VERSION 1020910 BIOSCI 107

THE UNIVERSITY OF AUCKLAND

SEMESTER ONE 2018

Campus: City

BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES

Biology for Biomedical Science: Cellular Processes and Development

(Time Allowed: TWO hours)

NOTE:

Multiple Choice Questions:

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Exam Format:
Multiple Choice Questions Recommended time
Section A: Cell Processes 25 marks 33 minutes
Section B: Blood & Immune 25 marks 33 minutes
Section C: Excitable Tissue: Neurons 20 marks 27 minutes
Section D: Excitable Tissue: Muscle 20 marks 27 minutes

TOTAL 90 MARKS
ALL QUESTIONS SHOULD BE ATTEMPTED.

Hand in the Teleform answer sheet.

Retain your multiple choice question pages.

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SECTION A: CELL PROCESSES

25 marks
Recommended time: 33 minutes

Choose the ONE correct answer from the alternatives provided.

1. Lipid soluble vitamin uptake into cells:

A. is via a sodium dependent antiporter.
B. is via passive diffusion through the lipid bilayer.
C. utilises the energy of the sodium gradient to drive cellular influx.
D. is an active process that utilises ATP.

2. The lipid bilayer of a cell membrane:

A. is 9 µm thick.
B. is formed by cholesterol.
C. is impermeable to water.
D. acts as a barrier to the diffusion of H+ ions.

3. Integral transmembrane proteins:

A. are removed from the lipid bilayer by breaking ionic bonds.
B. are embedded in the cytoplasmic leaflet of lipid bilayer.
C. only interact with the surface of the lipid bilayer.
D. contain stretches of hydrophobic amino acids.

4. With regard to diffusion across a cell membrane, the:

A. higher the temperature, the lower the rate of diffusion.
B. larger the membrane surface area, the greater the rate of diffusion.
C. longer the diffusion distance, the faster the rate of diffusion.
D. thicker the membrane, the faster the rate of diffusion.

5. Ca2+ ions will move across a cell membrane:

A. against its electrochemical gradient due to the active transport of the ion.
B. via direct interaction with the hydrophobic core of the lipid bilayer.
C. into the cell due to the presence of a negative resting membrane potential.
D. by diffusing down its concentration gradient.

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6. Water diffusion across the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane:

A. can be altered by the differential expression of aquaporins in the membrane.
B. when a red blood cell is placed in a hypotonic solution causes cell shrinkage.
C. only occurs via water channels.
D. always occurs when an osmotic gradient is established across an epithelial tissue.

7. Glucose diffusion across the membrane of a muscle cell:

A. is driven by the electrochemical gradient for glucose.
B. utilises energy stored in the sodium gradient.
C. occurs via a sodium glucose symporter.
D. is maintained by the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in the cytoplasm.

8. The electrochemical gradient for:

A. K+ favours the passive diffusion of K+ into a cell.
B. Na+ drives the passive diffusion of Na+ from the cytoplasm to the extracellular fluid.
C. Na+ is used to drive the active transport of K+ against its electrochemical gradient.
D. Cl- drives no nett diffusion of Cl- when the membrane potential is around -80mV.

9. The flow of an ion through an ion channel is:

A. usually determined by the ion selectivity filter.
B. gated open or closed by the binding of the ion to the pore of the ion channel.
C. coupled to the flow of other ions against their electrochemical gradients.
D. driven by the electrochemical gradient for that ion and occurs continuously.

10. Carrier mediated transport proteins:

A. always increase their rate of transport in response to an increase in concentration of
the molecule being transported.
B. exhibit a transport maximum.
C. only mediate facilitated diffusion.
D. contain a substrate binding pocket that causes channel opening.

11. A cotransporter that transports Na+ and amino acids:

A. is an example of a secondary active transporter that exports amino acids.
B. uses the energy of the Na+ gradient to actively accumulate amino acids in the
cytoplasm.
C. mediates the passive diffusion of an amino acid down its concentration gradient.
D. directly uses the hydrolysis of ATP to actively accumulate amino acids in the
cytoplasm.

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12. Transport via the paracellular pathway:

A. is against the laws of diffusion.
B. is independent of the transcellular transport pathway.
C. increases in the gut in proximal to distal direction.
D. is governed by the electrical resistance of the ti7ght junctions.

13. Epithelial tissues:

A. have apical and basolateral membrane domains that contain identical membrane
transport protein distributions.
B. have fusions of adjacent cell membranes that are composed of lipid to lipid
interactions.
C. are joined at their apical margins by tight junctions.
D. have an apical membrane domain that sits on a basement membrane.

14. In the small intestine, after a period of not eating or drinking:

A. glucose enters the epithelial cells from the blood via facilitated diffusion.
B. glucose leaves the epithelial cell via facilitated diffusion.
C. glucose uptake drives isotonic fluid absorption.
D. glucose is actively accumulated in the cytoplasm by SGLT.

15. In glucose absorption:

A. the entry step is located in the basolateral membrane.
B. Na+ uptake occurs via the low resistance paracellular pathway.
C. the removal of Na+ from the cell via the NaK-ATPase maintains the gradient that
drives glucose uptake.
D. the active uptake of glucose is driven by primary active transport.

16. Which of the following statements is CORRECT relating to glucose/galactose

malabsorption syndrome?
A. Glucose uptake via GLUT is defective.
B. Reduction in the osmolarity of the lumen of the small intestine induces a profound
diarrhoea.
C. Saturation of SGLT mediated uptake of glucose causes glucose to appear in the
urine.
D. It is caused by a mutation in the gene encoding SGLT.

17. In the kidney, the renal threshold:

A. represents the glucose concentration in the plasma that inhibits the SGLT protein.
B. is a measure of the overall rate of glucose absorption.
C. is a measure of the amount of glucose that appears in the urine of diabetes.
D. represents the glucose concentration in the plasma when glucose uptake becomes
saturated.

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18. Isotonic fluid absorption is:

A. coupled to the secretion of sodium ions.
B. activated by opening of CFTR.
C. stimulated by oral rehydration therapy.
D. stimulated by cholera toxin.

19. The cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR):

A. contains an R domain which needs to be phosphorylated to induce channel opening.
B. is an example of a primary active transport protein because it contains an ATP
binding domain.
C. is a chloride channel that only mediates the diffusion of Cl- out of epithelial cells.
D. is only found in people who suffer from cystic fibrosis.

20. In chloride secretion, secretagogue(s):

A. is a neurotransmitter that stimulates the secretion of a hypotonic fluid in epithelial
cells.
B. concentration is pathologically elevated in secretory diarrhoea.
C. bind directly to CFTR to activate chloride secretion.
D. is an enterotoxin that reversibly activates adenylate cyclase.

21. In chloride secretion:

A. the generation of a positive potential difference in the lumen drives the paracellular
transport of Na+ to preserve electroneutrality.
B. the sodium potassium 2 chloride cotransporter uses the energy of ATP hydrolysis to
drive the active transport of Cl-.
C. the accumulation of Cl- above its electrochemical equilibrium is the rate limiting
step.
D. changing the gating of the CFTR from closed to open drives isotonic fluid secretion.

22. Cystic fibrosis:

A. causes an over stimulation of CFTR that results in acute diarrhoea.
B. is an autosomal dominant genetic disease.
C. is characterised by infertility in women.
D. mortality is usually due to respiratory failure.

23. In the sweat glands:

A. the epithelial cells in the duct of the gland have a depolarised membrane potential.
B. the presence of aquaporins in the apical membrane of duct cells drives water
absorption to produce a hypotonic sweat.
C. from patients with cystic fibrosis the secretion of Cl- in the duct cells is defective.
D. the acinar cells produce a primary hypotonic secretion.

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24. In epithelial cells involved in chloride secretion:

A. ATP hydrolysis by CFTR actively pumps chloride ions across the apical membrane.
B. the uptake of chloride is the rate limiting step in transcellular transport.
C. the paracellular diffusion of sodium occurs to preserve electroneutrality.
D. CFTR accumulates chloride above its electrochemical gradient.

25. A solution of 0.10M NaCl and 0.15M glucose has an osmolarity of approximately:
A. 0.45 osmolar.
B. 0.40 osmolar.
C. 0.35 osmolar.
D. 0.25 osmolar.

SECTION B: BLOOD & IMMUNE

25 marks
Recommended time: 33 minutes

Choose the ONE correct answer from the alternatives provided.

26. Which BEST DESCRIBES the role of the enzyme Factor Xa in blood?
A. It cleaves fibrin to prevent clot formation.
B. It is required for the activation of complement and opsonisation.
C. It cleaves fibrinogen to initiate clot formation.
D. It cleaves prothrombin to active thrombin.

27. Which statement BEST DESCRIBES why the Fe2+ -containing haem molecule in
haemoglobin is so efficient at delivering oxygen to cells?
A. O2 readily associates with haem at atmospheric pO2 and readily dissociates at the
pO2 found in tissue.
B. O2 readily dissociates from haem at atmospheric pO2 and associates at the pO2 found
in tissue.
C. O2 only weakly binds to the Fe2+ in haem and is efficiently displaced by molecules
such as CO2, CO and CN.
D. There are 4 haem to every haemoglobin molecule.

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28. A patient with leukaemia has received an autologous blood stem cell transplant. Which
statement BEST DESCRIBES what has happened?
A. CD34+ cells were purified from the patient's bone marrow then re-injected after the
patient received whole body irradiation.
B. Bone marrow was removed and treated with GM-CSF and G-CSF then reinjected
after the patient had received whole body irradiation.
C. After receiving whole body irradiation, the patient was injected with bone marrow
from a closely matched donor.
D. A sample of the patient's blood was removed and treated with erythropoietin before
being re-injected to boost red blood cells.

29. C3 is the most abundant complement protein in blood and on activation, is cleaved to
C3b and C3a. Which statement BEST DESCRIBES the function of the C3b molecule?
A. It binds to IgM molecules that have coated the surface of a bacteria.
B. It forms the principal component of irreversibly bound convertase complex on the
bacterial surface.
C. It is a soluble anaphylotoxin that rapidly recruits neutrophils to the site of infection.
D. It forms a Membrane Attack Complex that inserts into the membrane of bacteria.

30. Heparin is an anti-coagulant used in medicine. It acts primarily on which blood enzyme?
A. Factor X
B. Factor Xa
C. prothrombin
D. thrombin

31. Which two white cell types are the most efficient at phagocytosis?
A. neutrophils and monocytes
B. mast cells and basophils
C. B and T cells
D. neutrophils and macrophages

32. When bacteria enter the skin, what is likely to be the first event?
A. Complement proteins react and opsonise the bacteria.
B. The soluble anaphylotoxin C5a signals to neutrophils of the invading organism.
C. Skin resident mast cells degranulate initiating an inflammatory response.
D. Skin resident macrophages phagocytose the bacteria.

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33. Which statement is MOST CORRECT about neutrophil extravasation?

A. Neutrophils phagocytose activated endothelial cells to escape from the capillary into
the tissue.
B. Chemokine-activated endothelial cells express receptors that slow neutrophils to the
wall of the capillary.
C. Complement factors released from the site of infection opsonise endothelial cells
causing neutrophils to adhere.
D. Neutrophils passing in the capillary are activated by chemokines released from the
site of infection.

34. Which statement BEST DESCRIBES the role of Toll-Like Receptors (TLR) in
immunity?
A. They bind antibody/antigen complexes.
B. They bind MHC molecules.
C. They bind a range of molecules unique to viruses and bacteria.
D. They present antigens to T cells.

35. The 12.5kD Ig protein domain forms the basis for all antibody molecules and has
structural features that allow it to form billions of different antibodies. Which statement
is INCORRECT about this structure?
A. It is composed primarily of two very stable anti-parallel β-pleated sheets held
together by a disulphide bond.
B. It is commonly referred to as a β-barrel.
C. The stable β-pleated sheets allow the loops that join the strands to vary without
affecting the stability of the fold.
D. All parts of the Ig domain can vary amino acid sequences.

36. There are 5 classes of immunoglobulins in humans, each with a different effector
function. Which statement is INCORRECT about Ig classes?
A. B cells making IgE are using the ε-gene.
B. They are defined by the heavy (H) chain gene used by the B cell.
C. All B cells begin life using the µ-gene coding for IgM.
D. B cells making IgA are using the γ-gene.

37. Which statement is INCORRECT about the differences between affinity and avidity in
antibody binding?
A. Avidity is extremely important when pentameric IgM binds to a bacterial surface.
B. Avidity is simply measured as the sum of all affinities.
C. Avidity is most important when antibodies bind to the surface of a bacteria or virus.
D. Affinity is a quantitative measure of how strongly a single antibody binding site
interacts with antigen.

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38. Which statement BEST DESCRIBES the function of Fc receptors (FcR) in immunity?
A. They are myeloid cell receptors that bind complement opsonized bacteria to initiate
phagocytosis.
B. They are myeloid cell receptors that present antigens to T cells.
C. They are myeloid cell receptors that bind antibodies coating a microbe.
D. They are myeloid cell receptors that bind PAMPS.

39. Which feature of gene recombination leads to the greatest amino acid diversity in the
CDR3 loop of antibody and TcR V domains?
A. The presence of large numbers of germ-line gene segments that randomly
recombine.
B. The random editing of base pairs prior to joining D to J segments and V to D
segments.
C. The recombination of D to J followed by V to D segments.
D. The infidelity of RAG1 and RAG2 to recombine germ-line segments in a specified
order.

40. Affinity maturation of B cells is why immunisation works.

It is BEST DESCRIBED by which statement?
A. It is driven by the imprecise joining of VDJ segments.
B. It is driven by continued somatic hypermutation of the rearranged Ig gene before the
B cell has encountered antigen.
C. It is driven by the rearrangement of germ-line segments in B cells to form an entirely
new B cell.
D. It is driven by continued somatic hypermutation of the rearranged Ig gene after the B
cell has encountered its cognate antigen.

41. Which is the BEST EXPLANATION for why recombination of the Ig and TcR locus is
unique to lymphoid cells?
A. RAG1 and RAG2 genes are only found in B cells and T cells.
B. RAG1 and RAG2 are only active in B cells and T cells.
C. The recognition sequences (RS) are only located at the ends of the germ-line VDJ
segments in B and T cells.
D. The germ-line VDJ segments are only found in B cells and T cells.

42. Which statement is MOST CORRECT about the CD8 T cell population?
A. They are the most abundant of the T cell subsets.
B. They are restricted by MHC class II molecules.
C. They are cytotoxic and provide immunity against intracellular pathogens such as
viruses.
D. They are helper cells that provide immunity against extracellular pathogens such as
bacteria.

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43. MHC class I is a cell surface molecule that is BEST DESCRIBED by which statement?
A. It captures and presents antigens obtained from antibody/antigen complexes.
B. It captures short amino acid peptides generated by viral replication inside the cell
and presents them to cytotoxic T cells.
C. It is the antigen receptor for T cells.
D. It captures short amino acid peptides obtained from the phagocytic digestion of
bacteria and presents them to helper T cells.

44. Which statement is INCORRECT about MHC polymorphism?

A. MHC is polymorphic to increase the ability of a species to defend against new
pathogens.
B. It is extremely difficult to find two individuals that express exactly the same set of
MHC molecules.
C. Identical twins express exactly the same MHC molecules.
D. No two MHC molecules are ever the same.

45. B cells are clonally selected and undergo affinity maturation in the:
A. liver.
B. bone marrow.
C. blood.
D. lymph node.

46. The Fcε receptor is clinically important because it:

A. triggers mast cell degranulation when bound to IgE and allergen.
B. binds IgM and triggers affinity maturation in B cells.
C. binds histamine to cause pain and inflammation.
D. triggers Fc receptor mediated phagocytosis.

47. Which cell is most important in atopic allergy?

A. basophil
B. neutrophil
C. mast cell
D. macrophage

48. A rhesus baby is born and you have to explain to a consultant what has led to this
condition. Which statement BEST DESCRIBES the mechanism behind this type II
hypersensitivity condition?
A. Anti-RBC antibody has passed across the placenta from the mother and activated the
complement system of the 2nd born baby causing haemolysis.
B. All of the other options are correct.
C. The rhesus baby is the 2nd born and its red blood cells express an antigen that the
father has but the mother does not.
D. The mother has developed an antibody to fetal red blood cells during pregnancy with
the 1st born baby.

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49. Each spring you suffer badly from seasonal rhinitis. Which is the BEST
EXPLANATION for this?
A. You have IgM antibodies and lymph nodes at your mucosa that are profoundly
sensitive to grass pollen.
B. Your epithelial cells have exceedingly high affinity receptors that bind the chemical
histamine.
C. You were born with mast cells in your mucosal tissue that are primed to activate
when contacted by grass pollen.
D. When growing up as a child, you developed excessive IgE antibodies to grass
pollen.

50. Which statement is MOST CORRECT about monoclonal antibodies?

A. They are derived from an immortalised multiple myeloma B cell line.
B. They have high affinity and are purified from blood using a single antigen.
C. They have multiple specificities that cross-react with multiple epitopes.
D. They have single specificity towards one epitope and are produced by a hybridoma.

SECTION C: EXCITABLE TISSUE: NEURONS

20 marks
Recommended time: 27 minutes

Choose the ONE correct answer from the alternatives provided.

51. Branches that may occur along an axon are called:

A. synapses.
B. pre-synaptic terminals (synaptic knobs).
C. collaterals.
D. dendrites.

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52. Sensory neurons in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) are:

A. tripolar.
B. multipolar.
C. unipolar.
D. bipolar.

53. The Nernst equation allows one to calculate:

A. a concentration gradient for a particular ion.
B. the value of the resting membrane potential (RMP) in neurones.
C. the value of the equilibrium potential for a particular ion, taking into account the
concentration gradient for this ion.
D. an electrical gradient for a particular ion.

54. The equilibrium potential for K+ ions in neurones is approximately:

A. -55 mV
B. +60 mV
C. 0 mV
D. -80 mV

55. At rest, the cell membrane of a neurone is much less permeable to Na+ than to K+. Why?
A. There are fewer Na+ leak channels than K+ leak channels in the cell membrane.
B. There are many more voltage-gated Na+ channels than voltage-gated K+ channels in
the cell membrane.
C. There is a high concentration of Cl- ions outside the cell which partially block leak
Na+ channels.
D. Ligand (or chemically)-gated cation channels favor a greater influx of K+ than Na+.

56. The term "hyperpolarisation" is used when membrane potential:

A. shifts from the resting value towards the equilibrium potential for Na+.
B. becomes more negative than the resting membrane potential (RMP).
C. shifts from the resting value (RMP) towards the "zero" potential.
D. changes fast.

57. In a neuronal cell membrane at rest (when no action potentials or synaptic potentials are
generated), the permeability ratio P K+/ P Na+ is approximately:
A. 1 / 20
B. 100 / 1
C. 40 / 1
D. 1 / 40

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58. What effect will reducing the potassium ion concentration in the extracellular fluid
surrounding a neurone have?
A. Hyperpolarisation of the membrane potential.
B. There will be no effect on the membrane potential.
C. Reduction in the magnitude of the equilibrium potential for potassium (ie. making
this potential less negative).
D. Depolarisation the membrane potential.

59. A common feature of all action potentials is that they:

A. cause the cell membrane to briefly hyperpolarise and then depolarise.
B. move at the same speed along all axons.
C. can undergo temporal and spatial summation.
D. are triggered by depolarisation that reaches threshold.

60. During the fast depolarization observed during an action potential in a neurone, which
gradient(s) move(s) Na+ into the cell?
A. only the chemical gradient
B. both the electrical and chemical gradients
C. Na+ does not move into the cell. It moves out of the cell.
D. only the electrical gradient

61. How would the absolute refractory period be affected if voltage-gated Na+ channels
failed to inactivate?
A. it would last indefinitely
B. it would not develop at all
C. it would be much briefer
D. it would be unaffected

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62. Figure 1. A neuronal action potential

Figure 1 schematically shows an action potential recorded in a neuronal cell body with
an intracellular microelectrode. What happens at point 3?
A. The cell membrane potential reaches peak depolarisation due to a transiently
increased permeability to Ca2+.
B. The cell membrane potential reaches peak depolarisation due to the decreased
activity of voltage-gated K+ channels.
C. The neurone is in the absolute refractory period.
D. The cell membrane potential reaches peak depolarisation due to a sudden activation
of voltage-gated Na+ channels at this time point.

63. Neuroscientists often use a substance isolated from pufferfish called tetrodotoxin to
block voltage-gated sodium channels. What would you expect to happen after applying
this substance to a neurone at rest?
A. The cell will start firing action potentials.
B. The membrane potential will depolarise.
C. The membrane potential will hyperpolarise.
D. There will be no change in the membrane potentials.

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64. Why are action potentials conducted in one direction?

A. Ions can flow along the axon in only one direction.
B. The axon initial segment (axon hillock) has a higher membrane potential than the
terminals of the axon.
C. Voltage-gated channels for both Na+ and K+ open in only one direction.
D. The brief absolute refractory period prevents reopening of voltage-gated Na+
channels.

65. Local anesthetics (e.g., lidocaine) act by blocking:

A. leak K+ channels.
B. voltage-gated Na+ channels.
C. leak Na+ channels.
D. voltage-gated Ca2+ channels.

66. The main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system is:
A. noradrenaline.
B. GABA (gamma aminobutyric acid).
C. glutamate.
D. acetylcholine.

67. The process by which increased amplitude of excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs)
can be induced when the same subset of excitatory synapses contacting a single neurone
is repeatedly activated at short time intervals is called:
A. temporal summation.
B. dendritic summation.
C. spatial summation.
D. dendritic facilitation.

68. Which of the following is the MOST IMMEDIATE result of depolarising the
presynaptic membrane of an axon terminal?
A. Synaptic vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane.
B. An excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) or an inhibitory postsynaptic potential
(IPSP) is generated in the postsynaptic cell.
C. Ligand-gated channel open, allowing the neurotransmitter to enter the synaptic cleft.
D. Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels in the membrane open.

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69. Which of the following statements about transmission across a typical chemical synapse
is INCORRECT?
A. Upon neurotransmitter binding to receptors, there is activation of specific ligand-
gated ion channels in the postsynaptic membrane leading to a change of the
membrane potential (depolarisation or hyperpolarisation) in this membrane.
B. Ca2+ diffuses through the synaptic cleft to the receiving (postsynaptic) cell's plasma
membrane.
C. Neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors in the receiving (postsynaptic) cell's
plasma membrane.
D. Influx of Ca2+ through voltage-gated Ca2+ channels causes fusion of synaptic
vesicles with the plasma membrane of presynaptic terminals.

70. An IPSP has an inhibitory effect on postsynaptic neurone because:

A. it changes the threshold of the postsynaptic neurone.
B. it prevents Ca2+ entry into the presynaptic terminal.
C. it hyperpolarises the postsynaptic membrane.
D. it reduces the amount of neurotransmitter released by the presynaptic terminal.

SECTION D: EXCITABLE TISSUE: MUSCLE

20 marks
Recommended time: 27 minutes

Choose the ONE correct answer from the alternatives provided.

71. A single skeletal muscle cell has:

A. many peripheral nuclei and many myofibrils.
B. a single central nucleus and one myofibril.
C. a single central nucleus and many myofibrils.
D. many peripheral nuclei and one myofibril.

72. In skeletal muscle the sarcoplasmic reticulum is a major storage site for:
A. calcium.
B. ATP.
C. sodium.
D. acetylcholine.

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73. The M line in the sarcomere is best described as an area rich in:
A. myosin heads.
B. titin proteins.
C. actin proteins.
D. myosin tails.

74. During the cross-bridge cycle in skeletal muscle, if the myosin head has ATP bound to
it, then the likely configuration of the myosin head would be:
A. bound to actin, in the high-energy (cocked) state.
B. unbound to actin, in the high-energy (cocked) state.
C. unbound to actin, in the low-energy state.
D. bound to actin, in the low-energy state.

75. In skeletal muscle, if the intracellular concentration of calcium is low, then you would
expect that:
A. the myosin binding site on actin would be unavailable for binding, and thus no
cross-bridge cycling would occur.
B. myosin would be free to bind with actin, and cross-bridge cycling would occur in an
'all-or-none' manner.
C. myosin would be free to bind with actin, but the cross-bridge cycling rate would be
limited.
D. myosin would be tightly bound to actin, and the inability to break the bond would
mean no cross-bridge cycling would occur.

76. The conduction of the action potential along the t-tubule membrane in skeletal muscle is
primarily due to the opening of:
A. calcium induced calcium channels.
B. voltage-gated sodium channels.
C. voltage-gated calcium channels.
D. ligand (ACh)-gated cation channels.

77. Which statement BEST DESCRIBES the direct effect on the membrane potential of
ACh binding to the receptors on post-synaptic membrane in the neuromuscular junction?
A. The membrane potential will become positive.
B. The membrane potential will not change.
C. The membrane potential will become more negative.
D. The membrane potential will become less negative.

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78. A functioning skeletal muscle fibre is studied in an organ bath experimental set-up. One
end of the fibre is fixed in place and the other attached to a force transducer. After first
determining the "resting length" of the muscle, where the active tension developed is
optimal, the length of the muscle fibre is reduced to approximately half of the resting
length.

At this shortened length you would expect that when stimulated, total tension would be:
A. moderate (40-70% optimal), composed predominately of active tension.
B. high (>80% optimal) due to the high passive tension.
C. moderate (40-70% optimal), composed predominately of passive tension.
D. low (<20%optimal) due to minimal active and passive tension.

79. Muscle biopsies were taken from the vastus lateralis (a thigh muscle) in two groups of
Olympic runners (100m sprint specialists vs marathon competitors). Significant
differences in muscle composition were observed between the two groups. Using your
knowledge of muscle fibre types, complete the following statement about the most likely
results of this study.

The sprinters would have a greater proportion of __________ muscle fibres and
a _________ muscle glycogen content than the marathon runners.
A. type IIb; higher
B. type I; lower
C. type IIb; lower
D. type I; higher

80. When can fatty acids be used as a source of ATP in skeletal muscle?
A. as part of the anaerobic metabolic pathway
B. never
C. as part of the aerobic metabolic pathway
D. as part of both the aerobic and anaerobic pathways

81. An electrical stimulator is used to directly stimulate a skeletal muscle (placing electrodes
externally on the calf muscle). After setting the voltage, it was determined that a single
pulse resulted in a small but visible contraction of the muscle. If the frequency of the
stimulator is then increased to deliver pulses at a rate of 50 x per second (50 Hz) you
would expect to see:
A. a stronger, sustained contraction.
B. a small, sustained contraction.
C. a series of rapid, small contractions.
D. a series of rapid, stronger contractions.

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82. An action potential can spread from one muscle cell to another:
A. in both cardiac and skeletal muscle.
B. in neither cardiac or skeletal muscle.
C. in skeletal but not cardiac muscle.
D. in cardiac but not skeletal muscle.

83. In the ventricle, the most likely combination of action potential duration and the
corresponding contraction is:
A. action potential: 2 ms, contraction: 250 ms
B. action potential: 2 ms, contraction: 150 ms
C. action potential: 200 ms, contraction: 150 ms
D. action potential: 200 ms, contraction: 250 ms

84. The initial rapid depolarisation phase of the action potential in ventricular cardiac muscle
is due to:
A. the opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels.
B. the opening of calcium-gated Ca2+ channels.
C. the closing of voltage-gated K+ channels.
D. the opening of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels.

85. A drug that blocks the plasma membrane Ca2+ATPase (carboxyeosin), is applied to
isolated ventricular myocytes. The effect of this drug on the contraction in the cardiac
cell would be:
A. greater shortening, with slower relaxation.
B. reduced shortening, and quicker relaxation.
C. greater shortening, with quicker relaxation.
D. reduced shortening, and slower relaxation.

86. A ventricular myocyte is stretched to 1.25 times its usual resting length. At this length
the active tension developed during a contraction would most likely be:
A. optimal (100%).
B. 25% of optimal.
C. 70-80% of optimal.
D. 200% of optimal.

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87. If the resting membrane potential in the pacemaker (sino-atrial) cells of the heart
becomes hyperpolarised, the most likely effect would be:
A. a decrease in the contractility of the heart.
B. an increase in the contractility of the heart.
C. an increase in heart rate.
D. a decrease in heart rate.

88. If microscopic examination of a muscle cell reveals it has gap junctions but lacks t-
tubules, it is most likely:
A. a skeletal muscle cell.
B. a unitary smooth muscle cell from the small intestine.
C. a multi-unit smooth muscle cell from the iris of the eye.
D. a cardiac muscle cell from ventricular tissue.

89. Upregulation of myosin light chain kinase in vascular smooth muscle cells would lead
to:
A. a brief pulsatile reduction in the radius of the blood vessel.
B. a sustained reduction in the radius of the blood vessel.
C. a brief pulsatile increase in the radius of the blood vessel.
D. a sustained increase in the radius of the blood vessel.

90. The initiation of a coordinated contraction is dependent on neural activity in:

A. cardiac muscle and smooth but not skeletal muscle.
B. skeletal muscle and some smooth muscle, but not cardiac muscle.
C. all muscle types (skeletal, cardiac and smooth).
D. no muscle types (skeletal, cardiac and smooth).

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