BPSC 69th All India Prelims Test Series Test No: 39 CHAHAL ACADEMY

EXPLANATION SHEET BIOLOGY ADVANCE TEST- 39

ALL INDIA BPSC 69TH PRELIMS TEST SERIES

MODULE-2
ADVANCE TEST SERIES
TEST CODE: AIBPT6939

SUBJECT: BIOLOGY-2
NO. OF QUESTIONS: 40
TIME ALLOT: 30 MINUTES

ALL THE BEST

CHAHALACADEMY
7621011227
Chahal Academy Centres: -New Delhi | Mumbai | Kolkata | Ahmedabad | Anand
|Bhubaneswar |Chandigarh|Bhilai |Dehradun|Kanpur|Patna |Raipur|Ranchi
Rajkot|Surat|Vadodara│Gandhinagar│Mehsana│Nagaland.
www.chahalacademy.com
Patna office Address: 1st Floor, Pramila Manson Building, Oppt. Chandan Hero
Showroom, kankarbagh Patna

1
BPSC 69th All India Prelims Test Series Test No: 39 CHAHAL ACADEMY

Q1. The sugar present in DNA is

(a) Glucose (b) Fructose
(c) Deoxyribose (d) Ribose
(e) None of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
The deoxyribose is sugar found in DNA. It is a variant of five carbon sugar called ribose. The
DNA is an informational molecule found mainly in the nucleus of the cell.

Q2. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Vitamin B1 – Oranges
(b) Vitamin D – Cod-liver oil
(c) Vitamin E – Wheat germ oil
(d) Vitamin K – Alfalfa
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: E
EXPLANATION:
Sunlight and cod-liver oil are rich source of Vitamin D. Wheat germ oil is rich in vitamin E
while alfalfa is rich in vitamin K. Though orange is rich in vitamin C but it is also a low source
of vitamin B1 . Thus option (e) is the most probable answer.

Q3. Legumes are highly nutritious because they are rich in

(a) fat (b) protein
(c) oil (d) starch
(e) None of the above / More than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
Legumes are highly nutritious because they are rich in proteins. Legumes are typically low in
fat, contain no cholesterol, and are high in folate, potassium, iron and magnesium. As a
good source of protein, legumes can be a healthy substitute for meat, which has fatter and
cholesterol.

Q4. Plants are formed like parent plant from

(a) Seeds (b) Stem cut
(c) None of these (d) Both of these
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
Plants are propagated by two methods-
1. Sexual propagation or seed propagation.
2. Asexual or vegetative propagation.

2
BPSC 69th All India Prelims Test Series Test No: 39 CHAHAL ACADEMY

Vegetative propagation is a form of asexual reproduction of a plant. Only one plant is

involved and offspring is the result of one parent. The new plant is genetically identical to
the parent. In this process, new organism arises from any vegetative port of the parent
(root, stem, leaf etc.). and possess exactly the same characteristics of the parent plant. The
purity of plants is maintained in vegetative propagation which is not possible in sexual
reproduction. Stem cutting, grafting, layering, etc. are common artificial methods of
vegetative propagation.

Q5. Given below are two statements on labelled as Assertion (A) and the other Reason
(R).
Assertion (A): Most of the vitamins are not synthesized in human body.
Reason (R): Human organs synthesize only essential micronutrients.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is false but R is true
(d) A is true but R is false
(e) None of the above/more than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
Most of the vitamins cannot be synthesized in human body, so they are considered as
essential food factors. For the most part, vitamins are obtained from the diet, but some are
acquired by other means: for example, microorganisms in the gut flora produce vitamin K
and B7 (Biotin); and one form of Vitamin D is synthesized in skin cells when they are
exposed to a certain wavelength of ultraviolet light present in sunlight. Human can produce
some vitamins from precursors they consume: for example, Vitamin A is synthesized from
beta carotene; and vitamin B3 (Niacin) is synthesized from the amino acid tryptophan. An
essential micronutrient is a nutrient required for normal physiological function that cannot
be synthesized in the human body-either at all or in sufficient quantities- and thus must be
obtained from a dietary source. About 30 vitamins, minerals, fatty acids and amino acids are
essential micronutrients for proper functioning of human metabolism. Thus reason (R) is
false.

Q6. Which of the following does not have any enzyme in its cells?
(a) Lichen (b) Virus
(c) Bacteria (d) Algae
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: E
EXPLANATION:
Lichen, bacteria and algae, all these have enzymes in its cells. The virus generally relies on
the enzymes already present in the host cell or make enzymes that it needs using its own
genome inside the host cell. Some viruses have no enzymes at all inside the viral particle

3
BPSC 69th All India Prelims Test Series Test No: 39 CHAHAL ACADEMY

itself. In other viruses, a small number of enzymes can be found inside the viral particle
itself and also on the surface of some viruses. Enzymes found in some viral particles are
reverse transcriptase, RNA-dependent RNA polymerase, an integrase, neuraminidase etc.
Thus, the option (e) is the right answer.

Q7. The number of bones in human skull is

(a) 28 (b) 30
(c) 32 (d) 40
(e) None of the above/more than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
The human skull (excluding hyoid bone of the neck) consists of 28 bones. It consists of two
parts, neurocranium and the facial skeleton (also called the viscerocranium). Neurocranium
has 8 bones and there are 14 in the viscerocranium (facial bones) and remaining 6 bones
occurs in the middle ear, which is helpful in listening.

Q8. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Retinol – Xerophthalmia
(b) Tocopherol – Beri-Beri
(c) Cyanocobalamin – Anemia
(d) Ergocalciferol – Rickets
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
Deficiency of retinol i.e., vitamin A, leads to Xerophthalmia. Lack of cyanocobalamin
(vitamin B12 ) causes pernicious anaemia and lack of vitamin D (Cholecalciferol ‘D3 ’ AND
Ergocalciferol ‘D2 ’) causes rickets in children. Beri-beri is caused by lack of vitamin ‘B1 ’ i.e.,
thiamin not due to lack of tocopherol (vitamin ‘E’).

Q9. Given below are two statements on labelled as Assertion (A) and the other Reason
(R).
Assertion (A): In human body, the liver has an important role in fat digestion.
Reason (R): Liver produces two important fat-digesting enzymes.
Code
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
(e) None of the above/more than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:

4
BPSC 69th All India Prelims Test Series Test No: 39 CHAHAL ACADEMY

The liver does not produce fat-digesting enzymes. It detoxifies chemical and metabolizes
drugs. The liver has multiple functions such as secretion of bile, storage of fat, synthesis of
urea, glycogenesis, gluconeogenesis, and glycogenolysis etc. Although the bile lacks
digestive enzymes, yet it plays an important part in the digestion, especially in digestion of
fats by bringing about their emulsification.

Q10. Grains of basmati rice get elongated on being cooked because of higher content of
(a) Lysine (b) Amylose
(c) Sugar (d) Oil
(e) None of the above / More than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
There are many different varieties of rice. They differ in amounts of nutrition and more
importantly the type of starch. There are two types of starch in rice: amylose and
amylopectin. Amylose is a long, straight starch molecule that does not gelatinize during
cooking. So, rice which contains more of this starch tends to cook fluffy, with separate
grains. Long grain white rice (basmati) has the most amylose and the least amylopectin, so it
tends to be the fluffiest and least sticky. Medium grain rice has more amylopectin and short
grain rice has even more amylopectin with least or no amylose.

Q11. Consider the following kinds organisms-

1. Bat 2. Bee
3. Bird
Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
Pollination is the act of transferring pollen grains from male anther of a flower to the female
stigma. It is a prerequisite for fertilization. Fertilization allows the flower to develop fruits
and seeds. Bees are the most important pollinating agent. Pollination by bees and
butterflies often occurs in the flowers which bloom in the day time. Hummingbird-
pollinated flowers appear in warm colours like red, yellow and orange. Bat is also a
pollinating agent of many flowers. However, the number of animals-pollinated flowers are
not so high, some of them are found in the southern hemisphere

Q12. The blood group of universal donors is-

(a) B (b) O
(c) A (d) AB
(e) None of the above / More than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: B

5
BPSC 69th All India Prelims Test Series Test No: 39 CHAHAL ACADEMY

EXPLANATION:
Individuals with blood group ‘O’ are a universal donor because their red blood cells have
neither A nor B antigens on their surface. So, the blood of a person having O group can be
given to people with any blood group.

Q13. The cells which have the capacity to divide and differentiate into any type of cells in
the body are the focus of research of several serious disease is
(a) Bud cells (b) Red cells
(c) Mesangial cells (d) Stem cells
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
Stem cells are unique as they have the potential to develop into many different cell types in
the body, including brain cells, but they also retain the ability to produce more stem cells, a
process termed as self-renewal. There are multiple types of stem cells such as embryonic
stem cells, induced pluripotent stem cells and adult or somatic stem cells.

Q14. Of the following which hormone is associated with ‘fight or flight’ concept?
(a) Insulin (b) Adrenaline
(c) Estrogen (d) Oxytocin
(e) None of the above / More than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is commonly known as the ‘fight or flight hormone’. Adrenaline is
a hormone released from the adrenal glands and its major action together with
noradrenaline is to prepare the body for fight or flight. Adrenaline causes dilation of blood
vessels (vasodilation) which supply the brain, skeletal muscles, heart, lungs, liver, adipose
tissues, sensory organs etc. Due to increased blood supply, these organs become very active
and excited inducing alarm reaction, contraction of cardiac muscles, increasing both rate
and force of heartbeat, pulse rate, arterial pressure and cardiac output. It produces a feeling
of excitement.

Q15. In human beings, normally in which one of the following parts, does the sperm
fertilize the ovum?
(a) Cervix (b) Fallopian tube
(c) Lower part of uterus (d) Upper part of uterus
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
Fallopian tube, also called oviduct or uterine tube, either of a pair of long narrow ducts
located in the human female abdominal cavity that transport the male sperm cells to the

6
BPSC 69th All India Prelims Test Series Test No: 39 CHAHAL ACADEMY

egg, provide a suitable environment for fertilization and transport the egg from the ovary,
where it is produced.

Q16. Which one of the following is not achieved by transgenics?

(a) Production of biodegradable plastic
(b) Production of edible vaccines
(c) Production of cloned animals
(d) Production of transgenic crops
(e) None of the above/more than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
In biology, cloning is the process of producing similar populations of genetically identical
individuals that occur in nature when organisms such as bacteria, insects or plants
reproduce asexually. Transgenesis is the process of introducing an exogenous gene – Called
a transgene – into a living organism so that the organism will exhibit a new property and
transmit that property to its offspring. Transgenic bacteria are used to produce antibiotics
on an industrial scale, new protein drugs and to metabolize petroleum products or plastics
for cleaning up the environment. Transgenic animals are useful in basic research for
determining gene function.

Q17. The brain is responsible for

(a) Thinking
(b) Regulating the heartbeat
(c) Balancing the body
(d) All of the above three
(e) None of the above / More than one of the above
CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
The brain is composed of the cerebrum, cerebellum, and brainstem. The cerebrum is the
largest party of the brain and it performs higher functions like interpreting touch, vision and
hearing as well as speech, reasoning, learning and fine control of movement. The function
of the cerebellum is to coordinate muscle movements, maintain posture and balance. The
brainstem performs many automatic functions such as breathing, heart rate, body
temperature, woke and sleep cycles, digestion, etc. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q18. Which one of the following is the bioethically noncontroversial source of stem cells
as an alternative to the highly controversial embryonic stem cells?
(a) Bone marrow-derived stem cells
(b) Amniotic fluid derived stem cells
(c) Blood of fetus
(d) Blood of babies
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: A

7
BPSC 69th All India Prelims Test Series Test No: 39 CHAHAL ACADEMY

EXPLANATION:
Stem cells are undifferentiated biological cells that can differentiate into specialized cells
and can divide (through mitosis) to produce more stem cells. They are found in multicellular
organisms. There are three known accessible sources of autologous adult stem cells in
humans: Bone marrow, which requires extraction by harvesting that is drilling into bone
(typically the femur or iliac crest). This is an ultimate alternative to controversial embryonic
stem cells. Adipose tissue (lipid cells), which requires extraction through by liposuction.
Blood which requires extraction through aphaeresis, wherein blood is drawn from the
donor (similar to a blood donation) and passed through a machine that extracts the stem
cells and returns other portions of the blood to the donor.

Q19. A genetically engineered form of brinjal, known as the Bt. Brinjal has been
developed. The objective of this is
(a) To make it pest-restaurant
(b) To improve its taste and nutritive qualities
(c) To make it drought-resistant
(d) To make it shelf-life longer
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
Bt. Brinjal is a transgenic brinjal created by inserting a gene ‘Cry 1 Ac’ from the soil
bacterium ‘Bacillus thuringiensis’ into brinjal. Bt. Brinjal has been developed to give
resistance against lepidopteran insects like the brinjal shoot-borer Leucinodesorbonalis and
fruit-borer Helicoverpaarmigera. Bt. Brinjal has generated much debate in India. The
promoters say that Bt. Brinjal will be beneficial to small farmers because it is insect
resistant, increases yields etc. On the other hand, concerns about Bt. Brinjal relates to its
possible adverse impact on human health and bio-safety, livelihoods and biodiversity. In
India Bt. Brinjal was developed by the Maharashtra Hybrid Seeds company (Mahyco).
Despite the conduct of field trials from 2002-2006, a moratorium was issued in October
2009 and a government ban was implemented in February, 2010.

Q20. The basis of DNA fingerprinting is

(a) The double helix (b) Errors in base sequence
(c) DNA replication (d) DNA polymorphism
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
DNA fingerprints is a form of identification based on sequencing specific non-coding
portions of DNA that are known to have a high degree of variability from person to person.
Most of our DNA is identical to each other, but there are inherited regions of our DNA that
can vary from person to person. These variations are termed as polymorphisms and this
forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting. Since DNA from every tissue (skin, blood, saliva,
bone, hair-follicle, sperm etc.) from an individual show the same degree of polymorphism,

8
BPSC 69th All India Prelims Test Series Test No: 39 CHAHAL ACADEMY

they become very useful identification tool in forensic applications. Further, as the
polymorphisms are inheritable from parents to children, DNA fingerprinting is the basis of
paternity testing.

Q21. Embryo is found in

(a) Flowers (b) Leaves
(c) Seeds (d) Buds
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
The embryo along with other cells from the mother plant develops into the seed for the
next generation, which, after germination, grows into a new plant.

Q22.Given below are two statements on labelled as Assertion (A) and the other Reason
(R).
Assertion (A): All the proteins in our food are digested in small intestine only.
Reason (R): The protein-digesting enzymes from the pancreas are released into the small
intestine.
Code:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
(e) None of the above/more than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
Protein digestion begins in the stomach with the action of an enzyme called pepsin. Pepsin
is the active protein digesting enzyme of the stomach. Protein-digesting enzyme trypsin is
produced in an inactivate form in the pancreas and is activated in the small intestine where
it digests protein. Duodenum is the first and shortest segment of the small intestine. In the
duodenum, trypsin catalyzes the hydrolysis of peptide bonds, breaking down proteins into
smaller peptides. Enzymes continue to break down polypeptides and peptides into amino
acids. As amino acids are very small, they are able to be absorbed through the small
intestine lining and into the bloodstream.

Q23. Which among the following help in circulation of blood?

(a) Lymphocytes (b) Monocytes
(c) Erythrocytes (d) Blood platelets
(e) None of the above / More than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:

9
BPSC 69th All India Prelims Test Series Test No: 39 CHAHAL ACADEMY

Erythrocytes (RBCs: Red blood cells) help in circulation of blood. RBCs contain hemoglobin,
a protein that gives blood its red colour and enables it to carry oxygen from the lungs and
deliver it to all body tissues. Oxygen is used by cells to produce energy that the body needs,
leaving carbon dioxide as a waste product. RBCs also carry carbon dioxide away from the
tissues and back to the lungs.

Q24. Consider the following plants:

1. Bougainvillea 2. Carnation
3. Cocoa 4. Grapes
Which of these plants are propagated by stem cuttings?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(e) None of these

CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
Propagation of plants by stem cuttings is the most popular plant propagation method for
woody shrubs and ornamental plants. This is also a good technique for house plants. Some
of the plants propagated by stem cuttings are Sugarcane, grapes, Rose, Cocoa, Carnation,
Duranta, Bougainvillea, etc. Although in plants like Cocoa, propagation by seeds is also
popular.

Q25. Which of the following vitamins contain cobalt-

(a) Vitamin B6 (b) Vitamin B2
(c) Vitamin B1 (d) Vitamin B12
(e) None of the above/more than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) is a water-soluble vitamin. It contains a metallic ion cobalt. Its
chemical formula is C63 H88 CoN14 O14 P. It functions as a cofactor for enzymes in the
metabolism of amino acids and fatty acids, required for new cell synthesis, normal blood
formation and neurological function. Its deficiency causes pernicious anemia, nervous
system abnormality etc.

Q26. Which of the following strains of H.I.V. is dominant in India?

(a) HIV 1 A (b) HIV 1B
(c) HIV 1C (d) HIV 1D
(e) None of the above/more than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is the cause of one of the most destructive
pandemics in recorded history. Since it was first recognized in 1981, it has killed more than
25 million people. The three main routes of HIV transmission are

10
BPSC 69th All India Prelims Test Series Test No: 39 CHAHAL ACADEMY

1. Contaminated blood (for example between injecting drug users)

2. Sex: vaginal, anal (and very rarely, oral)
3. From mother to child (either in pregnancy during birth or via breast milk). Molecular
epidemiological analysis has identified the predominance of HIV-1 subtype C (HIV-1C) in
India.

Q27. Change in the base sequence within a gene is called:

(a) Mutation (b) Cloning
(c) Fusion (d) Breeding
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
A gene is the basic physical and functional unit of heredity. Change in the base sequence
within a gene is called mutation. Mutation is the changing of the structure of a gene,
resulting in variant form that may be transmitted to the subsequent generations. Mutation
is the ultimate source of all genetic variation, providing the raw material on which
evolutionary forces such as natural selection can act.

Q28. Ribozymes are

(a) DNA (b) RNA
(c) Proteins (d) None of these
(e) None of the above/more than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
A ribozyme is a ribonucleic acid (RNA) enzyme that catalyzes a chemical reaction. The
ribozyme catalyzes specific reactions in a similar way to that of protein enzymes. Also called
catalytic RNA, ribozymes are found in the ribosome where they join amino acid together to
form protein chains. Thomas R. Cech and Sidney Altman were awarded Nobel Prize in 1989
for discovering catalytic properties of RNA.

Q29. How many chromosomes are there in humans?

(a) 36 (b) 46
(c) 56 (d) 26
(e) None of these

CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
In humans, each cell normally contains 23 pairs of chromosomes, a total of 46. Twenty-two
of these pairs called autosomes which are the same in both males and females. The 23rd
pair, the sex chromosomes differ between males and females. Females have two copies of
the X chromosome (XX) while males have one X and one Y chromosome (XY).

Q30. The most abundant element found in the human body is

11
BPSC 69th All India Prelims Test Series Test No: 39 CHAHAL ACADEMY

(a) Iron (b) Sodium

(c) Oxygen (d) Iodine
(e) None of the above/more than one of the above

CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
Nearly 99% of the mass of human body consists of just six chemical elements- oxygen,
carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, calcium and phosphorus. Oxygen is the most abundant element
in the human body. It is mainly found in the form of water. Water, makes up about 60-70%
of the human body and participates in countless metabolic reactions.

12