(6001CJA10100123006) *6001CJA10100123003*

(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024)

TARGET : JEE (M + A) : 2025

NURTURE (WD-EVE & W-END BATCH) P - 1 & 2

Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 300

Student's Form No. : ..................................................................... Batch : ..........................................

Student's Name : .........................................................................................................................................

Important Instructions :
1. Immediately fill in the form number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. There are three parts in the question paper 1, 2, 3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30 questions in each subject
and each subject having Two sections.
(i) Section-I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
(ii) Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions. First 5 attempted questions
will be considered for marking.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
6. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writting particulars/marking responses on Side–1 and Side–2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly
prohibited.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electronic device etc, except
the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.
8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidate
are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
10. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
Topic :
Projectile Motion (Projectile Motion On An Inclined Plane To Analysis Of Projectile On An Inclined
Plane Using Equation Of Trajectory), Relative Motion, Newton Laws Of Motion & Friction (Motion
To Translational Equilibrium)
PHYSICS
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 3. If a swimmer who can swim with 2 m/s jumps into
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 the river with stream moving at a speed of 4 m/sec
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions in perpendicular direction. Then the drift of
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question, swimmer (if width of river is 500 m) will be
marks will be awarded as follows: (A) 300 m (B) 500 m
Full Marks          :   +4 If correct answer is selected.
(C) 1000 m (D) 250 m
Zero Marks        :   0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks  :   –1 If wrong option is selected. 4. If both projectiles are fired at the same time then as
show the velocity uB will be
1. A person observes the rain is falling vertically
(If both collides in midair)
downward with speed 4m/s while he was standing.
If he starts cycling with speed 3m/s towards north
then the direction in which he should hold his
umbrella to protect himself from rain will be
(A) 37° with horizontal
(A) 20 m/sec (B) 15 m/sec
(B) 53° with horizontal
(C) 25 m/s (D) 10 m/s
(C) 45° with vertical
5. If projectile hits the inclined plane horizontally
(D) 30° with horizontal
α
then the relation between θ and  will be
2. A swimmer can swim with speed 5 m/sec while
stream has velocity of 4m/s. Then the direction in
which he should jump to have zero drift and also time
to cross the river will be (width of river is 400 m)
(A) 53° with the bank and t = 100 sec
(B) 37° with the bank and t = 80 sec (A) θ = sin( θ + α ). cos α
2 cos

(C) 37° with the bank and t = 400

sec (B) 2 sin θ = sin( θ + α ). cos θ
(C) 2 sin θ = sin( θ + α ). cos α
3
(D) 53° with the bank and t = 400  sec
3 (D) 2 cos θ = cos( θ + α ). cos α
JEE (M+A) NURTURE_IT 3 (WD-EVE & W-END BATCH)_PHASE - I & II 6001CJA10100123006

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6. Two roads crossing each other at right angle. Car A 8. A butterfly is flying with a velocity  4 2m/s in
√

is situated 600m west of car B which is passing North-East direction with respect to the wind. Wind
through crossing, at that instant. Then the minimum is slowly blowing at 1m/s from North to South. The
distance between them during journey will be resultant displacement of the butterfly in 3 seconds
is:
(A) 3 m (B) 20 m
(C) 12√2m (D) 15 m
9. When a car is at rest, its driver sees rain drops
falling on it vertically. When driving the car with
speed v, he sees that rain drops are coming at an
angle 60o  from the horizontal. On further
β
increasing the speed of the car to  (1 + ) v, this
(A) 400 m (B) 600 m
β
angle changes to 45o. The value of   is close to:
(D) 1800
(C) 300 m m (A) 0.41 (B) 0.50
√ 13
7. A ball is projected from point A with a velocity (C) 0.37 (D) 0.73
10m/s perpendicular to the inclined plane as shown 10. A person is standing on a trolley which moves
in figure. Range of the ball on the inclined plane is: horizontally with uniform velocity  5i^m/s. At t = 0,
person throws a ball with velocity 
(5 cos θ ^i + 5 sin θ ^j m/s with respect to himself.
)

He always sees ball overhead. Then

(A) θ = π2 (B) θ = π4
(C) θ=π (D) θ = π
(A) 40 (B) 20 3
m m
3 13
(C) 13 (D) 13
m m
20 40

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11. If A and B are projected simultaneously such that 13. Velocity of a swimmer with respect to a river is
^
they collide at the highest point of particle '1', the (i + 4j^  m/s and velocity of the river flow is 2j^
) ( )

V1
value of  will be :- m/s then velocity of swimmer with respect to
V2
ground is (in m/s) 
^
(A) i + 2j^ (B) −i^ − 2j^

(C) ^ ^ (D) None of these

i + 6j
(A) 1
14. Find the tension in the horizontal string PQ. In
(B) 2 given figure [take g = 10 m/s2]
(C) 1
2
(D) cannot be determined
12. Raindrops are falling vertically with a velocity of
10 m/s. To a cyclist moving on a straight road the
raindrops appear to be coming with a velocity of 20
m/s. The velocity of cyclist is :
(A) 10 m/s (B) 10  3 m/s
√

(A) 70 N (B) 70√2 N

(C) 20 m/s (D) 20  3 m/s
√

(C) 70√3 N (D) 140 N

JEE (M+A) NURTURE_IT 3 (WD-EVE & W-END BATCH)_PHASE - I & II 6001CJA10100123006

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15. An object is shown. Choose the most correct FBD 16. Find the ratio of tensions  T1
of the object : T2

(A) m1 (B) m2
m2 m1
(A) (C) m1 + m2 (D) m2
m2 m1 + m2
17. A metal sphere is hung by a string fixed to a wall.
The forces acting on the sphere are shown in fig.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(B)

(a) N→ + T→ + W
→ = →0
(b) T2 = N2 + W2
(C) (c) T = N + W
(d) N = W tan θ
(A) a, b, c (B) b, c, d
(C) a, b, d (D) a, b, c, d

(D)

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18. A small ball of  weight 10 N is suspended by two 20. Three blocks are placed as shown in figure. Mass
cords A and B as shown in the figure. Values of of A, B and C are m1, m2 and m3 respectively. The
tensions in the strings A and B are     force exerted by block ‘C’ on ‘B’ is :-

(A) m1 g (B) (m1 + m2 )g

(C) m2 g (D) (m1 + m2 + m3 )g

(A) 80 N and 60 N respectively. 
(B) 6 N and 4 N respectively
(C) 6 N and 8 N respectively
(D) 8 N and 6 N respectively.
19. An iron sphere weighing 10 N rests in a V shaped
trough whose sides form an angle of 60°. Then
contact force on wall A and B is

(A) RA = 10 N and RB = 0
(B) RA = 10 N and RB = 10 N
(C) RA  = 20/ 3N and RB  = 10/ 3N
√ √

(D) RA  = 10 3 N and RB  = 10 3 N

√ √

JEE (M+A) NURTURE_IT 3 (WD-EVE & W-END BATCH)_PHASE - I & II 6001CJA10100123006

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 SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20) 2. Find magnitude of force exerted by string on
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to pulley, (g = 9.8m/s2)
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value (If
the numerical value has more than two decimal places,
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places; e.g.
6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is
11.36777..... then both 11.36 and 11.37 will be correct) 3. 3 forces are applied on the cube of mass 4 kg with
by darken the corresponding bubbles in the ORS. the wall as shown. Find the normal reaction (in N)
For Example : If answer is –77.25, 5.2 then fill the by wall
bubbles as follows.
                                  

Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
the following marking scheme:
Full Marks          :   +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks         :   0   If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks  :   –1 If wrong option is selected.
1. A block of mass 10kg is suspended by three strings
as shown in the figure. The tension T2 (in N) is :-
(Take : 3 = 1.74) g = 10 m/s2.
√
4. The displacement equations of two objects moving
along x-axis are x = 3t2 + 1 and x = 6t – 5, their
relative velocity at t = 1 s is:
5. At t = 0 man is running at his full speed (constant)
of 16 m/s and bus starts to move from rest with
constant acceleration of 2 m/s2. If initial separation
between man and bus is 60 m. Find minimum time
taken (in sec.) by man to catch the bus.

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6. A projectile is fired inside a large lift accelerating
down with 2 m/s2. Then the time of flight inside
lift, will be (g = 10 m/s2)
10.
9. Particle is dropped from the height of 20m on
horizontal ground. There is wind blowing due to
which horizontal acceleration of the particle
becomes 6 ms-2. Find the horizontal displacement
of the particle till it reaches ground.
In the figure shown, the two projectiles are fired
simultaneously. The initial speed of the left side
projectile for the two projectile to hit in the mid-air
2
is K √ . then value of K is.
3

7. A person is swimming with a speed of 8m/s at an

angle of 120o with the flow and reaches to a point
directly opposite on the other side of the river. The
speed of the flow is 'x' m/s. The value of 'x' to the
nearest integer is ______.
8. Projectile is projected up on the inclined plane and
it hits the plane perpendicularly then the value of 
α
tan θ . tan  is ______.

JEE (M+A) NURTURE_IT 3 (WD-EVE & W-END BATCH)_PHASE - I & II 6001CJA10100123006

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Topic : Periodic Table, Chemical Bonding (Up to 4.2 Application of the Concept of polarisation).
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 4. Which order is wrong :-
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 (A) Electronegativity – P < N < O < F
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions
(B) Ist ionisation potential – B < Be < O < N 
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question,
marks will be awarded as follows: (C) Basic property – MgO > CaO > FeO > Fe2O3
Full Marks          :   +4 If correct answer is selected. (D) Atomic radius – Li < Na < K 
Zero Marks        :   0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks  :   –1 If wrong option is selected. 5. The radius of cation is r+, anion is r – ,  Za is nuclear
charge of anion, Zc is nuclear charge of cation, 'S'
1. In boron atom screening is due to :-  is screening constant. Which of the following is
(A) Electrons of K shell only  correct ? 
(B) All the electrons of K and L shell  (A) rc Z −S (B) ra Z −S
= a = a
ra Zc − S rc Zc − S
(C) Two electrons of 1s and 2s each 
(C) ra Z (D) ra Z
= a = c
(D) Only by electron of L shell  rc Zc rc Za

2. Mg forms Mg(II) mainly because of :-  6. Which of the following orders for electron affinity
is /are correct :-
(A) The oxidation state of Mg is + 2  (a) S > O < Se 
(B) Difference between I.P1  and I.P2 is greater (b) Cl > F
than 16.0 eV  (c) S > O 
(C) There are only two electrons in the outermost (d) O > S 
energy level of Mg  (e) N > P (f) C > N 
(D) Difference between I.P1  and I.P2  is less than (A) a, b, c, e (B) a, b, c, f
11 eV ; IP2 & IP3 is greater than 16 eV (C) b, c, d, e  (D) b, c, f 
3. The maximum energy will be released in the
following process :- 
(A) B + e− → B − (B) C + e− → C −

(C) N + e− → N − (D) O + e− → O −

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7. Lanthanoid contraction is caused due to :  11. In the sixth period, the orbitals that are filled are 
(A) The same effective nuclear charge from Ce to (A) 6s, 5f, 6d, 6p  (B) 6s, 6p, 6d, 6f 
Lu  (C) 6s, 5d, 5f, 6p (D) 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p
(B) The imperfect shielding on outer electrons by 12. Aqueous solution of which salt will not contain
4f electrons from the nuclear charge  ions with the electronic configuration
(C) The appreciable shielding on outer electrons 1s22s22p63s23p6 ?
by 4f electrons from the nuclear charge  (A) NaCl  (B) Cal2 (C) KBr (D) NaF
(D) The appreciable shielding on outer electrons
13. The element with atomic number, Z = 120 (not yet
by 5d electrons from the nuclear charge 
discovered) will be an/a : 
8. The set representing the correct order of ionic
(A) Transition metal 
radius is :- 
(B) Inner-transition metal 
(A) Li+ > Na+ > Mg2+ > Be2+
(C) Alkaline earth metal 
(B) Mg2+ > Be2+ > Li+ > Na+
(D) Alkali metal 
(C) Li+ > Be2+ > Na+ > Mg2+
14. The acidic, basic and amphoteric oxides,
(D) Na+ > Li+ > Mg2+ > Be2+
respecively, are : 
9. Which of the following arrangements represents the (A) MgO, Cl2 O, Al2 O3
increasing order (smallest to largest) of ionic radii
of the given species O2 – , S2 – , N3 – , P3 –  ? :- (B) Cl2 O, CaO, P4 O10

(A) N 3− < O2− < P 3− < S 2− (C) Na2 O, SO3 , Al2 O3

(B) O2− < N 3− < S 2− < P 3− (D) N2 O3 , Li2 O, Al2 O3

(C) O2− < P 3− < N 3− < S 2− 15. The third ionization enthalpy is minimum for : 
(D) N 3− < S 2− O2− < P 3− (A) Fe  (B) Ni (C) Co (D) Mn
10. The correct option with respect to the Pauling 16. The correct order of the ionic radii of 
electronegativity values of the elements is :-  O2− , N 3− , F − , Mg 2+ , Na+  and Al3+  is : 

(A) Ga < Ge  (A) Al3+ < Na+ < Mg 2+ < O−2 < F − < N 3−

(B) Si < Al  (B) N 3− < O2− < F − < Na+ < Mg 2+ < Al3+

(C) P > S  (C) Al3+ < Mg 2+ < Na+ < F − < O2− < N 3−

(D) Te > Se                                                              (D) N 3− < F − < O2− < Mg 2+ < Na+ < Al3+
                                                                          
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17. Correct order of covalent character of alkaline earth SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20)
metal chloride in  This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
(A) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 < SrCl2 attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
(B) BeCl2 < CaCl2 < SrCl2 < MgCl2
questions will be evaluated.
(C) BeCl2 > MgCl2 > CaCl2 > SrCl2 The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
(D) SrCl2 > BeCl2 > CaCl2 > Mg Cl2 For each question, enter the correct numerical value (If
the numerical value has more than two decimal places,
18. Element A has 3 electrons in the outermost orbit truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places; e.g.
and element B has 6 electrons in the outermost 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is
orbit. The formula of the compound formed 11.36777..... then both 11.36 and 11.37 will be correct)
between A and B would be :-  by darken the corresponding bubbles in the ORS.
(A) A2B3 (B) A2B6 For Example : If answer is –77.25, 5.2 then fill the
(C) A2B (D) A3B2 bubbles as follows.
                                  
19. When two atoms combine to form a molecule :- 
(A) Energy is released 
(B) Energy is absorbed 
(C) Energy is neither released nor absorbed 
(D) Energy may either released or absorbed 
20. The electronegativity of cesium is 0.7 and that of
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
fluorine is 4.0. The bond formed between the two
is  the following marking scheme:
Full Marks          :   +4 If correct answer is selected.
(A) Covalent  Zero Marks         :   0   If none of the option is selected.
(B) Electrovalent/ionic  Negative Marks  :   –1 If wrong option is selected.
(C) Coordinate  1. The atomic number of the element unnilennium is : 
(D) Metallic  2. Bond length of A – A bond is 124 pm and bond
length of B – B bond is 174 pm. The bond length
(in pm) of A – B bond in AB molecule if percent
of ionic character of A – B bond is 19.5% is
___________. 

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3. The number of species having electron affinity 6. Identify total number of true statements.
more than phosphorous (P) is  (i) Al2O3 is an amphoteric oxide.
N, O, S, C, F, Cl, Si, O – , P – , Na+ (ii) Third group of periodic table accommodates
4. Total number of enthalpy(s) (out of given) of maximum number of elements.
O(g) which is/are associated with the conversion of  (iii) First ionisation potential of Mg is higher than
O2− → O+3
that of Al.
(g) (g)
(iv) The electronic configuration of an element is
Given enthalpy(s) or heat : IE1, IE2, IE3, IE4, IE5
Δ H, Δ H, Δ H
eg 1 eg 2 eg 3
1s2  2s2  2p6  3s2  3p6  3d5  4s1. This represents its
ground state configuration.
Where I.E. = ionization enthalpy
Δ H = electron gain enthalpy. 
eg
(v) Successive ionisation potentials are lower.
(vi) The alkali metals show increasing
5. The 1st, 2nd and the 3rd ionization enthalpies, I1, I2, electronegativities from Li to Cs.
and I3,  of four atoms with atomic numbers n, n + (vii) In group I of alkali metals, the ionization
1, n + 2 and n + 3, where n < 10, are tabulated potential decreases down the group. Therefore
below. What is the value of n ?  lithium is a poor reducing agent in gaseous state.
(viii) The decreasing order of electron affinity of F,
Cl, Br is F > Cl > Br 
7. First and second ionisation energies of magnesium
are 7.646 eV and 15.035 eV respectively. The
amount of energy in kJ, needed to convert all the
atoms of magnesium into Mg2+ ions present in 12
mg of magnesium vapour, will be ? [Given 1 eV =
96.5 kJ mol – 1].
8. The electronegativities of F and H are 4.0 and 2.1
respectively. The percent ionic character in H and F
bond is-
9. I.E. of one H atom is  2.18 × 10−18 J. The I.E. of H
atom in kJ mole – 1 is-
10. The five successive ionization enthalpies of an
element are 800, 2427, 3658, 25024 and 32824 kJ
mol – 1. The number of valence electrons in the
element is : 

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Topic : Trigonometric Equations, Quadratic Equations (Introduction To Identity)
MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 5. α α
If sin & cos are the roots of the equation ax2 +
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 bx + c = 0 then
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions (A) a2  – b2 + 2ac = 0 (B) a2 + b2 + 2ac = 0
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question,
marks will be awarded as follows: (C) a2  – b2 – 2ac = 0 (D) a2 + b2 – 2ac = 0
Full Marks          :   +4 If correct answer is selected. 6. The number of solutions of x8 – 2x4sin2
Zero Marks        :   0 If none of the option is selected. (
xπ+ 1 = 0 is
)

Negative Marks  :   –1 If wrong option is selected. 2

(A) 0 (B) 2
1. Number of integral values of x satisfying 4cos2x –
π
8cosx + 3 > 0, 0 < x < 2 is -
(C) 4 (D) infinite

(A) 2 (B) 3 7. Values of x lying in first quadrant and satisfying

1 √3
(C) 4 (D) 5 the inequality  ⩽ sin x ⩽  is 
√ 2 2
2. The number of values of x ∈ [0, 2 ] satisfyingπ (A) [ 0,
π ]
(B) [
π, π ]
2
sin 2x cos 2x 3 4 3
π 5π π
equation cos6 x − sin6 x + = 0 is 
4 (C) (D)
[ 0, ] [ , ]
(A)  6  (B) 3  12 12 2

(C) 5  (D) 4  8. The number of solutions of the equation tan3xtan5x

3. π, π = – 1 for 0 < x < is  π
The set of all x ∈ ( − )   satisfying
2 2 (A) 1 (B) 0
|4 sin x − 1| < 5 is
√

(A) (
π 3π
− , )
(B) (
π , 3π )
(C) 2 (D) 3
10 10 10 10 9. Number of solution(s) of the equation 
(C) ( −
3π π
, )
(D) ( −
3π 3π
, )
tan θ= √ π π
3 − 2 in [ – 2 , 5 ] is :- 
10 10 10 10 (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6  (D) 7 
4. The number of integral values of x satisfying
π
2sin2x – 3sinx + 1 ≥ 0 in [0,2 ] is : –
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 5 (D) 3

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10. If one root of the quadratic equation px2 + qx + r = 15. Number of solutions of the equation 
0 (p ≠ 0) is a surd 
√ a
, where p, q, r, a, sin x + cos x = −
3
2
π
 in [0, 4 ] is
√ a + √a − b
b are all rationals then the other root is (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
(A) √ b (B) √ a (a − b) 16.   Let the least positive value of x satisfying the
a − √a − b
a+
b
equation sin(ex) = 0 is 'a' then -
π  is a rational number
√

(C) a + √a (a − b) (D) √ a − √a − b (A) ℓ n 4

a
ℓnπ
b √ b 4
(B)
11. The principal solution set of the equation,  is negative integer 
a
ℓnπ
2cosx = 2 + 2 sin 2x is 
√
4
(C)
(A) π , 13 π (B) π , 13 π a
 is an odd integer
ℓnπ
{ } { }
8 8 4 8 (D) 4

(C) {
π , 13 π }
(D) {
π , 13 π }
 is a prime number
a
4 10 8 10 17. The number of solution of equation sin102x = 1 +
12. The number of solution(s) of equation cos10x in [0,10 ] is- π
4cos θ cos2 θ cos3 θ = 1, 0 < θ < are  π (A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 5 (D) 0
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 6 (D) 8 18. The equation cos2x + asinx = 2a – 7 posses a
13. If tan x + tan(x +
π ) + tan(x +
2 π ) = 3, then
solution if
3 3
number of solutions lie in (0, ) is - π (A) a < 2 (B) 2 < a < 6
(C) a > 6 (D) 'a' is any integer
(A) 2 (B) 3
19. If cos θ = – 1/2 then principal solutions are :-    
(C) 4 (D) 5
14. The general solution of the equation 4cos2x +
(A) θ = 60°, 240° (B) θ = 120°, 240°
6sin2x = 5 is  (C) θ = 120°, 210° (D) θ = 120°, 300°
(A) x=n ±π π2 , n ∈ I 20. If tan θ = - 1   , sin θ  =  1   , then the principal
(B) x = n π ± π  , n ∈ I
3 2
value of θ will be       
√

4
(C) x = n π ± 3 π , n ∈ I (A) π (B) 5 π
6 6
7π π
2
(D) n π , n ∈ I (C) (D) 11
6 6

JEE (M+A) NURTURE_IT 3 (WD-EVE & W-END BATCH)_PHASE - I & II 6001CJA10100123006

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 SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20) 3. α β
If & are roots of the equation 2x2 + 6x – 5 = 0,
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to α +β
2 2

attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5

then the value of (
β α )  is
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted 4. 3k2
questions will be evaluated. If quadratic equation x2 – (k + 4)x + + 6) = 0
(
4
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
have equal roots, then the value of (k + 3 ) is
For each question, enter the correct numerical value (If 2
the numerical value has more than two decimal places, 5. If the number of positive integral solutions of |x2 – 3x|
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places; e.g.
6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is + |6 – 2x| = |x2 – 5x + 6| is k then the value of  k  is :-
4
11.36777..... then both 11.36 and 11.37 will be correct) 6. 1 − 4 sin 10 sin 70∘
∘
The value of the expression   is
by darken the corresponding bubbles in the ORS. 2 sin 10∘
For Example : If answer is –77.25, 5.2 then fill the 7. α β
If and are the roots of the equation x2 – x – 1 = 0
bubbles as follows.
                                  
and the value of α4 + β4  is λ, then λ5  is equal to 
8. x2 + bx + c = 0, where b and c are rational
numbers. If 3 − 3 is one root of the equation, then
√

the value of  is

9. The number of solutions of the equation 

sec x
1 − cos x
=
1
1 − cos x
π
 in [0, 2 ] is equal to
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to 10. The number of values of a for which 
the following marking scheme: (a2 − 3a + 2)x2 + (a2 − 5a + 6)x + a2 − 4 = 0  is an
Full Marks          :   +4 If correct answer is selected. identity in x is 
Zero Marks         :   0   If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks  :   –1 If wrong option is selected.
1. If one of the roots of the equation x2 – bx + c = 0,
b, c ∈ Q is 2 − 3  then logbc equals 
√

2. α β are the roots of x2 – 2kx + 6 = 0 such that

If ,
α β 2 = 4, then the value of k2 is 
2+

JEE (M+A) NURTURE_IT 3 (WD-EVE & W-END BATCH)_PHASE - I & II 6001CJA10100123006

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 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

JEE (M+A) NURTURE_IT 3 (WD-EVE & W-END BATCH)_PHASE - I & II 6001CJA10100123006

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