08/07/2020

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Time : 3 Hrs.

Home Assignment – 8

Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. A bird is flying along a straight line with velocity 3. A projectile is thrown from the ground as shown.
v = (6–2t) m/s. The distance travelled by the bird in This distance between two vertical walls is 90 m. The
t1 = 2 s to t2 = 5 s is range of projectile is
y
(1) 5 m
3s
(2) Zero t 1= t=7s
(3) 4 m
(4) 6 m 90 m x

2. A particle is moving on x-y plane so that its x (1) 125 m (2) 180 m
(3) 225 m (4) 250 m
t2
coordinate varies with time as x = , and y 4. A man can swim in still water with speed v, speed
2
of water in the river is uand the width of the river is
x2
coordinate varies as y = . The velocity of the d. Select the correct statement(s)
2
particle at t = 2 s is (1) Man cannot reach the point exactly opposite on
the bank if u > v.

(1) v  (2i  3j ) m/s (2) Man can reach exactly opposite point on the

 d
(2) v  (2i  2j ) m/s bank in time t  if u > v
v  u2 2

 (3) The minimum time in which man can cross the

(3) v  (3i  4j ) m/s d
river is
 v
(4) v  (2i  4j ) m/s (4) Both (1) & (3)
(1)
Home Assignment-8 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
5. An external force F is applied on a block at angle  10. Three identical masses m each are kept at the
from horizontal as shown. The minimum value of corners of an equilateral triangle of side a. The work
force required to keep the block stationary is done by external force to increase the side of
Coefficient
triangle from a to 2a, is
of friction ()
2 Gm 2 2 Gm 2
(1) (2) 
3 a 3 a
 M 3 Gm 2 3 Gm 2
(3)  (4)
F 2 a 2 a
11. Which of the following statements regarding the
trajectory of the satellite is correct?
mg mg
(1) (2) (1) If v < 11.2 km/s, it moves in a circular path
 sin  sin    cos 
(2) If v = 11.2 km/s, it moves along a parabolic path

mg mg  tan  (3) If v > 11.2 km/s, it moves along a circular path

(3) (4)
sin    cos  2  1 (4) If v < 11.2 km/s, it moves along a hyperbolic
path
6. A force-time (F–t) graph for a particle moving along 12. When 2 moles of air is given 70 calorie of heat, its
a straight line varies with time as shown. If linear temperature changes from 20°C to 25°C at constant
momentum of particle at t = 0 is 20 kg m/s, then its pressure. The amount of heat required to raised the
linear momentum at t =10 second is temperature of air through same range (20°C to 25°C)
F at constant volume is
20 N (1) 50 calorie (2) 45 calorie
5
(0, 0) 2.5
(3) 40 calorie (4) 70 calorie
7.5 10 t (s)
–20 N 13. The state of a thermodynamic system changes as
shown on P-V diagram. Which of the following
(1) 120 kg m/s (2) 70 kg m/s
P-T diagram correctly matches the given P-V
(3) 40 kg m/s (4) 20 kg ms–1 diagram?

7. A body of mass m is projected at an angle  with P

the horizontal with an initial velocity v0. The average B C
2P0
power of gravitational force over the whole time of
flight is P0
A D
V
(1) mg v0 cos (2) mg v0 sin V0 3V0
P P
(3) mg v 0 1  cos2  (4) Zero B C C B

8. Moment of inertia of a body about given axis is (1) A (2) D

D A
1.2 kg m 2 . Initially it is at rest. An angular
T
acceleration of 25 rad/s2 is applied on it for t0 time O T O
so that its rotational kinetic energy becomes P
P
1500 joule. The t0 is
B C
(1) 2 s (2) 3 s C B

(3) 4 s (4) 5 s (3) A D (4) D A

T T
9. A particle of mass 3 kg moves along a straight line O O
4y – 3x = 2 (where x and y are in metre), with
14. A body cools from 80°C to 60°C in 10 min, when the
constant velocity v = 5 m/s. The magnitude of
temperature of surroundings is 30°C. The
angular momentum about the origin is
temperature of the body after next 10 min will be
(1) 16 kg m2s–1 (2) 6 kg m2s–1 (1) 40°C (2) 43°C
(3) 28 kg m2s–1 (4) 1.6 kg m2s–1 (3) 48°C (4) 52°C
(2)
Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-8
15. Two pendulums A and B of lengths 144 cm and 21. If 4% of total current should pass through
100 cm are initially in same phase at their equilibrium galvanometer coil of resistance G, then the required
positions. After how many complete oscillations of value of shunt is
B, they are in same phase again at equilibrium?
G
(1) 4 (2) 6 (1) 24G (2)
24
(3) 8 (4) 10
G
16. A wave represented by the equation (3) 25G (4)
25
y = a cos(kx –t) is superposed with another wave
to form a stationary wave such that the point x = 0 22. A circular region of radius R is occupied by the time
is a node. The equation of the other wave is dB
varying magnetic field B(t) such that  0 . The
(1) –a sin(kx – t) (2) –a cos(kx – t) dt
magnitude of induced electric field at the point P at
(3) a sin(kx + t) (4) –a cos(kx + t)
a distance r (< R) is
17. A standing wave having 3 nodes and 2 antinodes is
formed between two atoms having a distance 1.21 Å
between them. The wavelength of the standing wave is R
(1) 2.42 Å (2) 1.21 Å
(3) 3.63 Å (4) 5.26 Å
18. The equivalent capacitance between points A and B
in the given network is (1) Decreasing with r (2) Increasing with r
3 µF 3 µF 3 µF (3) Not varying with r (4) Varying as r –2
A
23. An alternating voltage is given by v = 10 cos100t volt.
2 µF 2 µF 3 µF 1
The instantaneous voltage at t = s , is
B 600
3 µF 3 µF 3 µF (1) 5 3 volt (2) 5 volt
(1) 9 F (2) 1 F
9 (3) 5 2 volt (4) 10 volt
(3) F (4) 3 F
2
24. In a stationary hydrogen atom an electron jumps
19. Four resistors are connected in the given network from n = 3 to n = 1. The recoil momentum of
which is connected with to an emf source as shown.
hydrogen atom is
The potential difference between points A and B is
equal to
9 3
2 A 4 (1) Rh (2) Rh
8 4

9 B 3 8
(3) Rh (4) 9 Rh
9
25. An electron revolves round a nucleus of atomic
12 V number Z. If 32.4 eV of energy is required to excite
(1) –5 volt (2) 5 volt an electron from n = 3 to n = 4 state, then the
(3) 4 volt (4) –4 volt value of Z is
20. Four identical bulbs are connected in the circuit as (1) 5 (2) 6
shown in the diagram. Which of the following bulbs
glows most brightly? (3) 7 (4) 8
V 26. The energy released in the following reaction is

B1 B4 5B + 1H25B11 + 1H1. Given mass of respective

10

nuclei are 5B10 = 10.0165 U, 5B11 = 11.0128 U,

B2 B3 2 1
1H = 2.01472 U and 1H = 1.00812 U

(1) 95.3 MeV (2) 9.53 MeV

(1) B1 (2) B2
(3) B3 (4) B4 (3) 953 MeV (4) 0.953 MeV

(3)
Home Assignment-8 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
27. Following combination of gates, behaves like which 34. Three thermal conductors of identical dimensions are
gate? welded as shown. The temperature of the junction is

A 20°C

y 2k k
80°C 
B 3k
60°C
(1) OR (2) NAND
(1) 60°C (2) 50°C
(3) AND (4) NOR
28. Mediated particle in strong nuclear force is (3) 40°C (4) 45°C

(1) Boson (2) Photons 35. The electric potential in a space is given by
(3) Gluons (4) Graviton V = 4x2 volt. The electric field at a point A (1, 0, 2)
in this region is 8 V/m along
29. Which of the following readings taken by an
instrument of least count 0.001 cm is true? (1) Positive x-axis (2) Negative x-axis
(1) 11.20 cm (2) 12.280 cm (3) Positive y-axis (4) Negative y-axis
(3) 128.80 cm (4) 5.8 cm 36. Deflection in galvanometer is zero, when jockey is
touched at 50 cm from point A, in the given circuit,
a ( aE / t )
30. In relation P  e , P represents number, E is then the emf of the cell is [given resistance of
b
potentiometer wire is 3 ].
energy and t is time. The dimension of a and b, is
4V
(1) [ML2T3], [MLT–1] (2) [M–1L–2T3], [M–1L2T–3] 8
(3) [M–1L–2T–3], [ML2T3] (4) [M–1L–2T3], [M–1L–2T3]
31. A ball of mass m is moving with velocity u towards l = 100 cm
another stationary ball of mass 2m. If collision is 50 cm
elastic then the percentage KE transferred by A B
ball-1 to ball-2 is
G
(1) 68.8% (2) 78.8%
E
(3) 88.8% (4) 100%
(1) 1.5 V (2) 1.0 V
32. A heavy solid sphere is thrown on a horizontal rough
surface with initial velocity v0 without rolling. What (3) 0.5 V (4) 0.25 V
will be its speed when it starts pure rolling motion? 37. The magnetic field produced at O by the current
5 3 carrying conductor shown in the figure is equal to
(1) v0 (2) v0
7 5
I
2 5
(3) v0 (4) v0 R
5 8
O
33. Four thin identical rods are joined to form a square as
I
shown. If it is rotated along an axis passing through
one side, then its moment of inertia is equal to
0 2I    0 2I
(1) 1 
4 R  2 
(2)    2 
l, m 4 R

0 I    0 I
(3)
4 R  2
 2  (4)    1 
l, m l, m  4 R
38. A voltmeter of range 5 V is to be converted into an
l, m ammeter of range 10 mA. If the resistance of
voltmeter is 1 k, then what resistance should be
8 2 2 2 connected in parallel with it?
(1) ml (2) ml
3 3
(1) 0.25 k (2) 0.50 k
6 2 5 2
(3) ml (4) ml
3 3 (3) 0.75 k (4) 1.0 k
(4)
Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-8
39. A parallel beam of light falls on a convex lens of 42. The threshold wavelength of metal surface is 6000 Å.
focal length 25 cm. A concave lens of focal length The wavelength of incident radiation is 4500 Å. The
7 cm is kept at x distance from the convex lens. If maximum kinetic energy of the ejected
final refracted ray from concave lens is also parallel photoelectrons, is
to principal axis, then the value of x is (1) 0.38 eV (2) 0.63 eV
(1) 24 cm (2) 18 cm (3) 0.76 eV (4) 0.92 eV
(3) 12 cm (4) 6 cm 43. Second excitation energy for hydrogen atom is
40. The refracting angle of a prism is A and its refractive (1) 3.4 eV (2) –12.2 eV
index is cot (A / 2). The angle of minimum deviation (3) –1.51 eV (4) 12.2 eV
produced by the prism is
44. Half life of a radioactive substance is 40 minutes.
(1) 180° + 2A (2) 180° – 2A What is the time between 33% decay and 67%
(3) 180° + 3A (4) 180° – 3A decay?
(1) 10 minutes (2) 20 minutes
41. An object is placed at 30 cm from a convex lens of
focal length 20 cm. On its other side a convex (3) 30 minutes (4) 40 minutes
mirror of radius of curvature 10 cm is placed at x 45. In an npn transistor, the current gain for common
distance from the lens so that an upright image emitter configuration is 80. If the emitter current is
coincides with object. Then x is 8.1 mA, then the base current is
(1) 15 cm (2) 35 cm (1) 0.1 A (2) 0.01 mA
(3) 50 cm (4) 65 cm (3) 0.001 mA (4) 0.1 mA

CHEMISTRY
Na C2H5Br 48. The incorrect order shown below for basic characters
46. (CH3)3 COH (A)  (B)
(Major) (1) (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2  Gas phase
The IUPAC name of major product B is
(2) (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)NH2 > (C2H5)3N  Aq. phase
(1) Ethene
NH2
(2) 2 Methyl prop-1-ene
(3) 2 Ethoxy 2 methyl propane (3) >
N
(4) 3° Butyl ethyl ether
NH2 NH2
CH3 CH(OCrCl2OH)2
(4) >
47. + CrO2Cl2
49. D-glucose and D-galactose are
H2O (1) Anomers (2) C2-epimer
(3) C3-epimer (4) C4-epimer
CHO
50. Anionic detergent among the following is
(1) RCOO(RO)nROH

CH3
The above reaction represents
(2) CH3(CH2)15 N CH3 Cl–
(1) Gattermann Koch Synthesis
CH3
(2) Gattermann Aldehyde Synthesis
(3) Etard Reaction (3) CH3 (CH2)n SO3Na

(4) Stephen’s Reaction (4) All of these

(5)
Home Assignment-8 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
51. 0.5 g of organic compound gave 30 ml of moist 57. The correct order of dipole moment is given by
nitrogen measured at 27°C and 715 mm pressure. (1) CHF3 > CHCl3 (2) PCl3Br2 > PBr3Cl2
Calculate % composition of nitrogen in the
compound. (Aq. tension at 300 K is 15 mm Hg) (3) HI > HBr (4) All of these

(1) 75% (2) 62.8% 58. Which is the correct graph between radial probability
density vs radial distance for 2s orbital?
(3) 7.5% (4) 6.28%

1% alk. KMnO4
52. (I)
(1) (2)
KMnO4  373 – 383 K
+
(II)
H

The major product I and II are respectively

(3) (4)
OH
(1) , OHC ( CH2 )2 CHO
OH
59. The ratio of wavelength of limiting line of Paschen
OH series for Li+2 to that of Ist line of visible series for
(2) , HOOC ( CH2)2 COOH He+ will be
OH
1 3
OH (1) (2)
3 1
(3) , OHC ( CH2)2 CHO
OH 9 5
(3) (4)
OH 5 9
(4) , HOOC ( CH2)2 COOH
OH 60. The equilibrium constant for the reaction

53. K  O2  (X) 


2HBr(g) 
 H2(g) + Br2(g)
(Excess)
If 15 ml of H2 reacts with 20 ml of Br2 in one litre
The compound (X) is vessel and at equilibrium 20 ml of HBr is formed
(1) Paramagnetic and coloured (1) 40 (2) 20
(2) Paramagnetic but colourless (3) 0.125 (4) 
(3) On hydrolysis forms hydrides 61. Which does not show reducing property?

(4) Less stablized due to less lattice energy (1) H3PO2

54. Na2B4O7 + 2HCl + 5H2O  2NaCl + (A) (2) H3PO3

Compound (A) is polymeric due to (3) H3PO4

(1) Geometry (2) Acidic nature (4) All have same reducing property

(3) Banana bond (4) Hydrogen bond 62. In the reaction

Conc. H SO
55. Identify the gas which has average KE of 447 cal at HCOOH 
2 4
 Product
27°C, if 8 g of gas is taken The function of H2SO4 in above reaction is as
(1) CH4 (1) Oxidising agent (2) Acid
(2) CO (3) Dehydrating agent (4) No reaction occurs
(3) CO2 63. The one which is incorrect as the consequence of
(4) All of above can be present lanthanoid contraction?

56. For the reaction of one mol zinc with two mol (1) Difficulty in separation of lanthanide series
hydrochloric acid in a bomb calorimeter, U and W element because of similar size
correspond to (2) Similarity in size of Ti and Zr of group- 4
(1) U < 0, W = 0 (2) U < 0, W < 0 (3) La(OH)3 is more basic than Lu(OH)3
(3) U > 0, W = 0 (4) U > 0, W > 0 (4) All are correct
(6)
Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-8
64. In alkaline medium, KMnO4 oxidises KI to 72. Hall Heroult process used in metallurgy of aluminium
involves
(1) I2 (2) I3–
(1) Concentration of ore
(3) IO3– (4) Both (1) & (3)
(2) Extraction of crude metal from concentrated ore
65. The coordination number of iron in brown ring and
sodium nitroprusside is respectively (3) Refining of metal
(1) 2, 2 (2) 1, 2 (4) All of these

(3) 1, 3 (4) 6, 6 73. The slope of the graph between log x/m vs log P in
Freundlich isotherm can have value
66. Zinc oxide on heating turns yellow in colour, this is
due to (1) > 1

(1) Metal excess defect (2) 1

(2) Metal deficiency defect (3) 0.1 to 0.5

(3) Schottky defect (4) Cannot be predicted, any value possible

(4) Frenkel defect 74. Heterogenous catalysis is involved in which of the

following reaction?
67. Which has the maximum boiling point?
(1) Haber process
(1) 0.1 N NaCl
(2) Oxidation of ammonia into nitric oxide in
(2) 0.1 N CaCl2 Ostwald's process
(3) 0.1 N AlCl3 (3) Hydrogenation of vegetable oil
(4) All have same (4) All of these
68. If 0.05 M HCl solution at 300 K, shows molar 75. If metal m, crystallises in bcc structure and has
conductivity of 232.3  –1 cm 2 mol –1 , then the radius 1.86 Å, then the nearest neighbour distance
conductance of above solution will (if cell constant is and edge length will be respectively
0.367 cm–1) be
(1) 3.72 Å, 5.26 Å (2) 0.93 Å, 5.26 Å
(1) 0.0116 –1 (2) 31.6 –1
(3) 3.72 Å, 4.3 Å (4) 0.93 Å, 4.3 Å
(3) 0.0316 –1 (4) 232.3 –1 76. If 4.5 g of aluminium is deposited from electrolysis
69. Which is mismatched regarding the trends given of molten AlBr3, then the weight of silver deposited
below? by same quantity of electricity from molten AgNO3
will be
(1) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 – Bond dissociation enthalpy
(1) 4.5 g (2) 108 g
(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI – Acidic strength
(3) 54 g (4) 27 g
(3) BiH3 < SbH3 < NH3 < AsH3 < PH3 – Volatility
77. The incorrect statement among the following is
(4) HClO < HBrO < HIO – Acidic strength
(1) Thermal decomposition of HI on gold surface is
70. The isomerism which is not possible in triammine
zero order reaction
trinitro cobalt (III) is
(2) A catalyst does not alters G of a reaction
(1) Linkage isomerism
(3) Rate law can’t be predicted theoretically from
(2) Geometrical isomerism balanced chemical equation
(3) Optical isomerism (4) Molecularity is applicable for both elementary
(4) All of these reaction and complex reaction
71. Number of moles of K2Cr2O7 required to oxidise 
78. Borax NaBO2 + B
0.03 mole Sn2+ Excess

(1) 0.2 B + Nickel oxide C
(2) 0.01 Compound C and its colour is
(3) 0.06 (1) NiO, brown (2) Ni(BO2)3, brown
(4) 0.15 (3) Ni(BO2)2, brown (4) NiBO2, yellow

(7)
Home Assignment-8 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
79. In photochemical smog, when unburnt hydrocarbons +
H CH3MgBr (excess)
react with NO2 and O3, chemicals that are formed 85. CH3COOH+C2H5OH (A) (B)

+
H2O/H
(1) Formaldehyde (2) Acrolein
Product B in above reaction is
(3) PAN (4) All of these
(1) CH4
80. Which is mismatched regarding the formula?
(2) (CH3)3 – C – OH
(1) Calomel – Hg2Cl2
(2) Wilkinson catalyst – [(PPh3)3RhCl] (3) (CH3)2 – C – OH
C2H5
(3) Perhydrol – H2 + CO2
(4) Purple of cassius – Colloidal gold (4) CH 3– C – OH
81. Which has maximum reactivity towards aromatic (C2H5)2
electrophilic substitution and maximum
hyperconjugation respectively? NO2

CH3 CH3 CH3 C(CH3)3 86. LiAlH4

?
(1) , (2) ,
The product formed in above reaction is
(1) Aniline
C(CH3)3 CH3 C(CH3)3 C(CH3)3
(2) Azobenzene
(3) , (4) , (3) Hydroazo benzene
(4) Azoxy benzene
82. Regarding conformers of n-butane the incorrect 87. The exothermic process is
statement is
(1) Na Na+ (2) F F–
(1) Infinite number of conformers possible
(3) S– S–2 (4) Al+2 Al+3
(2) Anti staggered is more stable than Gauch
staggered 88. The bond order of nitrate ion and covalency of N in
nitrate ion is
(3) Due to Baeyer’s strain eclipsed form has higher
energy than staggered (1) 5/3, 5 (2) 5/3, 4
(4) All are correct (3) 4/3, 4 (4) 3/2, 3
83. The one with maximum dipole moment and 89. The solubility of AgCl in water, ammonia and 0.01 M
maximum boiling point is respectively CaCl2 is S1, S2, S3 respectively. Then the correct
(1) CH3F, CH3F order of solubility

(2) CH3F, CH3I (1) S1 > S2 > S3

(3) CH3Cl, CH3I (2) S3 > S1 > S2
(4) CH3I, CH3I (3) S1 > S3 > S2
84. The product formed when 2 propanol is reacted with (4) S2 > S1 > S3
red P+I2 , followed by AgNO2 and nitrous acid
90. If 1 mole of N2 reacts with 3 mole of H2 and at
(1) (CH3)2 – CHNO2 equilibrium 1 mole NH3 is formed, then the weight of
(2) (CH3) – C – NO2 H2 at equilibrium is
N–OH (1) 0 g

(3) (CH3)2 – C – NO2 (2) 1 g

NO (3) 3 g
(4) CH3CH2NO2 + CH3OH (4) 4 g
(8)
Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-8

BOTANY
91. Choose the correct option w.r.t. taxonomic key 95. Match the column-I with column-II

a. It is a taxonomical aid. Column I Column II

b. Used for identification of plants only. a. D.J. Ivanovski (i) Discovered viroids
b. M.W.Beijerinck (ii) Discovered virus
c. Contrasting characters are generally in a pair.
c. W.M. Stanley (iii) Crystallised TMV
d. Each statement in the key is called couplet.
d. T.O. Diener (iv) Contagium vivum
e. Generally analytical in nature. fluidum
(1) All are correct (1) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

(2) d & e are incorrect (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

(3) b & d are incorrect 96. Numerical taxonomy is related to all, except
(1) Based on few observable characters
(4) Only b is incorrect
(2) Uses computation of data
92. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria
(3) Characters are given equal importance
(1) In having different cell wall and cell membrane
(4) Numbers and codes are assigned to each
structure
character
(2) As they can tolerate extreme conditions 97. Some structures are given below
(3) In presence of introns in DNA Protonema cell, Prothallus cell of fern, PEN, Gemma
(4) More than one option is correct of Marchantia
Select correct sequence of their respective ploidy
93. Choose incorrectly matched combination
level.
(1) Coenocytic mycelium, zoospore, cellulosic wall (1) n, n, 3n, n (2) 2n, 2n, 3n, 2n
– Oomycetes
(3) n, n, n, n (4) 2n, 2n, n, 2n
(2) Shorter dikaryophase, crozier, conidia –
98. Fill in the blanks correctly
Deuteromycetes
(A) Species of provide peat.
(3) Dominant dikaryophase, sex organs absent – Club (i)
fungi (B) Multicelled dominant body of bryophytes is
(4) Trisporic acid, gametangial copulation – (ii)
conjugating fungi (C) is a microphyllous pteriodphyte.
(iii)
94. Read the following statements carefully
(D) Gametophytes do not have an independent, free
(A) Pellicle makes the body of Euglena flexible. living existence in
(iv)

(B) One longitudinal and one transverse flagellum are (1) (i) Selaginella ; (ii) Sporophyte
features of diatoms.
(2) (iii) Selaginella ; (ii) Sporophyte
(C) Under suitable conditions, plasmodium is formed (3) (ii) Gametophyte ; (iv) Pinus
by slime moulds.
(4) (i) Sphagnum ; (iii) Dryopteris
(D) Chrysophyta includes both diatoms and dino
99. A pair of leaves aries at each node and lie opposite
flagellates.
to each other in
(1) C & D are correct (1) Mustard and Sunflower
(2) B & D are incorrect (2) Calotropis and Guava
(3) B & C are incorrect (3) Alstonia and Chinarose

(4) A & D are correct (4) Sunflower and Syzygium

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Home Assignment-8 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
105. An angiospermic plant is having 10 chromosomes in
100. I. Fabaceae : % K(5) C1+2+(2) A (9)+1 G1
each cell. How many chromosomes the cell have at
G1, after S phase and in its daughter cells after
II. Solanaceae :  K(5) C 5 A 5 G(2) meiosis-II respectively?
(1) I statement is correct, II should be replaced by (1) 10, 10, 10 (2) 10, 10, 5
 K(5) C (5) A (5) G 1 (3) 10, 20, 10 (4) 10, 20, 5
106. The figure shown below depicts which stage of cell
(2) Both statements are correct
division
(3) I statement is correct, II correct if C5 and A5

replaced by C(5) A 5

(4) In statement I G1 should be replaced by G(2)

and in II statement C 5 and A 5 replaced by

C(5) A 5
(1) Metaphase
101. Fascicular vascular cambium, interfascicular
(2) Prophase
cambium and cork cambium are all examples of
(3) Transition to metaphase
(1) Primary lateral meristems
(4) Anaphase
(2) Secondary lateral meristems
107. Select incorrect statement
(3) Lateral meristems (1) s is always negative
(4) Intercalary meristems (2) Saturation of transport is shown by all simple
102. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of diffusion, facilitated diffusion and active transport
sapwood? (3) Most of the water flow in the root occurs
through apoplast
(1) Present in peripheral region of secondary xylem
(4) Water loss in liquid phase is called guttation and
(2) Physiologically inactive
is due to root pressure
(3) Helps in water conduction 108. The step of N2-metabolism with the requirement of
(4) Lighter in colour -KGA and glutamate dehydrogenase is

103. Read the following statements and find correct options (1) Catalytic amidation (2) Reductive amination
(3) Transamination (4) Nitrate assimilation
a. Lipid component of the membrane mainly
consist of phosphoglycerides 109. Find correct match w.r.t. essential elements as
activator of enzymes
b. Lipids constitute 52% in membrane of RBC
Column-I Column-II
c. Peripheral proteins lie on the surface of
a. PEPCO (i) Mo
membrane
b. Alcohol dehydrogenase (ii) Fe
d. Lipids enable lateral movement of proteins within
overall bilayer c. Nitrogenase (iii) Zn
d. Catalase (iv) Mg
(1) a, b, d (2) a, b, c
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) b, c, d (4) a, c, d
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
104. In the section of axoneme of eukaryotic flagellum
110. C4 plants are most efficient plants of tropical climate
(1) Central sheath covered a pair of triplets of and
microtubules
(1) Shows photorespiration
(2) Central sheath is surrounded by 27 microtubule (2) Have large number of chloroplasts and thick
(3) All the nine doublets of microtubule are walls of bundle sheath cells
interconnected by radial spokes (3) Form 4-C organic acids in bundle sheath cell
(4) Central tubules are connected by bridges and (4) Perform primary CO2 fixation in bundle sheath
enclosed by a sheath cells
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Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-8
111. How many total oxygen atoms are used during 116. Identify the vegetative propagule shown in the figure
aerobic respiration of one pyruvate molecule?
(1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 12 (4) 1
112. Fats Carbohydrates Proteins

Fatty acid + (A) Glucose Amino acids

Fructose 1, 6 bisphosphate
(1) Bulbil of Agave
(B) PGAL (2) Offset of water hyacinth
(3) Rhizome of ginger
(C) (4) Bulb of onion
(D) 117. Find incorrect statement w.r.t. pollens
(1) Generally spherical measuring about 25-50 micro
H2O meters
(E)
CO2
(2) Germ pore does not have sporopollenin
(1) (A) Glycerol, (D) Pyruvic acid, (E) TCA (3) The vegetative cell is bigger, has abundant food
(2) (B) DHAP, (C) Pyruvic acid, (D) Krebs cycle reserve and a large irregularly shaped nucleus

(3) (A) Glycerol, (B) DHAP, (D) Acetyl CoA (4) Generative cell has abundant cytoplasm and a
spindle shape nucleus
(4) (B) PGA, (C) Pyruvic acid, (E) Acetyl CoA
118. Apomictic viable or recurrent embryo cannot be
113. Which of the following pair of tissues can be formed produced by
after redifferentiation? (1) Adventitive embryony (2) Diplospory
(1) Phellem and phellogen (3) Apospory (4) Aplospory
(2) Phelloderm and interfascicular cambium 119. Number of chromosomes in a gamete and PEN of
rice is
(3) Cork and secondary phloem
(1) 24, 36 (2) 7, 21
(4) Bark and vascular cambium
(3) 12, 36 (4) 14, 42
114. Find odd one out w.r.t. ethylene functions
120. Inheritance of genetic trait in given pedigree chart is
(1) Rapid internode elongation in deep water rice controlled by
plants
(2) Initiates flowering and synchronising fruit set in
pineapples
(3) Thinning of fruits like cherry, walnut and cotton
(4) Lateral shoot growth and adventitious shoot
formation
115. Find correct match w.r.t. PGRs
(1) Autosomal recessive gene
Column-I Column-II
(2) Allosomal dominant gene
a. Brewing industry (i) Auxin
(3) Holandric gene
b. Weed-free lawns (ii) CK
(4) Autosomal dominant gene
c. Richmond Lang’s effect (iii) Ethylene
121. Grasshopper is an example of ____ type of sex
d. Flowering in mango (iv) GA3 determination
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (1) XX – XY (2) XX – XO
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (3) ZZ – ZW (4) ZZ – ZO
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Home Assignment-8 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
122. Klinefelter syndrome is related with all, except 130. Select a correct match
(1) A chromosomal disorder Interaction type Species ‘A’ Species ‘B’
(2) Karyotype of 44 + XXY (1) Competition + –
(3) Gynaecomastia (2) Predation – –
(4) Fertile males (3) Mutualism + –
123. Read the statements carefully and find set of correct (4) Amensalism – 0
statements 131. What is represented by the given pyramid of age?
(A) – phage has 48502 bp
(B) The feature of base pairing was one of the
Hallmarks of Watson and Crick model
(C) Two chains in DNA are parallel to each other
(1) A declining population
(D) Sugar and base form the backbone of DNA
(2) A stable population
(1) B, D (2) B, C
(3) An expanding population
(3) A, C (4) A, B
(4) A growing population
124. Choose odd one out w.r.t. enzymes involved in post
132. Which is incorrect statement w.r.t. GFC or predator
transcriptional processing
food chain?
(1) Guanyl transferase (2) Ribonuclease-P
(1) Major conduit for energy flow in aquatic system
(3) SnRNPs (4) Translocase
(2) Begins with producers
125. The lactose operon of E.coli
(3) Based on energy got from sun
(1) Consists of one regulatory gene ‘i’
(4) Size of organisms finally reduces at higher
(2) Consists of five structural genes trophic level
(3) Is always regulated negatively 133. Examples of areas where secondary succession
(4) Synthesises lactose from glucose and galactose occurs are

126. Explant used to prepare virus free plants is (1) Abandoned farmlands, newly cooled lava, bare
rock
(1) Internodal segment
(2) Burned or cut forests, lands that have been
(2) Apical and axillary meristem flooded
(3) Root segment (3) Bare rock, newly created pond or reservoir
(4) Fruit (4) Newly created pond, lands that have been
127. Choose the correct option w.r.t. IR-8 flooded
(1) Semi-dwarf wheat variety 134. Select correct set of statements w.r.t. biodiversity
(2) Developed at IARI, New Delhi a. Diversity increases from lower to higher latitude.
(3) Maize variety developed in Mexico b. The most important cause of biodiversity loss is
habitat loss.
(4) Semi-dwarf rice variety
c. The IUCN Red list documents the extinction of
128. Choose incorrectly matched pair
87 plants species in the last 500 years.
(1) Butyric acid – Clostridium
d. Indigenous plants of aquatic habitat are
(2) Cyclosporin A – Monascus eliminated by exotic species Clarias.
(3) Large holed – Propionibacterium (1) b & c (2) a & d
swiss cheese sharmanii (3) a & c (4) c & d
(4) Butter milk – Lactobacillus acidophilus 135. Find odd one out w.r.t. ex-situ conservation
129. Aerobic secondary treatment is given until techniques
(1) BOD is increased (1) Zoological park
(2) BOD is decreased (2) National park
(3) The water is purified for domestic supply (3) Wild life safaries
(4) Biogas is produced (4) Tissue culture

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Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-8

ZOOLOGY
136. Our population which was approximately 350 million Which of the following factors shift the given graph
at the time of our independence reached close to the towards left side?
billion mark by 2000 and crossed one billion in May
(1) High pCO 2 and H + ion concentration, high
2000. What are the probable reasons for this?
temperature
a. Rapid decline in death rate.
(2) Low pCO 2 and H + ion concentration, high
b. Decreased maternal mortality rate. temperature
c. Decreased infant mortality rate. (3) High pCO 2 and H + ion concentration, low
d. Increased health facilities. temperature
(1) a only (2) a & b only (4) Low pCO 2 and H + ion concentration, low
(3) a, b & c only (4) a, b, c & d temperature

137. Which of the following statements is correct w.r.t. 141. Complete the following analogy
events of embryonic development? Sponge : Archaeocytes : Hydra :
(1) In human beings, after three months of (1) Cnidoblasts (2) Nematocysts
pregnancy, the embryo’s heart is formed
(3) Interstitial cells (4) Choanocytes
(2) The first sign of growing foetus is the
development of body hair and eyelids 142. The general body plan, body symmetry and coelom
are similar in
(3) The first movement of the foetus and appearance
of hair on head are usually observed during fifth (1) Porifera and Coelenterate
month (2) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes
(4) By the end of 1st trimester, the body is covered by (3) Annelida and Arthropoda
fine hair, eyelids separate and eyelashes are formed
(4) Coelenterata and Echinodermata
138. A useful drug that damages gastric mucosa if it is
taken along with alcohol is 143. If the systolic blood pressure is 130 mm of Hg and
diastolic pressure is 70 mm of Hg, what will be the
(1) Antihistamine (2) Barbiturate mean arterial blood pressure?
(3) Aspirin (4) Morphine
(1) 90 mm of Hg (2) 100 mm of Hg
139. A person who has recovered from an attack of
(3) 60 mm of Hg (4) 50 mm of Hg
chicken pox or mumps develops
144. Which of the following statements is/are correct
(1) Naturally acquired passive immunity
w.r.t. counter current mechanism?
(2) Naturally acquired active immunity
a. The flow of filtrate in two limbs of Henle’s loop
(3) Artificially acquired active immunity is in opposite directions and thus forms a
(4) Artificially acquired passive immunity counter current.
140. Given below is an oxygen dissociation curve b. It helps in maintaining an increasing
osmolarity towards the inner medullary
interstitium i.e., 1200 mosm L –1 in inner
medulla and 300 mosm L–1 in cortex.
c. The gradient is mainly due to NaCl and urea.
d. Small amount of urea enters the thick segment
of ascending limb of loop of Henle which is
transported back to interstitium by collecting
tubules.
(1) a only
(2) a & b only
(3) a, b & c only
(4) a, b, c & d
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Home Assignment-8 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
145. Which of the following bones is not a constituent of 149. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. animal
appendicular skeleton? breeding
(1) Coxal bone (2) Scapula (1) Inbreeding refers to the mating of more
closely related individuals within the same
(3) Humerus (4) Frontal breed for 4–6 generations
146. Which of the following is not a correct statement (2) Inbreeding decreases homozygosity
w.r.t. the joint diastole in cardiac cycle? (3) Continuous inbreeding especially close
(1) The blood flows from the great veins into the inbreeding usually reduces fertility and even
atria and from atria into the respective ventricles productivity
as AV valves remain open (4) A single outcross often helps to overcome
inbreeding depression
(2) There is no flow of blood from ventricles to aorta
and pulmonary artery 150. All the given statements are correct except one. Mark
the exception
(3) At the beginning there is a rapid closure of
(1) The first cellular forms of life did not possibly
semilunar valves produce a sound ‘dup’ originate till about 2000 million years ago
(4) At the end, rapid closure of AV valves produce (2) The first non-cellular forms of life could have
a louder sound ‘lubb’ originated 3 billion years back.
147. In polymerase chain reaction, multiple copies of the (3) The process of evolution of different species in a
gene of interest are synthesized in vitro using two given geographical area starting from a point and
sets of primers and the thermostable enzyme DNA literally radiating to other areas of geography is
polymerase. This thermostable is DNA polymerase called convergent evolution
isolated from (4) There would be a gene flow if the gene migration
happens multiple times
(1) Thermoplasma
151. Which of the following are the two key concepts of
(2) Thermus proteus Darwinian theory of evolution?
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (1) Mutation and adaptive ability
(4) Thermus aquaticus (2) Fitness and genetic drift
148. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of (3) Gene migration and natural selection
recombinant DNA technology (4) Branching descent and natural selection
152. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. cancer
Foreign DNA Vector
DNA
(plasmid) (1) Ionizing radiations like X-rays and gamma rays
and non-ionizing radiations like UV rays cause
A B DNA damage leading to neoplastic
transformation
(2) Several genes called cellular oncogenes (c-onc)
Joining of
foreign DNA C or proto oncogenes have been identified in
to plasmid normal cell, which when inactivated could lead to
oncogenic transformation of cells
(3) Benign tumours normally remain confined to their
original location and do not spread to other parts
D
of the body
E.coli (4) As cancerous cells actively divide and grow,
Cells divide they also starve the normal cell by competing
for vital nutrients
153. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. cyclostomes
Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D
(1) They have an elongated body bearing 6-15 pairs
A B C D of gill slits for respiration
(1) EcoR I Sal I DNA ligase Transformation (2) They have a sucking and circular mouth with well
developed jaws
(2) Sal I EcoR I DNA polymerase Transformation
(3) Their body is devoid of scales and paired fins
(3) EcoR I EcoR I DNA polymerase Transformation
(4) All living members of class Cyclostomata are
(4) EcoR I EcoR I DNA ligase Transformation ectoparasite on fishes
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Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-8
154. The walls of blood vessels and alveoli of lungs are
involved in a functions like forming a diffusion
boundary, which is made of
e.
(1) Smooth muscle fibers
(2) A single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular HO
boundaries When one has to perform a chemical analysis, which
(3) A single layer of tall and slender cells of the following organic compounds will be present in
filtrate/acid solute pool?
(4) Two or more layers of flattened cells with
irregular boundaries (1) a, b & c only (2) a, b & d only
155. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of (3) a, b & e only (4) c & e only
alimentary canal of cockroach. 157. With the rise/increase in substrate concentration, the
rate of enzymatic reaction
(1) Increases continuously
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains unaffected
(4) Increases at first, reaching a maximum velocity
X which is not exceeded by any further rise in
concentration of the substrate
Identify the structure labelled as ‘X’ and choose the 158. Following is a diagram which represents the duct
correct option w.r.t. it system of liver, gall bladder and pancreas.
(1) It is a ring of 6–8 blind tubules called hepatic or
gastric caecae present at the junction of foregut B
and midgut
(2) It secretes digestive juices which help in the C
digestion of various food components in midgut
A
(3) ‘X’ is present as a ring of 100–150 tubules called
malpighian tubules at the junction of foregut and
midgut
(4) ‘X’ is malpighian tubules which help in removal
of excretory products from the hemolymph of
cockroach
156. Given below are the diagrammatic representations of
organic compounds in living tissue
D
COOH Choose the correct option w.r.t. structures labelled
a. H – C – NH2 as A, B, C, and D
CH2 –OH (1) Duct ‘A’ is guarded by a sphincter called
sphincter of Oddi
O
(2) Duct ‘D’ is guarded by a sphincter called
HN
b. sphincter of Boyden
O N
H (3) ‘C’ is ductus choledochus which carries the bile
juice from liver to gall bladder
O
CH2 – O – C – R1 (4) ‘B’ is a muscular sac which is related with the
O
storage and concentration of bile juice
c. R2 – C – O – CH O
159. Partial pressure of CO2 in inspired and expired air
CH2 – O – C – R3 are____ and ____ respectively
CH2OH
(1) 159 and 116 mm of Hg
O H
H
H (2) 40 and 45 mm of Hg
d. OH H (3) 0.3 and 45 mm of Hg
OH OH
H OH (4) 0.3 and 32 mm of Hg
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Home Assignment-8
160. Which of the following makes decisions regarding the
validity of GM research and the safety of introducing
GM organisms for public services?
(1) Genetic engineering Approval committee
(2) Indian patent bills
(3) Food and drug administration
(4) US patent and trademark office
161. In plasmid vector, origin of replication is a sequence
from where the replication starts. This sequence is
also responsible for
(1) Identification of transformants
(2) Elimination of nontransformants
(3) Controlling the copy number of linked DNA
(4) Selectively permitting the growth of the
transformants
162. Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in
Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams.
It is an example of
(1) Inbreeding
Mock Test for NEET - 2020
166. Infertility cases either due to inability of the male
partner to inseminate the female or due to very low
sperm count in the ejaculate could be corrected by
which of the following assisted reproductive
technologies, in which fertilisation occurs in female
body?
a Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)
b Intra uterine transfer (IUT)
c Artificial insemination (AI)
d Intra uterine insemination (IUI)
(1) a & b (2) b only
(3) c only (4) c & d
167. Which of the following is ideal contraceptive for the
females who want to delay pregnancy and/or space
children and is also one of the most widely accepted
method of contraception in India?
(1) Barrier method (2) Intra uterine device
(3) Oral contraceptives (4) Implants
168. Given below are the examples of annelida phylum
marked as A and B

(2) Out crossing

(3) Cross breeding
(4) Interspecific breeding
163. Match the diseases in column I with the appropriate
pathogens in column II
A. B.
Column I Column II
a. Typhoid (i) Haemophilus influenzae
b. Pneumonia (ii) Rhino virus
Choose the correct option w.r.t. A and B
c. Common cold (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti
(1) Locomotory structures in A are parapodia while
d. Elephantiasis (iv) Salmonella typhi in B are setae
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) A is a marine free living form while B is terrestrial
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) and free living

(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (3) A has double ventral nerve cord while B has
double dorsal nerve cord
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(4) A is dioecious while B is monoecious
164. Which of the following dinosaur was about 20 feet in
height and had huge fearsome dagger like teeth? 169. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Aves
(birds)?
(1) Triceratops (2) Brachiosaurus
(1) Presence of feathers and most of them can fly
(3) Stegosaurus (4) Tyrannosaurus
(2) Forelimbs are modified into wings and hind
165. After spermiogenesis, sperm heads become limbs have scales
embedded in Sertoli cells, and are finally released
(3) Endoskeleton is fully ossified (bony) and the
from seminiferous tubules by the process called __.
long bones are hollow with air cavities
(1) Decapacitation (2) Capacitation
(4) Fertilisation is external and are oviparous with
(3) Spermiation (4) Spermatocytogenesis direct development
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Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-8
170. Given below are some characteristics of a muscle 174. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of a
tissue portion of glycogen
a. Tapers at both end
b. Functioning cannot be voluntarily controlled
c. Do not show striations
Identify the muscle tissue and choose the correct A
option w.r.t. location of this type of muscle tissue
CH2OH CH2OH
(1) Neck and back O O O
OH OH
(2) Myocardium of heart wall O O OH
OH OH
(3) Wall of blood vessels
Identify the linkage / type of bonding present at the
(4) Thigh labelled portion A. Which of the following
171. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. origin carbohydrates has the same type of bonding as
present in ‘A’?
(1) Astrocytes (2) Oligodendrocytes
(1) Lactose
(3) Microglial cell (4) Neuron
(2) Maltose
172. Which of the following cell junctions help to stop
substances from leaking across cells of a tissue? (3) Cellulose
(1) Tight junction (2) Gap junction (4) Inulin
(3) Adhering junction (4) Desmosome 175. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. protein and its
function
173. Given below is a figure that indicates the external
features of cockroach Protein Function
(1) Collagen Intercellular ground substance
C (2) Ptyalin Protein digesting enzyme
D
(3) Antibody Fights infectious agents
A
(4) GLUT-4 Enables glucose transport
into cells
176. Given below is a reaction catalysed by enzyme Z.
B
X Y
Z
Choose the correct option w.r.t. the features of the C–C X–Y+C=C
structures labelled A, B, C, and D Choose the correct option w.r.t. the category of
enzyme Z.
(1) A – Tegmia – Transparent,
membranous wings (1) Oxidoreductase
used in flight
(2) Transferase
(2) B – Anal styles – Jointed filamentous
(3) Lyase
structures present in
males but absent in (4) Hydrolase
females
177. The atrial wall of our heart secretes a very important
(3) C – Compound eye – With the help of several peptide hormone called ______, which _____
ommatidia, a cockroach because it causes dilation of the blood vessels.
can receive several Choose the option which correctly fills the blank.
images of an object
known as mosaic vision (1) Renin, increases the blood pressure
with more senstivity and (2) Angiotensinogen, decreases the blood pressure
less resolution, being
common during night. (3) Atrial natriuretic factor, increases the blood
pressure
(4) D – Fore wing – Dark, opaque and
leathery which are used (4) Atrial natriuretic factor, decreases the blood
in flight pressure
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Home Assignment-8 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
178. Which of the following is not a function of (1) a, b, c & d only
glucocorticoids?
(2) a, b & c only
(1) Produce anti-inflammatory reaction
(3) a, b, c, d & e only
(2) Suppresse the immune response
(4) a, b, c, d, e & f
(3) Stimulate the RBC production
180. The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in
(4) Inhibit gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis
after a forced expiration is
179. Monosynaptic reflex arc present in knee jerk reflex
includes (1) IC + ERV

a. Efferent neuron b. Afferent neuron (2) EC + IRV

c. A part of CNS d. Receptor (3) TV + ERV

e. Effector f. Interneuron (4) Both (1) & (2)

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Edition: 2020-21