NIGERIAN AIR LAW PRACTICE Q & A

(Answers are at the end of the document)

Compiled by F/O Folu Oladipo
Please report any errors to im_oladipo@yahoo.co.uk

1. Unless the pilot of an aircraft entering Nigeria has been granted special
permission, he must do so at:
a. Any aerodrome
b. A customs aerodrome
c. Any government aerodrome
d. A licensed aerodrome

2. What signal in the signals area indicates prolonged prohibition from
landing?
a. A horizontal white dumb-bell
b. A horizontal square with yellow diagonal strips red
c. A horizontal red square

3. Flight at night in Nigeria, under visual flight rules is:
a. permitted below 3000 feet AGL
b. permitted outside controlled airspace
c. not permitted

4. The term VMC means:
a. Instrument flight rules must not be used
b. Weather conditions are such the flights may be carried out under VFR
c. Weather conditions are such that airports are closed to all flying

5. Certain minimum safe altitudes may be disregarded:
a. By aircraft flying for the purposed of checking navigation aids
b. By private flying clubs
c. By aircraft practicing aerobatics

6. When landing on a grass airfield after another aircraft, you should:
a. Land on its left and turn right
b. Land on its right and turn left
c. Land on its right and turn right

7. While flying VFR on a magnetic track of 180o, the semicircular rule
requires a cruising altitude of:
a. Odd thousands of feet
b. Even thousands of feet
c. Even thousands of feet plus 500 feet

8. Which flight level under IFR complies with the rule for a magnetic track
of 200 o? (Non-RVSM)
 a. FL 290
b. FL 310
c. FL 320

9. Which light signal directed at an aircraft on the ground means that an
aircraft should return to its starting point?
a. A continuous red beam
b. An intermittent white beam
c. A continuous white beam

10. When an accident occurs involving serious injury or loss of life, the
aircraft must:
a. Not be removed or interfered with except under the authority of the
minister of transport
b. Be moved at once by the owner or his agent
c. Be removed within 72 hours of the event

11. In order to obtain advisory services when flying under IFR in Flight
Information regions (FIR), the aircraft must be able to communicate
with:
a. Other aircraft
b. Aerodrome control
c. The appropriate A.T.C. unit

12. Request for meteorological route forecasts should include:
a. The time of the synoptic on which the forecast is to be based
b. The general declaration
c. The route, departure time, altitude and airspeed

13. Certain documents must be carried on all flights for the purpose of
public transport. The additional document that must be carried on
international air navigation flights is:
a. Certificate of Airworthiness
b. Certificate of Registration
c. Certificate of maintenance

14. The altimeter of an aircraft in flight above 3000 feet ASL, outside
controlled airspace should be set at:
a. QNH
b. QFE
c. 1013.2 Mb

15. An approach control unit provides control service to aircraft:
a. Taking off and landing under IFR
b. Flying in a control zone
c. Landing under VFR

16. Information regarding the control areas in Nigeria will be found in the:
a. Civil aviation act (1964 No. 30)
b. Aeronautical Information Publication (Nigeria)
c. Civil Aviation rules of the Air and Air Traffic Control 1965

17. Who is responsible for ensuing that all required instruments and
equipment are on board an aircraft before flight?
a. The owner or his agent
b. The pilot in command
c. The ATC officer on duty

18. When taking off the pilot must set his altimeter to
a. Regional QNH
b. Any desired setting but should set one altimeter to the latest aerodrome
QNH
c. QFE

19. An aircraft without radio communication equipment shall not commence
a flight when the weather conditions at the destination are likely to be
less than:
a. 5nm visibility and 1500 foot cloud base
b. 3000 yards visibility and 2000 foot cloud base
c. 5nmvisibility and 2000 foot cloud base

20. The pilot of an aircraft sees another aircraft on its starboard side
showing a red light. The pilot must:
a. Maintain course and speed
b. Take avoiding action if risk of collision exists
c. Alter course to port

21. Obstruction warning lights are
a. Red and white alternating
b. Amber
c. Red

22. An aircraft in flight which has right of way shall:
a. Always maintain course but may fluctuate speed
b. Always maintain course and speed
c. In an emergency, avoid collision as best it can

23. Dangerous goods which by reason of their nature are liable to endanger
the safety of aircraft or persons aboard may be carried:
a. Under no circumstances
b. If carried in special containers
c. With the written permission of the minister of transport

24. The taxiing rules at an aerodrome require that:
a. Airplanes which are landing shall be given free way by other airplanes
and vehicles
b. Airplanes which are landing shall give way to other airplanes and
vehicles
c. The right of way between airplanes landing and other airplanes shall be
at the discretion of the pilots

25. The marshalling signal which means “turn to port” or “open up starboard
engine” is:
a. Circular motion of the right hand at head level, with left arm pointing to
left engine
b. Left arm down, right arm repeatedly moved upward and backward
c. right arm down, left arm repeatedly moved upward and backward

26. An aircraft flying from abroad is compelled to make a forced landing,
the pilot in command shall:
a. Repair his aircraft and fly to his destination
b. Make his way to the nearest aerodromes and report to ATC
c. Report the landing to Customs or the police

27. An aircraft shall not fly over or within ______ of an open air assembly of
more than 1000 persons.
a. 3nm
b. 1000 yards
c. 1500 yards

28. An aircraft flying over a congested area shall maintain a height of at
least _______ the highest obstacle within 2000 feet horizontally.
a. 1000 feet
b. 1500 feet
c. 2000 feet

29. An aircraft flying below 3000 feet MSL complies with VFR conditions if:
a. There is a second safety pilot onboard
b. Only between sunrise and sunset
c. It is clear of clouds and in sight of terrain

30. An aircraft flying over an aerodrome in order to the signals area must
remain:
a. In the traffic pattern
b. At least 500 feet AAE
c. Not more than 1000 feet AAE

31. Whose responsibility is it to notify ATC of the arrival of an aircraft?
 a. The tower controller
b. approach control
c. pilot in command

32. When is an aircraft permitted to fly unregistered in Nigeria?
a. If it is flying into Nigeria for the first time from another country
b. If the flight begins and ends in Nigeria
c. Never

33. The formation on radio aids available at an aerodrome can be found in:
a. AIC
b. AIP
c. AIS

34. If you observe an aircraft ahead and below you approaching to land at
the same runway, you:
a. Speed up, overtake him and land first
b. Let him land first
c. Reduce altitude and go ahead of him
d. Go to another airfield

35. In which of the following circumstances may an exit normally used by
passengers be blocked?
a. If the minister gives permission
b. If the operator loads the item so that it only covers half the exit
c. If it is hand baggage
d. None of the above

36. Which document is not required for aerial work?
a. Load sheet
b. Certificate of airworthiness
c. Certificate of maintenance
d. Radio license

37. The commanders of two or more aircraft may fly in formation if:
a. They get air traffic control clearance
b. The aircraft are of the same type
c. The commanders previously agree
d. Both aircraft have radios

38. How long is a Certificate of Airworthiness valid for?
a. 6 months
b. 2 years
c. 28 days
d. As long as the time stipulated on the certificate

39. Above which maximum authorized take off weight shall an aircraft flying
for the purpose of public transport carry two pilots?
a. 12,450 lbs
b. 22,500 lbs
c. 5,700 lbs
d. 10,000 lbs

40. Runway Visual Range is defined as:
a. How far away the runway can be seen by approaching aircraft
b. The minimum distance an aircraft can approach on instruments before
the runway becomes visible
c. The maximum distance certain runway lights can be seen along the
runway
d. The greatest distance that runway markers can be seen in the direction
of take off or landing viewed from a point 15 feet above the runway

41. If Air Traffic advice that the RVR is below the limits prescribed for that
approach, the commander shall:
a. Continue the approach and see if the report is true
b. Continue the approach if he is less than 1000 feet above the decision
altitude for that approach
c. Divert to the alternate airfield
d. Circle and see if he can find an area to descend visually

42. Who is responsible for the selection of an alternate airfield?
a. The operator
b. The commander
c. ATC
d. The copilot

43. When an aircraft is following a line feature, which of the following is
true about the Right Hand Rule?
a. Vertical separation is provided between two aircraft following a line
feature
b. Aircraft must fly in the same direction when following a line feature
c. Lateral separation is provided between two aircraft following a line
feature.
d. Prevents the risk of collision between aircraft going in different
directions but following the same line feature.

44. A cabin attendant is required when an aircraft carries:
a. 20 pax or more
b. 16 pax or more
c. 24 pax or more
d. 30 pax or more

45. When landing at an aerodrome without a defined runway and no ATC
which of the following is NOT correct?
a. Landing gliders and airplane make turns to the right on the ground
b. Aircraft must clear the runway as soon as possible
c. Landing gliders and airplanes land to the right of other aircraft on the
ground
d. Aircraft at lower altitudes land first

46. How long is a personal log book to be kept?
a. 30 days
b. 6 months
c. 2 years after last entry
d. none of the above

47. Which of the following are required entries in a personal logbook?
a. Time of departure, name, address, passengers carried
b. Name, address, license details, details of flight, type of aircraft
c. License details, name, airports of departure
d. None of the above

48. An aerodrome traffic zone is defined as having airspace of which of the
following dimensions:
a. 2000 feet above the highest point of the aerodrome to 2 nm
b. 2000 feet above the aerodrome to 1.5 nm
c. 1500 feet above the runway to a distance of 2 nm
d. 1000 feet ASL to a distance of 2 nm

49. Which of the following is not an aircraft category?
a. Private
b. Public transport
c. Military
d. Aerial work

50. How long is a load sheet required to be kept?
a. 2 years
b. 6 months
c. 28 days
d. 1 year

51. Who is required to sign the load sheet?
a. The person who supervises the loading and the commander
b. The person who refuels the aircraft
c. The operator
d. The copilot

52. For the purpose of calculating passenger weights, the standard weight of
a female is:
a. 65 kg
b. 90 kg
c. 70 kg
d. 30 kg

53. Which of the following is an indication that an aircraft has difficulty and
is compelled to land?
a. Flashing of navigation lights
b. Green pyrotechnics
c. Aerobatic maneuvers
d. Flashing landing lights

54. A white “T” in the signals area means:
a. Aircraft may take off and land at their discretion
b. The take off and landing is indicated by the direction shaft of the “T”
c. The direction of landing is at the pilot’s discretion
d. That the airfield has a control tower

55. A white dumbbell in the signals area means:
a. Aircraft movement is confined to hard surfaces or paved areas
b. Aircraft may only use the aerodrome if they are painted white
c. Area to be used by jet aircraft only
d. There are no restrictions on aircraft movement

56. A BAC-111 has 99 passengers on board, how many cabin attendants are
required?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

57. An aircraft has you on a relative bearing of 100O, which light would you
see on his aircraft?
a. Red
b. Green
c. Red and Green
d. White

58. What does a flashing red light directed at an aircraft in flight mean?
a. Do not land, aerodrome unavailable for landing
b. Cleared to land
c. Aerodrome open for all traffic
d. Return to the circuit and await permission to land

59. An aircraft in flight notices white stars or flashing lights directed at it,
this means:
a. The aircraft is about to enter a prohibited area and should change
course
b. The aircraft is to land at the aerodrome indicated
c. The aircraft should maintain course and advice ATC
d. The aircraft is about to enter a prohibited area and should maintain
height and course

60. When two aircraft are converging on ground:
a. One aircraft should speed up and go ahead of the other
b. The aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way
c. The aircraft that has the other on its left shall give way
d. Both aircraft should stop

61. Which light signal directed at an aircraft on the ground means that the
aircraft should return to its starting point?
a. A continuous red beam
b. A flashing red beam
c. A continuous white beam
d. A flashing white beam

62. What is the aerodrome elevation of Zaria and Kano?
a. 2105 feet and 1655 feet
b. 2150 feet and 1565 feet
c. 2015 feet and 1556 feet
d. 2510 feet and 1665 feet

63. Do Calabar and Maiduguri have facilities for night flying?
a. Yes, yes
b. Yes, no
c. No, yes
d. No, no

64. What are the vertical limits of Lagos TMA?
a. FL245 - UNL
b. 1500 feet – FL145
c. SFC – 2500 feet
d. 1500 feet – UNL

65. What is the frequency of Lagos VOR?
a. 113.7
b. 112.0
c. 112.5
d. 112.7

66. What is the identifier of the Calabar NDB and the Lagos VOR?
a. CA and LOS
b. CL and LS
c. CR and LAG
d. CB and LA

67. Which of the following is correct?
a. A glider gives way to airships and balloons
b. A balloon gives way to airships and gliders
c. Airships give way to gliders and balloons
d. Gliders have right of way over any flying machine

68. An aircraft in flight which has right of way shall:
a. Maintain course and speed but prevent collisions
b. Maintain course but is able to fluctuate speed
c. In an emergency, avoid collision as best it can
d. Descend

69. A helicopter has an airplane on its right; they are converging with no
change in relative bearing;
a. The airplane shall give way to the helicopter at all times
b. The helicopter shall give way to the airplane
c. The airplane shall give way by turning left
d. The helicopter should climb to avoid collision

70. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a. A landing aircraft gives way to a vehicle towing and aircraft
b. A vehicle gives way to an aircraft on ground
c. An aircraft gives way to a vehicle towing an aircraft
d. A vehicle gives way to another vehicle towing an aircraft

71. An aircraft towing a glider has another aircraft on its right:
a. The aircraft towing the glider shall give way by turning right
b. The aircraft shall give way to the aircraft towing the glider by turning
right
c. The aircraft should maintain course and speed, avoiding collision as best
it can
d. The aircraft towing the glider should give way at all times to other
traffic

72. Cloud ceiling is defined as:
a. The vertical distance from the surface of the aerodrome to the base of
the lowest cloud which obscures half the sky
b. The vertical distance from the highest point in the aerodrome to the
base of the lowest cloud which obscures half the sky
c. The vertical distance between the control tower and the lowest cloud
 d. The height of the lowest cloud AMSL

73. Public transport flight is defined as:
a. A public flight carrying students
b. A flight carrying passengers for hire or reward
c. A flight carrying students on holiday
d. Any international flight

74. Which of the following is a notifiable accident?
a. A tyre bursts during take off
b. A passenger on steps boarding the aircraft slips and breaks his leg
c. A passenger slips on the apron and breaks his leg
d. An engineer walk into a hangar door

75. Who is responsible for the correct operation of equipment?
a. The commander
b. The aircraft operator
c. The chief engineer
d. The regulating authority

76. What is a reasonable time with reference to production of documents?
a. A week
b. 5 days
c. 28 days
d. 10 days

77. A pressurized aircraft is defined as:
a. An aircraft capable of maintaining a pressure in excess of 700 mb
throughout the entire fuselage
b. An aircraft capable of maintaining a pressure in excess of 700 mb in
individual compartments
c. An aircraft capable of flying at a height above 15000 feet for an
unlimited amount of time
d. An aircraft capable of maintaining sea level pressure in all passenger
compartments

78. What is the minimum age for the issue of a Nigerian CPL?
a. 17
b. 18
c. 21
d. 23

79. Flying under on a track of 200 in non-RVSM airspace, which of the
following is a correct cruising level?
a. FL 290
b. FL 310
 c. FL 320
d. FL 330

80. A control zone is defined as:
a. A designated airspace extending from a specific altitude to a specific
flight level
b. A designated airspace extending from surface to the specific altitude
c. A control area around a major international airport
d. Airspace above a Terminal Control Area

81. The purpose of the AIP is to:
a. Disseminate NOTAM class I and class II
b. Provide information of a lasting nature, essential to air navigation
c. Provide information in the form of Aeronautical Information Circulars
d. Give a list of all available navigation aids in Nigerian airspace

82. A person may board an aircraft while drunk:
a. If he has an accompanying relative who will take responsible for him
b. If the commander gives permission
c. If he is on essential business
d. Never

83. The amount of notification an operator has to give in respect of MET
briefing and flight documentation for a flight in excess of 600 nm is:
a. 3 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 48 hours

84. An aircraft is flying at 2000 feet outside controlled airspace, who is
responsible for the altitude flown?
a. The pilot
b. The operator
c. ATC
d. The ministry

85. Tow ropes, banners or similar articles towed by aircraft shall not be
dropped from an aircraft unless:
a. It is unto an area specified by the minister
b. It is unto an aerodrome in accordance with arrangements made by the
person in charge of the aerodrome
c. The aircraft has no radio so the commander uses own discretion
d. None of the above

86. Which of the following criteria have to be satisfied in order to carry out
a practice instrument approach in VMC?
 a. The aircraft is IFR certified and ATC has been notified
b. The pilot has to be instrument current
c. The appropriate ATC unit has been notified and a competent observer
with a sufficient field of view is carried
d. The appropriate ATC unit has been notified and it is carried out during
daylight hours

87. Simulated instrument flight shall not be carried out unless:
a. The aircraft is fitted with dual controls, a safety pilot is carried and the
relevant ATC unit is notified
b. A safety pilot is carried and if his view is not adequate, a third person
being a competent observer with suitable means of communication
c. The aircraft is fitted with dual controls, suitable instrumentation and a
safety pilot is carried
d. The pilot is carried along with a third competent observer, if necessary,
to make good any deficiencies in the safety pilot’s view aircraft is
fitted with correctly functioning dual controls, a safety

88. Critical height is defined as:
a. The minimum height above the elevation of an aerodrome to which an
approach can be safely continued without visual reference to the
ground
b. The minimum height above the highest obstacle on the aerodrome to
which an approach can be made without visual reference
c. The maximum height above MSL to which an approach can be made
without visual reference
d. None of the above

89. An accident occurs in which the aircraft receives substantial damage or a
person suffers death or injury, who apart from the Honorable minister
must be notified?
a. The nearest ATC unit
b. An authorized person
c. The local police authorities
d. All of the above

90. Two types of separation provided by ATC are
a. Vertical and longitudinal
b. Vertical and horizontal
c. Horizontal and time
d. Vertical and time

91. In Nigeria, a pilot must file a flight plan for:
a. All flights
b. Only for international flights
c. All flights except those which remain in the local area
 d. None of the above

92. The definition of aerodrome elevation is:
a. The highest point on the aerodrome
b. The highest point in the landing area
c. The datum point
d. The point at which QNH is set

93. The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in a specific period are:
a. 1020 hours in a year
b. 100 hours in month
c. 100 hours in 28 days
d. None of the above

94. Who is responsible for the operations manual?
a. The aircraft commander
b. The aircraft operator
c. The chief pilot
d. The operations department

95. What is the width of an airway?
a. 10 NM
b. 50 NM
c. 12 NM
d. 15 NM

96. What are the hours of operation of the Kano FIR and Lagos sub-FIR?
a. H24 and H24
b. Sunrise to sunset and H24
c. H24 and sunrise to sunset
d. Sunrise to sunset and sunrise to sunset

97. Are Maiduguri and Ilorin international airports?
a. Yes and yes
b. No and no
c. Yes and no
d. No and yes

98. What are the hours of operation of Calabar Airport?
a. H24
b. 0600 – 1800
c. 0600 – 2300
d. 0600 – 2030

99. The customs categories of Calabar and Port Harcourt airports
respectively are:
 a. Category A and category A
b. Category B and Category A
c. Category C and Category B
d. Category A and Category B

100. The transition levels at Kano and Maiduguri respectively are:
a.FL 65 and FL 50
b.FL 55 and FL 45
c.FL 50 and FL 65
d.FL 45 and FL 55

101. If an aircraft transponder becomes unserviceable, which of the following
statements is true?
(a) If it becomes U/S on the ground, inform the engineer and
continue the flight
(b) If it become U/S in flight, descend to 10000 feet and continue the
flight
(c) If mode C is temporarily U/S, it will not affect the normal
operation of the flight
(d) If mode C is U/S, rates of climb and descent must be limited to a
maximum of 1000 fpm

102. What is the maximum period of sickness a pilot may experience before a
report has to be made to the authorities?
(a) 10 days
(b) 20 days
(c) 28 days
(d) 31 days

103. Which transponder code should a pilot set if he experiences radio
failure?
(a) 7700
(b) 7600
(c) 7500
(d) 4321

104. A flying machine registered in Nigeria having a maximum total weight
authorized of more than 12,500 lbs shall display in addition to standard
red, green and white lights:
(a) A red anti-collision light
(b) A whit flashing light of at least 20 candela
(c) A red flashing light of at least 20 candela showing through 70O
(d) A steady red light of at least 20 candela

105. An aircraft flying outside controlled airspace at 4000 feet must:
(a) Fly semi-circulars
 (b) Fly at any altitude
(c) Fly as directed by ATC
(d) Descend

106. A green flag hanging from an aerodrome mast at an aerodrome means:
(a) You cannot land
(b) Only green aircraft can take off
(c) Right hand circuits
(d) Turn right on the ground

107. How long must a passenger and cargo manifest be kept?
(a) 26 days
(b) 1 week
(c) 6 months
(d) 1 year

108. The carriage of munitions of war onboard civil aircraft registered in
Nigeria is permitted if:
(a) The honorable minister gives written permission
(b) The army contracts the aircraft
(c) The aircraft operator gives permission
(d) None of the above

109. A white cross on a runway means:
(a) Land here
(b) Helicopters only
(c) Runway closed – area unsuitable for aircraft movement
(d) Paved areas only

110. What is the maximum altitude an unpressurized aircraft can fly for
extended periods of time?
(a) 5000 feet
(b) 8000 feet
(c) 10000 feet
(d) 15000 feet

111. If a female pilot becomes pregnant, her medical certificate shall be
suspended:
(a) Upon the diagnosis of the pregnancy
(b) Until two weeks after the birth
(c) Until two weeks after the diagnosis of pregnancy
(d) Until termination of the pregnancy

112. The international distress frequency is:
(a) 123.45 MHz
(b) 121.90 MHz
 (c) 121.50 MHz
(d) 118.10 MHz

113. For how long is a flight radio telephony operator’s general license valid?
(a) 1 year
(b) 24 months
(c) 6 months
(d) For as long as the license to which it is attached is valid

114. An instrument rating in Nigeria is valid for:
(a) 6 months
(b) 12 months
(c) 13 months
(d) 24 months

115. What is the minimum age for the issue of a flight radio telephony
license?
(a) 16 years
(b) 17 years
(c) 18 years
(d) 21 years

116. The holder of a CPL or ATPL, in order to maintain night currency, must
perform 5 take offs and landings at night within:
(a) 28 days
(b) 90 days
(c) 6 months
(d) 13 months

117. Information on available radio aids at aerodromes in Nigeria can be
found in the;
(a) AIP
(b) AIC
(c) AIS
(d) NOTAM class 2

118. What action must a pilot take on encountering hazardous conditions?
(a) Avoid the hazard and land at the nearest aerodrome
(b) Notify the appropriate ATC unit by the quickest means possible
(c) File a written report within five days
(d) Tell the operator of the aircraft

119. What is the minimum terrain clearance to be observed when flying IFR
outside controlled airspace?
(a) 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 10 nm
(b) 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 nm
 (c) 500 feet from any person, vehicle and structure
(d) The specified obstacle clearance limit

120. AIS provides:
(a) Clearance for every flight
(b) Information regarding scheduled international flights
(c) Aeronautical information necessary for safety and efficiency of air
navigation
(d) Information on conflicting traffic

121. In order to obtain advisory service when flying under IFR in the FIR, the
aircraft must be able to communicate with:
(a) Other aircraft
(b) Aerodrome control
(c) The appropriate ATC unit
(d) Approach control

122. At what point on the aerodrome would you check your altimeter?
(a) The aerodrome reference point
(b) The apron
(c) The highest area in the landing area
(d) On the runway prior to take off

123. How long is regional QNH valid?
(a) 1 hour
(b) 6 hours
(c) 12 hours
(d) 24 hours

124. Is it permissible to go below minimum safe height under IFR?
(a) Only with ATC clearance
(b) If the aircraft is within 5 nm of a known navaid
(c) When maneuvering for landing
(d) Never

126. Where are OCL and Critical Height published?
(a) AIP (Nigeria)
(b) AIC
(c) The operations manual
(d) NOTAM class 1

127. Which of the following is not found in the AIP (Nigeria)?
(a) AGA
(b) COM
(c) LAW
(d) FAL

128. What is the vertical separation provided to opposite direction traffic
flying below FL 290 under IFR?
(a) 1000 feet
(b) 2000 feet
(c) 1500 feet
(d) 500 feet

129. How many copies of the load sheet are required?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None

130. Who is classified as an “authorized person”?
(a) Anyone who feels like helping
(b) An airline official
(c) A representative of the authority or a police officer
(d) The operations manager

131. When flying within an advisory area, vertical separation may be as little
as:
(a) 100 feet
(b) 500 feet
(c) 1000 feet
(d) 2000 feet

132. When requesting to join an airway, the pilot must include in his call:
(a) Ground speed
(b) IAS/Mach number
(c) TAS
(d) Intercept angle

133. A procedure turn left is:
(a) Any turn to the left during an approach
(b) A 45 deg turn to the left, outbound for one minute, then a rate
one turn to the right to intercept the final approach course
(c) A 30 deg turn right, then 150 turn left
(d) A 45 deg turn right, then a 180 turn left to intercept the final
approach course

134. In order to comply with VFR, an aircraft flying at less than KIAS in
uncontrolled airspace below 3000 feet must maintain:
(a) 1000 feet horizontal separation from clouds
(b) 1000 feet vertical separation from clouds
(c) 1 nm visibility, remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface

135. A pilot flying in controlled airspace under SVFR:
(a) Must obey the 1500 foot rule
(b) May be required to disregard the 1500 foot rule
(c) Will be given radar vectors

136. When tuning a Navaid the Morse code “TST” is identified, this means:
(a) The aid has been successfully tested
(b) The aid should be used with caution as it is on test
(c) The aid should not be used

137. Two aircraft can land on the same runway with ATC clearance if:
(a) It is long enough and the second aircraft has the first in sight
(b) It is daylight
(c) A and b

138. Flight visibility is:
(a) Horizontal visibility from the flight deck
(b) Forward visibility from the flight deck
(c) Tower reported visibility
(d) Vertical visibility

139. In METAR and TAF reports, the wind strength is measured as:
(a) Average over 10 minutes referenced to the true north
(b) Average over 10 minutes referenced to the magnetic north
(c) The strongest wind in 10 minutes referenced to the true north
(d) The wind strength at the time of observation referenced to
magnetic north

140. Gail warnings are issued by the met office when:
(a) The mean wind is greater than 43 KT
(b) The mean wind is greater than 34 KT, gust of 43 KT
(c) Mean winds greater than 24 KT, gusts of 34 KT

141. Which of the following is correct with regard to VDF accuracy
(a) Category B accurate to 5 degrees
(b) Category D accurate to 30 degrees
(c) Category A accurate to 10 degrees
(d) Category c accurate to 15 degrees

142. What is the VASI indication when on the correct glide path to the
runway?
(a) 2 red lights at the rear, 2 white lights in front
(b) All white
(c) All red
(d) 2 white lights at the rear, 2 red lights in front

143. RVR markings are spaced:
(a) Every 100m
(b) Every 100m then 50m after 800m
(c) Every 50m
(d) Every 50m then 100m after 800m

144. A report of in flight meteorological conditions is abbreviated to:
(a) METAR
(b) IFMR
(c) TAF
(d) PIREP

145. The minimum number of pilots required for operation of an aircraft can
be found in the:
(a) Certificate of Airworthiness
(b) Certificate of Registration
(c) Instrument panel
(d) None of the above

146. A SIGMET is issued for:
(a) Heavy hail (for subsonic) or hail (for transonic and
supersonic flights)
(b) Cumulus clouds forming for all aircraft
(c) Moderate or severe turbulence for all aircraft

147. A VFR contact approach is:
(a) An instrument approach by an IFR flight, when part or all is
completed with visual reference to terrain
(b) An approach conducted while in contact with ATC
(c) One that is given to aircraft that are familiar with the airfield

148. When should the base leg call be made?
(a) On completion of the turn unto the base leg
(b) During the turn unto the base leg
(c) When turning from the base leg unto the final leg

149. Prior to landing to a private aerodrome:
a. ATC clearance must be obtained
b. Prior permission must be obtained from the owner
c. Prior permission must be obtained from FAAN

149. Request for MATZ penetration must be made:
a. 5 minutes or 15 nm, whichever is greater
b. 5 minutes or 15 nm, whichever is lower
c. at the boundary
 d. is not necessary

150. Emergency Distance Available is:
a.TORA + stopway
b.TORA + clearway
c.TODA + stopway
d.TODA

151. Aerodrome elevation is measured at
a. The control tower
b. The highest point in the airfield premises
c. The highest point in the landing area
d. The highest point in the maneuvering area

152. The call sign “information” used by an ATSU indicates:
a. An air-ground station
b. That the ATSU is provides Flight Information service
c. ATIS
d. Clearance delivery

153. FIS is restricted to within:
a. 5nm and 500 feet
b. 10 nm and 2000 feet
c. 25 nm and 10000 feet
d. the ATZ

154. What are the required entries in the technical log?
a. Passengers, crew, baggage and load
b. flight time, pilot’s signature, date and fuel
c. Nature of flight, Ratings of the commander
d. None of the above

155. When should contact be made with an aerodrome ATSU?
a. 5 minutes or 15 nm whichever is greater
b. 5 minutes or 15 nm whichever
c. 10 minutes from the airfield
d. 10 minutes from the zone boundary

156. A flight plan must be filed at least ______ before takeoff and expires
______ after proposed take off
a. 1 hour, 1 hour
b. 30 minutes, 30 minutes
c. 1 hour, 30 minutes
d. 30 minutes, 1 hour

157. CAVOK means:
 a. No clouds below 3000 feet or MSA whichever is higher, Visibility
3 km or higher, nil weather
b. No clouds below 5000 feet or MSA whichever is higher, Visibility
10 km or higher, nil weather
c. No clouds below 10000 feet or MSA whichever is higher,
Visibility 5 km or higher, nil weather
d. Weather is at or above VFR weather minima

158. Aircraft flying IFR must be equipped with at least ________
a. Dual controls
b. ILS and radio altimeter
c. GPS receiver
d. VHF radio and VOR receiver

159. What is the correct sequence of the contents of a met report?
a. Call sign, wind, QNH, visibility
b. Wind, visibility, weather, cloud
c. Altimeter, wind, temperature, visibility
d. Wind, weather, QNH, visibility

160. Traffic information given to aircraft in advisory airspace protects them
from:
a. All traffic within advisory airspace
b. All traffic within 25 nm if advisory airspace
c. All aircraft within 1000 feet
d. Only known traffic operating within advisory airspace

161. A SIGMET will be issued for weather that is up to _____ NM in front of an

aircraft?
a. 25
b. 50
c. 100
d. 500

162. MAYDAY calls should be made on:
a. 121.5 MHz regardless of current operating frequency
b. operating frequency the current
c. operations frequency
d. destination frequency only

163. An intercepted aircraft must attempt to make contact with its
interceptor on:
a. 121.5 MHz or 243.0 KHz
b. The nearest Military ATC frequency
c. 123.45 MHz or 234 KHz

164. VFR weather minimums for aircraft operation in controlled airspace are:
a. 1500 m visibility and clear of cloud
b. 5 km and 1500 foot cloud base
c. 1 nm horizontal separation and 1000 foot vertical from cloud,
3 nm visibility
d. 1000 foot vertical and horizontal separation from cloud, 3 km
visibility

165. If a flight plan is filed to an airfield that is not on the AFTN, the ______
is responsible for informing the destination aerodrome.
a. Commander
b. ATC
c. AIS
d. NCAA

166. When cleared to climb through the transition altitude, you start
reporting your height as a flight level:
a. At any altitude
b. After climbing through the transition altitude
c. Once above MSA
d. Above 18000 feet AMSL

167. What speed is given to ATC when requesting to enter CAS?
a. TAS
b. EAS
c. VMO
d. Ground speed

168. How long is the standard final leg?
a. 2 nm
b. 4 nm
c. 8nm
d. unlimited

169. What part of an airport will you find aircraft with navigation lights
switched off?
a. Maintenance area
b. The runway
c. The taxiway
d. ILS critical areas

170. In case loss of radio communications scenario, when can you commence
your approach?
a. At EAT from wherever you are in the stack
b. At ETA from wherever you are in the stack
c. 10 minutes after ETA
 d. 10 minutes after EAT

171. What condition will warrant an airfield closure?
a. Weather below landing minima
b. When essential airport services are unavailable
c. Whenever ATC feels like

172. An intercepting aircraft makes an abrupt 90 deg climbing turn to the
right, the intercepted aircraft:
a. May proceed
b. must land immediately
c. Follow the interceptor
d. Perform a steep turn

173. Who is liable for damage incurred at a military aerodrome?
a. The military
b. The federal government
c. The operator
d. The PIC

174. If you notice an incorrect question in the AIP, report it to:
a. NCAA
b. NIMET
c. FAAN
d. Nobody

175. Temperature inversions are reported by the met office when there are
changes of more than:
a. 5 deg at 500 feet and 10 deg at 1000 feet
b. 20 deg at MSA
c. 2 deg at 500 feet and 5 deg at 1000 feet

176. Who is responsible for obstacle clearance under SVFR?
a. ATC
b. PIC
c. There is no need to maintain obstacle clearance




Select one of the following for questions 177 to 182:
a. No risk of collision
b. Risk of collision – alter course to port
c. Risk of collision – alter course to starboard
d. Risk of collision – wait to alter course if necessary to avoid collision

You are flying at night and you see:
177. Red navigation light, relative bearing 290. No risk of collision
178. Red and green lights, RB of 005. Alter course to the right
179. Green, RB of 310 decreasing rapidly. No risk of collision
180. White getting closer, constant RB of 320. Alter course to the right
181. Red, constant RB of 030. Alter course to the right.
182. Green, constant RB of 300. Risk wait and alter course if necessary


















ANSWERS
1. B 21. C 41. B 61. D 81. B 101. C 121. C 141. A 161. D 181. C
2. B 22. B 42. B 62. B 82. D 102. B 122. D 142. A 162. B 182. D
3. C 23. C 43. D 63. A 83. B 103. B 122. A 143. B 163. A 183.
4. B 24. A 44. A 64. B 84. A 104. A 124. C 144. D 164. C 184.
5. A 25. C 45. A 65. A 85. B 105. A 125. C 145. A 165. A 185.
6. B 26. C 46. C 66. C 86. C 106. C 126. A 146. A 166. B 186.
7. C 27. B 47. B 67. C 87. D 107. C 127. C 147. A 167. A 187.
8. B 28. B 48. C 68. A 88. A 108. D 128. A 148. A 168. B 188.
9. B 29. C 49. C 69. B 89. D 109. C 129. B 149. B 169. A 189.
10. A 30. B 50. B 70. A 90. B 110. C 130. C 150. A 170. A 190.
11. C 31. C 51. A 71. B 91. C 111. D 131. B 151. C 171. B 191.
12. C 32. B 52. A 72. B 92. B 112. C 132. C 152. B 172. A 192.
13. A 33. B 53. D 73. B 93. C 113. D 133. B 153. C 173. C 193.
14. C 34. B 54. B 74. B 94. B 114. C 134. C 154. B 174. A 194.
15. A 35. A 55. A 75. A 95. A 115. C 135. B 155. D 175. A 195.
16. B 36. A 56. B 76. B 96. A 116. B 136. C 156. D 176. B 196.
17. B 37. C 57. B 77. B 97. A 117. A 137. C 157. B 177. A 197.
18. B 38. D 58. A 78. B 98. C 118. B 138. B 158. D 178. C 198.
19. A 39. B 59. A 79. B 99. B 119. B 139. B 159. B 179. A 199.
20. B 40. D 60. B 80. B 100. A 120. C 140. B 160. D 180. C 200.