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Lec 14
Lec 14
1 Kaptiza Example
Let’stryaslightlydifferentpendulumsystemthistimeforournextexample.
Kapitza
1 � 2 2
1
T = m ẋm + ẏm , U = mgym , D = bφ̇2
2 2
xm = l sin φ , ym = yd − l cos φ
ẋm = l cos φφ̇ , ẏm = ẏd + l sin φφ̇
1
TheLagrangianforthissystem,afterdroppingtermswhichcontainonlyy d ,which
isanexplicitfunctionoftime,is
1 2 2
L = m l φ̇ + 2l sin φ φ̇ẏd + mgl cos φ
2
d ∂L
¨
= ml lφ + cos φφ̇ẏd + sin φÿd
dt ∂φ̇
∂L ∂D
− = ml cos φφ̇ẏd − g sin φ − bφ̇
∂φ ∂φ̇
whichgivesustheequationofmotion.
A vertically drivenpendulum is a bit of astrangething; itdoesn’t seem to work
asadriver!
b ˙
lφ¨ + φ + (g + ÿd ) sin φ = 0
lm
b
wherethedampingtermis lm φ̇.
Instead, the drive appears to modify gravity. This makes sense, due to the
equivalenceprinciple.Interestingly,thislet’susexploreparametricresonance...
Noticehowthependulumbecomesexcitedwithadriveattwicetheresonance
frequency.
We won’t cover parametric resonance further, but LL27 does. Methods for
understandingnon-linear/anharmonicbehaviorare alsocovered in LL28-29, but I
found the mathunenelightening, so I won’t try toreproduce ithere.
2
Wealsoseestrangebehaviorforahighfrequency drive. Dampingisnotim-
portantforthis,solet’s operatewithb = 0. We canunderstandthis by noticingthat
thependulum’smotionconsistsofahighfrequency part(atthedrivefrequency)
andalowfrequency part(swingingaround).
¨ ¨
l φ1 + φ2 + (g + ÿd ) sin (φ1 + φ2 ) = 0
assumeφ 1 ∼ const,andφ 2 1
lφ¨2 + (g + ÿd ) (sin φ1 + cos φ1 φ2 ) = 0
Graphicallythisresultis
3
HighFrequency Drive
� �
lφ̈1 + ω 2 sin φ1 yd + g − ω 2 yd sin φ1 1 − cos φ1 yld = 0
�
lφ¨1 + g sin φ1 + sin 2φ1 ω 2 y 2 − gyd = 0
2l d
SlowBehavior
4
¨ g 1 ad ω 2
⇒ φ1 + sin φ1 + sin (2φ1 ) = 0
l 4 l
� 2 g
⇒ oscillatorwith ω 02 = 21 adlω − l
stableifa ω
2 2
d > gl
forus,thiswouldbe
2
1 2
E= 2 ml φ̇1 + φ̇2 + mg (yd − l cos(φ1 + φ2 ))
averageoverfastoscillations(y¯ d = 0)
1 1
⇒ E = m(lφ̇1 )2 + m(lφ̇2 )2 − mgl cos(φ1 )
|2 {z } |2 {z }
T Ueff
5
1
Uef f = −mgl cos φ1 + m(− sin φ1 y˙d )2
2 2
1 1
= −mgl cos φ1 + m sin2 φ1 ad ω
2 2
Note:
∂Uef f � 2
= mgl sin φ1 + m sin (2φ) 21 ad ω
∂φ
dividebyml togetourequationofmotionforφ 1
2 Tricky Potentials
Alreadyinthiscoursewehaveseenafewtricky potentials.
Forcentralpotentials,angularmomentugivesusan effective potentialforr.
Central
1 ˙ 2
˙ ˙
Uef f ~q, ~q = Uef f r, φ = U (r) + µ rφ
2
L2z
⇒ Uef f (r, Lz ) = U (r) +
2µr2
A homogeneousdissipative medium,whichconvertskineticenergyofthemacro-
scopic to kinetic energy of the microscopic (i.e. heat) can also be treated as a
velocitydependentpotential
Dissipative
Z
Udiss (q, q̇) = Ucon (q) − D (q̇) dt
d ∂Lcon ∂Lcon ∂D
⇒ = −
dt ∂q̇ ∂q ∂q̇
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And last time we saw another sort of tricky potential for rapidly oscillating
fieldsordrives
RapidDrive
Uef f (q, q̇) = U (q) + 12 mq̇f2 ast
forq(t) = q slow (t) + qf ast (t)
3 Lorentz Force
Todayweencounteranothertricky potential,thisonefrom8.02. Theforceona
chargedparticlemovinginE andB fieldsis(asyoumayrecall)
Lorentzforceonparticlewithchargee (notq!)
~ ~
F = e E + ~v × B ~
LorentzForce
Manyeverydayobjectsuseelectricmotorsand/orgenerators,allofwhichde-
pendontheLorentzforce.
I’mnotgoingtouseq heretoavoidconfusion. e issomechargeand~r isthe
CartesianCoordinateofthatcharge.
7
Let’s say I have a small test charge constrained to move along a wire in an
externalB-field.TheB-fieldcanbealongẑ,andthewirecanbeahelicalcoil,like
aspring.
˙ ~ ˙
UL ~r, ~r = e Φ − A · ~r
~ = −rΦ (~r, t) − ∂ A
E ~ (~r, t)
∂t
~
B = r×A~
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Φ ≡ electricscalarpotential
~ ≡ magneticvectorpotential
A
1
NB:forconstant,uniformB-field,A =~ ~r × B ~
2
So,forourtestchargewehave
~ = Bẑ ⇒ A
B ~ = B {−y, x, 0}
2
~ · ~r˙ = mgz + eB (yẋ − xẏ)
U = mgz − A
2
2 �
eBR
= mgαφ + − sin2 φ − cos2 φ φ˙
2
� �
T = 12 m ẋ2 + ẏ 2 + ż 2 = 12 m R2 + α2 φ˙ 2
� eBR2
⇒ L = 21 m R2 + α2 φ̇2 − mgαφ + φ̇
2
| {z }
drop!
ThedynamicsareunchangedbytheB-field!Why?
~ · ~v = 0 ⇒ noworkdone
F · v = ~v × B
Thiswillbetrueforany 1-Dmotion,solet’stry2-D...
Howaboutachargefreetomoveinthey-zplanewithaB-fieldinthex̂ direc-
tion?
9
∂L eB ∂L eB
Fy = ∂y = 2 z,
˙ py = ∂ẏ = my˙ − 2 z
eB eB
ṗy = Fy ⇒ m¨
y− 2 ż = 2 ż
Fz = −eB
2 ẏ − mg, pz = mż + eB
2 y
⇒ ÿ = βz,
˙ z̈ = −g − βẏ
withβ = eB
m
Theseequationsofmotionaresimpleenoughtosolve,andthesolutionisin-
teresting...let’sseewhathappensforaparticlethatstartsatrest.
Ifyouignoreg, you mightguessthatsincetheLorentzforce is⊥ to~v , the
trajectorymustbeacircle.
Anotherwaytoseethatthetrajectorymustbeacircleistonoticethat
...
z = −βÿ = −β 2 ż = −ω 2 ż
withβ = ω
whichisthetimederivativeofequationofmotionforaharmonicoscillatorwith
frequencyβ.
Comparingwithourequationsofmotionsuggeststhatω = β, butwehavethis
pesky gravity...noproblem,add− βg t toy(t).Thisdoesn’t changeÿ.
10
g
y(t) = a sin βt − t
β
g
ẏ = aβ cos βt −
β
ż = aβ sin βt
Tostartatrest,weneed
g
ẏ (t = 0) = 0 ⇒ a = −
β2
g
y(t) = − (sin βt + βt)
β2
g
z(t) = cos βt
β2
11
forB~ = Bẑ ẍ = βẏ , ÿ = βẋ
x(t) = a sin βt ⇒ ẋ = aβ cos βt
y(t) = −a cos βt ⇒ ẏ = aβ sin βt
c mp c
forv~ 0 = cx̂ ⇒ a ==
β eB
forB ' 8 Tesla ⇒ a = 0.4 m
E E
mr = c2p ∼ 104 mp ⇒ ar = eBcp ∼ 4.2 km
forE p ≈ 10 Tev ≈ 1.6 × 10−6 J
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4 Gauge Invariance
WehavesomefreedominchoosingthemagneticvectorpotentialA ~
Gauge Transformation
0 ∂ ~0 = A~ + rf
Φ = Φ− f A
∂t
~ 0 ~ 0 ~
B = r × A = r × A + rf = B ~ + r × (rf )
| {z }
thisis 0
~ 0 = −rΦ0 − ∂ A
E ~0 =
∂t
∂ ∂ ~
~
= −r Φ − f − A + rf = E
∂t ∂t
WhataboutourLagrangian?
GaugeInvariantEquationofMotion
0
0
~ · ~r = L + e
0 ∂ ∂
L =Φ−e Φ −A f + ~ṙ · f
∂t ∂~r
d
= L+e f
dt
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