2021 Exam

1213-1 BIOSCI 107 Offshore (10/06/2021 13:00) Biology for Biomedical Science (Exam)
 General Instructions BIOSCI 107 Exam
Questions Recommended time

1 - 25 Blood & Immune 25 marks 33 minutes
26 - 50 Cell Processes 25 marks 33 minutes
51 - 70 Excitable Tissue: Neurons 20 marks 27 minutes
71 - 90 Excitable Tissue: Muscle 20 marks 27 minutes
TOTAL 90 MARKS
ALL QUESTIONS SHOULD BE ATTEMPTED.
Choose the ONE correct answer from the alternatives provided.
1 The MOST abundant blood protein is:
albumin.
fibrinogen.
haemoglobin.
gammaglobulin
Maximum marks: 1
2/33
2 Which statement BEST DESCRIBES why haemoglobin is perfectly evolved to deliver oxygen to
tissue?
Haemoglobin is the major protein of red blood cells.
Red blood cells constitute about 40-50% of the total volume of blood.
O 2 binds weakly to the haem iron atom and is readily displaced by CO 2 when the pCO 2
exceeds the pO 2 in tissue.
There are 4 haem molecules per haemoglobin molecule.
Maximum marks: 1
3 A leukaemia patient has undergone an autologous bone marrow transplant. Which statement
BEST DESCRIBES what procedure has been performed?
A sample of the patient's bone marrow was treated with EPO, GM-CSF and G-CSF before
being re-injected.
A small number of CD34+ stem cells were isolated from the patient's bone marrow then re-
injected before the patient's white blood cells and marrow were ablated by radiation.
A small number of CD34+ stem cells were isolated from the patient's bone marrow then re-
injected after the patient's white cells and bone marrow were ablated by radiation.
After receiving whole body irradiation, the patient was injected with bone marrow from an
unmatched donor.
Maximum marks: 1
4 The white cells that are first to arrive at the site of an infection are:
monocytes.
lymphocytes.
neutrophils.
macrophages.
Maximum marks: 1
3/33
5 The white cells that have the unique capacity to rearrange a section of their genome are:
B cells and T cells.
B cells only.
neutrophils.
T cells only.
Maximum marks: 1
6 Heparin is a common drug used to prevent premature blood coagulation. Heparin's MAIN mode of
action is to:
bind to plasminogen to stop the degradation of fibrin.
stop the conversion of factor X to factor Xa.
bind to fibrinogen and stops its conversion to fibrin.
inactivate the proteolytic enzyme thrombin.
Maximum marks: 1
7 When a pathogenic bacterium first enters the skin, the event that occurs SECOND is?
Anaphylotoxins are released to signal the presence of the bacterium to innate immune cells.
Innate immune cells phagocytose the opsonized bacterium.
Complement proteins opsonize the bacterium.
Innate immune cells migrate to the site of infection.
Maximum marks: 1
4/33
8 Which option BEST DESCRIBES neutrophil extravasation?
Neutrophils detect activated endothelial cells close to the site of infection
Neutrophils squeeze through the junctions between endothelial cells.
Neutrophils stick to activated endothelial cells that line capillaries.
All options are correct
Maximum marks: 1
9 Toll-like receptors (TLR) are widely expressed on innate immune cells. Which statement BEST
DESCRIBES their primary function?
They initiate an inflammatory response that signals the presence of foreign tissue.
They initiate the process of phagocytosis.
They bind and detect molecules that are unique to pathogens.
They drive gene rearrangement in B and T cells.
Maximum marks: 1
10 A critically ill patient is diagnosed with SEPTIC SHOCK. What is the PRIMARY reason for this?
TLR4 expressed on the patient's innate immune cells has bound bacterial
lipopolysaccharide (LPS) initiating a systemic inflammatory response.
The patient has a bacterial infection that is generating too much of the complement
anaphylotoxins.
The patient's lymphocytes have been triggered by a gram-positive bacterial infection that
has produced a storm of cytokines.
The patient has a severe viral infection.
Maximum marks: 1
5/33
11 There are 5 classes of antibodies in humans. Which statement is MOST CORRECT about their
functions?
All naive B lymphocytes express a membrane bound IgG antigen receptor.
IgA is the class that regulates atopic allergy.
IgG and IgM are the two classes that activate complement.
IgE protects at mucosal surfaces such as the eye and gut.
Maximum marks: 1
12 Which statement is MOST CORRECT about the structure of antibody molecules?
They are made up of the following arrangement H-L-L-H.
All antibodies use the same heavy chain.
They are composed of repeating small immunoglobulin domains.
They have extreme amino acid sequence variation found throughout the molecule.
Maximum marks: 1
13 Which statement is INCORRECT about the phenomena of affinity and avidity?
Affinity between two free molecules results when the attractive forces between them
exceed the repulsive forces.
The binding of an antibody to a regular antigen array on the surface of a bacteria is

governed by avidity.
Avidity binding is much stronger than the sum of all the affinities.
The avidity of a pentameric IgM molecule binding to the surface of a bacterium is about 5
times the affinity.
Maximum marks: 1
6/33
14 Gene recombination only occurs in lymphocytes because:
The Ig and TcR gene loci are only found in lymphocytes.
The RAG1 and RAG2 genes are expressed only in lymphocytes.
The ancient transposon that initiated adaptive immunity 500 million years ago, inserted only
into the genome of lymphocytes.
Recognition sequences (RS) on genes are only found within lymphocytes.
Maximum marks: 1
15 The vast amino acid diversity (>1011) that is found at the antigen binding sites of immunoglobulin
and T cell receptors is PRIMARILY a consequence of:
T cells and B cells regularly swapping Ig and TcR genes.
vast numbers of different Ig and TcR genes are present in your genome.
imprecise joining of the V, D and J gene segments during gene recombination.
lots of different V, D and J segments that make up the Ig and TcR gene loci.
Maximum marks: 1
16 The term MHC Restriction in viral immunity is BEST DESCRIBED by which statement?
CD8 T cell recognition is restricted by MHC class I molecules.
Viral immunity results from recognition of both self MHC and a viral antigen together.
T lymphocytes are restricted to only recognising viral antigens.
CD4 T cell recognition is restricted by MHC class II molecules.
Maximum marks: 1
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17 The most important site where T cells develop into mature lymphocytes is:
the spleen.
lymph nodes.
the thymus.
the bone marrow.
Maximum marks: 1
18 The FUNDAMENTAL reason why MHC molecules have evolved to become highly polymorphic
is to ensure:
that each individual has the greatest capacity to present as many foreign antigens to the
immune system as possible.
that the population has the greatest capacity to present as many foreign antigens to the
immune system as possible.
that T cells are selected in the thymus on as many possible combinations of MHC and
peptides.
there is enough variation in MHC molecules to accommodate all the T cells that develop in
an individual.
Maximum marks: 1
19 Which statement is INCORRECT about the functions of T lymphocytes?
CD8+ T cells recognise antigens presented within MHC class I molecules.
CD4+ cells recognise antigens presented within MHC class II molecules.
T cells in the blood express both the CD4 and the CD8 molecules on their cell surfaces.
CD8+ T cells are cytotoxic and effectively kill virally infected cells.
Maximum marks: 1
8/33
20 Which statement is CORRECT about the congenic mouse strains that were used to show that
MHC genes controlled viral immunity?
The congenic strains have identical T cell receptor repertoires.
The congenic strains are genetically different except for their MHC locus.
The congenic strains are genetically identical except for their MHC locus.
Skin can be successfully transplanted between congenic strains.
Maximum marks: 1
21 The main reason why people develop allergies to pollen is because:
IgG has passed across the placenta to initiate an allergic response in the foetus.
there are too many mast cells resident in their skin and mucosa.
mast cells express too much of the FcE receptor.
there has been an inappropriate IgE response to pollen early in life.
Maximum marks: 1
22 22 Which statement is INCORRECT about monoclonal antibodies (mAb)?
They have high affinity but low specificity towards their target.
They can be made to selectively bind to just about any molecular target.
They have high specificity and high affinity towards their target.
They are produced by immortalized antibody producing spleen cells that have been fused
with a myeloma cell line.
Maximum marks: 1
9/33
23 Which statement is MOST CORRECT about the important role of the FcE receptor in atopic
allergy?
It rapidly stimulates macrophage phagocytosis which initiates the allergic response.
It binds IgG antibodies with very high affinity that have already bound allergen particles.
It binds IgE antibodies with very high affinity, pre-sensitizing mast cells for when they next
encounter allergen.
It is expressed on all innate immune cells.
Maximum marks: 1
24 A high affinity monoclonal antibody (mAb) has been developed in the laboratory to bind to the
receptor binding domain (RBD) of the SARS-Cov-2 Spike protein. A possible use for this mAb
might be:
administration to Covid-19 patients to rapidly suppress viral spread and the severity of
infection.
as a rapid diagnostic tool for detecting the presence of SARS-Cov-2 virus in patient
samples.
to distinguish SARS-Cov-2 from other closely related coronaviruses.
All of the other options are correct.
Maximum marks: 1
10/33
25 Which statement is INCORRECT about the requirements for a successful SARS-Cov-2 (Covid-
19) vaccine?
Must drive expansion and affinity maturation of B cells clones that produce anti-viral spike
protein antibodies.
Must drive long lasting high affinity IgG antibodies that block virus binding to its ACE-2
cellular receptor.
Must drive long lasting high affinity IgM antibodies that block virus binding to its ACE-2
cellular receptor.
Must drive the development of long-lived memory B and T cells that can respond rapidly
the next time you are challenged by the virus.
Maximum marks: 1
26 Phospholipids:
form a hydrophobic core that is a barrier to the diffusion of water molecules.
are amphipathic molecules.
are embedded in the cholesterol lipid bilayer.
are orientated in the lipid bilayer so that their hydrophilic head groups interact.
Maximum marks: 1
27 The plasma membrane of a cell:
is 9 µm thick.
is impermeable to water.
contains a variety of membrane proteins.
consists entirely of a double layer of lipid molecules.
Maximum marks: 1
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28 Peripheral membrane proteins:
contain stretches of hydrophobic amino acids.
are transmembrane proteins that span the lipid bilayer.
are embedded only in the cytoplasmic leaflet of lipid bilayer.
are removed from the lipid bilayer by breaking ionic bonds.
Maximum marks: 1
29 With regard to diffusion:
The higher the body temperature, the lower the rate of diffusion.
The thicker the membrane, the faster the rate of diffusion.
The larger the membrane surface area, the greater the rate of diffusion.
The steeper the diffusion gradient, the slower the rate of diffusion.
Maximum marks: 1
30 Membrane fluidity:
is enhanced by an increase in the percentage in poly unsaturated fatty acids in the lipid
bilayer.
is reduced by the presence of integral membrane proteins.
is enhanced by the exchange of lipids between membrane leaflets.
is enhanced by double bonds between cholesterol molecules embedded in the lipid bilayer.
Maximum marks: 1
12/33
31 The temperature dependent diffusion of water across a cell membrane:
is independent of the transmembrane osmotic gradient.
can be increased by changes in lipid fluidity.
is due to the movement of water through aquaporin water channels.
is inhibited by mercury compounds.
Maximum marks: 1
32 Glucose diffusion across the membrane of a neuron:
is driven by the electrochemical gradient for glucose.
occurs via a sodium glucose cotransporter.
utilises energy stored in the sodium gradient.
occurs by facilitated diffusion.
Maximum marks: 1
33 The electrochemical gradient for:
Na+ drives the passive diffusion of Na+ from the cytoplasm to the extracellular fluid.
K+ favours the passive diffusion of K+ into a cell.
Cl- drives the influx of Cl- when the membrane potential is around -80mV.
Na+ is used to drive the active removal of Ca2+ from muscle cells.
Maximum marks: 1
13/33
34 Ion channels:
contain spans of hydrophilic amino acids that interact with the lipid bilayer.
are gated open or closed by the binding of the ion to the pore of the ion channel.
form a water filled pore that spans the hydrophobic core of the lipid bilayer.
contain an ion selectivity filter that binds ions to open the channel.
Maximum marks: 1
35 Diffusion of ions across a cell membrane via an ion channel:
only generates a flow of electrical current when the channel is gated open.
occurs continuously down the electrochemical gradient.
is an example of facilitated diffusion.
is only dependent on the electrical gradient.
Maximum marks: 1
36 An antiporter that transports Na+ and H+:
mediates the passive diffusion of H+ down its electrochemical gradient.
directly uses the hydrolysis of ATP to actively remove H+ from the cell.
uses the energy of the Na+ gradient to actively remove H+ from the cell.
is an example of a secondary active transporter that accumulates H+ in the cell.
Maximum marks: 1
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37 The ion gradient(s):
for Cl- is actively maintained by primary active transport.
for K+ is established by secondary active transport of K+ by the NaK2Cl cotransporter.
for Na+ and K+ are maintained by ATP hydolysis.
for Na+ is coupled to the active uptake of glucose in muscle cells.
Maximum marks: 1
38 Ion movement via the paracellular pathway:
is independent of the transcellular transport pathway.
decreases in the gut in a proximal to distal direction.
is governed by the electrical resistance and ion selectivity of the tight junctions.
is against the laws of diffusion.
Maximum marks: 0
39 Epithelial tissues:
have an apical membrane domain that sits on a basement membrane.
have tight junctions that divide the cells into distinct apical and basolateral membrane
domains.
have fusions of adjacent cell membranes that are composed of lipid to lipid interactions.
have tight junctions at their basolateral margins that restrict movement of molecules
between adjacent cells.
Maximum marks: 1
15/33
40 In the small intestine following fasting:
glucose leaves the epithelial cell via facilitated diffusion.
glucose is actively accumulated in the cytoplasm by SGLT.
the glucose concentration in the cytoplasm is lower than that of the blood.
glucose uptake drives isotonic fluid absorption.
Maximum marks: 1
41 In glucose re-absorption in the kidney:
the active removal of Na+ from the cell maintains the gradient that drives glucose uptake.
the active uptake of glucose is directly driven by primary active transport.
Na+ uptake occurs via the low resistance paracellular pathway.
the entry step is located in the basolateral membrane.
Maximum marks: 1
42 In the small intestine, a failure to uptake glucose:
creates an osmotic gradient that draws water into the lumen of the small intestine.
induces a secretory diarrhoea.
due to a mutation to the gene encoding the GLUT protein results in an osmotic diarrhoea.
due to the saturation of SGLT mediated uptake of glucose results in an osmotic diarrhoea.
Maximum marks: 1
16/33
43 In patients with diabetes:
blood glucose concentration exceeds the renal threshold and glucose appears in the urine.
a mutation to the SGLT protein causes glucose to appear in the urine.
the uptake of glucose by epithelial cells in the small intestine is impaired.
the excess blood glucose is reabsorbed in the collecting duct.
Maximum marks: 1
44 The active uptake of amino acids in the duodenum:
is coupled to chloride secretion.
involves the direct hydrolyses of ATP.
uses the energy stored in the sodium gradient.
is an example of facilitated diffusion.
Maximum marks: 1
45 The cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR):
is an example of a primary active transport protein because it contains an ATP binding

domain.
is a chloride channel that only mediates the diffusion of Cl- out of epithelial cells.
contains an R domain which needs to be phosphorylated to induce ATP binding and

channel opening.
is only found in people who suffer from cystic fibrosis.
Maximum marks: 1
17/33
46 In chloride secretion:
the generation of a negative potential difference in the lumen drives the paracellular
transport of Na+ to preserve electroneutrality.
the accumulation of Cl- above its electrochemical equilibrium is the rate limiting step.
hydrolysis of ATP by CFTR pumps Cl- ions across the apical membrane.
the NaK2Cl cotransporter uses the energy of ATP hydrolysis to drive the active transport
of Cl-.
Maximum marks: 1
47 In chloride secretion, a secretagogue:
binds directly to CFTR to activate chloride secretion.
is a neurotransmitter that stimulates the secretion of a hypotonic fluid in epithelial cells.
is an enterotoxin that reversibly activates adenylate cyclase.
activates a signalling pathway that increases the opening of CFTR.
Maximum marks: 1
48 In the sweat glands:
the presence of aquaporins in the apical membrane of duct cells drive water absorption to
produce a hypotonic sweat.
from patients with cystic fibrosis the secretion of Cl- in the duct cells is defective.
the epithelial cells in the duct of the gland have a depolarised membrane potential.
the acinar cells produce a primary hypotonic secretion.
Maximum marks: 1
18/33
49
The graph above shows the kinetics of a carrier protein which transports glucose. What is the
concentration of glucose in the plasma when all binding sites of this carrier protein are occupied?
350 mg/minute
190 mg/100ml plasma
100 mg/100ml plasma
150 mg/minute
Maximum marks: 1
50 What effect will a solution containing 0.15M NaCl and 0.05M urea have on human red cell
volume?
It has no effect on steady state volume.
It will cause cells to crenate.
It will cause cells to initially shrink before returning to the initial volume.
It will cause cells to lyse.
Maximum marks: 1
19/33
51 The Nernst equation allows one to calculate:
the value of the equilibrium potential for a particular ion, taking into account the
concentration gradient for this ion.
the value of the resting membrane potential (RMP), taking into account both the
concentration gradients and the relative permeability of the cell membrane to ions.
the electrical gradient across the cell membrane for a particular ion.
the concentration gradient across the cell membrane for a particular ion.
Maximum marks: 1
52 The Goldman equation allows one to calculate:
the values of the equilibrium potential for all ions contributing to the resting membrane
potential, taking into account the concentration gradients for these ions.
the value of the resting membrane potential, taking into account the concentration gradients
and the relative permeability of the cell membrane to ions.
the electrical gradients for all ions contributing to the resting membrane potential.
the concentration gradients for all ions contributing to the resting membrane potential.
Maximum marks: 1
53 The term 'depolarisation' is used when:
cell membrane potential shifts from the resting value (the resting membrane potential)
towards 0 mV.
cell membrane potential becomes more negative than the resting membrane potential.
cell membrane potential reaches the 'overshoot' value (approximately +30 mV).
cell membrane potential changes fast.
Maximum marks: 1
20/33
54 At rest, the cell membrane of a neuron is much more permeable to K+ than to Na+ ions. Why?
There are many more voltage-gated K+ channels than voltage-gated Na+ channels.
There is a high concentration of Ca2+ ions outside the cell which partially block leak Na+
channels.
Ligand (or chemically)-gated cation channels favour greater influx of Na+ than K+.
There are many more K+ leak channels than Na+ leak channels in the cell membrane.
Maximum marks: 1
55 Puffer fish poison called tetrodotoxin blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels like a cork. What effect
would this toxin have on the function of neurons?
Neurons would depolarise more rapidly.
Action potentials will occur, but would lack the repolarisation phase.
The absolute refractory period would be shorter than normal.
Neurons would be unable to generate action potentials.
Maximum marks: 1
56 The value of the equilibrium potential can be calculated not only for Na+ and K+ ions, but also for
Ca2+ ions which, at rest, are at a higher concentration outside than inside the cell. The equilibrium
potential for Ca2+ represents the point at which:
the efflux of Ca2+ along its concentration gradient is balanced by the efflux of Na+ and K+
ions along their concentration gradients.
there is no difference in Ca2+ ion concentration between the inside and outside of the cell.
the influx of Ca2+ along its concentration gradient is balanced by the efflux of Na+ and K+
ions along their concentration gradients.
the influx of Ca2+ along its concentration gradient is balanced by the efflux of Ca2+ along the
electrical gradient.
Maximum marks: 1
21/33
57 Local anaesthetics block transmission of action potentials in axons of sensory neurons by

preventing activation of which group of membrane channels? Which statement is CORRECT?
Local anaesthetics block voltage-gated Ca2+ channels.
Local anaesthetics block voltage-gated Na+ channels only.
Local anaesthetics block voltage-gated K+ and voltage-gated Na+ channels.
Local anaesthetics block voltage-gated K+ channels only.
Maximum marks: 1
58 The threshold potential in a neuron:
corresponds to the voltage where voltage-gated K+ channels open and K+ ions rush out of
the neuron.
corresponds to the voltage where voltage-gated Na+ channels open and Na+ ions rush into
the neuron.
is a graded potential that is proportional to the strength of a stimulus.
corresponds to the voltage where voltage-gated Na+ channels open and Na+ ions rush out
of the neuron.
Maximum marks: 1
59 A Masters student, Jane, conducted a research project in the Neurophysiology Laboratory at the
University of Auckland. She recorded the resting membrane potential (RMP) in a neuron with an
intracellular microelectrode and found out that, in the neuron she recorded from, the potential was
-68 mV. She then applied a drug which decreases the cell membrane permeability to K+ ions.
What effect did she expect?
She expected that the cell membrane would hyperpolarise.
The effect could not be determined without knowing the concentrations of Na+ outside and
inside the neuron.
She expected no effect, since the RMP only changes when ion concentrations inside or
outside the neuron change.
She expected that the cell membrane would depolarise.
Maximum marks: 1
22/33
60 The combined duration of the two main stages of the action potentials in a neuron (stage 1 and 2,
excluding the afterhyperpolarization) is approximately:
100-200 ms
1-2 ms
10-20 ms
1-2 s
Maximum marks: 1
61 Which of the following statements about action potential transmission along axons is
INCORRECT?
Action potentials can be transmitted in axons in both directions: away from the cell body
and towards the cell body.
Transmission of an action potential in myelinated axons is saltatory.
The magnitude of an action potential is directly related to the intensity of the stimulus that
triggers it.
The speed of transmission of an action potential is directly related to the diameter of the
axon, with thicker axons conducting faster.
Maximum marks: 1
62 All the following electrical changes in neurons are graded events, EXCEPT:
receptor potentials.
action potentials.
excitatory post-synaptic potentials (EPSPs).
inhibitory post-synaptic potentials (IPSPs).
Maximum marks: 1
23/33
63 An IPSP evoked by glycine is inhibitory because:
it prevents Ca2+ ion entry into the presynaptic terminal.
it changes the threshold of the receiving neuron in a hyperpolarising direction.
it impedes the cell membrane potential from reaching threshold.
it reduces the amount of neurotransmitter release by the presynaptic terminal.
Maximum marks: 1
64 With a bipolar stimulating electrode placed in close proximity to a nerve and connected to a
current source (stimulator):
action potential(s) will be generated halfway between the anode and the cathode.
action potential(s) will be evoked next to the cathode.
action potential(s) will be evoked simultaneously at both electrodes.
action potential(s) will be evoked next to the anode.
Maximum marks: 1
65 Which of the following statements regarding dendrites is INCORRECT?
Transmission of synaptic potentials (EPSPs and IPSPs) along dendrites is mainly passive.
Dendrites increase the cell's surface area which can be contacted by presynaptic boutons.
Dendrites have small appendages called 'dendritic spines' which form the postsynaptic
side of many synapses.
Dendrites, like axons, highly express voltage-gated sodium channels and therefore can
generate and conduct action potentials to the soma and axon initial segment.
Maximum marks: 1
24/33
66 Which of the following statements about the transmission across a typical chemical synapse is
INCORRECT?
Action potentials activate voltage-gated Ca2+ channels in presynaptic terminals. Influx of

Ca2+ ions through these channels causes fusion of the neurotransmitter vesicles with the
plasma membrane.
Neurotransmitter molecules are stored in vesicles in presynaptic terminals.
Upon neurotransmitter binding to receptors in the receiving cell's membrane, there is

activation of specific, ligand-gated ion channels, flow of ions through these channels, and
change of the membrane potential (depolarisation or hyperpolarisation).
Vesicles containing neurotransmitter molecules diffuse to the receiving cell's membrane.
Maximum marks: 1
67 Myelin is formed in the central nervous system by:
Schwann cells.
Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes.
oligodendrocytes.
all glia cells, including microglia.
Maximum marks: 1
68 What happens at the peak of an action potential?
The rate of influx of Na+ ions into the cell is at its maximum level.
None of the other answers is correct.
Influx of Na+ ions is balanced by efflux of K+ ions.
There is full activation of voltage-gated Na+ channels.
Maximum marks: 1
25/33
69 What is happening during 'stage 3' of the action potential recorded in an axon, as shown in the
figure below:
Rapid influx of K+ ions due to inactivation of voltage-gated K+ channels
Rapid influx of Na+ ions into the cell
Activation of voltage-gated Na+ channels
Rapid efflux of K+ ions due to activation of voltage-gated K+ channels
Maximum marks: 1
26/33
70 Neurotransmitters can be removed from the synaptic cleft by several mechanisms. Which of the
following statements regarding such mechanisms is INCORRECT?
Neurotransmitter can be removed by diffusion.
Neurotransmitters can be removed by endocytosis.
Neurotransmitters can be removed by uptake to presynaptic terminals or adjacent cells.
Neurotransmitters can be removed by enzymatic breakdown.
Maximum marks: 1
71 Which statement BEST DESCRIBES the nucleus/nuclei of a skeletal muscle cell?
There are multiple nuclei, located on the periphery.
There is a single nucleus, located on the periphery.
There is a single nucleus, located centrally.
There are multiple nuclei, located centrally.
Maximum marks: 1
72 In skeletal muscle, t-tubules are located in close proximity with each:
muscle fibre, aligned with the A/I band intersection.
muscle fibre, aligned with the centre of the I band.
myofibril, aligned with the A/I band intersection.
myofibril, aligned with the centre of the I band.
Maximum marks: 1
27/33
73 If, in the cytoplasm of skeletal muscle cells, ATP levels are plentiful but calcium levels are low,
the myosin heads would:
remain in their low energy state and unbound to actin.
remain in their low energy state and bound to actin.
be able to become energized (cocked) and bind to actin.
be able to become energized (cocked) but not bind to actin.
Maximum marks: 1
74 Impaired Ca2+ ATPase pump activity (SERCA) in skeletal muscle would likely result in:
decreased extracellular calcium concentration.
increased sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium content.
increased cytosol calcium concentration.
increased extracellular calcium concentration.
Maximum marks: 1
75 Relative to the maximal response recorded when the muscle was at its resting length (100%),
the response to the same stimulus when the muscle was stretched to 150% of its resting length
would be:
reduced, due to a decrease in active tension and no change in passive tension.
similar, due to a decrease in active tension but an increase in passive tension.
greater, as active tension would be similar but passive tension would be greater.
greater, due to an increase in both active and passive tension.
Maximum marks: 1
28/33
76 During an isometric contraction:
cross-bridge cycling occurs and the sarcomeres shorten.
no cross-bridge cycling occurs, but sarcomeres shorten passively.
cross-bridge cycling occurs, but the sarcomeres do not shorten.
no cross-bridge cycling occurs thus the sarcomeres do not shorten.
Maximum marks: 1
77 The voltage-gated sodium channels play an important role in which of the following steps in the
excitation and contraction process in skeletal muscle: i. development of the end plate potential ii.
spread of the action potential along the sarcolemma iii. triggering the release of calcium from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum
steps i and ii only
steps i, ii and iii
steps ii only
steps ii and iii only
Maximum marks: 1
78 One action potential in one alpha motor neuron will MOST LIKELY lead to:
a visible shortening of muscle due to a contraction in multiple muscle cells.
one twitch in multiple muscle cells.
one twitch in one muscle cell.
a visible shortening of muscle due to a contraction in one muscle cell.
Maximum marks: 1
29/33
79 In skeletal muscle cells, at the time point when the muscle develops its maximum tension during
a single muscle twitch, it is MOST LIKELY that the membrane potential is:
0 mV
+30 mV
-70 mV
-55 mV
Maximum marks: 1
80 A marathon runner sees the finish line of the race and has a big increase in speed to sprint the
last 200m, before collapsing just after the finish line. Which statement BEST DESCRIBES the
effort at the end of the race?
The sprint at the end likely relied on creatinine phosphate reserves.
The runner would have exclusively used aerobic metabolism throughout the race.
The runner could likely have maintained the faster speed throughout the race.
The sprint at the end likely relied on anaerobic metabolism.
Maximum marks: 1
81 Which of the following options would increase the force of a contraction in skeletal muscle? i.
Increasing the number of action potentials down a single motor unit. ii. Increasing the number of
motor units stimulated. iii. Increasing the size of the action potential in a single motor unit.
options i and ii only
option i only
all options (i, ii and iii)
option ii only
Maximum marks: 1
30/33
82 The ion channels important in determining the absolute refractory periods in skeletal and
ventricular muscle cells are:
voltage-gated potassium channels for both skeletal and ventricular muscle cells.
voltage-gated calcium channels for skeletal muscle cells and calcium-induced calcium
channels for ventricular muscle cells.
voltage-gated sodium channels for both skeletal and ventricular muscle cells.
voltage-gated sodium channels for skeletal muscle cells and voltage-gated calcium
channels for ventricular muscle cells.
Maximum marks: 1
83 Which statement BEST DESCRIBES the role of voltage-gated sodium channels in ventricular
myocytes?
Their opening is triggered by ACh (Acetylcholine).
Their opening is responsible for the repolarisation of the cell membrane.
They are essential for the spread of the action potential along the sarcolemma.
They are directly involved in triggering the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic
reticulum.
Maximum marks: 1
84 An experiment is performed where spontaneous contractions are recorded from an isolated

ventricular muscle cell. A drug is given that increases the amount of calcium ions released from
the sarcoplasmic reticulum during each action potential. The effect of this drug would be to:
increase the force of the contraction.
increase the rate of contraction (heart rate).
lead to one long, sustained contraction (tetanus).
not have any effect.
Maximum marks: 1
31/33
85 Given your knowledge of the role of acetylcholine esterase (AChE) in muscle, predict which of
the following is likely to be a side effect of an acetylcholine esterase inhibitor?
reduced heart rate
increased blood pressure
muscle weakness
increased cardiac output
Maximum marks: 1
86 In a healthy heart, the immediate effect of increasing the filling of the heart by 20% would most
likely be:
an increase in heart rate.
a decrease in stroke volume.
a decrease in heart rate.
an increase in stroke volume.
Maximum marks: 1
87 The smooth muscle that makes up the wall of the intestines is BEST DESCRIBED as:
electrically-coupled multi-unit smooth muscle.
electrically-coupled single-unit smooth muscle.
electrically-isolated multi-unit smooth muscle.
electrically-isolated single-unit smooth muscle.
Maximum marks: 1
32/33
88 Which of the following would likely lead to relaxation in smooth muscle?
Down-regulation of myosin light chain phosphatase.
The membrane potential becoming more negative.
Phosphorylation of the myosin head.
Activation of calmodulin.
Maximum marks: 1
89 If vascular smooth muscle is stretched to 120% of its initial length the immediate response would
likely be:
decreased muscle tension (relaxation).
increased muscle tension (contraction).
no change in tension.
the initiation of a series of fast contractions.
Maximum marks: 1
90 Z-lines (discs) are a feature of:
skeletal and cardiac muscle.
smooth muscle only.
skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle.
skeletal muscle only.
Maximum marks: 1
33/33

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1213-1 BIOSCI 107 Offshore (10/06/2021 13:00) Biology for Biomedical Science (Exam)

 General Instructions BIOSCI 107 Exam

Questions Recommended time

1 The MOST abundant blood protein is:

Haemoglobin is the major protein of red blood cells.

There are 4 haem molecules per haemoglobin molecule.

B cells and T cells.

bind to plasminogen to stop the degradation of fibrin.

stop the conversion of factor X to factor Xa.

bind to fibrinogen and stops its conversion to fibrin.

inactivate the proteolytic enzyme thrombin.

Innate immune cells phagocytose the opsonized bacterium.

Complement proteins opsonize the bacterium.

Innate immune cells migrate to the site of infection.

8 Which option BEST DESCRIBES neutrophil extravasation?

Neutrophils detect activated endothelial cells close to the site of infection

Neutrophils squeeze through the junctions between endothelial cells.

Neutrophils stick to activated endothelial cells that line capillaries.

All options are correct

They initiate the process of phagocytosis.

They bind and detect molecules that are unique to pathogens.

They drive gene rearrangement in B and T cells.

The patient has a severe viral infection.

All naive B lymphocytes express a membrane bound IgG antigen receptor.

IgA is the class that regulates atopic allergy.

IgE protects at mucosal surfaces such as the eye and gut.

12 Which statement is MOST CORRECT about the structure of antibody molecules?

They are made up of the following arrangement H-L-L-H.

All antibodies use the same heavy chain.

They are composed of repeating small immunoglobulin domains.

13 Which statement is INCORRECT about the phenomena of affinity and avidity?

The binding of an antibody to a regular antigen array on the surface of a bacteria is

14 Gene recombination only occurs in lymphocytes because:

The Ig and TcR gene loci are only found in lymphocytes.

The RAG1 and RAG2 genes are expressed only in lymphocytes.

Recognition sequences (RS) on genes are only found within lymphocytes.

T cells and B cells regularly swapping Ig and TcR genes.

imprecise joining of the V, D and J gene segments during gene recombination.

CD8 T cell recognition is restricted by MHC class I molecules.

T lymphocytes are restricted to only recognising viral antigens.

CD4 T cell recognition is restricted by MHC class II molecules.

the bone marrow.

19 Which statement is INCORRECT about the functions of T lymphocytes?

CD8+ T cells recognise antigens presented within MHC class I molecules.

CD4+ cells recognise antigens presented within MHC class II molecules.

The congenic strains have identical T cell receptor repertoires.

Skin can be successfully transplanted between congenic strains.

21 The main reason why people develop allergies to pollen is because:

mast cells express too much of the FcE receptor.

there has been an inappropriate IgE response to pollen early in life.

22 22 Which statement is INCORRECT about monoclonal antibodies (mAb)?

It rapidly stimulates macrophage phagocytosis which initiates the allergic response.

It is expressed on all innate immune cells.

to distinguish SARS-Cov-2 from other closely related coronaviruses.

All of the other options are correct.

form a hydrophobic core that is a barrier to the diffusion of water molecules.

are amphipathic molecules.

are embedded in the cholesterol lipid bilayer.

27 The plasma membrane of a cell:

contains a variety of membrane proteins.

consists entirely of a double layer of lipid molecules.

28 Peripheral membrane proteins:

contain stretches of hydrophobic amino acids.

are transmembrane proteins that span the lipid bilayer.