MOCK TEST

Time : 3 hrs.
1
Max. Marks : 720

INSTRUCTIONS
• Physics (180 marks)
• Chemistry (180 marks) :
• Biology (360 marks)
• Negative Marking
: Question No. 1 to 45 are of 4 marks
each.
Question No. 46 to 90 are of 4
marks each.
: Question No. 91 to 180 are of 4
marks each.
: One f ourth (¼) m arks will be
deducted for indicating incorrect
response of each question.

of sound in a tissue is 1.7 km/s.

PHYSICS
1. The velocity of water in a river is
18 km/h near the surface. If the
river is 5 m deep, find the shearing
stress between the horizontal
layers of water. The co-efficient of
viscosity of water = 10–2 poise
(a) 10–1 N/m2 (b) 10–2 N/m2
(c) 10–3 N/m2 (d) 10–4 N/m2
2. Consider two hot bodies B1 and
B2 which have temperatures 100°C
and 80°C respectively at
t = 0. The temperature of the
surroundings is 40°C. The ratio of
the respective rates of cooling R1
and R2 of these two bodies at t = 0
will be
(a) R1 : R2 = 3 : 2
(b) R1 : R2 = 5 : 4
(c) R1 : R2 = 2 : 3
(d) R1 : R2 = 4 : 5
3. A hospital uses an ultrasonic
scanner to locate tumours in a
tissue. The operating frequency of
the scanner is 4.2 MHz. The speed
The wavelength of sound in tissue
is close to
(a) 4 ´ 10 - 4 m (b) 8 ´ 10 -4 m
(c) 4 ´ 10 -3 m (d) 8 ´ 10 -3 m
4. A primary cell has an e.m.f. of 1.5
volt. When short-circuited it gives
a current of 3 ampere. The internal
resistance of the cell is
(a) 4.5 ohm (b) 2 ohm
(c) 0.5 ohm (d) 1.5 ohm
5. The magnetic lines of force inside
a bar magnet
(a) are from N-pole to S-pole of
magnet
(b) do not exist
(c) depend upon the area of
cross-section of bar magnet
(d) are from S-pole to N-pole of
magnet
6. An ideal gas A and a real gas B
have their volumes increased from
V to 2V under isoth ermal
conditions. The increase in internal
energy
(a) will be same in both A and B
2 NEET MOCK TEST
(b) will be zero in both the cases é æ1 1 ö ù
(c) of B will be more than that of (b) Gm ê A ç - ÷ø + BL ú
A ë è a a + L û
(d) of A will be more than that of é A ù
B (c) Gm ê BL +
ë a + L úû
7. A metallic rod of length ‘l’ is tied
to a string of length 2l and made é Aù
(d) G m ê BL - ú
to rotate with angular speed w on ë aû
a horizontal table with one end of 11. A body of mass 5 kg under the
the string fixed. If there is a vertical action of con stant force
magnetic field ‘B’ in the region, the ®
e.m.f. induced across the ends of F = F ˆi F+ ˆj has velocity at t = 0
x y
®
the rod is
( )
s as v = 6iˆ - 2ˆj m/s and at t =
®
10s as v = +6ˆj m / s . The force
®
F is:
(a) ( -3iˆ + 4ˆj) N
æ 3 ˆ 4 ˆö
(b) ç - i + j ÷ N
2 Bwl 2
3Bwl 2 è 5 5 ø
(a) (b)
2
2
2
2
(c) ( 3iˆ - 4ˆj) N
4 Bwl 5Bwl
(c) (d) æ 3ˆ 4 ˆö
2 2 (d) ç i - j ÷ N
8. 10 cm is a wavelength è5 5 ø
corresponding to the spectrum of 12. When sound waves travel from air
(a) infrared rays to water, which one of the
(b) ultraviolet rays following remains constant?
(c) microwaves
(d) g-rays (a) Time period
9. The transformer voltage induced (b) Frequency
in th e secondary coil of a (c) Velocity
transformer is mainly due to (d) Wavelength
(a) a varying electric field 13. In the network shown, each
(b) a varying magnetic field resistance is equal to R. The
(c) the vibrations of the primary equivalent resistance between
coil adjacent corners A and D is
(d) the iron core of the
transformer
10. A straight rod of length L extends
from x = a to x = L + a. Find the
gravitational force it exerts on a
point mass m at x = 0 if the linear
density of rod µ =A + Bx2 .
éA ù
(a) G m ê + BL ú
ëa û
MOCK TEST - 1 3

2 deflection in the galvanometer. The

(a) R (b) R current that will give full scale
3
deflection in the absence of the
3 8 shunt is nearly :
(c) R (d) R
7 15 (a) 5.5 ampere
14. The electrostatic potential inside a (b) 0.5 ampere
charged spherical ball is given by f (c) 0.004 ampere
= ar2 + b where r is the distance (d) 0.045 ampere
from the centre and a, b are
20. Monochromatic light of frequency
constants. Then the charge density
inside the ball is: 6.0 × 1014 Hz is produced by a laser.
(a) –6ae0r (b) –24pae0 The power emitted is 2 × 10–3 W.
(c) –6ae0 (d) –24pae0r The number of photons emitted,
15. A particle of mass m1 is moving on the average, by the source per
with a velocity v 1 and another second is
particle of mass m2 is moving with (a) 5 × l 016 (b) 5 × 1017
a velocity v2. Both of them have (c) 5 × 10 14 (d) 5 × 1015
the same momentum but different 21. Three straight parallel current
kinetic energies are E 1 and E 2 carrying conductors are shown in
respectively. If m1 > m2 then
the figure. The force experienced
(a) E1 = E2 (b) E1 < E2
by the middle conductor of length
E1 m1 25 cm is:
(c) = (d) E1 > E2
E2 m2 I1 = 30 A I2 = 20 A
16. If Q, E and W denote respectively
the heat added, change in internal
energy and the work done in a
closed cyclic process, then
(a) W = 0 (b) Q = W = 0 3 cm 5 cm
(c) E = 0 (d) Q = 0
17. The moment of inertia of disc
about a tangent axis in its plane is
MR 2 3MR 2
(a) (b)
4 2 I = 10 A
5 7 MR 2 (a) 3 × 10–4 N toward right
(c) MR 2 (d)
4 4 (b) 6 × 10–4 N toward right
18. After 300 days, the activity of a (c) 9 × 10–4 N toward right
radioactive sample is 5000 dps (d) Zero
(disintegrations per sec). The 22. A steel wire of length 20 cm and
activity becomes 2500 dps after uniform cross-section 1 mm2 is
another 150 days. The initial tied rigidly at both the ends. The
activity of the sample in dps is
(a) 20,000 (b) 10,000 temperature of the wire is altered
(c) 7,000 (d) 25,000 from 40ºC to 20ºC. Coefficient of
19. A shunt of resistance 1 W is linear expansion for steel a = 1.1 ×
connected across a galvanometer 10 –5 /ºC and Y for steel is
of 120 W resistance. A current of 2.0 × 1011 N/m2. The change in
5.5 ampere gives full scale tension of the wire is
4 NEET MOCK TEST
(a) 2.2 × 106 newton 27. The distance travelled by a body
(b) 16 newton moving along a line in time t is
(c) 8 newton proportional to t3.
(d) 44 newton The acceleration-time (a, t) graph
23. The most appropriate for the motion of the body will be
magnetization M versus
magnetising field H curve for a a
a
paramagnetic substance is
(a) (b)
M C t t
(a) A + A

0 H a a
– B (c) (d)
D t t
(b) B 28. Which one of the following
(c) C statements is false ?
(d) D (a) A vector has only magnitude,
24. The pressure P of an ideal gas and whereas a scalar has both
its mean K.E. per unit volume are magnitude and direction
related as (b) Distance is a scalar quantity
E but displacement is a vector
(a) P = (b) P = E quantity
2 (c) Momentum, force and torque
3E 2E are vector quantities
(c) P = (d) P = (d) Mass, speed and energy are
2 3
25. A telescope has an objective lens scalar quantities
of focal length 150 cm and an 29. The effective acceleration of a
eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. If a body when thrown upwards with
50 m tall tower at a distance of 1 acceleration a is
km is observed through th is (a) (g + a) (b) (a – g)
telescope in normal setting, the (c) Ö(g2 + a2) (d) (g – a2/g)
angle formed by the image of the 30. A motor car is travelling at 30 m/s
tower is q, then q is close to : on a circular road of radius 500 m.
(a) 30° (b) 15° It is increasing in speed at the rate
(c) 84° (d) 1° of 2 m/s2. Then the acceleration of
26. A metal sample carrying a current the car will be
along X-axis with density Jx is (a) 4 m/s2 (b) 3 m/s2
subjected to a magnetic field Bz (c) 2.7 m/s2 (d) 8 m/s2
(along z-axis). The electric field Ey 31. A boat is sent across a river with a
developed along Y-axis is directly velocity of 8 km h–1. If the resultant
proportional to Jx as well as Bz. The velocity of boat is 10 km h –1 , then
constant of proportionality has SI the velocity of the river is
unit. (a) 12.8 km h–1 (b) 6 km h–1
(c) 8 km h–1 (d) 10 km h–1
m2 m3 32. How many electrons make up a
(a) (b) charge of 20 µC?
A As
(a) 1.25 × 1014 (b) 2.23 × 1014
m2 As (c) 3.25 × 1014 (d) 5.25 × 1014
(c) (d)
As m3
MOCK TEST - 1 5
33. If a spherical ball rolls on a table 38. A charged particle q is placed at
without slipping the fraction of its the centre O of cube of length L (A
total energy associated with B C D E F G H). Another same
rotational energy is charge q is placed at a distance L
3 2 2 3 from O. Then the electric flux
(a) (b) (c) (d) through ABCD is
5 7 5 7
34. An insect crawls up a E
hemispherical surface very slowly. F
D
The coefficient of friction between C
the insect and the surface is 1/3. If O
q q
the line joining the centre of the H
G
hemispherical surface to the insect
makes an angle a with the vertical, A
B
L
the maximum possible value of a
so that the insect does not slip is (a) q /4pÎ0L (b) zero
given by (c) q/2 pÎ0L (d) q/3pÎ0L
39. A body is projected at an angle of
(a) cot a = 3 30º to the horizontal with speed 30
a m/s. What is the angle with the
(b) sec a = 3 horizontal after 1.5 seconds?
(c) cosec a = 3 Take g = 10 m/s2.
(d) cos a = 3 (a) 0º (b) 30º
35. Yellow light is used in a single slit (c) 60º (d) 90º
diffraction experiment with slit 40. A fully charged capacitor C with
width of 0.6 mm. If yellow light is initial charge Q0 is connected to a
replaced by X– rays, then the coil of self inductance L at t = 0.
observed pattern will reveal, The time at which the energy is
(a) that the central maximum is stored equally between the electric
narrower and the magnetic field is
(b) more number of fringes
(c) less number of fringes p
(a) LC (b) 2p LC
(d) no diffraction pattern 4
36. Which one is possible? (c) (d) p LC
LC
(a) 7N
19
+ 0 n1 ® 7 N 16 + 1H 1 41. Of the various series of th e
32 + 1 35 4
hydrogen spectrum, the one which
(b) 16 S 1 H ® 17Cl + 2 He lies wholly in the ultraviolet region
16 is
(c) 8O + 0 n1 (a) Lyman series
(b) Balmer series
® 7 N 14 + 3 1H 1 + 2 - 1b
0
(c) Paschen series
(d) 1 H 1 + 1H 1 ® 2 He 4 (d) Bracket series
42. The combination of gates shown
37. When a ray of light enters a glass below yields
slab from air,
(a) its wavelength decreases A
(b) its wavelength increases
(c) its frequency decreases X
(d) neither its wavelength nor its
frequency changes. B
6 NEET MOCK TEST
(a) OR gate 47. The stan dard enth alpy of
(b) NOT gate formation (Df H° 298) for methane,
(c) AND gate CH4 is – 74.9 kJ mol–1. In order to
(d) NAND gate
43. An artificial satellite moving in a calculate the average energy given
circular orbit around the earth has out in the formation of a C – H
a total (kinetic + potential) energy bond from this it is necessary to
E0. Its potential energy is know which one of the following?
(a) –E0 (b) 1.5 E0 (a) The dissociation energy of
(c) 2E0 (d) E0 the hydrogen molecule, H2.
44. In the Bohr’s model of hydrogen- (b) The first four ionisation
like atom the force between the energies of carbon.
nucleus and the electron is (c) The dissociation energy of
modified as H2 and enthalpy of
e2 æ 1 b ö sublimation of carbon
F= ç ÷ , where b is + (graphite).
4pe0 è r 2 r 3 ø (d) The first four ionisation
a constant. For this atom, the energies of carbon and
radius of the nth orbit in terms of electron affinity of hydrogen.
æ e h2 ö 48. 1.08 g of pure silver was converted
the Bohr radius ç a0 = 0 2 ÷ is : into silver nitrate and its solution
ç mp e ÷ø
è was taken in a beaker. It was
(a) rn = a0n – b electrolysed using platinum
(b) rn = a0n2 + b cathode and silver anode. 0.01
(c) rn = a0n2 – b Faraday of electricity was passed
(d) rn = a0n + b using 0.15 volt above the
45. Two coherent plane light waves decomposition potential of silver.
of equal amplitude makes a small The silver content of the beaker
angle a (< < 1) with each other. after the above shall be
They fall almost normally on a (a) 0 g (b) 0.108 g
screen. If l is the wavelength of (c) 0.108 g (d) 1.08 g
light waves, the fringe width Dx of 49. Number of electrons transfered in
interference patterns of the two each case when KMnO4 acts as
sets of waves on the screen is
an oxidising agent to give
2l l
(a) (b) MnO2 , Mn 2 + , Mn (OH )3 and
a a
l l MnO 24- are respectively
(c) (d)
( 2a ) a (a) 3,5,4 and 1 (b) 4,3,1 and 5
(c) 1,3,4 and 5 (d) 5,4,3 and 1
CHEMISTRY 50. Addition of HI to double bond of
propene yields isopropyl iodide
46. Dissolving 120 g of a compound and not n-propyl iodide as the
of (mol. wt. 60) in 1000 g of water major product, because addition
gave a solution of density proceeds through
1.12 g/mL. The molarity of the (a) a more stable carbonium ion.
solution is: (b) a more stable carbanion.
(a) 1.00 M (b) 2.00 M (c) a more stable free radical.
(c) 2.50 M (d) 4.00 M (d) homolysis.
MOCK TEST - 1 7
51. Which of the following is a 56. The major organic compound
biodegradable polymer ? formed by the reaction of 1, 1, 1-
O trichloroethane with silver powder
(a) é HN - (CH2 ) CONH - CH 2 - C ù is:
ë 5 û n (a) Acetylene (b) Ethene
O (c) 2 - Butyne (d) 2 - Butene
(b) éë HN - (CH 2 )5 - C ùû 57. The end product (C) in the
n
following sequence of reactions is
O
1% HgSO
(c) éë HN - (CH2 )6 NHCO - (CH2 )4 - C ùû n HC º CH ¾¾¾¾¾
4®A
20% H 2SO 4
O CH MgX [O]
|| ¾¾¾¾¾
3 ® B ¾¾¾
®(C)
(d) éC CO O - (CH 2 )2 - O ù H 2O
ë ûn
52. Which of the following is a redox (a) Acetic acid
reaction ? (b) Isopropyl alcohol
(a) Reaction of H 2 SO 4 with (c) Acetone
NaOH. (d) Ethanol
(b) In atomosphere, O3 from O2 58. At 0° C and one atm pressure, a
by lightning. gas occupies 100 cc. If th e
(c) Nitrogen oxides from pressure is increased to one and a
nitrogen and oxygen half-time and temperature is
decomposition by lightning. increased by one third of absolute
(d) Evaporation of H2O. temperature, then final volume of
the gas will be
53. Standard entropy of X2, Y2 and X
(a) 80 cc (b) 88.9 cc
Y3 are 60, 40 and 50 J K–1 mol–1, (c) 66.7 cc (d) 100 cc
respectively. For the reaction,
59. Which one of the following
1 3 statement is not true?
X 2 + Y2 ® XY3 , DH = –30kJ ,
2 2 (a) The conjugate base of
to be at equilibrium, the H2PO4– is HPO42–.
temperature will be (b) pH + pOH = 14 for all aqueous
(a) 1250 K (b) 500 K solutions.
(c) 1000 K (d) 750 K (c) the pH of 1 × 10–8 M HCl is 8.
54. The cell constant of a given cell is (d) 96,500 coulombs of electricity
0.47 cm –1. The resistance of a when passed thr ough a
solution placed in this cell is CuSO 4 solution deposits
measured to be 31.6 ohm. The 1 gram equivalent of copper
conductivity of the solution (in S cm– at the Cathode.
1 where S has usual meaning) is
60. For a reaction of type
(a) 0.15 (b) 1.5
(c) 0.015 (d) 150 A+B¾ ¾® products , it is
55. Consider the following changes observed that doubling
concentration of A causes the
A ® A + + e - : E1 and A + ® A 2+ + e - : E 2
reaction rate to be four times as
The energy required to pull out the
great, but doubling amount of B
two electrons are E 1 and E 2
does not affect the rate. The rate
respectively. The correct
equation is
relationship between two energies
(a) Rate = K [A] [B]
would be
(a) E1 < E2 (b) E1 = E2 K 2
(c) E1 > E2 (d) E1 ³ E2 (b) Rate = [A]
4
8 NEET MOCK TEST
(c) Rate = K [A]2 [B]0 (d) At T > 1200 K, carbon will
(d) Rate = K [A]2 [B]2 reduce MO(s) to M(s).
61. The electronegativity follows the 65. For preparing a buffer solution of
order pH 6 by mixing sodium acetate and
(a) F > O > Cl > Br acetic acid, the ratio of the
(b) F > Cl > Br > O concentration of salt and acid
(c) O > F > Cl > Br should be (Ka = 10–5)
(d) Cl > F > O > Br (a) 1 : 10 (b) 10 : 1
62. Which of the following is not (c) 100 : 1 (d) 1 : 100
formed when glycerol reacts with 66. The activation energy for a
HI? hypothetical reaction, A
(a) CH2 = CH – CH2I ® Product, is 12.49 kcal/mole. If
(b) CH2(OH)–CH(I)–CH2OH temperature is raised from 295 to
(c) CH3–CH = CH2 305, the rate of reaction increased
(d) CH3–CH(I)–CH3 by
63. The amine that does not react (a) 60% (b) 100%
with acetyl chloride is (c) 50% (d) 20%
(a) CH 3 NH 2 67. BCl3 is a planar molecule whereas
(b) (CH 3 ) 2 NH NCl3 is pyramidal because
(a) BCl 3 has no lone pair of
(c) (CH 3 )3 N electrons but NCl3 has a lone
(d) None of these pair of electrons.
64. The plot shows the variation of – (b) B—Cl bond is more polar
ln KP versus temperature for the than N—Cl bond.
two reactions. (c) Nitrogen atom is smaller than
1 boron atom.
M(s) + O2 (g) ® MO(s) and (d) N—Cl bond is more covalent
2 than B—Cl bond.
1 68. Indicate the wrongly named
C(s) + O2 (g) ® CO(s)
2 compound
(a) CH3 - CH - CH2 - CH2 - CHO
M®MO |
CH3
(4-methyl -1- pentanal)
– ln KP (b)
C®CO
20 CH3- CH - C º C - COOH
|
CH3
(4- methyl -2- pentyn -1- oic acid)
0 1200 T(K) (c) CH 3CH 2CH 2 - CH - COOH
|
Identify the correct statement: CH3
(a) At T < 1200 K, oxidation of (2- methyl -1- pentanoic acid)
carbon is unfavourable. (d)
(b) Oxidation of carbon is O
favourable at all temperatures. ||
(c) At T < 1200 K, the reaction CH 3 - CH 2 - CH = CH - C - CH 3
MO(s) + C(s) ® M(s) + CO(g) (3- hexen -5- one)
is spontaneous.
MOCK TEST - 1 9
69. An organic compound, C3H6O (d) It decomposes on exposure
does not give a precipitate with to light.
2,4-dinitr ophen yl-hydrazin e 74. Beilstein’s test is given by which
reagent and does not react with of the following:
metallic sodium. It could be (a) Halogens (b) Thiourea
(a) CH3–CH2–CHO (c) Pyridine (d) All
(b) CH2=CH–CH2OH 75. Complete hydrolysis of starch
(c) CH3–CO–CH3 gives :
(d) CH2=CH–O–CH3 (a) Glucose only
70. Which one of the following pairs (b) Galactose and fructose in
of molecules will have permanent equimolar amounts
dipole moments for both (c) Glucose and galactose in
members? equimolar amounts
(a) SiF4 and NO2 (d) Glucose and fructose in
(b) NO2 and CO2 equimolar amounts
(c) NO2 and O3 76. At STP, the order of root mean
(d) SiF4 and CO2 square speed of molecules H2, N2,
71. An element has bcc strucutre O2 and HBr is
having unit cells 12.08×1023. The (a) H2 > N2 > O2 > HBr
number of atoms in these cells is (b) HBr > O2 > N2 > H2
(a) 12.08 × 1023 (c) HBr > H2 > O2 > N2
(b) 24.16 × 1023 (d) N2 > O2 > H2 > HBr
(c) 48.38 × 1023 77. Which of the following is not
(d) 12.08 × 1022 true ?
72. An unknown metal M displaces (a) Some disinfectants can be
nickel from nickel (II) sulphate used as antispetics.
solution but does not displace (b) Sulphadiazine is a synthetic
manganese from manganese antibacterial.
sulphate solution. Which order (c) Aspirin is analgesic as well
represents the correct order of as antipyretic.
reducing power? (d) Polystyrene is used to make
(a) Mn > Ni > M non-stick cookware.
(b) Ni > Mn > M 78. A solution is prepared by mixing
(c) Mn > M > Ni 8.5 g of CH2Cl2 and 11.95 g of
(d) M > Ni > Mn CHCl 3. If vapour pressure of
73. From the following statements CH2Cl2 and CHCl3 at 298 K are 415
regarding H 2 O 2 , choose the and 200 mmHg respectively, the
incorrect statement : mole fraction of CHCl3 in vapour
(a) It has to be stored in plastic form is :
or wax lined glass bottles in (Molar mass of Cl = 35.5 g mol–1)
dark. (a) 0.162 (b) 0.675
(b) It has to be kept away from (c) 0.325 (d) 0.486
dust. 79. Match list I with list II and select
(c) It can act only as an oxidizing the correct answer using the codes
agent. given below the lists:
10 NEET MOCK TEST
List I List II
I. Cyanide process A. Ultrapure Ge
II. Floatation process B. Pine oil
III. Electrolytic reduction C. Extraction of Al
IV. Zone refining D. Extraction of Au
(a) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B (b) I-D,II-B,III-C,IV-A
(c) I-C,II-B,III-D, IV-A (d) I-D,II-A,III-C,IV-B
80. In which of the following, (b) d3 (in weak as well as in
resonance will be possible? strong fields)
(a) CH 3 - CH 2 - CH 2 - CHO (c) d4 (in weak ligand fields)
(d) d4 (in strong ligand fields)
(b) CH 2 = CH - CH = O
(c) CH 3COCH 3 85. N 2 and O 2 are converted into
(d) CH 2 = CH - CH 2 – CH = CH 2 monoanions, N 2– and O -2
81. The radius of the second Bohr respectively. Which of the
orbit for hydrogen atom is : following statements is wrong ?
(Plank's const. h = 6.6262 × 10–34
Js ; mass of electron = 9.1091 × (a) In N 2– , N – N bond weakens
10–31 kg ; charge of electron
(b) In O –2 , O – O bond order
e = 1.60210 × 10–19 C ; permittivity
of vaccum increases
Î0 = 8.854185 × 10–12 kg–1 m–3 A2) (c) In O –2 , O – O bond order
(a) 1.65Å (b) 4.76Å decreases
(c) 0.529Å (d) 2.12Å
82. Point out the false statement (d) N 2– becomes paramagnetic
(a) Brownian movement and 86. The structure and hybridization of
Tyndall effect are shown by Si(CH3)4 is
colloidal systems. (a) bent, sp
(b) Gold number is a measure of (b) trigonal, sp2
the protective power of a (c) octahedral, sp3d
lyophillic colloid. (d) tetrahedral, sp3
(c) The colloidal solution of a 87. In a reaction A + B C + D,
liquid in liquid is called gel. the initial concentrations, of A and
(d) Hardy - Schulze rule is related B were 0.9 mol dm –3 each. At
with coagulation. equilibrium the concentration of D
83. The compound A on heating gives was found to be 0.6 mol dm–3.
a colourless gas and a residue What is the value of equilibrium
which dissolves in water to give constant for the reaction
B. When excess of CO2 is passed (a) 8 (b) 4
into B and gently heated, A is (c) 9 (d) 3
formed. The compound A is 88. CsCl crystallises in body centered
(a) CaSO4.2H2O (b) Na2CO3 cubic lattice. If ‘a’ is its edge length
(c) CaCO3 (d) K2CO3 then which of the following
84. The value of the ‘spin only’ expressions is correct?
magnetic moment for one of the (a) r + + r - = 3a
following configurations is 2.84 Cs Cl
BM. The correct one is 3a
(a) d5 (in strong ligand field) (b) r +r =
Cs + Cl - 2
MOCK TEST - 1 11
94. Bacterial cells are often found in
3 very hypotonic environments.
(c) r +r = a
Cs + Cl - 2 Which of the following
(d) rCs + + rCl - = 3a characteristics keeps them from
continuing to take on water from
89. An example of Perkin’s reaction is their environment?
(a) C6 H5CHO + CH3 NO 2 (a) The presence of a cell wall
KOH
allows a buildup of turgor
¾¾¾® C6 H 5 CHCHNO 2 pressure that prevents any
(b) C 6 H 5 CHO + (CH 3CO ) 2 O more water from entering the
cell.
CH 3COONa (b) The presence of a cell wall
¾¾ ¾ ¾ ¾
¾® C 6 H 5 CH = CHCOOH
(c) C6H5CHO + CH3CHO allows a buildup of tonic
NaOH pressure that prevents any
C 6H 5CH = CHCHO more water from entering the
(d) C 6 H 5CHO + CH 2 (COOH) 2 cell.
Alc. NH
(c) The cell expels water as fast
¾¾¾¾® 3
C6 H 5 CH = CHCO 2 H as it takes it up.
90. The ether that undergoes (d) None of the above
electrophilic substitution 95. How many meiotic division would
reactions is be required to produce 101 female
(a) CH3OC2H5 gametophytes in an angiosperm?
(b) C6H5OCH3 (a) 101
(c) CH3OCH3 (b) 26
(d) C2H5OC2H5 (c) 127
(d) None of these
96. In the choices below, which is not
BIOLOGY a correct pairing of a macronutrient
91. Classification of organisms based and the major functions it
on evolutionary as well as genetic performs in the life of a plant?
relationships is called (a) potassium, enzyme activation,
(a) Biosystematics water balance, ion balance
(b) Phenetics (b) calcium; activity of membranes
(c) Numerical taxonomy and cytoskeleton, second
(d) Cladistics messenger
92. In gymnosperms, the ovule is
(c) sulfur; in proteins and
naked because
coenzymes
(a) ovary wall is absent
(b) integuments are absent (d) iron; in active sites of many
(c) perianth is absent redox enzymes and electron
(d) nucellus is absent carriers
93. Which one of the following have 97. In C4 plants, agranal chloroplasts
vessels as their characteristic are found in
feature? (a) mesophyll cells
(a) Angiosperms (b) epidermal cell chloroplasts of
(b) Gymnosperms green stem
(c) Pteridophytes (c) bundle sheath cells
(d) Bryophytes (d) chloroplasts of guard cells
12
98. Out of 36 ATP molecules
produced per glucose molecule
during respiration
(a) 2 are produced outside
glycolysis and 34 during
respiratory chain.
(b) 2 are produced outside
mitochondria and 34 inside
mitochondria.
(c) 2 during glycolysis and 34
during Krebs cycle.
(d) all are formed inside
mitochondria.
99. Which of the following hormone
prevents ripening of fruit?
(a) Gibberellin (b) Ethylene
(c) Cytokinin (d) ABA
100. Which one of the following
represents an ovule, where the
embryo sac becomes horse-shoe
shaped and the funiculus and
micropyle are close to each other?
(a) Amphitropous
(b) Circinotropous
(c) Atropous
(d) Anatropous
101. When the members of one
population do not breed at the
same time of the year as the
members of another population it
is called
(a) geographic isolation
(b) sexual isolation
(c) seasonal isolation
(d) habitat isolation
102. Diversity in the type of beaks of
finches adapted to different
feeding habits on the Galapagos
Islands, as observed by Darwin,
provides evidence for
(a) Intraspecific variations
(b) Intraspecific competition
(c) Interspecific competition
(d) Origin of species by natural
selection
103. DDT causes egg shell thinning in
birds because it inhibits
(a) Calmodulin
(b) Calcium ATPase
(c) Magnesium ATPase
(d) Carbonic anhydrase
NEET MOCK TEST
104. The first clinical gene therapy was
given for treating
(a) chicken pox
(b) diabetes mellitus
(c) rheumatoid arthritis
(d) adenosine deaminase
deficiency
105. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to
(a) Step-wise arrangement of all
categories for classification
of plants and animals
(b) A group of senior taxonomists
who decide the nomenclature
of plants and animals
(c) A list of botanists or
zoologists who have worked
on taxonomy of a species or
group
(d) Classification of a species
based on fossil record
106. A group of fungi with septate
mycelium in which sexual
reproduction is either unknown or
lacking are classified under
(a) phycomycetes
(b) deuteromycetes
(c) ascomycetes
(d) basidiomycetes
107. Oxysomes or F0 – F1 particles
occur on
(a) thylakoids
(b) mitochondrial surface
(c) inner mitochondrial
membrane
(d) chloroplast surface
108. Which of the following layer is
present nearest of plasma
membrane in plant cell?
(a) Secondary wall
(b) Middle lamella
(c) Primary wall
(d) Tonoplast
109. Iso-enzymes may be identified or
separated by all the following
characteristics, except :
(a) Electrophoretic mobility
(b) Heat stability
(c) Inhibitor specificity
(d) Chemical reaction catalyzed
MOCK TEST - 1
110. The number of chromatids in a
chromosome at anaphase is
(a) 2 in mitosis and 1 in meiosis
(b) 1 in mitosis and 2 in meiosis
(c) 2 each in mitosis and meiosis
(d) 2 in mitosis and 4 in meiosis
111. Plants die from prolonged water-
logging because
(a) soil nutrients become very
dilute.
(b) root respiration stops.
(c) cell sap in the plants becomes
too dilute.
(d) nutrients leach down due to
excess water.
112. Gibberellin was first extracted from
(a) Gibberella fujikuroi
(b) Gelidium
(c) Gracilaria
(d) Aspergillus
113. Which of the following bacteria is
used for the production of butanol
and acetone from starch?
(a) Lactobacillus bulgaricus
(b) Clostridium acetobutylicum
(c) Streptococcum thermophilus
(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘c’
114. If an angiospermic male plant is
diploid and female plant tetraploid,
the ploidy level of endosperm will
be
(a) haploid (b) triploid
(c) tetraploid (d) pentaploid
115. Species diversity increase as one
proceeds from
(a) high altitude to low altitude
and high latitude to low
latitude
(b) low altitude to high altitude
and high latitude to low
latitude
(c) low altitude to high altitude
and low latitude to high
latitude
(d) high altitude to low altitude
and low latitude to high
latitude
116. Sacred groves are specially useful
in
(a) preventing soil erosion.
13
(b) year-round flow of water in
rivers.
(c) generating environmental
awareness.
(d) conserving rare and
threatened species.
117. Milky water of green coconut is
(a) liquid nucellus
(b) liquid of female gametophyte
(c) liquid endosperm
(d) liquid embryo
118. Which one of the following is the
major difference between mosses
and ferns ?
(a) Ferns lack alternation of
generation while mosses
show the same.
(b) Mosses are facultative
aerobes while ferns are
obligate aerobes.
(c) Vascular bundles of ferns
show xylem vessels while
those of mosses lack it.
(d) Sporophytes of ferns live
much longer as compared to
the sporophytes of mosses.
119. Red snow causing alga is
(a) Chlamydomonas nivalis
(b) Chlamydomonas reinhardtii
(c) Chlamydomonas
debaryanum
(d) Chalmydomonas media
120. Which of the following statement
(s) is/are incorrect?
(i) Calyx and corolla ar e
reproductive organs of a
flower.
(ii) Zygomorphic flower can be
divided into two equal radial
halves in any radial plane.
(iii) Flowers without bracts are
termed as bracteate.
(iv) Parthenocarpic fruit is formed
after fertilization of the ovary.
(v) In legumes, seed is non-
endospermic.
(vi) Radical buds develop on
roots.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii) and (v)
14
(c) (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(d) (i), (iv) and (v)
121. What is true about t-RNA?
(a) It has five double stranded
regions.
(b) It binds with an amino acid at
it 3’ end.
(c) It looks like clover leaf in the
three dimensional structure.
(d) It has a codon at one end
which recognizes the
anticodon on messenger
RNA.
122. Which of the following statements
about nitrification is not true ?
(a) Nitrobacter oxidizes nitrite to
nitrate.
(b) Nitrosomonas and
Nitrosococcus conver t
ammonium ions to nitrite.
(c) Nitrification reactions are
energy-producing
(exergonic) reactions.
(d) Heterotrophic plants are more
directly dependent on the
nitrifying bacteria for usable
nitrogen than autotrophic
plants.
123. Photorespiration is favoured by
(a) high O2 and low CO2
(b) low light and high O2
(c) low temperature and high O2
(d) low O2 and high CO2
124. Which of the following
photosynthetic bacteria have both
PS-I and PS-II ?
(a) Green sulphur bacteria
(b) Purple-sulphur bacteria
(c) Purple non-sulphur bacteria
(d) Cyanobacteria
125. A plant completing its life cycle
before the onset of dry condition
is said to be
(a) short day plant
(b) long day plant
(c) drought escaping
(d) All of these
126. The graph shows the relation
between light intensity and the
giving off and taking up of carbon
NEET MOCK TEST
dioxide by the leaves of a plant.
Why is most carbon dioxide given
off when the light intensity is zero
units ?
(a) Because it is just the start of
the experiment.
(b) Only respiration is taking
place at this intensity of light.
(c) Only photosynthesis is
taking place at this intensity
of light.
(d) The rate of photosynthesis is
equivalent to the rate of
respiration.
127. Which one of the following
statement is false?
(i) Epidermal cell has small
amount of cytoplasm and a
large vacuole.
(ii) Waxy cuticle layer is absent
in roots.
(iii) Root hairs are unicellular,
while stem hairs / trichomes
are multicellular.
(iv) Trichomes may be branched
or unbranched, soft or stiff
and prevent transpiration.
(v) Guard cells are dumbell
shaped in dicots and bean-
shaped in monocots.
(a) (i) only (b) (iv) only
(c) (iii) only (d) (v) only
128. Find the correct match
A. Royal fern (i) Adiantum
B. Marshy fern (ii) Osmunda
C. Grape fern (iii) Marsilea
D. Walking fern (iv) Botrychium
(a) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)
(b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(c) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
MOCK TEST - 1
129. Which one of the following
graphs most closely represents the
relationship between the rate of
transpiration of a mesophytic leaf
and the atmospheric humidity ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
130. Common indicator organism of
water pollution is
(a) Lemna pancicostata
(b) Eichhornia crassipes
(c) Escherichia coli
(d) Entamoeba histolytica
131. Match the following
A. Succession (i) Tansley
B. Ecosystem (ii) Mobius
C. Biocoenosis (iii) Hult
D. Acid Rain (iv) Robert Augus
(a) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(d) A-(iiii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
132. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for
(a) DNA finger printing.
(b) Disarming pathogen vectors.
(c) Transformation of plant cells.
(d) Constructing recombinant
DNA by joining with vectors.
133. Read the following four statements
(i - iv).
(i) In transcription, adenosine
pairs with uracil.
(ii) Regulation of lac operon by
15
repressor is referred to as
positive regulation.
(iii) The human genome has
approximately 50,000 genes.
(iv) Haemophilia is a sex-linked
recessive disease.
How many of the above
statements are correct?
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) One
134. The interaction is detrimental to both
the species in
(a) Predation
(b) Commensalism
(c) Ammensalism
(d) Competition
135. Which option is true about heart
wood/duramen?
(i) It does not help in water and
mineral conduction.
(ii) It is dark coloured but soft.
(iii) It has tracheary elements
filled with tannins, resins,
gums, oil, etc.
(iv) It is a peripheral part.
(v) Sensitive to microbes and
insects, hence least durable.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iv) and (v)
(d) (iii)and (iv)
136. A few organisms are known to
grow and multiply at temperatures
of 100–105ºC. They belong to
(a) marine archaebacteria
(b) thermophilic sulphur bacteria
(c) blue-green algae
(cyanobacteria)
(d) thermophilic, subaerial fungi
137. Archaeopteryx is connecting link
between
(a) Reptiles and birds
(b) Reptiles and mammals
(c) Fishes and reptiles
(d) Chordates and
nonchordates
138. The fibres of the following muscles
are fusiform and do not show
striations
(a) Skeletal muscles
(b) Cardiac muscles
16
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Smooth muscles
139. Pancreatic cancer is an especially
dangerous disease in people
because the pancreas is
(a) the organ that produces and
stores bile.
(b) the site of synthesis for all of
the essential amino acids.
(c) one of the organs through
which food must pass on its
way to the colon.
(d) an organ in which many
different kinds of digestive
enzymes are manufactured.
140. Cholecystokinin is secretion of
(a) Duodenum that causes
contraction of gall bladder
(b) Goblet cells of ileum,
stimulates secretion of
succus entericus
(c) Liver and controls secondary
sex characters
(d) Stomach that stimulates
pancreas to release juice
141. The volume of air breathed in and
out during normal breathing is
called
(a) Vital capacity
(b) Inspiratory reserve volume
(c) Expiratory reserve volume
(d) Tidal volume
142. Solenocytes and metanephridia
are excretory organs of
(a) Annelida and Arthropoda
(b) Platyhelminthes and
Annelida
(c) Coelenterata and Mollusca
(d) Aschelminthes and Annelida
143. Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) is
released in response to the
increase in blood volume and
blood pressure. Which of the
followings is not the function of
ANF?
(a) Stimulates aldosterone
secretion
(b) Inhibits the release of renin
from JGA
(c) Stimulates salt loss in urine
NEET MOCK TEST
(d) Inhibits sodium reabsorption
from collecting duct
144. Which of the following diseases
is caused by the under secretion
of cortisol?
(a) Anaemia
(b) Addison’s disease
(c) Hyperglycemia
(d) Mental illness or retardation
145. Every time you eat a cookie or
candy bar, your blood sugar
increases. This triggers an increase
in the hormone
(a) thyroxine
(b) epinephrine
(c) glucagon
(d) insulin
146. Which of the following sets
represents vestigial organs?
(a) Vermiform appendix, body
hair and patella
(b) Wisdom teeth, body hair and
atlas vertebra
(c) Ear muscles, cochlea and
coccyx
(d) Vermiform appendix, ear
muscles and coccyx
147. Which of the following is found in
the lymph nodes of a person
battling a cold virus?
(a) Huge numbers of white blood
cells
(b) Trapped viruses that have
been roaming the body
(c) Lymph ducts that enter and
exit the nodes
(d) All of the above
148. Which one of the following pairs
of hormones are the examples of
those that can easily pass through
the cell membrane of the target cell
and bind to a receptor inside it
(Mostly in the nucleus)?
(a) Insulin, glucagon
(b) Thyroxine, insulin
(c) Somatostatin, oxytocin
(d) Cortisol, testosterone
149. Where do certain symbiotic micro-
organisms normally occur in
human body?
MOCK TEST - 1 17
(a) Caecum 156. The protein coated, water soluble
(b) Oral lining and tongue surface fat globules are called
(c) Vermiform appendix and (a) Chylomicrons
rectum (b) Micelles
(d) Duodenum (c) Chyle
150. Minimum regeneration power is (d) Monoglycerides
found in 157. What would happen if human
(a) Blood (b) Epidermis blood becomes acidic (low pH)?
(c) Nervous tissue (a) Oxygen carying capacity of
(d) Muscular tissue haemoglobin increases
151. Which of the following statements (b) Oxygen carrying capacity of
is/are not true? haemoglobin decreases
(i) In Urochordata, notochord is (c) RBCs count increases
present in larval tail. (d) RBCs count decreases
(ii) In Cephalochordata, 158. Which one of the following is a
notochord extends from head matching pair?
to tail region. (a) Lubb-Sharp closure of AV
(iii) Branchiostoma belongs to valves at the beginning of
hemichordata. ventricular systole
(iv) Only one class of living (b) Dup-Sudden openin g of
members, class Cyclostomata semilunar valves at the
represents the super class beginning of ventricular
Agnatha diastole
(a) (ii) and (iv) (c) Pulsation of the radial artery-
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) Valves in the blood vessels
(d) Initiation of the heart beat -
(c) (iii) only
Purkinje fibres
(d) (i) and (iv)
159. Reabsorption of chloride ions from
152. Plectenchyma is tissue composed glomerular filtrate in kidney tubule
of : occurs by
(a) mycelial threads of fungi (a) Active transport
(b) tracheids of higher plants (b) Diffusion
(c) aerenchyma (c) Osmosis
(d) parenchyma (d) Brownian movement
153. If cardiac supply of vagus nerve 160. Ankle joint is
is cut then (a) Pivot Joint
(a) Rate of heart beat increases (b) Ball and socket joint
(b) Rate of heart beat decreases (c) Hinge joint
(c) There is no change in heart (d) Gliding joint
beat 161. Which muscle group contracts
(d) Heart stops beating when the patellar ligament is struck
154. Newly born child is more resistant with a hammer (knee reflex)?
to cold because of the presence of (a) Biceps femoris
(a) Thick dermis (b) Blubber (b) External obliques
(c) Brown fat (d) White fat (c) Rectus abdominis
155. Which part of the alimentary canal (d) Quadriceps
does not secrete any enzyme? 162. A decrease in the level of
(a) Mouth oestrogen an d progesterone
(b) Oesophagus causes
(c) Stomach (a) Growth and dilation of
(d) Duodenum myometrium
18
(b) Growth of endometrium
(c) Constriction of uterine blood
vessels leading to sloughing
of endometrium or uterine
epithelium
(d) Release of ovum from the
ovary.
163. Structure connecting the foetus to
placenta is
(a) umbilical cord (b) amnion
(c) yolk sac (d) chorion
164. In India which of the following
species of honey bee is reared in
artificial hives ?
(a) Apis indica
(b) Apis dorsata
(c) Apis florae
(d) None of these
165. A person entering an empty room
suddenly finds a snake right in
front on opening the door. Which
one of the following is likely to
happen in his neuro-hormonal
control system ?
(a) Sympathetic nervous system
is activated releasing
epinephrine and norepine-
phrine from adrenal medulla.
(b) Neurotransmitters diffuse
rapidly across the cleft and
transmit a nerve impulse.
(c) Hypothalamus activates the
parasympathetic division of
brain.
(d) Sympathetic nervous system
is activated releasing
epinephrine and
norepinephrine from adrenal
cortex.
166. Which one of the following pairs
of chemical substances is correctly
categorized?
(a) Calcitonin and thymosin -
Thyroid hormones
(b) Pepsin and prolactin - Two
digestive enzymes secreted
in stomach
(c) Troponin and myosin -
Complex proteins in striated
muscles
NEET MOCK TEST
(d) Secretin and rhodopsin -
Polypeptide hormones
167. Damage to the nerve connecting
the saccule and utricle to the brain
could result in
(a) loss of sense of taste
(b) blindness
(c) dizziness
(d) loss of sense of smell
168. The chemical substance found in
the surface layer of cytoplasm of
spermatozoa is:
(a) fertilizin
(b) agglutinin
(c) antifertilizin
(d) hyaluronidase
169. Read the following 4-statements
and mark the option that has both
correct statements
(i) MTP was legalized in 1971
(ii) Inability to conceive or
produce children even after 2
years of unprotected sexual
cohabitation is called
infertility
(iii) Surgical method of
contraception prevents
gamete formation
(iv) MTPs are relatively safe up
to 12 weeks of pregnancy
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
170. Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs
when
(a) Mother is Rh negative and
father is Rh positive
(b) Father is Rh negative and
mother is Rh positive
(c) Both are Rh positive
(d) Both are Rh negative
171. Which of the following organisms
is capable of producing gametes
containing different sex
chromosomes ?
(a) Male butterfuly
(b) Human male
(c) Human female
(d) Male bird
MOCK TEST - 1
172. Tadpoles of frog can be made to
grow as giant sized tadpoles, if
they are
(a) administered antithyroid
substance like thiourea
(b) administered large amounts
of thyroxine
(c) reared on a diet rich in egg
yolk
(d) reared on a diet rich in both
egg yolk and glucose
173. In myopia or short sightedness
(a) Image is formed slightly in
front of retina because eye
ball is longer.
(b) Eye ball is normal but image
is formed over blind spot.
(c) Eye ball is normal but images
is formed slightly behind the
retina due to faulty lens.
(d) Curvature of cornea becomes
irregular.
174. Sequence of meninges from inner
to outside is
(a) Duramater – Arachnoid –
Piamater
(b) Duramater – Piamater –
Arachnoid
(c) Arachnoid – Duramater -
Piamater
(d) Piamater- Ar achnoid -
Duramater
175. Which hormone-bone cell
combination may result in
osteoporosis ?
(a) adrenal cortisol-osteoclast
(b) estrogen-osteoblast
(c) thyroid hormone-osteoclast
(d) thyrocalcitonin-osteoblast
176. Joint between bones of human
skull is
(a) Hinge joint
(b) Synovial joint
(c) Cartilaginous joint
(d) Fibrous joint
177. Which one of the following is the
correct description of a certain
part of the normal human skeleton?
(a) Parietal bone and the temporal
bone of the skull are joined
by fibrous joint.
19
(b) First vertebra is axis which
articulates with the occipital
condyles.
(c) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs
are called the floating ribs.
(d) Glenoid cavity is a depression
to which the thigh bone
articulates.
178. Metanephric kidneys are found in
(a) Reptiles only
(b) Birds only
(c) mammals only
(d) All of these
179. Which of the following set of
animals has an incomplete double
circulation system?
(a) Frog and crocodile
(b) Shark and whale
(c) Lizard and pigeon
(d) Toad and lizard
180. Look at the following pedigree
chart. On what basis the trait
represented by the solid symbols
in the pedigree below cannot be
explained ?
(i) A dominant sex linked gene
(ii) A recessive sex linked gene
(iii) A holandric gene
(iv) A sex limited autosomal
dominant
(v) A sex limited autosomal
recessive
(vi) A sex influenced autosonal
gene dominat in males
(vii) A sex influenced autosomal
gene recessive in males
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vii)
(b) (i), (iii) and (vii)
(c) (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(d) (i), (iii), (v) and (vii)