Dozois 5e Chapter04 TIF

Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 5e
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CHAPTER 4
Psychological Assessment and Research Methods
Multiple Choice
1) Psychological assessment refers to

A) comparing an individual’s symptom profile to each of the DSM-IV-TR disorders.
B) administering the appropriate diagnostic tests to an individual with suspected
abnormal behavior.
C) conducting a structured interview to determine the correct diagnosis for an individual
who is displaying abnormal behaviour.
D) systematic gathering and evaluation of information pertaining to an individual with
suspected abnormal behaviour.
E) identifying psychological, social and biological factors that are causing an individual’s
mental illness.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MS Page Ref: 67
Skill: factual / conceptual
2) Psychological testing
A) is a process that reveals the correct diagnosis to a researcher or clinician.
B) determines the biological, psychological and social causes of disorder that is causing
distress and/or impairment.
C) provides data that are placed within the context of history, referral information,
behavioral observations, and life of an individual.
D) is gradually replacing the unstructured interview as researchers and clinicians become
increasingly concerned with accuracy and precision in diagnosis.
E) plays the role in research that the clinical interview plays in clinical assessment.
Answer: C
Skill: factual / conceptual
3) Claire completes a psychological test of personality type twice, the second time 4
weeks after the first. The correlation between her two test scores was very low. Based on
this information, the test can be said to exhibit
A) low alternate form reliability.
B) low split-half reliability.
C) high test-retest reliability.
D) low test-retest reliability.
E) high alternate form reliability.
Answer: D
Skill: Application
Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

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4) According to the text, which of the following is NOT true of alternate form reliability
estimates?
A) They are used to circumvent the problem of improvement due to practice which can
occur in estimates of test-retest reliability.
B) They require the creation of two forms of the same test, in which the questions are
phrased slightly differently but are intended to assess the same construct as the first.
C) They are used to circumvent the problem of familiarity with questions which can
occur in estimates of test-retest reliability.
D) A low correlation between the two forms demonstrates good alternate-form reliability.
E) A high correlation between the two forms demonstrates good alternate-form
reliability.
Answer: D
Skill: Factual
5) Which of the following is a measure of internal consistency?

A) Coefficient gamma
B) Coefficient beta
C) Alternate form
D) Coefficient alpha
E) Beta correlation
Answer: D
Skill: Conceptual
6) A particular questionnaire is intended to measure musical enjoyment. One of the

questions is “Do you enjoy listening to music?” This item can be said to have
A) internal consistency.
B) face validity.
C) criterion validity.
D) construct validity.
E) predictive validity.
Answer: B
Skill: Conceptual
7) A researcher wants to know to what extent are all the questions within her test
measuring the same thing. She can asses this by evaluating the ____________ of her test
or by using _____________.
A) split-half reliability; face validity
B) face validity; test-retest reliability
C) construct validity; coefficient alpha.

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D) split-half reliability; coefficient alpha

E) predictive validity; internal consistency
Answer: D
Skill: Conceptual
8) It has been said that without _______, you cannot have ____________.
A) reliability; validity
B) face validity; criterion validity
C) construct validity; face validity
D) split half reliability; face validity
E) predictive validity; face validity
Answer: A
Skill: Conceptual
9) According to the text, construct validity

A) is especially useful when the construct to be measured is clearly defined rather than
abstract.
B) is important because some qualities are easier to recognize than to define.
C) refers to the importance of a test within a specific theoretical framework.
D) means that the items on a test resemble characteristics associated with the concept
being tested.
E) requires that a test's content include a representative sample of behaviours thought to
be related to the construct.
Answer: C
Skill: Factual
10) Which of the following is NOT true of the actuarial approach?

A) Those who endorse it would not rely on intuition in making a decision.
B) Those who endorse it argue that there is no substitute for the clinician's experience and
personal judgment in coming to decisions.
C) Those who endorse it argue that a more objective standard is needed.
D) It tends to be more efficient in terms of making predictions in a variety of situations.
E) Those who endorse it rely on statistical procedures and formal rules in evaluating data.
Answer: B
Skill: Conceptual

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11) Which of the following are problems with the actuarial approach?
A) Many of the equations and algorithms found in the literature do not generalize to
practice settings.
B) Those who endorse it argue that there is no substitute for the clinician's experience and
personal judgment in coming to decisions.
C) There is often more than one approach to choose from, yielding different results.
D) Actuarial decisions are often affected by subjective influences upon decision-making.
E) The clinical approach is more efficient in making predictions in a variety of situations.
Answer: A
Skill: Conceptual
12) A(n) __________ assesses brain function by measuring electrical impulses by way of
electrodes placed on parts of the scalp.
A) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
B) EEG (electroencephalogram)
C) PAT (positron axial tomography)
D) PET (positron emission tomography)
E) CAT (computerized axial tomography)
Answer: B
Skill: Factual
13) In the procedure known as __________, a narrow band of X-rays is projected through
the head, and produces a number of images of the brain which are later combined.
A) EEG (electroencephalogram)
B) CAT (computerized axial tomography)
C) PET (positron emission tomography)
D) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
E) PAT (positron axial tomography)
Answer: B
Skill: Factual
14) Although it is relatively old technology, _________ provides an effective method of

detecting seizure disorders
A) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
B) CAT (computerized axial tomography)
C) PAT (positron axial tomography)
D) PET (positron emission tomography)
E) EEG (electroencephalogram)

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Answer: E
Skill: Factual / application
15) The resolution of the image produced by (an) __________ can be improved by
injecting a substance to enhance contrasts between different sorts of tissue.
A) PAT (positron axial tomography)
B) PET (positron emission tomography)
C) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
D) EEG (electroencephalogram)
E) CAT (computerized axial tomography)
Answer: E
Skill: Factual
16) According to the text, which of the following results from studies involving CAT
scans is NOT true?
A) Women with anorexia nervosa show some tissue loss in the temporal lobes.
B) Autistic children show atrophy in the cerebellum.
C) Schizophrenics have been demonstrated to have smaller frontal lobes.
D) People suffering from Alzheimer's tend to show cortical atrophy.
E) People suffering from bipolar disorder show some tissue loss throughout the brain.
Answer: A
Skill: Factual
17) According to the text, which of the following is NOT true of magnetic resonance
imaging (MRI)?
A) It is a noninvasive technique.
B) fMRI is a recent modification of the MRI.
C) It reveals both the structure and functioning of the brain.
D) It is slightly dangerous, as it involves the use of high-energy radiation (X-rays).
E) It involves producing a strong magnetic field around the patient's head.
Answer: D
Skill: Factual
18) Which of the following is NOT true of positron emission tomography?

A) It involves the use of isotopes with half-lives of minutes to hours.
B) It allows a researcher to measure a variety of biological activities in the brain.
C) It is capable of showing the distribution of various neurotransmitters within the brain.
D) It produces a static image of the brain's anatomy, as do CAT scans and MRIs.
E) It involves the injection or inhalation of radioisotopes.

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Answer: D
Skill: Factual
19) The explicit purpose of neuropsychological tests is to

A) assess abilities in the verbal and non-verbal intelligence domains.
B) determine the relationships between behavior and brain function.
C) generate special scores that the tests of ordinary psychologists cannot.
D) identify ability profiles that correspond to known mental illnesses.
E) accurately distinguish “organic” from developmental brain dysfunction.
Answer: B
Skill: Factual
20) Which of the following is true of the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt test?
A) The main problem with the test is that it produces many false positives.
B) It consists of a series of nine cards containing lines and shapes, which children are
asked to copy and then draw from memory.
C) It is rarely used at present, though it was commonly employed in the past.
D) There are currently no standardized scoring systems for this test.
E) It is very difficult to administer.
Answer: B
Skill: Factual
21) The most popular neuropsychological test battery is the

A) Halstead-Reitan.
B) Thematic Apperception.
C) Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt.
D) Rorschach.
E) Luria-Nebraska.
Answer: A
Skill: Factual
22) If a neuropsychological test is being used to identify brain a serious and progressive
brain disorder that can be treated, then s/he would be MOST concerned about
A) the rate of false positives for the test.
B) the specificity of the test.
C) the rate of false negatives for the test.
D) the face validity of the test.
E) the administration time for the test.

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Answer: C
Skill: Aplication
23) Which of the following is NOT one of the subtests of the Halstead-Reitan?
A) The category test
B) The tapping test
C) The auditory test
D) Tactual performance test
E) The visual test
Answer: E
Skill: Factual
24) Which of the following was NOT suggested by the text as a problem with the
unstructured interview?
A) It has poor validity.
B) It has poor reliability.
C) Clinicians using this type of interview may only look for information that confirms
their hypotheses.
D) Clients often dislike participating in them.
E) The theoretical paradigm of the clinician greatly influences the type of information
gathered.
Answer: D
Skill: Factual
25) According to the text, the most frequently used semistructured interview in
psychiatric settings is the
A) Semistructured Mental Interview.
B) Mental Status Examination.
C) Psychological Functioning Examination.
D) The Diagnostic Interview Schedule.
E) Psychiatric Status Interview.
Answer: B
Skill: Factual
26) According to the text, which of the following is NOT true of structured interviews?
A) They reduce the concern over the subjective judgments of the interviewer.
B) They have clear rules governing the evaluation of responses.
C) They tend to jeopardize rapport.

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D) They are very specific in the order and wording of questions.

E) They are less reliable then unstructured interviews.
Answer: E
Skill: Factual
27) According to the text, the most widely used structured clinical interview is the
A) Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-IIIR (SCID).
B) Structured Clinical Interview for Psychiatric Illness (SCIPI).
C) The Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS-IV).
D) The DSM-IV-TR.
E) Mental Status Examination.
Answer: C
Skill: Factual
28) The first scientific study of intellectual functioning was conducted by __________, to
test the hypothesis that intelligence has a hereditary aspect.
A) Binet
B) Lafayette
C) Wechsler
D) Simon
E) Galton
Answer: E
Skill: Factual
29) Sir Francis Galton believed that intelligence could best be measured by studying
__________, such as an attribute known later as __________.
A) spatial abilities; spatial intelligence
B) arithmetic skills; mathematical intelligence
C) verbal abilities; verbal intelligence
D) physiological abilities; sensory intelligence
E) physical abilities; athletic intelligence
Answer: D
Skill: Factual
30) The first widely accepted and successful test of intelligence was designed by
__________ to predict __________.
A) Stanford; academic performance
B) Binet; academic performance

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C) Simon; job performance

D) Galton; future criminal behaviour
E) Wechsler; verbal intelligence
Answer: B
Skill: Factual
31) Which of the following is not true of Binet's work, according to the text?
A) He was commissioned by the Parisian school board to develop a test that would
identify children who might need special education.
B) Binet tested the hypothesis that intelligence has a hereditary aspect
C) His work developed into the Stanford-Binet scales, now in their fifth edition.
D) He used the intelligence quotient (IQ), determined by dividing a child's performance
by the child's chronological age and multiplying by 100.
E) He was the first to use a large sample of subjects to establish norms to describe
intelligence.
Answer: B
Skill: Factual
32) The first widely used intelligence test for adults, the __________, was developed by
__________.
A) Simon Adult Intelligence Scale; Simon
B) Adult Intelligence Index; Wechsler
C) Stanford-Binet Scale; Stanford
D) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale; Wechsler
E) Adult Intelligence Index; Stanford University
Answer: D
Skill: Factual
33) Aside from his adult intelligence test, Wechsler also developed
A) both the Wechsler Intelligence Test for Children (WISC) and the Wechsler Preschool
and Primary Scale of Intelligence (WPPSI).
B) the Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (WPPSI).
C) both the Stanford-Binet Scale of Intelligence (SBI) and the Wechsler Intelligence Test
for Children (WISC).
D) the Stanford-Binet Scale of Intelligence (SBI).
E) the Wechsler Intelligence Test for Children (WISC).
Answer: A
Skill: Factual

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34) The typical correlation between IQ scores and academic performance is in the range
of
A) .30-.50.
B) .50-.70.
C) .70-.80.
D) .90-1.00.
E) 0-.30.
Answer: B
Skill: Factual
35) Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding IQ?

A) It is the most stable of the psychological traits
B) It can predict important life outcomes, such as income, physical and mental health
C) It is moderately to strongly related to academic achievement
D) It has been criticized as simply measuring academic achievement
E) It can reliably identify those with learning disabilities
Answer: B
Skill: Factual
36) Projective tests generally have their roots in

A) psychoanalytic principles.
B) behaviorist principles.
C) cognitive principles.
D) existential principles.
E) humanistic principles.
Answer: A
Skill: Factual
37) Lisa is seeing a clinical psychologist, who has given her a psychological test in which
she examines cards with ambiguous inkblots on them. Lisa is likely completing the
A) Thematic Apperception Test.
B) Rorschach Inkblot Test.
C) Freudian Inkblot Test.
D) Halstead-Reitan Battery.
E) Psychoanalytic Inkblot Test.
Answer: B
Skill: Application

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38) A clinician has given a client the Rorschach Inkblot Test, and is employing a
standardized scoring system created to increase the reliability and validity of the test.
They are likely what system?
A) the Murray-Exner system
B) the Exner system
C) the Exner-Murray system
D) the Hunsley system
E) the Murray system
Answer: B
Skill: Application
39) Heather is seeing a clinical psychologist, who has asked her to construct stories about
cards depicting ambiguous social interactions. Heather is likely completing the
A) Ambiguous Circumstances Exam (ACE).
B) Murray-Morgan Apperception Test (MMAT).
C) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT).
D) Rorschach Inkblot Test.
E) Sentence Completion Test.
Answer: C
Skill: Application
40) Which of the following is NOT true of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality
Inventory (MMPI)?
A) It is multiphasic because it assesses many aspects of personality.
B) Items were only chosen for inclusion if people known to have the characteristic the
scale is measure respond differently to the item than those who did not have the
characteristic.
C) The results of the MMPI-2, the newest version, give a DSM-IV diagnosis.
D) Many of its items appear to have little face validity, meaning that it is difficult to tell
what the question is attempting to measure.
E) It was originally published in 1943 by Hathaway and McKinley.
Answer: C
Skill: Factual
41) Which of the following is one of the MMPI validity scales?

A) the Z scale
B) the J scale
C) the F scale
D) the R scale

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E) the T scale
Answer: C
Skill: Factual
42) Which of the following changes was made in the MMPI-II, as compared to the
original MMPI?
A) The test was standardized using a representative group of patients at a Minnesota state
hospital.
B) Test items aimed at identifying religious beliefs were added.
C) The test was standardized on a much larger number of people, as a relatively small
number was used in the original.
D) Many of the validity scales, such as the F-scale, were removed.
E) Sexist language was removed.
Answer: E
Skill: Factual
43) The Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory (MCMII) was developed to help clinicians
make decisions within the multiaxial DSM system, especially in the __________
disorders found on Axis __________.
A) developmental; 2
B) somatoform; 2
C) medical; 3
D) personality; 2
E) anxiety; 1
Answer: D
Skill: Factual
44) According to the text, the Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory (MCMII) has been
criticized because it
A) consistently underestimates the severity of personality disorders and overdiagnoses
somatoform disorders.
B) consistently underestimates the severity of depressive symptoms and overdiagnoses
anxiety disorders.
C) consistently underestimates the severity of personality disorders and overdiagnoses
depressive syndromes.
D) consistently underestimates the severity of depressive syndromes and overdiagnoses
personality disorders.
E) consistently underestimates the severity of depressive syndromes and overdiagnoses
somatoform disorders.

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Answer: D
Skill: Factual
45) Walter Mischel argued that personality tests are flawed because
A) people fail to give accurate self-reports because of the response set of social
desirability.
B) people respond to demand characteristics - they respond as they feel the tester would
like them to.
C) the concept of personality is an illusion.
D) the majority have been shown to have extremely low reliability.
E) their flawed assumption that personality characteristics are stable.
Answer: E
Skill: Factual
46) John is a clinical psychologist who is gathering information on his client, Steve, by
taping him while he works. This sort of observation is called
A) analogue observation.
B) self-monitoring.
C) electronic observation.
D) in vivo observation.
E) actual observation.
Answer: D
Skill: Application
47) Kanfer and Philips describe four sets of variables of interest to cognitive-behavioural
assessment, referred to by the acronym SORC. Which of the following is not one of these
four sets of variables?
A) situation
B) stimuli
C) organismic
D) responses
E) consequences
Answer: A
Skill: Factual
48) When the psychological problems of a patient are fairly well known, __________
tests are appropriate.
A) narrow band
B) broad band

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C) objective
D) self-report
E) projective
Answer: A
Skill: Factual
49) One of the primary goals of clinical research is the __________ of clinical
phenomena.
A) observation
B) prediction
C) description
D) explanation
E) control
Answer: C
Skill: Factual
50) According to the text, which of the following allows for the greatest confidence in
interpreting and generalization of results?
A) The quasi-experiment
B) The experiment
C) The correlational study
D) The psychological test
E) The semi-experiment
Answer: B
Skill: Factual
51) In an experiment, the __________ group is exposed to a variable which is

manipulated, called the __________ variable.
A) control; dependent
B) experimental; dependent
C) experimental; control
D) control; independent
E) experimental; independent
Answer: E
Skill: Conceptual
52) When differences in some dependent variable are found to occur as a function of
manipulation of the independent variable, a(n) __________ is obtained.

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A) experimental effect
B) random effect
C) pseudo effect
D) controlled effect
E) correlation
Answer: A
Skill: Conceptual
53) Several clinical psychologists are conducting a study about the treatment of
Generalized Anxiety Disorder. Before receiving the various treatments, the participants
were assessed on a number of psychological measures. According to the terminology in
the text, these measures would be referred to as
A) early tests.
B) advance tests.
C) experimental tests.
D) pretests.
E) posttests.
Answer: D
Skill: Application
54) In a study of the effects of a certain antipsychotic drug, the control group receives pill
which does not actually contain the drug. This group has received a __________.
A) dependent variable
B) double-blind
C) placebo
D) pretest
E) pseudo-treatment
Answer: C
Skill: Application
55) In the TADS experiment, described in the text, the researchers used a double-blind
procedure, meaning that
A) both the experimenters and the participants knew what group of adolescents were
getting which treatment.
B) only the participants themselves knew which treatment they were receiving.
C) only the parents of the adolescents involved in the study were aware of which
treatment they were receiving.
D) neither the participants nor the experimenters knew who was getting medication and
who was getting a placebo.

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E) only the experimenters knew who was getting medication and who was getting a
placebo.
Answer: D
Skill: Factual
56) When evaluating an experiment, one needs to consider its external validity, or
A) the degree to which the results of the study can be generalized to other individuals in
different settings.
B) the size of the experimental effect reported in the study.
C) the degree to which the changes in the independent variables are a result of the
manipulation of the dependent variable.
D) the degree to which alternative explanations for the results of the study can be ruled
out.
E) the degree to which the changes in the dependent variables are a result of the
manipulation of the independent variable.
Answer: A
Skill: Conceptual
57) A confound occurs when

A) two or more independent variables exert their influence on a dependent variable at
different times.
B) an experimental investigation lacks external validity.
C) two or more independent variables exert their influence on a dependent variable at the
same time.
D) the results of an experiment are not significant.
E) one independent variable exerts an influence on a dependent variable.
Answer: C
Skill: Factual
58) According to the text, the development of classification systems such as the DSMs
was largely based upon
A) questionnaires.
B) experiments.
C) correlational studies.
D) case studies.
E) quasi-experiments.
Answer: E
Skill: Factual

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59) Which of the following is NOT true of correlational studies?

A) A correlation can be either positive or negative.
B) Behaviour is not manipulated, but rather quantitatively measured and analyzed
statistically.
C) They are frequently carried out where experimental manipulation is impossible or
unethical.
D) They measure the degree of relationship between two variables.
E) They generally do not require a large number of participants.
Answer: E
Skill: Conceptual
60) If two variables are found not to be related to one another, then the correlation
coefficient of the relationship between these two variables should be close to
A) zero.
B) +0.63.
C) -0.50.
D) -1.00.
E) +1.00.
Answer: A
Skill: Application
61) Psychologists are usually most interested in correlation coefficients that are greater
than or equal to
A) 0.
B) +1.00.
C) +0.30.
D) +0.30 or -0.30.
E) -0.30.
Answer: D
Skill: Application
62) If two variables, A and B, are related then we can say all of the following except
A) there is a relationship between A and B.
B) some other variable, C, may be causing both A and B.
C) A might be causing B.
D) A causes B.
E) B might be causing A.
Answer: D

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Skill: Conceptual
63) According to the text, the case study is a(n) __________ approach used in the
investigation of abnormal behaviour.
A) singular
B) nomothetic
C) individual
D) ideographic
E) unitary
Answer: D
Skill: Factual
64) Which of the following was NOT presented by the text as a criticism of the case
study method of investigating abnormal behaviour?
A) The clinician's theoretical background has been shown to influence the information
gathered.
B) It does not lead to generation of new hypotheses.
C) It does not employ the scientific method.
D) It cannot demonstrate cause and effect.
E) One cannot be certain of the generalizability of the findings.
Answer: B
Skill: Factual
65) Though based on the investigation of an individual subject, the __________ design
avoids many of the criticisms of the case study by using experimentally accepted
procedures.
A) nomothetic
B) ideographic
C) reversal
D) quasi-experimental
E) single-subject
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: MS Page Ref: 88-89
Skill: Factual
66) Linda is clinical psychologist studying the incidence and prevalence of schizophrenia
in a certain population. She is carrying out a(n) __________ study.
A) longitudinal
B) experimental
C) etiological

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D) epidemiological
E) ideographic
Answer: D
Skill: Application
67) Because of the potential confound of shared environment in __________ studies,

behavioural geneticists have often turned to other methods such as adoption studies.
A) family
B) behavioural genetics
C) cross-fostering
D) psychological
E) adoption
Answer: A
Skill: Factual
68) Leanne is conducting a study in which she is examining the difference in rates of
bipolar disorder between monozygotic and dizygotic twins pairs. The term most
frequently used to describe this sort of study is
A) sibling study.
B) adoption study.
C) twin study.
D) matched study.
E) zygotic study.
Answer: C
Skill: Application
69) There has been a great deal of research, using a wide variety of methods, examining
the concordance rates for disorders such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. These
studies have generally revealed higher concordance rates in __________ than in
__________.
A) monozygotic twins; adopted relatives
B) adopted relatives; biological relatives
C) biological relatives; adopted relatives
D) dizygotic twins; monozygotic twins
E) monozygotic twins; dizygotic twins
Answer: E
Skill: Factual

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70) A musical child grows older and begins to hang out with other musically-gifted peers,
and eventually decides to enter the Faculty of Music when he goes to University. This is
known as
A) passive gene-environment correlation.
B) evocative gene-environment correlation.
C) concordance.
D) cross-fostering.
E) active gene-environment correlation.
Answer: E
Skill: Applied
71) Experimental results concerning the efficacy of a particular treatment are labelled
“statistically significant” when
A) it is extremely unlikely that the obtained results could have occurred purely by chance
and the treatment has been demonstrated to be likely to work in “real life”.
B) the treatment results have been compared to non-disturbed samples.
C) the treatment has been demonstrated to work in “real life”.
D) it is extremely unlikely that the obtained results could have occurred purely by
chance.
E) it is extremely unlikely that the obtained results could have occurred purely by chance
and the treatment has been demonstrated to work in “real life”.
Answer: D
Skill: Factual
72) A treatment's practical utility, which does not follow automatically from statistical
significance, is referred to as __________ significance.
A) treatment
B) therapeutic
C) clinical
D) normative
E) practical
Answer: C
Skill: Factual
73) According to the text, __________ compares treatment results to non-disturbed

samples, in order to evaluate the social validity of a particular treatment.
A) social comparison
B) experimental significance evaluation
C) normative comparison
D) clinical significance evaluation

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E) practical comparison
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: TF Page Ref: 94
Skill: Factual
True / False:
74) Psychological assessment is a central component of psychological testing:

A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Skill: Factual
75) Alternate-form reliability refers to the degree of reliability within a test.

A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Skill: Factual
76) Coefficient alpha and split-half reliability are both methods for evaluating the internal
consistency of a test.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Skill: Factual
77) Face validity goes one step beyond content validity in its requirement that a test's
content include a representative sample of behaviors thought to be related to the construct
the test is designed to measure.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Skill: Conceptual

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78) Bill is a clinician who feels that when it comes to evaluating and interpreting data
about a patient, there is no substitute for the clinician's personal experience and judgment.
Bill is most likely endorsing the actuarial approach to prediction.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Skill: Application
79) A test cannot be deemed reliable without having established validity:

A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: TF Page Ref: 67-68
Skill: Application
80) It’s important for psychologists to focus upon mental and/or psychological variables,
and to exclude medical and physical health variables from their assessment:
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Skill: Conceptual / application
81) One of the oldest and most well established brain imaging techniques is the
electroencephalogram (EEG), which reads the brain's electrical activity via electrodes
placed on the scalp.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Skill: Factual
82) CT and MRI provide a static image of the brain whereas PET and fMRI produce a
dynamic image of the functioning brain
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Skill: Factual

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Dozois
83) The Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test is the oldest and most commonly used
neuropsychological test.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Skill: Factual
84) The main problem with the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt test is that it produces many
false negatives.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Skill: Factual
85) The Halstead-Reitan consists of six subtests: category, rhythm, tactual performance,
tapping, grip strength, and auditory.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Skill: Factual
86) The semi-structured interview can include the flexibility and rapport advantages of an
unstructured interview while reducing the problems of subjectivity and bias
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Skill: Factual
87) The Mental Status Examination is the most frequently used structured clinical
interview.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Skill: Factual

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Dozois
88) The first scientific study of intellectual functioning was conducted by French
psychologist Alfred Binet.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Skill: Factual
89) The Exner system was developed in an attempt to increase the reliability and validity
of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT).
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Skill: Factual
90) The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) is based on the contrasted-
groups method of ascertaining validity.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Skill: Factual
91) The results of an MMPI-II assessment give a clinician a DSM-IV diagnosis.

A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Skill: Factual
92) One criticism of the MMPI-II is that it has no scales devoted to an assessment of
faking or lying on the part of the respondents.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: TF Page Ref: 79-80
Skill: Factual

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Dozois
93) The change in behaviour often seen when people are aware of being observed is often
called subject reactivity.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Skill: Factual
94) Random assignment is a procedure that ensures that each participant in an experiment
has an equal probability of being in either the experimental or control groups.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Skill: Factual
95) In an experiment, the control group experiences all aspects of the experiment in a
manner identical to the experimental group, except for the manipulation of the dependent
variable.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Skill: Conceptual
96) When two variables exert their influence at the same time, making it impossible to
accurately establish the causal role of either variable, a confound is said to occur.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Skill: Conceptual
97) Generally, psychologists are interested in correlation coefficients only if they are
greater than +/-.65.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Skill: Application

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98) A researcher aiming to demonstrate that stable, internal and global (self-blame)
attributions for negative events cause depression must achieve a correlation of +0.50 or
greater between measures of attribution and depression symptoms.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Skill: Application
99) The case study is both the oldest and most currently used approach to the study of
abnormal behavior.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Skill: Factual
100) Linda is conducting a study in which neither the subjects nor the experimenters
know who is getting medication and who is getting the placebo. This study design is most
frequently called a double-unaware design.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Skill: Application
Essay Questions:
97) Define psychological assessment. In your answer, include the following terms:
assessment tools, clinical interview, psychological testing, reliability, and validity.
Answer: Psychological assessment refers to the systematic gathering and evaluation of

information pertaining to an individual for whom a specific question about psychological
functioning needs answering. Assessment requires the clinician to place and interpret
scores and other data within the context of the person’s history, referral information,
behavioral observations and life story of that person in order to provide a comprehensive
understanding of that individual. Assessment can be carried out with a wide variety of
techniques, typically including a clinical interview and a number of psychological tests.
If relevant to the referral question, biological assessments (e.g., EEG, brain imaging
techniques) may be required. Issues of reliability and validity pertain to each of the
assessment tools selected. Specific issues of reliability and validity pertain to specific
tools – for example unstructured clinical interviews are often needed in order to establish

26
Dozois
trust and rapport, but this tool has problems of reliability and validity stemming from the
subjectivity and bias that may be present, such as when the clinician’s initial assumptions
about the problem guide her questions and other questions – that would shed light on
important aspects of the situation – are left out.
Diff: 2 Type: ES Page Ref: 67

Skill: Factual
98) Compare and contrast between actuarial vs. clinical prediction. Include advantages
and disadvantages for each. Based on discussion in class, analogy from other concepts in
the chapter, and/or your own creative problem solving abilities, try to identify a
compromise between these approaches and/or a solution for the practitioner that reaps the
best of both approaches.
Answer: The actuarial and clinical judgment methods are used in making prediction
about the patient – typically some future behavior (e.g., offending vs. not offending;
relapsing vs. not) that is of importance to society. The actuarial approach to prediction
relies exclusively on statistical procedures, empirical methods and formal rules for
evaluating data. The clinical approach relies upon the clinician’s experience and personal
judgment in making the prediction. Those who endorse the actuarial approach argue
that it is more objective, unbiased and based on scientific validation (especially when the
database is large) as well as being more efficient, which is important when there are
many decisions to be made. The research evidence has unequivocally favored the
actuarial approach over clinical judgment. Those who favor clinical judgment point to
the fact that many of the equations and algorithms found in the literature do not
generalize to clinical practice settings or that there are too many particular cases that arise
in practice that cannot be anticipated by the creators of the “one-size-fits-all” algorithm.
A potential solution would involve clinician’s being trained in the actuarial methods, and
then coming to some consensus as to situations that call for “clinical override” based on
experience and/or judgment. Another potential solution would involve a technique that
might be called “structured clinical judgment” – which is really a hybrid of the two
methods. Research findings are used to identify the important dimensions of decision-
making and judgment is used to make decisions within each dimension.

Skill: Factual / conceptual / application
99) Briefly define any THREE of the following: test-retest reliability; alternate-form
reliability; internal consistency; split-half reliability; coefficient alpha.
Answer: Test-retest reliability = the degree to which a test yields the same results when it
is given more than once to the same person
Alternate-form reliability = the degree to which two alternate forms of a test agree
(provide similar results)

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Dozois
Internal consistency = the degree of reliability within a test

Split-half reliability = a measure of internal consistency; often evaluated by comparing
responses on odd- and even-numbered test items
Coefficient alpha = a measure of internal consistency; calculated by averaging the
intercorrelations of all the items on a given test
Skill: Factual
100) Briefly define any TWO of the following: face validity, content validity, criterion
validity, construct validity.
Answer: Face validity means that the items on a test resemble the characteristics
associated with the concept being tested.
Content validity is one step beyond face validity in requiring that the test's content
include a representative sample of behaviours thought to be related to the construct the
test is designed to measure
Criterion validity is said to have been achieved when the test results match what is
known in the population (i.e., a depression test has criterion validity if it discriminates
between depressed and non-depressed people)
Construct validity is concerned with the importance of a test within a specific theoretical
framework; especially useful for abstract constructs
Diff: 2 Type: ES Page Ref: 67-68
Skill: Factual
101) List any TWO brain imaging techniques discussed in the text. Briefly describe what
kind of information each technique gathers, and how it does so.
Answer: Electroencephalogram (EEG): uses electrodes placed on the scalp; measures

brain's electrical activity
Computerized Axial Tomography (CAT): a narrow band of X-rays is projected through
the head onto (scintillation) crystals, and a computer combines a number of the resulting
images; measures brain structures (static image of the brain)
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI): a magnetic field is produced around the patient's
head, then radio waves are then introduced and turned off, causing electrons to return to
their original configuration and in doing so emit radio waves at a frequency which can be
detected; the introduction of a small magnetic gradient to the field allows the location of
the source to be determined; measures both the structure and functioning of the brain
(static image of the brain)
Positron Emission Tomography (PET): radiation is detected outside the head; radiation is
inhaled or injected, and the radiation is given off and detected by the PET equipment;
measures brain functioning (dynamic image of the brain)
Skill: Application
102) Briefly describe any ONE projective test.

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Dozois
Answer: Rorschach Inkblot Test: created by Rorschach; asked to describe what they see
in the blot; Exner system developed to increase reliability and validity by standardizing
scoring
Thematic Apperception Test: created by Murray and Morgan; drawings on cards of
ambiguous social interactions which individuals create stories about; questions about the
reliability and validity of scoring techniques
Diff: 2 Type: ES Page Ref: 77-78
Skill: Conceptual
103) What is an analogue observational setting? Why is it used? What is subject

reactivity and should one be concerned with it in an analogue observational setting?
Answer: An analogue observational setting is created by clinicians (often behaviourists)

in order to directly observe a client's behaviour. It is an artificial setting in an office or
laboratory set up to elicit specific classes of behaviour in individuals. It is used because in
vivo observation is difficult; it is impractical often because of time constraints and
money. Subject reactivity refers to the change in behaviour often seen when people know
they are being observed. It is a concern for analogue observational settings as well as in
vivo.
Skill: Conceptual
104) List the four sets of variables in the Kanfer and Phillips (1970) SORC model.
Answer:
S = stimuli
O = organismic
R = responses
C = consequences
Skill: Factual
105) What is random assignment? In what sort of research design is it found?
Answer: Random assignment is a procedure that ensures each subject has an equal
probability of being in either the experimental or control group, guaranteeing the
equivalence of these two groups. It is found in experiments.
Skill: Conceptual
106) Briefly state the difference between a quasi-experimental study and an experiment.
Upon which of these have the DSMs been primarily based?
Answer: A quasi-experimental study is one in which the subjects in the experimental

group are NOT randomly assigned but are selected on the basis of certain characteristics,
and in which there is no manipulation of independent variables. Conversely: an

29
Dozois
experimental study is one in which the subjects are randomly assigned to experimental
and control groups, and there is a manipulation of independent variable(s). The DSMs
have been primarily based upon quasi-experimental studies.
Skill: Conceptual
107) What sort of research design is the ABAB design? What is it also known as? Briefly
describe the ABAB design.
Answer: The ABAB design is a single-subject design. It is also known as the reversal
design. In this sort of study, the first A phase requires the quantification of behavior in its
natural environment, prior to any intervention. In the B phase, the treatment is
introduced. The next A phase constitutes the reversal, during which the treatment is
stopped. The treatment is provided again in the final B phase.
Skill: Factual
108) What is epidemiology? What do the terms incidence and prevalence refer to?
Answer: Epidemiology is the study of the incidence and prevalence of disorders in a

population. Incidence refers to the number of new cases of a disorder in a particular
population over a specified time period. Prevalence is the frequency of a disorder in a
population at a given point in time.
Skill: Factual

30

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Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 5e

1) Psychological assessment refers to

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

5) Which of the following is a measure of internal consistency?

6) A particular questionnaire is intended to measure musical enjoyment. One of the

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

D) split-half reliability; coefficient alpha

9) According to the text, construct validity

10) Which of the following is NOT true of the actuarial approach?

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

14) Although it is relatively old technology, _________ provides an effective method of

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

18) Which of the following is NOT true of positron emission tomography?

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

19) The explicit purpose of neuropsychological tests is to

21) The most popular neuropsychological test battery is the

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

D) They are very specific in the order and wording of questions.

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

C) Simon; job performance

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

35) Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding IQ?

36) Projective tests generally have their roots in

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

41) Which of the following is one of the MMPI validity scales?

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

51) In an experiment, the __________ group is exposed to a variable which is

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

57) A confound occurs when

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

59) Which of the following is NOT true of correlational studies?

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

Diff: 2 Type: MS Page Ref: 87

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

67) Because of the potential confound of shared environment in __________ studies,

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

73) According to the text, __________ compares treatment results to non-disturbed

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

74) Psychological assessment is a central component of psychological testing:

75) Alternate-form reliability refers to the degree of reliability within a test.

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

79) A test cannot be deemed reliable without having established validity:

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

91) The results of an MMPI-II assessment give a clinician a DSM-IV diagnosis.

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

Answer: Psychological assessment refers to the systematic gathering and evaluation of

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

Diff: 2 Type: ES Page Ref: 67

Diff: 3 Type: ES Page Ref: 68

Copyright © 2012 Pearson Canada Inc.

Internal consistency = the degree of reliability within a test

Answer: Electroencephalogram (EEG): uses electrodes placed on the scalp; measures

102) Briefly describe any ONE projective test.