Ncert Books MCQ PDF With Answers

EBOOK
NCERT BOOKS MCQ
CONTENTS
Class-11 : Indian Constitution at Work (New) 2
Class-12 : Contemporary World Politics (New) 25
Class-11 : Indian Economic Development (New) 37
Class-11 : Indian Physical Environment (New) 48
Class-12 : Politics in India Since Independence (New) 58
Class-8 : Resource and Development (New) 67
Class-8 : Modern India 76
Class-11 : Indian Economic Development (New) 88
Class-9 : Story of Civilization(Old) 89
Class-6&7 : Ancient & Medieval India (Old) 97
Class-6 : Land and People (Old) 116
Class-9 : Contemporary India (New) 128
Goh Cheng Leong Test (MCQ) 138
Ancient India (Old & New) 141
Class-9 : Macro Economics (New) 144
Class-10 : Story of Civilization (Old) 153

UPSC Exam Study Materials
http://iasexamportal.com/study-kit
Class-11 : Indian Constitution at Work (New)
1. Free and fair elections are the key to functioning 3. “.. a future and more enlightened age will view
of a vibrant democracy. Consider the following with astonishment the absurd farce of...”
statements regarding elections in India and identify Above statements were mode in the context of:
the correct ones.
Code:
1. Ballot papers with name of all candidates in a
constituency were used for elections in India since a) Integration of Princely States
Independence. b) Linguistic reorganization of states.
2. This method was replaced by Electronic Voting c) Introduction of Universal Adult Franchise
machines starting from end of 1990s.
d) Establishment of secular India
3. Independent India’s first election was the largest
Ans. C.
of such an exercise in the world till then.
3. Match the following:
Code:
List-I List-II
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
A. Habeas corpus 1. The court finds that a
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
particular office holder is not doing legal duty and is
Ans. C. infringing on the right of an individual.
2. Read the statements below. They were written in B. Mandamus 2. The court orders that the
context of India after Independence. arrested person should be presented before it.
1. “... the biggest gamble in the history ...” C. Quo warranto 3. The court orders a lower
2. “Nehru will live to confess the failure of ...” court or another authority to transfer a matter
pending before it to the higher authority or court.
www.IASEXAMPORTAL.COM NCERT BOOKS MCQ 2

D. Certiorari 4. If the court finds that a C. Power of judicial review 3. British and
person is holding office but is not entitled to hold independence of the Constitution judiciary
that office, the court restricts that person from D. Principles of liberty, 4. Irish Equality and
acting as on office holder Fraternity Constitution
Code: E. The idea of Residual 5. United States powers
ABCD Constitution
a) 2 1 3 4 Code:
b) 2 1 4 3 ABCDE
c) 1 2 4 3 a) 3 4 2 5 1
d) 1 2 3 4 b) 3 4 5 2 1
ans. B c) 4 3 5 1 2
4. Which of the following statements is not correct? d) 4 3 2 1 5
1. The Constitution forbids employment of children ans. B
below the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs like 6. Match the following and choose the correct
factories and mines. answer from the codes given below:
2. The freedom of religion is not an unlimited right List-I List-II
as govt. can interfere in religious matters for rooting
out certain social evils. A. Freedom to criticize 1. Substantive treatment
of widows achievement
3. The Constitution allows conversions in India.
B. Taking decisions 2. Procedural in the
4. All minorities, religious or linguistic can set up Constituent achievement Assembly on the basis of
their own education institutions. reason, not self interest
Code: C. Accepting importance 3. Liberal of community in
a) 4 only b) 3 and 4 an individualism individual’s life
c) 3 only d) None D. Article 370 and 371 4. Attention to
ans. D requirements of a particular region.
5. Match the following: E. Unequal rights to 5. Neglect of women

regarding family gender justice property and
Provisions borrowed Constitution of different children
countries
Code:
A. Institution of the 1. Canadian speaker
and his role Constitution ABCDE
B. Directive principles of 2. French state policy a) 3 1 2 4 5

Constitution b) 5 1 2 4 3

c) 5 2 1 4 3
d) 3 2 1 4 5 9. Which of the following is not a reasonable
ans. D explanation of the conflict between the legislature
and the judiciary over different amendments?
7. Which of the following principles of secularism
are adopted in the Constitution of India? 1. Different interpretations of the Constitution are
possible
1. That state will have nothing to do with religion.
2. In a democracy, debates and differences are
2. That state will have close relation with religion. natural.
3. That state can discriminate among religions. 3. Constitution has given higher importance to
4. That state will recognize rights of religious certain rules and principles and also allowed for
groups. amendment by special majority.
5. That state will have limited powers to intervene in 4. Legislature cannot be entrusted to protect the
affairs of religions. rights of the citizens.
Code: 5. Judiciary can only decide the Constitutionality of
a particular law; cannot resolve political debates
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 b) 4 and 5
about its need.
c) 1, 4 and 5 d) All of the Above
Code:
ans. B
a) 2 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4
8. Identify the correct statements about the theory
c) 1, 3 and 5 d) 2, 3, 4 and 5
of basic structure.
ans. A
1. Constitution specifies the basic tenets.
10. 42nd Amendment was one of the most
2. Legislature can amend all parts of the
controversial Amendments so far. Which of the
Constitution except the basic structure.
following were the reasons for this controversy?
3. Judiciary has defined which aspects of the
1. It was made during National emergency and the
Constitution can be termed as the basic structure
declaration of that emergency was itself
and which cannot.
controversial.
4. The theory found its first expression in the
2. It was made without the support of special
Kesavananda Bharti case and has been discussed
majority.
in subsequent judgments.
3. It was made without ratification by state
Code:
legislatures.
a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 4
Code:
c) 1, 2 and 4 d) 2, 3 and 4
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 only
ans. B
c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3

ans. B 13. Consider the following statements and choose

the correct ones:
11. Who among the following are involved in 1. Federalism enhances the possibility of people
making amendment to the Indian Constitution. from different regions to interact without the fear of
one’s culture being imposed upon them by others.
1. Voters
2. Federal system will hinder easier economic
2. President of India transaction between two different regions that have
3. State legislatures distinct types of resources.
4. Parliament 3. A federal system will ensure that the powers of
those at the centre will remain limited.
5. Governors
Code:
6. Judiciary
Choose the correct answer from the codes given
below: c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
a) 2 and 4 only b) 3 and 4 only ans. B
c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
ans. C 14. Read the following statements given in list-I
and match them with the different jurisdictions that
12. Consider the following statements.
Supreme Court can exercise given in list-II.
1. The President cannot send back a constitutional
List-I
amendment bill for reconsideration to the
Parliament. A. The govt. wanted to know if it can pass a law
about the citizenship status of residents of Pakistan
2. Elected representatives alone have the power to
Occupied areas of Jammu and Kashmir.
amend the Constitution.
B. In order to resolve the dispute about the sharing
3. The judiciary cannot initiate the process of
of police forces with Telangana, the Government of
Constitutional Amendment but can effectively
Andhra Pradesh wants to approach the Court.
change the Constitution by interpreting it differently.
C. Court rejected the appeal of the people against
4. The Parliament can amend any section of the
the eviction from the dam site.
Constitution.
List-II
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
1. Original Jurisdiction
a) 1 and 4 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. Appellate Jurisdiction
c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) All of the above
3. Advisory Jurisdiction
ans. B
Code:

a) A-3, B-1, C-2 b) A-3, B-2, C-1 1. Indian Foreign Services

c) A-2, B-1, C-3 d) A-1, B-3, C-2 2. State Civil Services
ans. A 3. All India Services
15. There are different ways in which the 4. Central Services
independence of the judiciary is ensured. Which Code:
among the following statements is/are correct in
this regard: ABCD
1. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is consulted a) 2 3 4 1

in the appointment of other judges of Supreme b) 2 4 1 3
Court.
c) 4 2 3 1
2. Judges are generally not removed before the age
d) 2 4 3 1
of retirement.
ans. D
3. Judge of a High court cannot be transferred to
another High Court. 17. Which of the following statements is/are not
correct?
4. The Parliament has no say in the appointment of
judges. 1. First past the post system is followed for all the
elections in India.
Code:
2. Election Commission of India does not supervise
Panchayat and Municipal elections.
3. President of India cannot remove the Election
ans. C Commissioner.
16. Match the following item in List I with items in 4. Appointment of more than one Election
List II with the help of codes given below: Commissioners in the Election Commission is
List-I mandatory.
A. Works within the particular state in which Code:

recruited a) 2 and 4 only b) 1 and 3 only
B. Works in any central government office located c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2 and 3 only
either at the national capital or elsewhere in the
ans. B
county.
18. Which of the following is/are common with
C. Works in a particular state to which allotted; can
respect to the election of the members of the Rajya
also be sent on deputation to the centre.
Sabha and the Lok Sabha?
D. Works on Indian Mission abroad.
1. Every citizen above the age of 18 is an eligible
List-II voter.

2. Voter can give preference order for different c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) All of the above
candidates. ans. C
3. Every voter has equal vote. 21. Consider the following statements about the
4. The winner must get more than half the votes. Indian constitution and choose the correct ones:
Choose the correct answer from the codes given 1. Constitution makers were of the belief that there
below: can be no faults in the constitution as each
a) Only 3 b) Only 1 and 3 provision was deliberated in detail and passed
unanimously.
c) Only 1, 3 and 4 d) All of the above
2. Some provisions in Indian constitution were
ans. A temporary in nature.
3. There are different ways for amending Indian
19. Which of the following can be termed as a Constitution.
violation of Fundamental Rights? Code:
1. Not paying minimum wages a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
2. Banning of a book c) 2 and 3 only d) All of these
3. Banning of loudspeakers after 9 p.m. ans. C
4. Restriction on making a public speech 22. Indian Constitution was amended several times
Code: in history of independent India. Consider the
following statements and choose the incorrect
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
ones
c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) None of the above
1. Indian Constitution was amended maximum
ans. A during the period between 1960 to 1970
20. Consider the following statements. 2. 44th Amendment was a mini constitution in itself.
1. A Bill of Right lays down the rights enjoyed by the 3. 43rd and 44th amendment primarily sought to
people of a country. reverse the provisions in 38th, 39th and 42nd
2. A bill of Rights protects the liberties of an amendments.
individual. 4. The theory of basic structure is an example in
3. Every country of the world has a Bill of Rights. itself of a living constitution.
4. The Constitution guarantees remedy against Code:

Violation of Rights. a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 4 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? c) 1 and 3 only d) 3 and 4 only
a) 2 only b) 1 and 2 only ans. A

23. Consider the following statements and choose 2. The ideals enshrined in constitution are variously
the correct ones: interpreted and willfully manipulated at times to suit
1. Values and standards of constitution makers partisan interests.
should be used to study constitutions all over the 3. Constitution is a document which can work as an
world. arbitrator in a conflict of interpretation of values and
2. Liberalism always privileges rights of individuals ideals.
over demands of social justice and community Which of the above statements are correct?
values. a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
3. Reservation is against the ideal of classical c) 2 and 3 only d) All of these
liberalism.
ans. C
Code:
26. Consider the following statements about Indian
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only Constitution.
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above 1. Indian Constitution envisaged decentralized idea
ans. C of national unity.
24. Constitution is not an end in itself, but means to 2. Indian constitution comprehensively addressed
pursue the end, hence consider these statements all issues of gender justice.
and choose the correct ones. Which of the above statements are correct?
1. One of the needs of a constitution is to restrict a) Only 1 b) Only 2
the exercise of power by the state.
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 1
2. Constitutions are documents capable of social
transformation. 27. Consider the following statements in the
context of First Past the Post system of Election.
3. Constitutions cannot empower those who are
traditionally kept out of power. 1. Under this system, the Candidates who secured
more votes is declared elected.
Code:
2. First Past the Post system of Election is also
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only called the Plurality System.
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above 3. First Past the Post system of Election is not
ans. A prescribed in the Constitution.
25. India created a constitution which is very much Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
alive and strong even after 60 years of a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
independence. Consider the following statements
about the constitution. c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None of the above
1. Constitution is purely a legal document. 28. Consider the following statements in the
context of Local Governments.

1. The reservation of seats apply only to ordinary Jurisdiction, which is not available even forthe
members in Panchayats not to the positions of American Supreme Court.
Chairpersons or ‘Adhyakshas‘ 2. If the Supreme Court is approached for its advice,
2. The stipulated reservation of the seats for women then the court is bound to give the advice on the
is restricted to general category of seats not to the matter sought.
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. 3. Both the President and Council of Ministers are
Which of the above statements is/are correct? bound to act upon the advise tendered by the
a) 1 only b) 2 only Supreme Court.
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the above is/are correct?
29. Consider the following statements in the a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only

context of Jammu & Kashmir. c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Emergency due to internal disturbances can be
declared in J&K without the concurrence of the 31. Consider the following statements in the
State. context of Vice President of India.
2. While Directive Principles of the constitution 1. The Vice President is removed from the office
apply in J&K, the amendments to the Constitution through the process of impeachment.
can only apply in concurrence with the state.
2. The Loksabha has no role in the removal of
3. The Financial Emergency declared by the union Ex-officio Chairman of Rajyasabha.
government under article 368 of the constitution
cannot apply in J&K. 3. Dy. Chairman of the Rajyasabha acts as
Vice-President during his absence.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None of them
c) 2 only d) None of them
30. As per the Advisory Jurisdiction of the

Supreme Court, the President of India (Article 143) 32. Consider the following statements.
can refer any matter that is of public importance or 1. In the case of violation of the fundamental Rights,
that which involves interpretation of Constitution to the affected person can directly approach the
Supreme Court for advice. Consider the following Supreme Court only.
statements.
2. In the matters under the original jurisdiction of the
1. The Constitution of India has empowered the Supreme Court, the High Court cannot be
President to seek advise from Supreme Court, if he approached.
wanted it in any matter and it comes under Advisory

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

33. Consider the following statements. 36. Consider the following.
1. The Right to Property stands as a non 1. Promotion Uniform civil code.
enforceable Right now. 2. Prohibition of alcoholic liquor.
2. The Right to Property is a part of basic structure 3. Promotion of cottage industries.
doctrine of the Constitution.
4. Promotion of International peace.
3. Fundamental rights can only be changed by
effecting amendments to the Constitution. Which of the above are explicitly mentioned in the
Indian Constitution?
a) 1 3 and 4 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
37. Consider the following statements.

34. Consider the following statements in the
context of Council of Ministers. 1. Fundamental Duties of Citizens got inserted into
the Constitution by the 44th amendment Act in
1. If a no-confidence motion against a single 1976.
minister is passed, then the minister has to resign
but the council of ministers will remain. 2. Constitution empowered the states to adopt
mechanisms to enforce Fundamental Duties in
2. The resignation of the Prime Minister contingencies.
automatically brings down the Council of Ministers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 3. Constitution does not make the enjoyment of
some of the rights dependent upon the fulfilment or
a) 1 only b) 2 only conditional of duties.
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
35. Consider the following. a) 1 and 3 only b) 3 only
1. The Loksabha. c) 2 and 3 only d) None of them
2. The Rajyasabha. 38. Consider the following statements.
3. The State Legislative Councils. 1. The Constitution of India prescribed that the
4. The State Legislative Assemblies. senior-most judge of the Supreme Court shall be
Electoral College to elect Vice President of India appointed as the Chief Justice of India.
consist which of the above? 2. The Chief Justice of India shall be consulted by
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only the president while appointing Judges to the High
Courts.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 2. The ministers are bound to reply to the question
a) 1 only b) 2 only raised in the Zero Hour.
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. If a bill is presented, the President has to either
return or give assent in same session.
39. Consider the following statements in the
context of Panchayati Raj institutions. a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
1. The reservations for both SCs & STs are provided c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None of them
at all the levels of Panchayati Raj.
2. All the three levels of Panchayati Raj institutions 42. For conduction of free and fair elections,
are elected directly by the people. Election Commission of India was set up after
3. The terms of all the three levels of Panchayati Raj independence. Consider following statements and
institutions are coterminous. choose incorrect statements in the context of
elections.
1. Election Commission is a constitutional body to
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only supervise, direct and control all elections in India.
c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None of them 2. Country’s first general elections were conducted
in 1950.
40. Consider the following statements in the 3. Electronic Voting Machine method has been used
context of State Re-organization in India. in entire country since 2004.
1. The implementation of States Reorganization Code:
Commission Report was resulted in creating 15 new a) 3 only b) 1 and 2
states and six Union Territories.
c) 2 and 3 d) All the Above
2. While Gujarat and Maharashtra were created in
1966, the Punjab and Haryana were separated from
each other in 1960. 43. Planning Commission was set up to uptake the
Which of the above statements is/are correct? task of planned development of Indian economy.
Consider the following statements in this regard
a) 1 only b) 2 only and choose correct statement/s:
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Planning Commission is a statutory body set up
in March, 1950 by government of India
41. Consider the following statements in the 2. Bombay Plan – 1944, was the brainchild of
context of legislative business in our country. Congress working committee which provided a
blueprint for the planned economy for the country
1. In Zero Hour, members are free to raise any
matter that they think is important.

3. 1st five year plan had focussed on agrarian a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3

sector, investment in dams, irrigation and land c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
reforms
Code:
46. OBCs are the communities other than SC and
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 ST who suffer from educational and social
c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 backwardness. Choose the correct statement/s in
this regard.
44. Federal character has been adopted by Indian 1. Karpoori Thakur, was a pioneer in raising voice for
constitution. Consider following statements in this reservations for backward castes in North India.
regard and choose statements in this regard and 2. Mandal Commission was the first Backward
choose the incorrect statements. Class Commission since Independence, appointed
1. Constitution of India described India as a by Central Government.
federation in Article 1. 3. The decision to implement Mandal Commission
2. Economic and financial powers are decentralized recommendation was challenged in the Supreme
in character. Court in the famous ‘S R Bommai Case’.
3. Central government can delay state legislations. Code:
4. Executive powers of the states are equivalent to a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3

that of the centre. c) 2 and 3 d) 1 only
Code:
a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4 47. Making a constitution is not an easy and
c) 1, 3 and 4 d) None of the above smooth affair for any country. Nepal is an example
of a country who faced the complications and
challenges of constitution making.
45. Constitution is a document which provides for Choose the correct statement/s in this regard.
rules and regulations controlling the powers of the
government. Consider the following statements in 1. Since 1948, Nepal has had five constitutions in
this regard and choose the correct statements. 1948, 1951, 1959, 1962 and 1990.
1. Constitution is a document which announces 2. All these constitutions were granted by the King
political self determination. of Nepal.
2. Constitution prevents States from becoming Code:

tyrannical. a) 1 only b) 2 only
3. American Constitution declares itself as based on c) Both d) None
Philosophy of Ideal of Peace.
Code:

48. Which of the following is a conclusive reason Commission introduced through the 73rd and 74th
for saying that the authority of the constitution is amendments.
higher than that of the Parliament? 1. The State Election Commission would be
1. The Constitution was framed before the responsible for the elections of the local assemblies
Parliament came in to being. and the local bodies.
2. The Constitution makers were more eminent 2. The Commission will report to the Election
leaders than the members of the Parliament. Commission of India.
3. The Constitution specifies how Parliament is to 3. This commission will function as a
be formed and what are its powers. semi-autonomous body under the state
Code: government.
a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 Code:
c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only a) 1 and 3 b) 2 and 3
ans. D c) 1 and 2 d) All the above
49. Which of the following statement/s is/are

correct about Election Commission of India and its 51. Which of the following is a criterion for an area
members? to be declared as an ‘urban area’?
1. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) presides 1. A minimum population of 5000.
over the Election Commission, and has more power 2. At least 75 percent of the total working
than Election Commissioners. population engaged in non-agricultural occupations.
2. CEC and other Commissioners are appointed by 3. A density of population of at least 400 persons
the President of India on the advice of Council of per sq.km
Ministers.
Code:
3. They are appointed for a five year term or
continue till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. a) All the above b) 1 and 3
4. The CEC can be removed before the expiry of the c) 1 and 2 d) 2 and 3
term, by the President of India on the advice of the
Council of Ministers.
52. Consider the following statements about the
Code: 73rd amendment act and choose the correct one/s.
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only 1. The act provided for a three tier Panchayati Raj
c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 structure with Gram Sabha at the base.
2. The intermediary level body need not be
constituted in smaller states.
50. Choose the incorrect statements from the
following about the provision of State Election

3. Gram Sabha would comprise of all adult 4. Individual freedom includes freedom of
members registered as voters in the Panchayat expression, freedom of profession, freedom of
area. residence, freedom of movement.
Code: Code:
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 a) 1, 3 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 3 d) Only 1 c) 1 and 2 d) 3 and 4
53. Universal adult franchise and a strong 55. Elections are the most important events,
constitution are the prerequisites to ensure ensuring accountability of governments to the
fairness of democracy. Which among the following general public, in a democratic country. Which
statements is/are correct? among the following statements is/are not correct.
1. The concept of universal adult franchise was 1. Election Commission is a Constitutional body.
mentioned as early as the constitution of India Bill 2. Article 325 deals with superintendence, direction
1895. and control of election.
2. The Constitution of India Bill 1895 is the first 3. Election Commissioner have fixed terms and
official attempt at drafting a Constitution for India. tenures.
3. Motilal Nehru report 1928, mentioned the age of a 4. The Election Commissioners can be removed by
person as 21, he/she who is eligible to vote for the the President on the recommendation of the
house of Parliament. supreme court.
4. First country to implement universal adult Code:
franchise was Germany followed by Russia. Code:
a) 1, 2, 4 only b) 2, 3, 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 and 4 only
56. Consider the following statements about local
bodies in India
54. Which among the following statements is/are 1. Local government is government at state and
correct? district level.
1. State can prohibit criticism of executive action 2. It is a statutory body.
under the limitation to freedom of expression.
3. It came into existence in 1993.
2. Freedom of press is expressly mentioned in
Article 19 but has been held to flow from general 4. Local bodies in India are nominated bodies.
freedom of speech given to all citizen. a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 1, 2 and 3
3. Ram Mohan Roy protested against curtailment of c) 2, 3 and 4 d) All of above
freedom of the press.

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‌
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57. Local government strengthens the democratic 3. It is a subordinate office of Central Election
process by: Commissioner
1. By ensuring active participation of people since it 4. It is responsible for conducting elections to state
is closer to people and local government institutions
2. By bringing purposeful accountability. Which of above statements is/are correct?
3. Make justice delivery quicker and cost effective. a) 3 and 4 only b) 2, 3, 4
4. Brings about effective problem solving and c) 1 and 2 only d) None of above
people-friendly administration
Code: 60. Consider the following statements with respect
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 4 only to State Finance Commission.
c) 1, 2 and 4 d) All of above 1. It is a statutory body.
2. State Finance Commission is appointed by State
58. Consider the following statements about local Government once in every 5 years.
bodies in India. 3. It examines the financial position of local
1. Local bodies in India is a modern phenomenon government in the State.
created by amending the constitution in 1993. 4. It reviews the distribution of revenues between
2. Government of India Act 1919 established Village State & Local Government.
Panchayats in Provinces. Which of following statements are correct?
3. Government of India Act 1935 abolished local a) 2, 3 and 4 only b) 2 and 3
bodies in India. c) 2 and 4 only d) All of above
4. Lord Rippons resolution on democratic A. It is constitutional body
decentralization created local boards.
61. Our Constitution ensures that persons accused
Which of following statements are incorrect? of various offences would also get sufficient
a) 1 and 3 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only protection. In this context, which of the following
c) 2 and 4 only d) None of above statements is/are correct?
1. No person would be punished for the same
offence more than once.
59. Consider the following statements regarding
State Election Commission? 2. Law can declare any action as illegal
retrospectively.
1. It is appointed by the President in consultation
with the state government 3. No person shall be asked to give evidence against
himself or herself.
2. Creation of the State Election Commission is the
discretionary power of the state government

Select the correct answer using the codes given c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
below: 64. Consider the following statements about High
Code: Court:
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only 1. High Court can issue writs only for restoring
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 fundamental rights.
C. No ex-post facto legislation 2. Its decisions are binding on all courts.
62. The legislature in Parliamentary system 3. High Court can hear appeals from lower courts.
ensures executive accountability at various stages. Which of the following statements are correct?
The legislature does this through the use of variety a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3
of devices. Which among the following devices are
used in Parliamentary control over executive c) 3 only d) 2 and 3
1. Question hour
2. No confidence motion 65. Consider the following statements with respect
to Supreme Court of India:
3. Budget
1. Decisions made by the Supreme Court are binding
4. Adjournment motion on all other courts with in the territory of India
Which of the following statements are correct? 2. Supreme Court have no right to review its
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4 decision.
c) 1, 2 and 4 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. A person can appeal to the Supreme Court
ans. D against the decisions of High Court only if, High
63. The Indian Constitution has ensured the Court certify that the case is fit for appeal.
Independence of the judiciary through a number of Which of the following statements are correct?
measures. Consider the following: a) Only 1 b) 1 and 2
1. The legislature is not involved in the process of c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
appointment of judges
ans. A
2. Judiciary is not financially dependent on either
the executive or legislature 66. Which among the following is included in the
original jurisdiction of Supreme Court?
3. Parliament can never discuss the conduct of
judges 1. Dispute between centre and states
4. The judiciary has the power to penalise those who 2. Dispute between states
are found guilty of contempt of Court 3. Dispute in presidential election
Select the correct code: 4. Violation of fundamental rights
a) 1, 3 and 4 b) 1, 2 and 4 Which of the following statements are correct?

a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2 and 3 69. The Constitution under (Article 143) authorises

c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1 only the President to seek the opinion of the Supreme
Court. Consider the following:
ans. A
1. It is optional for the SC to express its opinion
67. The Chief instrument through which judicial under Article 143
activism has flourished in India is Public Interest
Litigation (PIL). Consider the following statement: 2. Opinion expressed by the Supreme Court is only
advisory and not a judicial pronouncement
1. PIL is in consonance with Article 39A of the
constitution Which of the following statements are correct?
2. In PIL, court can take suo moto cases a) 1 only b) 2 only
3. Hussainava Khatoon v/s State of Bihar is a c) 1 and 2 d) None

famous case in PIL
Which of the following statements are correct? 70. Consider the following about the nature of
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 executive existing in different countries?
c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Japan has a parliamentary system with the

emperor as the head of the state and Prime Minister
ans. D as head of government
68. The powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are 2. Germany has a presidential system
unequal to that of Lok Sabha. Consider the
following statements in this regard: 3. Russia has a semi-presidential system where
president is the head of the state and prime
1. A resolution for the discontinuance of the minister, who is appointed by the president is the
national emergency can be passed only by Lok head of government
Sabha
Which of the following statements are correct?
2. Rajya Sabha can not remove Council of Ministers
by passing a no-confidence motion a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3
3. Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
cannot vote on the demands for grants (which is the 71. USA practises a Presidential form of
exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha) government. Consider the following statements
Which of the above statements are correct? about Presidential system.
a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 1. President is the head of the state as well as head

of the government
c) 1 and 2 d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The President is usually directly elected by the
people
3. President is accountable to the legislature

Select the correct statements using the codes 74. Legislature is not merely a law making body. It
below: is at the centre of all democratic political process.
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 Consider the statement about the functioning of
parliament in light of this.
c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None of the above
1. The parliament has the power to amend the
constitution by a joint sitting of both the houses and
72. The Constitution of India vests the executive with a special majority
power of the Union formally in the President. 2. The judicial functions of the Parliament include
Consider the following statements. considering the proposals for removal of President,
1. The President is elected indirectly by all the Prime Minister, Vice-President and Judges of High
member of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and State Courts and Supreme Court.
Assembly Which of these statement/s are correct?
2. This election takes place in accordance with the a) Only 1 b) Only 2
List system
c) Both 1 and 2 d) None
3. The Prime Minister is not obliged to furnish the
information the President may call for Which of
these statements are not correct? 75. Parliamentary privilege is a legal immunity
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 enjoyed by members of legislatures, in which
legislators are granted protection against civil or
c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 criminal liability for actions done or statements
made in the course of their legislative duties.
Consider the following statements about this and
73. The constitution of India provides for a single
choose the incorrect ones.
integrated judicial system. This means that
1. The President has the final power in deciding
1. Unlike most of the other federal countries of the
matters of breach of privilege.
world, India does not have separate state courts.
2. The main purpose of such privileges is to enable
2. The structure of the judiciary in India is pyramidal
the members of the legislature to represent the
with the Supreme Court at the top, High Courts
people and exercise effective control over the
below them and district and subordinate courts at
executive.
the lowest level.
Code:
3. The lower courts function under the direct
superintendence of the higher courts. a) Only 1 b) Only 2
Code: c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 and 2 only b) All 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3 only d) None of the above 76. Indian Independence Act of 1947 made various
changes in the position of the Constituents
ans. C

Assembly. Consider the following statements in 1. Here the president is directly elected by the
this regard. people and the president and prime minister belong
1. Assembly was made a fully sovereign body, which to the same political party
could frame any constitution it pleased. 2. President has vast powers and he chooses the
2. Dual role of constituent assembly and parliament prime minister from party with majority in
was assigned to the Assembly. parliament.
3. Muslim League members withdrew from the 3. President is the head of the state,
constituent Assembly for India. commander-in-chief of armed forces and also head
of the government
Which among the above statements are correct:
4. The president is elected for a term of four years
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 and can be removed only by a resolution in
c) 3 only d) All the above parliament passed by the parliament with at least
2/3rd of total strength of the parliament
Code:
77. To provide independence to Judiciary the
removal of judges of the Supreme Court and High a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
Courts is made extremely difficult. In this context c) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 4
which of the following statement/s are correct.
79. The President of India has various legislative,
1. A judge of the Supreme of High Court can be judicial, and military powers as well as situational
removed only on the ground of proven misbehavior discretionary powers. Consider the following
(or) incapacity. statements in this regard and choose the correct
2. A motion containing the charges against the ones.
judge must be approved with by special majority in 1. The president has a right to be informed about of
both houses of the parliament. all important matters and deliberations of the
3. So far, no judge has been removed from the council of ministers.
office. 2. The president can send back the advice given by
Code: the council of minister and ask the council to
reconsider the decision
a) 1 only b) 1, 2 and 3
3. The president has the veto power by which he can
c) 1 and 2 only d) None
withhold or refuse to give assent to bills passed by
ans. B the parliament.
78. In 1978 the constitution of Sri Lanka was 4. The president is always bound by the advice of
amended and the system of executive presidency council of ministers.
was introduced. Consider the following statements
Code:
with respect to this find out the correct ones:
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2 and 3

c) 2, 3, 4 d) All the above c) 1 and 3 only d) None of the above

80. Trained and skilled officers who work as 82. Indian Constitution encourages equality and
permanent employees of government are assigned mutual-respect between different communities.
the task of assisting the ministers in formulating Consider following statements in this regard and
policies and implementing these policies. Which of choose correct statement/s if any.
the following statements regarding the permanent 1. Indian Constitution consider religion merely as a
executive are not correct. ‘private’ matter concerning the individual and so it
1. The administrative officers can act in violation of provides for secularism as a principle.
the policies adopted by the legislature only in cases 2. Indian Constitution provides that state should
of greater public interest. neither help nor hinder religions and religious
2. The bureaucracy is expected to be politically affairs.
aligned to the minsters. Code:
3. The bureaucracy is an instrument through which a) 1 only b) 2 only
welfare politics of the government must reach the
people. c) Both d) None
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 83. Even after the 73rd and 74th amendments, the
local bodies cannot really function in an effective
c) 1 and 3 d) All the above manner. Which of the following can be termed as
81. Many Provincial Congress Committees were the reasons for this?
created on the basis of linguistic zones, which did 1. Many states have not transferred most of the
not follow the administrative divisions of British subjects to the local bodies.
India. In light of this which among the following
statements are not correct? 2. People at the local level do not enjoy much
powers of choosing welfare programmes or
1. State Re-organisation Commission was allocation of the resources.
appointed in 1953 to look into the question of
redrawing of the boundaries of the States. 3. The dependence of local bodies on the State and
central governments for financial support.
2. State Re-organisation Commission wanted India
to be divided into states based on geographic Code:
contiguity. a) 1 and 3 b) Only 1
3. Statehood for Punjab was given in 1970 when the c) Only 2 d) All the above
territories of today’s Haryana and Himachal Pradesh
were separated from larger Punjab State.
Code:
procedure for amendment of the Constitution of
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only India and choose the correct ones.

1. Those voting in favour of the amendment bill would endanger the basic structure of the
should constitute at least half of the total strength constitution.
of that house. Code:
2. The supporters of the amendment bill must also a) Only 1
constitute two-third of those who take part in voting.
b) Only 2
3. Referendum is required in those amendments
affecting the basic structure of the constitution. c) Both of the above
Code: d) None of the above
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 d) All the above 87. The long lasting effect on the evolution of the
Indian Constitution is the theory of the basic
85. Consider the following statements about the structure of the Constitution. Consider the
42nd amendment act and choose the incorrect following about the basic structure concept and
ones. choose the incorrect one/s.
1. It was an attempt to override the ruling of the 1. It has set specific limits in the Parliament’s power
Supreme Court given in the Kesavananda Bharti to amend the Constitution.
case.
2. It allows the Parliament to amend any and all
2. Duration of the Rajya Sabha was extended from parts of the Constitution within this limitation.
five to six years.
3. The power to decide what constitutes the basic
3. This is the only amendment act which brought structure lies with the Parliament only.
changes in the preamble of the constitution.
Code:
Code:
a) Only 2 b) Only 1
c) 3 only d) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 d) 2 and 3
86. In late nineties, efforts were made to review the
entire Constitution. Consider the following 88. In India, Judiciary is an independent organ with
statements in this regard and choose the correct respect to Executive and Legislative. In this
one/s. context, which of the following statement/s are not
correct.
1. In 2000, a commission to review the working of
the Constitution was appointed by the Government 1. The judiciary is financially dependent on either the
of India under the chairmanship of retired Chief executive (or) legislature.
Justice Venkatachaliah. 2. The constitution provides that the salaries and
2. The commission stuck to the theory of basic allowances of the judges are not subjected to the
structure and did not suggest any measures that approval of the legislature.
Code:

a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 both Code:

c) 2 only d) None a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 1 d) All of the above
89. The Constitution itself has made certain 91. The Vice President of India is the second
provisions to ensure smooth conduct of highest constitutional authority of the country.
legislatures in India. Which of the following statements in this regard
Consider the following statements in this regard are incorrect.
and choose the correct one/s. 1. The vice president is elected in the same manner
1. The Constitution has given the States the option as that of president.
of establishing either a unicameral or bicameral 2. The vice president may be removed from his
legislature. office by a resolution passed by Lok Sabha with a
2. The number of members to be elected to the majority and agreed to by Rajya Sabha.
Rajya Sabha from each State has been fixed as per 3. Vice president takes over the office of president
fourth schedule of the Constitution when there is a vacancy due to death or resignation
Code: and remains in office till expiration of the term.
a) Only 1 b) Only 2 Code:
c) Both 1 and 2 d) None a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3
ans. C c) 2 and 3 d) All of the Above
90. The organ of the government that primarily

looks after the function of implementation and 92. A significant feature of the legislative process
administration is called the executive. Consider the is the appointment of committees for various
following statements and choose the correct ones: legislative purposes. Consider the following
1. Executive is the branch of government statements in this regard and choose the incorrect
responsible for the implementation of laws and one/s.
policies 1. Joint Parliamentary Committees supervise the
adopted by legislature work of various departments, their budget, their
expenditure and bills that come up in the house
2. Heads of the government departments are the relating to the departments.
ministers who are saddled with the overall
responsibility of the government policies and are 2. Standing Committees can be set up for the
called as executives purpose of discussing a particular bill, like the joint
committee to discuss bill, or for the purpose of
3. The directive principles of the state policy investigating financial irregularities
suggests for a separate and independent legislature
Code:
and executive in India.
a) Only 1 b) Only2

c) Both of them d) None of these 1. Impeachment process of President can originate

only in Lok Sabha
93. Consider the following statements about 2. Introduction and passage of constitutional
eleventh schedule of the constitution and choose amendment bill originate in either of the houses of
the correct one/s. Parliament
1. Twenty nine subjects which were earlier in the 3. Article 108 says that a Money Bill shall not be
State list of subjects are identified and listed in the introduced in the Council of States.
eleventh schedule. Select the incorrect statements:
2. These subjects are mostly linked to development a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
and welfare functions at the local level. c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
3. It is mandatory for the state legislation to transfer
all the subjects to the local bodies within the given
time limit. 96. Which among the following committees have
representation only from Lok Sabha?
Code:
a) Public Accounts Committee
a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2 and 3
b) Public Undertaking Committee
c) 2 and 3 d) Only 1
c) Estimates Committee
d) Committee on Welfare of SCs and STs
94. Due to the federal character, the Rajya Sabha
has been given two exclusive or special powers
that are not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha. Consider the 97. No discussion of government or politics in India
following statements in this regard: could normally take place without mentioning one
1. It can authorize the Parliament to make a law on officer, the Prime Minister of India. Consider the
a subject enumerated in the state list and following statements:
concurrent list (Article 249) 1. Only a Member of the Parliament can become the
2. It can authorize the Parliament to create new Prime Minister
All-India services common to both the centre and 2. It is the prerogative of the Prime minister to
states (Article 312) decide the members of the Council of Ministers.
Select the correct statement/s: 3. Council of Minister cease to exist in case of
a) 1 only b) 2 only resignation of the Prime Minister
c) 1 and 2 d) None Select the correct ones:
B. State list only a) 1 only b) 1 and 2
95. Consider the following statements about c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Parliament?

98. Consider the following statements about the 1. Each province and princely state were to be
growth of local governments in India and choose allotted seats in proportion to their respective
the correct ones. population.
1. The concept of elected local government system 2. Seats allocated to each British province were to
in India was brought about by the Lord Rippon in be decided among the three principal communities-
1882. Muslims, Christians and Hindus.
2. Following the Government of India Act 1919, 3. The representatives of princely states were to be
village panchayats were established in a number of nominated by the heads of the princely states.
provinces. Code:
3. The trend of organising panchayats discontinued a) 1 and 3 b) 2 and 3
after the Government of India Act 1935.
c) 2 only d) 1 and 2
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 d) All are correct
99. Different methods or systems of elections are

adopted worldwide to elect their representatives.
Choose the correct statement/s about Proportional
Representation System.
1. In proportional representation system, very large
geographical areas can be demarcated as
constituencies.
2. More than one representative may be elected
from one constituency.
3. Candidate who wins the election may not get
majority.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3
100. The Constitution Assembly was constituted in
November 1946 under the scheme formulated by
the Cabinet Mission Plan. Which of the following
statement/s are incorrect with regard to this.

Class-12 : Contemporary World Politics (New)
1. The United Nations Conference on Trade and geopolitics after the second world war. Consider
Development (UNCTAD) brought out a report in the following statements in this regard and choose
1972 entitled Towards a New Trade Policy for the correct one/s.
Development. The report proposed a reform of the 1. A coup took place in 1991 that was encouraged
global trading system so as to: by Communist Party hardliners.
1. give the LDCs control over their natural resources 2. Boris Yeltsin emerged as a national hero in
exploited by the developed Western countries opposing this coup.
2. Obtain access to Western markets so that the 3. In December 1991, under the leadership of
LDCs could sell their products and, therefore, Yeltsin, Russia, Ukraine and Belarus, three major
maketrade more beneficial for the poorer countries,
republics of the USSR, declared that the Soviet
3. reduce the cost of technology from the Western Union was disbanded.
countries, and
Code:
4. provide the LDCs with a greater role in
international economic institutions. a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
Code: c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 3 and 4 only Ans: D
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above 3. European Union is a major alternate political and
economic power centre in the unipolar world led by
Ans: D US. Consider the following statements about origin
2. The disintegration of Soviet Union was one of of EU. Which of the following is/are not correct?
the most important events that altered the global

1. European integration after 1947 was aided by the 5. Consider the following statement about ASEAN
Cold War. and choose the incorrect one/s.
2. Under the Marshall Plan, the Organisation for 1. ASEAN Community comprises of three pillars,
European Economic Cooperation (OEEC) was namely, the ASEAN Military Community, the ASEAN
established in 1948 to channel aid to the east Economic Community and the ASEAN
European states. Socio-Cultural Community.
3. The Council of Europe was established in 1948, 2 The ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF), which was
which was another step forward in political established in 1994, is the organisation that carries
cooperation. out coordination of security and foreign policy.
Code: Code:
a) 1 only a) 1 only b) 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) 1 and 3 only Ans: A
d) All of the above 6. Consider the following statements about relation
Ans:D between India and it’s neighbours.
4. The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) 1. India and Nepal had conflicts related to migration
came into being after the socialist revolution in of ethnic Napalese into India.
Russia in 1917. Which of the following statements 2. In 1960, with the help of the World Bank, India and
is/are correct in this regard? Pakistan signed the Indus Waters Treaty.
1. The revolution was inspired by the ideals of Which of these statements are not correct?
socialism, as opposed to capitalism, and the need a) 1 only b) 2 only
for an egalitarian society.
2. In doing so, the makers of the Soviet system gave
primacy to the state and the institution of the party. Ans: A
3. This was perhaps the biggest attempt in human

history to abolish the institution of private property 7. The South Asian Association for Regional
and consciously design a society based on Cooperation (SAARC) is a major regional initiative
principles of equality. by the South Asian states to evolve cooperation
Codes: through multilateral means. Which among the
following statements is/are correct in this regard?
1. SAARC was comparatively successful in most of
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above the arenas in spite of the political differences
Ans: D between the member countries.

2. External influence of non-regional players is a 3. In ‘Agenda 21’, there was a consensus between
major bone of contention which prevents attainment developed and developing countries, on combining
of full potential of SAARC. economic growth with ecological responsibility.
Code: Code:
a) Only 1 b) Only 2 a) 1 and 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of these b) 2 and 3 only
Ans: B c) 1 and 3 only
8. Contemporary World Politics have expanded its d) All of the above
scope to include environmental concerns as the Ans: D
major element in global politics today. Which of the
following statement/s is are correct regarding this? 10. Consider the following statements about the
1992 United Nations Framework Convention on
1. Throughout the world, cultivable area is barely Climate Change (UNFCCC) and choose the correct
expanding anymore, and a substantial portion of one/s.
existing agricultural land is losing fertility.
1. It provides that the parties should act to protect
2. There is a steady decline in the total amount of the climate system “on the basis of equity and in
ozone in the Earth’s stratosphere. accordance with their common but differentiate
3. Coastal waters are relatively less polluted than capabilities and respective capabilities”.
the open sea. 2. India, China and other developing countries were
Code: exempted from the requirements of the Kyoto
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only Protocol.
c) 3 only d) All of the above Code:
Ans: A a) 1 only b) 2 only
9. United Nations Conference on Environment and c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Development was held in Rio De Janeiro, in June Ans: C
1992, which was also called Earth Summit and is 11. What is often called economic globalization
marked as the watershed in the history of climate usually involves greater economic flows among
change and sustainable development. Choose the different countries of the world. Choose the correct
correct statement/s in this regard. statements from the following about the features of
1. The Summit was attended by 170 states, economic globalisation.
thousands of NGOs and many multinational 1. The restrictions imposed by different countries on
corporations. allowing the imports of other countries have been
2. The 1987 Brundtland Report, ‘Our Common reduced.
Future’ acted as a precursor to Earth Summit.

2. The restrictions on movement of capital across Code:

the countries have been increased. a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
3. Developed countries carefully guarded their c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 only
borders with visa policies to ensure that citizens of
other countries cannot take away the jobs of their Ans: B
own citizens.
Code: 14. Consider the following statements about
a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only Amnesty International and choose the incorrect
one/s.
c) 1 only d) All the above
1. Amnesty International is a part of United Nation
Ans: A campaigns for the protection of human rights all
over the world.
12. Choose the correct statements about reasons 2. A major focus of Amnesty is the misconduct of
for acceleration of globalization: government authorities.
1. The invention of the telegraph, telephone and 3. Amnesty promotes respect for all human rights in
microchip has revolutionized communication. the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
2. Printing came into being laying the basis for the Code:
creation of nationalism. a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
3. Technology affects not only the way we think of c) 2 only d) None of the above
our personal but also our collective lives.
Ans: A
Code:
15. International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an
c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above international organization that oversees those
Ans: D financial institutions and regulations that act at the
13. World Social Forum is a global platform international level. Consider the following
opposed to neoliberal globalization. Which of the statements and choose the correct one/s.
following statements about WSF is/are incorrect? 1. The IMF has 188 member countries but they do
1. It is a wide coalition composed of human rights not enjoy an equal say
activists, environmentalists, labour, youth and 2. The IMF promotes international monetary
women activists. co-operation and exchange rate stability
2. The first WSF meeting was organized in Porto 3. IMF is a United Nations specialized agency
Alegre, Brazil in 2000. Code:
3. Fourth and seventh WSF meeting were held in a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
Mumbai in 2004 and 2007 respectively.

c) All of the above d) 1 and 3 only 18. The International Court of Justice is the
Ans: B principal judicial organ of the UN. Consider the
following statements:
1. The Court is composed of 15 Judges, who are
16. Which among the following gives more elected for terms of office of five years by the UNGA
weightage to India’s proposal for permanent
membership in the Security Council. 2. The Court’s role is to settle disputes in
accordance with international law and to give
a) India’s growing economic power and stable advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by
political system authorized UN organs and specialized agencies.
b) Nuclear capability 3. The Seat of the court is at peace place in New
c) It has been a member of UN since its inception York.
d) It is located in Asia Choose the incorrect ones.

Ans: A Code:
17. The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) are c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
eight international development goals that were Ans:C
established following the Millennium Summit of UN
in 2000. Which among the following are Millennium 19. Consider the following statements about
Development Goals? Bangladesh and choose the correct ones.
1. To achieve Universal Primary Education 1. Secularism is one of the four fundamental

principles according to the original Constitution of
2. To improve Maternal Health Bangladesh in 1972.
3. Provide safe Drinking Water 2. The secularism principle was removed from the
4. To improve Sanitation constitution in 1977 by Ziaur Rahman and declared
Islam as the state religion.
5. To develop Global Partnership for Development
3. In 2010, Bangladesh Supreme Court restored
6. To promote Gender Equality and Empower
secularism as one of the basic tenets of the
Women.
Constitution but also kept Islam as the state
Code: religion.
a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only b) 1, 2 and 6 only Code:
c) 5 and 6 only d) 2, 3 and 4 only a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
Ans:A c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
Ans:D

20. On 19 March 2003, the US launched the 1. Hegemony implies class ascendancy in the
invasion of Iraq under the codename ‘Operation social, political and particularly ideological spheres.
Iraqi Freedom’. Consider the following statements 2. Hegemony arises when the dominant class or
and choose the correct one/s. country can win the consent of the dominated
1. UN refused to give mandate to the invasion. classes.
2. More than 40 other countries joined in the US-led 3. It is achieved by coercing the dominated classes
‘coalition of the willing’. to view the world in a manner favourable to the
3. Through the fall of government of Saddam ascendancy of the dominant class.
Hussein, US completely pacified Iraq. Code:
4. The ostensible purpose of the invasion was to a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
prevent Iraq from developing WMDs. c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above
Code: Ans: A
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only d) All of the above 23. Consider the following statements comparing
Ans: B US and European Union and choose the correct
21. Which of the following were used by US to one/s.
establish its hegemony over the world? 1. The EU is the world’s biggest economy with a
1. Military domination GDP slightly larger than that of the United States.
2. Economic power 2. EU’s share of world trade is three times larger that
of United States.
3. Political clout
3. Militarily, the EU’s combined armed forces are the
4. Cultural Superiority largest in the world with US in the second position.
5. Establishment of dictatorship Code:
Code: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only Ans:A
Ans: C
24. Consider the following statements about

22. Hegemony is also about the capacity to Maastricht Treaty, based on which the European
‘manufacture consent’. Consider the following Union was formed. Choose the correct statements.
statements in this regard and choose the correct 1. The treaty provides for single visa for all the
one/s. European Union countries.

2. Margaret Thatcher kept the UK out of the 2. Agricultural production generated surplus for
European market. China to start the industries in a better way
3. Denmark and Sweden have resisted the compared to India.
Maastricht treaty and the adoption of the euro. 3. Before reforms, China’s industrial production was
Code: not growing fast enough to play a good role in
international trade.
Code:
c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above
Ans: B
Ans: C
formation of ASEAN and choose the correct one/s.
1. ASEAN was established in1967 by ten countries 27. Japan can be termed as one of the alternative
of the region through the Singapore declaration. centres of power which progressed rapidly after the
end of the Second World War. Consider the
2. The primary objective of the association is to following in this regard and choose the correct
accelerate economic growth and through that one/s:
‘social progress and cultural development’.
1. Japan has very few natural resources and imports
3. A secondary objective was to promote regional most of its raw materials.
peace and stability based on the rule of law and the
principles of the United Nations Charter. 2. It is the only Asian member of the G-8.
Code: 3. It is the second largest contributor to the regular

budget of the UN.
4. Japan’s military expenditure is the fourth largest
c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above in the world.
Ans: B Code:
26. Consider the following statements about the c) 1, 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
condition of China before they started the
economic reform process. Choose the correct Ans:D
one/s. 28. The invasion and annexation of Kuwait by Iraq
1. From the inception of the People’s Republic of lead to the First Gulf War. Consider the following in
China in 1949, they were following the economy this regard and chose the incorrect one/s:
based on Soviet model. 1. There were a series of diplomatic attempts to
convince Iraq to quit its aggression.

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ttp://iasexamportal.com/SK-NCERT
2. The resolution for this war got defeated in UN, but 1. LTBT (Limited Test Ban Treaty) banned nuclear
they silently supported this war. weapon tests exclusively in atmosphere.
3. America led a coalition of forces from 34 2. NPT was signed in 1968, entered into force in
countries and Iraq got defeated quickly. 1970 and extended indefinitely in 1995.
Code: Code:
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B Ans: A
29. New International Economic Order was a step in 31. In Spite of cold war , USA and USSR was vary of
direction of bringing economic development to the real war and many arms control treaties were
third world countries. Consider the following signed between USA and USSR/Russia. Consider
statements in the context of NAM and choose the following statements and choose correct
incorrect statements: statements:
1. The New International Economic Order (NIEO) 1. Treaty on limitation of Anti-ballistic missile
was a set of proposals put forward during the 1970s system was signed in 1972 during Strategic Arms
by some developing countries through the United Limitation Talk’s second round (SALT-II)
Nations Conference on Trade and Development.
2. Strategic arms reduction treaty-I was signed
2. It was meant to be a revision of the international between Russian President Boris Yeltsin and US
economic system in favour of Third World countries, President George Bush in 1993
replacing the Bretton Woods system.
Code:
3. NIEO initiative faded in late 1980s in wake of stiff
opposition by developed countries and nonaligned a) 1 only b) 2 only
countries struggled to maintain their unity. c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Code: Ans: D
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only 32. There had been many important events during
c) 3 only d) None of the above cold war era. Arrange these events in chronological
order:
Ans: D
1. Korean war resulting in division of Korea
30. Consider the following statements regarding
the Arms Control Treaties which have been signed 2. Signing of the Baghdad pact
in International arena during the post 2nd World 3. American intervention in Vietnam
War era and choose the incorrect one/s:
4. Cuban missile crisis
5. Formation of SEATO

Code: Ans:C
a) 1-5-3-2-4 b) 1-5-2-3-4
c) 5-1-3-4-2 d) 1-5-4-2-3 35. New theories and doctrines were proposed
Ans:A during cold war era to control the influence of
opposing bloc. Consider the following statements
regarding these and choose correct one/s:
33. Soviet system which came into being after 1. The Truman Doctrine of containment was a
socialist revolution in 1917 was a very powerful United States policy to stop Soviet expansion during
leader of communist bloc, but disintegrated in the Cold War.
1990s and reasons cited for this are:
2. Asian collective security system was proposed by
1. One-party system Leonid Brezhnev.
2. Russian dominance over other 14 republics of 3. The Marshall Plan was the American initiative to
USSR aid Europe, in which the United States gave $17
3. Non-recognition of cultural affairs of people billion in economic support to help rebuild European
residing in these republics economies after the end of World War
4. Soviet invasion of Afghanistan Code:
Code: a) 1and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) All of the above Ans:A
Ans: D
34. There are some important events which 36. In Eastern Europe, there have been splits in the
happened in course of disintegration of Soviet countries and emergence of new countries as
Union. Consider the following statements and communism was weakened due to various causes.
choose the correct one/s: Consider the following statements and choose
incorrect ones regarding this:
1. Latvia becomes first of 15 Soviet republics to
declare its independence. 1. Yugoslavia went a peaceful split resulting in
emergence of states like Slovenia, Bosnia and
2. Permission for Multi-party politics was given in
Herzegovina etc
1990.
2. Czechoslovakia split resulted into a major conflict
3. Russia, Belarus and Armenia established
and Czechs and Slovaks formed two independent
Commonwealth of Independent States in 1991.
countries.
Code:
Code:
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) 2 only d) 3 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans:A

Ans:C
37. Economic policies of post communist regime 39. Post USSR disintegration, geopolitical scenario
also underwent a change after the disintegration of has undergone change between India and USSR.
Soviet Union. Consider the following statements Consider the following statements regarding this
and choose correct one/s: and choose the correct one/s:
1. Initiatives were taken to attract foreign 1. India has strong friendly relations with Russia but
investment along with currency convertibility and it is not quiet friendly with other Soviet bloc
deregulation policies. countries, after their independence.
2. Trade alliances with Western countries were 2. Soviet Union gave assistance to Indian public
made besides the alliances among the Soviet Bloc sector companies.
countries.
3. India has remained a major arms and oil importer
3. Western capitalist states controlled the from Russia.
development of these countries:
Code:
Code:
c) 1 and 3 only d) None of the above
Ans:C
Ans:C
38. After the disintegration of USSR, newly
independent countries started reviving after about 40. United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is one
ten years of decline. The reasons cited for their of the six principal organs of the UN and are
revival are: charged with the maintenance of International
Peace and Security. Consider the following and
1. Revival was brought by export of oil and natural choose the correct one/s:
gas.
1. Security Council have five permanents members
2. Rent gained from oil pipelines, crossing many (with veto rights) and ten other members elected by
countries. the General Assembly for three year terms.
3. Priority given to establishment of stable 2. The decision of Security Council is binding on all
democratic institutions. UN members except UNSC permanent members.
4. Independence of judiciary, prevented any dissent Code:
among these countries.
a) 1 only b) 2 only
Code:
Ans:D

41. Consider the following statements regarding 2. WTO has 160 members with Yemen being the
Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical latest to join on June 26, 2014.
Weapons (OPCW) and choose the incorrect one/s. 3. The decision making power is WTO mostly lies
1. OPCW is an inter governmental organization with the top 10 countries having 55% of the votes.
located in Brussels. Code:
2. The organization promotes and verifies the a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
adherence to the chemical weapons only.
3. OPCW is not an agency of the United Nations.
Ans: A
Code:
44. SAARC is slowly emerging from the slumbers,
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only after caught in between India and Pakistan since
c) 1 and 2 only d) 3 only inception, with new initiatives like SAARC
Ans:A university. Consider the following statements about
SAARC and choose the correct one/s.
42. World Bank was established under Bretton
woods agreement after the Second World War. 1. The SAARC is a major regional initiative by South
Choose the incorrect statements about World Bank: Asian states to evolve cooperation through
multilateral means.
1. International Development Association is the
investment arm of World Bank which provides loans 2. SAARC members signed the south Asian free
to private sector. trade agreement which promised the formation of a
trade zone for whole zone of South Asia.
2. International Finance Commission is the soft loan
window of World Bank. Code:
3. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) a) 1 only b) 2 only

is the insurance arm of World Bank. c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Code: Ans:C
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only 45. ‘Unfortunately, recognizing the need for
c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above co-operation and actually co-operating are two
different things.’ Keeping in view the above
Ans:A statement which among the following is/are
correct.
43. World Trade Organisation (WTO) is an 1. Nations cannot always agree on how best to
international organization that sets rules for global cooperate, how to share the costs of co-operating
trade. Which of the following statements about and how to ensure that others do not break or cheat
WTO is/are incorrect? on an agreement.
1. It was set up in 1995 as the successor to General
Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).

2. An International Organisation can provide

mechanisms, rules and a bureaucracy to honour the
terms and conditions of an agreement.
3. International Organisations help member states
to resolve their problems peacefully.
Code:
Ans:D

Class-11 : Indian Economic Development (New)
1. In 1991 India met with an economic crisis. Which 1. India approached the international bank for
of the following can be quoted as a reason for the reconstruction and development popularly known as
same? IMF for loan to manage the crisis.
1. The high level of external debt. 2. India came up with new economic policies which
2. High level of foreign exchange reserve. were based on the conditionality of international
institutions.
3. Rising prices of essential goods.
3. Conditionality of international institutions was not
4. Import substitution policy of India. as a punishment but were towards creating more
5. Political instability. competitive environment in the economy.
Code: Select the correct ones.
a) 1 and 2 a) All the above
b) Only 1 b) 2 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1 and 2
d) All the above d) 1 and 3
Ans. B Ans. B
2. Consider the following statements about India’s 3. Which of the following is not a part of changes in
approach in dealing with 1991 crisis. industrial sector post 1991 reform?

1. Industrial licensing under which every

entrepreneur had to get permission from 5. Most of the economies including India are mixed
government officials to start a firm was abolished economies. Consider the following statements.
except in some sector.
1. In mixed economies government and the market
2. Private sector was allowed in many industries. together answer what and how to produce and how
3. Some goods could be produced only in small to distribute what to produce.
scale industries. 2. The government will provide whatever goods and
4. Controls on price fixation and distribution of services it can produce well.
selected industrial products. 3. The market will produce to the goods and
Code: services the government fails to do.
a) 1, 3 and 4 Select the correct ones.
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 a) Only 1
c) 1 and 4 b) 1 and 3
d) 3 and 4 c) All the above
Ans. A d) 2 and 3
Ans. A
4. There are many ways to categorize poverty. 6. India followed a planned economy from the time
Consider the following statements in this regard. of independence. Consider the following
1. ‘The people who are always poor’ and those statements.
whose are usually poor but who may sometimes 1. India‘s plans were of five years and lacked a
have a little more money are called chronic poor. perspective approach.
2. The people who regularly move in and out of 2. Directive principles of Indian constitution reflect
poverty are called churning poor. the planned outlook of India.
3. People who are rich most of the time but may 3. Our five year plans do not spell out how much of
sometimes have a patch of bad luck are called each and every good and service is to be produced.
occasionally poor. Select the correct statements using codes below.
Select the correct ones. a) Only 2
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3
c) All the above d) All the above
d) 1 and 3 Ans. B
Ans. C

d) None of these
7. In case of India we have unemployment in rural Ans. D
and urban areas. Consider the following statements
about types of unemployment in India.
9. Although there has been a substantial reduction
1. Disguised unemployment happens when people in global poverty, it is marked with great regional
are not able to find jobs during some months of the differences. Consider the following statements
year due to agricultural patterns. related to this.
2. Educated unemployment is a result of improper 1. In Sub-Saharan Africa, poverty in fact rose from
management of Human resources. 41 per cent in 1981 to 46 per cent in 2001.
3. In case of India, statistically, the unemployment 2. Number of poors in South Asia has come down
rate is low. from 606 million in 1981 to 212 million in 2001.
Select the correct statements using codes below. 3. Poverty has also resurfaced in some of the
a) 1 and 2 former socialist countries like Russia after their
b) 1 and 3 opening up.
c) 2 and 3 Select the correct statements using codes given

below.
d) All of the above
a) 1 and 2
Ans. C
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
8. Poverty has many facets and is looked through
various social Indicators. Consider the following d) All of the above
statements in this regard: Ans. B
1. Social Exclusion describes the greater probability
of being more adversely affected than other people. 10. Economy of a country is classified into various
2. Vulnerability is a process through which sectors based on different types of economic
individuals or groups are not able to access activity undertaken in each. Consider the following
facilities, benefits and opportunities that others statements related to some of them.
enjoy. 1. All Agricultural activities are included in Primary
Which of the statements given above is/are sector
correct? 2. All Industrial activities are included in secondary
a) Only 1 sector.
b) Only 2 3. Service sector includes only those activities that
c) Both 1 and 2 help in production of goods.

Select the incorrect statements using codes given 1. Growth

below. 2. Modernisation
a) 1 and 2 3. Self Reliance
b) 1 and 3 4. Nationalisation
c) 2 and 3 5. Equity
d) All of the above Code:
Ans. C a) 1, 3 and 5
b) 2, 3 and 5
11. Human Development Report published by c) 1, 2, 3 and 5
UNDP compares countries based on the
educational levels of the people, their health status d) All of the above
and per capita income. Consider the following Ans. C
statements related to this.
13. The economic justification of subsidies in
1. In HDR Per Capita Income is calculated in dollars agriculture is, at present, a hotly debated question.
adjusted by purchasing power for all countries so Consider the following statements related to this.
that it can be compared.
1. A substantial amount of fertiliser subsidy also
2. Nepal has half the per capita income of India, yet benefits the fertiliser industry, not only farmers.
it is not far behind India in life expectancy and
2. The subsidy largely benefits the farmers in the
literacy levels.
more prosperous regions.
3. Health, education and skill indicators are used
3. Most farmers in India are very poor and they will
along with income as a measure of development in
not be able to afford the required inputs without
HDI.
subsidies.
Select the correct statements using codes below.
a) 1 and 2
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
Ans. A
Ans. D
14. Liberalisation was introduced to put an end to
12. India is a planned ‘socialist’ society with a restrictions and open up various sectors of the
strong public sector but also with private property economy. Which of the following liberalisation
and democracy. What were the goals of five year measures were taken up before 1990s?
plans in the years after India’s Independence?

1. Industrial licensing commerce. Consider the following statements

2. Export-import policy about infrastructure.
3. Tax reforms 1. Infrastructure associated with energy,

transportation, housing and communication are
4. Foreign investment included in the economic Infrastructure.
5. Technology upgradation, 2. Agriculture does not depend on infrastructure as
Code: it is labour intensive.
a) 1 and 3 only 3. Infrastructure contributes to economic
development of a country by improving the quality
b) 2 and 5 only
of life of its people.
c) 1, 2 and 5 only
Which of the statements given above is/are not
d) All of the above correct?
Ans. D a) 1 and 2 only
15. The financial sector in India is primarily b) 1 and 3 only
controlled by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the following institutions are a part of
financial sector? d) All of the above
1. Commercial banks Ans. A
2. Money Lenders 17. Over the years, India has built up a vast health
infrastructure and manpower at different levels.
3. Investment banks
Consider the following statements related to Health
4. Stock exchange operations infrastructure in India.
5. Insurance 1. More than 70 per cent of the hospitals in India are
6. Foreign exchange market run by the private sector.
Code: 2. Nearly 60 per cent of dispensaries are run by the

public sector.
a) 1, 2, 3 and 6
3. More than 80 per cent of the medical service
b) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6
providers in private sector are single person owned
c) 1, 3, 4 and 6
Select the correct statements using the codes
d) All of the above given below.
16. Infrastructure provides supporting services in b) 1 and 3 only
the main areas of industrial and agricultural
c) 2 and 3 only
production, domestic and foreign trade and
d) All of the above

Ans. B b) 1 and 3 only

18. An important form in which people hold money c) 2 and 3 only
is deposits with banks. Consider the following d) All of the above
statements related to this.
Ans. C
1. Since the deposits in the bank accounts can be
withdrawn anytime, these deposits are called fixed
deposits. 20. Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the
2. Banks mediate between those who have surplus country’s development. Consider the following
funds and those who are in need of these funds. statements related to credit availability in India.
3. Credit refers to an agreement in which the lender 1. Rich households in urban area has more
supplies the borrower with money, goods or accessibility to formal credit in India.
services in return for the promise of future payment. 2. The cost to the borrower of informal loans is
Select the correct statements using the code much higher than formal loans.
below. 3. The formal sector still meets only about half of
a) 1 and 2 only the total credit needs of the rural people.
b) 1 and 3 only Select the correct statements using the code

below.
c) 2 and 3 only
a) 1 and 2 only
d) All of the above
b) 1 and 3 only
Ans. C
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
19. The terms of credit vary substantially from one
credit arrangement to another. Consider the Ans. D
following statements related to various credit 21. The health status of a country can be assessed
arrangements. through indicators such as infant mortality rate,
1. Loans from Money lenders, traders and maternal mortality rates, life expectancy and
cooperatives are informal loans. nutritional levels along with incidence of
communicable and non-communicable diseases.
2. Informal sector is largest credit lender Consider the following about indicators of health in
outperforming commercial banks. comparison with other countries?
3. The Reserve Bank of India supervises the 1. The expenditure of India to Health as percentage
functioning of formal sources of loans. of GDP is slightly better than Sri Lanka and China
Select the correct statements using the codes 2. Infant mortality rate in India is higher than China,
given below. Sri Lanka and US
a) 1 and 2 only

3. India stands far ahead than China in giving birth 1. In India, the Reserve Bank of India and an
by skilled attendants institution recommended by Parliament can issue
Select the correct statements using codes given currency notes on behalf of the central government.
below: 2. In India, the law legalizes the use of rupee as a
a) 1 and 2 medium of payment that cannot be refused in
settling transaction in India.
b) 2 and 3 only
3. Some Indians can legally refuse a payment made
c) 2 only in rupees
d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer from the code given
Ans. C below.
22. NABARD is the apex institution in the country a) 1 only

which looks after the development of the cottage b) 1 and 2
industry, small industry, village industry, and other
rural industries. NABARD also reaches out to allied c) 2 and 3
economies and supports and promotes integrated d) 2 only
development. Consider the following about the Ans. D
functions of NABARD
1. Co-ordinate the activities of all institutions
involved in rural financing system 24. In accordance with the goal of the state
controlling the commanding heights of the
2. Refinance economy, the industrial policy resolution of 1956
3. Accepting deposits from public was adopted consider the following statements
Select the correct answer from the code given about 1956- industrial policy resolution?
below: 1. This resolution formed the basis of the second
a) 1 and 3 five year plan, the plan which tried to build the basis
for a capitalist pattern of society.
b) 1 and 2
2. This policy was used for promoting industries in
c) 1, 2 and 3 backward regions.
d) 3 only 3. License to expand production achieved easily.
Ans. B Select the correct answer from the code given
23. Currency is accepted as medium of exchange below:
because the currency is authorized by the a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only
government of the country? Consider the
statements about issue of currency. c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3
Ans. b

25. Activities which contribute to the gross national a) Total value of goods and services produced in the
product are called economic activities. Consider country.
the following statements about activities which b) Total value of all transaction in the country.
contribute to GNP?
c) Depreciation in the total value of goods and
1. Income of Ambassadors of other countries in services produced in the country.
India
d) Total value of goods and services produced in the
2. Women working at home also contribute to gross country and net factor income from abroad.
national product.
Ans. D
3. Income of people working abroad also
contributes to gross national product. 28. Participation of women in workforce is crucial
for economic development. Consider the following
Select the correct answer from the code given statements regarding participation of women?
below:
1. Women work force was more in urban areas
a) 1 and 2 compared to rural areas.
b) 2 and 3 2. Women workers account for one-third of the rural
c) 3 only work force.
d) None Select the correct answer from the code given
Ans. C below:
a) 1 and 2
26. One of India’s competitive advantages is its b) 1 only

demographic dividend. Demographic dividend c) 2 only
occurs when the proportion of working people in d) None
the total population is high because this indicates
that more people have the potential to be Ans. c
productive and contribute to growth of the 29. There is a deterioration in the child sex ratio in
economy. To obtain full benefits of demographic the country. What are the possible reasons for it?
dividend what should our country do?
1. Low fertility rate
a) Introducing social security schemes.
2. Female foeticide
b) Promoting skill development.
3. Incentives for boy child from government
c) Reducing maternal mortality rate.
Select the correct answer from the code given
d) Privatization of higher education. below:
Ans. B a) 1 and 2
27. Gross national product can be defined as. b) 2 only

c) 1 only in the late 1960’s. Consider the following

d) All the above statements.
Ans. b 1. Chemical fertilizers dissolve in water and are

immediately available to plants.
2. Chemical fertilizers can kill bacteria and other
30. In India, which of the following is having micro-organisms in soil.
highest share in the disbursement of credit to
agriculture and allied activities? 3. The use of Chemical fertilizers caused the rise in
cost of production in the long term.
a) Cooperative Banks
Select the correct ones.
b) Regional Rural Banks
a) 1 and 2
c) Commercial Banks
b) 2 and 3
d) Microfinance institutions
c) 1 and 3
Ans. C
d) All are correct
31. Buffer stock is created by the government to
cater the future need. Considers the following Ans. D
statements about buffer stock? 33. In case of India, we have unemployment in rural
1. Buffer stock is created to increase the income of as well as urban areas. Consider the following
the government at the time of crisis. statements in this regard.
2. Price stability 1. Sometimes, the people will remain unemployed

even in the peak of farming seasons, and is called
3. This is done to distribute food grains in the deficit the seasonal unemployment.
areas and among the poorer strata of society.
2. In case of disguised unemployment, people
4. Buffer stock helps to resolve the problem of appear to be unemployed, and is a pseudo
shortage of food during adverse weather conditions unemployment.
or during the periods of calamity.
3. Educated unemployment is a common
Select the correct answer from the code given phenomenon in urban areas owing to the high levels
below: of education.
a) 1, 2 and 3 Select the incorrect ones.
b) 2, 3 and 4 a) Only 3
c) 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2
d) 1, 3 and 4 c) Only 1
Ans. B d) 2 and 3
32. The consumption of Chemical fertilizers was an Ans. B
important factor in the success of Green Revolution

34. In case of India, statistically, the unemployment d) 1 and 2

rate is low. Consider the following statements Ans. B
about unemployment.
1. The unemployment ratio is calculated only from
the working age population, who are in the age 36. Buffer stock is the stock of foodgrains procured
group of 15 years to 59 years. by the government through Food Corporation of
India (FCI). Consider the following statements in
2. Unemployment is said to exist, when any of the relation to the FCI procurements.
persons in the workforce population cannot find
jobs. 1. The FCI purchases wheat and rice from the states
where there is a surplus.
3. The main reason for the unemployment is the
people who are not interested in working outside the 2. Minimum support price is the price announced by
domestic domain. the FCI before the sowing season.
Select the incorrect ones 3. Issue price is the price issued by the FCI for their
procurements based on the market price.
a) Only 3
Select the correct ones.
b) 2 and 3
a) 1 and 2
c) Only 2
b) Only 2
d) All of these
c) Only 1
Ans. B
d) All the above
35. The poverty line is revised periodically taking
into consideration the rise in prices. Consider the Ans. C
following statements.
1. The poverty line is estimated periodically by 37. Occupational structure of India in colonial
conducting sample surveys normally every five period was completely different from the present
years. systems. Consider the following statements.
2. The surveys are carried out by the National 1. There were hardly any service sectors in the
Sample Survey Organisation. colonial period.
3. For making comparisons between developing 2. The regional variations were not visible in the
countries, the international organizations like World colonial era.
Bank use uniform standards.
3. Agricultural sector accounted for the largest
Select the correct ones. share of work force.
a) Only 2 Select the incorrect ones.
b) All the above a) Only 3
c) Only 1 b) Only 1

c) All of these 3. The increase in food prices caused worsening the

d) 1 and 2 conditions of the low income groups.
Ans. D Select the incorrect ones.
38. One of the main task post independence was to a) Only 1

decide on the type of economic system most b) None of these
suitable for India. Consider the following c) 2 and 3
statements.
d) Only 2
1. Jawaharlal Nehru was in favour of the socialism
as established in the former Soviet Union. Ans. D.
2. India moved with the mixed economy mainly due 40. An important approach to addressing poverty is
to the opposition from other leader. to provide minimum basic amenities to the people.
Consider the following statements about schemes
3. With mixed economy India sought an alternative to provide basic amenities.
to the capitalism and socialism concepts.
1. National Social Assistance Programme is a
Select the incorrect ones. programme to give pension to elderly people who do
a) 1 and 2 not have anyone to take care of them.
b) Only 3 2. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana aims to
c) All of these provide better connectivity in the villages by
improving roads.
d) Only 2
Ans. C
a) 1 only
39. Marketed Surplus was the most important fruit
of Green Revolution period. Consider the following b) 2 only
statements. c) Both 1 and 2
1. The portion of the agricultural produce which is d) None of the above
sold in the market by the farmers is called the Ans. C
marketed surplus.
2. With the increase in supply, the price of food
grains also increased relative to the other items of
consumption.

Class-11 : Indian Physical Environment (New)
1. There are large scale regional variations within 2. Based on the variations in its geological
the Himalayas. On the basis of relief, alignment of structure and formations, India can be divided into
ranges and other geomorphological features, the three geological divisions: the Peninsular Block,
Himalayas can be divided into the five subdivisions. the Himalayas and Indo-Ganga-Brahmaputra Plain.
Consider the following statements in this regard Consider the following statements in this regard
and choose the incorrect ones. and choose the correct ones.
1. The world famous Valley of Kashmir and the 1. The Karbi Anglong, Meghalaya Plateau and
famous Dal lake lies between the Great Himalayas Rajasthan are extensions of the Peninsular block.
and the Pir Panjal range. 2. The Peninsular Block is young, weak and flexible
2. The Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas lies in its geological structure than Himalayas and other
between the river Jhelum in the west and the Kali in Peninsular mountains
the east. 3. Average depth of alluvial deposits in
3. The Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas are famous Indo-Ganga-Brahmaputra plains ranges from 1,000-
for its tea gardens. 2,000 m.
4. The Eastern Hills and Mountains are part of the Code:
Himalayan mountain system having their general a) 1 and 2 b) 3 only
alignment from the northwest to southeast.
c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3
Code:
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 4
3. North and North-eastern mountains are
c) 1 and 4 d) 1 and 2 important physiographic division based on

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geomorphological features. Consider following following statements in this regard and choose the
statements in this context and choose incorrect correct ones:
statements. 1. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (NBR) is the first
1. In Darjeeling and Sikkim, Himalayas lies in biosphere reserve established in India
southwest to northwest directions. 2. The major forest types of Nanda Devi Biosphere
2. Fotu La pass is on Zaskar range while Khardung Reserve are of temperate type
La is on Ladakh range. 3. Heritiera fomes, a species of the mangrove forest,
3. Jhelum river is in mature stage and form valued for its timber is found is Gulf of Mannar
meanders. Biosphere Reserve
4. Karewas are fluvial deposits of clay and other Code:

materials. a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2
Code: c) 2 and 3 d) 1 only
a) 1, 3 and 4 b) 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 4 d) None of the above 6. Characteristic features are associated with
different divisions of Himalayas. Consider
following statements in this context and choose
4. Consider the following ranges in Himalayas. correct one.
1. Karakoram Range 1. Bugyals are winter grasslands in the lower
2. Zaskar Range reaches of Himalayas.
3. Pir Panjal Range 2. Duars are characteristic features of Uttarakhand
Himalayas.
4. Ladakh Range
3. Manipur is known as ‘Molassis basin’ formed by
5. Shivalik Range
soft unconsolidated deposits.
The correct order from North to South is
Code:
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
a) 1 – 4 – 3 – 2 – 5
c) 3 only d) None of the above
b) 1 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 2
c) 1 – 4 – 2 – 3 – 5
7. The Himalayan drainage system has evolved
d) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 – 5 through a long geological history. Consider the
5. A Biosphere Reserve is an unique representative following statements in this regard and choose the
ecosystem of terrestrial and coastal areas which correct ones:
are internationally recognised within the framework
of UNESCO’s MAB Programme. Consider the

1. Himalayan rivers pass through the giant gorges a) Sabarmati, Mahi, Kalinadi, Periyar, Bharathapuzha
carved out by the erosional activity carried on b) Mahi, Sabarmati, Kalinadi, Periyar, Bharathapuzha
simultaneously with the uplift of Himalayas
c) Sabarmati, Mahi, Kalinadi, Bharathapuzha, Periyar
2. Himalayan rivers form rapids, oxbow lakes and
water falls in their mountainous course d) Mahi, Sabarmati, Kalinadi, Bharathapuzha, Periyar
3. In plains, Himalayan rivers display a strong Ans. C

meandering tendency and shifts their courses 10. Consider the following statements and choose
frequently the incorrect ones.
Code: 1. High rainfall accompanied with high temperature
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 and well-drained land covered with loamy soils are
suitable for tea cultivation.
2. Robusta and Arabica varieties of tea produced in
India are in great demand all over the world.
8. Kashmir Himalayas, comprising of Karakoram, 3. High temperature, light rainfall, frost free season
Ladakh, Zaskar and Pir Panjal Ranges, have some and bright sunshine are essential for coffee
important passes. Match the following items in cultivation in India.
with the items in List-I with List-II with the help of
codes given below: Code:
List-I (Pass) List-II (Mountain Range) a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
A. Khardung La 1. Great Himalayas c) 2 only d) All of the above
B. Banihal 2. Zaskar 11. The islands of the Arabian Sea are scattered
between 8º–12ºN and 71ºE–74ºE longitude.
C. Zoji La 3. Ladakh Consider the following statements and choose the
D. Photu La 4. Pir panjal correct ones:
Code: 1. Lakshadweep group of islands are of tectonic
ABCD origin.
a) 2 1 3 4 2. The Eleven Degree channel separates the

Amindivi Island in the north and Cannannore Islands
b) 3 4 1 2 in the south.
c) 4 2 3 1 3. Minicoy is the largest island in the Lakshadweep
d) 2 4 1 3 group of islands.
Ans. B Code:
9. The correct sequence of the west flowing rivers a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
in the peninsular India from north to south is. c) 1 and 3 d) All of the above

B) The Islands in Lakshadweep are of coral origin. 14. The temperate forest also known as shola
12. Consider the following statements and choose forest are found in
the incorrect ones: a) Upper Himalayas up to a height of 1000-2000mt
1. River Indus originates from a glacier near Bokhar b) Hills of north-eastern India
Chu in the Kailash range. c) Forest of Andaman and Nicobar Island
2. Khurram, Tochi, Gomal and Samgar are the left d) The forest in the Nilgiris, Annamalai and Palani
bank tributaries of River Indus. hills of Peninsular India.
3. Chenab the largest tributary of Indus has two Ans. D
headstreams Chandra and Bhaga which joins at
Tandi in Punjab. 15. Biodiversity is the number and variety of
organisms found within a specified geographical
4. Sutlej River is known as Singi Khamban is Tibet. region. Consider the following in this regard and
Code: choose the correct ones.
a) 1, 2 and 4 only 1. Biodiversity is richer in temperate region
b) 3 and 4 compared to the Tropical and Polar regions.
c) 2 and 4 only 2. Biodiversity is a system in constant evolution,

from a view point of species and individual
d) 2, 3 and 4 only organisms.
13. Match the following items in List-I with the 3. With the emergence of new species, biodiversity
items in List-II with the help of codes given below: is on a rise compared to earlier times.
List-I (River) List-II (Meeting Place) Code:
A. Bhagirathi-Alaknanda 1. Joshimath a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only
B. Dhauli-Vishnuganga 2. Devprayag c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
C. Alaknanda-Mandakini 3. Rudraprayag
D. Alaknanda-Pinder 4. Karnaprayag 16. Indian drainage system can be classified on the
Code: basis of the orientation to the sea. Which of the
following statements is/are correct in this regard?
ABCD
1. Nearly 77 percent of the drainage area of the
a) 2 3 4 1
country is oriented towards the Bay of Bengal.
b) 3 1 2 4
2. All the large rivers of the Peninsular plateau have
c) 1 3 2 4 their origin in the Western Ghats and discharge their
d) 2 1 4 3 waters in the Bay of Bengal.
Ans. D

3. The Arabian and Bay of Bengal drainages are a) 1 and 3 b) 1 only

separated from each other through the Delhi ridge, c) 2 and 3 d) None of the above
the Aravallis and the Sahyadris.
D ( All are correct)
Code:
19. The term Drought is applied to an extended
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only period when there is a shortage of water availability
c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 due to inadequate precipitation, excessive rate of
17. The Peninsular river system is older than the evaporation and over-utilization of water from the
Himalayan river system. Consider the following reservoirs and other storages, including the ground
statements about the peninsular river system and water. Consider the following statements about
choose the correct ones. different types of droughts and choose the
incorrect ones.
1. Peninsular rivers are characterized by fixed
course, absence of meanders and non-perennial 1. Meteorological drought is a situation of a
flow of water. prolonged period of inadequate rainfall marked with
uneven distribution of the same over time and
2. The Chambal, the Sind, the Betwa, the Ken and space.
the Son belong to the peninsular river system.
2. If an area has more than 50 percent of its gross
3. The rivers of South India are dependent on cropped area under irrigation, the area is excluded
monsoon and their flow pattern witnesses from the drought prone category.
fluctuations.
3. When the productivity of a natural ecosystem
Code: falls due to shortage of water, it is called
a) 1 and 3 b) 1 only Hydrological drought.
c) 1 and 2 d) 3 only Code:
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 only
18. Monsoon is that axis around which revolves the c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 2
entire agricultural cycle of India. Consider the
following statements in this regard and choose the
incorrect one/s. 20. In the upper and Middle Ganga plain, two
different types of alluvial soils have developed, viz,
1. Rainfall received from south west monsoon is Khadar and Bhangar. Consider the following
seasonal in character. statements about these soil types and choose the
2. Monsoonal rainfall is largely governed by relief correct ones.
and topography. 1. Khadar is the new alluvium while Bhagar
3. Regional variations in monsoon climate help in represents a system of older alluvium.
growing various types of crops. 2. Khadar soil contains calcareous concretions
Code: while Bhangar soil completely lacks it.

3. The sand content in these soil decreases from 3. The temperate forests of Himalayas are called
west to east. Sholas.
Code: Code:
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3 c) None of the above d) 2 and 3
23. India has a rich variety of wetland habitats.
21. On the basis of genesis, colour, composition Consider the following statements about
and location, the soils of India have been classified Mangroves in India and choose the incorrect ones:
into different types. Consider the following 1. Mangroves grow along the coasts in the salt
statements about a particular soil type: marshes, tidal creeks, mud flats and deltas.
1. It is found in the area of heavy rainfall and high 2. Mangroves does not grow along estuaries.
humidity. 3. In India, these are highly developed in Andaman
2. Soil has very rich humus and organic content. and Nicobar Island, Lakshadweep,
3. Soil is normally heavy and black in colour. Sunderbans, Mahanadi and Godavari deltas.
4. It occurs widely in the Northern part of Bihar, Code:
Southern part of Uttaranchal and the Coastal areas a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
of West Bengal, Odisha & Tamil Nadu.
c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3
Above statements are said about which of the
following soil types:
Code: 24. For the purpose of effective conservation of
flora and fauna, special steps have been initiated
a) Alluvial soil b) Saline soil by the Government of India in collaboration with
c) Peaty soil d) Blacks soil UNESCO’s ‘Man and Biosphere Programme’.
Ans. C Consider the following statements in this regard
22. In Mountainous areas, the decrease in and choose the correct ones.
temperature with increasing altitude leads to a 1. Initially the Project Tiger was launched in ten tiger
corresponding change in natural vegetation. reserves.
Consider the following statements about these 2. Project Elephant is aimed at ensuring long term
forest types and choose the incorrect ones. survival of identified viable population of elephants
1. Wet temperate forests are found between an in their natural habitat.
altitudes of 1000-2000 mt in the Himalayas. 3. Biosphere reserves are terrestrial and coastal
2. Deodar, a highly valued endemic species grows ecosystem, which are internationally recognized
mainly in the eastern part of Himalayas. within the framework of UNESCO’s Man and
Biosphere (MAB) Programme.

Code: 2. Ox-bow lakes

a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 3. Braided channels
c) 2 and 3 d) 2 only 4. Waterfalls
5. Deltas
25. The drainage pattern of an area is the outcome 6. Rapids
of the geological time period, nature and structure Code:
of rocks, topography, slope, amount of water
flowing and the periodicity of the flow. a) 1, 4 and 6 b) 4 and 6 only
Consider the following statements in this regard c) 2, 3 and 5 d) 3 and 5 only

and choose the incorrect ones.
1. The drainage pattern of Northern plain resembles 27. Himalayan River system mainly includes the
the branches of a tree and is called dendritic Ganga, the Indus and the Brahmaputra river basins.
pattern. Since these are fed both by melting of snow and
2. When the rivers originate from a hill and flow in all precipitation, rivers of this system are perennial.
directions, the drainage pattern is known as Which of the following is/are not the characteristics
centripetal. of Himalayan rivers?
3. When the primary tributaries of rivers flow parallel 1. Old rivers with graded profile have almost
to each other and secondary tributaries join them at reached their base levels
right angles, the pattern is known as trellis. 2. Antecedent and consequent rivers leads to
4. When the rivers discharge their waters from all dendritic pattern in plains
directions in a lake or depression, the pattern is 3. Very large catchment area
know as radial.
Code:
Code:
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3
a) 1 and 3 b) 3 and 4
c) 1 only d) 1 and 3
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 d) 2 and 4
28. The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is
a low pressure zone located at the equator where
26. The Himalayan drainage system has evolved trade winds converge. Consider the following
through a long geological history. These rivers are statements about ITCZ and choose the correct
responsible for different erosional as well as ones.
depositional structures during their course. Which 1. It is a zone where air tends to descend
of the following is/are a result of depositional
2. In July, the ITCZ located around 20°N-25°N
activity of the Himalayan rivers?
latitudes (over the Gangetic plain) is also called the
1. V-shaped valleys monsoon trough.

3. Due to the shift of ITCZ, the trade winds of the 2. It lies in the rainshadow area of the Arabian Sea
southern hemisphere cross the equator between 40° branch of the south-west monsoon.
and 60°E longitudes and start blowing from Code:
southwest to ortheast due to the Coriolis force.
a) 1 only b) 2 only
Code:
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 3
Ans. C
c) 2 and 3 d) 2 only
31. In the Indian tradition, a year is divided into six,
2-monthly seasons. This cycle of seasons, which
29. Monsoon is a familiar though a little known the common people in North and Central India
climatic phenomenon. Despite the observations follow is based on their practical experience and
spread over centuries, the monsoon continues to age-old perception of weather phenomena.
puzzle the scientists. Which of the following However, this system does not match with the
statement/s is/are correct about Onset of seasons of South India where there is little
Monsoon? variation in the seasons. Match the following item
1. The differential heating of land and sea during the in List-I with items in List-II with the help of code
summer months is the mechanism which sets the given below:
stage for the monsoon winds to drift towards the List-I List-II
subcontinent. A. Vasanta 1. May-June
2. The shift in the position of the ITCZ is related to B. Grishma 2. March-April
the phenomenon of the withdrawal of the Westerly
jet stream from its position over the North Indian C. Varsha 3. July-August
plain, south of the Himalayas. D. Sharada 4. November-December
3. The Westerly jet streams is held responsible for E. Hemanta 5. September-October
the burst of the monsoon in India.
F. Shishira 6. January-February
Code:
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2 and 3
ABCDEF
c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3
a) 1 2 3 5 6 4
b) 2 1 5 3 4 6
30. Where whole of India receives rainfall from
c) 2 1 3 5 4 6
southwest monsoon, Tamil Nadu coast remains dry
during this season. Which of the following reasons d) 1 2 6 4 5 3
can be responsible for this: Ans. C
1. The Tamil Nadu coast is situated parallel to the 32. The average annual rainfall in India is about
Bay of Bengal branch of southwest monsoon 125 cm, but it has great spatial variations. In the

figure given below, the dotted area represents 35. The impact of Tsunami is less over the ocean
which of the following? and more near the coast where they cause
a) Areas having rainfall more than 200cm. large-scale devastation. Why?
b) Areas having rainfall 100-200cm 1. The speed of wave in the ocean depends upon
the depth of water
c) Areas having rainfall 50-200cm
2. Over deep water the Tsunami has very long
d) Areas having rainfall less than 50cm wave-length and limited wave-height as compared
Ans. D to shallow water near the coast
33. Koeppen used letter symbols to denote climatic Code:
types as given below. Each type is further a) 1 only
subdivided into sub-types on the basis of seasonal
variations in the distributional pattern of rainfall b) 2 only
and temperature. In light of above statement which c) Both 1 and 2
of the following pair/s is/are correctly matched? d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Amw - Monsoon with short dry season Ans. C
2. As - Tropical savannah 36. Tropical cyclones are intense low-pressure
3. Aw - Monsoon with dry summer areas confined to the area lying between 300N and
4. BShw - Semi-arid steppe climate 300S latitudes. Which of the following initial
conditions are required for the emergence of
Code: tropical cyclone?
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) 1 and 3 1. Large and continuous supply of warm and moist
c) 1 and 4 d) 2, 3 and 4 air that can release enormous latent heat
2. Presence of strong Coriolis force
34. India is a land of great variety of natural 3. Presence of strong vertical wind
vegetation. Considering the statement, the shaded Code:
portion of the given map below represents which of
the following type of natural vegetation? a) 1 only
a) Montane forest b) 1 and 2 only
b) Tropical thorn forest c) 2 only
c) Tropical deciduous forest d) 1, 2 and 3
d) Tropical evergreen and Semi Evergreen forest Ans. B
Ans. D 37. Consider the following statements:

1. Deccan Plateau is bordered by Western Ghats in 39. Match the following items in List-I (River) with
the West, Eastern Ghats in the east and the Satpura, the items in List-II (Place where it joins river
Maikal and Mahadeo hills in the north Ganga)
2. Western Ghats are locally known as Sahyadri in List-I List-II
Maharashtra and Nilgiri hills in Kerala A. Gandak 1. Arrah
3. Heights of the Western Ghats decreases from B. Ghaghara 2. West Bengal
north to south
C. Mahananda 3. Chhapra
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? D. Son 4. Sonpur
a) 1 only Code:
b) 1 and 2 only ABCD
c) 2 and 3 only a) 1 2 3 4
d) 2 only b) 3 4 2 1
Ans. A c) 4 3 2 1
d) 2 1 4 3
38. Consider the following statements: Ans. C
1. The western coastal plains are an example of 40. Which of the following rivers is/are not a
submerged coastal plain tributary of Godavari?
2. Western coastal plains are broad in the middle 1. Penganga

and gets narrower in the north and south 2. Pranhita
3. There are less number of ports and harbours in 3. Koyna
the eastern coastal plain
4. Bhima
Which of the statements given above is/are
Code:
correct?
a) 4 only
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 only
d) 3 and 4 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. D
Ans. B

Class-12 : Politics in India Since Independence (New)
1. After Independence, our country had to face 1. British Indian provinces were directly governed by
several challenges. Consider following statements British East India Company.
regarding these challenges- 2. Princely states enjoyed full control over their
1. All Muslim majority areas wanted to join Pakistan internal affairs but not on issues related to foreign
in accordance with popular ‘Two-Nation Theory’ as relations.
given by Muslim league. Choose the incorrect statements
2. Muslim majority areas of British India were Code:
concentrated in different pockets.
a) 1 only b) 2 only
3. Muslim majority provinces were to be separated
on the basis of religion and language. c) Both 1 and 2 d) None
Choose the incorrect statements.

Code: 3. Indian Government had taken a firm stand to
prevent possible division of country into small
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 principalities after independence. Consider the
c) 1 and 3 d) All are correct following statements in this regard-
1. Government showed more rigidity towards giving
2. British India was divided into British Indian autonomy to these princely states.
provinces and princely states. Consider following
statements in this regard.

2. Accession of princely states of Junagarh, c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Hyderabad, Kashmir and Manipur proved more 6. Government formed after first general election
difficult than the rest. had many prominent freedom fighters who held
Choose correct statement/s important portfolios. Consider the following
Code: statements and choose the correct statements.
a) 1 only b) 2 only 1. Rajkumari Amrit Kaur was Health Minister in this

government.
2. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was first Home Minister
4. Hyderabad was the largest princely state when and Deputy Prime Minister.
India got independence. Its accession proved to be
a difficult task. Consider the following statements 3. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad held the Ministry of
and find the correct statement/s: Social Justice and Empowerment.
1. Some parts of old Hyderabad state are todays Code:

parts of Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2
and Tamil Nadu. c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3
2. Nizam of Hyderabad entered into Standstill
Agreement with India in September 1947 for six
months while negotiations were going on with 7. Communist Party of India (CPI) has a long drawn
Indian Government. history of electoral participation in the country.
Consider the following statements and choose
Code: correct statements.
a) 1 only b) 2 only 1. CPI formed government in Kerala in 1952 and it
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 was for the first time in the world that a Communist
Party came to power through democratic process.
5. Congress proved its dominance in first three 2. Communist government in Kerala was dismissed
general elections for Lok Sabha. Consider the under Article 356 in the year 1959.
following statements in the context of general Code:
elections. a) 1 only b) 2 only
1. Socialist Party came at second position in first c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
general election.
8. Socialist party origin can be traced to
2. Congress won majority seats in all States in first pre-independence era but later it underwent many
State Assembly Elections. splits. Consider the following statement and
Choose the incorrect statement/s: choose the correct one/s:
Code: 1. Socialist party was formed by socialists in 1934,
a) 1 only b) 2 only through a split in congress.

2. Socialists believed in ideology of libertarian c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

socialism which believed in peaceful democratic
means
11. Match the following regional aspirations with
Code: the states. Nature of regional States
a) 1 only b) 2 only Aspiration
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 A. Socio-religious identity leading to statehood
1. Tamil Nadu
9. Swatantra Party was formed in 1959. Consider
the following statements regarding this party: B. Linguistic identity and tensions with centre
1. According to its ideology, prosperity could come 2. Punjab
through individual freedom
2. It favoured expansion of free public sector C. Regional imbalance leading to demand for
3. It opposed licensing regime statehood 3. Mizoram
4. It supported centralised planning but opposed
nationalisation D. Secessionist demands on account of tribal
Which of the above statements are correct? identity 4. Chhattisgarh
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 3 d) All of the above Code:
ABCD
10. Development has different meanings for a) 1 2 3 4
different sections of society and different groups b) 2 1 4 3
have different ideologies related to development.
Consider the following statements in this regard c) 1 2 4 3
and choose the correct one/s: d) 2 1 3 4
1. Rightist ideology refers to those who are in favour
of poor, downtrodden sections and support
12. The ‘Kashmir issue’ is always seen as a bone of
government policies for the benefit of these
contention between India and Pakistan.
sections
Choose the correct statement/s in this regard.
2. Leftist ideology refers to those who believe that
government should not unnecessarily intervene in 1. Jammu region, which is entirely a plain area
the economy consists of Hindus, Muslims and Sikhs.
Code: 2. The Kashmir issue is just an outcome of dispute

between India and Pakistan.
a) 1 only b) 2 only

3. Jammu & Kashmir is one of the living examples Code:

of plural society and politics. a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2 and 3
Code: c) 1, 2 and 4 d) All of the above
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2
c) Only 3 d) None 15. One of the major long term development during
eighties was the rise of politics based on religious
13. OBCs are the communities other than SC and identity, leading to a debate about secularism and
ST who suffer from educational and social democracy. Choose the correct statement/s in this
backwardness. Choose the correct statement/s in regard.
this regard. 1. Initially, BJP had embraced ‘Gandhian Socialism’
1. Karpoori Thakur, was a pioneer in raising voice for as its ideology but it failed to succeed.
reservations for backward castes in North India. 2. Muslim women (Protection of Rights on Divorce)
2. Mandal Commission was the first Backward Act, 1986 was passed by the government on
Class Commission since Independence, appointed direction of the Supreme Court.
by Central Government. 3. Faizabad district Council in February 1986 gave a
3. The decision to implement Mandal Commission surprising order to demolish the Babri Masjid.
recommendation was challenged in the Supreme Code:
Court in the famous ‘S R Bommai Case’. a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3
Code: c) None of the above d) 1 only
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3 d) 1 only 16. Consider the following statements about the
Chinese invasion of 1962 and choose the correct
14. BSP, under Kanshi Ram’s leadership was one/s.
envisaged as an organization based on pragmatic 1. The Soviet Union, despite being a communist
politics. It derived confidence from the fact that state, was in support of India during the conflict.
‘Bahujans’ constituted the majority of population, 2. The war led to the first No-Confidence motion in
and were a formidable political force on the the Parliament of India.
strength of their numbers. Which of the following
constituted ‘Bahujans’? 3. It also caused a split in the Communist Party of
India and the formation of CPI (M).
1. Scheduled Casts
Code:
2. Scheduled Tribes
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
3. Other Backward Casts
c) Only 1 d) Only 3
4. Minorities

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17. Choose the incorrect statements about the 2. The first summit of NAM was held in Bandung in
1971 Bangladesh war. 1961
1. The war conditions led India signing a 20 year 3. India followed genuine non alignment till Janata
Treaty of peace and friendship with USA in 1971. party came to power in 1977
2. India retaliated the Pakistan army with an attack Code:
mainly using air force due to the lack of support a) 1 and 3 b) 1 and 2
from local population.
3. The Shimla agreement between Lal Bahadu
Shastri and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto formalized the return
of peace in July 1972. 20. Choose the incorrect statements about India’s
Code: relationship with Pakistan.
a) 1 and 3 b) 1 and 2 a) The Kashmir conflict of 1947 prevented the

cooperation between the governments of India and
c) 2 and 3 d) All the above Pakistan.
b) A long term dispute about sharing of river waters
18. Consider the following statements about India’s was resolved through mediation of the World Bank
nuclear policy and choose the correct ones. in 1960.
1. India’s nuclear programme was started in the late c) The 1965 Indo-Pak war was focused in both Rann
1940s under the guidance of Homi J. Bhabha. of Kutchh and Jammu and Kashmir areas
2. Nehru was against the nuclear weapons and d) Indian army crossed the border and reached
pleaded the superpowers for comprehensive close to Lahore, in the 1972 war.
nuclear disarmament.
3. India was in support of the NPT when it was 21. Choose the incorrectly matched pairs
adopted and the plan of its indefinite extension
caused India to change her stand. 1. Ram manohar lohia – Janata Party
Code: 2. K Kamaraj - Dravida Munetra Kazhakam
a) 1 and 2 b) Only 1 3. Moraji Desai - Samyuktha Socialist Sarty
c) Only 3 d) All of the above 4. C N Annadurai - Indian National congress

Code:
19. Consider the following statements about NAM a) 2 and 4 b) 1 and 3

and choose the incorrect ones. c) 1, 2 and 3 d) All the Above
1. The leaders of Ghana, Egypt, Indonesia,
Yugoslavia and India comprised the core leadership
of NAM

22. Consider the following statement about the 2. CPI, PSP, Bharatiya Jana Sangh, Swatantra Party
Presidential election of 1969 and Bharatiya Kranti Dal came together under this
1. N Sanjiva Reddy the then speaker of Lok Sabha umbrella.
was the official candidate of congress. Code:
2. The then congress President Nijalingappa issued a) 1 only b) 2 only
a whip asking all congress MPs and MLAs to vote c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
against the official candidate.
3. The election led to the victory of V.V. Giri who was
supported by the ‘requisitionist’. 25. Which among the following statements is/are
correct?
Choose the correct statements:
1. Bharatiya Jan Sangh was formed by Shyama
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 Prasad Mukherjee in 1951.
c) 1 and 3 d) All of the above 2. The party emphasised idea of orthodoxy and
strong Indian Traditions.
23. The Indira government abolished privy purses. 3. The party was in forefront of the agitation to
Consider the following statements in this regard replace English with Hindi as the official language of
and choose the correct ones India.
1. After independence, the then royal families were 4. The party called for the reunion of India and
allowed to retain certain private properties and were Pakistan in ‘Akhand Bharat’.
given a grant in heredity or government allowance Code:
and this grant was called Privy Purse.
a) 1, 2 and 4
2. Nehru was against this concept of privy purses
b) 1, 3 and 4
3. The privy purses were abolished through an
ordinance and later it got passed in the Parliament c) 1 and 4
in 1970. d) All of the above
Code:
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 26. Consider the following statements:
c) 1 and 3 d) All of the above 1. Nehru was the co-founder of Non Alignment
Movement (NAM)
24. Consider the following statements about the 2. Bandung Conference led to the establishment of
Grand Alliance formed in 1971 at the time of fifth NAM
Lok Sabha election and choose the correct one/s: 3. India advocated the policy of NAM because it
1. Grand alliance was formed by the major wanted to keep away from the military alliances.
communist and non-congress opposition parties.

4. The 1st NAM Conference was held in Belgrade in

1959 29. Consider the following statements about
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Chipko movement?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 2 only 1. Women’s active participation in the Chipko
c) 1 and 3 d) None of above agitation was a very novel aspect of the movement
2. The Chipko movement was confined to ecological
issues only
27. Which of the following statements given below
is/are correct? 3. The movement began in Uttarakhand when the
forest department refused permission to the
1. Kerala model focus on education, health and land villagers to fell ash trees for making agricultural
reform only. tools Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2. Economist J.C. Kumarappa proposed an a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
alternative blueprint that put greater emphasis on
rural industrialization. c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
Code:
a) 1 only b) 2 only 30. An ambitions developmental project was
launched in the Narmada valley of Central India in
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 the ‘eighties’. Consider the following statements:
1. Narmada and its tributaries flow across the
28. India was born in very difficult circumstances. states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra
Consider the following statements regarding the 2. Sardar Sarovar Project in Gujarat and Narmada
challenges India faced and find out the correct Sagar Project in Maharashtra were two of the most
statements. important multipurpose dams planned under the
1. The first and the immediate challenge was to project
shape a nation that was not united. Which of the above statements are correct?
2. Another challenge was to develop democratic a) 1 only b) 2 only
practices in accordance with the constitution.
c) Both 1 and 2 d) None
3. Country also faced challenges in ensuring the
development of entire society. 31. Consider the following statements regarding
the Shah Commission and choose the incorrect
Code: one/s:
a) 2 only 1. Congress government had appointed this
b) 1 and 2 only Commission to inquire into incidence that happened
at the time of emergency proclaimed on 25th June,
c) 2 and 3 only
1975.
d) 1, 2 and 3

2. The Commission Examined various kinds of 1. Communists of India opposed the move to
evidence and called scores of witnesses to give intensify freedom movement during second world
testimonies, including Indira Gandhi. war.
3. The Government of India did not accept its 2. In the first general election, CPI won 16 seats and
findings emerged as the largest opposition party.
Code: 3. The party’s support was more concentrated in
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar and Kerala.
c) Only 1 d) All of the above Code:

a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2
32. In the 1970s and 1980s, many sections of the c) Only 3 d) 2 and 3
society became disillusioned with the failure of the 34. Many Provincial Congress Committees were
Janata experiment which ultimately led to a created on the basis of linguistic zones, which did
political instability. Consider the following not follow the administrative divisions of British
statements and choose the correct ones in this India. Which among the following statements are
regard. not correct in this regard?
1. The disillusionment was more about economic 1. State Re-organisation Commission was
policies of the state. appointed in 1953 to look into the question of
2. The model of planned development that was redrawing of the boundaries of the States.
adopted after independence was based only on the 2. State Re-organisation Commission wanted India
goal of rapid growth, and resulted in disparities. to be divided into states based on geographic
3. Inspite of the impressive growth in many sectors contiguity.
of the economy, existing social inequalities like 3. Statehood for Punjab was given in 1970 when the
caste and gender sharpened and complicated the territories of today’s Haryana and Himachal Pradesh
issues of poverty. were separated from larger Punjab State.
Code: Code:
a) Only 1 b) 2 and 3 a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 d) None of the above c) 1 and 3 only d) None of the above
33. In the early 1920’s communist groups emerged
in different parts of India taking inspiration from 35. Consider the following statements about the
the Bolshevik revolution in Russia and advocating coalition governments formed in the 1967 and
socialism. Consider the following statements and choose the correct ones regarding this.
choose the correct one/s:
1. Congress lost the majority in nine states which
led to the formation of coalition governments.

2. In Haryana, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh,

Congress lost the majority due to defection.
3. DMK was the only party which came to power
with a clear majority.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 d) All the above
D- All are correct.

Class-8 : Resource and Development (New)
1. The factors affecting location of Industries are a) An IT Industry company with headquarters in
the availability of land, raw materials, water, labour, Bangalore.
power, transport and market. Consider the b) A person who loses overseas job in it and has to
following statements. return to Bangalore.
1. Government provides incentives like cheap power c) A business process which is outsourced to
or transportation for developing industries in countries like India.
backward areas.
d) Losing a job in US due to outsourcing to
2. Major Industrial Regions of the world are located Bangalore.
in tropical regions, near sea ports and especially
near coal fields. Ans. D
Which of these is/are not correct? 3. Match the following shifting cultivation with
regions where they are known so.
a) 1 only b) 2 only
List-I List-II
1. Jhum A. Mexico
Ans. B
2. Milpa B. Brazil
3. Roca C. Malaysia
2. Being Bangalored meAns...
4. Ladang D. India

Code: C. Minerals at shallow depth taken out by removing

1234 the surface layer.
a) D C A B D. Boring deep wells to take out minerals from far

below the earth crust.
b) A D C B
Code:
c) D A B C
1234
d) A C B D
a) B A C D
Ans. C
b) C B A D
4. Different types of agricultural practices suits
different purposes. Which of the following c) B A D C
statements are correct about the farming methods. d) C A D B
1. Intensive subsistence farming includes single Ans. D
cropping in the same year. 6. In the wake of possible exhaustion of fossil fuels
2. Nomadic herding is practiced in arid and semi we are thinking of alternative sources of energy.
arid regions of India. Consider the following statements in this regard.
3. Commercial grain farming is mostly practiced in 1. Most of the non-conventional sources of energy
temperate grasslands. are cost efficient.
Code: 2. Tidal energy production poses serious threat to
a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only habitat of wildlife.
c) 2 and 3 only d) 2 only 3. Wind energy production affects radio and TV
Ans. C reception.
4. Biogas production deccelerates green house
effect.
5. Match the following:
Which of these is/are correct?
List-I
1. Open Cast Mining
2. Shaft mining
Ans. B
3. Drilling
4. Quarrying
7. Which of the following explains the importance
List-II of shelter belts?
A. Deep bores to reach minerals at great depth. a) Shelter belts are flat steps made on the steep
B. Digging out of minerals near the surface slopes

b) Shelter belts are rows of trees planted in coastal a) Smelting is the process in which metals are
or dry regions to check wind movement to protect extracted from their ores by cooling below the
soil cover. boiling point.
c) Shelter belts are water harvesting structures in b) Smelting is the process in which metals are
dry areas. extracted from their ores by heating beyond the
d) Shelter belts are rows of trees planted to protect melting point.
the soil from rain wash. c) Smelting is the process of producing refined
Ans. B goods.
8. Energy generated from tides is called tidal d) Smelting is the major process used in Nuclear
energy. Consider the following statements about Reactors.
tidal energy and choose the correct ones: Ans. B
1. Tidal energy can be best harnessed in the deltas. 11. Identify the correct statement regarding Land
2. Russia, France and Gulf of Kachchh in India have Resource and Land use pattern.
tidal farms 1. 30% of the land area on the earth’s surface is
Code: either sparsely populated or uninhabited.
a) 1 only b) 2 only 2. Plains and river valleys are densely populated

areas of the world.
3. India has world’s highest percentage under
Ans. B cropland of its total land use.
4. Increase in vegetation cover reduces the chance
9. Which of the following best suits the definition of of Landslide occurrence.
Horticulture? Code:
a) Growing vegetables and flowers only a) 2 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) Growing vegetables and flowers for subsistence c) 1 and 4 only d) 2, 3 and 4 only
only
Ans. D
c) Growing vegetables, flowers and fruits for
commercial use.
d) Cultivation of grapes. 12. Match the following:
Ans. C A. Volcano 1. Soil conservation
10. Which of the following statements is/are B. Overgrazing 2. Soil formation

correct about Smelting? C. Mulching 3. Landslide
D. Weathering 4. Soil erosion
Code:

ABCD Code:
a) 2 4 3 1 a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 4 only
b) 3 4 1 2 c) 2 and 3 only d) None of the above
c) 3 4 2 1 Ans. A
d) 1 4 3 2 15. A naturally occurring substance that has
Ans. B definite chemical composition is a mineral. Choose
the correct statement/s regarding minerals
1. Iron ore, bauxite, manganese ore and mica are
13. Which of the following fresh water reserve is examples of metallic minerals.
available and fit for human consumption?
2. Metallic minerals are always ferrous.
1. Glaciers
3. Minerals that lie at shallow depths are taken out
2. Ice-sheets by removing the surface layer by the process called
3. Water in rivers and lake shaft mining.
4. Water vapour 4. A rock is an aggregate of one or more minerals
with definite composition of constituent minerals.
5. Ground water
Code:
Code:
a) 1, 3 and 4 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only
a) 1, 2 and 5 only b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
c) All the above d) None of the above
c) 1, 3 and 5 only d) 3, 4 and 5 only
Ans. D
Ans. D
16. Which of the statement/s is/are incorrect

14. The growth of vegetation primarily depend on
regarding distribution of important minerals across
temperature and moisture. Identify the incorrect
the continents?
sentence/s in this regard:
1. Australia produces more than half of the world’s
1. As the amount of moisture increases, the size of
tin.
trees and their density decreases.
2. Asia is the leading producer of iron-ore in the
2. Temperate Grasslands of the world are located in
world.
the region receiving very high rainfall.
3. Africa is the largest producer of diamond, gold
3. The vegetation of dry areas have leaves with
and platinum in the world.
thorny and waxy surface which reduces the loss of
moisture through evaporation. 4. South America is the largest producer of bauxite
in the world.
4. Deciduous forest do not shed their leaves
simultaneously in any season of the year. Code:

a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 3 and 4 only

c) 2 and 3 only d) All the above 20. Following pair represent the sites of Nuclear
Ans. A power plants and corresponding states in India.
1. Kalpakkam – Tamil Nadu
17. Which of the given statement/s is/are NOT 2. Tarapur – Karnataka

correct? 3. Narora – Maharashtra
1. India has a deposit of low grade iron ore. 4. Kaiga – Uttar Pradesh
2. India is largest producer and exporter of mica. Which of the above pair is/are not correctly
3. Hutti mines in Maharashtra has deposits of gold matched?
in India. a) 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 4 only
4. India is one of the world’s leading producers and c) 1, 2 and 3 only d) 2, 3 and 4 only
exporter of salt. Ans. D
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only 21. Which of the following factor/s favours the
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only practice of commercial farming in the temperate
Ans. B grassland regions of North America, Europe and
Asia?
1. These areas are densely populated.
18. Which of the following countries has smallest
reserve of BLACK GOLD? 2. These areas have large farms spreading over
hundreds of hectares.
a) Saudi Arabia b) Iran
3. Multiple cropping seasons due to moderate
c) India d) South Africa climatic conditions.
Ans. D Code:
19. Which of the regions in India does not produce c) 2 only d) 3 only
Natural gas?
Ans. C
a) Krishna Godavari delta
b) Jaisalmer in Rajasthan
22. Which of the following statements is/are
c) Digboi in Assam correct regarding major crops in the world?
d) b and c both 1. India is the second largest producer of rice after
Ans. C China.

2. India and Bangladesh are the leading producers Code:

of Jute. a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only
3. Brazil is the leading producer of coffee followed c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2 and 3 only
by Columbia and India.
Ans. C
Code:
25. Which are the three main factors that cause
c) 2 and 3 only d) All the above population change?
Ans. D a) Births, Deaths and marriage
b) Births, Deaths and migration
23. Which of the statements is/are correct about c) Births, Deaths and life expectancy
Iron and Steel Industry?
d) Births. Deaths and Sex ratio
1. All the important steel producing centres of India
are spread in 4 states namely-West Bengal, Ans. B
Jharkhand, Maharashtra and Odisha. 26. Sustainable Development is defined as the type
2. TISCO which was set up after Independence is a of development that meets the needs of the
public sector company. present generations without compromising the
ability of future generations to meet their own
3. Pittsburgh is an important steel city of Canada. needs. Consider the following in the context of
Code: Sustainable Development.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only 1. Caring all forms of life.
c) All the above d) None of the above 2. Conserving the earth’s vitality.
Ans. D 3. Empowering the Communities.
4. Minimize the depletion of natural resources.
24. Which of the statements is/are correct? Which of the above are the principles of
1. The first successful mechanized textile mill was Sustainable Development?
established in Ahmadabad in 1854. a) 1 and 4 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. Ahmadabad is known as Manchester of India. c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Osaka is known as Manchester of Japan whose Ans. D
Textile industry depends completely upon imported
raw material.
27. Nuclear energy is dependent on the availability
4. About one third of the Indian textile industry’s of naturally occurring radioactive elements like
total production is exported.

uranium and thorium. Consider the following

statements in this context: 30. Resources can be categorised with various
1. In India, Rajasthan and Jharkhand have large categories based on several factors. Consider the
deposits of Thorium. following statements in this regard.
2. Uranium is found in large quantities in the 1. Soils, rocks, minerals, plants are an example of
Monazite sands of Kerala. abiotic resource
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? 2. Resources that are found everywhere like the air
a) 1 only b) 2 only we breathe is an example of localised resource
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Non-renewable resources once exhausted may

take thousands of years to be replenished
Ans. D
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
28. The organic waste is decomposed by bacteria
in bio-gas digesters to emit biogas, which is c) 3 only d) All the above
essentially a mixture of? Ans. C
a) Methane and Ethane
b) Methane and Oxygen 31. The thin layer of grainy substance covering the
c) Methane and Hydrogen. surface of the earth is called soil. Consider the
following statements about soil formation
d) Methane and Carbon Dioxide
1. Parent rock determines the colour, texture,
Ans. D chemical properties and mineral content of the soil
2. Sub-soil below the top layer is rich in humus
29. Consider the following statements: content
1. The dark soils of the Deccan plateau in 3. Temperature and rainfall play a crucial role in
Maharashtra is an example of Actual Resource. determining rate of weathering and humus
formation
2. The uranium found in Ladakh is an example of
potential resource. Which among the above statements is/are correct?
3. High speed winds are an example of Potential a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
resource. c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Ans. C
Ans. A

32. A narrow zone of contact between lithosphere, 2. In India, geothermal plants are located in
hydrosphere and atmosphere where natural Manikaran in Uttarakhand and Puga valley in Ladakh
vegetation and wildlife exist called Which any the above statements is/are correct?
a) Ecosystem b) Ecology a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Biosphere d) None c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. C Ans. A
33. Consider the following statements:
1. Deciduous forests shed their leaves in a particular 36. Which of the following statements is/are not
season to conserve loss of moisture through correct about minerals?
transpiration
a) They are created by natural processes
2. Evergreen forests never shed their leaves so they
appear evergreen throughout the year Which any the b) They have a definite chemical composition
above statements is/are correct? c) They are inexhaustible
a) 1 only b) 2 only d) Their distribution is uneven
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. C
Ans. A 37. Which of the following is/are an example of
Plantation Crop?
34. Consider the following statements: 1. Cashew
1. CITES is an international agreement between 2. Coffee

governments 3. Sugarcane
2. It aims to conserve the species that are 4. Banana
threatened or declared endangered under IUCN
5. Cotton
Which any the above statements is/are not correct?
Code:
a) 1 only b) 2 only
a) 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans. B
c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
d) All the above
Ans. D
various non-conventional sources of energy
1. The site of the world’s first solar and wind
Wheat?
powered bus shelter is in Scotland

1. Wheat requires moderate temperature and rainfall

during growing season and bright sunshine at the
time of harvest
2. It thrives in well drained loamy soil
3. In India it is grown in summer
Ans. A
1. Millets can be grown on less fertile and sandy
soils
2. Maize requires high temperature and high rainfall
3. Cotton grows well in black and alluvial soil
Which any the above statements is/are correct?
Ans. D
40. Vultures in the Indian subcontinent are
disappearing very fast. Which of the following
reasons can be attributed to this
a) Killed by farmers and poachers
b) Dwindling of prey on which they survive
c) Dying due to kidney failure shortly after
scavenging livestock treated with diclofenac
d) All of the above
Ans. C

Class-8 : Modern India
1. Consider the following statements: 2. Vinoba Bhave was declared the leader of the Quit
1. The Cripp’s Mission agreed to the demand for a India Movement
Constituent Assembly Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2. The People of the States were given proper a) 1 only
representation in the proposed Constituent b) 2 only
Assembly of Cripp’s Mission
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 only
Ans. D
b) 2 only
3. Arrange the following events chronologically:
c) Both 1 and 2
1. Cripp’s Mission
d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Cabinet Mission
Ans. A
3. Quit India Movement
4. Individual Satyagraha
1. On 8 August 1940, the All India Congress
Committee at a meeting in Bombay passed the 5. RIN Mutiny
resolution for Quit India Movement Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:

Codes: 6. Consider the following statements:

a) 1 – 4 – 2 – 3 – 5 1. In February 1948, the Indian troops entered
b) 4 – 1 – 3 – 5 – 2 Secunderabad and the Nizam of Hyderabad
Surrendered
c) 4 – 1 – 3 – 2 – 5
2. In September 1948, the people of Junagadh voted
d) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3 – 5 in favour of the state acceding to India
Ans. B Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
4. Who among the following did not take part in a) 1 only
Individual Satyagraha?
b) 2 only
1. Aruna Asaf Ali
c) Both 1 and 2
2. Satyawati
d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Lakshmi Swaminathan
Ans. C
4. Mian Iftikhar-ud-din
7. Which of the following is/are correct?
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below: 1. In 1922, the Congress session held at Gaya and
presided over by Abul Kalam Azad, rejected the
Codes: proposal for entering the legislation
a) 1 and 2 2. At a special session held at Delhi under the
b) 1 and 4 Presidentship of CR Das, the Congress permitted
the Swarajists to contest the elections Select the
c) 1, 2 and 3
correct answer from the codes given below:
d) 1, 2 and 4
Codes:
Ans. D
a) 1 only
5. Which of the following is not correct?
b) 2 only
a) In 1954, freedom fighters liberated Dadra and
c) Both 1 and 2
Nagar Haveli from Portuguese rule
d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) In 1964, Government of India and Portugal
entered into an agreement under which Portuguese Ans. D
rule came to an end in India 8. Consider the following statements:
c) In 1948, there was a revolt in Mahe and French 1. The first session of All India Trade Union in 1920
administration surrendered was presided by N M Joshi
d) Tristao Braganza Cunha, founded congress 2. Madras Labour Union was formed in 1920
committee in 1928 in Goa
Ans. B

a) 1 only 11. The President of the Congress session which

b) 2 only passed the National Economic Programme was
c) Both 1 and 2 a) Motilal Nehru
d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans. D c) Vallabhbhai Patel
9. Consider the following statements: d) Subhash Chandra Bose
1. The congress session at madras, which was Ans. C

presided over by M. A. Ansari in 1927 passed the 12. Who among the following attended the first
Independence Resolution, which declared the Round Table Conference in London?
attainment of complete Independence as the goal of
1. Muslim League
the Indian people
2. Congress
2. In December 1925, under the Presidentship of
Motilal Nehru, the congress passed the resolution 3. Indian Princes
demanding Dominion status Which of the above 4. Hindu Mahasabha
statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only below:
b) 2 only Codes:
c) Both 1 and 2 a) 1 and 3
d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) 1 and 4
Ans. A c) 1 and 2
10. Consider the following statements: d) 1, 3 and 4
1. Muslim League boycotted the Simon Commission Ans. D
2. Muslim League was holding its session at the 13. Consider the following statements:
same place and time where Congress session were
1. In Tamil Nadu C. Rajagopalchari led a march
held during 1916 and 1924
similar to the Dandi March in April 13, 1931 from
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Tanjore to Vedaranyam
a) 1 only 2. In Dharsana, Sarojini Naidu led the Salt
b) 2 only Satyagraha Which of the above statements is/are
not correct?
c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 2 only
Ans. C
c) Both 1 and 2

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d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. A Ans. D
14. The All India States People’s Conference was 17. The Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company was
formed in 1927 and the secretary of this founded by
organization was a) Surendranath Banerjee
a) Ramanauda Tirtha b) Veeraragavachariar
b) Mohammad Abdullah c) V O Chidambaram Pillai
c) Pattum Thanu Pillai d) Veerasalingam
d) Balwant Rai Mehta Ans. C
Ans. D 18. During the First World War a group of
15. Consider the following statements: revolutionaries in Kabul proclaimed a Provisional
1. Indian Councils Act 1919 introduced Dyarchy at Government of Free India with
centre a) Barkatullah as President
2. Government of India Act 1935 introduced the b) Bagha Jatin as Prime Minister
Provincial Autonomy c) Kartar Singh Sarabha as the Head of the
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Government
a) 1 only d) Raja Mahendra Pratap as President
b) 2 only Ans. D
c) Both 1 and 2 19. Which of the following is not correct?
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) The decision to launch Individual Satyagraha
Ans. B Movement was taken in Ramgarh session of the
Congress
16. Consider the following statements about 1937
elections: b) The session presided by Maulana Abul Kalam
Azad in 1940 launched the Individual Satyagraha
1. Muslim League won a less than a quarter of the Movement
seats in the North West Frontier Province
c) The first Satyagrahi of Individual Satyagrahi
2. Hindu Communal Parties could win ten percent of Movement was Rajagopalachari
seats in Bombay province
d) Srikrishna Sinha was the premier of Bihar during
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Individual Satyagraha Movement
a) 1 only Ans. C
b) 2 only 20. Consider the following statements:
c) Both 1 and 2

1. Badruddin Tyabji presided the third Congress b) Mahatma Gandhi

session which held at Madras c) Dr Radhakrishnan
2. First Congress session was attended by 72 d) Dr Zakir Hussain
delegates from all Presidencies and Provinces and
the leaders include Pherozshah Mehta, S Ans. B
Subramaniya Iyer, P Ananda Charlu, Surendranath 24. Consider the following sentences.
Bannerjee and Gopal Krishna Agarkar Which of the
1. Jahandhar Shah was put to death by Zulfiqar
above statements is/are correct?
Khan
a) 1 only
2. Farukhshiyar was raised to throne by the Sayyid
b) 2 only brothers
c) Both 1 and 2 3. Nizam-ul-Mulk overthrew Farukhshiyar who was
d) Neither 1 nor 2 supportive of the Sayyid brothers
Ans. A Which of the above statements is/are correct?
21. In which annual session of the Congress, the a) Only 1

Congress gave it support to the ‘Boycott’ and b) Only 2
‘Swadeshi’?
c) Only 3
a) Banaras session in 1905
d) 2 and 3
b) Calcutta session in 1906
Ans. B
c) Surat session in 1907
25. Consider the following sentences:
d) Madras session in 1908
1. Nizam-ul-Mulk led the nobles in overthrowing of
Ans. B the Sayyid brothers
22. The ‘Satyarth Prakash’ speaks the philosophy 2. Mohammad Shah was the emperor when the third
of Panipat war took place
a) Brahmo Samaj Which of the above statements is/are correct?
b) Veda Samaj a) Only 1
c) Ramakrishna Mission b) Only 2
d) Arya Samaj c) Both 1 and 2
Ans. D d) Neither 1 nor 2
23. Nai Talim Scheme of Education was Ans. A
propounded by
26. Which of the following statements is /are
a) Rabindranath Tagore correct?

1. Asaf Jahi dynasty was established by Chin Qilich 1. The Rajputs regained influence during the period
Khan and his successors are called as Nizams of of later Mughals and were frontline supporters
Awadh against the Jats and Marathas
2. Murshid Quli Khan shifted his capital to a town in 2. Sawai Jai Singh built astronomical observatories
central Bengal which he renamed Murshidabad. at Delhi, Ujjain, Benaras, Jaipur, Agra and Mathura
Select the correct answer from the codes given Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
below: a) Only 1
Codes: b) Only 2
a) Only 1 c) Both 1 and 2
b) Only 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1and 2 Ans. B
d) Neither 1 nor 2 29. Consider the following statements:
Ans. B 1. The Sikh Misls emerged on the decline of Mughal
27. Which of the following statements about the power in Punjab due to repeated invasions of
State of Awadh is/are not correct? Ahmad Shah Abdali
1. Saddat Khan, the Governor of Awadh, was 2. Even Nadir Shah failed to subdue the Sikh Misls
succeeded by his son-in-law Shuja-ud-daulah who Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
suppressed lawlessness and improved the finances a) Only 1
2. At the time of Saadat Khan the rulers of Awadh b) Only 2
organised a powerful army, which was composed
of, besides Hindus and Muslims, Naga Sanyasis as c) Both 1 and 2
well d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer from the codes given Ans. D
below:
30. Which of the following about the state of
Codes: Mysore is not correct?
a) Only 1 a) It was a part Deccan Subah
b) Only 2 b) Hyder Ali began his career as a soldier and
c) Both 1and 2 established his dynasty in Mysore
d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) Tipu Sultan gave respect to all faith and won the
support of his subjects
Ans. A
d) Tipu Sultan had good knowledge of international
28. Consider the following statements: developments

Ans. A 1. The battle of Plassey was fought between

31. Which among the following is the correct Siraj-ud-daulah and the English on 23 June 1757.
sequence of Peshwas who ruled Marathas? 2. In this battle Mir Jafar supported English
a) Shivaji, Shahu, Balaji Vishwanath Company but Jagath Seths supported the Nawab.
b) Balaji Vishwanath, Baji Rao-I, Balaji Baji Rao 3. Mir Jafar was made the Nawab and he gave away
large sums of money to Clive and other officials of
c) Balaji Baji Rao, Baji Rao I, Balaji Vishwanath the English Company as reward for their support.
d) Baji Rao I, Balaji Baji Rao, Balaji Vishwanath 4. This battle marks the beginning of the
Ans. B establishment of British power in India.
32. Third Battle of Panipat (1761) was fought Select the correct answer from the codes given
between below:
a) Jats and Sikhs Codes:
b) Marathas and Mughals a) 1, 2 and 3
c) Marathas and Ahmad Shah Abdali b) 2, 3 and 4
d) Peshwas and Gaekwads c) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. C d) All the above
33. Consider the following statements: Ans. C
1. The tax realized by the Marathas from the areas 35. Which of the following statements about Battle
inside their domain, equal to one-fourth of the of Buxar is/are correct?
revenue paid to the Mughal Empire, was known as 1. The battle of Buxar took place on 22 October
the Chauth. 1764.
2. The tax realized by the Marathas equal to 2. Mir Qasim the Nawab of Bengal, Shuja-ud-daulah
one-tenth of land revenue was known as the the Nawab of Awadh, the Mughal Emperor Shah
Sardeshmukhi. Alam prepared for a battle against the British.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 3. In 1765, Shuja-ud-daulah and Shah Alam signed
a) Only 1 treaties at Allahabad with Clive who had become the
Governor of the Company.
b) Only 2
4. Under these treaties, the English Company
c) Both 1and 2
secured the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. B below:
34. Which of the following statements about the Codes:
battle of Plassey is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 2, 3 and 4 2. When Warren Hastings returned to England after

c) 1, 3 and 4 having a huge personal fortune, he was tried by the
Parliament for taking bribes from the Indian rulers.
d) All the above
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
Ans. D
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
1. In 1773, Warren Hastings was made the Governor
of British territory in India. c) Both 1and 2
2. In 1772, the Dual Government was abolished and d) Neither 1 nor 2

Bengal was brought under the direct control of the Ans. A
company.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct? 1. Lord Curzon was the Governor General, who led to
a) Only 1 the expansion of British power in India and the
b) Only 2 neighbouring countries.
c) Both 1and 2 2. Marques of Hastings was the Governor-General

who waged a war against Nepal.
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. B
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
1. Between 1785-1797, although Cornwallis
followed the policy of non-intervention, John Shore c) Both 1and 2
followed the policy of annexation. d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The policy of non-intervention was given up in the Ans. B
case of Mysore State. 40. Which of the following statements about the
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Regulating Act of 1773 is/are not correct?
a) Only 1 1. This was the first direct interference made by the
b) Only 2 British government in the affairs of India.
c) Both 1and 2 2. The Company’s Directors were asked to lay before

the British government all correspondence and
d) Neither 1 nor 2 documentary regarding the civil, military and
Ans. B revenue affairs of the Company.
38. Consider the following statements: 3. The President of the Company’s Calcutta factory,
who used to be the Governor of Bengal, was made
1. The first ruler to accept the Subsidiary Alliance
was the Nawab of Awadh.

the Governor-General of all the Indian territories of 42. Give the correct chronology of following events.
the Company. 1. Widow Remarriage Act
4. For the administration of Justice, the Act 2. Slavery made illegal
proposed the setting up of a Supreme Court at
Bombay. 3. Establishment of Benaras Sanskrit School
Select the correct answer from the codes given 4. Decision to introduce European system of
below: education
Codes: Select the correct answer from the codes given

below:
a) 1 and 2
Codes:
b) 2 and 3
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) Only 4
b) 2, 3, 4, 1
d) All the above
c) 2, 4, 3, 1
Ans. C
d) 3, 4, 2, 1
41. Which of the following statements about Pitt’s
India Act, 1784 is/are correct? Ans. D
1. This act was named after William Pitt the 43. Which of the following statements about Act of
younger, the then Prime Minister of Britain. 1861 is/are correct?
2. This Act set up a Board of Control in Calcutta, 1. The number of ordinary members of the
through which the British government could fully Executive Council was increased to five.
control the Company’s civil, military and revenue 2. The membership of the Legislative Council was
affairs in India. enlarged by an addition of six to twelve more
3. A system of dual government of British India by members.
the British Government and the Company was set 3. The Presidencies of Bengal, Madras and Bombay
up. Council consisting of three members.
Select the correct answer from the codes given 4. Legislative Councils was created in the provinces
below: which comprised of members of the executive
Codes: council and other members whose number varied
from four to eight.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3 below:
c) 1 and 3 Codes:
d) All the above a) 1 and 2
Ans. C b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 3 and 4 advocated the Vedas as the ultimate source of

d) All the above knowledge
Ans. D 4. Veda Samaj propagated belief in one Supreme

God
44. The title of Vidyasagar conferred to Ishwar
Chandra by Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) The Mughal emperor
Codes:
b) The British emperor
a) 1, 2 and 3
c) The Sanskrit College in Calcutta
b) 2, 3 and 4
d) The Hindu College in Calcutta
c) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. C
d) All the above
Ans. C
1. M.G. Ranade was one of the founder of Prarthana
Samaj, who was also one of the founder of Indian 47. Consider the following statements:
National Congress and founded the ‘Indian National 1. In 1878, the Arms Act was passed which forbade
Social Conference’ in 1887. Indians from possessing arms
2. The Indian National Social Conference met once 2. The underlying philosophy of Wood’s Despatch
in every two years when the sessions of the Indian was “creating a properly articulated system of
National Congress were held. education from the primary school to the university”.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct? 3. Wood’s Despatch led to the establishment of the
a) Only 1 ‘Public Instruction Departments’ in the provinces
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
b) Only 2
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) Both 1and 2
c) 1 and 3 d) None of the above
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. D
Ans. B
46. Which of the following is/are correct about the
Veda Samaj? 1. ‘Surendranath Banerjee’ was the first Indian leader
to bring together people from all parts of the
1. Veda Samaj was established in Madras in 1864 country for the first all-India National conference
2. Veda Samaj advocated discarding of caste held at Calcutta in December 1883
distinctions and promotion of widow remarriage and 2. The second session of the Congress, held at
girls education Calcutta and attended by 450 delegates, had been
3. Veda Samaj also condemned the superstitions described as ‘the nucleus of a future parliament for
and the rituals of the Orthodox Hinduism but our country’

Which of the above statements is/are correct? c) Both 1and 2

a) Only 1 d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) Only 2 Ans. C
c) Both 1and 2 51. Which of the following statements about
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Morley—Minto reforms is/are correct?
Ans. A 1. the membership of the central and provincial

legislative councils was enlarged.
2. it introduced communal electorates as a part of
1. Dadabhai Naoroji was also elected to British these reforms.
parliament and promoted the cause of India in that
3. promise to establish a representatives
body
government.
2. Dadabhai Naoroji said that the poverty of the
Indian people was the result of exploitation of India 4. withdraw the partition of Bengal.
by the British Select the correct answer from the codes given
Which of the above statements is/are correct? below:
a) Only 1 Codes:
b) Only 2 a) Only 1 and 4
c) Both 1and 2 b) Only 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) 1, 2 and 3
50. Consider the following statements: Ans. B
1. During 1885-1905, the Congress demanded more 52. Why the Lucknow Pact of 1916 was famous in
powers for the Legislative Council and the creation Indian History?
of the Legislative Councils in provinces where they 1. The ‘moderate’ and ‘extremist’ groups of Indian
did not exists National Congress were reunited under this pact
2. During 1885-1905, the Congress also demanded 2. The Congress and the Muslim League signed this
that the reduction in land revenue and changes in pact to work together
government economic policies, to facilitate the 3. Under this pact, British promised to establish
growth of Indian industries parliamentary type of Government in India
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Select the correct answer from the codes given
a) Only 1 below:
b) Only 2 Codes:

a) 1and 2 a) Only 1
b) 2 and 3 b) Only 2
c) 1 and 3 c) Both 1and 2
d) All the above d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. A Ans. B
53. Which of the following statements about the 55. Which of the following statements about
Act of 1858 is/are correct? Satyasodhak Samaj is/are correct?
1. It put an end to the rule of the Company and 1. Its aim was to work for winning equal rights for
British Government in India was controlled by the the people of the oppressed caste.
British Crown.
2. Opposed the supremacy of the Brahmins.
2. After this Act, a minister of the British 3. Was opened only for lower caste people.
Government called the ‘Secretary of State’ was
made responsible for the Government in India. 4. It was established in the year 1873.
3. Governor-General was given the title of Viceroy Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
4. Company didn’t follow the Act and they revolted
against monarch. Codes:
Select the correct answer from the codes given a) 1 and 2

below: b) 3 and 4
Codes: c) 1, 2 and 4
a) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3 and 4 Ans. C
c) 1. 3 and 4
d) All the above
Ans. A
1. The system of budget was introduced in the GoI
Act of 1861.
2. According to the Indian Councils Act of 1892, the
members of the Legislative Council were now given
the right to ask questions and discuss the budget.

Class-11 : Indian Economic Development (New)
1. In 1991 India met with an economic crisis. Which

of the following can be quoted as a reason for the
same?

Class-9 : Story of Civilization(Old)
1. Among the choices given, which Age was the b) Tin

earliest in man’s evolution? c) Stone
a) Neolithic d) Bronze
b) Chalcolithic Ans. C
c) Mesolithic 4. Consider the following statements about the
d) Palaeolithic Harappan Civilization:
Ans. D 1. Lothal was a dockyard.
2. The first metal to be discovered and used for 2. The animal horse was used extensively for
making tools was transport purposes.
a) Tin Which of the above statements is/are correct?
b) Copper a) 2 only
c) Iron b) 1 only
d) Silver c) Both 1 and 2
Ans. B d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. The word Chalcolithic is formed from chalkas Ans. B
meaning copper and lithos meaning 5. The now famous Rosetta stone was used to
a) Iron decipher which ancient script?

a) Hieroglyphic 1. It was a very disciplined and democratic

b) Cuneiform organization.
c) Brahmi 2. The monks stayed in the viharas throughout the

year practicing meditation.
d) Sumerian
Ans. A
a) 2 only
6. Consider the following features of ancient Indian
society as noted by the Chinese traveller Fa-Hien: b) 1 only
1. There was a group of people who were outcastes c) Both 1 and 2

and lived outside villages. d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The conditions of Shudras were worse than these Ans. B
outcastes. 9. The Chinese thinker Confucius was
Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) A contemporary of Mahavira and the Buddha.
a) 1 only b) More of a statesman than a religious leader.
b) 2 only c) Both (a) and (b)
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither (a) nor (b)
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. C
Ans. A 10. Tenochtitlan, or the ‘Palace of Tenocha’, was
7. Consider the following statements about the the capital city of which American empire of
religious beliefs of the early Aryans : 14thcentury AD?
1. Yajnas were performed in temples to please the a) Aztecs
gods. b) Incas
2. Brahma, Vishnu and Shiva were the chief gods. c) Mayas
Which of the above statements is/are correct? d) None of the above
a) 2 only Ans. D
b) 1 only 11. Consider the following statements about the
c) Neither 1 nor 2 Incas of South America:
d) Both 1 and 2 1. They are famous for their engineering skills.
Ans. C 2. Machu Picchu, a fortress city in Peru, was built by
8. Consider the following statements about the them.
Buddhist sangha: Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. D

b) 1 only 14. Which among the following can be termed as
c) 2 only implications of the discovery and use of iron?
d) Both 1 and 2 1. Rise of towns and cities.
Ans. D 2. Development of crafts.
12. Consider the following observations of Ibn 3. Weakening of barter system.

Battuta during his visit to the kingdom of Mali: 4. Erosion of social distinctions.
1. The society was matriarchal. 5. Improvement in the means of transport.
2. He had seen such a system in only one other Code:
society, the Indians of Malabar.
3. There was no security to the travellers from a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
robbers and brigands in the country.
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
c) 1, 2, 4 and 5
a) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
b) 1 only
Ans. D
c) 1 and 2 only
15. From the 13th century onwards the most
d) 2 and 3 only significant religious movements in India were
Ans. C Bhakti and Sufi movements. Identify the
13. Which among the following is/are true with similarities between the two?
regard to the religious practices of the Aryans? 1. Acceptance of formalism in religion.
1. Personification of natural phenomena. 2. Emphasis on the love and devotion to God.
2. Absence of temples. 3. Concept to human brotherhood.
3. Performance of sacrifices. Code:
4. Observance of rituals.
Code: a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
a) 1, 2 and 4 c) 1 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. B
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

16. The Muslim calendar started in A.D. 622 20. The first significant work in a modern European
because of which event that happened in this year? language was Divine Comedy written by
a) Muhammad’s birth a) Thomas Moore
b) Muhammad’s migration from Mecca to Medina b) Dante Alighieri
c) Muhammad’s death c) William Shakespeare
d) None of the above d) Cervantes
Ans. B Ans. B
17. The famous literary work Rubaiyat was 21. Consider the following statements
composed by 1. The printing press was invented by Gutenberg in
a) Omar Khayyam 15th century A.D.
b) Al-Firdausi 2. The Chinese had invented the art of printing
c) Ibn Sina centuries earlier.
d) Al-Khwarizmi Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Ans. A a) 1 only
18. In medieval Japan, Shogun was the b) 2 only
a) Eldest Prince c) Both 1 and 2
b) Head Priest d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Commander of Japan’s Army Ans. C
d) None of the above 22. The steam locomotive was developed for use in
inter-city railways by
Ans. C
a) James Watt
19. The Last Supper and Mona Lisa are the two
most famous paintings of which Renaissance b) Eli Whitney
artist? c) George Stephenson
a) Leonardo da Vinci d) None of the above
b) Michelangelo Ans. C
c) Raphael 23. Which among the following were responsible
d) None of the above for the erosion of Roman Civilization?
Ans. A 1. Presence of slave labour.

2. Emergence of Christianity.
3. Invasion of German tribes.

4. Faulty law and administrative setup. a) 1, 2 and 3

Code: b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
a) 1, 2 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. C
c) 2, 3 and 4 26. Industrial Revolution, an epoch making event of
d) 1, 3 and 4 the 18th century had its genesis in Britain.
Ans. B Which among the following factors helped Britain

to be the first country to get industrialized?
24. Which among the following events succeeded
the process of German Unification? 1. Absence of social stratification.
1. Emergence of Germany as a strong power in 2. High level of political stability.

Europe. 3. Proximity to coal and iron mines.
2. Initiation of heavy industrialization. 4. Naval superiority.
3. Germany’s scramble for colonies. 5. Availability of colonies.
Code: Code:
a) 1 and 2 a) 1, 3, 4 and 5
b) 1 and 3 b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
c) Only 3 c) 1, 2, 4 and 5
d) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. D Ans. B
25. Capitalism is an economic system, where large 27. The chief characteristic of the Renaissance way
scale capital is used in the process of production. of thinking was ‘Humanism’. Which among the
Indentify the characteristic features of capitalism. following can be associated with the same?
1. Private ownership of means of production. 1. Direct correlation between humans and divinity.
2. Production for need. 2. Rejection of religious asceticism.
3. Fast moving economy. 3. Emphasis on the right to pleasure of earthly

desires.
4. Investment for profit.
Choose the correct statement(s):
Code:
a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, 4 and 5
c) 1 and 3 Ans. C
d) None of the above 30. Consider the following statements.
Ans. B 1. They were creators of a powerful civilization
28. The political system that developed in the early around Andean region of South America in the
nation-states was absolutist. Which among the 14th and 15th centuries.
following were outcomes of the absolute regime? 2. The cities had huge structures.
1. End of instability created by the feudal system. 3. They were famous for their engineering skill.
2. Installation of powerful states. 4. Their emperor was regarded as the descendant of
3. Prosperity to merchants and traders. the sun.
4. Fair and uniform laws. The above mentioned can be related to:
Code: a) Bantu Civilization
a) 1, 2 and 4 b) Maya Civilization
b) 2, 3 and 4 c) Incas Civilization
c) 1, 3 and 4 d) Aztecs Civilization
d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. C
Ans. D 31. The nation states had many achievements to
29. The Maya civilization is said to be one of the their credit. Which among the following can be
oldest Mesoamerican civilizations. Which among termed so?
the following can be associated with it? 1. Destruction of feudalism.
1. Economy based on agriculture. 2. Boost to economic development.
2. Emphasis on religious rites and rituals. 3. Strengthening of arbitrary limits of national
3. Practice of Human sacrifice. boundaries.
4. Prevalence of city – states. 4. Unification of people from a common culture.
5. Pictographic writing style. 5. Termination of serfdom.
Code: Code:
a) 1, 3 and 4 a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
b) 1, 3 and 5 b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 c) 2, 3, 4 and 5

d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 34. Which among the following statements is/are

Ans. A correct with regard to the Jacobin Constitution?
32. Which among the following can be categorized 1. It gave all people the right to vote.
as the outcomes of American Revolution? 2. The right to insurrection was limited.
1. Abolition of slavery. 3. Happiness of all was proclaimed as the aim of
2. Grant of universal male franchise. government.
3. Establishment of republic. 4. The government was to provide work or livelihood

for the people.
4. Abolition of state religion in some states.
Code:
Code:
a) 1, 2 and 4
a) 1 and 2
b) 2, 3 and 4
b) 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 4
Ans. C
Ans. B
35. Both Judaism and Christianity are indebted to
33. Consider the following statements. Zorastrianism. Which among the following
1. Its an economic programme. concepts were derived from the same?
2. It was initiated in the United States. 1. Idea of Satan.
3. It was carried out under the leadership of Franklin 2. Resurrection of dead.
D. Roosevelt. 3. Divine healing.
4. It dealt with economic reconstruction and social 4. Ultimate triumph over the devil.
welfare.
5. Last judgement.
5. It resulted in the recovery of United States from
the Great Depression. Code:
The above mentioned can be related to:

a) Marshall Plan a) 2, 3, 4 and 5
b) New Deal b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) Molotov Plan c) 1, 2, 4 and 5
d) Truman Doctrine d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
Ans. B Ans. C

36. Which among the following factors acted as b) Both 1 and 2

hindrances in the path of German Unification? c) 2 only
1. Socio – economic and politico – religious d) Neither 1 nor 2
disparities.
Ans. A
2. Interference of Austria.
3. Domination of Pope. American constitution:
4. Military weakness of German states. 1. It came into effect in 1789.
Code: 2. It granted universal adult franchise.
a) 1, 2 and 3 a) 1 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 b) Both 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 and 4 c) 2 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. C Ans. A
37. The Protestant Revolution can be said to have 40. Consider the following statements about the
begun in 1517 when, who among the following theory of laissez faire:
published his ninety-five thesis against the
Catholic Church? 1. It stood for rightful intervention by the
governments in business.
a) John Calvin
2. The economist Adam Smith was a staunch critic
b) Ignatius Loyola of the theory.
c) Zwingli Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
d) Martin Luther a) Both 1 and 2
Ans. D b) 2 only
38. Consider the following statements about the c) 1 only
voyage of Columbus
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. He hoped to find India by crossing the Atlantic
Ocean. Ans. D
2. He returned with a huge cargo of spices from the

Indies.
a) 1 only

Class-6&7 : Ancient & Medieval India (Old)
1. Consider the following Statements: Ans. c

1. The ancient Sumerian civilization is found in the 3. Match List-I (Ancient places ) with List-II (their
present ‘Iran’. Present location) and select the correct answer
2. The Harappan people had trading contacts with using the codes given below the lists :
the people of Sumer List-I List-II
Which of the above Statements is/are correct? A. Rupar 1.Sind
a) Only 1 b) Only 2 B. Lothal 2. Rajasthan
c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 C. Kalibangan 3. Ahmedabad
Ans. b D. Kot Diji 4. Chandigarh
2. Consider the following Statements Codes:
1. There is a large building at Mohenjo-daro which ABCD
appears to have been a house of a Governor. a) 4 3 2 1
2. In the citadel at Harappa, the most impressive b) 1 2 3 4
buildings were the Granaries.
c) 2 3 4 1
Which of the above Statements is/are Correct ?
d) 3 4 2 1
a) Only 1 b) Only 2
Ans. a
c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. Consider the following Statements: Ans. b

1. Seals and small objects made at Mohenjo-daro 7. Consider the following Statements :
have been found at sites in Iraq 1. In Vedic period, Group of families was known as
2. Dock has been excavated at Lothal ‘vis’.
Which of the above Statements is/are Correct ? 2. At Mohenjo-daro streets ran straight and at right
a) Only 1 b) Only 2 angles to each other.
c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
Ans. c a) Only 1 b) Only 2
5. Consider the following Statements: c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Some of the Mahenjo-daro people buried their Ans. c

dead in graves others practised Urn-burial. 8. Consider the following Statements :
2. Harappan people have trading contact with the 1. Women holded high position is society
towns lying along the Persian Gulf . 2. Girls were educated along with the boys
Which of the above Statements is/are Correct ? 3. Women were allowed to attend Sabha only
a) Only 1 b) Only 2 4. Women were allowed to attend both Sabha and
c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Samiti
Ans. b Which of the above statements are correct
6. Consider the following Statements : regarding Early Vedic Age?
1. In the Samiti anyone could speak his mind about Codes:

the problem, but the Sabha appears to have been a a) only 1,2, 3 b) only 2, 3, 4
smaller assembly of selected people c) only 1, 3, 4 d) only 1, 2, 4
2. In the Sabha anyone could speak his mind about Ans. d
the problem, but the Samiti appears to have been a
smaller assembly of selected people 9. Consider the following Statements :
3. Sabha and Samiti allowed anyone to speak of his 1. In Vedic age a man’s life was valued as equal to
mind that of a 100 cows.
4. Sabha and Samiti doesn’t exist in vedic period 2. The Aryans referred indigenous people of India as
Dasas and Dasyus
Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
Codes:
a) Only 1 b) Only 2
a) All the above b) Only 1
c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 3 and 4

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Ans. c Ans. c
10. Consider the following Statements : 13. Consider the following Statements :
1. ‘Agni’ was the favourite god of Aryans. 1. Chandra Gupta Maurya was the first king of
2. ‘Soma’was the special drink which was drunk only Magadha .
during religious ceremonies 2. ‘Rajagriha’ was the capital of Magadha during
Which of the above Statements is/are correct? Bimbisara’s time.
a) Only 1 b) Only 2 Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) Only 1 b) Only 2
Ans. b c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. Consider the following Statements : Ans. b
1. Aryan society was divided into four groups or 14. Consider the following Statements :
varnas-kshatriyas, brahmanas, vaishyas and 1. In general the peasants gave One-sixth share of
shudras their produce to the king.
2. Vaishyas and Shudras became influential that 2. During 600 BC to 400 BC artisans and merchants
they were given the first position organized themselves into groups known as
3. The brahmans began by being equal in Shrenis.
importance with the kshatriyas, but slowly they were Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
given the first position a) Only 1 b) Only 2
Which of the above Statements is/are correct? c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Codes: Ans. c
a) only 1 b) only 1, 3 15. Consider the following Statements :
c) only 2 d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Magadha was the most powerful kingdom of the
Ans. b north and was ruled by the Nanda kings.
12. Consider the following Statements : 2. Nandas collected a vast amount of wealth in
Which among the following are Mahajanapads taxes and they kept a huge army.
1. Kosala 2. Magadha 3. Chandragupta trained by Kautilya overthrew the

Nanda king.
3. Vatsa 4. Avanti
4. Nanda king is believed to have been very popular.
Codes:
a) Only 1 b) 1 and 2
Codes:
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 d) 1 and 3
a) Only 1 b) Only 1, 4

c) Only 1, 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. For the first time in India history, Ashoka ruled
Ans. c whole sub-continent except the extreme south.
16. Consider the folowing statements : Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
1. Alexander in 323 BC invaded Punjab a) Only 1 b) Only 2
2. Alexander overthrown the Persian emperor and c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
conquered his empire of the Achaemenid Ans. c
3. Alexander died in 326 BC 19. The ancient script in which Ashoka’s Dhamma
Which of the above statements is/are correct about were written
Alexander ? a) Brahmi b) Brahmi and Greek
Codes: c) Greek d) Hindi
a) Only 3 b) Only 1, 2 Ans. b
c) Only 1, 2, 3 d) Only 2 20. “The Beloved of the Gods, the king Piyadassi,
Ans. d when he had been consecrated twenty years, came
in person and reverenced the place where Buddha
Shakyamuni was born. He caused a stone
17. Consider the following statements : enclosure to be made and a stone pillar to be
erected. As the Lord was born here in the village of
1. Chandragupta conquered the whole of the Punjab
Lumbini, he has exempted it from tax, and fixed its
2. He was defeated by Seleucus Nicator in 305 BC contribution at oneeight.”
3. He acquired the territory across the Indus, part of The above inscription on the Ashokan pillar was
what is now is modern Afghanistan found at
4. He had marriage alliance with Seleucus Nicator a) Maski b) Gandhara
and had conquered parts of Central India
c) Kalinga d) Rumminderi
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct
Ans. d
about Chandragupta Maurya
21. Consider the following Statements :
Codes:
1. Ashoka was the first king to issue rock edicts.
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) Only 1 and 2
2. Kalinga was not the part of Mauryan empire
c) Only 1, 3 and 4 d) Only 2, 3 and 4
during the reign of Bindusara
Ans. c
a) Only 1 b) Only 2
1. During Bindusara’s reign, the Mauryan empire
extended as far south as Mysore and therefore
included almost the whole of India. Ans. c

22. Who were Shramanas? 4. Ashoka started a special group of officers whom
a) Shudras he called the dharma-mahamatras
b) Kshatriyas Which of the following statement about Ashoka’s

Administration is not correct?
c) Both Shudras and Kshatriyas
Codes:
d) Monks of the Buddhist, Jain and other religions
who were in disagreement with the a) Only 1, 2, 3
brahmans b) Only 2, 3, 4
Ans. d c) None of the above
23. Consider the following statements : d) All the above
1. The Edicts of Ashoka were inscribed on rocks and Ans. c

on tall pillars made of Sandstone 25. Megaliths were used to
2. The pillars were so beautifully polished that the a) Mark the site of fire altars
stone like mirrors b) Mark the site of ancient temple
3. On the top of each pillar was carved an animal c) Mark the site of Royal house
figure-an elephant, or a bull, or a lion
d) Mark the site of burials
4. The pillar at Sarnath had four lions carved on the
top Ans. d
Which of the above statements about Mauryan Art 26. Consider the following Statements :
is/are correct ? 1. Rulers after Ashoka were weak and could not
Codes: control the empire properly
a) Only 1, 4 b) Only 2, 3 2. Various regions of the empire were cutoff from

one another by great distances, and this made
c) 1, 2, 3, 4 d) Only 3, 4 administration and communication difficult
Ans. c 3. It was very expensive to keep a large army and a
24. Consider the following Statements : large administrative service, and perhaps the later
1. Ashoka had a council of ministers to advise him Mauryan kings could not collect enough taxes to
pay for these expenses
2. The empire was divided into four big provinces,
and each province was ruled by a viceroy who was 4. Magadha was attacked by Bactrian Greek Kings
under king 5. In 185 BC last Mauryan king was killed by
3. The city was administered by a council and six Pushyamitra Shunga, who started the Shunga
boards which had charge of different departments dynasty in Magadha Reason(s) for the end of the
Mauryan Empire can be attributed to
Codes:

a) Only 2, 3, 4 b) Only 1,3,4 c) Gautamiputra Satakarni

c) All the above d) None of the above d) Nagarjuna
Ans. c Ans. c
27. Consider the following Statements: 30. Which port on western coast of India was used
1. People were not familiar with Iron technology by ships coming from Persia, Iraq, Arabia and
Egypt?
2. They used Black and Red ware pottery
a) Mumbai b) Kochin
3. They have complex ideas about life after death
and probably practised elaborate burial rituals c) Marmagao d) Broach
4. They cultivated rice and millets Ans. d
Which of the above statements about Megalithic 31. Consider the following Statements about
people is/are correct ? Buddhism:
Codes: 1. Ashvaghosha and Nagarjuna played an important

part in helping the spread of Buddhism by their
a) Only 1, 2, 3 b) Only 2, 3, 4 writings.
c) Only 1,3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4 2. In the monasteries debates and discussions were
Ans. b held and monks were sent out to preach Buddhism.
28. Which among the following great ruler of Codes:
Satavahana Dynasty (also known as the Andhras) a) Only 1 b) Only 2
was described as the Lord of the west ?
c) Both 1, 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) Gautamiputra
Ans. c
b) Vasishthiputra
c) Satakarni
1. The characteristic feature of Palaeolithic age is
d) Vakataka the use of cleavers, hand-axes and choppers
Ans. c 2. The characteristic tools of the Mesolithic Age are
29. Shakas, who were ruling in Saurashtra, attacked Microliths.
the Satavahanas and pushed them out of Nasik and Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
into Andhra. But the Satavahanas reorganized their
armies and attacked the Shakas, succeeding finally a) Only 1 b) Only 2
in regaining the western Deccan. This was done by c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) Vasishthiputra Ans. c
b) Satakarni 33. Consider the following Statements :

1. The only Neolithic settlement in the Indian 1. Many centuries ago, three assemblies were held,
subcontinent attributed to 7000 BC lies in Mehrgarh the third at the town of Madurai.
2. Neolithic settlements found in South India are not 2. These poems describe the life of the chiefs and
older than 2500BC . Which of the above Statements of the common people of south India.
is/are correct? 3. In later gatherings, two thousands poems were
a) Only 1 b) Only 2 collected into eight books.
c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. Sangam literature was written in Tamil.
Ans. c 5. There are many poems describing the wars
34. Which kingdom built a fleet of ships and between Cholas, Pandyas and the Cheras.
occupied northern Sri Lanka. Which of the statements about Sangam literature
a) Pandyas b) Cholas are correct ?
c) Cheras d) Pratiharas. Codes:
Ans. b a) Only 1,2,5 b) Only 2, 3, 4
35. Which kingdom according to Megasthenes was c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 d) Only 1, 3, 4, 5

founded by a woman ruler and maintained a very Ans. c
large army. 38. Consider the following statements :
a) Cholas 1. Neduncheraladan was the great hero of
b) Pandyas Pratiharas who conquered many kingdoms and also
c) Cheras captured a Roman fleet off the coast of Malabar.
d) Pratiharas 2. The God Murugan known as Skanda in north was

the best loved God of the Tamil people Which of the
Ans. b above Statements is/are correct?
36. Consider the following Statements : a) Only 1 b) Only 2
1. In Gufkral both agriculture and domestication of c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
animal practice of Neolithic Age was found.
Ans. b
2. In Burzahom,a grave is excavated having
domestic dogs buried with their masters. 39. During Kanishka reign which Buddhist council
was held
a) First council b) Second council
a) Only 1 b) Only 2
c) Third council d) Fourth council
Ans. d
Ans. c
40. During Kushanas time which art reached its
37. Consider the following Statements : zenith.

a) Mathura art 2. The revenues of the state came from the taxes on
b) Gandhara art cultivated land
c) Both Mathura art and Gandhara art 3. Society was divided into castes, most of which
lived in harmony together
d) Gandharva art
4. Untouchables were badly treated
Ans. b
Which statements about society during Gupta
41. Who were Bodhisattvas period is/are not correct?
a) Incarnation of Buddha Codes:
b) Monks of Buddhism a) Only 4 b) Only 1, 2
c) Holy persons who had lived on earth before the c) None of the above d) All the above
Buddha
Ans. c
d) Another name of Lord Buddha.
Ans. c
1. The first Portuguese ship to reach the west coast
42. Consider the following statements : of India was that of Vasco da Gama in 1498
1. We know about Samudragupta from an 2. ‘Nikitin’, the traveller came to india from Russia
inscription engraved on a pillar at Allahabad and travelled in the Deccan.
2. He defeated four kings of northern India and Which of the above Statements is/are Correct ?
added the region of present day Delhi and western
Uttar Pradesh to his kingdom Codes:
3. Samudragupta was not merely a conqueror, he a) Only 1 b) Only 2

was also a poet and a musician c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. In one of his coins he is shown playing a veena Ans. c
Which statements about Samudragupta is/are not 45. Consider the following Statements :
correct? 1. Tamil saints believed that religion consisted of
Codes: personal devotion to a god (Vishnu or Shiva) which
a) Only 1, 4 b) Only 2, 3 was bhakti
c) None of the above d) All the above 2. The alvars were the devotees of Vishnu and the
nayannars were the devotees of Shiva
Ans. c
3. Saints recite their hymns during festivals at
43. Consider the following statements : Kanchipuram
1. Fa Hien’s account is very useful in telling us about Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
life in India during the Gupta period
Codes:

a) Only 1, 2 b) Only 3 Which of the above Statements is/are correct?

c) 1, 2, 3 d) Only 2 Codes:
Ans. c a) Only 1 b) Only 2
46. Consider the following Statements : c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. During Harsha’s period, there was a difference Ans. c
between the houses of the rich and those of the 49. Which of the following statements about Chola
poor kings is/are correct ?
2. The Chalukya king of Vatapi, Pulakeshin II, 1. Vijayalaya was the early Chola king who helped to
reigned here at the same time as Harsha in the establish the Chola kingdom
north
2. Parantaka I, conquered the land of the pandyas
Which of the above Statement(s) is/are Correct ? and took the title of Maduraikondavan, the
Codes: conqueror of Madurai
a) Only 1 3. Parantaka II was defeated by Rashtrakuta king
b) Only 2 Krishna II
c) Both 1 and 2 4. Parantaka I encouraged agriculture in the Chola

kingdom and irrigation canals were built in his reign
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Codes:
Ans. c
a) only 1, 2, 4 b) only 1, 3, 4
c) Only 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
1. Mahendravarman, the Pallava king, ruled at the
same time as Harsha and Pulakeshin II Ans. a
2. Vatapi was the center of Chalukya dynasty 50. Consider the following Statements about
Rajendra is correct ?
1. He had a long reign, from 1016 to 1044
Codes:
2. Rajendra’s northern campaign was in many ways
a) Only 1 b) Only 2 similar to Samudragupta’s southern campaign
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Rajendra defeated the kingdom of Shrivijaya
Ans. c Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
48. Consider the following Statements : Codes:
1. Rashtrakuta kingdom in the northern Deccan a) only 2, 3 b) only 1, 3
fought repeatedly against Palas and Pratiharas
c) 1, 2, 3 d) only 1, 2
2. Pallavas began as officers of the Satavahana
kings Ans. c

51. The kingdom of ‘Later Chalukyas’ was also 2. Pratihara king, Amoghavarsha attempted to
known specially to the historians as control the north by capturing kanauj
a) The Chola Dynasty Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
b) The Kalyan Dynasty Codes:
c) The Chera Dynasty a) Only 1 b) Only 2
d) The Pratihara Dynasty c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b Ans. a
52. Which of the following three kingdoms 55. Consider the following Statements :
(tripartite) were involved in struggle for kanauj. 1. Telugu, language was widely spoken in the Chola
a) Cholas, Palas Rashtrakutas kingdom
b) Palas, Pratiharas,Cholas 2. Many literary and religious works in Sanskrit
c) Cheras,Rashtrakutas, Pandeys became popular when they were rewritten in Tamil,
such as the famous Ramayan of Kamban
d) Palas, Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas.
3. Many of the inscriptions of the Chola kings were
Ans. d written in both Sanskrit and Tamil
53. Consider the following Statements : 4. The poets Pampa, Ponna and Ranna are called
1. The Pratiharas ruled in Avanti and parts of the ‘three jewels’ of kannada literature.
Southern Rajasthan 5. Kannada also became popular because of a
2. Pratiharas became powerful after defeating other group of religious teachers, called the lingayats
foreign kingdoms, what the sources of the time preached in Kannada
describe as the mlechchhas Which of the above statements about Chola
3. Pratiharas captured kannauj by the end of the Education is/are correct?
eighth century Codes:
Which of the above Statements is/are correct? a) 1, 2, 3, 5 b) 2, 3, 4, 5
Codes: c) 1, 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 3,4, 5
a) only 3 b) 1, 2 Ans. b
c) 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3
Ans. d 56. Consider the following Statements :
54. Consider the following Statements : 1. The temple in the Chola kingdom became the
1. The Rashtrakutas were ruling in the northern centre of social activity
Deccan in the region around Nasik 2. The earliest temples had consisted of a
shrine-room and an entrance hall or a verandah.

Later courtyard was built and was surrounded by a) Only 1 b) Only 2

wall. The gateway was known as the Gopuram c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the above Statements is/are correct? Ans. c
Codes: 59. Who of the following is the hero of the famous
a) Only 1 b) Only 2 ballad Prithviraja-raso composed by the Hindi poet
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Chandbardai
Ans. c a) Prithiviraj b) Prithiviraj I
57. Consider the following Statements : c) Prithviraj II d) Prithiviraj III
1. The Palas ruled for about four hundred years and Ans. d
their kingdom consisted of almost the whole of 60. Which of the following statement(s)about
Bengal and much of Bihar Mahmud of Ghazni is/are correct ?
2. The first Pala king Gopala established the Pala 1. Mahmud belong to the kingdom of Ghazni
dynasty founded by a Turkish nobleman in the tenth century
3. Gopala’s son, Dharmapala made pala dynasty 2. He attacked India, seventy times
more powerful, reorganized his army and attacked 3. He destructed the temple of Somnath and looted
kanauj it
4. Pala dynasty had a good relation with the king of 4. He was the patron of the famous Persian poet
Tibet Firdausi, who wrote the epic poem Shah
Which of the above statements about Palas is/are Namah. He sent scholar Alberuni to India
correct?
Codes:
Codes:
a) only 1, 2, 3 b) only 1, 3, 4
a) Only 1, 3, 4 b) only 2, 3, 4
c) only 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4 d) only 1, 2, 3
Ans. b
Ans. c
61. Which of the following statements about
58. Consider the following Statements : Muhammad Ghori is/are correct ?
1. The city of Dhillika was built by Tomaras 1. Muhammad Ghori was interested in conquering
2. In Rajputs there were four clans, Pratiharas northern India and adding it to his kingdom
(Pariharas), Chauhans (or Chahamanas), Solankis 2. His most important campaign in India was
(or Chaulukyas) and Pawars (Paramaras) against the Chauhan ruler, Prithviraj III.
Which of the above Statements is/are correct? Muhammad defeated him in the second battle of
Codes: Tarrain in 1192

3. After his death in 1206, his territory in northern 1. The earliest rulers of the Delhi Sultanate were the
India was left in control of his general Qutb-ud-din Mamluks
Aibak 2. Iltutmish succeeded Qutb-ud-din as Sultan
Codes: Which of the above Statements is/are Correct ?
a) only1, 3 b) only 2, 3 Codes:
c) 1, 2 d) 1, 2, 3 a) Only 1 b) Only 2
Ans. d c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
62. Match List-I(Books) with List-II (Writers) and Ans. c
select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists :
1. Raziya was daughter of Iltutmish
List-I (Books ) List-II (Writers)
2. Mamluks are also known as the slave kings
1. Katha-Saritasagara A. Jayadeva because many of them were either slaves or were
2. Vikramanka-deva-charita B. Kalhana the sons of slaves who had become sultans
3. Rajatarangani C. Bilhana Which of the above Statement(s) is/are Correct ?
4. Gita-Govinda D. Collection of stories in Sanskrit Codes:
Codes: a) Only 1
1234 b) Only 2
a) D C B A c) Both 1 and 2
b) A B C D d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) C B A D Ans. c
d) D C A B 66. Consider the following statements :
Ans. a 1. Khaljis succeeded the Slave sultans
63. The temple of Khajuraho in central India were 2. Ala-ud-din became the first ambitious khalji
built by the sultan in 1296 and wanted to become a second
a) Chola kings Alexander
b) Chandella kings 3. Ala-ud-din raised the land taxes on the wealthier

people of the Doab (the fertile area between the
c) Chera Kings Ganga and Yamuna rivers) to maintain a large army
d) Pallavas Kings 4. Ala-ud-din campaigned against the kingdoms of
Ans. b Gujarat and Malwa. He tried to establish his control
64. Consider the following statements :

over Rajasthan by capturing the famous forts of c) Iltutmish

Ranthambor and Chittor. d) Ahmed Shah
Which statements about Khalji Sultans (AD Ans. d
1290-1320) are correct?
69. Beautiful fortress city of Mandu was built by
Codes:
a) Razia
a) only 1,2,3
b) Zain-ul-Abidin
b) only 2, 3, 4
c) Rana Kumbha
c) only 1,3, 4
d) Hushang Shah
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans. d
Ans. d
70. The most popular of the kings of Kashmir was
a) Hasan Gangu
1. The North African Arab traveller, Ibn Battutah has
left a detailed description of the condition of the b) Harihara
country under Muhammad c) Bukka
2. Muhammad transferred the capital from Delhi to d) Zain-ul-Abidin (Budshah)
Devagiri
Ans. d
3. During his reign, two independent kingdoms arose
in the Deccan-the Bahmani and the Vijayanagara
revenue system during Delhi sultans is correct?
kingdom
1. The grant of revenue from a territory came to be
4. Sultan decided to issue ‘token’ coins in brass and
called the iqta system
copper which could be exchanged for silver coins
from the treasury to obtain more money 2. From the revenue which the officer collected, he
kept a certain amount as his salary and another
Which of the above statements about
sum to maintain soldiers for the sultan
Muhammad-bin-Tughluq (1325-51) is/are correct ?
3. The officer was expected to keep a detailed
Codes:
account of his income and expenditure
a) Only 3, 4 b) Only 1, 2
4. The officer was also responsible for maintaining
c) 1, 2, 3, 4 d) Only 4 law and order in the territory from which he
Ans. c collected the revenue
68. Who was the founder of Ahmedabad? Codes:
a) Firoz-shah-Tughlaq a) Only1, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) Balban c) Only 2, 3, 4 d) Only1, 2, 3

Ans. b

72. The Bahmani kingdom (1347) was founded by Ans. b

a) Muhammad-bin-Tughluq 76. Match List-I (Sufi Saint) with List-II (Place
b) Harihara associated with) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists :
c) Bukka
List-I List-II
d) Hasan Gangu (Bahman Shah)
A. Muin-ud-din Chisti 1. Ajodhan
Ans. d
B. Baba Farid 2. Gujrat
73. The kingdom of Vijayanagara (1336) was
founded by C. Saiyid Muhammad 3. Delhi
a) Muhammad-bin-Tughluq Gesudaraz
b) Bahman Shah D. Shah Alam Bukhari 4. Ajmer
c) Budshah 5. Gulbarga
d) Harihara and Bukka Codes:
Ans. d ABCD
74. Consider the following Statements : a) 2 1 5 4
1. Sikander Lodi shifted his capital from Agra to b) 4 5 3 2

Delhi c) 2 5 3 4
2. The last of the Lodi sultans, Ibrahim, was d) 4 1 5 2
apposed by the leading Afghan nobles. Finally they Ans. d
plotted with Babar, the king of Kabul and succeeded
in overthrowing Ibrahim in 1526 77. Match List-I (Bhakti Saints) with List-II (Places
associated with) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists :
Codes:
List-I List-II
a) Only 1 b) Only 2
(Bhakti saint) (Place associated)
A Namadeva 1. Maharashtra
Ans. b
B. .Chaitanya 2. Banaras
75. Silver tankah was started by the Sultan
C. Jnaneshvara 3. Maharashtra
a) Balban
D. Kabir 4. Bengal
b) Iltutmish
5. Gulbarga.
c) Razia
Codes:
d) Muhammad-bin-Tughluq
ABCD

a) 1 4 1 3 3. The Tuzuk-i-Jahangir was written by Jahangir in a

b) 2 3 2 1 fine Persian style
c) 3 4 3 2 4. He knew a great deal about paintings too.
d) 4 1 4 2 Which of the above statements about Jahangir

is/are correct ?
Ans. c
Codes:
a) Only 1, 2, 4 b) Only 2, 3, 4
1. One of the best literary work of Poet ‘Srinadha’ is ‘
Haravilasa’. c) Only 1, 3, 4 d) only 1, 2, 3
2. The Bhakti Saint Tukaram was basically from Ans. c

Gujarat though he spent most of his life time in
Maharastra. Which of the above Statements is/are 81. Consider the following statements:
Correct ?
1. Along with the other Kingdoms Shah- Jahan
Codes: annexed the kingdom of Kamrupa (Assam) also.
a) Only 1 b) Only 2 2. During Jahangir’s reign the English ambassador,
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Sir Thomas Roe, came to the court at Agra
Ans. a Which of the above Statement(s) is/are Correct?
Codes:
79. Consider the following Statements : a) Only 1
1. One of the best literary work of Poet ‘Malik b) Only 2
Muhammud Jayasi’ is ‘Padmavat’. c) Both 1 and 2
2. The Bhakti Saint Nanak was basically from d) Neither 1 nor 2
Kartarpur
Ans. c
Codes:
1. Aurangzeb kept his father, a prisoner at the fort of
a) Only 1 b) Only 2 Agra
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. He successfully defeated all his brother and
Ans. c claimed the throne in 1658
80. Consider the following Statements : 3. The big great threat for Aurangzeb came from
1. During Akbar reign, Jahangir was appointed as Marathas
the governor of Avadh and Bengal Which of the above statements is/are true about
2. In 1506, Jahangir became king Aurangzeb?

Codes: c) 1, 2, 3 d) only 3
a) only 1, 2 b) only 2, 3 Ans. a
c) only 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3
Ans. d 85. Name the Sikh Guru who was executed by
83. Consider the following statements : Aurangzeb in 1675
1. He introduced Guerilla warfare against Mughals a) Guru Nanak
2. He killed Afzal Khan, a general of the Golkunda b) Guru Govind Singh

kingdom c) Guru Ram Dash
3. ‘Jai Singh’, officer of Aurangzeb persuaded Shivaji d) Guru Teg Bahadur
to have friendship with Aurangzeb but was Ans. d
imprisoned by Aurangzeb
86. Khalsa was formed by
4. He declared himself the independent ruler of the
Maratha kingdom and was crowned in 1674 a) Guru Nanak
Which of the above statements are true about b) Guru Govind Singh
Shivaji? c) Guru Ram Dash
Codes: d) Guru Teg Bahadur
a) only 1, 2, 3 b) only 2, 3, 4 Ans. b
c) only 1, 3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4 87. Consider the following statements:
Ans. c 1. Dara Shukoh was the son of Shah Jahan and
brother of Aurangzeb
84. Which of the following statement(s) about 2. His best known work was a study of sufi and
Maratha state is/are correct ? Vedanta Philosophy
1. The Maratha state was governed by the king and 3. He also translated the Upanishads into Persian in
was assisted by a council of eight ministers-the 1657
Ashtaghosha’s. 4. He was killed in the fight for the throne between
2. Maratha government levied two taxes. One was him and his brother Aurangzeb
Chauth and other was Sardeshmukhi Which of the above statements about Prince Dara
3. The revenue of the state came mainly from the Shukoh is/are correct ?
land and state was entitled to two-fifths of the Codes:
produce
a) Only 1,2,3 b) Only 2,3,4
Codes:
c) only 1,3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
a) only 2, 3 b) only 1, 2

Ans. d 2. Akbar was looked after by Bairam Khan.

88. Famous painter ‘Bishan Das’, ‘Murad’, ‘Mansur’ 3. He fought his first battle with Hemu at Panipat.
and ‘Bahzad’ lived at the court of 4. He had marriage alliance with many Rajput royal
a) Aurangzeb b) Shah Jahan families.
c) Jahangir d) Akbar Codes:
Ans. c a) only 1,2, 3 b) only 2, 3, 4
89. Khayal and Thumri reached its zenith during c) only 1,3, 4 d) All the above
which dynasty Ans. b
a) Delhi Sultanate
b) Mughal dynasty 92. Which of the following statements about
c) Bijapur kingdom Mansabdari system is/are correct ?
d) Vijaynagar kingdom 1. Every noble, officer or civil servant was given a
Ans. b rank or a mansab and he was known as a
mansabdar
90. Match List-I (Poet) with List-II (their work) and
select the correct answer using the codes 2. The rank was valued in terms of a certain number
of mounted soldiers
given below the lists :
3. The ranks normally given to officers and nobles
List-I (Poet) List-II (Work) were valued from 10 to 5,000. The rank was held
1. Raskhan A. Prem Vatika only by the officer during his lifetime
2. Bihari B. Satsai 4. The troops maintained by the mansabdar could
be used by the emperor whenever he
3. Surdas C. Sur Sagar
wished
Codes:
Codes:
123
a) only 1,2, 3 b) only 2, 3
a) A B C
c) only 1,3, 4 d) All the above
b) C B A
Ans. d
c) B C A
Ans. a
Mughal administration is/are correct ?
91. Which of the following statements about Akbar
1. The most important administrator were Bakshi
is/are correct ?
and Wazir. The Wazir looked after the revenue
1. Akbar was proclaimed the king in 1565 when he administration and the Bakshi looked after the
was only thirteen years of age. military organizations.

2. There was the chief steward (Khan-i-Saman) who 2. He built ‘Ibadat Khana’at Fatehpur Sikri were he
attended to the royal household hold discussion on various religions
3. The chief qazi held the highest position amongst 3. The religious path of Akbar’s was latter referred to
the judges as the Din-i-Ilahi or divine
4. When the Emperor took advice from others he monotheism
use to call them to the Diwan-i-Khas (hall of private 4. Raja Birbal became sincere follower but Raja
audience) Man Singh opposed it
Codes: Codes:
a) only 1, 2, 3 b) only 1, 3, 4 a) only 1, 2, 3 b)only 2, 3, 4
c) only 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) only 1, 3, 4 d) All the above.
Ans. d Ans. d
94. During Akbar’s rule, who estimated the land 98. Consider the following statements:
revenue system?
1. Two battles were fought between Sher Shah and
a) Birbal b) Raja Man Singh Humayun and in both Humayun was defeated.
c) Bairam Khan d) Raja Todar Mal 2. Sher Shah’s real name was Farid. But he was
Ans. d given the name ‘Sher’ after he had killed atiger.
95. Who among the following has enriched the Which of the above Statements is/are correct ?
Hindustani school of music by making additions in Codes:
the style of singing many of the ragas
a) Only 1 b) Only 2
a) Abul Fazl b) Faizi
c) Tansen d) Amir Kushroo
Ans. c
Ans. c
96. Nastaliq script belongs to
1. Sher Shah issued the coin called the rupia which
a) Hindi b) Urdu is the same name as that used for our modern
c) English d) Persian rupee
Ans. d 2. Sher Shah was killed in 1545 during the siege of
97. Which of the following statement(s) about Kalinjar when a gun burst on his face Which of the
Akbar’s religious policy is/are correct? above Statements is/are correct?
1. He wanted to find a way which would be common Codes:

to all religious and would unite all people a) Only 1 b) Only 2

Ans. c
100. The battle of Talikota (1565) was fought
between
a) Vijayanagara and Bijapur
b) Bijapur and Golconda
c) Ahmadnagar and Bijapur
d) Vijayanagar and Bijapur, Golconda, Ahmadnagar
Ans. d

Class-6 : Land and People (Old)
1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct America as a continual range of highlands along
answer from the codes given below. the Western coast of the Continent.
List-I List-II Consider the following statement/s in this context.
A. The Island Continent 1. Arctic 1. Andes mountain systems are geologically old and
B. The Highest plateau 2. Antarctica structurally fold mountains.
C. The second largest Continent 3. Africa 2. Andes range is the world’s highest mountain
range outside Asia and stands as the second
D. The Continent around the South Pole 4. Australia highest mountain systems in the world after
5. Tibet Himalayas.
Codes: 3. Cotopaxi is a shield volcano in the Andes
Mountains
ABCD
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) 2 4 5 1
Code:
b) 4 5 3 2
c) 2 5 3 4
c) All the above d) 2 and 3 only
d) 4 1 5 2
Ans. A
ans: B
2. The Andes mountain system runs from the
Caribbean Sea to the very southern tip of South

3. Consider the following statements: 2. Central Siberian Plains lies between the Urals and
1. The Arctic Ocean is connected with the Pacific river Yenisey.
Ocean by Alaska strait. 3. Moscow is the largest railway junction as well as
2. Europe and Asia are separated by Ural mountain it is called the port of five seas.
and Volga river. Which among the above is/are correct?
Which among the above is/are correct? Code:
Code: a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) All the above
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. B
Ans. D 6. Polar Regions of the earth have unique
characteristics which makes them different from
other areas.
4. On account of Russia’s large size and its long
distance from sea, there are many climatic regions Choose the incorrect statements in this regard.
in Russia. However one outstanding characteristic 1. Queen Maud range divides Arctic Circle into two
of its climate is long cold winter. Consider the equal halves.
following statements regarding this and choose the 2. Mount Erebus is a live Volcano in Antarctica.
incorrect ones:
Code:
1. Intensity of winter increases from east to west.
a) 1 only b) 2 only
2. During winter, all ports of Russia functions due to
warm oceanic current from Atlantic Ocean. c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. The amount of precipitation decreases from west Ans. A

to east with heaviest rainfall in the Caucasus
mountains.
Code:
1. The different heights and the different shapes of
a) 2 only b) 3 only the Mountains are dependent on the age of that
c) 1 and 2 only d) All the above Mountain
Ans. C 2. The ‘Southern Ocean’ consists of the part of

Pacific and the Indian oceans, around Antarctica
a) 1 only b) 2 only
1. West Siberian Plains are lowlands sloping gently
towards the Arctic Ocean in the north. c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. A

8. Which of the following statements is/are 3. Nile rises in equatorial region and flows
incorrect? northward through the rainy regions and reaches the
1. Harmattan blow from the north-east during Mediterranean Sea.
summer season in Nigeria. Code:
2. Kainji dam has been constructed on the river a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 only
Niger. c) 2 and 3 only d) All the above
3. Khamsin is the dry and sand laden wind blowing Ans. A
from the north in summer in Egypt.
4. The first European settlers in South Africa were
the Britishers. 11. Consider the following statements:
Code: 1. As the earth rotates from west to east, those

places east of Greenwich will be ahead of
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only Greenwich time and those to the west will be behind
c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 3 and 4 only it
Ans. D 2. In India, the local time of 82030’E latitude, is
taken as the standard time for the whole country
and is known as the Indian Standard Time (IST)
1. The parallels of latitude are drawn in between the
two poles in an east-west direction a) 1 only b) 2 only
2. The meridians of longitude are semi-circular in c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

nature Ans. A
a) 1 only b) 2 only 12. Consider the following statements in the
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 context of Sudan type of climate:
Ans. C 1. Sudan type of climate is experienced in the north

and south of rain forests.
correct? 2. The vegetation is mostly grasses.
1. Mount Kilimanjaro remains snow covered 3. Most of the rain occurs in summer.
throughout the year. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
2. A rift valley is bounded by wall like steep slopes Code:
on both sides. a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) All the above d) None of the above

Ans. C Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only b) 2 only
13. Consider the following statements: c) 3 only d) None of the above
1. The highest peak of Australia is Mt. Koscisko. Ans. B
2. The Southern coast of Australia enjoys the 16. How many time zones are present in the Earth?
Mediterranean type of climate a) 22 time zones of one hour each
3. The Northern part of the Australia is cool and dry b) 23 time zones of two hour each
in winter and warm and wet in summer
c) 24 time zone of one hour each
d) 11 time zone of one hour each
Ans. C
17. When it is 12 noon at Greenwich, the time at
Ans. D place ‘A’ is 5:20pm. What is the location of ‘A’?
14. Consider the following statements: a) 82½0E b) 82½0 W
1. The time taken by a Planet to complete one c) 800 E d) 800 W
revolution around the Sun is completely dependent
upon the distance between the Sun and the Planet Ans. C
2. The Earth ranks fourth in the Solar System in

terms of its size. 18. Days and nights are caused due to Earth’s
Which of the above statements is/are correct? rotation. Choose the correct ones in this regard:
Code: 1. The time at a given point on surface of earth is

determined by the meridian on which the place is.
a) 1 only b) 2 only
2. The whole world is divided into time zones of one
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 hour equivalent to 15 degrees of meridian.
Ans. A Code:
a) 1 only b) 2 only
15. Consider the following statements: c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. ‘Jarrah’ and Karri’ are the varieties of Eucalyptus Ans. C
trees of Australia.
19. Which of the following statement/s is/are
2. ‘Savannas’ are the tropical grasslands found in incorrect about Asteroids?
the southern Australia
1. They are believed to be pieces of Sun-like star
3. ‘Downs’ are the temperate grasslands found in which probably exploded after its birth.
the Murray-Darling basin

2. They are swarm of small bodies between Mars Ans. B

and Jupiter.
3. They revolve around the planets. 22. What will happen if earth stops rotating on its
Code: axis?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only a) All parts of the earth will remain in darkness
c) 1 and 3 only d) None of the above forever
Ans. C b) All parts of the earth will receive sunshine all the
time
c) Some parts will have daylight forever and some
20. Which of the following statements is/are parts will be in darkness all the time
correct about Solar System?
d) There will be no effect on the occurrence of day
1. Sun is made up of extremely hot gases like and night
Hydrogen and Helium.
Ans. C
2. Light of the Sun takes about eight minutes and
twenty second to reach the Earth
3. Saturn is the heaviest planet of the solar system 23. Through which of the following countries
equator does not pass?
Code:
1. Burundi
2. Uganda
3. Rwanda
Ans. A
4. Gabon
21. Which one among the following statement/s
is/are correct? 5. Somalia
1. Deciduous forests associated with temperate Code:

climate are found in Himalayan region at an altitude a) 2 and 4 only b) 1 and 4 only
between 1600 and 3300 meters above sea level c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 3 and 5 only
2. Monsoon forests are found in South Asia, part of Ans. C
south-east Asia and northern Australia
24. The figure given below shows four position of
3. Equatorial forests are found in Indonesia and the earth, each at an interval of about three
Malaysia and the island groups close to the equator months. In all these position, the axis of the earth
Code: makes an angle of 66½0 with the plane of its orbit.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only Each of these four positions marked as A, B, C and
D in the figure corresponds to some dates that are
c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above more or

less fixed. Match the following with the help of 1. South Africa is largely a dry country, with most of
codes given below: its eastern regions being semi-desert.
1. 22nd December 2. The narrow southern coastal strip receives
2. 23rd September all-year rainfall in the west.
3. 21st March 3. The Limpopo River is the largest and longest river
in South Africa.
4. 21st June
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Code:
ABCD
a) 3 4 2 1
Ans. D
b) 2 4 3 1
c) 2 1 3 4
1. The Great Rift Valley extends from Lake Malawi
d) 3 1 2 4 through the Red sea to Dead sea in South west Asia.
Ans. C 2. Victoria Falls is a waterfall in southern Africa on
25. The small clusters of stars in the sky are called the Zambezi River at the border of Zambia,
constellations. Consider the following statements Zimbabwe and South Africa.
in this regard and choose the correct one. 3. ‘MULATTOS’ which is a new race of people (South
1. The Great Bear is a Constellation of seven stars Africa) of mixed Black and Indian blood.
which keeps revolving round the North Pole. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
2. The two stars in front of the Great Bear Code:
Constellation which are called ‘pointers’, always
point to the Pole Star. a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only
3. The Great Bear Constellation helps one to c) 2 and 3 only d) 3 only

determine the North from anywhere across the Ans. C
world.
Code: 28. Match List-I (Mines) and List-II (Minerals) using
a) 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 3 only the codes given below:
c) All the above d) 1 and 2 only List-I List-II
Ans. D A. Kimberley 1. Coal
B. Wankee 2. Diamond
26. Consider the following statements: C. Witwatersrand 3. Copper
D. Katanga 4. Gold

Code: 31. Consider the following statements:

ABCD 1. The word ‘wanderer’ refers to Stars.
a) 1 2 3 4 2. In size and shape, the earth is almost identical to
b) 2 1 4 3 Mars
c) 1 2 4 3 3. Mercury and Uranus planets in the solar system

do not have any known satellite t
d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. B
Code:
29. From the Earth we always see one side of the
Moon while the other side always remains away a) 1 and 2 only
from us. Which of the following can be the most c) 1 and 3 only
suitable reason for this? Ans. D
a) The speed of rotation of earth is faster than that
of speed of rotation of Moon on its axis
32. Which of the following statements about moon
b) The speed of revolution of earth around the Sun is/are incorrect?
is faster than that of the speed of revolution of
Moon around the Sun 1. The diameter of the moon is only one
c) The time taken by Moon to revolve around the 2. The light reflected by the moon reaches us in just
earth is same as that of the time taken by it to rotate one and a quarter seconds
on its axis 3. The moon revolves round the earth in about 27
d) The time taken by Moon to revolve around the days and 8 seconds
Sun is same as that of the time taken by earth to Codes:
revolve around the Sun
gravitational influence of the Moon acts – and it is
Ans. C now “locked in” to this period. eventually it would
30. In the above outline map of South Africa 1, 2, 3 show its far side to the Earth while moving
and 4 respectively representing tline eth, b) 2 and 3 only
a) Pretoria, East London, Port Elizabeth and Cape d) All the above
Town
one-sixth of that of the earthy this particular
b) Johannesburg, Durban, Port Elizabeth and Cape vitational ntually till today.
Town
c) Kimberley, Durban, Cape Town and Good Hope
c) 2 and 3 only d) None of the above
d) Johannesburg, Port Elizabeth, Cape Town and
Ans. A
Durban
Ans. B

33. Apart from being the big source of irrigation 2. The Vaal River is the largest tributary of the
and other facilities, the rivers sometimes make the Limpopo River
borders between the countries. Consider the 3. The Orange River flowing eastwards through
following rivers and its bordering countries. South Africa to the Indian Ocean
1. The Orinoco River — Colombia and Venezuela. Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
2. The Limpopo River — South Africa and Zambia. a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
3. The Zambezi River — Zambia and Zimbabwe c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above
Which of the above is/are correctly matched? Ans. B
Code:
c) All the above d) None of the above correct?
Ans. A 1. The Central plains of South America consist of
the basins of Orinoco, the Amazon and the Plata
rivers.
2. The Amazon basin is the second largest drainage
1. Mineral oil is the most important mineral wealth basin in the world after Mississipi basin in US.
of Egypt and is found in Sinai peninsula and along
the Red Sea coast. 3. The largest city along the Amazon River is
Fortaleza.
2. Egypt is a part of the great Sahara Desert which
occupies nearly half the northern part of Africa. Code:
3. The distributaries of Nile form a triangle which a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
has its head or apex at Alexandria. c) 1 only d) All the above
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Ans. C
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only 37. Arrange the following countries with their
c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above increasing distance from equator.
1. Kenya
35. Consider the following statements in the 2. Malawi

context of drainage system of South Africa: 3. Zambia
1. The Orange River rises in the Drakensberg 4. Tanzania
mountains in Lesotho Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:

Code:
a) 4, 1, 2, 3 b) 4, 1, 3, 2 40. The semi-humid areas of Argentina, Uruguay
c) 1, 4, 3, 2 d) 1, 4, 2, 3 and Brazil, where the area is covered by the
ALFALFA grasses are important areas for South
Ans. C America from economic perspective. Choose the
38. Consider the following statements: correct statements in this regard.
1. Amazon basin has equatorial type of climate 1. ALFALFA grasses have high nutritious value and
covered with rainforests known as Llanos. are the original grasses of this area.
2. The Grasslands found in Orinoco basin are locally 2. ALFALFA is a leguminous plant which helps in
known as Campos and in central Brazil they are maintaining the fertility of the soil.
called Selvas. 3. These are areas of cattle rearing as cattle fatten
3. The wet tropical forests in the lowlands of north very quickly on these grasses.
Argentina and west Paraguay is locally known as Code:
Gran Chaco.
4. Central Chile has cool British type of climate.
Ans. B
Code:
1. The lightest wood in the world is Carnauba.
c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) All the above
2. The forests along the western slopes of the
Ans. D Andes is called ‘Montana’.
39. Consider the following statements: 3. Tannin is a medicinal substance obtained from
1. Four countries of South America share the Quebracho tree found in Argentina.
common border with Argentina. 4. Cattle are reared in western part of Argentina
2. Gauchos of Argentina are those Farms which run while Sheep is reared in eastern parts.
on the lines of a big factory. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
3. The Trans-Andean railway line connects Code:
Uruguay-Chile.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) All the above
Code:
Ans. D
42. South America is the fourth largest Continent in
c) 2 and 3 only d) None of the above the world. Consider the following statements about
Ans. D South America and identify the incorrect ones:

1. South America is economically and industrially 3. The Eastern Plateau of Australia is made up of
highly developed continent with high standard of old rocks, similar to the Deccan plateau in India
living. 4. Most of the rivers of Australia rise in the Eastern
2. It has a large part lying in tropical belt and rich Highlands
biodiversity monsoon forests on either side. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
3. South America, Central America, Mexico and Code:
West Indies together make up Latin America as the
inhabitants in this regions are migrants from Spain, a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only
Portugal, France and Italy. c) 1 and 2 only d) 3 and 4 only
Code: Ans. B
c) 2 and 3 only d) All the above 45. Consider the following statements:
Ans. A 1. Nigeria is the only coal producing country of
43. Which of the following statements is/are Western Africa and the coalfield is located in the
incorrect? scrapland of south eastern Nigeria
1. North America is linked to the continent of South 2. Oil is generally extracted from both hard nuts and
America at Panama’s western border. from the pulp of the fruit of oil-palm tree in Africa
2. Lake Titicaca, one of the largest lakes of South Which of the above statements is/are correct?
America is located in Brazilian plateau. Code:
3. Coffee is grown on very large plantations which a) 1 only b) 2 only
are called Hazendas.
Code:
Ans. C
1. ‘Merino’ is the most important breed of sheep,
Ans. D producing the best wool in the world.
2. ‘Jackaroos’ is the Hybrid of Kangaroo and jackle.
44. Consider the following statements: 3. Australia is the largest producer of bauxite in the
1. Australia is the smallest continent and together world.
with New Zealand it is known as Australasia 4. The National Highways (major roads) in Australia
2. It is the only country in the world that covers the are called Continental Highways.
entire continent Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Code:

a) 1, 3 and 4 only b) 1 and 3 only 3. Mercury takes maximum number of days to

c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 2 and 4 only complete one revolution.
Ans. B Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Code:
47. The shaded areas in the outline map of Africa is a) 1 and 2 only
represented by c) All the above
a) Equatorial type of climate Ans. D
b) Sudan type of climate 50. Variation in the length of daytime and night
c) Tropical desert time from seaso
d) China type of climate a) The earth’s rotation on a tilted axis.
Ans. B b) The earth’s revolution around the sun in an

elliptical orbit.
48. Brazil, the coffee pot of the world is one of the
largest countries in the world and is one of the c) Latitudinal position of a place.
leaders of developing world along with India and d) Revolution of the earth on a tilted axis.
South Africa. Consider the following statements Ans. D
about Brazil.
1. It shares a border with every South American
51. Consider the following states and its capital
2. Brazil is the fifth largest country in the world cities of Australia:
3. The main upland area occupies most of the 1. Victoria —Sydney.
northern half of the country
2. Tasmania — Brisbane.
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
3. Queensland — Melbourne.
Code:
4. New South Wales — Hobart.
a) 1 and 3only
Which of the above is/are correctly matched?
c) 2 and 3 only
Ans. D
c) 1, 3 and 4 d) None of the above
Ans. D
1. All the planets of the solar system revolve around
the sun in a clockwise direction in a circular path
called Orbits. 52. Which of the following statements is/are
2. All Planets rotate in the same direction in which correct?
they revolve.

1. Volga is the most important river of the plains of 2. A Gorge is an U-shaped valley
European Russia which falls into the Black Sea. 3. Taiga is a wide belt of coniferous forests
2. The Kamchatka peninsula is a region of stretches from the Atlantic to the pacific across
earthquakes and volcanic activities. Canada
3. The Caucasus Mountains run between the Black Codes:
Sea and the Caspian Sea. a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
Code: c) 1 and 2 only d) None of the above
a) 3 only b) 1 and 2 only Ans. C
c) 2 and 3 only d) All the above 55. Consider the following statements:
Ans. C
1. Australia is primarily Agricultural and Pastoral
country.
53. Consider the following statements: 2. High percentage of population of Australia is
1. Most of the land area of the earth lies in the urban.
Northern Hemisphere 3. Australia is industrially highly developed
2. Greater part of the South America lies in the continent.
Southern Hemisphere Which among the above is/are correct?
3. Southern part of the North America lies in the Code:
Southern Hemisphere a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only Ans. D
Ans. A
54. Consider the following statement and choose
the incorrect ones:
1. A chain of mountain ranges which are roughly
parallel or run in one general direction is called
Massifs.

Class-9 : Contemporary India (New)
1. India is third most densely populated country 1. Weather refers to the sum total of weather
after Bangladesh and Japan. Consider the conditions and variations over a large area for a
statements about population distribution in India long period of time.
and choose the correct ones: 2. Climate refers to the state of the atmosphere over
1. Delhi is the only administrative unit of India with an area at any point of time.
more than 1000 people per square kilometer. Code:
2. Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Kerala are a) 1 only
the states with maximum density of population.
b) 2 only
3. Assam is the only North Eastern State with
density of population more than National average. c) Both 1 and 2
Code: d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only Ans. C

Ans. C 3. Consider the following statements about the
retreating monsoon and subsequent periods and
2. Climate is an important geographical identify the correct ones.
phenomenon which determines many things like
vegetation, fauna and comfort of living. Consider 1. Monsoon retreats rapidly from Northern half of
the following statements in this regard and pick out the peninsula and gradually from southern half.
the incorrect ones: 2. North Easterlies prevail over the country in winter.
3. Some amount of rainfall occurs in Tamil Nadu
coast in winter.

Code: 3. Gorges are seen in the upper course of the

a) 1 and 2 only Himalayan Rivers.
b) 1 and 3 only Code:
c) 2 and 3 only a) 1 and 2 only
d) All the above b) 2 only
Ans. C c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 3 only
4. Consider the following statements about the Ans. A

characteristics of Indian Monsoon. 6. Geologically, the Peninsular Plateau constitutes
1. Monsoon season of India is associated with one of the ancient landmasses on the earth’s
continuous rain fall without breaks. surface. Consider the following statements about
Peninsular Plateau?
2. Monsoon causes flood as well as drought.
1. Peninsular Plateau is composed of sedimentary
3. Monsoon winds are pulsating and unstable in rocks with gently rising hills and wide valleys.
nature and direction.
2. Earthquakes are frequent in Peninsular Plateau.
4. Tropical cyclones originate in Andaman Sea and
causes heavy rain in eastern coast of India post 3. Peninsular plateau’s slow and steady movement
retreat of monsoon. towards north and north-east has been responsible
for the creation of the Himalayas and the Northern
Which of these is/are not correct? Plains in place of Tethys Sea.
a) 1 only Select the correct answer from the given code
b) 1 and 2 only below:
c) 4 only a) All the above
d) 1 and 3 only b) 2 only
Ans. A c) 1 only
d) 3 only
5. Consider the following statements about Rivers Ans. D
of India. Which of them is/are not correct?
1. Himalayan rivers tends to form oxbow lakes in 7. The Northern Plains has been formed by the
their upper course. interplay of the three major Himalayan Rivers.
2. The area drained by a single river and its Consider the statements about the Himalayan River
tributaries is called a river system. system?

1. The rivers coming from Northern mountains are 9. The streams within a Drainage basin form
involved in depositional work. certain patterns, depending on the Slope of land,
2. In the lower course, due to steep slope, the underlying rock structure as well as Climatic
velocity of the river increases which results in the conditions of the area. Identify the wrong
formation of riverine Islands. statements about Drainage patterns?
3. The river in their lower course split into numerous 1. The Dendritic pattern develops where the stream
channels due to deposition of silt, which are known flow in different directions from a central peak or
as tributaries. dome like structure
Select the correct statements from the code given 2. A river joined by its tributaries, at approximately
below: right angles develop Trellis pattern
3. A Rectangular drainage pattern develops on a
a) 1 only
strongly jointed rocky terrain
b) 2 and 3 only
4. The Radial pattern develops where the river
c) 3 only channel follows the slope of the terrain
d) All the above Code:
Ans. A a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 4 only
8. The Indian desert lies towards the western c) 1, 3 and 4 only
margins of the Aravali Hills. It is an undulating
sandy plain covered with sand dunes. Consider the d) All the above
incorrect statements about Indian deserts? Ans. B
1. Streams appear during the rainy season and soon
after they disappear into the sand 10. The Ganga is a Trans Boundary river of India
2. Chambal is the only large river in this region and Bangladesh and rises in the Western
3. Longitudinal dunes cover large areas in this Himalayas in Uttarakhand. Consider the wrong
region statements about Ganga river system?
Code: 1. The head waters of the Ganga called the

Alaknanda is fed by the Gangotri Glacier and joined
a) 1 and 2 only by the Bhagirathi at Rudraprayag
b) 2 and 3 only 2. Yamuna, Ghagra, Gandak and Kosi are the left
c) 1 and 3 only bank tributaries of the Ganga river
d) All the above 3. The delta formed by Ganga and Brahmaputra is
known as Sunderbans Delta.
Ans. B
Code:

a) 1 only c) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only d) All the above
c) 3 only Ans. C
d) 2 only 13. Identify the type of vegetation with the
Ans. B following information?
1. These forests are restricted to heavy rainfall
areas of Island groups of Lakshadweep, Andaman
11. A particular state in India has the following and Nicobar and Tamil Nadu
characteristics:
2. The trees reach great height up to 60 metres or
1. It is located on the same latitude which passes even above
through Northern Rajasthan
3. Some of the commercially important trees of this
2. It has over 75% of its area under Forest Cover forest are Rosewood, Rubber and Cinchona
3. Over 10% of forest cover constitutes Protected Code:
area network in this state
a) Tropical Evergreen Forest
Which one among the following states has all the
above characteristics? b) Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest
a) Arunachal Pradesh c) Equatorial Forests
b) Assam d) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest
c) Himachal Pradesh Ans. A
d) Uttarakhand 14. India is regarded as a country with

Demographic Dividend. This is due to
Ans. A
a) Its high population in the age group below 15
12. As one goes from Equator towards Poles air years
temperature generally decreases. What is/are the
reason/reasons? b) Its high population in the age group of 15-64
years
1. Presence of strong winds in sub-tropical zone
c) Its high population in the age group above 65
2. Due to curvature of earth, amount of solar energy years
received varies according to the latitude
d) Its high population in the age group 15-59 years
3. The influence of polar ice
Ans. B
4. Cold currents in polar region
15. Indian sub-continent experiences
Select the correct answer using the codes below: comparatively milder winters as compared to
a) 1 only Central Asia? What is/are the reason/reasons?
b) 1, 3 and 4 only 1. Latitudinal variation as compared to Central Asia

2. Influence of Tibetan plateau 2. A characteristic feature of the Cold Weather

3. Presence of Himalayas Season over the Northern Plains is the inflow of
cyclonic disturbances from the west and the
Select the correct answer from the code given: northwest
a) 1 and 2 only 3. The Peninsular region does not have a well
b) 2 only defined cold season
c) 3 only Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
d) All the above
a) 2 and 3 only
Ans. C
b) 1 and 3 only
16. The Climate and associated weather conditions
in India are governed by the following atmospheric c) 1 and 2 only
conditions. d) All the above
1. Pressure and surface winds Ans. A
2. Upper air circulation
3. Western cyclonic disturbance 18. Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
4. Temperate cyclones 1. The mountain system of western Asia and
Select the correct answer from the code given Himalayas are a result of folding due to collision of
below: two big landmasses.
a) 1 and 2 only 2. The vast North Indian Plains were once a great
depression formed by subsidence of northern flank
b) 3 and 4 only
of peninsular plateau.
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
3. From the view point of geology, Himalayan
d) All the above mountains and Northern plains are most unstable
Ans. C land mass.
Code:
17. The Cold Weather Season begins from mid a) 1 and 2 only
November in Northern India and stays till February. b) 1 and 3 only
Consider the following statements about Cold
c) All the above
Weather Season?
d) 2 and 3 only
1. During this season, the Northeast Trade winds
prevail over the country which blow from sea to land Ans. C
and hence, for most part of the country, it is a dry 19. The latitude that pass through Sikkim does not
season pass through

1. Punjab c) Duns
2. Rajasthan d) I-shaped valley
3. Uttrakhand Ans. C
4. Delhi 22. Which of the given statements is/are NOT
5. Uttar Pradesh correct?
Code: 1. Nepal Himalayas lies between Satluj and Kali

rivers.
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. Patkai bum, Naga hills, Garo, Khasi and Jaintia
b) 1, 2 and 3 only comprises Purvanchal hill complex.
c) 2, 4 and 5 only Code:
d) 1 and 4 only a) 1 only
Ans. A b) 2 only
20. Which of the statements is/are NOT correct? c) Both 1 and 2
1. The width of the Himalayas increases from west d) Neither 1 nor 2
to east.
Ans. C
2. The Inner Himalayas is the southernmost range
of the Himalayas.
3. Mt. Everest (8848 mt.) is the highest peak of 23. Which of the statements is/are incorrect?
Himalayas in India. 1. Western coast is a narrow plain between Arabian
4. Pir Panjal, Dhauladhar and Mahabharat range lies Sea and Western Ghats that comprises Konkan,
in Greater Himalayas. Kannad plain, and Malabar Coast.
Code: 2. DodaBetta (2637mt) is the highest peak of

western Ghats.
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
3. Mahendragiri (1501 mt) is the highest peak of the
b) 2, 3 and 4 only Northern Circar.
c) All the above Code:
d) 1, 2 and 3 only a) 1 and 2 only
Ans. C b) 2 and 3 only
21. The longitudinal valley lying between lesser c) 1 and 3 only
Himalayas and Shiwaliks are called
d) None of the above
a) Gorges
Ans. B
b) La

24. Which of the following statement is/are 3. Mahanadi

correct? 4. Krishna
1. Mahanadi river drainage basin is shared by Code:
Maharashtra, Chhatisgarh, Jharkhand and Orissa.
a) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
2. Godavari river drainage basin is largest among
peninsular rivers. b) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3
3. There is no west flowing river in Madhya Pradesh c) 1 – 4 – 2 – 3
Code: d) 1 – 4 – 3 – 2
a) 1 and 2 only Ans. B
b) 1 and 3 only 27. Which of the given statements is/are correct?
c) 2 and 3 only 1. The diurnal range of temperature is more in

coastal areas than in Deserts.
d) All the above
2. Kerala gets rainfall from both south-west and
Ans. A north-east monsoon.
Code:
25. Consider the following: a) 1 only
1. Satpura Range b) 2 only
2. Vindhya Range c) Both 1 and 2
3. Mahadeo Hills d) Neither 1 nor 2
What is the correct sequence of the above from Ans. B
north to south.
Code:
28. Which of the statements is/are correct?
a) 1 – 2 – 3
1. Tropical Deciduous Forests are the most
b) 2 – 1 – 3 widespread forest in India.
c) 1 – 3 – 2 2. Pine, Silver fir, Spruce and Cedar are the varieties
d) 2 – 3 – 1 of coniferous trees found in temperate forest.
Ans. B Code:
26. Arrange the following river in the descending a) 1 only
order in terms of their length: b) 2 only
1. The Ganga c) Both 1 and 2
2. Godavari d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. C changes in precipitation. Consider the following in

29. According to 2001 census how many Million the context of Monsoon.
plus cities were there in India? 1. Easterly Jet stream.
a) 23 2. Westerly Jet stream
b) 35 3. The Tibetan Plateau.
c) 51 4. Inter Tropical Convergence Zone.
d) 53 Which of the above are the major factors affecting
Ans. b the mechanism of Monsoon?
30. Which are the three main factors that cause a) 1 and 3 only
population change? b) 2, 3 and 4 only
a) Births, Deaths and marriage c) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) Births, Deaths and migration d) All the above
c) Births, Deaths and life expectancy Ans. D
d) Births. Deaths and Sex ratio 33. Consider the following statements in the
Ans. B context of Peninsular Plateau of India.
31. Consider the following statements in the 1. Part lying to the north of the Narmada river known
context of Coriolis force. as the Central Highlands.
1. Coriolis force is an apparent force caused by the 2. The westward extensions of Peninsular Plateau
earth’s revolution and is also known as Ferrel’s Law. are locally known as Bundelkhand.
2. The Coriolis force is responsible for deflecting 3. The Central Highlands are wider in the East but
winds towards the left in the northern hemisphere narrower in the West.
and right in the southern hemisphere. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? a) 1 only
b) 2 only c) All the above
c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of the above
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. A
Ans. D
34. India and Nepal have traditionally been close
32. Monsoon is traditionally defined as a seasonal since ancient times as a result of geographical
reversing wind accompanied by corresponding location and common religious, linguistic and

cultural identities that overlap the two countries. 1. India lies in the region of North easterly winds
Consider the following Indian states. which originate from the subtropical low pressure
1. Bihar belt of the Northern Hemisphere.
2. Jharkhand 2. In summer, air moves from high pressure area

over the southern Indian Ocean in a south-easterly
3. Uttarakhand direction before crossing the equator.
4. Uttar Pradesh 3. Subtropical westerly Jet Streams blow south of
With which of the above states Nepal shares its the Himalayas all through the year except in winters.
boundary? Which among the above is/are not correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only Code:
b) 2, 3 and 4 only a) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only b) 1 and 3 only
d) All the above c) 2 and 3 only
Ans: B
35. Which of the following facts are important to
understand the mechanism of the Indian
monsoons:- 37. Consider the following statements:-
1. Equatorial trough to be normally positioned about 1. The Indus basin is shared by the states of Jammu
50N of the equator. and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh in India.
2. Presence of the high pressure area east of 2. The Tapi basin is shared by the states of Madhya
Madagascar, approximately at 200N over the Indian Pradesh and Gujarat only.
Ocean. 3. Amravati, Bhavani and Kabini are the tributaries of
3. Presence of the tropical easterly jet stream to the river Kaveri.
north of the Himalayas. Which among the above is/are not correct?
Code: Code:
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only a) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
Ans: A c) 1 only
d) 2 only
36. Consider the following statements:- Ans: A


Goh Cheng Leong Test (MCQ)
1. Consider the following statements: C. Humah 3. Sri Lanka

1. In deserts, rain normally occurs as violent D. Caingin 4. Central America
thunderstorms of the convectional type Codes:
2. In deserts there is high diurnal range of ABCD
temperature
a) 2 3 4 1
b) 4 2 1 3
a) Only 1 b) Only 2
c) 3 1 4 2
d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. C
Ans. D
3. Which area is known as the worlds ‘orchard lands’?
2. Match List-I (Shifting Cultivation) with List-II
(Local Name) and select the correct answer from the a) Equatorial climatic lands
codes b) Mediterranean climatic lands
given below. c) Savanna or Sudanic climatic lands
List-I List-II d) Steppe
A. Chena 1. Java Ans. B
B. Milpa 2. Philippines 4. Consider the following statements:

1. They occur mainly in the regions between 60 and 7. Consider the following statements:
200 north and south of the equator 1. Within the tropics, the equatorial highlands have a
2. In extent, they are smaller than temperate cyclones distinctively cooler climate
and have a diameter of only 50 to 200 miles 2. The most outstanding feature of the equatorial
3. They have a much steeper pressure gradient climate is its great uniformity of temperature
4. Violent winds with a velocity of over 100 mph are throughout
common the year
The above statements are the characteristics of Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Willy-Willies a) Only 1 b) Only 2
b) Typhoons c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Tornadoes Ans. C
d) Hurricanes 8. Consider the following statements:
Ans. B 1. In equatorial climate, the diurnal range of
5. Which of the following climatic type is not found in temperature is small, and so the annual range
warm Temperate Zone between 300 – 450 N and S? 2. In general, in equatorial climate, there is no winter
a) China type b) British type Which of the above statements is/are correct?
c) Gulf type d) Natal type a) Only 1 b) Only 2
Ans. B c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Consider the following statements related to Ans. C
natural vegetations. 9. Consider the following statements:
1. Deciduous forests are present 1. In equatorial climate, the relative humidity is
2. Evergreen coniferous forests are present constantly high
3. Mixed forests, are present 2. In equatorial climate, seeding, flowering, fruiting
These are the characteristics natural vegetations of and decaying do not take place in a seasonal pattern
which climatic zone? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Warm Temperate Zone a) Only 1 b) Only 2
b) Cool Temperate Zone c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Alpine Zone Ans. C
d) Equatorial Zone 10. ‘Belukar’ in Malaysia is
Ans. B a) Shifting cultivation

b) Secondary forests b) Oil palm

c) Evergreen trees c) Cinchona
d) Natural rubber d) Natural rubber
Ans. B Ans. D
11. ‘Hevea Brasiliensis’ is the another name of
a) Cocoa

Ancient India (Old & New)
1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 2. They were the first bronze users of the
answer from the codes given below the lists: subcontinent and hence they started using metal
List-I (Sites) List-II (Artefacts/objects discovered) money
A. Banawali 1. Barley 3. The terracotta pieces represent the sophisticated

artistic works of Harappans
B. Lothal 2. H-cemetry
C. Kalibangan 3. Horse Terracotta below:
D. Harappa 4. Ploughed field Codes:
Codes: a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3
ABCD c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 2 and 3
a) 1 3 2 4 Ans: c.
b) 1 3 4 2 3. Consider the following statements:
c) 3 1 2 4 1. The difference between the Aryans and Dasyus lies
d) 3 1 4 2 in phallus worship and cattle keeping
Ans: b 2. Trasadasyu was the chief of non-Aryans who was
captured by Aryan Chief Divodasa
2. Which of the following statements is/are wrong in
context of Harappan civilization? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. The Harappans were known for making efficient a) Only 1
weapons b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2 2. Accepting the existence of soul

d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Belief in the theory of Karma
Ans: a 4. Accepting the existence of God
4. “Sangrihitri”, during the Vedic age was Select the correct answer from the codes given
a) Purohit below:
b) Commander of Militia Codes:
c) Treasurer a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4
d) Officer of Fort c) 1 and 3 d) Only 1
Ans: C Ans: a.
5. Consider the following statements: 8. Which of the following is wrong in context of

Mahavira and Jainism?
1. Jainism recognized the existence of the goods but
placed them lower than the Jina a) Mahavira was born in 540 BC in Kundagrama near
Vaishali
2. Jainism did not condemn the varna system
b) His father Siddhartha was the head of Jnatrika clan
c) His mother Trishala, was the daughter of the
a) 1 only b) 2 only Lichchhavi Chief Chetaka
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) Mahavira attained Kaivalya at the age of 42
Ans: C Ans: c. Trishala – sister of Chetaka
6. Consider the following statements: 9. Which of the following statements is wrong in
1. ‘Basadis’ in Jainism refer to the temple of context of Buddha and Buddhism?
Tirthankaras a) Buddha attained Nirvana at the age of 42 at Bodh
2. Although Jainism didnot receive much patronage Gaya
from kings as the Buddhism, yet its art and b) Buddha delivered his first Sermon at Sarnath
architecture was rich than that of Buddhists
c) Buddha passed away at a place called Kusinagar
d) Buddha was related to Koshalan dynasty
a) Only 1 b) Only 2
Ans: a. Buddha attained Nirvana at 35
10. Which of the following statements is/are wrong in
Ans: d context of Mauryan age?
7. Jainism and Buddhism differ in their approach 1. Slaves were not employed in commercial activities
with regard to
2. Most of the officials were paid in cash and some
1. Prescription of strict austere life and penance were paid through land grants

3. Sannidatta was the chief custodian of state

treasury
4. The Mauryan government had equal control over all
the regions of its empire
below:
Codes:
a) Only 1 b) 1 and 2
c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 4

Class-9 : Macro Economics (New)
1. As a result of the Great Depression of 1929, the 3. There is a sale and purchase of labour services at a
unemployment rate in USA rose from 3 percent to 25 price called wage rate
percent. Unemployment rate is defined as: Code:
a) Ratio of number of people who are not working and a) 1 and 2 only
looking for jobs to the total population of the country
b) 1 and 3 only
b) Ratio of number of people who are working to the
number of people who are not working and looking for c) 2 and 3 only
jobs d) 1, 2 and 3
c) Ratio of number of people who are not working and Ans. C
looking for jobs to the number of people who are
working
3. Which among the following is/are an example of
d) Ratio of the total population of the country to the
investment expenditure?
number of people who are not working
1. Part of the revenue paid out as rent for the services
Ans. C
rendered by land
2. Which of the following is/are characteristics of
2. Part of the revenue paid to capital as interest
capitalist economy?
3. Part of the revenue paid to labourers as wages
1. Private and Public ownership of means of
production 4. Part of revenue used to buy new machinery or to
build new factories to expand production
2. Production takes place for selling the output in the
market Code:

a) 1, 2 and 4 only 7. Which of the following is/are not included in the

b) 3 and 4 only Personal Disposable Income (PI) earned by the
households?
c) 4 only
1. Undistributed profits
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. Corporate tax
Ans. C
3. Transfer payments by the governments
4. Income Tax
1. Consumption goods or consumer goods does not
include services Code:
2. Capital goods are those, that are of durable a) 1, 2 and 4 only

character and are used in the production processes b) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? c) 2, 3 and 4 only
a) 1 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2 only Ans. A
c) Both 1 and 2 8. Consider the following statements about real GDP:
d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. It is calculated in such a way that the goods and
Ans. B services are evaluated at some constant set of prices
2. It is calculated in such a way that the goods and
services are evaluated at current prices
5. National Income in India measured in terms of
3. An increase in the value of real GDP indicates an
a) Gross National Product increase in the volume of production
b) Gross Domestic Product 4. An increase in the value of real GDP indicates an
c) Net National Product at Market Price increase in the prices of goods and services
d) Net National Product at Factor Cost Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
6. Net National Product at factor cost is calculated by b) 2 and 4 only
a) GNP – Depreciation c) 1 only
b) NNP at market price – Indirect taxes d) 2 only
c) NNP at market price – Indirect taxes + Subsidies Ans. A
d) GNP + Net factor Income from abroad 9. Which of the following statement is NOT correct
about Consumer Price Index (CPI)?
Ans. C

a) This is the index of prices of a given basket of b) 1 and 3 only

commodities bought by the representative consumer c) 3 only
b) This is the index of prices of all the goods and d) 1, 2 and 3
services produced in the country
Ans. D
c) It is calculated in percentage terms
12. Which of the following is/are the functions of
d) It is expressed as the percentage of the prices of Money?
commodities in the current year to the prices of
commodities in the base year 1. It acts as a medium of exchange.
Ans. B 2. It acts as a convenient unit of account.
10. GDP of a country is: 3. It acts as a store of value for individuals.
a) Sum total of value of goods and services created Code:

within the geographical boundary of a country in a a) 1 only
particular year
b) 1 and 3 only
b) Sum total of value of goods and services created
c) 1 and 2 only
by the nationals of a country within the geographical
boundary of a country in a particular year d) 1, 2 and 3
c) Sum total of value of goods and services created Ans: D

by the nationals of a country within or outside the 13. Consider the following statements about bonds:
country in a particular year
1. These are papers bearing the promise of a future
d) Sum total of value of goods only created within the stream of monetary returns over a certain period of
geographical boundary of country in a particular year time.
Ans. A 2. Bond papers are issued by Government only
11. GDP of a country cannot be taken as an index of 3. These are tradable in the market.
the Welfare of the people of a country. Why?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Rise in the GDP may be concentrated in the hands
Code:
of very few individuals or firms
a) 1 and 2 only
2. Many activities in an economy are not evaluated in
monetary terms b) 1 and 3 only
3. Other externalities which refers to the benefits or c) 2 and 3 only
harms a firm or an individual causes to another for d) 1, 2 and 3
which they are not paid or penalised
Ans: B
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only

14. If the supply of money in the economy increases Which of the statements given above is/are not
and people purchase bonds with this extra money, correct?
what will happen? a) 1 and 3 only
1. The bond prices will rise b) 3 only
2. Rate of interest will decline c) 1 and 2 only
Code: d) None of the above
a) 1 only Ans: B
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 17. RBI publishes figures of four alternative
d) Neither 1 nor 2 measures of money supply, viz. M1, M2, M3 and M4.
Ans: C M3 is the most commonly used measure of money
15. Which of the following statement given below is supply. It consists of:
correct? a) Money held by the public and net demand deposits
a) In India, currency notes and coins are issued by the held by commercial banks.
Reserve Bank of India. b) Money held by the public and net demand as well
b) Currency notes are issued by Government of India as time deposits held by the commercial banks.
while coins are issued by RBI. c) Money held by public + Net demand deposits with
c) Currency notes and coins are issued by banks + Savings deposits with Post office
Government of India. d) Money held by Public + Net time and term deposits
d) Currency notes are issued by Reserve Bank of India, with commercial banks + Total deposits with Post
while coins are issued by Government of India. Office Savings Organisation.
Ans: D Ans: B
16. Consider the following statements given below: 18. Consider the following statements:
1. Currency notes and coins do not have intrinsic 1. The Currency Deposit Ratio is the proportion of the
value like a gold or silver coin. total deposits commercial banks keep as reserves.
2. Currency notes and coins are called legal tenders 2. The Reserve Deposit Ratio is the money held by the
as they cannot be refused by any citizen of the public in currency to that they hold in bank deposits.
country for settlement of any kind of transaction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. Similar to currency notes and coins, cheques drawn a) 1 only
on savings or current accounts can never be refused b) 2 only
by anyone as a mode of payment.
c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) 2 and 3 only

Ans: D d) 2 only
Ans: B
19. RBI uses various policy instruments to bring forth 21. Consider the following statements about the
a healthy Reserve Deposit Ratio in commercial activities of the Commercial Banks and choose the
banks. Consider the following statements in this correct ones:
regard. 1. The rate of interest offered by the bank to deposit
1. Cash Reserve Ratio is the fraction of their deposits holders is called lending rate
that banks must keep with RBI. 2. The rate at which investors borrow money from
2. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) requires the banks to commercial banks is called borrowing rate
maintain a given fraction of their demand deposits in 3. The difference between the above two rates is
the form of specified liquid assets. called ‘spread’, which is the profit appropriated by
Which of the statement given above is/are correct? banks
a) 1 only Code:
b) 2 only a) 1 and 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) 3 only
Ans: A d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. C
20. Consider the following statements about Bank
Rate and choose the correct ones. 22. The total liability of the monetary authority of the
1. The rate at which commercial banks borrow money country, RBI, is called the monetary base or high
from RBI when they run short of reserves is called powered money. It consists of:
Bank Rate. 1. Currency notes and coins in circulation with the
2. The rate at which interest is given to the public
commercial banks on the money they deposit with 2. Vault cash of commercial banks
RBI is called Bank Rate.
3. Deposits held by Government of India and
3. A high bank rate encourages the commercial banks Commercial banks with RBI
to maintain a Healthy Reserve Deposit Ratio.
Code:
Code:
a) 1 only
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only 25. The government affects the personal disposable

d) 1, 2 and 3 income of households by making transfer payments
and collecting taxes and therefore, can alter the
Ans. D income distribution. This function of government is
23. Consider the following statements: termed as:
1. RBI is known as the lender of last resort a) Allocation function
2. RBI acts as a banker to the commercial banks, b) Stabilisation
Government of India and also to the State c) Distribution function
Governments
d) Sterilisation
3. Financing of budget deficits by the governments
through Central Bank Borrowing is called Deficit Ans. C
Financing 26. Which of the following taxes appropriated by
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Government of India are termed as ‘Paper taxes’?
a) 1 and 2 only 1. Wealth tax
b) 1 and 3 only 2. Gift tax
c) 2 and 3 only 3. Corporate tax
d) 1, 2 and 3 4. Custom duty
Ans. D 5. Excise duty
24. Open Market Operations (OMO) are done by RBI Code:

to: a) 1, 3 and 5 only
1. Increase or decrease the money supply in the b) 1 and 2 only
economy c) 2 only
2. Raise money for the Government from the market d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
3. To rein in the depreciation in the value of domestic Ans. B
currency
Code:
27. Which of the following is/are included in the
a) 1 only non-tax revenue of the central government.
b) 1 and 2 only 1. Dividends
c) 2 and 3 only 2. Profits on investment made by the government
d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Fees and other receipts for services rendered by
Ans. A the government

4. Cash grants-in-aid from foreign countries and 30. Budget documents classify total expenditure into
international organisations plan and non-plan expenditure. Which of the
Code: following come under non-plan expenditure?
a) 1 only 1. Interest payments
b) 1, 2 and 3 only 2. Defence services
c) 2, 3 and 4 only 3. Subsidies
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 4. Salaries and pensions
Ans. D Code:
28. Consider the following statement about the a) 1, 3 and 4 only

Revenue Expenditure and choose the correct ones: b) 1 and 3 only
1. It is the expenditure incurred for purposes of c) 1, 2 and 3 only
creation of physical or financial assets of the Central d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Government
Ans. D
2. It includes the expenses incurred for the normal
functioning of the government departments and 31. Consider the following statements and choose
various services, interest payments and grants given the correct ones:
to state governments and other parties 1. All those receipts of the government which result in
Code: creation of physical or financial assets or reduction in
financial liabilities are called Capital Receipts
a) 1 only
2. Those expenditures of the government which
b) 2 only create liability or reduce financial assets are termed
c) Both 1 and 2 as Capital Expenditure
d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Capital expenditure is also categorised as plan and
Ans. B non-plan in the budget documents
Code:
29. Service Tax in India was introduced in the year a) 1 and 2 only
a) 1994-95 b) 1 and 3 only
b) 1995-96 c) 3 only
c) 1998-99 d) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1999-2000 Ans. C
Ans. A

32. When a government spends more than it collects 34. Consider the following statements and choose
by way of revenue, it incurs a budget deficit. the correct ones:
Consider the following statements in this regard: 1. The balance of payments (BoP) record the
1. Fiscal deficit is the difference between the transactions in goods, services and assets between
government’s total expenditure and its total receipts residents of a country with the rest of the world in a
including borrowing year
2. The revenue deficit includes only such transactions 2. The current account records the import and exports
that affect the current income and expenditure of the of goods only
government 3. Trade in services is denoted as invisible trade
3. Primary deficit is calculated by reducing Net Code:
interest liabilities from Gross fiscal deficit
a) 1 only
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
b) 1 and 2 only
a) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3 only
Ans. C
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. C
1. Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) is a
33. Which of the following were the main features of multilateral rate representing the price of a
FRBM Act, 2003 representative basket of foreign currencies, each
1. To reduce the fiscal deficit to not more than 3 weighted by its importance to the domestic country in
percent of GDP international trade
2. To reduce the revenue deficit to zero by March 2009 2. Nominal Exchange rate is often taken as a measure
3. It required the reduction in fiscal deficit by 0.3 of a country’s international competitiveness
percent of GDP each year and the revenue deficit by Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
0.5 per cent a) 1 only
Code: b) 2 only
a) 1 and 2 only c) Both 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3 only d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) 2 and 3 only Ans. A
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. D


Class-10 : Story of Civilization (Old)
1. Which among the following can be categorized as 2. The nationalist leaders of India refused to provide
the fallout(s) of Russian Revolution? legal help to the accused.
1. Widespread acceptance of laissez-fairism. 3. The accused list had both Indians as well as
2. Increase in the dignity of labour. Englishmen.
3. Mitigation of discriminations based on race, colour 4. The accused could evoke sympathy and concern
and sex. even from foreign countries.
4. Abolition of slavery. Code:
5. Promotion of internationalism. a) 1, 2 and 3
Code: b) 2, 3 and 4
a) 1, 2 and 3 c) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 4 and 5 d) 1, 3 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 5 Ans. D
d) 1, 2 and 4 3. The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was founded

in Belgrade in 1961. Consider the following
Ans. C statements.
2. Which among the following can be associated with 1. Policies of NAM members are formulated on the
the ‘Meerut Conspiracy Case’? basis of their respective national psyches.
1. It was related to labourers and worker’s movement 2. The policy of NAM is opposed to all forms of
in India. foreign aggression, domination or interference.

Choose the correct statement(s): c) 2, 3, 4 and 5

a) 1 only d) 1, 2, 4 and 5
b) 2 only Ans. B
c) 1 and 2 6. Consider the following statements.
d) None of the above 1. Imperialism is an age-old phenomenon whereas
Ans. C colonialism has its origin linked to industrial and
material boom.
4. The socio – religious reform movements of the
19th century had a slow start among the Muslim 2. Colonialism always leads to the impoverishment of
community. Why was it so? local economy, but it need not be the case with
imperialism.
1. The growth of middle classes among Muslims were
slow and weak. 3. Forced annexation is an integral component of both
imperialism and colonialism.
2. The orthodox elements were too powerful.
Choose the correct statement(s):
3. Muslims were often insulated from other
communities and groups. a) 1 and 2
Code: b) 2 and 3
a) 1 only c) 1 and 3
b) 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 3 only Ans. A
d) 1, 2 and 3 7. Which among the following were responsible for

the rise of extremism in Indian nationalist
Ans. A movement?
5. Identify the features which were responsible for 1. Victory of Japan over Russia in 1905.
the rise of Hitler and Nazism in Germany.
2. Policies of Lord Curzon.
1. Success of Bolshevik Revolution.
3. Success for October Revolution.
2. Presence of Corporate State.
4. Rise in the awareness among the people.
3. Weak nature of Weimar Constitution.
Code:
4. Growth of anti – Jewish sentiments.
a) 1, 2 and 4
5. The Great Depression.
b) 2, 3 and 4
Code:
c) 1, 3 and 4
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 1, 3, 4 and 5
Ans. A

8. Which among the following can be categorized as a) 1 and 2

the implications of the Chinese Communist b) 2 and 3
Revolution 1949?
c) 1 and 3
1. Weakening of imperialism in Asia.
d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Initiation of economic reorganization in China.
Ans. B
3. Continuation of political reorganization in China.
11 Identify the characteristic features of the New
4. Mutation of Cold War. Economic Policy introduced by USSR in the year
Code: 1921?
a) 1, 2 and 3 1. Peasants were allowed to sell their produce in open
markets.
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4 2. Payment of wages in cash was reintroduced.
d) 1, 2 and 4 3. Production and sale of goods in some industries

under private control was allowed.
Ans. D
Code:
9. Which among the following can be categorized as
the repercussions of the Spanish Civil War? a) 1 and 2
1. Variation in the balance of power in Europe. b) 2 and 3
2. Assertion of military power of Germany and Italy. c) 1 and 3
3. Destruction of Spanish republic. d) 1, 2 and 3
Code: Ans. D
a) 1 and 2 12. Which among the following factors were

responsible for the slow industrial development in
b) 2 and 3 USSR/Russia?
c) 1 and 3 1. Absence of mineral resources.
d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Lack of capital
Ans. D 3. Non – availability of free labour
10. Which among the following can be termed as the Code:
repercussions of ‘Suez War’?
a) 1 and 2
1. Isolation of USSR.
b) 2 and 3
2. Strengthening of Arab countries.
c) 1 and 3
3. Withdrawal of Britain and France from Egypt.
d) 1, 2 and 3
Code:

Ans. B 1. Increase in the political consciousness of IndiAns.

13. Which among the following factors inspired the 2. Transformation of Indian states as loyal allies of
British to introduce modern education in India? the British.
1. Need for educated Indians in minor administrative 3. End of religious appeasement strategies.
jobs. 4. Decline of authority of Indian princes over IndiAns.
2. Dissemination of European culture. 5. Strengthening of social reform movements.
3. Non availability of British for all jobs. Code:
4. Weakening of traditional educational system. a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Code: b) 1, 2, 4 and 5
a) 1, 2 and 4 c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
b) 2, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4 Ans. B
d) 1, 2 and 3 16. Which among the following were implications of
Ans. D the successful revolution in Turkey?
14. What grounds were stated by the United States 1. Initiation of a programme to modernize Turkey.
and South Vietnam for extending their war into 2. Inception of Turkey as a republic.
Cambodia?
3. State patronage to the institution of Caliph.
1. Inhuman atrocities were being committed by the
Khmer Rouge regime. 4. Separation of education from the hands of religious
leaders.
2. War supplies were being provided to the
Vietnamese from bases in Cambodia. Code:
3. US soldiers were being held in captivity inside a) 1, 2 and 3

Cambodia. b) 2, 3 and 4
Code: c) 1, 2 and 4
a) 1 only d) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2 only Ans. C
c) 3 only 17. Why did the Western countries continue to
d) None of the above appease Japan despite her major acts of aggression
during the times of WW II?
Ans. B
1. They wanted Japan to destabilize China as well as
15. Which among the following can be categorized as USSR.
the outcomes of revolt of 1857?

2. Britain did not want to endanger her possessions in b) 1 and 2 only

Asia. c) 1 and 3 only
3. The threat of Japan was miniscule in comparison d) 1, 2 and 3
with that of Italy and Germany.
Ans. A
Code:
20. Where was the annual session of Congress held
a) 1 and 2 in year 1907 which saw the Congress split?
b) 2 and 3 a) Calcutta
c) 1 and 3 b) Bombay
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) Surat
Ans. A d) Allahabad
18. Starting from the earliest arrange the following Ans. C
events.
21. Which of the following statements is correct
1. Quit India Movement regarding the Inter-War period?
2. Atlantic Charter 1. Britain and France were playing very active role in
3. Cripps Mission opposing and suppressing fascism.
4. Individual Satyagraha 2. The Soviet Union had signed a Non-Aggression
Code: Pact with Germany in 1939.
a) 4 – 2 – 3 – 1 3. The USA was the leader of the League of Nations.
b) 2 – 4 – 3 – 1 Select the correct option using the codes given

below.
c) 3 – 4 – 2 – 1
a) 1 only
d) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
b) 2 only
Ans. A
c) 1 and 3 only
imperialism: d) 2 and 3 only
1. It refers to the expansion of power by a country Ans. B

beyond it’s own borders. 22. The panels of Sanchi Stupa depict :
2. Direct political control is an essential feature. 1. Buddha’s story through his images.
3. Colonialism is the only way to achieve it. 2. Landscape of trees, yakshas and yakshinis.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Select the correct option using the codes given
a) 1 only below.

a) 1 only c) Cholas
b) 2 only d) Pandyas
c) Both 1 and 2 Ans. C
d) None 26. The British did not receive the Diwani rights for
Ans. B which of the following regions after the Battle of
Buxar?
23. The growing popularity of image worship during
ancient period stimulated developments in a) Awadh
architecture. b) Bengal
Which religion did not contribute to these c) Bihar
developments?
d) Orissa
a) Mahayana Buddhism Ans. A
b) Hinduism 27. Which of the following statement is incorrect
c) Hinayana Buddhism about Simon Commission?
d) Jainism a) It consisted solely of Englishmen.
Ans. C b) It’s purpose was to look into the working of the
24. Consider the following statements about the Government of India Act of 1919.
Rathas Mahabalipuram: c) It’s term of reference held out promises for steps
1. The Ratha is a shrine carved out of a single rock. towards Swaraj.
2. They are named after the Pandavas. d) It was vehemently opposed throughout India.
3. All of them are of exactly the same size. Ans. C
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 28. Which of the following was not a provision of the
Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909?
a) 1 only
a) Introduction of dyarchy.
b) 1 and 3 only
b) Separate electorates for the Muslims.
c) 2 and 3 only
c) The memberships of the provincial legislative
d) 1 and 2 only councils to be enlarged.
Ans. D d) Limited franchise to landlords and chambers of
25. The famous bronze sculpture of Nataraja is a commerce.
masterpiece of which dynasty? Ans. A
a) Pallavas 29. Which of the following events did not happen at
b) Cheras the Lucknow session of Congress in 1916?

a) A pact was signed between Congress and Muslim c) Spain

League. d) Dutch
b) Tilak was welcomed back in Congress. Ans. C
c) Gandhiji’s first speech at the Congress sessions. 33. Which of the following countries were taken away
d) Moderates and Extremists reconciled with each from the Turkish empire after the First World War?
other. 1. Syria
Ans. C 2. Palestine
30. Which of the following were the aims of the 3. Iraq
Non-Cooperation Movement?
4. Iran
1. Remedying the Punjab massacre
Select the correct option using the codes.
2. Undoing the Khilafat wrong
a) 2 and 3 only
3. Complete independence
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
Select the correct choice using the codes.
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
a) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
Ans. C
c) 1 and 3 only
34. Which of the following was not one of the
d) 1, 2 and 3 reasons behind the First World War?
Ans. B a) Internal conflicts in Europe including the Pan-Slav
31. Which of the following industries was not a and Pan-German movements.
favourite among the European capitalists to invest in b) Formation of dangerous alliances.
Asia or Africa?
c) Serbia’s frustration with Austria over the latter’s role
a) Textile in the Balkan wars.
b) Mining d) Anti-imperialist movements in Asian countries.
c) Plantation Ans. D
d) Railway 35. Which of the following countries started the
Ans. A Balkan Wars in 1912?
32. Philippines was acquired by the US after paying 1. Greece
20 million dollars to which imperialist Power? 2. Serbia
a) France 3. Austria
b) Britain 4. Bulgaria

Select the correct option using the codes. 3. Aim of establishing dictatorships.
a) 1 and 4 only Select the correct option using the codes.
b) 1, 2 and 4 only a) 1 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only
Ans. B d) 3 only
36. Which American President is famous for his Ans. A
peace proposal known as the Fourteen Points? 39. Which of the following countries was not a
a) Woodrow Wilson member of the Anti-Comintern Pact, 1937?
b) Theodore Roosevelt a) Germany
c) Calvin Coolidge b) Italy
d) Franklin Delano Roosevelt c) Austria
Ans. A d) Japan
37. Which of the following dynasties were destroyed Ans. C
after the First World War? 40. In the context of reforms in the Soviet Union in
1. Romanov 1980s, perestroika meant
2. Habsburg a) Restructuring
3. Hohenzollern b) Openness
4. Bourbon c) Transparency
Select the correct option using the codes. d) Efficiency
a) 2 and 3 only Ans. A
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Ans. C
38. Which of the following features were common in
the fascist movements of Europe after the First
World War?
1. Hostility to democracy
2. Belief in socialism

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NCERT BOOKS MCQ

Class-11 : Indian Constitution at Work (New) 2

Class-12 : Contemporary World Politics (New) 25

Class-11 : Indian Economic Development (New) 37

Class-11 : Indian Physical Environment (New) 48

Class-12 : Politics in India Since Independence (New) 58

Class-8 : Resource and Development (New) 67

Class-8 : Modern India 76

Class-11 : Indian Economic Development (New) 88

Class-9 : Story of Civilization(Old) 89

Class-6&7 : Ancient & Medieval India (Old) 97

Class-6 : Land and People (Old) 116

Class-9 : Contemporary India (New) 128

Goh Cheng Leong Test (MCQ) 138

Ancient India (Old & New) 141

Class-9 : Macro Economics (New) 144

Class-10 : Story of Civilization (Old) 153

Class-11 : Indian Constitution at Work (New)

www.IASEXAMPORTAL.COM NCERT BOOKS MCQ 2

5. Match the following: E. Unequal rights to 5. Neglect of women

B. Directive principles of 2. French state policy a) 3 1 2 4 5

www.IASEXAMPORTAL.COM NCERT BOOKS MCQ 3

www.IASEXAMPORTAL.COM NCERT BOOKS MCQ 4

ans. B 13. Consider the following statements and choose

www.IASEXAMPORTAL.COM NCERT BOOKS MCQ 5

a) A-3, B-1, C-2 b) A-3, B-2, C-1 1. Indian Foreign Services

1. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is consulted a) 2 3 4 1

A. Works within the particular state in which Code:

www.IASEXAMPORTAL.COM NCERT BOOKS MCQ 6

4. The Constitution guarantees remedy against Code:

www.IASEXAMPORTAL.COM NCERT BOOKS MCQ 7

www.IASEXAMPORTAL.COM NCERT BOOKS MCQ 8

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the above is/are correct?

29. Consider the following statements in the a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only

30. As per the Advisory Jurisdiction of the

www.IASEXAMPORTAL.COM NCERT BOOKS MCQ 9

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

37. Consider the following statements.

www.IASEXAMPORTAL.COM NCERT BOOKS MCQ 10

www.IASEXAMPORTAL.COM NCERT BOOKS MCQ 11

3. 1st five year plan had focussed on agrarian a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3

3. Central government can delay state legislations. Code:

4. Executive powers of the states are equivalent to a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3

2. Constitution prevents States from becoming Code:

www.IASEXAMPORTAL.COM NCERT BOOKS MCQ 12

a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 Code:

c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only a) 1 and 3 b) 2 and 3

ans. D c) 1 and 2 d) All the above

49. Which of the following statement/s is/are

www.IASEXAMPORTAL.COM NCERT BOOKS MCQ 13

www.IASEXAMPORTAL.COM NCERT BOOKS MCQ 14

www.IASEXAMPORTAL.COM NCERT BOOKS MCQ 15

C. No ex-post facto legislation 2. Its decisions are binding on all courts.

www.IASEXAMPORTAL.COM NCERT BOOKS MCQ 16

a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2 and 3 69. The Constitution under (Article 143) authorises

2. In PIL, court can take suo moto cases a) 1 only b) 2 only

3. Hussainava Khatoon v/s State of Bihar is a c) 1 and 2 d) None

c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Japan has a parliamentary system with the

a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 1. President is the head of the state as well as head

www.IASEXAMPORTAL.COM NCERT BOOKS MCQ 17

www.IASEXAMPORTAL.COM NCERT BOOKS MCQ 18