Kcse 2023 Achievers Mock s1

KCSE ACHIEVERS MOCK
SERIES 1 EXAM-2023
ALL SUBJECTS
First series of the Countrywide Joint Examination Mock Trial among Select
Top National Schools.
JUNE-JULY-AUG CYCLE
SUBJECTS EXAMINED;
Mathematics, English, Kiswahili, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, CRE, Geography,

History, Business Studies, IRE, Agriculture Home-science &Computer Studies.
SERIES 1
For Marking Schemes

Mr Isaboke 0746-222-000 /0742-999-000
MWALIMU CONSULTANCY
KCSE 2023 ACHIEVERS MOCK
SERIES 1 EXAM
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
313/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
313/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name, school and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Write the date of examination and sign in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of six questions.
d) Answer any five questions in the answer booklet provided.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL SCORE
Candidates Score
Answer any five questions
1. a) Identify Seven literary forms employed in writing the Bible . (7 mks)
b) Outline the responsibilities given to human beings by God in the Genesis stories of
creation. (7 mks)
c) State six lessons that Christians learn about Work from the Genesis stories of creation.
(6 mks)
2. a) Give seven Reasons Why God called Abraham. (7 mks)
b) Identify four promises God made to Abraham and how they were fulfilled. (8 mks)
c) What is the relevance of the Ten plaques to both the Jesus & Egyptians .? (5 mks)
3. a) State the failure of King Saul. (6 mks)

b) In what ways did King David promote the worship of Yahweh? (7 mks)
c) Give seven factors that affect the true worship of God today. (7 mks)
4 a) State seven roles of prophets in the Old Testament. (7 mks)

b) Explain three categories of true prophets in the Old Testament. (6 mks)
c) How can Christians assist the church leaders to perform their duties effectively? (7 mks)
5 a) Outline the suffering of Jeremiah during his prophetic Ministry. (6 mks)

b) State four promises that the Israelites made when they renewed their covenant with God
during the time of Nehemiah. (Nehemiah 10:28-20) (8 mks)
c) State the importance of prayer in the life of a Christian. (6 mks)
6. a) State the traditional African understanding of Spirits. (5 mks)

b) Outline ways through which a marriage partner is chosen in traditional African
communities. (8 mks)
c) Give seven changes that are taking place in property ownership in Traditional African
communities. (7 mks)
SERIES 1 EXAM
313/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
313/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
a) Write your name, school and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Write the date of examination and sign in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of six questions.
d) Answer any five questions in the answer booklet provided.

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL SCORE
Candidates Score
Answer any five questions
1. a) State the Jewish Expectations about the Messiah. ( 7 mks)
b) Give seven qualities that Jesus portrayed when he accompanied his parents to the temple
at the of twelve. ( 7 mks)
c) State six lessons that Christians learn from the incident when Jesus was left behind by his
parents in the temple according to Lk. 2:41-52. 6 mks)
2. a) Describe the temptations of Jesus in the wilderness. ( 7 mks)

b) Describe the call of the first Disciple of Jesus (Lk5:1-11). ( 8 mks)
c) Give the lessons that Christians learn from the transfiguration of Jesus. ( 5 mks)
3. a) Identify the six components of the Lord’s prayer. ( 6 mks)

b) Narrate the parable of the Gold Coins (Lk:19:11-27) . ( 8 mks)
c) What is the importance of Jesus resurrection to Christians? ( 6 mks)
4 a) State the teachings of Jesus on the role of the Holy Spirit. ( 8 mks)
b) Outlined ways in which Christians can identify those who are led by the Holy Spirit
among themselves. ( 6 mks)
c) Give six ways in which Christians can prevent divisions in the church in Kenya today.
( 7 mks)
5. a) State seven reasons why Divorce is rare in the traditional African communities.(7 mks)
b) Give six factors that a Christian employer should consider when making a decision on a
salary for an employee. ( 6 mks)
c) Explain the dangers of illicit drugs among the youth in Kenya today. (7 mks)
6. a) Outline the Traditional African concept of wealth. ( 7 mks)

b) Give eight reasons why it is important to have laws in a country. ( 8 mks)
c) State five reasons why Christians should vote during the general elections. ( 5 mks)
SERIES 1 EXAM
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT
311/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
 This paper consists of three sections A,B and C
 Answer All questions in section A, three questions in section B and two Questions in section C
 Answer to all question must be written in the answer booklet provided
 Candidate should answer the questions in English
FOR EXAMINER USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTION MAX SCORE SCORE
A 1-17 25
B 15
15
15
C 15
15
TOTAL SCORE
SECTION A: (25marks)
Answer all the questions in this section
1. State two ways in which Kenyan communities interacted with each other in the pre-colonial
period. (2mks)
2. Name two groups of the Mijikenda community. (2mks)
3. State two functions of Fort Jesus during the Portuguese rule. (2mks)
4. Identify one economic responsibility of a Kenyan citizen. (1mk)
5. Name two national activities that promote national unity in Kenya. (2mks)
6. Identify the constitutional amendment that was repealed to revert to a multi-party state in
Kenya in 1991. (1mk)
7. Name one survival right of a child under the constitution. (1mk)
8. Identify the treaty that finalized the partition of East Africa. (1mk)
9. Give the main reason why native reserves were created during the colonial period. (1mk)
10. State two contributions of the independent schools during colonial period. (2mks)
11. Identify the main contribution of Wangari Maathai. (1mk)
12. Name two organs of the Kenya Defense Forces. (2mks)
13. Identify two pillars of Nyayo philosophy. (2mks)
14. Identify two political challenges that Kenya experienced between 1969-1978. (2mks)
15. Give the main function of the county assembly. (1mk)
16. Give one example of conditional grants given to county government. (1mk)
17. Name the government department that collects taxes. (1mk)
SECTION B 45 marks
Answer any three questions.
18. (a). State five reasons for the migration of the Eastern Bantu. (5mks)
(b). Describe the political organization of the Mijikenda in the pre-colonial period. (10mks)
19. (a). State three reasons why the Maasai collaborated with the British. (3mks)
(b). Explain six reasons why Kenyan communities were defeated by the British. (12mks)
20. (a). State three reasons why the British government invited European settlers in Kenya. (3mks)
(b). Explain six factors that led to growth of nationalist activities in Kenya between 1945-1963.
(12mks)
21. (a). State five ways in which the government of Kenya has promote health sector since
independence. (5mks).
(b). Explain five challenges facing agricultural sector in Kenya since independence. (10mk)
SECTION C 30 marks
Answer any two questions.
22. (a). State three ways in which one can become a Kenyan citizen through registration (3mks)
(b). Explain six factors that undermine national unity. (12mks)
23. (a). State five functions of the Independent Electoral and Boundaries Commission of Kenya.
(5mks)
(b). Explain five ways in which the independence of the Judiciary is guaranteed in Kenya.
(10mks)
24. (a). Identify three sources of revenue for the county government. (3mks)
(b). Explain six ways in which the national government uses its revenue. (12mks)
SERIES 1 EXAM
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT
311/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
 This paper consists of three sections A,B and C
 Answer All questions in section A, three questions in section B and two Questions in section C
 Answer to all question must be written in the answer booklet provided
 Candidate should answer the questions in English
FOR EXAMINER USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTION MAX SCORE SCORE
A 1-16 25
B 15
15
15
C 15
15
TOTAL SCORE
SECTION A: (25marks)
Answer all questions in this section
1. Identify one electronic source of historical information on history and government. (1 mk)
2. Name one theory that explains the origin of human beings. (1 mk).
3. State one negative effect of Land Enclosure system in British during the agrarian revolution.
(1mk)
4. Identify two types of trade. (2 mks)
5. State two characteristics of Macadam roads. (2 mks)
6. Give two examples of print media. (2 mks)
7. State two ways in which the government of India promoted industrial growth. (2 mks)
8. Identify two reasons why Cairo town grew along the Nile Valley. (2 mks)
9. State one function of Asantehene of the Asante Empire in the 19th century. (1 mk)
10. Identify two main methods used by the Europeans to acquire colonies in Africa in the second
half of the 19th century. (2 mks)
11. State two reasons why the British used direct rule in Zimbabwe. (2mks)
12. Give the immediate cause of the First World War (1914-1918). (1 mk)
13. Identify two permanent members of the United Nation security council. (2 mks)
14. Name one military Organization that was formed during the cold war in Europe. (1 mk)
15. Identify one country in East Africa that is not a member of the Common Market for Eastern and
Southern Africa (COMESA). (1 mk)
16. Outline the main political challenge the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) has experienced
since independence. (1mk)
17. State one way in which one can become a member of the British parliament. (1 mk)
SECTION B (45 marks)

Answer any three questions from this section
18. (a). State five limitations of archaeology as a source of information on history and government.
(5 mks)
(b). Describe the way of life of early human beings during the old stone age. (10 mks)
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

19. (a). State five factors that led to the development of the Trans-Saharan trade. (5 mks)
(b). Explain five results of railway transport in Europe in the 19th century. (10 mks)
20. (a). State three roles of the television as a modern form of communication. (3 mks)
(b). Explain six problems facing Johannesburg as a modern city. (12 mks)
21. (a). State five causes of Maji-Maji rebellion (1905-1907). (5 mks)

(b). Explain five results of the Lozi collaboration with the British. (10mks)
SECTION C (30 marks)

Answer any two questions from this section
22. (a). State five reasons why Sir Fredrick Lugard used indirect rule in Northern Nigeria. (5 mks)
(b). Explain five reasons why assimilation policy failed in French West Africa. (10 mks)
23. (a). State three principles of Arusha declaration of 1967. (3 mks)

(b). Explain six political challenges the Democratic Republic of Congo has faced since
independence. (12mks)
24. (a). State three conditions to be elected as the president of India. (3 mks)
(b). State six functions of British Monarch. (12 mks)

SERIES 1 EXAM
GEOGRAPHY
312/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.
(a) Write your name, class and admission number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper has two sections: A and B.
(d) Answer all the questions in sections A.
(e) Answer question 6 and any other two questions from Section B.

Section Questions Maximum Candidate’s
Score Score
A 1–5 25
6 25
B 25
25
Total Score

SECTION A
Answer all the questions in this section.
1. (a) State three effects of the rotation of the earth on its axis. (3 marks)
(b) Give two proofs that the earth is spherical. (2 marks)
2. (a) State three factors that influence how the wind blow. (3 marks)
(b) Identify two types of local winds. (2 marks)
3. (a) Identify two characteristics of minerals. (2 marks)
(b) Give three classifications of mechanically formed sedimentary rocks. (3 marks)
4. (a) Identify two scales used to measure earthquakes. (2 marks)
(b) State three effects of earthquakes. (3 marks)
5. (a) State three characteristics of Savanna vegetation. (3 marks)
(b) Give two uses of Savanna vegetation to man. (2 marks)
SECTION B
Answer question 6 and any other two questions from this section.
6. Study the map of NYERI 1:50,000 (sheet 120/4) provided to answer the following questions.
(a) (i) Convert the linear scale of the map to a Representative Fraction (RF) scale. (1 mark)
(ii) Identify two districts shown on the map. (2 marks)
(b) (i) Give the six figure grid reference of the road junction at Gunyumu Farm. (2 marks)
(ii) Measure the distance of all-weather road bound surface D435 from grid reference 715549 to
grid reference 654549 (2 marks)
(c) (i) Give the direction and bearing of the Ark Lodge in grid square 5661 from the
trigonometrical station in grid square 5164. (2 marks)
(ii) Give the longitudinal position of the North Eastern corner of the area covered by the map.
(2 marks)
(d) (i) Describe how relief has influenced transport in the area covered in the map. (4 marks)
(ii) Describe the factors that have influenced the distribution of settlement in the area covered
by the map. (6 marks)
(e) Citing evidence from the map, describe two functions of Mweiga town. (4 marks)

7. (a) (i) What is faulting? (2 marks)
(ii) Identify four types of faults. (4 marks)
(b) Using a well-labelled diagram, describe the formation of block mountains by tensional forces.
(8 marks)
(c) Explain four positive effects of faulting to human environment. (8 marks)
(d) You are supposed to carry out a field study on faulting in the Rift-Valley field study.
(i) State two objectives for your study. (2 marks)
(ii) Identify two follow up activities you are likely to carry out after the field study. (2 marks)
8. (a) (i) Identify three processes through which waves erode the coastline. (3 marks)
(ii) Apart from blowholes, list three features that are produced by wave erosion along the
coast. (3 marks)
(b) With aid of well-labelled diagrams, describe how a blowhole is formed. (8 marks)
(c) Describe how a spit is formed. (4 marks)
(d) COHS students conducted a field study on coastal features along the Kenyan coast.
(i) List three features of coastal emergence they are likely to have studied. (3 marks)
(ii) State four ways in which features resulting from coastal emergence are of significance to
Kenya. (4 marks)
9. Use the world map below to answer questions (a) and (b).

(a) (i) Identify the climate marked X and Y. (2 marks)
(ii) Name the ocean currents marked E and F. (2 marks)
(b) Describe the characteristics of the climate marked G. (8 marks)
(c) Explain how the following factors influence climate:
(i) Latitude; (2 marks)
(ii) Aspect; (2 marks)
(iii) Configuration of the coastline. (2 marks)
(d) (i) State three factors that influences atmospheric pressure. (3 marks)
(ii) Describe how relief rainfall is formed. (4 marks)
10. (a) State four factors that determine the amount of surface run-off. (4 marks)
(b) Describe three ways in which a river transport its load. (6 marks)
(c) Using diagrams,describe the following drainage patterns:
(i) Dendritic; (2 marks)
(ii) Trellis; (2 marks)
(iii) Centripetal. (2 marks)
(d) (i) What is a delta? (2 marks)
(ii) State three ideal conditions under which a delta may be formed. (3 marks)
(iii) State four factors that lead to river deposition. (4 marks)

SERIES 1 EXAM
GEOGRAPHY
312/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
(a) Write your name, class and admission number in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper has two sections: A and B.
(d) Answer all the questions in sections A.
(e) Answer question 6 and any other two questions from Section B.

Section Questions Maximum Score Score
A 1–5 25
6 25
B 25
25
Total Score

SECTION A
1. (a) Name two counties where floriculture is practiced in Kenya. (2 marks)
(b) State three characteristics of horticultural farming in Kenya. (3 marks)
2. (a) Name two agricultural food processing industries in Kenya. (2 marks)

(b) State three problems facing Jua – Kali industries in Kenya. (3 marks)
3. (a) The sketch map below shows Hydroelectric Power(H.E.P) along the River Tana. Use it to answer
question (a)
Name the Hydroelectric power (H.E.P) stations marked P and Q. (2 marks)

(b) State three reasons that limit the use of nuclear energy in Kenya. (3 marks)
4. (a) Give two effects of the liberalization of the oil industry in Kenya. (2 marks)
(b) State three problems that have hindered the decentralization of industries in Kenya. (3 marks)
5. (a) Apart from pastoral farming, name two other types of commercial livestock farming practiced in
Kenya. (2 marks)
(b) State three factors that favour pastoral farming in Kenya. (3 marks)

SECTION B
Answer question 6 and any other two questions from this section.
6. Use the data provided to answer the questions that follow.
Kenya: Value by Foreign Trade between 1999 – 2007 in million Ksh.
YEAR 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007
EXPORTS 985 1.230 1,170 1,080 1,020 1,310 1,450 1,590 1,860
IMPORTS 2,270 2,910 3,195 4,029 4,131 4,247 4,585 4,422 4,516
(a) (i) Draw comparative line graphs to represent the data given.Use a scale of 1 cm to represent 500 million
Ksh. on the vertical axis. (7 marks)
(ii) Describe the trend of value of exports from 1999 to 2007. (3 marks)
(iii) Describe the factors which may have led to the increased export earning from 2004. (6 marks)
(b) Explain why Kenya experiences unfavorable balance of trade. 6 marks)
(c) State three ways in which the Kenyan Government is promoting export trade. (3 marks)
7. The diagram below represents a fishing method. Use it to answer question (a) below.
(a) (i) Identify the method of fishing shown below. (1 mark)

(ii) Describe how the above method is used in fishing. (5 marks)
(iii) Give three examples of fish species caught by the above method. (3 marks)
(b) Explain four factors that favour the fishing industry in Japan. (8 marks)
(c) Explain four reasons why East Africa does not export large quantities of fish. (8 marks)

8. (a) Identify three kinds of roads used in Africa. (3 marks)
(b) Name four major high ways in Africa. (4 marks)
(c) (i) Name four major world sea routes. (4 marks)
(ii)Explain two factors that make the major sea and ocean routes to be concentrate in the Northern
Hemisphere. (4 marks)
(d) (i) Give two forms of written communication. (2 marks)
(ii) Explain four human problems facing transport in Africa. (8 marks)
9. The diagrams below shows the population structures of two countries A and B. Study it and answer
the questions that follow.
(a) Identify the type of graph above. (1 mark)

(b) (i) Which one belongs to Kenya. (1 mark)
(ii) Which one belongs to Sweden. (1 mark)
(c) Describe five characteristics of population structure for country A. (5 marks)
(d) (i) List two types of internal migration. (2 marks)
(ii) Give three ways in which government policy causes migration. (3 marks)
(e) State any four problems resulting from high population growth rate. (4 marks)
(f) Explain four factors that have contributed to high population growth in Kenya. (8 marks)
10. (a) Identify two irrigation schemes in Kenya other than Mwea Tebere. (2 marks)
(b) Differentiate between land rehabilitation and land reclamation. (2 marks)
(c) Explain three factors that have led to the success of Mwea Tebere Irrigation Scheme. (6 marks)
(d) State four significance of irrigation farming in Kenya. (4 marks)
(e) Explain two methods that are used to rehabilitate land. (4 marks)
(f) Explain the steps followed in reclaiming land in Netherlands. (7 marks)

SERIES 1 EXAM
ENGLISH
(Functional Writing, Cloze Test, Oral Skills)
101/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
a) Write your name, index number and admission number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above
c) Answer all the questions in this paper
d) All your answers must be written in the spaces provided in the question paper

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
20
10
30
Total Score 60
1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING ( 20 MARKS)
You are the Secretary of the Journalism Club in your school. The chairperson has asked you to
send out a notice of the second meeting to review the previous year’s club activities. During
the meeting, you will need to discuss the Finances, Club Projects, the annual magazine and club
membership. (20 marks)
a) Write the notice of this meeting which you would send to the members of the Journalism
b) Write the Agenda that you would attach to the notice.
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2. CLOZE TEST ( 10 MARKS)
In the world today some people are (1) ______________ of starvation while others are dying of
disease brought (2) _____________by overeating. An understanding of nutrition is, therefore,
important for ( 3 ) _____________ who wants to see changes for the
( 4) _____________Today, as never before, people are increasingly aware of the
(5) _____________that the world’s food resources are limited. In fact, the problems of human
welfare are (7) _____________far greater than economic or political problems. It is not only
the (8) _____________ of food available in a given place that is important but also the quality
of food. Indeed, the (9) _____________ faced by nutritionists have never been greater (10)
_____________they are today and the science of nutrition is a subject everyone should study.
(Adapted from success in Nutrition by Magnus Puke)
3. ORAL SKILS ( 30 MARKS)

a) How much wood would a woodchuck chuck if a woodchuck could chuck wood?
i) Classify the genre above. (1 mark)
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ii) Identify any two features of style prominent in the genre above (4 marks)
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b) For each of the following words provide another two in which the letter(s) in bold is
pronounced the same way. (4 marks)
i) Monkey _____________________________
ii) Chasm _____________________________
iii) During _____________________________
iv) Especially ____________________________
(any 2 words ½ = 1 x 4 = 4 marks)

b) The school choir is rehearsing a choral verse for the Music festival. The choir is making a
presentation for the rest of the school so as to get some feedback. Give any three things that the
listeners need to pay attention to and explain why. (6 marks)
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d) You have been short – listed to attend an interview in a mult- national company for the job of
company accountant. Outline how you would conduct yourself during the interview. (5 mrks)
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e) State whether we have a falling or rising intonation in the following sentences. (4 marks)
a) How did she travel to Dubai? ___________________________________
b) I have been working very hard for the coming examination. ___________
c) Have you ever been to moon? _________________________________
d) What a horrible scene! ______________________________________
f) Write another word with similar pronunciation as these: (6 mks)
i) Lean –
ii) Pale –
iii) Jibe –
iv) Bawl –
v) Root –
vi) Dual –

SERIES 1 EXAM
ENGLISH
(Comprehension, Literary Appreciation and Grammar)
101/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer all the questions in this paper.
d) All your answers must be written in the spaces provided in the question paper.

QUESTION MAX SCORE SCORE
1 20
2 25
3 20
4 15
TOTAL SCORE 80

COMPREHENSION ( 20 MARKS)
1. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.
At the head of the Court is a high seat where the judge sits. Down below it is a table for officers of
the court, and to the left and to the right of the table are other seats. Some of these seats form a
block that is enclosed, and they are for the jury if there is a jury. In front of the table are other
seats, arranged in arcs of circles, with curved tables in front of the seats, and it is there that the
lawyers sit. And behind them is the dock, with a passage leading to some place that is
underground, and from this place that is underground will be brought the men that are to be
judged. At the back of the court there are seats rising in tiers, those on the right for Europeans,
those on the left for non Europeans, according to the custom.
You may not smoke in this court, you may not whisper or speak or laugh. You must dress
decently, and if you are a man, you may not wear your hat unless such is your religion. This
is in honour of the judge and in honour of the King whose officer he is; and in honour of the
law behind the judge, and in honour of the King whose officer he is; and in honour of the law
behind the judge, and in honour of the people behind the law. When the judge enters you will
stand, and you not sit till he is seated. When the judge leaves you will stand, and you will not
move till he has left you. This is in honour of the judge, and of the things behind the judge.
For to the judge is entrusted a great duty, to judge and pronounce sentence even sentence of death.
Because of their high office, judges are called Honourable, and precede most other men on
great occasions. And they are held in great honor by men both white and black. Because the
land is a land of fear, a judge must be without fear, so that justice may be done according to the
law; therefore a judge must be incorruptible.
The judge does not make the law. It is the people that make the law. Therefore, if a law is unjust,
and if the judge judges according to the law, that is justice, even if it is not just.
It is the duty of a judge to do justice, but it is only that the people that can be just. Therefore, if
justice be not just, that is not to be laid at the door of the judge, but at the door of the people,
which means at the door of the white people, for it is the white people that make the law.
In South Africa men are proud of their judges, because they are incorruptible. Even the black men
are proud of their judges, because they believe they are incorruptible. Even the black men have
faith in them, though they do not always have faith in the law. In a land of fear this
incorruptibility is like a lamp set upon a stand, giving light to that are in the house.
(Adapted from Cry, the Beloved Country by Alan Patron)
QUESTIONS
a) What factors determine where you may sit near the front of the court? ( 2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) What does the seating arrangement at the back of the court reveal about the society? (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) Certain rules must be strictly observed inside the court. What would non – observance of the
rules imply? (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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d) Why must a judge be fearless? (2 marks)

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e) How have judges in South Africa earned respect and admiration? (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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f) Although the judge has great responsibilities and power, he has limitations. What are his
limitations? (4 marks)
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g) What does the second last paragraph reveal about the status of the black people? (2 marks)
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h) Explain the meaning of each of the following expressions as used in the passage
i) Unless such is your religion (1 mark)
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ii) and precede most other men. (1 mark)
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iii) Laid at the door of the judge. (1 mark)
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iv) a lamp set upon a stand (1 mark)
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2. Read the excerpt below from doll’s house and answer the questions that follow.
Nora: Yes!
Helmer: When did my squirrel come home?
Nora: Just now. (Puts the bag of macaroons into her pocket and wipes her mouth.)
come in here, Torvalds, and see what I have bought.
Helmer: Don't disturb me. (A little later, he opens the door and looks into the room, pen in hand.)
Bought, did you say? All these things? Has my little spendthrift been wasting money again?
Nora: Yes but, Torvalds, this year we really can let ourselves go a little. This is the first Christmas
that we have not needed to economize.
Helmer: Still, you know, we can't spend money recklessly.
Nora: Yes, Torvalds, we may be a wee bit more reckless now, mayn't we? Just a tiny wee bit! You
are going to have a big salary and earn lots and lots of money.
Helmer: Yes, after the New Year; but then it will be a whole quarter before the salary is due.
Nora: Pooh! We can borrow until then.
Helmer: Nora! (Goes up to her and takes her playfully by the ear). The same little featherhead!
Suppose, now, that I borrowed fifty pounds today, and you spent it all in the Christmas week, and
then on New Year’s Eve a slate fell on my head and killed me, and —
Nora: (Putting her hands over his mouth) Ah! Don't say such horrible things.
Helmer: Still, suppose that happened, - what then?
Nora: If that were to happen, I don't suppose I should care whether I owed money or not.
Helmer: Yes, but what about the people who had lent it?
Nora: They? Who would bother about them? I should not know who they were.
Helmer: That is like a woman! But seriously, Nora, you know what I think about that. No debt, no
borrowing. There can be no freedom or beauty about a home life that depends on borrowing and
debt. We two have kept bravely on the straight road so far, and we will Go on the same way for
the short time longer that there need be any struggle.
Helmer: That is like a woman! We two have kept bravery on the straight road so far, and we will go
on the same way for the short time longer that there need be any struggle.
QUESTIONS.
a) What had happened before this excerpt? 3mks
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b) 'That is like a woman!' What does this reveal about Helmer? 2mks
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c) Nora says that this is the first Christmas that they need not economize. Why is this so? 2mks
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d) Give and illustrate two-character traits of Nora brought out in the excerpts 4mks
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e) Why does Helmer refer to Nora as my little squirrel? 3mks

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f) From elsewhere in the play, explain why Nora had to hide the macaroons and wipe her mouth
when Helmer comes in. 3mks
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3. POETRY (20 MARKS)

Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow.
WHEN I WAS ONE – AND – TWENTY
When I was one – and- twenty
I heard a wise man say,
“Give crowns and pounds and guineas
But not your heart away;
Give pearls away and rubies
But keep your fancy free”
But I was one – and- twenty,
No use to talk to me
When I was one- and- twenty

I heard him say again’
“The heart out of the bossom
Was never given in vain;
“Tis paid with sighs a – plenty
And sold for endless rue.”
And I am two – and – twenty,
And oh, ‘tis true, tis true.
(A.E Housman)
QUESTIONS
a) Who is the speaker in this poem? (3 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) What advise does the wise man give to the speaker? Does the speaker follow the
advice? Explain. (3 marks)
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c) How much time has passed between the first and second stanza? Explain (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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d) Identify and illustrate the features of style used in the poem. What does the poet?
achieve by using them? (6 marks)
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e) Explain the meaning of the following lines. (2 marks)

But I was one and twenty
No use to talk to me
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f) Describe the tone of the poem. (2 marks)

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g) Rewrite the following lines in your own words: (2 marks)

Tis paid with sings a – plenty
And sold for endless rue
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4. GRAMMAR ( 20 MARKS)
A] Change the following sentences into direct speech. ( 2 marks)
i) He said that when he saw them they were playing squash.
__________________________________________________________________
ii) The Pupils said that they wished they did not have to take exams.
__________________________________________________________________

B] Fill in the black space with the appropriate prepositions. ( 3 marks)
i) Cat jumped ____________the mantel piece
ii) The cook dipped the cup____________ the porridge.
iii) Some students were sent home for going __________the perimeter wall.
C] Write the following sentences according to instructions given. ( 5 marks)

i) The Child would have drowned were it not for the quick action taken by the
life saver. (Begin: But…)
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ii) Someone is watching us (Rewrite in the passive)
__________________________________________________________________
iii) As soon as you see him inform the police (Rewrite using no sooner)
__________________________________________________________________
iv) Moses set out for Canaan. His brother accompanied him (Begin: setting.)
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v) If he comes, he will not be punished.
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D) Explain the meaning of the underlined expressions. ( 2 marks)
i) Abdi will tidy up the room when pigs begin to fly
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ii) My mother has green fingers.
_________________________________________________________________
E] Complete the underlined verb to make the appropriate phrasal verb. (3 marks)
i) The immigrant complained about being discriminated because of his race.
___________________________________________________________
ii) I boarded the car and was dropped at the mall.
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iii) As she was cleaning her gun, it went and killed her.
__________________________________________________________

SERIES 1 EXAM
ENGLISH
(Imaginative Composition and Essays Based on the Set Texts)
101/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDINDATES
a) Answer three questions only
b) Question one and two are compulsory
c) In question three, choose only one of the optional texts you have prepared on.
d) Where a candidate presents work on more than one optional text, only the first to appear will
be marked.
e) Each essay should not exceed 450 words.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY.

QUESTION TOTAL MARKS CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1.Imaginative Composition 20
2.The Compulsory Set Text 20
3.The Optional Set Text 20
TOTAL 60

1. IMAGINATIVE COMPOSITION (20 marks)
Either
a) Write a story ending with the following sentence:
.… It only dawned on me that by associating with those that I thought were my friends, I had
ruined my life.
Or
b) Write a composition that is justifies the argument that incorporating co-curricular activities in
the mainstream education syllabus shall help nurture an all-round productive student.
2. The Compulsory Set Text: H.R. Ole Kulet: Blossoms of the Savannah (20 marks)
'Women should be given a voice for society to be more cohesive.' Justify this statement using
illustrations from Blossoms of the Savannah.
3. The Optional Set Texts (20 Marks)

Answer only one of the following three questions.
a. Short stories: A Silent Songs and Other Short Stories.
When one is given power, he/she should use it only for good but more often than not people
use it for wrong purposes. Support this statement basing your argument from Naguib
Mahfouz's 'A Man of Awesome Power'
Or
b. The Play The play: Inheritance by David Mulwa.

To the people of Kutula, life was probably better when they faced colonial challenges. Illustrate
this claim with reference to David Mulwa, play The Inheritance.
Or
c. The Novel: Kazuo Ishiguro, Artist of the Floating World.
Ono is widely considered to be an example of an unreliable narrator in the text An Artist of The
floating world by Kazuo Ishiguro. What does this phrase actually mean and in what way does
Ono prove that the moniker fits him?

SERIES 1 EXAM
KISWAHILI
102/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
MAAGIZO
a) Andika jina lako na nambari yako ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
b) Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
c) Andika insha mbili. Swali la kwanza ni la lazima.
d) Kisha chagua insha nyingine moja kutoka kwa hizo tatu zilizobakia.
e) Kila insha isipungue maneno 400.
f) Kila insha ina alama 20.
g) Kila insha lazima iandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili
Kwa Matumizi ya Mtahini Pekee

Swali Upeo Alama
1 20
2 20
3 20
4 20
Jumla 40

MASWALI
1. Wewe kama msimamizi wa mifumo ya elimu umealikwa na mwandishi wa habari ili kuhojiwa
kuhusu changamoto zinazokumba mfumo mpya wa elimu ya umilisi. Andika mahojiano hayo.
2. Serikali za majimbo zitawafaa wananchi wote. Fafanua.
3. Mchagua nazi hupata koroma. Thibitisha ukweli wa methali hii.
4. Anza insha kwa maneno haya; Nilizinduka jimbi la kwanza na kujiandaa kwenda katika
hafla…….

SERIES 1 EXAM
KISWAHILI
102/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
MAAGIZO
a) Andika jina lako na nambari yako katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
b) Weka sahihi yako na tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
c) Jibu maswali yote
d) Majibu yote yaandikwe katika nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu cha maswali.
e) Majibu yote lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili
KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE:

Swali Upeo Alama
1 15
2 15
3 40
4 10
Jumla 80

1. UFAHAMU
Soma makala yafuatayo kisha utekeleze maagizo yafuatayo
Utotoni niliamini kwamba kusoma ndiko ufunguo wa kila kitu ulimwenguni kwa jinsi
kunavyoonekana kuwatoa watu katika uzuzu, ukata na ugonjwa: na kuweka kwenye maisha bora
ya mwangaza wa kujua kusoma na kuandika, utajiri wa kuweza kuvaa hata suti ya vipande vitatu,
na kuwa na afya ya kuonekana kwa kitambi. Hizo ni zamani zile ambapo shule ya vidudu
haikuwa sharti la mtoto kukubaliwa katika darasa la kwanza. Mtoto angelisha au kusaidia kwa
kazi za nyumbani mpaka kufika umri labda wa miaka kumi kisha, kufumba na kufumbua, afisa
wa serikali angeonekana akishauriana na mzazi wa mtoto. Matokeo yangekuwa mtoto huyo
kuanza safari ndefu ya kila siku, apate asipate chakula.
Mimi kwa upande wangu sikujali maisha pata-nenda shule, kosa – bado – nenda – shule. Sikujali
kero za baridi kali wala karaha za vua la asubuhi. Kuanzia utotoni niliwahusudu wenzangu
waliokuwa wakirauka kiasi cha kufikiriwa kuwa walilala kwa shati na kaptula zao, au kwa blauzi
na skati na kaptula zao. Nilipendezwa na yunifomu zao nikatamani na hata kuapa kwamba siku
moja nitavaa kama wao na kutembea kwa maringo kama wao. Zaidi nilitamani kufika
walikokuwa wakienda na kufanya walivyokuwa wakifanya huko.
Penye nia hapakosi njia. Nia yangu ilidhihirika pale nilipojiunga na darasa la kwanza. Darasa la
kwanza lilinisoma kisogo baada ya siku mbili tu. Nalo la pili likanipungia mkono baada ya juma
moja. Miaka mitano baadaye nilikutana na kiunzi cha kwanza kwenye mtihani wa kitaifa wa
chumba cha saba uliokuwa kifungua mlango wa kuingilia kidato cha kwanza.
Baada ya miaka minne nilikutana na mlango funge mwingine ambapo nilibisha na ukanifungukia
kwa kutia fora katika mtihani wa kiwango cha elimu ya upili. Katika miaka miwili iliyofuatia
nilijiunga na shule maarufu ya kitaifa siku hizo.
Masomo hayakuendelea kuwa mteremko kwangu kwani uchechefu wa karo na masurufu
ulimaanisha kuwa siku nyingi nilikuwa nje ya kuta za darasa letu. Hata ivyo nilijifunga
masombo.Hatimaye nilifunguliwa milango ya kuingia ndaki.
Baada ya kuhitimu kwa shahada ya kimsingi ya uzamili, kisha uzamifu au udaktari falsafa
hatimaye, nilifanywa meneja kufikia leo. Hata nikiwa ukubwani bado ninazidi kusoma na kutafiti
ili nisiote ukurutu wa akili.
Cheo na madaraka haya ya umeneja yamaanisha kila siku nivae suti kamili na shati nyeupe pe,
ambayo shingoni imeambatanishwa na kipande maalumu cha kitambaa kinacholewalewa
kifuani. Nijiangaliapo kiooni hujifananisha na mtu ambaye amejitia kitanzi shingoni.
Nina kitambi ambacho labda ni taashira ya utajiri. Hata hivyo ingawa mimi si tajiri mwenye
sauti kubwa kiuchumi, ninaweza kujivunia elimu yangu iliyoniwezesha kujimudu kidogo
maishani. Sasa nina shamba langu mwenyewe, nyumba yangu mwenyewe ambayo imejaa mali
yangu mwenyewe. Nina redio yangu mwenyewe, rununu yangu mwenyewe na wanyama wangu
mwenyewe.
Lakini mwenzangu ambaye zilimwishia ukingoni katika shule za nasari, hana elimu, pesa wala
mahali pa kuzikiwa wakati mpira utakapomwia mwingi.

MASWALI
a) Eleza imani ya mwandishi kuhusu elimu. (alama 3)
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b) Taja dhiki zilizomkabili mwandishi alipokuwa shuleni (alama 2)

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c) Onyesha uhusiano uliopo kati ya elimu, kazi na ukwasi kwa mujibu wa habari hii. (alama 3)
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d) Ukirejelea makala haya, fafanua msemo, ‘elimu ni bahari haina kikomo’ (alama 3)
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e) Hatima ya wale ambao hawakupata elimu ni ipi? (alama 2)

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f. Badala ya maneno yafuatayo mwandishi angetumia msamiati gani? (alama 3)
i. Niliwahusudu…………………………………………………………
ii. Ndaki………………………………………………………………..…
iii. Taashira………………………………………………………………..
2. UFUPISHO
Dhuluma kwa wanawake sio matokeo ya siasa baada ya uhuru, bali ni matokeo ya hali iliyokuwepo
tangu enzi za mababu zetu; kabla ya ukoloni. Kubaguliwa na kudhulumiwa kwa wanawake
kisiasa kunaoana na kunyonywa kwake kijamii kunakoshuhudiwa siku nenda miaka rudi.
Elimu ya jadi ilimwandaa mwanamke kuwa chombo kitiifu cha mwanamume. Mwanamke
aliandaliwa katika unyago na katika mfumo mzima wa malezi kuwa chombo cha kutumikia
mwanamume-kumstarehesha, kumfariji, kumlisha na kumzalia watoto. Mwanamke tangu jadi
hakuruhusiwa kushiriki katika shughuli za kisiasa na utawala wala hakuna mtu aliyeamini
kwamba mwanmke angeweza kushikilia wadhifa wowote wa uongozi.
Demokrasia ya jadi naihusudu sana; ambapo wazee walikaa chini ya mbuyu na kuamua mambo ya
jumuiya. Mahakama ya kijiji ilikuwa aghalabu ni ya wazee na na wanaume peke yao. Hakukuwa
na mwanamke aliyeshirikishwa, hata kama alikuwa ajuza. Sifa waliyokuwa nayo wanawake ni
ile ya usihiri na uganga. Mwanamke yeyote ailiyezeeka alidhaniwa kuwa bingwa wa uchawi,
ulozi na ushirikina. Kwa hivyo, wanawake ndio waliokuwa washirikina wakubwa, maana fursa
ya kupata elimu pana zaidi hawakuwa nayo. Si ajabu kuwa mwanamke alipojitokeza na kusema
jambo la busara, alipuuzwa na pengine kutukanwa hadharani.
Kwa bahati nzuri, kumezuka mwamko uliotuingiza katika enzi mpya. Vita vya wanawake vya
kujihami na kujiendeleza katika ulimwengu unaotawaliwa na wanaume vimetapakaa kote katika
kila sehemu ya dunia. Wanawake wengi wamekiuka misingi na miziz ya utamanduni na kung’oa
asasi za kijamii na itikadi ambazo daima zimeendelea kumyanyasa na kumuumbua utu
mwanamke tangu jadi. Watetezi wa haki za wanawake zamani walilaumu suala la serikali za
mataifa mwaka hadi mwaka. Huku masuala ya wanawake ya kijamii, utu na utamaduni
yakishangiliwa kupitishwa, watetezi wameeleza wasiwasi wao ikiwa kupitishwa kwa maazimio
kutasaidia kuleta maendeleo ya haraka kwa wanawake kimataifa au katika nchi moja. Fauka ya
hayo, baadhi ya wachunguzi wanaonelea kuwa maazimio mengi hayadokezi hatua za kufikiwa
haki za wanawake.
Maazimio mengine yanazungumzia juu ya kuondolewa kwa ubaguzi dhidi ya wanawake, kushiriki
kwao katika uendelezaji wa amani ya kimataifa na ushirikiano wa kimataifa, majukumu yao
katika jamii, mfuko wa Umoja wa Mataifa wa wanawake (Unifem) na kuimarisha hadhi ya
wanawake katika sekretariati ya Umoja wa Mataifa miongoni mwa shughuli nyingine katika
mkabala huu.
Wanawake wameonyesha vipaji vyao katika nyanja mbalimbali za maisha; siasa, uchumi, utawala
na kadhalika. Wanawake wamejikakamua na kudhihirisha kuwa wao pia wana jukumu muhimu
la kutekeleza ili kuyaongoza maisha yao naya watu wengi. Wadumishaji wa dhuluma za kijinsia
hawana budi kusalimu amri na kuukubali ukweli huu, wapende wasipende. Mtazamo juu ya haki
sawa unatokana na kukubaliwa na kuondolewa kwa aina zote za ubaya dhidi ya wanwake
wanojitolea mhanga kutetea hadhi yao pamoja naya wanyonge wengine. Wao huonekana kama
waasi, wapinga mila na watovu wa utii.
MASWALI
a) Bila kubadilisha maana asilia, fupisha aya tatu za kwanza. (Maneno 45-55) (Alama 6)
Matayarisho
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Jibu.
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b) Kwa kurejelea aya tatu za mwisho, pambanua hoja muhimu zinazoguziwa na mwandishi.
(Maneno 60-65) (Alama 9)
Matayarisho
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Jibu
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3. MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (Alama 40)

a) Tofautisha Irabu /u/ na /o/ (Alama 2)
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b) Tunga sentensi ili kubaini matumizi ya neno vibaya katika sentensi kama;
kielezi na kivumishi (Alama 2)
kielezi
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Kivumishi
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c) Yakinisha sentensi ifuatayo.

Nisipomwona sitamlipa pesa zake. (Alama 1)
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d) Tumia kivumishi cha ‘a’ unganifu katika sentensi ukitumia nomino katika ngeli ya A-WA.
(Alama 2)
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e) Tunga sentensi ili kutofautisha vitenzi vifuatavyo.

i) ni (Alama 1)
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ii) yamekuwa (Alama 1)

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f) Tunga sentensi ili kubaini; (Alama 2)
kivumishi cha idadi jumla
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kivumishi cha idadi kamili
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g) Toa maana mbili ya sentensi hii

Nionyeshe vile nitakavyobeba. (Alama 2)
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h) Kanusha sentensi ifuatayo kwa njia mbili .

Wachezaji walikuwa wanafanya mazoezi. (Alama 2)
a………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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i) Andika katika usemi wa taarifa.

“Tutakwenda kanisani kesho kutwa.” Kame alisema. (Alama 2)
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j) Changanua sentensi hii kwa kutumia kielezo jedwali. (Alama 4)

“Mshale huu mrefu umevunjika mara mbili

k) Tunga sentensi mbili tofauti ili kudhihirisha matumizi ya ‘mshazari’ (Alama 2)
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l) Unganisha sentensi hii kwa kutumia kirejeshi ‘O’ Kucha zake ni ndefu. Kucha zimekatwa. (Al 1)
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m) Eleza matumizi ya ‘Ki’ katika sentensi

Ukirusha kipira kitapotea (Alama 3)
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n) Tunga sentensi ukitumia vitenzi vifuatavyo katika kauli zilizoonyeshwa. (Alama 2)

i) La (kutendeshana).
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ii) Pa (kutendesha).
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o) Andika neno lenye kiyeyusho. (Alama 2)

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p) Andika kwa wingi
Mtoto yuyu huyu ndiye aliyeiba nguo yangu. (Alama 1)
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q) Unda sentensi yenye vijenzi vifuatavyo vya kisarufi.
Kiwakilishi + kivumishi + kitenzi + kielezi (Alama 1)
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r) Akifisha sentensi ifuatayo ;

Bw. Juma alimwambia bibi yake nitakutuza ukiendelea kutenda mazuri. (Alama 2)
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s. Tunga sentensi mbili ili kuonyesha tofauti kati ya maneno yafuatayo; (alama 2)
i. kua
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ii. kuwa
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t. Tunga sentensi moja yenye virai viuatavyo. (alama 2)

RN (nomino, kivumishi kielezi), RT (kitenzi, nomino)
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u. Andika katika udogo. Kitabu cha mtu huyo kimeletwa na mwanafunzi wake. (alama 1)
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4. ISIMU JAMII (ALAMA 10)
a) Ndada, mbona umerara sana na kecho akuna kazi.
i) Mzungumzaji ana tatizo gani? (Alama 2)
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ii) Tatizo hili limesababishwa na nini? (Alama 1)

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b) Watu wanapozungumza huenda wakafanya makosa ya sarufi na ya kimatamshi hapa na pale, na

hata hutumia msamiati vibaya.
Eleza sababu saba za kufanywa makosa haya (Alama 7)
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SERIES 1 EXAM
KISWAHILI
FASIHI
102/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
MAAGIZO
a) Jibu maswali manne pekee.
b) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima
c) Maswali hayo mengine matatu yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobaki yaani; Riwaya
Hadithi fupi,Tamthilia na Ushairi.
d) Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja.
e) Majibu yote yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili
KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE

Swali Upeo Alama
1 20
20
20
20
Jumla

SEHEMU A : FASIHI SIMULIZI
1. LAZIMA (ALAMA 20)
a. Jadili sifa zozote nne za mtambaji bora. (alama 4)
b. Fafanua hasara zozote nne za miviga. (alama 4)
c. Jadili hatua tano zinazofuatwa wakati wa utafiti. (alama 5)
d. Tofautisha istilahi zifuatazo za Fasihi Simulizi. (alama 3)
i. Matambiko
ii. pembezi
iii. Misimu
e. Eleza sifa nne za maapizo. (alama 4)
SEHEMU B: RIWAYA
ASSUMPTA MATEI: CHOZI LA HERI
Jibu swali la 2 au la 3
2. Mwandishi amejadili kwa kina maudhui ya mapuuza. Thibitisha . (alama 20)
Au
3. Maisha yangu yalijaa shubiri tangu utotoni.
i. Eleza muktadha wa maneno haya. (alama 4)
ii. Fafanua mbinu mbili za lugha zilizotumika katika dondoo hili. (alama 4)
iii. Jadili jinsi mwandishi amesawiri suala la ukatili. (alama 12)
SEHEMU C: HADITHI FUPI

Mapambazuko ya Machweo na Hadithi Nyingine
Jibu swali la 4 au la 5
4. Fafanua jinsi mwanamke alivyosawiriwa katika hadithi ya Nipe nafasi alama 20
5. "Thank you. U mteja wa pekee, unajua kuthamini huduma nzuri unapopewa."

i) Fafanua muktadha wa dondoo hili. (al.4)
ii) Taja na ueleze mbinu mbili za kimtindo katika dondoo hili. (al.4)
iii) Kwa kurejelea hadithi ya "Kila Mchezea Wembe," Fafanua changamoto zinazowakumba
watumiaji wa vileo kupita kiasi. (al. 12)

SEHEMU D: TAMTHILIA
BEMBEA YA MAISHA; Jibu swali la 6 au la 7
6. Eleza nafasi ya mbinu rejeshi katika tamthilia ya Bembea ya Maisha kukuza vipengele
vifuatavyo:
a) Maudhui (alama8)
b) Ploti (alama8)
c) Wahusika (alama4)
7. “Mgaala muuwe na haki umpe”

a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo (alama4)
b) Tambua kipengele cha kimtindo katika dondoo hili (alamal)
c) Eleza umuhimu wa mbinu ya kimtindo uliyotaja (alama2)
d) Dhibitisha ukweli wa msemaji kwa mujibu wa dondoo hili (alama3)
e) Onyesha namna mbinu hiyo ya kimtindo ilivyotumika katika tamthilia ya Bembea ya
Maisha (alama10)
SEHEMU E: USHAIRI (Alama 20)

8. SOMA SHAIRI KISHA UJIBU MASWALI.
1. Sidhani ni kichekesho, kesho kuwepo sidhani
Vilivyoko ni vitisho, viwewe na visirani
Mimi kupe kwenye josho, la sumu iso imani
Kesho yangu imeshaliwa.
2. Kesho yangu imeshaliwa, isibaki hata kitwa

Kwamba hai nitakuwa, kesho na kesho kutwa
Hilo haliwezi kuwa, na wakati limepitwa
Na i wapi kesho yangu?
3. Sikwambii mtondoo, au ni mtondogoo

Ajapowika jogoo, kesho sipo ng'oo
Hata simu za "haloo", hazinipati "haloo"
Nitaituhumu kesho.
4. Kesho nitaituhumu, kwa sababu ya hasama

Hasama ya mahasimu, waliolishana njama
Kutaka kunihujumu, wanizulie nakama
Itokapi yangu kesho?
5. Wa kwanza huyu Ukimwi, daima aniotea

Kwa dawa huyu hazimwi, haachi kuturingia
Amekuwa kama zimwi, mtu lisilomjua
Ati nipangie kesho?!
6. Nipange yangu matanga, au kujenga nyumba?

Nipange kung'oa nanga, au shairi kuimba?
Nipangeni cha kupanga, biashara za mtumba?
Kesho si ukoo wangu.
7. Ukimwi nduguze wako, Ebola na Malaria

Kichomi na sekeneko, mno wajifaragua
Maadamu wangaliko, vipi kesho kuwazia?
Kesho si ndu yangu mwandani.
8. Mimi napangia leo, maana kesho sijui

Usafiri nifanyao, kwenye vyombo anuwai
Una mikasa kibao, majanga ya kila nui
Salama yangu i wapi?
9. I wapi salama yangu, huku wapo wa kijicho

Ngaa nipatapo changu, waingiwa mpekecho
Kunipikia majungu, nikikosa changu hicho
Waso nitakia kesho!
10. Kesho wasonitakia, watele kama siafu

Majambazi nasinzia, tapeli na wazinifu
Roho yangu wapania, kunipeleka kwa ufu
Nipewe jina "Hayati"
MASWALI
a. Ujumbe wa shairi hili unakatisha tamaa. Thibitisha. (4)
b. Hili ni shairi la aina gani? (1)
c. Andika ubeti wa nne kwa lugha nathari. (4).
d.. Eleza mbinu nne za lugha zilizotumiwa. (4)
e. Andika bahari kwa kuzingatia vigezo; (2).
Mizani
Vina
f. Onyesho jinsi mshairi alivyotumia idhini yake ya kishairi. (2).
g. Taja; (3)
Toni
Nafsi - neni
Nafsi- nenewa.

SERIES 1 EXAM
COMPUTER STUDIES
(THEORY)
451/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
 Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above
 This paper consists of Two sections A and B
 Answer ALL questions in section A
 Answer question16 and any other THREE questions from section B
 All answers should be written in the spaces provided on the question paper

SECTION QUSTIONS CANDIDATE’S SCORE
A 1 -15
B 16
17
18
19
20
TOTAL SCORE

SECTION A (40 MKS)
Answer all questions in this section.
1. State the software technological differences between the second generation and the third
generation computers [2 marks]
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2. State two ways of ensuring proper ventilation in a computer room [2 marks]

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3. Convert the decimal number 20.375 to it binary number system equivalent [3 marks]
4. Pat has installed internet in his home computer in order to use it for browsing. State three ways
in which he would prevent viruses from infecting the computer. [3 marks]
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5. State three ways of transforming a picture embedded in a Desktop Publishing programme in
order to fit in a designated space on a computer. [3 marks]
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6. Distinguish between a line printer and a page printer as used in computers. [2 marks]
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7. Describe virtual reality as used in computers. [2 marks]

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8. State the function of each of the following features of an email software

a) Inbox [1 mark]
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b) Draft [1 marks]
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9. a) Explain the term toggle key as used in computer keyboard [2 marks]

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b) List two examples of toggle keys on a keyboard [2 marks]
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10. State the type of error that would occur in data processing for each of the following cases:
a) Entering the number 315 instead of 351 [1 marks]
b) Entering the text “Kwys” instead of “Keys” [1 mark]
11. State four factors to consider when selecting an input device for use in a computer room.
[4 marks]
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12. State three functions of Un-Interruptible Power Supply (UPS) [3 marks]

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13. Distinguish between a page break and a column break as used in a word processor. [3 marks]
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14. State three factors to consider when selecting an operating system to install in a computer.
[3 marks]
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15. Differentiate between analogue signal and digital signal as used in computers. [2 marks]
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SECTION B (60 marks)

Answer ALL questions from this section in the spaces provided.
16. a) Explain the term dry running as used in program development. [2 marks]
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b) Describe three properties of an algorithm. [3 marks]

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c) Write an algorithm using both pseudocode and flow chart to print the sum and average of
numbers from 1 to n where n is provided by user and n>=1. [10 marks]

17. a) State four outcomes that may result from using incorrect requirement specifications during
system development. [4 marks]
b) A school opted to use direct change over approach when installing a new system. Explain three
challenges that the school may face as a result of this approach. [6 marks]
c) State three reasons that may lead an organization to install an intranet. [3 marks]
d) The figure below shows a coaxial cable. State the function of the part labelled A. [2 marks]
18. Use the figure below to answer the questions that follow:
a) Give the name of the above network topology [1 mark]

b) State three disadvantages of the above topology [3 marks]
c) A publisher intends to use a desktop publishing programme to create a publication which is to
have many graphics. State three ways in which the graphics may be acquired for this purpose.
[3 marks]
d) Interpret each of the following spreadsheet formula:
i) =count if (D2:D9,”>” B4) [2 marks]
ii) =sumif (B3:B11,”4M”, D3:D11) [2 marks]

e) i) The following are the fields of products table in a database created to store records of
products manufactured in factory:
Product number
 Product name
 Price
 Product description
I. State the appropriate data type for each field [4 marks]
19. a) Explain three features of a graphical user interface as used in computers. [6 marks]
b) State the function of each of the following computer keyboard keys:
i) Caps Lock [1 mark]
ii) Shift [1 mark]
iii) Home [1 mark]
c) Using two’s complement notation, determine the value of the operation 25 10 – 2910. [6 marks]
20. a) Distinguish between a computer drive and computer driver. [2 marks]

b) State two peripheral devices connected to the computer via PS/2 [1 mark]
c) Jane encountered desktop computer with the following features
 3.0 USB ports
 4.0 GB primary storage
 19” TFT VDU
 500 SATA HDD
 Linux 7.1
 AVG antivirus
i) Give 3 reasons for wide use of USB gadgets in the society today. [3 marks ]
ii) What is the meaning of the following specifications:
i. 4.0 GB primary storage [1 mark]
ii. 19” TFT VDU [1 mark]
iii. 500 SATA HDD [1 mark]
iv. Linux 7.1 [1 mark]
iii) Give three factors to consider when selecting an OS to install in your computer. [3 marks]
iv). Describe two symptoms of a computer infected by virus. [2 marks]

SERIES 1 EXAM
COMPUTER STUDIES
451/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
COMPUTER STUDIES
PRACTICAL
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
1. Type your name and index number at the top right hand corner of each printout.
2. Write your name and index number on the CD.
3. Write the name and version of the software used for each question in the answer sheet.
4. Passwords should not be used while saving in the
5. Answer all questions. All questions carry equal marks.
6. Hand in all the printouts and the CD.

QUESTION 1: SPREADSHEETS
1. The following are the KCSE results for a certain school in Nyeri. Enter the data as it is in
Excel and answer the question that follows.
KIMAKANIA HIGH SCHOOL NYERI
NAME Eng Kis Mat Bio Phy Chem Hist Art Comp Bst Ave. Overall Rank
point grad
mark e
THIRU B+ B A B- A B B- A-
KIPTOO A- B+ A A- A A- A- A
COLLINS B+ B A B+ A B B A
RONALD B+ A A A- A B+ B+ A
FREDRICK A A A B A A- A- B+
NJEGE B+ B+ A A- A B+ B+ A
MUARINE A B A A A A- A- B-
KIBET B A- A A A A A A
WAFULA B B A B+ A B- B- A
NDIRANG B+ A- A B A B B A
U
OTIENO B+ C A A- A A- A- A
MATU B A- A B+ A B+ B+ A
KIBUTHA B B A- B+ A- B+ B+ A
KIRURI A B+ A A A A- A- A
AMING’A B A A A- A A- A- C+
JACKSON B+ C+ A B+ A A A B-
MUMBI A- A- A- B+ B+ B+ B+ A
KIGUTA B+ A A A A A- A- A
MWANGI B A- A B+ A- A- A- A-
WAMUCIE B+ B A A- A A- A- A
MBUGUA B+ B- A B A- B- B- A
OGEGA B- A- A- B- B+ B B C
HENRY A- A- A A A A A D+
ABDI A B+ A B+ A A A A
JAMES B+ C- A- B+ A A A B+
a) Save your work as Matokeo_Mufti. [15 Marks]

b) Perform the following calculation for these columns and write down the formulas you used in
the spaces provided below each question:

i) Use a formula to get the average point mark in the table above given that, [3 Marks]
Average Point Mark = Average of (sum of point of all subjects)
GRADE POINTS
A 12
A 11
B+ 10
B 9
B- 8
C+ 7
C 6
C- 5
D+ 4
D 3
ii) Determine
D- each student's
2 rank using the Ave. Point Mark. [3 Marks]
iii) Use a Eformula to evaluate
1
the Overall grade using the Ave. Point Mark, given that:
[3 Marks]
GRADE MARKS
A 90-100
A- 81-89
B+ 71-80
B 61-70
B- 51-60
C+ 41-50
C 36-40
C- 31-35
D+ 25-30
D 20-24
D- 16-19
E Below 15
c. Add in the following table in the same sheet: [5 Marks]
Numbe Max Min Averag Averag Ran %

r of Gra Gra e e k Ab
Stu de de Mar Gra ove
dent Nu Nu k de Pas
A A- B+ B B- C+ C C- D+ s mb mb s
er er Ma
rk
ENG
KIS
MAT
BIO
PHY
CHEM
HIST
ART
BST
COMP
Overall
Gra
de
d. Calculate the following:

(NB// Write the formulas used in the space provided below each question)
i) 'Number of students' per grade for each subject, e.g. 10 students got an A in History.
[3 Marks]
ii) 'Number of students' column with the number of students who do the specific subject.
[1 mark]
iii) 'Max Grade Number' (=the grade with the highest number of students in that subject.)
[1 mark]
iv) 'Min Grade Number' (= the grade with the lowest number of students in that subject.)
[1 mark]
v) ‘A subject's Average Mark' = Sum of values for each grade divided by total number of
students in that subject (Use the Grade-Value conversion table given in Qn, 2a)(i) [2 Marks]
vi) Average Grade of the Average Mark using the conversion table in Qn. 2 b(ii) above.
[2 marks]
vii) Rank of each subject as per its average mark use the conversion table Qn, 2a)(i) &(iii)
[4 Marks]
viii) A subject's '% Above pass mark' = Percentage of students who had B- or above in that subject.
[4 Marks]
d) Plot a bar graph of the Subjects against their Average Mark [4 Marks]
e) Put a footnote with your name and index number in the same sheet and print your work.
[2 Marks]
f) Print the work book [2 Marks]
QUESTION 2: DATABASES
2. Ogeke is the manager of a college’s ICT department. He has been told to use Database
Management System (DBMS) to update records for a fundraising data. Perform the following
operations just like Ogeke would:
a) i) Create a relational database with four table; Class List, Family Details, Pledge
Contributions and Walk Form Contributions. [4 Marks]
ii) Class List contains the following fields; Class no, first Name, surname. Family Details contains
Family Id, Parents Name, Address, City and Class no. Pledge Contributions contains Pledge Id,
family Id, Amount Pledged and Amount received. Walk Form contribution contains Walk Id,
Class no, Walker Name, Amount Promised and Amount Paid.
iii) Save your database as Mchango_01 [2 Marks]
b) Input the following Data into Mchango_01 [11 Marks]

CLASS LIST FAMILY DETAILS
CLAS FIRST NAME SURNAME FAMILY CLASS
PARENTS NAME ADDRESS CITY
ID NO
S
N 1 PROF & DR MAUNDA 89722 KISUMU 8
O
2 DR & MAMBO 55554 NAIROBI 21
1 JACOB MAUNDA
3 MR & MRS OGEKE 6935 NYAMIRA 5
2 JAMES MAMBO
4 MR & MRS MALEWA 54897 NAIROBI 1
3 MIKE OGEKE
5 MR & MRS ABDI 12548 WAJIR 2
4 KEVIN MALEWA
6 MR & MRS OGEGA 548 NAKURU 3
5 ALI ABDI
7 MR & MRS MOKAYA 1254 KISUMU 4
6 PHARELL OGEGA
8 MR & MRS KIBET 5778 NAIROBI 6
7 RICHARD MOKAYA
9 MR & MRS OTIENO 3124 KISUMU 9
8 DENNIS KIBET
10 MR & MRS KOBIA 5546 NAIROBI 10
9 JOHN OTIENO
11 MR & MRS MATASIA 44977 NAKURU 11
10 WILSON KOBIA
12 MR & MRS MOHAMED 96587 NAIROBI 12
11 JOHN MATASIA
12 MOHAMED ALI 13 DR & MRS WAMBUI 4684 GARISSA 13
13 JANET WAMBUI 14 DR & MRS KOECH 44687 NAIROBI 14
14 GERALD KOECH 15 MR & MRS NGUGI 99978 THIKA 16
15 ANDREW NGUGI 16 MR & MRS NG’ANG’A 222 NAIROBI 17
16 MICHAEL GICHANGA 17 MR & MRS GICHANGA 65 SIAYA 19
17 PETER NG’ANG’A 18 MR & MRS SONKO 650 BARINGO 20
18 CHRIS SONKO 19 MR & MRS OWINO 987 NAIROBI 22
19 BENSUNDA OWINO 20 MR JONES WAFULA 1 KISII 18

20 FRANCO WAFULA 21 MRS KILLY 5541 KISUMU 7
21 KILLY WAGAIYU DR & MRS TONY 88754 NAIROBI 15
22
22 TONY WAIGANJO
PLEDGE CONTRIBUTIONS WALKER FORM CONTRIBUTIONS
PLEDGE ID AMOUNT AMOUNT FAMILY ID WALK WALKER AMOUNT AMOUNT CLASS

PLEDGED RECEIVED ID NAME PROMISED PAID NO
1 10000 8000 1 1 GIKONGE 5000 3000 1
2 25600 25600 22 2 MORAA 2580 0 10
3 7800 6000 2 3 KERUBO 500 6000 16
4 23690 0 3 4 JAMES 20 15 6
5 6587 2300 4 5 NJUKI 5980 2300 14
6 3690 3560 7 6 SABINA 6300 3560 7
7 5000 500 21 7 JOHN 100 100 22
8 2478 1000 19 8 KALVIN 689 0 18
9 0 0 20 9 KOECH 8595 700 15
10 35697 0 15 10 OTIENO 3695 300 5
11 2569 2569 12 11 ABDI 10000 10000 17
12 200000 20000 10 12 JACK 15698 68 20
13 2560 2500 8 13 EDWARD 12350 500 19
14 4500 4500 18 14 MUTITO 7050 5000 8

i) Create a query that contains the Parents Name and the students' first name who have 'Promised'
15 8090 7500 14 15 MWAMBORA 20000 6958 4
more than 7000. Save the query as Promised_Mchango. [5 Marks]
16 9600 8560 5 16 NJAMBI 1900 1200 3
ii) Make a query and from it produce a report that list the student name and parents names of
17 1500 1350 6 17 KIPKEMOI 2300 2100 2
families who's Amount Pledged is equal to Amount Received and greater than 0. Save the
18 7800 7800 9 18 COLLINS 5640 4560 9
query as ReceivedQ and the Report as Pledged_Received. [10 Marks]
19 12000 9850 14 19 KARURI 1230 985 21
iii) Make a query from
20 1500 1356
it to produce
12
a report that calculates the difference between pledge and
20 NYANCHAMA 456 400 12
amount received6540
21 6540
from each
11
family. Save21the query as Balance
OGEGA
and the Report
780 700
as Bal_report.
13
22 1350 1200 13 22 CHEBII 5640 5600 [1011Marks]

iv). Create 4 Reports that can be used to display the 4 tables separately in the database.
Save them as PC, WFC, Class_list and Family_Details respectively print these reports [4 Mks]
v) Create four forms of each table above and save them as respective table names. [4 marks]
THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

SERIES 1 EXAM
HOME SCIENCE
(THEORY)
441/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
 This paper contains 3 sections: A, B and C
 Answer ALL questions in section A and B and choose any TWO from section C
 Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided above.
 Sign and write the date in the spaces provided above.
 All answers should be written in the spaces provided on the question paper.
 Candidates should answer the questions in English.
For official Use Only

SECTIONS QUESTION MAX. SCORE ACTUAL SCORE
A 1 – 30 40 MARKS
B 31 20 MARKS
C 32,33,34 40 MARKS
TOTAL
SECTION A: (40 MARKS)
Attempt ALL questions in this section. Write answers in the spaces provided
1. Point out two non-decorative patches in repair of clothes and household article (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Note down two effects of deep-frying protein foods without coating (2 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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3. Give two measuring tools in needlework. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. Point out the major difference between cotton and wool viewed under a microscope (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Explain the meaning of the term dredge as used in flour mixtures (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Give two uses of salt in laundry work (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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7. What is consumer education (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. Outline two major signs of goiter (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. Suggest two other methods of storing clothes and household linen apart from folding (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. State two factors that make biogas an unpopular fuel. (2 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. Give two reasons for serving water in a meal (2 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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12. Outline two advantages of using a potato peeler over a kitchen knife. (2 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. Give two suggestions for painting your ceiling boards with a light colour. (2 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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14. State two advantages of choosing boiling as a method of cooking (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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15. Explain how preservation is achieved through smoking (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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16. Outline two ways of achieving shirring in disposal of fullness (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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17. Give two disadvantages of prolonged use of convenience foods (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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18. List two ways of saving time and energy during cooking. (2 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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19. Describe how to take hip measurements (2 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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20. What is rinsing as used in laundry work (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
21. Point out two uses of temporary stitches in clothing construction (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
22. Name two special treatments done before final rinsing (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
23. State two disadvantages of using powdered formulae to feed the baby (2 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
24. Give two factors that determine the length of a skirt (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
25. Give two sources of natural food poisoning (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
26. List two qualities of a good girls’ teddy bear (2 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
27. State two methods of attaching collars (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
28. Outline two uses of interfacing (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
29. Give two reasons why soaking of wooden handled Knives is discouraged. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
30. Name two components of a two-course meal. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
SECTION B: (20 MARKS) Compulsory

Today is your cleaning day;
31. a). Launder a white cotton tea towel ( 9 mks)
b) launder a loose coloured shirt . (8 mks)
c) Outline steps to follow when cleaning water glasses (5 marks)
SECTION C: (40 MARKS)

Answer any TWO questions from this section
32.a) (a) State reasons for including vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)in our diet daily. (4 marks)
b) Negative effects of advertisement to the consumer (4 marks)
c) Giving a reason, mention four blood tests carried out in an antenatal clinic (4 marks)
d) Mention four ways through which an individual may suffer from anaemia. (4 marks)
e) Describe four methods used to transfer pattern markings (4 marks)

33.a) You are giving a talk on care of invalids. Give four points you
would include on preventive measures (4 marks)
b) Explain four points importance of preparing a shopping list before going for shopping(4 mrks)
c) Identify four ways in which measles can be managed in infants. (4 marks)
d) Give four benefits of vitamin B2 in the human body (4 marks)
e) Balance points are matched with other similar ones. Point out four areas where they are(4 mks)
likely to be put on a garment
34.a) Outline four factors to bear in mind when picking flowers to arrange (4 marks)
b) Explain the following terms as used in consumer education; (4 marks)
c) State four principles used when administering first Aid to a victim of poison (4 marks)
d) State and explain four nutrient conservation measures taken during food preparation
before cooking (4 marks)
e) Use the pattern below to describe the working of an inverted pleat (4 marks)
Include a clearly labelled diagram.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
SERIES 1 EXAM
HOME SCIENCE
441/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
HOME SCIENCE
(CLOTHING CONSTRUCTION)
PAPER 2 (PRACTICAL)
2HOURS AND 30 MINUTES
INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
1. Read the test carefully
2. Write your name and admission number on every sheet of paper used
3. You are allowed to take away ONLY your reference materials at the end of the planning session
4. You are not allowed to bring additional noted to the practical session.

CHILD'S BLOUSE A pattern of a child‘s blouse is provided. You are advised to study the
sketches, instructions and layout carefully before you begin the test.
MATERIALS PROVIDED
1. Pattern pieces
Blouse front
Blouse back
Sleeve
Sleeve band
Front neck facing
Back neck facing
2. 2 Plain light weight cotton fabric 60 cm long by 91 cm wide.
3 Sewing thread to match.
4 One large envelope.
THE TEST
Using the materials provided, cut out and make the RIGHT HALF of the child‘s blouse to show
the following processes:
(a) making of the double pointed dart.
(b) making of the shoulder seam using an open scam.
(c) making of the side seam using a french seam
(d) preparation of the sleeve to include: (i) french seam (ii) hemming the band half way.
(e) attaching of the sleeve. Do not neaten the seam.
(l) joining the from and back facing.
(g) attaching the facing to ﬁnish the neckline and neatening the free edge.
At the end of the examination. ﬁrmly sew onto your work, on a single fabric. a label hearing your
name and index number. Remove the needle, pins and loose threads from your work. Fold your
work neatly and place it in the envelope provided. D0 not put scraps of fabric in the
envelope.
SERIES 1 EXAM
HOME SCIENCE
441/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

441/3
HOMESCIENCE
FOODS AND NUTRITION
PAPER 3
PRACTICAL
1 ¾ HOURS
PLANNING SESSION 30MINUTES
PRACTICAL TEST SESSION 11/4
Instructions to candidates
a) Read the test carefully.
b) Write your name and index number on every sheet of paper used.
c) Text books and recipes may be used during the planning session as reference materials.
d) You will be expected to keep to your order of work during the practical session.
e) You are only allowed to take away your reference materials at the end of the planning session.
f) You are not allowed to bring additional notes to the practical session.
TEST:
You plan to go out for a picnic with your brother and sister. Using all the ingredients listed below
prepare, cook and pack two suitable items for the three of you. Include a refreshing drink
INGREDIENTS:
Plain wheat flour/arrowroots/sweet potatoes/green maize
egg/ Sausage
Salt
Fat/oil
Sugar
Milk
Fruits in season
PLANNING SESSION:
For each task listed below, use separate sheets of paper and a carbon paper to make duplicate
copies then proceed as follows:
1) Identify the dishes and write their recipes.
2) Write your order of work.
3) Make a list of food stuff and equipment you will require.

SERIES 1 EXAM
AGRICULTURE
443/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
1.Write your name and ADM. Number in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provide above.
3. This paper consist of three sections A, B and C.
4. Answer all the questions in section A and B.
5.Answer any two questions in section C.

SECTION QUESTIONS MAX SCORE SCORE
A 1-16 30
B 17 -20 20
C 40
TOTAL SCORE 90
SECTION A 30 MARKS
Answer All the Questions in This Section in the Spaces Provided
1. State three ways in which crop rotation improves soil fertility. (11/2marks)
.....................................................................................................................
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2. List four methods of farming. (2 marks)

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3. Give four importance of cost as used in agricultural economics. (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
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4. List four factors a farmer considers when siting a nursery bed. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.
5. State four ways in which government policy contributes to agriculture. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
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.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

6. State four disadvantages of concession land tenure. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
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7. Give four reasons why cereal grains should be dried before storage. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
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8. State three importance of cutting back in pyrethrum. (11/2marks)

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9. Outline four observable indicators of economic growth of a country. (2 marks)

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10. State four solutions that can help solve the problem of perishability in horticultural crops.
(2 marks)
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11. Give four disadvantages of using organic manures in crop production. (2 marks)
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12. State four ways in which chemical kills the weeds in the crop field. (2 narks)
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13. State four management practices that promote high herbage yields in pasture production.
(2 marks)
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14. Distinguish between seed dressing and seed inoculation. (2marks)

.....................................................................................................................
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15. State four agriculture support services available to a crop farmer (2 marks)
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16. State two precautions to be taken when harvesting cotton. (1 mark)
.....................................................................................................................
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SECTION B 20 MARKS
Answer All the Questions in This Section in the Spaces Provided
17. The diagram illustrated below shows a method of grafting. Study it carefully and answer the
questions that follow.
a) Identify the type of grafting illustrated above. (1 mark)

.....................................................................................................................
b) Name the parts named G1 and G2. (1 mark)

G1.......................................................................................................................................................
G2.......................................................................................................................................................
c) State three advantages of grafting in agroforestry. (3 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
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18. The diagram illustrated below shows a DAP fertilizer bag. Study it carefully and answer the
a) What do the figures labelled on the diagram stand for. (1 mark)

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b) With a reason name the class of inorganic fertilizer that DAP belong. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
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c) Calculate the amount of filler material in 200 kg of DAP with a fertilizer grade of 18:46:0.
(2 marks)
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19. The diagrams illustrated below shows common weeds. Use them to answer the questions that
follow.
a) Identify the weeds labelled C and D. (2 marks)

C.........................................................................................................................................................
D........................................................................................................................................................
b) Classify the weed labelled C according to plant morphology. (1 mark)
.....................................................................................................................
c) Give one reason why it is difficult to control the weed labelled D. (1 mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
d) Name the appropriate category of herbicide used to the control weed labeled C. (1 mark)
.....................................................................................................................
20. The diagram illustrated below shows an activity carried out in agroforestry. Study it carefully
and answer the questions that follow.
a) Identify the activity illustrated above. (1 mark)
.....................................................................................................................
b) Sate two reasons for carrying out the activity identified above. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
c) Name two tools that may be used to carry out the activity illustrated above. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
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SECTION C 40 MARKS
Answer Only Two Questions In This Section In The Spaces Provided
21. a) The following information was found in Mr. Kamau’s farm record for the year ending
December 2014. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Bought goats 4,000
Bought poultry 15,000
Bought dairy meal 25,000
Bought pasture seeds 50,000
Transportation of farm produce 15,000
Paid casual workers 12,000
Hired an ox-plough 10,000
Opening valuation 150,000
Sale of mohair 75,000
Sale of rabbits 36,000
Sold dairy cow 70,000
Received cash from the sale of wheat 100,000
Sold cabbages 20,000
Received money from the sale of eggs 15,000
Closing valuation 200,000

i)Prepare a profit and loss account for Mr. kamau’s farm. (7 marks)
ii)Did he make a profit or loss. (1 mark)
iii) Calculate the percentage profit or loss that Mr. Kamau made. (2 marks)
b) Outline five functions of Kenya National Federation of producers in Kenya. (5 marks)
c)Explain five effects of solifluction. (5 marks)
22.a) Explain eight factors that influence the type of irrigation to be used in a farm. (8 marks)
b) Outline five importance of draining agricultural land. (5 marks)
c)Explain seven safety precautions observed when spraying herbicides. (7 marks)
23a) Explain ten functions of marketing. (10 marks)

b) Explain five factors that should be considered when deciding the depth of planting seeds.
(5 marks)
c) Outline five characteristics of a green manure crop. (5 marks)
SERIES 1 EXAM
AGRICULTURE
443/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
1.Write your name and ADM. Number in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provide above.
3. This paper consist of three sections A, B and C.
4. Answer all the questions in section A and B.
5.Answer any two questions in section C.
6.All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
8. All answers must be written in English.

SECTION QUESTIONS MAX SCORE SCORE
A 1-16 30
B 17 -20 20
C 40
TOTAL SCORE 90

SECTION A 30 MARKS
Answer All the Questions in This Section in The Spaces Provided
1. Name four beef breeds of cattle. (2 marks)
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2. Name the most appropriate tools used in the following operations (11/2marks)
a) Removing metal chipping in files
.....................................................................................................................
b) Cutting wood along the grains

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c) Branding
.....................................................................................................................
3. Give four practices carried out on fish before preservation. (2 marks)

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4. Outline four reasons for steaming up a gestating a cow. (2 marks)

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5. List four factors considered when selecting eggs for marketing. (2 marks)
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6. State three qualities of a good livestock ration. (11/2marks)

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7. State four advantages of carrying out raddling in sheep management. (2 marks)

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8. State four disadvantages of using a spray race in the farm. (2 marks)

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9. List four causes of sterility in dairy cows. (2 marks)

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10. List four effects of ticks on livestock bodies. (2marks)
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11. State four factors that influence selection of construction materials. (2 marks)
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.
12. Name three farm implements operated by the tractor’s P.T.O shaft. (11/2marks)
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13. State four reasons for debeaking in poultry production. (2 marks)

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14. Name three breeding diseases controlled through the use of artificial insemination. (11/2marks)
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15. Give four characteristics of a good vaccine. (2 marks)
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16. State four advantages of Kenya top bar hive in bee keeping. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
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SECTION B 20 MARKS
Answer All the Questions in This Section in The Spaces Provided
17. The diagram illustrated below shows a petrol engine fuel system. Study it carefully and answer
the questions that follow.
a) Name the parts labelled X, Y and Z. (3 marks)

X.........................................................................................................................................................
Y.........................................................................................................................................................
Z.........................................................................................................................................................

b) State the maintenance practice of the following parts; (2 marks)
i) Fuel tank cap
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
ii)The carburetor
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
18. The diagram below shows two methods of handling livestock in the farm. Study them and
answer the questions that follow.
a) Identify the methods of handling livestock labelled L and M. (1 marks)

L.........................................................................................................................................................
M........................................................................................................................................................
b) Give two occasions when it may be necessary to carry out the practice labelled L above.
(2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
c) Give two animal conditions under which method L above cannot be used. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
19. Below is structure used in poultry production. Use it to answer the questions that follow.
a) Identify the structure illustrated above. (1 mark)

.....................................................................................................................
b) State the main function of the structure illustrated above. (1 mark)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
c)Give the main function of the following in the structure (3 marks)

i) Water
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
ii) Source of heat
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
iii) Thermometer
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

20. The diagrams illustrated below shows tools used in the farm. Study the carefully and answer the
a) Identify the tools labelled P and Q. (2 marks)

P.........................................................................................................................................................
Q.........................................................................................................................................................
b) State the use of the tools labelled M and N. (2 marks)

M........................................................................................................................................................
N.......................................................................................................................................................
c) Give two ways in which the tools illustrated above depreciate in value. (1 mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
SECTION C 40 MARKS
Answer Only Two Questions in This Section
21.a) Explain ten advantages of battery cage system in poultry rearing. (10 marks)
b) Outline the procedure of training a calf for bucket feeding. (5 marks)
c) Outline five signs of tapeworm infestation. (5marks)
22.a) Explain the functional differences between a disc plough and a mould board plough.
(8 marks)
b) Explain eight factors considered when siting farm structures. (8 marks)
c)Outline four ways in which infectious diseases can spread in livestock production. (4 marks)
23.a) Describe foot rot under the following sub-heading;

i)Animals affected (1 mark)
ii)causal organism (1mark)
iii)Symptoms of attack (4marks)
iv)Control measures (4marks)
b) Describe the function of various parts of a plunge dip. (10 marks)

SERIES 1 EXAM
BUSINESS STUDIES
565/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of 25 questions.
(d) Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Marks
Questions 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Marks
TOTAL MARKS
Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided
1. State four merits associated with internal borrowing (4 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
2. State four consequences that may arise due to poor arrangement of goods in a warehouse(4 mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
3. The inflation rate in county moved from 6.1% to 7.6%. State four positive outcomes of this
change (4 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
4. The following balance sheet was incorrectly prepared

CHUMA Enterprises
Balance sheet
As at 31st October 2022
Capital 100,000 Bank overdraft 15,000

Stock 28,000 Motor vehicle 70,000
Cash in hand 4,000 Debtors 37,000
Fixtures 2,000 Creditors 26,000
134,000 148,000

Prepare the correct balance sheet arranged in order of liquidity to show fixed assets, current assets,
current liabilities and capital. (4 marks)
5. Highlight four circumstances under which a manufacturer would find it necessary to carry out
market research. (4 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
6. State four factors that determine the amount of revenue collected by Kenyan government through
taxation. (4marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
7. Other than the use computers in an office, mention four recent trends in office management.
(4 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
8. State any four principles that govern the operations of co-operative societies in Kenya(4 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
9. The table below represents quantity of commodity X demanded by consumer A and B.

Price per unit of x Quantity of x demanded Quantity of commodity X
by A in a week. demanded by B in a
week.
20 200 400
10 200 600
5 300 700
2 400 800
State four possible reasons why B demands more of commodity X at every price than A (4 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

10. Outline four ways in which a good business structure is of benefit to a business organization
(4 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
11.Outline four factors that determine the amount of money that an individual may hold in order to
meet unexpected expenses (4 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
12.Give four reasons why the Kenya government has been organizing seminars and workshops for
training youth in businesses (4 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
13.Mention four circumstances under which an entrepreneur may establish his/her business where
other businesses already exist (4 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
14.Give four differences between a public limited company and a partnership. (4 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
15.Highlight four measures that a government may take to correct a balance of payment deficit in
the county (4 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
16. Juma traders had the following information

Opening stock 40,000
Closing stock 55,000
purchases 200,000
Margin 25%
Required
a.) Calculate Juma’s Rate of stock turn over. (3marks)

b.) State the importance of having a low rate of stock turnover. (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
17.Outline four ways in which the nature of a product influences the choice of distribution channel.
(4 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
18.Mention four circumstances under which a retailer may return goods to a wholesaler. (4 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
19.State four reasons why billboards are popular in product promotions (4 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
20.The following balances were obtained from the books of sunset traders as at 30 th June, 2004.
Stock 1st July 2003 45,000
Purchases 159,000
Sales 235,000
Stock 30/June/2014 33,000
Capital 75,000
Return outwards 3,000
Operating expenses 13,000
CALCULATE:
i) Stock turnover rate. (2 marks)
ii) Return on capital. (2 marks)
21.State four ways in which legal political environment may improve business performance
(4 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
22.Distinguish the following types of goods as used in production.

i) Producer goods and consumer goods. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
ii) Intermediate goods and finished goods. (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

23.The following cashbook was prepared by Kajuka Traders for the month of July 2021.
kajuka traders’
Cash book
Dr Cr.
Date Details lf cash Bank Date Details LF cash Bank
2021 2021
July 2 Balance b/d Y July 4 Balance b/f 60,000
July 8 Sales 20,000 July 13 Purchases 30,000
July 18 Akinyi 50,000 July 21 Rent 6,000
July 25 Sales 120,000 July 27 Balance c/d P Q
170,000 60,000 R
Calculate the missing figures. (4 marks)

(i) Y
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(ii) P
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(iii) Q
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(iv) R
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
24.Mention four benefits that may be enjoyed in a country that is experiencing over- population
(4 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
25. Highlight four limitations posed by the use of national income statistics as a way of comparing
the living standards of people for different countries. (4 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

SERIES 1 EXAM
BUSINESS STUDIES
565/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
Instructions to Candidates
(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of 6 questions.
(d) Answer ANY FIVE questions in the spaces provided
FOR TEACHER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
20
20
20
20
20
Total Score
Answer ANY FIVE questions in the spaces provided
1. a) Explain five methods used by central bank to increase money supply in the economy.
(10mks)
b) Discuss five ways in which the government can reduce unemployment levels in Kenya(10mks)
2. a) Explain five factors that may limit the use of containers as a method of transporting goods in a
developing country. (10mks)
b) The following Trial balance was extracted from the books of Kabaka traders as at
30/6/2018.
Kabaka Traders
Trials balance as at 30/6/2021
Particles Dr Cr
Sales ____________ 900,000
Purchases 600,000 ________
Return inwards 80,000 ________
Carriage inwards 40,000 ________
Return outwards ____________ 20,000
Carriage outwards 3,000 _________
Stock 1st Jul 2017 100,000 _________
Rent 60,000 _________
Delivery van 180,000 _________
Bank 60,000 _________
Creditors ____________ 170,000
Debtors 120,000 _________
Discount allowed 80,000 _________
General expenses 18,000 _________
Capital ____________ 178,000
1,268,000 1,268,000

Stock on 30th June 2018 was valued at 135,000/=
Required: Prepare Kabaka Traders Trading profit and loss A/c.
3 a)Explain five advantages of government involvement in Business. (10mks)

b) Discuss five factors that may influence entrepreneurial practices positively in the country
(10mks)
4. a) Apart from selling of shares, explain five other sources of finance for public limited company.
(10mks)
b) Explain five features of oligopoly. (10mks)
5 a) Muema is planning to construct a warehouse for renting. Explain five measures that he may
take to ensure its smooth operation. (10mks)
b) Outline five measures that the Kenya government may take to reduce unemployment. (10mks)
6 a) Explain five methods used to distribute imported manufactured goods. (10mks)

b) The following transactions relates to Konate Traders for the month of December 2010.
Dec 1stStarted a business with sh. 200,000 in the Bank account.
2ndBought furniture for sh, 50,000 and paid by cheque
3rdSold goods on credit to Tilashs, 20,000; Katu 10,000
4th Bought goods on credit from Kahamash 30,000; Kanga shs. 40,000
5thReturned faulty goods to Kahamash 5,000
6thPaid Kahama on account by cheque less 10% cash discount.
7thReceived faulty goods from Katushs. 2000
8thReceived payment due from Tila and Katu by cheque less 5% cash discount.
9thCash sales shs. 100,000
10thPaid for wagesshs. 20,000 by cash and electricity shs.10,000 by cheque.
11thDeposited all the cash in hand into the bank account.
Required:
Prepare a three-column cash book duly balanced (10mks)
SERIES 1 EXAM
BIOLOGY
231/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
 Write your name and index number in the spaces provided.
 Sign and write date of examination in the spaces provided above
 Answer all the questions in this paper in the spaces provided.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE %
1- 22 80

Answer all the questions in this paper in the spaces provided
1. Study the diagram below showing a portion of an onion epidermis that had been irrigated with
a certain solution X.
a) In one word describe the condition of the cells (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
b) Describe the process that lead to the condition named above. (3mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
2. The following reaction may proceed in forward or backward direction
Glucose + fructose sucrose + water.
a) What term is used to refer to the backward reaction. (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
b) In which part of alimentary canal does the backward reaction occur? (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
c) Name the enzyme that catalyzes the backward reaction. (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
3. A certain metabolic pathway takes the following sequence.
J K L M N
At the start of the experiment an inhibitor was added to the reactants. After the experiment it was
found out that there was the same concentration of J, more than normal concentration of K,
near absence of L, M and N. When L was added to the inhibitor set M and N were detected.
a) At what stage of the reaction sequence did the inhibitor have its effect? (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
b) Explain how the inhibitor affected the reaction. (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
c) What is the identity of substance L? (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
4. After fertilization of an ovule, which parts develops into: -

a) Testa (1mks)
.....................................................................................................................
b) Endosperm (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
5a) Explain two roles of diffusion in human beings. (4mks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
bi) Name the process through which a plant takes up some mineral ions against a concentration
gradient. (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................

ii) State two factors that may affect the process named in b(i) above. (2mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
c) Distinguish between haemolysis and plasmolysis. (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
6.An insect landed on a leaf of an insectivorous plant. Consequently, the leaf closed with its spines
interlocking trapping the insect inside it. Name the response exhibited by the leaf. (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
7. The figure below represents a plant.
a) State the division it belongs to. (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
b) Label the parts labeled (2mk)

a. ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
b. ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
c) State the role of part labeled d in the life cycle of the organism. (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
8. State any two adaptations of the cardiac muscle that enable it to undergo systole. (2mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
9. A respiratory substrate has the formula C57H110O6.

a) Write a balanced equation to represent its complete oxidation to carbon dioxide and
water. (1mk)
b) Why are carbohydrates and not lipids the first choice respiratory substrates? (2mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
c) Calculate the RQ from the equation in (a) above. (2mks)
10. Below is a diagram of a group of cells of a specific tissue.
i) Name the tissue (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................

ii) This tissue lines the trachea and bronchi. Suggest its function in these structures. (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
11. Study the flow chart below which represents a physiological process in mammals
ai) Name blood components represented by X. (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
ii) What is the significance of product represented by Z. (2mks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
b) Under what condition is thrombokinase released by the platelets? (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
12 a) Explain what happens to excess amino acids in the liver of humans. (3mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
b) Which portions of the human nephron are only found in the cortex? (1mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
13. A potted plant is transferred from outside on a sunny and windy day, to a dark room.
a) Briefly explain the effect this is likely to have on:
i)The rate of loss of water from its leaves. (3mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
ii)The rate of water absorption. (2mks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
14. Give a reason why urine of a mammal does not contain amino acids. (1mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
15.a) In what form is energy stored in muscles? (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
b) State the role of insulin in human body. (3mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
16. Name the processes that take place in the liver to bring about differences between blood
in the Hepatic portal vein and that in the hepatic vein. (3mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
17. The graph below shows how the body temperature of a toad and man varies with time in
hours. Study it and answer the questions that follow.
a) What is the relationship between the body temperature of the toad and that of the atmospheric
air? (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
b) State two corrective measures that maintains man’s body temperature at norm even when the
environmental temperature is below 300C. (2mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
c) Give one behavioral adaptation observed in a lizard when the environmental temperature is
above 390C. (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
18. The figure below shows the exposed breathing apparatus of a fish.
a) Name the structure that was removed to expose the apparatus. (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
b i) Name structure P. (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
ii) State two structural adaptations of the respiratory surface in insects. (2mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
19. The following is a reproductive structure of a plant.

a) Identify the structure. (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
b) Name the sub-division of the plants that produces the above reproductive structure. (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
ci) Name structure B. (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
ii) What is the function of structure A? (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
20. Nucleic acids are made up of nucleotides that bears a sugar component.
a) Name the sugar component found in: - (2mks)
i) DNA fragment -----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------
ii) RNA fragment ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------
b) The following nucleotide sequence was found in a segment of DNA: - A G C C T.

Write down the complementary base sequence in the corresponding m RNA segment during
transcription. (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
c) A point mutation altered the base sequence from the original to G G C C T.

Identify the type of gene mutation. (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
21. Below is a drawing of a cell.
a) With two reasons, identify the cell. (3mks)

Identify. ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Reasons:
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
b) Which of the three structure X, Y and Z speeds up transmission of the impulse. (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
22.a) State two structural differences between skeletal muscles and smooth muscles. (4mks)
Skeletal muscle Smooth muscle
(i)
(ii)
b) What are antagonistic muscles? (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

SERIES 1 EXAM
BIOLOGY
231/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
 Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided.
 Answer all the questions in this paper in the spaces provided.
 Answer questions 1-6 (compulsory) and either question 7 or 8.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 8
2 8
3 8
4 8
5 8
6 20
7 or 8 20
Answer all the questions in this paper in the spaces provided.
1.The diagram below represents the direction of flow of blood in a gill capillary. The percentage of
oxygen in solution at position A, B, P, Q and R is given in the table below.
Position Oxygen concentration in Haemoglobin saturation with

solution (%) oxygen (%)
A 10
B 7
P 4 55
Q 7 85
a) Why is the oxygen percentage low at P? (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
b) Using evidence from the data given, suggest what will happen to oxygen in the water at
point B. (3mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

c) Name the organ into which blood coming from the capillary at Q flows. (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
d) Suppose the flow of blood in the capillary illustrated above was in the opposite direction,
explain the disadvantage it would have to the fish. (2mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
e) Name the principle where the blood flows in the opposite direction to another fluid. (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
2. Below is a diagram of a poorly planned town showing some building and facilities.
a) Giving evidence from the diagram, state two likely sources of water pollution. (2mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
b) State three ways that the positioning of the refuse pit and sewage works pose danger to the
residence of the town. (3mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
c) Residents living close to the marsh are likely to suffer from malaria. Explain. (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
d) Suggest two control measures to overcome water pollution in the area. (2mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
3. The diagram below represents a maize seedling.
a) Name the structure labeled A and C (2mks)

A -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
C --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

b) State the functions of parts labeled A, B and C. (3mks)
A -----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
B ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- --
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
C------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
c) Name the type of germination exhibited by maize (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
d) Name two conditions necessary for seed germination other than water and oxygen. (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
e) What is the role of oxygen in seed germination? (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
4. The figure below shows part of a human skeleton.

a) Which part of the human skeleton is it? (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
b) On the diagram label by name three types of joints. (3mks)
c) Label the S, T and P. (3mks)

S -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
T -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
P -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
d) Which two bones on the diagram manufactures red blood cells? (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
5. In maize the gene for purple colour is dominant to the gene for white colour.
A pure breeding maize plant with purple grains was crossed with a heterozygous plant.
a) Using letter G to represent the gene for purple colour, work out the genotypes of the
offspring. (4mks)

b) State the phenotype of the offspring. (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
c) What is genetic engineering? (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
d) Gene for smooth seed coat is dominant over gene for wrinkled seed coat. Two heterozygous
pea plants with smooth seed coats were crossed and produced a total of 14640 seeds. How
many seeds had wrinkled seed coat? Show your calculations. (2mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
6. The diagram below is obtained from measurements of growth in the leaf petiole of a certain
plant. The relative growth rate is calculated and the data is obtained as shown below.
Time in days 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Relative growth rate(cm/day) 0 0.1 0.3 0.8 2.0 4.0 4.5 3.5 0.2 0
a) Plot a graph of relative growth rate against time. (5mks)

b) State two functions of a leaf petiole. (2mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
c) State two characteristics of cells found in the region of cell division. (2mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

d) Account for the shape of the curve between the following days (3mks)
i) 2 – 5.
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
ii) 6 – 8 (3mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
iii)6 – 8 (3mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
d) Distinguish between primary growth and secondary growth in a flowering plant. (2mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
7. How are flowers adapted to wind and insect pollination? (20mks)

8a) Name factors that affects the enzyme controlled reactions. (6mks)
b) Explain the factors that affect the rate of enzyme activity. (14mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
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SERIES 1 EXAM
BIOLOGY
231/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
BIOLOGY CONFIDENTIAL
1. Specimen P – soaked (overnight) Maize seed.
2. Specimen Q – soaked (overnight) Bean seed.
3. A white tile.
4. Scalpel.
5. Mortar and pestle.
6. Distilled water.
7. Two test-tubes on a test-tube rack.
8. Iodine solution.
9. Sodium hydroxide.
10. Copper(II) sulphate.

SERIES 1 EXAM
BIOLOGY
PRACTICAL
231/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
a) Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
b) You are required to spend the first 15 minutes of the 1 ¾ hours allowed for this paper
reading the whole paper carefully before commencing your work.
c) Additional pages must not be inserted.
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY.

Question Maximum score Candidates score
1 17
2 09
3 14
Total score 40
Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
1. You are provided with specimen P and Q. Examine them carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
(a). State three observable differences between P and Q. (3mks)
Specimen P Specimen Q
(b) Identify the parts of the flower from which specimen P and Q developed. (2mks)
P ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
(c i). Make a longitudinal section of specimen P. Draw a well-labelled diagram of one half with all
its Contents intact. (4mks)
(ii). State the functions of any two structures in (c) (i) above. (2mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(d). Using a mortar and pestle crush specimen Q, add 5ml distilled water to make a solution Q and
carry out appropriate tests using the reagents provided. (6mks)
Test Procedure Observation Conclusion
2. Study the photos below.

a) Name:-
i) The stimulus operating in Plant K1. (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
ii) The type of response being investigated in Plant K2. (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
iii) Suggest a control set up for Plant K2 investigation. (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
b) Describe the role of auxins in the response exhibited by Plant K1. (4mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
c) What is the biological value of the tropisms evident in: -

i) Plant K1 (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
ii) Plant K2 (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

3. Below are photos of of a certain arthropod at different stages of its life cycle.
a) Identify the stage of the life cycle represented by organism S. (1mk)

.....................................................................................................................
b i) Name the stage that immediately preceed and succeed organism S in the life cycle. (2mks)
Preceeding stage
.....................................................................................................................
Succeeding stage.
.....................................................................................................................
ii) What name is given to the complete life cycle of the arthropod? (1mk)
.....................................................................................................................
c) Name the gaseous exchange system of orgaism S. Give a visible feature that supports your
answer. (2mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
d i) What type of food does organisms S feed on? Give a reason to support your answer. (2mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
ii) State the significance of stage U in the life cycle of the beetle. (2mks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
iii)How is specimen T adapted to locomotion in its habitat ? (2mks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
e) State the role of the following in the life cycle of the arthropods. (2mks)
i) Juvinile hormone.
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
ii) Moulting stimulating hormone.

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.....................................................................................................................

SERIES 1 EXAM
CHEMISTRY
(THEORY)
233/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
(a). Write your name class and class number in the spaces provided above
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above
(c) Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided.
(d) Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used.
(e) All working must be shown clearly where necessary.

Questions Maximum score Candidates score
1 – 27 80
Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided.
1 (a) What is a universal indicator? (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(b) State one advantage of universal indicator over other commercial indicators. (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
2. Complete the diagram below on identification and uses of some laboratory apparatus.
Diagram
Name (a) (c)
(½ mark) (½ mark)
Purpose (b) (d)
(1mark) (1mark)
3 (a) In an experiment, sulphur was heated in a deflagrating spoon until it begins to burn then
lowered into a gas jar. Explain the observations made. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(b) Explain the role of oxygen in steel making. (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
4 (a) State Graham’s law of diffusion. (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(b) At what temperature, in K, assuming constant pressure, is the volume of a fixed mass of gas at
127oC doubled? (2 marks)
5 (a) Distinguish between a temporary physical change and temporary chemical change.(2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(b) In an experiment, the following substances were heated in separate test tubes. Complete the
table to state the observations and classifying the type of change that occurs. (3 marks)
Solid Observations on heating Type of change
CuSO4.5H2O
KMnO4
6. Explain how you would distinguish between ethane and ethyne. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
7. Explain how solid calcium sulphate can be prepared from solid samples of calcium carbonate
and sodium sulphate. All other reagents and apparatus are provided. (3 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
8 (a)A metal reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce a gas. Explain how to identify the gas.
(1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(b) The diagram below shows the set up used for the reaction between magnesium and steam.
(i) Explain the observations made. (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(ii) Explain why the wet sand must be heated first before the zinc powder is heated. (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

9 (a) Distinguish between covalent bond and co-ordinate bond. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(b) The diagram below shows the structure of a covalent compound containing the element
hydrogen, H, and the unknown elements X, Y and Z.
To which groups of the Periodic Table do these three elements, X, Y and Z, belong? (1½ marks)
10. In an experiment silicon (IV) chloride is dissolved in water in a boiling tube.

(a) Write an equation for the reaction that occurs. (1mark)
(b) Explain the observations that were made during the experiment. (3 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
11. A standard solution of potassium hydroxide (KOH) is prepared in a 250 cm3 volumetric flask.
During a titration, 12.5 cm3 of this solution neutralizes 25 cm3 of a 0.16 moldm-3 ethanoic acid
solution.
The balanced equation for the reaction is: CH3COOH(aq) + KOH(aq) → CH3COOK(aq) + H2O(l)
Calculate the mass of potassium hydroxide used to prepare the solution above in the 250 cm3
volumetric flask. (K = 39, O = 16.0, H = 1.) (3 marks)
12. Ammonia gas was burnt in oxygen as shown in the diagram below.
(a) State the role of the glass wool. (1mark)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(b) State the observations made during the experiment. (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(c) Write an equation for the reaction that occurs. (1mark)

13. Study the following reaction at equilibrium at a certain temperature.
2SO3(g) ⇌ O2(g) + 2SO2(g) ΔH > 0
(a) State two optimum conditions for this reaction. (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(b) State two ways of increasing the yield of SO3(g). (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
14 (a) Write the equation for the reaction between chlorine and cold dilute sodium hydroxide.
(1mark)
(b) When chlorine gas reacts with hot concentrated calcium hydroxide, one of the products formed
is calcium hypochlorite (CaOCl2). This commonly referred to as bleaching powder.
Explain the bleaching action of calcium hypochlorite. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
15. The diagram below shows an apparatus for the laboratory preparation of carbon (II) oxide.
(a) Identify two mistakes in the set up. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(b) Write an equation for the reaction between concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid and reagent C.
(1mark)
(c) State one use of carbon (II) oxide. (1mark)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
16. The structures of four organic compounds are shown.
(a) Which compounds decolourize bromine water? (1mark)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(b) Explain one chemical test that can be used to distinguish between compounds 1 and 2.
(2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

17. How does the number of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms in an ester differ from the total
number of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms in the alcohol and carboxylic acid from which
the compound was derived? (1½ marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
18. The diagram shows a reaction scheme.
(a) Name:
(i) Catalyst D
(ii) Reaction II
(iii) Reaction III
(iv) Compound Z (4 marks)
(b) State the observations made in step II. (1mark)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(c) Write an equation for the reaction that occurs in step III. (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
19. A student performs two reactions.
 reaction 1: 10 g of magnesium ribbon with excess 2.0 mol / dm3 dilute hydrochloric acid
 reaction 2: 5 g of magnesium powder with excess 2.0 mol / dm3 dilute hydrochloric acid
In both experiments, the volume of hydrogen produced, V, is measured against time, t, and the
results plotted graphically.
(a) On the grid below, sketch a graph that would be obtained is volume of hydrogen produced is
plotted against time for both reactions1 and 2. (2 marks)
(b) Explain your answers. (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
20. A copper – zinc electrochemical cell is set up as shown below.

Lead (II) nitrate is used as an electrolyte in the salt bridge.
(a) Initially the cell did not work. Explain. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(b) Once the mistake identified in (a) above was corrected:

(i) Write the equation for the reaction at the anode. (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(ii) Determine the E.m.f of the cell given that: (2 marks)

Zn(s) → Zn2+(aq) + 2e; EƟ + 0.76V
Cu(s) → Cu2+(aq) + 2e; EƟ – 0.34V
21. When a solution containing silver ions is added to a solution containing iron (II) ions, an
equilibrium is set up.
2Ag+(aq) + Fe2+(aq) ⇌ 2Ag(s) + Fe3+(aq)
(Green) (Yellow)
Explain the effect of addition of silver nitrate to the equilibrium mixture. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
22 (a) One of the ores of sodium is saltpetre. Give the formula of saltpetre. (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(b) In the Down’s cell, the anode is made of carbon while the cathode is made of steel. Steel is a
reactive electrode and would make the electrolytic process faster. Explain why it is not used at
the anode despite this advantage. (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(c) Write two equations that occur at the anode during the electrolysis process. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
23 (a) What is half life as used in radioactivity? (1mark)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(b) A certain nuclide has a half-life of 1.5 seconds.
(i) What is a nuclide? (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(ii) What percentage of a given mass of the nuclide will be left after 7.5 hours? (2 marks)
24. The potential energy graph for a hypothetical chemical reaction is shown below.

(a) What type of reaction is taking place? (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(b) What are the correct methods to calculate ΔH and Ea? (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
25. The diagram shows the apparatus used to electrolyse lead (II) bromide using inert electrodes.
Why does the lamp light up only when the lead (II) bromide is melted? (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
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SERIES 1 EXAM
CHEMISTRY
233/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
(a) Write your name and class number in each of the foolscaps answer sheets.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in each of the foolscap answer sheets.
(c) Answer all the questions in this paper on one side of each foolscap.
FOR EXAMINER'S USE ONLY

Question Number Maximum score Candidate’s score
1 13
2 12
3 9
4 10
5 11
6 12
7 13
TOTAL 80

Answer all the questions in this paper
1. The diagram shows part of the Periodic Table. The letters are not the actual symbols of the
elements.
(a) Compare the reactivity between elements Q and T. (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(b) Explain the electrical conductivity of the chloride of element T. (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(c) Compare the melting and boiling points of elements R and S. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(d) Write an equation for the second ionization energy of element Q. (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(e) How does the atomic and ionic radius of each of the following elements compare?
(i) Element T. (1½ marks)
(ii)Element P (1½ marks)
(f) Compare atomic radius of elements R and Q. (1½ marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(g) Explain the difference in the melting points of the oxides of element Q and the oxide of
element R. (1½ marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

2 (a) The diagram below shows the structure of an allotrope of sulphur
(i) What are allotropes? (1mark)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(ii) Identify the allotrope shown in the diagram above. (1mark)

.....................................................................................................................
(iii) State two properties of the allotrope above. (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(b) Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow.
(i) Write the equation for the reactions in:

I. step I. (1mark)
II. Step II. (1mark)

(ii) State two observations made in step II. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(iii) Explain the observations made in:

I. Step IV. (1½ marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
II. Step V. (1½ marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(iv) State one use of gas T. (1mark)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
3. Next to each letter, A to F, in the table below is the molecular formula of an organic compound.
(a) Choose a molecular formula above that represents an organic compound below. Write down
only the letter (A to F) next to the question numbers
(i) A haloalkane (½ mark)
.....................................................................................................................

(ii) An alcohol (½ mark)
.....................................................................................................................
(iii) An unsaturated hydrocarbon (½ mark)

.....................................................................................................................
(iv) A product of thermal cracking of compound C. (½ mark)

.....................................................................................................................
(b) If compound F is a carboxylic acid, write down the following:

(i) The structural formula of a functional isomer (an isomer with a different functional group) of F.
(1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
(ii) The IUPAC name of a functional isomer of F. (1mark)

.....................................................................................................................
(c) Compound B is a monomer used to make a polymer. Write down the:

(i) Definition of a polymer. (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(ii) IUPAC name of the polymer. (1mark)

.....................................................................................................................
(iii) Balanced equation for the polymerisation reaction (1mark)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(d) Compound A is used as a reactant in the production of compound D.
(i) Name the type of reaction that takes place. (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
(ii) State two changes that can be made to the reaction conditions in (d) (i) to obtain compound B,
instead of D, as product. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
4. The flow chart below summarizes the extraction of Zinc, study it and answer the questions that
follow.
(a) Name the process represented by A and B

A………………………………………. (2 marks)
B ……………………………………….
(b) Identify the reagents required for process B, C and D (3 marks)

B …………………………………………………….
C …………………………………………………….
D …………………………………………………….
(c) Write a chemical equation of the reaction that occurs in process B (1mark)

(d) With an aid of a diagram, explain how you would obtain a pure sample of Zinc by process E.
(2 marks)
(e) State two uses of Zinc metal (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
5 (a) The table below gives some values of standard enthalpies of formation (ΔHfƟ).
Substance F2(g) CF4(g) HF(g)
ΔHfƟ (kJmole-1) 0 – 680 – 269
The enthalpy change for the reaction C2H6(g) + 7F2(g)  2CF4(g) + 6HF(g) is –2889 kJ mol–1.
Use this value and the standard enthalpies of formation in Table 2 to calculate the standard
enthalpy of formation of C2H6(g). (3 marks)
(b) In an experiment to determine the enthalpy of solution of concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid
(specific gravity = 1.84gcm-3) the following procedure was used:
- A clean 250.0 cm3 glass or plastic beaker is wrapped with a newspaper leaf.
- About 50.0 cm3 of tap water is measured into the beaker and the steady temperature noted.
- The beaker is held in a tilted position and 2.0 cm3 of and sulphuric acid added into the water
(i) Why was the beaker wrapped with newspaper leaf? (1mark)
(ii) Why was the acid added into water and not vice versa? (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(iii) Explain the reason for tilting the beaker during addition of the acid into water. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(iv) Calculate the molar enthalpy of solution of concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid given that ∆T for
the reaction = 1oC. (Density of water = 1gcm-3; specific heat capacity of water = 4.2kJkg-1K-1).
(4 marks)

6 (a) Consider the electrochemical cell represented by the cell notation below, where X is an
unknown metal:
Pt(s) | Fe2+(aq), Fe3+(aq) || X+(aq) | X(s)
(The cell potential of this cell was found to be 0.03 V.
(i) Write down the type of electrochemical cell illustrated above. (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(ii) What does the single line (|) in the above cell notation represent? (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
(iii) Write down the half-reaction that takes place at the anode in the above cell. (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(iv) Given that:

Half reaction EƟ (volts)
Fe3+(aq) + e → Fe2+(aq) + 0.77
Ag+(aq) + e → Ag(s) + 0.80
Na+(aq) + e → Na(s) – 2.87
K+(aq) + e → K(s) – 2.92
Identify X with the aid of a calculation. (2 marks)

(b) The diagram below shows the apparatus that can be used to electrolyse dilute Sulphuric acid.
Study it to answer the questions that follow.
(i) Identify the gases H and G

I. H (1mark)
II. G (1mark)
(ii) What happens to the concentration of the Sulphuric acid during the process with time? Explain
(2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(iii) During the electrolysis a current of 0.72A was passed through the electrolyte for 15 minutes.
Calculate the volume of gas H produced. (1 Faraday = 96,500C, molar gas volume = 24 dm3 at
r.t.p). (3 marks)

7 (a) (i) What is a salt? (1mark)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(ii) Write the formula of any two double salts. (1mark)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(b) A student has found that her sample of potassium nitrate is contaminated with small amounts
of a green solid. She picks out a small piece of the green solid and finds that it is insoluble in
water.
(i)Describe how you would make a pure sample of potassium nitrate from the impure mixture.
(3marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
(ii) The student believes that the green solid is copper (II) carbonate. Describe a series of 3 tests
that the student could use to confirm this. (6 marks)
Test Procedure Observations Conclusion
1
2
(c) In an experiment 50g of a saturated solution of a salt X was heated to dryness in an evaporating
dish. The mass of crystals when weighed gave a reading of 2.7g. Determine the solubility of the
salt. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

SERIES 1 EXAM
CHEMISTRY
233/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2¼ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
CHEMISTRY CONFIDENTIAL
Each student requires
 80 cm3 of solution A prepared by dissolving 4.0g of NaOH in water made up to 1 litre.
 200cm3 of solution B which is 0.1M HCl.
 2.5 of a salt mixture prepared by mixing 1.5 g of sodium carbonate (Anhydrous) and 1.0g of
sodium chloride.
 One burette (50ml)
 One 25cm3 pipette
 Pipette filler
 Complete stand
 Filter funnel
 White tile
 3 conical flasks
 250ml volumetric flask.
 Labels (6)
 500ml distilled water in a wash bottle.
 200cm3 of solution S3 which is sodium thiosulphate of concentration 0.2 M
 80cm of 2m hydrochloric acid solution
 100ml empty glass beaker.
 One stop watch/ clock.
 white piece paper
 One 50ml measuring cylinder
 About 2g of solid D (A mixture of ammonium sulphate and zinc sulphate in the ratio 1:1).
 About 5cm3 of liquid B which is absolute ethanol
 Two red litmus paper.
 One metallic spatula.
 About 1g of solid sodium hydrogen carbonate
 Test- tube holder.
 One boiling tube
 Seven clean dry test tubes.
Provide access to:

 Means of heating
 Phenolphthalein indicator
 Methyl - indicator
 Acidified potassium dichromate (vi) solution.
 2m nitric (V) acid solution
 2m Barium nitrate solution
 2m ammonia solution.
 2m sodium hydroxide solution.
 2m lead nitrate solution
Note: The solution should be supplied with droppers.

SERIES 1 EXAM
CHEMISTRY
(PRACTICAL)
233/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2¼ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
(a). Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(b). Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
(c). Answer ALL question in the spaces provided in the question paper.
(d). You are not allowed to start working with the apparatus for the first 15 minutes of the 2¼
hours allowed for this paper. This time is to enable you read the question paper and make sure
you have all the chemicals and apparatus you may need.
(e). Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used.
(f). All workings MUST be clearly shown where necessary.

Questions Maximum score Candidates score
1 18
2 6
3 16
40
Answer ALL question in the spaces provided
1. You are provided with:
 Solution A, containing 4.0gdm-3 of sodium hydroxide
 Solution B, hydrochloric acid
 2.5 g of a mixture of two salts, XCl (RFM 58.5) and X2CO3 (RFM 106)
You are required to:
(i) Standardize solution B, hydrochloric acid.
(ii) Determine the mass composition of the salt mixture
PROCEDURE 1
1. Fill the burette with solution B
2. Pipette 25 cm3 of solution A into a clean dry conical flask. Then add 2 -3 drops of
phenolphthalein indicator.
3. Titrate solution A solution with solution B. Record your results in the table below.
4. Repeat the procedure two more times to retain concord and values.
TABLE 1 (3 marks)
Titration number 1 2 3
Final burette reading (cm3)
Initial burette reading(cm3)
Volume of acid used (cm3)
(a) Calculate the average volume of solution B used. (1mark)
(b) Find;
(i) Moles of sodium hydroxide that reacted with the acid. (2 marks)

(ii) Moles of hydrochloric acid present in the average volume. (1mark)
(iii) Molarity of the acid (1mark)
PROCEDURE II
1. Put about 100cm3 of water in a 250ml volumetric flask add all the 2.5g of salt mixture. Shake
the mixture to dissolve and the solid. Top up the solution to the mark with distilled water Label
this solution C
2. Fill this burette with solution B.
3. Pipette 25c m3 of solution C and put it into a clean conical flask. Add 3 drops of methyl orange
indicator.
4. Titrate solution C with solution B. Record your results in the table below.
5. Repeat the titration two more times
TABLE II (3 marks)
TITRATION 1 2 3
Final burette reading (cm3)
Initial burette reading (cm3)
Volume of solution B used (cm3)
(c) Calculate the average volume of solution B (1mark)

(d) Calculate the number of moles in the hydrochloric acid used (1mark)
(e) The equation for the reaction of the acid with one of the salts in the mixture is:
2HCl(aq) + X2CO3(s) → 2XCl(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
Calculate;
(i) Moles of X2CO3 that reacted with the acid in the experiment (1mark)
(ii) Molarity of X2CO3 (2 marks)
(f) Calculate the mass of the salt mixture in gdm-3. (1mark)
(g) Calculate the percentage of XCl in this mixture (2 marks)

2. In this experiment, you’re required to determine the time takes for a precipitate to be formed
when S3 which is sodium thiosulphate solution, reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
PROCEDURE
1. Using a measuring cylinder measure 50cm3 of S3 into a 100ml beaker.
2. Make a pencil cross on a white piece of paper so that when a beaker is placed top of the paper ,
the cross can be seen through the bottom of the beaker.
3. To solution A add 10 cm3 of 2M hydrochloric acid and at the same time start a stop watch / stop
clock. Swirl the contents of the beaker twice and then place it over the cross on the paper. Look
at the cross from above the beaker through the mixture. Stop the stop watch immediately the
precipitate makes the cross invisible. Record time taken for the cross to become invisible in the
table below, rinse beaker.
4. Repeat the procedure with solutions B, C, D and E as per the table.
SOLUTION Volume of solution Volume of water Volume of 2M Time taken in

S3 in the beaker added (cm3) HCl seconds
(cm3)
A 50 0 10
B 40 10 10
C 30 20 10
D 20 30 10
E 10 40 10
(a) Plot the graph of volume of solution S3 (y – axis) against time (4 marks)
(b) From the graph state the relationship between concentration of solution S3 and time.(1mark)
(c) Why is water added to the solution S3? (1mark)

3. You’re provided with solid D. Carry out the tests shown below on the solid.
(a) Heat a spatula full of D in A clean dry test – tube.
OBSERVATIONS INFERENCES
(1mark) (1 mark)
(b) Put a spatula end- full of D in a boiling tube. Half fill it with water. shake this mixture
(1mark) (1 mark)
(c) Divide the resultant mixture in (b) above into 5 portions
(i) To the first portion add dilute nitric acid followed by a few drops of Barium nitrate
(1mark) (1mark)
(ii) To the second portion, add nitric acid a few drops followed by lead (II) nitrate and then
warm the mixture.
(1mark) (1 mark)
(iii) To the third portion, add sodium hydroxide solution drop wise until in excess. Warm this
mixture. Test any gas produced withy Litmus paper
(1 mark) (1mark)
(d) You are provided with liquid B. Carry out the tests shown below and write your observations
and inferences in the spaces provided.
(i) To about 1cm3 of liquid B in a test – tube, add about 1cm3 of distilled water and shake the
mixture.
(1mark) (1 mark)

(ii) To about 1cm3 of liquid B in a test tube add a small amount of solid sodium hydrogen
carbonate
(1mark) (1 mark)
(iii) To about 2cm3 of liquid B in A test – tube, add about 1cm3 of acidified potassium
dichromate (VI). Warm the mixture gently and allow it to stand for about one minute.
(1mark) (1mark)
SERIES 1 EXAM
PHYSICS
(THEORY)
232/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
 This paper consists of two sections A and B
 Answer ALL the questions in sections A and B in the spaces provided.
 All workings must be clearly shown. Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may
be used
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY
SECTION Questions Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
A 1-13 25
14 11
B 15 15
16 14
17 15
TOTAL SCORES 80

SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer ALL the questions in this section in the spaces provided
1. (a) Draw a diagram to represent a scale of a micrometer screw gauge of thimble scale 50
divisions and reading 3.68mm (2mks)
(b) Determine the actual reading if the micrometer screw gauge above has a zero error of 0.03mm.
(1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Figure 1 shows a bimetallic strip made of brass and iron. A marble is placed at end A of the
bimetallic strip as shown below:-
Fig.1
State and explain what will be observed when the bimetallic strip is strongly cooled (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. State why braking systems use liquid and not gases. (lmk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Figure 2 shows the level of mercury and water in a beaker.
Fig. 2
Explain the difference in the shape of the meniscus (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Mercury –in-glass barometer shows a height of 70 cm. What height would be shown in the
barometer at the same place if water density 1.0 x 103kg/m3 is used. (Density of mercury =
13600kgm-3) (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Sea water of density 1.04 g/cm3 is being pumped into a tank through a pipe of uniform cross-
sectional area of 3.142cm2. If the speed of water in the pipe is 5 m/s, determine the volume flux
in S.I units (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. Figure 3 shows a uniform rod AB which is 40cm long. It has a mass of 2kg and pivoted at C. If
2N is acting at point B, and 30N force is passed through a frictionless pulley.
Fig. 3
Find the force (x) acting at end A (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. Sketch on the axis provided below a velocity - time graph of a motion of a stone thrown vertically
upward from the edge of a platform and eventually the stone lands without bouncing on the
ground below the platform. (1mk)
9. Figure 4 shows two light sheets of paper arranged as shown.
State what is observed if strong air is blown at the same time behind paper Q and in front of paper
R as shown (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. A glass stopper is weighed in air then immersed wholly in water and reweighed. The readings
obtained are 2.5N in air and 2.0N in water. Given that the density of water is 1000kg/m, calculate
the density of the stopper. (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. State two physical quantities that remain constant while pure ice is being converted to water.
(2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. State the reason why thermal conductivity of a metal increases with the increase in the cross-
section area of the conductor? (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. State any two characteristics of an ideal gas. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. On the grid provided, sketch a graph of mechanical advantage against load for a pulley system
used to lift a load. (1mk)
SECTION B (55 MARKS)

Answer all the questions in this section.
15. (a)Explain why a gas exerts increased pressure when it is compressed into a small space. (2mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) State the law that relates the volume of a gas to the temperature of the gas. (lmk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) A balloon is filled with air to a volume of 200 cm3 at a temperature of 293K. Determine volume
when the temperature rises to 353K at the same pressure. (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) To verify Boyle’s law a set-up consisting of a U-tube was made as shown in the figure 8 below.
The tube contains mercury with air in the sealed end.
(i) Explain what is observed when more mercury is added. (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Suggest a method used to maintain the temperature of air constant in the experiment. (lmk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) (i) Explain why Boyle’s law would not hold for gases such as methane. (lmk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Sketch the graph of pressure against volume for an ideal gas. (1mk)
16. a) A lead shot of mass 40 g is tied to a string of length 70cm. It is swung vertically at 5 revolutions
per second. Determine;
(i) Periodic time, (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Angular velocity (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Linear velocity (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) Maximum tension in the string. (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) The graph figure 5 shows displacement –time graph of an object in motion.
Fig. 5
(i) Determine the instanteous velocities at t = 1second and at t = 4 seconds (4mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Use the results in (b)(i) above to determine the acceleration of the body (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. a) State the Archimedes’s principle. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) You are provided with the following apparatus;
• A spring balance
• A small piece of metal
• Eureka can
• A beam balance
• A string
• A beaker
• A retort stand
• Some water.
With the aid of a well labeled diagram, describe an experiment you would perform in the laboratory
using the above apparatus to verify Archimedes’s principle for a totally immersed body. (7mks)
(c) A simple hydrometer has a cylindrical cross-sectional area of 2.0 cm2 and a mass of 15 g. What
length of the hydrometer is immersed when it floats on water of density 1.0 g/cm3? (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) Figure 6 shows a balloon which is filled with hot air to a volume of 200 m3. The weight of
the balloon and its contents is 2200N.
Fig.6
(i) Determine the upthrust on the balloon (density of air 0.0012g/cm3) (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
18. (a) State two ways in which freezing point of ice can be lowered. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Figure 6 illustrates an experiment in which electrical energy is used to determine specific
latent heat of fusion.
(i) Complete the circuit to show connection of the essential circuit components. (2mks)
(ii) Describe how the experiment can be used to determine the latent heat of’ fusion of ice. (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) A block of metal of mass 150g at 100oC is dropped into a logged calorimeter of heat capacity
40Jk-1 containing 100g of water at 25oC. The temperature of the resulting mixture is 34 oC.
(Specific heat capacity of water = 4200J/KgK)
Determine;-
(i) Heat gained by calorimeter (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Heat gained by water (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Heat lost by the metal block (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv)Specific heat capacity of the metal block (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
END

SERIES 1 EXAM
PHYSICS
(THEORY)
232/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
 This paper consists of two sections A and B
 Answer ALL the questions in sections A and B in the spaces provided.
 All workings must be clearly shown. Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may
be used.
Take h= 6.63 x 10-34 Js
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION Questions Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
A 1-11 25
12 09
B 13 05
14 15
15 14
16 12
TOTAL SCORES 80
SECTION A: 25 MARKS
1. Figure 1 shows two mirrors inclined at an angle of 30 o to each other. A ray of light is incident
on one mirror as shown
Fig. 1
Sketch the path of the ray to show its reflection on the two mirrors (2mks)
2. Figure 2 below shows two pith balls A and B hanging from nylon threads and brought close to
negatively charged rod. Pith ball A is uncharged while B is charged.
Fig. 2
It is observed that both pith balls A and B are attracted to the charged rod.
i) State the charge on B (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Explain the reason why pith ball A is attracted (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Show the charge distribution on the pith balls (1mk)
3. Figure 3 shows the path of a ray of light CB passing from glass to air.
Fig. 3
Complete the diagram to show the path of the ray of light AB after it emerges from the glass showing
the angle calculated. (3mks)
4. Figure 4 shows water waves moving towards barrier.
Fig. 4
i) State the property of wave under investigation. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Show the emergence of the reflected wave after passing the opening (1mk)
iii) State why passing of light through narrow opening is a very rare phenomenon (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Figure 5 shows an object in front of a concave mirror and its image.
Fig. 5
Locate position of its principal focus and label it as F (2mks)
6. Figure 6 shows a trace obtained from a CRO with the time base switched on.
Fig. 6
Draw a circuit diagram that can be used to produce the wave above (2mks)

7. A boy opened up a used-up dry cell and found the following:
i) The zinc casing was ‘eaten away’
ii) The cell was watery
Name the cell defect (1 mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. State two uses of microwaves (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. Figure 7 shows a wave profile.
Fig. 7
Determine the frequency of the wave (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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10. Below is a nuclear reaction.
i) Identify radiation K (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Determine the value of X and Y (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. Figure 8 shows a bar of soft iron placed near a magnet.
SOFT IRON N S
Fig. 8
On the same diagram, sketch the magnetic field pattern due to the set up (2mks)
SECTION B. (55 MARKS)

12. a) Figure 9 shows an object, a screen and light sources X, Y and Z.
Fig. 9
i) Complete the diagram to show the formation of a shadow (2mks)

ii) State one property of the object that makes it possible for its shadow to be formed (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Explain why it is impossible to obtain a sharp edged shadow of the object (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) (i) The length of a pinhole camera is 20cm. Determine the height of a sloppy building 300m away
from a pinhole camera which forms an image 2.5cm high on the screen of the camera. (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(ii) A student decided to use a nail to make the hole of the camera mentioned above. State two
possible characteristics of the image formed (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. Figure 10 shows an X-ray tube.
Fig. 10
i) Explain the use of part labelled B and C (2mks)
B: …………………………………………………………………………………………………….
C:……………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Explain how the X-rays are produced. (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Why is it necessary to maintain a vacuum inside the tube? (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. a) What is meant by the term electromotive force of a cell? (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Battery of e.m.f. 12 V supplies a current of 10 A flows through it for 5 minutes. Determine the
amount of electrical energy produced. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Figure 11 shows a graph of resistance against reciprocal of current. Use it to answer the questions
that follow.
Fig. 11
i) Find the internal resistance, r. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Determine the e.m.f, E of the cell. (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Draw a circuit diagram to show the set-up used to generate the above graph (2mks)
d) i) Draw a circuit diagram to show how a 12V battery may be used to operate efficiently 3
headlamp bulbs each marked 6V, 24W. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) Calculate the current supplied by the battery in (d) above. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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iii) Calculate the total effective resistance of the bulbs in (i) above. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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15. a) State what is meant by the term electromagnetic induction. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Figure 12 shows a simple electric generator
Fig. 12
i) Name the parts labelled X, Y and Z. (3mks)
X:……………………………………………………………………………………………….
Y:………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Z:…………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Show the direction of induced current along BC (1mk)
iii) Sketch on the axes provided, a graph to show how the magnitude of the potential difference
across R, changes with the time t for one rotation of the coil when it starts from horizontal position
(1mk)
iv) State the effect of using a magnet with curved poles as shown in the diagram (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) In a transformer, the ratio of primary turns to the secondary turns is 2:20. A current of 500 mA
flows through a 400 ohms resistor in the secondary circuit. Assuming that the transformer is
100% efficient, determine:
i) the secondary voltage (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) the primary voltage (2mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) the primary current. (2mks)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. I. Figure 13 shows a graph of photoelectric current against frequency. Use it to answer
Fig. 13
a) What does the term fo stand for in the graph above? (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Explain what the graph shows in terms of photoelectric emission. (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
II. The work function of a metal is 6.4 x 10-19 J.

a) Explain what is meant by the term work function (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Light with a frequency of 1.2 x 1015 Hz is shone onto the metal surface. Find out whether or not
the photons of this light will cause the photoelectric effect to take place. (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) The light source is now replaced with a light source which produces light with a frequency of 1.5
x 1015 Hz. The photons from this source contain more energy than is required to release electrons.
i) Determine the extra energy available after the electron has been released. (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) What is the extra energy calculated above converted to? (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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END

SERIES 1 EXAM
PHYSICS
232/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2½ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
CONFIDENTIAL
Question 1
Each candidate would require:- Question 2
Each candidate would require:-
 Two metre-rules.  A metre rule
 A stopwatch.  Some plasticine
 A half metre rule.  Bi convex lens (Focal length 20.0 cm)
 Two retort stands, two bosses and two  A candle
clamps.  A lens holder
 Some sewing thread.  Across wire mounted on a cardboard
 A pendulum ball.  A white screen
 A piece of knitting thread.  2 new dry cells size D
 A rectangular stiff paper labelled M.  A cell holder.
 One l00g mass.  One 100cm resistance wire mounted on
 A funnel. millimeter scale.
 A pendulum ball.  1 switch
 1 Voltmeter 0 - 3V.
 1 Ammeter 0— 1A,
 8 connecting wires (4 with at least 1
crocodile clip).
SERIES 1 EXAM
PHYSICS
232/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:-
 Write your name, index number and school in the spaces provided above.
 Answer all the questions in the spaces provided above.
 You are supposed to spend the first 15 minutes of the 2 ½ hours allowed for this paper reading the
whole paper carefully before commencing your work
 Marks are given for a clear record of the observations actually made their suitability, accuracy
and the use made of them.
 Candidates are advised to record their observations as soon as they are made.
 Non- programmable silent calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be used.
QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1 20
2 20
40

QUESTION ONE
This question consists of two parts A and B; attempt both parts.
PART A
You are provided with the following:
- Two metre-rules.
- A stopwatch.
- A half metre rule.
- Two retort stands, two bosses and two clamps.
- Some sewing thread.
- A pendulum ball.
Proceed as follows:
(a) Clamp one metre rule horizontally on the two stands so that it is on a vertical plane. Suspend the
second metre rule so that it balances on one point as shown in figure 1 below. Note the balance
point as the centre of gravity of the metre rule. Let this be point A.
Fig.1
(b) Set the length of the string on which the metre rule is suspended to be 30cm. Tie a second support
to the metre rule a distance D from the string. Let the point of support be point B
(c) Suspend the pendulum ball with a string a distance L from B and set the length of the string to
20cm. See figure 2 below.
Starting with a distance D = 15cm, and distance L = 25 cm. displace the hanging metre rule on a
horizontal plane and record the time taken for it to make 20 complete oscillations on table 1.
(d) Repeat part (c) above for other values of D and complete the table 1 below.(5mks)
Table 1
D (cm) Time for 20 Periodic time (T) T2 (s2)
oscillations (s) (s)
15
20
25
30
35
40
e) On the grid provided, plot a graph of D (cm) against T2 (S2). (5mks)

(f) Determine the slope of the graph at D= 25cm. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(g) Use your graph to determine the periodic time when the length of distance D is 33cm.(2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
PART B
You are provided with the following:
- A metre rule (use one used in part A).
- A piece of knitting thread.
- A rectangular stiff paper labelled M.
- One l00g mass.
- A funnel.
- A pendulum ball (use one used in Part A).
- A stopwatch (use one used in Part A).
Proceed as follows:
(h) Tie the pendulum ball tightly with the knitting thread and after passing the other end of the thread
through the funnel and the marker (marked M) as shown in figure 3 below, tie it to a l00g mass.
Push the marker to be about 1cm from the funnel after adjusting the length of the thread from the
funnel to the pendulum ball to be 30cm.

Fig. 3
i) Hold the funnel vertically. Swing the pendulum ball around so that it moves in a constant
horizontal circle with a uniform circular motion. The marker should be just below the funnel
but not touching it. Measure the time taken by the Pendulum ball to make 10 complete
revolutions and repeat this 3 times and complete the table below.(3mks)
Table 2
Trial Time for 10 revolutions Periodic time T (S)
(S)
1.
2.
3.
j) Find average T.
T= (1mk)
k) Given that W = 2𝜋/𝑇 where W is the angular velocity of the pendulum ball, determine W.
(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. PART A
You are provided with the following apparatus
• A metre rule
• A log of plasticine
• Bi convex lens
• A candle
• A lens holder
• Across wire mounted on a cardboard
• A white screen
(a) Determine the average focal length, f of the lens using a distance
object.
f=… ……………………………………………………………………………………….(1mk)
b) Set up the apparatus as shown.
Fig. 4
(c) Starting with u=30cm, vary the position of the screen S until a sharp image of the cross wire is
observed on the screen. Measure and record the value of the image distance v.
(d) Repeat the experiment above for other values of u35cm, 40cm, 50cm, and 55cm and fill the table
below
(4mks)

U (cm) 30 35 40 45 50 55
V(cm)
𝑚 = 𝑣/𝑢
e) Plot a graph of M against v.

(4mks)

f) Determine the slope of the graph.
(3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
𝑣
g) The equation of the graph is given by 𝑚 = − 1 . Use the graph to obtain the value of f.
𝑓
(3mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
PART B
You are provided with the following apparatus.
-2 new dry cells size D
-A cell holder.
- One 100cm resistance wire mounted on millimeter scale.
- 1 switch
-1 Voltmeter 0 - 3V.
- 1 Ammeter 0— 1A,
- 8 connecting wires (4 with at least 1 crocodile clip).
- Resistor wire mounted on cardboard.

(h) Connect the circuit as shown below in figure 5
Fig 5
Record the reading of
(i) Ammeter, I=………………………………..A
(1mk)
(ii) Voltmeter, V=……………………………….V(1mk)
(iii) Given that 𝐾 = 𝑉/𝐼, find K (3mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SERIES 1 EXAM
MATHEMATICS
121/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Instructions to Candidates
(a) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of two sections; Section I and Section II.
(d) Answer all the questions in Section I and any five questions from Section II
(e) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces
provided below each question
(f) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
(g) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be
used, except where stated otherwise.

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total
Section II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total
Grand
Total

SECTION 1 (50 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in the space provided below each question
−12÷4−6×3+5×2
1. Evaluate without using mathematical tables or calculator (3marks)
8+(−5)÷2×(−4)
2. A three-digit number is such that twice the hundreds digit is more than the tens digit by 2.the
unit digit is thrice the hundred digit. When the digits are reversed, the number is increased by
594.Find the number. (4marks)
𝑥+4 5𝑥+20
3. Simplify − (3marks)
𝑥−4 𝑥 2 −16

4. The mass of maize flour to the nearest 10 grams is 8. 67kg.Determine the percentage error in
this measurement. (3marks)
5. Without using a calculator, solve for x in the equation 0.5𝑥 × 0.1251−𝑥 = 32. (3marks)
6. The velocity V m/s of a particle in motion is given by 𝑉 = 3𝑡 2 − 2𝑡 + 5.Calculate the distance

travelled by the particle between t= 2 seconds and t = 6 seconds. (3 marks)

7. Given that, the coordinates of two points P and Q are (2, 3, 5) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (6, 𝑘 − 1, 15)
respectively and that their position vectors are parallel, Calculate the value of |𝑷𝑸|. (4marks)
8. A dealer sells a mobile phone at a profit of 25%. The customer sells it to a friend at ksh 60,000,
making a profit of 20 %. Find the cost prize of the mobile phone. (3 marks)
9. A wall clock that gains 20 seconds after every hour was set to read the correct time on Tuesday
at 03 25. Determine the time the wall clock will read on Thursday 03 25 h. (3 marks)

10. A cylinder of radius 15 cm and height 24 cm is filled with water. A solid hemisphere of radius
7cm is submerged into the cylinder and removed. Find the change in height of water level in
the cylinder. (4 marks)
11. The average rate of depreciation in value of a laptop is 10% per annum. After three complete
years its value was ksh 35,000. Determine its value at the start of the three-year period. (3mks)
12. If 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 ∶ 7𝑥 − 𝑦 = 3: 2, 𝑐𝑎𝑙𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜 𝑥: 𝑦 (3marks)

13. State the inequalities that satisfy the region defined by R. (3marks)
sin(2𝜃+30)°
14. Solve for 𝜃 in the equation = 𝑡𝑎𝑛45° (3marks)
cos(3𝜃−40)°

15. The figure below shows a circle PQRS Centre O with SR produced to T.PQ//SR and ∠𝑄𝑆𝑅 =
55°.Calculate the size of∠𝑄𝑅𝑇. (3 marks)
P Q
O
55o
T
S
R
16. The scale of a map is 1: 200.Calculate the actual area of a triangular coffee field whose sides
are 6cm, 8cm and 10cm on the map. (3 marks)

Answer only five questions from this section.
17. A tower is on a bearing of 030o from a point P and a distance of 100m.From P, the angle of
elevation of the top of the tower is 15o and the angle of depression of the foot of the tower is 1o.
a). Calculate the height of the tower. (4 marks)
b). A point Q is on the same horizontal plane as point P. The tower is on a bearing of 330 ofrom Q
and a distance of 70 m. Calculate:
i) The distance from P to Q. (3 marks)
ii) The bearing of P from Q. (3 marks)

18.a) The diagram below shows a bucket in the shape of a frustum of a cone with diameters 36 cm
and 24 cm and a vertical height of 28 cm. The bucket contains water such that the diameter of
the water surface is 30cm. Calculate the volume of the bucket. (6 marks)
b) If the bucket above has a hole and 1.1 cm3 of water leaks out every 5 seconds and collects in a
cylindrical can of base radius and height 10 cm and 25 cm respectively. Calculate how long it
takes to fill the cylindrical can. (4 marks)

19. A piece of wire, 18 cm long is cut into two parts. The first part is bent to form the four sides of
a rectangle having length x cm and breath 1 cm.
a).State two expressions in terms of x only for the perimeter of the square and the rectangle.(2 mks
𝑥2
b).If the sum of the areas of the square and the rectangle is A cm2, show that 𝐴 = 16 − 3𝑥 +
4
(2 marks)
C). If A = 8𝑐𝑚2 , Solve the equation in (b) above for 𝑥, hence find the possible dimensions of the
two pieces of wire. (6 marks)

20. The distance between two towns P and Q is 300 km. A bus started at P at 10.30 am and
travelled towards town Q at 80 km/h. After 45 minutes a car started at Q and travelled to town
P at x km/h. The car met the bus after 1hour 20 minutes.
a) Determine the value of x. (3 marks)
b) Find the distance from P where the car met the bus. (2 marks)
c) At what time did the car meet the bus? (2 marks)
d) If t a shuttle started at P, 1hour after the car left Q for P. Calculate the speed to the nearest km/h
at which the shuttle should be driven in order to arrive at Q at the same time with the bus.
(3 marks)

21.a) Complete the table of values for the equation 𝑦 = 𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 − 6, given that −6 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 4.
(2marks)
x -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4
y 12 −6 22

b) Using a scale of 1cm to represent 2 units in both axes, draw the graph of 𝑦 = 𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 − 6 .
(3 marks)
c) Using the graph drawn above Solve the equation

i) 𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 − 6 = 0 (2 marks)
(ii) 𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 − 2 = 0 (3 marks)

22. A Business man is paid a commission of 5% on sales of goods worth over ksh 100,000. He is
paid a monthly salary of ksh 15,000 but 2% of his total earning is remitted as tax. In a certain
month he sold goods worthy khs 500,000.
a) Calculate his monthly net earnings that month. (5marks)
b) The following month, his monthly salary increased by 20%. His commission was increased to
10% but on goods worth over ksh 200,000. If his total earnings that month was ksh 64,800,
Calculate the money received from the sale of goods. (5marks)

23. The coordinates of two points A and B are (2, -3) and (-4, 5) and R is the mid-point of AB.
a) Determine the coordinates of R. (2 marks)
b) Find the equation of a straight line joining A and B, expressing it in the form 𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑐
where m and c are constants. (3 marks)
c) The straight line 𝐿1 𝑤ℎ𝑖𝑐ℎ 𝑖𝑠 𝑎 perpendicular bisector of AB meets the X-axis at T. Find the
coordinates of T. (3 marks)
d) If the straight line 𝐿1 is parallel to a line that passes through the point (-1, 6) and (a, 8), find a.
(2 marks)

1
24. Two inlet taps P and Q opened at the same time can fill a tank in 2 h. The two taps were
2
opened together at the same time and after 1 hour 10 minutes tap Q was closed and P continued
alone and filled the tank after a further 4 hours. Find:
a) The fraction of the tank filled by both taps for 1 hour. (1 marks)
b) The fraction of the tank filled by tap P after Q was closed. (2 marks)
c) The time which each tap working alone would have taken to fill the tank. (7 marks)

SERIES 1 EXAM
MATHEMATICS
121/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
(a) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of two sections; Section I and Section II.
(d) Answer all the questions in Section I and any five questions from Section II
(e) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces
provided below each question
(f) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
(g) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be
used, except where stated otherwise.

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total
Section II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total
Grand
Total

Answer all questions in this section.
1. Solve for x in the equation 2Sin2x - 1 = Cos2x + Sinx for 00x3600 (3marks)
3
2. (a) Expand (1 + ) 5 up to the fifth term (2marks)
𝑥
(b)Hence use your expansion to evaluate the value of (2.5) 5 to 3 d.p. (2 marks)
3. Complete the table below for y  8  2 x  x 2 for -4 ≤ x ≤ 2.

x -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2
y

Hence use trapezium rule with six strips to find the area of the region bounded by the curve and the
x- axis. (3marks)
4. Make p the subject of the formula (3 marks)

p  3u
e
y  3 xp
5. The figure below shows a rectangular based right pyramid. Find the angle between the planes
ABCD and ABV. V (3marks)
8cm
D C
3cm
A 4cm B

6. An object A of area 10cm2 is mapped onto its image B of area 60cm2 by a transformation
𝑥 4
whose matrix is given by P= { }. Find the possible values of x. (3 marks)
3 𝑥+3
7. Find the value of x in the equation

log10 5  2  log10 (2 x  10)  log10 ( x  4) (3marks)
8. The data below shows marks obtained by 10 students in a test.

71, 55, 69, 45, 65, 57, 71, 82, 55, 50. Calculate the standard deviation using an assumed mean of
60. (3marks)

9. Evaluate by rationalizing the denominator and leaving your answer in surd form. (3marks)
8
1  Cos45 0
10. The position vectors fof points A and B are 5i  4 j  6k and 2i  2 j respectively. A point X
divides AB in the ratio -3: 5. Find the coordinates of X. (3marks)
11. A closed box has a square base of side x metres and its height h metres. The total surface area
of the box is 24m2.
(a) Find the expression of h in terms of x.
(b) Hence find the value of x that would make the volume of the box maximum. (4 marks)

12. M varies directly as D and as the cube of V. Calculate the percentage change in M when V is
increased by 10% and D is reduced by 10%. (3marks)
13. Find the value of t if the gradient of the graphs of the functions y  x 2  x 3 and y  x  tx 2 are
1
equal at x  . (3marks)
3
14. The image of a point A, under the transformation represented by the matrix
 1  1
T =   is A’ (-2, 4)Find the coordinates of A (3marks)
0 2 

15. In the figure below, ABC is a tangent at B and CDE is a straight line. BED 50 0 , DEF  35 0
and ECB  25 0
F
E
350
500
D
x
z 250
A B C
Calculate the values of x and z. (2marks)
16. The equation of a circle is given by 4 x 2  4 y 2  8x  2 y  7  0

Determine the coordinates of the centre of the circle. (3marks)

SECTION II (50 MARKS)
Answer only five questions from this section
17. (a) Using a ruler and a pair of compasses only construct triangle ABC in whichAB = 6cm, BC
= 5.5cm and angle ABC = 600. Measure AC. (3marks)
(b) On the same side of AB as C, determine the locus of a point P such that angle APB = 60 0
(2marks)
(c) Construct the locus of R such that AR = 3cm (1mark)

(d) Identify the region T such that AR≥ 3cm and angleAPB≥ 600by shading
the unwanted part. (2marks)
(e) Determine point Q such that area of AQB is half the area of ABC and that
Angle AQB = 600. (2marks)

18. A sequence is formed by adding corresponding terms of an AP and GP. The first, second and
third terms of the sequence formed are 14, 34 and 78 respectively.
(a) Given that the common ratio of the GP is 3;
(i) Find the first term of the AP and GP and the common difference of the AP. (2marks)
(ii) Find the sixth term and the sum of the first six terms of the sequence. (3marks)
(b) The second and third terms of a geometric progression are 24 and 12(x + 1) respectively.
Find the whole number value of x and hence the first term given the sum of the first three terms of
the progression is 76. (5marks)

19. Income tax rate are as shown below.
Income (k£ p.a) Rate (Ksh per £)
1- 4200 2
4201 - 8000 3
8001 - 12600 5
12601 – 16800 6
16801 and above 7
Omari pays Sh. 4000 as P.A.Y.E per month. He has a monthly house allowance of Ksh. 10800 and
is entitled to a personal relief of Ksh. 1,100 per month. Determine;
(i) his gross tax p.a in Ksh (2marks)
(ii) his taxable income in k£ p.a (4marks)
(iii) his basic salary in Ksh. p.m (2marks)
(iv) his net salary per month (2marks)

20. The diagram below shows a sketch of the line y = 3x and the curve y  4  x 2 intersecting at
point P and Q.
P
N
O
(a) Find the co-ordinates of P and Q (4marks)
(b) Given that QN is perpendicular to the x-axis at N, calculate

(i) the area bounded by the curve y  4  x 2 , the x-axis and line QN. (2marks)

(ii) the area of the shaded region that lies below the x - axis (2marks)
(iii)the area of the region enclosed by the curve y  4  x 2 , the line y = 3x and
the y-axis (2marks)

21. The positions of two towns A and B are (500N, 450W) and (500N, K0W) respectively. It takes a
1
plane 5 hours to travel from A to B at an average speed of 800knots. The same plane takes 1
2
hours to travel from B to another town C at the same average speed. Given that C is to the north
of B, calculate to the nearest degree,
(a) The value of K (4marks)
(b) The latitude of C (3marks)
(c) If the plane started from A at 9.00am and flew to C through B, find the local time at C when the
plane arrived there. (3marks)

22. (a) Complete the table below for the equation y  x 3  2x 2 to 2 d.p (2marks)
X -3 -2.5 -2 -1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5
2x2 18 12.5 8 4.5 2 0 1 4.5
X3 -27 -8 -1 0 1
y -9 0 1 0 2
(b) On the grid provided, draw the graph of y  x 3  2x 2 for -3 ≤ x ≤ 1.5. Take a scale of 2cm to
represent 1 unit on the x- axis and 1cm to represent 1unit on the y – axis. (3marks)

(c) Use your graph to solve
(i) x 3  2 x 2  0 (2marks)
(ii) x 3  2 x 2  x  2  0 (3marks)

23. The table below shows the marks obtained by 47 students in a mathematics test.
Marks 31 – 35 36 – 40 41 – 45 46 – 50 51 – 55 56 - 60
No. of candidates 4 6 12 15 8 2
(a) On the grid provided, draw a cumulative frequency curve. (3marks)

(b) Use your graph to estimate
(i) The median (2marks)
(ii) The semi interquartile range (2marks)
(c) In order to pass the test a candidate had to score more than 40 marks. Calculate the percentage
of candidates who passed. (3marks)

24. In the triangle OPQ below, OP = p and OQ = q. R is a point on PQ such that PR: RQ = 1 : 3
and 5OS = 2 OQ. PS intersects OR at T.
O
p S
q
T
P R Q
( a ) Express in term of p and q

(i) OS (1mark)
(ii) PQ (1mark)
(iii) OR (2mark)
(b)Given that OT= hOR and PT = kPS. Determine the values of h and k. (6marks)

THE END
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KCSE ACHIEVERS MOCK

Mathematics, English, Kiswahili, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, CRE, Geography,

For Marking Schemes

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

3. a) State the failure of King Saul. (6 mks)

4 a) State seven roles of prophets in the Old Testament. (7 mks)

5 a) Outline the suffering of Jeremiah during his prophetic Ministry. (6 mks)

6. a) State the traditional African understanding of Spirits. (5 mks)

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

2. a) Describe the temptations of Jesus in the wilderness. ( 7 mks)

3. a) Identify the six components of the Lord’s prayer. ( 6 mks)

6. a) Outline the Traditional African concept of wealth. ( 7 mks)

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

FOR EXAMINER USE ONLY

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

FOR EXAMINER USE ONLY

SECTION B (45 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

21. (a). State five causes of Maji-Maji rebellion (1905-1907). (5 mks)

SECTION C (30 marks)

23. (a). State three principles of Arusha declaration of 1967. (3 mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

2. (a) Name two agricultural food processing industries in Kenya. (2 marks)

Name the Hydroelectric power (H.E.P) stations marked P and Q. (2 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

(a) (i) Identify the method of fishing shown below. (1 mark)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

(a) Identify the type of graph above. (1 mark)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

3. ORAL SKILS ( 30 MARKS)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

d) Why must a judge be fearless? (2 marks)