Professional Documents
Culture Documents
CMS July 23 P-I
CMS July 23 P-I
CMS July 23 P-I
T.B.C. :
10. 9. 8. 7. 6. 5. 4. 3. 2. 1. |ll344 SerialNo.
with Before AM See Youcase,there YouBooklet. e Please
This Testthe the You the thIMMEDIATELY THAT
OR DO
DO (ü) (ii) OBJECTTVE Penalty
(0) THERE Sheets tohasAferBooklet, an& Alewed
take items BoxAnswer
have
question. question.
that
for 1f question
the IfwrongTherefourar e concluded, you your directions have
choose
willTest appropriate
is
TestITEMS,THIS NOT
NOT a a you note
questioncandidate given moreselect provided
WILL for Soraway have you
Admission carry Booklet toBooklet
answer rough proceed to TEST : OPEN
OPEN have enter
Sheet that ETC. Two
TYPE wrong with
in
ONLY than the
answers wil BE completed AFTER
you equal mark alongside. BOOKLET (
be to the contains
response your placesSeries it IF Hours
General
is gives QUESTION
alternatives has PENALTY
work you
OE one liable THIS
THIS left deducted answers should to isSO,
Certificate. fillmarks. Answer all THE
blank,happensmore been are the mark
in correct Roll the
response
your in A, GET
TEST
filling some 120 Number for
candidate's TEST
appended Testhand which DO COMMENCEMENT
the B, DOES
ie., than given FOR : inSheet.response, B00KLET
TEST
asPAPERS. fo r in responses items rejection. NOT
INSTRUCTIONS C IT
Booklet.over particulars the OMRREPLACED Medicine
BOOKLET
toone
theWRONG all for you
or NOT BOOKLET
no be penalty. by Answer
Sheet the (questions). write on D
in your to each want PAPER-I
answer correct answer, answer the thAnswer
ecarefully
responsibility HAVE
the th e mark
anything
responses in ONLY item. Test
candidate,ANSWERS Invigilator
Test to BY
is the e
thmark Sheet. ANY
UNTIL given and will it to Booklet OF UNTIL
every Each and A and
there Booklet Answer response
on else UNPRINTED THE
COMPLETE
treated as
be on on without
by one-third the item to
YOU the wil question. MARKED
only response
the th e onin AnyEXAMINATION, YOU
at the Sheet comprises omission/ encode Pediatrics
candidate, Answer separate which Answer
ARE be the any ARE
Answer TEST OR
end. as |00l 48
same a ofFor
BY to you omission and TORN
wrong th e Sheet per Sheet.
TOLD each various Answer four discrepancyBOOKLET. Maximum
Marks:
250 Booklet
Series
Test TOLD
penalty Sheet.
instructions consider fill
there marks A YOU
answer question CANDIDATE and responses
(answers). In in OR
TO wil You items case orthe SHOULD
MISSING
) To
asassigned the Sheet the discrepancy
DO beaboveeven ar e you Rol DO
no fo r examination sent in best. will
SO permitted the provided. feel SO
penalty if which IN render
Number PAGES CHECK
that
toone
that
to
THE
to
you Test
In
any that
at
D
of a
PJ-U-CXJ/76D
2. 1.
4. 3 2 1
Which
for (c) (a) below.
givenSelect 4. 3. 1.
hepatitis
2.(PEG-1FN)? Which
correct
(d) (c) (b) (a) below.
givenSelect syndrome? (d) (b)
Rasburicase
Intravenous
fluids 1 2 1, 1, PEG-IFN
week cirrhosis.
PEG-IFN
analogues. N
Resistance PEG-IFN
IFcompared
2, 1, 1, 1, Febuxostat alkalinization
Urinary
management of the of
the and and 2 3
3 3 2 2 the for
and and correct is
and and and and correct 4 for B the
following 3 common the
4 4 4 3 only 3 4 is with
administered
every
48 is
not to is following
to poorly
answer answer weeks. nucleoside treatment
of useful trcatment pegylated
are than tolerated
using tumour using statements
recommended in
analogues.
patientsnucleoside with of
the the interferon
drug chronic
code lysis code PEG
of as are
5. Typical 4. 3.
(d) (c) (b) ischemic
2 stroke?
1.
Which
indications less(d) 3 2 1 Focal
givenSelect
(a) below. 4. 3. (c) charaçterized
(b) (a) by (d) (c) (b) (a) below.
givenSelect which
2, 1, 1, MI
Recentinjury
head convulsants
seizures
absence
atypical multifocal
brainpostictal
ofdischarges
EEGabrupt
on 1, 2 1 Jacksonian
paralysis
1, Hypertension
the GI Recent Epilepsia
continua
partialis
the
Todd's march seizures
3 3 2 2 bleeding of and 1 and and of
and and and and correct and 2
the absence the
toresponsiveness 3 3 3 2 correct
4 4 4 3 confusion Hz 3only only only
thrombolysis
following structural following? may
answer in answer
> as spike-and-slow
last
150/100 be
3 seizures
using compared in associated
weeks are abnormalities using
children
to
the mm in
the
code Hg acutecontra anti wave are code with
to
PJ-U-CXJ/76D 6.
7.
Which
to (d) (c) (b) (a) studies? axonal
electrophysiological
demyelination onWhich
Acamprosate
Azathioprine(a) Atropine(c) (b)
Apomorphine cravingfor
(a) alcohol?
maintain Temporal
demyelination.
segmnental in demyelination.
in segmental axonaldemyelination.
Conduction degeneration
segmental Distal
axonaldemyelination.
segmental
Conduction
one one
axonal degeneration
of latency of
degeneration degeneration the
abstinence the degeneration dispersion
block velocity following
following
drugs
helps and is
normal from
is and prolonged distinguishes
by is and is
and
prominent present normal in segmental
absent slow
reducing
absent axonal
in in in in in
3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(b) Cardiore spiratory disease
(c) High-affinity haemoglobins
(d) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Diuretics
SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 5 |P.T.O.
24. Which of the following statements are 26. Which of the following statements are
correct regarding UTI? correct regarding Kyasanur forest
1. disease?
Urine is anexcellent culture
medium for bacteria. 1 It is commonly seen in North
Eastern States of India.
2. Atrophic urethritis in post
menopausal women is a risk factor. 2 Monkeys act as reservoir of the
3. Antibiotics are recommended in all disease.
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below. given below.
SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 6
28. A 60-year-old diabetic female presents
31. Thickened ventricular wall with normal
with acute myocardial infarction. ECG diastolic function is a feature of
changes include ST elevation greater
than 1 mm in lead aVR. The likely (a) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
localization of thrombosis is in (b) restrictive cardiomyopathy
(a) right coronary artery (c) endomyocardial fibrosis
(b) distal LAD (d) athlete's heart
(c) left circumflex artery
(d) left main or proximal LAD 32. In which of the following cases does
paradoxical splitting occur?
29. Which one of the following antidiabetic 1 Severe aortic stenosis
drugs is recommended for weight loss in 2. Right bundle branch block
obese patients? 3. Right ventricular pacing
(a) Glimepiride
4. Hypertrophic obstructive cardio
(b) Liraglutide myopathy
(c) Sitagliptin Select the correct answer using the code
(d) Insulin given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
30. Consider the following statements
(b) 1, 2 and 4
regarding inflammatory bowel disease :
1. Ulcerative colitis (UC) involves (c) 1, 3 and 4
terminal ileumn and rarely causes (d) 2, 3 and 4
proctitis.
2. Cobblestone appearance of bowel is 33. A patient with peripheral edema has
seen in Crohn's disease. the following findings On clinical
examination :
3. Skip lesions are a characteristic of
ulcerative colitis but never seen in A soft systolic murmur at the lower
Crohn's disease. left sternal border with raised JVP
4. Ulcerative colitis is more common showing prominent C-V wave. The
in smokers than non-smokers. murmur increases in intensity on
deep inspiration
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? The most likely valvular abnormality is
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (a) ventricular septal defect
(b) 2, 3 and 4 (b) mitral regurgitation
(c) 3 and 4 only (c) tricuspid regurgitation
(d) 2 only (d) mitral valve prolapse
SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 7 [P.T.0.
34. Kussmaul's sign is a clinical feature of 38. Osborn waves in ECG show prolonged
repolarization with a distinctive convex
(a) constrictive pericarditis
elevation of the J point. These waves
(b) hypertrophic obstructive are associated with
cardiomyopathy (a) systemic hypothermia
(c) anteroseptal myocardial infarction (b) acute pericarditis
(d) dilated cardiomyopathy (c) acute myocarditis
(d) Brugada syndrome
35. A patient has a cardiac murmur that is
best heard at the right second
39. A decline in total lung capacity to less
intercostal space. It increases with than 80% of patient's predictive value is
expiration. Also, the murmur reduces in an indication of
intensity during sustained handgrip but
increases in intensity on inhalation of (a) restrictive lung disease
amyl nitrite. The likely lesion is (b) obstructive lung disease
(a) ventricular septal defect (c) pulmonary artery hypertension
(b) aortic stenosis (d) pulmonary embolism
(c) hypertrophic obstructive cardio
myopathy 40. A 28-year male is suspected of having
(d) mitral regurgitation
hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyo
pathy (HOCM). Which of the following
statements are likely to be true on his
36. In the modified Duke criteria for infective examination?
endocarditis, which one of the following 1. Maneuvers that decrease LV
is not a major criterion? preload will cause the murmur to
(a) New partial dehiscence of intensify.
prosthetic valve 2. Maneuvers that decrease LV
(b) Positive blood culture afterload will cause decrease in
intensity of murmur.
(c) Roth's spots
3. Murmur of HOCM becomes softer
(d) New valvular regurgitation with passive leg raising.
4. Murmur of HOCM becomes louder
37. Which one of the following diseases with squatting.
affects predominantly large arteries? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Granulomatosis with polyangiitis given below.
(b) Polyarteritis nodosa (a) 1 and 3
(c) Giant cell arteritis (b) 2 and 3
(d) Eosinophilic granulomatosis with (c) 2 and 4
polyangitis (d) 1and 4
SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D
41. The Duffy antigen
systemn serves as 44. Which one of the following correctly
receptor for which one of the following describes the mode of inheritance of
protozoal parasites?
haemophilia B?
(a) Giaria lamblia
(a) Autosomal dominant
(b) Plasmodum vivax
(c) Entamoeba histolytica (b) Autosomal recessive
(d) Balantidium coli (c) X-linked dominant
(d) X-linked recessive
42. With regard to transfusion therapy,
cryoprecipitate is a rich source of which
of the following? 45. Which one of the following conditions
1 Fibrinogen characteristically may present with a
triad of haemolysis, pancytopenia and
2. Clotting factor VII venous thrombosis?
3 Clotting factor IX (a) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydro
4. von Willebrand factor genase deficiency
Select the correct answer using the code (b) Hereditary spherocytosis
given below.
(c) Haemolytic uremic syndrome
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobi
(b) 1, 2 and 4 nuria
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4 46. Which one of the following is associated
with low MCV of red blood cells?
43. Which of the following viruses can be
transmitted via transfusion of infected (a) Thalassemia
blood? (b) Vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia
1. Hepatitis B virus (c) Folate deficiency anaemia
2. Hepatitis C virus
(d) Sickle cell anaemia
3. Human immunodeficiency virus
4. Parvovirus B19
47. GnRH deficiency with hyposmia is
Select the correct answer using the code typically seen in
given below.
(a) Kallmann syndrome
(a) 1and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(b) Bardet-Biedl syndrome
SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 9 | P.T.0.
for attainment of
48. lodine has complex effects on thyroid 51. The upper limit of age
function. Very high concentrations of visual fixation or following is
iodine inhibit thyroid hormone (a) birth
synthesis and release. This effect is
known as (b) 1month
(c) 2 months
(a) Wolff-Chaikoff effect
(b) Jod-Basedow effect (d) 3 months
(c) reverse Wolff-Chaikoff effect
52. A child develops 'stranger anxiety' at
(a) reverse Jod-Basedow effect
(a) 2-3 months
49. Consider the following pharmacological (b) 4-5 months
agents: (c) 6-7 months
1. Propranolol (d) 8-9 months
2 Sodium ipodate
3 Propylthiouracil 53. Consider the following statements with
respect to developmental milestones at
4. Liothyronine
9 months of age :
Which of the above can be used for the At this age, child develops
1.
treatment of thyrotoxic crisis? immature pincer grasp.
(a) 3 only 2 At this age, child can say
(b) 1and 2 only bisyllables (mama, dada, etc..
(c) 1, 2 and 3 3. At this age, child can wave bye-bye.
(d) 2, 3 and 4 Which of the statements given above are
correct?
50. Consider the following pharmacological
(a) 1 and 2 only
agents :
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Liothyronine
2 Levothyroxine (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3 Carbimazole
4 Sodium ipodate
54. What are the upper age limits by which a
Which of the above may be included in child should start walking alone, and be
the treatment of myxoedema coma? able to speak single words?
(a) 1 only (a) 12 months, 15 months respectively
(b) 1and 2 (b) 15 months, 18 months respectively
(c) 2 and 3 (c) 15 months, 15 months respectively
(d) 3 and 4 (d) 18 months, 18 monthsrespectively
SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 10
55. A child presents to the
emergency 58. Which one of the following can be used
following ingestion of around 20 mL of for developmental screening for use
kerosene oil about 40 minutes back. in community to identify children
The child appears stable. Which one of
the following measures should be done
(aged 0+6 years) with developmental
delay?
for the management of the child?
(a) Revised Denver Development
(a) Gastric lavage Screening Test (Denver II)
(b) Oxygen therapy (b) Ages and Stages Questionnaire
(c) Intravenous steroids
(ASQ-3)
(c) Phatak's Baroda Development
(a) Radiography
Screening Test
(d) Trivandrum Development
56. The event related to vaccination which Screening Chart
can be contraindication for the next
vaccination of similar/identical type is 59. According to the WHO clinical criteria,
(a) syncope following MMR vaccine which of the following clinical signs
are indicative of 'severe pneumonia or
(b) encephalopathy following DPT very severe disease' in children aged
vaccine
2months to 5 years?
(c) abscess at injection site after DPT 1. Convulsions
vaccine
2. Lower chest indrawing
(d) gastroenteritis following MMR
vaccine
3. Inability to feed
4. Stridor
57. Which of the following events could be Select the correct answer using the code
caused or precipitated by an active given below.
component of vaccine? (a) 1, 2 and 3
1. Anaphylaxis after measles vaccine (b) 1, 2 and 4
2 Encephalopathy after DPT vaccine (c) 1, 3and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
3 Adenitis following BCG vaccine
4. Gastroenteritis following MMR 60. An eleven-month-old unimmunized
vaccine child comes for immunization. Which
vaccines should be given in this visit?
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. (a) BCG, OPV, DPT and Hepatitis B
vaccines
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) OPV, DPT and MR vaccines only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) BCG, DPT and MR vaccines
(c) 1, 3and 4 (d) OPV, DPT, MR and Hepatitis B
(d) 2, 3 and 4 vaccines
SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 11 |P.T.0.
following statements is
61. Which of the following statements are 63. Which one of the to peptic ulcer
correct with regard to anorexia nervosa? correct with regard
prophylaxis?
1. The illness is often precipitated by
ulceration during clinical
weight loss. (a) Stress
illness is uncommon.
2. Food avoidance is common.
with antibiotics
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (d) PPls when used of
may decrease the risk
(b) 1, 2 and 4 Clostridium ifficile infection.
(c) 1, 3 and 4
SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 12
65. Which of the following are correct 67. Which of the following are the five
with regard to alpha-1-antitrypsin essential components of nurturing care?
deficiency?
1. Health
1. Prolonged jaundice in neonatal 2
period Nutrition
2 Pulmonary emphysema in
3. Breastfeeding
adulthood 4 Responsive caregiving
3. Panniculitis is seen rarely 5 Early learning
4 Autosomal dominant disorder 6. Immunization
SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 13 [P.T.0.
69.
CXJ/76D 70.
3
Which
Which (d) (c) (b) (a) below. Hypothermia
givenSelect Hypoglycemia problems
1. growth
2. gestation?
(d) (c) (b) correct
(a) growth?
1, 2 1 Hypocalcemia
weekslife.birth
of
Weight firstBirth days of
age.Birth weight
life. Weight
one and 1 and and the of
regarding 2 restriction
week of and correct inthe
weight 3 3 2
weight weight inloss the only only babies
loss 3 only following
of the
may following answer
life. is a
inmay is initial delivered with
regained be normal
the be regained &-10% using are
two statements intrauterine
initial
12-15%
two of newborn's the common
at
by weeks of
within 7-10 birth code term
of is
14
Which72. 71. A
74. 73.
The The Janeway's
(Glomerulonephritis
b) (a) after lesions Osler'
(d) (cRoth's (b) nodes(a) in (d) (c)
examination
)inspiration.murmur
(b) (afollowing On
with BP: smoker,
(d) (c) follow-up
(a)
(b) anti-H. residual
volume
capacity
vital
(d) (c) ) spotsmanifestation
volume modified 56-year
functional YVwave
accentuated.
V Cwave V
serology stool rapid ureainvestigation expiratory a One descent wave wave
examination,
murmur 112/70
pylori normal
statements ispresented
H. breath
urease in of Duke is is of
forpylori air of of and and showing mmn male,
drugs residualexpiration
residual
is attenuated JVP Which
getting
treatedfor remaining vascular the blunted.
criteria? C
attenuated.
H. test test patients of C
wave pulse
Hg with
antigen in
pylori is wave is one and
choice following him? Carvallo'
capacityvolume merge. and
s a chronic
true louderbreathlessness.:
test
is in phenomenon merge 96/minute,
for
called the V regarding
pansystolic
of on
is wave heavy
early lungs and the
deep sign
a is
-CXJ/76D
77. 76. 75.
4. diarrhoea is
The The
(d) (c) (b) Select
(a) below.
given 3. 2. diagnostic
workup? Which
1.suspected
physician anti-HBc
HBeAg anti-HBsAb
IgM(c) IgG(b) (a)window'
(d) anti-HBc Enterococcus
Streptococcus
viridans sp.(b) coli(a)
(d) Escherichia
(c) spontaneous
2, 1, 1, 1, lymphocytes
Absencepropria
Increased
smallintestinal
in biopsy on
antibody
inAbsence Presence serologic
Staphylococcus
aureus most
3 3 2 2 answer
correct
the of
and and and and the period common
following and boy marker
4 4 4 3 of of bacterial
tTG of of
reduced came
SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 16
86. Consider the following statements with 88. Consider the following statements with
regard to strongyloidiasis :
regard to giardiasis :
1 Itparasitizes the mucosa of upper 1 Stools should be examined for
part of small intestine. cysts at 2-3 days interval for its
2 Larva currens diagnosis.
transient rash
fast-moving
seen 2
acrosS Colonoscopy aspirate gives the
abdomen and buttocks. highest diagnostic yield.
3 Ivermectin 1S not an effective 3 Infection usually 0Ccurs by
treatment. ingesting contaminated water.
4. Systematic strongyloidiasis is seen 4 Giardia has a flagellate trophozoite
in form.
immune competent state.
Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1and 3 only
(a) 1and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4 89. Type-2 necrotizing fasciitis is caused by
(a) Group A Streptococcus
87. Consider the following statements with (b) Vibrio vulnificus
regard to cutaneous larva migrans : (c) Clostridium septicum
1. It is one of the commonest linear (d) Staphylococcus aureus
lesions seen in travellers.
2.
90. Which of the following treatments for a
It may be associated with a recent
visit to a beach.
pregnant lady who has been exposed to
a patient of chicken pox are correct?
3. It is non-pruritic. 1 Varicella-20ster immune globulin
4 Track moves across the skin at a 2 Varicella-z0ster vaccine
rate of 2-3 cm/day.
3. Acyclovir
Which of the statements given above are 4. Prednisolone
correct?
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1, 2 and 3
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 17 |P.T.0.
causes
the following genetic autism
of associated with
95. Whichcommonly
assessment of a baby, are
91. For developmental by offering the
spectrum disorders?
grasp is best assessed Angelman syndrome
child 1.
Fragile X syndrome
(a) a red ring 2
Tuberous sclerosis
3
(b) a red cube Williams syndrome
4.
(c) red pellets answer using the code
Select the correct
(d) multicoloured pellets given below.
18
SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D
98. Which one of the following is categorized 101. In serological investigation of hepatitis B
as a specific learning disability? virus infection, presence of hepatitis B
e-antigen (HBeAg) is an indicator of
(a) Dysgraphia (a) active replication of virus in the
liver
(b) Dystonia (b) acute liver failure
(c) chronic infection with hepatitis B
virus
(c) Dysthymia (d) inactive carrier phase of infection
(d) Dysphoria 102. Simultaneous infection with hepatitis B
virus (HBV) and hepatitis D virus (HDV)
followed by full recovery is associated
with the appearance of
99. A baby is delivered at 34 weeks' gestation (a) low titres of anti-HDV antibody,
and found to be apneic at birth. IgM type
After performing the initial steps of (b) low titres of anti-HDV antibody,
resuscitation, the baby is still apneic. IgA type
The next step should be (c) high titres of anti-HDV antibody,
IgM type
(a) tactile stimulation (d) high titres of anti-HDV antibody,
IgG type
(b) positive pressure ventilation using
30% oxygen 103. Consider the following statements with
regard to jaundice :
(c) positive pressure ventilation using 1. Presence of scleral icterus indicates
a serum bilirubin level of at least
100% oxygen
3 mg/dL.
(d) chest compression 2. If the examiner suspects scleral
icterus, second site to examine is
underneath the tongue.
3. In long-standing jaundice, skin
100. A child requires detailed developmental may become green due to reduction
evaluation if the developmental quotient of bilirubin to biliverdin.
is below
4 Sclerae have a particular affinity for
bilirubin due to its high elastin
(a) 70% content.
SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 19 [P.T.0.
primary
the following is the
108. Which one ofmechanism in
104. Carotenoderma, due to ingestion of of haemolysis
excessive amounts of carotene underlying
paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
containing fruits and vegetables, can be
distinguished from jaundice by sparing (PNH)?
of which of the following? (a) AB0 incompatibility
(a) Palms
(b) Soles
(c) Nasolabial folds (b) Red cell fragmentation
(d) Sclerae (c) Complement-mediated destruction
of CD59(- red blood cells
105. Meares-Stamey test is used in which one
of the following clinical conditions? Clostridium
(a) Recurrent urinary tract infection in (d) Exotoxins produced by
perfringens
men
SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 20
111. Which of the following are
physical
typical 113. Which of the following statements are
effusion?
findings in pericardial true about PR interval?
1. It denotes atrial depolarization.
1, Raised JVP 2. Normal duration is 0-12 second
0-20 second.
2.
Hypotension 3. Prolongation denotes impaired AV
3. Oliguria nodal conduction.
4. A short PR interval occurs in WPW
4. Water hammer pulse
syndrome.
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
114. Which one of the following is the drug
of choice for the treatment of
schistosomiasis?
(d) 2, 3 and 4
(a) Doxycycline
(b) Praziquantel
112. Which of the following conditions can (c) Albendazole
produce a third heart sound (S) on (d) Ivermectin
auscultation?
115. Which of the following opportunistic
1. Young age systemic mycoses is characterized by
rapid development of severe tissue
2. Pregnancy necrosis and emerged as specific
3.
complication associated with COVID-19
Left ventricular failure
infection in India?
4. Mitral stenosis (a) Histoplasmosis
(b) Mucormycosis
Select the correct answer using the code (c) Coccidioidomycosis
given below. (d) Sporotrichosis
116. Which of the following fungal infections is
(a) 1, 2 and 3 caused by dermal inoculation of the
fungal agent, usually from a thorn?
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(a) Mycetoma
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (b) Aspergillosis
(c) Mucormycosis
(d) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Sporotrichosis
21
SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D (P.T.0.
is
the following hormones
of contraction
117. Consider the following statements with 119, Which one gallbladder
responsible for duodenum?
regard to coccidioidomycosis : release of bile into
and
1. It is a primary systemic mycosis
caused by dimorphic fungi Cocci
dioides immitis and Coccidioides (a) Secretin
posadasi.
2 Primary pulmonary coccidioido (b) Gastrin
mycosis presents with cough, fever,
chest pain and arthritis. (c) Cholecystokinin
3. Progressive pulmonary coccidioido
mycosis presents with constitu intestinal peptide
(d) Vasoactive
tional symptoms like fever, weight
loss, anorexia and features of lobar
pneumonia. the following statements
120. Consider and
Coccidioides meningitis is a mild radiation enteritis
4 regarding
disease, not warranting any proctocolitis :
treatment. phase
Diarrhoea in the acute
1.
Which of the statements given above are codeine or
should be treated with
correct?
loperamide.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 choice
2. Surgery is the treatment of
(b) 1, 2 and 4 involves resection of the
and
(c) 1, 3and 4 injured intestine.
(d) 2, 3 and 4
3. Sucralfate enemas and hyperbaric
Oxygen are effective treatments.
118. Consider the following statements with
regard to elapid snakebite: 4 Small bowel strictures and
1 Regardless of the anatomic site of rectovaginal fistulae may develop
bite, walking of victim should be as chronic complications.
discouraged.
2. Pressure immobilization should be Which of the statements given above are
used, wherever possible. correct?
the
3. Ptosis can be present after
elapid bite. (a) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above are
correct? (b) 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
22
SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D