1.

Social facilitation is the phenomenon where people tend to perform better when:
a) they are alone
b) they are surrounded by other people
c) they are being observed by someone they respect
d) they are being observed by someone they dislike

2. According to the Yerkes-Dodson Law, the presence of others tends to enhance performance
on:
a) easy tasks
b) difficult tasks
c) both easy and difficult tasks
d) neither easy nor difficult tasks

3. Which of the following tasks is most likely to be affected by social facilitation?

a) a simple motor task
b) a complex cognitive task
c) a task that requires creativity
d) a task that requires sustained attention

4. The presence of others tends to lead to improved performance on tasks that are:
a) novel and unfamiliar
b) routine and well-practiced
c) physical and athletic
d) abstract and theoretical

5. Which of the following is NOT a possible explanation for why social facilitation occurs?
a) the presence of others creates arousal, which enhances performance
b) the presence of others distracts people from their task, reducing performance
c) the presence of others increases self-awareness, which enhances performance
d) the presence of others increases the pressure to conform, which enhances performance

6. Social loafing is the tendency for people to:

a) work harder in groups than they do alone
b) work less hard in groups than they do alone
c) work the same amount in groups as they do alone
d) avoid working altogether when in a group

7. Which of the following is NOT a factor that can contribute to social loafing in groups?
a) a lack of individual accountability
b) a sense of diminished responsibility
c) a belief that others will pick up the slack
d) a high level of group cohesion
8. Which of the following strategies can be used to reduce social loafing in groups?
a) increasing the size of the group
b) increasing the level of competition between group members
c) making individual contributions more identifiable
d) increasing the level of anonymity among group members

9. The Ringelmann Effect is the phenomenon where:

a) the presence of others leads to enhanced performance
b) the presence of others leads to reduced performance
c) individual performance is improved by group feedback
d) group performance is improved by individual feedback

10. According to Tuckman's Group Development Stages, during which stage of group
development do group members establish ground rules and roles?
a) Forming
b) Storming
c) Norming
d) Performing

11. Which of the following is a common issue that can arise during the storming stage of group
development?
a) Lack of focus on group goals
b) Too much conformity among group members
c) Resistance to group norms and rules
d) Overreliance on the leader for direction

12. Which of the following is a key characteristic of the performing stage of group
development?
a) Group members are highly independent and work primarily on their own tasks
b) Group members are focused on establishing norms and ground rules
c) Group members work collaboratively and efficiently to achieve their goals
d) Group members are likely to experience conflict and competition

13. Which of the following is a potential drawback of Tuckman's Group Development Stages
model?
a) It fails to account for the influence of external factors on group development
b) It assumes that all groups go through the same stages in the same order
c) It places too much emphasis on the role of the group leader
d) It does not provide guidance for how to resolve conflicts that arise during group
development

14. Group polarization refers to:

a) The tendency for groups to become more extreme in their decision-making after group
interaction
b) The tendency for groups to become more moderate in their decision-making after group
interaction
c) The tendency for groups to become more indecisive in their decision-making after group
interaction
d) The tendency for groups to become more impulsive in their decision-making after group
interaction

15. Which of the following is a potential cause of group polarization?

a) The presence of a strong, authoritative leader who encourages group members to take
extreme positions
b) The desire of group members to conform to social norms and expectations
c) The tendency of group members to engage in information sharing and mutual persuasion
d) The lack of clear goals or objectives for the group to achieve

16. The hidden profile task is used to study:

a) Groupthink
b) Social facilitation
c) Group polarization
d) Social loafing

17. In the hidden profile task, Option B is the better choice because:
a) It is the choice that is preferred by most group members
b) It is the choice that is easiest to implement
c) It is the choice that is most consistent with the group's established norms and values
d) It is the choice that is supported by information known only to individual group members

18. Groups are more likely to experience group polarization when:

a) Group members have high levels of confidence in their individual opinions and beliefs
b) Group members are encouraged to consider a wide range of perspectives and information
c) Group members have a strong sense of shared identity and belonging
d) Group members are actively discouraged from engaging in open discussion and debate

19. Upward social comparison refers to comparing oneself to individuals who are perceived as:
a) Inferior in some way
b) Similar in status and achievements
c) Superior in some way
d) Completely unrelated

20. Downward social comparison involves comparing oneself to individuals who are perceived
as:
a) Inferior in some way
b) Similar in status and achievements
c) Superior in some way
d) Completely unrelated
21. Which of the following is a likely consequence of upward social comparison?
a) Increased self-esteem
b) Decreased motivation
c) Enhanced well-being
d) Reduced feelings of envy

22. Downward social comparison is often associated with:

a) Feelings of inferiority
b) Increased self-criticism
c) Decreased life satisfaction
d) Heightened levels of jealousy

23. Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies upward social comparison?
a) A student compares their grades to those of their classmates who perform worse.
b) An athlete compares their performance to that of a world champion.
c) A person compares their salary to that of a colleague in a different field.
d) A musician compares their skill level to that of their bandmates.

24. According to the Self-Evaluation Maintenance Model (SEMM), individuals are more likely to
experience threat to their self-esteem when:
a) They perceive themselves as superior to others.
b) They perceive themselves as inferior to others.
c) They perceive others as similar to themselves.
d) They perceive others as completely unrelated to themselves.

25. The Self-Evaluation Maintenance Model (SEMM) suggests that individuals engage in self-
enhancing strategies when:
a) Their close friends achieve success in a different domain.
b) Their close friends fail in a similar domain.
c) Their close friends achieve success in a similar domain.
d) Their close friends are completely unrelated to their own achievements.

26. The concept of "relevance" in the Self-Evaluation Maintenance Model (SEMM) refers to:
a) The degree to which an individual is connected to others.
b) The perceived importance of a specific domain of achievement.
c) The level of competition between individuals.
d) The social status of the individuals involved.

27. According to the Self-Evaluation Maintenance Model (SEMM), individuals are more likely to
engage in social comparison when:
a) They have high self-esteem.
b) They have low self-esteem.
c) They perceive themselves as superior to others.
d) They perceive others as completely unrelated to themselves.

28. The Self-Evaluation Maintenance Model (SEMM) proposes that individuals engage in
reflection and comparison processes in order to:
a) Protect and enhance their self-esteem.
b) Suppress their self-evaluative tendencies.
c) Avoid comparisons with others.
d) Maintain a state of self-doubt.

29. The Dunning-Kruger effect suggests that individuals with low competence in a specific
domain are more likely to:
a) Overestimate their abilities in that domain.
b) Underestimate their abilities in that domain.
c) Seek feedback and guidance from experts.
d) Accurately evaluate their abilities in that domain.

30. The Dunning-Kruger effect is driven by a lack of:

a) Confidence in one's abilities.
b) Knowledge and expertise in a specific domain.
c) Cognitive biases and heuristics.
d) Social comparison and self-reflection.

31. According to the Dunning-Kruger effect, individuals with high competence in a specific
domain are more likely to:
a) Underestimate their abilities in that domain.
b) Overestimate their abilities in that domain.
c) Seek validation from others.
d) Engage in critical self-evaluation.

32. The Dunning-Kruger effect highlights a cognitive bias that can lead individuals to:
a) Recognize their limitations and seek improvement.
b) Exhibit accurate self-assessment across all domains.
c) Ignore feedback and disregard expert advice.
d) Maintain a balanced perspective on their abilities.