VERSION 1021504 BIOSCI 107

THE UNIVERSITY OF AUCKLAND

SEMESTER ONE 2019

Campus: City

BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES

Biology for Biomedical Science: Cellular Processes and Development

(Time Allowed: TWO hours)

NOTE:

Multiple Choice Questions:

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mark your response for this question.)

Exam Format:
Multiple Choice Questions Recommended time
Section A: Blood & Immune 25 marks 33 minutes
Section B: Cell Processes 25 marks 33 minutes
Section C: Excitable Tissue: Neurons 20 marks 27 minutes
Section D: Excitable Tissue: Muscle 20 marks 27 minutes

TOTAL 90 MARKS
ALL QUESTIONS SHOULD BE ATTEMPTED.
Choose the ONE correct answer from the alternatives provided.

Hand in the Teleform answer sheet.

Retain your multiple choice question pages.
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SECTION A: BLOOD & IMMUNE

25 marks
Recommended time: 33 minutes

Choose the ONE correct answer from the alternatives provided.

1. Which abundant plasma protein is absent from serum?

A. fibrinogen
B. immunoglobulin
C. complement
D. albumin

2. Which blood cell lineage is most associated with innate immunity?

A. platelets
B. myeloid
C. erythroid
D. lymphoid

3. Which cell type is a powerful phagocyte?

A. basophil
B. macrophage
C. mast cell
D. lymphocyte

4. The CD34 cell surface antigen marker is important because it:

A. defines a small population of lymphoid progenitor cells.
B. defines a small population of myeloid progenitor cells.
C. distinguishes two important populations of lymphocytes.
D. defines a small population of cells giving rise to all blood cells.

5. When a bacteria enters the skin, the first cells to arrive are likely to be:
A. macrophages.
B. T lymphocytes.
C. B lymphocytes.
D. neutrophils.

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6. Anaphylatoxins are BEST DESCRIBED by which statement?

A. All of the other options are correct
B. They promote inflammation.
C. They are powerful activators of phagocytosis
D. They are released from complement proteins and are powerful chemoattractants for
phagocytes.

7. Which statement BEST DESCRIBES the role of the enzyme thrombin in blood?
A. It is required for the activation of complement and opsonisation.
B. It cleaves fibrinogen to fibrin during coagulation.
C. It dissolves fibrin clots.
D. It cleaves Factor X to Factor Xa.

8. A rapid test of a critically ill patient admitted to the hospital emergency room shows that
their blood is cherry red in colour. What can you deduce?
A. The patient may have cyanide poisoning.
B. The patient may have carbon dioxide poisoning.
C. The patient may have carbon monoxide poisoning.
D. The patient is bleeding from an artery.

9. Which statement BEST DESCRIBES the function of the Membrane Attack Complex
(MAC) of complement?
A. It recruits neutrophils to the site of infection.
B. It forms the principal component of irreversibly bound complement convertase on
bacterial surfaces.
C. It binds to IgM molecules that have coated the surface of a bacteria.
D. It forms lytic pores in the membrane of some bacteria.

10. A critically ill patient has LPS-mediated acute septic shock. What is the BEST
EXPLANATION for this condition?
A. The patient has a severe viral infection.
B. The patient has a gram negative bacterial infection.
C. The patient is cyanotic.
D. The patient has a gram positive bacterial infection.

11. Which two components are both unique to the adaptive immune response?
A. complement and phagocytosis
B. immunoglobulins and T cell receptors
C. immunoglobulins and complement
D. pattern recognition receptors and T lymphocytes

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12. There are 5 classes of immunoglobulins in humans, each with a different effector
function. Which statement is CORRECT?
A. IgG is the only class that activates complement.
B. All naive B lymphocytes express a membrane bound IgM.
C. IgM is important for mucosal immunity.
D. IgA is closely associated with allergy.

13. Which two essential components of gene recombination in the Ig and TcR loci are
remnants of a primordial transposon?
A. RAG and recognition sequences
B. the V and D gene segments
C. recognition sequences and D gene segments
D. RAG and MHC molecules

14. Which statement is INCORRECT about affinity and avidity?

A. Avidity binding is much stronger than the sum of all the affinities.
B. Affinity is the measure of the strength of binding between two individual molecules.
C. Avidity governs antibody binding to a surface where the antigen is repeatedly
arrayed.
D. Affinity is the measure of the binding of a pentameric IgM molecule to the surface
of bacteria.

15. Which statement is INCORRECT about Fc Receptors (FcR)?

A. They bind antibodies that have coated a microbe.
B. They bind to bacterial surfaces.
C. They activate phagocytosis upon crosslinking.
D. They bind to the Fc region of antibodies.

16. Which is the MOST IMPORTANT mechanism for generating diversity in B and T cell
repertoires at birth?
A. The MHC locus is highly polymorphic.
B. Ig and TcR genes undergo further somatic hypermutation following antigen
stimulation.
C. Germ-line gene rearrangement involves imprecise joining of V, D and J gene
segments.
D. There are a large number of germ-line V, D and J gene segments in the Ig and TcR
gene loci that can randomly recombine.

17. Which statement is MOST CORRECT about two mouse strains that have been bred to
be congenic for the MHC locus?
A. All their genes are identical except for their MHC genes.
B. All their genes are different except for their MHC genes.
C. They have identical T cell repertoires.
D. Skin can be readily transplanted between the strains.

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18. The concept of MHC Restriction in viral immunity is BEST DESCRIBED by which
statement?
A. T lymphocytes are restricted to recognising viral antigens.
B. CD8 T cells only recognise MHC class I molecules.
C. CD4 T cells only recognise MHC class II molecules.
D. Viral immunity requires the dual recognition of self MHC and viral antigen.

19. Which statement is INCORRECT about the CD8 T cell population?

A. They are only found in the thymus.
B. They are restricted by MHC class I molecules.
C. They provide immunity against intracellular pathogens such as viruses.
D. They provide immunity against extracellular pathogens such as bacteria.

20. Why is it important that MHC antigens are so polymorphic?

A. To enhance a population's ability to defend against new pathogens.
B. All of the other options are correct.
C. To enhance a population's ability to defend against persistent pathogens.
D. To maximise the repertoire of foreign peptides that can be presented to cells.

21. T cells learn to respond to self MHC molecules in which organ?

A. liver
B. thymus
C. blood
D. bone marrow

22. The primary reason why people develop an allergy is that:

A. their mast cells produce too much histamine.
B. they developed an inappropriate IgE-producing B cell when the allergen was first
encountered.
C. they have aberrant mast cells in their skin.
D. their mast cells express the Fcε receptor that binds the allergen.

23. The Mantoux skin test is used to tell if someone has been exposed to tuberculosis. This
is an example of a:
A. Type II slow hypersensitivity response.
B. Type III slow hypersensitivity response.
C. Type I immediate hypersensitivity response.
D. Type IV delayed hypersensitivity response.

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24. Which statement is INCORRECT about affinity maturation in B cells?

A. It occurs after Ig gene rearrangement but before antigen is encountered.
B. It does not occur in T lymphocytes.
C. It takes place within the germinal centre of lymph node follicles.
D. It results from somatic hypermutation progressively producing higher and higher
affinity antibodies.

25. Which statement is CORRECT about monoclonal antibodies?

A. They can only be made by fusing spleen cells from an immune mouse with a
myeloma cell.
B. They have high affinity but low specificity.
C. They are a single specificity antibody.
D. They can react to many different antigens.

SECTION B: CELL PROCESSES

25 marks
Recommended time: 33 minutes

Choose the ONE correct answer from the alternatives provided.

26. Uptake of fatty acids into cells:

A. utilises the energy of the sodium gradient to drive cellular influx.
B. is via passive diffusion through the lipid bilayer.
C. is via a sodium-dependent antiporter.
D. is an active process that utilises ATP.

27. The lipid bilayer of a cell membrane:

A. is impermeable to water.
B. is permeable to oxygen.
C. is formed by cholesterol.
D. acts as a resistor to store charge.

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28. Peripheral membrane proteins:

A. connect the cytoplasmic and extracellular sides of the membrane.
B. are embedded in the cytoplasmic leaflet of lipid bilayer.
C. contain stretches of hydrophobic amino acids.
D. are removed from the membrane by breaking ionic bonds.

29. Which statement relating to diffusion across a cell membrane is CORRECT?

A. The longer the diffusion distance, the faster the rate of diffusion.
B. The larger the membrane surface area, the greater the rate of diffusion.
C. The higher the temperature, the lower the rate of diffusion.
D. The thicker the membrane, the faster the rate of diffusion.

30. The passive diffusion of Cl- ions into a cell:

A. is increased if the membrane potential is depolarised.
B. is enhanced by the presence of a negative resting membrane potential.
C. is driven by the concentration gradient.
D. is against the electrochemical gradient for Cl- ions.

31. Water diffusion across the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane:
A. only occurs via aquaporins.
B. causes cell shrinkage when a red blood cell is placed in a hypotonic solution.
C. can be increased by an increase in lipid fluidity.
D. always occurs when an osmotic gradient is established across an epithelial tissue.

32. Glucose diffusion across the membranes of cells in the brain:

A. occurs via a sodium/glucose symporter.
B. is driven by the electrochemical gradient for glucose.
C. utilises energy stored in the sodium gradient.
D. is maintained by the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in the cytoplasm.

33. The electrochemical gradient for:

A. K+ favours the passive diffusion of K+ ions into a cell.
B. Na+ is used to drive the active transport of K+ ions against its electrochemical
gradient.
C. Na+ drives the passive diffusion of Na+ ions from the cytoplasm to the extracellular
fluid.
D. Cl- favours Cl- ion influx when the membrane potential is depolarised.

34. Ion channels:

A. contain hydrophobic amino acids that interact with the lipid bilayer.
B. couple the flow of other ions against their electrochemical gradients.
C. contain a binding site for ions in the channel pore.
D. contain a water-filled pore that is lined by hydrophobic amino acids.

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35. Carrier mediated transport proteins:

A. only mediate facilitated diffusion.
B. always increase their rate of transport in response to an increase in concentration of
the molecule being transported.
C. exhibit competitive inhibition.
D. contain a substrate binding pocket that causes channel opening.

36. An antiporter that transports Na+ and H+ ions:

A. uses the energy of the Na+ gradient to actively remove H+ ions from cells.
B. mediates the passive diffusion of H+ ions down their electrochemical gradient.
C. is an example of a channel that drives the diffusion of Na+ and H+ ions across the
membrane in opposite directions.
D. directly uses the hydrolysis of ATP to actively transport H+ ions into the cytoplasm.

37. Epithelial transport:

A. via the paracellular pathway occurs against the laws of diffusion.
B. via the transcellular pathway decreases as the electrical resistance of the tight
junctions increase.
C. of ions always stimulates movement of water via osmosis.
D. in tight epithelium is often under hormonal control.

38. Leaky epithelial tissues:

A. have tight junctions that are formed by lipid to lipid interactions.
B. provide a low resistance pathway for ion movement via the paracellular pathway.
C. have a leak pathway that mediates the diffusion of Na+ out the cell.
D. viewed by freeze fracture contain large numbers of tight junction strands.

39. In the small intestine during fasting:

A. glucose leaves the epithelial cell via passive diffusion.
B. the concentration gradient for glucose favours the uptake of glucose from the blood
by facilitated diffusion.
C. transcellular transport of glucose drives isotonic fluid absorption.
D. glucose is actively accumulated across the apical membrane by the sodium/glucose
co-transporter (SGLT).

40. In glucose absorption:

A. the Na-K ATPase establishes the electrochemical gradient for Na+ that drives the
active uptake of glucose.
B. the entry step is located in the basolateral membrane.
C. Na+ uptake occurs via the low resistance paracellular pathway.
D. the active uptake of glucose is driven by primary active transport.

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41. In the small intestine, glucose/galactose malabsorption syndrome:

A. symptoms can be alleviated by replacing glucose with fructose as a source of
carbohydrate.
B. causes a decrease in the osmolarity of the lumen of the small intestine, inducing
profound diarrhea.
C. is due to a mutation to the gene encoding the GLUT protein involved in facilitative
glucose uptake.
D. results in the saturation of SGLT-mediated uptake of glucose causing glucose to
appear in the urine.

42. Glucose will appear in the urine:

A. if the uptake of glucose by SGLT in the distal collecting duct of the kidney is
saturated.
B. of patients with glucose/galactose malabsorption syndrome.
C. when the facilitated diffusion of glucose in proximal tubule cells is saturated.
D. when glucose concentration in the plasma exceeds the transport maximum for
glucose uptake in the proximal tubule of the kidney.

43. In chloride secretion:

A. the irreversible binding of the cholera enterotoxin to adenylate cyclase
overstimulates secretion.
B. the generation of a positive potential difference in the lumen drives the paracellular
transport of Na+ ions to preserve electroneutrality.
C. the NaK2Cl cotransporter uses the energy of ATP hydrolysis to drive the active
transport of Cl- ions.
D. the rate limiting step of transport is the accumulation of chloride above
electrochemical equilibrium by the NaK2Cl cotransporter.

44. In chloride secretion, secretagogue(s):

A. are neurotransmitters that stimulate the primary secretion of a hypotonic fluid in the
acini cells of the sweat ducts.
B. bind to receptors in the basolateral membrane to activate signalling pathways that
activate CFTR in the apical membrane.
C. released from nerve terminals irreversibly activate adenylate cyclase.
D. directly phosphorylate CFTR in the apical membrane.

45. The cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR):

A. contains two nucleotide binding domains that bind and hydrolyse ATP.
B. is a chloride channel that only mediates the diffusion of Cl- out of epithelial cells.
C. contains an R-domain that needs to be de-phosphorylated to induce channel opening.
D. is only found in people who suffer from cystic fibrosis.

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46. Cystic fibrosis:

A. only manifests in the epithelial cells of the lung.
B. causes an overstimulation of CFTR that results in acute diarrhea.
C. is characterised by infertility in women.
D. is an autosomal recessive genetic disease.

47. In the sweat glands:

A. the acinar cells produce a primary hypotonic secretion.
B. the epithelial cells in the duct of the gland have a hyperpolarised membrane potential
that drives the uptake of Cl- ions via CFTR located in the apical membrane.
C. from patients with cystic fibrosis, the secretion of Cl- ions in the duct cells is
defective.
D. the absence of aquaporins in the apical membrane of duct cells drive water
absorption to produce a hypotonic sweat.

48. In people suffering from cholera:

A. damage to the epithelial cells of the small intestine causes loss of fluid and a
subsequent (often fatal) dehydration.
B. damage to CFTR stimulates excessive isotonic fluid secretion and subsequent
dehydration.
C. oral rehydration therapy stimulates isotonic fluid uptake to counter the secretory
diarrhoea induced by the infection.
D. a massive osmotic diarrhoea occurs due to the blockage of glucose uptake from the
small intestine.

49. A hyperosmotic solution of 0.15M NaCl and 0.05M urea will cause:
A. an initial cell shrinkage before returning to the original cell volume.
B. an initial cell swelling before returning to the original cell volume.
C. cell shrinkage.
D. cell swelling.

50. Placing red blood cells into an isosmotic solution of a membrane permeable solute will:
A. dissolve the hydrophobic core of the lipid bilayer.
B. cause cell swelling and rupture.
C. have no effect on cell volume.
D. cause cell shrinkage.

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SECTION C: EXCITABLE TISSUE: NEURONS

20 marks
Recommended time: 27 minutes

Choose the ONE correct answer from the alternatives provided.

51. At rest, the cell membrane of a neuron is much more permeable to K+ than to Na+ ions.
Why?
A. There are many more voltage-gated Na+ channels than voltage-gated K+ channels in
the cell membrane.
B. There is a high concentration of Cl- ions outside the cell which partially block leak
Na+ channels.
C. Ligand (or chemically)-gated cation channels favour a greater influx of K+ than Na+.
D. There are fewer Na+ leak channels than K+ leak channels in the cell membrane.

52. The value of the equilibrium potential (EK) calculated for K+ ions using the Nernst
equation becomes more negative when:
A. the value of the equilibrium potential for K+ ions cannot be calculated without
knowing the permeability ratio between K+ and Na+ ions.
B. the extracellular concentration of K+ ions increases.
C. the permeability of the cell membrane for K+ ions increases.
D. the extracellular concentration of K+ ions decreases.

53. A neuron will depolarise when:

A. the extracellular concentration of K+ ions decreases.
B. the extracellular concentration of K+ ions increases.
C. the permeability of the cell membrane to Na+ ions decreases.
D. the permeability of the cell membrane to K+ ions increases.

54. A neuron will hyperpolarise when:

A. the permeability of the cell membrane to Ca2+ ions increases.
B. the extracellular concentration of K+ ions decreases.
C. the permeability of the cell membrane to Na+ ions increases.
D. the concentration gradient across the cell membrane for K+ ions decreases.

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55. In neuronal cell membrane at rest (when no action potentials or synaptic potentials are
generated), the permeability ratio expressed as PNa+ /PK+ is approximately:
A. 100/1
B. 1/40
C. 1/100
D. 40/1

56. The Goldman equation allows one to calculate:

A. the concentration gradient across the cell membrane for Na+ ions.
B. the values of equilibrium potentials for K+ and Na+ ions (EK and ENa).
C. the concentration gradient across the cell membrane for K+ ions.
D. the resting potential in neurons.

57. Action potentials are generated by a neuron more frequently when:

A. K+ channels in the cell membrane of the neuron close.
B. the neuron is exposed to a drug which releases Ca2+ ions from intracellular stores.
C. the neuron undergoes temporal and spatial summation of IPSPs.
D. Na+ channels in the cell membrane of the neuron close.

58. Local anesthetics (eg. lignocaine or xylocaine) affect action potential transmission in
axons because they:
A. accelerate the action of the Na/K pump (Na-K ATPase), leading to cell membrane
hyperpolarisation.
B. inactivate leak Na+ channels.
C. block voltage-gated Na+ channels.
D. inactivate voltage-gated K+ channels.

59. Which mechanism explains the after-hyperpolarisation following an action potential in a

neuron?
A. K+ ions leave the neuron due to a faster action of the Na/K pump (Na-K ATPase).
B. K+ ions leave the neuron because they are attracted by Cl- ions present outside the
cell.
C. K+ ions leave the neuron due to the transiently increased permeability of the cell
membrane to these ions.
D. K+ ions leave the neuron because they are repelled by Cl- ions present inside the cell.

60. The amplitude of action potentials generated by neurons and measured with intracellular
microelectrodes is approximately:
A. 0.1 mV
B. 1 mV
C. 10 mV
D. 100 mv

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Use Figure 1 to answer Question 61.

Figure 1 schematically shows an action potential recorded in a neuronal cell body with an
intracellular microelectrode.

61. What happens at the point labelled 2?

A. The cell membrane potential quickly depolarises due to a sudden inactivation of
voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels occurring at the same time.
B. The cell membrane potential quickly depolarises due to a sudden inactivation of
voltage-gated Na+ channels.
C. The cell membrane potential quickly depolarises due to a sudden inactivation of
voltage-gated K+ channels.
D. The neuron has already entered the absolute refractory period.

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Use Figure 2 to answer Question 62.

Figure 2 represents electrical stimulation of an unmyelinated nerve fiber with a pair of

electrodes transiently connected to a battery through a switch (bipolar stimulation).

62. With the switch closed and current flowing between the electrodes, action potentials will
be evoked:
A. simultaneously at both electrodes.
B. half way between the anode and the cathode.
C. first next to the cathode ('-' electrode).
D. first next to the anode ('+' electrode).

63. In the central nervous system the myelin is formed in axons by:
A. Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes.
B. oligodendrocytes.
C. Purkinje cells.
D. Schwann cells.

64. The process by which increased amplitude of excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs)
is achieved when more excitatory synapses converging on a single neuron are
simultaneously activated is called:
A. temporal summation.
B. spatial summation.
C. dendritic facilitation.
D. dendritic summation.

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65. Which of the following statements about transmission across a typical chemical synapse
is CORRECT?
A. Neurotransmitter molecules primarily bind to receptors in the presynaptic cell
membrane.
B. Upon neurotransmitter binding to receptors, there is an immediate activation of
voltage-gated Na+ channels in the postsynaptic membrane, leading to generation of
action potentials.
C. Ca2+ ions diffuse through the synaptic cleft to the receiving (postsynaptic) plasma
membrane.
D. Influx of Ca2+ ions through voltage-gated Ca2+ channels causes fusion of synaptic
vesicles with the plasma membrane of presynaptic terminals.

66. An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) has an inhibitory effect on a postsynaptic

neuron because:
A. it prevents Ca2+ ion entry into the presynaptic terminal.
B. it changes the 'threshold' of the postsynaptic neuron.
C. it reduces the amount of neurotransmitter released by the presynaptic terminal.
D. it hyperpolarises the postsynaptic membrane.

67. An EPSP has an excitatory effect on a postsynaptic neuron because:

A. it is always associated with a release of acetylcholine from presynaptic terminals
(bouton).
B. it increases the ionic gradient for K+ ions across the cell membrane of the
postsynaptic neuron.
C. it increases the permeability of the cell membrane in the postsynaptic neuron to Na+,
K+ and sometimes also Ca2+ ions, leading to its depolarisation.
D. it increases the amount of neurotransmitter released by the presynaptic terminal
(bouton).

68. The term 'excitotoxicity' refers to neuronal damage resulting from:

A. excessive activation of AMPA receptors by glutamic acid (glutamate).
B. excessive activation of NMDA receptors by glutamic acid (glutamate).
C. excessive activation of NMDA receptors by acetylcholine.
D. excessive activation of AMPA receptors by acetylcholine.

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Use Figure 3 to answer Questions 69 and 70.

Figure 3. A schematic representation of a sensory neuron transmitting information from a

muscle spindle to the central nervous system.

69. The structural element labelled 1 represents:

A. a myelin sheath.
B. a node of Ranvier.
C. a dendrite.
D. the trigger zone of action potentials.

70. The structural element labelled 2 represents:

A. the region at which action potentials are generated first.
B. the region at which synaptic potentials are generated first.
C. a presynaptic terminal (bouton).
D. a cell body.

SECTION D: EXCITABLE TISSUE: MUSCLE

20 marks
Recommended time: 27 minutes

Choose the ONE correct answer from the alternatives provided.

71. A myofibril is a term used to describe:

A. a bundle of muscle cells within one fascicle.
B. a structure composed of contractile filaments.
C. either the thin filaments or thick filaments.
D. a muscle cell.

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72. When examining the microscopic structure of a skeletal muscle during an isotonic
contraction you would expect to see the Z discs:
A. become narrower.
B. become wider.
C. move closer together.
D. not move.

73. The H-zone of the sarcomere is an area that contains:

A. thin fibres.
B. Z discs.
C. thick fibres.
D. both thick and thin fibres.

74. The main chemical and mechanical events that occur during the cross-bridge cycle are
listed below.

1. ATP binds with myosin

2. ATP → ADP + Pi
3. Release of ADP + Pi
4. myosin heads become energised
5. myosin detaches from actin
6. myosin heads bind with actin
7. myosin heads rotate (the powerstroke)

Which of the following options best summarises the order of events during the cross-
bridge cycle?
A. 1, 5, 3, 7, 6, 2, 4
B. 1, 6, 2, 4, 5, 3, 7
C. 1, 6, 3, 7, 5, 2, 4
D. 1, 5, 2, 4, 6, 3, 7

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75. Which of the following would potentially result in sustained elevated calcium ion levels
in the cytosol?

i. reduced ATP availability

ii. increased ATP availability

iii. hyperpolarization of the cell membrane

iv. inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

A. ii and iv only
B. i and iii only
C. ii and iii only
D. i and iv only

Use Figure 4 to answer Question 76.

Figure 4 illustrates the results of an experiment examining the force developed by skeletal
muscle at different resting lengths.

76. Which condition would MOST LIKELY give rise to the results seen?
A. measuring the tension in an isolated myocytes
B. measuring the total tension in the muscle in response to stimulation
C. measuring the passive tension in the muscle at rest
D. measuring the active tension in response to stimulation

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77. If the membrane potential in a skeletal muscle cell is at the end of the repolarisation
phase, the tension in the muscle will MOST LIKELY be:
A. back to its resting level.
B. decreasing.
C. beginning to increase.
D. close to the maximum for the twitch.

78. At the neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine (ACh) acts on:

A. ligand-gated ion channels on the post-synaptic membrane.
B. voltage-gated ion channels on the pre-synaptic membrane.
C. voltage-gated ion channels on the post-synaptic membrane.
D. ligand-gated ion channels on the pre-synaptic membrane.

79. Correctly complete the statement below about action potential spread.
In skeletal muscle, the spread of an action potential along the plasma membrane within
one myocyte is due to _____________, and between adjacent myocytes
______________.
A. voltage-gated Ca2+ channels; occurs via gap-junctions
B. voltage-gated Na+ channels; occurs via gap-junctions
C. voltage-gated Ca2+ channels; is dependent on neuronal activation.
D. voltage-gated Na+ channels; is dependent on neuronal activation.

80. In skeletal muscle, which of the following would likely lead to a more forceful
contraction?
A. increasing the resting length of the myocyte to 1.3 times its resting length
B. decreasing the resting length of the myocyte to 0.7 times its resting length
C. increasing the sodium current (INa+ ) during a single action potential
D. increasing the number of action potentials within a motor neuron

81. During a training session an athlete attempts to lift a heavy weight. If this exercise is at
the upper range of the capability of the muscle, you would expect that:
A. mostly type II muscle fibres would be recruited.
B. both type I and type II muscle fibres would be recruited.
C. only type II muscle fibres would be recruited.
D. mostly type I muscle fibres would be recruited.

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82. The late repolarisation phase of the action potential in ventricular cardiac muscle is due
to which of the below?

i. closing of Na+ channels

ii. opening of K+ channels
iii. closing of Ca2+ channels

A. i and ii only
B. iii only
C. ii and iii only
D. ii only

83. In cardiac muscle the direct trigger for calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
(SR) is:
A. calcium ions.
B. the change in voltage.
C. acetylcholine (ACh).
D. sodium ions.

84. If a ventricular cardiac myocyte is stimulated at 10 Hz for 20 s, the most likely

observation is:
A. one long sustained contraction, lasting the entire 20 s.
B. a series of discreet contractions at a rate of 10 Hz.
C. a lack of any contractions.
D. a series of discreet contractions at a rate of approximately 3 Hz.

85. Which of the following could lead to a more forceful contraction of the cardiac
ventricles?

i. an increase in heart rate

ii. an increase in the volume of blood in the heart
iii. increased noradrenaline release from the sympathetic nerves

A. i and ii only
B. i and iii only
C. i, ii and iii
D. ii and iii only

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86. Which of the following is the most likely response to an increase in the release of
acetylcholine (ACh) in the heart?
A. the stroke volume will decrease
B. the stroke volume will increase
C. the heart rate will decrease
D. the heart rate will increase

87. An increase in smooth muscle tension is likely to occur in response to:

A. an increase in intracellular inositol triphosphate (IP3).
B. upregulation of calcium uptake within the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
C. an increase in activity of the outward potassium (K+) current.
D. upregulation of Na+ / Ca2+ exchangers to extrude calcium across the cell membrane.

88. Relaxation in smooth muscle occurs specifically as a result of:

A. upregulation of myosin light chain kinase.
B. calcium uptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
C. calcium being extruded across the cell membrane.
D. dephosphorylation of the myosin.

89. The initiation of a contraction is dependent on calcium binding with troponin in:
A. all muscle types (skeletal, cardiac and smooth).
B. skeletal and some smooth muscle, but not cardiac muscle.
C. cardiac and smooth muscle, but not skeletal muscle.
D. skeletal and cardiac muscle, but not smooth muscle.

90. If microscopic examination of a muscle cell reveals it has gap junctions and striations,
the cell is most likely to be:
A. a multi-unit smooth muscle cell from the iris of the eye.
B. a skeletal muscle cell.
C. a cardiac muscle cell from ventricular tissue.
D. a unitary smooth muscle cell from the small intestine.

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