially near the edges.
aberration
A system of two or more lenses that have different indices of refraction, and
Achromatic lens is used to decrease the chromatic aberration.
An eye condition where the focal length of the eye is too short to focus light
Nearsightedness on the retina, and forming images on the retina. It is corrected using external
(myopia): concave lenses.
The condition in which the focal length of the eye is too long. Images are
Farsightedness therefore not formed on the retina. It is corrected using external convex
(hyperopia) lenses.
Light made up of waves of the same wavelength that are in phase with each
other. A regular wave front, which is made of coherent light, can be created
by a single point source. A regular wave front also can be created by multiple
Coherent light
point sources when all point sources are in phase. This type of coherent light
is produced by a laser.
Incoherent light A light whose waves are out of phase

32
Monochromatic A light of only one wavelength.
light
The overlap created a pattern of bright and dark bands. the bands resulted
from constructive and destructive interference of light waves from the two
Interference fringes
slits in the barrier.
constructive and destructive interference appeared on a screen when the

Diffraction
light passes through a very narrow slit.
A device that is made up of many small slits that are closely arranged
Diffraction grating
States that if the center of the bright spot of one source’s image falls on the
first dark ring of the second, the two images are at the limit of resolution. If
Rayleigh criterion the images of two stars are at the limit of resolution, a viewer can tell that
there are two stars rather than only one.
33
214- A type of movement that is in a uniform cycle:
a- Projectile motion.
b- Constant motion.
c- Random motion.
d- Periodic motion.
215- The maximum distance an object moves away from its equilibrium is
a- Frequency.
b- Periodic time.
c- Amplitude
d- Wavelength.
216- The motion caused when the returning force in an object is proportional with displacing the
object from its equilibrium is:
a- Projectile motion.
b- Straight line motion.
c- Free fall.
d- Simple Harmonic motion.
217- The force exerted on a spring is directly proportional to the displacement.

a- Pascal’s Principle.
b- Bernoulli’s Principle.
c- Archimede’s Principle.
d- Hook’s Law.
218- An object with weight 15N has been suspended in a spring with constant 60N/m, what is the
displacement?
a- 0.25m.
b- 2m.
c- 2.5m.
d- 4m.
219- A spring is displaced by 0.1m, if the spring constant is 150N/m, what is the elastic potential
energy ?
a- 0.15 J.
b- 0.75 J.
c- 1.50 J.
d- 15.5 J.
220- The periodic time for a simple pendulum depends on:

a- Mass of the pendulum.
b- Amplitude.
c- Mass of the object (Bob).
d- Acceleration due to gravity.
34
221- If the periodic time of a pendulum with length of (9.8) m, is (2π)s, then the acceleration due
to gravity at the position of the pendulum is:
a- 8.8m/s2
b- 8.9m/s2
c- 9.8m/s2
d- 10.8m/s2
222- A special property in simple harmonic motion happens when small forces are exerted at
uniform rates on a vibrational object which leads to an increase in the amplitude.
a- Resonance.
b- Frequency.
c- Amplitude.
d- Wavelength.
223. A wave that oscillates vertically in the direction of the wave propagation is?
a. Longitudinal wave. c. Surface waves.
b. Transverse wave. d.Random waves.
224.…… wave is a disturbance that travels in the movement direction of the wave itself.
b. Transverse wave. d.Random waves.
225. Wave amplitude depends on?

a. Frequency. c. Speed.
b. Wavelength. d. How it is produced.
226. The distance between two adjacent corresponding points on a wave is?
a. The wavelength. c. Vibration amplitude.
b. Frequency. d. Resonance.
227. Any two points in a wave will be in the same phase if the distance between them is?
a. Half the wavelength. c. twice the wavelength.
b. 1.5 the wavelength. d. 2.5 the wavelength.
228. A transverse wave is produced in a rope that has a frequency of 6 Hz and a speed of 15 m/s,
what is the wavelength?
a. 1.5 m. c. 3 m.
b. 2.5 m. d. 3.5 m.
229. The displacement of a medium caused by two or more waves is the algebraic sum of the displacements
caused by the individual waves. is called :
a. Bernoulli principle. c. Superposition principle.
b. Pascal principle. d. Huygens principle.
230. At the convergence of two pulses that have the same amplitude but opposite direction, the interference is?
a. Constructive. c. Nondestructive.
b. Destructive . d. Complete destructive.
35
231. When waves amplitudes have the same direction then the interference is?
a. Constructive. c. Nondestructive.
b. Destructive . d. Complete destructive.
232. The wave that appears stationary, and is produced as result of the interference of two waves that
travels in opposite directions, is?
b. Transverse wave. d. Standing wave.
233. The change in the wave propagation direction at the plane separating two different mediums, is?
a. Reflection. c. Refraction.
b. Interference. d. Diffraction.
234. A pressure oscillation that is transmitted through matter is

a. Light wave. c. Transverse wave.
b. Sound wave. d. Electromagnetic wave.
235. Sound wave is considered?

a. Longitudinal. c. Transverse.
b. Electromagnetic. d. Surface.
236. When the medium temperature increases, sound wave speed

a. Halved . c. Decrease.
b. Remains constant. d. Increases.
237. Sound doesn't move in?
a. Liquids. c. Solids.
b. Gases. d. Vacuum.
238. A …..converts sound wave energy to electrical energy.

a. Recording head c. Microphone.
b. Radiation tube. d. Computer disk.
239. Sound pitch depends on

a. Sound frequency. c. sound wave length.
b. Sound speed. d. Temperature.
240. A property that depends on pressure wave amplitude.

a. Sound frequency. c. sound wave length.
b. Sound loudness. d. Sound speed .
241. Sound level measuring unit, is?

a. Hertz. c. Decibel.
b. Lumen. d. Luxe.
242. What happens when the sound source moves toward the observer?
a. Wave length decreases. c. Frequency decreases.
b. Wave length increases. d. Frequency doesn’t change.
36
243. A car moves at speed of 10 m/s toward a stationary siren. If the siren sound frequency is
340Hz and speed of sound in air is 340 m/s, what is the measured frequency by the car?
a. 388 Hz. c. 368 Hz.
b. 318 Hz. d. 350 Hz.
244. One of Doppler effect’s applications, is?

a. Radar. c. Telescope.
b. Galvanometer d. Recording device
245. A closed pipe will reach sonance with a sound resource when its length is an odd-numbered multiples of:
a. Quarter wavelengths. c. Half wavelengths.
b. wave lengths. d. Speed of sound.
246. As the tension of a string increases, the speed of the wave will ……
a. does not change. c. decrease by a factor of four.
b. decrease by half. d. increase.
247. Wave amplitude verses its frequency diagram, is?

a. Sound spectrum. c. Sound pitch.
b. Sound loudness. d. Sound pulse.
248. The noisy sound that results from a group of different pitch frequencies, is
a. Harmony. c. Pulse.
b. dissonance. d. Beat.
249. The first harmonic is more than fundamental harmonic by

a. 1/4 Octave . c. 1/2 Octave.
b. 1/3 Octave. d. 1 Octave.
250. Consist of varying frequencies and includes random changing in frequency and amplitude, is?
a. Harmony. c. Noise.
b. Octave. d. Sound spectrum
251. A body that becomes visible when light reflects on it, is?
a. spontaneous source. c. Illuminated source.
b. Luminous source. d. Light beam.
252. The rate at which the luminous source produces light energy is called:
a. luminous flux. c. Luminous intensity.
b. Illuminated source. d. Light beam.
253. Luminous flux measuring unit, is?

a. Lux c. Candela.
b. Lumen. d. Decibel.
254. Illuminance measuring unit, is?
a. Lux. c. Candle.
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255. The illuminance on the inner surface of a sphere its radius is 2 m …… the illuminance on the
inner surface of a sphere its radius is 1 m.
a. 1/4 . c. Double.
b. 1/2 . d. Equal.
256. Luminous intensity measuring unit, is?
a. Lux. c. Candle.
257. A desktop was lit by 160 π – lm lamp that is 2 m above the desk, what is the illuminance on the
desk?
a. 175 lx. c. 10 lx.
b. 55.7 lx. d. 20 lx.
225. The bending of light as it passes the edge of a barrier is called:

a. Refraction. c. Reflection
b. Interference. d. Diffraction.
226. The longest wave length of a visible light, is?

a. Red. c. Blue.
b. Green. d. Violet.
227. when the correct intensities of red, green, and blue light are projected onto a white screen,
____________________light is formed:
a. Black. c. White.
b. Yellow. d. Purple.
228. A …… color is considered a secondary color?

a. Red. c. Blue.
B. Green. d. Yellow.
229. A ……. pigment is one of the primary pigments?

a. Red. c. Yellow .
b. Green. d. Blue.
230. Making a light oscillates in one orientation.

a. Diffraction. c. Interference.
b. Polarization. d. Refraction.
231. If both polarization axis are perpendicular to each other, the?

a. The light will not go through. c. Half of the light will go through.
b. The light will go through. d. Quarter of the light will go through.
232. The intensity of the light coming from the second polarization axis is equal to the intensity of the light coming
from the first polarization axis multiplied by cosine square of the angle between the two axis.
a. Mallos law. c. Optical beam model.
b. Huygens principle . d. Inverse square relation.
38
266- The difference between the observed wavelength of light and the actual wavelength of
light generated by a source is :
a- Wave front.
b- Initial frequency f0.
c- Amplitude.
d- Doppler Shift.
267- A hydrogen atom moves in a planet with a speed of 6x107 m/s away from earth, and it sends
light with a frequency of 1 x 1014 HZ, If the speed of light is 3 × 10 8 m/s, what is the
observed frequency on earth?
a- 0.8x1014 Hz
b- 1.2x1014Hz
c- 2.8x1014Hz
d- 2.2 x1014Hz
268- The angle that a reflected ray makes as measured from the normal to a reflective surface
equals the angle that the incident ray makes as measured from the same normal.
a- Millus Law.
b- Refraction Law.
c- Reflection Law.
d- Snell's Law.
269- If an incident ray has an angle of 42, then its reflected angle is
a- 42
b- 58
c- 84
d- 90
270- A ……………… mirror is a smooth polished surface that reflects light uniformly.
a- Concave.
b- Convex
c- Spherical mirrors
d- Plane mirror
271- Images formed by plane mirrors are always

a- Inverted
b- Virtual
c- Smaller
d- Bigger
272- In an plane mirror the image height is …………. The height of the object a-
Half
b- Equal
c- Double
d- Triple
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273- the line perpendicular to the mirror's surface that divides the mirror in half is
called:
a- Center of curvature.
b- Focal length
c- Geometrical center
d- Principal axis
274- The intersection point between the principle axis and the reflective surface is
a- Center of the mirror
b- Focal point
d- Center of curvature
275- The point where incident light rays that are parallel to the principal axis converge after
reflecting from the mirror is called :
a- Center of curvature
b- Focal point
d- Center of curvature
276- A mirror’s half center of curvature is the …………….. of its focal length a-
Quarter
b- Half
c- Same
d- Double
277- The ……………. Image is formed from the intersection of the reflected rays and can be brought
together to a barrier.
a- Real
b- Virtual
c- Erect
d- Fantasy
278- The ………… image is formed by the extension of the reflected rays and cannot be brought to a
barrier.
a- Real
b- Virtual
c- Erect
d- Fantasy
279- In a concave mirror, the image formed for an object between the focal point and the center of
curvature is
a- Real and enlarged
b- Virtual and enlarged
c- Real and reduced
d- Virtual and reduced.
280- A defect in spherical mirror that doesn’t allow the far parallel light rays from the principal axis
40
to meet in the focus, therefore, the mirror will form an incomplete and disturbing image.
a- Chromatic aberration
b- Power of notice
c- Interferometry
d- Spherical aberration
281- The reciprocal of the focal length of the spherical mirror is equal to the sum of the reciprocal of the
object’s distance and the reciprocal of image’s distance from the mirror.
a- Magnification law
b- Milus law
c- Spherical mirror equation
d- Snell’s law
282- An object is set 30cm away from a concave mirror with focal length of 10cm, the image's distance is
equal:
a- 7.5cm
b- 10cm
c- 12cm
d- 15cm
283- As an object moves toward the focus of a concave mirror, the image
a- Gets closer
b- Gets away
c- Stays constant
d- Its volume decreases
284- Convex mirrors form …………… images.

a- Bigger
b- Virtual
c- Real
d- Flipped
285- If a light bulb with 6cm diameter is 40 cm away from a convex mirror, If the distance of the image
Formed was (-8 ) cm, then the diameter of the image is:
a- 1.2cm
b- 1.5cm
c- 3cm
d- 6cm
286- Convex mirrors used for:
a- Magnifying the image.
b- Flipping the image
c- increasing the field of view
d- Analyzing the image.
287- The product of index of refraction by the incident angle equals to the index of refraction
multiplied by the refraction angle in the second medium is the law of
a- Milus
b- Refraction
c- Reflection
d- Snell's
288- A ray from the air strikes a piece of lens glass with an angle of 30, if the index of refraction of the
41
glass is 1.52, what is the angle of refraction?
a- 19.2
b- 30
c- 35
d- 49.2
289- If the incident angle increases, the angle of reflection…………………… a-

Decreases
b- Stays the same
c- Increases
d- Is constant
290- If a ray strikes with angle equal to the critical angle, what is the angle of refraction?
a- 0
b- 45
c- 60
d- 90
291- ………………………… is an important application of total internal reflection

a- Fiber optics.
b- Microscope
c- Chemical microscope
d- X- Ray tube
292- …………….. Occurs when light passes from a medium with higher index of refraction to a medium
with less index of refraction, and the light strikes with an angle greater than the critical angle.
a- Refraction
b- interference
c- Diffraction
d- Total internal reflection
293- All of the following affects in the formation of a mirage except

a- Heating the air near the surface of the earth
b- Huygens’ waves
c- Reflection
d- Refraction
294- All of the following affects the formation of a rainbow except

a- Diffraction
b- Dispersion
c- Reflection
d- Refraction
295- A transparent piece like glass is used in gathering light or shattering it and forming images
a- Convex mirror
b- Concave mirror
c- Plane mirror
d- Lenses
296- An object is set on the left of a convex lens with focal length of 25mm, so an image was formed
42
with the same size as the original object. What is the position of the object ?
a- 12.5mm
b- 25mm
c- 50mm
d- 62.5mm
297- In the following figure, what are the characteristics of the image formed
a- Real – enlarged
b- Real – reduced
c- Virtual – enlarged
d- Virtual – reduced.
298- When an object is set between a convex lens and its focus, the
image formed
is…………….
a- Real and enlarged
b- Real and reduced
c- Virtual and enlarged
d- Virtual and reduced.
299- The inability of a spherical lens to gather all parallel rays at one point is?
a- Chromatic abbreviation.
b- Spherical abbreviation
c- Diffraction
d- Polarization
300- To get rid of chromatic abbreviation, …………………..lens is used.

a- Convex.
b- Concave
c- single
d- achromatic
301- Light is focusing into the retina of the eye by:

a- Cornea
b- Eye lens
c- Iris
d- Retina
302- Nearsightedness is corrected by which kind of lens

a- Convex
b- Concave
c- Converging lens.
d- Cylindrical
303- Farsightedness is corrected by which type of lens

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a- Convex
b- Concave
c- Diverging
d- Cylindrical
304- …………… uses lenses to magnify distant objects.

a- Refracting Telescopes
b- Microscope
c- Camera
d- Spectroscope
305- …………… is used to magnify small objects

a- Refracting telescope
b- Microscope
c- Camera
d- Spectroscope
306- A double-slit investigation is performed to measure the wavelength a light. The slits are 0.01 mm apart. A
screen is placed 1 m away, and the first-order bright
band is 20.0 mm from the central bright band. What is
the wavelength of that light?
a. 0.02 × 10-7 m
b- 0.2 × 10-7 m
c- 2.0 × 10-7 m
d-20 × 10-7 m
307- What is the thinnest soap film (n = 1.30) for which light of wavelength 520 nm will constructively
interfere with itself.
a- 10 nm b- 100 nm c- 1000 nm d- 0.1 nm
308- A light of wavelength 500 nm falls on a single slit with a

width of 0.050 mm. The slit is located 100 cm from a screen.
How wide will the central bright band be?
a- 0.1 × 10 -2 m
b- 1 × 10 -2 m
c- 2 × 10 -2 m
d- 0.2 × 10 -2 m
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309- . You observe colored rings on a puddle and conclude that there must be an oil
slick on the water. You look directly down at the puddle and see a yellow-green (λ
= 600 nm) region. If the refractive index of oil is 1.5, what is the minimum
thickness of oil that could cause this color?
a. 100 nm b. 400 nm c. 50 nm d. 25 nm
310- The shimmering bands of color on the wings of many beetles and butterflies, like the Morpho butterfly, as they move
are caused by:
a- Diffraction b- total internal reflection c- polarization d- thin-film interference
311- Monochromatic green light of wavelength 5×10 -4 m falls on a single slit with a width of
10 mm. The slit is located 70 cm from a screen. How wide will the central bright band be?
a. 0.05 m b. 0.06 m c. 0.07 m d. 0.08 m
312- can be made by scratching very fine lines with a diamond point on glass that transmits light:
a. transmission grating
b. Reflection grating
c. Holographic diffraction grating
d. replica grating
313- An instrument used to measure light wavelengths using a diffraction grating is called a grating:
a. Telescope
b. Microscope
c. Binoculars
d. Spectroscope
314- The ______________________ states that if the center of the bright spot of one star’s image falls on the first dark ring of the
second, the two images are at the limit of resolution
a. Huygens’ principle
b. Malus’s law
c. Rayleigh criterion
d. principle of superposition
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Electricity & Magnetism
46
Question
Law name Mathematical equation Symbols
Number
Coulomb’s Law 𝑭𝑭Electric force, 𝑲𝑲Coulomb’s constant. 𝒒𝒒𝟏𝟏,

𝒒𝒒𝟐𝟐 333
The charges,
𝑬𝑬Electric 𝒓𝒓The
field, distance
𝑭𝑭Force, between
𝒒𝒒charge, charges. 𝐾𝐾
𝒓𝒓distance,
Electric field 336, 337
Coulomb’s constant.
𝜟𝜟 𝑽𝑽Potential difference, 𝑾𝑾work, 𝒒𝒒charge,
Potential difference 342, 343
𝑬𝑬Electric field, d distance.
Oil droplet 𝒒𝒒charge, 𝑭𝑭𝒈𝒈 weight of the droplet, 𝒅𝒅the
345
experiment distance, 𝜟𝜟𝑽𝑽potiential difference
Capacitance 𝑪𝑪Capacitance, 𝒒𝒒charge, ∆𝑽𝑽potential 352
difference. 𝑹𝑹resistance,
𝑷𝑷Electrical power,𝑰𝑰current,
Electrical power 357
𝑽𝑽Voltage or potential.
𝑽𝑽Voltage or potential difference, 𝑰𝑰current,
Ohms law 361
𝑹𝑹resistance.
Energy (heat 𝑬𝑬Energy, 𝑽𝑽Voltage or potential difference,
364
dissipated) 𝑰𝑰Current, 𝑹𝑹Resistance, 𝑡𝑡 Time
𝑰𝑰Current, 𝑽𝑽Voltage or Potential difference,
Consumption cost 368
𝒕𝒕Time.
Equivalent resistance, 𝑹𝑹𝟏𝟏 , 𝑹𝑹𝟐𝟐 , 𝟑𝟑 The
Series Connection 370
resistances connected in series.
Equivalent resistance, 𝑹𝑹𝟏𝟏, 𝑹𝑹𝟐𝟐, 𝟑𝟑 The
Parallel Connection 372
resistances connected in Parallel.
𝑭𝑭 Force, 𝒒𝒒 Charge, 𝒗𝒗 Velocity, 𝑩𝑩 Magnetic field,
Magnetic force 386, 393
𝑰𝑰Current, 𝑳𝑳 Length of the conductor.
𝑬𝑬𝑬𝑬𝑭𝑭 Electromotive force, 𝑩𝑩 Magnetic field, 𝑳𝑳
Electromotive force 397
Wire length, 𝒗𝒗 Velocity.
𝑽𝑽𝒆𝒆𝒆𝒆𝒆𝒆𝒐𝒐𝒓𝒓𝑽𝑽𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓Effectivepotentialdifference (Root mean square),
Effective voltage Maximum potential difference. 402
𝑽𝑽𝒑𝒑 Primary potential difference, 𝑽𝑽𝒓𝒓 Secondary potential

difference, Number of turns in the primary coil.
Transformer 𝑵𝑵𝒓𝒓 Number of turns in the secondary coil. 𝑰𝑰𝒑𝒑 409
Primary current, Secondary current.
Charges velocity 𝒗𝒗 Velocity, 𝑬𝑬 Electric field, 𝑩𝑩 Magnetic field. 412

𝒒𝒒 Charge, 𝒓𝒓 Mass, 𝑽𝑽 Potential difference, 𝑩𝑩
Mass spectrometer 415
Magnetic field, 𝒓𝒓 Radius.
Wavelength 𝝀𝝀 Wavelength, 𝒄𝒄 Speed of light, 𝒆𝒆 Frequency. 419
Velocity of
𝒗𝒗 Velocity of the electromagnetic wave, 𝒄𝒄
electromagnetic 421
Speed of light, √𝒌𝒌 dielectric constant.
waves
Important rules:
47
Static electricity
is an imbalance of electric charges within or on the surface of a material.
Natural atom is one that has the same number of protons, neutrons, and electrons.
Insulating material a material that reduces or prevents the transmission of electricity
Conducting material
a material that conduct of electricity
Electroscope consists of a metal knob connected by a metal stem to two thin, lightweight
pieces of metal foil
Charging by conduction the process of charging a neutral object by touching that object with a charged
object
Charging by induction the process of charging a neutral object by bringing a charged object near
Grounding the process of removing excess charge by connecting an object to Earth.
Coulomb’s law the magnitude of the force between point charge qA and point charge qB,
separated by a distance r, is proportional to the product of the magnitudes of
the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between
them.
Elementary charge. The magnitude of the charge of a single electron or proton
Electric field is a property of the space around a charged object that exerts forces on other
charged objects.
Electric potential is the work (Won q) needed to move a positive test charge from one point to
difference another, divided by the magnitude of the test charge.
Equipotential the electric potential difference between two or more positions is zero
Capacitance The slope of the line in a net charge versus potential difference
electric current A flow of charged particles
Conventional current is the direction in which a positive test charge moves
battery. Voltaic or galvanic cell, transforms chemical energy to electrical energy.

Several galvanic cells connected together
48
electric circuit Any closed loop or conducting path allowing electric charges to flow
Ampere A flow of electric charge equal to one coulomb per second (1 C/s)
Resistance The measure of how strongly an object or a material impedes current

produced by a potential difference
Resistor is a device designed to have a specific resistance.
parallel connection Any time the current has two or more paths to follow in a circuit
series connection A connection with only one current path in a circuit
superconductor is a material with zero resistance.
equivalent resistance resistors in a circuit with a single resistor that resulted in the same current
voltage divider produces a source of potential difference that is less than the potential
difference across the battery.
short circuit occurs when a circuit with very low resistance is formed.
circuit breaker is an automatic switch that acts as a safety device by stopping the current if
the current gets too large and exceeds a threshold value.
Fuse is a short piece of metal that acts as a safety device by melting and stopping
the current when too large a current passes through it.
ground-fault interrupter is a device that contains an electronic circuit that detects small current
(GFI) differences between the two wires in the cord connected to an appliance.
Voltmeters s used to measure the potential difference across a portion of a circuit
Ammeters is a device that is used to measure the current in any branch or part of a
circuit.
Magnetic fields are fields that exist in space where magnets would experience a force.
magnetic flux The number of magnetic field lines passing through a surface perpendicular to
the lines is the
49
magnetic domain group of neighboring atoms whose poles are aligned.
Galvanometer is a device used to measure very small currents
electric motor is an apparatus that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
Power effective half the power max
Electromagnetic induction is the process of generating current through a wire in a circuit in a changing
magnetic field.
Lenz's law says that the magnetic field produced by the induced current is in the
direction that is opposite the original field.
EMF a wire moves perpendicular to a magnetic field, separation of charge produces

an electric field
Induced electromotive The potential difference formed from EMF

force
Transformers are devices that increase or decrease potential differences with relatively little
waste of energy
Mutual inductance EMF and current in one coil due to changing current in another coil
Nuclide a distinct kind of atom or nucleus characterized by a specific number of

protons and neutrons.
Mass spectrometry is an instrument which can measure the masses and relative concentrations of
atoms and molecules.
Radiation is the emission or transmission of energy in the form of waves or particles

through space or through a material medium.
Electromagnetic waves are waves which can travel through the vacuum of outer space.
Antenna (or aerial) is an electrical device which converts electric power into radio
waves, and vice versa.
Receiver is a device used to receiver electromagnetic waves
Piezoelectric Effect is the ability of certain materials to generate an electric charge in
50
response to applied mechanical stress.
electromagnetic spectrum
is the range of all possible frequencies of electromagnetic radiation.
315) The process of charging is ……. of charges

a. separation b. Produce c. destroying d. Generation
316) The atom which losses an electron becomes ……. charged
a. Neutrality b. Negatively c. Positively d. alternately
317) When you rub rubber with wool …….. will transfer from the wool to the rubber
a. Electrons b. Protons c. Neutrons d. Nuclei
318) A material that does not allow charges to move through it easily is :
a. Conductor b. Semiconductor c. electrolyte d. Insulator
319) ……… are electric charges that can move through a metal
a. Electrons b. Protons c. Neutrons d. Nuclei
320) The charges which are added to a ……… material spread quickly on the surface.
a. Gaseous
b. Semi-conductor
c. Conductor
d. Insulator
321) Like charges
a. Repeal b. Come closer c. Attract d. Stick together
322) When charges get closer, the electrical force between them will be:
a. Less b. not existed c. Larger d. Zero
323) A device used to detect electric charges

a. Voltammeter b. Ammeter c. Electrical transformer d. Electroscope
324) When a charged body touches the knob or the disc of the electroscope, the leaves will.
a. Stuck together
b. Spread apart
c. The electroscope will discharge
d. Fall closer
325) Charging a natural object by touching it
a. Charging by induction b. Charging by rubbing
c. Charging by conviction d. Charging by conduction
51
326) When a negatively charged body get near to the negatively charged knob or the disc of the electroscope, the
leaves will.
(a) Stuck together (b) Fall closer (c) Spread apart (d) Touch each other.
327 )The process of charging an object without touching it is called.
(a) Induction (b) Rubbing (c) Touching (d) Conduction

328 )The process of connecting the object with the ground in order to get rid of excessive charge is.
(a) Influence (b) Induction (c) Grounding (d) Rubbing
329 )If the distance between two charges is doubled, then the electrostatic force between them will.
(a) Decrease by four times (c) does not change
(b) Decrease by half (d) double

330 )“The force between two charges is proportional to the product of the magnitude of the charges and inversely
proportional to the square of the distance between them” this law is
(a) Joule (b) Kirchhoff (c) Lenz (d) Coulomb

331) The unit of measurement of charges in SI Unit system is.
(a) Volt (b)Ampere (c) Coulomb (d) Ohm

332 )If two bodies A and B, each charged with positive charge, get near to each other, the forces that they
will apply will be.
(a) Repulsion (b) Attraction (c) Get closer (d) Tension

333 Two positive charges, one with 2×10-6 C and the other with 8×10-6, are separated by 0.3 m. Knowing that
Coulomb’s constant is 9×109 N.m2/C2, the forces between the charges is equal to.
(a) 0.8 N (b) 1.6 N (c) 3.2 N (d) 4.8 N

334 In order to attach the black ink to the paper, Photocopying machines use:
(a) Magnetic field (c) Static electricity
(b) Magnetic induction (d) Magnetic flux

335 The following figure represents the Electric field of………….Charge
(a) Negative (c) Positive
(b) Neutral (d) Electron
336 An electric field affect a positive charge, 5×10-6 C, by a force with magnitude 2×10-4 N. The magnitude of the
electric field at the charge location is equal to.
(a) 40 N/C (b) 50 N/C (c) 60 N/C (d) 80 N/C

337 A point is located to the right of a charge with magnitude 4×10-6 C. The point position is 0.3 m from the
charge. Knowing that coulomb’s constant is 9×109 N.m2/C2, the electric field at this point is equal to.
(a) 4×104 N/C (b) 4×105 N/C (c) 4×106 N/C (d) 4×107 N/C
52
338 The change in the electric potential energy per unit of charge inside an electric field is called.
(a) Potential difference (b)Electric field (c) Work (d) Electric current
339 When a positive charge approach a negative charge, the potential difference will.
(a) Decrease (b) Does not change (c) Double (d) increase
340 As we move a proton opposite to the electric field, the potential will.
(a) Decrease (b) Does not change (c) Increase (d) Become zero
341 Two or more points in the electric field at which potential difference is zero
(a) Potential difference (b) Electric field (c) Electric current (d) Equipotential surface
342The electric field between two wide parallel charged is 6000 N/C and the distance between them is 0.05 m.
The potential difference between them is
(a) 300 V (b) 600 V (c) 1200 V (d) 1400 V
343) In order to move a 3 C charge through potential difference of 1.5 v, Work must be applied in magnitude.
(a) 0.5 J (b) 2 J (c) 3 J (d) 4.5 J
344) Millikan’s oil droplet experiment goal is to measure.

(a) Electron speed (c) Electron’s charge
(b) Electron mass (d) Displacement of the charge

345 An oil droplet with weight 6.4×10-15 N has one excess electron. Taking into account that Electron charge is
equal to 1.6×10-19, The needed Electric field to hang the droplet is.
(a) 2.5×10-5 N/C (b)2.5 N/C (b) 2.5×105 N/C (d) 40000N/C
346 In the following figure, if the charge on Ball A has the same charge as ball B, then the potential of ball A is
…… compared to ball B potential.
(a) Smaller (b) Equal (c) Larger (d) Weaker

347 In pointed or sharp endings of a conductor the electric field become.
(a) Negative (b) Zero (c) Lowest (d) Highest

348 Used in storing electric charges.
(a) Motor (b) Transformer (c) Capacitor (d) Mass spectrometer
349 The ratio between the stored charge in the object and the difference in potential.
(a) Current intensity (b) Electric field (c) Work (d) Capacitance
350 The unit of measuring the capacitance.
(a) Coulomb (b) Farad (c) Volt (d) Ampere

351 The capacitance of the capacitor depend on.
(a) Its charge (b) Potential difference (c) geometric dimensions (d) Energy
53
352 A capacitor with capacitance of 20 μF and potential difference between its plates equal to 45 has a charge
equals to
(a) 9×10-4 C (b) 9.9×10-3 C (c) 9.9×10-2 C (d) 990C

353 It is possible to control the capacitance of a capacitor by changing the following factors except.
(a) Surface area of the conductor (c) Dielectric
(b) The distance between the plates (d) Charge on the capacitor
354“The flow of positive charges from higher potential region to lower potential region” is called.
(a) Electrons flow (c) Potential difference

(b) Conventional flow (d) electric Current
355 ……… converts chemical energy to electrical energy.
(a) Electrolytic cells (b) Transformer (c) Electric Motor (d) Galvanic cell
356 The time rate of the flow of the electrons is.
(a) Potential difference (b) Resistance (c) Electric current (d) Electric power
357If the current passing in a motor is 3 A and the potential difference is 120 V then the power of this motor is.
(a) 0.025 W (b) 40 W (c) 123 W (d) 360 W
358 The resistance decreases with the increase of.

(a) Conductor’s length (c) Cross-section area
(b) Temperature (d) Power consumption
359“The ratio between potential difference between the sides and the current passing through for that
conductor” this law is
(a) Coulomb (b) Ohm (c) Lenz (d) Joule

360 Which one of the following figures represent resistance.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

361 If a battery with potential difference of 30 V is connected to a resistor with 10 Ω . The amount of current
passing in the circuit equals.
(a) 0.33 A (b) 3 A (c) 40 A (d) 300 A
362 Any connection at which current branched to two ways or more is what kind of connection.
(a) Respectively (b) In series (c) In sequence (d) In parallel
363 When a current pass through a resistor, it will.
(a) Cool (b) Heat up (c) Freeze (d) Cohere

364 An electrical heater with resistance of 10 Ω works on potential difference equals 120. The amount of thermal
energy produced in 10 s is.
(a) 120 J (b) 12000 J (c) 14400 J (d) 24000 J
54
365 Superconductors are substances with ……… resistance.
(a) Zero (b) Small (c) Large (d) Very Large
366 In order to decrease the dissipated power on wires, ……………. Is done.
(a) Decrease in potential difference (c) Increase of the resistance

(b) Decrease of the current (d) Increase in the current
367 In order to decrease the power dissipation for long distance ………..must be done.
(a) Decrease in the potential difference (c) Increase in the resistance

(b) Increase of the current (d) Increase in the potential difference.
368- A current with a magnitude of 15 A runs through an electrical heater when connected with
potential difference of 120 V. If a kilowatt-hour costs 0.12 SR, and the heater was turned on for an
average of 150 h. Then the total cost is
a. 3.24 SR b. 32.4 SR c. 324 SR d. 3240 SR
369- In the figure below. If the ammeter A1 reading is 2 A , then the ammeter A2 reading is ..
a. 1 A b. 2 A c. 3 A d. 4 A
370- You connected the 5 Ω, 10 Ω, 15 Ω resistors in series with a 90 V battery. What is the current?
a. 3 A b. 5 A c. 7 A d. 9 A
371- The following figure represents a ………..circuit.
a. parallel b. voltage divider c. sequence d. series
372- You connected the 40 Ω, 60 Ω, 120 Ω resistors in parallel with a 120 V battery. What is the total
resistance?
a. 0.05 Ω b. 20 Ω c. 220 Ω d. 200 Ω
373- Short circuit occurs when the circuit has …
a. no current b. small current c. large resistance d. small resistance
374- An electronic switch that opens the circuit when the current surpasses the allowable value.
a. electric fuse b. circuit breaker c. short circuit d. ground-fault interrupter
375- A device that measures the electric current in any part of the circuit
a. voltmeter b. battery c. ammeter d. electroscope
55
376- A device used for voltage drop in a part of an electric circuit.
a. Voltmeter b. Battery c. Ammeter d. flashlight
377- Voltmeter is connected in …
a. Series b. sequence c. parallel d. succession
378- If a magnet is connected to a string, then the direction of the magnet will be …
a. north-south b. south-north c. east-west d. west-east
379- The flexible iron rod…

a. doesn’t magnetize b. permanent magnet c. Temporary magnet d. has a single pole
380- An area around a magnet or around a wire with a current, where is a magnetic power is …
a. Magnetic Field b. Electric Field c. Electric Resistor d. Electric power
381- In the following figure, the North Pole is on point …
a. A b. B c. C d. D
382- The magnitude of a magnetic field around a long straight wire is directly proportional with …
a. distance from wire b. length of wire c. current in wire d. wire resistance

383- To determine the poles of an electromagnet, we use the …… hand rule
a. first b. second c. third d. fourth
384- A small group formed when the magnetic field lines of electrons are aligned in a group of the
adjacent atoms in the same direction.
a. Magnetic flux b. inductor c. Magnetic area d. polarizer
385- The SI unit for the strength of magnetic field is …
a. Tesla b. Hertz c. Watt d. Coulomb
386- A wire with a length of 0.5 m has a current of 8 A, is put vertical in a uniform magnetic field of
0.4 T. The magnitude of force is …
a. 0.8 N b. 1.2 N c. 1.6 N d. 16 N
387- The cassette depends on what concept.
a. Electric field b. Magnetic field c. self-inductance d. mutual inductance
388- When a wire with a current is put in a magnetic field, it experiences a force directed…
a. Parallel with field and perpendicular to the wire
b. Parallel with wire and perpendicular to field
c. Perpendicular to the wire and field
d. parallel to the wire and field
389- A device used to measure small currents
a. Voltmeter b. Galvanometer c. Electroscope d. Electric generator
56
390- You can transform a galvanometer to an ammeter by connecting its coil to a … resistor.
a. small and series b. small and parallel c. large and series d. large and parallel
391- You can transform a galvanometer to an voltmeter by connecting its coil to a … resistor.
a. small and series b. small and parallel c. large and series d. large and parallel
392- Works on changing the direction of the current in the loops in electric motors which makes it
rotate..
a. commutator b. recording heads c. Paper prism d. restoration spring
393- An electron is moving vertically in a 0.5 T magnetic field with a velocity of 4 * 106 m/s . If the
electron charge is -1.6 * 10-19 C, then the force is experienced by the electron equals…
a. -1.6 * 10-13 N b. -3.2 * 10-13 N c. -1.6 * 10-13 N d. -1.6 * 10-13 N
394- In TV screens, the magnets are used in directing and concentrating charged particles on ………
screens
a. Magnetized b. Plastic c. Phosphoric d. Isolated
395- The process of generating electricity in circuit because of the relative motion between the wire
and the magnetic field is ..
a. electromagnetic induction b. Magnetic flux
c. Magnetic field d. Electric field
396- In the following figure, a piece of loop goes down
between the two magnetic pole. The direction of the induced
current is …
a. from A to B
b. from B to A
c. parallel to the direction of wire movement
d. parallel to direction of magnetic field
397- A straight 0.1 m wire moves with a speed of 0.5 m/s vertically on the magnetic field with a
magnitude of 8 * 10-2 T. Magnitude of induced emf is …
a. 4 * 10-6 V b. 4 * 10-5 V c. 4 * 10-4 V d. 4 * 10-3 V
398- From the applications of induced emf…
a. Galvanometer b. Microphone c. Disk d. Recorder
399- The coil of an electric generator is twisted around an iron core…
a. to increase the velocity of rotation b. to decrease the velocity of rotation
c. to increase the magnetic field d. to reduce the resulting current
400- The resultant power of an electric generator is…
a. zero b. negative c. positive d. constant
401- The AC generator delivers the current into an external circuit by ...
a. two brushes b. two needles c. two rods d. two magnets
402- An AC generator has a peak volt of 141.5 V. What is its effective current?
a. 70.75 V b. 100 V c. 110 V d. 122.5 V
403- The direction of induced current is opposite to the change in magnetic field that created the
induced current.
a. Faraday’s Law b. Ghoul’s Law c. Lenz’s Law d. Ohm’s Law
57
404- Used by sensitive balances to control the vibration in its indicators…
a. electric field b. eddy currents c. cathode ray tubes d. ground-fault
interrupter
405- The generated induced emf in the wire that has changing current is…
a. Self-inductance b. mutual inductance c. eddy current d. electric field
406- Used to increase or decrease the AC electric voltage…
a. electric generator b. galvanometer c. Ammeter d. electric transformer
407- if the secondary voltage is larger than the primary voltage, then the transformer is named…
a. step-up b. step-down c. constant d. generator
408- in the ideal transformer the power to the primary coil is …….. the power from the secondary coil
a. quarter b. half c. equal to d. double
409- A transformer with 200 turns in primary coil, and 3000 turns in the secondary coil. If the
primary coil gets 90 V in AC, then the voltage in the secondary coil is …
a. 6 V b. 180 V c. 900 V d. 1350 V
410- Thomson measure the charge of the electron and its mass by ..
a. cathode ray b. galvanometer c. x-ray tube d. voltmeter
411- In the cathode ray experiment, the electrons are ejected from….
a. cathode b. anode c. Anode d. positive pole
412- Electrons are moving in a 6 * 102 T magnetic field, and balanced with a electric field of
magnitude 3 × 103 N/C. The velocity of electrons are equal to …
a. 180 m/s b. 2 ×10-5 m/s c. 5 × 103 m/s d. 5 × 104 m/s
413- A device that uses both electric field and magnetic field to measure the masses of ions…
a. mass spectrometer b. X-ray tube c. voltmeter d. electroscope
414- The ratio of ions charge to its mass in the mass spectrometer is inversely proportional to …
a. Voltage b. Voltage squared c. radius of path d. square of radius
of path
415- A mass of 1+ ions are passing through mass spectrometer, and if B= 7.2 × 102 T, and
q= 1.6 ×10-19 C and r = 0.085 m and V = 110 V. then the mass of the ion is …
a. 1.22 × 10-18 kg b. 2.7 × 10-18kgc. 5.44 × 10-18 kg d. 7.8 × 10-18 kg
416- Every different configuration for the atom which has different mass but the same chemical
properties.
a. Isotope b. ion c. proton d. neutron
417- The product of wavelength and the frequency for any electromagnetic wave equals …
a. Wave energy b. wave amplitude c. Speed of light d. Planck’ constant
418- “The electric and magnetic fields dispersed together” is called…

a. Magnetic flux b. electromagnetic wave
c. electromagnetic induction d. mechanical wave
419- Electromagnetic wave has a frequency of 3×10-19 Hz. If the its speed is 3 × 108 m/s, then its
wavelength equals…
a. 9.4 × 10-12 m b. 1.4 ×10-10 m c. 4 × 10-8 m d. 1 × 1011 m
420- The speed of an electromagnetic waves through the insulators is…… its speed in vacuum.
58
a. less than b. equals c. larger than d. double
421- If the dielectric coefficient for water is 1.77 and the speed of light in vacuum 3× 108 m/s. Then
the speed of light in the water is …
a. 1.69 × 108 m/s b. 1.9 × 108 m/ s c. 2.25 ×108 m/s d. 3.5 × 108 m/s
422- An electromagnetic wave can be generated by a circuit that contains…
a. capacitor and coil b. coil and resistor
c. capacitor and resistor d. battery and resistor

423- Microwaves of high frequencies can be generated by …
a. inducing coil b. capacitor c. voltmeter d. resonant cavity
424- A property for crystals that causes the crystal to generate electric vibrations by putting a voltage
on it is called…
a. Current electricity b. Static electricity c. piezoelectricity d. magnetic flux
425- The length of most effective antennas is …… than the wavelength for the desired wave.
a. half b. equal to c. double d. 3 times
426- A device that consists of an antenna, coil circuit, capacitor, amplifier and a transmitter.
a. diode b. receiver c. transistor d. microchip
427- Frequencies for the electromagnetic waves can be chosen by …
a. diode b. transistor c. tuner d. resonant cavity
428- Electromagnetic waves that have high frequency that are emitted by using accelerated electrons
are …
a. X-rays b. sound c. visible light d. radio waves
59
Quantum Physics
60
Law Name Mathematical Symbols Question
Equation Number
Conversion from eV to 1 eV = 1.6x10^-19 J eV electron volt, J joules. 435

J
Stopping potential KE kinetic energy, q charge, V0 stopping 436

potential.
Work function W work function, λ0 wavelength. 437
De Broglie wavelength λwavelength, h Planck’s constant, m mass, v 441

velocity.
Energy levels of the Enlevel’s energy, n orbital number. 449

atom
Wavelength λwavelength, ΔE difference in energy between 450

two orbitals.
Number of free 456

electrons
ρdensity, M atomic mass, NA number of atoms in a mol.
mass number 469
Mass-energy relation E = 931.49 x mass E binding energy. 485

change
Emission spectrum The spectrum of frequencies of electromagnetic radiation emitted due to an

atom or molecule making a transition from a high energy state to a lower
energy state.
‫ﻣﻜّﻤﺎة‬ ‫ا ﻟﻄﺎﻗﺔاﻟﻤﻮﺟﻮدةﻣﺤﺪ ﺣﺰﻣﺔ ﻓﻲ دة‬
Photoelectric effect Metals emit electrons when light shines upon them.
Threshold frequency Minimum frequency required to free electrons from a metal.
Photon A discrete bundle (or quantum) of electromagnetic (or light) energy.
Work function The minimum thermodynamic work (i.e. energy) needed to remove an
electron from a solid to a point in the vacuum immediately outside the solid
surface.
60
Compton effect The inelastic scattering of a photon by a quasi-free charged particle, usually
an electron.
De Broglie wavelength The postulate of wave mechanics that a particle of mass m moving at a
velocity v will have the properties of a wave of wavelength h/mv
Heisenberg uncertainty It is impossible to determine with perfect accuracy both the position and
principle momentum of a particle at any given point in time.
Alpha particles Heavy positively charged particles that move in high speeds are named after
the first letter in the Greek alphabet, α.
Absorption spectrum The fraction of incident radiation absorbed by the material over a range of
frequencies.
Energy level A constant value of energy in the distribution of energies among a number of
atomic particles
Ground state of an atom The lowest-energy state; the energy of the ground state is known as the zero-
point energy of the system.
Excited state of an atom Any quantum state of the system that has a higher energy than the ground
state (that is, more energy than the absolute minimum).
Quantitative model A model that predicts the possibility of the presence of electrons in a specific
area.
Electron cloud The area around the nucleus of an atom where electrons are most likely to be
found.
Quantum mechanics A branch of physics that deals with the structure and behavior of very small
pieces of matter
Stimulated emission The process by which an incoming photon of a specific frequency can interact
with an excited atomic electron (or other excited molecular state), causing it to
drop to a lower energy level.
Laser A device that emits light through a process of optical amplification based on
the stimulated emission of electromagnetic radiation.
Intrinsic semiconductor A pure semiconductor without any significant dopant species present.
Dopant A trace impurity element that is inserted into a substance (in very low
concentrations) in order to alter the electrical properties or the optical
properties of the substance.
61
Extrinsic semiconductor A semiconductor that has been doped, that is, into which a doping agent has
been introduced, giving it different electrical properties than the intrinsic (pure)
semiconductor.
Semiconductor diode A two-terminal electronic component with asymmetric conductance; it has low
(ideally zero) resistance to current in one direction, and high (ideally infinite)
resistance in the other.
Depletion layer An insulating region within a conductive, doped semiconductor material where
the mobile charge carriers have diffused away, or have been forced away by
an electric field.
Transistor A semiconductor device used to amplify and switch electronic signals and
electrical power. It is composed of semiconductor material with at least three
terminals for connection to an external circuit.
Microprocessor chip closed circuits composed of thousands to millions of transistors, diodes,

resistors, and conductors.
Atomic number The number of protons found in the nucleus of an atom.
Mass number The total number of protons and neutrons (together known as nucleons) in an
atomic nucleus.
The strong nuclear force Hold together the subatomic particles of the nucleus (protons, which carry a
positive charge, and neutrons, which carry no charge.
Nucleons One of the particles that makes up the atomic nucleus (protons and
neutrons.)
Radioactive materials Materials that constantly emit radiations.
Alpha decay Atomic nucleus emits an alpha particle and thereby transforms or 'decays'
into an atom with a mass number that is reduced by 4 and an atomic number
that is reduced by 2.
Beta decay A proton is transformed into a neutron, or vice versa, inside an atomic
nucleus. This process allows the atom to move closer to the optimal ratio of
protons and neutrons. As a result of this transformation, the nucleus emits a
detectable beta particle, which is an electron or positron.
Gamma decay A radioactive decay process in which the energy inside the nucleus gets
redistributed with no change in the mass number nor the charge.
Nuclear reaction A change in the number of protons or neutrons.
Half-life The amount of time required for a quantity to fall to half its value as measured
at the beginning of the time period.
62
Chain reaction A reaction that is self-sustaining. In a fission chain reaction, the nucleus of a
fissionable atom absorbs a neutron and fissions (i.e., breaks apart), releasing
additional neutrons.
Nuclear fusion Two or more atomic nuclei collide at a very high speed and join to form a new
type of atomic nucleus.
Nuclear Fission The nucleus of an atom splits into smaller parts (lighter nuclei). The fission
process often produces free neutrons and photons (in the form of gamma
rays), and releases a very large amount of energy even by the energetic
standards of radioactive decay.
Quarks An elementary particle and a fundamental constituent of matter. Quarks

combine to form composite particles called hadrons, the most stable of which
are protons and neutrons, the components of atomic nuclei.
Leptons An elementary particle that does not undergo strong interactions. The best
known of all leptons is the electron.
Standard Model A theory concerning the electromagnetic, weak, and strong nuclear
interactions, as well as classifying all the subatomic particles known.
Force carrier Particles that give rise to forces between other particles.
Weak nuclear force A weak force responsible for both the radioactive decay of subatomic
particles and nuclear fission.
63
450- E2= -3.4eV and E1=-13.6eV. What is the wave length of the emitted photon ?
A- 730nm B- 122nm C- 146nm D-219nm
451- The area that has the highest probability of having an electron is ?
A- Energy Level B- Nucleus C- Electron Cloud D- Crystal latas
452- Produces a monochromatic, concentrated, and high energy light ?
A- Glowing light B- X-ray tubes C- Cathode ray D- Laser devices

453- process by which an incoming photon of a specific frequency can interact with an excited atomic
electron, causing it to drop to a lower energy level and releasing 2 photons ?
A-Spontaneous Emission B- Radioactivity
C- Stimulated Emission D- Activity
454- An example of semiconductors ?
A- Silicon B- Carbon C- Sulfur D- Chlorine

455- The valence band in Silicon will be full of electrons and the conduction band will be empty at zero
A- Celsius B- Fahrenheit C- Absolute D- Centigrade
456- If the density of copper is 8.96g/cm3 and the atomic mass is 63.54g/mol and the number of atoms in
every mol is 6.02×1023 and every atom shares one electron. The number of free electrons in every
centimeter of copper equal ?
A- 8.5×1018 B- 8.5×1019 C- 8.5×1021 D- 8.5×1022
457- The valence band is full and the conduction band is empty and the forbidden band is huge in ?
A- Insulators B- Semiconductors C- Conductors D- Plasma

458- Increasing the temperature of semiconductors increases their ?
A- Electric resistance B- Resistivity C- Conductivity D- Electrical impedance

459- Atoms donating or receiving electrons are added to semiconductors at low concentrations to
increase ?
A- Holes B- impurity C- Protons D- Nucleons

460- A N type semiconductor is made if the donating material is ?
A- divalence B- Trivalence C-tetravalent D- pentavalent

461- When a trivalent material is added to silicon, then the semiconductor will be type ?
A- N B- P C- PN D- PNP
462- Used to detect radio waves and infrared light ?
A- Heat sensor B- Transistor C- Laser D- Mass spectrometer
463- The area that surrounds the insulating layer PN and does not have holes nor free electrons and
have poor conduction ?
A- Emitter B- Collector C- Base D- Depletion Layer
64
464- The diode on the right is:
A- Forward biased B- Reversed biased
C- Has a huge current D- Has thin depletion layer
465- All of the following are functions of diodes except ?
A- Increasing the voltageB- Produces light C- Detection of light D- Rectification

466- The following symbols represent which type of transistors ?
A- ppn B- pnp C- npn D- nnp

467- Complete circuits that are made from millions of transistors and diodes and conductors
are named ?
A- Antenna B- Impurities C- microchips D- P-N Junction

468- The sum of protons and neutrons in a nucleus is ?
A- Atomic number B-Number of electrons C- Mass number D- Number of leptons

469- If the mass number for Uranium isotope is 235 and the atomic number is 92. What is the number
of neutrons ?
A- 92 B-193 C-235 D-327

470- The force that hold the nucleus is ?
A- weak nuclear force B-Strong nuclear force C- Van der waals D- Electric force
471- The mass of hydrogen isotope is 3.016u and the mass of hydrogen atom is 1.0078u and the
mass of neutron is 1.00866u. Then the binding energy of Tritium is ?
A- -8.5MeV B- -18.5MeV C- -28.5MeV D- 38.5MeV

472- What happens in this reaction 82 83
A- Alpha decay B- Beta decay C- Gamma decay D- loss of a proton

undergoes alpha decay it produces ?
473- When Polonium
474- “ A radioactive decay that results in redistribution of energy inside the nucleus without changing
neither the mass number nor the charge of it” is ?
A- Alpha B- Beta C- Gamma D- Catalytic
475- The time needed for the decay of half the mass of any radioactive substance?
A- periodic time B- Half life time C- Decay time D- Decay constant
476- Number of decays per second ?
A- Activity B- Decay constant C- Half life time D- Chain reaction
65
477- The process of a nucleus splitting into two or more nucleases and neutrons and energy?
A- chemical reaction B- Nuclear fusion C- Nuclear Fission D- Decomposition
478- Chain reaction happens because the …………. becomes free after the first fission ?
A- Electrons B- Protons C- Neutrons D- Leptons

479- Moves inside or outside of the nuclear reactor to control the rate of chain reaction ?
A- Leptons B- Nucleose C- Antenna D- Cadmium rods

480- A process that results in the fusion of smaller nucleuses into a bigger one and the production of
energy ?
A- chemical reaction B- Nuclear fusion C- Nuclear fission D- Synthesis

481- Used to produce high energy particles ?
A- Mass spectrometer B- Geiger counter C- Synchrotron D- Nuclear reactor

482- Used to detect radioactive radiation ?
A- Mass spectrometer B-Geiger counter C- Synchrotron D- Nuclear reactor

483- When electron and positron collide?
A- X ray B- Alpha particles C- Beta particles D- Gamma ray

484- The model than includes quarks, leptons and force carriers is ?
A- Particle model B- wave model C- standard model D- construction

485- The mass of a proton is 1.67×10-27 and the speed of light is 3×108m/s. The energy that is
equivalent to the mass of the proton is ?
A- 5×10-19J B- 1.5×10-10J C- 1.3×10-8 J D- 1.2×10-7 J
66
Answer Keys
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TAHSILI-PHYSICS BOOKLET

α= Δω/ t α = Angular acceleration

is the rate of change of velocity of an object

is the velocity at a specific instant in time.

an object is moving in a curved path through the air

An object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion

The acceleration of an object as produced by a net force is directly

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

the region of space surrounding a body in which another body

Angular Velocity The rate of change of angular position of a rotating body.

A point representing the mean position of the matter in a body or

The quantity of motion of a moving body, measured as a product of its

Watt The SI unit of power, equivalent to one joule per second

The exertion of force by means of a lever or an object used in the

a) 1.25m b) 5m c) 10m d) 20m

2- Representing the object's motion by a sequence of single dots called

3- Physical quantities that have a magnitude and direction

a) Scalar quantities b) Numerical Quantities

4- Physical quantities that have a magnitude but no direction

a) Composite quantities b) Constant quantities

5- Displacement and velocity are quantities

a) Numerical b) Constant c) Vector d) Scalar

6- The following graph represents

a) An object at rest b) An object with constant velocity

a) Instantaneous acceleration b) Linear displacement

9- The rate at which an object changes its velocity

a) Displacement b) Acceleration c) Velocity d) Distance

10- acceleration: the change in velocity divided by an elapsed time.

a) Average b) Instantaneous c) Relative d) Angular

11- Acceleration’s unit of measure is

a) m b) m/s c) m/s² d) m²/s²

12- When an acceleration vector is in the opposite direction of the velocity

a) Slowing down b) speeding up c) At rest d) has no acceleration

a) Zero b) Negative c) Positive d) Decreasing

a) 8m/s² b) 10m/s² c) 12m/s² d) 16m/s²

a) -27 m/s² b) -21 m/s² c) -8 m/s² d) -3 m/s²

a) Zero b) 4m/s c) 8m/s d) 10m/s

a) 20m b) 40m c) 60m d) 100m

a) 1.6 m/s² b) 2.6 m/s² c) 16 m/s² d) 26 m/s²

a) Free fall b) Rotational motion c) Vibrational motion d) wave motion

a) -1.6 m/s² b) -9.8 m/s² c) 9.8 m/s² d) 8.9 m/s²

21- The acceleration of a body at maximum height during flight equals

a) 0 b) 1.6 m/s² c) 1.9 m/s² d) -9.8 m/s²

a) 9.8 m/s² b) 19.6 m/s² c)29.4 m/s² d)39.2 m/s

27- A physical model showing the forces affecting a system

a) Wave model b) Ray model c) Free body diagram d) Optical model

a) Less b) Equal to the force c) greater d) opposite to the force

a) Net force. b) Displacement c) Velocity d) Acceleration

a) Newton’s first law b) Newton’s second law

a) F=ma b) F=m/a c) F=a/m d) F= m/a²

a) 3.5 m/s² b) 7 m/s² c) 14 m/s² d) 60 m/s²

a) -60 N b) 60 N c) 390 N d) 460 N

a) Newton’s first law b) Newton’s second law

a) Acceleration b) Motion force c) Friction d) Inertia

d) Moving downwards with a constant acceleration

a) Normal force b) Gravitational force c) Friction d) Inertia

40- A force affecting an object connected to a rope is called:

a) Normal force b) Tension c) friction force d) Inertia

41- An object’s…………………is the gravitational force experienced by that object.

a)Inertia b) gravitational field c)Friction d) Weight

43- A force that accelerating an object is:

48- Contact force between a surface and an objects: