YCT NEET, JEE MAIN Chemistry Volume-1

All India Medical & Engineering Entrance Examination
NEET/JEE (Main)
CHEMISTRY
Previous Years
Chapterwise Objective
Solved Papers
VOLUME-I
Useful for : NEET/AIPMT, AIIMS, JEE (Main), AMU, AP EAMCET (Medical), AP EAMCET (Engg.),
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TS-EAMCET (Engg.), UPCPMT, UPTU, UPSEE, UPSC NDA/NA, VITEEE, WEST BENGAL JEE.
Chief Editor
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INDEX
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry ...........................................................................................................21-141
Significant figures, Units for Measurement ................................................................................................ 21
Atomic, Molecular and Equivalent Masses .................................................................................................. 24
Mole Concept and Molar Mass .................................................................................................................... 42
Laws of Chemical Combinations ............................................................................................................... 102
Percentage Composition and Molecular Formula ....................................................................................... 109
Stoichiometry Calculation. .......................................................................................................................... 136
Empirical Formula for Molecular Formula. ................................................................................................ 141
Structure of Atom .....................................................................................................................................142-249
Atomic Number, Mass Number, Atomic Species ...................................................................................... 142
Atomic Models ............................................................................................................................................ 155
Dual Nature of Electron .............................................................................................................................. 158
Uncertainty Principle ................................................................................................................................... 180
Schrodinger Wave Equation ........................................................................................................................ 189
Electronic Configuration and Shape of Orbital's. ........................................................................................ 194
Quantum Number ........................................................................................................................................ 208
Bohr's Model for Hydrogen Atom............................................................................................................... 225
Isobars and Isotopes .................................................................................................................................... 246
Line Spectrum of Hydrogen ........................................................................................................................ 246
Filling of Orbital’s in atom .......................................................................................................................... 248
Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties ......................................................................250-301
Valency and Oxidation State. ...................................................................................................................... 250
Periodic Laws .............................................................................................................................................. 254
Atomic and Ionic Radii ............................................................................................................................... 263
Electro negativity ........................................................................................................................................ 273
Ionization Energy ....................................................................................................................................... 278
Electron Affinity ........................................................................................................................................ 296
Nomenclature of Elements with Atomic Number > 100 ............................................................................. 301
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure ..........................................................................................302-437
Hybridization ............................................................................................................................................... 302
VSEPR theory ............................................................................................................................................. 318
Magnetic behavior of Molecules ................................................................................................................. 349
Bond order, Bond Length, Bond Angle, Bond Energy................................................................................ 357
Fajan's Rule ................................................................................................................................................. 388
Dipole moment ............................................................................................................................................ 401
Hydrogen Bonding ...................................................................................................................................... 412
Ionic, Covalent and Coordinate Bonding .................................................................................................... 418
Molecular Orbital Theory ............................................................................................................................ 425
Formal Charge ............................................................................................................................................ 431
Valence Bond Theory.................................................................................................................................. 432
Types of Overlapping and Nature of Covalent Bonds................................................................................. 433
Application of Molecular orbital Theory .................................................................................................... 437
States of Matter ........................................................................................................................................438-515
The Gas Laws .............................................................................................................................................. 438
Ideal Gas Equation and Related Gas Laws. ................................................................................................. 458
Real Gases .................................................................................................................................................. 488
Kinetics Molecular Theory of Gases and Molecular Collisions ............................................................... 497
Molecular Speeds. ....................................................................................................................................... 505
Liquefaction of Gases. ................................................................................................................................. 514
Intermolecular Forces ................................................................................................................................. 515
Behavior of Real Gases : Deviation From ideal Gas Behavior ................................................................... 515
Thermodynamics ......................................................................................................................................516-640
Thermodynamics Terms .............................................................................................................................. 516
First Law of Thermodynamics and Application ........................................................................................ 565
Second Law of Thermodynamics and Entropy ........................................................................................... 578
Heat of Reaction .......................................................................................................................................... 582
Bond Energy................................................................................................................................................ 625
Gibbs Energy Change and Equilibrium ....................................................................................................... 631
Enthalpy and standard Enthalpies For Different Types of Reaction ........................................................... 639
2
Chemical Equilibrium ...............................................................................................................................641-721
Law of Chemical Equilibrium and Equilibrium Constant. .......................................................................... 641
Law of Mass Action .................................................................................................................................... 668
Activation Energy, Standard free Energy ................................................................................................... 671
Degree of Dissociation ............................................................................................................................... 673
Vapour Density .......................................................................................................................................... 687
Le-Chatelier Principle and It's Application ................................................................................................ 687
Application of Kp and Kc ............................................................................................................................. 695
Relation Between Equilibrium Constant (K), Reaction Quient (Q) and Gibb's Energy ............................. 718
Ionic Equilibrium .....................................................................................................................................722-822
Arrhenius Theory ....................................................................................................................................... 722
Solubility and Solubility Product Constant .............................................................................................. 724
Acid, Bases and Salts ................................................................................................................................. 751
Buffer Solution ........................................................................................................................................... 772
Hydrogen Ion Concentration - pH Scale ..................................................................................................... 781
Common Ion Effect ..................................................................................................................................... 820
Redox Reactions ........................................................................................................................................823-858
Oxidation Number and Oxidation State ..................................................................................................... 823
Redox Reaction, Types of Redox Reaction ................................................................................................. 841
Method for Balancing Redox Reaction ....................................................................................................... 854
Oxidising and Reducing Agent ................................................................................................................... 857
Hydrogen ....................................................................................................................................................859-877
Heavy water................................................................................................................................................. 859
Hydrogen peroxide ...................................................................................................................................... 861
Properties of Hydrogen ............................................................................................................................... 867
Hardness of Water ...................................................................................................................................... 875
The Main Group Elements .....................................................................................................................878-1060
Alkali Metals .............................................................................................................................................. 878
Alkaline Earth Metals ................................................................................................................................. 897
Boron Family .............................................................................................................................................. 921
Carbon Family ............................................................................................................................................ 940
Allotropes of Carbon ................................................................................................................................... 954
Nitrogen Family ......................................................................................................................................... 964
Oxygen Family .......................................................................................................................................... 1002
Halogen Family ........................................................................................................................................ 1025
Noble Gases .............................................................................................................................................. 1048
Hydrocarbons .......................................................................................................................................1061-1165
Alkanes ...................................................................................................................................................... 1061
Alkenes ...................................................................................................................................................... 1095
Alkynes ..................................................................................................................................................... 1137
Hybridisation ............................................................................................................................................. 1155
Structure of Benzene ................................................................................................................................. 1165
Environmental Chemistry ...................................................................................................................1166-1185
Water Pollution ........................................................................................................................................ 1166
Air Pollution .............................................................................................................................................. 1170
Types of Pollution and Pollutants ............................................................................................................. 1176
Layer of Atmosphere ................................................................................................................................. 1182
Green Chemistry ....................................................................................................................................... 1184
The Solid State ......................................................................................................................................1186-1248
Amorphous and Crystalline Solids ............................................................................................................ 1186
Crystal Structure ........................................................................................................................................ 1189
Classification of Crystalline Solid ............................................................................................................. 1211
Packing Efficiency .................................................................................................................................... 1212
Defects in Crystal ...................................................................................................................................... 1221
Bragg's Equation ....................................................................................................................................... 1230
Density of Unit Cell .................................................................................................................................. 1231
Closed Packed structure ........................................................................................................................... 1239
Electrical Properties ................................................................................................................................. 1248
3
....
SYLLABUS
UNIT : VII Equilibrium
NEET Equilibrium in physical and chemical processes, dynamic
th nature of equilibrium, law of chemical equilibrium,
CLASS 11 equilibrium constant, factors affecting equilibrium-Le
UNIT : I Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Chatelier’s principle, ionic equilibrium- ionization of
General Introduction Importance and scope of chemistry. acids and bases, strong and weak electrolytes, degree of
Laws of chemical combination, Dalton’s atomic theory ionization, ionization of polybasic acids, acid strength,
concept of elements, atoms and molecules. Atomic and concept of pH, Hydrolysis of salts (elementary idea),
molecular masses. Mole concept and molar mass, buffer solutions, Henderson equation, solubility product,
percentage composition and empirical and molecular common ion effect (with illustrative examples).
formula, chemical reactions, stoichiometry and UNIT : VIII Redox Reactions
calculations based on stoichiometry. Concept of oxidation and reduction, redox reaction
UNIT : II Structure of Atom oxidation number, balancing redox in terms of loss and
Atomic number, isotopes and isobars. Concept of shells gain of electron and change in oxidation numbers.
and subshells, dual nature of matter and light, de- UNIT : IX Hydrogen
Broglie’s relationship, Heisenberg’s uncertainty Occurrence, isotopes, preparation, properties and uses of
principle, concept of orbital, quantum numbers, shapes hydrogen, hydrides–ionic, covalent and interstitial,
of s, p and d orbitals, rules for filling electrons in orbitals physical and chemical properties of water, heavy water,
– Aufbau principle, Pauli exclusion principles and hydrogen peroxide-preparation, reaction, uses and
Hund’s rule, electronic configuration of atoms, stability structure.
of half–filled and completely filled orbitals. UNIT : X s-Block Elements (Alkali and Alkaline
UNIT : III Classification of Elements and Earth Metals)
Periodicity in Properties Group 1 and group 2 elements General introduction,
Modern periodic law and long form of periodic table, electronic configuration, occurrence, anomalous
periodic trends in properties of elements–atomic radii, properties of the first element of each group, diagonal
ionic radii, ionization enthalpy, electron gain enthalpy, relationship, trends in the variation of properties (such as
electronegativity, valence. ionization enthalpy, atomic and ionic radii), trends in
UNIT : IV Chemical Bonding and Molecular chemical reactive with oxygen, water hydrogen and
halogens, uses. Preparation and Properties of Some
Structure important Compounds. Sodium carbonate, sodium
Valence electrons, ionic bond, covalent bond, bond chloride, sodium hydroxide and sodium
parameters, Lewis structure, polar character of covalent hydrogencarbonate, biological importance of sodium and
bond, valence bond theory, resonance, geometry of potassium. Industrial use of lime an limestone, biological
molecules, VSEPR theory, concept of hybridization importance of Mg and Ca.
involving s, p and d orbitals and shapes of some simple UNIT : XI Some p–Block Elements
molecules, molecular orbital theory of homonuclear General Introduction to p-Block Elements.
diatomic molecules (qualitative idea only). Hydrogen bond.
Group 13 elements General Introduction, electronic
UNIT : V States of Matter : Gases and Liquids configuration, occurrence, variation of properties,
The states of matter, intermolecular interactions, types of oxidation states, trends in chemical reactivity, anomalous
bonding, melting and boiling points, role of gas laws of properties of first element of the group; Boron, some
elucidating the concept of the molecule, Boyle’s law, important compounds borax, boric acids, boron hydrides.
Charles’ law, Gay Lussac’s law, Avogadro’s law, ideal Aluminium, uses reactions with acids and alkalies.
behavior of gases, empirical derivation of gas equation. General 14 elements General introduction, electronic
Avogadro number, ideal gas equation. Kinetic energy configuration, occurrence, variation of properties,
and molecular speeds (elementary idea), deviation from oxidation states, trends in chemical reactivity, anomalous
ideal behavior, liquefaction of gases, critical temperature. behaviour of first element. Carbon, allotropic forms,
Liquid State –Vapour pressure, viscosity and surface physical and chemical properties, uses of some important
tension (qualitative idea only, no mathematical compounds, oxides.
derivations). Important compounds of silicon and a few uses, silicon
UNIT : VI Thermodynamics tetrachloride, silicones, silicates and zeolites, their uses.
First law of thermodynamics internal energy and UNIT : XII Organic Chemistry – Some Basic
enthalpy, heat capacity and specific heat, measurement Principles and Techniques
of U and H, Hess’s law of constant heat summation, General introduction, methods of purification qualitative
enthalpy of : bond dissociation, combustion, formation, and quantitative analysis, classification and IUPAC
atomization, sublimation, phase transition, ionization, nomenclature of organic compounds. Electronic
solution and dilution. Introduction of entropy as state displacements in a covalent bond: inductive effect,
function, Second law of thermodynamics Gibbs’ energy electromeric effect, resonance and hyper conjugation.
change for spontaneous and non–spontaneous process, Homolytic and heterolytic fission of a covalent bond free
criteria for equilibrium and spontaneity. Third law of radials, carbocations, carbanions, electrophiles and
thermodynamics Brief introduction. nucleophiles, types of organic reactions.
4
UNIT : XIII Hydrocarbons UNIT : IV Chemical Kinetics
Alkanes Nomenclature, isomerism, conformations Rate of a reaction (average and instantaneous), factors
(ethane only), physical properties, chemical reactions affecting rates of reaction, concentration, temperature,
including free radical mechanism of halogenations, catalyst, order and molecularity of a reaction, rate law
combustion and pyrolysis. Alkenes Nomenclature, and specific rate constant, integrated rate equations and
structure of double bond (ethene), geometrical half-life (only for zero and first order reactions), concept
isomerism, physical properties, methods of preparation, of collision theory (elementary idea, no mathematical
chemical reactions, addition of hydrogen, halogen, water, treatment). Activation energy, Arrhenious equation.
hydrogen halides (Markovnikov’s addition and peroxide UNIT : V Surface Chemistry
effect), ozonolysis, oxidation, mechanism of Adsorption physisorption and chemisorptions, factors
electrophilic addition. affecting adsorption of gases on solids, catalysis
homogeneous and heterogeneous, activity and
Alkynes Nomenclature, structure of triple bond (ethyne), selectivity, enzyme catalysis, colloidal state, distinction
physical properties, methods of preparation, chemical between true solutions, colloids and suspensions,
reactions, acidic character of alkynes, addition reaction lyophillic, lyophobic multimolecular and
of – hydrogen, halogens, hydrogen halides and water. macromolecular colloids, properties of colloids, Tyndall
Aromatic hydrocarbons Introduction, IUPAC effect, Brownian movement, electrophoresis,
nomenclature, Benzene, resonance, aromaticity, coagulation, emulsions – types of emulsions.
chemical properties, mechanism of electrophilic UNIT : VI General Principles and Processes of
substitution – Nitration sulphonation, halogenations, Isolation of Elements
Friedel Craft’s alkylation and acylation, directive Principles and methods of extraction concentration,
influence of functional group in mono–substituted oxidation, reduction electrolytic method and refining,
benzene, carcinogenicity and toxicity. occurrence and principles of extraction of aluminium,
UNIT : XIV Environmental Chemistry copper, zinc and iron,
Environmental pollution Air, water and soil pollution, UNIT : VII p-Block Elements
chemical reactions in atmosphere, smogs, major Group 15 elements General introduction, electronic
atmospheric pollutants, acid rain ozone and its reactions, configuration, occurrence, oxidation states, trends in
effects of depletion of ozone layer, greenhouse effect and physical and chemical properties, preparation and
global warming–pollution due to industrial wastes, green properties of ammonia and nitric acid, oxides of nitrogen
chemistry as an alternative tool for reducing pollution, (structure only), phosphorous allotropic forms,
strategy for control of environmental pollution. compounds of phosphorous, preparation and properties
of phosphine, halides (PCl3, PCl5) and oxoacids
CLASS 12th (elementary idea only).
UNIT : I Solid State Group 16 elements General introduction, electronic
Classification of solids based on different binding forces, configuration, oxidation states, occurrence, trends in
molecular, ionic covalent and metallic solids, amorphous physical and chemical properties, dioxygen, preparation,
and crystalline solids (elementary idea), unit cell in two properties and uses, classification of oxides, ozone.
dimensional and three dimensional lattices, calculation of Sulphur allotropic forms, compounds of sulphur,
density of unit cell, packing in solids, packing efficiency, preparation, properties and uses of sulphur dioxide,
sulphuric acid, industrial process of manufacture,
voids, number of atoms per unit cell in a cubic unit cell,
properties and uses, oxoacids of sulphur (structures
point defects, electrical and magnetic properties, Band only).
theory of metals, conductors, semiconductors and Group 17 elements General introduction, electronic
insulators. configuration, oxidation states occurrence, trends in
UNIT : II Solutions physical and chemical properties, compounds of
Types of solutions, expression of concentration of halogens, preparation, properties and uses of chlorine
solutions of solids in liquids, solubility of gases in and hydrochloric acid, interhalogen compounds oxoacids
liquids, solid solutions, colligative properties- relative of halogens (structures only).
lowering of vapour pressure, Raoult's law, elevation of Group 18 elements General introduction, electronic
boiling point, depression of freezing point, osmotic configuration, occurrence, trends in physical and
pressure, determination of molecular masses using chemical properties, uses.
colligative properties abnormal molecular mass. Van UNIT : VIII d-and f-Block Elements
Hoff factor. General introduction, electronic configuration,
UNIT : III Electrochemistry characteristics of transition metals, general trends in
properties of the first row transition metals metallic
Redox reactions, conductance in electrolytic solutions, character, ionization enthalpy, oxidation states, ionic
specific and molar conductivity variation of conductivity radii, colour, catalytic property, magnetic properties,
with concentration, Kohlrausch's Law, electrolysis and interstitial compounds, alloy formation. Preparation and
Laws of electrolysis (elementary idea), dry cell- properties of K2Cr2O7 and KMnO4. Lanthanoids
electrolytic cells and Galvanic cells; lead accumulator, electronic configuration, oxidation states, chemical
EMF of a cell, standard electrode potential, Relation reactivity and lanthanoid contraction and its
between Gibb's energy change and EMF of a cell, fuel consequences. Actinoids Electronic configuration,
cells, corrosion. oxidation states and comparison with lanthanoids.
5
UNIT : XI Coordination Compounds UNIT : XVI Chemistry in Everyday Life
Coordination compounds Introduction, ligands, Chemicals in medicines analgesics, tranquilizers,
coordination number, colour, magnetic properties and antiseptics, disinfectants, antimicrobials, antifertility
shapes, IUPAC nomenclature of mononuclear drugs, antibiotics, antacids, antihistamines. Chemicals in
coordination compounds, isomerism (structural and food preservatives, artificial sweetening agents,
stereo) bonding, Werner's theory VBT, CFT, importance elementary idea of antioxidants. Cleansing agents soaps
of coordination compounds (in qualitative analysis, and detergents, cleansing action.
biological systems).
UNIT : X Haloalkanes and Haloarenes JEE (Main)
Haloalkanes Nomenclature, nature of C–X bond, Section-A (Physical Chemistry)
physical and chemical properties, mechanism of
substitution reactions. Optical rotation. Haloarenes Unit : I Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
Nature of C–X bond, substitution reactions (directive Matter and its nature, Dalton's atomic theory; Concept of
influence of halogen for mono substituted compounds atom, molecule, element and compound; Physical
only). Uses and environment effects of – quantities and their measurements in Chemistry,
dichloromethane, trichloromethane, tetra chloromethane, precision and accuracy, significant figures, S.I. Units,
iodoform, freons, DDT. dimensional analysis; Laws of chemical combination;
Atomic and molecular masses, mole concept, molar
UNIT : XI Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers mass, percentage composition, empirical and molecular
Alcohols Nomenclature, methods of preparation, formulae; Chemical equations and stoichiometry.
physical and chemical properties (of primary alcohols
only), identification of primary, secondary and tertiary Unit : II States of Matter
alcohols, mechanism of dehydration, uses with special Classification of matter into solid, liquid and gaseous
reference to methanol and ethanol. Phenols, states.
Nomenclature, methods of preparation, physical and Gaseous State Measurable properties of gases; Gas laws
chemical properties, acidic nature of phenol, - Boyle's law, Charle's law, Graham's law of diffusion,
electrophillic substitution reactions, uses of phenols. Avogadro's law, Dalton's law of partial pressure;
Ethers, Nomenclature, methods of preparation, physical Concept of Absolute scale of temperature; Ideal gas
and chemical properties uses. equation, Kinetic theory of gases (only postulates);
UNIT : XII Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Concept of average, root mean square and most probable
velocities; Real gases, deviation from Ideal behaviour,
Acids compressibility factor, Van der Waal's Equation,
Aldehydes and Ketones Nomenclature, nature of liquefaction of gases, critical constants.
carbonyl group, methods of preparation, physical and Liquid State Properties of liquids - vapour pressure,
chemical properties, and mechanism of nucleophilic viscosity and surface tension and effect of temperature
addition, reactivity of alpha hydrogen in aldehydes, uses. on them (qualitative treatment only).
Carboxylic Acids Nomenclature, acidic nature, methods
Solid State Classification of solids: molecular, ionic,
of preparation, physical and chemical properties, uses.
covalent and metallic solids, amorphous and crystalline
UNIT : XIII Organic compounds Containing solids (elementary idea); Bragg's Law and its
Nitrogen applications, Unit cell and lattices, packing in solids (fcc,
Amines Nomenclature, classification, structure, methods bcc and hcp lattices), voids, calculations involving unit
of preparation, physical and chemical properties, uses, cell parameters, imperfection in solids; electrical,
identification of primary secondary and tertiary amines. magnetic and dielectric properties.
Cyanides and Isocyanides will be mentioned at relevant Unit : III Atomic Structure
places. Diazonium salts Preparation, chemical reactions Discovery of sub-atomic particles (electron, proton and
and importance in synthetic organic chemistry. neutron); Thomson and Rutherford atomic models and
UNIT : XIV Biomolecules their limitations; Nature of electromagnetic radiation,
Carbohydrates Classification (aldoses and ketoses), photoelectric effect; spectrum of hydrogen atom, Bohr
monosaccharide (glucose and fructose), D.L. model of hydrogen atom - its postulates, derivation of the
configuration, oligosaccharides (sucrose, lactose, relations for energy of the electron and radii of the
maltose), polysaccharides (starch, cellulose, glycogen): different orbits, limitations of Bohr's model; dual nature
importance. Proteins Elementary idea of – amino acids, of matter, de-Broglie's relationship, Heisenberg
peptide bonds, polypeptides, proteins, primary structure, uncertainty principle.
secondary structure, tertiary structure and quaternary Elementary ideas of quantum mechanics, quantum
structure (qualitative idea only), denaturation of proteins, mechanical model of atom, its important features, ψ and
enzymes. Hormones Elementary idea (excluding ψ2, concept of atomic orbitals as one electron wave
structure). Vitamins Classification and function. Nucleic functions; Variation of ψ and ψ2 with r for 1s and 2s
Acids DNA and RNA orbitals; various quantum numbers (principal, angular
UNIT : XV Polymers momentum and magnetic quantum numbers) and their
Classification Natural and synthetic, methods of significance; shapes of s, p and d - orbitals, electron spin
polymerization (addition and condensation), and spin quantum number; rules for filling electrons in
copolymerization. Some important polymers natural orbitals - aufbau principle, Pauli's exclusion principle and
and synthetic like polyesters, Bakelite, rubber, Hund's rule, electronic configuration of elements, extra
Biodegradable and non-biodegradable polymers. stability of half-filled and completely filled orbitals.
6
Unit : IV Chemical Bonding and Molecular Ionic equilibrium Weak and strong electrolytes,
Structure ionization of electrolytes, various concepts of acids and
Kossel Lewis approach to chemical bond formation, bases (Arrhenius, Bronsted-Lowry and Lewis) and their
concept of ionic and covalent bonds. ionization, acid-base equilibria (including multistage
Ionic Bonding Formation of ionic bonds, factors ionization) and ionization constants, ionization of water,
affecting the formation of ionic bonds; calculation of pH scale, common ion effect, hydrolysis of salts and pH
lattice enthalpy. of their solution, solubility of sparingly soluble salts and
Covalent Bonding Concept of electronegativity, Fajan's solubility products, buffer solutions.
rule, dipole moment; Valence Shell Electron Pair UNIT : VIII Redox Reactions and
Repulsion (VSEPR) theory and shapes of simple Electrochemistry
molecules. Electronic concepts of oxidation and reduction, redox
Quantum mechanical approach to covalent bonding reactions, oxidation number, rules for assigning
Valence bond theory - Its important features, concept of oxidation number, balancing of redox reactions.
hybridization involving s, p and d orbitals; Resonance.
Eectrolytic and metallic conduction,
Molecular Orbital Theory its important features, LCAOs,
types of molecular orbitals (bonding, antibonding), conductance in electrolytic solutions, specific and molar
sigma and pi-bonds, molecular orbital electronic conductivities and their variation with concentration:
configurations of homonuclear diatomic molecules, Kohlrausch's law and its applications.
concept of bond order, bond length and bond energy. Electrochemical cells-Electrolytic and Galvanic cells,
Elementary idea of metallic bonding, Hydrogen bonding different types of electrodes, electrode potentials
and its applications. including standard electrode potential, half-cell and cell
UNIT : V Chemical Thermodynamics reaction, emf of a Galvanic cell and its measurement;
Fundamentals of thermodynamics System and Nernst equation and its application; Relationship
surrounding, extensive and intensive properties, state between cell potential and Gibbs' energy change; Dry
functions, types of processes. cell and lead accumulator; Fuel cells; Corrosion and its
First law of thermodynamics Concept of work, heat prevention.
internal energy and enthalpy, heat capacity, molar heat UNIT : IX Chemical Kinetics
capacity, Hess's law of constant heat summation; Rate of a chemical reaction, factors affecting the rate of
Enthalpies of bond dissociation, combustion, formation, reactions concentration, temperature, pressure and
atomization, sublimation, phase transition, hydration, catalyst; elementary and complex reactions, order and
ionization and solution. molecularity of reactions, rate law, rate constant and its
Second law of thermodynamics Spontaneity of units, differential and integral forms of zero and first
processes; ∆S of the universe and ∆G of the system as order reactions, their characteristics and half-lives, effect
criteria for spontaneity, ∆G° (Standard Gibb's energy of temperature on rate of reactions-Arrhenius theory,
change) and equilibrium constant. activation energy and its calculation, collision theory of
UNIT : VI Solution bimolecular gaseous reactions (no derivation).
Different methods for expressing concentration of UNIT : X Surface Chemistry
solution-molality, molarity, mole fraction, percentage Adsorption physisorption and chemisorptions and their
(by volume and mass both), vapour pressure of solutions
characteristics, factors affecting adsorption of gases on
and Raoult's Law-Ideal and non-ideal solutions, vapour
pressure-compositions plots for ideal and non-ideal solids-Freundlich and Langmuir adsorption isotherms,
solutions. adsorption from solutions.
Colligative properties of dilute solutions-relative Catalysis Homogeneous and heterogeneous, activity and
lowering of vapour pressure, depression of freezing selectivity of solid catalysts, enzyme catalysis and its
point, elevation of boiling point and osmotic pressure; mechanism.
Determination of molecular mass using colligative Colloidal state distinction among true solutions, colloids
properties; Abnormal value of molar mass, Van't Hoff and suspensions, classification of colloids-lyophilic,
factor and its significance. lyophobic; multi molecular, macro-molecular and
UNIT : VII Equilibrium associated colloids (micelles), preparation and properties
Meaning of equilibrium, concept of dynamic of colloids Tyndall effect, Browninan movement,
equilibrium. electrophoresis, dialysis, coagulation and flocculation;
Equilibria involving physical processes Solid-liquid, Emulsions and their characteristics.
liquid-gas and solid-gas equilibria, Henry's law, general SECTION-B (Inorganic Chemistry)
characteristics of equilibrium involving physical
processes. UNIT : XI Classification of Elements and
Equilibria involving chemical processes Law of chemical Periodicity in Properties
equilibrium, equilibrium constants (K and K) and their Periodic Law and present Form of the Periodic Table,
significance, significance of ∆G and ∆G° in chemical s,p,d and f block Elements, Periodic Trends in Properties
equilibria, factors affecting equilibrium concentration, of elements, atomic and ionic Radii, ionization Enthalpy,
pressure, temperature, effect of catalyst; Le-Chatelier's Electron Gain Enthalpy, Valence, Oxidation States and
principle. Chemical Reactivity.
7
UNIT : XII General Principles and Processes of UNIT : XVI d – and f –b Block Elements
Isolation of Metals Transition Elements General introduction, electronic
Modes of occurrence of elements in nature, minerals, configuration, occurrence and characteristics, general
ores; steps involved in the extraction of metals- trends in properties of the first row transition elements -
concentration, reduction (Chemical and electrolytic physical properties, ionization enthalpy, oxidation states.
methods) and refining with special reference to the Atomic radii, colour, catalytic behaviour, magnetic
extraction of Al, Cu, Zn and Fe; Thermodynamic and properties, complex formation, interstitial compounds,
electrochemical principles involved in the extraction of alloy formation; Preparation, properties and uses of K2
metals. Cr2 O7 and KMnO4.
UNIT : XIII Hydrogen Inner Transition Elements Lanthanoids electronic
configuration, oxidation states, chemical reactivity and
Position of hydrogen in periodic table, isotopes, lanthanoid contraction. Actinoids Electronic
preparation, properties and uses of hydrogen; physical configuration and oxidation states
and chemical properties of water and heavy water;
Structure, preparation, reactions and uses of hydrogen UNIT : XVII Coordination Compounds
peroxide; Classification of hydrides ionic, covalent and Introduction to coordination compounds, Werner's
interstitial; Hydrogen as a fuel. theory; ligands, coordination number, denticity,
chelation; IUPAC nomenclature of mononuclear
UNIT : XIV s-Block Elements coordination compounds, isomerism; Bonding Valence
(Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals) bond approach and basis ideas of Crystal field theory,
Group 1 and 2 Elements colour and magnetic properties; importance of
General introduction, electronic configuration and coordination compounds (in qualitative analysis,
general trends in physical and chemical properties of extraction of metal sand in biological systems).
elements, anomalous properties of the first element of UNIT : XVIII Environmental Chemistry
each group, diagonal relationships. Environmental pollution Atmospheric, water and soil.
Preparation and properties of some important Atmospheric pollution Tropospheric and stratospheric
compounds- sodium carbonate, sodium chloride, sodium Tropospheric pollutants: Gaseous pollutants Oxides of
hydroxide and sodium hydrogen carbonate; industrial carbon, nitrogen and sulphur, hydrocarbons; their
uses of lime, limestone, Plaster of Paris and cement; sources, harmful effects and prevention; Green house
Biological significance of Na, K, Mg and Ca. effect and Global warming; Acid rain;
UNIT : XV p-Block Elements Particulate pollutants Smoke, dust, smog, fumes, mist;
Group 13 to Group 18 Elements, General Introduction their sources, harmful effects and prevention. and effects.
Electronic configuration and general trends in physical Water pollution Major pollutants such as, pathogens,
and chemical properties of elements across the periods organic wastes and chemical pollutants their harmful
and down the groups; unique behaviour of the first effects and prevention. Strategies to control
element in each group. environmental pollution.
Group wise study of the p-Block Elements SECTION - C (Organic Chemistry)
Group 13 Preparation, properties and uses of boron and UNIT : XIX Purification & Characterization of
aluminium; structure, properties and uses of borax, boric Organic Compounds
acid, diborane, boron tifluoride, aluminium chloride and
alums.
Purification Crystallization, sublimation,
Group 14 Tendency for catenation; Structure, properties distillation, differential extraction and
and uses of allotropes and oxides of carbon, silicon chromatograph and their applications.
tetrachloride, silicates, zeolites and silicones. Qualitative analysis Detection of nitrogen,
Group 15 Properties and uses of nitrogen and sulphur, phosphorus and halogens.
phosphorus; Allotrophic forms of phosphorus; Quantitative analysis (basic principles only)
Preparation, properties, structure and uses of ammonia
nitric acid, phosphine and phosphorus halides, (PCl3,
Estimation of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen,
PCl5; Structures of oxides and oxoacids of nitrogen and halogens, sulphur phosphorus. Calculations of
phosphorus. empirical formulae and molecular formulae;
Group – 16 Preparation, properties, structures an uses of Numerical problems in organic quantitative
dioxygen and ozone; Allotropic forms of sulphur; analysis.
preparation, properties, structures and uses of sulphur UNIT : XX Some Basic Principles of Organic
dioxide, sulphuric acid (including its industrial
preparation), Structures of oxoacids of sulphur.
Chemistry
Tetravalency of carbon; Shapes of simple molecules
Group -17 Preparation, properties and uses of chlorine hybridization (s and p)/ Classification of organic
and hydrochloric acid; Trends in the acidic nature of compounds based on functional groups: –– C = C ––, ––
hydrogen halides; Structures of Interhalogen compounds C = C –– and those containing halogens, oxygen,
and oxides and oxoacids of halogens. nitrogen and sulphur, Homologous series; Isomerism -
Group - 18 Occurrence and uses of noble gases; structural and stereoisomerism. Nomenclature (Trivial
Structures of fluorides and oxides of xenon. and IUPAC)
8
Covalent bond fission Homolytic and heterolytic free Unit : XXV Polymers
radicals, carbocations and carbanions; stability of General introduction and classification of polymers,
carbocations and free radicals, electrophiles and general methods of polymerization-addition and
nucleophiles. condensation, copolymerization; Natural and synthetic
electronic displacement in a covalent bond inductive rubber and vulcanization; some important polymers with
effect, electromeric effect, resonance and emphasis on their monomers and uses- polythene, nylon
hyperconjugation.
polyester and Bakelite.
Common types of organic reactions Substitution,
elimination and rearrangement. UNIT : XXVI Biomolecules
UNIT : XXI Hydrocarbons General introduction and importance of biomolecules.
Classification, isomerism, IUPAC nomenclature, general Carbohydrates Classification: aldoses and ketoses;
methods of preparation, properties and reactions. monosaccharides (glucose and fructose), constituent
Alkanes Conformations: Sawhorse and Newman monosaccharides of oligosaccharides (sucrose, lactose,
projections (of ethane); Mechanism of halogenations of maltose) and polysaccharides (starch, cellulose,
alkanes. glycogen).
Alkenes Geometrical isomerism; Mechanism of Proteins Elementary idea of α-amino acids, peptide
electrophilic addition: addition of hydrogen, halogens bond,. polypeptides; proteins: primary, secondary,
water, hydrogen halides (Markownikoff's and peroxide tertiary and quaternary structure (qualitative idea only),
effect); Ozonolysis, oxidation , and polymerization. denaturation of proteins, enzymes.
Alkynes acidic character; addition of hydrogen, halogens Vitamins Classification and functions.
water and hydrogen halides; polymerization. Aromatic
hydrocarbons Nomenclature, benzene structure and Nucleic Acids Chemical constitution of DNA and RNA.
aromaticity; Mechanism of electrophilic substitution: Biological functions of Nucleic acids.
halogenations, nitration, Friedel-Craft's alkylation and UNIT : XXVII Chemistry in Everyday Life
acylation, directive influence of functional group in Chemicals in medicines analgesics, tranquilizers,
mono-substituted benzene. antiseptics, disinfectants, antimicrobials, antifertility
UNIT : XXII Organic Compounds Containing drugs, antibiotics, antacids, anti-histamin their meaning
Halogens and common examples.
General methods of preparation, properties and reactions; Chemicals in food preservatives, artificial sweetening
Nature of C–X bond; Mechanism of substitution agents-common examples.
reactions. Uses/environmental effects of chloroform, Cleansing agents Soaps and detergents, cleansing action.
iodoform UNIT : XXVIII Principles Related to
UNIT : XXIII Organic Compounds Containing Practical Chemistry
Oxygen.
• Detection of extra elements (N, S, halogens0 in
General methods of preparation, properties, reactions an
uses. organic compounds; Detection of the following
functional group: hydroxyl (alcoholic and phenolic),
Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
carbonyl (aldehyde and ketone), carboxyl and amino
Alcohols identification of primary, secondary and
tertiary alcohols; mechanism of dehydration. groups in organic compounds.
Phenols Acidic nature, electrophilic substitution • Chemistry involved in the preparation of the
reactions: halogenations, nitration and sulphonation, following
Reimer-Tiemann reaction. • inorganic compounds Mohr's salt, potash alum.
Ethers Structure. • Organic compounds Acetanilide,
Aldhyde and Ketones Nature of charbonyl group; p-nitroacetainilide, aniline yellow, iodoform.
Nucleophilic addition to >C=O group , relative ractivities • Chemistry involved in the titrimetirc excercises-
of aldehydes and ketones; important reactions such as- Acids bases and the use of indicators, oxaliacid vs
Nucleophilic addition reactions (addition of HCN, NH3 KMnO4, Mohr's salt vs KMnO4.
and its derivatives), Grignard reagent; oxidation;
reduction (Wolff Kishner and Clemmensen) acidity of α- • Chemical principles involved in the qualitative salt
hydrogen, aldol condensation, Cannizzaro reaction, analysis
Haloform reaction; Chemical tests to distinguish between • Cations- Pb2+, Cu2+, Al3+, Fe3+, Zn2+, Ni2+, Ba2+,
aldehydes and Ketones. Carboxylic Acid Acidic strength Mg2+, NH4+. Anions– CO 24− , S2–, SO 24− , NO2, NO3
and factors affecting it. Cl–, Br–, I– (Insoluble salts excluded).
Unit : XXIV Organic Compounds Containing • Chemical principles involved in the following
Nitrogen experiments.
General methods of preparation, properties, reactions and 1. Enthalpy of solution of CuSO4
uses.
Amines Nomenclature, classification, structure basic 2. Enthalpy of neutralization of strong acid and strong
character and identification of primary, secondary and base.
tertiary amines and their basic character. 3. Preparation of lyophilic and lyophobic sols.
Diazonium Salts Importance in synthetic organic 4. Kinetic study of reaction of iodide ion with hydrogen
chemistry. peroxide at room temperature.
9
.
All India Medical & Engineering Entrance Exam, AIIMS, NEET, &
JEE Main Chemistry Previous Years Exam Papers Analysis Chart
S. No Exam Proposed Year Question Paper Total Question
National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test /All India Pre Medical Test (NEET/AIPMT)
1. NEET 17.07.2022 50
2. NEET 12.09.2021 50
3. NEET 13.09.2020 50
4. NEET 05.06.2019 50
5. NEET 06.05.2018 50
6. NEET 07.05.2017 50
7. NEET 01.05.2016 Phase-I 50
8. NEET 24.06.2016 Phase-II 50
9. NEET/AIPMT 25.07.2015 50
10. NEET 04.05.2014 50
11. NEET 05.05.2013 50
12. AIPMT 2012 50
13. AIPMT 2011 50
14. AIPMT 2010 50
15. AIPMT 2009 50
16. AIPMT 2008 50
17. AIPMT 2007 50
18. AIPMT 2006 50
19. AIPMT 2005 50
20. AIPMT 2004 50
21. AIPMT 2003 50
22. AIPMT 2002 50
23. AIPMT 2001 50
24. AIPMT 2000 50
25. AIPMT 1999 50
26. AIPMT 1998 50
27. AIPMT 1997 50
28. AIPMT 1996 50
29. AIPMT 1995 50
30. AIPMT 1994 50
31. AIPMT 1993 50
32. AIPMT 1992 50
33. AIPMT 1991 50
34. AIPMT 1990 50
35. AIPMT 1989 50
36. AIPMT 1988 50
Joint Entrance Examination JEE (Main)
37. NTA JEE Main 29.06.2022 Shift-I 30
38. NTA JEE Main 29.06.2022 Shift-II 30
10
109. JEE Main 16.04.2018 30
110. JEE Main 15.04.2018 Shift-I 30
111. JEE Main 15.04.2018 Shift-II 30
11
112. JEE Main 08.04.2018 30
113. JEE Main 09.04.2017 30
114. JEE Main 08.04.2017 30
115. JEE Main 02.04.2017 30
116. JEE Main 2016 30
117. JEE Main 2015 30
118. JEE Main 2014 30
119. JEE Main 2013 30
120. AIEEE 2012 30
121. AIEEE 2011 30
122. AIEEE 2010 30
123. AIEEE 2009 30
124. AIEEE 2008 30
125. AIEEE 2007 30
126. AIEEE 2006 30
127. AIEEE 2005 30
128. AIEEE 2004 30
129. AIEEE 2003 30
130. AIEEE 2002 30
All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS)
131. AIIMS 26.05.2019 Shift-I 60
132. AIIMS 26.05.2019 Shift-II 60
133. AIIMS 25.05.2019 Shift-I 60
134. AIIMS 25.05.2019 Shift-II 60
135. AIIMS 2018 60
136. AIIMS 2017 60
137. AIIMS 2016 60
138. AIIMS 2015 60
139. AIIMS 2014 60
140. AIIMS 2013 60
141. AIIMS 2012 60
142. AIIMS 2011 60
143. AIIMS 2010 60
144. AIIMS 2009 60
145. AIIMS 2008 60
146. AIIMS 2007 60
147. AIIMS 2006 60
148. AIIMS 2005 60
149. AIIMS 2004 60
150. AIIMS 2003 60
151. AIIMS 2002 60
152. AIIMS 2001 60
153. AIIMS 2000 60
154. AIIMS 1999 60
155. AIIMS 1998 60
156. AIIMS 1997 60
157. AIIMS 1996 60
158. AIIMS 1994 60
Assam Combined Entrance Examination (CEE)
159. ASSAM-CEE 2021 40
160. ASSAM-CEE 2020 40
161. ASSAM-CEE 2019 40
162. ASSAM-CEE 2018 40
Andhra Pradesh Engineering, Agriculture and Medical Common Entrance Test (AP EAMCET)
163. AP EAMCET Medical 2013 50
12
Andhra Pradesh Engineering, Agriculture and Medical Common Entrance Test (AP EAMCET)
175. AP EAMCET Engineering 06.09.2021 Shift-II 40
176. AP EAMCET Engineering 25.08.2021 Shift-I 40
189. AP EAMCET Engineering 2017 40
Andhra Pradesh Engineering, Agriculture and Pharmacy Common Entrance Test (AP EAPCET)
214. AP EAPCET 07.09.2021 Shift-I 40
215. AP EAPCET 23.08.2021 Shift-I 40
216. AP EAPCET 19.08.2021 Shift-II 40
217. AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-I 40
218. AP EAPCET 19.08.2021 Shift-I 40
223. AP EAPCET 24.08.2021 Shift-I 40
13
Aligarh Muslim University Engineering Entrance Examination (AMU)
224. AMU 2019 50
225. AMU 2018 50
226. AMU 2017 50
227. AMU 2016 50
228. AMU 2015 50
229. AMU 2014 50
230. AMU 2013 50
231. AMU 2012 50
232. AMU 2011 50
233. AMU 2010 50
234. AMU 2009 50
235. AMU 2008 50
236. AMU 2007 50
237. AMU 2006 50
238. AMU 2005 50
239. AMU 2004 50
240. AMU 2003 50
241. AMU 2002 50
242. AMU 2001 50
Bihar Combined Entrance Competitive Examination (BCECE)
243. BCECE 2018 50
244. BCECE 2017 50
245. BCECE 2016 50
246. BCECE 2015 50
247. BCECE 2014 50
248. BCECE 2013 50
249. BCECE 2012 50
250. BCECE 2011 50
251. BCECE 2010 50
252. BCECE 2009 50
253. BCECE 2008 50
254. BCECE 2007 50
255. BCECE 2006 50
256. BCECE 2005 50
257. BCECE 2004 50
258. BCECE 2003 50
Birla Institute of Technology and Science Admission Test (BITSAT)
259. BITSAT 2018 40
260. BITSAT 2017 40
261. BITSAT 2016 40
262. BITSAT 2015 40
263. BITSAT 2014 40
264. BITSAT 2013 40
265. BITSAT 2012 40
266. BITSAT 2011 40
267. BITSAT 2010 40
268. BITSAT 2009 40
269. BITSAT 2008 40
270. BITSAT 2007 40
271. BITSAT 2006 40
272. BITSAT 2005 40
Consortium of Medical, Engineering and Dental Colleges of Karnataka (COMEDK)
273. COMEDK-JEE 2022 60
274. COMEDK-JEE 2021 60
275. COMEDK-JEE 2020 60
276. COMEDK-JEE 2019 60
277. COMEDK-JEE 2018 60
14
278. COMEDK-JEE 2017 60
279. COMEDK-JEE 2016 60
280. COMEDK-JEE 2015 60
281. COMEDK-JEE 2014 60
282. COMEDK-JEE 2013 60
283. COMEDK-JEE 2012 60
284. COMEDK-JEE 2011 60
Chhattisgarh Pre-Engineering Test (CGPET)
285. Chhattisgarh-PET 2019 100
Gujarat Common Entrance Test (GUJCET)
301. GUJCET 18.04.2022 40
302. GUJCET 06.08.2021 40
303. GUJCET 2020 40
304. GUJCET 2019 40
305. GUJCET 2018 40
306. GUJCET 2017 40
307. GUJCET 2016 40
308. GUJCET 2015 40
309. GUJCET 2014 40
310. GUJCET 2011 40
311. GUJCET 2008 40
312. GUJCET 2007 40
Himachal Pradesh Common Entrance Test (HPCET)
313. HPCET 2021 60
314. HPCET 2020 60
315. HPCET 2019 60
316. HPCET 2018 60
317. HPCET 2017 60
318. HPCET 2016 60
319. HPCET 2015 60
320. HPCET 2014 60
321. HPCET 2013 60
Jammu and Kashmir Common Entrance Test (JKCET)
322. JKCET 2019 75
323. JKCET 2018 75
324. JKCET 2017 75
325. JKCET 2016 75
326. JKCET 2015 75
327. JKCET 2014 75
328. JKCET 2013 75
329. JKCET 2012 75
330. JKCET 2011 75
331. JKCET 2010 75
332. JKCET 2009 75
15
333. JKCET 2008 75
334. JKCET 2007 75
335. JKCET 2006 75
336. JKCET 2005 75
337. JKCET 2004 75
338. JKCET 2003 75
339. JKCET 2002 75
340. JKCET 2001 75
341. JKCET 2000 75
342. JKCET 1999 75
343. JKCET 1998 75
344. JKCET 1997 75
Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research (JIPMER)
345. JIPMER 2019 60
346. JIPMER 2018 60
347. JIPMER 2017 60
348. JIPMER 2016 60
349. JIPMER 2015 60
350. JIPMER 2014 60
351. JIPMER 2013 60
352. JIPMER 2012 60
353. JIPMER 2011 60
354. JIPMER 2010 60
355. JIPMER 2009 60
356. JIPMER 2008 60
357. JIPMER 2007 60
358. JIPMER 2006 60
359. JIPMER 2005 60
360. JIPMER 2004 60
Jharkhand Combined Entrance Competitive Examination (JCECE)
361. JCECE 2018 50
362. JCECE 2017 50
363. JCECE 2016 50
364. JCECE 2015 50
365. JCECE 2014 50
366. JCECE 2013 50
367. JCECE 2012 50
368. JCECE 2011 50
369. JCECE 2010 50
370. JCECE 2009 50
371. JCECE 2008 50
372. JCECE 2007 50
373. JCECE 2006 50
374. JCECE 2005 50
375. JCECE 2004 50
376. JCECE 2003 50
Kerala Commissioner for Entrance Examinations (K-CEE)
377. Kerala CEE 04.07.2022 60
378. Kerala CEE 29.08.2021 60
379. Kerala CEE 2020 60
380. Kerala CEE 2019 60
381. Kerala CEE 2018 60
382. Kerala CEE 2017 60
383. Kerala CEE 2016 60
384. Kerala CEE 2015 60
385. Kerala CEE 2014 60
386. Kerala CEE 2013 60
387. Kerala CEE 2012 60
388. Kerala CEE 2011 60
16
389. Kerala CEE 2010 60
390. Kerala CEE 2009 60
391. Kerala CEE 2008 60
392. Kerala CEE 2007 60
393. Kerala CEE 2006 60
394. Kerala CEE 2005 60
395. Kerala CEE 2004 60
Karnataka Common Entrance Test (K-CET)
396. Karnataka-CET 17.06.2022 60
397. Karnataka-CET 2021 60
Madhya Pradesh Pre Engineering Test (MPPET)
418. MPPET 2013 50
419. MPPET 2012 50
420. MPPET 2009 50
421. MPPET 2008 50
Manipal University Under Graduate Entrance Test (M-UGET)
422. M-UGET 2020 50
423. M-UGET 2019 50
424. M-UGET 2018 50
425. M-UGET 2017 50
426. M-UGET 2016 50
427. M-UGET 2015 50
428. M-UGET 2014 50
429. M-UGET 2013 50
430. M-UGET 2012 50
431. M-UGET 2011 50
432. M-UGET 2010 50
433. M-UGET 2009 50
434. M-UGET 2008 50
Maharashtra Common Entrance Test (MHT-CET)
435. MHT-CET 02-05-2019 Shift-I 50
436. MHT-CET 02-05-2019 Shift-II 50
437. MHT-CET 03-05-2019 50
438. MHT-CET 2018 50
439. MHT-CET 2017 50
440. MHT-CET 2016 50
441. MHT-CET 2015 50
442. MHT-CET 2014 50
443. MHT-CET 2013 50
17
444. MHT-CET 2012 50
445. MHT-CET 2011 50
446. MHT-CET 2010 50
447. MHT-CET 2009 50
448. MHT-CET 2008 50
449. MHT-CET 2007 50
UPSC Special Class Railway Apprentice (SCRA)
450. SCRA 2015 60
451. SCRA 2014 60
452. SCRA 2013 60
453. SCRA 2012 60
454. SCRA 2010 60
455. SCRA 2009 60
SRM Joint Engineering Entrance Examination (SRM-JEE)
456. SRM-JEE 2016 40
457. SRM-JEE 2015 40
458. SRM-JEE 2014 40
459. SRM-JEE 2013 40
460. SRM-JEE 2012 40
461. SRM-JEE 2011 40
462. SRM-JEE 2010 40
463. SRM-JEE 2009 40
464. SRM-JEE 2008 40
465. SRM-JEE 2007 40
Telangana State Engineering, Agriculture & Medical Common Entrance Test (TS EAMCET)
466. TS EAMCET 10.08.2021 Shift-I 40
467. TS EAMCET 10.08.2021 Shift-II 40
468. TS EAMCET 09.08.2021 40
469. TS EAMCET 08.08.2021 Shift-I 40
471. TS EAMCET 06.08.2021 40
472. TS EAMCET 05.08.2021 Shift-I 40
474. TS EAMCET 2017 40
475. TS EAMCET 2016 40
Tripura Joint Entrance Examination (TJEE)
476. Tripura JEE 27.04.2022 50
477. Tripura JEE 2021 50
Uttar Pradesh State Entrance Examination (UPSEE)
480. UPSEE 2018 50
481. UPSEE 2017 50
482. UPSEE 2016 50
483. UPSEE 2015 50
484. UPSEE 2014 50
485. UPSEE 2013 50
486. UPSEE 2012 50
487. UPSEE 2011 50
488. UPSEE 2010 50
489. UPSEE 2009 50
490. UPSEE 2008 50
491. UPSEE 2007 50
492. UPSEE 2006 50
493. UPSEE 2005 50
494. UPSEE 2004 50
18
Uttar Pradesh Combined Pre Medical Test (UPCPMT)
495. UPCPMT 2014 50
496. UPCPMT 2013 50
497. UPCPMT 2012 50
498. UPCPMT 2011 50
499. UPCPMT 2010 50
500. UPCPMT 2009 50
501. UPCPMT 2008 50
502. UPCPMT 2007 50
503. UPCPMT 2006 50
504. UPCPMT 2005 50
505. UPCPMT 2004 50
506. UPCPMT 2003 50
507. UPCPMT 2002 50
508. UPCPMT 2001 50
Vellore Institute of Technology Engineering Entrance Examination (VITEEE)
509. VITEEE 2021 40
510. VITEEE 2020 40
511. VITEEE 2019 40
512. VITEEE 2018 40
513. VITEEE 2017 40
514. VITEEE 2016 40
515. VITEEE 2015 40
516. VITEEE 2014 40
517. VITEEE 2013 40
518. VITEEE 2012 40
519. VITEEE 2011 40
520. VITEEE 2010 40
521. VITEEE 2009 40
522. VITEEE 2008 40
523. VITEEE 2007 40
524. VITEEE 2006 40
West Bengal Joint Entrance Examination Board (WBJEE)
525. WBJEE 30.04.2022 30
526. WBJEE 2021 30
527. WBJEE 2020 30
528. WBJEE 2019 30
529. WBJEE 2018 30
530. WBJEE 2017 30
531. WBJEE 2016 30
532. WBJEE 2015 30
533. WBJEE 2014 30
534. WBJEE 2013 30
535. WBJEE 2012 30
536. WBJEE 2011 30
537. WBJEE 2010 30
538. WBJEE 2009 30
539. WBJEE 2008 30
540. WBJEE 2007 30
541. WBJEE 2006 30
542. WBJEE 2005 30
543. WBJEE 2004 30
544. WBJEE 2003 30
545. WBJEE 2002 30
546. WBJEE 2001 30
Total 26235
Note : After detailed analysis of above mentioned papers of NEET/JEE (Main) and State Medical
and Engineering Examination Related to Chemistry 26235 (Volume-I+II) have been presented
chapterwise. Questions of repeated and similar nature have included so that the technique of
asking question can benefit the competitors.
19
Trend Analysis of NEET/JEE (Main) Chemistry
Questions Through Pie Chart & Bar Graph
20
01.
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
(c) 3, 3 and 3 respectively
1. Significant figures, Units for (d) 3, 4 and 4 respectively
BITSAT 2009
Measurement NEET 1998
Ans. (c) : Each has three significant figures. All non-
1. Using the rules for significant figures, the zero number are significant 161 has 3 significant and
correct answer for the expression leading zero are not significant they are nothing more
0.02858 × 0.112 then place holder, the number 0.161 and 0.0161 has 3
will be
0.5702 significant figure.
(a) 0.005613 (b) 0.00561 5. The prefix 1018 is
(c) 0.0056 (d) 0.006 (a) giga (b) kilo
JEE Main-29.06.2022, Shift-II (c) Exa (d) nano
0.00285 × 0.112 0.003200 BITSAT 2015, 2006
Ans. (b) : = Ans. (c) : Exa is a decimal unit prefix in the matric
0.5702 0.5702 system.
= 0.00561 Exa = 1018, Giga = 109
2. Manganese (VI) has ability to disproportionate Kilo = 103, Nano = 10–9
in acidic solution. The difference in oxidation 6. Match List-I with List-II
states of two ions it forms in acidic solution
is_____. List-I List-II
(Parameter) (Unit)
JEE Main-27.06.2022, Shift-I A. Cell constant 1. S cm mol–1
2
Ans. (3) : Disproportionation reaction of manganese in B. Molar conductivity 2. Dimension less

acidic solution –
+7
C. Conductivity 3. m–1
+4
3MnO24− (aq) + 4H+ (aq)  → 2MnO4− + MnO2 + 2H 2O D. Degree of 4 Sm–1
dissociation of
So, difference in oxidation state of product ions of- electrolyte
Mn = (+7) – (+4) = 3
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
3. The units of surface tension and viscosity of a options given below
liquid respectively are A B C D
(a) kg m–1 s–1 , N m–1 (b) N m–1, kg m–1 s–1 (a) 3 1 4 2
2 –1 –2
(c) kg m s , N m (d) N m–1 , kg m2 s–1 (b) 3 1 2 4
TS-EAMCET 09.08.2021, Shift-I (c) 1 4 3 2
WB-JEE-2015 (d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (b) [JEE Main 2021, 31 Aug Shift-II]
F W Length m
Surface tension ( γ ) = or Ans. (a) : Cell Constant = = 2 = m −1
L A Area m
= Nm −1 1
Conductivity (K)= = Sm −1 or ohm −1
F N ρ
Coefficient of viscosity(η) = =
dV –1 Molar conductivity ( Λm ) =
A 2 ms
dx m
m K Sm −1 Sm −1
= =
η = Nm s –2
C Mol. liter −1
Mol m −3
η = kg ms –2 m –2s = Sm 2 mol−1
η = kg m –1 s –1 Or
= Scm2 mol–1
4. Given the numbers : 161 cm, 0.161 cm, 0.0161 Degree of dissociation
cm. The number of significant figures for the
amount of dissociated substance
three numbers are =
(a) 3, 4 and 5 respectively Total amount of Substance
(b) 3, 3 and 4 respectively So, dimensionless quantity.
Objective Chemistry Volume-I 21 YCT
7. The number of significant figures in 0.00340 Ans. (a) : Angular momentum of an electron in an
is….. . orbital of an atom (L) = mvr
[JEE Main 2021, 25 July Shift-II] Now, L = mv × r = kg.ms–1 × m
Ans. (3) : Significant figure is the digits of a number = kg m2s–1 .....(i)
that are used to express it to the required degree of We know that,
accuracy, starting from the first non – zero digit. 1 Joule = kgm2s–2
So, counting these numbers, we find that the number of s −1
significant figures in 0.00340 is 3. The significant So, multiplying and dividing equation (i) by −1 -we get
figures of 0.00340 are ‘340’ s
−1
8. For a A + B products the rate of the reaction is s
L = kgm 2s −1 × −1
given by Rate = K [A] [B]2. The units of rate s
constant (K) will be______ −2
s
(a) mol L-1S–1 (b) L mol-1S–1 = kgm 2 −1
2 -2 –1
(c) mol L S (d) mol-2 L2S–1 s
AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-II L = J-s
Hence, the unit of angular momentum of an electron in
Ans. (d): The rate constant is expressed as relationship an orbital in J-sec.
between the rate of a chemical reaction and the
concentrations of the reacting substance. 12. The SI unit of electrochemical equivalent is
(a) J s–1 (b) kg C–1
∴ Unit of rate constant for nth order = (mol)1− n (lit) n −1 s–1 (c) kg m s –2
(d) kg m–1s–2
Given rate = K [A] [B]2 MHT CET-03.05.2019, SHIFT-I
∴ n = 1 + 2 = 3 ( third order reaction ) Ans. (b) : Electrochemical equivalent is the mass of the
substance deposited to one of the electrodes when a
Unit are (mol)1−3 (lit)3−1 s –1 = mol−2 lit 2s −1 current of 1 ampere is passed for 1 second.
for zero order rate constant = mol lit–1.s–1 The SI unit of electrochemical equivalent weight is kg
First order rate constant = s–1 C–1
Second order rate constant = mol–1 lit s–1. 13. The absolute zero temperature is 0 Kelvin. In ºC
9. The number of significant figures in unit which one of the following is the absolute
50000.020×10–3 _______. zero temperature?
JEE Main 26.02.2021, Shift-I (a) 0ºC (b) –100ºC
Ans. (7) : (c) –273.15ºC (d) –173.15ºC
No. of significant figure in 50000.020×10–3 is 7. NDA (II)-2018
Ans. (c) : Zero Kelvin (–273.15oC) is defined as
10. The value of which of the following unit of
absolute zero.
concentration will not change with the change
in temperature? 14. What is the SI unit of density?
(a) Molarity (b) Molality (a) g cm–3 (b) g m–3
–3
(c) Normality (d) Formality (c) kg m (d) kg cm–3
GUJCET-2019 MHT CET-2018
Ans. (c) : Mass per unit volume is called density. The
Moles of solute
Ans. (b) : Molality = SI unit of density is kg m–3.
Mass of solvent in kg 15. Which symbol replaces the unit of atomic mass,
Molality of concentration will not change with the amu?
change in temperature because in molality both moles (a) u (b) A
of solute and mass of solvent are independent of (c) M (d) n
temperature. MHT CET-2018
Thus, molality is independent of temperature. Ans. (a) : u symbol represent the unit of atomic mass,
Molarity (M) is the amount of a substance in a certain amu.
volume of solution. Molarity is defined as the moles of Where, a = Atomic mass number
a solute per litres of a solution. m = Molecular mass of the molecule.
Normality is a measure of concentration equal to the n = Number of atoms
gram equivalent weight per litre of solution.
Formality is a substance's total concentration in solution 16. Which one of the following statements is not
correct?
without regard to its specific chemical form.
(a) The hydration enthalpies of alkali metal ions
11. Which of the following is the correct unit of decrease down the group
angular momentum of an electron in an orbital (b) Lithium halides are some what covalent in
of an atom? nature
(a) J-s (b) J / s (c) Alkali metals react with water liberating
(c) W / s2 (d) W s oxygen gas
(e) J s2 (d) KO2 is paramagnetic
Kerala-CEE-2019 AP EAMCET-2017
Ans. (c): Alkali metal reacts with water to give metal 21. Which of the following represents the smallest
hydroxide and hydrogen. quantity?
2M + 2H2O  → 2MOH + H2(g). (a) 1230 ng (b) 1.230×10–4g
alkali metal (c) 1.230×10–6kg (d) 1.230×104µg
17. Which of the following has the dimension if UPTU/UPSEE-2011
[ML0T-2]? Ans. (a) : (a) 1230 ng = 1230 × 10-9g = 1.230 × 10-6g
(a) Coefficient of viscosity (b) Surface tension (b) 1.230 × 10-4g = 1.230 × 10-4g.
(c) Vapour pressure (d) Kinetic energy (c) 1.230 × 10-6kg = 1.230 × 10-6 × 103g
WB-JEE-2017 = 1.230 × 10-3g
Ans. (b) : Surface tension is the tendency of liquid (d) 1.230 × 10 µg = 1.230 × 104 × 10-6g
4
surface at rest to shrink into the minimum surface area = 1.230 × 10-2g
possible. The surface tension is given as: Thus, 1230 ng is the smallest quantity.
Force 22. How is 0.0120 written as a scientific notation?
Surface tension =
Length (a) 120×10–4 (b) 1.2×10–2
MLT −2 (c) 12×10 –3
(d) 12.0×10–3
= UPTU/UPSEE-2011
L
= [ML0 T −2 ] Ans. (b) : 0.0120 is written as 1.2 × 10–2, ie. decimal is
moved two places towards the right so that there is only
18. Which one of the following is not a unit of one non-zero digit before the decimal point and the
energy? exponent of 10 is –2 in the scientific notation.
(a) lit-atm (b) kg m2s–2 Scientific notation is a form of representing in simpler
(c) Nm (d) kg.ms–2 form.
UPTU/UPSEE-2016 23. For a reaction of type A + B → products, it is
Ans. (d): Kg. ms-2 is a unit of force and other three observed that doubling concentration of A
options are the units of energy. causes the reaction rate to be four times as
19. Consider following unit values of energy great, but doubling amount of B does not affect
I. 1 L atm II. 1 erg the rate. The unit of rate constant is
III. 1 J IV. 1 kcal (a) s–1 (b) s–1 mol L–1
–1 –1
Increasing order of these values is– (c) s mol L (d) s s–1 mol–2 L2
(a) I = II = III = IV (b) I < II < III < IV VITEEE- 2010
(c) II < III < I < IV (d) IV < I < III < II Ans. (c) : For a reaction -
BCECE-2013 A + B → product
Ans. (c): Let the initial rate be R
• Energy is the capacity to do work. And order with respect to A be x and B be y. Thus, rate
R = 0.0821 L atm mol-1 k-1 law can be written as,
R = 8.314 × 107 ergs mol-1 k-1 Rate, R = [A]x [B]y ….(i)
R = 8.314 mol-1 k-1 After doubling the concentration of A, rate becomes 4R,
R = 0.002 Kcal mol-1 k-1 4R = [2A]x [B]y ….(ii)
R After doubling the concentration of B, rate remains R,
Q 1 L atm = mol K R = [A]x [2B]y ....(iii)
0.0821
R From equation (i) and (ii), we get
• 1 erg = mol K x 2 x
8.314 ×107 R 1 1 1
=  ⇒  = 
R 4R  2  2 2
• 1 J= mol K
8.314 So, x=2
R From equation (i) and (iii), we get
• 1 kcal = mol K y 0 y
0.002 R 1  1  1 
= ⇒  = 
Hence, option (c) is correct answer. R  2  1  2 
20. Dimension of universal gas constant (R) is So, Y=0
(a) [VPT-1n-1] (b) [VP-1Tn-1] Hence, the rate law is, rate R = [A]2[B]0
-1
(c) [VPTn ] (d) [VPT-1n] This clearly shows that the order of this reaction is 2
J & K CET-(2012) and for second order reaction units of rate constant are
Ans. (a) : From the gas equation, mol–1 Ls–1.
PV = nRT 24. The charge on an electron in Coulombs is–
P× V (a) 1.602 × 10–19 (b) 1.062 × 10–19
R=
n×T (c) 1.620 × 10 –19
(d) 1.006 × 10–19
R = [VPT-1n-1] BCECE-2009
Ans. (a) : Coulomb is the SI unit of electric charge 1 12
which is define as the amount of charge delivered by an 1 amu = g
electric current of one ampere in one second. 12 N A
The charge on an electron is 1
1 amu = g
= – 1.60217663 × 10–19 coulomb. 6.023 × 1023
–27
25. In colloid particles, range of diameter is 1 amu = 1.6 × 10 kg
(a) 1 to 1000 nm (b) 1 to 1000 cm 30. The radius of an atomic nucleus is generally
(c) 1 to 1000 mm (d) 1 to 100 km expressed in units of:
BCECE-2008 (a) Debye (b) Coulomb
UPTU/UPSEE-2006 (c) Fermi (d) Tesla
Ans. (a) : Colloid is a mixture, in which insoluble AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2001
particles of one substance suspended in another Ans. (c) : The radius of atomic nucleus is expressed in
substance, range of diameter in colloid particles is 1 to fermi.
1000 nm. 1 Fermi = 10–13 cm
Colloidal particle range in diameter from 1 to 1000 31. A colloidal system has particles of which of the
nanometers and can be solid, liquid, or gases. following size?
26. In which of the following number all zeros are (a) 10−9 m to 10 –12 m (b) 10−6 m to 10 –9 m
significant? −4
(c) 10 m to 10 m –10
(d) 10−5 m to 10 –7 m
(a) 0.0005 (b) 0.0500
(NEET-1996)
(c) 50.000 (d) 0.0050
BITSAT-2008 Ans. (b) : A colloidal system has particles of 10–6 m to
10–9 m size. Colloidal system consist of dispersed of
Ans. (c) : If zero is used to locate the decimal point it is dispersed phase and dispersion medium.
considered as a significant figure. In 50.000, all zero are
So, option B is correct.
significant.
32. The dimensions of pressure are the same as
27. Which one of the following set of units that of
represents the smallest and largest amount of
energy respectively? (a) force per unit volume
(a) J and erg (b) erg and cal (b) energy per unit volume
(c) cal and eV (d) lit-atom and J (c) force
(e) eV and lit-atom (d) energy
Kerala-CEE-2007 NEET-1995
Ans. (e) : SI unit of energy is Joule. Force Mass × acceleration
Ans. (b): Pressure = =
Converting other units of energy into joule, we find- Area Area
1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J Dimensional formula,
1 cal = 4.186 J M × LT −2
1 erg = 10-7 J = = ML−1T −2
L2
1 lit - atom = 101.3 J
Smallest and largest amount of energy are eV and lit- Energy = work = force × displacement
atom respectively. ML2 T −2
Energy per unit volume =
28. Which of the following, is not a unit of L3
pressure? = ML–1T–2
(a) Atmosphere (b) Torr Dimension of pressure is ML–1T–2 which is same as the
(c) Pascal (d) Newton dimension of energy per unit volume.
JIPMER-2004
Ans. (d) : • The force per unit area is called pressure it 2. Atomic, Molecular and
is denoted by P. Here, Atmosphere, Torr and Pascal,
these three are unit of pressure. Equivalent Masses
• Newton is not the unit of pressure. It is the unit of
force. 33. Arrange the following in the order increasing
So, the correct option is Newton. mass (atomic mass O = 16, Cu = 63, N = 14)
29. The value of amu is which of the following? I. One molecule of oxygen
(a) 1.57×10–24 kg (b) 1.66×10–24 kg II. One atom of nitrogen
(c) 1.99×10 kg–23
(d) 1.66×10–27 kg III. 1 × 10–10 gram molecule of oxygen
UP CPMT-2003 IV. 1 × 10–10 g of copper
th
(a) II < I < IV < III (b) I < II < III < IV
1 (c) III < II < IV < I (d) IV < II < III < I
Ans. (d) : 1 amu is defined as   of the mass one
 12  (e) II < IV < I < III
carbon-12 isotope atom. As per the definition of atomic AIIMS-2016
mass unit, Kerala-CEE-2011
Ans. (a) : Comparing the masses, we get correct order 36. Assertion : The normality of 0.3 M aqueous
of increasing mass is (II) < (I) < (IV) < (III) solution of H3PO3 is equal to 0.6N.
(I) 1 molecule of oxygen = O2 Reason: Equivalent weight of H3PO3
∴ Mass of O2 Molecular weight of H 3 PO 3
=
16 × 2 32g 32 3
= = = = 5.3 × 10−23 g
NA N A 6.22 ×1023 (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
the Reason is the correct explanation of
(II) Mass of 1 atom of Nitrogen = 1.66 × 10−24 ×14 Assertion.
= 23.2 × 10 −24 g (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
(III) 1× 10−24 gm molecule of oxygen = 1× 10−10
Assertion.
moles of O2 (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
Mass of 1× 10−10 gm molecule of oxygen 1× 10−10 × 32 (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
= 3.2 × 10 −9 g incorrect.
AIIMS-2018, 2013, 2011
(IV) Mass of copper = 1× 10−10 g
Comparing the masses in (I), (II), (III) and (IV) Ans. (c): H3PO3 is a divalent. This is because it has two
ionizable hydrogen atoms bonded to two oxygen atom
We get, (II), < (I), < (IV), < (III) and one non-ionizable hydrogen atom bonded directly
Therefore, answer is (II) < (I) < (IV) < (III) to phosphorus.
34. 1.520 g of hydroxide of a metal on ignition gave Molecular weight
0.995 g of oxide. The equivalent weight of metal ∴ Equivalent weight =
Valency factor
is :
(a) 1.52 (b) 0.995 (Where, valency factor = no. of replaceable H+ ions)
(c) 19.00 (d) 9.00 M
equivalent weight = , since, no. of replaceable H+
BITSAT-2011 q
BCECE-2008 ions in H3PO3 = 2
Ans. (d) : Let E be the equivalent weight of the metal 37. 0.79 gm of a metal oxide is obtained from 0.5
E + 17 1.52 gm of the same metal upon oxidation.
So, = Equivalent weight of the metal will be which of
E + 8 0.995
[17 is equivalent weight of OH and 8 is equivalent the following?
weight of oxygen] (a) 10 (b) 13.8
⇒ 0.995E + 17 × 0.995 = E × 1.52 + 8 ×1.52 (c) 20 (d) 40
Tripura JEE-2022
⇒ 0.525E = 16.915 − 12.16 = 4.755
Ans. (b) : Mass of metal + mass of oxygen = mass of
4.755 metal oxide
∴E = =9
0.525 Mass of oxygen = 0.79 – 0.5
35. In acidic medium, the equivalent weight of = 0.29
K2Cr2O7 (Mol. wt. = M) is Mass of metal Eq.wt.of metal
=
M Mass of oxygen Eq.wt.of oxygen
(a) M (b)
2 0.5
Eq.wt.of metal = ×8
M M 0.29
(c) (d)
3 6 Eq.wt.of metal = 13.79  13.8
WBJEE-2012 38. What amount of conc. H2SO4 solution should
UPTU/UPSEE-2009 be used to prepare 500 ml of 0.5 M H2SO4?
Ans. (d) : An equivalent weight of a solution is defined (The concentration of H2SO4 solution being
as the molecular weight of the solute divided by the used is 90% and molecular mass of H2SO4 =
valence of the solute. Equivalent weight is used for 98.079 g. mol–1)
predicting the mass of substance that react with one (a) 22.06 g (b) 24.52 g
atom of hydrogen is acid –base analysis. (c) 11.03 g (d) 27.24 g
Balanced chemical reaction of K2Cr2O7 in acidic AP-EAPCET-23.08.2021, Shift-I
medium will be- Ans. (a) : Given that-
K 2 Cr2O 7 + 14H + + 6e − → 2K + + 2Cr 3+ + 7H 2O V = 500 ml
In the above reaction, oxidation state of chromate ion is C = 0.5 M
changing from +6 to +3, i.e. the transfer of 6 electrons Concentration of H2SO4 solution being used is 90%
is taking place. 0.5 × 90
M So, C = = 0.45 M
∴ Equivalent weight = 100
6 Molecular weight of H2SO4 = 98.079 g/mol
n (moles) 42. Vapour density of a metal chloride is 83. If
∴C= equivalent weight of the metal is 6, its atomic
V (volume) weight will be ....... . 1
weight 1 (a) 12 (b) 24
or C = × (c) 18 (d) 60
m.weight V(Volume)
Putting the value we get- AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-I
weight / amount Ans. (b) : Valency of metal,
0.45 = 2 × vapour density
98.079 × 0.5 (n) =
Amount of H2SO4 = 0.45×0.5×98.079 = 22.06 gm. Equivalent weight of metal + 35.5
39. When 1 : 2 equivalence ratio of the gases X 2 × 83
= =4
and Y are heated to 573 K – 673 K at 200 – 300 6 + 35.5
atm in the presence of ZnO – Cr2O3 catalyst, The atomic weight of metal is equal to the product of
methanol is formed. Here, the gases X and Y the equivalent weight of metal and valency.
are ____ and ____ respectively. Atomic weight of metal = n × equivalent weight of
(a) CO2 & H2 (b) CO & H2 metal
(c) CH4 & O2 (d) CH4 & H2O(g) ⇒ 4 × 6 = 24
AP EAPCET 24.08.2021, Shift-I Hence, the correct option (b).
ZnO + Cr2O3
Ans. (b) : CO + 2H 2 
573K − 673K
→ CH 3OH 43. A 40% by mass sucrose solution is heated till, it
becomes 50% by mass. Calculate the mass of
CO and H2 are heated to 573 K – 673 K at 200 - 300 water lost from 100 g of the solution is
atm in the presence of ZnO − Cr2 O3 catalyst, methanol (a) 10 g (b) 15 g
is formed. This process is used to prepare methanol on (c) 20 g (d) 25 g
an industrial scale. AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-II
40. 3.7 gm of a gas at 25oC occupies some volume. Ans. (c) : 40% sucrose solution means it contains 60%
At 17oC, 0.184 gm hydrogen gas occupies same water. After heating, till 50% by mass sucrose remains.
volume when pressures of both gases are same. 0.4
Thus, % water lost = × 100 = 80
What will be the molecular weight of the gas? 0.5
(a) 41.98 (b) 20.67 Water lost = 100 – 80 = 20 g
(c) 20.94 (d) 41.34 Hence, option (c) is correct.
Tripura JEE-202144. What will be the mass of one atom of 12C?
Ans. (d) : Given, Amount of gas = 3.7g (a) 1 amu (b) 1.9923×10–23g
Here, volume and pressure of both gases are same. (c) 1.6603×10 g –22
(d) 6 amu
As we know, PV = nRT WB-JEE-2020
P and V are same for both gases.
So, n1T1 = n2T2 Ans. (b) : Mass of 12 C = 12 gm
w1 w 6.022 × 1023 atoms are present in 12 g of carbon -12
T1 = 2 T2 element.
M1 M2
Mass of 6.022 × 1023 atom = 12 gm.
3.7 0.184
× 298 = × 290 12
M1 2 Mass of 1 Atom =
6.023 × 1023
M1 = 41.33 g = 1.993 × 10 −23 gm
41. 12.3 g of 1-bromopropane is treated with
alcoholic KOH. What mass of propene is 45. In a flask, the weight ratio of CH4(g) and
obtained if yield is 50%? SO2(g) at 298 K and 1 bar is 1:2. The ratio of
(a) 6.05 g (b) 12.3 g the number of molecules of SO2(g) and CH4(g)
is
(c) 4.2 g (d) 2.1 g
(a) 1:4 (b) 4:1
Assam CEE-2021
(c) 1:2 (d) 2:1
Ans. (d) : COMEDK-2020
CH3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − Br alc
KOH
→ CH3 − CH = CH 2 Ans. (c) : Let mass of CH4(g) =1g
12.3g 50% x g? 1
121 g → 41 g (100% ) Number of moles of CH4 ( n CH 4 )=
16
41 50 1
1g→ × ( 50% ) Number of molecules of CH4(g)= × NA
121 100 16
41 50 Let the mass of SO2(g)=2g
12.3g → × × 12.3
121 100 2
Number of moles of SO2(g)( n so2 )=
= 2.06 = 2.1g 64
2 = 2 × 90
Number of molecules of SO2(g)= × NA = 180
64 Hence, assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
Ratio of number of molecules of SO2(g) and number of
molecules of CH4(g) = 49. In acid medium MnO 4– is reduced to Mn2+, by a
reducing agent. Then the equivalent mass of
2 1 1 1
× NA : × NA ⇒ : ⇒ 1: 2 KMnO4 is given by :
64 16 32 16 (M = molecular mass)
46. Equivalent mass of K2Cr2O7 in acidic solution (a) M/2 (b) M
is equal to (c) M/5 (d) M/3
(a) molecular mass/2 (b) molecular mass/4 Manipal-2019
(c) molecular mass (d) molecular mass/ 6. Ans. (c) :
MnO 4− + 8H + + 5e − → Mn 2+ + 4H 2 O
COMEDK-2019
Ans. (d) : The given reaction occurred in acidic ↓
↓ O.N=+2
medium is : O.N.=+7
K 2 Cr2 O 7 + 14H + + 6e – → 2K + + 2Cr 3+ + 7H 2 O In acidic medium, Mn +7 goes to Mn +2 state and hence
In the above reaction, you can see that l molecule of there is a net gain of 5 electrons.
K2Cr2O7 is releasing 6 electrons and molecular weight Now, equivalent weight
of K2Cr2O7=294 g/mol molar mass
=
∴Calculation of equivalent weight number of electrons gained or lost
Molecular wt.of K 2 Cr2O 7 M
= So, equivalent weight =
Acidity 5
Molecular wt.of K 2Cr2 O7 50. The equivalent weight of oxalic acid in
Equivalent weight = C2H2O4.2H2O is
6 (a) 45 (b) 63
47. Equivalent weight of KMnO4 is equal to (c) 90 (d) 126
(a) one-sixth its molecular weight NDA (I)-2019
(b) its molecular weight Ans : (b) Given, Oxalic Acid (C2H2O4.2H2O)
(c) one-fifth its molecular weight We know that,
(d) half is molecular weight. Molecular weight
COMEDK-2019 Equivalent weight =
n - factor
2KMnO 4 + 3H 2SO 4 → 126
Ans. (c) : = = 63
K 2SO 4 + 2MnSO 4 + 3H 2 O + 5[O] 2
Since, mass of oxygen are available from Hence, equivalent weight of oxalic acid (C2H2O4.2H2O)
2×8 1 is 63.
= mol. wt. of KMnO4 51. 1 mol of FeSO4 (atomic weight of Fe is 55.84g
5 × 16 5 mol-1) is oxidised to Fe2(SO4)3.
Therefore, equivalent weight of KMnO4 Calculate the equivalent weight of ferrous ion
1 (a) 55.84 (b) 27. 92
= × molecular weight.
5 (c) 18.61 (d) 111.68
Thus equivalent weight of KMnO4 is one fifth its (e) 83.76
molecular weight. Kerala-CEE-2018
48. Assertion: Molecular weight of a compound is Ans. (a) : 1 mol of FeSO4 is oxidised to Fe2(SO4)3.
180, if its vapour density is 90. Change in oxidation number = 1(+2 → +3)
Vapour density The atomic mass of Fe = 55.84
Reason: Molecular Weight =
2 Atomic mass
Equivalent mass =
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Changein oxidation state
Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion. For the charge, Fe → Fe3+ i.e. (3 – 2 = 1)
2+
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but 55.84

Reason is not the correct explanation of The equivalent mass = = 55.84
1
Assertion. 52. In the standardization of Na2S2O3 using
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. K2Cr2O7 by iodometry, the equivalent weight of
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are K2Cr2O7 is :
incorrect. (a) Molecular weight/2
AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Morning) (b) Molecular weight/6
Ans. (c): Relation between molecular weight and (c) Molecular weight/3
vapour density is, (d) Same as molecular weight
Molecular weight of compound = 2 × vapour density Manipal-2018
Ans. (b) : The reaction between Na 2S2 O3 and Ans. (a): Mass of neutron = 1.008665 amu
K 2 Cr2 O 7 is as shown below. Mass of electron = 0.00055 amu
Hence, Neutron is 1842 times heavier than an electron.
26H + + 3S2 O32− + 4Cr2O 27− → 6SO 24− + 8Cr 3+ + 13H 2 O 56. What is the formula mass of anhydrous sodium
The oxidation state of chromium in K 2 Cr2 O 7 change carbonate? [Given that the atomic masses of
from +6 to +3. sodium, carbon and oxygen are 23u, 12u and
The net change in oxidation number per formula unit is 16u respectively]
6. (a) 286 u (b) 106 u
Hence, (c) 83 u (d) 53 u
NDA (II)-2018
Molecular weight
The equivalent weight of K2Cr2O7 = Ans. (b) : Chemical formula of anhydrous sodium
6 carbonate- (Na2CO3)
53. A certain amount of a metal whose equivalent = 2 × [Atomic Mass of Na + Atomic mass of C + 3 ×
mass is 28 displaces 0.7 L of H2 at STP from an Atomic mass of oxygen]
acid. Hence, mass of the element is : =2×23+12+3×16=106 µ
(a) 1.75 g (b) 0875 g 57. A sample of oxygen contains two isotopes of
(c) 3.50 g (d) 7.00 g oxygen with masses 16 u and 18 u respectively.
Manipal-2018 The proportion of these isotopes in the sample
given volume is 3 : 1. What will be the average atomic mass
Ans. (a) : Moles of H2 = … (i) of oxygen in this sample?
volume at STP (a) 17.5 u (b) 17 u
molar mass of metal (c) 16 u (d) 16.5 u
Equivalent weight = … (ii)
valency NDA (II)-2018
Gram equivalent metal = gram equivalent of H2 Ans. (d) : Given,
From (i) & (ii) – Two isotopes of oxygen with 16u and 18u. The
Weight of metal proportion is given, 3:1
= Moles of H 2 × Valency factor ∴ Percentage composition of isotopes of oxygen is 75%
Equivalent wt. of metal and 25%.
Now, we know that
Weight of metal given volume Average atomic mass of element=
⇒ = ×2
28 22.4 (Atomic mass of Ist isotope × Percentage Isotop)
+
Weight of metal 0.7 100
⇒ = ×2
28 22.4 (Atomic mass 2nd isotope × Percentage of 2nd )
Weight = 1.75 gm
100
54. The masses of oxygen which combine with a 75 25
fixed mass of hydrogen to form H2O and H2O2, = 16 × + 18 ×
respectively, bear the simple ratio 1:2. 100 100
= 16.5u
The above statement illustrates which of the
following laws? Hence, the average atomic mass of oxygen is 16.5u .
(a) Law of definite composition 58. Assertion : Equal moles of different substances
(b) Law of multiple proportions contain same number of constituent particles.
(c) Gay Lussac’s law of gaseous volumes Reason: Equal weights of different substance
contain the same number of constituent
(d) Avogadro’s law particles.
COMEDK-2018 (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Ans. (b) : The masses of oxygen which combine with a the Reason is the correct explanation of
fixed mass of hydrogen to form H2O and H2O2, Assertion.
respectively bear the simple ratio 1: 2. It illustrates the (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
law of multiple proportions. Reason is not the correct explanation of
The law of multiple proportions can be defined as if two Assertion.
elements form more than one compound between them, (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
the mass ratios of the second elements that combine (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
with a fixed mass of the first element will always be the incorrect.
ratios of small whole numbers.
AIIMS-2017
55. The number of times the comparative mass of a Ans. (c): Equal moles of different substances contain
neutron is heavier than an electron is same number of constituent particles. But equal weights
(a) ~1842 (b) ~182 of different substances do not contain the same number
(c) ~102 (d) ~4050 of constituent particles. Hence, Assertion is correct but
J & K CET-(2018) reason is incorrect.

Weight 62. What mass of calcium chloride in grams would
Number of moles = be enough to produce 14.35 g of AgCl? (Atomic
Molecular weight mass Ca = 40, Ag = 108)
Number of particle (a) 5.55 g (b) 8.295 g
Number of moles = (c) 11.19 g (d) 16.59 g
NA
Manipal-2017
Where, NA = Avogadro's number
Ans. (a) : Given, weight of AgCl = 14.35 g
59. 4 g of copper was dissolved in conc. HNO3. The Molecular weight of AgCl = 143.32 g mol–1
copper nitrate thus obtained gave 5 g of its
oxide on strong heating the equivalent weight CaCl2 + 2AgNO3 → Ca(NO3 )2 + 2AgCl
111g 2×143.5g
of copper is
CaCl2 required to produced 2×143.5g of AgCl = 111g
(a) 23 (b) 32
CaCl2 required to produced 14.35g of AgCl
(c) 12 (d) 20
111×14.35
BITSAT-2017 = = 5.55 g
Ans. (b) : Given that, 4 g of copper gave 5 g of its 2 × 143.5
oxides means one g of oxygen combines with 4 g of 63. The mass of oxygen that would be required to
copper. produce enough CO which completely reduces
Q Eq. wt of oxygen = 8, 1.6 kg Fe2O3 (at. mass Fe = 56), is :
Therefore, 8 g of oxygen combine with (a) 240 g (b) 480 g
= 4 × 8 g of copper = 32 g (c) 720 g (d) 960 g
Hence, equivalent weight of copper = 32 Manipal-2017
60. The most abundant elements by mass in the 3
Ans. (b) : 3C + O 2 → 3CO
body of a healthy human adult are Oxygen 2
(61.4%); of healthy Carbon (22.9%), Hydrogen Fe 2 O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO 2
(10.0%); and Nitrogen (2.6%). The weight 3
which a 75 kg person would gain if all 1H atoms 1 mol of Fe 2 O3 ≡ 3 mol of CO ≡ mole of O 2
are replaced by 2H atoms is 2
(a) 15 kg (b) 37.5 kg 3
160 g of Fe 2 O3 require O 2 = × 32 = 48 g
(c) 7.5 kg (d) 10 kg 2
[JEE Main-2017] 1.6 kg of Fe 2 O3 require O 2 = 480 g
Ans. (c) : Given that – 64.
What is the actual volume occupied by water
Percentage of mass of oxygen (WO) = 61.4 % molecules present in 20 cm3 of water?
Percentage of mass of carbon (WC) = 22.9 % (a) 20 cm3 (b) 10 cm3
3
Percentage of mass of hydrogen (WH) = 10 % (c) 40 cm (d) 24.89 dm3
Percentage of mass of nitrogen (WN) = 2.6 % MHT CET-2017
Weight of the person (W) = 75kg. Ans. (d) : Given,
Mass of H1, WH = 10% of 75kg Density of water = 1 g/cc and volume = 20 cm3 = 20cc.
= 7.5 kg Mass
Since Density =
2 1
Volume
1 H is double mass of 1 H Mass = 1× 20 = 20 g
Mass of H 2 , WH2 = 15kg 20
So, no. of moles of water = = 1.11 moles
Increase in mass ∆w = WH2 − WH1 18
1 moles occupies 22.4L
= 15 kg – 7.5 kg ∴1.11 moles occupies 24.89L, i.e.
= 7.5 kg 24.89 dm3 (1 lt = 1dm3)
61. The compound Na2CO3. xH2O has 50% H2O by 65. 0.126 g of an acid is needed to completely
mass. The value of “x” is neutralize 20 mL 0.1 (N) NaOH solution. The
(a) 4 (b) 5 equivalent weight of the acid is
(c) 6 (d) 7 (a) 53 (b) 40
(e) 8 (c) 45 (d) 63
Kerala-CEE-2017 WB-JEE-2017
Ans. (c) : Molar mass of Na 2 CO3 = 106 unit Ans. (d) : Gram equivalents weight of Acid = Gram
equivalents of weight Base
(23 × 2) + 12 + (3 × 16)
Number of moles (per unit charge) = 50% of 106 is 0.126 20
= × 0.1
106/2 = 53 gm E Acid 1000
53 0.126 ×1000
= 2.94 mol = E Acid
18 20 × 0.1
Total moles of H2O = 2 × 2.94 = 5.89 ≅ 6.00 E Acid = 63 g/equivalent

66. When 2.46 g of a hydrated salt (MSO4xH2O) is Ans. (b):
completely dehydrated 1.20 g of anhydrous salt Given mass of compound
is obtained. If the molecular weight of Acive mass =
molecular mass of compound × volume of solution
anhydrous salt is 120 g mol-1, what is the value
of x?
(a) 2 (b) 4 Active mass is defined as number of g mol per litre. It is
(c) 5 (d) 6 also known as molar concentration molarity.
(e) 7 8.50 g
[NH 3 ] = × 1000mL
Kerala-CEE-2016 17 g / mol × 250mL
∆
Ans. (e) : MSO4 .xH 2 O  → MSO4 + H 2O [NH 3 ] = 2.0 mol / L
2.46g 1.20g xg
70. Sulphur forms the chlorides S2Cl2 and SCl2.
Molecular weight of MSO4.xH2O = 120g + x × 18g The equivalent mass of sulphur in SCl2 is
(120g + x.18g) of MSO4.xH2O on complete dehydration (a) 8 g/ mol (b) 16 g/mol
gives 120g of MSO4 (c) 64.8 g/mol (d) 32 g/mol
120 AIIMS-2015
1g gives =
120 + 18x Ans. (b): Equivalent mass of sulphur
120 × 2.4g atomic mass of sulphur
Then, 2.46g of MSO4.xH2O gives ⇒
120 + 18 x g valency
120 × 2.4 6 x ( −1)
= 1.20 SCl2 = x + 2( −1) = 0
120 + 18 x
x=2
295.2
= 1.20 32
120 + 18x ⇒ = 16
295.2 = 1.20 × 120 + 1.20 × 18x 2
295.2 = 144 + 21.6x 71. 3.011 × 1022 atoms of an element weighs 1.15 g.
295.2 – 144 = 21.6 x The atomic mass of the element is :
151.2 (a) 23 (b) 10
x= =7 (c) 16 (d) 35.5
21.6
67. The following reaction occurs in acidic medium AP-EAMCET (Engg.)-2015
KMnO4 + 8H+ + 5e– → K+ + Mn2+ + 4H2O Ans. (a) : From Avogadro's law :
What is the equivalent weight of KMnO4? Q 3.011 × 1022 atoms contain an element weight 1.15
(Molecular weight of KMnO4 = 158) gm.
(a) 79.0 (b) 31.6 Atomic mass → 1 mole of atoms → 6.022 × 1023 atoms
(c) 158.0 (d) 39.5 1.15
1atom =
TS-EAMCET-2016 3.011× 1022
Ans. (b) : Given that, 1.15 × 6.022 × 1023
KMnO4 + 8H+ + 5e– → K+ + Mn2+ + 4H2O 6.022 × 1023 atoms = = 23
3.011× 1022
KMnO4 acts as oxidising agent in acidic medium. Thus, the atomic mass of the element is = 23.
158
∴ Equivalent weight of KMnO4 = 72. KMnO4 reacts with ferrous sulphate according
5 to the following equation.
= 31.6 g/equivalent. MnO 4– + 5Fe2+ + 8H – → Mn 2+ + 2Fe3+ + 4H 2 O
68. A bivalent metal has an equivalent mass of 32.
The molecular mass of the metal nitrate is Here, 10 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 is equivalent to
(a) 124 (b) 156 (a) 50 mL of 0.1 M FeSO4
(c) 64 (d) 188 (b) 20 mL of 0.1 M FeSO4
COMEDK-2016 (c) 40 mL of 0.1 M FeSO4
(d) 30 mL of 0.1 M FeSO4
Ans. (d) : Atomic mass of metal = Eq. mass × valency
=32×2 = 64 JIPMER-2015
As metal M is bivalent, formula of its nitrate will be Ans. (a) : KMnO4 reacts with ferrous sulphate
M(NO3)2. according to the following equation,
Molecular mass of M(NO3)2= 64 +2(14+48) 2KMnO 4 + 10 FeSO 4 + 8H 2SO 4 → K 2SO 4 + 2MnSO 4 + 5Fe 2 (SO 4 )3 + 8H 2 O
= 64+124=188 2 moles of KMnO 4 reacts with 10 moles of FeSO 4

69. 8.50g of NH3 is present in 250 mL volume. Its The number of moles of KMnO 4 in 10 ml of 0.1
active mass is
(a) 1.5 ML–1 (b) 2.0 ML–1 M = 0.1 × 0.01 = 10−3 moles
(c) 1.0 ML –1
(d) 0.5 ML–1 No. of moles FeSO4 = 5 × 10–3
UPTU/UPSEE-2016 Volume having 5×10–3 mol in 0.1 MFeSO4

5 × 10−3 ×1000 Ans. (b) : 16.9 g AgNO3 is present in 100 mL solution.
0.1 = ∴ 8.45 g AgNO3 is present in 50 mL solution.
Vml
5.8 g NaCl is present in 100 mL solution.
5 × 10−3 × 1000 2.9 g NaCl is present in 50 mL solution.
Vml =
0.1 Initial mole
Vml = 50 ml
73. In acidic medium, dichromatic ion oxidizes
ferrous ion to 'ferric ion'. If the gram
molecular weight of potassium dichromate is
294g, its gram equivalent weight (in grams) is
(a) 24.5 (b) 49
(c) 125 (d) 250 Therefore, mass of AgCl precipitated
JIPMER-2015 = 0.049 × 143.5 = 7 g
Ans. (b) : In acidic medium K2Cr2O7 acts as a strong 76. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form
oxidising agent and itself gets reduced to Cr3+. two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole
Cr2O −7 2 + 6e − → 2Cr 3+ of XY2 weight 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2
The oxidation state of K2Cr2O7 weights 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are
2(+1) + 2x + 2(–7) = 0 (a) 40, 30 (b) 60, 40
2x = +12 (c) 20, 30 (d) 30, 20
x = +6 NEET-2015
Equivalent weight of Ans. (a) : M1 → Molecular mass of xy2
Molecular weight 294 M 2 → Molecular mass of x 3 y 2
K 2 Cr2 O 7 = = = 49
Valency 6 a1 → Atomic weight of x
74. Which of the following is correctly arranged in a 2 → Atomic weight of y
order of increasing weight?
10
(a) 0.0105 equivalent of H2C2O4. 2H2O < 0.625 g = 0.1
of Fe < 0.006 g atom of Ag < 6.0×1021atoms M1
of Zn m1 = 100
(b) 0.625 g of Fe < 0.0105 equivalent of H2C2O4.
2H2O < 6.0×1021 atoms of Zn < 0.006 g atom a1 + 2a2 = 100 … (i)
of Ag Similarly
(c) 0.625 g of Fe < 6.0×1021 atoms of Zn < 0.006 9
g atom of Ag < 0.0105 equivalent of H2C2O4. = 0.05
m2
.2H2O
(d) 0.0105 equivalent of H2C2O4. 2H2O < 0.006 g 900
n2 =
atom of Ag < 6.0×1021 atoms of Zn < 0.625 g 5
of Fe 900
JIPMER-2015 3a1 + 2a2 = = 180 … (ii)
5
Ans. (c) : Here, the correct order of increasing weight, Solving (i) & (ii) simultaneously
- 0.625 g of Fe < 6.0 × 1021 atoms of Zn < 0.006 g atom
of Ag < 0.0105 equivalent of H2C2O4. 2H2O.
6.0 × 1021 atoms of Zn (atomic weight 65.4 g/mol)
6.0 × 1021
Corresponds to × 65.4 = 0.654 g
6.0 × 1023
0.006 g atom of Ag (atomic mass 108 g/mol) Atomic weight of x & y are
Corresponds to 0.006 × 108 = 0.648 g 40 & 30 respectivily
0.0105 equivalent of H 2C 2 O 4 .2H 2 O (equivalent mass 77. The equivalent weight of Na2S2O3 in the
63 g/eq) following reaction is
Corresponds to 0.0105 × 63 = 0.662 g 2Na2S2O3 + I2 → Na2S4O6 + 2NaI
75. What is the mass of the precipitate formed (a) M (b) M/8
when 50 mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO3 is (c) M/0.5 (d) M/2
mixed with 50mL of 5.8% NaCl Solution? JCECE - 2014
(Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16 Na = 23, Cl = 35.5) 2−
Ans. (a) : 2S2O3  2−
→ S4 O6 + 2e −
(a) 3.5 g (b) 7 g

2M
(c) 14 g (d) 28 g ENa2S2O3 = =M
NEET-2015 2
78. The oxide of a metal contains 40% of oxygen. Ans. (b) : Molecular mass of yellow phosphorus (P4) =
The valency of metal is 2. What is the atomic 4 × 30 = 120
weight of metal? According to Avogadro’s hypothesis,
(a) 24 (b) 13 Mass of 6.022 × 1023 molecules = 120 g
(c) 40 (d) 36
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) - 2014 120 × 1
Mass of 1 Molecule =
Ans. (a) : 100 gm of metal oxide contain 40 gm oxygen 6.022 × 1023
and 60 gm of metal. = 19.926 × 10 −23 g
∴ 8 gm of oxygen will be combined with = = 1.993 ×10–22 g
60 × 8 = 1.993 × 10–19 mg
= 12 gm of metal
40 82. A certain metal sulphide, MS2, is used
∴ Equivalent weight of metal = 12 extensively as a high temperature lubricant, If
Thus, atomic weight = Eq. weight × valency MS2 has 40.96% sulphur by weight, atomic
= 12×2 mass of M will be–
= 24 (a) 100 amu (b) 96 amu
79. Which has the maximum number of molecules (c) 60 amu (d) 30 amu
among the following? BCECE-2013
(a) 44g CO2 (b) 48 g O3 Ans. (b) :
(c) 8 g H2 (d) 64 g SO2 Weight percentage of sulphur
AIIMS-2014 Mass of sulphur
= × 100
Ans. (c): 8g H2 has the maximum number of molecules. Mass of Compound
weight of thesubstance 64
No. of moles = ⇒ 40.96 = × 100
Molecular weight of thesubstance M + 64
44 40.96 (M + 64) = 64 × 100
Moles of CO2 = = 1mol. 40. 96 M + 64 × 40.96 = 64 × 100
44
48 M = 96 amu
Moles of O3 = = 1mol. Where, M = Atomic mass of metal
48
83. Equivalent weight of (NH4)2Cr2O7 in the
8
Moles of H2 = = 4 mol change is
2 (NH4)2Cr2O7 → N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O
64 (a) Mol. wt./6 (b) Mol. wt./3
Moles of SO2 = = 1mol.
64 (c) Mol. wt./4 (d) Mol. wt./2
Maximum no. of moles will corresponds to maximum UP CPMT-2013
number of molecules. Ans. (a) : 1 mole (NH 4 ) 2 Cr2 O7 ≡ 1 mole of Cr2O3
4 moles of H2 i.e. 4 × 6.023 × 1023 molecules.
≡ 1 × 6 eq. of Cr2O3
80. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a 2−
particular gaseous mixture is 1 : 4 The ratio of ∴Reduction of Cr2 O 7 to Cr is a 6e– change.
3+
number of their molecule is ( Cr 6 + )2 + 6e − → ( Cr 3+ )2 

(a) 1:4 (b) 7:32
(c) 1:8 (d) 3:16 Therefore, equivalent weight of (NH 4 ) 2 Cr2 O7 = M / 6
[JEE Main-2014] 84. The equivalent mass of a certain bivalent metal
Ans. (b) : Given ratio of masses of oxygen and is 20. The molecular mass of its anhydrous
Nitrogen = 1 : 4 chloride is
Let mass of O2 = x (a) 111 (b) 55.5
Mass of N2 = 4x (c) 75.5 (d) 91
Molecular mass of oxygen = 32 Karnataka-CET-2012
Molecular mass of Nitrogen = 28 Ans. (a) : The equivalent mass of bivalent metal
x molecular mass
Molecules of O2 = NA =
32 2
4x Molecular mass = equivalent mass × 2
Molecules of N2 = NA = 20 × 2 = 40
28
Ratio of number of molecules = 7:32 The metal is bivalent. So, 1 mole of metal atoms will
combine with 2 moles of chlorine atoms.
81. What is the mass of one molecule of yellow
phosphorus? (Atomic mass, P = 30) M + Cl2 → MCl2
(a) 1.993×10–22 kg (b) 1.993×10–19 mg The atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5 g
–20
(c) 4.983×10 mg (d) 4.983×10–23 g The molecular mass of its anhydrous chloride will be 40
MHT CET-2014 + 2(35.5) = 111 g/mol.
85. A 100% pure sample of a divalent metal Ans. (b) : The rate of effusion is inversely proportional
carbonate weighing 2g on complete thermal to the molecular mass
decomposition releases 448 cc of carbon dioxide
at STP. The equivalent mass of the metal is r1 Mw 2
=
(a) 40 (b) 20 r2 Mw1
(c) 28 (d) 12
(e) 56 The rate of effusion is the ratio of the volume effused to
Kerala-CEE-2012 the time taken
Ans. (b) : Formula of Metal carbonate is MCO3 v1 t 2 Mw 2
× =
Molar mass of MCO3 = x + 12 + 3 × 16 t1 v 2 Mw1
= (x + 60) g /mol
(Let atomic mass of M is x) Here, volume is same.
448 cc (448mL) CO2 is produced from 3 Mw 2
Carbonate = 2 g So, =
1 4
22400 cc CO2 will be obtained from carbonate
Mw 2
2 × 22400 9=
= = 100g 4
448
∴ 100 = x + 60 Mw 2 = 36
x = 100 – 60 = 40 g/mol 88. Two gases A and B having the same volume
Atomic mass diffuse through a porous partition in 20 and 10
Equivalent mass of metal = seconds respectively. The molecular mass of A
Valency
40 is 49 u. Molecular mass of B will be
= = 20g equiv −1 (a) 50.00 u (b) 12.25 u
2
(c) 6.50 u (d) 25.00 u
86. 50 mL of each gas A and of gas B takes 150 and
200 seconds respectively for effusing through a UP CPMAT-2012
pin hole under the similar conditions. If NEET-2011
molecular mass of gas B is 36, the molecular Ans. (b) : Graham’s law of diffusion states that the rate
mass of gas A will be of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the
(a) 96 (b) 128 square root of its molecular weight.
(c) 32 (d) 20.2 According to the Graham’s law
NEET-2012
1
Ans. (d) : Graham’s law of effusion states that the rate Rate of diffusion (r) ∝
of effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the M
square root the molar mass of its particles. v
VA = VB = 50mL Rate of diffusion =
t
TA = 150s Where v is volume and t is time
TB = 200s r1 M2
=
M B = 36 r2 M1
MA = ?
v1
From Graham's law of effusion.
t1 M2 t2 M2
rB M A VBTA = = =
= = v2 M1 t1 49
rA M B TB .VA t2
M A VA × 150 1 M2
= =
36 200 × VA 2 49
M A 15 3 49
or = = 4 M2 =
36 20 4
MA 9 M2 = 12.254
=
36 16 89. Excess of silver nitrate solution is added to 100
9 × 36 81 mL of 0.01 M pentaaqua chloro chromium (III)
MA = = = 20.25 ≈ 20.2 chloride solution. The mass of silver chloride
16 4
87. A certain gas takes three times as long to effuse obtained in grams is [Atomic mass of silver is
out as helium. Its molecular mass will be 108].
(a) 27 u (b) 36 u (a) 287 ×10–3 (b) 143.5 ×10–3
–2
(c) 64 u (d) 9 u (c) 143.5 ×10 (d) 287 ×10–2
NEET-2012 Karnataka-CET-2011
Ans. (a) : The reagent is [Cr (H2O)5Cl] Cl2 Ans. (b) :
[Cr(H2O5)5Cl]Cl2  Excess
→ [Cr(H2O5)5Cl]+ NO 3− +2AgCl Molar mass
AgNO3 Equivalent weight in redox system=
↓ n − factor
2 × 100 × 0.01 (where, n-factor is net change in oxidation number per
No. of moles of Cl– ion present = formula unit of oxidising or reducing agent.)
1000 In MnSO4. n – Factor is 2 because equivalent weight is
= 0.002 equal to its molecular weight.
∴ Mass of AgCl = 0.002 × 143.5 Here, n-factor –
= 0.287 MnSO4 → Mn 2 O3 1(+2 → +3)
= 287 × 10–3 g
MnSO4 → MnO 2 2(+2 → +4)
90. Equivalent and molecular masses are same in
(a) Mohr’s salt MnSO4 → MnO −4 5(+2 → +7)
(b) potassium permanganate MnSO4 → MnO24− 4(+2 → +6)
(c) potassium dichromate
(d) oxalic acid. Therefore, MnSO4 convert to MnO 2 . Then the n-
COMEDK-2011 factor is to and the equivalent weight of MnSO4 will be
Ans. (a) : Mohr’s salt is FeSO4. (NH4)2SO4. 6H2O. half of its molecular weight.
Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e – 94. If the equivalent weight of a trivalent metal is
32.7, the molecular weight of its chloride is
The oxidation state of Fe change from +2 to +3.
(a) 68.2 (b) 103.2
Mol.wt. 392
∴ Equivalent wt. of Mohr’s salt = = = 392 (c) 204.6 (d) 32.7
1 1 JCECE - 2011
91. Two different electrolytic cells filled with Ans. (c) : Atomic wt. of metal = valency × equivalent
molten Al(NO3)3 respectively are connected in weight
series. When electricity is passed 2.7 gram Al is = 3 × 32.7
deposited on electrode. Calculate the weight of
Cu deposited on cathode. [Cu = 63.5 ; Al = 27.0 Molecular wt. of metal chloride
gram. mol–1] (MCl3) = (3 × 32.7) + (3 × 35.5)
(a) 190.5 gram (b) 9.525 gram = 204.6
(c) 63.5 gram (d) 31.75 gram 95. In the disproportionation reaction
GUJCET-2011 3HClO 3  → HClO 4 + Cl 2 + 2O 2 + H 2 O, the
Ans. (b): Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu(s) equivalent mass of the oxidizing agent is (molar
Al3+ + 3e– → Al(s) mass of HClO3 = 84.45)
When same current is passed through two electrolytic (a) 16.89 (b) 32.22
solution containing copper nitrate [Cu(NO2)2] and (c) 84.45 (d) 28.15
aluminium nitrate [Al(NO3)3] are connected in series. (e) 29.7
Weight of Cu deposited Equivalent weight of Cu Kerala-CEE-2011
∴ =
Weight of Aldeposited Equivalent weight of Al
Ans. (a):
Wt.of Cu 31.7
= Since oxidation number of Cl decreases from +5 in
2.7 9
31.7 × 2.7 HClO3 to zero in Cl2. Therefore, HClO3 acts as an
Wt.of Cu = = 9.5gram oxidising agent.
9 Eq. mass of HClO3
So, weight of Cu deposited = 9.525 gm
92. Equivalent weight of crystalline oxalic acid is Mol.mass of HClO3 84.45
= = = 16.89
(a) 90 (b) 63 oxidation number change 5
(c) 53 (d) 45
96. One atomic mass is equal to
BCECE-2011
(a) 1.66×10–27 g (b) 1.66×10–24 g
Ans. (b) : Formula of crystalline oxalic acid C 2 H 2 O 4 (c) 1.66×10 g –23
(d) 1.66×10–25 kg
Molecular weight MHT CET-2011
Equivalent weight =
valency Ans. (b) : An atomic unit of mass is defined as
126 th
⇒ = 63 accurately 112 mass of a C-12 atom.
2 One, AMU is the average of the proton rest mass and the
93. The equivalent weight of MnSO4 is half of its neutron rest mass. This is approximately
molecular weight when it is converted to
1.67377 ×10 kilogram (kg) or 1.67377 ×10−24 gram (g).
−27
(a) Mn 2 O3 (b) MnO 2
The mass of an atom in AMU is roughly equal to the
(c) MnO −4 (d) MnO 24 − sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the
CG PET- 2011 nucleus.
97. If The molecular wt. of Na2S2O3 and I2 are M1 Half reaction occur as :
and M2 respectively, then what will be the I 2 + 2e − → 2I−
equivalent wt. of Na2S2O3 and I2 in the
following reaction? 2S2 O 23− → S4 O 26− + 2e −
2S 2O 32– + I 2 → S 4O 62– + 2I – for 2 electron lost by 2 molecules of S2 O 23− (Sodium
(a) M1, M2 (b) M1, M2/2 thiosulphate).
(c) 2M1, M2 (d) M1, 2M2 So one molecule will lost 1 electron so equivalent
WB-JEE-2011 weight is equal to molecular weight divided by 1.
Ans. (b) : Equivalent weight = Molecular weight
100. The number of water molecules differing in
molecular mass formed by hydrogen isotopes
and oxygen isotopes
(a) 6 (b) 9
(c) 12 (d) 18
SCRA-2010
M1 Ans. (a) : Water molecule mass formed by O16 and 1H1,
Equivalent mass of S2 O 23− = = M1 2 3
1 1H , 1H isotope is–
M 18, 20, 22, 19, 20, 19, 21, 20, 21
And equivalent mass of I 2 = 2
2 Water molecule mass formed by O17 and 1H1, 1H2, 1H3
98. 2g of metal carbonate is neutralized completely isotope is–
by 100 mL of 0.1 N HCl. The equivalent weight 19, 21, 23, 20, 21, 20, 22, 21, 22
of metal carbonate is Water molecule mass formed by O18 and 1H1, 1H2, 1H3
(a) 50 (b) 100 isotope is–
(c) 150 (d) 200 20, 22, 24, 21, 22, 21, 23, 22, 23
WB-JEE-2011 So, total 6 different water molecules can be formed
which have mass–
Ans. (d) : As 2 g of metal carbonate is neutralized by 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23
100 mL of 0.1 N HCl
101. 0.32 g of metal gave on treatment with an acid
Number of gram equivalents of HCl 112 mL of hydrogen at NTP. Calculate the
Normality =
Volume of solution (L) equivalent weight of the metal.
100 (a) 58 (b) 32
0.1 = Number of gram equivalents of HCl × (c) 11.2 (d) 24
1000
AMU-2010
∴Number of gram – equivalents of HCl
Ans. (b) : Given, mass of metal = 0.32 g
100 × 0.1
= 0.01 volume of hydrogen = 112 ml
1000 Equivalent weight
Mass of 0.01 gram equivalent metal carbonate
Mass of metal × 11200
= 2g =
Mass of 1 gram equivalents metal carbonate Volumein mL of hydrogen
2 Given, Mass of metal = 0.32 g
= = 200g Volume of hydrogen at NTP = 112 mL
0.01
0.32 ×11200
∴ Equivalent mass of metal carbonate = 200 Equivalent weight = = 32g
99. In the reaction of sodium thiosulphate with l2 in 112
aqueous medium the equivalent weight of 102. The vapour density of ozone is
sodium thiosulphate is equal to (a) 16 (b) 32
(a) molar mass of sodium thiosulphate (c) 24 (d) 48
(b) The average of molar masses of Na2S2O3 and BITSAT-2010
I2 Ans. (c) : We know that,
(c) half the molar mass of sodium thiosulphate molecular weight
(d) molar mass of sodium thiosulphate×2 Vapour density =
2
WB-JEE-2010 Molecular weight of O3 = 16 × 3 = 48
Ans. (a) : For two molecules of sodium thiosulphate, 2 48
electrons are lost by sodium thiosulphate. So, one Then, Vapour densityof ozone = = 24
molecule of sodium thiosulphate will lose one electron 2
eventually. 103. The density of a gas is found to be 1.56g/L at
Therefore, the number of electrons lost is 1. 745 mm pressure and 65ºC. What is the
molecular mass of the gas?
Molecular weight
Equivalent weight = (a) 44.2 u (b) 4.42 u
1 (c) 2.24 u (d) 22.4 u
I 2 + 2Na 2S2 O3 → 2NaI + Na 2S4 O 6 JIPMER-2010

Ans. (a): Pressure is P = 745 mm = 0.98 atm (1 atm = 106. 1.5 g of CdCl2 was found to contain 0.9 g of Cd.
760 mm Hg) Calculate the atomic weight of Cd.
Temperature is T = 65°C = 65 + 273 = 338K (a) 118 (b) 112
Density is d = 1.56 g/L (c) 106.5 (d) 53.25
From ideal gas equation, AP EAMCET (Engg.)-2009
PV = nRT Ans. (c): Given that,
m  Where,m = given mass.  CdCl2→1.5g
P= ×R×T   Cd→0.9g
M×V  M = molecular mass  Cl2→ 0.6 g(1.5–0.9)
d×R ×T m Q 0.6 g chlorine combine with 0.9 g Cd
M= (d = density = )
P v 0.9
1.56 × 338 × 0.0821 ∴ 71 g chlorine will combine with × 71 g Cd =
M= = 44.2u 0.6
0.98 106.5 g Cd
Hence, the molecular mass of the gas is 44.2u ∴ Atomic weight of Cd = 106.5
104. A 0.5 g/L solution of glucose is found to be 107. The standard for atomic mass is
isotonic with a 2.5 g/L solution of an organic (a) 11 H (b) 6C12
compound. What will be the molecular weight 14
of that organic compound? (c) 6C (d) 8O16
(a) 300 (b) 600 BCECE-2009
(c) 900 (d) 200 Ans. (b) : Carbon-12 is the standard while measuring
JIPMER-2009 the atomic mass. because no other nuclides other than
carbon – 12 have exactly whole number masses.
Ans. (c) : We know, two solutions are said to be An atomic mass unit is defined as precisely 112 th mass
isotonic when pressure are equal.
of an atom of carbon-12 The Carbon -12 (C – 12) atom
Osmotic pressure is given by (For glucose) has six protons and six neutrons in its nucleus.
nRT mRT 0.5RT RT The C – 12 isotope of the carbon is the stable isotope
= = =
V MV M 360 which is not much affected as compared to others
For other organic compound. elements. Thus it is chosen as the standard for
nRT mRT 2.5RT expressing the atomic mass and the molecular mass of
= = the substance.
V MV M1
108. The equivalent mass of potassium
n = Moles of solute. permanganate in alkaline medium is its
m = mass of solute.
Molar Mass Molar Mass
M = Molecular weight of solute. (a) (b)
V = volume of solution. 5 3
T = Temperature Molar Mass
(c) (d) Molar mass itself
When both the pressures are equal. 2
RT 2.5RT J & K CET-(2009)
= Ans. (d) : The reaction in alkaline medium is:
360 M1
+7 +6
M1 = 900 KMnO 4 + 1e − → K 2 MnO 4
105. The equivalent weight of Potassium Thus, n factor = change in oxidation state = 1
permanganate (KMnO4) in neutral medium The equivalent mass of potassium permanganate in
will be alkaline medium is its molar mass itself
Atomic weight molar mass molar mass
(a) Atomic weight (b) Equivalent weight = ⇒
2 n − factor 1
Atomic weight Atomic weight 109. The formula mass of Mohr's salt is 392. The
(c) (d) iron present in it is oxidised by KMnO4 in acid
3 5
MPPET- 2009 medium. The equivalent mass of Mohr's salt is
(a) 392 (b) 31.6
Ans. (c) : In neutral medium– (c) 278 (d) 156
MnO −4 + 4H + + 3e −  → MnO 2 + 2H 2 O JCECE - 2009
Here, n = 3 Ans. (a) : We know, Formula of Mohr’s salt :
Q Molecular weight = 158.04 (NH4)2SO4 ⋅ FeSO4 ⋅ 6H2O
Atomic Weight oxidation of Fe2+ ions take place as:
Q Equivalent weight =
n - factor 5Fe 2+ + MnO 4 − + 8H + → 5Fe3+ + Mn 2+ + 4H 2 O
Atomic Weight Total change in oxidation number of iron (Fe)
∴ Equivalent weight =
3 = +3 – (+2) = +1

Equivalent mass of Mohr’s salt 114. In acidic medium dichromate ion oxidises
Molecular mass ferrous ion to ferric ion. If gram molecular
= weight of potassium dichromate is 294 g, its
Changein oxidation number gram equivalent weight is
392 (a) 294 g (b) 127 g
= = 392 (c) 49 g (d) 24.5 g
1
JCECE - 2008
110. A bivalent metal has an equivalent mass of 32.
The molecular mass of the metal nitrate is Ans. (c) : In acidic medium K 2 Cr2 O 7 acts as a strong
(a) 182 (b) 168 oxidizing agent and itself gets reduced to Cr 3+
+6
(c) 192 (d) 188
Cr2 O 27− + 6e − → 2Cr 3+
Karnataka-CET, 2009
During the reaction, the oxidation number of Cr
Atomic mass decreases from +6 to +3.
Ans. (d) : Equivalent mass =
2 Net decrease in the oxidation number of one Cr atom is
Atomic mass 6 – 3 = 3 for 2 Cr atoms (in dichromate ion), the total
32 = decrease in the oxidation number is 2 × 3 = 6
2
Atomic mass of the metal = 32 × 2 = 64 molecular weight
Equivalent weight of K 2 Cr2 O 7 =
Formula of metal nitrate = M (NO3)2 6
∴ Molecular mass = 64 + 28 + 96 = 188 294
= = 49
111. Copper is a divalent metal. The value of its 6
electrochemical equivalent is 3.29×10–4 g. Its 115. Electron density in the yz plane of 3d x2 − y 2
atomic mass is orbital is
(a) 31.74 g (b) 63.5 g (a) zero (b) 0.50
(c) 126.9 g (d) 15.87 g (c) 0.75 (d) 0.90
MHT CET-2009 J & K CET-(2008)
Ans. (b) : Electrochemical equivalent is the weight of a Ans. (a) : No electron density
substance deposited or evolved during electrolysis by
the passage of a specified quantity of electricity and
usually expressed in grams per coulomb.
E
Electrochemical equivalent, Z =
96500
E
Or, 3.29 × 10−4 = = 31.74
96500
Atomic mass = 2 ×E [∴Cu is divalent] Electron density in the yz plane of 3d x 2 − y2 orbital is
= 2 × 31.74 = 63.49 gm
zero.
112. 0.126 g of an acid is titrated with 0.1 N 20 mL
of an base. The equivalent weight of the acid is 116. Assertion : Equivalent weight of a base
(a) 63 (b) 50 Molecular weight
=
(c) 53 (d) 23 Acidity
UP CPMT-2009 Reason : Acidity is the number of replaceable
Ans. (a): We know that, hydrogen atoms in one molecule of the base.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
E × NV
w= the Reason is the correct explanation of
1000 Assertion.
w × 1000 (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
∴ Eq.wt.of acid = Reason is not the correct explanation of
NV
Assertion.
0.126 × 1000
= (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
0.1× 20 (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
= 63 AIIMS-2008
113. Mass of 0.1 mole of methane is Ans. (c):
(a) 1g (b) 16g Molecular weight
(c) 1.6 g (d) 0.1 g Equivalent weight of base =
Acidity
Karnataka-CET, 2008 Acidity of base is defined as the number of ionizable
Ans. (c) : Mass of one mole of methane (CH4) = 16g hydroxyl group present in base.
Mass of 0.1 mole of methane = 16 × 0.1g = 1.6 g So, reason is incorrect.

117. The number of formula units calcium flouride Ans. (c) : Gram equivalent of element
CaF2 present in 146.4 g of CaF2 are (molar = Gram equivalent of O2
mass of CaF2 is 78.08 g/mol)
80 20
(a) 1.129 × 1024 CaF2 (b) 1.146 × 1024 CaF2 =
(c) 7.808 × 10 CaF2
24
(d) 1.877 × 10 CaF2
24 E 8
VITEEE- 2008 E = 32
Ans. (a) : CaF2 = 146.4g 121. What is the equivalent weight of SnCl2 in the
Molecular weight CaF2 = 78.08 g/mol following reaction
Formula unit = no. of molecules of CaF2. SnCl 2 + Cl2  → SnCl4 ?
massin gm 146.4gm (a) 95 (b) 45
Moles = = = 1.875 (c) 60 (d) 30
molar mass 78.08gm
Karnataka-CET-2007
Molecules = Mole × 6.022 ×10 23
= 1.875 × 6.022 ×1023 Ans. (a) : SnCl2 + Cl2  → SnCl4

190 71
= 1.129 × 10 units of CaF2
24
190 71
=
118. The mass of KClO3 required to produce 2.4 E1 35.5
mol of oxygen by catalytic decomposition will
be ⇒ E 1 = 95
(a) 19.6 g (b) 196.0 g 122. An element, X has the following isotopic
(c) 122.5 g (d) 245.0 g composition :
200 199 202
[Given that : 2KClO3(g)→2KCl(g) + 3O2(g); X : 90% X : 8.0% X : 2.0%
molar mass of KClO3=122.5 g] The weighted average atomic mass of the
AMU – 2007 naturally occurring element X is closed to
Ans. (b) : 2KClO3(g) → 2KCl(g) + 3O2(g) (a) 201 amu (b) 202 amu
Molar mass of KClO3= 122.5 (c) 199 amu (d) 200 amu
Now, 3 mol of O2 is produced by 2 mol of KClO3. NEET-2007
2 200
Ans. (d) : weight of X = 0.90 × 200 = 180.00 u
1 mole of O2 is producd by mole of KClO3
3 Weight of 199 X = 0.08 × 199 = 15.92 u
2 Weight of 202 X = 0.02 × 202 = 4.04 u
24 mole of O2 is produced by × 2.4 mole of KClO3
3 Total weight = 199.96 ≈ 200 amu.
= 1.6 mol of KClO3 123. A 0.5 g/L solution of glucose is found to be
Therefore, the mass of KClO3 required to produce 2.4 isotonic with a 2.5 g/L solution of an organic
mol of oxygen is given as compound. What will be the molecular weight
=1.6×122.5 g =196 g of that organic compound?
119. The milliequivalent in 60 ml 4M H2SO4 is: (a) 300 (b) 600
(a) 240 (b) 480 (c) 900 (d) 200
(c) 24 (d) 48 AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2006
[BITSAT – 2007] Ans. (c) : 0.5 g/L 2.5 g/L
Ans. (b) : Relation between normality and molarity is (Glucose) (Organic compound)
given by the equation Isotone,
Normality = n × Molarity π1 = π2
Where, C1RT = C2RT {C1, C2 = Molarity}
n = number of replaceable hydrogen = 2 (for sulfuric C1 = C2
acid)
0.5/180 2.5/ M
Given =
1 1
Molarity of the solution = 4.0M
Then 0.5 2.5
=
N H 2SO 4 = 2 × 4 = 8 N 180 M
M = 900 g / mole
Milliequivalents = Normality × volume (in mL)
= 8 × 60 124. The equivalent weight of potassium
= 480 m. eq. permanganate when it acts as oxidizing agent
120. An oxide of the element contains 20% O2 by in ferrous ion estimation is
weight. Calculate the equivalent weight of the (a) 158 (b) 31.6
element. (c) 79 (d) 39.5
(a) 8 (b) 16 VITEEE- 2006
(c) 32 (d) 12 Ans. (b) : The oxidation of ferrous ion by KMnO4 takes
Karnataka-CET-2007 place in acidic medium as per following reaction
2KMnO 4 + 8H 2SO 4 + 10FeSO 4 128. The standard adopted for the determination of
atomic weight of elements is based on:
→ K 2SO 4 + 2MnSO 4 + 8H 2 O + 5Fe2 ( SO 4 )3 (a) H1 (b) C12
∴ Eq. mass of KMnO4 (c) O 16
(d) S32
Molecular mass JCECE - 2005
changein oxidation number Ans. (b) : The standard adopted for the determination of
158 atomic weight of elements is based on C12.
= = 31.6 Mass of one atom of an element = atomic mass ×
5 th
125. KMnO4 (mol. wt. = 158) oxidizes oxalic acid in  1  of the mass of one atom of carbon.
 
acidic medium to CO2 and water as follows.  12 
2– – + 2+
5C2O4 + 2MnO4 + 16H → 10CO2 + 2Mn 129. The mass of carbon anode consumed (giving
+ 8H2O only carbon dioxide) in the production of 270
What is the equivalent weight of KMnO4? kg of aluminium metal from bauxite by the
(a) 158 (b) 31.6 Hall process is
(c) 39.5 (d) 79 (a) 270 kg (b) 540 kg
J & K CET-(2006) (c) 90 kg (d) 180 kg
Ans. (b) : Given that, NEET-2005
Molecular wt. of KMnO4 = 158
Ans. (c):
(Oxidation number of Mn = +7) (Oxidation number of
∴ For 108 g of Al, 36 g of C is required in above
Mn = +2)
reaction
Equivalent mass of KMnO4 =
∴ For 270 kg of Al require amount of C
molecular mass
36
changein oxidation number = × 270 = 90 kg
108
158
= = 31.6 130. What is the ratio of mass of an electron to the
5 mass of a proton?
126. 1.520 g of hydroxide a metal on ignition gave (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1
0.995 g of oxide. The equivalent weight of metal (c) 1 : 1837 (d) 1 : 3
is
UPTU/UPSEE-2004
(a) 1.52 (b) 0.995
(c) 190 (d) 9 Ans. (c) : It is clear that an electron is 1/1837 times
lighter than a proton,
UP CPMT-2006
So, ratio between them will be = 1 : 1837
Ans. (d) : Since hydroxide and oxide both are involving
in same reaction, the ratio of their molecular weight is Or
equal to the ratio of their equivalent weight. Mass of proton 1.6 × 10−27
= =1.8 × 103
E Hydroxide E oxide Mass of electron 9.1×10−31
=
E metal + E OH− E metal + E O 131. Equivalent weight of an acid:
1.520 0.995 (a) Depends on the reaction involved
= (b) Depends upon the number of oxygen atoms
E + 17 E + 8
present
E=9
(c) Is always constant
127. The mass of a photon with wave length 3.6 Åis (d) None of the above
(a) 6.135×10–29 kg (b) 3.60×10–29 kg UPTU/UPSEE-2004
(c) 6.135×10–33 kg (d) 3.60×10–27 kg Ans. (a) : Equivalent Weight – The equivalent of a
AMU-2005 compound can be calculated by dividing the molecular
Ans. (a) : λ = 3.6 × 10-10m weight by the number of positive or negative electrical
We know, de-Broglie wavelength charge that result from the dissolution of the compound
h h h (i.e. acidity or basicity).
λ= ⇒ λ = ⇒m= Example- NaOH
p mv λv
λ = 3.6 A° = 3.6 × 10 m -10 23 + 16 + 2 Molecular weight
= = 41
Velocity of Photon = velocity of light 1 Basicity
h 6.626 × 10 −34 Js −1 Equivalent weight of an acid depends on the reaction
m= = involved with the base.
λv ( 3.6 ×10 m )( 3 ×10 ms )
−10 8 −1
The equivalent weight of an acid does not depend on the
= 6.135 × 10–29kg. number of oxygen atoms presents.

132. In acidic medium, dichromate ion oxidizes Ans. (c) : Equivalent weight of KMnO4 = 158
ferrous ion to ferric ion. If the gram molecular KMnO4 as an oxidizer in acidic media
weight of potassium dichromate is 294 g, its
gram equivalent weight is…. g. MnO 4− + 8H + + 5e − → Mn +2 + 4H 2 O
(a) 294 (b) 147 In Acidic medium
(c) 49 (d) 24.5 Molecular weight 158
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2003 = = = 31.6
No.of electron lost or gained 5
Ans. (c) : From reaction-
Molecular weight 158
Cr2 O 72− + 14H + + 6Fe 2+ → 2Cr 3+ + 6Fe3+ + 7H 2 O In Basic Medium = = = 52.67
3 3
Potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7) acts as a strong
oxidizing agent and itself gets reduced to Cr3+. Molecular weight
In Neutral Medium = = 158
Cr2 O7 2– + 6e –  → 2Cr 3+ 1
change in oxidation number = 6 136. The oxygen obtained from 72 kg water is
Equivalent weight of (a) 72 kg (b) 46 kg
Molecular Weight (c) 50 kg (d) 64 kg
K2Cr2O7 = UP CPMT-2002
Totalchangein oxidation number
Ans. (d) : Molecular weight of H2O = 18
294 Atomic weight of oxygen = 16
= = 49g
6 Q 18 gm H2O contain = 16 gm Oxygen
133. The number of gram equivalent of H2SO4 in 72 ×16
1000 mL 3M solution is: ∴ 72 kg H2O contain =
(a) 3 (b) 6 18
(c) 4 (d) 1.5 = 64000 gm or 64 kg.
137. Specific volume of cylindrical virus particle is
JCECE - 2003
6.02 × 10–2 cc/g whose radius and length are 7 Å
Ans. (b): and 10 Å respectively. If NA = 6.02 × 1023, find
molecular weight of virus.
∴1 mole H2SO4 = 2 g - equivalent of H2SO4
∴3 mole H2SO4 = 2 × 3 g - equivalent of H2SO4 (a) 15.4 kg/mol (b) 1.54 × 104 kg/mol
= 6 g equivalent of H2SO4 (c) 3.08 × 10 kg/mol
4
(d) 3.08 × 104 kg/mol
134. Assertion: Atoms can neither be created nor NEET-2001
destroyed. Ans. (a) : Given,
Reason: Under similar condition of Radius (r) = 7Å = 7 ×10–8
temperature and pressure, equal volume of
gases does not contain equal number of atoms. Length (L) = 10Å = 10 × 10–8cm
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Specific volume (volume of 1g of cylindrical virus)=
the Reason is a correct explanation of the 6.02×10–2 cc/gm
Assertion. 22
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Volume of virus πr L = × ( 7 ×10 ) × 10 × 10
2 −8 2 −8
Reason is not a correct explanation of the 7

Assertion. = 154 × 10–23 cc
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is Wt. of one virus particle = Volume
incorrect. Specific volume
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
incorrect. ∴Molecular wt. of virus = wt. of NA particle
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is 154 × 10−23
= × 6.02 × 1023
correct. 6.02 × 10−2
AIIMS-2002 = 15400g/mol = 15.4 kg/mol
Ans. (c): Dalton hypothesized the law of conservation 138. The oxide of an element contains 67.67%
of mass. According to this law atoms can neither be oxygen and the vapour density of its volatile
created nor destroyed. chloride is 79. Equivalent weight of the element
Avogadro’s law states that under similar condition of is
temperature and pressure, equal volume of gases
contain equal number of atoms. (a) 2.46 (b) 3.82
Therefore Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. (c) 4.36 (d) 4.96
AIIMS-1998
135. The equivalent weight of KMnO4 in acidic
medium is Ans. (b): Equivalent weight of an element is its weight
(a) 158 (b) 52.67 which reacts with 8 gm of oxygen to form oxide.
(c) 31.6 (d) 49 67.67 g of oxygen combines with 32.33 g of the element
UP CPMT-2002 to form oxide.

32.33 Ans. (c): Molecular weight = equivalent weight × n-
1 g of oxygen will combine with g of element to factor
67.67
form oxide. ( Where , n-factor of the metal ion = 2.)
32.33 So molecular weight = 12 × 2 = 24
8 g of oxygen will combine with 8 × = 3.82 g of Since it is bivalent ion it requires only one oxygen
67.67 combine to form oxide.
element to form oxide.
Hence, the equivalent weight of the element is 3.82 g. Therefore, the molecular wt. of the oxide is molecular
wt. = molecular wt. of metal + molecular wt. of oxygen
139. The weight of a single atom of oxygen is: i.e. molecular wt. = 24 + 16 = 40
(a) 1.057 × 10 23 g (b) 3.556 × 10 23 g 143. The weight to a metal of equivalent weight 12,
(c) 2.656 ×10−23 g (d) 4.538 × 10 −23 g which will give 0.475 g of its chloride, is
AIIMS-1998 (a) 0.18 g (b) 0. 12 g
Ans. (c): Molar mass of oxygen atoms = 16 g mol–1 (c) 0. 24 g (d) 0. 16 g
Number of atom in 1 mole = 6.022×1023 AIIMS-1994
16 Ans. (b) : Equivalent weight of metal chloride =
Therefore, 1 atom of oxygen weight = Equivalent weight of Metal + Equivalent wt. of
6.022 × 1023 Cl = 12 +35.5 = 47.5
= 2.657 × 10 −23 g 47.5 g of metal chloride will give 12g of metal
140. Haemoglobin contains 0.334% of iron by Then, 0.475g of metal chloride will give -
weight. The molecular weight of haemoglobin 12 × 0.475
is approximately 67200. The number of iron ≡
atoms (Atomic weight of Fe is 56) present in 47.5
one molecules of haemoglobin is = 0.12g
(a) 4 (b) 6 144. The molecular mass of a volatile substance may
(c) 3 (d) 2 be measured by
NEET-1998 (a) Liebig’s method
Ans. (a) : Given that, (b) Hofmann’s method
Molecular weight of haemoglobin = 67200 (c) Victor Meyer’s method
It contains 0.334% of iron by weight. (d) none of these
0.334 AIIMS-1994
Weight of iron = × 67200 = 224.448 Ans. (c): The molecular mass of volatile substances
100
can be determined by Victor Meyar. In this method
weight of iron in haemoglobin primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are subjected
No. of atoms =
Atomic weight to a series of chemical analysis and the colour of
224.448 resulting solution observed. A known mass of the
= compound is vaporized in an instrument called Victor
56 Meyar tube.
= 4.008
145. What is the weight of oxygen required for the
141. If active mass of a 6% solution of a compound complete combustion of 2.8 kg of ethylene?
is 2, its molecular weight will be
(a) 30 (b) 15 (a) 2.8 kg (b) 6.4 kg
(c) 60 (d) 22 (c) 9.6 kg (d) 96 kg
AIIMS-1996 NEET-1989
Ans. (a): Given, 6% of solution contains 6g of Ans. (c) : C 2 H 4 ( ethylene ) + 3O 2  → 2CO 2 + 2H 2 O
Compound in 100 ml of solution. To oxidise 1mol of ethylene we required 3 moles of
Then, mass of Compound present in 1 liter of oxygen.
Solution = 60 g Then,
given mass 60g For oxidising 28g of C2H4,
⇒ No. of moles = =
molar mass M We need 3×32 = 96g of oxygen.
⇒ Active mass is defined as number of moles per litre. For 2.8kg of C2H4,
60g 96
So, Active mass = / litre We need = × 2.8 =9.6kg of oxygen.
M 28
60 1 146. 2.76 g of silver carbonate on being strongly
2 = × heated yields a residue weighing
M 1L (a) 3.54 g (b) 3.0 g
Then, M (molar mass) = 30
(c) 1.36 g (d) 2.16 g
142. A bivalent metal has the equivalent weight of
12. The molecular weight of its oxide will be IIT JEE 1997
(a) 36 (b) 24 Ans. (d) :
(c) 40 (d) 32 1
Ag 2 CO3 ( s )  → 2Ag(s) + CO 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g )
AIIMS-1994 2
Molecular weight of Ag2 CO3 = 276 gm 149. A commercially cold conc. HCl is 35% HCl by
and molecular weight of Ag = 2×108 = 216 gm mass. If the density of this commercial acid is
1.46 g/mL, the molarity of this solution is:
∵276 gm of Ag2CO3 give = 216 gm of Ag
(Atomic mass:Cl=35.5 amu, H=1 amu)
216 (a) 10.2 M (b) 12.5 M
∴1 gm of Ag2CO2 give = gm of Ag
276 (c) 14.0 M (d) 18.2 M
216 JEE Main-26.06.2022, Shift-I
Then, 2.76 gm Ag2CO2 give = × 2.76 gm of Ag Ans. (c) : Given, Concentration of HCl = 35% by mass
276
= 2.16 gm of Ag Density = 1.46 g/mL
147. The molecular weight of O2 and SO2 are 32 and We know that–
0
64 respectively At 15 C and 150 mmHg (W / W%) × d × 10
Molarity =
pressure, one litre of O2 contains 'N' molecules. (Molar mass)solute
The number of molecules in two litres of SO2
under the same conditions of temperature and 35 × 1.46 × 10
=
pressure will be 36.5
(a) N/2 (b) N = 14.0M
(c) 2N (d) 4N 150. Which one of the following contains the highest
AIPMT 1990 number of oxygen atoms?
Ans. (c) : Avogadro's law states, equal volumes of all (a) One mole of aluminum sulphate
gases contain equal number of molecules under similar, (b) Three moles of ferrous sulphate
condition of temperature and pressure. (c) Three moles of hydrogen peroxide
Given, T = 15°C (d) Two moles of potassium permanganate
P = 759 mm (e) One mole of potassium dichromate
Volume of O2 = v1 = 1 lit Kerala CEE -03.07.2022
No. of O2 molecules = n1 = N Ans. (a) : One mole of aluminum sulphate =Al2 (SO4)3
Volume of SO2 = V2 = 2 lit It contain 12 mole of oxygen
No. of molecule of SO2 = n2 =? 1 mole of oxygen = NA atoms
v v ∴ 12 mole of oxygen = 12 NA atoms
From Avogadro’s law, 1 = 2 Avogadro’s law (b) Three moles of ferrous sulphate = 3 FeSO4
n1 n 2
It contain 12 mole of oxygen
1
=
2 ∴ 12 mole of oxygen = 12 NA atoms.
N n2 (c) Three moles of hydrogen peroxide = 3H2O2
n2 = 2N It contain 6 mole of oxygen
∴ 6 mole of oxygen = 6 NA atoms
(d) Two moles of potassium permanganate
3. Mole Concept and Molar Mass =2KMnO4
It contain 8 mole of oxygen
148. 2.0 g of H2 gas is adsorbed on 2.5 g of platinum ∴ 8 mole of oxygen =8NA atoms
powder at 300 K and 1 bar pressure. The (e) One mole of potassium dichromate = K2Cr2O7
volume of the gas adsorbed per gram of the It contain 7 mole of oxygen
adsorbent is _____mL. ∴ 7 mole of oxygen =7 NA atoms
(Given: R = 0.083 L bar K–1 mol–1) Here, NA =Avogadro number
JEE Main-26.06.2022, Shift-I So, option (a) one mole of aluminum sulphate
Ans. (9960) : Given, contains the highest number of oxygen atoms.
Mass of H2 = 2.0g 151. Two elements A and B which form 0.15 moles
Mass of platinum (Pt) = 2.5g of A2B and AB3 type compounds. If both A2B
Temperature = 300K and AB3 weigh equally, then the atomic weight
Pressure = 1 bar of a is _______ times of atomic weight of B.
R = 0.083 L bar K–1 mol–1 JEE Main-27.06.2022, Shift-I
n×R ×T Ans. (2) : Given,
VH2 (g ) = Moles of A2B = 0.15 mole
1
Moles of AB3 = 0.15 mole
2 0.083 × 300
= × = 24.9L Weight of A2B = Weight of AB3
2 1 Let molar mass of element A = x g
∴ 24.9L H2(g) adsorbed on 2.5 Pt and molar mass of element B = y g
∴ Volume of H2(g) adsorbed on 1g Pt We know that –
24.9 given mass
= =9.96L = 9960 mL No. of moles =
2.5 molar mass
For compound A2B – 45  756 
Weight of oxygen = × 32 = 2592 g
Molar mass (2x + y) =
given mass
=
w 2  210 
no. of moles 0.15  756 
For compound AB3 –
Weight of CO2 = 15   × 44 = 2376 g.
 210 
w 154. Geraniol, a volatile organic compound, is a
Molar mass (x + 3y) =
0.15 component of rose oil. The density of the
So, vapour is 0.46 gL–1 at 257ºC and 100 mm Hg.
x + 3y = 2x + y The molar mass of geraniol is –––– g mol–1
2x – x = 3y – y (Nearest Integer)
x = 2y [Given: R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1]
So, atomic weight of A is 2 times of atomic weight of JEE Main-29.06.2022, Shift-I
B. dRT
Ans. (152) : P=
152. Choose the correct answer: M
Given below are two statements: one is labelled 100
as P= atm
760
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as T = 256 + 273 = 530K
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): At 10oC, the density of a 5 M g
d = 0.46
solution of KCl [atomic masses of K and Cl are L
39 and 35.5 g mol–1 respectively], is ‘X’ g mL–1. 0.46 × 0.082 × 530
The solution is cooled to –21oC. The molality of M= × 760
100
the solution will remain unchanged.
= 151.92 = 152
Reason (R): The molality of a solution does not
change with temperature as mass remains 155. Production of iron in blast furnace follows the
unaffected with temperature. following equation:
In the light of the above statement choose the Fe O (s) + 4CO(g) → 3Fe(1) + 4CO (g)
3 4 2
correct answer from the options given below. When 4.640 kg of Fe3O4 and 2.520 kg of CO are
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the allowed to react then the amount of iron (in g)
correct explanation of (A) produced is:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the [Given: Molar Atomic mass (g mol-1): Fe =
correct explanation of (A) 56
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false Molar Atomic mass (g mol-1): O = 16
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true Molar Atomic mass (g mol-1): C = 12]
JEE Main-27.06.2022, Shift-I (a) 1400 (b) 2200
Ans. (a) : We know that molality and mass both are (c) 3360 (d) 4200
temperature independent so, on changing temperature. JEE Main-29.06.2022, Shift-I
Molality and mass remain unchanged. Ans. (c) : Given,
153. If a rocket runs on a fuel (C15H30) and liquid The reaction is –––––
oxygen, the weight of oxygen required and CO2 Fe3O4 (s) + 4CO (g) → 3Fe (l) + 4CO2 (g)
released for every litre of fuel respectively are: Fe3O4 = 4.640 kg.
(Given: density of the fuel is 0.756 g/mL) CO = 2.520 kg.
(a) 1188 g and 1296 g (b) 2376 g and 2592 g Molar mass of Fe3O4 = 3 × 56 + 4 × 16
(c) 2592 g and 2376 g (d) 3429 g and 3142 g = 232 g
JEE Main-24.06.2022, Shift-I 1 mole of Fe3O4 is produced 3 mole of Fe
= 3 × 56 = 168g Fe
Ans. (c) : Given,
Density of fuel = 0.756 g/mL Q 232 g FeO4 produce 168 g Fe.
Molecular formula of fuel = C15H30 168
Q 4.640 kg Fe3O4 will produce = × 4.640 kg
Then, molar mass of fuel = 15 × 12 + 30 × 1 232
= 210 g = 3.36 kg
mass = 3360 g
Density = So, the correct option is (c)
volume
Mass = density × volume 156. Number of grams of bromine that will
completely react with 5.0 g of pent-1-ene
= 0.756 × 1000 = 756 gm. is_____×10–2 g.
The reaction is –– (Atomic mass of Br= 80 g/mol) [Nearest
45 Integer]
C15H30 (l) + O2 (g) → 15CO2 (g) + 15H2O

Ans. (1142) : Ans. (a)
Br 1 mole of gas at STP occupies a volume of 22.4 L
| Option (a)- 15 L of gas corresponds to
+
C − C − C − C − C = C + Br  →C − C − C − C − C 15L
| = 0.67 moles
1mole 1mole Br 22.4L
Molecular mass of pent -1-ene = 70 Option (b)- 5L of N2 gas at STP:
5L
5 1 5L of gas corresponds to = 0.22 moles
Mole of pent -1-ene = × mole 22.4L
70 14 Option (c)- 0.5g of H2 gas (molecular weight 2g/mole)
1 0.5g
Required mole of bromine = × 160 corresponds to = 0.25moles
14 2g / mol
= 11.42 or 1142 ×10–2 Option (d)- 10g of O2 gas (molecular weight 3g/ mol)
157. The number of N atoms in 681 g of C7H5N3O6 is 10g
X × 1021. The value of X is____. (NA= 6.02 × corresponds to = 0.3125moles
1023 mol–1) (Nearest Integer) 32g / mol
JEE Main-25.06.2022, Shift-I Higher is the number of moles of a gas, higher will be
its number of molecules.
Ans. (5418) : Molar mass of C7H5N3O6 is 84 + 5 + 42 +
160. 10 gm of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were
96 = 227
kept in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of
n 681 water produced in this reaction will be
C6H5N3O6 = = 3 moles
227 (a) 2 mol (b) 4 mol
681 (c) 8 mol (d) 10 mol
n
N= × 3 = 9 moles of N UP CPMT-2012
227 NEET-2009
No. of N atoms = 9 × 6.02 × 1023
Ans. (b) : 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
= 5418 × 1021
10g
158. CNG is an important transportation fuel. 10g of hydrogen (molar mass 2g /mol) =
When 100 g CNG is mixed with 208 g oxygen 2g / mol
in vehicles, it leads to the formation of CO2 and = 5 mol
H2O and produced large quantity of heat 64
64g of oxygen (molar mass 32g/mol) =
during this combustion, then the amount of 32g / mol
carbon dioxide, produced in grams is–––––. = 2 mol
[nearest integer] 2 moles of oxygen will react with 2 × 2 = 4 moles of
JEE Main-26.06.2022, Shift-II hydrogen to form 4 moles of water.
Ans. (143) : CH4 + 2O2(g)  → CO2(g) + H2O 161. The mass of one mole of electron is
Mass 100 208 moles = 3.25 (a) 9.1 × 10–28g (b) 0.55 mg
100 208 (c) 9.1 × 10–24g (d) 6 10–12g
Moles mass = 143 gram UP CPMT-2010
16 32 UPTU/UPSEE-2006
6.5 Ans. (b): As we know that,
⇒ 6.25 3.25
2
(L.R.) Mass of one electron = 9.1× 10–31 kg
= 9.1× 10–28 g
n
O 2 n CO 2 23
1 mole = 6.023×10 electron
=
2 1 So, 1 mole of electron has mass of
6.5 n = 9.1 × 10–28 × 6.023 × 1023
= CO 2
2 = 5.48×10–4
6.5 = 0.55mg
Mass of CO2 = × 44 = 143 gm.
2 162. The number of moles of oxygen obtained by the
159. The maximum number of molecules is present electrolytic decomposition of 108 g water is
in (a) 2.5 (b) 3
(a) 15 L of H2 gas at STP (c) 5 (d) 7.5
(b) 5 L of N2 gas at STP JIPMER-2008, JCECE-2007
(c) 0.5 g of H2 gas Ans. (b): 2H 2 O uuuuuuuuuuuuur 2H 2 + O 2
Electrolysis
(d) 10 g of H2 gas
2 mole 1mole
JCECE - 2008
UPTU/UPSEE-2007 2 × 18
NEET-2004 = 36

Q 36 g of H 2 O produce 1 mole of oxygen 166. A gas is found to have a formula [CO]x. Its
∴ 108 g of water will produce oxygen vapour density is 70, the x is
108 (a) 3.0 (b) 3.5
= = 3mole (c) 5.0 (d) 6.5
36
163. The number of moles of KMnO4 reduced by BCECE-2007
one mole of KI in alkaline medium is BITSAT-2006
(a) one fifth (b) five
(c) one (d) two Ans. (c) : Vapour density =
( molecular weight )
JCECE-2012 2
JIPMER-2007 Formula mass CO is = 28
Ans. (d) : In alkaline solution, KMnO4 is reduced to Vapour density of the gas = 70
MnO2 (colourless). Molecular weight of gas = 2 × vapour density = 2 × 70
→ MnO2 + 2KOH + 3[ O ]
2KMnO4 + 2H2 O  = 140
KI + 3[ O ] 
→ KIO3 molecular weight
x=
2KMnO4 + 2H2 O + KI → 2MnO2 + 2KOH weight of CO
+ KIO3 140
Hence, two moles of KMnO4 are reduced by one mole x= =5
of KI. 28
164. In Kjeldahl’s method, ammonia from 5g of 167. Number of atoms of He is 100 amu of He
food neutralizes 30 cm3 of 0.1 N acid. The (atomic wt. of He is 4) are :
percentage of nitrogen in the food is (a) 25 (b) 100
(a) 0.84 (b) 8.4 (c) 50 (d) 100×6×10–23
(c) 16.8 (d) 1.68
BITSAT-2012
BCECE-2014
Karnataka-CET, 2010 BCECE-2008
Ans. (a) : Given, w = 5g, V = 30 cm3 Ans. (a) : We know formula,
From Kjedahl’s method, Mass of substance
No. of atoms =
1.4 × N × V 1.4 × 0.1× 30 Atomic mass
percentage of nitrogen = =
w 5
100
= 0.84% 100 amu of He = atoms of He
165. 50 cm3 of 0.2 N HCl is titrated against 0.1 N 4
NaOH solution. The titration is discontinued = 25 atoms.
after adding 50 cm3 of NaOH. The remaining [1 AMU = mass of one proton (approx.)]
titration is completed by adding 0.5 N KOH.
The volume of KOH required for completing 168. Calculate the mole fraction of aqueous solution
the titration is of 1 molal urea (NH2CONH2)
(a) 12 cm3 (b) 10 cm3 (a) 0.01878 (b) 0.01768
3
(c) 25 cm (d) 10.5 cm3 (c) 0.01800 (d) 0.01698
Karnataka-CET, 2010, 2011 GUJCET-2022
Ans. (b) : (i) Calculation of volume of HCl left often
incomplete titration. Ans. (b) : Molarity = 1M
When 0.1 N NaOH is used, n solute
N 1V 1 = N 2V 2 Molarity =
(For HCl) (For NaOH)
mass of solvent in kg
0.2 N × V1 = 50 × 0.1N 1 n solute
=
50 × 0.1 1 mass of solvent in kg
V1 = = 25cm 3
0.2 Hence solute in urea and solvent aqueous solution is
(ii) Calculation of volume of KOH for completing the
given
titration.
When 0.5 N KOH is used, n urea
X urea =
N 1V 1 = N 3V 3 n urea + n H2O
(For remaining HCl) (For KOH)
0.2 N × 25 = 0.5 N × V3 n urea = 1 and mass of H2O = 1 kg = 1000 gm
0.2 × 25 1
V3 = ∴ X urea =
0.5 1000
1+
= 10 cm3 18
172. A reaction of 0.1 mole of benzylamine with
 w ( given mass ) bromomethane gave 23 g of benzyle trimethyl
 X urea =
 molecular wt. ammonium bromide. The number of moles of
1 and bromomethane consumed in this reaction are
X urea =  n×10–1, when n = ........... (Round off to the
1 + 55.55  w
 n H2O = nearest integer)
 molecular wt. (Given : Atomic masses : C = 12.0 u, H = 1.0 u.
 1000 N = 14.0 u, Br = 80.0 u)
 =
 18 [JEE Main 2021, 18 March Shift-I]
1 Ans. Number of moles of benzyl trimethyl
X urea =
56.55 23
 0.0177 Ammonium bromide formed = = 0.1
230
169. How many numbers of mole ions produced No. of moles of bromomethane consumed
from aqueous solution of 1 mole Iron (III) = 3 × 0.1
hexacyano Ferrate (II) complex ?
= 3 × 10-1
(a) 4 (b) 7
(c) 5 (d) 6 173. The number of moles of CuO, that will be
utilised in Dumas method for estimation
GUJCET-2022
nitrogen in a sample of 57.5 g of
Ans. (b): Co-ordination compounds donot completely N, N-dimethylaminopentane is…… x10–2
dissociate in water into all its cationic and anionic
components. (Nearest integer)
Chemical formula of, Ferric hexacynoferrate (II) [JEE Main 2021, 27 Aug Shift-II]
Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 Ans. Moles of N in N, N– dimethylaminopentane =
Its co-ordination sphere does not get dissociated in  57.5 
aqueous solution,   = 0.5mol
 115 
by adding Ferric hexacynoferrate (II) to water, it will s
produce 4 Fe+3 ion and 3[Fe(CN)6]–4 ion
So, it will produce total 7 ions in aqueous solution. n CuO reacted n C7 H17 N reacted
=
170. The number of electron present in 2.3g of NO2  45  1
is  
 2 
(a) 6.92 × 1023 (b) 6.92 × 1022
 45 
(c) 138 × 10 23
(d) 6.023 × 1023 ⇒ n CuO reacted =   × 0.5 = 11.25
Assam CEE-2021  2 
Ans. (a) : Number of molecule = mole × NA 174. The ratio of the mass percentages of 'C' and H'
and 'C and O' of a saturated acyclic organic
mass
= × NA compound 'X’ are 4:1 and 3:4 respectively.
molar mass Then, the moles of oxygen gas required for
2.3g complete combustion of two moles of organic
= × NA compound 'X' is............
46
= 0.05 × NA [JEE Main 2021, 2 Sep Shift-II]
Molecular of weight of NO2 = 7 + 16 = 23 Ans. Mass ratio of C : H is 4 : 1 ⇒ 12 : 3 &
1 molecule = 23 e − of NO2 C : O is 3 : 4 ⇒ 12 : 16
So,
Total number of e − = 23 × 0.05 × NA = 6.92 × 1023
171. Number of atom in 5.586 g Fe Mass Mole Mole ratio
(M = 55.86 g mol-1) is C 12 1 1
(a) Twice of 60.0 g of C (b) Twice of 0.6 g of C H 3 3 3
(c) Twice of 6.0 g of C (d) Twice of 600g of C O 16 1 1
Assam CEE-2021 Empirical formula ⇒ CH3O
Ans. (b) : Number of atom = mole × NA As compound is saturated acyclic so molecular
Mass Formula is C 2 H 6 O 2
= × NA
atomic mass 5
5.586 C2 H 6 O 2 + O 2 (g) → 2CO 2 (g) + 3H 2 O(g)
= × NA 2
55.86 So, required moles of O 2 is 5.
= 0.1 NA
175. The minimum number of moles of O2 required
0.6
0.6g C Number of atom = × NA for complete combustion of 1 mole of propane
12 and 2 moles of butane is…….
= 0.05 NA [JEE Main 2021, 5 Sep Shift-I]
Ans. C3 H8 + SO 2 → CO 2 + 4H 2O Now, x = 40K
4
1mole 5mole x = 40 × g
146
For 1 mole propane Combustion 5 mole O2 required So,
13 x = 1.1, y = 2.9
C4 H10 + O 2 → 4CO 2 + 5H 2 O
2 x = 1.1 ≈ 1 (nearest integer)
1mole → 6.5mole 179. The hardness of a water sample (in terms of
equivalents of CaCO3) containing 10-3 M
2 mole → 13mole CaSO4 is
For 2 moles of butane 13 mole of O2 is required (Molar mass of CaSO4 = 136 g mol-1)
total moles = 13 + 5 = 18 (a) 100 ppm (b) 10 ppm
176. The ammonia (NH3) released on quantitative (c) 50 ppm (d) 90 ppm
reaction of 0.6 g urea (NH2CONH2) with [JEE Main 2021, 12 Jan Shift-I]
sodium hydroxide (NaOH) can be neutralised Ans. (a) : The hardness of water sample (in terms of
by equivalents of CaCO3) containing 10–3M CaSO4
[JEE Main 2021, 7 Jan Shift-II] Mole of CaSO4 = 10–3 moles
Ans. NH 2 CONH 2 + 2NaOH → 2NH 3 + Na 2 CO3 Mass of water = 1000g
1 mole urea gives 2 moles ammonia as per the balance DOH (in terms of CaCO3) = 10–3 ×100/1000 g
reaction. Hardness = (10–3 ×100/1000) ×106
0.6 Hardness of water = 100 ppm
n urea = = 0.01 mole
60 180. The NaNO3 weighed out to make 50 mL of an
∴ n ammonia = 2 × 0.01 = 0.02 mole aqueous solution containing 70.0 mg Na+ per
mL is…..g. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
Now, [Given : Atomic weight in g mol-1, Na : 23 ; N :
0.02 moles of NH3 reacts with 0.02 moles of HCl. 14 ; O : 16].
100 × 0.2 [JEE Main 2021, 26 Feb Shift-II]
Mole of HCl = = 0.02 mole
1000 Ans. Given that,
177. A chloro compound A, Na+ present in 50ml
(i) Forms aldehydes on ozonolysis followed by Na + = 70 mg/mL
the hydrolysis, WNa + in 50 mL solution
(ii) When vaporised completely, 1.53 g of A
gives 448 mL of vapour at STP. = 70 × 50 mg
The number of carbon atoms in a molecule of = 3500 mg
compound A is……. . = 3.5 mg
[JEE Main 2021, 26 Aug Shift-II] 3.5
Moles of Na + in 50 mL solution =
Ans. 448 ml of A ⇒ 1.53 gm A 23
1ml of A = 1.53/448gm of A Moles of NaNO3 = moles of Na +
1.53 3.5
22400 ml of A ⇒ × 22400 gm A = 76.5 A gm = mol
448 23
H3CHC – CH – Cl  O3
→ CH3 – CH = 0 3.5
It has 3 Carbon atoms
Zn / H 2O
Aldehyde Mass of NaNO3 = × 85 = 12.934  13gm
23
& mm is 36 + 5 + 35.5 = 76.5
181. The number of atoms in 8 g of sodium is X
178. 4g equimolar mixture of NaOH and Na2CO3 ×1023. The value of X is…….
contains x g of NaOH and y g of Na2CO3. The
(nearest integer)
value of x is…….g. (Nearest integer)
[Given : NA = 6.02×1023 mol-1 Atomic mass of
[JEE Main 2021, 20 July Shift-II] Na = 23.0 u]
Ans. Mass of NaOH = x [JEE Main 2021, 1 Sep Shift-II]
x Ans. We know that,
Moles of NaOH =
40 Weight of sodium atom Number of atoms
Mass of Na2CO3 = y =
Molecular mass of sodiumatom Avogadro 's number
y
Moles of Na2CO3 = 8g Number of atoms
106 =
x y 23g 6.02 ×1023
= =K
40 106 8 × 6.02 × 1023
Number of atoms =
x+y=4 23
40K + 106K = 4 Number of atoms = 2.09 × 1023
K = 4/146 x ≈2

182. 10.0 mL of 0.05 M KMnO4 solution was (a) 480 g (b) 160 g
consumed in a titration with 10.0 mL of given (c) 320 g (d) 240 g
oxalic acid dihydrate solution. The strength of TS-EAMCET 09.08.2021, Shift-I
-2
given oxalic acid solution is……x10 g/L.
Ans. (a) :
(Round off to the nearest integer) Double bond compound (1π) Triple bond compound (2π)
[JEE Main 2021, 27 July Shift-II]
Ans.(1575). neq KMnO4 = n eq H 2 C 2 O 4 . 2H 2 O
10 × 0.05 10 × m
then ×5 = ×2
1000 1000
∴ Conc. of oxalic acid solution = 0.125 M
0.125 × 126 g/L = 15.75 g/L
1575 × 10–2 g/L
183. When 10 mL of an aqueous solution of Fe2+ Since, weight of Br of 1mole = 80gm
ions was titrated in the presence of dil. H2SO4 Then, weight of 6 mole of Br atom is = 80 × 6
using diphenylamine indicator, 15 mL of 0.02 = 480 gm.
M solution of K2Cr2O7 was required to get the 186. Number of moles of dichromate needed to
end point. The morality of the solution oxidizes one mole of Sn2+ is
containing Fe2+ ions is x ×10-2 M. The value of x (a) 3 (b) 2
is….. .
(Nearest integer) 1 1
(c) (d)
[JEE Main 2021, 25 July Shift-I] 3 2
Ans.(18) TS-EAMCET 09.08.2021, Shift-I
Cr2O72– + 6Fe2+ + 14H+→ 2Cr3+ + 6Fe3+ + 7H2O Ans. (c) : The overall oxidation reaction is given
Cr2O72– : 15 mL 0.02 M and 1 mole used in reaction below–
Fe2+ : 10 mL M2 ? and 6 mole used in reaction +6
Cr 2 O 27− + 14H + + 3Sn +2 → 2Cr 3+ + 3Sn 4+ + 7H 2 O
( Cr2 O 7 2− ) ( Fe 2+ ) Thus, 3 mole of Sn+2 will reduce 1 mole of K2Cr2O7.
M1V1 M 2 V2 Therefore, 1 moles of Sn2+ will reduce 1/3 moles of
Now, =
n1 n2 K2Cr2O7.
0.02M × 15mL M 2 ×10 mL 187. 20 g of CaCO3 on heating produces x amount
= of CO2. If the final weight of CaCO3 after the
1 mole 6 mole reaction is 5 g. the amount of CO2 liberated in
0.02 × 15 × 6 L at STP is
M2 = = 0.18 M = 18 × 10−2 M
10 (a) 44 (b) 3.36
184. Calculate the amount of lime, Ca (OH)2 (c) 22 (d) 6.66
required to remove hardness of 50,000 litres of TS-EAMCET 09.08.2021, Shift-I
well water which contains 1.62 g of calcium Ans. (b) : The balanced equation is–
bicarbonate per 10 liters. [Given, atomic
masses : Ca→40, H →1, C → 12, O → 16] CaCO3 → CO 2 + CaO
(a) 1.5 kg (b) 3.7 kg ↓
1mole 1mole = 22.4litreat STP
(c) 2.8 kg (d) 4.2 kg
AP- EAPCET- 07-09-2021, Shift-I Q100 gm of CaCO3 evolve CO 2 = 22.4litre
Ans. (b) : Ca (HCO3) + Ca(OH)2→ 2 CaCO3 + 2H2O 1gm of CaCO evolveCO = 22.4
3 2
well water contain 1.62 gm of calcium bicarbonate per 100
10 litres of water so, 50,000 litres of well water contain 22.4
1.62 × 50,000 ∴15 gmof CaCO3 evolve CO 2 = ×15
100
= = 162 × 50 gm of calcium carbonate
10 = 3.36litre
162 × 50 188. KMnO4 oxidises oxalic acid in acidic medium.
∴ No. of moles of calcium bicarbonate = The number of CO2 molecules produced per
162
= 50 mole mole of KMnO4 is
74 × 50 (a) 5 (b) 4
The mass of calcium hydroxide required is (c) 3 (d) 1.5
1000 TS EAMCET 05.08.2021, Shift-I
= 3.7 kg
185. One mole of an organic compound with a Ans. (a) : for 2 mole →
double bond and a triple bond is reacted with 2KMnO4 + 5H2C2O4 + 3H2SO4 → 2 MnSO4
Br2/CCl4. The amount of Br2 required to + 10 CO2 + K2SO4
completely brominates all π-bonds in the + 8 H 2O
compounds is (Given Br mass is 80 amu) For one mole 10/2 = 5 CO2 molecule are formed.
189. Salts of A (atomic weight 8), B (atomic weight Ans. (5).
18) and C (atomic weight 50) were electrolysed
under identical conditions using the same 100 mole of KBr is doped with 10-5 mole of SrBr2.
quantity of electricity. It was found that 2.4g of 10−5
A was deposited, the weight of B and C 1 mole KBr contain = = 10−7 mol of SrBr2
100
deposited are 1.8 g and 7.5 g respectively. The
valences of A, B and C are, respectively, Hence, 10–7 moles cation vacancy (as 1Sr2+ will result 1
(a) 3, 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 cation vacancy)
(c) 1, 3 and 2 (d) 3, 2 and 1 119g KBr contains 10-7 mol of SrBr2
TS EAMCET 04.08.2021, Shift-I
10−7
Ans. (c) : According to Faraday law– 1g KBr contains mol of SrBr2
E.Q 119
W = Z.Q = ∴ Required number of cation vacancy
96500
For A, 10 –7 × 6.023 ×1023
(8 / x ) Q =
2.4 = 119
96500 =5.06×1014
8Q
x= ≈ 5 × 1014
96500 × 2.4
For B, 192. A gas X is dissolved in water at 2 bar pressure.
(18 / y ) Q Its mole fraction in the solution is 0.02. Find
1.8 = the mole fraction of water in the solution when
96500
18Q the pressure of the gas is doubled at the same
y= temperature.
96500 × 1.8
For C, (a) 0.04 (b) 0.98
( 50 / z ) Q (c) 0.96 (d) 0.02
7.5 = AP EAPCET 24.08.2021, Shift-I
96500
50Q Ans. (c) : According to the Raoult’s law –
z=
96500 × 7.5 P 1 = X 1P 0
 8   18   50  Where –
Hence, x : y : z =  : : 
 2.4   1.8   7.5  P1 = Vapour pressure of the solvent.
= 3.33 : 10 : 6.66 P0 = Vapour pressure in pure state.
=1:3:2
X1 = mole fraction
By solving equation,
A = 1, B = 3 and C = 2 Given – P1 = 2 Bar
So, valence of A, B and C are 1, 3 and 2. X1 = 0.02
190. The number of grams of oxygen in 32.2g of and
Na2SO4. 10H2O is approximately P2 = 2P1 = 2 × 2 = 4 Bar
(a) 32.2 g (b) 22.4 g
X2 = ?
(c) 11.2 g (d) 64.4 g
TS EAMCET 04.08.2021, Shift-I ∴ P 1 = X 1P 0
Ans. (b) : No. of oxygen atoms in one molecule of 2 = 0.02 × P0 ... (I)
Na2SO4.10 H2O = 4 + 10 = 14 and
Thus, moles of oxygen in n moles of compound = 14n
P 2 = X 1P 0
Molar mass of Na2SO4. 10 H2O = 46 + 32 + 64 + 180
= 322 g/mol 4 = X2 P 0 ... (II)
32.2 From (I) and (II) we get
Since, 32.2g = = 0.1 moles 0.02 1
322 =
Thus, moles of oxygen = 0.1 × 14 = 1.4 X2 2
So, weight is 16 × 1.4 = 22.4 g or X2 = 0.04
191. KBr is doped with 10–5 mole percent of SrBr2.
The number of cationic vacancies in 1 g of KBr So, Mole fraction of water = 1–X2 = 1– 0.04 = 0.96
crystal is _______ 1014. (Round off to the 193. How many moles of electrons weighs one kg?
Nearest Integer). (a) 3 × 104 (b) 6 × 1023
[Atomic Mass: K: 39.1 u, Br: 79.9u
(c) 1 × 108 (d) 1.8 × 106
NA=6.023 ×1023]
JEE Main 17.03.2021, Shift-II TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-II

Ans.(d) : 196. When oxalic acid is oxidised with acidified
KMnO4, the number of moles of CO2 liberated
1mole e– = 6.023×1023 e – is (consider balancing the reaction)
23 –31 (a) 2 (b) 4
Mass1moleof electron = 6.023×10 ×9.108×10 kg (c) 6 (d) 10
–8
= 6.023×9.108×10 kg TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-I
Ans. (d) : Balance chemical reaction
1
No.of mole in one kg = 2KMnO4 + 5H2C2O4 + 3H2SO4 → 2MnO4 +
9.108× 6.023×10–8 K2SO4 + 8H2O + 10 mole of CO2 liberate.
108 197. The strength of 50 volume of H2O2 solution is
= approximately.
9.108×6.023 (a) 50% (b) 25%
100 (c) 10% (d) 15%
= ×106 TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-I
9.108×6.023
Ans. (d) : 2 H 2O2 → 2 H 2O + O2
= 1.82×106
2(34) = 68 g 22.4 Lat NTP
194. 3.011 × 1022 atoms of an element weighs 1.5gm.
50 volume H2O2 means 1L of 50 volume of H2O2 give
The atomic mass of the element is ––––– 50L O2 at STP
(a) 10 amu (b) 2.3 amu ∴ 22.4 liter of O2 produced from = 68 gm H2O2
(c) 35.5 amu (d) 23 amu ∴ 50 liter of
AP EAPCET 25.08.2021, Shift-II 68
Ans. (d) : Given that – O2 produced from = × 50 = 151.7 g of H 2O2
22.4
Weigh = 1.15gm 151.7
Atoms = 3.011 × 1022 Percentage strength of H2O2 Solution = × 100
1000
Atomic mass =
Mass = 15.17% or ≈ 15%
No.of atoms 198. 100 ml of 0.2 M acetic acid is completely
1.15 gm neutralized using a standard solution of NaOH.
= The volume of ethane obtained at STP after
3.011× 10 22
complete electrolysis of the resulting solution is
= 0.38 × 10–22 gm _____
We know, (a) 11.2 L (b) 2.24 L
1amu = 1.66 × 10 gm –24 (c) 0.224 L (d) 22.4 L
Then, AP EAPCET 23-08-2021 Shift-I
−22 Ans. (c) : CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O
0.38 ×10 Number of moles of sodium acetate
=
1.66 × 10−24 100 ml
= 23 amu. = × 0.2mol / lit = 0.02 moles
1000 ml / lit
195. If Fe0.96O, Fe is present in +2 and +3 oxidation
state, what is the mole-fraction of Fe2+ in the 2CH3COONa  → CH3 – H3+2CO2+2NaOH+H2 ↑
hydrolysis
electrolysis
compound? Number of moles of ethane are one half the number of

(a) 12/25 (b) 25/12 moles of sodium acetate(CH3COONa).
(c) 1/12 (d) 11/12 0.02
No. of moles of ethane = = 0.01 moles.
AP EAPCET 25.08.2021, Shift-II 2
Ans. (d) : Given Fe0.96O, Fe is present +2 and +3 At STP, 1 mole of ethane occupies = 22.4 liter.
0.01 mole of ethane =?
oxidation state
0.01×22.4= 0.224 liter.
Let 'x' molecule fraction of Fe+2 and (0.96 – x)
+3 199. The number of sodium ions present in 0.5 mole
molecular fraction of Fe of sodium ferrocyanide is
Now, (a) 2 × 1023 (b) 0.5 × 1023
23
x (+2) + (0.96 – x) (+3) – 2 = 0 (c) 12 × 10 (d) 4 × 1023
2x – 3x + 2.88 – 2 = 0 TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 05.08.2021 Shift-II
x = 0.88 Ans. (c) : Formula of sodium ferrocyanide
Fraction of Fe+2 = 0.88 and fraction of Fe+3 = 0.12 Na4[Fe(CN)6] contains 4 Na atoms.
0.88 Number of Na atoms = Number of moles × Number of
Mole fraction of Fe+2 = atom per molecule × Avogadro number
0.88 + 0.12 = 0.5 × 4 × 6.023 × 1023
11 = 12.046 × 1023
=
12 ≈ 12 × 1023
200. 56 g of CaO has been mixed with 63 g of HNO3, Ans. (a) : Given that,
the amount of Ca(NO3)2 formed is WN 2 = 5 gm
Ca(NO3)2 63gHNO356gCaO
(a) 4g (b) 8.28g WA r = 6 gm
(c) 164 g (d) 82 g weight 5
TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 07.08.2021 Shift-II n N2 = = = 0.18
m. weight 28
Ans. (d) : CaO + 2HNO3 → Ca(NO3 )2 + H 2O
Calcium weight 6
oxide
Nitric
acid
Calcium
nitrate n Ar = = = 0.15
Molar mass of CaO = 56 gm/mol m. weight 40
Molar mass of HNO3 = 63 gm/mol 0.18
Mole fraction of N2 = = 0.5454
Molar mass of Ca(NO3)2 = 164 gm/mol 0.18 + 0.15
Molar mass of H2O = 18 gm/mol ∴ Partial pressure of ( PN2 ) = X N2 × Ptotal
Q 126 gm Nitric acid forms = 164 gm Ca(NO3)2
= 0.5454 × 30
164
∴ 1 gm Nitric acid forms = gmCa(NO3 )2 = 16. 36 bar
126 204. The molal elevation constant is the ratio of
164 Elevation in boiling point to –––
∴ 63gm Nitric acid forms = 63 × gm Ca(NO3 )2
126 (a) Molarity
= 82 gm Ca(NO3)2 (b) Molality
201. When 35 mL of 0.15 M lead nitrate solution is (c) Mole fraction of solute
mised with 20 mL of 0.12 M chromic sulphate (d) Mole fraction of solvent
solution,-------×10–5 moles of lead sulphate AP EAPCET 19-08-2021 Shift-I
precipitate out. (Round off to the Nearest Ans. (b): Due to solute presence in the solution the
Integer). solution’s boiling point is greater than the pure solvents
boiling point. This is called as deviation in boiling point
JEE Main 16.03.2021, Shift-II and it can be represented as-
Ans. The following reaction take place - ∆Tb = Kb × molality
3Pb(NO3)2 + Cr2(SO4)3  → 3PbSO4 + 2Cr(NO3)3 ∆Tb
lead nitrate chromic sulphate lead sulphate chromic or Kb =
molality
nitrate.
Volume of lead nitrate solution = 35mL 205. When 10 g of copper and 10 g of iodine are
concentration of lead nitrate = 0.15M mixed, calculate the theorctical yield of CuI
∴Number of moles of Pb(NO3)2 = 0.15×35×10 mol –3 according to the equation,
–3
= 5.25×10 mol 2Cu + I2 → 2CuI
Similarly, number of moles of Cr2(SO4)3 (a) 30 g (b) 10 g
= 0.12×20×10–3mol (c) 15 g (d) 20 g
= 2.4×10–3mol AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-II
therefore moles of PbSO4 formed = 5.25×10–3 Ans. (c) : I2 is limiting reagent,
= 525×10–5 mole of I2 = mole of Cul
202. The volume strength (in L) of 3N H2O2 is 10
approximately ____ Mole of CuI =
(a) 3 (b) 8 127
(c) 17 (d) 9 10
Mass of CuI = × 190.5 = 15g
AP EAPCET 24.08.2021 Shift-II 127
Ans. (c): Given, normality = 3N Hence, the correct option is (c).
Volume strength = ? 206. One mole of oxygen gas at STP is equal to
∴ We known, (a) 6.022×1023 molecules of oxygen
Volume strength = 5.6 × Normality (b) 6.022×1023 atoms of oxygen
= 5.6 × 3 (c) 16 g of oxygen
= 16.8 (d) 32 g of oxygen
Volume strength ≈ 17 AP EAMCET (Engg.) 17.09.2020 Shift-I
203. A cylinder contains a mixture of 5 g of N2 and 6 Ans. (a) : 1 mole of O2(g) at STP contains Avogadro
g of Ar gases. If the total pressure of the number (N a = 6.022 × 1023 mol-1) of O2 molecules,
mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 30 bar, which will occupy its molar volume, i.e, 22.4 L.
then the partial pressure of N2 gas is ___ 207. Which of the following units is useful in
(Molecular mass of N2 = 28 g mol-1. Atomic relating concentration of solution with its
mass of Ar = 40u) vapour pressure ?
(a) 16.36 bar (b) 0.545 bar (a) Mole fraction (b) Parts per million
(c) 30 bar (d) 0.180 bar (c) Mass percentage (d) Molality
AP EAPCET 24.08.2021 Shift-II AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-I

Ans. (a) : According to Raoult's law, relative lowering Ans. N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
of vapour pressure is directly proportional to mole
fraction of solute. So, mole fraction is used in relating 2.8 × 103
Number of moles of N2 = = 100
concentration of solution with its vapour pressure. 28
Raoult's law Can be expressed as; 1000
Number of moles of H2 = = 500
P 0 − Ps n2 2
= = x2
P 0
n1 + n 2 ∴ Number of moles of NH3 produced = 2 × 100
Where, x2= Mole fraction of solute = 200
n1= Moles of solvent Mass of NH3 Produced = 200 × 17 = 3400 gm
n2= Moles of solute 212. The volume, in mL, of 0.02 M K2Cr2O7 solution
ps= Vapour pressure of the solution required to react with 0.288 g of ferrous
p0= Vapour pressure of pure solvent oxalate in acidic medium is…….
208. Calculate the energy required to convert all (Molar mass of Fe = 56 g mol-1)
atoms 4.8 g of Mg to Mg2+ in the vapour state. [JEE Main 2020, 5 Sep Shift-II]
IE, and IE2 of Mg are 740 kJ/mol and 1450 Ans. K 2 Cr2 O7 + FeC 2 O 4 → Cr +3 + Fe +3 + CO 2
kJ/mol respectively.
(a) + 740 kJ/mol (b) –740 kJ/mol n factor of K 2 Cr2 O7 = 3 × 2 = 6
(c) –1450 kJ/mol (d) +438 kJ/mol n factor of Fe C 2 O 4 = 1 + 2 = 3
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-I
Ans. (d) : For 1 mole of (Mg → Mg2+) 1E = 1E1 + 1E2 0.02 × 6 × V ( mL ) 0.288
= ×3
= (740 + 1450) = 2190 kJ/mol. Number of mole in 4.8g 1000 144
of Mg = 4.8/24 = 0.2 mol. V = 50 mL
For 1 mole energy required = 2190 kJ/mol.
213. The volume (in mL) of 0.125 M AgNO3
For 0.2 mole energy required = 2190 0 × 0.2 = 438 kJ.
required to quantitatively precipitate chloride
Thus, for 4.8 g of Mg to Mg2+ conversion, energy ions in 0.3 g of [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 is…….
required is 438 kJ. Hence, the correct option is (d).
M[co( NH3 )6 ]Cl3 = 267.46g / mol
209. An excess of AgNO3 is added to 100 mL of 0.01
M solution of dichlorotetraaquachromium (III) M AgNO3 = 169.87g / mol
chloride. The number of moles of AgCl
precipitated would be [JEE Main 2020, 8 Jan Shift-I]
(a) 0.001 (b) 0.002 Ans. [ CO(NH 3 )6 ] Cl3 + 3AgNO3 → 3AgCl3
(c) 0.003 (d) 0.01
Assam CEE-2020 0.3gm v ml,0.125m
wt.
Ans. (a): Molecular formula of dichlorotetraaqua × ( n − factor ) = Molarity × volume
chromium (III) mol.wt.
chloride is [Cr(H2O)4 Cl2] Cl. 0.3
On ionisation it generate only one Cl− ion × 3 = 0.125 × v × 10−3
267.46
[Cr(H 2O) 4 Cl2 ]Cl 
exces AgNO3
→ [Cr(H 2 O) 4 Cl2 ]+ + AgCl ↓ 0.3 × 3 ×1000
v= = 26.92 mL
No.of moles 267.46 × 0.125
Using formula, molarity = × 1000
Volume 214. NaClO3 is used, even in spacecrafts, to produce
No.of moles O2. The daily consumption of pure O2 by a
0.01= ×1000 person is 492 L at 1 atm 300 K. How much
100
No. of moles of AgCl = 0.001 mol AgCl amount of NaClO3 in grams, is required to
produce O2 for the daily consumption of a
210. The volume (in mL) of 0.1 NaOH required to
person at 1 atm, 300 K……?
neutralise 10mL of 0.1 N phophonic acid is …
[JEE Main 2020, 3 Sep Shift-II] NaClO 3 (s)+Fe(s)→O2(g)+NaCl(s)+FeO(s)
R = 0.082 L atm mol-1 K-1
Ans. H 3 PO 2 + NaOH → NaH 2 PO 2 + H 2 O
[JEE Main 2020, 8 Jan Shift-II]
Ans.
Moles of H 3 PO 2 reacted Moles of NaOH reacted
= NaClO3(S) + Fe(s) → O 2(g) + NaCl(s) + FeO(s)
1 1
Moles of NaClO3 = moles of O2
0.1× 10
= 0.1× VNaOH PV 1× 492
1 Moles of O2 = =
VNaOH = 10 ml RT 0.082 × 300
= 20 mol
211. The mass of ammonia in grams produced when Molar mass of NaClO = 23 + 35.5 + 3 × 16
3
2.8 kg of dinitrogen quantitatively reacts with 1
kg of dihydrogen is….. = 106.5 g
[JEE Main 2020, 4 Sep Shift-I] Mass of NaClO 3 = 20 × 106.5 = 2130 g
215. Ferrous sulfate heptahydrate is used to fortify 217. Which one of the following has maximum
foods with iron. The amount (in grams) of the number of atoms?
salt required to achieve 10 ppm of iron in 100 (a) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
kg of wheat is….. . (b) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
Atomic weight : Fe = 55.85; S=32.00, O=16.00 (c) 1 g of O2(s) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
[JEE Main 2020, 8 Jan Shift-I] (d) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]
Ans. FeSO4. 7H2O (m = 277.85) NEET-2020
Mass of iron Ans. (d):
PPM = × 106
Mass of wheat 1
Number of atoms in 1g of Li = × N A
Mass of iron 7
⇒ 10 = ×106 1
100 × 103 = × 6.023 × 10 23
⇒ Mass of iron = 1 gm 7
Molecular mass of FeSO4 7H2O is 277.85 = 0.86×1023
55.85 gm iron is present in 277.85 gm of salt 1
Number of atoms in 1g of Ag = × NA
277.85 108
1 gm iron is present in = = 4.97 gm of salt = 0.056×1023
55.85
216. Which one of the following will have the largest 1
Number of atoms in 1g of Mg = × NA
number of atoms? 24
(a) 1g Au(s) (b) 1g Na(s) = 0.25 ×1023
(c) 1g Li(s) (d) 1g of Cl2(g)
(e) 1g of O2(g) 1
Kerala-CEE-2020 Number of atoms in 1g of O2 = × NA × 2
32
weight in gram N
Ans. (c) : No. of moles = = A = 0.37 ×1023
molecular weight 16
1 Max. number of atoms are present in 1g of Li.
(i) 1 g Au (s) = mol atom of Au 218. 2KHCO3 → …+ CO2 + H2O find amount of
197
gases formed (in lit).
1 When amount of KHCO3 is 33 gm.
= × 6.022 × 1023
197 (a) 5.6 (b) 11.2
= 0.005076 × 6.022 × 1023 (c) 7.39 (d) 22.4
= 0.005076 × 6.0 × 1023 JIPMER-2019
≈ 0.0305 × 1023 =3.05×1021 Ans. (c) :
1 2KHCO3 (s)  → K 2 CO3 (s) + CO2 (g) + H 2 O
(ii) 1 g Na (s) = mol atom of Na
23 33
n= 0.165 0.166
1 100
= × 6.022 × 1023 Total moles of gas ( 0.165 + 0.165) mol
23
Total volume of gas = 0.33 × 22.4 L
= 0.0434 × 6.022 × 1023
= 7.39 L
= 0.26 × 1023=2.6×1022
219. The mass of AgCl precipitated when a solution
1 containing 11.70g of NaCl is added to a solution
(iii) 1 g Li (s) = mol atom of Li
7 containing 3.4 g of AgNO3 is
1 [Atomic mass of Ag = 108, Atomic mass of Na
= × 6.022 ×1023 = 23]
7 (a) 5.74g (b) 1.17g
= 0.1428 × 6.022 × 1023 (c) 2.87g (d) 6.8 g
= 0.860 × 1023 =8.61×1022 Karnataka-CET-2019
1 Ans. (c):
(iv) 1 g Cl2 (g) = mol atom of Cl2
71 NaCl + AgNO3  → NaNO3 + AgCl
1 m.wt. ⇒ 58.5g 170g 85g 143.5g
= × 6.022 × 1023 =8.48×1021
71 G.wf. ⇒ 11.72g 3.4g
1 170g AgNO3 will give 143.5g AgCl
(v) 1 g O2 (g) = mol atom of O2
32 Then, 3.4 g AgNO3 will give x g AgCl
1 3.4 ×143.5
= × 6.022 × 1023 =1.188×1022 x=
32 170
So, 1 g Li(s) has the largest no, of atoms. x = 2.87 g

220. 0.1 mole of XeF6 is treated with 1.8 g of water. 33.05 moles of O2 = 1.28 moles of O3
The product obtained is Thus the total no. of moles present originally was
(a) XeO3 (b) XeO2F2 = 33.05 of O2 + 1.28 of O3
(c) XeOF4 (d) Xe + XeO3
= 34.4 moles.
Karnataka-CET-2019
Ans. (c) : When 0.1 mole of XeF6 is treated with 1.8 g 224. In a mixture of 1 g H2 and 8 g O2 the mole
of water. The product obtained is XeF4 fraction of hydrogen is :
∴ moles of water = (a) 0.667 (b) 0.5
Given mass of water 1.8 (c) 0.33 (d) None of the above
= = 0.1mole Manipal-2019
molecular mass 18
When 0.1 mole of XeF6 react with 0.1 mole of H2O then Ans. (a) :
XeOF4 and HF are formed 1
• No. of moles of H2 = = 0.5
reaction involved as follows: 2
XeF6 + H2O → XeOF4 + 2HF 8
221. The number of moles of electron required to • No. of moles of O2 = = 0.25
32
reduce 0.2 mole of Cr2 O7−2 to Cr+3 is • Total moles of H2 and O2 = 0.5 + 0.25
(a) 1.2 (b) 6 = 0.75
(c) 12 (d) 0.6
No.of mass of H 2
Karnataka-CET-2019 • Mole fraction of H2 =
Ans. (a) : From given reaction:- Total moles
+6 0.50
Cr2O 72− → 2Cr +3 •= = 0.667
0.75
1 mole required 6 mole of electrons 0.2 mole requires
225. Two electrolytic cells are connected in series
0.2 × 6
=1.2 mole of electrons. containing CuSO4 solution and molten AlCl3. If
1 in electrolysis 0.4 moles of 'Cu' are deposited
222. In a lead-acid battery, if 1 A current is passed on cathode of first cell. The number of moles of
to charge the battery for 1 h, what is the 'Al' deposited on cathode of the second cell is
amount of PbSO4 converted to PbO2? (Given
data: 1F = 96500 C mol–1) (a) 0.6 moles (b) 0.27 moles
(a) 0.0373 moles (b) 0.0186 moles (c) 0.18 moles (d) 0.4 moles
(c) 0.0093 moles (d) 0.0268 moles MHT CET-02.05.2019, Shift-III
(e) 0.0400 moles Ans. (b) :Given,
Kerala-CEE-2019 Number of moles of Cu deposited = 0.4 moles
Ans. (b) : Given, According to Faraday's second law.
i = 1A, T = 1h = 60 × 60 = 3600sec Weight of Cu deposited E 4 wt.of Cu
Charge = 1 × 3600 = 3600 C = − − − (i)
Weigth of Aldeposited E 4 wt.of Al
PbSO4 + 2e– × PbO2
Charge weight
Moles = Q No. of moles =
2 × 96500 molecular weight
=
3600 ∴ weight of Cu = 0.4 × 63.5
193000 63.5
= 0.0186 moles. 0.4 × 63.5
223. On passing silent electric discharge through Now, from Eq (i), = 2
weight fo Aldeposited 27
oxygen in an ozonizer, 5.5 mol% of oxygen is
converted to ozone. How many moles of O2 and 3
O3 result when 35 moles of O2 is originally 0.4 × 63.5 × 9
present?
∴ weight of Al deposited = = 7.2g
31.75
(a) 33.0 (b) 34.4 7.2
(c) 35.0 (d) 31.8 Number of moles of Al deposited = = 0.27 moles
(e) 31.0 27
Kerala-CEE-2019 226. A cold drink bottle contains 200 mL liquid, in
Ans. (b) : Given, 5.5 mol% of O2 is converted into O3. which CO2 is 0.1 molar. Considering CO2 as an
ideal gas the volume of the dissolved CO2 at
35 × 5.5
∴ 35 – moles of O2 S.T.P is
100 (a) 22.4 L (b) 0.224 L
35 × 5.5 2 (c) 2.24 L (d) 0.448 L
= × mole of O3
100 3 MHT CET-02.05.2019, Shift-III
Ans. (d) : Number of moles of CO2 in 200 ml solution Ans. (a) : Given,
= molarity × volume (in L) 0.504g of H2 is liberated by 20g of the metal
200 20 ×1.008
= 0.1× = 0.02 So, 1.008g H2 is liberated by
1000 0.504
volume of 0.02 mole of CO2 at STP = 22.4×0.02 = 40g of the metal.
= 0.448 L 40g metal combines with 8g of oxygen
227. How many gram of sodium (atomic mass 23 u) 8× 2
is required to prepare one mole of ethane from So, 2.0g of metal combines with = g
40
methyl chloride by Wurtz reaction? = 0.4g of oxygen
(a) 2 (b) 23 Amount of metal oxide = Mass of metal + Mass of
(c) 11.5 (d) 46 oxygen = (2.0 + 0.4) = 2.4 g
MHT CET-02.05.2019, Shift-II 231. At S.T.P. the volume of 7.5 g of a gas is 5.6L.
Ans. (d): Wurtz reaction– The gas is
2CH3Cl + 2Na  Dry ether
→ CH3 − CH3 + 2NaCl (a) NO (b) N2O
(c) CO (d) CO2
Ethane
WB-JEE-2019
⇒2 moles of sodium metal reacts to give 1 mole of
ethane. Ans. (a) : We know,
22.4 L volume of S.T.P. contain 1 mole
weight of 2 moles of Na = 23 × 2 = 46 g
Then, 5.6 L volume at S.T.P contain
228. The volume of 1 mole of any pure gas at
1
standard temperature and pressure is always = × 5.6 = 0.25mole
equal to 22.4
(a) 0.022414 m3 (b) 22.414 m3 And,
3
(c) 2.2414 m (d) 0.22414 m3 Mass
No. of mole =
MHT CET-02.05.2019, Shift-II Molecular weight
Ans. (a) : The volume of 1 mole of any pure gas at 7.5
standard temp. and pressure (STP) is equal to 22.414 L Molecular weight = = 30
1L = 0.001m3 0.25
From the given option NO has molecular weight 30.
∴ 22.414 L = 0.022414 m3
Hence, correct option is 'a'
229. Which of the following gases has the density 1.8
gm/lit at 27 °C temperature and 760 Torr
pressure? 232. 1.2 g of Mg is treated with 100mL of 1M
H2SO4. Molar concentration of the H2SO4
(a) O2 (b) CO2 solution after complete reaction will be
(c) NH3 (d) SO2 (a) 0.20 M (b) 0.005 M
Tripura JEE-2019 (c) 0.10 M (d) 0.5 M
Ans. (b) : Given,
CG PET -2019
760
P=760 Torr = =1atm Ans. (d) : Mg + H 2SO 4 → MgSO 4 + H 2
760
T = 27oC = 27 + 273 = 300 K 24g ( 98g = 1 mol)
d = 1.8 g/L 1.2g Mg reacts with = 0.5 mol H2SO4
m H2SO4 taken = 100 mL of 1 M H2SO4
PV = RT = 0.1 mol
M
H2SO4 left = 0.1 – 0.05
mRT dRT
M= ⇒M= = 0.05 mol in 100 mL solution
VP P [H2SO4] = 0.05 × 10 = 0.5 M
1.8 × 0.0821× 300
M=
1 233. The volume of ' 10 vol' of H2O2 required to
M = 44g / mole liberate 500mL O2 at NTP is
Molar mass of gas = 44g/mole (a) 125mL (b) 500mL
So, gas is CO2 molar mass 44 g/mole. (c) 50mL (d) 100mL
230. 20 gm of a metal produces 0.504 gm H2(g) on CG PET -2019
reaction with dilute H2SO4. Calculate the Ans. (c) : 10 vol of H2O2 means that
receivable amount of metal oxide from 2 gm of 10 L O2 can be liberated from 1 L H2O2
same metal. 1
1 L O2 liberated from L H 2O2
(a) 2.4gm (b) 2.2gm 10
(c) 2.8gm (d) 2.6gm 500
500 mL O2 liberated from = mL H 2 O 2
Tripura JEE-2019 10
= 50 mL H2O2 Fe(SO4)3 doesn't oxidize
10 vol. H2O2 means that 1 mL H2O2 gives 10 mL O2. 3 6 1
Thus, 50 mL H2O2 will give 500 mL O2. Total moles of KMnO4 = + + =2
234. The volume strength of 1 M H2O2 is (Molar 5 5 5
mass of H2O2 = 34 g mol-1) 237. In the reaction of oxalate with permanganate in
(a) 16.8 (b) 22.4 acidic medium, the number of electrons
(c) 11.35 (d) 5.6 involved in producing one molecule of CO2 is
[JEE Main-2019, 12 Jan Shift-II] (a) 2 (b) 5
Ans. (c) : The balanced reaction (c) 1 (d) 10
2H 2 O 2 → 2H 2 O + O 2
Ans. (c) : As given in question, Reaction of oxalate
−1 −2 0(Oxidation stateof O) with permanganate in acidic medium
2 moles of H 2 O 2 give 1 mole of O 2 5C2O42– + 2MnO4– → 10CO2 + 2Mn2+ + 8H
1 mole of H 2 O 2 will give 11.2L of O 2 gas N factor ( 4 – 3) × 2 = 2 – (7–2) = 5
5C2O42– ions transfer 10e– to produce to molecules of
Volume strength of H 2 O 2 = 11.2 × molarity
CO2
For 1 M H 2 O 2 volume strength is 11. 2 L. So, number of electron involved in producing 10
235. A solution of Ni(NO3)2 is electrolysed between molecule of CO2 is 10.
platinum electrodes using 0.1 Faraday Thus, number of electron involed in producing 1
electricity. How many moles of Ni will be molecules of CO2 is 1.
deposited at the cathode? 238. For the following reaction , the mass of water
(a) 0.20 (b) 0.10 produced from 445 g of C57 H110 O6 is :
(c) 0.15 (d) 0.05 2C57H110O6(s)+163O2(g)→114CO2(g)+110H2O(l)
[JEE Main 2019, 9 April Shift-II] (a) 490 g (b) 495 g
Ans. (d) : Ni ( NO3 )2 → Ni 2+ + 2NO3− (c) 445 g (d) 890 g
2+ [JEE Main 2019, 10 Jan Shift-II]
Ni + 2e → Ni
–
Ans. (b) : Given equation
2. eq. of Ni 2+ will be discharged from 2F 2C57H110O6(s)+163O2(g)→114CO2(g)+110H2O(l)
0.1 eq. of Ni 2+ will be discharged from 0.1 F 445
No. of eq. = No of moles × (n – factor) Moles of C57 H110 O 6 (s) = = 0.5 moles
890
0.1 = No. of moles × 2
2C57 H110 O6 (s) + 163O 2 → 114CO 2 (g) + 110H 2 O(I)
0.1
No. of moles of Ni = = 0.05mol. 110 55
2 nH 2 O = =
236. In order to oxidise a mixture of one mole of 4 2
each of FeC2O4, Fe2 (C2O4)3, FeSO4 and Fe2 No. of moles of H O = given mass
2
(SO4)3 in acidic medium, the number of moles molar mass
of KMnO4 required is
Given mass = No. of moles × molar mass
(a) 2 (b) 1
(c) 3 (d) 1.5 55
= × 18
[JEE Main 2019, 8 April Shift-I] 2
Ans. (a) : = 495 g
FeC2O4 + KMnO4 → Fe + CO2 + Mn
3+ 2+ 239. 5 moles of AB2 weight 125×10-3 kg and 10 moles
-3
v.f. = 3 v.f = 5 of A 2 2 weight 300×10 kg. The molar mass of
B
1× 3 = mole × 5 A(MA) and molar mass of B(MB) in kg mol-1 are
(a) MA = 10 × 10–3 and MB = 5 × 10–3
3 (b) MA = 50 × 10–3 and MB = 25 × 10–3
Mole =
5 (c) MA = 25 × 10–3 and MB = 50 × 10–3
Fe2(C2O4)3 + KMnO4 → Fe + CO2 + Mn
3+ 2+
(d) MA = 5 × 10–3 and MB = 10 × 10–3
v.f. = 6 v.f = 5 [JEE Main 2019,12 April Shift-I]
1× 6 = mole × 5 Ans. (d) : 5 moles of AB2 weight 125 g
6 weight in g 125
Mole = = = = 25
5 number of moles 5
FeSO4 + KMnO4 → Fe3+ + SO42– + Mn2+ ∴ AB2 = 25 g/mol
v.f. = 1 v.f = 5 125
1× 1 = mole × 5 5=
M A + 2M B
1 M A + 2MB = 25
Mole =
5 10 mole of A2B2 weight 300 g

weight in g 300 Ans. (a):
= = =30 HNO3 solution = 63 % w/w
number of moles 10
Density = 1.4 g / mL
∴ A2B2 = 30 g / mole
300 Molarity = % w / w × d × 10
10 = M Solute
2M A + 2M B
63 × 1.4 × 10
2M A + 2M B = 30 M= = 14 M
63
∴ Molar mass of A, (M A ) = 5 g or 5 × 10 kg
-3
∴ Molar mass of B, (M B ) = 10 g or 10 × 10-3kg 244. Haemoglobin contains 0.33% of iron by weight.

The molecular weight of haemoglobin is
240. Total number of atoms in 44 g of CO2 is
approximately 67200. The number of iron
(a) 6.02×1023 (b) 6.02×1024 atoms (at. Wt. of Fe= 56) present in one
24
(c) 1.806×10 (d) 18.06×1022 molecule of haemoglobin is
J & K CET-(2019) (a) 6 (b) 1
Ans. (c) : 44 gram CO2 mean 44/44 = 1 mole of the (c) 2 (d) 4
CO2. AIIMS-27 May, 2018 (E)
1 mole CO2 implies total of 6.022×1023 molecules of Ans. (d) : Given,
CO2. 1 molecules of CO2 has 3 atoms. % of Iron = 0.334 %
Therefore total atoms in 44 grams of CO2 has Molecular weight of the haemoglobin = 67200 g / mol
(6.022×1023) × 3 = 18.066 × 1023 atoms = 1.806 × 1024 Weight of the Iron = 56 g
atoms The number of iron atoms =
241. The amount of water (g) produced by the Molecular Weight of haemoglobin × % of iron
combustion of 32 g of methane is 100 × Atomic weight of Iron
(a) 18 g (b) 36 g 67200 × 0.334
(c) 54 g (d) 72 g = =4
Assam CEE-2019 100 × 56
Ans. (d) : CH4(g) +2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O 245. 100 mL brandy contains 40 mL ethanol. The
mole fraction of water is
As per stoichiometric equation, 16 g of methane
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.667
produces 36 g of H2O
(c) 0.26 (d) 0.425
36
∴32 g of methane will produce = × 32 = 72 g H2O. CG PET -2018
16
Ans. (a) : Volume of water = 100 – 40 = 60 mL and
242. Which one of the following is the lightest? Volume fraction ∝ mole fraction
(a) 0.2 mole of hydrogen gas
Volume of water
(b) 6.023 × 1022 molecules of nitrogen Volume fraction of water =
Total volume
(c) 0.1 g of silver
(d) 0.1 mole of oxygen gas 60
= = 0.6
AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Evening) 100
Ans. (c): 246. If 0.05g of urea is dissolved in 5 g of water, then
Weight (a) Its molarity will be greater than molality
(a) Moles = (b) Its molality will be greater than molarity
Molecular weight (c) Molarity and molality will be same
Weight of H2 = mole × molecular wt. (d) Its normality will be 50/60
= 0.2 × 2 = 0.4 g CG PET -2018
(b) 6.023 ×10 represents 1 mole
23
Number of moles of solute
Ans. (b) : Molarity =
Thus 6.023 ×1022 will represent 0.1 mole Volumeof solution (in L)
Weight of N2 = 0.1 × 28 = 2.8 g Number of moles of solute
(c) Weight of Silver = 0.1 g And Molality =
Mass of solution (in kg)
(d) Weight of oxygen = 32 × 0.1 = 3.2 g
Thus from the above, silver is lightest. ∴Mass of solute (urea) and solvent (water) remain in
changed, during the calculations of molarity and
243. Calculate molarity of a 63% w/w HNO3 molality.
solution if density is 1.4g/mL: Then volume of solution and contain water molecules.
(a) 14 M (b) 12 M (∴ In case of volume of solution, it has both solute and
(c) 10 M (d) 8 M solvent)
AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Evening) Thus, molality will be greater than that of molarity.
247. How many grams of Cl2 gas will be obtained by 251. 1.2 g of Mg (at. mass 24) will produce MgO
the complete reaction of 31.6 gm of potassium equal to :
permanganate with hydrochloric acid? (a) 0.05 mol (b) 40 g
[Mole mass of KMnO4 = 316 gm/mol] (c) 40 mg (d) 4 g
(a) 71 (b) 17.75 Manipal-2018
(c) 35.5 (d) 142
1
GUJCET-2018 Ans. (a) : Mg + O 2 → MgO
Ans. (b) : 2
From the above equation
2KMnO 4 + 16HCL → 2KCl + 2MnCl 2 + 8H 2O + 5Cl2
1 mol of Mg reacts to give 1 mol of MgO.
Moles of 31.6 gm of potassium permanganate Number of moles of Mg in
31.6 gm 1× 1.2
= = 0.1 mole 1.2 g = = 0.05 mol of Mg
316 gm / mol 24
0.1 moles of potassium permanganate will give The number of moles of MgO = 0.05 mol
5 252. The Avogadro number or a mole represents :
× 0.1 = 0.250 moles of chlorine.
2 (a) 6.02 × 1023 ions
The molar mass of Cl2 = 71 g/mole (b) 6.02 × 1023 atoms
The mass of Cl2 = 71 g/mole × 0.250 mol = 17.75 g (c) 6.02 × 1023 molecules
248. Two solutions NaCl and CH3COOH are (d) 6.02 × 1023 entities
prepared separately. The molarity of both is HP CET-2018
0.1 m and osmotic pressure p1 and p2 Ans. (b): Avogadro's number is the number of
respectively. The correct relationship between particles/atom in one mole of any substance.
osmotic pressure is Na = 6.023×1023 atom.
(a) p1 = p2 (b) p1 > p2 253. To a 4 L of 0.2 M solution of NaOH 2 L of 0.5
(c) p2 > p1 (d) p1 ≠ p2 M NaOH are added. The molarity of resulting
JCECE - 2018 solution is :
Ans. (b) : NaCl is a salt made up of strong acid and (a) 0.9 M (b) 0.3 M
strong base that completely dissociates to give 2 ions. (c) 1.8 M (d) 0.18 M
As we know osmotic pressure is directly proportional to Manipal-2018
i (Van't Hoff factor) i.e. π ∝ i. So, P1 > P2. Ans. (b) : Given,
249. 1.0 g of Mg is burnt with 0.28 g of O2 in a M1 = 0.2 M ; Vs = 4 L
closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess
and how much? M2 = 0.5 M ; Vs' = 2 L
(a) Mg, 5.8 g (b) Mg, 0.58 g M1Vs + M 2 Vs' 0.2 × 4 + 0.5 × 2
(c) O2, 0.24 g (d) O2, 2.4 g Mtotal = =
Vs + Vs' 4+2
Karnataka-CET-2018
Ans. (b) : The burning of Mg occurs as follows: 0.8 + 1.0 1.8
= = = 0.3M
2Mg + O2 → 2MgO 6 6
Moles 212 254. If 20 g of CaCO3 is treated with 100 mL of 20%
Molar mass of Mg = 48g and O2 = 32g HCl solution, the amount of CO2 produced is :
32 g of oxygen, needs 48 g of Mg (a) 22.4 L (b) 8.80 g
48 × 0.28 (c) 4.40 g (d) 2.24 L
0.28 g of oxygen, needs = Manipal-2018
32
Ans. (b) :
= 0.42g of Mg
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl + CO2 + H2O
Mg left (in excess) = 1– 0.42 = 0.58g
100g 73g 44g
250. Mass % of carbon in ethanol is 100 mL of 20% HCl solution = 20g HCl
(a) 52 (b) 13
CaCO3 is the limiting reactant 100g of CaCO3 gives 44g
(c) 34 (d) 90 CO2
(e) 80
44
Kerala-CEE-2018 20g CaCO3 gives × 20 = 8.80g of CO 2 .
Ans. (a) : Molecular mass of C2H5OH = 46.00 100
[Atomic mass of C = 12, H = 1, O = 16] 255. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic
46.00 of C2H5OH is contain, C = 24g acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved
gaseous mixture is passed through KOH
Molar mass of carbon pellets. Weight (in) g of the remaining product
Mass % of Carbon = × 100
Molar mass of ethanol at STP will be
24 × 100 (a) 1.4 (b) 3.0
= (c) 2.8 (d) 4.4
46
= 52.17% ≈ 52% NEET-2018

Ans. (c) According to given equation, 2 moles of KMnO4 reacts
HCOOH H 2SO 4
→ CO + H 2O ….(i) with 5 moles of SO2
5
(COOH) 2 → CO + CO 2 + H 2 O
H 2SO 4
….(ii) ∴ 0.10 moles of KMnO4 will react with × 0.10
2
Conc. H2SO4 is a strong dehydrating agent moles of SO2 i.e. 0.25 moles of SO2
2.3 Given, SO2 is produced by roasting of iron pyrite (FeS2)
Moles of HCOOH = = 0.05 mole
46 as:
2.3 4FeS2 + 11O2 → 2Fe2O3 + 8SO2
Moles of (COOH)2 = = 0.05 mole
46 So, 8 moles of SO2 will be formed by 4 moles of FeS2
From reaction (i), 4
Number of CO formed = 0.05 mole ∴ 0.25 moles of SO2 will be formed by × 0.25
8
From reaction (ii), moles of FeS2 = 0.125 moles of FeS2
Number of CO formed = 0.05 mole
molecular mass of FeS2 = 119.98 g mol–1
Number of CO2 formed = 0.05 mole
Hence, Total CO formed = 0.05 + 0.05 = 0.1 mole ∴ Amount of FeS2 required to give necessary SO2
KOH pellets absorbs all CO2, H2O absorbed by H2SO4 = 119.98g mol–1 × 0.125 mol.
thus CO is remaining product. = 14.99g ≈ 15g of FeS2
Thus the weight of the remaining product = 0.1 × 28 = 258. What will be the correct number of total
2.8g electrons in 1.6 g methane ?
256. In which case is number of molecules of water (a) 6.02 × 1024 (b) 6.02 × 1023
22
maximum? (c) 6.02 × 10 (d) 9.632 × 1023
(a) 18 mL of water UPTU/UPSEE-2018
(b) 0.18 g of water Ans. (b): Given mass of methane = 1.6g
(c) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 Molecular weight of methane = 12 + 4 = 16 g mol–1
K
(d) 10–3 mol of water Given mass
Moles of methane =
NEET-2018 Molecular mass
Ans. (a) : 1 moles of water contain = 6.023 × 1023 atom 1.6
(i) Mass of water = 18×1 = 18g (H2O = 18) Moles of Methane = = 0.1
16
Molecules of water
In one mole there are 6.02 × 1023 atoms
18
= mole × NA = × 6.023 ×1023 = 6.023 ×1023 In 0.1 mol there are 0.1 × 6.02 × 1023atoms
18 = 6.02 × 1022 atoms
(ii) Molecules of water = mole × NA
[No. of electron in CH4 = 6+4=10]
18
= × 6.023 × 1023 Hence, Total number of electrons = Number of
18 electrons present in CH4 × atoms present in 0.1 mole
= 6.023×1021 = 10× 6.02 × 1022 = 6.02 × 1023
(iii) Molecules of water = mole × 6.023×1023
=10–4×6.023×1023 259. The heat of neutralisation of a strong base and
= 6.023×10-19 a strong acid is 13.7 kcal. The heat released
(iv) Molecules of water = mole × NA = when 0.6 mole HCl solution is added to 0.25
6.023×1023×10-3 mole of NaOH is
= 6.023×1020 (a) 3.425 kcal (b) 8.22 kcal
From above, It is clear that 18 mL of water has (c) 11.645 kcal (d) 13.7 kcal
maximum molecules. WB-JEE-2018
257. One litre of an acidified solution of KMnO4 Ans. (a) :
containing 15.8 g KMnO4 is decolourised by HCl + NaOH  → NaCl + H 2 O
passing sufficient amount of SO2. If SO2 is 1mol 1mol
produced by roasting of iron pyrite (FeS2). The
amount of pyrite required to produce the
 H = –13.7 Kcal
necessary amount of SO2 will be According to question,
(a) 15.8 g FeS2 (b) 15.0 g FeS2 HCl + NaOH  → NaCl + H 2 O ….(i)
0.25 mol 0.6mol
(c) 7.5 g FeS2 (d) 7.9 g FeS2
In equation (i), NaOH acts as a limiting reagent. for 1
UPTU/UPSEE-2018
mole of NaOH and 1 mole of HCl heat of neutralization
Ans. (b) 2 KMnO4 + 5SO2 + 2H2O →K2SO4 + = 13.7 kcal.
2MnSO4+2H2SO4
∴ For 0.25 mole of NaOH and 0.6 mole of HCl, heat of
Molar mass of KMnO4 is 158.034 g/mol
neutralization = 13.7 × 0.25 = 3.425 kcal.
15.8g
Moles of KMnO4 = = 0.10 moles 260. How many moles of electrons will weigh one
158.034g / mol kilogram?

1 263. How many grams of cyclohexanol is required
(a) 6.023×1023 (b) ×1031 to produce 20 g cyclohexane, if % yield is 54%?
9.108
(a) 88 (b) 66
6.023 1
(d) 9.108 × 6.023 × 10
8 (c) 22 (d) 44
(c) × 10 54
9.108 CG PET -2018

WB-JEE-2018 Ans. (d) : Formula of cyclohexanol is C6 H11 OH.
Ans. (d) : 1 mole of electrons = 6.023 × 1023 electrons
Mass of 1 mole of electrons
= 6.023 × 1023× 9.108 × 10-31 kg
108
No. of moles of electron in 1 kg = moles
9.108 × 6.023 Molecular mass of C6 H11 OH = 100
of electrons. Molecular mass of cyclohexane
1
Thus, ×108 moles of electrons will weight ( C6 H12 ) = 84
9.108 × 6.023
one kilogram. Q For 84 g of cyclohexane, we need = 100 g of material
261. The number of molecules of 8 g of oxygen gas C6 H11 (OH)
at NTP is ∴ For 20 g of cyclohexane,
(a) 6.022 × 1023 (b) 8 × 6.022 × 1023 100 × 20
We need =
1 1 84
(c) × 6.022 ×1023 (d) × 6.022 ×1023
4 2 = 23.80 g of C6 H11 (OH)
Assam CEE-2018 ∴ 54 g of C6 H11 (OH) we get from = 100 g of
Ans. (c) : Mass of Oxygen molecule O2 = 8g C6 H11 (OH)
Molar mass of O2 = 16 + 16 = 32g
100 × 23.8
The number of Moles O2 in 8g of O2 =
8 1
=
∴ 23.8 g of C6 H11 (OH) get from = = 44%
54
32 4
= 0.25 moles 264. Excess of acidic solution of KI to mixed with 25
1 mole contains = 6.022 × 1023 number of O2 mL H2O2. Liberated I2 requires 20 mL of 0.3 N
Na2S2O3 solution. The volume strength of H2O2
Then 0.25 mole will contain is
1 (a) 1.344 volume (b) 2.688 volume
6.022 × 1023 ×
4 (c) 1.5 volume (d) 2.5 volume
The number of molecules of 8 g of oxygen gas at NTP CG PET -2018
1
is 6.022 × 1023 × . Ans. (a) : The reaction involved in this liberation is
4 2KI + H 2 O 2 → I 2 + 2KOH
262. The 25 mL of a 0.15 M solution of lead nitrate, Normality of 25 ml H 2 O 2 be x N
Pb(NO3)2 reacts with all of the aluminium
sulphate, Al2(SO4)3, present in 20 mL of a From above titration
solution. What is the molar concentration of N1 = Normality of H 2 O 2
the Al2(SO4)3? V1 = Volume of H 2 O 2
3Pb(NO 3 )2 (aq) + Al 2 (SO 4 )3 (aq) →
N2 = Normality of Na 2S2 O3 or I 2
3PbSO4 (s) + 2Al(NO 3 )3 (aq)
V2 = Volume of Na 2S2 O3 or I 2
(a) 6.25×10–2 M (b) 2.421×10–2 M
(c) 0.1875 M (d) None of these N1V1 = N 2 V2
BITSAT-2018 a × 25 = 0.3 × 20
Ans. (a) : Given, 0.3 × 20
a=
Al2(SO4)3 + Pb(NO3)2 → 3PbSO4 + 2Al(NO3)3 25
As we know, a = 0.24
Molar mass of Pb(NO3)2 = Volume × Concentration Normality of H 2 O 2 solution = 0.24 N
= 25 × 0.15 Volume strength = Normality × Equivalent weight
= 3.75 mL M Equivalent weight of H 2 O 2 in terms of oxygen
1
And Molar mass of Al2(SO4)3 = × 3.75 = 5.6 L
3 Volume strength= 0.24 × 5.6
1 = 1.344 g L-1
Then, M × 20 = × 3.75
3 265. Number of electrons present in 3.6 mg of
M = 0.0625M NH +4 are
M = 6.25 × 10–2M
(a) 1.20 × 1021 (b) 1.20 × 1020 268. The mass of CaCO3 required to react with 25
(c) 1.20 × 1022 (d) 2 × 10–3 mL of 0.75 M HCl is :
AMU-2017 (a) 0.94 g (b) 9.4 g
+ –3 (c) 0.094 g (d) 0.49 g
Ans. (b) : Given, mass of NH 4 = 3.6 mg = 3.6 ×10 g
Manipal-2017
Molar mass of NH +4 = (1 × 14) + (4 × 1) = 18 g Ans. (a) :
[N = 14, H = 1] 1 moles CaCO3 = 2 moles of HCl
Given mass MV 0.75 × 25
No. of moles = No. of moles of HCl = = = 0.01875moles
Molar mass 1000 1000
3.6 ×10−3 1
= = 0.2×10–3 moles NO. of moles of CaCO3 = × number of moles of HCl
18 2
+ 1
No. of electrons in 3.6 mg of NH 4 = × 0.01875 = 9.375 × 10−3
= Moles × Avogadro Number 2
–3 23 Mass of CaCO3 = No of moles × Molar Mass
= 0. 2 × 10 × 6.023 × 10
[Molar mass of CaCO3 = 40+12+16×3 = 100]
= 1.2 × 1020 electron of NH +4 = 9.375 ×10–3× 100 = 0.9375g
20
266. If 3.01 × 10 molecules are removed from 98 269. What is the quantity of hydrogen gas liberated
mg of H2SO4, then number of moles of H2SO4 when 46 g sodium reacts with excess ethanol?
left are (Given atomic mass of Na = 23)
(a) 0.1 × 10–3 mol (b) 9.95 × 10–2 mol (a) 2.4×10 –3
kg (b) 2.0×10–3 kg
(c) 0.5 × 10–3 mol (d) 1.66 × 10–3 mol (c) 4.0×10 kg –3
(d) 2.4×10–2 kg
Karnataka-CET-2017 MHT CET-2017
Ans. (c) : Ans. (b) : The reaction of ethanol with water is as
Molecular weight of H2SO4 = 98 mg = 98 × 10–3 g follows-
No. of moles =
weight 2C2H5OH(l) + 2Na(s)→2C2H5O–Na+ + H2(g)↑
mole.wt. Mass 46
Moles of Na (46g) = = = 2 mol
98 × 10 -3
−3
Molecular weight 23
= = 10 moles = 0.001mol Here, 2 moles of Na will give 1 mole of H.
98
23 The molecular weight of Hydrogen
1 mole H2SO4 = 6.022 × 10 molecules
23
0.001 moles = 6.022 ×10 × 0.001 Mass of hydrogen 2
= = = g mol −1
= 6.022 × 1020 molecules Moles of hydrogen 1
If 3.01×1020 molecules are removed Thus, quantity of hydrogen gas librated = 2 g
then, = 2 × 10–3 kg
Remaining molecules = 6.022×1020 – 3.01×1020
= 3.01×1020
270. The number of grams/weight of NH4Cl
3.01× 10 20
required to be added to 3 liters of 0.01 M
No. of moles =
6.022 × 1023 NH3to prepare the buffer of pH=9.45 at
1 temperature 298 K (Kbfor NH3 is 1.85×10-5)
−3 −3
= × 10 = 0.5 ×10 moles (a) 0.354 gm (b) 4.55 gm
2
(c) 0.455 gm (d) 3.55 gm
267. One mole of an unknown compound was UPTU/UPSEE-2017
treated with excess water and resulted in the
evolution of two moles of a readily combustible Ans. (a) : Given pH = 9.45
gas. The resulting solution was treated with Kb for NH3 is 1.85 × 10–5
CO2 and resulted in the formation of white [NH 4 Cl]
turbidity. The unknown compound is pOH = pK b + log
[NH 3 ]
(a) Ca (b) CaH2
(c) Ca (OH)2 (d) Ca(NO3)2 [NH 4 Cl]
⇒ pOH = − log K b + log
(e) CaSO4 [NH 3 ]
Kerala-CEE-2017 (QpK b = − log K b )
Ans. (b) : The unknown compound is CaH2 or calcium Also, pOH = 14 – pH = 14 – 9.45 = 4.55
hydride
CaH2 + 2H2O → Ca(ΟΗ)2 + 2Η2 and log
[ NH 4Cl] = log 3 ≈ 0.470
(2 mole) [ NH3 ].K b
readily combustible H2 gas
Ca (OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O Thus, log 1014 − ( log109 + log 3 ) ≈ log
[ NH 4Cl]
White turbidity. [ NH 3 ].K b
1014
≈
[ NH 4Cl] Ans. (c) : Given Mass of H 2SO 4 (w) = 4.9g
10 × 3 [ NH 3 ].K b
9 Volume of solution (V)= 100mL
Molar mass (M)=98
104 × [ NH 3 ].K b w × 1000 4.9 1000
Or Molarity (C) = ,∴ C = ×
109 × 3 M×V 98 100
1014 Molarity = 0.5M
= [NH 4Cl] ≈ 9 × 0.01×1.85 ×10−5 Normality (N)=Z× molarity (C)
10 × 3
= 0.354gm. where, Z= equivalent factor
For H 2SO 4 (Z = 2) ⇒ 0.5M
271. The yield of acetanilide in the reaction (100%
conversion) of 2 moles of aniline with 1 mole of ∴ Normality =2×0.5=1N
acetic anhydride is 274. 1 g of a carbonate (M2CO3) on treatment with
(a) 270 g (b) 135 g excess HCl produces 0.01186 mole of CO2. The
(c) 67.5 g (d) 177 g molar mass of M2CO3 in g mol-1 is
WB-JEE-2017 (a) 1186 (b) 84.3
(c) 118.6 (d) 11.86
Ans. (b) :
[JEE Main-2017]
C6 H5 NH 2 + (CH3CO)2 O 
→ C6 H5 NHCOCH3 + CH3COOH Ans. (b) : Given chemical equation.
Aniline Acetic Acetanilide Aceticacid
anhydride
M 2 CO3 + 2HCl → 2MCl + H 2 O + CO 2
Int. 2 1 0 0 1 gm 0.01186 mol
Final 1 0 1 1 From the above chemical eqn.
Thus acetic anhydride is the limiting reagent. nM2CO3 = nCO2
Molar mass of C6H5NHCOCH3 or C8H9NO 1
= 12 × 8 + 9 × 1 + 14 × 1 + 16 × 1 = 0.01186
Molar mass of M 2 CO3
= 96 + 9 + 14 + 16 = 135 g mol–1
1
Amount of acetanilide formed = 1 mol Molar mass of M 2 CO3 =
= 1 mol × 135 g mol–1 = 135g 0.01186
M = 84.3 g mol–1
272. 0.50 mol of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.20 mol of o
Na3PO4 to get Ba3(PO4)2. Number of moles 275. At 25 C consider the density of water is 1 g/L
Ba3(PO4)2 of obtained are and that of propanol to be 0.925g/L what
volume of propanol will have same number of
(a) 0.6 mol (b) 0.2 mol
molecules as present in 210 mL of water?
(c) 0.1 mol (d) 0.05 mol (a) 757 mL (b) 825 mL
BCECE-2017 (c) 646 mL (d) 437 mL
Assam CEE-2014 J & K CET-(2017)
Ans. (c) : Balanced equation for reaction between Ans. (a) : Given, density of water = 1g/L
BaCl2 and Na3PO4 is as follows: and Density of propanol = 0.925 g/L
3BaCl2 + 2Na 3 PO4  → Ba 3 (PO4 )2 Mass
+ 6NaCl Density =
3 moles of BaCl2 react with 2 moles of Na3PO4 to give Volume
1 mole of Ba3 (PO4)2 For water :
0.5 moles of BaCl2 will react with (2/3) × 0.5 = 0.33 18
1= (molar mass of water = 18 g mol–1)
moles of Na3PO4 VH 2O
Available moles of Na3PO4 = 0.2
VH 2 O = 18 L
So, Na3PO4 is the limiting reagent
Now, 2 moles of Na3PO4 give 1 mole of Ba3 (PO4)2 For propanol :
So, 0.2 moles of Na3(PO4)2 60
0.925 =
Hence maximum number of moles of Ba3(PO4)2 Vpropanol
formed = 0.1
[Molar mass of CH 3CH 2 CH 2 OH = 60g mol–1]
273. 4.9 g of H2SO4 is present in 100 mL solution.
the molarity and normality of the solution will Vpropanol = 64.86 L
be Vpropanol 64.86
Ratio : =
Molarity Normality VH2O 18
(a) 1M 0.5 N Vpropanol = 3.603 × VH 2O
(b) 1M 0.25 N
(c) 0.5M 1N Vpropanol = 3.603 × 210
(d) 2M 3N = 756.63
CG PET -2017 = 757 mL

276. Dissolving 120 g of urea in 1000 g of water gave Ans. (d) : Given,
a solution of density 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of n1 (CH3OH) = 5.2 mol
the solution is
1000g
(a) 1.78 M (b) 2 M n2 (H2O) = = 55.56 mol
(c) 2.05 M (d) 2.22 M 18g / mol
JCECE - 2017 ∴ n1 + n2 = 5.20 + 55.56
Ans. (c) : Given, Mass of urea = 120g = 60.76 mol
Molar mass of urea = 120 + 1000 = 1120 g ∴ X CH3OH = mole fraction of CH3OH
Density of solution = 1.15 g/mL
n1 5.2
mass 1120 = = = 0.086
Volume of solution = = = 973.15mL n1 + n 2 60.76
density 1.15
280. The molality of 90% H2SO4 solution is [density
W ×1000
Molarity = = 1.8 g/mL]
M × Volume(in mL) (a) 1.8 (b) 48.4
120 ×1000 (c) 91.8 (d) 94.6
= = 2.05 M
60 × 973.15 COMEDK-2017
The molarity of the solution is 2.05M Ans. (c) : Given,
277. How much CO2 is produced on heating of 1 kg [density = 1.8 g/mL]
of carbon? Sstrength of H2SO4=90%
11 3 and mass of solvent =100 – 90=10 g
(a) kg (b) kg Now, Molality= Moles of solute dissolved in
3 11
90 × 1000
4 3 1000 g of the solvent = = 91.8
(c) kg (d) kg 98 × 10
3 4
NDA (II)-2017 281. 6g of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte X dissolved
Ans. (a) : We know that, C+O2 →CO2 in 100 g of water freezes at –0.93ºC. The molar
mass of X in g mol-1 is (Kf of H2O = 1.86 K kg
12 g of C produces = 44 g of CO2
mol-1)
12 44 (a) 60 (b) 140
So, kg of C produces = kg of CO2
1000 1000 (c) 180 (d) 120
44 1000 AP-EAMCET – 2016
∴1 kg of C produces = × kg of CO 2
1000 12 Ans. (d) : Given that–
11 Kf = 1.86 K kg mol-1
= kg
3 W = 6 gm
11 ∆Tf = −0.93º C
Hence, kg of CO2 produced on heating 1 kg of
3 W' = 100 gm
carbon. K × W × 1000
∴ ∆Tf = f
278. The compound C6H12O4 contains M×W'
(a) 22 atoms per mole 1.86 × 6 × 1000
(b) twice the mass percent of H as compared to 0.93 =
M × 100
the mass percent of C
1.86 × 6 ×10
(c) six times the mass percent of C as compared M=
to the mass percent of H 0.93
(d) thrice the mass percent of H as compared to M = 120
the mass percent of O 282. The number of moles of H2O in one litre is
NDA (II)-2017 (a) 50.5 (b) 55
Ans. (c) : Given, C6H12O4 (c) 55.05 (d) 55.55
Molar mass of C in C6H12O4= 6×12=72 SRMJEEE – 2015, 2010
Molar mass of H in C6H12O4= 1×12=12 Ans. (d) : A appropriate unit of measurement for
Therefore, mass percent of C is six times as compared water's density is gram per milliliter or 1 gram per
to the mass percent of H. cubic centimeter (1g/cm3) i.e.
279. A 5.2 molal aqueous solution methyl alcohol, Density of water = 1 g/cc
CH3OH is supplied. What is the mole fraction and
of methyl alcohol in the solution?
(a) 0.05 (b) 0.10 Mass of water
Density of water =
(c) 0.18 (d) 0.086 Volume of water
JCECE - 2017 Or mass of water = 1 × 1000 = 1000 gm
Mass of water Ans. (a) : Given, cost of sugar = ` 50 kg
No. of moles = Molar mass of sugar = 12 × 12 + 1 × 22 + 11 × 16
Molecular weight
= 342g
1000 gm [C = 12, H = 1, O = 16]
No. of moles = = 55.5 mol
18 Q Cost of 1000 g of sugar is Rs. 50
283. What weight of HCl is present in 155 mL of a 50
0.54 M solution? ∴ Cost of 342g of sugar = × 342
1000
(a) 3.06 g (b) 6.12 g = `. 17.1
(c) 1.53 g (d) 0.30 g 287. A man writes his biodata with carbon pencil on
AMU-2016 the plane paper having mass 150 mg. After
Ans. (a) : Given, writing his biodata, he weighs the written
Vs (HCl) = 155 mL = 0.155 L paper and find its mass is 152 mg. What is the
n(HCl) = Vs (HCl) × C(HCl) = 0.155L × 0.540M number of carbon atoms present in the paper?
= 0.0837 mol. (a) 1.0036 × 1020 (b) 5.02 × 1020
23
Molecular weight = 36.4 g/mol (c) 1.0036 × 10 (d) 0.502 × 1020
m(HCl) = n(HCl) × M(HCl) Manipal-2016
= 0.0837 mol × 36.5 g/mol Ans. (a) : We know,
= 3.05505g ≈ 3.060 g Mass of C-atoms = 152–150 = 2mg
284. If 27 g of water is formed during complete Molar mass of C-atoms = 12g = 12000mg
combustion of pure propene (C3H6), the mass 6.022 × 1023
of propene burnt is 12000 mg of carbon contains = ×2
(a) 42 g (b) 21 g 12000
(c) 14 g (d) 56 g = 0.0010036×1023
(e) 40 g = 1.0036×1020 atoms.
Kerala-CEE-2016 Therefore, 20the number of carbon atoms present in
1.0036×10 atoms.
Ans. (b) : Given,
H2O (formed) = 27g 288. The concentration of a solution can be
expressed in molarity, normality, formality and
Reaction,
molality. Among them, which mode of
9 expression is the most accurate for the all
C3 H 6 + O 2  → 3CO 2 + 3H 2 O
Pr opene ( 3×12+6=42 ) 2 ( 3×18=54 ) conditions?
The mass ratio between C3 H 6 and H2O (a) Molarity (b) Formality
(c) Normality (d) Molality
= 42:54
Manipal-2016
∴ 54g of H2O require = 42g C3H6
42 × 27 Moles of solute
∴ 27g of H2O require = Ans. (d) : Molality (m) =
54 Mass of solvent in kg
= 21g. C3H6 Molality is defined in terms of weight, hence
285. A silicon chip used in an integrated circuit of independent of temperature. Remaining three
computer has a mass of 5.68 mg. The number concentration units are defined in terms of volume of
of Si atoms present in this chip are : solution, they depends on temperature.
(a) 144 × 1020 atoms (b) 18 × 1020 atoms 289. When a liquid that is immiscible with water
(c) 21 × 10 atoms20
(d) None of these was steam distilled at. 95.2°C at a total
Manipal-2016 pressure of 99.652 kPa. The distillate contained
1.27 g of the liquid per gram of water. What
Ans. (d) : Given, will be the molar mass of the liquid if the
Molar mass of Si = 28g = 28000 mg vapour pressure of water is 85.140 kPa at
So, 28000 mg of Si contain 6.022 × 1023 atoms 95.2°C2
6.022 ×1023 (a) 99.65 g mol–1 (b) 18 g mol–1
Then, 5.68 mg of silicon contain × 5.68 (c) 134.1 g mol –1
(d) 105.74 g mol–1
28000
= 0.00122 × 1023 = 1.22 × 1020 atoms UPTU/UPSEE-2016
The number of Si atoms present in this chip is Ans. (c): Given,
= 1.22 × 1020 atoms Ptotal = 99.652 kPa
Pwater = PB = 85.140 kPa
286. Cost of sugar (C12H22O11) is ` 50 per kg.
Calculate its cost per mol. Pliquid = PA = (99.652–85.140) kPa
= 14.512 kPa
(a) ` 17.1 per mol (b) ` 27.1 per mol
m A 1.27 m p m
(c) ` 14.1 per mol (d) none of the above and = ⇒ A = A A
Manipal-2016 mB 1 mB pBmB

 m  p m  Ans. (b) : We know that,
M A =  A  B B  32g of SO2 gas:
 m B  p A  Molar mass of SO2 = 64 g
 85.140 kPa × 18g mol−1  64 g SO2 ≡ 6.023 × 1023 molecules
MA = 1.27 ×   ∴ 32 g of SO2 = 3.01 × 1023 molecules
 14.512 kPa 
8 g of oxygen gas :
M A  134.1g mol−1
32 g of O2 ≡ 6.023 × 1023 molecules
290. Number of atoms of sulphur in 9.8 grams of
H2SO4 are– 6.023×1023
∴ 8 g of O2 ≡ × 8 = 1.5 × 1023 molecules
(a) 0.6023 × 1023 (b) 6.023 × 1023 32
(c) 6 × 10 23
(d) 6.023 × 1021 16 g of CH4 ≡ 6.023 × 1023 molecules
BCECE-2016 4g of H2 gas:
Ans. (a) : No. of atom in 9.8 g of H2SO4 2g H2 ≡ 6.023 × 1023 molecules
H2SO4 = 2 + 32 + 16 × 4 6.023×1023
=98 4 g of H2 ≡ ×4
2
Given mass = 12.046 × 1023 molecules
No. of moles =
Molecular mass 294. 20 volume of H2O2 means
9.8 (a) 20% H2O2 solution
= (b) 20 mL of solution contain 1 g of H2O2
98
= 0.1 moles (c) 1 mL of solution liberate 20 mL of O2 at STP
So, No. of atoms = No. of moles × NA (d) 20 mL of solution contain 1 mol of H2O2
= 0.1 × 6.023 × 1023 JCECE - 2016
= 0.6023 × 1023 Ans. (c) : By definition volume strength of H2O, the
291. For 1 molar solution of NaCl in water at 250C amount of O2 liberated by 1 mL of H2O2 at STP is the
and 1-atm pressure show that– volume strength of H2O2.
(a) molarity = mole fraction 295. If 1.4 g of N2(g) react with 1 g of H2(g) to form
(b) molality = mole fraction ammonia (NH3), then amount of NH3(g)
(c) Normality = mole fraction formed and number of atoms present in NH3
(d) molarity = normality respectively are (in moles)
BCECE-2016 (a) 0.5 and 0.1 (b) 0.1 and 0.1
(c) 0.1 and 0.5 (d) 0.5 and 0.5
Ans. (d) : 1 Molar solution of NaCl will have molarity
and Normality. JCECE - 2016
292. If 50 mL of 0.1 M HCl and 200 mL of 0.01 M Ans. (b) : The relation used for formation of ammonia
HCl are mixed together. The molarity of is
mixture will be – Given,
(a) 0.28 M (b) 2.8 M N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)
(c) 0.028 M (d) 28..57 M Relation by mass = 28 :6 : 34
BCECE-2016 14 :3 : 17
Ans. (c) : Given, N2(g) = 1.4g ⇒ H2(g) = 1g
M1 = 0.1, M2 = 0.001 Thus, N2(g) behave as a limiting reagent and NH3(g)
V1 = 50, V2 = 200 will formed as per amount of N2 used.
Therefore,
M V + M 2 V2
M ( mixture) = 1 1 14g of N2 give NH3 = 17 g
V1 + V2 17 ×1.4
∴ 1.4 g of N2 give NH3 =
( 0.1× 50 ) + ( 0.01× 200 ) 14
50 + 200 Amount of NH3 (g) = 1.7 g
5+ 2 7 w
= No. of moles of NH3, n =
250 250 M
Molarity of mixture = 0.028M. 1.7
n= = 0.1 mol.
293. Among the following gases of specified masses, 17
which one has least number of molecules? Also
(Atomic masses of H, C, O and S are No. of moles of NH3 ≡ No. of atoms of N in NH3
respectively 1, 12, 16 and 32 g mol–1) ∴ If no. of moles of NH3 = 0.1
(a) 32 g of sulphur dioxide gas Then, no. of moles of N-atoms in NH3 = 0.1 mol
(b) 8 g of oxygen gas Hence,
(c) 16 g of methane gas No. of moles of NH3 = 0.1 mol
(d) 4 g of hydrogen gas
No. of moles of N-atoms = 0.1 mol
J & K CET-(2016)
296. Solid NaHCO3 will be neutralized by 40.0mL of (a) 1.2 atm (b) 2.4 atm
0.1M H2SO4 solution. What would be the (c) 2.0 atm (d) 1.0 atm
weight of solid NaHCO3 in gram? AMU-2015
(a) 0.672g (b) 6.07g Ans. (b) : N2O4 → 2NO2
(c) 17g (d) 20g Moles of un reacted N2O4 = 1(1 – 0.2) = 0.8
JIPMER-2016 Moles of NO2 = 2 × 0.2 = 0.4
Ans. (a) : Total moles (n2) = 0.8 + 0.4 = 1.2
2NaHCO3 + H 2SO4 
→ Na 2SO4 + 2H 2 O + 2CO2 P1 / ( T1n1 ) = P2 / T2 × n 2
Mole 2mole 1mole
ratio =168g = 98g 1 P2
= ]
m- moles of H2SO4 = M × VmL = 40.0×0.01 300 × 1 600 ×1.2
= 4 m – mole P2 = 2.4 atm
Moles of H2SO4 = M × VmL = 40.0×0.1 = 4m mol 300. When 4A of current is passed through a 1.0 L,
Also, it can written as m-moles of NaHCO3 when 0.10 M Fe3+ (aq) solution for 1 hour, it is partly
neutralised = 4×2 = 8m-moles. reduced to Fe(s) and partly of Fe2+(aq), Identify
w the incorrect statement.
But m-mole = × 1000 (a) 0.10 mole of electrons are required to convert
m
all Fe3+ to Fe2+
w 84 × 8
8 = ×1000 ⇒ w = ⇒ w = 0.672g. (b) 0.025 mol of Fe(s) will be deposited
84 1000 (c) 0.05 mol of iron remains as Fe2+
297. Which one of the following has different (d) 0.050 mol of iron remains as Fe2+
number of molecules? (All are kept at normal BCECE-2015
temperature and pressure)
Ans. (d) : Given,
(a) 3 gram of Hydrogen (b) 48 gram of Oxygen
4 a, 1 hours, 1.0L, 0.l0mFe+3
(c) 42 gram of Nitrogen (d) 2 gram of Carbon
NDA (II)-2016 It 4 × 3600
Number of F = = = 0.15 F
Ans. (d) : We know that, 96500 96500
1 mole= 6.022×1023 atom Initially mole Fe+3 =b 1 × 0.10 = 0.1 mole
1g of hydrogen= 6.022×1023 atoms e– + F3+3 → F+3
3g of hydrogen= 3×6.022×1023 atoms 1F = 1 Mole F3+3 deposited
3 0.15 F = 0.15 mole F3+3 deposited > Initially mole
×6.022×1023 molecule (∴hydrogen is diatomic) 0.1 mole Fe+3 = 0.1 F electricity = 0.1 mole Fe+2
2
Now , 16g of oxygen = 6.022×1023 atoms Fe+2 0.1 mole
3 0.05 F ⇒ Fe+2 + 2e– → Fe
48g of oxygen= ×6.022×1023 atoms 2F = 1 mole Fe+2
2
1
(∴Oxygen is diatomic) 0.05 = × 0.05 mole Fe+2 0.025 mole Fe+2
Again, 12g of carbon= 6.022×1023 atoms 2
1 Fe mole = 0.025 mole
2g of carbon= ×6.022×1023 molecule Fe+2 → 0.1 – 0.025 = 0.05 mole
6
Hence the in correct option (d)
(∴carbon is monoatomic molecule)
Hence, 2g of C contain different number of molecules. 301. The number of Na atoms in 46g of Na (atomic
weight of Na = 23) is
298. The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4g of CO2 is (a) 6.023 × 1023 (b) 2
(a) 1.2 × 1023 (b) 6 × 1022 (c) 1 (d) 12.046 × 1023
23
(c) 6 × 10 (d) 12 × 1023 J & K CET-(2015)
Karnataka-CET-2016
Ans. (d) : Given,
Ans. (a) : Given that, Molar mass of Na = 23 g, Given mass = 46 g
4.4 Given mass × N A
Moles of CO2 = = 0.1moles
44 No. of atoms =
Molar mass
∴ Number of molecules of CO2 = 0.1 × 6.022 × 1023
= 6.022 × 1022 molecules 46 × 6.022 × 1023
=
1 molecule of CO2 contains 2 oxygen atoms. 23
∴Number of oxygen atoms = 2 × 6.022 × 1022 = 2 × 6.022 × 1023
= 12.044 × 1022 atoms = 12.044 × 1023 atoms
= 1.2 × 1023 atoms ∴ 46 g of Na contains 12.044 × 1023 atoms
299. One mole of N2O4(g) at 300 K is kept in a closed 302. In order to prepare one liter 1N solution of
vessel at 1 atm pressure. It is heated to 600 K KMnO4, how many grams of KMnO4 are
when 20% by mass of N2O4(g) decomposes to required, if the solution to be used in acid
NO2(g). The resultant pressure is medium for oxidation?
(a) 128 g (b) 41.75 g Ans. (b) :
(c) 31.60 g (d) 62.34 g pt4+ + 4e- → pt
JIPMER-2015 When 4F electricity is passed, it gives = 1mole pt
Ans. (c) : Given, When 0.60 F electricity passed through solution then,
Normality = 1 N, volume = 1L the number of moles of pt = x
No.of gram equivalence number of moles (x) = 0.6F/ 4F = 0.15 moles
Normality = 306. A mixture of gases contains H2 and O2 gases in
Volumeof solution in (L)
the ratio of 1 : 4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio
No. of gram equivalence = N × V in (L) of the two gases in the mixture?
=1×1=1 (a) 16 : 1 (b) 2 : 1
wt (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
No. of gram equivalence =
eq wt NEET-2015, cancelled
molecular wt given mass (m)
Where, eq. wt = .m.w = 158g Ans. (d) Number of moles (n) =
n − factor Molar mass (M)
As the ratio by weight of Hydrogen and Oxygen is 1: 4
n H 2 32
Molar ratio will be = = 4:1
n o2 8
158 The molar ratio of hydrogen and Oxygen is 4 :1
equal = = 31.6
5 307. Vapour pressure in mm Hg of 0.1 mole of urea
Let of KMnO4 = eq. wt × No. of gram equivalence in 180 g of water at 25°C is (The vapor
= 31.6 × 1 == 31.6 g pressure of water at 25°C is 24 mm Hg)
303. What amount of dioxygen (in gram) contains (a) 2.376 (b) 20.76
1.8 × 1022 molecules? (c) 23.76 (d) 24.76
(a) 0.0960 (b) 0.960 AP EAMCET (Engg.) -2014
(c) 9.60 (d) 96.0 Ans. (c) : Given,
Karnataka-CET-2015 P0 = 24, PS = ?
Ans. (b): Dioxygen = O2 w
= 0.1
Molar mass of O2 = 2(16) m
= 32g mol–1 From Raoults law –
1 mole = 6.022×1023 molecule P° − Ps w M
= ×
32 g of O2 = 6.022 × 1023 molecules of O2 P° m W
∴ 1.8 × 1022 molecules of O2 24 − Ps 18
= 0.1×
32 ×1.8 × 1022 24 180
= = 0.955 = 0.960 24 – ps = 0.24
6.022 × 1023
∴ ps = 23.76 mm Hg
304. How many ions per molecular are produced in
308. KMnO4 reacts with KI, in basic medium to
the solution, when Mohr salt is dissolved in form I2 and MnO2. When 250 mL of 0.1 M Kl
excess of water? solution is mixed with 250 mL of 0.02 M
(a) 4 (b) 5 KMnO4 in basic medium, what is the number
(c) 6 (d) 10 of moles of I2 formed?
Karnataka-CET-2015 (a) 0.015 (b) 0.005
Ans. (b) : Mohrs salt: (NH4) 2 Fe(SO4)2. 6H2O (c) 0.005 (d) 0.01
AP EAMCET (Engg.) -2014
( NH 4 )2 Fe ( SO4 )2 ⋅ 6H 2O 
in excess
of water
→ 2NH 4+ + 2SO42− + Fe2+
Ans. (b) : Given that,
on dissolving in water two NH +4 ions, two SO 24− ions Number of equivalents of KMnO4 =
and one Fe2+ ion will be produced. Number of equivalents of I2 = 0.02 × 3 × 250×10–3
Total number of ions = 5 = 0.015
305. How many moles of platinum will be deposited 0.015
Number of moles of I2 is = 0.005
on the cathode when 0.60 F of electricity is 2
passed through a 1.0 M solution of Pt4+ ? 309. Density of 3 M solution of NaCI is 1.25 g/mL.
(a) 0.60 mol (b) 0.15 mol The mass of the solvent in the solution is
(c) 0.30 mol (d) 0.45 mol (a) 105.4 g (b) 10.745g
(e) 1.0 mol (c) 10.754 g (d) 1074.5g
Kerala-CEE-2015 COMEDK 2014
Ans. (d) : Density of solution = 1.25 g/mL 313. In which one of the following, does the given
M = 3 mol/lit amount of chlorine exert the least pressure in a
Molar mass of NaCl = 58.5 g mol–1 vessel of capacity 1 dm3 and 273K?
Weight (a) 0.0355 g (b) 0.071 g
No.of moles = (c) 6.023×1021molecules (d) 0.02 mol
Molecular weight
BCECE-2014
∴Mass of solution = d×V Ans. (a) : Given that,
= 1.25 g mL–1×1000 mL= 1250 g
Ideal gas equation in
Mass of solute (NaCl) = n× molar mass
PV = nRT
= 3×58.5=175.5 g
Mass of solvent = Mass of solution – mass of solute When V and T are same
= 1250–175.5= 1074.5 g P ∝ n
310. How many moles of magnesium phosphate Thus when number of moles, i.e., n is least, it will exert
Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen the least pressure.
atoms? Wt 0.0355
(a) n = = = 1×10−3 mol
(a) 0.02 (b) 3.125 × 10–2 Mol.wt 35.5
(c) 1.25 × 10–2 (d) 2.5 × 10–2 0.071
SRMJEEE – 2014 (b) n = = 2 × 10−3 mol
35.5
Ans. (b) :
8 mole oxygen contained by → 1 mole of Mg3(PO4)2 Number of molecules
(c) n =
1 NA
1 mole oxygen contained by → mole of Mg3(PO4)2
8 6.023 × 1021
n= = 0.01 mol
6.023 × 1023
1 
∴ 0.25 mole oxygen contained by →  × 0.25  mole (d) n = 0.02 mol
8  Thus, 0.0355 g chlorine will exert the least pressure.
of Mg3(PO4)2 314. 19 g of a mixture containing NaHCO3 and
= 3.125×10–2 moles Na2CO3 on complete heating liberated 1.12 L of
311. 25 mL of 3.0 M HCl are mixed with 75 mL of CO2 at STP. The weight of the remaining solid
4.0 M HCl. If the volumes are additive, the was 15.9 g. What is the weight (in g) of Na2CO3
molarity of the final mixture will be in the mixture before heating?
(a) 4.0 M (b) 3.75 M (a) 8.4 (b) 15.9
(c) 4.25 M (d) 3.50 M (c) 4.0 (d) 10.6
AMU-2014 BCECE-2014
Ans. (b) : Given, M1 = 25, V1 = 3 Ans. (d) : The component NaHCO3 can only produce
M2 = 75. V2 = 4 CO2 on heating of the given mixture as per following
On mixing two solutions of same substance Molarity of balanced equation.
M V + M 2 V2 2NaHCO3 → Na 2 CO3 + H 2 O + CO 2
the final mixture, M = 1 1
V1 + V2 This equation reveals that 22.4 L CO2 is produced from
25 × 3 + 75 × 4 375 2 moles or NaHCO3
= = = 3.75 M
25 + 75 100 2(23 + 1 + 12 + 3 × 16) = 168 g NaHCO3
312. The total number of protons in 10g of calcium 1.12 L of CO2 can be obtained from
carbonate is 168/22.4 × 1.12 = 8.4 g of NaHCO3
(a) 1.5057×1024 (b) 2.0478×1024 Weight of Na2CO3 in the mixture of 19 g
(c) 3.0115×1024 (d) 4.0956×1024 before heating was = 19 – 8.4 = 10.6 g
Assam CEE-2014 315. The volume strength of 1 molar solution of
Ans. (c) : 1 mole of CaCO3 = 20 × 1 + 6 × 1 + 8 × 3 H2O2 is
= 50 (a) 11.2 (b) 22.4
One mole of CaCO3 contains 50 moles of protons. (c) 5.6 (d) 56
10 g of CaCO3 contains: JCECE - 2014
50 × 10 Ans. (a) : 1 molar H2O2 solution means 1 mole (or 34g
100 H2O2) is present in 103 mL solution.
Moles of protons ∴ 68 g H2O2 gives = 22400 mL of O2
500 22400 mL × 34
=5 ∴ 34 g H2O2 will gives = = 11200 mL
100 68
Number of protons = 5 × 6.02 × 1023 Volume strength =
11200
= 11.2
= 3.01 × 1024 Protons. 103
316. 5.5 mg of nitrogen gas dissolves in 180 g of 319. At 273 K, the density of a certain gaseous oxide
water at 273 K and 1 atm pressure due to at 2 atm is same as that of dioxygen at 5 atm.
nitrogen gas. The mole fraction of nitrogen in The molecular mass of the oxide (in g mol-1)
180 g of water at 5 atm nitrogen pressure is (a) 80 (b) 64
approximately (c) 32 (d) 160
(a) 1 × 10–6 (b) 1 × 10–5 (e) 70
(c) 1 × 10–3 (d) 1 × 10–4 Kerala-CEE-2014
Karnataka-CET-2014 Ans. (a) : Given,
5.5 ×10−3 g P 1 = 2 , M1 = ?
Ans. (d) : Moles of N2 = P2 = 5, M2 = 32
28g
We know that-
Pgas = KH. Xgas
W
Moles fraction of : pV = nRT = RT
10−3 M
5.5 × W
28 pM = RT
10−3 180 V
5.5 × + pM
P1 X1 1 28 18 pM = dRT ⇒ or, d =
= ⇒ = RT
P2 X 2 5 x2
Since, R and T are constant and d1=d2
 0.0001964  ∴ p1 M1 = p2 M2 ⇒ 2 × M1 = 5 × 32
X2 = 5 
 0.0001785 + 10  5 × 32
M1 = = 80g mol−1
X 2 = 9.819 × 10−5 2
X2 = 0.9819 × 10−4 ≈ 1× 10−4 320. 20 mL solution of 0.1 M ferrous sulphate was
3
317. 25 cm of oxalic acid completely neutralized completely oxidised using a suitable oxidising
agent. What is the number of electrons
0.064g of sodium hydroxide. Molarity of the
exchanged?
oxalic acid solution is
(a) 1.204×1022 (b) 193
(a) 0.064 (b) 0.045
(c) 1930 (d) 1.204×1021
(c) 0.015 (d) 0.032
MHT CET-2014
Karnataka-CET-2014
Ans. (d) : When oxidation of Fe2SO4, Fe2+, ion is
Ans. (d) : Given,
oxidises into Fe3+ + e–
V(oxalic acid) = 25cm3
i.e. 1e– is transferred from 1 molecule of FeSO4, i.e.
W (NaOH) = 0.064 g from 1Fe2++ ion.
Moles of oxalic acid = Mole of NaOH molarity of FeSO4 solution = 0.1 M
W (NaOH) 20
V(oxalic acid) × N (oxalic acid) = Volume of solution = 20 mL = L
M (NaOH) 1000
0.064 × 1000 20
N (oxalic acid) = = 0.064 ∴ Number of moles = 0.1 × = 0.002 .
25 × 40 1000
Normality = Molarity × Basicity Q In 1 mole FeSO4, number of molecules
0.064 = 6.022×1023
Molarity = = 0.032
2 ∴ In 0.002 mol FeSO4, number of molecules
318. A sample of sea water contains 5 × 10-3 g of = 6.022 × 1023 × 0.002
dissolved oxygen in 1 kg of the sample. The = 1.204×1021
concentration of O2 in that sea water sample in ∴Number of electrons transferred = 1.204 × 1021
ppm is 321. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a
(a) 5 × 10-4 (b) 5 × 10-3 closed vessel, Which reactant is left in excess
-2
(c) 5 × 10 (d) 5 × 10-1 and how much? (At. wt. Mg = 24, O = 16)
(e) 5 (a) Mg, 0.16 g (b) O2, 0.16 g
Kerala-CEE-2014 (c) Mg, 0.44 g (d) O2, 0.28 g
Ans. (e) : NEET-2014
103g (1kg) sample contains oxygen= 5 × 10–3g Ans. (a):
5 × 10−3 g 2Mg + O2→2MgO
∴ 106g sample will contain oxygen = × 106 g 2 moles of Mg require 1 mole of O2 to produce
103 g
2 moles of MgO.
= 5 ppm
given mass
Concentration of O2 in that sea water sample in PPM is Mole of Mg =
5 ppm. molar mass

1 ∴ 16 g oxygen at STP would occupy volume
= = 0.041667 22.4
24 = × 16 = 11.2 liters
gives mass 32
moles of O2 = 325. 100 mL of 0.1 M H2SO4 is mixed with 100 mL
molar mass
of 0.1 N NaOH. The normality of the solution
0.56 obtained is
= = 0.0175
32 (a) 0.4 N (b) 0.05 N
⇒ 0.0175 moles O2 require 0.0175 × 2 = 0.035 moles of (c) 0.04 N (d) 0.2 N
Mg. AMU-2013
Mass of Magnesium (Mg) that reacts:- Ans. (b) : We know,
Mass = moles × molar mass N1V1 = 0.2 × 100 = 20
= 0.035 × 24 (0.1 MH2SO4 = 0.2 NH2SO4) acid
= 0.84 g N2V2 = 0.1 × 100 = 10 base
That means only 0.84 g magnesium is used. N1V1 acid > N2V2 base therefore, resultant mixture is
Therefore magnesium is in excess by 0.16 g acidic.
322. How many grams of MgCO3 contain 24.00 g of N V − N 2 V2 20 − 10
oxygen? (The molar mass of MgCO3 is 84.30 g Resultant normality = 1 1 =
mol-1) V1 + V2 200
(a) 42.15 g (b) 84.30 g 10
(c) 126.00 g (d) 154.00 g = = 0.05 N
200
NDA (II)-2014 326. What volume of oxygen at 18°C and 750 torr,
Ans. (a) : Given data, can be obtained from 110 g of KClO3?
Molar mass of MgCO3 = 84.30 g mol–1 (a) 32.6 L (b) 42.7 L
Gram of oxygen present in 1 mole MgCO3 (c) 3.26 L (d) 4.27 L
= 3 × atomic weight of oxygen AMU-2013
= 3 × 16
Ans. (a) : Since,
= 48 g
2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
48g of oxygen present in 84.30 MgCO3
245 g KClO3 gives = 3 mole O2
84.30
1 g O2 = MgCO3 3 × 110
48 110 g KClO3 will give = = 1.346 mole
245
84.30 PV = nRT
24 g O2 = × 24
48 Given P = 750 torr, V = 7
= 42.15 g R = 62.364 dm3 Torr k-1 mol-1
323. The system that contains the maximum and T = 273 + 18 = 291 K
number of atoms is 1.346 × 62.34 × 291
(a) 4.25 g of NH3 (b) 8 g of O2 V=
750
(c) 2 g of H2 (d) 4 g of He = 32.569 ≈ 32.6 L
WB-JEE-2014
327. A drop water is about 0.05 mL. The density of
Ans. (c) : 17g of NH3 = 4 × NA atoms water at room temperature is about 1.0 mL–1.
 4.25  The number of water molecules present in a
∴ 4.25 g of NH3 =   × 4 × N A = N A atoms drop of water are
 17 
32g of O2 = 2 × NA atoms (a) 1.67 × 1021 H2O molecules
2×8 N (b) 1.67 × 1026 H2O molecules
8g of O2 = × N A = A atoms (c) 1.806 × 1023 H2O molecules
32 2 (d) 1.806 × 1021 H2O molecules
2g of H2 = 2 × NA atoms
JCECE - 2013
= 2 NA atoms
4g of He = NA atoms Ans. (a) : Given,
Thus, the system that contains 2g of H2 has maximum m
d = or mass of 0.05 mL water
numbers of atoms. v
324. The volume occupied by 16 g of oxygen gas at = 0.05 mL × 1.0 gmL–1 = 0.05g H2O
S.T.P. is 0.05
(a) 22.4 L (b) 44.8 L Therefore, Moles of H2O = mol H2 O
18
(c) 11.2 L (d) 5.6 L
6.023 × 1023 × 0.05
AMU-2013 =
Ans. (c) : Gram Molecular mass of oxygen = 32 g 18
Now 32 g oxygen at STP occupies volume = 22.4 lit = 1.67 × 1021 H2O molecules

328. The mass of 112 cm3 of NH3 gas at STP is Ans. (d) :
(a) 0.085 g (b) 0.850 g 13
(c) 8.500 g (d) 80.500 g C4 H10 +O 2 → 4CO 4 + 5H 2 O
2
Karnataka-CET-2013 13
Ans. (a): The molar volume of a gas is volume of one 58g C4H10 required O2 = × 32g
2
mole of a gas at STP. At STP, one mole of any gas
occupies a volume of 22.4 L=22400 cm3. 13 × 32 × 1000
1000g C4H10 required O2 =
Therefore, 1 mol of NH3= 17g = 22400 cm3 at STP 58
∴ 112 cm3 of NH3 at STP will have mass = 3.58 × 103 g
17 332. H2O2 oxidises MnO2 is MnO4– in basic medium,
= × 112 = 0.085g H2O and MnO2 react in the molar ratio of–
22400 (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1
329. The number of water molecules present in a (c) 2 : 3 (d) 3 : 2
drop of water weighing 0.018 g is BCECE-2013
(a) 6.022 × 1026 (b) 6.022 × 1023
19 Ans. (d):
(c) 6.022 × 10 (d) 6.022 × 1020
Karnataka-CET-2013
Ans. (d) : We know,
0.018
Number of moles = = 0.001moles
18 On Balancing of oxidation number, we get-
Number of molecules = moles ⋅ NA 3H 2 O 2 + 2MnO 2 → 2MnO4− + 6H 2 O
= 0.001× 6.022 × 1023
Thus H2O2: MnO2 = 3: 2
= 1×10–3×6.022×1023
333. In HNC, which element has least value of
= 6.022 × 1020
formal charge?
330. An organic compound crystallises in an ortho (a) H (b) N
rhombic system with two molecules per unit (c) C (d) All have same value
cell. The unit cell dimensions are 12.05, 15.05 BCECE-2013
o
and 2.69 A . If the density of the crystal is 1.419 Ans. (c) : We know,
g cm−3, then molar mass of compound will be S
(a) 207 g mol–1 (b) 209 g mol–1 Formal charge, F = V − − u
–1 2
(c) 308 g mol (d) 317 g mol–1 Where, V = valency electrons
UPTU/UPSEE-2013 S = shared electrons
Ans. (b): Orthorhombic system has different edge u = unshared electron.
length, width and height H N C
Given,
V 1 5 4
o
∴ a = 12.05 A = 12.05 × 10–8 cm S 2 8 6
o U 0 0 2
b = 15.05 A = 15.05 × 10–8 cm
o
F 0 1 –1
c = 2.69 A = 2.69 × 10–8 cm 334. Haemoglobin contains 0.33% of iron by weight.
∴ System has 2 molecules per unit cell. The molecular weight of haemoglobin is
Z=2 approximately 67200. The number of iron
and NA = 6.023 × 1023 atoms (At. Wt. of Fe = 56) persent in one
molecule of haemoglobin is
Z×M
Density. P = 3 (a) 4 (b) 1
a × NA (c) 5 (d) 2
Now, molecular mass = BITSAT 2013
1.419 × 12.05 ×10−8 ×15.05× 10−8 × 2.69 ×10−8 × 6.023 × 1023 Ans. (a) : Given,
M=
2 Q 100 g Hb contain = 0.33 g Fe
M = 2084.6 × 10 −1 = 209gmole −1 67200 × 0.33
∴ 67200 g Hb = g Fe
331. If a LPG cylinder contains mixture of butane 100
and isobutene, then the amount of oxygen that 672 × 0.33
Gram atom of Fe = =4
would be required for combustion of 1 kg of it 56
will be 335. How many grams of concentrated nitric acid
(a) 2.50 × 103 g (b) 4.50 × 103 g solution should be used to prepare 250 mL of
3
(c) 1.80 × 10 g (d) 3.58 × 103 g 2.0M HNO3? The concentrated acid is 70%
UPTU/UPSEE-2013 HNO3.

(a) 90.0 g conc. HNO3 (b) 70.0 g conc. HNO3 339. In an experiment it showed that 10 mL of 0.05
(c) 54.0 g conc. HNO3 (d) 45.0 g conc. HNO3 M solution of chloride required 10 mL of 0.1 M
BITSAT-2013 solution of AgNO3. Which of the following will
be the formula of the chloride? (X stands for
wt × 1000
Ans. (d) : Molarity (M) = the symbol of the element other than chlorine.)
mol.wt × vol (mL) (a) X2Cl2 (b) XCl2
wt. 1000 (c) XCl4 (d) X2CI
2= × COMEDK 2013
63 250
63 Ans. (b) : Millimoles of solution of chloride
wt. = g = 0.05×10=0.5
2 Millimoles of AgNO3 solution = 10×0.1 =1
100
wt. of 70% acid = × 31.5 = 45g So, the millimoles of AgNO3 are double than the
70 chloride solution.
336. How many moles of O2 can be obtained by ∴ XCl 2 + 2AgNO3  → 2AgCl + X(NO3 ) 2
electrolysis of 90 g H2O?
(a) 5.0 mol (b) 0.50mol 340. Calculate the normality of 10 volume H2O2?
(c) 2.5 mol (d) 0.25 mol (a) 1.7 N (b) 12 N
CG PET- 2013 (c) 30.3 N (d) 0.0303 N
Ans. (c) : Electrolytic decomposition of 18 g of water (AIIMS-2013)
gives 0.5 mole of O2. Gram equivlent
Ans. (a): Normality =
90 g of water will give (0.5/18) × 90 volume
= 2.5 moles of O2. Molar mass
337. Which of the following would contain the same Gram equivalent =
Normality factor
number of atoms as 20 grams of calcium?
[At masses : Ca = 40, Mg = 24, C = 12] Molar mass of H 2 O 2 is = 1 × 2 + 2 × 16 = 34 g
(a) 24 grams of magnesium N. factor of H 2 O 2 is 2.
(b) 12 grams of carbon
34
(c) 24 grams of carbon Gram equivalent = = 17
(d) 12 grams of magnesium 2
J & K CET-(2013) Normality = 17 = 1.7
Ans. (d) : Number of atoms in 40 g of Ca = 6.022 × 10
1023 (Avogadro’s number) 341. Number of atoms in 560 cm3 of oxygen at
∴ Number of atoms in 20 g of Ca = S.T.P. is
6.022 × 10 × 20
23
1 1
= 3.011×1023 (a) × 6.022 × 1023 (b) × 6.022 × 1023
40 20 40
Number of atoms in 24 g of Mg = 6.022 × 1023 1 1
∴ Number of atoms in 12 g of Mg = (c) × 6.022 ×1023 (d) × 6.022 × 1023
16 32
6.022 × 1023 × 12 COMEDK-2012
= 3.011× 1023 3
24 Ans. (a) : 22400 cm of oxygen (O 2 ) at S.T.P.
23
Number of atoms in 12 g of Carbon = 6.022 × 10 23 =2 ×6.022×10 atoms
Number of atoms in 24 g of Carbon = 2 × 6.022 × 1023 560 cm3 of oxygen at S.T.P.
= 12.044 × 1023 2 × 6.022 ×1023 1
= × 560 = × 6.022 ×1023 atoms
338. Which has minimum number of atoms ? 22400 20
(a) 24 gms of C(12) (b) 56 gms of Fe(56) 342. How many molecules of CO2 are formed when
(c) 27 gms of Al(27) (d) 108 gms of Ag(108) one milligram of 100% pure CaCO3 is treated
MPPET-2013 with excess hydrochloric acid?
(a) 6.023 × 1023 (b) 6.023 × 1021
Ans. (a) : 20
(c) 6.023 × 10 (d) 6.023 × 1019
Species Mole No. of atom 18
(e) 6.023 × 10
12 1 1
24gms of C = NA Kerala-CEE-2013
24 2 2 Ans. (e) :
56
56 gms of Fe =1 1 NA CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl 2 + H 2O + CO2
56 100g 1mol
27 Q 100g CaCO3 gives, molecules of CO2 =
27 gms of Al =1 1 NA 6.022×1023
27
108 ∴ 1×10–3g CaCO3 given molecules of CO2 =
108 gms of Ag =1 1 NA 6.022 ×1023 × 1× 10−3
108 = 6.022 × 1018
Hence, the option (a) is correct. 100
343. The volume of CO2 (in cm3) liberated at S.T.P. 347. Which has the maximum number of molecules
when 1.06 g of anhydrous sodium carbonate is among the following ?
treated with excess of dilute HCI is [atomic (a) 44 g CO2 (b) 48 g O3
mass of Na = 23J] (c) 8 g H2 (d) 64 g SO2
(a) 112 (b) 224
VITEEE- 2012, NEET Mains-2011
(c) 56 (d) 2240
COMEDK-2012 Ans. (c) : No. of moles ( n ) = weight in gram
Ans. (b) : molecualr weight
Na 2 CO3 + 2HCl → 2NaCl + CO 2 + H 2O  Molecular weight of CO 2
106g 22400cm3 
22400×1.06cm3 44  = 12 + 2 × 16
1.06g
106 ( i ) 44gram CO2 = 
=224cm3 44  = 12 + 32
344. The number of moles of electrons required to  = 44
deposit 36 g of Al from an aqueous solution of
= 1 mol
Al ( NO 3 )3 is (At. wt. of Al = 27)
= NA i.e. 6.022×1023 atoms
(a) 4 (b) 2
48
(c) 3 (d) 1 ( ii ) 48gram O3 = = 1mol
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 2012 48
8
Ans. (a) : Al ( NO 3 )3  → Al+3 + 3NO 3 − ( iii ) 8gram H 2 = = 4 mol
2
3+ −
Al + 3e  → Al 64
( iv ) 64gramSO2 =
3 mol 1 mole = 27 gm ( 2 × 16 )
32 +
∴ 27 gm of Al is deposited by 3 moles of electrons.
∴ 36 gm of Al will be deposited by electrons =
64
3 64
= × 36 = 4 mole
27 = 1 mol
345. The vapour density of a mixture containing So, maximum no. of moles present in H2.
NO2 and N2O4 is 27.6 Mole fraction of NO2 in 348. Which one of the following will have largest
the mixture is
number of atoms?
(a) 0.8 (b) 0.6
(c) 0.4 (d) 0.2 (a) 1 g Au (b) 1 g Na
AIIMS-2012 (c) 1 g Li (d) 1 g Cl2
Ans. (a): Let the moles of NO2 be x. BCECE-2012
Moles of N O will be 1 – x Ans. (c) : (i) 197 g of Au Contains = 6.022 × 1023
2 4
Molar mass = 2 × Vapour density 6.022 × 1023
1 gm of Au Contains =
So, Molar mass = 2 × 27.6 = 55.2 g 197 × 1
Molar mass of NO2 = 46 g and N2O4 = 92 g = 3.06 × 1021 atoms
x × 46 + (1 − x ) × 92 (ii) 23 g of Na Contains atoms = 6.022 × 1023
= 55.2
1 6.022 × 1023
46x + 92 – 92x = 55.2 1 gm of Na Contains atoms =
23 × 1
36.8
x= = 0.8 = 26.2 × 1021 atoms
46
(iii) 7 g of Li Contains atoms = 6.022 × 1023
Here, mole fraction of NO2 in the mixture is 0.8
346. For preparing 0.1 N solution of a compound 6.022 × 1023
1 g of Li Contains atoms =
from its impure sample of which the 7 ×1
percentage purity is known, the weight of the = 86.0 × 10 21 atoms
substance required will be
(a) less than the theoretical weight 6.022 × 1023
(b) more than the theoretical weight (iv) 1 g of Cl Contains atoms =
71× 1
(c) same as the theoretical weight = 8.48 × 10 21 atoms
(d) none of these
AIIMS-2012 Hence, 1 g of Li will have the largest number of atoms.
Ans. (b): The sample contains impurity. The impurity 349. Morality of liquid HCl if density of solution is
won’t contribute to the normality of the solution. So, we 1.17 g/cc
need to take more amount of sample than the theoretical (a) 36.5 (b) 18.25
weight so that the theoretical weight of compound (c) 32.05 (d) 42.10
equals weight of compound in the sample. BCECE-2012
Ans. (c) : Molarity = (density /molar mass) × 1000 Ans. (d) : Number of molecules of Urea = 6.02 × 1020
moles per liter. 6.02 × 1020
Molar mass of HCl = [1 + 35.5] = 36.5 g/mol Number of moles =
NA
Molarity = (1.17/36.5) × 1000 = 32.05 M
Molarity of liquid HCl with density equal 6.02 × 1020
= = 1× 10−3 mol
to 1.17 g/cc is 32.05. 6.02 × 10 23
350. The volume of neon gas in cm3 at STP having volume of the solution
the same number of atoms as that present in 100
= 100 mL = L = 0.1L
800 mg of Ca is (At. mass : Ca = 40 g mol-1 Ne = 1000
20 g mol-1) Concentration of Urea solution (in mol L-1) =
(a) 56 (b) 896 1× 10−3
(c) 224 (d) 112 mol L−1 = 10–2 molL–1 = 0.01M
0.1
(e) 448
Hence the concentration of solution is 0.01M
Kerala-CEE-2013
354. 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled
Ans. (e) : Given, in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount to water
800 produced in this reaction will be
Mass of Ca = 800mg = = 0.8g
1000 (a) 3 mol (b) 4 mol
0.8 (c) 1 mol (d) 2 mol
Moles of Ca in 0.8g = = 2 × 10 –2 JCECE - 2012
40
Q At S.T.P. Volume of 1 mole = 22400 cm3 10
Ans. (b) : Moles of H2 = = 5 mol
∴ At S.T.P, Volume of 2 × 10–2 moles 2
= 22400 × 2 × 10–2 = 448 cm3 64
Moles of O2 = = 2 mol
351. Avogadro number (6.023 × 1023) of carbon 32
atoms are present in 2H2 + O2  → 2H2 O
(a) 12 grams of 12CO2 (5mol) (2mol) (4mol)
(b) 22.4 liter 12CO2 in room temperature Here O2 is limiting reagent. So, amount of product, H2O
(c) 44 grams of 12CO2 obtained depends on the amount of O2. According to
(d) 12 moles of 12CO2 equation,
1 mole O2 on reaction with H2 gives = 2 mole of H2O
J & K CET-(2012)
2 mole O2 on reaction with H2 will give
Ans. (c) : 1 mole of CO2
2× 2
= Gram molecular mass of CO2 (44g) = = 4 mole of H2O
1
= 6.023 × 1023 molecules of CO2
Note 1 mole of H2 is in excess.
= 6.023 × 1023 atoms of Carbon
355. The total number of electrons present in 18 mL
352. The volume of 0.1 M Ca(CH)2 required to of water (density = 1g mL–1) is
neutralize 10 mL of 0.1 N HCl (a) 6.02 ×1025 (b) 6.02 ×1024
(a) 10 mL (b) 20 mL (c) 6.02 × 18 × 10 23
(d) 6.02 × 1023
(c) 5 mL (d) 15 mL Karnataka-CET-2012
J & K CET-(2012)
Ans. (b):
Ans. (c) : The volume of 0.1 M Ca(OH)2 required to 18 ml H2O = 18g H2O = 1 mole of H2O
neutralize 10 mL of 0.1 N HCl = 1 mole H2O = 6.022 × 1023 molecules
2M1V1 = M 2 V2 (Number of electrons present in one molecule
Ca ( OH ) 2 ( HCl ) of water = 2 + 8 = 10)
then, 1 mole H2O = 10 × 6.02 × 1023
(because 0.1 NHCl = 0.1 MHCl)
= 6.02 × 1024 electrons.
2 × 0.1 × v1 = 0.1 × 10
356. 0.02 mole of [Co(NH3)5 Br]Cl2 and 0.02 mole of
0.1×10
v1 = [Co (NH3)5Cl] SO4 are present in 200 cc of a
2 × 0.1 solution X. The number of moles of the
v1 = 5 mL precipitates Y and Z that are formed when the
353. 6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 solution X is treated with excess silver nitrate
ml. of its solution. The concentration of and excess barium chloride are respectively
solution is (a) 0.02, 0.02 (b) 0.01, 0.02
(a) 0.001 M (b) 0.1 M (c) 0.02, 0.04 (d) 0.04, 0.02
(c) 0.02 M (d) 0.01 M (e) 0.02, 0.01
NEET-2013 Kerala-CEE-2012
Ans. (d): 359. How much ethyl alcohol C2H5OH, must be
2+ added to 1.00 L of water so that the solution
Co ( NH 3 )5 Br  Cl2 
→ Co ( NH3 )5 Br  + 2Cl −
will not are freeze at – 4o F?
Here, 1 mole of  Co ( NH 3 )5 Br  Cl 2 is giving 2 moles (a) 211 g (b) 495 g
(c) 85 g (d) 46 g
of Cl− ion. Then 0.02 mole will dissociate to give
UPTU/UPSEE-2012
2×0.02 = 0.04 moles of Cl − ions. Ans. (b) :
⇒ On reaction with silver nitrate, 0.04 moles of silver 5
chloride precipitate will be obtained. 4oF = (−4 − 32)o C = − 20o C
2+ 9
Co ( NH 3 )5 Cl  SO 4 
→ Co ( NH 3 )5 Cl  + SO 42− ∆Tf = 20o C = K f m = (1.86o c / m) (m)
Here, 1 mole of  Co ( NH 3 )5 Cl  SO 4 is giving 1 mole of 20o C
m= =10.70 m = (10.7 mol) (46.0g / mole)
SO 24 − ion. Then 0.02 moles of  Co ( NH 3 )5 Cl  SO 4 1.86o c / m
= 495g
will dissociate to give 0.02 moles of SO 24−ion.
⇒ On reaction with silver nitrate, 0.02 moles of silver
sulphate precipitate will be obtained. 360. The number of sodium atoms in 2 moles of
sodium ferroyanide is
357. The mole fraction of methanol is in 4.5 molal
aqueous solution is (a) 12 × 10 23 (b) 26 × 10 23
(a) 0.250 (b) 0.125 (c) 34 × 1023 (d) 48 × 1023
(c) 0.100 (d) 0.05 UPTU/UPSEE-2012
(e) 0.055 Ans. (d) : formula of sodium ferrocyanide =
Kerala-CEE-2012 Na4[Fe(CN)6]. It has four sodium atoms. Number of Na
Ans. (d): atoms = no of moles × no. of atoms per Molecule ×
moler of solute Avogadro number
molality = = 2 × 4 × 6.023 × 1023
mass of solvent ( kg )
= 48 × 1023
nA
4.5 = × 1000 361. Sodium bicarbonate on heating decomposes to
18g form sodium carbonate, CO2 and water. If 0.2
4.5 ×18 moles of sodium bicarbonate is completely
nA = = 0.081 moles decomposed, how many moles of sodium
1000
carbonate is formed?
moles of solute
mole fraction = (a) 0.1 (b) 0.2
total moles of solution (c) 0.05 (d) 0.025
nA UPTU/UPSEE-2012
=
nA + nB Ans. (a) : Sodium hydrogen carbonate (also known as
sodium bicarbonate or bicarbonate of soda) has the
0.081 (n B = moles of chemical formula NaHCO3.
=
0.081 + 1 solvent = moles of water) 2NaHCO3  ∆
→ Na 2 CO3 + H 2 O + CO2
= 0.075 2mol 1mol
358. How many grams of sulphuric acid is to be Q 2 mol NaHCO3 on decomposition gives
dissolved to prepare 200 mL aqueous solution = 1 mol Na2CO3
having concentration of [H3O+] ions 1 M at 250 ∴ 0.2 mol NaHCO3 on decomposition will give
C temperatures? [ H= 1, O= 16, S= 32g mol–1] 1
(a) 4.9g (b) 19.6g = × 0.2 = 0.1 mol Na2CO3.
2
(c) 9.8g (d) 0.98g 362. The weight of oxalic acid that will be required
UP CPMT-2012 to prepare a 1000 mL (N/20) solution is
Ans. (c) ∴2 M [H3O+] ions are obtained from 1M H2SO4 (a) 126/100 g (b) 63/40 g
∴ 1 M [H3O+] ions are obtained from 0.5 M H2SO4 (c) 63/20 g (d) 126/20 g
Molarity WB-JEE-2012
m ( H 2SO 4 ) × 1000 Ans. (c) : Hydrated oxalic acid = C2H2O4.2H2O
M= × Volume of solution(mL)
M ( molar mass H 2SO 4 ) Molecular mass of oxalic acid = 126
12.6g oxalic acid per liter of the solution should be
m × 1000
0.5 = dissolved to prepare M/10 oxalic acid solution.
98 × 200 M.wt of H2C2O4.2H2O is 126 (n factor = 2),
0.5 × 98 × 200 126
m= = 9.8g E.wt = = 63
1000 2
no.of gm-equivalent 366. 0.1 mol HCl is equal to
N= (a) 3.65 g (b) 36.5 g
Volumeof Solution in L (c) 18 g (d) 1.8 g
1 W / 63 JIPMER-2011
∴ =
20 1 Ans. (a) : Given,
63 The number of moles of HCl = 0.1
Q gm . The number of particles in one mole = 6.023 × 1023
20
The molar mass of a substance is defined as the mass of
363. If one mole of a substance is present in 1kg of 1 mole of that substance, expressed in gram per mole,
solvent then its concentration is called and is equal to the mass of 6.022 × 1023 atoms,
(a) molar conc. (b) molal conc. molecules, or formula units of that substance.
(c) normality (d) strength wt/wt. So the mass of one mole of HCl = 1 + 35.5 = 36.5 g
BCECE-2011 36.5
Ans. (b) : If one mole of a substance is present in 1 kg • So, the mass of 0.1 mole = = 3.65g
10
of solvent then it concentration is called molal 367. A mixture of ethane and ethene occupies 41L at
concentration. 1 atm and 500 K. The mixture reacts
A 1-molar solution contains one mole of solute per 1kg
solvent, molality is a hybrid concentration unit, 10
completely with mole of O2 to produce CO2
retaining the convenience of mole measure for the 3
solute, but expressing it in relation to a temperature- and H2O. The mole fraction of ethane and
independent mass rather than a volume. ethene in the mixture are respectively (R =
0.082 L atm K-1 mol-1)
364. The mass of potassium dichromate crystals
required to oxidise 750 cm3 of 0.6 M Mohr's (a) 0.50, 0.50 (b) 0.75, 0.25
salt solution is (molar mass = 392) (c) 0.67, 0.33 (d) 0.25, 0.75
(a) 0.49 g (b) 0.45 g (e) 0.33, 0.67
(c) 22.05 g (d) 2.2 g Kerala-CEE-2011
[AlEEE 2011] Ans. (c) : For a gaseous mixture of C2H6 and C2H4
PV 1× 41
Ans. (c) : Given, pV = nRT or n = =
Concentration of Mohr's salt = 0.6M RT 0.082 × 500
Volume = 750cm3 = 0.75L or n = 1
No.of Moles Solute ∴ Total mole of C2H6 + C2H4 = 1mole
Molarity = Let the mole of
Volume of Solution in L C2H6 = x
n Then mole of C2H4 = 1 – x
0.6 = C2H6 + 7/2O2→2CO3 + 3H2O
0.75 L
C2H4 + 3O2 → 2CO3 + 2H2O
n = 0.6×75L = 0.45 mol
∴ Mole of O2
K 2Cr2 O7 + 6FeSO4 + 7H 2SO4 → K 2SO4 + Cr2 ( SO4 )3 + 3Fe ( SO4 )3 + 7H 2O
Needed for complete reaction of mixture
For 6 mol Mohr’s salt 1 mole of Potassium dichromate
7
is required. = x + 3(1 − x)
For 0.45 mol of Mohr’s salt, Potassium dichromate 2
required is 1 × 0.45/6 = 0.05 mol 7 10
∴ x + 3(1 − x) =
Mass of Potassium dichromate required is 0.05 × 294 2 3
= 22.05 g 2
or x =
365. When 6.3 g of sodium bicarbonate are added to 3
30.0 g of acetic acid solution, the residual Thus, mole fraction of
solution is found to weigh 33.0 g. The mass of 2
carbon dioxide released in the reaction is C2H6 = = 0.67
(a) 3.0 g (b) 0.91 g 3
and mole fraction of
(c) 1.91 g (d) 3.3 g
J & K CET-(2011) 2
C2H6 = = 0.67
Ans. (d) : Given, 3
Amount of sodium bicarbonate = 6.3g and mole fraction of
Amount of acetic acid = 30.0g 2
C2H4 = 1 − = 0.33
Amount of residual solution = 33.0g 3
CH 3COOH + NaHCO3 → CH 3COONa + H 2 O + CO 2 368. How many moles of magnesium phosphate,
Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen
Total amount of reactants = 6.3 + 30.0 = 36.3 g atoms.
∴ Mass of Carbon dioxide released (a) 0.02 (b) 3.125 × 10–2
= 36.3 – 33.0 (c) 1.25 × 10–2 (d) 2.5 × 10–2
= 3.3 g UP CPMT-2011
Ans. (b): 8 mol O-atoms are contained by 1 mole 9
Mg3(PO4)2. ∴ Change in entropy = 2.303 × 1 × 1.987 × log
1
∴ 0.25 mole of O-atoms are present in = 2.303 × 1.987 × 0.9542
1 Change in entropy = 4.366 cal K–1 mol–1
Mg 3 (PO 4 ) = × 0.25 mol
8 372. How many grams of sulphuric acid is to be
= 3.125 × 10–2 mol dissolved to prepare 200 ml. aqueous solution
having concentration of [H3O+] ions 1 M at
369. The amount of energy released when 20 mL 0.5 25ºC temperature.
M NaOH is mixed with 100 ML 0.1 M HCl is x
kJ. The heat of neutralization (in kj mol–1) is [H = 1, O = 16, S = 32 gram mole–1]
(a) –100 x kJ/mol (b) –50 x kJ/mol (a) 4.9 gram (b) 19.6 gram
(c) +100x kJ/mol (d) +50 x kJ/mol (c) 9.8 gram (d) 0.98 gram
WB-JEE-2011 GUJ CET-2011
Ans. (a) : Ans. (c): Given that, V = 200 ml
Concentration of [H3O+] ions = 1 M
20mL
moles of NaOH = × 0.5mol / L W2 × 1000
1000 mL / L ∴ M=
M 2 × V ( ml )
= 0.01 mol.
100mL M × M2 × V
moles of HCl = × 0.1mole = 0.01mol W2 (Weight of H2SO4) =
1000mL / L 1000
when 0.01 moles of NaOH neutralizes 0.01 moles 1× 98 × 200
= = 19.6
of HCl, the heat released is x kJ. 1000
when 1 mole of NaOH neutralizes 1 mole of HCl, heat ∴ H2SO4 + 2H2O  2H3O+ + SO42–
released will be
x kJ
=100x kJ / mol 1 mole of H2SO4 → 2 mole of H3O+
0.01mol W2 = 19.2/2 = 9.8 gm
Since heat is released, negative sign will be introduced. 373. A solution is prepared by dissolving 24.5 g of
Hence, the answer is sodium hydroxide in distilled water to give 1 L
= –100x kJ/mol. solution. The molarity of NaOH in the solution
370. 2 g of non-volatile water soluble compound is is (Given that molar mass of NaOH = 40.0 g
dissolved in 100 g of water. The elevation in mol−1)
boiling point is found to be 0.26. The molecular (a) 0.2450 M (b) 0.6125 M
mass of the compound X is (c) 0.9800 M (d) 1.6326 M
(a) 20 (b) 60 AIIMS-2010
(c) 80 (d) 40 Ans. (b): Given, WNaOH = 24.5 g
COMEDK-2011 Molar mass of NaOH = 23 + 16 + 1 = 40
Ans. (d) : Given that, 24.5
∆Tb = 0.26 No. of moles of NaOH = moles
40
K b = 0.512 = 0.6125
∴ ∆Tb = K b m 0.6125moles
∴ Molarity of solution =
1000 × K b × ω2 1L
0.26 = = 0.6125 M
M 2 × ω1
374. The number of molecules of CO2 liberated by
1000 × 0.52 × 2
M2 = = 40 gm. the complete combustion of 0.1 g atom of
0.26 × 100 graphite in air is
371. A container of 1.0 lit. capacity filled with 1.0 (a) 3.01×1022 (b) 6.02×1023
22
mole of ideal gas is connected to an evacuated (c) 6.02×10 (d) 3.01×1023
vessel of 9.0 lit. calculate change in entropy. (R AP-EAMCET- (Engg.) - 2010
= 1.987 Cal.)
–1
(a) 0.188 Cal. K mol –1 Ans. (c) : C ( s )+ O2 ( g )  → CO2 ( g )
1 mole 1 mole
(b) 0.4576 Cal. K–1 mol–1
–1 –1 Q 1 mole of graphite on complete combustion gives
(c) 4.576 Cal. K mol CO2 = 6.023×1023 molecules.
(d) 4.366 Cal. K–1 mol–1 ∴ 0.1 mole of graphite will give CO2
GUJCET-2011
6.023 ×1023 × 0.1
Ans. (d): Given that,V1 = 1 liter, V2 = 9 liter, n = 1 = = 6.023 × 1022
1
V
∴ Change in entropy = nRl n 2 375. The number of water molecules is maximum in
V1 (a) 1.8 gram of water
Putting the value of these, we get (b) 18 gram of water

(c) 18 moles of water 379. If 20 mL of 0.4 N NaOH solution completely
(d) 18 molecules of water neutralises 40 mL of a dibasic acid, the
NEET-2013 molarity of the acid solution is
Ans. (c) : No of moles of water in 1.8 g = 0.1 moles (a) 0.1 M (b) 0.2 M
in 18 g = 1 moles. (c) 0.3 M (d) 0.4 M
Q 1 mole water = 6.02 × 1023 molecules CG PET- 2010
∴ 18 mole water = 18 × 6.02 × 1023 molecules Ans. (a) : Volume b of NaOH = 20 ml.
Here, 18 mole water has maximum number of Strength of NaOH = 0.4 N
molecules. Volume of dibasic acid = 40 ml
376. Which of the following has smallest number of 0.4
molecules ? Strength of dibasic acid = 20 × = 0.2 N
40
(a) 11.2 L of O2 at NTP Normality
(b) 8.0 g of O2 Molarity of the dibasic acid =
2
(c) 0.1 mole of O2
(d) 2.24 × 104 mL of O2 0.2
Molarity = = 0.1m
AMU – 2010 2
Ans. (c) : (i) No. of molecules in 11.2 lit of O2 380. Molality of a solution is equal to
11.2 number of Moles of solute
= × 6.023 × 1023 (a)
22.4 number of litres of solution
= 0.5 × 6.023 × 1023 number of equivalents of solute
(ii) No. of. molecules in 8.0 g of O2 (b)
number of litres of solution
8.0
= × 6.023 ×1023 number of Moles of solute
32 (c)
= 0.25 × 6.023 × 1023 number of kilogram of solvent
(iii) No. of. molecules in 0.1 mole of O2 number of Moles of a component
= 0.1 × 6.023 × 1023 (d)
total number of moles of all components
(iv) No. of molecules in 2.24 × 104 ml of O2
CG PET- 2010
2.24 × 104
= × 6.023 × 1023 number of Moles of solute
22400 Ans. (c) : Molarity =
= 6.023 × 1023 number of litres of solution
So, 0.1 mole of O2 contains smallest no. of molecules. number of equivalents of solute
Molarity =
377. The total number of atoms of all elements number of litres of solution
present in 1 mole of ammonium dichromate is
number of Moles of solute
(a) 19 (b) 6.023 × 1023 Molarity =
(c) 114.437 × 10 23
(d) 84.322 × 1023 number of kilogram of solvent
AMU – 2010
Ans. (c) : Ammonium dichromate is (NH4)2Cr2O7. number of Moles of a component
Molarity =
1 mole consists of 2 atoms of N, total number of moles of all components
8 atoms of H,
381. If 300 mL of a gas weighs 0.368 g at STP. What
2 atoms of Cr, is its molecular weight?
and 7 atoms of O (a) 30.16 g (b) 2.55 g
So, total = (2+8+2+7) × 6.023× 1023
(c) 27.5 g (d) 37.5 g
= 114.473 × 1023
J & K CET-(2010)
378. In redox reaction 1 g-eq of reducing agent
Ans. (c) : Given,
requires P gm-eq. of oxidizing agent. The value
of P is Weight of 300mL gas = 0.368g
(a) 1 As we know that one mole of any gas occupies a
(b) 2 volume of 22.4L = 22400mL at STP.
(c) 3 Weight of 22400 mL gas
(d) Depends on reaction 0.368 × 2240
= g / mol
BITSAT 2010 300
Ans. (a) : In redox reaction, = 27.47 g/mol  27.5g / mol
g equivalent of reducing agent = g equivalent of Q Molecular weight of the gas is 27.5 g
oxidizing agent
[∴ 22400 mL of a gas contains amount equal to
Hence, 1g equ. of reducing agent = Pg equ. of oxidizing
molecular weight of the gas.]
agent.
382. The molecules present in 5.6 L of sulphur If 1020 grains are distributed in 1s, 6.023 × 1023 grains
dioxide at STP is will be distributed
(a) 1.5 × 1023 (b) 1.5 × 10–23
23 6.023 × 1023 ×1
(c) 4 × 10 (d) 0.15 × 1023 = 6023 sec =1.673hr.
J & K CET-(2010) 1020
Ans. (a) : The molar volume of a gas is the volume of 386. A 600 W mercury lamp emits monochromatic
one mole of a gas at STP. At STP, one mole (6.02 × radiation of wavelength 331.3 nm. How many
1023 particles) of any gas occupies a volume of 22.4 L. photons are emitted from the lamp per second?
22.4 L of gas at STP = 1 mole (h = 6.626×10-34 Js; velocity of light = 3 × 108
5.6 ms-1)
5.6 L of gas at STP = moles (a) 1 × 1019 (b) 1 × 1020
22.4 21
= 0.25 moles (c) 1 × 10 (d) 1 × 1023
22
∴ Number of molecules in 5.6 L SO2 (e) 1 × 10
= 0.25 × 6.023 × 1023 Kerala-CEE-2010
= 1.50 ×1023 Ans. (c) : Given than, λ = 331.3 nm = 331.3 × 10–9 m
383. The number of moles of H2 in 0.224 L of h = 6.626×10-34 Js, c = 3 × 108 ms-1
hydrogen gas at STP (273 K, 1 atm), is Photons are emitted from the lamp per second
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.01 nhc
(c) 0.001 (d) 1 E=
λ
JCECE - 2010 Q
Eλ
Ans. (b) : As we know that one mole of any gas n=
occupies a volume of 22.4L at STP. hc
22.4 L of H2 = 1 mol H2 600 × 331.3 × 10−9
n=
1 ⇒ 6.626 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108
0.224 L of H2 = × 0.224 mol
22.4 n =1× 10 21
= 0.01 mol of H2
387. How many gram-equivalents of NaOH are
384. 9.65 C of electric current is passed through
fused anhydrous magnesium chloride. The required to neutralise 25 cm3 of a decinormal
magnesium metal thus, obtained is completely HCl solution?
converted into a Grignard reagent. The number (a) 0.00125 (b) 0.0025
of moles of the Grignard reagent obtained is (c) 0.0050 (d) 0.025
(a) 5 × 10–4 (b) 1 × 10–4 MHT CET-2010
–5
(c) 5 × 10 (d) 1 × 10–5 Ans. (b) : For acid-base reactions,
KARNATAKA-CET, 2010 gram equivalent of acid (HCl) = gram equivalent of
Ans. (c) : Given, volue of electric current = 9.65C base (NaOH)
→ Mg 2+ + 2Cl−
MgCl2  1
∴ gram equivalent of acid = (25×10–3)dm3 ×
Mg 2 + + 2e− 
→ Mg (at cathode) 10
1mol = 25×10–4
∵ 2F (2 × 96500 C) deposits Mg = 1 mol = 0.0025
1× 9.65 388. 25.3 g of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3 is
9.65 C charge will deposit Mg = dissolved in enough water to make 250 ml. of
2 × 96500
= 5 × 10–5mol solution. If sodium carbonate dissociates
In order to prepare Grignard reagent, one mole of Mg is completely, molar concentration of sodium ion,
used per mole of reagent obtained. Thus, by 5 × 10–5 Na+ and carbonate ions, CO32− are respectively
mol Mg, 5 × 10–5 mole of Grignard reagent are (Molar mass of Na2SO3 = 106 g mol–1)
obtained. (a) 0.955 M and 1.910 M
385. How much time (in hours) would it take to (b) 1.910 M and 0.955 M
distribute one Avogadro number of wheat (c) 1.90 M and 1.910 M
gains, if 1020 grains are distributed each
second? (d) 0.477 M and 0.477 M
(a) 0.1673 (b) 1.673 NEET-2010
(c) 16.73 (d) 167.3 Ans. (b) : Given that, weight of sodium carbonate =
(e) 1673 25.3 gm
Kerala-CEE-2010 Moles of solute
Ans. (b): Avogadro's number, number of units in one, Moles of Na2CO3 =
litreof solution
mole of any substance (defined as its molecular weight
is grams), equal to 6.022 × 1023. The units may be 25.3
= = 0.239 moles
electrons, atoms, ions, or molecules. 106

0.239 393. 1 mole of CO2 contains
Molarity of solution = = 0.956 mol/litre (a) 6 × 1023 atoms of C
0.25
(b) 6 × 1023 atoms of O
Na2CO3→2Na+ + CO32−
(c) 18 × 1023 molecules of CO2
∴ Concentration of CO32− = 0.956 M (d) 3 g-atoms of CO2
Concentration of Na+ = 2×0.956 BCECE-2009
= 1.912 M. Ans. (a) : The molecular mass of carbon dioxide is 44
389. The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of triatomic amu. The molar mass of any compound is the mass in
gas is (NA=6.02 ×1023 mol–1) grams of one mole of that compound. One mole of
carbon dioxide molecules has a mass of 44.01 gm.
(a) 6.026 ×1022 (b) 1.806 ×1023
23 One mole of any substance contains Avogadro number
(c) 3.600 ×10 (d) 1.800 ×1022 of atoms. In this carbon one mole is present.
NEET-2010 So, 1 mole of CO2 contains = 6.023 × 1023 atoms of C
Ans. (b) : 1 mole of triatomic gas has 3 × 6.02×1023 394. If NO2(N2O4) is dissolved in NaOH, we get
atoms solution of
Therefore, no. of atoms 0.1 mol = 0.1 × 3×6.02 × 1023 (a) NaNO2
= 1.806 × 1023 (b) NaNO3
390. Which is heaviest? (c) mixture of NaNO2 and NaNO3
(a) 25g mercury (d) NaNO4
(b) 2 mole carbon dioxide CG PET-2009
(c) 2 mole water Ans. (c) : Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) exists as a dimer
(d) 4 g-atom of oxygen N2O. When it is dissolved in sodium hydroxide or any
UPTU/UPSEE-2010 other alkali, a mixture of nitrate and nitrite is obtained.
Ans. (d) : The atom which has maximum mass is 2NO 2 + 2NaOH → NaNO 2 + NaNO3 + H 2 O
known as heaviest.
Sodium Sodium
(i) Mass of Hg = 25g
(ii) Mass of 2 moles of CO2 = 2 × 44 =88g Nitrite Nitrate
(iii) Mass of 2 moles of H2O = 2 × 18 = 36g 395. If 'F' is Faraday and 'N' is Avogadro number,
(iv) Mass of 4g atoms of O2 = 4 × 32 = 128g then charge of electron can be expressed as
391. How many moles of helium gas occupy 22.4 L F
(a) F × N (b)
at 0o C and at 1 atm pressure? N
(a) 0.11 (b) 1.11 N
(c) 0.90 (d) 1.0 (c) (d) F2N
F
BCECE-2010
CG PET -2009
Ans. (d) : Given that, P = 1 atm, T = 0oC = 273K
Ans. (b) : We know that,
PV = nRT
F = N⋅e
PV
n= Where, F = Faraday Constant
RT N = Avogadro number
1atom ( 22.4L ) e = Charge of electron.
n=
( 0.082 L atm / mol k ) 273k Or e=
F
n = 1 mole N
1mole of the gas occupies 22.4 L at 0°C at l atm 396. By passing 9.65 A current for 16 min 40s, the
pressure. volume of O2 liberated at STP will be
(a) 280 mL (b) 560 mL
392. If two moles of glucose are oxidized in the body
through respiration, then number of moles of (c) 1120 mL (d) 2240 mL
ATP produced are CG PET -2009
(a) 19 (b) 38 Ans. (b): Given than, i = 9.65A, t = 16 min 40 sec =
(c) 57 (d) 76 1000 sec.
AMU–2009 We known that, Charge (Q) = i × t
Ans. (d) : Cellular respiration can be an anaerobic or = 9.65 × 1000 coulomb
aerobic respiration, depending on whether or not = 9650 C = 0.1 F
oxygen is present. Anaerobic respiration makes a total 1
2ATP. Aerobic respiration is much more efficient and O2– → O 2 + 2e −
2
can produce upto 38 ATP with a single molecule of 2F = 0.5 mol O2 = 0.5 × 22400 mol
glucose.
0.5 × 22400
It two moles of glucose is oxidized to give 38 × 2 = 76 0.1F of O2 = × 0.1F = 560 mole
moles of ATP. 2F

397. The number of molecules in 18 mg of water in 1.4 × molarity × V × B
terms of Avogadro number N is % of Nitrogen =
–3 –2 mass of given compound
(a) 10 N (b) 10 N
(c) 10–1 N (d) 10 N B = Basicity of acid = (2H+) (B = 2)
J & K CET-(2009)
Ans. (a) : Weight of water = 18 mg = 18 × 10-3 g 1.4 × 0.5 × 2 × 10
% of Nitrogen =
weight 0.25
∴ Number of moles = = 56%
molar mass
401. In the following reaction,
18 ×10−3 −3 1
= = 1×10 M x+ + MnO 4–  → MO-3 + Mn 2+ + O 2 ,
18 2
Number of molecules = no. of moles × Avogadro no. If one mole of MnO -
oxidizes 2.5 moles of Mx+,
4
= 1×10−3 N = 10−3 N then the value of x is
398. How much volume of oxygen at STP in litres is (a) 5 (b) 3
required to burn 4 gm of methane gas (c) 2 (d) 1
completely? (e) 4
(a) 11.2 (b) 5.6 Kerala-CEE-2009
(c) 2.8 (d) 8
Ans. (b):
J & K CET-(2009)
Ans. (a) : CH 4 + 2O 2 → CO 2 + 2H 2 O
1 mole of CH4 needs 2 moles of molecular O2.
4 g of CH4 = 0.25 mole of CH4 mole ratio between CH4
and O2 = 1: 2 then 0.25
Mole of CH4 reacts with 2 × 0.25 = 0.50 mole of O2
1
Volume of O2 required to completely combust CH4 at
STP condition is
= 0.50 mole × 22.4 L/ mole
= 11.20 L ∴ gm equation of MnO −4 = gm equation of M
399. Excess of carbon dioxide is passed through 50 1 × 5 = 2.5 × ( 5 – x)
mL of 0.5 M calcium hydroxide solution. After x =3
evaporated to dryness. The solid calcium +
carbonate was completely neutralised with 0.1 402. In acid medium Zn reduces nitrate ion to NH 4
N hydrochloric acid. The volume of ion according to the reaction
hydrochloric acid required is (Atomic mass of Zn + NO -3 → Zn 2+ + NH 4+ + H 2O (unbalanced)
calcium = 40) How many moles of HCl are required to reduce
(a) 300 cm3 (b) 200 cm3 half a moles of HCL are required to reduce
(c) 500 cm3 (d) 400 cm3 half a mole of NaNO3 completely? Assume the
Karnataka-CET, 2009 availability of sufficient Zn
Ans. (c) : No. of millimoles of Ca (OH)2 = 50 × 0.5 = (a) 5 (b) 4
25 (c) 3 (d) 2
No. of millimoles of CaCO3 = 25 (e) 1
No. of milliequivalents of CaCO3 = 50 Kerala-CEE-2009
50 Ans. (a): First the given unbalanced equation is
∴ Volume of 0.1 N HCl = = 500 cm3 balanced by using following steps
0.1
Step I. The equation is splitted into two half equations
400. 0.25 g of an organic compound on Kjeldahl's as
analysis gave enough ammonia to just
neutralize 10 cm3 of 0.5 M H SO . The Zn → Zn 2+
2 4
percentage of nitrogen in the compound is NO3− → NH 4+
(a) 28 (b) 56 Step II. Now water molecules are added to the side
(c) 14 (d) 112 deficient in oxygen and H+ and added to the side
(e) 42 deficient in hydrogen as
Kerala-CEE-2009 Zn → Zn 2+ ; NO3− + 10H + → NH 4+ + 3H 2 O
Ans. (b) : Given that, Step III. The number of electorns are balanced and the
Mass of given compound = 0.25g two half equations are added
Molarity = 0.5M
Volume = 10M (Let 1cm3 = 1 mL) [Zn → Zn 2+ + 2e − ] × 4;

NO3− + 10H + + 8e − → NH 4+ + 3H 2 O 405. What is the number of moles of oxygen gas
evolved by electrolysis of 180 g of water ?
4Zn → 4Zn2+ + 8e– (a) 2.5 (b) 5.0
∴ 4Zn + NO3− + 10H + → 4Zn 2+ + NH +4 + 3H 2 O (c) 7.5 (d) 10.0
SCRA - 2009
(Net equation) or
Ans. (b) :
4Zn + NO3− + 10HCl → 4Zn 2+ + NH +4 + 5Cl2 + 3H 2 O
Reaction is given by, 2H 2O ( l ) → 2H 2( g ) + O2( g )
∵ 1 mole of NO 3− (or NaNO3) is reduced by = 10 2×18=36g
Using unitary method -
moles of HCl 36g of water produces 1 mole of O2 gas
1 − 1
∴ mole of NO 3 will be reduced by = 10 × mole of 180g water of will produce 180 = 5moles of O gas
2 2 36
2
HCl = 5 moles of HCl Hence, 5 moles of oxygen gas can be produced during
403. The number of electrons required to reduce the electrolytic decomposition of 180 g of water.
4.5×10–5 g of Al is 406. Calculate the millimoles of SeO 2-3 in solution on
18 18
(a) 1.03×10 (b) 3.01×10 the basis of following data: 70 mL of
(c) 4.95×1026 (d) 7.31×1020 Μ
MHT CET-2009 solution of KBrO3 was added to SeO 2-3
60
Ans. (b) : Al3+ + 3e− → Al solution. The bromine evolved was removed by
27 27g boiling and excess of KBrO3 was back titrated
27g of Al is reduced by = 3 × 6.023 × 1023 e– s with 12.5 mL of
Μ
solution of NaAsO2.
3 × 6.023 × 10 23 25
1 gm of Al is reduced by = The reactions are given below.
27
I. SeO 2-3 + BrO -3 + H + → SeO 42- + Br2+ + H 2O
4.5 × 10 g of Al will be reduced by
–5
II. BrO -3 + AsO -2 + H 2O → Br - AsO 43- + H +

3 × 6.023 × 1023 × 4.5 × 10−5
= (a) 1.6 × 10–3 (b) 1.25
27
(c) 2.5 × 10 –3
(d) None of these
= 3.01 × 1018 electrons. AIIMS-2009
404. Which of the following contains greatest Ans. (c): Given that,
number of oxygen atoms?
SeO 2-3 + BrO -3 + H + → SeO 42- + Br2+ + H 2O
(a) 1 g of O
(b) 1 g of O2 BrO -3 + AsO -2 + H 2O → Br - AsO 43- + H +
(c) 1 g of O3 In reaction (i)
(d) All have the same number of atoms − 70 1 10−3 −3
UPTU/UPSEE-2009 Moles of BrO3 Consumed = 1000 × 60 − 6 = 10
Ans. (d) : gm. eq. of SeO32− = gm. eq. of BrO −
3
Step-1 : Finding the number of moles
n SeO2− × 2 = 10−3 × 5
Given mass 3
Number of moles =
Molecular mass n SeO32−
= 2.5 × 10−3
1 In reaction (ii)
1 gram of O =
16 Gm. Eq. of BrO3− = gm. Eq. of AsO −2
1 12.5 1
1 gram of O2 = n BrO − × 6 = n AsO − × 2 = × × 2 = 10−3
32 3 2
1000 25
1 10−3
1 gram of O3 = n BrO − =
48 3
6
Setp-2 : Finding the number of atoms 407. If 11.1 mg of CaCl2 and 12 mg of MgSO4 are
Number of atoms = Number of moles × NA × Atomicity present in 2 L of water, what is its hardness (in
1 gram CaCO3/ppm)?
In O = × NA × 1 (a) 5 (b) 10
16 (c) 15 (d) 20
1 1 AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2008
In O2 = × NA × 2 = NA
32 16 Ans. (b) : MgSO4 ≡ CaCO3
1 1
In = × NA × 3 = × NA 24 + 32 + 64 40 + 12 + 48
48 16
Therefore, all three have the same number of O atoms. = 120×103 mg = 100×103 mg

And CaCl2 ≡ CaCO3 then,
molality = 1
40 + 35.5 × 2 40 + 12 + 48
Glucose (C6H12O6)
= 111×103 mg = 100×103 mg molecular weight = 180
111×103mg of CaCl2 = 100 × 103mg of CaCO3 Molecular mass
Here, No. of mole =
100×103 ×11.1 wt.of solvent
11.1mg of CaCl2 = mg of CaCO3
111×103 180
= 10mg of CaCO3 = =1
180
Similarly,
1
120 × 103mg of MgSO4 = 100 × 103mg of CaCO3 Molality =
1
100×103 Hence, assertion and reason, both are Correct and
12mg of MgSO4 = ×12mg of CaCO3
120×103 reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
= 10mg of CaCO3 410. The number of hydrogen atoms present in 25.6
∴ Total weight of CaCO3 in 2L of water = 10 + 10 = g of sucrose (C12H22O11) which has a molar
20mg. mass of 342.3 g is
20 (a) 22 × 1023 (b) 9.91 × 1023
∴ In 1L of water, total weight of CaCO3= mg=10mg.
2 (c) 11 × 10 23
(d) 44 × 1023
∴ In 106 mg of water, total weight of CaCO3 = 10mg. VITEEE- 2008
So, in 106 part water, hardness of water in terms of Ans. (b) : No. of moles of a sucrose
CaCO3 = 10mg.
Given mass (gm)
408. 40 g of a sample of carbon on combustion left =
10% of it unreacted. The volume of oxygen Molar mass (gm)
required at STP for this combustion reaction is 25.6
(a) 22.4 L (b) 67.2 L = = 0.0748moles.
342.3
(c) 11.2 L (d) 44.8 L
1 mole of sucrose (C12H22O11) contains 6.022 × 1023
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2008 molecules of it.
Ans. (b) : The combustion of carbon can be expressed Hence, 0.0748 moles contains
by following equation-
= 6.022 ×1023 × 0.0748
C(s) + O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g)
= 0.4504 × 1023 molecules.
12g 22.4L
1 molecule of sucrose by formula is having 22 atoms of
40 ×10
∴ amount of carbon unreacted = = 4g hydrogen.
100
∴ 0.4504 × 1023 × 22 = 9.91×1023 atoms of hydrogen.
So, the amount of carbon reacted = (40 – 4) g = 36g
∴ At STP, for the combustion of 12g of C, oxygen 411. One mole of magnesium nitride on the reaction
required is = 22.4L with an excess of water gives
∴ For the combustion of 36g of C, oxygen required will (a) One mole of NH3 (b) two moles of NH3
22.4 (c) One mole of HNO3 (d) two moles of HNO3
be = × 36L = 67.2L UPTU/UPSEE-2008
12
409. Assertion: One molal aqueous solution of Ans. (b): Formula for magnesium MgN2
glucose contains 180 g of glucose in 1 kg water. Reaction of magnesium nitride with excess of water
Reason: The solution containing one mole of Mg3N2 + 6H2O→ 3Mg(OH)2 + 2NH3
solute in 1000 g of solvent is called one molal Hence one mole of magnesium nitride on reaction with
solution. excess water gives two moles of ammonia.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Note- Nitride on reaction with water gives ammonia
the Reason is the correct explanation of 412. 2 N HCI solution will have same molar
Assertion. concentration as a
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but (a) 4.0 N H2SO4 (b) 0.5 N H2SO4
Reason is not the correct explanation of (c) 1 N H2SO4 (d) 2 N H2SO4
Assertion.
WB-JEE-2008
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are Ans. (a) : From the relation -
incorrect. Normality Molecular mass
= =n
AIIMS-2008 Molarity Equivelent mass
Ans. (a): Molality = No. of moles of solute /wt. of For 2NHCl
solvent in kg
Normality × Equivalent weight
If no. of moles of solute = 1 Molarity =
weight of solvent = 1 kg Molecular weight

2 × 36.5 Suppose in both the oxides, iron reacts with xg oxygen.
Molarty = =2 ∴ Equivalent weight of Fe in
36.5
For 4NH2SO4 weight of Fe II
FeO or = ×8
4 × 49 weight of oxygen
Molarity = =2
98 56 weight of Fe II
Hence, 4NH2SO4 and 2NHCl solution will have same = ×8 …. (i)
2 x
molar concentration. ∴ Equivalent weight of Fe in
weight of FeIII
413. 1 mole of methyl amine on reaction with Fe2 O2 = ×8
nitrous acid gives at NTP weight of oxygen
(a) 1.0 Litre of nitrogen 56 weight of Fe III
= ×8 …. (ii)
(b) 22.4 Litre of nitrogen 3 x
(c) 11.2 Litre of nitrogen From eq (i) & (ii)
(d) 5.6 Litre of nitrogen weight of Fe II 3
WB-JEE-2008 =
weight of FeIII 2
Ans. (b) : CH3 –– NH2 + HNO2 → CH3OH + N2 + H2O
416. 80 g of oxygen contains as many atoms as in
1 mole of methyl amine gives 1 mole N2 i.e. 22.4 L of
nitrogen at NTP. (a) 80 g of hydrogen (b) 1g of hydrogen
(c) 10g of hydrogen (d) 5 g of hydrogen
414. Sodium nitrate on reduction with Zn in Karnataka-CET, 2008
presence of NaOH solution produces NH3.
Mass of sodium nitrate absorbing 1 mole of 80
Ans. (d) : No. of mole of oxygen = = 5mol
electron will be 16
(a) 7.750 (b) 10.625 1 mol contains Avogadro no. of atom i.e., 60.2×1023
(c) 8.000 (d) 9.875 atoms.
WB-JEE-2008 ∴ 5 mol contains 6.02×1023×5 atoms = 30.1×1023 atoms
Ans. (b) : Required equation is given below, 5
No. of mole of hydrogen = = 5 mol
Zn + 2OH–→ Zn O22− + 2H+ + 2e– 1
NO3− + 8H + 8e − → OH − + 2H 2 O + NH 3 5 mol of hydrogen contains 30.1×1023 atoms.
417. 10 cm3 of 0.1N monobasic acid requires 15 cm3
Q 8 moles of electron absorbed by 85g of NaNO3 of sodium hydroxide solution which normality
85 is
∴ 1 mole of electron absorbed by g of NaNO3
8 (a) 1.5 N (b) 0.15 N
=10.625g (c) 0.066 N (d) 0.66 N
415. Of two oxides of iron, the first contained 22% Karnataka-CET, 2008
and the second contained 30% of oxygen by Ans. (c) : Given,
weight. The ratio of weights of iron in the two Volume of monobasic acid = 10 cm3
oxides that combine with the same weight of Normality of monobasic acid = 0.1 N
oxygen is Volume of NaOH solution = 15 cm
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 Normality of NaOH solution = ?
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 1 From normality equation,
J & K CET-(2008) N 1V 1 = N 2V 2
22 (for monobasic acid) (for NaOH)
Ans. (a) : For first oxide, moles of oxygen = = 10 × 0.1 = 15 × N2
16
1.375 10 × 0.1
N2 = = 0.066N
78 15
Mole of Fe = = 1.392
56 418. For the reaction Fe2O3 + 3CO × 2Fe + 3CO2
1.375 1.392 the volume of carbon monoxide required to
Molar ratio, = 1, =1 reduce on mole of ferric oxide is
1.375 1.375 (a) 22.4 dm3 (b) 44.8 dm3
∴ The formula of first oxide is 3
(c) 67.2 dm (d) 11.2 dm3
30 Karnataka-CET, 2008
FeO for second oxide, Moles of oxygen = = 1.875
16
Ans. (c) : Fe 2 O3 + 3CO  → 2Fe + 3CO2
70 3 mol
Moles of Fe = = 1.25 ] 1mol
56 Volume of 1mole carbon monoxide

1.875 1.25 = 22.4 L (at STP)
Molar ratio = = 1.5, =1 1 mole of ferric oxide is reduced by = 3 moles of CO
1.25 1.25
= 3 × 22.4 L = 67.2 dm3 [Q 1 dm3 = 1L]
∴ The formula of second oxide is Fe2O3.
419. Three moles of PCl5, three moles of PCl3 and (a) 0.013 (b) 0.050
two moles of Cl2 are taken in a closed vessel. If (c) 0.033 (d) 0.067
at equilibrium the vessel has 1.5 moles of PCl5, (a) 0.045
the number of moles of PCl3 present in it is? Kerala-CEE-2008
(a) 5 (b) 3
Ans. (c) 1.6 mol of PCl5 is placed in 4dm3 closed vessel.
(c) 6 (d) 4.5
Karnataka-CET, 2008 PCl5 (g)    PCl3 (g) + Cl 2 (g)
Ans. (d) : PCl5 ↽ ⇀ PCl3 + Cl2 Intial 1.6 mol 0 0
3 mol 3 mol 2 mol intially At eqm. 1.2 mol 0.4 mol 0.4 mol
(3 − x ) mol (3 + x ) mol (2 + x ) mol at equilibrium
So, 3 – x = 1.5 1/ 2 0.4
Therefore, PCl5 = = 0.3, PCl3 = = 0.1
x = 1.5 4 4
Number of moles of PCl3 = 3 + x 0.4
= 3 + 1.5 = 4.5 Cl2 = = 0.1
4
420. One mole of which of the following has the PCl3 × Cl 2 0.1× 0.1
highest entropy? Kc = = = 0.033
(a) Liquid nitrogen (b) Hydrogen gas PCl5 0.3
(c) Mercury (d) Diamond 424. How many moles of lead (II) chloride will be
Karnataka-CET, 2008 formed from a reaction between 6.5 g of PbO
Ans. (b) : Entropy is the measure of degree of disorder and 3.2 g HCI? (atomic weight of Pb = 207)
(or randomness) of a system. The greater the disorder in (a) 0.011 (b) 0.029
a system, the higher is the entropy. Hence, entropy is (c) 0.044 (d) 0.333
highest for hydrogen gas. NEET-2008
421. The number of moles of lead nitrate needed to Ans. (b) :
coagulate 2 moles of colloidal [AgI]I– is PbO + 2HCl  → PbCl2 + H 2O
(a) 2 (b) 1 223g/mol 2(35.59+1)g/mole 277g/mol 18g/mol
(c) 1/2 (d) 2/3 223g/mol of PbO need → 70g of HCl
(a) 5/2 6.5 × 70
Kerala-CEE-2008 6.5→x ⇒x=
223
Ans. (b): ⇒ x = 2.04 g of HCl is needed.
2[AgI] I− + Pb2+ →PbI2 + 2AgI 223g of PbO→277g of PbCl2
Since for this reaction we required 1 mole of Pb2+ is 1
6.5 × 277
mole of Pb(NO3)2. 6.5→y ⇒y= ⇒ y = 8.07g
422. Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. 223
The mixture has a vapour pressure of 400 mm 1 mol → 277g
at 300 K when mixed in the molar ratio of 1: 1 x mol → 8.07
and a vapour pressure of 350 mm when mixed 8.07
in the molar ratio of 1: 2 at the same ⇒ x = 277 = 0.029 moles
temperature. The vapour pressures of the two
pure liquids X and Y respectively are 425. 1 mole of H2 and 2 moles of I2 are taken
(a) 250 mm, 550 mm (b) 350 mm, 450 mm initially in a two liter vessel. The number of
moles of H2 at equilibrium is 0.2. Then, the
(c) 350 mm, 700mm (d) 500 mm, 500 mm
number of moles of I2 and HI at equilibrium
(e) 550 mm, 250 mm are–
Kerala-CEE-2008 (a) 1.2, 1.6 (b) 1.8, 1.0
Ans. (e): Molar ration of 1 : 1 means Xx = Xy = 0.5 (c) 0.4, 2.4 (d) 0.8, 2.0
Ptotal = X x p ox + X y p oy ⇒ 400 = 0.5 p ox + 0.5 p oy BCECE-2008, UP CPMT-2006
p ox + p oy = 800 ….(i) Ans. (a) :
Molar ratio of 1 : 2, Xx = 1/3, Xy = 2/3 H 2 + I 2     2HI
Similarly, 350 = 1/3 p ox + 2/3 p oy Intial 1mol 2mol
o
x
o
p +2 p = 1050
y ….(ii) At,equlibrium 0.2 2 − 0.8 2 × 0.8
From equation (i) and (ii), 1.2 mol 1.6mol
p oy = 250 mm and p ox = 550mm The numbers of moles of I2 and HI at equilibrium are
1.2 moles and 1.6 moles respectively.
423. 1.6 moles of PCl5 (g) is placed in 4 dm3 closed 426. The number of electrons in a mole of hydrogen
vessel. When the temperature is raised to 500 molecule is :
K, it decomposes and at equilibrium 1.2 moles (a) 6.023×1023 (b) 12.046×1023
of PCl5 (g) remains. What is the Kc value for 23
the decomposition of PCl5(g) to PCl3 (g) and Cl2 (c) 3.0115×10 (d) indefinite
(g) at 500 K? BITSAT 2008
Ans. (b) : 1 mole of H2 contains 6.023×1023 moleculer 430. What volume of hydrogen gas, at 273 K and 1
no of electron in H2 = 6.023×1023× 2 = 12.046×1023 atm pressure will be consumed in obtaining
21.6 g of elemental boron (atomic mass = 10.8)
427. Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can form the reduction of boron trichloride by
be determined by its titration with KMnO4 hydrogen?
solution in the presence of H2SO4. The titration
gives unsatisfactory result when carried cut in (a) 89.6 L (b) 67.2 L
the presence of HCl because HCl (c) 44.8 L (d) 22.4 L
(a) Gets oxidized by oxalic acid to chlorine [AlEEE 2007]
(b) Furnishes H+ ions in addition to those from Ans. (b) : If BCl3 + 1.5H 2 → B + 3HCl
oxalic acid From the equation it is clear that 1 mole of boron
(c) Reduces permanganate to Mn2+ formation requires 1.5 moles of hydrogen gas.
(d) Oxidises oxalic to carbon dioxide and water Mass
[AIEEE 2008] No. of moles =
Molar mass
Ans. (c) : Titration of oxalic acid by KMnO4 in the
presence of HCl gives unsatisfactory result because HCl 21.6g
= = 2.00 mol
is a better reducing agent than oxalic acid and HCl 10.8g mol −1
reduces preferably MnO −4 to Mn2+. To obtain 2.00 mol of boron, 3.00 mol of hydrogen gas
428. 200 g of hydrogen reacts with nitrogen according is required.
to equation 3H2(g)+N2(g) → 2NH3(g), to produce One mole of hydrogen gas at 273 k and 1 atm occupies
(a) 11.322 g of ammonia a volume of 22.4 L.
(b) 113.22 g of ammonia Therefore volume of hydrogen gas = 3.00 mol × 22.4L
(c) 1132.2 g of ammonia mol-1
(d) 11322 g of ammonia = 67.2 L
AMU–2007 431. Maximum number of molecules of CH3I that
can react with a molecule of CH3NH2 are
Ans. (c) : Given, in equation
(a) 3 (b) 4
3H2(g) + N2(g) → 2NH3(g) (c) 2 (d) 1
3(2) 2(17) Karnataka-CET-2007
6 g H2 34 g NH3
6 g of H2 reacts with nitrogen to produce34g of NH3 Ans. (a) : CH 3 NH 2  CH3l
− HI
→ (CH3 ) 2 NH  CH3l
− HI
→
Methly Dimethyl
34 amine amine
1g H2 → g of H3
6 (CH 3 )3 N
34
×200 g of NH3
Trimethyl amine
200 g H2 → ↓CH3I
6
= 1133.33 g of ammonia  1132.2 g of ammonia (CH3 ) 4 N + I−
Tetramethyl ammonium iodide
429. In the reaction, Hence, three molecules of CH3I is used.
2Al(s)+6HCl(aq)→2Al3+ (aq)+6Cl– (aq)+3H2(g)
432. The number of gram molecules of chlorine in
(a) 6L HCl (aq) is consumed for every 3L H2 (g)
6.02 × 1025 hydrogen chloride molecules is
produced
(a) 10 (b) 100
(b) 33.6 L H2(g) is produced regardless of
temperature and pressure for every mole Al (c) 50 (d) 5
that reacts Karnataka-CET-2007
(c) 67.2 L H2 (g) at STP is produced for every Ans. (c) : Let the Number of gram molecules
mole Al that reacts 6.02 × 1025
(d) 11.2 L H2 (g) at STP is produced for every = 100
6.02 × 1023
mole HCl (aq) consumed
∴ Gram molecular mass of chlorine in 6.023 × 1025
[AlEEE 2007]
100
Ans. (d) : In the case of option D, from the balanced molecules of HCl = = 50
chemical equation, it Can be seen that 6 moles of HCl 2
reacts with 3 moles of hydrogen. 433. Molarity of a given orthophosphoric acid
3 solution is 3M. It’s normality is
Hence, 1 mole of HCl will react with = 0.5 mole of (a) 9N (b) 0.3N
6
hydrogen. (c) 3N (d) 1N
At STP 1 mole of hydrogen Corresponds to 22.4 L Karnataka-CET-2007
22.4 Ans. (a) : Orthophosphoric acid (H3PO4) is a tribasic
Hence, 0.5 moles of hydrogen will corresponds to acid.
2 ∵ Normality = Molarity × basicity
= 11.2 L
Thus, 11.2 L of hydrogen gas at STP is produced for ∴ Normality = 3M × 3
every mole of HCl Consumed. = 9N
434. One mole of oxygen at 273 K and one mole of 437. Assertion: Equal moles of different substances
sulphur dioxide at 546 K are taken in two contain same number of constituent particles.
separate containers, then, Reason: Equal weights of different substances
(a) kinetic energy of O2> kinetic energy of SO2 contain the same number of constituent particles.
(b) kinetic energy of O2 < kinetic energy of SO2 The correct answer is
(c) kinetic energy of both are equal (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(d) None of the above correct explanation of (A).
Karnataka-CET-2007 (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
3 (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Ans. (b) : KE = RT
2 (d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
KE ∝ T AP EAMCET (Engg.) -2007
KE o2 To2 273 1 Ans. (c) : Here, assertion is right, but reason is false
= = = Because –
KE so2 Tso2 546 2
Equal moles of different substances contain same
KESO2 = 2KE O2 number of constituent particles but equal weights of
different substances do not contain the same number of
∴ KESO2 > 2KE O2 constituent particles.
435. What amount of bromine will be required to 438. 250 mL of a 0.50 M NaCl solution contains
convert 2 g of phenol into 2, 4, 6-bribromo [Given that molar mass of NaCl = 58.5 g mol-1]
phenol (a) 7.32 g of NaCl (b) 14.64 g of NaCl
(a) 20.44 g (b) 6.00 g (c) 21.96 g of NaCl (d) 5.85 g of NaCl
(c) 4.00 g (d) 10.22 g AMU–2006
UPTU/UPSEE-2007 No.of moles of solute(n)
Ans. (a) : Molarity, M =
Ans. (d) : Volumeof solution in lit.(v)
weight.of solute(w)
Molecular weight of solute (M S )
or, M =
(V)
w
or, M = or, w = M × Ms × V
Ms × V
molecular weight of Phenol = 12 × 6 + 1 × 6 + 16 = 94 =0.50 × 58.5 × 0.25 g = 7.3125 g
molecular wt. of Br2 = 3 × 160 = 480 439. The volume of Cl2 at STP obtained on reacting
Q 94 of phenol requires = 480 of Br2 4.35 g MnO2 with conc. HCl (At. Wt. of Mn =
480 55)
∴ 2 g of phenol requires = × 2 =10.22g
94 (a) 4.48 litre (b) 2.24 litre
436. 138 g of ethyl alcohol is mixed with 72 g of (c) 1.12 litre (d) 0.56 litre
water. The ratio of mole fraction of alcohol to BITSAT 2006
water is Ans. (c) : MnO 2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H 2 O + Cl2
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 1 : 2 87g 22.4 litre
sat STP
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 1
22.4
AP EAMCET (Engg.) -2007 1 gm MnO2 gives = litres of Cl2
87
Ans. (a) : Mass of ethyl alcohol ( C2 H 5OH ) = 46 g
22.4 × 4.35
Number of moles of ethyl alcohol 4.35 g MnO2 gives =
87
138 = 1.12 lit. of Cl2.
= =3
46 440. CO2 gas obtained by the combustion of 12 mL
72 butane gas is
Number of moles of water = =4
18 (a) 3 mL (b) 12 mL
3 3 (c) 24 mL (d) 48 mL
X C2 H5OH = =
3+ 4 7 CG PET -2006
4 4 Ans. (d) :
X H2 O = = 13
C4 H10 + O 2 → 4CO 2 + 5H 2 O
3+ 4 7 2
X C H OH 3/ 7 3 1mole 4mole
2 5
= = =3:4
X H2O 4/7 4 12mL 12 × 4 = 48mL

441. How many moles of magnesium phosphate, 445. Number of atoms of He in 100 amu of He
Mg3 (PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen (atomic wt. of He is 4) are
atoms? (a) 25 (b) 100
(a) 0.02 (b) 3.125×10-2 (c) 50 (d) 100
-2
(c) 1.25×10 (d) 2.5×10-2 UP CPMT-2006
[AlEEE 2006] Ans. (a) : Number of atom of a substance = Number of
Ans. (b) : Mg3 (PO4)2 ; mole gram molecular weight × 6.05 × 1023 × atomicity
8 moles of O atom are contained by 1 mole wt. of substance
Mg3 (PO4)2 = × 6.02 × 1023 × atomicity
Number of g.molecules
1
Hence, 0.25 moles of O atom = × 0.25 =1amu =1.6 × 10 −24 g
8
= 3.125 × 10-2 =100 amu =1.6 × 100 × 10 −24 g
442. 1.25 g NH3 contains how many atoms? 100 ×1.6 × 10−24
(a) 1023 (b) 1.77 × 1023 = × 6.023 × 1023 × 1
13
4
(c) 6 × 10 (d) 4 × 1023 = 25 × 1.6 ×10 −24 × 6.023 × 10 23 = 25
JCECE - 2006
Ans. (b) : Given that, 446. One mole of CO2 contains:
Mass of NH3(W) = 1.25 g (a) 3g atoms of CO2
(b) 18.1 × 1023 molecules of CO2
Molar mass of NH3(M) = 17 g/mol
(c) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of O
W 1.25
∴ Number of moles (n) = = (d) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of C
M 17 UPTU/UPSEE-2006
5 Ans. (d) : One mole of CO2 contains 6.02×1023 atoms
= mol
68 of C and 6.023×1023 molecules of oxygen.
Each molecule contain 4 atom 447. In the equation H2S + 2HNO3  → 2H2O +
∴ Number of atom (N) = 4 × n × NA
2NO2 + S. The equivalent weight of hydrogen
5 sulphide is :
= 4 × × 6.022 × 1023 = 1.77 × 1023 atoms
68 (a) 18 (b) 68
443. One mole of acidified K2Cr2O7 on reaction with (c) 34 (d) 17
excess KI will liberate…..mole (s) of I2: BCECE-2006
(a) 6 (b) 1
(c) 7 (d) 2 Ans. (d):
(e) 3
Kerala-CEE-2006 H 2S + 2HNO3 → 2H 2 O + 2NO 2 + S
Ans. (e) : When one mole of acidified potassium Hence, the equivalent weight of
dichromate (K2Cr2O7) react with excess of KI solution molecular weight
the balanced chemical reaction is as H 2S =
changein oxidation number
Cr2 O72− +14H+ + 6I– → 2Cr3+ + 3I2 + 7H2O
34
3 moles of I2 is evolved when excess of KI react with H 2S = =17
one mole of acidified potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7). 2
448. What is the weight of oxygen that is required
444. On a humid day in summer, the mole fraction for the complete combustion of 2.8 kg of
of gaseous H2O (water vapour) in the air at ethylene?
25oC can be high as 0.0287. Assuming a total (a) 9.6 kg (b) 96.0 kg
pressure of 0.977 atm. What is the partial
pressure of dry air? (c) 6.4 kg (d) 2.8 kg
(a) 94.9 atm (b) 0.949 atm BCECE-2006
(c) 949 atm (d) 0.648 atm Ans. (a) : C2 H 4 + 3O2 → 2CO 2 + 2H 2 O
(12×2+ 4= 28) ( 3×16×2=96)
(e) 1.248 atm
Kerala-CEE-2006 ∴ The weight of oxygen required for complete
Combustion of 28 kg ethylene = 96 kg
Ans. (b) :
∴Weight of oxygen required for combustion of
PH2O = X H2O Ptotal = 0.0287 × 0.977
2.8 kg ethylene
= 0.028atm 96 × 2.8
= kg = 9.6 kg
Ptotal = Pdryair + PH 2O 28
Pdryair = Ptotal − PH2O 449. 100 g CaCO3 is treated with 1 L of 1N HCl.
What would be the weight of CO2 liberated
= 0.977 − 0.028 = 0.949atm after the completion of the reaction?
(a) 55g (b) 11g Ans. (e) : Organic compond mass=0.53 g
(c) 22g (d) 33g Baso4 produce =1.158 g
(e) 44g 32
% of sulphur in BaSO 4 = ×100 = 13.7%
Kerala-CEE-2005 233
Ans. (c): 13.7
weight of sulphur in 1.158g of BaSO 4 = × 1.158
CaCO3 + 2HCl 
→ CO 2 + CaCl2 + H 2 O 100
= 0.158g
No. of mole ⇒ 1 2 1 1 1
0.53g of compound gives 0.158g of sulphur
Molecular mass of CaCO3 = 100g = 1 mole of CaCO3
0.158
1 N HCl = 1 M HCl (n factor for HCl = 1) % sulphur in given compound = × 100 = 30%
No. of moles = molarity × volume (L) 0.53
=1 452. In alkaline medium, ClO2 oxidises H2O2 to O2
and itself gets reduced to Cl–. How many moles
Hence, 1 mole of HCl would react with 0.5 moles of of H2O2 are oxidized by 1 mole of ClO2?
CaCO3 to give 0.5 mole of CO2. (a) 1.0 (b) 1.5
weight (c) 2.5 (d) 3.5
Now, 0.5 moles of CO2 =
molar mass (e) 5.0
weight Kerala-CEE-2005
0.5 = Ans. (c) : The balanced chemical equation is
44g
2ClO2 + 5H2O2 + 2OH–→2Cl– + 5O2 + 6H2O
weight = 22g
1 1
450. When 32.25 g of ethyl chloride is subjected to mol ClO2 = mol H2O2
2 5
dehydrohalogenation reaction the yield of the
5
alkene formed is 50%. The mass of the product 1 mol ClO2 = mol H2O2
formed is : (atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5) 2
(a) 14g (b) 28g = 2.5 mol H2O2
(c) 64.5g (d) 56g 453. Number of moles of K2Cr2O7 reduced by one
(e) 7g mole of Sn2+?
Kerala-CEE-2005 1
(a) (b) 3
Ans. (e) : 3
1
(c) (d) 6
6
UP CPMT-2005
Ans. (a) One mole of Sn2+ can reduce 1/3 moles K2Cr2O7.
454. How many moles of Al2(SO4)3 would be in 50 g
of the substance?
(a) 0.083mol (b) 0.952mol
(c) 0.481mol (d) 0.140 mol
UPTU/UPSEE-2005
Mass
Molar mass of ethyl chloride Ans. (d) : Moles =
Molecular weight
= 2 × 12 + 5 × 1 + 1 × 35.5 mass of Al2(SO4)3 = 50g.
= 24 + 5 +350.5 = 64.5g mol–1 Molecular mass of Al2(SO4) = 342g
Molar mass of ethene = 2 × 12 + 4 × 1 50
= 28 g mol–1 ∴ Moles of Al2(SO4) = = 0.14 mol.
342
Actual yield = 50% of 28g = 14g 455. The number of moles of proton which can be
64.5g of ethyl chloride on dehydrohalogenation gives easily given by butyne-1 (1mole) is
14g ethene (a) 1 (b) 2
∴ 32.25 g of ethyl chloride on dehydohologenation will (c) 3 (d) 6
give ethene = 7g. CG PET -2005
451. How much of sulphur is present in an organic Ans. (a) : The structure of butyne -1 is given below
compound, if 0.53 g of the compound gave
1.158 g of BaSO4 on analysis? H − C ≡ C − CH 2 − CH 3
(a) 10% (b) 15% If triple bond bearing carbon attached with hydrogen,
(c) 20% (d) 25% such hydrogen is acidic in nature.
(e) 30% Number of this type of hydrogen present in butyne –1 is
Kerala-CEE-2005 one.
456. 50 mL of benzene is mixed with 50mL of The relation between the molarity and the normality is
chloroform. What is the volume of solution? N=n×m
(a) Less than 100mL (b) More than 100mL Where as n is the valence factor
(c) Equal to 100mL (d) None of the above n1m1v1 = n 2 m 2 v 2
CG PET -2005 For H 2SO 4 ; n = 2
Ans. (a) : 50 mL benzene is mixed with 50 mL of
For NaOH ; n = 1
chloroform to form less than 100 mL volume of
solution. Therefore
2 × 0.1 × v = 1 × 0.2 × 30
457. A mixture has 18g water and 414 ethanol. The
mole fraction of water in mixture is (assume 6
⇒v=
ideal behaviour of the mixture) 0.2
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.4 v = 30 mL
(c) 0.7 (d) 0.9 460. In 1 mole of NaCl the protons are
CG PET -2005 (a) 6 moles (b) 11 moles
Ans. (a) : (c) 17 moles (d) 28 moles
moles of water CG PET -2005
Mole fraction =
moles of water + moles of ethanol Ans. (d) : Constituent of NaCl are Na and Cl.
mol. wt. of H2O = 18 mol Number of proton is Na = 11
atomic weight of C 2 H 5OH = 46 → 2 ×12 + 5 × 1 × 16 + [Atomic number of Na = 11]
1 = 26 molecular weight. Number of proton in Cl = 17
[Atom number of Cl = 17]
18
So, 1 mole Na contains 11 moles of protons and 1 mole
Mole fraction of water = 18 of Cl contains 17 moles of protons. Hence, 1 mole NaCl
18 414 contains 28 moles of protons.
+
18 46 461. The morality of a solution made by mixing 50
1 mL of conc. H2SO4 (36N) with 50mL of water,
= = 0.1
10 is
458. 1 moles of crystalline NaCl will have how many (a) 36 M (b) 18 M
unit cells? (c) 9 M (d) 6 M
(a) 1.506×1023 (b) 3.012×1023 CG PET -2005
23
(c) 4.518×10 (d) 6.023×1023 Ans. (c) : Concentrated H2SO4 36 N is 18 M with 50 ml
CG PET -2005 of water
Ans. (a) : The molar mass of NaCl is ⇒ 23 + 35.5 = Sulphuric acid
58.5 g m1v1 = m 2 v 2
58.5 g of NaCl corresponds to 1 mole of NaCl and Where
Contains 6.023 × 1023 molecules.
M1 = intial molarity
One unit cell of NaCl (fcc structure) has 4 NaCl
molecules. V1 = intial volume
1 mole of NaCl will contain M 2 = final molarity
6.023 × 1023 V2 = final volume
= 1.506 ×1023 unit cells.
4 m1v1 = m 2 v 2
459. The volume of 0.1 M H2SO4 that is needed to
completely neutralise 30mL of 0.2 M NaOH 18 × 50 = m 2 × (50 + 50)
solution, is 900 = 100 m 2
(a) 15 mL (b) 30 mL
m2 = 9
(c) 40 mL (d) 60 mL
The molarity of the solution is 9M.
CG PET -2005
462. 171g of sugar cane (C12H22O11) is dissolved in 1
Ans. (b) : Let V be the volume of H 2SO 4 required. L of water. The molarity of the solution is
Given:- (a) 2.0 M (b) 1.0M
M H 2SO 4 = 0.1 M (c) 0.5 M (d) 0.25 M
M NaOH = 0.2 M CG PET -2005
VNaOH = 30 ML Ans. (c) : Number of mole of sugar cane (C12H22O11)
Now, as we know that Given weight 171
⇒ = = 0.5
N1V1 = N 2 V2 Molecular weight 342

No.of moleof solute Ans. (d) : Na4[Fe(CN)6]
Molarity = No. of Na-atoms in molecules of Na4[Fe(CN)6] is =4
volume of solution (L)
No. of Na–atom in 1 mole of Na4[Fe(CN)6]=4 times of
171/ 342 Na
Molarity =
1 =4×6.023×1023
= 0.5 No. of Na-atom in 2 moles of Na4[Fe(CN)6]
463. The vapour pressure of a pure liquid 'A' is 0.80 =2×4×6.023×1023
atm. When a non-volatile solute 'B' is dissolved =48.134×1023
in 'A' its vapour pressure becomes 0.60 atm. 466. Assertion (A) : 8 g of methane occupies 11.207
The mole fraction of 'B' in the solution is L of volume at 273K and 1 atm. pressure.
(a) 0.125 (b) 0.25 Reason (R) : One mole of any gas at STP
(c) 0.50 (d) 0.75 occupies 22.414 litres of volume :
CG PET -2005 The correct answer is
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
Ans. (b) : The vapour pressure of a solvent A = P0 = explanation of A
0.80 atm. (b) both A and R are true but R is not the correct
And after adding non- volatile substance B, vapour explantation of A
pressure P = 0.6 atm (c) A is true but R is false
According to Raoult’s law for relative lowering of (d) A is false but R is true
vapour pressure
AP-EAMCET (Engg.)-2004
P0 − P
= XB Ans. (a) : One mole of CH4 gas is equal to 16 g of CH4.
P0 So, at STP
0.80 − 0.60 0.20 1 Q 1 mole or 16 g of CH4 occupies volumes = 22.414 L
⇒ = = XB = 22.414 × 8
0.80 0.800 4 ∴ 8 g of CH4 occupies volume = = 11.207 L
i.e. X B = 0.25 16
Reason – At STP one mole of gas occupies 22.414 L of
mole fraction of B in the solution is 0.25 volume. Thus, both A and R are true and R is the
464. If we consider that 1/6, in place of 1/12, mass of correct explanation of A.
carbon atom is taken to be the relative atomic 467. 10 g of CaCO3 is completely decomposed to X
mass unit, the mass of one mole of a substance and CaO. X is passed into an aqueous solution
will containing one mole of sodium carbonate.
(a) Be a function of the molecular mass of the What is the number of moles of sodium
substance bicarbonate formed ?
(b) Remain unchanged (a) 0.2 (b) 0.1
(c) Increase two fold (c) 0.01 (d) 10
(d) Decrease twice AP-EAMCET (Engg.)-2004
[AlEEE 2005] Ans. (a) :
1 1 CaCO 
→ CaO + CO 2
Ans. (b) : If is used in place of mass of carbon 3
6 12 molecular weight =100g (x)
molecular
then the mass of 1 mole of substance will remain weight = 44g
unchange. Now (x) is passed into an aqueous solution containing
Since 1 mole = NA × mass of 1 atom. one mole of Na2CO3 as given below–
1 1 CO 2 + Na 2CO3 + H 2 O → 2NaHCO3
When we use th in place of th Sodium Sodiumbicarbonate
6 12 carbonate
Then, Q No. of moles of Na2CO3 when 100 gm CaCO3 is

1 AMU = 2 AMU decomposed = 2
NA ∴ No. of moles of NaCO3 when 10g CaCO3 is
Now, the new Avogardo number (NA) becomes 2 × 10
2 decomposed = = 0.2 mole
since the atomic mass corresponding to it becomes 6 g. 100
N 468. The normality of mixture obtained by mixing
So, 1 mole = A × 2a.m.u. 100 mL of 0.2 M H2SO4 + 100 mL of 0.2 M
2 NaOH is :
Hence, the mass remains unchange. (a) 0.2 (b) 0.01
465. The number of sodium atoms in 2 moles of (c) 0.1 (d) 0.3
sodium ferrocyanide is : BCECE-2004
(a) 12 × 1023 (b) 26 × 1023 Ans. (c) : From the relation between molarity and
23
(c) 34 × 10 (d) 48 × 1023 normality is N = n × M
BITSAT 2005 N1 = 2 × 0.2 = 0.4 N, N2 = 1 × 0.2 = 0.2N

When V1 mL acid having normality N1 is mixed with 472. One of the mole of a gas at NTP occupies 22.4
V2 mL of base having normality N2, the normality of litres. This fact was derived from
the resultant solution is (a) Law of gaseous volumes
V1 N1 − V2 N 2 (b) Avogadro’s hypothesis
= NR V1 N1 > V2N2 (c) Berzelius hypothesis
V1 + V2
(d) Dalton’s atomic theory
0.4 × 100 − 0.2 × 100 40 − 20
NR = = J & K CET-(2004)
100 + 100 200 Ans. (b) : One gram mole of a gas at NTP required 22.4
1 as volume. This fact was derived from Avogadro’s
NR = = 0.1 N
10 hypothesis.
Normality = 0.1 N Taking STP to be 101.325 kPa and 273.15 K. From
469. Mole fraction of a solute in benzene is 0.2 then ideal gas equation PV = nRT
find molality of solute : 1× RT
(a) 3.2 (b) 2 V=
p
(c) 4 (d) 3.6 we can find the volume of one mole of a gas.
BCECE-2004
RT 8.314 × 273.15
Ans. (a) : Let the solution be x molal then moles of Volume = = = 22.4L
benzene present in 1000 g of benzene P 101.325
1000 473. Number of atoms of oxygen present in 10.6 g of
= = 12.82 mol Na2CO3 will be
78 (a) 6.02 × 1022 (b) 12.04 × 1022
x (c) 1.806 × 10 23
(d) 31.80 × 1028
∴ Mole fraction of solute =
x + 12.82 J & K CET-(2004)
x Ans. (c) : 1 mole of Na 2 CO3 = 106 g
0.2 =
x + 12.82 10.6
x = 0.2x + 2.564 Moles in 10.6 g of Na 2 CO3 = = 0.1 mole
0.8x = 2.564 106
2.564 106 g Contain atoms of oxygen = 3 × 6.022 ×1023
x= = 3.2 10.6 g Contain atoms = 0.1 × 3 × 6.022 ×1023
0.8 = 1.8 × 1023 atoms
470. The number of moles of a solute in its solution
is 20 and total numbers of moles are 80. The 474. 2 g of aluminium is treated separately with
mole fraction of solute is excess of dil. H2SO4 and excess of NaOH, the
(a) 2.5 (b) 0.25 ratio of volume of hydrogen evolved in:
(c) 1 (d) 0.75 (a) 1:1 (b) 2:3
(c) 1:2 (d) 2:1
CG PET -2004 (e) 3:1
Ans. (b) : Given, Kerala-CEE-2004
Number of moles = 20
Total number of moles = 80 → Al2 ( SO 4 )3 + 3H 2
Ans. (a): 2Al + 3H2SO4 
Number of solute moles → 2Na  Al ( OH )4  + 3H 2
2Al + 2NaOH + 6H2O 
Mole fraction =
total number of moles In both reaction, 2 mole Al gives 3 mole. H2 1 mole of
20 H2 = 22.4L
= = 0.25 So, equal moles of H2 corresponds to equals volume of
80
H2 in both reaction.
471. Vapour pressure of dilute aqueous solution of
glucose is 750 mm of mercury at 373 K. The 3( H2 ) 1
Ratio = =
mole fraction of solute is 3( H2 ) 1
(a) 1/76 (b) 1/7.6
(c) 1/38 (d) 1/10 N
475. The numerical value of (where, N is the
J & K CET-(2004) n
Ans. (a) : 373 K is the boiling point of H2O So, p° = number of molecules in a given sample of gas
760 and n is the number of moles of the gas) is:
mm Hg, ps = 750 mm Hg (a) 8.314 (b) 6.02×1023
p° − p s (c) 0.0821 (d) 1.66 × 10–19
We know that- = molefraction (x B ) (e) 1.62×10 –24
p° Kerala-CEE-2004
760 − 750 Ans. (b) The numerical value of N/n, where:
= xB
760 N = The number of molecules in a given sample
1 n = number moles
xB =
76 suppose, we are having × mol of gas.
n = x mol Thus, the dissociation of NaCl provides chloride ions
According to mole concept, 1 mole = NA = 6.023 × 1023 that are common to AgCl. Due to common ion effect,
molecules or atoms the dissociation of AgCl is suppressed and [Ag+]
Number of molecules in x moles of gas, decreases.
N = x × 6.023×1023 479. The mass of BaCO3 produced when excess CO2
The value of N/n is : is bubbled through a solution of 0.205 mole
Ba(OH)2.
x × 6.023 × 1023 (a) 81 g (b) 40.5 g
= 6.023 × 1023
x (c) 20.25 g (d) 162 g
476. The mass of 11.2 L of ammonia gas at STP is: UPTU/UPSEE-2004
(a) 8.5 g (b) 85 g Ans. (b) : Given that,
(c) 17 g (d) 1.7 g Mole of Ba(OH)2 =0.205 mole
(e) 4.25 g Now,
Kerala-CEE-2004 Ba(OH)2 + CO2 → BaCO3 + H2O
Ans. (a) 1 mole 1 mole
1 mole of NH3 at STP occupies volume of 22.4 lit. 0.205 mol 0.205 mol
1 mole of NH3 weights = molar mass = 17 g mole of BaCO3 produced (n)=0.205 mol
So, 17 g of NH3 = 22.4 lit molor man of BaCO3 (m) =197 g/ mol
Let 17g of NH3 = 22.4 lit mass of BaCO3 produced = 0.205 × 197g
Let × g of NH3 = 11.2 lit = 40.385 g
(11.2 ×17) 480. Which of the following contains least number
Therefore, x = = 8.5g of molecules?
(22.4)
(a) 16 g of CO2 (b) 8 g of O2
477. Which of the following contains maximum
number of molecules? (c) 4 g of N2 (d) 2 g of H2
(a) 100 cc of CO2 at STP AMU–2003
(b) 150 cc of N2 at STP Ans. (c) : No. of molecules in 16 g of
(c) 50 cc of SO2 at STP 6.023 × 1023
(d) 150 cc of O2 at STP CO2= × 16
44
(e) 200 cc of NH3 at STP
6.023 × 1023
Kerala-CEE-2004 No. of molecules in 8 g of O2= ×8
Ans. (e) 1 litre = 1000 cm3 = 1000cc 32
We know that, volume of 1 mol of gas at S.T.P. = 22.4 6.023 × 1023
No. of molecules in 4 g of N2= ×4
L = 22400 cm3 = 24000cc 28
200cc of NH3 at S.T.P contains 6.023 × 1023
(6.022 ×1023 × 200) No. of molecules in 2 g of H2= ×2
= 0.0537 × 1023 molecules 2
22400 ∴ 4 g of N2 contains least number of molecules.
150cc of N2 at S.T.P. and 150cc of O2 at S.T.P 481. KMnO4 reacts with oxalic acid according to the
(6.022 ×1023 × 150) equation
+
= 0.0403 × 1023 molecules

22400 2MnO−
4 5C2 O 4 2- + 16 H + →
50cc of SO2 at S.T.P
2Mn 2+ + 10CO 2 + 8H 2 O
(6.022 ×1023 × 50)
= = 0.013 × 1023 molecules Here 20 mL of 0.1 MKMnO4 is equivalent to
22400 (a) 20 mL of 0.5 (b) 50 mL of 0.1
From the above expression, it is clear that 200 cc of (c) 50 mL of 0.01 (d) 20 mL of 0.1
NH3 at S.T.P. contains maximum number of molecule. J & K CET-(2003)
478. A litre of solution is saturated with AgCl. To Ans. (b) :
this solution if 1.0 × 10–4 mole of solid NaCl is
added, what will be the [Ag+], assuming no 2MnO-4 + 5C 2 O 4 2- + 16 H + → 2Mn 2+ +10CO 2 + 8H 2O
volume change? At NTP, 2 × 22.4 L react with 5 × 22.4 L oxalic acid
(a) More (b) Less 5× 22.4× 20
(c) Equal (d) Zero ml = 50 ml
2× 22.4
UPTU/UPSEE-2004
20 mL of 0.1 m KMnO4 is equivalent to 50 mL of 0.1
Ans. (b) : A litre of solution is saturated with AgCl
oxalic acid.
1.0 × 10–4 mole of solid NaCl is added,
[Ag+] will be loss. 482. 720 g water contain the number o moles:
+ – (a) 2 (b) 190
AgCl    Ag + Cl (c) 40 (d) 55
NaCl → Na+ + Cl–+ JCECE - 2003

Ans. (c): Given that – Ans. (b) : F2 + 2KOH → 2KF + H 2 O + 1/ 2O 2
Mass of H2O is = 720 g
The molar ratios of KF, H2O and O2 is 2: 1: 0.5
Molar mass of water = 18 g/mol
respectively.
weight
We know that, no. of mole = 486. The concentration of a 100 mL solution
molecular weight containing X g of Na2CO3 (molecular wt. = 106)
720 is Y M. The values of X and Y are respectively :
Moles of water =
18 (a) 2.12, 0.05 (b) 1.06, 0.2
= 40 moles. (c) 1.06, 0.1 (d) 2.12, 0.1
483. The total number of protons in 10g of calcium AP-EAMCET-2002
carbonate is (N0=6.023×1023)
Ans. (c) : Given, v = 100mL, w = X g, Molarity = Y M
(a) 3.01×1024 (b) 4.06×1024
(c) 2.01×10 24
(d) 3.01×1024 We know that :
UP CPMT-2003 w ×1000
M= (m = 106 gm, v = 100 ml)
Ans. (a) : Number of protons = Atomic number m×v
∴ Protons in 1 mole CaCO3 X ×1000
= Atomic No. of Ca + atomic. No. of C + 3 × atomic ∴ Y=
106 × 100
No. of O
or 106Y = 10X
= 20 + 6 + 3 × 8
= 50 Dividing both sides by 100 we get–
Atomic mass of CaCO3 1.06X = 0.1Y
= 40 + 12 + 3 × 16 Q Only option (c) satisfies the relation.
=100
Q 100 g of CaCO3 has protons= 50 487. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be
needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in
∴10 g of CaCO3 has protons
acidic solution is
50
= ×10 × 6.02 ×1023 (a) 1 (b) 4/5
100 (c) 3/5 (d) 2/5
50 AMU-2002
= ×10 × 6.02 ×1023
100 Ans. (d) :
= 3.01×1024 2MnO −4 + 5SO32 − + 6H + 
→ 2Mn 2 + + 5SO 24 − + 3H 2 O
484. 3.65 g of HCl is dissolved in 16.2 g of water.
The mole fraction of HCl in the resulting So, according to the reaction, number of moles of
solution is: KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.3 2
sulphite ion in acidic solution is .
(c) 0.2 (d) 0.1 5
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2003
488. The volume strength of 1.5 NH2O2 solution is
Ans. (d) : Given data:
(a) 5.2 (b) 8.4
WHCl = 3.65g
(c) 8.8 (d) 4.8
WH2O = 16.2g
AMU-2002
X HCl = ?
Ans. (b) : 1N of H2O2 → 5.6 volume
3.65 1.5N of H2O2 → 5.6 × 1.5
Number of moles of HCl ( n HCl ) = = 0.1
36.5 → 8.4 volume strength.
( )
Number of moles of H2O n H 2O =
16.2
18
= 0.9 489. One mole of SO2 corresponds to
(a) 6.4g of SO2
n HCl (b) 6.02×1023 molecules of SO2
Now, XHCl =
n HCl + n H2O (c) 2.24 L at 25oC and 1 atm
0.1 (d) all of these
XHCl = AMU-2002
0.1 + 0.9
or X HCl = 0.1 Ans. (b) : One mole of SO2 corresponds to 6.023 × 1023
485. One mole of fluorine reacted with two moles of molecules of SO2.
hot concentrated KOH. The products formed 490. The number of atoms in 0.004 g of magnesium
are KF, H2O and O2. The molar ratio of KF, is close to
H2O and O2 respectively, is? (a) 2×1020 (b) 6.02×1023
(a) 1 :1 : 2 (b) 2 :1 : 0.5
(c) 24 (d) 1020
(c) 1 :2 : 1 (d) 2 :1 :2
AMU-2002
AP EAMCET- 2002
Ans. (d) : Amount of magnesium = 0.004g 16
molecular weight of magnesium = 24 16 g NO2 = = 0.35 mole
46
Weight of magnesium Maximum number of moles will corresponds to
∴ Number of moles(n) =
molecular weight maximum number of molecules.
or So, 2g H2 contain maximum molecules
0.004 1 494. One mole of CH4 contains
n= = × 10−3 moles (a) 4 g atoms of hydrogen
24 6
∴ Number of atoms in 0.004g of magnesium (b) 3.0 g atoms of carbon
1 (c) 6.02×1023 atoms of hydrogen
= × 10−3 × 6.023 ×1023 (d) 1.81×1023 molecules of CH4
6
UP CPMT-2002
= 1020 atoms
491. Number of atoms in 560 g of Fe (atomic mass = Ans. (a): 1 mole of CH4 contains 1 gm of carbon and
56 g mol-1) is 4gm of mole of hydrogen. Methane (CH4) is a colorless,
(a) Twice that of 70 g N2 (b) half that of 20 g H odorless, flammable gas that is the simplest
hydrocarbon and is the major constituent of natural gas.
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
[AlEEE 2002] 495. The incorrect statement for 14g of CO is
Ans. (c) : Suppose that N be Avogadro’s number (a) It occupies 2.24L at NTP
The atomic/molar masses of Fe, N2 and H2 are 56g/mol, (b) It corresponds to 1/2 mole of CO
28 g/mol and 2 g/mol respectively. (c) It corresponds to same mole of CO and N2
560g (d) It corresponds to 3.01×1023 molecules of CO
560 g Fe = = 10 mol Fe = 10 N atoms UP CPMT-2002
56g / mol
Ans. (a) : For 14 gm of CO –
70g
70 gN2 = = 2.5 moles N2 = 2 × 2.5 N = 5N 14 1
28g / mol No. of mole CO = = mole.
atom 28 2
Twice of this Corresponds to 2 × 5N = 10 N for 14 gm of N2 –
20g 14 1
20 g of H2 = = 10 mole H2 = 2 × 10 N = 20 N No. of mole N2 = = mole
2g / mol 28 2
atoms. Q One mole of any gas occupies 2.24 litre.
Half of this = 0.5 × 20 N = 10 N atoms. 1
∴ mole of CO gas occupies only 11.2 litre volume.
492. Weight of 4 L of N2 gas as N.T.P. is 2
(a) 56 g (b) 2.5 g One mole of molecule contain = NA molecule
(c) 5 g (d) 28 g = 6.02 ×1023 molecule
J & K CET-(2002)
1
Ans. (c) : We know that weight of 22.4 L of Nitrogen ∴ mole of CO contain = 3.01×1023 molecule of CO.
at NTP 2
= 28 g 496. 1.2 g of Mg (At mass 24) will produce MgO
∴ weight of 4 L of N2 gas at equal to
28 (a) 40 g (b) 4 g
NTP = ×4 = 5 g (c) 0.05 mol (d) 2 g
22.4
AMU–2001
493. Which has maximum molecules?
(a) 7 g N2 (b) 2 g H2 1
Mg + O 2 → MgO
(c) 16 g NO2 (d) 16 g O2 Ans. (c) : 2
NEET-2002 24 40
Ans. (b): 1 mole of any element contain 6.022 × 1023 24g of Mg produce MgO = 1 mol
number of molecules so 1× 1.2
(a) 28 g N2 = 1 mole of N2 ∴1.2 g mol Mg produce MgO
24
7 = 0.05 mol
7g N2 = = 0.25 mole
28 497. An aqueous solution contains 25% ethanol and
(d) 32 g O2 = 1 mole of O2 50% acetic acid by mass. Calculate the mole
16 fraction of acetic acid in this solution.
16 g O2 = = 0.5 mole
32 (a) 0.196 (b) 0.301
(b) 2g H2 = 1 mole of H2 (c) 0.392 (d) 0.503
(c) 46 g NO2 = 1 mole of NO2 J & K CET-(2001)
25 = 14 + 2 × 1 + 12 + 16 + 14 + 2 × 1 = 60
Ans. (b) : Mole of C2H5OH = = 0.54 moles
46 Active mass =
50 volume
Mole of CH3COOH = = 0.83
60 mass / molecular weight
=
% of H2O = 100 – (50 + 25) = 25 volume
25 120 / 60 2
∴ Mole of H2O = = 1.38 ∴ Active mass of urea = = = 0.40
18 5 5
Total number of moles = 0.54 + 0.83 + 1.39 = 2.76 501. 7.5 g of a gas occupies 5.6 L of volume at S.T.P.
∴ Mole fraction of acetic acid The gas is:
0.83 (a) NO (b) N2O
= = 0.301
2.76 (c) CO (d) CO2
498. 250 mL of a Na 2CO 3 solution contains 2.65 g AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2001
Ans. (a) : Given that, w = 7.5gm
of Na 2CO 3 ⋅ 10 mL of this solution is added to x
One mole of gas of S.T.P. = 22.4 litres.
mL of water to obtain 0.001 M So, 5.6 litres of gas at STP contains 0.25 moles
Na 2 CO 3 solution. The value of x is (molecular
Weight (grams)
weight of Na 2 CO3 = 106) Number of moles =
Molecular weight
(a) 1000 mL (b) 990 mL
(c) 9990 mL (d) 90 mL 7.5
or 0.25 =
UPTU/UPSEE-2012 M
Ans. (b) : 7.5
or M=
Molarity of the solution of 250 ml of a sodium 0.25
carbonate solution contains 2.65 gm of sodium or M=30
carbonate. Then, NO has 30 number of moles.
2.65g 502. How many moles of acidified FeSO4 can be
M1 = = 0.1000mol / L
105.98g / mol × 0.250L completely oxidised by one mole of KMnO4?
When 10 ml of above solution is added to x ml of water (a) 10 (b) 5
the molarity of the solution becomes 0.001 M volume of (c) 6 (d) 2
0.1000 M solution = v1 AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2001
Molarity of the solution on dilution = m2 Ans. (b) :When 1 mole of KMnO4 reacts with FeSO4
Volume of the new solution = v2 = 10 ml + x ml then
m1 × v1 = m2 × v2 2KMnO4 + 10FeSO4 + 8H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 +
0.1000 M × 10ml = 0.01 M × (10+x) ml 5Fe2 (SO4)3 + 8H2O
on solving we get : ∵2 moles of KMnO4 react = 10 moles of FeSO4
x = 990 ml Hence, 1 mole of KMnO4 = 5 moles of FeSO4
499. How many atoms of sulphur are present in 0.2 503. 50g of calcium carbonate was completely burnt
mole of sulphur (S8) molecule? in air. What is the weight (in grams) of the
(a) 9.64 × 1023 (b) 96.4 × 1023 residue? (Atomic weights of Ca, C and O are
23
(c) 1.205 × 10 (d) 12.05 × 1023 40, 12 and 16 respectively)
J & K CET-(2001) (a) 2.8 (b) 28
Ans. (a) : 1 mole of S8 molecule = 6.022×1023 moles (c) 4.4 (d) 44
0.2 mole of S8 molecules = 0.2× 6.022×1023 ∆
Ans. (b) : CaCO3 (s)  → CaO(s)+ CO 2 (g)
= 1.2044×1023 molecule
One molecule of S8 Contains 8 atoms of sulphur Molecular weight of CaCO3 = 100, CaO = 56 and CO2 =
Hence, the total number of atom in S8 44
= 8 × (1.2044 ×10 )
23 Q 100 gm of CaCO3 on burning provides residue = 56
23 gm of CaO
= 9.6352 × 10
56
500. 120 g of urea is present in 5 L of solution. The ∴ 50 gm of CaCO3 provides residue = × 50
active mass of urea is 100
(a) 0.06 (b) 0.2 = 28 gm
21
(c) 0.4 (d) 0.8 504. 10 molecules are removed from 200 mg of
UP CPMT-2001 CO 2 . The moles of CO 2 left are:
Ans. (c) : Given, mass of urea = 120 g, and (a) 2.84 ×10−3 (b) 28.4 ×10−3
−3
Volume of solution = 5 L (c) 284 ×10 (d) 28.4 ×103
Molecular mass of urea (NH2CONH2) AIIMS-2001

Ans. (a): Given mass = 200 mg = 0.2 g 98
=
= 1 moles
Molar mass of CO 2 = 44 g 98
Weight 0.2 1 1mole
Number of moles = = = Molarity = = 18.41 M
Mole weight 44 220 54.3ml × 1000
No. of molecules = 6.022 × 1023 × 1/220 508. The normality of orthophosphoric acid having
= 2.73 × 1021 purity of 70% by weight and specific gravity
21 1.54 is:
As 10 molecules are removed,
(a) 11 N (b) 22 N
Hence, No. of Molecules left = 2.73 × 1021 – 1021
(c) 33 N (d) 44 N
= 1.73 ×1021 AIIMS-2001
No. of moles = No. of molecules /Avogadro's number Ans. (c): Density of orthophosphoric acid (H3PO4) =
1.73 × 1021 specific gravity × density of water.
= Density of orthophosphoric acid = 1.54 × 0.998
6.23 × 1023
= 1.54 g/ml
= 2.88 × 10−3
Mass in 1000 ml = 1.54 × 1000 = 1540 g
505. The weight of NaCl decomposed by 4.9 g of Gram equivalent weight of orthophosphoric acid =
H2SO4, if 6g of sodium hydrogen sulphate and Molar mass 98
1.825 g of HCl, were produced in the reaction = = 32.66 g eq.
is: N − factor 3
(a) 6.921g (b) 4.65g orthophosphoric acid is only 70% pure so the weight of
70
(c) 2.925g (d) 1.4 g orthophosphoric acid = 1540 × = 1078g
AIIMS-2001 100
Number of gram equivalents of orthophosphoric acid
Ans. (c): NaCl(xg) + H2SO4(4.9g) → NaHSO4(6g) +
HCl (1.825g) 1078
= = 33
The law of conservation of mass states that in a 32.66
chemical reaction mass is neither created nor destroyed.
Normality =
( number of gram equivalents )
∴ Mass of the reactants = Mass of Products ( volumeof solution in L )
x + 4.9 = 6 + 1.825 g Normality = 33 N.
x = 2.925 g
509. 0.4 moles of HCl and 0.2 moles of CaCl2 were
506. Temperature does not affect: dissolved in water to have 500ml of solution,
(a) Molality (b) Formality the morality of Cl– ion is:
(c) Molarity (d) Normality (a) 0.8 M (b) 1.6 M
AIIMS-1997-2001 (c) 1.2 M (d) 10.0 M
Ans. (a): Since molality is defined in terms of the AIIMS-2000
solvent’s mass not its volume, the temperature does not Ans. (b): HCl  H + + Cl−
change the molality of a solution.
CaCl2  Ca 2+ + 2Cl −
Where as in case of formality molarity and normality 2×0.2 =0.4 moles
the concentration of solution is expressed in terms of Total moles of Cl− = 0.4 + 0.4 = 0.8 moles
volume which change with the change of temperature. Volume of solution of 500ml = 0.5 L
507. The molarity of 98% by weight H2SO4 solution, Molarity of Cl− = moles Cl− /volume of solution
which has a density 1.84 g/cc at 35º C is:
0.8
(a) 1.84 M (b) 18.4 M Molarity of Cl− = = 1.6 M
(c) 20.6 M (d) 24.5 M 0.5
AIIMS-2001 510. Number of molecules in one litre of water is
close to
Ans. (b): The solution contains 98% H 2SO 4 by weight/ (a) 55.5 × 6.023 × 1023
mass that means 100 gram of solutions 98 grams of (b) 18 × 6.023 × 1023
H 2SO 4 . (c) 18 ÷ 22.4 × 1023
Density is 1.84 gm/ml (cc = ml) (d) 1.8 × 1023
mass of thesolution J & K CET-(2000)
So, volume of the solution =
density of solution Ans. (a) : 1 L H2O = 1000 g
∴ 18 g of H2O = 6.023 × 1023 molecules
100gram
= = 54.34 ml 6.023×1023 ×1000
1.84 ∴ 1000 g of H2O =
weight of H 2SO 4 18
No. of moles of H 2SO 4 =
molar mass of H 2SO 4 = 55.5× 6.023×1023 molecules

511. 2.0 g of oxygen contains number of atoms equal 515. What is the number of moles of hydrogen
to that in atoms in 3.2 g of methane?
(a) 4.0 g of sulphur (b) 7.0 g of nitrogen (a) 0.2 (b) 0.4
(c) 0.5 g of hydrogen (d) 2.3 g of sodium (c) 0.8 (d) 2.0
J & K CET-(2000) J & K CET-(1999)
2 1 Ans. (c) : CH4
Ans. (a) : No. of moles in 2 g of oxygen = = mole (12 + 4) = 16 g
16 8
1 Q 16 g of CH4 Contains → 4 g of H
No. of atoms of oxygen = ×Ma atoms 4
8 ∴ 3.2 g CH4 Contains → ×3.2
4 1 16
No. of moles in 4g of sulphur = mole = 0.8 g H atoms.
32 8
516. The number of atoms in 4.25 g of NH3 is
1
No. of atom of sulphur = ×Ma atoms. approximately
8 (a) 4 × 1023 (b) 2 × 1023
Therefor, 4g of Sulphur Contain equal atoms 2g of (c) 1 × 10 23
(d) 6 × 1023
oxygen atoms. NEET-1999
512. Volume of CO2 obtained by the complete Ans. (d) : Given that,
decomposition of 9.85 g of BaCO3 is Weight of NH3 =4.25g
(a) 2.24 L (b) 1.12 L
Weight
(c) 0.84 L (d) 0.56 L Number of moles of NH3 =
NEET-2000 Molecular Weight
Ans. (b) : 4.25
= = 0.25mole
BaCO3  → BaO + CO 2 ↑ 17
1mole 1 mole mole Number of molecules in 0.25 moles of NH3
= 0.25×6.023×1023
Given weight 9.85
Moles = = So, number of atoms = 4×0.25×6.023×1023
molecular weight 197g / mol. = 6.023×1023
=0.05 mole ≈ 6 × 1023
At STP. 1 mole = 22.4 L
517. The normality of a solution obtained by mixing
0.05 mole = 22.4 × 0.05 L = 1.12 L 10 mL of N/5 HCI and 30mL of N/10HCI is:
513. The amount of zinc required to produce 224 N N
ml. of H2 at STP on treatment with dilute (a) (b)
H2SO4 will be 15 5
(a) 65 g (b) 0.065 g N N
(c) (d)
(c) 0.65 g (d) 6.5 g 7.5 8
NEET-1996 AIIMS-1999
Ans. (c) : When Zinc react with H2SO4 Ans. (d): N = M × n – factor
Zn + H2SO4→ ZnSO4 + H2  where N = Normality of mixture
1 mole of Zinc will react to give 1 moles of hydrogen NV = N1V1 + N 2 V2 
 V = Volume of mixture
Volume of 1 mole of hydrogen at STP = 22400 ml
1 1
65 × 224 NV = ×10 + × 30
1 mole of Zn = 65 grams = = 0.65g 5 10
22400
N × 40 = 2 + 3
0.65 grams of Zinc can react to give 224 ml of
hydrogen. 5
N=
514. 0.2 mole of sodium chloride is dissolved in 0.6 40
mole of water. The mole fraction of water in 1
N=
the solution is 8
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.33 518. The molar concentration of 20g of NaOH
(c) 0.67 (d) 0.75 present in 5 litre of solution is:
J & K CET-(1999) (a) 0.1 mols/litre (b) 0.2 mols/litre
Ans. (d) : Mole fraction of water (c) 1.0 mols/litre (d) 2.0 mols/litre
Moleof water AIIMS-1998
= Ans. (a) : Molar mass of NaOH : 39.997 g/mol
moleof sodiumchloride + moleof water
1mol NaOH
0.6 20g NaOH = 0.5 mol NaOH
= 39.997 g NaOH
0.2 + 0.6
Convert liters of H2O to kg
= 0.75
Density of H2O – 1g/ml → 1 kg/L m m 
1kg H 2 O PM =
v
RT  v = d ( density ) 
SL H2O  = 5kgH 2 O
1L H 2 O = dRT
.5mol PM
Molarity of NaOH = d=
5kg RT
m = 0.1 mols/liter 45
d=
519. Volume of a gas at NTP is 1.12×10−7 cc. The 0.0832× 273
number of molecule in it is: So, d = 2 gm/lit
(a) 3.01×1012 (b) 3.01×1018 522. When 6 volumes of oxygen undergoes complete
reaction to ozone, the number of moles of ozone
(c) 3.01×1024 (d) 3.01×1030 formed are
AIIMS-1998 (a) 6 (b) 3
Ans. (a): Given that, (c) 4 (d) 2
∴22400 cm3 of the gas at STP has molecules AP EAMCET- 1995
= 6.02 × 1023 Ans. (c) : 3O 2 → 2O3
∴ 1.12 × 10-7 cm3 of the gas at STP will have No. of moles of O3 produced by 3 moles of O2 = 2
molecules. No. of moles of O3 produced by 6 moles of
6.02 × 1023 2
= × 1.12 × 10−7 O2= × 6 = 4 mol.
22400 3
= 3.01 × 1012 molecules 523. The number of moles of AgCl precipitated
520.Which one of the following quantities of ionic when excess AgNO3 is mixed with one mole of
compounds contains greater number of ions? [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl, is
(a) 100 g NaCl (formula mass 58) (a) 0 (b) 1.0
(b) 100 g Na2O (formula mass 62) (c) 2.0 (d) 3.0
(c) 100 g K2O (formula mass 94) AMCET-1998, 1996
(d) 100 g Cal2 (formula mass 111) Ans. (b) : When excess AgNO3 is mixed with one mole
J & K CET-(1998) of [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl than one mole of AgCl precipitated.
Ans. (b) : In ionic compounds the formula of an ionic [Cr(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]Cl + AgNO3 →
compound represents the ratio between Constituent  Cr ( NH 3 ) 4 Cl2  NO 3 + Ag Cl-
ions.
The mass of 6.02 × 1023 formula unit reperesents one In this complex chloride ion form ionic isomerism and
mole of an ionic Compound. shows primary valency.
100 g NaCl (Formula mass 58) = 1.72 mol NaCl AgNO3 is added in excess then result precipitation will
= 2 × 1.72 × 6.023 × 1023 ions occur.
= 20.71 × 1023 ions 524. The number of molecules in 4.25 g of ammonia
100 g Na2O (formula mass 62) = 1.06 mol Na2O is approximately
= 3 × 1.61 × 6.023 × 1023 ions (a) 3.5 × 1023 (b) 0.5 × 1023
23
= 29.09 × 1023 ions (c) 2.5 × 10 (d) 1.5 × 1023
100 g K2O (formula mass 94) = 1.06 mol K2O AIIMS-1996
= 3 × 1.06 × 6.023 × 1023 ions Ans. (d): We know that 17 g of ammonia
= 19.15 × 1023 ions ( NH3 ) Contains 6.02 × 1023 molecules.
100 g CaCl2 (formula mass 111) = 0.90 mol CaCl2 Therefore number of molecules in 4.25 of
= 3 × 0.90× 6.023 × 1023 ions
6.02 × 1023 × 4.25
= 16.26 × 1023 ions NH 3 =
17
521. At STP, the density of a gas (molecular weight
45) is NH 3 = 1.50 × 1023
(a) 2 g/litres (b) 11.2 g/litres NH 3 = 1.5 × 10 23
(c) 22.4 g/litres (d) 26.6 g/litres 525. Avogadro’s number of oxygen atom weighs
J & K CET-(1997) (a) 32 g (b) 8 g
Ans. (a) : As we know that, (c) 56 g (d) 16 g
At STP, P = 1 atm T = 273 K AIIMS-1996
Ideal gas equation – Ans. (d): Avogadro’s number, number of units is one
PV = nRT mole of any substance (defined as its molecular weight
m is grams), equal to 6.023 × 1023.
= RT
M Weight of 6.023 × 1023 molecular of oxygen (O2) = 32g

Since the oxygen is diatomic, therefore weight of Ans. (d) : The number of moles of oxygen atom in
32 BaCO3 = 3
Avogadro’s number of oxygen atom = = 16 g
2 1
∴ 1.5 moles of oxygen atom in BaCO3 = × 1.5
526. The number of moles of water present in 180 3
gm of water is = 0.5 mole.
(a) 18 (b) 5
(c) 100 (d) 10 530. The number of moles of oxygen in one litre of
AIIMS-1996 air containing 21% oxygen by volume, under
standard conditions, is
Ans. (d): Given that, Molecular weight of water = 18
(a) 0.0093 mol (b) 2.10 mol
Mass
∴ No of moles of water = (c) 0.186 mol (d) 0.21 mol
Molecular mass NEET-1995
180 Ans. (a) : Volume of oxygen in 1L of air
= = 10 moles
18 21
× 1000 = 210mL
527. Which one of the following gases contains the 100
least number of molecules ? ∴ 22400 mL volume at STP is occupied by oxygen = 1
(a) 4.0 g laughing gas (b) 3.0 g phosphorus mole
(c) 2.0 g marsh gas (d) 10.0 g phosgene number of moles occupied by 210 mL
AP-EAMCET-1994 210
Ans. (a) : Mass of N2O = 44 = 0.0093mol.
22400
Mass of P = 31
531. In the reaction,
Mass of CH4 = 16
Mass of COCl2 = 99 4NH 3(g) + 5O 2(g) 
→ 4NO( g ) + 6H 2 O (i )
∴ Number of molecules in N2O when 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are
N N made to react to completion
= 4× = molecules (a) all the oxygen will be consumed
44 11
Number of molecules in 3 gm of (b) 1.0 mole of NO will be produced
(c) 1.0 mole of H2O is produced
N
P = 3× molecules (d) all the ammonia will be consumed
31 NEET-1998
Number of molecules in 2 gm of CH4
Ans. (a) :
N N 4NH3 + 5O2 →4NO + 6H2O
= 2× =
16 8 1 NH3 + 1.25O2 → 1NO +1.5 H2O
N When 1 mole of NH3 reacts with 1.25 moles of O2 it
Number of molecules in 10 gm COCl2 = 10 × produces 1 mole of NO and 1.5 moles of H2O. When
99
∴ 4 gm N2O (Laughing gas) contains least number of one mole of ammonia and one mole of oxygen are made
molecules. to react to completion, then all the oxygen is consumed.
528. The mole fraction of solute in 20% aqueous 532. Which of the gases contains the same number
H2O2 solution is of molecules as that of 16 g oxygen ?
(a) 0.588 (b) 0.444 (a) 16 g of O3 (b) 32 g of SO2
(c) 0.1168 (d) 4.44 (c) 16 g of SO2 (d) All of these
AP EAMCET- 1992 AP-EAMCET-1991
Ans. (c) : Given that, weight of O 2
Ans. (b) : Number of moles of O2 =
20% aqueous H2O2 M. weight of O 2
20 16
No. of moles of H2O2 = =0.588 = = 0.5 mole
34 32
80
No. of moles of H2O = = 4.44 32
18 Number of moles of 32 gm SO2 = = 0.5 mole
64
0.588 Hence, the 32 gm of SO2 moles equal to the 16 gm
∴ Mole fraction of H2O2= = 0.1168
0.588 + 4.44 of O2 moles.
529. The number of moles of barium carbonate 533. The number of gram molecules of oxygen is
which contains 1.5 moles of oxygen atoms is : 6.02 × 1024 CO molecules is
(a) 1.5 (b) 1 (a) 10 g molecules (b) 5 g molecules
(c) 2 (d) 0.5 (c) 1 g molecules (d) 0.5 g molecules
AP-EAMCET-1991 NEET-1990
Ans. (b) : No. of CO molecules = 6.022 × 1024 Hence, number of atoms of gas 'x' (diatomic)
Number of oxygen atoms = Number of CO molecules = = 3.01 × 1023× 2 atoms
24
6.022×10 = 6.02 × 1023 atoms.
1 537. The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4 g of CO2 is
Number of Oxygen molecule = × number of oxy
2 (a) 1.2 × 1023 (b) 6 × 1022
24 23
= 3.011×10 (c) 6 × 10 (d) 0.12 × 1023
Number of molecules of O2 molecules NEET-1989
No.of molecules 3.011× 1024 4.4
= = = 5g molecule Ans. (a) : Moles of CO2 = = 0.1moles
Avogadro 's No. 6.022 × 1023 44
(Note: mole also called gram-molecule) ∴ Number of molecules of CO2 = 0.1×6.022×1023
534. Boron has two stable isotopes, 10B(19%) and = 6.022 × 1022 molucules
11
B(81%). Calculate average at. wt. of boron in 1 molecule of CO2 contains 2 oxygen atoms.
the periodic table. ∴ Number of oxygen atoms = 2 × 6.022 × 1022
(a) 10.8 (b) 10.2 = 12.044 × 1022
(c) 11.2 (d) 10.2 = 1.2 × 1023 atoms
NEET-1990
538. 1 cc N2O at NTP contains
Ans. (a) : Average atomic weight
1.8
∑ % abundant × atomic mass (a) × 1022 atoms
= 224
100
6.02
19 × 10 + 81× 11 (b) × 1023 molecules
= =10.81 22400
100
1.32
535. When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with, 11.2 (c) × 1023 electrons
litres of Cl2(g), each at STP, the moles of HCl(g) 224
found is equal to (d) All of the above
(a) 1 mol of HCl(g) (b) 2 mol of HCl(g) NEET-1988
(c) 0.5 ml of HCl(g) (d) 1.5 mol of HCl(g) Ans. (d) : At NTP 22400 cc of N2O contains =
AIPMT-1990, AMU-2014 6.02×1023 molecules
Ans. (a) : H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) 6.02 ×1023
initial vol. 22.4 L 11.2L 2 mol ∴ 1 cc N2O will contain = molecules
22400
∴ 22.4 L volume of STP is occupied by Cl2 = 1 mole
In N2O molecule, number of atoms = 2 + 1 = 3
∴ 11.2 L volume will be occupied by Cl2 =
1×11.2 3 × 6.02 × 1023
mole = 0.5 mol Thus, the number of atoms = atoms
22.4 22400
22.4 L volume of STP is occupied by H2= 1mol 1.8 ×1022
= atoms
Thus, H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) 224
1 mol 0.5 mol In an N2O molecule, the number of electrons = 7 + 7 +
Since, Cl2 possesses minimum number of moles, 8 = 22
thus it is the limiting reagent.
6.02 ×1023
As per equation, Hence, the number of electrons, = × 22
1 mole of Cl2 = 2mol of HCl 22400
∴ 0.5 mole of Cl2 = 2 × 0.5 mole of HCl 1.32 ×1023
= electrons.
= 1.0 mole of HCl 224
536. Ratio of CP and Cv of a gas 'X' is 1.4. The 539. At STP the density of CCl4 vapour of g/L will
number of atoms of the gas 'X' present in 11.2 be nearest to
litres of it at NTP will be (a) 6.87 (b) 3.42
(a) 6.02 × 1023 (b) 1.2 × 1023 (c) 10.26 (d) 4.57
23
(c) 3.01 × 10 (d) 2.01 × 1023 NEET-1988
NEET-1989
Ans. (a) : We know that, mass of C = 12g, Cl = 35.5 g
Ans. (a) : Ratio of Cp/Cv = 1:4
1 mole CCl4 vapours = 12 + 4 × 35.5
The gas is diatomic
= 154g
At NTP, volume of 1 mole of a gas = 22.4 L
At STP, volume of 1 mole of gas = 22.4 L
At NTP 22.4 L contains = 6.023 × 1023 molecules Thus, 154g = 22.4 L
6.023 ×1023 × 11.2 154 −1
At NTP 11.2 L contains = ∴ Density of CCl4 vapours = gL
2 22.4
= 3.01 × 1023 molecules = 6.87 g L–1

540. Sodium bicarbonate on heating decomposes to Ans. (b) :
from sodium carbonate, CO2 and water. If 0.2 CaCO3 (s) + 2HCl (aq) → CaCl2 (aq) + H 2 O(l ) + CO 2 (g)
moles of sodium bicarbonate is completely
decomposed how many moles of sodium 1mol 2mol 1mol
carbonate is formed? 100g 73g 44g
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 Let CaCO3(s) be completely consumed in the reaction.
(c) 0.05 (d) 0.025 ∴ 100g CaCO3 give 44g CO2
UPSEE/UPTU 2012 44
Ans. (a) : In this reaction – ∴ 20 g CaCO3 will give × 20g CO 2 = 8.8g CO2
100
544. The complete combustion of one mole of
2 mole of sodium bicarbonate ( NaHCO3 ) benzene produces _______ grams of carbon
dioxide.
Form 1 mole of sodium carbonate ( Na 2 CO3 ) (a) 164 (b) 220
1 (c) 264 (d) 308
Then, for 0.2 mole of Na 2 CO3 = × 0.2 AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-II
2
= 0.1 mole of Na 2 CO3 Ans. (c): Combustion reaction of benzene to carbon
dioxide is-
Hence according to the given balanced reaction 0.1
15
moles of sodium Carbonate is formed. C6H6 + O 2 ( g )  → 6CO 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 O ( g )
2
Find grams of carbon dioxide.
4. Laws of Chemical Combinations
weight
∴ mole =
541. Among the following pairs of compounds, the moleculor weight
one that does not illustrate the law of multiple weight
proportions, is 6=
(a) NO and NO2 (b) CuO and Cu2O 44
Weight = 44 × 6 = 264 gm
(c) FeO and Fe2O3 (d) H2O and H2S
So, 1 mole of benzene produces 264 gm of
(e) NO and N2O carbon dioxide.
Kerala CEE -03.07.2022
545. From the given reactions identify the
Ans. (d) : Law of multiple proportion- it state that when disproportionation reaction
two elements combine to form more than one
compound, the weight of one element that combines (i) Cl2(g) + 2 Kl(aq)  → 2KCl(aq) + I2(s)
with a fixed weight of the other is in the ratio of small (ii) Cl2(g) + 2OH (aq)  –
→ ClO–(aq) + Cl–
whole numbers. (aq) + H2O (l)
Here, in option (b), hydrogen is present in both (iii) Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq)  → MgCl2(aq) +
compounds but oxygen is present in the first compound H2(g)
and sulphur is present in second compound. Hence, this
pair cannot illustrate the law of multiple proportion. (iv) 2H2O2 (aq)  → 2H2O(l) + O2(g)
542. Calculate the amount of hydrogen gas required (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iv)
in order to produce 100g of ammonia by the (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii)
reaction of N2(g) and H2(g) gases. TS EAMCET 05.08.2021, Shift-I
(a) 35.29 g (b) 17.65 g Ans. (b) : A disproportionation reaction is a redox
(c) 28.11g (d) 34 g reaction in which one species is simultaneously
AP EAPCET 24.08.2021 Shift-II oxidized and reduced.
Ans. (b) : Given, NH3 Produce 100 gm.
N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) 
→ 2NH 3
So, the number of moles of
Weight
NH3 =
Molecular weight
100
n NH 3 =
17
n NH 3 = 5.88 mole. 546. In which one of the following sets all species
show disproportionation reaction
So, the amount of hydrogen gas 2−
Required is = 3 × 5.88 = 17. 65 gm. (a) ClO 2– , F2 , MnO 2–
4 and Cr2 O 7
543. When 20 g of CaCO3 is treated with 20g of HCl (b) Cr2 O72− ,MnO −4 ,ClO −2 and Cl2
the mass of CO2 formed would be –––
(c) MnO−4 , ClO −2 ,Cl 2 and Mn 3+
(a) 10 g (b) 8.8 g
(c) 22.2 g (d) 20 g (d) ClO −4 , MnO42− ,ClO2− and F2
AP EAPCET 19-08-2021 Shift-I (JEE Main 2021, 31 Aug Shift-II)
Ans. (c) : No option contains all species that show Ans. (c) :
disproportionation reaction. Option (a)- C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3ΧΟ2(g) + 4Η2Ο (l)
MnO −4 , ClO −4 , Cr2 O72− − Cl, Mn,Cr in these anions are (1×36gm) + (1×8gm) = 5×32gm
present in highest oxidation state. These will not 36+8=160
undergo disproportionation. Mn is in +7 oxidation state 160
(highest) hence cannot be simultaneously oxidized or 1gm = = 3.63gm
44
reduced.
Each 1g of C3H8 requires 3.63 g of O2
547. 250 mL of 0.5 M NaOH was added to 500 mL
Option (b)- P4(S) + 5O2(g)→P4O10(s)
of 1M HCl. The number of unreached HCl
molecules in the solution after complete 4×31gm = 5×32 gm
reaction is……x 1021. (Nearest integer) 5 × 32
1gm = =1.29gm
( N A = 6.022 ×10 23 ) 4 × 31
Each 1g of p requires 1.29 g of O2.
[JEE Main 2021, 20 July Shift-I]
Option (c)- 4Fe(s)+ 3O2(g)→2Fe2O3(s):
Ans. (226) : Number of moles = VL × molarity
4×56gm = 3×32 gm
and number of millimoles = VmL ×molarity millimoles
3 × 32
of NaOH = 250 × 0.5 = 125 1gm = = 0.428gm
Millimoles of HCl = 500 × 1 = 500 4 × 56
Each 1g of Fe requires 0.428 g of O2
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
At t = 0, 125 500 0 0 Option (d)- 2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s)
At t = t, 0 375 125 125 2×24gm = 1×32gm
So, millimoles of HCl left = 375 1× 32
1gm = = 0.67 gm
Moles of HCl = 375 × 10–3 2 × 24
Number of HCl molecules = Avogadro's constant (NA) Each 1g of Mg requires 0.67 of O2.
× moles of HCl 550. 25 g of an unknown hydrocarbon upon burning
= 6.022 × 1023 × 375 × 10–3 produces 88 g of CO2 and 9 g of H2O. This
= 225.8 × 1021 = 226 × 1021 unknown hydrocarbon contains
Therefore, answer is 226×1021 molecules (a) 20 g of carbon and 5 g of hydrogen
548. When 30 mL of H2 reacts with 20 mL of O2 to (b) 22 g of carbon and 3 g of hydrogen
form water, what is leftover when the reaction (c) 24 g of carbon and 1 g of hydrogen
ends ? (d) 18 g of carbon and 7 g of hydrogen
(a) 10 mL H2 (b) 5 mL H2 [JEE Main 2019, 12 April Shift-II]
(c) 10 mL O2 (d) 5 mL O2 Ans. (c): Let the hydrocarbon is CxHy.
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.9.2020 Shift-I y
CxHy + O2  → xCO 2 + H 2O
Ans. (d) : Given , 2H 2 (g)+ O 2 (g) → 2H 2 O(g) 2
2 vol. 1vol.
( t = 0) Given 88
× 12
30 mL 20 mL
( Limiting ) The weight of Carbon =
44
= 24g
9
The weight of hydrogen = ×1
18
= 24g
(t = ∝) after r × h: 30 – 30 (20 – 15) mL  y y
=0 = 5 mL C x H y +  x +  O 2 → xCO 2 + H 2 O
 4 2
Here, H2 is the limiting reactant. So, 30 mL H2
25
consumes 15 mL of O2 as H2 and O2 react in 2 : 1 C = x× = 2
volume ratio (at constant pressure and temperature). M
549. The minimum amount of O2 (g) consumed per y 25
H = × =1
gram of reactant is for the reaction (Given 2 M
atomic mass : Fe = 56, O = 16, Mg = 24, P = 31,) ⇒ 24:1 ratio by mass
C =12, H = 1)
551. An example of a disproportionation reaction is
(a) C3 H8 (g) + 5O 2 (g) → 3CO 2 (g) + 4H 2 O(l )
(a) 2MnO −4 + 10I− + 16H + → 2Mn 2+ + 5I 2 + 8H 2 O
(b) P4 (s) + 5O 2 (g) → P4 O10 (s)
(b) 2NaBr + Cl2 → 2NaCl + Br2
(c) 4Fe(s) + 3O 2 (g) → 2Fe2 O3 (s)
(c) 2KMnO4 → K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2
(d) 2Mg(s) + O 2 (g) → 2MgO(s) (d) 2CuBr → CuBr2 + Cu
[JEE Main 2019, 10 April Shift-II] [JEE Main 2019, 12 April Shift-I]
Ans. (d): 553. Which of the following sets of components
form homogeneous mixture?
(a) Phenol + Water
(b) Sugar + Benzene
(c) Silver chloride + Water
In this reaction manganese is getting reduced. (d) Ethyl alcohol + water
So, this reaction is not a disproportionation reaction MHT CET-02.05.2019, SHIFT-III
(b) 2 NaBr + Cl2  → 2NaCl + Br2 Ans. (d) : We know that these two are different
Oxidation +1 +1 compounds and phenol is only partially soluble in
state water. So the composition would not be uniform
This is just an example of a displacement throughout the mixture making phenol water a
reaction not a disproportionation reaction. heterogenous system.
(c) 2 KMnO4  → K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2 554. Which one of the following statements about
Oxidation +7 +6 +4 the law of conservation of mass is correct?
state (a) A given compound always contains exactly
This indicate manganese is only getting same proportion of elements
reduced. So, this reaction is not a disproportionation (b) When gases combine in a reaction, they do so
reaction.
in a simple ratio by volume, provided all
(d) 2 CuBr  → CuBr2 + Cu gases are all room temperature
Oxidation +1 +2 0 (c) Matter can neither be created nor destroyed
state (d) Equal volumes of all gases at same
In this reaction copper is getting both oxidized temperature and pressure contain equal
as well as reduced Therefore, this reaction is an
example of a dioproportionation reaction. number of molecules
552. For a reaction, NDA (II)-2018
N2(g)+3H2(g)→2NH3(g), Ans. (c) : According to law of conservation of mass,
identify di-hydrogen (H2) as a limiting reagent 'Matter can neither be created nor be destroyed' in
in the following reaction mixture. chemical reactions.
(a) 56 g of N2 + 10 g of H2 555. Volume of water needed to mix with 10 mL
(b) 35 g of N2 + 8 g of H2 10N HNO3 to get 0.1N HNO3 is
(c) 14 g of N2 + 4 g of H2 (a) 1000mL (b) 990mL
(d) 28 g of N2 + 6 g of H2 (c) 1010mL (d) 10mL
[JEE Main 2019, 9 April Shift-I]
AIIMS-2017
Ans. (a) :
Ans. (b): Given, N1 = 10 N, V1 = mL, N2 = 0.1 N and
N 2 (g)+ 3H 2 (g) 
→ 2NH3 (g) ............(i) V2 = ?
2×14g 3×2g 2(14+ 3) By law of conservation
28g 6g 34g
28g N2 requires 6g H2 gas. N 1V 1 = N 2V 2
10 × 10 = 0.1 (10 + V)
6g
56g of N2 requires × 56g = 12g of H 2 10 ×10
28g V= − 10 = 1000 − 10 = 990 mL
12g of H2 gas is required for 56g of N2 gas but only 10g 0.1
of H2 gas is present in option (a). 556. The proposition 'equal volumes of different
Hence, H2 gas is the limiting reagent gases contain equal numbers of molecules at
(b) 35g of N2 + 8g of H2. the same temperature and pressure' is known
28g N2 required 6g of H2 as
6g (a) Avogadro's hypothesis
35g N2 required × 35g H 2
28g (b) Gay-Lussac's hypothesis
⇒ 7.5g of H2 (c) Planck's hypothesis
Here, H2 gas does not act as limiting reagent since 7.5g (d) Kirchhoff's theory
of H2 is present in reaction mixture similarly, in option NDA (II)-2017
(c) and (d), H2 doesnot act as limiting reagent. Ans. (a) : Avogadro’s hypothesis state that equal
For 14g of N2 + 4g of H2. volume of different gases contain equal number of
28g of N2 reacts will 6g of H2. molecules at the same temperature and pressure.
6 557. On combustion of x-g of ethanol in bomb
14g of N2 reacts with × 14g of H 2 ⇒3g of H2
28 calorimeter, y-joules of heat energy is
For 28g of N2 + 6g or H2, produced. The heat of combustion of ethanol
i.e. 28g of N2 reacts with 6g of H2. ( ∆H comb ) is–

(a) ∆H comb = − x.J Ans. (b) Two volume of Ammonia (NH3) formed when
(b) ∆H comb = − yJ combination of one volume of nitrogen with three
volumes of hydrogen takes place.
x
(c) ∆H comb = − × 44 Jmol−1 N 2 + 3H 2 Fe / Mo
(200 atm)
→ 2NH 3 + Heat
y (1volume) (3Volume) Ammonia
(2 volume)
y
(d) ∆H comb = − × 44 Jmol−1 561. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
x answer using the code given below the Lists:
BCECE-2017
List-I List-II
Ans. (d) Mass of ethanol = y g Process Type of change
Heat product = yJ A. Heating of Camphor 1. Chemical
1 B. Cooling of water 2. Evaporation
CH3CHO + O 2 → 2CO2 + 2H2O
2 vapour upto room
Molar mass of CH3CHO = (12 + 3 + 12 + 1 + 16) g temperature
= 44g
C. Cooking an egg 3. Condensation
∴ 1 mole - 44g ethanol
D. Formation of water 4. Sublimation
yg produes yJ heat
vapour at room
y
∴ 44g produes × 44J temperature
x Code:
Also, this is exotherimic reaction as heat is produed
A B C D
−44y
∴ ∆H (Combustion ) = J / mole. (a) 4 3 1 2
X (b) 4 1 3 2
558. When 'Z' grams of calcium carbonate (c) 2 1 3 4
completely burnt in air gives 28g of a solid (d) 2 3 1 4
compound. The mass of calcium carbonate
used will be– NDA (II)-2016
(a) 200 g (b) 100 g Ans. (a) :
(c) 56 g (d) 50 g List I List II
BCECE-2017 Process Type of change
Ans. (d) : CaCO3   → heat CaO + CO2 A. Heating of camphor Sublimation
1 mole CaCO3 produces 1 mole CaO molar mass CaO = B. Cooling of water Condensation
40g + 16 g = 56 g/mol vapour upto room
28g CaO = 28g/56g/mol = 0.5 mol CaO temperature
Molar mass CaCO3 = 40 + 12 + 16 × 3 = 100 g/mol
C. Cooking an egg Chemical
Mass of 0.5 Mol CaCO3 = 100 × 0.5 mol = 50 g CaCO3
was burnt. D. Formation of water Evaporation
559. Calculate the mass of oxygen obtained by vapour at room
complete decomposition of 10 kg of pure temperature
potassium chlorate. (Atomic mass : K = 39, O = 562. 25 mL of a solution of barium hydroxide on
16 and C1 = 35.5) titration with a 0.1 molar solution of
(a) 39.2 kg (b) 392 kg hydrochloric acid gave a titre value of 35 mL.
(c) 3.92 kg (d) 3 kg The molarity of barium hydroxide solution was
SRMJEEE – 2016 (a) 0.07 M (b) 0.14 M
Ans. (c) : The following reaction take place : (c) 0.28 M (d) 0.35 M
2KClO3  → 2KCl + 3O2 SRMJEEE – 2014
potassium chlorate– KClO3 Ans. (a) : The reaction is :
Q 2 moles of KClO3 form 3 moles of O2. Ba(OH)2 + 2HCl (aq.)  → BaCl2 + 2H2O (l)
∴ 2 × 122.5g of KClO3 form 3 × 32g of O2. Given – M1 = ? M2 = 0.1M
3 × 32 V1 = 25 mL V2 = 35 mL
∴ 10 × 103g of KClO3 form ×10 ×103 From the molarity equation :-
2 ×122 ⋅ 5 M 1V 1 = M 2V 2
= 3.92 kg
M V 0.1× 35
560. Combination of one volume of nitrogen with M1 = 2 2 = = 0.14M
three volumes of hydrogen produces V1 25
(a) one volume of ammonia M1
(b) two volumes of ammonia ∴ Molarity of Ba(OH)2 =
Acidity of Ba(OH)2
(c) three volumes of ammonia
(d) one and a half volumes of ammonia 0.14
∴ Molarity of Ba(OH)2 = = 0.07M
NDA (II)-2016 2
563. The formation of CO and CO2 illustrates the +3 −1 +5
law of 3ClO −2 
→ Cl− + 2ClO −41
(a) reciprocal proportion ClO3− (chlorate ion):
(b) conservation of mass −1
+5 +7
(c) multiple proportion 3ClO −2 
→ Cl− + 4ClO −41
(d) constant composition
BITSAT 2014 ClO −4 does not disproportionate because in this oxo
Ans. (c) :Law of multiple proportions states that if two anion chlorine is present in its highest oxidation state
element can combine to form more than one compound (+7).
with each other, the masses of one element that combine 567. K2Cr2O7 + xKCl + 6H2SO4 × yCrO2Cl2 +
with a fixed mass of the other element are in ratios of 6KHSO4 + zH2O, x, y and z are respectively
small whole numbers. (a) 4, 2, 3 (b) 6, 2, 6
Example - (c) 8, 2, 4 (d) 4, 1, 6
Ratio of O to Cin corbon dioxide 2.66 SRMJEEE – 2012
= = 2 :1
Ratio of O toCin corbon monoxide 1.33 Ans. (a) : The given equation is :
564. An aqueous solution of 6.3 g of oxalic acid K2Cr2O7 + xKCl + 6H2SO4  → y CrO2Cl2
dihydrate is made up to 250 mL. The volume of + 6KHSO4 + zH2O
0.1 N NaOH required to completely neutralise We find the moles i.e. x, y and z.
10 mL of this solution is
Firstly, count the specific atom both the side and
(a) 20 mL (b) 40 mL
balanced on the basis of the number of atom.
(c) 10 mL (d) 4 mL
Hence, the balanced chemical reaction will be.
AIIMS-2013
Ans. (b): As we know, K2Cr2O7 + 4KCl + 6H2SO4  → 2CrO2Cl2
n- factor for H2C2O4.2H2O = 2 + 6KHSO4 + 3H2O
weight × 2 ×1000 6.3 × 2000 568. Equal volumes of 1 M HCl and 1 M H2SO4 are
Normality = = = 0.4 neutralised by dil. NaOH solution separately.
molecular weight × 250 126 × 250 If X kcal and Y kcal of heat are liberated
N 1V 2 = N 2V 2 respectively, then which of the following
0.4 × 10 = V2 × 0.1 ⇒ Volume (V2) = 40 mL. relation is correct?
565. Which one of the following is an example of 1
disproportionation reaction? (a) X=Y (b) X = Y
2
(a) 3Cl ( g) + 6OH− ( aq) 
→ClO− ( aq) + 5Cl− ( aq)
2 3 1
(c) X=2Y (d) X = Y
+3H2O( l ) 3
(b) Ag 2+
( aq ) + Ag ( s ) 
→ 2Ag ( aq )
+
CG PET -2019
Ans. (b) : Since H2SO4 give 2 moles H+, HCl gives 1
(c) Zn ( s ) + CuSO4 ( aq) 
→Cu ( s) + ZnSO4 ( aq) mole H+ from 1 mole after ionisation. Hence, H2SO4
(d) 2KClO3 ( s )  → 2KCl ( s ) + 3O 2 ( g ) will release double amount of heat as compared to HCl.
Y
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) 2013 i.e. y = 2X or X =
Ans. (a) : Those reaction in which a compound 2
undergoes oxidation as well as reduction is known as 569. If Avogadro number NA, is changed from 6.022
disproportionation reaction. × 1023 mol–1 to 6.022 × 1020 mol–1, this would
change
(a) the mass of one mole of carbon
(b) the ratio of chemical species to each other in a
balanced equation.
566. Which of the following species do not show (c) the ratio of elements to each other in a
disproportination on reaction? compound
ClO − ,ClO 2− ,ClO3− (d) the definition of mass in units of grams.
NEET-2012
(a) ClO 4− (b) ClO3−
Ans. (a) :
(c) ClO − (d) None of these Mass of 1 mole (6.022×1023) atoms of carbon = 12 g
JIPMER-2013 If Avogadro Number (NA) is changed than mass of 1
Ans. (a) : mol (6.022×1020 atom) of carbon
+1 −1 +5 12 × 6.022 ×1020
→ 2Cl + ClO3−
3ClO  = =12 × 10−3 g
6.022 ×1023
ClO −2 (chlorite ion): Therefore, Mass of 1 mol of carbon is changed.

570. KMnO4 reacts with oxalic acid according to the Ans. (a) : The given reaction is :
equation: l(FeO⋅Cr2O3) + mNa2CO3 + nO2  → xNa2CrO4 +
2MnO4– + 5C2O 42– + 16H + → 2Mn 2+ + 10CO 2 yFe2O3 + zCO2
+8H 2O after balancing the equation we get –
Here 20 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 is equivalent to: l = 4, m = 8, n = 7, x = 8, y = 2 and z = 8
(a) 20mL of 0.5M H 2 C2 O 4 ∴ 4(FeO. Cr2O3) + 8Na2CO3 + 7O2  → 8Na2CrO4 +
2Fe2O3 + 8CO2
(b) 50mLof 0.5M H 2 C 2O 4
573. The product of atomic weight and specific heat
(c) 50mL of 0.1M H 2 C2 O 4 of any element is a constant, approximately 6.4.
(d) 20mL of 0.1M H 2 C2 O 4 This is known as :
(a) Dalton's law (b) Avogadro's law
AIIMS-2013
(c) Newton's law (d) Dulong Pettit law
Ans. (c): BITSAT-2011
2MnO 4− + 5C 2 O 42− + 16H +  → 2Mn 2+ + 10CO 2 + 8H 2 O Ans. (d) : According to Dulong and Pettit's law Atomic
At NTP weight × Specific heat = 6.4 (approx)
Q 2 × 22.4 L reacts with 5×22.4 L of oxalic acid. This law is applicable only to solid elements but it fails
∴ 20 ml of 0.1 KMnO4 reacts with oxalic acid, to explain very high specific heat of diamond.
5 × 22.4 × 20 574. 0.14 g of an element on combustion gives 0.28
= = 50 ml gm of its oxide. What is that element?
2 × 22.4
(a) Nitrogen (b) Carbon
So, the correct option is 50 ml of 0.1 M oxalic acid.
(c) Fluorine (d) Sulphur
571. The volume of 0.1 M oxalic acid that can be AP- EAMCET(Medical) -2010
completely oxidized by 20 mL of 0.025 M
KMnO4 solution is Ans. (d): The formula used to calculate the equivalent
weight of an element in its oxide :
(a) 25 mL (b) 12.5 mL
wt. of element
(c) 37.5 mL (d) 125 mL The equivalent weight of element = ×
Karnataka-CET-2012 wt. of oxygen
Ans. (b) : equivalent wt. of O atom.
2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 + 5H2C2O4 → K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + The equivalent wt. of O atom = 16 = 8g
8H2O + 10CO2 2
nB weight of element
Q Molarity = ×1000 Equivalent weight of element = ×8
Vml weight of oxygen
n 0.14
∴ 0.025 = B × 1000 = ×8
Vml 0.28 − 0.14
= 1× 8
0.025
∴ nB = = 5 × 10−4 of KMnO 4 = 8 amu
50 Also, by the balanced reaction:
2 moles of KMnO4 completely oxidizes 5 moles of
oxalic acid. S + O 2  → SO 2
∴ 5×10 mol of KMnO4 will completely
–4 Valency of sulphur = 4
5 32
oxidize = × 5 × 10−4 mol of oxalic acid Equivalent weight of sulphur = amu = 8 amu
2 4
= 1.25 × 10−3 mol of oxalic acid So, the element is sulphur.
n 575. How many ‘mL’ of perhydrol is required to
Q Molarity = B × 1000 produce sufficient oxygen which can be used to
Vml
completely convert 2 L of SO2 Gas to SO3 gas?
nB 1.25× 10−3 (a) 10 mL (b) 5 mL
∴ Vml = × 1000 = × 1000 (c) 20 mL (d) 30 mL
molarity 0.1
=12.5mL AP EAMCET (Engg.)-2009
VITEEE- 2009
572. l(FeO⋅Cr2O3) + mNa2CO3 + nO2 × xNa2CrO4 + Ans. (a): Perhydrol means 30% solution of H2O2.
yFe2O3 + zCO2 H2O2 decomposes as
l, m, n, x, y and z respectively are 2H2O2→2H2O+ O2
(a) 4, 8, 7, 8, 2 and 8 (b) 4, 8, 7, 8, 8 and 2 Volume strength of 30% H2O2 solution is 100 that mean
(c) 8, 8, 8, 2, 4 and 7 (d) 2, 4, 7, 8, 8 and 8 1 mL of this solution on decomposition gives 100 mL
SRMJEEE – 2011 oxygen.
1 Ans. (d) : According to the law of multiple proportions
SO 2 + O 2  → SO3 that if two element combine to form more than one
2 compound, the fixed amount of one element combining
1 with other element have simple whole number ratio.
1L L 1L
2 (i) H2S and SO2 are not example of law of multiple
2L 1L 2L proportion because elements are different
Since, 100 mL of oxygen is obtained by 1 mL of H2O2 (ii) NH3 and NO2 are not examples of law of multiple
∴ 1000 mL of oxygen will be obtained by proportion because elements are different
(iii) Na2S and Na2O are not NO here 16 parts of oxygen
1
= × 1000 mL of H 2 O 2 react with 14 and 28 parts of nitrogen. 14:28 is 1:2
100 which is simple whole number ratio.
=10 mL of H 2 O 2 ∴ It follows law of multiple proportion.
576. Which of the following processes involves 581. What is the volume (in L) of oxygen required at
absorption of energy? STP to completely convert 1.5 moles of sulphur
(a) Cl + e−  → Cl− (b) O− + e− → O2 − into sulphur dioxide ?
− − − (a) 11.2 (b) 22.4
(c) O + e  →O (d) S + e  → S−
(c) 33.6 (d) 44.8
BCECE-2009
AP-EAMCET-2004
Ans. (b) : Processes (a), (c) and (d) represent EA1 of the
atoms which is their natural tendency and hence energy Ans. (c) : The reaction is S + O2 → SO2
32gm 32gm
is evolved. But (b) process is EA2 of O atom and
involves absorption of energy. Q 1 mole of sulphur required = 22.4 L of O2 at
O− to O–2 because of interelectronic repulsion, it will STP
require energy to add an electron to its outermost shell. ∴ 1.5 moles of S required = 22.4 × 1.5
577. Gram molecular volume of oxygen at STP is = 33.6 L of O2.
(a) 3200 cm3 (b) 5600 cm3 582. What is the volume (in litres) of oxygen at STP
3
(c) 22400 cm (d) 11200 cm3 required for complete combustion of 32 g of
Karnataka-CET-2007 CH4? (Molecular weight of CH4 is 16.)
Ans. (c) : Gram molecular volume of oxygen at STP is (a) 44.8 (b) 89.6
GMV = 22.4 litre = 22.4 (c) 22.4 (d) 179.2
∴GMV = 22400 cm3. AP-EAMCET-2001
578. Dalton’s law of partial pressure is applicable CH 4 + 2O 2 → CO 2 + 2H 2 O
to which one of the following system? Ans. (b) :
16 2 × 22.4L
(a) NH3 + HCl (b) NO + O2
∴ Volume of O2 required for 32 g CH4 is = 2 × 22.4 L
(c) H2 + Cl2 (d) CO + H2
and volume of O2 required for 32 g CH4 is
Karnataka-CET-2007
2 × 22.4
Ans. (d) : According to this law the total pressure × 32
exerted by mixture of non-reactive gases at a particular 16
temperature & given volume of container in equal to = 89.6 L
summation of partial pressure of all gases. e.g. CO + H2 583. How many moles of potassium chlorate should
are non-reacting gases. Hence, Dalton’s law of partial be decomposed completely to obtain 67.2 L of
pressure is applicable to this system. oxygen at NTP ?
579. x grams of calcium carbonate was completely (a) 3 (b) 4
burnt in air. The weight of the solid residue (c) 1 (d) 2
formed is 28 g. What is the value of x (in
grams)? AP-EAMCET-1999
(a) 44 (b) 200 Ans. (d) : 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O 2
2 mol 3×22.4
(c) 150 (d) 50 67.2L
AP-EAMCET-2005 Q 3×22.4 L of O2 required to 2 mole of KClO3
∆
Ans. (d) : CaCO3  → CaO(s) + CO 2 (g) ∴ For obtaining 67.2 L of O2, number of moles of
56 g o CaO is formed form 100 g of CaCO3 2
28g will be formed KClO3 required = × 67.2 = 2 mol.
3 × 22.4
28 × 100
= = 50g 584. How much litres of CO2 at STP will be formed
56 when 100 mL of 0.1M H2SO4 reacts with excess
580. Law of multiple proportions is illustrated by of Na2CO3?
one of the following pairs: (a) 22.4 (b) 2.24
(a) H2S and SO2 (b) NH3 and NO2 (c) 0.224 (d) 5.6
(c) Na2S and Na2O (d) N2O and NO AP-EAMCET-1998
JCECE - 2005
Ans. (c) : H 2SO 4 + Na 2 CO3 → CO 2 + Na 2SO 4 + H 2 O N 3− ion = 16
1mol 22.4L
100mL ? Total number of electrons in 0.1 mole,
1 mole of sulfuric acid will produce 1 mole (22.42 at 4.2g of N 3− ion = 0.1 × 16 × ΝΑ = 1.6 NA
STP) of carbon dioxide. 588. A compound X on heating gives a colourless
100 ml of 0.1 M H2SO4 = 10 million mole of H2SO4 gas. The residue is dissolved in water to obtain
= 10 × 10–3 Y. Excess CO2 is passed through aqueous
= 10–2 moles of H2SO4 solution of Y when Z is formed. Z on gentle
Q 1 mole of H2SO4 liberate CO2 = 22.4 L heating gives back X. the compound X is
∴ 10–2 moles of H2SO4 liberates CO2 (a) Ca(HCO3)2 (b) CaCO3
= 22.4 × 10–2 (c) NaHCO3 (d) Na2 CO3
= 0.224 L VITEEE 2015
Thus, 0.01 mole of sulfuric acid will produce 0.01 mole Ans. (b) :
(0.224 L at STP) of CO2.
585. KMnO4 oxidizes oxalic acid in acid medium.
The number of CO2 molecules produced as per
the balanced equation is:
(a) 10 (b) 8
(c) 6 (d) 3
AP EAMCET (Medical) -1998
Ans. (a): When potassium permanganate (KMnO4)
oxidize the oxalic acid then following reaction take
place during the reaction– CaCO3 on heating gives a colourless gas CO2 and CaO
2KMnO 4 + 3H 2SO 4 + 5H 2 C 2 O 4  → K 2SO 4 + as the residue. CaO with water will form Ca(OH)2 and
when treated with excess CO2 will given Ca(OH3)2
2MnSO 4 + 10CO 2 + 8H 2 O. which on heating gives back CaCO3
In a balanced chemical equation of oxidation of oxalic
acid by KMnO4 in acidic medium evolve 10 molecules 5. Percentage Composition and
of CO2.
586. The volume in litres of CO2 liberated at STP
Molecular Formula
when 10 g of 90% pure lime stone is heated
completely is: 589. 0.2 g of an organic compound was subjected to
(a) 2.016 (b) 20.16 estimation of nitrogen by Duma’s method in
which volume of N2 evolved (at STP) was found
(c) 2.24 (d) 22.4
to be 22.400 mL. The percentage of nitrogen in
AP EAMCET (Medical) -1998 the compound is_____. [nearest integer]
AP-EAMCET-1996 (Given : Molar mass of N2 is 28 g mol–1, Molar
∆ volume of N2 at STP : 22.4L)
Ans. (a): CaCO3  → CaO + CO 2
22.4L at STP JEE Main-24.06.2022, Shift-II
(1mole)
∴ Molecular weight of CaCO3 = 100g/mole Ans. (14) : Given,

10 × 90 Mass of organic compound = 0.2g
Weight of 10gm of 90% pure limestone = Molar volume of N2 at STP = 22.4L = 22400mL
100 Given volume of N2 = 22.400 mL
= 9 gm pure CaCO3
22.4 1
∴ 9 gm pure CaCO3 Then, Mole of N2(g) = =
22.4 × 9 22400 1000
CO 2 = = 2.016 L . 1
100 Weight of N2(g) = × 28 = 0.028g
587. The total number of valence electrons in 4.2 g 1000
of N 3− ion is (NA is the Avogadro's number) 0.028
% of N in organic compound = × 100 = 14%
(a) 2.1 NA (b) 4.2 NA 0.2
(c) 1.6 NA (d) 3.2 NA 590. 120 g of an organic compound that contains
NEET-1994 only carbon and hydrogen gives 330 g of CO2
−
Ans. (c) : Molecular wt of N 3 = 3 × 14 = 42g and 270 g of water on complete combustion.
The percentage of carbon and hydrogen,
4.2 respectively are
Moles of N 3− ion = = 0.1
42 (a) 25 and 75 (b) 40 and 60
Each nitrogen atom has 5 valence electrons, total (c) 60 and 40 (d) 75 and 25
number of electrons in
JEE Main-24.06.2022, Shift-II

Ans. (d) : Given, 0.20
Mass of organic compound = 120g Weight of carbon = × 12
44
Mass of CO2 = 330g 0.2 100
Mass of H2O = 270g % of carbon in organic compound = × 12 ×
44 0.3
330 = 18.11%
Mole of CO2 =
40 593. A 2.0 g sample containing MnO2 is treated with
330 HCl liberating Cl2. The Cl2 gas is passed into a
Weight of carbon = × 12 = 90g solution of Kl and 60.0 mL of 0.1 M Na2S2O3 is
40
required to titrate the liberated iodine. The
90 percentage of MnO2 in the sample is –––.
% of C = × 100 = 75%
120 (Nearest integer)
270 [Atomic masses (in u) Mn = 55; Cl = 35.5; O =
Mole of H2O = 16, I = 127, Na = 23, K = 39, S = 32]
18
Weight of hydrogen = × 1 = 15g Ans. (13) : Given,
18
Weight of sample = 2.0g
15 Volume of Na2S2O3 = 60 mL
% of hydrogen = × 100 = 25%
120 Molarity of Na2S2O3 = 0.1 M
591. The complete combustion of 0.492 g of an The complete reaction are-
organic compound containing ‘C’, ‘H’ and ‘O’ MnO2 + 4HCl  → MnCl2 + Cl2(g) + H2O
gives 0.793 g of CO2 and 0.442 g of H2O. The
Cl2 + 2KI  → I2 + 2KCl
percentage of oxygen composition in the
organic compound is _____.[nearest integer] I2 + 2Na2S2O3 → 2NaI + Na2S4O6
milli eq. of MnO2 = milli eq. of Cl2 = milli eq. of I2 =
milli eq. of Hypo
Ans. (46) : Given, organic compound = 0.492 g
w
CO2 = 0.793 g 2 ×   = [0.1× 60]
H2O = 0.442 g  87 
Reaction of complete combustion- w = 261 milligram
Organic compound + O2  → CO2 + H2O % of MnO2 =
0.261
× 100 =13.05% = 13
0.793 2
Weight of carbon in CO2 = × 12 = 0.216 gm 594. In the estimation of bromine, 0.5 g of an
44
organic compound gave 0.40 g of silver
0.442 bromide. The percentage of bromine in the
Weight of hydrogen in H2O = × 2 = 0.0491 gm
48 given compound is –––––– % (nearest integer)
Weight of oxygen in organic compound (Relative atomic masses of Ag and Br are 108 u
⇒ 0.492 – 0.2651 and 80 u, respectively).
⇒ 0.2269 JEE Main-28.06.2022, Shift-I
0.442 Ans. (34) : Given,
% of O = × 100
48 Mass of organic compound = 0.5 g
% of O = 45.71 ≈ 46 mass of silver bromide (AgBr) = 0.40 g
592. On complete combustion 0.30 g of an organic 0.40
moles of AgBr =
compound gave 0.20 g of carbon dioxide and 188
0.10 g of water. The percentage of carbon in 0.40
the given organic compound is ______. Weight of Br = × 80
(Nearest Integer) 188
JEE Main-26.06.2022, Shift-I 0.40 80
% of Br = × × 100
Ans. (18) : Reaction of complete combustion– 188 0.5
Organic compound + O2  → CO2 + H2O = 34%
Given, 595. Kjeldahl's method was used for the estimation
Mass of organic compound = 0.30g of nitrogen in an organic compound. The
Mass of CO2 = 0.20g ammonia evolved from 0.55 g of the compound
Mass of H2O = 0.10g neutralized 12.5 mL of 1 M H2SO4 solution.
The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
0.20 ––––. (nearest integer)
Moles of CO2 =

Ans. (64) : Mili equivalent of H2SO4 used by NH3 = Mili eq. of NH3 = Mili eq. of used H2SO4 = Mili eq. of
12.5 × 1 × 2 NaOH
= 0.25 × 30 = 7.5
25 ×10−3 ×14 ×100 Milimole of nitrogen = 7.5
% of N in the compound =
0.55 Wnitrogen = 7.5 × 14 × 10–3
= 63.66 = 0.105 gram
0.105
≈ 64% % of nitrogen = × 100
0.166
So, answer will be 64% = 63.25 ≈ 63
596. 0.25 g of an organic compound containing 599. The empirical formula of a non-electrolyte is
chlorine gave 0.40 g of silver chloride in Carius CH2O. A solution containing 6 g of the
estimation. Te percentage of chlorine present in compound exerts the same osmotic pressure as
that of 0.05 M glucose solution at the same
the compound is______ [in nearest integer] temperature. The molecular formula of the
(Given: Molar mass of Ag is 108 g mol–1 and compound is
that of Cl is 35.5 g mol–1) (a) C2H4O2 (b) C3H6O3
JEE Main-27.06.2022, Shift-II (c) C5H10O5 (d) C4H8O4
BCECE-2014
Ans. (40) : Organic compound 
AgNO3
→ AgCl Karnataka-CET, 2009
(Containing chlorine) w w2
Ans. (d) : For isotonic : 1 =
0.25 gram 0.4 gram m1V1 m 2 V2
 0.4  w1 = mass of glucose = 0.05×180g = 9g
Mole of AgCl =   m1 = molecular mass of glucose = 180 g
 143.5  Assuming V1= V2 = 1L
 0.4  Molecularmass 120
WCl =   × 35.5 ∴ = n⇒n = =4
 143.5  Empirical mas 30
 0.4  100 ∴ Molecular formula = C4H8O4
% of Cl =  × 35.5 × = 39.58 ≈ 40 600. 1 g of silver gets distributed between 10 cm3 of
143.5  0.25 molten zinc and 100 cm3 of molten lead at
597. The moles of methane required to produce 81 g 800oC. The percentage of silver in the zinc
of water after complete combustion is––––––– layer is approximately
(a) 89 (b) 91
×10 −2 mol. [nearest integer] (c) 97 (d) 94
JEE Main-26.06.2022, Shift-II BCECE-2014, Karnataka-CET, 2010
Ans. (c) : Let mass of Ag in Zn layer = x
Ans. (225) : CH4 + 2O2 
→ CO3 + 2H2O
∴Mass of Ag in lead layer = 1 – x
mole = 2.25 mass = 81
x
81 Concentration of Ag is zinc =
mole = 10
18 1− x
= 4.5 ∴ Concentration of Ag in Pb =
100
So, 225 × 10–2 moles of CH4 are required to produce x
81g of water after complete combination. 10 = 300
598. A 0.166 g sample of an organic compound was 1− x
digested with conc. H2SO4 and then distilled 100
with NaOH. The ammonia gas evolved was
passed through 50.0 mL of 0.5 N H2SO4. The %v of Ag in Zinc layer = 97%
used acid required 30.0 mL of 0.25 N NaOH for 601. In Dumas' method of estimation of nitrogen
complete neutralization. The mass percentage 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL. of
of nitrogen in the organic compound is _____. nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and
715 mm pressure. The percentage composition
JEE Main-24.06.2022, Shift-I of nitrogen in the compound would be (aqueous
Ans. (63) : tension at 300 K = 15 mm)
(a) 15.44 (b) 16.45
(c) 17.45 (d) 14.45
JIPMER-2014
NEET-2011

P1 V1 P2 V2 604. A mixture of CaCl2 and NaCl weighing 4.44 g is
Ans. (b): = treated with sodium carbonate solution to
T1 T2 precipitate all the calcium ions as calcium
Given, carbonate. The calcium carbonate so obtained
Where, p2 = pressure of N2 at STP = 760 mm is heated strongly to set 0.56 g of CaO. The
T2 = Temperature of N2 at STP = 273 K percentage of NaCl in the mixture is (atomic
mass of Ca = 40)
Volume of N2 at STP (by gas equation)
(a) 75 (b) 31.5
 P − P1  273 (c) 40.2 (d) 25
  V1 × = V2
 t + 273  160 Karnataka-CET-2011, 2010
P = 715 mm (pressure at which N2 collected) Ans. (a) : Concerned reaction is.
P1= aqueous tension of water = 15mm CaCl2 + NaCl + Na 2 CO3  → CaO3 + 2NaCl + NaCl
T1 = t + 273 = 300K 4.44g
V1 = 55 ml ∆
CaCO3  → CaO + CO2
(715 − 15) × 55 273 1 0.56g
∴ V2 = × = 46.098 mL (100 CaCO3 =111g CaCl 2 )
300 760
% of nitrogen in given compound 1g CaCO3 =1.11g CaCl2
28 V 28 46.09 weight of CaCl2 =1.11g, weight fo NaCl = 4.44 − 1.11 = 3.33g
= × 2 × 100 = × × 100
22400 W 22400 0.35 3.33
= 16.45% % NaCl = ×100 = 75%
4.44
602. 3.92 g of ferrous ammonium sulphate reacts 605. An organic compound contains 60% C; 4.48%
N H and 35.5% O. Its empirical formula is
completely with 50 ml KMnO4 solution.
10 (a) C9H8O4 (b) C5H4O2
The percentage purity of the sample is (c) C5H4O4 (d) C9H7O6
(a) 50 (b) 78.4 TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 05.08.2021 Shift-II
(c) 80 (d) 39.2 Ans. (a) :
[BITSAT-2014, 2006] Element % Atomic mass Moles
Ans. (a) : Given that, 60
V1 = 1000 Carbon 60 12 ⇒5
12
1 4.48
N2 = Hydrogen 4.48 1 ⇒ 4.48
10 1
V2 = 50
35.5
N1 = ? Oxygen 35.5 16 ⇒ 2.2
N1V1 (Ferrous ammonium sulphate) = N2V2 (KMnO4) 16
1 Empirical formula = C : H : O
N1 × 1000 = × 50 5 4.48 2.2
10 = : :
50 × 1 1 2.2 2.2 2.2
N1 = = = 2.27 : 2.0 : 1.0
1000 × 10 200
Eq. wt of Fe2SO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O = mol .wt = 392 = 2.27 × 4 : 2 × 4 : 1 × 4
=9:8:4
1
∴ Strength of pure salt = 392 × =1.96g L−1 = C9H8O4
200
606. If 0.765g of an acid gives 0.535g of CO2 and
1.96
∴ % purity = ×100 = 50% 0.138g of H2O then ratio percentage of C and H
3.92 is –––
603. The molecular formulae for phosgene and tear (a) 19 : 2 (b) 18 : 12
gas are …. and …. respectively, (c) 20 : 17 (d) 1 : 7
(a) COCl2 and CCl2NO2 AP EAPCET 25.08.2021, Shift-II
(b) SOCl2 and CCl2NO2 Ans. (a) : Given –
(c) COCl2 and CCl3NO2 Mass of acid = 0.765 gm
(d) SOCl2 and CCl3NO2 Mass of CO2 = 0.535 gm
GUJCET-2015, 2016 Mass of H2O = 0.138 gm
Ans. (c): Phosgene is the organic chemical compound ∴ Acid × CO2 + H2O
with the formula COCl2. It is a colourless gas.
Chloropicrin (CCl3NO2) is one of the tear gas which 12 mass of CO 2
%C= × × 100
also called trichloronitromethane, toxic organic 44 mass of acid (compound)
compound. Its vapours are irritating to the skin, eyes,
and upper respiratory tract, and it has been used in 12 0.535
%C= × × 100 = 19.07%
chemical warfare and as tear gas. 44 0.765

2 mass of H 2 O 609. Using Kjeldahl’s method over 1g of a soil
%H= × × 100 sample, the ammonia evolved could neutralize
18 mass of compound 25 ml of 1 M H2SO4. Then, the percentage of
2 0.13 nitrogen present in the sample is ––
%H= × × 100 = 2% (a) 100% (b) 60%
18 0.765 (c) 70% (d) 25%
So, the ratio of percentage of C and H is 19 : 2.
AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-I
607. Using Duma's method for estimating nitrogen. Ans. (c) : Given that,
1 g of an organic compound 'X' gave 82 ml of Mass of soil sample = 1 gm
nitrogen, collected at 27ºC and 750 mm Hg
Volume of 1M H2SO4 = 25 ml
pressure. If the aqueous tension at 27ºC is 30
∴ 25 ml of H2SO4 = 50 ml of NH3
mm Hg pressure, then the percentage of
Since, 1 M NH3 contain at 1000 ml is 14g Nitrogen.
nitrogen in the given compound X is ––––––
(a) 22.09% (b) 88.36% 14 × 50 100
∴Parentage of N = × = 70%
(c) 44.18% (d) 70.69% 1000 1
AP EAPCET 25.08.2021, Shift-II 610. In each molecule of carbon tetrachloride. the
Ans. (b) : Given, P = 750 mmHg, mass percent of carbon and chlorine
respectively are _____ and _____.
T = 300K
(a) 76.86 & 23.14 (b) 7.84 & 92.80
Volume (v) = 82 ml. (c) 23.14 & 76.86 (d) 78.41 & 9.25
∴ Actual pressure = 750 – 30 = 720 mmHg AP EAPCET 24.08.2021, Shift-I
273 × 720 × 80 Ans. (b) : Given,
Volume of N2 at STP =
300 × 760 (mmHg) Molar mass of CCl4 = 153.82 g/mol
= 70.7 ml Formula –
Mass% of an element
∴ 22400 ml of N2 of at STP weight = 28 gm
mass of that element in compound
28 × 70.7 = ×100
70.7 ml of N2 weight = molar mass of the compound
22400
12
28 × 70.7 × 100 Mass percent of carbon = × 100 = 7.80
% of N2 = 153.82
22400 × 0.1 4 × 35.45
= 88.36 % Mass percent of Cl = × 100 = 92.18
153.82
608. In Duma's method of estimation of nitrogen, 611. 7.8 of a compound having molecular formula
0.1840 g of an organic compound gave 30 mL C6H6, on reacting with CH3COCl/AlCl3 gives
of nitrogen collected at 287 K and 758 mm of 8.4 g of a product which has molecular formula
Hg pressure. The percentage composition of C8H8O. Calculate the percentage yield of the
nitrogen in the compound is ----------. (Round product C8H8O. (Given atomic weights of H, C
off to the Nearest Integer). and O respectively are 1.12 and 16)
[Given: Aqueous tension at 287 K = 14 mm of (a) 70% (b) 60%
Hg] (c) 80% (d) 75%
JEE Main 16.03.2021, Shift-II AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-II
Ans. (19%) : Given:- Ans. (a):
Aqueous tension at 287K = 14mm of Hg 612. 0.4g mixture of NaOH, Na2CO3 and some inert
∴ Actual pressure = (758–14) = 744 mm of Hg N
impurities was first titrated with HCl using
273 × 744 × 30 10
volume of nitrogen at STP (V) = phenolphthalein as an indicator, 17.5 mL of
287 × 760 HCl was required at the end point. After this
V = 27.935 mL methyl orange was added and titrated. 1.5 mL
∴ 22400 mL of N2 at STP weights = 28g of same HCl was required for the next end
point. The weight percentage of Na2CO3 in the
∴27.94 mL of N2 at STP weights mixture is ______. (Rounded – off to the
 28  nearest integer)
=  × 27.94  g
 22400  JEE Main 25-02-2021, Shift-I
= 0.034g Ans. (4%) : Let, m moles of NaOH = x
m moles of Na2CO3 = y
 0.034 
Hence% of nitrogen =  × 100  So, First end point reaction is–
 0.1840  NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
= 18.97% Second end point reaction is–
≈ 19% Na2CO3 + HCl → NaHCO3 + NaCl
1 (2) P(Benzyl Bromide) + KCN  →Q
x+y= × 17.5 .....(i) Br CN (Benzyl Cyanide)
10
NaHCO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O
1 + KCN  →
y = ×1.5 .....(ii)
10
So, x = 1.60, y = 0.15 (P) (Q)
∴ Weight of Na2CO3 = 0.15 × 10–3 × 106
= 1.59 × 10–2 g Q(Benzyl Cyanide) + H3O+ ∆ R
(3) CH2COOH
1.59 × 10−2 CN
% Weight of Na2CO3 = × 100
0.4
= 3.975%
≈ 4% H 
3O
+
 →

613. Complete combustion of 1.80 g of an oxygen
containing compound (CxHyOz) gave 2.64 g of
(Q) (2-phenylethanoic acid)
CO2 and 1.08 g of H2O. The percentage of
oxygen in the organic compound is: (R)
(a) 63.53 (b) 53.33 The molecular formula of product R is C8H8O2.
(c) 51.63 (d) 50.33 615. Complete combustion of 750 g of an organic
JEE Main 25-02-2021, Shift-I compound provides 420 g of CO2 and 210 g of
H2O. The percentage composition of carbon
Ans. (b) : Liebig's method for % of C,H,O and hydrogen in organic compound is 15.3 and
2 Mass of H 2 O formed _______ respectively. (Round off to the Nearest
(i) H2 = × ×100 Integer).
18 Mass of organiccompound
JEE Main 16.03.2021, Shift-I
2 1.08 Ans. (3%) : Given, mass of H2O = 210,
= × ×100
18 1.80 Mass of compound = 750
2.16 By Liebig method–
= × 100 = 6.66%
32.4 2 Mass of H 2 O
% of H-element = × × 100
12 Mass of CO 2 formed 18 Mass of compound
(ii) CO2 = × ×100
44 Mass of organic compound 2 210
= × × 100
12 2.64 18 750
= × × 100 1 7
44 1.80 = × × 100
31.68 3 75
= × 100 = 40% 7
79.2 = ×100 = 3.11% ≈ 3%
(iii) For O percentage = 100 – (% of H + % of CO ) 225
2 2 2
= 100 – (6.66% + 40%)
= 53.34%
614. When benzyl alcohol is reacted with 616.
concentrated HBr produces the product ‘P’.
The product ‘P’ on reaction with KCN gives
“Q”. The product “Q” on heating with H3O+
Consider the above reaction. The percentage
generates “R” The molecular formula of “R” is
yield of amide product is ____ (Round off to
(a) C8H8O2 (b) C7H6O2 the Nearest Integer).
(c) C8H9NO2 (d) C8H7N (Given : Atomic mass : C : 12.0 u, H: 1.0 u, N:
TS-EAMCET 09.08.2021, Shift-I 14.0 u, O: 16.0 u, Cl: 35.5 u
Ans. (a) : JEE Main 17.03.2021, Shift-II
Benzyl alcohol + HBr 
→P Ans. (77)
(1) CH2OH
Br (Benzyl Bromide)
+ HBr 
→
conc.

0.140 x 7.8
Number of mole of Ph–CO–Cl = = 10 –3 mol ⇒ × 0.64 =
140 74 56
Theoritical mass of product = 10 –3 × 273 = 273 × 10 –3 g 7.8 × 74 577.2
x= = = 16.10 = 16g
Observed mass of product= 210×10–3 g 56 × 0.64 35.84
620. In the sulphur estimation, 0.471 g of an organic
210 ×10 –3
∴% yield of product = ×100 = 76.9% ≈ 77% compound gave 1.44 g of barium sulphate. The
273 × 10–3 percentage of sulphur in the compound is .........
617. Methylation of 10 g of benzene gave 9.2 g of %
toluene. Calculate the percentage yield of (Nearest integer)
toluene .............. (Nearest integer). (Atomic mass of Ba = 137 u)
[JEE Main 2021, 22 July Shift-II] [JEE Main 2021, 26 Aug Shift-II]
Ans. (78%) : C6H6 + CH3Cl → C6H5CH3 + HCl Ans. (42%): Given,
10 Mass of organic compound = 0.471 g
10 gm of C6H6 = mole Mass of barium sulphate = 0.4813 g
78
Molecular mass of BaSO4 = 137 + 32 + 64 = 233g
Moles of methylbenzene should be obtained =
Q 233 BaSO4 contain → 32 g sulphur
10
= mole 32
78 ∴ 1.44g BaSO4 contain → × 1.44g sulphur
233
 10 
=  × 92  gm Given 0.471 g of organic compound
 78  32 × 1.44
% of S = × 100 = 41.98% ≈ 42%
Ay 9.2 233 × 0.471
∴ = % yield = × 78 ×100 ⇒ 78%
Ty 920 621. The formula of a gaseous hydrocarbon, which
requires 6 times of its own volume of O2 for
618. When 0.15 g of an organic compound was complete oxidation and produces 4 times its own
analysed using Carius method for estimation of volume of CO2 is CxHy. The value of y is ..…
bromine, 0.2397 g of AgBr was obtained. The [JEE Main 2021, 24 Feb Shift-II]
percentage of bromine in the organic
compound is .......... (Nearest integer) Ans. (8) :
CxHy + 6O24CO2 + y/2H2O
[Atomic mass : Silver = 108,
Applying POAC on 'O' atoms
bromine = 80]
6 × 2 = 4× 2 + y/2 × 1
[JEE Main 20/08 /2021 Shift-II]
y/2 = 4
[JEE Main 16/03/2021 Shift-II]
y=8
Ans. (68%) : Given,
622. A pure compound contains 2.4g of C, 1.2×1023
Mass of Bromine = 80u atoms. Its empirical formula is
Mass of AgBr =188u (a) C2HO (b) C2H2O2
(c) CH2O (d) CHO
Weight of AgBr = 0.2397g
Karnataka-CET-2021
Weight of organiccompound = 0.15g
2.4
Molar mass of bromine Ans. (d) : Number of moles of C = = 0.2
Percentageof Bromine = × 12
Molar mass of AgBr 1.2 ×10
Number of moles of H = = 0.2
Weight of AgBr 6.0 ×10
× 100 Number of moles of O = 0.2 mol
Weight of organic
Empirical formula is CHO
80 0.2397
Percentageof Bromine = × × 100 = 68% 623. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt)
188 0.15 carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen.
619. ........ grams of 3-hydroxy propanal (MW = 74) The right option for the empirical formula of
must be dehydrated to produce 7.8 g of this compound is [Atomic wt. of C is 12, h is 1]
acrolein (MW = 56) (C3H4O), if the percentage (a) CH4 (b) CH
yield is 64 (Round off to the nearest integer). (c) CH2 (d) CH3
[Given : Atomic masses : C = 12.0 u, H = 1.0 u, NEET-2021
O = 16.0 u] %
[JEE Main 2021, 18 March Shift-I] Ans. (d) : Element Mass % At. weight
At.Weight
Ans. (16.11g) : 3-hydroxy propanol → Acrolein
Simplest ratio.
x x 64 7.8 C 78 12 78/12 = 6.5 65/6.5 = 1
mol × =
74 74 100 56 H 22 1 22/1 = 22 22/6.5 = 3
∴ Mass of acrolein– Empirical formula of this compound is CH3.

624. 0.12 g of an organic compound 'X' containing (a) MCl2 (b) MCl3
phosphorus on reacting with magnesia mixture (c) MCl (d) MCl4
gave 0.22 g of magnesium pyrophosphate GUJCET-2020
(Mg2P2O7). The percentage of phosphorus in
the compound 'X' is ........ Ans. (a) :
(a) 45.30% (b) 28.70% From Faraday's 1st law of electrolysis, m=Zit
(c) 64.25% (d) 51.20% 63
0.2938 = ×1.5 × 10 × 60
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.09.2020, Shift-I n × 96500
Ans. (d) : Estimation of phosphorus in organic 63 × 1.5 × 600
compound is done by using magnesia mixture. It uses n=
96500 × 0.2938
the working formula. n=2
Given, w = 0.22g , W = 0.12 g
∴Formula = MCl2
62 w1 62 0.22
P% = × × 100 = × × 100 = 51.20% 628. in an estimation of bromine by Carius method,
222 W 222 0.12 1.6 g of an organic compound gave 1.88 g of
625. In Kjeldahl’s method, ammonia from 5 g of AgBr. The mass percentage of bromine in the
food neutralizes 30 cm3 of 0.1 N acid. The compound is .......... (Atomic mass, Ag = 108, Br
percentage of nitrogen in the food is = 80g mol–1)
(a) 0.84 (b) 8.4 [JEE Main 2020, 6 Sep Shift-I]
(c) 16.8 (d) 1.68 Ans. (50%) Given that,
COMEDK-2020 Mass of organic compound = 1.6 gm
Ans. (a) : Given that Mass of AgBr = 1.88 gm
N = 0.1 1.88
V = 30 Moles of Br = moles of AgBr = = 0.01
Percentage of nitrogen in the food is– 188
Mass of Br = 0.01 × 80 = 0.80 gm
1.4 × N × V
= 0.80 × 100
Mass of given compond Percentage of Br = = 50%
1.60
1.4 × 0.1× 30
= = 0.84% 629. The strengths of 5.6 volume hydrogen peroxide
5 (of density 1 g/mL) in terms of mass percentage
626. If 0.2 gram of an organic compound containing and morality (M), respectively, are
carbon, hydrogen and oxygen on combustion, (Take molar mass of hydrogen peroxide as 34
yielded 0.147 gram carbon dioxide and 0.12 g/mol)
gram water. What will be the content of oxygen [JEE Main 2020, 3 Sep Shift-II]
in the substance?
(a) 73.29 (b) 78.45% Ans. (1.7%): Given that,
(c) 83.23% (d) 89.50% Volume strength = 5.6V
[BITSAT-2020] 5.6
Morality = = 0.5 (assuming 1 liter solution)
Ans. (a) : Organiccompound + O2 → H 2 O+ CO2 + Heat 11.2
0.2g 0.02g 0.147g Mass of solution = 1000 ml × 1g/ml = 1000 g
12 Mass of CO 2 Mass of solute = Moles × Molar mass
Percentage of C = × ×100 = 0.5 mol × 34g/mol
44 Mass of compound
= 17 gm.
12 0.147
= × × 100 ⇒ C = 20.04% Mass of solute
44 0.2 ∴ Mass % = × 100
Mass of solution
2 Mass of H 2 O
Percentage of H = × × 100 17
18 Mass of compound = × 100 =1.7%
2 0.12 1000
= × × 100 630. The mass percentage of nitrogen in histamine
18 0.2 is…… .
H = 6.66%
[JEE Main 2020, 9 Jan Shift-I]
Percentage of O = 100 − (%C + %H) Ans. (37.84): Structure of Histamine is
=100 − (20.04 + 6.66)
=100 − 26.70
Percentage of O = 73.29%
Molecular formula of Histamine = C5H9N3
627. On electrolysis of aqueous solution of a halide Molecular mass of Histamine = 111
of a metal ‘M’ by passing 1.5 ampere current Percentage nitrogen by mass in Histamine =
for 10 minutes deposits 0.2938 g of metal. If the
atomic mass of the metal is 63 gm/ mole, then 42
× 100 = 37.84
what will be the formula of the metal halide? 111
631. A solution of phenol in chloroform when 634. An organic compound is found to contain C=
treated with aqueous NaOH given compound P 54.5% , O=36.4% and H=9.1% by mass. Its
as a major product. The mass percentage of empirical formula is
carbon in P is……. . (a) C2H4O (b) CH2O
(to the nearest integer) (c) C3H4O (d) CHO2
(Atomic mass: C=12; H=1; O=16) COMEDK-2019
[JEE Main 2020, 6 Sep Shift-II] Ans. (a) :
Ans. (69%): % age of carbon = 54.5%
% age of Hydrogen = 9.1%
% age of Oxygen = 100 − (54.5+9.1) = 36.4 %
Element % molar n ratio
age mass
of
mass
Mass of Salicylaldehyde = 12 × 7 + 6 × 1 + 16 × 2 O 36.4 16 36.4 2.27
= 2.27 =1
= 122 16 2.27
Mass of carbon = 12 × 7 = 84 C 54.5 12 54.5 4.54
84 = 4.54 =2
∴ Mass % of C in P = × 100 = 68.85%  69% 12 2.27
122 H 9.1 1 9.1 9.1
632. A gas mixture contains 25% He and 75% CH4 = 9.1 =4
by volume at a given temperature and 1 2.27
pressure. The percentage by mass of methane Formula = C2H4O
in the mixture is approximately – 635. The empirical formula of the compound if M =
(a) 75% (b) 25% 68% (atomic mass = 34) and remaining 32%
(c) 92% (d) 8% oxygen is?
Karnataka-CET-2020 (a) MO (b) M2O
Ans. (c): Given that, (c) MO2 (d) M2O3
Volume % of gas = mole % of gas [At STP] AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Morning)
Volume ratio = molar ratio Ans. (a): We know that,
Volume % of He 25 1 Percentage of element
= = No.of moles =
Volume % of CH 4 75 3 At.mass
1 68
Molar ratio = No.of moles of element (M) = = 2
3 34
1 mole for (He) means 100 − 68
No.of moles of oxygen = =2
Weight 16
Mole = [At. weight of (He) is 4]
At.weight Empiricalformula of compound = M 2 O 2 = MO
weight 636. An organic compound is estimated through
1= = 4g = weight of (He) Dumas method and was found to evolved 6
4
Then 3 mole of CH4 moles of CO2, 4 moles of H2O and 1 mole of
Weight = 16 × 3 = 48 gm nitrogen gas. The formula of the compound is
(a) C6H8N (b) C12H8N
weight of CH 4 (c) C12H8N2 (d) C6H8N2
Mass % of CH4 = ×100
total weight [JEE Main 2019, 11 Jan Shift-I]
48 48 Ans. (d) : [C x H y N z ] 
Duma
→ 6CO 2 + 4H 2 O + N 2
× 100 ⇒ × 100 ⇒ 92.3% Method
48 + 4 52 C→6
Hence, the mass percentage of CH4 = 92.3%
H→8
633. The formula of dichlorobis (urea) copper (II) is
N→2
(a) [Cu{O=C(NH2)2}Cl]Cl
Hence, C6H8N2
(b) [CuCl2] {O=C(NH2)2}
(c) [Cu{O=C(NH2)2}]Cl2 ∴Molecular formula of the compound is C6H8N2.
(d) [CuCl2{O=C(NH2)2}2] 637. At 300 K and 1 atmospheric pressure, 10 mL of
COMEDK-2019 a hydrocarbon required 55 mL of O2 for
complete combustion and 40 mL of CO2 is
Ans. (d) : The formula of dichlorobis (Urea) copper (II) formed. The formula of the hydrocarbon is
is  CuCl 2 {CO ( NH 2 ) 2 }  . The complex contains the (a) C4H7Cl (b) C4H6
 2
two chloride and urea legend and shows the +2 (c) C4H10 (d) C4H8
oxidation state. This is the heteroleptic complex. [JEE Main 2019, 10 April Shift-I]
Ans. (b) : • CH4 and CO2 are not example of Law of Multiple
proportions because elements are different.
 y y
C x H y (g) +  x +  O 2  → xCO 2 (g)+ H 2 O • H2O and CO2 are not example of Law of Multiple
 4 10x 2 proportions because elements are different.
10ml x + y 
10ml
 4
• SO2 and CS2 are not example of Law of Multiple
We have, formed of CO2 = 40 mL proportions because elements are different.
10x = 40 640. What is the percentage of carbon in urea?
x=4 (Atomic mass C = 12, H = 1, N = 14, O = 16)
For complete combustion required O2 = 55 mL (a) 20% (b) 26.6%
(c) 6.67% (d) 46.0%
10  x +  = 55
y
MHT CET-02.05.2019, SHIFT-III
 4 Ans. (a) : Given that,
 y
10  4 +  = 55 Molar mass of urea (NH2CONH2) = 60g
 4 Mass % of an element
16 + y  Mass of that element in compound
10   = 55 =
 4  Molar mass of the compound
55 × 4 1× 12
16 + y = Percentage of C = × 100 = 20%
10 60
16 + y = 22 641. A compound contains 26% nitrogen and 74%
y = 22 – 16 = 6 oxygen. Its molecular formula will be
So, the formula of hydrocarbon is = C4H6. (a) N2O (b) NO
638. A 10 mg effervescent tablet containing sodium (c) NO2 (d) N2O5
bicarbonate and oxalic acid releases 0.25 mL of Tripura JEE-2019
CO2 at T = 298.15 K and p = 1 bar. If molar Ans. (d) : Percentage of N in compound = 26%
volume of CO2 is 25.0 L under such condition,
what is the percentage of sodium bicarbonate Percentage of O in compound = 74%
in each tablet? [molar mass of NaHCO3 = 84 g 26
mol-1] Mass of nitrogen in 1 mole = × 108 ≈ 28g
(a) 8.4 (b) 0.84 100
(c) 16.8 (d) 33.6 74
Mass of oxygen in 1 mole = × 108 ≈ 80g
[JEE Main 2019, 11 Jan Shift-I] 100
Ans. (a): 28
2NaHCO3 + H2C2O4 → 2CO2 + Na2C2O4 + 2H2O No. of moles of nitrogen = = 2 moles
14
Number of moles of CO2 produced 80
pV 1bar × 0.25 ×10−3 L No. of moles of nitrogen = = 5 moles
n= = 16
−1 −1
RT 0.82L atm K mol × 298.15K So, the molecular formula is N2O5.
−5 642. In the crystalline solid MSO4. nH2O of molar
=1.02 × 10 mol
mass 250 g mol–1, the percentage of anhydrous
Weight of NaHCO3
Number of moleof NaHCO3 = salt is 64 by weight.
Molecular massof NaHCO3 The value of n is
∴ WNaHCO3 =1.02 × 10 −5 × 84 × 103 mg (a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 7
0.85mg WB-JEE-2019
NaHCO3 % = = 8.56%
10 Ans. (c) : MSO4, nH2O ⇒ Molecular mass = 250 g or
639. Which of the following is an example of Law of molar mass = 250 gm/mol.
Multiple proportion? We have to calculate molar mass of MSO4, then we
(a) H2O, H2O2 (b) CH4, CO2 have to calculate the value of 'n'.
(c) H2O, CO2 (d) SO2, CS2 Molar mass of MSO 4 (anhydrous salt)
J & K CET-(2019) × 100 =
Total molar mass
Ans. (a): According to Law of Multiple proportions
when two elements combine to form more than one Percentage weight of anhydrous salt.
compound, the fixed amount of one element combining Molar mass of MSO 4
with other element have simple whole number ratio. × 100 = 64
250 gm. mol −1
• H2O and H2O2 here 2 part of hydrogen react with 16
and 32 part of oxygen 16 : 32 = 1:2 which is simple Molar mass of MSO = 250 × 64 gm/mol
4
whole number ratio. It follows Law of Multiple 100
proportions. = 160 gm mol–1

nH2O = Molar mass 645. The ratio of mass per cent of C and H of an
= (250 – 160) gm. mol–1 organic compound (CxHyOz) is 6 : 1. If one
molecule of the above compound (CxHyOz)
= 90 gm. mol–1 Q H2O → 2 × 1 + 16 contains half as much oxygen as required to
= 18 gm mol–1 burn one molecule of compound CxHy
90 gm.mal −1 completely to CO2 and H2O. The empirical
n= −1 formula of compound CxHyOz is
18gm.mol
(a) C3H6O3 (b) C2H4O
n=5 (c) C3H4O2 (d) C2H4O3
643. A binary mixture of bivalent metals having [JEE Main 2018]
mass 2 g, molecular mass of A and B are 15 and Ans. (d):
30 respectively, is dissolved in HCl, it evolves
2.24L H2 at STP, what is the mass of A present Element Relative Relative Simplest
in mixture? (Atomic mass of A = 15µ, B = 30µ) mass mole no.ratio
(a) l g (b) 1.5 g C 6 6 1
(c) 0.5 g (d) 0.75 g = 0.5
12
AIIMS-26 May, 2018 (E) H 1 1 1
Ans. (a): For metal A let the mass of metal is x =1
1
No. of moles = x/15 So, x = 1, y = 2
A + 2HCl → ACl2 + H2  y y
one mole of metal gives one mole of H2 gas Now, C x H y +  x +  O 2 → xCO 2 + H 2 O
 4 2
x x
Mole :  y
15 15 O2 atoms required = 2  x + 
 4
B + 2HCl → BCl2 + H2
According to question–
2−x 2−x
Mole
2  x +  = 2z
y
30 30
x 2 − x 2.24 1  4 
Total moles of H2 = + = =
15 30 22.4 10  2 = z
1 +  (Q x = 1, y = 2)
2+ x 1  4
= z = 1.5
30 10
Molecule can be written as–
20 + 10x = 30
CxHyOz = C1H2O3/2 = C2H4O3
10 = 10x
646. What will be the percentage of dimerization of
x = 1g
61 g of benzoic acid in 1000 g of a solvent and
644. The formulas of the following compounds producing a depression in freezing point of 2
respectively are Bleaching powder; Quicklime; ºC? Consider Kf to be 6.
Plaster of Paris; Slaked lime (a) 72% (b) 67%
1 (c) 43% (d) 28%
(a) CaO, Ca(OH)2, Ca(OCl)2, CaSO4 H2O
2 J & K CET-(2018)
1 Ans. (b): Given,
(b) Ca(OCl)2, CaO, CaSO4 H2O, Ca(OH)2
2
Wbenzoic acid = 61g;
1 Wsolvent = 1000g
(c) Ca(OCl)2, Ca(OH)2, CaSO4 H2O, CaO
2 ∆ Tf = 2ºC; Kf = 6
1 We know that-
(d) Ca(OH)2, CaO, Ca(OCl)2, CaSO4 H2O
2 ∆ T f = i Kf m
Assam CEE-2018 61/122
m= ×1000 = 0.5;
Ans. (b) : Bleaching powder = Ca(OCl)2 1000
Quicklime = CaO ∆T 2
i= f = = 0.67
1 k fm 6 × 0.5
Plaster of Paris = CaSO4. H2O
2 Now from the equation
Slaked lime = Ca(OH)2 1− i
So, correct answer is Ca(OCl)2, CaO, α= [∴ n = 2for benzoicacid]
1 − 1/ n
1 1 − 0.67
CaSO 4 H 2 O, Ca(OH)2. α= = 0.66 = 66%
2 1 − 0.5

647. A compound, containing only carbon, Ans. (b): Given, specific heat = 0.16
hydrogen and oxygen has a molecular weight of According to Dulong Petit's law
44. On complete oxidation, it is converted into a Let MClx be the metal chloride.
compound of molecular weight is 60.
6.4
The original compound is = Atomic weight of metal
(a) Alcohol (b) Acid Specific heat
(c) Aldehyde (d) Ether 6.4
JIPMER-2018, MPPET-2013 = Atomic weight of metal
0.16
Ans. (c) : As the compound is containing (C, H, O) the Atomic weight = 40
expected compound is an aldehyde, alcohol or ether. 40 is the atomic weight of Calcium, According to
On complete oxidation the obtained compound shows question, metal chloride (MClx) have ≈ 65% chlorine
increment in molecular weight of only 16. It means only present in it.
one oxygen atom is added here. This condition is
x × Atomic weight of Chlorine
fulfilled by only aldehyde which on oxidation gives × 100 = 65
acid. ( 40 + x ) × Atomic weight of Chlorine
RCHO  [O]
→ RCOOH x × 35.5
× 100 = 65
Hence, original compound will be aldehyde 40 + x × 355
[O] x = 2 (approx)
CH 3CHO   → CH 3COOH
mol. wt. 44 mol. wt. 60 So, the formula of metal chloride will be MCl2.
648. If a mixture of FeO and Fe3O4 contains 75% 650. Two oxides of an non-metal X contain 50% and
Fe, what will be the percentage amount of each 40% of non-metal respectively. If the formula
oxide in the mixture? of the first oxide is XO2, Then the formula of
(a) 64.10% FeO and 35.90% Fe2O3 second oxide is
(b) 50% FeO and 50% Fe2O3 (a) X2O3 (b) X2O5
(c) 75% FeO and 25% Fe2O4 (c) XO3 (d) X2O
(d) 35.90% FeO and 64.10% Fe2O3 AP EAMCET-2017
UPTU/UPSEE-2018 Ans. (c) : Given that, the formula of first oxide is XO2
For, second oxide 40% of (X) we have 60% of oxygen.
Ans. (a) : The percentage of Fe in FeO
∴ For 100% of (X) (i.e. one mole) we get
Atomic weight of Fe
= × 100 2 × 60
Formula weight of FeO ∴ Moles of oxygen = =3
40
56 Hence the formula of second oxide is XO3.
= × 100 = 77.78%
72 651. An alkane has a C/H ratio (by mass) of 5.1428.
The percentage of Fe in Fe 2 O 3 Its molecular formula is
(a) C8H18 (b) C5H12
(Atomic weight of Fe) × 2
= × 100 (c) C7H10 (d) C6H14
Formula weight of Fe 2 O3 COMEDK-2017
112 Ans. (d) : Given that,
= × 100 = 70.00% Carbon and hydrogen ratio (C/H) = 5.1428.
160
Suppose, ‘x’ g of FeO (in total) and ‘y’ g of Fe2O3 Atomic mass of C = 12
form the mixture that contains 75% Fe. Atomic mass of H = 1
77.78% of x + 70.00% y = 75.00 of x + 75.00% of y So,
(77.78 – 75.00%) of x = (75.00 – 70.00)% of y C 12 × 8 96
(a) C8 H18 = = = = 5.33
2.77% of x = 5.00% of y H 1×18 18
x 5.00 500 250 C 12 × 5 60
= %= = (b) C5 H12 = = = =5
y 2.78 278 139 H 1× 12 12
⇒ x : y = 250 : 139 C 12 × 7 84
(c) C 7 H10 = = = = 8.4
Now percent amount of FeO in mixture (x) H 1× 10 10
250 25000 C 12 × 6 72
= × 100 = % = 64.3% (d) C6 H14 = = = = 5.1428
(250 + 139) 389 H 1×14 14
Thus, molecular formula of alkane having C/H ratio by
Hence, percent amount of Fe2O3 in mixture (y)
mass 5.1428 is C6H14.
= (100 – 64.3)% = 35.7%
652. 0.0833 mole of a carbohydrate of empirical
649. A metal M (specific heat 0.16) forms a metal formula CH2O contains 1.00 g of hydrogen.
chloride with 65% chlorine present in it. The The molecular formula of the carbohydrate is
formula of the metal chloride will be
(a) C 5 H10 O 5 (b) C3 H 4O3
(a) MCl (b) MCl2
(c) MCl3 (d) MCl4 (c) C12 H 22 O11 (d) C 6 H12 O 6
WB-JEE-2018 CG PET -2017
Ans. (d): Given, Empirical formula = CH2O Comparing the both equation
Mole ratio of C, H and O = 1:2:1 30 60
Also 0.0833 moles contains 1g of hydrogen =
N 342
∴ 0.0833 × n=1g of hydrogen
30 × 342
Where n = Number of moles of hydrogen N= = 171
(a) For C5 H10O 5 (n = 10) 60
N = 171.
∴ 0.0833 × 10 = 0.833 ≠ 1
Hence the molecular weight of unknown organic
(b) For C3 H 4 O3 (n = 4) substance is 171.
∴ 0.0833 × 4 = 0.333 ≠ 1 655. Blister copper contains ____ percentage of
(c) For C12 H 22O11 (n = 22) copper.
∴ 0.0833 × 22 = 1.8326 ≠ 1 (a) 2 (b) 98
(d) For C 6 H12 O 6 (n = 12) (c) 50 (d) 0
SRMJEEE-2016
∴ 0.0833 × 12 = 0.9996 ≈ 1
The molecular formula of the carbohydrate is C6H12O6. Ans. (b): Blister copper contains 98% of copper. Blister
copper is a metallic copper which has a black blistered
653. 10g of MgCO3 decomposes on heating to 0.1 surface. The other percentage consists of impurities are
mole CO2 and 4g MgO. The percent purity of oxygen etc.
MgCO3 is
2 Cu2O + Cu2S → 6Cu↓+SO2
(a) 24% (b) 44%
(c) 54% (d) 74% 656. In Dumas method, 0.3 g of an organic
(e) 84% compound gave 45 mL of nitrogen at STP. The
Kerala-CEE-2017 percentage of nitrogen is
(a) 16.9 (b) 18.7
Ans. (e): Mole ratio = 1 : 1 : 1
(c) 23.2 (d) 29.6
Mass ratio = 84 : 40 : 44
∆
BITSAT-2016
Since, MgCO3  → MgO + CO2 AP-EAMCET – 2016
(i) 84 gm of MgCO3 give MgO = 40gm Ans. (b) : Dumas method is a method for quantitative
40 ×10 determination of nitrogen in the chemical substances.
10 gm of MgCO3 give MgO = = 4.76 gm
84 We have weight of organic compound = 0.3g
MgO obtained is less by = 4.76 × 4.0 = 0.76gm And, volume (V) = 45mL
∴The volume of N2 at STP, the percentage of nitrogen
(ii) 84 gm of MgCO3 give CO2 = 44gm is calculated as –
44 × 10 28V × 100
10 gm of MgCO3 give CO2 = = 5.23 gm Percentage of nitrogen =
84 22400 × W
Thus, CO2 obtained is less by 5.23 – 4.4 = 0.83gm V
Total short = 0.76 + 0.84 = 1.59 ≅ 1.60 =
8W
Q 10 gm of MgCO3 give less products by = 1.60 gm
45
∴ 100 gm of MgCO3 give less products by = 1.600 gm =
MgCO3 = 100 –16 = 84% 8 × 0.3
= 18.75
654. A 6% solution of sucrose C22H22O11 is isotonic
with 3% solution of an unknown organic Hence, the required percentage of nitrogen is 18.75.
substance. The molecular weight of unknown 657. 1 g of an impure sample of calcium carbonate
organic substance will be (containing no complete thermally
(a) 684 (b) 171 decomposition impurities) on complete thermal
(c) 100 (d) 342 decomposition gave 0.33 g of carbon dioxide
UPTU/UPSEE-2017 gas. The percentage of impurity in this sample
is (Atomic masses of C, O and Ca are
Ans. (b) : Both the solution are isotonic they have same respectively 12, 16 and 40 g mol–1)
concentration in mole/litre.
(a) 25 (b) 20
Sucrose solution concentration = 6g/100 cm3
(c) 30 (d) 33
= 60g/litre
J & K CET-(2016)
Molar mass of sucrose C12H22O11 =342
Ans. (a): Given, the amount of CaCO3 = 1g
60 amount of CO2 = 0.33g
Therefore, we got = moles/litre
342 CaCO 3  ∆
→ CaO + CO 2
For unknown substance let N be the molecular mass
then concentration 44g of CO2 is obtained from 100g of CaCO3
= 3g/100 cm3 100
0.33 g of CO2 is obtained from × 0.33 = 0.75 g of
= 30g/litre 44
= 30/N moles/litre CaCO3

percentage of impurity in the sample of CaCO3 is = 16
0.75 Percentage of oxygen = × 100
100% − % = 100% – 75% = 25%. 30
100 Percentage of oxygen = 53.33%.
Hence, 25% of impurity present in the given sample. 661. An organic compound contains C = 40%, H =
658. A compound contain three elements X, Y and 13.33% and N = 46.67%. Its empirical formula
Z. The oxidation number. Of X, Y and Z are is
+3, +5 and –2 respectively. The possible (a) C2H2N (b) C3H7N
formula of the compound is – (c) CH4N (d) CHN
(a) X2YZ (b) XYZ3 Karnataka-CET-2016
(c) X3(YZ4)3 (d) X2Y2Z
Ans. (c) : Given, amount of C = 40%
BCECE-2016
Amount of H = 13.33%
Ans. (c) : The sum of all oxidation values must be equal Amount of N = 46.67%
to zero.
Convert percentile to weight in grams.
Let, number of atoms of X, Y and Z are respectively a,
b and c. Then, convert wt. in grams to moles.
Then, (+3)a + (+5)b + (–2c) = 0 or 3a + 5b – 2c = 0 40
Moles of C = = 3.33
Now, putting values of a, b and c for all the given 12
options, which will give sum equal to zero, will be our 13.33
formula. Moles of H = = 13.33
1
(a) For, X2YZ
46.6
a=2,b=1,c=1 Moles of N = = 3.33
3a + 5b – 2c = 0 ⇒ 3 × 2 + 5 – 2 = 9 ≠ 0 14
(b) For, XYZ3 Now, divide each mole value by lowest value of n as;
a = 1, b = 1, c = 3 C = 3.33/ 3.33 = 1
3a + 5b – 2c = 0 H = 13.33/ 3.33 = 4.00
N = 3.33/ 3.33 = 1
3+5–6=2≠0
Hence, the required empirical formula is CH4N
(c) For, X3(YZ4)3
a = 3, b = 3, c = 12 662. A gaseous compounds having carbon, hydrogen
and oxygen was burnt in the presence of
3a+5b– 2c = 0 ⇒ (3 × 3 + 5 × 3) – (2 × 12) = 0
oxygen. After combustion, 1 volume of the
9 + 15 – 24 = 0 gaseous compound produces 2 volumes of CO2
(d) For, X2Y2Z and 2 volumes of steam. Determines the
a = 2, b = 3, c = 1 molecular formula of the compound, it all the
3a+5b–2c = 0 ⇒ (3 × 2) + (5 × 2) – (2 × 1) = 0 volumes were measured under the same
6 + 15 – 2 = 19 ≠ 0 conditions of pressure and temperature.
The possible formula of compound is X3(YZ4)3. (a) C2H4O2 (b) C3H6O3
659. 1.25 g of a sample of Na2CO3 and NaSO4 is (c) C4H8O2 (d) C5H10O3
dissolved in 250 mL solution. 25 mL of this Manipal-2016
solution neutralizes 20 mL of 0.1 N H2SO4. The Ans. (a): Let the chemical formula of the compound is
% of Na2CO3 in this sample is C XH YO Z
(a) 84.8% (b) 8.48% y
(c) 15.2% (d) 42.4% C x H y O z + mO 2  → xCO z + H 2 O ( steam )
2
BITSAT 2016 1Vol 2 Vol 2 Vol 2 Vol
Ans. (a) : Let the amount of Na2CO3 present in the For, gaseous reactants and products that are at same
mixture be x g. Na2SO4 will not react with H2SO4. Then temperature and pressure, the molar ratio is equal to the
x 20 × 0.1× 10 volume ratio.
= ∴ x = 1.06g
53 1000 2 moles of CO2 have atoms of carbon and this carbon
∴ Percentage of Na2CO3 must have come from the compound.
1.06 × 100 X=2
= = 84.8% 2 moles of steam contain 4 atoms of hydrogen and they
1.25
Hence, 84.8% of Na2CO3 present in this sample. have come from the compound.
660. The percentage of oxygen in CH2O is Y=4
(a) 40% (b) 6.6% Molecular formula of compound = C2H4O2
(c) 53.33% (d) 49% 663. The percentage of pyridine (C5H5N) that forms
pyridinium ion (C5H5NH) in a 0.10 M aqueous
JCECE - 2016 pyridine solution (Kb for C5H5N = 1.7 × 10–9) is
Ans. (c) : As per molecular formula (a) 0.0060% (b) 0.013%
CH2O = 12 + 2 + 16 = 30 (c) 0.77% (d) 1.6%
Molecular mass of O = 16 NEET-II 2016
Ans. (b): Given, Kb for C5 H5N = 1.7 × 10–9 For, Be
Pyridine solution concentration is 0.01M 6.1
Therefore, keeping the value in reaction Total mass of Be = ×148  9
100
C5H5N + H2O  C5H5N+H + OH– Similarily,
We know that, N  56
Kb = Cα2 Cl  71
Kb H  12
α=
C Total mass of element
Now, Moles of element =
1.7 × 10 −9 Atomic mass of element
= For, Be
0.10
9
= 1.7 × 10 −8 Moles of Be = = 1
= 1.30 × 10 –4 9
Where, 56
N= =4
α = Constant dissociation 14
C = Concentration 71
Kb = base ionization constant Cl = =2
35.5
Hence, percentage of pyridine that forms pyridinium ion 12
= α ×100% H = = 12
–4
= 1.30 × 10 × 100 1
For calculating Molecular formula,
= 0.013%
So, the percentage of pyridine is 0.013% Atom Atomic % %A Simple
Weight (A) ratio
664. 0.222 g of iron ore was brought into solution.
3+ 2+
Fe is reduced to Fe with SnCl2. The reduced Be 9 6.1 0.68 1
solution required 20 ml of 0.1N KMnO4 N 14 37.8 2.70 4
solution. The percentage of iron present in the Cl 35.5 48.0 1.35 2
ore is (equivalent weight of iron is 55.5) H 1 8.1 8.10 12
(a) 55.5% (b) 45.0%
Thus, we can deduce the empirical formula to be
(c) 50.0 % (d) 40.0% BeN4Cl2H12
SCRA-2015 Therefore, BeN Cl H is the molecular formula.
4 2 12
Ans. (c): Given that, V = 20 ml
Equivalent weight of iron = 55.5 666. The empirical formula of a compound is
CH2.One mole of this compound has a mass
∴ Number of equivalent of Fe = Number of equivalent
of KMnO4 42g. Its molecular formula is
(a) C 3 H 6 (b) C 2 H 6
0.1× 20
Number of equivalent of Fe = = 0.002 = NV/100 (c) CH 2 (d) C 2 H 2
1000
Mass of iron (pure) = 0.002 × 55.5 = 0.111gm CG PET- 2015
Massof pureiron Ans. (a) : Given, Empirical formula of a compound is
Percentage of iron present in ore = ×100
Massof iron ore CH2
0.111 Then the empirical weight is = 14
= ×100 Molecular weight = 42gm
0.222
We know that,
= 50%
molecular weight 42
Hence, 50% of iron present in ore. ∴ n= = =3
665. Beryllium given a compound X with the Emprical weight 14
following percentage composition : Be-6.1%, Molecular formula = (Empirical formula) n
N-37.8%, Cl-48%, H-8.1%. Molecular weight Molecular formula = (CH2)3
of X is 148g mol–1 and that of Be is 9g mol–1.
The molecular formula of the compound is: = C 3H 6
(a) BeN4Cl2H12 (b) BeN4ClH6 Hence, the molecular formula of compound is C3H6.
(c) BeN4Cl2H6 (d) BeN4ClH8 667. In Carius method of estimation of halogens,
BCECE-2015 250 mg of an organic compound gave 141 mg of
Ans. (a): AgBr. The percentage of bromine in the
Total mass of element compound is (at, mass Ag = 108, Br = 80)
Mass composition% = (a) 24 (b) 36
Molar mass of compound
Therefore, total mass of element = Mass % of each (c) 48 (d) 60
element one by one. JEE Main-2015

Ans. (a) : Given that, So, the value of x can be calculated as–
Weight of AgBr = 141 mg 631.08
=8
Weight of organic compound = 250 g 78.8
According to carious methods Thus, molecular formula of selenium = Se8.
At.wt.of Br Wt.of AgBr
Percentageof Br = × ×100 670. 0.30 g of an organic compound containing C, H
Molecular wt.of AgBr Wt.of organiccompound and oxygen on combustion yields 0.44 g of CO2
80 141 and 0.18 g of H2O. If one mole of compound
= × × 100 weighs 60, then molecular formula of the
188 250
112800 compound is
= (a) CH2O (b) C3H8O
47000 (c) C4H6O (d) C2H4O2
= 24%
Karnataka-CET-2015
668. The molecular formula of a commercial resin Ans. (d): Given that, weight of CO2 = 0.44g
used for exchanging ions in water softening is
C8H7SO3 Na (mol. wt. = 206). What would be Weight of H2O = 0.18g
the maximum uptake of Ca2+ ions by the resin % of C =
12
×
Weight of CO2 formed
×100
when expressed in mole per gram resin? 44 Weight of organic compound
1 1 12 0.44
(a) (b) = × ×100 = 40
103 206 44 0.30
2 1 2 Weight of H 2 O formed
(c) (d) % of H = × ×100
309 412 18 Weight of organic compound
[JEE Main-2015] 2 0.18
Ans. (d) : The molecular weight of resin is 206 g/mol. = × ×100 = 6.66
18 0.30
1 % of O = 100 – (% of C + % of H)
1g of resin corresponds to moles.
206 = 100 – (40 + 6.66) = 53.34
C8H7SO3Na + Ca2+ → (C8H2SO3)2Ca+2Na+ For empirical formula
2 mole 1mole Element Mass Relative no. ratio
1 mole of calcium ions will displace 2 moles of sodium of moles
ions from resin. C 12 40 1
1 mole of resin contains 1 mole of sodium ions and can = 3.33
uptake upto 0.5 moles of calcium ions. 12
1 1 H 1 6.66 2
Hence, 1g of resin will uptake × 0.5 = moles = 6.66
206 412 1
of calcium ions. O 16 53.34 1
= 3.33
669. The molal freezing point depression constant 16
for benzene (C6H6) is 4.90 K Kg mol–1. Empirical formula CH2O
Selenium exists as a polymer of the type Sex.
Molecular formula = n × EF
When 3.26 g of selenium is dissolved in 226g of
benzene, the observed freezing point is 0.112ºC MFmass 60
n= = =2
lower than that of pure benzene. The molecular EFmass 30
formula of selenium is MF is (CH2O)2 = C2H4O2
(Atomic mass of Se = 78.8 g mol–1) Hence, molecular formula of the compound is
(a) Se8 (b) Se6 C 2H 4O 2.
(c) Se4 (d) Se2
671. An organic compound contains 90% carbon
JIPMER-2015 and 10% hydrogen by mass. Its empirical
Ans. (a): Given that, formula is
Depression in freezing point (∆Tf) = 0.112oC (a) C2H4 (b) C3H6
Mass of Selenium (WA) = 226 gm =0.226 kg (c) C3H8 (d) C3H4
Mass of Selenium (WB) = 3. 26 gm (e) C2C6
Molar depression constant (Kf) = 4.9K kg mol Kerala-CEE-2015
Molar mass of selenium which can be furthur calculated Ans. (d): Given,
by the formula– percent of carbon = 90%
K × WB percent of hydrogen = 10%
MB = f
∆Tf × WA ∴ Empirical formula = C 90 H10
×100 ×100
4.9 × 3.26 12 1
= = 631.08g mol −1 = C 750 H1000
0.112 × 0.226
And, given that atomic mass of Sex = 78.8 g mol–1 = C3 H 4

672. In Duma's method for estimation of nitrogen, Ans. (d) : Given, (WA)benzoic acid = 2g
0.25 g of an organic compound gave 40 mL of (WB)benzen = 25g
nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and
725 mm pressure. If the aqueous tension at 300 Kf = 4.9 Kg mol–1
K is 25 mm, the percentage of nitrogen in the Tf = 1.62K
compound is MB = 241.98
(a) 16.76 (b) 15.76 Normal molecular mass of C6H5COOH = [12(6) + 1(5)
(c) 17.36 (d) 18.20 + 12(1) + 16(2) + 1(1)]
NEET-2015, cancelled = 122 g mol–1
Ans. (a): According to the question, Observed molecular mass of C6H5COOH=241.98gmol–1
m = 0.25g So, Van't Hoff factor,
v1 = 40 mL Normal molecular mass
v2 = ? i=
Observed molecular mass
T1 = 300K
T2 = 273 122
i= = 0.504 .....(i)
P1 = 725 – 25 = 700 mm 241.98
P2 760 mm n
from combined gas law, Now, αassociation = (1 − i)
n −1
700 × 40 760 × v 2
= ⇒ α = (1 − 0.504)
2
[n = 2 as it forms a dimer]
300 273 2 −1
v2 = 33.52 mL
Now finding the mass of nitrogen which α = 0.496 × 2
corresponds to 33.53 ml- α = 0.992
22400 mL of N2 at STP weights = 28g % of α = 0.992 × 100 = 99.2%
Therefore, 33.52 mL of N2 at STP will weigh 676. The molecular formula of Dithionic acid is
28 × 33.52 (a) H2S2O4 (b) H2S2O6
= = 0.0419g (c) H2S2O5 (d) H2S2O7
22400
for percentage of nitrogen. SRMJEEE – 2014
0.419 Ans. (b) : H2S2O6 is Dithionic acid
% of nitrogen = ×100 = 16.76%
0.25
673. The formula for sodium trioxalatoaluminate
(III) is
(a) Na4[Al(C2O4)3] (b) Na3[Al(C2O4)]3
(c) Na3[Al(C2O4)3] (d) Na2[Al(C2O4)3]
COMEDK-2015
Ans. (c) : The formula for sodium trioxalatoaluminate 677. A 5.82 g silver coin is dissolved in nitric acid.
(III) is Na 3 [Al(C 2 O 4 )3 ] . The aluminum shows the +3 When sodium chloride is added to the solution,
oxidation state and this is the homoleptic complex all the silver is precipitated as AgCl. The AgCl
compound. precipitate weighs 7.20 g. The percentage of
674. An organic compound weighing 0.15g gave on silver in the coin is
Carius estimation, 0.12 g of AgBr. The (a) 60.3% (b) 80%
percentage of Br in the compound will be close (c) 93.1% (d) 70%
to (At. Mass of Ag = 108, Br = 80) AMU-2014
(a) 46% (b) 34.1%
107.9
(c) 3.41% (d) 4.6% Ans. (c) : Fraction of Ag in AgCl = = 0.753
COMEDK-2015 143.3
Ans. (b) : The Percentage of bromine in the compound Weight of Ag in AgCl = 0.753 × 7.20
80 Mass of AgBr formed = 5.42 g
= × ×100 Hence, 5.82g coin contains 5.42 g of Ag
188 Mass of substance taken
5.42
80 0.12 Now, fraction of Ag in coin = = 0.931g
= × × 100 = 34.04% 5.82
188 0.15 % of Ag in the coin = 93.1%
675. 2 g of benzoic acid (C6H6COOH) is dissolved in 678. Two oxides of a metal contain 50% and 40%
25 g of benzene. The observed molar mass of metal (M) respectively. If the formula of first
benzoic acid is found to be 241.98. What is the oxide is MO2, the formula of second oxide will
percentage association of acid if it forms dimer
in solution? be
(a) 85.2% (b) 89.2% (a) MO2 (b) MO3
(c) 95.2% (d) 99.2% (c) M2O (d) M2O5
AMU-2015 Assam CEE-2014
Ans. (b) : Formula of 1st oxide is MO2 Ans. (a) : Let mass of CaO = x g
Which contains 50% of metal. ∴ Mass of BaO = (10 – x)g
So, remaining is O2 Molar mass
Q equivalent mass of BaO =
Amount of metal = Amount of O2 2
= 32 gm 153
When 40% of M is the second oxide = = 76.5
2
So, 0.4(MOx) = 32 10 − x
32 320 Number of moles of BaO =
(MO x ) = = = 80 76.5
0.4 4 56
Where, (MOx) is the oxide– equivalent mass of CaO = = 28
2
So, mass of O = 80 – 32 = 48
x
∴ x × 16 = 48 Number of moles of CaO =
28
x=3
We know that,
∴ Formula is MO3.
moles of solute
679. For the estimation of nitrogen 1.4 g of an Molarity =
organic compound was digested by Kjeldahl's Volumeof solution(in L)
method and the evolved ammonia was moles of solute
absorbed in 60 mL of M/10 sulphuric acid. The 2.5 =
100
unreacted acid required 20 mL of M/10 sodium 1000
hydroxide for the complete neutralization. The
2.5 × 100
percentage of nitrogen in the compound is ∴ Moles of solute =
(a) 6% (b) 10% 1000
(c) 3% (d) 5% x 10 − x
or + = 0.25
JEE Main 2014 28 76.5
Ans. (b) : Given that, 76.5x + 28(10 – x) = 0.25 × 28 × 76.5
Weight of N2 = 1.4 g 255.5
48.5x = 255.5 = x = = 5.26
1.4 × meq.of acid 48.5
% of N = 5.26
Mass of organic compound ∴ % of CaO = × 100 = 52.6%
10
1
meq. of H2SO4 = 60 × × 2 = 12 Hence, 52.6% of CaO present in the mixture.
10 682. In the Kjeldahl's method for estimation of
1 nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia
meq. of NaOH = 20 × = 2
10 evolved from 0.75 g of sample neutralized 10
∴ meq. of acid consumed = 12 – 2 = 10 mL of 1 M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen
in the soil is
1.4 ×10
% of N = = 10% (a) 37.33 (b) 45.33
1.4 (c) 35.33 (d) 43.33
680. The percentage of water of crystallisation of a NEET-2014
sample of blue vitriol is Ans. (a): In the Kjeldahl's method, percentage of N
(a) 34.07% (b) 35.07%
1.4 × Normality of acid×Volumeof acid
(c) 36.07% (d) 37.07% (% N) =
Weight of compound
JCECE - 2014
1M H2SO4 = 2N H2SO4
Ans. (c) : Blue vitriol is CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2O
Molecular weight of CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2O = 249.5 1.4 × 2 × 1
%N= = 37.33%
5 ×18 0.75
% of water of crystallisation = × 100 It will neutralize 20M of NH3.
249.5
= 36.07% 683. A compound contains 38.8% C, 16% H, 42.5%
N. The formula of compound will be :
681. 10 g of a mixture of BaO and CaO requires 100 (a) CH3NH2 (b) CH3CN
cm3 of 2.5 M HCl to react completely. The (c) C2H5CN (d) CH2(NH2)2
percentage of calcium oxide in the mixture is
approximately (Given: molar mass of BaO = MPPET-2013
153) Ans. (a) : Given that,
(a) 52.6 (b) 55.1 Percentage of C in a compound = 38.8%
(c) 44.9 (d) 47.4 Percentage of H in a compound = 16%
Karnataka-CET-2014 Percentage of N in a compound = 42.5%
Ans. (a): Given that, Empirical formula = CH2O
Element % Ratio%/ Simpleratio We know that,
at wt.
Molecular formula = n × empirical formula
C 38.8 38.8 1
= 3.2 molecular formula weight
12 n=
H 16.0 16 5 emperical formula weight
= 16
1 Empirical formula weight of CH2O is 30(12 + 2 + 16)
N 42.5 42.5
= 3.2
1 Molecular formula weight is 90
14 90
Hence, the formula of compound will be CNH5 or n= =3
3
CH3NH2.
Molecular formula = 3 × CH2O
684. For which of the following, both the empirical Molecular formula is C3H6O3
formula and molecular formula are the same?
(a) Naphthalene (b) Sucrose 688. In an experiment it showed that 10 ml of 0.05
M solution of chloride required 10 mL of 0.1 M
(c) Glucose (d) 1-Butene solution of AgNO3, which of the following will
SRMJEEE-2013 be the formula of the chloride (X stands for the
Ans. (b) : Molecular formula - Indicates exact no. of all symbol of the element other than chlorine)?
the atoms in a molecules. (a) X2CL2 (b) XCL2
Emprical formula - Indicated simplest ratio of the (c) XCL4 (d) X2CL
atoms in a molecules. Karnataka NEET-2013
Both the empirical formula and molecular formula are
Ans. (b): Given that,
same for Sucrose (C12H22O11).
Molarity of AgNO3 = 0.1
685. The arsenic content of an agricultural Molarity = 0.05M
insecticide was reported as 28% As2O5. What is
percentage of arsenic in this preparation? Volume of chloride = 10 ml
(a) 16% (b) 18% So, no. of moles of chloride
(c) 15% (d) 20% 10
= × 0.05
AMU-2013 100
Ans. (b) : 0.5
=
Molar mass of As2O5 = (2 × 75) + (5 × 16) = 230g 1000
230g As2O5 contains = 150g As & no. of moles of AgNO3
150 × 28 10
28g As2O5 contain = = 18.26g As = 0.1×
230 100
18.26g As is present in 100g insecticide so it is 18.26% 1
≈ 18% =
1000
686. Analysis shows that a binary compound of X Gram of chloride = gram equivalent of AgNO3
(atomic mass = 10) and Y (atomic mass = 20)
contains 50% X. The formula of the compound is 0.5n 1  Where 
⇒ =  
(a) XY (b) X2Y 1000 1000  n = no.of chlorides 
(c) XY2 (d) X2Y3 ∴n=2
AMU-2013 So, formula in XCl2
Ans. (c): Assume total mass = 100g 689. An organic compound contains 38.8% carbon,
Percentage = grams per 100 grams 16% hydrogen & 45.2% nitrogen. Its empirical
We have 50g of X atomic mass 10 formula is:
And, 50 g of Y atomic mass 20. (a) CH3CN (b) C2H5CN
Atomic Mass of X < Atomic Mass of Y (c) CH2(NH2)2 (d) CH3NH2
Y = 2X .....(i) MPPET - 2012
50% Ans. (d): For calculating in the empirical formula,
Empirical formula, X = =5 S. Element % Atomic Relative Simple ratio
10 Wt. No. of moles
X=5 No.
moles
y = 10 (from (i) eqn.)
The formula for compound = X5Y10 1. C 38.8 12 38.8 3.23/3.23 = 1
= 3.23
= XY2 12
687. Empirical formula of a compound is CH2O and 2. H 16 1 16 16/3.23 = 5
its molecular mass is 90, the molecular formula = 16.0
1
of the compound is
3. N 45.2 14 45.2 3.23/3.23 = 1
(a) C3H6O3 (b) C2H4O2 = 3.23
(c) C6H12O6 (d) CH2O 14
Karnataka-CET-2013 The Empirical Formula is– CH5N (or) CH3NH2
690. In a hydrocarbon, mass ratio of hydrogen and 32 Wt.of BaSO 4
carbon is 1:3, the empirical formula of % of S = × ×100
hydrocarbon is 233 Wt.of organiccompound
(a) CH4 (b) CH2 32 0.699
= × ×100
(c) C2H (d) CH3 233 0.480
AIIMS-2012 = 20%
C 1 Hence, 20% sulphur present in this compound
Ans. (a): Given, = 694. 0.833 mol of a carbohydrate with empirical
H 3
formula CH2O, has 10g of hydrogen. Molecular
Atomic mass of H = 1 formula of carbohydrate is
Atomic mass of C = 12 (a) C3H5O3 (b) C6H12O6
According to the option (c) C3H10O5 (d) C3H4O3
In, UP CPMT-2012
C 2 Ans. (b): Given that,
CH2 → = = 1: 6
H 12 Weight of hydrogen = 10g
C 1 Moles of carbohydrate = 0.833
C2H→ = = 1: 24
H 24 weight of hydrogen = 10g
C 3 0.833 moles of carbohydrate has hydrogen
CH3 → = = 1: 4 = 10g
H 12
1 mole of carbohydrate has hydrogen
C 4
CH4 → = = 1: 3 10 × 1
H 12 = = 12g
0.833
691. The density of a 3 M sodium thiosulphate Given, empirical formula of carbohydrate = CH2O
(Na2S2O3) solution is 1.25 g/mL. Calculate the CH2O contains hydrogen = 2 g/mole
percent by weight of sodium thiosulphate.
∴ Molecular formula should contain hydrogen
(a) 12.64% (b) 37.92%
(c) 0.87% (d) 63.21% 12 × 2
= = 12
AMU-2012 2
Ans. (b): Given that, Molecular formula = C6H12O6
Molarity of Na2S2O3 = 3mol/L 695. 0.16g of an organic compound containing
density of 3M of sodium thiosulphate = 1.25g/ml sulphur produces 0.233 g of BaSO4. Percentage
of sulphur in the compound is
Moles of Na2S2O3 = 3
(a) 20 (b) 80
Weight of Na2S2O3 = 3 × 158 = 474g
(c) 50 (d) 10
And, volume (V) of solution = 1L = 1000 mL
AP-EAMCET- (Engg.)-2011
m = d × v = 1.25 g/mL × 1000 mL
Ans. (a) : Given that, weight of BaSO4 = 0.233g
m = 1250 g
weight of compound = 0.16
Wt.of Na 2S2 O3 32×weight of BaSO4 × 100
% by weight of Na2S2O3 = × 100 percentage of sulphur =
Wt.of solution 233 × weight of compound
474 32 × 0.233 ×100
= × 100 = 37.92 % =
1250 233 × 0.16
692. The formula of chloral is 7.45 × 100
(a) CHCl3 (b) CH2ClCHO =
37.28
(c) CCl3CHO (d) CHCl2CHO
= 19.98 ≈ 20
JCECE - 2012 Hence, 20% of sulphur present in the compound.
Ans. (c) : The formula of chloral is CCl3CHO. 696. The empirical formula of a non-electrolyte is
693. In the estimation of sulphur by Carius method, CH2O. A solution containing 3g of the
0.480 g of an organic compound gives 0.699 g of compound exerts the same osmotic pressure as
barium sulphate. The percentage of sulphur in that of 0.05 M glucose solution. The molecular
this compound is (Atomic masses Ba = 137, S = formula of the compound is
32, O = 16) (a) CH2O (b) C2H4O2
(a) 20% (b) 15% (c) C4H8O4 (d) C3H6O3
(c) 35% (d) 30% Karnataka-CET-2011
(e) 40% Ans. (b) : For isotonic solution (solution with same
Kerala-CEE-2012 osmotic pressure)
Ans. (a): Given that, W1 W2
Amount of BaSO4 = 0.699g =
weight of organic compound = 0.48g m1V1 m 2 V2

Where, W1 = Mass of glucose = 0.05 × 180 g = 9 g 10 x = 300 – 300 x
m1 = Molecular mass of glucose = 180 g 10 x = 300 – 300 x
Assuming V1 = V2 = 1L 310 x = 300
W2 = Mass of compound = 3 g 300
m2 = ? x=
310
9 3
∴ = 30
180 x x=
3 ×180 31
x= Amount of silver in molten lead
9
x = 60 g 30 31 − 30 1
= 1− x = 1− = =
Molecular formula = n × empirical formula 31 31 31
Empirical formula = CH2O
1
Empirical formula mass = 12 + 2 + 16 = 30 ⇒ % of silver = ×100 ≃ 3%
31
molecular mass
n= 699. 1.2 g of organic compound of Kjeldahlization
empirical formula mass
liberates ammonia which consumes 30 cm3 of 1
60 N HCl. The percentage of nitrogen in the
= =2
30 organic compound is
Molecular formula = 2 × CH2O = C2H4O2 (a) 30 (b) 35
697. The percentage composition by weight of an (c) 46.67 (d) 20.8
aqueous solution of solute (molar mass 150) Karnataka-CET-2011
which boils at 373.26K(kb=0.52) is Ans. (b) : Given, Organic compound (w) = 1.2g
(a) 7 (b) 6 Ammonia consumes = 30 cm3 = 30 ml
(c) 9 (d) 15
Normality of HCl = 1 N
CG PET- 2011
Percentage of nitrogen =
Ans. (a): Given,
∆Tb = (B.P)soln. – (B.P)solvent = 373.26 – 373 = 0.26 K 1.4 × N of acid × Vol.used with NH 3
∆Tb = 0.26, Weight of organic compound
Kb = 0.52 1.4 × 1× 30
We know that, =
1.2
∆Tb = Kb × m,
= 35%
∆Tb 0.26
m= = = 0.5 Hence, 35% of nitrogen present in the organic
K b 0.52 compound.
0.5 × 150 = 75g of solute in 1000g of the water 700. Two organic compounds X and Y on analysis
K × W2 × 1000 gave the same percentage composition namely
∆Tb = b C = (12/13) × 100% and H = (1/13) × 100%
W1M1
However, compound X decolourises bromine
0.52 × W2 × 1000
0.26 = water while compound Y does not. The two
1000 ×150 compounds X and Y may be respectively
W2 = 75 (a) acetylene and ethylene
75 × 100 (b) acetylene and benzene
Percentage composition = = 7.5%
1000 (c) ethylene and benzene
698. 1 g of silver gets distributed between 10 cm3 (d) toluene and benzene
molten zinc and 100 cm3 of molten lead at (e) benzene and styrene
800oC. The percentage of silver still left in the
Kerala-CEE-2011
lead layer is approximately
(a) 2 (b) 5 Ans. (b) : Given that,
(c) 3 (d) 1 percentage composition of X and Y.
Karnataka-CET-2011 12 1
× 100 percent : × 100 percent
Ans. (c) : Partition coefficient 13 13
Conc.of Ag in molten Zn i.e. the ratio of masses of C and H in the organic
= compound
Conc.of Ag in molten Pb
Mass of Ag in lead at equilibrium = 1 – x C : H
Mass of Ag in Zn at equilibrium = x
x /10 10x 12 1
300 = = :
1 − x /100 1 − x 13 13

The empirical formula of the compound X and Y is CH Ans. (a): Given, Wacid = 0.765g
and X decolorize bromine water while Y does not thus WCO2 = 0.535g & WH2 O = 0.138g
X and Y must be acetylene (CH ≡ CH) and benzene
(C6H6) respectively. 12 Mass of CO 2
Pecentage of C = × × 100
44 Mass of compund
Br2 water 12 0.535
 → Percentage of C = × × 100 = 19.07
44 0.765
2 Mass of H 2O
Percentage of H = × × 100
18 Mass of compund
1, 1, 2, 2- tetrabromoethane
2 0.138
Percentage of H = × × 100 = 2.004
18 0.765
Ratio of % of C : H = 19 : 2 (approx)
704. 1.5 g of CdCl2 was found to contain 0.9 g of Cd.
Calculate the atomic weight of Cd.
trans –1, 2– dibromo ethene (a) 118 (b) 112
701. An organic contains 49.3% carbon, 6.84% (c) 106.5 (d) 53.25
hydrogen and its vapour density is 73. VITEEE- 2009
Molecular formula of the compound is Ans. (c) : Mass percent of Cd in CdCl2
(a) C3 H 5 O 2 (b) C 4 H10 O 2 0.9
= × 100 = 60%
(c) C 6 H10 O 4 (d) C3 H10 O 2 1.5
∴ Mass percent of Cl2 in CdCl2
BCECE-2010 = 100 – 60 = 40%
Ans. (c): For calculating molecular formula, Q40% part (Cl 2 ) has atomic weight
= 2 × 35.5 = 71.0
Element % Relative Simpleratio ∴ 60% part (Cd) has atomic weight
no.of atom 71.0 × 60
= = 106.5
C 49.3 49.3 4.10 40
= 4.10 = 1.5 × 2 = 3
12 2.74 Hence, the atomic weight of Cd is 106.5g.
H 6.84 6.84 6.84 705. In an organic compound, C =68.5% and H =
= 6.84 = 2.5 × 2 = 5 4.91%. Which empirical formula is correct for
1 2.74
it?
O 43.68 43.68 2.74
= 2.74 = 1× 2 = 2 (a) C6H10 (b) C7H6O2
16 2.74 (c) C5H8O (d) C9H3O
∴ The empirical formula is C3H5O2 UP CPMT-2009
Empirical formula weight = 12 × 3 + 1 × 5 + 16 × 2=73 Ans. (b): For calculating Empirical formula,
Melecular weight of the compound = 2 × vapour density
= 2 × 73 = 146 Element At.wt. Percent No.of moles Simple molar ratio
Molecular weight composition
n= C 12 68.5 68.5 5.708
Empiricalformula weight = 5.708 = 3.41× 2 = 7
12 1.67
146
= =2 H 1 4.91 4.91
= 4.91
4.91
= 2.95 × 2 = 6
73 1 1.67
Molecular formula = Empirical formula × 2 O 16 (100 − 68.5 − 4.91) 26.59
= 1.67
1.67
= 1× 2 = 2
= 2(C3H5O2) = C6H10O4 = 26.59 16 1.67
702. Molecular formula of Glauber's salt is Hence, the empirical formula of the compound is
(a) MgSO4 ⋅ 7H2O (b) CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2O C 7H 6O 2.
(c) FeSO4 ⋅7H2O (d) Na2SO4 ⋅10H2O 706. The percentage (by weight) of sodium
hydroxide in a 1.25 molal NaOH solution is
JCECE - 2010 (a) 4.76% (b) 1.25%
Ans. (d) : Sodium sulphate decahydrate (Na2SO4 ⋅ (c) 5% (d) 40%
10H2O) is also known as Glauber's salt. MHT CET-2009
703. 0.765 g of an acid gives 0.535 g of CO2 and Ans. (a): We know that,
0.138 g of H2O. Then, the ratio of the moles of solute
molality =
percentage of carbon and hydrogen is mass of solvent ( kg )
(a) 19 : 2 (b) 18 : 11
nA
(c) 20 : 17 (d) 1 : 7 1.25 =
JCECE - 2010 1kg

nA = moles of NaOH = 1 ⋅ 25 moles Ans. (c) : Molecular weight of compound = 108
weight of NaOH = moles × molar mass C H N
= 1 ⋅ 25 × 40 = 50 g 9 1 3.5
weight of solution = 1000 + 50 = 1050 g Number of atom,
50 1 3.5
% (by weight) of NaOH = × 100 9 =1 = 0.25
1050 = 0.75 1 14
12
= 4.76% simplest ratio,
707. An organic compound made of C,H and N 1 0.25
0.75 =4 =1
contains 20% nitrogen. Its molecular weight is =3 0.25 0.25
(a) 70 (b) 140 0.25
So, empirical formula = C3H4N
(c) 100 (d) 65
108
WB-JEE-2009 n= =2
54
Ans. (a) : Atomic mass of nitrogen = 14
Molecular formula = (C3H4N)2
Atomic mass of N
% of N = × 100 = C 6H 8N 2
Minimum mol mass of compund 710. 0.1 mole of a carbohydrate with empirical
14 formula CH2O contains 1 g of hydrogen. What
20% = × 100 is its molecular formula?
Minimum mol mass
(a) C5H10O5 (b) C6H12O6
14 × 100 (c) C4H8O4 (d) C3H6O3
Minimum mol mass = = 70
20 (e) C2H4O2
Therefore, Minimum molecular weight of the organic Kerala-CEE-2008
compound = 70. Ans. (a): Assume molecular formula be (CH2O)n
708. A compound with molecular formula C4H10O3 In one mol of carbohydrate, there is 2n g of hydrogen
is converted by the action of acetyl chloride to a present.
compound of molecular mass 190. The original 2n
compound (C4H10O3) has ∴ 0.1 mole of carbohydrate there is ×0.1g of
1
(a) two OH groups hydrogen which is equal to 1g
(b) four OH groups 2n
×0.1 = 1 ⇒ n = 5
(c) one OH group 1
(d) three OH groups. Molecular formula = C5H10O5
SRMJEEE-2008 Hence, the required molecular formula is C5H10O5
Ans. (a) : Molecular mass of C4H10O3 711. The percentage of an element M is 53 in its
= 4 × 12 + 10 × 1 + 3 × 16 oxide of molecular formula M2O3. Its atomic
= 106 mass is about
Molecular mass of CH3CO (a) 45 (b) 9
= 12 × 2 + 3 × 1 + 16 = 43 (c) 18 (d) 36
(e) 27
Hence, the no. of – OH groups in the
Kerala-CEE-2008
compound = M. mass of C4H10O3 + 2 × M. mass of
Ans. (e): Let atomic mass of M is x
CH3CO – 190
Molecular weight of compound = 2x + 16 × 3
= 106 + 2 × 43 – 190
= 2x + 48
=2
2x × 100
Hence, the original compound C4H10O2 % of weight of M = = 53 (given)
2x + 48
has two – OH groups.
Solve for x, x  27.06
709. In a compound C, H and N are present in x = 27
9 : 1 : 3.5 by weight. If molecular weight of the Hence, the atomic mass of M is 27.
compound is 108, then molecular formula of
712. An organic compound contains carbon,
the compound is–
hydrogen and oxygen. Its element analysis gave
(a) C2H6N2 C, 38.71% and H, 9.67%. The empirical
(b) C3H4N formula of the compound would be
(c) C6H8N2 (a) CHO (b) CH4O
(d) C9H12N3 (c) CH3O (d) CH2O
BCECE-2008 NEET-2008
Ans. (c): For calculating Empeirical formula, Molecular weight 60
⇒ n= = =2
Element % At. Relative Simplest Empirical mass 30
Wt. No. of ratio of
⇒ Molecular formula is (CH2O)2 = C2H4O2
atoms atoms
717. An aromatic hydrocarbon with empirical
C 38.71 12 3.23 3.23/3.23=1formula C5H4 on treatment with concentrated
H 9.67 1 9.67 9.67/3.23=3H2SO4 gave a monosulphonic acid. 0.104 g of
O 51.62 16 3.23 3.23/3.23=1 N
the acid required 10 mL of NaOH for
Hence, empirical formula is CH3O. 20
713. Composition of azurite mineral is complete neutralization. The molecular
(a) CuCO3.CuO formula of hydrocarbon is
(a) C5H4 (b) C10H8
(b) Cu(HCO3)2.Cu(OH)2
(c) C15H12 (d) C20H16
(c) 2CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 (e) C15H20
(d) CuCO3.2Cu(OH)2 Kerala-CEE-2007
WB-JEE-2008
Ans. (b) : The equivalent of acid = Equivalent of base
Ans. (c) : Azurite is the ore of copper, its molecule or Basicity of acid × number of moles of acid =
formula is Cu (OH)2.2CuCO3 acidity of the base × number of mol of the base
• It is best known for its characteristic deep blue to 1× 0.104g
violet blue color. ⇒ = 1 × normality × volume in litre
M
714. An unknown element forms an oxide. What 0.104 10 1
will be the equivalent wt. of the element if the = 1× N
oxygen content is 20% by wt M 1000 20
M = 0.104 × 2000 = 208g/mol
(a) 16 (b) 32
Molecular mass of acid is 208g/mol
(c) 8 (d) 64
Empirical formula of mono sulphonic acid = R–SO3H
WB-JEE-2008
Molecular mass= Molecular mass of –R + (32 + 48 + 1)
Ans. (b): Given that, ⇒ 208g/ mol = x × (mass empirical formula of
Oxygen contents in element oxide is 20% by weight.hydrocarbon, C5H4) + 80g/mol
Element contents in element oxide is 8% by weight.⇒ 208 – 80 = x × (12 × 5 +4)
Then, equivalent weight of unknown element = ⇒x=2
80
×8
∴ Molecular formula of Hydrocarbon = 2 (C5H4)
20
∴ Equivalent weight of unknown element 32. = C10H8
715. When 30 litres of H2 and 30 litre of N2 are 718. 5.6 g of an organic compound on burning with
reacted NH3 is formed and the yield is only excess of oxygen gave 17.6 g of CO2 and 7.2 g of
50%. The composition of the gaseous mixture H2O. The organic compound is :
will be : (a) C2H6 (b) C4H8
(a) 5L of N2, 5L of H2 and 5L of NH3. (c) C3H8 (d) CH3COOH
(b) 5L of N2, 10L of H2 and 10L of NH3. (e) CH3CHO
(c) 10L of N2, 15L of H2 and 5L of NH3. Kerala-CEE-2006
(d) 5L of N2, 15L of H2 and 10L of NH3. Ans. (b) : Let the organic compound be a hydrocarbon
BITSAT-2007 y
Cx Hy + O2 → xCO2 + H 2O
Ans. (d) : N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) → 2NH 3 (g); 2
H2 is the limiting reagent in this reaction. 10L 17.6g of CO2 = 0.4 moles
N2 will react with 30L H2 to produce 20L of NH3. As 7.2g of H2O = 0.4 moles
only 50% of the expected product is formed, hence the y
composition of resultant mixture will be 5L of N2, 15L From reaction x = 0.4 and = 0.4
2
of H2 and 10L of NH3.
x 1
716. A compound has the empirical formula CH2 O. ∴ =
Its vapour density is 30. Its molecular formula y 2
is Hence, the organic compound is C4H8 is in ratio 1:2
(a) C2H4O2 (b) C2H6O 719. In a compound C, H and N are present in 9 : 1 :
(c) C2H6O2 (d) C2H4O 3.5 by weight. If molecular weight of the
compound is 108, then the molecular formula
CG PET -2007 of the compound is
Ans. (a) : We know that, (a) C2H6N2 (b) C3H4 N
Molecular mass = 2 × vapour density (c) C6H8N2 (d) C9H12N3
Empirical formula mass (CH2O) = 12 + 2 + 16 = 30 UP CPMT-2006
Ans. (c) : Molecular weight of compound = 108 Ans. (c) :
C H N Loss of weight of the solution = V.P of solution
9 1 3.5 Loss of weight of the solvent ∝ PO – PS
9 1 3.5 P o − Ps Loss in weight of solvent
= 0.75 =1 = 0.25 ∴ =
12 1 14 Ps Loss in weight of solution
0.75 1 0.25 W2 10
=3 =4 =1
0.25 0.25 0.25 M 2 W2 M1 0.05 M 2 2
= ⇒ = =
So, empirical formula = C3H4N W1 W1M 2 2.5 90 M2
Molecular weight of C3H4N = 54 M1 18
108
⇒ n= =2 M2 = 100g/mol
54 723. The molecular formula of potash alum is
∴ Molecular formula = (C3H4N)2 (a) KAl2S4H48O40 (b) K2Al2S4H48O39
= C 6H 8N 2 (c) K2Al2S4H48O40 (d) KAl2S4H48O40
720. Equal moles of water and urea are taken in a AP EAMCET- 2004
flask. What is mass percentage of urea in the
solution? Ans. (c) : Potash alum is a double salt of potassium
(a) 23.077% (b) 230.77% sulphate and aluminium sulphate.
(c) 2.3077% (d) 0.23077% K2SO4. Al2(SO4)3.24H2O or K2Al2S4H48O40.
UPTU/UPSEE-2006 724. Study the following table
Ans. (a) : If H2O = x mol = 18x g Compound Weight of
Then urea = x mol = 60x g (molecular wt.) compound
Total mass of the solution = 18x + 60x = 78x g (in g) taken
I. CO2 (44) 4.4
18x
Mass % of urea = ×100 = 23.077% II. NO2 (46) 2.3
78x III. H2O2 (34) 6.8
721. 4g of hydrogen (CxHy) on complete combustion IV. SO2 (64) 1.6
gave 12g of CO2. What is the empirical formula Which two compounds have least weight of
of the hydrocarbon? oxygen ? (molecular weights of compounds are
(C = 12, H = 1) given in brackets)
(a) CH3 (b) C4H9 (a) II and IV (b) I and III
(c) CH (d) C3H8 (c) I and II (d) III and IV
AP-EAMCET (Engg.)-2005 AP-EAMCET (Engg.)-2004
Ans. (a) : (I) Mass of oxygen present in CO2
 y y 4.4 × 32
Ans. (d) : CxHy +  x +  O 2 → xCO 2 + H 2O = = 3.2g
 4 2 44
1 mole of CxHy gives x moles of CO2. 2.3
4 12 (II) Mass of oxygen present in NO2 = × 32 = 1.6g
Given:- mole of CxHy gives moles of CO2. 46
12x + y 44 6.8
(III) Mass of oxygen present in H2O2 = × 32 = 6.4g
4x 12 34
∴ =
12x + y 44 1.6
(IV) Mass of oxygen present in SO2 = × 32 = 0.8g
x 3 64
⇒ = ∴ II and IV have least mass of oxygen.
12x + y 44
44x = 36x + 3y 725. A compound contains 54.55% carbon, 9.09%
8x = 3y hydrogen, 36.36% oxygen. The empirical
formula of this compound is
x 3
⇒ = (a) C3H5O (b) C4H8O2
y 8 (c) C2H4O2 (d) C2H4O
The empirical formula of the hydrocarbon is C3H8. UPTU/UPSEE-2004
722. Dry air is passed through a solution containing Ans. (d) :
10 g of a solute in 90 g of water and then Element %comp. moles Ratio moles
through pure water. The loss in weight of
solution is 2.5 g and that of pure solvent of 0.05 C 54.55 54.55 /12 = 4.54 4.54 / 2.27 ≈ 2
g. Calculate the molecular weight of the solute. H 9.09 9.09 /1 = 9.09 9.09 / 2.27 ≈ 4
(a) 50 (b) 180
O 36.36 36.36 /16 = 2.27 2.27 / 2.27 = 1
(c) 100 (d) 25
(e) 51 C:H:O=2:4: 1
Kerala-CEE-2005 ∴ Empirical formula is C2H4O.

726. A petroleum fraction having boiling range 70- 729. A compound is 60g on analysis produce carbon,
200°C and containing 6-10 carbon atoms per hydrogen and oxygen 24g, 4g and 32g
molecule is called: respectively. The empirical formula is
(a) Natural gas (b) Gas oil (a) C2H2O2 (b) C2H4O2
(c) Gasoline (d) Kerosene (c) CH2O (d) C2H4O6
UPTU/UPSEE-2004 UP CPMT-2002
Ans. (c) : (70o – 200oC) (C6 – C10) = Gasoline Ans. (c) :
(200oC – 275oC) (C10 – C16) = Kerosene Element Analysis % of element Relative
(250oC – 400oC) (C17 – C20) = fuel oil or gas oil produce number
> 400oC lubricating oil. C 24 24 40
= 3.33 = 1
So, a petroleum fraction having boiling range to – ×100 = 40% 12
60
200oC and containing 6–10 carbon atoms per molecule H 4 4 6.66
is called gasoline. × 100 = 6.66% = 6.66 = 2
60 1
727. 0.078 g of hydrocarbon occupy 22.144 mL off
N 32 32
volume at STP. The empirical formula of the × 100 = 53.33% 53.33 = 3.33 = 1
hydrocarbon is CH. The molecular formula of 60 14
the hydrocarbon is : Hence, the empirical formula is CH2O.
(a) C2H2 (b) C6H6 730. What is the molecular formula of borazole?
(c) C8H8 (d) C4H4 (a) B2H6 (b) B6N6H6
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2002 (c) B3N3H6 (d) B3N3H3
Ans. (b) : 22.414 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon at S.T.P. AP EAMCET- 2001
has mass = 0.078 g. Ans. (c) : Borazine, also known as borazole, is a polar
22414 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon at STP will have inorganic compound with the chemical formula B3N3H6.
0.078
mass = × 22400g = 78g .
22.4
∴ Molar mass of hydrocarbon = 78 g mol–1
Empirical formula mass of hydrocarbon (CH) = 12 + 1
= 13
Molecular mass 78
∴ n= = =6
Empiricalformula Mass 13
• B2H6 is the molecular formula of diborane.
∴ Molecular formula of hydrocarbon = (CH)6 = C6H6
(Benzene). 731. Percentage of Se in peroxidase anhydrous
enzyme is 0.5% by weight (at wt. = 78.4) then
728. In an organic compound of molar mass 108 g minimum molecules weight of peroxidase
mol-1 C, H and N atoms are present in 9 : 1 : anhydrous enzyme is
3.5 by weight. Molecular formula can be (a) 1.568 × 104 (b) 1.568 × 103
(a) C6H8N2 (b) C7H10N (c) 15.68 (d) 2.136 × 104
(c) C5H5N3 (d) C4H18N3 NEET-2001
[AlEEE-2002] Ans. (a) : Since, 0.5g Se = 100 gm peroxidase
Ans. (a): Given, anhydrous enzyme
Molar mass= 108g/mol. 100 × 78.4
Total part by weigh = 9+1+3.5=13.5 78.4g Se = = 1.568 × 104
0.5
9
Weight of carbon = ×108 = 72g Minimum molecular mass of peroxidase anhydrous
13.5 enzyme means molecule atleast contains one selenium
72 atom.
Number of carbon atoms= =6 732. What is the molecular formula of gypsum?
12
1 (a) CaSO4.H2O (b) CaSO4.2H2O
Weight of hydrogen = × 108 = 8g (c) 2CaSO4.H2O (d) CaSO4.3H2O
13.5 AP EAMCET- 2000
8
Number of hydrogen atoms = = 8 Ans. (b) :Gypsum is a soft sulfate mineral composed of
1 calcium sulfate dihydrate, with the chemical formula
3.5 CaSO4.2H2O. The major use of Gypsum are in the
Weight of nitrogen = ×108 = 28g cement industries.
13.5
733. What is the molecular formula of white
28
Number of nitrogen atom= =2 phosphorus?
14 (a) P2 (b) P4
The mole ratio C:H:M = 6:8:2 (c) P5 (d) P16
The molecular formula is C6H8N2 AP EAMCET- 2000
Ans. (b) : The molecular formula of white phosphorus Ans. (d) : Given,
is P4. P4 is very poisonous and explosive. It is used as mass of O2 = 8 gm
reagent to prepare the phosphene gas (PH3). 8
∴ No. of moles of O2 = = 0.25 mole
734. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2O. 32
Its molecular weight is 180. The molecular and mass of N2 = 7 gm
formula of compounds is: 7
(a) C2H4O2 (b) C3H6O3 No. of moles of N 2 = = 0.25
28
(c) C6H12O6 (d) C5H10O5 0.25
AIIMS-1999 Since, mole percentage of oxygen = × 100
0.25 + 0.25
Ans. (c): Given, 25
Molecular formula weight = 180 = × 100
50
Empirical formula weight of CH2O is = 12+2+16=30 = 50%
We know that, 738. Which of the following fertilizers has the
Molecular formula weight 180 highest nitrogen percentage?
n= = =6
Emperical formula weight 30 (a) Ammonium sulphate (b) Calcium cyanamide
(c) Urea (d) Ammonium nitrate
Molecular formula = 6×CH2Ο NEET-1993
= C6H12O6 Ans. (c):
Therefore, Molecular formula of compound is C6H12O6 (a) Mass of N in (NH4)2 SO4 = 28 g
Mass of (NH4)2 SO4 = 132 g
735. 60g of an organic compound on analysis is 28
found to have, C=24 g, H=4 g and O=32g. The % of N in (NH4)2 SO4 = × 100 = 21.2%
132
empirical formula of compound is: (b) Mass of N in CaCN2 = 28 g.
(a) CH2O (b) C2H4O Mass of CaCN2 = 80 g
(c) C2H2O (d) C2H2O2 28
AIIMS-1998 % of N = × 100 = 35%
80
Ans. (a): Given, Organic compound = 60g (c) Mass of N in NH2 CONH2 = 28 g
Mass of C = 24 g, mass of H = 4g , mass of O=32g Mass of NH2CONH2 = 60 g
The ratio of number of gram atoms 28
C : H:O % of N = ×100 = 46.6%
60
24 4 32 (d) Mass of N in NH4NO3 = 28 g
: : Mass of NH4NO3 = 80g
12 1 16
2 : 4 : 2 28
% of N = × 100 = 35%
The Empirical formula is = C2H4O2 = CH2O 80
739. An organic compound having carbon,
736. The percentage of oxygen in NaOH is hydrogen and sulphur contains 4% of sulphur.
(a) 16% (b) 4% The minimum molecular weight of the
(c) 40% (d) 8% compound is
AIIMS-1996 (a) 200 (b) 400
Ans. (c): Given that, (c) 600 (d) 800
Molar mass of sodium atom = 23 VITEEE 2015
Molar mass of oxygen atom = 16 Ans. (d) : The minimum molecular weight must
contain at least one S atom.
Molar mass of hydrogen atom = 1
weight of oneS − atom
Total molar mass of NaOH = 40 ∴ %S= ×100
Mass of oxygen minimum m.wt.
% composition of oxygen = ×100 32
Mass of NaOH 4= × 100 (Q 4% of S)
minimum m.wt.
16
= × 100 32 × 100
40 minimum m. wt.= = 800g mol −1.
= 40 % 4
740. Caffeine has a molecular weight of 194 u. If it
737. The mole percentage of oxygen in a mixture of contains 28.9% by mass of nitrogen, number of
7.0 g of nitrogen and 8.0 g of oxygen is atom of nitrogen in one molecule of caffeine is
(a) 8 (b) 16 (a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 24 (d) 50 (c) 2 (d) 3
A-P EAMCET-1995 VITEEE 2015
Ans. (a) : Given that, Weight
Molecular weight of Caffeine = 194 amu No. of moles =
Molecular weight
Q % of N present in one molecule of caffeine is 28.9%.
50 × 1000
28.9 =
∴ Mass of nitrogen in 194amu = × 194 = 56 amu 40
100 = 1250 moles.
Mass of 1N atom = 14m (Q14m = 14 u ) 744. In a non-stoichiometric sample of cuprous
56 sulphide. With the composition Cu1.8S. Cupric
∴ One molecule of caffeine = = 4 atoms of nitrogen ions are also present in the lattice. What mole
14 percent of Cu2+ is present in the copper content
of the crystal?
6. Stoichiometry Calculation (a) 99.99% (b) 11.11%
(c) 88.88 % (d) 18%
741. An organic compound has an empirical AP EAPCET-6 Sep. 2021, Shift-II
formula CH2O. Its vapour density is 45. The Ans. (b) : Given that, Non-Stoichiometric sample of
molecular formula of compound is cuprous sulphide
(a) CH2O (b) C2H5O
(c) C2H4O2 (d) C3H6O3
A.P.EAMCET-1995, 1991
Ans. (d) : Given that,
Vapour density = 45 2 1
⇒ 2Cu 2+ ions = × 100 = ×100
∴ Molecular weight = 2 × vapour density 18 a
= 2 × 45 = 90 = 11.11%
Hence, Empirical formula weight (CH2O)
16
= 12 + 2 + 16 = 30 = 16 Cu+ions = × 100
Molecular weight 18
No. of mole (n) = 8
Empirical weight = ×100 = 88.89%
4
90 Hence, 11.11% of Cu2+ is present in the copper content
n= = 3 mole
30 of the crystal.
∴ Molecular formula = n × empirical formula – –
745. For the reaction: NH3 + OCl  → N2H4 + Cl
= 3 × CH2O –
= C 3H 6O 3 in basic medium, the coefficients of NH3, OCl
and N2H4 for the balanced equation are
742. An organic compound containing C,H and N respectively
gives the following on analysis :C=40%, H= (a) 2, 2, 2 (b) 2, 2, 1
13.33% and N=46.67%. What would be its
empirical formula? (c) 2, 1, 1 (d) 4, 4, 2
(a) C2H7N (b) C2H7N2 BITSAT-2021
(c) CH4N (d) CH3N Ans. (c) : For ammonia
CG PET- 2012, 2006 2NH3 →– N2H4 + 2H + 2e (Basic medium) ...(i)
+ –
Ans. (c): C : H : N For OCl

OCl– + 2H+ + 2e– → Cl– + H2O ...(ii)
40 13.33 46.67
: : (dividing by wt.) Adding both equation (i) and (ii)
12 1 14 2NH3 + OCl– → N2H4 + Cl– + H2O
= 3.33 : 13.33 : 3.33
Co-efficients of NH3, ClO– and N2H4 are 2, 1 and 1.
3.33 13.33 3.33
= : : (dividing by smallest quotient) 746. A pure compound contains 2.4 g of C, 1.2×10-23
3.33 3.33 3.33 atoms of H, 0.2 moles of oxygen atoms. Its
=1:4:1 empirical formula is
∴ Empirical formula = CH4N (a) C2HO (b) C2H2O2
–23 (c) CH O (d) CHO
743. If one atom of an element X weighs 6.643×10 2
g. Then find the number of moles of atoms in Kerala-CEE-29.08.2021
50 kg of element X. Ans. (d) : Convert each element into number of moles.
(a) 500 moles (b) 125 moles 2.4
(c) 1250 moles (d) 50 moles Moles of carbon = = 0.2
AP EAPCET 23-08-2021 Shift-I 12
Ans. (c) : Given, atomic weight of an element 1.2 × 1023
Moles of hydrogen = = 0.199
= 6.643×10–23 NA 6.023 × 1023
= 6.643×10–23 × 6.022×1023 Moles of oxygen = 0.2
= 40 Empirical formula is CHO.

747. Calculate the amount of CO2 gas produced, 751. An organic compound contains 24% carbon,
when 32 g moles of CH4 is burned with 4% hydrogen and remaining chlorine. Its
sufficient amount of oxygen. (Given, atomic empirical formula is
weights of C = 12, O = 16, H = 1) (a) CHCl (b) CH2Cl
(a) 132 g (b) 44 g (c) CHCl2 (d) CH2Cl
(c) 88 g (d) 176 g (e) CH2Cl2
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.09.2020, Shift-I Kerala-CEE-2020
Ans. (c) : CH 4 + 2O 2 → CO 2 + 2H 2 O Ans. (d) : Given C = 24%
1mol 1mol H = 4%
→
16 g 44g
32 g 88g
Cl = 100 – (24 + 4)
Hence, 88g CO2 gas produced. = 100 – 28 = 72%
748. Gas 'X' is obtained on heating KClO3 with
catalyst MnO2. This gas (in excess) on reaction Element % Ratio Simplified
with white phosphorus forms as acidic oxide C 24% 24/12 2
'Y'. 'Y' on dissolving in water forms a H 4% 4/1 4
compound 'Z'. Identify X, Y and Z. Cl 72% 72/35.5 2.02 ≈ 2
(a) O2, P2O5, H3PO4 (b) O3, P2O5, H3PO4
(c) O2, P2O3, H3PO3 (d) O2, P2O5, H3PO3 The, empirical formula = C H Cl
2 4 2 or CH 2Cl
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.09.2020, Shift-I 752. The amount of calcium carbonate that reacts
Ans. (a) : with 500 cc of 0.5 N hydrochloric acid is
(a) 150 g (b) 125 g
(c) 12.5 g (d) 100g
COMEDK-2019
Ans. (c) : We know that
w × 1000
N=
eq.wt × V(in cc)
Mass of HCl in 500 cc of 0.5 N HCl;
P4 + 5O 2 → 2P2O 5 0.5 × 36.5 × 500
⇒ w=
P2 O 5 + 3H 2 O → 2H 3 PO 4 1000
749. What are the fractions of Fe and Fe in 2+ 3+ = 9.125g
Fe0.93O respectively? The balanced equation for the reaction is
(a) 0.93, 0.07 (b) 0.85, 0.15 CaCO3 + 2HCl  → CaCl2 + H 2 O + CO2
2×36.5g
(c) 0.75, 0.25 (d) 0.80, 0.20 100g
GUJCET-2020 2×36.5 g of HCl react with 100 g of CaCO3

Ans. (b) : Let Fe2+ = x & Fe3+ = (0.93 – x) 100 × 9.125
∴ 9.125 g of HCl will react with g of
By charge conservation 2 × 36.5
+ 2 (x) + 3(0.93 – x) – 2(1) = 0 CaCO3
–x + 0.79 = 0 =12.5 g of CaCO3
⇒ x = 0.79 753. Pink colour of non-stoichiometric LiCl is due to
0.79 (a) Cl– ion in the lattice
Fraction of Fe2+ = = 0.85 (b) Li+ ion in the lattice
0.93
3+
Fraction of Fe = (1 – 0.85) = 0.15 (c) electrons in the lattice
(d) Both the ions in the lattice
750. Consider the following equations:
2Fe2+ + H2O2 → x A + yB CG PET -2018
(in basic medium) Ans. (c):Metal excess defect caused due to anion
2MnO −4 + 6H + + 5H 2 O 2 → x' C + y' D + z'E vacancies is responsible for the pink colour of LiCl.
When LiCl is heated, Li atoms gets deposited on the
(in acidic medium) surface of the crystal. The Cl– ions diffuse into the
The sum of the stoichiometric coefficients x, y, x', surface and combine with Li atoms to give LiCl. This is
y' and z' for products A, B, C, and E, respectively, because of loss of electrons Li atoms to forms Li+. The
is.......... released electrons diffuse excess into crystal and occupy
[JEE Main 2020, 4 Sep, Shift-II] anionic sites. As a result, there is an excess of Li. The
Ans. (19) : anionic sites occupied by unpaired electrons imparts a
2Fe2+ + H2O2 → xA + yB → 2Fe3+ + 2OH– pink color to LiCl crystals.
2 MnO4– + 6H+ + 5H2O2 → x'C + y'D + z'E → 2Mn+2 + 754. 5 g of CaCO3 completely reacts with
5O2 + 8H2O (a) 36.5 g of HCl (b) 3.65 g of HCl
x = 2; y = 2, x' = 2, y' = 5, z' = 8 (c) 0.36 g of HCl (d) 7. 30 g of HCl
2 + 2 + 2 + 5 + 8 = 19 COMEDK-2016
Ans. (b) : The balanced equation for the reaction is: Putting the value, we get–
CaCO3 + 2HCl  → CaCl2 + CO 2 + H 2 O 2 0.02
=
100g 2×36.5g
4 X2
From the above equation, X2 = 0.04
100 g of CaCO3 reacts completely with 73 g of HCl So, Therefore, In solution, Xsolute + Xsolvent = 1
5 g of CaCO3 will react with 0.04 + Xsolvent = 1
73 or Xsolvent = 1 – 0.04 = 0.96
× 5g of HCl= 3.65 g of HCl 758. A metal oxide has the empirical formula,
100
M0.96O1.00. What will be the percentage of M2+
755. The mass of oxygen gas which occupies 5.6 ions in the crystal?
litres at STP would be (a) 90.67 (b) 91.67
(a) the gram atomic mass of oxygen (c) 8.33 (d) 9.33
(b) one-fourth of the gram atomic mass of AMU-2015
oxygen Ans. (b) : M0.96 O1.00 may contains M2+, M3+ ions.
(c) double the gram atomic mass of oxyen Amount of M2+ ions in crystals = x
(d) half of the gram atomic mass of oxygen. Amount of M3+ ions will be = 0.96 – x
COMEDK-2015 We know that negative and positive ions are equal.
∴ 2x + 3(0.96 – x) = 2
Ans. (d) : 32 g of oxygen at STP occupies = 22.4 L
2x + 3 (0.96 – x) – 2 = 0
5.6 L of oxygen at STP occupies 2x + 2.88 – 3x – 2 = 0
32 0.88 – x = 0
= × 5.6 = 8 g of oxygen
22.4 ⇒ x = 0.88
1 0.88
= × Gram atomic mass of oxygen % of M2+ ions in the crystal = ×100 = 91.67%
2 0.96
756. 20 mL of acetic acid reacts with 20 mL of ethyl 759. If NaCl is doped with 10-3 mol% of SrCl2, the
alcohol to form ethyl acetate. The density of number of cation vacancies will be
acid and alcohol are 1 g/mL and 0.7g/mL (a) 6.023×1018 (b) 1×10−3
12
respectively. The limiting reagent in this (c) 6×10 (d) 6.023×1023
reaction is CG PET- 2015
(a) acetic acid Ans. (a): 1 cation of Sr2+ will create 1 cation vacancy
(b) ethyl alcohol in NaCl. Therefore, the number of cation vacancy
created in the lattice of NaCl is equal to the number of
(c) acetic acid and ethyl alcohol divalent Sr2+ ions added.
(d) ester. Concentration of cation vacancy on being doped with
COMEDK-2015 10–3 mol% of SrCl2.
Ans. (b) : Mass of 20 mL of acetic acid = 20 ×1= 20 g = 10–3 mol% = 10–3/100 = 10–5 mol
Mass of 20 mL of ethyl alcohol = 20 ×0.7 = 14 g = 10–5 × 6.023 × 1023 = 6.023 ×1018
Therefore, Number of cation vacancies = 6.023 × 1018
CH3COOH + C2 H5OH  → CH3COOC2 H5
60g 46g
– H2O 760. 20.0 g of magnesium carbonate sample
decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide
60 g of acetic acid= 46 g of ethyl alcohol and 8.0 g magnesium oxide. What will be the
20 g of acetic acid= 15.3g of ethyl alcohol percentage purity of magnesium carbonate in
Therefore, ethyl alcohol is the limiting reagent. the sample?
757. A gas 'X' is dissolved in water at 2 bar (At. wt. of Mg = 24)
pressure. Its mole fraction is 0.02 in solution. (a) 96 (b) 60
(c) 84 (d) 75
The mole fraction of water when the pressure
NEET-2015
of gas is doubled at the same temperature is :
∆
(a) 0.04 (b) 0.98 Ans. (c) : MgCO 3 (s)  → MgO(s) + CO 2 (g)
(c) 0.96 (d) 0.02 Molar mass of MgCO3 = 24 +12 + 48 = 84g/mol
Molar mass of MgO = 24 + 16 = 40g/mol
∴ 84g of MgCO3 ≡ 40g of MgO
Ans. (c) : Given that, P1 = 2 bar
40
P2 = 2 × 2 = 4 bar, X1 = 0.02 And 20g of MgCO3 ≡ × 20 = 9.52 g of MgO
84
Q We know that But actual yield = 8g of MgO
P1 X1
= ∴ % purity =
8
× 100 = 84%
P2 X 2 9.52

761. Experimentally, it was found that a metal oxide Ans. (a) : Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H 2
has formula M0.98 O. Metal M, present as M2+ (24g) (2gor 22.4dm3 )
and M3+ in its oxide. Fraction of the metal Thus, 12 g of Mg produces = 1g or 11.2 dm3 H2 at NTP.
which exists as M3+ would be
765. The reaction of calcium with water is
(a) 7.01% (b) 4.08% represented by the equation:
(c) 6.05% (d) 5.08%
Ca + 2H 2O → Ca(OH)2 + H 2
[JEE Main-2013]
What volume of H2 at STP would be liberated
Ans. (b) : Given,
when 8 g of calcium completely reacts with
Metal oxide = M0.98O water?
Consider one mole of the oxide. (a) 0.2cm3 (b) 0.4cm3
Moles of M = 0.98 mole of O2–=1 (c) 2240cm 3
(d) 4480cm3
Let AIIMS-2010
Moles of M3+= x
Ans. (d): Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2
Moles of M2+= 0.98–x
40 gm of Ca on complete reaction with water liberates =
On balancing charge, 2 gm H2
(0.98–x)×2+ 3x–2=0 ∴ 8 gm of Ca, on complete reaction with water will
1.96–2x+3x–2=0
2
X=0.04 liberates = × 8gm H2 = 0.40 gm H2
0.04 40
% of M3+= × 100 = 4.08% At STP, 2g of H2 have the volume = 22.4 litre = 22400
0.98 cm3
762. The number of moles of electrons required to 0.40
deposit 36g of Al from an aqueous solution of ∴ 0.40 gm of H2 having = × 22400 cm3
Al(NO3)3 is (At. wt. of Al = 27) 2
(a) 4 (b) 2 = 4480 cm3 of H2 at S.T.P.
(c) 3 (d) 1 766. The vapour of a substance effuses through a
AP EAMCET (Engg.) - 2012 small hole at the rate of 1.3 times faster than
SO2 gas at 1 atm pressure and 500 K. The
Ans. (a): Mass of Al in 1 mol of Al (NO3)3 is the 27g. molecular weight of the gas is
For 1 mole of Al (27g), 3 mole of electrons are required (a) 49.2 (b) 37.9
to deposit 27g of Al.
(c) 41.6 (d) 83.2
As 3 mole of electrons required to deposit → 27g of Al
AP - EAMCET(Medical)-2009
3 36
So, for 36g → 36 × = = 4 moles Ans. (b) : Given that,
27 9 r1 = 1.3 M1 = ?
763. 100 mL of N/5 HCI was added to 1g of pure rso2 = 1 M so2 = 64
CaCO3. What would remain after the reaction?
(a) 0.5 g of CaCO3 From Graham's law–
(b) Neither CaCO3 nor HCl r1 M so2
(c) 50 mL of HCl =
rso2 M1
(d) 25 mL of HCl
COMEDK-2012 1.3 64
=
Ans. (b) : Q Molar Mass of CaCO3 = 100g mol –1 1 M1
w 1 or M1 = 37.86
∴ No. of moles of CaCO3 = = =0.01 mol or M1 ≈ 37.9
M 100
Now, molarity of 100 mL of N/5 767. The ratio of moles of hydrogen produced when
100 1 two moles of aluminium react with excess HCl
HCl= × = 0.02mol and NaOH separately is
1000 5 (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
Thus, the reaction can be represented as : (c) 2 : 1 (d) 3 : 2
CaCO3 + 2HCl  → CaCl 2 + CO 2 + H 2 O
AP - EAMCET(Medical)-2009
Q 1 mole of CaCO3 reacts with 2 moles of HCl. Ans. (a) : The following reactions occurred during the
Hence, 0.01 mole of CaCO3 will react completely with process–
0.02 mole of HCl and neither CaCO3 nor HCl would 2Al + 6HCl → 2AlCl3 + 3H2 ↑
remained after the reaction.
2Al + 2NaOH + 2H2O → 2NaAlO2 + 3H2 ↑
764. 12 g of Mg with excess of HCl at NTP gives
∴ The ratio of moles of hydrogen = 3 : 3 = 1 : 1
(a) 11.2 dm3 of H2 (b) 22.4 dm3 of H2
3
(c) 5.6 dm of H2 (d) 15.6 dm3 of H2 768. During electrolysis of water the volume of O2
liberated is 2.24 dm3. The volume of hydrogen
COMEDK-2011
liberated, under same conditions will be
(a) 2.24 dm3 (b) 1.12 dm3 Ans. (c) : Potash alum is double salt.
(c) 4.48 dm3 (d) 0.56 dm3 Given Potash alum, K2SO4 ⋅ Alx(SO4)3 ⋅ 24H2O ... (1)
AIIMS-2008 But formula of potash alum is
K2SO4 ⋅ Al2(SO4)3 ⋅ 24H2O ... (2)
Ans. (c) : 2H 2 O → 2H 2 + O2
Electrolysis
2 Vol. 2 Vol. 1Vol. After comparing both equations,

The volume of hydrogen liberated is twice that of the Value of x = 2
volume of oxygen liberated. When 2.24 dm3 of oxygen 773. The number of molecules of CO2 present in 44g
is liberated the volume of hydrogen liberated will be 2 × of CO2 is :
2.24 dm3 or 4.48 dm3. (a) 6.0 × 1023 (b) 3 × 1023
23
769. The stoichiometry of the following reaction is (c) 12 × 10 (d) 3 × 1010
K2S2O8(aq)+ 2KI(aq) → 2K2SO4(aq)+I2(aq) BCECE-2005
(a) 2 : 2 (b) 1 : 1 Ans. (a) : Given mass of CO2, W = 44g
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1 Molar mass of CO2, M = 44g/mol
J & K CET-(2008) Number of moles, n = W = 44 = 1 mol
Ans. (c) : K2S2O8(aq) + 2KI (aq) → 2K2SO4 (aq) + M 44
I2(aq) Number of molecules, N = n × NA
In the reaction one mole of K2S2O8 reacts with 2 moles = 1 × 6.022 × 1023
of KI, so the stoichiometry of this reaction is 1 : 2. = 6.022 × 1023 molecule.
770. 64 g of an organic compound contains 24 g of 774. The weight of one molecule of a compound of
carbon, 8 g of hydrogen and the rest oxygen. molecular formula C60 H122 is
The empirical formula of the compound is (a) 1.2 × 10 −20 g (b) 5.025 × 10−23 g
(a) CH2O (b) C2H4O (c) 1.4 × 10−21 g (d) 6.023 × 10−20 g
(c) CH4O (d) C2H8O2
AIIMS-2002
CG PET-2007 Ans. (c) : The molecular weight of C60H122 is 842g/mol
Ans. (c) : Mass of oxygen = 64 – 24 – 8 = 32 one mole of C60H122 weight 6.02 × 1023g.
Element Mole ratio Simple ratio Weight of one molecule of C60H122 is
24 2 842
C =2 =1 = 1.4 ×10−21 g
12 2 6.02 × 10 23
8 8 775. 3 moles of ethanol reacts with one mole of

H =8 =4 phosphorus tribromide to form 3 moles of
1 2
bromo-ethane and one mole of X. Which of the
32 2
O =2 =1 following is X?
16 2 (a) H3PO4 (b) H3PO2
Empirical formula is CH4O. (c) HPO3 (d) H3PO3
771. What is the stoichiometric coefficient of Ca in AP-EAMCET (Engg.)-2001
the reaction? Ans. (d) : 3 moles of ethanol reacts with 1 mole of
Ca+Al3+→Ca2+ + Al phosphorous tribromide to form 3 moles of
(a) 2 (b) 1 bromoethane and 1 mole of arthophosphorus acid
(c) 3 (d) 4 (H3PO3)
UP CPMT-2007 3C2H5OH + PBr3→ 3C2H5Br + H3PO3
Ans. (c) : Ca → Ca + 2e 2+ -
……(i) 776. What is the value (in litres) of CO2 liberated at
3+ - STP when 2.12 g of sodium carbonate (mol. wt.
Al +3e → Al …...(ii) 106) is treated with excess dilute HCl?
Eq. (i) multiply by 3 and Eq. (ii) multiply by 2, (a) 2.28 L (b) 0.448 L
and add Eqs. (i) and (ii) (c) 44.8 L (d) 22.4 L
3Ca → 3 Ca2++6e- AP-EAMCET-2000
2Al3+ + 6e- → 2Al Ans. (b) : The balanced chemical equation is,
3Ca + 2Al3 + → 3Ca 2 + + 2Al Na 2 CO3 + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H 2 O + CO2
106g 22.4L
Therefore, the stoichiometric coefficient of Ca in the 2.12g ?
given reaction is 3. ∴ 106 gm Na2CO3 required to CO2 is = 22.4 L
772. Value of x in potash alum, K2SO4.Alx (SO4)3 Volume of CO2 is required to 2.12 gm of
.24H2O is 22.4
Na2CO3 is = × 2.12 = 0.448 L
(a) 4 (b) 1 106
(c) 2 (d) None of these Thus, 2.12g of sodium carbonate will produce 0.448L at
UP CPMT-2007 STP CO2.
777. The molecular weight of an organic compound C 74 12 74 6.167
is 180. Its empirical formula is CH2O. Its = 6.176 = 4.989 ≈ 5
12 1.236
molecular formula is
N 17.3 14 17.3 1.236
(a) C6H12O6 (b) C7H16O5 = 1.236 =1
(c) C8H4O5 (d) C5H8O7 14 1.236
A.P.EAMCET-1996 So, Empirical formula is C H N
5 7
Ans. (a) : Given that, the empirical formula =CH2O Empirical mass = 5 × 12 + 7 × 1 + 14 = 81g
∵ Molecular weight of CH2O = 12 + 2 + 16 = 30 Molar mass of compound A is 162 g/mol
180 162
⇒ No. of mole (n) = = 6 mole Multiplying factor (n) = =2
30 81
Hence, the molecular formula = n × empirical formula Molecular formula = n × Empirical formula
= 6 × CH2O = 2 × C 5H 7N
= C6H12O6 Hence, molecular formula = C10H14N2
778. The formula of a metal chloride is MCl3, it 781. The elemental analysis of an organic compound
contains 20% of the metal. The atomic weight
gave C: 38.71%, H: 9.67% What is the
of the metal is approximately :
empirical formula of the compound?
(a) 26.5 (b) 11.8
(a) CH2O (b) CH3O
(c) 21.3 (d) 106.5
AP-EAMCET-1994 (c) CH 4 O (d) CHO
(e) CH5O
Ans. (a) : Given that 20 gm of metal in MCl3.
∴ 80 gm of Cl combines with 20 g of metal.
Ans. (b) : Given,
35.5 × 20
∴ 35.5 gm of Cl combine with = = 8.875 % of carbon = 38.71
80 % of hydrogen = 9.67
∴ Equivalent weight of metal = 8.875g. Then,
∴ Atomic weight = Eq. wt. × valency % of oxygen = 100 – 38.71 – 9.67
= 8.875×3 = 51.62
= 26.5 gm.
Element % abundance At. Molar ratio simple ratio
779. The number of molecules present in 3.5 g of wt.
CO at 0ºC and 760 mm pressure is : C 38.71 12
38.71 3.23
(a) 6.02×1023 (b) 1.25×6.02×1023 = 3.23 =1
12 3.23
(c) 0.125×6.02×1023 (d) 1.25 NA
H 9.67 1
AP-EAMCET-1992 9.67 9.67
= 9.67 =3
Ans. (c) : 28 gm CO at STP = 6.023 × 1023 molecules 1 3.23
1 O 100 – 38.71 + 16
51.62 3.23
∴ 3.5 gm of CO at STP = × 3.5 × 6.023 × 1023 9.67 = 51.62 = 3.23 =1
28 16 3.23
23
= 0.125 × 6.02 × 10
So, the empirical formula of the compound = CH3O
782. Consider the following reaction:
7. Empirical Formula for xAs 2S 3 + yO 2 → zAs 2O 3 + wSO 2
Molecular Formula What is y (the coefficient for O2) when this
equation is balanced using whole molecule
780. Compound A contains 8.7% Hydrogen, 74%
coefficients?
Carbone and 17.3% nitrogen. The molecular
formula of the compound is, (a) 5 (b) 7
Given : Atomic masses of C,H and N are 12, 1 (c) 9 (d) 11
and 14 amu respectively. NDA (II)-2014
(a) C4H6N2 (b) C2H3N Ans. (c) : Balance eq. of the following reaction is-
(c) C5H7N (d) C10H14N2 x As2S3 + y O2 → z As2O3 + w SO2
JEE Main-28.06.2022, Shift-II 2 As2S3 + 9 O2 → 2 As2O3 + 6 SO2
Ans. (d) Here,
Element of Mass Atomic Moles Ratio x=2
compound percentage mass w=6
A
y=9
H 8.7 1 8.7 8.7
= 8.7 = 7.03 ≈ 7 z=2
1 1.236 So, the value of y after the balanced eq. is 9.
02.
Structure of Atom
4. A dinegative ion of the element X consists of 10
1. Atomic Number, Mass Number, electrons and 8 neutrons. A dipositive ion of the
element Y consists of 12 protons. The number
Atomic Species of neutrons in Y is 1.5 times the number of
electrons in atom X. Then the mass numbers of
1. The pair, in which ions are isoelectronic with X and Y would be in the ratio
Al3+ is: (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 3
(a) Br– and Be2+ (b) Cl– and Li+ (c) 3 : 2 (d) 2 : 5
2– +
(c) S and K (d) O2– and Mg2+ (e) 1 : 3
JEE Main-25.06.2022, Shift-I Kerala CEE -03.07.2022
Ans. (d) : O2–, Mg2+ and Al3+ are isoelectronic. Because Ans. (b) : Proton Neutron Electrons
all have 10 electrons. X2– 8 8 10
2. Given below are two statements: one is labelled Y2+ 12 1.5 × 8 = 12 12
as Mass of X 2−
=
(8 + 8) = 16
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Mass of Y 2+ 12 +12 24
Reason (R). 2– 2+ 2– 2+
X : Y = 16 : 24 Or X : Y = 2 : 3
Reason (A): The ionic radii of O2– and Mg2+ are
same. 5. The oxide which contains an odd electron at the
Reason (R): Both O2– and Mg2+ are nitrogen atom is
isoelectronic species. (a) N2O (b) NO2
In the light of the above statements, choose the (c) N2O3 (d) N2O5
correct answer form the options given below JEE Main-26.06.2022, Shift-II
(a) Both (A) and (R) and true and (R) is the Ans. (b) : Species Total electron
correct explanation of (A) N 2O 22
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the NO2 23
correct explanation of (A) N 2O 3 38
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false N 2O 5 54
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true Hence, NO2 contain an odd electron at the nitrogen
JEE Main-27.06.2022, Shift-I atom is 23.
Ans. (d) : For ionic radii– 6. Which of the following is isoelectronic?
Ion O2– Mg2+ (a) CO2, NO2 (b) NO −2 ,CO 2
Electrons (8 + 2) = 10 12 – 2 = 10 (c) CN − ,CO (d) SO 2 ,CO 2
Atomic number (Z) 8 12 NEET-2002
O2– is greater than Mg2+. O2– and Mg2+ are isoelectronic
species both have 10 electrons. Ans. (c) : CN − and CO are isoelectronic because they
3. Which one of the following molecules contains have equal number of electrons. Therefore, in CN − the
an incomplete octet of the central atom? number of electrons ⇒6+7+1=14
(a) SF6 (b) AlCl3 And, in CO the number of electrons ⇒ 6+8=14
(c) CH4 (d) PF5 7. The cause of instability of nucleus is:
(e) H2O (a) High proton to electron ratio
Kerala CEE -03.07.2022 (b) High proton to neutron ratio
Ans. (b) : As we know that octet means 8 electrons in (c) Low proton to electron ratio
valence shell. Here, AlCl3 contains an incomplete octet (d) Low proton to neutron ratio
atom. MPPET - 2012
K L M N Ans. (d) : The cause of instability of a nucleus is due to
AlCl3 ⇒ 13Al = 2 8 3 low proton to neutron ratio. when neutron to proton
ratio is less than 1, alpha emission occurs. When it is
17Cl = 2 8 7
greater than 1.5, beta emission occurs.
8. The difference between number of Neutrons
and Protons is positive for :
(a) Hydrogen atom (b) Deuterium atom
(c) Tritium atom (d) None of these
MPPET-2013
Ans. (c) : Isotopes n PDifference Codes :
(n- P) (A) (B) (C) (D)
Hydrogen (H) 0 1 –1 (a) 4 1 2 3
Deuterium 1 1 0 (b) 5 1 2 3
Tritium 2 1 1 (c) 4 1 3 2
Hence, the difference between number of Neutrons and (d) 1 4 2 3
Protons is positive for tritium atom. AP-EAMCET-2008
∆
9. One atom of 19 39
K contains : Ans. (a) : (A) CaCO3 
Dcomposition
→ CaO + CO 2
100gm 22.4L
(a) 19p; 20n and 19e– (b) 19p; 20n and 20e–
(c) 20p; 19n and 20e– (d) 20p; 19n and 19e– 22.4 ×10
Q 10 g CaCO3 decomposition =
AP-EAMCET/1991 100
Ans. (a) : In potassium (K), no. of proton (p) = 19 = 2.24 L CO2
Number of neutron (n) = 39 – 19 = 20 (B) Na 2 CO3 
Excess HCl
→ 2NaCl + H 2 O + CO 2
Number of electron = 19 22.4L
10. Which one of the following is not an 22.4 ×1.06

∴ 1.06 g Na2CO3 = L CO2
isolectronic pair ? 106
(a) Mg2+, C4– (b) N3–, O2– = 0.224 L CO2
2– 2–
(c) N , O (d) F–, Al3+ (C) C 
Excess O2
→ CO 2
AP-EAMCET-2002 12g 22.4L
Ans. (c) : Isoelectronic species have same number of ∴ 2.4 g carbon on combustion will give,
electrons. 22.4 × 2.4
N2– = 7 + 2 = 9 = = 4.48L CO 2
12
O2– = 8 + 2 = 10
(D) 2CO  Excess O2
→ 2CO 2
N2– and O2– is not an isoelectronic species. 56gCombustion
2×22.4L
11. Assertion (A) : Equal moles of different 2 × 22.4 × 0.56
substances contain same number ∴ 0.56 gm Carbon monoxide =
of constituent particles. 56
Reason (R) : Equal weights of different = 0.448 L CO2
substances contain the same 13. Among the following, the isoelectronic species
number of constituent particles. is/are
The correct answer is : (i) O2–, F–, Na+, Mg2+ (ii) Na+, Mg+, Al3+, F–
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (iii) N3–, O2–, F–, Ne
correct explanation of (A) (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii)
correct explanation of (A) TS-EAMCET-2016
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false Ans. (d) : The isoelectronic species are elements that
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true have the same number of electrons. O2–, F–, Na+, Mg2+,
AP-EAMCET-2007 have 10 electron and N3–, O2–, F– and Ne have also 10
Ans. (c) : Equal moles of different substances contain electrons.
same number of constituent particles, but equal weights 14. There are six electrons, six protons and six
of different substance do not contain the same number neutrons in an atom of an element. What is the
of constituent particles. atomic number of the element?
Hence, assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is not true. (a) 6 (b) 12
12. Match of following columns : (c) 18 (d) 24
Column-I Column-II NDA (II)-2016
(At STP) Ans. (a) Given, No. of electron = 6
(A) 10 g CaCO3 (1) 0.224 L CO2 No. of proton = 6
 ∆
→ No. of neutron = 6
Decomposition
We know that,
(B) 1.06 g Na2CO3 (2) 4.48 L CO2 Atomic No. = No. of Proton

Excess HCl
→ Atomic No. = 6
(C) 2.4 g C (3) 0.448 L CO2 Hence, the atomic number of element = 6.
→Excess O2
combustion
15. What is the atomic number of the element with
symbol Uus?
(D) 0.56 g CO (4) 2.24 L CO2
(a) 117 (b) 116
→
Excess O2
combustion (c) 115 (d) 114
(5) 22.4 L CO2 TS-EAMCET-2016
Ans. (a) : The atomic number of the element with Ans. (c) : Given, 35 Cl
17
symbol Uus is 117. Ununseptium (Uus) is the second 35
heaviest known element and its electronic configuration No. of electron in 17 Cl =17
14 10 2 6
is 5f 6d 7s 7p . 32
No. of electron in 16 S = 16
16. The sum of the total number of neutrons +
present in protium, deuterium and tritium is No. of electron in 34
16 S = 16–1=15
(a) 5 (b) 3 +
No. of electron in 40
18 Ar = 18–1=17
(c) 4 (d) 6 35 2 −
TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 05.08.2021 Shift-II No. of electron in 16 S = 16 + 2 = 18
+
Ans. (b) : No. of neutrons –
40
Hence, 18 Ar contain same no. of electron as 17 35
Cl .
Protium ( 1 H ) = 0
1
20. S + Conc. H2SO4  → X+Y
Deuterium ( 1 H ) = 1
2 Here X is a gas and Y is a liquid and both are
triatomic molecules. The number of electron
Tritium ( 13 H ) = 2 lone pars present on the central atoms of X and
The sum of the total number of neutrons is Y are respectively.
⇒ 0 +1+ 2 (a) 2, 1 (b) 1, 0
(c) 1, 2 (d) 2, 2
⇒3
AP EAMCET-2017
17. The number of protons, electrons and neutrons
in a species are equal to 17, 18 and 18 Ans. (c) : S + 2H2SO4  → 3SO2 + 2H2O
respectively. Which of the following will be the X and Y are SO2 and H2O
proper symbol of this species ? The structure of SO2 and H2O
35 35
(a) 17 Cl (b) 17 Cl —
36 36
(c) 17 Cl (d) 17 Cl —
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 17.09.2020, Shift-II
Ans. (b) : p = 17, e = 18, n = 18 means, Z = 17 ⇒ Hence the option (c) is correct
element is chlorine, which contains one electron more
21. The characteristics of elements X, Y and Z with
(17 + 1), so it is chloride ion, Cl–. atomic numbers, respectively, 33, 53 and 83
⇒ Symbol: 17 35
Cl − ; are:
Mass number, A = n + p = 18 + 17 = 35 (a) X, Y and Z are metals.
Atomic number, Z = 17 (b) X and Z are non-metals and Y is a metalloid.
18. Which of the following has magic number of (c) X is a metalloid, Y is a non-metal and Z is a
protons and neutrons? metal.
(a) 8 O17 (b) 13 Al27 (d) X and Y are metalloids and Z is
metal.
(c) 9 F17 (d) 20 Ca 40 JEE Main 16.03.2021, Shift-II
AP EAMCET (Medical) -1998 Ans. (c) : The characteristics of elements X, Y and Z
Ans. (d): Magic numbers are 2, 8, 20, 28, 50, 82 with atomic numbers respectively 33, 53 and 83 are the
protons and 2, 8, 20, 28, 50, 82, 126 neutrons in the arsenic, iodine and bismuth. As we know the properties
nucleus. These numbers impart stability to the nucleus. of that iodine, arsenic is metalloid in nature whereas
O 17
 → proton = 8 Bismuth is metal.
(a) 8 22. Which of the following is true about sodium
neutron = 9
chloride ?
13 Al 27
 → proton = 13 (a) Molecular mass = 58.5 amu
(b)
neutron = 14 (b) Formula mass = 58.5 amu
F17  → proton = 9 (c) Molecular mass = 5.85 amu
(c) 9 (d) Formula mass = 5.85 amu
neutron = 8 AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.9.2020 Shift-I
Ca 40
→ proton = 20 Ans. (b) : Sodium chloride is an ionic crystal of rock
(d) 20
neutron = 20 salt structure in which 4 NaCl units are present in one
Thus, the calcium nucleic has the both proton and unit cell of coordination number, Na+ : Cl = 6 : 6. So,
neutrons number is 20. actual molecule of sodium chloride is not NaCl, NaCl is
19. The species that has the same number of the molecular formula of formula mass = (23 + 35.5) =
35 58.5 amu.
electrons as 17 Cl is
+
23. An alloy of metals X and Y weighs 12g &
(a) 32 16 S (b) 3416 S contains atoms X and Y is the ratio of 2: 5 The
+ 35 2 − percentage of Metal X in the alloy is 20 by
(c) 40 18 Ar (d) 16 S
mass. If the atomic mass of X is 40. What is the
NDA (II)-2017 atomic mass of metal Y.
(a) 64 amu (b) 32 amu No. of electrons in the neutral atom = x+3
(c) 60 amu (d) 50 amu ∴No.of protons = x + 3 = 23 + 3 = 26
AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-I 3+
Hence, the ion is 5626 Fe
12 27. Which of the following clement represents is
Ans. (a): Mass of metal X in alloy = × 20 = 2.40g
100 isoelectronic sequence?
Mass of metal Y in alloy =12–2.4=9.6g (a) N, O, F, Ne (b) Na+, Mn2+, Al3+, Si4+
2.4 (c) Cl , Ar, Ca , Ti (d) Be, Mg2+, Ca, Si2+
– 2+ 4+
No. of atoms of X = × 6.02 ×1023 AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2006

40
Ratio of atoms of X and Y = 2:5 Ans. (c) : The species which have same number of
electrons are called the isoelectronic
2.4 × 6.02 × 1023 5
No of atoms of Y = × Cl– = atomic no. ± no. of charge = 17+1 =
40 2 Similarly,
22
= 9.03×10 atom
Ar = 18 + 0 =
Now, 9,03×1022 atoms of Y are present in 9.6 g
∴ 6.02×1023 atoms of Y area present in Ca 2 + = 20-2 =
9.6 Ti4+ = 22-4 =
⇒ × 6.02 ×1023 =64 g ∴ All these are isoelectronic. Hence, the correct
9.03 ×1022
∴ atomic mass of Y = 64 amu. option is (c).
28. Elements X and Y belong to the same group.
24. The masses of an electron, a proton and a Which one of the following set of atomic
neutron respectively will be in the ratio –– numbers represent X and Y?
(a) 1836.15 : 1838.68 (b) 1856.15 : 1858.68 (a) 15, 30 (b) 20, 31
(c) 1834.15 : 1836.68 (d) 1846.15 : 1848.68 (c) 19, 55 (d) 33, 16
AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-I AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2002
Ans. (a) : Mass of proton = 1.673 × 10–27 kg Ans. (c) : The atomic number 19, 55 belongs to the
Mass of neutron = 1.675 × 10–27 kg alkali metal. The name of the atomic number 19, 55
Mass of electron = 9.109 × 10–31 elements is potassium, cesium respectively.
mp 29. The number of protons in a negatively charged
∴ Mass ratio of proton and electron = atom (anion) is
me (a) more than the atomic number of the element
1.673 × 10 –27 (b) less than the atomic number of the element
= (c) more than the number of electrons in the
9.1×10 –31 atom
= 1835.16 (d) less than the number of electrons in the atom
mn NDA (II)-2011
And Mass ratio of neutron and electron =
me Ans : (d) The number of protons in a negatively
charged atom. It is less than the number of electron in
1.675 × 10–27 the atom.
=
9.1×10 –31 • The atoms of a component are impartial in nature
= 1838.68 since it contains equivalent number of electrons and
25. In the following sets of ions, which one is not protons.
isoelectronic with the rest of the species? 30. Which one among the following most correctly
O2–,F–,Na,Mg2+,Al3+, Ne determines the atomic number of an element ?
(a) Mg2+ (b) Al3+ (a) Number of protons
2–
(c) O (d) Na (b) Number of protons and electrons
COMEDK-2014 (c) Number of ions
(d) Number of nucleons
Ans. (d) : O 2– (10e – ),F – (10e – ), Na(11e – ), Mg 2+ (10e – ),
NDA (II)-2011
Al3+ (10e – ) and Ne(10e – ) Ans : (a) Number of protons are most correctly
Thus, Na is not isoelectronic with the rest of the species. determines the atomic number of an element.
26. An ion with mass number 56 contains three • Atomic number the quantity of a chemical
units of positive charge and 30.4% more component in the periodic system by which the
neutrons than electrons. The ion is component are organized arranged by expanding
3+ 3+ number of protons in the nucleus.
(a) 56 28 Ni (b) 56
26 Fe
31. A stable nucleus (light with A < 10) has
(c) 56
27 Co 3+ (d) Cr 3+
56
24 (a) exactly the same number of neutrons and
COMEDK-2016 protons
(b) more neutrons than protons
Ans. (b) : Let no. of electrons in the ion M3+ = x
(c) no neutrons
30.4x (d) no protons
∴No. of neutrons = x + = 1.304x
100 NDA (II)-2011
Ans : (a) A stable nucleus has exactly the same number For 23 Na
11
of neutrons and protons.
atomic number = 11
32. Which of the following ratio will give stability atomic mass = 23
to daughter element, when radioactive parent neutrons = 23 –11
element has less number of protons compared
to number of neutrons? = 12
Hence, (I) and (II) statements are correct.
N +1 N −1
(a) (b) 35. The radius of La3+ (Atomic number of La = 57)
Z +1 Z +1 is 1.06 Å. Which one of the following given
N −1 N +1 values will be closest to the radius of Lu3+
(c) (d)
Z −1 Z −1 (Atomic number of Lu = 71) ?
GUJCET-2011 (a) 1.40 Å (b) 1.06 Å
Ans. (b): 0 n →1 H
1 1 (c) 0.85 Å (d) 1.60 Å
VITEEE-2018
or 11 p + −0 1β (β - particle) Ans. (c) : As we move left to right in lanthanide series,
i.e. emitting β-particles the newly formed nuclide has its there is increase in atomic number but the size of cation
n/p value lower than its parent nucleide and hence get decreases.
approaches closer to the zone of stability and become So, possible radius for Lu3+ is 0.85 Å
stable.
36. Assertion: The chemical properties of different
N −1 isotopes are same.
Hence, stability ratio of daughter element .
Z +1 Reason: Isotopes have same number of neutron.
33. Isotope used in brain scan is (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(a) 1H3 (b) 6C11 Reason is the correct explanation of
(c) 6C14 (d) 80Hg197 Assertion.
SRMJEEE-2010 (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
Ans. (b) :The isotope of 6C11 is (Choline) used in the Reason is not the correct explanation of
scanning of the brain in medical sector. Assertion.
34. Observe the following statements regarding
isotones: (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
39 40
I. K and Ca are isotones. AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Morning)
II. Nuclides having different atomic (Z) and mass Ans. (c) : The chemical proporties of different isotopes
numbers (A) but same number of neutrons (n) are same. But isotopes does'nt have same number of
are called isotones. neutron.
III. 19F and 23Na are isotones. 37. The number of electrons and neutrons of an
The correct answer is element is 18 and 20 respectively. Its mass
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct number is
(b) Only 1 and 2 are correct (a) 37 (b) 17
(c) Only 1 and 3 are correct (c) 38 (d) 22
(d) Only 2 and 3 are correct AIIMS-1994
AP-EAMCET (Engg.)-2005 Ans. (c) : Mass no = No. of protons + No. of neutrons
No. of protons = No of electrons
Ans. (b) : We know that when nuclides have same
number of neutrons (N) but have different mass number ⇒ No of Protons ⇒ 18
(A) and proton number (Z) are called isotones. ⇒ Mass No. = 20+18= 38
38. The number of electrons in [19K40]-1 is
(i)
(a) 28 (b) 19
atomic number (Z) = 19 (c) 40 (d) 20
AIIMS-1994
atomic mass (A) = 39
Ans. (d): The electronic configuration of the given
neutrons (N) = A – Z = 39 – 19 = 20 K(19): 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3P6, 4P1
The number of electrons present originally = 19
∴ Total number of electrons = 19+1= 20 (from negative
atomic number = 20 charge).
atomic mass = 40
neutrons = 40 – 20 = 20 39. Which of the following is the correct sequence
39 40
of atomic weights of the given elements?
Hence, K and Ca are isotones. (a) Ni > Co > Fe (b) Fe > Co > Ni
(iii) For 9 F 19 (c) Co > Fe > Ni (d) Co > Ni > Fe
AIIMS-1996
atomic number = 9
atomic mass = 19 Ans. (d) : Atomic weight of Fe (z=26)=55.85 amu.
neutrons = 19–9 = 10 Atomic weight of Co(z=27)⇒58.90 amu
Atomic weight of Ni (z=28) ⇒58.69 amu (a) M2=2M1 (b) M1<10(mp+mn)
Hence, the correct order of atomic weight is follow (c) M2>2M1 (d) M1=M2
CO>Ni>Fe. AIIMS-2015
40. Assertion: Nuclear binding energy per nucleon Ans. (a): 20
10 Ne contains 10 protons and 10 neutrons
in the order 94 Be > 73 Li > 42 He ∴ M1= 10mp+10 Mn
Reason: Binding energy per nucleon increases 40
20 Ca contains 20 protons and 20 neutrons
linearly with difference in number of neutrons
and protons. ∴ M2= 20Mp+20 Mn
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and ∴ M2 = 2M1
the Reason is a correct explanation of the 43. Deuterium nucleus contains:
Assertion. (a) 1 proton, 1 electron (b) 1 proton, 1 neutron
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but (c) 2 protons, 1 electron (d) 1 proton, 2 electrons
Reason is not a correct explanation of the AIIMS-1998
Assertion. Ans. (b): Deuterium nucleus contains 1 proton and 1
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is neutron because it is isotope of hydrogen.
incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason, are e 11
44. If e = 1.60206 ×10-19 C, = 1.75875 ×10 Ckg -1
incorrect. m
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is then the mass of electron is
correct. (a) 7.5678 × 10 −31 kg (b) 9.1091 ×10 −31 kg
AIIMS-2004
(c) 11.2531 × 10 −31 kg (d) 13.0513 × 10 −31 kg
Ans. (d): Binding energy per nucleon of 3Li7 (5.38
Mev) is less than 2He4 (7.08 Mev) as helium is found to AIIMS-1999
be more stable than Li. As the atomic mass number 1.60206 ×10−19
increases the binding energy per nucleon decreases. As Ans. (b): Mass of electron =
the atomic number and the atomic mass number 1.75875 ×1011
increase the repulsive electrostatic force within the = 9.1091×10–31
nucleus increase due to the greater number of protons in OR
the heavy elements. To overcome this increased e
repulsion, the proportion of neutrons in the nucleus = 1.75875 × 1011 C kg −1
m
must increase to maintain stability. This increase in the e = 1.60206×10–19 C
neutron to proton ratio only partially compensates for
the growing proton-proton repulsive force in the heavier e / e 1.60206 × 10−19
m= = Kg
naturally occurring element. m 1.75875 × 1011
41. Assertion: Atoms are not electrically neutral. = 9.1091×10–31 Kg
Reason: Number of protons and electrons are 45. Positron is:
different (a) Electron with positive charge
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and (b) A nucleus with one neutron and one proton
the Reason is a correct explanation of the (c) A nucleus with two protons
Assertion. (d) A helium nucleus
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but AIIMS-1998
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Ans. (a): The positron is the antiparticle or the
Assertion.
antimattery counter part of the electron. The positron
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is has an electric charge of +1, an spin of , and has the
incorrect. same mass as an electron. When a low–energy positron
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason, are collides with a low energy electron, annihilation occurs,
incorrect. resulting in the production of two or more gamma ray
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is photons Positrons may be generated by positron
correct. emission radiative energetic photon which is in
AIIMS-1999 teracting with an atom is a material.
Ans. (d): Atoms are electrically neutral because they 46. The nitride ion in lithium nitride is composed of
have an equal number of protons and electrons, and as (a) 7 protons + 7 electrons
we know that the protons and electrons contain opposite (b) 10 protons + 7 electrons
types of charges, hence their negatively charged (c) 7 protons + 10 electrons
electrons are completely balanced with their positively (d) 10 protons + 10 electrons
charged protons.
Hence, given both the assertion and reason are false. CG PET -2018
42. Let mp be the mass of a proton, mn that of a Ans. (c) : Nitride ion can be represented as N3–,
Number of protons = 7
neutron, M1 that of a 20 10 Ne nucleus and M 2 that Number of electrons = 7+3= 10
40
of a 20 Ca nucleus. Then Therefore, nitride ion contains 7 protons +10 electrons.
47. Increasing order (lowest first) for the values of 52. Which of the following is not isoelectronic?
e/m for electron (e), proton (p), neutron (n) and (a) Na+ (b) Mg 2+
α-particles is (c) O 2−
(d) Cl−
(a) e, p, n, α (b) n, α, p, e CG PET -2007
(c) n, p, e, α (d) n, p, α, e
Ans. (d) : Na , Mg , O contain 10 electrons each Cl −
+ 2+ –
CG PET -2009 has 18 electrons.

0 53. The correct symbol of the species with number
Ans. (b) : (e / m) n =
1.675 × 10−27 of electrons, protons and neutrons as 18, 16 and
16 respectively is
2 ×1.6602 × 10−19 C
(e / m)α = 32
(a) 16 S 32
(b) 18 S
4 × 1.675 × 10−27 kg
(c) 32
S2− (d) 32
S2−
1.602 × 10−19 C
16 18
(e / m) p = AMU-2014
1.675 × 10−27 kg Ans. (c) :
1.602 ×10−19 C Species No of No of No of
(e / m)e =
9.108 ×10−31 kg Electron Protons neutrons
48. Isoelectronic pair among the following is
32
16 S
16 16 16
2+
(a) Ca and K (b) Ar and Ca 32 18 18 14
2+ 18 S
(c) K and Ca (d) Ar and K –
32 2 − 16+2e 18 16 16
UPTU/UPSEE-2008 16 S
Ans. (b) : Ar and Ca2+ are isoelectronic species as they 32 2
18 S
18+2e– 20 18 14
have same number of electrons i.e. 18.
54. The magnitude of the charge on the electron is
49. Which of the following is isoelectronic pair? 4.8 × 10–10 esu. What is the magnitude of the
–
(a) CN , O3 (b) ClO2, BrF2 charge on the proton on the nucleus of helium
(c) BrO−2 ,BrF2+ (d) ICl2, ClO3 atom?
JCECE - 2013 (a) 4.8 × 10–10 esu (b) 9.6 × 10–10 esu
–10
(c) 6.4 × 10 esu (d) 14.4 × 10–10 esu
Ans. (c) : Both BrO−2 (35 + 2 × 8 + 1 = 52)
AMU-2013
and BrF2+ (35 + 2 × 9 − 1 = 52) have 52 electrons. Ans. (b) : Since, the charge on the proton is equal in
50. N2 and CO are magnitude to that on the electron, the charge on the
(a) Isomers (b) Isoelectronic proton is also 4.8×10–10 esu. Since, a helium nucleus
contains 2 protons, its charge is 9.6×10–10 esu.
(c) Isotopes (d) Isobars
J & K CET-(2002) 55. Atomic number equal to the
(a) Atomic mass of the element
Ans. (b) : N2 have 14×2=28 electrons
(b) Sum of protons and neutrons
CO have 12+16 = 28 electrons
(c) Number of the protons in the nucleus
Thus both are iso electronic (d) Number of the neutrons in the nucleus.
OR AMU–2001
Both N2 and CO contain 14 electrons each thus N2 and
CO are isoelectronic. Ans. (c) : Atomic number is equal to the number of
protons in the nucleus.
51. Pick out the isoelectronic structures from the
56. The ratio of electron, proton and neutron in
following
tritium is
CH 3+ H 3O + NH 3 CH 3− (a) 1 : 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 : 2
I II III IV (c) 1 : 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 2 : 3
(a) I and II (b) I and VI Assam CEE-2014
(c) I and III (d) II,III and IV Ans. (b) : The atomic number and the mass number of
CG PET- 2010 tritium are 1 and 3 respectively. Tritium contains 1
electron, 1 proton and 2 neutrons.
Ans. (d) : CH 3+ has 6+3–1= 8 Hence, the ratio of the number of electrons. Protons and
Electrons H3O + has 3+8–1=10 electrons NH3 neutrons in tritium is 1:1:2
has 7+3=10 electrons CH 3− 57. The atomic numbers of elements X, Y and Z
has 6+3+1=10 electrons so II, III, IV are isoelectronic are 19, 21 and 25 respectively. The number of
structures as they have the same number of electrons. electrons present in the M shells of these
Hence, the correct option (d). elements follow the order.
OR (a) Z > X > Y (b) X > Y > Z
(c) Z > Y > X (d) Y > Z > X
H3O+, NH3 and CH 3− have same number of electrons.
Assam CEE-2014
Ans. (c) : The electronic configuration of X with atomic (a) (1) and (2) (b) (2) and (3)
number 19 is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3p6 4s1. Now the M shell is the (c) (1) and (3) (d) (1), (2) and (3)
3rd energy level and hence, it contains (2+6=8) BCECE-2017
electrons. Ans. (c) : B is a noble gas so the next element will be in
The electronic configuration of with atomic number 21 the next period and will be alkali metals. Next element
is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3x2 3p6 4s2 3d1. Now the M shell is the 3rd will be than alkaline earth metal.
energy level and hence, it contains (2+6+1=9) electron. 1 ‘A’ has higher electron affinity. It belongs to halogen
The electronic configuration of Z with atomic number family.
25 is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 4s2 3d5. Now the M shell is the 3rd 2 ‘C’ exists in +1 oxidation state
energy level and hence it contains (2+6+5=13 3 ‘D’ is an alkaline earth metal
electrons). Hence, the Statements (1) and (3) are correct.
Since Z contains more electrons in the M shell than Y
and Y contains more electrons in the M shell than X. So 63. n/p ratio during positron decay
the number of electrons present in the M–shell of these (a) Increases (b) Decreases
elements follows the order Z>Y>X Hence, the correct (c) Remains constant (d) All of these
option is c. CG PET- 2015
58. The number of electrons, protons and neutrons Ans. (a) 0 n1 → 1 p1 + –1 p0 + v i.e. n decreases, p
in phosphide ion (P3-) is- increases.
(a) 15, 15, 16 (b) 15, 16, 15
64. The electronic configuration of an element is
(c) 18, 15, 16 (d) 15, 16, 18
1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 3d10, 4s2 4p3.
Assam CEE-2021
To which of the following elements it is similar
Ans. (c) : P3– (PHOSPHIDE) in properties?
Electron = 15 + 3 = 18 (a) Boron (b) Oxygen
Proton = 15 (c) Nitrogen (d) Chlorine
Neutron = 31 – 15 = 16
CG PET -2008
59. Nuclides :
(a) Have specific atomic numbers Ans. (c) : The valance shell electronic configuration is
4s2 4p3 similar to nitrogen 3s23p2.
(b) Have same number of protons
(c) Have specific atomic number and mass 65. If the de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in
numbers nth Bohr orbit in a hydrogenic atom is equal to
(d) Are isotopes 1.5πa0 (a0 is Bohr radius), then the value of n/Z
is
BCECE-2006
(a) 1.0 (b) 0.75
Ans. (c): Nuclides have a definite number of protons (c) 0.40 (d) 1.50
and neutrons and consequently definite atomic number
and mass number. Such as oxygen nuclei contain 8 [JEE Main 2019, 12 Jan Shift-II]
protons and 8 neutrons (8O16). n2
Ans. (b) : 2πrn= nλ; 2πao × = nλ
60. The energy released in an atom bomb explosion z
is mainly due to n n 1.5πa o
(a) Release of neutrons 2πao= =1.5πao = = =0.75
(b) Release of electrons z z 2πa o
(c) Greater mass of products than initial material 66. The introduction of a neutron into the nucleus
(d) Lesser mass of products than initial material of an atom would lead to a change in
BCECE-2006 (a) Atomic number
Ans. (d) : The source of large energy, produced during (b) Atomic mass
atom bomb explosion, is the mass defect occurring (c) Chemical nature of the atom
during the fission reaction, which is converted into (d) Number of electron
energy equivalent to mass defect. CG PET -2019
61. Number of neutron in C12 is : Ans. (b) : The introduction of a neutron into the nuclear
(a) 6 (b) 7 composition, of an atom would lead to a change in its
(c) 8 (d) 9 atomic mass. However, its atomic number, the chemical
BCECE-2005 nature of the atom and the number of the electron s will
Ans. (a) : Number of neutron = atomic mass– atomic remain unchanged as they are related to the number of
number. For C12 number of neutron = 12–6=6 protons and they are independent of the number of
neutron.
62. The atomic number of elements A, B, C, and D
are Z–1, Z+1, Z+2 respectively. If B is a noble 67. The element with atomic number 55 belongs to
gas, choose the correct option. which block of the periodic table?
(1) (A) has higher electron affinity. (a) s-block (b) p- block
(2) (C) exists in +2 oxidation state. (c) d- block (d) f- block
(3) (D) is an alkaline earth metal. CG PET -2004
Ans. (a) : The electronic configuration of the above Ans. (b) : It will gain two electron to form a compound
element is [Xe]6s1. Since the valence electrons are in with sodium (Na).
the S subshell, the element belongs to S–block. Given, atomic no. of element = 8 i.e. oxygen
68. Neutrons are found in atoms of all elements Electronic configuration of oxygen= 1s2, 2s2, 2p4.
except in Therefore, valency = 2, 6
(a) Chlorine (b) Oxygen Electronic configuration of Na= 2, 8, 1
(c) Argon (d) Hydrogen Valency = 1 (As it is easier to donate one electron)
CG PET -2004 Hence, the given element will gain 2 electron form two
Ans. (d) : Neutrons can be found in all atomic nuclear sodium atoms to completes its octet.
except hydrogen. Hydrogen is that atomic nucleus and it Reaction involved –
consists of no charge and a mass of slightly over 1 amu. 4Na+ + O2→ 2Na2O
69. The atomic weight of an element is 39. The 72. The triad of the nuclei that is isotonic :
number of neutrons in its nucleus is one more (a) 6C14, 7N14, 9F19 (b) 6C14, 7N15, 9F17
14 14 17
than the number of protons. The number of (c) 6C , 7N , 9F (d) 6C12, 7N14, 9F19
protons, neutrons and electrons-respectively in HP CET-2018
its atoms would be
Ans. (b) : Isotones are nuclides with same number of
(a) 19, 20, 19 (b) 19, 19, 20 neutrons
(c) 20, 19, 19 (d) 20, 19, 20
∴ 6C14, 7N15, 9F17 are isotones with 8 neutrons in each
CG PET -2004 case.
Ans. (a) : Atomic weight of an element = 39 unit 73. Three elements X, Y and Z are in the 3rd
∴ Atomic weight = no of proton + no of neutron period of the periodic table. The oxides of X, Y
Hence According to question. and Z, respectively, are basic, amphoteric and
no. of neutron = no. of proton +1 acidic. The correct order of the atomic number
So, of X, Y and Z is
39= no. of neutron + no. of proton (a) Z < Y < X (b) X < Y < Z
39= no. of proton +1 +no. of proton (c) X < Z < Y (d) Y < X < Z
2×no. of proton = 38 (JEE Main 2020, 2 Sep Shift-II)
no. of proton = 19 Ans. (b) : X<Y<Z MgO<Al2O3<SiO2
Also, no. of electron = no. of proton 74. The group having isoelectronic species is
They, no. of electron = 19 (a) O2–, F–, Na+, Mg2+ (b) O–, F–, Na, Mg+
And no. of neutron = 19+1 = 20 (c) O2–, F–, Na, Mg2+ (d) O–, F–, Na+, Mg2+
Hence, no. of proton = 19 (JEE Main-2017)
no. of neutron = 20 Ans. (a) : Isoelectronic species are those which
no. of electron=19 contains same number of electrons
70. In the following reaction Species Atomic Number of
3 Li + ? → 2 He + 1H
6 4 3
number electrons
2–
the missing particle is O 8 10
(a) Electron (b) Neutron F– 9 10
(c) Proton (d) Deuteron Na+ 11 10
CG PET- 2010
Mg2+ 12 10
Ans. (b) : In the given reaction
O– 8 9
3 Li + ? → 2 He + 1H
6 4 3
Na 11 11
Mass number and atomic number on LHS and RHS will
be equal. Mg+ 12 11
Let us assume the missing particle be xAy Option (a) is correct which contains isoelectronic
Atomic number species O2–, F–, Na+, Mg2+
3+x=2+1 75. Which one of the following sets of ions
x=0 represents a collection of isoelectronic species ?
Mass number, (a) K+, Cl–, Ca2+, Sc3+ (b) Ba2+, Sr2+, K+, S2–
6+y=4+3 (c) N3–,O2–, F–, S2– (d) Li+, Na+, Mg2+,
y=1 Ca2+
It represents neutron, Assam CEE-2020
(AIEEE 2006)
3 Li + 0n → 2 He + 1H
6 1 4 3
Ans. (a) : The ions which have the same number of

71. The atomic number of an element is 8. How electrons are called isoelectronic
many electrons will it gain to form a compound K+ Cl– Ca2+ Sc3+
with sodium?
(a) One (b) Two (2,8,8) (2,8,8) (2,8,8) (2,8,8)
(c) Three (d) Four All these ions contains 18 electrons each. So all these
NDA (II)-2018 ions are isoelectronic.
76. According to the periodic law of elements, the Ans. (d) : Isoelectronic species contain same number of
variation in properties of elements is related to shells so their size is effected by the nuclear charge.
their 80. The atomic number of unnilunium is ......
(a) Atomic masses (JEE Main 2020, 6 Sep Shift-II)
(b) Nuclear masses Ans. (101) : Synthetic radioactive element, symbol=md
(c) Atomic numbers with atomic number 101 made by bombarding lighter
(d) Nuclear neutron-proton number ratios elements with light nuclei accelerated in cyclotrons.
(AIEEE 2003) 81. Which one of the following constitutes a group
Ans. (c) : The modern form of periodic table is the one of the isoelectronic species?
in which the chemical elements are arranged in order of (a) C 22− , O −2 , CO, NO
increasing atomic number.
Elements with similar properties are arranged in the (b) NO + , C 22− , CN − , N 2
same column (called a group) and elements with the (c) CN − , N 2 , O 22− , CO 22−
same number of electron shells are arranged in the same
row (called a period). (d) N 2 , O 2− , NO + , CO
77. The group number, number of valence JEE Main-09.10.2018
electrons and valency of an element with Ans. (b) : Number of electrons in each species are
atomic number 15, respectively, are given below
(a) 16, 5 and 2 (b) 15, 5 and 3 N2=14 CN − =14
(c) 16, 6 and 3 (d) 15, 6 and 2 −
O 2 = 17 C 22− = 14
(JEE Main 2019, 12 April Shift-I)
Ans. (b) : The group number, number of valence NO+ =14 O −2 = 18
electrons and valency of an element with atomic CO = 14 No = 15
number is are 15, 5 and 3 respectively. Modern periodic It is quite evident from the above that NO+, C 22− , CN − ,
table is based on the atomic number. Modern periodic
table is based on the atomic number. Number of valence N2 and Co are isoelectronic in natures.
electrons present in an atom decides the group number. 82. Hydrogen has three isotopes (A), (B) and (C). If
Electronic configuration of element have atomic the number of neutron(s) in (A), (B) and (C)
number 15–1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3 respectively, are (x), (y) and (z), the sum of (x),
As five electrons are present in valence shell. Its group (y) and (z) is
number is 15. Valency of element having atomic (a) 4 (b) 3
number 15 is +3 (8–5=3). (c) 2 (d) 1
78. The isoelectronic set of ions is [JEE Main 2020, 8 Jan Shift-II]
(a) F–, Li+, Na+ and Mg2+ Ans. (b) : Number of neutrons in protium ( H)
1
1 is zero
(b) N3–, Li+, Mg2+ and O2–
(c) Li+, Na+, O2– and F– (x), number of neutron in deuterium ( 2
1 H or D ) is 1(y)
2
1
(d) N3–, O2–, F– and Na+ and number of neutrons in tritium ( H or ,3 T ) is 2(z) the
3
1
(JEE Main 2019, 10 April Shift-I) sum of x, y and z is x+y+z = 3.
Ans. (d) : Key idea = Isoelectronic species contains 83. Atoms with identical atomic number but
same number of electron. different atomic mass number are known as
The species with its atomic number and number of (a) Polymers (b) Isobars
electrons are as follows: (c) Isotopes (d) Isomers.
Species Atomic Number of J & K CET-(2014)
(ions) number (z) electrons Ans. (c) : Isotope, one of two or more species of atoms
N3– 7 7+3=10 of a chemical element with the same atomic number and
2– position in the periodic table and nearly identical
O 8 8+2=10
chemical behavior but with different atomic masses and
F− 9 9+1=10
physical properties every chemical element has one or
Na+ 11 11–1=10 more isotopes.
Li+ 3 3–1=2 Example:– H11 , H12 , H13 are the isotopes of hydrogen.
Mg2+ 12 12–2=10 84. Negatively charged particles are called
Isoelectronic set of ions are N3–, O2–, F–, Na+ and Mg2+. (a) Electrons (b) Protons
79. The size of the iso-electronic species Cl–, Ar (c) Neutrons (d) None of the above
and Ca2+ is affected by J & K CET-(2014)
(a) azimuthal quantum number of valence shell Ans. (a) :
(b) electron-electron interaction in the outer
Particles Symbol Relative charge
orbitals
(c) principal quantum number of valence shell Electrons e –1
(d) nuclear charge Protons p +1
(JEE Main 2019, 8 April Shift-I) Neutrons n 0

85. Mass number of an atom is the sum of 90. Which of the following species is isotonic with
86
(a) Number of protons + number of neutrons + 37Rb ?
84 85
number of electrons (a) 36Kr (b) 37Mg
87 89
(b) Number of protons + number of neutrons (c) 38Sr (d) 39Y
(c) Number of protons + number of electrons J & K CET-(1997)
(d) Number of electrons + number of neutrons. Ans. (c) : The number of neutrons in Rb= (86–37)= 49
J & K CET-(2014) and in Sr = (87–38) = 49.
Ans. (b) : The total number of nucleous is termed as Therefore, both of them are isotonic species.
mass number (A) of the atom. 91. Atoms with same atomic number and different
Hence, mass number (A)= No. of protons (p)+No. of mass numbers are called
neutrons(n). (a) isobars (b) isomers
(c) isotones (d) isotopes
86. Mass of a proton is
JCECE - 2009
(a) 0.00727 amu (b) 1.0087 amu
Ans. (d) : Isobars, are the atom having the same mass
(c) 0.00054 amu (d) 1.00727 amu. number but different atomic number. For example, the
J & K CET-(2014) atomic number of carbon and nitrogen is 6 and 7
Ans. (d) : A mass of proton is 1.00727 amu. A proton is respectively. Isotopes are the atoms with same atomic
14 13
a subatomic particle, with a positive electrical charge of no and different atomic mass Ex. 6C , 6C .
+1e elementary charge and a mass slightly less than that 92. The number of electrons, neutrons and protons
of a neutrons. Protons and neutrons, each with masses in a species are equal to 10,8 and 8 respectively.
of approximately one atomic mass unit, are collectively The proper symbol of the species is
referred to as “nucleons” (particles present in atomic (a) 16 (b) 188 O
8 O
nuclei).
39 (c) 18
Ne (d) 16
O 2−
87 19 K and 40
20 C are
10 8
JIPMER-2011
(a) Isomers (b) Isobars
Ans. (d) : From the given data, it is clear that the atomic
(c) Isotones (d) Isotopes number z, of the species is 8 (number of protons).
J & K CET-(2001) Since the number of electron are two more than the
Ans. (c) : No. of neutron in K= 39–19= 20 number of protons, hence, it is a binegative species.
No. of neutron in Ca= 40–20= 20 Thus, the species is 168 O 2− .
So, No, of neutron are equal
93. In long form of periodic Table the properties of
∴ They are isotones. the elements are a periodic function of their
88. Neutron is a fundamental particle carrying (a) Atomic size (b) Ionization energy
(a) A charge of +1 unit and a mass of one unit (c) Atomic mass (d) Atomic number
(b) No charge and a mass of one unit JIPMER-2010
(c) No charge and no mass Ans. (d): In modern periodic table, the physical and
(d) A charge of–1 unit and no mass chemical properties of the element are a periodic
J & K CET-(2000) function their atomic number, i.e. if the element are
Ans. (b) : Proton and e– which are electrically charged, arrange in order of their atomic number, the element
neutron have no charge they are electrically neutral. The with similar properties are repeated after certain regular
intervals.
mass of a neutron is slightly greater than the mass of a
proton, which is 1 atomic mass unit (amu.) 94. An element with mass number 81 contains
31.7% more neutrons as compared to protons.
89. The specific heat of a metal is 0.11 and its It symbol is
equivalent weight is 18.61. Its exact atomic (a) 40X81 (b) 35X81
weight is (c) 81X 317
(d) 40X81
(a) 58.2 (b) 29.1 JIPMER-2019
(c) 55.83 (d) 27.91
Ans. (b) : Let, the number of protons= x
J & K CET-(1998)
31.7x 131.7x
Ans. (c) : Approximate atomic wt. of the metal Number of neutrons= x + =
100 100
6.4 6.4
= = = 58.18 Mass number= number of protons + number of neutrons
specific heat 0.11 131.7x
81= x+
Approx at.wt 100
Valency of the metal=
Eq.wt. ∴ x= 35
58.18 Thus, the symbol of the element is 35X81.
= = 3(whole no.) 95. Which of the following is not iso electronic with
18.61 H2S?
So, exact at. wt. of the element = eq.wt.×Valency (a) F2 gas (b) Oxide ion
= 18.61×3 (c) Ca+2 (d) Sc+3
= 55.83 JIPMER-2019
Ans. (b) : Iso electronic species are those which have 100. 1 u (amu) is equal to
same number of electron. The total number of electron (a) 1.492×10–10 J (b) 1.492×10–7 J
in the given species are as follows. (c) 1.492×10–13 J (d) 6.023×1023 J
H2S= 2+16 = 18 electron MHT CET-2010
F2= 9+9 = 18 electron Ans. (a) : 1u (unified mass) is equal to exactly 1/12th of
O2–= 8+2=10 electron the mass of C12 atom.
Ca2+ = 20–2 18 electron 1 12g
Sc3+ = 21–3 = 18 electron Thus, 1u = ×
2–
Thus O (Oxide ion) is not iso–electronic with H2S. 12 6.022 ×10 23
1u =1.66×10–24 = –1.66×10–27 Kg
96. If two atoms have equal number of electron it Since, E = mc2, thus
is called
= 1.66×10–27×(3×108) Kg m2s2
(a) isoelectronic (b) isotone
(c) isobar (d) None of these = 1.492×10–10 J
JIPMER-2019 101. Chlorine (Cl17) free radical contains how many
electrons around the nucleus?
Ans. (a) : The species having same number of electrons
are called isoelectronic. For example Na+ and Mg2+ (a) 16 (b) 17
have 10 electron thus are isoelectronic. (c) 18 (d) 19
97. An odd electron molecule among the following MHT CET-2010
is Ans. (b) : In free radicals, the number of electrons are
(a) CO (b) SO2 same as that in isolated neutral atom.
(c) CO2 (d) NO Q In Cl atom, the number of electrons= 17
(e) OF2 ∴ In Cl free radicals, the number of electrons, = 17.
Kerala-CEE-2015 102. From the following pairs of ions which one is
Ans. (c) : N(z=7) and O (z=8) not an iso-electronic pair?
have 7 and 8 electrons respectively (a) Fe 2+ , Mn 2+ (b) O 2 , F
∴ number of electrons in NO= 7+8= 15 (c) Na + , Mg 2+ (d) Mn 2+ , Fe3+
Hence, no is an odd electron molecule.
NEET-2021
98. The effective nuclear charge of an elements
with three valence electrons is 2.60. What is the Ans. (a) : Total no. of e–
6 2
atomic number of the element? 26Fe → 3d 4s , Fe2+→3d6 24
5 2 2+ 5
(a) 1 (b) 2 25Mn → 3d 4s , Mn →3d 23
(c) 3 (d) 4 103. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons
(e) 5 in 175
71 Lu , respectively, are
Kerala-CEE-2018 (a) 71, 107 and 71 (b) 104, 71 and 71
Ans. (e) : Effective nuclear charge = 2.60 and valence (c) 71, 104and 71 (d) 175, 104 and 71
shell contain 3 electrons. NEET-2020
Thus, the minimum number of main shells for the given
element are two i.e. (x=2) and its configuration will be Ans. (c) : 104
71 Lu
1s2, 2s2, 2p1 Number of protons = number of element = 71
So, that the given element has 5 electrons in all also, for Number of neutrons = 175 = 71 104
a neutral atom. 104. Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following
Therefore, no. of electrons= Atomic number ions?
There, the atomic number of the element is 5. (a) H+ (b) Li+
+
99. The number of electrons, protons and neutrons (c) Na (d) Mg+
in a species are equal to 10, 11 and 12 NEET-2014
respectively. The proper symbol of the species is 2+
Ans. (b) : Be = (4–2) = 2 is isoelectronic with Li+ (3–
(a) 1122
Na + 23
(b) 11 Na 1=2) since, both have the same number of electron in
(c) 23
10 Ne (d) 23
11 Na + their outermost shell.
105. Isoelectronic speicies are
(e) 23
Na 2 +
(a) CO, CN–, NO+, C 22− (b) CO–, CN, NO, C −2
11
Kerala-CEE-2020
Ans. (d) : No. of electron present = no. of atomic no. (c) CO+, CN+, NO–, C 2 (d) CO, CN–, NO+, C 22−
No. of protons = No. of electron = atomic no. AMU-2011
+
22
11 Na ⇒ No. of electron = 10 NEET-2000
⇒ No. of proton = 11 Ans. (a) : Species having same no. of electrons are
⇒ No. of neutron = A – Z called isoelectronics.
= 23 – 11 The no of electrons in CO = CN − = NO + = C 22− = 14
= 12 So, these are isoelectronic species.
106. Which one of the following is not isoelectronic 112. The atomic number of an element is 17. The
with O2–? number of orbitals containing electron pairs in
(a) T1+ (b) Na+ its valence shell is
3–
(c) N (d) F– (a) 3 (b) 4
NEET-1994 (c) 6 (d) 8
Ans. (a) : O2–, N3– F– and Na+ have 10 electrons. UP CPMT-2001
107. The mass number and atomic number of Z in Ans. (a) : Write the electronic configuration and then
the following sequence are respectively count number of paired electrons in valence shell.
B X 
A −2 α −1β
→ Y → Z Atomic number 17 = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p5
(a) A – 4, B + 1 (b) A, B –1 Valence shell has 3s2 and 3p5 orbitals
(c) A – 4, B – 2 (d) A – 4, B – 1
UP CPMT-2010
Ans. (d) : AB X −2 α
→ AB −− 42 Y →−1β A− 4
B− 1 Z
∴ Valence shell has 3 paired electrons.
Thus, the mass umber and atomic number of Z are 113. The binding energy of an atom is 128 MeV. The
A – 4 and B – 1 respectively. binding energy per nucleon is 8, the number of
nucleon is
108. The atomic number of an element ‘M’ is 26.
How many electrons are present in the M-shell (a) 4 (b) 8
of the element in its M3+ state? (c) 16 (d) 32
(a) 11 (b) 15 UP CPMT-2001
(c) 14 (d) 13 Ans. (c) : Number of nucleons in an atom
UP CPMT-2008 binding energy of atom
Ans. (d): K L M N =
binding energy per nucleon
M(26) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s23p63d6 4s2
3+ 2 2 6 2 6 5
M 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p 3d 4s0 =
128
= 16
Hence, 13 electrons are present in the M-shell of M3+ 8
state.
∴ Atom has 16 nucleons.
109. Atomic number of an element is equal to the
number of 114. Which of the following is correct increasing
(a) protons (b) neutrons e
order for the value of ?
(c) protons+electrons (d) protons+neutrons m
UP CPMT-2005 (a) e < p < n < α (b) n < p < e < α
Ans. (a) : Atomic number= number of protons (c) n < p < α < e (d) n < α < p < e
=number of electrons UPTU/UPSEE-2015
Mass number = number of protons Ans. (d) : n < α < p < e
+ number of neutrons n α p e
110. How many neutrons are present in tritium e 0 +2 +1 1
nucleus?
m 1 4 1 1/1836
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 1 (d) 0 e 1
0 1 1836
UP CPMT-2003 m 2
3
Ans. (a) : Tritium ( 1 H) is an isotope of hydrogen 115. For which element the inertness of the electron
pair will not be observe?
∴ atomic number = 1 (a) Sn (b) Fe
∴ protons = electrons = 1
(c) Pb (d) In
No. of neutrons = Atomic mass–No. of protons
= 3–1 WB-JEE-2010
=2 Ans. (b) : Inert pair effect is exhibited only by heavy
metals of p–block elements. Fe belongs to d–block
111. Which one of the following has unit positive
elements.
charge and 1 amu mass?
(a) Electron (b) Neutron 116. If species has 16 protons, 18 electrons 16
(c) Proton (d) None of these neutrons, find the species and its charge
UP CPMT-2003 (a) S1– (b) Si2+
3–
Ans. (c) : Mass of neutron = 1.675 × 10–24 (c) P (d) S2–
g = 1.008 amu, AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-II
Charge = 0 COMEDK-2017
Mass of electron = 9.11 × 10–28 g, WB-JEE-2010
Charge unit negative = –1.602 × 10–19C Ans. (d) : 16p means z=16
Proton has mass of 1.677×10–24 g = 1.007 amu and 18 e means 2 unit negative charge is present.
proton has one unit positive charge = 1.602×10–19C Hence, species is S2–

122. According to Aufbau principle, the sub-shell
2. Atomic Models which is occupied by the electron first has :
(a) higher energy (b) lower stability
117. Which one of the following statements is (c) lower energy (d) can't b predicted
correct? AP-EAMCET-1993
(a) Rutherford's alpha-particle scattering Ans. (c) : The Aufbau Principle states that in the ground
experiment lead to the discovery of electron state of atom or ion, electron fill atomic orbital of the
(b) J. J. Thomson suggested that the nucleus of lowest available energy level's before occupying higher
an atom contains protons levels (e.g. is before 2s). In this way, the electron of an
(c) The atomic number of an element is the same atom or ion from the most stable electron configuration
as the number of protons in the nucleus of its possible.
atom e
(d) The mass number of an atom is equal to the 123. The constancy of ratio for electrons inspite
number of electrons in its shells m
NDA (II)-2015 of variations of gas present in the discharge
tube or of the material of the cathode shows
Ans : (c) The atomic number of an element is the same that :
as the number of proton in the nucleus of its atom.
(a) electrons are negatively charged
118. Rutherford's alpha-particle scattering
(b) electrons are universal constituents of matter
experiment was responsible for the discovery of
(a) Electron (b) Proton (c) electrons are the lightest of all particles
(c) Nucleus (d) Helium 1
NDA (I)-2017 (d) mass of the electron is of the mass of
1838
Ans : (c) Rutherford's alpha–particle scattering was H-atom
responsible for the discovery of atomic nucleus. AP-EAMCET-1994
Nucleus contains most of the mass. Most of atom has
empty space. Ans. (b) : The constancy of e/m ratio for electrons
inspite of variation of gas present in the discharge tube
119. The number of periods present in the long form
of the periodic table is : or the material of the cathode shows that electrons are
(a) 6 (b) 7 universal constituents of matters.
(c) 8 (d) 18 124. Rutherford's experiment on scattering of α-
AP-EAMCET (Med.)-1999 particles showed for the first time that the atom
Ans. (b) : The number of groups in the long form of has :
periodic table is 18. The number of periods in the long (a) nucleus (b) electron
form of periodic table is 7. (c) proton (d) neutron
120. Who discovered that cathode rays are made up AP-EAMCET-1995
of electrons Ans. (a) : Rutherford's show that for first time atom has
(a) William Crookes (b) G. J. Stoney positively charged nucleus through his -particles
(c) R. A. Millikan (d) J. J. Thomson scattering experiment.
MPPET- 2009 Number of scattered particles–
Ans. (d) :
• J.J. Thomson discovered that cathode rays are made
up of electrons.
• William Crookes investigated cathode rays in 1879
and found that they were bent by a magnetic field.
• Robert Millikan was a physicist who discovered the
elementary charge of electron using the oil drop 125. In Rutherford's α-ray scattering experiment,
experiment. the alpha particles are detected using a screen
• G.J. Stoney – He is introducing the term electron as coated with :
the "Fundamental unit quantity of electricity". (a) carbon black
121. When 4p orbital in any atom is filled (b) platinum black
completely, the next electron goes in : (c) zinc sulphide
(a) 5s (b) 3d
(d) polytetrafluoro ethylene
(c) 4d (d) 4f
AP-EAMCET-1999
AP-EAMCET-1991
Ans. (a) : According to the Aufbau principle and (n + Ans. (c) : Rutherford's Alpha Scattering Experiment
1) rule, the orbitals with increasing order their energies directed high energy streams of α-particles from a
is as follows, radioactive source at a thin sheet (100 nm thickness) of
gold.
1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d < 4p < 5s
• In order to study the deflection caused to the α-
Therefore, after 4p orbital is completely filled, the next particles, he placed a fluorescent zinc sulphide screen
electron goes in 5s orbital. around the thin gold foil.
126. Which of the following statements is correct There, n = 2 and z = 3 for Li
about the cathode rays ? Putting these values, we get-
1. These rays start from anode and move 2.18 × 106 × 3
towards cathode. ⇒ V= = 3.27 × 106 ms −1
2. They are visible with human eye. 2
3. In presence of electric and magnetic fields, So, option (b) is correct.
they behave like positively charged 130. The number of protons. Neutrons and electrons
particles. in 136 C respectively are ––
4. Their characteristic does not depend on the (a) 6, 7, 6 (b) 13, 6, 6
nature of material electrode. (c) 6, 7, 13 (d) 6, 6, 13
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4 AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-I
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-I Ans. (a) : For 13C6
Ans. (d) : Characteristics of cathode rays are: Atomic number = Number of protons = 6
(1) The cathode rays start from cathode and move Number of neutrons = Atomic mass number of protons
towards the anode. Thus, statement (1) is incorrect. = 13 – 6 = 7
(2) These rays themselves are not visible but their Number of electrons = number of protons = 6
behaviour can be observed with the help of 131. The wavelength of a spectral line emitted by
phosphor materials such as ZnS. Thus, statement (2)
is incorrect. 16
hydrogen atom in the Lyman series is cm.
(3) In the absence of electrical or magnetic field, these 15R
rays travel in straight lines. In the presence of What is the value of n2? (R = Rydberg
electrical or magnetic field, the behaviour of constant)
cathode rays are similar to that expected from (a) 2 (b) 3
negatively charged particles, suggesting that the (c) 4 (d) 1
cathode rays consist of negatively charged particles, AIIMS-2011
called electrons. Thus statement (3) is incorrect. Ans. (c) : For Lyman series.
(4) The characteristics of cathode rays (electrons) do
not depend upon the material of electrodes and the 1 1 1
nature of the gas present in the cathode ray tube. =R 2 − 2
λ  n1 n 2 
Hence, statement (4) is correct.
127. The nucleus of an atom contains 15R 1 1 
=R 2 − 2
(a) Proton and electron 16 1 n 2 
(b) Neutron and electron
(c) Proton and neutron 15R  n 22 − 1 
= 
(d) Proton, neutron and electron 16R  n 22 
MPPET-2008
15  n 22 − 1 
Ans. (c) : The nucleus of an atom contain of proton and = 
neutron. 16  n 22 
128. "The properties of elements are periodic 16n 22 − 15n 22 − 16 = 0
functions of their atomic weights." This
periodic law was given by n 22 − 16 = 0
(a) Dobereiner (b) Lother Meyer n2 = 4
(c) Mendeleev (d) Alexander 132. In which of the following options, the law of
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 17.09.2020 Shift-I triad is applicable?
Ans. (c) : "The properties of elements are periodic (a) Na, K, Rb (b) Cl, Br, I
functions of their atomic weights." (c) C, N, O (d) Ca, Sr
It is Mendeleev's periodic ion. TS-EAMCET 09.08.2021, Shift-I
129. If the velocity of the electron in the hydrogen Ans. (b) : For Dobereiner’s triads, the atomic weight of
atom in its first orbit is 2.18 × 106 ms–1, then a middle element is almost average of the other two.
will be the velocity of the electron in the second The law of triad is applicable to following species.
orbit of Li2+ ? 35.5 + 126.9
(a) 2.18 × 106 ms −1 (b) 3.27 × 106 ms −1 1) For Cl Br and I = = 81.2
35.5 80 126.9 2
−1
(c) 6.54 × 10 ms
6
(d) 1.45 × 106 ms −1
SCRA - 2009 7 + 39
2) For Li Na and K = = 23
Ans. (b) : Given: The velocity of electron in the first 7 23 39 2
orbit = 2.18 × 106 ms −1
40 + 137
z 3) For Ca Sr and Ba = = 88.5
We know that, V = 2.18 × 106 ms −1 40 88 137 2
n
133. Match the following 136. Television picture tube is basically
List-I List-II (a) cathode ray tube
A. Chadwick I. Cathode rays (b) anode ray tube
B. Rutherford II. X-rays spectra (c) hybrid of cathode and anode tube
C. Mosley III. Discovery of neutrons (d) none of the above
D. J.J. Thomson IV. Nuclear atom model AMU-2014
The correct match is Ans. (a) : The CRT (cathode ray tube) is basically the
A B C D picture tube of a television set. A television screen is the
(a) IV I II III front surface of a large picture tube, properly called a
(b) III II IV I cathode ray tube.
(c) III II I IV 137. The charge on an electron was discovered by :
(d) III IV II I (a) J.J. Thomson (b) Neil Bohr
TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 06.08.2021 (c) James Chadwick (d) Mullikan
Ans. (d): List-I List-II BCECE-2004
Chadwick → Discovery of neutrons Ans. (d) : The charge of the electron was measured by
Rutherford → Nuclear atom model Mullikan in 1909 and it was found to be 1.602×10–19
Mosley → X-rays spectra coulombs.
J.J. Thomson → Cathode rays 138. Rutherford's famous experiment with
134. According to Moseley, a straight line group is α-particles used this metal
obtained on plotting (a) Ni (b) Au
(a) the frequencies of characteristics X-rays of (c) Fe (d) Zn
elements against their atomic numbers BCECE-2009
(b) the square of the frequencies of Ans. (b) : Rutherford conducted an experiment by
characteristics X-rays of elements against bombarding a thin sheet of gold (Au) with α-particles
their atomic numbers and then studied the trajectory of these particles after
(c) the square root of the frequencies of their interaction with gold foil.
characteristics X-rays of elements against the 139. Which of the following transition of an electron
atomic numbers in H-atom will emit maximum energy?
(d) the reciprocal of the frequencies of (a) n 6  → n5 (b) n1  → n2
characteristics X-rays of elements against the
atomic numbers. (c) n 3 
→ n2 (d) n 4 
→ n3
SRMJEEE – 2008 BCECE-2017
Ans. (c) : According to Moseley, the square root of the Ans. (c) : We know that energy can we calculated by
frequencies of characteristic X-rays of elements against hc
the atomic numbers. ν = a(Z − b) using formula (E) = .
λ
where, a = Proportionality constant 1 1 1
b = Another constant = RZ2  2 − 2 
Z = Atomic number λ  n1 n 2 
135. The position of both an electron and helium 1 1
atom is known within 1.0 nm. The momentum E = RZ2 hc  2 − 2 
n
 1 n 2
of the electron is known within 5.0 × 10-26 kg
ms-1. The minimum uncertainty in the When, transition is from n3 – n2, it produce highest
measurement of the momentum of the helium energy.
atom is 140. The energy of an electron in nth orbit of
(a) 7.0 × 10-26 kg ms-1 (b) 5.0 × 10-26 kg ms-1 hydrogen atom is
(c) 8.0 × 10-26 kg ms-1 (d) 6.0 × 10-26 kg ms-1 13.6 13.6
(a) eV (b) eV
AIIMS-1994 n 4
n3
Ans. (b) : The Heisenberg uncertainty principle 13.6 13.6
h (c) − 2 eV (d) eV
∆x × ∆p ≥ n n
4π CG PET -2007
Where ∆x = Uncertainty in position,
Ans. (c) : Energy of an electron in Bohr’s orbit is given
∆p = Uncertainty in momentum by the relationship.
h 13.6
= constant E n = − 2 eV
4π n
h 141. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
As ∆x is same for electron and helium and is a
4π Rutherford’s atomic model?
constant, therefore minimum uncertainty in the (a) Atom contains nucleus
measurement of the momentum of the helium atom will (b) Size of nucleus is very small in comparison to
be same as that of an electron which is 5.0×10–26 kg ms–1. that of atom
(c) Nucleus contains about 90% mass of the atom Ans. (a) : Neutron was discovered by J. Chadwick in
(d) Electrons revolve around the nucleus with may 1932. According to Chadwick it is another sub-
uniform speed. atomic particle and part of an atom. It has no charge i.e.
HP CET-2018 it is electrically neutral and it is represented by n.
Ans. (c) : According to Rutherford's majority of the 146. Which of the following is not true in
mass was concentrated in a minute positively changed Rutherford's nuclear model of atom?
region (the nucleus surrounded by electrons). (a) Protons and neutrons are present inside
142. Given below are two statements: nucleus
Statement-I Rutherford's gold foil experiment (b) Volume of nucleus is very small as compared
cannot explain the line spectrum of hydrogen to volume of atom
atom. (c) The number of protons and neutrons are
Statement-II Bohr's model of hydrogen atom always equal
contradicts Heisenberg's uncertainty principle. (d) The number of electrons and protons are
In the light of the above statements, choose the always equal
most appropriate answer from the options Manipal-2019
given below:
Ans. (c) : The sum of protons and neutrons give the
(a) Statement I is false but statement II is true. mass number, the number of neutrons can be very
(b) Statement I is true but statement II is false. different to the number of protons.
(c) Both statement I and statement II are false.
147. Rutherford's experiment on the scattering of
(d) Both statement I and statement II are true.
α-particles showed for the first time that the
[JEE Main 2021, 27 July Shift-I] atom has:
Ans. (d) : Rutherford’s gold foil experiment only (a) electrons (b) Protons
proved that electrons are held towards nucleus by (c) Nucleus (d) neutrons
electrostatic forces of attraction and move in circular
orbit with very high speeds. UPTU/UPSEE-2005
Bohr’s model gave exact formula for simultaneous Ans. (c) : The conclusion of Rutherford from his α-ray
calculation of speed and distance of electrons from the experiment are:
nucleus, something which was deemed impossible (i) Most of the space inside the atom is empty
according to Heisenberg. because most of the alpha–particles passed
143. If the Thomson model of the atom was correct, through the gold foil without getting deflected.
then the result of Rutherford's gold foil (ii) Very few particles were deflected from their path,
experiment would have been indicating that the positive charge of the atom
(a) All of the α-particles pass through the gold occupies very little space.
foil without decrease in speed. (iii) A very small fraction of alpha–particles were
(b) α-particles are deflected over a wide range of deflected by 180o.
angles Indicating that all the positive charges and mass of the
(c) all α-particles get bounced back by 1800. gold atom were concentrated in very small volume
(d) α-particles pass through the gold foil within the atom. From the data he also calculated that
deflected by small angles and with reduced the radius of the nucleus is about 105 times less the
speed. radius of the atom.
Ans. (d) : As in Thomson model, protons are diffused 3. Dual Nature of Electron
(charge is not centered) α–
Particles deviate by small angles and due to repulsion148. The energy of mole of photons of radiation of
from protons this speed decreases. wavelength 300 nm is (given h = 6.63 × 10–34Js,
144. For d-electron, the orbital angular momentum NA= 6.02 × 1023 mol–1 C = 3 × 108 ms–1)
is (a) 235 kJ mol–1 (b) 325 kJ mol–1
–1
6h 2h (c) 399 kJ mol (d) 435 kJ mol–1
(a) (b) JEE Main-24.06.2022, Shift-II
2π 2π
(c) h / 2π (d) 2h / π Ans. (c) : Given,
J & K CET-(2004) Wavelength of photon = 300 nm
Planck’s constant = 6.63 × 10–34 Js
h
Ans. (a) : The angular momentum L = l(l + 1) ⋅ NA = 6.02 × 1023mol–1
2π C = 3 × 108 ms–1
For d orbital, l = 2 As we know that–
h h hc
∴L= 2(2 + 1) ⋅ = 6. Energy =
2π 2π λ
145. Neutron is discovered by
(a) Chandwick (b) Rutherford 6.63 × 10 –34 × 3 × 108
Energy =
(c) Yukawa (d) Dalton 300 × 10 –9
JIPMER-2008 = 6.63 × 10–19 J

Energy of one mole of photon We know that –
= 6.63 × 10–19 × 6.02 × 1023 mol–1 h
λ=
= 399 kJ/mol. mv
149. If wavelength of photon is 2.2 × 10 −11 m and 6.6 × 10−34
−34 λ=
h = 6.6 × 10 J s, then momentum of photon 6.6 × 10−31 × 107
−44 −1 −1
(a) 1.452 × 10 kg m s (b) 6.89 × 10 kg m s 43
λ = 10–34 × 1024
−23
(c) 3 × 10 kg ms −1 −22
(d) 3.33 × 10 kg m s −1 λ = 10–10
o
λ = 1A
Karnataka CET-17.06.2022, Shift-II
∴ 1A = 10
o –10
Ans. (c) : Given that –
Wavelength of proton (λ) = 2.2 × 10–11 m 152. What is the approximate wavelength in Å of a
photon having energy 2eV?
Planck's constant = 6.6 × 10–34 Js.
[Planck’s constant = 6.63 ×10–34J.s]
Momentum of photon = ?
(a) 6200 (b) 5100
According to de – Broglie equation
(c) 4600 (d) 3900
h
λ= SCRA-2010
p
Ans. (a) : We know that, E = nhν
h Where, h = Planck’s constant (6.67×10–34 Js)
p=
λ ν = Frequency of radiation
6.6 × 10−34 c = Velocity of light (3×108 m/s)
p= −11
2.2 × 10 c
∴ E = nh
p = 3 × 10–34 × 1011 λ
p = 3 × 10–23 kg. ms–1 nhc
or λ=
150. The minimum energy that must be possessed E
by photons in order to produce the
6.67 × 10−34 × 3 ×108
photoelectric effect with platinum metal is or λ= (1eV) = 1.6×10–19 J
[Given: The threshold frequency of platinum is 1.6 × 10−19
1.3× 1015 s–1 and h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js.] 20.01× 10−7
(a) 3.21 × 10–14 J (b) 6.24 × 10–16 J λ=
2 × 1.6
(c) 8.58 × 10–19 J (d) 9.76 × 10–20 J
λ = 6.2531 ×10−7
Ans. (c) : Given, λ = 6253 × 10 −10
Threshold frequency of platinum = 1.3 × 1015 s–1 or λ = 6253Å
Planck’s constant (h) = 6.6 × 10–34 Js 153. The longest wavelength present in Balmer
As we know that– series lines is
Energy =
hc [Given Rydberg constant = 1.097 x 107 m-1]
λ (a) 640 nm (b) 656 nm
c (c) 662 nm (d) 670 nm
And frequency (v) = SCRA-2014
λ
Then, Ans. (b) : In the Balmer series, the energy gap is very
Energy = hv less between n = 2 to n = 3.
= 6.6 × 10–34 Js × 1.3 × 1015 s–1 So, the wavelength high in nature.
= 8.58 × 10–19 J Given that, Rydberg constant = 1.097 × 107 m-1
151. A particle of mass 6.6 × 10–31 kg is moving with Using the following Formula–
a velocity of 1 × 107 ms–1. The de Broglie  1 1 
wavelength (in Å) associated with the particle, v = 1.097 × 107  2 − 2 
is (h = 6.6 × 10-34 Js)  n1 n 2 
(a) 1 (b) 10 1 1
or v = 1.097 ×107  − 
(c) 5 (d) 2 4 9
(e) 4 5
Kerala CEE -03.07.2022 or v = 1.097 ×107 ×
36
Ans. (a) : Given that – 7 −1
Mass particle (m) = 6.6 × 10 kg –31 or v = 0.1523 × 10 m
Velocity of particle (v) = 1 × 107 m/s We know that,
Wave length (λ) = ? 1
λ=
h = 6.6 × 10 Js
–34 v

1 Ans. (a) : Given that :
λ= velocity of A = 0.05 m/sec.
0.1523 × 107 m −1
velocity of B = 0.02 m/sec.
λ = 6.56 × 10−7 m Let, the mass of particle A = x
or λ = 656nm ∴ mass of particle B = 5x
154. The energy of an electromagnetic radiation is According to de-Broglie equation
19.875×10–13 erg. What is its wave number in
h
cm–1 ? (h=6.625×10–27 erg-s; c=3×1010 cm s–1) λ=
(a) 1000 (b) 106 mv
(c) 100 (d) 10,000 h
For particle A : λ A = (i)
AP-EAMCET-2002 x × 0.05
Ans. (d) : Given that : h
E = 19.875 × 10–13 erg For particle B : λ B = (ii)
5x × 0.02
h = 6.625 × 10–27 erg sec. Divide equation (i) and (ii) we get
C = 3 × 1010 cm.sec–1
λ A 5x × 0.02 2
∴ E = hv = =
λB x × 0.05 1
E
v= λA : λB = 2 : 1
h
158. Two particles of masses m & 2m have equal
19.875 ×10 –13 kinetic energies. The de-Broglie wavelength are
v=
6.625 × 10–27 × 3 × 1010 in the ratio of_____
v = 104 = 10,000 (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
155. If the wavelength of an electromagnetic (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 :1
radiation is 2000 Å, what is its energy in erg? AP EAPCET 23-08-2021 Shift-I
(a) 9.94 × 10–12 (b) 9.94 × 10–19 Ans. (d) : de-Broglie wavelength equation is-
–12
(c) 4.97 × 10 (d) 4.97 × 10–19
h h
AP-EAMCET-2003 λ= =
Ans. (a) : Given,  = 2000 Å = 2000 × 10–10m, E = ? p mv
where,
hc 6.626×10 –27 erg sec×3×108 m/sec λ = Wavelength
∴ E= =
λ 2000×10 –10 m h = Planck's constant
–12
= 9.94 × 10 erg P = Momentum
156. The energy of a photon is 3×10–12 erg. What is m = Mass of the particle
its wavelength in nm? v = Velocity
(h = 6.62 × 10–27 erg-s, c = 3 × 1010 cm s–1) ∴ P = mv
(a) 662 (b) 1324 Squaring both side and divide 1/2 we get-
(c) 66.2 (d) 6.62 1 2 1 2 2
AP-EAMCET-2006 P = mv
2 2
Ans. (a) : Given that :
E = 3 × 10–12 erg 1 2  1 2
P = (K.E.).m ∴ K.E. = mv 
h = 6.62 × 10–27 erg – s 2  2 
C = 3 × 1010 cm/sec P = 2(K.E.)m
∴ we know that :
h
hc So, λ =
E= 2(K.E.)m
λ
Given, two particles of mass m and 2m and kinetic
6.62×10 –27 ×3×1010 energy are same –
λ=
3×10 –12 h
λ = 6.62 × 10–27+22 λ1 = .......(i)
2(K.E.).m
λ = 6.62 × 10–5 cm
h
λ = 662 × 10–7 cm λ2 = .......(ii)
λ = 662 × 10–9 m 2(K.E.)2m
λ = 662 nm dividing (i) & (ii) we get
157. The velocities of two particles A and B are 0.05 λ1 h 2(KE)2m
and 0.02 ms–1 respectively. The mass of B is five = ×
times the mass of A. The ratio of their de- λ2 2(KE)m h
Broglie's wavelength is : λ1 2
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 =
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 4 : 1 λ2 1
AP-EAMCET-2008 ∴ Wavelength ratio = 2 :1
159. With what velocity must an electron travel so
hν φ
that its momentum is equal to that of a photon V0 = −
of wavelength 663 nm? e e
(a) 1098 m/s (b) 109.8 m/s Where, V0 = Stopping potential
(c) 10.98 m/s (d) 1.098 m/s ν = Frequency
AP EAPCET 23-08-2021 Shift-I φ = Work function
Ans. (a) : Given, λ = 663 nm = 663×10–9 m 162. The energy required to overcome the attractive
me = 9.1×10–31 kg forces on the electrons, w, of some metals is
V=? listed below. The number of metals showing
photoelectric effect when light of 300 nm
h h wavelength falls on it is
∴ λ= =
p me v (1eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J)
Where, h = Planck's constant Metal Li Na K Mg Cu Ag Fe Pt W
p = Momentum w(eV) 2.4 2.3 2.2 3.7 4.8 4.3 4.7 6.3 4.75
h (a) 6 (b) 8
V= (c) 5 (d) 4
meλ AP EAMCET (Medical) - 2013
6.626 × 10−34 Ans. (d) : Given:
V= −31
9.1 × 10 × 663 × 10 −9 wavelength (λ) = 300 nm = 300×10–9 m
6.626 l eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J
V= × 10 6
∴Energy of a photon of radiation of wavelength 300nm
9.1 × 663 will be -
V = 1098 m/sec.
E = hv
160. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of two
particles A and B is 2 : 1. If the velocities of A or hc
E=
–1 –1
and B are 0.05 ms and 0.02 ms respectively λ
then the ratio of their masses MA : MB must be
______. or E=
( )
6.6 × 10−34 ( JS ) × 3 × 108 ms −1
(a) 5 : 1 (b) 10 : 1 300 × 10−9 m
(c) 1 : 5 (d) 1 : 8 or E = 6.6×10–19J
AP-EAMCET 25-08-2021 Shift - I 6.6 × 10−19
Ans. (c) : From de-Broglie equation– E = eV
1.6 × 10−19
h or E = 4.14 eV
λ=
mv There are 4 metals for which the energy required to
Where, λ = Wavelength overcome the attractive forces on the electrons, w, is
h = Planck's constant less than 4.14 eV, the energy of light of wavelength 300
nm. Thus the number of metals showing a photoelectric
λ A m B VB
∴ = effect is 4.
λ B m A VA 163. If, the binding energy of electrons in a metal is
m A λ B VB 250 kJ/mol, what should be the threshold
= frequency of the striking photons in order to
m B λ A VA
free an electron from the metal surface ?
1 × 0.02 (a) 6.26 × 1014 s–1 (b) 12.4 × 1014 s–1
= 12 –1
2 × 0.05 (c) 6.26 × 10 s (d) 12.4 × 1012 s–1
0.01 AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-I
= Ans. (a) Binding energy of 1 mole of electrons = 250 kJ
0.05
Binding energy of 1 electron = (250)/(6.022 × 1023) kJ
m A : m B = 1: 5
= 4.15 × 10–22 kJ
161. The relation between the stopping potential = 4.15 × 10–19 J
(V0) and frequency ( ν ) is correctly represented Threshold energy (hv0) = Binding energy
in [φ = Work function] ∴ hv0 = 4.15 × 10–19 J
or v0 = (4.15 × 10–19 J)/ h
φ hν 2 he φ
(a) V0 = − (b) V0 = + = (4.15 × 10–19 J)/(6.626 × 10–34 J s)
e e ν e = 6.26 × 1014 s–1
hν φ hν Hence, the correct option is (a).
(c) V0 = − (d) V0 = 2
e e e 164. de Broglie was awarded the Nobel Prize in the
TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 05.08.2021 Shift-II year
Ans. (c) : The relation between the stopping potential (a) 1921 (b) 1922
(V0) and frequency ( ν ) is correctly represented by the (c) 1929 (d) 1928
following equation. TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-I
Ans. (c) : de Broglie was awarded by Nobel Prize in Na = 2.30 × 1.6022 × 10–19 = 3.68 × 10–19 Joule
1929 for his discovery of the wave nature of electrons. Thus Mg, K and Na metal will eject electron only when
165. Upon irradiation with radiation of a suitable W ≤ E(300) .
wavelength on the cathode, the photocurrent Hence the option (b) is correct
produced was reduced to zero by applying a 167. [Ti(H2O)6]3+ absorbs light of wavelength 498
stopping potential of 2.63 V. If the work nm during a d - d transition. The octahedral
function of the cathode is 4.3 eV. Find the splitting energy for the above complex is --------
approximate wavelength of the radiation (in -×10–19 J. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). h
nm)How many among the given species have = 6.626×10–34 Js; c = 3×108 ms–1
the highest bond order? CN–, CO, NO+, O2+,
O 2, N 2
(a) 224 (b) 179
JEE Main 16.03.2021, Shift-II
(c) 190 (d) 165
TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-I Ans. (4) : Given- λ = 498nm
The octahedral splitting energy is:
Ans. (b) : By Einstein photoelectric equation
hc
KEmax = hν – , KE max = ev ∆0 or E =
λ
hc
ev = −φ φ = wort function 6.66 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
λ E=
hc 498 ×10−9
= ev + φ c = 3 × 108 m / s or E = 4.00×10–19J (rounding off)
λ 168. Calculate the wave number and frequency of
hc
λ= h = 6.63 ×10−34 / s orange radiation having wavelength 6300 Å.
ev + φ (a) 1.587 × 108 m −1 , 4.761× 1016 s −1
6.63 × 10−34 × 3 ×108 (b) 1.587 × 10 4 m −1 , 4.761× 1014 s −1
λ=
1.6 × 10−19 × 2.63 + 1.6 ×10−19 × 4.3 (c) 1.587 × 106 m −1 ,4.761 × 1014 s −1
19.89 × 10−26 (d) 1.587 × 106 m −1 ,4.761 × 1016 s −1
λ=
1.6 × 10−19 (2.63 + 4.3) AP EAMCET (Engg.) 17.09.2020 Shift-I
19.89 ×10−26 × 1019 Ans. (c) : For orange radiation (EMR) of λ = 6300Å
λ=
1.6 × 6.93 (i) Wave number,
λ = 1.792 × 10−7 v= =
1 1
=
1
λ = 179.2 ×10−9 λ 6300Å 6300 × 10−10 m
= 1.587 × 106 m-1
λ = 179nm
c 3 × 108 m s −1
166. The work functions of Ag, Mg, K and Na (ii) Frequency, =
respectively in eV are 4.3, 3.7, 2.25, 2.30, When λ 6300 × 10−10 m
an electromagnetic radiation of wavelength of = 4.761 × 1014s-1
300 nm is allowed to fall on these metal surface, 169. Which of the following statements is correct
the number of metals from which the electrons about photoelectric effect ?
are ejected is (1ev = 1.6022 × 10–19J) (A) The number of electrons ejected from metal
(a) 4 (b) 3 surface is inversely proportional to intensity
(c) 2 (d) 5 of light.
AP EAMCET-2017 (B) Below threshold frequency, photoelectric
effect can be observed.
Ans. (b) : Given that, (C) At higher frequency than threshold frequency,
λ = 300 nm = 300 × 10–9 m the ejected electrons have certain kinetic
hc energy.
E=
λ (D) At higher frequency than threshold frequency,
the electron is still on the metal surface.
6.6 × 10 –34 × 3 × 108
E= (a) 1 (b) 2
300 × 10 –9 (c) 3 (d) 4
19.8 ×10 –26 AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.09.2020, Shift-I
E=
300 × 10 –9 Ans. (c) : Kinetic energy of photoelectrons
E = 6.6 × 10–19 Joule KE = hv – hv0
And work function for Ag, Mg, K and Na in Joules are – ⇒ When > V0, KE > 0
Ag = 4.3 × 1.6022 × 10–19 = 6.89 ×10–19 Joule So, statement C is correct.
Mg = 3.7 × 1.6022 × 10–19 = 5.93 × 10–19 joule Where, v = Frequency of incident light
K = 2.25 × 1.6022 × 10–19 = 3.60 × 10–19 joule V0 = Threshold frequency

Now, other options will be correct when 173. If two particles A and B are moving with the
A. Number of photoelectrons ejected from metal surface same velocity. But wavelength of A is found to
intensity of light. be double than that of B. Which of the
B. When, v < V0, KE < 0 phtoelectric effect cannot be following statements are correct?
observed. (a) Both A and B have same mass
D. When, v = v0, KE = 0 the electrons will be still on (b) Mass of A is half that of B
the metal surface. (c) Mass of B is half that of A
170. Calculate energy of half mole of photons of a (d) Mass of B is one-fourth that of A
radiation with frequency 3 × 1012 Hz. AP EAPCET 19-08-2021 Shift-I
(a) 598.2 kJ mol–1 (b) 0.598 kJ mol–1 Ans. (b) : From the equation of De-Broglie
–1
(c) 1.196 kJ mol (d) 119.6 kJ mol–1
h
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-II λ = Where λ = wavelength
Ans. (b) : Energy of a photon, E = hv, where, p
v = Frequency = 3 × 1012 Hz Or λ =
h
h = Plank’s constant
Therefore, energy m.v
= 6.6 × 10–34 × 3 × 1012 Hz = 1.9878 × 10–21 J P = Momentum
1 mole = 6.02 × 1023 photons, For particle A –
1 h
Therefore, mole = 3.01 × 1023 photons 2λ = ……. (i)
2 mA v
1 For particle B –
Therefore, energy of mole of photons
2 h
= 1.9878 × 10 × 3.01 × 1023
–21 λ= ……. (ii)
mBv
= 0.5982 kJ/mol
Hence, the correct option is (b). From equation (i) and (ii)
171. One mole of alkene X on ozonolysis gave one h m v
− 2= × B
mole of acetaldehyde and one mole of acetone. mA v h
The IUPAC name of X is mB
− Or 2=
(a) 2-methyl-2butene (b) 2-methyl-1-butene mA
(c) 2-butene (d) 1-butene
mB
AP EAMCET (Engg.)-2009 mA =
2
Ans. (a): X O3
→ CH 3CHO + CH 3COCH 3 174. Identify the correct statements regarding
The molecule X must be a compound Balmer series: The wave number of each line in
containing 5 carbon atoms, and thus, X cannot be 1– the spectrum of atomic hydrogen is given the
butene or 2–butene as they contain 4 carbon atoms only.
 1 1 
equation v = R H  2 − 2  where RH is a
n
 1 n 2 
constant and n1 and n2 are integers.
2–methyl–2–butene (i) As wave length decrease, the lines in the
series constant
(ii) The integer n1 is equal to 2
(iii) The ionization energy of hydrogen can be
calculated from the wave number of these
2-methyl – 1 – butene lines
2–methybut –2– ene gives desired products. (iv) The line of longest wavelength corresponds to
172. The de-Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of n2 = 3
mass 60 g moving with a velocity of 10 ms–1 is Options:
approximately ....... (Planck's constant h = 6.63 (a) (i), (ii) & (iii) only (b) (i), (iii) & (iv) only
× 10–34 J. s) (c) (ii) & (iv) only (d) (ii), (iii) & (iv) only
(a) 1.1 × 10–31 m (b) 1.1 × 10–33 m AP EAPCET-6 Sep. 2021, Shift-II
–34
(c) 1.1× 10 m (d) 1.1 × 10–32 m Ans. (c) : Explanation:– For Balmer series in the
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.9.2020 Shift-I spectrum of hydrogen,
Ans. (b) : de-Broglie's wave equation is
1 1
h 6.63 × 10−34 v = RH  2 − 2 
λ= = = 1.10 × 10−33 m  n1 n 2 
mv ( 60 × 10−3 ) × 10
Where, RH = Rydberg’s constant Incase of
[m = Mass of the ball = 60g = 60 × 10–3kg, Balmer series, transition takes place from various
v = velocity of the ball = 10 ms–1] energy levels such as n2 =3,4,5…..to n1=2.

For longest wavelength, minimum energy transition or λ = 6.625 ×10–5 cm
takes place n2 = 3 to n1 = 2. Since, energy is inversely or λ = 6.625 × 10–7 m
proportional to wavelength. or λ = 662.5 × 10–9 m
1 or λ = 662.5 nm
i.e, E ∝ As, the wavelength decreases, the lines in
λ 178. Calculate the velocity of an electron having
the series converge. wavelength of 0.15 nm. Mass of an electron is
–28
175. It the work function for the photoelectron 9.109 × 10 grams. (h = 6.626 × 10–27 erg-
emission of a mental is 3.75 eV, then the second).
threshold wave length of the radiation needed (a) 4.85 × 108 cm. sec.–1
for the ejection of the electron is (b) 2.062 × 1015 cm. sec.–1
approximately_____. (c) 2.062 × 1010 cm. sec.–1
(a) 315 nm (b) 280 nm (d) 4.85 × 109 cm. sec.–1
(c) 330 nm (d) 290 nm GUJCET-2011
AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-II Ans. (a): Given that,
ο 12.375 ο ο
Ans. (c): λ(∈ A) = A ≈ 3300 A λ = 0.15 nm = 0.15 × 10–9 m
3.75 M = 9.109 × 10–28 gm = 9.109 × 10–31 kg
ο
Or λ ≈ 330 nm [Q 1 A = 0.1 nm] h = 6.626 × 10–27 erg-second = 6.626 × 10–34 J sec.
According to de Broglie equation–
176. A 150 watt bulb emits light of wavelength 6600
Å and only 8% of the energy is emitted as light. λ = h = h
How many photons are emitted by the bulb per p mv
second?
h 6.626 ×10−34
(a) 4×1019 (b) 3.24×1019 v= =
(c) 4.23×1020 (d) 3×1020 mλ 9.109 × 10−31 × 0.15 × 10−9
6 8
COMEDK-2014 v = 4.8494 × 10 m/sec = 4.849 × 10 cm/sec.
Ans. (a) : Power of the bulb= 150 watt= 150 J s–1 179. Which of the following relations is correct, if
As only 8% of the energy is emitted as light so, the total the wavelength (λ) is equal to the distance
energy emitted per second travelled by the electron in one second?
150J × 8 h is the Planck's constant and m is the mass of
= = 12J electron
100
(a) λ = h/p (b) λ = h/m
hc
Energy of one photon, E = hυ = (c) λ = h/p (d) λ = h/m
λ
(6.626 × 10 Js) × (3 × 10 m s )
–34 8 –1 TS EAMCET 04.08.2021, Shift-I
= = 3.0118×10 –19
J Ans. (d) : We know that–
6600 × 10 –10 m
∴ Number of photons emitted λ=
h
.....(i)
12J mv
= = 3.98 × 10 ≈ 4.0 × 10
19 19
Here, m = Mass of electron
3.0118 × 10 –19 J
177. The energy of an electromagnetic radiation is v = Velocity of electron
3 × 10–12 ergs. What is the wavelength in λ = Wavelength of electron
nanometers? If wavelength (λ) is equal to distance travelled by the
h = 6.625 × 10–27 erg sec., electron in one second i.e.
c = 3 × 1010 cm sec.–1 λ=v
(a) 400 (b) 228.3 Put in equation (i), we get–
(c) 3000 (d) 662.5
h
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2002 λ=
Ans. (d) : Given that – mλ
–12
E = 3 × 10 ergs h
⇒ λ =
2
λ = ? (nanometer) m
h = 6.625 × 10–27 erg. sec
C = 3 × 1010 cm sec–1 h
λ=
hc m
Now, E =
λ 180. When light of wavelength 248nm falls on a
metal of threshold energy 3.0 eV, the de-
hc
or λ= Broglie wavelength of emitted electrons
E is______Å. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
6.625 ×10−27 (erg.sec) × 3 × 1010 (cm sec −1 ) [me = 9.1×10−31 kg;c = 3.0 ×108 ms−1;1eV = 1.6 ×10−19 Js]
or λ= −12
3 ×10 (ergs) JEE Main 16.03.2021, Shift-I
Ans. (9Å) : Given that, Wavelength ( λ ) = 248nm Dividing equation (i) by (ii) we get–
λ1 hc 100eV
Threshold energy ( φ ) = 3.0eV = ×
λ 2 25 eV hc
de–Broglie wavelength ( λ ) = ? λ1 : λ2 = 4 : 1
hc 182. de Broglie relationship has no significance for
Now, Energy incident = (a) An electron (b) A proton
λ
Where, h = Planck's constant (c) A neutron (d) An iron ball.
c = Speed of light SRMJEEE – 2009
λ = Wavelength Ans. (d) : According to the de-Broglie, every object in
motion has a wave character. The wavelength
6.6×10-34 × 3 ×108
∴ E= eV associated with ordinary objects are so sort because of
248 × 10−19 × 1.6 × 10−19 their large masses that their wave properties cannot be
E = 5eV detected. The light mass of the particle can be detected
From the Einstein photoelectric equation– experimentally but not in the case of large mass.
E = φ + K.E. 183. The wavelength associated with a particle of
or K.E. = 5 eV – 3 eV mass 3.313 × 10–31 kg moving with velocity 103
or K.E. = 2 eV m/s is
or K.E. = 2×1.6×10–19=3.2×10–19 J (a) 2 × 10–6 m (b) 2 × 10–6 cm
h (c) 2 × 10 m–7
(d) 2 × 10–7 cm
For de-Broglie wavelength ( λ ) = SRMJEEE – 2010
mv
1 Ans. (a) : Given that, Mass of particle = 3.313 × 10–
31
K.E. = mv 2
kg
2 v = 103 m/s, λ = ?
2 ( K.E.) Now, from de–Broglie equation –
So, v=
m h
λ=
h p
Hence, λ =
2 ( K.E.) × m Where, λ = Wavelength
h = Planck's constant
6.6 ×10−34 p = Momentum
or λ=
2 × 3.2 × 10−19 × 9.1× 10−31 6.626 ×10−34 kgm 2s −1
∴ λ=
6.6 ×10−34 3.313 × 10−31 kg ×103 ms −1
or λ=
58.24 ×10−50 = 2 × 10–6 m
or λ=9Å 184. Which one of the following frequencies of
181. If the energies of two light radiations E1 and E2 radiation (in Hz) has a wavelength of 600 nm?
are 25 eV and 100 eV respectively, then their (a) 2.0×1013 (b) 5.0×1016
14
respective wavelength λ1 and λ2 would be in the (c) 2.0×10 (d) 5.0×1014
ratio λ1 : λ2 = ______ AP-EAMCET- (Engg.)-2011
(a) 2:1 (b) 4:1 Ans. (d) : Given that,
(c) 1:4 (d) 1:2 Wavelength (λ) = 600 nm = 600 × 10–9 m
AP EAPCET 19-08-2021, Shift-II We know that–
Ans. (b) : Given that, E1 = 25 eV, E2 = 100 eV c 3 ×108
λ1 : λ2 = ? ν = =
λ 600 × 10−9
From the equation of energy - ν = 5 × 1014 Hz.
hc
E= 185. If the kinetic energy of a particle is reduced to
λ half, de-Broglie wavelength becomes :
Where, E = Energy 1
h = Planck's constant (a) 2 times (b) times
λ = Wavelength 2
c = Speed of light (c) 4 times (d) 2 times
For first radiation– AP-EAMCET (Engg.) 2015
hc hc
E1 = λ ⇒ = λ1 ...( i ) Ans. (d) : Given that, (K.E.) 2 = 1/2 (K.E.)1
1 25 eV According to de-Broglie equation
For second radiation– h h h
λ= = =
hc hc mv p 2m K.E.
E2 = ⇒ = λ 2 ...( ii )
λ2 100 eV Where, K.E. = Kinetic energy

th
So, the de-Broglie wavelength is inversely proportional 189. What is the wave number of 4 line in Balmer
to square root of kinetic energy (K.E.) series of hydrogen spectrum?
(R = 1,09,677 cm–1)
λ1 (K.E.)2 (a) 24,630 cm–1 (b) 24,360 cm–1
Therefore, =
λ2 (K.E.)1 (c) 24,730 cm –1
(d) 24,372 cm–1
λ1 1 (K.E.)1 AP - EAMCET (Medical) - 2007
Then, = Ans. (d) : We know that,
λ2 2 (K.E.)1
 1 1 
or λ 2 = 2λ1 v = R 2 − 2 
n
 1 n 2 
Thus, de-Broglie wavelength becomes 2 times to the Where, v = Wave number
original wavelength. R = Rydberg constant
186. The frequency of radiation emitted, when an 4th line in Balmer series that means–
electron falls from n = 3 to n = 1. in a hydrogen n1 = 2, n2 = 6
atom would be _____
 1 1 
(a) 2.92 ×103hour–1 (b) 2.92 ×10-15s–1 ∴ v = 1,09,677  2 − 2  cm −1
(c) 2.92 ×10 s 15 –1
(d) 2.92 min –1 2 6 
AP- EAPCET- 07-09-2021, Shift-I 1 1 
v = 1,09,677  −  cm −1
Ans. (c) : Given that, n1= 1, n2 = 3  4 36 
According to the Rydberg's formula– or v = 24372cm −1
1  1 1  190. What is the wavelength (in m) of a particle of
∴ = RH  2 − 2 
λ  n1 n 2  mass 6.62 × 10–29 g moving with a velocity of
103 ms–1?
1 1 1  (a) 6.62×10–4 (b) 6.62×10–3
= 1.096 × 105  − 2 
λ 1 3  (c) 10 –5
(d) 105
1 8 AP-EAMCET (Engg.)-2005
= 1.096 × 105 × = 0.968 × 105 cm −1
λ 9 Ans. (c) : Given that, m = 6.62×10–29g = 6.62×10–32 kg
We know that, v = 103 ms–1, λ (in m) = ?
c Now, from the de-Broglie equation–
∴ v=
λ h
Q λ=
= 3 × 10 × 0.968 × 10
10 5
mv
= 2.92 ×1015 sec –1 6.6 × 10 −34 J s
∴ λ =
187. Which one of the following transitions of an 6.62 × 10 −32 (kg) × 103 (ms −1 )
electron in hydrogen atom emits radiation of
the lowest wavelength? or λ = 1×10–5 m
(a) n 2 = ∞ to n1 = 2 (b) n 2 = 4 to n1 = 3 191. The wavelengths of two photons are 2000Å and
4000Å respectively. What is the ratio of their
(c) n 2 = 2 to n1 = 1 (d) n 2 = 5 to n1 = 3 energies?
AP-EAMCET- (Engg.) - 2010 (a) 1/4 (b) 4
hc (c) 1/2 (d) 2
Ans. (c) : ∆E = VITEEE 2019
λ
When the value of 'n' increases the difference of energy Ans. (d) : Given that, λ 1 = 2000 Å , λ 2 = 4000 Å
between successive orbit decreases. We know that,
i.e, E 2 − E1 > E 3 − E 2 > E 4 − E 3 so on--- hc
∴ E=
∴ λ is lowest for n2=2 to n1 =1 transitions. λ
188. The basis of quantum mechanical model of an So, E hc λ
1
= × 2
atom is E 2 λ1 hc
(a) Angular momentum of electron
E1 4000 Å
(b) Quantum numbers =
(c) Dual nature of electron E 2 2000 Å
(d) Black body radiation E1
=2
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) 2013 E2
Ans. (c) : The basis of quantum mechanical model of an 192. The values of Planck’s constant is 6.63 × 10–34
atom is dual nature of electron i.e. electron possesses Js. The velocity of light is 3.0 ×108 m s–1. Which
particle nature as well as wave nature. It means when value is closest to the wavelength in nanometers
the matter is moving its shows the wave property are of a quantum of light with frequency of 8 × 1015
associated with it and when it is in the state. s–1?
(a) 5 × 10–18 (b) 4 × 101 (a) 1060 nm (b) 496 nm
(c) 3 × 107 (d) 2 × 10–25 (c) 300 nm (d) 215 nm
AIPMT 2003 VITEEE 2013
−34
Ans. (b) : Given that, h = 6.626 × 10 J sec. Ans. (b) : E = E1 + E2
c = 3 × 108 m / sec. , v = 8 × 1015 sec −1 hc hc hc
= +
hc λ λ1 λ 2
Q E = hv =
λ 1 1 1
= +
3 ×108 300 760 λ 2
8 × 1015 =
λ 1 1 1
= −
3 × 108 λ 2 300 760
λ= = 0.375 × 10−7 ≈ 4 × 101 nm
8 × 1015 λ2 = 496 nm
193. The ratio of slopes of Kmax vs v and v 0 vs v 196. Electrons with a kinetic energy of 6.023 × 104 J/
curves in the photoelectric effects gives (v = mol are evolved from the surface of a metal, when
frequency, Kmax = maximum kinetic energy, v0 it is exposed to radiation of wavelength of 600 nm.
= stopping potential) The minimum amount of energy required to
(a) The ratio of Planck’s constant of electronic remove an electron from the metal atom is
charge
(b) Work function (a) 2.3125 × 10−19 J (b) 3 × 10−19 J
(c) Planck’s constant (c) 6.02 × 10−19 J (d) 6.62 × 10−34 J
(d) Charge of electron VITEEE- 2009
VITEEE 2015
Ans. (a) : Given that, KE of 1 mol = 6.023 × 104 J
Ans. (d) : We know that, h v = h v 0 + e v 0
or KE of 6.023 × 1023 atoms = 6.023 × 104 J
h h
ev0 = hv − hv0 , v0 = v − v0 6.023 × 104
e e ∴ KE of 1 atom =
On comparing this equation with the straight line 6.023 × 1023
equation i.e y = mx + c we know that, = 1.0 × 10–19 J
The slope of v 0 vs v is hc 6.626 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
h Q hν energy = =
(slope)1 = λ 600 × 10−9
e = 3.313 × 10–19 J
h v = h v 0 + KE Now Threshold energy = hν − KE
KE = h v – h v 0 (constant) = 3.313 × 10–19 –1.0 × 10–19
y = mx + (–h v 0) =2.313 × 10–19J
Thus, slope of Kmax vs v is Hence minimum amount of energy required to remove
( slope )2 = h an electron from the metal ion will be 2.313 × 10–19 J
197. The wavelengths of electron waves in two
( slope )2 h
∴ = = e (charge of electron) orbits is 3 : 5. The ratio of kinetic energy of
( slope )1 h / e electrons will be
194. A certain metal when irradiated by light (r = (a) 25 :9 (b) 5 : 3
3.2 × 1016Hz) emits photoelectrons with twice (c) 9 : 25 (d) 3 : 5
kinetic energy as did photoelectrons when the VITEEE- 2009
same metal is irradiated by light (r = 2. 0 × Ans. (a) : According to de-Broglie's equation -
1016Hz). The v0 of metal is
(a) 1.2 × 1014 Hz (b) 8 × 1015 Hz h
λ=
16
(c) 1.2 × 10 Hz (d) 4 × 1012 Hz mν
Ans. (b) : According to question squaring both side, we get −
( KE )1 = 2 × ( KE )2 h2
λ2 =
hv1 − hv0 = 2 ( hv2 − hv0 ) m2ν 2
hv0 = 2hv2 − hv1 h2
or mν 2 =
v0 = 2v2 − v1 mλ 2
v0 = 2 × ( 2 × 1016 ) − ( 3.2 × 1016 ) 1
Q KE = mν 2
2
v0 = 8 × 10 Hz 15
2 2
195. A near UV photon of 300 nm is absorbed by a Therefore, K1  λ 2   5 
=  = 
gas and then re-emitted as two photons. One K 2  λ1   3 
photon is red with wavelength of the second
photon is ∴ K1 : K2 = 25 : 9
198. A bulb emitted electromagnetic radiation of Ans. (d): Energy of a photon = hν
660 nm wavelength. The total energy of
c
radiation is 3 × 10–18 J. The number of emitted Qv=
photon will be: λ
(h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js, c = 3 × 108 m/s) hc
Hence, E =
(a) 1 (b) 10 λ
(c) 100 (d) 1000 So, energy depends on wavelength.
AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Morning) 201. Wavelength of a particular transition for H
Ans. (b): Given that, total energy of radiation = 3×10– atom is 400 nm. What can be wavelength of
18
J He+ for same transition?
h = 6.6 × 10 –34 Js, c = 3 × 108 , λ = 660 × 10 –9 (a) 400 nm (b) 100 nm
Number of photons emitted = n (c) 1600 nm (d) 200 nm
We know that, AIIMS-26 May, 2018
nhc Ans. (b): According to the Rhyberg's equation–
E=
λ 1  1 1 
Where, h = the plank's constant = R H  2 − 2  × Z2
λ  n1 n 2 
c = the speed of light
and λ = wavelength 1  1 1 
= R H  2 − 2  (1) 2 ..…(i)
Now, by substituting the value of these, we get– 400 n
 1 n 2 
6.6 × 10−34 × 3 ×108 × n
3 × 10−18 = 1  1 1 
660 × 10−9 = R H  2 − 2  (2)2 …..(ii)
λ He+  n1 n 2 
30
n= =10 On dividing equation (i) by (ii), we get
3
199. Assertion: Threshold frequency is the 400 400
λ He+ = 2 = = 100 nm
maximum frequency required for the ejection 2 4
of electron from the metal surface. 202. Find the frequency of light that corresponds to
Reason: Threshold frequency is characteristic photons of energy 5.0×10−5 erg?
of a metal. (a) 7.5 × 10−21 sec −1 (b) 7.5 × 10 −21 sec
the Reason is the correct explanation of (c) 7.5 × 1021 sec −1 (d) 7.5 × 1021 sec
Assertion AIIMS-2010
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Ans. (c): We know that, E= hv.
E 5.0 × 10−5 erg
Assertion. v= =
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. h 6.63 × 10−34 Js
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are 5.0 ×10−5 erg
incorrect. v=
6.63 × 10−34 × 107 erg sec
AIIMS-26 May, 2018
∴[1J= 107 erg]
Ans. (d): Threshold frequency is a minimum frequency
required for the emission of electron from the metal v = 7.54×1021 sec–1
surface. 203. Ratio of energy of photon of wavelength 3000Å
200. Assertion: All photons possess the same and 6000Å is
amount of energy. (a) 3 : 1 (b) 2 : 1
Reason: Energy of photon does not depend (c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 3
upon wavelength of light used. AIIMS-2012
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Ans. (b): Given that, ratio of energy of photon of
the Reason is a correct explanation of the wavelength 3000Å and 6000Å
Assertion.
hc
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but E=
Reason is not a correct explanation of the λ
Assertion. E1 λ 2 6000
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is = = = 2 :1
E 2 λ1 3000
incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason, are 204. The de Broglie wavelength associated with a
incorrect. ball of mass 1 kg having kinetic energy 0.5 J is :
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is (a) 6.626 × 10 −34 m (b) 13.20 × 10 −34 m
−21
correct. (c) 10.38 × 10 m (d) 6.626 × 10 −34 Å
AIIMS-1998 AIIMS-2006
Ans. (a): Given data, mass of ball = 1 kg 207. The wavelength of visible light is:
Kinetic energy (K.E) = 0.5 J (a) 2000Å−3700Å (b) 7800Å−8900Å
de-Broglie wavelength (λ) = ? (c) 3800Å−7600Å (d) None of these
Now, as we know that, AIIMS-1998
1 Ans. (c): The visible spectrum is the portion of the
K.E. = mv 2 electromagnetic spectrum that is visible to the human
2 eye.
1
0.5 = × 1× v 2 Electromagnetic radiation in this range of wavelengths
2 is called visible light or simple light. A typical human
v2 = 1 eye will respond to wavelengths from about.
v = 1 ms–1 380 to 700 nm or 3800Å – 7600Å
h The visible spectrum is VIBGYOR. Violet has the
Therefore, de-Broglie wavelength λ = shortest wavelength, at around 380 nanometers, and red
mv has the longest wavelength, at around 700 nanometers
6.63 × 10−34 in this spectrum.
=
1× 1 208. The wavelength of a 150 g rubber ball moving
=6.63×10–34 m with a velocity of 50 ms−1 is :
205. The de- Broglie wavelength of an electron in (a) 3.43 × 10−33 cm (b) 5.86 × 10 −33 cm
the ground state of hydrogen atoms is: (c) 7.77 × 10−33 cm (d) 8.83 × 10 −33 cm
(K.E.= 13.6eV; 1ev=1.602×10−19 J) AIIMS-1998
(b) 33.28nm (b) 3.328nm Ans. (d): Given that, v = 50 m/sec, m = 150 gm =
(c) 0.3328nm (d) 0.0332 nm 150×10–3 kg
AIIMS-2000 According to de-Broglie –
Ans. (c): For electron in the ground state,
h 6.626 × 10−34
h λ= =
Q mvr = mv (150 × 10−3 ) × 50
2π
⇒ 8.83×10–35 m
h
Or mv = ⇒ 8.83×10–33 cm
2πr 209. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle with
h mass 1 g and velocity 100 m/s is
Now, mv=
λ (a) 6.63 × 10–35 m (b) 6.63 × 10–34 m
h h (c) 6.63 × 10 m
–33
(d) 6.65 × 10–35 m
So, = NEET-1999
λ 2πr
Ans. (c) : Given that, m=1g, v=100 m/s
λ=2πr h= 6.63×10–34 J-s
According to de-Broglie wave equation –
λ=2×3.14×0.53 Å =3.328 Å
h 6.63 ×10−34 J-s
= 3.328×10–10 m Q 1 Å = 10-10m λ= =
= 0.3328×10–9 m mv 1× 10−3 Kg × 100m / s
= 0.3328 nm
206. The de- Broglie wavelength associated with a = 6.63×10–33 m
–34
particle of mass 10−6 Kg moving with a velocity 210. If the Planck's constant h = 6.6 × 10 Js, the
−1
of 10 ms is : de Broglie wavelength of a particle having
−7 −16 momentum of 3.3 × 10–24 kg ms–1 will be
(a) 6.63 × 10 m (b) 6.63 × 10 m
(a) 0.002 Å (b) 0.5 Å
(c) 6.63 × 10 −21 m (d) 6.63 × 10 −29 m
AIIMS-2001 (c) 2 Å (d) 500 Å
Ans. (d): According to the de Broglie equation, BITSAT 2018
h Ans. (c) : Given that,h = 6.6 × 10 , p = 3.3 × 10-24
-34
λ=
mv h
We know that, λ = (Q p = mv)
Where, h = Planck’s constant mv
v = velocity h
m = mass of the particle Or λ=
p
λ = wavelength of the particle.
6.63 ×10−34 Js h 6.6 × 10 –34
λ = −6 λ = = –24
= 2 × 10 –10 m = 2Å
10 Kg × 10ms −1 p 3.3 × 10
211. The energy required to remove an electron
6.63 × 10−34 from metal X is E = 3.31 × 10-20 J. Calculate the
= −5
10 maximum wavelength of light that can photo
= 6.63×10–29 m eject an electron from metal X.
(a) 6.01 × 10–6 m (b) 3.01 × 10–3 m hc
(c) 5.01 × 10–6 m (d) None of these Ans. (a) : We know that, E=hv=
λ
AMU-2014 Again, E=mc2
Ans. (a) : Given that, E = 3.31 × 10-20 J hc
h = 6.626 × 10-34 J.sec ,c = 3 × 108 ∴ mc2=
m/s λ
hc h 6.626 × 10−37
Energy (E) = or m= = kg
λ cλ 3 × 108 × 3.6 × 10−10
=0.6135×10-32 kg =61.35×10-34 kg
hc 6.626 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
Or λ = = 215. The de-Broglie wavelength (λ) associated with
E 3.31× 10−20 a photoelectron varies with the frequency (ν) of
⇒ 6.01×10 m –6
the incident radiation as, [ν0 is threshold
212. The energy of one mole of photons of radiation frequency]
whose frequency is 5 × 1014 Hz will be
1 1
(a) 19.951 KJ mol–1 (b) 199.51 KJ mol–1 (a) λ ∝ 1
(b) λ ∝ 3
–1
(c) 39.90 KJ mol (d) 399.0 KJ mol–1 (ν − ν 0 ) 4 (ν − ν 0 ) 2
AMU-2015, 2007
1 1
Ans. (b) : Energy of quantum (or photon), E=hv (c) λ ∝ (d) λ ∝
Where, Planck’s constant, h = 6.62 × 10–34 J-s (ν − ν 0 ) 1
(ν − ν 0 ) 2
1 mol of photon = 6.023 × 1023 molecules of photon so [JEE Main 2019, 11 Jan Shift-II]
the Energy of 1 mole of photon will be,
Ans. (d) : For electron
E= N0hv
λ
=6.023×1023×6.62×10–34×5×1014 J/mole λ DB = (de − broglie wavelength)
=199.36 × 103 J/mole 2mK.E
or 199.36KJ mol–1 Where λ = Wavelength of particles
213. In hydrogen atom, the de Broglie wavelength of h = Planck’s constant
an electron in the second Bohr orbit is [Given K.E = Kinetic energy
that Bohr radius, a0 =52.9 pm] According to photoelectric effect
(a) 211.6 pm (b) 211.6 π pm hv = hv0 +KE
(c) 52.9 π pm (d) 105.8 pm KE= hv – hv0
NEET-Odisha 2019
h 1
Ans. (b) : According to Bohr, λ DB = , λ DB ∝ 1
nh 2m × (hv − hv0 )
mvr = (v − v0 ) 2
2π 216. The energy of a photon is given as, ∆E/atom =
nh 3.03×10–19 J atom–1 then, the wavelength (λ) of
2πr= =nλ ………..(i)
mv the photon is
Where, r= Radius (a) 0.656 nm (b) 6.56 nm
λ= Wavelength (c) 65.6 nm (d) 656 nm
n= Number of orbit AMU–2001
a n2 Ans. (d) : Given that, ∆E = 3.03×10-19J atom–1
Also, r= o ………..(ii) According to formula –
z
Where, ao = Bohr radius= 52.9 pm hc 6.626 × 10−34 × 3 ×108
Z= Atomic number ∆E = =
λ λ
On substituting the value of ‘r’ from equation (ii) to
hc
equation (i) we get λ= = 656 nm
λ
2πn a o
2
nλ = 217. The wavelength of a ball of mass 100 g moving
z with a velocity of 100 ms-1 be
2πna o (a) 6.626 × 10–30 m (b) 6.626 × 10–35 m
λ=
z (c) 6.626 × 10 m –32
(d) 6.626 × 10–34 m
λ = 2π× 2 × 52.9 [Qn = 2, z = 1] Assam CEE-2020
λ = 211.6π pm Ans. (b) : Given that, m = 100g , v = 100 m/s
214. The mass of a photon with wavelength 3.6Å According to the de-Broglie equation –
shall be h 6.626 ×10−34 kg − m 2 / sec
-34
(a) 61.35×10 kg -29
(b) 6.135×10 kg λ = =
-29 -29
mv 0.1kg × 100 m/sec
(c) 7.185×10 kg (d) 71.85×10 kg
AMU-2006 = 6.626 ×10−35 m

218. The energy ratio of a photon of wavelength Ans. (a) : Given that, λ1 = 2000 Å and λ2 = 8000 Å
3000 Å and 6000 Å is Using the equation of energy–
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 hc
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 4 E=
BCECE-2007 λ
E1 λ 2  1
Ans. (b) : Given that, λ1=3000 Å, λ2=6000 Å = Q E ∝ 
hc hc hc hc E 2 λ1  λ
E1 = = and E 2 = = E 8000
λ1 3000 λ 2 6000 Thus, 1
= =4
E 2 2000
hc
E1 3000 hc 6000 2 ∴ E1= 4E2
= = × = 222. Which of the following equations represent de-
E2 hc 3000 hc 1
Broglie relation?
6000
E1:E2=2:1 h v
(a) =p (b) λm =
219. A photon having a wavelength of 845 Å, causes mv p
the ionisation of N atom. What is the ionisation h h
energy of N? (c) λ = (d) λ =
(a) 1.4 kJ (b) 1.4 × 10 kJ
4 mp mv
(c) 1.4 × 102 kJ (d) 1.4× 103 kJ CG PET -2008
BCECE-2003 WB-JEE-2008
Ans. (d) : The ionisation energy is the amount of J & K CET-(1999)
energy required to take out most loosely bonded AIIMS-1994
electron from isolated gaseous atom. Ans. (d) : De-Broglie proposed that an electron like
∴ Ionisation energy of nitrogen light behaves both as a material particle and as a wave.
= energy of photon This proposal gave birth to a new theory known as wave
c mechanical theory of matter. De-Broglie equation is
= Nh given as–
λ
Where N = 6.02 × 10 23 h
λ=
c = 3 × 108 mv
0 h
λ = 854 A = 854 × 10−10 M λ=
p
6.02 ×1023 × 6.6 × 10−34 × 3 ×108 Where, λ = Wavelength of light
=
854 × 10−10 h = Planck's constant
= 1.4 × 106 J mol-1 = 1.4 × 103 kJ mol-1 m = Mass of particle
220. The increasing order of wavelength for He+ ion, v = Velocity of particle
neutron (n) and electron (e) particles, moving 223. If radius of first Bohr's orbit of hydrogen atom
with the same velocity is– is 'X', then the de- Broglie wavelength of
(a) λ He+ < λ e < λ n (b) λ He+ = λ n = λ e electron in 3rd orbit is nearly
(a) 2πx (b) 6πx
(c) λ He+ < λ n < λ e (d) λ e < λ n < λ He+
x
BCECE-2016 (c) 9x (d)
3
h CG PET- 2016
Ans. (c) : λ =
m.v Ans. (b) : For a particular element, radius of an orbit–
(As per de–Broglie relation) rn ∝ n 2
1
∴ λ∝ (h and ν are constant) Where, n is the principal quantum number–
m r1 1
Also; Q m He+ > mn > me ∴ =
r2 32
∴ λHe+ < λn < λe If, r1 = X then r3= 9X
For third shell,
221. The relationship between energy (E) of 2πr3 = 3λ
wavelengths 2000 Å and 8000 Å, respectively 2π.9X
λ= ⇒ 6πX
is– 3
(a) E1 = 4E 2 (b) E1 = 2E 2 224. A particle 'A' moving with a certain velocity
E2 E2 has the de- Broglie wavelength 1 Å. For a
(c) E1 = (d) E1 = particle 'B' with mass 25%of 'A' and velocity
2 4 75% of 'A'. The de- Broglie wave length of 'B'
BCECE-2016 will be
(a) 3 Å (b) 5.33 Å 226. What is the work function of the metal, if the
(c) 6.88 Å (d) 0.68 Å light of wavelength 4000Å generates
CG PET- 2013 photoelectron of velocity 6×105 ms–1 from it?
(Mass of electron = 9×10–31 kg Velocity of light
Ans. (b) : Given, = 3×108 ms–1 Planck's constant = 6.626×10–34 Js
For, particle 'A'– Charge of electron = 1.6×10–19 JeV–1
λA = 1 Å (a) 4.0 eV (b) 2.1 eV
Let, the mass of particle A(mA) = x (c) 0.9 eV (d) 3.1 eV
Velocity of particle A(VA) = y [JEE Main 2019, 12 Jan Shift-I]
For, particle 'B'– °
x × 25 x Ans. (b) : Given that, λ= 4000 A
Mass of particle (B) = = v = 6 × 10 ms 5 –1
100 4 From the Einstein's photoelectric equation–
y × 75 3y
Velocity of particle (B) = = hv = wo+
1
mv2
100 4 2
de-Broglie equation for the particle 'A', we get–
1
h wo= hv – mv2
λA = 2
m A VA
6.626×10-34 ×3×108 1
h = − × 9 × 10−31 × (6 × 105 ) 2
1× 10−10 = .....(i) 4000 × 10−10–19 2
x×y = (4.9695–1.62)10
de-Broglie equation for the particle 'B', we get– = 3.3495×10–19 J
h 3.3495 ×10−19
λB = wo = eV = 2.0934 = 2.1eV
m B VB 1.6 ×10−19
h 227. If p is the momentum of the fastest electron
λB = ejected from a metal surface after the
 x  3y  irradiation of light having wave length λ then
  
 4  4  for 1.5 p momentum of the photoelectron, the
16 h wavelength of the light should be (Assume
or λB = .....(ii) kinetic energy of ejected photoelectron to be
3 xy very high in comparison to work function)
From equation (i) and (ii), we get– 4 3
16 (a) λ (b) λ
−10
λ B = × 1× 10 9 4
3 2 1
λB = 5.33 × 10–10 (c) λ (d) λ
3 2
or λB = 5.33 Å [JEE Main 2019, 8 April Shift-II]
225. The wavelength of associated wave of a Ans. (a) : hν –φ= KE
particle moving with a speed of one-tenth that
of light is 7Å. The particle must be  hc 
  = KE + φ
(a) Electron (b) Proton  λ incident
(c) Nanoparticle (d) Photo 1 m 1 P2
CG PET -2017 K.E= mv 2
× =
2 m 2m
°
Ans. (a) : Given that, λ = 7 A = 7 × 10−10 m P2 hc hc
KE = = = ………..(i)
th 2m λincident λ
Particle moves with a speed of   of speed of light–
1
 10  P 2 × (1.5) 2 hc
= ………..(ii)
1 2m λ'
∴ Velocity of particle = × 3 ×108 = 3 × 107 ms −1 On dividing equation (ii) by (i), we get
10 4λ
From de-Broglie equation we get– λ'=
h 9
Q λ= 228. The work function of sodium metal is 4.41×10–
mv 19
J. If photons of wavelength 300 nm are
h 6.6 × 10−34 Js incident on the metal, the kinetic energy of the
m= = ejected electrons will be
λv 7 ×10−10 × 3 × 107
(h = 6.63×10–34 J s; c = 3×108 m/s)...........×10–21J.
m = 0.3142 × 10 −31 kg [JEE Main 2020, 2 Sep Shift-II]
m = 0.31× 10−31 ≈ 10 −31 kg Ans. (2.23×10-19J) : Given that:–
–19
Which is in accordance with mass of electron Thus φ work function of sodium = 4.41×10 J
among the given particles, electron is the correct choice. Wavelength (λ) = 300 nm

We have to find kinetic energy, Ek=? Ans. (9) : λ = 248 ×10−9 m; w 0 = 3 × 1.6 × 10−9 J
hc
We know the equation, = Ek + φ hc
λ = w 0 + K.E
λ
hc
Ek= −φ 6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
λ K.E = − 3 × 1.6 ×10−19
246 × 10−9
6.64 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 K.E = 3.2 × 10–19J
= − 4.41× 10−19 J
300 × 10−9
p = 2m K.E
= 6.64 × 10 −34+8+9−2 − 4.41 × 10 −19 J
E k = 2.23 ×10 −19 J = 2 × 9.1×10−31 × 3.2 × 10−19
229. A source of monochromatic radiation of = 7.63 × 10–25
wavelength 400 nm provides 1000J of energy in h 6.63 × 10−34
10 seconds. When this radiation falls on the λ= =
surface of sodium, x×1020 electrons are ejected p 7.63 × 10−25
per second. Assume that wavelength 400 nm is λ = 8.7 × 10–10
sufficient for ejection of electron from the λ = 8.7Å Q1Å = 10 −10 m
surface of sodium metal. The value of x is..........
(Nearest integer) λ≈9
(h = 6.626×10-34 Js) 232. A 50 watt bulb emits monochromatic red light
[JEE Main 2021, 25 July Shift-I] of wavelength of 795 nm. The number of
Ans. (2) : According to the question, work function of photons emitted per second by the bulb is x ×
metal is equal to energy of photon 1020. The value of x is .............
λphoton = 400nm [Given, h = 6.63×10–34 Js and c = 3.0×108 ms–1
hc 6.626 ×10−34 × 3 × 108 [JEE Main 2021, 1 Sep Shift-II]
E photon = = Ans. (2) : Total energy per sec = 50 J
λ 400 × 10−9
= 4.95 × 10–19J nhc
E=
In 10 second, the amount of energy provided is 1000J. λ
In 1 second, the amount of energy provided is 100J.
n × 6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
Number of photons emitted per second 50 =
Total energy 795 × 10−9
= n = 1998.49 × 1017 [n = no. of photons per second]
Energy of one photon
⇒ 1.998×1020
100
Number of photons = ⇒ 2×1020
4.95 × 10−19 ⇒ x×1020
= 2.02 × 1020 photons
So, 2.02 × 1020 photons eject 2.02 × 1020 electrons from x=2
the sodium metal. 233. The number of photons emitted by a
230. The wavelength of electrons accelerated from monochromatic (single frequency) infrared
rest through a potential difference of 40 kV is range finder of power 1 mW and wavelength of
x×10–12m. The value of x is ............(Nearest 1000 nm, in 0.1 second is x × 1013. The value of
integer) Given : Mass of electron = 9.1×10–31 kg x is ............(Nearest integer)
Charge on an electron = 1.6×10–19C, Plank's (h = 6.63×10–34 Js, c = 3.00×108 ms–1)
constant = 6.63×10–34 Js [JEE Main 2021, 27 Aug Shift-II]
[JEE Main 2021, 20 July Shift-II] Ans. (50) : Given data, P = 1mW
h h 10–3 J → 1 sec.
Ans. (6) : λ = =
p 2meV 10–4 → 0.1 sec.
6.6 × 10−34 nhc
= m ∴E =
λ
2 × 9.1× 10−31 ×1.6 × 10−19 × 40 × 103
= 0.614 × 10-11m n × 6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
10−4 =
= 6.14 × 10-12m 1000 × 10−9
13
So, n=50.2×10
x=6 ∴ x = 50
231. When light of wavelength 248 nm falls on a 234. A metal surface is exposed to 500 nm radiation.
metal of threshold energy 3.0 eV, the de– The threshold frequency of the metal for
Broglie wavelength of emitted electrons photoelectric current is 4.3×1014 Hz. The
is.........Å. [Round off to the nearest integer] velocity of ejected electron is ..........×105 ms–1
[Use : 3 =1.73, h = 6.63×10–34 Js, me = 9.1×10– (Nearest integer) (Use h = 6.63×10–34 Js, me =
31
kg, c = 3.0×108 ms–1, 1eV = 1.6×10–19J] 9.0×10–31 kg]
[JEE Main 2021, 16 March Shift-I] [JEE Main 2021, 26 Aug Shift-II]
Ans. (5) : Given data, 1 RH
v = RH × −
n 2 82
1 R
v = RH × 2 − H
n 64
Compounding it with y = mx+c
m=RH
Let v be speed of electron having max. K.E. Linear with slope RH.
We know that, E = φ + K.Emax 237. The de Broglie wavelength of particle is
hc 1 (a) Proportional to its mass
= hvo + mv 2 (b) Proportional to its velocity
λ 2
(c) Inversely proportional to its momentum
6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 −34 1 (d) Proportional to its total energy
= 6.63 × 10 × 4.3 × 10 + mv
14 2
500 × 10−9 2 J & K CET-(2012)

6.63 × 30 × 10−20 1 Ans. (c) : De-Broglie wavelength (λ) is given by–
= 6.63 × 4.3 ×10−20 + mv 2
5 2 h h k
λ= = =
−20 1 −31 mv p p
11.271× 10 J = × 9 ×10 × v 2
2 1
v = 5 × 105 m / sec. ∴ λ∝
p
235. A gas absorbs photon of 355 nm and emits at 238. Calculate the wavelength associated with an
two wavelengths. If one of the emission is at 680 electron moving with a velocity of 106 m/s.
nm, the other is at (mass of e- =9.1 × 10-31 kg, h = 6.6 × 10-34 kg
(a) 1035 nm (b) 325 nm m2s–1)
(c) 743 nm (d) 518 nm (a) 6.2 × 10–8m (b) 7.25 × 10–8m
[AIEEE-2011] 0
Ans. (c) : We know that – (c) 6.25 Α (d) none of these
λ = 355 mm J & K CET-(2013)
λ1 = 680 nm Ans. (d) : From de– Broglie equation –
hc h
E = hv = λ=
λ mv
hc hc hc 6.6 × 10−34
E = E1 + E 2 or = + =
λ λ1 λ 2 9.1× 10−31 ×106
1 1 1 1 1 1 = 7.325 ×10–10 m.
= + ⇒ = +
λ λ1 λ 2 355 680 λ 2 239. The de Broglie wavelength of a ball of mass 10
1 1 1 g moving with a velocity of 10 ms–1 is
= − [h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js]
λ 2 355 680 –33
(a) 6.626 × 10 m (b) 6.626 × 10–29m
355 × 680 (c) 6.626 × 10 m–31
(d) 6.626 × 10–36m
= 742.769 nm ≈ 743nm.
680 − 355 J & K CET-(2011)
236. For emission line of atomic hydrogen from ni = Ans. (a) : We know that –
8 to nf = n, the plot of wave number (ν) against h
 1  λ=
 2  will be (The Rydberge constant, RH is in mv
n  10
wave number unit) h= 6.626×10–34Js, m = =0.01 kg,
1000
(a) non linear v=10ms–1
(b) linear with slope –RH Putting the values,
(c) linear with slope RH
6.626 ×10−34
(d) linear with intercept – RH λ= = 6.626 ×10−33 m
[JEE Main 2019, 9 Jan Shift-I] 0.01× 10
240. Two oxides of a metal contain 36.4% and
1  1 1
Ans. (c) : = v = R H z 2  2 − 2  53.4% of oxygen by mass respectively. If the
λ  nf 8  formula of the first oxide is M2O then that of
Let nf = n and z = 1 for H, the second is
(a) M2O3 (b) MO
 1 1
v = RH × 2 − 2  (c) MO2 (d) M2O5
n 8  J & K CET-(2011)
Ans. (b) : Consider atomic mass of metal = x (a) A positron (b) A photon
We know that, (c) An α-particle (d) A neutron
16 JCECE - 2014
% of oxygen in M2O = × 100 = 36.4
2x + 16 Ans. (c) : The de-Broglie equation is λ =
h
=
h
.
1600 p mv
⇒ = 36.4
2x + 16 1
Here, h and v are constant. So, λ ∝ . Since, the α-
⇒ 1600 = 72.8x + 582.4 m
x = 13.978 particle has the highest mass among the given entities, it
Second oxide oxygen % = 53.4% has the smallest de-Broglie wavelength.
Second oxide metal % = 46.6% 244. A 600 W mercury lamp emits monochromatic
Atomic Ratio M : O radiation of wavelength 331.3 nm. How many
46.6 53.4 photons are emitted form the lamp per
: second?(h=6.626×10-34J-s; velocity of light
13.978 16
=3×108 ms-1)
3⋅3 : 3⋅3
(a) 1×1019 (b) 1×1020
1 : 1 21
Hence, the formula of metal oxide = MO. (c) 1×10 (d) 1×1023
JIPMER-2011
241. If the de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of
mass m is 100 times its velocity, then its value Ans. (c): We know that–
in terms of its mass (m) and planck’s constant nhc
E=
(h) is λ
1 m h Eλ
(a) (b) 10 n=
10 h m hc
1 h m 600 × 331 ⋅ 3 ×10−9
(c) (d) 10 n=
10 m h 6.626 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
J & K CET-(2009) So, n = 1 × 1021 photons/second
Ans. (b) : Let wavelength of particle be x 245. What is the wavelength (in m) of a particle of
mass 6.62 × 10–29 g moving with a velocity of
x 103 ms–1?
Velocity, v =
100 (a) 6.62 × 10–4 (b) 6.62 × 10–3
We know that – (c) 10 –5
(d) 105
h JIPMER-2009
λ=
mv Ans. (c) : According to de–Broglie equation
h × 100 h
x= λ=
m×x mv
h 6.62 × 10−34
x = 100
2
λ=
m 6.62 × 10−29 × 10−3 × 103
h λ = 10–5 m.
⇒ x = 100
m 246. Dual nature of particle was given by
(a) Bohr theory
h
x = 10 (b) Thomson model
m (c) Heisenberg principle
242. The de-Broglie wavelength of helium atom at (d) de-Broglie equation
room temperature is J&K CET (2010)
(a) 6.6 × 10–34 m (b) 4.39 × 10–10 m JIPMER-2005
–11
(c) 7.34 × 10 m (d) 2.335 × 10–20 m Ans. (d): Dual nature of particle was given by de–
JCECE - 2013 Broglie in 1923.
3RT 3 × 8.314 × 298 De-Broglie equation relate the particle character with
Ans. (c) : Vrms = = = 1363ms−1 the wave character of matter.
M 4 × 10−3
247. Number of photons emitted by a 100 W (Js–1)
h 6.626 ×10−34 × 6.023 × 1023
λ= = yellow lamp in 1.0 s. Take the wavelength of
mv 4 × 10−3 × 1363 yellow light as 560 nm, and assume 100 percent
–11
= 7.32 × 10 m efficiency.
243. Which particle among the following will have (a) 1.6 × 1018 (b) 1.4 × 1018
20
the smallest de-Broglie wavelength, assuming (c) 2.8 × 10 (d) 2.1 × 1020
that they have the same velocity? JIPMER-2018
Ans. (c): As per the Plank's quantum theory, From equation (i) and (ii), we get
hc λA 1
E= Nhν = N = ⇒ λ B = 33.33 × 10−9 × 3 = 99.99 × 10−9 m
λ λB 3
Eλ = 1.0×10–7 m.
N= …………(i) 250. A body of mass x kg is moving with a velocity
hc
E= 100 w (Js–1)×1s= 100 J of 100 ms–1. Its de-Broglie wavelength is 6.62 ×
10–35 m. Hence, x is (h = 6.62 × 10–34 Js)
Putting the value in equation (i), we get (a) 0.1 kg (b) 0.25 kg
100J × 560 × 10−9 m (c) 0.15 kg (d) 0.2 kg
N=
6.626 × 10−34 Js × 3 ×108 ms −1 Karnataka-CET, 2009
= 2.82×1020. Ans. (a): Given,
h = 6.62×10–34 Js
248. With regard to photoelectric effect, identify the v = 100 ms–1
correct statement among the following. λ = 6.62×10–35
(a) Energy of electron ejected increases with the According to de-Broglie equation-
increase in the intensity on incident light.
h
(b) Number of electron ejected increases with the λ=
increase in the frequency of incident light. mv
(c) Number of electron ejected increases with the 6.62 ×10−34
increase in work function x=
6.62 × 10−35 × 100
(d) Number of electron ejected increases with the 10−34 1
increase in the intensity of incident light. x = −34 −1
=
Karnataka-CET-2020 10 × 10 ×10 10 2
= 0.1 kg
Ans. (d) : The number of electron ejected increases 251. A body of mass 10 mg is moving with a velocity
with the increase in the intensity of incident light, an of 100 ms–1. The wavelength of de-Broglie wave
increase in the intensity of incident light means that the associated with it would be (h = 6.6. × 10–34 Js)
number of photons incident per unit surface area of the (a) 6.63 × 10–35 m (b) 6.63 × 10–34 m
metal increase. (Provided the incident photons has its (c) 6.63 × 10 m –31
(d) 6.63 × 10–37 m
frequency more than threshold frequency). Karnataka-CET-2007
The equation for the photoelectric effect is Ans. (c) : Given that,
hv = hv0 + KE m = 10 mg = 10 × 10–6 kg
Where, v = frequency of the incident radiation v = 100 ms–1
hv0 = work function From de-Broglie equation,
It is clear that the number of electron elected does not h
depend of work function. λ=
mv
249. Two particle A and B are in motion. If the h 6.63 ×10−34
wavelength associated with 'A' is 33.33 nm, the λ= =
wavelength associated with 'B' whose mv 10 × 10–6 ×100
1 6.63 ×10−34
momentum is rd of 'A' is =
3 10−3
(a) 1.0 × 10–8 m (b) 2.5 × 10–8 m m = 6.63 × 10–31 m
–7
(c) 1.25 × 10 m (d) 1.0 × 10–7 m 252. The number of photons emitted per second by
a 60 W source of monochromatic light of
Karnataka-CET-2019 wavelength 663 nm is (h = 6.63 × 10-34 Js)
Ans. (d) : Given that, (a) 4× 10–20 (b) 1.5× 1020
–20
λA=33.3 nm or 33.33×10–9 m (c) 3× 10 (d) 2× 1020
–20
1 (e) 1× 10
PB = PA Kerala-CEE-2009
3
According to de-Broglie– Ans. (d) : Given that,
h = 6.63 × 10–34 J sec.
h
λ= λ = 663 nm = 663 × 10–9 m
p c = 3 × 108 m/sec
h n=?
λA= ……… (i)
PA E = 60 W = 60 J sec–1
Q We know that,
h 3h
λB = = ……… (ii) nhc
PA PA E=
λ
3
∴ n=
E×λ ∴ n×3×10–19= 200 (where n= no. of photons)
hc 200
n= = 6.66 ×1020
60 × 663 × 10 −9 3 ×10−19
=
6.63 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 256. The de Broglie wavelength of the matter wave
6 × 663 × 10 −8 associated with an object dropped from a
= height x, when it reaches the ground is
3 × 663 × 10 −28
proportional to
= 2 × 10–8 + 28
= 2 × 1020 1
(a) x 2 (b)
253. The relationship between the energy E1 of the x
o (c) x (d) x 3 / 2
radiation with a wavelength 8000 A and the
energy E2 of the radiation with a wavelength (e) x
o Kerala-CEE-2020
16000 A is: Ans. (b) : According to de-Broglie wavelength–
(a) E1 = 6E2 (b) E1 = 2E2 h
1 λ=
(c) E1 = 4E2 (d) E1 = E2 mv
2 Since, an object dropped from a height x then,
(e) E1 = E2 v2 = u2 – 2gx
Kerala-CEE-2005
v = 2gx
h
1 So, λ=
E∝ m 2gx
λ
E1 λ 2 16000 1
= = ⇒ E1 = 2E 2 or λ∝
E 2 λ1 8000 x
254. The work function of a metal is 5 eV. What is 257. Calculate the energy of photons having
the kinetic energy of the photoelectron ejected wavelength, 5 × 10–7 m falls on a metal surface
from the metal surface if the energy of the of work function, 3.4 × 10–19 J :
-19
incident radiation is 6.2 eV? (1 eV = 1.6 × 10 ) (a) 3.97 × 10–19 J (b) 3.55 × 10–19 J
-19 -19
(a) 6.626 × 10 J (b) 8.10 × 10 J (c) 2.97 × 10 J –19
(d) 2.57 × 10–19 J
-18 -18
(c) 1.92 × 10 J (d) 8.01 × 10 J Manipal-2016
(e) 1.92 × 10-19 J hc
Kerala-CEE-2014 Ans. (a) : Energy of photons, E= hv =
λ
Ans. (e): Given that, Given that-
Work function (hv0) = 5eV
h = 6.626 × 10−34 Js
Energy of incident radition (hv) = 6.2 eV
The kinetic energy of photoelectron: c = 3 ×108 m / s
K.E = hν − hν 0 λ = 5 ×10−7 m
= 6.2–5
(6.626 × 10−34 Js) × (3 ×108 ms −1 )
= 1.2 eV So, E=
= 12×1.6×10–19 J= 1.92×10–19 J 5 × 10−7
–19
= 3.975 ×10 J
255. A 250 W electric bulb of 80% efficiency emits a
o 258. Which one is the wrong statement?
light of 6626 A wavelength. The number of h
photons emitted per second by the lamp is (h = (a) The uncertainty principle is ∆E × ∆t ≥
6.636 × 10-34 Js) 2π
17 16 (b) Half filled and fully filled orbital have greater
(a) 1.42 × 10 (b) 2.18 × 10
stability due to greater exchange energy,
(c) 6.66 × 1020 (d) 2.83 × 1016 greater symmetry and more balanced
16
(e) 4.25 × 10 arrangement.
Kerala-CEE-2014 (c) The energy of 2s-orbital is less than the
hc energy of 2p-orbital in case of hydrogen like
Ans. (c) : Energy of one photon = atoms.
λ
h
6.626 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 (d) de-Broglie's wavelength is given by λ = ,
−10
= 3 ×10−19 J mv
6626 × 10 where m = mass of the particle, v = group
250 × 80 velocity of the particle
Energy emitted by bulb= = 200J
100 NEET-2017

Ans. (c): (a) According to heisenberg uncertainity On applying ∆E = hv
principle, the uncertainties of position (∆x) and –2.04 × 10–18 = 6.626 × 10–34 × v
momentum (p=m∆v) are related as −2.04 × 10−18
h h v=
∆ x ⋅ ∆p ≥ or ∆x ⋅ m∆v ≥ 6.626 ×10−34
4π 4π v = 3.08 × 1015 s–1
h  ∆v   Z2 
∆x ⋅ m ⋅ ∆a ⋅ ∆t ≥  ∆t = ∆a,a = acceleration 
hπ 261. Based on equation E = -2178 × 10–15 J  2 
h n 
Or, ∆x ⋅ F ⋅ ∆t ≥ [Q F = m ⋅ ∆a ] certain conclusions are written. What of them
hπ is not correct?
h (a) Equation can be used to calculate the change
∆E.∆t ≥ [∵∆E = F.∆x, E = energy] in energy when the electron changes orbit.
hπ
Thus, statement (a) is correct. (b) For n=1, the electron has a more negative
(b) The half filled and fully filled orbitals have greater energy than it does for n = 6 which means
stability due to greater exchange energy, greater that the electron is more loosely bound in the
symmetry and more balanced arrangement. smallest allowed orbit.
Thus, statement (b) is correct. (c) The negative sign in equation simply means
(c) For a single electronic species like H, energy that the energy of electron bound to the
depends on value of x and does not depend on l. Hence nucleus is lower than it would be if the
energy of 2s–orbital and 2p–orbital is equal in case of electrons were at the infinite distance from
hydrogen like species. the nucleus.
Therefore, statement (c) is incorrect. (d) Larger the value of n, the larger is the orbit
(d) According to de-Broglie equation, radius.
h NEET-2013
Wavelength (λ) = Ans. (b): For n=1 the electron has more negative
mv energy than it does for n=6 which means that the
Where, h= Planck’s constant electron is less loosely bound in the smallest allowed
Thus, statement (d) is correct. orbit.
259. A 0.66 kg ball is moving with a speed of 100 We know that,
m/s. The associated wavelength will be
 Z2 
(h = 6.6 ×10–34) Js) E = −R H  2 
(a) 6.6 × 10–32 m (b) 6.6 × 10–34 m n 
(c) 1.0 × 10 m –35
(d) 1.0 × 10–32 m If n = 1
NEET-Main 2010  Z2 
E = −R H   = −2.178 × 10−18 J
Ans. (c): According to de-broglie equation-  1 
h If n = 6
λ=
mv  Z2  −2.178
E = −R H  2  = × 10−18 J
6.6 × 10−34 6  36
= = 1× 10−35 m
0.66 × 100 = −6.05 × 10 −20 J
260. The frequency of radiation emitted when the E n =1 > E n =6
electron falls from n = 4 to n = 1 in a hydrogen
atom will be (Given ionization energy of H = 262. Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to
2.18 ×10–18 J atom–1 and h = 6.626 × 10–34J s) light of wavelenth 45 nm.
(a) 1.54 × 1015 s–1 (b) 1.03 × 1015 s–1 Planck'e constant, h = 6.63m × 10–34 J s, speed
(c) 3.08 × 10 s 15 –1
(d) 2.00 × 1015 s–1 of light, c = 3 × 108 m s–1)
NEET-2004 (a) 6.67 × 1015 (b) 6.67 × 1011
Ans. (c): Hydrogen like atom– (c) 4.42 × 10 –15
(d) 4.42 × 10–18
NEET-2014
E −2.18 × 10−18
E n = − 21 = J / atom Ans. (d) : Using planck’s quantum theory –
n n2
hc 6.63 ×10−34 × 3 × 108
−2.18 ×10−18 E= =
E1 = J / atom λ 45 × 10−9
(1)2 = 4.42×10 J–18
2.18 ×10−18 263. The value of Planck's contant is 6.63 × 10–34 Js.
E4 = − J / atom Speed of light is 3 × 1017 nm s–1. Which a value
( 4 )2
On applying ∆E = E1 – E4 is closed to the wavelength in nanomter of a
quantum of light with frequency of 6×1015 s–1?
 −2.18 × 10−18  (a) 50 (b) 75
= −2.18 ×10−18 −  
 16  (c) 10 (d) 25
–18
= –2.04 × 10 J/atom NEET-2013
Ans. (a) : We know that – We know that,
c = νλ c
λ=
c υ
λ=
ν 3 × 108
λ= = 0.375 × 10−7 m
3 × 1017 8 × 1015
λ= = 50nm = 0.375×10–7×109 nm
6 ×1015
264. According to law of photochemical equivalence = 0.375×102 nm
the energy absorbed (in ergs/mole) is given as = 37.5 nm
(h = 6.62 × 10–27 ergs, c = 3 × 1010 cm s–1, ≈ 4×101 nm
NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1) 267. For given energy, E = 3.03 × 10–19 Joules
corresponding wavelength is
1.196 ×108 2.859 ×105
(a) (b) (h = 6.626 ×10–34) J sec, c = 3 × 108 m/sec
λ λ (a) 65.6 nm (b) 6.36 nm
2.859 ×1016 1.196 × 1016 (c) 3.4 nm (d) 656 nm
(c) (d) NEET-2000
λ λ
Karnataka NEET-2013 Ans. (d) : We know that –
Ans. (a) : Given data, hc
E=
h = 6.62 × 10–27 ergs λ
c = 3 × 1010 cm s–1 Given that –
NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1 E = 3.03 × 10–19J
hcN A h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js
E= c = 3 × 108 m/s
λ
6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
6.62 × 10−27 × 3 × 1010 × 6.02 ×1023 λ=
= 3.03 × 10−19
λ
= 6.56 ×10 m = 656 ×10 −9 m = 656 nm
−7
1.196 ×10 8
= ergs mol−1. 268. A particular station of All India Radio, New
λ Delhi, broadcasts ona frequency of 1,368 kHz
265. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 (kilohertz). The wavelength of the electro-
eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation magnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter
between their wavelengths i.e. λ1 and λ2 will be is [speed of light, c = 3.0 × 108 m s–1]
(a) λ1 = λ2 (b) λ1 = 2λ2 (a) 21.92 cm (b) 219.3 m
1 (c) 219.2 m (d) 2192 m
(c) λ1 = 4λ2 (d) λ1 = λ2 NEET-2021
2
NEET-2011 Ans. (b) : We know that –
Ans. (b) : Given, E1= 25ev and E2= 50 ev c
Wave length (λ) =
hc hc v
E1 = , E 2 =
λ1 λ2 3 × 108
λ= = 219.298m = 219.3m
By dividing E1 and E2 1368 ×103
25 λ 2 269. What will be the wavelength of a photon having
⇒ = energy 1eV (1eV=1.601×10–19J)?
50 λ1
(a) 1.241×10–7m (b) 12.41×10–9m
λ 1 –7
(d) 1.241×10–9m
⇒ 2 = (c) 12.41×10 m
λ1 2 Tripura JEE-2019
⇒ λ1=2λ2 Ans. (c): According to formula
266. The value of Planck's constant is 6.63 ×10–34 Js. hc
E=
The velocity of light is 3.0 ×108 ms–1. Which λ
value is closest to the wavelength in nanometers
hc 6.626 ×10−34 × 3 × 108
of a quantum of light with frequency of λ= =
8×1015s–1? E 1.6 × 10−19
(a) 2 × 10–25 (b) 5 × 10–18 λ = 12.41×10 m.–7
(c) 4 × 10 1
(d) 3 × 107 270. What is the wavelength (in m) of a particle of
mass 6.62 × 10–29 g moving with a velocity of
NEET-2003 103ms–1?
Ans. (c) : Given that – (a) 6.62 × 10–4 (b) 6.62 × 10–3
c = 3 × 108 m/s (c) 10–5 (d) 105
λ = 8 × 1015 s–1 UP CPMT-2008
Ans. (c): According to de-Broglie equation Ans. (c) : According to de–Broglie wavelength,
h h
λ= λ=
mν mv
Given that – Where, h = Planck's constant
m = 6.62 × 10–29g m = Mass of particle
v = 103 m/s v = Velocity
h = 6.62 × 10–34Js Given, m= 100 g, v= 100 cm s–1
putting these value in the equation. h=6.6×10–34 Js= 6.6 × 10–27 ergs
6.62 ×10−34 −5 6.6 × 10−27
λ= = 10 m λ =
6.62 × 10−29 × 103 × 10−3 100 × 100
271. If the energy difference between the ground λ= 6.6×10 –31
cm
state and its excited state of an atom is 275. Which one of the following corresponds to a
4.4 ×10-14 J. The wavelength of photon required photon of highest energy?
to produce the transition: (a) λ = 300 mm (b) ν = 3 × 108 s −1
(c) −
–12 –12
(a) 2.26 × 10 m (b) 1.13 × 10 m ν = 30 cm −1 (d) ε = 6.626 × 10 −27 J
(c) 4.52 × 10–16 m (d) 4.52 × 10–12 m WB-JEE-2017
UPTU/UPSEE-2006
hc  1 
Ans. (d) : We know that – Ans. (a) : ∴ E= hv = = hc.v Q = v 
hc λ  λ 
∆E = hv = Where E= energy of photon
λ
c = velocity of photon (=light)
hc 6.62 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 λ = wavelength of photon
λ= =
∆E 4.4 × 10−14 h= plank’s constant.
For (a)
λ = 4.52×10–12m. E= 6.63×10–34 ×3×108/300×10–9
272. What is the wavelength associated with a tennis E= 1.98×10–25 J/300×10–9
3
ball of mass 10 g and travelling at a velocity of 1.98 ×10−25 J
6.626 ms–1? E=
[h=6.626×10–34Js–1] 300 × 10−9 m
(a) 10–34 m (b) 10–31 m (a) → E = 6.6 × 10–19J
(c) 6.626m (d) 6.626×10–31m For (b)
UPTU/UPSEE-2011 E= hν =6.63×10–34 ×3×108
Ans. (a) : According to de-Broglie equation – (b) → E= 1.98×10–25 J
h  1 
λ= For (c) E = hc.v Q = v 
mv  λ 
–34 8 –2
−34
6.626 × 10 Js E= 6.63×10 ×3×10 ×30×10
−34
λ= = 10 m (c) → E= 5.96×10 –26
1kg × 6.626 ms −1
For (d) → E= 6.62 ×10–27 J
273. Time period of a wave is 5 × 10–3 sec what is the Hence highest energy for photon is in (a).
frequency.
(a) 5×10-3 s-1 (b) 2×102 s-1 4. Uncertainty Principle
(c) 23×103 s-1 (d) 5×102s-1
UPTU/UPSEE-2008 276. If the work function of a metal is 6.63 × 10–19 J,
1 the maximum wavelength of the photon
Ans. (b) : Frequency (n) = required to remove a photoelectron from the
time period (T) metal is ––––– nm. (Nearest integer)
Here, T= 5×10–3 s [Given : h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js, and c = 3 × 108 m s–
1
1 ]
n= −3
= 0.2 × 103
5 × 10 JEE Main-28.06.2022, Shift-I
n = 2×102 s–1 Ans. (300) : Given,
274. As per de-Broglie's formula a macroscopic Work function of metal = 6.63 × 10–19 J
particle of mass 100 g and moving at a velocity
–1
Planck’s constant = 6.63 × 10–34Js
of 100 cm s will have a wavelength of c(velocity) = 3 × 108 m/s
(a) 6.6 × 10 cm–29
(b) 6.6 × 10 cm
–30
As we know that–
(c) 6.6 × 10–31 cm (d) 6.6 × 10–32 cm hc
Work function =
WB-JEE-2014 λ
hc So,
Then λ=
work function 6.626 ×10−34
m=
6.63 × 10 –34 × 3 × 108 4 × 3. 14 × 10−7 × 2.4 × 10−26
λ=
6.63 ×10 –19 6.626 ×10−34 ×1033
λ = 3000 nm m=
4 × 3. 14 × 2.4
277. A fast moving particle of mass 6.63 × 10–28 g m = 21.89 × 10–3 g
can be located with an accuracy of 1Å. The
uncertainty in its velocity (in ms–1) is about (h = 279. The uncertainties in the velocities of two
6.63 × 10–34 Js) particles A and B are 0.05 and 0.02 ms–1
(a) 8 × 103 (b) 8 × 104 respectively. The mass of B is five times to that
(c) 8 × 105 (d) 8 × 106  ∆x 
(e) 8 × 10 7 of A. What is the ratio of uncertainties  A 
Kerala CEE -03.07.2022  ∆x B 
their positions in :
Ans. (c) : Given that –
(a) 2 (b) 0.25
Mass of particle (m) = 6.63 × 10–28g
= 6.63 × 10–31 kg (c) 4 (d) 1
Planck's constant (h) = 6.63 × 10−34 Js AP-EAMCET-2006
o
∆x = 1A = 10 m
–10 Ans. (a) : Given, ∆vA = 0.05 ms and mA = m
–1
According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle ∆vB = 0.02 ms–1 mB = 5 m

According to Heisenberg uncertainty principle–
∆x. ∆ p = h
4π h
m∆v.∆x ≥
∆x. m∆v = h 4π
4π Where, h = Planck's constant
h ∆x = Uncertainity in position
∆v =
4 π × m × ∆x ∆v = Uncertainity in velocity
6.63 × 10−34 m = Mass
∆v = For particle A :
4 × 3.14 × 6.63 × 10−31 ×10−10
h
10−34 × 1041 m × 0.05 × ∆ xA = .... (i)
∆v = 4π
12.56
For particle B :
107 h
∆v = 5 m × 0.02 × ∆ xB = .... (ii)
12.56 4π
100 × 105 Dividing equation (i) and (ii) we get :
∆v =
12.56 m × 0.05 × ∆x A
=1
∆v = 8 × 105 5m × 0.02 × ∆x B
278. If the uncertainty in velocity and position of a ∆x A 0.02 × 5
minute particle in space are, 2.4 × 10–26 (m s–1) =
–7
and 10 (m) respectively. The mass of the ∆x B 0.05
particle in g is _____. (Nearest integer) ∆x A
(given : h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js) =2
JEE Main-27.06.2022, Shift-I ∆ x B
Ans. (29.89×10–3) : 280. If the uncertainty in velocity of a moving object

We know the uncertainty principle– is 1.0×10–6 ms–1 and the uncertainty in its
h position is 58 m, The mass of this object is
∆x. ∆p = approximately equal to that of
4π
(h = 6.626×10–34 Js)
h
∆x. m∆v ≥ Q ∆p = m∆v (a) helium (b) deuterium
4π (c) lithium (d) electron
h
m= AP EAMCET (Medical) - 2013
4π . ∆x. ∆v Ans. (d) : Given-
Given that –
Uncertainty in velocity ( ∆v ) = 1.0×10–6 ms–1
∆v = 2.4 × 10–26
∆x = 10–7 Uncertainty in position (∆x) = 58 m
n = 6.626 × 10–34 Mass (m) = ?

Now, from the Heisenberg principle- From equation of Heisenberg uncertainity principle –
h h
∆x.∆p ≥ ∆x.∆v ≥
4π 4πm
where - ∆x = uncertainty in position Where, h = Planck's constant
∆p = uncertainty in momentum ∆x = Uncertainity in position
∆v = Uncertainity in velocity
h
∴ ∆x.∆v = From equation (1) we get
4πm h
6.6 × 10−34 m∆v2 ≥
or m= 4πm
4 × 3.14 × 58 × 1.0 × 10−6 h
∆v ≥2
6.6 4πm 2
or m= × 10−34+ 6
728.48 h
or m = 9.05×10–28–3 ∆v ≥
4πm 2
or m = 9.05×10–31
Thus, the mass of moving object is approximately equal 1 h
∆v ≥
to that of electron. 2m π
281. If a cricket ball of weight 0.1 kg has an 283. Find the uncertainlity in the position of an
uncertainty of 0.15 ms-1 in its velocity then the electron which is moving with a velocity of 2.99
uncertainty in the position of the cricket balls is × 104 cm.s–1. accurate up to 0.0016%. (Given,
________ me = 9.1 × 10–28 g. h = 6.626 × 10–27 erg.s)
(a) 3.5×10–33 m (b) 35×10–33m (a) 1.211 mm (b) 2.99 × 10–10 mm
–34
(c) 1.7×10 m (d) 1.7×10–33 m (c) 0.121 mm (d) 12.11 mm
AP EAPCET-6 Sep. 2021, Shift-II AP EAPCET 24.08.2021, Shift-I
Ans. (a) : According to Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Ans. (d) : Given –
principle– ∆v = 2.99 × 104 cm s–1, me = 9.1 × 10–28 gm,
⇒ ∆p.∆x ≥
h h = 6.626 × 10–27 g cm2 s–2
4π Hence,
Where, h = Planck’s constant (6.67×10–34 J-s) 0.0016
Q ∆p = m∆v ∆v = 2.99 × 104 cm s–1 ×
100
h ∆v =0.478 cm s–1
⇒ m∆v∆x ≥ From equation of Heisenberg uncertainity principle –
4π
Given, m = 0.1kg, ∆x=0.15m/sec h
∆x.∆v ≥
h 4πm
∆x= Where, h = Planck's constant
4πm∆v ∆x = Uncertainity in position
6.67 × 10−34 ∆v = Uncertainity in velocity
=
4 × 3.14 × 0.1× 0.15 m = Mass
6.67 π = 3.14
× 10−34
=
0.1884
or ∆x =
( )
6.626 × 10 –27 g cm 2 s –2 ⋅ s
⇒ 35.40 × 10 −34 4 × 3.14 × 0.478(cm s ) × 9.1× 10 –28 (gm)
–1
⇒ 3 ⋅ 5 × 10−33 m ∆x = 1.21 cm = 12.1 mm

282. If the uncertainty in momentum and 284. If a proton is accelerated to a velocity of 3 × 107
uncertainty in the position of a particle are m.s–1 which is accurate up to ± 0.5%, then the
equal. then the uncertaintiy in its velocity uncertainty in its position will be ____ [mass of
would be given by _______. proton = 1.66 × 10–27 kg, h =6.6 × 10–34 J.s]
h 1 h (a) 1.55 × 10–12 m (b) 3.24 × 10–13 m
(a) ∆v ≥ (b) ∆v ≥ (c) 1.58 × 10 m
–13
(d) 2.11 × 10–13 m
2π 2m π
AP EAPCET 24.08.2021, Shift-I
h 1 h Ans. (d): Given –
(c) ∆v ≥ (d) ∆v ≥
π m π ∆v = 3 × 107 m s–1
AP EAPCET 24.08.2021, Shift-I ∆x = ?
CG PET -2019 m = 1.66 × 10–27 kg
Ans. (b) : Given – h = 6.626 × 10–34 J-s
Uncertainity in momentum = Uncertainity in position It is given that velocity have the ± 0.5% So, the velocity
i.e. m∆v = ∆x ... (1) will be –

m = Mass
∆v = 3 × 107 ms–1 × 0.5 π = 3.14
100
∆v = 3 × 5 × 104 ms–1 6.63 × 10–34
10 –2 × 4.5 × ∆x ≥
From the Heisenberg uncertainity principle – 4 × 3.14
h 6.63 ×10 –34
∆x.∆v ≥ ∆x ≥
4πm 4 × 3.14 ×10 –2 × 4.5
h
or ∆x = ∆x ≥ 1.17 × 10 –33
4πm ⋅ ∆v So, x= 1.17 ≈ 1.
∆x =
(
6.6 × 10–34 kgm 2s –1 ) 287. Both the position and exact velocity of an
(
4 × 3.14 × 1.66 × 10 –27 ( kg ) × 1.5 ×105 ms –1 ) electron in an atom cannot be determined
simultaneously and accurately. This is known
−12
6.6 × 10 as
= (a) De Broglie principle
31.2744
∆x = 2.11 × 10–13 m (b) Hamiltonian law
(c) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
285. In an atom, an electron is moving with a speed
of 600 m/s with an accuracy of 0.005%. (d) Bohr theory of hydrogen atom
Certainty with which position of the electron TS-EAMCET 09.08.2021, Shift-I
can be located is Ans. (c) : Heisenberg uncertainty principle– It is
(h= 6.6 ×10–34 kg m2 s–1, mass of electron em=9.1 impossible to determine the exact position and the exact
×10–31 kg) momentum of the particle simultaneously.
(a) 1.52× 10–4 m (b) 5.10× 10–3 m According to Heisenberg uncertainty principle–
–3
(c) 1.92× 10 m (d) 3.84× 10–3 m h
COMEDK-2017 ∆x. ∆p ≥
4π
Ans. (c) : Given: velocity of electron, v = 600 ms –1
Thus, lesser the error in the momentum more will be the
Accuracy of velocity= 0.005% error in the position of the particle.
600 × 0.005 288. A microscope using appropriate photons is
∴ ∆v = = 0.03m / s
100 engaged to track an electron in an atom within
According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, distance of 0.001 nm. What will be the
h uncertainty involved in measuring its velocity?
∆x.m∆v ≥ (a) 5.79 × 107 m/s (b) 5.79 × 106 m/s
4π 7
(c) 4.79 × 10 m/s (d) 3.7 × 106 m/s
h
∆x = TS EAMCET 05.08.2021, Shift-I
4πm∆v Ans. (a):
Where, h = Planck's constant
According to heisenberg’s uncertainty principle-
∆x = Uncertainity in position
h
∆v = Uncertainity in velocity ∆v ≥
m = Mass 4π m∆x
6.6 × 10 –34 Where, h = Planck's constant
⇒ ∆x = = 1.92 ×10 –3 m ∆x = Uncertainity in position
4 × 3.14 × 9.1×10 –31 × 0.03
∆v = Uncertainity in velocity
286. A ball weighing 10 g is moving with a velocity m = Mass
of 90 ms–1. If the uncertainty in its velocity is
5%, then the uncertainty in its position is 6.626 ×10−34
______ ×10–33 m. (Rounded off to the nearest ∆v ≥
4 × 3.14 × 9.11× 10−31 × 0.01× 10−10
integer) [Given: h=6.63×10–34 Js] ∆v ≥ 0.0579 × 109 m/s
JEE Main 26.02.2021,Shift-II ∆v ≥ 5.79 × 107 m/s
Ans. (1) : Given that,
289. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is in general
m= 10gm =10×10–3=10–2 kg significant to
v = 90 m/sec. (a) Planets
5 (b) Cricket bal of 500 g
∆v = 90 × = 4.5m / sec
100 (c) Cars
According to Heisenberg’s principle (d) Micro particles having a very high speed
h TS EAMCET 04.08.2021, Shift-I
m. ∆v.∆x ≥
4π Ans. (d) : According to Heisenberg's uncertainty
Where, h = Planck's constant principle we cannot simultaneously determine both the
∆x = Uncertainity in position precise velocity and position of a particle. It is general
∆v = Uncertainity in velocity significant to micro particles having a very high speed.

The mathematical expression of law is given below : 292. The uncertainties in the velocities of two
h particles, A and B are 0.05 and 0.02 ms−1
∆x × ∆y ≥ respectively. The mass of B is five times to that
4π of the mass of A. What is the ratio of
∆x = Change in position of the particle. ∆x A
∆y = Change in momentum of particle. uncertainties in their positions?
h = Planck's constant. ∆x B
290. A proton and a Li3+ nucleus are accelerated by (a) 2 (b) 0.25
the same potential. If λLi and λP denote the de (c) 4 (d) 1
Broglie wavelengths of Li3+ and proton AIIMS-2008
λ Ans. (a): According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty
respectively, then the value of Li is x ×10–1. principle,
λP
h
The value of x is _____(Rounded off to the ∆x × m∆v=
nearest integer) 4π
[Mass of Li3+ = 8.3 mass of proton] Where, h = Planck's constant
JEE Main 24.02.2021, Shift-I ∆x = Uncertainity in position
Ans. (2) : Given – ∆v = Uncertainity in velocity
m = Mass
Potential of proton = e p– V
π = 3.14
Potential of Li3+ = 3e p– V For particle A, ∆x = ∆xA
λ Li M=m, ∆v=0.05
and = x × 10–1 h
λp So, ∆xA × m × 0.05= ………. (i)
According to de-Broglie equation 4π
For particle B, ∆x = ∆xB m = 5m, ∆v = 0.02
h
Now, λ = So, ∆xB × 5m ×0.02 =
h
2M ( K.E ) 4π
………..(ii)
Where, h = Planck's constant ∆x A 5 × 0.02
m = Mass So, =
∆x B 0.05
K.E. = Kinetic energy
=2
λ Li h 2M p ( e p− V ) 293. The product of uncertainty in velocity and
∴ = × uncertainty in position of a micro particle of
λp 2M Li3+ ( 3e p– V ) h mass 'm' is not less than in which of the
following?
M p ( e p− V ) 3π h
∴ x ×10 –1 = (a) h × (b) ×m
M Li3+ (3e –p V) m 3π
h 1 h
 Mp 1  (c) × (d) ×m
 M Li3+ = 8.3M p ⇒ =  4π m 4π
 M Li3+ 8.3  AP-EAMCET – 2016
Ans. (c) : According to uncertainty principle
1
x × 10–1 = ⇒ x=2 h
8.3 × 3 ∆p.∆x ≥ (i)
4π
291. Assertion: It is impossible to determine the Where, ∆p = Uncertainty in momentum
exact position and exact momentum of an
electron simultaneously. ∆x = Uncertainty in position
Reason: The path of an electron in an atom is h = Planck's constant
clearly defined. ∴ ∆p = m ⋅∆v
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Putting the value of ∆p in equation (i) we get -
Assertion h
m ⋅ ∆v ⋅ ∆x ≥
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but 4π
h 1
Assertion. ∆x ⋅ ∆v ≥ ×
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. 4π m
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. 294. The exact path of electron in any orbital cannot
AIIMS-2016 be determined. The above statement is based
Ans. (c): According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty on ______
principle, we cannot determine the exact position and (a) Hund's Rule (b) Bohr's Rule
exact momentum of an electron simultaneously. So (c) Uncertainty Principal (d) Aufbau Principal
assertion is correct but reason is not correct. AP- EAPCET- 07-09-2021, Shift-I
Ans. (c) : According to Heisenberg uncertainty ∆x = Uncertainty in position
principle, the position and the velocity of an object ∆ν = Uncertainty in velocity
cannot both be measured exactly at the same time. m = Mass of particle
Hund’s Rule- Every orbitals in a subshell is singly h = Planck’s constant
occupied with one electron before any one orbital is
doubly occupied, 298. The measurement of the electron position if
Aufbau Principle- Electrons fill lower energy atomic associated with an uncertainty in momentum,
orbitals before filling higher energy ones. which is equal to 1 × 10–18g cm s–1. The
uncertainty in electron velocity is, (mass of an
295. The uncertainty in position and velocity of a electron is 9 × 10–28 g)
particle are 10–10m and 5.27 × 10–24 ms–1
(a) 1 × 109 cm s–1 (b) 1 × 106 cm s–1
respectively. Calculate the mass of the particle 5 –1
is (h = 6.625 × 10–34 Js) – (c) 1 × 10 cm s (d) 1 × 1011 cm s–1
(a) 0.099 kg (b) 0.99 kg BITSAT 2007
(c) 0.92 kg (d) None Ans. (a) : Momentum, ∆p = m∆v
VITEEE 2019 Substituting the given values of ∆x and m, we get
Ans. (a): Given, 1×10−18 g cms −1 = 9 ×10−28 g × ∆v
∆n = 10–10 m
∆v = 5.27×10–24 m.s–1 1× 10−18
or ∆v =
h = 6.625×10–34 J-s 9 × 10−28
According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle– = 1.1× 109 cms −1 = 1×109 cms −1
h
∆x.m∆v ≥ [∴p = m∆v] 299. A stream of electrons from a heated filament
4π was passed between two charged plates kept at
h a potential difference V esu. If e and m are
m=
4π.∆x × ∆v charge and mass of an electron, respectively,
6.625 × 10−34 J sec then the value of h/λ (where, λ is wavelength
m= associated with electron wave) is given by
4 × 3.14 × 10−10 × 5.27 × 10−24
m = 0.099 kg. (a) 2 meV (b) meV
296. Which of the following pairs is not correctly (c) 2 meV (d) meV
matched?
[JEE Main-2016]
(a) Hund’s rule In orbitals of equivalent
energy electron spins remain h h
Ans. (c): Wavelength, λ = =
unpaired if possible. mv 2m(KE)
(b) Pauli’s No two electrons can have all
h
exclusion the four quantum number ∴ = 2meV
principle identical. λ
(c) Zeeman effect the effect of magnetic field on 300. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the
the atomic spectra. 4th Bohr orbit is
(d) Uncertainty It is impossible to determine (a) 6πa0 (b) 2πa0
principle the position of an electron. (c) 8πa0 (d) 4πa0
J & K CET-(2013) [JEE Main 2020, 9 Jan Shift-I]
Ans. (d) : According to uncertainty principle, it is Ans. (c) : De–Broglie wavelength of an electron
impossible to measure simultaneously the position and 2πr= nλ
momentum of an electron with absolute accuracy.
Where, r = Radius of orbit
297. The Heisenberg uncertainty principle may be n = no. of orbit
stated as
n2
(a) ∆x.∆v = h (b) ∆x.∆v = h/4πm 2π × a0 = n ⋅ λ
z
(c) ∆x.∆v ≥ h/4πm (d) ∆x.∆v = h/4π
n
WB-JEE-2012, AMU-2004 2π× a 0 = λ
z
Ans. (c) : According to Heisenberg's uncertainty
4
principle : "It is impossible to determine simultaneously 2π× a 0 = λ ⇒ 8πa0
both the position and momentum (or velocity) of a 1
microscopic particle with absolute accuracy. 301. A ball weighing 10 g is moving with a velocity
h of 90 ms–1. If the uncertainty in its position is
Mathematically. ∆x × ∆ν ≥ 5%, then the uncertainty in its position is
4πm ..........×10–33 m(Rounded off to the nearest
Or ∆x.m∆v ≥
h integer). [Given, h = 6.63×10–34 J-s]
4π [JEE Main 2021, 26 Feb Shift-II]

Ans. : According to Heisenberg uncertainty principle hc
Ans. (a): ∴Energy, E =
∆ x ∆p ≥
h λ
4π 6.62 × 10−27 × 3 ×1010
h 3 × 10−12 =
∆x = (∆p = m∆v) λ
4πm∆v 6.62 × 10−27 × 3 ×1010
λ=
6.63 × 10−34 Js 3 × 10−12
⇒
4 × 3.14 × 10 ×10−3 kg × 90 ms −1 × 0.05 ⇒ 6.62 × 10 −5 cm ⇒ 662×10–9 m
⇒ 1.173×10–33 m ⇒ 662×10–7 cm ⇒ 662 nm
⇒ 1×10–33 m 305. A dust particle has mass equal to 10–11 g,
302. A proton and a Li3+ nucleus are accelerated by diameter 10–4 cm and velocity 10–4 cm/s. The
the same potential. If λLi and λP denote the de- error in measurement of velocity is 0.1%. What
Broglie wavelengths of Li3+ and proton will be the uncertainty in its position?
(a) 0.527 × 1010 cm (b) 5.27 × 109 cm
λ –15
respectively, then the value of Li is x×10–1. (c) 0.527 × 10 cm (d) 0.527 × 10–9 cm
λP JCECE - 2014
The value of x is..........(Rounded off to the Ans. (d) : v = 10–4 cm s–1
nearest integer)
0.1×10−4
Mass of Li3+ = 8.3 mass of proton) ∴ ∆v = ( due to 1% error )
[JEE Main 2021, 24 Feb Shift-I] 100
= 1 ×10 cm s–1
–7
h According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle –

Ans. λ =
2mqV h
Now, ∆v.∆x ≥
4πm
λ Li m p (e)(V)
= , m Li = 8.3 Where, h = Planck's constant
λp m Li (3e)(V) m = Mass of particle
π = 3.14
λ Li 1 1
mp= = = = 2 × 10−1 6.626 × 10−27
λp 8.3 × 3 5 ∆x =
4 × 3.14 × 10−11 × 10−7
x=2 = 0.527 × 10–9 cm
303. An accelerated electron has a speed of 5×106 306. In an atom, an electron is moving with a speed
ms–1 with an uncertainty of 0.02%. The of 600 m/s with an accuracy of 0.005%.
uncertainty in finding its location while in Certainty with which the position of the
motion is x×10–9m. The value of x is electron can be located is
..............(Nearest integer) (Given, h= 6.6×10–34 kg m2s–1, mass of electron
[Use mass of electron = 9.1×10–31 kg, h = em=9.1×10–31 kg)
6.63×10–34 Js, π = 3.14] (a) 2.15× 10 −3 m (b) 2.78× 10 −3 m
−3
[JEE Main 2021, 25 July Shift-II] (c) 1.92× 10 m (d) 3.24× 10 −3 m
0.02 JIPMER-2015
Ans. Given, ∆v= × 5 ×106 = 103 m / sec Ans. (c) : Given that velocity of electron, v= 600 m/s
100
According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle Accuracy of velocity = 0.005 %
600 × 0.005
∆x. ∆v ≥
h ∆v = ⇒ 0.03
4πm 100
According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle -
6.63 × 10−34
x ×10−9 ×103 = ∆x.m∆v ≥
h
4 × 3.14 × 9.1× 10−31 4π
x × 10 × 10 = 0.058 × 10−3
−9 3
6.6 × 10−34
∆x =
0.058 × 10−6 4 × 3.14 × 9.1× 10−31 × 0.03
x= = 58
10−9 = 1.92 ×10–3 m
x = 58 307. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle with
304. The energy of a photon is 3×10–12 erg. What is mass 1 kg and velocity 100 m/s is
(a) 6.6 × 10–33 m (b) 6.6 × 10–36 m
its wavelength in nm? +33
(c) 3.3 × 10 m (d) 3.3 × 10–36 m
(h = 6.62 × 10–27 erg-s; c = 3 × 1010 cm/s) JIPMER-2008, JCECE - 2007
(a) 662 (b) 1324 AP-EAMCET (Engg.) 1997, 1996
(c) 66.2 (d) 6.62 AP – EAMCET - (Medical)-1997
JCECE - 2009 NEET-1999
Ans. (b) : de-Broglie equation– 6.626 × 10−34
h m=
λ= 4 × 3.14 × 10−10 × 10−10
mv ⇒ 5.270×10–15 kg
Where, h = Planck's constant 311. Uncertainty principle is valid for
m = Mass (a) Proton
v = Velocity (b) Methane
6.62 × 10−34 kg m 2s −1 (c) Both (a) and (b)
=
1kg ×100ms −1 (d) 1 µ m sized platinum particles
⇒ 6.62 × 10 −36 m (e) 1 µ m sized NaCl particles
308. Heisenberg uncertainty principle can be Kerala-CEE-2017
explained as Ans. (a) : Uncertainty Principle states that the position
∆P × h h and momentum for a subatomic particle is uncertain to
(a) ∆x ≥ (b) ∆x × ∆P ≥ find simultaneously. Thus, the uncertainty principle is
4π 4π
valid for protons (subatomic particle).
h πh
(c) ∆x × ∆P ≥ (d) ∆P ≥ 312. Maximum number of photons emitted by a
π ∆x bulb capable of producing monochromatic
JIPMER-2008 light of wavelength 550 nm is ––––––, if 100 V
JCECE - 2007 and 1A is supplied for one hour.
BCECE-2005 (a) 1 × 1024 (b) 5 × 1024
23
Ans. (b) :According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty (c) 1 × 10 (d) 5 × 1023
principle. (e) 5 × 10 22
h h Kerala-CEE-2019
∆x.∆p ≥ or ∆x.(m.∆v) ≥
4π 4π Ans. (a) : Given that,
309. A golf-ball weigh 40.0g. If it is moving with a λ = 550 nm = 550 × 10–9 m
velocity of 20.0 ms-1, it’s de-Broglie wave length i = 1A, V = 100V
is
(a) 1.66×10-34 nm (b) 8.28×10-32nm
hc 6.626 × 10−34 × 3.0 × 108
∴E= = =0.036×10–17
(c) 8.28×10 nm–25
(d) 1.66×10–24nm λ 550 ×10−9
JIPMER-2004 So, each proton carries energy, E = 0.036 × 10–17
Ans. (c) : From de-Broglie equation– total energy output in one second
No. of photons =
h energy carried per photon
λ=
mv 100 × 3600
Where, h = Planck's constant n=
0.036 × 10−17
m = Mass of Golf-ball
n = 1 × 1024
v = Velocity
313. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths for
6.626 × 10−34 J.s electrons accelerated through 200 V and 50 V is
λ=
40 ×10−3 kg × 200 ms −1 :
⇒ 8.28×10–34 m (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
⇒ 8.28×10–34 ×109nm (c) 3 : 10 (d) 10 : 3
⇒ 8.28×10–25 nm Manipal-2020
310. The minimum values of uncertainties involved Ans. (a) : As we know,
in the determination of both the position and 1
eV = mv 2
velocity of a particle respectively are 1× 10-10 m 2
and 1 × 10-10ms-1. Then, the mass (in kg) of the
particle is 2eV
So, v=
(a) 5.270×10-15 (b) 5.270×10-20 m
-16
(c) 5.270×10 (d) 5.270×10-10 Ans, mv = 2meV
-14
(e) 5.270×10 According to de Broglie equation–
Kerala-CEE-2015 h
Ans. (a) : According to Heisenberg uncertainty λ=
principle - mv
h
∆x.∆p=
h or λ=
4π 2meV
h h When it is accelerated through 200 volt
⇒ ∆x.m∆v = ⇒ m= h
4π 4π∆x.∆v λ1 = …….(i)
Given ∴ ∆x=1×10–10 m, ∆v=1×10–10ms–1 2meV. 200

When it is accelerated through 50 volt
h
λ2 = …….(ii)
2meV. 50
On solving equation (i) and (ii), we get
(d) The value of m for d 2z is zero.
λ1 50 1
= = NEET-2018
λ2 200 2
Ans. (c) : While filling electron to the orbitals, direction
314. If uncertainty in position and velocity are of spin cannot change unless the orbital is half–filled.
equal, then uncertainty in momentum will be : 317. If uncertainty in position and momentum are
1 mh 1 h equal, then uncertainty in velocity is
(a) (b)
2 π 2 πm 1 h h
(a) (b)
h mh m π π
(c) (d)
4πm 4π 1 h h
Manipal-2018 (c) (d)
2m π 2π
Ans. (a) Given, ∆x=∆v NEET-2008
According to Heisenberg Uncertainity Principle– Ans. (c) : According to Heisenberg,
h h
∆x × ∆p ≥ Uncertainty Principle - ∆x.∆p =
4π 4π
Where, ∆x = Change in position h
∆p = Change in momentum (∆p) =2
[∴∆x = ∆p]
4π
h
∆x ×m∆v= (Q ∆p = m∆v) h
4π (m.∆v) 2 =
4π
h
(∆v2)= [Q ∆x=∆v] h
4πm m 2 .∆v 2 =
4π
h mh
∆p = m∆v = m ⇒ h 1 h
4πm 4π ∆v = =
4πm 2 2m π
1 mh 318. The measurement of the electron position is
∆p =
2 π associated with uncertainty in momentum,
315. Uncertainty in the position of an electron which is equal to 1 × 10–18 g cm s–1. The
(mass = 9.1×10–31 kg) moving with a velocity uncertainty in election velocity is (mass of an
–1
300 ms accurate upon 0.001% will be electron is 9 × 10–28g)
(h = 6.63×10–34 J-s) (a) 1 × 109 cm s–1 (b) 1 × 106 cm s–1
(a) 19.2×10–2 m (b) 5.76×10–2 m (c) 1 × 105 cm s–1 (d) 1 × 1011 cm s–1
(c) 1.92×10 m –2
(d) 3.84×10 m–2 NEET-2008
MHT CET-2011 Ans. (a) : Momentum, ∆p= m∆v
0.001 1×10–18 g cm s–1= 9×10–28g ×∆v
Ans. (c) : ∆v = × 300 ms −1 = 3 × 10−3 ms −1 ∴ ∆v = 1×109 cms–1
100
h 319. Given : The mass of electron is 9.11 × 10–31 kg.
∆x.m∆v = Planck constant is 6.626×10–34Js, the
4π uncertainty involved in the measurement of
h velocity within a distance of 0.1 Ǻ is
∆x =
4πm∆v (a) 5.79 × 105 m s–1 (b) 5.79 × 106 m s–1
−34 2 −1
6.63 ×10 kg m s (c) 5.79 × 10 m s
7 –1
(d) 5.79× 108 m s–1
⇒ −31 −3 −1 NEET-2006
4 × 3.14 × 9.1× 10 kg × 3 ×10 ms
= 0.019336 Ans. (b) : According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty
h
∆x ≃ 1.933 ×10–2 m. principle, ∆x∆v = ,
316. Which one is a wrong statement? 4 πm
(a) Total orbital angular momentum of electron or h
∆v =
in s-orbital is equal to zero. 4πm∆x
(b) An orbital is designated by three quantum Where ∆x is uncertainty involved in the measurement of
numbers while an electron in an atom is position ∆v is uncertainty involved in the measurement
designed by four quantum numbers. of velocity h is planck’s constant m is mass of the
(c) The electronic configuration of N atom is electron

° Where, ∆x = Uncertainty in position or change in
Q Given ∆x = 0.1 A
= (0.1×10–10) position
∆v = uncertainty in velocity
= 10–11 m
m = 9.11 ×10–31 kg h = Planck 's constant ( 6.626 × 10−27 Js )
h= 6.626 ×10–34 Js
m = mass of electron ( 9.1× 10−28 kg )
On substituting the values–
6.626 ×10−34 Here, ∆v = 0.001% of 3 × 10 4
∆v = 0.001
4 × 3.14 × 9.11× 10−31 ×10−11 = × 3 × 104 = 0.3cm / s
= 0.0579 × 108 ms–1 = 5.79 × 106 ms–1 100
320. The uncertainty in momentum of an electron is h
∴∆x =
1 × 10–5 kg m/s. The uncertainty in its position 4πm∆v
will be (h = 6.62 × 10–34 kg m2/s) 6.626 ×10−27
(a) 5.27 × 10–30 m (b) 1.05 × 10–26 m = = 1.93cm
4 × 3.14 × 9.1× 10−28 × 0.3
(c) 1.05 × 10 m –28
(d) 5.25 × 10–28 m
323. If Ee, Eα and Ep represent the kinetic energies
NEET-1998 of an electron, α-particle and a proton
Ans. (a) : The uncertainty in the position of an electron respectively each moving with same de-Broglie
h wavelength then
is : ∆x=
4π∆p (a) Ee = Eα = Ep (b) Ee > Eα > Ep
Where, ∆x = The position of the particle (c) Eα > Ep > Ee (d) Ee > Ep > Eα
∆p = The momentum of the particle UP CPMT-2011
h = Planck’s constant Ans. (d) : De-Broglie wavelength,
6.626 × 10−34 h
∆x = λ=
4 × 3.146 × 10−5 mν
= 5.27×10–30 m h
ν= ..... (i)
321. The position of both, an electron and a helium m. λ
atom is known within 1.0 nm. Further the 1
momentum of the electron is known within 5.0 K.E = mν 2 ..... (ii)
2
× 10–26 kg m s–1. The minimum uncertainty in Now, put the value of v in Eq. (ii)
the measurement of the momentum of the 2
helium stone is 1  h 
K.E = m  
(a) 8.0 × 10–26 kg m s–1 (b) 80 kg m s–1 2  m.λ 
(c) 50 kg m s–1 (d) 5.0 × 10–26 kg m s–1
1  h2 
NEET-1998 K.E =  
2  m × λ2 
Ans. (d) : Uncertainty principle state that the product of
uncertainty position and uncertainty in momentum is 1
Hence, K.E ∝ (If λ and h-constant)
constant for a particle m
h and the order of K.E is as–
∆x, ∆p =
4π Ee > Ep > Eα
Here, given ∆x = 1.0nm for both electron and helium
atom, so ∆p charge of momentum is also same for 5. Schrodinger Wave Equation
both the particle
Therefore uncertainty in momentum of the helium stone 324. When an electron in an excited hydrogen atom
is also 5.0 × 10−26 kg ms −1 jumps from an energy level for which n = 5 to
level for which n = 2, the spectral line is
322. Uncertainty in position of an electron (mass = observed in the which series of the hydrogen
9.1 × 10–28 g) moving with a velocity of 3×104 spectrum?
cm/s accurate upto 0.001% will be (a) Lyman (b) Balmer
(use h/(4π) in uncertainity expression where h (c) Paschen (d) pfund
= 6.626 × 10–27 erg second) AP-EAMCET-1991
(a) 5.76 cm (b) 7.68 cm
Ans. (b): In Balmer series, hydrogen spectrum n1 = 2
(c) 1.93 cm (d) 3.84 cm
and n2 = 3, 4 .....
NEET-1995
• An electron in an excited hydrogen atom (n = 2)
Ans. (c) : According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty jump to n = 5 energy level, then the spectral line is
h observed is Balmer series.
principle ∆x × ∆v =
4πm Electron transitions for the Hydrogen atom

(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 1
AP-EAMCET-2007
16
Ans. (c) : Given, λ = cm, n 2 = ?
15R
For Lyman series–
1 1 1
= R 2 − 2
λ  n1 n 2 
15R 1 1 
=R 2 − 2
16 1 n 2 
15R 1
or = 1− 2
16R n2
325. Which one of the following series of lines is 1 15 1
found in the UV region of atomic spectrum of or = 1− =
hydrogen? n 22 16 16
(a) Balmer (b) Paschen 1 1
or =
(c) Brackett (d) Lyman n2 4
AP-EAMCET-1991
or n2 = 4
Ans. (d) : Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum lies in
UV region. 329. An electronic transition in hydrogen atom
• Balmer series lies in visible region. results in the formation of Hα line of hydrogen
• Paschen series lies in infrared region. in Lyman series, the energies associated with
• Brackett series lies in infrared region. the electron in each of the orbits involved in the
Hence, Lyman series lies in UV region and Paschen transition (in kcal mol–1) are :
series lies in IR region of spectrum. (a) –313.6, –34.84 (b) –313.6, –78.4
326. Among the first lines of Lyman, Balmer, (c) –78.4, –34.84 (d) –78.4, –19.6
Paschen and Brackett series in hydrogen AP-EAMCET-2008
atomic spectra, which has the highest energy? Ans. (b) : Energy of electron in nth orbit–
(a) Lyman (b) Balmer
2π 2 Z2 e 4
(c) Paschen (d) Brackett En = a
AP-EAMCET-1999 n 2h 2
Putting the value of h, e and π, we get
 1 1 
Ans. (a) : Energy, ∆E = 13.6  2
− 2  eV −1311.8Z2
n
 1 n 2  En = kJ/mole
For the first line of Lyman series, n2
n1 = 1, n2 = 2 –313.52Z2
En = kcal/mole
1 1  n2
∆E = 13.6  2 − 2  eV = 10.2eV
1 2  (Q1 kcal = 4.184 kJ)
and energy decreases as we move on to the next series. For H atom, Z = 1 and Lyman series have the value of
327. What are the values of n1 and n2 for the 2nd line n1 = 1, n2 = 2.
in the Lyman series of hydrogen atomic n1=1, n2=2
spectrum ? Since, Energy of electron in n1 orbit
(a) 3 and 5 (b) 2 and 3
–313.52 × (1) 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 =
AP-EAMCET-2000 (1) 2
Ans. (c) : 2nd line (Hβ line) is formed when electron = – 313.6 kcal/mole
rd st
jumps from 3 orbit to 1 orbit in Lyman series. and energy of electron in n2 orbit
∴ n1 = 1, n2 = 3 –313.52 × (1) 2
=
(2) 2
= – 78.38 kcal/mole
330. The ratio of the highest to the lowest
328. The wavelength of spectral line emitted by wavelength of Lyman series is
16 (a) 4 : 3 (b) 9 : 8
hydrogen atom in the Lyman series is cm.
15R (c) 27 : 5 (d) 16 : 5
What is the value of n2? (R=Rydberg constant) TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 05.08.2021 Shift-II
Ans. (a) : The equation of Lyman series wavelength for Ans. (a) : The spectrum of any element depends upon
hydrogen atom is the no. of electron in outer shell.
1  1  Electronic configuration of He = 1s2
= R H 1 − 2  Reason:- Li+ has the same electronic configuration like
λ  n  as He atom i.e.
Where, λ = Lyman series wavelength for hydrogen
Li+ = 1s2, 2s1 (Removing of one electron form outer shell)
atom
Li+ = 1s2
RH = Rydberg Constant
i.e Li+ = 2
For lowest wavelength, n = ∞
334. Which of the following electron transitions in
1  1  the H-atom will release the largest amount of
∴ = R H 1 − 2 
λL  ∞  energy?
1 (a) n=3 to n=2 (b) n=2 to n=1
or = RH ..... (1) (c) n=5 to n=2 (d) n=6 to n=2
λL
COMEDK-2012
For highest wavelength, n = 2
Ans. (b) : As we know,
1  1  3R H
∴ = R H 1 −  = ..... (2) hc 1 1 1
λH  4 4 E= and = R  2 − 2 
λ λ n
 1 n 2
From equation (1) and (2)
So, we can say–
λH 4
= ⇒4:3 1 1
λL 3 E∝ 2 − 2
331. Which one of the following is extracted through n
 1 n 2
alloy formation ? Energy released when electron jumps from

(a) Manganese (b) Silver (a) For, n= 3 to n=2
(c) Nickel (d) Lead  1 1  1 1 5
SCRA - 2009  2 − 2 = − =
 2 3   4 9  36
Ans. (b) : Silver is the metal extracted through alloy (b) For, n = 2 to n=1
formation.
Note-Alloys are made by mixing two or more elements,  1 1  1 1  3
 2 − 2 = − =
at least one of which is a metal. 1 2  1 4  4
332. Which among the following represents (c) For, n = 5 to n=2
Schrodinger wave equation ?
 1 1   1 1  21
d 2 ψ d 2 ψ d 2 ψ 4πm  2 − 2 = − 5 =
(a) + + + (E − v) ψ = 0  2 5   4 2  100
dx 2 dy 2 dz 2 h (d) For, n = 6 to n = 2
h  d2 d2 d2   1 1  1 1  8
(b) Ĥ =  + + +V  2 − 2 = − =
4π2 m  dx 2 dy 2 dz 2   2 6   4 36  36
−h 2  d 2 d2 d2  3 21 8 5
(c) Ĥ = > > >
 2 + 2 + 2 +P 4 100 36 36
8π m  dx
2
dy dz 
Hence, largest amount of energy is released when
d ψ d ψ d ψ 8π2 m
2 2 2
electron jumps from n=2 to n=1.
(d) + + + 2 (E − v)ψ = 0
dx 2 dy 2 dz 2 h 335. A body of mass 10 mg is moving with a velocity
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.9.2020 Shift-I of 100 m s–1. The wavelength of de Broglie wave
GUJCET-2008 associated with it would be (h=6.63×10–34 J s)
Ans. (d) : The Schrondinger wave equation is (a) 6.63 ×10–35 m (b) 6.63 ×10–34 m
–31
(c) 6.63 × 10 m (d) 6.63 × 10–37 m
d 2 ψ d 2 ψ d 2 ψ 8π2 m
+ + + 2 (E − v)ψ = 0 COMEDK-2019
dx 2 dy 2 dz 2 h Ans. (c) Given, Mass, m = 10 mg = 10×10–3 g
Where, ψ = Wave function = 10×10–6 kg= 10–5 kg
m = Mass of electron, v = 100 ms –1 ,de Broglie, λ = ?
h = Planck's constant
h = 6.63×10–34 J s
E = Total energy of electron
V = Potential energy of electron h
de Broglie relation, λ =
333. The spectrum of Helium is expected to be mv
similar to that of–––– 6.63 × 10 –34 6.63 ×10 –34
(a) Li+ (b) H λ= = = 6.63 × 10–31 m
10 –5 × 100 10 –3
(c) Na (d) He+ 336. The first emission line on hydrogen atomic
AP EAPCET 19-08-2021 Shift-I spectrum in the Balmer series appears at (R =
NEET-1998 Rydberg constant):
5R 3R 339. Which one of the following conditions is
(a) cm −1 (b) cm −1 incorrect for a well behaved wave function (ψ)?
36 4
(a) ψ must be finite
7R 9R (b) ψ must be single valued
(c) cm −1 (d) cm −1
144 400 (c) ψ must be infinite
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2006 (d) ψ must be continuous
AP EAMCET (Medical) -1998 AP-EAMCET- (Engg.) - 2010
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) -1998 Ans. (c) : For a well behaved wave function (ψ) is
Ans. (a) : The first emission line on hydrogen atomic defined as the wave function (ψ) must be finite, single
spectrum in Balmer series contains the following valued and continuous.
values- 340. Assertion (A) : The probability of finding an
n1 = 2 and n2 = 3 electron in a small volume around a point (x, y,
z) at a distance 'r' from the nucleus is
 1 1  proportional to ψ2.
now, ν = R  2 − 2  Cm −1
 n1 n 2  Reason (R) : Subatomic particles have both
where – ν = wave number wave and particle nature.
The correct answer is
R = Rydberg constant
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
1 1 correct explanation of (A)
∴ ν= R −  (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
4 9
correct explanation of (A)
9−4 −1 (c) Only (A) is true but (R) is not true
ν =R   Cm
 36  (d) (A) is not true but (R) is true
5R AP - EAMCET(MEDICAL) - 2009
or ν = Cm −1 Ans. (b) : The square of the wave function, ψ2 is called
36 probability density and is always positive. The
337. What are the values of n1 and n2 respectively probability of finding an electron at a distance 'r' from
for Hβ line in the Lyman series of hydrogen the nucleus is expressed by following relation–
atomic spectrum? Probability = 4πr2dr⋅ψ2
(a) 3 and 5 (b) 2 and 3 ∴ Probability ∝ ψ2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 The de-Broglie explains any particle shows the both
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2006 nature i.e. particle and wave nature. Both (A) and (R)
are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Ans. (c) : The Lyman series of lines are the lines in the
hydrogen spectrum which appear in the ultraviolet 341. Wave number of spectral line for a given
region. The value of n1 and n2 is given as follows– transition is x cm–1 for He+, then its value for
n1 = 1 Be3+ (isoelectronic of He+) for same transition
n2 = 2,3…. is–
x −1
338. The radial probability distribution curve (a) cm (b) x cm–1
obtained for an orbital wave function (ψ) has 3 4
peaks and 2 radial nodes. The valence electron (c) 4x cm–1 (d) 16x cm–1
of which one of the following metals does this BCECE-2013
wave function (ψ) correspond to ? Ans. (c) : The spectral lines of the transitions are
(a) Cu (b) Li directly proportional to square of atomic number i.e. z2.
(c) K (d) Na v ∝ z2
AP- EAMCET(Medical) -2010 Given, v1 = x
Ans. (d): The radial probability distribution curve
v1 z12
obtained for an orbital wave function has 3 peaks and 2 Now,=
radial nodes i.e. n =3 and l= 0 ( for radial node =2) v2 z 22
He+, z1 = 2
Hence, the valence electron of the metal must present in For,
Be3+, z2 = 4
3s-orbital. The electronic configuration of the given For,
metal is – x (4) 2
=
29 Cu = [ Ar ] 3d , 4s
10 1
v2 (2) 2
3 Li = [ He ] 2s
1
v2 = 4x cm–1
19 K = [ Ar ] 4s
1 342. What is effective nuclear charge and the
periphery of nitrogen atom when an extra
11 Na = [ Ne ] 3s 1 electron is added in the formation of an anion?
(a) 1.20 (b) 2.45
Thus, the given wave function corresponds to the (c) 3.55 (d) 5.95
valence electrons of the sodium metal. BCECE-2013
Ans. (c) : As an extra electron is added in nitrogen atom
then added electron will be screened by five electrons in
second orbit (2s22p3) and two electrons in first orbit
(1s2)
Now screening constant–
σ = 5×0.35 in nth orbit + 2×0.85 in (n–1)th orbit
⇒ 1.75 + 1.70 ⇒ 3.45
∴ Effective nuclear charge
The graph between wave function ψ and distance (r)
⇒ 7 – 3.45 = 3.55
from the nucleus helps in determining the shape of
343. The graph between |ψ|2 and r (radial distance) orbital.
is shown below. This represents. 345. The frequency of light emitted for the
transition n = 4 to n = 2 of He+ is equal to the
transition in H atom corresponding to which of
the following?
(a) n = 3 to n = 1 (b) n = 2 to n = 1
(c) n = 3 to n = 2 (d) n = 4 to n = 3
AIEEE-2011
Ans. (b) : For He+
1  1 1 
(a) 1s-orbital (b) 2p-orbital v = = R H 22  2 − 2 
λ 2 4 
(c) 3s-orbital (d) 2s-orbital For H
[JEE Main 2019, 10 April Shift-I]  1
1 1 
Ans. (d) : The given probability density curve is for 2s v = = R H × 12  2 − 2 
λ n
 1 n 2 
orbital because it has only one radial node. Among
other given orbitals, 1s and 2p do not have any radial For same frequency–
node and 3s has two radial nodes.  1 1   1 1 
22  2 − 2  =  2 − 2 
 2 4   n1 n 2 
1 1 1 1
⇒ 2
− 2 = 2− 2
n1 n 2 1 2
⇒ n1 =1and n 2 = 2
346. Energy of an electron is given by E = –2.178 ×
 Z2 
10–18 J  2  . Wavelength of light required to
344. The electrons are more likely to be found n 
excite an electron in an hydrogen atom from
level n = 1 to n = 2 will be (h = 6.62 × 10–34) Js
and c = 3.0 ×108 ms–1)
(a) 1.214×10–7 m (b) 2.816×10–7 m
–7
(c) 6.500 × 10 m (d) 8.500×10–7 m
[JEE Main 2013]
Ans. (a) : Energy change–
 1 1  hc
∆E= 2.178 ×10–18  2 − 2  =
1 2  λ
−34
 1 1  6.62 × 10 × 3.0 × 10
8
= 2.178×10–18  2 − 2  =
(a) in the region a and c 1 2  λ
(b) in the region a and b ∴ λ=1.214×10–7 m
(c) only in the region a 347. For any given series of spectral lines of atomic
(d) only in the region c hydrogen, let ∆ν = ν max − ν min be the difference
[JEE Main 2019, 12 April Shift-I] in maximum and minimum frequencies in cm-1.
Ans. (a) : The electrons are more likely to be found in The ratio ∆ν Lyman / ∆ν Balmer is
the region a and c as shown in figure. At b, wave (a) 27 : 5 (b) 5 : 4
function becomes zero and is called radial nodal surface (c) 9 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
or simple node. [JEE Main 2019, 9 April Shift-I]
Ans. (c) : For Lyman series–
1 1  1 1 
∆ V = V max − V min = R  2 − 2  − R  2 − 2 
1 ∞  1 2 
3R R
⇒R– =
4 4
and the shape of d x 2 − y2 and d z 2 are different
For Balmer series
 1 1   1 1
∆ V = V max − V min = R  2 − 2  − R  2 − 2 
2 ∞  2 3 
R 5R 4R
⇒ − =
4 36 36
R
∆ VLyman 36
∴ = 4 = = 9:4
∆ VBalmer 4R 16 350. The electronic configuration of Pt (atomic
36 number 78) is:
348. Which of the following orbitals will have zero (a) [Xe] 4f14 5d9 6s1 (b) [Kr] 4f14 5d10
14 10
probability of finding the electron in the yz (c) [Xe] 4f 5d (d) [Xe] 4f14 5d8 6s2
plane? JEE Main-29.06.2022, Shift-I
(a) px (b) py Ans. (a) : Sub-electronic configuration of Pt (atomic
(c) pz (d) dyz number 78) is–
14 9 1
78Pt = 54[Xe] 4f 5d 6s
WB-JEE-2010
351. Which of the following statements are correct?
Ans. (a) : px orbital lies along x–axis. Hence, the (a) The electronic configuration of Cr is (Ar) 3d5
probability of finding an electron is zero in the yz plane. 4s1
(b) The magnetic quantum number may have a
negative value
(c) In the ground state of an atom, the orbitals are
filled in order of their increasing energies
(d) The total number of nodes are given by n–2
options given below:
(a) (a), (c) and (d) only (b) (a) and (b) only
(c) (a) and (c) only (d) (a), (b) and (c) only
JEE Main-29.06.2022, Shift-I
Ans. (c) : Statements –
6. Electronic Configuration and (a) Electronic configuration of Cr
5 1
Shape of Orbital's. 24Cr = [Ar] 3d 4s
(d) Total number of nodes are (n–1)
349. Identity the incorrect statement from the So, option (c) is correct
following 352. Element "E" belongs to the period 4 and group
16 of the periodic table. The valence shell
(a) All the five 4d orbitals have shapes similar to electron configuration of the element, which is
the respective 3d orbitals. just above "E" in the group is
(b) In an atom, all the five 3d orbitals are equal in (a) 3s2 , 3p4 (b) 3d10, 4s2, 4p4
10 2 4
energy in free state. (c) 4d , 5s , 5p (d) 2s2, 2p4
(c) The shapes of dxy , dyz and dxz orbitals are JEE Main-28.06.2022, Shift-I
similar to each other; and d x 2 − y2 and d z 2 are Ans. (a) : Element “E” belong to the period 4 and group
similar to each other. 16 of the periodic table.
(d) All the five 5d orbitals are different in size Then, element is 34Se = [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p4. [4 period, 16
group]
when compared to the respective 4d orbitals.
So, “E” is sulphur because “E” is above the ‘Se’.
NEET-17.07.2022 Therefore, electronic configuration is 3s2, 3p4.
Ans. (c) : The size of orbital depends on the principle 353. The number of nodal planes present in *s
quantum number and the shape of orbital's depends on antibonding orbitals is :
the azimuthal quantum number (l). In all the five 3d (a) 1 (b) 2
orbital are equal in energy in free state and the shape of (c) 0 (d) 3
dxy, dyz and dzx are similar. Karnataka-CET, 2008
Ans. (a) : In an antibonding molecular orbital, most of Ans. (b): According to Aufbau principle electron are
the electron density is located away from the space first occupy those orbitals whose energy is lowest.
between the nuclei, as a result of which there is a nodal Hence the electronic configuration is–
plane between the nuclei. 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p, 5s, 4d, 5p, 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p, 7s
Note- A plane at which the electron density is zero. 5f, 6d, 7p.
359. The correct electronic configuration of
potassium is
(a) ls2,2s2,2p6,3s1
(b) ls2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6,4s2
(c) ls2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p5,4s2
354. Mg2+ is isoelectronic with (d) ls2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6,4s1
(a) Cu2+ (b) Zn2+ AP EAMCET- 1992
+
(c) Na (d) Ca2+ Ans. (d) : The electronic configuration of Potassium is-
Karnataka-CET-2007 2 2 6 2 6 1
19K= ls 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s
Ans. (c) : Isoelectronic species have same number of 360. Chlorine atom, in its third excited state, reacts
electron. Mg2+ and Na+ both have 10 electrons hence, with fluorine to form a compound X. The
they are isolectronic species. formula and shape of X are
355. Which of the following atomic orbitals is not (a) ClF5, pentagonal
directed along the axis? (b) ClF4, tetrahedral
(a) px (b) d x 2 − y2 (c) ClF4, pentagonal bipyramidal
(c) dxy (d) d z 2 (d) ClF7, pentagonal bipyramidal
AP EAMCET- 2003
AP-EAMCET (Med.)-1999
Ans. (d) : The electronic configuration of 17 Cl is given
Ans. (C) : The lobe of the of three orbital i.e. dxy, d y2 ,
below-
d x 2 exists in between the axis and the lobe of d x 2 − y2 2 2 6 2 5 0
17 Cl = 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d
and d z 2 exist in along the axis.
356. How many electrons are present in the M shell

of the atom of an element with atomic number
24?
(a) 5 (b) 6 Hence, it forms the ClF7 compound and have the
(c) 12 (d) 13 pentagonal bipyramidal geometry.
AP-EAMCET (Med.)-1999 361. The electronic configuration of curium (Z = 96)
Ans. (d) : The electronic configuration of atomic is
number 24 is 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1, 3d5. The name (a) [Rn] 5f8 6d0 7s2 (b) [Rn] 5f7 6d1 7s2
3 5 2
of the element is Chromium. (c) [Rn] 5f 6d 7s (d) [Rn] 5f6 6d2 7s2
24Cr = 2, 8, 13, 1
JHARKHAND – 2019
K L M N
Ans. (b) : The electronic configuration of Curium (Z =
So, M shell contains 13 electrons.
96)
357. The symbol of the element 'Tungeston' is: 7 1 2
96Cm = [Rn] 5f 6d 7s
(a) Ta (b) W Curium (Cm) is a synthetic chemical element of the
(c) Tl (d) Tc actinoid series in the periodic table.
NDA (II)-2015 362. The number of unpaired electrons in carbon
Ans : (b) The symbol of the element 'Tungsten' is W atom is
and atomic number is 74. It is the rarest and toughest (a) one (b) Two
metal found in nature. (c) Three (d) Four
• It have 5 stable and 21 unstable isotopes. MPPET- 2009
• It have highest melting point and tensile strength. Ans. (b) : The electronic configuration of carbon is–
2 2 2
358. Which one of the following orbitals has the 6C = 1s , 2s , 2p
highest energy?
(a) 5d (b) 5f
(c) 6s (d) 6p Hence, the number of unpaired electron in carbon atom
SCRA-2015 is 2.
363. In the change of NO+ to NO, the electron is 368. In the ground state, an element has 13 electrons
added to a in M shell. The element is :
(a) σ orbital (b) π orbital (a) Copper (b) Chromium
(c) σ* orbital (d) π* orbital (c) Nickel (d) Iron
SCRA 2010 AP-EAMCET-2001
Ans. (d) : According to molecular orbital diagram– Ans. (b) : Given that :
electronic configuration of. In the ground state an element has 13 electron in M
NO + (14e) − σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , π2p 2x = π2p 2y , σ 2p 2z , shell is Chromium.
K L M N
π* 2p x = π* 2p y 24Cr = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5 = 2 8 13 1
NO(15e− ) − σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 σ 2p z2 , π2p x2 = π2p2y , π* 2p1x = π* 2p y No. of electron in M shell = 2 + 6 + 5 = 13.
* *
The last electron into π 2px orbital i.e. π orbital. 369. X litre of carbon monoxide is present at STP. It
364. For the iso-electronic series, which among the is completely oxidised to CO2. The volume of
following species requires the least energy to CO2 formed is 11.207 L. What is the value of X
remove an outer electron? in litres ?
(a) K+ (b) Ag (a) 22.414 (b) 11.207
(c) Cl– (d) S2– (c) 5.6035 (d) 44.828
SCRA-2014 AP-EAMCET-2002
Ans. (d) : The isoeletronic species are K , Cl– and S2–.
+
1
The electronic configuration are– Ans. (b) : CO + O 2 → CO 2
22.4L 2
+ 2 2 6 2 6 0 22.4L
19 K = 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s
xL 11.207 L
− For STP,
17 Cl = 1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s 2 3p6 4s 0
22.4 L of CO, oxidize to CO2 = 22.4 L
2−
= 1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s 2 3p6 4s 0
16 S 22.4
The S ion has more in size than K+ and Cl– because 16
2– 1 L of CO, oxidize to CO2 = L =1
22.4
proton of the nuclear pull on 18 electron. So, the energy
required to removing the electron from outer orbital is 22.4
11.207 L of CO, oxidize to CO 2 = ×11.207
less in quantity. 22.4
365. The maximum number of electrons that can be = 11.207 L
accommodated in all the orbitals for which l = 370. If the electron of a hydrogen atom is present in
3, is : the first orbit, the total energy of the electron
(a) 15 (b) 14 is:
(c) 10 (d) 6
AP-EAMCET-1991 −e 2 −e 2
(a) (b) 2
Ans. (b) : For l = 3, orbital is f. r r
−e 2 −e 2
(c) (d)
2r 2r 2
Hence, maximum number of electron is 14. AP-EAMCET-2003
366. The rule that explains the reason for chromium Ans. (c) : We know that :
to have [Ar] 3d5, 4s1 configuration instead of
[Ar] 3d4, 4s2, is : 1
Kinetic energy, K.E. = mv 2
(a) Pauli's exclusion principle 2
(b) Aufbau principle −e 2
(c) Hund's rule Potential energy =
(d) Heisenberg principle r
AP-EAMCET-1996 1 e2  e2 
or K.E. = Q mv 2
= 
Ans. (c) : Hund's rule, state that electrons do not pair up 2 r  r 
in the orbitals unless all the degenerated orbital have got
one electron each to get stability. ∴ Total energy = K.E. + PE
Hence, to get more stability chromium has [Ar] 3d5, 4s1 1 e2 e2
configuration instead of [Ar] 3d4 4s2. = −
2 r r
367. The electronic configuration of sodium is :
e2  1 
(a) [Ne] 3s2 (b) [Ne] 3s1 =  − 1
(c) [Ar] 4s 1
(d) [Ar] 4s2 r 2 
AP-EAMCET-1999 e 2  −1 
Ans. (b) : Electronic configuration of sodium is =  
2 2 6 1 r  2 
11Na = 1s 2s 2p 3s
or 11Na = [Ne] 3s . 1 −e 2
=
Hence, the correct option is (b). 2r

371. Which of the following elements have least
number of electrons in its M shell ?
(a) K (b) Mn
(c) Ni (d) Sc
AP-EAMCET-2004
Ans. (a) : Potassium (K) elements has least number of
electrons in it's M shell.
19 K = 1s
2 2
 2s 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s

1
K
     N
L M
Number of electrons in M shell (n = 3) = 8 So, the option (b) is correct.
Similarly, 375. In which of the following pair are the ions
isoelectronic ?
K L M N (a) Mg2+, Ar (b) Na–, O2–
25 Mn = 2 8 13 2 3+
(c) Al , Cl –
(d) K+, Ne
Ni = 2 8 16 2
28 NDA (I)-2019
21 Sc = 2 8 9 2
Ans : (b) Isoelectronic species have the same number
Hence, the correct option is (a). of electrons but different in atomic number. In the given
372. The atomic numbers of elements X, Y and Z option, Na+ and O2– are isoelectronic species having 10
are 19, 21 and 25 respectively. The number of electron.
electrons present in the M shell of these Electronic configuration of Na+ and O2–;
elements follow the order : Na+= 1s2 2s2 2p6
(a) Z > X > Y (b) X > Y > Z O2–= 1s2 2s2 2p6
(c) Z > Y > X (d) Y > Z > X
376. Assertion (A) : Atoms with completely filled and
AP-EAMCET-2005 half-filled subshells are stable.
Ans. (c) : Given atomic number of element : Reason (R) : Completely filled and half-filled
Configuration, 19 X = 1s 2
 2s
2
2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s

1
subshells have symmetrical distribution of
K
     N electrons and have maximum exchange energy.
L M
Y = 1s 2 2
2p 3s 3p 4s2 3d
6 2 16 The correct answer is
21  2s
      (a) (A) and (R) are correct, (R) is the correct
K L N MM
explanation of (A)
25 Z = 1s
2 2
 2s 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s2 3d 5
K
     N

M
(b) (A) and (R) are correct, (R) is not the correct
L M
explanation of (A)
For the order of number of electrons in M shell is : (c) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
Z>Y>X (d) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct
373. The maximum number of sub-levels, orbitals TS-EAMCET-2016
and electrons in N shell of an atom are
Ans. (a) : Atoms with completely filled and half filled
respectively :
subshells have symmetrical distribution of electrons and
(a) 4, 12, 32 (b) 4, 16, 30 have maximum exchange energy and the electrons are
(c) 4, 16, 32 (d) 4, 32, 64 more stable in the atom.
AP-EAMCET-2007
377. The element with the electronic configuration
Ans. (c) : For N shell : 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s1 is
(i) Number of shell (n) = 4 (a) Cu (b) Ca
(ii) The number of sub-shell (l) = 4 (c) Cr (d) Co
(iii) Number of orbital = n2 = 42 = 16 TS-EAMCET-2016
(iv) Number of electron = 2n2 Ans. (a) : The element with electronic configuration
= 2 × 42 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s1 is Copper and Copper has
= 32 atomic number is 29.
374. Which orbital among the following has zero 378. The number of unpaired electrons in Co2+, is
radial nodes and 2 angular nodes? (a) 2 (b) 3
(a) 4s (b) 3d (c) 4 (d) 5
(c) 2p (d) 5s TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 07.08.2021 Shift-II
AP EAPCET 23-08-2021 Shift-I Ans. (b) : The electronic configuration of Co2+ is 1s2
Ans. (b) : Radial node = n – l – 1 2s2 2p6 3p6 3d7.
Where, n = Principle quantum number or Co2+ = [Ar]3d7
l = Azimuthal quantum number
Angular node = l
l value for s = 0 , p = 1, d = 2, f = 3

379. [Ar]3d104s1 electronic configuration belongs to h
(a) Ti (b) Tl Ans. (a) Angular momentum, µ = l ( l +1)
2π
(c) Cu (d) V Where l = Azimuthal quantum number for orbital
MPPET-2008 Azimuthal quantum no. (l)
Ans. (c) : The electronic configuration of [Ar] 3d10 451 s 0
is belong to Cu. p 1
It is in 4th period and IB group. d 2
380. The electronic configuration of Cs is f 3
(a) [ Kr ] 5s1 (b) [ Xe] 6s1 So, for 3s orbital an electron having zero angular
momentum.
(c) [ Rn ] 7s1 (d) [ Ar ] 4s1 384. To which group of the periodic table does an
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-II element having electronic configuration [Ar]
Ans. (b) : Caesium atomic number is 55. 3d54s2 belong?
Thus, electron configuration of Caesium is 1s22s22p63s2 (a) Second (b) Fourth
3p64s23d104p65s24d105p66s1 or [Xe] 6s1. (c) Seventh (d) Third
Hence, correct option is (b). AP EAPCET 19-08-2021 Shift-I
381. How many unpaired electrons will be present Ans. (c) : The given electronic configuration–
5 2
in the ground state of an atom which has 18[Ar], 3d , 4s
valence electronic configuration 3d6 in its +3 Which is the electronic configuration of Mn and Mn
oxidation state ? element belongs to the 7th group of periodic table.
(a) 1 (b) 3 385. The element with atomic number 12 belongs to
(c) 4 (d) 7 ........ group and ......... period
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.9.2020 Shift-I (a) IA, third (b) III A, third
Ans. (b) : Ground state electronic configuration of the (c) II A, third (d) II A, second
element (Co, z = 27) will be [Ar] 3d7 4s2. AP EAMCET (Engg.) 2001
Ans. (c): The element with atomic number 12 is
magnesium.
The electronic configuration for Mg = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6 3s2.
There are 2 electron in the outermost shell so it belongs
to the II A group. Mg has an outermost shell, n=3
therefore, the third period.
382. Which among the following represents zero 386. The maximum number of sub-level, orbitals
overlap ? and electrons in N shell of an atom are
Z respectively
(a) + + -
(a) 4, 12, 32 (b) 4, 16, 30
(b) - + - +
Z (c) 4, 16, 32 (d) 4, 32, 64
Ans. (c) : For ‘N’ shell
+
Z Q The number of shell (n) = 4

(c) +
∴The number of sublevels or subshell (l) = 4
The number of orbitals = n2 = 42 = 16
and the number of electrons = 2n2=2×42=32
Z 387. Electronic configuration of X is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
(d) 3p1. It belongs to
(a) third group and third period
(b) thirteenth group and third period
AP EAPCET 24.08.2021 Shift-II (c) first group and third period
Ans. (c): Both orbitals p and s are aligned to different (d) third group and first period.
axis so their total overlap become zero. COMEDK-2017
Ans. (b) : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1
i.e., n=3, third period
And group number for p-block elements =
10+number of electrons in s and p orbitals =
383. To which orbital among the following may an 10+2+1=13
electron having zero angular momentum 388. Elements A, B, C, D and E have the following
belong? electronic configuration:
(a) 3s (b) 3p (a) 1s2 2s2 2p2 (b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
2 2 5
(c) 3d (d) 4f (c) 1s 2s 2p (d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
2 2 6 2 6
AP EAPCET 24.08.2021 Shift-II (e) 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p

Which of these will belong to the same group in 394. Which of the following is correct for number of
the periodic table? electron, number of orbitals and type of
(a) A and B (b) A and C orbitals respectively in N orbit?
(c) A and D (d) A and E (a) 4, 4 and 8 (b) 4, 8 and 16
COMEDK-2018 (c) 32, 16 and 4 (d) 4, 16 and 32
Ans. (c) : A and D belongs to same group because in GUJCET-2011
same group. Number of valence electrons is same. Ans. (c): Orbits K L M N
A: 1s2 2s2 2p2 No of electrons 2 8 18 32
D: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2 No. of orbitals s s,p s,p,d, s,p,d,f
2 4 9 16
389. An orbital with n=3, l=1 is designated as
∴ For N orbit, No. of e– = 32, No. of orbital = 16 and
(a) 1s (b) 3s type of orbital = 4
(c) 3p (d) 3d
395. In which of the following pairs, the outer most
COMEDK-2014 electronic configuration will be the same?
Ans. (c) : For 3p-orbital, n=3 and l =1. (a) Fe2+ and Co+ (b) Cr+ and Mn2+
2+ +
390. The total number of orbitals in the fifth energy (c) Ni and Cu (d) V2+ and Cr+
…….is: JEE Main 25-02-2021, Shift-I
(a) 5 (b) 10
Ans. (b) :
(c) 18 (d) 25 (a) Fe2+ : [Ar] 3d6 Co+ : [Ar] 3d7 4s1
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2006 +
(b) Cr : [Ar] 3d 5
Mn2+ : [Ar] 3d5
Ans. (d) : Given:- n = 5 2+
(c) Ni : [Ar]3d 8
Cu2+ : [Ar] 3d9
2+ 3
Total number of orbital's in the fifth energy level (d) V : [Ar] 3d Cr+ : [Ar] 3d5
= n2 So, (b) option is correct.
= 52 396. An orbital with one angular node shows three
= 25. maxima in its radial probability distribution
391. The atomic number of an element is 35. What curve, the orbital?
is the total number of electrons present in all (a) 3s (b) 4p
the p-orbitals of the ground state atom of that (c) 5d (d) 3p
element? TS EAMCET 05.08.2021, Shift-I
(a) 6 (b) 11 Ans. (b) : The atomic orbital with one angular node
(c) 17 (d) 23 shows 3 maxima, the number of radial nodes must be 2.
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2003 The 3s, 5d and 4p orbital's have two radial nodes.
However, only the 4p orbital's have one angular node.
Ans. (c) : The atomic number of element is 35. The
name of the element is bromine. The electronic
configuration of Br is 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6 ,4s2,3d10,4p5.
Electrons present in p- orbital is 17.
392. The total number of electrons present in all the
‘s’ orbitals, all the ‘p’ orbitals and all the ‘d’
orbitals of cesium ion are respectively:
(a) 8, 26, 10 (b) 10, 24, 20
(c) 8, 22, 24 (d) 12, 20, 22 397. Assertion: Yb+2 is more stable in comparison to
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2003 Gd+2
Ans. (b) : According to the Aufbau Principle-the Reason: The electronic configuration of Gd is
electronic configuration of Cs+ is 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2,3p6, [Xe] 4f7 5d2 6s2.
4s2, 3d10, 4p6, 5s2, 4d10, 5p6 (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Total electron in s-orbital = 10 Reason is the correct explanation of
Total electron in p-orbital = 24 Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
Total electron in d- orbital = 20 Reason is not the correct explanation of
393. The electronic configuration of four different Assertion.
elements is given below, identify the group XIV (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
element among these: (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
(a) [He]2s1 (b) [Ne]3s2 incorrect.
2 2
(c) [Ne]3s 3p (d) [Ne]3s23p5 AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Morning)
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2001 Ans. (c): The electronic configuration of Yb2+ and Gd2+
Ans. (c) : The element of group XIV belongs to the p- are:
block elements. As we know, outer configuration of p- Yb2+: [Xe] 4f14 5d0 6s0
block goes to the ns2 np2. The XIV group elements Gd2+: [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s0
contains the four electron in outer shell. Hence, the Thus, the given electronic configuration of
correct option is C. Gd2+ is not correct.

398. Assertion: Helium and beryllium having Ans. (a): The outermost electronic configuration of the
similar outer electronic configuration of types most electronegative element is ns2 np5. It represents a
ns2. Reason: Both are chemically inert. halogen atom. In a period, halogens have the highest
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the electro negativity due to the small size and high
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. effective number charge.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but 403. The configuration 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p 5 , 3s1 shows:
Assertion. (a) excited state of O −2
(c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false (b) excited state of neon atom
(d) If both Assertion ad Reason are false (c) excited state of fluorine atom
AIIMS-1994 (d) ground state of fluorine atom
Ans. (c): Although He and Be have similar outer AIIMS-1997
electronic configuration of the type ns2, only He (s2) has Ans. (b): The ground state of neon is 1s2 2s2 2p6 on
inert gas configuration and hence is chemically inert but excitation an electron from 2p jumps to 3s orbital. The
Be (1s2, 2s2) close not have inert gas configuration and excited neon configuration is 1s2 2s2 2p5 3s1.
hence is not chemically inert. 404. The element with outer electronic
399. Assertion: d5 configuration is more stable than d4 configuration (n – 1)d2ns2. where n = 4. would
Reason: d5 has more exchange energy as belong to ___.
compared to d4 because 10 & 6 exchanges are (a) 2nd period. 2nd group (b) 4th period. 4th group
possible in d5 & d4 respectively. (c) 4th period. 2nd group (d) 2nd period. 4th group
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and AP EAPCET 19-08-2021, Shift-II
Reason is the correct explanation of Ans. (b) : Given,
Assertion. Outer electronic configuration = (n - 1)d2 ns2 where n =
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but 4
Reason is not the correct explanation of ∴ = (4 – 1)d2, 4s2
Assertion. = 3d2, 4s2
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. This is the outer electronic configuration of titanium
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are which is belongs to the 4th period and 4th group.
incorrect. 405. Transition metal elements exhibit general
AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Morning) electronic configuration _______
Ans.(a): d5 configuration has exactly haif–filled (a) ns1–2 nd1–10 (b) ns1–2 (n – 1) d1–10
configuration so has more exchange energy. While d4 2
(c) ns (n –1)d 10
(d) ns2 (n – 1)d0
has only four such (unpaired) electron these has less AP- EAPCET- 07-09-2021, Shift-I
exchange energy. Maximum exchange energy leads to Ans. (b) : Transition metal element exibit general
the stabilization of the atoms. electronic configuration is ns1–2(n – 1) d1–10.
Therefore, d5 configuration is more stable them that of 406. If an element with atomic number Z = 115 has
d4 configuration. been discovered today in which of the following
400. Spectrum of Li2+ is similar to that of family would it had been placed and identify its
(a) H (b) Be electronic configuration.
(c) He (d) Ne (a) Boron Family : [Ar] 4f145d106s26p3
AIIMS-2002 (b) Carbon Family : [Kr] 5f146d107s27p3
Ans. (a): Electronic configuration of Li is 1s2 2s1 and of (c) Nitrogen Family : [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s27p3
Li2+ is 1s1. That is similar to the electronic configuration (d) Oxygen Family : [Xe] 4f145d106s26p3
of H (1s1) Which has only one electronic in its valance AP- EAPCET- 07-09-2021, Shift-I
shell, thus it has spectrum similar to that of H. Ans. (c) : Atomic number Z = 115 is Moscovium (Mc)
401. Which of the following element is represented is a synthetic chemical element and an extremely
by electronic configuration radioactive element. It belongs to nitrogen family and
1s 2 2s 2 2p1x 2p1y 2p1z electronic configuration is
115Mc =[Rn] 5f14 6d10 752 7p3
(a) Nitrogen (b) oxygen
407. The atomic number of an element 'M' is 26.
(c) fluorine (d) sulphur How many electrons are present in the M-shell
AIIMS-2001 of the element in its M3+ state?
Ans. (a): 7N– 1s2, 2s2 2px1 2py1 2pz1 (a) 11 (b) 15
This element contains 7 electrons (c) 14 (d) 13
402. The outermost configuration of most AP - EAMCET (Medical) - 2007
electronegative element is Ans. (d) : The atomic number of element (M) is 26.
(a) ns2 np5 (b) ns2 np6 According to Aufbau principle, the electronic
2 4
(c) ns np (d) ns2 np3 configuration of 26M will be 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d6,
AIIMS-2000 4s2.

3+
For 26M = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d5 Ans. (c) : Give that,
3+
or 26M = 2, 8, 13 Angular node (l) = 3
KL M Total node = 3
Hence, the electrons are present in M shell is 13. Total node = Radial node + Angular node
408. Which of the following graph represents 3=n–l–1+l
variation of 2p-orbital wave function with 3=n–1
distance from the nucleus? n=4
Subshell nl = 4f
412. The number of radial nodes of 3s and 2p
orbitals are respectively
(a) 2, 0 (b) 0, 2
(c) 1, 2 (d) 2, 2
BITSAT-2017
Ans. (a) : For a given orbital with principal quantum
number (n) and azimuthal quantum number (l)
number of radial nodes = (n – l – 1)
for 3s orbital: n = 3 and l = 0
therefore, number of radial nodes
=3–0–1=2
for 2p orbital; n = 2 and l = 1
therefore, number of radial nodes
VITEEE-2016 =2–1–1=0
Ans. (a) : In option (a) show the variation of 2p– 413. According to Bohr’s theory, the angular
orbitals wave function with distance from the nucleus. It momentum for an electron in 5th orbit is
has one maxima and passes through origin. (a) 2.5 h / π (b) 5 h / π
409. The orbital angular momentum of an electron (c) 25 h / π (d) 5 π / 2h
in 2p orbital is UPTU/UPSEE-2010
(a) h/4 π (b) zero
Ans. (a) : The angular momentum (l) of an electron in a
(c) h/2 π (d) 2 h/2 π nh
Assam CEE-2019 Bohr’s orbit is given as L=
2π
Ans. (d) : Angular momentum in an orbital h
h It is an integral multiple of
= l ( l + 1) , ( l = 1) 2π
2π In the fifth Bohr orbit, the angular momentum of
  5h
=  2h  electron is (L) =
 2π  2π
410. The orbital angular momentum of a p-electron 2.5h
L=
given as π
h h = 2.5 h\π
(a) (b) 3
2π 2π 414. Which one of the following decides the shapes
of orbitals in an energy shell?
3h h (a) Magnetic quantum number
(c) (d) 6
2π 2π (b) Principle quantum number
NEET-Mains 2012 (c) Azimuthal quantum number
Ans. (a) : Orbital angular momentum (m) (d) Spin quantum number
h AMU-2013
= l(l + 1) Ans. (c) : Principal quantum number tells the principal
2π
energy level or shell to which the electron belongs or
For P electrons; l=1 the average distance of the electron from the nucleus.
h 2h h Azimuthal quantum number tells, the shape of the
Thus, m = l(l + 1)
= = various subshells present within the same principal
2π 2π 2π
shell.
411. Orbital having 3 angular nodes and 3 total Magnetic quantum number determines the number of
nodes to preferred orientations of the electrons present in
(a) 5p (b) 3d subshell. Spin quantum number helps to explain state of
(c) 4f (d) 6d each electron in an orbital.
Odisha NEET-2019

415. The electrons indentified by quantum numbers ls 2 , 2s 2 2p 6 ,3s 2 3p 6 3d10 , 4s 2 4p3
n and l (i) n = 4, l = 1; (ii) n = 4, l =0; (iii) n = 3,
l = 2; (iv) n = 3, l = 1 can be placed in order of Its properties would be similar to which of the
increasing energy from the lowest to highest as following elements?
(a) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i) (a) Boron (b) Oxygen
(b) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii) (c) Nitrogen (d) Chlorine
(c) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) CG PET -2004
(d) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii) Ans. (c) : The valence shell electronic configuration is
AMU-2011 4s2 4p3 similar to nitrogen 2s2, 2p3.
Ans. (a) : The greater is the value of (n+1), the greater 421. Out of the following electronic configurations
si the energy of orbitals. the one of a transition element is
(i) n=4, l=1 = 4p orbital (a) ls 2 , 2s 2 2p 2 ,3s 2 3p 6 3d10 ,4s 2 4p 6
(ii) n=4, l=0 = 4s orbital
(iii) n=3, l=2 = 3d orbital (b) ls 2 , 2s 2 2p 6 ,3s 2 3p 6 3d 2 ,4s 2
(iv) n=3, l=1 = 3p orbital (c) 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p 6 ,3s 2 p 6 , 4s 2
According to the Aufbau principle, energies of above–
mentioned orbitals are in the order of – (d) ls 2 , 2s 2 2p 6 ,3s 2 3p 6 3d10 , 4s 2 4p1
The increasing order of energy CG PET -2004
(iv) 3p < (ii) 4s< (iii) 3s< (i) 4p Ans. (b) : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d2 4s2 is a transition
416. The element whose electronic configuration is element the last electron here enters the 3d sub shell.
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 is a 422. Aufbau principle is not satisfied by
(a) metoalloid (b) metal (a) Cr and Cl (b) Cu and Ag
(c) noble gas (d) non-metal (c) Cr and Mg (d) Cu and Na
AMU-2004
CG PET -2004
Ans. (b) : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 is electronic configuration of
alkaline earth metal. Ans. (b) : The correct option is Cu and Ag. Cu as we
know should have the configuration 3d9 4s2 But it does
417. The electronic configuration of P in H3 PO4 not obey the Aufbau Principal and has a configuration
(a) 1s 2 2s 2 , 2p 6 ,3s 2 3p 6 (b) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p 6 ,3s 2 of 3d10 4s1.
(c) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 (d) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p 6 ,3s 2 3p 6 , 4s1 Similarly Ag lies below Cu in the periodic table [same
group] and thus disobeys.
CG PET- 2011 aufbau principal.
Ans. (a) : The electronic configuration of pin H3PO4 is
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 423. Which of the following can be represented by
the configuration [Kr]5s2?
P atom has 5 valance electron it shares 3 with 3–OH
groups to form 3P–OH bonds it shares 2 with one O (a) Ca (b) Sr
atom to form p=O bond. (c) Ba (d) Ra
418. The pair having the similar shape is CG PET -2004
(a) BF3 and NF3 (b) BF4− and NH +4 Ans. (b) : Electronic configuration of strontium is
[Kr]5s2
(c) SiC14 and SC14 (d) CH 3+ and N 3O +
424. Which of the following describes the shape of
CG PET- 2011 orbital?
− + (a) Principal quantum number
Ans. (b) : Both BF4 and NH 4 ion are tetrahedral.
(b) Azimuthal quantum number
419. Quantum numbers l = 2and m = 0 represent (c) Magnetic quantum number
the orbital
(d) Spin quantum number
(a) dxy (b) d x 2 − y2
CG PET -2006
(c) d z 2 (d) dxz Ans. (b) : Principal quantum number represents the
CG PET- 2016 principal energy shell where the electron is revolving
Ans. (c) : Quantum number l= 2 and m=0 Azimuthal quantum describe the slope of an orbital
Respresent dz2 orbital. Magnetic quantum number describes the orientation of
Note– For s, p, d and f orbitals, the value of the the orbital in space.
azmithual quantum number ‘l’ is 0, 1, 2, 3. 425. Electronic configuration of H+ is
When l=2, m can have values (a) 1s0 (b) 1s1
2
–2, –1, 0, +1 +2. (c) 1s (d) 1s1,2s1
A d–subshell can be have five different CG PET- 2010
orientations and orbitals Ans. (a) : Electronic configuration
Corresponding to these orientations are H+ = 1s0
dxy, dxz, dyz, d x 2 − y2 ,d z2 . H– = 1s2
He+ = 1s1
420. The electronic configuration of an element is

426. The ion which does not have configuration of 429. The correct electronic configuration and spin-
argon (Ar) is: only magnetic moment (BM) of Gd3+ (Z=64),
(a) I- (b) K+ respectively, are
-
(c) Cl (d) Ca2+ (a) [Xe]4f7 and 7.9 (b) [Xe]5f7 and 7.9
7
HP CET-2018 (c) [Xe]5f and 8.9 (d) [Xe]4f7 and 8.9
Ans. (a) : Argon has 18 electrons Cl–, K+, Ca2+ have 18 (JEE Main 2020, 5 Sep Shift-I)
electrons I– have 54 electron so I– does not have Ans. (a) : Given, [Gd]3+
electronic configuration with Ar. To find electronic configuration and magnetic moment
427. Match List-I with List-II. of [Gd]3+ -
0 0
List-I List-II Electronic configuration of [Gd]3+:[Xe]4f7 5d 6s
(Electronic (∆i in kJ mol–1) Hence number of unpaired electron n=7
configuration of
elements) Hence magnetic moment n ( n + 2) = 63 = 7.9 BM
A. 1s22s2 (i) 801 Hence electronic configuration is [Xe]4f7
2 2 4 Magnetic moment is 7.9 BM
B. 1s 2s 2p (ii) 899
C. 1s22s22p3 (iii) 1314 430. In the sixth period, the orbitals that are filled
D. 1s22s22p1 (iv) 1402 are
(a) 6s, 5f, 6d, 6p (b) 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p
Choose the most appropriate answer from
(c) 6s, 5d, 5f, 6p (d) 6s, 6p, 6d, 6f
the options given below.
Codes (JEE Main 2020, 5 Sep Shift-I)
A B C D Ans. (b) : As per (n+l) rule in 6th period, order of orbital
(a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) filling is 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p.
(b) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) 431. Outermost electronic configuration of a group-
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) 13 element E is 4s2 4p1. The electronic
(d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) configuration of an element of p-block period-
(JEE Main 2021, 26 Feb Shift-I) five placed diagonally to element, E is
Ans. (a) : The correct option is A (a) -(ii), (b) -(iii), (a) [Kr]3d104s24p2 (b) [Ar]3d104s24p2
10 2 2
C(iv), d-(i) (c) [Xe]5d 6s 6p (d) [Kr]4d105s25p2
1s2 2s2→Be (JEE Main 2021, 20 July Shift-II)
1s2 2s22p4→O Ans. (d) : [Kr]4d 5s2 5p2
10
1s2 2s22p3→N The element E is Ga and the digonal element of 5th

1s2 2s22p1→B period is 50Sn having outer electronic configuration will
The ionization enthalpy order is B < Be < O < N. Be be [Kr]4d10 5s2 5p2.
has more I.E compared to B due to extra state fully 432. Among the following, the energy of 2s-orbital is
filled 2s orbital N has more I.E Compared to O due to lowest in
extra stable half filled 2p orbital. (a) K (b) H
Hence, (c) Li (d) Na
N→1402 kJ /mol [JEE Main 2019, 12 April Shift-II]
O→1314 kJ/mol Ans. (a) : The energy of 2s-orbital is lowest in K
B→801 kJ/mol (potassium). An orbital gets larger as the principle
Be→899 kJ /mol quantum number n increases.
428. The electronic configuration of bivalent Correspondingly the energy of the electron in such an
europium and trivalent cerium are orbital become less negative, meaning that the electron
(atomic number : Xe = 54, Ce = 58, Eu = 63) is less strongly bound and has less energy. The graph of
(a) [Xe]4f7 and [Xe]4f1 principle quantum number with atomic number is
(b) [Xe]4f7 6s2 and [Xe]4f26s2
(c) [Xe]4f2 and [Xe]4f7
(d) [Xe]4f4 and [Xe]4f9
(JEE Main 2020, 9 Jan Shift-I)
Ans. (a) : The electronic configuration of europium and
cerium in the ground state is–
Eu(63) ⇒ [Xe]4f76s2
Ce(58) ⇒ [Xe]4f15d16s2
Bivalent means it lost two electrons and trivalent means 433. Ge (Z = 32) in its ground state electronic
it lost three electrons configuration has x completely filled orbitals
Eu2+ ⇒ [Xe]4f7 with ml = 0. The value of x is
Ce3+ ⇒ [Xe]4f1 [JEE Main 2021, 31 Aug Shift-I]

Ans. (7) : 32Ge : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p2
7 orbitals are fully filled with ml = 0.
The value of x is 7. 438. Which electronic configuration will show the
434. A certain orbital has n = 4 and ml = –3. The highest first ionization potential?
number of radial nodes in this orbital (a) 1s22s22p1 (b) 1s22s22p5
is........(Round off to the nearest integer). 2 2
(c) 1s 2s 2p 3
(d) 1s22s2
[JEE Main 2021, 17 March Shift-I] J & K CET-(2018)
Ans. (0) : n = 4, ml = –3 so l = 3 Ans. (b) : 1s22s22p1=B
Number of radial nodes = n – l – 1 1s22s22p5=F
=4–3–1 1s22s22p3=N
=0 1s22s2=Be
435. The number of orbitals with n = 5, m1 = +2 is The order of first ionization potential is F > N > Be > B.
...............(Round off to the nearest integer). 439. The orbital diagram in which Aufbau principle
[JEE Main 2021, 16 March Shift-II] is violated is
Ans. (3) : For, n = 5
(a) (b)
l = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
For, l = 2, m = –2, –1, 0, 1, 2
For, l = 3, m = –3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3 (c) (d)
For, l = 4, m = –4, –3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 J & K CET-(2013)
Hence, the number of orbitals with n = 5, ml = +2 is 3. Ans. (c) : According to Aufbau principle in the ground
436. Which of the following atoms in its ground state of the atoms the electron fill subshells of the
state has the highest number of unpaired lowest available energy, then they fill subshells of
electrons? higher energy. So, in option (c) 2s subshell should filled
(a) Chromium (24) (b) Iron (26) before the 2p subshell is occupied while in (a) Hund’s
rule is violated.
(c) Manganese (25) (d) Vanadium (23)
J & K CET-(2016) 440. What is the total number of electrons that can
have the values n = 2, l = 1, s = ½ in the
Ans. (a) : The electronic configuration of the give electronic configuration 1s22s22p3?
element is– (a) 1 (b) 3
Chromium (24): (3d54s1) – 6 unpaired electron. (c) 5 (d) 7
Iron (26) : (3d64s2) – 4 unpaired electron. J & K CET-(2013)
Manganese (25) : (3d54s2) – 5 unpaired electron. Ans. (b) The given electronic configuration is 1s22s22p3
Vanadium (23) : (3d33s2) – 3 unpaired electron.
So, 24Cr has the highest number of unpaired electrons. 2p
437. The sulphur compound in which the sulphur Then, n=2, l=1 i.e. 2p
atom has octet configuration in its valence shell Hence, the total number of electron is 3.
among the following is
441. According to Aufbau principle, the correct
(a) Sulphur trioxide order of energy of 3d, 4s and 4p orbitals is
(b) Sulphur hexafluoride (a) 4p < 3d < 4s (b) 4s < 4p < 3d
(c) Slphur dichloride (c) 4s < 3d < 4p (d) 3d < 4s < 4p
(d) Sulphur dioxide J & K CET-(2006)
J & K CET-(2016) Ans. (c) : According to Aufbau principle the increasing
Ans. (c) : Octet rule dictates that atoms are most stable order of the energies of the orbital's is
when their valence shells are filled with eight electrons. 1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d < 4p < 5s…..
The moleculer of the halogens, oxygen, nitrogen and 442. Electronic configuration of deuterium atom is
carbon are known to obey the octet rule.
(a) 1sl (b) 2s2
1
(c) 2 s (d) 1s2
J & K CET-(2005)
Ans. (a) : Deuterium is an isotope of hydrogen its
atomic number is one
Hence, its electronic configuration is as 1D2: 1s1
443. Two nodal planes are present in
(a) π * 2p x (b) σ 2p z
(c) π 2p x (d) π 2p y
SCl 2 : Cl − S − Cl (complete octet) J & K CET-(2004)

Ans. (a) : π*2px has two nodal planes perpendicular to
each other
444. Ground state electronic configuration of

nitrogen atom can be represented as
(a) From the above equation option (a) i.e. 1s2, 2s2 2p2, 3s2
does not follow Aufbau Rule.
447. The element with the electronic configuration
as [Ar] 3d104s24p3 represents a
(b) (a) metal (b) non-metal
(c) metalloid (d) transition element
JCECE - 2010
Ans. (c) : Electronic configuration shows that the p-
(c) orbital of the element is not complete. That is why, it is
a p-block element. Moreover, the atomic number of the
element is 33(As). Therefore, it is a metalloid.
448. The electronic configuration of element with
atomic number 24 is
(d) (a) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p63d4, 4s2
(b) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p63d10
(c) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p63d6
(d) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p63d5, 4s1
J & K CET-(2003) JCECE - 2010
Ans. (a) : Nitrogen (N) atomic number = 7 Ans. (d) : The electronic configuration of element with
Electronic configuration (7N) = 1s2, 2s2, 2p3 atomic number 24 is
Hence, 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1, 3d5
(Q Exactly half-filled orbitals are more stable than
nearly half-filled orbitals.)
449. Which of the following is correct for number of
electrons, number of orbitals and type of
445. A 3p-orbital has orbitals respectively in N-orbit?
(a) two non-spherical nodes (a) 4, 4 and 8 (b) 4, 8 and 16
(b) two spherical nodes (c) 32, 16 and 4 (d) 4, 16 and 32
(c) one spherical and one non-spherical node JCECE - 2013
(d) one spherical and two non-spherical nodes Ans. (c) : For N shell, types of orbitals = 4s, 4p, 4d, 4f
J & K CET-(1998) Number of orbitals = 1+ 3 + 5 + 7 = 16
number of electrons = 32
Ans. (c) : Given 3p orbital
450. The outermost electronic configuration of the
In 3p orbital, n = 3 and l =1
most electronegative element is
We know, (a) ns2np3 (b) ns2np4
Spherical Node = n − l − 1 = 3 – 1 – 1 = 1 2
(c) ns np 5
(d) ns2np6
Non spherical Node = l = 1 JCECE - 2014
Hence, one spherical Node and one non spherical Node. Ans. (c) : ns2np5 configuration shows the most
446. Impossible configuration is: electronegative element as after gaining one electron it
becomes more stable (inert gas configuration)
(a) 1s2, 2s2, 2p2, 3 s2 (b) 1s2, 2s2 [electronegativity is the tendency of attracting electron].
2 2 6
(c) 1s , 2s , 2p (d) none of these 451. If n=6, the correct sequence for filling of
JCECE - 2003 electrons will be.
Ans. (a): Aufbau Principal: it state that electron are (a) ns →(n-1) d→(n-2) f→np
filled in the atomic orbitals in the increasing order of (b) ns →(n-2) f→np→(n-1)d
orbital energy level It means the available atomic (c) ns → np→(n-1) d→(n-2)f
orbitals with the lowest energy levels are occupied (d) ns →(n-2) f→(n-1)d→np
before those with higher energy levels. JIPMER-2014

Ans. (d) : If n=6, then the correct sequence for filling of 455. Among the elements form atomic number 1 to
electrons will be 36, the number of elements which have an
ns→(n–2)f→ (n–1)d→np. unpaired electron in their s subshell is
It will be (a) 2 (b) 7
6s→4f→ 5d→6p. (c) 6 (d) 9
The energy of 4f and 5d orbitals are in between the Karnataka-CET-2014
energies of 4s and 6p orbitals. Ans. (c) : Key elements among 1 to 36 atomic number
Note:– Higher is the (n+ l ), higher will be the energy of which have one-unpaired electron in their s-subshell-
the orbital. Q The alkali metals have 1 electron in s-subshell-
For n=6 H = 1 → 1s1
6s= 6+0=6 Li = 3 → 1s2 2s2
6p=6+1=7 Na = 11 → 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
5d=5+2=7 K = 19 → [Ar] 4s1
4f=4+3=7 Cr = 24 → [Ar] 4s1 3d5
Hence, the correct order is:
Cu = 29 → [Ar] 4s1 3d10
ns→(n–2)f→(n–1)d→np Therefore, there are total 6 elements between atomic
452. The total number of orbitals in the fifth energy number 1 to 36 which have one electron in their outer
level is most s-subshell.
(a) 5 (b) 10 456. Impossible orbital among the following is
(c) 18 (d) 25 (a) 3f (b) 2p
JIPMER-2009 (c) 4d (d) 2s
UP CPMT-2008 Karnataka-CET-2012
Ans. (d) : For fifth energy level Ans. (a) : According to Bohr Bury's scheme maximum
The value of n will be 5 number of e- in 3rd orbital 2n2=2(3)2=18
Therefore, the total number of orbitals is given by n2 = Maximum number of e- in s-subshell =2, p-subshell =6,
52 = 25 d-subshell =10 and f-subshell =14 therefore, 18 e-
453. The last element of the p-block in 6th period is present in 3rd orbital enter in s, p and d subshell.
represented by the outer most electronic There after there is no e- available for f-subshell that is
configuration why 3f subshell is not possible.
(a) 7s2, 7p6 (b) 5f14, 6d10, 7s2, 7p5 Thus, the value of magnetic quantum number is-l to +l,
14 10 2 4
(c) 4f , 5d , 6s , 6p (d) 4f14, 5d10, 6s2, 6p6 then –2 to +2, i.e –2–1, 0,+1, +2
Karnataka-CET-2020 457. The number of naturally occurring p-block
Ans. (d) : As we know form periodic table, the last elements that are diamagnetic is
element of the p-block in 6th period is Radon (86Rn). (a) 18 (b) 6
The electronic configuration of 86Rn (c) 5 (d) 7
2 2 6 2 6 10 2 6 10 2
86Rn = 1s , 2s , 2p , 3s , 3p , 3d , 4s , 4p , 4d , 5s , Karnataka-CET-2011
14 10 2 6
4f , 5d , 6s , 6p Ans. (a) : The group 18 elements have completely filled
Or it can be also written as [Xe] 4f14, 5d10,6s2, 6p6 subshells, therefore, they are diamagnetic. They are He,
454. The orbital nearest to the nucleus is Ne, Ar, Kr and Xe.
(a) 4f (b) 5d 458. Which one of the following is not correct in
(c) 4s (d) 7p respect of hybridization of orbitals?
Karnataka-CET-2018 (a) The orbitals present in the valence shell only
Ans. (c) : In general orbitals with lower energy are are hybridized
present near to the nucleus. This can be calculate by (b) The orbitals undergoing hybridization have
(n+1) rule. almost equal energy
(i) Lower be the sum of (n+1) value, nearest the orbital (c) Promotion of electron is not essential
to the nucleus. condition for hybridization
(ii) And for the same sum, if the value of n will be (d) It is not always that only partially filled
lower, then its energy will also be low and it will be orbitals participate in hybridization in some
nearest to the nucleus. cases even filled orbitals in valence shell take
Therefore, from the given options- part
(e) Pure atomic orbitals are more effective in
(a) 4f→ ( l =3) ∴ n+ l = 4+3=7 forming stable bonds than hybrid orbitals
(b) 5d→ ( l =2) ∴ n+ l = 5+2=7 Kerala-CEE-2013
(c) 4s→ ( l =0) ∴ n+ l = 4+0=4 Ans. (e) : Pure atomic orbitals are less effective in
(d) 7p→ ( l =1) ∴ n+ l = 7+1=8 forming stable bonds than hybrid orbitals.

459. Which of the following are isoelectronic Ans. (b) : According to question.
species? n=4
(i) NH3 (ii) CH 3+ Now,
Number of atomic orbital in particular energy level is
(iii) NH 2– (iv) NH +4 given by formula =n2
Choose the correct answer from the codes Number of orbital's in fourth energy level ⇒42⇒ 16
given below. orbital's.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) (b) (ii), (iii), (iv) 464. Which of the following pairs of d-orbital's will
(c) (i), (ii), (iv) (d) (i), (iii), (iv) have electron density along the axes?
(e) (ii), (iii) (a) d z 2 , dxy (b) dxy, dyz
Kerala-CEE-2014
(c) d z2 ,d x 2 − y2 (d) d xy ,d x 2 − y2
Ans. (d) : Species Number of electrons
(1) NH3 7+1×3=10 NEET-II 2016
+ Ans. (c) : The shapes of various d-orbitals are as follow
(2) CH 3 6+1×3–1=8
(3) NH −2 7+1×2+1=10
+
(4) NH 7+1×4–1=10
4
Since, xy xz yz
(i) (iii) and (iv) have the equal number of electrons
therefore these are called as isoelectronic species.
460. Electronic configuration of only one p-block
element is exceptional. One molecule of that
element consists of how many atoms of it?
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
MHT CET-2015
Ans. (a) : Helium is the element with exceptional So, the pairs of d-orbitals having electron density along
configuration in p-block with only 2 electrons in the axis are dz2 and dx2–y2.
outermost shell Helium is monoatomic hence it consists 465. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbital's are arranged in the
of only 1 atom. order of decreasing energy. The correct option
Electronic configuration of helium (He) = 1s2 is
(a) 5f > 6p> 4d > 5p (b) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
461. The number of spherical nodes in 3p orbitals
(c) 6p > 5f > 5P > 4d (d) 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p
are/is
NEET-2009
(a) one (b) three
(c) none (d) two Ans. (b) : As we know, Greater the (n+1) values greater
is the energy (n+1) values for,
NEET-1988
4d=4+2=6
Ans. (a) : Given, 3p orbital 5p=5+1=6
In 3p orbital, n = 3 and l = 1 5f=5+3=8
We know, 6p=6+1=7
Spherical Node = n–l – 1 = 1 Order of energy would be 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
462. The orientation of an atomic orbital is 466. The stable electronic configuration of
governed by chromium is
(a) principle quantum number (a) 3d6 4Sl (b) 3d5 4S2
5 l
(b) azimuthal quantum number (c) 3d 4S (d) 3d6 4So
(c) spin quantum number J & K CET-(2007)
(d) magnetic quantum number Ans. (c) : The electronic configuration of 24Cr is 1s2 2s2
NEET-2006 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s1
Ans. (d) : Magnetic Quantum number represents the 467. Which one of the following electronic
orientation of an orbital around the nucleus. It is arrangements is absurd?
represented by ml. (a) n=3,l=1,m= –1 (b) n=3, l =0, m= 0
463. The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth (c) n=2, l =0, m= –1 (d) n=2, l =1, m= 0
energy level of an atom is WB-JEE-2019
(a) 8 (b) 16 Ans. (c) : The value of magnetic quantum number m
(c) 32 (d) 4 depends upon aziamuthal quantum number l m varies
NEET-2011 form –l to +l
UPTU/UPSEE-2004 So, if the value of l. is O then value of m will also be O.

468. The ground state term symbol for an electronic 473. An element belongs to group 15 and third
state is governed by: period of the periodic table, Its electronic
(a) Heisenberg’s principle configuration will be
(b) Hund’s rule (a) 1s2 2s2 2p3 (b) 1s2 2s2 2p4
2 2 6 2 3
(c) Aufbau principle (c) 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p (d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3P2
(d) Pauli exclusion principle WB-JEE-2011
UPTU/UPSEE-2004 Ans. (c) : The element belongs to group 15 and third
Ans. (b) : The ground state term symbol for an period is phosphorus (15P).
electronic state is governed by Hund's Rule. Electronic configuration of phosphorus.
2 2 6 2 3
469. The compound in which cation is isoelectronic 15P = 1s , 2s , 2p , 3s , 3p
with anion is: 474. The representation of the ground state
(a) NaCl (b) CsF electronic configuration of He by box-diagram
(c) NaI (d) K2S
UPTU/UPSEE-2004 as is wrong because it violates
Ans. (d) : NaCl: No of e– in Na+ = 11–1=10 (a) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
No of e- in Cl– = 17+1=18 (b) Bohr's quantization theory of angular
CsF No of e- in Cs+ = 55–1=54 momenta
No of e- in F- = 9+1=10 (c) Pauli's exclusion principle
(d) Hund's rule
NaI No of e- in Na+ ⇒11–1=10
WB-JEE-2011
No of e- in I- ⇒53+1=54
K2S No of e- in K+ =19–1=18 Ans. (c) : According to Pauli Exclusion principle, in
any orbital, maximum two electrons can exist, having
No of e- in S2- =16+2=18 opposite spin.
So, K2S anion has isoelectronic with cation
475. Which of the following electronic configuration
470. Which of the following will violate Pauli’s is not possible?
exclusion principle?
(a) n=3, l = 0, m=0 (b) n=3, l = 1, m= –1
(c) n=2, l = 0, m= –1 (d) n=2, l = 1, m= 0
(a) WB-JEE-2018
Ans. (c) : When l=0, m will also be zero.
Hence electronic configuration is not possible.
(b)
476. The number of unpaired electrons in Ni
(c) Both (a) and (b) (atomic number = 28) are
(d) None of the above (a) 0 (b) 2
UPTU/UPSEE-2014 (c) 4 (d) 8
Ans. (b) : Pauli’s exclusion principle states that in a WB-JEE-2018
8 2
single atom no two electrons will have an identical set Ans. (b) 28Ni has electronic configuration = [Ar]3d ,4s
or the same quantum numbers. It means orbital must
have opposite spins or it should be anti parallel.
471. The electronic configuration of the oxide ion is
much most similar to the electron configuration ∴ No of unpaired electron =2
of the
(a) sulphide ion (b) nitride ion
(c) oxygen atom (d) nitrogen atom 7. Quantum Number
UPTU/UPSEE-2009
Ans. (b) : Sulphide ion (S2-)=No of electrons =16+2=18 477. Consider the following pairs of electrons
Nitride ion (N3-)=No of electrons =7+3=10 1
(A) (a) n=3, l=1, m1=1, ms= +
Oxide ion (O2-)=No of electrons =8+2=10 2
No of electros in oxygen atom =8 1
(b) n=3, l =2, m1=1, ms= +
No of electrons in nitrogen atom=7 2
Electronic configuration of O2- or N3- (10) 1
1s2 2s2 2p6 (B) (a) n=3, l =2, m1= –2, ms= –
2
472. The electronic configuration 1s22s22p63s23p63d9 1
represents a (b) n=3, l =2, m1= –1, ms= –
(a) Metal atom (b) Non metal atom 2
(c) Non metallic anion (d) Metallic cation 1
(C) (a) n=4, l =2, m1= 2, ms= +
WB-JEE-2008 2
Ans. (d) : The given configuration represents the 1
(b) n=3, l =2, m1= 2, ms= +
electron configuration of Cu2+ i.e a metallic cation. 2
The pairs of electrons present in degenerate (a) (A), (B) and (C)
orbitals is/are: (b) (A), (C), (D) and (E)
(a) Only (A) (b) Only (B) (c) (A), (C) and (D)
(c) Only (C) (d) (B) and (C) (d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Ans. (b) :
(A) (a) n = 3, l = 1 Ans. (c) : Here, statements (A), (C) and (D) are correct.
⇒ 3p And statements (B) and (E) are incorrect.
(b) n = 3, l = 2 The correct form of statements (B) and (E)–
⇒ 3d (B) The azimuthal quantum number ‘l’ for a given ‘n’
(B) (a) n = 3, l = 2 (principle quantum number) can have values as ‘l’ = 0,
1, 2 ……..(n – 1)
⇒ 3d
(b) n = 3, l = 2 (E) for l = 5, the total number of orbital
⇒ 3d = (2l + 1) =11
(C) (a) n = 4, l = 2 481. For n=3 energy level the number of possible
⇒ 4d orbitals (all kinds) are
(b) n = 3, l = 2 (a) 1 (b) 3
⇒ 3d (c) 4 (d) 9
478. The number of radial and angular nodes in 4d CG PET -2005
orbital are, respectively Ans. (d) : Given, n = 3
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 2 and we know,
(c) 1 and 0 (d) 2 and 1 Number of orbitals =n2
JEE Main-26.06.2022, Shift-II =(3)2 =9
Ans. (a) : We know that, 482. The number of radial nodes for 4p is
Radial nodes = n–l–1
(a) 4 (b) 3
Angular node = l
(c) 2 (d) 1
Where, n = Principle quantum number
l = Azimuthal quantum number SCRA-2015
For 4d, n = 4, l =2 Ans. (c): Radial node = n – l –1
∴ Radial node = 4–2–1 = 1 Where, n = principle quantum number
And angular node = 2 l = Azimuthal quantum number
479. Consider the following set of quantum For 4p orbital
numbers. n = 4, l = 1
The number of correct sets of quantum ∴ Radial node = 4–1–1 = 2
numbers is _____. 483. Which of the following sets of quantum
n l ml numbers is restricted:
(a) 3 3 –3 (b) 3 2 –2 (a) n = 3, 1 = 1, m = + 2
(c) 2 1 +1 (d) 2 2 +2 (b) n = 3, 1 = 2, m = –2
JEE Main-27.06.2022, Shift-II (c) n = 3, 1 = 1, m = + 1
Ans. (2) : The value of azimuthal quantum number (d) n = 3, l = 1, m = –1
s = 0, p = 1, d = 2, f = 3. MPPET - 2012
For n = 2, l = 0, 1, ml = +1, 0, –1
For n = 3, l = 0, 1, 2, ml = +2, +1, 0, –1, –2 Ans. (a) : If n = 3
Therefore, the correct set of quantum number in option Where, n = Principle Quantum No.
(b) and (c). Then, l (Azimuthal Quantum No.)
Hence, The number of correct sets of quantum number l = 0, 1, 2
is 2. ↓ ↓ ↓
480. Consider the following statement :
(A) The principle quantum number ‘n’ is a positive and m = 0. ,
integer with values of ‘n’ = 1, 2, 3,….
(B) The azimuthal quantum number ‘I’ For a 484. The magnetic quantum number m for the
given ‘n’ (principle quantum number) can have outermost electron in the Na atom, is :
values as ‘l’ = 0, 1, 2, …n (a) 1 (b) 2
(C) Magnetic orbital quantum number ‘mI’ for a (c) 3 (d) 0
particular ‘l’ (azimuthal quantum number) has AP-EAMCET-1991
(2I+1) values. Ans. (d) : The electronic configuration of sodium atom
(D) ± 1/2 are the two possible orientations of
electron spin. is :
11 Na = 1s
2 2
(E) For l =5, there will be a total of 9 orbital Which  2s 2p6 3s

1
 
of the above statement are correct? K L M

For 3s1 Assertiion : Energy of the orbital decreases
Principle quantum number (n) = 3 with increase of 'n'.
Azimuthal quantum number (l) = 0 Reason : Energy is required in shifting away
Magnetic quantum number (m) = 0 the negatively charged electron from positively
485. Which one of the following sets of the quantum charged nucleus
numbers is not possible for a 4p electron ? (a) Assertion and Reasoning are correct
statements and Reason is the correct
1 explanation for Assertion
(a) n = 4, l = 1, m = +1, s = +
2 (b) Assertion and Reasoning are correct
1 statements and Reason is not the explanation
(b) n = 4, l = 1, m = 0, s = + for Assertion
2
(c) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong
1
(c) n = 4, l = 1, m = 2, s = + (d) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct
2 AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-I
1 Ans. (d) : As we move away from the nucleus, in atom
(d) n = 4, l = 1, m = –1, s = −
2 the potential energy of electron increases, as the
AP-EAMCET-1998 distance for nucleus increases, the value of n increases.
Ans. (c) : For 4p electron, Consequently the kinetic energy of the electron
decreases, but total energy as a whole increases. Thus,
1
n = 4, l = 1, m = +1, 0, –1, S = ± the Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. Hence,
2 the correct option is (d).
Hence the option (c) is not correct. 489. The four quantum numbers of the valence
486. Based on the Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom, electron of potassium are:
the speed of the electron, energy of the electron,
and the radius of its orbit varies with the
principal quantum number, respectively as
1 1
(a) n, n2, n2 (b) 2 , , n
n n
1 1 1 1
(c) , , n 2 (d) , 2 , n 2
n n n n 1 1
TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 07.08.2021 Shift-II (a) 4,0,1, (b) 4,1,0,
2 2
Ans. (d) : 1 1
Z (c) 4,0,0, (d) 4,1,1,
Speed of electron (V) = × 2.188 × 108 cm / sec 2 2
n AP EAMCET (Medical) -1998
1 Ans. (c): The electronic configuration of potassium is
or V ∝ [Where n is energy level]
n 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p 6 ,3s 2 ,3p 6 , 4s1. We find the four quantum of
Z2 4s– shell–
Energy of e– (E) = –13.6 2 eV [Z is atomic number]
n Principal quantum number (n) = 4
1 Azimuthal quantum number ( l ) = 0
or E∝ 2 Magnetic quantum number (m) = 0
n
1
n2 Spin quantum numbers (s) = +
Radius of orbital (rn)= 0.529 × Å 2
Z
or rn ∝ n2 490. "No two electrons in an atom can have the
same set of all four quantum numbers". This
1 1
Hence, V : E : rn = : 2 : n 2 principle of called
n n (a) Zeeman effect
487. Find the exact orbital from the following for (b) Pauli's exclusion principle
which n = 4 and l = 1. (c) Stark effect
(a) 4s (b) 3d (d) Heisenberg principle
(c) 4d (d) 4p AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.09.2020, Shift-I
Ans. (b) : Pauli's exclusion principle is, "No two
Ans. (d) : For, n (principal quantum number) = 4 an l electrons in an atom can have the same set of all four
(azimuthal quantum number) = 1 quantum numbers".
The orbital is 4p. e.g. for 4s2 configuration, its
For, 4s → n = 4, l = 0 n l m s
3d → n = 3, l = 2 1st e– = 4 0 0 +1/2
4d → n = 4, l = 2 2nd e– = 4 0 0 –1/2
488. Choose the correct option regarding:

491. How many emission spectral lines are possible 1
when hydrogen atom is excited to nth energy (b) n=3, l=1, m=1, s = +
level ? 2
n(n + 1) (n + 1) 1
(a) (b) (c) n=3, l=2, m= –2, s = +
2 2 2
1
(n − 1)n n2 (d) n=3, l=0, m=0, s = +
(c) (d) 2
2 4 COMEDK 2018, Assam CEE-2018
TS EAMCET-2017
JIPMER-2012
n(n − 1) Karnataka-CET-2011
Ans. (c) : Number of spectral lines =
2 NEET-1994
Where, n is the orbital of electron. Ans. (c) : The orbital with highest (n+l) value will have
492. A subshell n = 3, l = 2 can accommodate the highest energy. In the given sets n=3, l=2, m =–2, s
maximum of______ =+1/2 have n+l =5 i.e., 3d-orbital has the highest
(a) 10 electrons (b) 6 electrons energy.
(c) 18 electrons (d) 16 electrons 498. Four different sets of quantum numbers for
AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-II four electrons are given below:
Ans. (a): Given that subshell n = 3, l = 2 1 1
e1 =4, 0, 0, – ;e 2 = 3,1,1, –
So, 2 2
l = 0 (s = subshell) 1 1
l = 1 (p = subshell) e3 =3, 2, 2, + ;e 4 = 3, 0, 0, +
l = 2 (d = subshell) 2 2
The order of energy of e1, e2, e3 and e4 is
l = 3 (f = subshell)
(a) e1> e2>e3>e4 (b) e4>e3>e2>e1
In n = 3 and l = 2 maximum no. of electron is 10.
(c) e3>e1>e2>e4 (d) e2>e3>e4>e1
493. The quantum number which explains the line COMEDK-2018
spectra observed as doublets in case hydrogen
and alkali metals and doublets are triplets in Ans. (c) : Higher (n+l) value, higher is the energy and
case of alkaline earth metals is for same (n+l) value higher n, higher will be the energy.
(a) spin (b) azimuthal Thus, e3>e1>e2>e4
(c) magnetic (d) principal 499. Which one of the following expressions
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 2012 represent the electron probability function (D)?
Ans. (a) : Spin quantum number explains the line (a) 4 πr dr ψ 2 (b) 4 πr 2 dr ψ
spectra observed as doublets in case of hydrogen and
(c) 4 πr 2 dr ψ 2 (d) 4 πr dr ψ
alkali metals and doublets and triplets in case of
alkaline earth metal. AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2003
494. The number of angular and radial nodes of 4d Ans. (c) : According to the quantum mechanics, the plot
orbital respectively are of ψ2 versus distance from the nucleus (r) indicates the
(a) 3, 1 (b) 1, 2 probability of an electron in a certain volume of space is
(c) 3, 0 (d) 2, 1 the plot of the probability density. It explains a method
AP EAMCET (Engg.) -2014 for estimating an electrons probability at a certain
location. This amputation generates a quantity called an
Ans. (d) : For 4d subshell, n=4, l = 2 electron may be found in a certain region at a certain
No. of angular nodes =l = 2 place. Hence, the electron probability function is
Number of radial nodes = n–l – 1⇒ 4–2–1=1 4 πr 2 dr ψ 2 .
496. An electron having spin quantum number, s =
–1/2 and magnetic quantum number, m=+3 can 500. The number of radial nodes in 3s and 2p
be present in orbitals, respectively are
(a) both s-orbital and p-orbital (a) 2 ; 2 (b) 2 ; 0
(b) p-orbital only (c) 0 ; 0 (d) 3 ; 2
(c) f-orbital only TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 06.08.2021
(d) both d-orbital and f-orbital Ans. (b): No. of radial node = n – l – 1
COMEDK-2012 n = Principle quantum number
Ans. (c) : For f-orbital, l=3; m= –l to +l l = Azimuthal quantum number
i.e., –3 to +3 The value of l are–
497. Which one of the following sets of quantum l =012 3
s p d f
numbers represents the highest energy level in For 3s, No. of radial node = 3 – 0 – 1
an atom? =2
1 For 2p, No. of radial node = 2 – 1 – 1
(a) n=4, l=0, m=0, s = +
2 =0
501. The orbital with 4 radial and 1 angular nodes Ans. (c): For 4p electron n=4, l=1, m=1, 0+1
is
1
(a) 5py (b) 6pz ms =−+ As l = 1, m cannot be equal to 2.
(c) 4dxy (d) 5dyz 2
TS EAMCET 05.08.2021, Shift-I Therefore set of quantum number is not possible.
Ans. (b) : Radial nodes = n –l– 1 505. In the electronic configuration of which of the
Angular node = l given elements, ‘Aufbau principle’ or ( n+l )
where, n = Principle quantum number. rule is violated ?
l = Azimuthal quantum number. (a) Mn (b) Ga
For 5py, n = 5, l = 1 (c) La (d) Pu
Radial node = 5 – 1 – 1 = 3 AP EAPCET 24.08.2021 Shift-II
Angular node = 1 Ans. (c) : Aufbau principle states that the electrons are
For 6pz, n = 6, l = 1 filled into an atomic orbital in the increasing order of
Radial node = 6 – 1 – 1 = 4 orbital energy level.
Angular node = 1 Therefore La electronic configuration of the elements
violated the Aufbau principle rule because La is
For 4dxy, n = 4, l = 2 lanthanoid element.
Radial node = 4 – 2 – 1 = 1
506. With increasing Principal Quantum number,
Angular node = 2
the energy difference between adjacent energy
For 5dyz, n = 5, l = 2 levels in H-atom______
Radial node = 5 – 2 – 1 = 2 (a) Decreases
Angular node = 2 (b) Increases
Hence, the orbital node 4 radial and 1 angular nodes is (c) remain constant
6pz. (d) decreases at low level of 'n' & increases for
502. The orbital having two radial as well as two higher value of 'n'
angular nodes is: AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-II
(a) 3p (b) 4d Ans. (a): With increasing principle Quantum number,
(c) 4f (d) 5d the energy difference between adjacent energy levels in
JEE Main 26.02.2021, Shift-I H-atom is decreases.
Ans. (d) : Angular node = l 507. The maximum number of electrons, present in
Where, l = azimuthal quantum number an orbit that is represented by azimuthal
quantum number (l) = 3, will be
Angular Radial (a) 8 (b) 2
Orbital
node(l ) node(n - l -1) (c) 14 (d) 6
5d 2 2 AIIMS-1996
Ans. (c): l=3 corresponds to f-orbitals. Since there are
4f 3 0 seven f-orbitals and each orbital accommodates 2
3f 1 1 electrons, So maximum number of electrons is 14.
4d 2 1 508. What is maximum wavelength of line of
Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum?
503. Which of the following elements outermost (R=1.09×107m−1)
orbit's last electron has magnetic quantum
(a) 400 nm (b) 654 nm
number m = 0?
(c) 486 nm (d) 434 nm
(a) Na (b) O
AIIMS-26 May, 2018
(c) Cl (d) N
AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Evening) Ans. (b): For maximum wavelength in the Balmer
2 2 6 1 series energy difference is lowest.
Ans. (a) : Na 11Na=1s 2s 2p 3s
For last electron, l=0, m=0  1 1 
Thus, v = R × Z2  2 − 2  , n 2 = 3and n1 = 2
504. Which one of the following set of quantum  n n 2 
numbers is not possible for 4p electron? 1  1 1
1 ∴ = 1.09 × 107 × 12  2 − 2 
(a) n = 4, l =1, m = –1, ms = + λ 2 3 
2
1  1 1
1 ⇒ = 1.09 ×107 × 1 − 
(b) n = 4, l =1, m = 0, ms = + λ 4 9
2
1  5
(c) n = 4, l =1, m = 2, ms = + ⇒ 1.09 × 107 ×1 
2  36 
1 36
(d) n = 4, l =1, m = –1, ms = – ⇒λ=
2 5 × 1.09 ×107m
AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Evening) ⇒ 6.60×10 -7
m⇒660 nm
509. Which transition in the hydrogen atomic Ans. (a): According to Aufbau's principle, the filling
spectrum will have the same wavelength as the of electrons in various subshells of an atom takes
transition, n=4 to n=2 of He+ spectrum? place in the increasing order of energy, starting with
(a) n=4 to n= 3 (b) n=3 to n= 2 the lowermost.
(c) n=4 to n= 2 (d) n=2 to n= 1 According to the Bohr–Bury rule i.e. (n+l) sum rule,
AIIMS-2016 the sub shell with the lower value of (n+l) is filled
first if the values for (n+l) are equal, the one with the
1  1 1  smaller value of n is filled first.
Ans. (d): Q = z 2 .R  2 − 2 
λ  n1 n2  n l (n+l)
∴ For He ion, z=2
+
(i) 4 1 5
1 1 1 (ii) 4 0 4
= 22 R  2 − 2 
λ 2 4  (iii) 3 2 5
1 3 3 (iv) 3 1 4
= 4× R × = R So, the correct order is iv < ii < iii < i.
λ 16 4
The same value for H-atom is possible when electron 513. Azimuthal quantum number defines
jumps from n=2 to n=1 i.e. (a) e/m ratio of electron
1 1 1  3 (b) angular momentum of electron
= 1× R  −  ⇒ R (c) spin of electron
λ 1 4  4
(d) magnetic momentum of electron
510. In Bohr series of lines of hydrogen spectrum,
AIIMS-2002
the third line from the red end corresponds to
which one of the following inter- orbit jumps of Ans. (b): Generally azimuthal quantum number defines
the electron for Bohr orbits in an atom of angular momentum.
hydrogen 514. The quantum number 'm' of a free gaseous
(a) 5→2 (b) 4 →1 atom is associated with:
(c) 2→5 (d) 3→2 (a) the effective volume of the orbital
AIIMS-2017 (b) the shape of the orbital
Ans. (a): In hydrogen spectrum coloured radiaton (c) the spatial orientation of the orbital
means visible radiation corresponds to Balmer series. (d) the energy of the orbital in the absence of a
(n1=2, n2=3, 4…….) magnetic field
AIIMS-1998
Ans. (c): Magnetic quantum number m is associated
with spatial orientation of the orbital. It is also called
orientation quantum number because it gives the
orientation or distribution of the electron clouds.
515. For principle quantum number n=4, the total
number of orbitals having l=3 is:
nd (a) 3 (b) 7
2 line from the red end, it means 5→2
(c) 5 (d) 9
511. Which of the following combinations of AIIMS-2004
quantum numbers is allowed?
Ans. (b): For n=4, l =3 (f–subshell), number of values
ms 1
(a) n l m (b) 2 0 0 − of m=2l+1=7 values
3 2 1 0 2 ⇒ Number of orbitals in f-subshell is 7
1 1 516. Quantum numbers of an atom can be defined
(c) 3 −3 −2 + (d) 1 0 1 +
2 2 on the basis of
AIIMS-2013 (a) Hund's rule
Ans. (b): (a) is allowed as s cannot be zero (b) Pauli's exclusion principle
(c) is not allowed as l cannot be –3 because l can be any (c) Aufbau's principle
whole number from 0 to n–1 and it cannot be n. (d) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
(d) is not allowed as for l=o and m cannot be =1 AIIMS-2002
512. The electrons identified by quantum numbers n Ans. (b): Each electron in an atom is designated by a
and l for (i) n=4, l=1(ii) n=4, l=0(iii) set of four quantum numbers. According to pauli's
n=3,l=2(iv)n=3,l=1 can be placed in order of exclusion principle, no two electron in an atom have
increasing energy, from the lowest to highest, same values of all the four quantum numbers. Therefore
as consequently, an orbital accommodates two electron
(a) (iv)<(ii)<(iii)<(i) (b) (ii)<(iv)<(i)<(iii) with opposite spins, these two electron have the same
(c) (i)<(iii)<(ii)<(iv) (d) (iii)<(i)<(iv)<(ii) value of quantum number 'n' , 'l' , and 'm' but value of 's'
AIIMS-2014 will be different.

517. The total number of orbitals in a shell with (a) K (b) Ti
principal quantum number 'n' is: (c) Na (d) Sc
(a) n2 (b) n+1
(c) 2n (d) 2n2
AIIMS-1997 Ans. (a) : The four quantum number are given as –
Ans. (a): No. of orbital in a shell =n2. n=4
518. In an atom the order of increasing energy of l=0
electrons with quantum numbers m=0
(i) n = 4, l = 1 (ii) n = 4, l = 0 1
and s = +
(iii) n = 3, l = 2 and (iv) n = 3, l = 1 is 2
(a) iii < (i) < iv < ii (b) ii < iv < i < iii The value of principle quantum number is 4, it means
(c) i < iii < ii < iv (d) iv < ii < iii < i that elements belongs to the fourth period. The value of
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) - 2014 azimuthal quantum number is 0 that means electron
Ans. (d) : The order of increase of energy can be present at s-orbital. m = 0 indicates that the valence
calculated from (n + l) rule. If two orbitals have same electron is present in orbital of s-subshell. The value of
value of (n + l), the orbital with lover value of n will be s denote the orientation of electron. Hence, from the
filled first. above data, it is clear that atom belongs to s-block and
(i) For n = 4, l = 1, (n + l) = 4+1 = 5 the name of metal is K.
(ii) For n = 4, l = 0, (n + l) = 4+0 = 4 522. The number of radial nodes of 3s and 2p
(iii) For n = 3, l = 2, (n + l) = 3+2 = 5 orbitals respectively are
(iv) For n = 3, l = 1, (n + l) = 3+1 = 4
(a) 0, 2 (b) 2, 0
So, the order is (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i)
(c) 1, 2 (d) 2, 1
519. The number of angular and radial nodes of 4d
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) 2013
orbital respectively are
(a) 3, 1 (b) 1, 2 Ans. (b) Number of radial nodes = n − l − 1
(c) 3, 0 (d) 2, 1 Where n = no. of principle quantum number.
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) - 2014 l = Azimuthal quantum number.
Ans. (d) : Number of radial node = n – l – 1 For 3s For 2p
Where, n = Principle quantum number n = 3, l = 0 n = 2, l =1
l = Azimuthal quantum number Radial nodes = 3–0–1 Radial nodes =2–1–1
∴ For 4d =2 =0
n = 4, l = 2 The number of radial nodes for 3s and 2p are 2, 0
Radial node = 4 – 2 – 1 = 1 respectively.
Angular node = l = 2
523. With increase in principal quantum number n,
Thus, the number of angular and radial node of 4d the energy difference between adjacent energy
orbital is 2, 1 respectively.
levels in hydrogen atom
520. Which of the following sets of quantum (a) increases
numbers is correct for an electron in 3d-
orbital? (b) decreases
(c) remains constant
1
(a) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 3, s = + (d) decreases for lower values of n and increases
2 for higher values of n
1
(b) n = 3, l = 3, m = + 3, s = – AP - EAMCET(MEDICAL) - 2009
2
Ans. (b) : As we know, the energy difference between
1
(c) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 2, s = + adjacent energy levels is inversely proportional to the
2 principal quantum number, n. Therefore, with increase
1 in n, the energy difference will decrease.
(d) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 3, s = –
2 1 1
∆E ∝  2 − 2 
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) 2015  n1 n 2 
Ans. (c) : An electron for 3d-orbitals–
524. The correct set of quantum numbers for Rb
n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = + ½
(atomic no. 37) is
Note : Azimuthal quantum number of s, p, d and f
orbital is 0, 1, 2 and 3 respectively. 1 1
(a) 5,0,0, − (b) 5,1,0,
521. The values of four quantum numbers of 2 2
valence electron of an element are n = 4, l = 0, 1 1
(c) 6,0,1, (d) 5,1,1,
1 2 2
m = 0 and s = + . The element is :
2 JEE Main-2013

Ans. (a) : The electronic configuration for Rb (37) is (a) 4,3,2,+1/2 (b) 4,2,1,0
Rb (37) (c) 4,3,-2,+1/2 (d) 4,2,1,–1/2
= 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 5s1 AMU-2003
1 Ans. (d) : For 4d electron.
For 5s1, n = 5. l= 0, m = 0, s = n=4, l=2
2
525. How many electrons in 19K have n = 3; l = 0 ? 1
m=–2, –1, 0+1, +2; s= ±
(a) 1 (b) 2 2
(c) 4 (d) 3 532. The nineteenth electron of chromium has
JCECE - 2011 which of the following set of quantum number?
Ans. (b) : n = 3 and l = 0 means 3s-orbitals and s- n l m s
orbital occupy 2 electrons. (a) 3 0 0 ±1/2 (b) 3 2 –2 ±1/2
526. The Balmer series in atomic hydrogen is (c) 4 0 0 ±1/2 (d) 4 1 –1 ±1/2
observed in the following spectral region AMU EXPLORER-2002
(a) infrared (b) ultraviolet Ans. (c) : Atomic number of chromium is 24. The
(c) visible (d) far IR electronic configuration of chromium is 1s2, 2s2, 2p6,
AMU-2014 3s2, 3p6, 4s4, 3d5. The nineteenth electron goes to the 4s
Ans. (c) : Balmer series in atomic hydrogen is observed orbital. The quantum number is illustrated below for 4s
in visible region. orbital.
Note:– Lyman series lies in UV region and paschen ↑
series lies in IR region and bracket and other lies in for
IR region. 4s
Principle quantum number (n) = 4
527. For the 19th electron of K the values of Azimuthal quantum number (l) = 0
quantum number will be
Magnetic quantum number (m) = 0
1 1
(a) 4, 1, 0, + (b) 4, 0, 0, + 1
2 2 Spin quantum number (s) = ±
2
1 1 Hence, the correct option of set of quantum number is 0.
(c) 3, 2, 0, + (d) 3, 0, 0, +
2 2 533. The ion that is isoelectronic with CO is
AMU-2010
(a) O −2 (b) N +2
Ans. (b) : 19K → 1S2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1
Values of quantum number - (c) CN– (d) O +2
1 Assam CEE-2018
n=4, I = 0, m = 0 and s= + UP CPMT-2012
2
528. An electron with values 4,1,0 and +1/2 for the JCECE - 2006
set of four quantum numbers n, l, ml and ms J & K CET-(1998)
respectively, belongs to NEET-1997
(a) 4s - orbital (b) 4p - orbital Ans. (c) : Number of electrons in
(c) 4d- orbital (d) 4f- orbital CO = 6+8=14
–
AMU-2006 CN = 6+7+1=14
+
Ans. (b) : n = 4, l = 1 indicates 4p orbital. N 2 = 7+7–1=13
529. An electron with values 4, 2,–2 and +1/2 for the N 22− = 7+7+2=16
set of four quantum numbers n, l, ml and ms,
respectively, belongs to NO = 7+8+1=16
–
(a) 4s-orbital (b) 4p-orbital CO is isoelectronic with CN because both species have
(c) 4d-orbital (d) 4f-orbital same number of electrons.
AMU-2005 Isoelcetronic species refers to the species which have
same number of electrons.
Ans. (c) : The value of ‘n’ and ‘ l ’ equal to 4 and 3
CN–1 is isoelectronic with CO, both loose 14 electron.
respectively, corresponds to 4f–orbital, hence the
electron will belong to 4f–orbital. 534. Which of the following is not possible?
530. For l = 1, the correct set of values of m are (a) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0 (b) n = 2, l = 0, m = −1
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 0, 1, 2 (c) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0 (d) n = 3, l = 1, m = −1
(c) 0 (d) -1, 0, +1 BCECE-2007
AMU-2004 Ans. (b) : (a) n=2, l =1, m=0, it is possible
Ans. (d) : For l =1 (b) n=2, l =0, m=–1, it is not possible because, if l =0,
m = – 1,0,+ 1[ m = – l,.......0,.....+ l ] m must be 0. The value of m totally depends on upon
531. Which of the following represents correct set of the value of l (m= – l to l )
the four quantum numbers ( n, l, m and s, (c) n=3, l =0, m= –0, it is possible
respectively) of a 4d electron? (d) n=3, l =1, m= –1, it is possible
535. In n = 3, l = 0 and m = 0, then atomic number 540. An e– has magnetic quantum number as –3,
is : what is its principal quantum number?
(a) 12 or 13 (b) 13 or 14 (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 10 or 11 (d) 11 or 12 (c) 3 (d) 4
BCECE-2004 BITSAT 2016
Ans. (d) : When m = –3, l = 3, ∴ n = 4.
Ans. (d) : n=3, l =0, m=0 indicates last shell is 3s so,
electronic configuration will be 1s22s2 2p6 3s1-2 541. Which of the following sequences of the energy
So atomic number is 11 or 12. levels of the subshells related to principal
536. The correct set of four quantum number for quantum number four (n=4)?
the valence electron of rubidium (Z = 37) is : (a) s < p < d < f (b) s < d < p < f
(a) n = 5, l = 0, m = 0, s = + 1/2 (c) s < f < p < d (d) p < s < d < f
(b) n = 5, l = 1, m = 1, s = + 1/2 CG PET -2008
(c) n = 5, l = 1, m = 1, s = + 1/2 Ans. (a): The sequence of energies of the sub shells is
(d) n = 6, l = 0, m = 0, s = + 1/2 compassed of using m + l rule where 'n' is principle
quantum and 'l' is azimuthal quantum no. for same
BCECE-2003
value of 'n' higher value of l have higher energy.
Ans. (a) : Electronic configuration of rubidium (z=37)
is [Kr]36 5s1 So,
s<p<d<f
∴ for valence electron (5s1) 542. Four different sets of quantum numbers for 4
1 electrons are given below
n=5, l =0, m=0, s =
2 1 1
e1 = 4, 0, 0, − e 2 = 3,1,1, −
537. Azimuthal quantum number determines the 2 2
(a) size 1 1
(b) spin e3 = 3, 2, 2, + e 4 = 3, 0, 0, +
2 2
(c) orientation
The order of energy of e1 ,e 2 ,e 3 ,e4 is
(d) angular momentum of orbitals
BCECE-2011 (a) e1 > e 2 > e3 > e 4 (b) e 4 > e3 > e 2 > e1
h (c) e3 > e1 > e 2 > e 4 (d) e 2 > e3 > e 4 > e1
Ans. (d) : Angular momentum of orbital = l ( l +1) CG PET- 2013
2π
538. What is the correct orbital designation of an Ans. (c) : Higher (n+l) value higher is the energy and
electron with the quantum number, for same (n+l) value higher n, higher will the energy.
Thus, e3 > e1 > e2 > e4
1
n = 4, l = 3,m = −2,s = ? 543. 2p orbitals have
2 (a) n = 1, l = 2 (b) n = 1, l = 0
(a) 3s (b) 4f
(c) 5p (d) 6s (c) n = 2, l = 1 (d) n = 2, l = 0
BCECE-2010 CG PET -2004
th Ans. (c) : In 2 p-orbital , 2 denotes principle quantum
Ans. (b) : n=4 represent 4 orbit
l =3 represent f subshell number (n=2) and p denotes azimuthal quantum number
m= –2 represent orientation of f–orbital (l=1).
544. Which of the ions having following electronic
1
s= represents direction of spin of electron structure would have maximum magnetic
2 moment?
∴ the orbital is 4f. (a) 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p 6 ,3s 2 3p 6 3d 3
539. The correct set of quantum numbers for an
(b) 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p 6 ,3s 2 3p 6 3d 5
element (Z = 17) for the unpaired electron will
be – (c) 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p 6 ,3s 2 3p 6 3d 7
(a) 3,1,1, ±1/ 2 (b) 2, 0, 0, ±1/ 2 (d) 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p 6 ,3s 2 3p 6 3d 9
(c) 3, 0, 0, ±1/ 2 (d) 2,1,1,0
CG PET -2005
BCECE-2017
Ans. (a): Electronic configuration of (Z=17) 1s2, 2s2, Ans. (b) : Magnetic moment = n ( n + 2 ) , where n is
2p6, 3s2, 3p5 unpaired electron is present in 3p–orbital no. of unpaired electrons.
that can be shown as Higher the number of unpaired electrons, higher is the
magnetic moment.
Number of unpaired electrons are maximum in option b
(5 unpaired electrons).
1 Option a and c :3 unpaired electrons
Thus, for 3p, n=3, l=1, m= ± 1, s= ±
2 Option d : 1 unpaired electrons.
545. A particle of mass nearly equal to proton is Ans. (a):
moving with a velocity nearly equal to the Electronic configuration of Rubidium is (Z = 37)
velocity of light. The wavelength of wave = 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s1
associated with it is
The valence electron is in 5s orbital
(a) directly proportional to its velocity
(b) inversely proportional to its energy 1
Its 4 quantum number are- n = 5, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
(c) (a) is wrong while (b) is correct 2
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct 549. The number of orbitals associated with
CG PET -2018 1
quantum number n = 5, m s = + is
Ans. (a) : 2
1 (a) 25 (b) 50
m v2 (c) 15 (d) 11
λ1 m 2 v 2 2 2 2 v1 K.E.1 v1
= = = = [JEE Main 2020, 7 Jan Shift-I]
λ 2 m1v1 1 m v 2 v 2 K.E 2 v 2
2
1 1 Ans. (a) : Total no. of electrons in n=5 are 2n2 i.e 2×52
As K.E1 =K.E2 =50
λ v +1 50
∴ 1 = 1 or λ × v Thus electrons having, ms = = = 25 which is
λ2 v2 2 2
equal to no. of orbitals.
546. A particle moving with a velocity 106 m/s will
550. The quantum number of four electrons are
have de-Broglie wavelength nearly
given below:
[Given, m = 6.62 × 10–27 kg, h = 6.62 × 10–34 J-s]
1
(a) 10–9 m (b) 10–13 m I. n = 4, l = 2, m1 = –2, ms = −
(c) 10 m–19
(d) 1 Å 2
1
CG PET -2009 II. n = 3, l = 2, m1 = 1, ms = +
Ans. (b): Given, 2
Velocity of particle =106 m/s 1
III. n = 4, l = 1, m1 = 0, ms = +
mass =6.62×10-27 kg 2
Plancks constant (h)=6.62×10-34 JS–1 1
IV. n = 3, l = 1, m1 = 1, ms = −
h 2
According to de-broglie wavelength λ =
p The correct order of their increasing energies
h will be
or = [∴ p = mv ] (a) IV < III < II < 1 (b) I < II < III < IV
mv (c) IV < II < III < I (d) I < III < II < IV
6.62 × 10−34 [JEE Main 2019, 8 April Shift-I]
λ= = 10−13 m
6.62 × 10−27 ×106 Ans. (c) : Smaller the value of (n+l), smaller the energy
547. From the given sets of quantum numbers, the if two or more sub-orbits have same values of (n+ l)
one that is inconsistent with the theory is suborbits with lower values of n has lower energy. The
1 (n+ l) value of the given option are as follows:
(a) n = 3, l = 2, m = −3,s = + (I) n=4, l =2; n + l =6
2
1 (II) n=3, l =2; n + l =5
(b) n = 4, l = 3, m = 3,s = + (III) n=4, l =1; n + l =5
2
(IV) n=3, l =1; n + l =4
1
(c) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0,s = − Among (II) and (III) n=3 has lower energy. Thus the
2 correct order of their increasing energies will be IV < II
1 < III < I
(d) n = 4, l = 3, m = 2,s = +
2 551. The number of subshells associated with n = 4
CG PET- 2010 and m = –2 quantum number is
Ans. (a) : When l=2, m≠–3 (a) 8 (b) 2
548. The correct set of four quantum number for (c) 16 (d) 4
the valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z = 37) [JEE Main 2020, 2 Sep Shift-II]
is Ans. (b) : For m=-2, it represent 2 subs hells.
1 1 552. The value of magnetic quantum number of the
(a) 5,0,0, + (b) 5,1,0, +
2 2 outermost electron of Zn+ ion is
1 1 [JEE Main 2021, 31 Aug Shift-II]
(c) 5,1,1, + (d) 5,0,1, +
2 2 Ans. (0) : Zn+ →1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1
[JEE Main 2014] outermost electron is in 4s subshell m=0.

553. The figure that is not a direct manifestation of Ans. (a) : The electronic configuration of Cu in ground
the quantum nature of atoms is state [Ar] 3d10 4s1
Hence, for outermost subshell, n=4 , l=0
1
(a) ml=0 and ms =+
2
556. The total number of orbitals associated with
the principal quantum number n = 3, is
(a) 9 (b) 8
(c) 5 (d) 7
J & K CET-(2014)
Ans. (a) : by using the relation, no of orbital's
(b) =n2=(3)2=9.
557. How many quantum numbers are required to
define the electron in an atom?
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 1 (d) 4
J & K CET-(2019)
Ans. (d) : Four quantum numbers (principal quantum
(c) number, azimuthal quantum number, magnetic quantum
number and spin quantum number) are required to
define or electron in an atom.
558. The electrons identified by quantum numbers n
and l, (i) n = 4, l = 1 (ii) n = 4, l = 0 (iii) n = 3, l =
2 and (iv) n = 3, l = 1 can be placed in order of
increasing energy as
(a) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)
(b) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)
(d) (c) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i)
(d) (iv) < (i) < (ii) < (iii)
J & K CET-(2011)
Ans. (c) : j
[JEE Main 2020, 2 Sep Shift-I]
n l nl sub orbit n+l
Ans. (c) : The internal energy of 'Ar' or any gas has
nothing to do with quantum nature of atom hence, 4 1 4p 5
4 0 4s 4
3 2 3d 5
3 1 3p 4
Higher the value of (n + l), higher the energy if (n + l)
are same, sub orbit with lower value of n has lower
energy.
554. Maximum number of electrons in a shell Thus, 3p < 4s < 3d < 4p
principle quantum number n is given by Hence, correct order is (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i)
(a) n (b) 2n
(c) n2 (d) 2n2 559. Out of the following which is the correct set of
J & K CET-(2012) quantum numbers for outermost electron of
potassium (Z= 19)?
Ans. (d) : The maximum number of electrons that can
n l m s
be present in a shell is 2n2. Where n corresponds to a
shell this was stated by Pauli exclusion principle. (a) 4 3 2 –1/2
(b) 4 2 0 –1/2
555. The correct set of four quantum numbers for
the electron in the outermost subshell of Cu (c) 4 1 0 +1/2
atom (atomic number 29) in its ground state, is (d) 4 0 0 –1/2
n l ml ms J & K CET-(2010)
(a) 4 0 0 +1/2 Ans. (d) : Ans. (d) : K (z=19):[Ar]18 4s1
(b) 3 0 0 +1/2 Outermost electron :4s1
(c) 4 1 0 +1/2 1 −1
(d) 3 1 +1 +1/2 n=4, l =0, m=0, s=+ or .
J & K CET-(2016) 2 2
560. The number electrons accommodated in an Ans. (d) : n = 4, l = 3
orbit with principal quantum number 2 is l=0 for s sub-shell
(a) 2 (b) 6 l=1 for p subshell
(c) 10 (d) 8 l=2 for d subshell
J & K CET-(2007) l=3 for f subshell
Ans. (d) : The number of electrons =2n2 ∴ 4f
Where n = principal quantum number. For n =2 565. Which of the following quantum numbers
Number of electrons = 2(2)2 =8 distinguishes the two electrons present in an
561. The correct set of the four quantum numbers orbital from each other?
of a 4d electron is (a) principal quantum number
(a) 4, 2, 1, –1/2 (b) 4, 2, 1, 0 (b) azimuthal quantum number
(c) 4, 3, 2, +1/2 (d) 4, 3, –2, +1/2 (c) spin quantum number
J & K CET-(2005) (d) none of these
Ans. (a) : For 4d arbitral J & K CET-(1999)
Principal quantum Number (n) = 4 Ans. (c) : Spin quantum of any two electrons in an
Azimuthal quantum number (l) –2 (For d-subshell l=2) orbital cannot be same. If one has a value +1/2 other
Magnetic quantum number (m) can have values ranging have –1/2.
from –l to +l i.e –2 to +2 +1 1
,
Spin quantum number (s) has only two values 2 2
1 1 e.g. for 1s2
+ and −
2 2 566. The correct set of quantum numbers for the
562. The total number of orbital's possible for unpaired electron of chlorine atom is
principal quantum number n is (Atomic No. of Cl = 17 i.e. 3s2, 3p5)
(a) n (b) n2 N l m
(c) 2n (d) 2n2 (a) 3 1 0
J & K CET-(2004) (b) 3 0 1
Ans. (b) : The total number of orbital is a shell is n2 the (c) 3 1 1
principal quantum number (symbolized) is one of four (d) 3 0 0
quantum number assigned to each electron in an atom to J & K CET-(1999)
describe that electron is state. The total number of Ans. (c) : The correct set of quantum number for the
orbital possible for principal quantum n is n2. unpaired electron of chlorine atom is
563. The electrons identified by quantum numbers n = 3, l = 1 and m = 0.1
(i) n = 4, l = 1 (ii) n = 4, l = 0 For chlorine atom (Z = 17) the last
(iii) n = 3, l = 2 (iv) n = 2, l = 1 Electron enters into 3p orbital for which
Can be placed in order of increasing energy from 1
the lowest to highest as n = 3, l = 1, m = –1, 0 or + 1 and s = ±
2
(a) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i)
567. The maximum number of electrons in all those
(b) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii) orbitals for which principal quantum number
(c) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) is 3 and azimuthal quantum number 2, is
(d) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii) (a) 2 (b) 8
J & K CET-(2003) (c) 10 (d) 18
Ans. (a) : According to Aufbau's principle the filling of J & K CET-(1997)
electrons in Various subshells of an atom takes place in Ans. (c) : Principal quantum number, n = 3, azimuthal
the increasing under of energy starting with lowest most. quantum ; l = 2,
According to the Bohr Bury rule i.e (n + l)Sum rule, the Hence, for l = 2, it is d – subshell.
sub-shell with the lowest value of (n + l) if filled first. If d – Subshell has 5 degenrate orbitals and 1 orbital
the values for (n + l) are equal, the one with the smaller contain maximum 2 electron
value of n is filled first.
Hence, 5 orbital contain maximum 2 × 5 = 10 electron.
N l (n + l)
568. Which of the following has highest energy?
i. 4 1 5 (a) n = 2, l = 1 (b) n = 3, l = 2
ii. 4 0 4 (c) n = 3, l = 1 (d) n = 2, l = 0
iii. 3 2 5 JCECE - 2006
iv. 3 1 4 Ans. (b) : Energy is highest in the outermost shell
The correct order is iv < ii < iii < i n = 2, l = 1 = 2p
564. n = 4 and l = 3 is designated as n = 3, l = 2 = 3d
(a) 4s (b) 4p n = 3, l = 1 = 3p
(c) 4d (d) 4f n = 2, l = 0 =2s
J & K CET-(1999) According to Dufbaus principle 3d has highest energy.

569. The shape of the orbital with the value of l =2 1
and m = 0 is (c) 5 3 0 –
2
(a) spherical (b) dumb-bell
1
(c) trigonal planar (d) square-planar (d) 3 2 –2
JCECE - 2009 2
JIPMER-2017
Ans. (b) : s p d f
l = 0, 1 2 3d – Orbital is Ans. (a) : For each value of n, l = n –1 (max) and for
double dumb-bell shaped. each value of 1.
m = 1 to + 1
570. The electron, identified by quantum numbers n
Thus, for 1 = 2, m = –2, –1, 0, 1, 2 and m = –3
and l, (i) n = 4, l = 1 (ii) n = 4, l = 0 (iii) n = 3, l =
2 (iv) n = 3, l = 1 can be placed in order of 574. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of
increasing energy, from the lowest to highest, an atom determined by the following?
as (a) 4l + 2 (b) 2n2
(a) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i) (c) 4l – 2 (d) 2l +1
(b) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii) JIPMER-2013
(c) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iii) Ans. (a) : For a given shell, l the number of subshells,
m1 = (2l + 1) since each subshell can accommodate 2
(d) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii) electrons of opposite spin,
JCECE - 2014 So, maximum number of electrons in a subshell = 2 (2l
Ans. (a) : (i) 4p (ii) 4s (iii) 3d (iv) 3p. + 1) = 4 l + 2.
According to Aufbau rule, order of increasing energy is 575. If magnetic quantum number of a given atom
3p < 4s < 3d < 4p. represented by 3, then what will be its principal
571. The orbital angular momentum of an electron quantum number?
is 2s orbital is (a) 2 (b) 3
1 h (c) 4 (d) 5
(a) + ⋅ (b) zero
2 2π JIPMER-2006
h h Ans. (c) : If the magnetic quantum number of a given
(c) (d) 2 ⋅ atom is represented by –3, then its principal quantum
2π 2π
JCECE - 2015 number will be 4.
For a given value of l,
Ans. (b) : Orbital angular momentum
m = –l, ……..0 …… + l when
h
= l ( l + 1) = 0 (Q for 2s-electron, l = 0) m = –3, l = 3
2π For given value of n , l
572. The electrons identified by quantum numbers n Can have values from 0 to n –1 when
and l, are as follows l = 3, n = 4, So that
I. n = 4, l = 1 II. n = 4, l = 0 n = –1, –4 –1 = 3
III. n = 3, l = 2 IV. n = 3, l = 1 576. Number of orbitals in L energy level
If we arrange them in order of increasing (a) 1 (b) 2
energy, i.e. from lowest to highest, the correct (c) 3 (d) 4
order is JIPMER-2005
(a) IV < II < III < I (b) II < IV < I < III
Ans. (d) : It is second energy level. Second energy level
(c) I < III < II < IV (d) III < I < IV < II
contains one s-orbital and three P orbitals. Therefore
JIPMER-2017 total number of orbital in L level is four.
Ans. (a) : (i) More be the sum of n + 1 → more be the 577. The shape of an orbital is determined by
energy
(a) n (b) l
(ii) Same sum, the more value of n have higher energy.
(c) m (d) s
∴ n + 1 for → JIPMER-2004
(i) 4 + 1 = 5 (ii) 4+0=4
Ans. (b) : The azimuthal quantum number (l)
(iii) 3 + 2 = 5 (iv) 3+1=4
determines the shape of an orbital.
Order is (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i).
For l = 0 (spherical, s)
573. Among the following set of quantum numbers, l = l (dumb-shape)
the impossible set is
578. Azimuthal quantum number (l) defined
n l m s
(a) shape of orbitals
1
(a) 3 2 –3 – (b) orientation of orbitals
2 (c) energy of orbitals
1 (d) size of orbitals
(b) 4 0 0
2 JIPMER-2019
Ans.(a) : The azimuthal quantum number (l) determines Ans. (c) : As the electronic configuration of Na is :
the shape of an orbital Is2 2s2 2p6 3s1
l = 0 (sperical, s) So, the outermost electron is 3s1 therefore quantum
l = 1 (dumb – bell, p) etc. 1
numbers for 3s’:3,0, 0, .
579. The correct set of quantum number for the 2
unpaired electrons of chlorine atom is 583. The set of quantum numbers for the outermost
1 1 electron for copper in its ground state is
(a) 2, 1, – 1, + (b) 2, 0, 0, +
2 2 1 1
(a) 4, 1, 1, + (b) 3, 2, 2, +
1 1 2 2
(c) 3,1,1, ± (d) 3,0, 0, ±
2 2 1 1
Karnataka-CET-2017 (c) 4, 0, 0, + (d) 4, 2, 2, +
2 2
Ans. (c) : The correct set of quantum number of the Karnataka-CET, 2010
unpaired electron of chlorine atom is Ans. (c) : The electronic configuration of the Cu atom
1 is
3, 1, 1, ± 10 1
2 29Cu = [Ar] 3d 4s
For chlorine atom ( Z = 17 ) the last electron enters into Since, the outermost shell is 4s, thus outermost electron
3p orbital for is in it.
Which n = 3, l = 1, m = –1, 0 For 4s1,
+1 1
or + 1 and. s = . n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
2 2
580. Consider the following sets of quantum 584. The correct set of four quantum number for
numbers. Which of the following setting in not outermost electron of potassium (Z = 19) is
permissible arrangement of electrons in an 1 1
atom? (a) 4, 1, 0, (b) 3, 1, 0,
n l m s 2 2
1 1 1
(a) 4 0 0 − (c) 4, 0, 0, (d) 3, 0, 0,
2 2 2
Karnataka-CET, 2009
1
(b) 5 3 0 + Ans. (c) : K (19) : 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p6, 4s1
2 4s1 is the valence electron is potassium, hence the correct set
1 1
(c) 3 2 –2 − of four quantum numbers for outermost electron is 4, 0, 0, .
2 2
1 585. When the azimuthal quantum number has the
(d) 3 2 –3 +
2 value of 2, the number of orbitals possible are
Karnataka-CET-2016 (a) 7 (b) 5
Ans. (d) : For a given value of ‘l’ the permission (c) 3 (d) 0
permissible value of ‘m’ are –l, – (l –1) …. 0….. (l–1) l Karnataka-CET, 2008
Thus for l = 2, m cannot have a value of –3. Ans. (b) : Given, azimuthal quantum number (l) = 2
581. The two electrons have the following set of Number of orbitals = (2l + 1)
quantum number, P = 3, 2, –2 + 1/2, Q = 3, 0, 0 = (2 × 2 + 1) = 4 + 1 = 5
+ 1/2 586. The number of angular and radial nodes in 3p
Which of the following statement is true? orbital respectively are
(a) P and Q have same energy (a) 3, 1 (b) 1, 1
(b) P has greater energy than Q (c) 2, 1 (d) 2, 3
(c) P has lesser energy than Q Kerala-CEE-29.08.2021
(d) P and Q represent same electron Karnataka-CET-2021
Karnataka-CET-2015
Ans. (b) : For angular node = l
Ans. (b) : P has greater energy than Q as the l value P is
greater than Q and the energy is give by ( n + l ) value. and Radial node = n – l – 1
582. The correct set of four quantum numbers for Where, n = Principle quantum no.
the outermost electron of sodium (Z = 11) is l = Azimuthal quantum no.
1 1 For 3p orbitals the value of l for p-orbital is 1
(a) 3, 1, 1, (b) 3, 2, 1,
2 2 ∴ No. of angular node (l) = 1
1 1 and No. of radial nodes = n – l –1 = 3 – 1 – 1 = 1
(c) 3, 0, 0, (d) 3, 1, 0,
2 2 587. The electrons, identified by quantum number n
Karnataka-CET-2012 and l,

(I) n = 3; l = 2 n =5; l = 0 (III) n = 4; l =1 (IV) n n =1 l=0 m=0 s
= 4; l = 2 (V) n = 4; l = 0
can be placed in order of increasing energy, as n=2 l = 0,1 m = 0, ±1 s and p
(a) I < V < III < IV < II n=3 l = 0.1, 2 m = 0, ±1, ±2 s, pand d
(b) I < V < III < II < IV
592. Which of the following sets of quantum
(c) V < I < III < II < IV
numbers is impossible arrangement?
(d) V < I < II < IIII < IV
(e) V < I < IV < III < II 1
(a) n = 3, m = –2, s = +
Kerala-CEE-2009 2
Ans. (d) (i) n = 3, l = 2 ⇒ 3d 1
(ii) n = 5, l = 0 ⇒ 5s (b) n = 4, m = 3, s = +
2
(iii) n = 4, l = 1 ⇒ 4p
1
(iv) n = 4, l = 2 ⇒ 4d (c) n = 5, m = 2, s = –
(v) n = 4, l = 0 ⇒ 4s 2
According to Aufbau principle, An electron enters the 1
(d) n = 3, m = – 3 s = –
orbital with lowest energy in order to increasing 2
energies. Manipal-2018
4s < 3d < 4p < 5s < ud
Ans. (d) :
588. Which one of the following set of quantum
numbers is not possible for electron in the ground n = 1, 2, 3, …..
state of an atom with atomic number 19? l = 0, 1, 2, …. (n – 1) ex if
(a) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0 (b) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0 n = 3, l = 0, 1, 2
(c) n = 3, l = 1, m = -1 (d) n = 3, l = 2, m = +2 m = -l to l
(e) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0 −1
Kerala-CEE-2006 s= +1 ,
2 2
Ans. (d) : 19K = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p64s1, l = 2 means
d – subshell which is not present in K. n ≠ m so the following configuration is not possible.
589. The correct set of quantum numbers (n, l and n = 3, m = -3, s = −1
2
m respectively) for the unpaired electron of
chlorine atom is: 593. For f-orbital the values of m are :
(a) 2, 1, 0 (b) 2, 1, 1 (a) –2, –1, 0, +1, +2
(c) 3, 1, 1 (d) 3, 2, 1 (b) –3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3
(e) 3, 2, –1 (c) –1, 0, +1
Kerala-CEE-2004 (d) 0, +1, +2, +3
Ans. (c) Cl (Z = 17) : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2x 3py2 3pz1 Manipal-2017
1s2 2s2 2p 2x 2p1y 2p1z Ans. (b) : For f-orbital , l = 3 thus m lies from -3 to +3
For the unpaired electron Hence m, = -3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2 , +3
n = 3, l = 1, m = –1, 0 or + 1
594. What is the orbital angular momentum of an
590. The number of electrons with azimuthal electron in 'f' orbital?
quantum number l = 1 and l = 2 for Cr in
ground state respectively are 1.5h 6h
(a) (b)
(a) 16, 5 (b) 16, 4 π π
(c) 12, 4 (d) 16, 3
(e) 12, 5 3h 3h
(c) (d)
Kerala-CEE-2015 π 2π
Ans. (e) : Electrons configuration of MHT CET-2014
2 2 6 2 6 1 5
24Cr = 1s 2s sp 3s 3p 4s 3d Ans. (c) : Orbital angular momentum
Given,
h
azimuthal quantum number (l) = 1= p orbital mvr = l (l + 1) for f-orbital
azimuthal quantum number (l) = 2 = d orbital 2π
So, number of electrons in p– orbital l=3
⇒ 12 and number of electrons in d–orbital = 5. ∴Orbital angular momentum
591. The magnetic quantum number for d-orbital is
h 3h
given by : mvr = 3(3 + 1) =
(a) 2 (b) 0, ±1, ±2 2π π
(c) 0, 1, 2 (d) 5 3h
Manipal-2019 =
π
Ans. (b) :

595. The maximum number of electrons in a 600. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of
subshell is given by the expression an atom is determined by the following
(a) 4l – 2 (b) 4l + 2 (a) 2l+1 (b) 4l –2
(c) 2l + 2 (d) 2n2 (c) 2n2 (d) 4l +2
NEET-1989 NEET-2009
Ans. (b) : For an azimuthal quantum number l there are Ans. (d) : For a given shell l,
2l + 1 orbitals in a subshell since, each orbital can the number of subshells. m1 = (2l + 1)
accommodate two electrons of opposite spin, the Since each subshell can accommodate 2 electrons of
maximum number of electrons in a subshell is given by opposite spin, so maximum number of electrons in a
2 × (2l + 1) = 4l + 2 subshell
596. The total number of electrons that can be ⇒ 2(2l + 1) = 4l + 2.
accommodated in all the orbitals having 601. Which of the following is not permissible
principal quantum number 2 and azimuthal arrangement of electrons in an atom?
quantum number 1 are (a) n = 5, l = 2, m = 0, s + 1/2
(a) 2 (b) 4 (b) n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s + 1/2
(c) 6 (d) 8 (c) n = 3, l = 3, m = 0, s + 1/2
NEET-1990 (d) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = -1/2
Ans. (c) : When n = 2 and l = 1 then subshell is 2p the NEET-2009
number of orbital’s in p-subshell. Ans. (c) : If n = 3
⇒ (2l + 1 ) = (2 × 1 + 1) l = 0 to (3 – 1) = 0, 1, 2
=3 m = - l to + l = -2, -1, 0 +1, +2
Total (maximum) number of electrons 1
2 × number of orbital’s S=±
2
⇒2×3 Is not a permissible set of quantum number
⇒6 602. The correct set of four quantum numbers for
(as each orbital contains 2 electrons) the valence electron of rubidium atom (Z= 37)
597. For azimuthal quantum number l = 3, the is
maximum number of electrons will be (a) 5, 1, 1, + 1/2 (b) 6, 0, 0 +1/2
(a) 2 (b) 6 1 1
(c) 0 (d) 14 (c) 5, 0, 0, + (d) 5, 1, 0, +
2 2
NEET-1991 NEET-2012
Ans. (d) : As we known azimuthal quantum number l Ans. (c) : Electronic configuration of rubidium
=3 denotes f – subshell and f-subshell contain seven
( z = 37 ) is [ Kr ] 5S1
36
orbitals. Each orbital can contain maximum of two
electrons with opposite spin. Thus f-subshell contain For valence electron (5s1)
total 14 electrons. 1
598. The following quantum numbers are possible n = 5, l = 0, m = 0, s =
2
for how many orbitals? 603. The angular momentum of electron in 'd'
n = 3, l = 2, m = +2 orbital is equal to
(a) 1 (b) 2
h
(c) 3 (d) 4 (a) 2 3 (b) 0 h
NEET-2001 2π
Ans. (a) : The three quantum number n, l, and m1 h h
(c) 6 (d) 2
enable us to label completely an orbital. It is one of the 2π 2π
d-orbital’s present in 3d subshell. NEET-2015, cancelled
599. If n = 6, the correct sequence for filling of
h
electrons will be Ans. (c) : Angular momentum = l ( l + 1)
(a) ns → (n-2)f → (n-1)d → np 2π
(b) ns → (n-1)d → (n-2)f → np For d orbital, l = 2
(c) ns → (n-2)f → np → (n–1)d h
Angular momentum = 2 ( 2 + 1)
(d) ns → np → (n–1)d → (n–2)f 2π
NEET-2011 h
= 6
Ans. (a) : For n = 6 electron are filled as 2π
6s → 4f → 5d → 6p 604. What is the maximum number of orbital's that
This is because electron first enters in that orbital’s for can be identified with the following quantum
which (n + 1) is lower. In case, if (n + 1) is same it goes numbers?
first in that orbital for which n is lowest. n= 3, l =1, m1 = 0
(a) 1 (b) 2 Ans. (a) : Cr (Z = 24) : 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p2 4s1, 3d5
(c) 3 (d) 4
NEET-2014 ↑
For 19th electron
Ans.(a): Only one orbital 3pz has following set of 4s '
quantum number, n = 3, l = 1 and m1 = 0
1
605. What is the maximum numbers of electrons n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
that can be associated with the following set of 2
quantum numbers? 611. No two electron can have the same values of
n = 3, l = 1 and m = –1 …..quantum numbers.
(a) 4 (b) 2 (a) One (b) Two
(c) 10 (d) 8 (c) Three (d) Four
NEET-2013 UPTU/UPSEE-2004
Ans. (b) : The orbital associated with n = 3, l = 1 is 3p. Ans. (d) : According to pauli principle 2 elelctron does
One orbital (with m = –1 of Subshell Can accommodate not have the same value of all four quantum number.
maximum 2 electrons. They have maximum same value are 3.
606. Two electrons occupying the same orbital are 612. Which of the following electron has minimum
distinguished by
energy?
(a) azimuthal quantum number
(b) spin quantum number 1
(a) n=4, l=0. m = 0.s= +
(c) principal quantum number 2
(d) magnetic quantum number 1
NEET-I 2016 (b) n=4, l=1. m = + − 1.s= + 2
Ans. (b) : If two electrons in an atom are in the same
1
atomic orbital, then they must have the same n, l and m (c) n=5, l=0. m = 0.s= +
values. Thus in order to satisfy pauli’s exclusion 2
principal, they must have opposite spins. 1
607. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for (d) n=3, l=2. m = -2.s= +
2
which n = 3 and l = 1?
UPTU/UPSEE-2017
(a) 2 (b) 6
(c) 10 (d) 14 Ans. (a) : (i) Energy of electron depends on sum of n +
NEET-II 2016 1 values.
Ans. (a) : An orbital can always have a maximum no. (ii) For the same sum of n + 1, the orbital with lower
of two electrons only. value of n is filled first. Lower be the sum, lower the
energy of electron.
608. Which set of quantum numbers is not possible?
(iii) Electrons are filled in increasing order of energy.
1 1 Thus among the given options, n + 1 for :
(a) 3,2,–2, (b) 3,2,–3,
2 2 (a) 4 + 0 = 4 (b) 5 + 0 = 5
1 1 (c) 4 + 1 = 5 (d) 3 + 2 = 5
(c) 4,0,0 (d) 5,3,0,
2 2 4 + 0 = 4 is the
Tripura JEE-2022 613. Which of the following set of quantum
Ans. (b) : When l = n, m, cannot be -3 value of m1 numbers represents the highest energy of an
cannot numerically greater than the value of l. atom?
609. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell 1
with l = 3 and n = 4 is (a) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = +
(a) 14 (b) 16 2
(c) 10 (d) 12 1
(b) n =4, l = 0, m=0, s = −
NEET-2012 2
Ans. (a) : l = 3 and n = 4 represents 4f so total number 1
of electrons in a subshell (c) n = 3, l = 0, m = 4, s = +
2 (2l + 1) 2
⇒2(2 × 3 + 1) = 14 electrons. Hence 1
(d) n = 3, l = 0, m =1, s = +
f-subshell can contain maximum 14 electrons. 2
610. The set of quantum number for 19th electron of UPTU/UPSEE-2016
chromium (Z = 24) is Ans. (a): n = 3 , l = 0 represents 3s – orbital
1 1 n = 3, l = 01 represents 3p – orbital
(a) 4, 0, 0, + (b) 4, 1, –1, +
2 2 n = 3, l = 2 represents 3d – orbital
1 1 n = 4, l = 0 represents 4s – orbital
(c) 3, 2, 2, + (d) 3, 2, –2, + The order of increasing energy of the orbitals is
2 2
UP CPMT-2011 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d

614. Consider the ground state of Cr atom (Z = 24).
The number of electrons with the azimuthal Ans. (a): n = 4, l =1 4P orbital
quantum number, l = 1 and 2 are respectively n = 4, l =0 4s orbital
(a) 12 and 4 (b) 12 and 5 n = 3, l = 2 3d orbital
(c) 16 and 4 (d) 16 and 5
UPTU/UPSEE-2012 n = 3, l = 1 3p orbital
Ans. (b) : Electronic configuration of 24Cr According to (n + l) rule,
1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 3d 5 4s1
No. of electrons in l = 1(p-orbital) is increasing order of energy
6 + 6 = 12.
No of electrons in l = 2 (d-orbital) is 5 the number of
electrons with the azimuthal quantum number l = 1 and (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i)
2 respectively are 12 and 5
615. 'No two electrons in an atom can have the same
set of quantum numbers.' This principle is 618. Which of the following sets of quantum
known by which one of the following? number represents the 19th electron of Cr (Z =
(a) Zeeman's exclusion principle 24)?
(b) Stark's exclusion principle  1  1
(c) Pauli's exclusion principle (a)  4,1, −1, +  (b)  4,0,0, + 
(d) Hersbach's exclusion principle  2  2
UPTU/UPSEE-2011  1  1
(c)  3, 2,0, −  (d)  3, 2, −2, + 
Ans. (c) : the Pauli’s exclusion principle states that in  2  2
an atom or molecule, no two electrons can have the WB-JEE-2017
same set of all four electronic quantum numbers.
Cr = [ Ar ] 4s1 3d 5
18
As an orbital can contain a maximum no. of only two Ans. (b) : 24
electrons, the two electrons must have opposing spins,
this means if one electron is assigned as a spin up 19 th electron enters in 4s1 subshell
( )
+1 electron, the other electron must be spin-down
2
For 4s1
+1
( )
−1 electron.
2
n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s =
2
When n = 5, l = 0, 1, 2, 3, or 4 and m = -4 to +4 n = 5, l 619. The difference between orbital angular
= 4, m = 0, s = +1 is a correct set of quantum number. momentum of an electron in a 4f-orbital and
2 another electron in a 4s-orbital is
616. Identity the correct statement. (a) 2 3 (b) 3 2
(a) Quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) are arbitratily
(b) All the quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) for any (c) 3 (d) 2
pair of electron in an atom can be identical WB-JEE-2020
under special circumstance Ans. (a) : Orbital angular momentum is given by the
(c) All the quantum numbers (n, l, m, s)may not formula,
be required to describe an electron of an atom
completely h
(l + 1) ×
(d) All the quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) are 2π
required to describe an electron of an atom ∴ For 4f, l = 3
completely)
h
WB-JEE-2013 → orbital angular momentum = 12 ×
Ans. (d) : All the quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) are 2π
required to describe an electron of an atom completely. For 4s, l = 0,
n describes the position and energy of the electron in an orbital angular momentum = 0
orbit or shell. l is used to describe subshell and the ∴ Difference = 12 − 0 = 12 = 2 3 .
space of the orbital occupied by the electron.
m describes the preferred orientation of orbital’s in
space. s describes the spinning of an electron on its axis. 8. Bohr's Model for Hydrogen
617. If the given four electronic configurations.
(i) n = 4, l = 1 (ii) n = 4, l = 0 Atom
(iii) n = 3, l = 2 (iv) n = 3, l = 1
are arranged in order of increasing energy, 620. If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He+ ion is
then the order will be 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit
(a) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i) of Li2+ ion?
(b) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii) 0
(c) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) (a) 158.7 A (b) 158.7 pm
(d) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii) (c) 15.87 pm (d) 1.587 pm
WB-JEE-2017 NEET-17.07.2022
n2 Ans. (d) : Given that,
Ans. (b) : r = × a0
Z 13.6 z 2
+ En = − 2
eV atom–1
For He , n = 2 n
Z=2 For 3rd Oribit
rHe+ = 105.8 pm −13.6(z)2
E3 = –E = .....(i)
(2) 2 32
rHe+ = × a0
2 −13.6(z)2
E1 = .....(ii)
4 × a0 (1)2
105.8 =
2 Divided equation (i) and (ii) we get
105.8 × 2 −E −13.6 12
a0 = = 52.9 = ×
4 E1 32 −13.6
For Li2+, n = 3, Z = 3
E1 = –9E
32
rLi2+ = × a 0 624. If the radius of 1s electron orbit of a hydrogen
3 atom is 53 pm, then the radius of the 3p
= 3 × 52.9 = 158.7 pm electron orbit would be
621. If the radius of the 3rd Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen (a) 0.477 nm (b) 477 nm
atom is r3 and the radius of 4th Bohr’s orbit is (c) 159 pm (d) 17.66 nm
r4. Then: SCRA-2014
9 16 Ans. (a) : Given that,
(a) r4 = r3 (b) r4 = r3
16 9 n = 1, r1 = 53 pm, n = 3, r3 = ?
3 4 Now, from the radii expression-
(c) r4 = r3 (d) r4 = r3
4 3 52.9n 2
JEE Main-26.06.2022, Shift-I rn = pm
z
2
n Where, n = no. of orbit.
Ans. (b) : r =
z z = atomic number
For H– atom, we know = 1 52.9 × 9
∴ r3 = pm
So, r ∝ n2 1
r3 ∝ 9 r3 = 476.1 pm
r4 ∝ 16 or r3 = 0.476 nm
r3 9 625. The velocity of an electron in the first Bohr
From ratio = = orbit is v1. What is its velocity in the third
r4 16
Bohr's orbit?
16 (a) v1/9 (b) v1/3
r4 = r3
9 (c) v1 (d) 3v1
622. The hydrogen line spectrum provides evidence SCRA-2010
for the
(a) Heisenberg Uncertainty principle Ans. (b) : The velocity of an electron in the nth
(b) Wave like properties of light stationary orbit for H- like species is expressed as,
(c) Diatomic nature of hydrogen z
Vn = 2.18×106 m sec–1
(d) Quantized nature of atomic energy states n
SCRA-2012 Here, z = 1 and n= 3
–
Ans. (d) : The hydrogen like spectrum is an important So, Velocity in the third { Q velocity of e in first
piece of evidence to show the quantized electronic Bohr orbit = V1}
structure of an atom. v
Atomic orbits have fixed energies. Bohr’s orbit = 1
3
623. The energy of an electrons in the 3rd orbit of an
atom is –E. 626. The energy of the electron in the hydrogen
The energy of an electron in the first orbit will atom is given by the expression :
be
E −e 2 −n 2 h 2
(a) –3E (b) − (a) (b)
3 r2 2π2Z2 e 4 m
E −2 π 2 Z 2 e 4 nh
(c) − (d) –9E (c) 2 2
(d)
9 n h 2π
MPPET- 2009 AP-EAMCET-1991
Ans. (c) : The energy of the electron in the hydrogen hc
atom is given as : Also, E =
λ
–2π2 Z2 e 4 Emitting light of longest wavelength will have low
En = energy and if the principle quantum number increases,
n 2h 2 the difference between the energy of two orbits
627. The basic assumption of Bohr's model of decreases. Therefore, n = 4 to n=3 refers the lower
hydrogen atom is that : energy.
(a) the energy of the electron is quantised Thus that should be the increasing order of wavelength.
(b) the angular momentum of the electron is 630. The energy of an electron present in Bohr's
quantised second orbit of hydrogen atom is :
(c) the radial distance of the electron is quantised (a) – 1312 J atom–1 (b) – 328 kJ mol–1
(d) the orbital velocity of the electron is (c) – 328 J mol –1
(d) – 164 kJ mol–1
quantized
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 2001
AP-EAMCET-1994
Ans. (b) : For Bohr's second orbit
Ans. (b) : Bohr's Model–
(1) Electrons are revolving around nucleus K, L, M, N –1312
EA = kJ. mol –1
in specific energy level with centripetal force given by n2
nucleus. –1312
E2 = = –328 kJ / mol.
mu 2 ZKe 2 22
= 2
r r 631. Which one of the following statements is not
(2) Only those orbits are allowed whose angular correct?
h (a) Rydberg's constant and wave number have
momentum (p) is integral multiple of . same units
2π
(b) Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum occurs in
nh the ultraviolet region
p = mvr =
2π (c) The angular momentum of the electron in the
628. The radius of the second Bohr's orbit is : h
ground state of hydrogen atom is equal to
(a) 0.053 nm (b) 0.106 nm 2π
(c) 0.212 nm (d) 0.0265 nm (d) The radius of first Bohr orbit of hydrogen
AP-EAMCET-1995 atom is 2.116 × 10–8 cm
Ans. (c) : Bohr radius (rn) = ∈0n2h2 AP-EAMCET-2002
n 2h 2 Ans. (d) : The radius of first Bohr orbit of hydrogen
rn = atom is 0.53 Å or 0.53×10–8 cm. Hence, statement is
4π me 2 kZ
2
false.
1
k= • The unit of Rydberg constant as well as wave number
4π∈0 (v ) is cm–1. Hence, statement is true.
n 2 h 2 ∈0 a • The Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum occurs at the
∴ rn = = n2 0
πme 2 Z Z ultra violet region. Hence, the given statement is true.
Where, m = mass of electron • According to Bohr's theory, Angular momentum,
e = charge of electron nh
h = Planck's constant mvr = .
2π
k = Coulomb constant
h
n 2 × 0.53 So, in ground state, angular momentum = .
rn = Å 2π
Z
632. An electron is moving in Bohr's fourth orbit.
Radius of nth Bohr orbit for H-atom
Its de-Broglie wavelength is λ. What is the
= 0.53 n2 Å [Z = 1 for H-atom] circumference of the fourth orbit?
∴ Radius of 2 Bohr orbit for H-atom
nd
2
= 0.53 × (2)2 = 2.12 Å (a) (b) 2λ
= 0.212 nm [1Å = 0.1 nm] λ
629. In the Bohr hydrogen atom, the electronic 4
(c) 4λ (d)
transition emiting light of longest wavelength is: λ
(a) n = 2 to n = 3 (b) n = 4 to n = 3 VITEEE-2014
(c) n = 3 to n = 2 (d) n = 2 to n = 1 Ans. (c) : According to Bohr's concept, an electron
AP-EAMCET-1997 always move in the orbit with angular momentum (mvr)
 1 1  nh
Ans. (b) : We know that ∆E = R H  2
− 2 equal to .
 n1 n 2  2π
Thus the decreasing order of energy transition is– nh
∴ mvr =
n=2 to n=3 > n=2 to n=1 > n=3 to n=2 > n=4 to n=3 2π

n  h  putting the vale in eqn (1) we get
r= ⋅  h
2π  mv  λ = 4π.∆n
h
 h 
Q λ = de - Broglie equation  λ = 4π∆n
 mv  o o
nλ λ = 4π × 0.529 A (∴ given ∆n = 0.529 A )

r= o
2π λ = 2.116 A
For 4th orbit– 636. If the wavelength of the first line of Balmer
4λ 2λ series is 656 nm, then the wavelengths of its
r= = second line and limiting line respectively are ––
2π π –––––
2λ (a) 485.9 nm & 434 nm
∴ Circumference = 2πr = 2π×
π (b) 485.9 nm & 364.4 nm
(c) 715 nm & 434 nm
= 4λ
(d) 608 nm & 415.2 nm
633. The energy (in ev) associated with the electron AP EAPCET 25.08.2021, Shift-II
in the 1st orbit of Li2+ is
Ans. (b) : Given that λ1 = 656 mm and n1 = n2 and n2 =
(a) – 122.4 (b) – 61.15 3.
(c) – 30.5 (d) – 244.6 We know that or fist wavelength
TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 07.08.2021 Shift-II  1
1 1 
Ans. (a) : Given that, v = = RH  2 − 2 
λ1  n1 n 2 
n = 1, Z = 3 (for Li3+)
Z2 1  1 1 
Q Energy of electron ( E n ) = −13.6 2 ev = RH  2 − 2 
n 656 2 3 
st
For 1 orbit– 1 1 1
= RH  − 
(3) 2 656 nm 4 9
E1 = −13.6 2 ev 1 5
(1) = RH ––––––– (1)
or E1 = –122.4 ev 656 nm 36
634. Which energy level transition among the For second line, n1 = 2, n2 = 4
following will have the least wavelength? 1  1 1 
= RH  2 − 2 
(a) n4 → n3 (b) n4 → n2 λ2 2 4 
(c) n4 → n1 (d) n2 → n1 1 1 1 
AP EAPCET 25.08.2021, Shift-II = RH  − 
λ2  4 16 
Ans. (c) : n4 → n1 transition will have the least 1 3
wavelength. The option (c) is correct. Energy is = RH –––––– (2)
inversely proportional to wavelength. For an electron to λ 2 16
undergo electronic transition from higher to lower Dividing equation (1) and (2) we get
energy level wavelength is least. λ2 5 16
= ×
635. Calculate the de Broglie's wavelength of an 656 36 3
electron residing in the 2nd Bohr's orbit of a λ 2 = 485.9 nm
Hydrogen atom. (Bohr's radius, a0 = 0.529Å)
Wavelength of limiting line –
(a) 0.2116 nm (b) 2.116 πÅ n1 = 2, n2 = ∞
(c) 21.16 m (d) 20116 µm So,
AP EAPCET 25.08.2021, Shift-II 1  1 1  1
= RH  2 − 2  = RH ×
Ans. (b) : λ 2 ∞  4
h h Dividing (1) and (2) we get
λ= = ––––––– (1)
p mv λ 5
= ×4
h 656 36
∴ ∆V ∆n = 20
4πm λ= × 656 nm = 364.4 nm
36
h
m∆V = –––––––– (2) λ nm = 364.4 nm
4π∆n

637. Which of the following corresponds to the n = no of orbit
energy of the possible excited state of 2 = atomic number
hydrogen? Given- n = 3
(a) –13.6 eV (b) 13.6 eV
52.9 ( 3)
2
(c) –3.4 eV (d) 3.4 eV ∴ R3 = pm
TS EAMCET-2017 2
BCECE-2012 9 × 52.9
r3 = pm …….(i)
NEET-2002 2
st
Ans. (c) : Energy level of an atoms are For the 1 orbit i.e. n = 1
2
E n = −13.6Z / n eV 2
52.9 × (1) 2
r1 = pm
Where Z = atomic number 2
Energy level (n) = 1, 2, 3, ….. 52.9
For hydrogen atom, Z = 1 r1 = pm …….(ii)
2
And first excited state, n = 2 From (i) and (ii)
−13.6 ×12 r3 = 9r1
∴E = Hence, the radius of the 3rd orbit is 9 times the radius of
22 st
1 orbit
E = –3.4 eV
640. Energy associated with the first orbit of He+ is
638. The electron in the hydrogen jump on
(a) 8.72×10–18 joules (b) 0.872 ×10–18 joules
absorbing 12.75 eV of energy would jump to
____orbit (c) –0.872 ×10 joules (d) –8.72×10–18 joules
–18
(a) 3 (b) 2 COMEDK-2015

(c) 5 (d) 4 AMU-2015
AP EAPCET 24.08.2021 Shift-II Ans. (d) : For H-like particles,
Ans. (d) : We know that –21.78 × 10–19 2
En = ZJ
−19 n2
−21.8 × 10 +
En = Joule For He , Z = 2, n = 1
2
n –21.78 × 10 –19
−19 = × (2) 2 = –8.712 × 10 –18 J
−21.8 × 10 1 2
E1 = 2 641. Assuming Rydberg constants are equal, the

1 ground state energy of the electron in hydrogen
E1 = – 21.8×10-19J (n = 1 for ground state at H-atom) atom is equal to
After absorbing 12.75eV of energy the energy of (a) the ground state energy of the electron in He+
electron will be -
(b) the first excited state energy of the electronic
– 21.8×10-19 + 12.75×1.6×10-19 He+
– 21.8×10-19 + 20.4×10-19 (c) the first excited state energy of the electron in
– 1.4×10-19 J Li2+
−19 (d) the ground state energy of the electron in Be3+
−21.8 × 10 -19
Thus 2
= – 1.4 × 10 COMEDK-2020
n 2
Z
21.8 × 10
−19 Ans. (b) : E n = –R H . 2
2 n
n = –19
1.4 × 10 For ground state hydrogen atom : Z=1, n=1
n2 = 15.57 1
∴E1 = –13.6 × = –13.6eV
n=4 1
Thus the e- will jump to the 4th orbit. For the ground state in He+; Z=2, n=1
639. On the basis of Bohr’s model. The radius of the E1= –13.6 × 4 = –54.4eV
3rd orbit is––– 1
(a) Equal to the radius of 1st orbit For the first excited state in He+; Z=2, n=2;
(b) 3times the radius of 1st orbit 4
(c) 5 times the radius of 1st orbit E 2 = –13.6 × = –13.6eV
4
(d) 9 times the radius of 1st orbit For the first excited state in Li2+; Z=3, n=2;
AP EAPCET 19-08-2021 Shift-I 9
E1 = –13.6 × = –30.6eV
Ans. (d) : From the equation of Bohr’s model- 4
52.9(n 2 ) For the ground state energy of the electron in
rn = pm Be3+; Z=4, n=1;
2
th
Where - rn = radius of n orbital = –13.6 × 16 = –217.6eV

642. Match the following 644. The ratio of potential energy (PE) and total
List-I List-II energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the
hydrogen atom is
nh (i) Paschen series (a) 1 (b) 2
(A) mvr =
2π 1
(B) Infra-red (ii) Electron total energy (c) –1 (d)
2
h (iii) de-Broglie equation TS-EAMCET 09.08.2021, Shift-I
(C) λ =
p Ke2
Ans. (b) : Potential energy (P.E.) = − .....(i)
–e 2 (iv) Schrodinger equation rn
(D)
2π 1Ke 2
And, Total energy (T.E.) = − .....(ii)
(v) Bohr’s equation 2rn
The correct answer is P.E. −Ke 2 / rn
∴ =
A B C D T.E. −1Ke 2 / 2rn
(a) (v) (ii) (iii) (i)
P.E.
(b) (iii) (ii) (v) (iv) or =2
(c) (v) (i) (iii) (ii) T.E.
(d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) ∴ P.E. : T.E. = 2 : 1
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2008 645. Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 663
nm is just sufficient to ionise the atom of metal
Ans. (c) : A. The ionization energy of metal A in kJ mol–1
List-I List-II is . (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)
nh Bohr's equation [h = 6.63×10–34 Js, c = 3.00×108 ms–1, NA =
(A) mvr = 6.02×1023 mol–1]
2π
(B) Infra-red Paschen series
Ans. : Given, wavelength (λ) = 663 nm {1nm = 10–9m}
de-Broglie equation = 663×10–9m
h
(C) λ = hc
p We know that, E =
λ
–e 2 Electron total energy For 1 mole of atom, total energy is given by,
(D)
2π hc
⇒ E = NA ×
643. The wavelength (in Å) of an emission line λ
obtained for Li2+ during an electronic 6.023 ×1023 × 6.63 × 10−34 × 3 ×108
transition from n2 = 2 to n1 = 1 is (R = Rydberg ⇒E=
constant) 663 × 10−9 × 1000
–19
= 3×10 J
3R 3R Ionisation energy per mol
(a) (b)
4 4 = 3 × 10–19 ×10–3 × 6.02 × 1023
4 4 = 180.6 KJ mol–1
(c) (d)
3R 27R = 181 kJ mol–1
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2008 646. Assertion: A spectral line will be seen for a 2Px
→2py transition.
Ans. (d) : Given data: Reason: Energy is released in the form of waves
n1 = 1 of light when the electron drops from 2px to 2py
n2 = 2 orbital.
Z = 3 (for Li2+) (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
λ =? Reason is a correct explanation of the
Now, from Rydberg equation- Assertion
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
 1 1  Reason is not a correct explanation of the
υ = RZ2  2 – 2 
 n1 n2  Assertion
(c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false
1 2 1 1
Or = R ( 3)  –  (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
λ 1 4  AIIMS-1996
1 3 Ans. (d): In this case both assertion and reason are
= 9R × false. Both 2px and 2py orbitals have equal energy (2p
λ 4
orbitals are degenerate), there is no possibility of
4 electron transition and hence, no energy is released and
Or λ=
27R thus, no spectral line will be observed.
647. The maximum energy is possessed by an 651. In hydrogen atomic spectrum, a series limit is
electron, when it is present found at 12186.3 cm−1. Then, it belongs to
(a) in first excited state (a) Lyman Series (b) Balmer series
(b) in nucleus (c) Paschen series (d) Brackett series
(c) at infinite distance from the nucleus AIIMS-2014
(d) in ground energy state Ans. (c): Series limit is the last line of the series
AIIMS-1996 i.e. n2 = ∞
Ans. (c): When electron is placed at an infinite distance
from the nucleus the energy increases sharply. 1  1 1   1 1 
∴ v= =R 2 − 2  =R 2 − 2
The potential energy of the electron is minimum at λ  n1 n 2   n1 ∞ 
equilibrium distance from the nucleus. R
648. Assertion: Angular momentum of an electron v= 2
n1
in any orbit is given by angular momentum
nh 109677.76
= , where n is the principal quantum 12186.3 =
2π n12
number 109677.76
Reason: The principal quantum number n can n12 = = 9, n1 = 3
12186.3
have any integral values. The line belongs to Paschen series.
the Reason is the correct explanation of  Z2 
Assertion 652. Based on equation, E = -2.178 ×10-18 J  2  ,
n 
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but certain conclusions are written. Which of them
is not correct?
Assertion.
(a) Larger the value of n, the larger is the orbit
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. radius.
(b) Equation can be used to calculate the change
incorrect.
in energy when the electron changes orbit.
AIIMS-2012-13
(c) For n=1, the electron has a more negative
Ans. (b): Both assertion and reason are correct. Reason energy than it does for n=6 which means that
is not the correct explanation of assertion. the electron is more loosely bound in the
649. What is the energy (kJ/mol) associated with the smallest allowed orbit.
de-excitation of an electron from n=6 to n=2 in (d) The negative sign in equation simply means
He+ ion? that the energy of electron bound to the
(a) 1.36×106 (b) 1.36×103 nucleus is lower than it would be if the
3
(c) 1.16×10 (d) 1.78×103 electrons were at the infinite distance from
AIIMS-27 May, 2018 the nucleus.
Ans. (c): Given that, AIIMS-2015
n = 6 to n = 2 Ans. (c): For n=1, the electron has a more negative
energy than it does for n=6 which means that the
E = 13.6 × Z12  − 
1 1 electron is more loosely bound in the smallest allowed
 4 36  orbit.
 9 −1  653. The energy of electron in first energy level is
= 13.6 × 4  
 36  -21.79 ×10-12 erg per atom. The energy of
8 electron in second energy level is:
= 13.6 × 4 × (a) −54.47 × 10 −12 erg atom −1
36
= 12.08 eV × 96 kJ/mol (b) −5.447 × 10 −12 erg atom −1
= 1.16 × 103 KJ/mol (c) −0.447 × 10 −12 erg atom −1
650. In Second orbit of H atom the velocity of e− is:
(d) −0.05447 × 10−12 erg atom −1
(a) 2.18×106 m/sec (b) 3.27×106 m/sec
5
(c) 10.9×10 m/sec (d) 21.8×106 m/sec AIIMS-2000
AIIMS-27 May, 2018 Ans. (b): Assume that atom to be hydrogen like,
AIIMS-2001 Energy of nth energy level
z −E
Ans. (c): V = 2.18 × 106 × E n = 2 1 , where E1 is energy of first energy level
n x
1 −E −E −21.79 × 10−12
V = 2.18 × 106 × = 10.9 × 105 m/sec. E2 = 21 = 1 =
2 2 4 4
Hence, V = 10.9 × 105 m / sec = −5.447 × 10 −12 erg per atom

654. If velocity of an electron in the first Bohr orbit Therefore, the angular momentum is an integral
of H is v1 then velocity in second orbit will be h
(a) v1 (b) 2v1 multiple of .
2π
v1 v Hence option (a) is not permitted for angular
(c) (d) 1
2 4 momentum of hydrogen atom.
SRMJEEE – 2007
657. In a hydrogen atom, the electron is at a
Ans. (c) : The velocity of an electron of the nth distance of 4.768 Å from the nucleus. The
stationary state for hydrogen like species is expressed
as– angular momentum of the electron is
z 3h h
Vn = 2.18 × 106 × m / s (a) (b)
n 2π 2π
Where z = atomic number and n = orbit h 3h
(c) (d)
Now, V1 = 2.18 × 106 ×
(1) m / s π π
(1) AP- EAMCET(Medical) -2010
The velocity in second orbit is– Ans. (a): Given data:-
(1) rn = 4.768Å
V2 = 2.18 × 106 ×
(2) As we know the radius of first Bohr's orbit is –
V1 n2
or V2 = rn = 0.529 Å
2 Z
Z 4.768 = 0.529 × n 2
V∝ since, Z and n both have become twice,
n 4.768
velocity of electron in second orbit of H+ will be v. n2 =
0.529
655. If the energy of an electron in the second Bohr
orbit of H-atom is –E, what is the energy of the or n2 = 9
electron in the Bohr's first orbit? n=3
(a) 2E (b) –4E ∴ Angular momentum of the electron is
(c) –2E (d) 4E
nh 3h
SRMJEEE – 2010 (mvr) = =
Ans. (b) : The expression of energy of hydrogen atom 2π 2 π
is : 658. In the Bohr hydrogen atom, the electronic
transition emitting light of longest wave length
 z2 
En = –2.18 × 10–18  2  J is:
n  (a) n = 2 to n =3 (b) n = 4 to n = 3
Given– E2 = – E (c) n = 3 to n =2 (d) n = 2 to n = 1
E1 = ? AP – EAMCET - (Medical)-1997
(1) 2 Ans. (b) : The spectrum of hydrogen atom obey the
∴ E2 = – 2.18 × 10–18 × J=−E ...(i)
(2) 2 following formula–
(1) 2  1 1 
and E1 = – 2.18 × 10–18 × J (from equation i) ν = RH  2 − 2 
(1) 2  n1 n 2 
or E1 = – 4E
Where RH = Rydberg constant
656. According to Bohr's theory which one of the
following values of angular momentum of
hydrogen atom is not permitted? In the Paschen series of hydrogen atom spectrum, the
1.25h h minimum energy difference found in n =4 to n = 3 due
(a) (b) to which they have longest wavelength.
π π
659. What is the lowest energy of the spectral line
1.5h 0.5h
(c) (d) emitted by the hydrogen atom in the Lyman
π π series?
AP-EAMCET- (Engg.)-2011 (h = Planck's constant, c = Velocity of light,
Ans. (a): According to Bohr's theory. R=Rydberg's constant).
nh 5hcR 4hcR
mvr = (a) (b)
2π 36 3
Where, m = mass of atom 3hcR 7hcR
(c) (d)
v = velocity 4 144
r = radius of nth orbit AP-EAMCET (Engg.)-2005
Ans. (c): Given data:- For the Lyman series- 1 1 4 −1 3 3
n1 = 1, n2 = 2  2 − 2  = 4× = 4× =
From the Rydberg equation-  n1 n 2  16 16 4
for first line n2 = 2, n1 = 1
 
ν = R 1 − 1   1 1  1 1  3
 n2 n2  12 − 22  = 1 − 4  = 4
 1 2     
where- ν = wave number Hence n1 = 1, n2 = 2
R = Rydberg constant So, transition n2 = 2 to n1 = 1 will give spectrum of the
same wavelength as that of Balmer transition n2 = 4 to
1 1  n1 = 2 in He+.
ν = R − 
1 4  662. What is the degeneracy of the level of H-atom
3R  R 
or ν= that has energy  − H  ?
4  9 
1 (a) 16 (b) 9
Q λ=
υ (c) 4 (d) 1
4 VITEEE 2013
∴ λ= Ans. (b): Energy of electron form nth terms is
3R
Now, R Z2
En = − H2
hc n
E=
λ For H–atom,
hc × 3R −R H −R H × 12
E= = , n2 = 9
4 9 n2
3hcR 663. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is –
or E= 13.6 eV. The energy of second excited state of
4
For lowest energy of the spectral line in Lyman series n1 He+ ion in eV is
= 1, n2 = 2. (a) –54.4 (b) –3.4
(c) –6.04 (d) –27.2
660. According to Bohr’s theory, the angular
momentum for an electron of 3rd orbit is
(a) 3 h (b) 1.5 h Ans. (c) : Given that,
energy of hydrogen atom = 13.6 eV.
(c) 9 h (d) 2
h Second excited state is 3rd orbit–
π z2 4
VITEEE 2014 E = –13.6 2 eV = −13.6 × eV
n 9
Ans. (a) : According to Bohr's theory, the angular = –6.04 eV.
momentum of e– in nth orbit is equal to
664. The energy of electron in the first Bohr orbit of
nh H atom is - 13.6 eV. The possible energy value
mvr =
2π of the excited state (s) for electrons in Bohr
For 3rd orbit, orbits of hydrogen is
3h (a) -3.4 eV (b) -4.2 eV
mvr = (c) -6.8 eV (d) +6.8 eV
2π AMU-2011
 h 
So, mvr = 3.h ⇒ Q h =  Ans. (a): The energy of electron on Bohr orbits of
 2 π hydrogen atoms is given by the expression
661. What transition in the hydrogen spectrum −13.6 × Z2
would have the same wavelength as the Balmer En = eV
n2
transition, n = 4 to n = 2 of He+ spectrum? For first excited state, n = 2
(a) n = 4 to n = 2 (b) n = 3 to n = 2
(c) n = 2 to n = 1 (d) n = 4 to n = 3 −13.6 × (1) 2 −13.6
∴ E2 = = = −3.4eV
VITEEE-2013 22 4
Ans. (c): According to the question 665. The energy of electron in nth orbit of hydrogen
atom is
λ H = λ He+
13.6 13.6
(a) eV (b) eV
1 1 1 1 n n2
R H ZH2  2 − 2  = R H Z2He+  2 − 2 
n
 1 n 2 2 4  13.6 13.6
(c) 3
eV (d) eV
n n4
1 1 1 1 
R H ×1  2 − 2  = R H × 4  −  AMU EXPLORER-2002
 n1 n 2   4 16  Karnataka-CET-2016

Ans. (b) : The energy of electron in nth orbit of −13.6z 2
hydrogen atom is given below- Ans. (d) : For H atom , E X = eV
n2
13.6 For second orbit, n = 2
or En = 2 eV
n z = 1 (for hydrogen)
666. The spectrum of H+ is expected to be similar to −13.6 × (1) 2 13.6
that of ∴ E2 = =− eV
(a) Be2+ (b) Li+ (2) 2 4
(c) Na (d) He+ −13.6 ×1.6 ×10−19
AMU EXPLORER-2002 = J
4
Ans. (d) : Helium ion (He+) and hydrogen has one −19
= −5.44 × 10 J
electron in their outermost shell so both show the same
671. The wave number of the spectral line in the
spectrum having similar spectral lines of transitions.
emission spectrum of hydrogen will be equal to
667. For which of the following species, Bohr’s 8/9 times the Rydberg's constant if the electron
theory is not applicable? jumps from–
(a) 07+ (b) Be3+ (a) n = 3 to n = 1 (b) n = 10 to n = 1
2+
(c) Li (d) He2+ (c) n = 9 to n = 1 (d) n = 2 to n = 1
Assam CEE-2014 BCECE-2014
Ans. (d) : Bohr's theory is applicable to the species
1  1 1 
containing only one electron. He2+ contain no electron. Ans. (a) : wave number, v = = RH  2 − 2  ,
668. The ratio of energy of the electron in ground λ n
 1 n 2 
state of hydrogen to the electron in first excited 8  1 1 
state of Be3+ is where RH is Rydberg’s constant R H = R H  2 − 2 
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 8 9 n
 1 n 2 
(c) 1 : 16 (d) 16 : 1 When, transition is from n2 = 3 to n1 = 1 then,

Assam CEE-2014 1 1 1 8
v = = R H  2 − 2  = . RH
 z2  λ 1 3  9
Ans. (a) : E x = −13.6  2  eV
n  672. In hydrogen atom, if energy of an electron in
ground state is 13.6 eV, then that in the 2nd
E1 (H) = -13.6 eV in ground state n = 1, for H atom z = excited state is –
1 (a) –1.51 eV (b) –34 eV
−13.6 × ( 4 ) 
2 (c) –6.04 eV (d) +13.6 eV
3+
E 2 (Be ) =  in first excited state BCECE-2018
( 2)
2
 Ans. (a) : 2nd excited state means third energy level
3+
n = 2 for Be , z = 4 E 13.6
E 3 = 21 = − = −1.51eV
∴ E1 : E 2 = 1: 4 . 3 9
669. The Bohr's orbit radius for the hydrogen atom 673. The wave number of the limiting line in Lyman
(n = 1) is approximately 0.53 Å. The radius for series of hydrogen is 109678 cm–1. The wave
the first excited state (n = 2) orbit is : number of the limiting line in Balmer series of
(a) 0.27 Å (b) 1.27 Å He+ would be :
(a) 54839 cm–1 (b) 109678 cm–1
(c) 2.12 Å (d) 3.12 Å –1
(c) 219356 cm (d) 438712 cm–1
BITSAT-2013
BITSAT-2014
BCECE-2004
th Ans. (b) : Given that,
Ans. (c) : Radius of n orbit hydrogen atom = 0.530Å
RH = 109678 cm–1
Number of excited state = (n) = 2
Wave number of the limiting line in Balmer series of
Atomic number of hydrogen atom (z) = 1 He+
We know that the Bohr radius
1 1
n2 (2)2 v = R H .Z2  2 − 2 
r = × Radiusof atom = × 0.530
z 1  n1 n 2 
= 4 × 0.530  1 1
= 2.12 Å v = 109678 × (2)2  2 − 
 (2) ∞
670. The energy of an electron in second Bohr orbit
of hydrogen atom is– v = 109678 cm–1
(a) –5.44 × 10–19 eV (b) –5.44 × 10–19 cal 674. If the radius of H is 0.53 Å, then what will be
(c) –5.44 × 10 kJ
–19
(d) –5.44 × 10–19 J the radius of 3 Li 2+ ?
AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Evening) (a) 0.17 Å (b) 0.36 Å
BITSAT 2017 (c) 0.53 Å (d) 0.59 Å
BCECE-2010 BITSAT-2012
Ans. (a) : We know that, n2
r (H - atom) × n 2 Ans. (d) : Bohr radius for nth orbit = 0.53A ×
(H-like) = n z
Z Where, z = atomic number
For ground state, n = 1
∴ Bohr radius of 2nd orbit of Be3+ =
0.53 × 1
∴ rn ( 3 Li 2+ ) = 0.53 × (2) 2 0
3 = 0.53A
= 0.17Å 4
675. The first emission line in the atomic spectrum 0.53 × (1) 2 0
of hydrogen in the Balmer series appears at (d) Bohr radius of 1st orbit of H = = 0.53A
1
9R 7R orbit of Be3+ is equal to
(a) cm −1 (b) cm −1 Hence, Bohr’s radius of 2nd
400 144 that of first orbit of hydrogen.
3R −1 5R −1
(c) cm (d) cm 679. The IE of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. The
4 36 energy required to remove a electron in the
BITSAT-2016 n=2 state of the hydrogen atom is
Ans. (d) : For Balmer n1 = 2 and n2 = 3; (a) 27.2eV (b) 13.26eV
 1 1  5R −1 (c) 6.8eV (d) 3.4eV
v = R 2 − 2  = cm
 2 3  36 J & K CET-2015
The first emission line in the atomic spectrum of CG PET-2010
5R −1 Ans. (d) : The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is
hydrogen in the Balmer series appears at cm .
36 13.6 eV energy required to move to second state is,
676. The wavelength of an electron having kinetic The change in energy involve in removing the electron
energy equal to 4.55×10−25J is (h=6.6 from n = 2
×10−34kgm2s−1mass of electron =9.1×10−31kg) ∆E = E∞ – E(2)
(a) 7.25×10−7nm (b) 725m
(c) 7.25×10−7m (d) 7.25×107m  −13.6 
∆E = 0 –  2 
CG PET-2011  2 
Ans. (c) : Applying de Broglie wavelength +13.6
∆E =
h 4
(λ ) =
2me ∆E = 3.4 eV
Where, m = mass of electron = 9.1 × 10-31 kg, h = 6.6 × 680. Which one of the following about an electron
10–34 kg m2 s–1 occupying the 1s-orbital in a hydrogen atoms is
E = K.E. =4.55 × 10-25 J incorrect? (The Bohr radius is represented by
6.6 × 10−34 a 0)
λ=
2 × 9.1× 10−31 × 4.55 ×10−25 (a) The electron can be found at a distance 2a0
from the nucleus.
6.6 × 10−34
= = 7.25 × 10−7 m. (b) The magnitude of the potential energy is
9.1×10−28 double that of its kinetic energy on an
677. For which of the following species, Bohr theory average.
does not apply?
(a) H (b) He+ (c) The probability density of finding the electron
(c) H +
(d) Li2+ is maximum at the nucleus.
(d) The total energy of the electron is maximum
CG PET -2005, AIIMS-2000
when it is at a distance a0 from the nucleus.
Ans. (c) : One of the limitations of Bohr’s atomic
model is that it does not explain the spectra of multi- [JEE Main 2019, 9 April Shift-II]
electron atoms all these species like H, He+ and Li2+ are Ans. (d) : Explanation of point a :
iso electronic and have only one electron. Their
electronic configurations are same and so their spectra
is explained by Bohr’s atomic model But H- has 2
electron.
678. Bohr's radius of 2nd orbit of Be3+ is equal to
that of
(a) 4th orbit of hydrogen
(b) 2nd orbit of He+
(c) 3rd orbit of Li2+
(d) first orbit of hydrogen
CG PET -2009
683. The radius of the second Bohr orbit in terms of
the Bohr radius, a0, in Li2+ is
2a 0 4a 0
(a) (b)
3 3
4a 0 2a 0
(c) (d)
9 9
Ans. (b) : For 2nd Bohr orbit of Li2+,
z = 3, n = 2
The radial propability graph shows that electron in is a 0 .n 2
can be formed at 2a0 r=
z
Explanation of point b, c, d
En = –13.6 a 0 .(2)2
=
z2 v 3
E n = –13.6 × e ............(i)
n2 4a
= 0
z2 v 3
K. E. = 13.6 × e ............(ii) 684. According to Bohr's atomic theory,
n2
z2 Z2
P. E. = – 27.2 × e v ............(iii) I. kinetic energy of electron is ∝
n2
n2
From (ii) and (iii) equalion, |PEl = l K. E.| and P. E. = II. the product of velocity (v) of electron and
2En principal quantum number (n), 'vn' ∝Z2.
From eq. (i), if n increases; en becomes less negative III. frequency of revolution of electron in an orbit
and vice versa. Z3
So, if n = 1 is ∝ 3
n
i.e. when e– is at distance a0 from nucleolus En has
maximum value. IV. coulombic force of attraction on the electron is
681. The radius of the second Bohr orbit for Z3
∝ 4
hydrogen atom is (Planck's constant (h) = n
6.6262×10–34 Js; mass of electron = 9.1091×10–31 Choose the most appropriate answer from the
kg; charge of electron (e) = 1.60210×10–19 C; options given below.
permittivity of vacuum (∈0) = 8.854185×10–12
kg–1m–3A2) (a) Only III (b) Only I
(a) 1.65Å (b) 4.76Å (c) I, III and IV (d) I and IV
(c) 0.529Å (d) 2.12Å [JEE Main 2021, 24 Feb Shift-II]
[JEE Main 2017] Ans. (d) : According to Bohr’s theory :
Ans. (d) : Radius of nth orbit is– z 2 eV z2
0.529n 2 (A) K.E. = 13.6 ⇒ K.E. ∝
rn = Å n 2 atom n2
Z
z
n = 2, Z = 1 (B) speed of e – ∝
r2 = 0.53 × 4 Å = 2.12 Å n
∴ v× n ∝ z
682. Which of the following is the energy of a
possible excited state of hydrogen? v
(C) Frequency of revolution of e– =
(a) +13.6 eV (b) –6.8 eV 2πr
(c) –3.4 eV (d) +6.8 eV
[JEE Main-2015] z2
∴ Frequency ∝
Ans. (c) : E1 for H - atom = 13.6 eV n3
13.6 eV z
E2 for H - atom = – = – 3.4 eV (D) F ∝
22  n 2 2
 
13.6  z 
E3 for H - atom = – 2 eV = –1.5 eV  
3
Hence, energy of possible excited state of hydrogen is z3
F∝
–3.4 eV. n4

685. The kinetic energy of an electron in the second Ans. (c) : According to Bohr's model of an atom,
Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is equal to Z
h2 V∝
. The value of 10× x is ..........(a0 is radius n
xma02 Z = atomic number of atom, corresponds to the +ve
of Bohr's orbit) charge so as Z increases velocity increases so statement
I is worng.
(Nearest integer) (Given, π = 3.14)
and as ‘n’ decreases velocity increases so, statement-II
[JEE Main 2021, 27 Aug Shift-I] is correct.
We know that, 687. Given below are two statements.
1 Statement-I Bohr's theory accounts for the
K.E. = mv 2 .....(i)
2 stability and line spectrum of Li+ ion.
nh Statement-II Bohr's theory was unable to
mvr = → (Bohr 's model) explain the splitting of spectral lines in the
2π
presence of a magnetic field. In the light of the
n 2h 2 above statements, choose the most appropriate
(mv) 2 =
4π 2 r 2 answer from the options given below:
1 n 2h 2 (a) Both statement I and II are true.
mv 2 = × 2 2 .....(ii) (b) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
m 4π r
(c) Both statements I and II are false.
Put (ii) in (i)–
(d) Statement is true but statement II is false.
1 1 n2h 2 [JEE Main 2021, 18 March Shift-II]
K.E. = × × 2 2
2 m 4π r Ans. (b) : Statement -1 is false since, Bohr’s theory
Now, n0 = 2, r1 = a0, r2 = a0 × (2)2 = 4a0 accounts for the stability and spectrum of single
electronic species (e.g. He+, Li2+ etc)
1 22 h 2
K.E. = × 2 statement – II is true since, Bohr's theory was unable to
2 4π (4a 0 ) 2 m explain the splitting of spectral lines in the presence of a
h2 magnetic field.
⇒ 688. Bohr model of hydrogen atom was unable to
32π2 a 20 m
explain
from question– (a) Rydberg's formula of atomic spectra
h2 h2 (b) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
=
xma 0 32π 2 ma 02
2 (c) Planck's law of energy quantization
(d) Rutherford' model of atomic structure
1 1 J & K CET-(2012)
=
x 32π 2 Ans. (b) : Bohr model of hydrogen atom could not
x = 32π 2 explain :
x = 315.5 (i) de Broglie concept of dual nature of matter and
10x = 315.5 × 10 Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.
= 3155 (ii) the splitting of lines in magnetic and electric field.
686. Given below are two statements. 689. Energy of one mole of photons of radiation
whose frequency is 5 × 1014 Hz is
Statement-I According to Bohr's model of an
(a) 199.51 kJ mol–1 (b) 189.51 kJ mol–1
atom, qualitatively the magnitude of velocity of –1
(c) 198.51 kJ mol (d) 188.51 kJ mol–1
electron increases with decrease in positive
J & K CET-(2014)
charges on the nucleus as there is no strong
hold on the electron by the nucleus. Ans. (a) : Given, Frequency v = 5×1014 ∵ Energy of 1
Statement-II According to Bohr's model of an photon, E = hυ
atoms, qualitatively the magnitude of velocity ∴ Energy of 1 mole of photon, E’ = N A hυ
of electron increases with decrease in principal = 6.022×1023×6.626×10–34×5×1014
quantum number. In the light of the above = 199.508×103J mol–J = 199.51 kJmol–1
statements, choose the most appropriate
690. Let the energy of an nth orbit of H atom be
answer from the options given below.
–21.76 × 10-19 / n2J. What will be the longest
(a) Both statement I and statement II are false. wavelength of energy required to remove an
(b) Both statement I and statement II are true. electron from the third orbit?
(c) Statement I is false but statement II are true. (a) 0.628 nm (b) 1.326 × 10-7 m
(d) Statement I is true but statement II is false. (c) 0.798 pm (d) 0.821 µm
[JEE Main 2021, 26 Aug Shift-I] J & K CET-(2017)
Ans. (d) : Given, energy of an nth orbit of H atom 1 1
λ= = cm −1 =1.216 ×10−5 cm
−21.76 ×10−19 v 82258
E= J
n2 o
We know that, =1216 × 10−8 = 1216 A

hc hc 695. What is the energy (in eV) required to excite
E = ⇒λ = the electron from n = 1 to n = 2 state in
λ E hydrogen atom? (n = principal quantum
Where, c = speed of light = 3×108m/s number).
h = Plank's constant = 6.6 ×10–34 (a) 13.6 (b) 3.4
6.6 × 10−34 × 108 × n 2 (c) 17.0 (d) 10.2
λ= VITEEE-2012
−21.76 × 10−19
For n = 3 Ans. (d) : Energy required to excite the electron from n
= 1 to n = 2
6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 × (3)2
λ=  1 1  1 1 
−21.76 × 10−19 ∆E = 13.6z 2  2 − 2  = 13.6 × (1)2  2 − 2 
λ = 8.2×10 = 0.82 × 10–6 m = 0.82µm
–7 n
 1 n 2  1 2 
691. With respect to atomic spectrum, each line is  1 3
the Lyman series is due to electrons returning 13.6  1 −  = 13.6 ×
 4 4
(a) from a particular higher energy level to n=3 = 10.2 eV
(b) from a particular higher energy level to n=2
696. The first emission line in the electronic
(c) from a particular higher energy level to n=1 spectrum of hydrogen in the Balmer series
(d) from a particular higher energy level to n=4 appears at cm–1
J & K CET-(2018) (a) 9R/400 cm–1 (b) 7R/144 cm–1
–1
Ans. (c): Lyman series : n = 2, 3, 4, 5 to n = 1 (c) 3R/4 cm (d) 5R/36 cm–1
692. What is the maximum no of emission lines J & K CET-(2003)
obtained when the excited electrons of a Ans. (d) :
hydrogen atom in n=5 drop to ground state? For Balmer series n1= 2 and n2 = 3
(a) 10 (b) 5 For the first line
(c) 12 (d) 15
 1 1  1 1  5R −1
J & K CET-(2010) v = R 2 − 2  = R −  = cm
 2 3   4 9  36
Ans. (a) : Number of emission lines in the spectrum be
equal to (n2-n1) (n2–n1+1) where n2=5 and n1=1 697. Which of the following atomic models involve
the concept of stationary orbitals?
(5 –1)(5 –1+1) 20 (a) Bohr’s model (b) Thomson model
∴ = = 10 lines
2 2 (c) Rutherford model (d) wave model
693. The value of Rydberg constant is J & K CET-(2002)
(a) 109678 cm–1 (b) 109876 cm–1 Ans. (a) : According to Bohr’s concept electrons
–1
(c) 108769 cm (d) 108976 cm–1 revolve only is those orbits which have a fixed value of
J & K CET-(2007) energy these orbital are called stationary orbitals.
Ans. (a) : Rydberg constant is a physical constant 698. Which of the following value of nl in the
relating to atomic spectra. Denoted by R ∞ for heavy 1 1 1
atoms and RH for hydrogen. value of Rydberg constant relationship is = R H  2 - 2  is correct when
λ  n l n 2 
is 109678 cm–1.
n2 > n1 corresponds to Paschen lines in the
694. The wavelength of a spectral line in Lyman Hydrogen spectrum?
series, when electron jumping back to 2nd orbit, (a) 1 (b) 2
is (c) 3 (d) 4
(a) 1162 (b) 1216 J & K CET-(2001)
(c) 1362 (d) 1176
Ans. (c): The paschen line all lie in the infrared band.
J & K CET-(2007) This series overlaps with the next (Brackett) series, i.e.
1 1 1 the shortest line in the bracket series has a wavelength
Ans. (b) : = RH  2 - 2  that falls among the paschen series. For paschen lines in
λ  n1 n 2  the hydrogen spectrum the value of n is 3.
For Lyman Series n1=1, n2=2 699. Transition from n=4, 5, 6 to n = 3 in hydrogen
1 1  3 spectrum gives
v = 109 677 cm –1  2 – 2  = 109677× cm –1 (a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series
1 2  4
(c) Paschen series (d) Pfund series
= 82258 cm –1 J & K CET-(2000)
Ans. (c) : For Paschen series, 704. The wavelength of the radiation emitted, when
n1= 3, n2 > n1, i.e. n2 = 4,5, 6, ………∞ in a hydrogen atom electron falls from infinity
to stationary state one, would be (Rydberg
700. According to Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom, constant = 1.097 × 107 m–1)
which of the following is quantized for an
electron? (a) 91 nm (b) 192 nm
(a) acceleration (b) velocity (c) 406 nm (d) 9.1 × 10–8 nm
(c) angular momentum (d) angular acceleration JCECE - 2008
J & K CET-(1997) 1  1 1 
Ans. (c) : According to Bohr’s theory, electron can Ans. (a) : = R H z2  2 − 2 
λ  n1 n 2 
move in that circular path around the nucleous, in which
h 1 1 1
the angular momentum of an electron is either or = 1.097 ×107 × (1) 2 m −1  2 − 
2π λ 1 ∞ 
nh Therefore, λ = 91×10–9 m
, n=1 ,2 ,3 ……...
2π λ = 91 nm
So, angular momentum is quantized for the electron. 705. The energy of second Bohr orbit of the
701. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom in its hydrogen atom is –328 kJ mol–1; hence the
ground state is–13.12 × 105J mol–1. The energy energy of fourth Bohr orbit would be
of the electron corresponding to the first (a) – 41 kJ mol–1 (b) – 1312 kJ mol–1
–1
excited state will be (c) – 164 kJ mol (d) – 82 kJ mol–1
(a) –42.48 × 105 J mol–1 JCECE - 2008, 2012
(b) –26.24 × 105 J mol–1 Ans. (d) : The energy of second Bohr orbit of hydrogen
(c) –6.56 × 105 J mol–1 atom (E2) is –328 kJ mol–1 therefore
(d) –3.28 × 105 J mol–1 E
J & K CET-(1997) −328 = 2 ⇒ En = −328 × 4 = −1312kJ mol−1
2
Ans. (d) : First excited state means, n= 2 −1312
−13.12 × 105 ∴ En = kJ mol−1
E2 = J mol–1 n2
2
2 If n = 4,
= – 3.28 ×105 J mol–1 1312
702. The expression of angular momentum of an ∴ E4 = − 2 kJ mol−1 = −82 kJ mol−1
4
electron in a Bohr's orbit is: 706. When an electron in hydrogen spectrum jumps
nh nh from n = 7 to n = 2, the total number of spectral
(a) (b)
3π 2π lines possible are
h h (a) 21 (b) 15
(c) (d) l(l + 1). (c) 5 (d) 9
4π 2π
JCECE - 2003 JCECE - 2016
Ans. (b): The expression of angular momentum of an Ans. (b) : Total number of spectral lines for the
nh transition from n (Higher) → n(lower) will be =
electron in a Bohr's orbit is . ∆n.(∆n + 1)
2π
703. Ratio of kinetic energy of hydrogen and helium 2
gas at 300 K is : Where,
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 4 : 5 ∆n = Difference of nH – nL = 7 – 2 = 5
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 2 5× 6
∴ Total number of lines = = 15
JCECE - 2006 2
Ans. (c) : We know that, 707. An electron is moving in Bohr's fourth orbit.
3 Its de-Broglie wave length is λ. What is the
K.E. = nRT circumference of the fourth orbits?
2
Therefore, 2
(a) (b) 2λ
K.E. ∝ n λ
w 4
or K.E. ∝ (c) 4λ (d)
M λ
K.E.H2 M He JIPMER-2014
= Ans. (c) : According to Bohr’s concept an electron
K.E.He M H2 always move in the orbit with angular momentum (mvr)
2 1 equal to nh/2π
= =
2 1 nh
mvr =
K.E.H2: K.E.He = 1:1 2π
n  h  711. If the energies of the two photons in the ratio of
r=   3 : 2, their wavelength will be in the ratio of
2π  mv  (a) 2 : 3 (b) 9 : 4
nλ (c) 3 : 2 (d) 1 : 2
r=
2π Karnataka-CET-2011
h hc
(From de–Broglie equation, λ= ) Ans. (a) : E =
mv λ
For fourth orbit (n=4) 1
2λ E∝
r= λ
π E1 λ 2
2λ =
∴ circumference= 2πr = 2π × = 4λ E 2 λ1
π
3 λ2
708. The ratio of the difference in energy between =
the first and the second Bohr orbit to that 2 λ1
between the second and the third Bohr orbit is ∴ λ1 : λ2 = 2 : 3
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/3 712. The radius of the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen
(c) 4/9 (d) 27/5 atom is 0.529Å. The radius of the third orbit of
JIPMER-2012 H+ will be
(a) 8.46Å (b) 0.705Å
1312 1312 3
Ans. (d) :∆E=E2–E1 = 2 − = 1312   (c) 1.59Å (d) 4.29Å
1 22 4 (e) 2.98Å
1312 1312  5  Kerala-CEE-2007
= E3 – E2 = 2
− 2 = 1312   Ans. (d) : According to Bohr model,
2 3  36 
0.529 × n 2
Radius of hydrogen atom (rn)= Å
3 5 z
∴ E2– E1: E3–E2 = : = 27:5
4 36 0.529 × (3) 2
r3 =
709. Ratio of radii of second and first Bohr orbits of 1
H atom is =4.79Å
(a) 2 (b) 4 713. Which diagram best represents the appearance
(c) 3 (d) 5 of the line spectrum of atomic hydrogen in the
JIPMER-2005 visible region?
Ans. (b) : According to Bohr's rule, r ∝ n2
Where r is radii and n is the number of orbit
r1 (2)2
So, = =4
r2 (1) 2
Hence, ratio of radii is 4.
710. What will be the number of waves formed by a
Bohr electron in one complete revolution in its
second orbit?
(a) Three (b) Two
(c) One (d) Zero
JIPMER-2016
Ans. (b) : Number of waves = circumference of orbit Kerala-CEE-2007
de − Broglie wavelength of electron Ans. (c) : Line spectrum of atomic hydrogen in the
h visible region
λ=
mv
2πr 2π
µ= = × mvr
h h
mv 714. Which transition in the hydrogen atomic
nh 2π nh spectrum will have the same wavelength as the
mvr = , µ = × transition, n = 4 to n = 2 of He+ spectrum?
2π h 2π
(a) n = 4 to n = 3 (b) n = 3 to n = 2
µ= n
(c) n = 4 to n = 2 (d) n = 3 to n = 1
For second orbit, n =2 (e) n = 2 to n = 1
∴ number of waves,µ = 2 Kerala-CEE-2011
717. In the hydrogen atom spectrum, the emission of
1 1 1
Ans. (e) : = z2R H  2 − 2  the least energetic photon taken place during
λ  n1 n 2  the transition from n= 6 energy level to n =
........energy level.
1 1 1 3 3
For He2, = z 2 R H  2 − 2  = 4 × = (a) 1 (b) 3
λ 2 4  16 4 (c) 5 (d) 4
1 2 1 1  3 (e) 2
For H, =1 RH  2 − 2  = Kerala-CEE-2016
λ 1 2  4
Ans. (c) : As we move towards outer shell the energy
Hence, for hydrogen n=2, n=1 increases but the difference between the successive
715. The ratio of frequency corresponding to the shalls decreases
third line in Lyman series of hydrogen atomic E2–E1>E3–E2>E4–E3---------
spectrum to that of the first line in Balmer Hence, the emission of least energetic photon
series of Li2+ spectrum is takes place during the transition from n=6 energy level
4 5 to n=5 energy level.
(a) (b) 718. The energy of an electron is the 3S orbital
5 4
(excited state) of H – atom is
4 3 (a) – 1.5eV (b) – 13.6eV
(c) (d)
3 4 (c) – 3.4eV (d) 4.53eV
3 (e) 4.53eV
(e) Kerala-CEE-2017
8
−13.6
Kerala-CEE-2012 Ans. (a) : E n = eV
Ans. (d) : Lyman series n1=1 n2
13.6 ×1
For third line of Lyman series, n2 = 4 E1 = − eV
For hydrogen, z = 1 n2
13.6 13.6
c  1 1  E n = − 2 eV = − = −1.5eV
vH = = c.R H Z2  2 − 2  (3) 9
λ  n1 n 2  = – 1.51ev (n=3, for 3s–orbital)
1 1  15 719. The shortest wavelength of Paschen series in
= cRH (1)2  − 2  = R H ⋅ c hydrogen spectrum is 8182 Å. The first
 1 (4)  16 member of the Paschen series is nearly.
For lithium, Z = 3 (a) 15400 Å (b) 12200 Å
For first line of Balmer series, n1 = 2, n2=3 (c) 13400 Å (d) 18700 Å
 1 1  5 (e) 16700 Å
vLi2+ = c.RH (3)2  2 − 2  = c.RH×9× Kerala-CEE-2020
 (2) (3)  36
Ans. (d) : For the calculation of wavelength of spectral
5 lines Rydberg gave a formula,
= c.R H
4 1 1 1
 15  = R H Z2  2 − 2 
  cR H 15 4 3 λ n
 1 n 2
= 
vH 16
= × = Where, λ = Wavelength
v Li 2+ 5 16 5 4 RH = Rydberg’s constant
  cR H
4 Z = Atomic number of atom
716. The shortest wavelength of the line in hydrogen n1 and n2 = integers
atomic spectrum of Lyman series when RH = RH = 1.0973 × 107 m–1
109678 cm-1 is 1  1 1 
= 1.0973 × 107  2 − 2 
(a) 1002.7Å (b) 1215.67 Å λ  (3) (4) 
(c) 1127.30 Å (d) 911.7 Å 1 7
(e) 1234.7 Å = 1.0973 × 107 ×
λ 16 × 9
Kerala-CEE-2014 1 16 × 9
Ans. (d) : For Lyman series, n1=1 and for shortest =
λ 7 × 1.0973 ×107
wavelength, n2=∞ 144
1 1 1  λ= ×10−7
∴ v = = R H  2 − 2  = 109678 cm −1 7.6811
λ 1 ∞  λ = 18.747 × 10–7
1 λ = 18747 ×10–10 ( Q 1m = 10–10 Å)
λ= cm = 911.7 × 10−8 cm = 911.7Å
109678 λ ≈ 18,800 Å

720. In the atomic spectrum of hydrogen, the Ans. (d) : Radius of hydrogen atom = 0.53Å
spectral lines pertaining to electronic transition Number of excited state (n) = 2
of n = 4 to n = 2 refers to : Atomic number of hydrogen atom (Z)=1
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series We know that the Bohr radius.
(c) Paschen series (d) Brackett series
n2 (2) 2
Manipal-2018 r= × rn = × 0.530
Ans. (b) : In Balmer series, electrons transfer from Z 1
= 4×0.530
higher orbits to 2nd orbit.
= 2.12Å
721. Which of the following statement do not form a
726. In a Bohr's model of an atom, when an electron
part of Bohr's model of hydrogen atom? jumps from n = 1 to n = 3, how much energy
(a) Energy of the electrons in the orbits are will be emitted or absorbed?
quantized. (a) 2.389 × 10–12 ergs (b) 0.239 × 10–10 ergs
(b) The electron in the orbit nearest the nucleus (c) 2.15 × 10–11 ergs (d) 0.1936 × 10–12 ergs
has the lower energy. NEET-1996
(c) Electrons revolve in different orbits around Ans. (d) : According to Bohr’s model of atom
the nucleus
(d) The position and velocity of the electrons in  1 1 
∆E = 2.18×10–18  2 − 2  J
the orbit cannot be determined simultaneously n
 1 n 2 
NEET-1989
 1 1 
Ans. (d) : According is the Heisenberg uncertainty =2.18×10–18  −  J
principle, the position and velocity of the electrons in 2 9
the orbit cannot be determined simultaneously. This =1.9×10–18 J
statement is not correct according to Bohr’s model = 1.9×10–18×107 erg
because according to Bohr’s model it was possible to = 0.19×10–10 erg
determine both position and velocity simultaneously. 727. According to the Bohr theory, which of the
following transitions in the hydrogen stom will
722. If r is the radius of the first orbit, the radius of
give the ratio the least energic photon?
nth orbit of H-atom is given by
(a) n = 6 to n = 1 (b) n = 5 to n = 4
(a) rn2 (b) rn (c) n = 6 to n = 5 (d) n = 5 to n = 3
(c) r/n (d) r2n2 NEET-Mains 2011
NEET-1988 Ans. (c) : We know that
Ans. (a) : Radius of nth orbit= r1n2 (for H–atom).
1 1
723. The energy of an electron in the nth Bohr orbit ∆E ∝  2 − 2  , where n2>n1
of hydrogen atom is n
 1 n 2
13.6 13.6 ∴ n=6 to n=5 will give least energetic photon

(a) − 4 eV (b) – 3 eV
n n 728. The energy of second Bohr orbit of the
13.6 13.6 hydrogen atom is –328 kJ mol–1. hence the
(c) – 2 eV (d) – eV energy of fourth Bohr orbit would be
n n (a) –41 kj mol–1 (b) –82 kj mol–1
NEET-1992 (c) –164 kj mol –1
(d) –1312 kj mol–1
th
Ans.(c): Energy of an electron in n Bohr orbit of NEET-2005
13.6 Ans. (b) : Energy of electron in nth orbit of hydrogen
hydrogen atom (E) = − 2 eV (Z = 1)
n E
En = − 2
724. Who modified Bohr's theory by introductin n
elliptical orbits for electrons path? Where E is a constant
(a) Rutherford (b) Thomson E
(c) Hund (d) Sommerfeld E 2 = 2 = −328kJ mol−1
2
NEET-1999 E= 4×328 kJ mol–1
Ans. (d) : Sommerfeld modified Bohr’s theory. −E −4 × 328
According to him electrons move in elliptical orbits in E4 = 2 = kJ mol −1
4 16
addition to circular orbits. = –82 kJ mol–1
725. The Bohr orbit radius for the hydrogen atom 729. The radius of which of the following orbit is
(n =1) is approximately 0.530Å. The radius for same as that of the first Bohr's orbit of
the first excited state (n=2) orbit is (in Å) hydrogen atom
(a) 4.77 (b) 1.06 (a) He+ (n = 2) (b) Li2+ (n = 2)
2+
(c) 0.13 (d) 2.12 (c) Li (n = 3) (d) Be4+ (n = 2)
NEET-1998 UP CPMT-2013

Ans. (d) : For H-like particles, the radii of the first Ans. (c): Hβ line is formed when electron jumps from
stationary states are given by the expression 3rd orbit in Lyman series.
a0n2 n1 = 1, n2 = 3
rn = 733. The energy of second Bohr orbit of the
Z
For H-atom, n = 1 and Z = 1 hydrogen atom is – 328 kJ mol–1; hence the
∴ rn = a0 = Bohr energy of fourth Bohr orbit would be
radius = 52.9 pm. (a) –41kJ mol–1 (b) –1312 kJ mol–1
–1
(a) For He+ ion, n = 2 and Z = 2 (c) –164kJ mol (d) –82 kJ mol–1
UPTU/UPSEE-2007
a 0 (2) 2 Ans. (d) : Energy of 2nd orbit= –328 kJ/mol
∴ rn = = 2a 0
2 328
(b) For Li2+ ion, n = 2 and Z = 3 Now, energy of 4th orbit will be = − = − 82 kJ mol−1
4
a 0 (2) 2 4a 0 734. The wavelength of the radiation emitted, when
∴ rn = =
3 3 in a hydrogen atom electron falls from infinity
(c) For Li2+ ion, n = 3 and Z = 3 to stationary state, would be (Rydberg constant
a 0 (3) 2 = 1.097 × 107 m–1)
∴ rn = = 3a 0 (a) 91 nm (b) 192 nm
3 (c) 406 nm (d) 9.1 × 10–8 nm
(d) For Be4+ ion, n = 2 and Z = 4
UPTU/UPSEE-2007
a 0 (2) 2
∴ rn = = a 0 = Bohr radius = 52.9 pm 1  1 1 
4 Ans. (a) : = νH = R H  2 − 2 
730. Number of spectral lines of Lyman series of λ  n1 n 2 
electron when it jumps from 6 to first level (in 1 1 
Lyman series), is = 1.097 ×107  2 − 2 
(a) 9 (b) 12 1 ∞ 
(c) 15 (d) 18 1
= m = 9.11× 10−8 m
UP CPMT-2009 1.097 × 107
n ( n − 1) = 91.1×10–9 m
Ans. (c): Number of spectral lines = = 91.1 nm
2
735. The radius of hydrogen atom in the ground
6 ( 6 − 1) state is 0.53Å.The radius of Li2+ ion (atomic
=
2 number = 3) in a similar state is:
= 15 (a) 0.176Å (b) 0.30Å
731. What is the wave number of 4th line in Balmer (c) 0.53Å (d) 1.23Å
series of hydrogen spectrum? UPTU/UPSEE-2014, 2005
(R = 1,09,677 cm–1) Ans. (a) :
(a) 24,630 cm–1 (b) 24,360 cm–1
n2 12
(c) 24,730 cm –1
(d) 24,372 cm–1 Radius of Li 2+ ion = r1 × = 0.53 × = 0.17 Ǻ
UP CPMT-2008 z 3
736. For a Bohr atom angular momentum M of the
 1 1  electron is : (n=0,1,2,....)
Ans. (d): ν = R  2 − 2 
n
 1 n 2  nh 2 n 2h2
th (a) (b)
For Balmer series n1 = 2 and for 4 line in Balmer 4π 4π
series n2 = 6 2
R = 109677 cm–1 nh nh
(c) (d)
 1 1 4π 2π
ν =109677  2 − 2  UPTU/UPSEE-2005
2 6 
Ans. (d) : For a Bohr atom, angular momentum m of
1 1 
= 109677  −  the electron (mvr) =
nh
 4 36  2 π
ν = 24,372 cm-1 –
737. If an e is revolving in the first bohr orbit of a
732. What are the values of n1 and n2 respectively H-atom with a velocity of 2.19 × 108 cms–1,
for Hβ line in the Lyman series of hydrogen what will be the velocity of the e– in the third
atomic spectrum? orbit of H-atom ?
(a) 3 and 5 (b) 2 and 3 (a) 2.19 × 108 cms–1 (b) 7.3 × 107 cms–1
8 –1
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 (c) 6.57 × 10 cms (d) 1.09 × 108 cms–1
UP CPMT-2008 UPTU/UPSEE-2018
Ans. (b) : The velocity of electron in different orbits is 740. Which one of the following represents the
given by the following expression, correct ratio of the energy of electron in
z ground state of H atom to that of the electron
Vn = Vo × in the first excited state of Li+?
n
Given, for first Bohr orbital of H–atom (a) 4:9 (b) 9:4
Vo = 2.19×108 cm s–1 (c) 1:4 (d) 4:1
∴ the velocity of e– in third orbit of H–atom is (Q n=3) UPTU/UPSEE-2011
2
1 Z
Vn= 2.19×108× Ans. (a) : E n ∝
3 n2
= 0.73×108 cm s–1 1
2
= 7.3×107 cm s–1 For H atom, E1 ∝ 2 [QZ = 1 for hydrogen]

1
738. The radius of which of the following orbit is E1 = 1
same as that of the first Bohr's orbit of 2
hydrogen atom? 3
For Li+ ion, E 2 ∝ 2 [QZ = 3for Li + ion]
(a) Li2+ (n = 2) (b) Li2+ (n = 3) 2
3+
(c) Be (n = 2) (d) He+ (n = 2) 9
UPTU/UPSEE-2015 E2 =
4
n2 9
Ans. (c) : rn = rH × Thus, E1/E2 = 1 / or 4 : 9
z 4
For Li2+ (n=2) 741. What is the energy required to move the
(2)2 rH × 4 electron from ground state of H atom to the
rLi2+ = rH × = first excited state? Given that the ground state
3 9
For Li2+ (n=3) energy of H atom is 13.6 eV and that the energy
En of an electron in nth orbital of an atom or
(3) 2 ion of atomic number Z is given by the
rLi2+ = rH × = 3rH
3 equation
For Be3+ (n=2) En= – (13.6Z2/n2).
(2)2 (a) 13.6 eV (b) 3.4 eV
rBe3+ = rH × = rH (c) 10.2 eV (d) –10.2 eV
4
For He+ (n=2) UPTU/UPSEE-2011
rH × (2) 2 −13.6
rHe+ = = 2rH Ans. (c) : E n = × Z2
4 n2
3+
Thus, Be (n=2) has same radius as that of the first The energy required to move from ground state (n = 1)
Bohr's orbit of H–atom. of H to first excited state (n = 2) is
739. The ratio of the difference in energy between  1 1 3
∆E = E2 – E1 = –13.6  2 − 2  = 13.6 × = 10.2 eV
the first and second Bohr orbit to that between  2 1  4
the second and third Bohr orbit is
742. An electron from one Bohr stationary orbit
1 1 can go to next higher orbit
(a) (b)
2 27 (a) by emission of electromagnetic radiation
4 27 (b) by absorption of any electromagnetic
(c) (d)
9 5 radiation
UPTU/UPSEE-2013 (c) by absorption of electromagnetic radiation of
1 1 particular frequency
Ans. (d) : : E1 – E2 = –13.6 × Z2  2 − 2  (d) without emission or absorption of
1 2  electromagnetic radiation
3 UPTU/UPSEE-2008
E1 – E2 = –13.6 × Z2   ––––– (i)
4 Ans. (c) : According to Bohr's atomic model, if energy
 1 1 is supplied to an electron it may jump from a lower
E2 – E3 = –13.6 × Z2  2 − 2  energy level to higher energy level. Energy is absorbed
2 3  in the form of quanta (or photon)
 5  ∆E = h ν
E2 – E3 = –13.6 × Z2   ––––– (ii)
 36  Where, ν is the frequency.
From eqn. (i) and (ii) According to above postulate an electron from one Bohr
 E1 − E 2  3 × 36 27 stationary orbit can go to next higher orbit by the
 = = absorption of electromagnetic radiation of particular
 E 2 − E3  4 × 5 5 frequency.
743. For the Paschen series the values of n1 and n2 in 747. The emission spectrum of hydrogen discovered
the expression first and the region of the electromagnetic
spectrum in which it belongs, respectively are
 1 1  (a) Lyman, ultraviolet (b) Lyman, visible
∆E = R H c  2 − 2 
 n1 n 2  (c) Balmer, ultraviolet (d) Balmer, visible
(a) n1=1,n2=2,3,4,… (b) n1=2,n2=3,4,5,… WB-JEE-2014
(c) n1=3,n2=4,5,6,… (d) n1=4,n2=5,6,7,… Ans. (d) : Balmar spectrum of hydrogen was discovered
first and it lies in the visible region.
WB-JEE-2009
748. The time taken for an electrin to complete one
Ans. (c) : Paschen series is the third series of hydrogen revolution in Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is
spectrum and lies in the infrared region, therefore for
4m 2π r 2 n2h2
this series, n1 = 3 and n2 > n1, i.e. 4, 5, 6, ...... (a) 2 2
(b)
n h 4mr 2
744. In Sommerfeld's modification of Bohr's theory,
4π 2 mr 2 nh
the trajectory of an electron in a hydrogen (c) (d)
atom is nh 4π 2
mr 2
(a) a perfect ellipse WB-JEE-2016
(b) a closed ellipse like curve, narrower at the Ans. (c) : We know according to Bohr's theory
perihelion position and flatter at the aphelion nh
mvr =
position 2π
(c) a closed loop on a spherical surface nh
V=
(d) a rosette. 2πmr
WB-JEE-2010 ∴ Time required for one complete revolution
Ans. (a) : According to Sommerfield's modification, the 2πr 2πr 4π2 mr 2
T= = × 2πmr =
trajectory of an electron in a hydrogen atom is a closed V nh nh
ellipse like curve in addition to circular orbits. 749. The energy required to break one mole of
745. The electronic transitions from n = 2 to n = 1 hydrogen-hydrogen bonds in H2 is 436 KJ.
will produce shortest wavelength in (Where n = What is the longest wavelength of light
principal quantum state) required to break a single hydrogen- hydrogen
2+ + bond?
(a) Li (b) He (a) 68.5 nm (b) 137 nm
(c) H (d) H+ (c) 274 nm (d) 548 nm
WB-JEE-2011 WB-JEE-2016
1  1 1  Ans. (c) : Amount of energy required to break one H-H
Ans. (a) : = Z2 R H  2 − 2 
λ  n1 n 2  436 ×10 3
436
bond is = J mol−1
n1 = 1, n2 = 2 6.023 × 10 23
6.023 × 10 20
Now,
1 1 1  1 3 hc
= Z2 R H  −  = = R H Z2 E=
λ 1 4  λ 4 λ
∴λ∝ 2
1 6.626 ×10−34 × 3 × 108
λ= × 6.023 ×1020
Z 436
Hence, elements having high atomic number will 6.626 × 6.023 × 3
produce shortest wavelength. = ×10−6 = 274 nm
436
746. The energy of an electron in first Bohr orbit of 750. The radius of the first Bohr orbit of a hydrogen
H-atoms is 13.6 eV. the possible energy value of atom is 0.53×10-8 cm. The velocity of the
2+
electron in the excited state of Li is electron in the first Bohr orbit is
(a) -122.4 eV (b) 30.6 eV (a) 2.188×108cm s–1 (b) 4.376×108cm s–1
8 –1
(c) -30.6 eV (d) 13.6 eV (c) 1.094×10 cm s (d) 2.188×109cm s–1
Ans. (a) : The formula used for the velocity of electron
Z2 in Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is:
Ans. (c) : En = E1× 2
n nh
E1 = energy of hydrogen in first orbit V=
2πmr
n = 2, Z = 3
1× 6.6 × 10−34
(3) 2 V=
En = – 13.6 × 2
= – 30.6 eV 2 × 3.14 × 9.1× 10−31 × 0.53 × 10−10
(2) = 2.18 × 106 ms–1

9. Isobars and Isotopes 10. Line Spectrum of Hydrogen
751. ( Ge 76 , 34Se76 ) and(14 Si 30 , 16S 32 ) are examples of
32
757. The ratio of the shortest wavelength of two
spectral series of hydrogen spectrum is found
(a) isotopes and isobars to be about 9. The spectral series are
(b) isobars and isotones (a) Lyman and Paschen
(c) isotones and isotopes (b) Brackett and Pfund
(d) isobars and isotopes
(c) Paschen and Pfund
WB-JEE-2014
(d) Balmer and Brackett
Ans. (b) : 32Ge76 and 34Se76 have the same mass number [JEE Main 2019, 10 April Shift-II]
but different atomic number, so they are isobars.
Number of neutrons in 14Si30 = 30 – 14 = 16 1  1 1 
Number of neutrons in 16S32 = 32 – 16 = 16 = R H  2 − 2  Z2
λ  n1 n 2 
Because of the presence of some number of neutrons, Ans. (a) : 2
30 32 1  1 1 
14Si and 16S are called isotones. = R H  2 − 2  Z2
752. 19K40 and 20Ca40 are known as λ1  m1 m 2 
(a) isotopes (b) isobars As for shortest wavelengths both n2 and m2 are ∞ and z
(c) isotones (d) isodiaphers for H is 1
UP CPMT-2002 λ
40 40 ∴ 1 = 9 ( given )
Ans.(b): 19K and 20Ca both have same mass no but λ2
different atomic number, are called isobars. 2
753. Isotopic pair is m 
∴ 9= 1
(a) 20X40, 21Y40 (b) 20X40, 20Y41  n1 
20 20
(c) 40X , 41Y (d) None of these 2
2
UP CPMT-2005 3  m 
or   =  1 
Ans. (b) : Key Idea: Isotopes are the atoms of same  1   n1 
element which have different atomic masses (due to
different number of neutrons). They had same atomic m1 =3 (lyman)
numbers. n1 = 1 (paschen)
∴ choice (b) is the correct answer because both (20X40, 758. The shortest wavelength of H atom in the
41
20X ) have same atomic number but different atomic Lyman series is λ1. The longest wavelength in
mass. the Balmer series of He+ is
754. O2 and O3 are 36λ1 5λ1
(a) allotropes (b) isotopes (a) (b)
5 9
(c) isomorphs (d) polymorphs
9λ1 27λ1
UP CPMT-2010 (c) (d)
Ans. (a) : Since, in O2 and O3 different numbers of 5 5
same element i.e. oxygen are present, these are [JEE Main 2020, Sep Shift-II]
allotropes. Ans. (c) : As we know
Note. Different crystalline structures, different number hc
of atoms and different nuclear spins all result in ∆E =
allotropy. λ
755. An isobar of 20Ca40 is hc
So, λ = for λ minimum i.e. shortest; ∆E =
(a) 18Ar40 (b) 20Ca38 ∆E
(c) 20Ca 42
(d) 18Ar38 maximum For Lyman series n = 1 & for ∆E max.
MHT CET-2008 Transition must be form n = ∝ to n = 1
Ans. (a) : Isobars have same atomic mass but different So,
atomic numbers. Therefore, the isobars of 20Ca40 is  1
40 1 1 
18Ar . = RH Z2  2 − 2 
756. Isotones have λ  n1 n 2 
(a) same number of protons 1
(b) same number of electrons = RH Z2 (1 − 0 )
λ
(c) same number of neutrons
(d) same isotopic mass 1 1
= R × (1)2 ⇒ λ1 =
UP CPMT-2010 λ R
Ans. (c): Species having the same number of neutron For longest wavelength ∆E = minimum for Balmer
but different atomic number as well as atomic mass are Series n = 3 to n = 2 will have ∆E = minimum.
39 40
called isotones. E.g. 18 Ar, 19 K. for He+ (Z) = 2

So, 762. Which is the shortest wavelength line in the
Lyman series of the hydrogen spectrum?
1  1 1  (R=1.097×10–2nm–1)
= RH × Z2  2 − 2 
λ2  n1 n 2  (a) 94.21 nm (b) 91.16 nm
(c) 911.6 nm (d) 933.6 nm
1 1 1
= RH × 4  −  JIPMER-2004
λ2 4 9
1  1 1 
1 5 Ans. (b) : : For Lyman Series = R 2 − 2 
= RH × λ  (1) n 
λ2 9
Hence for λ to be smallest n should be greatest
λ 2 = λ1 × 5 / 9 1  1 
= 1.097 ×10−2 1 − 
759. Match the type of series given in Column I with λ min  ∞2 
the wavelength range given in Column II and ⇒ 1.097 × 10–2
choose the correct option. or
Column I Column II 1
A. Lyman 1. Ultraviolet λ min = = 91.16nm
1.097 × 10−2
B. Paschen 2. Near infrared 763. The wave number of the spectral line in the
C. Balmer 3. Far infrared emission spectrum of hydrogen will be equal to
D. Pfund 4. Visible 8
times the Radberg’s constant if the electron
Codes 9
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 4 3 1 2 jumps from
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 4 3 2 1 (a) n = 3 to n = 1 (b) n = 10 to n = 1
JIPMER-2017 (c) n = 9 to n = 1 (d) n = 2 to n = 1
Ans. (a) : The correct match is Karnataka-CET, 2010
(A) → Lyman → (1) Ultraviolet Ans. (a) : Wave number of spectral line in emission
spectrum of hydrogen,
(B) → Paschen → (2) Near infrared
(C) → Balmer → (4) Visible  1 1 
ν = RH  2 − 2  … (i)
(D) → Pfund → (3) Far infrared n
 1 n 2 
760. What is the wave number of 4th line in Balmer 8
series of hydrogen spectrum? (R = 1, 09, 677 Given ν = R H
cm–1) 9
On putting the value of ν in Eq. (i), we get
(a) 24,630 cm–1 (b) 24,360cm −1
8  1 1 
(c) 24,730 cm–1 (d) 24,372 cm–1 RH = RH  2 − 2 
JIPMER-2009 9  n1 n 2 
−  1 1  8 1 1
Ans. (d) : V = R  2 − 2  = 2− 2
9 (1) n
 n1 n 2  2
th
For Balmer series n1= 2 and for 4 line in Balmer series 8 1
−1 = − 2
n2 = 6 9 n2
–1
R = 109677 cm 1 1
−  1 1 =
V = 109677  2 − 2  3 n2
2 6  ∴ n2 = 3
1 1  Hence, electron jumps from n2 = 3 to n1 = 1
= 109677  − 
 4 36  764. X-rays are electromagnetic radiation whose
− wavelengths are of the order of:
–1
V = 24, 372 cm (a) 1 metre (b) 10–1 metre
–5
761. What are the values of n1 and n2 respectively (c) 10 metre (d) 10–10 metre
for Hβ line in the Lyman series of hydrogen NDA (II)-2015
atomic spectrum 44? Ans : (d) X-ray are electromagnetic radiation whose
(a) 3 and 5 (b) 2 and 3 wavelength are the order of 10–10 meter.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 • X-ray are produces when high velocity electron
JIPMER-2009 collide with metal plates
Ans. (c) : HB line is formed when electron jumps from • It have shorter wavelength of the electromagnetic
3rd orbit to 1st orbit in Lyman Series spectrum.
∴n1 = 1, n2 =3 • It have capability to travel in vaccum.
765. The shortest wavelength in hydrogen spectrum Or
of Lyman series when RH = 109678 cm-1, is n2 = 2
(a) 1002.7Å (b) 1215.67Å ∴ The electron jumps from second orbit (n2) to ground
(c) 1127.30Å (d) 911.7Å state (n1)
(e) 1234.7Å 768. Splitting of spectrum lines in magnetic field is
Kerala-CEE-2010 (a) Stark effect (b) Raman effect
Ans. (d) : For Lyman Series, n1 = 1 (c) Zeeman effect (d) Rutherford effect
− 1  1 1  1 1  UPTU/UPSEE-2008
V = = RH  2 − 2  = RH  2 − 2  Ans. (c) : Stark effect ⇒ The splitting of spectral lines
λ  n1 n 2  1 ∞ 
under the influences of electric field is called stark
Or effect.
1 1 Zeeman effect ⇒ The splitting of spectral lines under
λ= =
R H 109678cm −1 the influences of magnetic field is called Zeeman effect.
= 911.7 × 10–8 769. Heat treatment of muscular pain involves
= 911.7Å radiation of wavelength of about 900 nm.
766. What will be the longest wavelength line in Which spectral line of H-atoms is suitable for
Balmer series of spectrum? this purpose? [RH = 1×105cm–1, h = 6.6 × 10–34
(a) 546 nm (b) 656 nm Js,c = 3 × 108 ms–1]
(c) 566 nm (d) 356 nm (a) Paschen, 5→3 (b) Paschen, ∞→3
NEET-1996 (c) Lyman, ∞→1 (d) Balmer, ∞→2
Ans. (b) : The longest wavelength means that lowest [JEE Main 2019, 11 Jan Shift-I]
energy. We known that relation for wavelength
 1 1  1 1  1 1
1 1  Ans. (b) : = R H  2 − 2  = 107  2 − 
= RH  2 − 2  λ n n 3 ∞
λ  n1 n 2   1 2 
Here n1 = n2 n2 = 3 λ = 9 × 10–7 m
RH is Rydberg constant = 109677 cm–1 ∴ λ = 900 nm
1  1 1  770. In hydrogen spectrum, the series of lines
= 109677  2 − 2  = 15233 appearing in ultra violet region of
λ  (2) (3)  electromagnetic spectrum are called :
Or (a) Balmer lines (b) Lyman lines
1 (c) Pfund lines (d) Brackett lines
λ= = 6.56 × 10–5 cm
15233 Manipal-2017
⇒ 6.56 × 10–7 λ ⇒ 656 nm Ans. (b) : Lyman series was found out in the ultraviolet
767. The wave number of hydrogen atom in Lymen region by Lyman.
series is 82200 cm−1. The electron goes from Balmer series was found out in the visible region by
Balmer.
(a) n3 → n2 (b) n2 → n1
Bracket series was found out in the infrared region by
(c) n4 → n3 (d) None of these Brackett.
UPTU/UPSEE-2013 P fund series was found out in the infrared region by P
Ans. (b) : According to Rydberg formula fund.
−  1 1 
V = R 2 − 2 
 n1 n 2  11. Filling of Orbital’s in atom
Here, R = 109677 = 109678 cm–1
− 771. In a given atom no two electrons can have the
V = 82200 cm–1 same values for all the four quantum numbers.
82200  1 1  This is called
Thus, = −  (a) Hund's Rule
109678  12 n 22 
(b) Aufbau principle
Or (c) Uncertainty principle
3  1  (d) Pauli's Exclusion principle
= 1 − 
4  n 22  NEET-1991
Ans. (d) : In a given atom no two electrons can have the
1 3 1
= 1− = same values for all the four quantum numbers. This is
n 22 4 4 called Pauli's Exclusion principle.

772. Wave nature of electrons was demonstrated by Ans. (d) : Hund's rule of maximum multiplicity states
(a) Schrodinger that, the pairing of electrons in the orbital's of a
(b) de-Broglie particular subshell (p, d or f) does not take place until
(c) Davisson and Germer all the orbital of as subshell are singly occupied. Thus
all he given statements are not related to Hund's rule.
(d) Heisenberg
775. The scientist who proposed the atomic model
UP CPMT-2004 based one the quantization of energy for the
J & K CET-(1999) first time was
Ans. (c) : (a) Schrodinger He put forward new model (a) Max Planck (b) Neils Bohr
of atom by taking into account the de-Broglie concept (c) de-Broglie (d) Heisenberg
of dual nature matter and Heisenberg's uncertainly J & K CET-(2008)
principle. He described the motion of electron in threo Ans. (b) : Neils Bohr utilized the concept of
dimensional space in the form of mathematical equation quantization of energy (Proposed by max Planck) first
known as Schrödinger wave equation. time to give a new model of atom.
(b) de-Broglie According to him, all the material 776. Who used the quantum theory for the first time
particles possess wave character as well as particle to explain the structure of atom?
character. (a) de Broglie (b) Bohr
h (c) Heisenberg (d) Einstein
λ= (de - Broglie equation) J & K CET-(2005)
mv
Ans. (b) : To overcome the objections of Rutherford's
Water, λ = Wavelength model and to explain the hydrogen spectrum, Bohr
h = Planck's constant proposed a quantum mechanical model of the atom,
m = mass of particle which is based on the quantum theory of radiation and
v = Velocity of particle the classical laws of physics.
(c) Davisson and Germer They carried out experiment 777. Which is not in accordance to aufbau
to show the wave character of electrons. They observed principle?
when a beam of electrons is allowed to fall on the
surface of nickel crystal are received on photographic
plate, a diffraction pattern similar to that of X-rays is
obtained. Since, X-rays are electromagnetic rays, it
means electrons have wave character also.
(d) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle It states that BCECE-2008
position and momentum of an electron cannot be Ans. (c) : Aufball principle states that in the ground
measured accurately and simultaneously. state of an atom, the orbital with lower energy is filled
∴ Correct answer is (c) because wave nature of electron up first before the filling of the orbital's with a higher
is demonstrated by Davission and Germer. energy commences, increasing order of energy of
various orbital's is
773. The observation that the ground state of 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 4s, 3d, 3p, 5s etc.
nitrogen atom has 3 unpaired electrons in its
electronic configuration and not otherwise is 778. The Pauli exclusion principle applies to the
following option.
associated with:
(a) H (b) H+
(a) Pauli’s exclusion principle –
(c) H (d) He+
(b) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity Manipal-2016
(c) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
Ans. (c) : Since H has one electron and H ⊕ has no
(d) Ritz combination principle electron the Pauli exclusion principle does not apply to
JCECE - 2005
them however H has two electrons; hence this principle
Ans. (b) : According to Hund's rule while filling applies on it.
orbital's of a Subshell pairing of electrons does not take 779. Select the correct options according to Hund's
place until all the orbitals of the subshell are singly rule and Pauli exclusion principle.
occupied.
774. Hund’s rule state that
(a) Number of two e– can be in two separate
orbitals Codes :
(b) Number of two e– can be present with similar (a) Both I and II (b) Both II and III
spin in a orbital (c) Both I and III (d) Both III and IV
(c) No e– can exist in d orbital Manipal-2016
(d) None of the above Ans. (d) : Figure given in option (d) follow the Hund's
JIPMER-2019 rule and Pauli exclusion principle.
03.
Classification of Elements and
Periodicity in Properties
In light of the above statements, choose most
1. Valency and Oxidation State appropriate answer from the options given
below:
1. Identify the incorrect statement from the (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
following (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(a) Lithium is the strongest reducing agent (c) Statement I. true, but Statement II is false
among the alkali metals. (d) Statement I. false, but Statement II is true
(b) Alkali metals react with water to form their JEE Main-28.06.2022, Shift-I
hydroxides. Ans. (d) : As oxidation no. decreases, Acidic behaviour
(c) The oxidation number of K in KO2 is +4. decreases.
(d) Ionisation enthalpy of alkali metals decreases ∴ E2O5 : 2x – 10 = 0
from top to bottom in the group x = +5
NEET-17.07.2022 E2O3 : 2x – 6 = 0
Ans. (c) : The group first is known as alkali metal and x = +3.
show only +1 oxidation state in all of their compound. ∴ E2O5 is more acidic than E2O3.
KO2 is a superoxide. 4. Choose the correct stability order of group 13
The oxidation state of K in KO2 is – element in their +1 oxidation state.
x + 2 (– 1/2) = 0 (a) Al < Ga < In < Tl (b) Tl < In < Ga < Al
x–1=0 (c) Al < Ga < Tl< In (d) Al < Tl < Ga < In
x=+1 JEE Main-26.06.2022, Shift-I
So, the oxidation state of K is + 1. Ans. (a) : The correct stability order of group 13
element in their +1 oxidation state is –
2. The average oxidation number of bromine in Al < Ga < In < Tl
Br3O8 is Because, inert pair effect as you moving down the
16 4 group, the stability of oxidation state the increases while
(a) (b) the stability of +3 oxidation state decreases.
3 3
3 5 5. In which of the following compounds an
(c) (d) element exhibits two different oxidation states?
4 2
8 (a) N 2 H 4 (b) N 3 H
(e) (c) NH 2 CONH 2 (d) NH 4 NO3
3
Kerala CEE -03.07.2022 Karnataka CET-17.06.2022, Shift-II
Ans. (a) : Given, Br3O8 Ans. (d) : Oxidation States of –
Let oxidation number of Br is x and we know oxidation (a) In N2H4, the oxidation state of N is (– 2)
number of O is (–2). Then 2(x) + 4 = 0 (oxidation state of H = +1)
3(x) + 8 (–2) = 0 x = –2
3x – 16 = 0  −1 
3x = 16 (b) In N3H, the oxidation state of N is  
 3 
16
x= 3(x) + 1 = 0 (oxidation state of H = +1)
3 −1
16 x=
So, the average oxidation number Br in Br3O8 is . 3
3 (c) In NH2CONH2, the oxidation state of N is (–3)
3. Given below are statements: x+2+4–2+x+2=0
Statement I : The pentavalent oxide of group -15 2x = –6
element, E2O5, is less acidic than trivalent oxide, x = –3
E2O3 of the same element. (d) In NH4NO3 is breaks into NH +4 NO3− .
Statement II : The acidic character of trivalent
So, it has two different oxidation states.
oxide of group 15 elements, E2O3 , decreases
down the group. In NH +4 , the oxidation state of N is –

x+4=1 9. 1 mole of metal ‘M’ reacts completely with
x = –3 alcohol to give 1.5 moles of H2. Then what will
−
In NO3 , the oxidation state of N is – be the valency of metal ‘M’?
(a) 4 (b) 3
x + (–6) = – 1
(c) 2 (d) 1
x = +5
GUJCET-2020
Thus the oxidation state of N in NH +4 , is –3 while in Ans. (b) : On the reaction of metal and the alcohol, the
NO3− , is +5. metal replace the hydrogen ion of the alcohol, and
liberates hydrogen gas.
6. Which of the following does not have valence The reaction can be written as–
electron in 3d- subshell?
Mnt + R – OH → (R – O)n M + 1/2 H2
(a) Fe (III) (b) Cr(I)
(c) Mn (II) (d) P(0) If one mole of metal gives 3/2 moles of hydrogen, it
BITSAT-2012 can be written as– M → m + 3e
3+ –
AIIMS-2002 Therefore, the valency of metal is 3.

Ans. (d): Phosphorous is not a d-block element. It is an 10. Assertion: I2O5 is used to detect CO.
element of P-block of group 15. Reason: In I2O5 the oxidation number of I is 5.
Thus cannot have any valence electron in d-subshell. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
All other element are d-block elements therefore has Reason is the correct explanation of
valence electron in 3d-subshell Assertion.
Electronic configuration of these are (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
Fe(III)= 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 Reason is not the correct explanation of
Cr(I)= 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 Assertion.
2 2 6 2 6 5 (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
Mn(II)= 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d
7. Identify the element for which electronic (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
configuration in +3 oxidation state is [Ar]3d .5 incorrect.
(a) Ru (b) Mn AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Morning)
(c) Co (d) Fe Ans. (b): I2O5 + 5CO → I2 + 5CO2
(JEE Main 2021, 1 Sep Shift-II) Solid iodine pentoxide with gaseous carbon monoxide
Ans. (d) : The atomic number of Ar is 18 due to in the presence of air gives carbon dioxide and solid
presence of electrons in d-orbital's and add 5 electron in iodine.
the d-orbital. Total number of electrons in X3+ is 23. Oxidation state of I in I2O5
Oxidation means loss of electrons, so +3 charges 2x + 5 × (–2) = 0
implies 3 electrons loss by X to form X3+. 2x – 10 = 0
Hence, the number of electrons in X = 23 + 3 = 26 x=5
Therefore the element is Fe. 11. Which one of the following represents the
8. Which among the following structures does not correct order of electron releasing tendency of
correctly represent the bonding capacities metals?
(valancies) of the atoms involved? (a) Zn > Cu > Ag (b) Ag > Cu > Zn
(c) Cu > Zn > Ag (d) Cu > Ag > Zn
NDA (II)-2019
Ans : (b) The correct order of electron releasing
(a) (b) tendency of metals are–
Ag>Cu>Zn
The tendency of metals to lose electron is determine by
their position in electrochemical series.
(c) (d) 12. Assertion: S2 O72− & Cr2 O72− both exist.
Reason: Both have same valence electrons.
AP EAPCET-6 Sep. 2021, Shift-II (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Ans. (d) :
Assertion.
Assertion.
This structure not correctly represent the bonding (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
capacities i.e. valencies in the atoms involved. because (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
valency of carbon is 4 but one carbon has three bonds incorrect.
and other five. AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Morning)
Ans. (a): The structure of S2 O72− is– 16. Which oxidation state for nitrogen is correctly
given ?
Compound Oxidation
(a) NH 3 +3
(b) [Co(NH 3 )5 Cl] +1
(c) Mg3 N 2 –3
(d) NH 2 OH +1
and the structure of Cr2 O72− is– BCECE-2016
Ans. (c) : The oxidation state of nitrogen is
(i) In NH3 (ii) In [CO(NH3)5Cl]
x + 3(+1) = 0 +1 +5[x+3(+1)]–1 = 0
x+3=0 5[x+3] = 0
x = –3 x+3=0
x = –3
Both having the same structure and same valence (iii) In Mg3 N2 (iv) In NH2 OH
electrons. 3(+2) + 2x = 0 x + 2(+1) + (–2) + 1 = 0
13. The element that forms stable compounds in 6 + 2x = 0 x + 2 – 2 + 1 =0
low oxidation state is x = –3 x= –1
(a) Mg (b) Al 17. The number of electrons is the valence shell of
(c) Ga (d) Tl the central atom of a molecules is 8. The
TS EAMCET-2017 molecule is
Ans. (d) : The element that forms stable compound in (a) BCl3 (b) BeH2
low oxidation state is Thallium (Tl) due to inert pair (c) SCl2 (d) SF6
effect, and poor shielding. Increased effective nuclear AP EAMCET (Engg.) -2014
charge holds the 6s electron tightly. Ans. (c) : The number of electrons is the valence shell
of the central atom of a molecules is 8. The molecule is
14. The valency of an element depends upon the SCl2. The central S atom has 2 bond pairs of electrons
(a) total number of protons in an atom and 2 lone pairs of electrons.
(b) mass number of an atom 18. The valency shell of element A contains 3
(c) total number of neutrons in an atom electrons while the valency shell of element B
(d) total number of electrons in the outer most contains 6 electrons. If A combines with B, the
shell of an atom probable formula of the compound formed will
NDA (I)-2017 be
(a) AB2 (b) A2B
Ans : (d) The valency of an element depends upon the
(c) A2B3 (d) A3B2
total number of electrons in the outer most shell of an
BITSAT-2014
atoms.
Ans. (c) : The element A is ns2np1 and B is ns2np4.
15. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct They can form compound of the type A2B3.
answer using the code given below the Lists:
19. Variable valency is a general feature of :
List-I List-II (a) s-block elements (b) p-block elements
(Element) (Highest Valency) (c) d-block elements (d) (b) and (c) both
A. Sulphur 1. Five MPPET-2013
B. Phosphorous 2. Six Ans. (c) : Variable valency is the feature of d-block
C. Lead 3. Two element. Variation in valency is due to participation of
D. Silver 4. Four (n – 1)d electron in bond formation. d-block elements
Code: have empty inner orbitals, the electrons are added to
A B C D incomplete inner shells.
(a) 2 4 1 3 20. One mole of N2H4 loses 10 moles of electrons to
(b) 2 1 4 3 form a new compound Z. Assuming that all the
(c) 3 1 4 2 nitrogens appear in the new compound, what is
(d) 3 4 1 2 the oxidation state of nitrogen in Z? (There is
NDA (II)-2016 no change in the oxidation state of hydrogen.)
Ans. (b) : (a) –1 (b) –3
(c) +3 (d) +5
List-I List–II AP EAMCET (Engg.) 2012
(Element) (Highest volume) Ans. (c) : Given,
A. Sulphur Six N 2 H 4 − 10e −  → Z10+ ( with two N atoms )
B. Phosphorous Five Since, total oxidation number of two N atoms in N2H4
C. Lead Four 2x + 4 = 0
D. Silver Two 2x = −4
∴ N 2 H 4 Losses 10 e – so total oxidation number of two 26. Xenon hexafluoride reacts with silica to form a
xenon compound X. The oxidation state of
N-atoms increases by 10, i.e. the total oxidation number xenon in X is :
of two N-atoms is
(a) +2 (b) +4
Y = −4 + 10 = +6
(c) +6 (d) 0
∴ Oxidation number of each N atom in Z10+ = +3 AP-EAMCET (Engg.)-2004
21. Which of the following is non-existent? Ans. (c) : When xenon hexafluoride reacts with silica to
(a) AlF63− (b) CoF63− form xenon oxytetrafluoride.
(c) BF63− (d) SiF62− 2XeF6 + SiO 2 
→ 2XeOF4 + SiF4
Xenonhexafluroide Silica Xenonoxytetrafluoride
AMU – 2010
3− XeOF4
Ans. (c) : BF6 does not exist because boron does not Let Oxidation state of Xe in x is.
have d-orbital maximum covalency of B is only 4 as it ∴ x–2–4=0
does not have d-orbital.
x = +6
AlF63− , SiF62− , CoF63− exist because they have d- orbital
27. Which of the following element shows
in valence shell to expand their valency. maximum valency?
22. The valency of the element having atomic (a) Carbon (b) Barium
number 9 is (c) Nitrogen (d) Sulphur
(a) 1 (b) 2 UP CPMT-2003
(c) 3 (d) 4
Ans. (d) : Use the number of electrons in valence shell
MPPET- 2009
to find the maximum valence shown by the element.
Ans. (a) : The atomic number 9 the atom is fluorine. (a) C, atomic number=6, 1s2, 2s2, 2p2
The electronic configuration of an element of atomic
number 9 is 2, 7. It requires one electron to get stable Q it has 4 electrons in valence shell
noble gas configuration. Hence, its valency is 1. ∴ its maximum valency is 4
(b) Barium belongs to group 2 (at. no=56)
23. The oxidation number of O in OF2 is
(a) –2 (b) +1 Q it has 2 electrons in valence shell
(c) +2 (d) –1 ∴ its maximum valency is 2.
BCECE-2009 (c) Nitrogen (at. no. 7) = 1s2, 2s2, 2p3
Ans. (c) : Let the oxidation number of O is x. Q valence shell has 5 electrons
In OF2 ∴ it can have maximum valency of 5.
x + 2(–1) = 0 (d) Sulphur (at. no. 16) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p4
x–2=0 Q valence shell has 6 electrons
x = +2 ∴ it can have maximum valency of 6.
Thus, the oxidation number of O in OF2 is +2. ∴ sulphur shows maximum valency among given
24. The oxidation state of oxygen is zero in choices.
(a) CO (b) O3 28. Which one of the following elements show
(c) SO2 (d) H2O2 different oxidation states?
CG PET -2007 (a) Sodium (b) Fluorine
Ans. (b) : For carbon monoxide, the sum of the (c) Chlorine (d) Potassium
individual oxidation number of the constituent atoms AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2001
must equal the charge on the ion, Ans. (c) : The elements having d-orbital shows different
Hence, the oxidation number oxygen – 2. oxidation states. In the given elements only chlorine has
The oxidation number of an oxygen atom in the ozone vacant d-orbital. So, it can show –1, +1, +3, +5 and +7
is zero. oxidation state.
29. Metals having ns1 as the valence electronic
configuration:
−1 + 1 + 0 (a) are strong oxidizing agents
Average oxidation state = =0 (b) are highly electronegative
3 (c) are highly electropositive
25. The number of electrons in the valence shell of (d) have a first ionization potential of more than
sulphur in SF6 is: 10 eV/atom
(a) 12 (b) 10
(c) 8 (d) 11
UPTU/UPSEE-2005 Ans. (c) : If the outer electronic configuration goes to
ns1 valence shell then the metal is belongs to the alkali
Ans. (a) : The number of electrons in the valence shell metal. As we know, alkali metals are more
of sulphur in SF6 is 12 because the valency of sulphur is electropositive with low ionization energies in the
+6 and six fluoxine atoms each having combine to periodic table. Electropositivity increases down the
sulphur. group in the alkali metal.
30. Which of the following covalent molecules is an 35. In which of the following sulphur has the
exception of octet rule? lowest oxidation state?
(a) BeCl2 (b) CO2 (a) H2SO4 (b) SO2
(c) H2O (d) CH4 (c) H2SO3 (d) H2S
AP-EAMCET/1999 AP EAMCET- 1993
Ans. (a): BeCl2 has a covalent molecule. In Beryllium, Ans. (d) :
there are 4 electron in BeCl2. Hence, octet rule is not (i) In H2SO4 (ii) In SO2
obeyed in BeCl2. 2 × (+1) + x + 4(–2) = 0 x + 2(–2) = 0
31. Which of the following sequence is correct with 2+x–8=0 –4 + x =0
reference to the oxidation number of iodine? x=+6 x = +4
(a) I2 > ICl < HI < HIO4 (b) HIO4 < ICl < I2 < HI
(c) I2 < HI < ICl < HIO4 (d) HI < I2 < ICl < HIO4 (iii) In H2SO3 (iv) In H2S
AP EAMCET- 1997 2(+1) +x + 3(–2) = 0 2(+1) + x = 0
Ans. (d) : Let the oxidation number of iodine is x. +2 + x – 6 = 0 2 + x =0
(i) In HI (ii) In I2 x–4=0 x= –2
+1+x = 0 x=0 x=+4
x = –1 Hence, In H2S has the lowest oxidation state of sulphur.
(iii) In ICl (iv) In HIO4 36. An f-shell containing 6 unpaired electrons can
x + (–1) = 0 +1 + x + 4(–2) = 0 exchange
x + 1= 0 1+x–8=0 (a) 6 electrons (b) 9 electrons
x = +1 x–7=0 (c) 12 electrons (d) 15 electrons
x = +7 VITEEE, 2014
Hence, According to the increasing oxidation number Ans. (d) : The electron with same spin present in the
iodine are - degenerate orbitals tends to exchange their position
HI < I2 < ICl < HIO4 The possible exchange of f6 – configuration
32. The oxidation state of sodium in sodium
amalgam is
(a) +1 (b) -1
(c) zero (d) +2
AP EAMCET- 1996
Ans. (c) : The formula of sodium amalgam is Na–Hg
Sodium amalgam's are mixture not a compound. The
oxidation state of metal in sodium. Amalgam is always
zero. Hence, the oxidation number of sodium in sodium
amalgam is zero.
33. The oxidation state of iodine in ICl−2 is
(a) +1 (b) –1
(c) +2 (d) –3
AP EAMCET- 1995 Thus, the total exchange of f6 – configuration is
Ans. (a) : Given the molecule is ICl−2 . = 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 15 electrons.
Let, oxidation state of I is x.
In ICl−2 2. Periodic Laws
x + 2(–1) = –1
x – 2 = –1 37. The long form of periodic Table is based on
x=–1+2 (a) mass of the atom (b) atomic number
x = +1 (c) shapes of the atom (d) electronegegativity
Hence, the oxidation state of iodine is +1. CGPET-2012
34. The Oxidation number of chlorine in KClO3 is J&K CET-1998, AIIMS-1994
(a) +5 (b) -5 Ans. (b): The long form (modern periodic table)
(c) +1 (d) -1 periodic table is based on the increasing atomic number.
AP EAMCET- 1993 The atomic number is the number of protons in the
Ans. (a) : Given that , KClO3 nucleus of an atom. The number of protons define the
Let the oxidation number of Cl is x. identity of an element.
We know that, the oxidation state of K is +1, and 38. Given below are two statements:
oxygen is –2. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
∴In KClO3 labelled as Reason (R).
1+X + 3 (–2) = 0 Assertion (A) Metallic character decreases and
X – 5=0 non-metallic character increases on moving
X = +5 from left to right in a period.
Reason (R) It is due to increase in ionisation Ans. (b) : Moseley gave the modern periodic law. He
enthalpy and decrease in electron gain showed the atomic number is more fundamental
enthalpy, when one moves from left to right in property of an element than its atomic mass.
a period. The square root of the frequency of a line (x-ray
In the light of the above statements, choose the spectrum) is related to the atomic number Z.
most appropriate answer from the options ν = a (z – b)
given below. Where, Z = Atomic number
(a) (A) is false but (R) is true a = Proportionality constant
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false b = Another constant
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the 42. Identify the least stable ion amongst the
correct explanation of (A) following :
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (a) Be– (b) Li–
–
correct explanation of (A) (c) B (d) C–
(JEE Main 2021, 31 Aug Shift-I) MPPET-2013
Ans. (b) : Metallic character decreases and non-metallic Ans. (a) :
character increases on moving from left to right in a
period due to decrease ionization enthalpy and increase
in electron gain enthalpy from left to right in a period.
39. The interaction energy of London forces
between two particles is proportional to rx,
where r is the distance between the particles.
The value of x is
(a) 3 (b) –3
(c) –6 (d) 6
(JEE Main 2021, 26 Aug. Shift-II)
• Be– is least stable.
Ans. (c) : According to London forces, “Greater than
Polorisability of the interacting particles greater is the 43. Which one of the following has incomplete
magnitude of interaction energy.” octet?
(a) NH3 (b) BCl3
1
The energy of interaction force ∝ 6 where, r = distance (c) CCl4 (d) PCl3
r UP CPMT-2012
between particles. The interaction energy of London Ans. (b) : 5B=2, 3
forces is inversely proportional to sixth power of the 17Cl=2, 8, 7
distance between two interacting particles.
40. In the modern periodic table the acidic nature
of oxides_______. In BCl3, B has 6 electrons.
(a) Increases from left to right and decreases Therefore, it has incomplete octet.
from top to bottom 44. Atomic numbers of elements X,Y and Z are 50,
(b) Decreases from right to left and increases 78 and 60 respectively. these elements are
from top to bottom placed in modern long from of Periodic Table
(c) Remains same across a period and increases respectively in
from top to bottom (a) p- block, d-block and f-block
(d) Decreases from left to right and remains the (b) p-block, d- block and s- block
same down the group (c) s- block, p-block and d-block
AP-EAMCET 25-08-2021 Shift - I (d) s-block, d-block and f- block
Ans. (a) : Acidic nature increases from left to right and CG PET- 2011
decreases top to bottom in modern periodic table Ans. (a) : Atomic number x=50 is tin(Sn).
because the electronegativity decreases down the group. It is an P-block element.
Electronegativity is the property of the element to The electronic configuration of tin (Sn) is
attract electron pairs. When the metal is more [ Kr ] 4d10 5s 2sp2 .
electropositive, it has more basic oxide in nature and Atomic number y = 78 is platinum (Pt).
less in acidic character. It is an d-block element.
41. The plot of square root of frequency of X-ray The electronic configuration of Platinum (Pt) is
emitted against atomic number led to [ Xe] 4f 14 5d9 6s1 .
suggestion of which law/rule? Atomic number z = 60 is neodymium (Nd).
(a) Periodic law It is an f-block element.
(b) Modern periodic law
(c) Hund's rule The electronic configuration of Nd is [ Xe] 4f 4 6s 2 .
(d) Newland's law Therefore, In modern periodic table x, y and z are p-
MHT CET-2014 block, d-block and f-block element.

45. Which of the following is a wrong statement? 49. Which of the following does not exhibit the
In a given period of the Periodic Table, the s- periodicity in properties of the elements?
block element has, in general, a higher value of (a) s- block (b) d- block
(a) electronegativity (b) atomic radius (c) p- block (d) f- block
(c) ionisation energy (d) electron affinity CG PET -2005
JIPMER-2010 Ans. (c) : All the periodic properties exhibit regular
Ans. (b): Atomic radius decrease along the period so, s- trends while moving across the period as well as
block element will have high atomic radius. moving down the group but in exactly opposite manner.
• Electron affinity increases along the period so, s- The n/p ratio does not behave in this manner and hence
block element will have less electron affinity. p-block element not show the periodicity in properties
• Electronegativity increases along the period so, s- of the element.
block element will have less electro-negativity. 50. Which of the following does not exhibit the
• Ionization energy increase along the period so, s- periodicity in properties of the elements?
block element will have less Ionization energy. (a) Ionisation energy (b) n/p ratio
(c) Electro negativity (d) Atomic radius
46. Ortho and para- hydrogen have
CG PET -2005
(a) Identical chemical properties but different
physical properties Ans. (b) : Electron affinity, Electronegativity and
atomic radius follow the periodicity in properties of the
(b) identical physical and chemical properties
element but n/p ratio does not behave in this manner.
(c) Identical physical properties but different
Hence, the n/p ratio does not exhibit the periodicity in
chemical properties properties of the element.
(d) different physical and chemical properties.
51. The first artificial disintegration of an atomic
WB-JEE-2010
nucleus was achieved by:
Ans. (a) : Ortho and para hydrogen are similar in chemical (a) Geiger (b) Wilson
properties but differ in some of the physical properties. (c) Madam Curie (d) Rutherford
• Melting point of para hydrogen is 13.83k while that JCECE - 2005
of ordinary hydrogen is 13.95k Ans. (d) : The first artificial disintegration is the term
• Boiling point of para hydrogen is 20.26k while that coined by Ernest Rutherford, for the process by which an
of ordinary hydrogen is 20.39k. atomic nucleus is broken by bombarding it with high speed
• The vapour pressure of liquid para hydrogen is alpha particle's either from a particle accelerator or a
higher than that of ordinary liquid hydrogen. naturally decaying radioactive substance such as radium.
47. In a periodic table the basic character of oxides 52. As per the modern periodic law, "the physical
(a) increases from left to right and decreases and chemical properties of elements are
from top to bottom periodic functions of their
(b) decreases from right to left and increases (a) Atomic number"
from top to bottom (b) Electronic configuration"
(c) decreases from left to right and increases (c) Atomic weight"
from top to bottom (d) Atomic size"
(d) decreases from left to right and increases A.P.EAMCET 1998
from bottom to top. Ans. (a) : According to modern periodic law, "The
WB-JEE-2010 physical and chemical properties of the elements are
Ans. (c) : In the periodic table, on moving along a periodic function of their atomic numbers.
period, the tendency to lose electrons decreases and Atomic weight is defined as the number of protons and
thus, the metallic character decrease since the oxides of neutrons in an atom. Atomic size is define as the
non-metal are acidic. Thus, on moving along a period distance between an atom's nucleus and its outermost
from left to right basic character decrease. While on shell is measured in atomic size.
moving down top to bottom in a group basic character 53. In the long form of Periodic Table, the
increases due to increase in metallic character. elements having lowest ionization potential are
48. In which one of the following pairs the radius present in
of the second species is greater than that of the (a) I group (b) IV group
first? (c) VII group (d) zero group
(a) Na, Mg (b) O2–, N3– A.P.EAMCET 1992
+ 2+
(c) Li , Be (d) Ba2+, Sr2+ Ans. (a) : The group I of the periodic table, the element
(e) Al, Be is loosely attached to the nucleus, it easily to remove the
Kerala-CEE-2007 electron from atom. Hence, the group-I has lowest
Ans. (b) : O2– and N3– both are isoelectronic but differ ionization potential.
in the charge possessed by them as the negative charge 54. The law of triads is applicable to a group of
increases, the electrons are held less tightly by the (a) Cl, Br, l (b) C,N,O
nucleus, therefore O2–, N3– have greater the electrons (c) Na, K, Rb (d) H,O,N
more the repulsion and hence the larger size. JEE Main, 24.09.2019
Ans. (a): According to the law of triads, in a group of 59. The set of elements that differ in mutual
three elements, the average atomic masses of the first relationship from those of the other sets is
and last element would be approximately equal to the (a) Li-Mg (b) B-Si
atomic mass of middle elements. (c) Be-Al (d) Li-Na
Do bereiner also suggested that the law of triads can (JEE Main 2021, 17 March Shift-II)
also be extended for other quantifiable properties such Ans. (d) : Li-Mg, Be-Al and B-Si show as diagonal
as density of elements. relationship but Li and Na do not show diagonal
Bromine must be approximately equal to the average of relationship as both belongs to some group and not
atomic masses of chlorine and Iodine. placed diagonally.
Hence, Cl, Br, I are follow the law of triads. 60. The set of elements that differ in mutual
(3.c) Periodic Classification, Periodic Trends relationship from those of the other sets is:
55. Which of the following electronic (a) Be–Al (b) B-Si
configurations corresponds to an inert gas? (c) Li-Na (d) Li-Mg
2 2 5 2 2 6 JEE Main 17.03.2021, Shift-II
(a) 1s , 2s , 2p (b) 1s , 2s , 2p
Ans. (c) : Be-Al, B-Si, Li-Mg have the diagonal
2 1
(c) 1s , 2s (d) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p6 , 3s1 relationship whereas Li-Na are of the same group
BITSAT-2010 element and have the other properties than diagonal
A.P.EAMCET 1993 relationship sets. So, Li and Na does not have diagonal
NEET-1989 relationship.
Ans. (b) : Inert gas configuration has outermost shell
has completely filled. So the option (b) is correct for
inert gas configuration. 61. From the given pairs of elements, the correct
56. Which of the following pairs has both members set of elements that does not possess
from the same period of periodic table : (a) B – Si, Nb – Ta (b) Li – Al, C – P
(a) Na, Ca (b) Na, Cl (c) Mo – W, B – Si (d) Zr – Hf, Be – Al
(c) Ca, Cl (d) Cl, Br TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-II
BITSAT 2010 Ans. (b) :
BCECE-2006
Ans. (b) : 11Na 2, 8, 1; 17Cl 2, 8, 7
These have same number of shells. Hence, they are the
elements of the same period.
57. Identify the correct order of the size of the 62. In general, the properties that decrease and
following. increase down a group in the periodic table,
(a) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < Cl– < S2– respectively are
2+ +
(b) Ar < Ca < K < Cl < S – 2– (a) electronegativity and atomic radius
2+ +
(c) Ca < Ar < K < Cl < S – 2 (b) electronegativity and electron gain enthalpy
(d) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < S2– < Cl– (c) electron gain enthalpy and electronegativity
NEET-2010, 2007 (d) atomic radius and electronegativity
Ans. (a) : The isoelectronic ions ionic radii of anions is (JEE Main 2019, 9 Jan Shift-I)
more than that of cations further the size of anion Ans. (a) : Electro negativity is a measure of the
increases with increases in negative charge 4th size of tendency of an atom to attract a bonding pair of
the cation decrease with increases in positive charge. electron.
The increasing of the size of ions are:- On moving to down the group electronegativity
2+ +
Ca < K < Ar < Cl < S – 2– decrease and increase down the group atomic radius
respectively.
58. Which of the following represents the correct Electron gain enthalpy becomes more negative from left
order of increasing electron gain enthalpy with to right in a period.
negative sign for the elements O, S, F and Cl?
(a) Cl < F < O < S (b) O < S < F < Cl 63. Which of the following has octet around central
atom?
(c) F < S < O < Cl (d) S < O < Cl < F
(a) PF5 (b) SF6
NEET-2010, 2005 (c) CCl4 (d) BF3
Ans. (b) : Electron gain enthalpy generally increases in JIPMER-2019
a period from left to right and decrease from top to
Ans. (c) : The molecules that refers to the tendency of
bottom in a group of periodic table. an atom to have 8 electrons in the valence shell.
Cl and F are belong to 17 group and O and S are belong
to 16 group. Cl has higher electron gain enthalpy than F
because the incoming electron experience a greater
force of repulsion because of small size of F atom.
Similarly, in case of O and S. Thus, the correct order of
electron gain enthalpy is- Thus, CCl4 Molecule has complete the octet around the
O < S < F < Cl central atom of chlorine.
64. Which statement (s) is (are) false for the (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
periodic classification of elements? (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
(a) The properties of the elements are the incorrect.
periodic functions of their atomic numbers AIIMS-2015
(b) Non-metallic elements are lesser in number Ans. (a): Be and Al can form complexes such as BeF42-
than the metallic elements
(c) The first ionisation energies of the elements and AlF63- respectively, BeF63- is not formed due to the
along a period do not vary in a regular absence of vacant d-orbital is not enough orbitals to
manner with increase in atomic number accommodate extra electrons.
(d) For transition elements, the d-electrons are Hence, both asseration and reasons are correct and
filled monotonically with increase in atomic reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
number 68. The element, with atomic number 118, will be
(e) Both (c) and (d) (a) alkali (b) noble gas
Kerala-CEE-2018 (c) lanthanide (d) transition element
Ans. (d) : For transition elements, the d-electrons are BITSAT-2015
not filled monotonically with increase in atomic Ans. (b) : Electronic configuration of element with
number. atomic number 118 will be [Rn]5f146d10 7s27p6. Since
The first ionization energy of the element along a period its electronic configuration in the outermost orbit
vary in a regular manner with increase in atomic (ns2np6) resemble with that of inert or noble gases,
number. therefore it will be noble gas element.
65. An element has [Ar]3d1 configuration in its +2 69. The element with atomic number 117 has not
oxidation state. Its position in the periodic table been discovered yet. In which family would you
is place this element if discovered?
(a) period-3, group - 3 (b) period-3, group - 7 (a) Alkali metals (b) Alkaline earth metals
(c) period-4, group - 3 (d) period-3, group – 9 (c) Halogens (d) Noble gases
AP-EAMCET – 2016 AIIMS-2014
Ans. (c) : Given that an element with electronic Ans. (c): The electronic configuration of the element
configuration [Ar]3d1 in its + 2 oxidation state. with atomic number 117 (Rn) 5f14, 6d10, 7s2, 7p5.
∴ The atomic number of element This element contains 7 electrons in its outermost shell.
= Ar + 1 + 2 = 21 So, it belong to VII A (17) group of periodic table. It is
Thus, the element is Scandium. It belong to 4th period a halogen family.
and group - 3 70. The number of elements present in the fourth
66. Identify the most acidic oxide among the period is
following oxides based on their reaction. (a) 32 (b) 8
(a) SO3 (b) P4O10 (c) 18 (d) 2
(c) Cl2O7 (d) N2O5 AP-EAMCET (Engg.) 2013
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) 2015 Ans. (c) : For 4th period
Ans. (c) : On going from left to right in a period, the ∴ The orbital in 4th period is = 4s, 3d, 4p
ionisation energy of element generally increases. Hence, And the no. of electron in the orbit is 2, 10, 6
their oxides basic to amphoteric to acidic character. The number of electron present in the fourth period is
Oxide of more electronegative atom is more acidic 18.
in nature. 71. The screening effect of d-electrons is
The oxidation state of oxygen is –2. Let x be the (a) Equal to p-electrons
oxidation state of non metal. (b) Much more than p-electrons
For, SO3 molecule, x + (–2)3 = 0 or x = +6 (c) Same as f-electrons
For P4O10 molecule, 4(x) + 10(–2) = 0, x = +5 (d) Less than p-electrons
For, Cl2O7 molecule, 2(x) + 7(–2) = 0 or x = +7 BITSAT-2013
For, N2O5 molecule, 2(x) + 5(–2) = 0 or x = +5 Ans. (d) : The screening effect of inner electron of the
67. Assertion: Both Be and Al can form complexes nucleus is due to decrease in ionization potential,
therefore the order of the screening effect is
such as BeF42-and AlF63-respectively, BeF63- is not
f<d<p<s
formed. Hence, the screening effect of d-election is less than p-
Reason: In case of Be, no vacant d-orbital's are electron.
present in its outermost shell. 72. Identify the wrong statement in the following.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and (a) Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the
the Reason is the correct explanation of positive charge on the cation, smaller is the
Assertion. ionic radius
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but (b) Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the
Reason is not the correct explanation of negative charge on the anion, larger is the
Assertion. ionic radius
(c) Atomic radius of the elements increases as on Ans. (c) : The fifth period is from rubidium (37) to
moves down the first group of the periodic table. xenon (54). The last electron enters in 5s, 4d or 5p
(d) Atomic radius of the elements decreases as on orbitals. Therefore, the fifth period has (2 + 10 + 6) 18
moves across from left to right in the 2nd elements.
period of the periodic table. 77. The effective nuclear charge is equal to
NEET-2012 (a) Z – S (b) Z + S
Ans. (a) : The positive charge on the cation increases, (c) A – Z (d) Z + A
the effective nuclear charge increases. Thus, the atomic SRMJEEE – 2009
size decreases. Since the number of the shell increases,
So atomic radius increases. Against isoelectronic Ans. (a) : The effective nuclear charge is the net
species, ionic radius increases with increases in negative positive charge experienced by valence electrons.
charge or decrease in positive charge. Z = atomic number
73. Properties of elements are periodic function of S = Number of shielding electrons
number of_______ present in the nucleus. Zeff = Z − S
(a) protons (b) electrons
(c) neutrons (d) mesons. 78. Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends
J & K CET-(2012) upon
Ans. (a) : Properties of elements are periodic function (a) charge on the ion only
of number of protons present in the nucleus. Number of (b) size of the ion only
protons = number of electrons. (c) charge on the ion and size of the ion
• Physical and chemical properties of elements depend (d) packing of its ions only
on the number of electrons and their arrangement. AP - EAMCET(MEDICAL) - 2009
Thus, properties of elements are periodic function of Ans. (c) : From the Born-Lande equation–
number of protons present in the nucleus. N Mz + z − e2  1 
74. As we move from left to right in the 3d-series U= A 1 − 
4π ∈0 r  n 
elements
(a) electropositive character decreases Where, U = Lattice energy of crystal
(b) electropositive character increases NA = Avogadro's number
(c) electropositive character decreases and M = Molecular weight
electronegative character increases z+, z– = Charge of cation and anion
(d) electropositive character increases and r = Radius of the atom
electronegative character decreases. n = Exponent
COMEDK-2011 From the above equation it is clear that lattice energy
Ans. (c) : As we move in the row from left to right, depends upon charge on the ion and size of the ion.
electrons are added to the 3d subshell to neutralize the 79. Beryllium resembles much with :
increase in the positive charge of the nucleus as the (a) Zn (b) Al
atomic number increase so, we move from left to right (c) Li (d) Ra
in 3d series element electropositive character decrease BITSAT 2009
and electronegative character increases.
Ans. (b) : Beryllium resembles with aluminium due to
75. Beryllium and aluminium exhibit many similarity in the size of ions and similarity in
properties which are similar. But, the two electropositive character. This type of resemblance
elements differ in between first elements of a group in second period with
(a) forming covalent halides second element of the next group is termed as diagonal
(b) forming polymeric hydrides relationship.
(c) exhibiting maximum covalency in
compounds 80. Which of the following properties of lithium
does not show diagonal relationship with
(d) exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides
magnesium?
BITSAT-2011
(a) Formation of Li+ ion
Ans. (c) : Beryllium and aluminium are S-block (b) Formation of Li3N
element and P-block element respectively.
(c) Solubility of LiHCO3
Exhibiting maximum covalency in compoundly due to
diagonal relationship, Be and Al have many similar (d) Thermal decomposition of Li2CO3
properties. However they differ in exhibiting maximum CG PET -2009
covalency. Ans. (a) : Molecular radius of Li is 60 and Mg+2 ion is
Maximum covalency of Be = 4 65.
Maximum covalency of Al = 6 • Does not solubility of bicarbonates.
This is due to absence of d-orbital in Be. • Format with ion and heat to made Li2CO3
76. Number of elements presents in the fifth period • Both Li and Mg combine directly with N2 to give
of Periodic Table is nitride Li3N2 and Mg3N2
(a) 32 (b) 10 • Bicarbonates of Li and Mg are more soluble in
(c) 18 (d) 8 water than carbonates. Whereas carbonates of alkali
JCECE - 2010 metals are more soluble.
81. Increase in atomic size down the group is due (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
to– (c) only (ii) (d) only (i)
(a) increase in number of electrons (e) (ii) and (iv)
(b) increase in number of protons and neutrons Kerala-CEE-2006
(c) increase in number of protons Ans. (c) : The diagonal relationship of Li and Mg of the
(d) increase in number of protons, neutrons and properties are:-
electrons (i) Polarizing powers of Li+ and Mg2+ are almost same
BCECE-2008 (ii) Li,Mg decomposes water very fast
Ans. (a) : Increase in atomic size down the group is due (iii) LiCl and MgCl2 are deliquescent
to increase in number of electrons. (iv) Li,Mg dose not form solid bicarbonates
To accommodate these electrons new shells are added
to the atom. These new shells take the outermost 86. The cause of diagonal relationship is
electrons farther from the nucleus causing atomic size to (a) Similar electronegativities
increase as we go down the group. (b) Similar ionic or atomic radii
82. On moving from left to right in the second (c) Similar polarizing power of ions
period along the periodic table the gram atomic (d) All the three
volume of the element BITSAT-2006
(a) increases with constant velocity Ans. (d) : Diagonal relationship is formed due to the
(b) remains unchanged identical size of ions, we move forward right across a
(c) first increases and then decreases period in the periodic table then the size of the atom
(d) decreases reduces and when we move downward across a group
CG PET-2007 then the size of the atom gradually increases.
Ans. (d) : On moving from left to right in the second • Similar electronegativities
period of the periodic table the gram atomic valence of • Similar ionic or atomic radii
the element decreases. • Similar polarizing power of ions
The atomic valence of noble gases is comparatively 87. Which is responsible for the diagonal relation
larger as they have large Van der Waals radii due to of lithium with magnesium?
completed valence shell, with all electrons paired which (a) Less ionic radii
causes greater repulsion.
(b) High polarising power
83. Which of the following elements represents (c) Approximately equal electronegativity and
highly electropositive as well as highly affinity
electronegative character in its period?
(d) All of the above
(a) Hydrogen (b) Nitrogen
(c) Fluorine (d) None CG PET -2006
BITSAT-2007 Ans. (d) : The diagonal relationship of lithium with
Ans. (a) : First period has H and He only, out of which magnesium are–
He is inert, hence H behaves as a highly electropositive • Both have almost similar electro negativity
as well as electronegative element. • Both Li and Mg are quite hard They are harder and
84. The group of elements in which the lighter than other elements in their receptive group.
differentiating electron enters the • Both Lithium and magnesium have small size and
antepenultimate shell of atoms are called high charge density.
(a) f-block elements (b) p-block elements • They are low and almost same. Their ionic radii are
(c) s-block elements (d) d-block elements similar.
J & K CET-(2007) 88. Diagonal relationship is for:
Ans. (a) : The group of elements in which the (a) Li – Na (b) Be – Mg
differentiating electron enters the antepenult-s timate (c) Si – C (d) B – Si
shell of atoms are called f-block elements. UPTU/UPSEE-2006
Incase of inner transition elements i.e. f-block elements, Ans. (d) : Diagonal relationships occur because of the
the last three shell are namely valence, penultimate and
direction in the trends of various properties as you move
penultimate and penultimate shell are incomplete. The
across or down the Periodic table. Many of the chemical
inner transition elements the last shell contains two
electrons and the penultimate shell may contain electron properties of an element are related to the size of the
more than eight or nine and penultimate shell contains atom.
more than 18 upto 32 electrons. Diagonal relationship is–
85. Pick out the statement(s) which is (are) not true Li and Mg, Be and Al, B and Si etc.
about the diagonal relationship of Li and Mg: 89. The stability of ferric ion is due to :
(i) polarizing powers of Li+ and Mg2+ are (a) half filled f - orbitals
almost same (b) half filled d- orbitals
(ii) like Li, Mg decomposes water very fast (c) completely filled f- orbitals
(iii) LiCl and MgCl2 are deliquescent (d) completely filled d- orbitals
(iv) like Li, Mg do not form solid bicarbonates BCECE-2006
Ans. (b) : Ferric ion Fe3+ has half filled d-orbital. electrons move further away from the nucleus.
Therefore, these can be lost easily.
The electronic configuration of irons is (Ar) 3d6 4s2. So,
when we say ferric it mean iron loses three electrons, Hence, metallic character decreases across a period and
that is it loses two electron from 2s–orbitals and one increase down a group.
electron from 3d orbitals. Therefore, ferric ion has d- 93. Which of the following is correct?
orbital is filled by 5 electrons that is half filled and half (a) The number of electrons present in the
filled orbitals are stable. valence shell of S in SF6 is 12
90. Following statements regarding the periodic (b) The rates of ionic reactions are very slow
trends of chemical reactivity of the alkali (c) According to VSEPR theory, SnCl2 is a linear
metals and the halogens are given. Which of molecule
these statements give the correct picture? (d) The correct order of ability to form ionic
(a) The reactivity decreases in the alkali metals compounds among Na+, Mg2+ and Al3+ is
but increases in the halogens with increase in Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+
atomic number down the group AP-EAMCET/2005
Ans. (a)
(b) In both the alkali metals and the halogens the
• The number of electrons present in the valence shell
chemical reactivity decreases with increase in
atomic number down the group of S in SF6 is 12. Statement is true.
• The rates of ionic reactions are very fast. Statement
(c) Chemical reactivity increases with increase in
atomic number down the group in both the is false.
alkali metals and halogens • According, to VSEPR theory, SnCl2 is a bent or V-
(d) In alkali metals, the reactivity increases but inshaped molecule. Statement is false.
the halogens it decreases with increase in • The correct order of ability to form ionic
atomic number down the group compounds among Na+, Mg2+ and Al3+ is Na+ >
(AIEEE-2006) Mg2+ > Al3+. Statement is false.
Ans. (d) : In alkali metal, we move top to bottom in a 94. What is the correct relationship between the
group size increases thus, reactivity increases. But in pH of isomolar solutions of sodium oxide, Na2O
halogen, the reactivity decrease due to decrease in (pH1), sodium sulphide, Na2S (pH2), sodium
electronegativity and decrease oxidizing ability due to selenide, Na2Se (pH3) and sodium telluride
the inert pair effect atomic radius increases from top to Na2Te(pH4)?
bottom in a group which less the attraction of valence (a) pH1 > pH2 > pH3 > pH4
electron of other atoms thus, decreasing reactivity. (b) pH1 > pH2 = pH3 > pH4
(c) pH1 > pH2 < pH3 < pH4
91. p-orbital in a given shell can accommodate upto–
(d) pH1 > pH2 < pH3 ≈ pH4
(a) four electrons
NEET-2005
(b) two electrons with parallel spin
(c) six electrons Ans. (a) : The basicity of these oxides decreases, when
placed in water, the basicity of solution also decreases.
(d) two electrons with opposite spin
BCECE-2005Na2O + 2H2O  → 2NaOH + H2O
Ans. (c) : Any orbital of any subshell can accommodate Na2S + 2H2O  → 2NaOH + H2S
a maximum of two electrons with opposite spins. 'P' Na2Se + 2H2O  → 2NaOH + H2Se
subshell have 3 orbitals (Px, Py, Pz). Each orbital can Na2Te + 2H2O  → 2NaOH + H2Te
accommodate two electrons with opposite spin. Hence, the order of neutralisation of NaOH is H2Te>
H2Se > H2S> H2O.
Their aqueous solution have the following order of
Therefore, P-orbitals in a given shell can accommodate basic character due to neutralization of NaOH with–
upto six electrons. Na2O > Na2S > Na2Se > Na2Te
92. In the periodic table metallic character of or (pH1) > (pH2) > (pH3) > (PH4)
elements shows one of the following trend: 95. Which one shows most pronounced inert pair
(a) Decreases down the group and increases effect?
across the period (a) Si (b) Sn
(b) Increases down the group and decreases (c) Pb (d) C
across the period J & K CET-(2004)
(c) Increases across the period and also down the Ans. (c) : Inert pair effect is observed in the elements of
group group 13 up to group 17. It can be defined as the
(d) Decreases across the period and also down inability of S electron inheavier P-block elements to
the group participate in bonding. The stability of oxidation states
JCECE - 2005 two units less than the maximum oxidation of a group
Ans. (b) : The effective nuclear charge acting on the increases down the group.
valence shell electrons increases across a period, the Inert pair effect is a result at poor shielding of d and f-
tendency to lose electrons will decreases. Down the orbital and filling of electron in Al does not involve any
group, the effective nuclear charge experienced by d or f-orbital.
valence electrons decrease because the outer most Thus, the Pd is most likely to show innert pair effect.
96. The element with atomic number 12 belongs to Ans. (a) : The size of cation is small then their neutral
--- group and --- period. atom because it has less electrons while its nuclear
(a) IA, third (b) III A, third charge remains the same. So, the nucleus attracts the
(c) II A, third (d) II A, second electron more towards itself and leads to the decrease in
A.P.EAMCET 2001 size. Al3+ ion has smallest size.
Ans. (c) : Given 12 Z = 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 • When an atom losses electrons, it results in the
The element is Mg, it belongs to the IIA group and third formation of positive ion known as cation.
period. • When an atom gains electrons, it results in the
formation of negative ion known as anion.
97. The electronic configuration of group XIII
elements is 102. One of the characteristic properties of non-
metals is that they
(a) ns1np 2 (b) ns 2 np3 (a) are reducing agents
(c) ns 2 np 2 (d) ns 2 np1 (b) form basic oxides
A.P.EAMCET 2000 (c) form cations by electron gain
Ans. (d) : The electronic configuration of group III (d) an electronegative
NEET-1993
element is ns 2 np1
Ans. (d) : Elements with a high electronegativity are
e.g- 5B, 13Al, 31Ga, 49In, 81Tl, 113Nh generally non-metals and electrical insulators and tend
98. Which of the following is the atomic number of to behave as oxidation in chemical reactions.
metal? Conversely, elements with a low electronegativity are
(a) 32 (b) 34 generally metals and good electrical conductor and tend
(c) 36 (d) 38 to behave as reductants in chemical reactions.
AIIMS-2000 103. Which one of the following has minimum value
Ans. (d): The atomic number 38 is metal and name is of cation/anion ratio?
Strontium, which is s-block element. All elements of s- (a) NaCl (b) KCl
block are metals. (c) MgCl2 (d) CaF2
On moving down the group, the size of the atom
NEET-1993
increases due to the increase in the number of shells.
Because of that the attraction between the nucleus and Ans. (c) : The given species potassium (K) has the
the valence electrons decreases. biggest size. The order of the ionic size is
K+>Ca2+>Na+>Mg2+.
99. Which group of periodic table contains no
metal? Hence, the ratio of cation and anion is Mg2+/Cl– has
(a) IA (b) IIIA minimum value of cation/anion ratio.
(c) VIIA (d) VIII 104. Which of the following sets has strongest
AIIMS-1999 tendency to form anions?
Ans. (c): The group VII A of halogens such as fluorine, (a) Ga, Ni, Tl (b) Na, Mg, Al
chlorine, bromine, iodine etc. (c) N, O, F (d) V, Cr, Mn
The word halogen means salt producing so halogen NEET-1993
react with metal to form salt and halogen family has no- Ans. (c) : Non-metal have very strong tendency to form
metals. anion whereas metals have tendency to form cation in
Group IA and III A contain mostly metals and group group of nitrogen, fluorine and oxygen. All elements are
VIII contains transition elements which are metals. non-metals but in other options metal are present. N, O
100. Among the following elements that has the and F are more electronegative element, so they accept
lowest first ionization potential is electrons more easily and form negative ions.
(a) nitrogen (b) oxygen 105. Which of the following has largest size?
(c) fluorine (d) neon (a) Na (b) Na+
–
A.P.EAMCET 1994 (c) Na (d) Can't be predicted.
Ans. (b) : 7 N = 1s 2 2s 2 2p3 NEET-1993
Ans. (c) : Na– is the largest because one extra electron
8O = 1s 2 2s 2 2p 4 is present which is not attracted strongly by the nucleus
2
9 F = 1s 2s 2 2p5 and no one electron is remove then the cation are
always smaller in size.
10 Ne = 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 Hence, the decreasing order of the size of Na–>Na>Na+.
Nitrogen has half-filled orbital and Ne has filled orbital 106. Na+, Mg2+, Al3+ and Si4+ are isoelectronic. The
it show stable configuration but Oxygen has less stable order of their ionic size is
configuration and less nuclear charge. (a) Na+ > Mg2+ < Al3+ < Si4+
101. Which of the following has the smallest size? (b) Na+ < Mg2+ > Al3+ > Si4+
(a) Al3+ (b) F– (c) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ > Si4+
+
(c) Na (d) Mg2+ (d) Na+ < Mg2+ > Al3+ < Si4+
NEET-1994 NEET-1993
Ans. (c) : Atomic radii and atomic size decrease across Ans. (d) :
a period, cations are smaller size. Among isoelectronic Z nuclear charge
ions, the one with the larger positive nuclear charge will =
have a smaller radius. Hence, the largest species is Na+ e no. of electrons
When Z/e ratio decrease the size increase for
and the smallest one Si+4.
Therefore, the order of their ionic size are– Z 8
O2–, = = 0.8
Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ > Si4+. e 10
107. In the periodic table from left to right in a Z 9
F–, = = 0.9
period, the atomic volume e 10
(a) decrease Z 11
(b) increase Na+, = = 1.1
e 10
(c) remains same
Z 12
(d) first decrease then increase Mg2+, = = 1.2
NEET-1993 e 10
Ans. (d) : In the periodic table the atomic size first Z 13
Al3+, = = 1.3
decrease from left to right in period, so the atomic e 10
volume first decreases and then increase because atomic Hence, the decreasing order of ionic radii of the element
size in last of any period increases. are–
The atomic volume of noble gases is comparatively O 2 − > F− > Na + > Mg 2+ > Al3+
larger as they have large Van der Waals radii due to
completed valence shell, with all electrons paired which 111. The ionic radii (in Å) of N3–, O2–, and F–
causes greater repulsion. respectively are
(a) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71 (b) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40
(c) 1.71, 1.40, and 1.36 (d) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40
3. Atomic and Ionic Radii CG PET -2018
(JEE Main 2015)
108. The correct order of increasing ionic radii is J & K CET-(2003)
(a) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2– < N3– Ans. (c) : Z/e increase then the atomic radii decreases.
(b) N3– < O2– < F– < Na+ < Mg2+ Hence, the ionic radii of N3–, O2– and F– are 1.71, 1.40
(c) F– < Na+ < O2– < Mg2+ < N3– º respectively.
(d) Na+ < F– < Mg2+ < O2– < N3– and 1.36 A
JEE Main-27.06.2022, Shift-II 112. Ionic radii are
Ans. (a) : Ionic radii is the distance from the nucleus up (a) inversely proportional to effective number
to which it has influence on its electron bond. charge
The ionic radii of isoelectronic species increases with a (b) inversely proportional to square of effective
decreases in the magnitudes of nuclear charge. nuclear charge
So, The correct order of increasing ionic radii is Mg2+ < (c) directly proportional to effective nuclear
– charge
Na+ < F < O2– < N3–. (d) directly proportional to square of effective
109. Decreasing size of ions is : nuclear charge
(a) I > I− > I + (b) I − > I > I + JCECE – 2008, NEET-2004
(c) I + > I − > I (d) I > I+ > I − UPTU/UPSEE-2007
CG PET -2007, BCECE-2005 Ans. (a) : Ionic radii varies with effective nuclear
MPPET-2000, NEET-1996 charge (Zeff) and screening effects.
PBCET-1986 Ionic radii is inversely proportional to the effective
Ans. (b) : When an atom added electron then the nuclear charge as if the radii increases nuclear
subshell are added and size is increases. When an atom attractions decreases gradually.
are remove electron then subshell are removed and size 1
is decrease. rionic = ∝
Zeff
So, the decreasing order of size are –
I– > I > I+ 113. Due to lanthanoid contraction ….…….
elements exhibit similar radii.
110. The correct sequence which shows decreasing (a) Zn and Hg (b) Zr and Hf
order of the ionic radii of the elements is
(c) Zr and Y (d) Ag and Cd
(a) Al3+ > Mg 2 + > Na + > F− > O 2 − NEET-2021
(b) Na + > Mg 2 + > Al3+ > O 2 − > F− JCECE - 2018
(c) Na + > F− > Mg 2+ > O 2 − > Al3+ Ans. (b) : Due to lanthanoid contraction, Zr and Hf
elements exhibit similar radii. This contraction came
(d) O 2 − > F− > Na + > Mg 2+ > Al3+ into effect due to the poor shielding of 4f electrons
JEE Main-04.09.2020, Shift-I because of the poor shielding effect, the attraction on
JEE Main-05.09.2020, Shift-II the electrons by the nucleus increases and hence, radius
AIEEE 2010, J&K CET-1997 decreases.

114. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is 1
correctly represented? size of ion ∝
(a) H– > H > H+ (b) Na+ > F– > O2– nuclear charge
– 2–
(c) F > O > Na +
(d) Al3+ > Mg2+ > N3– Hence, the order are –
N3–>O2–> F–> Na+
NEET-2014
Karnataka-CET-2018 118. Ce3+, La3+, Pm3+ and Yb3+ have ionic radii in
Ans. (a) : It is known that the radius of cation is always the increasing order as
smaller than that of a neutral atom due to decrease in (a) La 3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+
the number of orbits. Where as the radius of anion is (b) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La 3+
always greater than a cation due to decrease in effective
nuclear charge hence, the order are- (c) La 3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+
H– > H > H+ (d) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La 3+ < Ce3+
115. The increasing order of the atomic radii of the [BITSAT-2005]
following elements is (AIEEE 2002)
(A) C (B) O Ans. (b) : Ionic radii decrease on moving along a
(C) F (D) Cl lanthanide series due to lanthanide contraction. As all
(E) Br ion are in +3 oxidation state.
(a) (A) < (B) < (C) < (D) < (E) Thus, the ionic radii follow the trend are–
(b) (C) < (B) < (A) < (D) < (E) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La 3+
(c) (D) < (C) < (B) < (A) < (E) 119. The correct order of ionic radius of nitrogen
(d) (B) < (C) < (D) < (A) < (E) family is
(JEE Main 2020, 8 Jan Shift-II) (a) N3−<P3− <As3−<Sb3−<Bi3−
JCECE-2008 (b) N3−<P3− <Sb3−
Ans. (b) : On moving from left to right in period atomic (c) P3− =As3−>Bi3−
radii decrease and moving from top to bottom in a (d) N3−> Bi3−>Sb3−
group atomic radii increases. Manipal-2020
∴Thus, the increasing order of atomic radii are– CG PET- 2015
F < O<C < Cl < Br Ans. (a) : On moving down top to bottom in a group
116. The set representing the correct order of ionic atomic radii increase due to new shell are added.
radius is Thus, the order of ionic radius of nitrogen family are –
(a) Li + > Be 2+ > Na + > Mg 2+ N3– < P3– < As3– < Sb3– < Bi3–
120. The correct order of radii is
(b) Na + > Li + > Mg 2+ > Be2+ (a) N < Be < B (b) F– < O2– < N3–
(c) Li 2+ > Na + > Mg 2+ > Be2+ (c) Na < Li < K (d) Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Fe4+
BITSAT 2011
(d) Mg 2+ > Be2+ > Li + > Na + J & K CET-(2004)
UPTU/UPSEE-2015 Ans. (b) : Effective nuclear charge (i.e. Z/e ratio)
(AIEEE 2009) decreases from F– to N3–. Hence, the radii follows the
Ans. (b) : Ionic radii increases when moving down the order : F– < O2– < N3–. Z/e for F– = 9/10 = 0.9, for O2– =
group and its decrease as the positive charge on the 8/10 = 0.8, for N3– = 0.7
element increases due to effective nuclear charge. In the 121. The ions O 2– , F – , Na+ , Mg 2+ and Al 3+ are
cation, number of electrons are less than number of
isoelectronic. Their ionic radii show :
protons, hence its effective nuclear charge increase and
(a) A decrease from O2– to F– and then increase
ionic radii decrease.
from Na+ to Al3+
The correct order of ionic radii– (b) A significant increase from O2– to Al3+
Na + > Li + > Mg 2+ > Be 2+ (c) A significant decrease from O2– to Al3+
95 76 31
72 (d) An increase from O2– to F– and then decrease
Ionic radii (pm) from Na+ to Al3+
3− 2− − +
117. The ionic radii of N ,O , F and Na follow BITSAT 2013, NEET-2003
the order Ans. (c) : Amongst isoelectronic species, ionic radii of
(a) N3− > O2− > F− > Na+ anion is more than that of cations. Further size of anion
(b) N3− > Na+ > O2− > F− increase with increase in –ve charge and size of cation
(c) Na+ > O2− > N3− > F− decrease with increase in +ve charge. Hence, ionic radii
2− −
(d) O > F > Na > N + 3− decreases from O2– to Al3+.
UPTU/UPSEE-2012 122. The radii of F, F– O and O2– are in the order
CG PET -2008, 2007 (a) O > F− > O > F
2−
(b) O 2− > F− > F > O
− 2−
Ans. (a) : When the isoelectronic species the number of (c) F > O > F > O (d) O 2− > O > F− > F
electron is increases the effective nuclear charge BITSAT 2005
decrease and size of ion increase. AP EAMCET (Medical) -1998

Ans. (a): F,F− ,O and O 2– are of the same period. As Ans. (a) : decreasing order of ionic radius of given
the number of anions increases of isolated atom, the size species is–
of anion increases because of extra addition of electron O2– > F– > Li+ > Mg+2
in outer orbital. The size of anions are in the order– On increasing –ve charge among the electronic species,
ionic radius increases.
O 2− > F− > O > F
128. Identify the correct order of ionic radii of the
123. Which of the following options represents the given species:
correct ionic radii in Å of N 3– , O 2– and F – , (a) Mn7+ > V5+ > Sc3+ > K+ > S2–
respectively? (b) S2– > K+ > Sc3+ > V5+ > Mn7+
(a) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40 (b) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71 (c) S2– > K+ > V5+ > Sc3+ > Mn7+
(c) 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36 (d) 1.40, 1.36 and 1.71 (d) K+ > S2– > Sc3+ > V5+ > Mn7+
TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 06.08.2021 AP EAPCET 25.08.2021, Shift-II
Ans. (c): Species (ion) – Ionic radii (Å) Ans. (b) : Ionic radii is the distance between the
N3– – 1.71 nucleus and the electron in the outermost shell of an
O2– – 1.40 ions. Increasing the electron on an atom, increases the
ionic radii. Decrease the e– on an atom will be decrease
F– – 1.36
ionic radii. So the order is–
124. The ionic radius of Na+ ions is 1.02 Å. The ionic S2– > K+ > Sc3+ > V5+ > Mn7+
radii (in Å) of Mg2+ and Al3+, respectively, are
(a) 1.05 and 0.99 (b) 0.72 and 0.54 129. Assertion (A) : Beryllium and aluminum forms
(c) 0.85 and 0.99 (d) 0.68 and 0.72 Be F42− and Al F63− Reason(R) : Both B2+ and
[JEE Main-2021, 18 March Shift-I] Al3+ have almost same ionic radius
1 The correct option among the following is
Ans. (b) : Radius (r) ∝ (a) (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct
Zeffective
explanation for (A)
Where Z = Atomic number (b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the
Na+ Mg2+ Al3+ correct explanation for (A)
Z = 11 Z = 12 Z = 13 (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
Each have 10 electron. (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
Therefore, the ionic radii of Mg2+ and Al3+ are 0.72 and TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-I
0.54 respectively. Ans. (a) : Beryllium and aluminum forms BeF4−2 and
125. Effective nuclear charge is Maximum in case
of_____ AlF63- and Be+2 and Al+3 have almost same ionic radius
(a) Lithium (b) Beryllium due to about same electronegativity, polarizing power
(c) Oxygen (d) Fluorine and charge/radius radio, of their ion.
AP EAPCET 24.08.2021 Shift-II 130. Which among the following compound shows
Ans. (d) : On going from left to right in a period the highest lattice energy?
effective nuclear charge is maximum. So, the fluorine (a) LiF (b) CsF
(F) has maximum effective nuclear charge. (c) NaF (d) KF
The effective nuclear charge is the net positive charge AP EAPCET 23-08-2021 Shift-I
experienced by valence electrons. Ans. (a) : According to Born-Lande equation-
Zeff. = Z– S N Mz + z − e 2  1 
Where Z = Atomic number U= A 1 − 
4πε 0 r  n 
S = Number of shielding electrons.
Lattice energy is inversely proportional to radius of ion.
126. Which among the following property increases, So, smaller the size of ions, larger the magnitude of
as we move down group–I of the periodic charges, and having the highest lattice energy. Hence,
table? LiF has maximum lattice energy.
(a) Electronegativity (b) Ionic radius 131. The ions S2–, Cl–, K+, Ca2+ are iso-electronic.
(c) Melting point (d) Ionization enthalpy Their ionic radii show ______
AP EAPCET-6 Sep. 2021, Shift-II (a) A decrease from S2– to Cl– and then increase
Ans. (b) : In periodic table when we move down the from K+ to Ca2+
group ionic radius increases due to the formation of new (b) An increase from S2– to Cl– and then decrease
shells. As atomic number increases, the number of from K+ to Ca2+
shells increases that’s why atomic radius of ionic radius (c) A significant decrease from S2– to Ca2+
also increases. (d) A significant increase from S2– to Ca2+
127. Among the following ions, the one with the AP EAPCET 23-08-2021 Shift-I
highest value of ionic radius is Ans. (c) : The ions S2– , Cl– , K+ , Ca2+ are iso-
(a) O2– (b) Mg2+ electronic and their ionic radii decreases S2– to Ca2+
+
(c) L (d) L– respectively.
TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-II Hence, correct option is (c).

132. The ionic radii of F– and O2– respectively are 136. Two metals A and B having similar ionic radii,
1.33 Å and 1.4 Å while the covalent radius of N react with oxygen to give only monoxides and
is 0.74Å. The correct statement for the ionic react with nitrogen to give nitrides. Then, A
radius of N3– from the following is and B respectively are
(a) it is smaller than F– and N (a) Li and Na (b) Na and Ca
(b) it is bigger than O2– and F– (c) Li and Mg (d) Na and Be
(c) it is bigger than F– and N, but smaller than of AP EAMCET (Engg.) 17.09.2020 Shift-I
O2– Ans. (c) : Li+ among group - 1 metals and Mg2+ of
(d) it is smaller than O2– and F–, but bigger than group - 2 metals have similar ionic radii, because they
of N are diagonally present in the periodic table. The stable
(JEE Main 2021, 25 July Shift-II) monoxides (only) of Li and Mg are Li2O and MgO
respectively.
Ans. (b) : The ionic radii of F– and O2– respectively are
º and 1.4 A º while the covalent radius of N is 137. The atomic radius of Ag is closest to
1.33 A (a) Hg (b) Au
º , the ionic radius of N3– is bigger than O2– and F–
0.74 A (c) Ni (d) Cu
. The increasing order of ionic radii are F– < O2– < N3–. (JEE Main 2020, 7 Jan Shift-I)
133. The correct order of ionic radii for the ions, P3– Ans. (b) : The atomic radius of Ag is closest to Au because
, S2–, Ca2+, K+, Cl– is of lanthanide contraction, an increase in effective nuclear
(a) P3– > S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+ charge and so, the size of Au instead of being greater as is
(b) Cl– > S2– > P3– > Ca2+ > K+ expected turns out be similar to that of Ag.
(c) P3– > S2– > Cl– > Ca2+ > K+ 138. Which of the following statement is correct
(d) K+ > Ca2+ > P3– > S2– > Cl– about "shielding effect" ?
(JEE Main 2021, 27 Aug Shift-II) 1. It is effective, when the orbitals in the inner
shells are completely filled.
Ans. (a) : For the isolectronic species ionic radii 2. Inner shells do not show any effect.
increases on adding the electron in shell are increase but 3. With increase of shielding down the group,
the on removing the electron the ionic radii decreases. ionisation energy increases.
Hence, the decreasing order of ionic radii are– 4. With increasing nuclear charge, the shielding
P3– > S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+ effect increases.
134. In general, the property (magnitudes only) that (a) 1 (b) 2
shows an opposite trend in comparison to other (c) 3 (d) 4
properties across a period is AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.09.2020, Shift-I
(a) electronegativity Ans. (a) : 1. Shielding effect is effective, when orbitals
(b) electron gain enthalpy in the inner shells are completely filled. So, statement
(c) ionisation enthalpy (1) is correct.
(d) atomic radius 2. Inner shells are show effect. So, statement 2 is
(JEE Main 2020, 2 Sep Shift-I) incorrect.
Ans. (d) : Electronegativity, Electron gain enthalpy and 3. Shielding effect as well as ionisation energy
Ionisation enthalpy increases across a period but atomic decrease down the group. So, statement 3 is
radius decreases. incorrect.
4. With increase in nuclear charge, shielding effect
135. The difference between the radii of 3rd and 4th decreases. So, statement 4 is incorrect.
orbits of Li2+ is ∆R1. The difference between the 139. Find the correct order of the given elements
radii of 3rd and 4th orbits of He+ is ∆R2. Ratio with respect to their size
∆R1 : ∆R2 is (a) Zn > Fe > Fe2+ > Fe3+
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 8 : 3 (b) Fe2+ > Fe3+ > Zn > Fe
(c) 2 : 3 (d) 3 : 8 (c) Fe > Fe2+ > Fe3+ > Zn
[JEE Main 2020, 5 Sep Shift-I] (d) Zn > Fe3+ > Fe2+ > Fe
Ans. (c) : Given that AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-II
0.529 2 Ans. (a) : Zn atomic radii is 137 pm.
∆R1 = (R4 – R3)Li + 2 = (4 – 32) Fe atomic radii is 126 pm.
3
Fe3+ ionic radius is 63 pm.
0.529 Fe2+ has an ionic radius of 77 pm.
= ×7
3 Thus, the correct order of their size is–
0.529 2 Zn > Fe > Fe2+ > Fe3+
∆R2 = (R4 – R3)He + 2 = (4 – 32)
2 Hence, the correct option is (a).
0.529 140. The correct order of the atomic radii of C, Cs,
= ×7 Al and S is
2
∆R1 0.529 × 7 2 ∆R 1 2 (a) C < S < Al < Cs (b) C < S < Cs < Al
∴ = × or = (c) S < C < Cs < Al (d) S < C < Al < Cs
∆R 2 3 0.529 × 7 ∆R 2 3 (JEE Main 2019, 11 Jan Shift-I)
Ans. (a) : On moving from left to right in a period This is repel already present 1s electron. Hence,
atomic radii decreases and the moving from top to repulsion will increase the atomic radius.
bottom in a group atomic radii increases. In Fe, Co, Ni and Cu have nearly balance each other
∴The order of increasing atomic radii are– keeping the atomic radius same.
C < S < Al < Cs 146. What is the correct increasing order of ionic or
170 180 184 300
Atomic radii (pm) atomic radii in the following?
141. For which of the following ionic species radius (a) Si4+ < P5+ < S6+ < Cl7+
would be maximum? (b) P5+ < Si4+< Cl7+ < S6+
(a) C 4–
(b) N 3–
(c) Cl7+ < S6+< P5+ < Si4+
(c) O2– (d) Mg2+ (d) S6+ < P5+ < Cl7+ < Si4+
AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Evening) J & K CET-(2018)
Ans. (a) : Among the isoelectronic species ionic radius Ans. (c) : For
increase with increase in negative charge or decrease in Si = 14, Si4+ = 10e–
positive charge. P = 15, P+5 = 10e–
Therefore, the order of ionic radius maximum in C4– S = 16, S+6 = 10e–
and increasing order of ionic radius are–
Mg2+ < O2– < N3– < C4– Cl = 17, Cl+7 = 10e–
142. The correct order of atomic radii is 1
Ionic radii ∝
(a) Ho > N > Eu > Ce (b) N > Ce > Eu > Ho charge
(c) Eu > Ce > Ho > N (d) Ce > Eu > Ho > N Greater the charge ionic radii decrease
(JEE Main 2019, 12 Jan Shift-II) Hence, the increasing order of ionic radii are-
Ans. (c) : The atomic radii follows the order Cl7+ < S6+< P5+ < Si4+
Eu > Ce > Ho > N 147. The energy and radius of electron present in
199pm 183pm 176pm 70pm
second orbit of He+ respectively are
143. Which has least covalent radius? (a) –1.09 × 10–18 J, 105.8 pm
(a) Mn (b) Cu (b) –8.72 × 10–18 J, 211.6 pm
(c) Zn (d) Ni (c) –4.36 × 10–18 J, 52.9 pm
AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Morning)
(d) –2.18 × 10–18 J, 105.8 pm
Ans. (d): Covalent radius of an atom denotes half of the
AP EAMCET-2017
internuclear distance between the atoms of the +
monoatomic species. Ans. (d): For He : Z = 2
It is different from ionic and atomic radius. It depends Z2
on the bond order of the compound formed by the For n = 2 En = – 2.18 × 10–18 2
covalent bonding. n
Hence, the covalent radius in Pm are– –18 4
En = –2.18 × 10 ×
Ni < Cu < Zn = Mn 4
125 128 137 137 En = – 2.18 × 10–18 Joule
So, the least covalent radius is Ni.
n2
144. The increasing order of size for the ionic And rn = 52.9 × pm
species Na+ , F-, O2-, Mg2+ is Z
(a) Na+ < F- < O2– < Mg2+ 4
rn = 52.9 × = 105.8 pm
(b) Mg2+ < Na+ < F- < O2- 2
(c) O2- < Mg2+ < Na+ < F- Hence, the option (d) is correct.
(d) O2- < F- < Mg2+ < Na+ 148. The set representing the right order of ionic
Assam CEE-2019 radius is
Ans. (b) : Ionic size increase with the addition of (a) Li + > Na + > Mg 2 + > Be2 +
electrons and ionic size decreases with the loss of
electrons. It has high inter electrons repulsion due to (b) Mg 2+ > Be2 + > Li + > Na +
which it has the minimum size. The increasing order of
ionic size is Mg2+ < Na+ < F- < O2- < N3-. (c) Na + > Mg 2 + > Li + > Be2 +
They are iso-electronic species with same number of (d) Na + > Li + > Mg 2 + > Be2 +
electrons. Higher is the atomic number higher will be
the effective nuclear charge, lower will be the size. TS EAMCET-2017
145. Which set of elements have nearly the same Ans. (d) : On going down the group size increases and
atomic radii? charge of cation increases size decreases.
(a) Fe, Co, Ni, Cu (b) F,Cl, Br, I Na + > Li + > Mg 2 + > Be2 +
(c) Na, K, Rb, Cs (d) Li, Be, B, C
CG PET -2019 149. Atomic radius (pm) of Al, Si, N and F
respectively is
Ans. (a) : Fe, Co, Ni and Cu are belong to the 3rd
transition series in the same period. The atomic radii are (a) 117, 143, 64, 74 (b) 143, 117, 74, 64
not vary because of the extra screening by the 3d (c) 143, 47, 64, 74 (d) 64, 74, 117, 143
electrons with increasing by the additional protons. TS EAMCET-2017

Ans. (b) : Nitrogen and Fluorine belong to second Ans. (c) : Zr4+ and Hf4+ belonging to the same group of
period. Al and Si are belong to 3rd period. The size of second and third transition series is due to the effect of
element decreases from left to right in a period. lanthanide contraction.
Hence the decreasing order of atomic radius is – 155. Atomic radii of which metals are same?
Al > Si > N > F (a) Cr, Mn, Cu (b) Cr, Fe, Co
143 117 74 64 (pm) (c) Sc, Ti, Zn (d) V, Ni, Cr
150. The ion having the highest mobility in aqueous CG PET- 2015
solution is Ans. (a) : Atomic radius is inversely proportional to
(a) Ba2+ (b) Mg2+ the effective nuclear charge.
(c) Ca2+ (d) Be2+ On moving from left to right in a period the effective
CG PET -2017 nuclear charge increases, the number of electron in the
Ans. (a) : Larger the size of cation, less hydrated. 3d sub-shell will increases. This repel the already
Hence, it show higher mobility in aqueous solution. present 4s electrons. Hence, Cr, Mn and Cu are nearly
Among the given species Ba2+ ion has largest. size, so balance the atomic radius same.
hydrate to smaller extent and show highest mobility. 156. Decrease in ionic size in a period is observed in
Be2+ < Mg2+ < Ca2+ < Ba2+ (a) actinides (b) lanthanides
151. The ionic species having the largest size is (c) both (a) and (b) (d) transition elements
(a) Li+(g) (b) Rb+(aq) SRMJEEE – 2014
(c) Li+(aq) (d) Cs+(aq) Ans. (c) : Actinides and Lanthanides decrease in ionic
CG PET -2017 size in a period is observed because increase in atomic
Ans. (c) : Concept used number and the atomic size increases which attracts the
Z outermost shell more effectively then they gradual
(i) In gaseous state, more the value of , smaller is the decrease in atomic and ionic radii.
e 157. The increasing order of the atomic radius of Si,
size of ion. S, Na, Mg, Al is
(ii) In aqueous solution i.e. in hydrated- state, Smaller (a) S < Si < Al < Mg < Na
the gaseous ion, more it get hydrated and therefore more (b) Na < Al < Mg < S < Si
+
is its size. Among given options Li (g) has smallest,
(c) Na < Mg < Si < Al < S
size, so it hydrates to large extent and its size becomes
largest. Therefore, Li(aq) has the largest, size. (d) Na < Mg < Al < Si < S
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) - 2014
152. Arrange the following as per increasing order
Ans. (a) : All these elements belong to the third period
of ionic size Mg 2+ ,O 2− , Na + , F− , N 3− of periodic table, on moving from left to right in a
(a) N 3− < O 2− < F− < Na + < Mg 2+ period, effective nuclear charge increase due to atomic
2− − 2+ + radius decreases.
(b) O < F < N < Mg < Na3
The order is Na > Mg > Al > Si > S
(c) Na + < Mg 2+ < O 2− < N 3− < F− 158. Which of the following series of elements have
(d) Mg 2+ < Na + < F− < O 2− < N 3− nearly the same atomic radii?
CG PET -2017 (a) F, Cl, Br, l (b) Na, K, Rb, Cs
(c) Li, Be, B, C (d) Fe, Co, Ni, Cu
Ans. (d) : All the given ions are isoelectronic as they
JCECE - 2014
contain same number of electrons. For isoelectronic
species, Ans. (d) : These are transition metals with the (n–
1)d1–10ns1–2 configuration. The atomic and ionic radii of
1
Ionic radius ∝ transition elements in a given series show a decreasing
atomic number trend for first five elements and then becomes almost
3− 2− − + 2+ constant for next five elements.
Ion N O F Na Mg
159. Atomic number of Na = 11; Mg = 12; Al = 13.
atomic number 7 8 9 11 12 Among Na+, Na, Mg, Mg2+ and Al3+, the
Hence, the correct increasing order of ionic size is smallest and the biggest are respectively
2+ +
Mg < Na < F < O < N − 2− 3− (a) Na; Na+ (b) Mg2+; Na
+ 2+
(c) Na ; Mg (d) Al3+; Na
153. The atom of largest size among the following is SRMJEEE – 2013
(a) Li (b) At Ans. (d) : Number of positive charge on element
(c) I (d) Be increases, size decreases. Hence the order of increasing
J & K CET-(2016) size Al+3 < Mg2+ < Na+ < Na
Ans. (a) : Atom Li Be I At Smallest size Al+3 and biggest size Na.
Atom radii (pm) 152 112 113 140 160. The correct order of atomic radius of Li, Be
154. Which of the following pairs has the same size? and B is
(a) Fe2+, Ni2+ (b) Zr4+, Ti4+ (a) B > Be > Li (b) B > Li > Be
(c) Zr4+, Hf4+ (d) Zn2+, Hf4+ (c) Li > B > Be (d) Li > Be > B
COMEDK-2015 AP EAMCET (Medical) - 2013
Ans. (d) : In the period, when we move left to right then Ans. (b) : Atomic radii increases, as the number of
the size of atomic radius decreases and there is the one shells increases. Thus, on moving down a group atomic
electron add in the same shell due to this enhanced radii increases.
nuclear charge. The electrons of all the shells are pulled The electronic configuration of the given element is
12 Mg = [Ne]3s
2
little closer to the nucleous thereby making each
individual shell smaller and smaller. Thus, the correct
Ca = [Ar]4s 2
decreasing order of atomic radius is: Li > Be > B. 20
161. Which of the following is correct? 15 P = [Ne]3s 2 3p 3

(a) Radius of Ca2+ < Cl– < S2– 17 Cl = [Ne]3s 3p
2 5
(b) Radius of Cl– < S2– < Ca2+ On the other hand, on increasing the number of electron
(c) Radius of S2– = Cl– = Ca2+ in the same shell, the atomic radii decreases because
(d) Radius of S2– < Cl– < Ca2+ effective nuclear charge is increases.
WB-JEE-2012 In Mg, P and Cl, the number of electrons are increasing
Ans. (a) : For the given species are isoelectronic having in the same shell, thus the order of their atomic radii is
the same number of electron are present. Cl < P < Mg
1 In case of Ca, the electron is entering in higher shell.
Ionic radii ∝ So, its atomic radii is highest.
Zeff Thus, the order of radii is
Hence, the increasing order of radius are- Cl < P < Mg < Ca
Ca2+ < Cl– < S2–
165. The increasing order of the ionic radii of the
162. Consider the following ions: given isoelectronic species is
1. Na+
(a) Cl− , Ca 2+ , K + ,S2 (b) S2− , Cl− , Ca 2+ , K +
2. Al3+
3. Si4+ (c) Ca 2+ , K + , Cl− ,S2 −
(d) K + ,S2 − , Ca 2 + , Cl−
In naturally occurring zeolites which of the (AIEEE 2012)
above ions are present? Ans. (c) : The species (atoms/molecules) is negatively
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only charged, as an additional electron occupies an outer
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 orbital, there is increased in electron electron repulsion
SCRA 2012 because the protons in the ion cannot pull the extra
Ans. (d) : Natural zeolites are non-porus, amorphous electron towards the nucleus then decreased effective
and durable. Na+, Al3+, and Si4+ are some of the nuclear charge.
naturally occurring zeolites. Therefore, the ionic radii increased. The increasing
order of the ionic radii of the given isoelectromic
163. Consider the following statements. species are-
I. The radius of an anion is larger than that of Ca 2+ , K + , Cl− ,S2 −
the parent atom.
II. The ionization energy generally increases 166. Which–of the following is the largest in size?
with increasing atomic number in a period. (a) Cl (b) S2–
III. The electronegativity of an element is the (c) Na+ (d) F–
tendency of an isolated atom to attract an J & K CET-(2011)
electron. Ans. (b) : All these ion contain 18 electron each so
Which of the above statements is/are correct? these are isoelectronic. For isoelectronic ions smaller
(a) only I (b) only II the positive nuclear charge greater is the size of the ion
(c) I and II (d) II and III decrease and greater the negative charge nuclear charge
AIIMS-2012 decrease hence the size of ion is large.
So, S2– has largest in size.
Ans. (c): Ionisation energy is increases from left to right
in a period generally due to increase in the nuclear 167. There is a general understanding of ionic
charge and decrease in the atomic radii in a period. The radius based on the nuclear charges and the
radius of an anion is larger than that charge decrease number of electrons surrounding the nucleus
when an electron is added to an atom. The anion which generally works very well. Which one of
the following represents the correct decreasing
becomes larger than the corresponding atom.
order of ionic radius for C4-, N3–, O2– and F–?
The electronegativity of an element is the tendency of (a) C4– > N3– > O2– > F– (b) F– > O2– >N3– > C4–
an atom in a compound to attract a pair of bonded (c) O2– > N3– > C4– > F– (d) F– > N3– > C4– > O2–
electrons towards itself. The tendency to attract an
UPTU/UPSEE-2011
electron of an isolated atom is measured by electron
affinity. Ans. (a) : For the given species are isoelectronic having
the same number of electron are present. The ionic radii
164. Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the are decrease with the increase in the magnitude of
order of increasing radii is nuclear charge because the force of attraction by the
(a) Mg < Ca < Cl < P (b) Cl < P < Mg < Ca nucleus on the electrons also increases. Thus, the
(c) P < Cl < Ca < Mg (d) Ca < Mg < P < Cl correct decreasing order of ionic radii.
VITEEE- 2012 C4–, N3–, O2–, F–

168. Which ion has the lowest radius from the and metallic radius > covalent radius. Thus Br has the
following ions? smallest atomic radius.
(a) Na+ (b) Mg2+ Atom Na K Br Li
3+
(c) Al (d) Si4+ Atom size(pm) 186 226 114 152
JCECE - 2011 174. Difference between S and S2– as S2– has
Ans. (d) : Ionic radii varies inversely with nuclear (a) larger radii and larger size
charge. Higher the nuclear charge, smaller is the ionic (b) smaller radii and larger size
radii. Since, Si4+ has the highest nuclear charge among (c) larger radii and smaller size
the given, so it has lowest ionic radii. (d) smaller radii and smaller size
169. Which of the following sets will have highest BCECE-2008
hydration enthalpy and highest ionic radius? Ans. (a) : The radii of anion is always larger than the
(a) Na and Li (b) Li and Rb atomic radii of its original atom. In an anion as electron
(c) K and Na (d) Cs and Na are added to the neutral atom the nuclear charge acts
AMU – 2010 more electron so that each electron is held less tightly
Ans. (b) : Smaller the size, greater is the hydration and electron clouds are expand.
enthalpy. So, Li will have highest hydration enthalpy. Thus, S2– has larger radii and larger size.
Down the group ionic radius increases, so Rb will have 175. Al3+ has a lower ionic radius than Mg2+ because
highest ionic radius. (a) Mg atom has less number of neutrons than Al
170. What type of structure does (NPCl2)4 Have? (b) Al3+ has a higher nuclear charge than Mg2+
(a) Linear (b) Hexagonal (c) their electronegativities are different
(c) Cyclic (d) Polymeric (d) Al has a lower ionisation potential than Mg
AMU – 2010 atom.
SRMJEEE – 2007
Ans. (c) : Phosphonitrilic compounds are known as
phosphazenes. Their general formula is (NPCl2)n. Ans. (b) : Al3+ has a lower ionic radius than Mg2+
because Al3+ has higher nuclear charge than Mg2+.
176. Which is the correct order of size of O–, O2–, F
and F–?
(a) O2– > F– > O– > F (b) O2– > F– > F > O–
(c) O– > O2– > F > F– (d) O2– > O– > F– > F
SRMJEEE – 2007
Ans. (d) : As negative charge of ions increases, outer
171. Which one of the following ions has the highest electron will be at a greater distance from the nucleus,
value of ionic radius? hence the greater in size.
(a) O2– (b) B3+ The order of size of given ions is O 2 − > O − > F− > F.
+
(c) Li (d) F– 177. Increase in atomic size down the group is due
BITSAT 2009 to
Ans. (a) : The ionic radii follows the order (a) increase in number of electrons
O 2− > F− > Li + > B3+ (b) increase in number of protons and neutrons
172. Atomic radii of Ti, Zr and Hf vary (c) increase in number of protons
(a) Ti> Zr > Hf (b) Ti < Zr < Hf (d) increase in number of protons, neutrons and
(c) Ti < Hf < Zr (d) Ti < Zr=Hf electrons
CG PET -2009 UP CPMT-2007
Ans. (a) : In a given group, atomic size increases due to
Ans. (d) : As we move down a group from top to
addition of extra shell which outweighs the effect of
bottom, radii increase but Zr and Hf have almost same
increased nuclear charge. Number of electron increase
radius due to poor shielding of f-orbitals. The atomic with increases in addition of extra shell.
radii of 4d and 5d transition element are nearly same. Hence, increase in atomic size down the group is due to
This similarity in size is consequence of lanthanide increase in number of electron.
contraction. Because of this lanthanide contraction the
radii of HF becomes nearly equal to that of Zr. 178. Which of the following has largest ionic radius?
Hence, the order are– (a) Cs+ (b) Li+
+
Ti < Zr = Hf (c) Na (d) K+
BCECE-2006
173. The atom of smallest atomic radius among the
Ans. (a) : Atomic and ionic radii increase from top to
following is
bottom in a group due to adding of shell at every step.
(a) Na (b) K Therefore, Cs+ ion has largest ionic radius among the
(c) Br (d) Li given ions.
J & K CET-(2009) o
Ans. (c) : When on moving in period from left to right 179. Atomic radii of F and Ne, in A, are given by :
atomic radius decreases. While in a group atomic radius (a) 0.72, 0.71 (b) 0.72, 1.6
increases from top to bottom. The radius of alkali metal (c) 1.6, 1.58 (d) 0.71, 0.72
is metallic radius and that of halogens is cavalent radius BCECE-2006
Ans. (b) : Atomic radii is the total distance from the Ans. (d) : The given species are F– (I), Na+ (II) and N3–
nucleus of an atom of the outermost orbital of its (III). These are iso-electronic species. As the –ve charge
electron. are increases in the element then the size of anion
On moving from left to right in a period generally increases. More the –ve charge more will be size of
atomic radii decrease due to increase in the effective element. Hence the correct increasing order of ionic
nuclear charge with increase in atomic number. sizes are- II < I < III
And on moving down in the group shells are increases 184. Which of the following order is correct for the
resulting in a large size. size of Fe3+, Fe and Fe2+ ?
Thus, the atomic radii of fluorine and neon in are 0.75Å (a) Fe < Fe 2+ < Fe3+ (b) Fe 2+ < Fe3+ < Fe
and 1.60 Å respectively.
(c) Fe < Fe3+ < Fe2 + (d) Fe3+ < Fe2 + < Fe
180. Consider the following abbreviations for AP-EAMCET (Engg.)-2004
hydrated alkali ions. Ans. (d) : The species are Fe3+, Fe and Fe2+. The atom
X=[Li(H2O)n]+; Y=[K(H2O)n]+; Z=[Cs(H2O)n]+ contains more the +ve charge, less the size of metal.
Which is the correct order of size of these The more electrostatic force act in small size of metal.
hydrated alkali ions? Hence, the correct order of ionic sizes are – Fe3+ < Fe2+
(a) X > Y > Z (b) Z > Y > X < Fe.
(c) X = Y = Z (d) Z > X > Y 185. Which of the following has largest size?
J & K CET-(2006) (a) A1 (b) A1+ (c) A12+ (d) A13+
Ans. (a) : For the given hydrated alkali ions– CG PET -2004
X= [Li(H2O)n]+ Ans. (a) : The atom contain more the +ve charged less
Y= [K(H2O)n]+ the size of metal. The more electrostatic force act in
Z= [Cs(H2O)n]+ small size of metal. Hence, the largest size is Al.
charge So, the decreasing order of size are –
Hydrated ion radii ∝ solution ∝ Al > Al+ > Al2+ > Al+3
radius
o 186. Which one of the following ions has the highest
181. The ionic radii (A) of C4– and O2– respectively value of ionic radius ?
are 2.60 and 1.40. The ionic radius of the (a) Li+ (b) B3+ (c) O2– (d) F–
isoelectronic ion N3– would be (AIEEE 2004)
(a) 2.6 (b) 1.71 Ans. (c) : Z/e ratio increases the size decreases and
(c) 1.4 (d) 0.95 when Z/e ratio decrease the size increases.
J & K CET-(2006) nuclear charge
Z/e =
Ans. (b) : For the ionic radii of isoelectronic ions no. of electrons
decrease with the increase in the magnitude of the + 3
nuclear charge. For Li , Z/e = = 1.5
2
So, decreasing order of ionic radii is
5
C4– > N3– > O2– 3+
For B , Z/e = = 2.5
2.60 1.71 1.40(pm) 2
182. The most probable radius (in pm) for finding 8
For O2–, Z/e = = 0.8
the electron in He+ is 10
(a) 0.0 (b) 52.9 9
(c) 26.5 (d) 105.8 For F–, Z/e = = 0.9
10
AIIMS-2005 2–
Therefore, O has highest value of ionic radius
Ans. (c) : Given that : 187. The atomic size of cerium and promethium is
For He+ (Z) = 2 quite close, due to:
Number of shell (n) = 1 (a) they are in same period in periodic table
we know that (b) their electronic configuration is same
59.2n 2 (c) f-electrons have poor shielding effect
Bohr’s radius (rn) = pm (d) nuclear charge is higher on cerium than
Z promethium
Where n = number of shell JCECE - 2004
Z = atomic number
Ans. (c) : For the lanthanide is the contraction of the
59.2 × 12 atomic size with increase in atomic number called as
rn = = 26.45 pm
2 lanthanide contraction while moving along the
183. Identify the correct order in which the ionic lanthanide series from Ce58 to Lu71, a regular decrease
radius of the following ions increases: in the size of the atom/ion and an increase in atomic
(I) F– (II) Na+ (III) N3– number. This decrease in size is called as lanthanide
contraction. Lanthanide contraction take place due to
(a) III, I, II (b) I, II, III imperfect shielding of electron which increase by one
(c) II, III, I (d) II, I, III by one more sub shell so, due to f-electrons have
AP-EAMCET (Engg.)-2005 shielding effect.
188. Consider the ions K+, S2–, Cl– and Ca2+. The 192. Which of the following has least ionic radius?
radii of these ionic species follow the order: (a) I+ (b) I3+ (c) I5+ (d) I7+
(a) Ca 2+ > K + > Cl – > S2- J & K CET-(2001)
– 2-
(b) Cl > S > K > Ca + 2+ 1
Ans. (d) : Ionic radii ∝
(c) Ca > Cl > K > S
2+ – 2- charge
More is the positive charge smaller the size of ion.
(d) K > S > Cl > Ca
+ 2- – 2+
So, the least ionic radius is I7+.
(e) S > Cl > K > Ca
2- – + 2+
193. Of the metals Be, Mg, Ca and Sr of group 2 in
Kerala-CEE-2004 the periodic table, the least ionic chloride will
be formed by
1
Ans. (e) Ionic radii ∝ (a) Be (b) Ca (c) Mg (d) Sr
charge J & K CET-(2000)
The charge of species is increases then the ionic radii Ans. (a) : Beryllium chlorides are covalent in nature.
will be decreases hence the decreasing order of the ionic This is due to the small size and high charge density of
radii will be- Be2+ ion i.e., it has high polarising power. However, the
2– – + 2+ halides of the other alkaline earth metals are ionic
S > Cl > K > Ca
189. Which one of the following is expected to have solids. 2–
largest size? 194. O and Si4+ are isoelectronic ions. If the ionic
(a) F – (b) O2– radius of O2– is 1.4 Å, the ionic radius of Si4+
(c) Al 3+
(d) N 3– will be
UPTU/UPSEE-2004 (a) 1.4 Å (b) 0.41Å
1 (c) 2.8Å (d) 1.5 Å
Ans. (d) : Radius ∝
Z A.P.EAMCET 1999
All the ions are isoelectronic but they have different Ans. (b) : Given that, O2- and Si4+ are isoelectronic ions
size due to different values of Z. In, Na+, O2–, N3–, F–, i.e. 10 e–.
the number of electron 10. 1
e Nuclear charge ∝
Thus greater the value of greater the size of iso- ionic radius
Z ∴ Nuclear charge for Si is larger, so it should be less
electronic species. Hence N3– is largest in size. than 1.4Å.
° 195. Of the following, the one with largest size is
190. The radius of hydrogen atom is 0.53 A . The (a) Cl– (b) Ar
2+
radius of 3 Li is of (c) K+ (d) Ca2+
° ° A.P.EAMCET 1997
(a) 1.27 A (b) 0.17 A Ans. (a) : Cl–, Ar, K+ and Ca2+ have isoelectronic
(c) 0.57 A
° °
(d) 0.99 A species and each have 18e–. The size of atom decreases
–
UP CPMT-2003 with increase in nuclear charge. The Cl ion has the
least nuclear charge among the given. Hence, it has
Ans. (b) : largest size.
2
n 196. Which of the following, the one with largest
Radius of nth orbit = × 0.53
Z size is:
where n = number of orbit (a) Cl − (b) Ar
and Z = atomic number = 3 (c) K+ (d) Ca2+
∴ In 3Li , no. of electrons = 1
2+ AP – EAMCET - (Medical)-1997
(1) × 0.53
2 Ans. (a) : Chloride ion has more ionic radius than Ar,
∴ Radius= K+ and Ca2+. When the electrons are added in the outer
3 most orbit, the attractive force of the nucleus on the
0.53 o electron decreases. So that after adding electron or in
= = 0.17 A case of –ve ion the ionic radius increases.
3
197. The pair of elements that have similar chemical
191. Which of thr following is thr smallest anion? properties are
(a) O2– (b) S2– (a) beryllium and boron
– –
(c) Cl (d) Br (b) aluminium and magnesium
J & K CET-(2002) (c) carbon and nitrogen
Ans. (a) : O is belong the second period and S2–, Cl–
2–
(d) lithium and magnesium
belong the third period and Br– belong to the fourth A.P.EAMCET 1996
period on moving from top to bottom in a group atomic Ans. (d) : Lithium and magnesium are similar chemical
radii increase. properties, since they have same electronegativity.
Hence, the O2– is the smallest anion. Lithium and magnesium show diagonal relationship.
198. If a neutral atoms is converted into a cation, Ans. (a) : Atomic radius decrease in a period from left
then its to right. So, the Kr nucleus has lesser radius than that of
(a) atomic weight increases Ba.
(b) size increases 203. Which of the following does not represent the
(c) atomic weight decreases correct order of the property indicated?
(d) size decreases (a) Sc3+ > Cr 3+ > Fe3+ > Mn 3+ − ionic radii
AIIMS-1996
(b) Sc < Ti < Cr < Mn − density
Ans. (d): A cation is formed when a neutral atom loses
electrons from the outermost shell. (c) Mn 2+ > Ni 2+ > Co 2+ < Fe 2+ − ionic radii
Cation with a more positive charge has less ionic radii (d) FeO < CaO < MnO < CuO − basic nature
because the more nuclear charge is experienced by the VITEEE, 2014
electron. Anion has more negative charge having the
more ionic radii. Ans. (a) : The correct order of ionic radii is
When cation is formed, there is no change in the atomic Cr3+ > Mn3+ > Fe3+ > Sc3+.
number of the element, only the number of electron 204. Which has the smallest size?
change. Hence the neutral atom is converted into cation, (a) Na+ (b) Mg2+
3+
there is a decreases in size. (c) Al (d) P5+
199. In the P3–, S2– and Cl - ions, the increasing JEE Main, 30.11.2020
order of size is Ans. (d) : The smallest size is P5+ because having
(a) S2– < Cl– < P3– (b) Cl– < S2– < P3– maximum nuclear charge per electron. When nuclear
7– 3–
(c) S < P < Cl –
(d) P3– < S2– <Cl– charge increases then atomic size decreases.
AIIMS-1996
Ans. (b): We know that phosphorus belong to VA 4. Electro Negativity
group, sulphur belongs to VIA group and chlorine
belong to VII A group. 205. Correct order of electronegativeity is:
The atomic size is decrease from left to right in a (a) F > O > Cl = N (b) F > Cl > O > N
period. (c) Cl > F > O < N (d) None of these
In isoelectronic species, the size of ions decreases as CG PET-22.05.2022
nuclear charge or atomic weight increases. Ans. (a) : Electronegativity – Electronegativity is the
Therefore, Cl– < S2– < P3– tendency of an atom in a molecule to attract electrons
200. The radius of hydrogen atom in the ground toward itself.
state is 0.53 Å. The radius of Li2+ ion (atomic • We know that electronegativity simply increases
number = 3) in a similar state is from left to right in a period and decreases from to
(a) 0.53 Å (b) 1.06 Å down in a group.
(c) 0.17 Å (d) 0.236 Å So, option (a) is correct.
NEET-1995 F > O > Cl = N
Ans. (c) : Radius of Hydrogen atom in the ground state Therefore, electronegativity of Cl & N are 3 (same).
is 0.53 A° 206. The electronegativity of the following elements
increases in the order
∴ Atomic number of Li is 3 (a) C, N, Si, P (b) N, Si, C, P
r × n2 (c) Si, P, C, N (d) P, Si, N, C
Q Radius of Li2+ ion =
2 Kerala CEE-2018, Karnataka CET-2017
0.53 × 12 Assam CEE-2014, UPCPMT-2012
= = 0.17A ° BITSAT 2005
3 J&K CET-1999
201. Which one of the following is the largest ion? Ans. (c) : Si and P are in the 3rd period while C and N
(a) Na+ (b) Mg2+ are in the 2nd period. Elements in 2nd period have higher
2–
(c) O (d) F– electronegativities than those in the 3rd period. Since N
A.P.EAMCET 1994 has smaller size and has higher nuclear charge than C,
1 its electronegativity is higher than that of C. Similarly,
Ans. (c) : Size of ion ∝ the electronegativity of P is higher than that of Si. Thus,
Nuclear Charge the overall order is : Si, P, C, N.
The radius of ion depend on the effective nuclear 207. Pauling's electronegativity values for elements
charge, more the charge more heavily the electrons are are useful in predicting
attracted towards the centre and lesser in the size. (a) polarity of the molecules
O2– has least nuclear charge and have largest size. (b) position in the EMF series
202. Kr nucleus has a ….. radius than that of Ba. (c) coordination numbers
(a) Lesser (b) Greater (d) dipole moments
(c) Same (d) None of these BCECE-2011
A.P.EAMCET 1992 UPTU/UPSEE-2004
Ans. (a) : Pauling electronegativity values for element F is most electronegative element and HF in solid phase
are useful in predicting of polarity of molecules. has symmetrical Hydrogen bonding the strongest bond
Pauling introduced the electronegativity idea that the are formed by F-atoms
ionic character of a bond varies with the difference in
electronegativity. A large difference in electronegativity
leads to a bond with high degree of polar character.
208. Which of the following indicates the correct
variation in electronegativities?
(a) F > N < O > C (b) F > O > N > C 211. Which of the following is not true for
(c) F < N < O < C (d) F > N > O < C oxidation?
CG PET -2018 (a) Addition of oxygen
UPTU/UPSEE-2005 (b) addition of electronegative element
(c) removal of hydrogen
Ans. (b) : On moving from left to right in a 2nd period
(d) removal of electronegative element
electronegativity increases.
Kerala-CEE-29.08.2021
Element C N O F
EN, Value 2.5 3.0 3.5 4 Ans. (d) : In the oxidation reaction, addition of oxygen
Hence, the order of EN are- and removal of hydrogen takes place. As we know,
oxygen is more electronegative atom if we remove any
F>O>N>C
electronegative atom then this process is termed
209. Pauling’s equation for determining the reduction.
electronegativity of an element is 212. The correct increasing order of the
(a) X A – X B = 0.208 ∆ electronegativity is
(b) X A + X B = 0.208 ∆ (a) B < C < S < Cl (b) B < S < C < Cl
(c) B < C < Cl < S (d) C < B < S < Cl
(c) X A – X B = 0.208∆2 TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 05.08.2021 Shift-II
(d) X A – X B = ∆ Ans. (a) : When we move left to right in the period then
electronegative increases whereas electronegativity
J & K CET-(2006) decreases down the group. Hence, the correct order will
UPTU/UPSEE-2010 be–
Ans. (a) : According to Pauiling equation. B < C < S < Cl
XA–XB= 0.208[EA–B–(EA–A×EB–B)1/2]1/2 213. The electronegativity order of the following
XA – XB = 0.208 ∆ elements is
Where, ∆ is the difference of bond dissociation energies (a) N > S > Te >I (b) I > N > S > Te
of A-A and B-B bonds. (c) N > I > S > Te (d) N > S > I > Te
XA and XB are the electronegativities of A and B TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 07.08.2021 Shift-II
respectively. Ans. (c) :
The factor 0.208 arises from the conversion of Kcals to
Element − Electronegativity
electron volt.
210. Given below are two statements: One is N − 3.04
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is I − 2.66
labelled as Reason (R). S − 2.58
Assertion (A) : Dipole - dipole interactions are
the only non-covalent interactions, resulting in Te − 2.1
hydrogen bond formation. Thus, electronegativity order is N > I > S > Te.
Reason (R) : Fluorine is the most 214. HClO4 is a stronger acid than H2SO4 due to
electronegative element and hydrogen bonds in which of the following reasons?
HF are symmetrical. (i) Oxidation state of Cl in HClO4 is +7 and
In the light of the above statements, choose the that of S in H2SO4 is +6
most appropriate answer from the options (ii) Cl is more electronegative then S
given below. (iii) ClO3 part of HClO4 can break O-H bond
(a) A is false but R is true. more easily to liberate a proton than SO3 is
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct dibasic
explanation of A. (iv) ClO3 part of HClO4 can break O-H bond
(c) A is true R is false. more easily to liberate a proton than SO3
(d) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct part in H2SO4
explanation of A. (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(JEE Main 2021, 26 Feb. Shift-II) (b) (i), (ii), and (iv) only
Ans. (a) : Dipole -dipole are not only the interact ion (c) (i), (iii), and (iv) only
responsible for hydrogen bond formation ion-dipole can (d) (ii), (iii), (iv) only
also be responsible for hydrogen bond formation. AP EAPCET 24.08.2021 Shift-II

Ans. (b) : In HClO4 Oxidation state of Cl is + 7 and in Ans. (b): Among the following Li and Na are the most
H2SO4 Oxidation state of S is + 6, Cl is more electropositive and F, Cl and Br are most
electronegative than S. HClO4 is mono acidic where as electronegative.
H2SO4 is dibasic ClO3 part of HClO4 can break O–H bond So, the electronegative of the species are-
more easily to liberate a proton than SO3 part in H2SO4. Atom F Cl Br I Li Na
So, the option (b) is correct. EN Value 4 3 2.8 2.5 1 0.9
215. Given that ionization potential and electron The difference in electronegativity are.
gain enthalpy of chlorine are 13 eV and 4 eV (i) F – Li = 4 – 2.5 = 1.5
respectively. The electronegativity of chlorine (ii) F – Na = 4 – 0.9 = 3.1
on Mulliken scale approximately equals to (iii) Br – Na = 2.8 – 0.9 = 1.9
(a) 8.5 eV (b) 6.0 eV (iv) Cl – Na = 3 – 0.9 = 2.1
(c) 3.0 eV (d) 1.5 eV Hence, the Na and F pairs of elements has maximum
AP EAPCET 19-08-2021 Shift-I electronegativity difference.
Ans. (c) : Mulliken defined the electro negativity of an 219. The correct option with respect to the Pauling
atom as the arithmetic mean of its ionization energy and electronegativity values of the elements is
electron. (a) P > S (b) Si < Al
Ionisation Potential + Electron Affinity (c) Te > Se (d) Ga < Ge
i.e. XA = (JEE Main 2019, 11 Jan Shift-II)
2
Given that, I.P. = 13eV, E.A = 4eV Ans. (d) : When moving from left to right in period
The values are in the form of e.V so he formula will be- electronegativity increases.
Si > Al, S > P, Ge > Ga
(I.P)Cl + (E.A)Cl and moving from top to bottom in group
XCl =
5.6 electronegativity decreases.
13eV + 4eV Se > Te
XCl =
5.6 220. Bond between A and B can b represented by :
170eV A – B, A+B–, A–B+
XCl = = 3.03 eV (I) (II) (III)
5.6 If A is more electronegative than B, then least
216. The electronegativity of the given elements contribution to the actual structure comes
increases in the order_________ from:
(a) C, N, Si, P (b) N, Si, C, P (a) I
(c) Si, P, C, N (d) P, Si, N, C (b) II
AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-II (c) III
Ans. (c): Electro negativity of given element is– (d) All the structures have equal contribution
Si = 1.9 Manipal-2019
P = 2.19 Ans. (b) : A polar covalent bond is formed between the
C = 2.55 two element of different electronegativities. The
N = 3.04 polarity of a bond depends on the electronegativity
Therefore the increasing order is – Si < P < C < N. difference.
217. Assertion: Cl, Br and I show disproportionation, Hence, the A is more electronegative than B, then least
but F doesn't. contribution to the actual structure comes from the II.
Reason: This is because it is the most 221. Two elements A and B have electronegativities
electronegative element of the group. 1.2 and 3.0 respectively. The nature of bond
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and between A and B would be
Reason is the correct explanation of (a) ionic (b) covalent
Assertion. (c) co-ordinate (d) metallic
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but BITSAT 2017
Reason is not the correct explanation of Ans. (a) : Q Difference of electronegativity between 'A'
Assertion. and 'B' = 3.0 – 1.2 = 1.8. A bond having
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. electronegativity difference greater than 1.65 is ionic
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. nature.
AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Evening) Hence, bond between 'A' and 'B' would be of ionic
Ans. (a) : Cl, Br and I show disproportionation but nature.
fluorine (F) does not show disproportionation tendency While a covalent bond consists of the mutual sharing of
since it can only take up electron (oxidation state = –1) one or more pairs of electrons between two atoms.
and cannot lose electron. This is because it is the most And co-ordinate is a covalent bond that consists of a
electronegative element of the group. pair of electrons supplied by only one of the two atoms
it joins.
218. Which pair of elements has maximum electro
negativity difference? 222. Among Me3N,C5H5N and MeCN (Me = methyl
(a) Li & F (b) Na & F group) the electronegativity of N is in the order
(c) Na & Br (d) Na & Cl (a) MeCN > C5H5N > Me3N
AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Evening) (b) C5H5N > Me3N > MeCN
(c) Me3N > MeCN > C5H5N Ans. (c) : The property of attracting electrons by an
(d) Electronegativity same in all atom of a molecule is called electronegativity. However
WB-JEE-2017 electron affinity is the amount of energy liberated when
Ans. (a) : In Me3N ⇒ N is sp3 hybrid an electron is added to an isolated gaseous atom.
In C5H5N ⇒ N is sp2 hybrid. Ionisation energy, also called ionization potential, the
amount of energy required to remove an electron from
an isolated atom or molecule.
In MeCN ⇒ N is sp-hybrid 227. Which one of the following is maximum
Therefore, the electronegativity of element depend on electronegative?
s-character, s-character is increase then (a) Lead (b) Silicon
electronegativity increases. (c) Carbon (d) Tin
MeCN > C5H5N > Me3N CG PET -2008
223. Which one of the following correctly represents Ans. (c) : For the given elements are present in group–
the variation of electronegativity (EN) with 14 on moving down a group from top to bottom, the
atomic number (Z) of group 13 elements? electronegativity decreases. Thus, the carbon has most
electronegative than other given element.
228. The electronic configuration of most
electronegative elements is–
(a) (b) (a) 1s2, 2s2, 2p5
(b) 1s2, 2s2, 2p4,3s1
(c) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1, 3p1
(d) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p5
BCECE-2007
(c) (d)
Ans. (a) : The given electronic configuration the most
AP EAMCET (Engg.) -2014 electronegative element is 1s2, 2s2 2p5 are fluorine.
Ans. (d) : The electronegativity of group 13 element Fluorine is the most electronegative element in the
decreases from B to Al and then increase from Al to Te periodic table.
because of the discrepancies in the atomic size of the 229. Which of the following is second most
elements. electronegative element?
224. The correct order of electronegativities of N, O, (a) Chlorine (b) Oxygen
F and P is (c) Sulphur (d) Fluorine
(a) F > O > P > N (b) F > O > N > P UP CPMT-2007
(c) N > O > F > P (d) F > N > P > O Ans. (b) : The tendency of an atom in a compound to
Karnataka-CET-2012 attract a pair of bonded electron towards itself is known
Ans. (b) : In a period, electronegativity increases from as electronegativity of the atom.
left to right. Fluorine is most electronegative element. After fluorine,
F>O>N the most electronegative element is oxygen as per
In a group, electronegativity decreases down the group. Pauling’s scale of electronegativity.
Hence, N > P xF=4.0, xCl=3.0, xO= 3.5, xs=2.5
So, the order of electronegativity are-
F>O>N>P 230. Observe the following statements
4 3.5 3 2.19 I. The physical and chemical properties of
225. Indicate the pair whose one member has the elements are periodic functions of their
highest and other has the lowest electronic configuration.
electronegativity II. Electronegativity of fluorine is less than the
(a) I and F (b) Fr and Li electronegativity of chlorine.
(c) K and Cs (d) F and Fr III. Electropositive nature decreses from top to
CG PET- 2011 bottom in a group.
Ans. (d) : Francium (Fr) has least electronegative The correct answer is
element due to its large size. (a) I, II and III are correct
Fluorine (F) is the highest electronegative element due (b) only I is correct
to its small size. (c) only I and II are correct
Therefore, F and Fr are the pair whose one member has (d) only II and III are correct
the highest and other has lowest electronegativity.
A.P.EAMCET 2006
226. The property of attracting electrons by the Ans. (b) : The physical and chemical properties of
halogen atoms in a molecule is called element are periodic functions of their electronic
(a) ionization potential configuration.
(b) electron affinity
(c) electronegativity • Electronegative of fluorine is greater than chlorine.
(d) electronic attraction • Electropositive nature increase on top to bottom in a
JCECE - 2010 group.
231. The electro-negativity difference between N In sp hybridized carbon two orbitals are involved in
and F is greater than that between N and H yet hybridization among only one is s. The percentage of s-
the dipole moment of NH3 (1.5 D) is larger than character it will be equal to 50%. For sp2 hybridised the
that of NF3 (0.2D). This is because percentage of s-character will be 33.3% and for sp3
(a) in NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are hybridised the percentage of s-character will be 25%.
in the opposite directions whereas in NF3 Hence, the sp-hybridsed carbon is more electronegative.
these are in the same direction 235. Which one of the following represents the
(b) in NH3 as well as in NF3 the atomic dipole correct order of electronegativity?
and bond dipole are in the same direction
(a) P > O > N (b) N > P > O
(c) in NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are
in the same direction whereas in NF3 these (c) O > N > P (d) N > O > P
are in opposite directions A.P.EAMCET 2002
(d) in NH3 as well as in NF3 the atomic dipole Ans. (c) : Electro-negativity is defined as the ability of
and bond dipole are in opposite directions. an atom to attract shared electrons in a covalent bond.
NEET-2006 The correct order of electro-negativity is O > N > P.
Ans. (c) : Electronegativity of N is greater than that of 236. Which one of the following is most basic?
H but in NF3 electronegativity of F is greater than that (a) Cl– (b) F–
–
of N. So, in NH3 the atomic dipole and bond-dipole are (c) I (d) Br–
in the same direction whereas in NF3 these are in AMU 2002
opposite direction. Ans. (b) : In halides, electronegativity of the element
plays an important role in determining the basicity.
According to Bronsted Lowry concept, bases are proton
acceptor and acid a proton donor. Down the group, size
of the halides increase. So electronegativity or the
ability to pull electrons towards itself decrease. So
232. Which one of the following has the highest fluorine with its high electronegativity is a strong base.
electronegativity?
(a) Br (b) Cl 237. In X – H ........... Y, X and Y both are
(c) P (d) Si electronegative elements. Then
UPTU/UPSEE-2004 (a) electron density on X will increase and on H
will decrease
Ans. (b) : In a period moving from left to right then the
electronegativity increases due to increase in effective (b) in both electron density will increase
nuclear charge- (c) in both electron density will decrease
Cl > P > Si (d) on X electron density will decrease and on H
On moving from top to bottom in a group increases
electronegativity decrease Cl > Br. NEET-2001
Hence, Cl has highest electronegativity. Ans. (a) : For X–H ------ Y, 'H' is directly bonded to 'X'
233. Which of the following equation is used in and there is a hydrogen, bond between 'H' and 'Y' As 'X'
Pauling’s scale of electronegativity ? and 'Y' are electronegative active element that pull
(a) xA = 0.187 (IE + EA) + 0.17 electron density towards themselves.
(b) xA – xB = 0.182 Therefore, the electron density on X increases on 'H'
1/ 2 electron density decreases.
 E A − B − ( E A − A × E B−B ) 
  238. Let electronegativity, ionization energy and
0.359Zeff electron affinity be represented as EN, IP and
(c) x A = + 0.744 EA respectively. Which one of the following
rA2 equation is correct according to Mulliken?
(d) None of the above IP
JCECE - 2004 (a) EN = IP × EA (b) EN =
Ans. (b) : According to Pauiling scale- EA
IP + EA
1
(c) EN = (d) EN = IP − EA
XA - XB = 0.182  E A − B − E A − A × E B − B  2 2
A.P.EAMCET (Engg.)-2001
234. Which carbon is more electronegative? Ans. (c) : Given,
(a) sp3-hybridized carbon Electronegativity = EN
(b) sp-hybridized carbon
Ionisation energy = IP
(c) sp2-hybridized carbon
(d) Always same irrespective of its hybrid state Electron affinity = EA
Mulliken has defined electronegativity as the average of
(e) None of the above ionization potential and electronegativity.
Kerala-CEE-2004 IP + EA
Ans. (b) Electronegativity is defined as the relative EN =
tendency of an atom or species to attract towards it and 2
we know that attract the electron, positive charge is 239. Which one of the following would you expect to
required that comes from the nucleus. have highest electronegativity ?
(a) Mg (atomic number 12) 244. Elements X, Y and Z have atomic number 19,
(b) S (atomic number 16) 37 and 55 respectively. Which of the following
(c) B (atomic number 5) statements is true about them ?
(d) Te (atomic number 52) (a) Z would have the highest ionization potential
A.P.EAMCET 1995 (b) Y would have the highest ionization potential
Ans. (b) : Electronegativity decreases from top to (c) Their ionization potential would increase with
bottom in a group and left to right increase in period. increasing atomic number
So, the sulphur has highest electronegative than Mg, B (d) Y would have an ionization potential between
and Te. those of X and Z
240. The most electronegative element is Karnataka CET-17.06.2022, Shift-II
(a) nitrogen (b) oxygen
Ans. (d) : Given that, X, Y and Z have atomic number
(c) fluorine (d) chlorine
19, 37 and 55 respectively.
A.P.EAMCET 1992
Then X = 19K = ionization potential = 4.3407 eV.
Ans. (c) : The most electronegative element is fluorine.
The tendency of an atom in a molecule to attract the Y = 37Rb = ionization potential = 4.17771 eV.
shared pair of electron towards itself is known as Z = 55Cs = ionization potential = 3.8939 eV.
electronegativity. Therefore,
241. If the ionization energy and electron affinity of I.P.of (Cs) + I.P.of (K)
Ionization potential of (37Rb) =
an element are 275 and 86 kcal mol–1 2
respectively, then electronegativity of the X+Z
element on the Mulliken scale is By symbolic, Y =
(a) 2.8 (b) 0.0 2
(c) 4.0 (d) 2.6 So, Y would have an ionization potential between those
Ans. (a) : Given that of X and Z.
Ionisation energy (I.E) = 275 Kcal/mol 245. Given below are two statements. One is
Electron affinity (E.A) = 86 Kcal/mol labelled as. Assertion A and the other is
According to Mulliken, electronegativity of an atom is labelled as Reason R
average of IE and E.A. Assertion A: The first ionization enthalpy for
IE + EA oxygen is lower than that of nitrogen.
EN = Reason R: The four electrons in 2p orbital's of
2
If IE and E.A are in K.cal.mol–1. oxygen experience more electron- electron
IE + EA 275 + 86 repulsion
EN = = = 2.88. In the light of the above statements. Choose
125 125 the correct answer from the options given
below.
5. Ionization Energy (a) Both A and R are correct and Rj is the correct
explanation of A
242. Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisation (b) Both A and R correct but R is NOT the
enthalpy because of correct explanation of A
(a) high basic character (c) A is correct but R is not correct
(b) small size (d) A is not correct but R is correct
(c) high exchange enthalpy JEE Main-29.06.2022, Shift-II
(d) high electro negativity
Ans. (b) : The first ionization enthalpy for oxygen is
NEET-17.07.2022
lower than that of nitrogen because as you move from
Ans. (c) : Gadolinium has a low value of third left to right the atomic size decreases. So, ionization
ionization enthalpy because of high exchange enthalpy. enthalpy will be increased.
In case of third ionization enthalpy electron will be
removed from 5d and resulting configuration will be In case, four electrons in 2p-orbital’s of oxygen greater
more stable electronic configuration. electron-electron repulsion.
As a result there is strong inter-electronic repulsion in
243. The correct order of electron gain enthalpies of
Cl, F, Te and Po is: the relatively small 2p-orbital of oxygen and thus the
(a) F < Cl < Te < Po (b) Po < Te < F < Cl incoming electron does not experience much net attract
(c) Te < Po < Cl < F (d) Cl < F < Te < Po force from the nucleus to hold the incoming electron.
JEE Main-25.06.2022, Shift-II 246. The ionisation potential of which element is
Ans. (b) : The correct order of electron gain enthalpies highest?
of Cl, F, Te and Po is – (a) H (b) He
Po < Te < F < Cl (c) Ar (d) F
Table of electron gain enthalpies are given below – CG PET-22.05.2022
Element Electron Gain Enthalpies (kJmol–1) Ans. (b) : The ionization potential of He element is
Po –174 highest because ionization potential (Energy) decreases
Te –190 as move from down a group and increases as move from
F –328 left to right across a period.
Cl – 349 So, inert gas has highest ionization potential.
247. The correct order of 2nd ionisation energy for (a)
Ne > Cl > P > S > Al > Mg
the elements carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and (b)
Ne > Cl > P > S > Mg > Al
fluorine is– (c)
Ne > Cl > S > P > Mg > Al
(a) F > O > N > C (b) C > N > O > F (d)
Ne > Cl > S > P > Al > Mg
(c) O > F > N > C (d) O > N > F > C JEE Main-27.07.2021, Shift-II
BCECE-2016 BITSAT 2016, CG PET -2005
Assam CEE-2014
Ans. (b) : On moving from left to right in a period
WB JEE-2010
ionization potential increases. On moving from top to
UPTU/UPSEE-2004bottom in a group ionization potential decreases. Rare
gases are more ionization potential than full filled
Ans. (c) : The electronic configuration of element after
removal of first electron. orbital than half-filled orbital. Hence, the order is Ne >
O+ = 1s2 2s2 2p3 Cl > P > S > Mg > Al.
F+ = 1s2 2s2 2p4 252. In which of the following arrangements, the
+ 2 2
N = 1s 2s 2p2 order is NOT according to the property
+ 2 2
C = 1s 2s 2p1 indicated against It
Therefore, the second ionization potential of oxygen is (a) Li < Na < K< Rb:
more as it acquires a half filled stable configuration so it Increasing metallic radius
energy requires a lot of energy to remove from the (b) I<Br<F<CI:
oxygen. Increasing electron gain enthalpy
So, the correct order of second ionization potential is- (c) B<C<N<O
O>F>N>C Increasing first ionization enthalpy
248. The set representing the correct order for first (d) Al3+<Mg2+< Na+ < F−
ionisation potential is Increasing ionic size
(a) K > Na > Li (b) Be > Mg > Ca NEET-I, 2016
(c) B > C > N (d) Ge > Si > C AIIMS-2015, 2005
Tripura JEE-2019
Ans. (c): When we move from B to O in periodic table
Manipal-2017
first ionization enthalpy increases due to the attraction
JIPMER-2008
of nucleus towards the outer most of electron. Hence,
JCECE – 2007
the order is- B < C < N < O : increasing first ionization
Ans. (b) : On moving down the group top to bottom enthalpy.
ionisation energy decreases due to the size increase. 253. In the following, the element with the highest
Hence, the correct order of first ionisation energy– ionization energy is
Be > Mg > Ca (a) [Ne] 3s2 3p2 (b) [Ne] 3s2 3p3
2 2
249. The correct order in which the first ionization (c) [Ne] 3s 3p (d) [Ne] 3s23p4
potential increases is JIPMER-2010
(a) Na, K, Be (b) K, Na, Be JCECE - 2009
(c) K, Be, Na (d) Be, Na, K NEET-2009
Ans. (b) : The given electronic configuration [Ne] 3s2
WB JEE-2015
3p3 are half-filled electronic configuration on removing
MHT CET-2014
the one electron the amount of energy is required to
Karnataka CET, 2008
Ans. (b) : The first ionization potential generally high. So, it has highest ionisation energy.
254. For the second period elements the correct
increases in a period from left to right and decreases in
a group from up to down. Thus, the correct order of first increasing order of first ionization enthalpy is
ionization potential is (a) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
K < Na < Be (b) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne
250. The first ionization potential of Na, Mg and Si (c) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
are respectively 496, 737 and 786 kJ mol-1. The (d) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne
ionization potential of Al will be closer to J & K CET-(2015)
(a) 760 kJ mol–1 (b) 575 kJ mol–1 JEE Main-2013, NEET-2009
–1
(c) 801 kJ mol (d) 419 kJ mol–1 Ans. (c) : When we move from left to right in a period
AMU-2014
ionisaiton energy increase. Be has full filled 2s subshell
CGPET-2010
so the ionisation energy is maximum in comparison to
J&K CET-2000
B, N is half filled 2p orbital so ionisation energy is
Ans. (b) : The ionization energy of Mg will be larger than
maximum in comparison to oxygen atom. Thus, order
that of Na due to fully filled configuration. The ionization
of first ionisation enthalpy is-
energy of Al will be smaller than that of Mg due to one Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
electron extra than the stable configuration but smaller than
255. What will be the order of Ist ionisation energy?
Si due to increase in effective nuclear of Si. Hence, the (a) Li > Na > K (b) K > Li < Na
ionization potential of Al will be 760 kJ/mole. (c) Na > Li > K (d) Li > K > Na
251. The decreasing order of the ionization potential UPTU/UPSEE-2015
of the following elements is JIPMER-2006
Ans. (a) : On moving from top to bottom in a group 260. With which of the following electronic
ionisation energy decreases because atomic size configuration an atom has the lowest ionisation
increases and due to lessening of the nucleus by inner enthalpy?
electrons. This means that Li will be having highest (a) 1s2 2s2 2p3 (b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
ionisation energy and K will be having the lowest (c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (d) 1s2 2s2 2p5
energy. WB JEE-2011
So, the ionisation energy of Li, Na and K are 520 NEET-2007
kJ/mole, 496 kJ/mole and 419 kJ/mole respectively. Ans. (b) : The given electronic configuration has 1s2 2s2
256. Generally, the first ionization energy increases 2p6 3s1. On removing the one electron easily due to
along a period. But there are some exceptions. form stable noble gas configuration. Hence, the
One which is not an exception is electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1 has lowest
(a) N and O (b) Na and Mg ionisation enthalpy.
(c) Mg and Al (d) Be and B 261. Proper decreasing order of first ionization
KARNATAKA-CET, 2010 potential of the elements Be, B, C and Li will be
Karnataka-CET-2011 which one of the following?
Ans. (b) : Na belongs to IA group and Mg belongs to (a) C > B > Be > Li (b) C > Be > B > Li
IIA group. On moving form left to right in a period, first (c) B > C > Be > Li (d) Be > Li > B > C
ionization energy increases, thus, IE of Mg is greater Tripura JEE-2022
than the IE of Na. JIPMER-2012
IE order Mg > Na Ans. (b) : When we move from left to right in a period,
257. The correct of ionisation energy of C, N, O, F is ionisation enthalpy increase. Be has full filled 2s-
(a) F < O < N < C (b) F < N < C < O subshell then the Boron atom. Therefore, the order is-
(c) C < N < O < F (d) C < O < N < F C > Be > B > Li
KARNATAKA-CET, 2009 262. The first ionisation potenital (in eV) of N and O
Karnataka-CET-2012 atoms are
(a) 14.6, 13.6 (b) 13.6,14.6
Ans. (d) : Ionisation energy generally increases from
left to right in a period but ionization energy of nitrogen (c) 13.6, 13.6 (d) 14.6, 14.6
is greater than oxygen dud to stable p3 configuration. CG PET- 2016, 2013
Hence, the order is as Ans. (a) : The electronic configuration of nitrogen and
C<O<N<F oxygen are-
N- 1s2 2s2 2p3
258. The one electron species having ionization 2 2
energy of 54.4 eV is: O- 1s 2s 2p4
(a) H (b) He+ When oxygen loses one electron it will attain half-filled
4+ configuration.
(c) B (d) Li2+
2+ So, it can lose an electron easily but nitrogen has
(e) Be already in a half filled configuration and hence losing
UPTU/UPSEE-2016 an electron will require more energy than that of
Kerala-CEE-2004 oxygen.
Ans. (b) We know that, Therefore, the first ionization potential of N and O
−13.6 × z 2 atoms are 14.6 and 13.6 respectively.
E(ionisation energy) = eV 263. Four successive members of the first row
n2
Where, z = atomic number transition elements are listed below with their
n = shell atomic numbers. Which one of them is
For, He+, z = 2, n = 1 expected to have the highest third ionisation
enthalpy?
−13.6 × 22 (a) Vanadium (Z=23) (b) Manganese (Z=25)
∴ E=
12 (c) Chromium (Z=24) (d) Iron (Z=26)
= –13.6 × 4 CG PET -2007
= –54.4 eV NEET-2005
259. Which element has the highest first ionization Ans. (b) : The electronic configuration of Mn is-
2 2 6 2 6 2 5
potential? 25Mn = 1s , 2s , 2p , 3s , 3p , 4s , 3d
(a) N (b) Ne Third electron which is removed in third ionization
(c) He (d) H potential belong to 3d 5 subshell. The 3d5 subshell has
(e) Li highest stability because of it is a half-filled subshell so,
Manipal-2020 Mn shows highest third ionization potential.
Kerala-CEE-2018 264. The second ionization enthalpies of Li, Be, B
Ans. (c) : On moving from up to down in a group and C are in order
ionization potential decrease and across a period (a) Li >B>C>Be (b) Li >C>B>Be
ionisation energy increase. He is small size and fully (c) Be >C>B>Li (d) B >C>Be>Li
filled inert gas configuration. Therefore, He has the CG PET -2017
highest first ionization potential. J & K CET-(2011)
Ans. (a) : The ionization enthalpy depend on the Ans. (d) : Ionization potential increase from left to right
following factors: in a period but in case of Be and B. Beryllium is having
(i) Half- filled or full filled atomic orbitals are more more ionization potential than boron to completely
stable than other incomplete orbital. filled s-orbital in beryllium.
(ii) Smaller the size of atom/ion, more is the ionization So, the first ionization potential of Be and B will be 8.8
energy. (I.E.) For 2nd I.E. all elements have M+ and 6.6 respectively.
configuration 269. Which of the order for ionization energy is
Total no. of Outermost correct?
electrons configuration (a) Be < B< C<N<O (b) B < Be< C<O<N
Li+(Z=3) 2 1s2 (fully filled) (c) Be > B> C>N>O (d) B < Be< N<C<O
+
Be (Z=4) 3 2s1 (has more size) AIIMS-2013
than carbon) NEET-2001
B+(Z=5) 4 2s2 (fully filled) Ans. (b): The energy required to remove the most
+
C (Z=6) 5 2s22p1 (Smaller size) loosely bound electron from an isolated gaseous atom is
nd
Hence, correct, order for 2 I.E. is called the ionization energy. The ionization potential
Li + > B+ > C + > Be + decreases as the size of the atom decrease. Atom will
fully or partly filled orbitals have high ionization
or Li > B > C > Be + potential.
265. Which element has maximum first ionisation Hence, the order-
potential? B < Be < C < O < N
(a) Cs (b) F 270. Which one of the following order is correct for
(c) Na (d) He the first ionization energies of the elements?
CG PET- 2015 (a) B < Be < N < O (b) Be < B < N < O
J&K CET-2001 (c) B < Be < O < N (d) B < O < Be < N
Ans. (d) : On moving from left to right in a period VITEEE- 2009
generally ionisation energy increases helium (He) is JIPMER-2004
stable configuration is remove one electron from filled Ans. (c) : Along a period first ionization energy
s-subshell. The required is more due to filled 1s orbital.
increases. Thus, the first IE of the elements in second
Hence, the first ionisaiton energy is maximum in He. period should follow the order Be < B < N < O
266. The increasing order of the first ionisation The first IE of these elements follows the order B < Be
enthalpies of the elements B, P, S and F (lowest < O < N The lower IE of B than that of Be is because in
first) is B (1s2, 2s2 2p1), electron is to be removed from 2p
(a) F < S < P < B (b) P < S < B < F which is easy while in Be (1s2, 2s2), electron is to be
(c) B < P < S < F (d) B < S < P < F removed from 2s which is difficult. The low IE of O
UPTU/UPSEE-2017 than that of N is because of the half-filled 2p orbitals in
(AIEEE 2006) N (1s2, 2s2 2p3).
Ans. (d) : On moving from left to right in a period 271. Which of the following elements has the lowest
ionisaiton energy increase but on moving from top to ionisation potential?
bottom in group ionisation energy decreases. (a) Sodium (b) Potassium
Phosphorous (P) has half-filled configuration, it has (c) Rubidium (d) Cesium
higher IE1 than of S-atom. AMU–2003
Hence, the correct order of first ionisation energy is J & K CET-(2008)
B< S < P < F Ans. (d) : The ionization energy decreases on moving
800 999.4 1012 1680.8 kJ / mole
down the group
267. A sudden large jump between the values of
As we go down in a group, the nuclear charge increases.
second and third ionization energies of
elements would be associated with which of the (2) As we go down in a group the atomic size increases.
following electronic configurations? due to the addition of a new shell to each element.
(a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s23p1 (3) As we go down in a group , the number of inner
2 2 6
(c) 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 1 2
(d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 electrons increases . This increases the shielding effect
on outer electrons.
J & K CET-(2004), NEET-1993
The combined effect of the increases in atomic size, and
Ans. (d) : The sudden large jump between the value of the shielding effect more than the effect of the increases
second and third ionisaiton energies of an element. of the nuclear charge. These effects act in such a way
Because after losing two electron it has acquired stable that the force of attraction between the nucleus, and the
configuration. Thus, in order to remove third electron outermost electron decreases as we go down the group.
much higher energy is needed. Therefore, the electronic
configuration is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2. 272. Identify the elements X and Y using the
ionisation energy values given below.
268. First ionisation potential of Be and B will be
(a) 8.8 and 8.8 (b) 6.6 and 6.6 Ionisation kJ/mol
(c) 6.6 and 8.8 (d) 8.8 and 6.6 energy (Ist) (IInd)
CG PET -2007 X 495 4563
NEET-1998 Y 731 1450

(a) X = Na, Y = Mg (b) X = Mg, Y = F (a) Statement - 1 is correct. Statement -2 is
(c) X = Mg, Y = Na (d) X = F, Y = Mg wrong
(JEE Main 2021, 16 March Shift-II) (b) Both statement 1 and 2 are wrong
Ans. (a) : The electronic configuration of Na = [Ne] 3s1 (c) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct
ionisatin energy of sodium is very low but second (d) Statement -1 is wrong. Statement -2 is
ionisation energy is very high due to stable noble gas correct.
configuration of Na+. AP EAPCET 19-08-2021, Shift-II
The electronic configuration of Mg = [Ne]3s2 first and Ans. (c) :
second ionisation energy is low. Electronic configuration of 7N = 1s2, 2s2,2p3
273. The first ionisation energy of magnesium is
smaller as compared to that of elements X and Electronic configuration of 8O = 1s2, 2s2, 2p4
Y, but higher than that of Z. The elements X, Y
and Z, respectively, are N has lesser electron gain enthalpy because the extra
(a) chlorine, lithium and sodium addition of one electron in 2p orbital is very energy
(b) argon, lithium and sodium consuming.
(c) argon, chlorine and sodium Oxygen has lower ionisation enthalpy than nitrogen
(d) neon, sodium and chlorine because by removing one electron from 2p - orbital,
(JEE Main 2021, 18 March Shift-II) oxygen acquires stable configuration i.e. 2p3.On the
other hand, in case nitrogen it is not easy to remove one
Ans. (c) : On moving from left to right in a 3rd period of the three 2p electronic due to its stable configuration.
ionisaiton energy increases.
277. Which order among the following is incorrect?
Ionisation energy of the 3rd period are-
(a) NH3< PH3 <AsH3: (Acidic nature)
Na < Al < Mg < Si < S < P < Cl < Ar
(b) Li < Be < B < C : IE1 (∆H1)
Hence, the element X, Y and Z are argon, chlorine and (c) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O : (Basic Nature)
sodium respectively. (d) Li+ < K+ < Cs+ : (Ionic radius)
274. Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 663 AP- EAPCET- 07-09-2021, Shift-I
nm is just sufficient to ionise the atom of metal Ans. (b) : Ionization enthalpy is defined as the amount
A. The ionisation energy of metal A in kJ mol–1 of energy an isolated gaseous atom. Atom would take to
is ...............(Rounded off to the nearest integer) lose an electron in its ground state.
[h = 6.63 × 10–34 J-s, c = 3.00 × 108, ms–1, NA = So the correct order is-
6.02 × 1023 mol-1] Li < B < Be < C
[JEE Main 2021, 25 Feb Shift-II] 520 801 899 1086 kJ/Mole (∆H1)
Ans. (180) : Given that, h = 6.63 × 10–34 J.sec, 278. The successive ionization energies of an
c = 3 × 108 m/sec, NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1 element in kJ. mol–1 are 1060, 1900, 2920, 6280
N = 663 nm = 663 × 10–9 m and 21200. This element would belong to
hc group-____
∴ Ionisation energy of atom of metal A = (a) V (b) VI
λ
−34
(c) VII (d) IV
6.63 × 10 × 3 ×10 8
AP- EAPCET- 07-09-2021, Shift-I
=
663 × 10−9 Ans. (a) : The successive ionization energies of an
= 3 × 10–19 Joule element in kJmole–1 are 1060,1900, 2920, 6280 and
Since, Ionisation energy per mole 21200. The element belong to group V.
= 3×10–19 ×6.02×1023 279. Starting from the 1st, the successive ionization
= 180. 6kJ/mole potentials of an element are respectively 5.98,
= 180 kJ/mole 18.8, 28.4, 120.1, 154eV. The elements is
275. The third ionisation enthalpy is highest in (a) B (b) Al
(a) Alkali metals (b) Alkaline earth metals (c) P (d) Mg
(c) Chalcogens (d) Pnictogens TS EAMCET 05.08.2021, Shift-I
Kerala-CEE-29.08.2021 Ans. (b) : The amount of energy required to remove an
electron from an isolated gaseous atom in its gaseous
Ans. (b) : Alkaline earth metals acquired the outer two state.
electron in s-orbital. After removing of two electron I.E1 = 5.98 eV
from alkaline earth's metal, they get the stable I.E2 = 18.8 eV
configuration. So more energy required for the I.E3 = 28.4 eV
removing of electron. Hence, alkaline earth metals have I.E4 = 120.1 eV
the highest third ionization enthalphy. I.E5 = 154 eV
276. Choose the correct option regarding the Hence, the ionization potential difference between I.E3
following statements : and I.E4 is maximum. So, the element is Al.
Statement-1: Nitrogen has lesser electron gain 280. The first ionization energies (in kJ mol–1) of
enthalpy than oxygen. four consecutive elements of the second period
Statement-2: Oxygen has lesser ionization are given in the options. The first ionization
enthalpy than nitrogen. energy of nitrogen is
(a) 1086 (b) 1402 ∆1H and ∆2H are less that indicates that there are two
(c) 1681 (d) 1314 valence electrons and they are in p-orbital from given
TS EAMCET 04.08.2021, Shift-I options the only satisfying option is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 or
Ans. (b) : The amount of energy required to remove an [Ne] 3s2 .
electron from an isolated atom or molecules is called 284. Match the following?
ionization energy. The first ionization energy of property metal
nitrogen is 1402 kJ/mole energy. (a) Element with highest second (i) Co
281. Match List-I with List-II ionization enthalpy (is) (∆1H2)
List-I List-II (b) Element with highest third (ii) Cr
Electronic configuration ∆ i H in kJ mol –1 ionization enthalpy (∆1H3)
of elements (c) M in [M(CO)6] (iii) Cu
(a) 1s2 2s2 (i) 801 (d) element with highest heat of (iv) Zn
(b) 1s2 2s22p4 (ii) 899 atomization (∆1H)
(c) 1s2 2s2 2p3 (iii) 1314 (v) Ni
(d) 1s2 2s22p1 (iv) 1402 (a) (a → iii), (b → i), (c → v), (d → iv)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the (b) (a → iii), (b → iv), (c → ii), (d → v)
(c) (a → iv), (b → i), (c → ii), (d → iii)
(a) (a) → (i), (b) → (iv), (c) → (iii), (d) → (ii) (d) (a → v), (b → iv), (c → i), (d → iii)
(b) (a) → (iv), (b) → (i), (c) → (ii), (d) → (iii) AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-II
(c) (a) → (ii), (b) → (iii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (i) Ans. (b): Element with highest second ionization
(d) (a) → (i), (b) → (iii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (ii) enthalpy (∆1H2) = Cu
Element with highest third ionization
JEE Main 26.02.2021, Shift-I
enthalpy(∆1H3) = Zn
Ans. (c) :Ionisation energy in second period. Element with highest heat of atomization (∆1H) is Ni
Be(1s2 2s2) = 899 kJ/mole and [M(CO)6] metal is Cr.
O(1s2 2s2 2p4) = 1314 kJ/mole
N(1s2 2s2 2p3) = 1402 kJ/mole 285. The first ionization enthalpies of Mg and Al
can be expected to be_______
B(1s2 2s2 2p1) = 801 kJ/mole
(a) IE1 (Mg) = 577.5 kJ. mol-1, IE1 (Al) = 577.5
282. The correct order for the increasing ionization kJ. mol-1
enthalpies for the following is: (b) IE1 (Mg) = 577.5 kJ. mol-1, IE1 (Al) = 737.7
(i) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 (ii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 kJ. mol-1
2 2 6
(iii) 1s 2s 2p (iv) 1s2 2s2 2p2 (c) IE1 (Mg) = 737.7 kJ. mol-1, IE1 (Al) = 737.7
2 2 1
(v) 1s 2s 2p kJ. mol-1
Options: (d) IE1 (Mg) = 737.7 kJ. mol-1, IE1 (Al) = 577.5
(a) (ii)<(iii)<(i)<(v)<(iv) kJ. mol-1
(b) (ii)<(i)<(iii)<(v)<(iv) AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-II
(c) (ii)<(i)<(v)<(iv)<(iii) Ans. (d): Ionization enthalpy is defined by the amount
(d) (ii)<(i)<(iv)<(v)<(iii) of energy an isolated gaseous atom would take to lose
AP EAPCET-6 Sep. 2021, Shift-II an electron in its ground state.
Ans. (c) Mg (12): 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 (i) Mg −−→ Mg+ + e–
Na (11): 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1 I⋅E1(Mg) = 737.7 kJ mole–1
Ne (10): 1s2, 2s2, 2p6 (ii) Al −−→ Al+ + e–
C (6): 1s2, 2s2, 2p2 I⋅E1(Al) = 577.5 kJ mole–1
B (5): 1s2, 2s2, 2p1 286. Identify the incorrect order corresponding the
The correct order for increasing ionization mentioned property?
enthalpies are:– (a) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O : Basicity
(ii)<(i)<(v)<(iv)<(iii) (b) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 : Acidity
Na<Mg<B<C<Ne (c) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+ : Ionic radius
(d) Li < Be < B < C : First Ionization enthaply
283. If the successive ionization energies of an
element A are 165, 190, 550 and 595 kcal. AP EAPCET 24.08.2021 Shift-II
respectively. then the ground state electronic Ans. (d) : Option (1), (2) and (3) are correct. Ionization
configuration of element A is _____. enthalpy defined as the amount of energy an isolated
(a) [Ne] 3s2 3p2 (b) [He] 2s1 gaseous atom would take to lose an electron in its
(c) [He] 2s 2p 2 2
(d) [Ne] 3s2 ground state.
AP EAPCET 24.08.2021, Shift-I So, the order is –
Ans. (d) : The given ionization energies are – Li < B < Be < C (for first ionization energy)
∆1H = 165 Kcal 520, 801, 899, 1086, kJ/ mole.
∆2H = 190 Kcal 287. Identify the elements X and Y using the
∆3H = 595 Kcal ionisation energy values given below:

Ionization energy (kJ/mol) 290. Which element of the 3d-series has highest
1st 2nd third ionisation enthalpy ?
X 495 4563 (a) Mn (b) Zn
Y 731 1450 (c) Fe (d) Cu
(a) X = Na; Y = Mg (b) X = Mg; Y = Na AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-II
(c) X = F; Y = Mg (d) X = Mg; Y = F Ans. (b) : The electronic configuration of zinc metal is
JEE Main 16.03.2021, Shift-II Zn = [Ar]3d10, 4s2
Ans. (a) : As we know, first ionization energy is always The third ionisation enthalpy of Zn means removal of
less than second ionization energy. After removal of electron from the stable configuration of 3d10. The
one electron from outer orbit, it's attains the stable noble metal having the highest third ionisation enthalpy is Zn.
gas configuration i.e. Hence, the correct option is (b).
Na+ → [Ne], 3s0 291. B has a smaller first ionisation enthalpy than
due to which ionization energy of Na+ is very low but Be. Consider the following statements:
second ionization energy is very high. (I) It is easier to remove 2p electron than 2s
Mg → [Ne] 3s2, The first and second ionization electron
enthalpy of Mg is low but the third ionization enthalpy (II) 2p electron of B is more shielded from the
is very high due to noble gas configuration. nucleus by the inner core of electrons than
the 2s electrons of Be
288. Assertion (A): The first ionization energy of Be (III) 2s electron has more penetration power
is greater than that of B. than 2p electron
Reason (R): 2p orbital has lower energy than (IV) atomic radius of B is more than Be
2s orbital. (atomic number B = 5, Be = 4)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is a correct The correct statements are
explanation for A (a) (I), (II) and (III) (b) (II), (III) and (IV)
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct (c) (I), (III) and (IV) (d) (I), (II) and (IV)
explanation for A
(JEE Main 2020, 9 Jan Shift-II)
(c) A is true R is false
(d) A is false, R is true Ans. (a) : Boron (B) has a smaller first ionisation
energy than Be because Be has a stable complete
AP EAPCET 23-08-2021 Shift-I
electronic configuration so, it requires to more energy to
Ans. (c) : Electronic configuration of- remove the first electron from it.
(i) It is easier to remove 2p electron than 2s electron.
(ii) 2p electron of B is more shielded from the nucleus
by the inner core of electrons than the 2s electrons
of Be.
(iii) 2s electron has more penetration power than 2p
Ionisation energy is defined by the atom which required electron.
minimum energy to remove the one electron in outer 292. The first and second ionisation enthalpies of a
shell. metal are 496 and 4560 kJ mol–1, respectively.
So, Be has stable subshell to remove one electron is How many moles of HCl and H2SO4,
maximum in comparison to B. respectively, will be needed to react completely
Now, according to Aufbau principle. with 1 mole of the metal hydroxide?
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 .......... (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 1
So, the energy of 2s is lower than 2p. (c) 2 and 0.5 (d) 1 and 0.5
So, the option (c) is correct. (JEE Main 2020, 9 Jan Shift-II)
289. The second ionisation energies of Li, Be, B and Ans. (d) : Given that, IE2 > IE1, So the element belong
C are in the order ......... . the first group.
(a) Li > C > B > Be (b) Li > B > C > Be Therefore, this element will be a monovalent and thus
(c) Be > C > B > Li (d) B > C > Be > Li forms a monoacidic base of the type MOH.
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-I MOH + HCl → MCl + H2O
Ans. (b) : The second ionisation energy is the energy 2MOH + H2SO4 → M2SO4 + 2H2O
required to remove an electron from a 1+ cation in the So, from the above equation we can say that 1 mole of
gaseous state. metal hydroxide required 1 mole of HCl and 0.5 mole
of H2SO4.
X + ( g ) → X 2+ ( g ) + e − 293. The first ionisation energy (in kJ/mol) of Na,
Just like the first ionisation energy, the second Mg, Al and Si respectively, are:
ionisation energy is affected by size, effective nuclear (a) 496, 577, 737, 786 (b) 786, 737, 577, 496
charge, and electron configuration. Li has highest IE2 (c) 496, 577, 786, 737 (d) 496, 737, 577, 786
than because the second electron remove from stable (JEE Main 2020, 8 Jan Shift-I)
noble gas configuration and B has higher IE2 than C due Ans. (d) : Ionisaiton energy is directly proportional to
to the extra stability of the 2s2 subshell in the B+ ion. the effective nuclear charge (Zeff). As the size of atom
Therefore, the order is Li > B > C > Be increase Zeff also increase i.e. ionisaiton energy also
Hence, the correct option is (b). increase.
Ionisation energy ∝ Zeff 298. Assertion: Li has high ionisation enthalpy, while
Ionisation energy is the amount of energy required to Li is the strongest reducing agent in aqueous
remove the outer shell electron of an atom. medium.
Thus, the correct order of ionization energy are- Reason : Li has high oxidation potential.
Na = 496, mg = 737, Al = 577, Si = 786 (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
294. The third ionisation enthalpy is minimum for: Reason is the correct explanation of
(a) Mn (b) Ni Assertion.
(c) Co (d) Fe (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
Assertion.
Ans. (d) : The electronic configuration of Fe is (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
6 2
26Fe = [Ar] 3d 4s (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
In Fe three electron are removed the electron will be incorrect.
attain a stable configuration i.e., 26Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5 AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Evening)
So, the ionization energy will be least as compared to
others, so, the third ionization enthalpy is minimum is Fe. Ans. (a): Li has high ionization energy, while Li is the
strongest reducing agent in aqueous medium because of
295. The correct order of the first ionisation large amount of hydration energy is realized and on
enthalpies is account of large amount of hydration energy molecules
(a) Mn < Ti < Zn < Ni (b) Ti < Mn < Zn < Ni it strongest reducing agent and Li has high oxidation
(c) Zn < Ni < Mn < Ti (d) Ti < Mn < Ni < Zn potential.
(JEE Main 2019, 10 April Shift-II)
299. The element having greater difference between
Ans. (d) : When we move from left to right in a period its first and second ionization energies, is:
ionisation enthalpies increases (a) Ca (b) Sc
Species Ti Mn Ni Zn (c) Ba (d) K
Ionisation 656 717 736 906 (JEE Main 2019, 9 April Shift-I)
enthalpy AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Morning)
(kJ/mole) Ans. (d): Alkali metal have high difference in the first
296. In comparison to boron, beryllium has and second ionization energy and they achieve stable
(a) lesser nuclear charge and lesser first noble gas configuration offer first ionization. First
ionisation enthalpy ionization energy is the energy required to remove an
(b) greater nuclear charge and lesser first electron from an atom in the gaseous state.
ionisation enthalpy The second ionization energy is defined as the energy
(c) greater nuclear charge and greater first needed to remove one mole of 1+ ions in the gaseous
ionisation enthalpy state to form one mole of 2+ ions in the gaseous state.
(d) lesser nuclear charge and greater first The value of 2nd I.E. are-
ionisation enthalpy For Ca, I.E2 = 1145.4 kJ/mole
(JEE Main 2019, 12 April Shift-II) Sc, I.E2 = 1235.0 kJ/mole
Ans. (d) : The first ionisation of beryllium is greater K, I.E2 = 3052.0 kJ/mole
than that of boron because beryllium has a stable Ba, I.E2 = 965.2 kJ/mole
complete electronic configuration (1s2 2s2) so it requires Hence, potassium (K) has highest ionization energy.
more energy to remove the first electron from it. 300. The first ionization enthalpy of the following
Thus, the nuclear charge of boron is greater than nuclear elements are in the order:
charge of Beryllium (Be) (a) C < N < Si < P (b) P < Si < N < C
297. Assertion: Ionisation enthalpy of beryllium is (c) P < Si < C < N (d) Si < P < C < N
higher than that of boron. Karnataka-CET-2019
Reason: Across the period, from left to right, Ans. (d) : When moving from left to right in a period
ionisation enthalpy decreases.
ionization energy increase and moving from top to
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and bottom in a group ionization energy decreases.
Therefore nitrogen has higher ionization energy and
Assertion.
silicon has lower ionization energy so, the first
ionization enthalpy order of the element are-
Assertion. Si < P < C < N
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. 301. Which of the following has highest second
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. ionisation energy :
(a) Chromium (b) Calcium
AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Morning) (c) Iron (d) Cobalt
Ans. (c): According to periodic trends, boron should Manipal-2019
have a higher ionization energy but because its valence
shell 2p1 is Shielded by the 2s electron, less energy is Ans. (a) : The electronic configuration of Cr is
2 2 6 2 6 1 5
required to remove the 2p electrons from a boron atom 24Cr = 1s , 2s , 2p , 3s , 3p , 4s , 3d
than is required to remove the 2s electron from a After ionisation of one electron then the electronic
beryllium atom. configuration is-

Cr+ = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s0, 3d5 (a) –217.6 eV (b) 54.4 eV
It has half-filled stable configuration. So, the second (c) 108.8 eV (d) 4 eV
ionisation of Cr will require much greater ionisation J & K CET-(2018)
energy than the expected one. Ans. (a) : According to Bohr's model of energy
302. The second ionisation energy of the following z2
elements follows the order E = –13.6 × 2
(a) Zn > Cd > Hg (b) Zn > Cd > Hg n
Where, E = Energy of electron
(c) Cd > Hg < Zn (d) Zn < Cd < Hg
n = Shell
WB-JEE-2019 Z = Atomic number
Ans. (a) : From moving top to bottom in a group
ionisation energy decrease due to nuclear charge increases, −13.6 × 42
Ionisation energy of 1st orbit of Be =
atomic size increase and the number of shells increases. 12
Thus the electron are loosely held with the nucleus. = –13.6 × 16
The order of ionisation energy is– = –217.6 eV
Zn > Cd > Hg So, Ionisation energy = 217.6 eV
303. The successive ionization energies in kJ/mol of 307. The ionisation energy of nitrogen is larger than
an element P are 740, 1500, 7000, 10500, 13600, that of oxygen because :
18000 and 21700. Which ion is the most likely (a) the size of nitrogen atom is smaller
to be formed when P reacts with chloride? (b) there is greater attraction of electrons towards
(a) p2– (b) p+ the nucleus
2+
(c) p (d) p3+ (c) half-filled p-orbitals of nitrogen have extra
COMEDK 2018 stability
Ans. (c) : After losing two electrons, there is sudden (d) None of the above
huge increase in IE from 1500 to 7000 kJ/mol. It means Manipal-2017
that after losing two electrons, some stable Ans. (c) : The electronic configuration of nitrogen and
configuration is achieved. So, element P forms P2+ ion. oxygen are-
2 2 3
304. Assertion: Second ionization enthalpy will be 7N - 1s , 2s , 2p
2 2 4
higher than the first ionization enthalpy. 8O - 1s , 2s , 2p
Reason: Ionization enthalpy is quantitative Thus, the ionisation energy of nitrogen is larger than
measure of the tendency of an element to lose that of oxygen because of half-filled p-orbitals of
electron. nitrogen have extra stability.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and 308. The first four ionization enthalpy values of an
the Reason is the correct explanation of element are 191 kcal mol−1, 578 kcal mol−1, 872
Assertion. kcal mol−1 and 5962 kcal mol−1 . The number of
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but valence electrons in the element is
Reason is not the correct explanation of (a) 1 (b) 2
Assertion. (c) 3 (d) 4
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. CG PET -2017
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are Ans. (c) : In the given statement, first three I.E. values
incorrect. are low, but 4th I.E. value is quite high and cannot be
AIIMS-27 May, 2018 achieved (i.e.5962 kcal/mol)
Ans. (b): Second ionization enthalpy will be highest ∴ Only three electrons are possible in the valence shell.
than first ionization energy because after removal of So, possible valency is (3).
first electron. The nuclear charge increases and 309. First and second ionisation enthalpies of Mg
electrons are held more tightly by the nucleus. This is are 737.76 and 1450.73 J mol-1 respectively.
makes the removal of second electrons difficult and The energy required to convert all the atoms of
thus, requires more energy. magnesium to magnesium ions present in 24g
305. Amongst the elements with following electronic of magnesium vapours is
configurations, which one of them may have (a) 24 kJ (b) 2.188 kJ
the highest ionization energy? (c) 12 kJ (d) 4.253 kJ
(a) Ne[3s 2 3p 2 ] (b) Ar[3d10 4s 2 4p3 ] CG PET- 2016
(c) Ne[3s 2 3p1 ] (d) Ne[3s 2 3p3 ] Mg(g) + ∆H1 → Mg+(g) + e–;735.76 kJ/mole
BITSAT 2018 Mg+(g) + ∆H2 → Mg+2(g) e–; 1450.73 kJ/mole
Ans. (d) : The smaller the atomic size, larger is the ∴ Total amount of energy needed to convert Mg(g)
value of ionization potential. Further the atoms having atom into Mg+2(g) ions = ∆H1 + ∆H2
half filled or fully filled orbitals are comparatively more = 737.76 + 1450.73
stable, hence more energy is required to remove the = 2188.49 kJ/mole
electron from such atoms. 24 24
306. What will be ionization energy of Be atom? Since, 24g of Mg = kg = mole
Consider the first ionization energy of H atom 1000 24 ×1000
–3
as 13.6 eV. = 10 mole
∴ Amount of energy needed to ionize 10–3 mole of Mg Ans. (b) : The electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p3
vapours = 2188.49 × 10–3 having a half-filled electronic configuration which is
= 2.188 kJ stable. If one electron is removed then the high amount
310. Elements which have relatively high ionisation of energy is required.
energy and occur as sulphides are 316. For one of the element various successive
(a) halogens (b) transition elements ionisation enthalpies (in kJ mol–1) are given
(c) alkali metals (d) metalloids. below.
SRMJEEE-2016 IE 1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th
Ans. (d) : Metalloids have high ionisation energy and 577.5 1810 2750 11,580 14,820
occur as sulphides. The element is
311. The correct decreasing order of first ionisation (a) Si (b) P
enthalpies of five elements of the second period (c) Al (d) Mg
is
Karnataka-CET-2015
(a) Be >B>C>N>F (b) N >F>C>B>Be
(c) F >N>C>Be>B (d) N >F>B>C>Be Ans. (c) : For the given third ionisation energy is 2750
AIIMS-2016 KJ and fourth ionisation energy is 11580 KJ. Therefore,
Ans. (c): The ionization enthalpy of B is lower than that the fourth ionisaiton energy is much higher, it means
of Be. This is because electronic configuration of (1s2, removal of the 4th electron is from the stable
2s2, 2p1) is less stable than that of Be(1s2, 2s2) which configuration, so the element is aluminum.
has completely filled orbitals. The 2p orbital of B is not 317. The correct order of first ionization enthalpies
strongly attracted by the nucleus as the 2s electron of of the following elements is
Be. Thus, the increasing order of first ionization (a) Be > Mg > Ca > Sr > Ra > Ba
enthalpies of element is- (b) Ra > Ba > Sr > Ca > Mg > Be
F > N > C > Be > B (c) Be > Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba > Ra
312. The second ionisation enthalpy of which of the (d) Ra > Sr > Ba > Mg > Ca > Be
following alkaline earth metals is the highest? (e) Be > Mg > Ca > Ra > Ba > Sr
(a) Ba (b) Mg
Kerala-CEE-2015
(c) Ca (d) Sr
(e) Be Ans. (a) : On moving from up to down in a group
Kerala-CEE-2016 ionization energy decrease due to effective nuclear
charge increase. So, the correct order of first ionization
Ans. (e) : Ionization energy increase on decreasing the
size of atom. enthalpies of the element is-
Be > Mg > Ca > Sr > Ra > Ba
1
Ionisation energy ∝ 318. The energy required to excite the electron in
size the atom from n = 1 to n = 2, when the
The second ionisation energy of Be is the enthalpy ionization enthalpy of hydrogen atom is 1.312 ×
change when 1 mole of gaseous ion of an element each 106J/mole will be (in the unit of 105).
with a single positive charge each lose an electron to
form gaseous ion each with a double positive charge ie. (a) 8.53 (b) 7.51
Be+2 due to less size and high ionisation potential. (c) 8.92 (d) 9.86
313. Which of the following atoms has the highest BCECE-2015
first ionisation energy? Ans. (d) : Given that, I.E. = 1.312 × 106
(a) Na (b) K IE = E∞ – E1
(c) Sc (d) Rb 1.312 × 106 = 0 – E1
(JEE Main 2016) E1 = –1.312 × 106 J/mole
Ans. (c) : Order of ionisation energy is Sc > Na > K > 1.312 ×106 × (1) 2 −1.312 ×106
Rb. It is poor shielding effect and removal of one ∴ E2 = =
electron from 4s orbital is difficult as compared to 3s- 22 4
orbital. E2 = –3.28 × 105 J/mole
314. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom in the ∆E = E2 – E1
= –3.28 × 105 – (–1.312 × 106)
ground state is
(a) 13.6 MeV (b) 13.6 eV = 9.86 × 105 J/mole.
(c) 13.6 Joule (d) Zero 319.Atomic numbers of vanadium, chromium, nickel
NDA (II)-2017 and iron are 23, 24, 28 and 26 respectively.
Ans. (b) Ionization energy is the amount of energy Which one of these is expected to have the
required to remove an electron from an isolated atom or highest second ionization enthalpy?
molecule. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom in (a) Cr (b) V
the ground state is 13.6 eV. (c) Fe (d) Ni
315. Highest energy will be absorbed to eject out the COMEDK 2014
electron in the configuration. Ans. (a) : Second ionization enthalpy of Cr is highest
(a) 1s22s22p1 (b) 1s22s22p3 because after the removal of 1st electron, Cr acquires a
2 2 2
(c) 1s 2s 2p (d) 1s22s22p4 stable half-filled d5 configuration thus, removal of 2nd
JIPMER-2016 electron is very difficult.
320. Ionization energy and electron affinity are Ar is higher ionisation energy because it is a noble gas
defined at and Ba has the lowest ionization energy as it in six
(a) enthalpy (b) spontaneity period of element.
(c) equilibrium (d) absolute zero. So, the increasing order of first ionisation energy are-
J & K CET-(2014) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar
Ans. (d) : The electron affinity of an atom or molecule 325. Which of the following elements has highest
is defined as the amount of energy released when an ionisation potential?
electron is attached to a neutral atom or molecule in the (a) B (b) C
gaseous state to form a negative ion. The ionisation (c) N (d) O
enthalpy is defined as the change of electron as negative MPPET - 2012
sign when energy released overall say that electron
affinity and ionisation energy are defined at absolute Ans. (c) : Amount of energy required to remove an e–
zero. from the valence shell called ionisation energy.
Nitrogen has greater ionization energy than oxygen
321. The incorrect statements among the following because nitrogen has half filled stable configuration
is than the other element so removal of electron required
(a) the first ionization potential of Al is less than the more energy hence highest ionisation potential.
the first ionization potential of Mg
(b) the second ionization potential of Mg is lower 326. The atomic number of the element with highest
than the second ionization potential of Na ionization energy among the following is
(c) the first ionization potential of Na is less than (a) Z = 16 (b) Z= 14
the first ionization potential of Mg (c) Z=13 (d) Z= 15
(d) the third ionization potential of Mg is greater COMEDK 2012
than the third ionisation potential of Al Ans. (d) : For element with Z = 15, electronic
UPTU/UPSEE-2014 configuration is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3 p1x 3p1y 3p1z .
Ans. (b) : Ionisation energy is the energy required to
remove one electron from the atom. The second Due to exactly half filled configuration of 3p orbital, the
ionization potential indicates the energy required to element will have the highest ionization energy.
remove another electron after the first ionization. 327. A large increase from the first to the second
Hence, the second ionization potential of Mg is higher ionisation energy of an element 'A' can be seen
than the second ionization potential of Na. if its electronic configuration is
322. The correct order of ionization energies is (a) 1s22s22p63s1 (b) 1s22s22p63s2
2 2 5
(a) Cu > Ag > Au (b) Cu > Au > Ag (c) 1s 2s 2p (d) 1s22s22p63s23p2
(c) Au > Cu > Ag (d) Ag > Au > Cu SRMJEEE – 2012
UPTU/UPSEE-2013 Ans. (a) : Element with electronic configuration 1s2
Ans. (c) : These element belong to the 11 group of 2s2 2p6 3s1 have large increase in first ionization energy
Periodic tables. As we move down the group, ionization to second ionisation due to stable configuration.
energy decreases, but due to f-electrons and its 328. Among the following the elements of highest
ionization energy becomes high so, the order of first ionization enthalpy is
ionization energies is- (a) C (b) F
Au > Cu > Ag (c) Be (d) N
323. When the first ionization energies are plotted (e) Ne
against atomic number, the peaks are occupied Kerala-CEE-2012
by Ans. (e) : Ne has high ionisation enthalpy because
(a) Alkali metals (b) Rare gases
noble gases have completely filled valence shells that
(c) Halogens (d) Transition elements
are highly stable, a high amount of energy would be
BITSAT 2013 required to remove even a single electron from the
Ans. (b) : Rare gases; as the electron is to be removed valence shell of a noble gas. It can difficult to remove
from stable configuration. an electron from any of the noble gases.
324. Which of the following represents the correct 329. If the first ionization energy of H atom is 13.6
order of increasing first ionization enthalpy for eV, then the second ionization energy of He
Ca, Ba, S, Se and Ar ? atom is
(a) Ca < S < Ba < Se < Ar
(a) 27.2 eV (b) 40.8 eV
(b) S < Se < Ca < Ba < Ar
(c) 54.4 eV (d) 108.8 eV
(c) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar
(d) Ca < Ba < S < Se < Ar WB-JEE-2012
(JEE Main 2013) Ans. (c) : We know that,
Ans. (c) : Ionisation energy of element increases across Z2
a period in the periodic table because the electrons are E = –13.6× 2 eV
n
held tightly by the higher effective nuclear charge. For second ionisation energy
The ionisation energy of the elements decreases on
moving down the group because the electrons are held 22
E = –13.6× 2
in lower energy orbitals away from the nucleus. 1
= –13.6 × 4 As a result the 2p electron of B is not strongly attracted
= –54.4 eV by the nucleus of 2s-electron of Be. So, the decreasing
Hence, the second ionization energy of He atom is 54.4 order of first ionisation energy of element are-
eV. F > N > C > Be > B
330. Which one of the following does not correctly 335. Which one of the following is correct order of
represent the correct order of the property second ionisation potential of Na, Ne, Mg and
indicated against it? Al?
(a) Ti < V < Cr < Mn; increasing number of (a) Al < Na < Mg < Ne
oxidation states
(b) Ne < Al < Na < Mg
(b) Ti3+ < V3+ < Cr3+ < Mn3+; magnetic moment
(c) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing 2nd ionization (c) Mg < Al < Ne < Na
(d) Ti < V < Mn < Cr : increasing 2nd ionization (d) Na < Mg < Ne < Al
enthalpy
(NEET-Mains 2012) AP-EAMCET- (Engg.)-2011
Ans. (c) : The increasing order of second ionisation Ans. (c) : Na +2 – 1s 2 2s 2 2p 5
energy is Cr > Mn > V > Ti
Ne+2 – 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p 4
(A) Ti < V < Cr < Mn has increasing oxidation state
(B) Ti3+ < V3+ < Cr3+ < Mn3+ has magnetic moment Mg +2 –1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p 6 , 3s0
increases
(C) Ti < V < Mn < Cr has increasing 2nd ionisation Al+2 – 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p 6 , 3s1
enthalpy Thus, the ionization energy decreases as the size of the
331. Which one of the following electronic atom increases. Since, Mg+2 is stable electronic
configuration corresponds to the highest value configuration. Hence the ionization energy (I.E2) is the
of ionisation potential? highest than other species.
(a) [Xe]6s2 (b) [Ar] 4s2 3d10 IE 2 ⇒ Mg < Al < Ne < Na.
2
(c) ls (d) [Rn]7s26d15f14 336. Assertion: Element has a tendency to lose the
UP CPMT-2012 electron(s) to attain the stable configuration.
Ans. (c) : 1s2 has the highest value of ionisation Reason: Ionization enthalpy is the energy
potential, because the outermost electrons are very close released to remove and electron from an
to nucleus. isolated gaseous atom in its ground state.
332. On adding AlCl3 to water (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(a) the ionisation of water increases the Reason is the correct explanation of
(b) the ionisation of water decreases Assertion.
(c) the ionisation of water remains constant (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
(d) the ionic product of water increases Reason is not the correct explanation of
UP CPMT-2011 Assertion.
Ans. (a) : AlCl3 gives Al3+ ions which combine with (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
OH– ions given by H2O so that dissociation equilibrium (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
of H2O shifts in forward direction i.e. ionisation of AIIMS-2011
water increases.
Ans. (c): The element has tendency to lose the electrons
333. Which one of K, I, Cl and Li will display the to attain the stable configuration. The atom with one
highest first ionisation energy? valence electron will lose one electron to form a stable
(a) K (b) I configuration.
(c) Cl (d) Li Ionization enthalpy is the energy required to remove an
UPTU/UPSEE-2011 electron from an isolated gaseous atom in its ground
Ans. (c) : On moving down a group the valence shell state. Energy is required to overcame the attraction
becomes for away from the nucleus and thus, nuclear between nucleus and valence electron.
attraction towards valence electron decreases which
results in decreases in ionisation energy. Thus, chlorine 337. Which element is expected to have lowest first
has the highest first ionisation energy among all the ionization energy?
given elements. (a) Sr (b) As (c) Xe (d) S
334. The correct decreasing order of first ionisation J & K CET-(2010)
enthalpies of five elements of the second period is Ans. (a) : The electronic configuration of given element
(a) Be > B > C > N > F (b) N > F > C > B > Be are-
2
(c) F > N > C > Be > B (d) N > F > B > C > Be 38Sr = [Kr] 5s
10 2 3
(e) F > C > N > B > Be 33As = [Ar] 3d 4s 4p
10 2 6
Kerala-CEE-2011 54Xe = [Kr] 3d 5s 5p
2 4
Ans. (c) : We move from left to right in a period the 16S = [Ne] 3s 3p
ionisation enthalpy increase with increasing atomic When the distance from outer electron from nucleus
number. increases, it becomes very easy to remove an electron.
In Be and B, Be has full-filled 2s-subshell has extra Therefore, the ionisaiton energy decrease. So, Sr is
ionisation energy than boron. lowest first ionisation energy among the given.
338. Which of the following relation is correct? (a) 5 (b) 2
(a) Ist IE of C > Ist IE of B (c) 3 (d) 4
(b) Ist IE of C < Ist IE of B BCECE-2009
(c) IInd IE of C > IIst IE of B Ans. (c) : Let the element is Z.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
JIPMER-2010
Ans. (a): The electronic configuration of carbon is 1s2 2s2
2p2 and electronic configuration of boron is 1s2 2s2 2p1
If one electron is removed easily due to stable
configurations. Ionisation energy is minimum but in carbon Thus, Z3+ has stable inert gas configuration as there is
one electron is removed due to high ionisation energy. high jump after IE3. So, the valence electrons are 3.
339. The incorrect order of second ionization 343. Which one of the following order is correct for
energies in the following is the first ionisation energies of the elements?
(a) Rb > K (b) Na > Mg (a) B < Be < N < O (b) Be < B < N < O
(c) Cr > Mn (d) S > P (c) B < Be < O <N (d) B < O < Be < N
AP- EAMCET(Medical) -2010 AP EAMCET (Engg.)-2009
Ans. (a): As we know that ionisation energies decreases Ans. (c): Ionisation energy of B than that of Be because
down the group due to increase of size of metal and B(1s2, 2s2, 2p2) electron is to removed from 2p orbitals
increases left to right in periodic table. Rb and K are while Be(1s2, 2s2) electron is to be removed from 2s is
belongs to the 1st group of the periodic table. The difficult due to filled s-orbitals. The ionization energy
correct order of second ionisation energy will be K>Rb. of oxygen is lower than N due to half filled 2p orbitals
The correct order is given as follows – in N(1s2, 2s2, 2p3)
Na > Mg (Third period metal) Therefore, the increasing order are-
Cr > Mn (Fourth period metals) B < Be < O < N
S > P (Third Period metal) 344. The pair of elements having approximately
340. Which of the following statement is correct equal ionization potential is
about ionization potential? (a) Al, Ga (b) Al, Si
(a) It is independent of atomic radii. (c) Al, Mg (d) Al, B
(b) It remains constant with change in atomic UPTU/UPSEE-2009
radii. Ans. (a) : The pair of elements having approximately
(c) It increases with an increase in atomic radii. equal ionisaiton energy is Al and Ga. Ionisation energy
(d) It decreases with an increased in atomic radii. increases with a decreases in atomic size and due to the
AIIMS-2010 increase in the shielding effect of inner electrons.
Ans. (d): The ionization energy is the energy to remove 345. The ionisation energy of nitrogen is larger than
an electron from the neutral atom. On moving across a that of oxygen because of
row with decrease in atomic radii. (a) greater attraction of electons by the nucleus
The ionization potential decreases with increase in (b) the size of the nitrogen atom being smaller
atomic radii. (c) the half-filled p-orbitals possess extra stability
341. Assertion (A) K, Rb and Cs form superoxide’s. (d) greater penetration effect.
Reason (R) the stability of the superoxide’s SRMJEEE – 2008
increases from ‘K’ to ‘Cs’ due to decrease in Ans. (c) : The ionisation energy of nitrogen is larger
lattice energy. than of oxygen because of nitrogen has half-filled p-
The correct answer is orbital is more stable thus, it is difficult to remove an
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the electron from it. Hence nitrogen has larger ionisation
correct explanation of (A) energy than oxygen.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the 346. The first ionization potential of Al, as
correct explanation of (A) compared to that of Mg is :
(c) (A) is true but (R) is not true (a) Greater (b) Lower
(d) (A) is not true but (R) is not true (c) The same (d) Twice as much
AP EAMCET (Engg.)-2009 BITSAT 2008
+ + +
Ans. (c): R , Rb and Cs are large cations and Ans. (b) : The first ionization potential of Al is lower
superoxide ion is bigger than oxide and peroxide ions than that 2of Mg because valence 2 1
shell configuration of
because of the higher lattice energies, a large cation Mg is 3s and of Al is 3s , 3p . As s-orbital –
is close to
Stabilizes a large anion, hence these metals form super nucleus than p-orbital. So removal of 1st e from Mg is
oxides. difficult and require more energy as compare to Al.
As, we move down the group, the size of an atom from 347. The first ionization energy of oxygen is less
K to Cs increases so, lattice energy decreases, therefore than that of nitrogen. Which of the following is
the stability of superoxide also decreases. the correct reason for this observation?
342. The successive ionisation energies of an element (a) Lesser effective nuclear charge of oxygen
are 800, 2,000, 3,600, 25,000 and 32,000 kJ/mol. then nitrogen
The number of valence electrons are (b) Lesser atomic size of oxygen than nitrogen
(c) Greater interelectron repulsion between two Ans. (b) : Ionisation energy is defined as the energy
electrons in the same p-orbital counter required to remove an electron from the outermost orbit
balances the increase in effective nuclear of an isolated gaseous atom in its ground state.
charge on moving from nitrogen to oxygen A → A + + e− [first IE]
(d) Greater effective nuclear charge of oxygen Ionisation energy decrease in a group as the atomic
than nitrogen number increases. It is based on the fact that we move
(c) Higher electronegativity of oxygen than down a group, the size of atom increases, and the outer
Nitrogen electrons became further away from the nucleus thus
Kerala-CEE-2008 reducing the force of attraction and hence ionization
Ans. (c): The first ionization energy of oxygen is less energy decreases with increase in the atomic size.
than that of nitrogen because we move from left to right
in a period atomic size decrease and ionization energy 352. Which of the following has lowest ionization energy?
will be increased due to greater effective nuclear charge (a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen
of oxygen than nitrogen. (c) Fluorine (d) Sulphur
UP CPMT-2007
348. The correct order of decreasing second
ionization enthalpy of Ti (22), V(23), Cr (24) Ans. (d) : Ionisation energy is defined as the energy
and Mn (25) is required to remove an electron from the outermost orbit
(a) Mn > Cr > Ti > V (b) Ti > V > Cr > Mn of an isolated gaseous atom in its ground state.
(c) Cr > Mn > V > Ti (d) V > Mn > Cr > Ti As down the group, the number of inner shells increase.
(NEET-2008) Therefore, ionization energy decrease due to screening
effect.
Ans. (c) : The electronic configuration are follow as-
Among oxygen, nitrogen, fluorine and sulphur, the
Cr - 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1, 3d5 lowest ionization energy is of sulphur. As their first
Mn - 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2, 3d5 ionization values indicated below.
V - 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2, 3d3 N= 1402. 1kJ/mil, O= 1313.7 kJ/mol
Ti - 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2, 3d2 F= 1680.8kJ/mol, S= 999.4 kJ/mol
The value of the second ionisation energy of Cr is more
353. The successive ionization energy values for an
due to Cr+ has 3d5 configuration which is extra energy
element 'X' are given below :
is required than the Mn.
(i) 1st ionisation energy = 410 kJ mol–1
So, the order of 2nd ionisation energy is-
Cr > Mn > V > Ti (ii) 2nd ionisation energy = 820 kJ mol–1
(iii) 3rd ionisation energy = 1100 kJ mol–1
349. The comparatively high b.pt. of HF is due to (iv) 4th ionisation energy = 1500 kJ mol–1
(a) high reactivity of fluorine (v) 5th ionisation energy = 3200 kJ mol–1
(b) small size of hydrogen atom Find out the number of valence electron for the
(c) formation of hydrogen bonds and consequent atom 'X'.
association (a) 4 (b) 3
(d) high IE of fluorine (c) 5 (d) 2
MHT CET-2007 (e) 1
Ans. (c) : Intermolecular hydrogen bonding is found in Kerala-CEE-2006
(HF)n due to higher electronegativity of fluorine atoms Ans. (a) : According to the given species there is a large
jump from first to second ionization energy. The second
ionisation energy is more indicate that its than the first
Hydrogen bonding is associated of HF molecule. So, the ionisation energy. It stable electronic configuration after
high boiling point of HF is due to formation of the removal of one electron. Hence, the number of
hydrogen bonds and consequent association. valence electron is 1. This indicates that element 'x'
350. Highest ionizing power is exhibited by belong to alkali matal group, so, the valence electron of
(a) α-rays (b) β-rays the x is 4.
(c) γ-rays (d) X-rays 354. First inonisation potential is highest for
UP CPMT-2007 (a) Na (b) Mg
Ans. (a) : Highest ionizing power is exhibited by α- (c) Al (d) None of these
rays. This is 100 times greater than β-rays and 10,000 CG PET -2006
times greater than γ-rays. This is due to high kinetic Ans. (b) : The electronic configuration of Mg is 1s2,
energy of α–particle. 2s2, 2p6, 3s2
351. Ionisation energy decreases down the group Mg has stable electronic configuration due to full filled
of 3s orbital. Hence, the amount of energy require to
due to
remove the electron is high.
(a) increase in charge
(b) increase in atomic size 355. Element having maximum ionization energy
(c) decrease in atomic size (a) Na (b) Li
(d) decrease in shilding effect (c) K (d) Rb
UP CPMT-2007 UP CPMT-2005

Ans. (b) : The ionisation enertgy is amount of energy Ans. (b) : The first ionisation potentials generally
required to take out most loosely bonded electron from increases when we move from left to right in a period.
an isolated gaseous atom. The ionisation energy But elements with stable configurations have higher
decreases down the group. ionization potentials than expected.
Q the choices given are all members of group (Na, Li, IInd period Be B C N O
K, Rb) Valence shell 2s2 2s2,2p1 2s2,2p2, 2s2,2p3 2s2,2p4
∴ the first member (Li) will have maximum ionization configuration.
energy. All the given options are of second period. Among them
356. Assertion: First ionization energy for nitrogen oxygen is expected to have highest ionization potential,
is lower than oxygen. but nitrogen (2s2,2p3) has higher ionisation potential due
Reason: Across a period effective nuclear to its more stable configuration as compared to oxygen
charge decreases. (2s2,2p4).
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and 360. Ionisation depends upon
the Reason is a correct explanation of the (a) Pressure (b) Volume
Assertion. (c) Dilution (d) None of these
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but UP CPMT-2004
Reason is not a correct explanation of the Ans. (c) : Ionisation of strong electrolyte increases with
Assertion. dilution.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is Ionisation of electrolytes also depend on concentration
incorrect. temperature, nature of solute and nature of solvent.
incorrect. 361. The energy of last element of Li will be:
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is (a) –30.6 eV (b) –13.6 eV
correct. (c) –24.6 eV (d) –28.6 eV
AIIMS-2005 JCECE - 2004
Ans. (e): When on moving from left to right in a period Ans. (a) : We know that,
atomic number and nuclear charge increase and size Z2
decrease, as a result ionization energy increase, But the E = –13.6 2 eV
n
element of IIA and VA group on the account of their For Li, Z = 3, n = 2
half-filled and completely filled orbitals respectively Hence, the energy of last element of Li will be
have stable configuration.
357. The order of first ionization energies of the −13.6 × 32 −13.6 × 9
E= = = –30.6 eV
elements Li, Be, B, Na is: 22 4
(a) Li > Be > B > Na (b) Be > B > Li > Na 362. Which of the following has maximum
(c) Na > Li > B > Be (d) Be > Li > B > Na ionization energy?
(e) B > Be > Li > Na (a) Cesium (b) Fluorine
Kerala-CEE-2005 (c) Xenon (d) Nitrogen
Ans. (b) : The electronic configuration of the given JCECE - 2004
species are- Ans. (b) : Ionisation energy is the amount of energy
Be = 1s2 2s2 required to take out most lossely bonded electron from
B = 1s2 2s2 2p1 isolated gaseous atom on moving left to right in a period
Li = 1s2 2s1 ionisation energy increase and on a group decreases.
Na = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 Therefore, fluorine has maximum ionisation energy.
In Be has stable electronic configuration with fully 363. Which of the following is a favourable factor
filled 2s-subshell has extra ionisation energy in for cation formation?
compared to other element. Thus, the correct order of (a) High electronegativity
ionisation energy is- (b) High electron affinity
Be > B > Li > Na (c) Low ionization potential
358. Which among the following elements have (d) Smaller atomic size
lowest value of IE1? A.P.EAMCET 2004
(a) Pb (b) Sn Ans. (c) : The low ionization potential energy mean that
(c) Si (d) C electron can be easily lost and cation formation is easier
UP CPMT-2004 or elements with a low ionization potential tend to be
Ans. (b) : Ionisation energy decreases down the group reducing agents and form cations.
due to increase in size but ionization energy of Sn is 364. The first ionisation potentials of four
less than that of Pb due to the effective shielding of the consecutive elements, present in the second
valence electrons by the intervening d and f- electrons. period of the periodic table, are 8.3, 11.3, 14.5
Element C Si Ge Sn Pb and 13.6 eV respectively. Which one of the
IE (kJ/mol) 1086 786 761 708 715 following is the first ionisation potential (in eV)
359. The first ionisation potential is maximum for of nitrogen?
(a) B (b) N (a) 13.6 (b) 11.2
(c) O (d) Be (c) 8.3 (d) 14.5
UP CPMT-2004 AP-EAMCET (Engg.)-2004

Ans. (d) : The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. The 1
Ans. (a) : Ionisation potential ∝
electronic configuration of 7 N is 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p3 Atomicsize
It is clear that N has half filled configuration which is The atomic size increases down the group but decreases
stable. The removal of electron from outer shell of in a period.
nitrogen is very tedious and consuming high amount of ∴ The correct order of decreasing first ionization
energy. Hence, the first ionisation potential energy of potential is Ca > K > Rb > Cs.
nitrogen has more in values i.e. 14.5 eV.
370. Sodium forms Na+ ion but it does not form Na2+
365. The highest first ionisation potential is of : because of
(a) carbon (b) boron (a) very low value of Ist and IInd I.E
(c) oxygen (d) nitrogen (b) very high value of Ist and IInd I.E
BCECE-2004 (c) high value of Ist I.E. and low value of IInd I.E.
Ans. (d) : First ionization energy is the amount of (d) low value of Ist. I.E. and high value of IInd I.E.
energy required to remove one mole of electron from a AIIMS-2001
gaseous atom under standard condition.
It is easy to remove one of the electron than the Ans. (d): Sodium has one valence electron sodium from
unpaired electron in nitrogen. Hence, nitrogen has a Na+ ion by losing its valence electron and attains the
highest first ionization potential. stable electronic configuration of Ne with a completed
octet. This energy requires less energy. The removal of
366. The atomic numbers of vanadium (V), second electron will break this stable electronic
chromium (Cr), manganese (Mn) and iron (Fe) configuration and requires high energy. Sodium forms
are, respectively 23, 24, 25 and 26. Which one
of these may be expected to have the highest Na+ ions but does not form Na+2 because of the low
second ionisation enthalpy? value of (I.E)1 and high value of (I.E)2.
(a) V (b) Cr 371. Ionic radius (in Å) of As 3+ , Sb 3+ and Bi 3+
(c) Mn (d) Fe follow the order
(AIEEE 2003)
(a) As3+ > Sb3+ > Bi3+ (b) Sb3+ > Bi3+ > As3+
Ans. (b) : The electronic configuration are-
2 2 6
23V = 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d
2 6 2 3 (c) Bi3+ > As3+ > Sb3+ (d) Bi3+ > Sb3+ > As3+
2 2 6 2 6 1 5
24Cr = 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d A.P.EAMCET 2001
2 2 6 2 6 2 5
25 Mn = 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d Ans. (d) : Ionic radii increases in a group from top to
2 2 6 2 6 2 6
26Fe = 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d bottom due to increase in atomic number .
The chromium it loses one electron to form [Ar] 3d5 4s0 Bi3+ > Sb3+ > As3+
in which 3d subshell is half-filled and stable when
another electron is removed, it is removed from half- 372. The electronic configuration of elements A, B,
filled 3d subshell is lost. This requires more energy. and C are [He] 2s1, [Ne] 3s1 and [Ar] 4s1
367. Which one of the following is correct about respectively, which one of the following order is
stability of the given ions? correct for the first ionization potentials
(a) Pb2+ > Pb4+ (b) Pb4+ > Pb2+ (in kJ mol–1) of A, B and C?
2+
(c) Si > Si 4+
(d) Sn4+ > Sn2+ (a) A > B > C (b) C > B > A
AP EAMCET- 2003 (c) B > C > A (d) C > A > B
Ans. (a) : On going from top to bottom in a group, the A.P.EAMCET 2001
stability of lower oxidation state increases due to inertAns. (a) : Given that
pair effect. So, the correct order is Pb2+ > Pb4+. Electronic configuration of element
368. Which of the following has maximum energy? A = [He] 2s1 = Li
B = [Ne] 3s1 = Na
C = [Ar] 4s1 = K
Element A to C has increasing atomic size but
ionization potential decreases in the same order.
A>B>C
373. The electronic configuration of elements A, B
and C are [He]2s1, [Ne]3s1 and [Ar]4s1
respectively, which one of the following
protentials is correct for the first ionization
AIIMS-2002 potentials (in KJ mol-1 ) of A, B and C?
Ans. (c): The energy of orbital in increasing order are- (a) A > B > C (b) C > B > A
s <p < d < f (c) B > C > A (d) C > A > B
The energy is excited state is more than ground state. AP EAMCET (Engg.) 2001
Hence, the option (c) is correct. Ans. (a) : Given that
369. The correct order of decreasing first ionization
potential is A = [ He ]1s1 = Li
(a) Ca > K > Rb > Cs (b) Cs > Rb > K > Ca B = [ Ne]1s1 = Na I.P. decreases
(c) Ca > Cs > Rb > K (d) K > Rb > Cs > Ca C = [ Ar ]1s1 = K
UP CPMT-2001 ↓
1 Ans. (d): The first ionization energy will be maximum
Size ∝ for hydrogen since it has small size hydrogen has only
Ionisation potential one electron and after losing that electron it will be a
Order of ionization potential- nucleus with positive charge which is unstable.
K < Na < Li 378. Which one of the following configurations
C<B<A represents atom of the element having the
374. Which of the following has the highest first IP? highest second ionization energy?
(a) Al (b) Si (a) ls2 2s2 2p4 (b) ls2 2s2 2p6
2 2 6 l
(c) K (d) P (c) ls 2s 2p 3s (d) ls2 2s2 2p6 3s2
J & K CET-(1998)
A.P.EAMCET 2000
Ans. (c) : The element with the electronic configuration
Ans. (d) : The amount of energy required to remove 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 will have the highest second ionization
electron from an isolated atom or molecule. Phosphorus enthalpy because the 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 loses one electron
has highest first ionisation potential due to half filled to form 1s2 2s2 2p6. It is a stable electronic configuration
orbitals. It has stable configuration than other. of noble gas. The removal of second electron will
Electronic configuration of phosphorus. required to high amount of energy.
P = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3 379. Identify the correct statement in respect of an
375. Which of the following species has the highest element in a particular group of the periodic
ionization potential? table?
(a) Li+ (b) Mg+ (a) A decrease is nuclear charge causes an
(c) Al +
(d) Ne increase in ionization energy.
A.P.EAMCET 1998 (b) An increase in nuclear charge causes an
increase in ionization energy.
Ans. (a) : Li+ = 1s 2 (c) A decrease in atomic size decreases the
Mg+ = 1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s1 ionization energy.
(d) An increase in the number of valence
Al+ = 1s 2 2p 2 2p6 3s 2 electrons decreases the ionization energy.
J & K CET-(1997)
Ne = 1s 2 2s 2 2p6
Ans. (b) : On moving left to right in a period ionisation
Li+ = 1s2 energy increase due to nuclear charge increase.
Both Li+ and Ne have noble gas configuration but due Ionisation energy ∝ Zeff
to small size and higher nuclear charge per electron in 380. Which one of the following elements has the
Li+, it has higher ionisation energy. highest first ionization potential ?
376. Which of the following has the highest first (a) Boron (b) Carbon
ionization potential? (c) Nitrogen (d) Oxygen
(a) Boron (b) Nitrogen A.P.EAMCET 1997
(c) Oxygen (d) Carbon Ans. (c) : Nitrogen element has the highest first
AP EAMCET (Medical) -1998 ionisation potential because of it has half-filled orbital
Ans. (b): The electronic configuration of non-metals and stable configuration so energy has high to remove
are given below– the electron of nitrogen.
381. Assertion: Electrons are ejected from a certain
Boron ( 5 B ) = 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p1 metal when either blue or violet light strikes the
metal surface. However, only violet light causes
↑ electron ejection from a second metal.
Nitrogen ( 7 N ) = 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p3 Reason: The electrons in the first metal require
less energy for ejection.
↑ ↑ ↑ (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Oxygen ( 8 O ) = 1s ,2s ,2p
2 2 4
Assertion
↑↓ ↑ ↑ Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Carbon ( 6 C ) = 1s , 2s , 2p 2
2 2 Assertion
↑ ↑ (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
AIIMS-1996
Nitrogen has half-filled stable configuration due to
which there are more energy required for the removal of Ans. (a): The energy required to remove one electron in
the gaseous state is lesser i.e. ionization energy first
electron so that’s nitrogen has more first ionization than as compared to the second ionization energy.
enthalpy.
382. The order of decreases in atomic radii for Be,
377. The first ionisation potential is maximum for: Na, and Mg is
(a) Lithium (b) Uranium (a) Na > Mg > Be (b) Mg > Na > Be
(c) Iron (d) Hydrogen (c) Be > Na > Mg (d) Be > Mg > Na
AIIMS-1998 A.P.EAMCET 1995
388. First three ionisation energies (in kJ/mol) of
Ans. (a) : 4 Be = 1s 2 2s 2
three representative elements are given below:
11 Na = 1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s1 Element IE1 IE2 I E3
P 495.8 4562 6910
12 Mg = 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 Q 737.7 1451 7733
The size of group IIA is less than group IA due to R 577.5 1817 2745
electron enter in the same shell and attraction towards Then incorrect option is:
the nucleus and electron increases. (a) Q: Alkaline earth metal
Thus, correct order is (b) P: Alkali metals
Na > Mg > Be (c) R: s-block element
(d) They belong to same period
383. The halogen with the highest ionization Ans. (c): The difference between Ionisation energy
potential is second and ionisation energy third is not very high as
(a) F (b) Cl compared to between ionisation energy second hence
(c) Br (d) I stable oxidation state of R will be higher than +2.
A.P.EAMCET 1993 Hence, first three ionization energies of three
Ans. (a) : Ionization potential decrease on moving representative elements are R: s-block element.
down the group hence fluorine has highest ionisation 389. Calculate the energy needed to convert three
potential. moles of sodium atoms in the gaseous state to
sodium ions. The ionization energy of sodium is
384. EN of an atom is given by the average of EA 495 kJ mol–1–
and ….. (a) 1485 kJ (b) 495 kJ
(a) EN (c) 148.5 kJ (d) none
(b) Ionization energy VITEEE-2019
(c) Electron affinity Ans. (a) : Given, the ionization energy of sodium is 495
(d) Electropositive character kJ mol–1
A.P.EAMCET 1992 ∴ Energy needed to convert 3 moles of Na (g) to Na+
Ans. (b) : According to Mulliken, Electronegativity of ions = 495 × 3 = 1485 kJ.
an elements is the average of Ionization Potential and 390. Ionisation energy of He+ is 19.6 × 10–18 J
Electron affinity. atom–1. The energy of the first stationary state
Ionization potential + Electron affinity (n = 1) of Li2+ is
Electronegativity(EN) = (a) 4.41 × 10–16 J atom–1
2
(b) –4.41 × 10–17 J atom–1
385. Ionisation potential of 1s electron is ….. than
that of 2s electron in the same atom. (c) –2.2 × 10–15 J atom–1
(a) Same (b) Lesser (d) 8.82 × 10–17 J atom–1
JEE Main, 2018
(c) Greater (d) None of these
Ans. (b) : Using the following equation-
A.P.EAMCET 1992
 Z2 
Ans. (c) : Ionisation potential of 1s electron is greater E n = −2.18 × 10−18  2  J
than that of 2s electron in the same atom because former n 
is more closer to the nucleus. Where, En = Energy of nth orbit
386. Al3+ ion has a lower ionic radius than Mg2+ ion Z = Atomic number
because n = No. of orbit
(a) Mg atom has less number of neutrons than Al Given– E1 = −19.6 × 10−18 J atom −1 , Z1 = 2, n1 = 1
(b) Al3+ has a higher nuclear charge than Mg2+ And E2 = ?, Z2 = 3, n2 = 1
(c) their electronegativities are different Z2
(d) Al has a lower ionization potential than Mg ∴ E1 = −2.18 ×10−18  12  J .….(i)
 n1 
atom
A.P.EAMCET 1992 Z 2
3+ 2+ E 2 = −2.18 × 10−18  22  J ….(ii)
Ans. (b) : Al ion has a lower ionic radius than Mg  n2 
ion because of Al3+ has a higher nuclear charge than From (i) and (ii) – we get
Mg2+. Nuclear charge increase then ionic radius
E1 Z12 n 2 2
decrease. = ×
E 2 Z2 2 n12
387. Among the alkali metals, the metal with the
highest ionisation potential is E Z 2n 2
Or E 2 = 1 22 21
(a) Na (b) K Z1 n 2
(c) Li (d) Cs
−19.6 × 10−18 ( J atom ) × 9 ×1
A.P.EAMCET 1991 E2 =
Ans. (c) : Ionisation potential is decrease from down the 4 ×1
−17
group hence Li metal has highest ionisation potential. E 2 = −4.41 × 10 J atom −1

391. Consider the following changes CG PET -2009
M(s) → M(g) ….(1) AMU–2003
M(g) → M2+(g) + 2e– ….(2) JCECE – 2003
M(g) → M+(g) + e– ….(3) Ans. (b) : Electron affinity of elements decreases on
M+ (g) → M2+(g) + e– ….(4) going from top to bottom in a group. But, electron
M(g) → M2+(g) + 2e– ….(5) affinity of fluorine is unexpectedly lower than that of
The second ionization energy of M could be chlorine. This can be explained as follows:-
determined from the energy values associated Fluorine atom is small. So, electron charge density of F-
with atom is very high. The added electron will experience
(a) 1 + 2 + 4 (b) 1 + 5 – 3 strong electron-electron repulsion. As a result, when an
(c) 2 + 3 – 4 (d) 5 – 3 electron is added to F atom a certain amount of energy
VITEEE, 2015 is absorbed, and the net energy released during the
formation of anion is lesser. However, if an electron is
Ans. (d) : The second ionization energy is amount of
added to a relatively large p-orbital (3p in the case of
energy required to take out an electron from the
monopositive cation. Cl), electron-electron repulsion is minimised, and
higher electron affinity is observed.
Hence,
M(g) → M2+ + 2e– …..(v) 395. Maximum electron affinity is shown by the
following:
M(g) → M+ + e– …..(iii)
(a) Cl (b) Br
On subtracting equation (iii) from equation (v), we get–
(c) N (d) Na
M+ → M2+ + e–
MHT CET-2017
Hence, the correct is 5-3.
MPPET - 2012, J&K CET-2001
392. The incorrect statement among the following is AIIMS-1998, 1994
(a) the first ionisation potential of Al is less than
Ans. (a) : Electron affinity:- The amount of energy
the first ionisation potential of Mg
liberated when an electron is added to a neutral atom to
(b) the second ionisation potential of Mg is form a negatively charged ion.
greater than the second ionisation potential of
Na Electron affinity : Cl > F > Br > I.
1
(c) The first ionisation potential of Na is less than Electron affinity ∝ .
the first ionisation potential of Mg Atomicsize
(d) the third ionisation potential of Mg is greater 396. Which one of the following arrangements
than the third ionisation potential of Al represent the correct order of electron gain
IIT JEE, 1997 enthalpy (with negative sign) of the given
Ans. (b) : The second ionisation potential of Mg is less atomic species?
than the second ionisation potential of Na. (a) F < Cl < O < S (b) S < O < Cl < F
Na = IE2 = 4560 kJ/mol (c) Cl < F < S < O (d) O < S < F < Cl
Mg = I.E2 = 1450 kJ/mol UPTU/UPSEE-2014, 2007
Hence the option (b) is correct. UP CPMT-2013, BITSAT-2014
Ans. (d) : In general, on moving down in a group, EA
values decreases due to increase in size, because greater
6. Electron Affinity is the size of valence shell, lesser is the attraction and in
turn lesser is the EA.
393. Which halogen has the maximum electron But in period II and III, this order is reversed due to the
affinity? small size of period II elements.
(a) Fluorine (b) Chlorine Thus,
(c) Bromine (d) Iodine O < S and F < Cl
UP CPMT-2010 Because O and F atoms have high electron density
BCECE-2007, UP CPMT-2007  charge 
JIPMER-2006, UPTU/UPSEE-2015, 2006   and so repel the test electrons.
NEET-1999  volume 
Further, EA values increases as moving left to right
Ans. (b): On moving down a group, generally, electron along a period. It is because effective nuclear charge
affinity decreases. But in fluorine, due to its smaller size, increases on moving left to right and more is the
the incoming electron experiences greater force of effective nuclear charge, more is the attraction of
repulsion and hence, its electron affinity is lesser as nucleus towards test electrons and thus more will be
compared to the electron affinity of chlorine. Thus, among electron affinity. Thus, the overall increasing order of
the given, electron affinity is maximum for chlorine. EA would be
394. The correct order of electron affinity of F, Cl, O < S < F < Cl
Br and I is 397. The correct order of electron affinity is
(a) F > Cl > Br > I (b) Cl > F > Br > I (a) B < C < O > N (b) B > C > N > O
(c) I > Br > Cl > F (d) Br > I > Cl > F (c) O > C > B > N (d) O < C < B < N
UPTU/UPSEE-2016 J & K CET-(2005)
J&K CET-2012, 2008 Assam CEE-2014
Ans. (c) : When on going from left to right in the electron to fluorine 2p orbital causes greater repulsion
periodic table, electron affinity increases, because the than adding on electron to chlorine 3p orbital which is
distance between the nucleus and outermost shell larger size. Therefore, the order is-
decreases. So the attraction of the nucleus and electrons O < S < F < Cl
of the outermost shell increases hence the added 402. The correct order of electron gain enthalpy is:
electron get stabilization. Nitrogen has a half-filled (a) O > S > Se > Te (b) Te >Se >S >O
electronic configuration, so, it tendency to accept (c) S >O >Se >Te (d) S >Se >Te >O
electron is very less than carbon and boron. JEE Main 26.02.2021,Shift-II
Hence, the electron affinity order is- CGPET-2019
O>C>B>N Ans. (d) : Electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is very low
398. Born-Haber cycle can be used to estimate due to small size and compact nature of oxygen atom.
(a) electronegativity (b) electron affintiy Sulphur has highest electron gain enthalpy because
(c) ionic radii (d) All of these sulphur has vacant d-orbital. So the order of electron
UPTU/UPSEE-2010, 2008 gain enthalpy is –
Ans. (b) : The Born Haber– Cycle can be used to S > Se > Te > O
estimate the electron gain enthalpy, electron affinity, 403. Electron affinity is positive when
lattice energy of ionic solid, dissociation energy, heat of (a) O− is formed from O
formation etc.
(b) O2−is formed from O−
Born Haber cycle cannot be estimate by the
(c) O+ is formed from O
electronegativity and hydration energy, ionic radii etc.
(d) electron affinity is always a negative value
399. Which one of the following ionic species has the CG PET- 2013
greatest proton affinity to form stable BCECE-2006
compound?
(a) NH–2 (b) F– Ans. (b) : When O2– formed from O–, change is
– endothermic because O– repels the incoming electron
(c) I (d) HS–
due to similar charge. Therefore, it needs energy to
BCECE-2012 accept the electron. The second electron affinity of
NEET-2007 oxygen is particularly high because the electron is being
Ans. (a) : Proton affinity decreases across a period from forced into a small, very dense electron. Hence, the
left to right and down a group from top to bottom. electron affinity is positive.
Hence, the nitrogen family has highest proton followed
by oxygen family, followed by halogen. Also the ionic 404. Which of the following elements has the highest
pieces with greatest proton affinity form the strongest value of electron affinity?
(a) O (b) S
base. Therefore, NH −2 has the greatest proton affinity to
(c) Se (d) Te
form a stable compound. J & K CET-2016, 2012
400. The electron affinity of Be is similar to BCECE-2010
(a) He (b) B Ans. (b) : Oxygen has exceptionally smaller value of
(c) Li (d) Na electron affinity (–141 kJ) due to smaller atomic size
UP CPMT-2002 then sulphur. Hence S is highest value of electron
Manipal-2018 affinity.
Ans. (a) : The electronic configuration of these element 405. What is the value of electron gain enthalpy of
are– Na+ if IE1 of Na = 5.1 eV?
2 2
4Be = 1s , 2s (a) –5.1 eV (b) –10.2 eV
2
2He = 1s (c) +2.55 eV (d) +10.2 eV
2 2 1
5B = 1s , 2s 2p VITEEE- 2012
2 1
3Li = 1s 2s NEET-2011
2 2 6 1
11Na = 1s 2s 2p 3s Ans. (a) : Given that,
Thus, we can say that electron affinity of Be is similar Ionisation enthalpy of Na = 5.1 eV
to He. Thus, the electron gain enthalpy of sodium cation is
401. The correct order of electron affinity of oxygen, equal in magnitude and opposite in sign to the first
sulphur, chlorine, fluorine is ionization energy of sodium atom. It is equal to –5.1
(a) S < O < Cl < F (b) S < O < F < Cl eV.
(c) O < S < F < Cl (d) O < S < Cl < F
406. The correct order of electron gain enthalpy
WB JEE-30.04.2022
with negative sign of F, Cl, Br and I, having
UPTU/UPSEE-2010 atomic number 9, 17, 35 and 53 respectively, is
Ans. (c) : On moving from top to bottom in a group the (a) I > Br > Cl > F (b) F > Cl > Br > I
electron affinity became less negative and on moving
from left to right across a period, the electron affinity (c) Cl > F > Br > I (d) Br > Cl > I > F
became more negative. Chlorine has more negative JEE Main-07.01.2020, Shift-I
electron affinity than fluorine because on adding on (AIEEE 2011)
Ans. (c) : Electron gain enthalpy has maximum in 410. The first electron affinity of C, N and O will be
corresponding period of halogen and it becomes less of the order
negative down the group. However, the negative (a) C < N < O (b) N < C < O
electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less than that of (c) C < O < N (d) O < N < C
chlorine due to the small size of fluorine atom. WB-JEE-2019
Therefore, there are strong inter electronic repulsion in
Ans. (b) : The electron affinity of an atom or molecules
the relatively small 2p-orbital of fluorine thus, The
incoming electron does not experience much attraction. can be defined as the amount of energy released when
The correct order of electron gain enthalpy are- an electron is attached or gained by an electrically
Cl > F > Br > I neutral atom.
407. Among the options, the element with highest Nitrogen has a stable half-filled p-orbital.
electron gain enthalpy is Thus, the correct order of first electron affinity of C, N
(a) He (b) Ne and O will be
(c) Kr (d) Xe N<C<O
TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 07.08.2021 Shift-II 411. Which of the following atoms should have the
Ans. (b) : highest Ist electron affinity?
Noble gas Electron gain enthalpy (a) F (b) O
He – + 48 (c) N (d) C
Ne – + 116 WB-JEE-2017
Ar – + 96 Ans. (a) : Fluorine has highest first electron affinity
Kr – + 96 because on moving left to right in a period the electron
Xe – + 77 affinity increases.
Hence, from the above data, electron gain enthalpy of
412. Why is F2 the strongest oxidizing agent (among
Ne has the highest value of electron gain enthalpy.
halogens) although electron affinity of Cl2 is
408. Which of the given atoms has the greatest higher than F2?
electron affinity?
(a) Low enthalpy of dissociation and high free
(a) F (b) Cl
energy of hydration
(c) P (d) Al
(b) Low enthalpy of dissociation
TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 05.08.2021 Shift-II
(c) High free energy of hydration
Ans. (b) : The electron affinity is a measure of the
attraction between the incoming electron to the nucleus. (d) High electronegativity and low free energy of
Generally electron affinity decreases down a group, but hydration
electron affinity of Cl is greater than electron affinity of J & K CET-(2017)
F due to small size of F atom which can not easily Ans. (a) : F2 is the strongest oxidizing agent among the
accomodate the electron rather than the chlorine. Hence, halogen due to greater heat of hydration of F– than Cl–
Cl has highest electron affinity. which compensates for the lower electron affinity of F
409. Arrange the elements with the following than of Cl. F2 has low enthalpy of dissociation as F–F
electronic configurations in increasing order of bond is weak and high enthalpy of hydration of small
electron affinity F− ion.
(i) 1s2 2s2 2p5 413. Which of the following has the highest electron
(ii) 1s2 2s2 2p4
affinity?
(iii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4
(a) K (b) O–
(iv) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5 –
(a) (ii)<(iii)<(i)<(iv) (b) (iii)<(ii)<(iv)<(i) (c) F (d) O
(c) (iii)<(ii)<(i)<(iv) (d) (ii)<(iii)<(iv)<(i) Manipal-2016
COMEDK 2019 Ans. (d) : Electron affinity is defined as the minimum
Ans. (a) : Electron affinity increases as we move left to energy released electron add to the valence shell of
right in a period and decreases as we move down in a isolated atom.
group. 1
But electron affinity of Cl is greater than F and that of S Electron affinity ∝
size
is greater than O due to very small size of F and O. As a
Therefore, O– has less electron affinity due to complete
result, there is a strong inter-electronic repulsion when
extra electron is added to these atoms. the shell to form stable configuration but in case of
(i) 1s2 2s2 2p5 : F oxygen has high electron affinity.
(ii) 1s2 2s2 2p4 : O 414. Among P, S, Cl, F, the elements with most
(iii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4 : S negative and least negative electron gain
(iv) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5 : Cl enthalpy respectively are
Thus correct order is (a) Cl, S (b) F, S
Cl >F>S>O (c) Cl, P (d) F, P
(iv)>(i)> (iii)>(ii) J & K CET-(2015)
Ans. (c) : On moving from left to right in a period 419. The amount of energy released when 106 atoms
generally electron gain enthalpy increases and decrease of iodine in vapour state are converted to I–
down the group. But the electron affinity of third period ions is 4.9 × 10–13 J. What will be electron
is greater than the electron affinity of second period affinity of iodine in eV per atom?
element due to small atomic size of second period (a) 2.0 (b) 2.5
element. (c) 2.75 (d) 3.06
Hence, the order is P < S < F < Cl MPPET-2013
Therefore, Cl and P has more negative and less negative Ans. (d) :
electron gain enthalpy respectively.
Electron gain enthalpy = energy release when an atom in
415. Electron gain enthalpy with negative sign of gaseous state
fluorine is less than that of chlorine due to
= 4.8× 10–13 J
(a) high ionisation enthalpy of fluorine
(b) smaller size of chlorine atom Atoms of I2 = 106
(c) smaller size of fluorine atom ∴ 4.8 × 10–13 J for 106 atoms.
(d) bigger size of 2p orbital of fluorine 4.8 × 10–13 J
JCECE - 2015 Joule per atom =
106 atom
Ans. (c) : Due to smaller size and high repulsive force Electron affinity = Electron gain enthalpy,
within the outermost orbit of fluorine. Its electron gain
4.8 ×10−13
enthalpy is less negative. E.A = J / atom
416. Copper is extracted from copper pyrites by 106
heating in a Bessemer converter. The method is 1
1J = eV
based on the principle that 1.6021×10−19
(a) copper has more affinity for oxygen than 4.8 × 10−13
sulphur at high temperature EA = eV / atom
(b) iron has less affinity for oxygen than sulphur 1.6021×106 ×10−19
at high temperature = 2.99 eV / atom
(c) copper has less affinity for oxygen than EA ≈ 3.00eV / atom
sulphur at high temperature
(d) sulphur has less affinity for oxygen at high 420. Which one of the following arrangements
temperature represents the correct order of least negative to
Karnataka-CET-2015 most negative electron gain enthalpy for C, Ca,
Ans. (a) : Copper is extracted from the copper pyrites Al, F and O?
by heating in a Bessemer Convertor. The method is (a) Al<Ca<O<C<F (b) Al<O<C<Ca<F
based on the principle of copper has more affinity for (c) C<F<O<Al<Ca (d) Ca<Al<C<O<F
oxygen than sulphur at high temperature. KARNATAKA NEET 2013
417. How does electron affinity change when we Ans. (d) : Electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative
move from left to right in a period in the from top to bottom in a group while is becomes more
periodic table? negative from left to right within a period.
(a) It increases. 421. Assertion: Electron affinity refers to an isolated
(b) It decreases. atom's attraction for an additional electron
(c) It remains unchanged. while electronegativity is the ability of an atom
(d) It first increases and then decreases. of an element to attract electrons towards itself
J & K CET-(2013) in a shared pair of electrons.
Ans. (a) : The electron affinity generally increases in a Reason: Electron affinity is a relative number
period from left to right due to the size of the atom and electronegativity is experimentally
decrease along the period. measurable.
418. Which one of the following arrangement (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
represents the correct order of least negative to the Reason is the correct explanation of
most negative electron gain enthalpy for C, Ca, Assertion.
Al, F and O? (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
(a) Al < Ca < O < C < F Reason is not the correct explanation of
(b) Al < O < C < Ca < F Assertion.
(c) C < F < O < Al < Ca (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) Ca < Al < C < O < F (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
Karnataka NEET-2013 incorrect.
Ans. (d) : The nuclear charge increases, the force of AIIMS-2010
attraction between the nucleus and the incoming Ans. (c): Electron affinity refers to an isolated atom's
electron increase and thus, the electron gain enthalpy attraction for an additional electron while
becomes more negative. electronegativity is the ability of an atom of an element
On moving from left to right in a period, the effective to attract electrons towards itself in a shared pair of
nuclear charge increases. Therefore, the order are– electron due to electron affinity is experimentally
Ca < Al < C < O < F measurable while electronegativity is relative number.
422. The electron affinity values of elements A, B, C (d) The electronegativity of chlorine is more than
and D are respectively –135, –60, –200 and – that of bromine
348 kJ mol-1. The outer electronic MPPET-2008
configuration of element B is Ans. (a) : (i) The electron affinity of chlorine is greater
(a) 3s23p5 (b) 3s23p4 than the fluorine.
2 3
(c) 3s 3p (d) 3s23p2 (ii) The EN of fluorine is greater than chlorine.
AP-EAMCET- (Engg.) - 2010 (iii) The electron affinity of bromine is less than of
Ans. (c) : Given that the electron affinity of elements A chlorine.
= –135 kJ/mole, B= –60 kJ/mole, C = –200 kJ/mole and (iv) The electronegative of Chlorine is more than that of
D = –348 kJ/mole then the element having half-filled or bromine.
completely filled orbitals are stable electronic 426. The electronic configuration of the element
configuration, and have low negative value of electron with maximum electron affinity is
affinity. (a) 1s2, 2s2, 2p3
Since, the electron affinity of B is lowest and electronic (b) 1s2, 2s2, 2p5
configuration is – 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3 (c) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p5
423. Carbon can reduce ferric oxide to iron at a (d) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p3
temperature above 983 K because (e) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1
(a) carbon monoxide formed is Kerala-CEE-2008
thermodynamically less stable than ferric Ans. (c): The electronic configuration of 1s2, 2s2, 2p6,
oxide 3s2, 3p5 is chlorine. The electron affinity is a measure
(b) carbon has a higher affinity towards oxidation the attraction between the incoming electrons to the
than iron nucleus. Electron affinity of Cl is greater than electron
(c) free energy change for the formation of affinity of F due to small size of F atom. Hence,
carbon dioxide is less negative than that for electron affinity is highest for chlorine.
ferric oxide 427. Which of the following is a favourable factor
(d) iron has a higher affinity towards oxygen than for cation formation?
carbon (a) Low ionisation potential
KARNATAKA-CET, 2010 (b) High electron affinity
Ans. (b) : Above 983 K, free energy change for the (c) High electronegativity
formation of CO2 is more negative than that for ferric (d) Small atomic size
oxide. Thus, above this temperature, carbon has a AP-EAMCET (Engg.)-2005
higher affinity towards oxidation than iron. Ans. (a) : As the ionization potential decreases the
424. The atomic numbers of elements A, B, C and D removal of electron get place easily and the cation
are Z–1, Z, Z+1 and Z+2, respectively. If 'B' is formed. Hence, low ionization potential is a favourable
a noble gas, choose the correct answers from factor for cation formation.
the following statements 428. Which of the following has lowest electron
(1) 'A' has higher electron affinity affinity?
(2) 'C' exists in +2 oxidation state (a) Cl (b) I
(3) 'D' is an alkaline earth metal (c) F (d) Br
(a) (1) and (2) (b) (2) and (3) J & K CET-(2005)
(c) (1) and (3) (d) (1), (2) and (3) Ans. (b) : When we moving on a group, electron
A.P.EAMCET 2008 affinity decrease due to the size of atom increase.
Ans. (c) : Given that, Halogen F Cl Br I
Atomic no. of element A = Z – 1, i.e, halogen
EA(eV) –3.6 –3.8 –3.5 –3
Atomic no. of element B = Z, i.e, noble gas
Atomic no. of element C = Z + 1, i.e, group IA Hence, the electron affinity is highest in Cl and
lowest in Iodine(I).
Atomic no. of element D = Z + 2, i.e, group IIA
429. The electron affinity values (in kJ mol–1) of
∴ • Element A must be halogen i.e, have the highest
three halogens X, Y and Z are respectively –
electron affinity.
349, –333 and –325. Then X, Y and Z
• Element B is Noble gas. respectively are:
• Element C must be an alkali metal exist as +1 (a) F2, Cl2 and Br2 (b) Cl2, F2 and Br2
oxidation state. (c) Cl2, Br2 and F2 (d) Br2, Cl2 and F2
• Element D must be alkaline earth metal. AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2003
425. Which one of the following statements is false Ans. (b) : As we know, group 17 elements shows the
(a) The electron affinity of chlorine is less than highest negative value of electron affinity.
that of fluorine Chlorine has highest value of electron affinity than fluorine
(b) The electronegativity of fluorine is more than due to small size of fluorine and more electrostatic
that of chlorine repulsion occur between nucleus and F outer shell. Thus,
(c) The electron affinity of bromine is less than the electron affinity values (in kJmol–1) of three halogens
that of chlorine Cl2, F2 and Br2 are respectively –349, –333 and –325.
430. Which one of the following reagents is used for 434. Identify the incorrect match
detection of unsaturation in alkenes? Number IUPAC official name
(a) NaOH + CaO (a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
(b) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO4 (b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
(c) Cl2/hv (c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium
(d) KOH / C2H5OH (d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium
(a) (A), (i) (b) (B), (ii)
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2003 (c) (C), (iii) (d) (D), (iv)
Ans. (b) : Both bromine water or alkaline KMnO4 NEET-2020
(Baeyer’s reagent) are decolourised after the reaction Ans. (d) :
with unsaturated compound. Unsaturation in alkyne or Number Atomic IUPAC Name
alkene in any organic compound is defected by reagents Number
the organic compound with alkaline KMnO4 or bromine Unnilunium 101 Mendelevium
water. Unniltrium 103 Lawrencium
431. Which of the following is as per the definition Unnilhexium 106 Seaborgium
of electron-affinity? Unununnium 111 Roentgenium
+2e
(a) X 2 (g)  → 2X – (g) 435. The atomic number of the element
unnilennium is
+e
(b) X (g) → X – (g) (a) 109 (b) 102
+e
(c) 108 (d) 119
(c) X + (g) → X (g) (JEE Main 2020, 3 Sep Shift-I)
+e Ans. (a) : The atomic number of the element
(d) X – (g) → X 2– (g) unnilennium is 109.
J & K CET-(2001) The name is derived directly from the atomic number of
Ans. (b) : The electron affinity is the potential energy the element using the latin numerical roots are
change of the atom when an electron is added to a Number 0 1 2 3 4
neutral gaseous atom to form a negative ion. Root nil un bi tri quad
So, X(g)  +e
→ X − (g) is more favorable. Number 5 6 7 8 9
Root pent hex sept oct enn
432. The electron affinities of halogens follow the The atomic no. of element 109 is meitnerium (mt).
order 436. The IUPAC name of an element is Unbinilium.
(a) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (b) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2 Its atomic number is
(c) Br2 > Cl2 > F2 > I2 (d) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 (a) 102 (b) 110
Ans. (b) : Generally the electron affinity decrease down (c) 120 (d) 106
the group as the atomic size increases but F2 has lower (e) 100
electron affinity compared to Cl2 because the size of F2 Kerala-CEE-2020
is very small and thus interelectronic repulsion is high. Ans. (c) : The IUPAC name for 120 is unbinilium and
symbol is Ubn. According to IUPAC systematic
nomenclature, the numeral roots for 1, 2, 0 are un, bi
7. Nomenclature of Elements and nil respectively and then add suffix ium.
with Atomic Number > 100 437. What is the name of the element with atomic
number 105?
433. The IUPAC name of an element with atomic (a) Dubnium (b) Holmium
number 119 is (c) Kurchatovium (d) Nobelium
UPTU/UPSEE-2012
(a) ununoctium (b) ununennium
Ans. (a) : The name of the element with atomic number
(c) unnilennium (d) unununnium 105 is Dubnium. Which means that there are 105
NEET-17.07.2022 protons and 105 electrons in the atomic structure. The
Ans. (b) : Given, atomic No (Z) = 119 chemical symbol for dubnium is Db.
Nomenclature of elements with atomic number (Z) 438. The name of the element with atomic number
greater than 100 : 100 was adopted in honour of
0 = nil, 1 = un, 2 = bi, 3 = tri, 4 = quad, 5 = pent, 6 = (a) Alfred Nobel (b) Enrico Fermi
hex, 7 = sept, 8 = oct, 9 = enn. (c) Dimitri Mendeleef (d) Albert Einstein
A.P.EAMCET 1995
Hence, the IUPAC name of element with
Ans. (b) : The atomic number 100 element in the
Z = 119 is ununennium
periodic table is Fermium is named in the honour of
Z = 111 is unununnium Enrico Fermi, a nuclear physicist. The symbol of Fermi
Z = 118 is ununoctium is Fm. It is an actinide located in group 3 elements of
Z = 109 is unnilennium the periodic table and in the 6 and 7 period.
04.
Chemical Bonding and
Molecular Structure
Ans. (b) List-I List-II
1. Hybridization [PtCl4]2– dsp2
BrF5 sp3d2
1. Among the following which are mismatched; PCl5 sp3d
3+
Molecule hybridization [Co(NH3)6] d2sp3
(A) ClO 2– sp3 3. Which one of the following reactions involves
change from sp2 to sp3 hybridisation of the
(B) NH3 sp2 central atom?
(C) SF6 sp3d2 (a) CH4 + 2Cl2 → CH2Cl2 + 2HCl
(D) SF4 sp3d
(b) NH3 + H+ → NH +4
(E) XeF4 sp
(a) (A) and (C) (b) (B) and (E) (c) AlCl3 + Cl– → AlCl −4
(c) (C) and (E) (d) (A) and (D) (d) H2O + H+ → H3O+
CG PET-22.05.2022 (e) PCl3 + Cl2 → PCl5
Ans. (b) : The structure of given molecule are- Kerala CEE -03.07.2022
Ans. (c) :
(i) CH4 +2Cl2 → CH2Cl2 + 2HCl
sp3 sp3
+
(ii) NH3 + H → NH 4
+
sp3 sp3
(iii) AlCl3 + Cl → AlCl4–
–
sp2 sp3
(iv) H 2O + H → H 3O +
+
sp3 sp3
(v) PCl3 + Cl2 → PCl5
sp3 sp3d
4. Given below are two statements:
2−
Statement I :  Ni (CN )4  is square planar and
diamagnetic complex, with dsp2 hybridization for
Ni but  Ni (CO)4  is tetrahedral, paramagnetic and
with sp3-hybridization for Ni.
2−
Statement II : [ NiCl4 ] and  Ni (CO)4  both
have same d-electron configuration, have same
geometry and are paramagnetic.
2. Match List-I with List-II
In light of the above statements, chose the correct
List-I List-II answer from the options given below:
(A) [PtCl 4 ]2– (i) sp3d (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) BrF5 (ii) d2sp3 (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) PCl5 (iii) dsp2 (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
3+ 3 2 (d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is true
(D) [Co(NH3)6] (iv) sp d
Ans. (b) : In [Ni(CN)4]2–
options given below: Ni+2 = [Ar] 3d8 4s0 = dsp2 (Square planar) and
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) diamagnetic
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) For [Ni(CO)4)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) Ni = [Ar] 3d8 4s2 ⇒ sp3 (Tetrahedral) and diamagnetic.
(d) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) For [NiCl4]2–
JEE Main-24.06.2022, Shift-I Ni+2=[Ar] 3d8 4s0 ⇒sp3 (Tetrahedral) and paramagnetic
5. The types of hybrid orbitals of nitrogen 8. Which one of the following pairs is
in NO +2 , NO3− and NH +4 respectively are isostructural (i.e., having the same shape and
3
(a) sp, sp , sp 2 2
(b) sp, sp , sp 3 hybridization)?
2 3 2 3 (a) [BCl3 and BrCl3] (b) [NH3 and NO3–]
(c) sp , sp, sp (d) sp , sp , sp
(c) [NF3 and BF3] (d) [BF–4 and NH+4]
(JEE Main 2021, 20 July Shift-II)
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 17.09.2020, Shift-II BITSAT-2014, NEET-2012
− +
NEET-II 2016, Assam CEE-2014 Ans. (d) : The structure of BF4 and NH 4 is-
AMU-2015, 2008
⊕
Ans. (b) : NO 2+ ⇒ O = N → O
sp
1
H= (V + M − C + A)
2
1
H = ( 5 + 0 + 1 + 0 ) = 2 ( sp ) The species BF4− and NH +4 have same-same i.e
2
Where, H = number of hybrid orbitals tetrahedral and hybridization is Sp3
V = number of valence electrons 9. Which of the following has sp2-hybridisation?
M = number of monovalent atoms/groups (a) C2H6 (b) C2H4
C = number of cationic or positive charge (c) BeCl2 (d) C2H2
A = number of anionic or negative charge JIPMER-2012
NEET-1996
Ans. (b) : in C2H6 both carbon has sp3 hybridisation. In
C2H4 both carbon has sp2 hybridisation
1
H = (5 + 0 − 0 + 1) = 3(sp 2 )
2
In BeCl2, beryllium has sp hybridisation.
Cl − Be − Cl
sp
In C2H2 each carbon has sp hybridisation.
H−C ≡ C−H
1 sp sp
H = (5 + 4 − 1 + 0) = 4(sp3 )
2 10. The ‘d’ orbital involved in the hybridisation in
6. The hybridization involved in PCl5 is the PCl5 molecule is
(a) sp3d (b) sp3d2 (a) 3d x 2 − y2 (b) 3d z 2
2 2
(c) d sp (d) sp3
J & K CET-(2011) (c) 3dxy (d) 4d x 2 − y2
UPTU/UPSEE-2011 J & K CET-(2009, 2005)
WB-JEE-2010 Ans. (b) : The hybridisation of PCl5 molecule is sp3d
Ans. (a) : The structure of PCl5 is the hybridisation number should be 5. These five
orbitals are degenerate, that is their energies are the
sume but configuration are different.
In sp3d hybridisation there are a total of s orbitals which
are s, px , py , pz. In case of d- subshell, the d z 2 orbital
In PCl5 molecule has phosphorous bonded with 5 take part in hybridisation. 3
chlorine in trigonal bipyramidal geometry. The 11. The geometrical shape of sp d hybridization is
3
hybridisation of PCl5 is sp d. (a) linear (b) trigonal bipyramid
7. Hybridisation in XeF2 and XeF4 are (c) square planar (d) tetrahedral
respectively _____. J & K CET-(2007, 2002)
(a) sp2 and sp3d2 (b) sp3d and sp3d2 Ans. (b) : The geometrical shape of sp3d hybridisation
(c) sp and sp3 (d) sp3d and sp3 is trigonal bipyramid.
GUJCET-2022, AMU-2005
Ans. (b): The structure of XeF2 and XeF4 are-

12. An sp3-hybrid orbital contains SCl 4 + 4H 2 O → S(OH)4 + 4HCl
1 1 unstable
(a) s-character (b) s-character →
4 2 S(OH) 4 H 2SO 3 + H 2O
sulfurous acid
2 3
(c) s-character (d) s-character Hybridization of S in SO32 − is sp3 .
3 4
JIPMER-2011 16. Which of the following is an octahedral
NEET-1991 molecule?
Ans. (a) : In sp3 hybrid orbital, is formed by mixing of (a) SF6 (b) BF4-
3
1s and 3p-orbitals to form a equivalent sp orbital’s. (c) PCl5 (d) IF7
Therefore sp3 hybrid orbital has 25% s-character and
J & K CET-(2017, 1998)
1
75% p-character. So, sp3-hybrid orbital contains s- Ans. (a) : From the following molecule are –
4
character.
Hybrid atomic orbital’s do not exist and do not
appropriately describe molecular bonding.
13. The type of hybridisation and number of lone
pair(s) of electrons of Xe in XeOF4,
respectively, are
(a) sp3d2 and 1 (b) sp3d and 2
3
(c) sp and 1 (d) sp3d2 and 2
UPTU/UPSEE-2015
Ans. (a) : The structure of XeOF4 are –
The hybridisation is sp3d2. SF6 molecule has octahedral geometry.

Hybridisation = Bond pair + lone pair
= (4 + 1) +1 17. The state of hybridization of ‘B’ in BCl3 is:
= 6 (sp3d2) (a) sp 3 (b) sp 2
So, the hybridization of XeOF4 is sp3d2 and lone pair is (c) sp (d) sp 3d 2
1.
14. The planar structure of BF3 can be explained AP EAMCET (Medical) -1998
by the fact that BF3 is AP-EAMCET-1996
(a) sp-hybridised (b) sp2-hybridised Ans. (b): The type of hybridization that occurs is BCl3
3
(c) sp -hybridised (d) sp3d hybridised is sp2 hybridization. In BCl3 molecule, boron will be the
J & K CET-(2017) central atom which contains three bonded atom but no
BCECE-2007 lone pair of electron.
Ans. (b) : The structure of BF3 is The structure of BCl3 is given below–
sp2 (triangular planar.)

2
In BF3 has sp hybridization due to three fluorine atom
are arranged in a trigonal geometry. Hybridization = No. of bond pair + No. of lone pair
15. Sulphur reacts with chlorine in 1 : 2 ratio and Hybridization = 3 + 0 = 3 (sp2)
form X. Hydrolysis of X gives a sulphur 18. sp3d hybridisation results in:
compound Y. What is the hybridisation state of (a) A square planar molecule
central atom in the anion of Y ? (b) An octahedron molecule
(a) sp3 (b) sp (c) A trigonal bipyramidal molecule
(c) sp2 (d) sp3d (d) A tetrahedron molecule
AP- EAPCET- 07-09-2021, Shift-I UPTU/UPSEE-2005, 2004
Ans. (c) : The hybridisation of sp3d is tirgonal
Ans. (a) : When sulphur reacts with chlorine in 1 : 2
ratio then SCl4 is obtained which one hydrolysis gives bipyrmidal molecule. A sp3d hybridisation includes 5
sulphurous acid (H2SO3). hybrid orbitals arranged in space so is to minimise the
repulsion between them and the geometry which results
S + 2Cl2 → SCl4
sulphur tetrachloride from such an arrangement is trigonal bipyramidal.

19. Match List-I and List-II.
List I List II PCl5 sp3d
(Species) (Hybrid orbitals)
A SF4 i. sp3d2
B IF5 ii. d2sp3
C NO +2 iii. sp3d [Pt(Cl4)]2– dsp2
D NH +4 iv. sp3
22. Consider the reaction BCl3 + NH3 → BCl3 .
v. sp
NH3. The geometries of BCl3 and BCl3 . NH3
A B C D respectively are ______
(a) (i) (ii) (v) (iii) (a) Trigonal planar & Tetrahedral
(b) (ii) (i) (iv) (v)
(b) Tetrahedral & square planar
(c) (iii) (i) (v) (iv)
(c) Tetrahedral & Trigonal bipyramidal
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (v)
(d) Square planar & Trigonal pyramidal
Ans. (c) :
Ans. (a) : Given reaction is-
BCl3 + NH3 → BCl3 . NH3
Structure of BCl3 is-
Therefore, the SF4 has sp3d hybrid orbital IF5 has sp3d2 , The geometries of BCl3 is trigonal planar.
NO2+ has sp and NH4+ has sp3 hybrid orbital. Structure of BCl3 . NH3 is-
20. XeF6 on partial hydrolysis gives a compound X,
which has square pyramidal geometry 'X' is
(a) XeO3 (b) XeO4
(c) XeOF4 (d) XeO2F2
Kerala-CEE-29.08.2021 The geometries of BCl3.NH3 is tetrahedral.
Ans. (c) : XeF6 on partial hydrolysis gives a compound 23. In which of the following molecules/ ions the
XeOF4 which has square pyramidal geometry which is central atom is sp2 hybridized?
given as follows -
BF3, NO 2− , NH 2− , & H2O
XeF6 + H 2O → XeOF4 + 2HF
(a) NH 2– & H2O (b) NO 2– & H2O
–
(c) BF3 & NO 2 (d) NO 2– & NH 2–
(Square pyramidal) Ans. (c) : Formula = lone pair + Bond pair.
21. Match the following
Column – I Column – II
Compound Hybridization
(A) SF6 (I) dsp2
(B) PCl5 (II) d2sp3
(C) [PtCl 4 ]2− (III) sp3d2
(IV) sp3 24. The hybridization of the central atom in the
(V) sp3d species ICl+2 is ____
The correct match is (a) sp3d2 (b) sp
A B C (c) sp2 (d) sp3
(a) III I V AP EAPCET-6 Sep. 2021, Shift-II
(b) III V I Ans. (d): The structure of the ICl+2 is–
(c) IV V I
(d) II V I
TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-II
Ans. (b) :
Species Hybridization Geometry Hybridisation = No. of bond pair + No. of lone pair
= 2+2
SF6 sp3d2 =4
i.e, sp3

25. The hybridization of Se in SeF4 and its 28. The percentage of s-character in the hybrid
geometry respectively are________ orbitals of nitrogen in NO +2 , NO −3 and NH +4
(a) sp3d, see-saw shaped (b) sp3d2, octahedral respectively are
(c) sp3d3, trigonal planar (d) sp3d2, square planar (a) 33.3%, 50%, 25% (b) 33.3%, 25%, 50%
AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-II (c) 50%, 33.3%, 25% (d) 25%, 50%, 33.3%
Ans. (a): Structure of SeF4 is– Karnataka-CET-2020
Ans. (c) : The structure of NO 2 NO3– and NH +4
+
Hybridization of SeF4 is sp3d and geometry is see-saw

shaped.
26. Match List-I (species) with List-II
(hybridisation) and select the correct code
given below :
List-I List-II
(A) XeF4 (1) dsp2
(B) H2O (2) sp3
(C) PCl5 (3) sp3d2
2+
(D) [Pt(NH3)4] (4) sp3d
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 4 2 1 Hence, the percentage of s-character in the hybrid
(d) 1 2 4 3
Manipal-2020 orbital of nitrogen in NO +2 is 50%, NO3– is 33.3% and
Ans. (a) : NH +4 and is 25% respectively.
Species Hybridization 29. The linear shape of CO2 is due to.......
XeF4 sp3d2 (a) sp3 -hybridisation of carbon
H 2O sp3 (b) sp-hybridisation of carbon
PCl5 sp3d (c) pπ - dπ bonding between carbon and oxygen
2+
[pt(NH3)4] dsp2 (d) sp2 -hybridisation of carbon
27. Which one of the following molecules is formed AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-I
by sp3d hybridisation? Ans. (b) : The geometry of CO2 is linear. As there are
(a) BrF5 (b) PF5 no non-bonding pairs, the space is not even distorted or
(c) SF6 (d) [Co(NH3)6]3+ bent and remain a perfect 180º angle. This is due to the
2–
(e) [Pt(Cl)4] overlapping of s and p.
Kerala-CEE-2020 Orbitals of both atoms to form sp hybrid and pπ – pπ
Ans. (b) : bonding between carbon and oxygen.
(i) BrF5 30. The reaction in which the hybridisation of the
F F underlined atom is affected is
Br
(a) XeF4 + SbF5 →
F F
(b) H2SO4 + NaCl  420k
→
F
(sp3d2 ) (c) H 3 PO 2 
Disproportionation
→
+
(ii) PF5 F (d) NH 3 

H
→
F (JEE Main 2020, 4 Sep Shift-II)
F P (i ) → ( XeF3 )( SbF6 )
–
XeF4 + SbF5 
F Ans. (a) :
F sp3d 2 sp3d
(sp3d) (ii) H 2SO 4 + NaCl 420k
→ NaHSO4 + HCl
F sp3 sp3
(iii) SF6
F F (iii) H3PO2 
Disproportionation
→ PH3 + H3 PO4
S sp3 sp3 sp3
F F +
(iv) NH 3 
H
→ NH +4
F
(sp3d2) sp3 sp3

31. What is the hybridisation of Be in BeF2 Ans. (c) :
molecule ?
(a) dsp2 (b) sp2d Column-I Column-II
(c) sp (d) sp3 XeF4 Square planar
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.09.2020, Shift-I XeF6 Distorted octahedral
Ans. (c) : Hybridisation state of Be in BeF2 is sp. XeOF4 Square pyramidal
F—Be—F
XeO3 Pyramidal.
1
H = (V + M − C + A) 36. The hybridization state of boron in its
2
1 trihalides is
= ( 2 + 2 − 0 + 0 ) = 2 ( sp ) (a) sp2 (b) sp3
2
Where, V = number of valence electrons of Be = 2 (c) sp (d) sp3d
H = number of monovalent F atom = 2 J & K CET-(2019)
C = number of cationic charge = 0
A = number of anionic charge = 0 Ans. (a) : The hybridization state of boron in its
So, the hybridisation of Be in BeF2 molecule is sp. trihalides is sp2 because boron bonded with three
32. The types of hybridisation on the five carbon halides to a trigonal planar geometry.
atoms from left to right in pent-1-en-4-yne are
(a) sp2, sp2, sp3, sp, sp (b) sp, sp, sp3, sp2, sp2,
(c) sp2, sp3, sp, sp, sp3 (d) sp2, sp, sp3, sp, sp2,
1 2 3 4 5
Ans. (a) : CH 2 = CH— CH 2 — C ≡ CH
↑ 2 ↑2 ↑ 3 ↑ ↑ Where, X = Halide group.
sp sp sp sp sp
(Pent-1-ene-4-yne) 37. The ion that has sp3d2 hybridisation for the
33. What is hybridization of O in H2O? central atom, is
(a) sp (b) sp3 (a) [ ICl 2 ]
−
(b) [ BrF2 ]
−
(c) sp2 (d) No hybridisation
JIPMER-2019 (c) [ ICl 4 ]
−
(d) [ IF8 ]
−
Ans. (b) : The structure of H2O is V-shaped or bent

shaped because two lone pair present on oxygen atom to (JEE Main 2019, 8 April Shift-II)
repel each other and two bonded hydrogen atom. The Ans. (c) : The structure of the following molecule-
hybridization of H2O is sp3.
34. The hybridization and geometry in N(SiH3)3,

respectively, are
(a) sp3, tetrahedral (b) sp3, pyramidal
(c) sp , triangular planar (d) sp3d, T-shaped.
2
AMU-2019
Ans. (c) : In trisilylamine, N atom is sp2 hybridised
which results in planar geometry There is
pπ − dπ bonding because Si has vacant d–orbitals.
sp2 (triangular planar.)

35. Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I with its
structure in Column-II and assign the correct code.
Column-I Column-II
(A) XeF4 (i) Pyramidal Thus [ICl4]– ion has sp3d2 hybridisation.
(B) XeF6 (ii) Square planar
(C) XeOF4 (iii) Distorted octahedral 38. Type of hybridization of N and C – N – C bond
(D) XeO3 (iv) Square pyramidal angle in ( CH 3 )3 N are ______ and
A B C D respectively?
(a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (a) sp 3 ,108o (b) sp 2 ,120o
(c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(d) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (c) sp 3 ,109o 28' (d) sp 2 ,117.5o
(NEET 2019, NEET-I 2016) GUJCET-2019
Ans. (a) : 43. What is the structure of XeOF4?
(a) Square pyramidal
(b) Trigonal bipyramidal
(c) Pyramidal
(d) Square bipyramidal
GUJCET-2018
Nitrogen has 3 bonds pairs, 1 lone pair. Hence, by Ans. (a) : The structure of XeOF4 is –
VSEPR theory, it is sp3 hybridised and bond angle is
108°.
39. The number of lone pair of electron and
hybridisation in XeOF4 is
(a) 0,sp3 (b) 1,sp3d According to VSEPR theory, Xe bonded with four
3 2
(c) 1,sp d (d) 2,sp3d2 fluorine atom and one doubly bonded oxygen atom, and
CG PET -2019 present one lone pair. The hybridisation of XeOF4 is
sp3d2 and structure is square pyrimdal.
Ans. (c) : For XeOF4
44. The state of hybrid orbitals of carbon in CO2,
CH4 and CO 23 − respectively is
(a) sp3, sp2 and sp (b) sp3, sp and sp2
3 2
(c) sp, sp and sp (d) sp2, sp3 and sp
The number of lone pair of electron is 1 and Karnataka-CET-2018
hybridization is sp3d2. 2–
Hybridisation = Bond pair + lone pair. Ans. (c) : The structure of CO 2 , CH 4 and CO 3 is
= (4 + 1) + 1 (i) CO2 (ii) CH4 (iii) CO32–

3 2
= 6 (sp d ).
40. A molecule is square plannar with no lone pair.
What type of hybridization is associated with
it?
(a) sp3d (b) sp3d2 Therefore, the hybrid orbital’s of carbon in CO2, CH4
3
(c) dsp (d) dsp2 and CO32– is sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively.
COMEDK-2019
Ans. (d) : dsp2 hybridisation leads to square planar 45. formation of PCl3 is explained on the basis of
geometry and no lone pair. what hybridisation of phosphorus atom?
(a) sp2 (b) sp3
41. Specify the coordination geometry and (c) sp d 3
(d) sp3d2
hybridization of N and B atoms in a 1:1 MHT CET-2018
complex of BF3 and NH3.
3 3 Ans. (b) : Hybridisation of an atom can be determined
(a) N: tetrahedral, sp ; B: tetrahedral, sp
by the formula.
(b) N: pyramidal, sp3; B: pyramidal , sp3
3
(c) N: pyramidal, sp , B: planar, sp 2 1
Hybridisation = [V + Y – C + A]
3 3 2
(d) N: pyramidal, sp , B: tetrahedral, sp
COMEDK–2018 Where, V = Valence electron
Y = Monovalent atom
Ans. (a) : NH3 and BF3 have sp3 (pyramidal) and sp2
C = Cationic charge
(planar) hybridization respectively, having one lone pair
of electron on N atom which is responsible for A = Anionic charge
3
pyramidal shape of NH3 inspite of sp hybridisation. For PCl 3 , V=5, Y= 3, C = 0, A = 0
However, as soon as it is coordinated to BF3, both attain So, 1
3 hybridisation = [5 + 3 – 0 + 0]
tetrahedral geometry and acquire sp hybridisation. 2
42. In XeOF2 molecule, the hydridisation of Xe 1
= ×8
orbital is– 2
3 3 3 2
(a) sp d (b) sp d 4 (sp3)
(c) sp3d (d) sp3 46. In the structure of CIF3, the number of lone
BCECE-2018 pairs of electrons on central atom 'Cl' is
Ans. (c) : The structure of XeOF2 is (a) one (b) two (c) four (d) three
NEET-2018
Ans. (b) : The structure of ClF3 is -
The hybridization of XeOF2 is sp3d

Hybridisation = bond pair + lone pair
= (2 + 1) + 2
= 5 (sp3d)

Each boron atom in diborane is sp3 hybridisation in the
In ClF3 molecule three fluorine atoms is bonded to chlorine
and two lone pairs are present in central atom of Cl. Thestructure of diborane four H–atoms two are left and
hybridization of ClF3 is sp3d and shape is T-shaped. right, known as terminal hydrogen and in different
47. Sulphur reacts with chlorine in 1:2 ratio and environment two hydrogen atom which known as
forms X. Hydrolysis of X gives a sulphur bridging atoms.
compound Y. The hybridisation of central 51. For the following pattern of hybridisation
atom in the anion Y is shown by the central atom.
(a) sp3 (b) sp2 sp, sp2, sp3, sp3d
3
(c) sp d (d) sp (1) (2) (3) (4)
JIPMER-2017 which of the following will represent the
Ans. (a) : When sulphur reacts with chlorine in 1 : 2. correct sequence of hybridisation, i.e.
The ratio of the SCl4 is obtained which on hydrolysis according to the sequence mentioned above?
gives H2SO4. Therefore, the compound X is SCl4 and Y (a) H2O, CO2, BF3, PCl5
is H2SO4 (b) CO2, H2O, BF3, PCl5
S+2Cl 2  → SCl4 (c) CO2, BF3, H2O, PCl5
(X) (d) H2O, CO2, PCl5, BF3
JCECE - 2016
SCl 4 + 4H 2 O  → S(OH) 4 + 4HCl Ans. (c) : The orbitals of the central atom that goes for
(unstable) hybridisation are:
S(OH)4  → H 2SO 4 + H 2O (a) Orbitals used for a σ bond formation.
3– 3 (b) Orbitals contain l.p. (lone pair) of electrons.
Hence, the hybridisation of sulphur in SO 4 is sp .
(c) If required empty orbitals.
48. Among the following compounds, which Note: Orbitals involved in π-bond formation and having
compound is polar as well as well as exhibit sp2 odd electron will not get hybridised.
–hybridisation by the central atom Molecule Hybridisation No. of σ bonds + l.p.
(a) H2CO3 (b) SiF4
(c) BF3 (d) HClO3  no. of σ bonds = 0 
JIPMER-2017
CO2 sp  
 no. of lp of electrons = 0 
Ans. (a) : The structure of H2CO3 is –
 no. of σ bonds = 3 
BF3 sp2  
 no. of lp of electrons = 0 
So, the geometry is trigonal planar and hybridization is  no. of σ bonds = 2, 
sp2. H 2O sp3  
Now, H2CO3 and BF3 are central atom C and B are sp2  no. of lp of electrons = 2 
hybridised. In H2CO3 is dipole moment is not zero.  no. of σ bonds = 5 
Hence, H2CO3 molecule is polar as well as exhibit sp2 PCl5 sp3d  
hybridisation.  no. of lp of electrons = 0 
52. The hybridization of C in diamond, graphite
49. Hybridisation of carbon in CH 3– and ethyne is in the order.
(a) sp2 (b) sp3 (a) sp3, sp, sp2 (b) sp3, sp2, sp
3 3 2
(c) sp d (d) sp d 2
(c) sp, sp , sp 3
(d) sp2, sp3, sp
(e) sp2d3 Karnataka-CET-2016
Kerala-CEE-2017 Ans. (b) : A diamond has a tetrahedral structure in
Ans. (b) : The structure of CH 3– is which all C-atoms are bonded by 4 σ - bonds with 4
neighbouring C-atoms. Thus it has sp3 hybridisation.
Graphite forms a hexagonal in which each carbon is
bonded by 3 σ - bonds with 3-C atoms in the same
plane. Thus, the graphite has sp2 hybridisation.
In Ethyne CH ≡ CH in which one C-atom is bonded
The hybridisation of CH 3 is sp due to three hydrogen with other C-atom through only one σ -bond (2π bonds
– 3
atom is bonded to carbon and one lone pair is present so do not take part in hybridization). So, ethyne has sp
the hybrisation is sp3. hybridization.
50. Hybridisation of boron in diborone (B2H6) is– Thus, the correct order is sp3, sp2, sp,
(a) sp (b) sp2 53. The hybridised state of Al3+ in the complex ion
(c) sp3 (d) sp3d formed when AlCl3 is treated with aqueous
BCECE-2016 acid is
3
Ans. (c) : The structure of diborane (B2H6) is- (a) sp (b) dsp2
(c) sp3d2 (d) sp2d
2
(e) sp
Kerala-CEE-2016
3
Ans. (c) : Al3+ ions give a complex ion in which Al3+ 57. Which one of the following does not have sp
ion form six coordinate covalent bonds with six H2O hybridisation?
molecules. (a) CH4 (b) XeF4
Al3+ + aqueous acid → [Al(H2O)6]3+ (c) H2O (d) NH3
Hence, it shows sp3d2 hybridisation J & K CET-(2015)
54. The correct geometry and hybridization for Ans. (b) : The structure of the following are-
XeF4 are
(a) octahedral sp3d2
(b) trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d
(c) planar triangle, sp3d3
(d) square planar, sp3d2
NEET-II 2016
Ans. (a) : The geometry of XeF4 is
The geometry of XeF4 is octahedral. It has sp3d2

hybridisation.
55. Amongst
NO 3– , AsO 3– 2– – 2– 30
3 ,CO 3 ,ClO 3 ,SO 3 ,and BO 3 the d
non-planar species are In XeF4 molecule has sp3d2 hybridisation but another
(a) NO3− , CO32 − and BO33− are all sp3 hybridisaton.
2− − 3−
(b) SO3 , ClO3 , and BO3 58. The hybridized state of bromine in bromine
2− 2− 3− pentafluoride is
(c) CO3 ,SO3 , and BO3 (a) sp3d (b) dsp3
3− 2− 2− 2 3
(d) AsO3 , CO3 and SO3 (c) d sp (d) sp2d
3 2
UPTU/UPSEE-2016 (e) sp d
Ans. (b) : (i) NO3– has sp2 hybridisation and its Kerala-CEE-2015
geometry is trigonal planar with no lone pair. Ans. (e) : The structure of bromine pentafluoride is-
(ii) AsO3– 3 has sp3 hybridisation and its geometry is
pyramidal with one lone pair.
(iii) CO32– has sp2 hybridisation and its geometry is
trigonal planar with zero lone pair.
(iv) ClO3– has sp3 hybridisation and its geometry is The hybridization3 2 state of bromine in bromine
pyramidal with one lone pair. pentafluoride is sp d .
(v) SO3 has sp hybridisation and its geometry is 59. The angular shape of ozone molecule (O3)
2– 3
consists of.
pyramidal with one lone pair. (a) 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds
(vi) BO3– 3 has sp2 hybridisation and its geometry is (b) 2 sigma and 2 pi bonds
tirgonal planar with zero lone pair. (c) 1 sigma and 1 pi bonds
Therefore AsO3– 3 , ClO 3
–
and SO32– have non-planar (d) 2 sigma and 1 pi bonds
species as their geometry is pyramidal. JIPMER-2014
56. In which one of the following pairs the two Ans. (d) : The structure O3 is bent. The central atom has
species have identical shape, but differ in one double bond and one single bond with its
hybridsation? neighbouring Oxygen molecules which keeps
(a) I3– , BeCl 2 (b) NH3, BF3 interchanging their positions and Ozone molecule has 2
– + sigma bond and one pi bond.
(c) XeF2, I3 (d) NH 4 , SF4
– 3
Ans. (a) : I3 has sp d hybridisation and linear shape. 60. In which one of the following the central atom
BeCl2 has sp hybridisation and linear shape. is sp3 hydridised?
–
The structure of I3 and BeCl2 are – (a) NH +4 (b) BF3
−
I3 BeCl2 (c) SF (d) PCl5
6
(e) XeF4
(linear) (linear) Kerala-CEE-2014
Ans. (a) : Molecule/ion Hybridisation
NH +4 sp3
BF3 sp2
SF6 sp3d2
PCl5 sp3d
XeF4 sp3d2
61. What is the hybridization of carbon atom '2' in
the following compound? In the CH 3+ molecule has trigonal planar shape.
1 2 3 4 66. In which of the following pairs of
CH2 = C = CH − CH3 molecules/ions, the central atoms have sp2
3 2
(a) sp (b) sp hybridisation?
(c) sp (d) sp3d (a) BF3 and NH−2 (b) NO−2 and NH3
S. C. R. A - 2014
(c) BF3 and NO−2 (d) NH−2 and H2O
Ans. (c) : In the given compound,
1 2 3 4 JCECE - 2013
CH 2 = C = CH − CH 3 Ans. (c) : BF3 and NO2 are sp hybridised while NH−2 ,
− 2
sp2
sp sp2 sp3
Hence, the hybridization of carbon atom '2' in is sp. NH3 and H2O are sp3 hybridised.
62. The number of electrons is the valence shell of 67. Identify the incorrect statement, regarding the
the central atom of a molecule is 8. The molecule XeO4
molecule is (a) XeO4 molecule is square planar
(a) BCl3 (b) BeH2 (b) There are four pπ-d, π-bonds
(c) SCl2 (d) SF6 (c) There are four sp3-p, σ-bonds
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) - 2014 (d) XeO4 molecule is tetrahedral
Ans. (c) : The number of electrons in the valence shell (Karanakata, NEET 2013)
of SCl2 of the central atom of a molecule is 8. Ans. (a) : The XeO4 molecule is tetrahedral. The
In SCl2 valence electron = 6+2 = 8 geometry of molecule is-
63. Which of the following is not correctly
matched?
(a) ClO 3− – sp2 hybridised
(b) SO3 – sp2 hybridised
(c) NH3 – sp3 hybridised
(d) PCl5 – sp3d hybrodised
UP CPMT-2014
− 68.
In which of the following a pair both the
Ans. (a) : ClO 3 ⇒ 3bp + 1/ p ⇒ sp hybridised
3
species have sp3 hybridization?
pyramidal geometry (a) H2S, BF3 (b) SiF4, BeH2
(c) NF3, H2O (d) NF3, BF3
AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Evening)
Karnataka NEET-2013
64. The hybridisation of central atoms in case of Ans. (c):
diamond and carborundum respectively are
(a) sp2, sp3 (b) sp3, sp2
2
(c) sp , sp (d) sp3, sp3
UP CPMT-2014
Ans. (d) : In diamond and carborundum (SiC) both the
central atoms (i.e.,C and Si) are sp3 hybridised.
65. Which of the following species has a trigonal
planar shape?
(a) : CH3– (b) CH3+
(c) BF4– (d) SiH4
J & K CET-(2013)
Ans. (b) : The shape of the following species are-
69. In which of the following pair both the species
have sp3 hybridisation?
(a) SiF4, BeH2 (b) NF3, H2O
(c) NF3, BF3 (d) H2S, BF3
KARNATAKA NEET 2013
Ans. (b) : NF3 and H2O have sp3- hybridization.

70. The outer orbitals of C in ethene molecule can be 74. The state of hybridization of the central atom
considered to be hybridized to give three and the number of lone pairs over the central
equivalent sp2 orbitals. The total number of atom in POCl3 are
sigma ( σ ) and pi ( π ) bonds in ethene molecule is (a) sp,0 (b) sp2,0
3
(c) sp ,0 (d) dsp2,1
(a) 3 sigma ( σ ) and 2 pi ( π ) bonds WB-JEE-2012
(b) 4 sigma ( σ ) and 1 pi ( π ) bonds Ans. (c) : The structure of POCl3 is
(c) 5 sigma ( σ ) and 1 pi ( π ) bonds
(d) 1 sigma ( σ ) and 2 pi ( π ) bonds
3
KARNATAKA NEET 2013 The state of hybridisation of the central atom is sp and
Ans. (c) : The structure of ethene is– the number of lone pairs is zero.
75. The hybrid state of C in charcoal is–
(a) sp3 (b) sp2
(c) sp (d) No specific state
BCECE-2011
Ans. (d) : Charcoal is an amorphous form of carbon.
71. In which of the following pairs (of Thus, the hybrid state of C in charcoal is not specific.
molecules/ions) the central atom has the same 76. Which of the two ions from the list given below
hybridisation? that have the geometry that is explained by the
(a) XeF4 and ClO −4 (b) BeCl2 and SO2 same hybridization of orbitals, NO 2– , NO 3– ,
(c) BH3 and ClF3 (d) NH3 and NH +4 NH 2– , NH +4 , SCN–?
SRMJEEE – 2012 (a) NO 2– and NO3– (b) NH +4 and NO3–
Ans. (d) : (c) SCN– and NH 2– (d) NO 2– and NH 2–
Hybridisation of Xe = lone pair + bond pair
NEET-2011
(a) In XeF4, Hybridisation of Xe = 2 + 4 = 6(sp3d2)
Ans. (a) : The following in have the structure
In ClO −4 , Hybridisation of Cl = 0 + 4 = 4 (sp3)
(b) In BeCl2 , Hybridisation of Be = 0 + 2 = 2 (sp)
In SO2, Hybridisation of S = 1 + 2 = 3 (sp2)
(c) In BH3 , Hybridisation of B = 0 + 3 = 3(sp2)
In ClF3 , Hybridisation of Cl = 2 + 3 = 5 (sp3d)
(d) In NH3, Hybridisation of N = 1 + 3 = 4 (sp3)
In NH +4 , Hybridisation of N = 0 + 4 = 4 (sp3)
Hence, NH3 and NH +4 have the same hybridisation.
72. The hybridization of carbon in molecular CO2
is
(a) sp (b) sp2
3
(c) sp (d) sp3d
J & K CET-(2012)
Ans. (a) : In the CO2 molecule the structure is
Since, both ions NO 2– and NO3– have the same
Hybridisation. When compared to all ions. The
In CO2 molecule carbon bonded with two oxygen by Hybridisation is sp2 in NO 2– and NO3– .
double bond. It is linear geometry and hybridisation is sp. 77. Which of the following statements is/are true
73. The percentage of p-character of the hybrid about the P–Cl bonds in PCl5?
orbitals in graphite and diamond are (a) Three bonds are of one type and two of
respectively another type
(a) 50 and 75 (b) 67 and 75 (b) Two bonds are of one type and three of
(c) 33 and 75 (d) 33 and 25 another type
Karnataka-CET-2012 (c) All the bonds are of the same type
Ans. (b) : Graphite forms a hexagonal sheet like (d) Each P–Cl bonds is unique
structure in which each carbon is bonded by 3 σ bonds. UPTU/UPSEE-2011
So, the hybridization of graphite is sp2. The percentage Ans. (a) : In PCl5 Structure is
of p- character is 66.67 ≈ 67%.
Diamond is a tetrahedral structure in which all C-atoms
are bonded by 4 σ - bond with neighbouring C-atoms.
So, the hybridisation of diamond is sp3. The percentage
of p-character is 75%.

In PCl5 , three bonds are one type is equitorial bond and
two of another type is Axial bond.
Hence, option (a,b) both are correct.
78. The sp3d2 hybridization of central atom of a
molecule would lead to.
(a) Square planar geometry
Since, BF3 and NO −2 molecules have sp2 hybridized
(b) Tetrahedral geometry
(c) Trigonal bipyramidal geometry central atoms.
(d) Octahedral geometry 82. In which one of the following species the
WB-JEE-2011 central atom has the type of hybridization
3 2 which is not the same as that present in the
Ans. (d) : The sp d hybridisation of central atom of a
3 2 other three?
molecule would lead to octahedral geometry. In sp d
orbital one s-orbital, three p-orbital and two d-orbital (a) SF4 (b) I3−
i.e. d z 2 and d x 2 − y2 are intermixed to form a new 6 new (c) SbCl52– (d) PCl5
3 2
sp d hybrid orbital. NEET-2010
Ans. (c) : The structure of the molecule is-
79. In CO2, CH4 and CH 3+ the hybridisation of
carbon atoms are
(a) sp2, sp3 and sp2 respectively
(b) sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively
(c) sp, sp3 and sp respectively
(d) sp2, sp3 and sp respectively
J & K CET-(2010)
Ans. (b) :
In CO2 , CH4 and CH 3+ , the hybridisation of carbon

atom are sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively. Hence, SbCl52– has sp3d2 hybridisation which is not
80. The AsF5 molecule is trigonal bipyramidal. The same as the other three species.
hybrid orbitals used by the As atoms for 83. In which of the following molecules the central
bonding are atom does not have sp3 hybridization?
(a) dx2 − y2 ,dz2 ,s, px , py (b) d xy ,s, px , py , pz (a) CH4 (b) SF4
–
(c) BF4 (d) NH +4
(c) s, px ,py ,pz ,d z 2 (d) d x 2− y 2 ,s,px , py
NEET-2010
JCECE - 2010 Ans. (b) : The structure of the following compound-
Ans. (c) : The geometry of AsF5 molecule is trigonal
bipyramidal, it is sp3d hybridised. Thus, s, px, py, pz and
dz2 orbitals are utilised by As atom for bonding.
81. In which of the following pairs of molecules/
ions, the central atoms have sp2 hybridisation?
(a) NO −2 and NH3 (b) BF3 and NO −2
(c) NH −2 and H2O (d) BF3 and NH −2
NEET-2010
Ans. (b) :
In SF4 has sp3d hybridisation other has sp3

hybridisation.

84. Some of the properties of the two species, 88. In XeF6 oxidation state and state of
NO 3– and H3O+ are described below. Which one hybridisation of Xe, and shape of the molecule
of them is correct? are, respectively
(a) Dissimilar in hybridization for the central (a) +6, sp3d3, distroted octahedral
atom with different structures (b) +4, sp3d2, square planar
(b) Isostructural with same hybridization for the (c) +6, sp3, pyramidal
central atom. (d) +6, sp3d2, square pyramidal.
(c) isostructural with different hybridization for AMU – 2009
the central atom. Ans. (a) : The structure of XeF6 is–
(d) Similar in hybridization for the central atom
with different structures.
NEET-2010
Ans. (a) :
Oxidation state of XeF6 has

x + 6(–1) = 0
x = +6
and hybridization XeF6 is sp3d3
In NO3– and H3O+ has dissimilar in hybridization. 89. In which of the following pairs both molecules
sp2 hybridasition in NO3– and sp3 hybridisation in H3O+ do not possess same type of hybridisation?
with the different structures. (a) CH4 and H2O (b) PCl5 and SF4
85. The compound which is non-linear : (c) SF6 and XeF4 (d) BCl3 and NCl3
(a) CO2 (b) CS2 CG PET -2009
(c) HgCl2 (d) H2O Ans. (d) : The structure of following molecule–
MPPET- 2009
Ans. (d) : The shape of a molecules depends on the
number of lone pairs and bond pairs present around the
central atom.
CO2, CS2 and HgCl2 is a linear and sp hybridisation but
H2O is V- shaped structure.
• In H2O the central atom oxygen is sp3 hybridized.
Oxygen has 2 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs, so the
geometry is tetrahedral. The shape of H2O is bent due
to the presence of 2 lone pairs.
therefore, H2O is not linear molecule.
86. Hybridisation of central atom in NF3 is
(a) sp3 (b) sp
(c) sp2 (d) dsp2
WB-JEE-2009
90. In which of the following molecules/ions BF3,
Ans. (a) : The structure of NF3 is
NO 2– , NH 2– and H2O, the central atom is sp2
hybridised?
(a) NH 2– and H2O (b) NO 2– and H2O
(c) BF3 and NO 2– (d) NO 2– and NH 2–
The structure of NF3 is pyramidal and hybridization is
sp3. NEET-2009
Ans. (c) : The structure of the following molecules are-
87. The state of hybridization of S in SF4 is
(a) sp3 and has a lone pair of electron
(b) sp2 and has tetrahedral structure
(c) sp3d and has a trigonal bipyramidal structure
(d) sp3d2 and has an octahedral structure.
AMU – 2009
Ans. (c) : The structure of SF4 is–
The state of hybridization of SF4 is sp3d and has a

trigonal bipyamidal structure. Hence, BF3 and NO 2– has sp2 hybridisation.

91. Hybridization of the central atom in PF5 Ans. (a) : The molecule MX3 has zero dipole moment,
involves the mixing of atomic orbitals the σ-bonding orbitals used by M (Z < 21) are sp2
(a) d xy , s, px, py, pz (b) s, px, py, pz, d z 2 hybridized. In this case, planar triangular geometry
results in the cancellation of the dipole moments of
(c) d x2 −y2 , s, px, py, pz (d) s, px, py, pz, d x2 −y2 individual M–X bonds.
AMU – 2008
Ans. (b) :
95. Assertion (A) : CO2 is linear

Reason (R) : It is not in sp-hybridized state
Trigonal bipyramidal structure (sp3d) correct explanation of (A)
PF5 molecule has tringonal bipyramidal geometry and (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
all the bond angles in triagonal bipyramidal geometry
(c) (A) is true and (R) is not true
are not equvalent. The hybridised orbitals involved are
(d) (A) is not true and (R) is true
s + 3p +d
AP - EAMCET (Medical) - 2007
s (px, py, pz) (d z2 ) Ans. (c) : CO2 is linear because it has sp hybridisation.
92. An octahedral complex is formed when hybrid The structure of CO2 is–
orbitals of the following type are involved O&& = C = O&&
(a) sp3 (b) dsp2 && &&
2 3
Hybridization = Bond pair + Lone pair
(c) d sp (d) sp2d2 Hybridization = 2 + 0 = 2(sp) (linear)
KARNATAKA-CET, 2008 It is sp hybridized which is illustrated above.
Ans. (c) : 96. The hybridisation state of carbon in fullerene is
Hybridisation Geometry of (a) sp (b) sp2
Complex (c) sp3 (d) sp3d
sp3 tetrahedral JCECE - 2007
dsp2 square planar Ans. (b) : In fullerene, all the carbon atoms are equal.
d2sp3 octahedral Fullerene consists of 20 hexagonal and 12 pentagonal
sp2d2 not possible rings as the basis of an icosahedral symmetry closed
cage structure. Each carbon atom is bonded to three
93. Which of the following is not tetrahedral? others and the hybridization is sp2. Fullerenes are the
(a) BF4− (b) NH +4 third allotropic form of carbon after graphite and
(c) CO 32 − (d) SO 24 − diamond.
97. Which of the following set of properties belongs
AP EAMCET (Engg.) -2007 to PCl5?
Ans. (c) : The structure of the following molecules are– (a) sp3, tetrahedral, 4 valence shell pairs of
electrons
(b) sp3d, trigonal bipyramidal, 5 valence shell
pairs of electrons
(c) sp3d2, octahedral, 6 valence shell pairs of
electrons
(d) sp3d, square planar, 4 valence shell pairs of
electrons
J & K CET-(2006)
Ans. (b) : The geometry of PCl5 is trigonal bipyramidal
Hence, the CO32– is not tetrahedral.

In PCl5 molecule has sp3d hybridisation. Its geometry is
94. If a molecule MX3 has the dipole moment zero, trigonal bipyramidal and it has 5 valence shell pairs of
then the sigma (σ) bonding orbitals used by electrons.
M(Z < 21) is 98. In SO2 hybridisation is :
(a) sp2-hybridised (b) pure p-orbitals (a) sp (b) sp3
3 2
(c) sp -hybridised (d) sp-hybridised. (c) dsp (d) sp2
SRMJEEE – 2007 JCECE - 2006
Ans. (d) : In SO2 hybridisation is sp2 102. Which of the following is a linear molecule ?
(a) BeCl2 (b) H2O
(c) SO2 (d) CH4
AP-EAMCET/2005
Ans. (a):
Molecule Structure Hybridization
/Shape
Hybridisation of SO2 = Bond pair + lone pair
BeCl2 Cl–Be–Cl sp(Linear)
=2+1
= 3 (sp2) H 2O sp3(V-shaped)
99. Consider the following molecules or ions:
(i) H2O (ii) NH +4 SO2 sp2(Angular)
(iii) SO42– (iv) ClO 4–
CH4 sp3(Tetrahedral)
(v) NH3
sp3 hybridization is involved in the formation
of:
(a) (i), (ii), (v) only
(b) (i), (ii) only 103. Hybridization present in ClF3 is
(c) (ii) only (a) sp2 (b) sp3
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) Only (c) dsp 2
(d) sp3d
(e) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) UP CPMT-2005
Kerala-CEE-2006 Ans. (d) : The configuration of chlorine to find
Ans. (e) : hybridisation.
Molecule/ion Hybridisation
3
H 2O sp
NH +4 sp3
SO 2–
4 sp3
ClO –
4 sp3
NH3 sp3
100. The correct order regarding the electro- sp3d hybridisation
negativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is ∴ ClF3 has sp3d hybridisation and T-shaped
(a) sp < sp2 < sp3 (b) sp > sp3> sp2 geometry (due to presence of two lone pairs electrons).
2 3
(c) sp > sp > sp (d) sp < sp2 > sp3 104. Hybridisation involves
NEET-2006 (a) Addition of an electron pair
Ans. (c) : The electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of (b) Mixing up of atomic orbitals
carbon is depend on the s-character percentage s- (c) Removal of an electron pair
character is increase then the electronegativity is (d) Separation of orbitals
increase percentage s-character in sp, sp2 and sp3 are CG PET -2004
50%, 33.3%, and 25% respectively. Ans. (b) : Hybridisation is defined as the mixing of
Hence, the electronegativity of hybrid carbon is atomic orbitals to form new hybrid orbitals with same
sp > sp2 > sp3 energies, same shape etc. there is minimum repulsion
between these hybridized orbital’s.
101. 105. The states of hybridisation of boron and
oxygen atoms in boric acid (H3BO3) are
respectively
(a) sp2 and sp2 (b) sp2 and sp3
3 2
(c) sp and sp (d) sp3 and sp3
by N is (AIEEE-2004)
(a) sp (b) sp2 Ans. (b) : The structure of boric acid (H3BO3) is –
(c) sp3 (d) dsp2
BITSAT 2005
1
Ans. (c) : Hybridisation of N = [ 5 + 3 + 0 – 0]
2
= 4 (sp3) The hybridisation of boron is sp2 and hybridization of
Or Hybridisation = Bond pair + Lone pair oxygen is sp3. Boric acid (H3BO3) is triangular planar
=3+1 structure.
= 4 (sp3) 106. The maximum number of 90º angles between
So, the hybridisation of piperidine is sp3. bond pair-bond pair of electrons is observed in
(a) dsp3 hybridisation (b) sp3d hybridisation Ans. (c) : The structure of the compound is-
(c) dsp2 hybridisation (d) sp3d2 hybridisation
(AIEEE-2004)
Ans. (d) : sp3d2 hybridisation has octahedral geometry
90° angles between bond pair-bond pair of electrons.
This molecule is made up of 6 equally spaced sp3d2
hybrid orbital’s arranged at 90° angles.
In square pyramidal geometry contains five bond pair
and one lone pair of electrons. Thus square pyramidal
geometry contains four bond has 90°.
107. Which of the following has sp3–hybridization?
(a) BCl3 (b) PCl3 Hence, the option (c) has not sp3 hybridisation.
(c) BeCl2 (d) None of these
111. Which one of the following is a correct pair
JIPMER-2004 with respect to molecular formula of Xenon
Ans. (b) : The structure the following- compound and hybridization state of xenon in
(i) BCl3 (ii) PCl3 (iii) BeCl2 it?
(a) XeF4, sp3 (b) XeF2, sp
Cl − Be − Cl (c) XeF2, sp3d (d) XeF4, sp2
sp AP EAMCET- 2002
Ans. (c) : Xenon difluoride has the two bond pair and
three lone pair due to which they have sp3d
Hence, PCl3 molecule has sp3 hybridsation. hybridization with linear shape.
108. Sulphur trioxide is dissolved in heavy water to
form a compound X. The hybridization state of
sulphur in X is
(a) sp2 (b) sp3
(c) sp (d) dsp2
AP EAMCET- 2003
Ans. (b) : When sulphur trioxide is dissolved in heavy 113. The hybridisation present IF3 is
water then form the D2SO4. (a) sp3d (b) sp3
3 2
(c) sp d (d) sp3d
SO3 + D 2O  → D 2SO 4 ≡ UP CPMT-2002
'X ' Ans. (a) :
Species Bond pair + Loan pair Hybridisation
CO2 2 sp
BCl3 3 sp2
CH4 4 sp3
IF3 3+2 sp3d
114. Hybridisation of the underline atom changes in
109. What is the number of free electrons present on
(a) AlH 3 changes to AlH −4
each carbon atom in graphite?
(a) Zero (b) 3 (b) H 2 O changes to H 3O +
(c) 2 (d) 1 (c) NH3 changes to NH +4
(d) In all cases
Ans. (d) : Graphite has a two dimensional structure. In (AIEEE-2002)
this case, only three of the four valence electron of each
carbon atom are involved in bonding. Thus, each carbon Ans. (a) :
H+
atom make use of sp2-hybrid orbitals. (a) AlH 3  → AlH 4–
Hence, the fourth valence of each carbon atom remains
sp 2 sp3
unsatisfied i.e. the fourth valence electrons remains
unpaired or free. This free electron can easily move (b) H 2 O  O
→ H 3O +
from one carbon to another under the influence of
applied potential. So, in structure of graphite only one sp3 sp3
H+
electron is free on each carbon atom. (c) NH 3  → NH 4+
3
110. sp -hybridisation is not found in :
sp3 sp3
(a) H2O (b) CH4
(c) BCl3 (d) NH3 Thus, the hybridization of the underline atom AlH3
BCECE-2003 changes to AlH 4 .
–

115. What is the hybridization state of the central (a) Sigma bond
atom in the conjugate base of NH +4 ion? (b) Double bond
(a) sp (b) sp3 (c) Co-ordinate covalent bond
(c) sp 2
(d) d sp2 (d) Pi bond
AP-EAMCET/2002 NEET-1990
Ans. (b): The conjugate base of NH +4 is NH3 because it Ans. (a) : Linear combinations of two hybridized
orbitals belonging to two atoms and each having one
donates an H+ ion to the water. It then becomes
electron leads to the formation is sigma bond.
ammonia (NH3) which would be the conjugate base of
NH +4 . 119. In which one of the following molecules the
central atom can be said to adopt sp2
hybridization?
(a) BeF2 (b) BF3
(c) C2H2 (d) NH3
NEET-1989
The central atom of NH3 is N and its hybridization state Ans. (b) : The structure of the following compound-
is sp3.
116. Which compound has planar structure?
(a) XeF4 (b) XeOF2
(c) XeO2F2 (d) XeO4
(NEET-2000)
Ans. (a) : The structure of the compound is-
So, the molecules BF3 has sp2 hybridisation.

120. Equilateral shape has
(a) sp hybridization (b) sp2 hybridization
3
(c) sp hybridization (d) dsp3 hybridization
NEET-1988
Ans. (b) : Atomic orbital are mixed with formed a new
hybridised orbital, in sp2 hybridisation, one s- orbital and
two p- orbital overlap each other to form hybridised sp2
orbital. In sp2, p- character is 67% and s- character is 33% in
triangular planar structure minimize the maximum repulsion
and have energetically stable geometrical structure. Thus the
equilateral shape has sp2 hybridization.
2. Vsepr Theory
117. When the hybridisation state of carbon atom 121. Given below are two statements: one is labeled
changes from sp3 to sp2 and finally to sp, the as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
angle between the hybridised orbitals
Reason (R).
(a) decreases gradually
(b) decreases considerably Assertion (A): ICI is more reactive than I2.
(c) is not affected Reason (R): I-Cl bond is weaker than I-I bond
(d) increases progressively. In the light of the above statements choose the
NEET-1993 most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
Ans. (d) : When the hybridisation state of carbon atom
3 2
changes from sp to sp and finally to sp, the angle (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
between the hybridised orbitals increase progressively. correct explanation of (A).
The bond angles in sp3 hybridisation is 109o, sp2 is 120o (b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
and sp hybridisation is 180o respectively. (c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
118. Linear combination of two hybridised orbitals (d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the
belonging to two atoms and each having one correct explanation of (A)
electron leads to the formation is NEET-17.07.2022

Ans. (d) : Inter halogen compound are more reactive
than halogen compound and they break easily due to
weak bond. Therefore, I-Cl is more reactive than I2
because of weaker I-Cl bond then I-I bond.
Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
122. Based upon VSEPR theory, match the shape
(geometry) of the molecules in List-I with the
molecules in List – II and select the most
appropriate option.
List – I List – II
(Shape) (Molecules)
(A) T-shaped (I) XeF4
(B) Trigonal planar (II) SF4
(C) Square planar (III) ClF3
(D) See-saw (IV) BF3
(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Ans. (b) :
List-I List-II
(Molecules) (Shape)
XeF4 Square planar 125. In the dichromate dianion (Cr2O7)2–
SF4 See - Saw. (a) 4 Cr – O bonds are equivalent
ClF3 T - shaped (b) 6 Cr – O bonds are equivalent
BF3 Trigonal planar (c) All Cr – O bonds are equivalent
123. Number of lone pair(s) of electrons on central (d) All Cr – O bonds are not equivalent
atom and the shape of BrF3 molecule CG PET-22.05.2022
respectively, are Ans. (b) : The structure of the dichromate dianion
(a) 0, triangular planar (Cr2O7)2– is -
(b) 1, pyramidal
(c) 2,bent T-shape
(d) 1, bent T-shape
Ans. (c) : The structure of the BrF3 is - In dichromate dianion (Cr2O7)2– has 6 Cr – O bonds are
equivalent due to resonance.
126. Among the given oxides of nitrogen; N2O,
N2O3, N2O4 and N2O5 the number of
compound/(s) having N – N bond is :
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
In BrF3, two lone pair of electron on central atom and JEE Main-28.06.2022, Shift-II
+ +
the shape of molecule is bent T-shape.
Ans. (c) : (i) N2O ⇒ N = N = O ↔ N ≡ N − O
124. Pair of species having identical shape for
molecule is: (ii) N2O4 ⇒
(a) CF4, SF4 (b) BF3, PCl3
(c) XeF2, CO2 (d) PF5, IF5
CG PET-22.05.2022
Ans. (c) : The structure of the following molecule are- (iii) N2O3 ⇒
(iv) N2O5 ⇒
Hence, the number of compound having N – N bond is 4.

127. In the structure of SF4 the lone pair of electrons Ans. (b) : The molecule which have in same plane is
on S is in. called coplanar.
(a) Equatorial position and there are two lone (i) CH4 (ii) BF3
pair-bond pair repulsion at 90o
(b) Equatorial position and there are three lone
pair bond pair repulsion at 90o
(c) Axial position and there are three lone pair-
bond pair repulsion at 90o
(d) Axial position and there are two lone pair
bond pair repulsion at 90o
Ans. (a) : In structure of SF4 is (iii) PF3 (iv) NH3
Lone pair at equatorial position with two lone pair –

bond pair repulsion at 90.
128. The shape of XeF6 is
(a) Pentagonal bipyramidal In BF3 has trigonal planar structure it is coplanar all
(b) Square planar atom. Other are non planar.
(c) Octahedral 131. The species having pyramidal shape among the
(d) Distorted octahedral following is
WB JEE-2014
JIPMER-2011 (a) SO3 (b) NO3− (c) PCl 3 (d) CO32−
Karnataka CET-2016 (JEE Main 2021, 27 Aug. Shift-II)
AP- EAMCET(Medical) -2010 JIPMER-2007
AMU-2007, 2004, 2003 JCECE-2006
Ans. (d): For XeF6, the hybridization will be- J&K CET-1998
hybridization = lone pair +bond pair
Ans. (c) : The structure of the following molecule are
hybridization = 1+6 =7 (sp3d3)
Due to one lone pair, the geometry of XeF6 will be

distorted octahedral.
129. In XeF2, XeF4, XeF6 the number of lone paris
on Xe are respectively
(a) 2, 3, 1 (b) 1, 2, 3
(c) 4, 1, 2 (d) 3, 2, 1
BITSAT-2021, AMU-2015
Assam CEE-2014, AIEEE-2011, 2002
Ans. (d) : The structure of the following is – So, the PCl3 molecule has pyramidal shape.
(i) XeF2 (iii) XeF6 (ii) XeF4 132. Molecular shapes of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 and the
number of lone pairs on the central atom are
respectively
(a) the same, with 1,2 and 1
(b) the same, with 1, 0 and 1
2 bond pair + 6 bond pair + 4 bond pair + (c) different, with 0, 1 and 2
3 lone pair 1 lone pair 2 lone pair
In XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6, the number of lone pairs on Xe (d) different, with 1, 0 and 2
are 3, 2, 1 respectively. (e) the same, with 0, 0 and 1
130. In which molecule are all atoms coplanar? Kerala-CEE-2013, 2004
(a) CH4 (b) BF3 (c) PF3 (d) NH3 JCECE - 2008
WB JEE-2016, JIPMER-2007 UPTU/UPSEE-2007
CG PET -2005, J&K CET-2001, 1999 (AIEEE-2005)
Ans. (d) : The structure of the following are – (c) BH −4 and NH +4
(i) SF4 (ii) CF4 (iii) XeF4
(Td) (Td)
1 lone pair + 0 lone pair + 2 lone pair +
(d) PF6− and SF6
4 bond pair 4 bond pair 4 bond pair
(See-saw) (Tetrahedral) (Square planar)
133. The number of lone pairs of electrons possessed
by the central atom in the anionic species I3− is
(a) one (b) two (Oh) (Oh)
(c) three (d) all are bond pairs. Hence, the SiF4 and SF4 are not iso-structural.
AMU – 2008 136. Which of the following pairs is iso-structural?
(JEE Main 2021, 20 July Shift-I)
MHT CET-2012, JCECE - 2011 (a) XeF2, IF2− (b) NH3,BF3
Ans. (c) : There are two bond pairs and three lone pairs (c) CO32− , SO32− (d) PCl5,ICl5
in the outer shell of central atom. Tripura JEE-2019
AIEEE-2003
NEET-2001
Ans. (a) : The following pairs are iso-structural.
XeF2
134. Shape of XeF4 molecule is :

(a) Pyramidal (b) Square Planar
(c) Triangular Planar (d) Linear
Linear Linear
HP CET-2018, AMU-2015
J&K CET-2005 In XeF2 and IF2− both pair have iso-structural shape i.e
AIIMS-1998 linear and geometry is trigonal bipyramidal. The
Ans. (b): The shape of XeF4 is square planer. In Xe, hybridisation of pair of species is sp3d.
four fluorine atom is bonded by σ bond and two lone 137. The structure of H2O2 is
pairs is present. The hybridisation of XeF4 is sp3d2. (a) planar (b) non-planar
Shape of XeF4 molecule. (c) spherical (d) linear
AMU-2013, JCECE - 2005, NEET-2003
Ans. (b) : The structure of H2O2 is non-planar. One O –
O bond lying in a plane and two O – H bonds lying in
different plane. H2O2 has open book type structure.
135. Among the following, the pair in which the two
species are not isostructure, is
(a) SiF4 and SF4 (b) IO3− and XeO3
(c) BH −4 and NH +4 (d) PF6− and SF6 138. The shape of ClF3 molecule is
(a) triangular planar (b) pyramidal
AMU-2016 (c) T-shape (d) trigonal bipyramidal
UPTU/UPSEE-2007 Kerala CEE-2016, BCECE-2011
NEET-2004 J&K CET-2010
Ans. (a) : The structure of the following species – Ans. (c) : The shape of ClF3 is T-shaped.
(a) SiF4 and SF4
In ClF3 has 3 bond pair and two lone pair. The hybridisation
(Td) (see-saw) is sp3d. The shape is trigonal bipyramidal but two lone pairs
− repel to each other the shape became T-shape.
(b) IO3 and XeO3
139. Which of the following statements is/are true?
1. PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist.
2. pπ – dπ bond is present in SO2.
3. I +3 has bent geometry.
(Pyramidal) (Pyramidal) 4. SeF4 and CH4 have same shape.
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 3 (i) ICl−2 (ii) SbCl3
(c) 1, 3, 4 (d) 1, 2, 4
NEET-II-2016
BITSAT 2010
Ans. (a) : (i) PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist due to 'H' is 3 2
less electronegative, so it can't exrt charge contraction Trigonal bipyramidal (sp d) Trigonal planar (sp )
in 'p'. Hence, it does not extend its valency to 5. (iii) BeCl2 (iv) TeF2
(ii) pπ – dπ bond is present in SO2 due to sulphur is
belong to 3rd period element.
(iii) I3+ has bent geometry. Cl − Be − Cl
(iv) CH4 has tetrahedral and SeCl4 has see-saw shape.
Linear (sp)
143. Shape and hybridisation of SO2 are

(a) V shape, sp3 (b) triangular planar, sp2
2
sp3 (Td) see-saw (c) V shape, sp (d) tetrahedral, sp3
UP CPMT-2012, 2010
140. The shape of water molecule according to
VSEPR theory, is Ans. (c): In SO2, the number of hybrid orbitals
(a) octahedral 1
H= [V + Y – C + A ]
(b) distorted tetrahedral 2
(c) trigonal planar Where, V = number of valence electrons
(d) trigonal bipyramidal Y = monovalent species
MHT CET-2018 C and A = positive and negative charge over species
CG PET -2008 1
Ans. (b) : The shape of water molecule according to the ∴ H = [ 6 + 0 – 0 + 0] = 3
2
VSEPR theory is distorted tetrahedral due to in water Thus, hybridization is sp2.
molecule two lone pair are present and repeal to each Since, SO2 contains one lone pair of electrons its
other. geometry becomes V shape.
Distorted tetrahedral
141. CO2 in isostructural with 144. The shape of Fe(CO)5 molecule is
(a) SnC12 (b) SO2 (a) octaheral (b) trigonal bipyramidal
(c) HgC12 (d) All of these (c) trigonal (d)tetrahedral.
CG PET -2005 AMU-2004, BCECE-2012
NEET-1992 Ans. (b) : The shape of Fe(CO)5 molecule is trigonal
Ans. (c) : CO2 is a linear molecule which has sp bipyramidal.
hybridisation. The given compound are –
(i) (ii) (iii)

Hybridised orbitals: dsp3
145. Which one of the following conversion involve
change in both by hybridisation and shape?
(a) CH 4  → C2 H 6 (b) NH 3  → NH 4+
142. XeF2 is isostructural with :
(c) BF3  → BF4− (d) H 2 O → H3O +
(a) ICl−2 (b) SbCl3
Karnataka CET-2015
(c) BeCl2 (d) TeF2 BCECE-2014
Manipal-2019
NEET-2013 Ans. (c) : CH 4 → C2 H 6
sp3 sp3
Ans. (a) : The structure of XeF2 is CH4 and C2H6 both have sp3 hybridisation and
tetrahedral shape.
(ii) NH 3 → NH +4
sp3 sp3
+
NH3 and NH have sp3 hybridisation. But the shape of
4
Trigonal bipyramidal (sp3d) NH3 is pyramidal and shape of NH +4 is tetrahedral.

(iii) BF3 → BF4− 149. Molecular structures of XeO3 and XeOF4
sp2 sp3 respectively are
2 − 3 (a) trigonal planar and octahedral
BF3 is sp hybridisation and BF4 has sp hybridisation
(b) pyramidal and square pyramidal
BF3 is trigonal planar and BF4− has tetrahedral. (c) pyramidal and trigonal bipyramidal
(iv) H 2 O → H 3O + (d) both have imperfect tetrahedral shape.
sp3 sp3 BCECE-2017, AMU-2015
H2O and H3O+ both have sp3 hybridisation. H2O is bent Ans. (b) : The structure of the following are –
shaped and H3O+ is pyramidal. (i) XeO3 (ii) XeOF4
146. Among the following species, correct set of iso
structural pairs are : NF3 , NO 3− , BF3 , H 3 O +
(a) (NF3 , NO3− ) and (BF3 , H 3 O + )
(b) (NF3 , H 3 O + ) and (NH 3 , BF3 ) Pyramidal Square pyramidal
The central atom Xe both have one lone pair. In XeO3,
(c) (NF3 , H 3 O + ) and (NO3– , BF3 ) has pyramidal and XeOF4 has square pyramidal.
(d) (NF3 , NH 3 ) and (NH 3– , H 3 O + ) 150. In which of the following pairs of
BCECE-2017, J&K CET-2000 molecules/ions both the species are not likely to
Ans. (c) : The structure of the following is– exists?
(i) NF3 (ii) H3O +
(a) H +2 , He 22− (b) H −2 , He22−
(c) H 22+ , He 2 (d) H −2 , He22+
Odisha NEET-2019, JEE Main-2013
+ 1− 0
Ans. (c) : For H 2 = σ1s1 , B.O. = = 0.5
Pyramidal Pyramidal 2
(iii) NO3− (iv) BF3 0−0
For H 22+ = σ1s 0 , B.O. = =0
2
2 −1
For H −2 = σ1s 2 , σ*1s1 , B.O. = = 0.5
2
Trigonal planar Trigonal planar 2−0
For He 22+ = σ1s 2 , B.O. = =1
The correct set of iso-structural pairs are (NF3, H3O+) 2
and ( NO3− , BF3). 2−2
For He 2 = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , B.O. = =0
147. Which of the following exhibits square 2
pyramidal geometry? 4−2
For He 22− = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , B.O. = =1
(a) XeF6 (b) XeO3 2
(c) BrF5 (d) XeF4 Thus, the bond order of H 22+ and He2 are zero. Both
MHT CET-03.05.2019, SHIFT-I
pairs of molecules/ions are not likely to exist.
AMU – 2010
151. The number of species below that have two
Ans. (c) : XeF6 – Distorted octahedral
lone pairs of electrons in their central atom is ...
XeO3 – Pyramidal (Round off to the nearest integer)
BrF5 – Octahedral (Square pyramidal )
XeF4 – Square planar SF4 , BF3− ,CIF3 , AsF3 ,PCl 5 ,BrF5 , XeF4 ,SF6
148. According to VSEPR theory, the geometry of (a) 4 (b) 3
ammonia and water molecules will, (c) 2 (d) 5
respectively, be (JEE Main 2021, 18 March Shift-II)
(a) pyramidal and bent J&K CET-2011
(b) tetrahedral and pyramidal Ans. (c) :
(c) bent and pyramidal Species Bond pair Lone pair
(d) pyramidal and tetrahedral. SF4 4 1
− 3 1
AMU-2019, J&K CET-2012 BF3
Ans. (a) : The geometry of ammonia (NH3) and water ClF3 3 2
(H2O) molecule are pyramidal and bent. Both have sp3 AsF3 3 1
hybridisation.
PCl5 5 0
(i) NH3 (ii) H2O
BrF5 5 1
XeF4 4 2
SF6 6 0
The two lone pair of electrons in their central atom is
Pyramidal Bent two.
152. Which of the following statements is correct? Ans. (c) :
(a) All carbon to carbon bonds contain a sigma
bond and one of more pi bonds
(b) All carbon to hydrogen bonds are pi bonds
(c) All oxygen to hydrogen bonds are hydrogen
bonds Fluorine atoms will be bent towards away from lone
(d) All carbon to hydrogen bonds are sigma pair to minimize the lone pair lone pair repulsions. Thus
bonds Shape would be that of a slightly bent T-Shape.
UPTU/UPSEE-2015, JCECE - 2005
Ans. (d) : Carbon and hydrogen form only σ-bond 157. The structure of XeOF4is
between them, hence, the all carbon to hydrogen bonds (a) Trigonal bipyramidal
are sigma bonds. (b) Square planar
(c) Square pyramidal
153. The shape of gaseous SnCl2 is
(d) Pyramidal
(a) tetrahedral (b) linear
J&K CET-2018
(c) angular (d) T-shape
JIPMER-2017
MHT CET-2011 Ans. (c) : The structure of XeOF4 is square pyramidal
Ans. (c) : The central atom Sn has 4 valence electron
two are bonded with chlorine and one lone pair is
present. The three atomic orbitals of tin undergo
hybridisation to form three degenerate hybrid orbital.
The geometry of molecule is bent or angular.
154. XeF6 on partial hydrolysis gives a compound X,
which has square pyramidal geometry 'X' is
(a) XeO3 (b) XeO4 The hybridisation of XeOF4 is sp3d2
(c) XeOF4 (d) XeO2F2
158. Which one of the following is a planar
Kerala-CEE-29.08.2021 molecule?
Karnataka-CET-2021 (a) NH3 (b) H3O+
Ans. (c) : XeF6 on partial hydrolysis gives a compound (c) BCl3 (d) PCl3
XeOF4 which has square pyramidal geometry which is NEET-2005
given as follows - AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2003
XeF6 + H 2O → XeOF4 + 2HF Ans. (c) : The molecule’s are NH3, H3O+,BCl3 and
PCl3.
(Square pyramidal)
155. The incorrectly matched pair, among the
following is
Molecule Shape
(a) BrF5 Trigonal bipyramidal
(b) SF4 See saw
(c) ClF3 T-shape
(d) NH +4 Tetrahedral
(e) NH3 Trigonal pyramidal
Kerala-CEE-2014, 2012
Ans. (a) :
Molecule Shape
BrF5 Square pyramidal
SF4 See-saw
ClF3 T-shaped
NH +4 Tetrahedral
NH3 Trigonal pyramidal
156. According to VSEPR theory, the molecular 159. Number of non-bonding electron pair on Xe in
shape of BrF3 is XeF6, XeF4 and XeF2 respectively will be .......
(a) Trigonal bipyramid (b) Triangular (a) 6, 4, 2 (b) 1, 2, 3
(c) Bent T-shape (d) Pyramidal (c) 3, 2, 1 (d) 0, 3, 2
TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-I AMU-2013
AMU-2017 GUJCET-2011
Ans. (b): The structure is given as- Ans. (a):
Molecule Hybridization Shape
H 2O sp3
BCl3 sp2
NH +4 sp3
160. For N 3− which statement is wrong:

(a) lsoelectronic with CO2
(b) NH2OH and N 3− have same O.N. on nitrogen
atom. CH4 sp3
(c) N-N bond length are same.
(d) HN3 have linear shape.
AIIMS-27 May,2018 (M)
Ans. (d): The structure of N 3− is– 163. A pair of molecules with see-saw shape and
− + − linear shape, respectively, is
N=N=N (a) CH4 and SO3 (b) XeF4 and CS2
−
(i) N is isoelectronic with CO2. (c) SF4 and C2H2 (d) CCl4 and CO2
3
(ii) NH2OH and N 3− have same O.N on nitrogen atom. J&K CET-2015
(iii) N–N bond length are same. Ans. (c) :
(iv) HN3 have bent structure. (a) CH4 and SO3
161. Match List I and List II and pick out correct
matching codes from the given choices:
List -I List- II
Compound Structure
A. CIF3 1. Square planar
B. PCl5 2. Tetrahedral
C. IF5 3. Trigonal bipyramidal (b) XeF4 and CS2
D. CCl4 4. Square pyramidal
E. XeF4 5. T- shaped
Codes
(a) A-5, B-4,C-3,D-2,E-1
(b) A-5,B-3,C-4,D-2,E-1
(c) A-5,B-3,C-4,D-1,E-2 (c) SF4 and C2H2
(d) A-4,B-3,C-5,D-2,E-1
AIIMS-2015
Kerala-CEE-2006
Ans. (b):
Compound Structure
(d) CCl4 and CO2
A. CIF3 T- shaped
B. PCl5 Trigonal bipyramidal
C. IF5 Square pyramidal
D. CCl4 Tetrahedral
E. XeF4 Square planar
162. Which one of the following is a correct set?
(a) H2O, sp3, angular Hence, correct option is (c).
(b) BCl3, sp3, angular 164. The shape of NH3 molecule is:
(c) NH +4 , dsp 2 , square planar (a) Tetrahedral (b) Trigonal planar
2 (c) Trigonal pyramidal (d) Linear
(d) CH 4 , dsp , tetrahedral
MHT-CET-2007
AP-EAMCET/2008, 2003 AIIMS-2001
+
Ans. (c): The shape of NH3 (ammonia) is trigonal 168. That is the electronic geometry of IF4 ?
pyramidal. In ammonia hydrogen atom is bonded with (a) Tetrahedral
nitrogen by 3σ bond and one lone pair present on (b) Octahedral
nitrogen. The hybridisation of NH3 is sp3. (c) Trigonal bipyramidal
(d) Trigonal planar
Ans. (c) : The geometry of IF4+
The shape of NH3 molecule.

165. H–O–H bond angle in H2O is 104.5º and not
109º 28' because of:
(a) Lone pair-lone pair repulsion
(b) Lone pair-bond pair repulsion
(c) Bond pair-bond pair repulsion lone Pair Bond Pair Geometry 
(d) High electronegative of oxygen 
Note  0 5 Trigonal bipyramidal 
UP CPMT-2008  1 4 See − saw 
Ans.(a): According to the VSEPR theory-The 169. Match the following :-
interactions of lone pair-lone pair> lone pair-bond pair
> bond pair-bond pair. In H2O molecule, the bond angle Molecule Geometry
decreases due to lone pair-lone pair repulsion. (A) Xef2 (i) Trigonal Pyramidal
(B) XeO3 (ii) Distorted
octahedral
(C) XeF6 (iii) Linear
166. XeF2, NO2, HCN, ClO2, CO2 (D) XeOF4 (iv) Square pyramidal
Identify the non-linear molecule-pair from the (a) (A – iii), (B – i), (C – ii), (D – iv)
above mentioned molecules. (b) (A – iv), (B – iii), (C – ii), (D – i)
(a) XeF2, ClO2 (b) CO2, NO2 (c) (A – iii), (B – i), (C – iv), (D – ii)
(c) HCN, NO2 (d) ClO2, NO2 (d) (A – iv), (B – iii), (C – ii), (D – i)
WB-JEE-30.04.2022 AP EAPCET 24.08.2021, Shift-I
Ans. (d) : The structure of the following are- Ans. (a) :
(i) XeF2 (ii) NO2 (iii) HCN Molecule Hybridi- Structure
zation
(a) XeF2 sp3d
Linear Bent Linear

(iv) ClO2 (v) CO2
Therefore NO2 and ClO2 have non-linear molecule-pair. (b) XeO3 sp3
167. Molecular bromine on reaction with three
moles of molecular fluorine produces an inter
halogen compound. The total number of lone
pairs at the central halogen atom is ––––––
(a) 3 (b) 2
(c) 1 (d) 0 (c) XeF6 sp3d2
AP EAPCET 25.08.2021, Shift-II
Ans. (b) : Given, Molecular bromine is Br2 and three
moles molecular fluorine is 3F2 so the reaction is–
Br2(g) + 3F2(g) → 2BrF3
Structure of BrF3 is
(d) XeOF4 sp3d2
So the total number of lone pairs at the central halogen

atom is 2.
170. Incorrect matching amongst the following 174. Identify the incorrect statements among the
is____(according to geometry of molecules) following?
(a) H2O, NH3 (b) BeCl2, CO2 (i) SF6 does not react with water
(c) SF4, TeCl4 (d) CIF3, ICl3 (ii) SF6 is sp3d hybridized
AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-II
(iii) S2O32− is a linear ion
Ans. (a): H2O is V-shaped geometry and NH3 is
pyramidal geometry. (iv) There is no π - bonding in S24− ion
(a) (ii), (iii) & (iv) only (b) (i), (ii) & (iii) only
(c) (i) & (ii) only (d) (iii) & (iv) only
AP EAPCET 19-08-2021, Shift-II
Ans. (a) : SF6 is unreactive towards water because the
sulfur atom is shielded by six fluorine atom.
SF6 molecule has sp3d2 hybridisation.
BeCl2 and CO2 are linear geometry, SF4 are trigonal
bipyramidal geometry and ClF3, ICl3 are trigonal
pyramid geometry.
171. The structure of XeOF4 and XeO3, respectively,
are
(a) Square pyramidal and pyramidal
(b) Pentagonal planar and pyramidal Hence, the S2O32− has a tetra hedral structure not a
(c) Pentagonal pyramidal and planar linear molecule.
(d) Pentagonal bipyramidal and planar There is 1− π bond in S24− .
TS-EAMCET 09.08.2021, Shift-I
175. Match the following?
Ans. (a) : The molecular structure of XeOF4 and XeO3
are– Molecule Geometry
(a) SnCl2 (i) Angular (or) Bent
(b) XeF4 (ii) See-saw
(c) ClF3 (iii) Square pyramidal
(d) IF5 (iv) T - shape
(v) Square - planar
172. The shapes of BrF5 and XeF4, respectively are (a) (a - i), (b - iii), (c - iv), (d - v)
(a) square pyramid, square pyramid (b) (a - iv), (b - v), (c - i), (d - iii)
(b) square planar, square planar (c) (a - i), (b - v), (c - iv), (d - iii)
(c) square planar, square pyramid (d) (a - iv), (b - iii), (c - ii), (d - ii)
(d) square pyramid, square planar AP EAPCET 19-08-2021, Shift-II
TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 06.08.2021 Ans. (c) :
Ans. (d): Molecule Hybridization Shape
Molecule Hybridization Shape
1. SnCl2 sp2
BrF5 sp3d2
2. XeF4 sp3d2
XeF4 sp3d2
173. Amongst the following, the linear species is:
(a) N 3– (b) NO 2
(c) O3 (d) Cl 2 O 3. ClF3 sP3d
Ans. (a) :The given species are N 3– , NO 2 , O3 , and Cl2 O.
4. IF5 sp3d2

176. Which of the following is not a correct (d)
statement?
(a) Every AB5 molecule has square pyramidal
structure
(b) Multiple bonds are always shorter than
corresponding single bonds
(c) The electron deficient molecules act as Lewis
Acids Hence, the option (a) is correct.
(d) The canonical structure have no real existence 179. A central atom in a molecule has two lone pairs
AP- EAPCET- 07-09-2021, Shift-I of electrons and forms three single bonds. The
Ans. (a) : The option (1) is not correct because AB5 shape of this molecule is
molecules have square pyramidal and triagonal (a) see-saw (b) Planar triangular
bipyramidal structure and other option is correct. (c) T-shaped (d) Trigonal pyramidal
177. In which of the following species, the central (JEE Main 2021, 17 March Shift-I)
atom has the maximum number of lone pair of Ans. (c) : A central atom in a molecule has two lone
electrons? pairs of electrons and forms three single bonds. The
(a) SF4 (b) XeF4 shape of this molecule is T-shaped.
− For example –
(c) C1O3 (d) I3−
Ans. (d) : Structure of given compound is -
SF4 XeF4
180. Match List-I with List-II

List- I List-II
(A) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal
ClO3 I 3– (B) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar
(C) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral
(D) BF3 (iv) Trigonal
bipyramidal
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below -
So the option (d) is correct. (a) (A) - (iv), (B) - (iii), (C) -(ii), (D) - (i)
178. Which of the following are isostructural pairs? (b) (A) - (iv), (B) - (iii), (C) -(i), (D) - (ii)
A. SO42− and CrO 42− B. SiCl 4 and TiCl 4 (c) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) -(iv), (D) - (i)
− (d) (A) - (iii), (B) - (i), (C) -(iv), (D) - (ii)
C. NH 3 and NO 3 D. BCl 3 and BrCl 3
NEET-2021
(a) A and B only (b) A and C only Ans. (b) :
(c) B and C only (d) C and D only List-I List-II
(JEE Main 2021, 24 Feb Shift-I) PCl5 Trigonal bipyramidal
Ans. (a) : The structure of the following are – SF6 Octahedral
(a) BrF5 Square pyramidal
BF3 Trigonal planar
–
181. In NO 3 ion, the number of bond pairs and lone
pairs of electrons on nitrogen atom are
(a) 2, 2 (b) 3, 1
(b) (c) 1, 3 (d) 4, 0
Ans. (d) :
(c)
182. In which of the following molecule/ion, all the

bonds are not equal ?
(a) XeF4 (b) BF4−
(c) C2H4 (d) SF4

Ans. (c) : In XeF4, BF4− and SF4 only one type of 186. Which of the following molecules can be
represented as AB2E2, where A-central atom, B-
covalent bonds are present, which are Xe—F, B—F and bond pairs of electrons, E-lone pairs of electrons?
Si—F respectively. (a) SO2 (b) H2O2
In C2H4, two types of covalent bonds are present, which (c) H2O (d) XeF2
are C = C and C—H, which are not equal for any AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.09.2020, Shift-I
property. Ans. (c) :
Number of
Molecule Type A B E
: SO 2 ⇒ AB2 E S 4 1
183. How many lone pairs of electrons are present ɺɺ — OH ⇒ A 2 B3 E 4 O (2 3 4
in a hydroxyl ion ? H—O
ɺɺ atom)
(a) Two pairs (b) Three pairs O 2 2
H 2O ɺɺ : ⇒ AB2 E 2
(c) One pair (d) Four pairs
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 17.09.2020 Shift-I .. AB2 E 3 Xe 2 3
Ans. (b) : In hydroxyl ion, OH . . : F2 ⇒
: Xe
187. What is the shape of I3− ion ?

Number of lone pair of electrons = 3 (a) Trigonal (b) Linear
184. The geometry with respect to the central atom (c) Bent (d) Trigonal planar
of the molecules N(SiH3)3 - Me3N, (SiH3)3 P AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-II
respectively are Ans. (b) : I3− molecular geometry is linear. While there
(a) Planar, pyramidal, planar are three iodine atoms, one of the atoms has a negative
(b) planer, pyramidal, pyramidal charge which further gives 3 lone pairs of electrons and
(c) pyramidal, pyramidal, pyramidal 2 bond pairs.
(d) pyramidal, planar, pyramidal Hence, the correct option is (b).
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 17.09.2020 Shift-I 188. The number of 120º, Cl—P—Cl angles in
Ans. (b) : phosphorus pentachloride are
2p2 2a0 (a) 3 (b) 6
pπ(N)-dπ (Si)
H3Si .. .. H3Si (c) 9 (d) 1
N(SH3)3⇒ N SiH3 N SiH 3 ....... AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.9.2020 Shift-I
H3Si Ans. (a) : Geometry and structure of phosphorus
has vacant H3Si (Trigonal planar)
pentachloride (PCl5) molecule is trigonal bipyramidal
3d-orbital
where P-atom is sp3 d-hybridised.
The 3Cl-atoms are present at equatorial positions with
Cl — P — Cl = 120º and two Cl - atoms are present at
axial positions with Cl— P — Cl = 90º.
185. When SbF5 reacts with XeF4 to for an adduct,

the shapes of cation and anion in the adduct 189. If AB4, molecule is a polar molecule, a possible
respectively are geometry of AB4 is
(a) Square pyramidal (b) Square planar
(a) square planar, trigonal bipyramidal
(c) Rectangular planar (d) Tetrahedral
(b) T-shaped, octahedral
(JEE Main 2020, 2 Sep. Shift-I)
(c) square pyramidal, octahedral
Ans. (a) : AB4 has three type of structure.
(d) plane triangular, trigonal bipyramidal
(i) If AB4 molecule is square pyramidal then it has one
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.09.2020, Shift-I lone pair. It should be polar because dipole moment of
Ans. (b) : In the reaction between XeF4 and SbF5, XeF4 lone pair.
acts as flouride (F–) donor.
ɺɺ  ⊕ [SbF ]
XeF4 + SbF5 → : XeF 3 6
Cation Anion
Hybridisation sp3d(Xe) sp3d2 (Sb)

Geometry Trigonal bipyramidal octahedral (ii) If AB4 molecule has tetrahedral then it has no lone
Shape T-shaped octahedral pair.
Assertion.
It is non polar due to symmetrical. Reason is not the correct explanation of
(iii) If AB4 molecule is a square planar then it should be Assertion.
non polar because of vector sum of dipole moment is (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
zero. (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
incorrect.
190. The molecular geometry of SF6 is octahedral. Ans. (a): The structure of BO33− and SO32− is
What is the geometry of SF4 (including lone
pair(s) of electrons, if any)? (i) BO33− (ii) SO32 −
(a) Tetrahedral (b) Trigonal bipyramidal
(c) Pyramidal (d) Square planar
(JEE Main 2020, 2 Sep. Shift-II)
Ans. (b) : The molecular geometry of SF6 is
octahedral. The geometry of SF4 (including lone pair of
electron) is trigonal bipyramidal.
BO33− and SO32− are not isostructural because SO32−
sulphur has one lone pair of electron.
194. Select the correct statement regarding shapes
of PCl5, BrF5 & IF7:
191. The structure of PCl5 in the solid state is (a) All are square pyramidal.
(b) All are trigonal bipyramidal.
(a) Tetrahedral [ PCl 4 ] and octahedral [ PCl 6 ]
+ −
(c) One of the following is square pyramidal.
(b) Trigonal bipyramidal (d) One of the following is tetrahedral.
(c) Square planar [ PCl 4 ] and octahedral
+
Ans. (c): The structure of these molecules are –
[ PCl 6 ]
−
(i) PCl5 (ii) BrF5
(d) Square pyramidal
Ans. (a) : In solid PCl5 exists as PCl +4 and PCl6− as the
ionic bonding enhances the crystalline nature. PCl +4 is
tetrahedral while PCl6− is octahedral which gives more
stability to solid structure.
(iii) IF7
192. Incorrectly matched pair is Hence, BrF5 molecule has square pyramidal shape.
(a) XeO3 pyramidal 195. When Ag+ reacts with excess of sodium-thio
(b) XeF4 tetrahedral sulphate then the obtained species having
(c) XeF6 disorted octahedral charge & geometry respectively will be?
(d) XeOF4 square pyramidal (a) –3, Linear (b) –2, tetrahedral
Karnataka-CET-2020 (c) –1, square planer (d) –3, square planar
Ans. (b) : AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Morning)
Molecule Geometry Ans. (a): AgBr + 2Na2S2O3 → Na3 [Ag (S2O3)2] + NaBr
XeO3 Pyramidal the coordination number of Ag+ is 2 it is sp
XeF4 Square planar hybridisation and shape is linear.
XeF6 Disorted octahedral 196. The number of species having zero lone pair at
XeOF4 Square pyramidal central atom is?
193. Assertion: BO3 and SO32 − are not isostructural.
3− XeO3, XeO2F2, XeO4, XeO3F2
(a) 2 (b) 3
Reason: In SO32− sulphur has one lone pair of (c) 4 (d) Zero
electron. AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Morning)
Ans. (a): The structure of the following species – Ans. (c) :
(i) XeO3 (ii) XeO2F2 (iii) XeO4 Molecule Geometry
SO32− Pyramidal
NO −2 V-shaped
−
ClO 4 Tetrahedral
NH3 Pyramidal
(iv) XeO3F2 200. Which of the following pair contains 2 lone pair
of electrons on the central atom?
(a) I3+ , H 2 O (b) H2O, NF3
(c) XeF4, NH3 (d) SO 24 − , H 2S
Karnataka-CET-2019
Ans. (a) :
The molecule XeO4 and XeO3F2 having zero lone pair Molecule Bond pair Lone pair
+
at central atom and number of species are two. I3 2 2
197. Assertion: SF4 molecule has see-saw geometry. H 2O 2 2
Reason: In SF4 molecule sulphur has four bond NF3 3 1
pairs and one lone pair. XeF4 4 2
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and NH3 3 1
Reason is the correct explanation of 2−
SO 4 4 0
Assertion. H 2S 2 2
Reason is not the correct explanation of Therefore, I3+ , H2O pair contains 2 lone pair of
Assertion. electrons on the central atom.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. 201. The number of π-bonds and σ-bonds present in
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are naphthalene are respectively
incorrect. (a) 6, 19 (b) 5, 19
AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Morning) (c) 5, 11 (d) 5, 20
Ans. (a): The structure of SF4 molecule is – Karnataka-CET-2019
Ans. (b) :
The structure of naphthalene is
SF4 molecule has see-saw geometry and in SF4

molecule sulphur has four bond pairs and one lone pair. The number of π-bonds and σ-bond present in
198. Which of the following is incorrect about naphthalene are 5 π-bond and 19 σ-bond respectively.
cyanogens gas? 202. According to the VSEPR theory, the shape of
(a) It has bent structure ClO3− would be
(b) It is psuedohalogen
(c) It's behaviour is similar to halides (a) Linear (b) Triangular planar
(d) Both carbon are sp hybridized (c) Pyramidal (d) Square planar
AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Morning) (e) Angular
Kerala-CEE-2019
Ans. (a): The molecular formula of cyanogens gas is −
(CN)2 . The structure of (CN)2 is Ans. (c) : The shape of Cl O3 would be pyramidal
N ≡ C− C ≡ N
sp sp
The hybridisation of cyanogen gas is sp . It has a bent

structure.
199. Which of the following is correct?
(a) SO32 ⇒ Tetrahedral 203. What is the shape and magnetic nature of
permanganate ion?
(b) NO 2– ⇒ Trigonal planar (a) Pyramidal diamagnetic
(c) ClO 4 ⇒ Tetrahedral
– (b) Tetrahedral, diamagnetic
(c) Tetrahedral, paramagnetic
(d) NH 3 ⇒ Trigonal planar (d) Planar, paramagnetic
JIPMER-2019 MHT CET-03.05.2019, SHIFT-I
Ans. (b) : The shape of permanganate ion ( MnO −4 ) 207. Which of the following is the correct according
increasing order of lone pair of electrons on the
central atom?
(a) IF7 < IF5 < ClF3 < XeF2
(b) IF7 < XeF2 < ClF2 < IF5
Tetrahedral (sp3) (c) IF7 < ClF3 < XeF2 < IF5
In permagnate ion there is no unpaired electron, it is (d) IF7 < XeF2 < IF5 < ClF3
diamagnetic. BITSAT 2018
204. In ClF2- and ClF4- find out the number of lone Ans. (a) : The number of lone pairs of electrons on
pair and shape. central atom in various given species are
(a) 3-Linear, 2-Square planar Species Number of lone pairs on central atom
(b) 3-Squared planar, 2- Linear IF7 nil
(c) 0-Linear, 3-Square planar IF5 1
(d) 2-Linear, 2-Square planar ClF3 2
AIIMS-27 May,2018 (M) XeF2 3
Thus the correct increasing order is
Ans. (a): The structure of the molecule is –
IF7 < IF5 < ClF3 < XeF2
0 1 2 3
(i) ClF2- (ii) ClF4- 208. What is the hybridization and geometry off
given species? The species are XeF2 and ICl 2−
(a) sp3d and trigonal bipyramidal
(b) sp3d2 and square planar
(c) sp3d and linear
(d) sp3 and irregular tetrahcdron
J & K CET-(2018)
Ans. (a) : The given species are –
Hence, in ClF2- and ClF4- number of lone pair and
shape are 3-linear, 2- square planar respectively.
205. Which contains alteast one e- in σ2p bonding MO?
(a) O2 (b) B2
(c) C2 (d) Li2
AIIMS-26 May,2018 (E) The hybridisation = Bond pair + lone pair
Ans. (a): (i) Molecular orbital of O2 is For XeF2, Hybridisation = 2 + 3 = 5 (sp3d)
= σ1s , σ 1s , σ2s , σ 2s , σ2p z , π2p x = π2p y ,
2 * 2 2 * 2 2 2 2
For ICl−2 , Hybridisation = 2 + 3 = 5 (sp3d)
π* 2p1x = π* 2p1y The geometry of the given species is trigonal
bipyramidal and the shape is linear.
(ii) MO of B2 = = σ1s , σ 1s , σ2s , σ 2s , π2p x = π2p y
2 * 2 2 * 2 1 1
209. What will be the geometry of the compound
(iii) MO of C2 = σ1s , σ 1s , σ2s , σ 2s , π2p x = π2p y ,
2 * 2 2 * 2 2 2 MB4L2? Here B is bond pair and L is lone pair.
(a) Square planar (b) Octahedral
(iv) MO of Li2 = = σ1s , σ 1s , σ2s
2 * 2 2
(c) Square pyramid (d) Tetrahedral
Therefore, O2 contains at least one e– in σ2p bonding MO. J & K CET-(2018)
206. Structure anions of acids, HNO3, H3PO4 and Ans. (a) : The given compound MB4L2.
H2SO4 are respectively Where, B = Bond pair
(a) tetrahedral, tetrahedral and trigonal L = Lone pair
bipyramidal Geometry of the compound will be octahedral with two
(b) angular, tetrahedral and trigonal bipyramidal lone pairs. Hence, the structure is square planar.
(c) tetrahedral, tetrahedral and angular
(d) planar, tetrahedral and tetrahedral
AMU-2018
Ans. (d) : The structure of the following are – 210. For the dot structure shown, the most likely
(i) HNO3 (ii) H3PO4 (iii) H2SO4 elements X = … and Y = … are
Trigonal planar Tetrahedral Tetrahedral

(a) carbon, flourine (b) carbon, hydrogen 214. IF7 is known to exist while BrF7 does not exist
(c) carbon, oxygen (d) oxygen, carbon the reason is.
JIPMER-2018 (a) stability of higher oxidation state increases
Ans. (a) : X is a tetravalent without lone pair, Y has with the size
three lone pairs and one bond pair. X is carbon can (b) Br is more electronegative than I
make maximum 4 bonds as its valency is 4 and Y has (c) Br cannot gain 7 electrons
fluorine has total 7 electron in valence shell. Out of that (d) I can easily react with F.
1 electron has gone for bonding. J & K CET-(2017)
211. Which of the following does not depend on the Ans. (a) : The size of halogen on moving down the
attraction of the bonding pair towards the group is increases. The interhalogen compound that is
nucleus ? formed when there is large electronegativity difference
(a) The number of protons in the nucleus between two halogens and also there is large difference
(b) The repulsion by the electrons in the same between sizes of the halogens atoms. Seven small
valence shell fluorine atoms are able to accommodate around a large
(c) The amount of sheieding by inner shell iodine atom but seven fluorine atoms are not
electron accommodate around a bromine atom due to electronic
(d) The distance from the nucleus repulsion between the fluorine atoms and stability of
UPTU/UPSEE-2018 higher oxidation state increases with the size.
Ans. (b) : The repulsion by the electrons in the same
valence shell does not depend on the attraction of the 215. Which of the following is correct electron dot
bonding pair towards the nucleus because of electrons structure of N2O molecule?
are identical in charge. The repulsion is minimised if the (a) (b)
two electron are far apart as possible.
212. The Lewis structure for O3 molecule is given (c) (d)
below. The correct formal charges on oxygen Karnataka-CET-2017
atoms labeled 1, 2, 3 are respectively.
Ans. (b) : N2O is known as nitrous oxide. It commonly
name is laughing gas. At room temperature it is a
colourless non flammable gas and has a slightly sweet
scent and taste. Nitrous oxide is a powerful oxidiser.
(a) – 1, 0, + 1 (b) + 1, 0, – 1 The dot structure of N2O molecule –
(c) + 1, – 1, 0 (d) 0, + 1, – 1
AP EAMCET-2017
Ans. (a): 216. Which of the following structure of a molecule
is expected to have three bond pairs and one
lone pair of electrons?
(a) Octahedral (b) Trigonal planar
Formal charge (F.C) = Number of valence electron- (c) Pyramidal (d) Tetrahedral
1 Karnataka-CET-2017
[no. of lone pair + no. of bond pair] Ans. (c) : Pyramidal structure of a molecule is expected
2
For O(1) = 6 – (6 + 1) = –1 to have three bond pairs and one lone pair of electrons.
O(2) = 6 – (4 + 2) = 0 e.g.– NH3 (ammonia) molecule one electron pair
O(3) = 6 – (2 + 3) = + 1 geometry is tetrahedral and molecular shape is
Hence option (a) is correct. pyramidal.
213. The species having pyramidal shape according 217. Which of the following pairs of compounds is
to VSEPR theory is isoelectronic and iso-structural?
(a) SO3 (b) BrF3 (a) TeI2, XeF2 (b) IBr2–, XeF2
(c) IF3, XeF2 (d) BeCl2, XeF2
(c) SiO32 − (d) OSF2
NEET-2017
TS EAMCET-2017 −
Ans. (d) : The structure of the species is – Ans. (b) : The compound IBr2 and XeF2 are
(i) SO3 (ii) BrF3 isostructural both have the same number of valence
electrons. According to VSEPR geometry is trigonal
bipyramidal but the shape are XeF2 and IBr2− is linear.
Isoelectronic species have same number of electron.
Trigonal planar Trigonal bipyramidal 218. Which one of the following has (have)
(iii) SiO32 − (iv) OSF2 octahedral geometry?
(i) SbCl6− (ii) SnCl62−
(iii) XeF6 (iv) IO56−
(a) (i) (ii) and (iv) (b) (ii) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
Trigonal planar Pyramidal UPTU/UPSEE-2017

Ans. (a) The geometry of the following molecule – 222. Which of the following statements is false?
(i) SbCl6− (ii) SnCl62− 1. Non- bonding pairs occupy more space than
bonding pairs.
2. The bonding orbitals in trigonal bipyramidal
molecule are described
3. SnCl2 has linear shape.
4. PCl4+ and AlCl4- are isoelectronic.
Octahedral Octahedral (a) 1 (b) 2
(iii) XeF6 (iv) IO56− (c) 3 (d) 4
CG PET- 2016
Ans. (c) : (i) Non-bonding pairs occupy more space
than bonding pairs.
(ii) The bonding orbitals in trigonal bipyramidal
molecule.
Distorted octahedral Octahedral (iii) SnCl2 is V-shaped.
Hence, the SbCl−6 , SnCl26− and IO56− have the
octahedral geometry.
219. The shape of XeF5− will be
(a) square pyramid (iv) PCl +4 and AlCl −4 are isoelectronic.
(b) trigonal bipyramidal 223. The central atom of which one of the following
(c) planar molecules, has 3 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs of
(d) pentagonal bipyramid electrons in its valence shell?
WB-JEE-2017 (a) Boron trifluoride
Ans. (c) : The shape of XeF5− is– (b) Phosphorous trichloride
(c) Chlorine trifluoride
(d) Xenon trioxide
J & K CET-(2016)
Ans. (c) :
The XeF5− show Sp3d3 hybridisation and geometry is Molecule Bond pair Lone pair
pentagonal bipyramidal . Boron trifluoride 3 0
(BF3)
8 + 5 +1
Number of electron pair = =7 Phosphorous 3 1
2 trichloride (PCl3)
Number of bond pair is five and two lone pair. As lone
pairs are present axially to minimize the repulsion Chlorine 3 2
Therefore, the shape is planar. trifluride (ClF3)
220. XeO4 molecule is tetrahedral having: Xenon trioxide 3 1
(XeO3)
(a) Two pπ−dπ bonds (b) One pπ−dπ bonds
(c) Four pπ−dπ bonds (d) Three pπ−dπ bonds 224. Which of the following pairs of ions is
isoelectronic and is isostructural?
AIIMS-2016
Ans. (c): XeO4 molecule have tetrahedral structure and (a) CO32− , NO3− (b) ClO3− ,CO32−
hybridization is sp3. In the fourth excited state of xenon (c) SO32− , NO3− (d) ClO3− ,SO32−
atom has 8 unpaired electrons. One s and three p–orbital NEET-II 2016
undergoes sp3 hybridisation. Four sp3 hybrid orbitals
form four σ bonds with oxygen atom. Four pπ– dπ Ans. (a) :
bonds are also formed with oxygen atoms by the Ion No. of electron Structure
unpaired electron. CO32− 32 Trigonal planar
221. In which of the following molecules, maximum NO3− 32 Trigonal planar
number of lone pairs is present on the central −
atom? ClO 3 42 Pyramidal
(a) NH3 (b) H2O 2−
SO 3 58 Pyramidal
(c) ClF3 (d) XeF2 − 2−
Note : ClO and SO
AP-EAMCET – 2016 3is isostructural but not
3
Ans. (d) : isoelectronic.

225. The molecule C3O2 has a linear structure, This
compound has
(a) 2σ and 3π bonds (b) 3σ and 4π bonds
(c) 4σ and 4π bonds (d) 3σ and 2π bonds
UPTU/UPSEE-2016
Thus, XeF2 has maximum lone pair present on central Ans. (c) : The molecule C3O2 has a linear. The structure
atom. of the compound are –
O=C=C=C=O 230. Match the following.
sp sp sp
List I List II
In C3O2 have 4σ and 4π bond, and hybridisation of each (A) PCl 3 (I) Square planar
carbon has sp and angle is 1800. (B) BF3 (II) T-shape
226. The structure of XeF2 and NH3 respectively are (C) ClF3 (III) Trigonal pyramidal
(a) linear, see-saw (b) bent, see-saw (D) XeF4 (IV) See-saw
(c) bent, tetrahedral (d) linear, pyramidal
(V) Trigonal planar
UPTU/UPSEE-2016
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Ans. (d) : The structure of XeF2 and NH3 are – (a) (IV) (II) (I) (III)
(i) XeF2 (ii) NH3 (b) (III) (V) (II) (IV)
(c) (III) (V) (II) (I)
(d) (II) (IV) (III) (V)
TS-EAMCET-2016
Linear (sp3d) Pyramidal (sp3) Ans. (c) :
227. The number of lone pair (s) of electrons on the
central atom in [BrF4 ]− , XeF6 and [SbCl6]3–are,
respectively
(a) 2, 1 and 1 (b) 2, 1 and 0
(c) 2, 0 and 1 (d) 1, 0 and 0
UPTU/UPSEE-2016
Ans. (a) : The structure of the compound are –
Similarly,
(i) [BrF4 ]− (ii) XeF6 (iii) [SbCl6 ]3−
2 lone pair + 1 lone pair + 1 lone pair +

4 bond pair 6 bond pair 6 bond pair
(Square planar) (Distorted (Distorted
octohedral) octahedral)
228. The structure of carboxylate ion is best
represented as
(a) (b)
231. Assertion: Lone pair- lone pair repulsive

(c) (d) interaction are greater than lone pair- bond
pair and bond pair- bond pair interactions.
UPTU/UPSEE-2016
Reason: The space occupied by lone pair
Ans. (d): The name carboxyl comes from the fact that a electrons is more as compared to bond pair
carbonyl and hydroxyl group are attached to the same
electrons.
carbon. In carboxylic acid hydrogen is removed then
form carboxylate ion. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
O O
|| || Assertion
R − C − OH → −H +
R − C − O− (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
The hybridization of carbon in carboxylate ion is sp2 Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
229. The geometry around the central atom in ClF4+ is (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(a) Octahedral (b) Trigonal bipyramidal (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect
(c) Square planar (d) Square pyramidal AIIMS-12016
UPTU/UPSEE-2016 Ans. (a): Lone pair are localised on the central atom,
Ans. (b): The geometry around the central atom in each bonded pair is shared between two atoms. As a
ClF4+ is trigonal bipyramidal. result, the lone pair electrons in a molecule occupy
more space as compare to the bonding pairs of
electrons.
Hence, the greater repulsion between lone pairs-lone
pair of electron as compared to lone pair-bond pair and
bond pair-bond pair repulsions.

232. The structure of IF5 can be described as Ans. (c) :
• Diamond and silicon carbide both are iso structural
because their central atom is sp3 hybridised and
(a) (b) tetrahedral geometry.
• NH3 and PH3 both the isostructural because central
atom is sp3 hybridised and pyramidal shape.
• XeF4 has sp3d2 hybridisation while XeO4 has sp3
hybridisation. So, XeF4 and XeO4 are not
isostructural.
(c) (d) None of these • SiCl4 and PCl +4 both have isostructural and central
atom is sp3 hybridised and shape is tetrahedral.
JCECE - 2015 236. The number of lone pairs of electrons on the
Ans. (c) : Number of hybrid orbitals central atoms of H2O, SnCl2, PCl3 and XeF2
= number of bp + number of lp respectively, are
=5+1=6 (a) 2, 1, 1, 3 (b) 2, 2, 1, 3
Thus, hybridisation is sp3d2 but geometry due to the (c) 3, 1, 1, 2 (d) 2, 1, 2, 3
presence of one lone pair is square pyramidal. WB-JEE-2015
Ans. (a) :
Species Bond pair Lone Pair
H 2O 2 2
SnCl2 2 1
4− PCl3 3 1
233. Number of oxygen atoms shared per SiO 4 XeF2 2 3
tetrahedron is 237. What are the shapes of ethyne and methane?
I. two dimensional sheet structured silicates (a) Square planar and linear
II. cyclic silicates and
(b) Tetrahedral and trigonal planar
III. single strand chain silicates respectively are
(c) Linear and tetrahedral
(a) 3, 3, 2 (b) 3, 2, 2
(c) 4, 3, 1 (d) 4, 3, 2 (d) Trigonal planar and linear
JIPMER-2015 AP EAMCET (Engg.) -2014
Ans. (b) : In two dimensional sheet silicate three Ans. (c) : The shape of ethyne and methane are linear
4− and tetrahedral respectively.
oxygens of each SiO 4 units are shared. Therefore, it
(i) Ethyne (C2H2) (ii) Methane (CH4)
contains (Si 2 O5 )2n− type anion. Cyclic silicates are
H
obtained by sharing of two oxygen atoms of each |
4− H−C ≡ C−H
SiO 4 tetrahedron. Chain silicates are also formed by C
|
|
(linear) H | H
the sharing of two oxygen atom of each SiO 44− unit.
H
234. Which of the following will be able to show
geometrical isomerism? (Tetrahedral)
(a) MA3B – square planar 238. The structure of XeOF4 is
(b) MA2B2–tetrahedral (a) trigonal bipyramidal (b) square planar
(c) MABCD–square planar (c) square pyramidal (d) pyramidal
(d) MABCD– tetrahedral AP-EAMCET (Engg.) - 2014
Karnataka-CET-2015 Ans. (c) : Hybridisation of XeOF4 is sp3d2. Structure of
Ans. (c) : In tetrahedral and square planar XeOF4 is given below–
arrangements, only the square planar arrangement will
be able to show geometrical isomerism. In MA3B all the
arrangement will be same. Therefore, it will show no
geometrical isomerism. Square planar complex MABCD
type form three isomers i.e. two cis and one trans.
Note : Tetrahedral complexes do not show geometrical The central Xe atom has 1 lone pair 3 2
of electrons and 5
isomerism because ligand are attached to central metal bonding domains. It undergoes sp d hybridization the
atom are same with respect to each other. electron pair geometry is octahedral and the molecular
235. In which of the following pairs, both the species shape is square pyramid.
are not isostructral? 239. The structure of CH3+ is
(a) Diamond, silicon carbide (b) NH3, PH3 (a) tetrahedral (b) linear
(c) XeF4, XeO4 (d) SiCl4, PCl+4 (c) planar (d) pyramidal
NEET-2015 Assam CEE-2014
Ans. (c) : The structure of CH 3+ is – (iii) NO −2 (iv) CO2
O=C=O
Trigonal planar
Bent Linear
In CH 3+ the structure is trigonal planar and It the sp2 hybridisation are triangular planar shape. In
hybridisation is sp2 and the bond angle is 120°. NO3− has sp2 hybridised with no lone pair of electron on
240. What is the geometrical shape of XeO3 ? the central atom.
(a) Planar triangular (b) Trigonal pyramidal
(c) Square planar (d) Tetrahydral 244. Which of the following molecules possesses
GUJCET-2014 linear geometry?
Ans. (b) : The structure XeO3 is – (a) XeF2 (b) XeF4
(c) XeOF4 (d) XeF6
UP CPMT-2014
Ans. (a) : XeF2 ⇒2bp+4lp Thus, geometry linear.
XeF4 ⇒ 4bp+2lp square planar
The geometrical shape of XeO3 is trigonal pyramidal. XeOF4 ⇒ 5bp+1lp square pyramid
The hybridisation of XeO3 is sp3. XeF6 ⇒ 6bp + 1lp distorted octahedral
241. The pair of compounds having identical shapes 245. Identify the correct set.
for their molecules is
(a) CH4, SF4 (b) BCl3, ClF3 Molecule Hybridi Shape Number of
(c) XeF2, ZnCl2 (d) SO2, CO2 -sation lone pairs
Karnataka-CET-2014 of
electrons
Ans. (c) : 3 2
Molecule Shape (a) XeO 4 sp d pyramidal 1
CH4 Tetrahedral (b) XeO3 sp3 pyramidal 1
SF4 See-saw (c) XeF4 sp3d2 planar 3
BCl3 Trigonal planar (d) XeF2 sp3d linear 2
ClF3 T-shaped AP EAMCET (Medical) - 2013
XeF2 Linear Ans. (b) : The chemical compounds are XeO4, XeO3,
ZnCl2 Linear
XeF4 and XeF2.
SO2 V-shaped
CO2 Linear
242. What is the geometry of molecule of bromine
penta fluoride?
(a) Square planar (b) Trigonal bipyramidal
(c) Squre pyramidal (d) Octahedral Hybridisation sp3 sp3 sp3d2 sp3d
MHT CET-2014
Shape Tetrahedral Pyramidal Square planer Linear
Ans. (d) : The geometry of bromine pentafluoride
(BrF5) is octahedral– Lone pair 0 1 2 3
246. Among the following groups which represents
the collection of isoelectronic species?
(a) NO + ,C 22− ,O −2 ,CO (b) N 2 ,C 22− ,CO, NO
The bromine pentafluride 5 are bond pair and one lone (c) CO, NO + ,CN − ,C 22− (d) NO,CN − , N 2 ,O −2
pair present so, the shape is square pyramidal. AIIMS-2013
243. Which one of the following species has planar Ans. (c): Isoelectronic speices haring the same number
triangular shape? of electrons.
(a) N 3− (b) NO3– NO+ = 7+7=14
–
(c) NO2 (d) CO2 C 22− = 2×6+2=14
NEET-2014
Ans. (b) : The structure of the following are – O −2 = 2×8+1=17
(i) N 3− (ii) NO3− CO = 6+8 = 14
N2 = 2×7= 14
NO = 7 + 8 = 15
− + CN– = 6 + 7 + 1 = 14
N− N ≡ N O2= 2×8=16
Linear Triangular shape Hence, the option (c) has isoelectronic species.

247. Ans. (b) : The structure of the following are-
Molecule Hybridisation Shape (i) I3− (ii) NO −2 (iii) I3+
of central
atom
(a) PCl5 dsp 3 square
pyramidal
(b) 2− tetrahedral
 Ni ( CN ) 4  sp3 (Linear) (Bent) (Pyramidal)
(c) SF6 octahedral (iv) SO2 (v) N 3–
sp3d 2
(d) IF3 dsp3 pyramidal
Identify the correct set.
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) 2013 − + −
N =N = N
Ans. (c) : (Bent) Linear
Molecule hybridisation Shape – –
Hence, I and N have linear structure.
of central 3 3
atom 251. Consider the following molecules/ions:

PCl5 sp3d Trigonal bipyramidal (1) NH +4 (2) H3O+
2–
[Ni(CN)4] dsp2 Square planar (3) NH3 (4) SiCl4
SF6 sp3d2 Octahedral Which pair does not contain a lone pair ?
IF3 sp3d T-shaped (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
248. Which of the following will have the shape of a (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
trigonal bipyramid? SCRA 2012
(a) PF3Cl2 (b) IF5 Ans. (c) : The molecules NH +4 and SiCl4 does not
(c) BrF5 (d) SbF52 − contain a lone pair.
CG PET- 2013 Molecules/ions Lone pair
Ans. (a) : The shape of the following species is – 0
(a) PF3Cl2 (b) IF5
1
Trigonal bipyramidal Square pyramidal
(c) BrF5 (d) SbF52−
Square pyramidal Square pyramidal

So, PF3Cl2 has trigonal bipyramidal and other are
square pyramidal. 0
249. d2sp3 hybridisation of the atomic orbitals gives
(a) square planer structure
(b) triangular structure
(c) tetrahedral structure
(d) octahedral structure 252. The shape of ClO −2 according to valence shell
Karnataka-CET-2013 electron pair repulsion (VSEPR) theory will be
Ans. (d) : When one s and three p and two d-orbitals (a) Planar triangle (b) Angular
mixed together to form a six new equivalent sp3d2 or (c) Tetrahedral (d) Square planar
d2sp3 hybrid orbitals. The type of hybridisation d2sp3 or AIIMS-2012
sp3d. The structure atomic orbitals is octahedral. −
Ans. (b): The shape of ClO 2
250. Which one of the following have linear
structure?
(I) I 3– (II) NO -2 (III) I +3 (IV) SO2
(V) N -3
The shape of ClO −2 has angular according to valence
(a) I, II and III (b) I and V
shell electron pair repulsion (VSEPR) theory. The
(c) II, III and IV (d) All of these − 3
UPTU/UPSEE-2013 hybridization of ClO 2 is sp .
253. In which of the following pairs, the two species 256. Which one of the following statements
are not isostructural? regarding ammonia is not correct?
(a) CO32− and NO3− (b) PCl +4 and SiCl 4 (a) NH3 has sp2 hybridization
(b) NH3 acts as a Lewis base
(c) PF5 and BrF5 (d) AlF63− and SF6
(c) NH3 gas is highly soluble in water
(AIEEE-2012) (d) NH3 is pyramidal in shape
Ans. (c) : The two species are not isostructural is PF5 UP CPMT-2012
and BrF5. PF5 is trigonal bipyramidal and BrF5 square 3
pyramidal structure. Ans. (a) : Ammonia molecule is sp hybridised. It is
trigonal pyramidal with the nitrogen atom at the apex.
Due to the presence of one lone pair of electrons its
shape becomes trigonal pyramidal from tetrahedral.
257. In which of the following pairs, the central
atoms have the same number of lone pairs of
electrons?
254. Which of the following molecules has trigonal (a) PCl5 , BrF5 (b) XeF2 , ICl
planar geometry? −
(a) IF3 (b) PCl3 (c) XeF4 ,ClO 4 (d) SCl 4 ,CH 4
(c) NH3 (d) BF3 AP-EAMCET- (Engg.)-2011
JCECE - 2012 Ans. (b) : XeF2 and ICl have the central atoms are Xe
Ans. (d) : (a) IF3 has bent-T geometry and I respectively have the same number of lone pairs
of electrons.
(b) PCl3 has pyramidal geometry

258. The hybridisation of Xe and the number of lone
pairs of electrons on it in XeF6 are
(a) sp3d 2 ,1 (b) sp3d 3 , 2
(c) NH3 has pyramidal geometry (c) sp3d 2 , 2 (d) sp3d 3 ,1
AP-EAMCET- (Engg.)-2011
Ans. (d) :
(d) BF3 has trigonal planer geometry

F
F B
F XeF6 has distorted octahedral structure. The
(µ = 0) hybridisation of Xe is sp3d3 and present one lone pair.
255. The C—H bond and C—C bond in ethane are 259. A σ bonded molecule MX3 is T-shaped. The
formed by which of the following types of number of non bonded pair of electrons is
overlap? (a) 0
(a) sp2 - s and sp2-sp2 (b) sp-s and sp-sp (b) 2
(c) p-s and p-p (d) sp3-s and sp3- sp3 (c) 1
Karnataka-CET-2012 (d) can be predicted only if atomic number is
Ans. (d) : In ethane the structure is – known
BITSAT 2011
Ans. (b) : For T-shape geometry the molecule must
have 3 bonded pair and 2 lone pair of electrons.
260. Pick out the iso-electronic structures from the
following
In ethane C atom are sp3 hybridised and attached with CH 3+ ; H 3 O + ; NH 3 ; CH 3−
single sigma bond. I II III IV
The H atoms are 1s to form σ-bond. The C–H bond and (a) I and II (b) I and II
C–C bond in ethane are formed by sp3–s and sp3–sp3 (c) I and IV (d) II,III and IV
overlap. CG PET- 2011
Ans. (d) : The structure of given compound are – Ans. (d) : Formal charge decided the lowest energy
(i) CH 3+ (ii) H3O+ structure from a number of possible Lewis structure is
given species.
Formal charge = Total no. of valence electron – non
1
bonding e– − × bonding e–
Trigonal planar Pyramidal 2
In SO3,
(iii) NH3 (iv) CH 3−
Pyramidal Pyramidal 1
Hence, the iso-electronic structures are H3O+, NH3 and Formal charge of S atom = 6 − 0 − × 12 = 0
2
CH 3− . 1
Formal charge of O atom = 6 − 4 − × 4 = 0
261. The structure of IF7 is 2
(a) Square pyramid Hence, the option (d) is most preferred and lowest
(b) Trigonal bipyramid energy of SO3.
(c) Octahedral
(d) Pentagonal bipyramidal 264. Structure of ICl 2− is
(AIEEE-2011) (a) Trigonal
Ans. (d) The structure of IF7 is pentagonal bipyramidal. (b) Octahedral
It has sp3d3 hybridisation and angle is 90°, 72°. (c) Square planar
(d) Distorted trigonal bipyramidal
UP CPMT-2011
Ans. (d) : In ICl−2 , I is sp3d-hybridised. The structure of
ICl−2 is distorted trigonal bipyramidal due to the
262. The bonds present in the structure of presence of lone pair of electrons.
dichromate ion are
265. XeF4 has a shape of
(a) four equivalent Cr––O bonds only
(a) spherical (b) trigonal bipyramidal
(b) six equivalent Cr––O bonds and one O––O
bond (c) square planar (d) tetrahedral
(c) six equivalent Cr––O bonds and one Cr––Cr CG PET- 2010
bond Ans. (c): XeF4 (Xenon tetrafluoride) has a shape of
(d) eight equivalent Cr––O bonds square planar.
(e) six equivalent Cr––O bonds and one Cr––O– • Hybridization : sp3d2
–Cr bond • Bond angle : 90o, 180o
Kerala-CEE-2011
Ans. (e) : The dichromate ion ( Cr2 O 72− ) . There is –2
charge on overall molecule. In dichromate ion has two
chromium atoms.
The 6 Cr–O bonds have equal length and the charge is
on the overall molecule. The structure of the dichromate
di-anion can be represented in two forms. 266. Match the following.
Column I Column II
(Molecules) (Number of lone
pairs on central
atom)
263. Which of the following structures is the most A. NH3 1. Two
preferred and hence of lowest energy for SO3? B. H 2O 2. Three
C. XeF2 3. Zero
(a) (b) D. CH4 4. Four
5. One
A B C D
(a) 5 1 3 2
(b) 3 1 2 5
(c) (d)
(c) 5 1 2 3
(d) 1 5 3 4
NEET-2011 AP-EAMCET- (Engg.) - 2010
Ans. (c) : Ans. (e) : (i) H2 molecule has 1 σ-bond.
Column –I Column –II H–H
(molecules) (no. of lone pairs (ii) HCl molecule has 1 σ-bond.
on central atom) H – Cl
(iii) Water molecule has 2 σ-bond and two lone pairs.
NH3
(iii) Ethylene molecule has 5 σ-bond and 1π-bond.
H 2O (iv) Acetylene (C2H2) molecule has 2π-bond and 3σ-

bond.
269. In which of the following molecules is hydrogen

bridge bond present?
(a) Water (b) Inorganic benzene
(c) Diborane (d) Methanol
XeF2 WB-JEE-2010
Ans. (c) : Diborane (B2H6) is the chemical compound
consisting of boron and hydrogen with the formula
B2H6. If is a colourless and highly unstable gas at room
temperature with a repulsively sweet odour. Diborane
mixed with air easily and forming explosive mixture.
CH4
267. Which one of the following conversions involve

change in both hybridization and shape?
270. The number of pπ – dπ 'pi' bonds present in
(a) CH4 → C2H6 (b) NH3→ NH +4 XeO3 and XeO4 molecules, respectively are
(c) BF3→ BF4− (d) H2O → H3O+ (a) 3, 4 (b) 4, 2
KARNATAKA-CET, 2010 (c) 2, 3 (d) 3, 2
Ans. (c) : VITEEE- 2009
(a) CH 4 
→ CH 3 – CH 3
4bp + 0lp 4bp 4bp
Hybridisation sp3 sp3 sp3
Structure tetrahdral tetrahdral
+
(b) NH 3 
→ NH 4
3bp + 1lp 4bp
Hybridisation sp3 sp3
Structure pyramidal tetrahedral
(c) BF3 → BF4−


3bp 4bp
Structure trigonal tetrahedral
planar
(d) H O
2 → H3O +

2bp + 2lp 3bp + 1lp 271. Which of the following specis in non-linear ?
Structure angular pyramidal (a) ICl−2 (b) I3−
Thus, conversion of BF3 into BF4− involves change or (c) N 3− (d) ClO −2 .
both hybridisation and shape.
AMU – 2009
268. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) H2 molecule has 1 σ bond Ans. (d) :
(b) HCl molecule has1 σ bond
(c) Water molecule has 2 σ bonds and two lone
pairs
(d) Ethylene molecule has 5 σ bonds and 1π bond
(e) Acetylene molecule has 3π bonds and
3 σ bond
Kerala-CEE-2010
Ans. (a) : Diatomic nitrogen (N2) molecule has a triple
bond between the two atoms one σ bond from
combining of 2pz atomic orbitals and two π–bonds from
the combination of 2px and 2py respectively. The lewis
structure to N2 molecule.
x N ≡ Nx
x x
276. The shape of XeF4 molecule and hybridization

of xenon in it are
(a) tetrahedral and sp3
272. A compound has four sp3 hybridised covalent (b) square planar and dsp2
bonds. Its shape is (c) square planar and sp3d2
(a) linear (b) square planar (d) octahedral and sp3d2
(c) octahedral (d) tetrahedral (e) octahedral and d2sp3
BCECE-2009 Kerala-CEE-2009
Ans. (d) : A compound has four sp3 hybridised covalent Ans. (c) : The structure of XeF is square planar–
4
bonds. It shape is tetrahedral.
When one s-orbital and 3p-orbitals belonging to the
same shell of an atom mix together to form four new
equivalent orbital, the type of hybridisation is called a
tetrahedral and angle is 109°28'.
273. The shape of XeOF2 on the basis of VESPR The shape of 3XeF 2
4 is square planar and the
theory is hybridisation is sp d .
(a) See saw (b) V-shaped 277. The compound in which the number of dπ-pπ
(c) Trigonal planar (d) T-shaped bonds are equal to those present in ClO 4– , is:
J & K CET-(2009) (a) XeF4 (b) XeO3
Ans. (d) : The structure of XeOF2 on the basis of (c) XeO4 (d) XeF6
VSEPR theory. AP-EAMCET/2008
Ans. (b): The structure of ClO 4–
In XeOF2 molecule the shape is T-shaped and

hybridisation is sp3d. It contain 3dπ – pπ bonds and XeO3 contain 3dπ –
274. The shape of PCl3 molecule is pπ bonds as:
(a) trigonal bipyramidal (b) tetrahedral
(c) pyramidal (d) square planar
JCECE - 2009
Ans. (c) : The shape of PCl3 is trigonal pyramidal. The O
central atom P has one lone pair of electrons and three
3
bond pairs of electron. The hydridisation of PCl3 is sp . 278. The H H b bond angle in H2O is 104.5°. This
fact can be best explained with the help of
(a) Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion
(VSEPR) Theory
(b) Molecular Orbital Theory
(c) Presence of hydrogen bond
275. Which of the following represents the Lewis (d) Electronegativity difference between
structure of N2 molecule? hydrogen and oxygen atoms.
MPPET-2008
Ans. (a) :
H2O has sp3 hybridisation and bond angle is 104.5°. It is

explained with the help of Valence Shell Electron Pair
Repulsion (VSEPR) theory.
279. The actual geometry of NO2– is
(a) Planer (b) Linear
(c) V -shape (d) Tetrahedral
JCECE - 2009 MPPET-2008
Ans. (c) : the geometry of NO2– is Ans. (c) : The structure of the molecule –
:
N
−
O O Cl − Be − Cl
V– shaped geometry. Linear (sp) Triangular planar (sp2)
280. Match the following 282. Which of the following is not tetrahedral ?
List-I List-II (a) BF4– (b) NH +4
(A) BCl3 (i) Linear (c) CO32– (d) SO 2–
4
AP-EAMCET/2007
(B) PdBr42– (ii) Planar triangular
Ans. (c): The structure are given as :
(C) SF6 (iii) Tetrahedral
(D) I 3– (iv) Octahedral
(v) Square planer
The correct match is
A B C D
(a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(b) (v) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) (ii) (v) (iv) (i)
(d) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Ans. (c) :
Hence, CO32– is a trigonal planar.
283. In which of the following pairs, the two species
are iso-structural?
(a) SO32− and NO3− (b) BF3 and NF3
(c) BrO3− and XeO3 (d) SF4 and XeF4
NEET-2007
2– Ans. (c) : The iso-structural species are –
Br Br
(B) PdBr42– dsp 2 and
Pd
Br Br Pyramidal Pyramidal
(Square planer) So, the two species BrO3− and XeO3 both are iso-
2–
structural.
Br Br 284. Among the following, the pair in which the two
(B) PdBr42– dsp 2 species are not isostructural is
Pd
(a) IO3− and XeO3 (b) PF6− and SF6
Br Br
(c) BH −4 and NH +4 (d) CO32 − and NO −2
(Square planer) (e) SiF4 and SF4
Kerala-CEE-2007
Ans. (d&e) :
Species Structure
IO3− Pyramidal
XeO3 Pyramidal
PF6− Octahedral
SF6 Octahedral
BH −4 Tetrahedral
281. Which one of the following is a correct set with
respect to molecule, hybridisation and shape? NH +4 Tetrahedral
2
(a) BeCl2, sp , linear CO32− Trigonal planar
(b) BeCl2, sp2, triangular planar
(c) BCl3, sp2, triangular planar NO −2 V-shaped
3 SiF4 Tetrahedral
(d) BCl3, sp , tetrahedral
BCECE-2008 SF4 See-saw

285. Match List-I with List-II and choose the 288. Which of the following is not iso-structural
correct matching codes from the choices given. with SiCl4?
List-I List-II (a) NH +4 (b) SCl 4
A. PCl5 1. Linear (c) SO 24− (d) PO34−
B. IF7 2. pyramidal
C. H3O+ 3. Trigonal bipyramidal NEET-2006
D. ClO2 4. Tetrahedral Ans. (b) : The geometry of SiCl4 is tetrahedral and
E. NH 4+ 5. Pentagonal bipyramidal hybridisation is sp3.
6. Angular (i) NH +4 (ii) SCl4
Codes
(a) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1, E-4
(b) A-3, B-5, C-4, D-1, E-2
(c) A-3, B-5, C-6, D-1, E-2 Td See-saw
(d) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-6, E-4
(iii) SO 24− (iv) PO34−
(e) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-4, E-1
Kerala-CEE-2007
Ans. (d) :
List-I List-II
PCl5 Trigonal bipyramidal
IF7 Pentagonal bipyramidal Td Td
H 3O + Pyramidal 289. The shape of sulphate ion is :
ClO2 Angular (a) square planar (b) trigonal
NH +4 Tetrahedral (c) trigonal planar (d) tetrahedral
BCECE-2006
286. Geometry of SiO 4- 4 anion is 2−
Ans. (d) : The sulphate ion is SO 4 and the structure is
(a) tetrahedral (b) trigonal
(c) trihedral (d) pentagonal
MHT CET-2007
Ans. (a) : The structure of SiO 44− anion is –
The shape of sulphate ion ( SO 24− ) is tetrahedral and

hybridisation is sp3.
In SiO 44− has tetrahedral geometry and hybridisation is 290. Among the following, the species having square
sp3. In SiO 44− have four Si–O bond are present. planar geometry for central atom are
287. Which of the following is not a correct (i) XeF4 (ii) SF4 (iii) [NiCl4]2− (iv) [PtCl4] 2−
statement? (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii)
(a) Multiple bonds are always shorter than (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
corresponding single bonds. AIIMS-2006
(b) The electron deficient molecules can act as Ans. (a): The shape of the species are–
Lewis acids
(c) The canonical structures have no real
existence
(d) Every AB5 molecule does in fact have square
pyramid structure
NEET-2006
Ans. (d) : Generally AB5 molecule have trigonal
bipyramidal structure due to sp3d hybridisation but AB5
molecule have three possible geometries – (iii) [NiCl4]2− (iv) [PtCl4]2−
2− 2−
Cl
Cl Cl
Ni Pt
Trigonal bipyramidal Square pyramidal Cl Cl Cl Cl
Cl
Tetrahedral Square planar
Hence, the species having square planar geometry for

Planar pentagonal central atom are XeF4, [PtCl4]2–

291. In which of the following molecules/ions, all the 295. Assertion: SeCl4 does not have a tetrahedral
bonds are not equal? structure.
(a) SF4 (b) SiF4 Reason: Se in SeCl4 has two lone pairs.
(c) XeF4 (d) BF4− (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(AIEEE-2006) the Reason is correct explanation of the
Assertion.
Ans. (a) : In geometry of SF4 molecule is –
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
incorrect.
In SF4 molecule has two type of bond two are axial and (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
two are equatorial. In equatorial position bond length is incorrect.
small in comparison to axial bond length because axial (e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
bond has no hindrance (crowding) in environment. So, correct.
SF4 has show two type of bond. AIIMS-2005
292. Which of the following molecule in its valence Ans. (c): SeCl4 has see-saw geometry, which is
shell has three bond pairs of electrons and one regarded as a distorted trigonal bipyramidal structure,
lone pair of electron? one lone pair of electron is equatorial position of
(a) NH3 (b) H2O trigonal bipyramidal SeCl4 molecules arises due to sp3d
(c) BF3 (d) CO2 hybridisation of the central atom.
J & K CET-(2006)
Ans. (a) : Molecule Bond Pair Lone pair
NH3 3 1
H 2O 2 2
BF3 3 0
CO2 2 0 296. Which of the following molecules has pentagonal
In NH3 (ammonia) molecule in its valence shell has bipyramidal shape?
three bond pairs of electrons and one lone pair of (a) PF5 (b) SF6
electron. (c) XeF6 (d) [Fe(CN)6]3–
293. Which is extremely stable? AMU-2005
(a) NF3 (b) NCl3
Ans. (c) : The shape of molecule are –
(c) NBr3 (d) NH3
(i) PF5 (ii) SF6
JCECE - 2006
nd
Ans. (a) : Nitrogen is belong to 2 period and smaller
in size due to which it can accommodate only atoms
which are smaller in size. Fluorine being smaller in size
can form a better bond with nitrogen because both
belong to 2nd period element. Chlorine belongs to 3rd Trigonal bipyramidal Octahedral
period element it can overlap is not better. So, NF3 is a (iii) XeF6 (iv) [Fe(CN)6]3–
stable compound due to which same shell is involved in
overlap.
294. Which of the following species has a linear
shape?
(a) O3 (b) NO −2
Pentagonal bipyramidal Octahedral
(c) SO2 (d) NO+2
NEET-2006 297. The molecule having a pyramidal shape out of
the following is
Ans. (d) : The shape of the following species – (a) CO2 (b) PCl3
(i) O3 (ii) NO −2
(c) SF4 (d) NH +4
J & K CET-(2005)
Ans. (b) : PCl3 has a pyramidal shape due to
phosphorous atom is sp3 hybridized with three bond
V-shape Bent pairs and one lone pair.
(iii) SO2 (iv) NO +2
+
O=N=O
V-shape Linear

298. The pair having similar geometry is Ans. (d): In SF4 molecule has see-saw structure in
(a) BH3, NH3 (b) BeCl2, H2O which bond angles are different between different S-F
(c) CH4, CCl4 (d) IF5, PF5 atoms. SF4 molecule has sp3d hybridisation and non-
J & K CET-(2005) planar structure. According to VSEPR theory lone pair-
Ans. (c) : lone pair > lone pair-bond pair > bond pair-bond pair
repulsion.
301. Identify the correct sequence of increasing

number of a bonds in the structures of the
following molecules :
I. H2S2O6 II. H2SO3
III. H2S2O5
(a) I < II < III (b) II < III < I
(c) II < I < III (d) I < III < II
Ans. (b) : The molecules are H2S2O6(I), H2SO3(II) and
H 2S 2O 5.
Structure Number of bonds
OH OH
(i) O S S O 9σ, 4π
Hence, the option (a) and (c) both pair have similar O O
geometry. (Dithionic acid)
299. Shape of O2F2 is similar to that of; 

(a) C2F2 (b) H2O2
(c) H2F2 (d) C2H2 S
AIIMS-2004 (ii) OH 3σ, 1π
Ans. (b): The shape of O2F2 and H2O2 are similar. O2F2 O OH
and H2O2 are peroxides (Sulfurous acid)
O O
(iii) HO S S 8σ, 3π
OH
In O2F2 and H2O2 , one O–O bond lying in a plane and O
two O–F bonds lying in different plane. H2O2 and O2F2 (Disulfurous acid)
has non–linear and non–planar structure. O2F2 and H2O2 Hence, the correct sequence of increasing number of a
both have open book type structure. bonds is given as:- II < III < I.
300. Assertion: All F−S−F angle is SF4 are greater 302. Which one of the following has the regular
than 90º but less than 180º, tetrahedral structure?
Reason: The lone pair- bond pair repulsion is (Atomic number : B = 5, S = 16, Ni = 28,
weaker than bond pair- bond pair repulsion. Xe=54)
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and (a) XeF4 (b) SF4
the Reason is correct explanation of the 2−
Assertion. (c) BF4− (d)  Ni ( CN )4 
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but (AIEEE-2004)
Reason is not a correct explanation of the Ans. (c) : The structure of the species are –
Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
correct.
AIIMS-2004
306. The electronic theory of bonding was proposed
by :
(a) Pauling (b) Lewis
(c) Bronsted (d) Mullikan
BCECE-2003
Ans. (b) : The electronic theory of bonding was
In BF4− has the regular tetrahedral structure. proposed by Lewis. Pauling gave the scale of electro
negativity, Bronsted gave the concept of acid and base.
303. Two oxides of nitrogen, NO and NO2 react
Mullikan gave the determination charge on electron.
together at 253K and form a compound of
nitrogen, X. X reacts with water to yield 307. The geometry of the molecule having s and p-
another compound of nitrogen, Y. The shape of characters equal to 25% and 75% respectively, is:
the anion of Y molecule is (a) trigonal (b) linear
(a) Tetrahedral (b) Angular (c) tetrahedral (d) octahedral
(c) Square Planar (d) Pyramidal JCECE - 2003
AP EAMCET- 2003 Ans. (c): The geometry of molecule having S and P-
Ans. (b) : When NO and NO2 react together at 253 K character equal to 25% and 75% respectively is
then N2O3 is formed. N2O3 (X) is react with H2O to tetrahedral.
form the hyponitrous acid (HNO2) 308. Which one of the following is the correct with
NO + NO2 253K
→ N 2 O3 reference to molecular formula, hybridisation
'X '
of central atom and shape of the molecule?
N 2O3 + H 2 O → 2HNO2 (a) CO2, sp2, bent (b) H2O, sp2, bent
'Y '
(c) BeCl2, sp, linear (d) H2O, sp3, linear
HNO 2 → H + + NO 2− AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2002
Ans. (c) : (a) CO2, =C=
Hybridisation = sp
Shape = linear
The shape of NO −2 is shown in figure which is angular (b)
in shape.
304. Compound X is anhydride of sulphuric acid. Hybridisation = sp3
The number of σ -bonds and the number of Shape = Angular
π -bonds present in X are, respectively (c) BeCl 2 ,Cl — Be — Cl
(a) 3, 3 (b) 4, 2 Hybridisation = sp
(c) 2, 4 (d) 4, 3 Shape = linear
AP EAMCET- 2003 Thus, the correct option is (c).
Ans. (a) : Sulphuric acid decomposes to give sulphure 309. Assertion: Sigma (σ) is a strong bond, while pi
trioxide, SO3 and H2O, thus SO3 is regarded as (π) is a weak bond.
anhydride of sulphuric acid
Reason: Atoms rotate freely about pi (π) bond.
H 2SO4 
− H2O
→ H 2 O + SO3 (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
the Reason is correct explanation of the
Assertion.
3σ and 3π are present in anhydride of H2SO4.
Assertion.
305. Which one of the following is a correct set with (c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
respect to molecule hybridisation and shape? incorrect.
(a) BeCl2, sp2, linear (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
2
(b) BeCl2, sp , triangular planar incorrect.
(c) BCl3, sp2, triangular planar (e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
3
(d) BCl3, sp , tetrahedral correct.
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2003 AIIMS-2002
Ans. (c) : The molecules are
Ans. (c): Sigma (σ) bonding involves end to end
BeCl2 BCl3 overlapping of two atomic orbitals. eg. s and s, s and p
Cl–Be–Cl and p and p orbitals.
Hybridisation = sp π-bonding involves sidewise overlapping of the two
Shape = linear atomic orbitals. eg. p and p orbital.
Hence, the overlapping of orbitals is more effective in σ
bonding than in π-bonding due to lateral overolap in
π- bonding atom cannot rotate freely in π-bond.
310. The shape of IF5 is (c) B – Cl bond is more polar than N – Cl bond
(a) pentagonal bipyramidal (d) N – Cl bond is more covalent than B – Cl
(b) square pyramidal bond
(c) octahedral NEET-1995
(d) trigonal planner Ans. (b) : BCl3 is planar molecule where as NCl3 is
UP CPMT-2001 pyramidal because BCl3 has no lone pair but NCl3 has a
Ans. (b) : Hybridization and lone pair of electrons lone pair of electron.
decide the geometry of molecule.
Trigonal planar Pyramidal

2 3
The hybridization in IF5 molecule is sp3d2 but geometry 315. d sp hybridization represents which of the
is square pyramidal instead of octahedral due to presence following configurations?
of lone pair of electron in valence shell of iodine. (a) Tetrahedral (b) Square planar
(c) Linear (d) Octahedral
AP-EAMCET/1992
Ans. (d) : Molecule having d2sp3 hybridization of
central atom is octahedral geometry. This type of
hybridization forms the inner orbital complexes.
311. The number of lone pairs of electrons present • Tetrahedral geometry has the sp3 type of
on Xe in XeF4 is : hybridization.
(a) 3 (b) 4 • The hybridization of square planer geometry is dsp2.
(c) 1 (d) 2 • The linear geometry has 180° bond angle with sp
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 2001 hybridization.
Ans. (d): The structure of XeF4 is square planar:
316. Which one of the following formulae does not
correctly represents the bonding capacities of
the two atoms involved?
Number of lone pairs of electrons present on Xe in XeF4

is 2. The hybridization of Xe is sp3d2.
(a) (b)
312. Which of the following is the correct pair?
(a) BeCl2 – linear (b) NH3 – linear
(c) CO2 – Tetrahedral (d) BF3 – octahedral (c) (d)
AP-EAMCET/2000
NEET-1990
Ans. (a):
Molecule Hybridization Geometry/Shape Ans. (d) : The structure, does not
BeCl2 sp Linear
NH3 sp3 Pyramidal correctly represent the bonding capacities of atom
CO2 sp Linear because the valency of carbon is four but one carbon
BF3 sp2 Trigonal planer has three bonds attached and other carbon have five
Hence, option (a) is correct. bond attached.
313. According to VSEPR theory the shape of the 317. Which of the following molecules does not have
water molecule is: a linear arrangement of atoms?
(a) linear (b) planar triangle (a) H2S (b) C2H2
(c) V-shaped (d) octahedral (c) BeH2 (d) CO2
AP EAMCET (Medical) -1998 NEET-1989
Ans. (c): The structure of H2O– Ans. (a) : The structure of given molecule –
(i) H2S (ii) C2H2
H − C ≡ C− H
The hybridisation of water molecule is sp3. There is two sp sp
lone pair electron present on oxygen atom due to which V-shaped Linear
they acquire the V-shaped. (iii) BeH2 (iv) CO2
314. The BCl3 is a planar molecule whereas NCl3 is H − Be − H O = C= O
pyramidal because sp sp
(a) nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom Linear Linear

(b) BCl3 has no lone pair but NCl3 has a lone pair H2S molecule does not have a linear arrangement of
of electrons atom.
318. Among the following molecule Ans. (3) : V2O3 is most basic oxide. Total number of
(i) XeO3 (ii) XeOF4 (iii) XeF6 unpaired electron in V+3 is n = 2.
Those having same number of lone pairs on Xe Hence, the spin only magnetic moment
are µs = n(n + 2)
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i) and (iii) only
(c) (ii) and (iii) only (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) 2(2 + 2) = 8 = 2.87 BM
µs =
VITEEE 2019 ≈ 3 BM.
Ans. (d) : 321. which of the following is paramagnetic?
(a) NO+ (b) CO
(c) CN (d) O2
Odisha NEET-2019, NEET-2013
JIPMER-2004, AMU–2001
Ans. (d) : Oxygen is a paramagnetic molecule. Its
molecular orbital configuration is
O2 = (σ2s)2(σ*2s)2(σ*2pz)2(π 2p 2x = π 2p 2y )
(π* 2p1x = π* 2p1y )
O2 molecule has unpaired electron its
show
paramagnetic.
322. N2 and O2 are converted into monocations,
N +2 and O +2 respectively. Which of the following
statements is wrong
(a) In N +2 , the N−N bond weakens.
(b) In O +2 , the O−O bond order increases.
All molecule have same number of lone pairs on Xe. (c) In O +2 , paramagnetism decreases.
319. Which of the following molecules/ions does not (d) N +2 becomes diamagnetic.
contain unpaired electrons? AIIMS-2013, Kerala CEE-2010
(a) O 22− (b) B2 NEET-1997
(c) N +2 (d) O2 Ans. (d): Molecular orbital configuration of these are -
(i) N 2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p 2x = π2p 2y , σ2p 2z
AIEEE 2008
Ans. (a) : According to molecular orbital diagram – 10 − 6
B.O = =3
(i) For O 22− = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , σ 2p 2z , π2p 2x 2
O = σ1s , σ *1s , σ2s , σ * 2s , σ2p , π2p = π2p , π * 2p
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1
= π2p 2y , π* 2p 2x = π* 2p 2y (ii) 2 z x y x
= π * 2p 1
O 22− molecules/ions does not contain unpaired

y
10 − 6
electrons. B.O = =2
2
(ii) For B2 = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , π2p1x = π2p1y (iii) N = σ1s , σ *1s , σ2s , σ * 2s , π2p = π2p , σ2p
+ 2 2 2 2 2 2 1
2 x y z
B2 molecules/ions contain two unpaired electron. 9−4

B. O = B.O = = 2.5
(iii) For N +2 = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ 2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , π2p 2x 2
= π2p 2y , σ2p1y (iv) +
O = σ1s2 ,σ *1s2 ,σ2s2 ,σ * 2s 2 ,σ2p , π2p 2 2
+ 2 z x
N 2 molecule/ions contain one unpaired electron. 2 1

= π2p , π * 2p = π * 2p y x y
(iv) For O 2 = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , σ2p z2 , π2p x2 10 − 5
B.O = = 2.5
= π2p 2y , π* 2p1x = π* 2p1y 2
O2 molecule/ions contain two unpaired electron. ∴Bond order ∝ Bond strength.
If bond order increase then bond strength also increase
+
Thus, N is paramagnetic so, the option (d) is correct
2
3. Magnetic behavior of according to the question.

Molecules 323. The molecule NO is
(a) paramagnetic
(b) diamagnetic
320. The spin–only magnetic moment value of the (c) ferromagnetic
most basic oxide of vanadium among V2O3, (d) an even electron molecule.
V2O4 and V2O5 is _____ B.M. (Nearest integer) J & K CET-(2012)
JEE Main-26.06.2022, Shift-I CGPET-2010, NEET-1995
Ans. (a) : The molecular orbital configuration is – Ans. (d): KO2 is a superoxide in which only one
For, electron is released from the dioxygen atom and a
NO = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p z2 , π2p 2x , = π2p 2y superoxide ion is represented as O2– . In KO2 the
1
π * 2p1x = π * 2p y oxygen atoms bear − oxidation state and they also
2
In NO has one unpaired electron, it show a behave as a free radical species having an unpaired
paramagnetic. electron. KO2 is paramagnetic due to presence of
324. Paramagnetism is shown by unpaired electrons.
(a) N2 (b) O2 328. The species analogous to paramagnetic
(c) F2 (d) CO2 behaviour like O2 is
Manipal-2018 (a) monoclinic sulphur (b) rhombic sulphur
(c) colloidal sulphur (d) gaseous sulphur.
J & K CET-(2012)
AMU-2019, 2014
UPTU/UPSEE-2004
Ans. (d) : The formula of gaseous sulphur exists as S2.
Ans. (b) : The paramagnetirm is show by O2 molecule The S2 molecule has two unpaired electron in the
because it has two unpaired electron. The molecular antibonding 3p orbital and hence the species analogous
orbital configuration of to paramagnetic behavior like O2 is gaseous sulphur.
O2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p z2 , π2p1x , = π2p 2y 329. Which one of the following is not paramagetic?
π * 2p1x = π * 2p1y (a) NO (b) N +2
325. The paramagnetic behaviour of B2 is due to the (c) CO (d) O −2

presence of BCECE-2012
(a) two unpaired electrons in πb MO NEET-2000
Ans. (c) : In CO, number of electron = 14
(b) two unpaired electrons in π * MO According to molecular orbital configuration is -
CO= σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p 2x = π2p 2y , σ2Pz2
(c) two unpaired electrons in σ * MO
In CO all electron are paired. Hence, it show
(d) two unpaired electrons in σb MO diamagnetic not a paramagnetic.
WB-JEE-2012
330. Atomic number of Cr, Fe and Co are 24, 26
UPTU/UPSEE-2004 and 27 respectively. Which of the following
Ans. (a) : The most electronic configuration to inner orbital octahedral complexes are
B2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p1x = π2p1y, paramagnetic?
(a) [Co (NH3)6]3+ (b) [Co(CN)3]3+
It is paramagnetic due to two unpaired electron on two (c) [Fe(CN)6] 4–
(d) [Cr (CN)6]3–
unpaired electron π - molecular bonding orbital. AP EAPCET 23-08-2021 Shift-I
326. In which of the following ionization processes Ans. (d) : All complexes are the inner orbital
the bond energy increases and the magnetic complexes because of availability of strong field ligand.
3+
behaviour changes from paramagnetic to (i) [Co(NH3)6]
diamagnetic? Let, Oxidation state of Co is x
(a) O2 → O 2 +
(b) C2 → C 2 + ∴ x + 6(0) = +3
or x = +3
(c) NO → NO+ (d) O2 → O +2
Karnataka NEET-2013
Ans. (c) :
NH3 show strong field ligand in Co+3
Total electron present in NO is 15. ‘NO’ is (ii) [Co(CN)3]3+
paramagnetic in nature because it have one electron Let, Oxidation state of Co is x
(unparied electron) in 2px orbital. When we remove the ∴ x + 3(0) = +3
one electron from NO we get the NO+ which is in or x = +3
diamagnetic in nature because unpaired electron are not
present.
327. KO2 exhibits paramagnetic behaviour. This is
due to the paramagnetic nature of
(a) KO– (b) K+ (iii) [Fe(CN)6]4–
(c) O2 (d) O 2− Let, Oxidation state of Fe is x
AP EAMCET (Engg.) -2014 ∴ x + 6(–1) = –4
AIIMS-2003 or x = +2

Ans. (c) : The molecular orbital configuration is –
B+2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p1x , = π2p y
Number of unpaired electron in B+2 = 1
(iv) [Cr(CN)6]3– ∴ Magnetic moment (µ) = n ( n + 2)

Let, Oxidation state of Cr is x
= 1(1 + 2 )
∴ x + 6(–1) = –3
or x = +3 = 3 = 1.73 BM
= 173 × 10–2 BM.
334. A colourless, neutral, paramagnetic oxide of
nitrogen ‘P’ on oxidation gives reddish brown
gas Q, Q on cooling gives colourless gas R. R on
reaction with P gives blue solid S. Identify P, Q,
Hence, the correct option is (d). R, S respectively
331. Which of the following is not arranged in the (a) N2O, NO, NO2, N2O5
correct sequence? (b) N2O, NO2, N2O4, N2O3
(a) MO, M2O3, MO2, M2O5 – Decreasing basic (c) NO, NO2, N2O4, N2O3
nature (d) NO, NO, N2O4, N2O5
(b) Sc, V, Cr, Mn – Increasing number of Karnataka-CET-2021
oxidation states
5 3 1 4
(c) d , d , d , d Increasing magnetic moment Ans. (c) :
(d) Mn2+, Fe2+, Cr2+, Co2+ decreasing stability
Ans. (c) : Magnetic moment (µ) = n(n + 2
Where n = number of 4n paired electro n.
So d1 : µ = 1(1+ 2) = 3 = 1.73BM
d2 : µ = 2 ( 2 + 2 ) = 8 = 2.83 BM
d3 : µ = 3 ( 3 + 2 ) = 15 = 3.88 BM
d4 : µ = 4 ( 4 + 2 ) = 24 = 4.90 BM
335. The bond order and the magnetic
d5 : µ = 5 ( 5 + 2 ) = 35 = 5.92 BM characteristics of CN − are
So the increasing magnetic moment 1
(a) 3, diamagnetic (b) 2 , Paramagnetic
d 1 < d 2 < d 3 < d 4 < d 5. 2
1
332. The bond order and magnetic behaviour of (c) 3, paramagnetic (d) 2 , diamagnetic
O −2 ion are, respectively 2
(JEE Main 2020, 7 Jan. Shift-II)
(a) 1.5 and paramagnetic Ans. (a) : The molecular orbital configuration is–
(b) 1.5 and diamagnetic
(c) 2 and diamagnetic CN– = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p x2 = π2p 2y , π2p z2
(d) 1 and paramagnetic No. of bonding e − − No.of antibonding e −
(JEE Main 2021, 26 Aug. Shift-II) Bond order=
2
Ans. (a) : The molecular orbital configuration is – 10 − 4
For O2– = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p z,2 π2p 2x , = π2p 2y = =3
2
π * 2p 2x = π * 2p1y The magnetic characteristic of CN– is diamagnetic.
It is a paramagnetic 336. If the magnetic moment of a dioxygen species is
− − 1.73 BM, it may be:
No.of bonding e − No.of anti bonding e
B.O. = (a) O 2 ,O −2 or O +2 (b) O −2 or O 2+
2
10 − 7 3 (c) O 2 or O 2− (d) O 2 or O 2+
= = = 1.5 (JEE Main 2020, 9 Jan. Shift-II)
2 2
+ Ans. (b) : The molecular orbital configuration is–
333. The spin-only magnetic moment value of B 2
For O12− = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2
species is ......... × 10–2 BM. (Nearest integer)
[Given, 3 = 1.73 ] σ2p2z , π2p2x = π2p2y , π* 2p2x = π* 2p1y
(a) 100 (b) 120 The no. of unpaired e– in O −2 =1
(c) 173 (d) 160
(JEE Main 2021, 1 Sep Shift-II) Magnetic moment (µ)= n(n + 2)

= 1(1 + 2) = 3 = 1.732
+
For O = σ1s , σ 1s , σ2s , σ* 2s 2 σ2p 2z
2
2 * 2 2
π2p 2x = π2p 2y , π* 2p1x = π* 2p y

The no. of unpaired e– in O +2 =1
Magnetic moment (µ) = n(n + 2)
= 1(1 + 2) = 3 = 1.732 BM
337. Which of the compounds among N2O, NO,
N2O3, NO2, N2O4, N2O5 are diamagnetic ?
(a) NO, NO2, N2O3
(b) N2O, N2O3, N2O4, N2O5
340. Assertion: Ferromagnetic compound is more
(c) NO, NO2 attracted in magnetic field.
(d) N2O4, N2O5 Reason: Because all electron are aligned in
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 17.09.2020 Shift-I same direction.
Ans. (b) : Let us draw the structure of nitrogen oxides. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion.
Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion.
incorrect.
Ans. (a): Ferromagnetic compound is more attracted in
N2O, N2O3, N2O4, N2O5 do not have unpaired electrons magnetic field due to all electron are aligned in same
(n = 0). So, they are diamagnetic (µ = 0). direction.
Magnetic linear force is imaginary in the sense it cannot
338. The magnetic property of NO2 is ....... be seen as a live around the magnet but lines of force
(a) Ferromagnetic (b) Diamagnetic are not non-physical in the sense their presence can be
(c) Non-magnetic (d) Paramagnetic detected experimentally.
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.9.2020 Shift-I 341. MnO is:
Ans. (d) : Magnetic property of NO2 (g) is (a) Ferromagnetic (b) Antiferromagnetic
paramagnetic due to the presence of unpaired electron (c) Ferrimagnetic (d) Diamagnetic
on N-atom of NO2. AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Morning)
Ans. (b): Mn has a 5 electrons in the d-subshell which
make its orbital half-filled. So it has maximum
magnetic moment amond 3d elements and has the value
of magnetic susceptibility greater than zero. The
339. Assertion: In vapour state, S2 molecule shows magnetic susceptibility is greater than magnitude and
paramagnetic behaviour. the electrons are aligned such that they cancel the
Reason: S2 molecule has two paired electrons in effects of each other due to opposite direction. Hence,
the antibonding t2g orbital like O2. MnO is shown antiferro-magnetism.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Note- Metal like Fe, Co, Ni show ferromagnetism
Reason is the correct explanation of 342. Among the following molecules/ions,
Assertion. C22− , N 22− ,O 22− ,O 2
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Which one is diamagnetic and has the shortest
Reason is not the correct explanation of bond length ?
Assertion. (a) C 22− (b) O 2
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. 2−
(c) O 2 (d) N 2-2
incorrect. (JEE Main 2019, 8 April Shift-II)
AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Evening) Ans. (a) : The molecular orbital configuration is –
2−
Ans. (c): : In ordinary condition sulphur exists as S8 in (i) C 2 = σ1s 2
, σ *1s 2
, σ 2s 2
, σ * 2s 2 , π2p 2x = π2p 2y , σ2p 2z
solid state. In vapour state sulphur partly exists as S2 It is a diamagnetic.
molecule. In S2 molecule has two unpaired electrons in 10 − 4
Bond order = =3
the antibonding π* orbitals. 2

2− n=5 (unpaired electron)
(ii) N 2 =σ1s , σ *1s , σ2s , σ * 2s , σ2p z, π2p x = π2p y
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
Magnetic moment = 5(5 + 2) = 35 = 5.92 BM

π * 2p1x = π * 2p1y For Fe3+ =
It is a paramagnetic n=5 (unpaired electron)
10 − 6 Magnetic moment = 5(5 + 2) = 35 = 5.92 BM
Bond order = =2 Hence, the order of theoretical magnetic moment
2
is Cr3+ < Mn2+ = Fe3+
(iii) O 22− = σ1s , σ *1s , σ2s , σ * 2s , σ2p z, π2p x
2 2 2 2 2 2
346. The ground state magnetic property of B2 and
C2 molecules will be:
= π2p 2y , π * 2p 2x = π * 2p 2y (a) B2 paramagnetic and C2 diamagnetic
It is a diamagnetic (b) B2 diamagnetic and C2 paramagnetic
10 − 8 (c) Both are dimagnetic
Bond order = =1 (d) Both are paramagnetic
2 WB-JEE-2017
(iv) O 2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p 2z, π2p 2x Ans. (a) : The molecular orbital configuration is –
(i) B2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p1x = π2p1y,
= π2p 2y , π * 2p1x = π * 2p1y It is a paramagnetic due to two unpaired electron in B2
It is a paramagnetic molecule.
10 − 6 (ii) C 2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p x2 = π2p 2y,
Bond order = =2
2 It is a diamagnetic due to zero unpaired electron.
1 347. A transition elements with atomic number 24
∴ Bond order ∝ will have its magnetic moment
Bond length
(a) 5.92 B.M.
When bond order increase then bond length decrease.
(b) 6.93 B.M.
Hence, C 22− has diamagnetic and shortest bond length. (c) it will be diamagnetic
343. Which of these species will have non-zero (d) it will be more than 8 B.M.
magnetic moment? COMEDK 2015
(a) Na+ (b) Mg Ans. (b) :A transition metal element with atomic
(c) F– (d) Ar+ number 24 is chromium. The electronic configuration of
WB-JEE-2019 Cr is [Ar]3d54s1. There are six unpaired electron present
Ans. (d) : Ar+ contain unpaired electron having in outer shell orbit. Hence, The spin only magnetic
configuration [Ne] 3s23p5. All other species do not have moment is 6(6 + 2) = 6.93BM
unpaired electron.
348. Which one is diamagnetic molecule/ion?
344. In 3d-series as we move from scandium to zinc,
the paramagnetism: (a) O +2 (b) O −2
(a) increases (c) O 22 − (d) O 2
(b) decreases SRMJEEE – 2014
(c) first increases to a maximum and then decreases Ans. (c)
(d) first decreases to a minimum and the increases.
COMEDK 2018 (a) O +2 (15) = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 σ2p 2z
Ans. (c) : In 3d-series, as we move from scandium to π2p 2x = π2p 2y , π*2 p1x
manganese, the paramagnetism increases due to (b) O −2 (17) = σ1s 2 σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2
increasing the number of unpaired electron but after
manganese, the paramagnetic character decreases due to σ2p 2z , π2p 2x = π2p 2y , π* 2p 2x = π* 2p1y
the decreasing number of unpaired electron. unpaired electron = 1 (Paramagnetic)
345. Which of the following is the correct order for (c) O 22 − (18) = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2
the theoretical magnetic moment?
(a) Cr 3+ > Mn 2 + = Fe3+ σ2p2z , π2p2x = π2p2y , π* 2p2x = π* 2p2y
(b) Cr 3+ = Mn 2 + < Fe3+ unpaired electron = 0 (diamagnetic)
(c) Cr 3+ < Mn 2 + = Fe3+ (d) O2 (16) = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2
(d) Cr 3+ < Mn 2 + < Fe3+ σ2p 2z , π2p 2x = π2p 2y , π* 2p1x = π* 2p1y
GUJCET-2017 unpaired electron = 2 (paramagnetic)
Hence, the correct option is C.
Ans. (c) : For Cr3+ =
349. The highest magnetic moment is shown by the
n=3 (unpaired electron) transition metal ion with the configuration
Magnetic moment = 3(3 + 2) = 15 = 3.83BM (a) 3d2 (b) 3d5
(c) 3d7 (d) 3d9
For Mn2+ = SRMJEEE – 2014
Ans. (b) : The number of unpaired electrons increase, π2p 2x = π2p 2y , σ2p 2z
magnetic moment increases.
No unpaired electron is present, so it is a diamagnetic
µ = n(n + 2) BM species.
Where n = No. of unpaired electron 353. Which one of the following molecules is
(i) 3d2 ⇒ n = 2, µ = 2.82 BM expected to exhibit diamagnetic behaviour?
(ii) 3d5 ⇒ n = 5, µ = 5.92 BM (a) C2 (b) N2
(iii) 3d7 ⇒ n = 3, µ = 3.87 BM (c) O2 (d) S2
(iv) 3d9 ⇒ n = 1, µ = 1.73 BM Karnataka-CET-2013
Hence, configuration 3d5 has highest magnetic moment. Ans. (a, b) : The molecular orbital configuration are–
350. The ratio of magnetic moment (spin only value)
between [FeF6]3– and [Fe(CN)6]3– is (i) C2= σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , π2p 2x = π2p 2y
approximately It is diamagnetic
(a) 4 (b) 2 (ii) N2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p 2x , = π2p 2y , σ2p 2z
(c) 5 (d) 3
AMU-2014 It is a diamagnetic
Ans. (d) : In [FeF6]3– and [Fe(CN)6]3– both have Fe3+ In (iii) O2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ 2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ 2p z2 , π2p1x , = π2p 2y
[FeF6]3–, F– being a weak field ligand. In [Fe (CN)6]3–,
CN– being a strong field ligand. π * 2p1x = π * 2p1y
It is paramagnetic.
[FeF6]3– = Fe3+=
n = 5 (unpaired electron) (iv) S2 = ………. 3p 2z , π3p 2x , = π3p 2y , π *3p1x , = π *3p1y
It is paramagnetic.
Magnetic moment ( µ1 ) = n ( n + 2 )
354. For simple molecules NO2 and S2, Which one of
= 5(5 + 2) the following statements is correct?
(a) Both are diamagnetic.
= 5× 7 (b) NO2 is diamagnetic while S2 is paramagnetic.
= 35 = 5.9BM (c) S2 is diamagnetic while NO2 is paramagnetic.
[Fe(CN)6]3– = Fe3+ = (d) Both are paramagnetic.
SCRA 2012
n = 1 (unpaired electron)
Ans. (d) : Total valence electrons in NO2 = 17
Magnetic moment ( µ 2 )
= n ( n + 2) NO2 has a free unpaired electron -It is an odd
electron molecule. Therefore it is paramagnetic
= 1(1 + 2 )
= 3 = 1.73BM Diatomic sulphur (S2) is paramagnetic in nature like as
µ 5.9
So, Ratio of µ and µ = 1 = = 3.41  3 O2 molecule.
µ 2 1.73
1 2
355. The spin only magnetic moment of Ni2+ (in

351. Paramagnetism is exhibited due to which one B.M) in aqueous solution will be
of the following reason? (a) 1.73 (b) 2.82
(a) Presence of unpaired electrons (c) 3.42 (d) 2.25
(b) Presence of completely shell electronic COMEDK-2012
subshell
Ans. (b) : The electronic configuration of Ni2+ is
(c) By non-transition element
[Ar]3d8. The number of unpaired electron is 2. Hence
(d) By elements with noble gas configuration
the spin only magnetic moment will be
J & K CET-(2014)
Ans. (a) : Paramagnetism is exhibited due to presence 2(2 + 2) = 2.8 B.M
of unpaired electron. 356. Among the following ions, which has the
Paramagnetism refers to the magnetic state at an atom highest spin magnetic moment?
with one or more unpaired electron. The unpaired (At. No: Ti = 22; Mn = 25; Ni = 28; Cu = 29)
electron are attracted by a magnetic field due to the (a) Cu2+ (b) Ti3+
electron magnetic dipole moment. 2+
(c) Ni (d) Mn2+
352. The diamagnetic molecule among the following SRMJEEE – 2012
is :
(a) O2 (b) N2 Ans. (d) : Magnetic moment is directly proportional to
the number of unpaired electrons
(c) N −2 (d) O −2
(i) Cu2+ : n = 1
UP CPMT-2014 (ii) Ti3+ : n = 1
Ans. (b) : Molecules having no unpaired electrons are (iii) Ni2+ : n = 2
diamagnetic in nature.
(iv) Mn2+ : n = 5
N 2 (14)= σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ 2s 2 , σ *2s 2 , Therefore Mn2+ is highest spin magnetic moment.

357. The paramagnetic oxides of nitrogen are 360. Which one of the following species does not
(a) dinitrogen monoxide and nitrogen monoxide exist under normal conditions?
(b) nitrogen monoxide and nitrogen dioxide (a) Be +2 (b) Be 2
(c) nitrogen dioxide and dinitrogen trioxide (c) B2 (d) Li 2
(d) dinitrogen trioxide and dinitrogen tetraoxide NEET-2010
J & K CET-(2011) Ans. (b) : According to molecular orbital configuration
Ans. (b) : Nitrogen monoxide (nitric oxide) is (i) Be +2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s1
paramagnetic in nature due to one unpaired electron. It
can be represented by the following resonance structure. 4−3
Bond order = = 0.5
Nitrogen dioxide is also paramagnetic due to one 2
unpaired electron. (ii) Be 2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2
358. The pairs of species of oxygen and their 4−4
magnetic behaviour are noted below. Which of Bond order = =0
2
the following presents the correct description? Thus Be2 does not exist under normal condition.
(a) O −2 , O 22− -both diamagnetic (iii) B2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p1x = π2p1y
(b) O + , O 22− -both diamagnetic 6−4
+
Bond order = =1
(c) O , O 2 -both paramagnetic
2
2
(iv) Li 2 = σ1s , σ *1s , σ2s 2
2 2
(d) O, O 22− -both paramagnetic
4−2
NEET-2011 Bond order = =1
Ans. (c) : The molecular orbital configuration is – 2
Hence, Be2 does not exist under normal condition
(i) O +2 = (15e − ) ⇒ σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p 2z , because bond order is zero.
π2p 2x = π2p 2y , π * 2p1x = π * 2p y 361. Which one of the following sets correctly
represents the increase in the paramagnetic
It is a paramagnetic and one unpaired electron. property of the ions?
Magnetic moment ( µ ) = 1(1 + 2 ) = 3 = 1.73BM. (a) Cu2+ > V2+ > Cr2+ > Mn2+
(b) Cu2+ < Cr2+ < V2+ < Mn2+
(ii) O 2 = (16 e− ) ⇒ σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p z2 , (c) Cu2+ < V2+ < Cr2+ < Mn2+
(d) V2+ < Cu2+ < Cr2+ < Mn2+
π2p x = π2p y , π * 2p x = π * 2p y
2 2 1 1
AP EAMCET (Engg.)-2009
It is a paramagnetic due to two unpaired electron. Ans. (c): Paramagnetic property depend on the number
of unpaired electron. Maximum the number of unpaired
Magnetic moment ( µ ) = 2 ( 2 + 2 ) = 8 = 2.83BM. higher the paramagnetic properties.
359. Which of the O 2 ,O 2 , BN and NN is/are Cu = [ Ar ] 3d , No.of unpaired e = 1
2+ 9 −
- 2-
paramagnetic? V 2+ = [ Ar ] 3d 3 , No.of unpaired e − = 3

(a) NN (b) O 2-
2 Cr 2+ = [ Ar ] 3d 4 , No.of unpaired e − = 4
(c) BN (d) O-2 Mn 2+ = [ Ar ] 3d 5 , No.of unpaired e − = 5
UPTU/UPSEE-2011 Therefore, the order is -
Ans. (d) : According to molecular orbital electronic Cu < V < Cr < Mn
2+ 2+ 2+ 2+
configuration is – 362. Which one of the following molecules is

(i) O −2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p z2 , paramagnetic?
(a) F2 (b) B2
π2p x = π2p y, π * 2p x = π * 2p y
2 2 2 1
(c) Li2 (d) N2
It is a paramagnetic due to 1 unpaired electron. J & K CET-(2009)
2−
(ii) O 2 = σ1s , σ *1s , σ2s , σ * 2s , σ2p z ,
2 2 2 2 2 Ans. (b) : The molecular orbital configuration is –
(i) F 2 = σ 1s 2
, σ *1s 2
, σ 2s 2
, σ * 2s 2
, σ 2p 2
, π 2p 2
, = π2p 2y
π2p 2x = π2p 2y, π * 2p 2x = π * 2p 2y z x
π * 2p 2x = π * 2p 2y
It is a diamagnetic due to zero unpaired electron
(iii) BN = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , It is a diamagnetic
(ii) B 2 = σ 1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ 2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p1x , = π2p1y
π2p 2x = π2p 2y,
It is a paramagnetic
It is a diamagnetic due to zero unpaired electron (iii) Li2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2
(iv) N 2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , It is a diamagnetic
π2p 2x = π2p 2y, σ2p 2z (iv) N2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p 2x , = π2p 2y , σ2p 2z
It is a diamagnetic due to zero unpaired electron It is a diamagnetic

363. When oxyhaemoglobin changes to de- Thus magnetic moment of lanthanoids is given by,
oxyhaemoglobin, Fe2+ ion changes from
µ = g J ( J + 1)
(a) diamagnetic to paramagnetic
(b) paramagnetic to diamagnetic Where J = L – S when the shell is less than half fill
(c) diamagnetic to ferromagnetic J = L + S when the shell is more than half fill
(d) paramagnetic to ferromagnetic 1 S ( S + 1) − L ( L + 1)
and g = 1 +
AP - EAMCET (Medical) - 2007 2 2J ( J + 1)
Ans. (a) : When oxyhaemoglobin changes to
deoxyhaemoglobin, Fe2+ ion changes from diamagnetic 368. Assertion: B2 molecule is diamagnetic.
to paramagnetic. Reason: The highest occupied molecular
orbital is of σ type.
364. Which one of the following oxides is expected to (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
exhibit paramagnetic behavior? the Reason is correct explanation of the
(a) CO2 (b) SO2 Assertion.
(c) ClO2 (d) SiO2 (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
JIPMER-2007 Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Ans. (c) : The structure of ClO2 is – Assertion.
incorrect.
incorrect.
In ClO2 has unpaired electron its show paramagnetic correct.
365. The transition metals mostly are AIIMS-2005
(a) Diamagnetic Ans. (d): Molecular orbital diagram of B2 is-
(b) Paramagnetic
B2= σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p1x = π2p1y
(c) neither diamagnetic nor paramagnetic
(d) both diamagnetic and paramagnetic In B2 it has two unpaired it is paramagnetic and the
CG PET -2006 highest occupied molecular orbital is π-type.
Ans. (b) : Transition metal mostly are show 369. Assertion: Ozone is a powerful oxidising agent
paramagnetic behavior paramagnetism is a property in comparison to O2.
which is shown by the elements having unpaired Reason: Ozone is diamagnetic but O2 is
electrons. In transition metals (n–1) d-orbitals are paramagnetic.
unpaired electron increases from one of five, the (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
paramagnetic character increases. the Reason is correct explanation of the
Assertion.
366. The number of paired electrons is Xe atom of
XeF2 is
(a) 3 (b) 5 Assertion.
(c) 4 (d) 2 (c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
CG PET -2006 incorrect.
Ans. (a) : The structure of XeFe2 is– (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
correct.
AIIMS-2005
Ans. (b): Ozone (O3) is a powerful oxidizing agent in
In XeF2, the number of lone pair (paired electron) on Xe comparison to O2 due to decomposes readily under
is three and bond pair is two. The geometry of XeF2 is normal condition.
trigonal bipyramidol and shape is linear. decompose
O3  → O 2 + [ O ] nascent oxygen
367. The magnetic moment of lanthanide ions is O2 is a paramagnetic due to presence of two unpaired
determined from which one of the following electron, while O3 is diamagnetic.
relation? 370. Electrons in a paramagnetic compound are:
(a) µ = n ( n + 2 ) (b) µ = g J ( J + 1) (a) Shared (b) Unpaired
(c) Donated (d) Paired
(c) µ = g n ( n + 1) (d) µ = 2 n ( n + 1) UPTU/UPSEE-2004
VITEEE- 2006 Ans. (b) : A paramagnetic electrons is an unpaired
Ans. (b) : In case of lanthanoids, 4f–orbitals lie too electron. An atom is considered paramagnetic if even
deep and hence the magnetic effect of the motion of the one orbital has a net spin. An atom could have ten
electron in its orbital is not quenched out. Here spin diamagnetic electrons but as long as it also has one
contribution (S) and orbital contribution (L) couple paramagnetic electron it is still considered as
together to give a new quantum number ‘J’. paramagnetic atom.

371. Assertion: Water is liquid but H2S is a gas. Ans. (a) : The molecular orbital configuration are–
Reason : Oxygen is paramagnetic. (i) O 22 − = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2
the Reason is correct explanation of the σ2p2z , π2p2x = π2p2y , π* 2p2x = π* 2p2y
Assertion. It is diamagnetic.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but (ii) O +2 = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 σ2p 2z
Assertion. π2p 2x = π2p 2y , π* 2p1x = π* 2p y
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is It is paramagnetic.
incorrect. (iii) O2 = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is σ2p 2z , π2p 2x = π2p 2y , π* 2p1x = π* 2p1y
correct. It is paramagnetic
AIIMS-1999 (iv)NO = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ 2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ 2p z2 , π2p1x , = π2p 2y
Ans. (b): Water is liquid but H2S is gas due to which
hydrogen bond in water. π * 2p1x = π * 2p y
Gaseous oxygen is paramagnetic because oxygen It is paramagnetic
molecule has two unpaired electron Thus, reason does 375. Among the following species, the diamagnetic
not justify assertion so, option (b) is correct. molecule is
372. Of the species H +2 , He 2+ , and O 2+ , all are (a) CO (b) B2
(a) diamagnetic (b) paramagnetic (c) NO (d) O2
(c) stable (d) unstable JEE Main 2019
J & K CET-(1997) Ans. (a) : The molecular orbital configuration are–
Ans. (b) : The molecular orbital configuration are (i) CO= σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p 2x = π2p 2y , σ2Pz2
+
(i) H 2 = σ1s 1
It is a diamagnetic
It is a paramagnetic due to one unpaired electron. (ii) B 2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p1x = π2p1y
(ii) He +2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s1 It is a paramagnetic
It is a paramagnetic due to one unpaired electron. (iii)NO = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ 2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ 2p z2 , π2p1x , = π2p 2y
(iii) O +2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p 2z , π2p 2x = π * 2p1 = π * 2p
x y
π2p 2y, = π * 2p1x = π * 2p y It is paramagnetic
It is a paramagnetic due to one unpaired electron. (iv) O2 = (σ2s)2(σ*2s)2(σ*2pz)2(π 2p 2x = π 2p 2y )
Hence, the species H +2 , He 2+ and O +2 are all (π* 2p1x = π* 2p1y )
paramagnetic
373. Which of the following molecules is It is a paramagnetic
paramagnetic?
(a) P2O5 (b) NO2 4. Bond Order, Bond Length,
(c) H2S2O7 (d) N2O5 Bond Angle, Bond Energy
AIIMS-1996
Ans. (b) : The structure of the following are- 376. Amongst the following which one will have
(i) P2O5 (ii) NO2 (iii) H2S2O7 maximum ‘lone pair-lone pair' electron
repulsions?
(a) IF5 (b) SF4
(c) XeF2 (d) CIF3
NEET-17.07.2022
Ans. (c) :
(iv) N2 O5
In NO2 molecule has one paired electrons its

paramagnetic in nature.
374. Which of the following species exhibits
diamagnetic behavior?
(a) O 22− (b) O +2
(c) O2 (d) NO In XeF2 has 3 lone pair and have maximum lone pair-
AIEEE 2007 lone pair electron repulsion.
377. Which amongst the following is incorrect Ans. (c) : The electrolysis and hydrolysis of given
statement? reaction is as given below–
(a) C2 molecule has four electrons in its two 2HSO − (aq)  electrolysis
→ HO3SOOSO3 H (aq)
4
degenerate π molecular orbital's.
↓ Hydrolysis
(b) H +2 ion has one electron.
2HSO −4 + 2H + + H 2 O 2 (aq)
(c) O+2 ion is diamagnetic. ( A)
0
(d) The bond orders of O 2 ,O 2 ,O 2 and O 2 are Hence, the dihedral angle of (A) is 90.2
+ − 2−
2.5, 2, 1.5 and 1, respectively. 380. According to molecular orbital theory, bond
NEET-17.07.2022 order in increasing order will be
(a) O 22 + < O 2 < O −2 < O 22 −
Ans. (c) : O +2 is a paramagnetic due to electron are
unpaired. (b) O 22 − < O 2− < O 2 < O 22 +
For O +2 =σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, σ2p 2z , π2p 2x = π2p 2y , (c) O 2 < O 22 − < O 2− < O 22 +
π *2p1x = π * 2p y (d) O 2 < O 22 + < O −2 < O 22 −
No. of bonding e − − No. of antibonding e − JEE Main-26.06.2022, Shift-I

Bond order = CG PET -2009
2
10 − 5 Karnataka-CET-2016
=
2 NEET-2015, cancelled
= 2.5 Tripura JEE-2021
Hence, O +2 is paramagnetic in nature. Ans. (b) : The given species are O 2+ – 2–
2 , O 2 , O 2 and O 2 .
378. The correct order of bond orders of C2– 2– – 2+
2 , N 2 , Total number of e in O 2 = 14
O 2–
2 is respectively
2 2
(σ2s) (σ* 2s)
2 2
∴ MO configuration = (σ1s) σ*1s ( )
(a) C 2– 2–
2 < N2 < O 22− (b) O 22− < N 2– 2–
2 < C2
(c) C 2– 2− 2–
2 < O2 < N 2 (d) N 2– 2– 2−
2 < C2 < O2
(π2p2x = π2p2y ) (σ2pz )2
JEE Main-24.06.2022, Shift-II No of Bonding e – – No of Antibonding e –
Bond Order =
Ans. (b) : 2
2 = σ1s , σ *1s , σ 2s , σ * 2s , π2p x = π2p y , σ 2p z
(i) C 2– 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 10 – 4
Bond Order = =3
10 – 4 2
Bond order = =3 Total number of e– in O2 = 16
2 2 2
2 2
(ii) N 22− = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p 2z (
∴ MO configuration = (σ1s) σ*1s (σ2s) σ* 2s ) ( )
π2p 2x = π2p2y , π * 2p1x = π * 2p1y (σ2p z ) (π2p2x = π2p 2y ) (π∗ 2p1x = π∗ 2p1y )
2
10 − 6
Bond order = =2 Bond Order =
10 – 6
=2
2 2
(iii) O 22− = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ 2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p 2z , Total number of e − in O 2– = 17
π2p 2x = π2p2y , π * 2p 2x = π * 2p2y 2 2 2 2
10 − 8
(
∴ MO configuration = (σ1s) σ*1s (σ2s) σ* 2s ) ( )
Bond order = =1
(σ2p z ) (π2p2x = π2p 2y ) (π∗ 2p 2x = π∗ 2p1y )
2
2
Hence, the bond order is
10 – 7
C 22− > N 22− > O 22− Bond Order =
= 1.5
2
Total number of e– in O 2–
2 = 18
2HSO 4 (aq) 
– (1) Electrolysis
→ 2HSO 4 + 2H + A
– +
(2) Hydrolysis Similarly,
The dihedral angle in product A in its solid 10 – 8
phase at 110 K is: Bond order = =1
o o 2
(a) 104 (b) 111.5
Hence, the order of bond order will be–
(c) 90.2o (d) 111.0o
JEE Main-26.06.2022, Shift-I O 2– –
2 < O2 < O2 < O2
2+

381. The decreasing order of bond angle is 10 − 6
Bond order = =2
(a) NO 2 > NO 2+ > NO 2– 2
O 22− = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p z2 , π2p x2 = π2p y2 , π * 2p 2x = π * 2p 2y
(b) NO 2– > NO 2 > NO 2+
10 − 8
(c) NO 2+ > NO 2 > NO 2– Bond order = =1
2
(d) NO 2+ > NO 2– > NO 2 In O3 no. of bonds between the atoms is 3. The number
of canonical forms of O3 is 2.
NEET-2015, cancelled
WB-JEE-2013 3
Bond order = = 1.5
NEET-2008 2
J & K CET-(2004) Thus, the increasing order of bond order is
Ans. (c) : The species are NO2, NO +2 and NO 2– O 22− < O3 < O 2
Since, bond order inversely proportional to bond length
then the order is O 22− > O3 > O 2
384. The ONO angle is maximum is:
(a) NO3− (b) NO −2
As well as % s character increases, the bond angle of
central atom with surrounding atom is also increases. (d) NO +2
(c) NO2
Thus, the decreasing order of bond angle will be– Assam CEE-2014
NO +2 > NO 2 > NO 2– BCECE-2010
382. The correct order of bond angles (smallest AIIMS-2004
first) in H2S, NH3, BF3, and SiH4 is Ans. (d): The bond angle is maximum in NO +2 is 180o.
(a) H2S < SiH4 < NH3 < BF3 It is a linear geometry.
(b) NH3 < H2S < SiH4 < BF3 (i) NO3− (ii) NO −2 (iii) NO 2
(c) H2S < NH3 < SiH4 < BF3
(d) H2S < NH3 < BF3 < SiH4
AMU-2016
Assam CEE-2014
AIEEE-2004
Ans. (c) : The structure of the following species –
(i) H2S (ii) NH3 (iii) SiH4

(iv) NO +2
385. Which of the following stability order is

correct?
(a) O 22− > O −2 > O 2 > O +2
(b) O +2 > O 2 > O −2 > O 22−
(iv) BF3 (c) O +2 > O 2 > O −2 > O 22−
(d) O 2 > O +2 > O 22− > O 2−
AMU-2014, 2005
BITSAT-2007
Ans. (b) : Bond order is higher it mean that atom are
held together more tightly. Therefore the stability is
increase.
Hence, the increasing order of bond angles (i) O +2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p z2 ,
H2S < NH3 < SiH4 < BF3 π2p 2x = π2p 2y , π * 2p1x = π * 2p y
383. The correct bond length order is 10 − 5
(a) O 2 < O3 < O 22− (b) O 2 < O 22− < O3 Bond order = 2.5
2
(c) O 22− < O3 < O 2 (d) O 2 = O 22− > O3 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p 2z ,
(ii) O2
BCECE-2018 π2p 2x = π2p 2y , π * 2p1x = π * 2p1y
AIIMS-2017, 2007
Ans. (a): : The MOT electronic configuration is – 10 − 6
Bond order =2
O 2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2pz 2 , π2p 2x = π2p 2y , π * 2p1x = π * 2p1y 2

(iii) O −2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p 2z , Ans. (c): Bond angle of H2S is 92o and H2O is 104o 31.
As the electronegativity of central atom decreases bond
π2p 2x = π2p 2y , π * 2p1x = π * 2p1y angle decreases. In case of sulphur is less electronegative
10 − 7 than oxygen. Thus the bond pair in H2S are more away
Bond order = 1.5 from the central atom than in H2O Since, repulsive force
2 between bond pairs are smaller bond angle.
(iv) O 22− = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p 2z , 389. Assertion: Molecular nitrogen is less reactive
π2p 2x = π2p 2y , π * 2p 2x = π * 2p 2y than molecular oxygen.
Reason: The bond length of N2 is shorter than
10 − 8
Bond order =1 that of oxygen.
2 (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Hence, the stability order is – the Reason is correct explanation of the
O +2 > O 2 > O −2 > O 22− Assertion.
386. The correct order of C – O bond length among Reason is not a correct explanation of the
CO, CO 23 − ,CO2 is Assertion.
(a) CO < CO2 < CO32- (b) CO2 < CO32- < CO (c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
2-
incorrect.
(c) CO < CO < CO2 3 (d) CO32- < CO2 < CO (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
BCECE-2016 incorrect.
CG PET- 2015 (e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
AMU-2013 correct.
Ans. (a) : A bond length is the average distance AIIMS-2007, 2006
between the centers of nuclei of two bonded atom. Ans. (a): Molecular nitrogen is less reactive than
Double or triple bond is always shorter than the molecular oxygen because molecular nitrogen to gain
corresponding single bond. octet by 3 electron but molecular oxygen to gain octet
by 2 electron. The bond length of N2 is shorter than
In CO32− , C–atom is sp2 hybridised. The bond length in oxygen because molecular nitrogen has triple bond
C – O is 133 pm between nitrogen atom.
In CO2 , C–atom is sp hybridised. The bond length in 390. In Fe(CO)5, the Fe–C bond possesses
C–O is 122 pm. (a) ionic character
In CO , C–atom is sp hybridised and bond length is 110 (b) σ-character only
pm. (c) π-character only
So, the order of C – O bond length is
(d) bond σ and π-character
CO < CO2 < CO32− AMU-2013
387. The pair of species that has the same bond AIEEE-2006
order in the following is Ans. (d) : In metal carbonyl compound possess both σ
(a) CO, NO+ (b) NO–,CN– and π character. In Fe(CO)5 , dπ–pπ metal to ligand
(c) O2, N2 (d) O2, B2 back bonding in Fe – C bond of Fe(CO)5.
AIIMS-2016 391. Which of the following has the largest bond
Karnataka NEET-2013 length?
Ans. (a) : CO = 6+8=14 electrons (a) O +2 (b) O2
NO+= 7+8–1=14 electrons
(c) O −2 (d) O 22−
Both have same electronic configuration is:
AMU-2004, 2003
σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , σ2p z2 , π2p x2 = π2p 2y +
Ans. (d) : Bond order in O 2 = 2.5
10 – 4
So both have bond order = =3 Bond order in O2 = 2
2
Bond order in O −2 = 1.5
388. Assertion: Bond angle of H2S is smaller than
H 2O Bond order in O −2 2 = 1
Reason: Electronegativity of the central atom ∴ O −2 2 has the largest bond length.
increases, bond angle decrease.
the Reason is the correct explanation of 392. What is the correct sequence of bond order?
Assertion (a) O2+> O2–> O2 (b) O2> O2–> O2+
+ –
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but (c) O2 > O2 >O2 (d) O2–> O2+ >O2
Reason is not the correct explanation of TS-EAMCET-04.08.2021, Shift-I
Assertion. AMU 2002
+ −
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect Ans. (c): The species are O 2 , O 2 and O2. The
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect molecular electronic configuration is given below-
AIIMS-2013, 2011 O2+(Total electron 15)
= σ1s 2 σ*1s 2 σ2s 2 σ* 2s 2 σ 2p z2 π2p x2 = π2p 2y π* 2p1x (a) C < B < A < D (b) B < C < A < D
(c) D < C < A < B (d) B < A < C < D
10 − 5 Karnataka-CET-2011
Bond order = = 2.5
2 NEET-1992
Similarly, O −2 (Total electron = 17) Ans. (d) : In C2H6, carbon-carbon bond is single (1.54
Å).
10 − 7
Bond order = = 1.5 In C6H6, carbon-carbon bond is partially double
2 (1.39 Å).
and O2 (Total electron)= 16 In C2H4, carbon-carbon bond is double (1.34 Å)
10 − 6 In C2H2, carbon-carbon bond is triple (1.20 Å)
Bond order = =2
2 396. Arrange the following in the increasing order
Thus, the correct sequence of bond order is O +2 > O2 > of their bond order
−
O . O 2 , O 2+ ,O 2− and O 22 − :
2
(a) O 22 − ,O 2− , O 2 , O 2+ (b) O 22 − ,O 2− , O 2+ , O 2
393. Of the species, NO, NO + , NO 2+ and NO − , the
one with minimum bond strength is (c) O +2 , O 2 , O 2− , O 22 − (d) O 2 , O 2+ , O 2− , O 22 −
(a) NO + (b) NO Manipal-2019
(c) NO 2+ (d) NO − Karnataka-CET, 2009
(JEE Main 2020, 5 Sep. Shift-I) Species : O 22 − O 2− O2 O 2+
J & K CET-(2017) Ans. (a) :
Bond Order : 1 1.5 2 2.5
Ans. (d) : As we know, bond order is directly
proportional to the bond strength of the molecule. 397. The calculated bond order of superoxide ion
Firstly, we calculate the bond order i.e. O −2 is
10 – 5 (a) 2.5 (b) 2
NO (Total e– = 15) ⇒ B.O. = 2.5 (c) 1.5 (d) 1
2 J & K CET-(2015)
10 – 4 Karnataka-CET, 2008
NO+ (Total e– = 14) ⇒ B. O. = =3
2 Ans. (c) : The MO configuration of superoxide ion is–
9–4 2 2
O 2– (total e– = 17) = (σ1s) σ∗1s (σ2s ) σ∗ 2s
( ) ( )
2 2
NO2+ (Total e– = 13) ⇒ B. O. = = 2.5
2
(σ2pz ) (π2p2x = π2p 2y ) (π∗ 2p2x = π∗ 2p1y )
2
10 – 6
NO– (Total e– = 16) ⇒ B. O. = =2
2
N b − N a 10 − 7 3
Greater is the bond order, smaller is the bond length. As Bond order = = = = 1.5
the bond order increases, the bond strength increases as 2 2 2
atoms in bonding come closer to each other. Hence, 398. The sequence that correctly describes the
NO– has minimum bond strength. relative bond strength pertaining to oxygen
394. Which one of the following compounds has the molecule and its cation or anions is:
smallest bond angle ? (a) O22– >O2– > O2 > O2+
(a) SO2 (b) H2O (b) O2 > O2+ >O2– > O22–
(c) SH2 (d) NH3 (c) O2+ > O2 > O22– > O2–
(AIEEE-2003) (d) O2+ > O2 > O2– > O22–
JCECE - 2008 (e) O2 > O2– > O22– > O2+
Ans. (c) : The species are given below– Manipal-2018
Kerala-CEE-2006
Ans. (d) : Bond strength or stability of the molecule or
ion depends on the bond order. Bond order is directly
proportional to the bond strength. The higher is the
bond order, the higher will be bond strength or stability
of ion.
Molecule / ions Bond order
O 2–
2 1
According to the VSEPR theory– SH2 has two lone pair O 2– 1.5
with two bond pair repulsion due to which they get O2 2
minimize the angle (S has greater size than oxygen).
O +2 2.5
395. Increasing order of carbon-carbon bond length
Thus, the order of bond strength of the given species
for the following is will be –
C 2H 4 C 2H 2 C 6H 6 C 2H 6
O +2 > O 2 > O 2– > O 22–
(A) (B) (C) (D)
399. Which of the following pair have identical bond
order?
(a) CN– and NO+ (b) CN – and O 2–
(c) CN – and CN + (d) NO+ and O –2
(e) O –2 and CN +
Kerala-CEE-2017, 2009 Hybridisation = 4 + 1 = 5 (sp3d)
Ans. (a) : The molecule which have same number of The two S – F bond (axial bond) are longer than the
total electron having the identical bond order. two S – F bond (equitorial bond) due to the bond pair –
(a) CN– and NO+ bond pair repulsion. Hence, SF4 has unequal bond
2 2 length.
CN– (total e– = 14) = (σ1s) σ∗1s (σ2s ) σ∗ 2s
( ) ( )
2 2
(d) The structure of BF4– is same with the SiF4. Hence,
(π2p2x = π2p2y ) (σ2pz )2 both have regular geometry with same bond length.
6–4 402. Given below are two statement : one is labelled

Bond order = =2 as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
2 Reason (R).
6–4 Assertion (A) : The H—O—H bond angle in
NO+ (total e– = 14) = =1
2 water molecule is 104.5º.
(b) CN– (total e– = 14) (c) CN– (total e– = 14) Reason (R) : The lone pair-lone pair repulsion
– –
O 2 (total e = 17) CN+ (total e– = 12) of electrons is higher than the bond pair - bond
+ –
(d) NO (total e = 14) (e) O2– (total e– = 17) pair repulsion.
(a) A is false but R is true.
O 2– (total e– = 17) CN+ (total e– = 12) (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
400. H–O–O bond angle in H2O2 is explanation of A.
(a) 90o (b) 180o (c) A is true but R is false.
(c) 109.5o (d) 94.8o (d) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A.
UP CPMT-2005
MHT CET-02.05.2019, SHIFT-II (JEE Main 2021, 16 March Shift-I)
Ans. (d): Ans. (d) : The water molecule molecule has two lone
pair electron on own central atom. According to the
VSEPR theory– the repulsion between two lone pair
reduces the bond angle between them i.e. 104.5°. The
repulsive interaction of electron pairs decreases in the order.
∴ H–O–O bond angle in H2O2 is 94.8 . o
Lone pair-Lone pair > Lone pair–Bond pair > Bond
401. Which among the following species has unequal pair-Bond pair.
bond lengths? Hence, both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and R
(a) XeF4 (b) SiF4 is the correct explanation of A.
−
(c) SF4 (d) BF4
(JEE Main 2021, 25 Feb Shift-II)
Ans. (c) : The Species has regular geometry when there
are no any lone pair present on the central atom. The 403. The correct shape and I—I—I bond angles
structure of the given species is as under– respectively in I −3 , ion are
(a) Distorted trigonal planar, 135º and 90º
(b) T-shaped, 180º and 90º
(c) Trigonal planar, 120º
(d) Linear, 180º
(JEE Main 2021, 24 Feb Shift-II)
Ans. (d) : The given ions is I −3 . The hybridization of I −3
Hybridisation = 4 + 2 = 6 (sp3d2)
All Xe – F bonds are equal due to regular geometry is sp3d. The geometry of the molecule is linear with
180° bond angle.
Hybridisation = 4 + 0 = 4 (sp3)
All Si–F bonds are equal.

404. Match List-I with List-II. 407. Assertion (A) : The bond dissociation energy
List-I List-II increases from F2 to Cl2 and
(Molecule) (Bond order) then decreases to I2
(a) Ne2 (i) 1 Reason (R) : The low bond energy of
fluorine is due to the repulsion
(b) N2 (ii) 2 between the lone pairs of
(c) F2 (iii) 0 electrons in two fluorine
(d) O2 (iv) 3 atoms.
Choose the correct answer from the options The correct option among the following is :
given below: (a) (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct
(a) (a) → (i), (b) → (ii), (c) → (iii), (d) → (iv) explanation for (A)
(b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the
(b) (a) → (iv), (b) → (iii), (c) → (ii), (d) → (i) correct explanation for (A)
(c) (a) → (ii), (b) → (i), (c) → (iv), (d) → (iii) (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
(d) (a) → (iii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (i), (d) → (ii)
JEE Main 26.02.2021,Shift-II
Ans. (a) : The bond dissociation energy increases from
Ans. (d) : According to molecular orbital theory F2 to Cl2 and then decreases to I2
electrons in a molecule are not assigned to individual The bond energy of Fluorine is due to the repulsion
chemical bonds between atoms. between the lone pair of electrons in two fluorine atoms.
Molecule Bond order Hence, A and R is true and (R) is the correct
Ne2 0 explanation for (A).
N2 3 408. Given below are two statements: one is labeled
as Assertion A and the other is labeled as
F2 1
Reason R:
O2 2 Assertion A : The H–O–H bond angle in water
Note-Bond order is a measurement of the number of molecule is 104.50.
electrons involved in bonds between two atoms in a Reason R : The lone pair-lone pair repulsion of
molecule. electrons is higher than the bond pair -bond pair
405. The molecule which has the maximum bond repulsion.
enthalpy is? In the light of the above statements, choose the
(a) N2 (b) HF correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
(c) F2 (d) CO
explanation of A
TS-EAMCET 09.08.2021, Shift-I (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
Ans. (d) : explanation of A
Molecule Bond Enthalpy (kJ/mol.) (c) A is true but R is false
N2 –– 945 (d) A is false but R is true
HF –– 565 JEE Main 16.03.2021, Shift-I
F2 –– 159 Ans. (a) : The given assertion and reason both are true.
CO –– 1070 The H–O–H bond angle in water molecule is 104.5o
because of lone pair-lone pair repulsion the bond angle
406. The order of the average bond length of the decreases from 109.50 to 104.50.
given bonds is
(a) C = O < C = N < C ≡ C < N − O
(b) C ≡ C < C = O < C = N < N − O
(c) C ≡ C < C = O < N − O < C = N
(d) C = N < C = O < N − O < C ≡ C
TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 06.08.2021
3
Ans. (c): Bond length is defined as the average distance In water O-atom is sp hybridized with 2B.P & 2L.P
between nuclei of two bonded atoms in a molecule. 409. Which among the following species has unequal
1 bond lengths ?
∴ Bond length ∝ (a) XeF4 (b) SiF4
bond order
(c) SF4 (d) BF4–
C ≡ C< C = O < N − O < C = N
So, 
increasing order of bond length
→ JEE Main 25.02.2021, Shift-II
Ans. (c) : (i) The hybridisation of
Bond Bond length XeF4 = No. of b.p + No. of l.p
C≡O 1.20 = 4 + 2 = 6(sp3d2)
C=O 1.23 Octahedral geometry
N–O 1.36 (ii) SiF4 = No. of bond pair
C=N 1.38 = 4(sp3) hybridisation
(iii) SF4 = No. of bond pair + No. of lone pair 413. Which of the following represents the correct
= 4+1 = 5(sp3d) order of Cl–O bond lengths in
ClO − ,ClO 2− ,ClO −2 ,ClO 4−?
(a) ClO −4 = ClO3− = ClO 2− = ClO −
(b) ClO − < ClO 2− < ClO3− < ClO −4
(c) ClO 4− < ClO3− < ClO 2− < ClO −
(d) ClO3− < ClO 4− < ClO 2− < ClO −
See–saw shape and axial bond length is more than [BITSAT-2021]
equatorial bond length. 1
Ans. (c) : Bond order ∝
(iv) BF4− = sp3 i.e, Tetrahedral shape Bond length
410. How many among the given species have a When bond order is increase then the bond length
bond order of 0.5? decrease,
H +2 . He +2 . He-2 . B +2 . F2- . Be 2- For ClO − ,ClO 2,− ClO3− , and ClO 4− , the bond order are 1,
2
(a) 2 (b) 3 1.5, 1.66 and 1.75 respectively
(c) 1 (d) 4 Therefore, the order of bond length is
− − − −
AP EAPCET 19-08-2021, Shift-II ClO 4 < ClO3 < ClO 2 < ClO
Ans. (d) : Given species - H +2 , He2+ , He2− , B2+ , F2− ,Be 22− 414. The difference between bond orders of CO and
Total valence electron is written as - NO ⊕ is x/2 where x = ...... .
H +2 = 1, He +2 = 4 − 1 = 3, He2− = 4 + 1 = 5, B2+ = 6 − 1 = 5, (Round off to the nearest integer).
(a) 1 (b) 2
F2− = 14 + 1 = 15 , Be 22− = 4 + 2 = 6 (c) 3 (d) 0
Formula - (JEE Main 2021, 27 July Shift-I)
No.of bonding e − − No.of antibonding e − Ans. (d) : As we know that CO and NO+ have equal no
Bond order =
2 of total electron so they have same bond order i.e.
+ 1 − 0 1 + 3 − 2 1 Total e– = 14
∴ H2 = = B2 = = 2 2
2
2 −1 1
2 2
11 − 4
2 ( 2
)
∴ MO configuration = (σ1s ) σ*1s (σ2s) σ* 2s ( 2
)
He +2 = = Fe −2 = = 3.5 2
2 2 2 ( )
π2p 2x = π2p 2y (σ2Pz )
2
3− 2 1 4−2
He 2− = = Be 22− = =1 10 – 4
2 2 2 B.O. = =3
411. Which of the following is the correct sequence 2
of bond-energies? According to the question–
(a) (O – O) > (S – S) > (Se – Se) > (Te – Te) x
Difference between bond order of CO and NO+ =
(b) (Te – Te) > (Se – Se) > (S – S ) > (O – O) 2
(c) (S – S) > (Se – Se) > (O – O) > (Te – Te) x
(d) (Te – Te) > (O – O) > (Se – Se) > (S – S) or 3–3=
2
x
Ans. (c) : Bond energy is defined is measure of the or 0=
bond strength of a chemical bond. So the order is - 2
S – S > Se – Se > O – O > Te – Te or x = 0
412. How many among the given species have a 415. The amount of energy required to break a
bond is same as the amount of energy released
bond order of 3?
when the same bond is formed. In gaseous
CO, NO+, C 22− , O 22+ , CN–, NO state, the energy required for homolytic
(a) 1 (b) 3 cleavage of a bond is called Bond Dissociation
(c) 5 (d) 4 Energy (BDE) or Bond Strength. BDE is
AP- EAPCET- 07-09-2021, Shift-I affected by s-character of the bond and the
stability of the radicals formed. Shorter bonds
Ans. (c) : Bond order is the number of chemical bonds are typically stronger bonds. BDEs for some
between a pair of atoms, bonds are given below :
No.of bonding e − − No.of anti bonding e −
Bond order =
2 Cl–Cl(g) → Cl•(g) + Cl•(g) ∆H° = 58 kcal mol–1
So, CO, NO+, C22, O22+, CN– has bond order is 3 and H3C–Cl(g)→H3C•(g)+Cl•(g) ∆H°=85 kcal mol–1
NO. has bond order 2.5 H–Cl(g) → H•(g) + Cl•(g) ∆H° = 103 kcal mol–1
Correct match of the C–H bonds (shown in 418. The correct order of Sulphur oxygen bond
bold) in Column J with their BDE in Column K order in SO3, S2 O 2– 2–
3 and SO 4 are
is
(a) SO 2– 2–
4 < S2 O 3 < SO3
Column J Column K
(b) SO 2–4 < SO3 < S2 O 3
2–
Molecule BDE(kcal mol -1 )
(c) S2 O32– < SO 2–
4 < SO3
(P) H – CH(CH 3 )2 (i) 132
(d) S2 O3 < SO3 < SO 2–
2–
4
(Q) H – CH 2 Ph (ii) 110
(R) H – CH = CH 2 (iii) 95
Ans. (c) : Bond order is the number of chemical bonds
(S) H – C ≡ CH (iv) 88 between a pair of atoms.
(a) P – iii, Q – iv, R – ii, S – i SO3 = 2
(b) P – i, Q – ii, R – iii, S – iv SO 2–
4 = 1.5
(c) P – iii, Q – ii, R – i, S – iv S2 O32– = 1.33
(d) P – ii, Q – i, R – iv, S – iii 2– 2–
JEE advance 2021 So decreasing order SO3 > SO 4 > S2 O3
Ans. (a) : 419. Bond order is an inverse measure of ––
H − CH(CH3 ) 2 → HC& − CH3 (a) Bond-length
| (b) Bond-angle
CH 3 (c) Bond dissociation energy
&
H − CH 2 Ph → CH 2 − Ph (d) Stability
• AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-I
H – CH = CH 2  → C H = C H2 Ans. (a) : Bond order is the number of chemical bonds
H − C ≡ CH → C& ≡ CH between a pair of atoms.
Order of stability of free radical is Q > P > R > S 1
1 Bond order ∝
Stability of free radical ∝ bond length
Bond energy Since the bond order increases bond length decreases.
∴ Order of bond energy– S > R > P > Q 420. Assuming AB is an ionic compound and rc, ra
416. Which of the following set contains same bond are the ionic radii of A+ and B– respectively.
angle around central atom? The lattice energy of the compound AB is
(a) CH4, SF4 NH3 (b) NF3, BCl3, NH3 proportional to:
(c) BF3, BCl3, BBr3 (d) BF3, NF3, AlCl3
r
TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-I (a) c
Ans. (c) : Bond angle depend on hybridization on ra
central atom. 1
Species Hybridization (b)
2 rc + ra
BF3 sp
BCl3 sp2 r
(c) a
BBr3 sp2 rc
417. How many among the given species have the
– +
highest bond order? CN , CO, NO , O2 , O2, N2 + (d) (rc + ra )
(a) 5 (b) 2 AP EAPCET-6 Sep. 2021, Shift-II
(c) 3 (d) 4 Ans. (b) : According to Coulomb’s law, Lattice energy
TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-I is inversely proportional to the internuclear distance of
Ans. (d) : Bond Order = the given ionic solid.
− −
No.of bonding e − No.antibonding e Lattice energy (U) ∝ c a
q .q
2 rc + ra
The lactic energy of the compound AB is
proportional to
1
⇒ U∝
rc + ra
421. The compound that has the largest H—M—H

bond angle (M = N, O, S, C) is
(a) H2O (b) NH3
(c) H2S (d) CH4
Bond order represent number of bond between two atom. (JEE Main 2020, 5 Sep Shift-II)
Ans. (d)
(a)
(d)
Hybridisation = Bond pair + Lone pair
=2+2
= 4 (sp3)
Ans. (c) : The potential energy curve for the diatomic
molecule i.e. H2 as a function of internuclear distance
(b)
which is expressed by the Born–Oppenheimer
approximation.
(c)
Hybridisation = 2 + 2 = sp3 (4)
(d)
Hence, CH4 has the largest H–M–H bond angle.
422. The potential energy curve for the H2 molecule
as a function of internuclear distance is 423. Arrange the following bonds according to their
average bond energies in descending order
C—Cl, C—Br, C—F, C—I
(a) C—F > C—Cl > C—Br > C —I
(a)
(b) C—Br > C —I > C —Cl > C — F
(c) C—I > C—Br > C — Cl > C — F
(d) C — Cl > C — Br > C — I > C — F
(JEE Main 2020, 8 Jan. Shift-II)
Ans. (a) : As we move down on the halogen group the
electronegativity decreases and size of element
increases due to which the average bond energy is also
decreases.
Bond Bond enthalpies / kJmol–1
(b)
C–F 452
C – Cl 351
C – Br 293
C –I 234
424. The formal charge on central oxygen atom in
ozone is
(a) –1 (b) 0
(c) +2 (d) +1
(c) Karnataka-CET-2020
Ans. (d) : The Lewis structure of O3 may be drawn as :

10 − 8
O 22− (18e − ) : BO = =1
Total no. of non - 2
bonding electron 10 − 4
NO + (14e − ) : BO = =3
2
10 − 8
F2 (18e− ) : BO =
Total no. of
–1/2 bonding electron =1
2
10 − 6
1 N 22− (16e− ) : BO = =2
Formal charge = 6 – 2 – × 6 = 6 – 2 – 3 = +1 2
2 10 − 7
The Formal charge on central oxygen atom in ozone is +1. O −2 (17e − ) : BO = = 1.5
2
425. Bond angle in PH 4+ is more than that of PH3. 10 − 4
CO (14e − ) : BO = =3
This is because 2
(a) lone pair-bond pair repulsion exists in PH3 So, (N2, CO, NO+) have similar bond order, 3.
(b) PH +4 has square planar structure 428. Which among the following represents the
(c) PH3 has planar trigonal structure correct order of variation of bond angles in the
(d) hybridisation of P change when PH3 is given molecules ?
(a) NH3 > NF3 > PCl3 > BF3
converted to PH +4 .
(b) BF3 > PCl3 > NH3 > NF3
Karnataka-CET-2020 (c) BF3 > NH3 > PCl3 > NF3
Ans. (a) : According to the VSEPR theory, the (d) BF3 > NH3 > NF3 > PCl3
structure of PH +4 and PH3 are drawn below– AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-II
Ans. (d) : Bond angle in BF3 (120º), NH3(107º),
NF3(102º) and PCl3(100º).
Due to the absence of lone pair-bond pair repulsion and

presence of four identical bond pair-bond pair Hence, the correct option is (d).
interactions, PH +4 assumes tetrahedral with 109.5° 429. The relationship between the dissociation
bond angle whereas PH3 has lone pair repulsion and it’s energy of N2 and N +2 is
interaction reduces the angle i.e. 93.5°. (a) dissociation energy of N2 = dissociation
426. The correct order of bond energy (in kJ/mol) of energy of N +2
the following molecules is (b) dissociation energy of N2 can either be lower
(a) O2<B2<C2<N2 (b) B2<C2<O2<N2 or higher than the dissociation energy of N +2
(c) C2<O2<B2<N2 (d) B2<O2<C2<N2
(c) dissociation energy of N2> dissociation
(e) B2<O2<N2<C2
energy of N +2
Kerala-CEE-2020
Ans. (d) : Bond energy is directly proportional to bond (d) dissociation energy of N +2 > dissociation
order. Here, N2 has highest bond order equal to 3 and B2 energy of N2.
has lowest bond order equal to 1. So, order will be, COMEDK 2019
B2<O2<C2<N2 Ans. (c) : N2 (14e–) =
427. Which of the following sets of species have σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p 2x = π2p 2y , σ2p z2
similar bond order ?
B.O. of N2>B.O. of N +2
(a) N 2 ,O 22− , NO + (b) N 2 ,F2 ,O 22−
− − +
Thus, dissociation energy of N2> Dissociation energy of N +2 .
(c) N 2 , N ,O 2 2 (d) N 2 ,CO, NO
430. The correct order of S-S bond length in
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 17.09.2020 Shift-I following oxyanions is:
Nb − Na (I) S2 O 24− (II) S2 O52− (III) S2 O62−
Ans. (d) : Bond order, BO =
2 (a) I > II > III (b) I > III > II
10 − 4
N 2 (14e − ) : BO = =3 (c) III > II > I (d) III > I > II
2 AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Evening)

Ans. (a): The structure of the following are
(i) S2 O 2–
4 (ii) S2 O52– (iii) S2 O62–
2 ( lone pair – lone pair) 1 (lp–lp) All (bp –bp) Total no. of P– O – P bond = 6
2 (bond pair – bond pair 2 (bp – bp) (repulsion) Total no. of P = O bond = 4
Repulsion) Total no. of P–P bond = O
According to the bent rule repulsion is maximum then 433. What is the correct order of bond dissociation
bond length is maximum energy?
Hence, the order is I > II > III. (a) Br2 > Cl2 (b) F2 > Cl2
+ − (c) I2 > F2 (d) F2 > I2
431. Assertion: H 2 and H 2 ions have the same bond
order
Ans. (d): Fluorine has a small atomic size and 2p subs
Reason: H +2 is less stable than H −2 . bell is compact and close to the nucleus.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and On moving down the halogen family and dissociation
Reason is the correct explanation of energy decrease. But in case of fluorine bond
Assertion. dissociation energy of fluorine is lower than chlorine
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but and bromine due to inter electronic repulsion present in
Reason is not the correct explanation of the small atom of fluorine
Assertion. Therefore, the order is –
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. Cl2 > Br2 >+ F2 > I2 .
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. 434. NO has bond order
AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Evening) (a) 2 (b) 2.5
(c) 3 (d) 3.5
Ans. (c): The molecular orbital electronic configuration is –
(e) 4
(i) H +2 = σ1s1 Kerala-CEE-2019
It has 1 electron on σ bonding molecular orbital. Ans. (c) : In NO+ total no. of e– is 14
Bond order = No of bonding e − − No. of antibonding e −
Bond order=
No. of bonding e − − No. of antibonding e − 2
2 10 − 4
Bond order = =3
1− 0 2
= = 0.5
2 435. Bond angle is minimum for
(ii) H −2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s1 (a) H2O (b) H2S
(c) H2Se (d) H2Te
2 −1
Bond order = = 0.5 COMEDK 2018
2
Ans. (d) :The bond angle of hydride of 16 group
Thus, the bond order for both H +2 and H −2 is same but elements decreases on increasing the size of elements.
H +2 is more stable than H −2 due to absence of electron Hence, TeH2 has the least bond angle.
436. % s- character of N- H bonds is maximum in:
in antibonding orbital of H +2 .
(a) N2H2 (b) N2H4
432. In dimer of phosphorus pentaoxide, in what (c) NH3 (d) NH +4
order number of P – P, P = O & P – O – P
AIIMS-27 May,2018 (E)
bonds are there?
Ans. (a): The structure of the following are –
(a) P – O – P > P = O > P – P
(i) N2H2 (ii) N2H4
(b) P = O > P – O – P > P – P
(c) P – O – P > P – P > P = P
(d) P = O > P – P > P – O – P
Ans. (a): The structure of dimmer phosphorous penta
oxide. % s – character = 33 % % s – character = 25%

(ii) NH3 (ii) NH +4 440. Which of the following is not a true statements
about ozone?
(a) Both the O – O bonds in O3 are of equal
length
(b) Bond order lie in between 1 and 2
(c) O −− O −− O bond angle in O3 is
approximately 1160.
(d) Essential for breathing
BCECE-2017
Ans. (d) : In ozone, three oxygen-atoms are arranged in
% s – character = 25 % % s – character = 25% a bent shape. The central oxygen-atom makes one
So, % s-character of N–H bonds is maximum in N2H2. single bond with of the terminal oxygen atom and
437. Which pair of diatomic species do not have double bond with the other terminal oxygen atom
same bond order? (i) Both the O–O bond are equal length.
(a) B−2 ,C 2 (b) O −2 ,B2− (ii) Bond order lies between 1 and 2
(iii) O–O–O bond angle is O3 is approximately 116o .
(c) N +2 ,O +2 (d) O −2 ,C 2
441. The bond order in CN− ion is
AIIMS-27 May,2018 (M) (a) 2.5 (b) 3
Ans. (a): The MOT electronic configuration of the (c) 2 (d) 3.5
following is – CG PET -2017
B−2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p 2x = π2p1y Ans. (b) :
7−4 3 No of Bonding e – – No of Antibonding e –
Bond order = = = 1.5 Bond Order =
2 2 2
Total number of electrons in CN– ions
C 2 = σ1s , σ *1s , σ2s , σ * 2s , π2p x = π2p y
2 2 2 2 2 2
= 6 + 7 + 1 = 14
8−4 2 2
MO configuration = (σ1s) σ∗1s (σ2s ) σ∗ 2s
2 2
Bond order =
2
=2 ( ) ( )
Hence, B−2 and C2 pair of diatomic species do not have ( )( )
π2p 2x = π2p 2y σ 2p 2z
same bond order. Number of bonding electrons = 10
438. Among the following species, which has zero Number of anti-bonding electrons = 4
bond order? 10 − 4
(a) H2 (b) H +2 ∴ Bond order = =3
2
(c) He2 (d) He +2 442. There are two statements, one labelled as
Manipal-2018 Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
– 2 Examine both the statements carefully and
Ans. (c) : (a) H2 (total e = 2) = (σ1s) mark the correct choice.
2–0 (A) The H– O–H bond angle in H2O is greater
Bond order = =1 than
2 H–S–H bond angle in H2S.
(b) H +2 (total e– = 1) = (σ1s)1 (R) Due to larger size of S, hydrogen bonding
1– 0 does not occur in H2S.
Bond order = = 0.5 (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
2 correct explanation of (A).
(c) He2 (total e = 4) = (σ1s)2 (σ *1s) 2
–
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
2–2 (c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
Bond order = =0
2 (d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
(d) He +2 (total e– = 3) = (σ1s) 2 (σ *1s)1 J & K CET-2017
Ans. (b) : H2O and H2S both have sp3 hybridisation.
2 –1 Sulphur is in more atomic size than O. As the size of
Bond order = = 0.5
2 central atom increases, electronegativity decreases and
Hence, He2 has the zero bond order. less repulsion occure between bond pair and lone pair.
439. The bond length (pm) of F2, H2, Cl2 and I2, That's way H2S has less bond angle than pair H2O.
respectively is 443. What will be the correct order of the C–F bond
(a) 144, 74, 199, 267 (b) 74, 144, 199, 267 distance among the following?
(c) 74, 267, 199, 144 (d) 144, 74, 267, 199 CHF3, CF4, CH3F and CH2F2
TS EAMCET-2017 (a) CH3F < CH2F2 < CHF3 < CF4
(b) CH2F2 > CH3F > CHF3 > CF4
Ans. (b) : The size of halogen atom increase on the (c) CH3F > CH2F2 > CHF3 > CF4
down the group then the bond length (X-X) of molecule (d) CH3F > CHF3 > CF4 > CH2F2
also increase. J & K CET-2017
Ans. (c) : As the number of F atoms increases, the 3– 3–
partial positive charge on the C atom increases. Hence, O O
it more strongly attracts the bond pair of electrons. O P O O P O
Hence, the bond strength increases and the bond length
decreases. Thus, the correct order of C – F bond length O O
will be– CH3F > CH2F2 > CHF3 > CF4 Number of bonds 5
444. The common features among CO, CN– and Bond order = = = 1.25
Number of resonating structures 4
NO + are Three unit negative charge is being shared by four O
(a) Bond order three and isoelectronic. atoms.
(b) Bond order three and weak field ligands. Formal charge = –3/4 = –0.75.
(c) Bond order two and π -acceptors.
447. The correct increasing order of bond order
(d) Bond order three and π -donors. values for the concerned species is
(e) Isoelectronic and strong field ligands. – +
(a) O2 < O2 < N2 < N2
Kerala-CEE-2017 – +
(b) O2 < O2 < N2 < N2
Ans. (a) : – +
2 2
(c) O2 < O2 < N2 < N2
CO (total e– = 14) = (σ1s) σ∗1s (σ2s ) σ∗ 2s
( ) ( )
2 2 – +
(d) O2 < O2 < N2 < N2
J & K CET-2016
(π2p2x = π2p2y ) (σ 2p2z ) Ans. (a) : The molecules are O 2– , O2, N +2 , N2.
10 – 4 2 2
N2 (Total e– =14)= (σ1s) σ∗1s (σ2s ) σ∗ 2s
( ) ( )
Bond order = =3 2 2
2
10 – 4
CN– (total e– =14) ⇒ Bond order = =3 (π2p2x = π2p2y ) (σ2pz )2
2
10 – 4 10 – 4
NO+ (total e– = 14) ⇒ Bond order = =3 Bond order = =3
2 2
+ −
All species have 3 bond order. It is also have same N 2 (total e = 13) = (σ1s) (σ 1s) (σ2s) (σ 2s) (π2p x = π2p y )(σ2p z )
2 * 2 2 * 2 2 2 1
electron. So, it is iso-electronic to each other. 9−4

⇒ B.O. = = 2.5
• All the ligand are π-acceptor. 2
445. In which of the following molecules, all bond O (Total e– = 16) = σ1s 2 σ∗1s 2 σ2s 2 σ∗ 2s 2
lengths are not equal? 2 ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
(a) SF6 (b) PCl5
(σ2pz ) π2p2x = π2p 2y π∗ 2p1x = π∗ 2p1y
( )( )
2
(c) BCl3 (d) CCl4
AP-EAMCET – 2016 10 – 6
Bond order = =2
Ans. (b) : 2
Similarly,
10 – 7
O 2– (Total e– =17) = = 1.5
2
Hence, the correct increasing order of bond order is–
O 2– < O 2 < N 2+ < N 2
448. Highest bond energy for a single bond among
3
In PCl5, it shows sp d hybridisation. It form a 5 the following is of
equivalent sp3d orbitals. 3 chlorine atoms are corners of (a) F – F (b) O – O
triangle and 2 chlorine atom are axial position. (c) C – C (d) N – N
Bond length of axial bond is greater than the length of JCECE-2016
equatorial bond length. Hence, the correct option is (b). Ans. (c) : CC bond energy is maximum as–
(a) Carbon shows maximum catenation.
446. In PO 43– , the formal charge on each oxygen
(b) During catenation, all the 4 valence electrons of carbon
atom and the P – O bond order respectively are are used in bond formation, thus has no lone pair.
(a) –0.75, 0.6 (b) –0.75, 1.0 Hence, CC bond shows maximum bond energy.
(c) –0.75, 1.25 (d) –3, 1.25
449. Consider the following molecules:
BITSAT 2016 (1) CH3NH2 (2) CH3OH
Ans. (c) : (3) CH3SH (4) CH3P(CH3)2
3– 3– Which one of the following bonds has the
O O
longest bond length in the above molecules?
O P O O P O (a) C–N (b) C–O
(c) C–S (d) C–P
O O
SCRA-2015
Ans. (c): C–S bonds have the longest bond because Ans. (a) : Methoxy methane and ethanol are functional
bond length of C–S is 182 Å and other is lower. isomers as they have molecular formula C2H6O. But
they differ in functional group. The bond angle of
450. Consider the nitrogen-oxygen bond lengths in methoxy methane is 111.7º and the geometry is V-
NO 2+ , NO 2− and NO 3− . The increasing order of shaped.
N–O bond length is
(a) NO +2 < NO 2− < NO3− (b) NO +2 < NO3− < NO 2−
(c) NO3− < NO 2− < NO 2+ (d) NO3− < NO 2+ < NO 2− 455. Which of the following does not have triple
SCRA-2015 bond between the atoms?
(a) N2 (b) CO
Ans. (c): Bond length is defined as the average distance
between nuclei of two bonded atom in a molecule. (c) NO (d) C 22 –
1 AP-EAMCET (Engg.) 2015
Bond length ∝ Ans. (c) : N2 ⇒ N≡N
Bond order
CO ⇒ C ≡ O+
i.e. Bond length is increased then bond order is
NO ⇒ :N= O &&
decreased.
Bond order of NO +2 is 2, NO −2 is 1.5 and NO3− is 1.33 C22–
⇒ [C ≡ C]2 –
So, the increasing order of N–O bond length is Thus, nitric oxide (NO) has 15 electron and its bond
order 2.5 and does not contain triple bond.
NO +2 > NO −2 > NO3− .
456. What is the bond angle between Cl – O – Cl in
451. Pick the incorrect statement among those given Cl2O7?
below. (a) 109ο (b) 119ο
ο ′
(a) Multiple covalent bonds are shorter than (c) 108 25 (d) 120ο
single covalent bonds between same set of BCECE-2015
atoms. Ans. (b) : Cl2O7 has a bent structure with a bridging O
(b) Bond strength varies inversely with bond – atom. The terminal Cl–O bonds are substantially
length. shorter than the bridge Cl–O bonds indicating double
(c) Bond order of isoelectronic species will be bonds character
same.
(d) Bond enthalpy increases with increasing bond
length.
COMEDK 2015
Ans. (d) : Bond enthalpy decreases with increasing
bond length. 457. The P–P–P angle in P4 molecule and S–S–S
452. The bond length of Br – Br in Br2 molecule is angle in S8 molecule is (in degree) respectively
equal to (a) 600, 1070 (b) 1070, 600
0 0
ο ο
(c) 40 , 60 (d) 600, 400
(a) 0.74 A (b) 1.54 A BITSAT 2015
ο ο Ans. (a) : In P4 molecule, the four sp3-hybridised
(c) 1.98 A (d) 2.28 A phosphorous atoms lie at the corners of a regular
SRMJEEE – 2015
tetrahedron with ∠P − P − P = 600 .
Ans. (d) : The bond length of Br-Br in Br2 molecule is In S molecule S-S-S angle is 1070 rings.
8
ο
equal to 2.28 A
453. The structure of NO 3– ion is
(a) triangle (b) tetrahedral
(c) equilateral triangle (d) planar.
SRMJEEE – 2015
–
Ans. (d) : The given molecule is NO3 458. Which of the following changes in the respective
Hybridisation = number of bond pair + number of lone bond order values are caused by removal of an
electron from N2 and F2 molecules?
pair
2 (a) Decrease by 0.5 in both
Hybridisation = 3 + 0 = 3 (sp ) (b) Increase by 0.5 in both
The hybridisation of given molecule is sp2. Hence, the (c) Increase by 0.5 in the former and decrease by
structure is trigonal planar. 0.5 in the latter
454. The bond angle of bond in methoxy methane is: (d) Decrease by 0.5 in the former and increase by
(a) 111.7º (b) 109º 0.5 in the latter
(c) 108.9º (d) 180º (e) No change in both
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) 2015 Kerala-CEE-2015
Ans. (d) 462. Which of these represents the correct order of
N2 (total e– = 14) = (σ1s) 2 (σ∗1s) 2 (σ2s)2 (σ∗ 2s)2 their increasing bond order?
+ +
2 < He 2 < O 2 < O 2
(a) C 2– –
(
(π2p 2x = π2p 2y ) σ 2p 2z )
2 2
(b) He +2 < O −2 < O +2 < C 22−
∗ ∗
F2 (total e =18)= (σ1s)
– 2
(σ 1s) (σ2s) (σ 2s) (σ2p z )
2 2
(c) O −2 < O −2 < C 22− < He +2
(π2p2x = π2p2y )(π∗ 2p2x = π∗ 2p2y ) (d) O +2 < C 22− < O 2− < He 2+
For N2, the valence orbital is bonding molecular orbital COMEDK 2014
and for F2, it is antibonding molecular orbital. So, bond +
Ans. (b) : He : σ1s , σ 1s 2 * 1
order decrease by 0.5 in the former and increase by 0.5 2
in the later. 1 1 1
459. Select a ferromagnetic material from the
B.O. = ( N b – N a ) = (2 – 1) = = 0.5
2 2 2
following. 2−
C 2 : σ1s , σ *1s , σ2s , σ * 2s , π2p x2 = π2p 2y , σ2p z2
2 2 2 2
(a) Dioxygen
(b) Chromium (IV) oxide 1 6
(c) Benzene B.O. = (10 – 4) = = 3.0
2 2
(d) Dihydrogen monoxide
MHT CET-2015 σ1s , σ *1s , σ 2s , σ * 2s 2 , σ 2p z2 , π2p 2x = π2p 2y ,
2 2 2
Ans. (b) : Substance Magnetic property π * 2p1x

(A) Dioxygen – Paramagnetic
(B) Chromium – Ferromagnetic 1 5
B.O. = (10 – 5) = = 2.5
(IV) oxide 2 2
(C) Benzene – Diamagnetic σ *1s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ 2s 2 , σ2p z2 , π2p 2x = π2p 2y ,
(D) Dihydrogen – Diamagnetic
monoxide π * 2p 2x = π* 2p1y
460. The bond order of H +2 is 1 3
(a) 1 (b) 0 B.O. = (10 – 7) = = 1.5
2 2
(c) 0.5 (d) 2 Thus, the correct order of increasing bond order is
S. C. R. A - 2014
Ans. (c) : Bond order – He +2 < O −2 < O +2 < C 22− .
1 463. Which one of the following has longest covalent
B.O = (Nb – Na)
2 bond distance?
Nb = No. of bonding electron (a) C  C (b) C  H
Na = No. of antibonding electron (c) C  N (d) C  O
H +2 = 1s1 AP-EAMCET (Engg.) - 2014
Nb = 1, Na = 0 Ans. (a) : The average distance between the centre of
1 nuclei of the two bonded atom in a molecule is known
B.O. = (1 − 0)
2 as bond length.
1 (i) C – C (ii) C – H (iii) C – N (iv) C – O
B.O = = 0.5
2 1.53A° 1.03A° 1.48A° 1.43A°
461. The percentage of ionic character in HCl So, C – C(1.53Å) has longest covalent bond distance.
molecule which has dipole moment of 3.610 ×
10–30 Coulomb metre and bond length of 123 464. The bond order between Ni-C bond in Ni(CO)4
pm, is is
(a) 100% (b) 87% (a) one (b) two
(c) 24.2% (d) 17.3% (c) less than two (d) more than two
S. C. R. A - 2014 AMU-2014
Ans. (d) : Given that- Ans. (c) : In Ni(CO)4 , there is a synergic bonding
Dipole moment (µ) = 3.6 ×10−30 Cm interaction between Ni and CO. As a result there is an
increase in the strength of Ni–CO bond and decrease in
Bond length = 123pm = 123 × 10−12 m
the bond order. The bond order of Ni–C bond is more
µ than one but less than two.
Now, Ionic character = × 100%
Bond length × Charge 465. What is the bond angle in ClO -2 (OClO)?
−30
3.6 × 10 (a) 900 (b) 1180
Ionic character = × 100%
123 ×10 −12 × 1.69 × 10 −19 (c) 105 0
(d) 1110
Ionic character = 17.3 % BCECE-2014
Ans. (d) : The bond angle of ClO −2 is 111o. The central 469. The correct order of magnitude of bond angles
among the compounds CH4, NH3 and H2O is
atom of Cl has 2 lone pair and Cl is also attached to the
2 sigma bond by oxygen atom the hybridisation of (a) CH4 > H2O < NH3 (b) H2O < NH3 < CH4
− 3
ClO 2 is sp . (c) NH3< CH4 < H2O (d) NH3< H2O <CH4
JIPMER-2014
Ans. (b) : The given species are CH4, NH3 and H2O.
The CH4 molecule has regular geometry with 109°28'
bond angle. Ammonia has one lone pair with 107.5°
whereas H2O has two lone pair with 104.5°. As we
know, the availability of one lone pair on central atom,
466. Which following is same for both hydrogen and reduces the bond angle by 2.5°. Hence, the order of
deuterium molecules? bond angle will be–
(a) Bond energy (b) Melting point H2O < NH3 < CH4.
(c) Boiling point (d) Bond length
BCECE-2014 470. Arrange the following species in the correct
order of their stability
Ans. (d): Bond length is same for both hydrogen and
deuterium molecules C2 , Li, O +2 , He +2
Property Hydrogen deuterium (a) Li 2 < He+2 < O +2 < C 2
Bond length (pm) 74.14 74.14
(b) C 2 < O 2+ < Li 2 < He +2
Bond energy 435.88 443.35
(kJ/mole) (c) He +2 < Li 2 < C 2 < O +2
Melting Point (K) 13.96 18.73
(d) O +2 < C 2 < Li 2 < He +2
Boiling Point (K) 20.39 23.69
467. N2 and O2 are converted into mono anions N – (e) C 2 < Li 2 < He +2 < O +2
2
and O 2– respectively. Which of the following Kerala-CEE-2014
statements is wrong? Ans. (c) : The stability of molecule depends upon the
(a) In N2, the N–N bond weakens bond order i.e. Bond order is directly proportional to the
(b) In O2, the O–O bond order increases stability of molecule.
(c) In O2, bond length decreases 8–4
C2 (total e– = 12) ⇒ Bond order = =2
(d) N 2– becomes diamagnetic 2
BITSAT 2014 4–2
Li2 (total e– = 6) ⇒ Bond order = =1
Ans. (b) : We know that in O2 bond, the order is 2 and 2
in O −2 bond, the order is 1.5. Therefore the wrong O +2 (total e– = 15) ⇒ Bond order =
10 – 5
= 2.5
statements is (b). 2
468. Which of the following is the correct order for 2 –1
He +2 (total e– = 3) ⇒ Bond order = = 0.5
strength of C-X bond. 2
(a) CH 3 F > CH 3Cl > CH 3Br > CH 3 I Thus, the order of stability will be–
(b) CH 3 F > CH 3 Br > CH 3I > CH 3F He +2 < Li 2 < C 2 < O 2+
(c) CH 3 I > CH 3 F > CH 3Cl > CH 3Br 471. Bond order of which among the following
(d) CH 3Cl > CH 3Br > CH 3 I > CH 3 F molecules is zero?
GUJCET-2014 (a) F2 (b) O2
(c) Be2 (d) Li2
Ans. (a) : Halogen atoms are more electronegative
than carbon, therefore, carbon-halogen bond of alkyl MHT CET-2014
halide is polarized, the carbon atom bears a partial Ans. (c) :
positive charge whereas the halogen atom bears a 2 2
(a) F2 (total e– = 18) = (σ1s) σ∗1s (σ2s ) σ∗ 2s
( ) ( )
2 2
partial negative charge.
(σ2p z ) (π2p 2x = π2p2y ) (π∗ 2p2x = π∗ 2p2y )
2
As we know, bond length is inversely proportional to 10 – 8

the bond strength. As we go down the group in the Bond order = =1
2
periodic table, the size of halogen atom increases. ∗ 2 ∗ 2
Fluorine atom is the smallest and iodine atom is the
largest. Consequently the carbon-halogen bond length
2
( )
(b) O2 (total e– = 16) = (σ1s) σ 1s (σ2s) σ 2s
2
( )
also increases from C–F to C–I and the bond strength (σ2p z ) (π2p 2x = π2p2y ) (π∗ 2p1x = π∗ 2p1y )
2
of C–F to C–I decreases. Hence, the correct order for
strength of C–X bond is– 10 – 6
CH 3F > CH 3Cl > CH3Br > CH 3I. Bond order = =2
2

2 2 It is paramagnetic.
( ) (σ2s) (σ 2s)
2 ∗ 2 ∗
(c) Be2 (total e– = 8) = (σ1s ) σ 1s 9−4
Bond order = = 2.5
4–4 2
Bond order = =0 Hence, the magnetic behavior changes form
2
2 paramagnetic to diamagnetic is options (c).
( )
2 ∗ 2
(d) Li2 (total e– = 6) = (σ1s) σ 1s (σ2s) 473. The types of bonds between two carbon atoms
in calcium carbide is
4–2 (a) one sigma, one pi (b) two sigma, one pi
Bond order = =1
2 (c) two sigma, two pi (d) one sigma, two pi
Hence, Be2 has zero bond order. AMU-2013
472. In which of the following ionization processes Ans. (d) : Calcium carbide (CaC2) is an ionic
the bond energy increases and the magnetic 2 + 2−
behavior changes from paramagnetic to compound is C C 2 . The calcium atom is bonded to
diamagnetic. the two carbon atoms through ionic bonding.
(a) O 2 → O 2 +
(b) C 2 → C 2 +
[: C ≡ C :]2− Ca 2+
(c) NO → NO + (d) N 2 → N 2+ It has one sigma and two pi–bonds.
KARNATAKA NEET 2013 474. The bond order of N+ 2 on the basis of
Ans. (c) : Molecular orbital configuration of molecular orbital theory is [At. number of N =
O2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ 2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p 2z , π2p 2x = π2p 2y , 7]
1 2 (a) 3 (b) 2.5
π * 2p x = π * 2p y
1
(c) 2 (d) 1.5
It is paramagnetic.
J & K CET-2013
10 − 6
Bond order = =2 Ans. (b) : N 2 +
2
+
O 2 = σ1s , σ 1s , σ 2s , σ 2s , σ 2p z , π2p x = π2p y ,
2 * 2 2 * 2 2 2 2 Total no of e– = 13
2 2
MO configuration of N +2 = (σ1s) σ∗1s (σ2s) σ∗ 2s
( ) ( )
2 2
π * 2p1 x
It is paramagnetic.
10 − 5
(π2p2x = π2p2y ) (σ2p1z )
Bond order = = 2.5
2 9–4
Bond order = = 2.5
C 2 = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p x2 = π2p 2y , 2
It is paramagnetic. 475. Which molecule has the shortest bond length?
8−4 (a) N2 (b) O2
Bond order = =2 (c) Cl2 (d) Br2
2
C +2 = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p x2 = π2p1y , SCRA 2012
It is paramagnetic. Ans. (a) : The experimental values of molecules given
as –
7−4
Bond order = = 1.5 Molecule Bond length(Å)
2
N2 1.09(Å)
NO = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p z2 , π2p 2x = π2p 2y , O2 1.21(Å)
π * 2p1x Cl2 1.98(Å)
It is paramagnetic. 476. Bond energy of Cl2, Br2 and I2 follow the order
10 − 5 (a) Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (b) Br2 > Cl 2 > I2
Bond order = = 2.5
2 (c) I 2 > Br2 > Cl2 (d) I 2 > Cl2 > Br2
NO + = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p 2z , π2p 2x = π2p 2y ,
It is diamagnetic. Ans. (a) : When we move from top to bottom in
10 − 4 halogen family the size of atom increases then the bond
Bond order = =3
2 length also increases and bond energy decreases.
N 2 = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p x2 = π2p 2y , σ2p z2 ∴ The order of bond energy is–
It is paramagnetic. Cl2 > Br2 > I 2 .
10 − 4 477. Cl-O bond order in perchlorate ion is
Bond order = =3 (a) 1.33 (b) 1.50
2
N +2 = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ 2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p x2 = π2p 2y , σ2p1z (c) 1.75 (d) 1.90
AMU-2012
Ans. (c) : The structure of per chlorate ion is 482. Which one of the following has the shortest
bond length?
(a) C–H (b) C–N
(c) C–O (d) C–C
(e) C–F
Total number of resonating structure = 4 Kerala-CEE-2012
Total no. of bond Ans. (e) : The more electronegative atom polarize the
∴ Bond order =
Total no. of resonating structure bond length and the bond length go to decrease in size.
7 In the given species, F is more electronegative atom. So
= = 1.75 it’s electronegative power attract the share electron
4 towards the F. Thus, the bond length getting to shortest.
Hence, the bond order of perchlorate ion is 1.75.
483. Which of the following has least bond energy?
478. The molecule having smallest bond angle is
(a) NCl3 (b) AsCl3 (a) N 22 − (b) N −2
(c) SbCl3 (d) PCl3 (c) N +2 (d) N2
(AIEEE-2012)
MHT CET-2012
Ans. (c) : All the possible trihalides of N, P, As, Sb and
Ans. (a) : The Bond energy of molecule is directly
Bi are known. The bond angle is decreases from NCl3 to
SbCl3 because the electronegativity and the size of proportional to the bond order of the molecule.
∗ ∗ 2 2
central atom decreases due to which SbCl3 has the
smallest bond angle.
(a) N 2–
2
()
2 (total e = 16) = (σ1s) σ 1s (σ 2s ) σ 2s
– 2
( )
2
479. The correct order of bond energy is
(a) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 (b) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2
(c) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 (d) I2 > Br2 > F2 > Cl2 10 – 6
Bond order = =2
J & K CET-(2012) 2
Ans. (a) : The elements of halogen all form diatomic ∗ 2 ∗ 2
molecules. It would be expected that the bond energy
2
( )
(b) N 2– (total e– = 15) = (σ1s) σ 1s (σ2s) σ 2s
2
( )
in the X2 molecules would decrease as the atoms
(σ2p z ) (π2p 2x = π2p2y ) (π∗ 2p1x = π * 2py)
2
become larger, since increased size results in less
effective overlap of orbital’s. Cl2 Br2 and I2 show the
expected trend but the bond energy for F2 does not fit 10 – 5
Bond order = = 2.5
the expected trend. A reason for this anomaly is the 2
relatively large electron-electron repulsion among the 2 2
( ) (σ2s) (σ 2s)
2 ∗ 2 ∗
lone pairs in F2 molecule where they are much closer to (c) N +2 (total e– = 13) = (σ1s ) σ 1s
each other than in case of Cl2
Molecules Bond Energy (kJmol–1) (π2p2x = π2p2y ) (σ2p1z )
F2 158.8
Cl2 242.6 9–4
Bond order = = 2.5
Br2 192.8 2
I2 151.1 2 2
( ) (σ2s) (σ 2s)
2 ∗ 2 ∗
480. The C-H bond distance is the longest in (d) N2 (total e– = 14) = (σ1s ) σ 1s
(a) C2H2 (b) C2H4
(c) C2H6 (d) C2H2Br2 (π2p2x = π2p2y ) (σ2p2z )
J & K CET-(2012) 10 – 4
Ans. (c) : As we know, if the s character of molecule is Bond order = =3
2
more then bonded pair electrons are held more closely,
ensuring a smaller bond length and stronger a bond. So, Hence, N 2–
2 has least bond energy.
sp has the least bond length and it is the strongest.sp3 484. Which of the following species has highest bond
has longest bond distance. Hence, C–H has more bond energy?
distance in C2H6.
(a) O 22 − (b) O +2
481. The correct order in which the O–O bond
length increases in the following is (c) O −2 (d) O2
(a) H2O2 < O2 < O3 (b) O3 < H2O2 < O2 MHT CET-2012
(c) O2 < O3 < H2O2 (d) O2 < H2O < O3
Ans. (b) : The bond energy of diatomic molecule
JCECE-2012
depends upon the bond order. Bond order is directly
Ans. (c) : Bond length of O  O in O2 = 1.21Å proportional to the bond energy.
Bond length of O  O in O3 = 1.278 Å
10 – 8
Bond length of O  O in H2O2 = 1.49 Å (a) O 2– –
2 (total e = 18) ⇒ Bond order = =1
Therefore, correct order of O  O bonds length is 2
(bond order decrease in the same order) 10 – 5
(b) O +2 (total e– = 15) ⇒ Bond order = = 2.5
O 2 < O 3 < H 2O 2 2
(c) O 2– (total e– = 17) ⇒ Bond order =
10 – 7
= 1.5 O −2 (Super oxide ion): Total number of electrons (16 +
2 1) = 17 = σ1s 2 σ *1s 2 σ 2s 2 σ* 2s 2 σ2p 2z
10 – 1
(d) O 2 (total e = 16) ⇒ Bond order =
–
=2 π2p 2x = π2p 2y π* 2p 2x = x* 2p1y
2
485. Bond order in nitrogen molecule is (N − N a ) 10 − 7 3 1
Bond order = b = = =1
(a) 1 (b) 2 2 2 2 2
(c) 3 (d) 4 O 22 + ion : Total number of electrons = (16 – 2) = 14
COMEDK 2011
Ans. (c) : σ1s 2 σ*1s 2 σ2s 2 σ* 2s 2 π2p 2x = π2p 2y σ2p 2z
N 2 (14 ) : σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p 2x = π2p 2y , (N − N a ) 10 − 4 6
σ2p 2z 2 2 2
− + 2+
8–2 So bond order : O 2 < O 2 < O 2
Bond order = =3 489. The bond order of C molecule is
2 2
(a) 1 (b) 2
486. Which of the following is correct comparison of (c) 0 (d) 3
the stability of the molecules?
J & K CET-2011
(a) CN < O+2 (b) CN = N 2 Ans. (b) : The given diatomic molecule is C2. C2 has
(c) N 2 < O 2 (d) H +2 > He+2 the 12 no. of electron. Now, the molecular orbital
VITEEE- 2011 configuration is given below–
2 2
Ans. (d) : If the bond order of two molecules are same MO configuration= (σ1s)2 σ∗1s (σ2s)2 σ∗ 2s ( ) ( )
then the stability of the molecules can be explain on the
number of electron in antibonding molecular orbital,
more the electron in antibonding, less be the stability of
(
π2p 2x = π2p 2y)
molecule. N – Na
Bond order = b
H +2 (1) = σ1s1 2
− −
Where, Nb = no. of e– in bonding orbital
Bonding orbital e − Antibonding orbitale
Bond order = Na = no. of e– in antibonding orbital
2
8– 4
1− 0 Bond order = =2
Bond order = = 0.5 2
2
490. The correct statement with regard to H 2+ and
and He+2 ( 3) = σ1s 2 , σ *1s1
H 2− is
2 −1
Bond order = = 0.5 (a) both H 2+ and H 2− are equally stable
2
So, H +2 has the less electron in antibonding whereas (b) both H 2+ and H 2− do not exist
He +2 has more electron in antibonding so the H +2 is (c) H 2− is more stable than H 2+
more stable than He +2 . (d) H 2+ is more stable than H 2−
487. The value of Cl – Cl bond distance is found to be JIPMER-2011
ο ο Ans. (d) : The species are H +2 and H 2– .
(a) 1.98 A (b) 0.99 A
ο ο H +2 (total e = 1) = (σ 1s)
– 1
(c) 0.77 A (d) 1.76 A
SRMJEEE – 2011 Nb = 1, Na = 0
ο and H 2– (total e– = 3) = (σ 1s)1 (σ∗1s)1
Ans. (a) : The bond length of Cl – Cl is 1.98 A Nb = 2 , Na = 1
488. The correct bond order in the following species is : According to the application of stability of MOT, H +2
(a) O 22 + < O 2− < O 2+ (b) O +2 < O −2 < O 22+ has less electron on antibonding molecular orbital than
(c) O −2 < O +2 < O 22+ (d) O 22 + < O 2+ < O 2− the H 2– molecule. So, H +2 is more stable than the H 2– .
BITSAT 2011 491. When O2 is converted into O +
2
+
Ans. (c) : O 2 ion – Total number of electrons (16 – 1) = (a) both paramagnetic character and bond order
15 = σ1s 2 σ *1s 2 σ 2s 2 σ* 2s 2 σ2p 2z increase
(b) bond order decreases
π2p 2x = π2p 2y π* 2p1x = π* 2p y (c) paramagnetic character increases
(d) paramagnetic character decreases and the
N − N a 10 − 5 5 1 bond order increases
2 2 2 2 Karnataka-CET-2011

∗ 2 ∗ 2 Ans. (b) Bond length decreases, as bond order increases.
2
( )
Ans. (d) : (i) O2 = (σ1s) σ 1s (σ2s) σ 2s
2
( ) Bond order of O2 = 2
2 Bond order of O +2 = 2.5
Bond order of O −2 = 1.5
10 – 6
Bond order = =2 Hence, the order of bond length is
2
O2 molecule having 2 unpaired electron. O −2 > O 2 > O 2+
2 2
∗ ∗
494. The order of bond energies in halogen
2
( )
(ii) O +2 = (σ1s) σ 1s (σ2s) σ 2s
2
( ) (σ2p z )
2
molecules is
(π2p2x = π2p2y ) (π∗ 2p1x ) (a) F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2 (b) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(c) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 (d) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2
10 – 5 AP- EAMCET(Medical) -2010
Bond order = = 2.5
2 Ans. (c): As we know, bond length increases with
+
O 2 ion having only 1 unpaired electron. decreasing of its bond dissociation energy. F2 has
Hence, when O2 is converted into O +2 then smaller enthalphy of dissociation to that of Cl2 whereas
X–X bond dissociation enthalpies from chlorine
paramagnetic character decrease and the bond order onwards show the expected trend : Cl–Cl >Br–Br > I–I.
increases.
The relatively large electron-electron repulsion among
492. Which of the following is not correct with the lone pairs in F2 molecule where they are much
respect to bond length of the species? closer to each other them in case of Cl2. Hence, the
(a) C 2 > C 22 − (b) B+2 > B2 correct order will be –
(c) Li +2 > Li 2 (d) N +2 > N 2 Cl2> Br2> F2> I2.
(e) O 2 > O −2 495. The correct order of magnitude of bond angles
Kerala-CEE-2011 among the compounds CH4, NH3 and H2O
(a) CH4 < H2O < NH3 (b) H2O < NH3 < CH4
Ans. (e) : The bond order of molecule is inversely
proportional to the bond length. (c) NH3 < CH4 < H2O (d) NH3 < H2O < CH4
8–4 AP- EAMCET(Medical) -2010
(a) C2 (total e– = 12) ⇒ Bond order = =2 Ans. (b): The given species are CH4, NH3 and H2O.
2 The structures of given compound are given as follows–
10 – 4
C 2– –
2 (total e = 14) ⇒ Bond order = =3
2
5–4
(b) B+2 (total e– = 14) ⇒ Bond order = = 0.5
2
6–4
B2 (total e– =10) ⇒ Bond order = =1
2
3– 2 Hence, the correct order of bond angle will be CH4 >
(c) Li +2 (total e– = 5) ⇒ Bond order = = 0.5 NH3 > H2O.
2
4–2 496. Which of the following has the highest bond
Li 2 (total e– = 6) ⇒ Bond order = =1 order?
2
(a) N2 (b) O2
9–4
(d) N +2 (total e– = 13) ⇒ Bond order = = 2.5 (c) He2 (d) H2
2 JIPMER-2010
10 – 4
N 2 (total e– = 14) ⇒ Bond order = =3 Ans. (a):
2 2 2
(e) O 2 (total e– = 16) ⇒ Bond order = 10 – 6 = 2 (a) N2 (Total e– = 14) = (σ1s)
2
(σ∗1s) (σ2s) (σ∗ 2s)
2
2
10 – 7
O 2– –
(total e = 17) ⇒ Bond order = = 1.5 (π2p2x = π2p2y ) (σ2p2z )
2
O2 has maximum bond order than the O 2– . So, O2 has Bond Order =
10 – 4
=3
less bond length rather than the O 2– . Thus, the 2
2 2
statement is wrong. (b) O2 (total e– = 16 ) = (σ1s)2 (σ∗1s) (σ2s)2 (σ∗ 2s)
493. The bond length of species O2, O 2+ , and O 2− are
(σ2p z ) (π2p 2x = π2p 2y )
2
in the order of
(a) O +2 > O 2 > O −2 (b) O −2 > O 2 > O +2
+ − − +
(π∗ 2p1x = π∗ 2p1y )
(c) O 2 > O > O
2 2 (d) O 2 > O > O 2 2
10 – 6
UP CPMT-2011 Bond order = =2
2

(c) He2 (total e– = 4 ) = (σ1s)2 (σ∗1s)
2 In ClO −2 , there are two lone pairs of electrons which
repel each other due to which two oxygen atom come
2–2 closer leading to decrease in bond angle. Therefore, the
Bond order = =0
2 angle in ClO −2 is less than 118° which is bond angle in
(d) H2 (Total e– = 2 ) = (σ1s)2 ClO −2 which has less number of electrons on chlorine.
2–0 500. The bond angle in H2O is 104.5° and in H2S it is
Bond order = =1
2 92.5°. The difference is due to
Thus, N2 has highest bond order. (a) The smaller size of O atom compared to S
497. The correct order towards bond angle is atom minimizes electron repulsions and
(a) sp3 < sp2 < sp (b) sp < sp2 < sp3 allows the bonds in H2O to be purely p-type
3 2
(c) sp < sp < sp (d) sp2 < sp3 < sp (b) The larger size of S atom compared to atom
JIPMER-2010 minimizes electron repulsions and allows the
Ans. (a): As we know that the % s character is directly bonds in H2S to be purely p-type
proportional to the bond angle of central atom of the (c) The bond pair-lone pair repulsions are large
molecule. in H2S
Hybridisation % s character Bond angle (d) The size of the atom increases and electro
sp 50 180° negativity decreases while moving from
sp2 33.3 120° oxygen to sulphur as a result bond pairs
sp3 25 109°28' closer to the central atom
498. Peroxide ion ........ . SCRA - 2009
(i) has five completely filled antibonding Ans. (b) : Bond angle is directly proportional to the
molecular orbits
electronegativity of the central atom.
(ii) is diamagnetic
As Oxygen has more electronegativity value as
(iii) has bond order one
compared to sulphur. So, bond angle of H2O is more
(iv) is iso-electronic with neon
Which one of these is correct? than H2S.
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) Another reason behind this i.e., the bond pair-bond pair
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv) resulsion is smaller in magnitude, still the b.p- b.p
KARNATAKA-CET, 2010 repulsion in case of H2O molecule exist while in case of
2− H2O due to large size of S as compared to O is less and
Ans. (a) : Peroxide ion is O2 going to decreasing with increase the size of element.
∗ 2 ∗ 2 So, on moving from top to bottom bond angle
2− 2
( ) 2
(
O2 (18) = (σ1s) σ 1s (σ2s ) σ 2s (σ2p z ) ) 2
decreases.
( 2 2
)( 2 2
π2p x = π2p y π ∗ 2p x = π ∗ 2p y )
501. Fluorine reacts with dilute NaOH and forms a
gaseous product A. The bond angle in the
10 – 8 molecule of A is
Bond order = =1
2 (a) 104°40' (b) 103°
It contains four completely filled antibonding molecular (c) 107° (d) 109°28'
orbitals. Since, all the electrons are paired, O22 − is VITEEE- 2009
diamagnetic. AP EAMCET (Engg.)-2009
Peroxide ion is isolectronic with Argon, not with Neon.
Ans. (b) : 2F2 + 2 NaO H → 2NaF + O F2 ↑ + H 2 O
499. The correct order increasing bond angles in the dilute (A)
following species is The structure of 'A' (OF ) is as
2
(a) Cl2O < ClO2 < ClO −2
(b) ClO2 < Cl2O < ClO −2
(c) Cl2O < ClO −2 < ClO2 σ bonds made by O = 2
(d) ClO −2 < Cl2O < ClO2 Due to repulsion between two lone pairs of electrons, its
(NEET-2010) shape gets distorted. Therefore, the bond angle in the
Ans. (d) : molecule is 103°.
502. The bond angle and % of d-character in SF6
are
(a) 120°, 20% (b) 90°, 33%
(c) 109°, 25% (d) 90°, 25%
AMU – 2009
Ans. (b) : For SF6 molecule. (a) N 22− < N −2 < N 2 (b) N 2 < N 22− < N −2
(c) N −2 < N 22− < N 2 (d) N −2 < N 2 < N 22−
NEET-2009
Ans. (a)
2 2
( ) (σ2s) (σ 2s)
2 ∗ 2 ∗
(a) N2 (total e– = 14) = (σ1s ) σ 1s
(π2p2x = π2p2y ) (σ2p2z )

10 − 4
No.of d orbitalsinvolved in hybrid Bond order = =3
% d character = × 100 2
Total no.of orbital 2 2
(b) N 22− (total e– = 16) = (σ1s) σ∗1s (σ2s ) σ∗ 2s
( ) ( )
2 2
2 ×1
= × 100
6 ×1 (σ2p z ) (π2p 2x = π2p2y ) (π∗ 2p1x = π∗ 2p1y )
2
= 33.3%
503. Which of the following two are isostructural? 10 – 6
Bond order = =2
(a) XeF2 , IF2− (b) NH3 , BF3 2
Similarly,
(c) CO32 − , SO32 − (d) PCI5 , ICI5
− 10 − 5
-
BITSAT 2009 (c) N 2 (total e = 15)⇒Bond order = = 2.5
2
−
Ans. (a) : XeF2 and IF2 both are linear and have Thus, The bond order follow the following sequence
hybridisation sp3d. N 22 − < N −2 < N 2
504. ( i ) H - C - H angle in CH 4 507. Right order of dissociation energy N2 and N +2 is
( ii ) Cl - B - Cl angle in BCl 3 (a) N2 > N +2 (b) N2 = N +2
( iii ) F - I - Fangle in IF7 in a Plane (c) N +2 > N2 (d) None
NEET-2009
( iv ) I - I - I angle in I -3
Increasing order of above bond angles is Ans. (a) Bond order ∝ Bond energy
(a) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) 2 2
( ) ( )
2 ∗ 2 ∗
(b) (ii) < (i) < (iii) < (iv) N2 (total e– = 14) = (σ1s ) σ 1s (σ2s) σ 2s
(c) (iii) < (i) < (ii) < (iv)
(d) (iv) < (ii) < (i) < (iii) (
π2p 2x = π2p 2y σ2p 2z )( )
CG PET -2009 10 − 4
Ans. (c) : Bond order = =3
2
Molecule Hybridisation Geometry Bond Angle And
CH4 sp3 Tetrahedral 109.5° 2 2
( ) ( )
2 2 ∗ 2 ∗
+
BCl3 sp Trigonal planer 120° N 2 (total e –
= 13) = ( σ1s ) σ 1s ( σ 2s ) σ 2s
IF7 sp3d3 Pentagonal 72°
− 3
bipyramidal (
π2p 2x = π2p 2y σ2p1z )( )
I3 sp d Linear 180°
9−4
Bond order = = 2.5
505. H – O – H bond angle in H2O is 104.5o and not 2
109o 28' because of Hence, N2 has the more bond dissociation energy than
(a) lone pair-lone pair repulsion the N +2
(b) lone pair-bond pair repulsion 508. The carbon-carbon bond distance in benzene is
(c) bond pair-bond pair repulsion (a) Longer than a C – C single bond
(d) high electronegativity of oxygen (b) Longer than a C = C double bond
JIPMER-2009 (c) Sohrter than a C = C double bond
Ans. (a) : According to the VSEPR theory, the (d) Shorter than a C ≡ C triple bond
repulsive interaction of electron pairs decrease in the MPPET-2008
order : Lone pair-Lone pair > Lone pair-Bond pair > Ans. (b) : All the carbon-carbon bond distance in benzene
Bond pair – bond pair. Due to the lone pair-lone pair are 140 pm i.e. longer than a C = C double bond.
repulsion, the bond angle is reduces from 109°28' to 509. Assertion: Fluorine molecule has bond order
104.5°. one.
506. According to MO theory which of the lists Reason: The number of electrons in the anti-
ranks the nitrogen species in terms of bonding molecular orbitals is two less than that
increasing bond order? in bonding molecular orbitals.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the 512. In the molecules NO, CO, O2– and O2 the
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion correct sequence of bond order is
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but (a) NO = CO > O2– > O2
Reason is not the correct explanation of (b) O2– > O2 > NO > CO
Assertion. (c) O2 > O2– > NO > CO
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect (d) CO > NO > O2 > O2–
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect AMU – 2008
AIIMS-2008
Ans. (d) : According to molecular orbital electronic
Ans. (a): The molecular orbital configuration of
configuration ,
F2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p z2
CO= σ1s2 σ*1s2 σ2s2 σ*2s2 π2p 2X = π2p 2Y σ2p 2X
π2p x = π2p y , π * 2p x = π * 2p y
2 2 2 2
N − N a 10 − 4
10 − 8 B.O. = b = =3
Bond order = =1 2 2
2 NO = σ1s2 σ*1s2 σ2s2 σ*2s2 σ2p 2z π2p 2X
The number of electrons in the anti bonding molecular
orbitals is two less than that in bonding molecular orbitals. = π2p 2y π *2p1x
510. Cl - P -Cl bond angles in PCl5 molecule are
(a) 120° and 90° (b) 60° and 90° N − N a 10 − 5
B.O.= b = = 2.5
(c) 60° and 120° (d) 120° and 30° 2 2
VITEEE- 2008
O2– = σ1s2 σ*1s2 σ2s2 σ*2s2 σ2p 2z π2p 2X
Ans. (a) : In PCl5, phosphorus undergoes sp3d
hybridization and has trigonal bipyramidal geometry. It 2 2 1
= π2p y π * 2p x = π * 2p y
has two axial chlorine atoms & three equatorial chlorine
atoms bonded to the central P. N − N a 10 − 7
Hence bond angles for axial are 90°, Cl–P–Cl & for B.O.= b = = 1.5
equatorial Cl–P–Cl it is 120°. 2 2
O 2 = σ1s 2 σ *1s 2σ2s 2σ * 2s 2 σ2p z2 π2p 2x = π2p 2y π * 2p1x = π * 2p1y
Nb − Na 10 − 6
B.O.= = =2
2 2
So, the correct sequence of B.O. is
CO > NO > O2 > O2–.
+ 2− −
511. About the species O 2 , O 2 , O 2 , O 2 which one 513. From the molecular orbital theory, one can
of the following statements is correct? show that the bond order in F2 molecule is
(a) O +2 has the highest bond order and largest (a) 2 (b) 1
bond length. (c) 3 (d) 4
(b) O 2 has the highest bond order. J & K CET-2008
Ans. (b) : Total number of electron in F2 molecule = 18
(c) The bond order of O 2 equals the average 2 2
∴ MO configuration = (σ1s) σ∗1s (σ2s ) σ∗ 2s
( ) ( )
2 2
bond orders of O +2 and O −2 .
(d) The sum of bond orders of these species is 1.
( )( )
2
SRMJEEE – 2008
N − NA 10 – 8
Ans. (c) : B.O. = B Bond order = =1
2 2
Where NA and NB are the number of electrons in 514. What will be the bond angle C–O–H in alcohol
antibonding and bonding molecule. if hybridisation of C and O atom possess sp3
10 − 5 hybridisation?
Bond order of O +2 = = 2.5 (a) 109º 28' (b) 111º 42'
2
10 − 8 (c) 109º (d) 108º 30'
Bond order of O 22− = =1 GUJCET-2007
2
10 − 6 Ans. (a) : The given species is . The
Bond order of O 2 = =2 hybridisation of oxygen are sp 3
. As we know that the
2
bond angle of sp3 hybridisation is 109º28'.
10 − 7
Bond order of O −2 = = 1.5 515. The strength of bonds formed by s-s, p-p, and
2 s-p overlap is in the order of
2.5 + 1.5
Average Bond order of O +2 and O −2 = =2 (a) s-s < s-p < p-p (b) s-s < p-p < s-p
2 (c) s-p < s-s < p-p (d) p-p < s-s < s-p
Which is equal to the bond order of O2. SRMJEEE – 2007
Ans. (a) : The correct order of strength of bond is s–s>– Similary,
s–p>p–p (d) O 2– (total e– =17)
The extent of overlap is higher for s orbital than for p
orbital. Higher is the extent of overlap stronger is the 10 – 7
Bond order = = 1.5, n = 1 (paramagnetic)
bond formed. 2
–
516. The order of stability of O2 and its various ionic (e) B2 (total e =10)
species follows the sequence 6–4
(a) O 22− > O −2 > O 2 > O +2 (b) O 2 > O +2 > O −2 > O 22− Bond order = = 1, n = 0 (Diamagnetic)
2
(c) O +2 > O 2 > O −2 > O 22− (d) O −2 > O +2 > O 2 > O 22− 520. Sequence of bond length of the following
AMU – 2007 A. ethane B. ethene
+ − 2−
Ans. (c) : Bond order of O 2 , O2 , O 2 , O 2 are 2.5, 2, C. ethyne
(a) A>B>C (b) B>A>C
1.5, 1 respectively. Thus their stability is in following
(c) C>B>A (d) C>A>B
order
UP CPMT-2007
O +2 > O 2 > O −2 > O 22−
Ans. (a) : The bond length decrease with the
517. The bond length between C – C bond in sp2 multiplicity of the bond.
hybridised molecule is– 1
(a) 1.2 Å (b) 1.39 Å Bond length ∝
(c) 1.33 Å (d) 1.54 Å Bond order
BCECE-2007
Ans. (b) : The bond length between C – C bond in sp2
o
hybridised molecule is 1.39 A
518. For a stable molecule, the value of bond order
must be
(a) there is no relationship between stability and
bond order
(b) zero
(c) positive H − C ≡ C− H
ethyne (bond order =3)
(d) negative As the bond order sequence is
Karnataka-CET-2007 ethane<ethene<ethyne
Ans. (c) : Bond order ∝ Stability ∴ The sequence of bond length is
Hence, for a stable molecule the value of bond order Ethane > Ethene > Ethyne
must be positive. When bond order is zero then Hence, A>B>C
molecule will not exist.
521. The bond angle in AsH3 is greater than that in:
519. Which of the following paramagnetic with (a) NH3 (b) H2O
bond order 0.5? (c) BCl3 (d) None of these
(a) F2 (b) H +2 AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2006
(c) N2 (d) O −2 Ans. (d) : The given species are: NH3, H2O and BCl3.
(e) B2
Kerala-CEE-2007
Ans. (b) :
2 2
(a) F2 (total e– = 18) = (σ1s) σ∗1s ( ) (σ2s)2 (σ∗ 2s)
2
(σ2p z ) (π2p 2x = π2p 2y ) (π ∗ 2p2x = π ∗ 2p 2y )

2 Bond angle– 107.5º 104.5º 120º
3 3
Hybridization– sp sp sp2
10 – 8 AsH3 has the low bond angle due to large size of As.
Bond order = = 1 , n = 0 (diamagnetic) AsH3 has sp2 hybridization and having the 92° bond
2
angle.
(b) H +2 (Total e– = 1) = (σ1s)1
522. On comparison with H – C – H bond angle of
1– 0 methane, the C – N – C bond angle of
Bond order = = 0.5, n = 1 (paramagnetic)
2 trimethylamine is
(c) N 2 (Total e– = 14) = (σ1s) 2 (σ∗1s) 2 (σ2s)2 (σ∗ 2s)2 (a) higher (b) no change
(c) not comparable (d) lower
(π2p 2x = π2p 2y ) (σ 2p z )2
VITEEE- 2006
Bond order =
10 – 4
= 3, n = o (Diamagnetic) Ans. (b) : In both the cases carbon is sp3 hybridised and
2 bond angle is 109°28'.

523. In the dichromate dianion, Ans. (d) : The total number of electron on O2, O +2 and
(a) 4 Cr – O bonds are equivalent
(b) 6 Cr – O bonds are equivalent O 2– are 16, 15 and 17 respectively.
(c) all Cr – O bonds are equivalent 2 2
(i) O2 (total e– = 16) = (σ1s) σ∗1s (σ2s ) σ∗ 2s
( ) ( )
2 2
(d) all Cr – O bonds are nonequivalent
BITSAT 2006
( )( )
2
2−
Ans. (b) : The structure of Cr2O7
Nb = 10, Na = 6
O – O– 2 2
(ii) O +2 (total e– = 15) = (σ1s) σ∗1s (σ2s ) σ∗ 2s
( ) ( )
2 2
Cr Cr
(σ2pz ) π2p2x = π2p 2y π∗ 2p1x = π * 2py
( )( )
2
OO O
O O
Nb = 11, Na = 5
There are six normal Cr–O bonds and two bridged Cr– 2 2
(iii) O 2– (total e– = 17) = (σ1s) σ∗1s (σ2s ) σ∗ 2s
( ) ( )
2 2
O bond.
The six normal Cr–O bonds are expected to be equivalent
( )( )
2
and different from those of the bridged Cr–O bond.
524. Bond order of N2 molecule is Nb = 10, Na = 7
(a) 3 (b) 2 According to the molecular orbital theory– the stability
(c) 1 (d) 0 of molecule depends upon the number of electron in
CG PET -2006 anti bonding molecular orbital (Na). As well as Na
Ans. (a) : Total number of e– in N2 = 14 increases then the molecule goes to unstable. Hence, the
2 2 2 2 correct order of stability will be–
( *
)
∴ MO configuration = (σ1s ) σ 1s (σ2s) σ 2s ( *
) O +2 > O2 > O 2–
( 2 2
)(
π2p x = π2p y σ 2p z2
)
528. Bond angle in H2O is:
(a) 109028' (b) 107010'
10 – 4 (c) 104.5 0
(d) 920
Bond order = =3
2 JCECE - 2006
Hence, the bond order of N2 molecule is 3. Ans. (c) : H2O has the sp3 hybridisation with two lone
525. If the value of bond order is zero, then pair electron. due to the lone pair– lone pair repulsion
(a) molecule will be stable the bond angle reduces from 109°28' to 104.5°.
(b) molecule will be unstable
(c) molecule will be in ionic state 529. Which of the following gives correct
(d) None of the above arrangement of compounds involved based on
CG PET -2006 their bond strength?
(a) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
Ans. (b) : The value of bond order is zero it means the
(b) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
bonding influence and anti-bonding influence are equal
and as a result there is no net force of attraction, so (c) HF > HBr > HCl > HI
molecule will be unstable. (d) HCl > HF > HBr > HI
JIPMER-2006
526. The decreasing values of bond angles from NH3
(107º) to SbH3 (91º) down group - 15 of the Ans. (a) : The halogens atom react with hydrogen to
periodic table is due to given hydrogen halides but affinity for hydrogen
(a) Increasing bond pair - bond pair repulsion decreases from fluorine to iodine because of
increaseness of size of halogens. Thus, the correct order
(b) Increasing p-orbital character in sp3 of bond strength of halogen halide is–
(c) Decreasing lone pair - bond pair repulsion HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(d) Decreasing electronegativity
(AIEEE-2006) 530. Identify the correct order in which the covalent
radius of the following elements increases
Ans. (d) : All the elements of group 15 form hydrides I. Ti II. Ca III. Sc
of the type EH3 where E = N, P, As, Sb or Bi. The bond (a) (I), (II), (III) (b) (III), (II), (I)
angles from NH3 to SbH3 decreases because as we go (c) (II), (I), (III) (d) (I), (III), (II)
down in the group 15 elements, the electronegativity
decreases then bonded electron polarizes towards AP-EAMCET-2005
central atom less, so repulsion decreases and bond angle Ans. (d) : Due to increase in effective nuclear charge
is also be decreases. (Zeff) atomic size decrease in the following order.
Ca > Sc > Ti
527. According to bond order concept, the correct
or II > III > I
order of stability of O2, O 2+ and O 2– is 531. In the nitrogen family the H-M-H bond angle
(a) O 2 > O 2+ > O 2– (b) O 2– > O 2 > O 2+ in the hydrides (MH3) gradually becomes closer
to 90º on going from N to Sb. This shows that
(c) O 2 > O 2– > O 2+ (d) O 2+ > O 2 > O 2– (a) the basic strength of hydrides increases
J & K CET-2006 (b) the bond energies of M–H bonds increases
(c) almost pure p-orbitals are used for M–H Ans. (a) : Given that,
bonding Mass defect ( ∆m ) = 0.090 amu
(d) the bond pairs of electrons come nearer to the 1 amu = 931.5 Mev
central atom ∴ Mass defect ( ∆m ) = 0.090 × 931.5 Mev
CG PET -2005 ∆m = 83.835 Mev
Ans. (c) : In the nitrogen family the H-M-H bond angle Number of nucleon in given nucleus = 9
in the hydrides (MH3) gradually becomes closer to 90º 83.835
on going from N to Sb. This shows that almost pure p- Thus, binding energy per nucleon =
orbitals are used for M–H bonding. 9
= 9.315 Mev
532. The angle between two covalent bonds is
maximum in 536. The bond-angle in AsH3 is greater than that in:
(a) CH4 (b) H2O (a) NH3 (b) H2O
(c) CO2 (d) SO2 (c) BCl3 (d) none of these
CG PET -2005 JCECE - 2004
Ans. (c) : As we know that the percent s character is Ans. (d) : Bond angle of AsH3 is 91.8° and that of NH3
directly proportional to the bond angle of molecule. The is 107.8° BCl3 is trigonal planar, and therefore the bond
hybridization of molecule is given below– angle is 120 whereas H2O has bond angle of 104.5°.
Molecule Hybridisation % S character Hence, option (d) is correct.
CH4 sp3 25
H 2O sp3 25 537. The bond order of O +2 same as in
CO2 sp 50 (a) N +2 (b) CN–
SO2 sp2 33.33
Thus, CO2 molecule has greater bond angle between (c) CO (d) NO+
two covalent bonds. UP CPMT-2004
533. Which one of the following molecules has the Ans. (a) : Write the electronic configuration of each of
smallest bond angle? the species according to the molecular orbital theory
(a) NH3 (b) PH3 and then find bond order with its help.
∗ 2 ∗ 2
(c) H2O
(e) H2S
(d) H2Se 2
( )
O 2+ (totale − = 15) = (σ1s) σ 1s (σ2s) σ 2s
2
( )
(σ2p z ) (π2p 2x = π2p2y ) (π∗ 2p1x )
Kerala-CEE-2005 2
Ans. (d) : As the electron density around the central

atom decreases the repulsion between electron pair 10 – 5
Bond order = = 2.5
decreases. Hence, the bond angle decreases in the 2
order– (a) N +2 = (totale − = 13) = (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2 (σ*2s)2
NH3 > PH 3 > H 2S > H 2Se
Therefore, H2Se has the smallest bond angle. (π2p2x = π2p2y ) (σ2p1z )
534. Bond order in benzene is 9–4
(a) 1 (b) 2 Bond order = = 2.5
2
(c) 1.5 (d) None of these 2 2
( ) (σ2s) (σ 2s)
2 ∗ 2 ∗
UP CPMT-2005 (b) CN– (total e– = 14) = (σ1s ) σ 1s
Ans. (c) : The structure of benzene shows it has 6-
carbon-carbon single bonds and 3 carbon-carbon double (π2p2x = π2p2y ) (σ2p2z )
bonds.
10 – 4
Bond order = =3
2
2 2
( ) (σ2s) (σ 2s)
2 ∗ 2 ∗
(c) CO (total e– =14) = (σ1s ) σ 1s
(π2p2x = π2p2y ) (σ2p2z )

Total bonds 9 10 – 4
Bond order = = Bond order = =3
Total C-atomsin molecule 6 2
2 2
= 1.5
( ) (σ2s) (σ 2s)
2 ∗ 2 ∗
(d) NO+ (total e– =14) = (σ1s ) σ 1s
535. If the mass defect of 94 X is 0.090 AMU then
binding energy per nucleon is
π2p 2x = π2p 2y ( ) (σ2p2z )
(1AMU=931.5 Mev) 10 – 4
(a) 9.315 Mev (b) 931.5 Mev Bond order = =3
2
(c) 83.0 Mev (d) 8.38 Mev ∴ Bond order of O 2+ is same as that of N 2+
J & K CET-(2004)
538. The oxidation state of Xe and XeO3 and the Ans. (b): O +
2
bond angle in it respectively, are :
(a) + 6, 109º (b) + 8, 103º Total electron in O +2 = 15
(c) + 6, 103º (d) + 8, 120º MO configuration of
AP-EAMCET/2003 2 2
O +2 = (σ1s) σ∗1s (σ2s ) σ∗ 2s
( ) ( )
2 2
Ans. (c): In XeO3, let the Oxidation state of Xe is x
XeO3 (σ2pz ) π2p2x = π2p 2y π∗ 2p1x
( )( )
2
∴ x + 3(–2) = 0
x=+6 10 – 5
Bond order of O +2 = = 2.5
In XeO3 has sp3 hybridization with bond angle is 103º. 2
+
539. Which of the following molecules is most Thus, bond order of O 2 is 2.5.
stable? 542. The bond energies (in kJ mol-1) of P–H, As–H
(a) H2 (b) F2 and N–H are respectively
(c) O2 (d) N2 (a) 247, 389 and 318 (b) 247, 318 and 389
AMU–2003 (c) 318, 389 and 247 (d) 318, 247 and 389
Ans. (d) : Bond order in H2=1 AP EAMCET- 2002
Bond order in F2=1 Ans. (d) : Bond energy increase then the bond length
Bond order in O2=2 decrease. As–H has bond length is maximum in
Bond order in N2= 3 comparison to N–H and P–H.
Higher the bond order, more stable is the molecule. So the bond energy is less. The correct order of bond
energy is– N – H > P – H > As – H
540. N2 and O2 are converted to N 2+ and O 2+ 543. An element M reacts with chlorine to form a
respectively. Which of the following is not compound X. The bond angle in X is 120o.
correct? What is M?
+ (a) Be (b) B
(a) In N 2 , the N – N bond weakens.
(c) Mg (d) N
(b) In O 2+ , O – O bond order increases. AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2002
Ans. (b) : When boron and nitrogen reacts with chlorine
(c) In O 2+ , paramagnetism decreases. to form BCl3, NCl3 respectively. The bond angle in
+
(d) N 2 becomes diamagnetic BCl3 is 120o and bond angle in NCl3 is 107o and hence,
the M will be boron.
J & K CET-2003
544. Which of the following molecule has highest
2
Ans. (d) : N2 (Total e– = 14) = (σ1s) σ∗1s (σ2s )
( )
2 2 bond energy?
(a) F−F (b) N−N
∗ 2 1 2 (c) C−C (d) O−O
( ) ( 2
σ 2s π2p x = π2p y σ2p z 2
)( ) AIIMS-2002
10 – 4 Ans. (b): The molecular orbital configuration of
Bond order of N 2 = =3 molecule is –
2
2 2 (i)F2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p 2z, π2p 2x = π2p 2y ,
O2 (total e– = 16) = (σ1s) σ∗1s (σ2s ) σ∗ 2s
( ) ( )
2 2
π * 2p 2x = π *sp 2y
∗ ∗
2
( 2 2
)( 1
(σ2pz ) π2p x = π2p y π 2p x = π 2p y 1
) Bond order =
10 − 8
=1
10 – 6 – 2
Bond order of O 2 = =2 unpaired e = 2 (i) N2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p x2 = π2p 2y , σ2p 2z
2
Similarly, 10 − 4
9– 4 Bond order = =3
+
Bond order of N 2 = = 2.5, n = 1 (Paramagnetic) 2
2 (iii) C2 = σ1s , σ *1s , σ 2s , σ * 2s 2 , π2p 2x = π2p 2y
2 2 2
10 – 5
Bond order of O +2 = = 2.5, Unpaired e – = 1 8−4
2 Bond order = =2
2
According to the above explanations, only one
(iv) O2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p z,2 π2p 2x
statement is not true i.e. option (d) because N +2
becomes paramagnetic. = π2p 2y , π * 2p 2x = π * 2p1y
541. The bond order of O +2 is: 10 − 6

Bond order = =2
(a) 2 (b) 2.5 2
(c) 1.5 (d) 0.5 ∴ Bond order is directly proportional to bond energy
JCECE - 2003 hence, N2 has maximum bond energies.
545. Bond order of N––O bonds in nitrate ion is 548. Which one of the following order is correct for
(a) 1.25 (b) 1.50 the bond energies of halogen molecules?
(c) 1.33 (d) 1.0 (a) I2>Cl2>Br2 (b) Br2>Cl2>I2
AMU 2002 (c) Cl2>Br2>I2 (d) I2>Br2>Cl2
Ans. (c) : The resonating structure of nitrate ion is AP EAMCET- 2001
given below- Ans. (c) : On moving from top to down in a group of
halogen family bond energies decrease due to distance
b/w the electron and nuclei increases thereby decreasing
the force of attraction.
∴ The order of bond energies is-
Cl2 > Br2 > I2
Total number of bonds (N - O)in all 549. The catenation tendency of C, Si and Ge is in
the order Ge < Si < C. The bond energies (in kJ
resonating structure mol-1) of C–C, Si–Si and Ge–Ge bonds,
Bond order =
Number of resonating structure respectively, are:
4 (a) 167, 180, 348 (b) 180, 167,348
Bond order = = 1.33 (c) 348, 167, 180 (d) 348, 180, 167
3 AP EAMCET- 2001
546. Bond angle of 109º28' is found in Ans. (d) : Catenation tendency ∝ Bond energy.
(a) NH 3 (b) H 2 O Hence, catenation tendency of Ge < Si < C is given so
⊕ ⊕ the bond energies of C–C, Si–Si and Ge–Ge will be
(c) C H 5 (d) N H 4 348, 180, 167 are respectively.
(AIEEE-2002) 550. Which of the following statements is true?
Ans. (d) : Molecules which has regular geometry then (a) Hybridization of the central atom in NH3 and
+
they acquire the proper bond angle. Here, NH 4 has sp 3 CH4 is sp2
hybridisation with zero lone pair. (b) BeCl2 has V-shape while SO2 is linear
(c) SF6 is octahedral and F–S–F bond angle 90º
(d) CO2 has dipole moment
AP-EAMCET/2001
Ans. (c): SF6 has octahedral structure :
Whereas NH3 and H2O has one and two lone pair
respectively due to which they have less bond angle
than NH +4 .
547. The species containing shortest O – O bond Be bond angle F – S – F is 90º. Statement is true.
length is
–
• Hybridization of central atom in NH3 and CH4 is
(a) O2 (b) O 2 sp3.
(c) O 22– (d) O 2+ • BeCl2 is linear and SO2 is V-shaped structure.
• CO2 has zero dipole moment.
J & K CET-(2002)
551. Which of the following has the lowest bond
Ans. (d) : O +2 has 15 e–. Molecular orbital angle?
configuration can be written as– (a) H2O (b) CH4
∗ 2 ∗ 2 (c) H2S (d) NH3
+
(2
) ( 2
)
O 2 (15) = (σ1s) σ 1s (σ2s ) σ 2s (σ 2p z )
2
AP-EAMCET/2000
∗
( 2
)( 2
)1
π2p x = π2p y π 2p x Ans. (c): H 2 S has the lowest bond angle i.e. 92.5º
because sulphur has more in size than the oxygen.
10 – 5 • Molecule Bond angle
Bond order = = 2.5
2 H 2O – 104.5°
10 – 6 CH4 – 109.5°
Similarly, Bond order of O 2 = =2 NH3 – 107.5°
2
– 10 – 7 552. In which of the following compounds the angle
Bond order of O 2 = = 1.5 between two covalent bonds is highest?
2
(a) CH4 (b) NH3
10 – 8
Bond order of O 2– 2 = = 1 (c) H 2 O (d) H2O2
2 AP-EAMCET (Med.)-1999
It is very well known that bond length is inversely 3
proportional to the bond order of the molecules. Thus, Ans. (a) : The hybridisation of CH4 molecule is sp .
There is no any lone pair present in the CH4. Hence, the
O +2 has shortest bond length. actual bond angle is 109028'. Whereas, NH , H O and
3 2

H2O2 contains the 1, 2 and 2 lone pair respectively. It 10 − 8
are also have sp3 hybridisation but due to the lone pair- (d) O 22− (total e- =18)⇒ Bond order = =1
lone pair repulsion bond angle reduces. 2
CH4 bond angle is 109.28° Thus, O +2 has maximum bond order
NH3 bond angle is 107° 557. Cyclic hydrocarbon 'A' has all the carbon and
H2O bond angle is 104.5° hydrogen atoms in a single plane. All the
H2O2 bond angle is 97° carbon-carbon bonds have the same length, less
553. The correct order of the bond angles is than 1.54 Å, but more than 1.34 Å. The bond
(a) NH3 > H2O > PH3 > H2S angle will be
(b) NH3 > PH3 > H2O > H2S (a) 109028' (b) 1000
0
(c) NH3 > H2S > PH3 > H2O (c) 180 (d) 1200
(d) PH3 > H2S > NH3 > H2O NEET-1989
J & K CET-(1997) Ans. (d) : The cyclic hydrocarbon 'A' is benzene
Ans. (a) : According to the VSEPR theory–the bond because in benzene bond length is between single and
angle is inversely proportional to the electronegativity double bond and all the carbon and hydrogen atoms i.e.
2
of the substituent and directly proportional to the size in a single plane where eacho C atom is sp hybridised
of central atom. so, C–C–C bond angle is 120 .
558. The Cl–C–Cl angle in 1, 1, 2, 2-tetrachloro-
ethene and tetra-chloromethane respectively
will be about
(a) 1200 and 109.50 (b) 900 and 109.50
0 0
(c) 109.5 and 90 (d) 109.50 and 1200
554. The bond angle of H2X (where, X is a sixth NEET-1988
group element), as one goes down the group, Ans. (a) : In 1, 1, 2, 2 tetrachloroethene, each carbon is
(a) Increases (b) Decreases sp2 hybridised, thus having bond angle 120o and in
(c) Does not change (d) Changes irregulary tetrachloromethane carbon is sp3- hybridized, hence
AP EAMCET- 1996 bond angle is 109.5o.
Ans. (b) : The bond angle of H2X (where, X is a sixth + −
group element) decreases as we go down the group 559.The bond angles of NH 3 , NH 4 and NH 2 are in the
because of electronegativity decreases. order
555. The effect of repulsion between the two lone (a) NH −2 > NH 3 > NH 4+ (b) NH +4 > NH 3 > NH 2−
pairs of electrons present on oxygen in water (c) NH 3 > NH −2 > NH 4+ (d) NH > NH +4 > NH 2−
molecule is : VITEEE 2014
(a) no change in H–O–H bond angle
Ans. (b) : On increases the number of lone pairs of
(b) increase in H–O–H bond angle
electrons, bond angle decreases. Therefore order of
(c) decrease in H–O–H bond angle
bond angle of these species is-
(d) All atoms will be in one plane
AP-EAMCET/1996 NH +4 > NH 3 > NH 2−
Ans. (c): According to the Valence Bond Theory ↓ ↓ ↓
(VBT), the repulsion are working in following manner– Zero One Two
Lone pair-lone pair > Lone pair-bond pair > Bond pair- lone lone lone
bond pair. The repulsion decreases the bond angle. pair pair pair
Water molecule which is sp3 hybridized. It angle is
104.5º. This is due to the presence of two lone pairs of
560. Which one of the following pairs of species
electrons.
have the same bond order?
556. Which of the following molecules has the (a) CN– and NO+ (b) CN– and CN+
highest bond order?
(c) O −2 and CN − (d) NO+ and CN+
(a) O −2 (b) O2
Kerala CEE 2009, NEET 2017
(c) O +2 (d) O 22− Ans. (a) : The given species which have equal number
NEET-1994 of total electron then they have the same bond order.
Ans. (c) Only CN– and NO+ has the same no of total electron
10 − 7 i.e. 14. Hence, they have same bond order.
(a) O −2 (total e- =17)⇒Bond order = = 1.5
2 561. Stability of the species Li 2 , Li 2− and Li +2
10 − 6 increases in the order of
(b) O 2 (total e- =16)⇒ Bond order = =2
2 (a) Li 2 < Li 2+ < Li 2− (b) Li 2– < Li +2 < Li 2
10 − 5 (c) Li 2 < Li 2− < Li 2+ (d) Li −2 < Li 2 < Li 2+
(c) O +2 (total e- =15)⇒ Bond order = = 2.5
2 JEE Main 2013

Ans. (b) : The given species are Li 2 , Li +2 , and Li 2– Choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
2 2 2
Total no. of e– in Li2(6) = (σ1s) σ*1s ( ) (σ2s) A
(a) (iii)
B
(iv)
C
(i)
D
(ii)
N a = 2, N b = 4 (b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
2 (c) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Total no. of e– in Li +2 (5) = (σ1s) σ*1s
2
( ) (σ2s)
1
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
N a = 2, N b = 3 JEE Main 05.03.2021
Total no. of e– in Li 2– (7) Ans. (a) :
2 2 2 1 Molecule Naand Nb Bond order
= (σ1s) σ*1s( ) (σ2s) (σ* 2s)
Ne2 Nb=10,Na=10
N – N a 10 – 10
B.O. = b = =0
N a = 3, N b = 4 2 2
If Nb is the number of electrons occupying bonding 10 – 4
N2 Nb=10,Na=4 B.O. = =3
orbitals and Na is the number of electron occupying the 2
antibonding orbitals then the molecule is stable if Nb is 10 – 8
greater than Na. Hence, the correct order of stability is– F2 Nb=10,Na=8 B.O. = =1
2
Li 2– < Li +2 < Li 2 .
10 – 6
562. In which of the following processes, the bond O2 Nb=10,Na=6 B.O. = =2
2
order has increased and paramagnetic
character has changed to diamagnetic? 564. The correct order of bond angles (smallest
(a) O 2 → O 2+ (b) N 2 → N 2+ first) in H 2S, NH 3 , BF3 and SiH 4 is
(c) O 2 → O 2−
(d) NO → NO + (a) H 2S < SiH 4 < NH 3 < BF3
JEE Main 2019 (b) NH 3 < H 2S < SiH 4 < BF3
Ans. (d) : The species are given below– (c) H 2S < NH 3 < SiH 4 < BF3
(d) H 2S < NH 3 < BF3 < SiH 4
AIEEE 2004
Ans. (c) : The bond angle of the molecules depends
upon the hybridization of molecule as well as
availability of lone pair of electron on central atom.
H 2S
Hybridisation = Bond pair + Lone pair
=2+2
= 4 (sp3)
Similarly,
NH3
Hence, the correct option is (d).

SiH4
563. Match List-I with List-II Hybridisation = 4 + 0 = (sp3)
List-I List-II
(Molecule) (Bond order)
A Ne2 (i) 1
B N2 (ii) 2
C F2 (iii) 0 Hence, the correct order of bond angle is–
D O2 (iv) 3 SH2 < NH3 < SiH4 < BF3.

568. The correct Lewis acid order for boron halides is–
5. Fajan's Rule (a) BBr3 > BCl3 > BI3 > BF3
(b) BI3 > BF3 > BBr3 > BCl3
565. The correct order of acid strength is (c) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3
(a) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 (d) BI3 > BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(b) HClO4 < HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 BCECE-2017, 2016
(c) HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO Ans. (d) : According to the Fajan's rule- acidity is
(d) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO directly proportional to the size of anion of the
compound Here, I– has the larger size than the Br, Cl
JEE Main- 2014
and F.
BCECE-2010 Hence, the order of lewis acid will be–
JIPMER-2007 BI3 > BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
UP CPMT-2002
569. The correct decreasing order of solubility of
Ans. (a) : Oxygen is more electronegative element. The the sulphates in water is–
species which have more number of oxygen atoms (a) BeSO4 > MgSO4 > CaSO4 > SrSO4 > BaSO4
attached with the chlorine get's more acidic character
because oxygen atom pulls the bonding pair of electron (b) BaSO4 > SrSO4 > CaSO4 > MgSO4 > BeSO4
due to which the strength of bond (H–X) get weaked (c) BaSO4 > SrSO4 > CaSO4 > MgSO4 > BeSO4
and the removal of H easily takes place. Hence, the (d) BaSO4 > SrSO4 > MgSO4 > CaSO4 > BeSO4
correct order of acidic strength is–
HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 Manipal-2020, BCECE-2015
Ans. (a) : With increase in radius of the cation down the
566. The correct sequence of increasing covalent
group, ∆Hs becomes less and less negative Hence, the
character is represented by
solubility decreasing down the group.
(a) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2
Hence, the decreasing order of solubility will be–
(b) BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl BeSO4 > MgSO4 > CaSO4 > SrSO4 > BaSO4
(c) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2
570. Among Al2 O3 ,SiO 2 , P2 O3 and SO 2 , the correct
(d) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl
JCECE - 2016, 2012 order of acid strength is
JIPMER-2007 (a) SO 2 < P2 O3 < SiO 2 < Al 2 O3
NEET-2005 (b) SiO 2 < SO 2 < Al2 O3 < P2 O3
Ans. (c) : On the basis of Fajan's rule, lower the size of (c) Al 2O3 < SiO 2 < SO 2 < P2 O3
cation higher will be its polarising power and higher (d) Al 2O3 < SiO 2 < P2 O3 < SO 2
will be covalent character.
Assam CEE-2014, AIEEE- 2004
1
∴ Polarising power ∝ Ans. (d) : While moving along a group from top to
Size of cation bottom, acidic nature of oxides decreases and along a
Covalent character ∝ Polarising power period from left to right acidic nature increases. Thus,
So, the correct order is NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2 the increasing order will be:–
(The order of size of cation Na+ > Li+ > Be2+) Al2 O3 < SiO 2 < P2 O3 < SO 2 .
567. The charge/size ratio of a cation determines its 571. The correct order of the increasing basic
polarizing power. Which one of the following nature of the given oxides is
sequences represents the increasing order of (a) MgO < K2O < Al2O3 < Na2O
the polarizing power of the cationic species, (b) Na2O < K2O < MgO < Al2O3
K+, Ca2+, Mg2+, Be2+? (c) K2O < Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO
(a) Ca2+ <Mg2+<Be2+ <K+ (d) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O
(b) Mg2+ <Be2+ < K+ < Ca2+ Assam CEE-2014
(c) Be2+<K+<Ca2+< Mg2+ (AIEEE 2011)
(d) K+<Ca2+< Mg2+< Be2+ Ans. (d) : According to the Fajan's rule–
COMEDK 2017 1
JIPMER-2015 Polarization power ∝
Basicity
AIEEE-2007
1
Ans. (d) : The charge/size ratio of a cation determinesor No. of cation ∝
its polarizing power. Higher is the charge and lower to Basicity
and
size ratio and higher will be the polarizing power of the
cation. size of cation ∝ Basicity
As the size of the given cations decreases as The given compounds are MgO, K2O, Al2O3 and Na2O.
K + > Ca 2+ > Mg 2+ > Be 2+ +2 +1 +3 +1
Mg O K 2 O Al2 O3 Na 2 O
Hence, polarizing power increases as
Hence, the order will be-
K + < Ca 2+ < Mg 2+ < Be 2+
Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O
572. Among LiCl, BeCl2,BCl3 and CCl4, the covalent Observed dipole moment
bond character follows the order = ×100
(a) LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4 Calculated dipole moment
(b) BCl3< CCl4 < BeCl2 < LiCl 1.03
(c) BeCl2 < LiCl < CCl4 < BCl3 = ×100 = 16.83
6.12
(d) CCl4 < BCl3 < BeCl2 < LiCl 577. The correct set from the following in which both
JIPMER-2013 pairs are in correct order of melting point is
NEET-1990 (a) LiF > LiCl, MgO > NaCl
Ans. (a) : According to the Fajan's rule, covalent (b) LiCl > LiF, NaCl > MgO
character is directly proportional charge on cation and (c) LiF > LiCl, NaCl > MgO
inversaly proportional to the size of cation. Among (d) LiCl > LiF, MgO > NaCl
LiCl, BeCl2, BCl3 and CCl4 has the +1, +2, +3 and +4 [JEE Main-2021, 24 Feb Shift-II]
change respectively. Thus, the increasing order of
covalevt character will be– Ans. (a) : The charge on cation is inversely proportional
to the melting point of the compound.
LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4
573. Which one of the following has the highest 1
Charge on cation ∝
Lewis acid strength? Melting point
(a) BI3 (b) BBr3
(c) BF3 (d) BCl3 1
Manipal-2016 Size of anion ∝
Melting point
J & K CET-(2009)
In the given set LiF and LiCl, F has less atomic size
Ans. (a) : According to the Fajan's rule, size of ion is than Cl. Hence, LiF has higher melting point than LiCl.
directly proportional to the acidic strength. In the given MgO NaCl
halogen of borons. I– ion has large size due to which
they have highest lewis acid strength. Similarly, Mg→2+ Na→+1
O→2– Cl→1–
574. Which of the following metal hydroxides is
strong base ? MgO having +2 charge which is greater than NaCl(+1)
charge. So, greater the charge on the ions greater will be
(a) Mg(OH)2 (b) Ca(OH)2
lattice energy and hence, melting point order is MgO >
(c) Sr(OH)2 (d) Ba(OH)2 NaCl.
UP CPMT-2012
AMU-2007 578. Which is the most covalent ?
(a) AlCl3 (b) AlI3
Ans. (d) : The alkaline metal hydroxides are stronger (c) MgI2 (d) NaI
bases and their basic strength increases from Be(OH)2
to Ba(OH)2 due to corresponding decrease in the
ionization enthalpy of the metal as we move down the Ans. (b) : The given species are –
group. Thus Ba(OH)2 is a strongest base. AlCl3 AlI3 MgI 2 NaI
575. The correct order of acidic strength is Charge − +3 +3 +2 +1
(a) K2O > CaO > MgO
(b) Na2O > MgO > Al2O3 Anion − Cl− I− I− I−
(c) CO2 > N2O5 > SO3 According to the Fajan’s rule – the covalent character
(d) Cl2O7 > SO2 > P4O10 depends upon the charge of cation and size of anions.
AMU-2012, 2001 As the size of anion increases the covalent character
will be also increases. So, AlI3 have the more covalent
Ans. (d) : On moving across the period, the acidic character.
character of the oxides increases.
579. The correct order of boiling point in the
576. The bond length of HCl molecule is 1.275 Å following compounds is
and its dipole moment is 1.03 D. The ionic (a) HF > H2O > NH3 (b) H2O > HF > NH3
character of the molecule (in per cent) (charge
of the electron = 4.8 × 10–10 esu) is : (c) NH3 > H2O > HF (d) NH3 > HF > H2O
(a) 100 (b) 67.3 Kerala-CEE-29.08.2021
(c) 33.66 (d) 16.83 Ans. (b) : Both H2O and HF have electronegative atom
AP-EAMCET/2008, 2003 are oxygen and fluorine respectively in their molecule. In
fact, fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen, so
Ans. (d): Given : technically, HF should engage in more hydrogen bonding
Bond length of HCl molecule = 1.275 Å than water but the scenario is different. Each water
= 1.275 × 10–10m molecule has two hydrogen atoms. Whereas, each HF
= 1.275 × 10–8 cm. molecule has only one hydrogen atom and water
Observed dipole moment = 1.03 D molecule takes part in extensive and more hydrogen
Charge of electron (e–) = 4.8 × 10–10 esu bonding than hydrofluoric acid. Water molecule through
Calculated dipole moment = e × d its extensive hydrogen bonding forms a bulky molecule
= 4.8 × 10–10 esu × 1.275 × 10–8 cm. and it is very difficult to break its bonds. A large amount
= 6.12 D of energy is required to break all its bonds. Thus, H2O
% Ionic character has a higher boiling point than HF and NH3.

580. The correct decreasing order of the basic 584. The acidic oxide from below is
strength is (a) CO (b) GeO
(a) HS− > CH 3− > NH 2− > CN − (c) SnO (d) PbO
(b) HS− > CN − > NH 2− > CN 3−
Ans. (b) : As we know down in group acidic nature of
(c) CH 3− > NH 2− > CN − > HS− oxides decrease and basic nature increases.
− − − − So,
(d) NH 2 > CN > CN3 > HS
Neutral oxide – CO
TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 05.08.2021 Shift-II Acidi oxide – GeO
Ans. (c) : Decreasing order of basicly is as follow, Basic oxide – SnO, PbO
CH 3− > NH 2− > CN − > HS− 585. The Lewis acid in the following is
To determine the basic strength of these anions we need (a) PH3 (b) H2S
to find out the acidic strength of the conjugate acids. (c) C2H4 (d) B2H6
Conjugate acids of CH 3− , NH 2− ,CN − , HS− are CH4, NH3, TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-II
HCN, H2S respectively. Ans. (d) :B2H6 is laws acid. In diborane two e– are
As we know that, Shared between three centers Boron centre is e–
Acidity ∝ Electronegativity deficient ,so it act as Lewis acid
On going from left to right in the period,
electronegativity increases.
So, acidity order is HS− > CN − > NH 2− > CH3− .
Hence, the basicity order of the conjugate acids are–
CH 3− > NH 2− > CN − > HS−
581. Which among the following is least covalent in
nature?
(a) NF3 (b) BiF3
(c) PF3 (d) SbF3
Ans. (b) : The covalent character is directly
proportional to the no. of charge of cation and inversely
proportional to the size of cation. Here, Bi has the more
ionic radius due to which they shows the least covalent
character. 586. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
582. How many of the following oxides are (a) Tl3+ salts are oxidizing agents.
amphoteric? (b) Ga+ salts are reducing agents.
BeO, ZnO, Sb2O3, CO, CaO, SO2, SO3 (c) Pb4+ salts are better oxidizing agents
(a) 2 (b) 3 (d) As+5 salts are better oxidizing agents.
(c) 4 (d) 5 AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-I
TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 07.08.2021 Shift-II Ans. (d) : As+5 cannot be reduced.
Ans. (b) : Metal oxides which react with both acids as As+5 salts are not a good oxidizing agent.
well as bases to produce salts and water are known as
amphoteric oxides. Atom whose oxide show amphoteric As + 2e  → As3+ (less stable)
+5 –
nature is Zn, Al, Be, Ga, Pb, Sn, As, Sb and Bi. So, 587. How many oxides among the following are
ZnO, Sb2O3 & BeO shows amphoteric nature because basic in nature ?
all three oxide react with both acid and bases. As2O3, Na2O, MgO, Mn2O3, CaO, ZnO, N2O,
583. A metal 'M' readily gives MSO4, which is N 2O 5
soluble in water. It forms its oxide MO which is (a) 4 (b) 5
amphoteric. It forms an insoluble hydroxide (c) 3 (d) 6
M(OH)2, which is soluble in NaOH solution. AP EAPCET 24.08.2021, Shift-I
The M is Ans. (c) :
(a) Be (b) Ba
(c) Ca (d) Mg
Ans. (a) : Beryllium form Beryllium sulfate (BeSO4)
which is water soluble
• Beryllium form Beryllium hydroxide (Be(OH)2)
which is insoluble in water.
• Beryllium form Beryllium Oxide (BeO) which
becomes inert on heating.
• Be(OH)2 being amphoteric reacts with NaOH.
• Solubility of alkaline earth metal decreases as we
move down in the periodic table.

588. Assertion (A): LiCl and MgCl2 are soluble in 592. Compound A used as a strong oxidizing agent
ethanol. is amphoteric in nature. It is the part of lead
Reason (R): Lithium and magnesium are storage batteries. Compound A is:
harder than their respective group elements (a) PbO (b) PbO2
The correct option among the following is (c) Pb3O4 (d) PbSO4
(a) (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct JEE Main 26.02.2021, Shift-I
explanation for (A)
(b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the Ans. (b) : PbO2 is the amphoteric and strong oxidizing
correct explanation for (A) agent and also a component of lead storage batteries. In
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false this oxidation state of Pb is +4. So it is always reduced
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true and behaves as oxidizing agent.
TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 06.08.2021 593. Which pair of oxides is acidic in nature ?
Ans. (b): Ethanol form hydrogen bonding. It is covalent (a) B2O3,CaO (b) B2O3, SiO2
in nature and polar. LiCl and MgCl2 are polar nature, so (c) N2O, BaO (d) CaO, SiO2
soluble in polar ethanol. (JEE Main 2021, 26 Feb Shift-II)
Both Li and Mg are quite hard. They are harder and Ans. (b) : According to the Fajan's rule, acidic character
lighter than other elements in their respective group. is directly proportional to the charge on ion.
So (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the correct (a) B 2O 3 CaO
explanation for (A). B→+3 Ca→+2
589. Highest covalent character is found in which of (b) B 2O 3 SiO2
the following? B→+3 Si→+4
(a) CaF2 (b) CaCl2 (c) N 2O BaO
(c) CaBr2 (d) CaI2 N→+1 Ba→+2
TS EAMCET 04.08.2021, Shift-I (d) CaO SiO2
Ans. (d) : According to Fajan’s Rules "size of anion
Ca→+2 Si→+4
increases then covalent character also increases." The
size of iodide is maximum than the other halogen atom. In the given set, B and Si has highest number of
So, highest covalent character is found CaI2. ions due to which they have highest acidic character.
594. The correct order of boiling points in the
590. Given below are two statements:
following compounds is
Statement I : Both CaCl26H2O and MgCl2 8H2O
undergo dehydration on heating. (a) HF>H2O>NH3 (b) H2O>HF>NH3
Statement II : BeO is amphoteric whereas the (c) NH3>H2O>HF (d) NH3>HF>H2O
oxides of other elements in the same group are Karnataka-CET-2021
acidic. Ans. (b) : As we know that more the hydrogen bonding,
In the light of the above statements, choose the higher will be boiling point. Each water molecule
correct answer from the options given below : formed four hydrogen bonds with surrounding water
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true molecule. Thus, H2O has more boiling point than HF
(b) Both statement I and statement II are false and NH3. Due to more electronegativity of fluoride ion,
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false the partial positive and negative charge generated and
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true having the more boiling point than NH3. Hence, The
JEE Main 16.03.2021, Shift-I correct order of boiling point is – H2O > HF > NH3.
Ans. (b) : The dehydration of CaCl 2 ⋅ 6H 2 O and 595. Amphoteric hydroxide from the following is
MgCl 2 ⋅ 8H 2 O has been studied with heating. (a) Al(OH)3 (b) In(OH)3
∆ (c) B(OH)3 (d) Tl(OH)3
(a) CaCl2 ⋅ 6H 2 O  → CaCl2 + 6H 2 O TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 07.08.2021 Shift-II
( Anhydrous )
∆ Ans. (a) :
(b) MgCl 2 ⋅ 8H 2 O → MgCl(OH) + 2HCl + 5H 2 O
Al(OH)3 –Amphoteric
Both statement I and statement II are false. BeO is In(OH)3– Much more basic than Acidic
amphoteric in nature and the oxides of same group are
basic in nature. B(OH)3–Weak Acid
Tl(OH)3 –Weak base
591. Number of amphoteric compounds among the
Al(OH)3 is amphoteric in nature because it can react
following is______.
1. BeO 2. BaO both acid and bases.
3. Be(OH)2 4. Sr(OH)2 Reaction of Al(OH)3 in acidic solution–
(a) 2 (b) 3 HCl(aq) + Al(OH)3(aq) → AlCl3(aq) + 3H2O
(c) 1 (d) 4 Reaction of Al(OH)3 in basic medium–
JEE Main 24.02.2021, Shift-I Al(OH)3 + OH– → [Al(OH)4]–
Ans. (a) : Both beryllium compounds BeO and 596. Which of the following molecules is non-polar
Be(OH)2 are amphoteric in nature (react with acid and in nature?
bases) and compound BaO and Sr(OH)2 are basic in (a) NO2 (b) POCl3
nature, they form alkaline solution in water. Hence, (c) CH2O (d) SbCl5
BeO and Be(OH)2 are amphoteric compounds. NEET-2021
Ans. (d) : The structure of given molecule as under:- 600. The intermolecular potential energy for the
molecules A, B, C and D given below suggests
that:
597. Among LiCl, BeCl2, BCl3 and CCl4, the

covalent bond character varies as
(a) LiCl<BeCl2> BCl3> CCl4
(b) BCl3>BeCl2>CCl4>LiCl
(c) LiCl<BeCl2<BCI3<CCl4 (a) A-B has the stiffest bond
(d) LiCl>BeCl2>BCI3> CCI4 (b) D is more electronegative than other atoms
COMEDK 2020 (c) A-A has the largest bond enthalpy
Ans. (c) : More the charge density of cation (i.e, smaller (d) A-D has the shortest bond length
size and high magnitude of charge) more is the covalent (JEE Main 2020, 4 Sep. Shift-I)
character. Ans. (a) : From the given graph, potential energy of A–
Order of charge density the thus the covalent character B molecule is minimum. Thus A–B bond is most stable
is CCl4 >BCl3>BeCl2>LiCl. and have strongest bond amongst these.
598. Which of the following is the correct order? B→Most electronegative
(a) Acidic strength : D→Least electronegative
HClO 4 , < HClO3 , < HClO 2 , < HClO A–B→ Shortest bond length.
(b) Stability : HI < HBr < HCl < HF A–B→Largest bond entholpy.
(c) Ionic character : MF < MCl < MBr < MI 601. Which hydride amongst the following has the
(d) Electron gain enthalpy: I < Br < Cl < F least boiling point?
GUJCET-2020 (a) NH3 (b) PH3
(c) AsH3 (d) SbH3
Ans. (b) : (e) BiH3
(a) With increase in oxidation number of a particular Kerala-CEE-2019
atom, the acidic character of corresponding oxoacid
increases. The increasing order of acidic strength is– Ans. (b) : Boiling point depends on the molecular mass
of the compound. As we go down the group molecular
HClO < HClO 2 < HClO3 < HClO 4 mass increase so does boiling point but due to presence
Hence, the given order of acidic strength is wrong. of hydrogen bonding in H2O and NH3 they have
(b) The stability of these halides decreases down the exceptionally high boiling point. PH3 have lowest
group due to decrease in bond (H–X) dissociation boiling point among the hydride of group no. 15. NH3 is
enthalpy in the order Hence, the stability order– higher boiling point due to excessive hydrogen bonding.
HI < HBr < HCl < HF 602. Which of the following metal halide is more
Hence, the given order is true. covalent?
(c) The ionic character of the halides increase in the (a) SnCl2 (b) PbCl2
order MI < MBr < MCl < MF. Where M is a (c) SbCl3 (d) SbCl5
monovalent atom. Hence, the given order is false. MHT CET-03.05.2019, SHIFT-I
(d) The electron gain enthalpy are of halogen atom in
Ans. (d) : Charge of cation is directly proportional to
following manner–
the covalent character.
I < Br < F < Cl.
SnCl2 PbCl2 SbCl3 SbCl5
Hence, the given order is false.
Sn→+2 Pb→+2 Sb→+3 Sb→+5
599. If the boiling point of H2O is 373 K, the boiling The penta chloride of antimony has the
point of H2S will be maximum no. of cation due to which they has more
(a) less than 300 K covalent character.
(b) equal to 373 K 603. Match the oxide given in column I with its
(c) more than 373 K property given in column II.
(d) greater than 300 K but less than 373 K Column I Column II
(JEE Main 2020, 3 Sep. Shift-I) (i) Na2O A. Neutral
Ans. (a) : Chemical formula of water is H2O so at (ii) Al2O3 B. Basic
room temperature, water molecule is found in liquid (iii) N2O C. Acidic
because of hydrogen bonding but compound H2S is (iv) Cl2O7 D. Amphoteric
found in gas because sulphur atoms don't show Which of the following options has all correct
hydrogen bonding. Now you know as well, a gas has pairs?
very low boiling point compare to liquid. Therefore, the (a) (i) -B, (ii)-A, (iii)-D, (iv)-C
boiling point of H2S should be less than 300 K. (b) (i) -C, (ii)-B, (iii)-A, (iv)-D
(c) (i) -A, (ii)-D, (iii)-B, (iv)-C 608. If Na+ ion is larger than Mg2+ ions and S2–ion is
(d) (i) -B, (ii)-D, (iii)-A, (iv)-C larger than Cl– ion, which of the following will
NEET-Odisha 2019 be stable salt in water?
Ans. (d) : (a) Sodium chloride
Compound (b) Sodium sulphide
(i) Na 2 O − Basic (c) Magnesium sulphide
(d) Magnesium chloride
(ii) Al2 O3 − Amphoteric
JIPMER-2018
(iii) N2O − Neutral Ans. (c) : The lattice energy of a salt gives a rough
(iv) Cl2 O7 − Acidic indication of the solubility of the salt in water because it
reflects the energy needed to separate the positive and
604. The melting points of (i) BeCl2 (ii) CaCl2 and
negative ions in a salt. Sodium and potassium salts are
(iii) HgCl2 follows the order
soluble in water because they have relatively small
(a) i < ii < iii (b) iii < i < ii
lattice energies. Magnesium and aluminum salts are
(c) i < iii < ii (d) ii < i < iii often much less soluble because it takes more energy to
WB-JEE-2019 separate the positive and negative ions in these salts.
Ans. (b) : According to the Fajan's rule- 609. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in
1 nature?
Polarization power ∝
Melting point (a) MgO (b) BeO
BeCl2 CaCl2 HgCl2 (c) BaO (d) CaO
Be→+2 Ca→+2 Hg→+2 NEET-2018
The covalent character will be HgCl2 > BeCl2 > CaCl2 Ans. (b) : In metals moving down the group metallic
Thus, melting point will be HgCl2<BeCl2<CaCl2 i.e. iii character increases, so basic nature increases hence
< i < ii. most acidic will BeO as Be is least metallic in group 2
element.
605. Which of the following has correct increasing MgO BeO BaOCaO
order of hydrolysis?
Mg→+2 Be→+2 Ba→+2 Ca→+2
(a) CCl4 < MgCl2 <AlCl3 <SiCl4 < PCl5
O→–2 O→–2 O→–2 O→–2
(b) PCl5 < MgCl2 < AlCl3 <SiCl4 < CCl4
Beryllium has less atomic size thus BeO has most acidic
(c) PCl5 < SiCl2 < MgCl2 < AlCl3 < CCl4 in nature.
(d) None of these
[AIIMS-26 May, 2018 (E)] 610. Which of the following oxide is of acidic
nature?
Ans. (a): The increasing order of extent of hydrolysis is (a) B2O3 (b) Al2O3
CCl4 < MgCl2 < AlCl3 < SiCl4 < PCl5. As the number of (c) Ga2O3 (d) In2O3
chlorine atoms increases, the charge on the central
metal atom increases and the tendency for the UPTU/UPSEE-2018
nucleophilic attack increases. Hence, the extent of Ans. (a) : According to the periodic trends in group 13,
hydrolysis increases. on moving down, the nature of oxide changes from
acidic to basic. B2O3 is the acidic oxide: Acidic
606. Which of the following is least basic? character of boron oxide may be explained on the basis
(a) NF3 (b) NCl3 of Fajan's rule i.e. small size of boron.
(c) NBr3 (d) NI3
B2 O3 } Acidic
BCECE-2018
Ans. (a) : The size of anion is inversely proportional to Al2 O3 
the basicity. NF3 has least tendency to donate a pair of  Amphotoric
Ga 2 O3 
electrons because of high electronegativity of F. The
lewis base strength of the other trihalides increases as In 2 O3 
the electronegativity of halogen decreases.  Basic
Tl 2O3 
607. Which one of the following is least covalent?
(a) VCl2 (b) VCl3 611. Which among the following is the strongest
acid?
(c) VCl4 (d) VOCl3
(a) HF (b) HCl
BCECE-2018
(c) HBr (d) HI
Ans. (a) : The covalent character is directly TS EAMCET-2017
proportional to charge on cation and inversely
proportional to the size of cation. Ans. (d) : As we move down the group, the size of
The species are given below– halogen increases, bond length increases hence bond
+2 +3 energy decreases. So, HI is releases H+ ions easily than
V Cl2 V Cl3 other. Hence, HI is the strongest acid.
+4 +5 612. Which of the following is the most basic oxide?
V Cl4 V OCl3 (a) SO3 (b) SeO3
In VCl2, 'V' has the least charge on cation so this have (c) PoO (d) TeO
the least covalent character. TS EAMCET-2017
Ans. (c) : On going down the group 16, −1
electronegativity decrease and basic nature of oxide or x = − 1 or x = or x = 2
2
increase. Hence PoO is the most basic oxide. Hence, the increasing order of oxidation state of the
613. Which of the following substances has the least molecule is given below–
covalent character? BaO2 < KO2 < O3 < OF2
(a) Cl2O (b) NCl3 617. Which of the following is the correct order of
(c) PbCl2 (d) BaCl2 stability for the given superoxides?
AIIMS-2017 (a) KO2 < RbO2 < CsO2
Ans. (d): The no. of charge on cation is directly (b) CsO2 < RbO2 < KO2
proportional to the covalent character and size of cation (c) RbO2 < CsO2 < KO2
is inversely proportional to the covalent character. (d) KO2 < CsO2 < RbO2
+2 +3
JIPMER-2017
Cl2 O N Cl3
Ans. (a) : The increasing stability of the peroxide or
+2 +2
Pb Cl2 Ba Cl2 superoxide of alkali metal, as the size of metal increases
stability of superoxide also increases. It is due to the
PbCl2, Cl2O and BaCl2 having same charge so we move stabilization of large anions by larger cations through
in to the size of cation. Barium (Ba) ion has the more lattice energy effect. Thus, the increasing, stability order
size than the other so it has least covalent character. of oxide is–
614. Which of the following has highest hydration KO2 < RbO2 < CsO2.
energy? 618. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) MgCl2 (b) CaCl2 (a) BCl3 and AlCl3 are both Lewis acids and
(c) BaCl2 (d) SrCl2 AlCl3 is stronger than BCl3
AMU-2017 (b) BCl3 and AlCl3 are both equally strong Lewis
Ans. (a) : As well as size of alkaline earth metal acid
increases about down the group then the hydration (c) Both BCl3 and AlCl3 are not Lewis acids
energy is also be decreases. Thus, MgCl2 has more (d) BCl3and AlCl3 are both Lewis acids and BCl3
hydration energy. is stronger than AlCl3
615. The correct increasing order for basic strength UPTU/UPSEE-2017
of the following species OH , NH 2 , – − Ans. (a) : According to the Fajan's rule, the acidity of
molecule is directly proportional to the no. of charge
H − C ≡ C − and CH 3 CH 2− are and inversely proportional to the size of cation. The
(a) OH − < HC ≡ C − < NH 2− < CH 3 CH 2− acidic character of halides of group 13 decreases down
− − − −
the group due to increase in size.
(b) OH < HC ≡ C < CH 3 CH 2 < NH 2 ∴ BCl3 and AlCl3 both are Lewis acids and BCl3 is
(c) CH 3 CH 2− < HC ≡ C − < OH − < NH 2− stronger lewis acids than AlCl3.
− −
(d) CH 3 CH 2 < HC ≡ C < NH 2 < OH− − 619. Which of the following compounds has lowest
boiling point?
BCECE-2017 (a) KCl (b) CuCl
Ans. (a) : The conjugate base of a strong acid is weaker (c) CuCl2 (d) CsCl
while the conjugate base of a weak acid is stronger Manipal-2016
Hence, the correct order of strength of bases is:– Ans. (c) : The boiling point of the compound is
OH − < HC ≡ C− < NH −2 < CH 3 − CH −2 inversely proportional to the no. of charge on cation and
CH 3CH 2− is the conjugate base for ethane and directly proportional to the size of cation.
KCl CuCl CuCl 2 CsCl
HC ≡ C− is the conjugate base for ethyne. Since, ethyne K →+1 Cu →+1 Cu →+2 Cs →+1
has more s-character than ethane, it is more acidic. The copper compound has the maximum no. of charge
Thus, the conjugate base of ethyne will be less basic due to which they get the lowest boiling point.
than the conjugate base of ethane. 620. Which one of the following forms a basic
616. In which of the following the oxidation oxide?
number of oxygen has been arranged in (a) B (b) Tl
increasing order? (c) Al (d) Ga
(a) BaO2 < KO2 < O3 < OF2 TS-EAMCET-2016
(b) OF2 < KO2 < BaO2 < O3 Ans. (b) : Element has more metallic character, more
(c) BaO2 < O3 < OF2 < KO2 basic its oxide. All the given element are p-block and in
(d) KO2 < OF2 < O3 < BaO2 p-block on down the group metallic character increase.
JIPMER-2017 So, Tl has more basic oxide.
Ans. (a) : The given species are–BaO2, KO2, O3 and 621. The order of covalent character of KF, KI, KCl
OF2. Let, all the oxygen species has x oxidation is
number. (a) KCl < KF < KI (b) KI < KCl < KF
∴ BaO2 KO2 O3 OF2 (c) KF < KI < KCl (d) KF < KCl < KI
+2+2x = 0 +1+2x=0 x=0 x-2 = 0 TS-EAMCET-2016
Ans. (d) : As we know, the covalent character is Thus, correct order of acidic character is
directly proportional to the polarization power and N2 O5 > SO2 > CO2 > CO
polarization is directly proportional to size of anion.
(+5) (+4) (+4) (+2)
Iodine has the largest size, therefore KI will have the
most covalent character and fluorine has the smallest Note CO is a neutral oxide.
size, So KF will be least covalent. Therefore, the order 626. Reactivity order of halides for
of covalent character of KF, KI, KCl is KF < KCl < KI. dehydrohalogenation is
622. Among LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2, MgCl2 the (a) R–F > R–Cl > R–Br > R – I
compounds with greatest and least ionic (b) R–I > R – Br > R – Cl > R–F
character respectively are (c) R–I > R –Cl > R–Br > R – F
(a) LiCl and RbCl (b) RbCl and BeCl2 (d) R–F > R – I > R – Br > R – Cl
(c) RbCl and MgCl2 (d) MgCl2 and BeCl2 Karnataka-CET-2016
AMU-2016 Ans. (b) : As well as we move down on halogen group
Ans. (b) : The compounds are LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2 and then size of halogens increases. If halogen group
MgCl2. connected with any group, then the bond length also
Covalent character ∝ No. of charge on cation increases down the group, Here, reactivity of R–X
depends upon bond length. More be the bond length,
1
∝ No.of charge on cation easier for the R–X to go for dehydrohalogenation.
Ionic charcter Thus, correct order is:
+ + +2 +2 R–I > R–Br > R–Cl > R–F.
Li Cl Rb Cl BeCl Mg Cl2 627. The correct order of increasing polarizing
+ +
power of the cations in the following AlCl3,
Li and Rb has the equal number of cation so we
MgCl2, NaCl is
distinguish by the size of cation. The size of cation is (a) AlCl3 < MgCl2 < NaCl
directly proportional to the ionic character. The size of
Rb is more than the Li. So, RbCl has greatest ionic (b) MgCl2< NaCl < AlCl3
character. (c) NaCl < MgCl2 < AlCl3
The charge on Be and Mg are same. The metal (d) NaCl < AlCl3< MgCl2
which have less size having the least ionic character. AMU-2015
Hence, BeCl2 has the least ionic character. Ans. (c) : The cations are given as follows:-
623. Thermal stability of BaCO3, CaCO3 and AlCl3 MgCl2 NaCl
MgCO3 is– The polarizing power is directly proportional to the no. of
(a) BaCO3 > CaCO3 > MgCO3 charge and inversaly proportional to the size of cation.
+3 +2 +
(b) BaCO3 > MgCO3 > CaCO3 AlCl3 Mg Cl2 Na Cl
(c) CaCO3 > MgCO3 > BaCO3
(d) MgCO3 > CaCO3 > BaCO3 The increasing order of polarizing power is given below-
BCECE-2016 NaCl < MgCl2 < AlCl3
Ans. (a) : Thermal stability is directly proportional to 628. The solubility of fluorides of alkali metals in
the size of cation. Thus, the temperature at which a water is–
given carbonate gets decomposed depends on the (a) LiF > NaF > KF > RbF > CsF
polarising power of the cation. Due to successive (b) CsF > RbF > KF > NaF > LiF
increase in the size of alkali earth metal, the thermal (c) LiF > KF > NaF > CsF > RbF
stability of these molecules increases as BaCO3 > (d) CsF > KF > NaF > RbF > LiF
CaCO3 > MgCO3. BCECE-2015
624. Which one has highest melting point? Ans. (b) : In the alkali metal, as well as move down the
(a) NaCl (b) NaBr group then the size of metal increases and the solubility
(c) NaF (d) NaI of fluoride is also increases.
BCECE-2016 Solubility ∝ Size of cation
Ans. (c) : The size of anion is inversely proportion to Hence, the decreasing order of solubility will be–
the melting point or boiling point. Fluoride ion has the CsF > RbF > KF > NaF > LiF
less size then they have high melting point.
629. The correct statement is
625. Correct sequence of acidic character is (a) BF3 is the strongest Lewis acid among the
(a) N2O5 > CO2 > CO > SO2 other boron halides
(b) N2O5 > SO2 > CO2 > CO (b) Bl3 is the weakest Lewis acid among the
(c) CO > CO2 > SO2 > N2O5 boron halides
(d) SO2 > CO2 > CO > N2O5 (c) there is maximum pπ-pπ back bonding in BF3
JCECE - 2016 (d) there is minimum pπ- pπ back bonding in BF3
Ans. (b) : (i) Higher be the positive oxidation value of Karnataka-CET-2015
non-metal oxide, higher be the acidic nature.
Ans. (c) : The molecular formula of boron trihalides are
(ii) For same value of oxidation number, more electro
negative element associated with oxygen shows more BF3, BCl3, BBr3 and BI3. The acidity of boron halide
acidic nature. depends upon the charge on cation and size of anion.

(c) B–F bonds are non-polar while N–F bonds
Size of anion ∝ Acidic character
are plar
The size of fluoride ion is small rather than (d) BF3 is planar but NF3 is pyramidal
other halogen due to which has least acidic character BITSAT 2014
than the other halide. Hence, the statement (a) is false. Ans. (d) : The shape of BF3 is trigonal planar. The
The size of iodine ion is greater than the other structure is given below–
halide. Hence, BI3 has more lewis and character.
The boron and fluorine atom belongs to the
second period element it has the p orbital due to which
pπ–pπ back bonding occur. Hence, the statement is true.
630. The relative strength of trichlorides of boron µ=0
group to accept a pair of electron is given by Hence, it is non polar.
(a) GaCl3 > AlCl3 > BCl3
(b) AlCl3 < BCl3 < GaCl3
(c) AlCl3 < GaCl3 < BCl3 The shape of NF3 is pyramidal and µ ≠ 0.
(d) BCl3< AlCl3 < GaCl3 Hence, it is polar.
(e) GaCl3< BCl3 < AlCl3
634. Which of following is the correct order of
Kerala-CEE-2015 acidic strength?
Ans. (d) : In the third group of boron family, the acidic (a) CH3COOH > ClCH2COOH > Cl2CHCOOH >
strength of trichlorides of boron group decreases down Cl3C.COOH
the group i.e. BCl3 > AlCl3 > GaCl3. Hence, strength of (b) Cl3C.COOH > Cl2CH.COOH >
accepting electron is as follows: Cl.CH2COOH > CH3COOH
BCl3 < AlCl3 < GaCl3. (c) CH3COOH > Cl3.COOH > Cl2CH.COOH >
631. Which of one of the following is least covalent Cl.CH2.COOH
in nature? (d) CH3COOH > ClCH2COOH > Cl2CH.COOH
(a) NF3 (b) BiF3 > Cl3C.COOH
(c) PF3 (d) SbF3 GUJCET-2014
AMU-2014 Ans. (b) : As well as no. of chlorine atom increases
Ans. (b) : Compounds having less charge on cation are which is attached with the α–carbon of carboxylic
less covalent. The covalent character of the molecule is group, the acidic character increases because Cl is
inversely proportional to the size of cation. highly electronegative atom and pulls the bonding pair
1 of electron from which the hydrogen atom easily
Covalent character ∝ removed. Hence, the decreasing order of acidic
size of cation character is–
The given species are NF3, BiF3, PF3 and SbF3. Cl3CCOOH > Cl2CHCOOH > ClCH2COOH > CH3COOH.
All the compounds have same charge due to which we
classify the covalent character from the size of cation. 635. Which of the following option is the correct
Bi3+ has more atomic size than other Thus, BiF3 has less order for the basic strength of metallic
hydroxides?
covalent character.
(a) Al ( OH )3 < Lu ( OH )3 < Ce ( OH )3 < Ca ( OH )2
632. The correct sequence of increasing covalent
character is represented by (b) Ca ( OH )2 < Al ( OH )3 < Lu ( OH )3 < Ce ( OH )3
(a) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2 (b) BeCl2 < NaCl< LiCl (c) Lu ( OH )3 < Ce ( OH )3 < Al ( OH )3 < Ca ( OH )2
(c) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2 (d) BeCl2< LiCl< NaCl
Assam CEE-2014 (d) Lu ( OH )3 < Ce ( OH )3 < Ca ( OH ) 2 < Al ( OH )3
Ans. (c) : According to the Fajan's rule, the no of GUJCET-2014
charge on cation is directly proportional to the covalent Ans. (a) : As we know that higher the electropositive
character. character, higher will be basic strength. The order of
+1 +1 +2 size of given metallic elements is:
Li Cl Na Cl Be Cl2
Al3+ < Lu 3+ < Ce3+ < Ca 2+
BeCl2 has more covalent character than the LiCl and Thus, the order of basic strength is:
NaCl because Be contains +2 cation whereas Li and Na
contains +1 charge. Al ( OH )3 < Lu ( OH )3 < Ce ( OH )3 < Ca ( OH )2
1 636. For BCl3, AlCl3 and GaCl3 the increasing order
Covalent character ∝ of ionic character is
Size of cation
(a) BCl3 < AlCl3 < GaCl3
∴ The covalent character follow the following order:– (b) GaCl3 < AlCl3 < BCl3
NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2 (c) BCl3 < GaCl3 < AlCl3
633. The molecules BF3 and NF3 are both covalent (d) AlCl3 < BCl3 < GaCl3
compounds, but BF3 is non polar whereas NF3 WB-JEE-2013
is polar. The reason for this is : Ans. (c) : Ionic character is inversely proportional to the
(a) Atomic size of boron is larger than nitrogen charge on cation and directly proportional to size of
(b) Boron is metal while nitrogen is gas cation.
BCl3 AlCl3 GaCl3 (a) CaO, SiO2,Al2O3 (b) Al2O3, CO2, SiO2
(c) CO, SO2, P2O5 (d) BaO, Al2O3, SiO2
B → +3 Al → +3 Ga → +3 SRMJEEE – 2012
Hence, the correct order of ionic character will be. Ans. (d) : Barium oxide (BaO), Alumina (Al2O3) and
BCl3 < GaCl3 < AlCl3. Silica (SiO2) shows the character of basic nature,
637. The hydration energy of Mg2+ ion is higher amphoteric character and acidic nature respectively.
than that of SiO2– An amphoteric solution is a substance that can
(a) Al3+ (b) Be2+ chemically react as either acid or base.
(c) Na+ (d) None of these 643. The polarizing power of the following anions,
CG PET- 2013 N3-,O2- and F-, follow the order
Ans. (c) : Hydration energy depends on charge of ion (a) N3- > F- > O2- (b) O2-> N3- > F-
2- - 3-
and ionic radius. Higher the charge, greater the (c) O > F > N (d) N3- > O2- > F-
hydration energy. On the other hand, smaller the size, AMU-2012
greater the hydration energy. Charge is considered first Ans. (d) : The polarizing power is directly proportional
for comparison. Hence, Mg2+ has higher hydration to the size of anion. First of all, we find act the order of
energy than Na+. size of the ions. More the negative charge, more the size
638. Among the elements B, Mg, Al and K the of anions Thus, size of anions follow the following
correct order of increasing metallic character is order:–
(a) B < Al < Mg < K (b) B < Mg < Al < K N 3− > O 2 − > F −
(c) Mg < B < Al < K (d) Mg < Al < B < K Thus, the order of polarizing power will be:-
(e) K< Mg < Al < B N 3− > O 2 − > F −
Kerala-CEE-2013 644. Which of the following orbitals has zero
Ans. (a) : In the periodic table, the metallic character of probability of finding the electron in the xy-
the elements increases as we move down the group and plane?
decreases across a period left to right. Hence, the (a) px (b) pz
increasing order of metallic character will be B (c) dyz (d) d x 2 − y2
< Al < Mg < K.
AMU-2012
639. Which of the following is most acidic?
(a) H2O (b) H2S Ans. (b) : In the p z orbitals the possibility of finding
(c) H2Se (d) H2Te electrons in the xy-plane will be zero.
UPTU/UPSEE-2013 645. Which of the following is least hydrolysed?
Ans. (d) : As we move down the group 16 elements, the (a) BeCl2 (b) MgCl2
acidity of hydrides increases down the group Thus, H2O (c) CaCl2 (d) BaCl2
has least acidic character where as H2Te has more MHT CET-2012
acidic character. Ans. (a) : In the alkaline earth metal chloride, BeCl2
640. Which one of the following cannot form an and MgCl2 get hydrolyzed due to their covalent nature.
amphoteric oxide? Other halides do not get hydrolyzed. Polarization power
(a) Al (b) Sn is inversely proportional to the solubility i.e. size of
(c) Sb (d) P cation is directly proportional to the solubility. Be2+ has
least size than Mg2+ due to which they having the least
hydrolysis.
Ans. (d) : Metal oxides which react with both acids as
well as bases to produce salts and water is known as 646. Among the following, the maximum covalent
character is shown by the compound
amphoteric oxide. Phosphorus does not form the
amphoteric oxide. (a) FeCl2 (b) SnCl2
(c) AlCl3 (d) MgCl2
P (Phosphorous) being a non-metal always form acidic
oxide like P2O3, P5O10 etc. (AIEEE-2011)
Ans. (c) : According to the Fajan's rule, the
641. Among LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2 and MgCl2 polarization is directly proportional to the covalent
compounds with maximum and minimum ionic character of the compound and polarization is directly
character are respectively proportional to the charge on cation.
(a) LiCl; RbCl (b) RbCl; BeCl2 So, we can say that compounds having large charge on
(c) RbCl; MgCl2 (d) MgCl2; BeCl2 cation are more covalent.
SRMJEEE – 2012 +2 +2
Ans. (b) : Polarisation is inversely proportional to ionic FeCl2 Sn 2 Cl2

+3 +2
character.
Polarisation order : BeCl2 > MgCl2 > LiCl > RbCl AlCl3 Mg Cl2
so ionic character : RbCl > LiCl > MgCl2 > BeCl2 Thus, AICI3 has the more covalent character.
Maximum and minimum ionic character are RbCl and 647. Among the following the compound that is
BeCl2 respectively. readily soluble in water is
642. Which of the following sets contains oxides in (a) BeSO4 (b) CaSO4
the sequence of basic, amphoteric and acidic in (c) SrSO4 (d) BaSO4
nature respectively? J & K CET-(2011)
Ans. (a) : The solubility of alkaline earth metal Ans. (c): According to the Fajan's rule, the
sulphates decreases down the group because ionic size polarizability is directly proportional to the size of
increases. BeSO4 is readily soluble in water, because the anion. If the size of anion is larger then the
greater hydration enthalpy of Be2+ ion overcomes the polarizability is also will be more. Polarizability is also
lattice enthalpy Factor. observed by induced polar atom from another polar
648. Which of the following property does not atom. Hence, assertion is true but reason is not true.
correspond to the order HI < HBr < HCl < HF? 652. One would expect proton to have very large
(a) Thermal stability (b) Reducing power (a) ionisation potential (b) radius
(c) Ionic character (d) Dipole moment (c) charge (d) hydration energy
MHT CET-2011 BCECE-2010
Ans. (b) : • Thermal stability is inversely proportional Ans. (d) : Proton have very small size, so have large
to the polarization power. Hence, the given order is true. hydration energy. The degree of hydration depend, upon
• The reducing power of halogen halide increases in the the size of the cation. Smaller the size of a cation
following order i.e. HF < HCl < HBr < HI greater the hydration energy.
Hence, the given order is not true.
653. Which of the following is Lewis acid?
• The ionic character is inversely proportional to the
size of anion. Hence, the ionic character is true. (a) OH– (b) H+
–
• The dipode moment of hydrogen halide decreases (c) F (d) NH3
down the group because of decreasing of JIPMER-2010
electronegativity. Ans. (b): The electron deficient species with vacant
Hence, the given order is true. orbital is known by lewis acid. Here, H+ is the lewis
649. Which of the following represents correct acid whereas OH–, F and NH3 are lewis bases.
acidity order Li2O, BeO and B2O3? 654. The order of stability of metal xides is
(a) Li2O<BeO<B2O3 (b) B2O3<BeO<Li2O (a) Al2O3 < MgO < Fe2O3 < Cr2O3
(c) BeO<Li2O<B2O3 (d) BeO<B2O3<Li2O (b) Cr2O3 < MgO < Al2O3 < Fe2O3
UPTU/UPSEE-2011 (c) Fe2O3 < Cr2O3 < Al2O3 < MgO
Ans. (a) : The acidic character is directly proportional (d) Fe2O3 < Al2O3 < Cr2O3 < MgO
to the charge on cation and inversely proportional to the Karnataka-CET, 2009
size of cation. Ans. (c) : The stability of metal oxide is directly related
Li 2 O BeO B2 O3 to lattice energy and lattice energy depends on charge
Li → +1 Be → +2 B → +3 and size of ions. So, the order is–
B2O3 contains the more charge on cation and Li2O Fe2O3 < Cr2O3 < Al2O3 < MgO
contains less charge on cation. Hence, the correct order 655. Which of the following metal oxides is most
of acidic character will be– basic?
Li 2 O < BeO < B2 O3 . (a) ZnO (b) Al2O3
(c) As2O3 (d) K2O
650. In water or its acidic solution, proton can exist
+ J & K CET-(2008)
as H 3O + , H 9O 4+ ,  H ( H 2O )n  . This is due to Ans. (d) : The given species are:–
more polarizing power of. ZnO Al2O3 As2O3 K2O
(a) H (b) H +2 Zn→+2 Al→+3 As→+3 K→+1
(c) H +
(d) H2O O → –2 O → –2 O → –2 O → –2
S C R A 2010 (A) CHEMISTRY The charge of ion is inversely proportional to the
Ans. (c) : In water or its acidic solution, proton can basicity of the compound. Here, oxide, of potassium
exist (hydronium ion), this is because water containing bearing less charge on cation so that's why it has most
lone pair of e– on oxygen atom shared electron (co- basic character.
ordinate bond) with it, forming H3O+ ion. This is due to 656. The correct order of heat of formation of
more polarising power of H+ halogen acids is
651. Assertion: Molecules of larger size have higher (a) HI > HBr> HCI > HF
polarizability. (b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
Reason: Polarizability is observed only in those (c) HCl > HF > HBr > HI
molecules which has permanent dipole (d) HCl > HBr > HF > HI
moment. UPTU/UPSEE-2008
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Ans. (b) : On moving from top to bottom of halogen
the Reason is the correct explanation of group the bond dissociation energy of hydrogen halides
Assertion
decreases and so the heat of formation of halogen acids
Reason is not the correct explanation of also decreases.
Assertion. 657. Among the following, which is water insoluble?
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect (a) Sodium fluoride (b) Potassium fluoride
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect (c) Beryllium fluoride (d) Magnesium fluoride
AIIMS-2010 AP EAMCET (Engg.) -2007
Ans. (d) : Fluorides of magnesium metals are ionic, Ans. (c) : Amphoteric oxides can be defined as oxides
have high melting points, and are insoluble in water. that can behave as an acid and a base to produce salt
• Sodium fluoride reacts with water forms hydrogen and water. SnO2 is an amphoteric oxide. Aluminum
fluoride and NaOH. oxide reacts with both acidic and basic substance to
658. Assertion (A): NaCl is less soluble in heavy water give neutralization reaction and it is called amphoteric
than in ordinary water. oxide. Zinc oxide is amphoteric because it reacts with
Reason (R): Dielectric constant of ordinary water both acids and bases to form salts.
is more than that of heavy water. 664. The covalent character of group 15 elements
The correct answer is decreases in the sequence
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (a) Bi > Sb > As > P (b) P > As > Sb > Bi
correct explanation of (A). (c) Bi > As > Sb > P (d) As > Sb > Bi > P
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the AMU–2006
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is not true. Ans. (b) : In group 15 elements, except nitrogen, the
(d) (A) is not true, but (R) is true. electronegativities of other elements are so low that they
AP EAMCET (Engg.) -2007 generally form covalent compounds even with highly
electropositive elements. The covalent character of the
Ans. (a) : NaCl is less soluble in heavy water than in
group 15 elements decreases as P > As > Sb > Bi.
ordinary water because dielectric constant of ordinary
water (i.e, 81) is more than that of heavy water (i.e 80). 665. Which among the following is strongest acid?
659. The most stable compound is (a) H(ClO)O2 (b) H(ClO)O3
(a) LiF (b) LiCl (c) H(ClO)O (d) H(ClO)
(c) LiBr (d) LiI JIPMER-2006
JCECE - 2007 Ans. (b) : The species which have more no. of oxygen
Ans. (a) : By Fajan's rule, smaller the size of cation, atom attached with chlorine atom, gets more acidic,
larger the size of anion then larger the polarizing power Here, H(ClO)O3 has more number of oxygen atom,
and stability of compound is more. thus, it has more acidic character.
660. The carbonate that will not decompose on 666. Least ionized salt is
heating is (a) KCl (b) AgCl
(a) Na2CO3 (b) CaCO3 (c) MgCl2 (d) CaCl2
(c) BaCO3 (d) SrCO3 UP CPMT-2005
(e) Li2CO3 Ans. (b) : Least ionised salt will be one which has
Kerala-CEE-2007 highest covalent character.
Ans. (a) : The carbonates of alkaline earth metal Q KCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2 are chlorides of members
decompose into CO2 and metal oxide when heated. All group 1 and group 2 of periodic table. So, they are
alkali metal carbonates (except Li2CO3) are highly ionic. AgCl is chloride of d-block elements. So, it is
stable and do not decompose on heating due to which least ionic and least ionised.
Na2CO3 will not decompose on heating.
667. Based on lattice energy and other
661. Which of the following is the most basic oxide? considerations which one of the following alkali
(a) SeO2 (b) Al2O3 metal chlorides is expected to have the highest
(c) Sb2O3 (d) Bi2O3 melting point?
NEET-2006 (a) RbCl (b) KCl
Ans. (d) : Basicity of oxide depends on the size of the (c) NaCl (d) LiCl
central atom. i.e. basicity is directly proportional to the (AIEEE 2005)
size of cation . In the given option , Bi has more atomic
size due to which they shows the more basic character. Ans. (c) : Melting point is directly proportional to
662. Which one is most ionic? lattice energy. It depends upon charge of ions and size
(a) P2O5 (b) MnO2 of ions.
(c) Mn2O7 (d) P2O3 Charge
JCECE - 2006 Melting point ∝ Lattice Energy ∝
size
Ans. (d) : According to Fajan's rule, compounds having
As we go down in the group, ionic character increases
largest charge on cation are more covalent or least
electrovalent. So, compounds having lowest charge on hence, melting point of halides should increase but
cation will be more electrovalent or ionic. NaCl has the highest meting point (800°C) due to its
+4 +7 high lattice energy.
MnO 2 Mn 2 O7 668. The following salt shows maximum covalent
+5 +3 character:
P2 O5 P2 O3 (a) AlCl3 (b) MgCl2
So, P2O3 will be most ionic. (c) CsCl (d) LaCl3
663. Amphoteric oxide are in: UPTU/UPSEE-2004
(a) ZnO, K2O, SO3 (b) ZnO, P2O5, Cl2O7 Ans. (a) : According to the Fajan's rule, the covalent
(c) SnO2, Al2O3, ZnO (d) PbO2, SnO2, SO3 character is directly proportional to the amount of cation
UPTU/UPSEE-2006 and inversaly proportional to the size of cation.
AlCl3 MgCl2 CsCl LaCl3 The strength of acids depend on bond lengths.
1
Al → +3 Mg → +2 Cs → +1La → +3 Acidity ∝
AlCl3 and LaCl3 has the equal amount of charge but Bond strength
Al3+ has less atomic size than La3+ due to which AlCl3 ∴ HF is least acidic because its bond strength (i.e. bond
has maximum covalent character. dissociation energy is highest. Hydrogen bonding is
669. Which of the following element is most another reason for least acidic strength of HF.
electropositive? 673. Which of the following is soluble in excess of
(a) Al (b) Mg NaOH?
(c) P (d) S (a) Fe(OH)3 (b) Al(OH)3
J & K CET-(2003) (c) Cr(OH)3 (d) Mn(OH)3
Ans. (b) : Atoms which tend to donate electrons are J & K CET-(1999)
called electropositive atom and the atom convert into a Ans. (b) : In the excess amount of NaOH, Al(OH)3 is
positive ion(M+) upon donating electrons. soluble. Thus, to separate Fe(OH)3 and Al(OH)3
The element Mg is most electropositive. aqueous NaOH solution is added Al(OH)3 will dissolve
The electronegativity of aluminium is 1.61 in the in it whereas Fe(OH)3 will remain insoluble. These two
Pauling scale. can be separated by filtration.
Hence, if electronegativity is large then electropositivity 674. Boron compounds behave as Lewis acids
is less. Hence, magnesium has higher electropositivity. because of their
Note:- Cesium(Cs) is the most electropositive of the (a) acidic nature
stable elements having atomic no. 55.
(b) covalent nature
670. Select the correct statement. (c) ionization property
(a) When a covalent bond is formed, transfer of (d) electron deficient nature
electrons takes place
J & K CET-(1999)
(b) Pure H2O does not contain any ion
(c) A bond is formed when attractive forces Ans. (d) : The lewis acids has the vacant orbital due to
overcome repulsive forces which they show electron deficient nature and attack at
(d) HF is less polar than HBr the point in which electron density is more.
(AIEEE-2002) 675. According to Fajan’s rule covalent bond is
Ans. (c) : The bond forms when attractive forces are favoured by:
more than repulsive forces. To get stability, more (a) small cation and large anion
attractive forces must be present in it. (b) small cation and small anion
671. Which of the following order is wrong? (c) large cation and large anion
(a) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 – acidic (d) large cation and small anion
(b) Li < Be < B < C – 1st IP AP EAMCET (Medical) -1998
(c) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O – basic Ans. (a): According to the Fajan’s rule, covalent bond
(d) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+ – ionic radius is favoured by small cation and large anion. Also large
NEET-2002 charge on cation and cation with pseudo noble gas
Ans. (b) : NH3, PH3 and AsH3 are basic due to the configuration will favor covalent bond.
presence of the lone pair of electrons on the central 676. Among the following oxides, the one which is
atom but as the size increase down the group the basic most basic is
character decrease. Therefore, the acidic strength will (a) ZnO (b) MgO
increases down the group as– (c) Al2O3 (d) N2O5
NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 NEET-1994
• Ionisation energy increases from left to right in a Ans. (b) : Generally metals form basic oxides
period due to the increases in effective nuclear charge especially alkaline and alkaline earth metals. Hence,
on the element. Be has high I.E than B due to its
Mgo is most basic among Al2O3, ZnO, N2O5.
completely filled 2s orbital that provides stability to the
element. ZnO and Al2O3 are amphoteric oxide, N2O5 is oxide of
Thus the order of IE1 is– non-metal, so it is acidic.
Li < B < Be < C 677. Among the following which compound will
672. Which one of the following is the weakest acid? show the highest lattice energy?
(a) HCl (b) HBr (a) KF (b) NaF
(c) HF (d) HI (c) CsF (d) RbF
UP CPMT-2001 NEET-1993
Ans. (c) : In gaseous state, HX are covalent and do not Ans. (b) : As we know that in alkali metal, the lattice
show acid character but in aqueous solution, they ionize energy decreases down the group as the size of cation
to give hydronium ion (H3O+) and act as acid. increases. Hence, the NaF has the highest lattice energy.
HX + H2O →H3O+ + X– 1
The relative strength of acids increases as follows: Lattice energy ∝
rA + rB
HF < HCl < HBr < HI

678. Which two sets of reactants best represents the Non- Polar molecules = BeF2, BF3 CCl4
amphoteric character of Zn(OH)2?
Set I Zn(OH)2(s) and OH– (aq)
Set II Zn(OH)2(s) and H2O (l)
Set III Zn(OH)2(s) and H+ (aq)
Set IV Zn(OH)2(s) and NH3 (aq)
(a) III and II (b) I and III
(c) IV and I (d) II and IV
VITEEE 2015
Ans. (b) : Zinc hydroxide is amphoteric in nature
It reacts with acid as well as base.
Zn ( OH )2 ( S ) + 2H + ( aq ) → ZnO ( aq ) + 2H 2 O ( l )
683. Arrange the following in the decreasing order
2−
Zn ( OH )2 ( S ) + 2OH − ( aq ) →  Zn ( OH )4  ( aq ) + 2H + of their covalent character?
(a) LiCl (b) NaCl
The amphoteric character of [Zn(OH)4]2– is represented (c) KCl (d) CsCl
by I and III. Choose the most appropriate answer from the
679. Which of the following oxides is strongly basic? options given below:
(a) Tl2O (b) B2O3 (a) (A) > (C) > (B) > (D)
(c) Al2O3 (d) Ga2O3 (b) (B) > (A) > (C) > (D)
VITEEE 2014 (c) (A) > (B) > (C) > (D)
Ans. (a) : On moving down the group, the acidic (d) (A) > (B) > (D) > (C)
character decreases and the basic character increases so, JEE Main-29.06.2022, Shift-I
the Tl2O is strongly basic Ans. (c) : On moving down the group from top to
680. Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends bottom the covalent character decrease. Hence, the
upon decreasing order of covalent character is-
(a) Charge on the ion and size of the ion LiCl > NaCl > KCl > CsCl.
(b) Packing of ions only 684. The dipole-dipole interaction energy between
(c) Size of the ion only rotating polar molecules is proportional to____
(d) Charge on the ion only where 'r' is the distance between polar
AP EAMCET 2009 molecules.
Ans. (a) : Lattice energy of an ionic compound 1 1
depends upon charge on the ion and size of the ion i.e. (a) 4 (b) 9
r r
Charge 1 1
Lattice Energy ∝ (c) 3 (d) 2
Size of ion r r
681. Among the following, the molecule expected to be 1
(e) 6
stabilised by anion formation is C2, O2, NO, F2. r
(a) C2 (b) F2 Kerala CEE -03.07.2022
(c) NO (d) O2 Ans. (e) : Dipole – dipole interactions result when two
JEE Main 2019 dipolar molecules interact with each other through
Ans. (a) : In case of only C2, incoming electron will space.
enter in the bonding moleculer orbital which increases dipole – dipole interaction energy between rotating
the bond order and stability too. Whereas rest of all 1
polar molecules ∝ 6
takes electrons in their antibonding molecular orbital r
which decreases bond order and stability. dipole – dipole interaction energy between stationary
1
polar molecules ∝ 3
6. Dipole Moment r
So, the correct option is (e)
682. Amongst BeF2, BF3, H2O, NH3, CCl4 and HCl, 685. Dipole moment of HCl = 1.03 D, HI = 1.6 A °.
the number of molecules with non-zero net The ratio of fraction of electric charge δ,
dipole moment is––– existing on each atom in HCl and HI is
JEE Main-25.06.2022, Shift-II (a) 12: 1 (b) 2.7: 1
Ans. (3) : Polar Molecules - H2O, NH3, HCl (c) 3.3: 1 (d) 1: 3.3
VITEEE- 2009
Ans. (c): Dipole moment of HCl = 1.03D
Bond length of HCl = 1.3 Ǻ
Dipole moment of HI = 0.38 Ǻ
Bond length of HI = 1.6 Ǻ

Dipole moment (µ) = Electric charge (δ) × Bond length (l) Ans. (c) : CO2, BF3 and trans-2-butene molecules
Dipole moment having net dipole moment zero. Only SO2 molecule
Electric charge (δ)= possessing some net dipole moment so SO2 molecule
Bond length having highest dipole moment.
δHCl µ HCl lHI
= ×
δ HI lHCl µ HI
δHCl 1.03 1.6 3.33 µ
= × =
δ HI 0.38 1.3 1 690. The most polar bond is
δHCl : δHI = 3.3 : 1 (a) O–F (b) N–Cl
686. The dipole moment of HBr is 2.60×10–30cm and (c) N–F (d) N–N
the interatomic spacing is 1.41Å. What is the UP CPMT-2002
percent ionic character of HBr? NEET-1992
(a) 50% (b) 11.5% Ans. (c) : Polarity of bond depend on the difference
(c) 4.01% (d) 1.19% between the electronegativity of two bonded atom.
BCECE-2015, 2013
Electro negativity difference increases, polarity also
Ans. (b) : Given that, µobs. = 2.60 × 10–30 cm increases.
d = 1.41Å = 1.41 × 10–10 m O – F = 3.5 – 4.0 = –0.5
q = 1.6 × 10–19 C N – Cl = 3.0 – 3.0 = 0
∴ µcal = q × d N–N=0
= 1.6 × 10–19 × 1.41 × 10–10 N – F = 3 – 4 = –1
= 2.256 × 10–29 cm So, N–F bond will be more polar.
µ 691. Which of the following is a polar molecule?
% Ionic Character = obs × 100 (a) SiF4 (b) XeF4
µcal.
(c) BF3 (d) SF4
2.60 × 10−30 NEET-2013, 2005
= × 100 = 11.5%
2.25 ×10−29 Ans. (d) : SF4 molecules having some resultant dipole
687. Which of the following molecules will exhibit moment due to their distorted geometry. Therefore SF4
zero dipole moment? is polar molecule. But in SiF4, XeF4 and BF3 molecule
(a) CH2Cl2 (b) ClO2 net dipole moment is zero. So, it is non-polar molecules.
(c) NH3 (d) BF3
J & K CET-(2014)
AMU-2008
Ans. (d) :
692. The dipole moment of HBr is 1.6 × 10–30 cm and

inter atomic spacing is 1 Å. The % ionic
character of HBr is
(a) 7 (b) 10
µ=0 µ=1.47D µ≠0 µ≠0 (c) 25 (d) 27
BF3 NH3 cis-C2H2Cl2 ClO2 UPTU/UPSEE-2013
688. If a molecule MX3 has zero dipole moment, the JCECE-2008
sigma bonding orbital used by M (At. no. 13) Ans. (b) : µobs = 1.6 × 10 cm
–30
are Bond length (d) = 1 Å = 1 × 10–10m

(a) pure p (b) sp- hybridised Charge (q) = 1.6 × 10–19 C
(c) sp2-hybridised (d) sp3- bybridised µcal. = q × d = 1.6 × 10–19 × 1 × 10–10 cm
CG PET-2005 = 1.6 × 10–29 cm
J & K CET-(1999)
µ
Ans. (c) : MX3 molecule has zero dipole moment when % Ionic character = obs × 100
M is sp2 hybridesed, the molecule has trigonal planar µcal
geometry and has zero dipole moment as the bond
1.6 × 10−30
dipoles cancel. = × 100
1.6 × 10−29
= 10 %
693. A covalent molecule X - Y is found to have a
689. Among the following the molecule possessing dipole moment of 1.5 × 10-29 C.m and a bond
highest dipole moment is length of 150 pm. the percent ionic character of
(a) CO2 (b) BF3 the bond will be_______
(c) SO2 (d) Trans-2-butene (a) 50% (b) 62.5%
JIPMER-2014 (c) 75% (d) 80%
J & K CET-2009 AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-II
Ans. (b): Given that Ans. (a) : CS2 and C2H6 has zero dipole moment and
µobs = 1.5×10–29 C.m NH3 is 1.06D and NCl3 is 0.6D In NCl3 three lone pair
d = 150 × 10–12 m on chlorine atom will reduce.
q = 1.6 × 10–9c 697. Which of the following will have maximum
∴ µcal. = q × d dipole moment?
= 1.6 × 10–9 × 150 × 10–12 (a) NF3 (b) NCl3
= 1.6 × 10–9 × 10–29 (c) NBr3 (d) NH3
= 2.4 × 10–29 c.m AP-EAPCET-19.08.2021, Shift-I
µ Ans. (b) :
% Ionic character = obs. × 100
µ cal.
1 ⋅ 5 × 10−29
= × 100
2.4 × 10−29
1 ⋅ 5 × 100
=
2.4
= 62.5%
694. Match the following
Have less dipole moment because the resultant in opposite
List-I List-II
direction. But in the case of NBr3 and NH3 molecule, NH3
Molecule Dipole moment (D)
have more dipole moment as compare to the NBr3 because
(A) HBr (I) 1.04
the N–Br bond are less polar as in the N–H bond. So the
(B) H2S (II) 0
NH3 molecule have more dipole moment.
(C) NH3 (III) 0.79
(D) CHCl3 (IV) 0.95 698. The compound with maximum vapour
(V) 1.47 pressure at a given temperature is
The correct match is
A B C D A B C D
(a) (b)
I V IV III III IV V I
A B C D A B C D
(c) (d)
I V II IV IV V I III
Ans. (b) :
Molecule Dipole moment (D)
HBr 0.79
H 2S 0.95
NH3 1.47 TS-EAMCET-09.08.2021, Shift-I
CHCl3 1.04 Ans. (d) :
695. Which compound among the following will CH3– C H2– CH2– CH2– OH
have a permanent dipole moment?
OH
Hydrogen bond present
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only

(c) (iii) only (d) (iv) only
AP-EAPCET-20.08.2021,Shift-I O
Ans. (a) : CH3 C
OH
CH3– CH2– O – CH2– CH3 Hydrogen bond absent
It has permanent dipole moment due to two chlorine Due to absence of hydrogen bond (Ethoxy ethane)
atom has attached to the carbon position. CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3 gives maximum vapour
696. Which of the following molecule has the pressure at a given temperature.
maximum dipole moment? 699. The dipole-dipole interaction energy stationary
(a) NH3 (b) CS2 polar molecules and rotating polar molecules,
(c) C2H6 (d) NCl3 respectively is proportional to r is the distance
AP-EAPCET-20.08.2021,Shift-I between the polar molecules
1 1 1 703. Which of the following set of molecules will
(a) r 3 , (b) , have zero dipole moment?
r2 r3 r6
1 1 1 (a) Ammonia beryllium difluoride, water, 1, 4-
(c) 2 , r 2 (d) 2 , 4 dischlorobenzene
r r r (b) Boom trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride carbon
TS EAMCET 05.08.2021, Shift-I dioxide, 1, 3-dichlorobenzene
Ans. (b) : Dipole-dipole interaction energy between (c) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
polar molecules in solids depends on the distance water, 1, 3-dichlorobenzene
between them as per following relation. (d) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
1 carbon dioxide, 1, 4-dichlorobenzene
Dipole-dipole interaction energy ∝ 3
r NEET-2020
1 Ans. (d) : Boron trifluoride (BF3), Beryllium difluoride
and that between rotating polar molecules ∝ 6 . (BeF2), carbon dioxide (CO2), 1, 4-dichlorobenzene
r
Where r is the distance between polar molecules. molecules having symmetric geometry Therefore, its
700. One Debye is equal to how many coulomb resultant dipole moment is zero,
meter?
(a) 3.33 × 10–30 (b) 2.22 × 10–20
–10
(c) 1.11 × 10 (d) 4.44 × 10–24
Ans. (a) : Debye was defined as the dipole moment
resulting from two charges of opposite sign but an equal
magnitude. 704. Assertion: 1- Butene has less dipole moment than
1 debye = 3.33 × 10–30 Coulomb meter. 1-butyne.
1 debye = 10-18 esu-cm. Reason: 1-Butyne has more s-character.
701. Which compound among the following has the
highest dipole moment?
Assertion.
(a) NH3 (b) SO2
(c) N2O (d) CO2
AP-EAPCET-19.08.2021, Shift-II Assertion.
Ans. (b) : (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
incorrect.
Two oxygen are more electronegative than a single Ans. (a):
nitrogen and also S–O bond is longer than N–H bond,
through the dipole moment of S–O is more than N–H
despite the lone pair on S.
702. The dipole moments of CCl4, CHCl3 and CH4
are in the order 1-butyne has sp hybridized and more electronegative
(a) CCl4 < CH4 < CHCl3 than double bonded carbon (sp2) in 1-butene. So, 1-
(b) CH4 < CCl4 < CHCl3 butyne has 50% s-character which is greater than 1-
(c) CH4 = CCl4 < CHCl3 butene having 33% s-character. Therefore, 1-butyne has
(d) CHCl3 < CH4 = CCl4 more dipole moment than 1-butene because 1-butyne
(JEE Main 2020, 7 Jan. Shift-I) has more % s-character.
Ans. (c) : All the three compounds possess a 705. The dipole moment of which of the following
tetrahedral geometry. But in case of CC14 and CH4, molecule is greater than zero?
identical atoms are present around carbon. Therefore, (a) CCl4 (b) BF3
CC14 and CH4 having zero dipole moment. (c) CO2 (d) NH3
Assam CEE-2018
Ans. (d) : In NH3, the net dipole moment is non zero
because of Pyramidal shape.
Option (a), (b) & (c) is having not dipole moment zero.
706. Among the following the molecule with the
In case of CHCl3 different atoms are present around highest dipole moment is–
carbon and the sum of dipole moment is greater than (a) CH3Cl (b) CH2Cl2
zero. So, the correct order is (c) CHCl3 (d) CCl4
CH4 = CCl4 < CHCl3 BCECE-2018
Ans. (a) : CH3Cl molecule has highest dipole moment Ans. (c) : Molecules with regular geometry having zero
because the resultant in same direction. dipole moment therefore, CH4 molecule has regular
tetrahedral geometry and having zero net dipole
moment.
But in case of CH2Cl2, NH3 and PH3 molecules their
geometries are distorted therefore, it have same dipole
moment.
711. Which of the following compounds has zero
dipole moment?
(a) 1, 4-dichlorobenzene
(b) 1, 2-dichlorobenzene
(c) 1, 3-dichlorobenzene
(d) 1-chloro-2-methyl benzene
Ans. (a) : Dipole moment is defined as the measure of
polarity of a chemical bond between two atoms in a
molecules i.e. separation of two opposite electrical
charges.
707. In terms of polar character which one of the

following orders is correct?
(a) H2S < NH3 < H2O < HF
(b) H2O < NH3 < H2S < HF
(c) HF < H2O < NH3 < H2S
(d) NH3 < H2O < HF < H2S
UPTU/UPSEE-2017
Ans. (a) : As we know that more be the electro
negativity difference, more be the polar character, thus 712. Pick up the incorrect statement.
correct order is– H 2S < NH 3 < H 2 O < HF (a) Dipole moment of ammonia is due to orbital
708. Among the following, the molecule that will dipole and resultant dipole in orbital dipole
have the highest dipole moment is and resultant dipole in the same direction.
(a) H2 (b) Hl (b) In BF3 bond dipoles are higher but dipole
(c) HBr (d) HCl moment is zero.
(c) Dipole moment is a vector quantity.
(e) HF
(d) O2, H2 show bond dipole due to polarisation.
Kerala-CEE-2017
COMEDK-2014
Ans. (e) : Dipole moment is a measure of bond polarity
Ans. (d) : O2, H2 do not show bond dipole as they are
which is turn affected by the electronegativity of atoms
homoatomic molecules hence, are non-polar.
in the chemical bond. Greater the electronegativity of
atom higher will be the dipole moment. 713. Which of the following molecules has the
maximum dipole moment?
H – F molecule having highest dipole moment due to
(a) CO2 (b) CH4
high bond polarity in H – F bond.
(c) NH3 (d) NF3
709. Dipole-dipole interaction energy between polar NEET-2014
molecules in solids depends on the radius of the
Ans. (c) : CO2 and CH4 molecules have zero net dipole
molecule (r) and it is directly proportional to
moment. NH3 and NF3 have some net dipole moment.
(a) (1/r2) (b) (1/r6) But in case of NF3 molecule having less dipole moment
(c) (1/r) (d) (1/r5) because the resultant in opposite direction, while NH3
(e) (1/r3) have more dipole moment because the resultant in same
Kerala-CEE-2016 direction. So, NH3 molecule has maximum dipole
Ans. (e) : Dipole - dipole interaction energy between moment.
polar molecules in solid is directly proportional to 1/r3
710. Which of the following compounds has zero
dipole moment?
(a) CH2Cl2 (b) NH3
(c) CH4 (d) PH3
Manipal-2016
714. The compound that will have a permanent 717. Which bond would be expected to have the
dipole moment among the following is positive end of the bond dipole on the nitrogen
atom ?
(a) N–H (b) C–N
(c) Al–N (d) N–O
SCRA-2012
Ans. (d) : The given species are N–H, C–N, Al–N, and
N–O are–
δ − ← + δ + δ + + → δ − δ + + → δ − δ + + → δ−
(a) I (b) II N – H C− N Al − N N− O
(c) III (d) IV In the N–O species, the polarity of bond towards the
WB-JEE-2014 oxygen atom and the nitrogen get positive charge.
Ans. (a) : Compounds with asymmetry geometries 718. which one of the following molecules has zero
having some resultant dipole moment. Therefore, CH2 dipole moment?
Cl2 molecule possess some permanent dipole moment. (a) NO +2 (b) H2O
(c) NH3 (d) CO
CG PET- 2011
Ans. (a) : NO +2 molecule having zero dipole moment
because it have symmetric geometry.
715. Which of the following will have maximum

dipole moment?
(a) NF3 (b) NH3
(c) CH4 (d) PCl3
J & K CET-2013
Ans. (b) : NH3 molecule will have maximum dipole
moment because in case of NH3, H is less
electronegative than N and hence dipole moment of
each N–H bond is towards N and create high net dipole 719. Among the following which one is a linear
moment. But in NF3 and PCl3 molecule resultant dipole molecule having zero dipole moment?
moment opposes. So both molecule having less dipole (a) H2O (b) HCl
moment. (c) CO2 (d) H2S
716. The dipole moment of diatomic molecules AB J & K CET-2011
and CD are 10.41 and 10.27 Debye respectively Ans. (c) : CO2 is a linear molecule having zero dipole
while there bond distances are 2.82Å and 2.67Å moment. CO2 is sp - hybridesed so, it has linear
respectively then geometry. Net resultant dipole moment is zero because
(a) bonding is nearly covalent in both the CO2 is symmetric molecule.
molecules
(b) bonding is 100% ionic in both the molecules
(c) AB has more ionic character than CD
(d) AB has lesser ionic bond character than CD 720. H2O is dipolar whereas, BeF2 is not. It is
UP CPMT-2013 because
Ans. (d) : Dipole moment (µ) = q × d (a) The electronegativity of F is greater than that of O
µ (b) H2O involves hydrogen bonding whereas
or q= BeF2 is a discrete molecule
d (c) H2O is linear and BeF2 is angular
µ (d) H2O is angular and BeF2 is linear
∴Magnitude of charge on AB (qAB) = AB
d AB UP CPMT-2011
10.41 Ans. (d) : The structure of H2O is angular of V-shape as
= = 3.69esu it is sp3-hybridised with bond angle 105o. Its dipole
2.82
moment is positive or more than zero. But in BeF2
µ structure is linear due to sp-hybridisation (µ = 0).
and magnitude of charge on CD (qCD) = CD
d CD Hence, due to µ > 0, H2O is dipolar and due to µ = 0,
10.21 BeF2 is non-polar.
= = 3.84esu
2.67
As magnitude of charge is more on CD molecule than
that of AB molecule, thus it has more ionic than AB.

721. Consider(i) CO2, (ii) CCl4, (iii) C6Cl6 and (iv) 725. Identify the molecule that has Zero dipole
CO and tell which of the following statements is moment.
correct? (a) CH3Cl (b) CHCl3
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) only have zero dipole moment (c) CH2Cl2 (d) CCl4
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) only have zero dipole moment J & K CET-2010
(c) only (iv) has zero dipole moment Ans. (d) : CCl4 molecule has zero dipole moment due
(d) All have zero dipole moment to the symmetric geometry i.e., all chlorine atoms
UPTU/UPSEE-2011 around carbon are identical.
Ans. (a) : CO2, CCl4 and C6 Cl6 molecules have regular
geometry. Therefore, these molecule have zero dipole
moment.
But in case of CO molecule, oxygen is more
electronegative than carbon due to this bond polarity
generate in C – O bond and CO molecule having non-
zero dipole moment. 726. The molecule which has zero dipole moment is
(a) CH3Cl (b) NF3
(c) BF3 (d) ClO2
JCECE-2010
Ans. (c) : The molecules having distorted geometry
have dipole moment and those having regular geometry
have zero dipole moment.
Q NH3, CH3Cl and ClO2 have distorted geometry.
722. Consider the following compounds:
∴ They have dipole moment.
1. CHCl3
2. CH3Cl Q BF3 has regular triangular planar geometry.
3. NH3 The dipole moment of BF3 is zero.
What is the correct order of the dipole moment 727. The bond length of HCl bond is 2.29×10–10m.
of the above compounds? The percentage ionic character of HCl, if
(a) 1 > 3 > 2 (b) 2 > 1 > 3 measured dipole moment is 6.226×10–30C-m, is
(c) 2 > 3 > 1 (d) 3 > 2 > 1 (a) 8% (b) 20%
SCRA-2010 (c) 17% (d) 50%
Ans. (d) : In CHCl3, CH3Cl and NH3, has higher dipole JIPMER-2010
moment because all the vectors are added up to give Ans. (c): Given that, µobs = 6.226 × 10–30 C-m
large dipole moment. In case of CHCl3 and CH3Cl has Bond length (d) = 2.29 × 10–10 m
higher dipole moment. So, order will be Electric charge (q) = 1.6 × 10–19 C
NH3> CH3Cl > CHCl3 ∴ µcal. = q ×d
723. Which one of the following molecules has zero = 1.6 ×10–19 × 2.29 ×10–10 C-m
dipole moment? = 3.664 × 10–29 C-m
(a) NO +2 (b) H2O µ
% Ionic character = obs × 100
(c) NH3 (d) CO µ cal
SCRA-2010
6.226 × 10−30
Ans. (a) : All the three molecules CO , H2O and NH3 = × 100
have dipole moment due to individual bond dipoles 3.664 ×10−29
= 16.99% ≈ 17%
doesn’t cancel each other. But in the case of NO +2 as
728. A netural molecule XF3 has a zero dipole
the individual bond dipole cancel each other which moment. The element X is most likely
results in zero net dipole moment.
(a) chlorine (b) boron
724. Which of the following molecule has highest (c) nitrogen (d) carbon
dipole moment? (e) bromine
(a) B2H6 (b) NF3 Kerala-CEE-2010
(c) NH3 (d) BF3
Ans. (b) : The element X is most likely be Boron in
AIIMS-2010 XF3 neutral molecule. The molecule BF3 has regular
Ans. (c): In case of BF3 and B2H6 molecule have zero triangular planar geometry therefore, its dipole moment
dipole moment due to their symmetric geometry. NF3 is zero.
molecule has less dipole moment than NH3 because the 729. Which of the following has zero dipole
resultant in opposite direction. moment?
(a) 1, 1-dichloromethane
(b) cis-1, 2-dichloroethene
(c) trans-1, 2-dichloroethene
(d) 1-chloroethane
[BITSAT- 2009]
So, NH3 has highest dipole moment.
Ans. (c) : Trans - 1, 2 - dichloro ethene has zero dipole Ans. (d) : The given species are the NH3, H2O and CO2
moment because the resultant dipole moment opposes
each other.
730. If H–X bond length is 2.00 Å and H–X bond

has dipole moment 5.12×10–30 C-m, the
percentage of ionic character in the molecule
will be As we know that oxygen has more electronegative
(a) 10% (b) 16% power than nitrogen due to which more polarity present
(c) 18% (d) 20% in O-H bond. Oxygen has two lone pair of oxygen is
CG PET-2009
also increase the overall polarity. Thus H2O has more
Ans. (b) : Given that, Dipole moment =5.12×10–30 cmdipole moment than NH3.
Bond length ( l ) = 2.00 Å = 2 × 10–10 m 733. Which one of the following is a non polar
Change (q) = 1.6 × 10–19 C molecule?
µcal. = q × l = 1.6 × 10–19×2×10–10 C-m (a) CCl4 (b) CHCl3
= 3.2 ×10–29 C-m (c) CH2Cl2 (d) CH3Cl
µ J & K CET-2008
% Ionic character = obs × 100
µcal Ans. (a) : CCl4 is a non-polar molecule because net
dipole moment is zero. This is due to the symmetric
5.12 × 10−30
= × 100 geometry of CCl4 molecule.
3.2 ×10−29 734. In which of the following pairs, both molecules
= 16% possess dipole moment?
(a) CO2, SO2 (b) BCl3, PCl3
731. Which of the following will have large dipole (c) H2O, SO2 (d) CO2, CS2
moment? UP CPMT-2008
Ans. (c): H2O and SO2 both possess dipole moment due
to bent structure.
(a) (b)
735. The molecule having zero dipole moment is

(c) (d) (a) CH2CI2 (b) BF3
(c) NF3 (d) CIF3
UPTU/UPSEE-2008
UPTU/UPSEE-2009 Ans. (b) : Molecules having distorted geometry have
Ans. (d) : dipole moment and those having regular geometry have
zero dipole moment.
NF3, CH2Cl2 and ClF3 have distorted geometry So, they
have dipole moment.
But BF3 has regular triangular planar geometry.
Therefore, it having zero dipole moment.
is unsymmetric molecule. usually unsymmetrical 736. In which of the following pairs, both molecules
molecules have higher dipole moment than symmetrical possess dipole moment ?
molecules. Therefore,
(a) CO2, SO2 (b) BCl3, PCl3
(c) H2O, SO2 (d) CO2, CS2
AP-EAMCET (Medical) - 2007
Ans. (c) : The species are given as : CO2, SO2, BCl3,
PCl3, H2O
molecule have large dipole moment.
732. The correct order of dipole moment for NH3,
H2O and CO2 molecules is
(a) NH3 > H2O > CO2 (b) CO2 > NH3 > H2O
(c) H2O > CO2 > NH3 (d) H2O > NH3 > CO2 Hence, the pair of SO2 and H2O having the dipole
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2008 moment.
737. Which of the following hydrocarbons has the 741. The molecule which does not exhibit dipole
lowest dipole moment? moment is:
(a) NH3 (b) CHCI3
H3C CH3
(c) H2O (d) CCI4
(a) C UPTU/UPSEE-2006
Ans. (d) : CCl4 molecule does not exhibit dipole
H H moment due to symmetric tetrahedral geometry. While
(b) CH 3C ≡ CCH 3 NH3, CHCl3 and H2O molecules have distorted
(c) CH 3CH 2 C ≡ CH geometry therefore they possess some dipole moment.
742. Assertion (A) : The spin only magnetic moment
(d) CH 2 = CH − C ≡ CH
of Sc3+ is 1.73 BM.
BITSAT-2007 Reason (R) : The spin only magnetic moment (in
Ans. (b) : H 3C − C ≡ C − CH 3 symmetrical and linear.
BM) of an ion is equal to n(n + 2), where n is
Hence, dipole moment = 0.
the number of unpaired electrons present in the
738. Which of the following has zero dipole
moment? ion.
(a) ClF (b) PCl3 The correct answer is:
(c) SiF4 (d) CFCl3 (a) both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
CG PET-2006 correct explanation of (A)
Ans. (c) : : SiF4 molecule has zero dipole moment due (b) both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
to its regular tetrahedral geometry and symmetric So, correct explanation of
dipole moment get cancelled. (c) (A) is true but (R) is not true
(d) (A) is not true but (R) is true
Ans. (d) : The given metal is Sc3+.
Electronic configuration of Sc = [Ar], 3d1, 4s2
For Sc3+ = [Ar], 3d° , 4s°
739. Zero dipole moment is possessed by Number of unpaired electron = 0
(a) PCl3 (b) BF3 ∴ µs = n(n + 2)
(c) ClF3 (d) NH3
J & K CET-2006 µs = 0(0 + 2)
Ans. (b) : BF3 molecule has zero dipole moment µs = 0
because in BF3 resultant dipole moment opposes and
cancelled out. The formula for spin only magnetic moment is
n(n + 2), where n is the number of unpaired electron.
743. Which of the following molecules has zero
dipole moment?
(a) BeCl2 (b) HCl
740. Consider the following halogen containing (c) NH3 (d) H2O
compounds: AP-EAMCET (Engg.)-2005
(A) CHCl3 (B) CCl4 Ans. (a) : The species are given as : BeCl2, HCl, NH3
(C) CH2Cl2 (D) CH3Cl and H2O.
(E)
The compounds with a net zero dipole moment
are:
(a) B and E only (b) C only
(c) C and D only (d) A and D only
(e) A and D only
Kerala-CEE-2006 Hence, BeCl2 has zero dipole moment.
Ans. (a) : CCl4 and 1, 4 dichlorobenzene 744. If the molecule of HCl were totally polar, the
expected value of dipole moment is 6.12D (debye),
but the experimental value of dipole moment was
1.03D. Calculate the percentage ionic character:
have symmetrical geometry so, its net dipole (a) 17 (b) 83
moment is zero. But is case of CHCl3, CH3Cl and (c) 50 (d) zero
CH2Cl2 molecule having non-zero dipole moment due (d) 90
to their distorted geometry. Kerala-CEE-2005
µ experimental Ans. (b) : 2, 2 - dimethylpropane, trans-3-hexene and 2,
Ans. (a) : % Ionic character = × 100 2,3,3 - tetramethylbutane molecules having zero dipole
µ expected moment because of their symmetric geometry but trans
1.03 - 2 - pentene is non symmetric geometry and having
% Ionic character = × 100 some net dipole moment.
6.12
= 16.83% ≈ 17%
745. H2O is dipolar, whereas BeF2 is not. It is
because
(a) the electronegativity of F is greater than that 749. In which of the following, the dipole moment is
of O zero?
(b) H2O involves hydrogen bonding whereas (a) H2O2 (b) CO2
BeF2 is a discrete molecule (c) SO2 (d) NH3
(c) H2O is linear and BeF2 is angular JCECE-2003
(d) H2O is angular and BeF2 is linear Ans. (b): CO2 molecule has zero dipole moment
NEET-2004 because both oxygen atom symmetrically present
Ans. (d) : around carbon atom and form linear geometry.
But in case of H2O2, SO2 and NH3 molecule have some

dipole moment.
H2O has angular shape therefore its resultant dipole
moment is greater than zero. H2O is dipolar molecule, but 750. The molecule having largest dipole moment
BeF2 molecule has linear shape therefore, its resultant among the following is
dipole moment zero. So BeF2 is non-polar molecule. (a) CHI3 (b) CH4
746. Which of the following are arranged in the (c) CHCl3 (d) CCl4
decreasing order of dipole moment? UP CPMT-2003
(a) CH3C1,CH3Br,CH3F Ans. (c) : Dipole moment is a vector quantity.
(b) CH3C1,CH3F,CH3Br Dipole moment = charge on any one atom × bond
(c) CH3Br,CH3C1,CH3F length
(d) CH3 Br, CH3F,CH3C1 Q The compounds having regular geometry and having
AIIMS-2003 bonds of same type have zero dipole moment.
Ans. (b): : Dipole moment = Charge × Bond length ∴ CH4 and CCl4 have zero dipole moment
C−F C−Cl C− Br
 →
On moving left to right bond length increases while
charge density decreases. Therefore, decreasing order of
dipole moment.
CH 3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br
747. Which one of the following pairs of molecules Between CHI3 and CHCl3, CHCl3 will have larger
will have permanent dipole moments for both dipole moment because the electro negativity difference
members? between carbon and chlorine is more as compared to
(a) SiF4 and NO2 (b) NO2 and CO2 between carbon and iodine
(c) NO2 and O3 (d) SiF4 and CO2 ∴CHCl3 will have highest dipole moment.
AIEEE-2003 751. Which of the following has the highest dipole
Ans. (c) : NO2 and O3 molecule will have permanent moment?
dipole moment because both the molecule having some
resultant non-zero dipole moment.
748. The only molecule having dipole moment is

(a) 2,2-dimethylpropane
(b) trans-2-pentene
(c) trans-3-hexene
(d) 2,2,3,3-tetramethylbutane
J & K CET-2003 AIIMS-2002
Ans. (a): (a) NH3 > BF3 < NF3 < H2O
(b) BF3 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O
(c) BF3 > NH3 < NF3 < H2O
(d) H2O > NF3 < NH3 < BF3
NEET-Odisha-2019
Ans. (b) : The given species are NH3, NF3, H2O,
In molecule, oxygen has more electronegative

As we know that oxygen has more electronegativity
and therefore molecule having highest dipole moment. than nitrogen due to which more polarity present in O –
H bond. Oxygen has two lone pair also increase the
752. CHCl3 is a polar solvent while CCl4 is a non- overall polarity. Thus H2O has more polar than NH3 and
polar solvent because CCl4 has NF3 molecules.
(a) linear structure In case of NH3 and NF3 molecules, NH3 has more polar
(b) symmetrical structure than NF3 because in NH3 resultant dipole moment in
(c) unsymmetrical structure same direction BF3 has regular triangular planar
(d) square planar structure. geometry. So, it has zero dipole moment. Then the
J & K CET-(2019) correct orders of dipole moment is :-
Ans. (b) : CCl4 is a non-polar solvent because CCl4 has BF3 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O
symmetrical structure, i.e., all chlorine atoms around 756. Which have correct order of dipole moment:
carbon atoms are identical. But in CHCl3 molecules (a) SO 2 > H 2O (b) NF3 > NH 3
atoms around the carbon atom is non - identical. So,
CHCl3 is a polar solvent. (c) BF3 < NH 3 (d) SO 2 < SO3
AIIMS-27.05.2018 (M)
Ans. (c):
In case of BF3 atoms around the 'B' atom are similar so

753. Dipole-dipole interaction energy between BF3 molecule has zero dipole moment but in NH3
stationary polar molecule separated by a molecule, atoms around 'N' atom is non-identical and
distance 'r' is proportional to has highest dipole moment than BF3.
(a) 1/r (b) 1/r2 757. Which bond is most polar?
3
(c) 1/r (d) 1/r6 (a) F––F (b) I––F
Assam CEE-2019 (c) Cl––F (d) Br––F
Ans. (c) : Dipole-dipole interaction energy between AMU-2002
polar molecules in solids depends on the distance Ans. (b) : I–F has more polar bond due to the more
1 electro negativity difference between them.
between them as per following = 3
r 2.5 4.0
(r= radius on the molecule under consideration) I __ F
754. Which of the following possess net dipole ∆XI–F = 1.5
moment?
(a) SO2 (b) BF3 758. The molecule having zero dipole moment is :
(c) BeCl2 (d) CO2 (a) CHCl3 (b) H2O
Karnataka-CET-2019 (c) CCl4 (d) HCl
Ans. (a) : Molecules having regular geometry have zero AP-EAMCET-1999
dipole moment and those having distorted geometry Ans. (c): Symmetric molecules having with similar
having dipole moment. electronegative are non polar i.e. have zero dipole
BF3, BeCl2 and CO2 have regular geometry therefore moment whereas, CHCl3, H2O and HCl are polar
having zero dipole moment. molecule.
But SO2 has distorted geometry therefore it possess net
dipole moment.
755. Which of the following is the correct order of
dipole moment?
759. Which of the following molecules has the 763. Strongest hydrogen bond is shown by
highest dipole moment? (a) water (b) ammonia
(a) CO2 (b) NF3 (c) hydrogen fluoride (d) hydrogen sulphide
(c) BCl3 (d) CCl4 NEET-1992, 1990
AP-EAMCET-1995 Ans. (c) : Strength of hydrogen bonding is depends on
Ans. (b): In CO2, BCl3, CCl4 all the molecule have zero the electronegativity of atom. Higher the electro
dipole moment due to their symmetric geometry but negativity , stronger the hydrogen bonding.
NF3 is non symmetric geometry and highest dipole Since, fluorine is more electronegative atom and it
moment. forms stronger hydrogen bond.
764. The high boiling point of water is due to which
reason?
7. Hydrogen Bonding (a) Coordinate bonding
(b) Covalent bond
760. How many hydrogen bonded water molecules (c) Electrostatic force of attraction
are present in CuSO 4 ⋅ 5H 2O ? (d) Hydrogen bonding
(a) 5 (b) 4 UP CPMT-2003, AIIMS-1996
(c) 1 (d) 0 Ans. (d) : High boiling point of water is due to
TS EAMCET 05.08.2021, Shift-I hydrogen bonding.
NEET-Odisha 2019 The compounds having oxygen or fluorine or nitrogen
SCRA-2015 along with hydrogen forms hydrogen bond. Since they
have strong forces of attraction, more heat is required to
AMU-2014 break them while we boil these liquids. So, they have
JIPMER-2013 high boiling point.
Ans. (c): In CuSO4.5H2O four water molecule are
765. The dominant intermolecular force that must
co-ordinated to Cu2+ and one is hydrogen bonded with
be overcome to convert liquid methanol to its
SO 24− vapour is__________.
(a) Covalent Bonds
(b) Dipole-Dipole Interactions
(c) Hydrogen Bonds
(d) Co-ordinate Bonds
AP-EAMCET 25-08-2021 Shift-I
NEET-2009
Ans. (c) : In CH3OH (methanol), intermolecular
hydrogen bonding are found. Thus, H-bonding play an
761. Which of the following hydrogen bond is the role overcome in converting liquid methanol to vapour.
strongest?
766. Intra-molecular hydrogen bonding is found in
(a) O − H ⋅⋅⋅ N (b) F − H ⋅⋅⋅ F (a) o-nitrophenol (b) m-nitrophenol
(c) O − H ⋅⋅⋅ O (d) O − H ⋅⋅⋅ F (c) p-nitrophenol (d) phenol
WB-JEE-2018, JCECE - 2009 AMU-2015, Kerala-CEE-2011
AIIMS-1997 Ans. (a) : Intra-molecular hydrogen bonding is found in
Ans. (b) : Strength of hydrogen bonding depends upon o-nitro phenol. For intra-molecular hydrogen bonding
the electronegativity of elements. Therefore, F–H ---F the two groups are close enough to each other and for
show strongest hydrogen bond because fluorine is most five or six membered rings.
electronegative atom.
762. The maximum number of hydrogen bonds that
a molecule of water can have is
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-I 767. Inter-molecular hydrogen bonding exists in
Karnataka-CET, 2008 (a) o-nitrophenol (b) o-chlorophenol
JCECE - 2006 (c) water (d) ammonium chloride
Ans. (d) : One water molecule is joined to four water UPTU/UPSEE-2015
molecules – two with H-atoms and other two with O-
atoms. Thus, the maximum number of hydrogen bonds J & K CET-(2007)
that a molecule of water can have is four as shown below: Ans. (c) : Intermolecular hydrogen-bonding takes place
between H atom and electronegative element present in
the different molecules of some substance.

768. Given below are two statements: one is labelled (c) Ionic bonding is non-directional
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as (d) σ-electrons are referred to as mobile electrons
Reason R. Kerala-CEE-29.08.2021
Assertion A: Dipole-dipole interactions are the Ans. (d) : (A) Hydrogen bonds are powerful force in
only non-covalent interactions, resulting in
hydrogen bond formation. determining the structure and properties of many
Reason R: Fluorine is the most electronegative compounds.
element and hydrogen bonds in HF are (B) Sigma bonds are formed by the head to head
symmetrical. overlapping between two orbital whereas pi-bonds
In the light of the above statements, choose the are formed by the lateral overlapping due to which
most appropriate answer from the options sigma bond is stronger bond than pi-bond. Hence,
given below: the statement is true.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (C) This statement is true because ionic bonds are
explanation of A formed by the transfer of electron between two
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the atom. Thus, transfer of electron are not depends
correct explanation of A upon the direction. Hence, we can say that ionic
(c) A is true but R is false bond are non directional.
(d) A is false but R is true (D) This statement is false because π-electrons are
JEE Main 26.02.2021, Shift-I referred to as mobile electrons.
Ans. (d) : In hydrogen bonding, Dipole-dipole 771. Hydrogen bonding is not present in
interactions are non covalent but ion-dipole interaction (a) glycerine (b) water
can also result in H-bond formation. F is most electro
(c) hydrogen sulphide (d) hydrogen fluoride.
negative element & structure is
J & K CET-(2017)
Ans. (c) : Sulphur is less electronegative than fluorine
and oxygen atoms due to which hydrogen sulphide will
Symmetrical H-bonds are Present not shows hydrogen bonding while water, hydrogen
Hence, Assertion is false and reason is true. fluoride and glycerine will shows hydrogen bonding.
769. The compound/s which will show significant 772. Which of the following compounds show
intermolecular H-bonding is/are hydrogen bonding?
NO 2
(a) HCl (b) C2H6
H (c) RCH2CHO (d) RCH2NHCH3
OH N CH3
HO
Manipal-2016
O
Ans. (d) :RCH2NHCH3 compound will show hydrogen
HO
(A) (B) (C) bonding because hydrogen is directly attached with
(a) (B) only (b) (C) only more electronegative atom i.e. nitrogen.
(c) (A) and (B) (d) (A), (B) and (C) 773. Which one of the following compounds shows
(JEE Main 2021, 27 Aug. Shift-II) the presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond?
Ans. (a) : Only (a) H2O2
(b) HCN
(c) Cellulose
(d) Concentrated acetic acid
will show NEET-II, 2016
intermolecular hydrogen bonding while
Ans. (c) : H2O2, HCN and concentrated CH3COOH
form intermolecular hydrogen bonding while cellulose
has intra-molecular hydrogen bonding this is due to the
fact that the glucose monomers form straight chains and
thus its polymeric structure crowd together showing
compound will show intramolecular hydrogen bonding
intra-molecular hydrogen bonding.
and compound
774. The molecular interactions responsible for
hydrogen bonding in HF
(a) ion-induced dipole (b) dipole-dipole
(c) dipole-induced dipole (d) ion-dipole
does not show hydrogen bonding because of steric AP-EAMCET (Engg.) - 2014
hindrance due to presence of bulkier group. Ans. (b) : A hydrogen bond is formed by a dipole-
770. Which of the following is an incorrect dipole force between an electronegative atom and a
statement? hydrogen atom that attaches covalently with another
(a) Hydrogen bonding is stronger than dispersion electronegative atom of the same molecule or of a
forces different molecule. Only nitrogen, oxygen, and fluorine
(b) Sigma bonds are stronger than π-bonds atoms can with hydrogen to form hydrogen bond.
Hence, the molecular interaction responsible for 778. The hydrogen bonds are encountered in HF,
hydrogen bonding in HF are dipole-dipole interaction. H2O, NH3 and HF2− .The relative order of
energies of hydrogen bonds is
(a) HF > H2O > H3N > HF2−
(b) H2O > HF2− > HF > NH3
775. The pair of molecules forming strongest (c) HF > HF2− > H2O > NH3
hydrogen bonds are
(a) HCOOH and CH3COOH (d) HF2− > HF > H2O > NH3
(b) CH3COCH3 and CHCl3 AMU-2012
(c) H2O and H2 Ans. (d) : The strength or energy of hydrogen bonding
(d) SiF6 and SiH4 depends upon the electronegativity of atoms.
UPTU/UPSEE-2014 Order of electronegativity:- F− > F > O > N
Ans. (a) : Formic acid (HCOOH) and acetic acid Order of energies of hydrogen bonds is :- HF2− > HF >
(CH3COOH) forms strongest hydrogen bonding
H2O > NH3
because they form two hydrogen bonds and having high
polarity. 779. The vapour pressure of
OH OH
is higher than
NO O2N
776. The polypeptides are obtained by assembling 2
the peptide units by due to

(a) ionic bond (a) Dipole moment
(b) covalent bond (b) Dipole-dipole interaction
(c) intermolecular H-bonding (c) H-bonding
(d) covalent and H-bonding (d) Lattice structure
UPTU/UPSEE-2013 BITSAT-2012
Ans. (c) : More than one polypeptide chains when Ans. (c) : Ortho-nitrophenol has intramolecular H-
assemble as a result of intermolecular hydrogen OH
bonding between them, the polypeptide assume the O
secondary structure of proteins.
N
777. Which of the following is not soluble in sodium O
carbonate solution? bonding and para-nitrophenol has
intermolecular H-bonding.
OH COOH NO2 NO2 NO2
NO2 NO2
(a) (b)
NO2
O–H----O–H----O–H
SO2OH OH Hence former is more volatile than latter.

NO2 780. Hydrogen molecule differs from chlorine
(c) (d) molecule in the following respect.
(a) Hydrogen molecule is non - polar but chlorine
UP CPMT-2013
molecule is polar
Ans. (d) : Picric acid (2,4,6-trinitro phenol), benzene (b) Hydrogen molecule is polar while chlorine
sulphonic acid and benzoic acid are strong acids in molecule is non-polar
nature and react with alkali sodium carbonate to form (c) Hydrogen molecule can form intermolecular
their salts, whereas in o-nitrophenol, NO2 and OH hydrogen bond but chlorine molecule does
groups are located exactly right for the formation of not
intramolecular hydrogen bond, therefore o-nitrophenol (d) Hydrogen molecule cannot participate in
doesn't remove its H atom and doesn't react with coordinate bond formation but chlorine
sodium carbonate solution. molecule can
JIPMER-2012
Ans. (d) : Chlorine has a lone pair of electron and vacant
d-orbitals, thus they can take part in coordinate bond but
hydrogen molecule does not have a lone pair of electrons
Intra-molecular H-bond in o-nitrophenol so, it will not take part in the coordinate bond.

781. Among water molecules, the type of bond 785. Two ice cubes are pressed over each other until
present between H and O is they unite to form one block. Which one of the
(a) hydrogen bond (b) electrovalent bond following forces dominates for holding them
(c) coordinate bond (d) covalent bond together?
UP CPMT-2012 (a) Dipole-dipole interaction
(b) Van der waals’ forces
Ans. (a) : Oxygen atom of each H2O molecule is
(c) Hydrogen bond formation
covalent linked with two H-atoms of its own molecule
(d) Covalent attraction
and with another H-atom of adjacent H2O molecules by
BITSAT-2008
H-bonding.
Ans. (c) : Two ice cubes are pressed over each other
782. Intermolecular hydrogen bonding is strongest until they unite to form one block. It is due to H-
in bonding.
(a) HCHO (b) CH3OH 786. Unusually high b.p. of water is result of
(c) C6H5OH (d) CH3NH2 (a) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
UPTU/UPSEE-2012 (b) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding
Ans. (b) : Hydrogen bond is found in a compound in (c) both intra & intermolecular hydrogen bonding
which hydrogen bond is directly attached to a highly (d) High specific heat
electronegative elements such as fluorine, oxygen and WB-JEE-2008
nitrogen. In HCHO the hydrogen atom is not directly Ans. (a) : High boiling point of water is due to
attached to an oxygen atom. Thus, will show very less formation of four intermolecular hydrogen bonding,
hydrogen bonding, while in case of CH3NH2, CH3OH since they have strong force of attraction, more heat is
and C6H5OH, CH3OH will show strongest hydrogen required to break them while boiling these liquids. So, it
bonding because hydrogen is directly attached with has high boiling point.
more electronegative oxygen atom. 787. H-bond is not present in :
In C6H5OH compound strength of hydrogen bonding (a) water (b) glycerol
reduces due to the presence of bulky phenyl (–C6H5) group. (c) hydrogen fluoride (d) hydrogen sulphide
783. Out of the given two compounds, the vapour BCECE-2005
pressure of B at a particular temperature is Ans. (d) : Sulphur is less electronegativity than fluorine
and oxygen due to which H2S do not show the hydrogen
bonding while H2O, HF and glycerol shows hydrogen
bonding.
788. Which of the following does not have the
hydrogen bond?
(a) Phenol (b) Liquid NH3
(c) Water (d) Liquid HCl
(a) higher than that of A CG PET-2005
(b) lower than that of A Ans. (d) : Chlorine is less electronegativity than
(c) higher or lower than A depending on the size fluorine, oxygen and nitrogen due to which liquid HCl
of the vessel not show hydrogen bonding. H2O, phenol and liquid
(d) same as that of A NH3 show hydrogen bonding.
Karnataka-CET-2011 789. H-bond is strongest in
Ans. (a) : Vapour pressure of o-nitrophenol is more (a) C2H5OH (b) H – F
than vapour pressure of p-nitrophenol due to the (c) H2O (d) CH3COCH3
intramolecular hydrogen bonding. As a results, it is JIPMER-2005
more volatile. Ans. (b) : Strength of hydrogen bonding will depends
upon the electronegativity of atom. Greater the
electronegative atom, greater the hydrogen bonding
strength. Therefore, fluorine has highest electronic
activity and form strongest hydrogen bond in HF
molecule.
790. Which of the following compounds in liquid
784. The low density of ice compared to water is due to state does not have hydrogen bonding?
(a) induced dipole-induced dipole interactions (a) H2O (b) HF
(b) dipole-induced dipole interactions (c) NH3 (d) C6H6
(c) hydrogen bonding interactions CG PET-2004
(d) dipole-dipole interactions Ans. (d) : In benzene molecule, electronegativity
JCECE-2010 difference between C–H bond is less therefore molecule
behaves as non-polar and does not show hydrogen
Ans. (c) : Hydrogen bonding interactions are bonding. But H2O, HF and NH3 shows hydrogen
responsible for the low density of ice as compared to bonding because F, O and N atom are highly
water. electronegative.
791. Assertion: Boiling and melting points of amides Ans. (b) : Intermolecular forces in HF is due to
are higher than corresponding acids. formation of hydrogen bonding.
Reason: It is due to strong intermolecular
hydrogen bonding in their molecules.
the Reason is correct explanation of the
Assertion. 794. Which one of the following values could be
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but used to estimate the strength of a hydrogen
Reason is not a correct explanation of the bond in water?
Assertion. (a) strength of an O – H bond in H2O
(b) heat evolved when one mole of H2O is
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is formed from its elements
incorrect. (c) enthalpy change of vapourisation of water
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are (d) the melting point of ice
incorrect. J & K CET-(1998)
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is Ans. (c) : Water forms a hydrogen bonding in its
correct. molecule. Due to hydrogen bonding, the electrostatic
AIIMS-2002 force of attraction in the molecules become large.
Hence, its boiling point is high because large energy is
Ans. (a): In case of amide 2 N – H bonds are present.
required to separate these molecules. Hence enthalpy
So, amides are doing more intermolecular H-bonding changed value of vapourisation of water could be used
due to this force of attraction between the molecules, to estimate the strength of a hydrogen bonding in water.
increases and that's why boiling and melting point 795. Assertion: Ionic compounds tend to be non-
increase. While in case of acids only 1 O – H bond is volatile.
present. So, less intermolecular hydrogen bonding is Reason: The inter-molecular forces in these
formed due to this boiling and melting points of acids compounds are weak.
decreases. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Assertion.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
AIIMS-1994
Ans. (c): Intermolecular forces (i.e., electrostatic forces)
in ionic compounds are strong thus they form big
crystal lattices and are non-volatile. Thus, only assertion
is true but reason is false.
796. Methanol and ethanol are miscible in water
due to
(a) covalent character
(b) hydrogen bonding character
792. In which of the following substances, hydrogen (c) oxygen bonding character
(d) none of the above
bonding is absent?
JIPMER-2008
(a) HF (b) H2O
JCECE - 2007
(c) CCl4 (d) Salicylaldehyde
Ans. (b) : Methanol and ethanol contain polar covalent
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2001 O–H bond. Hence, they form hydrogen bonding with
Ans. (c) : Chlorine has less electronegativity value than water due to this they are miscible in water.
fluorine due to which they do not show the hydrogen 797. H2O is liquid while H2S is a gas due to
bonding. (a) covalent bonding
• HF, H2O and salicylaldehyde shows hydrogen bonding. (b) molecular attraction
(c) H-bonding
793. The predominant intermolecular forces in HF
(d) both H-bonding and molecular attraction
is due to UPTU/UPSEE-2008
(a) dipole-induced dipole interaction JIPMER-2005
(b) hydrogen bond formation Ans. (c) : H2O contains intermolecular hydrogen bond,
(c) dispersion interaction due to this it exist as liquid while H2S does not
(d) dipole-dipole interaction containing intermolecular hydrogen bond, it contains
J & K CET-(2000) weak van der Waal forces. So it exist as gas.
798. The boiling point of the water is higher than The correct match is
liquid HF. The reason is that A B C D
(a) Hydrogen bonds are stronger in water (a) I II III IV
(b) Hydrogen bonds are stronger in HF (b) III II IV I
(c) Hydrogen bonds are larger in number in HF (c) III I II IV
(d) Hydrogen bonds are larger in number in water (d) III I IV II
WB-JEE-30.04.2022 TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 06.08.2021
Ans. (d) : One water molecule forms four Ans. (d):
intermolecular hydrogen bonds while one hydrogen Compound-Physical/Chemical
fluoride forms two intermolecular hydrogen bonds, property/name/structure
(a ) H3BO3 - Hydrogen bonding
Thats why, boiling point of the water is higher than H H
liquid HF.
O
H B H
O O
One H2O molecule will form four H-bonds. H H [H bond]

(Two dimensional
O O layered structure)
H B H
O
799. The correct option among the following about H H
hydrogen bonding is (b) AlCl3 - Dimeric form
a) Hydrogen bond strength increases with the
Cl Cl Cl
decrease of electronegativity of the atom
connected to hydrogen Al Al
b) Hydrogen bonding involves more than two Cl Cl Cl
atoms (Al2Cl6)
c) In general, intramolecular hydrogen bonding
forms through five or six membered rings (c) B3N3H6 - Inorganic benzene
d) Hydrogen bonding is an electrostatic force (d) BF3 - Back bonding
(a) A and B (b) B and C
(c) A and C (d) C and D
Ans. (d) : (a) Hydrogen bond strength increases with
[ F B
F
F
F B
F
F
F B
F
F
[
the increase of electronegative of the atom connected to
801. When hydrogen bond is formed between two
hydrogen. molecules, it is called:
(b) As a result of hydrogen bonding, a hydrogen atoms (a) intra-molecular H-bond
links the two electronegative atoms simultaneously. (b) intermolecular H-bond
(c) In intramolecular species, H – bonding forms (c) directional H-bond
through five or six membered rings. (d) Both (b) and (c)
AP-EAMCET-1993
Ans. (b): Intermolecular hydrogen bond is formed
between two molecules while intramolecular hydrogen
bond is formed within the same molecule. The example
of intermolecular H-bonding is H2O whereas o-nitro
phenol has intramolecular H-bonding.
802. In which of the following compounds is
(d) Hydrogen bonding is an electrostatic force. Hence, hydrogen bonding strongest in liquid phase?
the statement is true. (a) HF (b) CH4
800. Match the following (c) HI (d) PH3
List-I List-II AP-EAMCET-1993
Compound Physical/Chemical Ans. (a): HF molecule has highest dipole character.
property/name/structure Hence, the HF has strongest hydrogen bonding in liquid
A. H3BO3 I. Dimeric form phase.
B. AlCl3 II. Back bonding 803. Water has a higher boiling point than
C. B3N3H6 III. Hydrogen bonding corresponding hydrides H2S, H2Se and H2Te.
D. BF3 IV. Inorganic benzene This is because of:
(a) angular structure of water 808. Which of the following is not correct regarding
(b) presence of lone pair of electrons in H2O the properties of ionic compounds?
(c) presence of intra-molecular H-bonding in (a) Ionic compounds have high melting and
water boiling points
(d) presence of intermolecular H-bonding in (b) Their reaction velocity in aqueous medium is
water very high
AP-EAMCET-1991 (c) Ionic compounds in their molten and aqueous
Ans. (d): Water has a higher boiling point than solutions do not conduct electricity
corresponding hydrides i.e. H2S, H2Se, H2Te. This is (d) They are highly soluble in polar solvents
because of presence of intermolecular H-bonding in UPTU/UPSEE-2010
water. CG PET -2008
804. Which of the following hydrogen bonds are AP-EAMCET-2004
strongest in vapour phase? Ans. (c): Ionic compounds in their molten and aqueous
(a) HF………….HF (b) HF………….HCl solution are a good conductor of electricity. However,
(c) HCl………….HCl (d) HF………….HI they are bad conductor in solid state.
AIEEE 2007 • Ionic compound has high melting and boiling point
Ans.(a): The hydrogen bond in HF is strongest because due to strong bond length.
fluorine is the most electronegative element hence form • The mobility of ions is very fast in aqueous solution.
strongest hydrogen bond. • The ionic compounds are very soluble in polar
805. Which of the following can form H–bond? solvent due to electrostatic attraction between two
(a) NH3 (b) R–CN opposite charge of the aqueous solution and salts.
(c) R–O–R (d) R–Br 809. Which of the following contains a coordinate
VITEEE 2003 covalent bond?
Ans. (a) : Only NH3 molecule will show hydrogen (a) H2O (b) NH3
bonding because it is polar in nature and having high (c) NH +4 (d) C2H4
electro negativity difference. But in case of R–CN, R–
O–R and R–Br and non-polar or less polar and also COMEDK-2011
having low electronegativity difference. AP-EAMCET-1993
806. Intra-molecular hydrogen bonding is formed in Ans. (c): Co-ordinate bond is also a type of covalent
(a) H2O2 (b) salicyladehyde bond in which sharing of electron given by only one
(c) NH3 (d) benzophenone atom. In NH +4 , N is the donor atom whereas H atom is
KCET 2013 the acceptor atom. Thus, NH +4 has a coordinate covalent
Ans. (b) :Intramolecular hydrogen bond is formed bond.
within the same molecule when two groups are enough
close to each other and form five or six member ring
after hydrogen bonding. Therefore, only salicylaldehyde
shows intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
810. A covalent molecule AB3 has pyramidal

structure. The number of lone pair and bond
pair electrons in the molecule are respectively
(a) 0 and 4 (b) 3 and 1
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 2
8. Ionic, Covalent and COMEDK-2018
Karnataka-CET, 2009
Coordinate Bonding Ans. (c) : In general, a compound with formula AB3 is
sp2 hybridised with triangular planar geometry.
807. The number and type of bonds between two However, the given compound has pyramidal structure
carbon atoms in CaC2 are which is possible only when it has a lone pair of electrons.
(a) One σ bond and one π bond Thus, AB3 has 3 bond pairs and one lone pair. The
(b) One σ bond and two π bonds hybridisation of AB3 molecule with one lone pair is sp3.
(c) One σ bond only
(d) One σ and one δ bond
WB JEE-2016, SCRA - 2014, AIEEE-2011
Ans. (b) : The molecular formula of calcium carbide is
CaC2. The Structure of CaC2 is:
811. Which one of the following has a coordinate bond?
(a) NH4Cl (b) AlCl3
(c) NaCl (d) Cl2
Triple bond are formed between two carbon atom. JIPMER-2012
Hence, one sigma and two pi-bonds are present. Karnataka-CET, 2009
Ans. (a) : NH4Cl forms coordinate bond. 815. Which bond in a molecule of ethyl magnesium
bromide is ionic in nature?
(a) C  C bond (b) C  Mg bond
(c) Mg  Br bond (d) C  H bond
MHT CET-03.05.2019, Shift-I
NH +4 + Cl− → NH 4 Cl Ans. (c) : In ethyl magnesium bromide, the nature of
Mg–Br bond is ionic because of the higher
Lone pair of nitrogen is donated to H+ ion and formed eletronegative difference between them. In other words,
coordinate bond. magnesium is metal and bromine is non-metal and the
812. The sum of the number of dative bonds present combination of these two gives rise to an ionic
in all the given species are compound named magnesium bromide.
+ 816. Which of the following compounds contain (s)
Al2Cl6, Al(H2O)6, CO, NH 4
(a) 5 (b) 7 no covalent bond (s) ?
(c) 8 (d) 10 KCl, PH3, O2, B2H6, H2SO4
TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-II (a) KCl, B2H6, PH3 (b) KCl, H2SO4
(c) KCl (d) KCl, B2H6
Ans. (d) : A co-ordinate covalent or dative bond is a
covalent bond that forms when both electrons come JEE Main-2018
from the same atom. The given species are Al2Cl6, Ans. (c) :
[Al(H2O)6]3+, CO and NH +4 . K
−
Cl
−
↓ losses e ↓ gains e
K+ Cl −
So, KCl forms ionic bond not covalent bond.
There are 10 dative bond present in given species.

813. A hard substance melts at high temperature
and is an insulator in both solid and in molten
state. This solid is most likely to be a/an 817. Which of the following is not a conductor of
(a) ionic solid (b) molecular solid electricity?
(c) metallic solid (d) covalent solid (a) Solid NaCl (b) Cu
(JEE Main 2021, 18 March Shift-II) (c) Fused NaCl (d) Brine solution
Ans. (d) : Covalent solids having high melting points Karnataka-CET-2018
and act as insulator in both solid and in molten state due Ans. (a) : In solid state, no unpaired electrons are
to absence of free electrons in covalent solid. present in molecule. So they does not conduct electricity.
814. Number of different bonds present in P4O10 is Therefore , solid NaCl does not having unpaired electron
....... which helps in conduction of electricity. So solid NaCl is
(a) 8 P–O bonds and 4 P = O bonds not a conductor of electricity.
(b) 12 P–O bonds and 3 P = O bonds 818. Maximum number of covalent bonds formed
(c) 12 P–O bonds and 4 P = O bonds by N and P are
(d) 8 P–O bonds and 3 P = O bonds (a) 3, 5 (b) 3, 6
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.09.2020, Shift-I (c) 3, 4, 5 (d) 3, 4, 6
Ans. (c) : Phosphorus pentaoxide is a chemical (e) None of these
compound with molecular formula P4O10. This white Kerala-CEE-2018
crystalline solid is the anhydride of phosphoric acid. It Ans. (a) : N and P belongs to the same group of
is a powerful desiccant and dehydrating agent. The elements of periodic table. It contains the five valence
structure of P4O10 is given as – electron on valence shell
7 N = 1s , 2s , 2p
2 2 3
Hence, nitrogen can form three bonds in ground state.

15 P = [Ne]3s ,3p ,3d
2 3 0

Ans. (d) : KF and HF forms K+[HF2]– compound in
anhydrous mixture. This is due to presence of hydrogen
bonding between fluorine atom of KF and hydrogen
atom of HF molecules.
KF+HF→K+[F–--- HF] →K+[HF2]–
Hydrogen
Here, P can form five bond in excited state. Hence, the
bonding
correct option is (a).
824. HCl gas is covalent and NaCl is an ionic
819. NH 3 molecule attract H+ ion towards itself to compound. This is because
form ammonium ion (NH 4+ ) through (a) sodium is highly electropositive
(a) electrovalent bond (b) metallic bond (b) hydrogen is a non-metal
(c) co-ordinate bond (d) hydrogen bonding (c) HCl is a gas
(d) electronegativity difference between H and Cl
BCECE-2017
is less than 2.1
Ans. (c) : NH3 molecules forms NH +4 ion by forming Karnataka-CET-2016
coordinate bond with H+ ion. Ans. (d) : In HCl molecule the electronegativity
difference between H and Cl atom is less so they act as
covalent compound while in NaCl molecule the
electronegativity difference in Na and Cl atom is high.
Therefore, NaCl act as ionic compound.
825. Which compound has electrovalent bond ?
(a) H2O2 (b) CCl4
820. Select the most appropriate statement in BF3 (c) NaBr (d) CHCl3
(a) All the bonds are completely ionic MPPET-2013
(b) The B-F bond is partially ionic. Ans. (c) : Electrovalent bond formed by transfer of e–
(c) B-F bond has partial double bond character. and gain of e–. After dissociation of electrovalent bond,
(d) Bond energy and bond length data indicates opposite ion (cation and anion) are formed mostly. It is
single bond character of the B-F bond. formed between non metal and metal.
(e) All the bonds are covalent. Na – Br  → Na + + Br −
Kerala-CEE-2017 • H2O2, CCl4 and CHCl3 have the covalent bond
Ans. (e) : BF3 has three B–F bond in own structure. The because these bonds formed due to sharing of electron.
hybridisation of boron in BF3 is sp2. Boron contains the 826. Which one of the following statements about C2
three valence electron which is share with the fluorine molecule is wrong?
atom and the covalent bond formed. Boron completes (a) The bond order of C2 is 2
its octet by back -bonding making B–F bond partial (b) In vapour phase, C2 molecule is diamagnetic
double bond. (c) Double bond in C2 molecule consists of both
821. Which of the following is covalent? π-bonds because of the presence of 4e − in
(a) NaCl (b) KCl two π-molecular orbitals.
(c) BeCl2 (d) MgCl2 (d) Double bond in C2 molecule consists to one
(e) CaCl2 σ-bond and one π bond
Kerala-CEE-2017 JIPMER-2013
Ans. (c) : BeCl2 has covalent character because the Ans. (d) : According to MOT diagram of C2 molecule
electronegativity difference between Be & Cl is very double bond in C2 molecule consist of both π–bonds no
less whereas NaCl, MgCl2, KCl and CaCl2 are the salt σ–bond is present.
of alkali and alkaline earth metal.
822. An ionic compound is
(a) SnCl2 (b) CCl4
(c) GeCl4 (d) SiCl4
JCECE-2016
Ans. (a) : In p-block members, as we move down the
group, lower positive oxidation state (+2) is more stable
and ionic character increases due to inert pair effect.
Hence, SnCl2, i.e. (Sn = +2), is ionic in nature.
823. Anhydrous mixture of KF and HF contain
which types of ions?
(a) K+, H+, F– (b) {KF+, (HF–)}
(c) KH+, F– (d) K+, HF2−
JIPMER-2016
830. CO is practically non-polar since
(a) the σ-electron drift from C to O is almost
nullified by the π-electron drift from O to C
(b) the σ-electron drift from O to C is almost
nullified by the π-electron drift from C to O
1 − (c) the bond moment is low
• Bond order = e B − e AB
−
 (d) there is a triple bond between C and O
2 WB-JEE-2012
1
= [ 4 − 0] Ans. (a) : CO is the heterodiatomic molecule. It has the
2 σ bond (sigma electron) and π-bond (π-electron). The
=2 polarity of this molecule is destroyed by the σ-electron
• All 4e– are present in two π–molecular orbital so, it drift from C to O and π-electron drift from O to C.
show the diamagnetic character. 831. The dative bond is present in
827. Which one of the following contains ionic, (a) NH3 (b) SO3
covalent and coordinate bonds? (c) PCl5 (d) BF3
(a) NaCl (b) NaCN JCECE-2011
(c) NaNC (d) NaOH Ans. (b) : The structures of the given molecules are as-
Karnataka-CET-2012
Ans. (c) : NaNC contains ionic, covalent and coordinate
type of bonding.
Hence, SO3 molecules contains co-ordinate or dative

NaCN only shows ionic and covalent bonding. bonds.
NaCl and NaOH shows ionic bonding. 832. Which of the following does not contain any
828. Which of the following is not a characteristic coordinate bond?
of a covalent compound? (a) H3O+ (b) BF4−
(a) No definite geometry
(b) Insoluble in polar solvent (c) HF2− (d) NH +4
(c) Small difference in electronegativity between MHT CET-2011
the combining atoms Ans. (c) :
(d) Low melting point
Karnataka-CET-2012
Ans. (a) : The covalent compound have some properties
which is given below.
(i) The geometry of the covalent compound is definite.
(ii) Covalent compounds are in soluble in polar
solvents.
(iii) The covalent bond formed in between two atom of
covalent compound due to small difference of
electronegativity.
(iv) The covalent compounds have low melting point
rather than ionic compounds.
829. Which of the following dissolves in ionic Hence, HF2− does not contain the any type of Co-
solvents?
(a) C6H6 (b) CH3OH ordinate bond.
(c) CCl4 (d) C5H12 833. The compound which contains both ionic and
MHT CET-2012 covalent bond
(a) KCl (b) KCN
Ans. (b) : CH3OH is the polar molecule which is (c) CH4 (d) H2
dissolve in the polar solvent (ionic solvent).
BCECE-2010
δ+ δ−
CH 3 – OH Ans. (b) : KCN contains both ionic and covalent bond.
C6H6, CCl4 and C5H12 are the non-polar molecule due K +C = N−
+ –
to which they can not be dissolved in the polar solvent K and CN forms ionic bond and C–N bond is
(e.g. H2O). covalent.
834. In the electronic structure of H2SO4, the total 839. Which of the following combination will form
number of unshared electrons is an electrovalent bond?
(a) 20 (b) 16 (a) P and Cl (b) NH3and BF3
(c) 12 (d) 8 (c) H and Ca (d) H and S
JIPMER-2010 UPTU/UPSEE-2005
Ans. (a) Ans. (c) : The ionic bond formed between such type of
element in which more electronegative difference
present in between them. Here, Ca and H has the
maximum electronegative difference. Hence it forms
No. of lone pair = 10 the electrovalent bond.
∴ No. of unshared e– = 10×2 = 20 e– 840. Ionic bonds are usually formed by combination
835. Which combination of atoms can form a polar of elements with
covalent bond? (a) high ionisation potential and low electron
(a) H and H (b) H and Br affinity
(c) N and N (d) Na and Br (b) low ionisation potential and high electron
UPTU/UPSEE-2009 affinity
Ans. (b) : The condition for a polar covalent bond is (c) high ionisation potential and high electron
that the combining atom must have the low affinity
electronegativity difference not zero. Here, H–Br fulfills (d) low ionisation potential and low electron
the condition and form the polar covalent bond. affinity
CG PET -2005
• H and H & N and N forms the non-polar covalent Ans. (b) : Ionic bonds are usually formed by
bond because the electronegativity difference is combination of element which easily loose electrons i.e.
zero. low ionisation energy and element which easily takes
• Na and Br forms the ionic bond. electron i.e. having high electron affinity.
836. The nature of the bond in diamond is 841. An example of a polar covalent compounds is:
(a) ionic (b) covalent (a) KCl (b) NaCl
(c) metallic (d) coordinate covalent
(c) CCl4 (d) HCl
J & K CET-2008
JCECE-2005
Ans. (b) : Diamond forms covalent bond. In diamond
only carbon atoms are present. Each carbon atom Ans. (d) : KCl and NaCl are ionic compound because
attached by 4 other carbon atoms through covalent bond formed due to transfer of electron whereas CCl4
bonds. and HCl are both covalent compound but one is polar
837. The number of covalent bonds in fluorine and other one is non-polar. CCl4 is the non-polar
molecules is covalent compound because it's magnitude of polarity
(a) 2 (b) 3 cancel to each other. Hence, HCl is the polar covalent
(c) 1 (d) 5 compound.
J & K CET-2007 842. When electric current is passed through an
Ans. (c) : Fluorine molecules form one F–F covalent ionic hydride in molten state:
bond. Electronic configuration of F → 1s 2s 2p
2 2 5 (a) hydrogen is liberated at anode
This show fluorine requires one more electron to (b) hydrogen is liberated at cathode
complete it's octate. So, it forms only one covalent (c) no change takes place
bond. (d) hydride for migrates towards cathode
838. Which of the following contains both covalent (e) hydride ion remains in solution
and ionic bond ? Kerala-CEE-2005
(a) CCl4 (b) CaCl2 Ans. (a) : When electric current is passed through an
(c) NH4Cl (d) H2O ionic hydride in molten state then hydrogen gas
MHT CET-2007 liberated at anode.
Ans. (c) : Ammonium chloride has ionic as well as M + H −  → M+ + H−
covalent bond. Ionic bond formed between [NH4]+ and Hydrideion
Cl– whereas covalent co-ordinate bond formed between 1

N→H. H −  → H 2 + e− (At anode)
2
843. A covalent bond between two atoms is formed
by which of the following?
(a) Electron nuclear attraction
(b) Electron sharing
(c) Electron transfer
• CCl4 and H2O are form the covalent bond whereas (d) Electrostatic attraction
CaCl2 has only ionic bond between own ion. CG PET -2004
Ans. (b) : Covalent bond is a chemical bond that 848. Which one of the following molecules contains
involves the sharing of electron pairs between atoms. both ionic and covalent bonds?
These electron pairs, and the stable balance of attractive (a) CH2Cl2 (b) K2SO4
and repulsive forces between atoms, when they share (c) BeCl2 (d) SO2
electrons, is known as covalent bonding. AP-EAMCET-2002
844. Identify the non-polar molecule in the set of Ans. (b): K2SO4 molecule contains both ionic and
compounds given: covalent bonds.
HCl, HF, H2, HBr
(a) H2 (b) HCl
(c) HF, HBr (d) HBr
UPTU/UPSEE-2004
Ans. (a) : The species are given below-
849. Which of the following is the weakest bond?
H2 is the non-polar molecule because the (a) hydrogen bond (b) metallic bond
electronegative difference between H–H is zero. Hence, (c) ionic bond (d) covalent bond
H2 non-polar molecule. J & K CET-2001
845. Assertion: The O−O bond length in H2O2 is Ans. (a) : Hydrogen bonding is the weakest bond
shorter than that of O2F2. because it only formed by attraction between dipoles
Reason: H2O2 is an ionic compound. not formed a real bond.
the Reason is correct explanation of the 850. Which of the following molecule/ion has all the
Assertion. three types of bonds electrovalent, covalent and
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but co-ordinate :
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (a) HCl (b) NH 4Cl
Assertion. (c) Cl– (d) H2O2
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is BITSAT-2015
incorrect.
Ans. (b) : Bond structure of molecules are :
incorrect. HCl = H – Cl
correct.
AIIMS-2003
Ans. (d) : O – O bond length in O2F2 is less than H2O2
because in O2F2, highly electronegative fluorine atom
attracts lone pair of oxygen that’s why lone pair-lone
pair repulsion in O–O bond decreases and O–O bond −
length is also decreases.  ×× 
Cl ≡  ×× Cl×× 
−
846. The number of S – S bonds in sulphur trioxide
is  ×× 
(a) Three (b) two H 2O 2 ≡ H – O – O – H
(c) one (d) zero Hence, from above structure it is clear that NH 4Cl
J & K CET-2003 molecule contains all three types bonds.
Ans. (d) : There is zero S – S bond in sulphur trioxide 851. Consider the following with regard to water
(SO3). molecule :
1. Non-polar covalent 2. Polar covalent
3. σ bond 4. sp3 hybridization
Which of the above describe the bonding in
water molecule?
847. In which of the following ionic bond is present? (a) 2 and only (b) 1 and 4
(a) BF3 (b) CCl4 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4
(c) HCl (d) BaCl2 SCRA-2014
JCECE-2003 Ans. (d) : Water molecule contains the two bond pair
Ans. (d) : In BaCl2 compound, the electronegativity and two lone pair. H2O is polar in nature because O–H
difference between Barium and Chlorine atom is high bond are polar in nature. The hybridization of H2O
therefore only BaCl2 forms ionic bond. molecule is sp3. There are two σ bond present.

852. Assertion: LiCl is predominantly a covalent Ans. (d) : In ammonium ion NH +4 , three N–H bonds
compound. are covalent and one N–H bond is co-ordinate covalent.
Reason: Electronegativity difference between Hydrogen atoms are situated at the corners of a
Li and Cl is too small. tetrahedron as N atom is sp3 hybridised.
Assertion
Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect 856. Assertion: The atoms in a covalent molecule are
said to share electrons, yet some covalent
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect
molecules are polar.
AIIMS-2014 Reason: In a polar covalent molecule, the shared
Ans. (c) : LiCl is covalent compound because the size electrons spend more time than the average near
of Li+ is smaller and Cl− is larger. Therefore, Li+, has one of the atoms.
high polarizing power according to Fajan's rule, then (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
LiCl is covalent in nature. Electronegativity difference Reason is a correct explanation of the
between Li and Cl is high. Assertion
853. The correct statement for the molecule CsI3 is (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
(a) It is a covalent molecule
Assertion
(b) It contains Cs + and I3− (c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false
(c) It contains Cs3+ and I − ions (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
AIIMS-1996
(d) It contains Cs + , I − and lattice I 2 molecule
Ans. (a) : Covalent bonds are formed by the sharing of
JEE Main-2014 electrons between atoms if there is difference in
Ans. (b) : CsI3 is an ionic compound. electronegativity between atoms then shared electron
→ Cs + + I3−
CsI3  spent more time near more electronegativity atom but if
electronegativity difference is less then shared electron
Cs belongs to alkali metal groups therefore Cs3+ is not exist in centre.
possible because alkali metals only shows +1 oxidation
857. The compound containing co-ordinate bond is
state, i.e. Cs+. I2 molecules is not present in lattice (a) SO3 (b) O3
because its size is too large. (c) H2SO4 (d) all of these
854. The attractive force which holds various AIIMS-1994
constituents together in different chemical Ans. (d) :
species is called
(a) valence bond (b) chemical bond
(c) atomic bond (d) electrovalent bond.
J & K CET-2014
Ans. (b) : Only chemical bonds forms attractive force
because it is formed by sharing of electrons between
atoms. Electrovalent bonds are ionic bonds and formed
by donation of electron so it is not formed by attractive
Hence, all species contains the co-ordinate bond.
forces.
858. Heterolytic fission of an organic covalent bond
855. Which one of the following statements is true gives only
for ammonium ion? (a) anion (b) free radicals
(a) All bonds are ionic (c) cation (d) both (a) and (c)
(b) All bonds are co-ordinate covalent AIIMS-1994
(c) H- atoms are situated at the corners of a Ans. (d) : There are two types of fission take place in
square an organic covalent bond i.e. (i) Homolytic and
(d) H-atoms are situated at the corners of heterolytic fission. On the heterolytic fission, cation and
tetrahedron. anion are formed.
AP – EAMCET - (Medical)-1997 C–X 
Heterolytic
Cleavage
→ C+ + X −

863. AX is a covalent diatomic molecule, where A
9. Molecular Orbital Theory and X are second row elements of periodic
table. Based on molecular orbital theory, the
bond order of AX is 2.5. The total number of
859. Which of the following molecules/ions do not electrons in AX is ..........
contain unpaired electrons? (Round off to the nearest integer).
(a) O 22 − (b) B2 (JEE Main 2021, 18 March Shift-I)
Ans. (15) : It is given that the bond order of AX is 2.5.
(c) N +2 (d) O2
The compound AX will be NO because the total
(JEE Main 2021, 31 Aug. Shift-II) number of electron of NO is 15 Total number of
Karnataka-CET-2012 electrons equal to 13 will also have the 2.5 bond order.
UP CPMT-2011 But in this case neutral diatomic molecule will not be
possible.
Ans. (a) : O 22 − (number of electrons = 18) does not
864. Arrange the following species in the correct
contain unpaired electrons.
order of their stabilities.
O 22 − : σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, σ2p 2z , π2p 2x N −2 , C 2 , Ne 2 , O 22 −
≈ π2p y , π 2p x ≈ π 2p y
2 * 2 * 2
(a) Ne2 < O 22 − < C2 < N −2
860. Which of the following show pπ – dπ bonding? (b) Ne2 < C2 < O 22 − < N −2
(a) NO3− (b) SO32 − (c) Ne2 < N −2 < O 22 − < C2
(c) BO33− (d) CO32 − (d) Ne2 < O 22 − < N −2 < C2
BCECE-2016, 2012 AP EAPCET 25.08.2021, Shift-II
2–
Ans. (b) : NO3–, BO33– and CO3 contains the second Ans. (a) : According molecular orbital theory–
period elements (central atom and surrounding atom ) For N ≤ 14e– For N > 14 e–
and there is no availability of d– orbital in second σ 2pz
*
σ*2pz
period element due to which they cannot acquire the π 2px = π 2py (bonding)
* *
π 2px = π*2py
*
pπ– dπ bonding. σ2pz π2px = π2py

In SO32–, sulphur belongs to the third period of the π2px = π2py (bonding) σ2pz
periodic table and it has the d–orbital due to which they σ*2s σ*2s
can form pπ–dπ bonding. σ2s (bonding) σ2s
861. Which of the following elements forms pπ – pπ σ 1s (antibonding orbital)
*
σ*1s
bond with itself? σ1s (bonding orbital) σ1s
(a) P (b) Se
No. of bonding e − − No. of antibonding e −
(c) N (d) Te ∴ B.O. =
Karnataka-CET-2017 2
MHT CET-2017 So, bond order is increase so stability is increase. Bond
Ans. (c) : The condition for forming the pπ-pπ bond is order of N −2 = 5/2, C2 = 2, O 22 − = 1 and Ne2 = 0.
that, the molecule having the small size with high 865. Addition of an electron to an antibonding
electronegativity. In the given options, only nitrogen molecular orbital _____
has fulfill the condition for pπ-pπ bond. N has more (a) increase bond - order
electronegativity than P, Se and Te. (b) decreases bond - order
(c) stabilizes the system
862. The number of antibonding electron pairs in (d) decreases the inter-nuclear distance
O 2–
2 molecular ion on the basis of molecular AP-EAPCET-24.08.2021, Shift-I
orbital theory is (Atomic number of O is 18) Ans. (b) : The formula of bond order is –
(a) 5 (b) 4 Bond order
(c) 3 (d) 2 no. of bonding e − – no. of of anti bonding e−
Karnataka-CET-2007 =
2
NEET-1998 If the no. of electron in antibonding increases the bond
Ans. (b) : The electronic configuration of O 2– order decreases. Hence the second option is correct.
2 ion is-
866. According to molecular orbital theory, the
( )
O −2 18e− = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 ,2pz2 , species among the following that does not exist
is :
π2px2 = π2py2 , σ 2pz2 ,π* 2p 2y = π* 2p 2
(a) He −2 (b) He +2
Hence, number of antibonding electron pairs in
(c) O 22− (d) Be 2
O 2–
2 molecular ion are four.
JEE Main 25-02-2021, Shift-I
Ans. (d) : (i) He 2– ( 5 ) : σ1s 2 σ*1s 2 σ2s1 Stability ∝ Bond order
Bond order of N2, N −2 and N −22 are 3, 2.5 and 2
respectively. Therefore, the bond stability order is
N −22 < N 2− < N 2 .
Hence, the correct option is (c).
869. During the change of O2 to O -2 , the incoming
electron goes to the orbital.
(a) π2px (b) π*2px
(c) π2py (d) π*2pz
Ans. (b) : : The total number of electron in O2
molecule is 16. The molecular orbital configuration of
1 O2 is (σ1s) 2 (σ *1s) 2 (σ2s) 2 (σ* 2s) 2
Bond Order =
2
[ Nb – Na ] (σ2p z ) 2 (π2p 2 x = π2p 2 y ) (π * 2p1x = π * 2p1y )
1
= [3 – 2] = = 0.5
1 Similarly, for O2– , totale − = 17
2 2 MO electronic configuration
(ii) He 2+ ( 3) : σ1s 2 σ*1s1 = (σ1s) 2 (σ *1s) 2 (σ2s) 2 (σ* 2s) 2 (σ2p z ) 2
1 (π2p 2 x = π2p 2 y ) (π * 2p 2 x = π * 2p1y )
Bond Order = [ Nb – Na ]
2 In O2 to O2–, the incoming electron goes to the
1 π * 2p x orbital.
= [ 2 – 1] = 0.5
2 870. Which of the following species cannot exist on
2 ( )
(iii) O 2– 18 : σ 1s 2
, σ * 2
1s , σ 2s 2
, σ*
2s 2
, σ 2p 2 the basis of Molecular Orbital Theory?
z
(a) O2+ (b) He2+
π2p x = π2p y , π 2p x = π 2p y
2 2 * 2 * 2
(c) H2 +
(d) He2
1 J & K CET-2019
Bond Order = [ N b – N a ] CG PET-2004
2
Ans. (d) : The molecule which have bonding electron
1
= [10 – 8] = 1 equal to the Antibonding electron then the molecule
2 cannot exist. He2 has the 4 electron.
(iv) Be2 = 4 + 4 = 8 MO configuration of He2 = (σ1s2) (σ*1s)2
= σ 1s , σ 1s , σ2s , σ 2s
2 * 2 2 * 2 Hence, no of bonding electron is equal to the no. of
antibonding. Hence, the He2 molecule cannot exist.
1
Bond Order = [ N b – N a ] 871. In the process, O +2 → O 2+ 2 +e
–
the electron lost
2
is from :
1
= [ 2 – 2] = 0 (a) bonding π-orbital
2 (b) antibonding π-orbital
Bond Order of Be2 is zero so, it does not exist. (c) 2pz orbital
867. The total number of electrons in all bonding (d) 2px orbital
molecular orbitals of O 22− is ....... . Manipal-2019
2+ −
(Round of to the nearest integer) Ans. (b) : O 2
-
→ O 2 + e
(JEE Main 2021, 27 July Shift-II) O +2 Total e − = 15 = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, σ2p 2z
Ans. 10 : The species is O 22− . The total no. of e– in π2 p 2x = π2 p 2y , π* 2p1x
O 22− is 18. The removal of electron takes place from π*Px orbital
MO configuration = (σ1s) (σ *1s) (σ2s) (σ 2s)
2 2 2 * 2 which is π- antibonding orbital.
872. Which of the following diatomic molecular
(σ2p z ) 2 (π2p 2 x = π2p 2 y ) (π * 2p 2 x = π * 2p 2 y ) species has only π bonds according to
The bonding molecular orbital contains the 10 electron. molecular orbital theory?
− 2− (a) Be2 (b) O2
868. The bond stability of N2, N 2 and N 2 varies as (c) N2 (d) C2
(a) N 2 < N 2− < N 22− (b) N −2 < N 2 < N 22− NEET-2019
2− −
(c) N 2 < N 2 < N 2 − 2−
(d) N 2 < N 2 < N 2 Ans. (d) : The total number of electrons in C2 molecule
is 12. The molecular orbital electronic configuration of
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-I C is (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2 (σ*2s)2 (π2p 2 = π2p 2 ) .
2 x y
Ans. (c) : Stability of a molecule is related with bond
order as: Thus, C 2 has only π bonds according to MOT.

873. Assertion: NH -2 has a square planar shape. Ans. (d) : The given species is O2. The total number of
Reason: Species which involve dsp2 electron in O2 is 16. The molecular orbital configuration
hybridization have square pyramidal structure. is (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2 (σ*2s)2 (σ2pz) 2
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and (π2p2x = π2p2y) (π*2p1x = π*2p1y). Hence, antibonding
molecular orbital contains the 6 electron.
Assertion 876. The molecule (ion) having one unpaired
electron is :
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but (a) NO (b) CO
Reason is not the correct explanation of (c) CN– (d) O2
Assertion. Manipal-2017
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect −
Ans. (a) : NO (total e = 7 +8 + = 15) = σ1s2, σ*1s2,
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect
AIIMS-26 May,2018 (M) σ2s2, σ*2s2, σ2pz2, π2 p 2x = π2 p 2y , π*2 p1x
Unpaired electron = 1
Ans. (d): The hybridization of NH −2 is sp3 with two
(b) CO (total e − = 14) = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2 , σ*2s2
lone pair The structure of NH −2 is given below –
π2 p 2x = π2 p 2y , σ2p 2z
Unpaired electron = 0
(c) CN (Total e − =14) =is isoelectronic with CO.
Hence, it has 0 unpaired electron
V– Shaped or Bent shape
2 (d) O2 (Total e − = 16) σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2
Species which involve dsp hybridization have square
planer geometry whereas the molecules having the sp3d2 σ2pz2, π2 p 2x = π2 p 2y ,π*2 p1x = π*2 p1y
hybridization with one lone pair has the square Unpaired e − = 2
pyramidal structure.
877. Which one of the molecular species has
874. According to molecular orbital theory which of
unpaired electrons?
the following statement about the magnetic
character and bond order is correct regarding (a) N2 (b) N 22+
2–
O +2 (c) N 2 (d) O 2– 2
COMEDK-2016
(a) Paramagnetic and Bond order < O2
−
(b) Paramagnetic and Bond order > O2 N 2 (total e =14) : σ1s , σ 1s , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 ,
2 * 2
Ans. (c) :
(c) Diamagnetic and Bond order < O2
(d) Diamagnetic and Bond order > O2
( π2p2x = π2p2y ) , σ2p2z
BITSAT-2018
N 22+ (totale − =12) : σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 ( π2p 2x = π2p 2y )
Ans. (b) : O 2 : σ1s , σ 1s , σ2s , σ 2s , σ2pz2
2 * 2 2 * 2
N 22− (totale− =16) : σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ 2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , ( π2p x2 = π2p 2y ) , σ2p z2 ,
π2p 2x = π2p 2y , π* 2p1x = π* 2p1y
( π 2p
* 1
x = π* 2p1y )
10 − 6
Bond order = =2
2
O 22− (totale− =18) : σ1s2 , σ*1s 2 , σ 2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , σ 2p z2 , ( π2p 2x = π2p 2y )
(two unpaired electrons in antibonding molecular
orbital) ( π 2p
* 2
x = π* 2p 2y )
O +2 : σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , σ2p 2z Here, N 22− contains the two unpaired electron.
π2p 2x = π2p 2y π* 2p1x π* 2p0y 878. The total number of antibonding electrons in
N2 and O2 molecules respectively is
10 − 5 (a) 4, 6 (b) 6, 8
Bond order = = 2.5
2 (c) 5, 8 (d) 4, 8
(One unpaired electron in antibonding molecular AP EAMCET (Medical) - 2013
orbital) Ans. (a) : The species are N2 and O2.
+
Hence O2 as well as O 2 both are paramagnetic, and Total electron in N2 = 14
Molecular electronic configuration of N2 =
bond order of O +2 is greater than that of O2. σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , π2p 2x = π2p 2y , σ2p 2z
875. According to MOT, O2 is paramagnetic in ∴ Antibonding electron = 4
nature, what is the number of electrons in Total electron in O2 = 16
antibonding molecular orbitals? Molecular electronic configuration of O2 =
(a) 8 (b) 7 σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s2 , σ* 2s2 , σ2pz2 , π2px2 = π2p2y , π* 2p1x = π* 2p1y
(c) 9 (d) 6
AMU-2017 ∴ Antibonding electron = 6
879. Using MOT, which of the following pairs 884. Molecular orbital theory was proposed by
denote paramagnetic species? (a) Lewis (b) Mulliken
(a) B2 and C2 (b) B2 and O2 (c) Slater (d) Pauling
(c) N2 and C2 (d) O2 and O 2– AP- EAMCET(Medical) -2010
2
Ans. (b): Molecular Orbital Theory (MOT) was
BITSAT-2013 developed by F. Hund and R.S. Mulliken in 1932.
Ans. (b) : B2 and O2 are paramagnetic due to presence • Lewis was best known for his discovery of the
of unpaired electron. MO configuration of B2 is : covalent bond and his concept of electron pairs. His
σ1s 2 σ *1s 2 σ2s 2 σ * 2s 2 π2p1x = π2p1y Lewis dot structure and other contributions to
valence bond theory have shaped modern theories
MO configuration of O2 is : of chemical bonding.
σ1s 2 σ *1s 2 σ 2s 2 σ * 2s 2 σ2p z2 π2p 2x • Slater's rules provide numerical values for the
effective nuclear charge in a many electron atom.
= π2p 2y π * 2p1x = π * 2p1y
• Pauling was the scientist who gave scale of
880. The ground state electronic configuration of electroelectronegativity.
CO molecule is 885. Which is false statement about LCAO?
(a) 1σ 2 2σ 21π 4 3σ 2 (b) 1σ 2 2σ 2 3σ 21π 2 2π2 (a) Addition of atomic orbitals result in
(c) 1σ 2σ 1π 3σ 2π
2 2 2 2 2
(d) 1σ 21π2 2σ 2 2σ 2 molecular orbitals.
(b) Atomic orbitals of nearly same energy
WB-JEE-2013 combine to form molecular orbitals.
Ans. (a) : CO molecule contains the 14 electron in (c) Bonding molecular orbitals occupy higher
ground state. The molecular orbital configuration of CO energy than atomic orbitals.
is (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2 (σ*2s)2 (π2p 2x = π2p 2y ) (σ2pz)2. (d) Each molecular orbital accommodates
maximum no of two electrons.
881. The number of molecular orbitals obtained by J & K CET-2010
mixing two atomic orbitals from each of the
Ans. (c) : The linear combination of atomic orbital’s to
atoms is:
form molecular orbital’s takes place only if the
(a) 2 (b) 3 following conditions are satisfied-
(c) 4 (d) 6 (i) Two or more than two atomic orbital combination
MPPET-2012 to form molecular orbital’s
Ans. (a) : Due to hybridized orbitals of atoms, if 'n' (ii) The combining atomic orbitals must have the same
number of orbitals are combined, then the number of or nearly the same energy.
orbitals formed would also be equal to 'n'. (iii) Bonding molecular orbital’s occupy less energy
• One bonding orbital & one anti-bonding orbital, when than atomic orbital’s
two '1s' orbitals combine – (iv) Each molecular orbital fits in with maximum no.
of two electrons.
886. Which one of the following is paramagnetic
(a) O2 (b) N2
(c) He (d) NH3
MPPET-2009
Ans. (a) : Paramagnetism is due to the presence of
882. The molecule having one unpaired electron is: unpaired electrons in the material.
(a) CO (b) O2 According to molecular orbital theory–
(c) N2 (d) NO σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , σ2p z2 , π2p2x = π2p 2y ,
MPPET-2012
s π* 2p1x = π* 2p1y
Ans. (d) : (i) : C = O : &&
(ii) O = O &&
&& && O2 is paramagnetic because antibonding molecular
&&
(iii) N ≡ N && (iv) N&& = O&& (one unpaired e–) orbital has 2 unpaired electron.
& && 887. The correct statement with regard to H 2+ and
883. According to molecular orbital theory, the total
number of bonding electron pairs in O2 is H 2− is:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (a) both H +2 and H −2 are equally stable
(c) 5 (d) 4
AP EAMCET (Engg.)-2012 (b) both H +2 and H −2 do not exist
Ans. (c) : According to molecular orbital theory (c) H −2 is more table than H +2
molecular orbital configuration of O2 is – (d) H +2 is more stable than H −2
(
O 2 16e −
) = σ1s , σ 1s , σ2s , σ 2s , 2p
2 * 2 2 * 2 2
z , Karnataka-CET, 2009
π2px2 = π2py2 , σ2pz2 ,π* 2p1y = π* 2p1 1
Ans. (d) : H +2 : σ1s1 , σ* s 0 Bond order =
∴ Number of bonding electrons = 10 2
and number of bonding electron pairs = 5 + 2 −1 1
2 * 1
H 2 : σ1s , σ s Bond order = =
and Number of antibonding electrons = 6 2 2
The bond order of H +2 and H −2 are same but H +2 is more Ans. (b) : The chemical formula of oxygen is O2. The
total number of electron in oxygen is 16.
stable than H −2 . It is due to the presence of one electron
The molecular orbital configuration of O2 is
in the antibonding molecular orbital in H −2 . σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, σ2p2z, π2 p 2x = π2 p 2y
888. Which of the following is correct based on
Molecular orbital theory for peroxide ion? π*2 p1x =π*2 p1y
(a) Its bond order is two and it is diamagnetic From the above configuration it is clear that the last
(b) Its bond order is one and it is paramagnetic electron goes to the π*2Px=π*2Py which has two
(c) Its bond order is two and it is paramagnetic unpaired electron and shows the paramagnetic
(d) Its bond order is one and it is diamagnetic character.
GUJCET-2007 892. Number of unpaired eletronis in O2 molecule
Ans. (d) : The chemical formula of peroxide ion is O 22− is:
Total electron = 16+2 = 18 (a) zero (b) one
Molecular electronic configuration of (c) two (d) four
O 22− = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , σ2p 2 UP CPMT-2005
Ans. (c) : Write the electronic configuration of O2
π2px2 = π2py2 , σ2pz2 ,π* 2p 2y = π* 2p 2 according to molecular orbital theory to find the number
of unpaired electrons in it.
no. of bonding electron–no. of antibonding electron O2 = (total e– = 8+8 =16)
Bond order =
2 = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, σ2 p 2z , π2 p 2x = π2 p 2y ,
10–8 π* 2p1x = π * 2p1y ∴ number of unpaired electrons =2
Bond order = =1
2
So, its bond order is one and it is diamagnetic in nature. 893. Which of the following molecules have
unpaired electrons in antibonding molecular
889. One of the following examples exhibit transient
orbitals?
existence
(a) O2 (b) N2
(a) H (b) H 2+ (c) C2 (d) B2
(c) H + (d) He J & K CET-2002
J & K CET-2007 Ans. (a) : O 2 (Total e − =16) = (σ1s2) (σ*1s2) (σ2s2)
Ans. (c) : H+ has the zero bond order due to which we (σ*2s2) (σ2 p 2z ) (π2 p 2x = π2 p 2y )
can say that H+ is not stable or exhibit transient
* 1 * 2
existence and H +2 has the positive value of bond order. (π 2 p y =π 2 p y )
Hence, it is stable. Unpaired e- in ABMO = 2
890. Molecular orbital electronic configuration of X (b) (N2 Total e − 14) = (σ1s2) (σ*1s2) (σ2s2)
anion is
(σ*2s2 ) (π2 p 2x =π2 p 2y ) (σ2 p 2z )
KK(σ2s)2 (σ∗2s)2 (π2px)2(π2py) 2(σ2pz) 2(π∗2px)1
Then anion X is – Unpaired e- in ABMO = 0
(a) N 2– (b) O 2– (c) C2 (Total e − =12) = (σ1s2) (σ*1s2) (σ2s2)
(c) N 2– (d) O 2– (σ*2s2) (π2 p 2x =π2 p 2y )
2 2
AMU-2005 Unpaired e- = in ABMO = 0
Ans. (a) : The given molecular orbital electronic (d) B2 (total e − =10) = (σ1s2) (σ*1s2) (σ2s2)
configuration of X anion is K K- σ2s2, σ*2s2, π2px2, (σ*2s2) (π2 p1x =π2 p1y )
π2py2, σ2pz2, π*2px1,. The anion contains the 15
electron on molecule orbital configuration. Unpaired e– in ABMO = 0
(a) N2– ⇒ (total e –) = 14 + 1 = 15 Here, O2 has tow unpaired electron in antibonding
(b) O2– ⇒ (total e – )= 16 + 1 = 17 molecular orbital ABMO
(c) N2– ⇒ (total e –) = 14 + 2 = 16 894. Which of the following is paramagnetic?
(d) O22– ⇒ Total e – = 16 + 2 = 18 (a) N2O4 (b) NO
Hence, anion X is N2–. (c) N2O3 (d) N2
891. Paramagnetism of oxygen is explained on the AP EAMCET- 1995
basis of its electronic configuration of: Ans. (b) : From the Molecular orbital theory–
( π 2p ) ( π 2p ) NO (totale − = 15) = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , σ2p 2z , π2p 2x =
1 1
(a) (2π*x )(2πy )1 (b) *
x
*
y
π2p 2y , π* 2p1x = π* 2p y
(c) (2σ*s )1 ( 2π y ) ( 2σ ) ( 2 π )
* 1
1 1
(d) s y
Hence, last e goes to in anti bonding as an unpaired e–.
–
JCECE-2005 So, NO is paramagnetic in nature.

895. The ground state electronic configuration of Ans. (b): Oxygen molecule is paramagnetic because it
valence shell electrons in nitrogen molecule contains two unpaired electrons in the anti bonding
(N2) is written as KK, σ2s2, σ*2s2, π2p2x = π2py2. state. The molecular orbital configuration of O2 is–
σ2pz2. Hence the bond order in nitrogen
molecule is σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s2 , σ* 2s2 , σ2pz2 , π2px2 = π2p2y , π* 2p1x = π* 2p1y
(a) 2 (b) 3 Here, O2 has the two unpaired electron.
(c) 0 (d) 1 898. In He2, the electrons in bonding and
NEET-1995 antibonding orbitals are
N − Na (a) 2, 2 (b) 4, 2
Ans. (b) : Bond order = = b (c) 4, 0 (d) 2, 4
2
Where- Nb = no. of bonding electron J & K CET-2015
Na = no. of antibonding electron Ans. (a) : The total number of electron in He2 is 4. The
10 − 4 molecular orbital configuration of He2 is (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2
∴ Bond order of N 2 = =3 He2 contains the two electrons in bonding as well as
2
Hence, the bond order of N2 is 3 antibonding orbital.
896. Using MO theory, predict which of the 899. Using MOT, compare O +2 and O −2 species and
following species has the shortest bond length? choose the incorrect option
(a) O 2+
2 (b) O +2 (a) O +2 have higher bond order than O −2
(c) O 2 (d) O 22 (b) O −2 is less stable
AIEEE 2009
(c) O +2 is diamagnetic while O −2 is paramagnetic
Ans. (a) : The bond length of molecule is inversely
proportional to the bond order. First of all we calculate (d) Both O +2 and O −2 are paramagenetic
the bond order of given species– Karnataka-CET-2015
(a) O 22+ (totale− 16 − 2 = 14) Ans. (c) : The species are O2+ and O2
= (σ1s)2 (σ *1s) 2 (σ2s) 2 (σ * 2s)2 (π2p 2 x = π2p 2 y ) (i) O2+ (Total e– = 15)
(σ2p ) 2 MO configuration = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, σ2pz2 ,
z
10 − 4 π2 p 2x =π2 p 2y , π*2 p1y

B.O. = =3
2 N b − N a 10 − 5
(b) O +2 (totale − = 16 − 1 = 15) Bond order = = = 2.5
2 2
= (σ1s)2 (σ *1s) 2 (σ2s) 2 (σ * 2s)2 (σ2p z ) 2 (π2p 2 x = π2p 2 y ) Unpaired electron = 1 (paramagnetic)
(ii) O2- (Total e– = 16+1=17)
(π * 2p1x )
MO configuration = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, σ2p 2z
10 − 5
B.O. = = 2.5 π2 p 2x = π2 p 2y , π*2 p 2x = π*2 p1y
2
(c) O −2 (totale − = 16 + 1 = 17) 10 − 7
Bond order = = 1.5
= (σ1s)2 (σ *1s) 2 (σ2s) 2 (σ * 2s)2 (2p z ) 2 (π2p 2 x = π2p 2 y ) 2
Unpaired electron = 1 (paramagnetic)
(π * 2p 2 x = π * 2p1y ) The incorrect option is (c) because both species are
10 − 7 paramagnetic in nature.
B.O. = = 1.5 900. KO exhibits paramagnetic behaviour. This is
2 2
2− −
(d) O 2 (totale = 18) = (σ1s) (σ *1s) (σ2s) (σ * 2s)
2 2 2 2 due to the paramagnetic nature of
–
(a) KO (b) K+
(σ2p z ) 2 (π2p 2 x = π2p 2 y ) (π * 2p 2 x = π * 2p 2 y ) (c) O2 (d) O2–
10 − 8 AP-EAMCET (Engg.) - 2014
B.O. = =1
2 Ans. (d) : KO2 exhibits paramagnetic behaviour
–
The molecule which has the maximum bond order, because oxygen exists as O2 ions.
2+
having the shortest bond length. O2 has the shortest –
O2 = σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , σ2p2z ,
bond length.
897. Oxygen molecule is paramagnetic because π2p 2x = π2p2y , π* 2p x2 = π* 2p1y
(a) Bonding electrons are more than anti-bonding Due to the presence of 1 unpaired electron in anti-bonding
electrons molecular orbital, it is paramagnetic in behaviour.
(b) It contains two unpaired electrons
(c) Anti-bonding electrons are more than bonding 901. In case of hetero nuclear diatomics of the type
electrons AB, where A is more electronegative than B.
(d) Bonding electrons are equal to anti bonding bonding molecular orbital resembles the
electrons character of A more than that of B. The
SCRA-2015 statement
(a) is false Li −2 (totale − = 7) = (σ1s)2 (σ*1s) 2 (σ2s) 2 (σ* 2s)1
(b) is true
(c) cannot be evaluated since data is not 4−3
Bond order = = 0.5
sufficient 2
(d) is true only for certain systems Here, Li +2 has two electron in antibonding molecular
WB-JEE-2014 orbital whereas Li +2 has 3 electron in ABMO. The
Ans. (b) : Electronegativity is the tendency of an species which have less electron in ABMO are more
element to attract a shared pair of electrons towards
itself. Heteronuclear diatomic molecules have atoms stable. Li −2 is least stable than Li −2 .
with different electronegativities and hence tend to
become polarized. In a heteronuclear diatomic molecule
AB, where A is more electronegative then B. Since the 10. Formal Charge
electrons shift more towards A due to its more
electronegative character hence bonding molecular 904. The formal charge on the central oxygen atom
orbital resembles the character of A more than that of B. in O3 molecule is
902. According to molecular orbital theory, which (a) 0 (b) +1
of the following will not be a viable molecule? (c) –1 (d) –2
COMEDK-2016
(a) He 22+ (b) He +2
Ans. (b) : The Lewis dot structure of O3 is
(c) H −2 (d) H 22−
JEE Main 2018
Ans. (d) : A positive bond order (i.e. Nb> Na) means a Formal charge on central oxygen atom
stable molecule while negative (i.e. Nb<Na) or zero Formal charge = (Total no. of valence electron in free
(i.e. Nb=Na) bond order means an unstable molecule. 1
(a) He 22+ (totale − = 2) = (σ1s) 2 atom) – (lone pair) – (total no. of bonding electrons)
2
Nb − Na 2 − 0 1
Bond order = = =1 F.C = 6 – ×6 – 2 = +1
2 2 2
(b) He +2 (totale − = 3) = (σ1s) 2 (σ *1s)1 905. The formal charges of N(1), N(2) and O atoms in
.. ..
2 −1 : N == N == O : are respectively
Bond order = = 0.5 1 2
2 (a) +1,–1, 0 (b) –1,+1,0
(c) H −2 (totale − = 3) = (σ1s) 2 (σ *1s)1 (c) +1,+1,0 (d) –1,–1,0
BCECE-2014
2 −1
Bond order = = 0.5 Ans. (b) : The formal charge of N (1) , N (2) and O atom in
2 N(1) = N(2) = O are–
(d) H 22− (totale − = 4) = (σ1s)2 (σ *1s) 2 Formal charge = (Total no. of valence electron in free
N − Na 2 − 2 1
Bond order = b = =0 atom) – (lone pair) – (total no. of bonding electrons)
2 2 2
2−
In N atom marked 1,
H 2 has the zero bond order. It will not be a viable 1
molecule. Formal charge (N1) = 5 – 4 – (4)
2
903. According to molecular orbital theory, which =5–4–2
of the following is true with respect to Li +2 and = –1
Li 2 ? 1
Formal charge (N2) = 5 – 0 – (8)
(a) Both are unstable 2
(b) Li +2 is unstable and Li 2 is stable =5–4
= +1
(c) Both are stable
1
(d) Li +2 is stable and Li 2 is unstable Formal charge of O atom = 6 – 4 – (4)
2
JEE Main 2019 =6–4–2
Ans. (d) : The stability of molecule is depend upon the =0
mathematical value of bond order. Thus, the formal charge of N(1), N(2), O atoms are –1,
N > N  → Stable molecule +1, 0 respectively.
b a
N b = N a 
→ Unstable molecule 906. The formal charges of C and O atoms in
+ − && = C = O
CO 2 (:O && :) are, respectively
Li (totale = 5) = (σ1s) (σ *1s) (σ2s)
2
2 2 1
]
(a) 1, –1 (b) –1, 1
N b − Na 3 − 2
Bond order = = = 0.5 (c) 2, –2 (d) 0, 0
2 2 AP EAMCET (Engg.) - 2012

Ans. (d)
Formal charge = (total no. of valance e– present in
atom) – (total no. of non bonding e– present in atom) –
1 (B)
(total no. of Bonding e– present in atom)
2
Formal charge on C in CO2 -
total no. of valance e– = 4
total no. of non- Bonding e– = 0
Total no of Bonding e– = 8
1 3
F.C = 4 – 0 – × 8 4πr 2R 2 n,l(r)
2
=4–4=0 2
F.C = 0 (C)
Formal charge on C is 0. 1
Formal charge on O in CO2 -
total no. of valance e– = 6 0
total no. of non- Bonding e– = 4 5 10
Total no of Bonding e– = 4 r(A)
1
F.C. of O = 6 – 4 – × 4
2
=6–6=0
Formal charge on O is 0 (zero) (D)
907. The formal charges of N (1), N( 2) and O atoms in
are respectively
(a) +1, −1,0
(b) −1, +1,0
(c) +1, +1,0 The correct plot for 3s orbital is :
(a) A (b) B
(d) −1, −1,0 (c) C (d) D
AP-EAMCET- (Engg.)-2011 JEE Main 25-02-2021, Shift-I
Ans. (b) : Formal charge (FC) = Valence electron– Ans. (d) : For 3s orbital-
1
Lonepair − bond pair No. of radial nodes = n – λ –1
2 Q n = 3 and λ = 0 (for s – subshell)
For ∴ No. of radial nodes = 3 – 0 – 1= 2
Which is correctly matched by option (d).
1
For N (1) = 5 − 4 − × 4 = –1 909. Valence bond theory of L. Pauling and J.C.
2 Slater accounts for ......... characteristics of
1 covalent bond.
For N ( 2) = 5– 0 – ( 8 ) = +1
2 (a) directional (b) non-directional
1 (c) sharing (d) None of these
For O = 6– 4 – ( 4 ) = 0 AP-EAMCET-1993
2
Ans. (a): Valence Bond Theory (VBT) of L. Pauling
and J.C. Slater accounts for directional characteristics of
11. Valence Bond Theory covalent bond.
• The covalent bond formed between two atom by the
908. The plots of radial distribution functions for sharing of electron.
various orbitals of hydrogen atom against ‘r’ • The ionic bond are non-directional in nature.
are given below : 910. In case of nitrogen, NCl3 is possible but not
NCl5 while case of phosphorus, PCl3 as well as
PCl5 are possible. It is due to
(a) availability of vacant d orbitals in P but not in N
(A) (b) lower electronegativity of P than N
(c) lower tendency of H-bond formation in P than
N
(d) occurrence of P in solid while N in gaseous
state at room temperature.
VITEEE-2018

Ans. (a) : Phosphorus belongs to the 3rd period which • The cycloheptatrienyl cation is easily formed by
contains the vacant d–orbital but in the case of N, it's treating the corresponding alcohol with dilute
not contains the d-orbital because this is belongs to the(0.01N) aqueous sulfuric acid.
second period. • The cycloheptatrienyl cation is commonly known as
2 2 3 2 2 6 2 3 0
7N = 1s 2s 2p 15P = 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d the tropylium ion.
914. Which one of the following energy is stored in
the links between the atoms ?
12. Types of Overlapping and (a) Nuclear energy (b) Chemical energy
Nature of Covalent Bonds (c) Potential energy (d) Thermal energy
NDA (I)-2019
911. Main axis of diatomic molecule is z. The Ans : (b) Chemical energy is stored in the links
orbitals px and py overlap to form between the atoms.
(a) π-molecular orbital • Potential energy is the energy which possess due to
(b) σ- molecular orbital virtue of its position.
(c) δ- molecular orbital • Nuclear energy is stored in the nucleus of an atom.
(d) No bond is formed • Thermal energy is the energy which possess due to
Karnataka-CET-2016 movement of the particles within the object or
NEET-2001 system.
Ans. (d) : The shape of the P-orbital is dumbell. 915. The number of σ and π-bonds in 2-
According to the question- formylbenzoic acid are respectively.
(a) 10, 3 (b) 14, 3
(c) 12, 5 (d) 17, 5
MHT CET-02.05.2019, Shift-II
Ans. (d) : The structure of 2-formyl benzoic acid is
given below-
px and py are perpendicular to each other due to which

they cannot overlap and no bond will be form.
912. Identify the species having one π-bond and
maximum number of canonical forms from the
following
(a) SO3 (b) O2
(c) SO2 (d) CO32−
There are 17σ and 5π bonds present in 2-formyl
(JEE Main 2021, 25 July Shift-II) benzoic acid.
Ans. (d) : The structure of CO32− is given below : 916. The number of pi-bonds present in benzoic
acid molecule are
(a) 5 (b) 4
(c) 3 (d) 6
MHT CET-03.05.2019, Shift-I
Ans. (b) : The structure of benzoic acid is given below :
The above structure contains the one π-bond.
913. The total number of overlapping p-orbitals
present in cycloheptatrienyl cation is
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7
Ans. (c):
There are four pi bond present in above structure.

917. A π-bond is formed by side way overlapping of
(a) s-s orbitals (b) s-p orbitals
• The cycloheptatrienyl cation has 6 pi electrons and an (c) p-p orbitals (d) s-p-s orbitals
empty p orbital. J & K CET-2019
Ans. (c) : In the formation of π−bond the atomic Ans. (a) :
orbitals overlap in such a way that their axes remain Species Bond Length (pm)
parallel to each other and perpendicular to the C–C 154
internuclear axis. The orbitals formed due to sidewise C–H 107
overlapping consists of two saucer type charged clouds
C–N 143
above and below the plane of the participating atoms.
C–O 143
918. Among the following compounds of boron, the C – C has the longest covalent bond distance.
species which also forms π-bond in addition to
921. Which one of the following statements is
σ-bonds is
correct?
(a) BH3 (b) B2H6
(a) Hybrid orbitals do not form σ bonds
(c) BF3 (d) BF4− (b) Lateral overlap of p-orbitals of p-orbitals and
UPTU/UPSEE-2017 d-orbitals produces π − bonds
Ans. (c) : Boron trifluoride has planar structure. Boron (c) The strength of bonds follows the order
has an empty p-orbital, while fluorine has a lone pair of σ p − p < σ s −s < π p − p
electrons in its p-orbital. As a result, boron is a Lewis
(d) s-orbitals do not form σ bonds
acid, while fluorine is a Lewis base. Back bonding is a
form of bonding in which fluorine donates a lone pair of AP-EAMCET (Engg.)-2013
electrons to boron atoms. Ans. (b) :
(i) Hybrid orbital only head on overlapping to form σ
bonds.
(ii) Lateral overlap of p–orbital and d–orbitals produces
π − bonds.
(iii) Head on overlapping is stronger than sideways
overlapping. The strength of order is –
πp-p < σs−s < σ p−p
(iv) s-orbitals are spherically and thus show only head
919. In the formation of π -bond, the atomic on overlapping to form σ bond.
orbitals overlap in such a way that 922. Which of the following represents the zero
(a) their axes remain parallel to each other and overlap?
perpendicular to the internuclear axis
(b) their axes remain parallel to each other and (a)
parallel to the internuclear axis
(c) their axes remain perpendicular to each other
and parallel to the internuclear axis
(d) their axes remain perpendicular to each other
and perpendicular to the internuclear axis. (b)
J & K CET-2014
Ans. (a) : The π bond formed when the atomic orbitals
overlap in such a manner that their axes remain parallel
to each other and perpendicular to the internuclear axis.
(c)
920. Which one of the following has longest covalent (d)

bond distance?
(a) C–C (b) C–H
(c) C–N (d) C–O
AP EAMCET (Engg.) -2014 AMU-2013

Ans. (d) : The covalent bond may be classified into two 925. The number of sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds
types depending upon the types of overlapping: present in 1, 3, 5, 7-octatetraene respectively
(i) Head on overlap are
(a) 14 and 3 (b) 17 and 4
(ii) Side wise overlapping.
(c) 16 and 5 (d) 15 and 4
(i) (e) 16 and 3
Kerala-CEE-2012
Ans. (b) : The structure of 1,3,5,7 octatetraene is given
below-
(ii)
There are 17σ and 4π-bond.

926. The enolic form of acetone contains
(a) 9 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 1 lone pair
When two atoms came closer to each other, there is (b) 9 sigma bonds, 1 pi bonds and 2 lone pairs
overlapping of atomic orbitals. This overlap may be (c) 8 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 2 lone pairs
positive, negative or zero depending upon the properties (d) 10 sigma bonds, 1 pi bonds and 1 lone pair
AMU-2012
of overlapping of atomic orbitals.
Ans. (b) : The chemical formula of enolic form of
923. Which of the following species contains equal acetone is-
number of a σ and π-bonds>?
(a) (CN)2 (b) (CH)2(CN)2
(c) HCO–3 (d) XeO4
NEET-2013
Ans. (d) :
927. The number of sigma (σ) and pi (π) covalent

bonds respectively in benzene nitrile are.....
(a) 5, 13 (b) 15, 3
(c) 13, 5 (d) 16, 2
GUJCET-2011
Ans. (c):
Number of σ bonds = 13
Number of π bonds = 5
928. Consider the following molecule:
924. Which one of the following molecules contains
no π bond?
(a) SO2 (b) NO2 What are the number of sigma and pi bonds
(c) CO2 (d) H2O present in the above molecule respectively?
NEET-2013 (a) 20, 6 (b) 18, 5
(c) 15, 5 (d) 14, 4
Ans. (d) : The species are given below:
SCRA-2010
Ans. (a) :
Here, H2O has not any π bond. There are 20 σ and 6π bonds.

929. The type of bonds present in sulphuric (c) Free rotation of atoms about a sigma-bond is
anhydride are allowed but not in case of a pi-bond.
(a) 3σ and three pπ – dπ (d) Sigma-bond determines the direction between
(b) 3σ one pπ – pπ and two pπ – dπ carbon atoms but a pi-bond has no primary
(c) 2σ and three pπ – dπ effect in this regard
(d) 2σ and two pπ – dπ NEET-2003
BITSAT-2009
Ans. (b) : Sigma bond is stronger than pi bond because
VITEEE- 2009
of maximum overlapping extent. Bond energy of sigma
Ans. (b) : The formula of sulphuric anhydride is SO3
and its structure is as follows : and pi bonds are not of the order of 264 kJ/mol and 347
kJ/mol respectively. The bond energy of C – C is 347
kJ/mol and of C = C is 619 kJ/mol.
The rotation of σ bond take place in room temperature.
934. What is the number of sigma (σ) and pi (π)
bonds present in sulphuric acid molecule?
⇒ 3σ, 1pπ-pπ, 2 pπ-dπ bond are present. (a) 6σ, 2π (b) 6σ, 0π
930. The number of sigma and pi bonds in (c) 2σ, 4π (d) 2σ, 2π
peroxodisulphuric acid are, respectively AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2002
(a) 9 and 4 (b) 11 and 4 Ans. (a) : The chemical formula of the sulfuric acid is
(c) 4 and 8 (d) 4 and 9 H2SO4. The structure is given below –
AP EAMCET-2008
Ans. (b) : The molecular formula of peroxodisulphuric
acid is H2S2O7.
935. Which statement is not correct?

(a) A sigma bond is weaker than a pi bond
(b) A sigma bond is stronger than a pi bond
In peroxodisulphuric acid, 11σ-bond and 4 π-bond are (c) A double bond is stronger than a single bond
present. (d) A double bond is shorter than a single bond
931. Non-directional orbital is : NEET-1990
(a) 4p (b) 4d Ans. (a) : (a) A sigma bond is stronger than the pi
(c) 4f (d) 3s bonds.
BCECE-2006 (b) A sigma bond is stronger than a pi bond because the
Ans. (d) : Shape of s, p, d orbitals are spherical, overlapping of orbitals take place to a larger extent.
dumbell, double dumbell respectively and the shape of f (c) The bond length of double and single bond are
orbital is quite complex. The s-orbitals are spherical in
shape and hence non-directional in nature. 1.34A° and 1.54A° respectively. From the data, it is
clear that the distance between two atom is small and
932. In [Ag(CN2)] −, the number of π bonds is: makes the bond stronger.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (d) The bond length of double bond is 1.34 A° and
(c) 4 (d) 6 single bond length is 1.54A°.
AIIMS-2006
936. Which of the following does not apply to
Ans. (c): The structure of [Ag(CN)2]– is given below:
metallic bond?
(a) Overlapping valence orbitals
(b) Mobile valence electrons
(c) Delocalized electrons
(d) Highly directed bonds
NEET-1989
Ans. (d) : The metallic bonds are formed when the
933. Which one of the following statement is not electron of valence shell of valence orbital overlaps to
correct for sigma and pi-bonds formed between each other. In metals, there is huge number of mobile
two carbon atoms? electron moving in microscopic level. The electrons are
(a) Sigma-bond is stronger than a pi-bond delocalized over a rigid lattice of metal ions in a
(b) Bond energies of sigma and pi-bonds are of metallic bond. Metals having free electrons as mobile
the order of 264 kJ/mol and 347 kJ/mol, electrons due to which metallic bond does not have
respectively directional property.
939. Which among the following are having
13. Application of Molecular diamagnetic property?
Orbital Theory (i) B2 (ii) N2
(iii) O2 (iv) C2
(a) ii, iii (b) i, iv
937. In oxygen and carbon molecule the bonding is
(c) ii, iv (d) i, ii
(a) O 2 :1σ,1π;C 2 : 0σ,2π
AP-EAMCET-2017
(b) O 2 : 0σ,2π;C 2 : 2σ,0π
Ans. (c) : According to molecular orbital configuration
(c) O 2 :1σ,1π;C 2 :1σ,1π for,
(d) O 2 : 2σ, 0π;C 2 : 0σ, 2π (i) B2 = (total electron = 10)
Karnataka CET-17.06.2022, Shift-II = σ1s2 , σ1s 2 , σ 2s2 , σ 2s 2 , πpx1 = πpy1
* *
Ans. (a) : In O2 the molecular bonding configuration is- Thus, B2 have two unpaired electron and paramagnetic.
O 2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , σ2p 2z , π2p 2x = π2p2y , (ii) N2 = (Total electron = 16)
π * 2p1 = π * 2p1 = σ1s2 , σ1s 2 , σ 2s2 , σ 2s 2 , π2px 2 = π2py2 , σ 2pz2
* *
x y
C 2 = σ1s 2 , σ *1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2p 2x = π2p2y Thus N2 has no unpaired electron and diamagnetic
(iii) O2 (Total electron = 16)
Hence, the oxygen and carbon molecule the bonding is
= σ1s2 , σ1s 2 , σ 2s2 , σ*2s 2 , σ 2pz2 , π2px 2 = π2py2 , π*2px 2 = π*2py2
*
O 2 :1σ,1π and C 2 :Oσ,2π
Thus, O2 has two unpaired electron and paramagnetic
938. Bonding in which of the following diatomic
molecule(s) become (s) stronger, on the basis of (iv) C2 = (Total electron = 12)
MO Theory by removal of an electron? = σ1s2 , σ1s* 2 , σ 2s2 , σ*2s2 , π2px 2 = π2py2
(A) NO (B) N2 (C) O2 (D) C2 (E) B2 Thus, C2 has no unpaired electron and diamagnetic.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the Hence (c) is correct.
(a) (A), (B), (C) only (b) (B), (C), (E) only 940. The molecular orbital configuration of CO is
(c) (A), (C) only (d) (D) only σ1s 2 , σ* 1s 2 , σ 2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , π 2p 2x = π2p y2 , σ 2p z2
JEE Main-25.06.2022, Shift-I The bond order and magnetic nature of CO
Ans. (c) : (i) For NO = σ1s2 σ*1s2 σ2s2 σ*2s2 molecule are respectively :
σ2p 2z , π2p 2x = π2p 2y , π * 2p1x = π2p y (a) 7 and paramagnetic (b) 5 and paramagnetic
(c) 3 and diamagnetic (d) 2 and diamagnetic
10 − 5
Bond order = = 2.5 SCRA-2010
2 Ans. (c) : The molecular orbital configuration of CO is-
(ii) N2 = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, π2p 2x = π2p 2y , σ2p z2
π2p 2x
10 − 4 σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2  , σ2p 2z
Bond order = =3  π 2p 2
y
2
(iii) O2 = σ1s2 , σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2 1
Bond order = [ No. of bonding-No. of anti bonding]
σ2p 2z , π2p x2 = π2p 2y , π * 2p1x = π * 2p1y 2
1
10 − 6 = [10–4]
Bond order = =2 2
2
6
(iv) C2 = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, π2p 2x = π2p 2y = =3
2
8−4 941. The electronic configuration
Bond order = =2
2 σ1s 2 σ∗1s 2 σ2s 2 σ∗ 2s 2 σ2p z2 π2p x2 = π2p 2y π∗ 2p1x
(v) B2 = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, π2p1x = π2p1y
= π∗ 2p1y
6−4
Bond order = =1 can be assigned to
2 (a) N2 (b) O2
Bond strength ∝ Bond order (c) F2 (d) Ne2
Hence, NO → NO+ AMU-2006
Bond order 2.5 3 Ans. (b) : Total number of electrons in bonding and
O2 → O +2 antibonding orbitals = 16. Hence the given electronic
Bond order 2 2.5 configuration represents O2 molecule.

05.
States of Matter
3. Which of the following plots is not according to
1. The Gas Laws Boyle’s law?
1. A box contains 0.90 g of liquid water in

equilibrium with water vapor at 27°C. The (a) (b)
equilibrium vapor pressure of water at 27°C is 32.0
Torr. When the volume of the box is increased,
some of the liquid water evaporates to maintain
be equilibrium pressure. If all the liquid water
evaporates. Then the volume of the box must
be____ litre. [Nearest integer] (c) (d)
[Given : R= 0.082 L atm K-1 mol-1]
(Ignore the volume of the liquid water and
assume water vapors behave as an ideal gas. COMEDK 2016
JEE Main-29.06.2022, Shift-II 1
Ans. (d) : P ∝ , the graph will be a straight line
Ans. (29) : Given: No. of particle in 0.90 g of liquid V
water molar mass of H2O = 18 passing through origin
T = 27°C = 300K 4. A given mass of a gas obeys Boyle's law at
R = 0.0821 L atm K-1 Mol-1 certain temperature. Which one of the plots
will not given a straight line?
Vapour pressure of water at 27°C is 32.0 Torr
1 1
∵ 1 atm = 760 Torr (a) V versus (b) P versus
P V
Form ideal gas equation (c) log P versus log V (d) P versus V
PV = nRT A-P EAMCET 1995
nRT 0.90× 0.082×300× 760 Ans. (d) : Boyle's law is a gas law which states that the
V= =
P 18×32 pressure exerted by a gas (of a given mass, kept at a
= 29.24 constant temperature) is inversely proportional to the
volume occupied by it.
2. At 300 K, a sample of 3.0 g of gas a occupies According to Boyle's law at certain temperature–
the same volume as 0.2 g of hydrogen at 200 K
1
at the same pressure. The molar mass of gas A P∝
is_____ g mol–1. (nearest integer) Assume that V
the behaviour of gases as ideal.
(Given : The molar mass of hydrogen (H2) gas
is 2.0 g mol–1).
Ans. (45) : From ideal gas equation, 5. Which of the following is a representation of
PV = nRT Charles' law?
Pressure and volume are the same (a) P1T1 = P2T2 (b) P1T2 = P2T1
So, n1T1 = n 2 T2 (c) P1V1 = P2V2 (d) V1T2 = V2T1
A-P EAMCET 1995
m1 m
T1 = 2 T2 Ans. (d) : Charles's law states that the volume of an
M1 M2 ideal gas is directly proportional to the absolute
3.0 0.2 temperature at constant pressure.
×300 = × 200 According to Charles's law, at constant pressure
M1 2.0
V∝T
900 = 20×M1 or V1T2 = V2T1
900 6. n moles of an ideal gas at temperature, T (in
M1 =
200 Kelvin) occupy V L of volume, exerting a
pressure of P atmospheres. What is the
M1 = 45g mol−1 concentration(in mol/L)?
P PT p p
(a) (b) (a) (b)
RT R 5 2
RT R p 3p
(c) (d) (c) (d)
P PT 2.5 4
A-P EAMCET 2001 A-P EAMCET 2005
Ans. (a) : For ideal gas equation – Ans. (a) : Given that,
∴ PV = nRT Molecular weight ratio of A and B = 1 : 4
n P Since, mole ratio of A and B if equal weight of A and B
= are taken = 4 : 1
V RT
1 P
n P ∴ Partial pressure of B = ×P =
or C =  = (1 + 4 ) 5
 V  RT
7. The total pressure of a mixture of 6.4g of O2 and 10. A certain mass of a gas occupies a volume of 2
5.6 of N2 present in a 2 L vessel is 1200 mm. L at STP. To what temperature the gas must be
(a) 1200 (b) 600 heated to double its volume, keeping the
(c) 900 (d) 200 pressure constant?
A-P EAMCET 2000 (a) 100 K (b) 273 K
(c) 273 ºC (d) 546 ºC
A-P EAMCET 2007
Total pressure = 1200 mm
Ans. (c) : Given that, V1 = 2L, T1 = 273K
6.4
No. of moles of oxygen (m) = = 0.2 moles V2 = 4L, T2 = ?
32 According to the Charles's law-
5.6
No. of moles of nitrogen (m) = = 0.2 moles V1 V2
=
28 T1 T2
n2 0.2 1
∴ Mole fraction of N2 = = = Putting the value are these, we get –
n + n 2 0.2 + 0.2 2 2 4
Since, partial pressure = mole fraction of N2 × total =
pressure 273 T2
1 4 × 273
= ×1200 = 600 mm T2 = = 546K or 273º C
2 2
8. At 27ºC, a closed vessel contains a mixture of 11. A person living in Shimla observed that
equal weights of helium, (mol. wt. = 4), methane cooking food without using pressure cooker
(mol. wt. = 16) and sulphur dioxide (mol. wt. = 64). takes more time. The reason is that at high
The pressure exerted by the mixture is 210 mm. If altitude
the partial pressures of helium, methane and (a) Temperature decreases
sulphur dioxide are P1, P2 and P3 respectively, (b) Pressure increases
which one of the following is correct? (c) Pressure decreases
(a) p3 > p2 > p1 (b) p1 > p2 > p3 (d) Temperature increases
(c) p1 > p3 > p2 (d) p2 > p3 > p1 AP EAPCET 23-08-2021 Shift-I
A-P EAMCET 2002 Ans. (c) : A person living in Shimla observed that
Ans. (b) : The partial pressure of helium (P1), methane cooking food without using pressure cooker takes more
(P2) and sulphur dioxide (P3). time. The reason is that at high altitude pressure
n1 (He) = 64/4 = 16 decreases. Hence, correct option is (c).
n2 (CH4) = 64/16 = 4 12. The figure represents PV vs P relation for CO,
n3 (SO2) = 64/64 = 1 CH4, H2 and He gases under identical
16 conditions. Which curve, shown in the figure,
∴ P1 (He) = X He × P = × 210 = 160 mm represents He gas ?
21
4
P2 (CH 4 ) = X CH4 × P = × 210 = 40 mm
21
1
P3 (SO 2 ) = XSO2 × P = × 210 = 10 mm
21
The correct order is –
P1 > P2 > P3
9. A and B are ideal gases. The molecular weights
of A and B are in the ratio of 1 : 4. The
pressure of a gas mixture containing equal (a) 1 (b) 2
weights A and B is p atm. What is the partial (c) 3 (d) 4
pressure (in atm) of B in the mixture? TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 05.08.2021 Shift-II
Ans. (c) 15. Which of the following plots correctly
represent Boyle’s law?
(a) (b)
This curve represent the He gas in this given figure.
13. 1 L each of gases A and B diffused through a
membrane in 15 and 30 minutes, respectively,
under identical conditions. What is the ratio of
molecular weight of A and B ?
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
Ans. (d) : Using Graham's law of diffusion-
r1 m2
=
r2 m1 (c) (d)
v /15 m2
=
v / 30 m1
2 m2 (a) a, b, d (b) a, c, d
=
1 m1 (c) a, b, c, d (d) a, b, c
m2 4
= Ans. (d) : Boyle law state that the pressure (p) of a
m1 1 given quantity of gas varies inversely with its volume
m1 : m 2 = 1: 4 (v) at constant temperature.
PV = K
14. For the formation of NH3(g) from H2 and N2,
which one of the following graphs represents
the yield of ammonia at equilibrium ?
(Assume T1 < T2, unless mentioned)
(a) (b)
Thus a, b, c is light
16. Match the following graphs of a gas with their
corresponding y and x coordinates.
Graph y vs x
A. 1. pV vs V
(c) (d)
B. 2. P vs V
TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 07.08.2021 Shift-II C. 3. 1

p vs
Ans. (a) : V
Code:
A B C
(a) 2 3 1
(b) 1 3 2
(c) 2 1 3
(d) 1 2 3
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.9.2020 Shift-I
Ans. (a) : rx 1
or =
rz 30
rz 30
or =
rx 1
Hence, the ratio of rates of diffusion of Z and X is 30: 1.
19. The correct value of the gas constant R is close
to
(a) 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1
(b) 0.082 L atm–1 mol
(c) 0.82 L atm K
(d) 0.082 L atm–1 K mol–1
COMEDK 2019
PV
Ans. (a) : R =
17. Which of the following graphs correctly nT
For 1 mole of gas at STP
represents Boyle’s Law?
1× 22.4
R= = 0.082 L atm K–1mol–1
1× 273
20. The rate of diffusion of SO2, CO2 PCl3 and SO3
are in the following order
(a) PCl3 > SO3 > SO2 > CO2
(b) CO2 > SO2 > PCl3 > SO3
(c) SO2 > SO3 > PCl3 > CO2
(d) CO2 > SO2 > SO3 > PCl3
Ans. (d): Graham’s law states that at a constant
temperature and for constant pressure gradient the rates
(a) (A), (B) & (C) only (b) (B) & (C) only of effusion of different gases are inversely proportional
(c) (C) & (D) only (d) (B) & (D) only to the square root of their densities. According to the
AP EAPCET 19-08-2021 Shift-I Graham’s law –
Ans. (b) : Boyles law states that –“at constant r1 M2
temperature the pressure of a fixed amount of gas varies =
r2 M1
inversely with its volume i.e.
Where – M2 = Molecular weight of second gas
1 M1 = Molecular weight of first gas
pα
v From the above relation it is clear that the rate of
diffusion is inversely proportional to the square root of
the molecular weight of the gas.
M PCl3 = 137.33g / mol MSO3 = 80.06g / mol
or pv = K1 Where K1 = Proportionality constant it
M SO2 = 64.066g / mol M CO2 = 44g / mol
means that at constant temperature product of pressure
and volume of a fixed amount of gas is constant. The increasing order of molecular weight of the gases
18. The ratio of rates of diffusion of gases X and Y are –
is 1 : 5 and that of y and Z is 1 : 6. The ratio of M CO2 < MSO2 < MSO3 < M PCl3
rates of diffusion of Z and X is Hence, the rate of diffusion has the following
(a) 1 : 30 (b) 1 : 6 decreasing order –
(c) 30 : 1 (d) 6 : 1 CO 2 < SO 2 < SO3 < PCl3
AP EAMCET (Engg.) -2014 21. Which of the following gases will have the
Ans. (c) :Let assume that the rate of diffusion of X,Y,Z highest rate of diffusion?
are respectively rx, ry, rz. (a) CO2 (b) N2
rx 1 (c) NH3 (d) O2
Given, = …..(i) AIIMS-1994
ry 5
Ans. (c): According to the Graham’s law of diffusion –
ry 1 the rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to the
and = …..(ii) square root of the molecular weight of the gases.
rz 6
1
Multiplying the equation (i) with (ii) – we get r∝
M
rx ry 1 1
× = × Where r = rate of diffusion
ry rz 5 6 M = molecular weight

Hence, M CO2 = 44, M N2 = 28, M NH3 = 17,M O2 = 32 NH3 Form the ideal gas equation – we get
PV = nRT
has the less value of molecular weight due to which
d
they get higher diffusion. or P = RT
22. Assertion: Use of pressure cooker reduces M
cooking time. Where – P = Pressure of gas
Reason :At higher pressure cooking occurs d = Density of gas
faster. M = Molecular weight
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and R = Gas constant
the Reason is a correct explanation of the T = Temperature
Assertion. dA
∴ PA = RT ….. (i)
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but MA
Reason is not a correct explanation of the d
Assertion. and PB = B RT ….. (ii)
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. MB
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. Form equation (i) and (ii) – we get
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is PA d A M B
correct. = ×
PB M A d B
AIIMS-2000
PA 2d B 2M B
Ans. (a): Pressure cookers allow food to cook faster = ×
because it raises the pressure and therefore the PB M B dB
temperature of the water in it, which ultimately cooks PA 4
faster. or =
PB 1
Hence, both assertion and reason are correct and the
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. 25. Cyclopropane and oxygen at partial pressure
23. Gas in cylinder is maintained at 10 atm 170 torr and 570 torr respectively are mixed in
pressure and 300 K temperature. The cylinder a gas cylinder. What is the ratio of the number
will explode if pressure of gas is beyond 15atm. of moles of cyclopropane to the number of
moles of oxygen (nC3H6/nO2)?
What is maximum temperature upto which gas
can be heated? 170 × 42
(a) = 0.39
(a) 400 K (b) 500 K 570 × 32
(c) 450 K (d) 250 K 170  170 570 
AIIMS-27 May, 2018 (M) (b)  +  ≈ 0.19
42  42 32 
Ans. (c): Given, P1 = 10 atm P2 = 15 atm 170
T1 = 300K T2 = ? (c) = 0.23
According to the Gay Lussac’s law – 740
At constant volume, pressure of a fixed amount of a gas 170
(d) = 0.30
varies directly with the temperature. 570
P∝T AIIMS-2015
P Ans. (d): Given, p C3H6 = 170 torr
or = K (constant)
T p O2 = 570 torr
P P
∴ 1 = 2 (The volume is constant for the cylinder) n C3 H 6
T1 T2 =?
10 15 n O2
= let, p be the total pressure of the cylinder.
300 T2 Form the relation between partial pressure and mole
T2 = 450 K fraction – we get
24. Two separate bulbs contain ideal gases A and B. p C3H6 = X C3H6 .P
The density of gas A is twice that of gas B. The
molecular weight of A is half that of gas B. The n C3 H 6
two gases are at the same temperature. The ratio p C3 H 6 = ×P ….(i)
n C3 H 6 + n O 2
of the pressure of A to that of gas B is:
(a) 1/4 (b) 1 n O2
PO2 = ×P ….(ii)
(c) 4 (d) 2 n O 2 + n C3 H 6
AIIMS-27 May, 2018 (E) Form equation (I) and (II) – we get
Ans. (c): Given –
p C3 H 6 n C3 H 6 P
For bulb A – For bulb B – = ×
d A = 2d B TA = TB = T PO2 n O2 P
MB PA n C3 H 6 170
MA = = ? Or = = 0.30
2 PB n O2 570

26. When a sample of gas is compressed at PAV = nRT
constant temperature from 15 atm to 60 atm, W
its volume changes from 76 cm3 to 20.5cm3. or PA V = A .RT ….(i)
Which of the following statements are possible MA
explanations of this behavior? Similarly, for gas B –
(1) The gas behaves non- ideally W
PB V B .RT ….(ii)
(2) The gas dimerises MB
(3) The gas is adsorbed into the vessel walls Putting the values as well as dividing equation (i) to the
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (ii) – we get
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only 4V 1 MB
AIIMS-2016 = ×
2V M A 2
Ans. (d): Given, P1 = 15 atm V1 = 76 cm3
P2 = 60 atm V2 = 20.5 cm3 MB
or 2=
From the mathematical expression of Boyle’s law – 2M A
P1V1 = P2 V2 or M B = 4M A
15 × 76 = 60 × 20.5 29. A bottle of dry ammonia and a bottle of dry
1140 ≠ 1230 hydrogen chloride connected through a long
∴ P1V1 ≠ P2 V2 tube are opened simultaneously at both ends.
Hence, from the above data it is clear that the gas The white ammonium chloride ring first
behaves non-ideally. The given information is not formed will be
sufficient to comment on other statement. (a) at the centre of the tube.
(b) near the hydrogen chloride bottle.
27. Pure hydrogen sulphide is stored in a tank of (c) near the ammonia bottle.
100 litre capacity at 20ºC and 2 atm pressure. (d) throughout the length of the tube.
The mass of the gas will be AIIMS-2014
(a) 34 g (b) 340g
Ans. (b): According to the Graham’s law of diffusion,
(c) 282.68g (d) 28.24 g
the rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to the
AIIMS-2017 square root of the molecular weight of the gas. The
Ans. (c): Given, volume = 100 litre effusion of NH3 take place fastly than the HCl because
T = 20°C + 273 = 293 K it has the less molecular weight than the HCl.
P = 2 atm Therefore, NH3 will travel more distance than HCl in
W=? the same time interval and the two gas will first meet
Molecular weight of H2S(M) = 34 nearer to HCl end.
From the ideal gas equation – we get 30. The volume- temperature graphs of a given
PV = nRT mass of an ideal gas at constant pressure are
Where – n = number of mole of the gas shown below.
W.
Pv = RT
M
PVM
Or W=
RT
2 × 100 × 34
W=
0.0821× 293
W = 282.74
W ≈ 282.68 g
28. A gas (1g) is kept at 4 bar presure. If we add 2 What is the correct order of pressure?
g of gas B, then the total pressure inside the (a) p1 > p3 > p 2 (b) p1 > p 2 > p3
container is 6 bar. Which of the following is (c) p 2 > p3 > p1 (d) p 2 > p1 > p3
true?
(a) MA=2MB (b) MB=2MA AIIMS-2008
(c) MA=4MB (d) MB=4MA Ans. (a): Boyle’s law states that at constant
AIIMS-26 May, 2018 (M) temperature, the pressure of the fixed amount of gas
varies inversely with its volume Mathematically, it can
Ans. (d): Given, be written as –
For gas A – For gas B –
1
WA = 1g WB = 2 g P∝
PA = 4 bar PB = 6 – 4 = 2 Bar V
1
At the container, the volume and temperature are or P = K1
constant. Now, ideal gas equation can be written as for V
gas A and gas B. Where K1 = Proportionality constant.

In the given graph, P2 has the maximum volume due to W
which they gets the lower value of pressure. On the 16
other hand, P1 has the least value of volume, it has the p CH4 = × 2.1
W W W
higher pressure. + +
Hence, the correct order of pressure will be – 16 64 32
P1 > P3 > P2 1
p CH4 = × 2.1
31. In P versus V graph, the horizontal line is  1 1
 1 + + 
found in which _____exists.  4 2
(a) Gas 1
(b) Liquid p CH4 = × 2.1
(c) Equilibrium between gas and liquid 7
 
(d) Super critical temperature 4
AIIMS-2007 2.1× 4
Ans. (c): p CH4 =
7
p CH4 = 1.2 atm
34. A gas occupies a volume of 300 cc at 27ºC and

620 mm pressure. The volume of gas at 47°C
and 640 mm pressure is:
(a) 260cc (b) 310 cc
(c) 390cc (d) 450 cc
AIIMS-1997
In the right side of the above graph, the CO2 exists in
the gas phase. A point like D represents liquid state and Ans. (b): Given, V1 = 300 cc, V2 = ?
a point under the dome shaped area represents existence T1 = 27°C + 273 = 300 K T2 = 47°C + 273 = 320 K
of liquid and gaseous carbon dioxide in equilibrium. P1 = 620 mm Hg P2 = 640 mm Hg
32. If P is pressure and ρ is density of a gas, then P If temperature, volume and pressure of a fixed amount
and ρ are related as of gas vary from T1, V1 and P1 to T2, V2 and P2 then we
(a) P ∝ ρ (b) P ∝ (1/ ρ ) can write-
P1V1 P2 V2
(c) P ∝ ρ2 (d) P ∝ (1/ ρ2 ) =
T1 T2
AIIMS-2002 620 × 300 640 × V2
=
Ans. (a): The ideal gas equation for n mole can be 300 320
written as – or V2 = 310 cc
PV = nRT
35. On the top of a mountain, water boils at :
W (a) high temperature (b) same temperature
or P= RT
MV (c) high pressure (d) low temperature
ρ AP-EAMCET (Engg.) 2015
or P = .RT
M Ans. (d) : On the top of a mountain, water boils at low
or P∝ρ temperature. Pressure is directly proportional to
Hence, pressure of the gas is directly proportional to the temperature. At low pressure, boiling point of water
density of gas. come down.
33. At 298K, equal volumes of SO2, CH4 and O2 are 36. When a perfect gas a 27° is heated at a constant
mixed in empty container. The total pressure pressure, to a final temperature of 327°C, then
exerted in 2.1 atm. The partial pressure of CH4 the volume of the gas increases to _____ times
in mixture is: the original
(a) 0.6 atm (b) 1.2 atm
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 2.4 atm (d) 3.6 atm
AIIMS-2000 (c) 2 (d) 6
Ans. (b): Given, Total Pressure (P) = 2.1 atm, p CH4 = ?
Ans. (c) : Given, T1 = 27°C = 300 K
Let, W be the weight of all gases. T2 = 327°C = 600K, V1 = V, V2 = ?
W W W Since, the process is a constant pressure process, apply
∴ n SO2 = , n CH4 = , n O2 =
64 16 32 Charle’s law-
n CH4 V1 T1
p CH4 = × Total pressure =
n CH4 + n SO2 + n O2 V2 T2

V 300 760 × 6.72 300
= V2 = ×
V2 600 273 760
V2 = 7.38 L
V 1
= V2 ≈ 7.4 L
V2 2
39. A gaseous mixture containing He,CH4 and SO2
V2 = 2V was allowed to effuse through a fine hole then
So, the volume of gas increase to '2' times the original find what molar ratio of gases coming out
initially? (Given mixture contains He¸CH4 and
37. CH4 diffuses two times faster than a gas X. The SO2 in 1 : 2 : 3 mole ratio).
number of molecules present in 32 g of gas X is
(N is Avogadro number) (a) 2 : 2 : 3 (b) 2 : 2 : 3
N (c) 4 : 4 : 3 (d) 1 : 1 : 3
(a) N (b) VITEEE-2014
2
N N Ans. (c) : Given mole ratio of He, CH 4 and SO2 is 1:2:3
(c) (d) respectively.
4 16
AP-EAMCET- (Engg.) - 2010 n 'He 1 molar mass of CH 4
=
Ans. (b) : According to Graham's law of diffusion n 'CH4 2 molar mass of He
rCH 4 Mx
= =
1 16
rx M CH4 2 4
Given, rCH4 = 2 ⋅ rx 1 1
= ×2 = =1
2rx Mx 2 1
= '
n He 1 64 4
rx 16 = =
Mx n 'SO2 2 4 3
So, 2 = So, The molar ratio of the gases coming out will be–
16
M = 4×16 = 64 n He : n CH4 : n SO2 = 4:4:3
x
Thus, the molecular mass of gas X is 64. 40. Two glass bulbs A and B are connected by a
32 very small tube having a stop-cock. Both A has
Number of molecules of gas X in 32 gm gas = × N
64 a volume of 100 cm3 and contained the gas
N while bulb B was empty. On opening stop-
= clock, the pressure fell down to 40%. The
2
volume of the bulb B must be
38. The volume of oxygen gas liberated at 27°C (a) 75 cm3 (b) 125 cm3
and 760 mm Hg pressure when 24.5 g of KClO3 (c) 150 cm 3
(d) 250 cm3
is heated, is (M. wt. of KClO3 = 122.5)
VITEEE- 2011
(a) 4.48 L (b) 9.6 L
(c) 7.4 L (d) 11.2 L Ans. (c) : According to the Boyle's law – at the constant
AP - EAMCET(MEDICAL) - 2009 temperature. The pressure of the gas is inversely
Ans. (c) : The decomposition of KCl3 can be written propotimal to it's volume.
as– 1
∴ P∝
2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2 V
At STP 2×122.5 3×22.4 = 67.2 L i.e. for two gases –
= 245 P 1 V1 = P 2 V2
Q When 245g KClO3 is heated, then amount of oxygen Given – Glass bulb (A) Glass bulb (B)
liberated i.e = 67.2 L P × 40
∴ When 24.5g KClO3 is heated, liberated P1 = P P2 =
100
67.2 × 24.5 V1 = 100 cm3 V2 = ?
oxygen = = 6.72 L
245 ∴ P 1V 1 = P 2V 2
The given amount of O2 was librated at STP. Therefore, PV
at 27°C and 760 mm Hg pressure, the volume of or V2 = 1 1
liberated oxygen will be– P2
P1V1 P2 V2 P ×100 × 100
= V2 =
T1 T2 P × 40
or V2 =
P1V1 T2
× V2 = 250cm3
T1 P2 ∴ Volume of bulb B = 250 – 100 = 150 cm3

41. Graph between P & V below critical n = Number of the gas
temperature is: R = Gas constant
T = Absolute temperature
(a) (b) Ideal gas equation is a relation between four variables
and it describes the state of any gas, therefore, it is also
called equation of state.
44. Standard boiling point of a liquid is
(c) (d) (a) equal to the normal boiling point
(b) slightly lower than the normal boiling point
AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Evening) (c) slightly higher than the normal boiling point
(d) The boiling point at 1 atm pressure
Ans. (d): Critical temperature of a substance is the
temperature at and above which vapour of the substance Assam CEE-2019
cannot be liquefied, no matter how much pressure is Ans. (d) : Boiling point at 1 atm pressure also it is
applied. slightly lower than normal boiling point of liquid.
45. Slope between PV and P at constant
temperature is :
(a) zero (b) 1
1 1
(c) (d)
2 2
BCECE-2004
Ans. (a) : When we plot PV vs. P plot of gases because
at constant temperature, PV will be constant (Boyle's
law) and PV vs. P graph at all pressures will be a
straight line parallel to X-axis. In this situation, the
slope between PV and P is zero.
42. A 2.5 liter flask contains 0.25 mol each of

sulphur dioxide and nitrogen gas at 27οC. The
total pressure exerted by the mixture of the two
gases will be
(a) 4.98 × 105 Pa (b) 2.49 × 105 Pa
(c) 4.98 × 10 Pa
10
(d) 2.49 × 1010 Pa 46. If two molecules of A and B having mass 100 kg
[Given : R=8.314 JK–1mol–1] and 64 kg and rate of diffusion of A is 12 × 10–3,
AMU – 2007 then what will be the rate of diffusion of B?
Ans. (a) : Total number of moles of two gases = 0.5 (a) 15 × 10 −3 (b) 64 × 10 −3
mole
(c) 5 × 10 −3 (d) 46 × 10 −3
nRT BCECE-2008
Total pressure exerted by two gases, P =
V Ans. (a) : Given data, MA = 100 kg , rA = 12 ×
–1 –1
Here, n = 0.5, R = 8.314 J mol K , T = 300K, 10–3
3 3
V = 2.5 liter = 2.5×10 cm MB = 64 kg, rB = ?
Here R = 8.314 K–1 mol–1 = 8.314 k Pa K–1 mol–1 The rate of diffusion are directly proportional to their
= 8.314×103 Pa K–1 mol–1 cm3 molecular weights, MA and MB.
0.25 × 8.314 × 103 × 300 rA MB
p= Pa = 498.84×103 Pa ∴ =
2.5 rB MA
= 4.98×105 Pa
43. Which of the following variable determine the 12 × 10 −3 64
= =
state of a system? rB 100
(a) Volume and temperature −3
(b) Pressure and temperature 12 ×10 8
= =
(c) Volume, pressure, and temperature rB 10
(d) Volume, pressure, temperature and rB = 15 × 10–3
concentration 47. At a constant volume the specific heat of a gas
AMU–2003 is 0.05 and its molecular weights is 40. The gas
Ans. (c) : From the ideal gas equation- is :
PV = nRT (a) Monoatomic (b) Diatomic
Where- P = Pressure of the gas (c) Triatomic (d) None of above
V = Volume of the gas BITSAT 2010
c 2n  1 2 
Ans. (a) : q = or V=  mVrms 
m 3P  2 
⇒ CV = q × m 2n3
V= K BT
= CV = q × m 3P2
= 0.05 × 40 So, when P = constant then V = T
= 3.0 cal V
C P − CV = R or = a (constant)
T
CP = CV + R (iii) Avogadro's law-
=3+2 Let, there are two gases under same condition of
=5 pressure, volume and temperature, then for gas 1,
1
PV = m1n1 ( V1 )
2
CP 5
= = 1.66 3 rms
CV 3
for gas 2,
Monoatomic gas. 1
PV = m 2 n 2 ( V2 )
2
48. 100 ml O2 and H2 kept at same temperature
and pressure. What is true about their number 3 rms
1 1
of molecules. As the temperature is same, m1 ( V1 ) rms = m 2 ( V2 ) rms
(a) NO2 > NH2 (b) NO2 < NH2 2 2
(c) NO2 = NH2 (d) NO2 + NH2 = 1 mole ∴ n1 = n2
BITSAT 2018 Equal volume of all gases at same pressure and
Ans. (c) : This is Avogadro's hypothesis. temperature contains equal number of molecules.
According to this, equal volume of all gases contain 51. When r. p and M represent rate of diffusion,
equal no. of molecules under similar condition of pressure and molecular mass, respectively,
temperature and pressure. then the ratio of the rates of diffusions (rA/rB)
49. The predominant intermolecular forces present of two gases A and B is given as
(a) ( p A / p B ) ( M A / M B )
1/ 2
in ethyl acetate, a liquid, are:
(a) London dispersion and dipole-dipole
( pA / pB )( M B / M A )
1/ 2
(b) London dispersion, dipole-dipole and (b)
( pA / pB ) ( M B / M A )
hydrogen bonding 1/ 2
(c)
(c) Dipole-dipole and hydrogen bonding
( pA / pb )( M A / M B )
1/ 2
(d) Hydrogen bonding and London dispersion (d)
[JEE Main 2020, 8 Jan Shift-I] [AIEEE 2011]
Ans. (a) : Force of attraction between two temporary Ans. (b) : According to Graham’s law of diffusion
dipoles is known as London force. Another name for 1
this force is dispersion force. Here, ethyl acetate has the rd ∝
temporary dipole whereas liquid has permanent dipole Molar mass
due to which dipole-dipole forces act as the liquid. At constant temperature
50. Based on kinetic theory of gases following laws pressure
rd ∝
can be proved Molar mass
(a) Boyle's law (b) Charles' law
(c) Avogadro's law (d) All of these rA PA / M A
=
[AIEEE 2002] rB PB / M B
Ans. (d) : We can deduce gas laws from kinetic theory 1
of gases as follows- rA  PA  M B  2
=   
(i) Boyle's law rB  PB  M A 
1 nm 2
P= Vrms 52. If 10–4 dm3 water is introduced into a 1.0 dm3
3 V flask at 300 K, then how many moles of water
1 2 are in the vapour phase when equilibrium is
PV = nm Vrms established?
3
Now, as Vrms is a function of temperature above, so if (Given, vapour pressure of H2O at 300 K is
3170 Pa;
temperature is constant, Vrms is constant. Hence, at
R = 8.314 JK–1mol–1
constant temperature, the term an right hand side of
(a) 5.56×10–3 mol (b) 1.53×10–2 mol
equation is a constant. –2
(c) 4.48×10 mol (d) 1.27×10–3 mol
∴ PV = constant [AIEEE 2010]
(ii) Charles' law-
Ans. (d) : Given: - T = 300K, R = 8.314 JK-1mol-1
1 mn 2 Vapour pressure (p) = 3170 Pa
P= Vrms
3 V Volume of water = 10–4 dm3

Volume of flask = 1 dm3 = 10–3 m3
Number of moles = (n) = ?
As we know that vapour pressure doesn’t depends on
volume of water. So we use volume of flask (V).
From ideal gas equation,
PV
n=
RT
3170 × 10−3
n=
300 × 8.314
n= 1.27 × 10–3 mol
53. An open vessel at 27ºC is heated until two fifth of

the air (assumed as an ideal gas) in it has escaped  T1   T2 
from the vessel. Assuming that the volume of the (a) 2pi   (b) 2pi  
vessel remains constant, the temperature at which  T1 + T2   T1 + T2 
the vessel has been heated is
(a) 750 K (b) 500 K  TT   TT 
(c) 2pi  1 2  (d) pi  1 2 
(c) 750ºC (d) 500ºC  T1 + T2   T1 + T2 
[JEE Main 2019, 12 Jan Shift-II] JEE Main-2016
Ans. (b) : Given :- T1 = 27°C = 300K Ans. (b) : For closed system, total number of mole
2 3 before and after increment of temperature is equal i.e.,
n1 = n, n 2 = n − n = n.
5 5 ( n1 + n 2 ) i ( n1 + n 2 ) f
Ideal gas equation at constant pressure and volume,
PV
nT = constant n= from ideal gas equation
n1T1 = n2T2 RT
nT Pi V Pi V Pf V Pf V
T2 = 1 1 + = +
n2 RT 1 R .T1 RT1 RT2
n × ( 300 ) 300 × 5 2Pi Pf Pf  T + T2 
T2 = = = 500K = + = Pf  1 
3
n 3 T1 T1 T2  T1 × T2 
5 2Pi  T1 + T2 
54. The volume of gas A is twice than that of gas B. Pf =  
The compressibility factor of gas A is thrice T1  T1 × T2 
than that of gas B at same temperature. The 2PiT1 .T2
pressures of the gases for equal number of Pf =
T1 (T1 + T2 )
moles are
(a) p A = 2p B (b) 2p A = 3p B 2P1T2
Pf =
(c) p A = 3p B (d) 3p A = 2p B T1 + T2
[JEE Main 2019, 12 Jan Shift-I] 56. The intermolecular interaction that is dependent
PV on the inverse cube of distance between the
Ans. (b) : Compressibility factor (Z) = molecules is
nRT
(a) ion-ion interaction
Z
At constant temperature and moles, = constant (b) ion-dipole interaction
PV (c) London force
ZA = 3ZB , VA = 2VB (d) Hydrogen bond
ZA Z [JEE Main 2015]
= B Ans. (b) : Ion-ion interaction is dependent on the square
PA VA PB VB
1
PA ZA VB 3 of distance, i.e. ion-ion interaction ∝ 2
= × = r
PB ZB VA 2 1
2PA = 3PB Similarly, ion-dipole interaction ∝ 3
r
55. Two closed bulbs of equal volume (V) 1
containing an ideal gas initially at pressure, pi London forces ∝ r 6
and temperature T1 are connected through a
narrow tube of negligible volume as shown in And dipole-dipole interaction ∝ 1
the figure below. The temperature of one of r3
the bulbs is then raised to T2. The final Superficially it seems as both ion dipole interaction and
pressure pf is hydrogen bonding vary with the inverse cube of
distance between the molecules but when we look at the P1 P2
exact expression of field (force) created in two =
situations it comes as T1 T2
2|P| 300
| E | or | F |= T2 = 40 × = 342.85K
4πε0 r 3 35
(In case of ion-dipole interaction) T2 = 342.85 − 273.15 ≈ 70°C
2q 2 r − 4q 2 a 60. The volume occupied by 4.75 g of acetylene gas
And F= at 50ºC and 740 mm Hg pressure is…….L
4πε 0 r 3
(Rounded off to the nearest integer).
(In case of dipole-dipole interaction)
From the above it is very clear, the ion-dipole [Given, R = 0.0821 L atm K-1 mol-1]
interaction is the better answer as compared to dipole- [JEE Main 2021, 24 Feb Shift-II]
dipole interaction i.e. hydrogen bonding. 740
Ans. (5) : Given :- P = 740 mm Hg = atm
57. A spherical balloon of radius 3 cm containing 760
helium gas has a pressure of 48×10-3 bar. At the T = 50°C = 323K, w = 4.75g
same temperature, the pressure, of a spherical Volume (V) = ?
balloon of radius 12 cm containing the same w 4.75
amount of gas will be…….x 10-6 bar. Moles of acetylene gas (n) = = mol
M 26
[JEE Main 2020, 6 Sep Shift-I] From ideal gas equation,
Ans. (750) : Given:- P1 = 48 × 10–3 bar PV = nRT
r1 = 3cm r2 = 12 cm 4.75 0.0821× 323
P2 = ? V= ×
26 740
4 4
Initial Volume (V1) = πr13 = π ( 3)
3
760
3 3 4.75 × 0.0821× 323 × 760
4 3 4 =
Final volume = (V2) = πr2 = π (12 )
3
25 × 740
3 3
Ideal gas equation at constant temperature, V≈ 5L
PV = constant 61. Which one of the following graphs is not
P 1V 1 = P 2V 2 correct for ideal gas?
4
48 × 10−3 × π ( 3)
3
P2 = 3
4
π (12 )
3
3
= 750 × 10-6 bar
58. The relative strength of interionic
/intermolecular forces in decreasing order is
(a) dipole-dipole>ion-dipole>ion-ion
(b) ion-ion>ion-dipole>dipole-dipole
(c) ion-dipole>ion-ion>dipole-dipole
(d) ion-dipole>dipole-dipole>ion-ion
Ans. (b) : Ion-Ion interaction are stronger because they
have stronger electrostatic force of attraction whereas
dipoles have partial charges and hence the electrostatic
force of attraction is the weak. The relative strength of
inter ionic/intermolecular forces in decreasing order is
Ion-ion > ion-dipole > dipole - dipole. d = density, p = pressure,
59. A car tyre is filled with nitrogen gas 35 psi at T = temperature
27ºC. It will burst if pressure exceeds 40 psi. (a) III (b) I
The temperature in ºC at which the car tyre (c) IV (d) II
will burst is…… [JEE Main 2020, 2 Sep Shift-I]
(Rounded-off to the nearest integer). Ans. (d) : Ideal gas equation,
[JEE Main 2021, 25 Feb Shift-I] PV = nRT
Ans. (70) : Given :- P1 = 35 psi, P2 = 40 psi Mass (m)
Density (d) =
T1 = 27°C = 300K, T2 = ? Volume ( V )
From ideal gas equation, at constant volume
P Mass (m)
= constant Mole (m) =
Molar mass (M)
T
m Ans. (2) : Given :- Initial weight of gas = 29 –14.8
PV = RT = 14.2 kg
M
m PM = 14200g
d= = Final weight of gas = 23 – 14.8 = 8.2 kg = 8200g
V RT P1 = 3.47 atm
At constant therefore, d ∝ Pressure (P)
From ideal gas equation at constant temperature and
d ∝ Molar mass (M) volume,
1
d∝ P
= Constant
Temperature ( T ) n
d vs T graph is hyperbola P1 P2
=
d vs 1 is straight line n1 n 2
T
d vs P is straight line 3.47 8200 3.47 × 8200
P2 = × =
62. The pressure exerted by a non-reactive gaseous 14200 M.M 14200
mixture of 6.4 g of methane and 8.8 g of M.M
carbon dioxide in a 10L vessel at 27ºC P2 = 2 atm
is…….kPa (Round off to the nearest integer)
65. Among the following statements, that which
(Assume gases are ideal, R = 8.314 J mol-1 K-1
was not proposed by Dalton was
Atomic mass = C: 12.0 u, H: 1.0 u, 0:16.0 u)
(a) Chemical reactions involve reorganization of
[JEE Main 2021, 17 March Shift-I]
atoms. These are neither created nor
Ans. (150) Given:- V=10 L=10-2 m3, T = 27°C = 300K destroyed in a chemical reaction.
6.4 (b) When gases combine or reproduced in a
n CH4 = = 0.4 mol
16 chemical reaction they do so in a simple ratio
8.8 by volume provided all gases are at the same
n CO2 = = 0.2 mol T and P.
4.4
n = n CH4 + n CO2 = 0.4 + 0.2 = 0 .6 mol (c) All the atoms of a given element have
identical properties including identical mass.
P=? Atoms of different elements differ in mass.
From ideal gas equation (d) Matter consists of indivisible atoms.
PV = nRT [JEE Main 2020, 7 Jan Shift-I]
nRT Ans. (b) : When gases combine or reproduced in a
P=
V chemical reaction they do so in a simple ratio by
0.6 × 8.314 × 300 volume provided all gases are at the same temperature
P= , P ≈ 150 k Pa
10−2 and pressure. This is the Gay Lussac’s law.
63. An LPG cylinder contains gas at a pressure of Volume ∝ No. of moles
300 kPa at 27ºC. The cylinder can withstand So, only this statement is not given by Dalton.
the pressure of 12×106 Pa. The room in which 66. Which equation will explain the nature of PV
the cylinder is kept catches fire. The minimum versus P curve for CO2 gas at moderately low
temperature at which the bursting of cylinder pressure ?
will take place is…….ºC. (Nearest integer) (a) PV=RT+Pb (b) PV=RT+a/V
[JEE Main 2021, 25 July Shift-II] (c) PV=RT–a/V (d) PV=RT–aV
Ans. (927) : Given :– T1 = 27°C = 300K J & K CET-(2018)
P1 = 300k Pa P2 = 1.2 × 106 Pa
Ans. (c) : Vander Waal’s equation for real gas
Ideal gas equation at constant volume,
 an 2 
 ( v − nb ) = nRT
P +
= constant  P
T  v2 
P1 P2 For 1 mole gas,
=
T1 T2  a 
 P + 2  ( v − b ) = RT
1.2 × 106 × 300  v 
T2 = = 1200K At moderately low pressure,
300 × 103
T2 = 927°C V  b
 a 
64. An empty LPG cylinder weight 14.8 kg. When ∴  P + 2  V = RT
full, it weight 29.0 kg and shows a pressure of  v 
3.47 atm. In the course of use at ambient a
temperature, the mass of the cylinder is PV + = RT
v
reduced to 23.0 kg. The final pressure in side
a
of the cylinder is…….atm. (Nearest integer) PV = RT −
[JEE Main 2021, 1 Sep Shift-II] V
67. The boiling point of water decreases at high 71. If rate of diffusion of CH4 is twice than that of
altitudes because a gas x, then its molecular mass is :
(a) the atmospheric pressure is low (a) 64 g (b) 16 g
(b) the temperature is low (c) 32 g (d) 8 g
(c) the atmospheric pressure is high JCECE - 2006
(d) the temperature is high Ans. (a) : According to Graham’s law of diffusion, rate
J & K CET-(2005)
1
Ans. (a) : Water starts boiling when vapour pressure is of diffusion (rd) ∝
equal to atmospheric pressure This temperature is Molecular Mass
known as boiling point of water. At high altitude boiling It is given that, rCH4 = 2rx
point of water decreases because the atmospheric
pressure is also decreases. rx M CH4 rx 16
68. Which of the following is the true value of the = ⇒ =
rCH4 Ma 2rx x
gas constant R in Joules/degree/mole?
(b) 6.023×1023 1 16
(a) 8.314 =
( 2)
2
(c) 8.314×10 7
(d) 6.023 x
J & K CET-(2002) x = 16 × 4 = 64
Ans.(a): For STP 72. Avogadro’s hypothesis states that:
n = 1 mole (a) The ideal gas consists of a large number of
T = 0°C = 273k small particles called molecules
5 2
P = 1.01 × 10 N/M (b) Under the same conditions of temperature and
V = 22.4 liter pressure equal volumes of gases contain the
–3 3
= 22.4 × 10 m same number of molecules
from ideal gas equation– (c) Volume of a definite quantity of gas at
PV = nRT constant pressure is directly proportional to
PV absolute temperature
R= (d) A given mass of gas at constant pressure is
nT
directly proportional to absolute temperature
1.01× 105 × 22.4 × 10−3
R= JCECE - 2005
1× 273 Ans. (b) : According to Avogadro’s law, equal volumes
R = 8.31Jmol −1k –1 of gases contain the same number of molecules at
o constant temperature and pressure.
69. Five grams each of the following gas at 87 C
and 750 mm pressure is taken. The gas with Volume (V) ∝ Number of molecules
least volume is 73. The volume of a gas measured at 27oC and 1
(a) HF (b) HCl atm pressure is 10L. To reduce the volume to
(c) HBr (d) HI 2L at 1 atm pressure, the temperature required
J & K CET-(2000) is
Ans. (d) : According to ideal gas equation, (a) 60 K (b) 75 K
PV = nRT (c) 150 K (d) 225 K
 JCECE - 2007
w weight(w) 
PV = RT  mole(n) =  Ans. (a) : Given :-
M  Molar mass (M) 
V1 = 10L V2 = 2L
From above equation, we said that, as molar mass of gas
increases, volume will decreases. P = 1atm T = 27°C = 300K
HI molecule will have highest molar mass. Hence HI From ideal gas equation at constant pressure
have least volume. V
70. The carbon di-oxide gas does not follow = constant
T
gaseous laws at all ranges of pressure and
temperature because: V1 V2 V
= ⇒ T2 = 2 × T1
(a) it is triatomic gas T1 V2 V1
(b) its internal energy is quite high 2
(c) there is attraction between its molecules T2 = × 300 = 60K
(d) it solidify at low temperature 10
JCECE - 2004 74. A gas mixture contains O2 and N2 in the ratio
Ans. (c) : CO2 is a real gas. So, it does not follow of 1 : 4 by weight. The ratio of their number of
kinetic theory of gases, gas law and ideal gas equation. molecules is
Ideal gases do not show intermolecular force of (a) 1 : 8 (b) 1 : 4
attraction but CO2 is real gas. It shows intermolecular (c) 3 : 16 (d) 7 : 32
force of attraction between its molecules. JIPMER-2008
w O2 1 Ans. (a) : Given,
Ans. (d) : Given :- = V = 1L T = 26°C = 299 K
w N2 4 nT = 10 + 10 = 20 mole
Molecular mass of O2 = 32 From ideal gas equation,
Molecular mass of N2 = 28 PV = nRT
n O2 w O2 / M O2 w O2 M O2 nRT 20 × 0.0821× 299
= = × P= =
n N 2 w N 2 / M N 2 w N 2 M N2 V 1
≈ 491 atm
n O21 28 7 78. Which of the following equations does not
= × =
n N2 4 302 32 represent Charles's law for a given mass of gas
Number of molecules = mole × NA at constant pressure?
7 × NA V
Number of molecules of O 2
= (a) =K
Number of molecules of N 2 32 × N A T
(b) log V = log K + log T
7 (c) log K = log V + log T
=
32 d(In V) 1
(d) =
4 dT T
75. Ratio of molecular weights of A and B is
25 Karnataka-CET-2019
then ratio of rates of diffusion will be Ans. (c) : According to Charle's law, volume of a
(a) 5 : 1 (b) 5 : 2 definite quantity of gas at constant pressure is directly
(c) 25 : 3 (d) 25 : 4 proportional to absolute temperature.
JIPMER-2005 V∝T
Ans. (b) V
= constant = K
Given, T
Molecular weight of (M A ) 4 Taking log on both side
= logV – logT = logK
Molecular weight of B (M B ) 25 logV = logK + logT
rA Differentiating both side w.r.t temperature
Find d(ln V) d 1
rB = log T =
According to Graham's law of diffusion dT dT T
79. 0.5 mole of each of H2, SO2 and CH4 are kept in
1
rate of diffusion ∝ a container. A hole was made in the container.
Molecular weight After 3 hours the order of partial pressure in
the container will be
rA MB 25 5 (a) pSO2 > pH2 > pCH4 (b) pSO2 > pCH4 > pH2
= = =
rB MA 4 2 (c) pH2 > pSO2 > pCH4 (d) pH2 > pCH4 > pSO2
Karnataka-CET, 2009
rA : rB = 5 : 2
76. Moles of N2 = 0.4 and moles of O2 = 0.1 find 1
Ans. (b) : Rate of diffusion ∝ .
( PN2 ) Partial pressure of N2 at atmospheric molecular mass
pressure. Lighter the gas, more is the rate of diffusion.
(a) 0.2 atm (b) 0.8 atm ∴ Order of diffusion : H2 > CH4 > SO2
(c) 0.6 atm (d) 0.4 atm Hence, order of partial pressure is
pSO2 > pCH4 > pH2
JIPMER-2019
80. In order to increase the volume of a gas by
Ans. (b) : Given that, 10%, the pressure of the gas should be
Moles of N2 = 0.4 (a) increased by 10% (b) increased by 1%
Moles of O2 = 0.1 (c) decreased by 10% (d) decreased by 1%
0.4 KARNATAKA-CET, 2008
Then, mole fraction of N2 = = 0.8
0.4 + 0.1 Ans. (c) : According to Boyle’s law,
We know that – 1
Partial pressure = mole fraction × total pressure p∝
V
= 0.8 × 1 = 0.8 atm Hence, in order to increase the volume of a gas by 10%,
77. If V = 1 litre, 10 mole of H2 and 10 mole of N2 the pressure of the gas should be decreased by 10%.
gas are mixed at temperature 26oC. Then 81. The ratio of rate of diffusion of SO2 (M = 64)
calculate pressure of the gas. and oxygen (M = 32) is :
(a) 491 atm (b) 300 atm (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1
(c) 550 atm (d) 600 atm (c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 1.414
JIPMER-2019 Manipal-2019

Ans. (d) : According to Graham's law of diffusion, Ans. (a) : Average kinetic energy of gases is depends
1 only on the temperature So, H2 and He gas will have
rate of diffusion ∝ equal average kinetic energies
Molar mass 3
Kinetic energy = RT
rSO2 M O2 32 1 2
= = =
rO2 MSO2 64 2 86. Correct gas equation is
rSO2 : rO2 =1: 1.414 VT V T
(a) 1 2 = 2 1
PV
(b) 1 1 = 1
T
82. In liquid gas equilibrium, the pressure of P1 P2 P2 V2 T2
vapours above the liquid is constant at PT P V VV
(a) Constant temperature (c) 1 1 = 2 2 (d) 1 2 = P1P2
V1 T2 T1T2
(b) Low temperature NEET-1989
(c) High temperature
Ans. (b) : According to ideal gas equation,
(d) None of these
PV = nRT
AIPMT-1995
for 1 mole
Ans. (a) : At equilibrium, amount of vapour is same
PV
until temperature is not changed. Vapour pressure only = constant
depends on temperature. If temperature is kept constant T
then vapour pressure is also constant at equilibrium. P1V1 P2 V2
=
83. The beans are cooked earlier in pressure T1 T2
cooker because P1V1 T1
(a) boiling point increase with increasing =
pressure P2 V2 T2
(b) boiling point decrease with increasing 87. A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking
pressure equal moles of CO and N2. If the total pressure
(c) extra pressure of pressure cooker softens the of the mixture was found 1 atmosphere, the
beans partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2) in the
(d) internal energy is not lost while cooking in mixture is
pressure cooker (a) 0.5 atm (b) 0.8 atm
NEET-2011 (c) 0.9 atm (d) 1 atm
Ans. (a) : In pressure cooker, as pressure on the particle NEET-2011
increases they comes closer due to the increases in Ans. (a) : Given : Total Pressure = 1 atm
kinetic energy of particles, which further increases the Weight of N2 = weight of CO
temperature inside the pressure cooker. Thus boiling Molar mass of CO = 28
point increases, which help beans to cooked earlier. Molar mass of N2 = 28
84. A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has molar volume 20 w 28 1
percent smaller than that for an ideal gas Mole fraction of N2 = = = 0.5
w w 2
under the same conditions. The correct option +
about the gas and its compressibility factor (Z) 28 28
is Partial pressure = Mole fraction × Total pressure
(a) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant PN2 = 0.5 ×1 = 0.5 atm
(b) Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant
88.A bubble of air is underwater at temperature
(c) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant 15°C and the pressure 1.5 bar. If the bubble
(d) Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant rises to the surface where the temperature is
NEET-2019 25°C and the pressure is 1.0 bar, what will
V happen to the volume of the bubble
Ans. (d) : Compressibility factor (Z) = real (a) volume will become greater by a factor of
Videal
1.6.
Vreal (b) volume will become greater by a factor of 1.1
For given gas, <1
Videal (c) volume will become smaller by a factor of
Then compressibility factor (Z) is also less than 1 0.70
(d) volume will become greater by a factor of 2.5
Z<1
If Z < 1 then, attractive force are dominant on gaseous NEET-2011
molecules. Ans. (a) : Given : T 1 = 15ºC = 288 K
T2 = 25°C = 298 K
85. At STP, 0.50 mol H2 gas and 1.0 mol He gas
(a) have equal average kinetic energies P1 = 1.5 bar P2 = 1 bar
According to ideal gas equation,
(b) have equal molecular speeds
PV = nRT
(c) occupy equal volumes
(d) have equal effusion rates P1V1 P2 V2
=
NEET-1993 T1 T2

V2 1.5 × 298
=
V1 288
V2
= 1.55
V1
V2 = 1.55 V1
So, volume will become greater by a factor of 1.6.
89. The pressure exerted by 6.0 g of methane gas in
a 0.03 m3 vessel at 129oC is (Atomic masses : C
=12.01, H = 1.01 and R= 8.314 K–1 mol–1)
(a) 215216 Pa (b) 13409 Pa
(c) 41648 Pa (d) 31684Pa
NEET-2010
Ans. (c) : Given : W = 6g, V = 0.03 m3
T = 129°C = 402 K
P=?
6
× 8.314 × 402
nRT 16.05
P= =
V 0.03
P = 41647.7 Pa
P = 41648 Pa
90. Which of the following mixtures of gases does

not obey Dalton's law of partial pressure?
(a) Cl2 and SO2 (b) CO2 and He
(c) O2 and CO2 (d) N2 and O2
NEET-1996
JIPMER-2019
Ans. (a) : Non-reacting gases does not follow Dalton’s NEET-2021
law of partial pressure. Ans. (a) : According to Boyle’s law
So, SO2 and Cl2 mixture of gases does not obey 1
Dalton’s law of partial pressure because they react and P∝
V
form SO2Cl2. Pressure is inversely proportional to volume at constant
91. At what temperature, the rate of effusion of N2temperature.
would be 1.625 times than the rate of SO2 at PV = constant
50oC? As the magnitude of PV increases, temperature also
(a) 373 K (b) 620 K increases. Hence option (a) is correct.
(c) 100 K (d) 173 K 93. At 25oC and 730 mm pressure, 380 mL of dry
oxygen was collected. If the temperature is
NEET-1996
constant, what volume will the oxygen occupy
rN2 at 760 mm pressure?
Ans. (c) : Given : = 1.625 (a) 569 mL (b) 365 mL
rSO2
(c) 265 mL (d) 621 mL
Rate of effusion ∝ Temperature NEET-1999
1 Ans. (b) : Given : T = 25°C = 298 K
∝ V1 = 380 mL, P1 = 730 mm
Molor Mass P2 = 760 mm
rN2 TN2 64 V2 = ?
= × = 1.625 According to ideal gas equation at constant temperature.
rSO2 28 323
PV = constant
TN2 = 373 K = 100°C P 1V 1 = P 2V 2
92. Choose the correct option for graphical 730 × 380 = 760 × V2
representation of Boyle's law, which shows a 730 × 380
V2 =
graph of pressure vs volume of a gas at 760
different temperatures. V 2 = 365 mL
94. Pressure remaining the same, the volume of a (a) 96.66 L (b) 55.87 L
given mass of an ideal gas increase for every (c) 3.10 L (d) 5.37 L
degree centigrade rise in temperature by NEET-Odisha-2019
definite fraction of its volume at Ans. (d) : Given : w = 1.8 g
(a) 0oC T = 374°C = 647 K P = 1 bar
(b) its critical temperature According to ideal gas equation
(c) absolute zero w
(d) its Boyle temperature RT
nRT M
NEET-1989 V= =
P P
Ans. (a) : VT = V0 (1 + ∝T) 1.8 × 0.083 × 647
V0 is the volume at 0°C V=
for 1° rise in temperature, 18 ×1
V = 5.37 L
VT = V0 (1 + ∝)
VT = V0 + V0 ∝ 98. Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are
VT –V0 = V0 ∝ placed in a container with a pin-hole through
DV = V0 ∝ which both can escape. What fraction of the
Where ∝ is definite fraction oxygen escape in the time required for one-half
Hence, Volume V0 is at 0°C temperature of the hydrogen to escape?
95. Choose the correct option for the total pressure (a) 3/8 (b) 1/2
(in atm) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/4
confined in a total volume of on litre at 0oC is NEET-2016
[Given R = 0.082 L atm mol–1K–1, T = 273K] Ans. (c) : Given :
(a) 26.02 (b) 2.518 Fraction of hydrogen escaped-
(c) 2.602 (d) 25.18 1
= × Total mole (x) of hydrogen
NEET-2021 2
Ans. (d) : Given : WO2 = 4g, WH2 = 2g VO2
V = 1L T = 0°C = 273 K rO2 t O2 M H2
= =
Total Pressure (PT) = ? rH2 VH2 M O2
4 2 9 t H2
Total moles = + = mole
32 2 8 VO2 M H2
From ideal gas equation, =
PV = nRT VH2 M O2
nRT 9 0.082 × 273 t O2 = t H 2
P= = ×
v 8 1
P = 25.18 atm VO2 2 1
= =
96. A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder 1 32 16
contains 7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total 2
pressure of the mixture of the gases in the 1
2VO2 =
cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N2 is 4
[Use atomic masses (in g mol–1) : N = 14, Ar = 40] 1
(a) 9 bar (b) 12 bar VO2 =
8
(c) 15 bar (d) 18 bar
99. What is the density of N2 gas at 227oC and 5.00
NEET-2020
atm pressure? (R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1)
Ans. (c) : Given : Weight of N2 = 7g (a) 1.40 g/mL (b) 2.81 g/mL
Weight of Ar = 8g (c) 3.41 g/mL (d) 0.29 g/mL
Total pressure = 27 bar NEET-Karnataka 2013
Molar mass of N2 = 28 Ans. (c) : Given : T = 227°C = 500 K
Molar mass of Ne = 40 P = 5 atm, Molar mass of N2 (M) = 28
7 / 28 5 From ideal gas equation,
Mole fraction of N 2 = =
7 8 9 w
+ PV = nRT = RT
28 40 M
Partial Pressure = Mole fraction × Total Pressure w
5 = density (d)
PN2 = × 27 = 15 bar V
9 PM 5 × 28
d= =
97. The volume occupied by 1.8g of water vapour RT 500 × 0.082
at 374oC and 1 bar pressure will be d = 3.41 g/mL
(Use R = 0.083 bar L K–1 mol–1)
100. Equal masses of H2, O2 and methane have been Ans.(d): According to first law of thermodynamic, the
taken in a container of volume V at total energy of an isolated system remain constant.
temperature 27oC in identical conditions. The Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. It may be
ratio of the volumes of gases H2 : O2 : methane change one form to another form.
would be 104. Mark out of the wrong expression.
(a) 8 : 16 : 1 (b) 16 : 8 : 1
a
(c) 16 : 1 : 2 (d) 8 : 1 : 2 (a) Boyle’s temperature, TB =
NEET-2014 bR
Ans. (c) : According to Avogadro's law, volume of gas a
(b) Critical pressure, pc =
is directly proportional to the number of moles of gas at 27b 2
constant temperature and pressure. 8a
V∝n (c) Critical volume, Tc =
VH2 : VO 2 : VCH4 = n H2 : n O2 : n CH4 27 Rb
(d) Critical volume, Vc = 3b
weight UP CPMT-2011
mole =
molar mass a
Ans. (a) : Boyle’s temperature, TB =
w w w Rb
VH2 : VO 2 : VCH4 = : :
2 32 16 105. A mixture of gases having different molecular
= 16 : 1 : 2 weights is separated by which method ?
101. What volume of oxygen as (O2) measured at (a) Atmolysis
0oC and 1 atm, is needed to burn completely 1 (b) Metathesis
L of propane gas (C3H8) measured under the (c) Ostwald and Walker method
same conditions? (d) Reverse osmosis
(a) 5 L (b) 10 L UP CPMT-2010
(c) 7 L (d) 6 L Ans. (a): Diffusion method is used to separate a mixture
NEET-2008 of gases having different molecular weights as rate of
Ans. (a) : C3H8 + 5O2  → 3CO2 + 4H2O diffusion varies inversely with molecular mass, i.e.
From the balanced chemical reaction, we know that for 1
combustion of 1L of propane gas, 5L of oxygen gas is r∝
required. M
This method is called atmolysis.
102. 0.24 g of a volatile gas, upon vaporization, gives
45 mL vapour at NTP. What will be the vapour 106. Which is the correct relation for diffusion of
density of the substance? (Density of H2 = 0.089 gases?
g/L) (a) r ∝ d (b) r ∝ d
(a) 95.93 (b) 59.93 1
(c) 95.39 (d) 5.993 (c) r ∝ (d) None of these
d
NEET-1996
UP CPMT-2005
Molar mass Ans. (c): According to Graham's law of diffusion,
Ans. (b) : Vapour density =
2 1
r∝
weight volume (in L) V ( in mL ) d
Mole = = =
molar mass 22.4L 22400 Where, r = rate of diffusion of gas
w d = density of gas
Molar mass = × 22400 107. A gaseous mixture contains 56 g of N2, 44 g of
V
CO2 and 16 g of CH4. The total pressure of
0.24
= × 22400 mixture is 720 mm of Hg. The partial pressure
45 of methane is
= 119.46 (a) 75 atm (b) 160 atm
119.46 (c) 180 atm (d) 215 atm
Vapour density = UP CPMT-2003
2
= 59.73 A-P EAMCET 1991
103. Mark the correct statement. Ans. (c) : Partial pressure of CH4
(a) For a chemical reaction to be feasible, ∆G = mole fraction of CH4 × total pressure
should be zero Given, mass of N2= 56 g, mass of CO2 = 44 g
(b) Entropy is a measure of order of a system Mass of CH4= 16 g
(c) For a chemical reaction to be feasible, ∆G Moles of N2=
mass
=
56
=2
increases mol.wt. 28
(d) The total energy of an isolated system is mass 44
constant Moles of CO2= = =1
UP CPMT-2014 mol.wt. 44
mass 16 110. At 273 K temperature and 76 cm Hg pressure,
Moles of CH4= = =1 the density of a gas is 1.964 g L-1. The gas is
mol.wt. 16 (a) CH4 (b) CO
∴Total moles = moles of N2+moles of CO2+moles of (c) He (d) CO2
CH4
WB-JEE-2020
= 2+1+1
=1 Ans. (d) : Given, T = 273 K
P = 76 cm Hg = 760 mmHg = 1atm
moles of CH 4 1
∴Mole fraction of CH4= = d = 1.964
total moles 4 According to ideal gas equation,
1 PM 1× M
∴Partial pressure of CH4= ×720 atm d= ⇒ = 1.964
4 RT 0.0821× 273
= 180 atm M = 1.964 × 0.0821 × 273
108. At identical temperature and pressure, the rate M = 44
of diffusion of hydrogen gas is 3 3 times that Hence, molar mass of CO2 is 44.
of a hydrocarbon having molecular formula 111. Equal masses of ethane and hydrogen are
CnH2n-2 What is the value of n? mixed in an empty container at 298 K.The
(a) 1 (b) 4 fraction of total pressure exerted by hydrogen is
(c) 3 (d) 8 (a) 15:16 (b) 1:1
WB-JEE-2010 (c) 1:4 (d) 1:6
Ans. (b) : Given, WB-JEE-2020
rH2 Ans. (a) : Given, mass of ethane = mass of hydrogen = x
=3 3 We know that,
rC n H 2 n − 2
Molar mass of ethane (C2H6) = 30
Let molar mass of rC n H 2 n − 2 = M Molar mass of hydrogen (H2) = 2
According to Graham's law of diffusion. Then,
1 x
Rate of diffusion ∝ Moles of ethane =
Molar Mass 30
x
rH2 M Moles of hydrogen =
= 2
rC n H 2 n −2 2
x
( )
2 M Mole fraction of hydrogen = 2
3 3 = x +x
2 2 30
M = 27 × 2 = 54 Partial pressure of hydrogen = mole fraction of H2 ×
12n + 1(2n – 2) = 54 total pressure
14n – 2 = 54 Then,
14n = 56
Partial pressure of H 2
n=4 = mole fraction of H2
109. In a flask, the weight ratio of CH4 (g) and SO2 Total pressure
(g) at 298 K and 1 bar is 1 : 2. The ratio of the x
number of molecules of SO2(g) and CH4 (g) is 2 15
= =
(a) 1:4 (b) 4:1 x +x 16
(c) 1:2 (d) 2:1 2 30
WB-JEE-2017 112. A mixture of 40 g of oxygen and 40 g of helium
Ans. (c) : Given, has a total pressure of 0.9 atm. The partial
w CH4 1 pressure of oxygen is
= (a) 0.5 atm (b) 0.1 atm
w SO2 2
(c) 0.9 atm (d) 0.2 atm
weight AIIMS-1994
Mole =
molar mass Ans. (b) : Given :-
n CH4 w CH4 MSO2 Amount of oxygen = 40g
= × Amount of helium = 40g
n SO2 M CH4 w SO2 Total pressure (P) = 0.9 atm
1 64
× =2 ( )
Partial pressure of oxygen pO2 =?
2 16
No. of molecules = mole × NA ( )
∴ moles of oxygen n O2 =
40
32
No.of molecules of SO 2 n SO2 1
= =
No.of molecules of CH 4 n CH4 2 ( )
Moles of helium n He2 =
40
4
= 10

Now, (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
p O2 = X mixture × Total pressure (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
n O2 Ans. (b) : According to the Graham's law of diffusion.
p O2 = × 0.9
n O2 + n He2 VSO2 M CH4 16 1 1
= = = =
40 VCH4 MSO2 64 4 2
p O2 = 32 × 0.9 or VSO2 : VCH4 = 1: 2
40
+ 10 So, SO2 and CH4 effused in the ratio 1 : 2. Hence, the
32 amount of remaining in the vessel will be ratio SO2 :
40 4
p O2 = × × 0.9 CH4 = 2 : 1.
32 45 116. If the pressure and the absolute temperature of
p O2 = 0.1 atm a given mass of gas are doubled, the new
volume will be …….. of the initial volume
(a) double (b) half
2. Ideal Gas Equation and (c) triple (d) same
Related Gas Laws A-P EAMCET 1991
Ans. (d) : Let initial pressure = P1
113. A 10 L flask contains 64 g of oxygen at 27°C Final pressure P2 = 2P1
(Assume O2 gas is behaving ideally). The Initial temperature = T1
pressure inside the flask in bar is Final temperature T2 = 2T1
(Given R = 0.0831 L bar K–1 mol–1 Initial volume = V1
(a) 4.9 (b) 2.5 Final volume = V2
(c) 498.6 (d) 49.8 ∴ From ideal gas equation at constant number of moles
NEET-17.07.2022 PV ∝ T
Ans. (a) : Given that, T = 27°C = 273 + 27 = 300 K P1V1 T1
=
V = 10.0 L, R = 0.0831 L Bar K–1 mol–1 P2 V2 T2
64 P × V1 T
Q Moles of O2 = = 2 mole =
32 2P × V2 2T
PV = nRT V1 = V2
nRT 117. A sample of gas has a volume of 0.2 L
P=
V measured at 1 atm pressure and 0ºC. At the
2 × 0.0831 same pressure but at 273ºC, its volume
= × 300 becomes
10.0 (a) 0.1 L (b) 0.4 L
P = 4.986 Bar (c) 0.8 L (d) 0.6 L
114. 100 g of an ideal gas is kept in a cylinder of 416 A-P EAMCET 1992, 93
L volume at 27oC under 1.5 bar pressure. The Ans. (b) : Given that, V1 = 0.2 L, V2 = ?
molar mass of the gas is ________ g mol-1 P1 = 1 atm, P2 = 1 atm
(Nearest integer). T1 = 0ºC = 273 K, T2 = 273ºC = 273+273 = 546 K
(Given : R = 0.083 L bar K-1 mol-1) The combined gas law is given as–
JEE Main-28.06.2022, Shift-II P1V1 P2 V2
∴ =
Ans. (4) : Given that: R = 0.083L bar K −1mol−1 T1 T2
V = 416L , P = 1.5bar , T = 27°C 1× 0.2 × 546
From ideal gas equation V2 = = 0.4 L
1× 273
mRT 118. The molecular weight of a gas that diffuses
PV =
M twice as rapidly as a gas with molecular weight
m 64, is
n= (a) 6.4 (b) 8
M (c) 128 (d) 16
100 A-P EAMCET 1994
1.5×416 = × 0.83×300
M Ans. (d) : Given that, r1 = r, r2 = 2r, M1 = 64, M2 = ?
M = 3.99 r1 M2
115. A vessel contains equal volumes of SO2 and ∴ =
CH4. Through a small hole the gases effused r2
M1
into vacuum. After 200 seconds the total r M2
volume is reduced to half. What is the ratio of =
SO2 and CH4 remaining in the vessel? 2r 64

Squaring both side, we get 122. What is the numerical value of the gas constant
1 M2 R in J mol–1 K–1?
= (a) 0.0821 (b) 8.314 × 107
4 64 (c) 8.314 (d) 1.987
64 A-P EAMCET 1999
or M2 =
4 Ans. (c) : The gas constant is inversely used in diverse
or M2 = 16 disciplines. Hence it is expressed in many units. Some
119. A flask contains 3g H2 and 24 g O2, The partial gas constant value in different units are listed below–
pressure of hydrogen in the mixture is R = 8.314 × 107 erg mol–1 K–1
(a) 1/8th of the total pressure = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1
(b) 1/9th of the total pressure = 0.08205 L atm mol–1 K–1
(c) 1/2nd of the total pressure 123. 4 g of an ideal gas occupies 5.6035 L of volume
(d) 2/3rd of the total pressure at 546 K and 2 atm pressure. What is its
A-P EAMCET 1994 molecular weight?
Ans. (d) : Given, weight of H2 = 3 gm (a) 4 (b) 16
3 (c) 32 (d) 64
∴ No. of mole of H2 = mole A-P EAMCET 2002
2 Ans. (b) : Given that,
and weight of O2 = 24 gm w = 4 gm, V = 5.6035 L, T = 546 K
24 3 P = 2 atm.
∴ No. of mole of O2 = = mole
32 4 From and ideal gas equation –
3/ 2 M RT
Hence, the partial pressure of H2 = ×P ∴ =
3/ 2 + 3/ 4 w PV
3/ 2 M 0.084 × 546
= ×P or =
9/4 4 2 × 5.6035
2 or M = 16
= of the total pressure
3 124. The volume-temperature graphs of a given
120. One mole of argon gas will have least density at mass of an ideal gas at constant pressures are
(a) STP (b) 0ºC and 2 atm shown below. What is the correct order of
pressures?
(c) 273ºC and 2 atm (d) 273ºC and 1 atm
A-P EAMCET 1998
PM
Ans. (d) : Density (ρ) =
RT
1
Density ∝
temperature
or Density ∝ pressure (a) p1 > p3 > p2 (b) p1 > p2 > p3
Therefore, the density will be minimum when the ratio (c) p2 > p3 > p1 (d) p2 > p1 > p3
of pressure to temperature is minimum. A-P EAMCET 2006
121. A mixture contains 16 g of oxygen, 28 g of Ans. (a) : For ideal gas equation–
nitrogen and 8g of CH4. Total pressure of PV = nRT
mixture is 740 mm. What is the partial At constant pressure, V = KT
pressure of nitrogen in mm? So, the graph will be a straight line with slope K = nR/P
(a) 185 (b) 370 Higher the slope lower will be the pressure.
(c) 555 (d) 740 Hence the correct order of pressure–
A-P EAMCET 1999 P1 > P3 > P2
Ans. (b) : Given that, Total pressure = 740 mm 125. Henry's law constant for CO2 in water is
16 1.67×108Pa at 298 K. Calculate the
No. of moles of oxygen= = 0.5 moles approximate quantity of CO2 in 500 ml of soda
32
28 water when packed under 5 atm CO2 at 298 K.
No. of moles of nitrogen = = 1.0 moles (a) 3.7g (b) 1.84 g
28 (c) 2.2 g (d) 4.4 g
8 AP-EAMCET 25-08-2021 Shift - I
No. of moles of CH4 = = 0.5 moles
16 Ans. (a) : Given,
∴ Total number of moles = 0.5 + 1.0 + 0.5 = 2 moles PCO2 = 5atm
Mole fraction of N2 = 1/2 = 0.5
Since, Partial pressure of N2 = mole fraction of N2 × PCO2 = 5 × 1.013× 105 Pa
total pressure Henry's Law
= 0.5 × 740 = 370 mm p = KH.x

Where, p = Partial pressure of gas 2.8
KH = Henry's law constant or V= × 0.0821× 300
28 × 0.821
x = Mole fraction of gas or V = 3 litre.
5 × 1.013 × 105 129. Which of the following is not an ideal solution?
∴ x= (a) Benzene and Toluene
1.67 × 108
(b) Chloro-benzene and 1,2-dichloro benzene
n CO2
X CO2 = (c) Methyl iodide and Isopropanol
n CO2 + n H2O (d) Ethyl bromide and Methyl bromide
AP EAPCET 25.08.2021, Shift-II
n CO2 5 × 1.013 × 105
X CO2 = = = 0.003032 Ans. (c) : A solution in which the interaction between
n CO2 +
500 1.67 ×108 molecules of the components does not differ from the
18 interactions between the molecules of each component.
n CO2 = 0.0843 Ideal solution are – n-Heptane and n-Hexane,
Chlorobenzene and bromobenzene, Benzene and
Mass of CO2 dissolved = 0.087 × 44 toluene, Carbon tetrachloride and silicon tetrachloride,
= 3.7 gm Ethyl and Methyl bromide.
126. An ideal gas expanded irreversibly against 10 130. Which of the following options correctly
bar pressure from 20 L to 30 L. Calculate q if represents the relations of compressibility
the process is Isoenthalpic. (1 L. bar = 100 J) factor (z) and van der Waals equation for mole
(a) 0 (b) 100 J of gas at low pressure?
(c) –100 J (d) 10 kJ a Pb
AP-EAMCET 25-08-2021 Shift - I (a) z + =1 (b) z + =1
VAT RT
Ans. (d) : RT Pb
Wirr = –P(V2 – V1) (c) z = 1 + (d) z = 1 +
= – 10 (30 – 20) Pb RT
= – 100 lit × bar TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-I
= – 100 × 100 Joule PV
Ans. (a) : Compressibility factor(z) =
= – 10,000 Joule RT
= – 10 kJ For one male of gas
Since the change in enthalpy is 0 and the work done Van der waal's equation
will be equal to the –q.  a 
127. A gas deviates most from ideal behavior when  P + 2  (V − b ) = RT
 V 
it is subjected to____.
At low pressure V-b ≈ V
(a) Low temperature & high pressure
(b) High temperature & low pressure  a 
Then  P + 2 V = RT
(c) High temperature & high pressure  V 
(d) Low temperature & Low pressure a
AP-EAMCET 25-08-2021 Shift - I PV + = RT
V
Ans. (a) : At low temperature and high pressure, a
gaseous atoms or molecules get closer to each other and PV = RT −
vander Waal forces operates. So molecules or atoms V
start attracting each other. Hence a gas deviate the most PV a  PV 
= 1−  z=
from its ideal behaviour. RT VRT  RT 
128. The volume of 2.8 g of carbon monoxide at
a a
27ºC and 0.821 atm. pressure is (R= 0.0821 L So z = 1− or z + =1
atm. K–1 mol–1) VRT VRT
(a) 1.5 L (b) 0.3 L 131. At 27°C in a 10 L flask 4.0 g of an ideal gaseous
(c) 3 L (d) 30 L mixture containing. He (molar mass 4.0 g mol–1)
AP EAMCET (Medical) -1998 and Ne (molar mass 20g mol–1) has a pressure
Ans. (c): Given that, of 1.23 atm. What is the mass % of neon? (R =
Amount of carbon monoxide = 2.8 g 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1)
T = 27 + 273 = 300 K (a) 25.2 (b) 62.5
P = 0.821 atm (c) 84.2 (d) 74.2
R = 0.0821 L atm K–1 mol–1 AP EAMCET-2017
Now, from the ideal gas equation– Ans. (b) : Given,
w Volume (V) = 10 lit
PV = ⋅ RT T = 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300K
M W = W1 + W2 = 4 gm ……(i)
w M(He) = 4 g/mole
or V= ×R×T
M×P M(Ne) = 20 g/mole

P = 1.23 atm Ans. (b) : Given,
∴ PV = (n1 + n2) RT At STP 5.6L of a gas weight 7.5g.
1.23 × 10 W W We know,
= 1+ 2 22.4L gas, contain 1 mole at STP
0.082 × 300 4 20
5W1 + W2 Then, 1L gas contain =
1
mole ]
0.5 =
20 22.4
or 5W1 + W2 = 10 …… (ii) Now,
Form equation (i) and (ii) we get 5.6L gas contain,
5W1 + (4 – W1) = 10 1
4W1 = 6 No. of mole = × 5.6 = 0.25 mole
22.4
W1 = 6/4 = 1.5
Weight
Putting the value of W1 in equation (i) Moles=
We get – Molecular weight
1.5 + W2 = 4 7.5
⇒ W2 = 2.5 0.25=
Molecular weight
2.5 × 100
Hence, mass % of Neon = Molecular weight = 30
4 Thus, the gas is NO
= 62.5%
135. Equal masses of methane and oxygen are
132. Which is the correct expression, that relates introduced into a vessel at 27ºC. What fraction
changes of entropy for an ideal gas at constant of the total pressure is due to oxygen?
temperature in the following
1 1
P (a) (b)
(a) ∆s = nRTln 2 10 2
P1
1 1
(b) ∆s = T ( P2 – P1 ) (c) (d)
3 4
P1 A-P EAMCET 1995
(c) ∆s = nRln
P2 Ans. (c) : Let masses of methane (CH4) and oxygen = m
P1 n1
(d) ∆s = 2.303nRTln ∴ Mole fraction of O2 =
P2 n1 + n 2
MPPET-2008 m / 32
=
Ans. (c) : P1 m / 32 + m /16
∆s = nRln m / 32
P2 =
3m / 32
Where ∆s = Change in entropy
R = Gas constant =1
3
P1 and P2 are pressure.
136. The volume of a given mass of a gas is directly
133. The temperature at which 4 moles of a gas proportional to its Kelvin temperature at
occupy 5 dm3 volume at 3.32 bar pressure is constant pressure. The above statement is
(a) 50 K (b) 50 ºC
known as ......... .
(c) 27 ºC (d) 100 K
(a) Boyle's law
(b) vant Hoff's law
(c) Charle's law
Ans. (a) : Given,
(d) Dalton's law of partial pressures
P = pressure = 332 bar ≃ 3.32 atm
V = volume = 5 dm3 = 5 L AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-II
n = 4 mol Ans. (c) : The variation in a volume of a gas with
and we known, temperature was first studies by Jacques Charles (1787)
R = 0.082 L atm mol–1 K–1 and known as Charles' law.
For n mole of an ideal gas, Charles' law states as, "The volume of the given mass of
PV = nRT a gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature
pV 332 × 5 at constant pressure.
⇒ T= = 137. The average kinetic energy of one molecule of
nR 4 × 0.082
= 50.60 K ≃ 50 K an ideal gas at 27°C and 1 atm pressure is
134. At STP, if 5.6 litres of a gas weights 7.5 g, then (a) 900 cal k-1 mol-1
identify the gas. (b) 6.21 × 10-21JK-1 molecule-1
(a) CO (b) NO (c) 336.7 JK-1 molecule-1
(c) NO2 (d) CO2 (d) 3741. 3JK-1 mol-1
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-II AP EAMCET (Engg.)-2009
Ans. (b): Given, Ans. (a) : From the ideal gas equation.
Mole = 1, Temperature (T) = 27ºC+273= 300K and PV = nRT where – P = pressure
R = 8.314J/mole K V = volume
3 3 R N = no. of mole
KE= nRT or × T R= Gas constant
2 2 NA T = Temperature
3 8.314 W
KE= × × 300 ∴ n=
2 6.023 × 1023 M
–21
KE=6.21×10 J/K molecules Where W = weight of particle
138. For an isothermal and free expansion of an M = molar mass
ideal gas, which of the following is true ? Putting the value of n in Equation (i) we get
1. For an adiabatic change, heat (q) is non W
zero. PV = RT
M
2. For an adiabatic change, heat (q) is zero. W W
3. For an isothermal reversible change, heat Or PM = RT (∴ τ = )
(q) is zero. V V
PM
4. For an isothermal process, the temperature ∴ τ= Where τ = density of the gas.
changes. RT
(a) 1 (b) 2 141. How many liters of oxygen (at STP) are
(c) 3 (d) 4 required for complete combustion of 39 g of
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.9.2020 Shift-I liquid benzene?
(Atomic weights: C=12.O=16,H=1)
Ans. (b) : For an isothermal and free expansion of an
(a) 84 (b) 22.4
ideal gas,
(c) 42 (d) 11.2
15 ∆
Ans. (a) : C6 H 6 + O 2  → 6CO 2 + 3H 2 O
2
Molecular weight of benzene ( C6 H 6 ) = 78
So, the statement (2) is correct.
weight 39 1
139. If two molecules of A and B having mass 100Kg Moles of benzene = = = moles
64 Kg and rate of diffusion of A is 12×10-3 then M.wt. 78 2
rate of diffusion of B will be ____ 15
1 mole combustion of benzene required mole of
(a) 15×10-3 (b) 64×10-3 2
(c) 36×10 -3
(d) 10×10-3 oxygen gas
AP EAPCET 24.08.2021 Shift-II 1  15 1 15 
∴ mole benzene required  × =  mole of
Ans. (a) : Given that, 2  2 2 4
Mass of gas A = 100 kg oxygen gas
Mass of gas B = 64 kg volume
Rate of diffusion of A = 12×10-3 As we know, mole =
22.4
Rate of diffusion of B = ? Volume = Mole × 22. 4L
So, we know that, 15
Volume of oxygen = × 22.4L
Rate of diffusion of A × Molar mass of A = 4
= 84 L
Rate of diffusion of B × Molar mass of B
142. What is the volume (in litres) of oxygen at STP
12×10 × 100 = Rate of diffusion of B ×
-3
64 required for complete combustion of 32 g of
−3
CH4?
12 × 10 × 10 (Molecular weight of CH4 is 16)
= Rate of diffusion of B
8 (a) 44.8 (b) 89.6
So, rate of diffusion of B = 15×10-3 (c) 22.4 (d) 179.2
140. The density of an ideal gas can be given by––– AP EAMCET (Engg.) 2001
where P,V,M,T and R respectively denote Ans. (b) : On complete combustion, we get
pressure Volume molar-mass Temperature and CH 4 + 2O 2 → CO 2 + 2H 2 O
universal gas constant. Weight of CH4 = 34
PM PV M .wt. of CH4 = 16
(a) (b)
RT RT weight 32
Moles of CH4 = = = 2 moles
RT RT M.wt. 16
(c) (d)
PM PV 1 mole combustion of methane ( CH4 )
AP EAPCET 19-08-2021 Shift-I required 2 moles of oxygen at S T P.

∴ 2 mole methane requires 4 moles of oxygen. Then,
Volume = Mole × 22 4 L V1 T1
Volume of oxygen = 4 × 22.4 =
V2 T1
= 89.6 L
V2
143. Consider the composite system. Which is held T2 = T1 ×
at 300K, shown in the figure. Assuming ideal V1
gas behavior, calculate the total pressure if the 4
barriers separating the compartments are = 273 ×
removed. Assume that the volume of the 2
= 546 K
barriers is negligible. (R=0.082 atmL/Mol.K)
= 546–273
= 2730 C
145. Which among the following are true for an
irreversible isothermal expansion of an ideal
gas?
(i) W = –Q (ii) ∆U = 0
(iii) ∆H ≠ 0 (iv) ∆T = 0
(a) Only (i), (ii) & (iii)
(b) Only (i), (ii) & (iv)
(a) 1 atm (b) 2 atm (c) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(c) 2.3 atm (d) 3.2 atm (d) Only (i), (ii) (iii) & (iv)
AP EAPCET-6 Sep. 2021, Shift-II AP EAPCET 24.08.2021, Shift-I
Ans. (b) : The no, of moles can be calculated with the Ans. (b) :
help of ideal gas equation.
i.e, PV= nRT
PV 1.5 × 2 3
So, nHe = = = .....(1)
RT RT RT
2.5 × 4 10
nNe = = ......(2)
RT RT
1× 1 1 Since for an ideal gas the internal energy is proportional
nXe = = .....(3) to temperature. It follows that there is no change in the
RT RT internal energy of the gas during isothermal process.
Total no. of moles present if barrier is removed. Then, the first law of thermodynamics then becomes.
n = nHe + nNe + nXe …(3) ∆U = 0
3 10 1 1 ∆T = 0
= + + = (3 + 10 + 1)
RT RT RT RT W= – Q
The total pressure is given by, 146. Among the following. Van der Waal's constant
n Total RT ‘a’ would be maximum for ____.
P= (a) H2 (b) O2
V
(c) CH4 (d) NH3
14 RT
= AP EAPCET 24.08.2021, Shift-I
RT × V Ans. (d) : Van der Waal's constant ‘a’ is depend upon
14 the magnitude of intermolecular attractive forces with
= = 2 atm.
7 the gas. The Vander Waal’s force of attraction is more
in NH3.
144. A certain mass of a gas occupies a volume of 2l
at STP. To what temperature the gas must be 147. When an ideal gas expands isothermally from 5
3
heated to double its volume, keeping the m to 10 m3 at 25 oC against a constant
pressure constant? pressure of 107 N.m-2, then the work done on
(a) 100 K (b) 273 K the gas is__
(c) 273ºC (d) 546ºC (a) –100 MJ (b) –50 MJ
AP EAMCET (Engg.) -2007 (c) –0.5 MJ (d) –105 MJ
Ans. (c) : Given, AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-II
At STP, Pressure = 1 atm Ans. (b): Given that
T2 = 273 K Volume (∆V) = 10–5 = 5m3
And volume, V1 = 2 L Pressure (P) = 107 N.m–2
V2 = 2 V1 = 4L Temperature (T) = 25oC
From ideal gas equation, W=?
PV=nRT ∴W = – P∆V
At constant pressure and same moles = –107 × 5
Volume ∝ Temperature = –50 ×106 J or –50 MJ

148. What is the density of N2 gas at 227°C and 5.00 n NH3 = 0.1
atm pressure?
(R= 0.082 L atm K mol ) –1 –1 n He = 0.3
(a) 1.40g/mL (b) 2.81g/mL PTotal = 1 atm
(c) 3.41g/mL (d) 0.29g/mL
Karnataka NEET 2013 ( )
Partial pressure of Nitrogen p N2 = ?
Ans. (c) : PV = nRT Now, p N2 = PTotal × χ N2
w  Weight of the gas taken(w)  0.4
PV = RT  n =  p N 2 = 1×
M  Mol.mass of gas (M)  0.2 + 0.4 + 0.1 + 0.3
w RT 0.4
P= × p N2 =
M V 1
ρRT  Mass  p N2 = 0.4atm
P=  Density = Volume 
M 152. What are the conditions under which the
PM relation between volume (V) an number of
ρ= moles (n) of gas is plotted?
RT
(P = pressure, T= temperature)
5 × 28 (a) Constant P and T (b) Constant T and V
= = 3.41g / mL (c) Constant P and V (d) Constant n and V
0.0821× 500
149. The following graph illustrates
Ans. (a) : According to Avogadro's law at constant
pressure and temperature volume of a gas is directly
proportional to number of moles of a gas.
153. What is the density (in g.L–1) of CO2 at 400 K
and exerting a pressure of 0.0821 atm?
(R = 0.0821 L atm mol–1 K–1)
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.11
(a) Dalton’s law (b) Charles’ law (c) 2.5 (d) 44
(c) Boyle’s law (d) Gay-Lussac’s law. AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2002
COMEDK 2017 Ans. (b) : Given,
Ans. (b) : Charles’ law relates volume and temperature T = 400 K
of a gas. P = 0.0821 atm
150. Containers A and B have same gases. Pressure, R = 0.0821 Latm mol–1K–1
volume and temperature of A are all twice as ρ = ? (g/L)
that of B, then the ratio of number of molecules Now, from the ideal gas equation – we get
of A and B are PV = nRT
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 w
(c) 1:4 (d) 4:1 or PV = RT
M
COMEDK 2018
w
Ans. (b) : PA VA = n A RTA and PB VB = n B RTB or P= RT
M×V
PA VA 2PB × 2VB ρ
nA RTA 2TB or P = RT
= = =2 M
n B PB VB PB × VB PM
RTB TB or ρ=  M CO2 = 44 
RT
Thus, number of molecules are also in the ratio 2:1.
0.0821× 44
151. In a flask of ‘V’ litres, 0.2 moles of O2, 0.4 or ρ=
moles of N2, 0.1 moles of NH3 and 0.3 moles of 0.0821 × 400
He gases are present at 27°C. If total pressure ρ = 0.11 g/L
exerted by these non-reacting gases is 1 atm,
154. Which of the following mixture form an ideal
the partial pressure exerted by N2 gas is
(a) 0.4 atm (b) 0.3 atm solution ?
(c) 0.2 atm (d) 0.1 atm (a) CCl4 + C7 H8
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2008 (b) CHCl3 + C6 H 6
Ans. (a) : Given data: (c) H 2 O + CH3OH
n O2 = 0.2
(d) n − C6 H14 + n − C7 H16
n N 2 = 0.4 TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 06.08.2021

Ans. (d): An ideal solution obeys Raoult's law at all Ans. (c) : By Ideal gas equations –
temperatures and pressures. Q PV = nRT
The solute-solute and solvent-solvent interactions are PV
almost similar to solute-solvent interactions. No or n=
association or dissociation takes place. It does not form RT
an azeotrope mixture. w PV
or =
Benzene + toluene M RT
n-hexane + n-heptane ρ PV
Ethyl bromide + ethyl iodide since =
M RT
155. The following graph indicates the system
ρRT
containing 1 mole of gas involving various or M=
steps. When it moves from z to x, the type of P
undergoing process is 1.24 × 0.0821× 273
or M=
1
M = 27.79  28
Hence, 28 the atomic mass is CO.
So (c) is correct.
158. A plot of volume of the gas Versus T (K) is
shown below : Which of the option is correct
(a) Cyclic (b) Isothermal
for the plot?
(c) Isochoric (d) Isobaric
Ans. (d): At X → Temperature (T1) = 300K, Volume
(V1) = 20L, Pressure (P1) = ?
At Z → Temperature (T2) = 600K, Volume (V2) = 40L,
Pressure = P2
P1V1 P2 V2
∴ =
T1 T2
P1 V2 × T1 (a) P1 < P2 < P3
= (b) P3 < P2 < P1
P2 T2 × V1
(c) P1 = P2 ≠ P3
40 × 300 (d) P1 = P2 = P3 = 0 at 273 K
=
600 × 20 TS EAMCET 04.08.2021, Shift-I
P1 = P2 Ans. (a) : According to Boyle's law state that the
So, process is isobaric volume of gas at constant temperature varies inversely
with the pressure exerted on it.
156. A balloon filled with an air sample occupies 3 L
volume at 35°C. On lowering the temperature 1
V∝
to T, the volume decreases to 2.5L. The P
temperature T is?
(a) 16°C (b) –16°C Hence, this plot indicate P1 < P2 < P3.
(c) 24°C (d) –20°C 159. Five moles of an ideal gas at 293 K is expanded
TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 06.08.2021 isothermally from an initial pressure of 2.1
Ans. (b): Given that, V1 = 3L, T1 = 35 + 273 = 308K MPa to 1.3 MPa against at constant external
V2 = 2.5L, T2 = ? pressure 4.3 MPa. The heat transferred in this
process is kJ mol–1. (Rounded-off to the
V2 T2
According to Charle's law, = nearest integer)
V1 T1 [Use R = 8.314 J mol–1K–1]
2.5 × 308 JEE Main 25.02.2021, Shift-II
T2 =
3 Ans. (3): Given:– No. of moles = 5
T2 = 256.67K T = 293 k
T2 = −16.33°C P1 = 2.1 MPa
P2 = 1.3 MPa
T2 = 256.67 – 273 Pext = 4.3 MPa
T2 = − 16°C We know that, for isothermal irreversible expansion,
157. Which gas has a density of 1.24 g/L at 0oC and W = –Pext (∆V)
1 atm pressure? Q PV = nRT 
(a) O2 (b) CH4  
= – Pext (V2 – V1)  nRT 
(c) CO (d) CO2  V =
TS EAMCET 05.08.2021, Shift-I P 

 5 × R × 293 5 × R × 293  Ans. (1) : Given that,
= − 4.3  −  P (V – b) = RT
 1.3 2.1
PV – Pb= RT
4.3 × 5 × 8.314 × 293 × 0.8 Dividing RT both side, we get
=−
1.3 × 2.1 PV Pb
= −15.34 kJ – =1
RT RT
For isothermal process, ∆U = 0 PV Pb
From first law of thermodynamics = 1+
RT RT
Q=–w
Pb  PV 
Q = – (– 15.34kJ) Z= 1+ Qz = 
Q = 15.34 kJ (for 5 moles) RT  RT 
15.35 dZ b
∴ Q/mole = ≈ 3kJmol-1 =0+
5 dP RT
160. The number of chlorine atoms in 20mL of Therefore,
chlorine gas at STP is ________ 1021. (Round b Xb
=
off to the Nearest Integer). RT RT
[Assume chlorine is an ideal gas at STP X=1
R=0.083 L bar mol–1 K–1 , NA=6.023×1023] Since, the value of X=1.
JEE Main 17.03.2021, Shift-II 163. Assertion: At low pressure and high temperature,
Ans. (1) : some gases behave as ideal gas.
Given that, Volume of Cl2= 20 mL Reason: At low temperature and high pressure,
Gas constant (R)= 0.083 L bar mol–1K–1 real gases behave as ideal gas.
Avogadro's no. (NA)=6.023×1023 (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Now, from ideal gas equation- Reason is the correct explanation of
PV=nRT Assertion.
N (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
or PV = × RT Reason is not the correct explanation of
6.023 ×1023 Assertion.
PV (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
or N = × 6.023 × 1023 (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
RT
incorrect.
1× 20 × 10 –3 (L) × 6.023 ×1023
N= AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Evening)
0.083(Lbar mol –1K –1 ) × 273(K) Ans. (c): Real gases does not follow kinetic gas
N = 5.3×1020 assumption, kinetic gas equation and gas law's.
Cl atom =2×5.3× 1020 = 1.02×1021≈1×1021. According to kinetic gas assumption ideal gas has no
161. 3.12g of oxygen is absorbed on 1.2 g of intermolecular forces of attraction and volume occupied
platinum metal. The volume of oxygen by then are negligible. But real gases have
absorbed per gram of the absorbent at 1 atm intermolecular forces of attraction and have some
and 300 K in L is _______. [R=0.0821 L atm K– volume.
1
mol–1] For real gas, Van der Waal's gas equation are
JEE Main 26.02.2021, Shift-I  an 2 
3.12gm  P +  ( V − nb ) = nRT
Ans. (2) : Moles of O2= = 0.0975  V2 
32 At low pressure and high temperature real gas behave as
∴ PV = nRT ideal gas equation. Because when pressure decreases
nRT volume increases than correction terms is negligible.
Volume of O 2 = At low pressure, volume increases
P
 an 2 
=
0.0975 × 0.082 × 300
= 2.4L  P + 2  ( V − nb ) = nRT
1  V 
Therefore, volume of O2 absorbed per gm of platinum an 2
Both and nb correction terms are neglected.
V2
2.4
(Pt)= =2 So, real gas follow ideal gas equation, PV = nRT
1.2 But at low temperature and high pressure real gases
162. A certain gas obeys P(Vm – b)=RT. The value of doesn't behave like ideal gas.
 ∂Z  xb 164. Assertion: The pressure of a fixed amount of an
  is ideal gas is proportional to its temperature.
 ∂P T RT. Reason: Frequency of collision and their
The value of x is ________ . impact both increase in proportion to the
JEE Main 26.02.2021, Shift-I square root of temperature.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and 167. Assertion: At critical temperature liquid passes
the Reason is the correct explanation of into gaseous state imperceptibly and
Assertion. continuously.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason: The density of liquid and gaseous
Reason is not the correct explanation of phase is equal to critical temperature.
Assertion. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. the Reason is the correct explanation of
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are Assertion.
incorrect. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
AIIMS-27 May, 2018 (E) Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
Ans. (b): From ideal gas equation PV = nRT (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
According to gay Lussac's law, pressure is directly (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
proportional to temperature at constant volume. incorrect.
P∝T AIIMS-2017
So, Assertion is correct. Ans. (a): At critical temperature, density of liquid phase
Collision frequency is depends upon the root mean is equal to density of gaseous phase because of this
square velocity ( Urms ) which is directly proportional to liquid converted into gaseous state imperceptibly and
the square root of temperature. continuously. Therefore, both assertion and reason are
Urms ∝ T correct and reason is correct explosion of assertion
SO, Reason is also correct but it is not correct 168. In van der Waal's equation at constant
explanation of assertion. temperature of 300 K, a=1.4 atm Lt2 mol−2,
165. At what temperature, the rate of effusion of N2 V=100mL, n=1 mol, what is pressure of gas?
would be 1.625 times than that of SO2 at 50oC? (a) 42 atm (b) 210 atm
(a) 110 K (b) 173 K (c) 500atm (d) 106 atm
(c) 373 K (d) 273 K AIIMS-26 May, 2018 (M)
BITSAT 2016 Ans. (d): Given:- Temperature (T) = 300 K
a = 1. 4 atm Lt2 mol–2
Ans.(c): T2 = 273 + 50 = 323k
V = 100 mL = 0. 1 L
3RT N = 1 mole
r ∝ U and U =
M Van der Waal's equation,
 an 2 
 P − 2  ( V ) = nRT
r1 TM
∴ = 1 2 or V 
r2 T2 M1 
rN2 T1 × 64 on substituting values in above equation
= = 1.625
 1.4 × (1) 
2
rSO2 323 × 28
P −  ( 0.1) = 1× 0.082 × 300
 ( 0.1) 
2
or T1 = 373 K

166. Assertion: Gases do not liquefy above their critical P = 106 atm
temperature, even on applying high pressure. 169. The gas with the highest critical temperature is
Reason: Above critical temperature, the (a) H2 (b) He
molecular speed is high and intermolecular (c) N2 (d) CO2
attractions cannot hold the molecules together AIIMS-2014
because they escape due to high speed.
Ans. (d) : Temperature below which gas can be
liquefied by application of pressure is known as critical
the Reason is the correct explanation of temperature (Tc). Critical temperature depends on the
Assertion. intermolecular force of attraction of molecules. Higher
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but the attraction force greater the critical temperature.
Reason is not the correct explanation of CO2 molecule is slightly polar so, it's critical
Assertion. temperature is highest.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. 170. X mL of H2 gas effuses through a hole in a
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are container in 5 seconds. The time taken for the
incorrect. effusion of the same volume of the gas specified
AIIMS-2016 below under identical condition is
Ans. (a): The temperature below which gas can be (a) 10 seconds: He (b) 20 seconds: O2
liquefied by application of pressure is known as critical (c) 25 seconds: CO (d) 55 seconds: CO2
temperature. Above critical temperature gases do not AIIMS-2012
liquefied even after applying high pressure because Ans. (b): Effusion is the property of flow of gaseous
their molecular speed increases and intermolecular force molecules from high concentration to low concentration
of attraction cannot hold the molecules together from a pin hole with external pressure.
According to Graham's law of diffusion, Ans. (a): The property of spontaneous flow of gaseous
1 molecules from high concentration to low concentration
Rate of diffusion / effusion ∝ without external pressure is known as diffusion. In
M.wt. diffusion, membrane or bulks flow is absent molecules
VO2 are diffused in small amount.
rO2 ( M.wt.)H2 t ( M.wt.)H2 174. Van der Waal's equation;
= ⇒ O2 =  a 
rH2 ( M.wt.)O2 VH2 ( M.wt.)O2  P + V 2  ( V - b ) = nRT is applicable for:
t H2  
(a) ideal gas (b) non- ideal gas
V (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these
t O2 2 AIIMS-1998
= Ans. (b): Van der Waal's equation
V 32
 a 
 P + V 2  ( V - b ) = nRT
5
5 2 1
= = is only applicable for non-ideal gas.
t O2 16 4 Non-ideal gases does not follow kinetic theory of gases
time (TO2 ) = 5 × 4 =20 seconds or gas's law. Two major corrections are required for
non-ideal gases.
171. The rate of diffusion of SO2,CO2,PCl3 and SO3 (i) The intermolecular forces of attraction between
are in the following order molecules is not negligible.
(a) PCl3> SO3>SO2>CO2 (ii) The volume of molecule is not negligible in
(b) CO2>SO2>PCl3>SO3 comparison of total volume of gas.
(c) SO2>SO3>PCl3>CO2 175. Among the following the maximum deviation
(d) CO2>SO2>SO3>PCl3 from ideal gas behavior is expected from ___
AIIMS-2013 (a) He(g) (b) CH4(g)
1 (c) NH3(g) (d) H2(g)
Ans. (d): Rate of diffusion ( rd ) ∝
Molar mass AP EAPCET 19-08-2021, Shift-II
Ans. (c) : The deviation from the ideal gas depends on
Molar mass of SO 2 = 64 g / mol
the pressure and temperature. NH3is most readily
Molar mass of SO3 = 80 g / mol liquefiable gas out of given gases in the above.
Molar mass of CO 2 = 44 g / mol Since, it has the strongest intermolecular attraction forces.
Molar mass of PCl3 = 137.3 g/mol 176. Helium gas at 1 atm and SO2 at 2 atm pressure,
Order of rate of diffusion is temperature being the same, are released
CO2 > SO2 > SO3 > PCl3 separately at the same moment into 1 m long
evacuated tubes of equal diameters. If helium
172. Which equation shows correct from of
reaches the other end of the tube in t s, what
Berthelot equation.
distance, SO2 would traverse in the same time
 a  interval in the other tube?
2 (
(a)  P +  V − b ) = RT (a) 25 cm (b) 50 cm
 T ( V + C ) 
 (c) 60 cm (d) 75 cm
 a  SRMJEEE – 2007
(b)  P +
2 (
 V − b ) = RT
 T ( V − C )  Ans. (b) :
 
 a  Given, PHe = 1atm, PSO2 = 2 atm, t He = t SO2 = t
2 (
(c)  P + V − b ) = RT
 TV  distance = 1m = 100 cm, M SO2 = 64, M He = 21
 a 
(d)  P +  ( V + b ) = RT 100
 TV 2  rHe t P MSO2
AIIMS-2000 ∴ = He = He
rSO2 X PSO2 M He
Ans. (c): In Berthelot equation only pressure correction
is changed from Van der Waal's equation while volume t SO 2
is same. 100 t 1 64
Berthelot equation, ∴ × =
t x 2 4
 a 
 P + ( V − b ) = RT ⇒ x = 50 cm
 TV 2 
177. At 1 atm pressure, 0.5 g of a gas has the volume
173. The transport of matter in the absence of bulk of 0.1 L at 300 K, Gas constant R = 0.0821 L.
flow is known as: atm K–1 mol-1. Find the molar mass of the gas.
(a) diffusion (b) transfusion (a) 112 (b) 24.6
(c) translation (d) rotation (c) 123.1 (d) 49.2
AIIMS-1999 SRMJEEE – 2013
Ans. (c) : Given, P = 1atm R = 0.0821 L.atmk–1 mol-1 0.33
 1   10 
W = 0.5g M=? =
   
V = 0.1L  2   V2 
T = 300K 3
 1  10
Now, From the ideal gas equation–   =
PV = nRT where – n = no. of moles  2  V2
PV V2 = 10×8 = 80 Litre.
or n=
RT 180. The pressure exerted by 6.0g of methane gas in
WRT a 0.03m3 vessel at 129°C is
or M= (Atomic masses : C = 12.01, H = 1.01 and R =
PV 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
−1 −1
0.5(g) × 0.0821(L.atmk mol ) × 300(k) (a) 215216 Pa (b) 13409 Pa
M=
l(atm) × (0.1) L (c) 41648 Pa (d) 31684 Pa
M = 123.15g/mol VITEEE- 2012
178. A gaseous mixture contains 2 moles of A, 3 Ans. (c) : Given:–
moles of B. 5 moles of C and 10 moles of D Weight in gram of methane = 6.0 gram
contained in a vessel. If the gases are ideal and Molecular weight of methane (CH4) = 1 × 12 + 4 × 1
the partial pressure of C is 1.5 atm, then the = 16 gram/mole
partial pressure of B will be _____ T = 129°C
(a) 1.5 atm (b) 0.6 atm = 129 + 273 = 402K
(c) 0.9 atm (d) 1.66 atm From, ideal gas equation,
AP- EAPCET- 07-09-2021, Shift-I nRT W RT
PV = nRT ⇒ P = = ×
Ans. (c) : Given, V M V
Mole of A = 2 6 8.314 × 402
Mole of B = 3 P= × = 41648 Pa
16 0.03
Mole of C = 5
Mole of D = 10 181. A bubble of air underwater at temperature
Partial pressure of C = 1.5 atm 15°C and the pressure 1.5 bar. If the bubble
rises to the surface where the temperature is
Partial pressure of B = ?
25°C and the pressure is 1.0 bar, what will
Moleof C
Partial pressure of C = × Total pressure happen to the volume of the bubble?
Total mole (a) Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.6
5 (b) Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.1
1.5 = × Total pressure (c) Volume will become smaller by a factor of
20
0.70
Total pressure = 6atm (d) Volume will become greater by a factor of 2.9
Moleof B VITEEE- 2012
Now, Partial pressure of B = × Total pressure Ans. (a) : According to Ideal gas equation:-
Total mole
P1V1 P2 V2
3
= × 6 = 0.9atm =
20 T1 T2
179. When 1 mole of CO2(g) occupying volume 10L Q T1 = 15°C and T2 = 25°C
at 27°C is expanded under adiabatic condition, 1.5 × V1 1.0 × V2 
⇒ =  = 15 + 273 = 25 + 273
temperature falls to 150 K. Hence, final volume 288 298 
is  = 288K = 298 K
(a) 5 L (b) 20 L V 1.0 × 288
(c) 40 L (d) 80 L ⇒ 1 =
V2 298 × 1.5
VITEEE-2013
Ans. (d) : For adiabatic condition – 1.5× V1 × 298
V2 =
γ−1 288
T2  V1 
=  V2 447
T1  V2  =
V1 288
Q CO2 is triatomic gas
∴ γ = 1.33 V2
= 1.55
Given, T1 = 300 K, T2 = 150 K, V1 = 10 L, V2 = ? V1
1.33−1
 150   10  V2 = 1.55 V1
 =  i.e., volume of bubble will be 1.55 times of initial
 300   V2 
volume of bubble.

182. When ideal gas expands in vacuum, the work Therefore,
done by the gas is equal to
(a) PV (b) RT
(c) 0 (d) nRT
VITEEE- 2006
R [ P1T2 − P2 T1 ]
Ans. (c) : Wirr = −Pext
P1P2
During expansion in vaccum Pext = 0 184. One mole of an ideal gas expands at a constant
∴ work done = 0. temperature of 300 K from an initial volume of
183. The ideal gas equation, PV = nRT, can be 10 liter to a final volume of 20 liter. The work
M done in expanding the gas is
written in terms of density, ρ, and ρ/P = .
RT (a) 750 Joule (b) 1726 Joule
The graph between ρ/P against P is given by (c) 1500 Joule (d) 3456 Joule
AMU-2011
Ans. (b) : Given :– T = 300 K
(a) N = 1 mole
V1 = 10 L
V2 = 20 L
Work done in isothermal process,
V
W = nRT log10 2
V1
(b)
20
= 1 × 8.3 ×300 ×2.303 log10
10
= 1725.93 J ≈ 1726 J
185. The ratio of rates of diffusion of hydrogen
chloride and ammonia gases is
(a) 1:1.46 (b) 1:2.92
(c)
(c) 1.46:1 (d) 1:0.73
AMU – 2010
Ans. (a) : r1 = rate of diffusion of HCl
r2 = Rate of diffusion of NH3
M1 = Molecular mass of HCl
M2 = Molecular mass of NH3
(d)
r1 M2 17
= = = 0.466 = 1 : 1.46
r2 M1 36.5
186. An ideal gas is undergoing from an initial

AMU-2013 volume, isothermal and adiabatic expansion
Ans. (a) : From ideal gas equation, from an initial volume, Vi and pressure, Pi to a
PV = nRT common final volume of Vf, then
For 1 mole, PV = RT (a) Padiabatic < Pisothermal : Vadiabatic > Visothermal
Mass(M) (b) Padiabatic < Pisothermal : Vadiabatic < Visothermal
Density ( ρ ) = (c) Padiabatic > Pisothermal : Vadiabatic > Visothermal
Volume(V)
(d) Padiabatic > Pisothermal : Vadiabatic < Visothermal
Mass(M)
Volume (V) = AMU–2006
Density(P)
On substituting the value of volume (V) in ideal gas Slope of isothermal & adiabatic process are,
equation, we get
 dp  −p  dp  p
ρ M   =   = −γ
=  dv iso v  dv  Ad v
P RT
ρ  dp   dp 
= Constant ∴   > 
P  dv  Ad  dv iso
ρ ∝P Case-I: Common volume Vf

For expansion, According to ideal gas equation the behavior of gases
will be same at any specific condition. Therefore, the
behavior of gas is also same in adiabatic and isothermal
process so, there is no change in ideal gas equation in
both the process.
190. If both oxygen and helium gases are at the
same temperature, the rate diffusion of O2 is
very close to :
(a) 4 times that of He (b) 2 times that of He
∴ Piso > PAd (c) 0.35 times that of He (d) 8 times that of He
Case-II: Common pressure Pf BCECE-2006
For expansion, Ans. (c) : According to graham's law, rate of diffusion
is inversely proportional to square root of molecular
mass.
1
rd ∝
Molar mass
( rd )O ( M.Wt )H
2
= e
( rd )H ( M.Wt )O
∴ Viso > VAd e 2
M. Wt. Of helium = 4
187. 7.5 g of gas occupies 5.6 L at STP. The gas is
(atomic weights of C, N and O are 12, 14, 16, M. Wt. Of O2 = 32
respectively) 4
(a) NO (b) N2O ( rd )O =× ( rd )H
32
2 2
(c) CO (d) CO2 =0.35 × ( rd )H

Assam CEE-2020 2
Ans. (a) : One mole of Gas at STP occupies 22.4 L Rate of diffusion of O2 is 0.35 time that of He.
Thus, 5.6 L of Gas at STP contains 0.25 Moles 191. 2g of O2 at 27 oC and 760 mm of Hg pressure
Wt.in grams has volume :
No of moles = (a) 1.4 L (b) 2.8 L
Mol Wt (c) 11.2 L (d) 22.4 L
7.5 BCECE-2005
0.25 =
m Ans. (a) : Given : – mass of O2 (M) = 2g
m = 30 T = 270 C = 300 K
P = 760 mm of Hg
The Gas is NO. Mass of O 2
188. Two litres of an ideal gas at a pressure of 10 mole of O2 = Molecular mass of O
2
atm expands isothermally into a vacuum until
its total volume is ten litres During this process 2 1
= =
(a) work is done; no heat is absorbed 32 16
(b) work is done; heat is emitted Volume of O2 at NTP = mole of O2 × 22.4L
(c) no work is done; heat is emitted 1
(d) no work is done; no heat is absorbed Volume of O2 = × 22.4 L
16
Assam CEE-2019
Ans. (d) : For isothermal process, = 1. 4 L
W=Q 192. A gas has a vapour density 11.2. The volume
Q For expansion of vacuum, W = 0 occupied by 1g of the gas at NTP is :
(a) 1 L (b) 11.2 L
∴ W=0
(c) 22.4 L (d) 4 L
189. Gas equation PV = nRT is obeyed by ideal gas BCECE-2004
in
Molar mass
(a) adiabatic process (b) isothermal process Ans. (a) : Vapour density =
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above 2
BCECE-2007 Molar mass = Vapour density × 2
= 11.2 × 2
Ans. (c) : Ideal gas in adiabatic and in isothermal
= 22.4
process can obeyed gas equation PV = nRT
In isothermal process the temperature of the system is Moles = Weight
remain constant while in adiabatic process, no exchange Molar mass
of heat occurs between the system and the surrounding, 1
So q = o Mole =
22.4
Volume of gas = mole × 22.4 L Given:–
1 T = 400 K
= × 22.4 L R = 2 cal
22.4
=1L V2 1
=
193. If the pressure and absolute temperature of 2L V1 10
of carbon dioxide gas are doubled, the value of n = 1 mole
the gas would become 1
(a) 2L (b) 4L ∴ W = – 1 × 2 × 400 × 2.303 log10
10
(c) 5L (d) 7L = 1.8424 k cal
BCECE-2011 = 1.84 k cal
Ans. (a) : Given : – P1 = P
196. Volume of an ideal gas is decreased by 5% at
P2 = 2P constant temperature such that there is an
T1 = T increase in pressure by x %. The increase in
T2 = 2T pressure (in%) will be :
V1 = 2L (a) 5% (b) 4.7%
Find V2 (c) 5.26% (d) 95%
Form ideal gas equation, BCECE-2017
PV = nRT
Ans. (c) : Given : – If V1 = 100V then V2 = 95 V
P1V1 P2 V2
= Because ∆V is decreased by 5%.
T1 T2 According to ideal gas equation.
P × 2L 2T PV = nRT
V2 = × P 1V 1 = P 2 V 2
T 2P
V2 = 2L P1 V2 95V
= = =
95
194. An ideal mono-atomic gas follows the path P2 V1 100V 100
ABCD. Then, the work done during the P1 = 95P, P2 = 100P
complete cycle is–  P −P 
Percentage change in pressure =  2 1  × 100
 P1 
 100 − 95 
=   × 100
 95 
5
= ×100
95
= 5. 26 %
1 197. In a closed system, A(s)  2B(g) + 3C(g), if
(a) zero (b) − PV
2 partial pressure of C is doubled, then partial
(c) –PV (d) −2PV pressure of B will be
BCECE-2015 (a) 2 2 times the original value
Ans. (c) : Work done during the complete cycle is equal
to area of the rectangle (A B C D). For clockwise cycle 1
(b) times the original value
take negative sign and for anti – clockwise take positive 2
sign. (c) 2 times the original value
Work done = – (Area of rectangle A B C D) 1
= –(length × breadth) (d) times the original value
2 2
= – PV
BITSAT 2016
195. A work is done on the system such that one
Ans. (d) : K p = ( PB ) × ( PC ) -----(i)
2 3
mole of an ideal gas at 400K is compressed
isothermally and reversibly to 1/10th of its
Again, ( PB ) × ( PC ) = PB1 ( ) × ( P ) ------(ii)
2 3
2 3
original volume. The amount of (use R = 2 in C1
cal) work done will be –
(a) 2.303 k-cal (b) 0.184 k-cal Given, PC1 = 2PC
(c) 1.84 k-cal (d) 4.60 k-cal From equation (i) and (ii) are equal,
BCECE-2017
( ) × ( 2P )
2
3
(PB)2 × (PC)3 = PB1
Ans. (c) : Work done for isothermal process is given by. C
( P ) ×( P ) = ( P ) × 8( P )
2
V 2 3 3
W = – nRT ln 2 B C B
1
C
V1
PB
V PB1 =
= – 2.303 × nRT log10 2 2 2
V1

198. The inversion temperature (Ti) for a gas is 202. For an ideal gas, number of moles per liter in
given by terms of its pressure P, temperature T and gas
(a) a/Rb (b) 2a/Rb constant R is
Rb 2Rb PT
(c) (d) (a) (b) PRT
a a R
BITSAT 2005 P RT
(c) (d)
Ans. (b) : Gases become cooler during Joule Thomson's RT P
expansion only if they are below a certain temperature [AIEEE 2002]
known as inversion temperature (Ti). Ans. (c) : From ideal gas equation,
2a PV = nRT
Ti = Where P is Pressure
Rb V is volume
199. The cooking time in a pressure cooker is less N is no. of moles
because : R is gas constant
(a) More heat is used T is temperature
(b) High pressure cooks the food
n
(c) The boiling point of water increases in the cooker Number of moles per liter   is
(d) Heat is uniformly distributed V
BITSAT 2009 n P
=
Ans. (c) : In pressure cooker, pressure is high thus, the V RT
boiling point of water increases, resulting cooking time 203. At a given temperature T, gases Ne, Ar, Xe and
is less than other open pots. Kr are found to deviate from ideal gas
200. One moles each of four ideal gases are kept as behaviour. Their equation of state is given as,
follows : RT
P= at T.
I. 1 L of gas (A) at 2 atm pressure V –b
II. 2.5 L of gas (B) at 2 atm pressure Here, b is the Vander Waal's constant. Which
III. 1.25 L of gas (C) at 2 atm pressure gas will exhibit steepest increase in the plot of Z
IV. 2.5 L of gas (D) at 2.5 atm pressure (compression factor) vs P?
(a) Xe (b) Ar
Which of the above gases is kept at highest
(c) Kr (d) Ne
temperature?
(JEE Main 2019, 9 April Shift-II)
(a) Gas (A) (b) Gas (B)
(c) Gas (C) (d) Gas (D) Ans. (a) : From given equation,
RT
BITSAT 2017 P=
Ans. (d) : Q For ideal gas, V−b
PV = nRT P ( V − b ) = RT
PV At high pressure Vander Waal’s equation is converted
or T = into above equation
nR
Q n = 1 = constant PV – Pb = RT
Dividing by RT on both side
R = 0.083 = constant
∴ T ∝ PV
Thus,
The gas that shows highest product of P × V, has high
temperature.
For,
(A) P × V = 1 × 2 = 2
(B) P × V = 2 × 2.5 = 5
(C) P × V = 2 × 1.25 = 2.5 PV Pb
(D) P × V = 2.5 × 2.5 = 6.25 − =1
RT RT
Hence, gas (D) show highest temperature. PV
201. The temperature, at which a gas shows Z=
RT
maximum ideal behaviour, is known as Pb
(a) Boyle's temperature ∴ Z = 1+
(b) Inversion temperature RT
y = mx + c
(c) Critical temperature Z > 1 and
(d) Absolute temperature Z ∝ b.
CG PET -2009 As the size of atom increases volume occupied by gas
Ans. (a) : The temperature at which a gas shows increases compressibility factor (z) also increases.
maximum ideal behavior for considerable range of Therefore, Xe has greater size and greater volume so, it
pressure in known as Boyle's temperature. will exhibit steepest increase in the plot of Z v/s P.

204. For one mole of an ideal gas, which of these 206. A home owner uses 4.00×103 m3 of methane
statements must be true? (CH4) gas, (assume CH4 is an ideal gas). In a
(A) U and H each depends only on Year to heat his home. Under the pressure of
temperature. 1.0 atm and 300K, mass of gas used is x×105 g.
The value of x is……. (Nearest integer)
(B) Compressibility factor Z is not equal to 1.
(Given, R = 0.083 L atm K-1 mol-1)
(C) Cp.m – Cv.m = R [JEE Main 2021, 25 July Shift-I]
(D) dU = CvdT for any process. Ans. (26) : For ideal gas equation,
(a) (B), (C) and (d) (b) (A) and (C) PV = nRT
(c) (A), (C) and (D) (d) (C) and (D) PV
[JEE Main 2020, 4 Sep Shift-I] n=
RT
Ans. (c) : For real gases, Given – P = 1 atm
U = f ( T,V ) V = 4 × 103 m3 = 4 × 103 × 1000 L
T = 300 K
H = f ( T, P ) R = 0.083 L atm K-1 mol-1
But for ideal gas, U = f (T) 1× 4 × 103 × 1000
n=
H = f (T) 300 × 0.083
Hence, U and H each depends only on temperature. n = 0.1606 × 106 mole
For ideal gas compressibility factor z is equal to 1. Mass = Mole × Molar mass
C PM − C VM = R and = 0.1606 × 106 × 16
= 26 × 105 g
dU = C V dT for any process is also correct for ideal x = 26
gases. 207. Which one of the following is the correct PV vs
P plot at constant temperature for an ideal gas?
205. A certain gas obeys P(Vm–b) = RT. (P and V stand for pressure and volume of the
gas respectively)
 ∂Z  xb
The value of   is .
 ∂P T RT (a) (b)
The value of x is…….
(Z=compressibility factor)
[JEE Main 2021, 26 Feb Shift-I]
Ans. (1) : From Vander Waal’s equation
 an 2 
 P − 2  ( Vm − nb ) = nRT
 V m (c) (d)
At high pressure,
P ( Vm − nb ) = nRT
For 1 mole,
P ( Vm − b ) = RT
PVm – Pb = RT [JEE Main 2021, 31 Aug Shift-I]
Dividing RT on both side Ans. (a) : From ideal gas equation.
PVm Pb PV = nRT
− =1
RT RT At constant temperature
PVm PV = Constant
Z= 1
RT P∝ (Boyle’s law)
Pb V
Z = 1+ Therefore, in PV v/s P plot at constant temperature for
RT
an ideal gas gives.
 ∂Z  b
  = +0
 ∂P T RT
b xb
∴ =
RT RT
∴ x=1
208. Two flasks I and II shown below are connected Ans. (c) : Osmotic pressure (π) of solution is
by a valve of negligible volume.
π = CRT
Where, C = Concentration of solution
R = gas constant
T = Temperature
Mass m
C= =
Molar mass × volume MV
When the valve is opened, the final pressure of m
the system in bar is x×10–2. The value of x π= RT
MV
is………….(Integer answer)
[Assume, Ideal gas, 1 bar = 105 Pa, molar mass 300 × 10−3 × 8.2 ×10−2 × 300
–1 –1 –1 1.23 =
of N2 = 28.0 g mol ; R = 8.31 J mol K ] M × 100
[JEE Main 2021, 27 Aug Shift-II] M = 60 g
Ans. (84) : Given:- TI = 300 K, TII = 60 K
VI = 1L VII = 2 L 210. Which of the following pair of gases will diffuse
MI = 2.8 g MII = 0.2 g at the same rate through a porous plug?
No. of moles in both No. of moles on (a) CO, NO 2 (b) NO, C2H6
(c) NO2, CO2 (d) NH3, PH3
Container when = both container when J & K CET-(2011)
valve is closed valve is opend. Ans. (b) : According to Graham's law,
( n I + n II )initial = ( n I + n II )final 1
Rate of diffusion ∝
Let us assume that the final temperature of system T Molar mass
(300 > T > 60)
Molar mass of compounds are,
Heat lost by N2 in container I = n I c m ( 300 − T )
CO = 28
Heat gained by N2 in container II = n II c m ( T − 60 ) NO2 = 46
Heat lost by N 2 = Heat lost by N 2 in NO = 30
in container I container II C2H6 = 2×12 + 6 × 1 = 30
CO2 = 44, NH3=17
n I c m ( 300 − T ) = n II c m ( T − 60 )
PH3 = 31
Molar heat capacity for N2 in both the container is Therefore, rate of diffusion for NO and C2H6 is same
same. because they have same molar mass.
 2.8   0.2 
  ( 300 − T ) =   ( T − 60 ) 211. If the ratio of the rates of diffusion of two gases
 28   28  A and B is 4 : 1. Then the ratio of their
14 ( 300 − T ) = T − 60 ⇒ T = 284K densities in the same order is
Let final pressure be P, (a) 16 : 1 (b) 4 : 1
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 16
( n I + n II )final = 
0.2+2.8  3
= mol J & K CET-(2009)
 28  28
From ideal gas equation, Ans. (d) : According to Graham's law rate of
P ( VI + VII ) = ( VI + VII )final RT diffusion(r d ) is inversely proportional to square root of
density (ρ)
VI + VII = 3L = 3 ×10 −3 m3 1
3 8.31× 280 rd ∝
P= × Pa ρ
28 53 × 10−3
= 8.4 × 10 Pa ( rd )A ρB
= 0.84 × 105 × 10-5 bar =
-2 ( rd )B ρA
= 0.84 bar = 84 × 10 bar
ρA  ( rd )B   1 
2
x = 84 2
1
=     =
=
209. The osmotic pressure of a solution containing ρB  ( rd )A   4  16
300 mg of a non-volatile, non-ionising, and non-
associationg solute in 100 mL of water at 27 °C ρA :ρB =1:16
was found to be 1.23 atmosphere. The molar
mass of the solute in g mol is (R = 8.2 × 10 L 212. Identify the pair of gases that have equal rates
–1 –2
atm K–1 mol–1) of diffusion

(a) 40 (b) 120 (a) CO, NO (b) N2O, CO
(c) 60 (d) 180 (c) N2O, CO2 (d) CO2, NO2
J & K CET-(2016) J & K CET-(2008)
Ans. (c) : Rate of diffusion (rd) is inversely proportional (d) T = 273oC = 546 K, P = 2 atm
to square root of molar mass (M.M) 0.0821× 546
V= = 22.4 L
1 2
rd ∝ Hence, molar volume of CO2 is maximum at 127oC and
M.M
Rate of diffusion for two gases are equal when they 1 atm.
have same molar mass. Molar mass of NO2 and CO2 are 216. Measurement of the dry gas from the volume
same that 44. So, there rate of diffusion is also equal. of moist gas is based on
(a) Boyle’s law
213. A, B and C are ideal gases. Their molecular (b) Avogadro’s law
weights are 2, 4 and 28 respectively. The rate of (c) Gay Lussac’s law
diffusion of these gases follow the order (d) Dalton’s law of partial pressure
(a) C > A > B (b) C > B > A J & K CET-(2001)
(c) A = B = C (d) A > B > C
Ans. (d) : Dalton's law of partial pressure helps in
J & K CET-(2006) measurement of the dry gas from the volume of moist
Ans. (d) : According to Graham's law rate of diffusion gas.
is inversely proportional to molecular mass of gases. P(dry gas) = P(moist gas) – Aqueous Tension
1 217. The volume of a gas expands by 0.25 m3 at a
rd ∝
M.M constant pressure of 103 Nm–2. The workdone is
Hence, gases whose molecular mass is higher then its equal to
rate of diffusion lesser. The order of rate of diffusion is (a) 2.5 erg (b) 250 joule
A>B>C (c) 250 watt (d) 250 newton
J & K CET-(1999)
214. The rate of diffusion of a gas is proportional to Ans. (b) : Work done = –PdV
Given, Change in volume (dV) = 0.25 m3
(a) P / d (b) P / d Pressure (P) = 103 Nm–2
(c) P/d (d) P / d W = –103 × 0.25 Nm
J & K CET-(2004) = –250 Nm
Ans. (a) : According to Graham's law, rate of diffusion = –250 Joule.
(rd) is inversely proportional to square root of density of 218. An ideal gas is found to obey an additional law
gases. P2V= constant. The gas is initially at
temperature T and volume V. When is expands
1 1
rd ∝ = to a volume 2V, the temperature becomes.
density d (a) T/2 (b) 2T
At constant temperature, rate of diffusion is directly (c) 2 T (d) T / 2
proportional to pressure (P) and inversely proportional J & K CET-(1999)
to density (d) Ans. (c) : From ideal gas equation,
P PV = nRT
rd ∝
d nRT
P=
215. Molar volume of CO2 is maximum at V
(a) NTP (b) 0oC and 2.0 atm When ideal gas follow additional law,
o
(c) 127 C and 1atm (d) 273oC and 2.0 atm P2V = constant
J & K CET-(2004) P(PV) = constant
Ans. (c) : From ideal gas equation, Substituting the value of P and PV from above ideal gas
PV = nRT equation,
nRT nRT
V= (nRT) = constant
P V
For 1 mole ( nRT) 2
= constant
RT V
V=
P T2
R = 0.0821 L bar K–1 mol–1 = constant
V
(a) At, NTP, T = 273 K , P = 1 atm
(T1 )2 (T2 ) 2
0.0821× 273 =
V= = 22.4 L V1 V2
1
o
(b) T = 0 C = 273 K , P = 2 atm V2
T2 = × (T1 ) 2
0.0821× 273 V1
V= =11.4 L
2
o 2V
(c) T = 127 C = 400 K, P = 1 atm = ×T
0.0821× 400 V
V= = 32.84 L T2 = 2 T
1

219. At constant pressure, what would be the  V − V1 
percentage decreases in the density of an ideal Percentage of air escaped =  2  × 100
gas for a 10% increase in the temperature?  V2 
(a) 10% (b) 9.1% 5 
(c) 11% (d) 12.09%  3V−V
=  ×100
J & K CET-(1998)  5V 
Ans. (b) : From ideal gas equation,  3 
PV = nRT 2V 3
= × × 100
mass (m) 3 5V
PV = RT = 40%
molar mass (M)
221. A sample of methane gas occupying 0.50 m3
m PM volume is kept at 2.0× 102 kPa pressure and
density (ρ) = =
V RT 300 K temperature. The amount of methane
will be
1
ρ∝ (a) 20 mol (b) 25 mol
T (c) 30 mol (d) 40 mol.
It is given that, increase in temperature is 10% J & K CET-(1998)
Let T1 is 100 T and T2 = 110 T Ans. (d) : Given V = 0.5m3, P = 2×102 kPa=2×105Pa ,
ρ1 T2 110 T = 300K
= = n=?
ρ2 T1 100
ρ1 = 110ρ, ρ2 = 100ρ PV = nRT
 ρ2 − ρ1  PV 2 × 105 × 0.5
% change in density (ρ) =   × 100 n = =
 ρ1  RT 300 × 8.314
= 40 mol
 100ρ − 110ρ  222. Equal masses of SO2 and O2 are mixed in an
=  × 100
 110 ρ  empty container at 27oC. The total pressure
exerted by the gaseous mixture is 1 atm. The
−10 partial pressure exerted by SO2 gas is
= × 100
110 (a) 0.20 atm (b) 0.33 atm
= − 9.09% ≈ − 9.1% (c) 0.67 atm (d) 1 atm
J & K CET-(1997)
Where negative sign shows that on increasing
Ans. (b) :
temperature density decreases therefore percentage
Partial pressure of gas = Mole fraction × Total pressure
decrease in density is 9.1 %. P = X × PT
220. A flask containing air (open to atmosphere) is mass of of SO2 = mass of O2 = w
heated from 300 K to 500 K. The percentage of w / 64 1
air escaped to the atmosphere is mole fraction of SO2 = =
w w 3
(a) 66.6% (b) 16.6% +
64 32
(c) 33.3% (d) 40% PSO2 = X SO2 × PT
J & K CET-(1999)
1
Ans. (d) : Given, V1 = V PSO2 = × 1 atm = 0.33atm
3
T1 = 300K , T2 = 500K
223. An ideal gas expands in volume from 1×10−3 m3
V2 = ? to 1 × 10–2 m3 at 300 K against a constant
From ideal gas equation, pressure of 1 × 105 Nm–2. The work done is
PV = nRT (a) – 900 J (b) – 900 kJ
At constant pressure, V ∝ T (c) 270 kJ (d) 900 kJ
V JCECE - 2010
= constant Ans. (a) : Work done due to change in volume against
T constant pressure.
V1 V2 W = – P (V2 – V1)
=
T1 T2 = –1 × 105 Nm–2 (1 × 10–2 –1 × 10–3)m3
= – 900 Nm = – 900 J (1 Nm = 1 J)
500
V2 = V 224. 1L oxygen gas at STP will weigh
300 (a) 1.43 g (b) 2.24 g
5 (c) 11.2 g (d) 22.4 g
= V
3 JCECE - 2010

Ans. (a) : Given, volume of O2 = 1L (a) 4, 6 (b) 5, 5
Q 22.4 L of O2 at STP = 32 g (c) 2. 8 (d) 6, 4
32 JIPMER-2011
∴ 1 L of O2 at STP = g
22.4 Ans. (d) : Partial Pressure = Mole fraction × Total
= 1.43 g Pressure
225. At constant temperature, in a given mass of an 96
ideal gas 6
(a) the ratio of pressure and volume always Mole fraction of oxygen (XO) = 16 =
96 56 10
remains constant +
(b) volume always remains constant 16 14
(c) pressure always remains constant 56
(d) the product of pressure and volume always 14 4
remains constant Mole fraction of nitrogen (XN) = =
56 96 10
JCECE - 2011 +
Ans. (d) : At constant temperature, the product of 14 16
pressure and volume of a given mass of an ideal gas is Partial pressure of Oxygen = XO × PT
always constant. This is the statement of Boyle's law. 6
PV = constant (at T = constant) = × 10 = 6atm
10
226. For an ideal binary liquid solution with p 0x > p0y Partial pressure of nitrogen = XN × PT
in which relation between Xx (mole fraction of 4
X in liquid phase) and Yx (mole fraction of X = × 10 = 4atm
10
in vapour phase) is correct, Xy and Yy are mole
fraction of Y in liquid and vapour phase 228. The volume of a gas measured at 27 oC and 1
respectively atm pressure is 10L. To reduce the volume to
(a) Xx > Yx 2L at 1 atm pressure, the temperature required
(b) Xx = Yx is
Xx Y (a) 60 K (b) 75 K
(c) < x
Xy Yy (c) 150 K (d) 225 K
(d) X x , Yx, Xy and Yy cannot be correlated JIPMER-2008
JIPMER-2015 Ans. (a) : Given, T1 = 27oC = 300K, P1 = 1 atm
Ans. (c) : Given :- Px > Py
0 0 V1 = 10L, V2 = 2L, P2 = 1 atm , T2 = ?
From ideal gas equation, PV = nRT
According to Raoult’s law
At constant pressure,
Px = Px 0 X x = PT Vx ….(i)
V
Py = Py 0 X y = PT Vy ….(ii) = constant
T
Where Px 0 and Py 0 are pressure in pure form of x and y V1 V2
Or =
respectively. T1 T2
P 0 Xx 10 2
PT = x =
Yx 300 T 2
Py 0 X y T2 = 60 K
PT =
Yy 229. In an ideal gas equation which is constant?
0 (a) Temperature
P 0 X x Py X y
∴ x = (b) Pressure
Yx Yy (c) Volume
0
Px X y Yx (d) Universal gas constant
=
Py 0 X x Yy JIPMER-2019
Ans. (d) : Ideal gas equation is PV = nRT
Px 0 X y Yx
0
>1⇒ >1 Where,
Py X x Yy
P is pressure,
X x Yx V is Volume,
Therefore, <
X y Yy n is number of moles of gas,
227. 56 g of nitrogen and 96 g of oxygen are mixed T is temperature and
isothermally and at a total pressure of 10 atm. R is Universal gas constant.
The partial pressures of oxygen and nitrogen P,V,T and n are variables i.e., its values is changed but
(in atm) are respectively R is constant for all gases in ideal gas equation.

230. What is the value of γ for mono atomic gas According to the first law of thermodynamics,
(ideal gas)? q = ∆U – W = 0 – 965.84 cal
7 4 q = –965.84 cal
(a) (b) ∴ Heat is negative.
5 3
5 233. Temperature of a gas is t K. What would be the
(c) (d) None of these temperature at which volume and pressure,
2
JIPMER-2019 both will reduced to half of the initial values?
(a) t/2 (b) t/4
Cp (c) t/3 (d) t/8
Ans. (d) : γ =
Cv JIPMER-2016
 δU  p
Cv =  , Cp = C v + R Ans. (b) : Given T1 = tK, P1 = p, V1 = v, P2 = ,
 δT  2
3 v
For monoatomic gas, U = RT V2 = , T2 = ?
2 2
δ 3 From ideal gas equation,
C v =  RT  = R
3
PV = nRT
δT  2  2 PV
3 5 = constant
Cp = R + R = R T
2 2 P1V1 P2 V2
Cp (5 / 2)R 5 =
Now, γ= = = T1 T2
Cv (3/ 2)R 3
pv p / 2 × v / 2
231. 11.2 L of gas at STP weight 14g. =
t T2
The gas would be
(a) H2 (b) CO t
T2 = K
(c) B2H6 (d) All of these 4
JIPMER-2016 234. For an ideal gas, compressibility factor is
volume (a) 0 (b) 1
Ans. (b) : Moles = at STP and NTP
22.4 L (c) –1 (d) +2
11.2 L Karnataka-CET-2018
= = 0.5 mol Ans. (b) : Deviation of real gases from ideal gas
22.4 L behaviour is mathematically denoted by compressibility
weight factor (z).
Mole =
Molar mass For ideal gas.
weight PV = nRT
Molar = PV
mole =1
14 nRT
= = 28 PV
0.5 z= =1
Then, CO having molar mass 28. nRT
232. At 27ºC, one mole of an ideal gas is compressed Compressibility factor (z) = 1 for ideal gas.
isothermally and reversibly from a pressure of 235. In which one of the following, does the given
2atm to 10atm. amount of chlorine exert the least pressure in a
Choose the correct option from the following vessel of capacity 1 dm3 at 273 K?
(a) Change in internal energy is positive (a) 0.03555 g (b) 0.071g
(b) Heat is negative (c) 6.023 × 1021 molecules (d) 0.02 mol
(c) Work done is – 965.84 cal KARNATAKA-CET, 2010
(d) All are incorrect
Ans. (a) : Ideal gas equation is
JIPMER-2016
PV = nRT
Ans. (b) : For isothermal process,
When V and T are same,
∆u = 0
P∝n
P
Work done, w = –2.303nRT log10 1 Thus, when number of moles, i.e., n is least, it will exert
P2 least pressure.
n = 1 mole , T = 27°C = 300 K wt 0.0355
P1 = 2 atm , P2 = 10 atm , R = 2 Cal K-1 mol-1 (a) n = = = 1× 10−3 mole
2 mol.wt 35.5
w = –2.303 × 1 × 2 × 300 log10 0.071
10 (b) n = = 2 × 10 −3 mol
= +965.84 cal 35.5

number of molecules P1V1 P2 V2
(c) n = =
NA T1 T2
6.023 × 1021 PV 0.5P × V2
= = 0.01mol ∴ =
6.023 × 1023 T 2T
0.5× V2
Thus, 0.0355 g chlorine have the least no. of moles V=
that's why this will exert the least pressure. 2
236. For one mole of an ideal gas, increasing the 1
2V = × V2
temperature from 10oC to 20oC. 2
(a) increases the average kinetic energy by two 4V = V2
times
(b) increases the rms velocity by 2 times or V2 = 4V
(c) increases the rms velocity by two times 239. When a sample of gas is compressed at
(d) increases both the average kinetic energy and constant temperature from 15 atm to 60 atm,
rms velocity, but not significantly its volume changes from 76 cm3 to 20.50 m3.
KARNATAKA-CET, 2010 Which of the following statements are possible
Ans. (d) : Given, T1 = 273 + 10 = 283 K explanations of this behavior?
T2 = 273 + 20 = 293 K 1. The gas behaves non-ideally
2. The gas dimerises
3
Average Kinetic energy (KE) = KT 3. The gas is adsorbed into the vassel walls
2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(KE1 ) 283 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
= = 0.96
(KE 2 ) 293 (e) 3 only
Root mean square (rms) velocity, Kerala-CEE-2009
Ans. (d) : The given sample of gas have;
3RT
ν rms = P1 = 15 atm
M P2 = 60 atm
ν (rms)1 T V1 = 76 cm3 = 76 × 10–6 m3
= 1 V2 = 20.50 m3
ν (rms)2 T2
283 PV = nRT
= = 0.98
293 At constant temperature,
Thus, both average kinetic energy and root mean square PV = Constant
velocity increase but not significantly when temperature ⇒ P1V1 = P2V2 = Constant
is increased from 10oC to 20oC. Now, P1V1 = 15 × 76 × 10–6 m3
237. A gas deviates from ideal behavior at a high P2P2 = 60 × 20.50 m3
pressure because its molecules Here, P1V1 ≠ P2V2
(a) attract one another ∴ The gas behaves non-ideally.
(b) show the Tyndall effect
240. Which one of the following volume (V)
(c) have kinetic energy
temperature (T) plots represents the behavior
(d) are bound by covalent bonds
of one mole of an ideal gas at one atmospheric
KARNATAKA-CET, 2008
pressure?
Ans. (a) : At high pressure, the volume is decreased
appreciably, so the attractive forces become large and
the molecules are crowded together. Thus, pressure
correction is necessary and the gas deviates more from
ideal behaviour.
238. When the absolute temperature of ideal gas is
doubled and pressure is halved the volume of
gas
(a) will be half at original volume
(b) will be 4 times the original volume
(c) will be 2 times the original volume
(d) will be 1/4th times the original volume
Karnataka-CET-2021
Kerala-CEE-2005
Ans. (b) : Given that, T2 = 2T, P2 = 0.5P, V2 = ?
T1 = T, P1 = P, V1 = V
By using ideal gas equation–

242. Two vessels of volumes 16.4 L and 5 L contains
two ideal gases of molecular existence at the
respective temperature of 27 oC and 227 oC and
exert 1.5 and 4.1 atm. respectively. The ratio of
the number of molecules of the former to that
to the later is
(a) 2 (b) 1
1 1
(c) (d)
2 3
(e) 3
Kerala-CEE-2013
Ans. (a) :
I vessel II vessel
Volume VI = 16.4L VII = 5 L
Temperature TI = 27oC = TII = 227o =500 K
300K
Pressure PI = 1.5 atm PII = 4.1 atm
From ideal gas equation.
PV
PV =nRT ⇒n=
RT
n I PI VI TII
Kerala-CEE-2007 = ×
n II TI PII VII
Ans. (c) : At STP, 1 mole of gas occupies 22.4 L
1.5 ×16.4 500
volume at 1 atm pressure and 273 K temperature. = ×
From ideal gas equation 300 4.1× 5
PV = nRT nI
If n = 1 mole and at constant pressure =2
n II
V
= constant 243. When 4 g of an ideal gas A is introduced into
T an evacuated flask kept at 25 oC, the pressure is
V1 V2 found to be one atmosphere. If 6 g of another
=
T1 T2 ideal gas B is then added to the same flask, the
V1 = 22.4 L T1 = 273 K pressure becomes 2 atm at the same
V2 = 30.6 L T2 = ? temperature. The ratio of molecular weight
30.6 × 273 (MA: MB) of the two gases would be
Then, T2 = ≈ 373K (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
22.4
(c) 2 : 3 (d) 3 : 2
According to Charle's law V ∝ T
∴ Slope of V vs. T is linear. (e) 1 : 4
Kerala-CEE-2013
241. To what temperature must a neon gas sample
be heated to double its pressure, if the initial Ans. (c) : Given, WA = 4g WB = 6g
volume of gas at 75ºC is decreased by 15.0%? P1 = 1atm P2 = 2 atm
(a) 319º C (b) 592º C 4
(c) 128º C (d) 60º C Number of moles of A =
MA
(d) 90º C
Kerala-CEE-2005 Number of moles of B = 6
Ans. (a) : Given, T1 = 75°C = 348 K MB
P1 = P P2 = 2P
4 6
Let, V1 = 100 ml then V2 = 85 mL Total number of moles (A + B) = +
T2 = ? M A M B
From ideal gas equation, From ideal gas equation, at constant temperature and
PV volume-
= constant
T P
= constant
P1V1 P2 V2 n
=
T1 T2 P1 P 1 2
= 2 ⇒ =
2P × 85 × 348 n n 4 4
+
6
T2 = = 591.6K ≈ 319°C A T
P ×100 M A M A M B

4 6 8 8 4 6 PV = 0
+ = ⇒ − = P=0
MA MB MA MA MA MB For real gas, Z > 1 which means it is less compressible
4 6 M 4 2 than ideal gas At 0 K temperature.
= ⇒ A = =
MA MB MB 6 3 P > 0 for real gas.
MA : MB = 2 : 3 247. An ideal gas "A" having volume of 1L at 27ºC
244. If two moles of an ideal gas at 500 K occupies a is kept in a container having movable piston
volume of 41 L, the pressure of the gas is (R = and adiabatic walls in ambient condition. If
0.082 L atm K-1 mol-1) 1.33 L amt of energy is supplied inside the
(a) 2 atm (b) 3 atm system, find out the final temperature of the
system?
(c) 4 atm (d) 5 atm
(a) 399 K (b) 499 K
(e) 1 atm
(c) 599 K (d) 299 K
Kerala-CEE-2014
(e) 450 K
Ans. (a) : Given:- n = 2 mole, T= 500 K, V = 41 L, R = Kerala-CEE-2019
0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1 P = ?
Ans. (a) : Given V1 = 1 litre, T1 = 27 + 273 = 300K
V2 = 1.33 litre, T2 = ?
nRT 2 × 0.082 × 500
PV = nRT ⇒ P = = Q Piston is movable and having adiabatic walls
V 41 ∴ Pressure is constant
P = 2 atm
V V
245. Mixing of N2 and H2 from an ideal gas mixture at At constant pressure, 1 = 2
room temperature in a container. For this T1 T2
process, which of the following statement is true? 1 1.33
(a) ∆H = 0, ∆SSurrounding = 0, ∆SSystem = 0 and ⇒ =
300 T2
∆G = – ve ⇒ T2 = 1.33 × 300 = 399 K.
(b) ∆H = 0, ∆SSurrounding = 0, ∆SSystem > 0 and 248. Two moles of an ideal gas are allowed to
expand from a volume of 10 dm3 to 2 m3 at 300
∆G = – ve K against a pressure of 101.325 kPa. Calculate
(c) ∆H > = 0, ∆SSurrounding = 0, ∆SSystem > 0 and the work done
∆G = –ve (a) –201.6 kJ (b) 13.22 kJ
(d) ∆H < 0, ∆SSurrounding > 0, ∆SSystem < 0 and ∆G (c) –810.6 J (d) –18.96 kJ
= –ve MHT CET-2018
(e) ∆H = 0, ∆SSurrounding = 0, ∆SSystem < 0and Ans. (a) : Given, n=2 T = 300 K
∆G = – ve P = 101.325 kPa, V1 = 10 dm3 = 0.01 m3
V2 = 2 m3
Kerala-CEE-2017 W=?
Ans. (d) : Mixing of N2 and H2 is an exothermic Work done (W) = –P∆V
reaction so– = –101.325 × 103 (2 – 0.01)
∆H = –ve = –101.325 × 103 × 1.99
Favourable condition – Low temperature = –201.63 kJ
And, ∆n = 2 – 4 = –2 249. 4 L-atm is equal to
Since, ∆S(uni.) = ∆S(surrounding) + ∆S(system) (a) 40.50 cal (b) 78.75 cal
And for ∆G to be negative (–ve) i.e. it is spontaneous at (c) 95.23 cal (d) 96 cal
room temperature. MHT CET-2010
∴ ∆H < 0 Ans. (d) : Given, Energy = 4L- atm
∆S(surrounding) > 0 Find energy in cal.
∆S(system) < 0 The value of R = 2 cal K–1 mol–1
∆S(uni.) > 0 or R = 0.0821 L atm K–1 mol–1
246. Pressure of ideal and real gases at 0K are Energy(L − atm) × R (cal)
(a) > 0 and 0 (b) < 0 and 0 Energy (cal) =
R (L−atm)
(c) 0 and 0 (d) > 0 and > 0
(e) 0 and > 0 4× 2
= = 96cal
Kerala-CEE-2017 0.0821
Ans. (e) : We know the compressibility factor– 250. For an ideal gas, the heat of reaction at
PV constant pressure and constant volume are
Z= related as
nRT
Z = 1 for ideal gas (a) H + E = pV (b) E = H + p∆V
∴ PV = nRT (c) qp = qv + ∆nRT (d) None of these
At 0 K temperature (T = 0) MHT CET-2007

Ans. (c) : From 1st law of thermodynamics At high pressure and low temperature real gases shows
∆u = q + w = q – P∆V maximum deviation from ideal gas behaviour because
At constant volume, ∆V = 0 then at high pressure, molecules experienced large
w=0 intermolecular force of attraction.
∴ ∆u = qv (heat absorbed at constant 253. A gas is said to behave like an ideal gas when
volume the relation PV/T = constant. When do you
At constant pressure, expect a real gas to behave like an ideal gas?
∆U = qp – P∆V (a) When the temperature is low.
qP = (u2 + PV2) – ( u1 + PV1) (b) When both the temperature and pressure are
low
H = U + PV
(c) When both the temperature and pressure are
qP = ∆H high
Where qp is heat absorbed at constant pressure. (d) When the temperature is high and pressure is
As we know that, low.
∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT NEET-1991
Put the value of ∆H and ∆u in above equation, Ans. (d) : For real gas, van der Waal's equation is,
qP = qV + ∆ngRT  an 2 
251. Reversible expansion of an ideal gas under  P +  ( V − nb ) = nRT
 V2 
isothermal and adiabatic conditions are as
shown on in the figure. At high temperature and low pressure real gas behaves
like ideal gas because at low pressure, volume
increases. Due to this both correction terms of van der
Waal's equation is negligible because intermolecular
force of attraction is neglected on increasing volume.
Then at low pressure and high temperature van der
Waal's equation converted into ideal gas equation.
PV = nRT
AB → Isothermal expansion 254. A gas such as carbon monoxide would be most
AC → Adiabatic expansion likely to obey the ideal gas law at
Which of the following options is not correct? (a) low temperature and high pressures
(a) ∆Sisothermal > ∆Sadiabatic (b) high temperature and high pressures
(b) TA = TB (c) low temperature and low pressure
(c) Wisothermal > Wadiabatic (d) high temperature and low pressure
(d) Tc > TA NEET-2013
NEET-Odisha 2019 Ans. (d) : At high temperature and low pressure real
gas behaves like ideal gas because at low pressure,
Ans. (d) : In adiabatic expansion q = 0 volume increases. Due to this intermolecular, force of
In isothermal expansion T = constant attraction between gas molecules is negligible and both
Hence, TA = TB correction terms of van der Waal's equation is also
Work done in isothermal expansion is greater that work neglected. Hence, real gas follow kinetic theory of gases
done in adiabatic expansion at low pressure and high temperature. Carbon monoxide
∴ Wisothermal > Wadiabatic is real gas but at high temperature and low pressure it
In case of adiabatic expansion, cooling effect is behave like ideal gas.
observed. Therefore, TC < TA 255. Maximum deviation from ideal gas is expected
Hence, option (d) is not correct. from
252. When a deviation more in the behaviour of a (a) CH4(g) (b) NH3(g)
gas from the ideal gas equation PV = nRT? (c) H2(g) (d) N2(g)
(a) At high temperature and low pressure NEET-2013
(b) At low temperature and high pressure Ans. (b) : NH3 show maximum deviation from ideal
gas. In ideal gases no intermolecular force of attraction
(c) At high temperature and high pressure present. But in case of NH3, it shows maximum force of
(d) At low temperature and low pressure attraction because of hydrogen bonding. That’s why,
NEET-1993 NH3 shows maximum deviation from ideal gas.
Ans. (b) : Real gas shows deviation from ideal gas 256. Which is not true in case of an ideal gas?
behaviour. Ideal gases have no intermolecular force of (a) It cannot be converted into a liquid
attraction between molecules and volume occupied by (b) There is no interaction between the
them are negligible. But real gases having molecules.
intermolecular force of attraction between molecules (c) All molecules of the gas move with same
and its volume is not neglected. At high temperature speed.
and low pressure real gas behaves like ideal gas because (d) At a given temperature, PV is proportional to
at low pressure intermolecular force of attraction the amount of the gas
between molecules are neglected. NEET-1992

Ans. (c) : According to kinetic theory of gases there is 260. At constant temperature, in a given mass of an
no interaction between ideal gas molecules. Gas ideal gas
molecules collide with each other and move in different (a) the ratio of pressure and volume always
directions i.e. random motion. Due to the collision, remains constant
molecules show different speed in different directions. (b) volume always remains constant
According to ideal gas equation
(c) pressure always remains constant
PV = nRT
(d) the product of pressure and volume always
At constant temperature, PV ∝ n. Ideal gases cannot be
liquefied. remains constant
NEET-1991
257. Under what conditions will a pure sample of an
ideal gas not only exhibit a pressure of 1 atm Ans. (d) : From ideal gas equation,
but also a concentration of 1 mole litre–1? PV = nRT
(R = 0.082 liter atm mol–1 deg–1) At constant temperature, and mass
(a) At STP PV = constant
(b) When V = 22.4 litres 1
(c) When T =12 K P∝ (Boyle's law)
(d) Impossible under any condition V
NEET-1993 261. If P, V, M, T and R are pressure, volume, molar
Ans. (c) : From ideal gas equation mass, temperature and gas constant respectively,
PV = nRT then for an ideal gas, the density is given by
RT P
n n  (a) (b)
P = RT  = concentration  PM RT
V v 
P = CRT M PM
(c) (d)
P V RT
T= NEET-1989
CR
1 Ans. (d) : From ideal gas equation
T= PV = nRT
1× 0.082
T = 12 K Mass (m)
Density(ρ) =
258. The correct value of the gas constant 'R' is Volume(V)
close to mass (m)
(a) 0.082 litre-atmosphere K And, mole =
(b) 0.082 litre-atmosphere K–1 mol–1 molar mass (M)
(c) 0.082 litre-atmosphere–1 K mol–1 m
(d) 0.082 litre–1 atmosphere–1 K mol ∴ PV = RT
M
NEET-1992
m PM
Ans. (b) : From ideal gas equation ρ= =
PV = nRT V RT
PV 262. At 0 °C, a balloon is expanded with an ideal gas
R= 7
nT up to 490 mL which is the th of its maximum
For 1 mole of gas at STP, T=273K, P = 1 atm, V = 8
22.4L expansion volume. Now, if the temperature is
1atm × 22.4 L being gradually raised, predict at what
R= temperature it will burst.
1mole × 273K
= 0.0821 L atm K–1 mol–1 (a) 29 °C (b) 30 °C
(c) 39 °C (d) 312 °C
259. Select one correct statement. In the gas
equation, PV = nRT Tripura JEE-2022
(a) n is the number of molecular of a gas Ans. (c): Given:- T1 = 0°C = 273K, V1= 490mL
(b) V denotes volume of one mole of the gas 7
(c) n moles of the gas have a volume V Volume V1 is th of its maximum expansion
8
(d) P is the pressure of the gas when only one Volume i.e. V2. Then
mole of gas is present
V1 7 8
NEET-1992 = ⇒ V2 = 490 ×
Ans. (c) : According to ideal gas equation , V2 8 7
PV = nRT T2 = ? V2 = 560 mL
Where, P is pressure exerted by n moles of gas
From ideal gas equation at constant pressure
V is Volume occupied by n moles of gas.
n is the number of moles of a gas V
= constant
So, option (c) is correct, n moles of the gas have volume V. T

V1 V2 n2 = 5
=
T1 T2 PV
or n1 =
T 273 RT
T2 = V2 × 1 = 560 ×
V1 490 P×V
∴ 5=
T2 = 312K = 39°C R × 300
2P × V
263. Under adiabatic process, one mole of an ideal n2 =
1 R × 600
gas is compressed to its th volume at 350 K ∴ n2 = 5 mol
5
temperature. Determine the final temperature 265. Which of the following expression is true
–1 –1
[Cv=12.55JK mol ]. regarding gas laws? (w = weight; M =
(a) 738.5 K (b) 1011.5 K molecular mass)
(c) 1284.5 K (d) 1750 K T Mw T M w
Tripura JEE-2019 (a) 1 = 1 2 (b) 1 = 2 1
T2 M 2 w1 T2 M1w 2
V2 1
Ans. (b) : Given : = T1 M1w1 T1 M1w1
V1 5 (c) = (d) =
T2 M 2 w 2 T2 M 2 w 2
T1 = 350K , n = 1 , Cv = 12.55 JK–1 mol–1, T2 = ?
UP CPMT-2010
Cp – C v = R ⇒ C p = R + C v
Cp = 12.55 + 8.314 = 20.864 JK–1 mol–1 Ans. (a): Ideal gas equation is,
For adiabatic and reversible compression, PV = nRT
TVγ–1 = constant T ∝
1
Cp 20.864 n
γ= = = 1.66 weight (w)
Cv 12.55 Where, number of moles (n) =
T1V γ –1 = T2 V γ –1 mol.mass ( M )
1 1
γ –1 T1 n 2 w 2 × M1
T2  V1  ⇒ = =
=   = (5)1.66–1 T2 n1 M 2 × w1
T1  V2 
266. A certain mass of the oxygen gas ocupies 7 L
T2 volume under a presure of 380 mm Hg. The
= (5)0.66 volume of the same mass of the gas at standard
350
T2 = 350 × (5)0.66 = 1011.5K pressure, with temperature remaining
constant, shall be
264. 5 moles of a gas in a closed vessel was heated (a) 26.60 L (b) 54.28 L
from 300 K to 600 K. The pressure of the gas is
doubled. The number of moles of the gas at 600 (c) 3.5 L (d) 7 L
K is UP CPMT-2009
(a) 5 (b) 2.5 Ans. (c): Given, V1 = 7 L, P1 = 380 mm Hg
(c) 10 (d) 20 We know standard pressure = 760 mm Hg = P2
UP CPMT-2013 At constant temperature,
Ans. (a) : Given, n1 = 5 moles, T1 = 300 K, T2 = 600 K p1V1 = p2 V2
P1 = P, P2 = 2P, n2 = ?
380 × 7 = 760 × V2
From gas equation,
PV = nRT 380 × 7
P1V1 = n1RT1 ∴ V2 =
760
PV1 = n1RT1 ........(i) = 3.5L
P2V2 = n2RT2 .......(ii)
2PV2 = n2RT2 267. Graph between P and V at constant
∴ V1 = V1 temperature is
n
Dividing eq . (i) by (ii) (a) straight
(b) curved increasing
PV1 = n1RT1 (c) straight line with slope
2PV1 = n 2 RT2 (d) None of the above
1 n1 T1 UP CPMT-2007
= Ans. (d) : According to Boyle’s law, for a fixed amount
2 n 2 T2
of a gas at constant temperature, the gas volume is
1 5×300 inversely proportional to the gas pressure.
=
2 n 2 × 600 1
P∝
5× 2×300 V
n2 =
600 PV = constant

270. If a mixture of CO and N2 in equal amount
have total 1 atm pressure, find out partial
pressure of N2 in mixture.
(a) 1 atm (b) 0.50 atm
(c) 2 atm (d) 3 atm
UP CPMT-2006
Ans.(b): According to Dalton law of partial pressure
total pressure (P) = 1
Graph between P and V at constant temperature is P = XP
called isotherm and is an equilateral hyperbola.
PN2 = X N2 P
268. Rate of diffusion of NH3 is twice that of X.
What is the molecular mass of X? n N2
(a) 68 (b) 48 X N2 =
(c) 12 (d) 8 n N 2 + n Co
UP CPMT-2007 Molecular Mass (N2) = 28 g/mol
Ans. (a) : According to Graham law, Molecular Mass (CO) = 28 g/mol
W
r1 d2 M2
= =
r2 d1 M1 X N2 = 28
W W
+
 NH 
r 28 28
Rate of diffusion, rX=  3  given
 2  W
Molecular mass of NH3=17 X N2 = 28
Molecular mass of X, (Mx)=? W+W
By Graham’s law of diffusion, 28
rNH3 MX MX W
= or 2 =
rX M NH 3 M NH3 X N2 = 28
2W
4 × M NH3 = M X ⇒ M X = 4 × 17 = 68
28
269. If two molecules of A and B having mass 100 kg 28W
and 64 kg and rate of diffusion of A is 12×10–3, X N2 =
then what will be the rate of diffusion of B? 28× 2W
(a) 15×10 –3
(b) 64×10 –3 1
X N2 =
(c) 5×10–3 (d) 46×10–3 2
UP CPMT-2007 PN2 = X N2 P
Ans. (a) : According to Graham’s law of diffusion, At
constant pressure and temperature, the rate of diffusion 1
PN2 = ×1
of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of 2
its vapour density. PN2 = 0.5atm
1
Rate of diffusion (r) ∝ 271. The compressibility factor of an ideal gas is
d (a) 1 (b) 2
Molecular weight (M) = 2×vapour density (c) 4 (d) 0
r1 M2 UP CPMT-2003
=
r2 M1 PV
Ans. (a) Compressibility factor (z) =
 100  nRT
MA =   kg / molecule Q for ideal gas PV= nRT
 2 
∴compressibility factor (Z)= 1
 64 
M B =   kg / molecule 272. For an ideal gas, Joule-Thomson coefficient is
 2  (a) zero
rA=12×10–3 and rB=? (b) negative
rA dB MB (c) positive
= = (d) depend on molecular weight
rB dA MA
UP CPMT-2001
12 × 10 −3 64 / 2 64 8 Ans. (a) : Joule-Thomson effect: When a real gas is
= = = allowed to expand adiabatically from region of high
rB 100 / 2 100 10
−3
pressure to region of low pressure through a fine hole, it
12 × 10 × 10 cools (except H2 which warms up). The actual change in
rB =
8 temperature on expansion of gas is expressed in terms
–3 of Joule-Thomson coefficient (µ).
= 15×10
 ∂T  Ans. (c) : Weight of CH4 (w) = Weigh of H2 (w)
µ=   Molar Mass of CH4 = 16
 ∂P H Molar Mass of H2 = 2
It is temperature change in degrees by a drop of one
atmospheric pressure when the gas expands under W/2 8
Mole fraction of H2 = =
constant enthalpy. Its value is zero for ideal gas because W W 9
ideal gas has no or negligible van dar Waals' forces of +
2 16
attraction. Partial pressure = Mole fraction × Total pressure
273. Which one of the following is not correct for an Partial pressure
ideal solution? Fraction of the total pressure =
(a) It must obey Raoult's law Total pressure
(b) ∆H = 0 = Mole fraction
(c) ∆C = 0 ∴ Fraction of the total pressure
(d) ∆H = ∆V≠ 0 exerted by H2 = X H2 =
8
UPTU/UPSEE-2005 9
Ans.(d): Ideal gases must obey Raoult's law which state 277. Mixing of two different ideal gases under
when two volatile liquids are mixed to prepare a isothermal reversible condition will lead to
solution then vapour pressure of a particular liquid in (a) increase Gibbs free energy of the system
solution is directly proportional to its mole fraction. (b) no change of entropy of the system
In ideal mixing. (c) increase of entropy of the system
∆ H mix = 0 (d) increase of enthalpy of the system
∆ V mix = 0 WB-JEE-2013
274. Van der Waals' real gas, acts as an ideal gas at Ans. (c) : Mixing of two different ideal gas under
which condition? isothermal reversible condition are
(a) High temperature, low pressure ∆Hmix. = 0, ∆Vmix. = 0, ∆Umix. = 0
(b) Low temperature, high pressure ∆ Smix = Positive
(c) High temperature, high pressure ∆ Ymix = negative
(d) Low temperature, low pressure Hence, entropy of mixture increases
UPTU/UPSEE-2015 enthalpy of mixture decreases.
BCECE-2012
278. For one mole of an ideal gas, the slope of V vs.
NEET-2002 T curve at constant pressure of 2 atm is X L
Ans. (a) : At low pressure and high temperature real gas mol−1 K-1. The value of the ideal universal gas
behaves like ideal gas. Ideal gas having no constant 'R' in terms of X is
intermolecular forces of attraction between molecules. (a) X L atm mol–1 K–1
Therefore at low pressure, intermolecular force of
attraction of real gas is neglected. Hence at low pressure X
(b) L atm mol–1 K–1
and high temperature real gas behave like ideal gas. 2
Vander waal’s equation (c) 2X L atm mol–1 K–1
 2 (d) 2X atm L–1 mol–1 K–1
P + an  (V – nb) = nRT WB-JEE-2014
 
 V 2  Ans. (c) : From ideal gas equation
At low pressure and high temperature, PV = nRT
For n = 1
an 2
P >> and V >> nb PV = RT
V At constant pressure
Then PV = nRT V R
i.e., real gas behaves as ideal gas. = = constant
T P
275. Avogadro’s law is valid for If graph is plotted for V vs T then slope of the V vs T
(a) all gases (b) ideal gas
R
(c) Van der Waals gas (d) real gas curve is
WB-JEE-30.04.2022 P
Ans. (b) : Avogadro’s law is used to determine the R
Slope = = X L mol-1 K-1
molecular formula of gaseous molecules. Avogadro’s law P
is only applicable for ideal gases. At low pressure and high But, P = 2 atm
temperature Avogadro’s law is applicable to real gas. Then R = Slop × P
276. Equal weights of CH4 and H2 are mixed in an = 2X L atm mol-1 K-1
empty container at 25°C the fraction of the 279. At a certain temperature the time required for
total pressure exerted by H2 is the complete diffusion of 200 mL of H2 gas is 30
(a) 1/9 (b) 1/2 min. The time required for the complete
(c) 8/9 (d) 16/17 diffusion of 50 mL of O2 gas at the same
WB-JEE-2012 temperature will be
(a) 60 min (b) 30 min
(c) 45 min (d) 15 min 3. Real Gases
WB-JEE-2014
Ans. (b) : According to Graham’s law of diffusion, rate 282. Real gases show ideal behaviour at
Volume (a) high pressure and high temperature
of diffusion (rd) = (b) low pressure and high temperature
time (c) low pressure and low temperature
1 (d) high pressure and low temperature
γd ∝ A-P EAMCET 1996
Μ olar mass
Ans. (b) : For real gases equation,
(r ) H VH 2 /t H2 (M.M )O2  a 
= d 2= =  P + 2  ( V − b ) = RT
( d) 2
r O V /t
O2 O2 ( M.M )H2  V 
Real gas behaves like ideal gas at high temperature and
But given, VH 2 = 200 mL , t H 2 = 30min low pressure.
VO 2 = 50 mL , t O2 = ? a
Then, P ≫ 2 and V ≫ b
V
200 Hence, the equation becomes
30 = 32 PV = RT
50 2 i.e. the gases behave as ideal gas equation (ideally)
t O2 283. The rms velocity of an ideal gas at 300K is
12240 cms–1, what is the most probable velocity
200 × t O2 at that temperature?
= 16 = 4 (a) 10000 cm s–1 (b) 11280 cm s–1
50 × 30 –1
(c) 13250 cm s (d) 12240 cm s–1
30 × 4 A-P EAMCET 2000
t O2 = = 30 min.
4 Ans. (a) : Given that,
Vrms = 12240 cms–1
280. For an ideal gas, a plot of PV/RT versus T will
look like 3RT
Vrms =
M
(a) (b) 2RT
Vmp =
M
Vrms 3
=
Vmp 2
(c) (d)
2
Vrms 3
2
=
Vmp 2
A-P EAMCET 1995
2 × (12240) 2
Ans. (d) : According to ideal gas equation Vmp =
PV = nRT 3
PV Vmp ≈ 10000cms −1
= Constant
RT
284. A gaseous mixture of three gases A, B and C has
PV a pressure of 10 atm. The total number of moles
∴ remains constant with respect to T.
RT of all the gases is 10. If the partial pressures of A
281. At STP, the density of a gas (molecular weight and B are 3.0 and 1.0 atm respectively and if ‘C’
has mol. Wt. of 2.0, what is the weight of ‘C’ in
45) in g/L is grams present in the mixture?
(a) 2 (b) 22.4 (a) 6 (b) 3
(c) 11.2 (d) 1000 (c) 12 (d) 8
A-P EAMCET 1996 AP EAMCET (Medical) -1998
Ans. (a) : Given that, Molecular mass = 45 Ans. (c): Given that,
We know that Total pressure of gases A, B and C = 10 atm.
Weight ( mass ) Total number of moles (nA+nB+nC) =10
Density = Partial pressure of A (PA) = 3 atm.
Volume Partial pressure of B (PB)= 1 atm.
45 Molecular weight of C = 2.0
= = 2g / L Now,
22.4

Partial pressure of A (PA) = Total pressure × mole Ideal gas equation –
fraction of gas A PV = nRT
nA
or PA = 10 × Real gas equation
Total moles
 an 2 
 ( V − nb ) = nRT
nA +
or 3 = 10 ×  P
10  V2 
or nA = 3 Where n = no. of moles.
Similarly, for gas B– 288. The vapour pressure of a non-ideal two
n component solution is given below
PB = Total pressure× B
10
n
or 1 = 10 × B
10
or nB = 1
Q n A + n B + n C = 10
or 3 + 1 + n C = 10
or nC = 6
Weight of solute Identify the correct T-X curve for the same
Q Mole =
Molecular weight mixture.
w
∴ 6= C
2
or wC = 12 g
285. Among the following gases, the order of
liquefiability is
a) SO2
b) CO2
c) CH4
d) NH3
(a) CH4 > CO2 > NH3 > SO2
(b) NH3 > SO2 > CH4 > CO2
(c) CO2 > NH3 > SO2 > CH4
(d) SO2 > NH3 > CO2 > CH4
Ans.(d): We know that greater the force of TS EAMCET-2017
intermolecular attraction, easier is its liquefication Ans. (a) : The vapour pressure of a non-ideal
therefore order of liquefication is
component solution. The correct T-X curve of the same
SO2 > NH3 > CO2 > CH4
mixture.
286. The compressibility factor (Z) of a gas is < 1 at Hence option (a) is correct.
STP. Therefore
(a) Vm < 22.4L (b) Vm = 44.8L 289. Which among the following statements is/are
(c) Vm > 22.4L (d) Vm = 11.2L incorrect regarding real gases?
TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-II (i) Their compressibility factor is never equal
to unity (Z ≠ 1)
V (ii) The deviations from ideal behavior are less
Ans. (a) : Compression factor Z = real
Videal at low pressures and high temperatures
Now Z < 1 (iii) Intermolecular forces among gas molecules
Then Vreal < Videal are equal to zero
So, the gas will have a volume < 22.4 litre or (iv) The obey Vander Waals equation PV = nRT
Vm < 22.4 L. (a) (i), (ii), (iv) only (b) (ii), (iv only
287. A real gas would be most likely to obey the (c) (ii) only (d) (iii), (iv) only
ideal gas laws at ––––– AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-I
(a) low temperature and low pressure Ans. (d) :
(b) high temperature and low pressure  an 2 
(c) high temperature and high pressure Van der Waal equation  P +  (V – nb) = nRT
(d) low temperature and high pressures  V2 
AP EAPCET 25.08.2021, Shift-II Where n = no. of moles.
Ans. (b) : A real gas would be most likely to obey the
ideal gas laws at high temperature and low pressure.
Real gas obey’s Van der Waal equation and 293. A low pressure, the van der Waal's equation is
intermolecular forces among gas molecules are not reduced to
equal to zero. Ideal gas equation PVm a
(a) Z = = 1−
PV = nRT RT VRT
290. Which of the following sets consists of gases PVm b
(b) Z = = 1+ P
with the same rate of diffusion at identical RT RT
temperature and pressure? (c) PVm = RT
(a) H2, D2, He (b) CO2, NO2, C3H8 PVm a
(c) CO2, N2O, C3H8 (d) N2, CO2, C2H4 (d) Z = = 1−
RT RT
SRMJEEE – 2013 VITEEE-2019
Ans. (c) : As we know, the diffusion of gas depends Ans. (a) : Van der Waal's equation-
r M2  a 
 p + V 2  ( V − b ) = RT
upon the molecular mass. i.e 1 = .
2r M1
CO2, N2O and C3H8 have same molecular mass i.e 44. a ab
PV − Pb + − 2 = RT
Hence, the rate of diffusion will be similar at identical V V
temperature and pressure. a ab
PV = RT + Pb − + 2
291. Assertion (A) van der Waals' forces are V V
responsible for chemisorptions. Given, at low pressure Pb = O
Reason (R) High temperature is fovourable for a ab
PV = RT − + 2
chemisorptions. V V
The correct answer is PV a ab
= 1− +
(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true RT VRT V 2 RT
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the PVm a  PVm 
correct explanation of A Z= = 1− Q Z = 
RT VRT  RT 
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A) 294. It V is the volume of one molecule of gas under
(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false given conditions, the van der Waal's constant b is
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) - 2014 4V
(a) 4V (b)
Ans. (a) : Van der Waal's forces are responsible for N0
chemisorptions, force that lead to formation of a N0
(c) (d) 4VN0
chemical bond (covalent bond) are responsible for 4V
chemisorptions. High temperature is favorable for BITSAT 2018
chemisorptions. Hence, statement of assertion (A) is Ans. (d) : Van der Waals's constant b = 4 times the
false but the statement of reason is true. actual volume of 1 mole molecules.
B is equal to 4× the volume of molecules is one mole of
292. What is the ratio of kinetic energies of 3g of
a gas (No molecules)
hydrogen and 4g of oxygen at T(K) ? Volumes of one molecule = V
(a) 12 : 1 (b) 6 : 1 Volume of No molecule = V No
(c) 1 : 6 (d) 24 : 1 Hence b = 4VNo
295. Two vessels containing gases A and B are
Ans. (a) : At same temperature- interconnected as shown in the figure. The
K E 1 n1 stopper is opened, the gases are allowed to mix
= homogeneously. The partial pressures of A and
K E 2 n2
B in the mixture will be, respectively
3
No. of moles of hydrogen = = 1.5 moles
2
4
Number of moles of oxygen = = 0.125 moles
32 (a) 8 and 5 atm (b) 9.6 and 4 atm
Thus, (c) 4.8 and 2 atm (d) 6.4 and 4 atm
CG PET -2009
KE1 1.5
= Ans. (c) : Given that,
K E 2 0.125
KE1
or = 12 :1
KE 2

VA = 12 L VB = 8 L  a 
PA = 8 atm PB = 5 atm p + 2  ≈ P
We know  V 
Pv = nRT p(v − b) = RT
Now, pV − pb = RT
PA VA 12 × 8 96 pV = RT + pb
Moles of A, nA = = =
RT RT RT pV pb
PB VB 8 × 5 40 = 1+
Moles of B, nB= = = RT RT
RT RT RT
pb
96 Z = 1+
RT
Moles fraction of A,(XA) = Moleof A = RT = 96 Z > 1 at high pressure
Total Mole 96 + 40 136
298. a and b are van der Waals' constants for gases.
RT
Moles fraction of B,(XB) = Chlorine is more easily liquefied than ethane
because
40 (a) a and b for Cl2 > a and b for C2H6
Moleof B RT 40 (b) a and b for Cl2 < a and b for C2H6
= =
Total Mole 96 + 40 136 (c) a for Cl2 > a for C2H6 but b for Cl2 > b for
RT C 2H 6
Total pressure X total volume = (nA+nB)× RT (d) a for Cl2 > a for C2H6 but b for Cl2 < b for
1 C 2H 6
P× (12+8)= (96 + 40)RT
RT [AlEEE 2011]
Total Pressure (P)= 6.8 atm Ans. (d) : In a Van der Waal's gas equation, the
Partial Pressure =Total Pressure × mole fraction constant a gives the idea of the magnitude of attractive
Partial pressure of A = Total pressure ×XA forces between the molecules of the gas while b is the
96 measure of effective volume occupied by the gas
= 6.8 × = 4.8atm molecules or effective size of gas molecules.
136
40 Greater the value of ‘a’ larger the attractive
Partial pressure of B = 6.8 × = 2atm intermolecular force between the gas molecules. It
136 means, the gases with higher value of a and lower value
296. In Van der Waals' equation of state of the gas of b are more liquefiable.
law, the constant 'b' is a measure of Hence, Cl2 is more easily liquefied than ethane.
(a) Intermolecular repulsions
(b) Intermolecular attraction So, a for Cl2> a for C2 H 6 but b for Cl 2 < b for C2 H 6
(c) Volume occupied by the molecules 299. If Z is a compressibility factor, van der Waals'
(d) Intermolecular collisions per unit volume equation at low pressure can be written as
[AIEEE 2004] RT a
Ans. (c) : Van der Waal's Equation (a) Z = 1 + (b) Z = 1 –
pb VRT
 an 2 
 P +  ( v − nb ) = nRT pb pb
 V2  (c) Z = 1 − (d) Z = 1 +
Where a = Van der Waal's constant that measure RT RT
attractive force between the molecules. [JEE Main 2014]
b = Volume occupied by the molecule. Ans. (b) : From Van der Waal's equation
297. The compressibility factor for a real gas at high  p + a  (V − b) = RT
pressure is  
 V2 
RT a
(a) 1 + (b) 1 At low pressure, V decreases. Tuus, 2 increases.
pb V
pb pb So, b can be neglected.
(c) 1 + (d) 1 −
RT RT  a  a
AIEEE-2012  p + V 2  V = RT , pV+ V = RT
Ans. (c) : Compressibility factor (z):- It is the factor
which decides the extent of deviation of real gases from pV a pV a
+ =1 , = 1−
the ideal gas behavior. RT VRT RT VRT
 a 
As we know  p + 2  ( v − b ) = RT a
 v  Z = 1−
VRT
a
When pressure is high p>> 2 Where Z = compressibility factor
V
300. Consider the following table. 303. The unit of the Van der Waals' gas equation
Gas a/(k Pa dm6) b/(dm3 mol-1) parameter 'a in
A 642.32 0.05196  an 2 
B 155.21 0.04136 p  2  ( V – nb ) = nRT is
C 431.91 0.05196 V 
(a) kg ms–2 (b) dm3 mol–1
D 155.21 0.4382 –1
(c) kg ms (d) atm dm6 mol–2
a and b are van der Waals' constants. The [JEE Main 2021, 27 Aug Shift-I]
correct statement about the gases is
(a) Gas C will occupy lesser volume than gas A; Ans. (d) : Van der Waal's gas Equation
gas B will be lesser compressible than gas D.  an 2 
(b) Gas C will occupy more volume than gas A;  p + 2  (V − nb) = nRT
 V 
gas B will be more compressible than gas D.
(c) Gas C will occupy more volume than gas A; an 2
= atm
gas B will be lesser compressible than gas D V2
(d) Gas C will occupy more volume than gas A; dm6
gas B will be lesser compressible than gas D a = atm ×
[JEE Main 2019, 10 April Shift-I] mol 2
a = atm dm6 mole–2
Ans. (b) : As we know from the Van der Waal's gas
equation. The value of a gives the idea of the magnitude 304. The behavior of real gas approaches ideal
of attractive force and value of b give the idea of behavior at
effective volume occupied by the gas molecules. (a) low temperature, low pressure
From the above given table. (b) high temperature, high pressure
It is clear that, gas A and C have same value of b but (c) low temperature, high pressure
different value of a. It means gas having higher value of (d) high temperature, low pressure
'a' have more force of attraction. J & K CET-(2013, 2003, 2000)
So occupy less volume because molecules are more closer. Ans. (d) : At high temperature and low pressure, the
Gas B and D have same value of 'a' but different value real gas most closely approaches the behavior of an
of 'b' so gas having laser value of b will be more ideal gas because at high temperature gas molecules
compressible. have less potential energy and high kinetic energy due
301. The behavior of real gas approaches ideal to this intermolecular force is less.
behavior at This reason makes them ideal.
(a) low temperature, low pressure 305. The Van der waals constants for four gases P,
(b) high temperature, high pressure Q, R and S are 4.17, 3.59, 6.71 and 3.8 atm. L2
(c) low temperature, high pressure mol–2 Therefore, the ascending order of their
(d) high temperature, low pressure liquefaction is
COMEDK 2016 (a) R < P < S < Q (b) Q < S < R < P
Ans. (d) : Real gases are found to obey the gas laws (c) Q < S < P < R (d) R < P < Q < S
fairly well at low pressure and high temperature. J & K CET-(2009)
Ans. (c) : As we know, from Van der Waal's gas
302. A mixture of one mole each of H2, He and O2 equation, greater the value of 'a' larger the attractive
each are enclosed in a cylinder of volume, V at intermolecular force between the gas molecules. It
temperature T. If the partial pressure of H2 is 2 means, the gas with higher value of 'a' and lower value
atm, the total pressure of the gasses in the of b are more liquefiable.
cylinder is
Then, Q(3.59) < S(3.8) < P(4.17) < R(6.71)
(a) 14 atm (b) 38 atm
(c) 22 atm (d) 6 atm 306. The units of van der Waals constants a and b
[JEE Main 2020, 3 Sep Shift-II] respectively are
Ans. (d) : Given that, (a) L atm2 mol–1 and mol L–1
Mole of H2, He, O2= 1 (b) L atm mol2 and mol L.
Partial Pressure of H2=2 atm (c) L2 atm mol–2 and mol–1 L.
As we know (d) L–2 atm–1 mol–1 and L mol–2
Partial pressure = Total Pressure ×Mole Fraction J & K CET-(2008)
For mole fraction of H2 Ans. (c) : We know Van der Waal's gas equation
Mole of H 2  a 
X H2 =  p + 2  (V − b) = RT
Mole of H 2 + Mole of He + Mole of O 2  V 
1 1 a
X H2 = = = atm
1+1+1 3 V2
Then, a = L2 atm mol −2
1 and
2 = × Total Pr essure
3 b =L/mol
Total pressure = 6 atm b= L mol–1

307. Which one among the following, is the van der 309. In Van der Waals’ equation of state of the gas
waals equation, describing the behavior of one law, the constant ‘b’ is a measure of
mole of a real gas over wide ranges of (a) intermolecular repulsions
temperature and pressure? (b) intermolecular attractions
 a  (c) volume occupied by the molecules
(a) P + 2  (V − b) = RT (d) intermolecular collisions per unit volume
 V  JCECE – 2008
 a  Manipal-2016
(b) P − 2  (V − b) = RT
 V  JCECE - 2010
 a  R
(c) P + 2  (V − b) = Ans. (c) : In Van der Waal's gas equation, the constant a
 V  T and b measure.
 a  a = It is measure the magnitude of intermolecular
(d) P + 2  (V + b) = RT attractive forcers between them.
 V 
b = It is measure the volume of gas molecule.
J & K CET-(2007)
Ans. (a) : We know Van der Waal's gas equation  a 
 p + 2  (V − b) = RT
 a   V 
 p + 2  (V − b) = RT
 V  310. Consider the van der Waals constants, a and b,
Where, for the following gases,
p = Pressure Gas Ar Ne Kr Xe
6 –2
V = Molar volume of the gas a/(atm dm mol ) 1.3 0.2 5.1 4.1
–2 3 –1
T = Temperature b(10 dm mol ) 3.2 1.7 1.0 5.0
R =Universal gas constant Which gas is expected to have the highest
And a, b are the constant critical temperature?
(a) Kr (b) Ne
308. The Van der Waals’ equation for a real gas is (c) Xe (d) Ar
 n 2a  [JEE Main 2019, 9 April Shift-I]
given by the formula  P + 2  (V – nb) = nRT AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Morning)
 V 
Where P, V, T and n are the pressure, volume, Ans. (a): Critical Temperature:- It is temperature at
which a substance exist in a liquid form.
temperature and the number of moles of the
We know
gas. Which one is the correct interpretation for
8a
the parameter a? Critical temperature (Tc) = − − − −(i)
(a) The parameter a accounts for the finite size of 27Rb
the molecule, not included temperature in the For Ar, a = 1.3 and b = 3.2
ideal gas law From equation (i)
(b) The parameter a accounts for the shape of gas 8  1.3 
Tc ( Ar ) =  
phase molecules 27R  3.2 
(c) The parameter a accounts for intermolecular For Ne, a =0.2, b=1.7
interaction’s present in the molecule 8  0.2 
(d) The parameter a has no physical significance Tc ( Ne ) =  
and van der Waals’ introduced it as a 27R  1.7 
numerical correction factor only For Kr , a = 5.1, b=1
JCECE - 2005 T 8  5.1 
c ( Kr ) =  
Ans. (c) : From the Van der Waal's gas equation 27R  .1 
For Xe , a = 4.1, b=5.0
 n 2a  8  4.1 
 p + 2  (V − nb) = nRT Tc ( Xe ) =  
 V  27R  5 
Where, It is clear from the above expression. Kr has a highest
p = pressure critical temperature value.
∴ Tc has order – Kr > Xe > Ar > Ne
V = volume
n = number of moles 311. If a gas expands at constant temperature, it
indicates that
T = temperature
(a) kinetic energy of molecules decreases
R = ideal gas constant (b) pressure of the gas increases
The constant 'a' is the measure of the magnitude (c) kinetic energy of molecules remains same
of intermolecular attractive forces between the particles. (d) number of the molecules of gas increases
b = measures the volume of a gas molecule. JCECE - 2013
Ans. (c) : A gas expands at a constant temperature it a
indicate that the kinetic energy of molecules remains the Here showes intermolecular attraction.
v2
same. Where a = Van der Waals constant for gases.
3 315. The pressure of real gases is less than that of
KE = RT or KE ∝ T
2 ideal gas because of
Here, the temperature of gas remains constant. Hence, (a) increases in the kinetic energy of the
kinetic energy of molecules remains the same. molecules
312. The compressibility of a gas is less than unity at (b) increases in the number of collisions
STP, therefore (c) Intermolecular attraction
(a) Vm > 22.4 L (b) Vm < 22.4 L (d) finite size of particles
(c) Vm = 22.4 L (d) Vm = 44.8 L Karnataka-CET-2017
JIPMER-2017 Ans. (c) : The pressure of the gas is developed due to
Ans. (b) : We know that, the wall collision of the gas molecules. But due to
PV intermolecular attraction the colliding molecules will
Compressibility factor (Z) = experience an inward pull.
nRT Therefore, the pressure exerted by the molecules in real
Given, compressibility factor less than 1 at STP. gas will be less than the ideal gas. Since ideal gas have
Then no intermolecular attraction.
Z<1 316. The statement that is not correct is
PV (a) Compressibility factor measure the deviation
Z= <1
nRT of real gas from ideal behaviour
As we know (b) Van der Waals constant 'a' measure extent of
At STP, P = 1 atm, T=273K, R= 0.08210 L atm k-1 intermolecular attractive forces for real gases
Then, (c) Critical temperature is the lowest temperature
nRT 0.821× 273 × 1 at which liquefaction of a gas first occurs
V< = (d) Boyle point depends on the nature of real gas
P 1
V< 22.4L Karnataka-CET-2014
Ans. (c) : • Compressibility factor measure the
313. A certain sample of gas has a volume of 0.2L
deviation of real gas from ideal gas behavior
measured at 1 atm pressure and 0°C. At the
same pressure but 273°C, its volume will be: PV
(a) 0.4 L (b) 0.8 L Z=
nRT
(c) 27.8 L (d) 55.6 L • Van der Walls constant 'a' measure extent of
JIPMER-2006 intermolecular attractive forces for real gases.
Ans. (a) : Given that, • Critical temperate is the highest temperature at
V1= 0.2L V 2= ? which liquefaction of a gas first occurs.
P1=1 atm P2 = 1 atm • Boyle's temperature is the temperature at which real
T = 0ºC = 273K T = 273ºC +273 = 546 K gas obeys the gas laws over an appreciable range of
When pressure is constant, Ideal gas equation pressure is called Boyle point.
V1 V2 317. The correct arrangement for the ions in the
=
T1 T2 increasing order of their radii is
T × V1 (a) Na+, Cl–, Ca2+ (b) Ca2+, K+, S2–
+ 3+ 2+
V 2= 2 (c) Na , Al , Be (d) Cl–, F–, S2–
T1 Karnataka-CET-2014
0.2 × 546 Ans. (b) : Atomic Radii:- It is radius of atom. This is
V 2=
273 the distance between an atom's nucleus and outer
V2= 0.42L electron shell.
314. a/V2 given in Van der Waal's equation is for Increasing order of radii
(a) internal pressure Ca 2+ ,K + ,S2−
(b) inter molecular attraction 318. 25g of each of the following gasses are taken at
(c) both (1) and (2) 27oC and 600 mm pressure. Which of these will
(d) temperature correction have the least volume?
JIPMER-2005 (a) HCl (b) HBr
Ans. (b) : Van der Waals equation (c) HI (d) HF
Karnataka-CET-2011
Ans. (c) : Given that,
Mass (M)=25g
Temperature (T) = 27ºC = 273+27=300K
Pressure = 600mm
We know

m For = P
PV = nRT⇒ RT − − − −(i) a = 0.05, b = 0.02
M
Where M = Molecular Mass 0.05  8  5  8 
Tc =  =  
M= Mass 0.02  27R  2  27R 
Note:- Pressure, Temperature and gas constant same for For = Q
all a = 30, b = 0. 2
For HCl 30  8  300  8 
M = 1+35 =36 g/mol Tc =  =  
From eqn (i) 0.2  27R  2  27R 
25 It is clear from the above expression gas x has the
P × V = × RT highest critical temperature.
36 Note:- official answer given by commission 'b'.
25 RT
V= × 320. The gas with the highest critical temperature is
36 P (a) H2 (b) He
Simillarly, for HBr (c) N2 (d) O2
M = 1+79 =80 (e) CO2
25 RT Kerala-CEE-2012
V= ×
80 P Ans. (e) :
For HI Gas Critical Temperature
M = 1+126 = 127 H2 33.2k
25 RT O2 154.3k
V= ×
127 P He 5.2k
For HF CO2 304.2k
M = 1+18 =19 N2 126.2k
25 RT It is clear from the above table that CO2 gas has
V= ×
19 P maximum critical temperature 304.2K.
From the above expressions, It is clear that HI has the 321. The type of attractive forces that operate
least volume. between gaseous HCl molecules is
319. Gases X, Y, Z, P and Q have the van der (a) dipole-dipole forces
Waals' constants a and b (in CGS units) as (b) dispersion forces
shown below: (c) ion-dipole forces
X Y Z P Q (d) dipole-induced dipole forces
a 6 6 20 0.05 30 (e) electrostatic forces
b 0.025 0.15 0.1 0.02 0.2 Kerala-CEE-2020
The gas with the highest critical temperature Ans. (a) : Hydrogen chloride has dipole moment
is: because hydrogen has a slight positive charge and Cl
(a) P (b) Q atom has slight negative charge and due to attractive
(c) Y (d) Z forces between unlike charges HCl molecule has dipole-
(e) X dipole forces. So, option (a) is correct.
Kerala-CEE-2006 322. In van der Waals' equation of state for a non-
Ans. (b) : As we know ideal gas, the term that accounts for
8a intermolecular forces is
Critical temperature (Tc) = (a) V– b (b) (RT)–1
27Rb
 a 
8 (c)  P + 2  (d) RT
Note:- is constant for all  V 
27Rb
For NEET-1990
a = 6, b = 0.025 Ans. (c) : Van der Waal's gas equation
8× 6 6000  8   a 
Tc = =    P + 2  (V − b) = RT
27R(0.025) 25  27R   V 
For Y  a 
a = 6, b = 0.15  P + 2  = It shows intermolecular forces.
 V 
6  8  600  8 
Tc =  =   323. Given van der Waals' constant for NH3, H2, O2
.15  27R  15  27R  and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and
For Z 3.59, which one of the following gases is most
a = 20, b = 0.1 easily liquefied?
(a) NH3 (b) H2
20  8  200  8 
Tc =  =   (c) O2 (d) CO2
.1  27R  1  27R  NEET-2018
Ans. (a) : The gas which has highest Van der Waal's Ans. (a) : Van der Waals’ equation is
gas constant value those gas liquefied first.  an 2 
As we know  p +  (V − nb) = nRT
 V2 
Critical temperature (Tc) ∝ Van der Waal's gas constant. For 1 mol, n=1
Given that,  a 
NH3 = 4.17  p + 2  (V − b) = RT
 V 
H2= 0.244 RT a
O2= 1.36 or p= −
(V − b) V 2
CO2= 3.59
326. At low pressure and high temperature, the van
It is clear from the above value, NH3 will liquefied first. der waal's equation is finally reduced
324. For real gases van der Waals' equation is (simplified) to
 an 
2
 a 
written as  P + 2  ( V − nb ) = nRT where a (a)  p + 2  (Vm − b) = RT
 V   Vm 
and b are van der waals' constants. Two sets of (b) p(V m-b)=RT
gases are  a 
(c)  p + 2  Vm = RT
(I) O2, CO2, H2 and He  Vm 
(II) CH4, O2 and H2 (d) pVm=RT
The gases given in set-I in increasing order of b UPTU/UPSEE-2017
and gases given in set-II in decreasing order ofAns. (d) : As we know, at low pressure and high
a, are arranged below. Select the correct order temperature gas behave as ideal gas.
from the following : So, The ideal gas equation
PVm =RT
(a) (I) He < H2 < CO2 < O2 (II) CH4 > H2 > O2
327. A Van der Waals’ gas may behave ideally when
(b) (I) O2 < He < H2 < CO2 (II) H2 > O2 > CH4 (a) the volume is very low
(c) (I) H2 < He < O2 < CO2 (II) CH4 > O2 > H2 (b) the temperature is very high
(d) (I) H2 < O2 < He < CO2 (II) O2 > CH4 > H2 (c) the pressure is very low
NEET-2012 (d) the temperature, pressure and volume all are
very high
 an 2  WB-JEE-2013
Ans. (b) :  P + 2  (V − nb) = nRT
 V  Ans. (c) : Van der Waal's gas behave as ideal gas at low
pressure and very high temperature. At these conditions
Here 'a' shows intermolecular attraction force and b there will be large intermolecular distance between gas
shows excess volume. molecules so negligible intermolecular force.
As we know 328. The compressibility factor (Z) of one mole of a
b ∝ r3 van der Waals' gas of negligible 'a' value is
3
Where r is atomic radius. It means, the compound bp
(a) 1 (b)
which has more radius then their value of b is more. RT
(I) O2, Co2, H2 and He bp bp
(c) 1 + (d) 1 −
Co2 > O2 > H2 > He RT RT
(II) CH4, O2 and H2 WB-JEE-2014
It is clear that Van der Waal's force of Ans. (c) : We know Van der Waal's gas equation
CH4 > O2 > H2  n 2a 
 P + 2  (V − nb) = nRT
325. Which of the following equation is not correct?  V 
For 1 mole (i.e. n =1)
 an 2 
(a)  p + 2  (V − b) = nRT  a 
 V   P + 2  (V − b) = RT
 V 
 a  If a is negligible
(b)  p + 2  (V − b) = RT a
 V  P+ 2  P
V
 an 2  P (V–b) = RT, PV –Pb = RT
(c)  p + 2  (V − nb) = nRT
 V  PV Pb
− =1
RT a RT RT
(d) p = −
(V − b) V 2 PV
= 1+
Pb
UP CPMT-2014 RT RT

329. Four gases P, Q, R and S have almost same K.E 4 × 300
values of 'b' but their 'a' values (a, b are van
1
=
K.E 1 × 300
del waals' constants) are in the order Q < R < S 2
4
< P. At a particular temperature among the K.E1
four gases, the most easily liquefiable one is = 16
K.E 2
(a) P (b) Q
(c) R (d) S 332. Assertion (A) : At 300 K, kinetic energy of 16 g
WB-JEE-2014 of methane is equal to the kinetic energy of 32
g of oxygen.
Ans. (a) : If the values of b is same for all the gases.
Reason (R) : At constant temperature, kinetic
Then, the gas which has high value of a then those gas
energy of one mole of all gases is equal.
will be liquefied first.
Given, Q < R < S < P
From the above, it is clear that P liquefied first among
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
them.
 ab  (c) (A) is true but (R) is not true
330. For a van der Waals' gas, the term  2  (d) (A) is not true but (R) is true
V 
represents some A-P EAMCET 2004
(a) pressure (b) energy Ans. (a) : Kinetic energy for 'n' moles of gas is given
(c) critical density (d) molar mass as–
WB-JEE-2019 K.E. = 3 nRT
Ans. (b) : Given, 2
ab Where, R = Universal gas constant.
T = Temperature
V2
∴ E∝T
We know,
2 –2 Thus, at constant temperature kinetic energy of one
a = atmL mol
mole of any gas is equal.
b = L mol–1
2 333. What is temperature at which the kinetic
 L  −2 energy of 0.3 moles of helium is equal to the
 = L mol
2
V= 
 mol  kinetic energy of 0.4 moles of argon at 400 K?
Then (a) 400 K (b) 873 K
(c) 533 K (d) 300 K
ab atm. L2 mol −2 × L mol−1 A-P EAMCET 2008
=
V2 L2 mol−2 Ans. (c) : Given that,
= atm L mole–1 No. of moles of helium = 0.3 moles
atm. L No. of moles of argon = 0.4 moles
=
Mole 3
This represent unit of energy. We know that, K.E. = nRT
2
According to the question,
K.E. of helium = K.E. of argon
4. Kinetics Molecular Theory of 3 3
Gases and Molecular × 0.3 × R × T = × 0.4 × R × 400
2 2
Collisions 0.4 × 400
or T= = 533K
0.3
331. The factor by which the kinetic energy of 8 g of 334. If the kinetic energy in J, of CH4 (molar mass =
H2 at 27ºC is greater than the kinetic energy of 16 g mol–1) at T(K) is X, the kinetic energy in J,
8g of O2 at the same temperature, is of O2 (molar mass = 32 g mol–1) at the same
(a) 4 (b) 8 temperature is
(c) 16 (d) 32 (a) X (b) 2X
A-P EAMCET 1991 X
Ans. (c) : We know that, (c) X2 (d)
2
3 TS-EAMCET-2016
Kinetic energy (K.E.) = nRT
2 Ans. (a) : The expression of kinetic energy is–
Where R = constant 3 R
T1 = 27ºC = 27 + 273 = 300 K K.E. = ⋅T
2 NA
T2 = 300 K
Where, R = Gas constant
K.E1 n1 × T1
∴ = NA = Avogadro's number
K.E 2 n 2 × T2 T = Absolute temperature

It is clear that from above equation, the K.E. is depend As we know
upon the temperature of the molecule. CH4 molecule 1 hc
has X kinetic energy at T then O2 is also have X kinetic mv 2 = − hν 0
2 λ
energy at the same temperature. Hence, the correct Where hν0 = Minimum energy required for remove an
option is (a). electron
335. A gaseous mixture of 3 gases A, B and C has a h = Plank constant= 6.626×10–34
pressure 10 atm. The total number of moles are c = Speed of light = 3× 108
10. If partial pressure of gases A and B are 3
1
atm and 1 atm respectively and if molar mass mv 2 = KE of atom
of gas C is 2. Calculate the weight of C in the 2
mixture. hc 1
(a) 12 g (b) 24 g hν 0 = − mv 2
λ 2
(c) 8 g (d) 2 g
6.626 ×10−34 × 3 × 108
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 17.09.2020 Shift-I hν 0 = − 1× 10−19
Ans. (a) : Given: P = 10 atm 6 × 10−7
Total numbers of moles. nA + nB + nc = 10 hν 0 = 3.313 × 1019 − 1× 10−19
Pa = 3atm, PB= 1 atm hν 0 = 2.313 ×10 −19 Jule
∴ PA = XA × Ptotal
338. The Kinetic energy of one mole of any gas
nA n depends upon ______
= × 10 = A × 10 = 3
nA + nB + nc 10
Similary, (a) pressure of the gas
PB = XB ×Ptotal (b) volume of the gas
nB (c) nature of the gas
1= × 10 (d) absolute temperature of the gas
nA + nB + nC AP EAPCET 24.08.2021, Shift-I
So nB =1 Ans. (d) : The expression of kinetic energy can be
∴ nc = 10 – (3 + 1 ) = 6 written as –
Weight of C = 6 × 2 = 12g 3
336. Which of the following statement is/are true EK = ηRT
(a) The pressure of a fixed amount of an ideal gas 2
is proportional to its temperature only For n = 1 mol
(b) Frequency of collisions increases in 3
∴ EK = RT where R = Gas constant
proportion to the square root of temperature 2
(c) The value of van der Waal's constant 'a' is The given equation shows T = Absolute temperature
smaller for ammonia than for nitrogen thus kinetic energy is directly proportional to the
(d) If a gas is expanded at constant temperature, absolute temperature of the gas molecule.
the kinetic energy of the molecules decrease 339. Three flasks of equal volumes contain CH4,
TS EAMCET-2017 CO2 & Cl2 gases respectively. They will contain
Ans. (b) : Frequency of collisions increases in equal number of molecules if_______
proportion to the square root of temperature. (a) The mass of all the gases is same
337. Electrons with a kinetic energy of 6.023 × (b) The mass of the gases is same but
Temperature is different
104 J/mol are evolved from the surface of a
(c) Temperature & Pressure of all the flasks are
metal, when it is exposed to radiation of same
wavelength of 600 nm. The minimum amount
(d) Temperature, Pressure & Masses same in the
of energy required to remove an electron from
flasks
the metal atom is
(a) 2.3125 × 10 −19 J (b) 3 × 10 −19 J
Ans. (c): Three flasks of equal volume contain CH4,
(c) 6.02 × 10 −19 J (d) 6.62 × 10 −19 J CO2 and Cl2 gases of equal number of molecule if
AP EAMCET (Engg.)-2009 temperature and pressure of all flasks are same.
Ans. (a): Given 340. The mole fraction of dioxygen in a neon-
λ = 600nm= 6×10–7m dioxygen mixture is 0.18. If the total pressure
me = 9.109×10–31 kg of the mixture is 25 bar, the partial pressure,
Kinetic energy of 1 mole = 6.023 ×104 J/mole of neon in the mixture would be
1 mole atom contain = 6.023×1023 atom (a) 25.18 bar (b) 25.82 bar
KE of 1mole (c) 4.5 bar (d) 20.5 bar
Kinetic energy of 1 atom = COMEDK 2014
No. of atom in1 mole
Ans. (d) : Given Ptotal= 25 bar, xO2 = 0.18
6.023 × 104 ∴ x Ne = 1 – 0.18 = 0.82
=
6.023 × 1023 PNe = x Ne × Ptotal = 0.82 × 25 = 20.5bar
= 1.0×10–19 Jule

341. The kinetic energy of 4 moles of nitrogen gas at (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(
127°C is….. cals. R = 2cal mol –1K –1 ) the Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(a) 4400 (b) 3200 (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
(c) 4800 (d) 1524 Reason is not the correct explanation of
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2003 Assertion.
Ans. (c) : The expression of kinetic energy for a gas is– (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
3 (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
E k = nRT incorrect.
2
Where- Ek = Kinetic energy AIIMS-26 May, 2018 (E)
n = Number of moles AIIMS-2015
R= Gas constant Ans. (d): Compressibility factor can be less than 1 or
T = Temperature (in K) more than 1 depending upon the nature of the non ideal
Given data: n = 4 gas.
T = 127 + 273 = 400K 344. Assertion: Compressibility factor for
Ek = ? hydrogen varies with pressure with positive
R = 2 cal mol–1K–1 slope at all pressures.
3 Reason : Even at low pressure, repulsive forces
Now, E = × 4× 2× 400 dominate hydrogen gas.
2
E = 4800 calorie. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
the Reason is a correct explanation of the
1 Assertion.
342. Assertion: The graph between PV/s is a
V (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
straight line. Reason is not a correct explanation of the
1 Assertion.
Reason: For adiabatic process P ∝ . (c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
V
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
Reason is the correct explanation of (e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
Assertion. correct.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but AIIMS-2005
Reason is not the correct explanation of Ans. (a):
Assertion.
incorrect.
1
Ans. (c): From Boyle's law P∝ and graph between
V
1
the P and is straight line.
V Compressibility factor for hydrogen (H) varies with
pressure with positive slope at all pressure. As we can
see from the graph this statement is true and even at low
pressure repulsive force dominate in hydrogen gas.
Hence, option (a) is correct
345. Assertion: The molecules of the dissolved gas
present in a liquid gain kinetic energy as
temperature is raised.
And, For adiabatic process Reason: Gases tends to be more soluble in
γ liquids as the temperature is raised.
Pr = C
C (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
P= γ the Reason is the correct explanation of
V Assertion.
1 (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
P∝ γ
V Reason is not the correct explanation of
Hence, assertion is correct while reason is incorrect. Assertion.
343. Assertion: Compressibility factor (Z) for non- (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
ideal gases can be greater than 1. (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
Reason: Non- ideal gases always exert higher incorrect.
pressure than expected. AIIMS-2009
Ans. (c): When dissolved gas molecule present in liquid,
Ans. (b): If Z > 1
If we raised the temperature of the gas molecule kinetic
It means, gas is less compressible than ideal gas i.e. if
energy increases and they escape from the liquid. we compress the gas, the decrease in volume is less than
Hence, Molecule of gas will not be soluble in liquid expected. This is because of the dominance of strong
when increased the temperature repulsive forces between the molecules preventing them
So, Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect. to come closer.
346. Assertion: Gases do not settle to the bottom of 349. The compressibility factor of an ideal gas is:
container. (a) 0 (b) 2
Reason : Gases have high kinetic energy. (c) 1 (d) 4
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and AIIMS-1997
Assertion. Ans. (c): The deviation of real gases from ideal
behaviour is measured in terms of a ratio of PV to nRT.
Reason is not a correct explanation of theThis is termed as compressibility factor (Z)
Assertion. PV
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is Z=
nRT
incorrect. For ideal gas PV = nRT, hence the compressibility
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
factor, Z = 1 at all temperature and pressure.
correct. 350. The ratio of rates of diffusion of gases X and Y
is 1 : 5 and that of Y and Z is 1 : 6. The ratio of
AIIMS-1997
rates of diffusion of Z and X is
Ans. (a): Gases do not settle down to the bottom of the (a) 1 : 30 (b) 1 : 6
container because their intermolecular force of attraction is
very low. So they can move very fast in any specified (c) 30 : 1 (d) 6 : 1
region because of it they has high kinetic energy. AP-EAMCET (Engg.) - 2014
Ans. (c) : According to Graham's law of diffusion.
347. At critical state, the compressibility factor (Z)
for a real gas is equal to rX 1
= ______(I)
3 8 rY 5
(a) (b)
8 3 rY 1
4 3 = _____(II)
(c) (d) rZ 6
3 4 Multiply equation (I) and (II) we get
AIIMS-26 May, 2018 (M)
rX 1 1 1
Ans. (a): We know compressibility factor (z) = × =
rZ 5 6 30
PV
Z= –––––– (i) rZ 30
RT or =
At critical point rX 1
a or r Z : r X = 30 : 1
P= 2 351. Which one of the following is the kinetic energy
27b
V = 3b of a gaseous mixture containing 3g of hydrogen
And and 80 g of oxygen at temperature T(K)?
8a (a) 3RT (b) 6RT
T= (c) 4RT (d) 8RT
27 R b AP-EAMCET – 2016
Putting these all value in equation (i) Ans. (b) : Number of moles of hydrogen
a mass of H 2
× 3b =
27 b 2 M. weight of H 2
Z=
8a
R× 3
27 R b = = 1.5
2
3 80
Z= Number of moles of oxygen = = = 2.5
8 32
348. Dominance of strong repulsive forces among ∴ Total number of moles in gaseous mixture of
the molecules of the gas (Z=compressibility hydrogen and oxygen = 1.5 + 2.5 = 4
factor 3
(a) Depends on Z and indicated by Z=1 Therefore, K.E. = nRT
(b) Depends on Z and indicated by Z>1 2
3
(c) Depends on Z and indicated by Z<1 = × 4 × RT
(d) Is independent of Z. 2
AIIMS-2006 = 6RT
352. At T (K), the ratio of kinetic energies of 4 g of Given mass = 4.4g 
H2(g) and 8 g of O2 (g) is Ans. (c) : at STP
(a) 1: 4 (b) 4: 1 Volume = 2.24 L 
(c) 2: 1 (d) 8: 1 Mass Volume
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) 2013 No. of Moles = or
Molecular Mass 22.4
Ans. (d) : Let molecular mass is x
We know that K.E. = 3/2 nRT 4.4 2.24
Q 4 gm of H2 gas has 2 moles of H2. =
x 22.4
and 8 gm of O2 gas has 1/4 moles of O2.
4.4
Hence, ratio of K.E of H2 and O2 x=
1 0.1
K.E H2 : K.E O2 = 2 : = 8 :1 x = 44
4
Molecular Mass = 44
353. The average kinetic energy of one molecule of CO2 = 12 + 32 = 44
an ideal gas at 27°C and 1 atm pressure is O2 = 16 + 16 = 32
(a) 900 cal K–1mol–1 CO = 12 + 16 = 28
(b) 6.21 × 10–21 JK–1 molecule–1 NO2 = 14 + 32 = 46
(c) 336.7 JK–1 molecules–1 Hence, CO2 is correct option.
(d) 3741.3 JK–1 mol–1 357. Magnitude of kinetic energy in an orbit is equal
VITEEE- 2009 to :
Ans. (b) : Average kinetic energy per molecule (a) half of the potential energy
3 (b) twice of the potential energy
= kT (c) one fourth of the potential energy
2
3 R 3 8.314 (d) none of the above
or = T= × × 300 BCECE-2005
2 N0 2 6.023 × 1023 Ans. (a) : Kinetic energy of e– moving in an orbit
= 6.21 ×10 −21 JK −1 molecule −1 Zε 2
K.E =
354. Above the Boyle temperature, the 8πεr
compressibility factor of the real gases, Z is And
(a) 1 (b) < 1 −2e 2
(c) > 1 (d) ≤ 1 P.E =
AMU-2013 4πεr
P.E = –2KE
Ans. (c) : Boyle's Temperature:- It is the temperature
at which the real gas behaves as an ideal gas over a −1
KE = P.E
wide range of pressure is known as Boyle temperature. 2
At this temperature the attractive and repulsive forces 358. When hydrogen molecules decomposed into it's
acting on the gas particle are balance. atoms which conditions gives maximum yield of
Above the Boyle temperature (Z > 1), the real gases H atoms?
show positive deviation from ideality and Z value are (a) High temperature and low pressure
greater than 0 (Z > 1). (b) Low temperature and high pressure
355. The kinetic energy of one mole of a gas is (c) High temperature and high pressure
3 1 (d) Low temperature and low pressure
(a) KT (b) KT BCECE-2008
2 2
3 1   2H − Heat
Ans. (a) : H 2  
(c) RT (d) RT
2 2 According to Le Chatelier's principle-
AMU 2002 Increase the rate of forward reaction, temperature
Ans. (c) : According to the Kinetic theory of gases, the should be increased and pressure should be decreased.
mathematical expression of Kinetic energy for one mole 359. The velocity of a moving electron having
is: 4.55×10−25J of kinetic energy is
3 (a) 103 ms−1 (b) 105 cms−1
K.E. = RT 2
(c) 10 ms −1
(d) 104 cms−1
2
Where R = Gas constant (8.314J mol-1K) CG PET- 2015
T = Temperature (measured in Kelvin). Ans. (a) : Given,
356. 4.4 g of a gas at STP occupies a volume of 2.24 Mass of electron = 9.1 ×10–31 kg
L, the gas is Kinetic energy of electron (K.E.) = 4.55×10–25
(a) O2 (b) CO We know
(c) CO2 (d) NO2 1
K.E. = MV 2
Assam CEE-2014 2

1 Ans. (c) : Postulate of the kinetic theory of gases.
4.55 × 10–25 = 9.1 ×10–31 × V2 (i) Gas molecules are in a permanent state of random
2
motion
4.55 ×10−25 × 2 (ii) The collisions between molecules are completely
V2 =
9.1× 10−31 elastic (i.e. when molecules collide, there is no
9.1× 106 exchange of energy)
V2 = (iii) Pressure of gas is due to molecular impact on the
9.1 walls.
V2 = 106 (iv) Each molecules in a gas has different velocity
V = 103 m / sec 363. According to kinetic theory of gases
360. According to the kinetic theory of gases, in an (a) the absolute temperature is a measure of
kinetic energy of molecules
ideal gas, between two successive collisions a
(b) molecules attract each other
gas molecule travels
(c) energy is lost during molecular collision
(a) In a circular path
(d) molecules possess appreciable volume
(b) In a wavy path
J & K CET-(2001)
(c) In a straight line path
Ans. (a) : According to kinetic theory of gases the
(d) With an accelerated velocity
absolute temperature is a measure of kinetic energy of
[AIEEE 2003] molecules.
Ans. (c) : As we know, assumption of kinetic energy 364. Which one of the following statement is not an
theory of gases. The gas molecules are in constant, assumption of the kinetic theory of gases?
rapic, straight line motion (It means that gas molecules (a) There are attractive forces between the
1 particles.
have kinetic energy KE = MV 2 ).
2 (b) The particles of a gas are in a state of
361. As the temperature is raised from 20ºC to 40ºC continuous motion.
the average kinetic energy of neon atoms (c) The actual volume of molecules is negligible
changes by a factor of which of the following? compared to the empty space between them.
(d) At any particular time, different particles in a
(a) 1/ 2 (b) 313 / 293 gas have the same kinetic energy.
(c) 313/293 (d) 2 J & K CET-(1997)
[AIEEE 2004] Ans. (a) : Assumption in Kinetic Theory of Gases
Ans. (c) : Given, (1) Molecules obey Newton's Laws of motion
T1 = 20ºC + 273 = 293K (2) The particles of a gas are in a state of continuous
T2 = 40ºC + 273 = 313K motion
We know average kinetic energy (3) The actual volume of molecules is negligible
3 compared the empty space between them.
Then, E= KT (4) At any particular time, different particles in a gas
2 have the same kinetic energy.
3 (5) The molecules of gas have no attraction or
E1 = K(293) ––––– (i)
2 repulsion for each other.
3 365. The density of a gas is 1.964 g dm–3 at 273 K
E1 = K(313) ––––– (ii) and 76 cm Hg. The gas is
2
Equation (ii / i) (a) CH4 (b) C2H6
(c) CO2 (d) Xe
3 JCECE - 2009
K(313)
E2 2
= Ans. (c) : Given,
E1 3 K(293) Density (ρ) = 1.964 g/dm–3 = 1.964 × 10–3 g/cc
2 Pressure (P) = 76 cm = 760 mm Hg = 1 atm
E 2 313 Universal Gas Constant (R) = 0.08212 atm/k mol
= = 88.1 cc atm/k mol
E1 293 Temperature (T) = 273 K
362. Which of the following is not the postulate of We know, from Ideal Gas equation
the kinetic theory gases? PV = nRT
(a) Gas molecules are in an permanent state of m
random motion. PV = RT
M
(b) Pressure of gas is due to molecular impacts PV RT
on the walls. =
(c) The molecules are perfectly elastic. m M
(d) The molecular collisions are elastic. 1 RT
P =
J & K CET-(2013) ρ M
ρRT 369. The kinetic energy of a gas molecule is ..........
M= –––––(i) temperature.
P (a) independent of
Putting all value (b) directly proportional to
1.964 ×10−3 × 82.1× 273 (c) inversely proportional to
M= (d) directly proportional to square root of
1
M = 44 Manipal-2019
Hence, from the above given option CO2 has molecules Ans. (b) As we know, the average kinetic energy of gas
weight 44. 3
K.E (E) = kT
2
366. For three gases A,B and C, the values of their E∝T
critical temperatures (TC) are such that Here kinetic energy proportional to Temperature.
TC(A) > TC(B) > TC(C) 370. What is the kinetic energy of 1 g of O2 at 47ºC?
assuming identical value of 'b'. Which gas can (a) 2.17 × 102 J (b) 2.24 × 102 J
be most easily liquefied? (c) 1.24 × 10 J 2
(d) None of these
(a) A (b) B
Manipal-2017
(c) C (d) All at same temperature
Ans. (c) : Given, Temperature (T) = 47°C + 273 =
JCECE - 2016
320K K
Ans. (a) : Relation used Mass = 1 g
8a Molecular weight of O2 = 32 g/mol
TC =
27Rb Mass
where, a and b are van der Waals' constant. Keeping Mole =
value of b constant, we have, Molecular weight
TC ∝ a 1
Mole =
As we know, more be the value of 'a', more easily we 32
can liquefied the gas. As we know, K.E. of n mole
Hence, more be the value of TC, more easily that gas 3
will be liquefied i.e. A. = × ( nRT )
367. Which of the following ideal gases has higher 2
value of average kinetic energy per mole at 1
3 × × 8.314 × 320
given temperature –– N2, CO2, O2? = 32
(a) N2 2
(b) CO2 = 1.24 × 102 Joule.
(c) O2 371. Internal energy and pressure of a gas per unit
(d) All have equal value of KE volume are related as
JCECE - 2016 2 3
Ans. (d) : Average kinetic energy per mole of gas is (a) P = E (b) P = E
3 2
independent of nature of gas and is as,
1
3 (c) P = E (d) P = 2E
KEav = RT ( per mole ) 2
2 NEET-1993
and KEav ∝ T Ans. (a) : We know,
Since, T = constant
thus, value of KE also same for all gases. 3
Kinetic Energy of Gas = nRT ––––(i) (for n moles)
368. The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas per 2
molecule in SI units at 25oC will be and PV = nRT –––––(ii)
(a) 6.17×10-21 kJ (b) 6.17×10-21J From (i) and (ii)
(c) 6.17×10 J -20
(d) 6.16×10 J-20 3
K.E. = PV
JIPMER-2013, NEET-1996 2
Ans. (b) : kinetic energy of an ideal gas is, Here, in question given for unit volume (i.e. V = 1)
3 2
Average KE = kT P= E
2 3
Boltzmann constant is given as k 372. A closed flask contains water in all its three
The temperature is represented as T. states solid, liquid and vapour at 0oC. In this
The value of Boltzmann constant is situation, the average kinetic energy of water
1.38 × 10–23J/K molecules will be
3 (a) the greatest in all the three states
Average KE = kT (b) the greatest in vapour state
2 (c) the greatest in the liquid state
3 (d) the greatest in the solid state
= ×1.38 × 10 × 300J = 6.17 × 10 J.
–23 –21
2 NEET-1992
Ans. (b) : As we know, the intermolecular attraction mass
force between the molecule is more as compare to gas (Moles)N2 =
and liquid has intermolecular attraction force in 28
between solid and gas. 3
K.E. = nRT
Hence, Particle has maximum collision in gas because it 2
has maximum velocity. As we seen above, number of mole are same and R and
As we know, K.E. is the function of temperature. So, T is also same as given question-
maximum kinetic energy is in vapour state. Hence,
373. The energy absorbed by each molecule (A2) of a (K.E.)CO = (K.E.) N2
substance is 4.4 × 10–19 J and bond energy per
molecule is 4.0 × 10–19 J. The kinetic energy of 376. 50 mL of hydrogen diffuses out through a small
the molecule per atom will be hole of a vessel, in 20 minutes. The time taken
(a) 2.2 × 10–19 J (b) 2.0 × 10–19 J by 40 mL of oxygen to diffuse out is
(c) 4.0 × 10 J
–19
(d) 2.0 × 10–20 J (a) 32 minutes (b) 64 minutes
NEET-2009 (c) 8 minutes (d) 12 minutes
Ans. (d) : Given, molecule is diatomic (A2) = 2 atom NEET-1994
Energy is absorbed by each molecule = 4.4 × 10–19 J & K CET-(2003)
Joule 50
Bond energy absorbed by per molecule = 4 × 10–19 Joule Ans. (B) : Rate of diffusion of Hydrogen (H2) = =
20
K.E. = Energy absorbed – Bond Energy
K.E. = 4.4 × 10–19 – 4 × 10–19 40
2.5 and Rate of diffusion of Oxygen (O2) =
= 0.4 × 10–19 Joule t
K.E. According to Graham's law of diffusion,
Energy absorbed by per atom =
2 rO2 M H2
=
0.4 × 10−19 rH2 M O2
=
2 Where M = molecular mass
= 0.2 × 10–19 Joule H2 = 2
= 2 × 10–20 Joule O2 = 32
374. If a gas expands at constant temperature, it 40
indicates that
(a) Kinetic energy of molecules remains the same t = 2 = 1 =1
(b) Number of the molecules of gas increase 2.5 32 16 4
(c) Kinetic energy of molecules decreases 40 1 40 × 4 × 10
(d) Pressure of the gas increases = × 2.5 ⇒ t = = 64 min
t 4 25
NEET-2008 377. Which one of the following is the correct order
Ans. (a) : As we know, of interactions?
3 (a) Covalent < Hydrogen bonding < Van der
K.E. = KT Where K = nR Waal's < Dipole-dipole
2
Here, (b) Van der Waal's < Hydrogen bonding <
K.E. ∝ T Dipole-dipole < Covalent
Given, temperature is constant hence Kinetic energy s (c) Van der Waal's < Dipole-dipole < Hydrogen
also constant. Then Kinetic energy of molecules remain bonding < Covalent
the same. (d) Dipole-dipole < Van der Waal's < Hydrogen
375. Average molar kinetic energy of CO and N2 at bonding < Covalent
same temperature is NEET-1993
(a) KE1 = KE2 Ans:(b)
(b) KE1 > KE2 No. Force Aries Due to Nature
(c) KE1 < KE2 of force
(d) can't say anything. Both volumes are not 1. Van der Temporary Dipole Weakest
given Wall's moment between
NEET-2000 atom
2. Dipole 2 atom having less strong
Ans. (a) : Given, Dipole moment
CO and N2 3. Covalent Sharing of Electron Strongest
Molecular mass of CO = 12 + 16 = 28 g/mol Bond
Molecular mass of N2 = 14 + 14 = 28 g/mol 4. Hydrogen attraction of forces less weak
Bond that occurs between
mass two atoms of two
Moles = different molecules
molecular mass
Hence,
mass Vander Wall's < Hydrogen Bonding < Dipole - dipole <
(Moles)CO =
28 Covalent

378. Calculate the total pressure in a 10.0 L cylinder Ans. (b) : Given data: Vrms = 12240 cm.sec–1
which contains 0.4 g helium, 1.6 g oxygen and
3RT
1.4 g nitrogen at 27o C. Vrms = − (I)
(a) 0.492 atm (b) 49.2 atm M
(c) 4.92 atm (d) 0.0492 atm 2RT
and Vmp = − (II)
UPTU/UPSEE-2006 M
Ans. (a) : Given, Dividing the equation (I) from (II) – we get
V = 10.0L
Vrms 3RT M
Mass of Helium (He) = 0.4 g = ×
Mass of Oxygen (O) = 1.6 g Vmp M 2RT
and Mass of Nitrogen (N2) = 1.4 g
12240 3
Temperature = 27°C + 273 = 300 K. or =
We know, V mp 2
–1 –1
Universal Gas constant (R) = 0.082L atm mol k or Vmp ≈10 cm.sec–1
4
Then, 381. The rms velocity of an ideal gas at 27ºC is 0.3

Mass 0.4 m/s. Its rms velocity at 927ºC (in m/s) is
Moles of He = = = 0.1
Molecular mass 4 (a) 3.0 (b) 2.4
1.6 (c) 0.9 (d) 0.6
Moles of O = = 0.05 A-P EAMCET 1991
32
1.4 3RT
Moles of N2 = = 0.05 Ans. (d) : Vrms =
28 M
Total moles in 10.0L cylinder at 27°C V rms(1) = 0.3
= 0.1 + 0.05 + 0.05 T1 = 27ºC = 27 + 273 = 300 K
= 0.2 mol Vrms(2) = ?
We know, T2 = 927º C = 927 + 273 = 1200
PV = nRT Vrms1 T1
nRT 0.2 × 0.082 × 300 =
P= = V rms2 T2
V 10
0.3
P = 0.492 atm = 0.3 × 2 = 0.6 ms −1
Vrms( 2)
379. Equal weights of ethane and hydrogen are
mixed in an empty container at 25 oC. The 382. The rate of diffusion of a gas in a diffusion tube
fraction of total pressure exerted by hydrogen 1
is is . Molecular weight of the gas (in g mol–1)
2 7
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1
(c) 1 : 16 (d) 15 : 16 (a) 12 (b) 28
WB-JEE-2018 (c) 24 (d) 44
Ans. (d) : Let x gm. of each gas is mixed. A-P EAMCET 1992
x Ans. (b) : Given that,
mole of ethane (C2H6) = 1
30 Rate of diffusion of a gas in a diffusion tube (r) =
x 2 7
mole of hydrogen (H2) = Molecular weight (M) = ?
2
Graham's law states that the rate of diffusion or effusion
x/2 15
mole of fraction of H2 = = of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of
x x 16
+ its molecular weight.
30 2 1
∴ r=
M
5. Molecular Speeds squaring both side, we get
1
r2 =
380. The r.m.s. velocity of a gas at a particular M
temperature is found to be 12240 cm.sec–1.  1  2 1
What is its most probable velocity (in cm.sec–1)   =
at the same temperature? 2 7 M
(a) 105 (b) 104
( )
2
M = 2 7 = 4× 7
(c) 11280 (d) 1128
AP-EAMCET (Med.)-1999 or M = 28 g mol–1
383. At 27ºC, the ratio of root mean square
3RTN2O
velocities of ozone to oxygen is Vrms (N2O) = 4x = .....(ii)
3 4 M N 2O
(a) (b) ∴ Molecular weight of CO2 = 44
5 5
and molecular weight of N2O = 44
2 Dividing equation (i) from (ii) we get.
(c) (d) 0.25
3 x TCO2 M N2O
A-P EAMCET 1992 = ×
4x M CO2 TN2O
Ans. (c) : We know that,
Square both side, we get
3RT
Vrms = x2 TCO2 44
M 2
= ×
Where, R = Gas constant 16x 44 TN2O
T = Temperature TN2O = 16 TCO2
M = Molar mass of gas
Hence, the option (a) is correct.
Vrms ( O3 ) 3RT / M.(weight of O3 ) 386. If gas contains only three molecules that move
=
Vrms ( O 2 ) 3RT / M.(weight of O 2 ) with velocities of 100, 200, 500 ms–1. What is
the rms velocity of that gas in ms–1?
Vrms ( O3 ) 32 2
= = 8
Vrms ( O 2 ) 48 3 (a) 100 (b) 100 30
3
384. The root mean square velocity of a gas is 800
doubled when the temperature is (c) 100 10 (d)
3
(a) reduced to half A-P EAMCET 2003
(b) reduced to one-fourth
(c) increased four times
V1 = 100 ms–1, V2 = 200 ms–1, V3 = 500 ms–1 and n = 3
(d) increased two times
AP – EAMCET - (Medical)-1997 rms velocity (V) = V1 + V2 + V3
2 2 2
A-P EAMCET 1996 n

(100 ) + ( 200 ) + ( 500 )
2 2 2
3RT
Ans. (c) : U rms = =
M 3
Where, R = Gas constant
T = Temperature = 1,00,000
M = Molar mass = 100 10 ms −1
Q U rms ∝ T 387. At 27ºC, 500 mL of helium diffuses in 30 min.
U rms1 What is the time (in hours) taken for 1000 mL
T1
Then, = of SO2 to diffuse under same experimental
U rms2 T2 conditions?
Squaring both side we get (a) 240 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4
2 A-P EAMCET 2004
1 T1
  = Ans. (d) : Given that,
 2  T2 500 1000
1 T1 γ He = mL / min , γ SO2 = mL / min
= 30 t
4 T2 MHe = 4, MSO2 = 64
or T2 = 4T1 From Graham's law –
385. The rms velocity of CO2 at a temperature, T (in γ He M SO2

=
–1
Kelvin) is x cm s . At what temperature (in γ SO2 M He
Kelvin), the rms velocity of nitrous oxide would
be 4x cm s–1 ? (Atomic weights of C, N and O 500 t 64
× =
are respectively 12, 14 and 16) 30 1000 4
(a) 16 T (b) 2 T t
(c) 4 T (d) 32 T =4
60
A-P EAMCET (Engg.)-2001 t = 240 min = 4 hr.
Ans. (a) : Given that, 388. The given figure shows the Maxwell
3RTCO2 distribution of molecular speeds of a gas at
Vrms (CO2) = x = .....(i) three different temperatures T1, T2 and T3. The
M CO2
correct order of temperature is

Ans. (c) : For gas-A for gas-B
molecular mass = MA molecular mass MB
temperature = TA temperature = TB
Given- TAMB = TBMA
Now, from the root mean square velocity-
3RT
Vrms =
M
(a) T1 > T2 > T3 (b) T1 > T3 > T2 For gas - A
(c) T3 > T2 > T1 (d) T2 > T3 > T1
3RTA
TS-EAMCET-2016 ( Vrms )A = ____(I)
Ans. (d) : At lower temperature, the molecules have MA
less energy. So, the molecular speeds are lower and and for gas-B
distribution of molecules has smaller range. But as the
3RTB
temperature increases, distribution range flatters. So that ( Vrms )B = ____(II)
correct order of temperature is : T2> T3> T1. MB
389. How many times the volume of a diatomic gas From equation (I) and (II) - we get
should be increased reversibly and ( Vrms )A 3RTA M B
adiabatically in order to reduce its RMS ×
velocity to half of its initial value. ( Vrms )B M A 3RTB
(a) 4 (b) 8
( Vrms )A TA M B
(c) 16 (d) 32 or = (Q TA M B = M A TB )
TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 15.08.2021 Shift-II ( Vrms )B M A TB
Ans. (d) : ⇒ VRMS =

3RT
or Vrms ∝ T
( Vrms )A
∴ =1
M ( Vrms )B
2
2 T  1 1 or (Vrms)A = (Vrms)B
T ∝ VRMS ,  2 =  ⇒ …..(i)
T
 1  2  4 391. Among the following identify the gas which has
the greatest average speed of its molecules?
Reversible adiabatic expansion –
(a) 0.5 mol of O2 at 500K
TVγ–1 = constant (b) 0.2 mol of CO2 at 400K
γ−1
 T2   V1  (c) 1.0 mol of He at 200K
 =  (d) 0.4 mol of NH3 at 300K
 T1   V2  AP EAPCET 25.08.2021, Shift-II
1
Ans. (c) :
V2  T1  γ−1
=  8RT
V1  T2  Average speed (Vag.) =
πM
7 2 1 5
Diatomic gas – γ = ⇒ γ − 1 ⇒ ⇒ ⇒ …..(ii) Where M = Molar mass
5 5 γ −1 2 T = Temperature
1 R = Gas Constant
 V   T  γ−1 mass 32
⇒ 2 = 1  [Putting the value of T1/T2 from (i) Molar mass of O2 = = = 64
 V1   T2  moles 0.5
equation (i)] 8RT  8R 
V  Vag = Q = 21.18 
5
⇒  2  = ( 4) 2 πM  π 
 V1  21.18 × 500
Vag = = 12.86 m/sec.
V2 64
⇒ = 32
V1 44
(ii) Molar mass of CO2 = = 220
Hence, gas should be expanded 32 times adiabatically. 0.2
390. Two gases of molecular masses MA and MB are 21.18 × 400
at temperatures TA and TB respectively. If Vag = = 6.21 m/sec.
TAMB = TBMA, which one of the following 200
properties has the same value for both the 4
(iii) Molar mass of He = = 4
gases? 1
(a) Pressure (b) Kinetic energy
21.18 × 200
(c) RMS velocity (d) Density Vag = = 32.54
AP EAMCET (Medical) - 2013 4

17 1 100
(iv) Molar mass of NH3 = = 42.5 or =
0.4 3 T2
21.18 × 300 1 100
Vag = = 12.22 or =
42.5 9 T2
So, the Vag. of molecule is maximum in option (c). or T2 = 900K
392. The R.M.S. velocity of CH4, He and SO2 are in or T2 = 900 – 273
the ratio of or T2 = 627oC
(a) 16:4:64 (b) 2:1:4 395. The most probable velocity of a gas at 7200 K is
(c) 2:4:1 (d) 1:4:2 equal to the RMS velocity of He gas at 27oC.
COMEDK 2012 The gas is
3RT (a) O2 (b) CO (c) N2 (d) SO2
Ans. (c) : R.M.S.velocity = TS EAMCET 04.08.2021, Shift-I
M Ans. (d) : Given that Tmp = 7200K, Trms = 27°C =
∴ The ratio of R.M.S. velocities of CH4, He and SO2 300K, M = 4
rms
will be We know that,
3RT 3RT 3RT 1 1 1
: : = : : = 2 : 4 :1 Most probable velocity (vmp) =
2RT
16 4 64 4 2 8 M
393. The most probable velocity (in cm/sec) of
3RT
hydrogen molecule at 27ºC, will be: and RMS velocity (vrms) =
(a) 19.3 × 104 (b) 17.8 × 104 M
(c) 24.93 × 109 (d) 17.8 × 108 According to the question,
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2006 2RT 3RT
∴ =
8RT M M
Ans. (b) : Q Most probable velocity =
πM Putting the value of these, we get–
Temperature (T) = 27 + 273 = 300K 2R × 7200 3R × 300
Molecular mass of H2 = 2gmol–1 =
M 4
Most probable velocity of (H2) Squaring both side, we get–
8 × 8.314 × 107 × 300 2R × 7200 3R × 300
= =
3.14 × 2 M 4
= 17.8 × 104 cm/s 2 × 7200 × 4
or M=
394. If the r.m.s. velocity of a gas at 100K is 104cm. 3 × 300
–1 o
sec , what is the temperature (in C) at which M = 64
4 –1
the r.m.s velocity will be 3 × 10 cm. sec ? Hence, the gas is SO2.
(a) 900 (b) 627 396. If the density ratio of O2 and H2 is 16:1, then
(c) 327 (d) 1217 ration of their Vrms will be
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2002 (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 4
Ans. (b) : Given (c) 16 : 1 (d) 1 : 16
(Vrms)1 = 104 cm sec–1 (Vrms)2 = 3 × 104 cm sec–1 Assam CEE-2014
T1 = 100 K T2 = ? (oC) AIIMS-1994
Now, relation between root mean square velocity and BITSAT 2008
temperature – Ans. (b): Given that,
3RT density of O2 = 16
Vrms = density of H2 = 1
M
∴ We know that
Where, Vrms = root mean square velocity
R = gas constant 3KT
Vrms =
T = temperature M
M = molecular weight Root mean speed is inversely proportional to the square
3RT1 root of density.
∴ ( Vrms )1 = ……….. (i) VrmsO2
M density of H 2
=
3RT2 V density of O 2
( Vrms )2 =
rmsH 2
and ……….. (ii)
M VrmsO2 1
from equation (i) and (ii) we get =
VrmsH2 16
104 cm sec −1 3RT1 M 1
−1
= × =
3 ×10 cm sec
4
M 3RT2 4
397. Which of the following gas molecules have Ans. (b): If the temperature is below critical
equal total kinetic energy and translational temperature and the pressure is also below its critical
kinetic energy? value then there is a possibility that we see an
(a) O2 (b) He (c) CH4 (d) N2 equilibrium between the liquid and gaseous states.
AIIMS-1996 Critical temperature of a gas is given by-
Ans. (b): Total kinetic energy = Translational K.E. + 8a
Rotational + Vibrational K.E. Tc =
27Rb
For the monoatomic molecule do not posses vibrational Where, a = Vander Waal's forces of attraction.
and rotational kinetic energies but have only R = Gas constant.
translational motion. Therefore the noble gas (He, Ne,
Ar, Kr, etc) fulfill the criteria. 401. Critical temperatures for A,B,C and D gases
are 25ºC, 10ºC, −80ºC and 15ºC respectively.
398. Assertion: All molecules in a gas have same speed.
Which gas will be liquified more easily?
Reason: Gas contains molecules of different
(a) A (b) B
size and shape.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and (c) C (d) D
the Reason is a correct explanation of the AIIMS-2007
Assertion. Ans. (a): The gas with higher critical temperatures
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but liquifies first.
Reason is not a correct explanation of the Hence, 'A' will be liquified more easily.
Assertion. 402. For the diffusion of a gas at pressure P, the rate
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is of diffusion is expressed by:
incorrect. 1 P
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. (a) r ∝ (b) r =
M M
correct. M P
(c) r ∝ (d) r =
AIIMS-2001 P M
Ans. (d): All molecules of a gas are identical in shape AIIMS-1998
and size, but have different energies due to which they Ans. (a): According to the Graham's law of diffusion
have different speeds. It not all of the molecules of a under similar conditions of temperature and pressure,
particular gas at a given temperatures move at exactly rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to square root
the same speed. of molecular weight.
399. The inversion temperature Ti(K) of hydrogen is 1
(given van der Waals constants a and b are γ∝
0.244 atm L2mol−2 and 0.027 Lmol−1 M
respectively) Where, M = Molar mass
(a) 440 (b) 220 403. A gas cylinder containing cooling gas can
(c) 110 (d) 330 withstand a pressure of 14.9 atmosphere. The
AIIMS-2010 pressure gauge of cylinder indicates 12
Ans. (b): Given that, atmosphere at 27oC. Due to sudden fire in the
a = 0.244 atm L2 mol –2 building the temperature starts rising. The
b = 0.027 L mol–1 temperature at which cylinder explodes is:
(a) 87.5ºC (b) 99.5ºC
The inversion temperature is characteristic of each gas
and is given as (c) 115.5ºC (d) 135.5ºC
AIIMS-1997
2a
Ti = Ans. (b): Given that,
bR P1 = 12 bar, P2 = 14.9 bar
2 × 0.244 T1= 27ºC = 27+273 = 300K, T2 = ?
=
0.027 × 0.0821 P T
= 220K According to the pressure temperature law- 1 = 1
P2 T2
400. Amongst the following statements, the correct
one is : or
(a) The gas can not be compressed below the T ×P
T2= 1 2
critical temperature. P1
(b) Below critical temperature, thermal motion of Putting the given values, we get-
the molecules is slow enough for the
14.9
intermolecular forces to come into play T2 = 300 ×
leading to condensation of the gas. 12
(c) At critical temperature liquid and gaseous = 300 ×1.2416
phase can be distinguished. = 372.5K.
(d) An ideal gas has a characteristic critical Hence, the temperature in centigrade
temperature. = 372.5–273
AIIMS-2011 = 99.5ºC

404. Two flasks A and B have equal volumes. A is Ans. (d) : The root mean square velocity is directly
maintained at 300K and B at 600K. Equal proportional to the square root of temperature and
masses of H2 and CO2 are taken in flasks A and inversely proportional to the square root of molar mass.
B respectively. Find the ratio of total K.E. of 3RT
gases in flask A to that of B ∴ Vrms =
M
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 11: 1 WWhere, T = temperature
(c) 33 : 2 (d) 55:7 M = Molar mass
AP EAPCET 19-08-2021, Shift-II mass
We know that, density =
Ans. (b) : Given volume
For Flask A - For Flask B - ∴ ddensity ∝ mass
TA = 300K TB = 600 K
1
Molar mass of (H2)A = 2 Molar mass of (CO2)B = 44 Hence, Vrms =
density
3RT
Kinetic energy − Vrms = 1
M Vrms ∝
d
For Flask A -
407. The temperature of a gas is raised from 27oC to
3R × 300K 927oC, the root mean square velocity is
( Vrms )A = ...( i )
2 927
For Flask B - (a) times the earlier value
27
3R × 600K (b) same as before
( Vrms )B = ...( ii ) (c) halved
44
(d) doubled
From (i) and (ii) Assam CEE-2020
( Vrms )A 300K 44 11 AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-II
= × =
( rms )B
V 2 600K 1 Ans. (d) : Given,
T1 = 27oC = 27 + 273 = 300 K
( KE )A
1
2
( 2
m v rms )A
2
 11  11
T2 = 927oC = 927 + 273 = 1200 K
∴ = =   = 3KT
( KE )B 1
(
m v2rms )  1  1 Vrms =
M
2 B
Vrms ∝ T
405. The root mean square velocity of hydrogen at
STP is 1.83 × 105 cm sec–1 and its mean free Vrms1 T1
=
path is 1.78 × 10–3 cm. What will be the Vrms2 T2
collision number at STP? Vrms1 300
(a) 9.476 × 109 sec–1 (b) 9.746 × 10–9 sec–1 =
Vrms2 1200
(c) 9.746 × 10 sec
9 –1
(d) 9.647 × 109 sec–1
AMU-2016 Vrms1 = 2 Vrms2
Ans. (a) : Given that, Vrms =1.83×105 cm sec–1 408. The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas per
Mean free path (λ) = 1.78 ×10–5 cm molecule in SI unit at 250C will be
∴ we know that, (a) 6.17×10–21 kJ (b) 6.17×10–21 J
–20
V (c) 6.17×10 J (d) 7.16×10–20 J
Collision number (Z) = rms BITSAT 2016
λ NEET-1996
Substituting the given value, we get-
3 3 8.313
1.83 ×105 Ans. (b) : KE = kT = × × 298
Z= 2 2 6.023 × 1023
1.78 ×10−5 = 6.17 × 10−21 J.
= 1.026 ×1010
3 3R
406. The root mean square velocity of an ideal gas (Average Kinetic energy KE = kT = T)
2 2N
at constant pressure varies with density (d) as
409. Increasing order of rms velocities of H2, O2, N2
(a) d2 (b) d and HBr is
1 (a) H2 > O2 > N2 > HBr (b) HBr < O2 < N2 < H2
(c) d (d) (c) H2 > N2 < O2 > HBr (d) HBr > N2 < O2 < H2
d
BITSAT 2013
AMU-2015 AMU – 2008
WB-JEE-2008 NEET-1991
Ans. (b) : RMS velocity (Vrms) of molecules depends on Ans. (c) : We know that,
mass. When Mol.wt. increases then rms velocity of
melocules decreases. 2RT
C* = Most probable speed =
1 M
rms ∝
mol.wt 8RT
The order of increasing mol.wt. :– C = Average speed =
πM
H2 < N2 < O2 < HBr
Increasing order of rms velocity of molecules 3RT
C = Root square speed =
HBr < O2 < N2 < H2. M
410. Which one of the following statements is not Therefore, the ratio of speed are-
true about the effect of an increase in
temperature on the distribution of molecular C*: C :C = 1 : 1.128:1.225
speeds in a gas? 413. Points I, II and III in the following plot
(a) The area under the distribution curve remains
the same as under the lower temperature respectively correspond to (Vmp : most
(b) The distribution becomes broader probable velocity)
(c) The fraction of the molecules with the most
probable speed increases
(d) The most probable speed increases
[AIEEE 2005]
Ans. (c) : On increasing the temperature, the motion of
gas molecule become rapid so the value of most
probable speed also increase.
The most probable speed is directly proportional to the
square root of temperature. The area under the
distribution curve remains the same as under the lower
temperature and distribution curve represents the total
number of molecules.
411. The molecular velocity of any gas is Vmp of H 2 (300 K);Vmp of N 2 (300 K);Vmp
(a) Inversely proportional to the square root of (a)
temperature of O 2 (400 K)
(b) Inversely proportional to absolute Vmp of O 2 (400 K); Vmp of N 2 (300 K); Vmp
temperature (b)
(c) Directly proportional to square of temperature of H 2 (300 K)
(d) Directly proportional to square root of Vmp of N 2 (300 K);Vmp of O 2 (400 K);Vmp
temperature (c)
[AIEEE 2011] of H 2 (300 K)
Ans. (d) : The molecular speed of gas is directly Vmp of N 2 (300 K); Vmp of H 2 (300 K); Vmp
proportional to the square root of temperature. (d)
We know that, of O 2 (400 K)
8RT [JEE Main 2019, 10 April Shift-II]
Average velocity = Ans. (c) : We know that, the most probable speed
πM
3RT 2RT
Root mean square velocity = (Vmp) =
M M
2RT T
Most Probable velocity = or Vmp∝
M M
Hence, in all cases molecular velocity ∝ T For N2, O2 and H2
412. For gaseous state, if most probable speed is 300 400
denoted by C*, average speed by C and mean Vmp N 2 = , Vmp O 2 =
square speed by C, then for a large number of 28 32
molecules, the ratios of these speeds are 300
(a) C* : C : C = 1.225 :1.128 :1 Vmp H 2 =
2
(b) C* : C : C = 1.128 :1.225 :1 Hence, Vmp of N2 (300K) < Vmp of O2(400K) < Vmp of
(c) C* : C : C = 1:1.128 :1.1225 H2 (300K)
(d) C* : C : C = 1:1.225 :1.128 414. Identify the correct labels of A, B and C in the
[JEE Main 2013] following graph from the options given below:
416. Which of the following gas molecules has the
longest mean-free path?
(a) H2 (b) N2
(c) O2 (d) Cl2
J & K CET-(1998)
Ans. (a) : The average distance travelled by a moving
particle between successive collisions is known as mean
free path. The smaller the molar mass, the higher the
mean free path.
Hence, Hydrogen has smallest molar mass it has largest
Root mean square speed (Vrms); mean free path.
Most probable speed (Vmp); 417. The volume of a gas is reduced to 1.0 L at 25ºC
Average speed (Vav); and 1 atm pressure. Its pressure at 35º C would be:
(a) A-vrms;B-vmp;C-vav (a) 0.96 atm (b) 1.03 atm
(b) A-vmp;B-vrms;C-vav (c) 2.04 atm (d) 3.08 atm
(c) A-vmp;B-vav;C-vrms JCECE - 2003
(d) A-vav;B-vrms;C-vmp Ans. (b): Given that,
[JEE Main 2020, 7 Jan Shift-II] V = 1 lit , T = 25°C = 298 K
Ans. (c) : We know that, P = 1 atm.
∴ PV = nRT
3RT 1 × 1 = n × 298 × 8.321
Vrms =
M 1
n=
8RT 298 × 8.321
Vav. = At T = 35°C = 308 k
πM
1
2RT P×1= × 8.34 × 308
Vmps = 298 × 8.321
M 308
Therefore, Vrms > Vav > Vmps P=
298
8 = 1.03 atm.
3> > 2
π 418. At what temperature, the rms velocity of SO2
Hence, A = Vrms, B= Vav and C = Vmps. be same as that of O2 at 303 K?
(a) 273 K
415. What will be the relation between the Tl of gas (b) 606 K
1 with M1 = 56 and T2 of gas 2 with M2 = 44 if (c) 303 K
the average speed of gas 1 is equal to most (d) 403 K
probable speed of gas 2? JCECE - 2014
(a) T1=T22 (b) T1=T2
(c) T1= (T2)1/2 (d) T1=l/T2 (Vrms )SO2 TSO2 MO2
Ans. (b) : = ×
J & K CET-(2018) (Vrms )O2 MSO2 TO2
Ans. (b) : Given that, M1 = 56, M2 = 44
We know that, TSO2 32
i.e., 1= ×
8RT 64 303
Cav = or TSO2 = 606 K
πM
2RT T
and Cmp = 419. Given that the reduced temperature, θ =
M TC
According to the equation F
The reduced pressure, π =
8RT1 2RT2 FC
=
πM1 M2 V
The reduced volume, φ =
8T1 2T2 VC
=
πM M 2 Thus, it can be said that the reduced equation
4T1 T of state may be given as
= 2 π 1 8
π × 56 44 (a)  +  (3φ – 1) = θ
T1 56 × π  3 ϕ  3
= =1
T2 44 × 4 π 1 3
(b)  +  (3θ – 1) = ϕ
Or T1 = T2.  4 ϕ  8

π 1 3 3RTN2
(c)  +  (φ – 1) = θ (Vrms ) N2 =
 3 ϕ  8 28
π 1  8 3RTH2
(d)  + 2  (3φ – 1) = θ (Vrms ) H2 =
3 ϕ  3 2
JIPMER-2015 3RTH2 3RTH2
Ans. (d) : According to the Vander Waal’s equation – = 7
2 28
 a 
 P +  ( v − b ) = RT Squiring both side,
 v2  3RTH2 3RTN2
T = 7×
Reduced temperature (θ) = 2 28
Tc
2TH2 = TN2 ⇒ TN2 = 2TH2
T
Reduced pressure (π) = 422. The rms velocity of molecules of a gas of
Pc
density 4 kg m–3 and pressure 1.2 × 105 Nm–2 is
v (a) 300 ms–1 (b) 900 ms–1
and Reduced volume (φ) = –1
vc (c) 120 ms (d) 600 ms–1
Substituting the value of these in equation by Vander KARNATAKA-CET, 2009
Waal’s constant –
3RT 3PV 3P
 a a  8a Ans. (a) : Vrms = = =
π + 2 2  ( φ3b − b ) = r θ M M ρ
 27b φ 9b 
2
27Rb
3 ×1.2 × 10 5
 3a  = = 300ms −1
2 ( )
 πa + 3b φ − b = 8ab θ 4
 φ 
423. The temperature of a gas is raised from 27oC to
 3 927oC. The root mean square speed of the gas
 π + 2  ( 3φ − 1) = 8θ
 φ  927
Hence, the reduced equation of state is – (a) remains same (b) gets times
27
π 1  8
 + 2  ( 3φ − 1) = θ
(c) gets halved (d) gets doubled
3 4  3 NEET-1994
420. The average velocity (in cm/s) of hydrogen Ans. (d) :
molecule at 27o C will be 3RT
Vrms = ⇒ Vrms ∝ T
(a) 19.3 × 104 (b) 17.6 × 104 M
(c) 24.93× 10 9
(d) 17.8 × 108 (Vrms )1 T 300 1
JIPMER-2009 = 1 = =
(Vrms ) 2 T2 1200 2
8RT
Ans. (b) : average velocity = (Vrms ) 2 = 2(Vrms )1
πm
T = (27 + 273) = 300K Final velocity is doubled the initial velocity.
Molecular mass of H2 = 2 g mol–1 424. The Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution law of
= molecular speeds is graphically represented as
8 × 8.314 × 300
=1782.5m / s =17.8 × 10 4 cm / sec
3.14 × 2 × 103
421. The rms velocity of hydrogen is 7 times the

rms velocity of nitrogen. If T is the
temperature of the gas, which of the following
is true?
(a) TH2 = 7 TN2 (b) TN2 = TH2 This curve has which of the following
(c) TN2 = 7 TH2 (d) TN2 = 2TH2 characteristics?
(1) It has symmetrical distribution
Karnataka-CET-2011 (2) The point on axis represents the most
Ans. (d) : probable speed
(Vrms ) H2 = 7 (Vrms ) N2 (3) The area under the curve gives the total
number of molecules
3RT (4) The maximum shifts to the right as the
(Vrms ) =
M temperature increases

Choose the correct answer using the codes Ans. (e) : Thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrate
given below does not produce dinitrogen.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 427. Assertion: Solubility of gases increases with
(c) 3 and 4 (d) only 4 increase in pressure
UP CPMT-2013 Reason: Dissolution of gas in liquid is
Ans. (c) : According to Maxwell-Boltzmann's exothermic.
distribution curve (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
1. At a particular temperature, the different molecules the Reason is the correct explanation of
of gas posses different speeds and their speeds keep Assertion.
on changing due to continuous ________ ______ (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
_______ _______ ______ collisions, though some Reason is not the correct explanation of
molecules are speeded up. Some others are slowed Assertion.
down and hence the fraction of molecules (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
possessing particular speed remains constant at (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
constant temperature. incorrect.
2. The point A on X-axis does not represent the most AIIMS-27 May, 2018 (E)
probable speed, however, it represents threshold Ans. (b): Difference in pressure is independent of
speed, i.e., the minimum speed which the colloiding thermodynamic of the process.
molecules must have in order that the collision
Hence, if both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
between them may be effective.
Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
3. The area under the curve gives the total number of
molecules. As velocity increases, distribution of 428. Assertion: Greater the value of van der Waal's
molecules increases and it is maximum at most constant'a'. greater is the liquefaction of gas.
probable speed after which distribution of molecules Reason:'a' indirectly measures the magnitude
decreases. Fraction of molecules with too high and of attractive forces between the molecules.
too low velocities is very small but no molecule has (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
zero velocity. the Reason is the correct explanation of
4. The peak of the curve corresponds to a speed Assertion.
possessed by the maximum fraction of molecules (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
and is called the most probable speed. As Reason is not the correct explanation of
temperature increases, the most probable speed also Assertion.
increases, however, the fraction of molecules (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
possessing most probable speed decreases with (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
increase in temperature. Thus, the maximum shift to incorrect.
right as the temperature increases. AIIMS-2014
425. The most probable velocity (in cm/s) of Ans. (a): Considering the attractive force, pressure in
hydrogen molecule at 27oC will be the ideal gas equation (PV = nRT) is corrected by
(a) 19.3 × 104 (b) 15.8 × 104 an 2
introducing a factor of , where a is vander wall's
(c) 24.93 × 10 9
(d) 17.8 × 105 V2
UP CPMT-2008 constant.
Ans. (b): Most probable velocity Hence, if both Assertion and Reason are correct and the
2RT 2 × 8.314 × 300 Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(Vm) = = =1579.3m / s 429. Under which one of the following conditions do
M 2 × 10−3
real gases approach the ideal gas behaviour?
=15.79 ×10 4 cm / sec (a) Low temperature and high pressure
(b) High temperature and high pressure
6. Liquefaction of Gases (c) High temperature and low pressure
(d) Low temperature and low pressure
426. Which one of the following processes does not AP-EAMCET- (Engg.)-2011
produce dinitrogen? Ans. (c) : Real gases approach the ideal gas behaviour
(a) Thermal decomposition of ammonium at high temperature and low pressure.
dichromatic 430. A, B, C and D are four different gases with
(b) Thermal decomposition of barium azide critical temperatures 304.1, 154.3, 405.5 and
(c) Treating an aqueous solution of ammonium 126.0 K respectively. While cooling the gas,
chloride with sodium nitrite which gets liquefied first?
(d) Thermal decomposition of sodium azide (a) B (b) A
(e) Thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrate (c) D (d) C
Kerala CEE -03.07.2022 AP-EAMCET – 2016
Ans. (d) : Given that, Ans. (c): A gas can be liquefied only when its
TA = 304.1K temperature is below its critical temperature. This is
TB = 154.3K because at critical temperature no distinction exists
between the gaseous and liquid state and hence, no
TC = 405.5K separate phase is formed.
TD = 126.0K 436. A gas can be liquefied at temperature T and
The critical temperature signifies the force of attraction pressure p provided
between the molecules. The higher the critical (a) T = TC and P < Pc (b) T < TC and P > Pc
temperature, higher is the intermolecular force of (c) T > TC and P > Pc (d) T > TC and P < Pc
attraction and easier is the liquefaction of the gas. WB-JEE-2015
In the given four different gases, C has highest critical
temperature i.e. = 405.5K. Ans. (b) : A gas can be liquefied below critical
Hence, it gets liquefied first. temperature and above the critical pressure.
431. An ideal gas can’t be liquefied because
(a) its critical temperature is always above 00C 7. Intermolecular Forces
(b) its molecule are relatively smaller in size
(c) it solidifies before becoming a liquid 437. Dipole-induced dipole interactions are present
(d) forces operated between its molecules are in which of the following pairs?
negligible
(a) HCl and He atoms (b) SiF4 and He atoms
BITSAT 2012
BCECE-2010 (c) H2O and alcohol (d) Cl2 and CCl4
Ans. (d) : In an ideal gas, the intermolecular forces of NEET-2013
attraction are negligible and hence it cannot be liquefied. Ans. (a) : Dipole induced dipole interaction is present
432. When the temperature is raised, the viscosity of in the pair in which first species polar and the other is
liquid decreases this is because non polar (HCl and He atoms).
(a) decreased volume of the solution
(b) increased attraction between molecules 8. Behavior of Real Gases:
(c) decreased covalent and hydrogen bond forces
(d) increase in temperature increase the average Deviation From Ideal Gas
kinetic energy of molecules which overcomes Behavior
the attractive force between them
BITSAT 2010
438. Which of the following indicates a plot of
Ans. (b) : When the temperature is raised, the viscosity
compressibility factor (Z) Vs P at room
of liquid decrease, this is because increasing in
temperature increases the kinetic energy of molecules temperature for helium
which overcome the affricative force between them.
433. A gas at high temperature is cooled. The
(a) (b)
highest temperature at which liquefaction of
gas first occurs is called.
(a) Boyle temperature (b) critical temperature
(c) boiling temperature (d) freezing temperature.
J & K CET-(2015)
Ans. (b) : The highest temperature at which
liquefaction of gas is first is called critical temperature.
(c) (d)
434. The following is a method to determine the
surface tension of liquids
(a) single capillary method
(b) refractometric method
(c) polarimetric method
(d) boiling point method TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 07.08.2021 Shift-II
J & K CET-(2007) Ans. (c) : A graph of the compressibility factor (Z) vs.
Ans. (a) : The capillary rise methods is test conducted pressure (P) shows that gases can exhibit significant
to determine the surface tension of a liquid or the deviations from the behavior predicted by the ideal gas
contact angel. of liquid. Capillary rise takes place due to law. The graph of Z vs. P is given below–
the combined effect of cohesive and adhesive force.
435. A gas can be liquefied
(a) at its critical temperature
(b) above its critical temperature
(c) below its critical temperature
(d) at 0o C
UP CPMT-2009
06.
Thermodynamics
(D) Exothermic (IV) [Bond energies of
1. Thermodynamics terms Process molecules in
reactants]-[Bond
energies of
1. Which of the following p-V curve represents
maximum work done? product molecules]
Choose the correct answer from the option
Given below:
(a) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(a) (b) (b) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(d) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Ans. (b): Spontaneous process → ∆G < 0
Process with ∆P = 0, ∆T = 0 → isobaric and isothermal
process
(c) (d) ∆Hreaction → B.E. of reactants – B.E. of products
Exothermic → ∆H < 0
4. Solubility of a gas in a liquid increases with
(a) increase of P and decrease of T
NEET-17.07.2022 (b) decrease of P and decrease of T
Ans. (a) : Work done under any thermodynamics (c) increase of P and increase of T
process can be determined by area under the P-V curve. (d) decrease of P and increase of T
Therefore the maximum area covered is– Karnataka CET-17.06.2022, Shift-II
Ans. (a) : The solubility of gases in liquids are affected
by both temperature and pressure.
As temperature decrease and pressure increase
solubility increases.
• The higher the pressure above a liquid, the more gas
that can be dissolved in that liquid, to a limit of course.
N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) 2NH 3 (g) 5. The volume of 2.8g of CO at 27°C and 0.821
atm, pressure is ( R − 0.08210 lit.atm.K −1mol −1 )
2.
[∆H = –93.6kJ]
The yield of ammonia does not increase when: (a) 3 litres (b) 30 litres
(a) Pressure is increased (c) 0.3 litres (d) 1.5 litres
(b) Pressure is decreased Karnataka CET-17.06.2022, Shift-II
(c) Temperature is lowered Ans. (a) : Given that,
(d) Volume of reaction vessel is decreased T = 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300K
CG PET-22.05.2022
R = 0.0821atm K−1 mol−1
Ans. (b) : In the reation,
P = 0.821 atm
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) [△H = −93.6kJ ]
Molecular mass of CO(Mco) = 12 + 16 = 28 g/mol
The yield of ammonia will increase when pressure is
decreased because the decreasing of pressure will result W 2.8
No. of mole (n) = = = 0.1 moles
in an increase in volume which shifts the equilibrium in M 28
the direction of increased volume i.e. backward. According to gas equation–
3. Match List - I with List – II PV = nRT
List – I List – II nRT 0.1× 0.0821×300
(A) Spontaneous (I) ∆H < 0
∴ V= = =3L
P 0.821
process 6. For spontaneity of a cell, which is correct?
(B) Process with (II) ∆GT,P < 0 (a) ∆G = + ve, ∆E = + ve (b) ∆G = − ve
∆P = 0, ∆T = 0
(c) ∆G = 0, ∆E = 0 (d) ∆G = − ve, ∆E = 0
(C) ∆Hreaction (III) Isothermal and
Isobaric process Karnataka CET-17.06.2022, Shift-II
Ans. (b) : The Gibbs free energy (G) related to the (c) Statement I is true, but statement II is true
enthalpy and entropy of a system is given as– (d) Statement I is false, but statement II is true
G = H − TS SCRA-2015
The free energy change (∆G) is a measure of the Ans. (d): Extensive Properties– The properties depend
spontaneity of a process and of the useful energy on the mass of the system under consideration.
available from it. e.g. Mass, Internal energy, Enthalpy, Volume, Entropy
∆G Sys = ∆HSys − T∆SSys ∆G Sys = −T∆SUniv. etc.
Intensive Properties–These are the properties of the
Therefore, ∆G < 0 → spontaneous p rocess system which are independent of mass under
∆G > 0 → Non − spontaneous p rocess consideration.
e.g. Pressure, Temperature, Density, Specific enthalpy
∆G = 0 → Process at a equllibrium
etc.
7. A rigid nitrogen tank stored inside a laboratory 10. Which of the following processes is associated
has a pressure of 30 atm at 06:00 am when the with decrease in entropy?
temperature is 27°C. At 03:00 pm, when the
temperature is 45°C, the pressure in the tank (a) Vaporization of a mole of water into steam at
will be –– atm. [nearest integer] its B.P.
(b) Dissociation of a mole of common salt in
JEE Main-25.06.2022, Shift-II water at 300K
Ans. (32) : Given, (c) Mixing of two partially miscible liquids
T1 = 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300K (d) Crystallization of a salt from its saturated
T2 = 45 + 273 = 318K solution
P1 = 30 atm MPPET - 2012
At rigid nitrogen tank (Volume is constant) Ans. (d) : Entropy is the measure of randomness. When
P1 P2 randomness is more, entropy increases. Therefore when
= a liquid crystallises into solid, the molecules get
T1 T2 arranged more orderly, hence randomness decreases.
30 P Thus the entropy also decreases.
= 2
300 318 11. At constant temperature and pressure, if
30×318 ∆G < 0, the process is called
P2 = = 31.8 atm ≈ 32 atm
300 (a) isothermal (b) non spontaneous
8. At 25 ºC 1 mole of butane upon heating forms (c) spontaneous (d) isobaric
CO2 and H2O. The work done is (AP-EAMCET-1992)
(a) 75.6 L atm (b) 85.6 L atm Ans. (c) : ∆G gives a criteria for spontaneity at
(c) 50.3 L atm (d) None of these constant pressure and temperature.
AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Morning) (i) If ∆G is negative (< 0), the process is spontaneous.
Ans. (b): Given that, (ii) If ∆G is positive (> 0), the process is non-
13 spontaneous.
C4 H10 (g) + O 2 (g) → 4CO 2 (g) + 5H 2 O(l )
2 12. In which one of the following reactions does the
 13  heat change represent the heat of formation of
Q ∆ng = 4 – 1 +  water?
 2
= 4 – 7.5 (a) 2H 2 + O 2 → 2H 2 O; ∆H = – 116 kcal
= –3.5 1
Work done, W = –∆ng RT …. (i) (b) H 2 + O 2 → H 2 O; ∆H = – 58 kcal
2
Putting the value of ∆ng in equation (i)
(c) H + + OH – → H 2 O; ∆H = – 13.7 kcal
W = – (–3.5 × 0.0821 × 298)
W = 85.6 L atm. 1
(d) C2H2 + 2 O2 → 2CO2 + H2O; ∆H= –310kcal
9. Consider the following statements: 2
Statement I : Mass, volume and pressure are (AP-EAMCET-1991)
extensive properties. Ans. (b) :
Statement II : Extensive properties depend 1
upon the amount of the substance The reaction H 2 + O 2  → H 2 O; ∆H = −58 kcal
Which one of the following is correct in respect 2
of the above statements? The above reaction represent the heat change of
(a) Both the statements are true and statement II formation of water.
is the correct explanation of statement I Heat of formation is the change in enthalpy, when one
(b) Both the statement are true but statement II is mole of a compound is formed from its constituent
not the correct explanation of statement I element in their standard state.

13. The reaction which proceeds with evolution of Ans. (c) :
heat is called ∆H ° ∆S° ∆G ° Spontaneity of the reaction
(a) endothermic reaction − + − Reaction spontaneous at all temperature
(b) exothermic reaction − − − Reaction spontaneous at low temperature
(c) spontaneous reaction + + − Reaction spontaneous at high temperature
→ Δ
(d) non spontaneous reaction 17. Consider the following :
(AP-EAMCET-1993) Mg (s) + 2HCl (aq) MgCl 2 (aq) + H 2 (g)
Ans. (b) : An exothermic reaction occurs when the H = − 467 kJmol − l
→ Δ
temperature of a system increases due to the evolution
of heat. An endothermic reaction occurs when the MgO (s) + 2HCl (aq) MgCl 2 (aq) + H 2O( l )
temperature of an isolated system decreases while the H = − 151 kJmol − l
surroundings of a non-isolated system gains heat. 1
14. In the complete combustion of butanol H 2 (g ) + O 2 ( g ) → H 2 O ( l )
2
C4 H 9OH( l ), if ∆H is enthalpy of combustion and given that for water,
Δ
at constant pressure and ∆E is the heat of H of = − 286 kJmol − l
Δ
combustion at constant volume, then
(a) ∆H < ∆E What is H of for MgO (s)?
(b) ∆H = ∆E (a) –904 kJmol–1 (b) –602 kJmol–1
–1
(c) ∆H > ∆E (c) –334 kJmol (d) –30 kJmol–1
(d) ∆H, ∆E relation cannot be predicted SCRA-2014
(AP-EAMCET-1997) Ans. (b): The given reaction are :
Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)
Ans. (a) : The complete combustion of Butanol
∆ H = – 467 kJmol–1
C4 H 9 OH is–
Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) → + MgCl2(aq) + H2 O(l)
C4 H 9OH ( l ) + 6O 2 ( g ) 
→ 4CO 2 ( g ) + 5H 2O ( l ) + Heat ∆H = –151kJmol–1
In the reaction, ∆ng( ∆n g = number of moles of gaseous And,
1
H 2 (g) + O 2 → H 2 O(l ) ∆H f = −286kJmol−1
product – no. of moles of gaseous reactant) is negative. 2
∆ng = 4 – 6 = – 2 Reaction 1 and reaction 3 need to propagate in forward
direction and reaction 2 need to progress in backward
∆H = ∆E + ∆ngRT direction.
∆H = ∆E – 2RT Mg(s) +2HCl (aq) → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)
∆H + 2 RT = ∆E ∆H = –467 kJmol–1
∴ ∆E > ∆H .....(i)
15. Which of the following is an endothermic MgCl2(aq) + H2O(l) → Mg(s)+2HCl(aq)
reaction? ∆H = +151 kJmol–1 .....(ii)
(a) N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) − 92kJ → 2NH 3 ( g ) 1
H 2 (g) + O 2 → H 2 O(l ) ∆H = −286 kJmol−1 .....(iii)
2
(b) N 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) + 180.8 kJ → 2NO ( g ) The net reaction is :
(c) H 2 ( g ) + Cl 2 ( g ) → 2HCl ( g ) + 184.6 kJ 1
Mg(s) + O 2 → MgO(s)
(d) C( graphite ) + 2H 2 ( g ) → CH 4 ( g ) + 74.8kJ 2
The overall heat would be:
AP-EAMCET-2004 Heat of reaction-(i) + Heat of reaction-(ii) + Heat of
Ans. (b): For the reaction- reaction-(iii)
N 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) + 180.8 kJ → 2NO ( g ) ∆H = –467 +151 + (–286)
∆H = –602 kJmol–1
The endothermic reaction are those in which heat
energy is absorbed. All the other reactions are 18. An ideal gas at initial pressure pi and volume Vi
undergoes reversible expansion to the same
exothermic as the heat is released during the process.
volume Vf either isothermally or adiabatically.
16. Which of the following options are correct? Consider the following statements :
Options ∆H° ∆S° ∆G° Spontaneity of the reaction 1. Pf (adiabatic) < Pf (isothermal)
A + + + Spontaneous at low T 2. W (adiabatic) < W (isothermal)
B + + – Spontaneous at high T
C – – – Spontaneous at low T
3. Tf (adiabatic) < Tf (isothermal)
D + – + Spontaneous at high T 4. q (adiabatic) < q (isothermal)
(a) A,B,C only (b) B only (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) B, C only (d) C, D only (c) only three (d) All
TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 07.08.2021 Shift-II SCRA-2014
Ans. (d) : Among the halides, F– is smallest and I– is largest in
size. So, according to Fajan's rule, NaF is mostly ionic
in nature.
NaI < NaBr < NaCl < NaF
→ Ionic in nature
→ Thermal stability
So, NaF has highest value of △f Hº .
22. In the reaction,
Pressure : (Pf)isothermal > (Pf)adiabatic
4NO 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → 2N 2O5 ( g ) , ∆H = −111kJ
Workdone : Area under the P-V diagram.
Wisothermal > Wadiabatic If N2O5(s) is formed instead of N2O5(g), the ∆H
Heat : W ∝ q value in kJ is
qisothermal > qadiabatic
Temperature : T ∝ P
( ∆H sublimation for N 2O 5 = 54kJ mol –1 )
(a) –165 (b) –57
Tisothermal > Tadiabatic
(c) +219 (d) –219
19. CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g), ∆H = 110 kJ AP EAMCET (Medical) - 2013
The pressure of CO2. Ans. (d): Given that,
(a) Increases on adding catalyst
(b) Decreases if T is raised (i) 4NO2(g) + O2(g) → 2N 2 O5 ( g ) , ∆H = −111kJ mol−1
(c) Increases if T is raised (ii) N2O5 (s)  → N 2 O5 ( g ) , ∆H = 54kJ mol−1
(d) Increases if inert gas is passed keeping T
constant Reverse the reaction and multiplied by 2–
MPPET-2013 (iii) 2N 2 O5 ( g ) 
→ 2N 2 O5 ( s ) , ∆H = 108kJ mol−1
Ans. (c) : CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) subtracting eqn. (iii) from (i), we get
∆H = 110 kJ (Endothermic reaction) 4NO2(g) + O2(g)  → 2N 2 O5 (s)
Positive value of the enthalpy change indicates that the then, ∆H = – 111 – 108
reaction is endothermic. = – 219 kJ mol–1
∴ The forward reaction is favour by increasing
temperature. 23. If, ∆H > 0 and ∆S > 0, the reaction can proceed
Thus, when the temperature is increased, more carbon spontaneously at ....... .
dioxide is formed which increases the pressure of (a) low temperature
carbon dioxide until it reaches a constant value. (b) high temperature
20. For the formation of NH3(g) from its (c) all temperature
constituent elements, the favourable conditions (d) will never be spontaneous
for its formation are AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-I
(a) High pressure and low temperature Ans. (b) :
(b) High pressure and high temperature ∆H ° ∆S° ∆G ° Spontaneity of the reaction
(c) Low pressure and high temperature − + − Reaction spontaneous at all temperature
(d) Low pressure and low temperature − − − Reaction spontaneous at low temperature
TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 07.08.2021 Shift-II + + − Reaction spontaneous at high temperature
Ans. (a) N 2 + 3H 2 2NH 3 [exothermic reaction] 24.
For the formation of NH3(g) from its
constituent elements at constant temperature
∆n = Σ∆n p – Σ∆n r = 2 – (1 + 3) = –2 and pressure, which of the following options is
Reaction proceed in such direction where number of correct
mole decreases so for above reaction pressure will be (a) ∆H = 0 (b) ∆H = ∆U
more for more yield of NH3. Since reaction is (c) ∆H > ∆U (d) ∆H < ∆U
exothermic at low temperature reaction proceed in TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-II
forward direction.
Ans. (d) : For formation of NH3(g) from its constituent
21. Which of the following substances has highest elements.
value of standard molar enthalpy of formation
at 298 K ? At constant temperature & pressure ∆H < ∆U
(a) NaF(s) (b) NaCl(s) 25. The change in internal energy equals ––––––
(c) NaBr(s) (d) NaI(s) (a) Isothermal work (b) Isochoric work
JEE Main-2019 (c) Isobaric work (d) Adiabatic work
Ans. (a) : Higher the stability of a substance, higher AP EAPCET 25.08.2021, Shift-II
will be its standard molar enthalpy of formation value, Ans. (d) : The change in internal energy of the system
△f Hº equals to the net heat transfer into the system.
∆U = Q – W

The change in internal energy equals to adiabatic work. 30. What is the value of internal energy change
Because for adiabatic process heat transfer equals to (∆E) at 27°C of a gaseous reaction 2A2(g) +
zero so, ∆U = – W 5B2(g) → 2 A2B5(g) (whose heat change at
26. Molar heat capacity (Cp) of water at constant constant pressure is –50700 J) ?
pressure is 75 JK–1mol–1. The increase in [R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1]
temperature (in K) of 100 g of water when 1 kJ (a) –50700 J (b) –63171 J
of heat is supplied to it is (c) –38229 J (d) +38229 J
(a) 2.4 (b) 0.24 SCRA - 2009
(c) 1.3 (d) 0.13 Ans. (c) : 2A 2 ( g ) + 5B2 ( g ) → 2A 2 B5 ( g )
AP EAMCET (Engg.) - 2012
∆H at C p = −50700 J
Ans. (a): Q = nCP∆T
Gas constant (R) = 8.314 Joule K–1mol–1
Mass in gram
n= We know that, ∆H = ∆E + ∆n g RT
Molecular weight
100  ∆n g = 2 − 7 
n H2 O = ∆E = ∆H − ∆n g RT  
Q ∆n g = −5 
18
100
1000J = × 75 × ∆T ∆E = −50700 − {( −5) × 8.314 × 300}
18
18000 T = 27°C 
= ∆T  
100 × 75 = −50,700 + 12,471 T = 27 + 273
180 T = 300K 
= ∆T  
75 = −38, 229 J
2.4 = ∆T 31. Among the following processes, for which
27. Which one the following is not a state function process, the change in entropy (∆S) is negative?
(a) Enthalpy (b) Entropy (a) Sublimation of iodine
(c) Work (d) Free energy (b) Freezing of water
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 17.09.2020, Shift-II (c) Burning of rocket fuel
MPPET-2008 (d) Dissolution of sugar
Ans. (c): A state function is describes the equilibrium AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-II
state of a system. Ans. (b) : When water freezes its entropy decreases. A
• Entropy and free energy is a state function while work negative change in entropy indicates that the disorder of
and heat is a path function. an isolated system has decreased. When liquid water
28. Isochores are drawn at ................ freezes into ice represents decrease in entropy because
liquid particles are more disordered than solid particles.
(a) constant volume, pressure vs temperature
Hence, option (b) is correct.
(b) constant pressure, volume vs temperature
(c) constant temperature, pressure vs volume 32. Given ∆H ° for CO2(g), CO(g) and H2O(g) are
f
(d) constant temperature, volume vs temperature –393.5, –110.5 and –241.8 kJ mol–1,
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 17.09.2020 Shift-I respectively. The ∆H ° [in kJ mol–1] for the
f
Ans. (a) : Isochores are drawn at constant volume, reaction
∆V=0. CO 2 (g) + H 2 (g) → CO(g) + H 2O(g) is
We get a plot of pressure (P) vs temperature (T in K) as;
For 1 mole of an ideal gas, PV = RT (a) 524.1 (b) –262.5
(c) –41.7 (d) 41.2
Isochoric condition P ∝ T
TS EAMCET-2017
Ans. (d) : Given, ∆H °f (CO = −393.5 kJ / mole
2)
∆H °f (CO) = −110.5kJ / mole
∆H °f (H O) = −241.8 kJ / mole
29. Which of the following is an extensive 2
property? CO 2 (g) + H 2 (g) → CO(g) + H 2 O(g)
(a) Temperature (b) Volume
(c) Density (d) Pressure ∴∆H °f = (∆H) products − (∆H) reactunts
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 17.09.2020 Shift-I =  ∆H° °   ° 
f (CO) + ∆H f (H O) − ∆H f (CO )
Ans. (b) : Extensive properties are mass dependent,  2   2 
like volume, enthalpy etc. = −110.5 − 241.8 − (−393.5)
Intensive properties are mass independent, like
Or ∆H °f = 41.2 kJ / mol−1
temperature, pressure and density.
33. Calculate ∆H° for the reaction, (c) ∆Ssystem < 0 & ∆Ssurroundings > 0
Na 2O(s)+ SO 3 (g) → Na 2SO4 (g) (d) ∆Ssystem < 0 & ∆Ssurroundings < 0
Given the following: AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-I
1 Ans. (b) : At 100° C and 1 atm.
(A) Na(s) + H 2 O(l) → NaOH(s) + H 2 (g)
2 H2O(l)  → H2O(g)
∆H = − 146 kJ
0 For equilibrium.
∆Stotal = 0
(B) Na 2SO 4 (s) + H 2 O(l) → 2NaOH(s)
And ∆Ssystem + ∆Ssurrounding = 0
+ SO3 (g) ∆Ssystem > 0 and ∆Ssurrounding < 0.
∆H = + 418kJ
0
36. If a chemical reaction is known to be non-
(C) 2Na 2O(s) + 2H 2 (g) → 4Na(s) + 2H 2 O(l ) spontaneous at 298K but spontaneous at 350 k,
then which among the following conditions is
∆H 0 = + 259 kJ true for the reaction?
(a) + 823 kJ (b) – 581 kJ (a) ∆G = –ve, ∆H = –ve, ∆S = +ve
(c) – 435 kJ (d) + 531 kJ (b) ∆G = +ve, ∆H = +ve, ∆S = +ve
AP EAMCET (Engg.)-2009 (c) ∆G = –ve, ∆H = +ve, ∆S = +ve
Ans. (b): (d) ∆G = +ve, ∆H = +ve, ∆S = –ve
1
Na ( s) +H2O( l) → NaOH( s) + H2 ( g) ; ∆H10 = −146kJ ...(1) AP EAPCET 19-08-2021 Shift-I
2 Ans. (c) : ∆G = ∆H – T∆S –––– (i)
Na 2SO 4 ( s ) + H 2O ( l ) → 2NaOH ( s ) + SO3 ( g ) ; ∆H 02 = +418 kJ ∆G must be – ve for a spontaneous reaction.
...(2)
2Na 2O ( s ) + 2H 2 ( g ) → 4Na ( s ) + 2H 2O ( g ) ; ∆H30 = + 259 kJ
...(3)
Na 2 O ( s ) + SO3 ( g ) → Na 2SO 4 ( g ) ... (4)
The required reaction equation can be obtained by This graph depicted the value of ∆H is +ve
1 i.e. ∆G = –ve, ∆H = +ve putting these in equation–– (i)
( equation 3) + (equation 1× 2) – (equation 2)
2 We get,
+259 1
∆H o = + (−146) × 2 − (+ 418) = −580.5 ≈ − 581kJ . ∆S = (∆H – ∆G) = +ve
2 T
34. For strong acid and strong base neutralization So, the value of ∆S is also + ve.
net chemical change is 37. When equal volumes of Helium and Neon at
H+ + OH– → H2O (I) ∆H r0 = – 55.84 kJ mol–1 If same temperature and pressure are mixed, the
enthalpy of neutralization of CH3COOH by ratio Cp : Cv of the mixture equals _____.
NaOH is 49.86 kJ mol–1 then enthalpy of (a) 3 : 5 (b) 1 : 2
ionization of CH3COOH is ___ (c) 5 : 3 (d) 2 : 1
(a) 5.98 kJ mol–1 (b) –5.98kJ mol–1 AP EAPCET 24.08.2021, Shift-I
–1
(c) 105.7 kJ mol (d) –59.8 kJ mol–1 Ans. (c) : Given, VHe = VNe
AP EAPCET 24.08.2021 Shift-II and THe = TNe
Ans. (a) : The enthalpy of neutralization ( ∆H n ) is the then Cp : Cv = ?
change in enthalpy that occurs when one equivalent of We can write the further relation –
acid and base undergo neutralization reaction to form 5 3
water and a salt given. Cp = nR and Cv = nR
2 2
H + + OH –  → H 2 O (l ) ∆H or = −55.84kJ / mole Cp 5 2
∴ = nR ×
CH 3 COOH + NaOH  → CH 3 COONa + H 2 O Cv 2 3nR
∆H n = 49.86 kJ / mole Cp 5
=
So, enthalpy of ionization Cv 3
= – ∆H 0r − ∆H n
38. Molar heat capacity ( Cp ) of water at constant
= 55.84 – 49.86
= 5.98 kJ / mole pressure is 75 J.K-1 mol-1. The increase in
temperature (in K) of 100 g of water when 1 kJ
35. For the reaction H2O(l)  → H2O(g) at T = 100° of heat is supplied to it is
and P = l atm. Choose the correct option: (a) 2.4 (b) 0.24
(a) ∆Ssystem > 0 & ∆Ssurroundings > 0 (c) 1.3 (d) 0.13
(b) ∆Ssystem > 0 & ∆Ssurroundings < 0 AP EAMCET (Engg.) 2012
Ans. (a) : Given that, 43. For a chemical reaction A + B C+D
C P = 75 JK −1mol−1 (∆r H ο = 80 kJ mol –1 ) the entropy change ∆r So
∆H = 1000 depends on the temperature T (in K) as
100 (∆r S o = 2T(JK –1mol –1 ) .
n=
18 Minimum temperature at which it will become
Molar heat capacity is the amount of heat required to spontaneous is ______K. (Integer)
o
raise the temperature of 1 mol of a substance by 1 C. JEE Main 26.02.2021, Shift-I
∴ ∆H = nC p ∆T Ans. (200) : Given, a chemical reaction
100 A+B C+D
1000 = × 75 × ∆T
18 ∆ r H = 80kJ / mole
o
180 ∆ rSo = 2T(JK –1mol –1 )

∆T = = 2.4K
75 We know that,
39. An intensive property is ∆G ° = ∆H° – T∆S°
(a) boiling point (b) mass ∆G ° < 0 (Spontaneous process)
(c) enthalpy (d) work. ∆H° – T∆S° < 0
COMEDK-2011
∆H °
Ans. (a) : Boiling point does not depend upon the T >
quantity of matter present in the system or size of the ∆S°
system. 80 × 103
40. The temperature of one mole of an ideal gas T >
2T
increases from 298 K when it absorbs 200 J of
heat at constant volume. The change in the 2T 2
> 80, 000
internal energy of the gas is T 2 > 40, 000
(a) 200 J (b) 140 J T>200
(c) –200 J (d) –140 J The minimum temperature to make it spontaneous is
COMEDK-2012 200 K.
Ans. (a) : Internal energy change is the heat evolved or 44. In conversion of lime-stone to lime,
absorbed at constant volume. CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2 (g) the values of
At constant volume, ∆V = 0 ∆Hº and ∆Sº do not change with temperature,
Applying, ∆U = Q + W = Q + P∆V temperature are +179.1 kJmol–1 and 160.2 J/K
∆U = Q + P × 0 = Q respectively at 298K and 1 bar. Assuming that
We get, ∆U = Q = 200J ∆Ho and ∆So above which conversion of
limestone at lime will be spontaneous is
41. For all gases, at any given pressure, the graph (a) 1118 K (b) 1008 K
of volume vs temperature (in celsius) is a
straight line. This graph is called (c) 1200 K (d) 845 K
(a) isomer (b) isochore AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Evening)
(c) isobar (d) isotherm Ans. (a): ∆Go = ∆Ho – T∆So
COMEDK-2014 For spontaneous process, ∆Go < 0
Ans. (c) : ∴ ∆Ho – T∆So < 0
∆H o
∴ <T
∆So
179.1×1000
∴ T> K
160.2
T > 1117.97 K
If, P = constant then process is called Isobar. T = 1118 K
42. What will be the value of ∆G for ice at 8ºC 45. One mole of a non-ideal gas undergoes a
temperature? change of state (2.0 atm, 3.0 L, 95 K) → (4.0
(a) Zero (b) Positive atm, 5.0 L, 245 K) with a change in internal
(c) Negative (d) One energy, ∆U = 30.0 L atm. The change in
GUJCET-2008 enthalpy ∆H of the process in L atm is.
Ans. (b) : The value of ∆G for ice to 8ºC temperature (a) 40.0
will be positive as at this temperature melting of ice is (b) 42.3
started. The melting of an ice is an equilibrium process, (c) 44.0
the value of ∆G for an equilibrium process is equal to (d) Not defined because pressure is not constant
zero (∆G = 0). AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Evening)
Ans. (c): Given Ans. (b): U is state function because it depends only on
(2 atm, 3.0 L, 95 K) → (4 atm, 5.0L, 245 K) the state of system independent of the path followed T
Therefore, P1 = 2 atm, P2 = 4 atm is intensive property because it does not depend on the
V1 = 3 L, V2 = 5L mass of the substance or system.
T1 = 95 K, T2 = 245 K So, both assertion and reason are true but reason is not
the correct explanation of assertion.
∆U = 30 L atm
As we know that 49. The correct relation is:
(a) ∆G = – RT ln K/Q (b) ∆G = + RT ln K
∆H = ∆U + (P2V2 – P1V1)
(c) ∆G = – RT ln Q/K (d) ∆G = + RT ln Q
∴ ∆H = 30 + (4 × 5 – 2 × 3)
⇒ ∆H = 30 + 14 = 44 L atm
Ans. (a): ∆G = ∆Go + RT ln Q
46. 1 mole of a diatomic gas is heated through At Equilibrium
isochoric process from 300 K to 500 K. The
entropy is: ∆G = 0
(a) 10.61 (b) 38.26 And Q=K
(c) 20.05 (d) 30 K → Equilibrium constant
AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Evening) At Equilibrium
Ans. (a): As we know that, for an isochoric process 0 = ∆Go + R ln K
∆Go = – RT ln K
T
∆S = C V ln 2 Now,
T1 ∆G = –RT ln K + RT ln Q
For diatomic process Q
5 ∆G = RT ln
CV = R K
2 K
∆G = –RT ln
5 500 Q
Therefore, ∆S = R × ln
2 300 50. Which of the following statement regarding
5 entropy is correct?
∆S = × 8.314 × (ln5 − ln3) = 10.61 (a) at absolute zero temperature, the entropy of
2
47. Assertion: Air that quickly leaks out of a balloon all crystalline substances is taken to be zero
becomes cooler. (b) at 0oC, the entropy of all crystalline
Reason: The leaking air undergoes adiabatic substances is taken to be zero
expansion. (c) at absolute zero temperature, entropy of a
perfect crystalline substance is taken to be
zero
Assertion. (d) at 0oC, the entropy of a perfect crystalline
substance is taken to be zero
Reason is not the correct explanation of AIIMS-1994
Assertion. Ans. (c): Correct statement regarding entropy is at
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. about zero temperature the entropy of a perfect
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. crystalline substances is taken to be zero.
AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Evening) 51. Which of the following is a characteristic of a
reversible reaction?
Ans. (a): When a system undergoes a change under the (a) It never proceeds to completion
condition that no exchange of heat takes place between
the system and surrounding, then such a process is (b) It can be influenced by a catalyst
called adiabatic process. (c) It proceeds only in forward direction
The leaking air of balloon undergoes adiabatic (d) number of moles of reactants and products are
expansion. In this expansion, due to work done against equal.
external pressure. AIIMS-1996
Note : Adiabatic expansion such as bursting of tyre. Ans. (b): Reversible reactions always attain equilibrium
48. Assertion: U is state function. and never go for completion. Reversible reactions,
however a static equilibrium is not being established. In
Reason: T is an intensive property. these most of the reactions when carried out in closed
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and vessels do not go completion, under a given set of
Reason is the correct explanation of conditions of temperature and pressure because
Assertion. reversible reaction are occurs in closed vessel’s mostly.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but 52. Assertion: Addition of Q and W give ∆U
Assertion. Reason: Addition of two path function cannot
give state function.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. the Reason is the correct explanation of
AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Evening) Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Ans. (b): Entropy of ice is less than water because
Reason is not the correct explanation of water molecules in solid state lose kinetic energy and
Assertion. hence their tendency of movement is minimized. Hence,
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. entropy decreases in solid state. The reason that ice
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are have cage like structure is also correct but reason is not
incorrect. a correct explanation of the assertion.
AIIMS-27 May, 2018 (M) Entropy – gas > liquid > solid
Ans. (c): According to first law of Thermodynamics – 56. Assertion : During an adiabatic process, heat
∆U = Q + W energy is not exchanged between system and its
Internal energy is a state function but Q and W are path surroundings.
functions. Reason: The temperature of a gas increases
• When the two path functions are combined to form when it undergoes and adiabatic expansion.
state function. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
53. Assertion: In Free expansion, ∆U = 0 the Reason is correct explanation of the
Assertion.
Reason: No work is done is free expansion.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
Assertion.
incorrect.
Assertion. (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
incorrect.
incorrect. correct.
AIIMS-27 May, 2018 (M) AIIMS-2002
Ans. (b): Both are true but unrelated. At constant Ans. (c): For an adiabatic process, Q = 0
volume work done is also-zero. TVγ–1 = constant, for adiabatic process In an adiabatic
expansion, temperature may increase or decrease
54. Assertion: When ideal gas expand from
P1,V1,T1 to P2, V2, T2 in multiple steps, work depending upon the value of γ.
done is high where number of steps are high. 57. Assertion: Mass and volume are extensive
Reason: Work is path function. properties.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason: Mass/ volume is also an extensive
the Reason is the correct explanation of parameter.
Assertion. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but the Reason is correct explanation of the
Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
Assertion. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are Assertion.
incorrect. (c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
AIIMS-26 May, 2018 (M) incorrect.
Ans. (b): When ideal gas expand from two steps, and (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
work done is high in which number of steps are high. incorrect.
W = PdV correct.
55. Assertion: Entropy of ice is less than water. AIIMS-2002
Reason: Ice has cage like structure. Ans. (c): Mass and volume are extensive properties
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and mass/volume is not an extensive parameter.
the Reason is correct explanation of the Because mass/volume are density. Density does not
Assertion. depend on mass.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but 58. Assertion: Absolute values of internal energy of
Reason is not a correct explanation of the substances cannot be determined.
Assertion. Reason: It is impossible to determine exact
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is values of constituent energies of the substances.
incorrect. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are the Reason is correct explanation of the
incorrect. Assertion.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
correct. Reason is not a correct explanation of the
AIIMS-2000 Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is 61. Assertion: Molar enthalpy of vaporization of
incorrect. water is different from ethanol.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are Reason: Water is more polar than ethanol.
incorrect. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is the Reason is correct explanation of the
correct. Assertion.
AIIMS-2002 (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct by
Ans. (a): It is impossible to determine the absolute Reason is not a correct explanation of the
values of energy therefore internal energy of substances Assertion.
is relatives and thus absolute value cannot be (c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
determined. incorrect.
∆E = C v dT (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
incorrect.
59. Assertion: The increase in internal energy (∆E) (e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
for the vaporization of one mole of water at 1 correct.
atm and 373 K is zero. AIIMS-2004
Reason: For all isothermal processes, ∆E=0 Ans. (b): Molar heat of vaporization of water is more
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and than alcohol due to which large amount of energy is
the Reason is correct explanation of the required to break H-bond in H2O. It is also true that
Assertion. H2O is more polar than alcohol.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct by Water have higher dielectric constant than ethanol that’s
Reason is not a correct explanation of the why water is more polar.
Assertion. 62. Assertion: Water in liquid state is more stable
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is than ice at room temperature
incorrect.
Reason: Water in liquid form has higher
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are entropy than ice.
incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is the Reason is correct explanation of the
correct. Assertion.
AIIMS-2003 (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct by
Ans. (a): The increase in internal energy for the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
vaporization of one mole of water at 1atm and 373K is Assertion.
zero is true and for all isothermal process internal (c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
energy is zero. incorrect.
At Isothermal → ∆H = 0 (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
∆E = 0 incorrect.
∆T = 0 (e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
60. Assertion: ∆H and ∆E are almost same for the correct.
reaction N 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) 2NO ( g ) AIIMS-2006
Ans. (a): At room temperature water is more stable and
Reason: All reactants and products are gases.
∆Q mL
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and ice will tend to melt at room temp. ∆S = =
the Reason is correct explanation of the T oT
Assertion. which is positive entropy of an amount of ice at 0 C is
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct by less than the entropy of the same amount (mass) of H2O
Reason is not a correct explanation of the at 0oC. At room temperature ice are melted this is the
Assertion. reason ice are unstable.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is 63. Assertion: When a salt such as NaCl dissolves,
incorrect. the Na+ and Cl− ions leaving the crystal lattice
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are acquire far greater freedom.
incorrect. Reason: In thermodynamic terms, the
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is formation of solution occurs with a favorable
correct. change in free energy, i.e., ∆H has a high
AIIMS-2003 positive value and T∆S a low negative value.
Ans. (b): ∆H = ∆E + ∆nRT (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
If there is no change in the moles of reactants (gaseous) the Reason is correct explanation of the
and products (gaseous) Assertion.
∆n = 2 – (1 + 1) = 0 (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct by
∴ ∆H = ∆E Assertion.
All reactant and product are gases but this is not reason (c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
for ∆H = ∆E. incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are 66. What is entropy change is 2 mol N2, when its
incorrect. temperature is taken from 400 K to 800 K,
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is adiabatically
correct. J J
AIIMS-2007 (a) 30 (b) 60
K K
Ans. (c): NaCl are strongly bonded due to electrostatic
J J
attraction. As it is dissolved in solvent in (c) 40 (d) 20
thermodynamics terms formation of solution occurs K K
with a favourable change in ∆G, ∆G is negative for AIIMS-27 May, 2018 (M)
dissolution of salt. It ∆G < 0 it is spontaneous process. T
64. Assertion: Many endothermic reactions that Ans. (c): ∆S = nC p ln 2
T1
are not spontaneous at room temperature
become at high temperature. 5
Cv (for diatomic) = R
Reason: Entropy of the system increase with 2
increase in temperature. Cp = C v + R
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and 5 7
the Reason is the correct explanation of Cp = R + R = R
Assertion. 2 2
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but 7 800
∆S = 2 × × R × ln
Reason is not the correct explanation of 2 400
Assertion. 7
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. = 2 × × R × ln 2
2
incorrect. = 7 × 8.314 × ln 2
AIIMS-2012 = 40.33
Ans. (c): ∆G = ∆H – T∆S 40 J / K
∆H is +ve for endothermic process 67. Which of following factor always increases for
For spontaneous process ∆G < 0 spontaneous process?
∴ ∆H – T∆S < 0 (a) ∆S (b) ∆H
i.e. ∆H < TS ∆H
∆G = 0 At equilibrium (c) ∆H − T∆S (d) ∆S −
T
Entropy of the system also increases with increase in AIIMS-26 May, 2018 (M)
temperature but only slightly.
Ans. (d): For spontaneous process-
65. Assertion : For an isothermal reversible
process Q = -W i.e. work done by the system ∆G = –ve
equals to the heat absorbed by the system. ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
Reason: Enthalpy change (∆H) is zero for Entropy of universe always increases
isothermal process. ∆G ∆H
− = ∆Stotal = ∆S −
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and T T
the Reason is the correct explanation of 68. Which of the following are extensive
Assertion. properties?
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but (a) V & E (b) V & T
(c) V & Cp (d) P and T
Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. AIIMS-26 May, 2018 (M)
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are Ans. (a): The volume of any matter or substance
incorrect. depends on the mass or amount. Thus, volume is
AIIMS-2011,2013 considered as an extensive property V & E are
Ans. (b): For an isothermal process change in internal extensive in nature.
energy (∆E) is zero (as it is a function of temperature). 69. The ∆ H f° for CO2 (g), CO(g) and H2O(g)
According to first law of thermodynamics are−393.5, −110.5 and −241.8 kJ/mol
Q + W = ∆E respectively, the standard enthalpy change (in
Hence, Q = –W (if ∆E = 0) kJ) for the reaction
If a system undergoes a change in which internal energy CO 2 ( g ) + H 2 ( g ) → CO ( g ) + H 2 O ( g ) is
of the system remains constant (i.e. ∆E = 0) then –W =
Q. (a) 524.1 (b) 41.2
This mean that work done by the system is equal to the (c) −262.5 (d) −41.2
heat absorbed by the system. AIIMS-2013, 2017
Ans. (b): ∆H = Σ H °f (product) – Σ H °f (reactants) ∆Hf H2O(l) = –286 kJ/mol
For 2 moles H2O2 = 2 × –188 = –376 kJ/mol
=[∆ H °f (CO) + ∆ H °f (H2O)] – [∆ H °f (CO2) + ∆ H °f ,(H2)]
For 2 moles of H2O = 2 × –286 = –572 kJ/mol
=[–110·5–241·8] – [–393·5+0] ∆Hr = –572 –(–376)
= –352·3 + 393·5 = –196 kJ/mol
= +41·3 kJ/mol 73. Enthalpy of formation of HF and HCl are
70. Choose the reaction in which ∆H is not equal to −161kJ and −92kJ respectively. Which of the
∆U? following statements is incorrect?
(a) C( graphite ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) (a) HCl is more stable than HF.
(b) HF and HCl are exothermic compounds.
(b) C 2 H 4 ( g ) + H 2 ( g ) → C 2 H 6 ( g ) (c) The affinity of fluorine to hydrogen is greater
than the affinity of chlorine to hydrogen.
(c) 2C( graphite ) + H 2 ( g ) → C 2 H 2 ( g ) (d) HF is more stable than HCl.
(d) H 2 ( g ) + I 2 ( g ) → 2HI ( g ) AIIMS-2010
AIIMS-2016 Ans. (a): Enthalpy of formation of HF is more than the
Enthalpy of formation of HCl. So, HF is more stable
Ans. (b): We know that than HCl. Formation of HF and HCl are Exothermic.
∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT
74. Which of the following processes takes place
If ∆ng = 0 then ∆H = ∆U with decrease of entropy?
Where, ∆ng = nP – nR (a) Solid →gas
nP = no. of moles of gaseous products (b) sugar + water → solution
nR = no. of moles of gaseous reactants
(c) NH3(g)+HCl(g) →NH4 Cl(s)
So,
(d) A(g)+ B(g) → mixture
(a) C( graphite ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) AIIMS-2011
∆ng = nP – nR = 1 – 1 = 0 Ans. (c): The structure of a solid is generally organised
(b) C2 H 4 ( g ) + H 2 ( g ) → C2H 6 ( g ) and liquid are less organised and gas are random in
nature.
∆ng = nP – nR = 1 – 2 = –1 NH3(g) + HCl(g) → NH4Cl(s)
(c) 2C( graphite ) + H 2 ( g ) → C 2 H 2 ( g ) NH4Cl are well organised
∆ng = nP – nR = 1 – 1 = 0 Thus, the entropy decreases.
(d) H 2 ( g ) + I 2 ( g ) → 2HI ( g ) 75. For the reaction, 2Cl ( g ) → Cl 2 ( g ) , the signs
∆ng = nP – nR = 2 – 2 = 0 of ∆H and ∆S respectively, are:
So, in option (b) ∆H ≠ ∆U (a) +,− (b) +,+
71. Which of the following condition favour the (c) −,− (d) −,+
reduction of a metal oxide to metal? AIIMS-2010
(a) ∆H = + ve,T∆S = + ve at low temperature Ans. (c): 2 Cl(g) → Cl2(g)
(b) ∆H = + ve,T∆S = − ve at low temperature For the given reaction, entropy is decreasing (–ve) in
the reaction. Also the reaction is exothermic due to the
(c) ∆H = − ve,T∆S = − ve at low temperature bond formation so, ∆H is also –ve.
(d) ∆H = − ve, T∆S = + ve at any temperature 76. When a solid melts reversibly
AIIMS-2012 (a) H decreases (b) G increase
Ans. (d): ∆G = ∆H – T∆S (∆G < 0 – Spontaneous (c) E decreases (d) S increase
Process) for the reduction of a metal oxide, ∆G value AIIMS-2009
must be negative and this can only achieved all Ans. (d): When a solid melts, its entropy (S) increases
possibilities of ∆H and T∆S values, when the ∆H = –ve because on change from solid to liquid, randomness
and T∆S = +ve at any temperature. increases.
72. What is the enthalpy change for, 77. ∆Hfusion of a substance is 'x' and ∆Hvap is 'y',
2H 2O 2 ( l ) → 2H 2O ( l ) + O 2 ( g ) if heat of then ∆Hsublimation will be
(a) x+y (b) x−y
formation of H2O2 (l) and H2O(l) are−188 and
(c) x/y (d) y/x
−286kJ/mol respectively?
AIIMS-2007
(a) −196kJ/mol (b) +948kJ/mol
(c) +196kJ/mol (d) −948kJ/mol Ans. (a):
AIIMS-2014
Ans. (a): Given, the reaction is–
2H2O2(l) → 2H2O(l) + O2(g)
∆Hf H2O2(l) = –188 kJ/mol ∆Hsub = ∆Hfus + ∆Hvap = x + y

78. ∆Ssurr for an exothermic reaction is Ans. (c) : Exothermic reactions are reactions or process
(a) always positive that release energy, usually in the form of heat or light. In
(b) always negative an exothermic reaction, energy is released because the
(c) zero total energy of the products is less than the total energy of
(d) may be positive or negative the reactants. A system that releases heat to the
environment, and chemical reaction, features a negative
AIIMS-2007 ∆H by convention, because the enthalpy of the products
Ans. (a): ∆Ssurrounding for an exothermic reaction is is less than the enthalpy of the reactants of the system.
always positive. In exothermic process, heat released by Exothermic Reactions are energy liberating process. ∆H
the reaction, increases the entropy of the surrounding. = ΣHproduct –ΣHreactant Mean’s ∆H = Negative
The overall entropy changes is certainly positive when
the entropy of the system is positive. In some 83. One mole of an ideal gas for which Cv=(3/2)R is
heated reversibly at a constant pressure of 1
exothermic reactions, entropy of the system may
atm from 25ºC to 100º C. The ∆H is:
decrease. If reaction is highly exothermic and increase
in entropy of the surrounding is very high. The total (a) 3.75 cal (b) 37.5 cal
entropy change will be positive. (c) 375 cal (d) 3725.0 cal
AIIMS-2000
79. For a spontaneous process, the correct
statement is : Ans. (c): We know that,
(a) Entropy of the system always increases. ∆H = ∆U + P∆V .....(i)
(b) Free energy of the system always increases. To find ∆U,
(c) Total entropy change is always negative. ∆U = Cv × (T2 – T1) for 1 mole gas
(d) Total entropy change is always positive. 3
∆U = R × (75)
AIIMS-2006 2
Ans. (d): ∆Stotal = ∆Ssystem + ∆Ssurroundings Put this value in (i),
For a spontaneous process, the ∆Stotal must be positive
∆H =  × R × 75  + (R × 75)
3
i.e. ∆Stotal > 0 Total entropy change is always positive. 2 
80. For a phase change, 5
∆H = × R × 75
H 2O ( l ) H 2O ( s )
0ºC, 1bar
2
(a) ∆G = 0 (b) ∆S = 0 ∆H = 372.56 cal (Take R = 1.987 cal)
(c) ∆H = 0 (d) ∆U = 0 ∆H ≈ 375 cal
AIIMS-2006 84. Enthalpy of neutralisation of CH3COOH by
Ans. (a): A system at equilibrium has ∆G equal to zero NaOH is −50.6kJ/mol and the heat of
neutralisation of a strong acid with NaOH is
(the free energy change), ∆G is neither positive nor
−55.9kJ/mol. The value of ∆H for the ionisation
negative because process at equilibrium has a zero free of CH3COOH is:
energy change. At phase change ∆G are also zero. (a) 3.5kJ/mol (b) 4.6 kJ/mol
∆G = –RTlnK (c) 5.3 kJ/mol (d) 6.4 kJ/mol
∆G = standard free energy AIIMS-2000
K = equation constant Ans. (c): Net ionic reaction for neutralization of strong
81. Which one of the following has ∆So greater acid and NaOH is
than zero? H+ + OH–→H2O ; -55.9 kJ/mol
(a) CaO ( s ) + CO 2 ( g ) CaCO3 ( s ) For neutralization of acetic acid is
CH3COOH + OH– → CH3COO– + H2O ; –50.6 kJ/mol
(b) NaCl ( aq ) NaCl ( s ) Since the total reaction has an enthalpy change of –55.9
(c) NaNO3 ( s ) Na + ( aq ) + NO3− ( aq ) kJ/mol. The heat of ionisation must be equal to the
difference between the value.
(d) N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) 2NH 3 ( g ) heat of ionisation = – 50.6 – (–55.9) kJ/mol
AIIMS-2003 = 5.3 kJ/mol
Ans. (c): We know that, in transition from solid state to 85. The internal energy of a substance:
liquid state, entropy increases. Hence, the value of ∆S (a) increases with increase in temperature
will be greater than zero for the reaction. (b) decreases with increase in temperature
(c) remains unaffected with temperature
NaNO3 (s) Na + (aq) + NO3− (aq) (d) can be calculated by the equation, E=mc2
∆S > 0 Mean’s positive entropy. AIIMS-2001
82. In the exothermic reaction, the enthalpy of Ans. (a): Internal energy of a substance increase with
reaction is always: increases in temperature due to increase in rotational,
(a) zero (b) positive translational and vibrational energy of the molecule.
(c) negative (d) None of these Internal energy is the function of temperature.
AIIMS-2001 ∆U = nCv∆T
86. Combustion of glucose takes place according to 90. The enthalpy change of a reaction does not
the equation: depend on:
C6 H12 O 6 + 6O 2 → 6CO 2 + 6H 2 O, ∆H = -72kcal (a) initial and final enthalpy change of reaction.
(b) state of reactants and products.
The energy required for production of 1.6 g of (c) different intermediate reactions.
glucose is (molecular mass of glucose is 180g) (d) nature of reactants and products.
(a) 0.064 kcal (b) 0.64 kcal AIIMS-1997
(c) 6.4 kcal (d) 64 kcal Ans. (c): Enthalpy change is a state function so it does
AIIMS-1998 not depend on the path taken by the reaction, it depends
Ans. (b): Molecular mass of C6H12O6 = 180 g mol–1 only on the difference of final and initial value of
Q 180 g of glucose require energy = 72 kcal enthalpy change.
∆H = 0, ∆H = nCp∆T
72 × 1.6
∴ 1.6 g of glucose required energy = State function only depend on initial and final State.
180 91. Calculate the entropy change in melting 1 mole
= 0.64 kcal. of ice at 273K, ∆H of = 6.025kJ/mole -
87. For a spontaneous process, entropy: (a) 11.2 JK–1 mol–1 (b) 22.2 JK–1 mol–1
(a) Increases (b) Decreases –1
(c) 15.1 JK mol –1
(d) 5.1 JK–1 mol–1
(c) Unchanged (d) Not clear VITEEE-2019
AIIMS-1998
Ans. (b) : Change entropy,
Ans. (a): –∆G = – ∆H + T∆S (∆G = ∆H – T∆S)
∆H f 6025jmol −1
The spontaneity of the process appears to be associated ∆Sf = = = 22.04 22.2 J / mol K
with a highly ordered system going to a less–ordered, T 273K
uniform state. The more disordered a state, the larger its 92. For the reaction
entropy. Therefore, entropy should be increases. 1
88. Internal energy does not include: H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → H 2O ( l ) ,∆H
2
(a) Rotational energy
(b) Nuclear energy = −285.8kJ mol −1
(c) Vibrational energy ∆S = –0.163 kJ mol–1K–1
(d) Energy due to gravitational pull What is the value of free energy change at 27°C
for the reaction ?
AIIMS-1999 (a) –236.9 kJ mol–1 (b) –281.4 kJ mol–1
Ans. (d): Every substance is associated with definite (c) –334.7 kJ mol –1
(d) +334.7 kJ mol–1
amount of energy which depends upon chemical nature. Ans. (a) : Given,
The energy stored within a substance is called its
1
internal energy. It is total energy of a substance H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → H 2 O(l )
depending upon its chemical nature, temperature, 2
pressure, volume and amount of substances. Internal ∆H = −285.8 kJ / mole
energy does not includes gravitational energy ∆S = −0.163 kJ / mole
translational energy, rotational energy, vibrational
energy and bond energy. ∴ ∆G = ∆H − T ∆S
Because Internal Energy is the function of temperature ∆G = −285.8 + 300 × 0.163
only for ideal gas. ∆G = −236.97 kJ / mole
89. At a constant volume the specific heat of a gas 93. In a closed insulated container, a liquid is
is 0.075 and its molecular weight is 40. The gas stirred with a paddle to increase its
is : temperature. In this process, which of the
(a) Monoatomic (b) Diatomic following is true?
(c) Triatomic (d) None of these (a) ∆E = W = Q = 0 (b) ∆E ≠ 0,Q = W = 0
AIIMS-1998 (c) ∆E = W ≠ 0,Q = 0 (d) ∆E = Q ≠ 0,W = 0
Ans. (a): Molar heat capacity at constant volume, VITEEE-2019
st
Cv = specific heat at constant volume × mol.wt. Ans. (c) : According to I Law of Thermodynamic
= 0.075 × 40 = 3.0 cal (Monoatomic > Diatomic) q = ∆E + W
E = change in internal energy
Q Cp – Cv = R
W = work done on system
or Cp = R + C v = 2 + 3 = 5 Since system is closed and insulated, q = 0
Cp Paddle work is done on system.
Now, =γ Hence internal energy of the system is increases.
Cv
∴ ∆E = W ≠ 0
5
∴ γ= = 1.66 94. The values of ∆H and ∆S for the reaction,
3 C(graphite) +CO2(g) → 2CO(g) are 170 kJ and
This value shows that the gas is monoatomic. 170 JK–1, respectively. This reaction will be
spontaneous at
(a) 910 K (b) 1000 K 98. Standard entropy of X2, Y2 and X Y3 are 60, 40
(c) 510 K (d) 710 K and 50 JK–1mol–1, respectively. For the
AIPMT-2009 1 3
reaction, X 2 + Y2 XY3 ,∆H = −30kJ, to
Ans. (b) : Given– 2 2
∆H = 170 kJ be at equilibrium, the temperature will be
(a) 1250 K (b) 500 K
∆S = 170 JK –1
(c) 750 K (d) 1000 K
T=?
NEET-2010, AIEEE-2008
Now, ∆G = ∆H – T∆S (at equilibrium ∆G = 0)
Ans. (c) : For the reaction
∴ ∆H = T∆S
1 3
∆H 170 X 2 + Y2 → XY3 ; ∆H = −30kJ (given)
or T= , T= 2 2
∆S 170 ×10−3 Calculating the ∆S for the above reaction–
T = 1000 K
1 3 
Therefore, this reaction is spontaneous at this ∆S = 50 −  × 60 + × 40  JK −1
temperature.  2 2 
95. Calculate enthalpy change for the change ∆S = 50 − [30 + 60]
8S(g)→ S8(g), given that
∆S = −40 JK −1
H2S2(g) → 2H(g) + 2S(g), ∆H = 239.0 k cal mol–1
At equilibrium, ∆G = 0, ∆G = ∆H – ∆ST
H2S2(g) → 2H(g) + S(g), ∆H = 175.0 k cal mol–1
(a) + 512.0 k cal (b) – 512.0 k cal T∆S = ∆H
(c) 508.8 k cal (d) – 508.0 k cal ∆ H −30 × 1000
T= =
VITEEE-2018 ∆S −40
Ans. (b) : Given that- T = 750 K.
H 2S2 (g) → 2H ( g ) + 2S ( g ) ∆H = 239.0 k cal mol −1 99. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded
isothermally from an initial volume of 1 litre to
H 2S2 (g) → 2H ( g ) + S ( g ) ∆H = 175.0 k cal mol−1 10 litres. Then ∆S (cal deg–1 mol–1) for this
∆HS–S + 2∆HH–S = 239 process is: (R = 2 cal K–1 mol–1)
(a) 7.12 (b) 8.314
And 2∆HH–S = 175
–1 (c) 4.6 (d) 3.95
Hence, 2∆HS–S = 239–175 = 64 k cal mol
VITEEE-2016
Then, ∆H for 8S(g) → S8(g) is
Ans. (c) : Given that, T = 300K
8 × (–64) = –512 k cal
V1 = 1 litre, V2 = 10 litres
96. For the process H2O(l) (1 bar, 373 K) → R = 2 cal K–1 Mol–1
H2O(g) (1 bar, 373 K), the correct set of For isothermal process,
thermodynamic parameters is
V
(a) ∆G = 0, ∆S = +ve (b) ∆G = 0, ∆S = –ve ∆S = 2.303nR log 2
(c) ∆G = +ve, ∆S = 0 (d) ∆G = –ve, ∆S = +ve V1
IIT JEE, 2007 10
∆S = 2.303 × 1× 2log
Ans. (a) : For the process, water goes one state to 1
another state. Due to equilibrium between liquid and ∆S = 4.606 log 10
gaseous state of H2O on 373K, ∆G = 0, and entropy also ∆S = 4.6 cal deg–1 mol–1
increases i.e. ∆S = +ve 100. Match List I (Equations) with List II (Types of
97. Consider the reaction: N2 + 3 H2 → 2NH3 process) and select the correct option.
carried out at constant temperature and List - I List - II
pressure. If ∆H and ∆U are the enthalpy and ( Equations ) (Types of process)
internal energy changes for the reaction, which A. K P > Q 1. Non − spontaneous
of the following expressions is true ?
B. ∆ G ° < RT ln Q 2. Equilibrium
(a) ∆H > ∆U (b) ∆H < ∆U
C. K P = Q 3. Spontaneous and endothermic
(c) ∆H = ∆U (d) ∆H = 0
∆H
AIEEE-2005 D. T > 4. Spontaneous
∆S
Ans. (b) : Given the reaction –
Codes :
N 2 + 3H 2 → 2NH 3 A B C D
∆n = 2 – (3+1) = – 2 (a) 1 2 3 4
∴ ∆H = ∆U + ∆nRT (b) 3 4 2 1
∆H = ∆U – 2 RT (c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 2 1 4 3
So, ∆U > ∆H
VITEEE- 2012
Ans. (c) : By option (A) If Kp > Q and goes in forward Ans. (b) :
direction then reaction is spontaneous 1
Option (B) Given, ∆G°< RT ln Q, Na(s) + H 2 O(l ) → NaOH(s) + H 2 (g) .....(1)
2
Thus, ∆G° = + ve and hence, the reaction is non- ∆H° = –146 kJ
spontaneous. Na2SO4(s) + H2O(l) → 2NaOH(s) + SO3(g) .....(2)
Option (C) At equilibrium, Kp = Q ∆H° = +418 kJ
∆H 2NaO(s) + 2H2(g) → 4Na(s) + 2H2O(l) .....(3)
Option (D) T >
∆S ∆H° = +259 kJ
or T∆S = ∆H Given that enthalpies of reactions are –144 kJ, 418 kJ
This is valid condition for spontaneous endothermic and 359 kJ.
reactions (as ∆G ≥ ∆H – T∆S) Required reaction = (equation 3 ÷ 2) + (equation 1 × 2)
101. For the reaction, – (equation 2)
C3 H 8 ( g ) + 5O 2 ( g ) 
→ 3CO 2 ( g ) + 4H 2 O ( l ) Na 2 O + SO3  → Na 2SO 4 ;
at constant temperature, ∆H – ∆E is 259
∆H ° = + + (−146) × 2 − (418)
(a) RT (b) –3RT 2
(c) 3RT (d) – RT ⇒ ∆H = −580.5 ≈ 581 kJ
VITEEE- 2011 104. A spontaneous process is one in which the
Ans.(b): For the reaction- system suffers :
C3H8 ( g ) + 5O2 ( g ) → 3CO2 (g) + 4H 2 O ( l ) (a) no energy change
(b) a lowering of free energy
Given that, at constant temperature (c) a lowering of entropy
Now, from the following equation- (d) an increase in internal energy
∆H = ∆E + P∆V (QP∆V = ∆n g RT ) VITEEE- 2008
Ans. (b) : In any reaction, if the Gibbs free energy is
or ∆H = ∆E + ∆n g RT
negative then reaction will be spontaneous. ∆G = –ve
Where, ∆n g = n p − n r = 3 − 6 = −3 for a spontaneous process.
∴ ∆H − ∆E = −3RT 105. If an endothermic reaction occurs spontaneously
at constant temperature T and P, then which of
102. For which one of the following reactions will the following is true?
there be a positive ∆S? (a) ∆ G > 0 (b) ∆ H < 0
(a) H 2 O ( g ) → H 2O ( l ) (c) ∆ S > 0 (d) ∆ S < 0
(b) H 2 (g) + I 2 (g)  → 2HI(g) VITEEE- 2008
Ans. (c) : For a reaction to take place spontaneously the
(c) CaCO3 (s)  → CaO ( s ) + CO 2 ( g ) value of ∆G must be negative i.e. ∆G<0.
(d) N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g )  → 2NH 3 ( g ) Now, ∆G = ∆H– T∆S.
VITEEE- 2010 • As the reaction is endothermic, so value of ∆H must
be positive, i.e. ∆H > 0.
Ans. (c) : ∆S (entropy change) is the measure of Hence, to have a negative ∆G.
randomness and thus in solid, liquid and gas, the order
of entropy is gas > liquid > solid. ∆H < T∆S. As T & P are constant.
Thus, ∆S is positive for the reaction given in option (c) • T∆S must be positive to give the total value a negative
sign.
because solid CaCO3 is forming gaseous CO2.
Hence, ∆S> 0.
103. Calculate ∆H° for the reaction,
106. Enthalpy is equal to
Na 2O(s) + SO 3 (g) → NaSO 4 (g)
 δ ( ∆G )   δ(G / T) 
given the following : (a) −T 2   (b) −T 2  
1  δT  V  δT  P
(a) Na ( s ) + H 2O( l ) → NaOH ( s ) + H 2 ( g )
2  δ(G / T)   δ ( ∆G ) 
∆H° = −146kJ (c) T 2   (d) −T 2  
 δT  V  δT  P
(b) Na 2SO4 ( s ) + H 2O( l ) → 2NaOH(s) + SO 3 (g) VITEEE- 2007
∆H° = + 418kJ Ans. (d) : Gibb's Helmholtz Equation–
(c) 2NaO(s) + 2H 2 ( g ) → 4Na ( s ) + 2H 2O( l ) ∆G = ∆H – T∆S …….(1)
Differentiate this equation w.r.t. temperature at constant
∆H° = + 259kJ pressure,
(a) +823 kJ (b) –581 kJ
 ∂∆G   ∂G y   ∂G x 
(c) –435 kJ (d) +531 kJ   =  −  .…(2)
VITEEE- 2009  ∂T  P  ∂T  P  ∂T  P
= – Sy – (–Sx) (a) ∆H is + ve ; T∆S is – ve
= – (Sy – Sx) = –∆S ….(3) (b) T∆S = ∆H
Where, ∆S change in entropy (c) Both ∆H and T∆S are + ve but ∆H > T∆S
On combining equation (1) & (3), we get– (d) Both ∆H and T∆S are + ve but T∆S > ∆H
 ∂ ( ∆G )  SRMJEEE – 2013
∆G = ∆H + T   ….(4) Ans. (d) : We know that,
 ∂T P ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
Equation (4) is an alternative form of Gibbs Helmholtz
equation, Where, ∆G = Gibb's free energy change
Dividing equation (4) by T2, we get ∆H = enthalpy change
∆G ∆H 1  ∂ (∆G)  ∆S = entropy change.
= 2 +  For the spontaneous process, ∆G should be negative
T2 T T  ∂T  P which is possible in only option (d) because both ∆H
On rearrangement, we get and T∆S are positive and T∆S>∆H due to which
 ∂ ( ∆G )  ∆H ∆G < 0.
  =− 2
 ∂T  P T 111. Enthalpy of neutralization of a strong acid by a
strong base
 ∂ ( ∆G )  1. has a constant value of – 57.32 kJ
∴∆H = −T 2  
 ∂T  P 2. is independent of the nature of strong acid
and strong base
107. Condition for spontaneity in an isothermal
process is 3. is heat change accompanying the reaction
(a) ∆A + W < 0 (b) ∆G + U < 0 H+ (aq) + HO–(aq) → H2O
(c) ∆A + U > 0 (d) ∆G – U < 0 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
VITEEE- 2007 (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
SRMJEEE – 2016
Ans. (a) : Since ∆G = ∆A + P. ∆V
For a spontaneous process ∆G should be negative which Ans. (d) : The enthalpy of neutralization of any strong
is possible only if ∆G < 0 acid with a strong base is always the same i.e. 57.1 kJ.
The reason is that both the acid and base undergo
∆A + W < 0 complete ionisation. It is independent of the nature of
108. The reaction, the strong acid and strong base.
Zn ( s ) + CuSO4 (aq) → ZnSO 4 (aq) + Cu(s) is an Enthalpy of neutralization is always constant for a
example of a strong acid and a strong base this is because all strong
(a) spontaneous process acids and strong base are completely ionized in dilute
(b) isobaric process solution. Enthalpy change in neutralization are always
(c) non-spontaneous process negative.
(d) reversible process H + ( aq ) + HO − ( aq ) 
→ H 2O
VITEEE- 2006
1
Ans. (a) : It is spontaneous process because zinc is 112. For the reaction SO 2( g ) + O 2( g ) SO 3( g )
more reactive than copper, hence can easily replace Cu 2
from CuSO4. percentage yield of product at different
pressure is shown in the figure. Then, which
109. ∆S will be highest for among the following is true?
(a) Ca(s) + 1/2O2(g) → CaO(s)
(b) CaCO3(s) + CaO(s) → CO2(g)
(c) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
(d) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g)
SRMJEEE – 2014
Ans. (b) : The entropy of a system increases whenever
its particles have more freedom of motion. Thus, the
entropy increases whenever you have more moles of
gaseous products than of reactants and whenever you 1
have more product particles in solution than you have of SO 2( g ) + O 2( g ) SO3( g )
reactant particles. Hence, among the given reaction, the 2
entropy increases in – (a) Pressure has no effect (b) P1<P2 < P3
(c) P1> P2 > P3 (d) P1= P2 = P3 = 0
CaCO3(s)  → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
Since, the reactant side has no gaseous particle while AP- EAPCET- 07-09-2021, Shift-I
the product side has 1 gaseous particle. Hence, entropy 1
Ans. (c) : SO 2( g ) + O 2( g ) SO3 ( g )
increases and ∆S will be highest. 2
110. Which of the following conditions lead to a The percentage yield of product increases when P1> P2
spontaneous process? > P 3.
113. A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking P 6 P 4
equal number of moles of Helium and Neon. If (c) = = 0.00549 (d) = = 0.0080
the total pressure of the mixture was found to T 1092 T 500
be 10 atm, the partial pressure of Helium in the Q P/T ratio is highest at 4 atm and 500 K.
mixture is _____ ∴ Density is maximum at this condition.
(a) 1 atm (b) 5 atm 117. The Gibbs free energy for the decomposition of
(c) 10 atm (d) 0 atm Al2O3 at 500oC is 482.5 kJ/mol. The potential
AP- EAPCET- 07-09-2021, Shift-I difference needed for electrolytic reduction of
Ans. (b) : Partial pressure = Mole fraction × Total Al2O3 at 500oC is at least
pressure (a) 2.5 V (b) 5.0 V
(c) 1.25 V (d) 4.5 V
n He n 1
X He = = He = (Q nHe = nNe) AMU-2019
n He + n Ne 2n He 2 Ans. (c) : Reaction formed,
PHe = (1 – XHe) × PT 2 4
PHe = 0.5 × 10 = 5 atm Al2 O3  → Al + O 2
3 3
114. For which one of the following reactions, the Where, ∆rG = +482.5 kJ mol–1
entropy change is positive?
(i) 2O 2− + 4e−  → O2 ] × 3
1
(a) H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → H 2O (l ) (At anode)
3+
2 → Al + 3e − ] × 4
(ii) Al 
(b) Na + ( g ) + Cl− ( g ) 
→ NaCl ( s ) (At cathode)
Accurate reaction,
(c) NaCl ( l ) 
→ NaCl ( s ) 4 4
Al + 2O 2− → O 2 + Al
(d) H 2 O ( l ) 
→ H2O ( g ) 3 3
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) 2013 So, number of electron transferred = 12 = 4
Ans. (d) : 3
Entropy change is positive for vaporization of liquid From formula,
water to water vapor. The entropy of a compound in ∆G° = – nFE°
gaseous state is higher than the entropy of compound in (482.5 ×1000)J / mol = −4 × 96500 × E°
liquid state. (482.5 × 1000)J / mol
H 2 O ( l ) → H 2 O ( g ) ; ∆H = +40.8 kJmol–1 E° = = 1.25
4 × 96500
115. A chemical reaction cannot occur at all if its 118. The melting point of benzene is 5.5oC. What is
(a) ∆H is (+)ve and ∆S is (–)ve the sign of ∆H, ∆S and ∆G for melting point of
(b) ∆H is (–)ve and ∆S is (+)ve benzene at 0oC?
(c) ∆H and ∆S are (+)ve but ∆H > T∆S (a) ∆H>0, ∆S>0, ∆G>0 (b) ∆H<0, ∆S>0, ∆G<0
(d) ∆H and ∆S are (–)ve but ∆H > T∆S (c) ∆H>0, ∆S>0, ∆G<0 (d) ∆H>0, ∆S<0, ∆G>0
AMU-2019
AP - EAMCET(MEDICAL) - 2009
Ans. (a) : The melting point of benzene is 5.5oC. The
Ans. (c) : The mathematical expression of Gibb's sign of ∆H, ∆S and ∆G for melting point of benzene at
Helmholtz equation is given as– 0oC is–
∆G = ∆H – T∆S ∆H>0, ∆S>0, ∆G>0
Where, ∆G = Change in Gibb's energy 119. An ideal gas initially at temperature, pressure
∆H = Change in enthalpy and volume, 27oC, 1.00 bar and 10 L, respectively
T = Temperature is heated at constant volume until pressure is
∆S = Change in entropy 10.0 bar; it then undergoes a reversible
If ∆G has the positive value then a chemical reaction isothermal expansion until pressure is 1.00 bar.
cannot occur. This condition is true when ∆H and ∆S What is the total work W, during this process?
both are positive in such a way that ∆H > T∆S. (a) –23.02 × 103 J (b) –14.0 × 103 J
116. Density of carbon monoxide is maximum at (c) 14.0 × 103 J (d) Zero
(a) 2 atm and 600 K (b) 0.5 atm and 273 K AMU-2018
(c) 6 atm and 1092 K (d) 4 atm and 500 K Ans. (b) :
Karnataka-CET-2014
Ans. (d) : For ideal gas equation, P = dRT (d = Density)
P
∴ d∝
T
P 2 P 0.5
(a) = = 0.0033 (b) = = 0.00183
T 600 T 273

For process 1-2 : V = C Ans. (a) : NaCl(s) 
→ NaCl( l ) (∆G = 0, At phase)
W1 = –P∆V
0 = ∆H – T∆S,
Q ∆V = 0
∴ ∆H
W1 = 0 Entropy change, ∆S =
For process 2-3 : T = C T
P2 ∆H 30.4 × 103
W2 = –2.303 nRT log So, T = = = 1070.4K
P3 ∆S 28.4
We know that, PV = nRT 123. For an isolated system, ∆U = 0, then
10 (a) ∆S = 0
W2 = –2.303 × P × V × log
1 (b) ∆S < 0
= –2.303 × 1 × 105 × 10–3 log10 (c) ∆S > 0
= –2.303 × 102 J (d) the value of ∆S cannot be predicted.
= –23.03 × 103 J ≈ 23.02 × 103 J AMU-2012
120. For the given PV isotherms, which of the Ans. (c) : ∆S is independent of ∆U
following is correct for T1, T2, T3 ? And for isolated system,
∆S > 0 → Always
124. An adiabatic process occurs in
(a) open system
(b) closed system
(c) isolated system
(d) in all the given systems
AMU – 2009
Ans. (c) : Adiabatic process is a process in which
(a) T1 < T2 < T3 (b) T3 < T2 < T1 energy transfer take place in form of work only and heat
(c) T2 < T3 < T1 (d) T1 > T3 > T2 transfer is zero. For that, system must be thermally
AMU-2018 insulated.
Ans. (a) : According to Boyle’s law, the product of 125. A reaction is spontaneous at high temperatures
volume and pressure of a given gas is constant at if
constant temperature. The curve between pressure and (a) ∆H and ∆S both are negative
volume is plotted as (b) ∆H and ∆S both are positive
(c) ∆H is negative and ∆S is positive
(d) ∆H is positive and ∆S is negative.
AMU – 2007
Ans. (b) : A reaction is spontaneous at high temperature, if
On increasing temperature the curve shifts to higher ∆H and ∆S are positive and it is an entropy driven process.
value. 126. Calculate the entropy change for
121. A better criterion for ideality of a gas than CH4(g)+H2O(g)→3H2(g)+CO(g)
 ∂U  JK–1mole–1 are 186.2, 188.7, 130.6, 197.6
  = 0 is respectively. The entropy change is
 ∂V T
(a) –46 JK–1mole–1 (b) +46 JK–1mole–1
 ∂H   ∂H  –1
(c) –214.8 JK mole –1
(d) +214.8 JK–1mole–1
(a)   <0 (b)   >0
 ∂P T  ∂P T AMU-2005
 ∂H   ∂H  Ans. (d) : Given,
(c)   =0 (d)   ≠0 CH4(g) = 186.2 JK–1mol–1
 ∂P T  ∂P T
H2O(g) = 188.7 JK–1mol–1
AMU-2017
H2(g) = 130.6 JK–1mol–1
 ∂H  CO(g) = 197.6 JK–1mol–1
Ans. (c) :   =0
 ∂P T The entropy change (∆S°) for the reaction,
122. 30.4 kJ is required to melt one mole of NaCl. CH4(g)+H2O(g)→3H2(g)+CO(g)
The entropy change during melting is 28.4 J Entropy of a reaction = Entropy of products – Entropy
mol–1 K–1. What is the melting point of sodium of reactants
chloride? Entropy change (∆S°) = (197.6 + 3×130.6) – (186.2 +
(a) 1070.4 K (b) 535.2 K 188.7)
(c) 273.1 K (d) 1007.4 K = 589.4 – 374.9
AMU-2016 = 214.5 JK–1mole–1
127. A process is spontaneous at high temperature if Ans. (d) : ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT
(a) ∆H > 0 and ∆S > 0 (b) ∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0 ∆ng = np – nR = 2 – 1 = 1
(c) ∆H > 0 and ∆S < 0 (d) ∆H = 0 and ∆S < 0 Where, nP = Mole of product
AMU-2004 nR = Mole of reactant
Ans. (a) : ∆G = ∆H – T∆S ∴ ∆H = ∆U + (1) RT
If ∆H is +ve and ∆S is +ve then . at high temperature ∴ ∆H > ∆U
∆G is – ve, i.e the process is spontaneous. 133. The temperature of a gas in a closed container
is 27 oC. If the temperature is raised to 327 oC,
128. △H and △E will have same value in the pressure exerted is
(a) N2(g)+ 3H2(g)⇌2NH3(g) (a) reduced to half
(b) doubled
(b) N2O4(g)→2NO2(g)
(c) reduced to one-third
(c) H2(g) + I2(g)→2HI(g) (d) Cannot be calculated
(d) 2H2(g) + O2(g)→ 2H2O(l) Assam CEE-2014
AMU–2003 Ans. (b) : Closed container mean volume is constant,
Ans. (c) : For H2(g) +I2(g) →2HI(g) P1 P2
△H = △E + P △V =
T1 T2
△V=0 Given, T1 = 27 + 273 = 300 K
T2 = 327 + 273 = 600 K,
∴ △H = △E
P1 P
129. For the reversible process, the value of ∆S is = 2
given by the expression 300 600
(a) q(rev)×T (b) q(rev)÷T 600
∴ P2 = × P1 = 2P1
(c) ∆H/∆T (d) T÷ q(rev) 300
AMU 2002 So, Pressure become double.
Ans. (b) : According to the second law of 134. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl 2 (g). the signs of
thermodynamics, the change in entropy for reversible ∆H and ∆S are
reaction during a process is expressed as, (a) ∆S is − Ve, ∆H is –Ve
q (b) ∆S is + Ve, ∆H is –Ve
∆S = rev
T (c) ∆S is − Ve, ∆H is +Ve
130. For the precipitation reaction of Ag+ ions with (d) ∆S is + Ve, ∆H is +Ve
NaCl, which of the following statements is Assam CEE-2020
correct ? Ans. (a) : 2Cl (g) → Cl2(g)
(a) ∆G for the reaction is zero As we can see from the reaction, Entropy is decreasing
(b) ∆G for the reaction is negative in the reaction as no. of molecules are decreasing. It
means the randomness at the system decreases and
(c) [∆G] =[∆H]
reaction is exothermic hence ∆H is also negative (–).
(d) none of these.
135. If temperature of a liquid is raised surface
AMU–2001 tension of the liquid
Ans. (b) : For spontaneous reaction, the value of free (a) Increases (b) decreases
energy is negative (i.e. ∆G < 0). (c) remains the same (d) decreases to 00C
Since, both ∆H and ∆S can be either positive or Assam CEE-2019
negative. Ans. (b) : Surface tension is defined as the resistance
131. Enthalpy of formation of a compound offered by the surface of the liquid to penetration. As
(a) is always positive the temperature increases, surface tension decreases.
(b) is always negative 136. An equilibrium mixture of ice and water is
(c) can be either positive or negative under constant pressure, where ice melts if heat
(d) can be either negative or zero is supplied. For this process
Assam CEE-2014 (a) Free energy increases
(b) Entropy increases
Ans. (c) : Enthalpy of formation of a compound can be
(c) Enthalpy increases
positive or negative. It depends on standard form of
(d) Entropy decreases
elements that are taken into consideration.
Assam CEE-2018
132. For the gaseous reaction N2O4(g) → 2NO2(g) Ans. (b) : As temperature increases, volume also
(a) ∆H = 0 (b) ∆H = ∆U increases due to increase in volume randomness of
(c) ∆H < ∆U (d) ∆H > ∆U molecules also increases
Assam CEE-2014 Hence, entropy of system increases.
137. For a reaction, K = 100 the value of ∆G will be 142. Unit of entropy is
(a) - 2.303 RT (b) - 4.606 RT (a) JK–1mol–1 (b) J mol–1
(c) - RT (d) RT (c) J–1K–1mol–1 (d) JK mol–1
Ans. (b) : Given, K = 100 q
Ans. (a) : Change in Entropy ( ∆S ) = rev
and T
∆G = –2.303 RT log K Unit of,
= – 2.303 RT log(100) qrev. → J mol–1
= –2.303 RT × 2 log 10 T→K
= –4.606 RT ∴ ∆S → JK–1 mol–1
138. Highest entropy is in : 143. Given that dE = TdS – pdV and H = E + pV.
(a) hydrogen (b) water Which one of the following relations is true?
(c) graphite (d) mercury (a) dH = TdS + Vdp (b) dH = SdT + Vdp
BCECE-2006 (c) dH = –SdT – Vdp (d) dH = dE – pdV
BCECE-2014
Ans. (a) : Entropy is defined as the degree of the
randomness of molecules. It means, the molecules Ans. (a) : dE = TdS – PdV ...(i)
which have high randomness will have higher entropy. H = E + PV ... (ii)
So, Gas molecules have more entropy because it have Differentiating Eq. (ii),
more randomness motion. dH = dE + PdV + VdP ... (iii)
Gas > Liquid > Solid. From equation (i) and (ii),
From the above given option, Hydrogen is in gaseous dH = TdS + Vdp
state. 144. Which one of the following equations
Hence, have more entropy. represents the variation of viscosity coefficient
(η) with temperature (T)?
139. Which of the following is always negative for
exothermic reaction ? (a) η = Ae − E / RT (b) η = Ae E / RT
(a) ∆H (b) ∆S (c) η = Ae − E / KT (d) η = Ae − E / T
(c) ∆G (d) None of these BCECE-2014
BCECE-2005 Ans. (b) : The variation of viscosity coefficient (η) with
Ans. (a) : ∆H always negative for exothermic reactions, temperature (T) is given by,
because exothermic process are energy librating η = AeE/RT
process. i.e. ∆H = –ve Viscosity are taken in Fluid medium
140. What is ∆E for system that does 500 cal of 145. Which one of the following is an exothermic
work on surrounding and 300 cal of heat is reaction?
absorbed by the system? (a) N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) + 180.8kJ  → 2NO(g)
(a) –200 cal (b) –300 cal (b) C(graphite) + 2S(s) 
→ CS2 (l) − 91.9kJ
(c) +200 cal (d) +300 cal
BCECE-2003 (c) N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) − 92kJ 
→ 2NH 3 (g)
Ans. (a) : Given, (d) C(g) + H2 O(g) → CO(g) + H 2 (g) − 131.4kJ
q = +300 cal (Heat is absorbed) BCECE-2015
W= 500 cal (work done on surrounding) Ans. (c) : Reaction in which heat evolved from the
From first law of thermodynamic system is known as Exothermic reaction.
∆E = q + W = 300 + (–500) = – 200 cal. N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2 NH3(g) + 92 kJ↓ heat is evolved
141. Which of the following will produce the highest So, ∆H = Negative
rise in temperature ? 146. Which of the following gases has maximum
(a) 67 mL of 1 M NaOH + 33 mL of 0.5 M value of root mean square velocity (vrms) at
H2SO4 same temperature CO2, H2, NH3?
(b) 33 mL of 1 M NaOH + 67 mL of 0.5 M (a) CO2 (b) H2
H2SO4 (c) NH3 (d) All have same velocity
(c) 40 mL of 1 M NaOH + 60 mL of 0.5 M BCECE-2016
H2SO4 3RT
(d) 50 mL of 1 M NaOH + 50 mL of 0.5 M Ans. (b) : v rms =
H2SO4 M
BCECE-2009 T = Constant
Its means, higher be the value of molecular mass, lower
Ans. (d) : Here all the reaction are acid-base i.e be the vrms and vice-versa.
neutralization.
We have, M CO 2 = 44, M H 2 = 2, M NH 3 = 17
Option (d) has highest heat evolved. So rise in
temperature is maximum. Hence, vrms of H2 will be maximum
147. Compounds with high heat of formation are Where ∆H = enthalpy of reaction at constant pressure
less stable because ∆E = heat of reaction at constant volume
(a) It is difficult to synthesize them R = molar gas constant
(b) Energy rich state leads to instability T = temperature of the reaction
(c) High temperature is required to synthesize n = (no. of moles of product) – (no. of moles of
them reactant.)
(d) Molecules of such compounds are distorted From reaction, n = n P − n R = 2 − 4 = −2
BITSAT 2006 Hence, ∆H = ∆E − 2RT
Ans. (b) : Higher values of heat of formation indicates
150. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded
a higher amount of energy released during the formation
of a compound, which makes it more stable.
10 litres. The ∆E for this process is
So, more the energy, lesser is the stability.
(R = 2 cal mol–1K–1)
148. K for CH3COOH at 250C is 1.754 × 10–5. At (a) 163.7 cal (b) zero
500C K is 1.633 × 10–5. What are ∆H0 and ∆S0 (c) 1381.1 cal (d) 9 lit atom
for the ionization of CH3COOH? BITSAT 2009
(a) −1.55kJmol−1 , −96.44 Jmol−1K −1 Ans. (b) : For isothermal process, ∆E = 0 because for
(b) −2.55kJmol −1 , −106.44 Jmol−1K −1 ideal gas, internal energy is a function of temperature
only.
(c) 1.55kJmol−1 ,96.44 Jmol−1K −1 151. A spontaneous reaction is impossible if
(d) −1.55kJmol−1 ,96.44 Jmol−1K −1 (a) both ∆H and ∆S are negative
BITSAT 2008 (b) both ∆H and ∆S are positive
Ans. (a) : Given, (c) ∆H is negative and ∆S is positive
T1 = 25°C + 273 = 298K, T2 = 50°C + 273 = 323K (d) ∆H is positive and ∆S is negative
BITSAT 2015
 
K
 CH 3 COOH  = 1.754 × 10 –5
Ans. (d) : For non spontaneous reaction,
 25° C ∆H is positive and ∆S is negative.
  152. For a particular reversible reaction at
 K CH 3 COOH  = 1.633 ×10 –5
 50°C temperature T, ∆H and ∆S were found to be
both +ve. If Te is the temperature at
We know, equilibrium, the reaction would be spontaneous
∆G 0 = −2.303 RT log K when
( )
∆G 0(323) = −2.303 × 8.314 × 323log 1.633 × 10 –5
(a) Te > T
(c) Te is 5 times T
(b) T > Te
(d) T = Te
= 29605J BITSAT 2016
( )
∆G 0(298) = −2.303 × 8.314 × 298log 1.754 × 10 –5
Ans. (b) : At equilibrium, ∆G = 0
AIEEE-2010
= 27194 J Hence, ∆G = ∆H − Te ∆S
∆G 0 = ∆H 0 − T∆S0 0 =∆H –Te∆S
0
29605 = ∆H − 323∆S 0
…..(i) ∆H = Te∆S
For a spontaneous reaction
27194 = ∆H 0 − 298∆S0 …..(ii)
∆G must be negative which is possible only if
From eqn. (i) & (ii) on calculation, We find ∆H − T∆S < 0
∆S0 = −96.44 J K −1 mol−1 ∴∆H < T∆S
∴∆H 0 = −1.55 kJ / mol ∆H
or T > ; Te < T
149. For the reaction ∆S
N 2 + 3H 2 2NH 3 1
153. For the reaction CO(g) + O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g)
Which one of the following is correct regarding 2
Which one of the statement is correct at
∆H :
constant T and P?
(a) ∆H = ∆E + 2RT (b) ∆H = ∆E – 2RT
(a) ∆H = ∆E
(c) ∆H = ∆E + RT (d) ∆H = ∆E – RT
(b) ∆H < ∆E
BITSAT 2009
(c) ∆H > ∆E
Ans. (b) : N 2 + 3H 2 2NH3
(d) ∆H is independent of physical state of the
According to 1st law of thermodynamics, reactants.
∆H = ∆E + nRT BITSAT 2017
1 utilized to dissociate the molecule of weak acid into
Ans. (b) : CO(g) + O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g) ions.
2 Heat of Neutralization are taken strong Acid with strong
∆n = [1 mol of CO2] – [1 mol of CO + 0.5 mol of O2] base.
= –0.5
157. Match List I with List II and select the correct
1 answer using the codes.
∆H = ∆E − RT
2 List I List II
∴ ∆E > ∆H A. Spontaneous process 1. ∆H < 0
154. For the chemical reaction, B. Exothermic process 2. Heat of reaction
N 2 + 3H 2 → 2NH 3 , if C. Enthalpy at constant 3. ∆G < 0
d [ NH 3 ]
Pressure 4. ∆U = 0, ∆H = 0
= 2 × 10−4 mol L−1 s−1, the value of D. Cyclic process
dt Codes
−d [ H 2 ] A B C D
is
dt (a) 4 2 1 3
−4
(a) 1 × 10 mol L s −1 −1 −4
(b) 3 × 10 mol L s−1 −1 (b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 1 3 4 2
−4 −1 −1
(c) 4 × 10 mol L s (d) 6 × 10−4 mol L−1s −1 (d) 1 2 3 4
CG PET -2008 CG PET- 2016
Ans. (b) : N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 (Haber’s Process) Ans. (b) : By option –
A – spontaneous process
d[NH 3 ] ∆G < 0
Given that = 2 × 10−4 mol L−1s−1
dt B – Exothermic process
Using above reaction, ∆H < 0
−d[H 2 ] 3d[NH 3 ] C – Enthalpy at constant Pressure
=
dt 2dt ∆H (Heat of reaction)
−d[H 2 ] 3 D – In cyclic process
= × 2 ×10−4 mol L−1s−1 All state function are zero
dt 2
∆u = 0, ∆H = 0
−d[H 2 ] 3
∴ = × 2 × 10−4 mol L−1s−1 158. In an adiabatic process which of the following
dt 2 is true
= 3 × 10−4 mol L−1s −1 (a) q=+W (b) q=0
155. Which of the following units of energy, (c) ∆E = q (d) p∆V = 0
represents maximum amount of energy? CG PET -2006
(a) Calorie (b) Joule
Ans. (b) : In an adiabatic process, q = 0 as no heat is
(c) Erg (d) Electron volt exchanged between system and surrounding.
CG PET -2008 Adiabatic expansion → cooling effect and vice versa .
Ans. (a) : 1 eV energy = 1.6 × 10–19 J 159. The decomposition of dinitrogen tetroxide at
• 1 erg energy = 10–7 J 300 K and 1.0 atm pressure is 20%. At
• 1 calorie energy = 4.18 J equilibrium, the partial pressure (in atm) of
Hence, maximum amount of energy represented by nitrogen peroxide is
calorie. (a) 0.2 (b) 0.67
156. 1.0L of 1.0 M solution of sodium hydroxide is (c) 0.33 (d) 0.8
neutralised by 1.0 L of 1.0 M of methanoic acid. CG PET -2017
If the heat of formation of water is X, the Ans. (c) : QN O 2NO 2
2 4
neutralisation energy of above reaction is
(a) less than X (b) more than X Molar ratio= 1:2
(c) equal to X (d) None of the above Also, only 20% of N2O4 gets decomposed means.
Thus, Total number of moles at equilibrium = 0.4 + 0.8
CG PET -2008 = 1.2 moles
Ans. (a) : Heat of Neutralization of a strong acid with Q Total pressure (Pt) =1 atm (given)
strong base is constant and equal to 13.7 kcal. Here, According to Daltons law of partial pressure,
constant value represents the heat of formation of one
PN2O4 = X ( N2O4 ) × Pt
mole of H2O.
H + OH → H2O,
+ –
PNO2 = X ( NO2 ) × Pt
∆H = 13.7 kcal.
0.4
But the heat of neutralization of weak acid and strong PNO2 = ×1 = 0.33
base is less than 13.7 kcal (X) because some heat is 1.2

160. In a reversible isothermal process, the change 164. In conversion of limestone to lime,
in internal energy is CaCO3(s)  → CaO(s) + CO2 (g) the values of
(a) zero (b) positive ∆H° and ∆S° are +179.1 kJ mol–1and 160.2 J/K,
(c) negative (d) None of these respectively at 298 K and 1 bar. Assuming that
CG PET- 2010 ∆H° and ∆S° do not change with temperature,
Ans. (a) : ∆E = 0 for reversible isothermal process (T = temperature above which conversion of
constant) limestone to lime will be spontaneous is
• Internal energy is function of temperature only for (a) 1008 K (b) 1200 K
ideal gas. (c) 845 K (d) 1118 K
161. From the figure, in which of the following AIEEE-2007
vessel, the pressure of the gas is the highest,
Ans. (d) : CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(Temperature and volume of the gases are the
same in each vessel). Given that,
∆Ho = + 179.1 kJ/mol
∆So = 160.2 J/mol
∆Go = ∆Ho – T∆So
For spontaneous process, ∆Go < 0
∴ ∆Ho – T∆So < 0
∴ 179.1×103 < 160.2 × T
(a) Q (b) P
(c) R (d) S 179.1× 103
∴ T>
GUJCET-2020 160.2
Ans. (b) : Helium has the highest moles So, it has the ∴ T > 1118 K
highest pressure. As He gas will not absorbed so the Therefore, above 1118 K, the reaction will be
pressure of the gas will be highest in P. spontaneous.
162. From the given graph at constant, temperature, 165. The entropy change involved in the isothermal
which gas has the least solubility? reversible expansion of 2 moles of an ideal gas
from a volume of 10 dm3 to a volume of 100
dm3 at 27°C is
(a) 38.3 J mol–1 K–1 (b) 35.8 J mol–1 K–1
–1 –1
(c) 32.3 J mol K (d) 42.3 J mol–1 K–1
AIEEE-2011
Ans. (a) : Given, n = 2 mole
V1 = 10 dm3
(a) gas-D (b) gas-B V2 = 100 dm3
(c) gas-A (d) gas-C T = 27°C + 273 = 300 K
GUJCET-2014
V 
Ans. (c) : Henry's law is gas law which states "at the ∆S = 2.303nR log  2 
amount of gas that is dissolved in a liquid is directly  V1 
proportional to the partial pressure of that gas above
the liquid when the temperature is kept constant".  100 
= (2.303) (2) (8.314) log  
P = K HX  10 
The constant of proportionality for this relationship is = 38.3 J mol–1K–1
called Henry's law constant. Thus, entropy change of reaction is 38.3J mol–1K–1.
1 166. Two blocks of the same metal having same
Sol ubility ∝
Henry 's constant mass and at temperature T1 and T2
It means, Less value of Henry Constant, more the respectively, are brought in contact with each
solubility. other and allowed to attain thermal
equilibrium at constant pressure. The change
163. At the equilibrium position in the process of
adsorption : in entropy, ∆S for this process is
(a) ∆H > 0 (b) ∆H = T∆S  1

 (T1 + T2 ) 2   (T + T2 ) 
(c) ∆H > T∆S (d) ∆H < T∆S (a) 2Cp k ln (b) 2Cp ln  1 
 T1T2   4T1T2 
HP CET-2018
 
Ans. (b) : At equilibrium position during adsorption,
∆G = ∆H – T∆S [∆G=0, at equilibrium]  (T + T2 ) 2   T + T2 
(c) Cp ln  1  (d) 2Cp ln  1 
So, that  4T1T2   2T1T2 
∆H = T∆S JEE Main-2019 Shift-I
Ans. (c) At the thermal equilibrium, = 4.2 × 2.303(log373–log273) kJ K–1 kg–1
T + T2 = 4.2 × 2.303(2.572–2.436)
Final Temperature Tf = 1 = 1.31 kJ K–1 kg–1
2
Tf ∆H vap. 2491
For the 1 block, ∆SI = CP ln
st ∆S3 = = = 6.67 kJ kg −1K −1
T1 ∆Tvap. 373
T T2  383 
For the 2nd block, ∆SII = CP ln f ∆S4 = C log = 2 log  
T2 T1  273 
When brought in contact with each other, = 2×2.303(log383–log373)
T T = 2×2.303(2.583–2.572)
∆S = ∆SI + ∆SII = CP ln f + C P ln f = 0.05 kJ K–1 kg–1
T1 T2
∆STotal = ∆S1 + ∆S2 + ∆S3 + ∆S4
T T   T2  = 1.22+1.31+6.67+0.05
= CP ln  f × f  = CP ln  f  = 9.26 kJ kg–1 K–1
 T1 T2   T1T2 
169. A process has ∆H = 200 J mol–1 and ∆S = 40
  T1 + T2  2  JK–1 mol–1. Out of the values given below,
    ( T + T )2  choose the minimum temperature above which
= C P ln  
2  
= C P ln  1 2  the process will be spontaneous
 T1T2   4T1T2  (a) 20 K (b) 4 K
 
  (c) 5 K (d) 12 K
167. The reaction, JEE Main-2019, Shift-II
MgO(s) + C(s) →Mg(s)+ CO(g), for Ans. (c) : ∆G = ∆H – T∆S < 0 (∆G = ∆H – T∆S)
which ∆r H° = + 491.1 kJ mol–1 and ∆r S° = ∆H 200
T= = = 5K
198.0 JK–1 mol–1, is not feasible at 298 K. ∆S 40
Temperature above which reaction will be 170. The process with negative entropy change is
feasible is (a) Synthesis of ammonia from N2 and H2
(a) 2040.5 K (b) 1890.0 K (b) Dissociation of CaSO4(s) to CaO(s) and
(c) 2380.5 K (d) 2480.3 K SO3(g)
JEE Main-2019, Shift-II (c) Dissolution of iodine in water
∆H (d) Sublimation of dry ice
Ans. (d) : At equilibrium T = = JEE Main-2019, Shift-II
∆S
491.1× 1000 Ans. (a) : Four moles of gas (N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3) reacts
to give two mole of gas
198
Hence, Entropy decreases.
= 2480.3 K
It is the temperature above which reaction is not ∆ng < 0, it mean’s entropy = Negative
possible. 171. The true statement amongst the following is-
168. The entropy change associated with the (a) S is not a function of temperature but ∆S is a
conversion of 1 kg of ice at 273 K to water function of temperature.
vapours at 383 K is (Specific heat of water (b) Both ∆S and S are functions of temperature.
liquid and water vapour are 4.2 kJK–1 kg–1 and (c) Both S and ∆S are not functions of
2.0 kJK–1 kg–1; heat of liquid fusion and temperature
vapourisation of water are 334 kJ kg–1 and (d) S is a function of temperature but ∆S is not a
2491kJkg–1 respectively). function of temperature.
(log273 = 2.436, log 373 = 2.572, JEE Main-2020, Shift-II
log383 = 2.583) Ans. (b) : By definition of entropy
(a) 9.25 kJ kg–1 K–1 (b) 8.49 kJ kg–1 K–1 dQ dQ
(c) 7.90 kJ kg K –1 –1
(d) 2.64 kJ kg–1 K–1 ds = and ∆s = ∫
T T
JEE Main-2019 Shift-II So, ∆S, S both are the function of temperature.
Ans. (a) : The conversion of 1kg of ice at 273 K into 172. Data given for the following reaction is as
water vapours at 383 K takes place as follow−
∆S1 ∆S2 ∆S3 ∆S4
follows. FeO(s) + C(graphite)  → Fe(s) + CO(g)
H 2 O(s) → H 2 O(l) → H 2 O(l) → H 2 O(g) → H 2 O(g)
273K 273K 373K 373K 383K Substance ∆H° ∆S°
∆H Fusion 334 (kJ mol–1) (J mol–1 K–1)
∆S1 = = =1.22 kJ kg −1K −1 FeO(s) –266.3 57.49
∆TFusion 273
C(graphite) 0 5.74
T2  373 
∆S2 = Clog = 4.2 log  
Fe(s) 0 27.28
T1  273  CO(g) –110.5 197.6

The minimum temperature in K at which the I2 (g) = 2I (g), 151.0 kJ mol–1
reaction becomes spontaneous is .......... (Integer ICl(g) = I(g) + Cl(g), 211.3 kJ mol–1
answer) I2 (s) = I2 (g), 62.76 kJ mol–1
JEE Main-2021, Shift-II Given that the standard states for iodine and
Ans. (964 ): FeO (s) + C(graphile) 
→ Fe(s) + CO(g) chlorine are I2 (s) and Cl2 (g), the standard
enthalpy of formation of ICl is
∆H o reaction = ∆H of (product ) − ∆H fo(reactants) (a) –14.6 kJ mol–1 (b) –16.8 kJ mol–1
–1
= [∆H of (Fe) + ∆ of (CO) ] − [∆ fo(FeO) − ∆ fo(C) ] (c) +16.8 kJ mol (d) +244.8 kJ mol–1
AIEEE-2006, AIIMS-2015
= [0 + (−110.5)] − [266.3 − 0] Ans. (c) : Here correct option is (b) Not (c).
=156 kJ mol −1 1 1
I2 (s) → Cl2 (g) → ICl(g)
∆Soreaction = ∆Sproduct
o
− ∆Soreactant 2 2
= [∆So(Fe) + ∆S(CO)
o
] − [∆S(FeO)
o
− ∆So(C) ] 1 1 1 
∆H =  ∆H s→g + ∆H diss (Cl 2 ) + ∆H diss (l)  − ∆H ICl
= [27.28 +197.6] − [57.49 + 5.79] 2 2 2 
=161JK −1 mol −1 1 1 1 
=  × 62.76 + × 242.3 + ×151.0  − 211.3
According to Gibb's equation, 2 2 2 
∆Go = ∆Ho – T∆So = 228.03 − 211.3
T∆So = ∆Ho ∆H = 16.73 kJ mol −1
∆H o 156 176. The value of enthalpy change (∆H) for the
⇒ T= o = reaction
∆S 161
156000 C2 H 5OH ( l ) + 3O 2 ( g ) → 2CO 2 ( g ) + 3H 2O ( l ) at
= = 964 K
161 27oC is – 1366.5 kJ mol–1. The value of internal
The temperature at which reaction becomes energy change for the above reaction at this
spontaneous is 964 K. temperature will be
173. For the reaction, (a) –1371.5 kJ (b) –1369.0 kJ
→ N 2O4 (g)when (c) –1364.0 kJ (d) –1361.5 kJ
2NO2 (g) ←  AIEEE-2011
∆S = –176.0 JK–1 and ∆H = –57.8 kJ mol–1, the Ans. (c) : ∆H = ∆E + ∆ngRT
magnitude of ∆G at 298 K for the reactions is
∆E = – 1366.5 + 1 × 8.314×10–3 × 300
.............. kJ mol–1. (Nearest integer)
= – 1363.6 kJ
JEE Main-2021 Shift-II
Ans. (5) : Given that, 177. Consider the reaction,
∆S = –176.0 JK–1 4NO 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → 2N 2O 5 ( g ) ∆r H = -111kJ
∆H = –57.8 kJ mol–1 If N2O5 (s) is formed instead of N2O5(g) in the
∆G = ∆H – T∆S above reaction, the ∆rH value will be
298(−176) (Given, ∆H of sublimation for N2O5 is 54 kJ
∆G = 57.8 − mol–1)
1000 (a) –165 kJ (b) +54 kJ
∆G = –5.352 kJ/mole (c) +219 kJ (d) –219 kJ
174. (∆H – ∆E) for the formation of carbon AIEEE-2011
monoxide (CO) from its elements at 298 K is Ans. (a) :
(R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
(a) –1238.78 J mol–1 (b) 1238.78 J mol–1
–1
(c) –2477.57 J mol (d) 2477.57 J mol–1
AIEEE-2006
1 From Hess’s law,
Ans. (b) : C(s) + O 2(g ) 
→ CO(g) ∆Hf + ∆Hsub = ∆Hreaction
2
∆Hf = ∆Hreaction – ∆Hsub
1
∆ng = 1 − = 0.5 (∆nq → GaseousP – GaseousR) = –111kJ – (54 kJ)
2 = – 111 – 54 kJ = –165 kJ
∆H = ∆U + ∆ng RT
∴ ∆H – ∆U = ∆ng × R × T 178. Given, C( graphite ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) ;
= 0.5 × 8.314 × 298 ∆r H o = -393.5 kJ mol -1
∆H – ∆U = 1238.78J/mol. 1
175. The enthalpy changes for the following H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → H 2O ( l ) ;
2
processes are listed below
Cl2 (g) = 2Cl(g), 242.3 kJ mol–1 ∆r H o = -285.8 kJ mol -1

CO 2 ( g ) + 2H 2O ( l ) → CH 4 ( g ) + 2O 2 ( g ) ; Ans. (c) : Enthalpy of bond dissociation (kJ/mole) at
o -1
∆r H = +890.3 kJ mol Based on the above 298.2 K.
For, Hydrogen = 435.88
thermochemical equations, the value of ∆rHo at
298 K for the reaction, For, Deuterium = 443.35
C (graphite) + 2H 2 ( g ) → CH 4 (g) will be EH = ED – 7.5
(a) + 78.8 kJ mol –1
(b) + 144.0 kJ mol –1 182. When 400 mL of 0.2 M H2SO4 solution is mixed
(c) –74.8 kJ mol–1 (d) –144.0 kJ mol–1 with 600 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution, the
[JEE Main 2017] increase in temperature of the final solution is
Ans. (c) : ................... × 10–2 K. (Round off to the nearest
Cgraphite + O2(g) → CO2(g); ∆rHo = – 393.5 ... (1) integer).
1 [Use : H+(aq) + OH+(aq)→H2O; ∆H = –57.1kJ
H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → H 2 O(1); ∆rH = −285.8
o
...(2) mol–1]
2
CO2(g) + 2H2O(I) → CH4 + 2O2(g); ∆rHo = + 890.3 Specific heat of H2O = 4.18 J K–1g–1, density of
... (3) H2O = 1.0 g cm–3. Assume no change in volume
Add reactions (1) and (3) of solution on mixing.
C(graphite) + 2H2O(I) → CH4 (g) + O2(g) ... (4) [JEE Main 2021, 27 July Shift-II]
Multiply reaction (2) with 2 Ans. (82) :
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(1) ...(5) 400 × 0.2
∆H = – 285.8 × 2 = –571.6 kJ/mol nH + = × 2 = 0.16
1000
Add reaction (4) and (5)
C(graphites) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g) 600 × 0.1
nOH − = = 0.06 (L.R.)
∆H = 496.8 – 571.6 1000
= –74.8 kJ/mol Now, heat liberated from reaction = heat gained by
179. For silver, Cp ( JK mol ) 23 + 0.01T. If the solutions.
-1 -1
temperature (T) of 3 moles of silver is raised 0.06 × 57.1 × 10 = (1000 × 1.0) × 4.18 × ∆T
3
from 300 K to 1000 K at 1 atm pressure, the ∆T = 0.8196 K

value of ∆H will be close to = 81.96 × 10–2 K = 82 × 10–2 K
(a) 62 kJ (b) 16 kJ
183. For water at 100oC and 1 bar, ∆vap H – ∆vap U=
(c) 21 kJ (d) 13 kJ
.................×102 J mol–1.
T2 1000
(Round off to the nearest integer)
Ans. (a) : ∆H = n ∫ C P dT = 3 × ∫ (23 + 0.01T) dT [Use : R = 8.31J mol–1K–1]
T1 300
[Assume volume of H2O(l) is much smaller
 0.01 
= 3  23(1000 − 300) + (10002 − 3002 )  than volume of H2O(g). Assume H2O(g) treated
 2  as an ideal gas]
= 61950J ≈ 62 kJ. [JEE Main 2021, 27 July Shift-I]
180. The difference between ∆H and ∆U (∆H – ∆U), Ans. (31) : ∆H – ∆U = ∆n RT
g
when the combustion of one mole of heptane (l)
is carried out at a temperature T, is equal to ∆n g = 1 – 0 = 1
(a) –4 RT (b) 3 RT ∆H – ∆U = 1 × 8.31 × 3.73
(c) 4 RT (d) –3 RT ∆H – ∆U = 30.99 × 102 J mol–1
[JEE Main 2019, to April Shift-II] ∆H – ∆U ≈ 31 × 102 J mol–1
Ans. (a) : C7H16(l) + 11HO2(g) → 7CO2(g) + 8H2O (l) = 31
Now,
184. The Born-Haber cycle for KCl is evaluated
∆ng = np – nr = 7 – 11 = – 4
with the following data :
Q ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT
∴ ∆H – ∆U = – 4RT ∆fHo for KCl = –436.7 kJ mol–1
181. At 298.2 K the relationship between enthalpy of ∆subHo for K = 89.2 kJ mol–1.
bond dissociation (in kJ mol–1) for hydrogen ∆ionisation Ho for K = 419.0 kJ mol–1
(EH) and its isotope, deuterium ED), is best ∆electron gain Ho for Cl(g) = –348.6 kJ mol–1, ∆bondHo
described by for Cl2 = 243.0 kJ mol–1
1
(a) E H = E D (b) E H = E D The magnitude of lattice enthalpy of KCI in kJ
2 mol–1 is ...........
(c) E H = E D − 7.5 (d) E H = 2E D (Nearest integer)
[JEE Main 2021, 25 July Shift-I] [JEE Main 2021, 26 Aug Shift-I]
Ans. (718) :
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
1
K + (g) + Cl − 2 (g)  → KCl(s); ∆H lattice
0
2 JEE Main-2019
1 Ans. (a) : At higher temperature the rotational degree of
∴∆ 0f = ∆H sublimation + ∆H dissociation + IE1 + EA + ∆H 0lattice
freedom become active
2
1 7
−436.7 kJ / mol = 89.2 kJ / mol + × (243kJ / mol) C P = R (Independent of P)
2 2
+419kJ / mol + (−348.6 kJ / mol) + ∆H 0lattice 5
C V = R (Independent of V)
∆H 0lattice = − 717.8kJ / mol 2
CV depends on T and independent of V.
∴ Magnitude of lattice enthalpy of KCl in kJ/mol is 718 C depends on T and independent of P.
P
(nearest).
188. The combination of plots which does not
185. Heat required to raise the temperature of 1 represent isothermal expansion of an ideal gas
mole of a substance by 1o is called is
(a) specific heat (b) molar heat capacity
(c) water equivalent (d) specific gravity
AIEEE-2002
Ans. (b) :Heat required to raise the temperature of 1 (a) (b)
mole of a substance by 1oC is called molar heat
capacity.
186. An ideal gas is allowed to expand both
reversibly and irreversibly in an isolated
system. If Ti is the initial temperature and Tf is
the final temperature, then which of the
following statements is correct? (c) (d)
(a) ( Tf )irrev > ( Tf )rev
(b) Tf > Ti for reversible process but tf = ti for
irreversible process
(c) (Tf)rev = (Tf)irrev (a) B and D (b) A and D
(c) B and C (d) A and C
(d) Tf = Ti for both reversible and irreversible
processes [JEE Main 2019, 12 Jan Shift-II]
AIEEE-2006 Ans. (a) :
Ans. (a) : According to law of thermodynamics, From graph B
∆E = ∆q + ∆W 1
Here, P ∝
Since, the system is isolated, therefore the change takes Vm
place adiabatically. Thus, For Isothermal expansion,
∆q = 0 PVm = K (Where K = Constant)
So, ∆E = ∆W So, if graph is parabolic in nature then it will represent
We know, ∆Wirreversible > ∆Wreversible Isothermal expansion of an ideal gas.
This implies ∆Eirreversible > ∆Ereversible From Graph D :
∆E = nR∆T here, U = Constant and it shows straight line.
As a result, ∆Tirrev > ∆Trev. So, option (b) and (d) does not represent isothermal
expansion of an ideal gas.
Thus, (Tf)irrev > (Tf)rev.
189. ∆U is equal to
187. For a diatomic ideal gas in a closed system,
which of the following plots does not correctly (a) isochoric work (b) isobaric work
describe the relation between various (c) adiabatic work (d) isothermal work
thermodynamic quantities? [JEE Main-2017]
Ans. (c) : ∆U = Q + ∆W
For adiabatic work, heat value is zero (Q = 0). So
change in energy is equal to the work.
∆U = 0 + ∆W (a) (b)
∆U = ∆Wadiabatic
Thus, ∆U is equal to adiabatic work.
190. 5 moles of an ideal gas at 100 K are allowed to
undergo reversible compression till its
temperature becomes 200 K. If Cv = 28 JK–1
mol–1, calculate ∆U and ∆PV for this process.
(R = 8.0 JK–1 mol–1) (c) (d)
(a) ∆U=2.8kJ; ∆(pV)=0.8kJ
(b) ∆U=14 J; ∆(pV) = 0.8 J
(c) ∆U=14 kJ; ∆(pV) = 4 kJ [JEE Main 2019, 9 Jan Shift-I]
(d) ∆U=14 kJ; ∆(pV) = 18 kJ Ans. (b) : For isothermal expansion–
[JEE Main 2019, 8 april Shift-II] V
Ans. (c) : Given that, w rev. = −nRT ln f
Vi
Number of moles of an ideal gas (n) = 5 mol
V
Temperature, T2 = 200 K | w rev. |= nRT ln f
T1 = 100 K Vi
Specific heat at constant pressure (C v ) = 28J / mol K |wrev.| = nRT ln Vf – nRT ln Vi
Comparing it with straight line equation, y = mx + c
∆U = nC v ∆T Therefore, slope of curve (a) is more than curve (d) and
= 5mol × 28J / mol K × (200 − 100)K intercept of curve (b) is more negative than curve (d).
Δ
= 14000J = 14k J 193. For water vap H = 41kJ mol -1 at 373 K and 1
C p = C v + R = (28 + 8)J / mol K bar pressure. Assuming that water vapour is an
ideal gas that occupies a much larger volume
= 36J / mol K than liquid water, the internal energy change
∆H = nC p ∆T = 5mol × 36J / mol K × 100K during evaporation of water is ................kJ
mol–1.
= 18000J = 18kJ [User R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1]
∆H = ∆U + ∆PV [JEE Main 2021, 26 Aug Shift-II]
∆PV = ∆H − ∆U = (18 − 14)kJ = 4kJ Ans. 38 : H 2 O (l ) H 2 O(g) ∆Hvap. = 41 kJ mol–1
For the reaction–
191. Among the following the set of parameters that
represents path function, is ∆H = ∆E + ∆ngRT
(A) q + W (B) q Given that,
∆H = 41 kJ mol–1
(C) W (D) H–TS
Gas constant (R) = 8.314 J/K mol
(a) (A) and (D) (b) (A), (B) and (C)
Temperature (T) = 373 K
(c) (B), (C) and (D) (d) (B) and (C)
∆E is internal energy charge
∆ng is change in gaseous mole = 1 – 0 = 1
Ans. (d) : A property whose value does not depend on Means ∆nq > 0
the path taken to reach that specific value is known to as 41 × 10–3 = ∆E + 1 × 8.3 × 373
state function or point functions. In contrast, those
∆E ≈ (41 – 3.0959) = 38 kJ mol–1
function which do depend on the path from two points
are known as path function. 194. A system does 200 J of work and at the same
time absorbs 150 J of heat. The magnitude of
Hence, we know that heat and work are not state the change in internal energy is ................J.
function but Q + W = ∆U (Definite quantity) is state (Nearest integer)
function. H – TS (i.e., G) is also a state function. In [JEE Main 2021, 25 July Shift-II]
essence, heat and work changes in every step of the
Ans. 50 : Given that–
process hence they are path function.
W = –200 J, Q = +150
192. Consider the reversible isothermal expansion According to first law of thermodynamics–
of an ideal gas in a closed system at two
different temp. T1 and T2 (T1 < T2). The correct ∆U = Q + W
graphical depiction of the dependence of work ∆U = 150 – 200 = – 50J
done (W) on the final volume (V) is Hence, internal energy –50 J

195. At 300 K and 1 atm, 15 mL of a gaseous Ans. (b) : During spontaneous discharge for
hydrocarbon requires 375 mL air containing electrochemical cell, Gibbs free energy will decreases.
20% O2 by volume for complete combustion.
After combustion, the gases occupy 330 mL. ∆Go = –nFEoCell (∆G < 0)
Assuming that the water formed is in liquid ∆G° < 0 → –ve decreases
form and the volumes were measured at the E ocell > 0 → +ve increases
same temperature and pressure, the formula of
the hydrocarbon is 198. The thermochemical property which always
(a) C3H8 (b) C4H8 takes up negative values is
(c) C4H10 (d) C3H6 (a) Enthalpy of formation
[JEE Main 2016] (b) Lattice enthalpy
Ans. (a) : Combustion of hydrocarbon CxHy is given as, (c) Enthalpy of atomisation
(d) Enthalpy of combustion.
C x H y (g) +  x +  O 2 (g) → xCO 2 (g) + H 2 O(l )
y y
J & K CET-(2016)
 4 2
Ans. (d) : Enthalpy of combustion is defined as the heat
15 mL hydrocarbon requires 15  x +  mL oxygen
y change (usually the heat evolved) when one mole of
 4 substance is completely burnt in oxygen with all the
Volume of O2 = 20% of 375 reactants and product in their standard state under
200 standard conditions (298 K and 1 bar pressure).
= × 375 Enthalpy of combustion is an exothermic reaction.
100
199. The enthalpy change accompanying a reaction
15  x +  = 75
y
∴ is called
 4 (a) reaction enthalpy
y (b) standard enthalpy
x+ =5 .....(i)
4 (c) thermochemical equation
Final volume = 330 mL (d) enthalpy of atomization.
Initial volume = 375 + 15 = 390 mL J & K CET-(2014)
H2O formed = 390 – 330 = 60 mL
Ans. (a) : Enthalpy of reaction is also known as the heat
y
⇒ 15 × = 60 of reaction. It is the change in the enthalpy of a
2 chemical reaction that occurs at a constant pressure. It is
y=8 thermodynamic unit of measurement useful of
Putting the value of y in equation (i), we get– calculating the amount of energy per mole either
x=3 released or produced in a reaction.
∴ Hydrocarbon will be C3H8. The heat change during a chemical reaction is called
196. A gaseous hydrocarbon gives upon combustion, enthalpy and the enthalpy change accompanying a
0.72 g of water and 3.08 g of CO2 The empirical
reaction is called enthalpy or enthalpy of reaction.
formula of the hydrocarbon is
200. Which one of the following options is correct
(a) C2H4 (b) C3H4
for the spontaneity of the reaction?
(c) C6H5 (d) C7H8
(a) ∆G = Positive (+ ve); ∆H = positive (+ ve)
[JEE Main 2013]
(b) ∆H = Positive (+ ve); ∆S = negative (– ve)
 B B (c) ∆G = negative (– ve); ∆S = negative (– ve)
Ans. (d) : C A H B +  A +  O 2 → ACO 2 + H 2 O
 4 2 (d) ∆G = negative (– ve); ∆S = positive (+ ve)
0.72 J & K CET-(2017)
Moles of H2O = = 0.04
18 Ans. (d) : ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
3.08 Where, ∆G = Gibbs free energy change
Moles of CO2 = = 0.07
44 ∆H = Enthalpy change
A 0.07 ∆S = Entropy change
∴ = ∆G < 0, it means ∆G is always negative in spontaneous
B 0.08
2 reaction and entropy change (∆S) is always positive in
A 7 spontaneous reaction.
⇒ = So, option (d) are correct.
B 8
So, A = 7, B = 8 201. Thermodynamic properties are divided into
Empirical formula is C7H8 two broad types: intensive properties and
197. During spontaneous discharge of an extensive properties. Which of the following is
electrochemical cell, Gibb's free energy will not an intensive property?
(a) increase (b) decrease (a) Pressure (b) Volume
(c) not change (d) be infinity (c) Temperature (d) Density
J & K CET-(2012) J & K CET-(2017)
Ans. (b) : Volume is extensive property because 206. For the process to occur under adiabatic
volume are dependent on mass. So, intensive property condition, the correct condition is
do not depends on the mass. (a) ∆Τ = 0 (b) ∆U = 0
Example–Intensive property examples density (c) ∆P = 0 (d) ∆q = 0
temperature pressure. J & K CET-(2015)
202. What condition will facilitate the spontaneity of Ans. (d) : A system is said to be under adiabatic
a reaction if H and S both are negative? condition if there is no exchange of heat between the
(a) Low temperature (b) High temperature system and its surroundings. It means (∆q = 0).
(c) Low pressure (d) High pressure Hence, under adiabatic condition, ∆q = 0
J & K CET-(2018) 207. In thermodynamics, a quantity whose value
simply depends upon the initial and final states
Ans. (a) : Given that– of the system is called
∆H = –ve and ∆S = –ve (a) a thermodynamic quantity
∆G = ∆H – T∆S (If phase change, then ∆G = 0) (b) a state function
For a spontaneous reaction we know that– (c) an adiabatic quantity
∆G = –ve (d) a path function
∆G = –ve ⇒ (T = –ve) J & K CET-(2013)
So, the reaction becomes spontaneous only when the Ans. (b) : State Function–The properties which
temperature is very less. depends only on initial and final state, not on path or
reaction intermediate are called state function.
203. Which of the following options is an intensive
e.g. Entropy, Gibb's free energy, etc.
property of a system?
(a) Mass (b) Volume 208. If ∆H and ∆S are positive for a reaction, the
(c) Potential energy (d) Temperature reaction will be spontaneous only when
J & K CET-(2019) (a) T∆S = ∆H (b) T∆S > ∆H
Ans. (d) : Temperature is an intensive property as it (c) T∆S < ∆H (d) T∆S is negative
does not depend upon the quantity of matter present in J & K CET-(2013)
the system. Ans. (b) : ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
Intensive → Independent of mass For spontaneous ∆G° < 0
204. PV value decreases with increases in P at It means ∆H – T∆S is also negative–
constant temperature when So, T∆S > ∆H
(a) There is no attractive or repulsive forces 209. Which one among the following pairs does not
between molecules represent example for intensive property?
(b) attractive and repulsive forces between (a) Temperature and density
molecules are equal (b) pressure and molar volume
(c) attractive forces between molecules are (c) Molar heat capacity and density
predominant (d) Heat capacity and enthalpy
(d) repulsive forces between molecules are J & K CET-(2011)
predominant. Ans. (d) : Pressure, temperature, density, specific heat
J & K CET-(2015) surface tension, molar volume etc are intensive
properties (independent of mass). Heat capacity and
Ans. (c) : It can be seen easily that at constant enthalpy are extensive properties since they depend
temperature, PV vs P plot for real gases is not a straight upon the quantity of matter in the system.
line. There is a significant deviation from ideal
210. We believe in the laws of thermodynamics
behaviour. Two types of curves are seen. In the curves
because they are
for hydrogen and Helium, as the pressure increases the
(a) Theoretical
value of PV also increases. The second type of plot is
(b) Derived based on mathematical analysis
seen in the case of other gas like carbon mono oxide
(c) Empirical and nobody disproved
and methane. In these plots, first there is a negative
(d) Mere statements
deviation from ideal behavior then, PV value decreases.
J & K CET-(2008)
205. Among the following pairs, which one has both
Ans. (d): Only the laws of thermodynamics are mere
variables as intensive variable? statements, so they are believed. Many mathematical
(a) T, V (b) m, P expression are divided on the basic of these laws.
(c) d, V (d) P, T 211. All naturally occurring process proceed
J & K CET-(2015) spontaneously in a direction, which leads to
Ans. (d) : The properties which do not depend upon the (a) increases of enthalpy
quantity or size of matter are called intensive properties (b) increase of free energy
e.g. pressure, temperature, density, concentration, (c) decrease of free energy
surface tension, viscosity etc. and extensive are (d) decrease of entropy
dependent on mass or quantity of matter. J & K CET-(2013, 2007)
Ans. (c): Conditions for spontaneity:- 215. A process in which the system does not
Enthalpy : ∆H = negative exchange heat with the surroundings is known
as
Entropy : ∆S = positive
(a) isothermal (b) isobaric
∆G = ∆H – T∆S
(c) isochoric (d) adiabatic
(–ve ) (-ve) (+ve)
JIPMER-2013
Therefore, all naturally occurring process proceed
J & K CET-(2005)
spontaneously in a direction, which leads to decrease of
free energy. Ans. (d) Adiabatic Process–When a thermodynamic
system undergoes a change in such a way that no
Δ
212. For a chemical reaction, the free energy change exchange of heat takes place between systems and
( G ) is negative. The reaction is surroundings, the process is known as an adiabatic
(a) a spontaneous reaction process. During the adiabatic process, there is no
(b) an equilibrium reaction exchange of heat that takes place between the system
(c) an equilibrium reaction and surroundings.
(d) characterised by rf = rb (where rf and rb are i.e. ∆Q = 0
Δ
rates of forward and backward and backward 216. In a reversible process, S sys + Surr is
reactions respectively)
J & K CET-(2006) (a) > 0 (b) < 0
Ans. (a) : ∆G is negative for spontaneous reaction (c) ≥ 0 (d) = 0
Gibbs free energy relates enthalpy, entropy & J & K CET-(2004)
temperature. Ans. (d): Entropy of the system and surrounding
A spontaneous reaction will always occur when remains constant in a reversible equilibrium process.
∆H is negative & ∆S is positive. i.e., ∆Stotal = ∆Ssystem + ∆Surrounding = 0
Δ
∆G = ∆H – T∆S. 217. For the reaction, N2+3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 ; H =?
When ∆H – T∆S is negative so ∆G is also negative.
Δ
(a) ∆E + 2RT (b) ∆E – 2RT

213. G for a spontaneous reaction is (c) ∆E + RT (d) ∆E – RT
(a) zero J & K CET-(2004)
(b) negative
Ans. (b) : N2 + 3H2  → 2NH3
(c) positive
(d) could be positive or negative ∆H = ∆E + ∆ngRT
J & K CET-(2005) ∆ng = 2 – (3 + 1) = – 2,
Ans. (b) : ∆G gives a criteria for spontaneous at ∆H = ∆E − 2RT
constant pressure and temperature. 218. For the process H2O(l) ⇌ H2O(g) at 1000C,
(i) If ∆G is negative (< 0), the process is spontaneous. 1 atm pressure,
Because, ∆G = ∆H – T∆S (a) ∆H = T∆S (b) ∆H = 0
Here, ∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0 (c) ∆H = ∆E (d) ∆E = 0
So, ∆G < 0
J & K CET-(2002)
(ii) If ∆G is positive (> 0), the process is non-
spontaneous. Ans. (a) : H2O (l) H2O (g)
(iii) If ∆G is zero then reaction is equilibrium. At this condition H2O(l) are converted in to H2O (g)
214. Which of the following is not an endothermic ∴state change, ∆G=∆H-T∆S
reaction? Phase state change,
(a) dehydrogenation ∴ ∆G = 0 (the process in equilibrium)
(b) ethane to ethene
0 = ∆H-T∆S
(c) combustion of propane
(d) change of chlorine molecule into chlorine ∆H = T∆S
atoms 219. A tightly closed dessicator in action is an
J & K CET-(2005) example of
Ans. (c) : Propane releases its chemical energy by (a) open system (b) isolated system
undergoing hydrocarbon combustion. Below is a (c) closed system (d) none of these
hydrocarbon combustion animation showing the net J & K CET-(2002)
reaction that occurs when propane combines with Ans. (c) : If a system can exchange only energy with
oxygen. the surrounding but not matter, it is called a closed
C3H 8 + 5O 2 → 3CO 2 + 4H 2O + Heat energy system.
Δ
The hydrogen combustion reaction releases heat energy 220. In the reaction milk → cheese, S is
and it is an example of an exothermic reaction. The (a) 0 (b) negative
reaction also has a negative enthalpy change (∆H) (c) positive (d) none of these
value. J & K CET-(2001)
Ans. (b): In this conversion of milk (liquid) is (c) C(s) + O2(g) = CO2(g)
converted into cheese (solid) entropy decreases. (d) N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)
Therefore, ∆S is negative J & K CET-(1998)
∆S = Sfinal – Sinitial Ans. (d) : In this reaction ∆n = 2 – 4 = –2
Thus, ∆S = –ve If ∆ng < 0
221. For the process : CO2(s) → CO2(g) Since ∆H = ∆E + ∆ng RT
(a) both ∆H and ∆S are +ve 226. Which of the following is not a state function?
(b) ∆H is –ve and ∆S is +ve (a) q (b) q + w
(c) ∆H is –ve and ∆S is –ve (c) E (d) P∆V
(d) Both ∆H and ∆S are –ve J & K CET-(1997)
J & K CET-(2000) Ans. (d) (i) q→ Heat contains by any body at constant
pressure is called enthalpy (H) and H are state
Ans. (a) : CO2(s) → CO2(g) function
The reaction involves conversion of CO2(s) to CO2(g)
i.e. randomness increases and hence entropy increases. (ii) q + w = U → state function
i.e. ∆S = +ve. Further heat is absorbed in this reaction (iii) E→ state function
thus, ∆H = +ve. (iv) PdV = W → It is a path function
222. The enthalpy of atomization of carbon and Δ 227. In an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas:
hydrogen are q1 and q2 respectively. If q3 is the (a) W= 0 (b) E = 0
bond energy of C – H bond, then H of the (c) q = 0 (d) V = 0
following reaction is JCECE - 2003
C(s) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g) Ans. (b): For isothermal process– T = Constant
(a) 4q 3 − q1 − 2q 2 (b) q1 + q2 – q3 or ∆T = 0
(c) q1 +2q 2 − 4q 3 (d) q1 + 4q 2 − 4q 3 Here, ∆E = 0
J & K CET-(1998) 228. Human body is an example of:
(a) open system (b) closed system
Ans. (d) : C(s) + 2H2(s) → CH4(s) ∆H = ?
(c) isolated system (d) none of these
C(s) → C(g); ∆H1 = q1 JCECE - 2004
H2(g) → 2H(g); ∆H2 = 2q2
Ans. (a) : Human body can exchange energy and matter
∆H = q1 + 4q2 – 4q3 with surrounding. This is an example of open system.
Δ
223. In which of the following reactions 229. For a reaction to be spontaneous at all
would E be equal to H ? temperatures
(a) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) (a) ∆G and ∆H should be negative
(b) H2(g) + 1/2O2 ⇌ H2O(l) (b) ∆G and ∆H should be positive
(c) H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g) (c) ∆G = ∆S = 0
(d) NO(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) (d) ∆H < ∆G
J & K CET-(1999) JCECE - 2009
Ans. (c): H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g) Ans. (a) : For a reaction to be spontaneous ∆G should
∆ng = (1+1) – 2 = 0 be negative
∆H = ∆E + ∆ng RT ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
∆H = ∆E For a reaction to be spontaneous at all temperature ∆G
224. Which one of the following is a non- and ∆H should be negative.
spontaneous reaction? 230. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) dissolution of a salt in water (a) –∆G = ∆H – T∆S (b) ∆H = ∆G – T∆S
(b) expansion of a gas into vacuum 1 1
(c) melting of ice (c) ∆S = [∆G − ∆H] (d) ∆S = [∆H − ∆G]
(d) passage of a gas from a lower pressure to a T T
higher pressure JCECE - 2010
J & K CET-(1999) Ans. (d) : We know that,
Ans. (d): A physical or chemical process which don’t Gibbs free energy is, ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
occurs its own are called non- spontaneous process. T∆S = ∆H – ∆G
Flow of heat from higher to lower (spontaneous). 1
∆S = [∆H – ∆G)
∴ Passage of a gas from a lower pressure to a higher T
pressure (Non-spontaneous)
Δ
231. Which of the following conditions will always

Δ
225. For which of the following reactions H is not lead to a non-spontaneous change?
equal to E ? (a) +ve ∆H and +ve ∆S (b) –ve ∆H and –ve ∆S
(a) H2(g) + I2(g) = 2HI(g) (c) +ve ∆H and –ve ∆S (d) –ve ∆H and +ve ∆S
(b) HCl(aq) = NaOH(aq) = NaCl(aq) + H2O JCECE - 2011, J & K CET-(1997)
Ans. (c) : For a process to be spontaneous, ∆G will be and 66.00 JK–1 mol–1 respectively. The
negative. temperature at which the free energy change
We know that, for the reaction will be zero, is
∆G = ∆H – T∆S (a) 3528 K (b) 463 K
If ∆H = + ve and ∆S = – ve, ∆G will be positive at all (c) 73 K (d) 144 K
temperatures. Thus, the process is non-spontaneous. JIPMER-2015
232. Which of the following pairs of a chemical Ans. (b) : From the Gibb’s – Helmholtz equation
reaction is certain to result in a spontaneous ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
reaction? At equilibrium, ∆G = 0
(a) Exothermic and decreasing disorder Hence, ∆H – T∆S = 0 or ∆H = T∆S
(b) Endothermic and increasing disorder ∆H
(c) Exothermic and increasing disorder T=
∆S
(d) Endothermic and decreasing disorder Given that, ∆H = 30.560 kJ mol–1
JCECE - 2012, CG PET -2007 =30560J mol–1
JIPMER-2007, NEET-2005 30560
T= = 463K
Ans. (c) : For a spontaneous reaction, ∆G = –ve. 66.0
From Gibb's-Helmholtz equation– 236. If for a given substance, melting point is TB and
∆G = ∆H – T∆S freezing point is TA then correct variation of
∆G = –ve, when ∆H = –ve and ∆S = +ve entropy by graph between entropy change and
For ∆H = –ve, reaction should be exothermic and ∆S = temperature is
+ve for increase in disorder.
233. The value of compression factor, Z for critical
constants is (a) (b)
1 3
(a) (b)
2 4
2 3
(c) (d)
3 8
JCECE - 2014
a
Ans. (d) : We know, Pc = , Vc = 3b (c) (d)
27b2
8a
And, Tc =
27Rb
Pc Vc a × 3b × 27Rb 3 JIPMER-2015
= = R
Tc 27b2 × 8a 8 Ans. (b) : For a pure substance TA and TB represent the
same temperature.
Pc Vc 3
=
RTc 8
PV Pc Vc 3
Compression factor, Z = = =
RT RTc 8
234. The enthalpy change for a reaction does not
depend upon the 237. 0.40 g of helium in a bulb at a temperature of T
(a) physical state of reactants and products K had a pressure of p atm. When the bulb was
(b) use of different reactants for the same product immersed in water bath at temperature 50 K
(c) nature of intermediate reaction steps more than the first one, 0.08 g of gas had to be
(d) difference in initial or final temperature of removed to restore the original pressure.
involved substances T is.
JCECE - 2015 (a) 500 K (b) 400 K
AIEEE-2003 (c) 600 K (d) 200 K
Ans. (c) : Enthalpy change (∆H) is a state function so, it JIPMER-2015
does not depend on the path taken by the reaction, it Ans. (d) : Since P and V is constant
depend only on the difference of final and initial values niTi = nfTf
of enthalpy change. 0.4 (0.4 − 0.08)
× (T) = × (T + 50)
235. H and S for the reaction, 4 4
1 5T = 4(T + 50)
Ag 2O(s) → 2Ag(s) + O 2 (g),are 30.56kJ mol –1
2 T = 200 K

238. If the Eocell for a given reaction has a negative 242. The change in entropy for the fusion of 1 mole
of ice is [melting point of ice = 273 K, molar
value then which of the following gives the enthalpy of fusion for ice = 6.0 kJ mol–1]
correct relationships for the values of ∆G0 and (a) 11.73 JK–1 mol–1 (b) 18.84 JK–1 mol–1
Keq ? –1
(c) 21.97 JK mol –1
(d) 24.47 JK–1 mol–1
(a) ∆G0<0,Keq >1 (b) ∆G0<0,Keq<1 JIPMER-2008
(c) ∆G >0,Keq<1
0
(d) ∆G0>0,Keq>1 Ans. (c) : Entropy change of fusion
JIPMER-2014 ∆H f
∆Sf =
Ans. (c) : ∆G° = work done by cell T
E°cell <0 ∆Hf = 6×103 J, mol-1 T=273K
∆G°=-n×F×E°cell 6 × 103
∆G° > 0 ∆Sf =
273
∆G° = – RT lnKeq =21.97 JK-1 mol-1
lnKeq < 0 243. A reaction occurs spontaneously if
K eq < 1 (a) T∆S < ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are + ve
(b) T∆S > ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are + ve
239. If a gas expands at constant temperature (c) T∆S = ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are + ve
indicates that (d) T∆S > ∆H and ∆H is + ve and ∆S is – ve
(a) Kinetic energy of molecules decreases
JIPMER-2007
(b) Pressure of the gas increases NEET-2005
(c) Kinetic energy of molecules remains as same
Ans. (b) : Gibb's energy equation is,
(d) number of the molecules of gas increase ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
JIPMER-2014 ∆G = –ve for spontaneous reaction
Ans. (c) : Kinetic energy of gas molecules is a function Where, ∆S = + ve, ∆H = + ve,
of temperature only gas expands at constant temperature and T∆S > ∆H
kinetic energy of molecules remain the same.
244. The entropy values (in JK–1 mol –1 ) of
240. Which of the following statement is correct?
H2(g) = 130. 6, Cl2(g) = 223.0 and HCl(g) =
(a) Ecell and ∆rG of cell reaction both are 186.7 at 298 K and 1 atm pressure. The entropy
extensive properties change for the reaction:
(b) Ecell and ∆rG of cell reaction both are H2(g)+Cl2(g)  → 2HCl(g) is:
intensive properties (a) + 540.3 (b) +727.3
(c) Ecell is the intensive property while ∆rG of cell (c) –166.9 (d) +19.8
reaction is an extensive property JIPMER-2006
(d) Ecell is an extensive property while ∆rG of cell
Ans. (d) : ∆S° = 2S°HCl – (S°H2 +S°Cl2 )
reaction is an intensive property
JIPMER-2013 = 2×186.7 – (130.6 0+223.0)
Ans. (c) : Extensive properties are the properties which =19.8JK-1 mol-1
depend upon the quantity of the matter contained in the 245. In an isothermal process
system, e.g., mass, volume, Gibb's free energy, etc. (a) ∆H=∆E + P∆V (b) ∆H = W
Intensive properties are the properties which depend (c) ∆H =∆E (d) ∆H = S∆T
only upon the nature of the substance and are JIPMER-2005
independent of the amount of the substance present in Ans. (b) : An isothermal process
the system, e.g., heat, boiling point, emf of a cell, etc. T = constant or ∆T = 0
241. For the reaction, According to Ist law of thermodynamics –
H 2 O(l ) H 2 O(g) T∆S = ∆H – W
∆Q = ∆H – W
at 373 K and 1 atm pressure
We know that, ∆Q = nCp∆T
(a) ∆H=0 (b) ∆E=0
∆Q = 0
(c) ∆H=T∆S (d) ∆H=∆E
JIPMER-2011 So, ∆H = W
Ans. (c) : As in the given reaction, liquid water is in 246. The internal energy of a substance
equilibrium with water vapor at 373K and 1 atm (a) Decrease with increase in temperature
pressure (b) Increase with increase in temperature
So, ∆G=0 (c) Remains unaffected with change in
temperature
∆G = ∆H – T∆S
(d) Calculated by E = mc2
∆H = T∆S JIPMER-2005
Ans. (b) : The internal energy of a substance always (c) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2 NH3(g)
increases with increase in temperature, because internal (d) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
energy is a function of temperature only. Karnataka-CET-2019
247. The enthalpies of all elements in their standard Ans. (b) : As ∆H = ∆U + ∆ng RT
states are For the reaction CaCO3(s)→ CaO(s)+CO2(g)
(a) Zero (b) > 0 ∆ng =1
(c) < 0 (d) unity
∴ ∆H > ∆U
JIPMER-2004
251. Plot of Maxwell's distribution of velocities is
Ans. (a) : The enthalpies of formation is the heat given below.
released or consumed during the formation of a
compound from its substituent elements in standard
state.
Example–
248. Conversion of oxygen into ozone is non- Which of the following is correct about this plot?
spontaneous at (a) T1 < T2 (b) f1 > f2
(a) Low temperature (b) all temperature (c) T1 > T2 (d) V1 < V2
(c) High temperature (d) room temperature Karnataka-CET-2015
JIPMER-2018
Karnataka-CET-2014 Ans. (c) : v = 3RT
Ans. (b) : 3O 2 (g) 2O3 (g); ∆H = + ve; M
1
∆S = -ve V ∝ T, V ∝
Equation, ∆G = ∆H -T∆S = + ve –(-ve) M
∆G = +ve: V ↑ , T ↑, V ↑ no.of moleculer ↓
Non – spontaneous at all temperature In increasing temperature, the molecule
So, conversion of oxygen into ozone is non-spontaneous velocity increasing but fraction of molecules processing
process. that velocity decreeing.
249. A hypothetical reaction A  → 2B proceeds since, V1 > V2 ,
through the following sequence of steps T1 > T2
I. A  → C; ∆rH = q1 252. For an ideal binary liquid mixture
II. C  → D; ∆rH = q2 (a) ∆S(mix ) = 0; ∆G (mix ) = 0
1 (b) ∆H (mix ) = 0; ∆S(mix ) < 0
III. D  → B; ∆rH = q3
2 (c) ∆V(mix ) = 0; ∆G ( mix ) > 0
The heat of hypothetical reaction is
(a) q1 + q2 – 2q3 (b) q1 + q2 + 2q3 (d) ∆S(mix ) > 0; ∆G (mix ) < 0
(c) q1 + 2q2 – 2q3 (d) q1 – q2 + 2q3 Karnataka-CET-2014
JIPMER-2016 Ans. (d): Entropy of universe always increases
Ans. (b) : Given, therefore, for an ideal binary liquid solution.
A → C, ∆H = q1 .....(i) ∆H = 0 & ∆V = 0 from,
C → D, ∆H = q2 .....(ii) ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
1 ∆G = –ve Hence, ∆G < 0 and ∆S > 0
D → B, ∆H = q3 .....(iii) 253. The value of entropy of solar system is
2
From equation (iii)– (a) increasing (b) decreasing
D → 2B, ∆H = 2q3 (c) constant (d) zero
According to Hess's law, the total heat changes Karnataka-CET-2013
occurring during a chemical reaction are independent of Ans. (a) : All naturally occurring processes are
path. spontaneous and are accompanied by a net increase of
So, adding equation (i) + (ii) + (iii) entropy.
∆H = q1 + q2 + 2q3 254. The process is spontaneous at the given
250. The reaction in which ∆H > ∆U is temperature, if
(a) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g) (a) ∆H is +ve and ∆S is –ve
(b) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g) (b) ∆H is –ve and ∆S is +ve

(c) ∆H is +ve and ∆S is +ve 258. For the reversible reaction, A (s) + B (g) ↽ ⇀
(d) ∆H is +ve and ∆S is equal to zero C (g) + D (g), ∆Go = – 350 kJ, which one of the
Manipal-2017 following statements is true?
NEET-I 2016, 2014 (a) The reaction is thermodynamically non-
Karnataka-CET-2013 feasible
(b) The entropy change is negative
Ans. (b) : ∆G = ∆H – T∆S ( Gibbs energy equation) (c) Equilibrium constant is greater than one
A reaction is spontaneous when, ∆G = –ve, ∆H = –ve, (d) The reaction should be instantaneous
∆S = +ve and T∆S = +ve Karnataka-CET-2011
255. Which of the following gases has the highest
value of RMS velocity at 298 K? Ans. (c): A(s) + B(g) ↽ ⇀ C (g) + D(g), ∆Go = –350 kJ
(a) CH4 (b) CO Relationship between ∆Go and equilibrium constant is
(c) Cl2 (d) CO2 ∆Go = –RT lnKc
Karnataka-CET-2013 Since, ∆Go = – 350kJ
lnKc > 0, Kc > 1
3RT
Ans. (a) : RMS-velocity of a gas vrms = 259. 5 moles of SO2 and 5 moles of O2 are allowed to
M react. At equilibrium, it was found that 60% of
Here, higher the molecular weight of a gas, lower will SO2 is used up. If the partial pressure of the
be its vrms. equilibrium mixture is one atmosphere, the
1 partial pressure of O2 is
v rms ∝ (a) 0.82 atm (b) 0.52 atm
M (c) 0.21 atm (d) 0.41 atm
∴ CH4(mol. weight = 16) has highest vrms. Karnataka-CET, 2009
256. 2 moles of N2O4(g) is kept in a closed container Ans. (d) : 2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) ↽ ⇀ 2SO3 (g)
at 298 K and under 1 atm pressure. It is heated
to 596 K when 20% by mass of N2O4(g) Initially 5 5 0
decomposes to NO2. The resulting pressure is At equilibrium (5 – 3) (5 – 1.5) 3
(a) 1.2 atm (b) 4.8 atm =2 = 3.5
(c) 2.8 atm (d) 2.4 atm 3.5 × 1
∴ PO2 = = 0.41atm
Karnataka-CET-2012 8.5
Ans. (d): Given, 260. For the reaction H 2O(l ) ↽ ⇀ H 2O(g) at 373 K
Initialy, and 1 atm pressure
n = 2, T = 298K, P = 1atm (a) ∆H = 0 (b) ∆E = 0
nRT 2 × 0.084 × 298 (c) ∆ H = T ∆ S (d) ∆H = ∆E
V= = = 48.9L
P 1 Karnataka-CET, 2009
Finally T = 596K, P = ?, V = 48.9L
Ans. (c) : ∆G = ∆H – T. ∆S
N2O4(g) 2NO2(g) For the reaction,
T = 298 K 2 0
H 2 O(l ) ↽ ⇀ H 2 O(g)
20
T = 596 K 2 − ×2 0.8 ∆G = 0 (at equilibrium)
100
= 1.6 moles ∴ ∆H = T. ∆S
Total moles = 1.6 + 0.8 = 2.4 moles 261. For the reaction,
nRT 2.4 × 0.084 × 596 A(g) + B(g) C(g) + D(g);∆H = QkJ
P = = = 2.4 atm
V 48.9 The equilibrium constant cannot be disturbed
257. Which of the following statements is true? by
(a) The total entropy of the universe is (a) addition of A
continuously decreasing (b) addition of D
(b) The total energy of the universe is (c) increasing of pressure
continuously decreasing (d) increasing of temperature
(c) The total energy of the universe remains Karnataka-CET-2021
constant Ans.(c): For the given hypothetical reaction, ∆n = 0,
(d) The total entropy of the universe remains because no. of molecules of gaseous molecule on both
constant side are equal. Thus, the equilibrium constant can not be
Karnataka-CET-2012 disturbed by increasing of pressure.
Ans. (c) : According to the first law of 262. Considering the reaction C(s) + O2(g)
thermodynamics, the total energy of the universe  → CO 2 (g ) + 393.5 kJ , the signs of ∆H, ∆S
remains constant. and ∆G respectively are
(a) +, –, – (b) –, +, + Differentiating both side, we get
(c) –, –, – (d) –, +, – dH = dE + pdV + Vdp
Karnataka-CET-2007 dH = TdS – pdV + pdV + Vdp
Ans. (a) : ∆H = + ve (combustion reaction) dH = TdS + Vdp
∆S = – ve (spontaneous at all temperature) 268. The lattice enthalpy and hydration enthalpy of
∆G = – ve (because reaction is spontaneous) four compounds are given below
263. The relation between ∆H and ∆U is Lattice Hydration
Compound enthalpy enthalpy
(a) ∆H = ∆U + RT (b) ∆H = ∆U – ∆nRT
(in kJ mol–1) (in kJ mol–1)
(c) ∆H = ∆U + ∆nRT (d) ∆U = ∆H + ∆nRT
Karnataka-CET-2007 P +780 – 920
Ans. (c) : The relationship between ∆H and ∆U is Q + 1012 – 812
∆H = ∆U + ∆nRT R + 828 – 878
264. Entropy of the universe is S + 632 – 600
(a) constant The pair of compounds which is soluble in
(b) zero water is
(c) continuously decreasing (a) P and Q (b) Q and R
(d) continuously increasing (c) R and S (d) Q and S
Karnataka-CET-2007 (e) P and R
Ans. (d) : According to second law of thermodynamics, Kerala-CEE-2008
the entropy of the universe always increases in the Ans. (e): NH 3 (g) + HCl(g)  → NH 4 Cl(g)
course of every spontaneous (natural) change. ∆ng = –1, ∆H = ∆U + ∆ng RT
265. Which of the following is an intensive ∆ng is – ve, ∆H < ∆U
property? A compound is soluble in water when its hydration
(a) temperature (b) viscosity enthalpy is greater than its lattice enthalpy.
(c) surface tension (d) all of these 269. Which of the following is true in respect of
Karnataka-CET-2007 adsorption?
Ans. (d) : The properties of the system whose value is (a) ∆G < 0; ∆S > 0; ∆H < 0
independent of the amount of substance present in the (b) ∆G < 0; ∆S < 0; ∆H < 0
system are called intensive properties, e.g. viscosity,
surface tension, temperature, pressure etc. (c) ∆G > 0; ∆S > 0; ∆H < 0
(d) ∆G < 0; ∆S < 0; ∆H > 0
266. 56 g of nitrogen and 96 g of oxygen are mixed
isothermally and at a total pressure of 10 atm. (e) ∆G > 0; ∆S > 0; ∆H > 0
The partial pressures of oxygen and nitrogen Kerala-CEE-2006
(in atm) are respectively Ans. (b) : For adsorption process,
(a) 4, 6 (b) 5, 5 ∆G < 0, ∆H < 0 & ∆S < 0
(c) 2, 8 (d) 8, 2 Note-Adsorption of gases on the solid surface is
(e) 6, 4 generally exothermic because entropy decreases.
Adhering of gas molecules to the surface lower
Kerala-CEE-2010
Ans. (e) : Partial pressure of component = Mole randomness.
fraction × Total pressure 1
Given, mass of N2 = 56g, mass of O2 = 96g 270. For the reaction CO(g) + O 2 (g)  →
2
Total pressure = 10 atm CO 2 (g),∆H and ∆S are –283 kJ and –87 JK−1,
56 96 respectively. It was intended to carry out this
n N2 = = 2, n O2 = =3
28 32 reaction at 1000, 1500, 3000 and 3500 K. At
2 3 which of these temperatures would this
x N2 = = 0.4, x O2 = = 0.6 reaction be thermodynamically spontaneous?
2+3 2+3
(a) 1500 and 3500 K
PN2 = 0.4×10 = 4 atm
(b) 3000 and 3500 K
PO2 = 0.6×10 = 6 atm (c) 1000, 1500 and 3000 K
(d) 1500, 3000 and 3500 K
267. Given that dE= Tds – pdV and H = E + pV.
(e) At all these temperatures
Which one of the following relations is true?
(a) dH = TdS + Vdp (b) dH = SdT + Vdp Kerala-CEE-2006
(c) dH = – SdT+Vdp (d) dH = dE + pdV Ans. (c) : Given, ∆H = –283 kJ, ∆S = –87 JK–1
(e) dH = dE – TdS By using the equation,
Kerala-CEE-2009 ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
Ans. (a) : We know that, At 1000K, ∆G = –283 – (1000 × –0.087)
H = E + pV = –196 kJ (spontaneous)

At 1500 K, ∆G = –283 – (1500 × –0.087) 274. A certain reaction has ∆H of 12 kJ and a ∆S of
= –152.5 kJ (spontaneous) 40 JK-1. The temperature above which the
At 3000 K, ∆G = –283 – (3000 × –0.0987) reaction becomes spontaneous is
= –22 kJ (spontaneous) (a) 27 oC (b) 27 K
At 3500 K, ∆G = –283 – (3500 × –0.087) (c) 300 oC (d) 30 oC
= +21.5 kJ (Non-spontaneous) (e) 30 K
271. ∆H and ∆S for a reaction are +30.558 kJ mol–1 Kerala-CEE-2013
and 0.066 kJ mol–1 at 1 atm pressure. The Ans. (a) : ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
temperature at which free energy change is For the reaction to be spontaneous,
equal to zero and the nature of the reaction ∆G < 0
below this temperature are:
∆H – T∆S < 0
(a) 483 K, spontaneous
(b) 443 K, non-spontaneous ∆H
T<
(c) 443 K, spontaneous ∆S
(d) 463 K, non-spontaneous ∆H 12 × 103
(e) 463 K, spontaneous Now, T = = = 300K
∆S 40
Kerala-CEE-2005 = 300 – 273 = 27°C
Ans. (d) : ∆G = ∆H – T∆S Above 27°C, the reaction becomes spontaneous.
Where, ∆H = +30.558 kJ mol–1 275. The enthalpy change for a reaction at
∆G = 0 equilibrium is -20.5kJ mol-1. Then the entropy
∆S = 0.066 kJ mol–1 change for this equilibrium at 410 K is
0=∆H – T∆S (a) + 50 JK-1 mol-1 (b) + 55 JK-1 mol-1
∆H = T∆S -1
(c) + 75 JK mol -1
(d) – 50 JK-1 mol-1
30.558 = T × 0.066 -1 -1
(e) – 55 JK mol
30.558 Kerala-CEE-2015
T=
0.066 ∆H
T = 463K Ans. (d) : At equilibrium, ∆S =
T
272. The enthalpy of a monoatomic gas at T Kelvin ∆H = –20.5 kJ/mol
is:
∆H = –20500 J/mol
7 3
(a) RT (b) RT T = 410K
2 2
−20500
1 1 ∆S = = −50JK −1mol −1
(c) RT (d) mv2 410
2 2
276. Critical density of a gas having molecular
5
(e) RT weight 39 g mol-1 is 0.1×103 g cm-3. Its critical
2 volume in L mol-1 is
Kerala-CEE-2004 (a) 0.390 (b) 3.90
3 (c) 0.039 (d) 39.0
Ans. (e) For Mono atomic gas, E = RT
2 (e) 390
H = E + PV = E + RT Kerala-CEE-2016
3 5 Ans. (a) : The density of a substance at its
H = RT + RT = RT thermodynamic critical point is called critical density.
2 2
273. Choose the reaction in which ∆H is not equal to Critical density = 0.1 × 103 g cm-3 =100gL-1
∆U. Critical mass = Molecular weight = 39 g
(a) C (graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g) Molecular weight
Critical volume =
(b) C2H4(g) + H2(g) → C2H6(g) Critical density
(c) 2C(graphite) + H2(g) → C2H2(g) 39
= = 0.390 Lmol −1
(d) H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g) 100
(e) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g) 277. Thermal decomposition of ammonium
Kerala-CEE-2012 dichromate gives
Ans. (b) : ∆H= ∆U+∆ng RT (a) N2, H2O and Cr2O3
If, ∆ng = 0 then, ∆H = ∆U (b) N2, NH3 and CrO
By option– (c) (NH4)2 CrO4 and H2O
For (a): ∆ng = 0; (b) ∆ng = 1 – 2 = –1 (d) N2, H2O and CrO3
(c) ∆ng = 0 (d) ∆ng = 2 – 2 = 0 (e) N2, H2O and CrO
(e) ∆ng = 2 – 2 = 0 Kerala-CEE-2016
Ans. (a) : Ammonium dichromate is a flammable Ans. (c) : For ideal behavior, the gaseous molecules
inorganic compound with the chemical formula should be far apart this is possible by high temperature
(NH4)2Cr2O7. and low pressure.
Thermal decomposition of ammonium dichromate 281. In which one of the following reactions, entropy
(NH4)2 Cr2O7 on heating gives N2, Cr2O3 and H2O as decreases?
follows– (a) Sodium chloride is dissolved in water
∆
(NH 4 )Cr2 O7  → N 2 + Cr2 O3 + 4H 2 O (b) Water is heated from 303K to 353K
(NH4)2Cr2O7 has been used as a source of pure nitrogen (c) Sodium bicarbonate is decomposed to
in the laboratory and also as a catalyst in Na2CO3(s), CO2(g) and H2O(g)
pyrotechniques. (d) Water crystallizes into ice
278. The correct descending order of the heat (e) Dihydrogen molecule is decomposed into
liberated (in kJ) during the neutralisation of hydrogen atoms
the acids CH3COOH (W), HF(X), HCOOH (Y) Kerala-CEE-2020
and HCN (Z) under indentical conditions (Ka of Ans. (d) : Entropy simply defines that it is nothing but
CH3COOH = 1.8 × 10-5, HCOOH = 1.8×10–4, disorderness or randomness of the system. Here, water
HCN = 4.9 × 10-10 and HF = 3.2 × 10-4) is crystallizes into ice. In this case phase converts into
(a) Y > X > Z > W (b) X > Y > W > Z liquid to solid. So, entropy decreases.
(c) W > X > Y > Z (d) Z > W > Y > X 282. In which of the following ∆E = ∆H?
(e) Z >Y > X > W
(a) N 2 O 4 (g) 2NO 2 (g)
Kerala-CEE-2016
Ans. (b) : Ka for CH3COOH = 1.8 × 10–5 (W) (b) 2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2SO3 (g)
Ka for HCOOH = 1.8 × 10–4 (Y) (c) H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) 2HI(g)
Ka for HCN = 4.9 × 10–10 (Z)
1
Ka for HF = 3.2 × 10–4 (X) (d) H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) H 2 O(l)
Now, Ka ∝ Strength of acid or, Ka ∝ Heat liberated 2
during neutralisation. Manipal-2020
Thus, order of heat liberated during neutralisation is– Ans. (c) : H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) 
→ 2HI(g)
HF > HCOOH > CH3COOH > HCN ∆ng = Gaseous moles of product – Gaseous moles of
i.e. X > Y > W > Z. reactants
279. For the process A(l) (0.05 atm, 32°C) → A (g) ∆ng =2 – 2 = 0
(0.05 atm, 32°C). ∆ng = 0 ∆H = ∆E
The correct set of thermodynamic parameters ∆ng > 0 ∆H > ∆E
is
∆ng < 0 ∆H < ∆E
(a) ∆G = 0 and ∆S = – ve
283. The Electrophile involved in the Sulphonation
(b) ∆G = 0 and ∆S = + ve of benzene is :
(c) ∆G = + ve and ∆S = 0 (a) SO3+ (b) SO32–
(d) ∆G = – ve and ∆S = 0 (c) H 3+ O (d) SO3
(e) ∆G = 0 and ∆S = 0 Manipal-2019
Kerala-CEE-2017 Ans. (d) : Sulphonation of benzene involves the
Ans. (b) : A(l) (0.05 atm, 32°C) → A(g) (0.05 atm, formation of the electrophile SO3 in the first step which
32°C) subsequently attacks benzene ring and causes
Liquid A is changing into gaseous A, thus, randomness sulphonation.
is increasing i.e. entropy change (∆S) is positive. 2H 2SO 4 H 3O + + HSO −4 + SO3
PA( g ) 0.05 (eletrophile)
Kp = = =1 284. For a process to be spontaneous :
PA( l ) 0.05
(a) ∆G must be –ve (b) ∆G should be +ve
∆G = –RT lnKp = –RT ln(1) = 0 (c) ∆H must be –ve (d) ∆S must be –ve
Thus, the system is in equilibrium.
Manipal-2018
280. A gas will approach ideal behavior at
Ans. (a) : ∆G = ∆H – T∆S ( Gibbs energy equation)
(a) Low temperature and low pressure
(b) Low temperature and high pressure A reaction is spontaneous when, ∆G = –ve, ∆H = –ve,
∆S = +ve and T∆S = +ve
(c) High temperature and low pressure
(d) High temperature and high pressure • ∆G = –ve for spontaneous reaction.
(e) low volume and high pressure • ∆G = +ve for non-spontaneous reaction.
Kerala-CEE-2017 • ∆G = 0 for equilibrium reaction.

285. Cp/Cv for noble gases is : 289. Identify an extensive property amongst the
(a) 1.66 (b) 1.43 following.
(c) 1.80 (d) 1.33 (a) Viscosity (b) Heat capacity
Manipal-2017 (c) Density (d) Surface tension
MHT CET-2016
Ans. (a) : Inert gas exist as mono atomic molecules for
there Ans. (b) : Extensive property–Volume, Internal energy,
Entropy, Mass etc.
5
Cp = R Intensive property– Viscosity, Density, Temperature,
2 Pressure etc.
Cv = R
3 • Intensive property: Do not depend on amount of
2 matter.
Cp • Extensive property: Depend on amount of matter.
γ= 290. Mathematical equation of first law of
Cv
thermodynamics for isochoric process is
5 (a) ∆U = qv (b) –∆U = qv
R
γ= 2 (c) q = –W (d) ∆U = W
3 MHT CET-2016
R
2 Ans. (a) : The first law of thermodynamics says,
5 ∆U = q + w
γ= In an isochoric process the work done is zero.
3
γ =1.66 Since there is no change in Volume.
So, ∆U = qv + 0 ⇒ ∆U = qv
286. During the adsorption of krypton on activated
charcoal at low temperature: 291. The relation between solubility of a gas in
liquid at constant temperature and external
(a) ∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0 (b) ∆H > 0 and ∆S > 0 pressure is stated by which law?
(c) ∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0 (d) ∆H > 0 and ∆S < 0 (a) Raoult's law
Manipal-2016 (b) Van't Hoff- Boyle's law
Ans. (c) : During adsorption, there is always a decrease (c) Van't Hoff-Charles' law
in residual forces of the surface i.e. there is decreases in (d) Henry's law
surface energy which appears as heat adsorption. MHT CET-2016
Therefore, is invariably accompanied by evolution of Ans. (d) : Henry’s law states that at a constant
heat. temperature, the solubility of a gas is directly
So, during the adsorption of krypton on activated proportional to the pressure of the gas.
charcoal at low temperature. ∆H < 0, ∆S < 0. The partial pressure of the gas in vapor phase (P) is
287. A reaction is spontaneous at low temperature, proportional to the mole fraction of the gas (x) in the
but non-spontaneous at high temperature. solution.
Which of the following condition is true for the P = KH x
chemical reaction? KH is the Henry's law constant,
(a) ∆H > 0, ∆S = 0 (b) ∆H < 0, ∆S < 0 More the value of KH, lower is the solubility of gas.
(c) ∆H < 0, ∆S > 0 (d) ∆H > 0, ∆S > 0 292. The equation that represents general Van't
Hoff equation is
Manipal-2016
n
Ans. (b) : ∆G =∆H – T∆S (a) π = RT (b) π = nRT
V
When ∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0 then ∆G will be negative at
low temperatures (positive at high temperature) and the V
(c) π = RT (d) π = nVRT
reaction will be spontaneous. n
288. Identify the invalid equation MHT CET-2016
(a) ∆H = ∑ H products − ∑ H reactants Ans. (a) : Van't Hoff general equation is
n
(b) ∆H = ∆U + P∆V π = RT
V
(c) ∆H oreaction = ΣH oproduct bonds − ΣH oreactant bonds Where, π is pressure
(d) ∆H = ∆U + ∆nRT T is temperature
MHT CET-2017 R is gas constant
Ans. (c) : Option (c) is invalid equation. N is number of moles
V is Volume
The correct equation is–
n
∆H o(reaction ) = ΣH o(reactant bond) − ΣH (product
o
bond)
∴ π = RT
V
293. Which among the following is a feature of Ans. (c) : We know that,
adiabatic expansion? ∆H = ∆E + ∆ng RT
(a) ∆V < 0 (b) ∆U < 0 H2-H1 = E2 –E1+ (n2RT-n1RT)
(c) ∆U > 0 (d) ∆T = 0
298. Kirchhoff's equation is
MHT CET-2015
Ans. (d) : For adiabatic expansion, there is no change in k Ea  1 1 
(a) log 2 =  − 
heat which means no change in temperature also. k1 2.303R  T1 T2 
dq = 0, T = Constant
∴ dT = 0 ⇒ ∆T = 0 p2 ∆H V  T2 − T1 
(b) log =  
294. For which among the following reactions, p1 2.303R  T1 × T2 
change in entropy is less than zero? ∆H 2 − ∆H1
(a) Sublimation of iodine (c) ∆C p =
(b) Dissociation of hydrogen T2 − T1
(c) Formation of water k2 ∆H  1 1
(d) Thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate (d) log =  − 
k1 2.303R  T1 T2 
MHT CET-2015
Ans. (b) : For a non-spontaneous process, change in MHT CET-2009
entropy is less than zero. Here, dissociation of hydrogen Ans. (c) : Kirchhoff's equation–
is a non-spontaneous process. Hence it has entropy less
than zero. Therefore option (b) is correct. ∆H 2 −∆H1
= ∆C p
295. If average velocity of a sample of gas molecules T2 − T1
at 300 K is 5 cm s–1, what is RMS velocity of ∆C p = (ΣC p ) products − (ΣC p )reactants
same sample of gas molecules at the same
temperature? (Given, α:u:v = 1:1.224:1.127) 299. In ......... process, work is done at the expense of
(a) 6.112 cm/s (b) 4.605 cm/s internal energy.
(c) 4.085 cm/s (d) 5.430 cm/s (a) Isothermal (b) Isochoric
MHT CET-2014 (c) Adiabatic (d) Isobaric
Ans. (d) : Given, that α (most probable velocity) MHT CET-2009
u(RMS velocity) : v (average velocity) Ans. (c) : We know that,
= 1: 1.224:1.127 An adiabatic process is a type of thermodynamic
8RT 3RT process that occurs without transferring heat or mass
vaverage = , vrms = between the thermodynamic system and its
πM M
environment.
3π ∆E = Q +W
vrms = × vaverage
8 If heat supplied from the surrounding,
u 1.224 u 1.224 Q=0
= , =
v 1.127 5 1.127 ∆E =W
1.224 × 5 So, work is done at the expense of only internal
u= Energy Q = 0 for adiabatic process.
1.127
u = 5.430 cm/s 300. Hess's law is based on
296. According to Hess's law, the heat of reaction (a) Law of conservation of mass
depends upon (b) Law of conservation of energy
(a) initial condition of reactants (c) First law of thermodynamics
(b) initial and final conditions of reactants (d) None of the above
(c) intermediate path of the reaction MHT CET-2007
(d) end conditions of reactants Ans. (b) : Hess' law states that, if a reaction can take
MHT CET-2011 place by more than one route and the initial and final
Ans. (b) : According to Hess's law of constant heat conditions are the same. The total enthalpy change is
summation, the heat of a process does not depend on the the same.
path followed to obtain final state but it depends upon Hess’s law is based upon law of conservation of energy
the initial and final states of reactant. i.e. first law of thermodynamics.
297. Find the correct equation 301. Which of the following is a path function?
(a) E2–E1–H2+H1 = n2RT–n1RT (a) Internal energy (b) Enthalpy
(b) E2–E1–H2–H1 = n2RT–n1RT (c) Work (d) Entropy
(c) H2–H1– E2+E1 = n2RT–n1RT MHT CET-2007
(d) H2+H1– E2+E1 = n2RT–n1RT Ans. (c) : Internal energy, entropy and enthalpy are
MHT CET-2010 point functions but work and heat are path functions.
302. 2 moles of ideal gas at 27°C temperature is 306. The enthalpy of fusion of water is 1.435
expanded reversely from 2 lit. to 20 lit. Find kcal/mol. The molar entropy change for the
entropy change. (R = 2 cal/mol K) melting of ice at 0°C is
(a) 92.1 (b) 0 (a) 10.52 cal/(mol K) (b) 21.04 cal/(mol K)
(c) 4 (d) 9.2 (c) 5.260 cal/(mol K) (d) 0.526 cal/(mol K)
NEET-2002 NEET-2012
Ans. (d) : Given, n = 2, R = 2 cal/mol K
∆H
V1 = 2 lit., V2 = 20 lit. Ans. (c) : ∆S = (Q ∆G = ∆H – T∆S)
V2 T
As we know that, ∆S = 2.303n R log At phase change ∆G = 0
V1
The molar entropy change for the melting of ice
20 1.435
∆S = 2.303×2×2×log = 9.2 cal K–1 mol–1 ∆S = =5.26 cal/mol K
2 273
–1 –1
303. What is the entropy change (in J K mol ) 307. If the enthalpy change for the transition of
when one mole of ice is converted into water at liquid water to steam is 30 kJ mol–1 at 27°C, the
0°C? (The enthalpy change for the conversion
of ice to liquid water is 6.0 kJ mol–1 at 0°C.) entropy change for the process would be
(a) 20.13 (b) 2.013 (a) 10 J mol–1 K–1 (b) 1.0 J mol–1 K–1
–1 –1
(c) 2.198 (d) 21.98 (c) 0.1 J mol K (d) 100 J mol–1 K–1
NEET-2003 NEET-2011
∆H 6.0 Ans. (d) The transition under consideration is :
Ans. (d) : ∆S = = = 0.02198kJK −1mol −1 H2O ( l ) → H2O (g)
T 273
(Q T = 0°C = 0 + 273 K = 273 K) ∆H vapour
∆S = 0.02198×1000 JK-1mol-1 We know that, ∆Svapour =
T
∆S = 21.98JK-1mol-1 Given, ∆Hvapour = 30 kJ mol–1
304. The enthalpy and entropy change for the ∆Hvapour = 30×1000 J mol–1
reaction:
T = 27 + 273 = 300K
Br2(l) + Cl2(g) → 2 BrCl(g)
are 30 kJ mol–1 and 105 JK–1 mol–1 respectively. ∆H vapour 30 × 103
Thus, ∆Svapour = =
The temperature at which the reaction will be T 300
in equilibrium is
(a) 300 K (b) 285.7 K ∆Svapour = 100Jmol −1K −1
(c) 273 K (d) 450 K 308. Standard entropies of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60,
NEET-2006 40 and 50 J K–1 mol–1 respectively. For the
Ans. (b) : Br2(l) + Cl2(g) → 2 BrCl(g) reaction 1/2X2 + 3/2 Y2 XY3, ∆H= –30 kJ,
Given, ∆H = 30 × 103 J mol–1 to be at equilibrium, the temperature should be
∆S = 105 JK–1 mol–1, T = ? (a) 750 K (b) 1000 K
According to second law, (c) 1250 K (d) 500 K
∆H 30 × 103 NEET-2010
T= = = 285.7K
∆S 105 AIEEE-2008
305. For the gas phase reaction, 1 3
Ans. (a) : X 2 + Y2 → XY3 , ∆H = − 30 kJ = –30×103J
PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) 2 2
which of the following conditions are correct? ∆Sreaction = ∑ ∆Sproduct − ∑ ∆Sreactant
(a) ∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0 (b) ∆H > 0 and ∆S < 0
1 3 
(c) ∆H = 0 and ∆S < 0 (d) ∆H > 0 and ∆S > 0 ∆S = 50 −  × 60 + × 40
NEET-2008  2 2 
Ans. (d) : From enthalpy equation, = 50 – 90 = –40 JK–1
∆H = ∆E + ngRT ∆H −30×103
∆ng = Product mole – Reactant mole T= = = 750K
∆S −40
∆ng = 2 – 1 = 1 309. For a given reaction, ∆H = 35.5 kJ mol–1 and
Thus, the value of ∆H is +ve or > 0 ∆S = 83.6 J K–1 mol–1. The reaction is
∆G = ∆H – T∆S spontaneous at (Assume that ∆H and ∆S do not
For a spontaneous reaction, ∆G must be –ve. Since in vary with temperature)
this reaction ∆H is +ve. So for the negative value of ∆G, (a) T > 425 K (b) all temperature
∆S must be positive or > 0. (c) T > 298 K (d) T < 425 K
Hence, ∆H > 0, ∆S > 0
NEET-2017
Ans. (a) : ∆H = 35.5 kJ mol–1 = 35.5 × 103 J mol–1 Ans. (b) : According to Clausius Clapeyron equation–
−∆H
∆S = 83.6 JK–1 mol–1
P = Ae RT
According to Gibbs-Helmholtz equation, −∆H
∆G = ∆H – T∆S ∆H
ln P = ln A + ln e RT ⇒ ln p = ln A − lne
For a reaction to be spontaneous, RT
∆G < 0 ∆H
or ln p = ln A −
∴ ∆G = ∆H – T∆S < 0 RT
∆H 35.5×10 3 d −∆ H d
∆H < T∆S ⇒ T > = = 425K (ln P) = 0 + (T −1 )
∆S 83.6 dT R dT
d ∆H v
T > 425K (ln P) =
dT RT 2
310. For a sample of perfect gas when its pressure is
312. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas
changed isothermally from pi to pf, the entropy under isothermal condition, the correct option
change is given by is
 Pf   Pi  (a) ∆U ≠ 0, ∆Stotal = 0 (b) ∆U = 0, ∆Stotal = 0
(a) ∆S = nR ln   (b) ∆S = nR ln  
P
 i P
 f (c) ∆U ≠ 0, ∆Stotal ≠ 0 (d) ∆U = 0, ∆Stotal ≠ 0
P  P  NEET-2021
(c) ∆S = nRT ln  f  (d) ∆S = RT ln  i  Ans. (d) : For, isothermal
 Pi   Pf  We know,
NEET-II 2016 ∆U = nCv∆T
Ans. (b) : For measurable change between two states. Here, ∆U = 0, ∆T = 0
i.e initial (i) and final (f)
V
f dq ∆Stotal = nR ln 1 ⇒ ∆Stotal ≠ 0
⇒ ∆S = ∫ V2
i T
As the temperature is constant 313. For the reaction 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct
1 f option is
∴ ∆S =
T ∫i
dq rev (a) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS > 0 (b) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS < 0
As we know that (c) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS > 0 (d) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0
NEET-2020
 dV 
dqrev = -dwrev = nRT   Ans. (d) : 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g)
 V  • Bond formation is exothermic process
1 f  dV 
∴ ∆S = ∫ nRT  
∆r H < 0
T i  V  • 2 atoms gives one molecules,
nRT f  dV 
T ∫i  V 
⇒ ∆S =   – Randomness decreases, ∆rS < 0
314. Consider the following processes :
V
⇒ ∆S = nR ln f ∆H (kJ/mol)
Vi 1/2A → B +150
From Charle’s law, 3B → 2C + D +125
P f Vf = P i Vi E + A → 2D +350
Vf Pi For B + D → E + 2C, ∆H will be
=
Vi Pf (a) 525 kJ/mol (b) -175 kJ/mol
(c) -325 kJ/mol (d) 325 kJ/mol
 Pi  NEET-2011
∴ ∆S = nR ln  
P
 f Ans. (b) : 1/2A → B, ∆H = +150 kJ/mol .....(i)
311. Consider the following liquid vapour 3B → 2C + D, ∆H = +125 kJ/mol .....(ii)
equilibrium Liquid vapour E + A → 2D, ∆H = +350 kJ/mol .....(iii)
According to Hess's law.
Which of the following relations is correct? From, 2(i)-(iii)+(ii)
d lnP −∆H v d lnP ∆H v ∆H = 2(150) – 350 –125
(a) = (b) =
dT 2 T2 dT RT 2 = –175kJ/mol
d lnG ∆H v d lnP −∆H v 315. Three thermo chemical equations are given
(c) = (d) = below :
dT 2 RT 2 dT RT
NEET-I 2016 (i) C( graphite ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 (g); ∆ r H 0 = x kJ mol−1

1 (a) 138.1 cal (b) zero
(ii) C( graphite ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO ( g ) ; ∆ r H 0 = y kJ mol−1 (c) 163.7 cal (d) 9 L atm
2
1 NEET-1998
(iii) CO ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) ; ∆ r H 0 = z kJ mol−1
2 Ans. (b) : For isothermal process, ∆T = 0
Based on the above equations, find out which of ∆E = nCv∆T ⇒ ∆E = 0
the relationship given below is correct. Hence, change in internal energy is zero during
(a) z = x + y (b) x = y + z isothermal expansion of gas.
(c) y = 2z - x (d) x = y - z
319. For the reaction, N 2 + 3H 2 2NH 3 , ∆H = ?
Karnataka NEET-2013
Ans. (b) : (a) ∆E + 2RT (b) ∆E – 2RT
(c) ∆H = RT (d) ∆E – RT
C( graphite ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) ; ∆ r H 0 = x kJ mol −1 .....(i)
NEET-1991
1 Ans. (b) : N2 + 3H2→2NH3
C( graphite ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO ( g ) ; ∆ r H 0 = y kJ mol −1 .....(ii)
2 ∆ng = 2 – 4 = –2
1
CO ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) ; ∆ r H 0 = z kJ mol −1 .....(iii) ∆ng = Negative
2 ∆H = ∆E + ∆ngRT
From equation (i) – (ii), ∆H = ∆E − 2RT
1
O 2 → CO 2 − CO;(x − y) .....(iv) 320. For the reaction,
2
C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l)
1
CO + O 2 → CO 2 ;(z) at constant temperature, ∆H – ∆E is
2 (a) + RT (b) –3RT
From equation (iii),
(c) +3RT (d) –RT
z = x – y ⇒ x = y+z NEET-2003
316. For the reaction, Ans. (b) : C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l)
C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l) ∆ng = 3 – 6 = –3 Q ∆ng > 0
which one is true? ∆H = ∆E + ∆ngRT
(a) ∆H = ∆E + RT (b) ∆H = ∆E – RT ∆H = ∆E – 3RT
(c) ∆H = ∆E – 2RT (d) ∆H = ∆E – 2RT ∆H – ∆E = –3RT
NEET-2000 321. Assume each reaction is carried out in an open
Ans. (b) : ∆H = ∆E + P∆V container. For which reaction will ∆H = ∆E?
Also PV = nRT (ideal gas equation) (a) 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g)
or P∆V = ∆ngRT (b) H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2HBr(g)
∆ng = change in number of gaseous moles (c) C(s) + 2H2O(g) → 2H2(g) + CO2(g)
∴ ∆H = ∆E + ∆ngRT (d) PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
∆ng = 2 – 3 = –1 NEET-2004
∆H = ∆E − RT Ans. (b) : ∆H = P∆V + ∆U
317. In an endothermic reaction, the value of ∆H is But for a physical or chemical change.
(a) negative (b) positive ∆H = ∆U + ∆ng RT
(c) zero (d) constant Where ∆ng = No. of gaseous moles of product reactant
NEET-1999 So, for ∆H = ∆U or ∆H = ∆E
Ans. (b) : Endothermic Reaction– ∆ng has to 0
• In their reactions the value of ∆H is always positive In (b) option, ∆ng = 2 – 2 = 0. Therefore, ∆H = ∆E.
∆H > 0 322. Equal volumes of two monatomic gases, A and
• Is a reaction that absorb heat from the surrounding. B at same temperature and pressure are mixed.
• Temperature of the surrounding decrease. The ratio of specific heats (CP/CV) of the
mixture will be
• Energy level diagram.
(a) 0.83 (b) 1.50
(c) 3.3 (d) 1.67
NEET-2012
Ans. (d) : For monatomic gases
C p 5 / 2R
318. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded γ= = = 1.67
isothermally from an initial volume of 1 litre to C v 3/ 2R
10 litres. The ∆E for this process is γdiatomic = 1.40
(R = 2 cal mol–1 K–1) γtriatomic = 1.33
323. Which one among the following is the correct (a) 50.52 kJ (b) 60.66 kJ
option for right relationship between Cp and Cv (c) 0.14 kJ (d) 10 kJ
for one mole of ideal gas? Tripura JEE-2021
(a) Cv = RCP (b) Cp + Cv = R
(c) Cp – Cv = R (d) Cp = RCV Ans. (d) : Temperature in both the states can be
NEET-2021 obtained using the ideal gas relation temperature in the
PV 5 ×100
Ans. (c) : ∆U = q – W first state T1 = 1 1 , T1 = = 1218K
Where, q = nCp∆T & ∆U = nCv∆T nR 5 × 0.082
nCv∆T = nCp∆T – nR∆T PV
[QW = PdV = nR∆T] Temperature in the second state = T2 = 2 2
C v = Cp – R nR
R = Cp – C v 2 × 200
T2 = = 974.42K
Hence, Cp – Cv = R is correct option. 5 × 0.082
324. The correct option for free expansion of an ∆U = q – w = q – nR∆T
ideal gas under adiabatic condition is ∆U = 30.26 – 5×0.0821 × (1218 – 974.42)
(a) q = 0, ∆T = 0 and w = 0
∆U = 30.26-20.26 = 10 kJ.
(b) q = 0, ∆T < 0 and w > 0
328. The occurrence of reaction is impossible if
(c) q < 0, ∆T = 0 and w = 0
(d) q > 0, ∆T = 0 and w > 0 (a) ∆H is +ve, ∆S is also +ve
NEET-2020, 2011 (b) ∆H is –ve, ∆S is also –ve
Ans. (a) : For free expansion of ideal gas (c) ∆H is –ve, ∆S is +ve
q = 0, w = 0 (d) ∆H is +ve, ∆S is –ve
∆E = q + w UP CPMT-2011
∆E = 0 J & K CET-(2003)
∆E = nCv∆T = 0 Ans. (d) : ∆H = +ve and ∆S = –ve both oppose the
q = 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0 reaction.
325. Which of the following are not state functions? 329. During isothermal expansion of ideal gas its
(I) q + w (II) q (a) internal energy increases
(III) w (IV) H – TS (b) enthalpy increase
(a) I and IV (b) II, III and IV (c) enthalpy reduces to zero
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III (d) enthalpy remains unchanged
NEET-2008
UP CPMT-2007
Ans. (d) : State function or state variable depends only
NEET-1994, 1991
on the state of the system
Ans. (d) : Isothermal process is done at constant
w = work  temperature, dT=0, ∆E=0
 Both are not state functions
q = Heat  ∴ ∆H=∆E+P∆V
And ∆U = q + w, ∆G = H – T∆S are state Here, ∆H = enthalpy change
function. ∆E = internal energy change
326. In a closed insulated container a liquid is P = pressure
stirred with a paddle to increase the
temperature, which of the following is true? ∆V = change in volume during expansion of ideal gas
(a) ∆E = W ≠ 0, q = 0 (b) ∆E = W = q ≠ 0 For isothermal expansion
(c) ∆E = 0, W = q ≠ 0 (d) W = 0, ∆E = q ≠ 0 ∆H = 0
NEET-2008, UP CPMT-2006 Hence, during isothermal expansion of ideal gas, its
Ans. (a) : ∆E = q + W enthalpy remains unchanged.
330. Internal energy is sum of
Closed, insulated q = 0
(a) kinetic energy and potential energy
Paddle → Work done on the system W ≠ 0 (b) all types of energy of the system
T↑, ∆E↑, ∆E ≠ 0 (c) energy of internal system
q = 0, ∆E = W (d) None of the above
∆E ≠ 0, W ≠ 0, q = 0 UP CPMT-2007
Hence option (a) is correct. Ans. (b) : Every system having some quantity of matter
327. 5 moles of nitrogen gas at 5 atm pressure shows is associated with a definite amount of energy. This
100 lit volume. The same gas assumes 200 lit energy is known as internal energy. It is sum of many
volume upon absorbing 30.26 kJ heat against type of energies, such as translation energy, rotational
an external pressure of 2 atm. Calculate the energy, vibrational energy, electronic energy and
internal energy changes of this process. [Given bonding energy of the molecule.
1 lit-atm =101.32J] E= Etrans+Erot +Evib+ Ebonding +Eelectronic

331. In exothermic reaction, heat is 336. The relation of ∆H and ∆E is represented as
(a) given out (a) ∆H=∆E – P∆V (b) ∆E=∆H – P∆V
(b) absorbed
(c) ∆H=∆E + ∆nRT (d) ∆E=∆V + ∆H
(c) not involved
(d) given out or absorbed UP CPMT-2002
UP CPMT-2005 Ans. (c) : The relation between ∆H (Heat of reaction at
Ans. (a) : In exothermic reaction heat is always given constant pressure) is significant, where gases are
∆H = ΣHP – ΣHR and for exothermic reaction involved in a chemical reaction.
ΣHR>ΣHP. ∆H = ∆E + P.∆V
Energy release in burning 1 litre of gasoline is 30 MJ. or ∆H = ∆E + ∆ngRT
332. Difference in the melting and boiling point of ∆ng = No. of gaseous mole of product – No. of gaseous
inert gases is mole of reactant.
(a) large (b) small
337. Which law states entropy of all pure crystalline
(c) no difference (d) None of these
solids is zero at absolute zero?
UP CPMT-2005
(a) First law of thermodynamics
Ans. (b) : He Ne Ar Kr Xe Rn
(b) Second law of thermodynamics
Melting point /K 0.95 24.6 83.8 115.9 161.3 202
Boiling point /K 4.2 27.1 87.2 119.7 165.0 211 (c) Third law of thermodynamics
∴ there is small difference in melting and boiling point (d) Hess's law
of inert gases. UP CPMT-2001
333. Suitable conditions for melting of ice Ans. (c)
(a) high temperature and high pressure (a) The first law of thermodynamics states that
(b) high temperature and low pressure energy can neither be created nor destroyed.
(c) low temperature and low pressure (b) The second law of thermodynamics states that
(d) low temperature and high pressure entropy of universe is continuously increasing.
UP CPMT-2005 (c) The third law of thermodynamics states that
Ans. (a) : Use Le-Chatelier principle to find favourable entropy of all crystalline solids is zero at absolute
conditions for melting of ice. zero temperature.
ice water (d) Hess's law this law states that total amount of heat
According to Le-Chatelier principle at equilibrium if we evolved or absorbed in a reaction is independent of
change temperature or pressure of a reaction it will shift path.
in such a way so as to undo the change.
338. Consider the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
Q melting of ice is endotherimic process.
carried out at constant temperature and
∴ supply of heat shifts equilibrium in forward direction
pressure. If ∆H and ∆U are the enthalpy and
Q volume of ice is more than volume of water.
internal energy changes for the reaction, which
∴ increase in pressure shifts equilibrium to right.
of the following expressions is true?
∴ high temperature and high pressure are favourable
conditions of melting of ice. (a) ∆H > ∆U (b) ∆H < ∆U
334. Which is correct for an endothermic reaction? (c) ∆H = ∆U (d) ∆H = 0
(a) ∆ H is positive (b) ∆ H is negative UPTU/UPSEE-2007
(c) ∆ E is negative (d) ∆ H= zero Ans. (b): ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT
UP CPMT-2003 N2+3H2→ 2NH3
Ans. (a) : In endothermic reaction heat is always Q ∆ng < 0
absorbed
∆ng = –ve
A+B C+D ∆H = +ve
∴ Hp > HR ∆H = enthalpy change
∴ ∆H = Hp –HR (at constant pressure)
∴ ∆H is always positive. ∆U = internal energy change
335. NH4Cl(s) → NH3(g) + HCl(g). When the above (at constant volume)
reaction occurs, the entropy ∆H < ∆U
(a) remains same (b) decreases
(c) increases (d) None of these ∆ng = moles of [Gaseous products – Gaseous reactions]
UP CPMT-2002 339. In an isochoric process, ∆H for a system is
Ans. (c) : NH4Cl → NH3(g) + HCl(g) equal to:
After dissociation of ammonium chloride two mole are (a) P ⋅ ∆V (b) PV
formed. No. of mole of product is greater than reactant. (c) E + P ⋅∆V (d) ∆E
So, entropy of above reaction increases.
UPTU/UPSEE-2006
Ans. (d) : For an isochoric process (V is constant) 343. Under which of the following conditions is the
i.e. ∆V = 0 relation ∆H =∆E+p∆V valid for a closed
Work done (W) = P.∆V system?
W = P.0 = 0 (a) Constant pressure
We know, ∆H = ∆E + W (b) Constant temperature
∆H = ∆E + 0 (c) Constant temperature and pressure
(d) Constant temperature, pressure and
⇒ ∆H = ∆E composition.
340. Considering entropy (s) as a thermodynamic WB-JEE-2009
parameter, the criterion for the spontaneity of
any process, the change in entropy is Ans. (a) : H = E + PV
(a) ∆Ssystem> 0 only ∴ ∆H = ∆E + P∆V + V∆P
(b) ∆Ssurrounding > 0 At constant P, ∆H = ∆E + P∆V
(c) (∆Ssystem+ ∆Ssurrounding )> 0 344. Which of the following thermodynamic relation
(d) (∆Ssystem – ∆Ssurrounding)> 0 is correct?
UPTU/UPSEE-2017 (a) dG = VdP-SdT (b) dE = PdV+TdS
NEET-2004 (c) dH = –VdP +TdS (d) dG = VdP+SdT
WB-JEE-2010
Ans. (c) : Entropy (S) is the measure of randomness or
disorder of the molecules, it is an extensive property TS-EAMCET (Engg.), 06.08.2021
and a state function. A process is spontaneous if and Ans. (a) : We know that,
only if the entropy of the universe increase. Therefore G = H – TS
∆SUniverse > 0 Where,
∆Suniverse = ∆Ssystem + ∆Ssurrounding G = Gibbs free energy
341. The densities of graphite and diamond at 298 K H = enthalpy
T = temperature
are 2.25 and 3.31 g cm −3 respectively. If the
S = entropy
standard free energy difference is 1895 J
∵ H = U + PV
mol −1 , the pressure at which graphite will be
∴ G = U + PV – TS
transformed into diamond is
On differentiation,
(a) 9.92 × 108 Pa (b) 9.92 × 107 Pa dG = dU + PdV + VdP – TdS – SdT …(i)
(c) 9.92 × 106 Pa (d) None of these dQ = dU – dW
UPTU/UPSEE-2012 If the work done is only due to expansion,
Mass 12 Then, –dW = PdV
Ans. (d) : Volume of graphite = = dQ = dU + PdV
Denisty 2.25 For a reversible process,
12
Volume of diamond = dQ
3.31 dS = or TdS = dQ ….(ii)
T
Change in volume,
and dQ = dU + PdV ….(iii)
 12 12  −6 −6 From equation (i), (ii) and (iii) , we have
∆V =  −  × 10 m = −1.71×10
3
 3.31 2.25  dG = VdP – SdT

∆G = Wcompress = p∆V 345. Identify the correct statement from the
1895 following is a chemical reaction.
p= Pa (a) The entropy always increases
1.71×10−6
= 1108 × 10 Pa 6 (b) The change in entropy along with suitable
change in enthalpy decides the rate of
= 11.08 × 108 Pa reaction
342. For which reaction change of entropy will be (c) The enthalpy always decreases
positive? (d) Both the enthalpy and the entropy remain
(a) H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) 2HI(g) constant
(b) HCl(g) + NH 3 (g) NH 4 Cl(s) WB-JEE-2012
Ans. (b) : The change in entropy along with suitable
(c) NH 4 NO3 (s) N 2 O(g) + 2H 2 O(g) change in enthalpy decides the rate of reaction is correct
(d) MgO(s) + H 2 (g) Mg(s) + H 2 O(l ) statement because
∆G(T ,P) = ∆H − T∆S , gives the free energy of system.
WB-JEE-2008
Ans. (c) Entropy of gas is greater than that of liquid and When ∆G(T ,P) < 0, the reaction is spontaneous.
solid.
In option (c), solid is converted into gaseous phase. When ∆G(T ,P) > 0, the reaction is non-spontaneous.
Entropy of gas > liquid > solid. Hence, option (b) is correct.
346. The standard Gibbs free energy change (∆G o ) 350. The values of ∆H and −1
∆S of a certain reaction
o
at 25 C for the dissociation of N2O4 (g) to NO2 are –400 kJ mol and –20 kJ mol–1 k-1
(g) is (given, equilibrium constant = 0.15, R = respectively. The temperature below which the
8.314 J/mol K) reaction is spontaneous, is
(a) 1.1 kJ (b) 4.7 kJ (a) 100 K (b) 20oC
(c) 8.1 kJ (d) 38.2 kJ (c) 20 K (d) 120oC
Ans. (b) : ∆G = - 2.303RT log10K
o Ans. (c) : Given, ∆H = –400 kJ mol –1
Q ∆G→ Standard Gibbs free energy ∆S = –20kJ mol–1K–1

= - 2.303×8.314×298×log 0.15 Gibbs Helmholtz equation is–
∆G = ∆H – T∆S
= - 2.303×8.314×298×(-0.8239) For a reaction to be spontaneous, ∆G must be less than
=4701.04 J = 4.7kJ 0, i.e negative
347. The condition of spontaneity of a process is Q ∆H – T∆S < 0
(a) lowering of entropy at constant temperature T∆S < ∆H
and pressure The temperature below which the reaction is
(b) lowering of Gibbs free energy of system at spontaneous is at phase change.
constant temperature and pressure ∆H −400
T< < < 20K
(c) increase of entropy of system at constant ∆S −20
temperature and pressure 351. For the reaction, X2Y4(l) → 2XY2(g) at 300 K,
(d) increase of Gibbs free energy of the universe the values of ∆U and ∆S are 2 kcal and 20 cal K-1
at constant temperature and pressure respectively. The value of ∆G for the reaction is
WB-JEE-2013 (a) -3400 cal (b) 3400 cal
Ans. (b) : From Gibbs – Helmholtz equation, (c) -2800 cal (d) 2000 cal
∆G = ∆H – T∆S WB-JEE-2015
A process will be spontaneous if ∆G = –ve Ans. (c) : Given, ∆U = 2kcal = 2000 cal
∆H = –ve, ∆S = +ve Entropy change, ∆S = 20 cal K–1
348. For isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, the Temperature (T) = 300 K
correct combination of the thermodynamic From the given reaction–
parameters will be ∆ng = ng (product) – ng (reactant)
(a) ∆U = 0,Q = 0, W ≠ 0and ∆H ≠ 0 =2–0=2
(b) ∆U ≠ 0,Q ≠ 0, W ≠ 0and ∆H = 0 R = 2 cal K–1 mol–1
(c) ∆U = 0,Q ≠ 0, W = 0and ∆H ≠ 0 ∆H = 2000 + (2 × 2 × 300)
∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT
(d) ∆U = 0,Q ≠ 0, W ≠ 0and ∆H = 0 = 3200 cal
WB-JEE-2013 Now, We know Gibbs free energy change is,
Ans. (d) : For isothermal process, ∆T = 0 ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
From first law of thermodynamics, ∆G = 3200 – (300 × 20)
∆U = Q + W ∆G = – 2800 cal
∴ ∆U = nCv∆T = 0 352. The condition for a reaction to occur
∆H = nCp∆T = 0 spontaneously is
As ∆U = 0 ⇒ Q ≠ 0 and W ≠ 0 (a) ∆H must be negative
Parameter are, (b) ∆S must be negative
∆U = 0 ⇒ Q ≠ 0, W ≠ 0 and ∆H = 0 (c) (∆H – T∆S) must be negative
349. For a spontaneous process, the correct (d) (∆H + T∆S) must be negative
statement(s) is (are) WB-JEE-2016
(a) (∆Gsystem)T, p > 0 Ans. (c) : For a reaction to occur spontaneously,
(b) (∆Gsystem) + (∆Ssurroundings) > 0 ∆G must be negative or ∆G < 0
(c) (∆Gsystem)T, p < 0 We know that, ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
(d) (∆Usystem)T, v > 0 ∴ For a spontaneous reaction,
WB-JEE-2014
Ans. (c): From second law of thermodynamics.
∆H – T∆S must be negative
For a spontaneous process, 353.
(i) (∆Gsystem)T,P < 0, (∆Gsystem)T,V < 0
(ii) ∆Stotal = ∆Suniv = ∆Ssys + ∆Ssurr > 0
This is kind of the mathematical expression of the
second law of thermodynamics.
Hence, option (b,c) is correct.
For same mass of two different ideal gases of ∆S > 0 (as entropy is increase from liquid to gas)
molecular weights M1 and M2 plots of log V vs This process is spontaneous at temperature above 0°C
log p at a given constant temperature are so G is negative. Thus free energy changes (∆G) will be
shown. Identify the correct option. less than zero at 1 atm and 298 K.
(a) M1 > M2 356. For spontaneous polymerization, which of the
(b) M1 = M2 following is (are) not correct?
(c) M1 < M2 (a) ∆G is negative (b) ∆H is positive
(d) can be predicted only if temperature is known (c) ∆S is positive (d) ∆S is negative
Ans. (a) : For ideal gas, Ans. (d) : For spontaneous process,
∆G = ∆H – T∆S
∆H < 0
∆S < 0
∆G < 0
Q PV =
w
RT 2. First Law of Thermodynamics
M and Application
k
PV = .....(i)
M 357. The work done when 2 moles of an ideal gas
Let, wRT = k expands reversibly and isothermally from a
Taking log on both the sides of equation (i) volume of 1L to 10L at 300K is
log P + log V = log

k ( R = 0.0083 kJ K −1 mol−1 )
M (a) 0.115 kJ (b) 58.5 kJ
k (c) 11.5 kJ (d) 5.8 kJ
or log V = − log P + log .....(ii)
M Karnataka CET-17.06.2022, Shift-II
On comparing equation (ii) with y = mx + C,
Ans. (c) : Given, n = 2 moles, V1 = 1L, V2 = 10L
k
Intercept, C = log T = 300K, R = 0.0083kJ K −1mol−1
M
k k For isothermally,
log > log V 
M2 M1 W = −2.303 nRT log  2 
or M1 > M2  V1 
354. At constant pressure, the heat of formation of a 10 
compound is not dependent on temperature, = −2.303× 2× 0.0083×300 log  
 1 
when
(a) ∆Cp = 0 (b) ∆Cv = 0 = −2.303× 2× 0.0083×300×1
(c) ∆Cp > 0 (d) ∆Cp < 0 = −11.4689kJ ≈ −11.5kJ
WB-JEE-2019 358. Which one of the following is the correct
Ans. (a) : At constant pressure, the enthalpy of element relation between CP and CV for one mole of an
or compound changes with temperature according to the ideal gas? (R is molar gas constant)
Kirchhoff's equation– (a) CP = CV – R (b) CP = CV + R
∆H = Cp∆T (Q ∆H = nCp∆T) (c) CP = R – CV (d) CP = CV × R
So, If ∆Cp = 0 then ∆H = 0 (e) CP = CV / R
Thus, the heat of formation of the compound becomes Kerala CEE -03.07.2022
independent of temperature. Ans. (b) : According to first law of thermodynamics,
355. For the equilibrium, H2O(l) H2O(v), ∆U = q – W
which of the following is correct? nCv∆T = nCp∆T – nR∆T
(a) ∆G = 0, ∆H < 0, ∆S < 0 Cp – C v = R
(b) ∆G < 0, ∆H > 0, ∆S > 0 Cp = R + Cv
(c) ∆G > 0, ∆H = 0, ∆S > 0
359. When 5 moles of He gas expand isothermally
(d) ∆G = 0, ∆H > 0, ∆S > 0 and reversibly at 300 K from 10 litre to 20 litre,
WB-JEE-2019 the magnitude of the maximum work obtained
Ans. (d) : We have ∆G = ∆H - T∆S is_____ J. [nearest integer] Given : R = 8.3 JK–1
H2O(l) H2O(v) mol–1 and log 2 = 0.3010)
As the process is in equilibrium, ∆G = 0
Ans. (8630) : Given,
∆H > 0 (as the process is endothermic)
n = 5 moles, R = 8.3 JK–1mol–1, V1 = 10 L, V2 = 202 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
T = 300 K SCRA-2010
For isothermally, Ans. (a) : From first law of thermodynamics, also
V  known as Law of conservation of energy, states that
W = – 2.303 nRT log  2  "Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, energy
 V1  can only be transferred into one form to another".
 20  The second law of the thermodynamics states that, "It is
= – 2.303 × 5 × 8.3 × 300 log  
 10  impossible in any system for heat transfer from a
= – 2.303 × 5 × 8.3 × 300 × 0.301 reservoir to completely convert into work in a cyclic
= – 8630. 377 J ≈ – 8630 J process".
360. Consider following statements: 363. Work done by an ideal gas at a constant
(a) The absolute value of internal energy cannot be volume is ......... .
evaluated. ∆p
(b) Entropy is a state function and extensive (a) − (b) − V∆p
p
property
(c) Temperature is an extensive property nR
(c) 0 (d)
(d) The standard enthalpy of formation of an p
element ( ∆° H f ) is always considered to be zero AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-I
WB-JEE-2013
(e) For an adiabatic process ∆S > 0
Ans. (c) : The first law of thermodynamics,
wrong statements are :
(a) (a) and (b) (b) (a) and (d) ∆E = q + W
(c) (c) and (e) (d) (b) and (d) Where,
CG PET-22.05.2022 Work done (W) = –p∆V
Ans. (c) : The temperature T is an intensive property, W = –p × ∆V (Q ∆V = 0)
independent of the size of system. (i.e. mass) The volume is constant,
In adiabatic process q=0 W=0
q 364. A system undergoes a process in which
Q △S =
T ∆U=+300J while absorbing 400 J of heat energy
△S = 0 and undergoing an expansion against 0.5 bar.
The change is the entropy for an adiabatic process equal What is the change in volume (in L) ?
to zero. So, from the given option (c) and (e) are wrong (a) 4 (b) 5
statement. (c) 2 (d) 3
361. 4.0 L of an ideal gas is allowed to expand AP EAPCET-6 Sep. 2021, Shift-II
isothermally into vacuum until the total volume Ans. (c) : From first law of thermodynamics,
is 20 L. The amount of heat absorbed in this
expansion is ––––– L atm. dU = Q+W
Since, expansion occurs and we know that in
JEE Main-28.06.2022, Shift-I the case of expansion occurs and we know that in the
Ans. (0) : In case of free expansion, case of expansion work done having negative sign. So,
W = –Pext × ∆V (Q Pext = 0) ∆U = ∆Q + ∆W or dU = dq + dW
W=0 Here dq = 400 Joule, ∆U = 300 Joule
First law of thermodynamics, dq = dU + dW
∆U = q – W 400 = 300 + dW
For isothermally ∆U = 0 dW = 100 J
0=q−W We know that, dW = PdV
q=W=0 dW
Amount of heat absorbed = 0 dV =
P
362. Consider the following statements: 100
1. One kind of energy can be converted into an = (Q 1 bar = 105 pascals)
exactly equivalent amount of other kind of 0.5 ×105
energy. = 20×10–4
2. Continuous production of mechanical work is = 2×10–3
possible without the supply of equivalent 2
quantity of heat. = (Q 1000 m3 = 1 litre)
1000
Which of the statements given above is/are
contrary to first law of thermodynamics? = 2 litre
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

365. Five moles of a gas are put through a series of Ans. (d) : (a) For an isochoric process,
changes as shown graphically in a cyclic Work done by the gas= –P ∆V
process. The processes A → B, B → C and C → ∆U = q + W
A respectively are
∆U = q – P ∆V
When, ∆V = 0, ∆U = q or qv
(b) For an adiabatic process, q=0, ∆U = W
(c) For an isothermal process, ∆U = 0,q = – W
(d) For a cyclic process, ∆U = 0
∴ ∆U = 0 = q + W or q = –W
368. Assertion: In a process, if work = 0 then ∆U =
(a) isochoric, isobaric, isothermal q.
(b) isobaric, isochoric, isothermal Reason: q is difference between initial state and
(c) isothermal, isobaric, isochoric final state of a system.
(d) isochoric, isothermal, isobaric (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
COMEDK-2018 Assertion.
Ans. (a) : Process A → B is isochoric, i.e., volume (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
remains constant. Reason is not the correct explanation of
Process B → C is isobaric, i.e., pressure remains Assertion.
constant. (Q at constant P,V ∝ T) (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
Process C → A is isothermal, i.e., temperature remains (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
constant. incorrect.
366. One mole of a perfect gas expands isothermally AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Evening)
and reversibly from 10 dm3 to 20 dm3 at 300 K. Ans. (c) At in a process
∆u,q and work done in the process are At W = 0
[R= 8.3×10–3 kJ K–1 mol–1 ] From thermodynamics Ist Law
(a) 0, 1.726 kJ, –1.726 kJ ∆U = q + w
(b) 0, 17.48 J, 1.726 J At W = 0
(c) 0, 21.84 kJ, 21.84 kJ ∆U = q
(d) none of these. Q So, Assertion is correct
COMEDK-2020 q → path function does not depend on initial and final
Ans. (a) : Given that : n=1, V1=10 dm3, state at is a path dependent
V2= 20 dm3, T=300 K, R=8.3 ×10–3 kJ K–1 mol–1 369. 1 mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally and
Formula for maximum work, reversibly from 2 lit to 4 lit and 3 moles of same
V2 gas expand from 2 lit to x lit and doing same
Wmax = –2.303nRT log work, what is 'x'?
V1 1 2
20 (a) ( 8 ) 3 (b) ( 4 ) 3
= –2.303 × 1× 8.3 × 10 × 300 × log
–3
10 (c) 2 (d) 4 lit

=–2.303 ×2.49 ×0.3010=–1.726kJ AIIMS-26 May, 2018 (M)
According to first law,
v
∆U = q + W Ans. (b): W = –nRT ln 2
v1
Now, 0 = q + W
∴ +q = –W or q = 1.726 kJ 4
– RTln = −3RTln
x
For an isothermal expansion of a perfect gas at constant 2 2
temperature, ∆U = 0 x
3
∆U = 0; Wmax = –1.726 kJ and q = 1.726 kJ ln2 = ln  

2
367. Based on the first law of thermodynamics, x3 = 16
which one of the following is correct? x = (16)1/ 3 = (4) 2 / 3
(a) For an isochoric process, ∆u = – q
370. One mono-atomic gas is expanded adiabatically
(b) For an adiabatic process, ∆u = – W from 2L to 10L at 1 atm external pressure, find
(c) For an isothermal process, q=+ W ∆U (in atm L)?
(d) For an cyclic process, q = – W (a) −8 (b) 0
COMEDK-2019 (c) −66.7 (d) 58.2
Karnataka CET-2011 AIIMS-26 May, 2018 (M)
Ans. (a): Given that, V1 = 2 L, V2 = 10 L, P = 1 atm Ans. (b): ∆H = 92.2kJ
At adiabatic process Q = constant P = 40 atm
Process is adiabatic ∴ ∆Q = 0 ∆V = –1 L
∴ ∆U = W = – Pext.∆V Or ∆H = ∆E + ∆nRT
= –1 (10 – 2) atm L ∆H = ∆E + PdV
= –8 atm L –92.2kJ = ∆E + 40×–1
371. One mole of an ideal gas is allowed to expand –92.2kJ = ∆E – 40atm L
reversibly and adiabatically from a –92200J = ∆E – 40 × 101.325 J
temperature of 27ºC. If the work done during
the process is 3 kJ, then final temperature of [Q 1 atm L = 101.325J]
the gas is (Cv=20J/K) ∆E = –92200J + 4053 J
(a) 100K (b) 150K ∆E = –88147 J ≈ –88 kJ
(c) 195K (d) 255K 375. The enthalpy change (∆H) for the reaction,
AIIMS-2010 N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) → 2NH 3 ( g ) is −92.38kJ at
Ans. (b): Given number of moles = 1 298K. The internal energy change ∆U at 298 K
Work done by the system = 3000J is
Work done is negative because it is done by the system. (a) –92.38 kJ (b) −87.42 kJ
Initial temperature = 27°C = 300K
(c) −97.34 kJ (d) −89.9 kJ
Heat capacity (cv) = 20 J/K
AIIMS-2006
We know that work done
W = –ncv (T2 –T1) Ans. (b): We know that N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇒ NH3(g)
3000 = –1 × 20 (T2 – 300) ∆E = ∆H – ∆nRT
3000 = –20T2 + 6000 Here ∆n = number of molecules of products –number of
20T2 = 3000 molecules of reactants
T2 = 150K = 2 – 4 = –2
372. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded  −2 × 8.31× 298 
= –92.38 –   Q ∆ng < 0
 1000 
10 litres. The value of ∆E for this process is = –92.38 + 4.95 = –87.42 kJ
(R=2 cal mol−1 K−1)
376. For the reaction of one mole of zinc dust with
(a) 163.7 cal (b) zero
one mole of sulphuric acid in a bomb
(c) 138.1 cal (d) 9 litre atm calorimeter , ∆U and W corresponds to
AIIMS-2010 (a) ∆U <0, W=0 (b) ∆U <0, W<0
Ans. (b): ∆E = nCv∆T (c) ∆U >0, W=0 (d) ∆U >0, W>0
For isothermal process, ∆T = 0, ∆E = 0 AIIMS-2005
Hence, change in internal energy (∆E) is zero during
Ans. (a): Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2
isothermal expansion of a gas.
∆ngas =0
373. 6 moles of an ideal gas expand isothermally and
reversibly from a volume of 1 litre to a volume ∴ W = ∆ ngas RT = 0
of 10 litres at 27ºC. What is the maximum work ∆U = W + Q
done? In bomb calorimeter, there is no expansion in volume,
(a) 47kJ (b) 100kJ so work done will be zero. This reaction is exothermic.
(c) 0 (d) 34.465 kJ So, some heat will evolved which will result in lowering
AIIMS-2009, VITEEE- 2006 of internal energy (Internal energy are the function of
temperature).
Ans. (d): For isothermal change,
Hence, ∆U < 0 and W = 0
V
W = –2.303 nRT log 2 377. Two moles of an ideal gas are compressed
V1 isothermally (100ºC) and reversibly from a
Given, n =6, T = 27oC = 273+27 = 300K pressure of 10 atm to 25 atm. Then the free
energy change is:
V1 = 1 L, V2 = 10 L (a) +15.482 kJ (b) +10.462 kJ
10 (c) +5.684 kJ (d) +3.3642 kJ
W = –2.303×6×8.314×300 log = 34464.86J AIIMS-2001
1
= 34.465 kJ. Ans. (c): For isothermal reversible process:
374. Calculate change in internal energy if P  V
∆H = −92.2kJ, P = 40atm and ∆V = −1L Wrev = –2.303 nRT log  1  = −2.303nRT log 1
 P2  V2
(a) −42kJ (b) −88kJ
 10 
(c) +88kJ (d) +42kJ = – 2.303×2×8.314×373×log   = + 5684.08J
AIIMS-2007  25 

Wrev = + 5.684kJ Ans. (b) : Given that,
Since, it is a measure of free energy V1 = 10 litre
∴ ∆G = Wrev = Wmax V2 = 20 litre
∴ ∆G = + 5.684 kJ T = 25° = 273 +25 = 298 K
378. A gas expands isothermally against a constant 1 Joule = 107 erg
external pressure of 1 atm from a volume of 10 V
dm3 to a volume of 20 dm3. It absorbs 800 J of Workdone, W = –2.303 nRT log 2
thermal energy from its surrounding. V1
The ∆U is: 20
(a) −312J (b) +123J = −2.303×1× 8.314 × 298 × 107 × log
10
(c) −213J (d) +231J = −2.303×107 × 8.314 × 298 log 2
BCECE-2007, AIIMS-1999
Ans. (c): In general = −298 ×107 × 8.31 × 2.303 log 2
V2 382. Calculate the work done when a gas is
W = − ∫ PdV = −P ( V2 − V1 ) compressed by an average pressure of 0.50 atm
V1 so as to decrease its volume from 400 cm3 to
W = − (1atm )( 20 − 10 ) = −10 dm 3 atm 200 cm3.
(a) 1.013J (b) 10.13J
Q1dm3 = 1L  (c) 101.3J (d) None of these
1atm L = 101.325J  SRMJEEE – 2016
= –10 × 101.325 = –1013.25 J ≈ –1013 J Ans. (b) : Given data :
According to 1st law of thermodynamics, P = 0. 50 atm
∆U = q + W = 800J + (–1013J) = – 213J
V1 = 400 cm3 = 0.4 L (Q1L = 1000 cm3 )
379. During isothermal expansion of one mole of an
ideal gas from 10 atm to 1atm at 273 K, the V2 = 200 cm3 = 0.2 L
work done is (gas constant=2): W=?
(a) −895.8cal (b) −1172.6cal Now, W = – P∆V
(c) −1257.43cal (d) −1499.6cal W = – P(V2 – V1)
AIIMS-2000 W = – 0.50 (0.2 – 0.4)
Ans. (c): Work done in expansion of gas during W = 0.1 atm (Q 1atm L = 101.325J )
Isothermal process, ∴ W = 0.1 × 101. 325
P1 W = 10.13 Joule
W = −2.303nRT log
P2 383. A system is provided with 50 J of heat and the
10 work done on the system is 10 J. What is the
W = −2.303× 1× 2 × 273log change in internal energy of the system in
1 joules?
W = − 1257.43 cal.
(a) 60 (b) 40
380. When the temperature of 2 moles of an ideal (c) 50 (d) 10
gas is increased by 20ºC at constant pressure. AP-EAMCET- (Engg.) - 2010
Find the work involved in the process.
(a) 5R (b) 40R Ans. (a) : Given,
(c) 15R (d) 20R q = 50 J
AP EAPCET 19-08-2021, Shift-II W = 10J
Ans. (b) : Given, n = 2 mole We know that,
T = 20ºC The law of conservation of energy that the total is
P = Constant constant, energy con be transformed from one from to
∆W = ? another, but can be neither created or destroyed.
From ideal gas equation - ∆U = q + W
∆W = P∆V = nR∆T ∆U = 50 + 10 = 60J.
∴ ∆W = 2 × R × 20 384. Calculate the maximum work done in
∆W = 40R expanding 16 g of oxygen at 300 K and
381. The work done in ergs for the reversible occupying a volume of 5 dm3 isothermally until
expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from a volume becomes 25 dm3.
volume of 10 litres to 20 litres at 25°C is (a) – 2.01 × 103J (b) + 2.01 × 103J
(a) 2.303 × 298 × 0.082 log 2 (c) 2.01 J (d) 2.01 × 103 kJ
(b) 298 × 10 × 8.31 × 2.303 log 2
7
AMU-2017
(c) 2.303 × 298 × 0.082 log 0.5 Ans. (a) : Maximum work is obtained in isothermal
(d) 8.31 × 107 × 298 – 2.303 log 0.5 reversible process.
VITEEE-2019 The expansion for the maximum work is as Follow,
V2 P Ans. (b) : From first law of thermodynamics
W = − 2.303nRT log , W = −2.303nRT log 1 ∆U = q + W
V1 P2
Given, q = 500J
The number of moles of oxygen (n) =
W = P∆V = 0, ∆V = 0
Weight 16
= = 0.5 (At constant volume)
Molecular Weight 32 So, ∆U = q = 500J ∆V = 0 then W = 0
The temperature is T = 300K 389. In photoelectric effect, if the energy required to
The initial volume is V1 = 5dm3 overcome the attractive forces on the electron,
The final volume is V2 = 25dm3 (work function) of Li, Na and Rb are 2.41 eV,
Substituting values in the above reaction we get, 2.30 eV and 2.09 eV respectively, the work
25 function of 'K' could approximately be in eV.
W = −2.303 × 0.5 × 8.314 × 300 × log = −2.01 × 103 J (a) 2.52 (b) 2.20
5 (c) 2.35 (d) 2.01
385. A sample of liquid in a thermally insulated BCECE-2014
container is stirred for 1 hr by a mechanical Ans. (b) : As the size of the atom (element) increases
attachment to a motor in the surroundings, the energy required to overcome the attractive force on
which of the following thermodynamic quantity outer most electron decreases Li, Na, K, and Rb have
for the system is zero? the following order of size Li < Na < K < Rb
(a) Work (W) Thus, the energy in case of K is intermediate of Rb and
(b) Change in internal energy (∆E) Na i.e
(c) Change in enthalpy (∆H) 2.30 > K >2.09 or the energy for K is 2.20eV.
(d) None of these 390. A system is allowed to move from state A to B
AMU-2012 following path ACB by absorbing 80J of heat
Ans. (d) : For a thermally insulated container, ∆q = 0. energy. The work done by the system is 30 J.
But work (w), change in internal energy (∆E) and The work done by the system in reaching state
change in enthalpy are non zero. B from A is 10J through path ADB. Which
statements are correct?
Q So, this is the adiabatic process.
386. The incorrect statement of the first law of
thermodynamics is
(a) W = ∆E – q (b) q = ∆E – W
(c) ∆E = q + W (d) q = ∆E + W
AMU-2004
I. Increase in internal energy from state A to
Ans. (d) : Mathematically the first law of state B is 50 J.
thermodynamics may be stated as – II. If path ADB is followed to reach state B,
∆E= q + W ∆E = 50J.
Where, ∆E = Change in internal energy of system III. If work done by the system in path AB is
q = Heat supplied to the system 20J, the heat absorbed during path
W = Work done on the system AB = 70J.
387. 1 g ice absorbs 335J of heat to melt at 0°C. The IV. The value EC – EA is equal to ED – EB.
entropy change will be V. Heat absorbed by the system to reach B
(a) 1.2 JK–1 mol–1 (b) 335 JK–1 mol–1 from A through path ADB is 60J.
–1 –1
(c) 22.1 JK mol (d) 0.8 JK–1 mol–1 (a) I, V (b) I, III, V
BCECE-2010 (c) I, II, III, V (d) I, IV, V
Ans. (c) : ∆G = ∆H – T∆S BCECE-2014
At phase / state change, ∆G = 0 Ans. (c)
∆H f  335 × 18  −1
∆Sf = =  = 22.1JK mol
Tf  273 
388. When 1 mole gas is heated at constant volume,
temperature is raised from 298K to 308K. Heat
supplied to the gas is 500J.Then which Given, Statement-(I) : ACB,
statement is correct? q = 80 J, W = –30 J
(a) q = W = 500J, ∆U = 0 According to first law of thermodynamics,
(b) q = ∆U = 500J, W = 0 ∆E = q + W = 80 – 30 = 50 J
Statement-(III) : A → B
(c) q = W = 500J, ∆U = 0
W = –20 J, ∆E = 50 J
(d) ∆U = 0, q = W = −500J Similarly, ∆E = q + W ⇒ q = ∆E – W
BCECE-2012 = 50 – (–20) J = 70 J
Statement-(V) : ADB, (d) Lowering of energy in the reaction process is
W = –10 J, ∆E = 50 J the only criterion for spontaneity
Similarly, q = ∆E – W = 50 – (–10) = 60 J AIEEE-2007
In statement (IV) No. the value of EC – EA is equal to ED Ans. (a) For a spontaneous process, ∆G < 0
– EB are not possible internal energy (E) in cyclic ∆G = ∆H – T∆S < 0
process are zero. For isolated system, change in enthalpy is zero.
Hence, correct statement is I, II, III and V. Hence, ∆S must be positive for spontaneous process.
391. Temperature of 5 moles of a gas is decreased Hence, option (a) is correct.
by 2K at constant pressure. Indicate the correct 395. During which of the following processes, does
statement entropy decrease?
(a) Work done by gas is = 5 R A. Freezing of water to ice at 0°C.
(b) Work done over the gas is = 10 R B. Freezing of water to ice at –10°C.
(c) Work done by the gas = 10 R C. N2(g) + 3H2(g)  → 2NH3(g)
(d) Work done = 0 D. Adsorption of CO(g) and lead surface.
BITSAT-2007 E. Dissolution of NaCl in water.
Ans. (b) : For 5 moles of gas at temperature T, (a) A, B, C and D (b) B and C
PV1 = 5RT .....(i) (c) A and E (d) A, C and E
For 5 moles of gas at temperature (T – 2), JEE Main-2021, Shift-II
PV2 = 5R(T − 2) .....(ii) Ans. (a) : A,B→ freezing of H2O will decreases
entropy as particles more closer and forces of attraction
∴ P(V2 − V1 ) = 5R(T − 2 − T); will increases. Thus leads to decreases in randomness so
P∆V = −10R, −P∆V = 10R entropy decreases.
When ∆V is negative, W is +ve. C → No of molecule decreasing, so entropy decreases.
392. Which of the following represents the first law D→ Adsorption will lead to a decreases in the
of thermodynamics randomness of gaseous particles.
(a) ∆U = q + W (b) ∆U = p∆V At the adsorption ∆H < 0, ∆g < 0 , ∆S < 0
(c) ∆U = ∆H + p∆V (d) ∆H = q + W 396. The incorrect expression among the following
is
CG PET-2012
∆G System
Ans. (a) : The first law of thermodynamics state that the (a) = −T(at constant P)
energy converted can be from one form to another with ∆STotal
the interaction of heat, but it cannot be created or ∆H° − T∆S°
destroyed, under any circumstances. (b) ln k =
RT
It relates to change in energy with work and heat ∆G °
−
transfer. (c) k = e RT
∆U = q + W (d) For isothermal process,
393. Which of the following is a first order reaction? V
(a) NH 4 NO 2 → N 2 + 2H 2 O Wreversible = – nRT ln f
Vi
(b) 2HI → H 2 + I 2 JEE Main-2021, Shift-II
(c) 2NO 2 → 2NO + O 2 Ans. (b) : We know that,
(d) 2NO + O 2 → 2NO 2 ∆Go = ∆H° –T∆S°
Where ∆Go is standard Gibbs free energy change
CG PET-2010
∆H° is standard Enthalpy change,
Ans. (a) : Order of Reaction–No. of reactant
molecules taking part in the reaction/no. of reactant T∆S° is standard Entropy change,
molecules that effects the rate of reaction. T is temperature.
NH 4 NO 2 → N 2 + 2H 2 O ∆Go = –RT × ln (K), where K is the equilibrium
constant
Rate of equation –RT × ln (K) = ∆Ho –T ∆S°
1
K[ NH 4 NO 2 ]  ∆H°− T∆S° 
∴ Order of this reaction is (1) In (K) = –  
 RT 
Hence, option (a) is correct.
397. Given :
394. Identify the correct statement regarding a
(a) Cgraphite + O2(g)→CO2(g);
spontaneous process.
(a) For a spontaneous process in an isolated ∆rHΘ = x kJ mol–1
1
system, the change in entropy is positive (b) Cgraphite + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) ;
(b) Endothermic processes are never spontaneous 2
(c) Exothermic processes are always spontaneous ∆rHΘ = y kJ mol–1
1 400. At constant volume, 4 mol of an ideal gas when
(c) CO ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) ; heated from 300 K to 500 K changes its
2
internal energy by 5000 J. The molar heat
∆rHΘ = z kJ mol–1 capacity at constant volume is
Based on the above thermochemical equations,
[JEE Main-2020, 8 Jan Shift-II]
find out which one of the following algebraic
relationships is correct? Ans. (6.25 J/mol K) :
(a) y = 2z – x (b) x = y – z Given, n = 4, ∆T = (500 – 300) = 200 K
(c) z = x + y (d) x = y + z ∆U = 5000 J
[JEE Main-2019, 12 Jan Shift-II] We know that,
Ans. (d) : Given– ∆U 5000
∆U = nCv∆T ⇒ Cv = = = 6.25J / mol K
Cgraphite + O2(g) → CO2(g); ∆rHo = x kJ/mol .....(i) n∆T 4 × 200
1 401. Which one of the following equations does not
Cgraphite + O 2 (g) → CO2(g); ∆rHo = y kJ/mol .....(ii)
2 correctly represent the first law of
1 thermodynamics for the given processes
CO(g) + O 2 (g) → CO2(g); ∆rHo = z kJ/mol .....(iii) involving an ideal gas?
2
From reaction (i), (ii) and (iii) (Assume non-expansion work is zero)
(i) = (ii) + (iii) (a) Cyclic process : q = –W
x=y+z (b) Adiabatic process : ∆U = –W
398. The internal energy change when a system goes (c) Isochoric process : ∆U = q
from state A to B is 40 kJ/mol. If the system (d) Isothermal process : q = –W
goes from A to B by a reversible path and [JEE Main 2019, 8 April Shift-I]
returns to state A by an irreversible path, what Ans. (b) : According to first law of thermodynamic,
would be the net change in internal energy? ∆U = q + W
(a) 40 kJ (b) > 40 kJ
Cyclic process: ∆U = 0 ⇒ q = –W
(c) <40 kJ (d) zero
AIEEE-2003 Isothermal process : ∆U = 0 ⇒ q = –W
Ans. (d) : Adiabatic process: q = 0 ⇒ ∆ U = W
Isochoric process : W = 0 ⇒ ∆U = q
402. Five moles of an ideal gas at 1 bar and 298 K is
expanded into vacuum to double the volume.
The work done is
(a) –RT In (V2/V1) (b) –RT(V2–V1)
For a cyclic process the net change in the internal
energy is zero because the change in internal energy (c) Cv(T2–T1) (d) zero
does not depend on the path. [JEE Main 2020, 4 Sep Shift-II]
Q ∆U = Uf – Ui Ans. (d) : Expansion of a gas in vacuum (Pext = 0) is
Uf = Ui called free expansion. No work is done during free
When system returns to its initial state, expansion, since as the expansion is done in vacuum
∴ ∆U = 0 that is in absence of external pressure hence work will
be,
399. A piston filled with 0.04 mole of an ideal gas
W = –Pext∆V ⇒ W = 0
expands reversibly from 50.0 mL to 375 mL at
a constant temperature of 37.0oC. As it does so, Here, (Pext = 0) because expansion takes place in
it absorbs 208 J of heat. The values of q and W vacuum.
for the process will be (R = 8.314 J/mol K. In 403. At 25oC, 50g of iron reacts with HCI to form
7.5 = 2.01) FeCl2. The evolved hydrogen gas expands
(a) q = +208 J, W = –208 J against a constant pressure of 1 bar. The work
(b) q = –208, J, W = –208 J done by the gas during this expansion is ....... J.
(c) q = –208 J, W = +208 J (Round off to the nearest integer)
(d) q = +208 J, W = +208 J [Given, R = 8.314J mol–1K–1.
[JEE Main-2013] Assume, hydrogen is an ideal gas]
Ans. (a) : The process is isothermal expansion, [Atomic mass off Fe is 55.85 u]
T = Constant [JEE Main 2021, 16 March Shift-II]
Ans. (–2218 J) :
∆U = 0
Given,
∆U = q + W ⇒ W = –q
T = 298 K
q = +208J R = 8.314 J/mol K
W = −280 J Chemical reaction is,
Fe + 2HCl→ FeCl2 + H2(g)
Here negative sign shows that system expand. 50g P = 1 bar
50 PV
= mol Ans. (b): Compressibility factor (Z) =
55.85 nRT
Work done for 1 mol gas = –P × ∆V =∆ngRT For ideal gas,
= –1 × 8.314 × 298 PV = nRT
nRT
50 So, Z= =1
Work done for mol of gas nRT
55.85
For ideal gas Z = 1
50
= –1 × 8.314 × 298 × J For real gas, Z < 1or Z > 1
55.85
= –2218.059J ≈ –2218 J 407. In adiabatic conditions, 2 mole of CO2 gas at
404. Five moles of an ideal gas at 293K is expanded 300 K is expanded such that its volume
isothermally from an initial pressure of 2.1 becomes 27 times. Then, the work done is
MPa to 1.3 MPa against at constant external (Cv = 6 cal mol–1 and γ = 1.33)
pressure 4.3 MPa. The heat transferred in this (a) 1400 cal (b) 1000 cal
process is ...........kJ mol–1. (Rounded off to the (c) 900 cal (d) 1200 cal
nearest integer) JIPMER-2018
[R = 8.314 Jmol–1K–1] T2  V1 
γ−1
[JEE Main 2021, 25 Feb Shift-II] Ans. (d) : In adiabatic condition = 

T1  V2 
Ans. (3) : Given, n = 5, T= 293 K, ∆U = 0, 1.33−1 0.33
P1 = 2.1MPa, P2 = 1.3 MPa, Pext = 4.3 MPa T2  1   1  1
= =  =
Isothermal irreversible (T = Constant), T1  27   27  3
We know that, 1
T2 = 300 × = 100K
1 1 3
W = −Pext (V2 − V1 ) = − Pext nRT  −  Thus T2 < T1 hence cooling takes place due to
 P2 P1 
expansion under adiabatic condition (q = 0).
 1 1  q = ∆U + W
= −4.3 × 5 × 8.314 × 293  − 
 1.3 2.1  W = – ∆U = U1 – U2 = Cv (T1 – T2)
= –15347.7 J = 6 (300 – 100) = 1200 cal/mol
Now from equation, 408. The correct statement regarding entropy is
∆U = q + W (a) at absolute zero temperature, entropy of a
perfectly crystalline solid in zero
∴ q = –W (For isothermal process) (b) at absolute zero temperature, the entropy of a
q = –(–15347.7) = 15347.7 J = 15.35 kJ (For 5 moles) perfectly crystalline substance is positive
15.35 (c) at absolute zero temperature, the entropy of
∴ q/mol = = 3kJ mol −1 all crystalline substances is zero
5
(d) at 0oC, the entropy of a perfect crystalline
405. One mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally solid in zero
and reversible from 2 lit. to 20 lit. at 300 K. If
Karnataka-CET-2016
the final pressure of the gas is l bar, the work
NEET-1998
done by the gas is
Ans. (a) : Entropy of perfectly crystalline solids will be
(a) –300R ln10 (b) 300R ln10 zero at absolute zero. It is predicted in the third law of
(c) 18 (d) –18 thermodynamics.
J & K CET-(2015) 409. A gas expands from the volume of 1m3 to a
Ans. (a) : Given, volume of 2m3 against an external pressure of
V1 = 2L, V2 = 20L 105Nm–2. The work done by the gas will be
T = 300K, P2 = 1 bar (a) 102 kJ (b) 102 J
3
Work done in isothermal process, (c) 10 J (d) 105 kJ
Karnataka-CET-2012
V
= –nRT ln 2 Ans. (a) : Given,
V1 V1 = 1 m3, V2 = 2m3, P = 105 Nm–2
20 Since work done (W) = P∆V
= –1× R × 300 ln
2 = P (V2 – V1)
W = – 300R ln10
406. The compressibility factor for an ideal gas is: N
=105 × (2–1)m3
(a) <1 (b) =1 m2
(c) >1 (d) always 2
JCECE - 2003 W = 105 J = 102 kJ

410. Based on the first law of thermodynamics, We know that,
which one of the following is correct? M
(a) For an isochoric process = ∆E = – q M=V×ρ⇒V=
ρ
(b) For an adiabatic process = ∆E = – w
Put the value of V in gas equation,
(c) For an isothermal process = q = + w
(d) For a cyclic process q = – w M
P× = RT
Karnataka-CET, 2011, 2010 ρ
Ans. (d) : First law of Thermodynamics is Then molar mass of gas,
∆E = q + W ρRT
M=
(a) For isochoric process, ∆V = 0 P
W = P∆V = 0 414. Deviation from the ideal gas behaviour of a gas
∴ ∆E = q can be expressed as :
(b) For adiabatic process, q = 0 P PV
∆E = W (a) Z = (b) Z =
VRT nRT
(c) For isothermal process, ∆T = 0 & ∆E = 0
nRT VR
∴ q=–W (c) Z = (d) Z =
(d) For cyclic process, state functions like PV PT
∆E = 0 Manipal-2018
q=–W Ans. (b) : According to ideal gas equation,
411. According to the first law of thermodynamics PV = nRT
which of the following quantities represents the n = number of mole of gas
change in a state function? PV
(a) qrev (b) qrev /Wrev Therefore compressibility factor Z =
nRT
(c) Wrev (d) Wrev For an ideal gas Z = 1 and for real gas, Z may be either
(e) qrev + Wrev greater than one or less than one.
JIPMER-2011 415. Three moles of an ideal gas are expanded
Kerala-CEE-2010 isothermally from a volume of 300 cm3 to 2.5 L
Ans. (e) : State Function– Those quantities which is at 300 K against a pressure of 1.9 atm. The
depend upon the initial and final states not of path work done in joules is
followed. (a) – 423.56 J (b) + 423.56 J
According to the first law of thermodynamics (qrev + (c) – 4.18 J (d) + 4.8 J
Wrev), represents the change in a state function.
∆ E = qrev + Wrev.
Ans. (a) : Given,
412. The first law of thermodynamic is expressed
as: V1 = 300 cm3 = 3×10–4 m3
(a) q – W = ∆E (b) ∆E = q – W V2 = 2.5 L = 25×10–4 m3
(c) q = ∆E – W (d) W = q + ∆E T = 300 K
(e) none of the these P = 1.9 atm = 1.9×1.01325×105 N/m2
Kerala-CEE-2006 Now, work done during change in volume against
constant pressure is
Ans. (c) : The first law of thermodynamics can be
expressed as – W = –P(V2 – V1)
∆E=q+W = –1.9×1.01325×105 (25×10–4 – 3×10–4)
q=∆E–W = –1.925×105(22×10–4) Nm
= –423.56 Nm
413. If P, T, ρ and R represents pressure,
temperature, density and universal gas W = – 423.56 J
constant respectively, then the molar mass of 416. A gas performs 0.320 kJ work on surrounding
the ideal ga is given by : and absorbs 120 J of heat from the surrounding.
ρRT ρT Hence, change in internal energy is
(a) (b) (a) 200 J (b) 120.32 J
P PR
(c) –200 J (d) 440 J
P RT
(c) (d) MHT CET-03.05.2019, Shift-I
ρRT ρP
Ans. (c) : According to first law of thermodynamics,
Manipal-2019
∆U = q + W
Ans. (a) : If P, T, ρ and R represents pressure, Since, work is done on the surrounding
temperature, density and universal gas constant then
ideal gas equation. So, W = –0.320 kJ = –320 J
PV = nRT for n mole of gas q = 120 J
PV = RT for 1 mole of gas ∴ ∆U = 120 – 320 = – 200 J

417. "The mass and energy both are conserved in an (a) 6.236 kJ (b) –6.236 kJ
isolated system" is the statement of (c) 18.71 kJ (d) –18.71 kJ
(a) second law of thermodynamics MHT CET-2017
(b) third law of thermodynamics Ans. (c) :
(c) modified first law of thermodynamics 2C 2 H 6 (g) + 7O 2 (g) 
→ CO 2 (g) + 6H 2 O (l )
(d) first law of thermodynamics
MHT CET-03.05.2019, Shift-I ∆n = 2 – (1 + 3.5) = – 2.5
Ans. (c) : Modified first law of thermodynamics– Molar mass of ethane = 2 (12) + 6 (1) = 30 g/mol
According to this law, if a certain amount of one kind of 9 × 10–2 kg ethane = 9 × 10 –2 kg × 1000 g/kg = 90 g
energy is produced, an equal amount of some other kind 90g
of energy is consumed so that the total energy in the 90 g ethane = = 3 mol ethane
30g / mol
universe remains constant.
For 1 mole of ethane, ∆n = –2.5
The modified first law of thermodynamics states that
"In an isolated system, both mass and energy are For 3 mole of ethane, ∆n = – 2.5 ×3 = –7.5
conserved". Work done, W = – ∆nRT
418. Calculate the work done during combustion of W = –(–7.5) × 8.314 × 300
0.138 kg of ethanol, C2H5OH(l) at 300 K. W = 18707 J
Given: R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1, molar mass of W = 18. 71 kJ
ethanol = 46 g mol–1. 422. What is the amount of work done when 0.5
(a) – 7482 J (b) 7482 J mole of methane, CH4(g), is subjected to
(c) – 2494 J (d) 2494 J combustion at 300 K? (Given R = 8.314 JK–1
MHT CET-2018 mol–1)
(a) –2494 J (b) –4988 J
Ans. (b) :
(c) +4988 J (d) +2494 J
C 2 H 5OH(l ) + 3O 2 (g) → 2CO 2 (g) + 3H 2O(l ) MHT CET-2016
Mass of ethanol Ans. (d) : The balanced chemical equation for
No. of moles of ethanol =
Molar mass of ethanol combustion reaction is,
138 CH 4 (g) + 2O 2 (g)  → CO 2 (g) + 2H 2 O (1)
= =3 When 1 mole of methane undergoes combustion
46
3C 2 H 5OH + 9O 2  → 6CO 2 + 9H 2 O ∆n = 1– (1 +2) = –2 ∴ ∆n = Negative
When 0.5 mole of methane undergo combustion
∆n = 6 – 9 = –3
∆n = –2 × 0.5 = –1
Work (W) = –∆nRT At STP ( 1 atm and 273 K) 1 mole of a gas occupies a
W = – (–3) × 8.314 × 300 volume of 22.4 L.
W = 7482 J 300K
419. Which among the following equations The Volume change (∆V) = 22.4 L× ∆n ×
represents the first law of thermodynamics 273K
under isobaric conditions? ∆V = – 24.62 L
(a) ∆U = qp – Pex.∆V (b) qv = ∆ U Work done (W) = – P∆V
(c) ∆ U = W (d) W = – q W = –1atm × (–24.62 L)
MHT CET-2018 W = + 24.6 L atm
1 L atm = 101.3 J
Ans. (a) : The internal energy change ∆U = qp + W
W = 24.62 atm × 101.3 J
At constant pressure (i.e. isobaric condition)
Hence, the amount of work done is + 2494 J.
∆U = qp + (–Pex. ∆V) (Q W = –Pex. ∆V)
423. Given: R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1, the work done
∆U = qp – Pex. ∆V during combustion of 0.090 kg of ethane (molar
420. The first law of thermodynamics for isothermal mass = 30) at 300 K is
process is (a) – 18.7 kJ (b) 18.7 kJ
(a) q = –W (b) ∆U = W (c) 6.234 kJ (d) – 6.234 kJ
(c) ∆U = qv (d) ∆U = –qv MHT CET-2015
MHT CET-2017 Ans. (b) : The combustion of C2H6 is as,
Ans. (a) : According to the first law of thermodynamics C 2 H 6 + 7 / 2O 2 → 2CO 2 + 3H 2O
∆U = q + W
For an isothermal process, ∆U = 0 Mass
No of moles of C2H6 =
Hence, q + W = 0 or Molar mass
q = –W = (0.090 kg) (.30 × 10–3 kg mol–1)
421. The work done during combustion of 9 × 10–2 Change in number of moles of gas is,
kg of ethane, C2H6 (g) at 300 K is (Given R = ∆n = Σng (produced) – Σng (reactant)
8.314 J deg–1 mol–1, atomic mass C = 12, H = 1) ∆n = 2–(1+ 7/2) = –2.5 ∴ ∆n = Negative

Now, work done (W) = – P ∆ V = ∆nRT V2
W = – ( – 2. 5 × 8.314 × 300) Ans. (b) : W = – 2.303 nRT log
V1
= 6235.5 J
As we know that, work done in an isothermal reversible
For one mole combustion, expansion is given as –
W = 6235. 5 J
16 100
For 3 moles, W = −2.303 × × 8.314 × 300log
W = 3×6235. 5 J 32 10
= 18706.5 J = 18.7 kJ = – 2872 J ≈ –2875 J
424. The work done when two mole of an ideal gas is 428. The work done during the expansion of a gas
compressed form a volume of 5 m3 to 1 dm3 at from a volume of 4 dm3 to 6 dm3 against a
300 K, under a pressure of 100 kPa is constant external pressure of 3 atm is (1 L atm
(a) 499.9 kJ (b) –499.9 kJ = 101.32 J)
(c) –99.5 kJ (d) 42495 kJ (a) –6 J (b) –608 J
MHT CET-2014 (c) +304 J (d) –304 J
UPTU/UPSEE-2007
Ans. (a) : Work done,
NEET-2004
W = −P ( V2 − V1 ) Ans. (b) : Work done during expansion of a gas is ,
P = 100kPa W = – P∆V
3 W = – P(V Final – Vinitial)
V1 = 5m
W = – 3 ( 6 – 4) × 101.32 (Q 1 dm3 = 1L)
V2 = 1dm3 = 1×10−3 m3 W = – 6 × 101.32 ≈ – 608 J
W = –100 × (10–3 – 5) = 100(0.001 –5) 429. Three moles of an ideal gas expanded
= 499.9 kJ spontaneously into vacuum. The work done
425. The pressure of a gas is 100 kPa. If it is will be
compressed from 1 m3 to 10 dm3 , find the (a) infinite (b) 3 Joules
work done. (c) 9 Joules (d) zero
(a) 990 J (b) 9990 J NEET-2010
(c) 9900 J (d) 99000 J Ans. (d) : The work done is the product of pressure and
MHT CET-2010 change in volume.
Ans. (d) : Given, P = 100 kPa W = – Pext∆V
V1 = 1 m3 Since the ideal gas expands spontaneously into vacuum,
V2 = 10 × 10–3m3 = 10–2m3
Free expansion Pext = 0 .
Workdone, W = – P dV = P (V1 – V2)
= 100 × 10 (1 – 10 )
3 –2 W = –0 × ∆V = 0
= 100 × 10 × 0.99 = 99000 J
3 Hence work done is also zero in vacuum.
426. At the same conditions of pressure, volume and 430. An ideal gas expands isothermally from 10–3 m3
temperature, work done is maximum for which to 10 m3 at 300 K against a constant pressure
–2
gas if all gases have equal masses? of 105 Nm2. The work done on the gas is
(a) NH3 (b) N2 (a) +270 kJ (b) –900 J
(c) Cl2 (d) H2S (c) +900 kJ (d) –900 kJ
MHT CET-2009 NEET-Odisha 2019
Ans. (a) : When P, V and T are same and mass is also Ans. (b) : For an isothermal irreversible expansion
small work done depends only on molecular mass. Work done (W) = –P (V2 –V1)
1 V1 = initial value
W∝ (Where, M = molecular mass) V2 = final value
M
Given, P = 100000 Nm–2
NH3 → 14 + 3 = 17 g/mole
V1 = 10–3 m3
N2 → 14 × 2 = 28 g/mole
V2 = 10–2 m3
Cl2 → 35.5 × 2 = 71 g/mole Then , W = –100000(10–2 – 10–3)
H2S → 2 + 32 = 34 g/mole
9
Among the given gases, NH3 has lowest molecular = –100000 ×
mass. So work done is maximum. 1000
427. 16 g of oxygen gas expands isothermally and = –900J
reversible at 300K from 10 dm3 to 100 dm3 the 431. A gas is allowed expand in a well insulated
work done is (in J) container against a constant external pressure
(a) zero (b) – 2875 J of 2.5 atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a
(c) + 2875 J (d) infinite final volume of 4.50 L. The change in internal
MHT CET-2009 energy ∆U of the gas in joules will be

(a) –500 J (b) –505 J 435. In which of the following changes entropy
(c) +505 J (d) 1136.25 J decreases ?
NEET-2017 (a) Crystallization of sucrose from solution
Ans. (b) : Given, P = 2.5 atm, V1 = 2.5 L, V2 = 4.5 L (b) Dissolving sucrose in water
∆V = 4.50 – 2.5 (c) Melting of ice
∆V = 2L (d) Vapourisation of camphor
For adiabatic process, UPTU/UPSEE-2018
q=0 Ans. (a) : During the crystallization of sucrose solution
The first law of thermodynamics ∆U = q + W liquid state is changing into solid state hence entropy
When q = 0 , then ∆U = W decreases.
Now W = –P∆V Gas > Liquid > Solid Entropy
∆U= –2.5 × 2L atm
∆U = –5L atm 436. 1 mole of gas occupying 3L volume is expanded
We know that 1 L atm = 101.3 J against a constant external pressure of 1 atm to
∆U = –5 × 101.3J = –506.5J ≈ –505J. a volume of 15L. The work done by a system is
equal to
432. Under isothermal conditions, a gas at 300 K
expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a constant (a) –1.215 × 103J (b) –12.15 × 103J
3
external pressure of 2 bar. The work done by (c) +1.215 × 10 J (d) +12.15 × 103J
the gas is [Given that 1 L bar = 100 J] UPTU/UPSEE-2015
(a) 30 J (b) –30 J Ans. (a) :
(c) 5 kJ (d) 25 J W = – Pext ∆V
NEET-2019 W = –1 (15 –3)
Ans. (b) : Given, WW = – 12 L atm
V1 = 0.1 L = –12 × 101.27J (Q 1L atm = 101.270J)
V2 = 0.25 L
= –1215.24 J
P = 2 bar
W = –1.215 × 103 J
∴1 L bar = 100 J
W = – Pext ∆ V 437. When 1 mole of a gas is heated at constant
volume, temperature is raised form 298 K to
= – 2 bar × (0.25 – 0.1) L
308K. Heat supplied to the gas is 500J. Then,
= – 2 × 0. 15 L bar which statement is correct?
= – 0 . 30 L bar
(a) q=–W= 500 J, ∆E=0
= – 0.30 × 100 J
= – 30 J (b) q= W= 500J, ∆E =0
433. Which of the following is the correct equation? (c) q= ∆E = 500 J, W= 0
(a) ∆U = ∆W + ∆Q (b) ∆U = ∆Q – W (d) ∆E= 0; q = W=–500 J
(c) ∆W = ∆U + ∆Q (d) None of these UPTU/UPSEE-2014
NEET-1996 Ans. (c) : We know that,
Ans. (a) : First law of thermodynamics, ∆H = ∆E + P∆V
∆U = ∆Q + ∆W From the first law of thermodynamics,
Where, ∆U = Change in internal energy ∆U = q + W
∆Q = Heat absorbed by the system W = –P∆V
∆W = Workdone by the system ∆V = 0 {Given in question}
434. Work done by 1 mole of an ideal gas for its W = –P × 0 = 0
adiabatic reversible change when temperature q = 500J
attains T2 from T1 is’ So, ∆U = q = 500 J
(a) (C P − C V )(T2 − T1 ) (b) C P ( T1 − T2 ) 438. Pressure-volume (PV) work done by an ideal
(c) C V (T2 – T1 ) (d) (C P – C V )(T1 + T2 ) gaseous system at constant volume is (where E
is internal energy of the system)
Tripura JEE-2022
(a) −∆P / P (b) zero
Ans. (c): For Adiabatic Process, (c) − V∆P (d) −∆E
q=0
WB-JEE-2013
∆U= q + W
Ans. (b) : From the first law of thermodynamics
∆U = w ∆E = q + W
nCvdT = W W = – P∆V
1×Cv(T2 – T1)= W ∴∆V= 0 since the volume is constant
C v (T2 − T1 ) = W W=0

Ans. (a) :
3. Second Law of
Thermodynamics and Entropy
439. Among the following for spontaneity of
chemical reaction there should be:
(a) decrease in entropy and increase in free
energy
(b) decrease in entropy and free energy both
(c) increase in entropy and decrease in free
energy
(d) increase in entropy and free energy both
MPPET - 2012
Ans. (c) : From Gibbs – Helmholtz equation, ∆ f H ° = S + D + I.E. + E.A + U
∆G = ∆H – T∆S − 411.2 = 108.4 + 121 + 495.6 − 348.6 + U
For a spontaneous reaction at any temperature. ∆G = –
U = −787.6kJ / mol ≈ − 788kJ / mol
ve and it is possible when ∆H = –ve and ∆S = +ve
443. A process is spontaneous at a given
Thus, for a spontaneous reaction, there must be increase
in entropy and decrease in free energy. temperature if
440. The enthalpy of vaporization of a compound is (a) ∆H = 0, ∆S < 0 (b) ∆H > 0, ∆S < 0
840 J/mole and its boiling point is 170 K. Its (c) ∆H < 0, ∆S > 0 (d) ∆H > 0, ∆S = 0
entropy of vaporization is COMEDK-2017, 2016
(a) 4.94 J/mol/K (b) 12 J/mol/K Ans. (c) : ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
(c) 200 J/mol/K (d) 49 J/mol/K A process is spontaneous if ∆G is –ve, ∆H is –ve and
∆S is positive.
Ans. (a) : Given that ∆Hvap. = 840 J/mol, TB.P = 170K
444. For the gas phase reaction,
∆H vap. 840 PCl 5 (g) PCl 3 (g) + Cl 2 (g)
We know that, ∆Svap. = = = 4.94 J/mol/K
TB.P 170 Which of the following condition are correct?
441. For an adiabatic change in a system, the (a) ∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0 (b) ∆H > 0and ∆S < 0
condition which is applicable will be (c) ∆H = 0and ∆S < 0 (d) ∆H > 0and ∆S > 0
(a) w = 0 (b) q = –w
COMEDK-2018
(c) q = w (d) q = 0
Ans. (d) : PCl5 (g)
COMEDK-2015 PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
One mole of PCl5 is dissociated into two moles of PCl3
Ans. (d) : In adiabatic system there is neither heat
exchange nor leaves the system (i.e. heat remains and Cl2 in the same phase hence, the process is
constant) endothermic i.e., ∆H > 0. Also ∆S > 0 as one mole of
∆Q = ∆U + ∆W gaseous reactant gives two moles of gaseous products
∆Q = Constant or ∆Q = 0 and randomness increases.
445. A piece of ice kept at room temperature melts
442. For one mole of NaCl(s) the lattice enthalpy is
of its own. This reaction is governed by which
law?
(a) Zeroth law of Thermodynamics
(b) Third law of Thermodynamics
(c) First law of Thermodynamics
(d) Second law of Thermodynamics
GUJCET-2008
Ans. (d) : When ice changes into water spontaneously
at room temperature, the randomness increases, so
entropy increases which is in accordance with the
second law of thermodynamics.
• The zeroth law of thermodynamics states that if two
bodies are each in thermal equilibrium with some
third body, then they are also in equilibrium with
each other.
(a) –788 kJ/mol (b) +878 kJ/mol • The third law of thermodynamics state that the
(c) +788 kJ/mol (d) –878 kJ/mol entropy of a system become constant at absolute zero
COMEDK-2015 temperature.

446. Which of the following is not an intensive So,
property? 330 × 27.3
(a) Entropy (b) Melting point ∆Sf =
273
(c) Specific gravity (d) Refractive index
TS EAMCET 05.08.2021, Shift-I = 33 JK -1
Ans. (a) : Intensive property – An intensive property 450. If S0 CH4(g) = 186.2JK–1mol–1, S0 H2O(g) =
is one that does not depend on the mass of the substance 188.7JK–1mol–1, S0 H2(g) = 130.6 JK–1mol–1 and
or system. S0 CO(g) = 197.91 JK–1mol–1, then entropy
Example– Temperature, pressure, density etc. change for CH4(g) + H2O(g)→ 3H2(g) + CO(g)
Extensive property – An extensive property is a will be :
property that depends on the amount of matter or mass (a) –214.8 JK–1mol–1 (b) 214.8 JK–1mol–1
–1 –1
in a sample. (c) –218.4 JK mol (d) 218.4 JK–1mol–1
Example– Enthalpy, entropy, internal energy etc. AMU–2006
447. Calculate the change of entropy for the process, Ans. (b) : CH4(g) + H2O(g) → 3H2(g)+ CO(g)
water (liquid) to water (vapour) involving Change entropy, ∆S = ∆S(product) – ∆S(reactant)
∆Hvap = 40850 J mol–1 at 373 K. ∆S0 = (3×130.6+197.91) – (186.2+188.7)
(a) ∆Svap = 98.5 J K–1 mol–1 = 214.81 JK–1mol–1
(b) ∆Svap = 109.52 J K–1 mol–1 451. The enthalpy of vaporization of a liquid is 35.2
(c) ∆Svap = 89 J K–1 mol–1 kJ mol–1 at 110.6°C. The entropy change for
(d) ∆Svap = 72 J K–1 mol–1 the process will be
SRMJEEE – 2015 (a) 9.18 JK–1mol–1 (b) 31.83 JK–1mol–1
–1 –1
(c) 91.76 JK mol (d) 318.3 JK–1mol–1
Ans. (b) :
AMU–2006
Given : ∆Hvap = 40850 Jmol-1
Ans. (d) : We know that,
∆Tb = 373 K
∆H vap Enthalpy of vaporisation
Now, ∆Svap = Entropy of vaporisation =
Tb Boiling point
40850 Jmol−1 ( ∆H )vap
∆Svap = ( ∆S ) vap =
373K Tb.p
∆Svap = 109.52 JK–1 mol–1 35.2
448. The temperature of K at which ∆G = 0, for a or, Entropy of vaporisation(∆S) = 110.6 J mol K
−1 −1
given reaction with ∆H = –20.5 kJ mol–1 and ∆S =0.3183 J mol–1K–1=318.3 J mol–1K–1

= –50.0 JK–1mol–1 is
452. Enthalpy change when 1g water is frozen at
(a) –410 (b) 410 0°C is :
(c) 2.44 (d) – 2.44
( ∆H fus = 1.435 kcal mol −1 )
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) - 2014
(a) 0.0797 kcal (b) –0.0797 kcal
Ans. (b) : Given, ∆G = 0, ∆H = –20.5 kJ mol–1
(c) 1.435 kcal (d) –1.435 kcal
∆S = –50JK mol
–1 –1
BCECE-2003
According to Gibb's equation–
∆G = ∆H – T∆ S Ans. (b) : Given that, (∆H) fusion = 1.435 kcal/mol
0 = –20.5×103 – T×(–50) • For 1 mole heat given 1.435 kcal
1 1
−20.5 ×103 • For water mole = 1.435 × kcal heat
T= 18 18
−50 = 0.07972 kcal
T = 410 K Since heat will be released ⇒ ∆H = –0.07972 kcal
449. What is the entropy change in JK–1 during the 453. For which of the process, ∆S is negative?
melting of 27.3 g of ice at 0o C? (Latent heat of (a) H 2 (g) → 2H(g)
fusion of ice = 330 Jg–1)
(b) N 2 (g)(1atm) → N 2 (g)(8atm)
(a) 330 (b) 12.1
(c) 3.3 (d) 33 (c) 2SO3 (g) → 2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
AP-EAMCET- (Engg.)-2011 (d) C(diamond) → C(graphite)
Ans. (d : We know that, BITSAT 2008
∆H f Ans. (b) : The higher is the pressure lower become
∆Sf =
Tf entropy. When the pressure increase on the gases
molecule kinetic energy of the particle decrease with
Given that, Latent heat of fusion of ice = 330 Jg–1 respect to the pressure. This is due to the particle comes
T = 0°C = 273K closer and intermolecular distance decreases the entropy.
Entropy is a state function that is often referred to as the 457. Which of the following does not result in an
state of disorder of a system. increase in entropy?
• H2(g) → 2H(g) entropy increases because no. of (a) Crystallisation of sucrose from a solution
atoms increases. (b) Rusting of iron
• N2(g, 1 atm) → N2(g, 8 atm) entropy decreases as (c) Conversion of ice of water
pressure increase and randomness decreases. (d) Vaporisation of camphor
• 2SO3(g) → 2SO2(g) + O2(g) entropy increases CG PET -2005
because no. of atoms increases.
Ans. (a) : In crystallization of sucrose from solution,
• C(diamond) → C(graphite) entropy increases as the the liquid is converted into solid. As result in decrease
compactness of system decreases and randomness in randomness because of which the entropy will
increases. decrease.
454. For a given reaction, ∆H = 35.5 kJ mol–1 and 458. Entropy of a perfectly crystalline solid at 0 K is
∆S = 83.6 JK–1 mol–1. The reaction is (a) positive (b) negative
spontaneous at : (Assume that ∆H and ∆S do (c) zero (d) either positive or negative
not vary with temperature)
J & K CET-(2012)
(a) T>425 K (b) All temperature
(c) T>298 K (d) T<425 K Ans. (c) : Entropy of a perfect crystalline solid at
absolute zero temperature is zero. This is the statement
BITSAT 2017
of third law of thermodynamics.
Ans. (a) : Given that
459. Entropy change in a process where 1 litre of
∆H = 35.5 kJ/mol = 35500 J/mol liquid. He is poured into ice cold water is
∆S = 83.6 J/K/mol (a) finite and positive (b) finite and negative
We know that, (c) zero (d) infinity.
∆G = ∆H – T∆S J & K CET-(2012)
For spontaneous ∆G < 0 Ans. (a) : Entropy change in a process where 1L of
∆H – T∆S < 0 liquid is poured into ice cold water is finite and negative
∆H because randomness decreases.
T>
∆S Entropy = gas > liquid > solid
35500 460. What will be the entropy change of the system
T> when expansion of 1 mole of a gas takes place
83.6
T > 425 K from 3 L to 6 L under isothermal conditions?
So, the given reaction will be spontaneous at T > 425 K. Consider, R=2 cal K–1 mol–1 and log 2=0.301.
(a) 2.84 cal K–1 (b) 1.386 cal K–1
455. Identify the correct statement for change of –1
(c) 0.37 cal K (d) 5.26 cal K–1
Gibbs energy for a system ( ∆G system ) at constant J & K CET-(2018)
temperature and pressure V 
(a) If ∆G system =0, the system has attained Ans. (b) ∆S = 2.303 n R log10  f 
 Vi 
equilibrium
∆S = 2.303 × 1 × 2 log10  
(b) If ∆G system =0, the system is still moving in a 6
particular direction 3
(c) If ∆G system =0, the process is not spontaneous = 2. 303 × 2 × 0.301
=1.386 cal K–1
(d) if ∆G system =0, the process is spontaneous 461. Pick out the wrong statement.
CG PET -2007 (a) The standard free energy of formation of
Ans. (a) : We know that, elements is zero.
(b) A process that leads to increase in free energy
∆G = ∆S – T∆S
will be spontaneous.
If (∆G)system < 0 the process is spontaneous
(c) A process accompanied by decreases in
If (∆G)system > 0 the process is non-spontaneous entropy will be non-spontaneous under
If (∆G)system = 0 the process is in equilibrium. normal conditions.
456. At 27ºC latent heat of fusion of a compound is (d) Enthalpy of combustion is always negative.
2930 J/mol, then entropy change is J & K CET-(2011)
(a) 9.77 J/mol-K (b) 10.77 J/mol-K Ans. (b) : ∆G gives a criteria for spontaneity at constant
(c) 9.07 J/mol-K (d) 0.977 J/mol-K temperature and pressure.
CG PET -2007 If ∆G < 0 = Negative
Q 2930 Then the process are spontaneous
Ans. (a) : ∆S system = rev = If ∆G > 0 = Positive
T 300
= 9.77 J / mol-K Then the process are non–spontaneous
462. The values of ∆H and ∆S for a reaction are (a) 100
respectively 30 kJ mol–1 and 100 JK–1 mol–1. (b) 50
Then the temperature above which the reaction (c) Zero
will become spontaneous is (d) different for different substances
(a) 300 K (b) 30 K J & K CET-(2005)
(c) 100 K (d) 3000C Ans. (c) : Third law of thermodynamics states that the
J & K CET-(2011) entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance at absolute
Ans. (a): Given that ∆H = 30 kJ mol–1 = 30×103 Jmol–1 zero K temperature is zero.
∆S = 100 JK–1 468. When the same quantity of heat is absorbed by
∆G = ∆H – T∆S a system at two different temperatures T1 and
For spontaneous reaction, ∆G < 0 T2, such that T1 > T2, change in entropies are
∆S1 and ∆S2 respectively. Then
∆H – T∆S < 0
( 30 × 103) – T × (100) < 0 (a) ∆S1 < ∆S2 (b) ∆S1 = ∆S2
30000 < 100 T (c) S1 > S2 (d) ∆S2 < ∆S1
300 < T Karnataka-CET-2020
T > 300 K Ans. (a) : Entropy change occur due to transfer of heat.
463. When water is cooled to its entropy ∆S = q / T [q = constant ]
(a) increases (b) decreases 1
So, ∆S ∝
(c) remains same (d) becomes zero T
J & K CET-(2010) Given , T1 >T2
Ans. (b) : When water is cooled to ice randomness or So, actual relation between the entropies will be
disorderness decreases i.e. entropy decrease. (∆S2 > ∆S1)
464. The incorrect statement among the following is 469. The enthalpy of vaporization of benzene is
(a) the entropy of the universe remains constant. +35.3 kJ/mol at its boiling point of 80oC. The
(b) heat cannot be completely converted into entropy change in the transition of vapour to
work. liquid at its boiling point is..... in Jmol–1K–1
(c) the absolute entropy of a perfectly crystalline (a) – 100 (b) + 100
solid at absolute zero temperature is zero. (c) + 342 (d) – 342
(d) the total energy of an isolated system remains Karnataka-CET-2011
constant. Ans. (a): Given that,
J & K CET-(2009) ∆Hvap. = +35.3 kJ/mol
Ans. (a) : The Entropy of Universe are increasing T = 80oC = 80 + 273 = 353 K
spontaneously, ∆Suniverse > 0 ∆H vap. +35.3
465. What are the units of entropy? Entropy, ∆Svap. = = = 0.1kJ / mol / K
T 353
(a) cal.K (b) cal.K–1
–1 ∆Svap. = 0.1 × 10 = 100 J/mol/K
3
(c) cm. K (d) cm. K
Entropy change in the transition of vapour to
J & K CET-(2006)
liquid is negative, ∆Svap. = –100 J mol–1 K–1
q rev 470. If one mole of ammonia and one mole of
Ans. (b) : Entropy, ∆S =
T hydrogen chloride are mixed in a closed
Q unit of Entropy is cal K–1 container to form ammonium chloride gas,
466. One mole of a perfect gas expands isothermally then
to ten times its original volume. The change in (a) ∆H > ∆U (zb) ∆H = ∆U
entropy is (c) ∆H < ∆U (d) there is no relationship
(a) 0.1 R (b) 2.303 R KARNATAKA-CET, 2008
(c) 10.0 R (d) 100. O R
Ans. (c): We can write the given reaction is-
J & K CET-(2004)
NH 3 (g)+ HCl(g) → NH 4 Cl(g)
Ans. (b) : Given, n = 1 mole, Vi = V, Vf = 10 V 1mol 1mol 1mol
For reversible isothermal process, ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT
V  V  ∆ng = Number of moles of product
∆S = nRln  f  = 2.303 nR log10  f 
 Vi   Vi  – number of moles of reactant
= 1 – 2 = –1
 10V 
∆S = 2.303 × R × log10   ∆H = ∆U – RT
 V  ∴ ∆H < ∆U
∆S = 2.303 R [Q log1010 = 1]
471. In the reaction; A2(g) + 3B2(g)  → 2AB3(g)
467. The entropy of crystalline substances at the standard entropies in (JK–1 mol–1) of A2(g),
absolute zero going by the third law of B2(g) and AB3(g) are respectively 190, 130 and
thermodynamics should be taken as 195 and the enthalpy change for the reaction is
–95 kJ mol–1. The temperature (in K) at which 474. The enthalpy of vaporization of a certain
the reaction attains equilibrium is (assuming liquid at its boiling point of 35°C is 24.64 kJ
both the standard entropy change and mol-1. The value of change in entropy for the
standard enthalpy change for this reaction are process is
constant over a wide range of temperature) (a) 704 JK−1 mol−1 (b) 80 JK−1 mol−1
−1 −1
(a) 500 (b) 400 (c) 24.64 JK mol (d) 7.04 JK−1 mol−1
(c) 300 (d) 600 WB-JEE-2014
(e) 700 Ans. (b): ∆S = ? (change in entropy)
Kerala-CEE-2012 Boiling point (T) = 35°C = 35 + 273 = 308K
Ans. (a): In the reaction- Enthalpy of vaporization (∆Hv) =24.64 kJ mol–1
A2(g) + 3B2 (g)  → 2AB3 ( g ) = 24.64 × 103J mol–1
Entropy change ∆ S0 = Σ S(product) – Σ S(reactant) Enthalpy of vap ( ∆H v )
Entropy of vaporization =
∆ S = 2 × S − [S + 3S ]
0 Boiling point ( T )
AB3 A2 B2
= 2 × 195 – [ 190 + 3 × 130 ] 24.64 ×103 J mol −1

∴ ∆S =
= 390 – [ 190 + 390] 308K
= –190 J K –1 mol –1 = 80 JK–1 mol–1
Given, ∆H0 = – 95 kJ mol–1
At equilibrium, ∆G0 = 0 4. Heat of Reaction
∆G0 = ∆H0 – T∆S0
0 = ∆H0 – T∆S0 475. 2.2 g of nitrous oxide (N2O)gas is cooled at a
T∆S0 = ∆H0 constant pressure of 1 atm from 310 K to 270 K
causing the compression of the gas from
∆H 0 −95 × 103 Jmol−1 95000Jmol −1 217.1mL to 167.75 mL. The change in internal
T= = =
∆S0 −190JK −1mol −1 190JK −1mol−1 energy of the process, ∆U is '-x' J. The value of
T = 500K 'x' is ____.
472. For a process, entropy change of a system is [Nearest integer]
expressed as (Given : atomic mass of N = 14 g mol-1 and of O
= 16 g mol-1 Molar heat capacity of N2O is 100
q JK-1 mol-1)
(a) H – TS (b) rev
T JEE Main-29.06.2022, Shift-II
T Ans. (195) : Given that, T1 = 310 K, T2 = 270 K
(c) (d) qrev × T ∆T = T2 – T1 = 270 – 310 = – 40K
q rev
P = 1 atm = 1 × 101.3 kPa
MHT CET-02.05.2019, SHIFT-III V1 = 217. 1mL = 217.1 × 10–6 m3
WB-JEE-2013 V2 = 167.75 mL = 167.75 × 10–6 m3
Ans. (b): Entropy is a function of the state of the system ∆V = V2 – V1 = 16.7.75 × 10–6 – 217.1 × 10–6
, so the change in entropy of a system is determined by = – 49.35 × 10–6 m3
its initial and final states. –1
Cp = 100 J K mol –1
q 2.2 1
∆Ssystem = rev (n) N2O = = = 0.5
T 44 2
Here, the system absorbs q amount of heat from ∆H = nCp ∆T = 0.5 × 100 × (– 40) = – 200 J
surrounding at temperature T. ∆H = ∆U + W = ∆U + (P ∆V)
473. The second law of thermodynamics says that in ∆V = ∆H – P∆V
a cyclic process = – 200 – 101.3 × 103 × (– 49.35 × 10–6)
(a) work cannot be converted into heat = – 200 + 4.999
(b) heat cannot be converted into work = – 197.00 J
(c) work cannot be completely converted into 476. The dissociation energy of CH4 is 360 kcal mol–
1
heat and that of ethane is 620 kcal mol–1. The bond
(d) heat cannot be completely converted into energy of C – C bond is :
work (a) 260 kcal (b) 980 kcal
WB-JEE-2009 (c) 90 kcal (d) 80 kcal
Ans. (d): According to second law of thermodynamics– CG PET-22.05.2022
• No cyclic process that converts heat entirely into Ans. (d) :
work is possible. CH4 (g) → C (g) + 2H2(g) ; ∆H = 360 kcal mol–1
• Work can never be equal to Q. So, bond dissociation energy of one C –H bond
• Some energy must always be transferred as heat to =
360
= 90 kcal/mol
the system's surrounding. 4

C2H6 (g) → 2C (g) + 3H2(g); ∆H = 320 kcal/mol 479. The enthalpy change of a reaction does not
∆H = Σ (Bond energy)R –Σ (Bond energy)P depend on
620 = [6 × (B.E)C–H + 1 × (B.E)C–C] (a) Initial and final state of the reaction
620 = 6 × 90 + (B.E)C–C (b) State of the reactants and products
(B.E)C–C = 620 – 540 = 80 kcal /mol (c) Nature of the reactants
477. What is the amount of heat liberated (in kcal). (d) Different intermediate states
When one mole of aqueous NaOH reacted with SCRA-2015
one mole of aqueous HCl solution? Ans. (d): The enthalpy change of the reaction depend
(a) 22.4 (b) 13.7 upon the initial and final state of the reaction, state of
(c) 2.303 (d) 0.693 reactant and products and nature of the reactants. It is
AP-EAMCET (Med.)-1999 not depend upon the different intermediates states.
Ans. (b) : When one mole of strong acid reacts with one 480. The bond enthalpy of H–H, Cl – Cl and H – Cl
mole of strong base, a fixed amount 13.7 kcal/mol heat are 435, 243 and 431 kJ mol–1 respectively. The
is liberated. enthalpy of formation of HCl(g) would be:
HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O, ∆Q =13.7 kcal/mole (a) 92 kJ mol–1 (b) –92 kJ mol–1
–1
478. What is the amount of heat is released when (c) 184 kJ mol (d) –184 kJ mol–1
8.17 g of Al (s) is converted to Al2O3(s) at 25°C MPPET - 2012
and 1 atm via the reaction 4 Al(s) + 3 O2 (g) → Ans. (b): For the reaction,
2 Al2O3(s)? 1 1
[For the reaction, ∆H = – 1676 kJ/mol, atomic H 2 (g) + Cl2 (g) → HCl(g)
2 2
mass of Al = 27] For reactants–
(a) 134 kJ (b) 254 kJ Bond Energy of H–H bond = 435 kJ mol–1
(c) 268 kJ (d) 1.01 × 103 kJ Bond Energy of Cl–Cl bond = 243 kJ mol–1
SCRA 2012 For products–
Ans. (b) : ∆H of = −1676kJ mol Energy of formation of H–Cl bond = 431kJ mol–1
Note that the minus sign is used here to illustrate that Thus, ∆H of the above reaction is–
the heat is being given off. 1
This value tells us that when 1 mole of aluminium ∆H = ( ∆H H2 + ∆H Cl2 ) − ∆H HCl
2
oxide is formed at standard conditions from its
1
constituent elements in their most stable form, 1676 kJ = ( 435 + 243) − 431
of heat are being given off. 2
In other words, we know that standard enthalpy change 1
for this reaction = ( 678) − 431
2
3 = 339 – 431
2Al(s) + O 2 (g) → Al2 O3 (s)
2 = – 92 kJ mol–1
is equal to 481. Consider the following reactions:
∆H of = −1676kJ C + O 2 → CO 2 ; ∆H = – 400 kJ mol –1
This implies that this reaction 2H 2 + O 2 → 2H 2O; ∆H = –570 kJ mol –1
4Al(s) + 3O 2 (g) → 2Al 2 O3 (s)
CO 2 + 2H 2O → CH 4 + 2O 2 ∆H = 890 kJ mol –1
will have
The heat of formation of methane is
∆H orxn = 2.∆H of , ∆H orxn = 3352 kJ
(a) −180 kJ mol−1 (b) −1060 kJ mol−1
So, when 2 moles of aluminium oxide are formed under
standard conditions, the reaction given off 3352 kJ of (c) −720 kJ mol−1 (d) −80 kJ mol−1
heat. (A.P.EAMCET-1994)
Use the molar mass of aluminium to calculate the Ans. (d) : Given that,
number of moles present in sample C + O 2  → CO 2 ; ∆H = −400kJ / mole ........(i)
1 mol Al
8.17 g ⋅ = 0.30282 moles Al 2H 2 + O 2 
→ 2H 2 O ; ∆H = –570 kJ/mole .......(ii)
26.98 g
According to the balanced chemical equation, the CO 2 + 2H 2 O → CH 4 + 2 O 2 ; ∆H = 890 kJ/mole .(iii)
reaction will produce Adding equation (i), (ii) and (iii) we get,
1 mol Al2 O3 C + 2H 2 → CH 4 ; ∆H = –400+ ( –570 ) + 890
0.30282 moles Al ⋅ =0.15141 moles Al2 O3
4 moles Al ∆H = −80kJ / mole.
We can say that when 8.17 g of aluminium undergo 482. Given that,
complete combustion, the reaction will give off 5
3352 kJ (i) CH 3CHO + O 2 → 2CO 2 + 2H 2O;
0.15141 moles Al2O3 ⋅ =254 kJ 2
2 moles Al 2 O3 ∆H = –1168 kJ mol –1
(ii) CH 3COOH + 2O 2 → 2CO 2 + 2H 2O Ans. (c) : Cgraphite + O 2 (g)  → CO 2 (g) + 94.05 kcal
∆H = –876 kJ mol –1 The standard enthalpy of formation or standard heat of
∆H for the reaction, formation of a compound is the change of enthalpy
1 during the formation of 1 mole of the substance from its
CH 3CHO + O 2 → CH 3COOH, is constituent elements, with all substances in their
2
−1 −1 standard states.
(a) −292 kJ mol (b) 378 kJ mol
485. The heat of combustion of CH4, C(graphite)
(c) 195 kJ mol −1 (d) −2044 kJ mol−1 and H2(g) are respectively 20 kcal, – 40 kcal
(A.P.EAMCET-1994) and –10 kcal. The heat of formation of CH4 is
Ans. (a) : Given that, (a) –40 kcal (b) + 40 kcal
5 (c) 80 kcal (d) None of these
CH 3CHO + O 2  → 2CO 2 + 2H 2 O ;
2 (A.P.EAMCET-1998)
∆H= – 1168 kJ/mole .....(i) Ans. (a) : Given,
CH3COOH + 2O 2  → 2CO 2 + 2H 2 O ; ∆H = –876 kJ/mol Heat of combustion,
or reverse the reaction:- CH 4 (g) + 2O 2  → CO 2 + 2H 2 O ; ∆H= –20 kcal .....(1)
2CO 2 + 2H 2O → CH 3COOH + 2O 2 ; ∆H =876 kJ/mole
C(graphite) + O 2  → CO 2 ; ∆H = –40 kcal .....(2)
.....(ii)
Adding both equation (i) + (ii) we get– 1
H 2 (g) + O 2  → H 2 O ; ∆H = –10 kcal .....(3)
1 2
CH 3CHO + O 2  → CH 3COOH From equation (2) + (3) – (1), we get–
2
∴ ∆H = –1168 + 876 C + 2H2 → CH4
∆H = –292kJ / mole ∆H = – 40 + 2(–10) – (–20)
= – 40 kcal
483. Calculate the heat of formation ( ∆H ) of CO (in
486. Calculate the heat of combustion (in kJ) of
kcal) from the following data. methane from the following data.
I. C( graphite ) + O 2 ( g )  → CO 2 ( g ) ; (I) C( graphite ) + 2H 2 ( g )  → CH 4 ( g ) ;
∆H = –94 kcal
∆H = –74.8 kJmol −1
1
II. CO ( g ) + O 2 ( g )  → CO 2 ( g ) ; (II) C( graphite ) + O 2 ( g )  → CO 2 ( g ) ;
2
∆H = –68 kcal ∆H = –393.5 kJmol −1
(a) –1.3 (b) –26 1
(c) –162 (d) –82 (III) H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g )  → H 2O ( l )
2
(A.P.EAMCET-2000) ∆H = –286.2 kJmol −1
Ans. (b): Given that, (a) –891.1 (b) –816.3
C ( s ) + O 2 ( g )  → CO 2 ( g ) ; ∆H = – 94 kcal ........(i) (c) –965.9 (d) –1040.7
1 (A.P.EAMCET-2002)
CO ( g ) + O 2 ( g )  → CO 2 ( g ) ; ∆H = −68 kcal Ans. (a) : Given that,
2
Reverse of the reaction is:- C( graphite ) + 2H 2 ( g )  → CH 4 ( g ) ; ∆H = −74.8kJ mol–1
1
CO 2  → CO + O 2 ; ∆H = 68 kcal .........(ii) or CH 4 ( g )  → C + 2H 2 ; ∆H=74.8 kJmol−1 .......... (i)
2
Adding the equation (i) and (ii) we get – C + O 2 ( g )  → CO 2 ( g ) ; ∆H = –393.5 kJmol−1 ...... (ii)
1 1
C + O 2  → CO ; H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → H 2 O ( l ) ; ∆H = –286.2 kJmol−1
2 2
∆H = – 94+68 .....(iii)
∆H = −26 kcal Multiply by 2 in equation (iii) we get
484. In which of the following reactions heat 2H ( g ) + O ( g )  → 2H 2 O ( l ) ; ∆H = –572.4 kJ ....(iv
2 2
liberated is known as standard heat of
formation of CO2? )
(a) 2CO ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → 2CO 2 ( g ) + 135.5 kcal Adding equation (i), (ii) and (iv), we get
CH 4 + 2O 2  → CO 2 + 2H 2O ;
(b) C( diamond ) + O 2 ( g ) → 2CO 2 ( g ) + 19.5 kcal
∆H = 74.8+ ( –393.5 ) + (−572.4)
(c) C( graphite ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) + 94.05 kcal
∆H = −891.1 kJ
(d) CH 4 ( g ) + 2O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) + 2H 2 O ( l )
487. When 10 g of methane is completely burnt in
+212.8 kcal oxygen, the heat evolved is 560 kJ. What is the
(A.P.EAMCET-1999) heat of combustion (in kJ mol -1 ) of methane?

(a) –1120 (b) – 968 1
(c) – 896 (d) – 560 H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g )  → H 2O ( g ) , ∆H = –242kJ .......(iii)
2
(A.P.EAMCET-2003) Adding equation (i), (ii) and (iii) we get
Ans. (c) :
C ( g ) + O 2 ( g )  → CO 2 ( g )
CH 4 + 2O 2  → CO 2 + 2H 2 O, ∆H = −560 kJ
10g ∴ ∆H = (131 − 282 − 242 ) kJ
−560 kJ ∆H = −393 kJ
∴ Heat of combustion of 10 g CH 4 =
10 490. Calculate enthalpy for formation of ethylene
−560 from the following data.
So, the heat of combustion of 16 gm CH4 = × 16
10 (I) C( graphite ) + O 2 ( g )  → CO 2 ( g ) ;
= −896 kJ/mole
∆H = –393.5 kJmol −1
∴ Heat of combustion = – 896 kJ/mole
1
488. Which of the following is not correct? (II) H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g )  → H 2O ( l ) ;
(a) Dissolution of NH4Cl in excess of water is an 2
endothermic process ∆H = –286.2 kJmol −1
(b) Neutralisation process is always exothermic (III) C2H4(g) +3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(l);
(c) The absolute value of enthalpy (H) can be
determined experimentally ∆H = –1410.8 kJmol −1
(d) The heat of reaction at constant volume is (a) 54.1 kJ (b) 44.8 kJ
denoted by ∆E (c) 51.4 kJ (d) 48.4 kJ
(A.P.EAMCET-2005) (A.P.EAMCET-2007)
Ans. (c) : The absolute value of enthalpy (H) cannot be Ans. (c): Given that,
determined. Only the change in enthalpy ( ∆H ) during a C ( graphite ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) ; ∆H = –393.5 kJmol −1
process can be determined. Hence, statement is false. Multiply the above equation by 2, we get,
For other options,
2C(graphite) + 2O 2 → 2CO 2 ; ∆H = –787.0 kJmol −1 ..(i)
(a) Dissolution of NH4Cl in excess of water is an
endothermic process because when NH4Cl dissolves in 1
water, the absorption of heat occurs shows the reaction H 2 ( g ) + 2 O 2 ( g )  → H 2 O ( l ) ; ∆H = – 286.2 kJmol −1
is an endothermic reaction. Hence, statement is true. Multiply the above equation by 2, we get
(b) Neutralization reaction is always exothermic
because the formation of two very strong covalent 2H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → 2H 2 O ( l ) ;
bonds between hydrogen and hydroxide ion is ∆H= –572.4 kJmol−1 …...(ii)
responsible for the neutralization reaction's exothermic
character. Hence, statement is true. and C2 H 4 ( g ) + 3O 2 ( g ) → 2CO 2 ( g ) + 2H 2 O ( l )
(d) The heat of reaction at constant volume is denoted ∆H = –1410.8 kJmol −1 .......(iii)
by ∆E because difference between the sum of internal Adding equation (i) and (ii) then subtracted by equation
energies of products and the sum of internal energies of
reactants at a given temperature and constant volume is (iii) we get–
called the heat of reaction. 2C(graphite) + 2H 2  → C 2 H 4 (g) ;
489. Calculate ∆H in kJ for the following reaction ∆Hf = – 787.0 – 572.4 – (– 1410.8)
C ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) ∆Hf = – 1359.4 + 1410.8
Given that, ∆H f = 51.4 kJmol−1
H 2O ( g ) + C ( g ) → CO ( g ) + H 2 ( g ) ; 491. The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and
∆H = +131 kJ carbon monoxide are –393.5 kJ and –283 kJ
1 mole–1 respectively. The enthalpy of formation
CO ( g ) + O 2 ( g )  → CO 2 ( g ) of carbon monoxide is :
2
∆H = –282 kJ (a) 110.5 kJ mole–1 (b) 676.5 kJ mole–1
–1
(c) –676.5 kJ mole (d) –110.5 kJ mole–1
1
H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → H 2O ( g ) ∆H = – 242 kJ MPPET-2013
2
(a) – 393 (b) + 393 Ans. (d): The balanced chemical equations for the
(c) + 655 (d) – 655 combustion of carbon and carbon mono oxide are as
(A.P.EAMCET-2008) given below.
Ans. (a) : Given that, C + O 2 → CO 2 ; ∆H = −393.5kJ …..(i)
H2O(g) + C(g) → CO(g) + H2(g), ∆H = +131 kJ .....(i) 1
CO + O 2 → CO 2 ; ∆H = −283kJ …..(ii)
1
CO ( g ) + O 2 ( g )  → CO 2 ( g ) , ∆H= –282 kJ .......(ii) 2
2 Subtract equation (ii) from equation (i).

1 495. The heat liberated when 1.89 g of benzoic acid
C + O 2 → CO; ∆H = −110.5kJ is burnt in a bomb calorimeter at 25oC
2 increases the temperature of 18.94 kg of water
Thus, the enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide per
by 0.632oC. If g the specific heat of water at
mole is –110 kJ.
25oC is 0.998 cal / (goC). then find the heat of
Hence, the correct option is (a). combustion of benzoic acid.
492. Given that N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g); (a) 881.1 kJ mol–1 (b) 771.2 kJ mol–1
∆rH° = –92 kJ, the standard molar enthalpy of (c) 981.1 kJ mol –1
(d) 871.2 kJ mol–1
formation in kJ mol–1 of NH3(g) is AP EAPCET 24.08.2021 Shift-II
(a) –92 (b) +46 AIIMS-1994
(c) +92 (d) –46
Ans. (b): Given that:-
TS-EAMCET-2016
Weight of benzoic acid = 1.89gm
Temperature of bomb colorimeter = 25°C
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g); (∆rH°) = –92 kJ
= 25 + 273
∴ The standard molar enthalpy of formation of NH3 is
= 298K
1
= ∆ r H° Mass of water (m) = 18.94 kg = 18940 gm
2 Increase in temperature (∆T) = 0.632°C
1 3 Specific heat of water (cw) = 0.998 cal/g°C
N 2 (g) + H 2 (g) → NH 3 (g);
2 2 Heat gained by water (Q) = mcw∆T
⇒ ∆ r H° =  −  = ∆ r H° = −46 kJ / mole = 18940 × 0.998 × 0.632
92
 2  = 11946.14 cal
493. The enthalpy of formation (∆Hf ) of methanol, Since,
formaldehyde and water are –239, – 116 and – 1.89 gm of acid liberates 11946.14 cal of heat.
286 kJ mol–1 respectively. The enthalpy change Therefore, heat liberated by 122gm of acid (molecular
for the oxidation of methanol to formaldehyde weight of benzoic acid)
and water in kJ is 11946.14 × 122
(a) –136 (b) –173 =
(c) 163 (d) –163 1.89
= 771126.5 cal
AP EAMCET-2017
= 771.12 kcal
Ans. (d): Given that
496. The enthalpy of formation of two compounds X
∆H f (CH3OH) = – 239 kJ/mol …….(i)
and Y are –36 kJ and –72 kJ respectively,
∆H f (HCHO) = – 116 kJ/mol …….(ii) which one of the following statement is correct?
∆H f (H 2O) = – 286 kJ/mol …….(iii) (a) Compound X is more stable than compound
Y.
2CH3OH + O2  → 2HCHO + 2H2O (b) Compound Y is more stable than compound
1 X.
∆H R = [2× eqn. (ii) + 2× eqn. (iii) – 2× eqn. (i)]
2 (c) Both compound X and Y are endothermic
1 compounds.
∴∆HR = [2 × (–116) + 2 × (–286) –2 × (–239)] (d) Both X and y are unstable.
2
1 COMEDK-2011
= [ – 232 – 572 + 478 ] Ans. (b) : X→ ∆H ot = –36kJ
2
1 Y→ ∆H ot = –72kJ
= [ – 804 + 478]
2 Here, –ve sign are indicate that energy release.
∆HR = – 163 kJ Q Less the energy more the stability.
494. Standard enthalpy (heat) of formation of liquid Q Y releases more energy (y > x).
water at 250C is around So, compound Y are more stable.
1
H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → H 2O(l) 497. The enthalpy change for reaction H2(g)
2 +Cl2 → 2HCl(g) is –194 kJ. The heat of
(a) –237 kJ/mol (b) 237 kJ/mol formation of HCl is
(c) –286 kJ/mol (d) 286 kJ/mol (a) –194 (b) +194 kJ
TS EAMCET-2017 (c) –97 kJ (d) +97 kJ
Ans. (c): The standard enthalpy of formation of liquid COMEDK-2011
water at 250C is around –286 kJ/mole. Ans. (c): H 2(g) + Cl 2(g) → 2HCl(g) ; ∆H r = –194 kJ
( )
( ∆H°f )water =  ∆H°H2O(l) − ∆H°H2 (g) + 0.5∆H°O2 (g)  Heat of formation for 1 mole of HCl
= –286 – [0 + 0.5 × 0] –194
∆H r = = –97kJ
= –286 kJ/mole 2

498. The enthalpy of neutralization of HCl and So volume of CH4(g) = 3L
NaOH is x kJ. The heat evolved when 500 mL And volume of C3H8(g) = 2L at STP
of 2 N HCl is mixed with 250 mL of 4 N NaOH 3
will be n CH4 (g) = mol
22.4
(a) x (b) x/2
2
(c) x/4 (d) 2x/3 n C3H8 (g) = mol
COMEDK-2012 22.4
So
Ans. (a) : The enthalpy of neutralization of any strong
acid with a strong base or vice-versa is always the 3 2
∆H mixture = ∆H CH4 (g) + ∆H C3H8 (g)
same. 22.4 22.4
No. of gram equivalents HCl = 3 × 890 + 2 × 2220
∆H mixture = ≈ 317 kJ
500 × 2 22.4
=1
1000 501. 100 cm3 of 0.1 M HCl and 100 cm3 of 0.1 M
No. of gram equivalents NaOH = NaOH solutions are mixed in a calorimeter. If
250 × 4 the heat liberated is “Q” kcal, the heat of
=1 neutralization ( ∆H) (in kcal) of HCl (aq) and
1000
499. Standard molar enthalpies of formation of NaOH(aq) is
CaCO3(s), CaO(s) and CO2(g) are –1206.92 kJ (a) –10Q (b) –100Q
mol–1 ,-635.09 kJ mol-1 and –393.51 kJ mol-1 (c) –1000Q (d) –Q
respectively. The ∆H r for decomposition of AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2008
CaCO3(s) is Ans. (b) : During the process, following reaction occur-
(a) 178.3 kJ mol–1 (b) –178.3 kJ mol–1 NaOH + HCl  → NaCl + H 2 O
–1
(c) 1448.5 kJ mol (d) –1448.5 kJ mol–1 ∴ When 1 mole of NaOH is neutralised by 1 mole of
COMEDK-2014 HCl then the heat liberated is Q kcal.
Ans. (a) : CaCO3 (s) → CaO(s) + CO 2 (g) Or ∆H = Q kcal
∆H or =  ∆H of (CaO) + ∆H of (CO2 )  –  ∆H of (CaCO3 )  ∴ 10 moles of NaOH are neutralised by 10 moles of
HCl.
= [ (–635.09) + (–393.51) ] – (–1206.92) Heat liberated = –10 × 10 × Q kcal = –100 Q kcal.
=178.32 kJ mol–1 502. The average S-F bond energy in kJ mol–1 of SF6
500. When 5 liters of a gas mixture of methane and is _____ (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
propane is perfectly combusted at 0°C and 1 [Given: The values of standard enthalpy of
atmosphere, 16 liters of oxygen at the same formation of SF6(g), S(g) and F(g) are-1100,
temperature and pressure is consumed. The 275 and 80 kJ mol–1 respectively.]
amount of heat released from this combustion JEE Main 26.02.2021,Shift-II
is (∆Hcomb.CH4 = 890 kJ mol–1, ∆Hcomb.(C3H8) = Ans.: Given,
2220 kJ mol–1) SF6(g) → S(g) + 6F(g)
(a) 38 (b) 317 °
(c) 477 (d) 32 ∆HSF6
= – 1100kJ / mole
KARNATAKA NEET-2013 ∆HS° (g) = 275kJ / mole
Ans. (b) : The balanced equations of combustion ∆H °F = 80kJ / mole
reactions are:
CH 4 (g) + 2O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g) + ∆H °reaction = 6 × E S− F = ∆H S° (g) + 6 × ∆H °F (g) − ∆H SF
°
6
(g)
2H 2 O(l), ∆H CH4 (g ) = 890 kJ / mol 275 + 6 × 80 + 1100

E S–F =
6
C3 H8 (g) + 5O 2 (g) → 3CO 2 (g) +
1855
4H 2 O(l), ∆H C3H8 (g) = 2220 kJ / mol ES–F = = 309.167 kJ / mole
6
Let here xL CH4 and (5 – x)L C3H8 in 5L gas mixture at ES–F ≈ 309 kJ / mole
STP
So total volume of oxygen consumed as per 503. The ionization enthalpy of Na+ formation from
–1
stoichiometry of the reaction involved will be Na(g) is 495.8 kJ mol , while the electron gain
enthalpy of Br –325.0 kJ mol–1. Given the
⇒ 2x + 5(5 − x) = 16
lattice enthalpy of NaBr is –728.4 kJ mol–1 .
⇒ 2x + 25 − 5x = 16 The energy for the formation of NaBr ionic
⇒ 3x = 9 solid is (-) ____ × 10–1 kJ mol–1.
⇒ x = 3L JEE Main 25-02-2021, Shift-I

Ans. : 5576 (a) 281.1 kJ mol–1 (b) –281.1 kJ mol–1
–1
(c) 562.2 kJmol (d) –562.2 kJ mol–1
Ans. (b): We have:-
C+O2(g) →CO2…….(i) ∆H = –393 kJ mol–1
H2 + 1/2 O2→H2O,….. (ii) ∆H = –287.3 kJ mol–1
2CO2+3H2O→C2H5OH + 3O2….(iii) ∆H = 1366.8 kJ
Given : Ionisation energy of Na+ = 495.8 kJmol–1 mol–1
Electron gain enthalpy for Br = –325 kJmol–1 Now,
Lattice enthalpy of NaBr = –728.4 kJmol–1 ∆Hr= ∑ ∆H f (product) − ∑ ∆H f (reactant)
∆H for of NaBr ionic solid = IE1 + ∆Heg + L.E
= 495.8 + (–325) + (–728.4) = ∆H f (C2H5OH) + ∆H f (O2 ) − 2∆H f (CO2 ) −3∆H f (H2O)
= 495.8 – 1053.4 (Q from (iii))
= –557.6 kJmol–1 ⇒ 1366.8 = ∆H f (C2H5OH) + 0 − 2(−393) − 3(−287.3)
= –5576 × 10–1 kJmol–1
∆H f (C2H5OH) = 1366.8 +2 (–393) + 3 (–287.3)
504. Which of the following compounds has the
highest hydration energy? = 1366.8 + (–786) – 861.9
(a) BeSO4 (b) CaSO4 = 1366.8 – 1647.9
(c) SrSO4 (d) BaSO4 = – 281.1 kJ mol–1
TS-EAMCET 09.08.2021, Shift-I 507. C3 H 6 + H 2 → C3 H 8 ∆H1 = −124kJ
Ans. (a) : Hydration energy is the energy released when C3 H 8 + 5O 2 → 3CO 2 + 4H 2 O ∆H 2 = −2027kJ
one mole of ions undergo hydration and lattice energy is
the energy released when the ions make bonds between 1
them. H 2 + O 2 → H 2 O ∆H 3 = −286kJ
2
In second group metal sulphate, BeSO4 is most water Calculate enthalpy of combustion of propene?
soluble compound among all of them because hydration (a) −1020kJ (b) −2085kJ
energy is higher than the lattice energy.
(c) −2020kJ (d) None
Note-The hydration enthalpies of BeSO4 and MgSO4
are quite high because of small size of Be2+ and Mg2+ AIIMS-27 May, 2018 (M)
ions. These hydration enthalpy values are higher than Ans. (d): We have,
their corresponding lattice enthalpies and therefore, C3 H 6 + H 2 → C3 H8 ∆H1 = –124kJ
BeSO4 and MgSO4 are highly soluble in water. C3 H8 + 5O 2 → 3CO 2 + 4H 2 O ∆H 2 = –2027kJ
505. Assertion: The enthalpy of formation of gaseous
oxygen molecules at 298 K under a pressure of 1
H 2 + O 2 → H 2 O ∆H 3 = –286kJ
one atm is zero. 2
Reason: The entropy of formation of gaseous Now, adding (i) and (ii) and subtracting with (iii) :- we
oxygen molecules under the same conditions is get
zero. 9
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the C3 H 6 + O 2  → 3CO 2 + 3H 2 O
Reason is a correct explanation of the 2
Assertion ∆H = [∆H1 + ∆H 2 − ∆H 3 ]
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but = −124 + ( −2027 ) − ( −286 )
Assertion = −2151 + 286
(c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false = −1865kJ
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false 508. The standard enthalpies of combustion of C6H6
AIIMS-1996 (l), C(graphite) and H2 (g) are respectively −3270
Ans. (c): The standard state of oxygen element is kJ mol−1, −394kJ−1 and − 286 kJ mol−1 . What is
gaseous diatomic molecule (O2). Thus, the standard the standard enthalpy of formation of C6H6 (l)
enthalpy of formation for an element in its standard in kJ mol−1?
state is zero. Entropy of formation of given elementary (a) −48 (b) +48
substances at 298 K and one atmosphere is not zero. (c) −480 (d) +480
Thus, Assertion is true Reason is false. AIIMS-2016
506. C+O2(g) →CO2…….(i) ∆H = –393 kJ mol–1 Ans. (b): Given
H2 + 1/2 O2→H2O,….. (ii) ∆H = –287.3 kJ mol–1 15
2CO2+3H2O→C2H5OH + 3O2….(iii) ∆H = (I) C6 H 6 + O 2  → 6CO 2 + 3H 2 O, ∆H = −3270 kJ
1366.8 kJ mol–1 2
mol–1
Find the standard enthalpy of formation of C2
H5OH(l) (II) C (graphite) O 2  → CO 2 . ∆H = −394 kg mol −1

1 Ans. (b) : The required reaction is
(III) H 2 + O 2  → H 2O, ∆H = −286 kJ mol −1
2 C6 H10 + H 2 → C6 H12 , ∆H1 = ? …..(i)
Multiplication eqn. (II) by 6 and eqn. (III) by 3 gives Let us write the given facts
(IV) 6C(s) + 6O 2  → 6CO 2 , ∆ = −394 × 6 kJ mol−1 1
H 2 + O2 → H 2 O
= – 2364 kJ mol–1 2
3 ∆H2 = –241kJ/mole …….(ii)
(V) 3H 2 + O 2  → 3H 2 O, ∆H = −286 × 3kJ mol−1 17
2 C6 H10 + O 2 → 6CO 2 + 5H 2 O,
= – 858 kJ mol–1 2
reverse equation (I) we get:- ∆H3 = –3800 kJ/mole …….(iii)
(VI) C6 H12 + 9O 2 → 6CO 2 + 6H 2 O,
15 ∆H4 = –3920 kJ/mole …….(iv)
6CO + 3H 2 O  → C6 H 6 + O 2 , ∆H = +3270 kJ mol−1
2 The-required-reaction (i) can be obtained by adding
Addition of (IV), (V) & (VI) Equation:- equations (ii) and (iii), and subtracting (iv) from the
6C + 3H 2  → C6 H 6 , sum of (ii) and (iii).
C6 H10 + H 2 → C6 O12
∆H = +3270 + ( – 2364 –858) = + 48 kJ mol–1
509. The molar heat capacity of water at constant ∆H1 = (∆H 2 + ∆H 3 ) − ∆H 4
pressure is 75 J K mol−1. When 1kJ of heat is = [–241 + (–3800)] – (–3920)
supplied to 100 g of water, which is free to = (–241 – 3800) – (–3920)
expand, the increase in temperature of water is = –4041 + 3920 = –121 kJ/mole
(a) 6.6 K (b) 1.2 K 512. What will be the heat of formation of methane,
(c) 2.4 K (d) 4.8 K if the heat of combustion of carbon is '−x' kJ,
AIIMS-2017 heat of formation of water is '−y'kJ and heat of
Ans. (c): Relation between heat supplied, molar heat combustion of methane is 'z' kJ?
capacity at constant volume and temperature change is (a) ( − x − y + z ) kJ (b) ( −z − x + 2y ) kJ
q = n Cp∆T, q = 1 kJ = 1000 J (c) ( − x − 2y − z ) kJ (d) ( − x − 2y + z ) kJ
mass 100
= No . of moles = n = = AIIMS-2008
molecular weight 18 Ans. (d): For given data, we have
Put this value in q = n Cp ∆T C + O 2  → CO 2 − x kJ –––––(i)
100
1000 = × 75 × ∆T 1
18 H 2 + O 2  → H 2 O − y kJ –––––(ii)
2
∆T = 2. 4 K
CH 4 + 2O 2  → CO 2 + 2H 2 O + z kJ –––––(iii)
510. Enthalpy of combustion of CH4, C2H6 and C3H8
The required equation is,
are−210.8, −368.4 and −526.2 k cal mol−1
respectively. Enthalpy of combustion of hexane C + 2H 2  → CH 4 + Q (Q = Heat formation of the
can be predicted as CH4)
(a) −840 k cal mol−1 (b) −684 k cal mol−1 By multiplying equation
−1 (i) + 2 × (ii)–––(iii) we get
(c) −1000 k cal mol (d) none of these
AIIMS-2011 C + 2H2 → CH4 + (–x –2y +z )kJ
Ans. (c): (∆Hc = Reactant – Product) Thus, heat of formation of methane is (–x –2y +z ) kJ
Enthalpy of combustion of CH4= –210.8 kJ 513. Which of the following is arranged in the
Enthalpy of combustion of C2 H6 = – 368 . 4 kJ increasing order of enthalpy of vaporisation?
Enthalpy of combustion of C3 H8 = – 526.2 kJ (a) NH3, PH3, AsH3 (b) AsH3, PH3, NH3
(c) NH3, Ash3, PH3 (d) PH3, AsH3, NH3
Q For 3 Carbon, – 526.5 kJ
AIIMS-2004
For 6 Carbon, 2× –526.2 = –1052. 4 kJ
Ans. (d): As Molecular mass increase , enthalpy of
For hexane, enthalpy of combustion can be
vaporization increases, However NH3 has exceptionally
approximated to –1000 kJ high enthalpy of vaporization due to inter molecular
511. The standard enthalpy of combustion at 25ºC hydrogen bonding,
of hydrogen, cyclohexene (C6H10) and PH3 < AsH3 < NH3
cyclohexane (C6H12) are −241, −3800 and →In hydrogen bonded molecule enthalpy of
−3920kJ/mol respectively. Calculate the heat of vaporization increases Ex :- HF, H2O, NH3
hydro-genation of cyclohexene. 514. How much energy is released when 6 moles of
(a) −111 kJ/mol (b) −121 kJ/mol octane is burnt in air ? Given ∆H of for CO2(g),
(c) −118 kJ/mol (d) −128 kJ/mol
H2O (g) and C8H18(l) respectively are −490,
AIIMS-2009 −240 and +160 J/mol.
(a) −6.2kJ (b) −37.4kJ 517. One gram sample of NH4NO3 is decomposed in
(c) −35.5kJ (d) −20.0kJ a bomb calorimeter, the temperature of the
AIIMS-2004 calorimeter increases by 6.12 K. The heat
capacity of the system is 1.23 kJ/g-deg. What is
Ans. (c): Given-
the molar heat of decomposition for NH4NO3?
C + O2 = CO2, ∆H = – 490 J/mol ––––(i)
(a) −7.53 kJ/mol (b) −398.1 kJ/mol
1 (c) −16.1 kJ/mol (d) −602 kJ/mol
H 2 + O 2 = H 2 O, ∆H = −240 J / mol –––––(ii)
2 AIIMS-2003
8C + 9 H2 = C8 H18 , ∆H = +160 J / mol –––––(iii) Ans. (d): We know that,
The given reaction of the burning of octane can be q = ms∆T
obtained by When 1g of ammonium nitrate decomposes, heat
⇒2 × (iii) – 16 (i) – 18 (ii) evolved q = 1×1.23×6.12
16C + 18H2 – 16C– 16O2 –18H2 – 9O2 When 1 mole of NH4 NO3 decomposes, heat evolved is
→ 2C8 H18 − 16CO 2 − 18H 2 O q = 1×1.23×6.12×80
2C8 H18 + 25O 2 → 16CO 2 + 18H 2 O = 602. 21 kJ/mol.
∆H = [2×160 – 16 × (– 490) – 18 × (–240)] 518. The heat of reaction for:
∆H = – 11840 J = – 11.840 kJ For 2 mole of octane C10 H 8 ( s ) + 12O 2 ( g ) → 10CO 2 ( g ) + 4H 2 O ( l )
∴ Energy released for 6 moles of octane. at constant volume is −1228.2k cal at 25ºC. The
= –11.840 × 3 = – 35. 5 kJ heat of reaction at constant pressure and same
515. ∆H of (298K) of methanol is given by the temperature is :
(a) −1228.2 k cal (b) −1229.3 k cal
chemical equation:
(c) −1232.9 k cal (d) −1242.6 k cal
1
(a) CH 4 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → CH 3OH ( g ) AIIMS-2001
2 Ans. (b): C10H8(s)+12O2(g) →10CO2(g)+4H2O(l)
(b) C ( graphite ) + 1 O 2 ( g ) + 2H 2 ( g ) → CH 3OH ( l ) ∆ng = np – nR
2
∆nq= 10–12 = –2 (∆nq<0)
1
(c) C ( diamond ) + O 2 ( g ) + 2H 2 ( g ) → CH 3OH ( l ) We known that ∆H=∆E+∆nqRT
2
∆E= –1228.2 kcal
(d) CO ( g ) + 2H 2 ( g ) → CH 3 OH ( l )
∆H= –1228.8–2×2×10–3×298
AIIMS-2005 = –1229.3 kcal
Ans. (b): Heat of formation is defined as the heat 519. The heat of combustion of yellow phosphorous
exchange when one mole of a compound is formed is –9.91kJ and of red phosphorous is –8.7kJ.
from its constituent elements at STP. The heat of transition of yellow phosphorus to
In Case of allotropes, most stable allotrope is taken into red phosphorus is:
account. Among graphite and diamond, graphite is (a) −9.91kJ (b) −8.78kJ
stable.
(c) −9.34kJ (d) −1.13kJ
Hence, heat of formation of CH3OH is represented by
AIIMS-1998
1
C (graphite) + O 2 (g) + 2H 2 (g)  → CH 3OH(l ) Ans. (d):
2
5
516. The heat of neutralisation of a strong base and P(red) + O 2 → P2 O5 ; ∆H = −8.78
a strong acid is 57 kJ. The heat released when 2
0.5 moles of HNO3 solution is added to 0.20 5
P(yellow) + O 2 → P2 O5 ; ∆H = −9.91
moles of NaOH solution, is 2
(a) 11.4kJ (b) 34.7kJ Subtracting eqn. (i) and (ii)
(c) 23.5kJ (d) 58.8kJ 5 5
AIIMS-2002 P(red) + O 2 – P(yellow) − O 2 → P2 O5 – P2 O5
2 2
Ans. (a): P (Red) – P (yellow) = O
One mole of H+ and one mole of OH– give 57 kJ. ∆H = –8.78 + 9.91 = +1.13
H+ + OH– → H 2 O + Heat P (Red)→P (yellow), ∆H = + 1.13
When 0.5 moles of H+ react with 0.2 mole of OH– P (yellow) → P (Red), ∆H = –1.13 kJ
0.2 mole of OH+ is neutralized by 0.2 mole of OH– and
520. S + O 2 → SO 2 + x kcal ......(1)
0.3 mole of H+ remain unreached.
H + + OH − → H 2 O 1
0.2mole 0.2mole
SO 2 + O 2 → SO 3 + y kcal ....(2)
2
57 × 0.2
So, Heat evolved = = 11.4 kJ The heat of formation of SO3 in the above
1 reaction is
(a) (x + y) (b) (x − y) 523. Consider the following processes
∆H (kJ/mol)
(c) ( 2x − y ) (d) ( 2x + y ) 1
AIIMS-1997 A  → B + 150
2
Ans. (a): S + O2 → SO2, ∆H1 = x k cal ......(i) 3B  → 2C + D − 125
SO2 +
1
O2 → SO3 , ∆H2 = y k cal ......(ii) E + A  → 2D + 350
2 For B + D  → E + 2C, ∆H will be
Adding eqn. (i) & (ii), (a) 525 kJ/mol (b) –175 kJ/mol
3 (c) –325 kJ/mol (d) 325 kJ/mol
S + O 2 → SO3
2 VITEEE-2012
∴ From Hess's law, Ans. (b): For B+D → E + 2C
∆H1 + ∆H2 = ∆H3 We have to multiply in eqn (i) by (2) we get:–
∴∆H3 = x + y 1
A → B, ∆H = 150 kJmol −1
521. The enthalpy change for a given reaction at 298 2
K is – x J mol–1. For the reaction to be 1
spontaneous at 298 K, the entropy change at 2 × A → 2B, ∆H = +300 kJmol−1
2
that temperature
A → 2B …….(i), ∆H = +300 kJmol −1
(a) Can be negative, but numerically greater than
x 3B + → 2C + D …….(ii), ∆H = – 125 kJmol–1
Jk −1 E + A → 2D …….(iii), ∆H = + 350 kJmol–1
298 Adding eqn. (i) and (ii) and the subtracting by (iii)
(b) Can be negative, but numerically smaller than (i) + (ii) - (iii), we have
x ∴ ∆H = [+300 – 125 – 350)]
Jk −1
298 = –175 kJ/mol–1
(c) Can not be negative
524. Heat of formation, ∆H f° of an explosive
(d) Can not be positive
compound like NCl3 is
JEE Main, 2019
(a) Positive (b) Negative
Ans. (b) : We know that, (c) Zero (d) Positive or negative
∆G = ∆H – T∆S VITEEE- 2011
For spontaneity ∆G < 0 Ans. (a) : Formation of NCl3 is endothermic process. In
so, ∆H – T∆S < 0 endothermic reaction, heat is absorbed. Hence the sign
Given, ∆H = – x cal/mol (i.e.→ – ve) of the ∆H will be positive.
Therefore, For ∆G <O, 525. Enthalpy of a compound is equal to its
∆S can be negative but the numerical value must be less (a) Heat of combustion (b) Heat of formation
x (c) Heat of reaction (d) Heat of solution
than kJ −1. VITEEE- 2010
298
Ans. (b) : Heat of formation is equal to enthalpy of a
522. The standard molar heat of formation of compound.
ethane, CO2 and water (l) are respectively –
21.1, –94.1 and –68.3 kcal. The standard molar 526. Given: 2C(s) + 2O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g);
heat of combustion of ethane will be ∆H = –787 kJ
(a) –372 kcal (b) 162 kcal 1
H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → H 2O ( l ) ; ∆H = −286 kJ
(c) –240 kcal (d) 183.5 kcal 2
VITEEE-2014 1
C2 H 2 ( g ) + 2 O 2 ( g ) → 2CO 2 ( g ) + H 2O ( l )
Ans. (a) : Given, 2
(i) 2C + 3H 2 → C2 H 6 ; ∆H = −21.1 kcal ;∆H = −1310 kJ
(ii) C + O 2 → CO 2 ; ∆H = −94.1 kcal The heat of formation of acetylene is
(a) –1802 kJ (b) +1802 kJ
1 (c) +237 kJ (d) –800 kJ
(iii) H 2 + O 2 → H 2 O; ∆H = −68.3 kcal
2 VITEEE- 2007
Now, eqn 2 × (ii) + 3 × (iii) – (i), Ans. (c) : We have to find
3
we get ⇒ C2 H 6 + O 2 → 2CO 2 + 3H 2 O 2C(s) + 2H 2 (g)  → C 2 H 2 (g), ∆H = ?
2 This is the equation for formation of acelytene
Heat of combustion of ethane 2C(s) + 2O 2 (g)  → 2CO 2 (g); ∆H = −787 kJ …..(1)
= 2(–94.1) + 3 (–68.3) – (–21.1)
= –188.2–204.9 + 21.1 1
H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 
→ H 2 O(l ); ∆H = −286kJ …..(2)
= – 372 kcal. 2

1 Ans. (c) : The heat of a formation of a substance is the
C2 H 2 (g) + 2 O 2 ( g )  → 2CO 2 (g) + H 2 O ( l ) ; enthalpy associated with one mole of a substance from
2
its elements in their standard states under standard
∆H = −1310kJ ….(3)
conditions. Cgraphite + 2H2(g)  → CH4(g)
Add eq. (1) and (2), we get –
530. Given that,
1
2C(s) + H 2 (g) + 2 O 2 (g)  → 2CO 2 (g) + H 2 O(l ); C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g); ∆H° = –x kJ mol–1
2 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g); ∆H° = –y kJ mol–1
∆H = −1073kJ ….(4) The enthalpy of formation of CO will be
Subtract eq. (3) form eq. (4), we get – y − 2x y − 2x
2C(s) + H 2 (g)  → C 2 H 2 (g); (a) (b)
3 2
∆H = +237 kJ 2x − y x−y
(c) (d)
527. Calculate ∆H (in joules) for 2 2
C(graphite) → C(diamond) from the following data, AP-EAMCET – 2016
C(graphite) + O2 (g)→ CO2(g); ∆H = – 393.5 kJ Ans. (b) : Given that,
C(diamond) + O2 (g)→ CO2(g); ∆H = – 395.4 kJ C ( s ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) , ∆Hº = − x kJ / mole ...( i )
(a) 1900 J (b) –788.9 × 103 J
(c) 190000 J (d) +788.9 × 103 J 2CO ( s ) + O 2 ( g ) → 2CO 2 ( g ) , ∆Hº = − y kJ / mole
SRMJEEE – 2014 or
1 y
Ans. (a) : CO ( s ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) , ∆Hº = − kJ / mole ...( ii )
C(graphite) + O2(g)→ CO2(g) ∆H° = – 393.5 kJ …..(i) 2 2
C(diamond) + O2(g)→ CO2(g) ∆H° = – 395.4 kJ ..... (ii) Subtracting equation (ii) from (i), we get–
We find – 1
C ( s ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO ( g )
C graphite → C diamond 2
Subtracting the equation (i) by (ii), we get –  y
∆H° = – 393.5 – (– 395.4) and ∆H = − x −  − 
 2
∆H° = 1.9 kJ
∆H° = 1900 J y
or ∆H = − x
528. Enthalpy of formation of C2H4(g), CO2(g) and 2
H2O(l) at 25°C and 1 atm pressure are 52, – y − 2x
∆H =
394 and –286 kJ/mol respectively. Enthalpy of 2
combustion of C2H4(g)is 531. Which of the following mixture of solutions
(a) +1412 kJ/mol (b) –1412 kJ/mol follow the condition ∆mixH < 0 and ∆mixV < 0?
(c) +141.25 kJ/mol (d) –141.2 kJ/mol (i) Nitric acid + Water
SRMJEEE – 2012 (ii) Acetic acid + Pyridine
Ans. (b) : Given that, ∆H°(C2H4 ) = 52 kJ/mol (iii) Ethanol + Water
∆H°(CO2 ) = – 394 kJ/mol, ∆H°( H2O ) = – 286 kJ/mol (iv) Carbon tetra chloride + Chloroform
(a) (iii) & (iv) only (b) (ii) & (iii) only
Now, following reaction occur:- (c) (i) & (iii) only (d) (i) & (ii) only
C2H4(g)+ 3O2(g)  → 2CO2(g)+ 2H2O(g) AP- EAPCET- 07-09-2021, Shift-I
Ans. (d) : Mixture of solution follow the conditions
∆ r H° = ∆ H° Product − ∆ H°reactant
∆ mix H < 0 and ∆ mix V < 0 is
(
∆ r H o = 2∆ H CO o
2
+ 2 ∆ H o
) (
H 2O − ∆ H o
C2 H 4 − )
3 ∆H o
O2 (i) Nitric acid + water
(ii) Acetic acid + Pyridine
∆ r H° =  2 × ( −394 ) + 2 × ( −286 )  − [52 − 3 × 0]
532. Heat of formation of CO and CO2 are –26.4
and –94.0 kcal/mol respectively. What is the
∆ r H° = − 788 − 572 − 52 heat of combustion of CO in k-cal?
(a) +26.4 (b) 120.6
∆ r H°= − 1412kJ / mol
(c) – 67.6 (d) 135.2
529. Which of the following equations correctly AP- EAMCET(Medical) -2010
represents the standard heat of formation
Ans. (c): Given that, ∆ f H CO = −26.4 Kcal/mol
( ∆Hof ) of methane? ∆ f H CO2 = −94.0 Kcal/mol
(a) C(diamond) + 2H2(g) = CH4(g)
(b) C(diamond) + 2H2(g) = CH4(g) 1
Now, CO + O 2  → CO 2
(c) C(graphite) + 2H2(g) = CH4(g) 2
(d) C(graphite) + 4H2(g) = CH4(g) Heat of combustion ( ∆ C H ) =∆ f H CO −  ∆ f H CO + 1 × ∆ f H O 
SRMJEEE – 2007 2
 2 2

 1  1
× BE of O2) – (2×BE of OH)
or ∆ C H = −94.0 −  −26.4 + × 0  = (BE of H2+
 2  2
or ∆ C H = −94.0 + 26.4 1 
= 433 +  × 492  − (2 × 464)
∆ C H = −67.6 kcal/mol 2 
= 433 + 246 – 928
533. Calculate the difference between ∆E and ∆H
= – 249 kJ/mol
for the following reaction at 27°C (in kcal)
C(graphite) + H2(g) → CH4(g) 536. For the reaction: S(rhombic) + O2 → SO2, ∆H = –
(a) – 0.6 (b) – 1.2 298 kJ mol–1 at 25 oC and 1 atm. Therefore, ∆H
(c) + 0.6 (d) + 1.2 for the reaction should be
AP - EAMCET (Medical) - 2007 (a) – 298 kJ mol–1
Ans. (c) : For the reaction– (b) – 298 + 8.314 × 298 kJ mol–1
C(graphite) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g) (c) – 298 – 8.314 × 298 kJ mol–1
Now, ∆H = ∆E + P∆V (d) – 298 – 2 × 8.314 × 298 kJ mol–1
or ∆H = ∆E + ∆ngRT AMU-2017
or ∆E – ∆H = –∆ngRT Ans. (a) : S(rhombic) + O2→ SO2; ∆H= –298 kJ mol–1
Given, ∆ng = 1 – 2 = –1 This is an exothermic process, heat released are 298 kJ
R = 1.987 cal/mol-K mol–1.Therefore, ∆H for this reaction should be= –298
or R ≈ 2 cal/mol-K kJ mol–
∴ ∆E – ∆ H = –(–1) × 2 × 300 cal 537. For the reaction,
∆E – ∆H = 600 cal H2F2(g)→H2(g) + F2(g); ∆E= –14.2 kcal/mole at
∆E – ∆H = +0.6 kcal 25o C. The change in enthalpy of the reaction is
534. The heat of formation of CO (g) and CO2 (g) (a) –1.36 kJ/mole (b) –13.6 kJ/mole
are ∆H = –110 and ∆H = –393 kJmol–1 (c) 1.36 kJ/mole (d) 13.6 kJ/mole
respectively. What is the heat of reaction (∆H) AMU-2015
(in kJ mol–1) for the following reaction? Ans. (b) : H2F2(g) →H2(g)+F2(g)
1
CO(g) + O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g) Q ∆H =∆E+∆ngRT
2 ∆ng = No. of mole of product – No. of mole of reactant
(a) –504 (b) –142.5
(c) –283 (d) 504 ∆ng = (1+1) –1= 1
AP-EAMCET (Engg.)-2005 ∴ ∆H= – 14.2 Kcal mol–1+1×2×10–3×298
Ans. (c) : Given that, = –14.2 + .6
∆HCO = 110 KJmol–1 = – 13.6 Kcal mol–1
∆H CO2 = −393KJmol −1 538. The heat produced on combustion of methane
is approximately
For the reaction- (a) 890 kJ per g (b) 74.2 kJ per g
1 (c) 55.6 kJ per g (d) 49.5 kJ per g
CO (g) + O 2 (g) → CO2 (g)
2 AMU-2015
Heat of reaction (∆H) = (∆Hproduct) – (∆Hreactant) Ans. (c) : CH4(g) + 2O2(g)→CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
1 Enthalpy change for a given reaction is equal to the
∆H = ∆H CO2 − (∆H CO + ∆H O2 ) (sum of standard enthalpies of formation of products)–
2
1 (Sum of standard enthalpies of formation of reactants)
or ∆H = –393 – (–110 + × 0 ) ∆H=∆Hproducts – ∆Hreactants
2
or ∆H = – 393 + 110 Q Enthalpy of CO2 = –393.5kJ/mol.
or ∆H = –283 kJmol–1 Enthalpy of H2O = –285.8 kJ/mol.
Enthalpy of CH4= –74.9 kJ/mol.
535. The enthalpy of formation of water is
[Given that the bond energies of H–H, O=O ∴ Enthalpy combustion of methane
and O–H bonds are 433 kJ/mol, 492 kJ/mol =[–393.5+2×(–285.8)]–[–74.9+2×0]
and 464 kJ/mol, respectively] = –965.1+74.9
(a) 430 kJ/mol (b) –249 kJ/mol = –890.2 kJ/mol.
(c) –461 kJ/mol (d) 215 kJ/mol 890.2
AMU-2019 = kJ / g
16
1 = –55.6kJ/g
Ans. (b) : H2(g) + O 2 (g) → H 2 O(g)
2 Here, negative sign indicate that the combustion
∆H = (BE of reactant) – (BE of product) reaction of CH4 is exothermic reaction.

539. A boy after swimming comes out from a pool (a) –7.43 (b) +3.72
covered with a film of water weighing 80g. How (c) –3.72 (d) +7.43.
much heat must be supplied to evaporate this AMU – 2008
water? ( ∆H ov = 40.79 kJ mol−1) Ans. (a) : We know that, ∆H = ∆E + ∆ngRT.
(a) 1.61 × 102 kJ (b) 1.71 × 102 kJ ∴ ∆H – ∆E = ∆ngRT
(c) 1.81 × 10 kJ
2
(d) 1.91 × 102 kJ For the reaction –
AMU-2015 2C6H6(l) + 15O2(g) → 12CO2(g) +6H2O(l)
Ans. (c) : Given that, ∴ ∆ng = no. of gaseous moles of product –
∆H ov =40.79 kJ mol–1 no. of gaseous moles of reactant .
= 12 – 15 = – 3.
80 ∴ ∆H – ∆E = ∆ngRT
No. of moles (n) =
18 = –3 × 8.314 × (273 + 25)
Heat (q) = n ∆H ov = – 7432.12 J = –7.432 kJ
80 543. The enthalpy change when 2.63 g of
= × 40.79 phosphours reacts with an excess of bromine
18 according to the equation :
= 181. 28 KJ = 1.81×102 kJ 2P(s) + 3Br2(l) → 2PBr3(g); ∆rHο = –243 kJ
540. On complete combustion, 0.246 g of an organic mol–1 will be
compound gave 0.198 g of CO2 and 0.1014 g of (Molar mass of phosphorus = 30.97 mol–1)
H2O. The ratio of carbon and hydrogen atoms (a) 103 kJ (b) 10.3 kJ
in the compound is (c) 20.6 kJ (d) 24.3 kJ
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 2 AMU – 2007
(c) 2 : 5 (d) 2 : 7
Ans. (c) :
AMU-2014
2P(s)+3Br2(l) → 2PBr3(g), ∆rHο = –243 kJ mol–1
12 0 ⋅198 × 100 Therefore, 30.97 g (1 mol) of P when reacted liberates
Ans. (c) : % of C = ×
14 0 ⋅ 246 243 kJ of energy.
= 21.95% 1 g of P when reacted will librates = 7.846 kJ
2 0 ⋅1014 ×100 2.6 g of P when reacted will librates = 7.846×2.63
% of H = × = 4.57 =20.64 kJ
18 0 ⋅ 246 Since, the enthalpy change will be20.64 kJ.
% of O= (100–21.95–4.57)
= 73.47 544. The free energy change at 300 K for
1
Mole of C=
21.95
= 1.83 2CuO(s) → Cu 2O(s) + O 2 (g) will be [Given
12 2
4.57 that ∆H = 145.6 kJ mol–1, ∆S = 0.116 kJ K–1
Mole of H= = 4.57 mol–1]
1 (a) 11.08 kJ mol–1 (b) 11.88 kJ mol–1
73.47 (c) 110.8 kJ mol –1
(d) 118.8 kJ mol–1
Mole of O= = 4.59
16 AMU–2006
Ratio= C:H = 1.83 : 4.57=2 : 5 Ans. (c) : Given that, ∆H=145.6 kJ mol–1
541. The change of energy on vaporizing 1.00 kg of ∆S = 0.116 kJ K–1 mol–1
liquid water at 0oC and 1 atm is
∵ ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
(a) 2367 kJ kg-1 (b) 333.4 kJ kg-1
(c) -333.4 kJ mol -1
(d) -2367 kJ g-1 = (145.6 – 300 × 0.116) kJ mol–1
AMU-2012 = 110.8 kJ mol–1
Ans. (c) : Enthalpy of fusion 545. Enthalpy of neutralization of all strong acids
= 6.03 kJ mol–1 at 0oC and bases has same value, because
For 18g of water enthalpy of fusion = –6.03 kJ / mole (a) Neutralization leads to the formation of a salt
and water
6.03 (b) Strong acids and bases are ionic substances
1g of water enthalpy of fusion =
18 (c) Acids always give H+ ions and bases give
for 1kg of water enthalpy of fusion OH- ions
(d) The net chemical change involves the
−6.03 × 1000 combination of H+ and OH- ions to form water
= = –333.4 kJ/kg
18 Assam CEE-2014
542. The difference between heats of formation at Ans. (a) : HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
constant pressure and constant volume for the ∆H neutralization = –13.7 k cal = – 57.2 kJ
reaction , Because when strong acids reacts with a strong base ,
2C6H6(l) + 15O2(g) → 12CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) at then there is a formation of salt and H2O and hence,
25°C in kJ is enthalpy of neutralization is same.

546. In which of the following neutralization 550. Change in enthalpy for the reaction,
reactions, the heat of neutralization is highest? 2H 2 O 2 ( l ) 
→ 2H 2 O( l ) + O 2 (g)
(a) NH4OH and H2SO4
if heat of formation of H2O2 (l) and H2O(l) are –
(b) CH3COOH and KOH 188 and –286 kJ/mol respectively is
(c) HCl and NaOH (a) –196 kJ/mol (b) + 196 kJ/mol
(d) CH3COOH and NH4OH (c) + 948 kJ/mol (d) – 948 kJ/mol
SRMJEEE-2008 Ans. (a) : 2H2O(1)→2H2O(l) + O2(g)
Ans. (c) : Heat of neutralizations maximum (i.e. ∆H = 2 ∆H H2O − 2 ∆H H2O2 + ∆H O2
approximately 13.7 kcal/mole) for the neutralization of a
strong acid and strong base if one of them is weak, then ∆H = (2×–286)–(2×–188) + 0
heat of neutralization also decreases (due to being ∆H = –196 kJ/mol.
consumed in ionization of weak electrolyte. Hence, Heat 551. ∆U o of combustion of methane is –X k J mol–1.
of neutralization of HCl and NaOH will be the highest.
The value of ∆H o is
547. The heat of neutralisation of any strong acid
and a strong base is nearly equal to : (a) = ∆U o (b) > ∆U o
(a) – 75.3 kJ (b) + 57.3 kJ (c) < ∆U o
(d) = 0
(c) –57.3 kJ (d) + 75.3 kJ BCECE-2012
BCECE-2005 Ans. (c) : CH4(g) + 2O2(g)→CO2(g)+2H2O (l)
Ans. (c) : Enthalpy of neutralization is defined as the ∆ng= (np–nr) = 1–3= –2 Q ∆ng < 0
enthalpy change when 1 mole of acid/base is completely ∆Ho=∆Uo + ∆ng RT
neutralized by base/ acid in dilute solution. = –X– 2RT ∆H<∆E
For strong acid and strong base neutralization net
chemical change is ∆H o < ∆U o
H+ (aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l) 552. From the following reactions at 298K,
o
∆rH = –57.3kJ / mol (A) CaC2 (s) + 2H 2 O( l ) → Ca(OH)2 (s)
548. Given, + C2 H 2 (g)DH 0 (kJmol −1 ) − 127.9
C(diamond) + O 2  → CO 2 ; ∆H = −395kJ 1
(B) Ca(s) + O 2 ( g ) → CaO(s) − 635.1
C(graphite) + O 2  → CO 2 ∆
; H =− 393kJ 2
The heat of formation of diamond from (C) CaO(s) + H 2O( l ) → Ca(OH)2 − 65.2
graphite is– (D) C(s) + O 2 ( s ) → CO 2 (s) − 393.5
(a) + 2.0 kJ (b) –1.5 kJ 5
(c) – 788 kJ (d) 788 kJ (E) C2 H 2 (g) + O 2 ( g ) → 2CO 2 (g)
BCECE-2011 2
+ H 2 O(e) − 1299.58
Ans. (a) : C(Diamond)+ O2→ CO2, ∆H= – 395 kJ (i) Calculate the heat of formation of CaC2(s) at
C(Graphite)+ O2→CO2, ∆H = – 393 kJ (ii) 298 K.
Heat of formation of Diamond from graphite (a) –59.82 KJ mol–1 (b) +59.82 KJ mol–1
–1
C(graphite)→ C(Diamond) (c) –190.22 KJ mol (d) +22 KJ mol–1
equation (ii) – equation (i) BCECE-2013
∆H = –393– (–395) kJ = + 2kJ Ans. (a): (A) CaC2+2H2O(l)→Ca(OH)2 (s) +C2H2(g) =
549. The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and –127.9
carbon monoxide are –393.5 and –283 kJ mol–1 1
respectively. The enthalpy of formation of (B) Ca(s)+ O2(g)→CaO(s) = – 635.1
2
carbon monoxide per mole is (C) CaO(s)+H2O(l)→Ca(OH)2 = –65.2
(a) 110.5 kJ (b) 676.5 kJ (D) C(s)+O2(s)→CO2(s) = – 393.5
(c) –675.5 kJ (d) –110.5 kJ (E) C2H2 (g)+ O2(g)→2CO2(g)+H2O = –1299.5
BCECE-2010 Multiplying in statement (D) by 2,
Ans. (d) : C + O2 → CO2, ……(i) Adding the equation (B) (C) (D) and Substracting from
∆H = –393.5 kJ mol–1 A and E
1 = –635.1+ (–65.2)+ (2×–393.5)–
CO + O 2 → CO2……(ii) (–1299.58 – 127.9)
2
∆H = – 283.0 kJ mol –1 = –635.1–65.2–787+ (1299.58+127)
Subtract equation (ii) from equation (i) = –1487.3+1427.48
= –59.82 kJ/mole.
1
C + O 2 → CO 553. ∆G o and ∆H o for a reaction at 300 K is –66.9 kJ
2 mol–1 and –41.8 kJ mol–1 respectively. ∆G o for
∆H = –395.5 – (–283) = – 110.5 kJ the same reaction at 330 K is–
(a) –25.1 kJ mol–1 (b) +25 kJ mol–1 1 1
(c) 18.7 kJ mol–1 (d) –69.4 kJ mol–1 Ans. (c) : I2 + Cl 2 (g) → ICl(g)
BCECE-2013 2 2
 1 1 1 
Ans. (d) : ∆Ho and ∆So remain constant in the given ∆H ICl =  ∆H I (S)→I (g) + ∆H I−I + ∆H Cl −Cl  − [∆H I−Cl ]
temperature range,  2 2 2
2 2 
∆G − ∆H
o o  1 1 1 
∴∆So = − =  × 62.76 + ×151.0 + × 242.3 − [211.3]
T 2 2 2 
 −66.9 + 41.8  = 16.83 kJ/mol.
= −  556. Given the following bond dissociation
 300 
–1 –1 enthalpies (kJ mol–1).
= 0.08367 kJK mol
P ≡ P − 490, P − P − 209, N ≡ N − 946, N − N − 160
∴ ∆Go =∆Ho –T∆So
= –41.8–330×0.08367 Compare the enthalpy changes for the process
= –69.4 kJ mol–1 i. 2P2 (g)  → P4 (g)
554. At 1000K, from the data ii. 2N 2 (g)  → N 4 (g)
N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g)  → 2NH 3 (g).
(a) P4 is feasible but N4 is not feasible
∆H = −123.77kJmol −1 (b) P4 is not feasible but N4 is feasible
Substance N2 H2 NH3 (c) Both P4 and N4 are feasible
P/R 3.5 3.5 4 (d) Both P4 and N4 are not feasible
Calculate the heat of formation of NH3 at 300 BCECE-2015
K. Ans. (a) : The process involves replacement of 2(x≡x)
(a) – 44.42 kJ mol–1 (b) – 88.85 kJ mol–1 units by 6(x–x) bonds in the X4 tetrahedron. Energy is
(c) + 44.42 kJ mol–1 (d) + 88.85 kJ mol–1 released when bonds are formed and thus species
BCECE-2013 formed is stable.
Ans. (a) : From Kirchhoff's equation (i) 2P2 (g)→P4(g)
∆H2 (1000K) = ∆H1 (300K) + ∆Cp (1000–300) ∆H = –6×BE(P–P)+2 ×BE(P≡P)
Here, ∆H2 (1000K) = –123.77 kJ Mol –1 = – 6×209+2×490= –274 kJ/mol feasible,
∆Cp = 2Cp(NH3 ) - [Cp(N2 ) + 3Cp(H2 ) ] (ii) 2N2(g) → N4(g)
∆ Ht=6BE(N–N)+ 2BE(N≡N)
∆Cp = 2×4R–[3.5R+3×3.5R] = –6×160+2×946
∆Cp = 8R–14R = + 932 kJ mol–1
∆Cp = – 6R Formation of N4 is endothermic, thus is not feasible.
∆Cp = – 6 × 8.314 × 10–3kJ
557. What is the enthalpy of the disproportionation
∴ –123.77 = ∆H1 (300K) – 6 × 8.314 × 10–3 × 700 of MgCl is –125 kJ/mol and the MgCl2 is –
or ∆H1 (300K) = –88.85KJ 642kJ/mol?
For two moles of NH3 (a) –767 kJ/mol (b) 767 kJ/mol
∆H1(300K ) (c) –392 kJ/mol (d) 392 kJ/mol
∴ H f (NH3 ) = BCECE-2015
2 Ans. (c) : Mg(s)+Cl2(g)→MgCl2(s)
88.85 ∆H1=–642 kJ mol–1
=–
2 1
= – 44.42 kJ mol–1 Mg(s)+ Cl2(g)→MgCl(s)
2
555. The enthalpy changes for the following ∆H2= –125 kJ mol–1
processes are listed below– 2MgCl→MgCl2+Mg
Cl 2 (g)  → 2Cl(g), 242.3kJmol −1 ⇒ ∆H=∆H1–2∆H2
I 2 (g)  → 2l(g),151.0kJmol −1 = – 642+2 ×125
= –392 kJ mol–1
ICl  → I(g) + Cl(g), 211.3kJmol −1 558. Consider the following reactions,
I 2 (s)  → I 2 (g), 62.76kJmol −1 C(s) + O 2 (g)  → CO 2 (g), ∆H = −94kcal
Given that the standard states for iodine and 2CO(g) + O 2  → 2CO 2 (g), ∆H = −135.2kcal
chlorine are I2(s) and Cl2(g), the standard
enthalpy for the formation of ICl(g) is– Then, the heat of formation of CO(g) is–
(a) –14.6 kJ mol –1
(b) –16.8 kJ mol –1 (a) 26.4 kcal (b) –26.4 kcal
–1 –1 (c) 41.2 kcal (d) –41.2 kcal
(c) +16.8 kJ mol (d) +244.8 kJ mol
BCECE-2014 BCECE-2015
Ans. (b) : 562. The heats of neutralisation of CH3COOH,
C(s) + O 2 (g) 
→ CO 2 (g).∆H = −94 kcal .....(1) HCOOH, HCN and H2S are – 13.2, –13.4, –2.9
and –3.8 k cal per equivalent respectively.
1 Arrange the acids in increasing order of acidic
CO2(g)+O2(g) → CO+ O2(g)
2 strength.
135.2 (a) HCOOH > CH 3COOH > H 2S > HCN
∆H3= = 67.6 kcal .....(3)
2 (b) CH 3COOH > HCOOH > H 2S > HCN
Q The required equation, (c) H 2S > HCOOH > CH3COOH > HCN
1
C(s)+ O2=CO(g), ∆H4=? (d) HCOOH > H 2S > CH3COOH > HCN
2
BITSAT 2014
Adding equation (1) and (3) use get–
Ans. (a) : The greater the (negative value) of heat of
1
C(s) + O2 → CO(g) neutralization, the more is the strength of the acid.
2 Hence,
∆H= –94 +67.6= – 26.4 kcal. HCOOH > CH 3COOH > H 2S > HCN
559. In the reaction
563. For the dissociation reaction,
CO 2 (g) + H 2 (g) → CO(g) + H 2O(g)
H2(g) → 2H(g), ∆H = 162 Kcal,
∆H = 40 kJ; ∆H represents : heat of atomization of H is
(a) Heat of formation (a) 81 Kcal (b) 162 Kcal
(b) Heat of combustion (c) 208 Kcal (d) 218 Kcal
(c) Heat of neutralisation BITSAT 2013
(d) Heat of reaction Ans. (a) : ∆H = ∆H (product) − ∆H (reactant)
BITSAT 2005
Ans. (d) : Heat of reaction, the amount of heat that must 162 = 2 × ∆H H − ∆H H2
be added or removed during a chemical reaction in
order to keep all of the substances present at the same ∆H H =
162
2
( )
Q ∆H H 2 = 0
temperature. The difference between enthalpy of
substances present at the end of the reaction and the ∆H H = 81Kcal
enthalpy of the substances present at the start of 564. The enthalpy of combustion of 2 moles of
reaction. Thus, the heat of reaction determined at benzene at 270C differs from the value
constant pressure is also designated the enthalpy of determined in bomb calorimeter by
reaction, represented by the symbol ∆H. (a) –2.494 kJ (b) 2.494 kJ
560. At 250C and 1 bar which of the following has a (c) –7.483 kJ (d) 7.483 kJ
0
non-zero ∆H f ? BITSAT 2013
Ans. (c) : By bomb calorimeter, we get ∆E–
(a) Br2(l) (b) C (graphite)
(c) O (g) (d) I (s) 2C6 H 6 (1) + 15O 2 (g) → 12CO 2 (g) + 6H 2 O(l )
3 2
BITSAT 2009 ∆H − ∆E = ∆n g RT
Ans. (c) : Ozone is allotropic form of oxygen and is of ∆ng = 12+6–(15+2)=1
higher energy (by 68 K Cal mol–1) than O2. = (12 – 15) × 8.314 × 300 = –7.483 kJ
Hence it can not be taken as the reference in standard 565. In which of the following reactions, standard
state.
entropy change (∆S0) is positive and standard
561. If the enthalpy of vaporization of water is 186.5 Gibb’s energy change (∆G0) decreases sharply
kJmol–1, the entropy if its vaporization will be : with increasing temperature?
(a) 0.5 kJ K–1 mol–1 (b) 1.0 kJ K–1 mol–1 1
(c) 1.5 kJ K–1 mol–1 (d) 2.0 kJ K–1 mol–1 (a) C(graphite) + O 2 (g) → CO(g)
2
BITSAT 2014
1
Ans. (a) : Given enthalpy of vaporization, (b) CO(g) + O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g)
−1 2
∆H = 186.5kJ mol 1
Boiling point of water (c) Mg(s) + O 2 (g) → MgO(s)
2
0
= 100 C = 100 + 273 = 373K 1 1 1
(d) C(graphite) + O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g)
Entropy change, 2 2 2
∆H 186.5kJ mol−1 BITSAT 2012
∆S = = Ans. (a) : Since, in the first reaction gaseous products
T 373K
are forming from solid carbon hence entropy will
∆S = 0.5 kJ mol K–1 –1
increase i.e. ∆S0 = +ve.
1 When ∆G = 0,
C(gr.) + O 2 (g) → CO(g); ∆S0 = + ve
2 0 = ∆H − T∆S
Since, ∆G0 = ∆H0 – T∆S0 ∆H 40630 J mol-1
Hence, the value of ∆G0 decrease on increasing T= = = 373.4K
temperature. ∆S 108.8J k –1 mol-l
566. Bond enthalpies of H2, X2 and HX are in the 569. To which of the following determination of
ratio 2 : 1 : 2. If enthalpy of formation of HX is heat, Hess's law is used?
– 50 kJ mol–1, the bond enthalpy of X2 is (a) Heat of chemical reaction
(a) 100 kJ mol–1 (b) 300 kJ mol–1 (b) Heat of formation
–1
(c) 200 kJ mol (d) 400 kJ mol–1 (c) Heat of bond formation
BITSAT 2012 (d) All of the above
1 1 CG PET -2008
Ans. (a) : H 2 + X 2 → HX
2 2 Ans. (d) : Hess's Law - Hess's law of heat summation
Let the bond enthalpy of X – X bond be x. states that for a chemical equation that can be written as
the sum of two or more steps, the enthalpy change for
∆H f (HX) = −50
the overall equation is the sum of enthalpy changes for
1 1 the individual steps.
−50 = ∆H H −H + ∆H X −X − ∆H H −X
2 2 570. Energy of activation of an endothermic
1 1 −x reaction is
−50 = × 2x + × x − 2x = (a) negative (b) positive
2 2 2 (c) Zero (d) Cannot be predicted
∴ x = 50 × 2 = 100 kJ mol−1 CG PET- 2011
So, Bond enthalpy of X2 is 100 kJ mol–1 Ans. (b) : In endothermic reactions, the reactants are
567. Given present at comparatively lower energy than the
Reaction Energy Change (in kJ) products, which means the products formed in the
Li(s) → Li(g) 161 reaction are less stable than the reactants. Since, the
Li(g) → Li (g)+
520 reaction moves towards a more stable molecule,
towards a less stable molecule, the overall enthalpy
1 change of the reaction is positive.
F2 (g) → F(g) 77
2 571. Which of the following relationships is correct?
F(g) + e– → F–(g) (Electron gain enthalpy) T∆Sº −∆Hº ∆Hº −T∆Sº
Li+(g) + F–(g) → LiF(s) –1047 (a) k = (b) k =
RT RT
1
Li(s) + F2 (g) → Li F(s) –617 T∆Sº −∆Hº ∆Hº −T∆Hº
2 (c) ln k = (d) ln k =
Based on data provided, the value of electron RT RT
gain enthalpy of fluorine would be : CG PET- 2011
(a) –300 kJ mol–1 (b) –350 kJ mol–1 Ans. (c) : ∆G° = –nRT lnk
(c) –328 kJ mol –1
(d) –228 kJ mol–1 ∆H°–T∆S° = –nRT lnk
BITSAT 2016 −(∆H° − T∆S°)
lnk =
Ans. (c) : Applying Hess’s Law RT
1 T ∆ S° − ∆H °
∆ f H 0 = ∆ sub H + ∆ diss H + I.E. + E.A + ∆ lattice H lnk =
2 RT
–617 = 161 + 520 + 77 + E.A. + (–1047) 5
E.A. = –617 + 289 = –328 kJ mol–1 572. C2 H 2 + O 2 → 2CO 2 + H 2 O; ∆H = −310kcal
∴ Electron affinity of fluorine = – 328 kJ mol–1 2
C + O 2 → O 2 ; ∆H = −94kcal
568. For vaporization of water at 1 atmospheric
pressure, the values of ∆H and ∆S are 40.63 1
H 2 + O 2 → H 2 O; ∆H = −68kcal
kJmol–1 and 108.8 JK–1 mol–1, respectively. The 2
temperature when Gibbs energy change (∆G) On the basis of the above equations,
for this transformation will be zero, is : ∆H f (enthalpy of formation) of C2H2 will be
(a) 293.4K (b) 273.4K
(a) −148 kcal (b) +54 kcal
(c) 393.4K (d) 373.4K
(c) −54 kcal (d) −80 kcal
BITSAT 2018
Ans. (d) : Given that, CG PET -2009
−1 Ans. (b) : Given,
∆H = 40630 J mol
5
∆S = 108.8 JK −1mol−1 C2 H 2 + O 2 → 2CO 2 + H 2 O, ∆H = −310 kcal.....(i)
2
∆G = ∆H − T ∆S C+O2→ CO2, ∆H= –94 kcal.............(ii)

1 (c) Affects the free energy change
H 2 + O 2 → H 2 O, ∆H = −68 kcal....(iii) (d) Affects the enthalpy change
2
Enthalpy of formation of C2H2 will be.... CG PET -2005
2C + H2 → C2H2 Ans. (a) : It is a substance which increases the rate of
reaction without it self undergo any change is called
Reverse equation (i) + equation (ii) × 2 + equation (iii)
= –(–310) + (–94×2)+(–68) catalyst.
= 310 – 188 – 68 Basically the role of catalyst in a reaction is to “lower
= +54 kcal the activation energy.”
573. Heat of neutralization of HCl and NaOH is 577. Consider the following reaction :
(a) −13.7 kcal (b) −13.7 J CaO(s) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s)
(c) −13.7 kJ (d) None of these The reaction is spontaneous at low temperature
because
CG PET- 2012
(a) ∆H is negative ∆S is positive
Ans. (a) : NaOH + HCl –––– NaCl + H2O
∆G is negative
∆H = –57.1 kJ/ mol.
(b) ∆H is negative ∆S is negative
As we know that heat of neutralization of a strong acid
by a strong base is heat of formation of water. ∆G is negative
Therefore, H+ + OH– → H2O (c) ∆H is positive ∆S is negative
We know that, 1 calorie = 4.184 joule ∆G is positive
−57.1 (d) ∆H is positive ∆S is positive
= = −13.7 kcal. ∆G is negative
4.184
574. For the equilibrium reaction, CG PET -2018
2SO 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) 2SO3 ( g ) + ∆H Ans. (d) : ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
For spontaneous ∆G < 0
the increase in temperature and this is possible when
(a) favours the formation of SO3
∆H = +ve
(b) favours the decomposition of SO3
∆S = +ve
(c) does not affect the equilibrium
(d) stops the reaction ∆G = –ve
At low temperature
CG PET- 2012
Ans. (b) : 578. The heat of neutralisation of hydrogen cyanide
(HCN) is –2.9 kcal mol–1. This shows that heat
2SO2(g)+O2(g)→2SO3(g)+∆H of dissociation of HCN is
If we increase the temperature the equilibrium reaction (a) + 13.7 kcal mol–1 (b) + 10.8 kcal mol–1
will shift in backword direction which mean’s (c) – 13.7 kcal mol –1
(d) – 13.7 kcal mol–1
decomposition of SO3 favours.
575. When 1 M H2SO4 is completely neutralized by CG PET -2018
NaOH, the heat liberated is 114.64 kJ. What is Ans. (b) : When a strong acid will react with a strong
the enthalpy of neutralization? base, nearly 13.7 kcal mol–1 heat comes out from the
(a) +114.64kJ (b) −114.64kJ reaction.
(c) −57.32kJ (d) +57.32 But when a weak acid ( like HCN) go for neutralization,
some heat is used up to dissociate the HCN molecules.
CG PET- 2013
∵ Given, only 2.9 kcal/mol heat is coming out, means.
Ans. (c) : Enthalpy of neutralisation: It is the change in
enthalpy that occurs, when one equivalent of an acid 13.7–2.9 = + 10.8 kcal / mole heat is used up to
and a base undergo a neutralisation to form H2O and dissociates the HCN molecules.
salt. 579. The standard enthalpy of vapourisation
H 2SO 4 + 2NaOH  → Na 2SO 4 + 2H 2 O ∆ vap Hº , for water at 100ºC is 40.66 kJ mol−1
(Sodium hydroxide)
(Sulphuric acid ) The internal energy of vapourisation of water
∆H= –114.64 kJ (∆H is (–ve) because heat is liberated) at 100ºC (in kJ mol−1 ) is (assume water vapour
2H 2 O  → −114.64 kJ to behave like an ideal gas)
(2 mole) (a) +43.76 (b) +40.66
−114.64 (c) +37.56 (d) None of these
1 H 2O  → kJ
(1 mole) 2 CG PET -2017
= –57.32 kJ Ans. (c) : Given H 2 O(l) → H 2 O(g) , ∆H = 40.6 kJ/mol
So, enthalpy of neutralization is –57.32 kJ. = 40660 J/ mol
576. What is the role of a catalyst in a catalysed R = 8.314 J/ mol.K
reaction?
Q ∆H(g) = ∆E + ∆n g RT
(a) Lowers the activation energy
(b) Increases the activation energy Where ∆ n = number of moles of gaseous species
Here ∆n = 1 ∆H = –282 kJ ....(ii)
∴ ∆E = ∆H(g) − ∆n g RT 1
H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → H 2O(g)
= 40660 − 1× 8.314 × 373 2
= 40660 − 3101.22 ∆H = –242 kJ . ...(iii)
= 37558.75J / mol = 37.56kJ / mol C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
By adding equation (i), (ii), (iii), we get–
580. In which of the following ∆E = ∆H ?
∆H = 131 + (–282) + (–242)
(a) N 2O 4 ( g ) 2NO 2 ( g ) = –393 kJ
(b) 2SO 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) 2SO3 ( g ) 583. The standard enthalpy of formation ( ∆H f° ) at
(c) H 2 ( g ) + I 2 ( g ) 2HI ( g ) 298 K for methane, CH4 (g) is –74.8 kJ mol–1.
The addition information required to
1
(d) H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) H 2O ( I ) determine the average energy for C–H bond
2 formation would be
CG PET- 2015 (a) The dissociation energy of H2 and enthalpy of
Ans. (c) : ∆H = ∆E + ∆ngRT sublimation of carbon
2HI(g) → H2(g)+I2(g) (b) Latent heat of vaporisation of methane
∆ng = 2–2 = 0 (c) The first four ionisation energies of carbon
and electron gain enthalpy of hydrogen
∆H = ∆E + 0 × RT (d) The dissociation energy of hydrogen
∆H = ∆E molecule, H2
581. What is the free energy change ∆G when 10 AIEEE-2006
moles of water at 100ºC and 1 atm pressure is
converted into steam at 100ºC and 1 atm Ans. (a) : The standard enthalpy of formation (∆H 0f ) of
pressure? a compound is defined as the enthalpy change for the
(a) 540 cal (b) −9800 cal reaction that forms 1 mole of compound from its
(c) 9800 cal (d) 0 cal elements, with all substances in their standard states.
CG PET- 2015 Carbon is found in solid state. The state of any
substance affects the enthalpy change.
Ans. (d) : H2O(l) → H2O (g) C(s) → C(g) sublimation
1atm, 100oC 1atm, 100oC
H2(g) → 2H(g) dissociation are required for C–H bond.
∆G = VdP – SdT (∵SdT = 0)
584. Consider the reaction,
nRT P N2 + 3H2  → 2NH3 carried out at constant
∆G = VdP = dP = nRT ln 2 (Q PV = nRT)
P P1
temperature and pressure. If ∆H and ∆E are
1 the enthalpy and internal energy changes for
∆G = nRT ln   = nRT × 0 = 0 the reaction, which of the following expressions
1
is true?
∆G = Zero (a) ∆H > ∆E (b) ∆H < ∆E
582. Based on the following thermochemical (c) ∆H = ∆E (d) ∆H = 0
equation AIEEE-2005
H 2O ( g ) + C ( s ) → CO ( g ) + H 2 ( g ) ;∆H = 131kJ Ans. (b) : N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3
1 It is exothermic reaction
CO ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) ;∆H = –282kJ ∆ng = 2 – 3 – 1= –2
2
1 ∴ ∆H = ∆E + ∆ng RT
H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → H 2O ( g ) ;∆H = –242kJ ∆H = ∆E + (–2) RT
2
C ( s ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) ;∆H = XkJ ∆H = ∆E – 2 RT
∆H < ∆E
the value of X will be
585. If the bond dissociation energies of XY, X2 and
(a) −393kJ (b) −655kJ Y2 (all diatomic molecules) are in the ratio of
(c) +393kJ (d) +655kJ 1:1:0.5 and ∆Hf for the formation of XY is –200
CG PET- 2010 kJ mol–1. The bond dissociation energy of X2
Ans. (a) : will be
C(s)+O2(g) → CO2(g) (a) 400 kJ mol–1 (b) 300 kJ mol–1
–1
∆H = xkJ (c) 200 kJ mol (d) None of these
H2O(g) + C(s) → CO(g) + H2(g) AIEEE-2005
∆H = 131 kJ .....(i) Ans. (d) : Formation of XY is shown as
1 X2 + Y2 → 2XY
CO(g) + O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g)
2 ∆H = [(BE)X–X + (BE)Y–Y] – [ 2 (BE)X–Y]

If (BE) Of X–Y = a kJ/mol 588. Oxidising power of chlorine in aqueous solution
Then, (BE) of (X–X) = a can be determined by the parameters indicated
below
a  1 1 
Since, (BE) of (Y –Y) = Q X + Y → XY 1
2  2  1 ∆diss HΘ
Cl 2 ( g )  → Cl ( g ) →
∆EA H Θ
2 2 2
2
2
∆Hf (X–Y) = – 200 kJ
Cl – ( g ) → Cl – ( aq )
∆hyd H Θ
 a  − a
–400 (for 2 mol XY) =  a + − 2a  = The energy involved in the conversion of
 2  2
1
a = 800 kJ Cl 2 ( g ) to Cl– (aq)
The bond dissociation energy of X2 = 800 kJ 2
(using the data, ∆diss H oCl 2 = 240 kJ mol -1
586. The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and
carbon monoxide are –393.5 and –283 kJ mol–1 ∆eg H ΘCl = –349 kJ mol -1 ,
respectively. The enthalpy of formation of
carbon monoxide per mole is ∆hyd H CΘl = –381 kJ mol -1 ) will be
(a) 110.5 kJ (b) 676.5 kJ (a) +152 kJ mol–1 (b) –610 kJ mol–1
–1
(c) –676.5 kJ (d) –110.5 kJ (c) –850 kJ mol (d) +120 kJ mol–1
AIEEE-2004 AIEEE-2008
Ans. (d) : Enthalpy of formation (∆H f ) - 0 Ans. (b) : Oxidising power of chlorine in aqueous
solution can be estimated by calculating the over all
Enthalpy changes also occur when a compound is enthalpy change of reaction.
formed from elements. 1
C + O 2 → CO 2 , ∆H = –393.5 kJ .............(i) Cl2 (g) → Cl−1 (aq)
2
1 1
CO + O 2 → CO 2 , ∆H = –283 kJ .........(ii) ∆H = ∆ diss H −Cl2 + ∆ eg H Cl– + ∆ hyd H Cl–
2 2
equation (ii) subtract from equation (i) = 240/2 + (–349) + (–381) = –610 kJ/mol
1 589. The heats of combustion of carbon and carbon
C + O 2 → CO, ∆H = –393.5–(–283) = –110.5 kJ monoxide are –393.5 and –283.5 kJ mol–1,
2
respectively. The heat of formation (in kJ) of
587. On the basis of the following thermochemical carbon monoxide per mole is
data ∆f G o H + ( aq ) = 0  (a) 676.5 (b) –676.5
H 2O ( l ) → H + ( aq ) + OH – ( aq ) ; (c) –110.5 (d) 110.5
JEE Main-2016
∆H = 57.32 kJ Ans. (c) : Enthalpy change’s also occur when a
1 compound is formed from element.
H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → H 2O ( l ) ;
2 C+O2 → CO2, ∆H = – 393.5. ....(i)
∆H = –286.02 kJ 1
CO + O 2 → CO 2 , ∆H = –283.5 ....(ii)
The value of enthalpy of formation of OH– ion 2
at 25oC is equation (ii) subtract from equation (i) -
(a) –22.88 kJ (b) –228.88 kJ 1
C + O 2 → CO ∆H =–393.5–(–283.5) = –110 kJ
(c) +228.88 kJ (d) –342.52 kJ 2
AIEEE-2009 590. For the complete combustion of ethanol,
Ans. (b) : Consider the heat of formation of H2O C2 H 5OH ( l ) + 3O 2 ( g ) → 2CO 2 ( g ) + 3H 2O ( l )
1
H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → H 2O ( l ) ; ∆H = –286.02 kJ the amount of heat produced as measured in
2 bomb calorimeter is 1364.47 kJmol–1 at 25oC.
1 Assuming ideality, the enthalpy of combustion,
∆Hr = ∆Hf (H2O,l) –∆Hf (H2,g) – ∆H f (O2 ,g) ∆CH for the reaction will be
2 [R = 8.314 JK–1mol–1]
– 286.20 = ∆Hf (H2O,l) – 0 – 0 (a) –1366.95 kJmol–1 (b) –1361.95 kJmol–1
–1
∆Hf (H2O,l) = –286.20 (c) –1460.50 kJmol (d) –1350.50 kJmol–1
[JEE Main 2014]
Now, H2O(l) → H+(aq) + OH– (aq); ∆H = 57.32 kJ
Ans. (a) : Given, ∆E = 1364.47 kJmol –1
1 T = 25oC, R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1
∆Hr = ∆Hf H+(aq)+∆Hf OH– (aq)– ∆H f (H2O,l )
2 C2H5OH(l)+3O2(g) → 2CO2+3H2O (l)
57.32 = 0 + ∆Hf OH (aq)–(–286.20)
– ∆ng = –1 Q complete combustion
∆Hf OH– (aq) = 57.32 – 286.20 = –228.88 kJ Q ∆H = ∆E + P∆V = ∆E + ∆ngRT
(Q P∆V = ∆ng RT) 594. Lattice enthalpy and enthalpy of solution of
NaCl are 788 kJ mol–1 and 4kJ mol–1,
∆H = –1364.47 +  (−1) × 
8.314
× 298  respectively. The hydration enthalpy of NaCl is
 1000  (a) −780 kJ mol-1 (b) 780 kJ mol-1
∆H = – 1366.95 kJ mol–1 (c) –784 kJ mol -1
(d) 784 kJ mol-1
591. The combustion of benzene (l) gives CO2(g) and
[JEE Main 2020, 5 Sep Shift-II]
H2O(l). Given that heat of combustion of
benzene at constant volume is –3263.9 kJ mol–1 Ans. (c) : NaCl(s) → NaCl(aq)
at 25oC; heat of combustion (in kJ mol–1) of ∆HSol. = L.E + ∆Hhyd
benzene at constant pressure will be (R = 8.314 4 = 788 + ∆Hhyd
JK–1 mol–1)
∆Hhyd = –788+4
(a) 4152.6 (b) –452.46
(c) 3260 (d) –3267.6 ∆Hhyd = –784 kJ/mol
[JEE Main 2018] 595. The standard heat of formation ( ∆ t H o298 ) of
Ans. (d) : Given, Heat of constant volume ethane (in kJ/mol), if the heat of combustion of
(∆U) = –3263.9 kJ mol–1, T = 25 oC = 273 + 25 = 298 K ethane, hydrogen and graphite are –1560, –
R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1 393.5 and –286 kJ/mol, respectively is ............
C6H6(g) + O2(g) CO2(g)+H2O(l) [JEE Main 2020, 7 Jan Shift-II]
After balancing the equation,
7
15 Ans. C2 H 6 (g) + O 2 (g) → 2CO 2 + 3H 2 O
C6 H 6 (l ) + O 2 (g) → 6CO 2 (g) + 3H 2O(l ) 2
2
Q ∆n g = 6 − 15 / 2 = −3/ 2 ∆ H = – 1560 kJ/mol....................(i)
1
∆U = –3263.9kJ/mol–1 H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → H 2O(g) ........(ii)
We know that, 2
8.314 ∆H = – 393.5 kJ/mole
∆H = ∆U + ∆ng RT = –3263.9 + (–1.5) × × 298 C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)...................(iii)
1000
∆H = – 286 kJ/mole
∆H = –3267.6 kJ/mol–1
–1 2C(s) + 3H2(g) → C2H6(g)
592. Enthalpy of sublimation of iodine is 24 cal g
at 200oC. If specific heat of I2 (s) and I2 (vap.) ∆H = equation (iii)×2+ equation (ii) × 3 + reverse
are 0.055 and 0.031 cal g–1 K–1 respectively, equation (i)
then enthalpy of sublimation of iodine at 250oC = –286 × 2 + (–393.5×3) – (–1560)
in cal g–1 is = –572 –1180.5 + 1560
(a) 2.85 (b) 5.7 ∆HC = –192.5 kJ/mole
(c) 22.8 (d) 11.4
596. The heat of combustion of ethanol into carbon
[JEE Main 2019 April Shift-1] dioxides and water is –327 kcal at constant
Ans. (c) : ∆H r,200o C = 24cal/g at 200°C pressure. The heat evolved (in cal) at constant
I2(s) I2(g) volume and 27o C (if all gases behave ideally) is
(R = 2 cal mol–1 K–1) ........
∆H r,T2 – ∆H r,T1 = ∆CP (T2–T1) [JEE Main 2020, 2 Sep Shift-II]
∆Hr,250 –∆Hr,200 = ∆CP (T2–T1) Ans. Given that, ∆H(C2H5OH)= –327 kcal.
∆Hr,250 –24 = (0.031– 0.055) × (250 – 200) ∆T = 27oC = 273+27= 300 K, R = 2 cal mol–1 K–1
∆Hr,250 = 24 – 1.2 C2H5OH(l)+3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l)
∆H 2 = 22.8 cal/g ∆ng = 2–3 = –1
593. The standard enthalpies of formation of Al203 Q ∆H = ∆E + ∆ngRT
and CaO are – 1675 kJ mol–1 and –635 kJ mol–1 ∆H = ∆E – RT
respectively. For the reaction, ∆E = ∆H + RT
3CaO + 2Al → 3Ca + Al2O 3 the standard 2
reaction enthalpy ∆rHo.................kJ. ∆E = –327 + × 300
1000
(Round off to the nearest integer).
∆E = – 326.4 Kcal = –326400 cal
[JEE Main 2021, 17 March Shift-I]
Ans. 3 CaO + 2Al → 3Ca+Al2O3 597. If enthalpy of atomisation for Br2(l) is x kJ/mol
and bond enthalpy for Br2 is y kJ/mol, the
∆H f = ∆H fP – ∆H fR
0 0 0
relation between them
= ∆H 0f(Al2O3 ) − 3 × ∆H 0f(CaO) (a) is x <y (b) does not exist
= – 1675 –3 × (–635) (c) is x > y (d) is x = y
= 230 kJ [JEE Main 2020, 9 Jan Shift-II]

Ans. (c) : Ans. (d) : Work done by Isothermal Irreversible process
for ideal gas.
W = – PextdV = – Pext (V2–V1) = – 4 (1– 5) = 16 J
For isothermal Process ∆U = 0
q = 16J
q = nC∆T [n = 1, C = 24J/mole-K]
16 = 1× 24 × ∆T
16 2
∆T = = K
Br2(l) → 2Br(g) ⇒ Br2(l)→ 2Br(g) 24 3
∆H = x kJ/mol ∆H = 2x kJ/mol 601. The internal energy change (in J) when 90 g of
Br2(g) → 2Br(g) water undergoes complete evaporation at
∆H = y kJ/mol 100oC is ...................(Given : ∆H vap for water at
Br2(l) → Br2(g) 373
∆H = (x–y) > 0 ⇒ x>y K = 41kJ/mol, R = 8.314 JK–1mol–1)
[JEE Main 2020, 5 Sep Shift-I]
598. If the standard molar enthalpy change for
combustion of graphite powder is –2.48 × Ans. H 2 O(l) 
→ H 2 O(g)
102kJmol–1, the amount of heat generated on
combustion of 1 g of graphite powder is........kJ. 90
90 gm of H2O = mol of H2O = 5 mol of H2O
(Nearest integer) 18
[JEE Main 2021, 22 July Shift-II] ∆H = ∆U + ∆n g RT
Ans. (21):- 5 × 41000 = ∆U + 1 × 8.314 × 373 × 5
∆Hc of 12 gram (1 mole) graphite = –2.48 × 102 kJ
∆U =189494.39 J
= –248
−248 602. The ionisation enthalpy of Na+ formation from
∆Hc of 1 gram graphite = Na(g) is 495.8 kJ mol–1, while the electron gain
12
enthalpy of Br is –325.0 kJmol–1. Given, the
∆Hc = –20.67 kJ/g
lattice enthalpy of NaBr is –728.4 kJmol–1. The
∆Hc ≈ – 21 kJ/g energy for the formation of NaBr ionic solid is
599. 200 mL of 0.2 M HCl is mixed with 300 mL of (–).................×10–1kJmol–1.
0.1 M NaOH. The molar heat of neutralisation [JEE Main 2021, 25 Feb., Shift-I]
of this reaction is –57.1 kJ. The increase in
temperature in oC of the system on mixing is Ans: Na(s) → Na+(g) + ∆H = 495.8
x×10–2. 1
The value of x is ............ (Nearest integer) Br2 + e − → Br − + ∆H = −325
2
[Given, specific heat of water = 4.18 J g–1 K–1 Na+(g)+Br(g) → NaBr(s) + ∆H = –728.4
Density of water = 1.00 gcm–3]
1
(Assume no volume change on mixing) Na(s) + Br2 (l ) → NaBr(s) = ∆H = ?
[JEE Main 2021, 27 Aug Shift-I] 2
Ans. Millimoles of HCl = 200 × 0.2 = 40 ∆H = 495.8 – 325 – 728.4
Millimoles of NaOH = 300 × 0.1 = 30 = – 557.6 kJ = – 5576×10–1 kJ
30 603. Enthalpy of combustion of carbon to CO2 is -
Heat released = × 57.1× 1000 =1713J 393.52 kJ/mol. The heat released upon
1000
Mass of solution = 500ml × 1g/mL = 500 g formation of 11 g of CO2 from carbon and
dioxygen is
q 1713J
∆T = = = 0.8196 K (a) 35.77 kJ (b) 98.38 kJ
m × c 500 × 4.18 (c) 1574.08 kJ (d) 393.52 kJ
∆T = 81.96 ×10 −2 K 82 ×10 −2 K J & K CET-(2012)
600. An ideal gas undergoes isothermal compression Ans. (b) : 1 mol CO2 = 44 g of CO2
from 5m3 to 1m3 against a constant external So, for 44 gm of CO2
pressure of 4 Nm–2. Heat released in this formation energy released is +393.52 kJ
process is used to increase the temperature of 1
mole of Al. If molar heat capacity of Al is 24J ∴ for 11g of CO2
mol–1 K–1, the temperature of Al increases by formation energy released
3 393.52
(a) K (b) 1K = ×11
2 44
2 196.75
(c) 2K (d) K = × 11
3 22
[JEE Main 2019, 10 Jan Shift-II] = 98.38 kJ
604. Which one of the following hydrogen halides 608. What will be the enthalpy of formation of
has the least bond dissociation enthalpy? toluene considering the data given?
(a) HF (b) HBr Bond energies of C – C = 79 kcal, C = C = 135
(c) HI (d) HCl kcal, C – H = 102 kcal, heat of atomisation
J & K CET-(2016) Of C = 156.8 kcal and heat of atomisation of H
Ans. (c) : The amount of energy required to break a = 49.5 kcal
given bond to produce two radical fragments is bond (a) – 43.4 kcal (b) 43.4 kcal
dissociation. (c) 114.6 kcal (d) –114.6 kcal
Q size of Halogen (F, Cl, Br, I) J & K CET-(2017)
As the size of halogen increases from F to I, the bond Ans. (a) : 7C(g) + 4H2(g) C7H8(g)
dissociation energy decreases. ∆H = Enthalpy of atomisation – Bond energies
605. The standard enthalpies of formation in kJ = (7 × 156.8 + 8 × 49.5) – (8 × 102 + 4 × 79+3×135)
mol–1 for CO2(g)’ H2O(l) and C2H5OH(l) are – = – 43.4 kcal
393.5, –286.0 and –278.0 respectively. The 609. What will be the molar entropy change when
standard enthalpy of combustion of C2H5OH(l) silver is heated from 227o C to 727°C?
in kJ mol–1 is Consider the molar specific heat of Ag,
(a) –923 (b) +1367 Cp = 5.3 + 0.0028 T
(c) +1923 (d) –1367 (a) 7.873 eu (b) 12.341 eu
J & K CET-(2016) (c) 3.214 eu (d) 5.074 eu
Ans. (d) : J & K CET-(2017)
C(s)+O2(g) CO2(g), ∆H = –393.5 kJ mol–1.............(i) Ans. (d) : Given,
1 T1 = 227 + 273 = 500K
H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → H 2 O(l ), ∆H = −286 kJ mol-1 ....(ii)
2 T2 = 727 + 273 = 1000 K
1 n=1
2C(s) + 3H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → C2 H 5 OH(l ) CP = 5.3 + 0.0028 T
2
∆H = –278.0 kJ mol–1........................(iii) ∆H nCP dT ( 5.3 + 0.0028T )
∆S = = = dT
C2H5OH(l)+3O2(g) 2CO2(g)+3H2O T T T
∆H = ? Integrating both the sides,
∆H combustion = (i) × 2 + 3× (ii) – (iii) T2
5.3 + 0.0028T
∆H combustion = 2 × (–393.5) + 3×(–286) – (–298) ∫ ∆S = ∫ T1
T
dT
= –1367 kJ mol–1
T2 2 T
606. The equilibrium constant Kc value for dT
= 5.3 ∫ + 0.0028 ∫ dT
equilibrium at 227°C is 1 × 1010. If the standard T1
T T1
enthalpy change for this is –97.95 KJ mol–1, the
standard entropy change in JK–1 mol–1 for this = 5.3[ln T]TT12 + 0.0028 [T]TT12
equilibrium at the same temperature is (R = 8.3
= 5.3 × [2.303log T]TT12 + 0.0028 [T]TT12
J K–1 mol–1 and 2.303 ≅ 2.3)
(a) –5 (b) +5 Substituting value of T1 = 1000 and T2 = 500,
(c) +10 (d) –10 ∆S = 5.3 × 2.303[log1000 − log 500] + 0.0028[1000 − 500]
J & K CET-(2016) ∆S = 5.3 × 2.303[3 − 2.6989] + 500 × 0.0028
Ans. (a) : ∆G = –2.303 RT log Kc ∆S = 3.6752 + 1.4 = 5.0752 eu
= –2.3 × 8.3 × 500 log (1×1010) = –95450 J
Now, ∆G = ∆H – T∆S 610. What will be the ∆H o and ∆S o values for the
–95450 = –97950 – 500 ∆S ⇒ ∆S = –5 JK–1 mol–1 given cell having Eo at 20o C and 30o C to be
0.18 V and 0.28 V respectively?
607. What should be the correct order of lattice The cell: (Pt) H2 / H+ || KCl /Hg2Cl2 / Hg
energy values of the following alkali halides? (Given: 1 F = 96500 coulombs)
LiCl, KI, KCl and NaCl
(a) KI > KCl > NaCl < LiCl (a) ∆So = 2017 JK-1 and ∆H o = 630.54 kJ
(b) NaCl > KCl > LiCl > KI (b) ∆So = – 4532 JK-1 and ∆H o = 768.73 kJ
(c) LiCl > KCl > KI > NaCl (c) ∆So = 3425 JK-1 and ∆H o = –530.75 kJ
(d) LiCl > NaCl > KCl > KI (d) ∆So = 1930 JK-1 and ∆H o = 530.75 kJ
J & K CET-(2017) J & K CET-(2017)
Ans. (d) : Lattice energy can be defined as the energy Ans. (d) :
required to convert one mole of an ionic solid into Cathode – Hg2Cl2(s) + 2e– 2Hg(l) + 2Cl(g)
gaseous ionic constituents.
Anode – 2H+ + 2e– H2, n = 2
Order of Lattice energy,
∆G° = – nFE°
LiCl > NaCl > KCl > KI = –2 × 96500 × 0.18

Δ
= – 209000 × 0.18 C2 H6 (g) +
7
O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g) + 3H 2O( l ); H = –1566 kJ
= – 39740J 2
Δ
 dE  1
∆S° = nF  H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → H 2O( l ); H = –286 KJ
 2
 dT 
(a) –437 kJ (b) 135 kJ
dE ∆E
= (c) –135 kJ (d) none of these
dt ∆T J & K CET-(2013)
0.28 − 0.18
= Ans. (c) :
10 equation (i), ∆H = –1415 KJ
= 0.01V/K
equation (ii), ∆H = –1566 KJ
Now,
∆S° = 2×96500×0.01= 1930JK–1 equation (iii), ∆H = –286 KJ
We know, C2H4(g)+H2(g) C2H6(g)
∆H° =∆G°+T∆S°
∆H° = –34740 + 293 × 1930 ∆H = ?
∆H° = 530.75 kJ ∆H = Eq. (i) + Eq. (iii) –Eq. (ii)
611. What will be the heat change at constant ∆H Value is = (–1415) + (–286) – (–1566)
volume for the reaction whose heat change at = –135 KJ
constant pressure is –560kcal at 27ºC? The 615. The standard enthalpy of formation of H2(g)
reaction is and Cl2(g) and HCl(g) are 218 kJ/mol, 121.88
C8H16+12O2 → 8CO2+8H2O kJ/mol and –93.31 kJ/mol respectively.
(Given R = 2 cal mol–1 K–1) Calculate standard enthalpy change in kJ for
(a) –558200 calories (b) 442800 calories 1 1
H 2 (g) + Cl 2 (g) → HCl(g)
(c) –561800 calories (d) 368240 calories 2 2
J & K CET-(2018) (a) +431.99 (b) –262.14
Ans. (a) : Given, (c) –431.99 (d) +247.37
∆H = –560 kcal, T = 27 + 273 = 300 K J & K CET-(2010)
R = 2 cal mol–1 K–1 Ans. (b) :
C8H16(l) + 12O2(g)→8CO2(g) + 8H2O(l)
∆ng = 8 – 12 = –4  218 121.88 
∆H = ∆E + ∆ngRT ∆H = ∑ ∆H P − ∑ ∆H R = − 93.31 −  + 
 2 2 
∆E = ∆H – ∆ngRT = –560×103 – (–4×2×300)
= − 93.31 − 169.94 = − 263.25 − 262.14 kJ
= –560×103 + 2400
= – 557600 cal –558200 cal 616. Changes in a system from an initial state to the
612. The heat of neutralisation will be highest in final state were made by a different manner
(a) HCl +NaOH that remains ∆H remains same but q changes
(b) NH4OH + H2SO4 because
(c) CH3COOH + NaOH (a) ∆H is a path function and q is a state function
(d) CH3COOH + NH4 OH (b) ∆H is a state function and q is a path function
J & K CET-(2019) (c) both ∆H and q are state functions
Ans. (a) : Strong acid and strong base has greater heat (d) both ∆H and q are path functions.
of neutralization than weak acid or weak base. J & K CET-(2010)
613. The standard enthalpy of formation of all Ans. (b) : Enthalpy change- ∆H is a State function,
elements in their standard state is depends only upon the initial and final states not upon
(a) zero (b) unity the path followed.
(c) Less than zero (d) more than zero 617. The standard enthalpies of formation of A
J & K CET-(2019) (NH3), B (CO2), C (HI) and D (SO2) are
Ans. (a) : The standard enthalpy of formation of a respectively –46.19, –393.4, + 24.94 and –296.9
substance is the enthalpy change that occurs when 1 kJ mol–1.
mole of the substance is formed from its constituent The increasing order of their stability is
elements in their standard states. (a) B < D < A < C (b) C < A < D < B
Enthalpies of all elements in their standard state are (c) D < B < C < A (d) A < C < D < B
zero.
J & K CET-(2009)
614. Calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction
Ans. (b) : Lower the value of standard enthalpy of
C2H4(s) + H2(g) →C2H6(g)
formation, higher the stability. The increasing order of
Δ
using the data given below : standard enthalpies formation of given molecule is
C2H4(g) + 3O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l); H = –
1415 kJ C<A<D<B

618. In which of the following pairs the enthalpy of 1
neutralization is less than or more than the Ans. (a) : CO (g) + O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g)
standard value? 2
(a) HNO3 and NaOH (b) HCl and NaOH  1 1
∆n g = (1) − 1 +  = −
(c) HCN and NaOH (d) H2SO4 and NaOH  2 2
J & K CET-(2010) ∆H = ∆E + ∆ngRT
Ans. (c) : The enthalpy of neutralization of strong base 1
and strong acid always highest. However, if either the ∆H = –67710 − × 2 × 290
weak acid (like HCN) or the weak base some of the 2
energy is utilised to ionise the acid/base. = –68000 cal.
So, enthalpy of neutralization is less or more then 622. In which of the following reactions, the heat
standard value. liberated is known as “heat of combustion”?
619. When 400 mL of 0.2 n solution of a weak acid is (a) H +(aq) + OH – (aq) → H 2 O(l ) + heat
neutralized by a dilute aqueous solution of
sodium hydroxide under standard conditions, 1
(b) C(graphite) + O 2(g)  → CO (g) + heat
4.4kJ amount of heat is liberated. Therefore, 2
the standard enthalpy of neutralization of this (c) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) + heat
weak acid in kJ equiv–1 is (d) H2 SO4(aq) + H2O (l) → H2SO4(aq) + heat
(a) –11 (b) –44 J & K CET-(2006)
(c) –55 (d) –22 Ans. (c) : Amount of Heat Absorbed or evolved when 1
J & K CET-(2009) mole substance is completely oxidised are called Heat
Ans. (c) ∴ Milliequivalents of weak acid = 400 × 0.2 combustion
= 80 milliequivalents ∆HC Exothermic Process
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) + H
Δ
Equivalents of the acid = 0.08 equivalent
∴ Since, heat evolved when 0.08 equivalent of acid is 623. Calculate H (in joules) for C (graphite) →
ΔΔ
neutralized = 4.4 kJ C (diamond), from the following data
∴ The heat evolved, when 1 equivalent is neutralized, C (graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g); H = –393.5 kJ.
when 1 equivalent is neutralized C (diamond) + O2(g) → CO2(g); H = –395.5 kJ.
4.4 × 1 (a) 1900 (b) –788.9 × 103
= = 55 kJ equiv -1
0.08 (c) 190000 (d) +788.9 × 103
620. Which one of the following is always not J & K CET-(2006)
negative? Ans. (a) : According to Hess' law,
(a) Enthalpy of combustion Cgraphite + O 2 (g) 
→ CO 2 , ∆H = −393.5 kJ / mol
(b) Enthalpy of formation
CO 2 (g) 
→ Cdiamond + O 2 (g), ∆H = + 395.4 kJ / mol
(c) Enthalpy of neutralisation
(d) Lattice enthalpy Cgraphite 
→ C diamond , ∆H = − 393.5 + 395.4 = 1.9 kJ / mol
J & K CET-(2009) =1900 J / mol
Ans. (b) :
(a) Enthalpy of Combustion 624. 1 mole of H2SO4 is mixed with 2 moles of
NaOH. The heat evolved will be
Combustion is an Energy librating
(a) 57.3 kJ (b) 2 × 57.3 kJ
Process So, ∆HC = –Ve (c) 57.3/2 kJ (d) cannot be predicted
(b) Enthalpy of formation are J & K CET-(2004)
Not Always Negative
Ans. (b) 1 mole of H2SO4 completely neutralised by 2
∆H 0f = + Ve mole of NaOH
(c) Enthalpy of Neutralization this is an As we know,
Exothermic Process Gram equivalent = No. of moles x Valency factor
∆Hn = –Ve Valency factor of H2SO4 = 2
(d) Lattice Energy Heat evolved in the neutralization of 1gm eg. of strong
Energy librating Process acid =57.3 kJ
∆H = –Ve Heat evolved in neutralization of 2 gm
eg. of strong acid = (57.3 × 2) kJ
621. Heat of combustion of carbon monoxide at
constant volume and at 170C is – 67,710 625. The enthalpy of vapourisation of liquid water
calories. The heat of combustion at constant using the data
pressure is 1
H 2 (g) + O 2(g) → H 2 O( l ) ;∆H = –285.77kJ/mole
(a) –68,000 calories (b) –67,800 calories 2
(c) 67,050 calories (d) + 68,500 calories 1
H2 (g) + O2(g) → H2O(g) ;∆H = –241.84kJ/mole
J & K CET-(2007) 2

(a) +43.93 kJ/mol (b) –43.93 kJ/mol Ans. (d) : Hess’s Law for constant Heat summation.
(c) 527.61 kJ/mol (d) –527.61 kJ/mol The standard enthalpy of a reaction, which takes place
J & K CET-(2003) in several steps, is the sum of the standard enthalpies of
Ans. (a) : intermediate reactions into which the overall reactions
1 may be divided at the same temperature.
H 2 O(1) → H 2 (g) + O 2 (g); ∆H = 285.77 kJ ∆H = ∆H1 + ∆H 2 + ∆H 3
2
1 630. If the enthalpy change for the reaction is
H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → H 2 O(g); ∆H = − 241.84 kJ
2 2NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g) is 92 kJ mol–1 the
H2O (l) H2O(g); enthalpy of formation of ammonia is
∆H = (285.77–241.84) kJ = + 43.93 kJ mol–1 (a) –23.0 kJ mol–1 (b) –46 kJ mol–1
Δ
–1
626. Enthalpy of NH3 is –46 kJ mol , H for the–1 (c) –92.0 kJ mol (d) 46 kJ mol–1
reaction: 2NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g) is J & K CET-(2001)
(a) 46 kJ (b) 92 kJ Ans. (b) : Enthalpy of reaction (∆rH°) = –92 kJ mol–1
(c) –92 kJ (d) –23 kJ N2(g) + H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
J & K CET-(2002) Hence, Standard enthalpy of NH3 is equal to the
Ans. (b) : 1
1 3 ∆ r H°
N 2 (g) + H 2 (g) → NH 3 (g) 2
2 2 ∆rH° = 92 kJ mol–1
∆H = –46.0 KJ/mol −92
Multiply above equation with 2, Q Standard enthalpy of NH3 = = −46 kJ mol −1
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) 2
∆H = –46.0×2 631. The heat of solution depends upon
= –92.0 KJ/mol (a) nature of solute
Reverse above equation (b) nature of solvent
2 NH3(g) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) (c) concentration of the solution
∆H = +92.0 KJ/mol (d) all of these
The enthalpy change for the reaction, J & K CET-(2001)
2 NH3(g) N2(g) + 3H2(g) is 92.0 KJ mol–1 Ans. (d) : Heat of solution depend on the following
627. The factor which does not affect the heat of factor.
reaction is (a) Nature of solute particle
(a) physical state of the reactants and products (b) Nature of solvent
(b) temperature of the reaction (c) Concentration of the solution
(c) whether the reaction is carried out in an open 632. The enthalpy of neutralization of NaOH with
vessel or a closed vessel acetic acid is 55 kJ and with HCl is 57.1 kJ.
(d) whether the reaction is carried out directly or This happens because
indirectly (a) some heat is required for complete ionization
J & K CET-(2002) of acetic acid
Ans. (d) : Heat of reaction does not depend upon (b) acetic acid is an organic acid
whether the reaction is carried out directly or indirectly, (c) acetic acid is less soluble in water
Heat of reaction, the amount of heat that must be added
or removed during a chemical reaction in order to keep (d) acetic acid is a weak acid and required lesser
all of the substances present at the same temperature. alkali
628. The change in heat energy of a chemical J & K CET-(2001)
reaction at constant temperature and pressure Ans. (a): The enthalpy of neutralization of NaOH with
is called CH3COOH is 55 kJ and with HCL is 57.1 kJ. This is
(a) enthalpy (b) free energy due to that weak acid is not completely dissociated
(c) internal energy (d) bond energy Hence, some of heat is utilized for complete ionization
J & K CET-(2000) of weak acid. i.e. CH3COOH
Ans. (a) : Enthalpy is the heat change in a chemical 633. Lattice and hydration energies of NaCl are
reaction at constant temperature and pressure. +777.8 kJ mol-1 and -774.1 kJ mol-1
Enthalpy is the sum of the internal energy and pressure respectively. Heat of solution of NaCl will be
times volume. (a) 1551.9 kJ mol–1 (b) –1519 kJ mol–1
–1
H = E + PV (c) –37 kJ mol (d) +3.7 kJ mol–1
629. Hess’s law is used for the determination of J & K CET-(1999)
(a) heat of formation (b) heat of reaction Ans. (d) Heat of solution = Hydration energy + lattice
(c) heat of transition (d) all of these energy
J & K CET-(2000) = +777.8 – 774.1 = +3.7 kJ mol-1
634. The equation for the complete combustion of 637. The heat of combustion of cyclohexane at 250C
propane, C3H8 is and constant pressure is 3919.9 kJ mol–1. The
C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g) reaction is
Δ
What is the maximum mass of carbon dioxide C6H12(l) + 9O2(g) → 6H2O. (l) + 6CO2 (g), What
formed when a mixture of 0.50 mole of propane is the best value of E for this reaction at 250C
and 3.0 mole oxygen are ignited? and at constant volume?
(a) 22.0 g (b) 29.3 g (a) 3912.45 kJ (b) 3927.33 kJ
(c) 44.0 g (d) 66.0 g (c) 3924.88 kJ (d) –3424.76 kJ
J & K CET-(1997) J & K CET-(1997)
Ans. (d) : Solution : -
Ans. (b) : Given:- ∆H = 3919.9 kJ mol-1
C3H8(g) + 5O2(g)  → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)
∆H = ∆E + ∆n g RT ..........(i)
1 mole 5 mole 3 mole
44g 160g 132g Q ∆n g = 6 − 9
Q 1 mole propane gives 132g CO2 ∆n g = − 3
∴ 0.50 mole propane gives 132 × 0.50 = 66.0g CO2
Form equation (i)
635. Equal volumes of molar hydrochloric acid and
sulphuric acid are neutralized by dilute NaOH 3919.9 = ∆E + ( −3 × 8.134 × 10−3 × 298 )
Solution and x kcal and y kcal of heat are
liberated respectively. Which of the following is ∆E = 3919.9 + 3 × 8.134 × 10−3 × 298
true? ∆E = 3927.33 kJ
1 638. Using bond energy data, calculate the heat of
(a) x = y (b) x = y
2 formation of isoprene. Given that bond energy
(c) x = 2y (d) none of these of C – H = 98.8 kcal, H – H = 104 kcal, C – C =
J & K CET-(2000, 1997) 83 kcal, C=C = 147 kcal and C(s) → C(g) = 171
Ans. (b) : HCl + NaOH NaCl + H2O kcal.
or H++OH–→H2O ∆H1 = x (a) 28.3 kcal (b) 20.6 kcal
H2SO4 + 2NaOH Na2SO4 + 2H2O (c) 283 kcal (d) 220.6 kcal
or J & K CET-(1997)
2H+ + 2OH– 2H2O ∆H2 = y Ans. (b) :
H++OH– H2O 5C(s) + 4H 2 (g) → CH 2 = C − CH = CH 2
|
1
∆H1 = ∆H2 CH3
2
y 5C(s) → 5C(g)
∴x = Bond energy of 2(C – C) ,Bond energy of 2(C = C)
2
Bond energy of 8(C – H)Bond energy of 4(H – H)
636. The heat of combustion of hydrogen gas at
constant pressure and at 230C is 280 kJ mol–1. ∆H = Sum of B.E. of reactants – Sum of B.E. of
The heat of combustion at constant volume and products
at 230C will be (R=8.3143 J mol–1 K–1) B.E.=5B.E. C(s) → C(g)
(a) –280 kJ mol–1 (b) –283.74 kJ mol–1 +4B.E.(H–H) – (2B.E.(C–C)+2B.E.(C=C)+8B.E.(C–H))
–1
(c) –267.69 kJ mol (d) –278.76 kJ mol–1 = (5×171+4×104) – (2×83+2×147+8×98.8)
J & K CET-(1998) = 1271–1250.4
Ans. (d) : Solution :- B.E. = 20.6 kcal
1
H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g )  → H 2O ( g ) 639. The latent heat of vaporization of water is 540
2 cal g–1 at 100ºC. What will be the entropy
 1 increase when one mole of water is evaporated
∆n ( g ) = 1 −  1 +  at 100ºC?
 2 (a) 28 cal K–1 mol–1 (b) 26 cal K–1 mol–1
1 –1 –1
(d) 1.82 cal K–1 mol–1
∆n ( g ) = − (c) 540 cal K mol
2 JCECE - 2003
Q ∆H = ∆E + ∆n g RT Ans. (b): ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
∆E = ∆H − ∆n g RT At phase change ∆G = 0
 −1 8.314  0 = ∆H – T∆S
∆E = −280 −  × × 296  ∆H = T∆S
 2 1000 
∆H 540 × 18
∆E = −280 + 1.23 ∆S = =
T 373
∆E = −278.77 kJ mol −1 = 26.059 cal/mol K

3 Ans. (d) : Combustion of C and CO are given,
640. S + O 2  → SO 3 ∆H = 2x,
2 C + O2 → CO2 ; △ H = − 393.5 kJ (i)
1 1
SO 2 + O 2  → SO 3 ∆H = y, CO + O 2 → CO 2 ; △ H = – 283 kJ (ii)
2 2
Then heat of formation of SO2 is : Subtract equation (ii) from equation (i)
(a) 2x – y (b) 2 x + y 1
2x – y C + O 2 → CO,
(c) x + y (d) 2
2 △ H = –393.5 – (–283) = – 110.5 kJ
JCECE - 2006
644. An aqueous solution of 6.3 g of oxalic acid
Ans. (a) : dihydrate is made upto 250 mL. The volume of
S + 3/2 O2 SO3 + 2 x kcal..............(i) 0.1 N NaOH required to completely neutralize
SO2 + 1/2 O2 SO3 + y kcal............(ii) 10 mL. of this solution is
(a) 40 mL (b) 20 mL
Subtract eq. (ii) from (i) (c) 10 mL (d) 4 mL
S + O2 SO2 + (2x – y) kcal JCECE - 2008
Q Heat of formation of SO2 is equal to (2x–y) kcal. Ans. (a) : Given:- N2 = 0.1, V1 = 10
641. The enthalpy of vaporization of substance is n – factor for H2 C2 O4. 2H2O = 2
840 J-mol–1 and its boiling point is-173°C. Its weight × 2 × 1000
Normality =
entropy of vaporization is: Molecular weight × 250
(a) 42 J mol–1K–1 (b) 21 J mol–1K–1
6.3 × 2000
(c) 84 J mol–1K–1 (d) 8.4 J mol–1K–1 N1 = = 0.4
JCECE - 2005 126 × 250
N 1V 1 = N 2V 2
Ans. (d) : ∆G = ∆H – T∆S, at phase change ∆G = 0
0 = ∆H – T∆S NV
V2 = 1 1
∆H N2
∆S = Q ( T = −173 + 273 = 100K ) 10 × 0.4
T V2 =
840 0.1
∆S = = 8.4mol −1 K −1
100K V2 = 40 mL
642. Given the following thermochemical equations: 645. If at 298 K the bond energies of C—H, C—C,
1 C=C and H—H bonds are respectively 414,
Zn + O2  → ZnO + 84,000 cal 347, 615 and 435 kJ mol-1, the value of enthalpy
2
1 change for the reaction
Hg + O2  → HgO + 21,700 cal H2C=CH2(g)+H2(g)→H3C—CH3(g) at 298 K
2 will be
Accordingly the heat of reaction for the (a) +250 kJ (b) –250 kJ
following reaction Zn + HgO  → Hg + heat (c) +125 kJ (d) –125 kJ
is: JCECE - 2008
(a) 105,700 cal (b) 61,000 cal Ans. (d) : H2C = CH2 + H2 → H3C – CH3
(c) 105,000 cal (d) 62,300 cal The value of enthalpy change for the reaction = ∆H
JCECE - 2005 So, ∆H = Sum of B.E. of reactants – Sum of B.E. of
1 products
Ans. (d) : Zn + O 2 → ZnO + 84000 cal ..............(i)
2 ∆H = B.E. of (C = C) + 4B.E. of (C – H) + B.E. of (H –
1 H) – B.E. of (C – C) – 6B.E. of (C – H)
Hg + O 2 → HgO + 21700 cal .............(ii) ∆H = 615 + 4 × 414 + 435 – 347 – 6 × 414
2
The reaction 2 is reversed and added to the reaction 1 to ∆H = 1050 – 347 – 828
obtain the reaction Zn + HgO ZnO + Hg ∆H = 703 – 828
The heat of this reaction is 84000 – 21700 = 62300 cal. ∆H = –125 kJ
643. The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and 646. The heat of neutralisation is highest for the
carbon monoxide are -393.5 and – 283 kJmol-1 reaction between
respectively. The enthalpy of formation of (a) NH4OH  CH3COOH
carbon monoxide per mol is (b) HNO3  NH4OH
(a) 110.5 kJ (b) 676.5 kJ (c) NaOH  CH3COOH
(c) –676.5 kJ (d) –110.5 kJ (d) HCl  NaOH
Ans. (d) : Heat of neutralisation of strong acid by (c) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
strong base is always greater than the heat of 1
neutralisation of weak acid or weak base because some (d) CO(g) + O2 (g) → CO2(g)
2
energy is used to ionise weak acid or weak base.
JCECE - 2014
(a) NH4OH  CH3COOH
weak base  weak acid Ans. (b) : ∆Ηfº , standard heat of formation, is the
(b) HNO3  NH4OH amount of heat evolved or absorbed when one gram
mole of a substance is formed from its constituent
strong acid  weak base
elements.
(c) NaOH  CH3COOH For standard state, temperature is 25ºC or 298 K and
strong base  weak acid the pressure of gaseous substance is 1 atm. Therefore, in
(d) HCl  NaOH given thermochemical equation, formation of HF
strong acid  strong base represents the standard heat of formation of HF.
Q HCl is a strong acid and NaOH is a strong base. 651. The bond dissociation energies of gaseous H2,
∴ Their heat of neutralisation will be highest among the Cl2 and HCl are 104, 58 and 103 kcal
given. respectively. The enthalpy of formation of HCl
647. In the combustion of 2.0 g of methane, 25 kcal gas would be
heat is liberated. Heat of combustion of (a) –44 kcal (b) 44 kcal
methane would be (c) – 22 kcal (d) 22 kcal
(a) 150 kcal (b) 200 kcal JCECE - 2014
(c) 250 kcal (d) 350 kcal 1 1
Ans. (c) : H2 + Cl2  → HCl
JCECE - 2011 2 2
 2  ∆H = ∑BE of reactants – ∑BE of products
Ans. (b) : When 2.0 g  or mol  methane is burnt,
 16  1 1 
=  BE of ( H2 ) + BE of ( Cl2 )  − BE of ( HCl )
heat evolved = 25 kcal. 2 2 
∴ When 1 mol methane is burnt, heat evolved will be  1  1 
25 25 × 16 =  × 104  +  × 58   − 103
= = = 200 kcal  2  2 
(2 /16) 2 = (52 + 29) – 103
648. Heat of neutralisation of HF (a weak acid) with = –22 kcal
strong base is –16.4 kcal. Calculate heat of 652. Standard enthalpy and standard entropy
ionisation of HF in water. change for the oxidation of NH3 at 298 K are
(a) – 13.7 kcal (b) – 2.7 kcal –382.64kJmol–1 and –145.6 J mol–1 respectively.
(c) + 30.1 kcal (d) + 3.01 kcal Standard Gibbs energy change for the same
JCECE - 2013 reaction at 298 K is
Ans. (b) : (a) + 339.3 kJ mol–1 (b) – 439.3 kJ mol–1
–1
HF +OH –
→ H2O +F ; ∆H = –16.4 kcal ––––– (i)
– (c) – 339.3 kJ mol (d) – 393.3 kJ mol–1
H + OH 
+ –
→ H2O ; ∆H = – 13.7 kcal ––––– (ii) JCECE - 2014
Subtracting the equation (i) & (ii) Ans. (d) : ∆Gº = ∆Hº – T∆Sº
the required equation (ionization of HF in water) = –382.64 – 298 × (–145.6 × 10–3)
HF  → H+ + F– ; ∆H = – 2.7 kcal = –339.3 kJ mol–1
649. For the reaction, 653. The heat of neutralisation of a strong acid and
a strong alkali is 57.0 kJ mol–1. The heat
C3H8 (g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l) at released when 0.5 mole of HNO3 solution is
constant temperature, ∆H – ∆E is mixed with 0.2 mole of KOH is
(a) + 3RT (b) – RT (a) 57.0 kJ (b) 11.4 kJ
(c) + RT (d) – 3RT (c) 28.5 kJ (d) 34.9 kJ
Ans. (d) : For the given reaction, ∆ng =np–nr =3– 6 = –3 Ans. (b) : 0.2 mole of KOH will neutralise 0.2 mole of
∆H = ∆E + ∆ng RT HNO3. Thus, heat evolved = 57 × 0.2 = 11.4 kJ
∆H – ∆E = ∆ng RT 654. For the gaseous reaction involving complete
∆H – ∆E = – 3RT combustion of isobutane (assuming all products
o and reactants are in gaseous state). The
650. Which of the reactions defines ∆Hf ?
relation between ∆H and ∆E will be
(a) Cdiamond + O2(g) → CO2(g) (a) ∆H > ∆E (b) ∆H = ∆E
1 1 ∆H ∆E (d) ∆H = 0 and ∆E = ∞
(b) H2 (g) + F2 (g) → HF(g) (c) <
2 2 JCECE - 2016
Ans. (a) : Combustion of isobutane will be as follows: 657. Combustion of glucose takes place according to
13 the equation,
C4 H10 (g) + O2 (g)  → 4CO2 (g) + 5H2 O(g) C6H12O6 + 6O2  → 6CO2+6H2O, ∆H = – 72 k
2
Q ∆H = ∆E + ∆nRT – cal
Where, ∆n = no. of gaseous moles (products) – no. of The energy required for combustion of 1.6 g of
gaseous mole (reactant) glucose is
(a) 0.064 k-cal (b) 0.64 k-cal
 13 
∆n = ( 4 + 5 ) −  1 +  (c) 6.4 k-cal (d) 64 k-cal
 2 JIPMER-2017
3
∆n = + ( + ve ) Ans. (b) : 6CO2 + 6H2O + 72 Cal → C6 H12 O6 + 6O2
2 For production of 180 gm of glucose, heat energy is 72
Since, ∆n is +ve kcal.
∆H must be greater than ∆E. Number of moles of glucose
∴ ∆H > ∆E 1.6
3 =
655. Given, S + O2 → SO3 + 2x kcal 180
2 So, required heat for 1.6 gm of glucose
1 72
SO2 + O2 → SO3 + y kcal = ×1.6 = 0.64 kcal
2 180
with the help of above reactions, find out the
heat of formation of SO2. 658. When the heat of reaction at constant pressure
is –2.5 × 103 cal and entropy change is 7.4 cal
(a) (2x – y) (b) (x + y)
deg–1 at 25° C, the reaction is predicted as
(c) (2x + y) (d) (2x / y)
(a) reversible (b) spontaneous
JCECE - 2016
(c) non-spontaneous (d) irreversible
Ans. (a) : Our required equation will be
JIPMER-2017
S + O2 → SO2
Ans. (b) : △ H = –2.5 ×103 cal
3
Given, S + SO2 → SO3 + 2x kcal …(i) △ S = 7.4 cal deg–1
2
1 ∴ △ G = △ H – T∆S = - 2.5 × 103 – 298 × 7.4
SO2 + O2 → SO3 + y kcal …(ii)
2 △ G = – 2.5 × 103 – 2205.2
So, to get the required equation, we will subtract Eq. (ii)
from Eq. (i), thus we get, △ G = – 4705.2 cal.
S + O2 → SO2 + (2x – y) kcal. ∵ △ G is negative so the reaction is
∴ (2x – y) is heat of formation of SO2. spontaneous.
656. The energy released when 6 moles of octane is 659. 0.001 mole of [Co(NH3)5 (NO3)(SO4)] was
burnt in air will be [Given, ∆Hf for CO2(g), passed through a cation exchanger and the acid
H2O(g) and C8H18(l), respectively are –490, – coming out of it required 20mL of 0.1 M NaOH
240 and + 160 J/mol] for neutralization. Thus, the complex is
(a) –37.4 kJ (b) –20 kJ (a) [Co(NH3)5(NO3)]SO4
(c) – 6.2 kJ (d) – 35.5 kJ (b) [Co(NH3)5(SO4)]NO3
JIPMER-2017 (c) [Co(NH3)5] NO3.SO4
Ans. (a) : ∵ According to Hess's Law, (d) None of the above
C + O2 = CO2, △ H = –490 (i) JIPMER-2015
O
,
1 Ans. (a) : neq of complex = neq of acid released from

H2 + O 2 = H 2 △ H = – 240 (ii) cation exchanger = neq of NaOH.
2
8C + 9H2 = C8 H18 , △ H = +160 (iii) ∴ 0.001× n = 20 × 10 –3 × 0.1
By applying 8 × eqn. (i) + 9 × eqn. (ii) – eqn. (iii) n=2
25 ∴ the complex is [Co (NH 3 )5 (NO3 )] SO 4
2 C8 H18 + O2 = 8CO2 + 9 H2O
2 660. What would be the heat released when an
So, ∆H = 8 × (–490 ) + 9 × (–240) – 160 aqueous solution containing 0.5 mole of HNO3
∆H = – 3920 – 2160 – 160 is mixed with 0.3 mole of O H − ?
∆H = – 6240 Jmol-1 (enthalpy of neutralization is –57.1kJ)
Hence, energy released when 6 moles of octane is burnt (a) 28.5 kJ (b) 17.1 kJ
in air = 6 × – 6240 = – 37440 J
(c) 45.7 kJ (d) 1.7 kJ
∆HR = –37.4 kJ
JIPMER-2015
Ans. (b) : The enthalpy of neutralization is (a) –121kJ/mol (b) +121KJ/mol
–57.1 KJ/mol (c) –242kJ/mol (d) +242kJ/mol
0.3 mole of HNO3 will react with 0.3 mol of OH– JIPMER-2006
The heat released would be Ans. (a) :
0.3 mol × –57.1 kJ/mol = 17.1 kJ 1
661. The standard enthalpies of formation of A (1) H 2 + O 2 → 2H 2 O ∆H = −241kJ
(NH3),B(CO2),C(Hl) and D (SO)2 are –46.19, – 2
393.4, + 24.94 and –296.9 kJ mol-1 respectively. 17
The increasing order of their stability is.
( 2 ) C6 H10 + O 2 → 6CO2 + 5H 2 O ∆H = −3800kJ
2
(a) B< D< A< C (b) C<A<D<B (3) C6 H12 + 9O 2 → 6CO 2 + 6H 2 O ∆H = −3920kJ
(c) D<B<C<A (d) A<C<D<B By adding (1) , (2) and subtracting (3) we get,
JIPMER-2014 C6 H10 + H 2 → C6 H12
Ans. (a) : Lower the value of standard enthalpy of
formation, higher the stability. The increasing order of So,
stability is given as, C6 H10 + H 2 → C6 H12
B< D< A< C ∆H = −241 − 3800 + 3920
662. The heat of formation of CO(g) and CO2 (g) ∆H = −121kJ
are ∆H = – 110 and ∆H = – 393 kJ
665. C(dia) + O2 → CO2 ; ∆H = – 395.4 kJ/mole
mol −1 respectively. What is the heat of reaction
C(gr) + O2 → CO2 ; ∆H = – 393.5 kJ/mole
( )
(∆H) in kJ mol −1 for the following reaction?
C(gr) → C(dia) ; ∆H = ?
1 (a) −3.8 (b) –1.9
CO ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) 
→ CO 2 ( g )
2 (c) +3.8 (d) +1.9
(a) – 504 (b) – 142.5 JIPMER-2005
(c) – 283 (d) 504 Ans. (d) :
JIPMER-2009 C (diamond) + O2(g) → CO2, △ H = –395.4kJ/mol
Ans. (c) : According to Hess's law,
C (graphites) + O2(g) → CO2, △ H = –393.5 kJ/mol
1 –1
C + O 2 → CO, △ H = - 110 kJmol (i) On subtracting e.q. (i) by e.q. (ii) we get,
2 C (diamond) → C (graphite)
C + O2 → CO2, △ H = –393 kJmol–1 (ii)
△ H = –395.4 –(–393.5) = +1.9 kJ
On subtracting Eq. (i) from Eq. (ii), we get
666. For the formation of Cr2O3 and Al2O3, values of
1
CO + O 2 → CO 2 ∆fGº are –540 kJ mol–1 and –827 kJ mol–1
2 respectively. What will be the possibility for
△ H = – 393 – (–110) reaction of Cr2O3 by Al?
△ H = – 393 +110 (a) Reduction of Cr2O3 by Al will take place
(b) Oxidation of Cr2O3 by Al will take place
△ H = – 283 kJ mol –1 (c) Neither oxidation nor reduction will take
663. The absolute enthalpy of neutralization of the place
reaction (d) Reaction is not feasible
MgO(s) + 2HCl(aq)  → MgCl2(aq) + H2O(l) JIPMER-2016
will be Ans. (a) :
(a) less than – 57.33kJ mol-1 3
(b) – 57.33kJ mol-1 2 Cr + O 2 → Cr2 O3 ; ∆f G o = – 540 kJ mol –1 (i)
2
(c) greater than – 57.33kJ mol-1
-1 3
(d) 57.33 kJ mol 2 Al + O 2 → Al2 O3 ; ∆f G o = – 827 kJ mol –1 (ii)
JIPMER-2007 2
NEET -2005 Subtracting equation (i) from (ii)
Ans. (a) : Heat of neutralization of strong acid and 2Al + Cr2O3 → Al2O3 + 2Cr
strong base is -57. 33 kJ. MgO is weak base while HCl ∆f G = [–827] – (–540) kJ mol –1
is strong acid. So, the heat of neutralization of MgO and -1
HCl is lower to – 57.33kJ because MgO requires some ∆f G = –287 kJ mol
heat in ionisation, then net released amount of heat is 3
decreased. 667 In the reaction, S + O 2  → SO3 + 2x kJ and
2
664. The enthalpy of combustion at 25°C of H2,
1
cyclohexane (C6H12) and cyclohexene (C6H10) SO 2 + O 2  → SO3 + y kJ .
are –241, –3920 and –3800 kJ/mol respectively. 2
The heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is: Heat of formation of SO2 is
(a) x + y (b) x – y ∵ For neutralisation of 1 mole of NaOH by 1 mole
(c) 2x – y (d) 2x + y HCl, heat evolved = 57.3 kJ
Karnataka-CET-2015 ∴To neutralise 0.04 mole of NaOH by 0.04 mole of
Kerala-CEE-2008 HCl,
3 heat evolved will be = 57.3 × 0.04 kJ
Ans. (c) : S + O 2 → SO3 , ∆H = − 2x kcal (i) = 2.292 kJ
2
1 671. Enthalpy of vaporization of benzene is +35.3 kJ
SO 2 + O 2 → SO3 , ∆H = − y kcal (ii) mol–1 at its boiling point, 80oC. The entropy
2 change in the transition of the benzene in [JK–1
Now Subtract eq. (i) from (ii), we get mol–1] is
Heat of formation of SO2= (2x –y) kcal. (a) – 441 (b) – 100
668. The ratio of heats liberated at 298 K from the (c) + 441 (d) + 100
combustion of one kg of coke and by burning
water gas obtained from kg of coke is (Assume KARNATAKA-CET, 2010
code to be 100% carbon). (Given : enthalpies of Ans. (d) : Entropy change in the transition of the
combustion of CO2, CO and H2 as 393.5 kJ, 285 vapour to liquid
kJ, 285 kJ respectively all at 298 K) ∆H cond
(a) 0.79 : 1 (b) 0.69 : 1 ∆Scond =
Tb
(c) 0.86 : 1 (d) 0.96 : 1
Karnataka-CET-2014 35.3 × 10 J mol−1
3
=
Ans. (b) : Given, ∆H CO2 = 393.5 kJ, (80 + 273)K
∆HCO = 285 kJ = 100 JK–1 mol–1
∆H H2 = 285 kJ 672. The enthalpy of formation of NH3 is – 46 kJ
mol–1. The enthalpy change for the reaction
∆H CO2 2NH 3 (g) → N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g)is
The ratio of heats liberated =
∆Hco + ∆H H2 (a) +184 kJ (b) + 23 kJ
393.5 kJ 0.69 (c) +92 kJ (d) + 46 kJ
= = KARNATAKA-CET, 2009
285 kJ + 285kJ 1
669. Given thermochemical equation, Ans. (c) : 2NH 3 (g) → N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g)
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l); ∆H = – 571.6 kJ. ∆Hr = – (2 × enthalpy of formation of NH3)
Heat of decomposition of water is = – (2 × – 46) = 92 kJ
(a) –571.6 kJ (b) + 571.6 kJ 673. When 0.2 g of 1-butanol was burnt in a suitable
(c) – 1143.2 kJ (d) + 285.8 kJ apparatus, the heat evolved was sufficient to
Karnataka-CET-2013 raise the temperature of 200 g water by 5oC.
Ans. (d) : 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O, ∆H= – 571.6kJ The enthalpy of combustion of 1 butanol in
1 kcal mol-1 will be
at H2O (l) → H2 (g) + O 2 (g) (a) +37 (b) +370
2
(c) -370 (d) -740
∴ ∆Η = ?
(e) -14.8
If reaction (i) is reversed and divided by 2, the sign Kerala-CEE-2009
∆Η change i.e.
Ans. (b) : Molar mass of C4H10O = 74 gmol–1
571.6 Heat required to raise the temperature of 200 gm of
=+ = 285.8 kJ
2 water by 5°C.
670. The amount of heat evolved when 500 cm3 of = m × s × ∆t
0.1 M HCl is mixed with 200 cm3 of 0.2 M = 200 × 1 × 5
NaOH is
= 1 kcal
(a) 2.292 kJ (b) 1.292 kJ
(c) 0.292 kJ (d) 3.392 kJ Q 0.2 gm of 1-butanol liberates 1 kcal of heat.
KARNATAKA-CET, 2010, 2011 74
So, enthalpy of combustion = 1 ×
Ans. (a) : HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O 0.2
Initial moles = 370 kcal mol–1
500 × 0.1 200 × 0.2 ∆H = +370 kcal mol–1
0 0 Since, the heat is liberated , ∆H = – 370 KCal
1000 1000
= 0.05 = 0.04 674. What would be the heat released when an
Final moles aqueous solution containing 0.5 mole of HNO3
0.05 – 0.04 0 0.04 0.04 is mixed with 0.3 mole of OH– (enthalpy of
= 0.01 neutralization is –57.1 kJ)?

(a) 28.5 kJ (b) 17.1 kJ Ans. (b) :
(c) 45.7 kJ (d) 1.7 kJ 15
(e) 2.85 kJ ( a ) C6 H 6 + O 2 → 6CO 2 + 3H 2 O; ∆H = −3270 kJ mol−1
2
Kerala-CEE-2005
( b ) C(graphite) + O2 → CO2 ; ∆H = −394 kJ mol−1
Ans. (b) : H+(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l)
1
∆H= – 57.1 kJ (c) H2 + O 2 → H 2 O; ∆H = −286 kJ mol−1
0.5 mol of HNO3 → [H+] = 0.5 mol 2
[OH–] = 0.3 mol Now, Multiplication of (b) by 6 and (c) by 3, gives
1 mol of H+ & OH– → energy release = 57.1 kJ ( d ) 6C (s) + 6O2 → 6CO2 ; ∆H = −394 × 6 = −2364kJ mol−1
0.3 mol of H+ & OH– → energy released 3
= 57.1× 0.3 kJ
( e ) 3H 2 + O 2 → 3H 2 O; ∆H = −286 × 3 = −858kJ mol−1
2
= 17.13 kJ On inverting (a) we get
675. The enthalpy change for the transition of liquid 15
water to steam is 40.8 kJ mol–1 at 373 K. What ( f ) 6CO2 + 3H 2O → C6 H 6 + O 2 ; ∆H = +3270 kJ mol−1
2
is the entropy of vaporization of water? by adding (f), (e) and (d) we get :-
(a) 209.4 (b) 109.4 6C + 3H2 → C6H6; ∆H = 3270 + (-2364 – 858 )
(c) –109.4 (d) –209.4 ∆H = +48 kJ mol-1
(e) 250.4 678. The entropy of vaporization of a liquid is 58
Kerala-CEE-2004 JK-1 mol-1. If 100 g of its vapour condenses at
Ans. (b) H2O (l) → H2O (g) its boiling point of 123o C, the value of entropy
∆G = ∆H – T∆S change for the process is
(a) – 100 JK-1 (b) 100 JK-1
∆Η vapour (c) – 123 JK -1
(d) 123 JK-1
We know that, ∆S vapour = -1
Τ (e) 1230 JK
∆H vapour = 40.8 kJ mol–1 Kerala-CEE-2014
= 40.8×1000 J mol–1 Ans. (a) : ∵ Entropy change when 1 mole of the liquid
T = 373 K vapourises = 58 JK–1
40.8 ×1000 ∴Entropy change when 1 mole of the liquid condense
Thus, ∆S vapour = = 109.38JK –1mol –1 = – 58JK–1
373
Moles of the liquid used in the change = 1.724 mol.
676. Molar heat capacity of aluminium is 25 JK-1 ∴ Entropy change when 1.724 moles (for 100 g) of the
mol-1. The heat necessary to raise the
temperature of 54 g of aluminium (atomic mass −58×1.724
liquid condenses, ∆S = = –100JK–1
27 g mol-1) from 30oC to 50oC is 1
(a) 1.5 kJ (b) 0.5 kJ 679. The lattice energy of NaCl is 788 kJ mol-1 This
(c) 1.0 kJ (d) 2.5 kJ means that 788 kJ of energy is required
(e) 2.0 kJ (a) To separate one mole of solid NaCl into one
Kerala-CEE-2011 mole of Na (g) and one mole of Cl (g) to
infinite distance
Ans. (c) : ∵ Molar heat capacity is.
(b) To separate one mole of solid NaCl into one
Q mole of Na+ (g) and one mole of Cl– (g) to
nC =
T2 – T1 infinite distance
(c) To convert one mole of solid NaCl into one
Q = nC (T2–T1)
mole of gaseous NaCl
54 (d) To convert one mole of gaseous NaCl into
Q= × 25× (50 – 30)
27 one mole of solid NaCl
Q = 2 × 25 × 20 (e) To separate one mole of gaseous NaCl into
Q = 1000g ⇒ 1.0 kJ one mole of Na+ (g) and one mole of Cl- (g)
to infinite distance
677. The standard enthalpies of combustion of
Kerala-CEE-2014
C6H6(l), C(graphite) and H2(g) are respectively
–3270 kJ mol–1, –394 kJ mol–1 and –286 kJ mol– Ans. (b) : Lattice energy– Lattice energy is that
1
. What is the standard enthalpy of formation amount of energy which is required to separate one
of C6H6(l) in kJ mol–1? mole of a solid into its constituents gaseous ions at
infinite distances.
(a) – 48 (b) + 48
Since the lattice energy of NaCl is 788 kJ /mol. It means
(c) – 480 (d) + 480 that 788 kJ of energy is required to separate one mole
(e) – 72 of solid NaCl into one mole of Na+ (g) and one mole of
Kerala-CEE-2012 Cl– (g) to infinite distance.
680. The enthalpy of combustion of glucose (mol. Given that,
wt. : 180 g mol-1) is - 2840 kJ mol-1. Then the CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2 + 2H2O(g)
amount of heat evolved when 0.9 g of glucose is ∆Hº = 76.2 – 2 × 285.82 – 394.8 + 2 × 44
burnt, will be ∆Hº = –802.24 kJ/mol.
(a) 14.2 kJ (b) 142 kJ Thus, heat evolved when 22.4 lit (1 mole of CH4) is
(c) 28.4 kJ (d) 1420 kJ oxidized into its gaseous product is 802.24kJ.
(e) 142 kJ 683. The standard enthalpies of formation of H2O(l)
Kerala-CEE-2015 and CO2(g) are respectively –286 kJ mol–1 and
Ans. (a) : Solution:- –394 kJ mol–1. If the standard heat of
The enthalpy of combustion of glucose = -2840 combustion of CH4(g) is –891 kJ mol–1, then the
kJ/mole standard enthalpy of formation of CH4(g) is
180g glucose gives enthalpy of combustion = 2840 (a) –75 kJ mol–1 (b) +75 kJ mol–1
–1
kJ/mol (c) –211 kJ mol (d) + 211 kJ mol–1
–1
2840 (e) –1571 kJ mol
1g glucose gives enthalpy of combustion = Kerala-CEE-2020
180
So, 0.9g glucose gives enthalpy of combustion Ans. (a) : CH 4 (g) + 2O 2 (g) 
→ CO 2 (g) + 2H 2O(l )
2840 2840 × 9 ∴ ∆H = [{∆ f H(CO 2 ) + 2∆ f H(H 2 )}
= × 0.9 =
180 1800 –{∆ f H(CH 4 ) – 2∆ f H(O 2 )}]
2840
= = 14.2 kJ ∆H = [{–394 + (2 × 286)} – {∆ f H(CH 4 ) – 2 × 0}]
200
or –891 = – 394 – 572 – ∆ f H(CH 4 )
681. The standard enthalpy of formation of H2O (l)
and Fe2O3(s) are respectively -286kJ mol-1 and – or ∆ f H(CH 4 ) = – (966 – 891)
824 kJ mol–1. What is the standard enthalpy = – (+ 75 kJ mol–1)
change for the following reaction? = – 75 kJ mol–1
Fe2O3(s) + 3H2(g) 3 H2O(l) + 2Fe(s) Q Combustion is an exothermic process So, it will
(a) -538 kJ mol-1 (b) +538 kJ mol-1 taken as ∆H = – ve sign
-1
(c) -102 kJ mol (d) +34 kJ mol-1 So, option (a) is correct.
-1
(e) -34 kJ mol
684. Bond enthalpies of A2, B2 and AB are in the
Kerala-CEE-2016 ratio 2 : 1 : 2. If bond enthalpy of formation of
Ans. (e) : HR (Heat of reaction) = Σ H 0f (Product)– AB is -100kJ mol-1. The bond enthalpy of B2 is
(a) 100 kJ mol–1 (b) 50 kJ mol–1
Σ H 0f (reactant) (c) 200 kJ mol –1
(d) 150 kJ mol–1
HR = –(3×286) – (–824) Kerala-CEE-29.08.2021
HR = –858 + 824 Karnataka-CET-2021
Q H 0f for H2 and Fe = 0 Ans. (c) : Given that,
∴ HR = –34 kJ/mol A2 : B2 : AB = 2 : 1 : 2
682. The standard heat of formation of CH4, CO2 ∆HAB = –100 kJmol–1
and H2O (l) are –76.2, –394.8 and –285.82 kJ The following reaction take place -
mol–1, respectively. Heat of vaporization of A2 + B2 → 2AB
water is 44 kJ mol–1. Calculate the amount of 1 1
heat evolved when 22.4 L of CH4, kept under or A 2 + B 2 → AB
2 2
normal conditions, is oxidized into its gaseous We can calculate the bond enthalpy of B2 by the given
products. equation -
(a) 802 kJ (b) 878.4 kJ 1 1 1
(c) 702 kJ (d) 788.4 kJ ∆H A2 + ∆H B2 − ∆H AB = −100
(e) 500 kJ 2 2 2
1 x
Kerala-CEE-2019 or × 2x + − 2x = −100
Ans. (a) : C + 2H2 → CH4, 2 2
or x = 200 kJmol–1
∆fHº = –76.2 kJ/mol –– (1)
685. For the reaction
C + O2 → CO2,
∆fHº = –394.8 kJ/mol –––– (2) CH 3COOH ( l ) + 2O 2(g) 2CO 2(g) + 2H 2O(l)
H2 + 1/2O2 → H2O, at 25ºC and 1 atm pressure, ∆H = –874kJ. Then
∆fHº = –285.82 kJ/mol ––– the change in internal energy (∆E) is :
(3) (a) – 874 kJ (b) – 871.53 kJ
H2O (l) → H2O(g) , (c) – 876.47 kJ (d) + 874 kJ
∆vHº = 44 kJ/mol –––– (4) Manipal-2019

Ans. (a) : Given reaction, 689. Enthalpy of formation of HF and HCl are –161
kJ and –92 kJ, respectively. Select the incorrect
CH3COOH ( l ) + 2O2 ( g ) 2CO 2 ( g ) + 2H 2O ( l ) , ∆H = −874kJ
statement on the basis of the above fact.
We know that, (a) HF is more stable than HCl
∆H = ∆E +P∆V (b) HCl is more stable than HF
from Ideal gas equation P∆V = ∆nRT (c) Affinity of fluorine to hydrogen is greater
⇒ ∆H = ∆E + ∆nRT than affinity of chlorine to hydrogen
No. of mole of reactant = No. of mole of product (d) HF and HCl are exothermic compound
∆n = 0 Manipal-2016
Then, ∆H = ∆E Ans. (b) : Compound for which ∆Hf is negative is more
stable than the compound for which ∆Hf is positive. i.e
∆E = –874kJ
exothermic compounds are more stable than
686. The enthalpy change for the transition of liquid endothermic compounds as HF with ∆Hf = 161kJ is
water to steam is 40.8 kJ mol–1 at 373 K. more stable than HCl with ∆Hf = –92kJ.
Calculate the entropy of vaporisation of water : 690. Calculate the difference between heat of
(a) 109.4 JK–1 mol–1 (b) 10.94 JK–1 mol–1 combustion of carbon monoxide gas at constant
–1 –1
(c) 1.094 JK mol (d) 1009.4 JK–1 mol–1 pressure and at constant volume at 27°C? (R =
Manipal-2018 2 cal K–1 mol–1)
Ans. (a) : Given, ∆Hvapour = 40.8 kJmol–1, T = 373K (a) 54 cal (b) + 600 cal
H2O (l) → H2O (g) (c) – 300 cal (d) 27 cal
∆ H vapour
∆S vapour = Ans. (b) : 2C(s) + O2(g) → 2CO(g)
T Heat of combustion of monoxide at constant pressure
∆Η vapour = 40.8 KJ mol–1 is ∆Η and volume is ∆U .
= 40.8 ×1000 J mol–1 ∆Η – ∆U = ngRT
40.8×1000 ng = 1
∆S vapour =
373 T = 27 + 273 = 300 K
= 109.38 JK–1 mol–1 ∆Η – ∆U = 1 × 2 × 300 = 600 cal.
687. The entropy change for the fusion of 1 mol of a 691. If C(s) +O2(g) → CO2(g), ∆H = –X,
solid which melts at 27ºC is (latent heat of 1
fusion = 600 cal mol–1) CO(g) + O 2 ( g ) →CO2(g), ∆H = –Y, Calculate
2
(a) 2 cal K–1 (b) 22.2 cal K–1 ∆fH for CO(g) formation
(c) 180 k cal K (d) 0.5 cal–1 K (a) – Y – X (b) Y – X
Manipal-2018 (c) X + Y (d) X – Y
Ans. (a) : Given, T = 27 + 273 = 300 K MHT CET-02.05.2019, SHIFT-II
We know that, Ans. (b) : Given
∆Ηfus. 600 6 C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g); ∆Η = − X ....(i)
∆S of fusion = = = = 2cal K –1
T 300 3 1
688. The formation of oxide ion O2– (g) require first CO(g) + 2 O 2 → CO 2 ; ∆Η = − Y ....(ii)
an exothermic and then an endothermic step a On reversing equation (ii) we get,
shown below :
1
O(g) + e –  → O – (g); ∆Hº = –142 kJ mol –1 CO 2 (g)  → CO(g) + O 2 (g); ∆H = + y .…(iii)
2
O – (g) + e – → O 2– (g); ∆Hº = 844 kJ mol –1 Adding equation (i) & (iii),
1
This is because : C(s) + O 2 (g)  → CO(g); ∆H = − x + y = y − x
(a) Oxygen is more electronegative 2
(b) O– ion has comparatively larger size than 692. Calculate the work done during compression3 of
oxygen atom 2 mol of an ideal gas from a volume of 1m to
(c) O– ion will tend to resist the addition of 10 dm3 300K against a pressure of 100 KPa.
another electron (a) – 99 kJ (b) +99 kJ
(d) Oxygen has high electron affinity (c) + 22.98 kJ (d) – 22.98 kJ
Manipal-2018 MHT CET-2017
2– Ans. (b) : We know that,
Ans. (c) : Formation of the oxide ion O (g) require
W = –PdV = –P (V2–V1) = P (V1–V2)
first an exothermic and then an endothermic step.
O–1(g) + e– →O–2(g) W = 100 (1–10×10–3) (Q 1dm3 = 10–3m3)
When an electron is added to negatively charged ion, it W = 100 (1 – 0.01)
will experiences more repulsion rather than attraction. W = 100 × 0.99 = +99kJ

693. Assuming enthalpy of combustion of hydrogen 1
at 273 K is –286 kJ and enthalpy of fusion of H 2O → H 2 + O2 ; ∆Η = –260 kJ ……..(ii)
ice at the same temperature to be +6.0 kJ, 2
∵ By 260 kJ heat water decomposed = 1 mol
calculate enthalpy change during formation of
100 g of ice. 1×130
∴ 130 kJ heat will decompos water = = 0.5
(a) + 1622 kJ (b) – 1622 kJ 260
(c) + 292 k j (d) – 292 kJ mol
MHT CET-2014 697. Heat of combustion of methane is –800 kJ.
Ans. (b) : What is the heat of combustion for 4×10–4 kg of
methane?
1
H2 (g) + O 2 (g) → H2O (l) ; ∆Ηcomb. = –286KJ ... (i) (a) – 800 kJ (b) – 3.2 × 104 kJ
2 (c) – 20 kJ (d) – 1600 kJ
H2O(s) → H2O (l) ; ∆H fus. = + 6kJ .... (ii) MHT CET-2009
On subtracting (II) from (I) Ans. (c) : On combustion of methane,
1
H2 (g) + O 2 (g) → H2O(s) ; ∆Η = – 286 – 6 CH4 + 2O2→CO2+2H2O ; ∆ΗC = – 800kJ
2 ∵ Heat of combustion of 16×10–3 kg of CH4 = –800 kJ
= – 292 KJ ∴ Heat of combustion of 4×10–4 kg of CH4
∵ On formation of 100g ice, change in enthalpy
–800× 4×10 –4
–292×100 –292×50 = = –20kJ
= = = –1622 kJ 16×10 – 3
18 9
698. If ∆E is the heat of reaction for
694. Which of the following on combustion gives
maximum energy? C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g)+3H2O(l)
(a) Ethane (b) Propane at constant volume, the ∆H (heat of reaction at
constant pressure), at constant temperature is
(c) Methane (d) Butane
(a) ∆H = ∆E + RT (b) ∆H = ∆E – RT
MHT CET-2012
(c) ∆H = ∆E – 2RT (d) ∆H = ∆E + 2RT
Ans. (d) : Equation for combustion of alkanes is as
MHT CET-2008
follows
 3n +1 Ans. (b) : Given reaction,
Cn H 2n+2 +   O → n CO + (n +1) H O + Heat C2H5OH(l) + 3O2 (g) → 2 CO2 (g) + 3H2O(l)
 2  2 2 2
We know that,
Greater the value of n greater will be the heat produced. ∆Η = ∆Ε + ∆nRT
Therefore, on combustion of butane gives maximum ∆n = 2 – 3 = –1
energy.
∆H = ∆E − RT
695. The heat of neutralization of a strong acid and
a strong alkali is 57.0 kJ mol–1. The heat 699. For the reaction,
released when 0.5 mole of HNO3 solution is
mixed with 0.2 mole of KOH is 2H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) 
→ 2H 2O ( g ) ;∆H = –573.2kJ
(a) 57.0 kJ (b) 11.4 kJ The heat of decomposition of water per mole is
(c) 28.5 kJ (d) 34.9 kJ (a) 286.6 kJ (b) 573.2 kJ
MHT CET-2011 (c) – 28.66 kJ (d) zero
Ans. (b) : MHT CET-2007
NHO3 + KOH → KNO3 + H2O Ans. (a) :
0.2 mole HNO3 + 0.2 mole KOH → 0.3 mole HNO3 2H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) 
→ 2H 2 O ( g ) ;∆H = –573.2 kJ
unneutralized On reversing and dividing by 2 we get,
(∆Hneut.)strong acid + strong alkali = 57.0 kJ/mol 1 573.2
but 0.2 mol neutralized , H 2 O(g) → H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) ; ∆H = + = + 286.6 kJ
2 2
0.2 mole × 57.0 = 11.4 kJ 700. The values of ∆H and ∆S for the reaction,
696. The heat of formation of water is 260 kJ. How C(graphic) + CO2(g) → 2CO(g)
much H2O is decomposed by 130 kJ of heat? are 170 kJ and 170 J K–1, respectively. This
(a) 0.25 mol (b) 1 mol reaction will be spontaneous at
(c) 0.5 mol (d) 2 mol (a) 910 K (b) 1110 K
MHT CET-2010 (c) 510 K (d) 710 K
Ans. (c) : Given, Heat of formation = 260 kJ NEET-2009
1 Ans. (b) : Given, ∆H = 170 kJ = 170 × 10 J 3
H 2 + O 2 → H 2O ; ∆Η = 260 kJ ...... (i)
2 ∆S = 170 JK–1 mol–1
On reversing Eq. (i) we get, For the reaction to be spontaneous, ∆G = –ve

Applying, ∆G = ∆H – T∆S, the value of ∆G = –ve only (a) –196 kJ/mol (b) + 196 kJ/mol
when T∆S > ∆H, which is possible only when T = (c) + 948 kJ/mol (d) – 948 kJ/mol
1110K. NEET-2001
∴∆G = 170 × 103 – (1110 × 170) = – 18700J Ans. (a) : 2H2O2(l) → 2H2O (l) + O2(g)
Thus, reaction is spontaneous at T = 1110K
∆H= [2×∆Hf of H2O(l)+(∆Hf of O2)–(2×∆Hf of
701. The following two reactions are known H2O2(l))]
Fe2O3(s)+3CO(g) →2Fe(s)+3CO2(g); = (2 × –286) + (0) – (2 × –188)
∆H = –26.8kJ = –572 + 376 = –196 kJ/mol
FeO(s)+CO(g) →Fe(s)+CO2(g); ∆H = –16.5kJ
The value of ∆H for the following reaction. 705. Enthalpy of CH4 + 1/2 O2 → CH3OH is
negative. If enthalpy of combustion of CH4 and
Fe2O3(s) + CO(g) →2Fe(s)+CO2(g) is
(a) + 10.3 kJ (b) – 43.3 kJ CH3OH are x and y respectively, then which
relation is correct?
(c) – 10.3 kJ (d) + 6.2 kJ
NEET-2010 (a) x > y (b) x < y
Ans. (d) : Given, equation – (c) x = y (d) x ≥ y
Fe2O3(s)+3CO(g) →2Fe(s)+3CO2(g) ; NEET-2001
∆Η = –26.8 kJ ....(i) Ans. (b) : CH2 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O ; ∆H = x ….(i)
FeO(s)+CO(g) →Fe(s)+CO2(g) ; ∆Η = –16.5 kJ ….(ii) 2CH3OH + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 4H2O ; ∆H = y
on multiplying E.q (ii) with 2, we get On equation divided by 2 we get,
2FeO (s) + 2 CO (g) → 2Fe (s) + 2 CO2 (g) ; CH3OH + 1.5O2 → CO2 + 2H2O ; ∆H = y ….(ii)
∆Η = – 33kJ ….(iii) Subtract equation (i) and (ii),
On substracting Eq (iii) from (i), 1
Fe2O3 (s) + CO (g) → 2FeO (s) + CO2 (g) ; CH 4 + O 2  → CH 3OH ; ∆H = − ve
2
∆Η = – 26.8 – (–33) = +6.2 kJ x − y = − ve = y > x
702. For which one of the following equation is ∆
H0reaction equal to ∆H0f for the product? 706. In the reaction : S + 3/2O2 → SO3 + 2x kcal
(a) N 2( g ) + O3( g ) → N 2 O3( g ) and SO2 + 1/2 O2 → SO3 + y kcal, the heat of
formation of SO2 is
(b) CH 4( g ) + 2Cl2( g ) → CH 2 Cl 2( l ) + 2HCl( g ) (a) (2x + y) (b) (x – y)
(c) Xe( g ) + 2F2( g ) → XeF4( g ) (c) (x + y) (d) (2x – y)
(d) 2CO( g ) + O 2( g ) → 2CO 2( g ) NEET-1999
Ans. (d) :
NEET-2003
3
Ans. (c) : S + O 2 → SO3 + 2x kcal ....(i)
2
1
SO 2 + O 2 → SO3 + y kcal ....(ii)
2
Now subtract equation (ii) & (i) we get,
The heat of formation is defined as the heat generated or S − SO 2 + O 2 → 2x − y kcal
absorbed when the compound is formed from its
component elements in their standard state. ∴ Heat of formation of SO2 is equal to 2x − y kcal.
703. Heat of combustion ∆H for C(s), H2(g) and 707. Given that C + O2 → CO2 ; ∆Ho = –x kJ
CH4(g) are –94, –68 and –213 kcal/mol, Then 2CO + O2 → 2CO2 ; ∆Ho = –y kJ
∆H for C(s) +2H2(g) → CH4(g) is The enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide
(a) –17 kcal (b) –111 kcal will be
(c) –170 kcal (d) –85 kcal y − 2x
NEET-2002 (a) (b) 2x – y
2
Ans. (a) :
C + O2→CO2 ; ∆H = –94 kcal 2x − y
(c) y – 2x (d)
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O ; ∆H = –68 × 2 kcal 2
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O ; ∆H = – 213 kcal WB-JEE-2014, NEET-1997
C(s) + 2H2(g)→ CH4(g) ; Ans. (a) :
∆H = – [∆HComb. of C + 2 × ∆HComb. of H2] C + O2 → CO2 ; ∆Ho = –x kJ …..(i)
= – [–213 – (–94 + 2 × –68) ] = 213 – 230 = –17 kcal 2CO + O 2 → 2CO 2 ; ∆H o
= –y kJ ….(ii)
704. Change in enthalpy for reaction, Substration equation (i) and divided by 2 equation
2H2O2(l) → 2H2O(l) + O2(g) (ii),
If heat of formation of H2O2(l) and H2O(l) are – 1 y − 2x
C + O 2 → CO ; ∆H = − x − (− y / 2) =
188 and –286 kJ/mol respectively, is 2 2
708. If enthalpies of formation for C2H4(g), CO2(g) 2x + 5(5 − x) = 16
and H2O(l) at 250C and 1 atm pressure are 52,
⇒ x = 3L
–394 and –286 kJ/mol respectively, then
enthalpy of combustion of C2H4(g) will be ∴Heat released
(a) + 141.2 kJ/mol (b) + 1412 kJ/mol 3 2
= × 890 + × 2220 = 317 kJ
(c) – 141.2 kJ/mol (d) – 1412 kJ/mol 22.4 22.4
NEET-1995 712. Enthalpy change for the reaction,
Ans. (d) : C2H4(g) + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 2H2O ; 4H(g) → 2H2(g) is –869.6 kJ
∆H = ∆H(products) – ∆H(reactant) The dissociation energy of H – H bond is
= 2 × ∆H CO2 + 2 × ∆H H2O − ∆H C2 H4 − 3 × ∆H O2 (a) – 434.8 kJ (b) – 869.6 kJ
(c) + 434.8 kJ (d) + 217.4 kJ
= 2 × (–394) + 2×(–286) – 52 – 3 × 0
NEET-2011
= –1412 kJ/mol
Ans. (c) : Given,
709. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and
XY are in the ratio of 1:0.5:1. ∆H for the 4H(g) → 2H2(g) ; ∆H = –869.6 kJ
formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond On reversing equation 1st and divided by 2 we get,
dissociation energy of X2 will be 869.6
H2 → 2H2 ; ∆H = = 434.8kJ
(a) 200 kJ mol–1 (b) 100 kJ mol–1 2
(c) 800 kJ mol–1 (d) 400 kJ mol–1 713. From the following bond energies :
NEET-2018 H – H bond energy : 431.37 kJ mol–1
Ans. (c) : C = C bond energy : 606.10 kJ mol–1
1 1 C – C bond energy : 336.49 kJ mol–1
X 2 + Y2 → XY ∆H = − 200 kJ / mol C – H bond energy : 410.50 kJ mol–1
2 2
Enthalpy for the reaction
1 0.5 1
X X/2 X
1 1 
∆H = ∑ H R − ∑ H P ⇒ −200 =  × x + × 0.5x  − x
2 2 
will be
200 = 0.25x ⇒ x = 200 × 4 = 800 kJ/mol (a) –343.6 kJ mol–1 (b) – 120.0 kJ mol–1
710. The heat of combustion of carbon to CO2 is – (c) 553.0 kJ mol–1 (d) 1523.6 kJ mol–1
393.5 kJ/mol. The heat released upon NEET-2009
formation of 35.2 g of CO2 from carbon and
oxygen gas is Ans. (b) : Given,
(a) + 315 kJ (b) – 630 kJ H-H Bond Energy = 431.37 kJ/mole
(c) – 31.5 kJ (d) – 315 kJ C = C Bond Energy = 606.10 kJ/mole
MHT CET-2011 C – C Bond Energy = 336.44 kJ/mole
NEET-2015 C – H Bond Energy = 410.5 kJ/mole
Ans. (d) :
C(s) + O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g) ; ∆H = − 393.5 kJ / mol
Heat released on formation of 44g CO2 = −393.5 kJ/mol
∴ Heat released on formation of 35.2g CO2 = ∆H = (∆H)Reactant – (∆H)Product–
−393.5 ∆H = [1×∆H(C=C) + 4×∆H(C–H) + 1×∆H(H−H) –
× 35.2 = − 314.5kJ / mol − 315kJ / mol
44 6 ×∆H+(C–H) + 1×∆H(C–C)]
711. When 5 litres of a gas mixture of methane and ∆H = [606.10 + 4×410.50 + 431.37] – [6×410.50 +
propane is perfectly combusted at 00C and 1 336.49]
atmosphere, 16 litres of oxygen at the same = [606.1 + 1642 + 431.37] – [ 2463 + 336.49]
temperature and pressure is consumed. The = 2679.47 – 2799.49 = –120.02 kJ/mol
amount of heat released from this combustion 714. Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2, Cl2 and HCl
in kJ are 434, 242 and 431 kJ mol–1 respectively.
∆Hcomb (CH4) = 890 kJ mol–1, Enthalpy of formation of HCl is
∆Hcomb (C3H8) = 2220 kJ mol–1 is (a) –93 kJ mol–1 (b) 245 kJ mol–1
(a) 38 (b) 317 (c) 93 kJ mol –1
(d) –245 kJ mol–1
(c) 477 (d) 32 NEET-2008
Karnataka NEET-2013 Ans. (a) H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl
Ans. (b) : CH 4 + 2O 2 → CO 2 + 2H 2 O divided by 2 we get,
x 2x
H 2 Cl2
C3 H8 + 5O 2 → 3CO 2 + 4H 2 O + → HCl
(5− x ) 5(5− x ) 2 2
∆H = ∑ H R − ∑ H P 718. The molar heat capacity of water at constant
pressure, C, is 75 J K–1 mol–1. When 1.0 kJ of
 434 242  heat is supplied to 100 g of water which is free
= +  − 431 = − 93kJ / mol
 2 2  to expand, the increase in temperature of water
is
715. Consider the following reactions :
(a) 1.2 K (b) 2.4 K
(i) H+(aq)+OH–(aq) → H2O(l) ; ∆H = –X1kJ mol– (c) 4.8 K (d) 6.6 K
1
NEET-2003
(ii) H2(g)+1/2O2(g) → H2O(l) ; ∆H = –X2kJ mol–1
(iii) CO2(g)+H2(g) → CO(g)+2O(l) ; ∆H = –X3kJ Ans. (b) : q = ncp ∆T
mol– q = 1kJ = 1000J.
(iv) C2H2(g)+5/2O2(g) → 2CO2(g)+H2O(l) ; mass 100
∆H=+X4kJ mol–1 n= =
mol. weight 18
Enthalpy of formation of H2O(l) is
(a) –X2 kJ mol –1
(b) +X3 kJ mol –1 100
1000 = × 75 × ∆T
(c) –X4 kJ mol–1 (d) +X1 kJ mol–1 18
NEET-2007 ∆T = 2.4 K
Ans. (a) :Enthalpy of formation : The amount of heat 719. When 1 mol of gas is heated of constant volume
evolved or absorbed during the formation of 1 mole of a temperature is raised from 298 to 308 K. Heat
compound form its constituent elements is known as supplied to the gas is 500 J. Then which
Heat of formation. So, the correct answer is statement is correct?
1 (a) q = w = 500 J, ∆E = 0
H 2 (g) + O 2 (g)  → H 2 O(l), ∆H = − x 2 kJ mol −1
2 (b) q = ∆E = 500 J, w = 0
716. Standard enthalpy of vaporisation ∆ vap H for 0 (c) q = w = 500 J, ∆E = 0
0 –1. (d) ∆E = 0, q = w = -500 J
water at 100 C is 40.66 kJ mol The internal
energy of vaporisation of water at 1000C (in kJ NEET-2001
mol–1) is Ans. (b) : According to first law of thermodynamics,
(a) + 37.56 (b) – 43.76 ∆E = q + W
(c) + 43.76 (d) + 40.66 For constant volume, work done (W) = 0
(Assume water vapour to behave like an ideal gas) ∆E = q = 500J
NEET-2012
Ans. (a) : ∆Η = ∆Ε + ∆n g RT
C6H12O6(glucose)(s)+6O2(g)→6CO2(g)+6H2O(g),
H2O(g) → H2O(g) ∆H= –2840 kJ
∆n g = 1 – 0 = 1 Tell the amount of energy required to generate
o 0.36 gm glucose following the above reverse
T =100 C + 273K = 373K reaction.
∆Η vap = ∆E + ∆n g RT (a) 56.8 kJ (b) 568 kJ
∆Ε = ∆Η vap – ∆n g RT (c) 5.68 kJ (d) 0.568 kJ
Tripura JEE-2019
= 40.63 – (1×8.314×10–3×373)
= 37.53 kJ/ mol. Ans. (c) :
C6H12O6(glucose)(s)+6O2(g)→6CO2(g)+6H2O(g) ;
717. If ∆H is the change in enthalpy and ∆E, the
change in internal energy accompanying a ∆H= –2840 kJ
gaseous reaction, then On reverse reaction we get,
(a) ∆H is always greater than ∆E 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(g) → C6H12O6(s) + 6O2(g) ;
(b) ∆H < ∆E only if the number of moles of the ∆H = 2840 kJ
products is greater than the number of moles Thus for production of 1 mole C6H12O6 = 72 + 12 + 96
of the reactants =180 g
(c) ∆H is always less than ∆E For production of 0.36 g of glucose,
(d) ∆H < ∆E only if the number of moles of 2840
products is less than the number of moles of ∆H = × 0.36 = 5.68kJ
180
the reactants.
721. The enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene
NEET-1990 is –119.5 kJ mol–1. If resonance energy of
Ans. (d) :∆H =∆E + ∆(PV) benzene is –150.4 kJ mol–1, its enthalpy of
∆H = ∆E + ∆ (nRT) [∴PV = nRT] hydrogenation would be
When number of moles in product is less than number (a) –269.9 kJ mol–1 (b) –358.5 kJ mol–1
of moles in reaction so ∆n = –ve (c) –508.9 kJ mol –1
(d) –208.1 kJ mol–1
∆H< ∆E UP CPMT-2013
Ans. (d) : Hydrogenation of cyclohexene Ans. (b) :
BaCl2(s) → BaCl2 (aq); ∆H1 = –20.6 kJ …….(i)
BaCl2⋅2H2O(s) → BaCl2(aq); ∆H2 = 8.8 kJ …….(ii)
Substracting equation (ii) from (i) we get
BaCl2(s) → BaCl2 ⋅2H2O(s); ∆H1 – ∆H2 = –29.4 kJ
∆H = –119.5 kJ mol–1
725. The heat of combustion of methane, if the heat
Hydrogenation of benzene :
of formation of CH4, CO2, and H2O are
respectively –18.4 kcal, .– 94.0 kcal, –68.4 kcal,
is
∆H = –3 × 119.5 kJ mol–1 (a) –212.4 kcal (b) +212.4 kcal
= –358.5 kJ mol–1 (c) –249.2 kcal (d) +249.2 kcal
The observed ∆H for hydrogenation of benzene UP CPMT-2010
= ∆H + Energy needed to disturb resonance Ans. (a) : CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
= –358.5 + 150.4 = –208.1 kJ mol–1 ∆H comb = (∆H f (CO2 ) + 2 × ∆H f (H2O) )
722. Given (i) C(s)+O2(g)→CO2(g); ∆H= – 94.0 kcal − (∆H f (CH4 ) + 2 × ∆H f (O2 ) )
1 = [−94.0 + 2 × (−68.4) − (−18.4 + 0)]
(ii) H2(g)+ O2(g)→H2O(l) ∆H= – 68.4 kcal
2 = −212.4 kcal
(iii) CH4(g)+O2(g)→CO2(g)+2H2O(l);∆H=
726. Consider following reactions
– 212.4 kcal
1
The heat of formation of CH4 is I: C ( s ) + O 2 ( g ) uuuurCO ( g ) , ∆H1 = a
(a) –18.4 kcal (b) +18.4 kcal 2
(c) –443.2 kcal (d) +443.2 kcal 1
II: CO ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) uuuur CO 2 ( g ) , ∆H 2 = b
UP CPMT-2012 2
Ans. (a) : (i) C+O2 →CO2, ∆H= – 94.0 kcal III: C ( s ) + CO 2 ( g ) uuuur 2CO ( g ) ; ∆H 3 = c
1
(ii) H2+ O2 →H2O,∆H= –68.4kcal] 2 Select correct Statement:
2
(iii) CH4+2O2→CO2+2H2O, ∆H= –212.4 kcal (a) Heat of formation of CO2 is (a + b)
On multiplying Eq. (ii) with 2, add Eq. (i) and subtract (b) Heat of combustion of C is (a + b)
Eq. (iii), we get (c) ∆H3 = ∆H1 – ∆H2
C+2H2+2O2→CO2+2H2O, ∆H= –230.8kcal (d) All the above are correct statements
UP CPMT-2009
CH4+2O2→CO2+2H2O, ∆H= –212.4kcal
__________________________________ Ans. (d):
1
C+2H2 → CH4, ∆H= –18.4kcal I: C(s) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 (g); ∆H1 = a
__________________________________ 2
1
723. The heat of neutralisation of four acids A,B,C, II: CO ( g ) + O 2 (g)  → CO 2 (g); ∆H 2 = b
and D when neutralized against a common base 2
are 13.7, 9.4, 11.2, and 12.4 kcal respectively. III: C(s) + CO2 (g)  → 2CO(g); ∆H 3 = c
The weakest and strongest among these acids On adding Eqs. I and II, we get
are
(a) B and A respectively C(s) + O2(g)  → CO 2 ( g ) ; ∆H = ∆H1 + ∆H 2
(b) A and C respectively =a + b
(c) C and D respectively ∴ Heat of formation of CO2 = a + b
(d) A and B respectively and heat of combustion of C = a + b
UP CPMT-2012 On subtracting Eqs II from I, we get
Ans. (a) : Lower the value of heat of neutralisation C(s) + CO2 (g)  → 2CO ( g ) ; ∆H 3 = ∆H1 − ∆H 2
weaker is the acid and vice-versa. Hence, B is the
727. The heat of formation of CO (g) and CO2 (g)
weakest and A is the strongest acid in the given options.
724. The enthalpy of dissolution of BaCl2 (s) and are ∆H = –110 and ∆H = –393 kJ mol-1
BaCl2⋅2H2O(s) are –20.6 and 8.8 kJ mol–1 Respectively. What is the heat of reaction (∆H)
respectively. The enthalpy of hydration for (in kJ mol-1) for the following reaction?
1
BaCl 2 (s) + 2H 2 O(l ) 
→ BaCl 2 ⋅ 2H 2 O(s) is CO(g) + O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g)
2
(a) 29.4 kJ (b) –29.4 kJ (a) –504 (b) –142.5
(c) –11.8 kJ (d) 38.2 kJ (c) –283 (d) –504
UP CPMT-2011 UP CPMT-2008
1 Ans. (c) : This solution is an ideal
Ans. (c): C + O 2 → CO, ∆H = − 110 kJ mol −1 …..(i)
2 ∆ΗSol. = ∆Η1 + ∆Η 2 + ∆Η3
C + O2 → CO2, ∆H = –393 kJ mol–1 …..(ii) Pure solvent + pure solute 
→ Solution
On subtracting eq. (i) from eq. (ii), we get
∆Η = ∆Η1 + ∆Η 2 + ∆Η3
1
CO + O 2 → CO 2 731. The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and
2
carbon monoxide are – 393.5 and – 283 kJ
∆H = –393 – (–110)
mol–1 respectively. The enthalpy of formation
= –283 kJ mol–1 of carbon monoxide per mole is
728. The enthalpies of formation of C2H2(g) and (a) 110.5 kJ (b) 676.5 kJ
C6H6(g) at 298 K are 230 and 85 kJ/mol (c) – 676.5 kJ (d) – 110.5 kJ
respectively. The enthalpy change for the UPTU/UPSEE-2007
reaction is
Ans. (d) :
(a) 605 kJ/mol (b) 865 kJ/mol
C + O2 → CO2 ∆Η = −393.5 KJ ____(i)
(c) –605 kJ/mol (d) –865 kJ/mol
UP CPMT-2001 1
CO + O 2 → CO 2 ∆Η = −283 KJ ____(ii)
Ans. (c) : Write the chemical reaction and then use the 2
formula ∆H = HP – HR to find the enthalpy change for Sustracting from equation (i) to (ii)
the reaction. ∆H = (–393.5) – (–283)
3C2H2(g)  → C6H6(g) ∆H = HP – HR ∆Η = −110.5 kJ
Given, Hf of C2H2 = 230 kJ/mol 732. If at 298 K the bond energies of C–H, C–C,
Hf of C6H6 = 85 kJ/mol C=C and H–H bonds are respectively 414, 347,
∴ ∆H = 85 – (3 × 230) 615 and 435 kJ mol–1, the value of enthalpy
change for the reaction
= 85 – 690
= –605 kJ/mol H2C = CH2 (g) + H2 (g) → H3C – CH3 (g)
at 298 K will be
729. The mass of carbon anode consumed (giving (a) +250 kJ (b) – 250 kJ
only carbon dioxide) in the production of 270
(c) + 125 kJ (d) – 125 kJ
kg of alminium metal from bauxite by the Hall
UPTU/UPSEE-2007
process is
(Atomic mass of Al = 27) Ans. (d) : H2C = CH2(g) + H2(g)→H3C – CH3(g)
(a) 180 kg (b) 270 kg H–H = 435 kJ mol–1
(c) 540 kg (d) 90 kg 2C–H = 2×(–414) kJ mol–1
UPTU/UPSEE-2007 C=C = 615 kJ mol–1
C–C = 347 kJ mol–1
Ans. (d) : This equation shows,
Total enthalpy change is,
2A12 O3 + 3C  → 4Al +3CO 2 → 435 + 615 –(2× 4141) –347
3×12 = 36 4×27 = 108
–1
∵ For 108 Kg of Al, 36 Kg of C is required in above = –125 kJ mol
reaction, 733. The heat of combustion of carbon monoxide at
36 constant pressure and at constant volume at
∴ For 270 kg of Al require amount of C = × 270 27o C will differ from one another by:
108
= 90 kg (a) 27 cal (b) 54 cal
(c) 300 cal (d) 600 cal
730. Formation of a solution form two components
UPTU/UPSEE-2006
can be considered as
(i) Pure solvent → separated solvent molecules, Ans. (c) : C(s) + 1 O (g)  → CO(g)
2
∆H1 2
(i) Pure solute → separated solute molecules, 1 1
∆n g = 1 – =
∆H2 2 2
(iii) Separated solvent and solute molecules → T = 300 K
solution, ∆H3 We know,
Solution so formed will be ideal if ∆Η = ∆U + ∆n g RT
(a) ∆Hsoln = ∆H1 – ∆H2 – ∆H3 ∆Η − ∆U = ∆n g RT
(b) ∆Hsoln = ∆H3 – ∆H1 – ∆H2
(c) ∆Hsoln = ∆H1 + ∆H2 + ∆H3 1
∆Η − ∆U = × 2×300
(d) ∆Hsoln = ∆H1 + ∆H2 – ∆H3 2
UPTU/UPSEE-2007 = 300 cal.

734. The ∆Hof for CO2(g), CO(g) and H2O(g) are – 739. Why is the heat evolved in neutralisation of HF
393.5, –110.5 and –241.8 kJ/mol respectively, is highest ?
the standard enthalpy change (in kJ) for the (a) Due to low hydration energy of F– ion
reaction. (b) Due to high hydration energy of F– ion
CO2(g) + H2(g) → CO (g) +H2O (g) is : (c) HF is a strong acid
(a) 524.1 (b) 41.2
(d) None of the above
(c) –262.5 (d) –41.2
UPTU/UPSEE-2018
UPTU/UPSEE-2005
Ans. (b) : Given that, ∆H for CO2(g) = –393.5 Ans. (b) : • HF is a weak acid
CO(g) = –110.5, H2O = –241.8 • HF have very high enthalpy change of neutralization.
• HF, heat evolved neutralization is highest due to high
∆Η = ∑ ∆H of (products) – ∑ ∆H of (reactants)
Hydration energy of F– ion.
= –110.5 –241.8 – (–393.5) 740. At 298 K what will be the change in standard
= + 41.2 kJ. internal energy change for the given reaction
735. Hess's law is used to calculate: OF2(g) + H2O(g) → O2(g) + 2HF(g);
(a) enthalpy of reaction (a) –312.5 kJ (b) –125.03 kJ
(b) entropy of reaction (c) –310 kJ (d) –156 kJ
(c) work done in reaction UPTU/UPSEE-2018
(d) All of the above.
UPTU/UPSEE-2005 Ans. (c) : ∆ H = ∆ U + ∆ n g RT
Ans. (a) : Hess’s law states that enthalpy changes ∆n g = moles of product − moleof reactant
during the process is independent of path. So, this law is
used in calculating enthalpy. 3 – 2 = +1
736. Enthalpy of solution of NaOH (solid) in water ∆n g > O
is – 41.6 kJ mol–1. When NaOH is dissolved in ∴ ∆U° = H° – ∆n g RT
water, the temperature of water:
(a) Increases (b) Decreases ∴ ∆U° = (–310×103 ) – (1×8.314× 298)
(c) Does not change (d) Fluctuates indefinitely = –307522.42 J
UPTU/UPSEE-2004
= –307.522 × 103 J
Ans. (a) : According to Le-chatir Principle although the
dissolution process is overall exothermic, since ∴ ∆U ≃ – 310 kJ
solubility is determined only at the saturation point, the 741. The enthalpy of the formation of CO2 and H2O
solubility increases with increases in temperature. are –395 kJ and –285 kJ respectively and the
737. The heat of combustion of carbon to CO2 is – enthalpy of combustion of acetic acid is 869 kJ.
393.5 kJ/mol. The heat released upon The enthalpy of formation of acetic acid is
formation of 35.2 g of CO2 from carbon and (a) 340 kJ (b) 420 kJ
oxygen gas is: (c) 491 kJ (d) 235 kJ
(a) + 315 kJ (b) – 31.5 kJ UPTU/UPSEE-2017
(c) – 315 kJ (d) + 31.85 kJ
UPTU/UPSEE-2004 Ans. (c) : CH 3 COOH + 2O 2 → CO 2 + H 2O 2
Ans. (c) : H R = ∑ H f (product) – ∑ H f ( reactant)
o o
35.2 –869 = [2× Η°f (CO2)+ 2× Η°f (H2O)]– (Η οf(CH3COOH) + O)

Number of moles in 35.2g of CO2 = = 0.8 mol
44
Thus heat of combustion for 0.8 mol of CO2 is – –869 = [2×(–395) + 2 ×(–285)] – Η°f (CH3COOH)
393.5×0.8 = –315 kJ
–869 = –790 –5 70 – Η°f (CH3COOH)
738. Which of the following equations correctly
represent the standard heat of formation (∆H°f) ∴ Η°f (CH3 COOH) = 1360 – 869 = – 491 kJ
of methane?
742. If enthalpies of formation for C2H4(g), CO2(g)
(a) C (diamond) + 4H(g)  → CH4(g)
and H2O(l) at 25oC and 1 atm pressure be 52, –
(b) C (diamond) + 2H2(g)  → CH4(g) 394 and –286 kJ mol–1 respectively, then the
(c) C (graphite) + 2H2(g)  → CH4(g) enthalpy of combustion of C2H4(g) will be
(d) C (graphite) + 4H(g)  → CH4(g) (a) –141.2 kJ mol–1 (b) –1412 kJ mol–1
–1
UPTU/UPSEE-2004 (c) +141.2 kJ mol (d) +1412 kJ mol–1
Ans. (c) : The heat of formation of a compound is the UPTU/UPSEE-2016
heat evolved or absorbed when one mole of the Ans. (b): equation ____(i) ∆Η1 = – 52 kJ mol –1
compound is formed from its elements in their standard
state. For carbon, the standard state is graphite. equation ____(ii) ∆Η 2 = – 394 kJ mol –1
∆H of C(graphite) = 0 equation ____(iii) ∆Η3 = – 286 kJ mol –1

Reaction involved for combustion of C2H4 (g) IS, calculate the value of standard heat of reaction
C2H4 + 3O2 → 2CO2, ∆Η = ? for the following disproportionation reaction
2X [ E.q (ii) + Eq. (iii)]– Eq(i), we get Eq. (iv) 2CaCl ( s ) 
→ CaCl 2 ( s ) + Ca ( s )
∆Η = 2[ ∆Η 2 + ∆Η3 ] – ∆Η1 (a) – 607 kJ mol−1 (b) + 607 kJ mol−1
= 2 [–394 – 286]–52
–1
(c) – 419 kJ mol−1 (d) + 419 kJ mol−1
= – 1360 – 52 = –1412 kJ mol UPTU/UPSEE-2012
743. The enthalpy of combustion for the H2, Ans. (c) : Given that, ∆H o (CaCl) = –188 kJ/mol
f
cyclohexene and cyclohexane are –241, –3800
and –3920 kJ mol–1, respectively. Heat of ∆H of (CaCl2) = –795 kJ/mol
hydrogenation of cyclohexene is Standard heat of reaction,
(a) 121 kJ mol–1 (b) – 121 kJ mol–1 ∆H ° = ∆HP° −∆H °R
(c) + 242 kJ mol–1 (d) – 242 kJ mol–1
UPTU/UPSEE-2015 = ∆H of (CaCl2 ) + ∆H fo (Ca) − 2 ∆H fo (CaCl)
1 = −795 + 0 − 2× (−188)
Ans. (b) : H 2 + O 2 → H 2O – 2 41kJ mol –1
2 = −795 + 376 = −419 kJ mol−1
17 747. Given, H2O (l) → H2O(g); ∆H1 = + 43.7 kJ
C6 H10 + O 2 → 6CO 2 + 5H 2 O – 3800 kJ mol –1
2 H2O(s) → H2O(l); ∆H 2 = + 6.05 kJ Calculate
C6 H12 + 902 → 6CO 2 + 6H 2 O – 3920 kJ mol –1 the enthalpy of sublimation of ice.
Adding eqn.(1) and subtracting (3) (a) 49. 75 kJ mol-1 (b) 37. 65 kJ mol-1
-1
∆H Hydrogen = –241+(–3800) – (–3920) (c) 43. 7 kJ mol (d) 55. 23 kJ mol-1
UPTU/UPSEE-2010
= –121 kJ mol –1
Ans. (a) : Given that,
744. Heat of formation of H2O is –188 kJ/mol and H2O(l)→ H2O(g), ∆H = +43.7 kJ
H2O2 is 286 kJ/mol. The enthalpy change for
H2O(s) → H2O(l), ∆H = +6.05 kJ
the reaction; 2H2O2 
→ 2H2O+O2 is
We know that,
(a) 196 kJ (b) –196 kJ ∆Hsublimation = ∆Hfusion + ∆Hvap.
(c) 984 kJ (d) –984 kJ = 43.7 + 6.05
UPTU/UPSEE-2014 = 49.75 kJ mol–1
Ans. (b) : 2H2O2 → 2H2O+O2 748. The heat of formations of CO2(g), H2O(l) and
1 CH4(g) are –400 kJ mol-1, –280 kJ mol-1 and –
H 2 + O 2 → H 2O ∆H = –188 (i) 70 kJ mol–1 respectively. The heat of
2
combustion of CH4 in kJ mol-1 is
H 2 + O 2 → H 2O 2 ∆H = 286 (ii)
(a) 890 (b) –160
∆H° = Product – Reactant (c) –890 (d) –90
= 2 × 188 – 2 × 286 UPTU/UPSEE-2008
= 376 – 572
Ans. (c) : Given,
∆H° = –196
∆Hf(CO2, g) = –400 kJ mol–1
745. For the reaction, ∆Hf(H2O, l) = –280 kJ mol–1
A(g) + 2B(g)  → 2C(g) + 3D(g) ∆Hf(CH4, g) = –70 kJ mol–1
The change of enthalpy at 27oC is 19 kcal. The ∆Hc(CH4, g) = ?
value of ∆E is CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
(a) 21.2 kcal (b) 17.8 kcal ∆Hr = ∆Hf (product) – ∆Hf (reactant)
(c) 18.4 kcal (d) 20.6 kcal = ∆Hf(CO2, g) + 2 × ∆Hf(H2O, g) – [∆Hf(CH4, g) + 2 ×
UPTU/UPSEE-2013 ∆Hf(O2, g)]
Ans. (b) : ∆n g = 5 – 3 = 2 = [–400 + 2 × (–280)] – [–70 + 0]
= –400 – 560 + 70
∆Η = 19 kcal
= –890 kJ mol–1
= 19×103 cal.
∆Ε = ∆Η – ∆n g RT 749. The value of ∆H for cooling 2 mole of an ideal
monoatomic gas from 225oC to 125oC to at
= 19 × 103 – (2×2×300)  5 
= 17.8 kcal constant pressure will be given Cp = R 
 2 
746. If standard enthalpies of formation of CaCl (s) (a) 250 R (b) –500 R
(hypothetical) and that of CaCl2 (s) are – 188 J (c) 500 R (d) – 250 R
mol -1 and –795 kJ mol–1 respectively. WB-JEE-2014
Ans. (b) : Given, Ti = 225°C, Tf = 125°C Greater the size of the atom, greater is the bond length
∆Η = –nCp ∆Τ and less is the bond energy. Si has more size than C and
5 H. So the bond length between Si-Si is more and the
= – 2× R(225 – 125) bond dissociation energy will be less. So, the correct
2 order is Si-Si<C-C<H-H
= – 500R 753. If the mass defect of a nuclide is 3.32 × 10–26 g,
750. Which of the following plots represent an its binding energy is ......... MeV.
exothermic reaction? (a) 9.31 (b) 18.62
(a) (b) (c) 27.93 (d) 37.24
A.P.EAMCET/2003
Ans. (b) : Given mass defect = 3.32 × 10–26 gm.
(c) (d) 3.32 × 10 –26
or mass defect = u
1.66 ×10 –24
WB-JEE-2016 = 2 × 10–2 u
∴ Binding energy = mass defect × 931 MeV
∆H
Ans. (a) : ln K p = = 2 × 10–2 × 931 MeV
2.303T = 18.62 MeV
When log Kp is againest plotted 1/T, then the
754. If the mass defect of 5B11 is 0.081 u, its average
∆H binding energy (in MeV) is :
slope is – and the intercept is constant.
2.303T (a) 8.60 (b) 6.85
For an exothermic reaction, ∆H is negative. So, when (c) 5.60 (d) 5.86
log Kp is plotted against 1/T, it’s straight line with A.P.EAMCET/2008
positive slope and positive intercept. Ans. (b) : Given : ∆m = 0.081 u.
Number of nucleons = 11
5. Bond Energy ∴ Binding energy = ∆m × 931 MeV
= 0.081 × 931
751. Bond enthalpies of A2, B2 and AB are in the = 75.411 MeV
ratio 2 : 1 : 2. If bond enthalpy of formation of and average binding energy
AB is –100kJ mol-1. The bond enthalpy of B2 is Binding energy
(a) 100 kJ mol–1 (b) 50 kJ mol–1 =
(c) 200 kJ mol –1
(d) 150 kJ mol–1 Number of nucleons
Kerala-CEE-29.08.2021 75.411
=
Ans. (c) : Given that, 11
A2 : B2 : AB = 2 : 1 : 2 = 6.85 MeV.
∆HAB = –100 kJmol–1 755. Given, the bond energies of N ≡ N, H – H
The following reaction take place - and N – H bonds as 945, 436 and 391 kJ/mol
A2 + B2 → 2AB respectively, the enthalpy of the reaction
or
1 1
A 2 + B 2 → AB N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) → 2NH 3 ( g ) , is
2 2 (a) – 93 kJ (b) 102 kJ
We can calculate the bond enthalpy of B2 by the give (c) 90 kJ (d) 105 kJ
equation -
(A.P.EAMCET-1992)
1 1 1
∆H A2 + ∆H B2 − ∆H AB = −100 Ans. (a) : Given, the reaction is
2 2 2 N 2 + 3H 2  → 2NH 3
1 x
or × 2x + − 2x = −100 Bond energy of N ≡ N = 945 kJ/mole.
2 2
or x = 200 kJmol–1 Bond energy of 3(H − H) = 3 × 436 = 1308 kJ / mole
752. Which one of the following arrangements Bond energy of 6 ( N − H ) = 6 × 391 = 2346 kJ/mole
shows the bonds H–H, C–C and Si–Si in order ∴ Enthalpy of reaction = reactant – product
of increasing bond energy?
= 945 + 1308 − 2346
(a) Si–Si < C–C < H–H
= 2253 − 2346
(b) C–C < H–H < Si–Si
(c) H––H < Si–Si < C–C = −93kJmol −1
(d) H––H < C–C < Si–Si 756. Average C–H bond energy is 416 kJ mol–1.
SCRA 2012 Which of the following is correct?
Ans. (a) : Si–Si = (340 kJ/mole) (a) CH 4 ( g ) + 416kJ 
→ C ( g ) + 4H ( g )
C–C = (347 kJ/mole)
H–H = (432 kJ/mole) (b) CH 4 ( g ) 
→ C ( g ) + 4H ( g ) + 416 kJ

(c) CH 4 ( g ) + 1664 kJ 
→ C ( g ) + 4H ( g ) Ans. (b): Given that
T = 298K
(d) CH 4 ( g ) 
→ C ( g ) + 4H ( g ) + 1664 kJ
R = 8⋅314 J.K–1. mol–1
(A.P.EAMCET-2004) 1
Ans. (c) : CH4 consists of C-H bonds. C(s) + O 2 (g) → CO(g)
2
To break CH4 into C and 4H, the energy required = 1
4 × 416 = 1664 kJ ∆ng = 1 − = 0.5
2
∴ The requirement satisfied by the following. ∴∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT ........(1)
CH4(g) + 1664 kJ → C(g) + 4H(g) putting these value in eqn. (i) we get-
757. Which one of the following order is correct for ∆H – ∆U = 0.5 × 8.314 × 298
the bond energies of halogen molecules? or ∆H–∆U = 1238 J/mol
(a) I2 > Cl2 > Br2 (b) Br2 > Cl2 > I2
761. Assertion: For a reaction
(c) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 (d) Cl2 > Br2 > I2
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 2001 2NH 3 ( g ) → N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) ;∆H > ∆E
Ans. (d) : Bond dissociation energy of halogen family Reason: Enthalpy change is always greater
decreases down the group as the size of atom increase than internal energy change.
1
Bond energy of halogen ∝ the Reason is the correct explanation of
size of halogens Assertion.
Therefore, the order of bond energy is, (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
Cl2 > Br2 > I2 Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
758. Find the ∆Ho for the reaction H2O(g)
+Br2(g)→HBr(g) + HOBr(g) using: (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
Bond energy of O – H bond in Water = 463 kJ (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
incorrect.
Bond energy of Br– Br bond in Br2= 192 kJ
AIIMS-2008,2014
Bond energy of O – Br bond in HOBr= 234 kJ
Bond energy of H–Br bond in HBr= 364 kJ Ans. (c): 2NH 3 (g) → N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g)
(a) 655 kJ. mol-1 (b) 598 kJ. mol-1 ∆H = ∆E + ∆n g RT
-1
(c) 57 kJ. mol (d) 192 kJ. mol-1 ∆ng = 4 – 2 = 2
AP EAPCET-6 Sep. 2021, Shift-II
∆1 H = ∆E + 2RT
Ans. (c):
The heat of reaction can be calculated based on ∆H > ∆E
the standard heat of formation of all reactants involved. When ∆ng is negative, then enthalpy may be less than
∆Ho = [(234+364)–(463+192)] internal energy. so, reason is incorrect.
= 598 – 655 762. AB, A2 and B2 are diatomic molecules. If the
= – 57 kJ mol–1 bond enthalpies of A2, AB and B2 are in the
759. The decreasing order of bond dissociation ratio 1:1:0.5 and enthalpy of formation of AB
energies of C–C, C–H and H–H bonds in from A2 and B2 is − 100kJ mol−1. What is the
(a) H–H> –C–H> –C–C– bond energy of A2:
(b) –C–C–> C–H> H–H (a) 200kJ mol−1 (b) 100kJ mol−1
−1
(c) –C–H> –C–C–> H–H (c) 300kJ mol (d) 400kJ mol−1
(d) –C–C–> H–H> –C–H AIIMS-2012
AP EAMCET (Engg.) -2007 Ans. (d): Bond energy of A2 be X then bond energy of
AB is also X and bond energy of B2 is X/2
Ans. (a) : Bond dissociation energies depend on the
strength of the bonds. Higher the strength, the greater is A2 + B2 → 2AB,
the energy. 1 1
= A2 + B2 → AB
The bond strength depend upon the extent of 2 2
overlapping which is dependent on the size of each ∆H = –100 kJ
overlapping atom. smaller the size of the atom, more X X
will be the bond strength. Or – 100 =  +  – X
H–H> –C–H> –C–C–  2 4 
760. Find the approximate value of ( ∆H – ∆U ) in J. ⇒ 2X + X 
−100 =  −X
-1
mol , for the formation of CO from its  4 
elements at 298 K. (R = 8.314. J.K-1. mol-1) 2X + X − 4X
(a) –1238 (b) 1238 −100 =
4
(c) 2477 (d) –2477
X = 400 kJ
763. Given that ∆Hf(H) = 218 kJ/mol, express the (a) 180 kJ mol–1 (b) 360 kJ mol–1
H–H bond energy in kcal/mol. (c) 213 kJ mol–1 (d) 425 kJ mol–1
(a) 52.15 (b) 911 BCECE-2006
(c) 104 (d) 52153 Ans. (d) : Given, Bond energy,
VITEEE- 2009 H2(g) → 2H(g) ∆H(H) = +430 kJ mol–1
AP EAMCET (Engg.)-2009 Cl2(g) → 2Cl(g) ∆H(Cl) = +240 kJ mol–1
Ans. (c) : Given : ∆Hf(H) = 218 kJ/mol ∆H(HCl) = –90 kJ
∆Hf(H2) = 2 × 218 = 436 kJ/mol HCl(g) → H(g) + Cl(g)
1kcal = 4.184 kJ 1 1
1 H 2 + Cl 2 → HCl
436 kJ/mol = × 436 2 2
4.184 ∆HHCl = ∆HBE(Reactant) + ∆HBE(Product) – BE of HCl
= 104 kcal/mol 1 1
Hence, H–H energy is 104.3 kcal/mol −90 = × 430 + × 240 − BE of HCl
2 2
764. The bond energies of F2, Cl2, Br2 and I2 are 155, B.E. of HCl = 215+120+90 = 305 + 120 = 425 kJ mol–1
244, 193 and 151kJ/mol. The weakest bond will
be in 768. CH 2 == CH 2 (g) + H 2 (g) → CH 3 −− CH 3 (g)
(a) Cl2 (b) I2 The heat of reaction is [bond energy of
(c) Br2 (d) F2 C −− C = 80kcal,C == C = 145kcal,
AMU 2002 C −− H = 98kcal, H −− H = 103kcal]
Ans. (b) : I2 has weakest bond among the halogens (a) –14 kcal (b) –28 kcal
because due to big size of iodine, the bond length is (c) –42 kcal (d) – 56 kcal
266pm. As well as bond length decreases, the bond BCECE-2004
dissociation energy increases- Hence, the correct option
is (b). Ans. (b) : Bond energy of C–C = 80 kcal
C=C = 145 kcal
765. The bond dissociation energies of four bonds
C-A, C-B, C-D and C-E respectively 240, 382, C–H = 98 kcal
276, 486 kJ mol−1. The atom with smallest size H–H = 103 kcal
is Bond energy of reactant,
(a) A (b) B = BE of (1 × C=C + 4 × C–H + H–H)
(c) D (d) E = 145 + 4 × 98 + 103
Assam CEE-2020 = 640 kcal
Ans. (d) : C–E bond has highest bond Energy, it means Bond energy of product = BE of (C–C + 6 × C–H)
that the covalent bond C–E will be strongest. Smaller is = (80 + 6 × 98)
the size of atom, stronger is the covalent bond. = 668
We can see that C–D bond has the highest bond ∆H0 (Reaction) = Σbond energy of react – Σbond energy
dissociation energy of 486 kJ mol–1. Hence, it is most of product
difficult to break = 640 – 668
766. The bond dissociation enthalpy of gaseous H2, = –28 kcal
Cl2 and HCl are 435, 243 and 431 kJ mol–1 769. Internal energy is sum of
respectively. In the same unit, enthalpy of (a) kinetic energy and potential energy
formation of HCl gas is
(b) all types of energy of the system
(a) – 92 (b) – 184
(c) energy of internal system
(c) + 92 (d) + 184
(d) None of the above
Assam CEE-2018
BCECE-2008
Ans. (a) : H2+ Cl2 → 2HCl Ans. (b) : Internal energy is the energy associated with
For 1 mole of HCl- every substance, depending on the chemical nature,
1 1 temperature, pressure and volume. It is the sum of many
H 2 + Cl 2  → HCl
2 2 Pressure and volume. It is the sum of many type of
Enthalpy of formation: energies such as translational energy, rational energy
vibrational energy, electronic energy etc.
= (1
2
)
BDE H2 + BDE Cl2 − BDE HCl U = Utrans + Urotat + Uvib + Ubonding + Uelectronic
770. The C–C bond dissociation energy in kcal/mol
1 is–
= 431 – (435 + 243)
2 (a) 8.1 (b) 0.81
= –92 kJ. (c) 81 (d) 810
767. The H – H bond energy is 430 kJ mol–1 and Cl BCECE-2009
– Cl bond energy is 240 kJ mol–1, ∆H for HCl is Ans. (c) : C–C Bond the amount of bond dissociation
–90 kJ, The H – Cl bond energy is about : Energy is 81 kcal/mol (or 347 kJ/mol).
771. The following is endothermic reaction ∆G of (NO2) = 0.5 × [2 ∆G of (NO) – RT InKp]
(a) Decomposition of water
(b) Conversion of graphite to diamond ∆G of (NO2) = 0.5 × [ 2×86600 – R (298) ln
(c) Dehydrogenation of ethane to ethylene 1.6×1012] J/mol
(d) All of the above 775. If at 298 K, the bond energies of
BCECE-2010 bonds are
–1
Ans. (d) : The reaction during which heat is observed respectively 414,347,615 and 435 kJ mol , the
known as endothermic reaction. value of enthalpy change for the reaction,
(A) Combustion is always an exothermic procure.
(B) Decomposition of H2O requires energy
(C) Dehydrogenation is an endothermic reaction. (a) +250 kJ (b) –250 kJ
(D) Graphite is more stable than diamond and energy in (c) +125 kJ (d) –125 kJ
needed to convert graphite into diamond.
AIEEE-2003
772. The energy that opposes dissolution of a solvent
Ans. (d) : Given, H2C = CH2+H2 → H3C – CH3
is
(a) hydration energy (b) lattice energy C–H = 414 kJ/mol
(c) internal energy (d) bond energy C – C = 347 kJ/mol
BITSAT 2006 C = C = 615 kJ/mol
H – H = 435 kJ/mol
Ans. (b) : Lattice energy opposes dissolution of a
solvent. Lattice energy is the amount of energy required ∆H = 4∆HC–H + ∆HC=C = ∆HH–H – ∆HC–C – 6∆HC–H
to dissociate 1 mole of ionic crystals into ions. If ∆HC=C = ∆HH–H – ∆HC–C – 2∆HC–H
hydration energy of solid is more than lattice energy, = 615 + 435 – 347 – 2 × 414 = – 125 kJ
then solid dissolves. 776. Assuming that water vapour is an ideal gas, the
773. At 298 K temperature the activation energy for internal energy change (∆E) when 1 mole of
the reaction x2 + y2 → 2 xy + 20kJ is 15 kJ. water is vaporised at 1 bar pressure and 100oC,
(Given : molar enthalpy of vaporisation of
What will be the activation energy for the water at 1 bar and 373 K = 41 kJ mol–1 and R =
reaction 2 xy → x2 + y2 ? 8.3 J mol–1 K–1) will be
(a) – 15 kJ (b) + 35 kJ (a) 4.100 kJ mol–1 (b) 3.7904 kJ mol–1
–1
(c) –5 kJ (d) – 35 kJ (c) 37.904 kJ mol (d) 41.00 kJ mol–1
GUJCET-2017 AIEEE-2007
Ans. (b) : ∆HR = activation energy of forward reaction– Ans. (c) : Given that,
activation energy of backward reaction– Enthalpy, ∆H = 41 kJ/mol
Q –20 = 15 – x = 41000 J/mol
So, x = + 35 kJ Temperature = 100°C
774. The following reaction is performed at 298K = 373 K
2NO(g) + O 2 (g) 2NO 2 (g) ng = 1mol – 0 mol = 1mol
R = 8.314 J/mol °K
The standard free energy of formation of
NO(g) is 86.6 kJ/mol at 298 K. What is the So, we know that, ∆H = ∆U + ngRT
standard free energy of formation of NO2 (g) at ∆U = ∆H – ngRT
298 K? (Kp = 1.6 × 1012) = 41000 – 1 × 8.314 × 373
(a) R(298) In (1.6×1012) – 86600 = 41000 – 3101.122
(b) 86600 + R(298) In (1.6×1012) = 37.89 kJ/mol
In(1.6 × 1012 ) 777. The standard enthalpy of formation of NH3 is –
(c) 86600 – 46.0 kJ mol–1. If the enthalpy of formation of
R(298) H2 from its atoms is –436 kJ mol–1 and that of
(d) 0.5 [2×86600 – R (298) 1n (1.6×1012)] N2 is –712 kJ mol–1, the average bond enthalpy
[JEE Main 2015] of N – H bond in NH3 is
Ans. (d) : Given, ∆G °f (NO) = 86.6kJ / mol (a) −964 kJ mol-1 (b) +352 kJ mol-1
(c) +1056 kJ mol -1
(d) −1102 kJ mol-1
∆G °f (NO2 ) = ? , Kp = 1.6 × 1012
AIEEE-2010
For the given reaction, 2NO(g) + O2(g) 2NO2(g) °
Ans. (b) : Given, ∆H f (NH 3 ) = 46 kJ mol −1
∆G° = –RT InKp ____(1)

∆H °f (H 2 ) = −436 kJ mol −1
∆G°rex. = 2 ∆G of (NO2) – 2 ∆G of (NO) ____(2)
And, ∆H °f (N 2 ) = −712 kJ mol−1
From equation (1) and (2)
2 ∆G of (NO2) – 2 ∆G of (NO) = –RT InKp 1 3
N 2 + H 2 → NH3 ; ∆H = –46.0 KJ ….(i)
2 2
2H → H2 ; ∆H = –436 KJ ….(ii) C–C = 620 – 540
2N → N2 ; ∆H = –712 KJ ….(iii) C–C = 80 kcal/mol
Bond energy of C–C bond = 80 kcal/mol
3  1 
By equation (i) +  × (ii)  +  × (iii)  781. What is the H of the reaction
 2   2 
Thus, H
|
3H + N →NH3 ; H − C − Cl(g) → C(g) + 2H(g) + 2Cl(g)?
3 1 |
∆H = –46.0 + × (−436.0) + × (−712) Cl
2 3 The average bond energies of C–Cl bond and
= –46 –654–356.0 C–H bond are 416 kJ and 325 kJ mol–1
= –1056 respectively.
+1056 (a) 1482 kJ (b) 1482 J
∴ N–H bond energy = = + 352 KJ
3 (c) 1492 kJ (d) 1492 J
778. What will be the enthalpy of formation of NO2 JIPMER-2010
from the given bond dissociation enthalpy Ans. (a): Given, Bond energy of C–Cl = 416 kJ/mol
values? The bond dissociation enthalpy values and bond energy of C–H = 325 kJ/mol
for O2, NO and NO2 are as follows, O2(g):
0kJ/mol, NO(g): 90.25 kJ/mol and NO2(g): 33.18 H
|
kJ/mol respectively. H − C − Cl → C + 2H + 2Cl
(a) +114.1kJ (b) +52.7kJ |
(c) –52.7kJ (d) –114.1kJ Cl
J & K CET-(2018) ∆Η = ΣBER – ΣBEP
Ans. (d) : Given, O2(g) = 0 kJ/mol, NO(g) = 90.25 = 2 × BE(C–H) + 2BE(C–Cl)
kJ/mol, NO2(g) = 33.18 kJ/mol = 2 × 416 + 2 × 325
= 832 + 650
2 NO (g) + O2(g) ↽ ⇀ 2NO 2 (g)
= 1482 kJ
∆Η oReaction = Σ∆Hf (product) – ∆Hf (reactants) 782. Given that, for the reaction,
= (2×33.18) – (2×90.25+0) 1 1
H2 + Cl2 → HCl
∆Η oReaction = –114.1 kJ 2 2
779. The bond energy of an O–H bond is 109 ∆Hf(HCl) = –93 kJ/mol
kcal/mol. When a mole of water is formed, then B.E(H2 ) = 434 kJ/mol
(a) 109 kcals is released
(b) 218 kcals is absorbed B.E(Cl 2 ) = 242 kJ/mol
(c) 109 kcals is absorbed The bond dissociation energy of HCl is
(d) 218 kcals is released (a) 232 kJ/mol (b) 331 kJ/mol
J & K CET-(2003) (c) 431 kJ/mol (d) 530 kJ/mol
Ans. (d) : Bond energy of a O – H bond = 109 kcal/mol JIPMER-2018
When one mole of H2O is formed, energy will be 1 1
released. Ans. (c) : H2 + Cl2 → HCl
Therefore, heat released = –109×2 2 2
BE = Reactant – Product
= –218 kcal/mol
∴ Energy released in the formation of 1 mole of water ∆Hf (HCl) = –93 kJ/mole
= 218 kcal/mol BE (H–H) = 434 kJ /mole
BE(Cl–Cl) = 242 kJ /mole
780. The dissociation energy of CH4 and C2H6 to
convert them into gaseous atoms are 360 and Bond dissociation energy of HCl is
620 kcal/mol respectively. The bond energy of
C-C bond is 1 1 
(a) 130 kcal/mol (b) 80 kcal/mol ∆H f (H–Cl) =  BE (H−H) + BE (Cl –Cl)  – BE (HCl)
2 2 
(c) 180 kcal/mol (d) 260 kcal/mol
1 1 
J & K CET-(1998) –93 =  × 434 + × 242 – BE (HCl)
 2 2 
Ans. (b) : Given,
Dissociation energy of CH4 = 360 kcal/mol –93= (217 + 121) – BE(HCl)
360 BE(HCl) = 338 + 93
B.E. of C–H = = 90kcal ∆H = 431 kJ/mol
4
Bond energy of ethane (C2H6), 783. Two moles of an ideal gas is expanded
1(C–C) + 6(C–H) = 620 kcal/mol isothermally and reversibly at 300 K from 1L
C–C + 6 × 90 = 620 to 10 L. The enthalpy change in kJ is

(a) 11.4 kJ (b) 4.8 kJ (a) –261 kJ (b) + 103 kJ
(c) –11.4 kJ (d) zero kJ (c) + 261 kJ (d) – 103 kJ
MHT CET-02.05.2019, SHIFT-II Karnataka-CET-2016
Ans. (d) : We know, NEET-2004
∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT Ans. (d) : Given, Bond energy –
Given, process is isothermal (i.e. ∆T = 0) BEH–H = 433kJ/mole = ∆H
Hence, Internal energy is also zero because it is a BEBr–Br = 192 kJ/Mole = ∆H
function of temperature. BEH–Br = 364 kJ/mole = ∆H
∆H = 0 + 0 = 0 H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2HBr(g)
784. Identify the equation in which change in ∆H o for the reaction
enthalpy is equal to change in internal energy
(a) 2H 2O 2 ( l ) → 2H 2O ( l ) + O 2 ( g ) ∆H o = ΣB.ER – ΣB.EP
= (BE(H–H) + BE(Br–Br)) –2BE(H-Br)
(b) C ( s ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g )
= (433+192) – 2(364)
(c) PCl5 ( g ) → PCl3 ( g ) + Cl2 ( g ) = 625–728
(d) N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) → 2NH 3 ( g ) ∆H° = – 103 kJ
MHT CET-02.05.2019, SHIFT-II 787. Given that bond energies of H – H and Cl – Cl
are 430 kJ mol–1 and 240 kJ mol–1 respectively
Ans. (b) : Change in enthalpy and internal energy given and ∆Hf for HCl is –90 kJ mol–1, bond enthalpy
as– of HCl is
∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT (a) 380 kJ mol–1 (b) 425 kJ mol–1
(a) 2H2O2(l) → 2H2O(l) + O2(g) (c) 245 kJ mol –1
(d) 290 kJ mol–1
∆ng = 1 NEET-2007
∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT Ans. (b) : H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl
∴ ∆H = ∆U + RT BE(H–H) = 430 kJ/mol
(b) C(S) + O2(g) → CO2(g) BE(Cl–Cl) = 240 kJ/mol
ng = 1 – 1 = 0 ∆H(f HCl) = –70 kJ/mol
∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT 1 1
⇒ ∆H = ∆U H 2 + Cl 2 → HCl
2 2
(c) PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
∆Hf = –90 kJ/mol
∆ng = 2 – 1 = 1
1 1
∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT ∆Hf = BE(H–H) + BE(Cl–Cl)–BE(HCl)
∆H = ∆U + RT 2 2
(d) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) 1 1
–90 = ×430 + ×240 – BE(HCl)
∆ngRT = 2 – 3 = –1 2 2
∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT BE(HCl) = 215 + 120 + 90
= 425 kJ/mol
∆H = ∆U – RT
Equation given in option (b) has enthalpy change equal 788. For the reaction
to internal energy change. A ( g ) + 2B ( g ) 
→ 2C ( g ) − 3D ( g )
785. The bond energy is the energy required to
the change of enthalpy at 27 o C is 19 kcal. The
(a) dissociate one mole of the substance
value of ∆E is: (R = 2.02 cal K–1 mol–1)
(b) dissociate bond in 1 kg of the substance (a) 21.2 kcal (b) 17.8 kcal
(c) break one mole of similar bonds (c) 18.4 kcal (d) 20.6 kcal
(d) break bonds in one mole of substance UPTU/UPSEE-2006
MHT CET-2007
Ans. (b) : We know that, ∆H = ∆E + ∆ngRT
Ans. (c) : Bond Energy is the measures of Bond
strength in a chemical Bond it is the energy or Heat ∆ng = 5 – 3 = 2
required to break one mole of molecule into their ∆Η = 19 kcal
individual atom. = 19 × 103 cal.
H ∆Ε = ∆Η – ∆ngRT
| = 19 × 103 – (2 × 2 × 300)
CH 4 → H − C − H
| = 19000–1200 = 17800 cal
H 17.8 kcal
786. If the bond energies of H–H, Br–Br, and H– 789. C-H bond energy is about 101 Kcal/mol for
Br are 433, 192 and 364 kJ mol–1 respectively, methane, ethane and other alkanes but is only
the ∆H 0 for the reaction H 2(g) + Br2(g) → 77 kcal/mol for C-H bond of CH3 in toluene.
2HBr(g) is this is because:
(a) of inductive effect due to -CH3 in toluene of = – 40 Jk–1 mol–1
(b) of the presence of benzene ring in toluene From the Gibb’s free energy equation-
(c) of resonance among the structures of benzyl ∆G = ∆H – T∆S (for equilibrium ∆G = 0)
radical in toluene ∴ ∆H = T∆S
(d) aromaticity of toluene ∆H –30 × 1000
UPTU/UPSEE-2005 Or T = = = 750K
∆S –40
Ans. (c) : C–H bond in toluene has partial double bond
character due to resonance. 792. The temperature of K at which ∆G = 0, for a
given reaction with ∆H = –20.5 kJ mol–1 and ∆S
∴ C–H bond in toluene has less energy as compared to
= –50.0 JK–1 mol–1 is
others.
(a) – 410 (b) 410
(c) 2.44 (d) 0.36
6. Gibbs Energy Change and AP EAMCET (Engg.) -2014
Equilibrium Ans. (b) : Given, ∆H = –20.5 kJ mol–1
∆S = –50 Jk–1 mol–1
790. Given below are two statements: ∆G = ∆Η -T∆S
Statement I: According to the Ellingham 0 = –(20500) – T (–50) (∆G = 0)
diagram, any metal oxide with higher ∆Go is more 20500 = 50T
stable than the one with lower ∆G o
Statement II: The metal involved in the T = 410K

formation of oxide placed lower in the Ellingham 793. An endothermic reaction is found to have +ve
diagram can reduce the oxide of a metal placed entropy change. The reaction will be
higher in the diagram. (a) possible at high temperature
In the light of the above statements, choose the (b) possible only at low temperature
most appropriate answer from the options (c) not possible at any temperature
given below: (d) possible at any temperature.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. COMEDK-2015
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect Ans. (a) : Given, ∆ S = + ve and ∆ H =+ve
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is Now, ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
incorrect. For a reaction to be spontaneous, ∆G should be –ve,
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is which is only possible at high temperature i.e. when
correct. T∆S > ∆H.
JEE Main-26.06.2022, Shift-I 794. The standard enthalpy of the decomposition of
Ans. (d) : Higher value of ∆Go like HgO, Ag2O are less N2O4 to NO2 is 58.04 kJ and standard entropy
stable. of this reaction is 176.7 J/K. Therefore the
standard free energy changes for this reaction
• In Ellingham diagram lower situated metals is more
at 25°C is
reactive, it can reduce higher metal oxide.
(a) –5.39 kJ (b) 539 kJ
791. Standard entropies of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, (c) 5.39 kJ (d) –539 kJ
40 and 50 /K/ mol respectively. At what
temperature the following reaction will be at COMEDK-2017
equilibrium. Ans. (c) : Given, that
1 3 Standard enthalpy of decompositions (∆H) = 58.04kJ;
X 2 + Y2 XY3 , ∆H = –30kJ
2 2 Standard entropy (∆S) = 176.7 J / K
(a) 500 K (b) 750 K = 176.7×10–3 kJ/K.
(c) 1000 K (d) 1250 K And temperature (T)= 25°C + 273 = 298K.
AP EAPCET 19-08-2021 Shift-I Change in free energy (∆G) = ∆H – T∆S
Ans. (b) : Given, Standard entropies, = 58.04 – 298×(176.7×10–3) = 58.04–52.65
SX2 = 60 Jk mol and ∆H = – 30 kJ
–1 –1
= 5.39 kJ
–1
SY2 = 40 Jk mol –1 795. The equilibrium constant of a reaction is 0.008
at 298 K. The standard free energy change of
SXY3 = 50 Jk–1 mol–1 the reaction at the same temperature is
(a) +11.96 kJ (b) –11.96 kJ
1 3
X 2 + Y2 XY3 (c) –5.43 kJ (d) –8.46 kJ
2 2 COMEDK-2020
∆S = ∑ S(Product ) − ∑ S(Reactant ) Ans. (a) : Given, Equilibrium constant (K) = 0.008
3 1 Temperature (T) = 298 K, R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1
∴∆SReaction = 50 – × 40 – × 60 = 50 – 60 – 30
2 2 ∆G ° = –2.303RT log K

∆G ° = –2.303 × 8.314 × 298 × log(0.008) (a) +,−,+ (b) −,+,−
∆G ° = –5705.84 × –2.09 (c) −,+,+ (d) +,+,−
∆G ° = 11964.65 = 11.96 kJ AIIMS-2015
NEET-1994
796. For the reaction Ans. (b): For all combustion reaction ∆H is negative.
A ( g ) ⇌ B ( g ) at 495 K, ∆r G o = -9.478 kJ mol -1 As the number of gaseous molecules increases, entropy
If we start the reaction in a closed container at also increases i.e. +ve.
495 K with 22 millimoles of A, the amount of B For a spontaneous process ∆G must be negative.
in the equilibrium mixture is _____ millimoles. 799. For a reaction to be spontaneous at all
(Round off to the Nearest Integer). temperatures,
 R = 8.314 J mol -1 K -1 ; ln 10 = 2.303  (a) ∆G = − ve, ∆H = + ve and ∆S = + ve
JEE Main 16.03.2021, Shift-I (b) ∆G = + ve, ∆H = − ve and ∆S = + ve
Ans. (20) : Given, T = 495 K, ∆rG = –9.478 kJ mol–1 (c) ∆G = − ve, ∆H = − ve and ∆S = − ve
R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1
(d) ∆G = − ve, ∆H = − ve and ∆S = + ve
For the reaction–
AIIMS-2008
A (g ) B(g )
Ans. (d): For Spontaneous reaction ∆G < O
Now, From the relation between Gibb's free energy and
rate constant— ∆G = (∆H – T∆S)
∆G = −RTln (K) For spontanceous
−9.478 ×103 = −8.321× 495 × ln (K) ∆G = - ve
or ∆H = - ve
ln (K) = 2.203 ∆S = + ve
or 2.303ln10 (K) = ln10 (ln = 2.303) 800. A certain reaction is non spontaneous at 298K.
or The entropy change during the reaction is 121
K = 10 JK–1. Is the reaction is endothermic or
exothermic ? The minimum value of ∆H for the
Now, A (g ) B(g ) reaction is
t = 0 22 0 (a) endothermic, ∆H = 36.06 kJ
t = T 22 − x x (b) exothermic, ∆H = – 36.06 kJ
∴ K=
x
= 10 (c) endothermic, ∆H = 60.12 kJ
22 − x (d) exothermic, ∆H = – 60.12 kJ
or VITEEE, 2017
x = 220 − 10x or x= 20 Ans. (a) : Given, For non spontaneous reaction
797. For the reaction A(g) → B(g), the value of the ∆G = + ve, ∆S = 121 JK–1, ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
equilibrium constant at 300K and 1 atm is ∆G = + ve, Hence the reaction is endothermic.
equal to 100.0. The value of ∆rG for the The minimum value of ∆H can be obtained by putting
reaction 300K and 1 atm in J mol–1 is – x R, ∆G = 0
where x is _____. (Rounded off to the interger)
∴ ∆H = T∆S
[R = 8.31 mol–1 K–1 and ln10 = 2.3]
JEE Main 24.02.2021, Shift-I ∆H = 298 × 121
Ans. : (1380) Given that a reaction– ∆H = 36.06 kJ.
A(g) → B(g) 801. Standard entropies of X2 , Y2 and XY3 are 60,
K = 100 30 and 50 JK–1mol–1 respectively. For the
T = 300K 1 3
reaction X 2 + Y2 XY3 ,∆H = – 30 kJ to
P = 1 atm 2 2
∆G° = – xR (J mol–1) be at equilibrium, the temperature should be:
x=? (a) 750 K (b) 1000 K
Now, (c) 1250 K (d) 500 K
∆G° = –RTln (K) AIPMT-2010
or –8.31×300×log(102) Ans. (a) : Given reaction is
∆G° = –1380 R 1 3
X 2 + Y2 XY3
Where, x = 1380R 2 2
798. Following reaction occurrs in an automobile ∆S = ΣS(product) – ΣS(reactant)
2C8 H18 ( g ) + 25O 2 ( g ) → 16CO 2 ( g ) + 18H 2O ( g ) ∆S = 50 – (60 + 30) = – 40 JK–1 mol–1
The sign of ∆H, ∆S and ∆G would be ∆H = – 30 KJ

For equilibrium ∆G = 0 Ans. (b) : Given that,
∆G = ∆H – T ∆S Zn (s)+Ag2O(s)+H2O(l)→Zn2+(aq)+2Ag (s)+2OH–(aq)
∆H = T ∆S E °Ag+ / Ag = +0.80V and E °Zn 2+ / Zn = –0.76V
∆H −30 × 103 E °cell = E °cathode − E °anode
T= = = 750 K.
∆S −40
∴ E °cell = 0.80 – (– 0.76) = 1.56 Volt
802. The standard Gibb’s free energy change, ∆G°
is related to equilibrium constant, Kp as ∴ ∆Gº = – nF E°cell
∆G ° ∆Gº = – 2 × 96500 × 1.56 (n = 2, F = 96500)
 e 
(a) K p = − RT ln ∆G ° (b) K p =   or ∆Gº = – 301 kJ/mole
 RT  806. For the equilibrium,
∆G PCl5 ( g ) PCl3 ( g ) + Cl 2 ( g ) at298K.K c = 1.8 × 10−7
(c) K p = − (d) K p = e −∆G ° / RT
RT
then, ∆G for this reaction will be _____ [Given
VITEEE- 2010 log 4.5 = 0.6484]
Ans. (d) : According to Gibb's free energy. (a) 14.56 kJ. mol–1 (b) 13.82 kJ. mol–1
∆G = ∆G° + RT ln Kp (c) 16.24 kJ. mol –1
(d) 19.12 kJ. mol–1
For equilibrium condition ∆G = 0 AP- EAPCET- 07-09-2021, Shift-I
∆G° = –RT ln Kp Ans. (d) : Given Kc = 1.8×10–7
−∆G° −∆G ° / RT
∆Go = –RTlnKc
⇒ ln K p = ⇒ Kp = e ∆Go = –2.303RT log10 Kc
RT
∆G° = Standard change in Gibb's free energy ∆Go = –2.303× 8.31 × 298 log10(1.8×10–7)
Kp = Equilibrium constant ∆Go = – 5703.103 × log10 (log 1.8 + log10–7)
R = Universal gas constant ∆Go = – 5703.103 × (0.2553 – 7)
T = Temperature in Kelvin ∆Go = 38465.87
803. For a cell reaction to be spontaneous, the ∆G = 38.46 kJ mol
o –1
standard free energy change of the reaction Note : The correct answer is 38.48 kJ/mole but official
must be answer is 19.12 kJ/mole
(a) zero (b) positive 807. In the process of ice melting at –15°C at
(c) infinite (d) negative atmospheric pressure,
CGPET-2007 (a) ∆G < 0 (b) ∆G > 0
VITEEE- 2006 (c) ∆G = 0 (d) ∆G = ∞
AMU – 2008
Ans. (d) : For spontaneous reaction free energy change
is negative. Ans. (b) : ∆G = ∆H –T∆S
∆G = –nFE ∆G = Positive (It means, Process is non spontaneous)
Then, Melting of ice below (0 oC / 273 k)
Where F = Faraday constant
∆G > 0
E = emf of the cell
808. The standard free energy change (∆G°) is
804. For a reaction at equilibrium,
related to equilibrium constant (K) as
(a) ∆G = ∆G° = 0 (a) ∆G° = –2.303 RT log K
(b) ∆G = 0 but not ∆G° (b) ∆G° = RT log K
(c) ∆G° = 0 but not ∆G (c) ∆G° = 2.303 RT log K
(d) ∆G = ∆G° ≠ 0 (d) ∆G° = –2.303 RT ln K
SRMJEEE – 2008 Manipal-2018
Ans. (b) : As we know, Gibb's free change for any AMU 2002
reaction in equilibrium condition is 0 i.e. Ans. (a) : The relation between standard free energy
∆G = ∆G° + nRT ln K change (∆G°) and equilibrium constant (K) is given
or below-
∆G° = – nRT ln K ∆G° = –2.303 RT log K
805. Calculate ∆Gº for the following cell reaction. 809. For a process to occur spontaneously
(a) (∆H – T∆S) must be negative
Zn(s) + Ag 2 O(s) + H 2 O(l) →
(b) (∆H + T∆S) must be negative
Zn 2n+ (aq.) + 2Ag(s) + 2OH – (aq.) (c) ∆H must be negative
°
E Ag+ / Ag = +0.80V and E °
= –0.76V (d) ∆S must be negative
Zn 2+ / Zn
Assam CEE-2014
(a) – 305 kJ/mol (b) – 301 kJ/mol Ans. (a) : For a process to occurs spontaneously–
(c) 305 kJ/mol (d) 301 kJ/mol
∆G Must be Negative

∆G < O (Negative) If ∆G = 0, then K = 0, and the reaction is at equilibrium.
When ∆G < 0, then K > 0, it means reaction is
∆G = ∆H – T∆S
spontaneous.
If ∆G = Negative 814. For a chemical reaction, ∆G is always less than
Then, zero (∆G <0) if
(∆H – T∆S) must be Negative. (a) ∆H and T∆S both are positive
810. For the reduction of Ag+ ions with copper (b) ∆H and T∆S both are negative
metal the Standard cell potential was found to (c) ∆H is negative and T∆S is positive
be 0. 46 V at 25o C. The value of standard (d) ∆H is positive and T∆S is negative
Gibb's free energy will be CG PET -2019
(a) -89.0 kJ mol-1 (b) -890 J mol-1 Ans. (c) : For a chemical Reaction It ∆G < 0 or
-1
(c) -44.5 kJ mol (d) -98.0 kJ mol-1 Negative then
Assam CEE-2019 ∆G = (∆H – T∆S)
Ans. (a) : Given, Eocell = 0. 46 V
∆G = – ∆H + T∆S
Cu + 2Ag+ → Cu2+ + 2Ag
We know, ∵ ∆H = – ve and T∆S = + ve
∆G = –nFE cell (n = 2, F = 96500)
o o
815. Cell reaction is spontaneous when
= –2× 96500 × 0.46 = –88780 J] (a) ∆G ° is negative (b) ∆G ° is positive
= – 88.780 kJ –89kJ (c) ∆E °red is positive (d) ∆E °red is negative
811. For CaCO 3 (s) CaO(s) + CO 2 (g) at 927 C,
0
−1
CG PET -2007
∆H = 176kJ mol then ∆E is :
Ans. (a) : ∆G = –NF Ecell
(a) 180 kJ (b) 186.4 kJ
Ecell is an intensive property but ∆G is an extensive
(c) 166.0 kJ (d) 160 kJ property.
BCECE-2006 If the electrode potential is assumed to be positive then,
Ans. (c) : Given, ∆H = 176kJ mol , –1
When ∆G < 0, the spontaneous cell reaction.
T = 927°C + 273 = 1200 K When ∆G > 0, the non-spontaneous cell reaction.
∆H = ∆E + ∆n g RT 816. Which of the following relation is correct?
176 = ∆E + 8.314 × 10–3 × (273+927) (a) ∆H = ∆G + T∆S (b) ∆H = −∆G − T∆S
176 = ∆E + 9.9768 (c) ∆H = ∆G − T∆S (d) ∆H = −∆G + T∆S
∆E = 166 KJ CG PET -2004
−1 Ans. (a) :
812. For A  → B, ∆H = 4k cal mol
Gibbs Free Energy
∆S = 10 cal mol −1 reaction is spontaneous when ∆H = ∆G + T∆S
temperature can be :
Where, ∆H = enthalpy change
(a) 400 K (b) 300 K
∆S = entropy change
(c) 500 K (d) none of these
T = temperature
BCECE-2004
∆H = ∆G + T∆S
Ans. (c) : Given, ∆H = 4k cal mol–1
∆G = ∆H – T∆S
∆S = 10 cal mol-1
817. For a spontaneous reaction, the ∆G,
∆G = ∆Η – Τ∆S equilibrium constant (K) and Ecell °
will be
For spontaneous reaction, ∆G = –Ve respectively
T∆S > ∆H (a) –ve, > 1, –ve (b) –ve, <1, –ve
∆H 4 × 1000 (c) +ve, >1, –ve (d) –ve, >1, +ve
or T> =
∆S 10 AIEEE-2005
T > 400 Ans. (d) : We know
It means temperature Should be greater then 400K ∆Go = – 2.303 RT log K
813. For a system in equilibrium ∆Go = − nFE 0cell
(a) ∆G = 0 (b) ∆G > 0 For spontaneous process
(c) ∆G < 0 (d) ∆H = 0 K > 1 and Ecell = +ve
BCECE-2009 and ∆Go = –ve
Ans. (a) : If ∆G > 0, then K < 0, and the reaction must 818. In an irreverible process taking place at
proceed to the left to reach equilibrium. constant T and p and in which only pressure-
volume work is being done, the change in ∆G of (CH3OH) = −166.2kJ mol−1
Gibbs free energy (dG) and change in entropy
(dS), satisfy the criteria ∆G of (H2O) = –237.2 kJ mol–1
(a) (dS)V,E < 0, (dG)T,p < 0
∆G of (CO2 ) = −394.4kJ mol−1
(b) (dS)V,E > 0, (dG)T,p < 0
(c) (dS)V,E = 0, (dG)T,p = 0 ∆H = –726 kJ mol–1
(d) (dS)V,E = 0, (dG)T,p > 0 ∵ ∆G = Σ∆G of (products) – Σ∆G of (reactant)
AIEEE-2003
= – 394.4 –2 (237.2) + 166.2
Ans. (b) : An irreversible process (i.e. spontaneous = –702.6 kJ mol–1
process )
now efficiency of fuel cell
(ds)V,E (change in entropy) = + ve > 0
(dG)T,p (change in Gibbs free energy) = –ve < 0 ∆G
= ×100
819. The correct relationship between free energy ∆Η
change in a reaction and the corresponding 702.6
= ×100
equilibrium constant Kc is 726
(a) ∆G = RT 1n Kc (b) –∆G = RT 1nKc = 97%
(c) ∆G° = RT 1nKc (d) –∆G° = RT 1nKc 822. The incorrect expression among the following
AIEEE-2003 is
Ans. (d) : ∆G = ∆G° + RTln Kc ∆G system
(a) = −T
Kc = Reaction quotient at equilibrium ∆G total
∆G = 0 (at equilibrium) (b) In isothermal process,
Then, V
Wreversible = –nRT In f
−∆G o = RTln K c Vi
820. A reaction is non-spontaneous at the freezing ∆H° − T∆S°
(c) ln K =
point of water but is spontaneous at the boiling RT
point of water, then (d) K = e–∆G°/RT
∆H ∆S AIEEE-2012
(a) +ve +ve Ans. (c) : ∆G° = – RT lnK (i)
(b) –ve –ve
(c) –ve +ve ∆G° = ∆H° – T∆S° (ii)
(d) +ve –ve from equation (i) and (ii)
AIEEE-2002 – ( ∆H° + T∆S° )= RT ln K
Ans. (a) : We know, ∆H° − T∆S°
ln K =
∆G = ∆H – T∆S RT
At lower temperature, process is non spontaneous. It 823. The standard reaction Gibbs energy for a
means ∆G > 0 and ∆H > 0. chemical reaction at an absolute temperature T
At high temperature, process is spontaneous. It means is given by,
∆G > 0 and ∆S > 0 ∆r G° = A – BT
821. In a fuel cell, methanol is used as fuel and Where A and B are non-zero constants.
oxygen gas is used as an oxidiser. The reaction Which of the following is true about this
is reaction?
3 (a) Endothermic if, A < 0 and B > 0
CH3OH(l)+ O 2 (g)  → CO 2 (g) + 2H 2O( l )
2 (b) Exothermic if, B < 0
At 298 K standard Gibb's energies of (c) Exothermic if, A > 0 and B < 0
formation for CH3OH(l), H2O(l) and CO2 (g) (d) Endothermic if, A > 0
are –166.2, –237.2 and –394.4 kJ mol–1, JEE Main-2019, Shift-II
respectively. If standard enthalpy of Ans. (d) : Given, ∆rG° = A – BT ….(i)
combustion of methanol is –726 kJ mol–1,
We know that the relation,
efficiency of the fuel cell will be
∆G° = ∆H – T∆S ….(ii)
(a) 80% (b) 87%
Comparing the equation.
(c) 90% (d) 97%
A = ∆H, B = ∆S
AIEEE-2009
If ∆H > 0 it means reaction is endothermic

824. For the chemical reaction, X Y, the and
standard reaction Gibbs energy depends on ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
temperature T (in K) as = –22477.52 – (298) × (–30)
3 = –13537.5 J
∆rG° (in kJ mol–1) = 120 – T
8 13538 J
The major component of the reaction mixture 828. For the reaction; A(I)  → 2B(g)
at T is ∆U = 2.1 kcal, ∆S = 20 cal K–1 at 300 K.
(a) Y if T = 280 K (b) X if T = 350 K Hence, ∆G in kcal is..........
(c) X if T = 315 K (d) Y if T = 300 K JEE Main-2020, Shift-I
JEE Main-2019, Shift-I
Ans. (2.70) Given, R = 2 cal/mol-K
3 ∆U = 2.1 kcal = 2100 cal
Ans. (c) : ∆rG° (in kJ mol–1) = 120 – T
8 ∆S = 20 cal K–1
At equilibrium ∆G = 0 T = 300 K
∴ T = 320 K ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT (∆ng = 2–0 = 2)
X Y = 2100 + 2 × 2 × 300
If T > 320 K = 3300 cal
∆G becomes negative ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
∆G = –ve = 3300 – 300 × 20
Y>X = 2700 cal
T < 320 = 2.7 kcal
X>Y 829. Which is the correct Gibb's Helmholtz
825. A process will be spontaneous at all equation?
temperature if 1
(a) ∆H > 0 and ∆S < 0 (b) ∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0 (a) H= G–T. S (b) S= [ G– H]
T
(c) ∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0 (d) ∆H > 0 and ∆S > 0 1
JEE Main-2019, Shift-I (c) S= [ H– G] (d) – G= H–T. S
T
Ans. (b) : For spontaneous process at all temperature. JCECE - 2003
∆G < 0 and ∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0 Ans. (c): Equation of Gibb’s free Energy
826. The incorrect match in the following is ∆G = ∆H – T ∆S
(a) ∆G° < 0, K > 1 (b) ∆G° = 0,K = 1 T ∆S = ∆H – ∆G
(c) ∆G° > 0,K < 1 (d) ∆G° < 0,K < 1 1
JEE Main-2019, Shift-II ∆S = ( ∆H – ∆G )
T
Ans. (d) : ∆G = ∆Go + RTlnK
830. If equilibrium constant is 2.6 × 10–8 at 298 K,
At equilibrium (∆G = 0)
then find the value of ∆G o .
∆Go + RTlnK = 0
(a) - 43.36 kJ (b) - 63.2 kJ
∆Go = –RTlnK
(c) - 23.3 kJ (d) + 40 kJ
If K<1
JIPMER-2019
Then ∆Go >0
Ans. (a) : Given, K = 2.6×10–8, T = 298 K
827. For a dimerisation reaction R = 8.314 J/k mol
2A(g) → A2(g), ∆Go = –2.303 RT log K
at 298 K, ∆UƟ = –20 kJ mol–1, ∆Go = –2.303 × 8.314 × 298 log (2.6 × 10–8)
∆SƟ = –30 JK–1 mol–1, then the ∆GƟ will be ∆Go = 432790.01
.......J. ∆Go = 43.27 kJ
JEE Main-2020, Shift-II
43.27 kJ 43.36 kJ
Ans. (13538)
831. When compared to ∆Go for the formation of
Given that,
Al2O3, the ∆Go for the formation of Cr2O3 is
∆G = ∆H – T∆S ….(i) (a) Higher (b) Lower
∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT ….(ii) (c) Unpredicted (d) Same
and Karnataka-CET, 2008
∆ng = change gaseous moles of (product – reactant) Ans. (a) : Between Al2O3 and Cr2O3, Al2O3 is more
∆ng = (2–2) = –1 stable, so its ease of formation is high i.e., ∆Go is
∆H = –20×103 + (–1) (8.314)×298 negative or less than that of Cr2O3.
∆H = –22477.52 J Hence, ∆Go of Cr2O3 > ∆Go of Al2O3.

832. In equilibrium state the value of ∆G is Actual value of enthalpy = Cal. enthalpy – resonance energy
(a) zero = (–358.5) – (–150.4)
(b) negative = – 208.1 kJ/mol
(c) positive Hence, the enthalpy of hydrogenation of benzene is –
(d) may be negative or positive 208.1 kJ/mol
Karnataka-CET-2007 837. PbO2 → PbO, ∆G298 < 0
Ans. (a) : In the equilibrium state the value of ∆G is SnO2 → SnO, ∆G298 > 0
zero. Most probable oxidation state of Pb and Sn will
833. Which of the following can help predict the be
rate of a reaction if the standard Gibbs free (a) Pb4+, Sn4+ (b) Pb4+, Sn2+
energy of reaction (∆G) is known? 2+
(c) Pb , Sn 2+
(d) Pb2+, Sn4+
(a) Equilibrium constant NEET-2001
(b) ∆H +4 +2
(c) ∆U Ans. (d) : Given, PbO 2 
→ PbO , ∆G 298 < 0
(d) Heat liberated during the course of reaction in
calorimeter ∆G = –ve means reaction is spontaneous in forward
(e) Both (a) and (b) direction.
Kerala-CEE-2018 Thus, stability of Pb2+ > Pb4+
+4 +2
Ans. (a) : We know, ∆G (Gibbs free energy) is related
o
SnO 2 → SnO ∆G 298 > 0,
to K (equilibrium constant)
∆G° = –2.303 RT log10 K ∆G = +ve thus, backward reaction is spontaneous.
K = Equilibrium const. Thus, stability of Sn4+ > Sn2+
R = Gas constant Thus, Pb2+ and Sn4+.
T = Temperature (K) 838. Standard enthalpy and standard entropy
by knowing the value of K we can find out the rate of a changes for the oxidation of ammonia at 298 K
reaction. are – 382.64 kJ mol–1 and –145.6 J mol–1,
834. The equilibrium constant for a reaction is 10. respectively Standard Gibbs' energy change for
∆Gº will be the value of ∆G −○ (R = 8.314 JK–1 the same reaction at 298 K is
mol–1, T = 300 K) (a) -221.1 kJ mol–1 (b) -339.3 kJ mol–1
(a) – 5527 kJ mol–1 (b) – 5.527 kJ mol–1 (c) -439.3 kJ mol –1
(d) –523.2 kJ mol–1
–1
(c) – 55.27 kJ mol (d) + 5.527 kJ mol–1 NEET-2004
Manipal-2017 Ans. (b) : Given that,
−
○
Ans. (b) : ∆G = –2.303RT log K ∆H = –382.64 kJ, ∆S = –145.6J = –145.6 × 10–3 kJ
∆G−○ = –2.303 × 8.314 × 300 log10 T = 298 K, ∆G = ?
= –57441.4 J mol–1 ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
∆G−○ = –5.74 kJ/mole–1 = –382.64 – 298 × (–145.6 × 10–3)
835. The criterion for a spontaneous process is = –382.640 + 43.38
(a) ∆G > 0 (b) ∆G < 0 = –339.3 kJ mol–1
(c) ∆G = 0 (d) ∆Stotal < 0 839. Identify the correct statement for change of
MHT CET-2016 Gibb's energy for a system (∆Gsystem) at
Ans. (b) : constant temperature and pressure.
For spontaneous process ∆S = +ve (Because of (a) if ∆Gsystem> 0, the process is spontaneous.
disorderness or randomness) (b) if ∆Gsystem = 0, the system has attained
For a process to be spontaneous ∆G < 0. equilibrium
836. Enthalpy of hydrogenation of one mole of (c) if ∆Gsystem = 0, the system is still moving in
benzene to cyclohexane is [Resonance energy of particular direction
benzene = – 150.4 kJ/mole.
Enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene = – (d) if ∆Gsystem < 0, the process is not spontaneous.
119.5 kJ/mole] NEET-2006
(a) –208.1 kJ/mole (b) –358.1 kJ/mole Ans. (b) : If the Gibbs free energy for a system
(c) +150.4 kJ/mole (d) –269.9 kJ/mole (∆Gsystem) is equal to zero, then system is present in
TS EAMCET 04.08.2021, Shift-I equilibrium at a constant temperature and pressure.
Ans. (a) : Enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene = ∆G = ∆rGo + RT lnK ; ∆G = 0
– 119.5 kJ/mol
Calculated enthalpy of benzene = 3 × (–119.5) = 338.5 ∆rGo = –RT ln K
kJ/mol K = equilibrium constant
Resonance energy of benzene = – 150.4 kJ/mol If ∆Gsystem < 0, then the process is spontaneous

840. For vaporization of water at 1 atmospheric 1
pressure, the values of ∆H and ∆S are 40.63 kJ (a) C(graphite) + O 2 ( g) → CO( g)
2
mol–1 and 108.8 J K–1 mol–1, respectively. The
temperature when Gibbs' energy change (∆G) 1
(b) CO(g) + O 2 ( g) → CO 2 ( g)
for this transformation will be zero, is 2
(a) 273.4 K (b) 393.4 K 1
(c) 373.4 K (d) 293.4 K (c) Mg(s) + O 2 ( g) → MgO( g)
2
NEET-2010 1 1
Ans. (c) : Given ∆H = 40.63 kJ/mol, ∆S = 108.8 J/K– (d) C(graphite) + O 2 ( g) → CO( g)
2 2
mol
NEET-2012
According to Gibbs equation
∆G = ∆H – T∆S 1
Ans. (a) : (a) C(graphite) + O 2 ( g) → CO( g)
Given, ∆G = 0 2
∆H = T∆S ∆ng = 1 – =
1 1
40.63×10 3 2 2
T= 1
108.8 (b) CO(g) + O 2 ( g) → CO 2 ( g)
T = 373.4 K 2
841. For the reaction, X2O4(l) → 2XO2(g) ∆ng = 1 – =
3 –1
-1
∆U = 2.1 kcal, ∆S = 20 cal K at 300 K 2 2
hence, ∆G is 1
(c) Mg(s) + O 2 ( g) → MgO( g)
(a) 2.7 kcal (b) – 2.7 kcal 2
(c) 9.3 kcal (d) –9.3 kcal –1
NEET-2014 ∆ng =
2
Ans. (b) : Given that, 1 1
∆U = 2.1 kcal = 2.1 × 103 cal (d) C(graphite) + O 2 ( g) → CO( g)
2 2
∆S = 20 cal K–1
T = 300 K 1 1
∆ng – = 0
R = 2 cal/mol K 2 2
We know, The change in ∆ng highest which indicate the more
∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT .....(i) gaseous product is formed
(∆ng = 2 – 0 = 2) 844. Which of the following relation is incorrect?
∆H = 2.1 × 1000 + 2 × 2 × 300 −∆G o
= 3300 cal (a) ∆G =–RT lnk

o
(b) k = e RT
Gibbs free energy, −∆G o
∆G o
∆G = ∆H – T∆S (c) e 2.303RT (d) lnk = −
= 3300 – 300 × 20 RT
= –2700 cal UP CPMT-2014
= −2.7 kcal Ans. (c) : ∆G° = –RT lnk
842. A reaction having equal energies of activation ∆G o
lnk = –
for forward and reverse reactions has RT
(a) ∆H = 0 (b) ∆H = ∆G = ∆S = 0 K=e −∆G ° / RT
(c) ∆S = 0 (d) ∆G = 0 −∆G 0
NEET, 2013 K=e 2.303RT
Ans. (a) : Change in Enthalpy

845. The reaction, A + B C + D, is studied in 1 L
∆H = ∆E vessel at 250°C. The initial concentration of A
∆H = Eaf –Eab was 3n and that of B was n. When equilibrium
(Ea)f → Activation energy for Forward reaction was attained, equilibrium concentration of C
(Ea)b → Activation Energy for Backward reaction was found to be equal to the equilibrium
(Ea)f = (Ea)b concentration B, then concentration of D at
It ∆H = 0 equilibrium will be
then n  1
(Ea)f = (Ea)b (a) (b)  3n − 
2  2
843. In which of the following reactions, standard  n 
reaction entropy change (∆S0) is positive and (c)  n −  n (d) n
 2
standard Gibbs energy change (∆G ) decrease
0
sharply with increasing temperature? UP CPMT-2013

Ans. (a) : Given equilibrium is, 848. For combustion of one mole of magnesium in
A + B C+D an open container at 300 K and 1 bar pressure
Initial concentration: 3n n 0 0 ∆cH– = –601.70 kJmol–1, the magnitude of
at equilibrium 3n – x n – x x x change in internal energy for the reaction is
_____ kJ. (Nearest integer)
At equilibrium the concentration of C is equal to
concentration of B (Given : R = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1)
(n – x) = x JEE Main-28.06.2022, Shift-II
n = 2x Ans. (600) : Given that, ∆H = –601. 70 kJ, R = 8.3 JK–1
n mol–1, T = 300 K
x=
2 1
Mg(s) + O 2 (g)  → MgO(s)
n 2
So, the concentration of C  is equal to the
 2 1 
∆n g = 1 −  + 1 = − 1/ 2
concentration of D. 2 
Thus, the concentration of D(x) =
n Since, ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT
2 ∆U = ∆H – ∆ng RT
846. What will be the value of ∆G and ∆G0 for the 1
reaction, A + B C + D at 270C for which K = = –601.70 + × 8.3 × 300 ×10−3
2
2
10 ? = –601.70 + 1.245
(a) ∆G = 0; ∆G0 = –11.48 kJ mol–1 = –600.455 kJ –600 kJ
(b) ∆G = 0; ∆G0 = 11.48 kJ mol–1 849. For complete combustion of methanol the
(c) ∆G = –11.48 kJ mol–1; ∆G0 = 0 3
(d) ∆G = 11.48 kJ mol–1; ∆G0 = 0 CH 3 OH(l ) + O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g) + 2H 2 O(l )
2
UPTU/UPSEE-2018
amount of heat produced as measured by bomb
Ans. (c) : ∆G = ∆G° + RT calorimeter is 726 kJmol–1 at 27oC. The
At equilibrium enthalpy of combustion for the reaction is –x
∆G = 0 kJmol–1, where x is ____. (Nearest integer)
0 = ∆G° + 2.303 R×T×log Keq. (Given: R=8.3 JK–1 mol–1)
∆G° = –2.303 RT log Keq. JEE Main-26.06.2022, Shift-I
= –2.303×8.314×10–3×300×log10102 Ans. (727) : Given that, ∆U = – 726 kJ/mol
= –2.303×8.314×10–3×300×2 R = 8.3 JK–1 mol–1, T = 27 + 273 = 300 K
∆G = –11.48 kJ
°
3
CH 3OH(l ) + O 2 (g)  → CO 2 (g) + 2H 2O(l )
2
7. Enthalpy and standard 3 1
∆n g = 1 − = −
Enthalpies For Different Types 2 2
of Reaction ∆H = ∆U + ∆ng RT
 1
= –726 +  −  × 8.3 × 300 × 10−3
847. At 25°C and 1 atm pressure , the enthalpy of  2
combustion of benzene (l) and acetylene (g) are = – 727.245 KJ/mol ≈ – 727 KJ/mol
–3268 kJmol–1 and –1300 kJmol–1, respectively.
Then x is 727.
The change in enthalpy for the reaction
3C2H2(g) → C6H6(l), is 850. The standard enthalpy of formation of CH4(g),
(a) + 324 kJ mol–1 (b) + 632 kJ mol–1 CO2(g) and H2O(l) are –75 kJ mol–1, –393 kJ
(c) – 632 kJ mol –1
(d) – 732 kJmol–1 mol–1 and –286 kJ mol–1 respectively. The
amount of heat liberated (in kJ) when 3.2 g of
methane gas is burnt under standard
Ans. (c) : 3C 2 H 2 (g) 
→ C 6 H 6 (l ) conditions is
∆H of C6 H 6 = −3268kJ / mol (a) 89 (b) 278
(c) 890 (d) 965
∆H of C2 H 2 = −1300kJ / mol
(e) 178
∆°c H = ∑ (∆H) Reactant − ∑ (∆H) Product Kerala CEE -03.07.2022
= 3×∆H C2H2 −∆H C6 H6 Ans. (e) : CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
= 3× (−1300) − (−3268) ∆H c = ∑ ∆H f (products) −∑ ∆H f (reactants)
= –393 – 572 + 75
= −632kJ / mol
= –890 KJ/mol
1 mole methane of heat liberated = 890 kJ Ans. (300) :
16 gm of CH4 on combustion liberate 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2FeO3(s); ∆S = –550 J/K
800 At equilibrium, ∆Go = 0
= × 3.2 ∆Go = ∆Ho – T∆So
16
= 178KJ = ∆Ho – T∆So
T∆So = ∆Ho
851. 2O3(g) = 3O2(g)
∆H o −165 ×103
At 300 K, ozone is fifty percent dissociated. T= = = 300
The standard free energy change at this ∆So −550
temperature and 1 atm pressure is (–) _____ J T = 300K
–1
mol . (Nearest integer) 854. 17.0 g of NH3 completely vapourises at –
[Given: In 1.35 = 0.3 and R = 8.3 J K–1mol–1) 33.42ºC and 1 bar pressure and the enthalpy
JEE Main-24.06.2022, Shift-I change in the process is 23.4kJ mol–1. The
enthalpy change for the vapourisation of 85g of
Ans. (747) : NH3 under the same conditions is ––––– kJ.
2O3 (g)  → 3O 2 (g) JEE Main-29.06.2022, Shift-I
1
(1–0.5) = 0.5 3
0
× 0.5= 0.75 mole
Ans. (117) : ∆H vap of 17 gm of NH3 = 23.4 kJ mol–1
2
23.4
Total moles = 1.25 So, ∆Hvap of 85 gram = × 85
3
17
 0.75  = 23.4 × 5 = 117 kJ
( )
3
 
1.25  ( 3 / 5 ) 0.216
3
PO2
Kp = =  = = = 1.35 855. N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) 2NH 3 ( g )
( )  0.5  ( 2 / 5)
2 2 2
PO3 0.16
  Then ∆H is equal to :
 1.25  (a) ∆U + 2RT (b) ∆U – 2RT
∆Go = –RT ln Kp (c) ∆U + RT (d) ∆U – RT
= –8.3 × 300 ln (1.35) CG PET-22.05.2022
= –8.3 × 300 × 0.3 Ans. (b) : N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) 2NH 3 ( g )
= –747 J/mole ∆ng = 2 – (1 + 3) = –2
852. A fish swimming in water body when taken out Q ∆H = ∆U + ∆ng R T
from the water body is covered with a film of = ∆U + (–2) RT
water of weight 36 g. When it is subjected to ∆H = ∆U – 2 RT
cooking at 100°C, then the internal energy for 856. At 25°C and 1 atm pressure, the enthalpies of
vaporization in kJ mol–1 is –––––. [nearest combustion are as given below :
integer] Substance H2 C(graphite) C2H6(g)
[Assume steam to be an ideal gas. Given ∆vapH– –286.0 –394.0 –1560.0
∆c H –
for water at 373 K and 1 bar is 41.1 kJ mol–1;
–1
R=8.31 J K–1 mol–1] kJ mol
JEE Main-26.06.2022, Shift-II The enthalpy of formation of ethane is
Ans. (38) : Given that, Weight of water = 36 gm (a) +54:0 kJ mol–1 (b) –68.0 kJ mol–1
–1
(c) –86.0 kJ mol (d) +97.0 kJ mol–1
36
Mole of water = = 2 moles JEE Main-24.06.2022, Shift-II
18
T = 373 K, ∆vap H° = 41.1 kJ/mol
7
Q ∆V = ∆H – nRT (i) C2H6(g) + O2 (g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2(l) ∆H° = –
2
= 41.1 – 3.31 × 373 ×10–3 1560 kJ/mol
= 38 kJmol–1 (ii) C (s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) ∆H° = – 394 kJ/mol
853. The standard entropy change for the reaction 1
(iii) H2(g)+ O2 (g) → H2O (g) ∆H° = – 286 kJ/mol
4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) →2Fe2O3(s) is –550 J K–1 at 2
298 K. For ethane,
[Given: The standard enthalpy change for the 2C (s) + 3H2 (g) → C2H6 (g)
reaction is –165 kJ mol–1]. The temperature in ∆H or = ∆H o (reactant) – ∆H° (Product)
K at which the reaction attains equilibrium = 2 × (–394) + 3(–286) – (–1560)
is______. (Nearest integer) = – 788 – 858 + 1560
JEE Main-25.06.2022, Shift-I = – 86 kJ/mole.

07.
Chemical Equilibrium
+d[C] 1 +d[D]
1. Law of Chemical Equilibrium = ×
dt 9 dt
and Equilibrium Constant 1
9A + 2B → C + 3D
3
1. 2 moles of PCl5 is decomposed in 2 litre closed ⇒ 3A + 6V → C + 9D
vessel. At Equilibrium the percentage +d [ C]
Rate of reaction =
decomposition of PCl5 is 40% . The value of dt
Equilibrium constant is: = 1m mol dm-3 S-1
(a) 0.267 (b) 0.0267 3. The standard free change (∆G°) for 50%
(c) 2.67 (d) 26.7 dissociation of N2O4 into NO2 at 27°C and 1
CG PET-22.05.2022 atm pressure is –X J mol–1. The value of X
Ans. (a) : is____. (Nearest Integer).
PCl5 ↽ ⇀ PCl3 + Cl2 [Given: R = 8.31 J K–1 mol–1, log 1.33 = 0.1239,
In 10 = 2.3]
2× 60 2× 40 2× 40 JEE Main-25.06.2022, Shift-I
100 100 100 Ans. (710) : N2O4 2NO2(g)
∵ Volume of container = 2 liter 1–α 2α
2
 2× 40 
4α 2 P 4 × ( 0.5 ) × 1
2
 1
100× 2  Kp = = =
1− α 1 − ( 0.5 )
2
Kc = 0.75
2× 60
100× 2 4
Kp =
∵ K c = 0.267 3
△G o = −2.3RT log K p
2. For a given chemical reaction
= –2.3 × 8.31 × 300 × log(1.33)
γ1A + γ2B γ3C + γ4 D = –710.4J mol–1
Concentration of C changes from 10 m mol = –710 J mol–1
dm–3 to 20 m mol dm–3 in 10 seconds. Rate of = 710 mol–1
appearance of D is 1.5 times the rate of
disappearance of B, which is twice the rate of 4. 2NOCl(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Cl2 (g)
disappearance of A. The rate of appearance of In an experiment, 2.0 moles of NOCl was
D has been experimentally determined to be 9 placed in a one-litre flask and the
–3 –1
mmol dm s . Therefore the rate of reaction concentration of NO after equilibrium
is_______mmol dm–3 s–1. (Nearest Integer) established was found to be 0.4 mol/L. The
equilibrium constant ag 30oC is_____10–4.
Ans. (1m mol dm–3 S–1) : For given chemical reation
Ans. (125 × 10–4) :
γ1A + γ 2 B 
→ γ 3C + γ 4 D 2NOCl ⇌ 2NO + Cl 2
d[ D] −3 d [ B ] At initially 2mole 0 0
Given, + =
dt 2 dt At equilibrium (2 − 0.4) 0.4 0.2
−1 d [ B ] + 1 d [ D ]
⇒ = 2 2
( NO) (Cl2 ) (0.4) (0.2)
2 dt 3 dt Kc = =
2 2
−d[B] d[A] ( NOCl) (1.6)
⇒ = −2
dt dt = 0.0125
1 [B] −d(A) d[B] = 125 × 10–4
⇒ − = +
2 dt dt dt 5. Some of the reactions and their equilibrium
= 9m mol dm–3 S–1 constants Kc are given. Choose the reaction
+d[C] 20 −10 which proceeds rarely at the given
⇒ = = 1m moldm−3S−1 temperature.
dt 10
(a) 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(g) ; Kc = 2.4 × 7.
PCl5 dissociates as
PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
1047 at 500 K
5 moles of PCl5 are placed in a 200 litre vessel
(b) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) ; Kc=57.0 at 700 K which contains 2 moles of N2 and is maintained
at 600 K. The equilibrium pressure is 2.46 atm.
(c) H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g) ; Kc = 4.0×1031 The equilibrium constant Kp for the
at 300 K dissociation of PCl5 is_____× 10–3 (nearest
(d) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) ; Kc =4.8 × 10–31 integer)
(Given : R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1; Assume
at 298 K ideal gas behaviour)
(e) H2(g) + Br2(g) 2HBr(g) ; Kc = 5.4×1018 JEE Main-24.06.2022, Shift-II
at 300 K Ans. (1107) : Given that, P = 2.46 atm
Kerala CEE -03.07.2022 R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1
Ans. (d) : T = 600 K
N 2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) 2NO ( g ) ;K c = 4.8 ×10 at 298 K
−31 V = 200 liter
PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
This reaction is proceeds rarely at the given temperature Initial mole 5 mole 0 0
(at 298K).
At equi. (5–x) x x
6. The equilibrium constants for the following two
reactions at 298 K are given below n total = ( 5 + x ) + n N2 = (5 + x) + 2 = (7 + x)
2A B + C ; K1 = 16 At equilibrium
PV = nRT
2B + C 2X ; K2 = 25 PV 2.46 × 200
n total = = = 10
What is the value of K for the reaction, RT 0.082 × 600
1 n total = ( 7 + x ) = 10 ; x = 3
A+ B X at 298K ?
2
 3  3 
1 1 5 4  × 2.46  × 2.46 
(a) (b) (c) (d)
∴ Kp =  10  10 
5 40 4 5
 2 
(e) 20  × 2.46 
Kerala CEE -03.07.2022  10 
Ans. (e) : Given that 2A B + C , K1 = 16 3
= × 2.46 × 3
10 × 2
K1 =
[ B][ C] ……. (1) 9 × 2.46
=
[A]
2
10 × 2
2B + C 2X, K 2 = 25 = 1107
8. 1 mole of HI is heated in a closed container of
[X]
2
K2 = capacity of 2 L. At equilibrium half a mole of

[ B] [ C ]
2
HI is dissociated. The equilibrium constant of
the reaction is
( )
1
Or [x] = K 2 [ B] [ C]
2 2
…….(2) (a) 0.25 (b) 0.35
(c) 1 (d) 0.5
1
∴ A+ B X Karnataka CET-17.06.2022, Shift-II
2 Ans. (a) :
K=
[ X]
…….. (3)
2HI H 2 + I2
[ A ][ B]
1
2
At initial 1 0 0
Putting the value of [x] in equation (3) At equilibium 0.5 0.25 0.25
( K [ B] [ C ]) [ H 2 ][ I2 ]
1
2 2
25 × [ B][ C]
1
2 2
Kc =
K= , K= [ HI]
2
[ A ][ B] 2 [ A ][ B] 2
1 1
0.25 × 0.25
5 × [ B] 2 [ C ] 2
1 1
K= ……..(4) Kc = 2
[A] 0.5 × 0.5
From equation (1) and (4) we get 2
1 1
K = 5 × ( K1 ) 2 =
1
4
= 5 × (16 ) 2
= 5 × 4 = 20 = 0.25

9. Consider the following gaseous equilibria with K2
equilibrium constants K1 and K2 respectively. (ii) 2NO2 (g) 2NO + O2 (g)
1 For this reaction equilibrium constant–
SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) ↽ ⇀ SO3 (g) [NO]2 [O2 ]
2 K2 = …(ii)
2SO3 (g) ↽ ⇀ 2SO 2 (g) + O2 (g) [NO2 ]2
The equilibrium constants are related as Squaring equation (i), we get–
1 [NO2 ]2
(a) K12 = (b) 2K1 = K 22 K12 =
K2 [NO]2 [O2 ]
2 1 1 [NO]2 [O2 ]
(c) K 2 = (d) K 22 = or = …(iii)
K12 K1 K12 [NO2 ]2
BCECE 2018, COMDEK-2017 From equation (ii) and (iii), we get–
UPTU/UPSEE 2016 1
Karnataka-CET, 2010, 2011 K2 = 2
WB-JEET 2011, CGPET 2010 K1
Ans. (a) : For the reaction, 11. A reversible chemical reaction is having two
1 reactants, in equilibrium. If the concentration
SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) ↽ ⇀ SO3 (g) of the reactants are doubled then the
2
equilibrium constant will
[SO3 ]
Equilibrium constant, K1 = … (i) (a) be doubled (b) become one fourth
[SO 2 ][O 2 ]1/ 2 (c) be halved (d) remain the same
For the reaction, COMEDK-2020
2SO3 (g) ↽ ⇀ 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) WB JEE-2012
2
[SO 2 ] [O2 ] JCECE - 2010
Equilibrium constant, K 2 = 2
… (ii) Ans. (d) : Equilibrium constant depends only upon the
[SO3 ]
temperature, not depend upon the concentration of
On squaring both sides in equation (i), we get– reactant. Thus, on doubling concentration, equilibrium
[SO3 ]2 constant remains the same.
K1 =
2
… (iii)
[SO 2 ]2 [O2 ] 12. The equilibrium constant of the following are
From equation (ii) × equation (iii), we get– N 2 + 3H 2 2NH 3 ; K 1
K12 × K 2 = 1
N2 + O2 2NO; K 2
1
or K2 = 2 1
H 2 + O2 H 2O; K 3
K1 2
1 The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction:
or K12 = 5 K
K2 2NH 3 + O 2 2NO + 3H 2O will be
2
10. Equilibrium constants K1 and K2 for the (a) K 2 K 33 K1 (b) K 2 K 3 K1
following equilibria 3
(c) K K 3 K1
2 (d) K1K 33 K 2
1 K1
NO(g) + O2 NO2 (g) WB JEE-2018, CGPET-2016
2
K2 NEET-2007, 2007, 2003
and 2NO2 (g) 2NO(g) + O2 (g) are related
Ans. (a) : N 2 + 3H 2 2NH3 ; K1 .... (i)
as
1 N 2 + O2 2NO; K2 .... (ii)
(a) K 2 = (b) K 2 = K12 1
K1 H 2 + O2 H 2 O; K3 ....(iii)
K1 1 2
(c) K 2 = (d) K 2 = 2 Multiply by 3 in equation (iii), we get –
2 K1
3
JIMPER–2017, Karnataka- CET -2016 3H 2 + O 2 3H 2O; K 33 ...(iv)
JCECE – 2012, NEET - 2005 2
Add eqn. (ii) and (iv) and then subtract eqn.(i), we get –
1 K1
Ans. (d) : (i) NO(g) + O2 (g) NO2 (g) 5 K
2 2NH 3 + O 2 2NO + 3H 2 O
For this reaction equilibrium constant– 2
[NO2 ] K K3
K1 = 1/ 2
…(i) ∴ K= 2 3
[NO][O2 ] K1

13. For the reaction, N2(g) +O2(g) 2NO(g), 1
= [Fe3+ ] [OH − ]3
the equilibrium constant is K1.The equilibrium 64
constant is K2 for the reaction, To keep the value of Keq constant, the [Fe3+] must be
2NO(g) +O2(g) 2NO2(g).What is K for increased by 64 times. So, that Keq remains as such.
1 1
the reaction, NO2(g) N2(g) + O2(g)? Keq = 64 × [Fe3+ ][OH − ]3
2 64
(a) 1/(4K1K2) (b) (1/K1K2)1/2 Keq = [Fe3+] [OH–]3
(c) 1/(K1,K2) (d) 1/(2K1,K2) 16. If K1 and K2 are respective equilibrium
JIMPER-2014 constants for two reactions
NEET 2011 XeF6 (g) + H 2O(g) XeOF4 (g) + 2HF(g)
Ans. (b) : The reaction – XeO4 (g) + XeF6 (g) XeOF4 (g) + XeO 3 F2 (g)
N 2 + O2 2NO; K1 ... (i)
the equilibrium constant for the reaction
2NO + O 2 2NO 2 ; K2 ...(ii) XeO4 (g) + 2HF(g) XeO 3 F2 (g) + H 2O(g)
Add the equation (i) and (ii) and reversed then divided will be
by 2, we get–
K1
1 (a) (b) K1.K 2
NO 2 N 2 + O2 K 22
2
Hence, the expression for the net reaction becomes – K1 K2
(c) (d)
1 1 K 2 K1
K= or BITSAT 2006
K1 .K 2 (K1 ⋅ K 2 )1/ 2
NEET-1998
14. The equilibrium constant for a reaction, Ans. (d) : For the reaction –
N 2 (g) + O 2 (s) 2NO(g) XeF6 (g) + H 2 O(g) XeOF4 (g) + 2HF(g)
is 4 × 10–4 at 2000 K. In the presence of catalyst, Equilibrium constant (K ) –
1
the equilibrium is attained 10 times faster. The 2
equilibrium constant in presence of catalyst at K = [XeOF4 ][HF] ... (i)
1
2000K is– [XeF6 ][H 2 O]
(a) 10 × 10–4 (b) 4 × 10–2 And for the reaction –
(c) 4 × 10 –4
(d) 40 × 10–4 XeO 4 (g) + XeF6 (g) XeOF4 (g) + XeO3F2 (g)
Karnataka-CET 2017
Equilibrium constant (K2) –
BCECE-2010
Ans. (c) : The equilibrium constant in the presence of a K 2 = [XeOF4 ][XeO3 F2 ] ... (ii)
catalyst at 2000K is same as the equilibrium constant in [XeO 4 ][XeF6 ]
the absence of catalyst at 2000K. It is 4 × 10–4 For reaction
The presence of catalyst does not affect the value of the XeO (g) + 2HF(g) XeO3F2 (g) + H 2O(g)
4
equilibrium constant. It only increases the rates of
forward and reverse reaction to equal extent. [XeO3 F2 ][H 2 O]
K=
15. In the reaction, [XeO 4 ][HF]2
3+ −
Fe(OH)3 (s) ↽ ⇀ Fe (aq) + 3OH (aq) Clearly, from equation (i) and (ii) the new equilibrium
constant (K) –
1
if the concentration of OH– ions is decreased K2
4 K=
by times, then the equilibrium concentration of K1
Fe3+ will increase by 17. For the reaction,
(a) 8 times (b) 16 times A + B C + D,
(c) 64 times (d) 4 times the initial concentrations of A and B are equal.
Karnataka-CET-2016 The equilibrium concentration of C is two
NEET 2008 times the equilibrium concentration of A. The
Ans. (c) : Fe(OH)3 (s) Fe3+ (aq) + 3OH − (aq) equilibrium constant is
3+ − 3 3+ − 3 1
[Fe ][OH ] [Fe ][OH ] (a) 4 (b)
K eq = = 4
[Fe(OH)3 ] 1
1
1 (c) 9 (d)
When [OH–] is decreased by times, K becomes. 9
4 COMEDK-2012
3
3+  1 −  CG PET- 2010
Keq = [Fe ]  [OH ] 
 4  JIMPER-2006

Ans. (a) : For the given reaction– Ans. (a) : Given that, E °Cell = 0.22V
A+B C + D For the reaction-
Initial x x 0 0
At equi. 0 0 2x 2x H 2 (g) + 2AgCl(s) 2Ag(s) + 2HCl(aq)
Hence, equilibrium constant– Here n=2 (as, Ag 2+ + 2e − → 2Ag)
[C][D] We know that,
Kc =
[A][B] 0.0591
E °Cell = log K
[2x][2x] n
Kc =
[x][x] n
log K = E °cell
Kc = 4 0.0591
18. The reaction, 2
log K = × 0.22
2A ( g ) + B ( g ) 3C ( g ) + D ( g ) 0.0591
log K = 7.44
Is begain with the concentrations of A and B
K = antilog (7.44)
both at an initial value of 1.00 M. When
equilibrium is reached, the concentration of D K = 2.8×107
is measured and found to be 0.25 M. The value 21. The equilibrium constant for the equilibrium
for the equilibrium constant for this reaction is PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) at a particular
given by the expression temperature is 2 × 10–2 mol dm–3. The number
(a) [(0.75)3 (0.25)] ÷ [(1.00)2 (1.00)] of moles of PCl5 that must be taken in a one-
(b) [(0.75)3 (0.25)] ÷ [(0.50) 2 (0.75)] litre flask at the same temperature to obtain a
concentration of 0.20 mol of chlorine at
(c) [(0.75)3 (0.25)] ÷ [(0.50) 2 (0.25)] equilibrium is
(d) [(0.75)3 (0.25)] ÷ [(0.75) 2 (0.25)] (a) 2.0 (b) 2.2
VITEEE- 2012 (c) 1.8 (d) 0.2
NEET Mains-2010 (e) 0.1
Ans. (b) : The reaction is given as– Kerala-CEE-2020, 2015
2A ( g ) + B ( g ) 3C ( g ) + D ( g ) Ans. (b) : Given that,
Equilibrium constant (Kc) = 2 × 10–2 mol dm–3
Initial 1 1 0 0 PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
At eq. (1 − 0.50 )(1 − 0.25 ) 3 × 0.25 0.25 Initial : x 0 0
The value of equilibrium constant is given by– At equi. : (x – 0.2) 0.2 0.2
[ C] [ D ] ( 0.75 ) ( 0.25 )
3 3 [PCl3 ][Cl2 ]
Kc = or K c = ∴ Kc =
[PCl5 ]
[ A ] [ B] ( 0.50 ) ( 0.75 )
2 2
0.2 × 0.2
19. For a reversible reaction, if the concentration or Kc =
x − 0.2
of the reactants is reduced to half, the
equilibrium constant will be ......... . 0.2 × 0.2
or 2 ×10−2 =
(a) doubled x − 0.2
(b) halved 0.2 × 0.2
(c) reduced to one-fourth or x – 0.2 =
(d) remains same 0.2 × 10–1
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.09.2020, Shift-I or x = 2 + 0.2 = 2.2
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-II 22. For the reaction A(g) C(g) + D(g); ∆H = –Q
Ans. (d) : The value of equilibrium constant Keq is kJ.
independent of initial concentrations of reactants and The equilibrium constant cannot be disturbed
products. So, options (a), (b) and (c) are not correct, i.e. by
for a reversible reaction, if the concentration of the (a) Addition of A
reactants is reduced to half, the equilibrium constant (b) Addition of D
will be remains same.
(c) Increasing of pressure
20. H 2 (g) + 2AgCl(s) 2Ag(s) + 2HCl(aq) (d) Increasing of temperature
0
Ecell at 25 0C for the cell is 0.22 V. The Kerala-CEE-29.08.2021
equilibrium constant at 250C is Ans. (c) : The equilibrium constant cannot be disturbed
(a) 2.8×107 (b) 5.2×108 by increasing the pressure. the addition of catalyst also
(c) 2.8×105 (d) 5.2×104 does not affect equilibrium. Equilibrium constant is
Karnataka-CET-2021 directly proportional to temperature.

23. The equilibrium constant (Kp) for the (a) K1 K 2 = K 3 (b) K1K 3 = K 2
formation of ammonia from its constituent
(d) K 3 = ( K 2 ) ( K1 )
3 2
elements at 27oC is 1.2 × 10–4 and at 127oC is (c) K 3 = K1K 2
0.60 × 10–4. Calculate the mean heat of TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-I
formation of ammonia mole in this
temperature range. Ans. (c) CO(g) + H 2 O(g) CO 2 ( g ) + H 2 ( g ) ;K1 ...(i)
(a) –82.64 Cal (b) –826.4 Cal CH 4 (g) + H 2O(g) CO ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) ;K 2 .....(ii)
(c) –1652.8 Cal (d) –165.2 Cal After adding equation (i) and (ii), we get–
TS EAMCET 05.08.2021, Shift-I CH 4 (g) + 2H 2O ( g ) CO 2 ( g ) + 4H 2 ( g ) ;K 3 .....(iii)
Ans. (b): Given that,
Which is equal to equation (iii), so,
K1 = 1.2 × 10–4, K2 = 0.60 × 10–4
K 3 = K 1K 2
T1 = 270C = 300K, T2 = 1270C = 400K
26. A catalyst is a substance which
From van’t Hoff’s equation –
(a) Changes the equilibrium concentration of the
K −∆H  1 1  products
log 2 = −
K1 2.303 × R  T1 T2  (b) Changes the energy of the reactants
(c) Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
0.60 × 10−4 −∆H  1 1 
or log −4
=  −  (d) Changes the equilibrium constant
1.2 × 10 2.303 × 8.314  300 400  AP EAPCET 24.08.2021 Shift-II
−∆H  100  Ans. (c): A catalyst is a substance which shortens the
or log 0.5 =   time to reach equilibrium. A catalyst increases the rate of
19.147  300 × 400 
the chemical reaction by making available a new low energy
or ∆H = −0.3010 × 19.147 × 300 × 4 pathway for the conversion of reactants to product.
= – 6915.8964J
27. The reaction N2(g) +3H2(g) 2NH3(g) is
= –1654.52 Cal
exothermic and reversible. A mixture of N2(g),
Hence, the mean heat of formation of ammonia mole
H2(g) and NH3(g) is at equilibrium in a closed
−1654.52 container. When a certain quantity of extra
= = 827.26 ≈ −826.4Cal
2 H2(g) is introduced into the container, while
24. The number of moles of NH3, that must be keeping the volume constant, then which
added to 2L of 0.80 M AgNO3 in order to statement among the following is true ?
(a) The pressure inside the container will not change
reduce the concentration of Ag+ ions to 5.0×10-8
(b) Equilibrium condition will not change
M (Kformation for [Ag(NH3)2]+ = 1.0×108) is ........
(c) The temperature will increase
(Nearest integer) (d) The temperature will decrease
[Assume no volume change on adding NH3] AP EAPCET 24.08.2021 Shift-II
JEE Mains-27.08.2021, Shift-I
Ans. (c): The reaction N2(g) +3H2(g) 2NH3(g) is
+ +
Ans. (4) Ag (aq.) + 2NH 3(aq.) Ag(NH 3 )2(aq.) reversible and exothermic (means heat released) and
extra H2(g) is introduced into a container while keeping
a
t=0 0.8   0 the volume constant then the temperature will increase.
2 28. When reaction is carried out at standard states
a  then at the equilibrium ______
t=∞ 5×10–8  − 1.6  0.8
(a) ∆H0 = 0
 2 
(b) ∆S0 = 0
[Ag(NH 3 ) 2+ ]
K= (c) Equilibrium Const K = 0
[NH 3 ]2 [Ag + ] (d) Equilibrium Const K = 1
0.8 AP EAPCET 23-08-2021 Shift-I
∴ 2
= 108 Ans. (d) : The reaction is carried out at standard states
a 
(5 ×10−8 )  − 1.6  then at the equilibrium constant (K) is equal to 1.
2  [Product]
i.e. K =
a [Reactant]
− 1.6 = 0.4
2 Q At equilibrium, [product] = [reactant] = 1
a=4 1
∴ K = =1
25. For the following three reactions (i), (ii) and 1
(iii), equilibrium constants are given 29. For the following Assertion and Reason, the
CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g) ;K1 correct option is
CH4(g) + H2O(g) CO(g) + H2(g) ;K2 Assertion (A) When Cu (II) and sulphide ions
CH4(g) + 2H2O(g) CO2(g) + 4H2(g) ;K3 are mixed, they react together extremely
quickly to give a solid.
Which of the following relations is correct?
Reason (R) The equilibrium constant of Cu2+
1 1 1
(aq) + S2- (aq) CuS(s) is high because the ∴ K4 = × ×
solubility product is low K 3 K 2 K1
(a) Both (A) and (R) are false. 1 1 1
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the K4 = × ×
25 16 1.0
explanation for (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the 1 1
K 4 = × ×1
explanation for (A) 5 4
(d) (a) is false and (R) is true. 1
[JEE Mains 2020, 2 Sep Shift-I] K4 =
20
Ans. (c) : When Cu (II) and sulphide ions are mixed, 32. Consider the following equilibrium system
they react together extremely quickly to give a solid. 2NH3 (g) → N2(g) +3H2 (g)
Hence, the equilibrium constant of Cu2+ is high because
the solubility product is low. Which of the following graphs represents
[H2(g)] after equilibrium has been established?
30. In the equilibrium mixture, KI + I 2 KI 3 ;
the concentration of KI and I2 is made two fold
and three fold respectively. The concentration (a) (b)
of KI3 becomes :
(a) two fold (b) three fold
(c) five fold (d) six fold
Manipal-2020
Ans. (a) : KI+I2 KI3 or I–+I2 I3– from KI
On increasing concentration of KI and I2 two fold and (c) (d)
three fold respectively, the concentration of KI3
becomes two fold.
31. The equilibrium constant for the following
reactions are given at 25oC Assam CEE-2019
2A B+C, K1 = 1.0 Ans. (b) : In the given reaction–
2B C+D, K2 = 16 2NH3 (g) → N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g)
2C+D 2P, K3 = 25 At equilibrium concentration of product with constant
with time.
The equilibrium constant for the reaction
33. Assertion: If value of equilibrium constant is Kc
1
P A + B at 25o C is for A + B C . If chemical reaction is reversed
2
C A + B, then value of equilibrium constant
1
(a) (b) 20 will be 1/Kc.
20 Reason: Equilibrium constant depends upon the
1 expression of chemical reaction.
(c) (d) 21
42 (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
WB-JEE-2020 Reason is the correct explanation of
Ans. (a) : Given that, Assertion.
2A B + C, K1 =10 (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
[B][C] Reason is not the correct explanation of
K1 = 2 Assertion.
[A]
2B C + D, K 2 =16
[C][D] incorrect.
K2 =
[B]2 AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Evening)
2C + D 2P, K 3 =25 Ans. (a) Given the equilibrium constant (Kc) of reaction,
[P]2 A + B C, Kc
K3 = 2 1
[C] [D] C A + B,
Required reaction is: Kc
1 The value of equilibrium constant depend upon the
P A+ B
2 expression are chemical reaction.
[A][B]1 2 The value of equilibrium constant depend on the
K4 = stoichiometry equation.
[P]

34. 2 moles PCl5 were introduced in a 2 L flask and 2
[ NH 3 ]  [ NH 3 ]2 
4
heated at 625 K to establish equilibrium when
K2 = =  ..... (2)
60% of PCl5 was dissociated into PCl3 and Cl2.
[ N 2 ] [ H 2 ]  [ N 2 ][ H 2 ] 
2 6 3
The equilibrium constant is

(a) 0.90 (b) 1.8 Putting value of K1 in eqn. (2), we get –
(c) 0.128 (d) 0.53 K2 = (K1)2 Or K 2 = K12
AMU-2019 37. In the equilibrium, H2+l2 2HI, if at a
Ans. (a) : The given reaction is – PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 + Cl2 given temperature the concentrations of the
Initial conc. 1 0 0 reactants are increased, the value of the
At equi. (1– 0.6)1 0.6 0.6 equilibrium constant, Kc' will
2 mole (a) increase
[Q Initial concentration of PCl5 = = 1 mole/L] (b) decrease
2L
(c) remain the same
[PCl3 ][Cl2 ] (d) cannot be predicted with certainty
Now, K =
[PCl5 ] WB-JEE-2019
0.6 × 0.6 Ans. (c) : Equilibrium constant does not depend on the
= = 0.09 ×10 = 0.9 molar concentration of reactants. It is only affected by
0.4 the change in temperature.
35. At a certain temperature, equilibrium constant So, the equilibrium constant will remain the same.
(Kc) is 16 for the reaction. 38. Change in volume of the system does not alter
SO2(g)+NO2(g) SO3(g)+NO(g) the number of moles in which of the following
If one mole of each of the four gases are taken equilibrium ?
in one litre container, the equilibrium (a) N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2NO(g)
concentration of NO will be
(a) 0.4 mole (b) 1.6 mole (b) PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
(c) 0.6 mole (d) 0.66 mole (c) N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) 2NH 3 (g)
AMU-2019
(d) SO 2 Cl2 (g) SO 2 (g) + Cl 2 (g)
Ans. (b) : Given that, Kc = 16
The reaction is – BCECE-2018
SO2(g) + NO2(g) ⇌ SO3(g) + NO(g) Ans. (a) : According to Le chatlier’s principal if some
Initial conc. 1 1 1 1 changes are made in a system then the system will move
At equi. (1 – x) (1 – x) (1+ x) (1 + x) in that direction where it can get released from any
[NO][SO3 ] stress.
So, = 16 The change in volume will not affect the system if the
[SO 2 ][NO 2 ] change in the number of moles is zero.
(1 + x) (1 + x) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g)
16 = In this reaction ∆n = 2 – 2 = 0
(1 − x) (1 − x)
2 2 So, change in volume will not affect the system.
16 (1 – x) = (1 + x)
4 (1 – x) = (1 + x) PCl5 → PCl3 + Cl2
5x = 3 In this reaction ∆n = 2 – 1 = 1
x = 3/5 So, change in volume will not affect the system.
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
 3 8
So, conc. of NO = (1 + x) = 1 +  = = 1.6 mole In this reaction ∆n = 2 – 4 = – 2
 5 5 So, change in volume will affect the system.
36. The equilibrium constant for the reaction, SO2Cl2(g) → SO2(g) + Cl2(g)
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) and , 2N2(g) + 6H2 In this reaction ∆n = 2 – 1 = 1
4NH3(g) are K1 and K2, respectively. The So, change in volume will affect the system.
relationship between K1 and K2 is 39. For 2N2O5 → 4 NO2 + O2, rate and rate constants
(a) K2 = K12 (b) K2 = K1−2 are 2 × 10–3 and 4 × 10–4 respectively. Then the
concentration of N2O5 at that time will be
(c) K2 = K 22 (d) K2 = K1 (a) 0.5 × 10–4 (b) 0.5 × 10–3
(e) K2 = K 2 (c) 2 (d) 5
JCECE - 2018
Kerala-CEE-2019
Ans. (a) : The equilibrium constant for the given Ans. (d) : 2N O
2 5 → 4NO 2 + O 2 … (i)
reaction– The given reaction is an example of first order reaction.
Rate = 2 × 10 –3
[ NH3 ]
2
K1 = ..... (1) Rate constant = 4 × 10–4

[ N 2 ][ H 2 ]
3
Hence,

Q Rate = k [N2O5] Ans. (b) : NO(g) is intermediate as it is produced in the
2 × 10–3 = 4 × 10–4[N2O5] first step and consumed in the second step. A catalyst
2 × 10−3 may be consumed in the first step and produced in the
∴ = [ N2 O5 ] second step.
4 × 10−4
0.5 × 10 = [N2O5] 42. There are two statements, one labeled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R)
5 = [N2O5]
The concentration of N2O5 at that time will be 5. Examine both the statements carefully and
mark the correct choice.
40. Consider the equilibrium X 2 + Y2 ↽ ⇀ P. (A) At equilibrium, the mass of each of the
Find the stoichiometric coefficient of the P reactants and products remains constant
using the data given in the following table: (R) At equilibrium, the rate of forward
X2/mol L-1 Y2/mol L-1 P/mol L-1 reaction is equal to the rate of backward
1.14 × 10 -2
0.12 × 10 -2
2.52 × 10-2 reaction.
0.92 × 10 -2
0.22 × 10 -2
3.08 × 10-2 (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(a) 1 (b) 2 correct explanation of (A).
(c) 3 (d) 0.5 (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(e) 4 correct explanation of (A).
Kerala-CEE-2018 (c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Ans. (b) : Given that
J & K CET-(2017)
X 2 + Y2 xP
Ans. (a) : At equilibrium the concentration of each of
Let the coefficient of P be x the reactants and products becomes constant. Thus the
[P]x mass of the reactants and products remains constants as
So, K= the rate of forward reaction is equal to the rate of
[X 2 ][Y2 ]
backward reaction.
According to the question
43. The equilibrium constant (Kc) for the following
(2.52 × 10−2 ) x
K1 = equilibrium
(1.14 × 10−2 ) × (0.12 × 10−2 ) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)
and, at 563 K is 100. At equilibrium, the number of
(3.08 ×10−2 ) x moles of SO3 in the 10 litre flask is twice the
K2 = number of moles of SO2, then the number of
(0.92 × 10−2 ) × (0.22 × 10−2 )
Now substitute the values of x given in option one by moles of oxygen is
one (a) 0.4 (b) 0.3
(c) 0.2 (d) 0.1
(2.52 × 10−2 )
(a) K1 = = 1842.10 AP EAMCET-2017
(1.14 × 10−2 ) × (0.12 × 10−2 ) Ans. (a) : Given that, equilibrium constant (Kc) =100
(3.08 × 10−2 ) According to the equilibrium equation-
K2 = = 1521.73 2SO2 (g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)
(0.92 × 10−2 ) × (0.22 × 10−2 )
Initially x y 0
Q K1 ≠ K 2 thus option (a) is incorrect. 2x y 2x
At equil.
10 10 10
(2.52 ×10−2 ) 2
(b) K1 = = 46.42 Let, y be the no. of moles of oxygen.
(1.14 × 10−2 ) × (0.12 × 10−2 )
( 2x /10 )
2
(3.08 × 10 )−2 2 ∴ Keq =

K2 = = 46.86  y
( x /10 )
2
(0.92 × 10−2 ) × (0.22 × 10−2 ) × 
 10 
Q K1 ≈ K 2 40
Hence, the stoichiometric coefficient is 2. or 100 = ⇒ y = 0.4
y
41. A certain reaction occurs in two steps as
44. (i) H3PO4(aq) H+(aq) + H2P O 4– (aq)
(i) 2SO 2 ( g ) + 2NO 2 ( g ) 
→
(ii) H2P O 4– (aq) H+(aq) + HP O 2–
4 (aq)
2SO 3 ( g ) + 2NO ( g )
(ii) HP O 2–
4 (aq) H+(aq) + P O 3–
4 (aq)
(ii) 2NO ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) 
→ 2NO 2 ( g ) The equilibrium constants for the above
(a) NO2(g) is intermediate reactions at a certain temperature are K1 , K2
(b) NO(g) is intermediate and K3 respectively. The equilibrium constant
(c) NO(g) is catalyst for the reaction.
(d) O2(g) is intermediate H3PO4 3H+(aq) + P O 3–
4 (aq) in terms of K1 ,
MHT CET-2018 K2, and K3 is
K1 α
(a) K1 + K2 + K3 (b) = 2 Kp
K 2 + K3 1− α
K3 α = 2 K p (1 − α)
(c) (d) K1 K2 K3
K1 K 2 2 K p − 2 K p .α = α
AP EAMCET-2017
2 K p = α(1 + 2 K p )
Ans. (d) : The equilibrium reactions are -
H3PO4(aq) H+(aq) + H2 PO 4– (aq) 2 Kp
+ – α=
∴ K1 =
[H ][H 2 PO ] 4
……(1) 1+ 2 Kp
H 3 PO 4 46. Equlilbrium constants for the following
H2 PO −4 (aq) 
→ H+(aq) + HP O 2–
4 (aq)
reactions at 1200 K are given
2H 2O(g) 2H2(g) + O2(g), K1 = 6.4 × 10–8
[H + ][HPO 2– 4 ] 2CO2(g) 2CO(g) + O2(g), K2 = 1.6 × 10–6
K2 = …….(2)
[H 2 PO 4– ] The equilibrium constant for the reactions
and HP O 2–4 (aq)  → H +
(aq) + PO 3–
4 (aq) H 2 (g) + CO 2 (g) CO(g) + H 2O(g), at 1200
+
[H ][PO 4 ] 3– K will be
K3 = …….(3) (a) 0.05 (b) 20 (c) 0.2 (d) 5.0
[HPO 2–4 ] WB-JEE-2017
Multiply equation (1), (2), and (3), we get Ans. (d) : For the given reaction:
K1×K2×K3= 2H 2 O(g) 2H 2 (g) + O 2 (g), K1 =6.4×10 −8
+ – + 2– + 3–
[H ][H 2 PO 4 ] [H ][HPO 4 ] [H ][PO 4 ] 1
× × or H 2 O(g) H 2 (g) + O 2 (g), K1′ = K1
[H 3 PO 4 ] [H 2 PO 4– ] HPO 42– 2
3[H + ][PO3– Reverse the above reaction, we get–
4 ]
K 1K 2 K 3 = 1 1
[H 3 PO 4 ] H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) H 2O(g) , K1′′ = .....(i)
K 1K 2K 3 = K 2 K1
45. For the reaction, 2HI(g) H2(g)+I2 (g) the 2CO 2 (g) 2CO(g) + O 2 (g), K 2 =1.6×10-6
degree fo dissociation (α) of HI (g) is related to CO 2 (g) 1
CO(g) + O 2 (g), K′2 = K 2 .....(ii)
equilibrium constant Kp by the expression n
2
On adding eq . (i) and (ii)
1 + 2K p 2K p
(a) (b) H 2 (g) + CO 2 (g) CO(g) + H 2 O(g)
2 1 + 2K p
K2 1.6 × 10 −6
2 Kp 1+ 2 Kp K = =
(c) (d)
K1 6.4 ×10 −8
1+ 2 Kp 2 10 2
UPTU/UPSEE-2017 K = = 25 = 5
4
Ans. (c) : For the reaction: 47. Among the following, the equilibrium which is
2HI(g) H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) not affected by an increase in pressure is
(a) C(s) + H 2 O(g) CO(g) + H 2 (g)
initial 1 0 0
(b) 3Fe(s) + 4H 2 O(g) Fe3O 4 (s) + 4H 2 (g)
α α
at eq. 1− α (c) 2SO3 (g) 2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
2 2
Q Partial pressure = mole fraction × total pressure (d) H 2 (g) + I 2 (s) 2HI(g)
PH × PI UPTU/UPSEE-2016
and K p = 2 2 2 Ans. (b): As several moles of gaseous species are equal
PHI on both sides. Hence, for option (b) equilibrium is not
α
  affected by an increase in pressure.
⇒ PH2 =   PT
2 48. For the reaction,
A(S) + B(g) + Heat 2C(s) + 2D(g)
α
PI2 =   PT at equilibrium, if pressure of B is doubled, then
2
to re-establish the equilibrium, the factor by
PHI = (1 − α)PT which concentration of D changes, will be
2
 α   (a) 2 (b) 2
 2  PT 
   (c) 3 (d) 3
Hence, K p =  BCECE-2016
[(1 − α)2 .PT2 ]

Ans. (b) : For the given reaction– 1
A(s) + B(g) + Heat 2C(s) + 2D(g) ∴ K2 =
K1
Equilibrium constant kp is–
1
(P ) 2 ⇒ y=
Kp = D ...(i) x
PB
y = x–1/2
When the pressure of B is doubled –
P'B = 2PB 51. For a reaction,
Then, new equilibrium constant– A + B C + D,
at equilibrium, one third of A and B are
(P ' )2 consumed. The value of equilibrium constant
Kp = D ...(ii)
2PB will be
On comparing (i) and (ii) we get (a) 0.5 (b) 0.25
(c) 0.025 (d) 5
P 'D = 2PD
JCECE - 2016
+ – Ans. (b) : Reaction given is.
49. Two equilibrium, AB A + B and
– – A + B C+D
AB + B AB 2 are simultaneously
initial C C 0 0
maintained in a solution with equilibrium
constants, K1 and K2 respectively. The ratio of at equilibrium  1   1  C C
C 1 −  C  1 − 
+ -
[A ]to [AB 2 ] in the solution is  3  3 3 3
(a) directly proportional to [B–] Also, at equilibrium (V same for all)
(b) inversely proportional to [B–] [A] = [B] and [C] = [D]
–
(c) directly proportional to the square of [B ] Therefore, equilibrium constant is–
(d) inversely proportional to the square of [B ]– Concentration of product
K=
KEAM- 2013 Concentration of reactant
Ans. (d): If two equilibria AB ⇌ A + + B− and  C  C 
 3V   3V 
AB + B− ⇌ AB2− are simultaneously maintained in a K =   
 2C   2C 
solution with equilibrium constant K1 and K2  3V   3V 
respectively then.
1
[A + ][B− ] [AB−2 ] = = 0.25
K1 = , K2 4
[AB] [AB][B− ] 52. If the equilibrium constant for
Dividing K1 by K2, we get– N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2NO(g) is K the equilibrium
K1 [A + ][B− ]2 1 1
∴ = constant for N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) NO(g) will be
K2 [AB2 ]− 2 2
[A + ] 1 1
∴ × (a) K (b) K
[AB2 ] [B− ]2 2
(c) K2 (d) K1/2
50. The equilibrium constant values, under the same
conditions of temperature and pressure, for the NEET-2015
equilibria A2 + 3B2 2AB and AB3 Ans. (d) : For the reaction –
1 3 N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2NO(g)
A 2 + B 2 are respectively, x mol –2 L2 and y Equilibrium constant–
2 2
mol L–1. The correct relation between x and y is [NO]2
K=
(a) x = 2y (b) y = 2x [N 2 ][O 2 ]
(c) x = y1/2 (d) y = x –1/2
1 1
J & K CET-(2016) And, N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) NO(g)
Ans. (d) : For this reaction– 2 2
For this reaction now equilibrium reaction–
A 2 + 3B2 2AB2
[NO]
Equilibrium constant– K' =
K1 = x mol–2L2 ...(i) [N 2 ]1/ 2 [O 2 ]1/ 2
1 3 On, squaring both sides –
AB3 A 2 + B2
2 2 [NO]2
(K ')2 =
Equilibrium constant– [N 2 ][O 2 ]
K2 = y mol L–1 ...(ii) 2
(K') = K
Equation (ii) is obtained by reversing equation (i) and K' = K1/2
then diving by 2,

53. For the reaction, A(s) + 2B+(aq)→A2+(aq) + 1000
2B(s), the E0 is 1.18 V. Then equilibrium =
2
constant for the reaction is
= 500 M −1/ 2 L1/ 2
(a) 1010 (b) 1020
(c) 10 40
(d) 1060 55. HA is a weak acid. At 250C, the molar
J & K CET-(2015) conductivity of 0.02 MHA is 150Ω–1 cm2 mol–1,
Ans. (c) : Given the reaction – If its Λom is 300 Ω–1 cm2 mol–1 the equilibrium
A(s) + 2B+(aq) → A2+(aq) + 2B(s) constant of HA dissociation is
Eo = 1.18 V. (a) 0.0001 (b) 0.005
(c) 0.01 (d) 0.02
nE ocell
So, log10 K = J & K CET-(2015)
0.059 Ans. (c) : Given that,
2 × 1.18 molar conductivity (Λm) = 300Ω–1 cm2 mol–1
=
0.059 Limiting molar conductivity (Λom) = 150Ω–1 cm2 mol–1
log10K = 40 Concentration (c) = 0.02 m
K = 1040 Λ 150
∴ Degree of dissociation (α) = om = = 0.5
54. Equilibrium constants are given for the Λ m 300
following two equilibria. Now, we can determine the value of its dissociation
(i) A 2 (g) + B 2 (g) ↽ ⇀ 2AB(g); constant.
K = 2 × 10 −4 L mol −1 Cα 2
Ka =
(1 − α )
(ii) 2AB(g) + C2 (g) ↽ ⇀ 2ABC(g);
0.02 × (0.5) 2
K = 2 × 10−2 L mol −1 Ka =
Calculate the equilibrium constant for the (1 − 0.5)
following equilibrium. 0.02 × 0.5 × 0.5
Ka =
1 1 1 0.5
ABC(g) ↽ ⇀ A 2 (g) + B 2 (g) + C2 (g)
2 2 2 Ka = 0.01
(a) 500 mol1/2 L1/2 (b) 4 ×10-6 mol1/2 L1/2 56. If the value of equilibrium constant for a
(c) 500 mol–1/2 L1/2 (d) 200 mol1/2 L–1/2 particular reaction is 1.6 × 1012, then at
(e) 500 mol1/2 L–1/2 equilibrium the system will contain
Kerala-CEE-2015 (a) Mostly products
Ans. (c) : (b) Similar amounts of reactions and products
A 2 (g) + B2 (g) 2AB(g) (c) All reactions
(d) Mostly reactions
[AB]2
K1 = NEET-2015 Cancelled
[A 2 ][B2 ] Ans. (a) : Given that
[AB]2 The value of equilibrium constant K is 1.6×1012 which
2 × 10−4 = .................(i) is very high.
[A 2 ][B2 ]
[Product]
2AB(g) + C2 (g) 2ABC(g) K=
[Reactants]
[ABC]2 This indicates the ratio of product concentration to
K2 =
[AB]2 [C2 ] reactant concentration is very high.
Hence, the reaction mixture mostly contains products.
[ABC]2
2 × 10−2 = ...............(ii) 57. For the following equilibrium (omitting charges).
[AB]2 [C2 ]
I. M + Cl →MCl, Keq = β1
1 1 1 II. MCl + Cl → MCl2, Keq =β2
ABC(g) A 2 (g) + B2 (g) + C2 (g)
2 2 2 III. MCl2 + Cl → MCl3, Keq =β3
1/ 2 1/ 2
[A 2 ] [B2 ] [C2 ] 1/ 2
IV. M + 3Cl → MCl3, Keq =K
K3 = then relationship between K, β1, β2 and β3 is
[ABC]
Eqn. (i) and eqn. (ii) are added, reversed and divided by (a) K= β 1 β2β3
n
2 then we get eq . (iii) (b) log K = log β 1+ log β2 + logβ3
1 (c) pK = pβ1 + pβ2 + pβ3
Therefore, K 3 =
K1 × K 2 (d) All of the above
JIMPER-2015
1
= Ans. (d) : When the add reactions (i), (ii) and (iii) we
2 ×10−4 × 2 × 10−2 get reaction (iv).

When individual reactions are added their equilibrium 200 × 200
constant values are multiplied. Kp =
400
K = β 1β 2β3 Kp = 100 mm Hg
Taking log on both sides – 60. Consider the following equilibria involving SO2
log K = logβ 1 + logβ2 + log β3 (g) and their corresponding equilibrium
But, pK = – log K constants:
Hence, pK = pβ1 + pβ2 + pβ3 1 K 1
SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) SO 3 (g)
58. +
If Ag + 2NH 3 +
Ag(NH ) ;K 1 = 1.7 × 10 7 2
3 2 K2
2SO 3 (g) 2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
Ag + + Cl − AgCl;K 2 = 5.4 × 109 Which one of the following is correct?
Then, for AgCl + 2NH 3  Ag(NH 3 ) +  + Cl − (a) K 2 = K l2 (b) K 22 = K1
 2 
equilibrium constant will be (c) K 2 = K1 (d) K 2 K l2 = 1

(a) 4.68×10–3 (b) 5.2×10–17 SCRA-2014
–2
(c) 0.31×10 (d) 3.1×10–2 Ans. (d) : Given the reversible reaction are :
JIMPER-2015
1
Ans. (c) : For the reaction– SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) SO3 (g)
2
Ag + + Cl− AgCl; K2 = 5.4 × 109 The equilibrium expression is :
Now, reverse the above reaction –
K1 =
[SO3 (g)]
AgCl Ag + + Cl− .....(i)
New, equilibrium constant–
[SO2 (g)][ O2 (g)]1/ 2
1 And, 2SO3(g) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)
K2 = = 1.85 ×10−10 ...(i)
5.4 ×10 9
The equilibrium expression is :
Ag + + 2NH 3 [Ag(NH3 )2 ]+ ; K1 = 1.7 × 107...(ii) 2
SO (g)  [ O 2 (g)]
Add reaction (i) and (ii), we get K2 =  2  2 .....(ii)
AgCl + 2NH 3 [Ag(NH 3 )2 ]+ + Cl− [SO3 (g)]
So, K = K 1K 3 Taking square both side in equation (i) we get,
K = 1.7 × 107 × 1.85 ×10–10 = 0.31 × 10–2 2
K12 =
[SO3 (g)] .....(iii)
59. XY2 dissociates as
XY2 (g) XY (g) + Y (g) [SO2 (g)]2 [ O2 (g)]
When the initial pressure of XY2 is 600 mm Hg, Multiply the equation (ii) and (iii), we get– K 2 K12 = 1
the total equilibrium pressure is 800 mm Hg.
Calculate K for the reaction assuming that the 61. One mole of PCl5 is heated in a closed 2 dm3
volume of the system remains unchanged. vessel. At equilibrium 40% PCl5 is dissociated.
(a) 50 (b) 100 Calculate the equilibrium constant.
(c) 166.6 (d) 400.0 (a) 0.066 (b) 0.154
UPTU/UPSEE-2014 (c) 0.133 (d) 0.266
Ans. (b) : The dissociates of XY2 is– COMEDK-2014
XY2 (g) XY(g) + Y(g) Ans. (c) : PCl5 ↽ ⇀ PCl3 + Cl2
Initial pressure of XY2 is 600 mm Hg. The total 1
pressure at equilibrium is 800 mm Hg. Let x mm Hg of Initialconc. = 0.5 0 0
XY2 dissociates to reach equilibrium x mmHg of XY 2
and x mm Hg of Y will be formed at equilibrium. (600 1 – 0.4 0.6 0.4 0.4
– x) mm Hg of XY2 will be present at equilibrium. Equi.conc. =
2 2 2 2
Total pressure = (600 – x)+x+x=600+x mm Hg 0.4 0.4
×
But total pressure = 800 mm Hg ( 0.4 )
2
[PCl3 ][Cl 2 ]
So, 600+x=800 Kc = = 2 2 = = 0.133
x=200 [PCl5 ] 0.6 2 × 0.6
Thus, the equilibrium pressures are: 2
Pxy2 = 600-x = 600-200=400 mm Hg
62. In the reaction at constant volume,
Pxy = x = 200 mm Hg
Py = x = 200 mm Hg C(s) + CO 2 (g) 2CO(g)
Assuming volume of system to remain constant, the argon gas is added which does not take part in
value of the reaction; choose the correct statement.
Pxy Py (a) The equilibrium constant is unchanged.
Kp = (b) The equilibrium shifts in the forward
Pxy2 direction.
(c) The equilibrium shifts in the backward direction. 1 1
(d) The direction of equilibrium depends on the HI(g) H 2 (g) + I 2 (g)
amount of argon added. 2 2
1
AMU-2014 Then, the new equilibrium constant K' is =
Ans. (a) : Equilibrium constant depends only upon K
temperature, not on the concentration. Thus, it remains 1 1
Hence, K ' = =
unchanged when an inert gas like Argon is added. 49 7
Further, Argon is added at the constant volume i.e. the
relative molar concentration of the substance will not 66. Kc for the reaction,
– + –
change. Hence, the equilibrium position of the reaction [Ag(CN)2 ] Ag + 2CN , the equilibrium
remain unaffected. constant at 250C is 4.0 × 10–19, then the silver
63. For the reaction at equilibrium N2(g) + 3H2(g) ion concentration in a solution which was
2NH3(g), some inert gas is added at constant originally 0.1 molar in KCN and 0.03 molar in
volume. In this situation, which of the following AgNO3 is :
statements is correct? (a) 7.5 × 1018 (b) 7.5 × 10–19
19
(a) More of NH3 gas is produced (c) 7.5 × 10 (d) 7.5 × 10–18
(b) Less of NH3 gas is produced BITSAT-2014
(c) Kp of the reaction is increased Ans. (d) : Given that, Kc = 4 × 10–19
(d) No effect on the production of NH3 2KCN + AgNO3 [Ag (CN)2]– + KNO3 + K+
Assam CEE-2014 t=0 0.1 0.03 0 0 0
t = equ. (0.1 – 0.06) (0) (0.03) (0.03) (0.03)
Ans. (d) : N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) 2NH 3 (g) Q [Ag(CN)2] – +
Ag + 2CN –
0.03 a 0.04 (Left from KCN)
According to Le-chatelier's principle for the given 0.03 – a a 0.049
reaction.
[Ag + ] ⋅ [CN − ]2
When an inert gas is added to an equilibrium at constant Hence, K c =
volume there will be no effect on the equilibrium. [Ag(CN) 2 ]−
Hence, no effect on the production of NH3. [a] ⋅ [0.04]2
64. The equilibrium constant for the aromatization 4 × 10−19 =
[0.03]
reaction of acetylene is 8. The aromatization
reaction is given below a = 7.5 × 10–18
3C2 H 2 →
Red hot
tube
C6 H 6 67. The mixture of reactants and products in the
If the equilibrium concentration of acetylene is equilibrium state is called
found to be 0.5 then the equilibrium (a) chemical mixture
concentration of benzene (C6H6) is (b) equilibrium mixture
(a) 0.5 mol L–1 (b) 1 mol L–1 (c) chemical equilibrium
(c) 0.25 mol L–1 (d) 2 mol L–1 (d) dynamic equilibrium.
UP CPMT-2014 J & K CET-(2014)
[C H ] Ans. (b) : The mixture of reactants and products in the
Ans. (b) : For the given reaction, Kc= 6 6 3 equilibrium state is called equilibrium mixture.
[C2 H 2 ] This state of equilibrium is called chemical equilibrium
[C6 H 6 ] and nature of this state is dynamic instead of static.
8=
(0.5)3 68. The thermodynamic equilibrium constant, Ka
[C6H6]=8×(0.5) 1mol L–1
3
for the reaction:
65. The equilibrium constant for the reaction CuO(s) + H2(g) Cu(s) + H2O(g) is given
H 2 ( g ) + I2 ( g ) 2HI ( g ) by
at a certain temperature is 49. What will be the [Cu][H 2 O] [Cu][H 2 O]
(a) K = (b) K =
equilibrium constant for the reaction [CuO][H 2 ] [H 2 ]
1 1
HI ( g ) H2 ( g ) + I2 ( g ) [H O] [H O]
2 2 (c) K = 2
(d) K = 2
at the same temperature? [CuO][H 2 ] [H 2 ]
1 AMU-2013
(a) 7 (b) Ans. (d) : CuO(s) + H 2 (g) ⇌ Cu(s) + H 2 O(g)
7
(c) 24.5 (d) 98 [H O]
Assam CEE-2014 Kc = 2
[H ] 2
Ans. (b) : H 2 (g) + I2 (g) 2HI(g) As a general rule the concentration of pure solids and
Equilibrium constant for the given reaction K = 49. pure liquids are not included when writing on
Now, reaction is rivers and dividing by 2– equilibrium equation.

69. Steam reacts with iron at high temperature to the reaction mixture which of the following
give hydrogen gas and Fe3O4(s). The correct statements is true ?
expression for the equilibrium constant is (a) Both k and the reaction rate remain the same
( ) (b) Both k and the reaction rate increase
4
PH22 PH2
(a) 2 (b) (c) Both k and the reaction rate decrease
( )
4
PH2O PH2O (d) Only k increases, the reaction rate remain the
same
( )
PH2 [ Fe3O 4 ]
4
(c) (d)
[ Fe3O 4 ] (e) Only the reaction rate increases; k remains the
same
( )
PH2O [ Fe ]
4
[ Fe] Kerala-CEE-2013
AMU-(2013) Ans. (a) : NO2(g)+CO(g) → NO(g)+CO(g)
Ans. (b): The reaction that takes place is following :  dx 
3Fe(s) + 4H 2 O (steam) ⇌ Fe3O 4 (s) + 4H 2 (g) Q Rate of reaction,   = k[NO2]2
 dt 
(PH2 ) 4 ∴ Rate is independent of CO
Kp =
(PH 2O )4 Hence on adding more CO to the reaction mixture both
Note–Only gaseous products are reactants are k and rate remain the same.
considered. 72. Two equilibria, AB ↽ ⇀ A + + B − and AB + B–
70. Equilibrium constant for the reaction,
AB 2− are simultaneously maintained in a
NH 4 OH + H + NH 4+ + H 2 O is 1.8×109.
solution with equilibrium constants, K1 and K2
Hence, equilibrium constant for respectively. The ratio of [A+] to [AB 2− ] in the
+ −
NH3(aq) + H2O NH 4 + OH is − solution is
(a) 1.8 × 10 −5 (b) 1.8 × 105 (a) directly proportional to [B–]
(c) 1.8 × 10 −9 (d) 5.59×10–10 (b) inversely proportional to [B–]
BCECE-2013 (c) directly proportional to the square of [B–]
(d) inversely proportional to the square of [B–]
Ans. (a) : NH 2 OH + H + NH +4 + H 2 O
(e) independent [B–]
[NH +4 ][H 2 O] Kerala-CEE-2013
K=
[NH 4 OH][H + ] Ans. (d) : AB
K1
A + + B−
+
or 1.8 × 109 =
[NH ][H 2 O]
4 [A + ][B− ]
...(i) ∴ K1 = ........................(i)
[NH 4 OH][H + ] [AB]
NH 3 + H 2 O NH 4+ (aq) + OH − (aq) AB + B−
K2
AB−2
+ −
[NH ][OH ] [AB−2 ]
K' = 4
K2 = ..........................(ii)
[NH 3 ][H 2 O] [AB][B− ]
[NH +4 ][OH − ] On dividing eq . (i) and eqn. (ii), we get–
n
K' = (Q NH3 + H2O → NH4OH) ... (ii)
[NH 4 OH] [A + ][B− ] [AB][B− ] K1
× =
Eqn. (ii) divided by eqn. (i), we get– [AB] [AB−2 ] K2
K ' [NH +4 ][OH − ][NH 4 OH][H + ] [A + ][B− ]2
= {H 2O → excess} or = K'
K [NH 4 OH][NH +4 ][H 2 O] [AB−2 ]
K'
= [OH − ][H + ] ...(iii) K
Where K ' = 1 = constant
K K2
We know that
Kw = [H+] [OH–] [A + ] 1
10–14 = [H+] [OH–] or = K' ×
[AB−2 ] [B− ]2
So, from eqn. (iii), we get –
K' [A + ] 1
= 10−14 or ∝
K [AB−2 ] [B− ]2
K' = 10–14 × 1.8 ×109 73. The equilibrium constants for the reaction,
K' = 1.8 × 10–5
Br2 2Br at 500 K and 700 K are 1 × 10–10
71. For the following reaction,
NO2(g) + CO (g) →NO (g) + CO2(g), and 1 × 10–5 respectively. The reaction is
the rate law is (a) endothermic (b) exothermic
Rate = k[NO2]2. If 0.1 mole of gaseous carbon (c) fast (d) slow
monoxide is added at constant temperature to UPTU/UPSEE-2013
Ans. (a) : Given that: 77. Given that the equilibrium constant for the
The equilibrium constants for the reaction, reaction, 2SO 2 (g) + O (g) 2SO 3 (g)
2
Br2 2Br at 500K and 700K are 1×10–10 and 1×10–5
has a value of 278 at a particular temperature.
respectively. The reaction is endothermic. What is the value of the equilibrium constant
An endothermic reaction is characterized by absorption for the following reaction at the same
of heat. When heat is added, the position of the temperature ?
equilibrium shifts to forward direction. With increase in 1
temperature, the value of the equilibrium constant SO 3 (g) SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
increase for an endothermic reaction and decrease for 2
(a) 1.8×10–3 (b) 3.6×10–3
exothermic reaction. –2
(c) 6.0×10 (d) 1.3×10–5
74. For a gas in equilibrium with a liquid, the ratio NEET-Mains 2012
of the concentration of the gas in the solution
Ans. (c) : The given equilibrium equation–
plase to that in the gaseous phase is constant at
constant temperature, only if molecules 2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2SO3 (g), K = 278
undergo 1
(a) ionisation (b) dissociation Now for SO 2 + O 2 SO3 will have K
2
(c) isolation (d) reaction with solvent So, reverse the above reaction:
UPTU/UPSEE-2012 1
Ans. (c) : According to Henry’s law; SO3 (g) SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) will have
2
Concentration of gas in solution 1 1
= constant = = = 6×10–2
Concentration of gas in the gaseous phase K 278
Only there is simple solvation (isolation then
stablisation). Not possible in the case of ionisation or 78. The equilibrium constant for the reaction,
dissociation. aA + bB cC + dD is K, then the
75. Reaction, equilibrium constant for the reaction,
BaO 2 (s) BaO(s) + O 2 (g); ∆H = + ve. naA + nbB ncC + ndD
In equilibrium condition, pressure of O2 (a) K (b) Kn
depends on 1 1
(c) (d)
(a) increased mass of BaO2 Kn K n −1
(b) increased mass of BaO UP CPMT-2012
(c) increased temperature of equilibrium
Ans. (b) : aA + bB cC + dD
(d) increased mass of BaO2 and BaO both
BCECE-2012 [ C]c [ D ]d
Ans. (c) : The given reaction is – Equilibrium constant K=
[ A ]a [ B]b
BaO 2 (s) BaO(s) + O 2 (g); ∆H = + ve
naA+nbB ncC+ndD
Since ∆H is +ve for this reaction. So, it is endothermic
in nature. On increasing the temperature, by applying [ C]nc [ D ]nd
Le Chatelier’s principal, we can see that the reaction Equilibrium constant, K1=
proceeds in a forward direction on increasing [ A ]na [ B]nb
n
temperature. So, the pressure of O2 will increase the  [ C]c [ D ]a 
temperature at equilibrium. =   = Kn
b 
76. The correct order of equilibrium constants for [ ]
 A B 
a
[ ]
the reaction is 79. Phosphorus pentachloride dissociates as follows
H 2 CO + H 2 O
K1
H 2 C(OH) 2 in a closed reaction vessel,
K2 PCl 5 (g) PCl 3 (g) + Cl 2 (g)
CH 3 CH 2 CHO + H 2 O CH 3 CH 2 CH(OH) 2
If total pressure at equilibrium of the reaction
K3
CH 3 COCH 3 + H 2 O CH 3 C(OH) 2 CH 3 mixture is p and degree of dissociation of PCl5
(a) K1 > K2 > K3 (b) K1< K2 < K3 is x, the partial pressure of PCl3 will be
(c) K1> K3 > K2 (d) K1< K3 < K2  x   2x 
(a)  p (b)  p
AMU-2012  x +1  1− x 
K
Ans. (a) : H 2 CO + H 2 O ↽ 1 ⇀ H 2 (COH) 2  x   x 
(c)  p (d)  p
K2
CH 3CH 2 CHO + H 2 O ↽ ⇀ CH 3CH 2 CH(OH) 2  x −1  1− x 
K
UP CPMT-2012
CH 3COCH 3 + H 2 O ↽ 3 ⇀ CH 3C(OH) 2 CH 3
PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl 2 (g)
Due to steric effect, the order of equilibrium constants Ans. (a) :
will be (1- x) x x
K1 > K2 > K3 Total number of moles at equilibrium
= (1–x) + x + x = 1 + x d[NO 2 ]
= k 2 [N 2O5 ] ...(iii)
 x  dt
Therefore, PPCl3 =  ×p
1+ x  d[O 2 ]
= k 3 [N 2 O5 ] ...(iv)
80. For the homogeneous reaction. dt
4NH 3 + 5O 2 4NO + 6H 2 O From eqn. (i), we get–
−d[N 2 O5 ] 1 d[NO 2 ] 2d[O 2 ]
the equilibrium constant Kc has the units = =
+10 +1 dt 2 dt dt
(a) conc. (b) conc. n
(c) conc.-1 (d) it is dimensionless From eq . (ii), (iii) and (iv), we get–
JIMPER-2012 k [N O ] = 1 k [N O ] = 2k [N O ] .....(v)
1 2 5 2 2 5 3 2 5
Ans. (b) : The unit of the equilibrium constant Kc is 2
∆n n
(mole/litre) . Multiplying by 2 in eq . (v), we get –
Where, ∆n is the difference in the total number of 2k1[N2O5[ = k2 [N2O5] = 4k3 [N2O5]
gaseous reactants. Dividing by [N2O5], we get–
For the reaction– 2k1 = k2 = 4k3
4NH 3 (g) + 5O 2 (g) 4NO(g) + 6H 2 O(g) 83. The equilibrium constants for the reactions
∆n = 4 + 6 − (4 + 5) = 1 N 2 + 3H 2 2NH 3
Hence, the unit of the equilibrium constant Kc will be 1 3
(mole/litre)∆n and N2 + H 2 NH 3
2 2
= (mole/litre)1 are K1 and K2 respectively. Which one of the
= conc. following is the correct relationship?
81. The reaction, SO 2 + Cl 2 → SO 2Cl 2 is 1
(a) K1 = 2K 2 (b) K1 = K 2
exothermic and reversible. A mixture of 2
SO2(g), Cl2(g) and SO2Cl2(I) is at equilibrium (c) K 2 = K1 (d) K1 = K 2
in a closed container. Now a certain quantity of
extra SO2 is introduced into the container, the BCECE-2011
volume remaining the same. Which of the Ans. (c) : The reaction is –
following is/are true? N 2 + 3H 2 2NH3
(a) The pressure inside the container will not
[NH3 ]2
change K1 = ………………..(i)
(b) The temperature will not change [N 2 ][H 2 ]3
(c) The temperature will increase 1 3
(d) The temperature will decrease N2 + H2 NH 3
2 2
BITSAT-2012
[NH 3 ]
Ans. (c) : SO 2 + Cl 2 SO 2 Cl2 + Heat K2 =
[N 2 ]1/ 2 [H 2 ]3/ 2
For the above reaction, on adding SO2 the equilibrium
will shift in forward direction, i.e. more heat will be Squaring on both sides –
evolved. So temperature will increase. [NH3 ]2
K 22 = ... (ii)
82. For the reaction [N 2 ][H 2 ]3
1 From (i) & (ii) we get
N 2 O5  → 2NO 2 + O 2,
2 K 22 = K1 ⇒ K 2 = K1
− d [ N 2 O5 ]
= k1 [ N 2 O 5 ] 84. In the reaction,
dt N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2NO(g) + 180.7kJ,
d [ NO 2 ] on increasing the temperature, the production
= k 2 [ N 2 O5 ]
dt of NO
d [O2 ] (a) increases (b) decreases
= k 3 [ N 2 O5 ] (c) remains same (d) Cannot be predicted
dt BCECE-2011
(a) 2k1 = k2 = 4k3 (b) k1 = k2 = k3 Ans. (a) : The reaction is –
(c) 2k1= 4k2 = k3 (d) none of these N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2NO(g) 180.7kJ
AMU-2011
Ans. (a) : The reaction is – Here, ∆H = 180.7 kJ
∆H is positive so the given reaction is endothermic
1
N 2 O5 → 2NO 2 + O 2 ... (i) reaction. And the case of endothermic reaction if we
2 increase the temperature means we provided the heat to
−d[N 2 O5 ] the system then equilibrium shift forward direction. So,
= k1[N 2O5 ] ... (ii) the production of NO will be increase.
dt
85. Final pressure is higher than initial pressure of 88. If the equilibrium constant for reaction (i) is 2,
a container filled with an ideal gas at constant what is the equilibrium constant for reaction
temperature. What will be the value of (ii)?
equilibrium constant? 1
(a) K = 1.0 (b) K = 10.0 CO2 CO+ O 2 ---------(i)
2
(c) K > 1.0 (d) K < 1.0 2CO+O2 2CO2 ---------(ii)
GUJCET-2011
1 1
Ans. (d): Number of gaseous moles increases as (a) (b)
pressure increase at equilibrium for the reaction. 4 2
P(g) Q(g) + R(g) (c) 1 (d) 2
UPTU/UPSEE-2011
1(1 – α) 0α 0α
1
α × p eq
2
1× p eq Ans. (a) : CO 2 CO + O 2
∴ Kp = = 2
1 − α2 1/ α 2 − 1 The equilibrium constant for the reaction–
For α < 1, Peq < 1 [Q Pinitial < Pfinal]
[CO][O 2 ]1 2
Kp < 1.0 Kc =
Hence the option (d) is correct. [CO 2 ]
1
86. In the reversible reaction. CO 2 CO + O 2
k1 2
2NO 2 k N 2O 4 The equilibrium constant for the reaction–
2
the rate of disappearance of NO2 is equal to [CO 2 ]2  1 

2
1 1
2k1 Kc = =  = 2 =
[ NO 2 ]
2 2
(a) [CO] [O 2 ]  K c  2 4
k2
(b) 2k1 [ NO 2 ] − 2k 2 [ N 2 O 4 ] 89. One mole of pure ethyl alcohol is mixed with
2
one mole of acetic acid at room temperature

(c) 2k1 [ NO 2 ] − k 2 [ N 2 O 4 ]
2
and it is found that at equilibrium two-third
mole of ester and two-third mole of water are
(d) ( 2k1 − k 2 ) [ NO2 ] present in the reaction mixture. What is the
VITEEE- 2011 equilibrium constant for the reaction?
(a) 1 (b) 2
Ans. (c) : In the reversible reaction
k1
(c) 4 (d) 6
2NO 2 k N 2O 4 SCRA-2010
2
The concentration of NO2 is decrease in the forward Ans. (c) C H

2 5 OH(l)+CH 3 COOH(l) CH 3 COOC 2H5(l)+H2O
Initially 1 1 0 0
reaction and increase in backward reaction. At equil. 1 – 2/3 1 – 2/3 2/3 2/3
The rate of disappearance of NO2 in the forward [CH 3 COOC2 H 5 ] [H 2 O]
1 d[NO 2 ] ∴ K eq =
reaction is − = k1[NO 2 ] 2
[C2 H 5 OH][CH 3 COOH]
2 dt
2 / 3× 2 / 3
d[NO 2 ] K eq = =4
− = 2k1[NO2 ]2 1/ 3 × 1/ 3
dt
Rate of formation of NO2 in the reversible reaction is 90. In the reaction of a A + 2B → C + 2D,
d[NO 2 ] d[A]
= k 2 [N 2 O 4 ] the intitial rate, − at t=0 was found to be
dt dt
∴ rate of disappearance of 2.6 × 10 −2 Ms −1 . What is the value of
NO 2 = 2k1 [ NO 2 ] − k 2 [ N 2 O 4 ] d [B]
2
− at t = 0 in Ms −1 ?
87. The unit of equilibrium constant for the dt
following reaction is (a) 2.6 × 10 −2 (b) 5.2 × 10−2
−
2NO2(g) N2O4(g) (c) 1.0 × 10 1
(d) 6.5 × 10−3
–1 CG PET- 2010
(a) mol L
(b) L mol–1 Ans. (b) : A + 2B → C + 2D
(c) mol–1L–1 d[A] 1 d[B]
(d) equilibrium constant is unitless − =−
dt 2 dt
UPTU/UPSEE-2011
d[B] d[A]
Ans. (b) : 2NO 2 (g) N 2 O 4 (g) or − = 2× −
dt dt
[N 2 O 4 ] mol L−1 −1 = 2 × 2.6 × 10–2 Ms–1
Kc = = = L mol
[NO 2 ]2 (mol L−1 ) 2 = 5.2 × 10–2 Ms–1

91. For the reversible reaction. (c) The backward reaction has lower activation
A(s) + B(g) ↽ ⇀ C(g) + D (g); ∆ G o = −350kJ energy
(d) No activation energy is required at all since
Which one of the following statements is true? energy is liberated in the process.
(a) The entropy change is negative WB-JEE-2010
(b) Equilibrium constant is greater than one
Ans. (a) : If forward reaction is exothermic it means
(c) The reaction should be instantaneous
that higher energy is released during forward reaction
(d) The reaction is thermodynamically not feasible
which implies than it is easy to bring reaction forward.
Karnataka-CET, 2010
So, forward reaction has lower activation energy than
Ans. (b) :In the reversible reaction, backward reaction.
A(s) + B(g) ↽ ⇀ C(g) + D (g); ∆G o = –350kJ 94. A + B C + B
Since, the randomness increases (because solid is Initially moles of A and B are equal. At
changing into gas), entropy will increase and thus, ∆S is equilibrium, moles of C are three times that of
positive. Reversible reaction never undergo to A. The equilibrium constant of the reaction will
completion (i.e. never be instantaneous) be
∵ For the given reaction, ∆G o = –350kJ (a) 1 (b) 3
We know that, ∆Go = – RT log K (c) 4 (d) 9
–350 = – RT log K CG PET -2009
i.e., K (equilibrium constant) is greater than one. Ans. (d) : Given the reaction–
Moreover, the reaction is thermodynamically feasible. A + B C + D
92. Consider the following reactions in which all at t = 0 1 1 0 0
the reactants and the products are in gaseous t = eqn. (1– α) (1– α) α α
state. Now, [C] = 3 [A]
2PQ ↽ ⇀ P2 + Q 2 ;K 1 = 2.5 × 105 α = 3(1 – α)
3
1 α=
PQ + R 2 ↽ ⇀ PQR; K 2 = 5 × 10 −3 4
2 Hence, the equilibrium constant–
The value of K3 for the equilibrium
α2
1 1 1
P2 + Q 2 + R 2 ↽ ⇀ PQR, is ∴ Kc =
2 2 2 (1 − α)2
(a) 2.5 × 10–3 (b) 2.5 × 103 2
(c) 1.0 × 10–5 (d) 5 × 10–3 3
 
=  2
(e) 5 × 10 –3 4
Kerala-CEE-2010  
1
Ans. (c) : Given the reaction are:  
4
2PQ P2 + Q 2 ; K1 =2.5×105 ...........(i) = Kc = 9
1
PQ + R 2 PQR : K 2 = 5 × 10−3.......(ii) 95. If for N 2 + 3H 2 2NH 3 ,K eq = 1.6 × 10 −5 ,
2
Reverse first reaction: then the value of K 'eq for the reaction
P2 + Q 2 2PQ 1 3
1 1 NH 3 N + H will be
K3 = = = 0.000004 ............(iii) 2 2 2 2
K1 2.5 × 105 (a) 6.25 (b) 25
Divide above reaction with 2 (c) 250 (d) 500
1 1 CG PET -2009
P2 + Q 2 PQ Ans. (c) : For reaction –
2 2
N 2 + 3H 2 2NH3
K 4 = K 3 = 0.000004 = 0.002 ...........(iv)
Add reaction (ii) & (iv) [NH 3 ]2
K eq = = 1.6 ×10−5 ……………(i)
1 1 1 [N 2 ][H 2 ]3
P2 + Q 2 + R 2 PQR ................(v)
2 2 2 And
K5 = 0.002×5×10 = 1.0 × 10–5
–3
1 3
93. For a reversible chemical reaction where the NH 3 N2 + H2
2 2
forward process is exothermic. Which of the 1 3
following statements is correct?
K ' [ N ]2 [ H 2 ]2
= 2 …………………(ii)
(a) The backward reaction has higher activation
energy than the forward reaction
eq
[ NH3 ]
(b) The backward and the forward processes have Squaring on both sides
the same activation energy
2 1
( K ) =  [ 2 []NH[ ]2 ] 
'
 N 1/ 2 H 3 / 2  And, NO 2 (g) N 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
eq 2
 3  [ N ] [O2 ]
1/ 2
∴ K2 = 2
) = [ NH
N 2 ][ H 2 ] [ NO 2 ]
3
(K ' 2
[ 3]
eq 2
[ N ][O 2 ]
2
On multiply equation (i) and (ii) or K 2

= 2 .…(ii)
[ NO2 ]
2 2
 K × ( K ' ) 2  = [ NH 3 ] × [ N 2 ][ H 2 ]
2 3
Multiplying equations (i) and (ii), we get–
 eq eq
 [ N ][ H ]3 [ NH3 ]
2
100 × K 22 = 1
2 2
K eq × ( K eq ) =1 1 1
' 2
⇒ K 22 = or K 2 = = 0.1
100 10
(K ) 1
2
'
eq = 98. What is the equation for the equilibrium
K eq constant (Kc) for the following reaction?
1 1 2
(K ) 1 A (g) + B (g) C(g)
2 T(K)
'
=
1.6 ×10−5
eq
2 3 3
[ A ] [ B] [C]
1/ 2 1/ 3 3/ 2
1
K 'eq = (a) Kc = (b) Kc =
1.6 ×10−5 [C]3/ 2 [ A ]2 [ B]3
105 × 10 [C]
2/3
[C]
2/3
K 'eq = (c) Kc = (d) Kc =
1.6 ×10
[ A ]1/ 2 [ B]1/ 3 [ A ]1/ 2 + [ B]1/ 3
106 JIMPER-2009
K 'eq =
16 [Product]
3 Ans. (c) : Equilibrium constant is
10 [Reactants]
K 'eq =
4 For the reaction
1000 1 1 2
K eq =
'
A+ B C
4 2 3 3
K 'eq = 250 [C]2 / 3
Equilibrium constant will be =
96. In a reversible reaction, at equilibrium, the net [A]1/ 2 [B]1/ 3
heat change of the reaction is
(a) positive (b) negative 99. The equilibrium for the reaction is 100.
(c) zero (d) cannot be predicted N 2 (g)+ 2O 2 (g) 2NO 2 (g)
AP-EAMCET(MEDICAL)-2009 What is the equilibrium constant for the
Ans. (c) : In a reversible reaction, at equilibrium, the reaction given below?
free energy will be zero. Thus, the net heat change will
1
be also zero. NO 2 (g) N 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
2
97. The equilibrium constant for the given reaction (a) 10 (b) 1
is 100.
(c) 0.1 (d) 0.01
N 2 ( g ) + 2O 2 ( g ) 2NO 2 ( g ) AP EAMCET (Engg.)-2009
What is the equilibrium constant for the Ans. (c): Given reaction is -
reaction given below? N 2 (g) + 2O 2 (g) ⇌ 2NO 2 (g)
1
NO 2 ( g ) N2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) [NO 2 ]2
2 ∴ K1 = 100 = .....(i)
(a) 10 (b) 1 [N 2 ][O 2 ]2
(c) 0.1 (d) 0.01 1
VITEEE-2009 and, NO 2 (g) ⇌ 2 N 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
Ans. (c) : The equilibrium reaction is–
[N ]1/ 2 [O 2 ]
N 2 (g) + 2O 2 (g) 2NO 2 (g) K2 = 2
[NO 2 ]
[ NO 2 ]
2
∴ K1 = [N 2 ][O 2 ]2
[ N 2 ][ O2 ]
2 K 2
2 = ..... (ii)
[NO 2 ]2
[ NO2 ]
2
On multiplying Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get –
or 100 = ….(i)
[ N ][O ]
2 100 × K 22 = 1
2 2

1 K1 1.5 ×10−5 15
K 22 = K= = = × 10−5
100 K 2 4.5 × 10−10 45
1 1
K2 = K = ×105
100 3
1 K = 0.3×105
K2 = K= 3.0×104
10
K2 = 0.1 102. For the reaction
2HI(g) ↽ ⇀ H 2 (g) + I2 (g) − Q kJ,
100. 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g)
The equilibrium constant of the above reaction the equilibrium constant depends upon
is 6.4 at 300 K. If 0.25 mole each of H2 and I2 (a) temperature (b) pressure
are added to the system, the equilibrium (c) catalyst (d) volume
constant will be Karnataka-CET, 2008
(a) 6.4 (b) 0.8 Ans. (a) : 2Hl(g) ↽ ⇀ H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) − Q kJ
(c) 3.2 (d) 1.6
Karnataka-CET, 2009 ∆ng = np – nR = 2 – 2 = 0
As the number of moles of products and reactant are
Ans. (a) :
equal, so equilibrium constant is not affected by any
[H ][I ] change in pressure and volume. Catalyst also does not
2HI(g) = H 2 (g) + I2 (g) K eq = 2 2 = 6.4
t =0 0.25 0.25 [HI] affect the equilibrium constant. It is an endothermic
t = t eq 2x (0.25− x) (0.25− x) reaction, hence equilibrium constant depends only upon
(0.25 − x)(0.25 − x) the temperature.
K eq = 6.4 =
(2x) 2 103. On doubling p and V with constant
2 temperature, the equilibrium constant will–
(0.25 − x)2  0.25 − x  (a) remain constant (b) become double
⇒ 6.4 = = 
(2x)2  2x  (c) become one-fourth (d) None of the above
0.25 − x BCECE-2008
⇒
2x
= 2.53 [ 6.4 = 2.53] Ans. (a) : On doubling P and volume (V) with constant
⇒ 0.25 – x = 5.06x temperature, the equilibrium constant (K) will remain
constant.
0.25 = 5.06x + x
0.25 = 6.06x 104. In which of the following reactions, the
concentration of the product is higher than the
0.25
x= = 0.041 concentration of the reactant at equilibrium ?
6.06 (K = equilibrium constant)
[H2] = [I2] = 0.25 – x (a) A B; K = 0.001 (b) M N; K = 10
[H2] = [I2]= 0.25–0.041
(c) X Y; K = 0.005 (d) R P; K = 0.01
[H2] = [I2]= 0.209 mol
HI = 2x AIIMS-2008
[HI] = 2 × 0.041 = 0.081 mol Ans. (b): We know that,
And, equilibrium constant will be same, as temperature [Product]
K=
is not changing Keq = 6.4. [Reactant]
101. The dissociation constant for acetic acid and Hence, [Product] = K [Reactant]
HCN at 25ºC are 1.5 × 10–5 and 4.5 × 10–10 ∴ [Product] > Reactant, when K > 1
respectively. The equilibrium constant for the Hence, option b is the only correct answer as K = 10 > 1
equilibrium, 105. Consider the reaction .
CN– + CH3COOH HCN + CH3COO– CO(g) +H2O(g) CO2(g) +H2(g)
would be the equilibrium amount of CO2(g) can be
(a) 3.0 ×10–3 (b) 3.0 ×10–4 increased at a given temperature by
4
(c) 3.0 ×10 (d) 3.0 ×105 (a) adding a suitable catalyst
NEET-2009 (b) decreasing the volume of the container
Ans. (c) : CN– + CH3COOH=HCN+CH3COO– (c) adding an inert gas
K1 = 1.5×10–5 .....(i) (d) increasing the amount of CO(g).
HCN = H++CN– AMU-2008
K2=4.5×10–10 .....(ii) Ans. (d) : If an additional amount of any reactant is
CN–+CH3COOH=HCN+CH3COO– added the rate of forward reaction increases. In general,
K=? in a chemical equilibrium, increasing the concentration
On subtracting equation (ii) from eq. (i) of the reactants results in shifting the equilibrium in
we get: favour of products.

106. The rate law for a reaction between the [A]na [B]nb
substances A and B is given by rate = K[A]n[B]m. K′ =
On doubling the concentration of A and having [C]nc [D]nd
the concentration of B, the ratio of the new rate 1 [C]nc [D]nd
to the earlier rate of the reaction will be as =
K′ [A]na [B]nb
1 n
(a) m+n (b) (m+n) 1  [C]c [D]d 
2 = .....(ii)
(c) (n-m) (d) 2(n-m) K′  [A]a [B]b 
JCECE - 2008 On putting value of K in equation (ii)–
Ans. (d) : rate = K [A]n [B]m 1
On doubling the concentration of A and making the = Kn
K′
volume of B half, the new rate becomes 1
m K′ = n
1 n− m K
2 ×  = 2
n
times the earlier rate.
2 109. The equilibrium constant for the reaction,
So, ration is 2n – m 1
107. A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO2(g) at SO 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) SO 3 ( g )
2
pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect –2
is 5 × 10 atm. The equilibrium constant of the
the volume of solid SrO). The volume of the
container is now deceased by moving the movable reaction, 2SO3(g) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)
piston fitted in the container. The maximum (a) 100 atm (b) 200 atm
volume of the container, when pressure of CO2 (c) 4 × 102 atm (d) 6.25 × 104 atm
attains its maximum value, will be AP-EAMCET-2007
SrO(s) + CO2(g) Kp Ans. (c) : Given that, K1 = 5 × 10 atm.
–2
(Given that : SrCO3(s)
= 1.6 atm) For the reaction–
(a) 10 Litre (b) 4 Litre 1
SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 1 SO3 (g)
K
(c) 2 Litre (d) 5 Litre 2

(NEET-2007
∴ K1 =
[SO3 ] .....(i)
[ ][ ]
1/ 2
SrCO3 (s) SrO(s) + CO 2 (g) SO 2

O 2
K2
Kp = 1.6 atm. And, 2SO3(g) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)
The initial pressure Pco2 = 0.4 atm
[SO2 ] [O2 ]
2
The final pressure Pꞌco2 = Kp = 1.6 atm K2 = .....(ii)

[SO3 ]
2
The initial volume v = 20L
PV From equation (i) and (ii), we get
The final volume V ' =
P' 1
0.4 atm × 20L K2 = 2 .....(iii)
= K 1
1.6 atm Putting the value of K1 in equation (iii) we get,
= 5L 1 1
Hence, the maximum volume the container when the K2 = =
pressure of CO2 attains its max. volume will be 5 liters. ( 5 ×10 ) −2 2
25 × 10 −4
108. The equilibrium constant of the following 10000
K2 = = 4 × 102 atm
reaction aA + bB cC + dD is K 25
the equilibrium constant of the reaction, 110. Which of the following reactions is an example
ncC + ndD naA + nbB, will be of reversible reaction?
n (a) Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2NaI(aq) → PbI2(s)
(a) Kn (b) +2NaNO3(aq)
K
(b) 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
1
(c) n.K (d) (c) AgNO3(aq)+HCl(aq)→AgCl(s) + HNO3(aq)
Kn (d) KNO3(aq)+NaCl(aq)→KCl(aq)+NaNO3(aq)
AMU-2007 SRMJEEE – 2007
Ans. (d) : For reaction– Ans. (d) : A reaction in which reactant and product in
aA + bB cC + dD equilibrium with each other is known as reversible
[C]c [D]d reaction.
K= .....(i)
[A]a [B]b KNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq)  → KCl(aq) + NaNO3(aq)
And, ncC + ndD naA + nbB All are in aqueous state that's why follow the properties
of reversible reaction.

111. At T(K), 100 L of dry oxygen is present in a 4
sealed container. It is subjected to silent 4
 
Kc =  5  3
electrical discharge, till the volumes of oxygen
and ozone become equal. What is the volume  4  2 
(in L) of ozone formed at T (K)?   
(a) 50 (b) 60  5  5 
(c) 30 (d) 40 Kc = 8
AP-EAMCET-2006 114. In Haber process, 30 litre of dihydrogen and 30
Ans. (d) : Initially when T = 0 liters of dinitrogen were taken for reactions
3O 2 2O3 which yielded only 50% of the expected
3x 2x product. What will be the composition of
At T K, total volume of O2 and O3 is 100L hence after gaseous mixture under the above said condition
time T when the reaction is completed total volume of in the end ?
oxygen and ozone will be– (a) 20 litre ammonia, 20 litre nitrogen, 15 litre
3x + 2x = 100 hydrogen
100 (b) 10 litre ammonia, 25 litre nitrogen, 15 litre
x= = 20 mL
5 hydrogen
∴ Volume of ozone formed = 2x = 2 × 20 = 40 mL (c) 20 litre ammonia, 10 litre nitrogen, 30 litre
hydrogen
112. Equation log K 2 = ∆H  T2 − T1  ,n is (d) 20 litre ammonia, 25 litre nitrogen, 15 litre
K 1 2.303R  T1T2 
hydrogen
(a) Van der Waals' equation
(b) Kirchoff's equation NEET-2005
(c) Gas equation N 2 + 3H 2 ⇔ 2NH 3
(d) Van't Hoff equation Ans. (b) : 30 30 0
CG PET -2006 30-x 30-3x 2x
But, 2x = 50%, of the expected (20Lt) product = 10 lit
K ∆H  T2 − T1 
Ans. (b) : log 2 =   x=5
K1 2.303R  T1T2  ∴ Vol. of N2 at eq. = 30-5 = 25 lit
The above equation is Van't Hoff equation. Vol. of H2 at eq. = 30-3×5=15 lit
113. A(g) + 3B(g ) 4C(g) . Vol. of NH3 at eq. = 2×5 = 10 lit
Initially concentration of A is equal to that of 115. The equilibrium P4(g) + 6Cl2(g) 4PCl3(g) is
B. The equilibrium concentration of A and C attained by mixing equal moles of P4 and Cl2 in
are equal. Kc is : an evacuated vessel. Then, at equilibrium
(a) 0.08 (b) 0.8 (a) [Cl2] > [PCl3] (b) [Cl2] > [P4]
(c) 8 (d) 80 (c) [P4] > [Cl2] (d) [Cl3] > [P4]
1 J & K CET-(2004)
(e)
8 Ans. (c) : The reaction is –
Kerala-CEE-2005 P4 (g) + 6Cl2 (g) 4PCl3 (g)
Ans. (c) : The reaction is:
t=0 1 1 0
A(g) + 3B(g) 4C(g)
t=0 1 1 0 t = t equi. 1 − α 1 − 6 α 4α
teq. 1–x 1–3x 4x It attained by mixing equal moles (take 1 moles of each)
According to question– of P4 and Cl2 in an evacuated vessel.
1 – x = 4x Then at equilibrium,
1 = 4x + x
1− α 1 − 6α
1 = 5x [P4 ] = and [Cl2 ] =
1 V V
x= ∴ [P ] > [Cl ]
5 4 2
For above reaction– From the reaction stoichiometry, we observe that 1
[C]4 mole of P4 will react with 6 moles of Cl2. So more
Kc = 3
number of moles of Cl2 are consumed than those of P4
[A][B] to reach equilibrium.
(4x)4 116. In which of the following reactions, the
Kc =
(1 − x)(1 − 3x)3 concentration of product at equilibrium :
4
4
(K = equilibrium constant)
  (a) A B; K = 0.01 (b) R P; K = 1
Kc =  5 
 4  3 
3 (c) X Y; K = 10 (d) L J; K = 0.025
 1 −  AP-EAMCET (Engg.)-2004
 5  5 
Ans. (b) : In the reversible reaction, the concentration 120. Consider the following reaction equilibrium?
of reactant will be equal to concentration of product N2(g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3(g)
only when the value of rate constant is unity. For the Initially, 1 mole of N2 and 3 moles of H2 are
reaction – taken in a 2 L flask. At equilibrium state, if the
R P number of moles of N2 is 0.6, what is the total
[P] number of moles of all gases present in the
∴ K= flask?
[R]
(a) 0.8 (b) 1.6
Given, K = 1
(c) 3.2 (d) 6.4
∴ [P] = [R] AP-EAMCET-2003
117. The term- (dc/dt) in a rate equation refers to the Ans. (c) : For the equilibrium reaction–
(a) concentration of the reactant N2(g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3(g)
(b) decreases in concentration of the reactant
with time Initial mole 1 3 0
(c) increase in concentration of the reactant with At equilibrium 0.6 = (1–x) (3–3x) 2x
time ∴ Number of moles of N2 ⇒ (1 – x) = 0.6
(d) velocity constant of the reaction 1 – x = 0.6
CG PET -2004 x = 1 – 0.6 = 0.4
∴ Total number of moles at equilibrium–
 dc  = (1 – x) + (3 – 3x) + 2x
Ans. (b) : The term –   in rate expression indicates
 dt  = 4 – 2x
the decrease in concentration of the reactant with time. = 4 – 2 × 0.4
It is negative sign with is used to show the decrease in = 3.2 moles
concentration of the reactant. 121. In the reaction
118. If the rate expression for a chemical reaction is PCl 5 ( g ) PCl 3 ( g ) + Cl 2 ( g ) ,
given by rate = k[A]m[B]n
(a) the order of the reaction is m The equilibrium concentrations of PCl5 and
(b) the order of the reaction is n PCl3 are 0.4 and 0.2 mol/L respectively. If the
(c) the order of the reaction is m + n value of Kc is 0.5, what is the concentration of
Cl2 in mol/L?
(d) the order of the reaction is m − n (a) 2.0 (b) 1.5
CG PET -2004 (c) 1.0 (d) 0.5
Ans. (c) : Order is the sum of power of the AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2003
concentration of the reactants present in rate law Ans. (c) : Given that,
expression. [PCl5] = 0.4mol/L, [PCl3] = 0.2 mol/L
Rate = k[A]n.[B]m Kc = 0.5, [Cl2] = ?
Hence, the order of reaction is = n + m or m + n Give the reaction–
119. The rate of a chemical reaction : PCl5 ( g ) PCl3 ( g ) + Cl 2 ( g )
(a) increase as the reaction proceeds
(b) decrease as the reaction proceeds [PCl3 ][Cl2 ]
Now, Kc =
(c) may increase or decrease during reaction [PCl5 ]
(d) remain constant as the reaction
K c [PCl5 ]
BCECE-2003 or [Cl2 ] =
Ans. (b) : The rate of chemical reaction is directly [PCl3 ]
proportional to the concentration of the reactants i.e. 0.5 × 0.4
rate of reaction decreases with decrease of or [Cl2 ] =
0.2
concentration and increases with increase in or [Cl2 ] = 1.0 mol/L
concentration. As the reaction progresses the reactant is
converted into the product and thus the concentration of 122. One mole of A(g) is heated to 300oC in a closed
reactants decreases while that of product increases. one liter vessel till the following equilibrium is
reached : A(g) B(g)
The equilibrium constant of this reaction at
300oC is 4. What is the concentration of B (in
mol L–1) at equilibrium?
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.6
(c) 0.8 (d) 0.1
Ans. (c) : Given that, Kc =4
For the given reaction–
A(g) ↽ ⇀ B(g)
Initial conc. 1 0
At equi. (1 – x) x 2 2
[B] V× V
∴ Kc = ∴ K= 3 3 =4
[A] 1 1
V× V
x 3 3
or 4=
1− x 125. If K1 and K2 are the equilibrium constants of
or 4 – 4x = x the equilibriums A and B respectively, what is
4 the relationship between the two constants?
or x= 1
5 (1) SO 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) SO 3 ( g ) ;K 1
or x = 0.8 2
123. A + 2B 2C + D , initial concentration of B (2) 2SO 3 ( g ) 2SO 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) ;K 2
was 1.5 times that of A, but the equilibrium 1
concentration of A and B are found to be equal. (a) K1 = K 2 (b) K1 =
The equilibrium constant for the reaction is : K2
(a) 4 (b) 8 1
(c) 12 (d) 16 (c) K 2 = K12 (d) K12 =
K2
IIT-JEE-2000
AP EAMCET (Medical)-1998
Ans. (a): A + 2B 2C + D
Initial 1 1.5 0 0 Ans. (d): The equilibrium reaction are :
Equi. 1– x 1.5 – 2x 2x x 1 K1
SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) SO3 (g)
At equilibrium [A] = [B] 2
1 – x = 1.5 – 2x And, 2SO3 (g)
K2
2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
x = 0.5
For the first equilibrium reaction –
[C]2 [D]
∴ Kc =
K1 =
[SO3 ] .....(1)
[A][B]2
[SO2 ][O2 ]
12
(2x)2 (x)
Kc = Similarly, for second –
(1 − x) (1.5 − 2x)2
[SO2 ] [O2 ]
2
1× 1× 0.5 K2 =
[SO3 ]
2
Kc =
0.5 × 0.5 × 0.5 Taking square root both side –we get
Kc = 4
[SO2 ][O 2 ]
12
124. One mole of CH3COOH and one mole of K =2
C2H5OH reacts to produce

2
mole of
2
[SO3 ]
3
CH3COOC2H5. The equilibrium constant is: or
1
=
[SO3 ] .....(2)
K 2 [SO 2 ][ O 2 ]
12
(a) 2 (b) +2
(c) –4 (d) +4 Equating equation (1) and (2) we get
JEE-Main-2013 1
Ans. (d): K1 =
K2
CH3COOH+C2 H5OH → CH3COOC2 H5 + H2O
1
At t=0 1 1 0 0 or K12 =
K2
2 2 2 2
At equi. 1− 1−
3 3 3 3 126. The equilibrium for the following reaction will
Let, the volume = V L be: 3A + 2B → C
1
∴ [CH3 COOH] = V mol / L
(a)
[3A ][ 2B] (b)
[ C]
3
1
[ C] [3A ][ 2B]
[C2 H 5 OH] = V mol / L
3 (c)
[C] (d)
[ C]
[ A ] [ B] [ A ] [ B]
2 2 3 2
2
[CH3 COOC 2 H5 ] = V mol / L
3 NEET-1999
2 Ans. (d): The reaction is –
[H 2 O] = V mol / L
3 3A + 2B → C
K=
[ CH 3COOC 2 H 5 ][ H 2 O ] The expression for the equilibrium constant will be
[CH3COOH ][ C2 H5OH ] Kc =
[C]
[A]3 [B]2

127. The equilibrium constant of a reaction is 300. If Ans. (a) : The reaction is:
the volume of a reaction flask is tripled, the N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2NO(g)
equilibrium constant will be 2
(a) 300 (b) 100 [NO]
K1 = .....(i)
(c) 600 (d) 150 [N 2 ][O 2 ]
AIIMS-1996 1 1
Ans. (a): As we know that, equilibrium constant NO(g) N 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
depends only upon temperature and here temperature is 2 2
1/ 2 1/ 2
constant. [N ] [O ]
K2 = 2 2
So, the equilibrium constant will remain unaffected and will [NO]
not change with change in the volume (pressure or conc.). Squaring on both sides
So, equilibrium constant will be 300. [N ][O ]
128. The equilibrium constant for the reaction (K 2 ) 2 = 2 22 .....(ii)
[NO]
N2 + 3H2 2NH3 is K, then the equilibrium On solving eqn. (i) & (ii), we get–
constant for the equilibrium 2NH3 1
(K 2 ) 2 =
N2+3H2 is, K1
2
1  1 
(a) K (b) K1 = 
K 
 K2 
1 1
(c) (d) 131. Given that the equilibrium constant for the
K K2
NEET-1996 reaction 2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2SO 3 (g) has a
Ans. (c) : The reaction is : value of 278 at a particular temperature. What
N 2 + 3H 2 2NH 3 is the value of the equilibrium constant for the
following reaction at the same temperature?
[NH 3 ]2 1
K= .....(i) SO 3 (g) SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
[N 2 ][H 2 ]3 2
–3
And, 2NH 3 N 2 + 3H 2 (a) 1.8 × 10 (b) 3.6 × 10–3
–2
(c) 6.0 × 10 (d) 1.3 × 10–5
[N 2 ][H 2 ]3 VITEEE-2018
K' = .....(ii)
[NH 3 ]2 Ans. (c) : The given reaction is –
On solving eqn. (i) & (ii), we get– 2SO 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) 2SO3 ( g )
1
K' = [SO3 ]
2
K ∴ K= ........(1)
[SO2 ] [ O2 ]
2
129. The law of equilibrium was first given by
(a) Boyle (b) Goldberg Given, K = 278
(c) Waage (d) both (b) and (c) 1
AIIMS-1994 And, SO3 ( g ) SO 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g )
2
Ans. (d) : According to Guldberg and Waage, the rate K' = ?
at which substance reacts is directly proportional to its Where, K' = equilibrium constant.
active mass (i.e. molar concentration)
[SO 2 ][ O2 ]
1/ 2
aA + bB ⇌ xX + yY K' =
[x]x [y]y [SO3 ]
KC = a b Taking square both side – we get
[A] [B]
[SO 2 ] [O2 ]
2
KC = equilibrium constant.
K'2 = …..(2)
[SO3 ]
2
130. K1 and K2 are equilibrium constant for
reaction (i) and (ii) respectively,
Substituting the values from equation (1), we get–
N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) ............. (i) 1
1 1 K'2 =
NO(g) N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) ............... (ii) K
2 2 1
2 or K' = = 35.97 × 10−4
 1  278
(a) K1 =   (b) K1 = K 22
 K2  K' = 6 × 10 −2
1 132. For which one of the following systems at
(d) K1 = ( K 2 )
0
(c) K1 = equilibrium, at constant temperature will the
K2
doubling of the volume cause a shift to the right?
NEET-1989
(a) H 2 (g) + Cl2 ( g ) 2HCl ( g ) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)
(b) 2CO(g) + O 2 ( g ) 2CO 2 ( g ) Kc =
[NO]2
[N 2 ][O 2 ]
(c) N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) 2NH 3 ( g )
[NO]2
(d) PCl5 ( g ) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 ( g ) or 4 × 10−4 = .....(i)
[N 2 ][O 2 ]
VITEEE-2018
1 1
Ans. (d) : For the reaction, PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) is And, NO N 2 + O2
at equilibrium as well as constant temperature, doubling 2 2
the volume will cause a shift to the right. [N ] [O 2 ]1/ 2
1/ 2
The number of moles of gaseous products is more than K' = 2

[NO]
the no. of moles of gaseous reactant. Doubling the
volume will reduce the pressure to one half. The On squaring on both sides –
equilibrium will shift to right to increase the pressure. [N ][O ]
(K ')2 = 2 22 .....(ii)
133. The rate constant for forward reaction and [NO]
backward reaction of hydrolysis of ester are 1.1 On substituting value of eqn (i), we get–
× 10–2 and 1.5 × 10–3 per minute respectively. 1
Equilibrium constant for the reaction is (K ')2 =
K
CH3COOC2H5+H2O CH3COOH+C2H5OH
1 1 1
(a) 33.7 (b) 7.33 K' = = = −2
(c) 5.33 (d) 33.3 K 4 × 10−4 2 × 10
VITEEE-2014 K' = 50
Ans. (b) : Given data, 136. In the figure shown below, reactant A
kf = 1.1 × 10–2 (represented by square) is in equilibrium with
kb = 1.5 × 10–3 product B (represented by circle). The
Keq = ? equilibrium constant is
CH 3COO C 2 H 5 + H 2 O CH 3COOH + C 2 H 5OH
The equilibrium constant for the reaction is–
k 1.1× 10−2
K eq = f = = 7.33. (a) 4 (b) 2
k b 1.5 × 10−3
(c) 8 (d) 1
134. For the following three reactions I, II and III, JEE-Main-2020
equilibrium constants are given Ans. (b) : In the above image
(I) CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g); K1 [Product] 11
(II) CH4(g) + H2O(g) CO(g) + 3H2(g); K2 Equilibrium constant = = ≈2
[Reactant] 6
(III) CH4(g)+2H2O(g) CO2(g)+4H2(g);K3
Which of the following relations is correct? 137. For the following reactions, equilibrium
constants are given:
(a) K1 √K2 = K3 (b) K2 √K3 = K1
(c) K3 = K1 K2 (d) K 3 K 32 = K12 S(s) + O 2 (g) SO 2 (g);K 1 = 1052
UPSEEE/UPTU-2019 2S (s) + 3O 2 ( g ) 2SO 3 (g); K 2 = 10129
Ans. (c) : CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g); K1 The equilibrium constant for the reaction,
CH4(g) + H2O(g) CO(g) + 3H2(g); K2 2SO(g) + O 2 (g) 2SO 3 (g) is
Adding both equations, we get – (a) 1025 (b) 1077
154
CH4(g) + 2H2O(g) CO2(g) + 4H2(g) (c) 10 (d) 10181
K 3 = K 1K 2 JEE-Main-2019
Hence, option (c) is correct. Ans. (a) S(s) + O2(g) SO2(g); K1 = 1052 ...(i)
135. The equilibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction 2S(s) + 3O2(g) 2SO3(g); K2 = 10129 ...(ii)
N2(g) + O2 (g) → 2NO(g) at temperature T is 4 Multiplying equation (i) by (ii) and reversing if–
× 10–4. The value of Kc for the reaction 1
2SO2(g) 2S(s) + 2O2(g); K1′ = 2 .....(iii)
1 1 K
NO(g) → N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) at the same 1
2 2 Adding equation (ii) and equation (iii), we get–
temperature is 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g); K 3 = K 2 × K1′
(a) 0.02 (b) 2.5 × 102
(c) 4 × 10 -4
(d) 50.0 1 1
K 3 = K 2 × 2 = 10129 × 52 2 = 1025
AIEEE-2012 K1 (10 )
Ans. (d) : Given equations are –

138. An open beaker of water in equilibrium with 2
1+ x 
water vapour is in a sealed container. When 100 =  
few grams of glucose are added to the beaker of 1− x 
water, the rate at which water molecules 1+ x
10 =
(a) leaves the solution decreases 1− x
(b) leaves the solution increases 9
(c) leaves the vapour increases x=
11
(d) leaves the vapour decreases So, equilibrium concentration of
JEE-Main-02.09.2020, Shift-I
9 20
Ans. (c) : The vapour pressure of solution will be less D = 1+ x = 1+ = = 1.818
than vapour pressure of pure solvent, so some vapour 11 11
–2
molecules will get condensed to maintain new = 181.8 × 10
equilibrium. So, leaves the vapour increases is correct = 182 × 10–2
answer.
139. The equilibrium constant for the reaction 2. Law of Mass Action
1
A(s) M(s) + O 2 ( g ) is Kp = 4. At
2 142. What is the equilibrium expression for the
equilibrium, the partial pressure of O2 reaction,
is.......atm. P4 (s) + 5O 2 (g) P4 O10 (s)?
(Round off to the nearest integer)
JEE-Main-2021 [P4 O10 ] [P4 O10 ]
(a) K c = 5
(b) K c =
Ans. 16 : For the reaction – [P 4 ][O 2 ] 5[P 4 ][O 2 ]
1 1
A(s) M(s) + O 2 (g) K p = 4 (c) Kc = [O2]5 (d) K c =
2 [O 2 ]5
Kp = (Po2)1/2 JCECE - 2008, UPTU/UPSEE-2007
4 = (Po2)1/2 Ans. (d) : The reaction is
(4)2 = Po2 P4 (s) + 5O 2 (g) P4O10 (s)
Po2 = 16
[P4 O10 ]
140. 2 SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g)  → 2SO 3 (g) The above Kc =
[P4 ][O 2 ]5
reaction is carried out in a vessel starting with
partial pressure Pso2 = 250m bar, Po2 = 750m We know that the concentration of solids is unity.
bar and Pso3 = 0.When the reaction is complete, So, 1
Kc =
the total pressure in the reaction vessel is ......... [O 2 ]5
m bar. (Round off of the nearest integer). 143. The rate, at which a substance reacts, depends
JEE-Main-2021 upon its
Ans. 875 : 2 SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g)  → 2SO3 (g) (a) equivalent mass (b) molecular mass
Initial 250 m bar 750m bar 0 (c) active mass (d) atomic mass
Final adding –250m bar –125m bar 250m bar AMU-2001, AIIMS-1996
0 625 250 Ans. (c): The rate at which a substance reacts depends
upon its active mass as the rate of reaction is directly
Final total = 625 + 250 = 875m bar. proportional to concentration of each reactant and
141. The equilibrium constant Kc at 298 K for the product.
reaction A + B C + D is 100. Starting with 144. Which of the following statements is true when
an equimolar solution with concentration of equilibrium is established in the reaction ?
A,B,C and D all equal to 1M, the equilibrium A+B C + D, KC =10
-2
concentration of D is ........×10 M. (Nearest (a) [C][D] = [A] [B]
integer) (b) [C] = [A]and [B] = [D]
JEE-Main-2016 (c) [A][B] = 0.1 [C][D]
Ans. 182 : (d) [A] = [B] = [C] = [D] = 10M
AP-EAPCET 24.08.2021 Shift-II
A + B C + D
Ans. (c) : Given reaction is –
Initially 1 1 1 1 A+B C + D, Kc = 10
at equilibrium 1 − x 1 − x 1+ x 1+ x Rate law of reaction at equilibrium.
Equilibrium constant– [C] [D] [C][D]
Kc = = 10 =
(1 + x)2 [A] [B] [A][B]
Kc =
(1 − x) 2 10 [A][B] = [C][D]

1 147. The values of Ksp of CaCO3 and CaC2O4 are
[A][B] = [C][D] 4.7×10–9 and 1.3×10–9 respectively at 25°C. If
10 the mixture of these two is washed with water,
[A][B] = 0.1 [C][D] what is the concentration of Ca2+ ions in water?
145. For a reaction taking place in three steps, the (a) 5.831×10–5 M (b) 6.856×10–5 M
–5
rate constants are k1, k2 and k3 and overall rate (c) 3.606 × 10 M (d) 7.746 ×10–5 M
Karnataka-NEET-2013
kk
constant is k = 1 3 . If the energies of Ans. (d) : CaCO3  → Ca 2+ + CO32−
k2 x x
activation E1, E2 and E3 are 60, 30 and 10 kJ CaC 2 O 4  → Ca 2 + + C 2 O 42–
mol–1 respectively, then the overall energy of 2+
y y
activation is Now, [Ca ] = x+y

(a) 30 kJ mol−1 (b) 40 kJ mol−1 And, x(x+y)= 4.7×10–9
y(x+y)=1.3×10–9
(c) 60 kJ mol−1 (d) 100 kJ mol−1
Dividing equation (i) and (ii) we get,
AMU-2014
x
Ans. (b) : Given, = 3.6 ⇒ x = 3.6y
K1 K 2 y
K= Putting this value in equation (ii) we get,
K3 y(3.6y+y)=1.3×10–9
On taking log both sides: On solving, we get y= 1.68×10–5
log K= log K1+log K2–log K3 .....(i) And, x= 3.6×1.68×10–5=6.048×10–5
We know that: ∴ [Ca 2+ ] = (x + y) = (6.048 ×10 –5 ) + (1.68 × 10 –5 )
Ea ∴ [Ca 2+ ] = 7.728 × 10 –5 M
log k = log A −
2.303 RT 148. If 1.0 mole of I2 is introduced into 1.0 litre flask
So, from (i) at 1000 K, at equilibrium (Kc = 10–6), which one
Ea Ea1 Ea 2 Ea 3 is correct?
log A − = log A − + −
2.303RT 2.303RT 2.303RT 2.303RT (a) [I2 (g)] > [I− (g)] (b) [I2 (g)] < [I − (g)]
Ea = Ea1 + Ea3 – Ea2 1
= 60 + 10 – 30 (c) [I2 (g)] = [I− (g)] (d) [I2 (g)] = [I− (g)]
–1 2
= 70 – 30 = 40 kJ mol BITSAT-2013
146. The Kp value for the reaction,
Ans. (a) : I2 2I −
H2 + I2 2HI 1− x 2x
at 460 oC is 49. If the initial pressure of H2 and (2x) 2

Kc = = 10−6
I2 is 0.5 atm respectively, what will be the (1 − x)
partial pressure of H2 at equilibrium?
(a) 0.111 atm (b) 0.123 atm It shows that (1 – x) > 2x ⇒ I2 > I −
(c) 0.133 atm (d) 0.222 atm 149. 630 mg of oxalic acid is equivalent to
AMU-2014 (a) 100 mL of 0.2 N KMnO4
Ans. (a) : H 2 + I2 2HI (b) 100 mL of 0.05 N KMnO4
(c) 100 mL of 0.01 N KMnO4
initially 0.5atm 0.5atm 0 (d) 100 mL of 0.1 N KMnO4
at eq. (0.5-x) atm (0.5-x) atm 2x atm COMEDK-2011
2
(PHI ) Ans. (d) : At equivalence point:
Kp = No. of gram equivalents of oxalic acid = No. of gram
PH2 .PI2
equivalents of oxalic acid
(2x)2 w 630 × 10 –3
49 = = = = 1× 10–2 = 0.01
(0.5 − x)(0.5 − x) Eq.wt. 63
(2x) 2 Now, no. of gram equivalents in
49 =
(0.5 − x) 2
(a) 100 mL of 0.2 N KMnO4 = 0.2×
100
= 0.02
2x 1000
7= 100
0.5 − x (b) 100 mL of 0.05 N KMnO4 = 0.05× = 0.005
2x = 3.5 – 7x 1000
9x = 3.5 100
(c) 100 mL of 0.01 N KMnO4 =0.01× = 0.001
3.5 1000
x= = 0.388
9 100
(d) 100 mL of 0.1 N KMnO4 =0.1× = 0.01
∴ PH 2 = 0.5 − 0.388 = 0.111 atm 1000
150. For the reaction A + 3B  → 2C + D, which 153. Which of the following is not a characteristic
one of the following is not correct? property of chemical equilibrium?
(a) Rate of disappearance of A = Rate of (a) Rate of forward reaction is equal to rate of
formation of D backward reaction at equilibrium
2 (b) After reaching the chemical equilibrium, the
(b) Rate of formation of C = × Rate of concentrations of reactants and products
3
disappearance of B remain unchanged with time
1 (c) For A(g) B(g), Kc is 10–2, If this reaction
(c) Rate of formation of D = × Rate of
3 is carried out in the presence of catalyst, that
disappearance of B value of Kc decreases
(d) Rate of disappearance of A = 2 × Rate of (d) After reaching the equilibrium, both forward
formation of C and backward reactions continue to take place
AP- EAMCET(Medical) -2010 AP-EAMCET-2006
Ans. (d): For the reaction-
Ans. (c) : For A(g) B(g), Kc = 10–2
A + 3B  → 2C + D
If this reaction is carried out in the presence of catalyst,
We can write the rate of formation and deformation of the value of KC (equilibrium constant) not effect.
reactant and product for the above reaction-
−d [ A ] 1 d [ B] 1 d [C] d [ D] 154. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
=− =+ = +1 H2O(g)+CO(g) H2(g)+CO2(g) is 64. The
dt 3 dt 2 dt dt
We get the following conclusion– rate constant for the forward reaction is 160,
(1) rate of disappearance of A = rate of formation of D. the rate constant for the backward reaction is:
2 (a) 0.4 (b) 2.5
(2) rate of formation of C = × rate of disappearance (c) 6.2 (d) 10.24×103
3
of B. AP-EAMCET (Med.)-1999
1 Ans. (b) : Given values:- Kc = 64, Kf = 160, Kb = ?
(3) rate of formation of D = × rate of disappearance of For the equilibrium reaction-
3
B. H2O + CO H2 + CO2
1 At equilibrium-
(4) rate of disappearance of A = × rate of formation of
2 k
C. Kc = f
kb
151. According to Ellingham diagram, the oxidation
Where- Kc = Equilibrium constant
reaction of carbon to carbon monoxide may be
used to reduce which one of the following kf = Rate of forward reaction
oxides at the lowest temperature? kb = Rate of backward reaction
(a) Al2O3 (b) Cu2O 160
(c) MgO (d) ZnO kb =
64
(e) FeO
or kb = 2.5
Kerala-CEE-2010
Ans. (b) : Cu2O is least stable among all so the 155. The equilibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction
oxidation reaction of carbon to carbon monoxide may HA+B BH+ + A– is 100. If the rate
be used to reduce this at the lowest temperature. constant for the forward reaction is 105, rate
152. By applying law of mass action, the equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction is
constant K for the reaction (a) 10–3 (b) 10–5
HA + H2O ⇌ H3O+ + A– (c) 10 7
(d) 103
+ –
[HA][H 2 O] [H O ][A ] AP-EAMCET-1994
(a) K = (b) K = 3
+
[H3 O ] [A ] – [HA] [H 2 O] Ans. (d) : Given that, K c = 100, kf = 105, kb = ?
[H O+ ][H 2 O] HA + B C(g) + D(g)
[HA][A – ]
(c) K = 3 – (d) K = At equilibrium-
[A ] [HA] [H 2 O] [H3O+ ]
k
J & K CET-(2007) Kc = f
Ans. (b) : The reaction is : kb
+ −
HA + H 2O H 3O + A k
or kb = f
[Product] K c
The equilibrium constant K = Putting the value, we get-
[Reactant]
[H 3O + ][A − ] 105
So, K= k b = = 103
[HA][H O] 100
2

159. The dissociation energy of CH4 and C6H6 to
3. Activation Energy, Standard convert them into gaseous atom are 360 and
620 kcal/mol respectively. The bond energy of
Free Energy C–C bond is
(a) 260 kcal mol–1 (b) 180 kcal mol–1
156. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following –1
(c) 130 kcal mol (d) 80 kcal mol–1
reaction. Sucrose + H2O Glucose + BCECE-2018
Fructose. If the equilibrium (Kc) is 2 × 1013 at Ans. (d) : Given,
300 K, the value of ∆Gº at the same Dissociation energy of CH4 = 360 kcal mol–1
temperature will be
Dissociation energy of C6H6 = 620 kcal mol–1
(a) – 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln (2 × 1013)
(b) 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln (2 × 1013) 360
∴ Bond energy of C H bond = = 90 kJ
(c) 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln (3 × 1013) 4
(d) – 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln (4 × 1013) Bond energy of ethane:
NEET-2020 (C–C) + 6 (C–H) = 620 kJ/mol
Ans. (a) : Given data: Kc = 2×1013, T = 300 K, ∆Go = ? (C–C) + 6 × 90 = 620
The relation between standard Gibbs energy and (C–C) + 540 = 620
equilibrium constant is givens by - (C–C) = 620-540
∆Gº = –RT ln Kc (C–C) = 80
= –8.314 Jmol–1K–1 × 300K × ln (2 × 1013). So, bond energy of (C–C) is 80 k calmol–1
157. Assertion: At equilibrium, ∆G = 0. 160. One mole of ethanol is produced reacting
Reason: At equilibrium, ∆Gº = RT log Kc. graphite, H2 and O2 together. The standard
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and enthalpy of formation is –277.7 kJ mol-1.
Reason is the correct explanation of Calculate the standard enthalpy of the reaction
Assertion. when 4 moles of graphite is involved
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but (a) –277.7 (b) –555.4
Reason is not the correct explanation of (c) –138.85 (d) –69.42
Assertion.
(e) –1110.8
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are Kerala-CEE-2018
incorrect. Ans. (b) : When graphite reacted with H2 and O2 then
AIIMS 25 May 2019 (Morning) one mole of ethanol is formed. The chemical reaction is
Ans. (c) : When ∆G is 0, reaction has achieved given below-
equilibrium. A mathematical expression of this 1
2C(s) + 3H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → C 2 H 5 OH(l )
thermodynamic view of equilibrium can be described 2
by the following equation. ∆Hf = –277.7 kJ/mol
∆G = ∆Go = RT lnKc. If 2 moles of graphite is involved, the standard enthalpy
158. The value of log10K for the reaction A B is of reaction is –277.7 kJ/mol. When 4 moles of graphite
(Given : ∆ f H o (298K) = −54.07kJmol −1 is involved then standard enthalpy of reaction will be
2×(–277.7 kJ/mol) = – 555.4 kJ/mol
∆ r So = 10JK −1 mol −1
161. ∆r G° for the conversion of O2 to ozone,
R = 8.314 JK −1mol −1 )
3
(a) 5 (b) 10 O 2 (g) → O 3 (g)at 298K is
(c) 95 (d) 100 2
BCECE-2018 (Kp for this conversion is 1×10–29)
Ans. (b) : Given: ∆H = –54.07 kJ mol–1 (a) 16.54 kJ mol–1 (b) 165.4 kJ mol–1
–1
∆S = 10 JK–1 mol–1 (c) 1654 kJ mol (d) 1.654 kJ mol–1
We know that, COMEDK-2015
∆G° = ∆H°298 – T∆S°298 Ans. (b) : Given, Kp = 1 × 10–29, T = 298 K, ∆rGo = ?
= – 54.07 × 1000 – 298×10 The conversion reaction of ozone is -
= – 54070 – 2980 3
O 2 (g) → O3 (g)
= –57050 J 2
And, ∆G° = – 2.303RT log10K The relation between standard Gibb's free energy and
– 57050 = – 2.303 × 8.314 × 298 ×log10K equilibrium constant is -
– 57050= – 5705.8 × log 10K ∆rGo = –RT ln Kp
57050
= log10 K or ∆ r G ° = –2.303RT log K p
5705.8 = – 2.303 ×8.314 ×298×log (1×10–29)
log10K=10 = 165469.6 J mol–1 =165.47 kJ mol–1
162. From the Ellingham graphs on carbon, which For the reaction-
of the following statements is false? H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → H 2O 2 (g)
(a) CO reduces Fe2O3 to Fe at less than 983 K
(b) CO is less stable than CO2 at more than 983 ∴ ∆Ho = [Bond Energy]Reactant – [Bond Energy]Product
K ∆Ho = [(Bond energy of H–H) + (Bond energy of O –
(c) CO reduces Fe2O3 to Fe in the reduction zone O)] –[2 (Bond energy of O–H) + (Bond energy of O–
of blast furnace O)]
(d) CO2 is more stable than CO at less then 983 = [438+498] –[ 2×464+138]
K = 936 – 1066
Karnataka-CET-2012 = –130 kJ mol–1
Ans. (b) : CO2 is less stable than CO at more than 165. The first ( ∆ i H1 ) and second ( ∆ i H 2 ) ionisation
983K. At these temperature, the ∆G value of formation
enthalpies (in kJ mol-1) and the ( ∆ eg H o ) electron
of CO is more negative than the ∆G value of formation
of CO2. More negative, the value of ∆G, the greater is gain enthalpy (in kJ mol-1) of the elements I, II,
the tendency of the element to combine with oxygen. III, IV and are given below
Element ∆ i H1 ∆i H 2 ∆eg H o
I 520 7300 – 60
II 419 3051 – 48
III 1681 3374 – 328
IV 1008 1846 – 295
V 2372 5251 + 48
The most reactive metal and the least reactive
non-metal of these are respectively
(a) I and V (b) V and II
(c) II and V (d) IV and V
(e) V and III
163. If the activation energy for the forward Kerala-CEE-2010
reaction is 150 kJ mol-1 and that of the reverse Ans. (c)
reaction is 260 kJ mol–1. What is the enthalpy (a) The metal I can form a stable MX halide.
change for the reaction? (b) The metal II is the most reactive metal. It has very
(a) 410 kJ mol-1 (b) 110 kJ mol-1 low value of first ionization energy.
-1 (c) The element III is the most reactive non-metal. Its
(c) –110 kJ mol (d) –410 kJ mol-1
-1 electron gain enthalpy is most negative.
(e) 90 kJ mol
(d) The element IV is the least reactive non-metal as it
Kerala-CEE-2010 has least negative electron gain enthalpy among
Ans. (c) : Given, the non-metals.
Activation energy of forward reaction (Ef) = 150 kJ (e) The element V is the least reactive element as it
mol–1 has highest value of first ionization energy and
Activation energy of backward reaction (Eb) = 260 kJ positive election gain enthalpy.
mol–1
Enthalpy change for a reversible reaction is - 166. N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) + 22 kcal. The
activation energy for the forward reaction is 50
∆H = Ef (forward) – Eb (backward) kcal. What is the activation energy for the
∆H = 150 – 260 backward reaction ?
= –110 kJ mol-1 (a) – 72 kcal (b) – 28 kcal
(c) + 28 kcal (d) + 72 kcal
164. Calculate the standard enthalpy change (in kJ AP - EAMCET (Medical) - 2007
-1
mol ) for the reaction
Ans. (d) : Given,
H 2 (g) + O 2 (g)  → H 2 O 2 (g) enthalpy change of the reaction = 22 kcal
Given that bond enthalpies of H––H, , activation energy of forward reaction (Ef) = 50 kcal
O––H and O––O (in kJ mol-1) are respectively activation energy of backward reaction (Eb) = ?
438, 498, 464 and 138. For the reaction–
(a) –130 (b) –65 N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) ∆H = –22kcal
(c) +130 (d) – 334 As we know that formation of ammonia is a exothermic
(e) +334 reaction. The activation energy for the forward reaction
Kerala-CEE-2010 (Ef) is 50 kcal.
Ans. (a) : Given, ∴ ∆H = Ef – Eb
Bond enthalpy of H–H = 438 kJ mol–1 or Eb = Ef – ∆H
Bond enthalpy of O = O = 498 kJ mol–1 or Eb = 50 kcal – (–22 kcal)
Bond enthalpy of O–H = 464 kJ mol–1 or Eb = 72 kcal.
Bond enthalpy of O–O = 138 kJ mol–1

167. The reactions with low activation energy are α α
always ∴ n(total) = 1 –α+α+ = 1+
(a) adiabatic (b) slow 2 2
1/ 2
(c) non-spontaneous (d) fast  α  α / 2 
 × p  α  p
VITEEE- 2006 α
Ans. (d) : The reactions with low activation energies  1 +  1 + 
 2  2 
are always fast where as the reactions with high So, Kp =
activation energy are always slow.  1– α 
 α p
168. A chemical reaction is catalysed by 'X'  1+ 
therefore, 'X'  2 
(a) increases the activation energy 1/ 2
α
(b) does not affect the equilibrium constant of the α   p1/ 2
reaction Kp = 2
1/ 2
(c) decreases the enthalpy of the reaction 1/ 2  α
(d) decreases the velocity constant of the reaction (1 – α ) 1 + 
 2
CG PET -2006
α 3/ 2 p1/ 2
Ans. (b) : A catalyst increases the rate of the chemical Kp =
( 2 + α ) (1 – α )
1/ 2
reaction by making available a new low energy pathway
for the conversion of reactants to products. It increases 170. The overall complex dissociation equilibrium
the rate of forward and reverse reactions that pass constant for [Cr(H2O)6]3+ ion is 5 × 10–12 the
through the same transition state and does not affect overall stability constant of the complex is
equilibrium. Catalyst lowers the activation energy for
(a) 2 × 10–11 (b) 5 × 1011
the forward and reverse reactions by exactly the same 10
amount. (c) 5 × 10 (d) 2 × 1011
11
(e) 0.2 × 10
4. Degree of Dissociation Ans. (d) : Given, that–
Complex dissociation equilibrium constant K = 5×10–12
169. For a reaction at equilibrium We know,
Dissociation constant is the reciprocal of the stability
1
A(g) B(g) + C(g)  1
2 constant  β = 
The relation between dissociation constant (K),  K
degree of dissociation (α) and equilibrium  1 
pressure (p) is given by: So, overall stability constant β =  −12 
 5 × 10 
1 3
= 0.2 × 1012
α2p2 11
(a) K = 1
= 2 × 10
 3 2 171. The value of Van't Hoff factor for 0.1 M
 1 + α  (1 − α ) Ba(NO3)2 solution is 2.74. The degree of
 2 
dissociation is–
3 1 (a) 100% (b) 92%
α2p2 (c) 87% (d) 74%
(b) K = 1
( 2 + α ) 2 (1 − α ) JIMPER-2018
3
BCECE-2016
(c) K =
(α p) 2 J & K CET-(2003)
2+ −
1 Ans. (c) : Ba(NO3 ) 2 Ba + 2NO3
 3 2
 1 + α  (1 − α ) i = 1+2α
 2  ∴ 2.74 = 1+2α
3
(d) K =
( α p)2
α=
1.74
= 0.87 = 87%
1
2
(1 + α )(1 − α ) 2 The Van’t Hoff’s factor for 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2 solution is
JEE Main-24.06.2022, Shift-I 2.74. The degree of dissociation is 87%.
Ans. (b) : For a given reaction at equilibrium- 172. Van't Hoff factor of Ca(NO3)2 is
1 (a) One (b) Two
A(g) B(g) + C(g)
2 (c) Three (d) Four
Initially 1 0 0 J & K CET-(2013)
α BCECE-2008
At equi. (1–α) α UP CPMT-2006
2
Ans. (c) : Ca(NO3 ) 2 Ca 2+ + 2NO3− (1 − α )
PPCl5 = ×p
It furnishes 3 ions per formula unit. So, its Van't Hoff (1 + α )
factor is 3. α
PPCl = ×p
173. Precipitation takes place when the product of 3 (1 + α )
concentration of ions is α
(a) more than solubility product PCl = ×p
2 (1 + α )
(b) negligible
(c) less than the solubility product PPCl3 × PCl2
(d) equal to the solubility product Kp =
PPCl5
J & K CET-2005, 2001
[αp /(1 + α )][αp /(1 + α )]
Ans. (a) : Precipitation takes place when ionic product of =
concentration of ions is greater that solubility product. (1 − α)p /(1 + α )
174. The degree of dissociation (α) of a weak α2 α2
electrolyte, AxBy is related to van't Hoff factor = ×p = ×p
(i) by the expression (1 + α )(1 − α ) 1 − α2
i −1 i −1 Kp
(a) α = (b) α = or α2 =
(x + y − 1) x + y −1 p
x + y −1 x + y +1 Kp
(c) α = (d) α = or α= (1 – α2 = 1)
i −1 i −1 p
Tripura JEE-2022
[AIEEE 2011] 1
or α∝
Ans. (a) : Van’t Hoff factor p
AxBy xA y + + yB x − 177. Which one of the following electrolytes has the
1−α αx αy
same value of Van't Hoff factor (i) as that of
Total amount of species = 1+(x+y–1)α K4[Fe(CN)6]?
1 + (x + y − 1)α (a) Al2(SO4)3 (b) K2SO4
Van’t Hoff factor i = (c) K3[Fe(CN)6] (d) Al (NO3)3
1
i −1 JIMPER-2018
α= NEET-1994
(x + y − 1)
Ans. (a) : For K4[Fe(CN)6]
175. The Van’t Hoff factor i for an electrolyte which
undergoes dissociation and association in
solvents are respectively
(a) greater than 1 and greater than 1 Since, n for strong electrolytes so i = 5
(b) less than 1 and greater than 1 For, Al2(SO4)3
(c) less than 1 and less than 1
(d) greater than 1 and less than 1
BITSAT – 2012
Hence, K4 [Fe(CN)6] and Al2(SO4)3 has same Van''t
NEET-2011 Hoff factor (i)
Ans. (d) : When an electrolyte dissociates Van’t Hoff
factor i is greater than 1 and when it associated the i is 178. Which of the following acids has the smallest
less than 1. dissociation constant?
176. The degree of dissociated of PCl5(α) obeying (a) CH3CHFCOOH (b) FCH2CH2COOH
the equilibrium; (c) BrCH2CH2COOH (d) CH3CHBrCOOH
JCECE - 2011
PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2
WB JEE-2008
is related to the pressure (p) at equilibrium by
Ans. (c) : Lower the acidic character, smaller is the
1
(a) α ∝ p (b) α ∝ value of dissociation constant.
p Acidity ∝ dissociation constant.
1 1 –I (inductive effect) of F is more than Br, so
(c) α ∝ 2 (d) α ∝ 4 CH3CHFCOOH is a stronger acid as compared to
p p CH3CHBrCOOH.
BITSAT 2016, UP CPMT-2013 As the distance between electron withdrawing group
Ans. (b) : PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) and COOH group increases, acidity decreases.
Before reaction 1 0 0 Thus, the order of acidity and thus, of dissociation
At equilibrium 1 – α α α constant is
Total number of moles at equilibrium BrCH2 CH2 COOH < FCH2 CH2 COOH
= (1 – α) + α + α = (1 + α) (smallest Ka )
If p is the total pressure at equilibrium, then < CH3CHBrCOOH < CH3CHFCOOH

179. For a concentrated solution of a weak 181. The degree of dissociation for a 0.1M Al2(SO4)3
electrolyte AxBy, the degree of dissociation is solution having Van’t Hoff factor value of 4.2
given as will be
(a) 80% (b) 90%
(a) α = K eq / C(x + y) (c) 75% (d) 85%
(b) α = K eq C /(xy) Assam CEE-2021
Ans. (a) : Al 2 (SO )
4 3 → 2Al 3+
+ 3SO 4
2-
(c) α = (K eq / C x + y −1 x x y y )1/(x + y) t=0 1 0 0

(d) α = K eq / xyC t = time 1 – α 2α 3α
1 − α + 2α + 3α
Kerala-CEE-2008 i= = 4⋅2
1
AMU-2011 = 1 + 4α = 4.2
Ans. (c) : Dissociation of weak electrolyte AxBy as 4α = 3.2
A x By xA y + + yBx − α = 0.8
At t = 0 C 0 0 = 80%
At equi. C(1-α ) xCα yCα 182. At a fixed concentration, the molar conductance
Applying law of mass action– of aqueous sodium hydroxide at 298 K is found to
be 10 ohm–1 cm2, mol–1. At infinite dilution nd 298
[xCα ] [yCα ]
x y
K, its molar conductance is found to be 242 ohm–
K eq. =
[C(1 − α )] 1
, cm2, mol–1. Find the degree of ionization of
For weak electrolytes α<<<1, sodium hydroxide at the same concentration and
temperature.
Q 1–α=1 (a) 2.06% (b) 4.13%
∴ Keq C = xxyy[Cα]x+y (c) 0.04% (d) 10%
K eq. AP- EAPCET- 07-09-2021, Shift-I
x + y −1
= x x y y (α) x + y
C Ans. (b) Degree of dissociation (α) =
1
molar conductivity at conc.(Λ cm )
 K eq .  x+y =
α =  x + y −1 x y  molar conductivity at infinite dilution (Λ ∞m )
 (C )x y 
10 Ω −1 cm 2 mol −1
180. The dissociation equilibrium of gas AB2 can be (α) =
242 Ω −1 cm 2 mol −1
represented as
2AB2(g) 2AB(g) + B2(g) = 0.0413
The degree of dissociation 'x' and is small = 4.13%
–6
compared to 1.The expression relating the 183. 0.01 moles of a weak acid HA (Ka = 2.0×10 ) is
degree of dissociation(x) with equilibrium dissolved in 1.0 L of 0.1 M HCI solution. The
constant Kp and total pressure p is degree of dissociation of HA s........×10–5 (Round
(a) (2Kp/p) (b) (2Kp/p)1/3 off the nearest integer).
1/2 [Neglect volume change on adding HA. Assume
(c) (2Kp/p) (d) (Kp/p) degree of dissociation<<]
JIMPER-2014 [JEE Mains 2021, 17 March Shift-I]
NEET-2008 Ans. (2) : (x = 2)
Ans. (b) : The reaction is - + −
HCL  → H + Cl
2AB2(g) 2AB(g) + B2(g) 0.1 0.1 0.1
2 (1– x) 2x x HA(aq) H + (aq) + A − (aq)

Moles at equilibrium = 2 (1 – x) + 2x +x Initially 10 –2 0 0
=x+2 At eq. (1– α )10–2 0.01α +0.1 0.01α
 2x
2
  x  ≈ 10–2 ≈ 0.1 ≈ 10–2α
× p × p
[PAB ]2 [PB2 ]  x + 2   2 + x 
 [H + ][A − ]
Kp = 2
= 2
Now, K a =
[PAB2 ]  2(1 − x)  [HA]
 × p
 x+2  (0.1)(10−2 α)
2 × 10−6 =
4x 3 10−2
×p α = 2 × 10 –5
4x 2 × p 1
Kp = x + 2 2 = ×
4(1 − x) 2 4 184. At 298K, the ratio of dissociated water to that
1/ 3
of undissociated water is [Assume pure water]
 2K p  (a) 1 × 10–7 (b) 1.8 × 10–9
x=  (as1 − x ≈1, 2 + x ≈ 2) –3
(c) 1 × 10 (d) 1,000
 p 
TS-EAMCET 09.08.2021, Shift-I
Ans. (b) : Assuming pure water (c) = 55.55 Ans. (d): The equilibrium constant at first dissociation
H 2O H
+
+ OH − constant–
H2A− + H+
Initialcon. c 0 0 K1
after diss. c −α α α Since, H 3A
−7 −7 −7
(55.55 − 10 ) (10 ) (10 )
[H 2 A − ][H + ]
Undissociated water = 55.55 – 10 –7
(Q 10–7 ≈ 0) K1 = …..(i)
[H 3A]
= 55.55
H2A− HA 2− + H +
K2
Dissociated water = 10–7
∴ The ratio of dissociated water to that of undissociated
[HA 2− ][H + ]
Dissociated water K2 = …..(ii)
water = [H3A − ]
Undissociated water
HA 2− A 3− + H +
K3
10 –7
= = 1.8×10 –9
55.55 [A3− ][H + ]
K3 = …..(iii)
185. In a solvent 50% of an acid HA dimerises and [HA 2− ]
the rest dissociates. The Van't Hoff factor of
A3− + 3H +
Ka
the acid is ......... × 10–2. Thus, H 3A
(Round off to the nearest integer) [A −3 ][H + ]3
[JEE Mains 2021, 27 July Shift-II] Ka =
[H3 A]
Ans. (125) : The reaction is
Thus, equilibrium constant for the over all dissociation.
2HA H2A2, HA H+ + A–
50 50 K a = K1 × K 2 × K 3
Initial moles a × 0 a× 0 0
100 100 188. Match the following
Final moles 0 0.25a 0 0.5a 0.5a List-I List-II
final moles Acid Ka (ionization constant)
Now, i = (a) HCN (I) 6.8 × 10–4
initial moles
(b) H2C2O4 (II) 8.9 × 10–8
0.25a + 0.5a + 0.5a
i= (c) H2S (III) 4.9 × 10–10
0.5a + 0.5a (d) Niacin (IV) 5.6 × 10–2
i = 1.25 (V) 1.5 × 10–5
i = 125 × 10–2 The correct match is
186. A 1 molal K4Fe(CN)6 solution has a degree of Options :
dissociation of 0.4. Its boiling point is equal to A B C D
that of another solution which contains 18.1 (a) I III IV V
weight percent of a non-electrolytic solute A. (b) V II III IV
The molar mass of A is........u. (Round off to the (c) II III IV V
nearest integer). (d) III IV II V
[Density of water = 1.0 g cm–3] TS EAMCET 04.08.2021, Shift-I
[JEE Mains 2021, 17 March Shift-II] Ans. (d) : Ionization constant is a constant that depends
Ans. (85) : Since boiling point is the same, elevation in upon the equilibrium between ions and molecules that
boiling point is also the same for both solutions. are not ionized in a solution or liquid.
(∆TB)K4 [Fe (CN)6] = (∆TB)A Acid Ka (Ionization constant)
(i KBm) K4[Fe(CN)6] = (i KBm)A (A) HCN 4.9 × 10–10
18.1 (B) H2C2O4 5.6 × 10–2
1× × 1000 (C) H2S 8.9 × 10–8
(1 + 4α) ×1 = M (D) Niacin 1.5 × 10–5
100 − 18.1
18.1 1000 189. The stepwise formation of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is
2.6 = × below:
M 18.9 2+
Cu 2+ + NH 3 Cu ( NH 3 ) 
K1
M = 85
187. The successive equilibrium constant for the 2+ 2+
Cu ( NH 3 )  Cu ( NH3 )2 
K2
stepwise dissociation of a tribasic acid are K1, + NH 3
K2, and K3, respectively. The equilibrium 2+ 2+
Cu ( NH 3 )2  Cu ( NH 3 )3 
K3
+ NH 3
constant for the overall dissociation is
2+ 2+
Cu ( NH 3 )3  + NH 3  Cu ( NH 3 ) 4 
K
(a) (K1 + K2 + K3) (b) 3 (K1 + K 2 + K 3 ) 4
(c) (K1 × K 2 × K 3 )3 (d) K1 × K 2 × K 3 The value of stability constants K1, K2, K3 and K4
are 104, 1.58×103, 5×102 and 102 respectively. The
overall equilibrium constants for dissociation of

[Cu(NH3)4]2+ is x×10–12. The value of x is______. 191. A 1 molal K4[Fe(CN)6] solution has a degree of
(Rounded off to the nearest integer) dissociation of 0.4. Its boiling point is equal to
JEE Mains 24.02.2021, Shift-I that of another solution which contains 18.1
+ weight percent of a non electrolytic solute A.
Cu ( NH 3 ) 
2
Ans. (1) : Cu 2+ + NH 3
K 1
The molar mass of A is ________ u. (Round off
2+ 2+ to the Nearest Integer).
Cu ( NH 3 )  + NH 3 Cu ( NH3 )2 
K2
[Density of water =1.0 g cm–3]
2+ 2+ JEE Mains 17.03.2021, Shift-II
Cu ( NH 3 )2  + NH 3 Cu ( NH 3 )3 
K3
Ans. (85) :
2+ 2+
Cu ( NH 3 )3  + NH 3  Cu ( NH 3 ) 4 
Given that, degree of dissociation (α) = 0.4
K4
The dissociation of potassium ferrocyanide is:

So, K = K1 × K2 × K3 × K4
K 4 [Fe(CN)6 ] 4K + + [Fe(CN)6 ]4–
= 104 × 1.58 × 103 × 5 × 102 × 102
Initial conc. 1m 0 0
K = 7.9 × 1011
Final conc. (1–α)m 4α α
Where, K = Equilibrium constant for formation of
∴ = 0.6 m =1.6m 0.4
1
[Cu(NH3)4]2+ is Effective molality = 0.6+1.6+0.4=2.6m
K For same boiling point, the molatity of another solution
1 should also be 2.6 m. Now, 18.1 weight percent solution
K′ = means 18.1 g solute is present in 100g solution and here
K
1 , (100–18.1) = 81.9 g water
K′ = 18.1/ M
7.9 × 10 11
Now, 2.6 =
= 1.26 × 10 = (x × 10 )
–12 –12 81.9 /1000
So, the value of x = 1.26. or M = 85
190. When 9.45 g of ClCH2COOH is added to 500 192. If in the reaction, N 2 O 4 2NO 2 ; α is the
mL of water, its freezing point drops by 0.5°C. degree of dissociation of N2O4, then total
The dissociation constant of ClCH2COOH is x number of moles at equilibrium is :
×10–3. The value of x is ____. (rounded off to (a) (1 – α) (b) (1 + α)
the nearest integer) (c) (1 – α)2 (d) (1 + α)2
[Kf(H2O) = 1.86 K kg mol–1] Manipal-2020
JEE Mains 24.02.2021, Shift-I Ans. (b) :
Ans. : Given– ∆Tp = 0.5°C, Kp = 1.86 Kkg mol–1 N2 O4 2NO2
The dissociation of ClCH2COOCH is :
t = 0 1 0
ClCH 2 COOH ClCH 2 COO – + H + t = teq 1– α 2x
i = 1 + (2 – 1)α ∴ Total moles = 1–α + 2α
i=1+α = (1 + α)
Now, ∆Tp = iKpm 193. The Ksp for the following dissociation is
9.45 × 1000 1.6×10–5
0.5 = (1 + α ) ×1.86 ×
94.5 × 500 PbCl2 ( s ) Pb 2+ ( aq ) + 2Cl − ( aq )
2.5 32 Which of the following choices is correct for a
or 1+ α = ⇒ α= .
1.86 93 mixture of 300 mL 0.134 M Pb (NO3)2 and 100
+ mL 0.4 M NaCl?
ClCH 2 COOH ClCH 2 COO + H –
Now, (a) Q < Ksp
C–Cα Cα Cα (b) Q > Ksp
Cα × Cα Cα 2  0.1× 1000  (c) Q = Ksp
∴ Ka = = Q C = = 0.2
( C – Cα ) (1 – α )   (d) Not enough data provided
500  [JEE Mains 2020, 9 Jan Shift-I]
0.2 × ( 32 )
+
+ 2Cl−(aq .)
2
Ans. (b) : PbCl 2 (s) Pb 2(aq.)
or Ka =
 32  300 × 0.134
 1 –  ( 93)
2
[Pb 2+ ] = =1.005× 10−1 M
 93  400
( 32 )
2 100 × 0.4
or Ka =
0.2
× 93 × [Cl− ] = =10−1 M
400
( 93)
2
61
–3 –3 Reaction quotient ,Q = [Pb 2+ ][Cl − ]2
or Ka = 36×10 (Given ; Ka = x ×10 )
2
∴ x × 10 –3 = 36 × 10 –3 300 × 0.134 100 × 0.4 
= × 
or x = 36 400  400 

=1.005× 10−1 × (10−1 ) 2 Initially
A n 'B
1mole 0
−3 After diss. 1−α
=1.005× 10 n 'α
Total no. of moles present in the solution
Q > K sp = (1–α) + n'α
194. When 0.05 M dimethyl amine is dissolve in 0.1 =1 + (n'–1)α
M NaOH solution then the percentage Van't Hoff factor (i) = 1 + (n' – α), α> 1 if n' ≥ 2
dissociation of dimethyl amine is: i −1
α=
( K b )(CH ) NH = 5 × 10
3 2
−4 So,
n '− 1
(a) 5 × 10–5 (b) 5 × 10–3 198. Degree of dissociation of an acid HCl is 95%.
(c) 5 × 10–1 (d) 5 × 10–2 0.192 g of the acid is present in 0.5 L of
AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Morning) solution. The pH of the solution is :
Ans. (c): Given that: Concentration of dimethyl amine (a) 2 (b) 1
= 0.05 M, Kb = 5 × 10–4 (c) 3 (d) 4
(OH–) = 0.1+0.05 α ≈ 0.1 Manipal-2018
Ans. (a) : Given, Amount of acid = 0.192g
(Cα)(OH − )
Kb = 0.192
(C − Cα) ∴ No. of moles of acid = = 0.0053
36.5
α × 0.1
5 × 10−4 = Volume = 0.5 L
1− α 0.0053
α = 5 × 10–1% Molarity of HCl = = 1.06 × 10−2 M
0.5
195. K2HgI4 is 40% ionised in aqueous solution. The [H+] in HCl solution–
value of its Van't Hoff factor (i) is
95
(a) 1.6 (b) 1.8 = 1.06 × 10–2 ×
(c) 2.2 (d) 2.0 100
[JEE Mains 2019, 11 Jan Shift-II] = 100 .7 × 10–4
Ans. (b) : The ionisation of K2HgI4 is given as– = 1 × 10–2
K 2 HgI 4  → 2K + + HgI42− Thus pH = –log[H]+
i = 1+(n–1)α = –log (1 × 10–2)
=2
α = 0.4, n = 3
So, i = 1+2 × 0.4 = 1.8 199. For the following equilibrium N 2 O 4 2NO 2
196. Calculate Van’t Hoff factor (i) for an aqueous in gaseous phase, NO2 is 50% of the total
solution of K3[Fe(CN)6] having a degree of volume, when equilibrium is set up. Hence,
dissociation (α) equal to 0.778. percent dissociation of N 2 O 4 is :
(a) 4.334 (b) 3.334 (a) 50% (b) 25%
(c) 0.222 (d) 2.334 (c) 66.66% (d) 33.33%
GUJCET-2019 BCECE-2017
Ans. (b) : The reaction is : Ans. (d) : The dissociation of N2O4 is–
K3[Fe(CN)6] →3K++ [Fe (CN)6]3– N 2O 4 2NO 2
Here there are 4 ions form So:
i = 1+(n–1)α Initial 1 0
i= 1+(4–1)0.778 At equilibrium 1–x 2x
i = 3.334 Total numbers of moles = 1– x+2x = 1+x
2x
197. Relationship between Van't Hoff's factor (i) ∴ % of NO 2 by Volume = ×100=50
and degree of dissociation (α) is 1+x
α −1 α −1 1
(a) i = (b) i = x=
n '− 1 1− n ' 3
Hence, % dissociation = 33.33%
1− i i −1
(c) α = (d) α = 200. The Van't Hoff's factor 'i' accounts for
n '− 1 n '− 1
MHT CET-02.05.2019, SHIFT-II (a) extent of solubility of solute
Ans. (d) : Relationship between Van't Hoff factor (i) (b) extent of mobility of solute
and degree of dissociation (α) is given by (c) extent of dissolution of solute
1− i (d) extent of dissociation of solute
α= Karnataka-CET-2017
n '− 1
The relationship can be obtained as follows- Ans. (d) : The Van't Hoff's factor (i) accounts for the
For the reaction extent of dissociation of solute.

201. For which among the following equimolar 205. 0.6 mL of acetic acid is dissolved in 1 litre of
aqueous solutions Van't Hoff factor has the water. The value of Van't Hoff factor is 1.04.
lowest value? What will be the degree of dissociation of the
(a) Aluminium chloride (b) Potassium sulphate acetic acid?
(c) Ammonium chloride (d) Urea (a) 0.01 (b) 0.02
MHT CET-2017 (c) 0.03 (d) 0.04
Ans. (d) : For the aqueous solution of urea, Van't Hoff AMU-2015
factor has the lowest value. Ans. (d) : Given, Van't Hoff factor (i) = 1.04
Urea is non-electrolyte and does not dissociate in The dissociation reaction of CH3COOH is–
aqueous solution. Hence, Vant Hoff factor is 1. CH 3COOH CH 3COO − + H +
For Aluminium chloride AlCl3– Before diss. 1 0 0
AlCl3 → Al3+ + 3Cl– After diss. (1 − α) α α
i=4 Van't Hoff factor (i) = (1 – α) + α + α
For potassium sulphate K2SO4 1.04 = 1 + α
K2SO4 → 2Κ+ + SO 24− or α = 0.04
i=3 206. Which of the following compounds have the
202. When an electrolyte is dissociated in solution, same value of Van't Hoff’s factor (i) as that of
the van't Hoff's factor (i) is Al2(SO4)3?
(a) > 1 (b) < 1 (a) K4[Fe(CN)6] (b) NaCl
(c) = 0 (d) = 1 (c) Al(NO3)3 (d) Na2SO4
Karnataka-CET-2016 COMEDK-2015
Ans. (a) : When an electrolyte is dissolved in the Ans. (a) : (a) The dissociation of K4[Fe(CN)6] is–
solution, it breaks into ions and hence the Van't Hoff K 4 [Fe(CN)6 ] ⇒ 4K + + [Fe(CN)6 ]4–
factor will be greater than 1 (i > 1).
Here, Van't Hoff factor (i) = 4 + 1 = 5
203. When PCl5 is heated it gasifies and dissociates (b) NaCl → Na + + Cl –
into PCl3 and Cl2. The density of the gas
i=2
mixture at 200oC is 70.2. What is the degree of
dissociation of PCl5 at 200oC? (c) Al(NO3 )3 → Al3+ + 3NO3 –
(a) 0.485 (b) 0.242 i=4
(c) 0.845 (d) 0.542 (d) Na 2SO 4 → 2Na + + 5O 4 2–
AMU-2016 i=3
Ans. (a) : The dissociation of PCl5 is– Hence, option (a) have value of vant Hoff's factor (i)
PCl5(g)→PCl3(g)+Cl2(g) same as that of Al2(SO4)3.
The initial vapour density will be same, it would be 207. Which of the following compound possesses the
M PCl5 / 2 . C—H bond with the lowest bond dissociation
∴ Initial vapour density = (31+5×35.5)/2=104.25 energy?
Vapour density at equilibrium at 200°C= 70.2 (a) Toluene (b) Benzene
∴ Total moles at equilibrium (c) n-pentane (d) 2, 2-dimethyl propane
Karnataka-CET-2015
Vapour density initial
(1 + α) = Ans. (a) : Toluene has the lowest C – H bond
Vapour density at equilibrium dissociation energy compare to other three The C − H
104.25 bond of the methyl group is in hyper conjugation with
(1 + α) = = 1.485
70.2 benzene nucleus. Hence it is easy to break.
1+α= 1.485 208. Van't Hoff factor of centimolal solution of
α = 0.485 K3[Fe(CN)6] is 3.333. Calculate the per cent
204. The percentage hydrolysis of 0.15 solution of dissociation of K3[Fe(CN)6].
ammonium acetate, Ka for CH3COOH is (a) 33.33 (b) 0.78
–5 –5 (c) 78 (d) 23.33
1.8 ×10 and Kb for NH3 is 1.8 ×10
MHT CET-2015
(a) 0.556 (b) 4.72
(c) 9.38 (d) 5.56 Ans. (c) : Given, Van't Hoff's factor = 3.333, %α = ?
BITSAT-2016 The dissociation of K 3 [Fe(CN) 6 ] is–
Ans. (a) : Given that, Ka for CH3COOH = 1.8 × 10–5 K3[Fe(CN)6] → 3Κ+ +[Fe(CN)6]3–
Kb for NH3 = 1.8×10–5 i = 1 + (n – 1)α
The degree of hydrolysis: Here, n=4
∴ i = 1 + (4 – 1)α
Kw 1× 10−14 So, 3.333 = 1 + (4 –1)α
h= =
Ka × Kb 1.8 × 10−5 × 1.8 × 10−5 3.333 – 1 = 3α
h = 0.556 or 3α = 2.333
2.333 Solubility of Ag2SO4, 4x3 = Ksp
α =
3 10−5
x=3= 1× 10−2 mol L−1
α = 0.777 4
Percent dissociation = 0.777 × 100 Least solubility is of BaSO4, hence it will precipitate first.
≈ 78% 213. Accumulation of Lactic acid (HC3H5O3), a
209. Van’t Hoff’s factors of equimolal solutions of monobasic acid in tissues leads to pain and a
sodium chloride, barium chloride and glucose feeling to fatigue. In a 0.10 M aqueous solution,
in water are Lactic acid is 3.7% dissociates. The value of
(a) 2, 3, 0 respectively (b) 2, 3, 6 respectively dissociation constant, Ka, for this acid will be
(c) 2, 3, 4 respectively (d) 2, 3, 1 respectively (a) 1.4×10–5 (b) 1.4×10–4
–4
COMEDK-2014 (c) 3.7×10 (d) 2.8×10–4
Ans. (d) : Van't Hoff factor (i) gives the extent of Karnataka NEET 2013
association or dissociation of the solute particles in the Ans. (b) :
solution. 3.7
Degree of dissociation (α) = 3.7% = = 0.037
NaCl(aq) → Na + + Cl – 100
van't Hoff's factor (i) = 2 According to Ostwald’s formula,
Ka = α 2 C
And, BaCl2 → Ba 2 + + 2Cl –
Ka = (0.037)2×0.10=1.369×10–4=1.4×10–4
van't Hoff's factor (i) = 3 214. The degree of ionization of 0.10 M lactic acid is
Glucose does not undergoes dissociation or association 4.0%
(i) = 1. H H
Hence, option (d) is correct. | |
210. What will be the degree of ionisation of 0.05 M H 3C − C − COOH(aq) H + (aq) + H3C − C − COO − (aq)
acetic acid if its pKa value is 4.74? | |
OH OH
(a) 0.019% (b) 1.9%
The value of Kc is
(c) 3.0% (d) 4.74% (a) 1.66×10–5 (b) 1.66×10–4
JCECE - 2014 (c) 1.66×10–3 (d) 1.66×10–2
Ans. (b) : Given, Concentration = 0.05 M, pKa = 4.74 AP-EAMCET (Engg.) 2013
The ionisation of acetic acid is–
Ans. (b) : Given that, Degree of ionisation ( α ) = 4%
CH3 COOH CH3COO− + H+
Initially 1 0 4
At equilibrium 1−α α
0
α α= = 0.04
pKa = –log Ka = 4.74 100
The ionisation of lactic acid is–
∴ Ka = antilog (4.74) CH3CH(OH)COOH CH3CH(OH)COO– + H+
Ka = 1.82 × 10–5 Initial concentration C 0 0
At equilibrium C(1 – α) Cα Cα
Cα 2
From, Ka = = Cα2 (1 – α ≈ 1) Cα ⋅ Cα Cα 2
(1 − α) ∴ At equilibrium ( K c ) = =
C (1 − α ) (1 − α )
Ka 1.82 × 10−5 0.1× 0.04 × 0.04
α== = 0.019 or 1.9% Kc =
C 0.05 (1 − 0.04 )
211. The value of vant Hoff’s factor for Hg2(NO3)2 is
(a) 1 (b) 2 K c = 1.66 × 10−4
(c) 3 (d) 4 215. What will be the % of the N2H4 that has
UP CPMT-2014 reacted with water in solution, when 0.32 g of
Ans. (c) : Hg2(NO3)2 ionizes as – N2H4 are dissolved in water and the total
2+ − volume was made 4 L (given, Kb for N2H4 = 6 ×
Hg 2 (NO3 ) 2  → Hg 2 + 2NO3 10–8 M)
So, van't Hoff's factor, i = 3 (a) 3% (b) 3.6%
+ 2+ (c) 2% (d) 0.489%
212. On adding 0.1 M solution each of [Ag ], [Ba ],
2+ UP CPMT-2013
[Ca ] in Na2SO4 solution, species first
precipitated is Ans. (d) : Given, Amount of N 2 H 4 = 0.32g
[KspBaSO4 = 10–11, KspCaSO4 = 10–6 and Total volume = 4L
KspAg2SO4 = 10 –5 Concentration or molarity of hydrazine solution
(a) Ag2SO4 (b) BaSO4 0.32 1
= × M = 0.25 × 10–2 M
(c) CaSO4 (d) All of these 32 4
JCECE - 2013 Ionisation of hydrazine–
Ans. (b) : Solubility of BaSO , (X) = K = 10−11 NH 2 NH 2 + H 2 O NH 2 NH3⊕ + OH −
4 sp Initial conc. 0
C 0
Equi.conc. C(1−α ) Cα Cα
= 3.16 × 10–6 molL–1

[NH 2 NH3⊕ ][OH − ] 218. An acid HA ionises as HA H+ + A−
∴ Kb = The pH of 1.0 M solution is 5. Its dissociation
[NH 2 NH 2 ]
constant would be
Cα × Cα (a) 1×10–10 (b) 5
Kb = (α <<< 1)
C(1 − α) (c) 5×10–8 (d) 1×10–5
[AIEEE 2011]
or K b = Cα 2
Ans. (a) : Given, pH = 5, concentration = 1 M, Ka = ?
Kb The acid HA ionises as:
or α=
C HA H+ + A−
6 ×10−8 Also, 1 M solution means [HA] = 1
= [H + ][A − ] (10−5 )(10−5 )
0.25 ×10−2 So, Ka = =
= 0.489 × 10–2 HA 1
Degree of ionisation = 0.489 × 10–2 Ka = 1 × 10–10
% of N2H4 that has reacted with water (% ionisation) 219. The van’t Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous
= (0.489 × 10–2) × 100 solution of sucrose is
= 0.489% (a) zero (b) 1.0
216. At 25ºC, the dissociation constant of a base, (c) 1.5 (d) 2.0
BOH, is 1.0 × 10–12. The concentration of J & K CET-(2011)
hydroxyl ions in 0.01 M aqueous solution of the Ans. (b) : The dilute aqueous solution of sucrose cannot
base would be associated or dissociated.
(a) 2.0 × 10–6 mol L–1 (b) 1.0 × 10–5 mol L–1 Hence, van’t Hoff factor ‘i’ is one
(c) 1.0 × 10–6 mol L–1 (d) 1.0 × 10–7 mol L–1 i = 1(No. of association or dissociation)
i > 1 (for dissociation)
JCECE - 2012
i < 1 (for association)
Ans. (d) : Given that, Kb = 1.0 × 10–12
220. Which of the following compounds corresponds
[BOH] = 0.01 M to Van't Hoff factor (i) to be equal to 2 for
Base (BOH) is dissociated as follows– dilute solution?
BOH B+ + OH– (a) K2SO4 (b) NaHSO4
So, the dissociation constant of base BOH– (c) Sugar (d) MgSO4
[B+ ][OH− ] JCECE - 2011
Kb = …(i) Ans. (d) : i = 2 means two ions are present in the
[BOH] solution.
At equilibrium,
K 2SO4  → 2K + + SO24−
[B+ ] = [OH− ] 14243
3 ions
[OH− ]2 → Na + + H+ + SO24−
NaHSO4 
∴ Kb = 1442443
[BOH] 3 ions
− 2
[OH ] Sugar 
→ No ions
Thus, 1.0 × 10–12 =
0.01 → Mg2+ + SO42−
MgSO4 
144244 3
[OH−]2 = 1 × 10–14 2 ions
[OH–] = 1.0 × 10–7 mol L–1_ Thus, van't Hoff factor is 2 for dilute solution of
217. The degree of ionization of 0.4 M acetic acid MgSO4.
will be (Ka = 1.8×10–5) 221. The degree of dissociation of PCl5 at 1 atm and
(a) 6.71×10–3 (b) 1.6×10–3 298 K is 0.2. The value of Kp is
–5
(c) 0.4×1.8×10 (d) 1.8×10–5 (a) 0.42 atm (b) 0.24 atm
MHT CET-2012 (c) 0.48 atm (d) 0.042 atm
Ans. (a) : Given, Concentration (C) = 0.4 M SRMJEEE – 2010
Ka=1.8×10–5 Ans. (d) : The dissociation of PCl5 is :
The ionisation of acetic acid is– PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2
CH3COOH CH3COO– + H+ Initially 1 0 0
∴ Ka = Cα2
At equi. 1 − α α α
1.8 × 10–5 = 0.4 × α2 Total mole (∆ng) = 1 + 1 – 1 = 1
1.8 ×10−5 Given – α = 0.2 at 1 atm pressure
α= ∆n g
0.4 n PCl5 × n Cl2 P
α = 6.71 × 10–3 Kp = × 
n PCl5  Σn 

α×α  P 
1 Ans. (d) : The molar mass of calcium nitrate is 164
Kp = g/mol.
(1 − α ) 1 + α  7
7 g of calcium nitrate = 0.0427 moles
α2 × P 164
Kp =
1 − α2 The molar mass of water is 18 g/mol.
( 0.2 ) 100
2
×1 100 g of water = 5.56 moles
Kp = 18
1 − (0.2)2
0.0427
0.2 × 0.2 The mole fraction of calcium nitrate =
Kp = 0.0424 + 5.56
0.96 = 0.00762
Kp = 0.0416
The degree of dissociation α = 70% = 0.7
Kp ≈ 0.042
The van’t Hoff factor = [1+(n–1)α]
222. If BaCl2 ionizes to an extent of 80% in aqueous i = [1+(3–1)0.7]
solution, the value of van't Hoff factor is
(a) 2.6 (b) 0.4 i = 2.4
(c) 0.8 (d) 2.4 The relative lowering of the vapour pressure
AP-EAMCET- (Engg.) - 2010 P° − P
= ix
Ans. (a) : Ionisation of BaCl2 is– P°
BaCl2 (s)  H 2O
→ Ba 2+ + 2Cl− 760 − P
= 2.4 × 0.00762 = 0.018
Initial 1 0 0 760
at 80% aqueous sol. (1–0.8) 0.8 2×0.8=1.6 760–P=13.9
Νo. of moles after reaction P = 746.10mm
van't Hoff factor (i) =
Initial no. of moles 226. At a certain temperature, the dissociation
i=
(1 − 0.8 ) + 0.8 + 1.6 constants of formic acid and acetic acid are
1.8×10-4 and 1.8×10-5 respectively. The
1 concentration of acetic acid solution in which
i = 2.6 the hydrogen ion has the same concentration as
223. Approximate relationship between dissociation in 0.001 M formic acid solution is equal to
constant of water (K) and ionic product of (a) 0.01 M (b) 0.001 M
water (Kw) is (c) 0.1 M (d) 0.0001 M
(a) Kw = K (b) Kw = 55.6 × K
(e) 0.1010 M
(c) Kw = 18 × K (d) Kw = 14 × K
A.M.U. – 2009 Kerala-CEE-2009
Ans. (b) : Dissociation constant– Ans. (a) : Given that,
Dissociation constant of formic acid (K a1 ) = 1.8 × 10–4
H 2O H+ +OH–
[H + ][OH − ] Dissociation constant of acetic acid (K a 2 ) = 1.8 × 10–5
K= Concentration of acetic acid (C1) = 0.001 M
[H 2 O]
−14 ∴ H+ = Ka ⋅ C
10
K= So, K a1 ⋅ C1 = K a 2 ⋅ C2
55.6
Q Kw = 1 × 10–14 1.8 × 10–4 × 0.001 = 1.8 × 10–5 × C2
Hence, Kw = 55.6 × K 1.8 × 10−7
224. Van’t Hoff factor of aq K2SO4 at infinite C2 =
1.8 × 10−5
dilution has value equal to
(a) 1 (b) 2 C2 = 10–2
(c) 3 (d) between 2 and 3 C2 = 0.01 M
AMU-2009 227. 0.1 M solution of which of the following has
Ans. (c) : At infinite dilution, complete dissociation will almost unity degree of dissociation ?
take place. So, (a) Ammonium chloride (b) Potassium chloride
K2SO4 → 2K+ + SO42– (c) Sodium acetate (d) All of the above
van't Hoff factor = 2 + 1 =3 MHT CET-2009
225. The degree of dissociation of Ca(NO3)2 in dilute Ans. (b) : Among the given only potassium chloride
aq. solution containing 7.0 g of salt per 100 g of (KCl) is a strong electrolyte, so its degree of
water at 100oC is 70%. If vapour pressure of dissociation is almost unity.
water at 100oC is 760 mm Hg. The vapour 228. The degree of dissociation of a 0.01 M weak
pressure of solution is
acid is 10–3. Its pOH is
(a) 735 (b) 730
(c) 760 (d) 746 (a) 5 (b) 3
[BITSAT – 2009] (c) 9 (d) 11
MHT CET-2009
Ans. (c) : Given, Concentration = 0.01 M Ans. (a) : The reaction is–
Degree of dissociation (α) = 10–3 X 2Y
Initially 1 0
pOH = ? At equilibrium (1− x ) 2x
∴ +
[H ] = Ka C Total moles = 1 – x + 2x = 1 + x
= α2 × C2 [Q Ka = α2C] 2x 1− x
= (10–3)2. (0.01)2 pY = ⋅ P1 , p X = ⋅ P1
= 10–5 1+ x 1+ x
pH = – log [H+] = – log 10–5 = 5 p2
∴ K p1 = Y
pOH = 14 – 5 = 9 pX
229. In a 500 mL flask, the degree of dissociation of (2x) 2 (1 + x)
PCl5 at equilibrium is 40% and the initial K p1 = × × P1
amount is 5 moles. The value of equilibrium (1 + x) 2 (1 − x)
constant in mol L–1 for the decomposition of (2x) 2  P1 
PCl5 is K P1 =  
(a) 2.33 (b) 2.66 (1 − x)  1 + x 
(c) 5.32 (d) 4.66 Z P+ Q
1 0 0
AP-EAMCET-2008 (1− x ) x x
Similarly,
Ans. (b) : PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2
(x) 2  P2 
Initial 5 0 0 K P2 =  
5 (1 − α ) 5α 5α (1 − x)  1 + x 
Conc. at Equilibrium Given that :
0.5 0.5 0.5
Given that, K p1 1
=
Degree of dissociation of PCl5 at equilibrium (α)=40% Kp 2 9
= 0.4
4x 2  P2 
∴
[ PCl3 ][ Cl 2 ]  
Kc = (1 − x)  1 + x  1
[ 5]
PCl
x 2  P1  9
=
 5 × 0.4  5 × 0.4   
   16 (1 − x)  1 + x 
=
0.5  0.5  4 × P1 1
= = 2.66 mol / L =
 5 × 0.6  6 P2 9
 
 0.5  P1 1
230. Assertion (A) The aqueous solution of =
CH3COONa is alkaline in nature. P 2 36
Reason (R) : Acetate ion undergoes anionic P1 : P2 = 1:36
hydrolysis.
232. An acid solution of 0.005M has a pH of 5. The
The correct answer is degree of ionization of acid is
(a) 0.1 × 10–2 (b) 0.2 × 10–2
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not (c) 0.5 × 10 –4
(d) 0.6 × 10–6
correct explanation of (A) BCECE-2007
(c) (A) is true but (R) is not true Ans. (b) : Given, Concentration = 0.005 M, pH = 5
(d) (A) is not true but (R) is true Degree of ionization = ?
AP-EAMCET-2008 Q pH = –log[H+]
Ans. (a) : The aqueous solution of CH3COONa is or 5 = –log[H+]
alkaline in nature. or [H+] = 10–5
Ionisation
CH 3COO − + Na + actual ionisation
CH 3COONa Now, α =
Strong base molar concentration
CH3COO– + H2O → CH3COOH + OH– 10−5
Acetate ion undergoes anionic hydrolysis due to excess α= = 0.2 × 10−2
–
of OH ions. 0.005
231. The equilibrium constants K p1 and K p2 for the 233. A monoprotic acid in 1.00 M solution is 0.01%
ionised. The dissociation constant of this acid is
reactions X 2Y and Z P + O, (a) 1 × 10–8 (b) 1 × 10–4
respectively are in the ratio of 1:9. If the degree (c) 1 × 10 –6
(d) 1 × 10–5
of dissociation of X and Z be equal, then the BCECE-2006
ratio of total pressure at these equilibria is Ans. (a) : Given, C = 1.00 M, Ka = ?
(a) 1:36 (b) 1:1 We use the Ostwald's dilution law for weak
(c) 1:3 (d) 1:9 electrolytes–
NEET-2008
α = Ka V Ans. (b) : The dissociation of Na2SO4 is given as–
Here, α = 0.001% = 0.0001 = 1×10–4 Na 2SO 4 → 2Na + + SO −2
14 4244 34
1 1 n =2
V= = = 1L ∴ i = 1+ (n–1)α
C 1− 0
i= 1 + 2α
α 2 (1×10−4 ) 2
∴ Ka = = 238. The van't Hoff factor of BaCl2 at 0.01M
V 1 concentration is 1.98. The percentage of
= 1×10–8 dissociation of BaCl2 at this concentration is :
234. A 2.1 aqueous solution of a weak acid is 2% (a) 49 (b) 69
ionised. If the ionic product of water is 1 × 10-14 (c) 89 (d) 98
The [OH–] is; (e) 100
(a) 5 ×10-12 M (b) 2 × 10-3 M Kerala-CEE-2005
-14
(c) 1 × 10 M (d) None of the above Ans. (a) : Given, i = 1.98, Concentration = 0.01 M
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2006 The dissociation of BaCl2 is–
Ans. (a) : Degree of dissociation of weak acid ( α ) = BaCl2 Ba 2+ + 2Cl −
2 We know that–
= 0.02
100 i −1
α=
Concentration of H+ = C.α = 0.1×0.02 = 2×10-3 n −1
Given:- ionic product of water (Kw) = 1×10-14 Where, i = van't Hoff factor
∴ [H+] [OH–] = Kw n = number of dissociated ion
1.98 − 1
1× 10−14 ∴ α=
[OH–] = 3 −1
2 ×10−3
0.98
[OH ] = 5×10-12 M
–
α=
2
235. HA is a weak acid. The pH of 0.1M HA solution α = 0.49
is 2. What is the degree of dissociation ( α ) of
∴ % dissociation = α = 100 = 49%
HA?
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.2 239. When NH4Cl is added to NH4OH solution, the
(c) 0.1 (d) 0.301 dissociation of ammonium hydroxide is
J & K CET-(2006) reduced. it is due to
(a) common ion effect (b) hydrolysis
Ans. (c) : Given that- pH = 2 (c) oxidation (d) reduction
∴ [H+] = 10–2 CG PET-2004
For weak acid- Ans. (a) : When NH4Cl is added to NH4OH solution,
[H+] = Cα = 0.1 × α concentration of NH4+ ions increases so the equilibrium
10−2 = 0.1 α shift towards left.
10−2 So, the dissociation of NH4OH is reduced it is due to
α= = 0.1 common ion effect.
0.1
236. Degree of dissociation of 0.1 N CH3COOH is 240. At 90°C, pure water has [H3O+]= 10–6
moles/litre. The value of Kw at 90°C is
(Kacid = 1 × 105)
(a) 10–6 (b) 10–8
(a) 10–5 (b) 10–4 –12
–3 (c) 10 (d) 10–14
(c) 10 (d) 10–2 J & K CET-(2004)
UP CPMT-2006
Ans. (c) : Given,
Ans. (d) : Given, C = 0.1 N, Ka = 1 × 105 [H3O+] = 10–6 mol/L
Relation between degree of dissociation and Ionization reaction of H2O is-
dissociation constant–
H 2O H+ + OH−
Ka 1.0 × 10−5
∴ α= = [H + ][OH − ]
C 0.1 K=
H 2O
= 1.0 × 10−4 =1.0 × 10−2 K × [H2O] = [H+] [OH−]
237. If α is the degree of dissociation of Na2SO4 , ∴ Kw = [H+] [OH–]
the van’t Hoff factor (i) used for calculating the [H+] = [OH−] = 10–6 mol/litre
molecular mass is ∴ Mentioned that it is pure water
(a) 1 − 2α (b) 1 + 2α Kw = [H+] [OH–]
(c) 1 − α (d) 1 + α Kw = 10–6 × 10–6
AIEEE-2005 Kw = 10–12
241. The Ka of an acid is 3.2×10–5. The degree of And, Al(NO3)3 also gives 4 species
dissociation of the acid at concentration of 0.2 (1 Al3+ and 3 NO3− ).
M is
(a) 6.0×10–2 (b) 1.26×10–2 ∴ van't Hoff factor for K3 [Fe(CN)6] = 4
(c) 40×10 –4
(d) 0.04×10–3 And, van't Hoff factor for Al(NO3)3 = 4
JIMPER-2004 245. The dissociation constant of two acids HA1 and
HA2 are 3.0×10-4 and 1.8×10-5 respectively. The
Ans. (b) : Given, Ka of an acid = 3.2 × 10–5 relative strengths of the acids is
Concentration = 0.2 M (a) 1 :16 (b) 1 :4
From Ostwald's dilution law – (c) 4 :1 (d) 16 :1
Ka UP CPMT-2002
α=
C Ans. (c) : Given, K a1 = 3 × 10 , K a 2 = 1.8 ×10 −5
−4
3.2 × 10−2 The dissociation of acids are–

α= HA1 H + + A1
0.2
α = 1.26 × 10−2 HA 2 H+ + A2
242. The degree of hydrolysis in hydrolytic cα 2
equilibrium A + H2O –
HA + OH at salt– Dissociation constant (K a ) =
1− α
concentration of 0.001 M is: (Ka = 1 × 10–5)
(a) 1 × 10 –3
(b) 1 × 10 –4
HA1 K a1
∴ Relative acidic strength ⇒ =
(c) 5 × 10–4 (d) 1 × 10–6 HA 2 K a2
UPTU/UPSEE-2004
Ans. (a) : We have, HA1 3.0 × 10 −4
=
Ka = 1 × 10–5, C = 0.001 M HA 2 1.8 ×10 −5
Degree of hydorolysis is – HA1 4
or =
Kw 10−14 −14+ 5+ 3 HA 2 1
h= = = 10
Ka × C 10−5 × 0.001 ∴ Relative strength are acids will be 4:1
h = 10–3 246. The pH of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of a weak
243. The degree of hydrolysis of 0.01 M NH4Cl is: acid (HA) is 3. What is its degree of
–9 dissociation?
(Kh = 2.5×10 )
–5 –4 (a) 1% (b) 10%
(a) 5×10 (b) 5×10
–3 –7 (c) 50% (d) 25%
(c) 5×10 (d) 5×10 AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2001
JCECE-2003
Ans. (a) : Given, pH = 3, Concentration (c)=0.1 M
Ans. (b): Given, Hydrolysis constant (Kh) = 2.5 × 10–9 Now, pH = –log[H+]
Degree of hydrolysis = ?, Concentration (C) = 0.01 M or [H+] = 10–3
Kh The dissociation of weak acid is-
h=
C HA H+ + A–
2.5 ×10−9 We know that,
h= [H+] = C × α
0.01
Where, C = Concentration
2.5 ×10−9 α = Degree of dissociation
h=
10−2 10 –3
or α =
2.5 × 10 ×10−9 0.1
h= −2 or α = 0.01
10 × 10
∴ Percentage of dissociation = 10–2 × 100 = 1%.
−9
25 ×10 247. ∆x = (hydration energy) – (lattice energy), for a
h=
10−1 salt ∆x is found to be –500 kcal mol–1. Then, on
increasing the temperature, its solubility in
h = 25 × 10−8 water
h = 5 × 10 –4
(a) increases
244. Which of the following salt has value of the (b) decreases
van’t Hoff factor equal to that of K3 [Fe(CN)6]? (c) remains same
(a) Al2(SO4)3 (b) NaCl (d) increases initially and then decreases
(c) Al(NO3)3 (d) Na2SO2 AP-EAMCET-1998
J & K CET-(2002) Ans. (b) : In this reaction, heat is evolved during the
Ans. (c) : K3[Fe(CN)6] on ionisation gives 4 species dissolution, so solubility decreases with rise in
(3K+ and 1 [Fe(CN)6]–3). temperature.
248. The hydrogen ion concentration in mol/dm3, in  CH 3COOH is acid and 
a 0.2 m solution of a weak acid, HA [Acid] = 2 × 1000 mol L−1  molecular mass of this 
(Ka= 2 × 10–5) is close to 60 × 100  acid is 60 
–5 –4
(a) 2 × 10 (b) 2 × 10 Given, Ka = 1.8 × 10 –5
(c) 2 × 10–3 (d) 2 × 10–2
J & K CET-(1998)  3 × 1000 
 
Ans. (c) : Given, Concentration (C)=0.2 m, Ka=2×10–5 ∴ pH = − log10 1.8 × 10−5 + log10  82 × 100 
2 × 1000
The dissociation of weak acid is –  
+ –  60 × 100 
HA H +A
pH = 4.7851
t=0 C 0 0 The solution is a acidic nature.
t = t' C(1– α) Cα Cα 251. The van't Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous
[H + ][A − ] solution of the strong electrolyte barium
∴ Ka = hydroxide is
[HA]
(a) 0 (b) 1
Cα ⋅ Cα
Ka = (c) 2 (d) 3
C(1 − α) (NEET-II-2016)
Cα 2 Ans. (d) : The dissociation of barium hydroxide is–
Ka = (Q for weak acid α <<< 1)
(1 − α) Ba(OH)2 → Ba + 2OH
+2 –
Ka = Cα2 (Q [H+] = Cα) No.of particleafter dissociation

+
i=
or [H ] = K a × C No.of particle beforedissociation
3
[H + ] = 2 × 10−5 × 0.2 i=
1
[H + ] = 0.4 × 10−5 i=3
[H+] = 2 × 10–3 252. The dissociation of water at 25oC is 1.9 × 10–7%
249. The degree of dissociation of an acid HA in 0.1 and the density of water is 1.0 g/cm3 the
M solution is 0.1%. Its dissociation constant is ionization constant of water is
(a) 1 × 10–3 (b) 1 × 10–7 (a) 3.42 × 10–8 (b) 3.42 × 10–16
–10
(c) 1 × 10 (d) 1 × 10–14 (c) 1.00 × 10 –14
(d) 2.00 × 10–16
AP-EAMCET-1992 J & K CET-(1998)
Ans. (b) : Given that, degree of dissociation (α) = 0.1% Ans. (d) : Given that,
= 10–3 α = 1.9 × 10–7% Density (d) = 1g/cm3
C = 0.1 M = 10–1 M −7
1.9 ×10
According to ostwald dilution law, the dissociation α= d = 1×1000
constant (Ka) is equal to the product of molar 100
concentration (C) and the square of the degree of α = 1.9 × 10–9 d =1000g/L
dissociation (α2). Molecular mass of water = 18 g/mol
∴ Dissociation constant (K) = α2.C 1000
Concentration (C) = = 55.55
= (10–3)2 × 10–1 18
= 10–7 H 2O H+ + OH–
250. 100 mL of a solution contains 2g of acetic acid Initial conc. C 0 0
and 3g of sodium acetate providing After 't' C – Cα Cα Cα
Ka=1.8×10–5, then choose the correct option
[H + ][OH − ]
(a) The solution is basic in nature K=
(b) The solution is acidic in nature [H 2 O]
(c) The solution is amphoteric in nature [Cα][Cα]
(d) The solution is neutral in nature K=
C − Cα
JIMPER-2016
Cα 2
Ans. (b) : According to Henderson's equation– K= (α << 1)
[Salt] 1− α
pH = − log10 K a + log10 K = Cα2
[Base]
K = 55.55 × (1.9 × 10–9)2
3 × 1000  CH 3COONa issalt and  K = 55.55 × 3.61× 10 −18
[Salt] = mol L−1  molecular mass of this 
82 × 100 salt is82  K = 2.00 × 10–16

Ans. (a) : PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
5. Vapour Density
For this reaction ∆n = 2 –1 =1
253. On increasing temperature, the equilibrium The dissociation of PCl5 take forward by decrease in
constant of exothermic and endothermic pressure & by increase in pressure the dissociation of
reactions, respectively : PCl5 decrease because the value of ∆n is positive.
(a) Increases and decreases 256. On doubling P and V with constant
(b) Decreases and increases temperature the equilibrium constant will
(c) Increases and increases (a) remain constant (b) become double
(d) Decreases and decreases (c) become one–fourth (d) None of the above
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) 2015 UP CPMT-2007
Ans. (b) : For A + B K C + D
Kf UPTU/UPSEE-2004
b
Ans. (a) : At constant temperature,
Kf PV = Constant
∴ Equilibrium constant (K) =
Kb The equilibrium constant depend on the temperature.
For exothermic reaction Kf decrease with increase of On doubling P and V with constant T, the equilibrium
temperature so that K decreases and endothermic constant (K) will remain constant.
reaction (Kf) increases with increase of temperature. So Pressure will never affect the value of K. It may result
K increases. in the shifting of equilibrium, but not the equilibrium
constant value. Temperature always changes K because
254. An oxygen containing organic compound was on adding heat to a system in state of equilibrium will
found to contain 52% carbon and 13% of always alter the forward reaction rate differently than
hydrogen. Its vapour density is 23. The compound the reverse reaction rate. Also by doubling the volume,
reacts with sodium metal to liberate hydrogen. A the concentrations of both reactants and products evenly
functional isomer of this compound is became half. Therefore, overall there is no change in
(a) Ethanal (b) Methoxy methane equilibrium constant value (K).
(c) Methoxy ethane (d) Ethanol
Karnataka-CET-2012 257. Le-Chateliar’s principle is not applicable to ––
(a) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
Ans. (b) : Molecular mass = 2 × vapour density
(b) Fe(s) + S(s) Fe(s)
Molecular mass = 2 × 23 = 46
(c) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
Element Percentage Atomic Re lative Simplest
(d) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)
mass number of ratio
atoms AMU-2011
C 52% 12 52 /12 = 4.33 1.9 − 2 Ans. (b) : Le chartelier’s principle state that an
H 13% 1 13/1 = 13 5.9 − 6 equilibrium is subjected to a change of concentration,
O 35% 16 35 /16 = 2.18 1 pressure or temperature, the equilibrium shifts in the
Empirical formula = C2H6O direction that trends to undo the effect of the change. It
Empirical formula mass = 12 × 2 + 6 × 1 + 16 = 46 is not explain the solid state compound.
Empiricalformula mass 46 e.g. – Fe(s) + S(s) FeS(s)
n= = =1
Molecular formula mass 46 258. The yield of the products in the reaction,
Molecular formula = C2H6O A 2 (g) + 2B(g) ↽ ⇀ C(g) + Q(kJ)
Alcohols liberate hydrogen on reaction with sodium metal. would be higher at
The functional isomer of ethanol is methoxy methane. (a) high temperature and high pressure
CH 3CH 2 OH CH 3OCH 3 (b) high temperature and low pressure
Ethanol Methoxy methane
(c) low temperature and high pressure
(d) low temperature and low pressure
6. Le-Chatelier Principle and It's NEET-2018
Application Karnataka-CET-2013
Ans. (c) : A 2 (g) + 2B(g) C(g) + QkJ
255. What is the effect of increasing pressure on the The forward reaction is exothermic. Thus, according to
dissociation of PCl5 according to the equation? Le-Chatelier’s principal, the lower is temperature,
PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) greater would be the yield of ammonia. Also, the
(a) Dissociation decreases forward reaction occurs with decrease in number of
(b) Dissociation increases gaseous molecules. Thus according to Le-Chatelier’s
(c) Dissociation does not change principal an increase in pressure, will shift the
(d) None of the above equilibrium in a direction in which the number of
Tripura JEE-2022 gaseous molecules decreases. In other word high
UPTU/UPSEE-2004 pressure will favour the formation of products.
259. The supply of oxygen to tissues by blood, can 263. A reaction has both ∆H and ∆S –ve. The rate of
be explained by reaction
(a) Le-Chatelier's principle (b) Boyle's law (a) Increases with increases in temperature
(c) Charis' law (d) Dalton's law (b) Cannot be predicated for change in
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-II temperature
Ans. (a) : Le-Chatelier's principle drives the following (c) Increases with decreases in temperature
reaction forward as blood passes through the alveoli (d) Remains unaffected by change in temperature
Karnataka-CET-2017
H + + HCO3 → H 2 CO3 → CO 2 + H 2 O
Ans. (c) : ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
The carbon dioxide produced here continually diffuses So, ∆G = –ve then the ∆S must be less than ∆H i.e. ∆H
into the alveoli and is exhaled, ensuring favorable > T∆S.
kinetics for the reaction to proceed. Thus, correct Negative value of enthalpy change ∆H corresponds to
answer is option (a). exothermic reaction with decrease in temperature, the
260. CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g) at constant temp, rate of reaction increases, Hence the option (c) is
the pressure will increase if: correct.
(a) Vol. of container increase 264. For the reaction, CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) +
(b) Temperature increases H2(g) at a given temperature the equilibrium
(c) Concentration of CaO increases. amount of CO2(g) can be increased by
(d) Concentration of CaCO3 increases. (a) adding a suitable catalyst
AIIMS-27.05.2018-(E) (b) adding an inert gas
Ans. (b): CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g) (c) increasing the volume of the container
Kp = PCO2 (d) increasing the amount of CO(g).
J & K CET-(2017)
Pressure will increase only be increasing temperature as
it will change Kp value. Ans. (d) : CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g)
261. Which statement is incorrect for a catalyst? ∆ng = No. of moles of product – No. of moles of
(a) It does not affect the equilibrium constant reactant.
(b) It increases the proportion of products in less ∴ ∆ng = 2 – 2 = 0
time The amount of CO2 will increase when the reaction
(c) It decreases the activation energy of a moves to forward direction. This can be achieved by
reaction increasing the amount of CO in the reaction mixture as
(d) It increases the free energy change for the according to Le-Chatelier's principal the reactions
reaction moves in a direction where the added substance are
consumed.
GUJCET-2018
Ans. (d) : It increases the free energy change for the 265. The chemical reaction of a gas phase is given below.
reaction a catalyst does not affect the energies of 2A(g) + B(g) C(g) + D(g)
reactants and products of the reaction and hence, the Which one of the following changes will affect
energies are same for both catalyzed and non-catalyzed the value of Kc?
reactions. (a) Addition of inert gas
A
+
B
(b) Increasing in temperature

262. In a reaction C + D , Le Chatelier's (c) Addition of reactants
principle asserts that an equilibrium between (d) Addition of catalyst
A and B producing C and D can be shifted Manipal-2016
towards C and D by
Ans. (b) : According to Vant Hoff equation–
(i) increasing the concentration of A or B
(ii) increasing the concentration of C or D K ∆H  1 1 
log 2 =  − 
(iii) decreasing the concentration of A or B K1 2.303R  T1 T2 
(a) (ii) only (b) Both (i) and (ii) If, ∆H is positive then the reaction is endothermic then
(c) (iii) only (d) (i) only temperature increase also the K is increases.
J & K CET-(2018) ∆H is negative then the reaction is exothermic then
Ans. (d) : A + B C + D temperature increases also K is decreases.
Thus, in the given equilibria, if concentration of A and Kc is a function of temperature only.
B is increased the reaction will move in forward 266. For the chemical equilibrium,
direction to reduce the effect of increase in 2NO 2 (g) N 2 O 4 (g) + 14.6kcal
concentration of A and B. According to Le-Chatelier's increase in temperature :
principal, if a system in equilibrium is subjected to a (a) favours the formation of N2O4
change in any of the factors that determine the (b) favours the decomposition of N2O4
equilibrium conditions of a system then the equilibrium (c) does not affect equilibrium
will shift in the direction so, as to reduce or to (d) stop the reaction
counteract the effects of the change Manipal-2016
Ans. (b) : The given reaction is exothermic and (a) by increasing the concentration of NH3(g)
according to Le-chatelier’s principal, high temperature (b) by decreasing the pressure
shifts the equilibrium in backward direction i.e. high (c) by decreasing the concentrations of N2(g) and
temperature favours the decomposition of N2O4. H2(g)
267. Which one of the following is correct? (d) by increasing pressure and decreasing
(a) The equilibrium constant (Kc) is independent temperature
of temperature NEET-2014
(b) The value of Kc is independent of initial Ans. (d) : By increasing pressure and decreasing
concentrations of reactants and products temperature the given reaction is exothermic as heat is
(c) At equilibrium, the rate of the forward released during the reaction. For an exothermic
reaction is twice the rate of the backward reaction, on decreasing the temperature equilibrium will
reaction shift in forward direction.
(d) The equilibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction According to Le-Chatelier's principal, on increasing
[Ni(CO)4 ] pressure, equilibrium will shift in the direction where
Ni(s)+4CO(g) Ni(CO)4(g) is, leasser number of gaseous moles are present.
[CO]
Hence, on increasing pressure equilibrium will shift in
TS-EAMCET-2016 forward direction for the given system.
Ans. (b) : (a) Equilibrium constant is temperature 271. Consider the following reaction CaCO3(s)
dependent having one unique value for a particular
reaction represented by a balanced equation at a given CaO(s) + CO2(g) in closed container at
temperature. equilibrium. What would be the effect of
addition of CaCO3 on the equilibrium
(b) The value of equilibrium constant is independent of
concentration of CO2?
initial concentration of the reactants and products.
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) At equilibrium, the rate of forward reaction is equal
to the rate of backward reaction. (c) Data is insufficient (d) Remains unaffected
(d) For the equilibrium reaction– SRMJEEE – 2014
Ni(s) + 4CO(g) Ni(CO)4(g) Ans. (d) : CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)
∴ Kc =
[ Ni(CO)4 ] Q Kc =
[CO 2 ][CaO]
[CaCO3 ]
[CO]4
∴ [CaCO3] = [CaO] = 1
268. The reaction SO 2 + O 2 2SO 3 + Heat
Then, Kc = [CO2] = PCO2
The equilibrium reaction proceeds in forward
direction by Hence, the equilibrium constant remain unaffected.
(a) addition of O2 (b) removal of O2 272. Which of the following equilibrium will shift to
(c) addition of inert gas (d) cannot proceed right side on increasing the temperature?
UPTU/UPSEE-2015 (a) CO(g) + H 2 O(g) CO 2 (g) + H 2 (g)
Ans. (a) : According to Le- Chatelier’s principle, (b) 2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) +2SO3 (g)
equilibrium shift towards forward direction by addition
of reactant. 1
(c) H 2 O(g) H 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
269. Which of the following according to Le- 2
Chatelier’s principle is correct? (d) 4HCl(g) + O 2 (g) 2H 2 O(g) + 2Cl2 (g)
(a) Increase in temperature favours the AIIMS-2014
endothermic reaction
(b) Increase in temperature favours the 1
Ans. (c): H 2 O(g) H 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
exothermic reaction 2
(c) Increase in pressure shifts the equilibrium in According to Le-chatelier's principle, increasing the
that side in which number of gaseous moles temperature shifts the equilibrium to the right side
increases since, volume is increasing in the forward reaction. So
(d) All of the above are true on increasing the temperature reaction will proceed in
BITSAT 2015 the forward direction.
Ans. (a) : According to Le-chatelier's principle increase 273. In a reaction, A + B C + D, 40% of B has
in temperature favours the endothermic reaction while a reacted at equilibrium, when 1 mole of A was
decrease in temperature favour the exothermic reaction. heated with 1 mole of B in a 10 L closed vessel.
Increase in pressure shifts the equilibrium in that side in The value of Kc is
which the number of moles of gaseous species (a) 0.44 (b) 0.18
decreases. (c) 0.22 (d) 0.36
270. For the reversible reactions, AP-EAMCET (Engg.) - 2014
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) + heat Ans. (a) : Given that,
The equilibrium, shifts is forward direction A + B C + D
At t = 0 1 1 0 0
At equi. (1–0.4) (1–0.4) 0.4 0.4 remain unaffected by the effect of catalyst as well as
[C][D] change in concentration of the reactants.
∴Kc = 278. For the reaction, SO2Cl2(g) SO2(g) + Cl2(g)
[A][B]
If at equilibrium volume of the reaction vessel
0.4 × 0.4 is increased then the amount of
=
0.6 × 0.6 (a) SO2 will decrease
= 0.44 (b) SO2 Cl2 will increase
274. KMnO4 can be prepared from K2MnO4 as per (c) Cl2 will increase
the reaction, (d) Cl2 will remain unchanged.
3MnO 42– + 2H 2O 2MnO 4– + MnO 2 + 4OH – SRMJEEE – 2012
Ans. (c) : For the given reaction –
The reaction can go to completion by removing
OH– ions by adding SO2Cl2(g) SO2(g) + Cl2(g)
(a) CO2 (b) SO2 As we know that if we increase the vessel of reaction
(c) HCl (d) KOH mixture then the equilibrium shifts, where the no. of
NEET-2013 moles of side is major. Hence, the amount of Cl2 will be
increased.
Ans. (a) : The reaction for the oxidation of magnate ion
to permagnate ion can go to completion by removing 279. For the reaction 2A + B C, ∆H = x cal, which
hydroxide ions by adding CO2. one of the following conditions-would favour
CO2 + 2OH–→ CO32− + H2O the yield of C on the basis of Le-Chatelier
principle?
275. In which of the following reactions, increase in
(a) High pressure, high temperature
pressure will favour the forward reaction?
(b) Only low temperature
(a) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(c) High pressure, low temperature
(b) 2NO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g) (d) Only low pressure
(c) C(s) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO(g) + H2(g) VITEEE- 2011
(d) 2HI(g) ⇌ H2(g) + I2(g) Ans. (a) : The reversible reaction is :
J & K CET-(2013)
2A + B C ∆H = + x cal
Ans. (b) : An increase in pressure favours the reaction
in the direction that produced smaller number of moles When pressure is increased in an equilibrium reaction,
of gases. As in reaction (b), 3 moles of reactants then the reaction moves towards the less number of
produces lesser i.e. 2 mole of products. Therefore, the moles. So, after increasing the temperature, the reaction
reaction will move in forward direction. move in forward direction. As the reaction is
endothermic, high temperature is favorable and low
276. In which reaction will an increase in the temperature is unfavourable.
volume of the container favour the formation
of products? 280. H2S gas when passed through a solution of
cations containing HCl precipitates the cations
(a) C(s) + H 2O(g) ↽ ⇀ CO(g) + H 2 (g)
of second group of qualitative analysis but not
(b) H 2 (g) + I2 (g) ↽ ⇀ 2HI(g) those belonging to the fourth group. It is
because
(c) 4NH 3 (g) + 5O 2 (g) ↽ ⇀ 4NO(g) + 6H 2 O(l ) (a) Presence of HCl decreases the sulphide ion
(d) 3O 2 (g) ↽ ⇀ 2O3 (g) concentration.
SCRA 2012 (b) Solubility product of group II sulphides is
more than that of group IV sulphides.
Ans. (a) : As we increase the volume of the container (c) Presence of HCl increases the sulphide ion
the concentration decreases of all the gaseous states in concentration.
the reaction by Le-Chatelier's principle, the reaction
(d) Sulphides of group IV cations are unstable in
will move in the direction of increasing no. of moles.
HCl.
277. According to Le-Chartelier's principle, the BITSAT 2011
equilibrium constant of a reversible reaction Ans. (a) : H2S gas is passed in presence of HCl, in
will not shift by qualitative analysis of cation of second group, therefore,
(a) Increasing the temperature of an exothermic due to common ion effect, lower concentration of
reaction sulphide ions is obtained which is sufficient for the
(b) Increasing the temperature of an endothermic precipitation of second group cations in form of their
reaction sulphides due to lower value of their solubility product
(c) Charging the concentrations of the reactants (Ksp). Here, fourth group cations are not precipitated
(d) The effect of a catalyst. because they require for exceeding their ionic product to
J & K CET-(2012) their solubility products and higher sulphide ions
Ans. (d) : According to Le-Chatelier's principal, the concentration due to their higher Ksp which is not
equilibrium state of a reversible reaction will not shift obtained here due to common ion effect.
by the effect of a catalyst but equilibrium constant

281. Which of the following comments about the Ans. (d) : In physical equilibrium there should be a
following equilibrium reaction is the most change in the physical state of the compounds involved
correct? in the equilibrium.
H2SO4(aq)+NH3(aq) HSO -4 (aq) + NH 4+ (aq) In 3O2(g) 2O3(g)
(a) The equilibrium lies mostly to the right there is no change in the physical state, O2 is gas and O3
(b) The equilibrium lies mostly to the left is also in gaseous state.
(c) The equilibrium is exactly in between where ∴ It is not a physical equilibrium.
the concentration of each of the reactants is
exactly equal to the concentration of each of 285. In which one of the following equilibria, the
the products increase of pressure over the equilibrium will
(d) The equilibrium depends on the temperature favour the backward reaction?
of the equilibrium raction (a) Decomposition equilibrium of HI
UPTU/UPSEE-2011 (b) Formation equilibrium of SO3
Ans. (a) : H2SO4 when dissolves in water dissociate (c) Decomposition equilibrium of NH3
almost completely and produces H+ ions. These ions are (d) Formation equilibrium of PCl5
taken by NH3 and its conjugate acid NH +4 forms of NH3. J & K CET-(2009)
Ans. (c) : In the decomposition reaction of NH3 the
Thus, the equilibrium lies mostly to right side or
forward reaction. number of moles of products formed is greater that of
reactant involved.
H 2SO 4 (aq) + NH 3 (aq) HSO −4 (aq) + NH +4 (aq)
2NH3 N2+ 3H2
282. The value of ∆H for the reaction
According to Le-Chatelier's principal, the increase of
X2(g) + 4Y2(g) 2XY4(g) is less than zero pressure on a chemical equilibrium shift in that
formation of XY4(g) will favoured at direction in which the number of gaseous molecules
(a) high temperature and high pressure decreases and vice-versa thus in this reaction, increase
(b) low pressure and low temperature in pressure favours the backward reaction.
(c) high temperature and low pressure 286. For the equilibrium,
(d) high pressure and low temperature
2NO2 (g) N 2O4 ( g ) + 14.6 kcal,
NEET-2011
Ans. (d) : The reaction is: Increase in temperature
(a) favours the formation of N2O4
X2(g) + 4Y2(g) 2XY4(g) (b) favours the decomposition of N2O4
∆ng = –Ve (c) does not affect equilibrium of N2O4
And, ∆H = –Ve (d) stop the reaction
So, formation of XY4(g) will favoured at high pressure UP CPMT-2009
and low temperature. Ans. (b): The given reaction is exothermic and according
283. To an equilibrium mixture of to Le-Chatelier principle high temperature shifts the
2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) equilibrium in backward direction. In other words, high
temperature favours the decomposition of N2O4.
Some helium, an inert gas, is added at constant
volume. The additiona of helium causes the 287. According to Le-equilibrium’s Principle, the
total pressure to double. Which of the following addition of temperature to the following reaction:
is true? CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) → CH4(g) + 2O2(g) will
(a) The concentration of all three gases is cause it to the right. This reaction is therefore,
unchanged. (a) Exothermic (b) Unimolecular
(b) The concentration of sulphur trioxide (c) Endothermic (d) Spontaneous
increases. MPPET-2008
(c) The numberof moles of sulphur trioxide Ans. (c) : For the endothermic reaction with increase in
increases. temperature rate of forward reaction increases.
(d) The concentration of sulphur dioxide According to Le-equilibrium’s principle when the
increases. concentration of a chemical will be shift the equilibrium
J & K CET-(2010) to the side that would counter the change in
Ans. (a) : As volume remains constant, the concentration of concentrating. In this reaction temperature is increased
the three gases will remain unchanged on adding the helium. then the process is endothermic.
Since, the inert gas is added at constant volume, i.e. the 288. N 2 + 3H 2 ↽ ⇀ 2NH 3 + heat . What is the effect
volume is not allowed to increase, the concentrations of all
the free gases remain unchanged. of the increase of temperature on the
equilibrium of the reaction?
284. Which of the following is not a physical (a) Equilibrium is shifted to the left
equilibrium? (b) Equilibrium is shifted to the right
(a) Ice Water (b) I 2 (s) I 2 (g) (c) Equilibrium is unaltered
(c) S(l) S(g) (d) 3O 2 2O3 (d) Reaction rate does not change
UPTU/UPSEE-2009 KARNATAKA-CET, 2008
Ans. (a) : N 2 + 3H 2 ↽ ⇀ 2NH 3 + heat (a) Decreasing the temperature
(b) Increasing the temperature
It is an exothermic reaction, so high temperature (c) Dissolving NaCl crystals in the equilibrium
favours backward reaction. Hence, equilibrium is mixture
shifted towards the left.
(d) Dissolving NH4NO3 crystals in the
289. What happens to the yield on application of equilibrium mixture
high pressure in the Haber’s synthesis of VITEEE- 2007
ammonia?
Ans. (b) :
(a) Increases (b) decreases
(c) unaffected (d) reaction stops NH4Cl (s) → NH4 +(aq) + Cl–(aq), ∆ H = +3.5kcal/mol
J & K CET-(2008) Endothermic reactions are favoured at high temperature.
Therefore, increasing the temperature will shift
Ans. (a) : Haber's process of synthesis of ammonia equilibrium to the right.
N2 + 3H2 2NH3 294. The equilibrium reaction that is not influenced
High pressure favours the reaction that decrease the by volume change at constant temperature is
number of gas molecules. Since, the number of (a) H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)
molecules of gaseous products are less than the number (b) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
of molecules of gaseous reactants, thus according to Le- (c) N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g)
chatelier's principal, high pressure favour the forward (d) 2NO(g) + O2 ⇌ 2NO2(g)
reaction. i.e more ammonia will be abtained. J & K CET-(2006)
290. The basic principle of Cottnell’s precipitation is Ans. (a) : According to Le-Chatelier's principal, when
(a) Le-Chatelier’s principle ∆ng = 0 there is no effect of pressure and volume
(b) Peptisation change on the equilibrium
(c) Neutralization of charge on colloidal particles So,
(d) Scattering of light (a) H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g), ∆ng = 0
KARNATAKA-CET, 2008
(b) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g), ∆ng = –2
Ans. (c) : In Cottnell’s precipitator, the charged
particles are attracted towards the walls of precipitator, (c) N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g), ∆ng = 1
here they lose their charge and coagulate. Hence, the (d) 2NO(g) + O2 ⇌ 2NO2(g), ∆ng = –1
basic principle of Cottnell’s precipitator is the Hence, H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) is correct answer.
neutralisation of charge on colloidal particles.
291. For a system in equilibrium, ∆G = 0 under 295. For NaC1, the K sp = 36mol 2 L−2 , the molar
conditions of constant concentration of it will be
(a) temperature and pressure 1 1
(b) temperature and pressure (a) M (b) M
36 16
(c) energy and volume (c) 36M (d) 6M
(d) pressure and volume CG PET -2006
BITSAT 2008Ans. (d) : For NaCl
Ans. (a) : When a system is at equilibrium under Ksp = S2
constant temperature and pressure. Its free energy Where, S = solubility
change is zero (∆G = 0) 36 = S2
292. When hydrogen molecule decompose into it’s ∴ S= 6 molL–1
atoms which consitions gives maximum yields Hence, molarity = 6M
of H atoms? 296. For the gaseous reaction
(a) High temperature and low pressure C2H4+H2 C2H6, ∆H = –130 kjmol-1 carried
(b) Low temperature and high pressure
(c) High temperature and high pressure in a closed vessel, the equilibrium
(d) Low temperature and low pressure concentration of the C2H6 can definitely be
BITSAT-2007 increased by:
(a) increasing temperature and decreasing
Ans. (a) : H2 → 2H–∆H
pressure
The reaction is endothermic accompanied by increase in
the number of moles. According to Le-chatelier's (b) decreasing temperature and increasing
principal, to increase the rate of forward reaction. pressure
temperature should be increased and pressure should be (c) increasing temperature and pressure both
decrease. (d) decreasing temperature and pressure both
UPTU/UPSEE-2005
293. Given the equilibrium system:
NH4Cl (s) → NH4 (aq) + Cl (aq)
+ – Ans. (b) : According to Le-Chatelier's principal
exothermic reactions are favourable at low temperature.
(∆ H = +3.5kcal/mol). The reaction in which number of moles decrease are
What change will shift the equilibrium to the favourable at high pressure or low volume.
right?
C2H4+H2 C2H6 ∆H = –130 kJ mol–1 Ans. (d) : According to Le-Chatelier's principal, when
we increase pressure, reaction proceeds in that direction
Q The reaction is exothermic and number of moles of where volume is decreasing.
reactants are decreasing.
∴ The reaction rate is increased by decreasing 302. When pressure is applied to the equilibrium
temperature and increasing pressure. system ice water. Which of the following
297. According to Le-Chatelier's principle which of phenomenon will happen?
the following factors influence a chemical system? (a) More ice will be formed
(a) Concentration only (b) Water will evaporate
(b) Pressure only (c) More water will be formed
(c) Temperature only (d) Equilibrium will not be formed
(d) concentration, pressure and termperature BCECE-2004
CG PET -2005 Ans. (c) : When the pressure is applied to the
Ans. (d) : Le-Chatelier's principal can be used to equilibrium system between ice and water, the phase
predict the behaviour of a system duo to change in transition temperature of ice reduces. Thus the
pressure, temperature, or concentration. equilibrium shifts more to right side. Also when
298. If pressure increases then its effect on given pressure is increased the equilibrium shifts in the
equilibrium 2NO N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) is shift in: direction of less volume.
Therefore, more ice will melt into water
(a) Forward direction (b) Backward direction
303. Of the following which change will shift the
(c) No effect (d) None of the above
reaction towards the product?
BCECE-2005
I 2 (g) 2I(g), ∆H r0 (298K) = +150kJ
Ans. (c) : The reaction is-
2NO(g) N2(g) + O2(g) (a) Increase in concentration of I2
(b) Decrease in concentration of I2
∆ng = 2 – 2 = 0 (c) Increase in temperature
Q There is no change in number of moles of reactant (d) Increase in total pressure
and products. AIIMS-2004
∴ The reaction is not effected by change in pressure. Ans. (c): The reaction is
299. A chemical reaction is in equilibrium when I2(g) 2I(g)
(a) the reactants are completely transformed into
products ∆H 0r (298K) = + 150 kJ.
(b) the rate of forward reaction is equal to the rate According to Le-chateliers principal, the condition
of backward reaction favouring the formation of I are given below.
(c) the formation of products is minimised (i) High concentration of I2(g)
(d) equal amount of reactants and products are (ii) High temperature
present (iii) Low pressure
CG PET -2005 Hence option (c) is correct.
Ans. (b) : If the rate of forward reaction equals rate of 304. How will increase of pressure affect the equation?
backward reaction, then the reaction is said to be in C(s) + H 2O(g) ⇌ CO(g) + H 2 (g)
equilibrium. At the stage, there is no further change in
(a) Shift in the forward direction
the concentrations of reactants as well as products.
(b) Shift in the reverse direction
300. If a system is at equilibrium, the rate of
(c) Increase in the yield of hydrogen
forward to the reverse reaction is:
(d) No effect.
(a) Less (b) Equal
J & K CET-(2003)
(c) High (d) At equilibrium
UPTU/UPSEE-2004 Ans. (b) : Reverse reaction, Le-Chatelier's principal when
there is change in number of moles the equilibrium will
Ans. (b) : If the system at equilibrium, the rate of
shift in the direction having smaller number of moles,
forward and backward reaction become equal
when the pressure is increased and vice-verssa
301. The formation of SO3 takes place according to
the following reaction: 305. Equilibrium constant K, for the reaction,
2SO2 + O2 2SO3; ∆H = – 45.2 kcal 2HI(g) H 2 (g) + I 2 (g)
The formation of SO3 is favoured by at room temperature is 2.85 and that at 698 K
(a) Increase in temperature is 1.4×10–2. This implies that the forward
(b) Removal of oxygen reaction is :
(c) Increase of volume (a) exothermic (b) endothermic
(d) Increase of pressure (c) exergonic (d) unpredictable
UPTU/UPSEE-2004 BCECE-2003
Ans. (a) : For the given reaction– Ans. (a) : In exothermic reaction, increase in
2HI ⇌ H 2 + I 2 temperature favours the backward reaction i.e.
Equilibrium constant k = 2.85 decreases the value of equilibrium constant.
At room temperature 698 K, k' = 1.4 × 10 –2 310. The equilibrium will be shifted in the opposite
The increases of temperature value of k is decreases, so direction if
the forward reaction decreases with increases PCl 3 (g) + Cl 2 (g) ⇌ PCl 5 (g)
temperature. (a) PCl3 is added (b) Helium gas is added
Implies that reaction will proceed in forward direction (c) Catalyst is added (d) Pressure is reduced
with decrease of temperature i.e. heat is librated and J & K CET-(2000)
hence forward reaction is exothermic.
Ans. (d) : In the reaction
306. Reaction BaO2(s) BaO(s) + O2(g); ∆H = PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) PCl5(g)
+ ve. In equilibrium condition pressure of O2 As the backward reaction is accompanied by increase in
depends on the number of moles hence, decreasing pressure will
(a) Increase mass of BaO2 favour the backward reaction.
(b) Increase mass of BaO
311. In the chemical reaction,
(c) Increase temperature on equilibrium
(d) Increase mall of BaO2 and BaO both 2SO 2 + O 2 ⇌ 2SO 3 ,
NEET-2002 increasing the total pressure leads to
Ans. (c) : BaO2(s) BaO(s) + O2 ; H = +ve (a) Increase in the amount of SO3
(b) Increase in the partial pressure of O2
Since H is +ve for this reaction So, it is endothermic (c) Increase in the partial pressure of SO2
process. On increasing the temperature, by appliying (d) Change in the equilibrium constant
Le-Chaterliers principal, we can see that the reaction J & K CET-(1999)
proceed in a forward direction on increasing
Ans. (a) : When pressure is increased, at constant
temperature, so, the pressure of O2 will increase on
temperature the equilibrium will shift in such a way as
increasing the temperature at equilibrium. to reduce this stress on its position. It shift towards
307. In the reaction product sides. So, the amount of SO3 increased
O 2 (g) + N 2 (g) ⇌ 2NO(g), ∆H = 180 KJ. 312. According to Le Chatelier's principle, adding
(a) Increasing concentration of N2 heat to a solid and liquid in equilibrium will
(b) Increase in pressure cause the
(c) Increase in temperature (a) temperature to increase
(d) Decrease in temperature (b) temperature to decrease
J & K CET-(2002) (c) amount of liquid to decrease
(d) amount of solid to decrease
Ans. (d) : N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) NEET-1993
∆H = +180 KJ Ans. (d) : When we add heat to the equilibrium
Since this is an endothermic reaction, thus according to between solid and liquid, then the equilibrium shifts
Le-Chatalier's principal increase in temperature favours towards liquid and hence, the amount of solid decreases
the formation of NO and hence decomposition of NO is and amount of liquid increases.
favoured by decrease in temperature. 313. Which of the following information can be
308. For any reversible reaction, if we increase obtained in the basis of Le Chatelier principle?
concentration of the reactions, then effect in (a) dissociation constant of a weak acid
equilibrium constant (b) Entropy change in a reaction
(a) depends on amount of concentration (c) Equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction
(b) unchange (d) Shift in equilibrium position of changing
(c) decrease value of a constraint
(d) increase NEET-1992
NEET-2000 Ans. (d) : According to Le-Chatelier's principal
Ans. (b) : Equilibrium constant independent of change whenever a constraint is applied to a system in
in concentration of reactants or products. It depend only equilibrium, the system tends to readjust so as to reellify
on temperature. the effect of the constraints by bringing a shift in an
309. In an exothermic reaction. 10 C rise in equilibrium position.
0
temperature will 314. The exothermic formation of CIF3 is

(a) Decrease the value of equilibrium constant represented by the equation :
(b) Double the value of Kc Cl 2 (g) + 3F2 (g) 2ClF3 (g); ∆ H = −329kJ
(c) Do not produce any change in Kc Which of the following will increase the
(d) Produce some change in Kc quantity of ClF3 in an equilibrium mixture of
J & K CET-(2000) Cl2, F2 and ClF3 ?
(a) Adding F2
(b) Increasing the volume of the container 7. Application of Kp and Kf
(c) Removing Cl2
(d) Increasing the temperature 316. 3O2 (g) 2 O3 (g) for thr above reaction at 298
VITEEE-2017 K, Kc is found to be 3.0 × 10–59. If the
Ans. (a) : The given reaction is exothermic reaction. concentration of O2 at equilibrium is 0.040 M
Thus according to Le Chatelier’s principle lowering the then concentration of O3 in M is
temperature F2 and Cl2 favour the forward direction and (a) 1.2 × 1021 (b) 4.38 × 10–32
–63
production of ClF3. (c) 1.9 × 10 (d) 2.4 × 1031
315. For the equilibrium A B , the variation of NEET-17.07.2022
the rate of the forward (a) and reverse (b) Ans. (b) : Given that, Kc = 3 × 10
–59
reaction with time is given by At equilibrium 0.04 M

3O2(g) 2O3(g)
[O ]2
(a) K c = 3 3 = 3 × 10−59
[O 2 ]
[O3 ]2
= = 3 × 10−59
[4 × 10−2 ]3
[O3]2 = 64 × 3 × 10–6 × 10–59
= 19.2 × 10–64
[O3] = 4.38 × 10–32
The concentration of O3 = 4.38 × 10–32
(b) 317. 4.0 moles of argon and 5.0 moles of PCl5 are
introduced into an evacuated flask of 100 litre
capacity at 610 K. The system is allowed to
equilibrate. At equilibrium, the total pressure
of mixture was found to be 6.0 atm. The Kp for
the reaction is [Given:R = 0.082L atm K-1mol–1]
(a) 2.25 (b) 6.24
(c) 12.13 (d) 15.24
Ans. (a) : Given, nAr = 4, n PCl5 = 5
(c)
V = 100 litre At 600 K, PT = 6 atm
R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1, Kp = ?
PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl 2 (g)
t=0 5 0 0
t = eq. 5 − n n n
Total moles = 5-n+n+n = 5+n
We know, PV =nRT
(d) Q For argon, nAr = 4
Total moles = n Ar + n PCl5 + n PCl3 + n PCl2 = 4+5+n = 9+n
Since, PV = nRT
6 × 100 = (9 + n) × 0.082 × 610
n=3
PPCl3 ⋅ PCl2
JEE-Main-11.09.2020 Kp =
PPCl5
Ans. (a) : At equilibrium rate of forward reaction = rate
of backward reaction. 3   
 × 6× 3 × 6
Hence, 12  12 
=
2 
 × 6
12 
9
= = 2.25
4
318. For the following reaction in gaseous phase

1 ∆ng = –2
CO(g) + O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g), K p /K c is ∴ Kp ≠ Kc
2 (d) 2SO3 2SO2 + O2
(a) (RT)1/2 (b) (RT)–1/2
(c) (RT) (d) (RT)– ∆ng = 3 – 2 = 1
(2017) ∴ Kp ≠ Kc
BITSAT-2013 321. In the reaction, H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl (g),
CGPET-2013 relation between Kp and Kc is
UPTU/UPSEE-2008 (a) Kp = Kc (b) Kp ≠ Kc
Ans. (b): The reaction is- (c) Kp ≥ Kc (d) Kp < Kc
J&K CET-2008
1
CO(g) + O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g) AP-EAMCET-1992
2 Ans. (a) : Given the reaction,
The relation between Kp and Kc is -
∆n H 2 ( g ) + Cl2 ( g ) → 2HCl ( g )
K p = K c (RT) g
∴ ∆ng = No. of mole of gaseous product – no. of moles of
Where, ∆ng = no. of mole of gaseous product – no. of gaseous reactant
mole of gaseous reactant = 2 – (1 + 1)
 1 3 −1 ∆ng = 0
∴ ∆n g = 1 −  1 +  =1 − = ∆n
 2 2 2 ∴ Kp = Kc (RT) g
Kp Kp = Kc × (RT)0
So, = (RT) −1/ 2 Kp = Kc
Kc
322.For the reaction H 2 ( g ) + I 2 ( g ) → 2HI ( g ) , the
319. For the following gaseous reaction,
equilibrium constant Kp changes with
H2 + I2 2HI, the equilibrium constant
(a) total pressure (b) catalyst
(a) K p > K c (b) K p < K c (c) the amount H2 and I2 (d) temperature
1 VITEEE- 2007
(c) K p = K c (d) K p = J & K CET-(2011)
Kc
Ans. (d) : The equilibrium constant Kp will change with
CG PET - 2006, 2005 temperature.
BCECE - 2006 For the reaction-
JCECE - 2005
H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) 2HI(g).
Ans. (c) : H 2 + I 2 2HI Catalyst does not alter the state of equilibrium.
For the above chemical reaction– Equilibrium constant depends only upon temperature.
∆ng = No. of moles of product – No. of moles of The relation of K with temperature can be shown as-
reactant.
K2 ∆H  1 1 
∆ng = 2 – 2 = 0 log =  − 
Then, Kp = Kc K1 2.303R  T1 T2 
323. In which of the following equilibrium Kc and
320. For which one of the following reactions Kp are not equal?
Kp = Kc ?
(a) 2C(s) + O2(g) 2CO2(g)
(a) PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 (b) N2 + O2 2NO
(b) 2NO (g) N2(g) + O2 (g)
(c) N2 + 3H2 2NH3 (d) 2SO3 2SO2 + O2
(c) SO2(g) + NO2(g) SO3 (g) + NO(g)
JCECE - 2010
J&K CET-2003 (d) H2(g) + I2 (g) 2HI(g)
UP CPMT-2014 JCECE - 2013
∆ng
NEET-2010
Ans. (b) : Q Kp = Kc (RT) Ans. (a) : The relation between Kp and Kc is -
∆n g ∆n
Kp = Kc only when (RT) =0 K p = Kc (RT) g
(a) PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 (a) 2C(s) + O 2 (g) 2CO 2 (g)
∆ng = np – nr
=2–1 ∆n g = n p − n r
=1 = 2 − (2 + 1)
∴ Kp ≠ Kc = −1
(b) N2 + O2 2NO ∴ Kp ≠ Kc
∆ng = 2 – 2 (b) 2NO(g) N 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
=0
∴ Kp = Kc ∆n g = 2 − (2) = 0
(c) N2 + 3H2 2NH3 ∴ Kp = Kc
∆ng = 2 – 4 (c) SO2(g) + NO2(g) SO3 (g) + NO(g)
∆n g = 2 − (2) = 0 0.1× 50
= = 0.05mol / L
∴ Kp = Kc 100
(d) H2(g) + I2 (g) 2HI(g) [NO 2 ]2
∆n g = 2 − (1 + 1) = 0 ∴ Kc =
(N 2 O 4 )
∴ Kp = Kc 2
 2x 
324. Two moles of PCl5 is heated in a closed vessel of  
Kc =  
2L capacity. When the equilibrium is attained V
or
40% of it has been found to be dissociated. 1– x
What is the Kc in mol/dm3? V
(a) 0.532 (b) 0.266
4(0.05) 2 × 1
(c) 0.133 (d) 0.174 or Kc =
(e) 0.25 0.05
UPTU/UPSEE-2006, 2004 Kc = 0.2
Kerala-CEE-2005 326. For the reversible reaction:
Ans. (b) : Degree of dissociation = 0.4 A(s) + B(g) C(g) + D(g) : ∆G° = –350kJ.
PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 Which one of the following statements is true?
At equi. a(1 − x) ax ax (a) The entropy change is negative.
a = 2, x = 0.4, V = 2 (b) Equilibrium constant is greater than one.
2(1 − 0.4) (c) The reaction should be instantaneous.
[PCl5 ] = = 0.6 mol / L
2 (d) The reaction is thermodynamically not feasible.
2 × 0.4 COMEDK-2020
[PCl3 ] = = 0.4 mol / L
2 Karnataka CET-2011
2 × 0.4 Ans. (b) : ∆G° has a negative value so, the reaction is
[Cl2 ] = = 0.4 mol / L
2 feasible in forward direction and equilibrium constant
[PCl3 ][Cl2 ] will have value greater than one.
∴ Kc = The relationship between ∆G° and equilibrium constant
[PCl5 ]
(Kp) –
0.4 × 0.4 ∆G° = –2.303 RT log Kp
=
0.6 When, Kp > 1, ∆G° is negative
= 0.266
327. The relation between Kp and Kc is correctly
325. 9.2g of N2O4(g) is taken in a closed one litre
vessel on heated till the following equilibrium is shown as
(a) K c = K p ( RT ) (b) K p = K c ( RT )
∆n g −∆n g
reached.
N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)
(c) K p = K c ( RT ) (d) K c = K p ( RT )
∆n g −∆n g
at equilibrium 50% of N2O4(g) dissociated.

What is the equilibrium constant (in mol L-1)? BCECE-2009
(Molecular weight of N2O4 is 92) CG PET -2004
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 Ans. (c) : The relation between Kp and Kc is given by
(c) 0.4 (d) 2
K p = K c ( RT ) g
∆n
JIMPER-2009
UPCPMT-2008 Where, ∆ng = no. of mole of gaseous products – no. of
AP-EAMCET (Medical)- 2007, 2001 mole of gaseous reactants
Ans. (b) : Given the equilibrium reaction– Kp/Kc = equilibrium constant
N 2O4 2NO 2
Initially 1 0 328. For the reaction 2NO(g) + Cl2(g) 2NOCl(g)
At equil. (1− x ) 2x
which is true ?
At equilibrium molar concentration–
(a) Kp = Kc × RT (b) Kp = Kc (RT)2
(1 – x)
[N 2 O 4 ] = (c) K p = c
K
(d) K p =
Kc
V RT (RT)2
2x
[NO 2 ] = MPPET-2013
V CGPET-2011
weight 9.2
∴ Moles of N 2 O 4 = = = 0.1mole Ans. (c) : 2NO(g) + Cl 2 (g) 2NOCl(g)
Mole cular weight 92 ∆ng = No. of mole of gaseous product – No. of
0.1 mole of gaseous reactant
Concentration of N2O4= = 0.1mol / L Q ∆ng = 2 – 3 = – 1
1
∆n
50% of N2O4 is dissociated at equilibrium, ∴ Kp = K c (RT) g

Kp = Kc(RT)–1 2AB A 2 + B2
Kc We assume that the equilibrium constant for above
Kp =
RT reaction is K c1 .
329. For a reaction 2A ↽ ⇀ B + C , Kc is 2 × 10–3. At
[ A ][ B ]
K c1 = 49 = 2 22
a given time, the reaction mixture has ∴ .....(i)
–4
[A]=[B]=[C]= 3×10 M. Which of the following [ AB]
options is correct? 1 1
and AB A 2 + B2
(a) The system is at equilibrium 2 2
(b) The reaction proceeds to the left Again, we assume that the equilibrium constant for
(c) The reaction proceeds to the right above reaction is K c2 .
(d) The reaction is complete
[ A ] [ B2 ]
1/ 2 1/ 2
∴ K c2 = 2 .....(ii)
JIMPER-2019, 2018 [ AB]
Ans. (b) : Given data: From equation (i) & (ii), we get–
Kc = 2 × 10–3
K c2 = K c1 = 49
[A] = [B] = [C] = 3 × 10–4 M
For the reaction, K c2 = 7
2A B+C
332. A(g) + 3B(g) 4C(g) is a reversible reaction
The reaction quotient is given by where all the reactants and product are in
[B][C] gaseous state.
∴ Qc =
[A]2 Conditions:
–4 –4 (i) Concentrations of both A and B are equal
(3×10 )(3×10 ) at the initiation
Qc = –4 2
= 1
(3×10 ) (ii) Concentration of both A and C are equal
here, Qc > Kc at the equilibrium.
Hence, the reaction will proceed in the direction of Considering the imposed condition, find the
reactants (reverse reaction). value of Kc of this reversible reaction.
(a) 0.08 (b) 0.8
330. For the reaction H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) 2HI(g)
(c) 8.0 (d) 80.0
(a) K p = K c ≠ 0 (b) K p > K c Tripura JEE-2022
(c) K p < K c (d) K p = K c = 0 Ans. (c): The reversible reaction is -
A(g) + 3B(g) 4C(g)
VITEEE-2006 Initialconc. a a 0
Ans. (a): For the reaction, Eq.conc. (a − x) (a − 3x) 4x
H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) 2HI(g) But [A] = [C]
∆ng = no. of mole of gaseous product – no. of mole of ∴ (a − x) = 4x
gaseous reactant
From the given balanced equation, we have 2 mole of a = 5x
product and 1 mole of each reactant. [C]4 (4x)4 (4x) 4
Kc = = = = 8.
∆n g = 2 − (1 + 1) = 0 [A][B] (5x − x)(5x − 3x) (4x)(2x)3
3 3
∴ K p = K c (RT)
∆n g
(
= K c Q ∆n g = 0 ) 333. The reaction 2SO 2 ( g ) + O 2 (g) 2SO 3 ( g ) was
So, K p = K c ≠ 0 carried out in a closed vessel of 1L capacity at a
suitable temperature. The initial
331. If the equilibrium constant for the reaction concentrations of SO2 and O2 are 2 and 1
2AB A 2 + B 2 is 49. What is the value of moles/L respectively. At equilibrium, 1.6 moles
equilibrium constant for of SO3(g) was found. The value of Kc at the
1 1 same temperature is
AB A2 + B2 ? (a) 10 (b) 40
2 2 (c) 60 (d) 80
(a) 49 (b) 2401 TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-I
(c) 7 (d) 0.02
Ans. (d) : The equilibrium reaction is -
AP-EAMCET (Engg.)2011
A.P.EAMCET 1998

at a fixed temperature is 0.25 atm–2. Then find
2SO 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) 2SO3 ( g )
the Kp for the reaction A(g) + B(g) C(g) at
Initially 2 1 0 the same temperature.
(a) 16 (b) 25
At equilibrium 2 − 1.6 1 − 0.8 1.6
(c) 9 (d) 36
Conc. 0.4 /1 0.2 /1 1.6 /1 AP EAPCET 25.08.2021, Shift-II
Ans. (a) : Given reaction is –
∴ Kc =
[SO3 ]2
=
(1.6 ) 2
1 1 1
C(g) A(g) + B(g) K p = 0.25
[SO 2 ] [O 2 ] ( 0.4 )2 ( 0.2 )
2
2 2 2 1
2.56 K p1 for first reaction -

=
0.16 × 0.2
( pA ) ( pB )
1/ 2 1/ 2
2560 640 160 Kp =
= = = = 80
( pC )
1/ 2
16 × 2 4 × 2
1
2
334. At 1990K and 1 atm pressure, there are equal pA pB
number of Cl2 molecules and Cl atoms in the K 2p = …..(i)
reaction mixture. The value of Kp for the
1
pC
reaction Cl2(g) under the above conditions is x and
×10–1. The value of x is ____.(Rounded off to
the nearest integer) A(g) + B(g) C(g)
JEE Mains 24.02.2021, Shift-I pC
Ans. : Given data : ∴ Kp =
2
pA pB
T = 1990K,
P = 1 atm, Kp = x × 10–1 or
Given reaction is : Cl 2 (g) 2Cl(g) 1
Kp = {from equation (i)}
Let mole of both Cl2 and Cl is x – 2 pA pB
x 1 pC
Partial pressure of Cl = pCl = 1× =
2x 2 1
Kp = 2
x 1 2
K p1
Partial pressure of Cl2 = pCl2 = 1× =
2x 2
1
1
2 or Kp =
 
2
0.25 × 0.25
( pCl )
2
∴ Kp = = 2 or K p = 16
pCl2 1 2
2 Reverse reaction
or Kp = 5×10–1 1 1 1 1 1
A(g) + B(g) C(g) K p1 = =
Q K p = x × 10 –1 2 2 2 K p 0.25
∴ x × 10 –1 = 5 × 10 –1 multiplying by 2
x=5
A(g) +B(g)
C(g)
335. Which among the following denotes the correct
( )
2
relationship between Kp and Kc for the reaction then, K P2 = K P1
2A(g) B(g) + C(g) 2
(a) Kp > Kc (b) Kc > Kp  1 
K P2 =   =16
(c) Kc = (Kp)2 (d) Kp = Kc  0.25 
AP EAPCET 19-08-2021 Shift-I 337. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is
Ans. (d) : 2A(g) B(g) + C(g) P4 (s) + 5O 2 (g) P4O10 (s)
From the relation between Kp and Kc we get –
∆n
Kp = Kc (RT) (Wher ∆n = No. of mol in RHS – No. of (a) K c = 5O 2
mol in LHS).
(b) K c = [ O 2 ]
5
∴ ∆n = 1 + 1 – 2 = 0
∴ Kp = Kc (RT)0
(c) K c = [ P4 O10 ] [ P4 ][ O 2 ]
5
Kp = Kc
336. Given Kp for the reaction, 1
(d) K c =
1
C(g)
1 1
A(g) + B(g) [ O2 ]5
2 2 2
Ans. (d) : The equilibrium reaction is – 340. For a reaction, X +Y→ 2Z 1.0 mol of x, 1.5 mol
P4 (s) + 5O 2 (g) P4 O10 (s) of y, and 0.5 mol of Z, were taken in a 1L vessel
The expression for the equilibrium constant is – and allowed to react. At
equilibrium, the concentration of Z was 1.0
[P4 O10 ] 1
Kc = ⇒ [Here, [P4O10] = [P4] = 1] mol L-1.The equilibrium constant of the
[P4 ][O 2 ]5 1× [O 2 ]5 x
reaction is ....... . The value of x is ....... .
1 15
∴ Kc =
[O 2 ]5 JEE Mains-05-09.2020, Shift-II
338. Identify the correct expression for the Ans. () : 16
equilibrium constant of the following reaction: X + Y 2Z
2 X(g) + Y(g) 3 Z(g) At t = 0 1 1.5 0.5
2 At t = eq 1–x 1.5–x 0.5 + 2x
[X] [Y] [Z]3
(a) K = (b) K = 3 5
[Z]3 [X]2 [Y] Molar conc. = = =1
4 4
3[Z] 1
(c) K = (d) K = [Z]3 [X]2 [Y] 2x =
2[X][Y] 2
Q
AP EAPCET-23-08-2021, Shift-I 1
Ans. (b) : Equilibrium constant is defined as, the x=
4
relationship between the amounts of products and
reactants present at equilibrium in a reversible chemical ∴ K = (1)
2
16
c =
reaction.  5  3  15
  
Given that, 2X (g) + Y (g) 3Z(g)  4  4 
[Product] Hence, the value of x is 16.
Equilibrium constant (Kc) = 341. For the reaction
[Reactant]
2NO 2 (g) 2NO(g) + O 2 (g)
[Z]3
Kc = Kc=1.8×10−6at 184ºC
[X]2 [Y]
R= 0.0831kJK−1mol−1
339. For the reaction NO2 + CO ⇌ NO + CO2 one
The relationship between Kp and Kc at 184ºC is
mole of NO2 and 2 moles of CO were kept in a
(a) Kp >Kc
vessel. Calculate the equilibrium constant Kp, if
(b) Kp <Kc
at equilibrium 25% of initial amount CO is
consumed. (c) Kp =Kc
(d) Kp is independent of Kc
1 1
(a) (b) CG PET -2019
2 3
Ans. (a) : Given,
1
(c) 1 (d) K c = 1.8 × 10−6 T =184 + 273 = 467
4
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.9.2020 Shift-I R = 0.0831 kJK −1 mol−1
Ans. (b) : We have to assume that volume of the vessel For the reaction-
is 1L. 2NO 2 (g) 2NO(g) + O 2 (g)
∆n g
K p = K c (RT)
∴
∆n g = 3 − 2 = 1
When the value of ∆n is 1, the term (RT)∆n becomes
more than 1.
25 In such case, Kp > Kc
Given, α = 2 × = 0.5
100 342. At a certain temperature, 2 mole of CO and 4
[NO][CO 2 ] 0.5 × 0.35 1 moles of Cl2 gases were reacted to form COCl2
⇒ Kc = = = in a 10L vessel. At equilibrium if one mole of
[NO 2 ][CO] 0.5 × 1.5 3
CO is present then equilibrium constant for the
Q ∆ng = (1 + 1) – (1 + 1) = 0 reaction is
K p = K c ( RT ) = K c ( RT ) = K c
∆n g 0
∴ (a) 4 (b) 3.3
1 (c) 1 (d) 2.5
⇒ Kp = (e) 4.5
3
Kerala-CEE-2019
Ans. (b) : Given that, Ans. (b): 2 ICl → I2 + Cl2
CO + Cl2 COCl2 0.6 0 0
Initial moles 2 4 0 0.6 – 2x x x
At equilibrium 2 – x 4 – x x x2
At equilibrium 1 mole of CO is present then– ∴ K C = 0.14 =
(0.6 − 2x) 2
2–x=1 1
 x2 
2
x=1
or 0.14 =  2
1 moles of CO in 10L vessel =
1  (0.6 − 2x) 
10 x
3 0.37 =
1 moles of Cl2 = 0.6 − 2x
10 0.224 – 0.748 x = x
1 1.748 x = 0.224
Conc. of 1 mole of COCl2 =
10 x = 0.128
At equilibrium constant reaction is – 345. What will be the equilibrium constant of the
1 given reaction carried out in a 5 L vessel and
Kc =
[ COCl 2 ]
= 10 =
10 ×10 having equilibrium amounts of A2 and A as 0.5
[CO][ Cl 2 ] 10 × 3 mole and 2 × 10–6 mole respectively?
A
1 3
×
2
10 10 The reaction: 2A
–11
Kc = 3.3 (a) 0.16×10 (b) 0.25×105
–5
343. Two solids dissociate as follows: (c) 0.4×10 (d) 0.2×10–11
A(s) B(g) + C(g); K p1 = x atm 2 J & K CET-(2018)
Ans. (a): Given reaction is– A 2 2A
D(s) C(g) + E(g); K p2 = y atm 2 The total 0.5
Concentration of A2 at equilibrium =
pressure when both the solids dissociate 5
simultaneously is 2 × 10−6
(a) x + y atm 2 2
(b) x + y atm 2 Concentration of A at equilibrium =
5
(c) (x + y) atm (d) 2 x + y atm Equilibrium constant
2
JEE Mains-2019  2 × 10−6 
Ans. (d) : The dissociation reaction of solid are-  
[A]2  5 
A(s) B(g) + C(g) Kc = =
[A 2 ] 0.5
P1 P1 5
and D(s) C(g) + E (g) 4×5
Kc = × 10−12
P2 P2 25 × 0.5
Total pressure of C, PC = P1 + P2 Kc = 0.16 × 10–11
KP1 = x = PB. PC ….(i)
346. Kc for the reaction N2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2NO(g)
x = P1 (P1 + P2)
–6
KP2 = y = PC . PE ….(ii) at 300 K is 4×10 . Kp for the above reaction
y = (P1 + P2)P2 will be (R = 2 cal mol–1 K–1)
Adding (i) and (ii) – (a) 2.4×10–3 (b) 4×10–6
–6 2
x + y = (P1 + P2)2 (c) 4×10 (RT) (d) 16×10–12
Now total pressure AIIMS-[27-May, 2018 (E)]
PT = PC + PB + PE Ans. (b): The reaction is :–
= (P1 + P2) + P1 + P2 N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2NO (g)
= 2 (P1 + P2)
∴ K p = K c (RT) ∆n g
PT = 2 ( )
x + y Ans.
∆n g = no. of mole of gaseous product–no. of
344. 2ICl → I 2 + Cl 2 ;K c = 0.14 mole of gaseous reactant
If initial concentration of ICl is 0.6 M, then ∆n g = 2 –(1+1)
equilibrium concentration of I2 is: ∆n g =0
(a) 0.37 M (b) 0.126 M
(c) 0.224 M (d) 0.748 M So, Kp = 4×10–6 (RT)0
(26 May,2018(M)) Kp= 4×10–6
347. A sample of HI(g) is placed in a flask at a (c) –3RT ln 4X
pressure of 0.2 atm. At equilibrium, partial (d) None of these
pressure of HI(g) is 0.04 atm. What is Kp for BITSAT 2018
the given equilibrium? Ans. (d) : From the relation b/w standard Gibb's free
2HI(g) H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) energy and equilibrium constant-
(a) 0.04 (b) 0.4 ∆G o = −RT ln K p ;K p = (2X) 2 X = 4X 3
(c) 40 (d) 4 o 3
J & K CET-(2018) ∴ ∆G = −RT ln (4X )
Ans. (d): From equilibrium reaction- ∆G o = −RT ln 4 − 3RT ln X
2HI(g) H 2 + I2 350. The relationship between Kp and Kc is Kp = Kc
(RT)∆n. What would be the value of ∆n for the
Initial 0.2 0 0 reaction
At equilibrium 0.2 − 2x x x NH 4 Cl (s) ↽ ⇀ NH 3 (g) + HCl(g) ?
But pressure of HI is 0.04 atm. (a) 1 (b) 0.5
So, (c) 1.5 (d) 2
0.2 – 2x = 0.04 Karnataka-CET-2018
2x = 0.2 – 0.04
Ans. (d) : For the reaction –
x = 0.08
NH 4 Cl(s) ↽ ⇀ NH 3 (g) + HCl (g)
p H2 p I2 0.08 × 0.08
So, Kp = 2 = ∆n
p HI (0.04) 2 ∴ Kp = Kc (RT) g
Kp = 4 So, ∆ng = no. of mole of gaseous product – no of mole
of gaseous reaction
348. What will be the expression of Kp for the given =2–0
reaction if the total pressure inside the vessel is =2
P and degree of dissociation of the reactant is a 351. A + 2B 2C; K = ?
c
? The reaction : N 2 O 4 (g) 2NO 2 (g) 2 moles of each A and B are present in 10 lit
(a) 4a2P/(1+a2) (b) 4a2P/(1–a2) solution. The product C formed 1 mole.
2 2
(c) a P/(1–a ) (d) a2/(1–a) Calculate Kc
J & K CET-(2018) (a) 1.5 (b) 6.67
Ans. (b): The dissociation of N2O4 is- (c) 0.15 (d) 2.3
N 2O4 2NO 2 AIIMS-[27-May, 2018 (M)]
Ans. (b): The reaction is -
At t = 0 1 0
A + 2B 2C
At equilibrium 1− a 2a
Initial mole 2 2 0
Total moles at equilibrium = 1 – a + 2a
=1+a At equilibrium 2 − x 2 − 2x 2x
 1 − a  = 1.5 = 1 =1
p N 2 O4 =  P
 1+ a  As 1 mole of C is formed at equilibrium,
2x = 1
 2a 
p NO2 =   P x = 0.5
1+ a  Number of moles of A at equilibrium
2
 2a  2 = 1.5, B=1, C=1
( )
2
p NO2   P ∴ Equilibrium concentration of A, B and C are -
1+ a 
s∴ Kp = = 1.5 1 1
p N 2 O4 1− a  [A] = ,[ B] = ,[C] =
 P 10 10 10
1+ a 
2 [C]2 [1/10]2
4a P ∴ Kc = = = 6.67
Kp = [A][B]2 [1.5 /10][1/10]2
1− a2
349. For the reaction taking place at certain 352. For NH4HS(s) NH 3 (g) + H 2S(g), the
temperature observed pressure for the reaction mixture in
NH 2COONH 4 (s) 2NH 3 (g) + CO 2 (g), equilibrium is 1.12 atm at 106 o C. What is the
if equilibrium pressure is 3X bar then ∆r G 0 value of Kp for the reaction?
would be (a) 0.56 atm2 (b) 0.3136 atm2
2
(a) –RT ln 9 – 3RT ln X (c) 1.25 atm (d) 1.12 atm2
(b) RT ln 4 – 3 RT ln X AMU-2017

Ans. (b) : The reaction is- 355. The equilibrium pressure for the reaction
NH 4 HS(s) NH 3 (g)+ H 2S(g) MSO4. 2H2O(s) MSO4(s) + 2H2O(g) is π/4
atm at 400 K. The Kp for the given reaction (in
Initially atm2) is
At equil. p p (a) π2/4 (b) π/6
(c) π2/16 (d) π/16
∴ Total pressure (P) = p + p (d) 16/π
1.12 = 2p Kerala-CEE-2016
1.12 Ans. (c) : For the reaction-
or p= = 0.56
2 MSO4. 2H2O(s) MSO4(s) + 2H2O(g)
p NH3 × p H2S
( p )product
x
Kp =
1 Kp =
( p )reactant
y
or K p = 0.56 × 0.56 = 0.3136atm 2
(Where x and y are power over gaseous products and
= 056 × 0.56
reactants respectively)
= 0.3136 atm 2
( p )product
2
= ( p ) product
2
353. The equilibrium constant Kc value for a ∴ Kp =
( p )reactant
0
gaseous homogeneous equilibrium at 227°C is

2
2.05 × 10 –5 mol L–1 . The Kp value in π
Kp =  
atmosphere for this equilibrium at this same 4
temperature is (R = 8.2 × 10 –2 L atm K–1 mol–1)
π2
(a) 5.0 × 10 –6 (b) 8.405 × 10 –4 Kp =
–5
16
(c) 5.0 × 10 (d) 8.405 × 10 –3 356. The Ksp of Ag2CrO4, AgCl, AgBr and AgI are
J & K CET-(2016) respectively 1.1×10–12, 1.8×10–10, 5.0×10–13,
Ans. (b) : Given data, Kc = 2.05 × 10–5 mol/L 8.3×10–17. which one of the following salts will
T = 227 + 273 = 500 K, Kp = ? precipitate last if AgNO3 solution is added to
relation between Kp and Kc is- the solution containing equal moles of NaCl,
∆n NaBr, BaI and Na2CrO4 ?
Kp = Kc (RT) g
∆n
(a) AgBr (b) Ag2CrO4
Q (RT) g = 1 (c) AgI (d) AgCl
∴ Kp = 2.05 × 10–5 (8.2 × 10–2 × 500) NEET-2015, Cancelled
= 8.405×10–4 Ans. (b) : For Ag2CrO4
354. At 400K, in a 1.0 L vessel, N2O4 is allowed to Ag2CrO4 → 2Ag+ + CrO 24−
attain equilibrium, N 2O 4 (g) 2NO 2 ( g ) .At Initially 1 0 0
equilibrium, the total pressure is 600 mm Hg, At time t 1–S S S
when 20% of N2O4 is dissociated. The value of
( 2S) S as S <<< 1
2
Kp for the reaction is
(a) 50 (b) 100 K =
(c) 150 (d) 200
sp
(1 − S)
K sp = ( 2S) S
2
AP-EAMCET – 2016 So,
Ans. (b) : Given that, T=400K, V=1 L, P = 600 mm Hg 1.1 × 10–12 = 4S3
In reversible reaction - S = 6.5 × 10–5
N 2O4 ( g ) 2NO 2 ( g )
Initial mole 100 0 For AgCl :-
At equilibrium (100 - 20) 40 AgCl → Ag+ + Cl–
= 80 S S
∴ Total number of moles = 40 + 80 = 120 Ksp = S2
(p NO2 ) 2 1.8 × 10–10 = S2
∴ Kp = S = 1.34 × 10–5
p N 2 O4 Similarly, for AgBr and AgI is 7.1 × 10–7 and 9.1 × 10–9
2 respectively. Since, solubility of Ag2CrO4 is the highest,
 40 
 × 600  it will precipitate last
Kp =  120 
80 357. The value of Kc for the dissociation reaction
× 600 H 2 (g ) 2H(g) is 2.1 × 10−42
120
Kp = 100 This equilibrium mixture contains mainly
(a) H2(g) 361. Which of the following statements is correct for
(b) H(g) atom a reversible process in a state of equilibrium ?
(c) 1 : 1 molar mixture of H2 and H (a) ∆Gº = – 2.30 RT log K
(d) 1 : 2 molar mixture of H2 and H (b) ∆Gº = 2.30 RT log K
UPTU/UPSEE-2015 (c) ∆G = – 2.30 RT log K
Ans. (a) : For the dissociation reaction - (d) ∆G = 2.30 RT log K
H2(g) 2H (g) Kc = 2.1 × 10–42 NEET-2015, Cancelled
Since, Kc is very small. Ans.(a): A mathematical expression of this
Hence, [ H2] is predominant. thermodynamic view of equilibrium can be described
by the following equation-
358. For a reaction C(s) + CO2(g) ↽ ⇀ 2CO(g) the ∆G = ∆Gº + RTlnQ …..(i)]
partial pressures of CO2 and CO are 4 and 8 At equilibrium, when ∆G = 0 and Q = K
c
atm, equation (i) becomes,
respectively, Kp for the reaction is
(a) 0.5 (b) 2 (c) 16 (d) 4 ∆G = ∆Gº + RTlnKc = 0
J & K CET-(2015) ∆Gº = –RTlnK
∆Gº = – 2.303RT log K
Ans. (c) : Given data: p CO2 = 4 atm, pCO = 8 atm
For the reaction- 362. What will be the value of [OH−]2 in the 0.1 M
C(s) + CO2(g) 2CO(g) solution of ammonium hydroxide having Kb =
1.8 × 10–5?
(p )
2
∴ K p = CO (a) 1.8 × 10−7 (b) 1.8 × 10−6

−4
pCO2 (c) 1.8 × 10 (d) 1.8 × 10−3
(8) 2 AMU-2015
Kp = Ans. (b) : The dissociation reaction of NH4OH is -
4
64 NH 4 OH NH 4+ + OH −
Kp =
4 Initialconc. 0.1 0 0
K p = 16 At equilibrium 0.1(1 − α) 0.1α 0.1α
359. Kp/Kc for the reaction, + −
[NH 4 ][OH ]
∴ Kb =
A(g) + 2B(g) ↽ ⇀ AB2(g) is [NH 4OH]
(a) RT (b) (RT)2 (0.1α)(0.1α)
(c) l / RT (d) l / (RT)2 1.8 ×10−5 =
J & K CET-(2015) 0.1(1 − α)
Ans. (d) : For the reaction:
A + 2B AB2 1.8 × 10 −5 = (0.1)α 2 ......(i) [Q α <<< 1]
∴ K p = K c (RT)
∆n g Now,
∆n g =1 − (1 + 2) = −2 [OH − ]2 = (0.1)2 α 2 = 0.1[(0.1)α 2 ] ......(ii)
So, From eqn (i)and (ii), weget
K p = K c (RT) −2 [OH − ]2 = 0.1 × 1.8 × 10 −5 =1.8 × 10 −6 M
Kp 1 363. Consider the following statements with regard
= 2 to chemical equilibrium –
K c (RT) 1. Equilibrium constant is dependent of initial
360. If Kc is the equilibrium constant for the concentrations of reactants and products.
formation of NH3, the dissociation constant of 2. Equilibrium constant is independent of
NH3 under the same condition will be initial concentrations of reactants and products.
1 2 3. Equilibrium constant for the reverse
(a) (b) K c (c) K c (d) Kc reaction is equal to the inverse of the
Kc
CG PET- 2015 equilibrium constant for the forward
reaction.
Ans. (a) : The equilibrium reaction is- Which of the above statements are correct?
K
N 2 + 3H 2 K 'c 2NH 3 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
c
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
If the equation representing equilibrium constant is SCRA-2015
reversed. The new equilibrium constant is inverse of the
first value. Ans. (b): Application of equilibrium constant is given
as –
1
i.e. Kc' = (i&ii) The value of equilibrium constant is independent
Kc of initial concentration of the reactant and product.

(iii) Let us write equilibrium constant for the reaction, [Products]
H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) Ans. (a) : K c =
[Reactants]
[HI]2 Higher value of Kc, indicates higher concentration of
∴ Kc = .....(i) products which means the reaction goes more towards
[H 2 ][I2 ]
the completion.
The equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction,
366. The equilibrium constant for the reaction, H2(g) +
2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g), at the same temperature is,
I2(g) 2HI(g) is 64. If the volume of the container is
[H ][I ]
K ′c = 2 22 .....(ii) reduced to half of the original volume, the value of
[HI] the quilibrium constant will be
From equation (i) and (ii)– (a) 16 (b) 32
1 (c) 64 (d) 128
K ′c = JCECE - 2014
Kc
Hence, statement is true. Ans. (c) : H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
364. In a closed cylinder of capacity 24.6 L, the For this reaction, ∆ng = 0
following reaction occurs at 27o C. ∴ The reaction and its equilibrium constant is not
affected by change in volume. Moreover, equilibrium
A 2 (s) ↽ ⇀ B 2 (s) + 2C(g) constant depends only on temperature.
At equilibrium, 1 g of B2 (s) (molor mass = 50 g
367. Using the Gibbs energy change, ∆Gº = +63.3 kJ
mol-1) is present. The equilibrium constant Kp
for the equilibrium in atm2 unit is for the following reaction,
(R = 0.082 L atm K-1 mol-1) Ag 2CO 3 (s) 2Ag + (aq) + CO 2-3 (aq)
(a) 1.6 × 10-2 (b) 1.6 × 10-5 the Ksp of Ag2CO3(s) is water at 25ºC is
-3
(c) 1.6 × 10 (d) 1.6 × 10-4 (R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1)
-1
(e) 1.6 × 10 (a) 3.2×10–26 (b) 8.0×10–12
Kerala-CEE-2014 (c) 2.9×10–3 (d) 7.9×10–2
Ans. (c) : Given data : V = 24.6 L, T = 27oC amount of NEET-2014
B2 = 1g, Kp = ? Ans. (b) : ∆Gº is related to Ksp by the equation,
For the reaction,
∆Gº = – 2.303 RT log Ksp
A 2 (s) B2 (s) + 2C(g) Given,
(a − x )
0
x
0
2x
∆Gº = + 63.3 kJ
mass = 63.3 × 103 J
since, at equilibrium, [B2 ] = Thus, Substitute ∆Gº = 63.3 × 103 J
molor mass × volume
R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1 and T = 298K
1
= From the above equation we get : -
50 × 24.6 63.3 × 103 = – 2.303 × 8.314 × 298 × log Ksp
1 ∴ log Ksp = –11.09
= = 0.000813 = 8.13 ×10−4
1230 Ksp = antilog (–11.09)
K c = [C]2 = (2 × 8.13 ×10−4 )2 Ksp = 8.0 × 10–12
368. For a given exothermic reaction, Kp and K'p are
= (16.26)2 × 10−8 the equilibrium constants at temperature T1
= 264.38 ×10−8 and T2 respectively. Assuming that heat of
reactions is constant if temperature range
= 2.64 × 10−6 between T1 and T2 it is readily observed that
∆n g (a) Kp > K'p (b) Kp < K'p
K p = K c (RT)
1
K p = 2.64 ×10−6 (0.082 × 300) 2−0 (c) Kp = K'p (d) K p =
K'p
= 2.64 ×10−6 (24.6) 2 NEET-2014
= 2.64 × 605.16 × 10−6 Ans. (a) : For a given exothermic reaction, Kp and K'p
are the equilibrium constants at temperature T1 and T2
=1597.62 × 10−6 respectively. Assuming that heat of reactions is constant
=1.59 × 10−3 in temperature range between T1 and T2 it is readily
observed that Kp > K'p
≈1.6 ×10−3
365. In which of the following case, does the K ∆H o  1 1 
log 2 =  − 
reaction go farthest to completion if K1 2.303R  T1 T2 
2
(a) Kc=10 (b) Kc=10
T2 > T1
(c) Kc=10–2 (d) Kc=1
So, Kp > K'p (exothermic reaction)
COMEDK 2014

369. In a reaction, A + B C + D, 40% of B has Ans. (a) : For the equilibrium reaction-
reacted at equilibrium; when 1 mole of 'A' was
A(g) B(g) + C(g)
heated with 1 mole of B in a 10 L closed vessel
the value of Kc is Given values-
(a) 0.44 (b) 0.18 Kp = 0.82 atm
(c) 0.22 (d) 0.36 T = 27°C + 273 = 300K
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) -2014 Kc = ? (molL–1)
Ans. (a) : The equilibrium reaction is- R = 0.082 atm mol–1K–1
A + B C + D Now, from the relation between Kp and Kc - we get
∆n
Kp = K c (RT) g
At t = 0 100 100 0 0
or 0.082 = Kc (0.082×300)1+1–1
At eqi. (100 − 40) (100 − 40) 40 40 or 0.082 = Kc × 0.082 × 300
= 60 = 60
or Kc = 0.033
[C][D] 40 × 40 372. At equilibrium, if Kp = 1, then
∴ Kc = = = 0.44
[A][B] 60 × 60 (a) ∆Go > 1 (b) ∆Go < 1
(c) ∆G = 0
o
(d) ∆Go = 1
370. The value of Ksp of CaCO3 and CaC2O4 are UPTU/UPSEE-2013
4.7×10–9 and 1.3×10–9 respectively at 25ºC. If
the mixture of these two is washed with water, Ans. (c) : Given, K p = 1
what is the concentration of Ca2+ ions in water? Since, at equilibrium, ∆G = 0
(a) 5.831×10–5 M (b) 6.856×10–5 M ⇒ ∆Go = 0 – RT ln Kp
(c) 3.606×10 M –5 –5
(d) 7.746×10 M ⇒ ∆Go = – RT ln 1
Karnataka NEET-2013 ∆G o = 0
Ans. (d) : CaCO3  → Ca2+ + CO32− 4.7 × 10–9 ….(i) 373. In the following equilibrium reaction,
S + S1 S 2A ↽ ⇀ B + C
CaC2O4  2−
→ Ca + C 2 O 4 1.3 × 10 ….(ii)
2+ –9 the equilibrium concentrations of A, B and C
are 1 × 10–3 M, 2 × 10–3 M and 3 × 10–3 M
S + S1 S1 respectively at 300 K. The value of Kc for this
On dividing (i) and (ii) – equilibrium at the same temperature is
(S + S1 ) × S = 4.7 ×10−9 1
(a) (b) 6
( S + S1 ) × S1 1.3 × 10−9 6
S 47 1
= = 3.61 (c) (d) 36
S1 13 36
S = 3.61 S1 …….(iii) 1
From (i) :- (e)
24
(S + S1) × S = 4.7 × 10–9 Kerala-CEE-2012
From (ii) :- Ans. (b) : Given that, [A] = 1 × 10 –3
M
(S + S1) × S1 = 1.3 × 10–9 [B] = 2 × 10–3 M
Putting the value of S from equation (iii) we get [C] = 3×10–3 M
4.61 S12 = 1.3 × 10–9 We have the equilibrium reaction is
S12 = 0.281 × 10–9
2A B+C
S1 = 0.281 × 10−9
[B][C]
S1 = 1.67 × 10–5 Equilibrium constant, K c =
[A]2
From (iii):-
S = 3.61S1 = 3.6 × 1.67 × 10–5 By putting all those values, we get
S = 6.02 × 10 –5 (2 × 10−3 )(3 × 10−3 )
2+ Kc =
[Ca ] = S + S1 (1× 10−3 ) 2
= ( 6.02 + 1.67 ) × 10–5 Kc = 6
= 7.69 × 10–5 374. Given the reaction between 2 gases represented
371.For the equilibrium, A(g) B(g) + C(g); Kp = by A2 and B2 to give the compound AB(g).
0.82 atm at 27°C. At the same temperature, its A 2 (g) + B 2 (g) 2AB(g)
Kc in mol L–1 is At equilibrium the concentration of
(R = 0.082 L atm mol–1K–1) A2 = 3.0 × 10–3 M of B2 = 4.2 × 10–3 M of
(a) 0.033 (b) 3.3 AB = 2.8 × 10–3 M
(c) 1.0 (d) 0.33 If the reaction takes place in sealed vessel at
AP EAMCET (Medical) - 2013 527ºC, then the value of Kc will be
(a) 2.0 (b) 1.9 Ans. (d) : Given Kc = 16, [SO3] = ?
(c) 0.62 (d) 4.5 The reaction is–
NEET-Mains 2012 SO2(g) + NO2(g) SO3(g) + NO(g)
Ans. (c) : Given that, Initial concn. 1 1 1 1
A2=3.0 × 10-3 M At equi. 1–z 1–z 1+z 1+z
B2 = 4.2 × 10–3 M 1− z 1− z 1+ z 1+ z
AB = 2.8×10–3 M Molar conc.
1 1 1 1
The reaction is Applying law of mass action-
A 2 (g) + B2 (g) 2AB(g) [SO3 ][ NO] = 16
Kc =
∴ Kc =
[AB] 2
=
2.8 × 2.8 × 10 −6
[SO2 ][ NO2 ]
[A 2 ][B2 ] 3 × 10−3 × 4.2 × 10−3 [1+ z ][1+ z ] = (1 + z) 2
16 =
= 0.62 [1 – z ][1 – z ] (1 − z) 2
375. At room temperature, for the reaction (1 + z) = 16(1 – z)2
2
NH4SH(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g) 1 + z = 4 (1 – z)

(a) Kp = Kc 1 + z = 4 – 4z
(b) Kp > Kc 5z = 3
(c) Kp < Kc 3
z=
(d) Kp and Kc do not relate. 5
J & K CET-(2012) [SO3] at equilibrium is-
3
Ans. (b) : The equilibrium reaction is- ∴ (1 + z) = 1+
5
NH4SH(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g) 5+3
∆n g =
∴ Kp = Kc (RT) 5
∆n g = 2 – 0 8
= = 1.6 m
=2 5
When the value of ∆n≥1 378. For the reaction, 2NH 3 (g ) N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g)
In such case Kp > Kc the units of Kp will be
376. On passing H2S into a solution containing both (a) atm (b) (atm)3
–2
2+ 2+
Zn and Cu in acidic medium, only CuS gets (c) (atm) (d) (atm)2
precipitated. This is because UP CPMT-2011
(a) Ksp of CuS < Ksp of ZnS Ans. (d) : For the reaction,
(b) Ksp of CuS = Ksp of ZnS 2NH 3 (g) N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g)
(c) Ksp of CuS > Ksp of ZnS
p N × p3H (atm) 4
(d) CuS is more stable than ZnS. Kp = 2 2 2 = = (atm) 2
COMEDK-2012 p NH3 (atm) 2
Ans. (a) : H 2S 2H + + S2− 379. A vessel at 1000 K contains CO2 with a
pressure of 0.5 atm. Some of the CO2 is
In acidic medium ionisation of H2S is suppressed due to converted into CO on the addition of graphite.
common ion effect. This decrease the concentration of The value of K if the total pressure at
S2– ions in solution as such Ksp of only CuS is exceeded equilibrium is 0.8 atm, is
resolving in the precipitation of CuS. Ksp of ZnS is (a) 1.8 atm (b) 3 atm
much higher. (c) 0.3 atm (d) 0.18 atm
Since the solubility product of CuS is less than of ZnS, VITEEE- 2011
CuS gets precipitated. Ans. (a) : Given data: T = 1000K, pressure of CO2 =
Ksp (CuS) < Ksp (ZnS) 0.5 atm, P = 0.8 atm
Ksp (CuS) = 8 × 10–37 The equilibrium reaction-
Ksp (Zns) =1.2×10–23 CO 2 (g) + C(s) 2CO(g)
377. The equilibrium constant Kc for the reaction Intial 0.5atm 0
SO 2 ( g ) + NO 2 ( g ) SO 3 ( g ) + NO ( g ) At equi. 0.5 –x 2x
is 16. If one mole of all four gases is taken in a Total pressure at equilibrium
one litre container, the equilibrium = 0.5–x + 2x = 0.5 + x = 0.8
concentration of SO3 would be: ∴ x = 0.3 atm
(a) 0.4 m (b) 0.6 m p 2 CO (2x) 2 (2 × 0.3) 2
(c) 1.4 m (d) 1.6 m K = = = =1.8atm.
p CO2 (0.5 − x) 0.5 − 0.3
p
MPPET-2012
380. For a chemical reaction A + B C, the 2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2SO 3 (g)
thermodynamic equilibrium constant Kp is
Kc
(a) in atm–2 (b) in atm–3 (a) Kp = Kc (b) K p =
(c) in atm–1 (d) dimensionless RT
JCECE - 2011 (c) Kp = KcRT (d) Kp= Kc(RT)2
Ans. (c) : For the reaction, COMEDK-2011
Ans. (b) : The given equilibrium reaction,
A+B C
∆ng = 1 – 2 = –1 2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2SO3 (g)
Kp = (atmosphere)–1 ∴ ∆ng = no. of moles of product – no. of moles of
381. Four moles of PCl5 are heated in a closed 4 dm3 reactant
container to reach equilibrium at 400 K. At or ∆n g = n P – n R = 2 – 3 = –1
equilibrium 50% of PCl5 is dissociated. What is ∆n g
K p = K c (RT)
the value of Kc for the dissociation of PCl5 in to
PCl3 and Cl2 at 400 K? Kc
(a) 0.50 (b) 1.00 or K p = K c (RT) –1 or K p =
RT
(c) 1.25 (d) 0.05 384. If the equilibrium constant for the reaction,
(e) 0.25
Kerala-CEE-2011 H2 ( g ) + I2 (g ) 2HI(g) is K, what is the
equilibrium constant of
Ans. (a) : PCl5 (s) PCl3 (g) + Cl 2 (g)
1 1
At, 400 K, PCl5 is solid HI ( g ) H ( g ) + I2 ( g )?
Vol. 4 0 0 2 2 2
Vol. 2 2 2 1
(a) (b) K
[PCl3 ][Cl2 ] K
Kc = 1
[PCl5 ] (c) K (d)
At high pressure, the PCl3 will be a liquid K
AP-EAMCET- (Engg.) - 2010
2
So, K c = moldm −3 Ans. (d) : Given,
4
Kc = 0.5 mol dm-3 H 2 ( g ) + I2 ( g ) 2HI ( g ) .
382. In the preparation of CaCO from CaCO3 using
Kc =
[ HI]2 .....(i)
the equilibrium CaCO3(s)
CaCO(s)+CO2(s) Kp is expressed as: [ H 2 ][ I2 ]
For the reaction
8500 1 1
log K p = 7.282 − HI ( g ) H 2 ( g ) + I2 ( g )
T 2 2
The complete decomposition of CaCO3, the
temperature in Celsius to be used is K ′c = 2
[ H ] [ I]
12 12
.....(ii)
(a) 1167 (b) 894 [ HI]
(c) 8500 (d) 850 Multiplying equation (i) and (ii) , we get-
AMU-2011
Ans. (b) : In the preparation of CaO from CaCO3 using K c × K ′c =
[ HI]2 × [ H 2 ]1 2 [ I2 ]1 2
the equilibrium. [ H 2 ][ I2 ] [ HI]
CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)
Kp is expressed as K c ⋅ K′c =
[ HI] [from equation (ii)]
12
[ H 2 ] [ I2 ]
12
8500
log Kp = 7.282 −
T 1
For complete decomposition of Kp = 1 K c ⋅ K′c =
K ′c
log Kp = 0
1
( K′c ) =
2
8500
So, log Kp = 7.282 − Kc
T
8500 1
0 = 7.282 − K ′c =
T Kc
8500 385. For the reaction,
7.282 =
T 2A ( g ) + B 2 ( g ) 2AB 2 (g)
T = 1167.26 K
the equilibrium constant, K at 300 K is 16.0. The
T = 1167.26 – 273.15oC p
o
T = 894.11 C value of K p for AB 2 (g) A(g) +1/2B 2 (g) is
383. For the equilibrium, (a) 8 (b) 0.25
(c) 0.125 (d) 32 387. For the decomposition reaction of lime stone,
VITEEE- 2010 the correct expression for rate constant, Kp is
Ans. (b) : For the given reaction, PCaO . PCO2
(a) K p =
2A ( g ) + B2 ( g ) 2AB2 ( g ) PCaCO3
The equilibrium constant, [CaO][CO 2 ]
p2 (b) K p =
[CaCO3 ]
K p = 2 AB2 = 16 …..(i)
p A .p B2 PCaO + PCO2
For the other given reaction, (c) K p =
PCaCO3
1
AB2 ( g ) A ( g ) + B2 ( g ) (d) K p = PCO2
2
The equilibrium constant, UPTU/UPSEE-2010
Ans. (d) : The decomposition reaction of CaCO3 is -
p A .p1/B 2
K ′p = 2
…..(ii) CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)
p AB2
Thus, Kp = PCO2
On squaring eq. (ii), we obtain, As concentration of solid remain unchanged it is taken
p 2 .p as unity.
( K′p ) = pA 2 B2
2
….(iii)
AB2
388. In which of the following reactions Kp > Kc ?
Now, from eq. (i) and (iii), we obtain, (a) N2(g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3(g)
(b) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
K p .( K ′p ) = 1 ⇒ 16.( K′p ) = 1 (QK = 16 )
2 2
p (c) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) PCl5(g)
1/ 2
( K′ ) =  161  1 (d) 2SO3(g) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)

⇒ p ⇒ K′p = = 0.25 UP CPMT-2010
4
Ans. (d): We know that,
386. For the reaction, K p = K c (RT)∆n g
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) at 400 K, Kp = 41.
Find the value of Kp for the following reaction. Where, ∆n g = n p − n r
1 3 (np = number of moles of gaseous products)
N 2 (g) + H 2 (g) ⇌ NH 3 (g) (nr = number of moles of gaseous reactants)
2 2
For K p > K c,
(a) 6.4 (b) 0.02
∆n g > + 1
(c) 50 (d) 4.6
J & K CET-(2010) or np > nr
Ans. (a) : Given, T = 400 K, Kp = 41 In reaction, 2SO3(g) 2SO2 (g) + O2(g)
For the first reaction - np = 3
nr = 2
N2 + 3H2 2NH3
Thus, for this reaction, Kp > Kc.
(p NH3 ) 2
∴ Kp = 389. What is the effect of a ten-fold increase in
p N2 (p H2 )3 pressure on Kp in the reaction
(p NH3 ) 2 N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) 2NH 3 ( g ) at equilibrium?
41 = ....(i) (a) A ten-fold increase (b) A ten-fold decrease
p N2 (p H2 )3
(c) No change (d) Equal to Kc
For the second reaction - AP- EAMCET(Medical) -2010
1 3
N2 + H2 NH 3 Ans. (c): For the reaction-
2 2
N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) 2NH 3 ( g )
p NH3
K 'p = The relation between Kp and Kc is given as-
( )
1/ 2
∆n  where, ∆n= ∑ n P − ∑ n r 
p N2 (p H2 )3 / 2
K p = K c ( RT )  
On squaring both sides −  ∆n=2– 4= –2 

(p NH3 ) 2 or K p = K c × ( RT )
−2
(K 'p )2 = [from equation (i)]
(p N2 )(p H2 )3 Kc
(Kp' )2 = K p = 41 or Kp =
( RT )
2
K p' = (41) 1/ 2
Thus, the value of Kp is depends upon the temperature
= 6.4 atm–1 of the reaction. Hence, no change occure during the
increments of pressure.

390. Calculate Kc for the reversible process given H 2 + I2 2HI
below if Kp=167 and T =8000C. Hence, new equilibrium constant is -
CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) 1
(a) 1.95 (b) 1.85 K ′c =
Kc
(c) 1.89 (d) 1.60
WB-JEE-2010 1
o
=
Ans. (c) : Given, Kp = 167, T= 800 , Kc = ? 0.25
The decomposition reaction of lime stone is - 100
=
CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) 25
∴ K = K (RT)
∆n g K ′
c = 4
p c
∆n g = 1– 0 = 1 394. For the reaction, 2B + A C, the equilibrium

constant is–
Kp
∴ Kc = [A][B]3 [C]
[0.0821 × ( 800 + 273 )]1 (a) (b)
[C] [A][2B]
167
Kc = (c)
[C]
(d)
[A][B]
88.09 [A][B]2 [C]
K c ≈ 1.89
BCECE-2009
391. In an equilibrium reaction, if ∆ng is positive Ans. (c) : We know equilibrium constant of any
then reaction is –
(a) Kc = Kp (b) Kc < Kp [Product]
(c) Kc > Kp (d) Kc = 0 Kc =
[Reactent]
SRMJEEE – 2009
So, 2B + A C
Ans. (b) : As we know the relation between Kp and Kc
is – [C]
Kc =
∆n
Kp = Kc (RT) g [B]2 [A]
If, ∆ng = +ve (Given) 395. One mole of N2O4 is heated in a flask with a
volume of 0.1 dm3. At equilibrium 1.708 mole
Then, K p > K c of NO2 and 0.146 mole of N2O4 were found at
1 1340C. The equilibrium constant will be
392. For the reaction SO 2 + O 2 SO 3 if we (a) 250 mol dm-3 (b) 300 mol dm-3
2 -3
x
write Kp=Kc(RT) , then x becomes (c) 200 mol dm (d) 230 mol dm-3
MPPET-2009
1
(a) 1 (b) – Ans. (c) : Given data :
2 Initially–
1 Mole of N2O4 = 1
(c) (d) 1
2 Volume = 0.1 dm3
WB-JEE-2009 At equilibrium–
Ans. (b) : For the reaction - Moles of NO2 = 1.708
1 Moles of N2O4 = 0.146
SO 2 + O 2 SO3 For the equilibrium reaction–
2
x = no. of mole of gaseous product – no. of mole of N2 O4 2NO2
gaseous reactant [ NO2 ]
2
1  3 1 ∴ Kc =
x = 1 −  + 1 = 1 − = − [ N 2 O4 ]
2  2 2
(1.708mole / 0.1dm3 )
2
393. If the equilibrium constant of the reaction Kc =

2HI H 2 + I 2 is 0.25, then the equilibrium 0.146mole / 0.1dm3
Kc = 200 mol dm-3
constant for the reaction H 2 + I 2 2HI
would be 396. Assertion : For reaction
(a) 1 (b) 2 N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
(c) 3 (d) 4 Unit of Kc = L2mol–2
BITSAT 2009 Reason : For the reaction
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
Ans. (d) : 2HI H 2 + I2 For this chemical reaction
[ NH 3 ]
2
equilibrium constant - Equilibrium constant, K c =
[ N 2 ][ H 2 ]
3
Kc = 0.25
Now the reaction is reveres

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and 399. For equilibrium PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
Kp and Kc will hold the following relationship
Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but (a) Kp = Kc (b) Kp = Kc(RT)
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (c) Kp = Kc/RT (d) Kc = Kp/RT.
Assertion. A.M.U. – 2008
(c) In the Assertion is correct but Reason is Ans. (b) : For the reaction ,
incorrect. PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. ∆n g
(e) If the assertion is incorrect but the Reason is ∴ K p = K c (RT)
correct. Where, ∆ng = np – nr (gaseous moles only)
AIIMS-(2008) ∆n g = 2 – 1 = 1
Ans. (a): For the reaction –
N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) ⇌ 2NH 3 (g) So, Kp = Kc(RT)2–1
Kp = Kc RT
[NH 3 ]2 [mol L−1 ]2 400. What is the equation for the equilibrium
KC = =
[N 2 ][H 2 ]3 [mol L−1 ] [mol L−1 ]3 constant (Kc) for the following reaction?
= mol–1 L2 1 1 T(K) 2
A(g)+ B(g) C(g)
397. The value of equilibrium constant of the 2 3 3
1 1 [A]1/ 2 [B]1/ 3 [C]3 / 2
reaction, HI(g) H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) is 8.0. the (a) Kc = (b) K c =
2 2 [C] 3/ 2
[A]2 [B]3
equilibrium constant of the reaction
H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) 2HI(g) will be [C]2 / 3 [C]2 / 3
(c) K c = (d) K =
[A]1/ 2 + [B]1/ 3
c
(a) 16 (b) 1/8 [A]1/ 2 [B]1/ 3
(c) 1/16 (d) 1/64 UP CPMT-2008
NEET-2008 Ans. (c): The equilibrium reaction is-
1 1 1 1 T(K ) 2
Ans. (d) : HI(g) H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) A(g) + B(g) C(g)
2 2 2 3 3
[I ]1/ 2 [H 2 ]1/ 2 concentration of product
Kc = 2 =8 .....(i) Equilibrium constant (K c ) =
[HI] concentration of reactant
H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) 2HI(g) [C] 2 / 3
Kc =
[HI] 2
[A]1/ 2 B1/ 3
K ′c = ..... (ii)
[H 2 ][I2 ] 401. 1.1 moles of A and 2.2 moles of B are mixed in
From eq. (i) & (ii) a container of one litre volume to obtain the
2 2 equilibrium A + 2B 2C + D.
 1  1 1
K ′c =   =  = At equilibrium 0.2 moles of C are formed. The
 Kc   8  64 equilibrium constant for the above reaction is
398. At constant temperature, the equilibrium (a) 0.001 (b) 0.002
constant (Kp) for decomposition reaction N2O4 (c) 0.003 (d) 0.004
2NO2 is expressed by Kp = (4x2P)/(1 – x2), CG PET -2007
where, P = pressure; x = extent of Ans. (a) : The equilibrium reaction is-
decomposition, which one of the following
statement is true? A + 2B 2C + D
(a) Kp increases with increase of P? t=0 1.1 2.2 0 0
(b) Kp increases with increase of x.
(c) Kp increases with decrease of x. t = t eq 1.1 − 2 2.2 − 2x 2x x
(d) Kp remains constant with change in P and x. At equilibrium -
SRMJEEE – 2008 0.2 = 2x
Ans. (d) : At constant temperature, the equilibrium x = 0.1
constant (Kp) for the decomposition reaction N2O4 [C]2 [D]
∴ Kc =
2NO2 is expressed by Kp =
( 2
4x P ) , where P =
[A][B]2
(1− x
2
) Kc =
(2x)2 (x)
1(2) 2
pressure and x = extent of decomposition. Kp remains
constant with change in P and x. The value of the (0.2) 2 (0.1)
equilibrium constant is independent of the partial Kc =
4
pressure or degree of dissociation.

0.004 (c) The equilibrium constant for the reaction if
Kc = [CO 2 ]
4 given by Kp =
K c = 0.001 [CH 4 ][O 2 ]
(d) Addition of CH4(g) or O2(g) at equilibrium
402. For the reaction, H 2 + I 2 2HI, the will cause shift to the right
equilibrium concentration of H2, I2 and HI are NEET-2006
8.0, 3.0 and 28.0 mol/L respectively. The Ans. (c) : We have the reaction:
equilibrium constant is– CH 4 + 2O 2 CO 2 + 2H 2O(l )
(a) 28.34 (b) 32.66
[CO 2 ][H 2 O]2
(c) 34.78 (d) 38.88 Kc =
BCECE-2007 [CH 4 ][O 2 ]2
Now, H2O is pure liquid, so [H2O]=1
Ans. (b) : The reaction is –
[CO 2 ]
H 2 + I 2 ⇌ 2HI ⇒ Kc = 2
2
[CH 4 ][O 2 ]
[HI]
Kc = Q ∆H r = −170.8 kJ/mol is negative
[H 2 ][I2 ] So, reaction is exothermic by adding O2(g) or CH4(g) at
[28.0]2 equilibrium, by Le Chartelier’s principle, the
Kc = equilibrium shift towards right side.
[8.0][3.0]
405. What is the equation for the equilibrium
784 constant (Kc) for the following reaction?
Kc =
24 1 1 2
A (g ) + B(g ) → C(g )
Kc = 32.66 2 3 3
403. The equilibrium constant for the reaction [A]1/ 2 [B]1/ 3
2NO2(g) 2NO (g) +O2 (g) is 2×10–6 at (a) K c =
[C]3 / 2
185oC. Then the equilibrium constant for the [C]3 / 2
reaction 4NO (g) + 2O2 (g) 4NO2 (g) at (b) K c =
[A]2 [B]3
the same temperature would be [C]2 / 3
(a) 2.5×10–5 (b) 4×10–12 (c) K c =
[A]1/ 2 [B]1/ 3
(c) 2.5×1011 (d) 2×106
(e) 5×105 [C]2 / 3
(d) K c =
Kerala-CEE-2007 [A] + [B]3 / 2
1/ 2
Ans. (c) : The given reaction is: AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2006

2NO 2 (g) 2NO(g) + O 2 (g) Ans. (c) : Given that the following reaction:-
1 1 2
[NO]2 [O 2 ] A (g ) + B(g ) → C(g )
∴ Kc = = 2 × 10 –6
.....(i) 2 3 3
[NO 2 ]2 [ Products ]
Equilibrium constant (Kc) =
Now, 4NO(g) + 2O 2 (g) 4NO 2 (g) [ Reactants ]
The expression of K c can be written as-
[NO 2 ]4
K ′c =
2/3
[C]
[NO]4 [O 2 ]2 Kc =
[A]1/ 2 [B]1/ 3
2
 1 
K ′c =   406. N 2O4 2NO 2 − Q
 Kc  The unit of Kp for the given reaction is
 1 
2 (a) atmosphere (b) atmosphere2
K ′c =  −6  (c) atmosphere −1
(d) None of these
 2 × 10  CG PET -2006
K ′c = 2.5 × 1011 Ans. (a) : N 2O 4 2NO 2 − Q
404. For the reaction Applying law of mass action –
2
(p NO2 )
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) Kp =
∆Hr = –170.8 kJ mol–1. Which of the following (p N2 O4 )
statements is not true ? (atmosphere)2
(a) The reaction is exothermic K p =
atmosphere
(b) At equilibrium, the concentration of CO2(g)
and H O(l) are not equal ∴ Unit of Kp is atmosphere.
2

407. The equilibrium constant Kp for the reaction, 410. For reaction,2NOCl(g) 2NO(g) + Cl 2 (g);K c
H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) 2HI(g) is : -6 -1
at 427°C is 3 × 10 L mol . The value of Kp is
(a) more than one (b) less than one nearly:
(c) equal to Kc (d) zero (a) 7.50×10-5 (b) 2.50×10-5
BCECE-2006 (c) 2.50×10 -4
(d) 1.75×10-4
Ans. (c) : H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) 2HI(g) AIIMS-2005
K p = K c (RT)
∆n g Ans. (d): Given data: K c = 3 × 10 –6
mol L–1
T = 427oC, Kp = ?
∆ng = 2 – 2=0
The equilibrium reaction is-
∴ K p = K c (RT)0 = K c
2NOCl(g) 2NO(g) + Cl2 (g)
408. At 550K, the Kc for the following reaction is 104 ∆n
mol L–1. Now, K p = K c (RT) g
X(g) + Y(g) Z(g) ∆n g = (2 + 1) –2 = 1
At equilibrium, it was observed that So, Kp = 3 × 10–6 × (RT)1
1 1
[ X] = [ Y ] = [ Z] Kp = 3 × 10–6 × (0.0821 × 700)1
2 2 Kp = 1.722 × 10–4
What is the value of [Z] (in mol L–1) at Kp ≈ 1.75 × 10–4
equilibrium?
(a) 2 × 10–4 (b) 10–4 411. Which of the following is true for the reaction
(c) 2 × 10 4
(d) 104 1
CO(g) + O 2 (g) CO 2 (g)
A.P.EAMCET 2005 2
Ans. (a) : For equilibrium - (a) Kp > Kc (b) Kp < Kc
X(g) + Y (g) Z(g) (c) Kp = Kc (d) Kp > Kc
JCECE - 2004
[Z]
Kc = ….(i) Ans. (b) : For the reaction-
[X][Y] 1
1 1 CO(g) + O 2 (g) CO 2 (g)
Given, [X] = [Y] = [Z] , Kc = 10 mol L 4 –1 2
2 2 ∆n
∴ K p = K c (RT) g
1 1
∴ [X] = [Y] = [Z] = v(say)
2 2  1  3  −1
∆n g = 1 −  1 +  = 1 −   =
[Z] = 2v, [Y] = 2v, [X] = v  2 2 2
From eqn (i), Here, ∆n g is < 1
[Z] In such case Kc > Kp
Kc =
[X][Y] 412. For the reaction, 2NO2 2NO+O2, the value
2v of K is equal to K. What will the value of Kp
10 =
4
 K c =10 
4 p
v.2v  for reaction.
v =10 −4 1
−4
NO + O 2  → NO 2
∴ [Z] = 2v = 2 × 10 . 2
1
409. Which of the following is correct for the (a) K (b)
reaction? N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) K
(a) K p= K c 1 1
(c) (d)
(b) Kp < Kc K K2
(c) Kp > Kc JIMPER-2004
(d) Pressure is required to predict the correlation Ans. (c) : For the reaction – 2NO 2 2NO + O 2
UPTU/UPSEE-2005
Ans. (b) : We know that – Kp = Kc (RT) g
∆n
∴ Kp =
( )
( p NO ) p O2
2
( )
2
For, Kp > Kc and KP < Kc p NO2
∆n g > 1 ∆n g < 1
In reaction –
K=
( )
( p NO ) pO2
2
.….(1)
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
( )
2
p NO2
∆ng = 2 – (3 + 1)
= 2 – 4 = –2 1
And, NO + O 2 → NO 2
So, Kp < Kc 2

p NO 2 415. For reaction,
Kp = PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) PCl5 (g)
( p NO ) ( pO )
1/ 2
2 the value of Kc at 250ºC is 26. At the same

Squaring on both sides – we get temperature, the value of Kp is:
(p ) (a) 0.46 (b) 0.61
2
(K ) =
2 NO 2
(c) 0.95 (d) 0.73
(p ) (p )
p 2
NO O2
JCECE - 2003
Ans. (b): Given data: Kc = 26, T = 250oC = 250 + 273
( K ) =  K1 
2
p by equation ….(i) Kp = ? = 523 K
For the reaction,
1 PCl3 + Cl2 PCl5
Kp = ∆n
K ∴ Kp = Kc (RT) g
413. In the reaction, H2+I2---- 2HI ∆n g = 1 – 2 = –1
In a 1 L flask, 0.4 mole of each H2 and I2 are R = 0.0821, T = 250 + 273.15 = 523.15
taken. At equilibrium 0.5 mole of HI are So, Kp = Kc (RT)–1
formed. What will be the value of equilibrium
26
constant, Kc? Kp =
(a) 20.2 (b) 25.4 0.0821× 523.15
(c) 0.284 (d) 11.1 Kp = 0.61
UP CPMT-2004 416. Equilibrium constant Kp of following reaction
Ans. (d) : For the reaction, MgCO3(s) MgO(s) + CO2(g)
H2 + I2 2HI (a) K p = pCO2
Initial moles 0.4 0.4 0 p CO2 × p MgO
No, of moles (0.4 – 0.25) (0.4 – 0.25) 0.50 (b) K p = p CO2 ×
at equilibrium =0.15 =0.15 p MgCO3
[HI]2 p CO2 × p MgO
∴ Kc = (c) K p =
[H 2 ][I2 ] p MgCO3
Given, V = 1 L p MgCO3
∴ [HI] = 0.5/1 = 0.5 mol/L (d) K p =
[H2] = [I2] =0.15/1 = 0.15 mol/L p CO2 × p MgO
NEET-2000
∴ Kc =
( 0.5)2 Ans. (a) : The given reaction is –
( 0.15) × ( 0.15) MgCO3(s) MgO(s) + CO2(g)
= 11.11 p CO2 . p MgO
∴ Kp =
414. In which of the following reactions, the p MgCO3
concentration of product is higher than the But MgCO3 and MgO are pure solids
concentration of reactant at equilibrium? So, Kp = p CO2
(Kc = equilibrium constant)
417. 4.5 moles, each of hydrogen and iodine was
(a) A B; K c = 0.001 heated in a sealed 10 L vessel. At equilibrium, 3
(b) M N; K c = 10 moles of HI were found. The equilibrium
(c) X Y; K c = 0.005 constant for H 2 ( g ) + I 2 ( g ) → 2HI ( g ) , is
(a) 1 (b) 10
(d) R P; K c = 0.01
(c) 5 (d) 0.33
A.P.EAMCET 2004 A.P.EAMCET 1998
Ans. (b) : For a reaction Ans. (a) : The equilibrium reaction is -
Kc =
[ Product ] H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI (g)
[ reactant ] Initially 4.5 4.5 0
At equilibrium (4.5–x) (4.5–x) 3 or (2x)
Hence, If Kc > 1, then, [Product] > [Reactant].
[ HI ]
2
As per option,
∴ Kc =
(a) Kc = 0.001 which is <1 [ H 2 ][ I2 ]
(c) Kc = 0.005 which is <1
∴ 2x = 3
(d) Kc = 0.01 which is <1
3
So, in option (b) Kc = 10 which is >1. x = = 1.5
Hence, (b) is correct answer. 2

Since, (4.5 –x) ⇒ (4.5 – 1.5) = 3 Ans. (a) : Given data: [ H+ ] = 1 × 10–6 mole /L
2 Now, Kw = [ H+ ] [ OH– ]
 3 But [ H+ ] = [ OH– ]
 
Hence, K c =  10  ∴ Kw = [ H+ ] 2
 3  3  = ( 1 × 10–6)2
   = 1 × 10–12
 10  10 
Kc = 1 421. In the equilibrium reaction,
418. For the reaction A(g) + 2B(g) C(g) + D(g), the equilibrium
C ( s ) + CO 2 ( g ) 2CO ( g ) , the partial constant, Kc is given by the expression
pressures of CO2 and CO are 2.0 and 4.0 atm
(a) K c =
[ C][ D ]
(b) K c =
[ C ][ D ]
2
respectively at equilibrium. What is the value

of Kp for the reaction?
[ A ][ B] [ A ][ B]
(a) 0.5 (b) 4.0
(c) K c =
[ A ][ B] 2
(d) K c =
[ C][ D]
(c) 8.0 (d) 32
AP EAMCET (Medical) -1998
[ C][ D] [ A ][ B]2
Ans. (c): For the reaction– AP-EAMCET-1994
Ans. (d) : The equilibrium reaction is given below-
C(s) + CO 2 ( g ) 2CO ( g )
A(g) + 2B(g) C(g) + D(g)
The concentration of solid and liquid are taken as unity
C(s) = 1 The expression of equilibrium constant (Kc) for above
reaction is-
Given– PCO2 = 2.0 atm
Kc =
[ C][ D]
PCO = 4.0 atm
[ A ][ B]2
Kp = ?
422. For the reaction,
[ PCO ]
2
CO(g) + Cl 2 (g) COCl 2 (g), the Kp/Kc is
Q Kp =
 PCO2  equal to
(a) 1/RT (b) RT
( 4)
2
or Kp = (c) √ RT (d) 1.0

2 AIEEE-2004
or K p = 8 atm Ans. (a) : For the reaction -
419. The value of Kp for the reaction CO(g) + Cl2 (g) COCl2 (g)
∆n g
2H 2S ( g ) 2H 2 ( g ) + S 2 ( g ) is 1.2 × 10 at ∴
–2 Kp = Kc (RT)
1065 ºC. The value of Kc for this reaction is ∆n g = 1–2 = –1
(a) 1.2 × 10–2 (b) <1.2 × 10–2 K p = Kc (RT)
–1
–2
(c) 83 (d) >1.2 × 10 Kp 1
AP – EAMCET - (Medical)-1997 =
Ans. (b) : Given that, K c RT
Kp = 1.2 × 10–2 423. For the reaction equilibrium
T = 1065 + 273 = 1338 K N 2O4 (g) 2NO 2 (g)
∆n
∴ K p = K c ( RT ) g the concentrations of N2O4 and NO2 at
Since, ∆ng = no. of mole of gaseous product – no of equilibrium are 4.8 × 10–2 and 1.2 × 10–2 mol L–
1
mole of gaseous reaction , respectively. The value of Kc for the reaction
= (2 + 1) – 2 = 1 is
Putting the value, we get– (a) 3.3 × 102 mol L–1 (b) 3 × 10–1 mol L–1
–3 –1
(c) 3 × 10 mol L (d) 3 × 103 mol L–1
1.2 × 10–2 = Kc [0.082 × 1338]1
BITSAT-2007
1.2 × 10−2
Kc = Ans. (c) : Given data: [N2O4] = 4.8×10–2 mol/L
109 [NO2] =1.2×10–2 mol/L
Kc = 1.1 × 10–4 Kc = ?
Hence, Kc < 1.2 × 10–2 For the equilibrium reaction -
420. At 80ºC distilled water has N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)
[H3O+]concentration equal to 1×10–6 mole/litre.
[ NO2 ] = 1.2×10 –2 ×1.2×10
2 –2
The value of Kp at this temperature will be
–12 –15 ∴ K =
(a) 1×10 (b) 1×10 c
[ N 2O 4 ] 4.8×10
–2
(c) 1×10–6 (d) 1×10–9

Kc = 3 × 10–3 mol lit–1
NEET-1994
424. A vessel at 1000 K contains CO2 with a
Ans. (c) : A 2 (g) + B2 (g) 2AB(g)
pressure of 0.5 atm. Some of the CO2 is
converted into CO on the addition of graphite. Multiply by (3) and reverse the reaction -
If the total pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm, 6AB(g) 3A2(g) + 3B2(g)
the value of Kp is 3
(a) 1.8 atm (b) 3 atm  1 
(c) 0.3 atm (d) 0.18 atm ⇒   = K2
AIEEE-2011  K1 
K 2 = ( K1 )
−3
Ans. (a) : The reaction is - ⇒
CO2(g) + C(s)  → 2CO(g)
Initial pressure 0.5 0 427. For the equilibrium, 2H 2O H 3O + + OH - ,
Final pressure (0.5 –x) 2x the value of ∆G at 298 K is approximately
o
Total pressure at equilibrium = Partial pressure of CO2 (a) -80kJ mol-1 (b) 100kJ mol-1
and CO (c) 80kJ mol-1
(d) -100kJ mol-1
(0.5–x) + 2x = 0.8
JEE-Main-2019
x = 0.3
∴ PCO = 2x = 2× 0.3 = 0.6 Ans. (c) : Given, K= 10–14, T = 298 K
PCO2 = 0.5 − x = 0.5 − 0.3 = 0.2 2H2O H3O+ + OH–
Standard Gibbs free energy is given by,
( 0.6 ) = 1.8 atm
2
P2 ∆Go = –RT lnk
Now, Kp = CO =
PCO2 0.2 ∆Go = −2.303 × 8.314 × 298log10 −14
425. The standard Gibbs energy change at 300 K for ∆Go = 79.88 kJ mol–1
the reaction, 2A B + C is 2494.2 J. At a ∆Go ≈ 80 kJ / mole
given time, the composition of the reaction
428. Equivalent amounts of H2 and I2 are heated in
mixture is [A] = ½, [B] = 2 and [C] = ½. The
reaction proceeds in the 'R = 8.314 JK/mol, a closed vessel till equilibrium is obtained. If
e = 2.718] 80% of the hydrogen can be converted to HI,
(a) forward direction because Q > kc the Kc at the temperature is
(b) reverse direction because Q > kc (a) 64 (b) 16 (c) 0.25 (d) 4
(c) forward direction because Q < kc VITEEE-2007
(d) reverse direction because Q < kc Ans. (a) :
JEE-Main-2015
H2 + I2 2HI
Ans. (b) : Given data: T = 300 K, ∆Go = 2494.2 J
1 1 Initial moles 1 1 0
[A] = , [B] = 2, [C] = At equilibrium (1 − x) (1 − x) (2x)
2 2
For equilibrium reaction -
[ HI] = ( 2x )
2 2
2A B+C ∴ Kc =
[ H ][ I ] 2 2
2
(1 − x )
1
2× Given, x = 80% = 0.80
[B][C] 2 =4
∴ = ( 2 × 0.80 ) = 64
2
Qc =
[A]2 1
2 ∴ K =
(1 − 0.80 )
c 2
 
2
We know, 429. For the reaction,
∆Go = –2.303RT log Kc 3
2494.2 = –2.303 × 8.314 × 300 log Kc Fe 2 N(s) + H 2 (g) Fe(s)+NH3(g)
2
Kc = 0.37 (a) Kc= Kp(RT (b) Kc= Kp(RT)-1/2
Hence, Qc > Kc so the equilibrium will shift in the
reverse direction. (c) Kc= Kp(RT)1/2 (d) K c = K pp (RT)3/ 2
426. Consider the following reversible chemical JEE-Main-2020
reactions, Ans. (c) : For the reaction –
K1
A 2 (g) + B 2 (g) 2AB(g) ...( I ) 3
K2
Fe 2 N(s) + H 2 (g) Fe (s) + NH 3 (g)
6AB(g) 3A 2 (g) + 3B 2 (g)...( II ) 2
∆n g
The relation between K1 and K2 is ∴ K p = K c (RT)
(a) K 2 = K13 (b) K1K2 = 3 3  3 1
∆ng = (1+ 0) –  + 0  = 1 − = −
1  2  2 2
(c) K 2 = K1−3 (d) K1K 2 = –1/2
3 So, Kp = Kc (RT)
JEE-Main-2019 or Kc = Kp (RT)1/2
430. Value of Kp for the equilibrium reaction = 5.01 × 10–9 Pa–1
N 2O 4 (g) 2NO 2 (g) Kc
=
at 288 K is 47.9. 8.3 × 400
The Kc for this reaction at same temperature K c =1.66 ×10−5 m3 / mol
is ...... (Nearest integer)
(R=0.083 L bar K-1mol-1) =1.66 ×10−2 L / mol
AIEEE-2012
433. Consider the reaction, N 2O 4 (g) 2NO 2 (g) .
Ans. (2) : Given data: T = 288 K, Kp = 47.9, Kc = ?
The reaction is – The temperature at Which Kc=20.4 and Kp =600.1,
is ...... K. (Round off to the nearest integer.)
N 2O 4 (g) 2NO 2 (g) [Assume all gases are ideal and R=0.0831L bar,
∆n g
So, Kp = Kc (RT) k-1 mol-1].
Q ∆n g = 2 – 1 = 1 JEE-Main-18.03.2021, Shift-II
∴ Kp = Kc (RT) Ans. (354) : The reaction is–
⇒ 47.9 = Kc × 0.083 × 288 N2O4 (g) 2NO2(g)
⇒ 47.9 = Kc × 23. 904 We have, Kc = 20.4, Kp = 600.1
Kc = 2.00 ∆n
Now, Kp = Kc (RT) g
431. In a chemical reaction,
A + 2B
k
2C + D, the initial concentration
∆ng = 2 – 1 = 1
So, Kp = Kc (RT)1
of B was 1.5 times of the concentration of A,
600.1 = 20.4 × 0.0831× T
but the equilibrium concentrations of A and B
were found to be equal. The equilibrium ⇒ 600.1
=T
constant (K) for the chemical reaction is 1.69524
1 ⇒ T = 353.99
(a) (b) 16 (c) 1 (d) 4 ≈ T = 354
4
JEE-Main-2013 434. The value of Kc for the reaction :
Ans. (d) : A + 2B 2C + D A + 3B 2C at 400° C is 0.5 Calculate the
Initial 1 1.5 0 0 value of Kp
Equi. 1-x 1.5–2x 2x x (a) 1.64 × 10–4 (b) 1.64 × 10–6
At equilibrium [A] = [B] (c) 1.64 × 10 –5
(d) 1.64 × 10–3
1 – x = 1.5 – 2x VITEEE-2019
x = 0.5 Ans. (a) : Given,
∴ [C]2 [D] Kc = 0.5
Kc =
[A][B]2 T = 400°C = 400+273 = 673 K
2
(2x) (x) Kp = ?
Kc = A + 3B 2C
(1 − x) (1.5 − 2x) 2
∆n = 2 − 4 = − 2
1× 1× 0.5
Kc = Kp = Kc (RT)∆n
0.5 × 0.5 × 0.5
Kp = 0.5 × (0.082×673)–2
Kc = 4
Kp = 1.64 × 10–4 atm.
432. The gas phase reaction 2A(g) A 2 (g) at 400 435. For the reaction:
K has ∆Go=+25.2kJ mol-1 The equilibrium 2 BaO 2 (s) 2BaO(s) + O 2 (g);
constant Kc for this reaction is ........×10-2.
∆H = +ve. In equilibrium condition, pressure of
(Round off to the nearest integer).
[Use:R=8.3Jmol-1K-1, ln 10=2.3] log10 2=0.30, 1 O2 is dependent on
atm = 1bar] [antilog (-0.3)=0.501] (a) mass of BaO2
JEE-Main-18.03.2021, Shift-I (b) mass of BaO
Ans. (1.66) : Given reaction is, (c) temperature of equilibrium
(d) mass of BaO2 and BaO both
2A(g) A 2 (g)
VITEEE-2018
Given, ∆G° = + 25.2 kJ Ans. (c) : The given reaction is
= 25200 joule
T = 400 K 2BaO 2 (s) 2BaO ( s ) + O 2 ( g ) , ∆H = + Ve
Using the formula, Pure solids do not change state of equilibrium.
⇒ ∆G° = –RT ln Kp Hence, at equilibrium–
⇒ 25200 = –2.303 × 8.314 × 400log Kp Kp = PO2
⇒ Kp = 10 = 10 × 0.501
–3.3 –3 Only, a change in temperature, changes KP hence PO2
= 5.01 × 10 bar –4 –1 will be affected by increasing temperature.

436. For the reaction
Kp x x Kp
2NO 2 (g) 2NO(g) + O 2 (g), α= = ⇒ =
Kp + P a a Kp + P
(Kc=1.8×10–6 at 184°C) (R = 0.0831 kJ/(mol.K)
When Kp and Kc are compared at 184°C, it is
found that
(a) Whether Kp is greater than, less than or equal
8. Relation Between Equilibrium
to Kc depends upon the total gas pressure Constant (K), Reaction Quient
(b) Kp = Kc (Q) and Gibb's Energy
(c) Kp is less than Kc
(d) Kp is greater than Kc
VITEEE-2017 438. For the process,
Ans. (d) : : Given, Kc = 1.8×10 , T = 184oC–6 3
A → B, at 298 K, ∆G 0 is 163 kJ mol–1. The
R = 0.0831 kJ/mol.K 2
The reaction is- composition of the reaction mixture is [B]= 1
2NO 2 (g) 2NO(g) + O 2 (g) and [A]=10000. Predict the direction of the
Q ∆ng = 2 + 1 – 2 = 1 reaction and the relation between reaction
quotient (Q) and he equilibrium constant (K)
K p = K c ( RT )
∆n g
So, (a) Forwards direction because Q>K
K p = 1.8 ×10 ( 0.0831× 457 ) (b) Reverse direction because Q>K
−6 1
(c) Forward direction because Q<K

K p = 6.836 × 10−6 (d) Reverse direction because Q<K
Hence it is clear that Kp > Kc (e) It is equilibrium as Q=K
437. A moles of PCl5 is heated in a closed container Kerala-CEE-2017
to equilibrium PCl 5 (g) PCl 3 (g) + Cl 2 (g) at a 3
Ans. (b) : For the process, A → B
pressure of P atm. If x moles of PCl5 dissociate 2
at equilibrium, then n
[conc. of product] [B]
1/ 2 Q= =
x K x  K + P  [conc. of reaction] n
[A]3/ 2
(a) =
p
(b) = p 
a Kp + P 
a  Kp  1
Q= = 10−6
1/ 2 1/ 2 [10000]3/ 2
x  Kp  x  Kp 
(c) =  (d) =  Also, ∆G= –2.303RT log K
a  P  a  K p + P  163×1000 = –2.303×8.314×298 log K
VITEEE-2016 163 ×1000 163000
∴ log K = − =−
Ans. (d) : Given reaction - 2.303 × 8.314 × 298 5705.8
PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g)+ Cl2 (g) log K ≈ – 28.57
1−α α α ∴ K = 2.7×10–29
Moles of PCl5 dissociated = x i.e., K < Q means
Moles of PCl5 left = a – x The backward reaction is favoured with Q > K.
moles of PCl3 formed = x
moles of Cl2 formed = x 1
439. In the lnK vs. plot of a chemical process
Total moles = (a+x) T
0
degree of dissociation α =
x having ∆S > 0 and ∆H 0 < 0 the slope is
a proportional to (where K is equilibrium
 1− α  constant)
Pressure due to PCl5 =  P
 1+ α  (a) – ∆H 0 (b) ∆H 0
 α 
Pressure due to PCl3 =  P (c) ∆S0 (d) –∆S0
 1+ α 
(e) ∆G 0
 α  Kerala-CEE-2017
Pressure due to Cl2 =  P
 1+ α  Ans. (b) : We Know that –
X PCl3 .X PCl2 α2 ∆H 1
Now, .P = P log K = log A − .
X PCl5 1 − α2 2.303R T
K p (1 − α ) = α 2 P And, ∆G = ∆H – T∆S = –2.303RT log K
1
K p − K pα = α P
2 2
On plotting the graph between logK and using
T
K p = (K p + P) α 2
straight line equation.

Assertion.
(b) If both assertion and Reason are correct, but
assertion.
(c) If Assertion if correct but Reason is incorrect.
y = mx+c (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
incorrect.
1
log K ∝ AIIMS-(2011)
T Ans. (c): We know that,
If ∆S° > 0 and ∆S° < 0 then the slope is proportional to
aA + bB ⇌ cC + dD
|∆H°|
440. For the equilibrium, [C]c [D]d
Qc =
CaCO3 (s) ↽ ⇀ CaO(s) + CO 2 (g); [A]a [B]b
If Qc > Kc, reaction will proceed in the direction of
K p = 1.64 atm at1000 K reactants.
50g of CaCO3 in a 10 L closed vessel is heated If Qc < Kc, reaction will move in direction of products.
to 1000 K. Percentage of CaCO3 that remains If Qc = Kc, the reaction mixture is already at
unreacted at equilibrium is equilibrium.
(Given, R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1) So, option (c) is correct.
(a) 40 (b) 50 443. Which of the following is a wrong statement
(c) 60 (d) 20 about equilibrium state?
Karnataka-CET-2014 (a) Rate of forward reaction= Rate of backward
Ans. (c) : CaCO3 (s) CaO(s) + CO 2 (g) reaction
Number of moles of CaCO3 present initially = (b) Equilibrium is dynamic
(c) Catalysts increase value of equilibrium constant
50
= 0.5 moles (d) Free energy change is zero
100 CG PET -2009
Kp of the given reaction can be written as – Ans. (c) : Chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature
K p = PCO2 = 1.64 atm which in other words means that reactions continue to
occur in both forward as well as backward direction
PCO2 V with the same speed.
Number of moles of CO 2 =
RT Equilibrium constant has definite value for every
1.64 × 10 chemical reaction at a given temperature. It is
= = 0.2 mole independent of concentration and catalyst.
0.082 ×1000 Free energy change :
Number of moles of CaCO3 unreacted = (0.5 – 0.2) =
∆G = ∆Go + 2.303 RT logQ
0.3 moles.
So, option (a), (b), (d) follows equilibrium state but (c)
Hence, percentage of CaCO3 unreacted =
not follows.
0.3 Hence, option (c) is correct.
× 100 = 60%
0.5 444. The equilibrium constant (K) of a reaction may
441. The equilibrium constant of a reaction is 0.008 be written as
at 298 K. The standard free energy change of −∆G 0 / RT
the reaction at the same temperature is (a) K= e –∆G/RT
(b) K = e
0
(a) –11.96 kJ (b) –5.43 kJ (c) K=e–∆H/RT (d) K = e −∆H / RT
(c) –8.46kJ (d) +11.96 kJ WB-JEE-2009
Karnataka-CET-2012 Ans. (b) : We know that:
Ans. (d) : Equilibrium constant of a reaction = 0.008 ∆G° = –nFE°
Standard free energy change RT
∆ G° = – RTlog K And, E° = log K
nF
= –2.303 × 8.314 × 298 log 0.008
= –2.303 × 8.314 × 298 × (–2.1)
∆G° = –RT log K
= 11962 J/mole K = e–∆G°/RT
= 11.96 kJ/mole 445. The standard emf of a cell, involving one
442. Assertion: Reaction quotient is defined in the electron change is found to be 0.591 V at 250C.
same way as equilibrium constant at any stage of The equilibrium constant of the reaction is (F =
the reaction. 96500Cmol-1)
Reason: If Qc (reaction quotient) < Kc (a) 1.0×101 (b) 1.0×105
(equilibrium constant) reaction moves in direction (c) 1.0×10 10
(d) 1.0×1030
of reactants. UPTU/UPSEE-2008
Ans. (c) : Relation between Keq and Ecell us 448. For the equilibrium
2.303RT H 2O( l ) H 2O(g) at 1 atm and 298 K:
E °cell = log K eq
nF (a) standard free energy change is equal to zero
2.303RT (∆G°=0).
E °cell = log K eq (at 298 K)
nF (b) free energy change is less than zero (∆G<0).
0.0591 (c) standard free energy change is less than zero
E °cell = log K eq (∆G°<0).
n
0.0591 (d) standard free energy change is greater than
0.0591 = log K eq zero (∆G°>0).
n
AIIMS-2004
log Keq = 10 = Keq = antilog 10
Ans. (b): The process –
Keq = 1×1010
H 2 O(l ) ⇌ H 2 O(g)
446. The equilibrium constant of the reaction
Cu(s)+2Ag+(aq) → Cu2+(aq)+Ag(s) is an endothermic process, (∆H = +ve) and entropy
[Given : Eο = 0.46 V] will be increases during this change (∆S = +ve). Hence this
(a) 4×1015 process is spontaneous at all temperatures above 0oC
(T∆S > ∆H), so ∆Go is negative (∆Go = ∆H – T∆S).
(b) 4×1014
Thus, free energy change (∆G) will be less than zero
(c) 14×1015
(negative) at 1 atm and 298K.
(d) 15.6×105
449. The reaction quotient (Q) for the reaction from
AMU-2007
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) is given by
Ans. (a) : The equilibrium constant for the give reaction
[ NH 3 ]
2
can be given as, [Given : Eο= 0.46 V ] Q= . The reaction will proceed
Cu(s)+2Ag+(aq)→ Cu2+(aq)+Ag(s) [ N 2 ][ H 2 ]
3
0.0591 from right to left if

E°= log K …..(i)
n (a) Q = Kc (b) Q < Kc
Where, K = Equilibrium constant , n = Number of (c) Q > Kc (d) Q = 0
electrons. Where Kc is the equilibrium constant.
On putting the values in eqn, ….(i) we get NEET-2003
0.0591 Ans. (c) : The reaction quotient for:
0.46 = log K
n N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) 2NH 3 (g)
0.46 × 2
log K = [NH 3 ]2
0.0591 is given by Q =
[N 2 ][H 2 ]3
∴ K = Antilog 15.6
= 3.688 ×1015 or = 4 × 1015 The reaction will proceed in backward direction, when
Q > Kc. The product concentration is more than
447. The standard emf of a cell, involving one
equilibrium value.
electron change is found to be 0.591 V at 25ºC.
The reactant concentration is less than the equilibrium value.
The equilibrium constant of the reaction is (F =
96500 C mol–1) 450. The equilibrium constant for the reaction,
(a) 1.0×101 H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) is 64 at a certain
(b) 1.0×105 temperature. The equilibrium concentrations
(c) 1.0×1010 of H2 and HI are 2 mol/L and 16 mol/L
(d) 1.0×1030 respectively. What is the equilibrium
[AIEEE 2004] concentration (in mol/L) of I2?
Ans. (c) : Equilibrium at 298 K is– (a) 16 (b) 4
0.0591 (c) 8 (d) 2
E ocell = log K c
n AP-EAMCET-2000
Kc = Equilibrium constant Ans. (d) : Given that, Kc = 64, [H2] = 2 mol/L
Given, E ocell = 0.591 [HI] = 16 mol/L
For the equilibrium reaction–
E ocell × n 0.591× n
Now, log K c = = H2 + I 2 2 HI
0.0591 0.0591
[ HI]
2
log Kc = 10
∴ KC =
Taking antilog both side, we get– [ H ][ I ]
2 2
Kc = 1 × 1010
Substitute values in the above expression– ∆G10 = –2.303 RT log K
(16 )
2
8.314
64 = ∆G10 = −2.303 × × 298 × log10
2 × [I2 ] 1000
16 × 16 = –5.71 kJ/mole
[I 2 ] =
2 × 64 ∆G 2 = −2.303 ×
0 8.314
× 373. × log1000
[I2] = 2 mol/litre 1000
451. For the reaction, A(g) B(g) at 495 = –14.29 kJ/mole
k,∆rG0=-9.478 KJ mol-1. If we start the reaction 453. For the reaction, A(g) 
→ B(g), The value of
in a closed container at 495 k with 22
the equilibrium constant at 300 k and 1 atm is
millimoles of A, the amount of B is the
equilibrium mixture is ........ millimoles (Round equal to 100.0. The value of ∆rG for the
off to the nearest integer). reaction at 300 k and 1 atm in J mol-1 is - xR,
[R=8.314 J mol-1 K-1, ln10=2.303] Where x is ........ .(Rounded off to the nearest
JEE-Main-24.03.2021, Shift-I integer)
(R=8.31 J mol-1 k-1 and In10 = 2.3)
Ans. (20) : ∆G0 = –RT ln Keq
JEE-Main-03.03.2021, Shift-I
–9.478 × 103 = –495 × 8.314 ln Keq
ln Keq = 2.303 = ln 10 Ans. 1380 :
So, Keq = 10 ∆Go = – RT lnkp
Now, A(g) B(g) = –R (300) ln (100)
t=0 22 0 = – R(300) 2 ln (10)
t=t 22–x x = – R (300 × 2 × 2.3)
[B] x ∆G = – 1380 R
o
K eq = =
[A] (22 − x) ∴ x = 1380
x 454. Which of the following lines correctly show the
10 = temperature dependence of equilibrium
22 − x
x = 20 constant, K, for an exothermic reaction?
So, milli moles of B = 20
452. The variation of equilibrium constant with
temperature is given below:
Temperature Equilibrium constant
T1 = 25oC K1=10
T2 = 100oC K2 =100
The values of ∆Ho, ∆Go at T1 and ∆Go at T2(in
KJ Mol-1) respectively are close to [ use R=
(a) A and B
8.314 JK-1 mol-1]
(b) B and C
(a) 28.4,-7.14 and -5.71
(b) 0.64,-7.14 and -5.71 (c) C and D
(c) 28.4, -5.71and - 14.29 (d) A and D
(d) 0.64, - 5.71 and -14.29 JEE-Main-2018
JEE-Main-2020 Ans. (a) : ∆G = –RT lnk
o
Ans. (c) : T1 = 298 K, K1 = 10 As we know that ∆Go = ∆Ho – T∆So

T2 = 373 K, K2 = 100 ∆Ho – T∆So = – RT lnk
For ∆H calculation −∆H o T∆So
lnk = +
K  ∆H  1 1  RT RT
log  2  =  − 
K
 1 2.303R T
 1 T2  −∆H o
∆So
lnk = +
 100  ∆H  1 1  RT R
log  =  −  For exothermic reaction ∆Ho is negative.
 10  2.303 ×  8.314   298 373 
 
 1000  So, In graph of lnk Vs
1
slope is positive.
∆H = 28.4 kJ/mole T
( ) (
For ∆G10 and ∆G 02 calculation ) Hence, line A and B show the correct temperature
dependence of equilibrium constant K.

08.
Ionic Equilibrium
(a) 0.1 M (b) 0.04 M
1. Arrhenius Theory (c) 0.4 M (d) 0.02 M
VITEEE-2009
1. An exothermic reaction X → Y has an Ans. (b) : Given that, pH = 4.8, pKa = 1.8 × 10–5
activation energy 30 kJ mol–1. If energy change Let the concentration of potassium acetate is x.
∆E during the reaction is –20 kJ, then the According to Henderson's equation–
activation energy for the reverse reaction in
pH = pK a + log
[salt ]
kJ/mol is ______. (Integer answer)
JEE Main 26.02.2021, Shift-I [acid ]
x × 50
Ans. (50) : Given an exothermic reaction - or 4.8 = − log (1.8 ×10−5 ) + log
X→Y, ∆H = −20kJ 20 × 0.1M
(Ea)f = 30kJ mol–1 or 4.8 = 4.74 + log 25x
∴ ∆H = (E a )f – (E a ) b log 25x = 0.06
Putting the value of these, we get – 25x = 1.148
−20 = 30 − (E a ) b ∴ x = 0.045M
(Ea)b = 50 kJ/mole 5. In an endothermic reaction A → B, the
2. At 527ºC temperature the activation energy is activation energy is 10 kcal mol-1 and enthalpy
54.7 KJ/mole. The value of Arrhenius factor is of reaction is + 5 kcal mol-1. The activation
4 × 1010. The rate constant will be energy for the backward reaction is
(a) 12.28 × 10–7 (b) 10.76 × 106 (a) 20 kcal mol-1 (b) 10 kcal mol-1
-1
(c) 10 7
(d) 10.76 × 10–6 (c) 5 kcal mol (d) 15 kcal mol-1
AIIMS-25.05.2019 (Evening) Assam CEE-2014
Ans. (c): Given that, T= 527oC = 527+273 = 800K Ans. (c) : Given that, Ea(f) = 10 kcal Mol–1
Ea = 54.7 kJ/mol, A= 4 × 1010, K = ? ∆H = +5 k.cal mol-1, Ea(b) = ?
We know that, ∴ We know that,
K = Ae –Ea /RT ∆H = Ea(f) – Ea(b)
5 = 10 – Ea(b)
Ea Ea(b) = 10 – 5 = 5 kcal Mol–1
log K = log A −
2.303RT 6. Arrhenius equation is :
Putting the value of these, we get -
(a) ∆H = ∆E + ∆n g RT (b) ∆G = ∆H − T.∆S
54.7 × 103
log K = log(4 ×1010 ) − (c) K = Ae − Ea / RT (d) none of the above
2.303 × 8.314 × 800
log K = 10.602–3.57 BCECE-2006
log K = 7.032 Ans. (c) :Arrhenius equation is expressed as
K = 107 K = Ae –Ea /RT
3. Find the correct statement about catalyst. • K denotes the rate constant of the reaction.
(a) It changes the value of equilibrium constant • A denotes the pre-exponential factor.
Kc or Kp. • Ea denotes the activation energy.
(b) It decreases the activation energy of a • R is the universal gas constent.
reaction. • T denotes the absolute temperature associated with the
(c) It changes the enthalpy of a reaction. reaction (in Kelvin).
(d) It is not specific in its function.
7. In terms of Arrhenius equation,
SRMJEEE–2013 − Ea / RT
Ans. (b) : A catalyst is a substance which increase the k = Ae the temperature dependence of
rate of reaction without itself undergoing any permanent rate constant (k) of a chemical reaction is
chemical change. Catalyst provides an alternate reaction written. Then, the activation energy (Ea) of the
mechanism by reducing the activation energy between reaction can be calculate by plotting.
reactants and product. A catalyst does not alter Gibbs 1 1
(a) log k vs (b) log k vs
energy (∆G). log T T
4. 20 ml of 0.1 M acetic acid is mixed with 50 mL
1
of potassium acetate. Ka of acetic acid = 1.8 × (c) k vs T (d) k vs
10–5 at 27°C. Calculate concentration of log T
potassium acetate if pH of the mixture is 4.8. BCECE-2015
Ans. (b) : According to the Arrhenius equation - (a) is negative of Ea
K = Ae –Ea /RT (b) is always less than Ea
Taking ‘ln’ on both side, we get – (c) can be less than or more than Ea
(d) is always double of Ea
lnk = lnA + ln e –Ea /RT UPTU/UPSEE-2018
ln A E a CG PET -2007
lnk = −
C RT Ans. (c) : The activation energy of reverse reaction is
ln A Ea less than or more than activation energy (Ea) of forward
log k = − reaction.
2.303 2.303RT Q ∆H = (Ea)F – (Ea)R,
Because it depends. upon the nature of reaction.
If (Ea)F <(Ea)R reaction is exothermic
or (Ea)F >(Ea)R reaction is endothermic
11. According to Arrhenius equation. The slope of
1
log K vs plot is…..
1 T
Thus, log k vs
T −E a −E a
(a) (b)
8. The reactivity order of halogenation of alkanes 2.303 2.303R
is F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2. Choose the correct −E a Ea
statements. (c) (d)
(I) Lower the activation energy for the chain 2.303RT 2.303RT
initiation step, more reactive is the halogen. MHT CET-2018
(II) Lower the activation energy for the first JIPMER- 2017
chain-propagation step, more reactive is the GUJCET-2014
halogen. Ans. (b) : According to the Arrhenius equation –
(III) Lower the activation energy for the second K = Ae –Ea /RT
chain propagation step, more reactive is the Taking log on both sides, we get–
halogen.
Ea
(IV) More negative is the overall heat of the Q logK = log A–
reaction ( ∆H or of halogenations of alkane) 2.303RT
more reactive is the halogen. −E a 1
logK= + log A
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III 2.303R T
(c) II and IV (d) II, III and IV
BCECE-2015
Ans. (c) : • Lower the activation energy for the first
chain propagation step. More reactive is the halogen.
• More negative is the overall heat of the reaction
( ∆H 0r of halogenation of alkane) more reactive is the
1
halogen. When logK is plotted with , the slope of will be
Hence, both the statement are correct. T
−E a
9. The Arrhenius equation gives the dependence and intercept given by log A.
of the rate constant of a chemical reaction of 2.303R
the absolute temperature and may be expressed 12. The activation energy for a reaction at the
as K = Ae –Ea /RT . If the unit of K is s−1 the unit of temperature TK was found to be 2.303 RT J
A will be mol–1. The ratio of the rate constant to
(a) kJ mol−1 (b) mol−1 Arrhenius factor is
−1 (a) 10–1 (b) 10–2
(c) s (d) K (kelvin) –3
(c) 2 × 10 (d) 2 × 10–2
CG PET-2019
Karnataka-CET, 2010
Ans. (c) : According to the Arrhenius equation–
Ans. (a) : Given, that Ea = 2.303 RT
K = Ae –Ea /RT According to the Arrhenius equation is –
Where, A is the pre-exponential factor. Q Rate constant, k = Ae − E a / RT
The unit of the pre-exponential factor A are identical to
those of the rate constant and will be vary depending on k = Ae–2.303 RT/RT
the order of the reaction. For a first order reaction. it has k
unit of s–1. = e −2.303
A
For the reason, it is often called frequency factor. On solving these equation, we get–
10. The activation energy for a simple chemical
k
reaction A → B is Ea in forward direction. = 10−1
They activation energy for reverse reaction A

13. The activation energy of exothermic reaction Ans. (3) : Given that the solubility product of A2X3 = 1.
A→B is 80 kJ mol–1. The heat of reaction is 1 × 10–23
–200 kJmol–1. The activation energy for the And specific conductance = 3 × 10–5 Sm–1
reaction B→A (in kJ mol–1) will be A2X3(s)  2A+3(aq) + 3X–2(aq)
(a) 80 (b) 120 2s 3s
(c) 40 (d) 200 ∴ Ksp = (2s)2 (3s)3 = 110 × 10–25
(e) 280 or 110 × 10–25 = 4 × s2 × 27 × s3
Kerala-CEE-2007 110 × 10–25 = 4 × 27 (s)5
Ans. (e) : The activation energy of exothermic reaction or s = 1 × 10–5 = M
A→ B = 80 kJ mol–1 λm = [x] × 10–3 Sm2 mol–1
Ea(f) = 80 kJ mol–1, ∆H = –200kJ mol–1, Ea(b) = ? K ×10−3
Q ∆H = Ea(f) – Ea(b) λm =
M
Putting the value of these, we get - 3×10 ×10−3
−5
–200 = 80 – Ea(b) =
or Ea(b) = 200 + 80 = 280 kJ mol–1 1×10−5
= 3 × 10–3 Sm2 mol–1
14. Aqueous solution of which of the following
compound is the best conductor of electric 17. The solubility of AgCl will be maximum in
current? which of the following?
(a) Hydrochloric acid, HCl (a) 0.01 M KCl (b) 0.01 M HCl
(c) 0.01 M AgNO3 (d) Deionized water
(b) Ammonia NH3
(c) Fructose C6H12O6
(d) Acetic acid, C2H4O2 Ans. (d) : If similar ion is present already in solution,
NEET-2015 then the solubility of the salt decreases due to common
ion effect.
Ans. (a) : The aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid So we need to dissolve AgCl having Ag+ and Cl– ions.
(HCl) is the best conductor of electric current as it is a So maximum solubility of AgCl will be in water.
strong electrolyte and its completely dissociated into
ions. 18. The dielectric constants of H2O and D2O are 82
and 80.5 respectively. Therefore, the solubility
of NaCl in D2O is ..... than in water:
2. Solubility and Solubility (a) Equal to (b) Slightly less
Product Constant (c) Slightly higher (d) Very high
Ans. (b) : NaCl is more soluble in H2O in comparison
15. The Ksp for bismuth sulphide (Bi2S3) is 1.08 × to D2O because water is more polar than D2O. Greater
10–73. The solubility of Bi2S3 in mol L–1 at 298 K the value of dielectric constant, greater will be the
is polarity of the solvent.
(a) 1.0 × 10–15 (b) 2.7 × 10–12 Hence the solubility of NaCl in D2O is slightly less then
–10
(c) 3.2 × 10 (d) 4.2 × 10–8 in water
JEE Main-25.06.2022, Shift-II 19. The ionic product of water [H+] [OH–] is
Ans. (a) : Bi2S3  2Bi3+ + 3S2– (a) 10–11 (b) 10–12
–5
2s 3s (c) 10 (d) 10–14
Given that, AIMMS- 25.05.2019, Shift-II
Ksp = 1.08 × 10–73 AP-EAMCET-1993
Ksp = (2s)2 (3s)3 Ans. (d) : The product of concentration of H+ and OH–
= 108(s)5 ions in water at a particular temperature is known as
1.08 × 10–73 = (2s)2 × (3s)3 ionic product of water. The ionic product of water
108s5 = 1.08 × 10–73 is 10–14.
1.08 ×10−73 20. At 90ºC, the concentration of H3O+ in pure
s5 = water is 10–6 mol L–1. What is the value of Kw at
108 this temperature?
s5 = 0.01 × 10–73 (a) 10–6 (b) 10–8
s5 = 1 × 10–75 (c) 10 –14
(d) 10–12
s = 1 × 10–15 mol/L Manipal-2005, AP-EAMCET 1999
16. The solubility product of a sparingly soluble Ans. (d) : Given concentration of H3O+ in pure water is
salt A2X3 is 1.1 × 10–23. If specific conductance 10–6 mole L–1
of the solution is 3 × 10–5 S m–1, the limiting We know that,
molar conductivity of the solution is x × 10–3 S Q Kw = [H+] [OH–]
m2 mol–1 . ∴ [H3O+] = [OH¯]
The value of x is ––––––––. or Kw = 10–6 × 10–6
JEE Main-28.06.2022, Shift-I = 10–12

21. 250 mL of a sodium carbonate solution 25. The solubility of A2X3 is 'y' M. Its solubility
contains 2.65 g of Na2CO3. If 10 mL of this product is ........ M.
solution is diluted to one litre, what is the (a) 6y4 (b) 64y4
concentration of resultant solution? (molar (c) 36y 5
(d) 108y5
mass of Na2CO3 = 106 g/mol). AP EAMCET (Engg.) 17.09.2020, Shift-II
(a) 0.1 M (b) 0.001 M Ans. (d) : For a sparingly soluble salt of molecular
(c) 0.01 M (d) 10–4 M formula A2X3, if solubility in pure water is y M at a
AP-EAMCET-2001 given temperature,
Ans. (b) : Given that, Molar mass of Na2CO3 = 106 gmol–1 A 2 X 3 ⇌ 2A 3+ + 3X 2−
Mass of Sodium Carbonate = 2.65 gm, V1 = 10 mL 2y 3y
2.65 1000 2 3
∴ M1 = × = 0.1 M Solubility product, K sp =  A 3+   X 2− 
106 250
= ( 2y ) × ( 3y )
2 3
Therefore, 10 mL of this solution is diluted to 500 mL
Since, M 1V 1 = M 2V 2 = 4y2 × 27y3 = 108 y5M
0.1 × 10 = M2 × 1000 26. When equal volumes of Ca2+ and F- solutions
0.1×10 are mixed, in which of the solutions
or M2 = = 0.001 M
1000 precipitation will not occur ?
22. If the ionic product of water (Kw) is 1.96 × 10–14 (Ksp of CaF2 = 1.6 × 10-10)
at 35ºC, what is its value of 10ºC ? (a) 10 −2 MCa +2 + 10 −5 MF−
(a) 1.96 × 10–14 (b) 3.92 × 10–14 (b) 10 −3 MCa +2 + 10 −3 MF−
–15
(c) 2.95 × 10 (d) 1.96 × 10–13 (c) 10 −4 MCa +2 + 10 −2 MF−
AP-EAMCET-2003
(d) 10 −2 MCa +2 + 10 −3 MF−
Ans. (c) : Given that, Initial temperature = 35ºC
Ionic product of water (Kw) = 1.96 × 10–14
Ans. (a) : Ionic product of (CaF2) = [Ca2+] . [F–]2.
Ionic product ∝ temperature
Concentration of ions will be halved after mixing.
According to the question, as the temperature is
Thus, ionic products will be
decreasing (from 35°C to 10ºC) so, the ionic product of 2
water also decreases. So the value of ionic product is 10−2  10−5  1 −12
2.95 × 10–15 at 10°C. 1. ×  = × 10
2  2  8
23. Magnesium fluoride MgF2 is a slightly soluble 2
salt whose solubility product KSP = 3.7 × 10–8 10−3  10−3  1 −9
What is the approximate solubility of MgF2 ? 2. ×  = × 10
2  2  8
(a) 9.2 × 10–8 M (b) 1.2 × 10–8 M
–4
(c) 1.4 × 10 M (d) 2.1 × 10–3 M 10−4  10−2  1
2
−8
SCRA-2012 3. ×  = × 10
2  2  8
Ans. (d) : Given that, Ksp = 3.7 × 10-8
2
The dissociation of MgF2 is 10−2  10−3  1 −8
MgF2 ↽ ⇀ Mg 2+ + 2F− 4. ×  = × 10
2  2  8
Let, the solubility product is s. In option (2), (3) and (4), ionic product > Ksp. Hence
Ksp = [Mg+2] [F–]2 option (1) of the solution precipitation will not occur.
∴ Ksp = s × (2s)2 27. If the solubility product of MgF2 at a certain
3.7 × 10–8 = 4s3 temperature is 1.08×10–10, its solubility in mol
3.7 ×10−8 L–1 is
or s3 = = 0.925 × 10–8 (a) 1.04 × 10–5 (b) 7.3 × 10–4
4
s3 = 9.25 × 10–9 (c) 3.0 × 10–5 (d) 3.0 × 10–4
AP EAMCET (Medical) - 2013
or s = 2.1 × 10–3 M
Ans. (d) : The dissociation of MgF2 is given as -
24. Among the following, which is water insoluble?
(a) Sodium fluoride MgF2   Mg 2+ + 2F−
(b) Potassium fluoride Let, the solubility (S) of Mg+2 and F– is then from the
(c) Beryllium fluoride formula of solubility product we get–
(d) Magnesium fluoride Ksp = [Mg2+][F–]2
AP-EAMCET-2007 Ksp = S × (2S)2
Ans. (d) : The solubility of the fluorides is based on the K sp
lattice energy released when there is more attraction and S3 =
4
more is the charge density. Magnesium fluoride (MgF2)
is water insoluble because of the fluorides of alkaline 1.08 × 10−10
S3 =
earth metal are insoluble in water and beryllium fluoride 4
is slightly soluble in water. S = 3×10–4 mol L–1
28. The ionic product of water .......... with increase 1/ 3
2 
in temperature. or S =  × 10−15  ≃ 8 ×10−6 mol / L
(a) remains constant 4 
(b) increases OH −  = 2S = 2 × 8 × 10−6 mol / L
(c) decreases
= 16 × 10–6
(d) may increase or decrease
pOH = − log10 OH − 
Ans. (b) : With an increase in temperature, there is an pOH = − log 16 ×10−6 
increase in dissociation of H2O which gives rise to an
increase ion the concentration of H+ and OH– ions. pOH = 6 − log16 = 4.983 ≃ 5
Hence, the ionic product of water increases with an pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 5 = 9
increase in temperature.
32. The [Ag+] in a saturated solution of Ag2CrO4 is
29. The solubility of AgBr with solubility product 1.5 × 10–4 M. What is the solubility product of
5.0 ×10–13 at 298 K in 0.1 M NaBr solution Ag2CrO4 ?
would be
(a) 7 × 10–6 M (b) 5 × 10–12 M (a) 3.375 × 10−12 M 3 (b) 1.6875 × 10−10 M 3
–14
(c) 5 × 10 M (d) 5 × 10–6 M (c) 1.6875 × 10 −11 M 3 (d) 1.6875 × 10−12 M 3
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-I SCRA - 2009
+ –4
Ans. (b) : Let, the solubility of AgBr be S mol/L. Ans. (d) : Given that, [Ag ]=1.5×10 M
AgBr ⇌ Ag + + Br − 1.5
So, CrO 24−  = × 10−4 M
Hence, [Ag+] [Br–] = 5 × 10–13 2
Given that, [Br–] = 0.1 Reaction : Ag 2 CrO 4  2Ag + + CrO 24−
Q Ksp = [Ag+] [Br–] 2
5.0 × 10–13 = [Ag+] × 0.1 Q K sp =  Ag +  CrO 42− 
or [Ag+] = (5 × 10–13) / 0.1 = 5 × 10–12M
2 1.5
It means solubility in NaBr is 5 × 10–12. K sp = (1.5 × 10−4 ) × × 10−4
30. If the molar solubility (in mol.L–1) of a 2
sparingly soluble salt AB4 is 'S', and the = 2.25 × 10−8 × 0.75 × 10 −4
corresponding solubility product is 'Ksp', then S = 1.6875 × 10 −12 M 3
in terms of Ksp is given by the relation ––––– 33. The Solubility of AgBr(s) having solubility
1/ 4 1/ 5
 K sp   K sp  product 5 × 10–10 in 0.2 M NaBr solution equals
(a) S =   (b) S =   (a) 5 × 10 –10 M (b) 25 × 10 –10 M
 256   256 
(c) S = (256 Ksp)1/5 (d) S = (128 Ksp)1/4 (c) 0.5 M (d) 0.002 M
AP EAPCET 25.08.2021, Shift-II AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-I
Ans. (b) : AB4 (aq)  A +4 + 4B– Solubility product Ksp of AgBr(s) = 5 × 10 –10
S 4S
The molar solubility (in mol/lit.) of a sparingly soluble Conc. of NaBr = 0.2 M
salt AB4 is 'S'. The corresponding solubility product is AgBr(s)  Ag+ (s) + Br –
Ksp ∴ Ksp = 5 × 10 –10
Q Ksp = [A+4] [B–]4 Ksp = [Ag+] [Br–]
Ksp = S (4S)4 = 256 S5
Hence, the molar solubility is 5 × 10 –10
S=
1/ 5 0.2
K  S = 25 × 10 –10 M
S =  sp 
 256  34. If the concentration of Ag+ ions in the saturated
31. The solubility product of Ni(OH)2 at 298 K is solution of Ag2CO3 is 1.20 × 10–4 mol. L–1. then
2×10-15mol3dm-9. The pH value if, its aqueous find the solubility product of Ag2CO3.
and saturated solution is (a) 5.30 × 10–12 (b) 4.50 × 10–11
–12
(a) 5 (b) 7.5 (c) 2.66 × 10 (d) 6.90 × 10–12
(c) 9 (d) 13 AP EAPCET 24.08.2021, Shift-I
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 17.09.2020 Shift-I Ans. (d) : Given that, [Ag+] = 1.20 × 10–4 mol. L–1
Ans. (c) : Ni(OH) 2 ⇌ Ni 2+ + 2OH − Silver carbonate dissociates as follows –
S 2S
2
Ag 2 CO3 → 2Ag + + CO32–
2+ −
Q K sp =  Ni   OH  Let the solubility is S. The solubility of silver will be 2s
= S × ( 2S ) = 4S3
2 as two moles ion are dissociated –
K sp = [Ag + ]2 CO32– 
2 × 10−15 ( mol / L ) = 4S3
3
K sp = ( 2S) ( S )
2
2 × 10 −15 mol3dm −9 = 4S3
Ksp = 4S3 2.2 × 10–16 × 10 –3
or S2 = = 0.354 × 10 –9
( )
3
K sp = 4 × 1.20 ×10 –4
6.2 × 10 –10
or S2 = 3.54 × 10 –10
K sp = 6.91× 10 –12
or S = 1.9 × 10–5
35. If the solubility of an electrolyte is S, then what 38. From the graph, the value of Henry’s constant
is the solubility product of the electrolyte of the for the solubility of HCl gas in cyclohexane is
type A3B2?
(a) 6S3 (b) 27S5
5
(c) 108S (d) 36S5
COMEDK-2016
2+
Ans. (c) : A 3 B2  3A + 2B 3–
3S 2S
Q Ksp=[A2+]3 [B3–]2 .....(i)

If, S = solubility of A3B2, then [A2+]=3S; [B3–]=2S
Putting the value of these in equation (i), we get–
Therefore, Ksp = (3S)3×(2S)2
= 27S3 ×4S2
= 108 S5
36. The solubility of AgCl at 20°C is 1.435×10–5 gL–1.
The solubility product of AgCl is
(a) 2×10–16 (b) 108×10–3
–14
(c) 1.0×10 (d) 1.035×10–5
COMEDK-2018 (a) 10 k torr (b) 100 torr
Ans. (c) : Solubility of AgCl = 1.435×10–5 gL–1 (c) 50 torr (d) 2.4 × 102 torr
[Molecular weight of AgCl=143.5] TS-EAMCET 09.08.2021, Shift-I
We know that solubility of AgCl in moles Ans. (a) : According to Henry's law, "The partial
AgCl  Ag + + Cl − pressure of the gas in vapour phase (vapour pressure of
+ − the solute) is directly proportional to the mole fraction
K sp = [Ag ][Cl ] (X) of the gaseous solute in the solution at low
Ksp = (s)2 concentration. This statement is known as Henry's law.
Q S=
(1.435 ×10 ) = 1×10–7
–5 Psolute ∝ Xsolute in solution
Psolute = kHXsolute in solution
143.5 Where, kH = Henry's constant
Therefore solubility product of AgCl = S2 The slope of the straight line gives the value of kH.
Ksp = (1×10–7)2 = 1×10–14 . 50
37. The solubility of AgCN in a buffer solution of ∴ tan θ = k H =
0.005
pH = 3 is x. The value of x is :
50000
[Assume : No cyano complex is found; = = 10000
Ksp(AgCN) = 2.2 × 10 and Ka (HCN) = 6.2 ×
–16 5
10–10] k H = 10 k torr
(a) 0.625 × 10–6 (b) 1.6 × 10–6
39. Two salts A2X and MX have the same value of
(c) 2.2 × 10–16 (d) 1.9 × 10–5 solubility product of 4.0×10-12. The ratio of
JEE Main 25-02-2021, Shift-I
S ( A2X )
Ans. (d) :Given : Ksp (AgCN) = 2.2 × 10–16 their molar solubilities i.e. = ______
Ka(HCN) = 6.2 × 10–10 S ( MX )
The solubility of AgCN in a buffer solution of pH = 3 (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
Let, solubility is S then, JEE Main 16.03.2021, Shift-I
–12
sp(A2X) = Ksp(MX) = 4 × 10
+
AgCN    Ag + CN
  – Ans. (50) : Given that, K
+ 2−
Ksp = S × S = S2 .....(i) For   2A + X
A 2 X  
1 1 K sp = ( 2S ) × ( S )
2
H + + CN –  
  HCN , K= =
K a 6.2 × 10 –10
K sp 4 ×10−12
1 + [HCN] or S3 = = = 10−12
Therefore, K sp × = [Ag ][CN ] + –
4 4
Ka [H ][CN − ]
or S ( A 2 X ) = 10−4 .....(i)
1 S× S
or 2.2 ×10 –16 × = + −
6.2 ×10 –10 10 –3 Now, for MX    M + X
Q K sp = S × S

43. The solubility product (Ksp) of the following
or S = 4 ×10−12 = 2 × 10−6
compounds are given at 25°C.
S( A2X ) 10 −4 Compound Ksp
Therefore, =
S ( MX ) 2 ×10 −6 AgCl 1.1×10-10
AgI 1.0×10-16
S( A2X ) 4.0×10-14
or = 50 PbCrO4
S ( mX ) Ag2CO3 8.0×10-12
40. The solubility of Ca(OH)2 in water is : The most soluble and least soluble compounds
[Given : The solubility product of Ca(OH)2 in are respectively.
water = 5.5 × 10 ] –6 (a) AgCl and PbCrO4 (b) AgI and Ag2CO3
(a) 1.11 × 10 –2
(b) 1.11 × 10 –6 (c) AgCl and Ag 2 CO 3 (d) Ag2CO3 and AgI
–2 –6
(c) 1.77 × 10 (d) 1.77 × 10 KEAM-2011
+ −
JEE Main 25.02.2021, Shift-II Ans. (d): (i) AgCl  → Ag (aq) + Cl (aq)
Ans. (a) : Given: Ksp = 5.5×10–6 KSp = [Ag ][Cl− ]
+
Let, the solubility of Ca(OH)2 in water is S,
= S× S
Ca(OH) 2  Ca 2 + + 2OH −
Given, Ksp = 1.1× 10−10
( S) ( 2S)
Ksp = [Ca2+] . [ OH¯]2 1.1× 10−10 = S2
Ksp = (S)1 × (2S)2 S = 1.04 × 10 −5 mol L–1
5.5×10–6 = 4S3 (ii) AgI  → Ag + + I−
1/ 3
 5.5 × 10−6  Ksp = [Ag + ][I − ]
S= 
 4  = S× S
–2
S = 1.11 × 10 Ksp = S2 = 1× 10 −16
41. Which of the following has maximum solubility S = 1 × 10 −8 mol L–1
at low pH?
(a) NH4Cl (b) NaCl (iii) PbCrO 4  → Pb 2 + + CrO 24 −
(c) Na3PO4 (d) Sr(OH)2 S S
AIIMS-25.05.2019 (Morning) K Sp = [Pb 2 + ][CrO 24 − ]
Ans. (d):Maximum solubility at low pH means in acidic = S S
solution get dissolve in high amount as OH-get K sp = S2
neutralize by H+.
So, Sr(OH)2  → Sr 2 + + 2OH − 4 × 10 −14 = S2
Hence Sr(OH)2 has maximum solubility at low pH. S = 2 × 10 −7 mol L−1
42. At 25°C, the solubility product of Mg (OH)2 is → 2Ag + + CO32−
(iv) Ag 2 CO3 
1.0×10–11. At which pH, will Mg2+ ions start Ksp = [Ag + ][CO32− ]
precipitating in the form of Mg(OH)2 from a
solution of 0.001 M Mg2+ ions? = [2S]2 . [S]
(a) 9 (b) 10 Ksp = 4S5
(c) 11 (d) 8 8 × 10–12 = 4S5
AIEEE-2014, 2010 S = 1.26 × 10 −4 mol L−1
Ans. (b): Given that, Ksp of Mg(OH)2 = 1.0×10−11 Hence, Ag2CO3are most soluble end AgI are least Soluble).
Solution molarity is = 0.001 44. Why only As3+ gets precipitated as As2S3 and
Mg(OH) 2  → Mg 2+ + 2OH − not Zn2+ as ZnS when H2S is passed through an
Moles of Mg(OH)2= Moles of [Mg2+] acidic solution containing As3+and Zn2+ ?
Q K sp = [Mg 2+ ] ×[OH − ]2 (a) Solubility product of As2S3 is less than that of
ZnS.
1.0 × 10 −11 = 0.001× [OH −1 ]2 (b) Enough As3+ are present in acidic medium.
1.0 ×10−11 (c) Zinc salt does not ionise in acidic medium.
[OH − ]2 = = 1.0 × 10−8 M (d) Solubility product changes in presence of an
0.001
[OH–] = 10–4 M acid.
JIPMER-2018
10−14 10−14
H+ = −1
= −4 = 10−10 M Ans. (a): Solubility product of As2S3 is less than that of
[OH ] 10 ZnS because As3+ gets precipitated as As2S3 and not
pH = − log[H]+ Zn2+ as ZnS. When H2S is passed through an acidic
solution containing As3+ and Zn2+ which means for
pH= − log[10]−10 As3+. Solubility product is less than the ionic product.
pH = 10 Therefore, only As3+ form a precipitate.

45. Solubility product of a salt AB is 1×10–8 M2 in a Ag2SO4  2Ag + SO 24−
solution in which the concentration of A+ ions is
∴ Ksp = (2S)2(S) = 4S3
10–3 M. The salt will precipitate when the
concentration of B– ions is kept K sp 10−5
(a) Between 10–8 M to 10–7 M ∴ Solubility of Ag 2SO 4 = 3 = 3
4 4
(b) Between 10–7 M to 10–8 M
= 1.4 × 10–2 mol/L
(c) > 10–5 M
(d) < 10–8 M Least solubility is of BaSO4, hence it will precipitate
first.
KCET-2006
Ans. (c): Given that, Ksp of AB concentration of A+ = 48. The solubility of CuBr is 2 × 10-4 mol/L at
10–3M 25°C. The Ksp value of CuBr is
K sp = 1× 10−8 (a) 4 × 10−8 mol 2 L−2 (b) 4 × 10−4 mol 2 L−2
+ − (c) 4 × 10 −11 mol2 L−2 (d) 4 × 10−15 mol 2 L−2
AB  
  [A ][B ] AIPMT-2000
[10 −3 ][B− ] Ans. (a): CuBr(S)    Cu +
+ Br −
The salt will be precipitated, if ionic product > Ksp t = 0 S 0 0

10–3 [B–] > 1×10–8 t' = t S S
10−8 Q Ksp = [Cu+] . [Br¯]
[B–] > −3
10 = [S] . [S]
[B–] > 10–5M Ksp = [S]2
46. The solubility of PbF2 in water at 25°C is ≈10-3 = (2 × 10–4)2
M. What is its solubility in 0.05 M NaF = 4 × 10 –8 mol2 L–2
solution? Assume the later to be fully ionised. 49. At 80°C, distilled water has (H3O+)
(a) 1.6×10 M -6
(b) 1.2×10 M-6
concentration equal to 1×10-6 mol/litre. The
-5 -4 value of Kw, at this temperature will be
(c) 1.2×10 M (d) 1.6×10 M
AIPMT-2009 (a) 1×10-6 (b) 1×10-12
-9
Ans. (a): Solubility of PbF2 ≈ 10–3M (c) 1×10 (d) 1×10-15
PbF2  Pb2+ + 2F¯ AIPMT-1994
2+ 2
Ksp = [Pb] . [F¯] Ans. (b): The distilled water is neutral with equal
2 concentrations of hydrogen ion and hydroxide ion.
S × 2S
Ksp = 4S3 Whatever the temperature may be water will always
= 4 ×(10–3)3 dissociate to give equal concentration of H+ ion and OH-
Ksp = 4 × 10–9 that it will be always be neutral
In 0.05 NaF We have 0.05 of F– ion contributed by NaF Hence, Kw = [H + ][OH −1 ]
If the solubility of PbF2 in this solution is S then total
[F–] = [2S + 0.05]M = [1× 10−6 ][1 ×10 −6 ]
Ksp = S[2S + 0.05]2 Kw = 1×10-12
50. If the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is 1.9×10–15, the
Assuming 2S<< 0.05
molar solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 1.0 M NaOH is
4 × 10 −9 = S × 25 × 10 −4 (a) 1.9×10–18M (b) 1.9×10–13M
−5 −6
S = 0.16 × 10 M = 1.6 × 10 M (c) 1.9×10 M –15
(d) 1.9×10–14M
+ 2+
47. On adding 0.1 M solution each of [Ag ], [Ba ], AP-EAMCET (Engg.) - 2014
[Ca2+] in a Na2SO4 solution, species first Ans. (c) : Given, [OH–] = 1M, Ksp = 1.9 × 10–15
precipitated is Let the molar solubility of Ni(OH)2 = S
[KspBaSO4 = 10–11, KspCaSO4 = 10–6, KspAg2SO4 [Ni(OH)2]  Ni2+ + 2OH–
= 10–5]
(a) Ag2SO4 (b) BaSO4 ∴ Ksp = [Ni+2][OH–]2
(c) CaSO4 (d) All of these 1.9×10–15 = S×(1.0)2
AIPMT-2008 S = 1.9×10–15M
Ans. (b): Given, Ksp of BaSO4 = 10–11 51. A saturated solution of H2S in 0.1 M HCl at
Ksp of Ag2SO4 = 10 –5 25°C contains S2– ion concentration of 10–23 mol
Ksp of CaSO4 = 10 –6 L–1. The solubility product of some sulphides
are CuS=10–44, FeS = 10–14, MnS = 10–15, CdS =
Solubility of BaSO4 = K sp = 10−11 –25
10 . If 0.01 M solution of these salts in 1M
= 3.16 × 10–6 mol/L HCl are saturated with H2S, which of these will
be precipitated?
Solubility of CaSO4 = K sp = 10−6 (a) All (b) All except MnS
= 1.0 × 10–3 mol/L (c) All except MnS and FeS (d) Only-CuS
Dissociation of Ag2SO4 occurs as follows : VITEEE-2015

Ans. (c) : Given [S2–] = 10–23 mol L–1 Ksp(MgCO3) = (y)(x + y) .....(ii)
[M2+] = 10–2M K sp (PbCO 3 ) (x).(x + y)
Ionic product, Kw = [M2+] [S2–] =
–2 –23 K sp (MgCO3 ) y(x + y)
= 10 × 10
–25 −15
= 10 1.5 × 10 x
So, ionic product is greater than Ksp of CuS and CdS. −15
= ⇒ x = 1.5y
1× 10 y
52. The solubility product of Ag 2CrO 4 is Putting the value of X in equation (i), we get–
32 × 10 –12. What is the concentration of 1.5 ×10 −15 = 1.5y(1.5y + y)
CrO 4−2 ions in that solution? = 1.5y(2.5y)
(a) 2 × 10–4 M (b) 16 × 10–4 M = 3.75y2
–4 –8
(c) 8 × 10 M (d) 8 × 10 M
VIEEE-2014 1.5 × 10−15
–12
y=
Ans. (a) : Given, Ksp of Ag2CrO4 = 32 × 10 3.75
Ksp = [2Ag+] . [CrO42–] y = 2 × 10−8
= [2S]2 . [S] Then, x = 1.5y
Ksp = 4S3
 K sp 
1/ 3
= 1.5 × 2 × 10 −8 , x = 3 × 10 −8 m
∴ S=  55. The solubility of pure oxygen in water at 20oC
 4 
and 1.0 atmosphere pressure is 1.38 × 10–3
−12 1/ 3
 32 ×10  mole/litre. What will be the concentration of
S=  oxygen at 20oC and partial pressure of 0.21
 4  atmosphere?
S = ( 8 ×10−12 )
1/ 3
(a) 2.9 × 10–4 mole/litre (b) 5.8 × 10–4 mole/litre
S = 2 × 10 −4 M. (c) 7.6 × 10–4 mole/litre (d) 11.6 × 10–4 mole/litre
AMU-2018
53. What will be solubility of KAl(SO4)2 in water if Ans. (a) : The solubility of gas in liquid at particular
solubility product (Ksp) for KAl(SO4)2 is temperature is given by Henrys law is –
1.6 × 10–11 (unit)? ma = KHPa .....(i)
(a) 6×10–5 M (b) 3×10–4 M Where m a = mass of gas dissolved in a unit volume of
(c) 2×10–6 M (d) 1.4×10–3 M solvent.
AMU-2019 Pa = pressure of the gas in equilibrium
Ans. (d) : Given that, Ksp = 1.6 × 10–11 KH = Henry's Law constant
KAl(SO 4 ) 2    S K +
+ Al 3+
+ 2SO 2− On putting the given values in above expression.
4
S 2S 1.38 × 10−3 mol / l = K H ×1atm
K sp = [K + ][Al3+ ][SO 4 2 ]2
1.38 × 10−3 mol / L
= S × S × 2S2 KH =
1atm
Ksp = 4S4
1/ 4
At 0.21 atm m a will be calculated as
 1.6 × 10−11  1.38 × 10 −3
mol / L
S=  ma = × 0.21atm
 4  1atm
= (4 ×10 −12 )1/ 4 ma = 2.9 × 10 −4 mol / L.
−3
S = 1.4 × 10 56. What is the value of Ksp for Bismuth sulphide
54. The Ksp of PbCO3 and MgCO3 are 1.5 × 10–15 (Bi2S3), Which has solubility of 1.0×10–15 mol/L
and 1 × 10 –15
respectively at 298 K. The at 25oC?
2+
concentration of Pb ions in a saturated (a) 1.08 × 10–73 (b) 1.08 × 10–74
–72
solution containing MgCO3 and PbCO3 is (c) 1.08 × 10 (d) 1.08 × 10–75
–8 –8
(a) 1.5 × 10 M (b) 3 × 10 M AMU-2016
(c) 2 × 10–8 M (d) 2.5 × 10–8 M Ans. (a) : Given that, S = 1 × 10–15
AMU-2018 3+ 2−
Bi 2S3    2Bi (aq) + 3S (aq)
Ans. (b) :
PbCO3  → Pb +2 + CO3−2 K sp = [Bi3+ ]2 [S2 − ]3
2S 3S
t=0 x 0 0 Ksp = 2×(1×10–15)×3(1×10–15)
t' = t 0 x x +y Ksp = ( 2 × 10–15)2 ×(3 × 10–15)3
MgCO3  → Mg 2+ + CO3−2
= (4 × 10−30 ) × ( 27 × 10−45 )
t=0 y 0 0
t' = t 0 y y+x = 108 × 10−75
Ksp(PbCO3) = (x)(x + y) .....(i) Ksp = 1.08 × 10−73

57. What is the minimum volume of water 2+ −
required to dissolve 1 g of calcium sulphate at Initially
  1sP + 2r0
Pr2  
298 K? Ksp for CaSO4 is 9.0 × 10–6 Ans. (c) : After 80% (1− 0.80 ) 0.80 s 2 × 0.80S
–1 Ionization = 0.20s = 1.60s

(Molar mass of CaSO4 = 136 g mol )
(a) 2.45 L (b) 4.08 L Solubility product,
(c) 4.90 L (d) 3.00 L
AMU-2015 K sp = [P 2+ ] [r − ]2
= [s] [2s]2
Ans. (a) : CaSO 4 → Ca 2 + + SO 42 −
K sp =  Ca 2 +  SO 42 −  K sp = [0.80s] ⋅ [2 × 0.80s]2
Ksp = S2 Ksp = 2.048s3
9.0 × 10–6 = S2 61. The precipitate of calcium fluoride
S = 9.0 ×10−6 (Ksp= 1.7×10–10) is obtained when equal volume
–3
= 3.0 × 10 mol/L of the following are mixed.
Given, molecular mass = 136 g mol–1 (a) 0.001 M Ca2+ + 0.00001 M F–
–3
Solubility of CaSO4 = 3.0 × 10 × 136 g/L = 0. 408 g/L (b) 10–5 M Ca2++ 10–3 M F–
∴ To dissolve 0.408 of CaSO4, water requires = 1L (c) 10–2 M Ca2++ 10–3 M F–
∴ To dissolve 1 gm of CaSO4, water requires = (d) 10–4 M Ca2++ 10–4 M F–
1 AMU-2008
L
0.408 Ans. (c) : For precipitation to occur ionic product >
= 2.45 L solubility product.
2+ –
58. What will be solubility product of Ca(OH)2 if CaF2     Ca + 2F
its solubility is 3 ? for (a) [Ca2+] × [F–]2 = 10–3 4×(10–5)2
(a) 3 (b) 3 3 =1/4[16 × 10–13] = 4 × 10–13
(c) 12 3 (d) 27 (b) [Ca ][F ] = 1/4[10–5×(2×10–3)2]
2+ – 2
AMU-2014 = 1/4[4×10–11] = 10–11

− (c) [Ca ][F ] = 1/4[10–2×(2×10–3)2]
2+ – 2
2+
Ans. (c) : Ca(OH)2    Ca + 2O H
  = 1/4[4×10–8] = 10–8
S 2S
(d) [Ca ][F ] = 1/4[10–4×(2×10–4)2]
2+ – 2
Given, solubility (S) = 3
= 1/4[4×10–12] = 10–12
Ksp = [Ca2+] . [OH¯]2
ionic product (10–8) > Solubility product (1.7×10–10)
= [S] . [2S]2
= 4S3 Hence, precipitation will occur.
62. The molar solubility (s) of the equilibrium,
( )
3
K sp = 4 × 3 Ax.By (solid)   z+ z–
  xA (aq)+yB (aq) in terms of
K sp = 12 3 the solubility product (Ksp) will be
1/ x + y x +y
59. –15
If Ksp of Ni(OH)2 is 2.0 × 10 M, the molar  K sp   K sp 
solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.10 M NaOH is (a) s=  x y  (b) s=  x y 
(a) 2.0 × 10–15 M (b) 2.0 × 10–13 M x y  x −y 
–11 x+y 1/ x + y
(c) 2.0 × 10 M (d) 2.0 × 10–9 M  K sp   K sp 
AMU-2013 (c) s=   (d) s=  
Ans. (b) : Ksp = 2.0 ×10–15M  x.y   x.y 
2+ − AMU-2007
Ni(OH)2   N i + 2OH
S 2S Ans. (a) : Let us consider the molar solubility of a salt
Ksp = [Ni2+] [OH–]2 AxBx is s mol L–1, then,
z+ z–
= [s ][ 0.10 + 2s ] AxBx (solid)  
2
  xA (aq) + yB (aq)
( because total concentration of [ OH–] ions s xs ys
= [ 0.10 + 2s] x
∴Ksp= (xs) .(ys) y
As Ksp is small 2s << 0.10
Hence, molar solubility can be given as :
Thus, (0.10 + 2s) ≈ 0.10
–15
Hence, 2.0 × 10 = s (0.10) 2 Ksp = [Az]x . [ Bz–]
–13 2+
S = 2.0 × 10 M = [ Ni ] = [x.s]x [y.s]y
60. If the solubility of Pr2 is S g-mole per litre, its Ksp = xx. sx. yy. sy.
solubility product, considering it to be 80% K = xx. yy. sx . sy.
sp
ionized, is
2 3 1
(a) 2.048 S (b) 20.48 S x+y K sp  K sp  x + y
(c) 2.048 S 3
(d) 2.048 S 4 s = Thus s =  x y 
AMU-2012 x x .y y  x .y 
63. The solubility product of Ag2CrO4 in water at S3 = (K sp / 27)1/ 4
298K is 3.2×10–11. What will be concentration
As Ksp Let solubility of 10–12 (say) in that case
of CrO 42- ions in the saturated solution of
1 1
Ag2CrO4 S1 = 4 , S2 = 106 andS3 = 10−3
(a) 2×10–4M (b) 57×10–5M 3 3 3
(c) 5.7×10 M–6
(d) 3.2×10–11M The correct order of solubilities is MX3 > M2X > MX
AMU-2005 67. If S is the solubility of Zr3 (PO4)4 in Pure water
then.
Ans. (a) : Ag 2 CrO 4  → 2Ag + + CrO 24−
(a) KSP = S7 (b) KSP = 12S7
S 2S S (c) KSP = 5184S 7
(d) KSP = 6912S7
Ksp = [Ag + ]2 [CrO 4 2− ] Assam CEE-2021
= (2S) 2 .(S) Ans. (d) : Zr3 ( PO4 )4  3Zr + 4PO4
4+ 3−
Ksp = 4S3 t=0 1 0 0

K sp t = time 1-S 3S 4S
S3 = Ksp = [ Zr4+]3. [PO43–]4
4
K SP = ( 3S) × ( 4S)
3 4
K sp 3.2 ×10−11
S= 3 =3 = 27 × 44 × S7
4 4
−4
Ksp = 6912S7
S = 2 × 10 M
68. The solubility product of BaCl2 is 4 × 10–9. Its
64. The solubility product of AgCl is 4.0 10–10 at solubility in mol/L is–
298 K. The solubility of AgCl in 0.04 M CaCl2 (a) 4 × 10–3 (b) 4 × 10–9
will be –3
(c) 1 × 10 (d) 1 × 10–9
(a) 5.0×10–9 M (b) 20× 10–5 M
–4 BCECE-2007
(c) 2.2× 10 M (d) 1.0× 10–4 M –9
BITSAT-2008 Ans. (c) : Ksp of BaCl2 is 4 × 10
2+ −1
AMU-2002   Ba + 2Cl
BaCl 2  
Ans. (a) : Given that, K sp = [Ba 2+ ][Cl − ]2
Ksp(AgCl) = 4.0 × 10–10 0.04M CaCl2
+ − = [x][2x]2
  Ag + Cl
AgCl  
Ksp = [Ag+] [Cl–] (Q [Cl]– = 0.08) K sp = 4x 3
or 4.0 × 10–10 = s × 0.08 K sp
4.0 × 10−10 x3 =
or S= 4
0.08 K sp 4 × 10−9
or S = 5 × 10–9 x= 3 = 3
65. The solubility of AgCl is 1×10–5 mol/litre. Its 4 4

solubility in 0.1 molar sodium chloride solution x = 1 × 10 −3
is 69. The principle involved in the classification of
(a) 1×10–10 (b) 1×10–5 basic radicals, is :
–9
(c) 1×10 (d) 1×10–4 (a) common ion effect (b) solubility product
AMU–2001 (c) valency of radicals (d) strength of salt
+ –
Ans. (c) : AgCl  [ Ag ] [ Cl ] BCECE-2006
[S] [S] Ans. (b) : Basic radicals have been classified into 6
Ksp=[Ag+][Cl–] groups on the Basis of the solubility products of their
=10–5×10–5 salt with group reagent The radicals have been grouped
Ksp =10–10 in the order increasing solubility product.
In 0.1 M NaCl soln. [Cl–]=0.1 M 70. Some chemists at ISRO wished to prepare a
[Ag+][0.1]=10–10 or [Ag+] = 10–9 saturated solution of a silver compound and
66. Three sparingly soluble salts M2X, MX and they wanted it to have the highest concentration
MX3 have same value of solubility product. of silver ion possible. Which of the following
Their solubilities follow the order compounds, would they use?
(a) MX3 > MX > M2X (b) MX > MX3 > M2X K sp (AgCl) = 1.8 × 10 −10
(c) MX > M2X > MX3 (d) MX3 > M2X > MX
Assam CEE-2014 K sp (AgBr) = 5.0 × 10 −13
Ans. (d) : Let solubility of M2X is S1, MX is S2 and K sp (Ag 2 CrO4 ) = 2.4 × 10 −12
MX3 is S3
1 (a) AgCl (b) AgBr
S1 = (K sp / 4) − 3 ;S2 = (K sp )1/ 2 (c) Ag2CrO4 (d) None of these
BCECE-2006
Ans. (c) : For binary salts (like AgCl, AgBr) 74. Ionic product of water at 310K is 2.7×10–14.
s = K sp What is the pH of neutral water at this
temperature?
∴ Solubility of AgCl = 1.8 × 10−10 (a) 7.00 (b) 5.98
= 1.35 × 10–7 mol / L (c) 6.78 (d) 4.58
BCECE-2017
Solubility of AgBr = 5.0 ×10−13 +
= 7.1 × 10–7 mol / L Ans. (c) : K w = [H ][OH]
For, Ag2CrO4, Ksp = 4s3 2.7 × 10 −14 = [H + ].[OH − ]
2.4 ×10−12 As in neutral [H + ] = [OH − ]
= 3
4 [H + ] = 2.7 × 10−14
−15
= 600 × 10
3
= 1.6432 × 10 −7
= 8.44 × 10–5 mol / L
∞ pH = − log[H + ]
71. The value of Λ eq for NH4Cl, NaOH and NaCl
are respectively, 149.74, 248.1 and 126.4 ohm–1 = − log(1.643 ×10 −7 )
cm2eq–1. The value of Λ eq ∞
of NH4OH is... Ω cm2 pH = 6.78
–1 The pH of Natural water is 6.78
eq .
(a) 371.44 75. When H2S is passed in acidic medium in
(b) 271.44 solution having CuS and ZnS, only CuS is
(c) 71.44 precipitated because
(d) Cannot be predicted from given data (a) K sp ZnS = K sp CuS
BCECE-2008
(b) K sp CuS << K sp ZnS
Ans. (b) : Given, Λ ∞eq (NH 4Cl) = 149.74
(c) K sp CuS >> K sp ZnS
Λ ∞eq (NaOH) = 248.1
(d) ZnS has lower melting point than CuS
Λ ∞eq (NaCl) = 126.4 BITSAT-2005
Hence, Ans. (b) : Precipitation of salt AB will occur when.
Λ ∞eq (NH 4 OH) = Λ eq ∞
(NH 4 Cl) + Λ eq ∞ ∞
(NaOH) − Λ eq (NaCL) Ksp<[A+][B-]
= (149.74 + 248.1 − 126.4) ZnS is not precipitated by passing H2S in
acidic medium but CuS precipitated because by
Λ ∞eq (NH 4 OH) = 271.44 ohm-1 cm2 eq-1 analysing above equation it is clear that
72. If x mol L–1 is the solubility of KAl (SO4)2 then KspCuS << Ksp ZnS.
Ksp is equal to– 76. The Ksp of CuS, Ag2S and HgS are 10–31, 10–44
(a) x3 (b) 4x4 and 10–54 respectively. The solubility of these
4 3
(c) x (d) 4x sulphides are in the order :
BCECE-2011 (a) Ag2S > CuS > HgS (b) AgS > HgS > CuS
+ 3+ 2− (c) HgS > Ag2S > CuS (d) CuS > Ag2S > HgS
Ans. (b) : KAl (SO 4 ) 2     K + Al + 2SO 4 BITSAT-2010
x x x 2x −37
Ans. (a) : • CuS ⇒ S 2
= 10
Ksp = [K + ][Al3+ ][SO 4 2− ]2
= x × x × (2x)2 S = 3.16 × 10 −19
= x 2 × 4x 2 • Ag 2S ⇒ 4S3 = 10 −44
K sp = 4x 4 S = 1.357 × 10 −15
−54
73. A saturated solution of Ag2SO4 is 2.5 × 10–2 M. • H gS ⇒ S = 10
2
The value of its solubility product is– S = 1 × 10 −27

(a) 62.5 × 10–6 (b) 6.25 × 10–4 So, order of solubility is-
(c) 15.625 × 10–6 (d) 3.125 × 10–6 Ag2S > CuS > HgS
BCECE-2010
77. For a sparingly soluble salt ApBq, the
Ans. (a) : [Ag 2SO 4 ] = 2.5 × 10−2 m relationship of its solubility product Ls → K sp
+ 2−
Ag 2SO 4 (s)     2Ag + SO 4 with its solubility (S) is
[2S] [S] (a) Ls → K sp = Spq (pq)p +q
Given , S = 2.5 × 10–2
Ksp = [Ag + ]2 .[SO4 2− ] (b) Ls = S p+q .p p q q
2
= [2S] [S] (c) Ls → K sp = S p+q .pq q p
= 4S3
= 4 × (2.5 × 10–2)3 (d) Ls → K sp = s pq .p p .q q
−6
K sp = 62.5 ×10 m BITSAT-2016

Ans. (b) : The dissociation equilibrium of a sparingly Ans. (b) : The product of the molar concentration of H+
soluble salt say (Ap Bq) can be represented as follow. and OH- ion pure water or an aqueous solution at
+q p− constant temperature is constant which is called the
  pA + qB
A p Bq  
ionic product of water.
[S] [S]
Let S be the solubility in mol/liter the expression for At 298K, For pure water
the solubility product will be as given below. [H + ].[OH − ] = 1× 10 −7 mol / dm −3
K sp = [ A +q ]p .[Bp– ]q K w = [H + ][OH − ]
= [ p.S]p.[q.S]q
= [1× 10−7 ].[1× 10 −7 ]
Ls → K sp = p p .q q (S) p+q
K w = 1× 10 −14
78. If Ksp of Ag2S is 10-17, the solubility of Ag2S in
0.1 M solution of Na2S will be 81. Solubility product of pure PbC12 will be
(a) 10-8 (b) 5×10-9 (a) K sp = S2 (b) K sp = 4S3
-15 -16
(c) 10 (d) 10 (c) K sp = 108S5 (d) K sp = S
CG PET-2009
CG PET -2006, BCECE-2003
Ans. (b) : Ag 2 S+ Na 2 S
↓ ↓ Ans. (b) : Solubility product of pure pbcl2 is -
S2−  → common ion PbCl2   2+
  Pb + 2Cl
−
+ 2−
Na 2S    2Na + S S 2S
S 2S S k sp = [Pb 2+ ][Cl − ]2
0.1m 2 ×0.1m 0.1m = [S].[2S]2
+ 2−
Ag 2S    2Ag + S
 
K sp = 4S3
x 2x 0.1
82. Which of the following inert gas is soluble in
K sp = [Ag + ]2 . S2−  water?
K sp = [2x] [ x ]
2 (a) He (b) Ne
(c) Ar (d) Xe
K sp = [4x]2 10−1  CG PET -2006
10 = [4x ].[10 ]
–17 2 −1 Ans. (d) : As the molecular weight of Noble gas atoms
increases down the group its polarity increases due to
10−17 which Van der Waals force between then increases. due
4x 2 = −1 = 10−16 to increased polarity of havier inert gas, its solubility in
10
water also increases. so most soluble gas will be Xe and
10−16 least soluble will be He.
x=
4 83. A metal halide has molar concentration of
1 0.000011 mol/L in saturated state. If its Ksp =
x= 10−16 39.5 × 10–20, then the halide is
2 (a) M2X4 (b) MX4
1
x = × 10−8 (c) M2X6 (d) MX3
2 CG PET -2018
x = 5 × 10 −9 m Ans. (d) : molar concentration
79. If solubility of M(OH)3 is S, its solubility ie solubility (s) =0.000011mol/L
product will be: Ksp= 39.5× 10-20
(a) 108S5 (b) 27S3 (a)
(c) 4S4 (d) 27S4   [2M ]+ 4X
M 2 X 4   + −
CG PET -2019, 2013 [2S] [4S]
Ans. (d) : M(OH)3 is AB3 Type salt its solubility K sp = [ M + ]2 .[X − ]4

product will be- K sp = (2S) 2 .( 4S )
4
3+ −
M(OH)3     M + 3OH = 1024S6
S 3S
K sp = 18.14 × 10−26
K sp = [M 3+ ].[OH − ]3
(b) + −
K = [S].[3S]3 MX 4     M + 4X
[S] [4S]
sp
Ksp = 27S4 +
K sp = [M ].[X ] − 4
80. The product of H+ and OH− of water will be

K sp = [S].[4S]4
(a) K w = 10 −12 (b) K w = 10 −14
= 256[S]5
(c) K w = 10−11 (d) K w = 10 −10
CG PET -2006 = 42.68 × 10 −24

− 2+ −
(c) M 2 X 6   +
  2M + 6X   Cd + 2OH
Ans. (d) : Cd(OH) 2  
[S] [2S]
[2S] [6S]
+ 2
K sp = [M ] .[X ] − 6 Now,
K sp = [Cd 2+ ].[OH − ]2
K sp = [2S]2 .[6S]6
= [S].[2S]2
= 106624[S] 8
K sp = 4(S)3
= 40 ×10−36
= 4 × (1.84 × 10 −5 )3
+ −
(d)   M + 3X
MX 3   +2 −
[S] [3S]   Cd + 2OH
Cd(OH) 2   −2
[S] [10 +S']
K sp = [M + ].[X − ]3 −2
S'(10 + 5')
K sp = [S].[3S]3 = 10 −2
= 27[S]4 S'× (10−2 ) = 4 × (1.84 × 10−5 )
2 3
= 39.5 × 10−20 S' = 4× (1.84)3×10-11

Correct formula of metal halide is MX3. S' = 2.491×10-10m
84. In which of the following solvents, AgBr will 87. The solubility product of Cr (OH)3 at 298 k is
have the highest solubility? 6.0 ×10–31. The concentration of hydroxide ions
(a) 10 −3 M NaBr (b) 10 −3 M NH 4 OH in a saturated solution of Cr (OH)3 will be
(a) (2.22×10–31)1/4 (b) (18×10–31)1/4
(c) Purewater (d) 10 −3 M HBr (c) (4.86×10 )–29 1/4
(d) (18×10–31)1/2
CG PET- 2010 [JEE Main 2020, 9 Jan Shift-II]
3+ –
Ans. (b) : AgBr will form soluble complex with Ans. (b) : Cr(OH)3     Cr +3OH
NH4OH, i.e. [Ag(NH3)2] Br. S 3S
The key to this problem is something called the " – 3
Ksp = [ Cr3+].[ OH ]
common ion effect" In essence, the solubility of ionic = [S].[3S]3
solute is much lower is a solvent that already contains Ksp = 27S4
one the ions of the solute. 6 × 10–31 = 27S4
85. Solubility produces of A1 (OH)3 and Zn (OH)2 6 ×10−31
4=
are 8.5 × 10 −23 and 1.8 × 10 −4 respectively. If S 27
3+ 2+
both A1 and Zn ions are present in a 1/ 4
 6 × 10−31 
solution, which one will be precipitated first on S = 
addition of NH4OH?  27 
–
(a) A1(OH)3 (b) Zn (OH)2 [OH ] = 3S
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these  6 × 10−31 
1/ 4
–
CG PET- 2010 [OH ] = 3×  
Ans. (a) : The value of solubility product for  27 
[OH–] = (18 × 10−31 )
1/ 4
Al(OH)3 is 8.5 ×10 −23.
It is much lower than the value of the solubility product 88. If solubility product of Zr3 (PO4)4 is denoted by
for Zn (OH) 2 Which is 1.8 × 10 −14 . Ksp and its molar solubility is denoted by S,
3+ 2+ then which of the following relation between S
Hence, when both Al and Zn ion are present in the
and Ksp is correct?
solution and as NH4OH is added, Al(OH)3 will 1/ 6 1/ 7
precipitate first as the solubility product of Al(OH)3 is  K sp   K sp 
quite low. (a) S =   (b) S =  
 144   6912 
Hence, its ionic product will exceed its solubility 1/ 9 1/ 7
product of Al(OH)3 is quite low.  K sp   K sp 
Hence, its ionic product will exceed its solubility (c) S =   (d) S =  
–  929   216 
product at a very low concentration of OH ions.
86. The molar solubility of Cd(OH)2 is 1.84×10–5 M 4+
in water. The molar solubility of Cd(OH)2 is a Ans. (b) : Zr3 (PO 4 ) 4 (s)  3Zr + 4 PO3–4
[3S] [4S]
buffer solution of pH = 12 is 4+ 3 3- 4
Ksp = [Zr ] [PO4 ]
2.49 = [3S]3.[4S]4
(a) 1.84×10–9 M (b) × 10−9 M
1.84 1/ 7
 K sp 
(c) 6.23×10–11 M (d) 2.49×10–10 M S=  
JEE MAIN-2019  6912 

89. What is the molar solubility of Al(OH)3 in 0.2
M NaOH solution? Given that, solubility [H + ]2 [S2− ]
K=
product of Al(OH)3 = 2.4×10–24 [H 2S]
(a) 3×10–19 (b) 12×10–21 = 10 −7 × 1.2 × 10 −13
–22
(c) 3×10 (d) 12×10–23 K = 1.2×10-20
[JEE Main 2019, 12 April Shift-I] at. t = 0 0.10m, 0.20m
Ans. (c) : Al(OH)3  Al+3 + 3OH – (0.2) 2 (x)
[S] [3S]
K=
Ksp = [Al3+].[OH-]3 0.1
Now let S be solubility –20 0.2 × 0.2 × x
[OH-] = 3(S) + 0.2m ≈ 0.2m 1.2×10 =
0.1
Ksp = S × (0.2)3 x = 3 × 10–20
2.4 × 10–24 = S × [ 0.2]3
92. An aqueous solution contains an unknown
2.4 ×10−24 concentration of Ba2+ When 50 mL of a 1 M
S=
0.2 × 0.2 × 0.2 solution of Na2SO4 is added, BaSO4 just begins
S = 3 × 10–22 mol/L. to precipitate. The final volume is 500 mL. The
90. If Ksp of Ag2 CO3 is 8×10–12, the molar solubility product of BaSO4 is 1 × 10–10.
solubility of Ag2 CO3 in 0.1M AgNO3 is What is the original concentration of Ba2+?
(a) 8 × 10–12 M (b) 8 × 10–13 M (a) 5 × 10–9 M (b) 2 × 10–9 M
–10
(c) 8 × 10 M (d) 8 ×10–11 M (c) 1.1×10 M –9
(d) 1.0×10–10 M
[JEE Main 2019, 12 Jan Shift-II] [JEE Main-2018]
+
Ans. (c) : Ag 2 CO3  2 Ag + CO32– 50×1
[S] [S] Ans.(c): Final concentration of [SO 4– ] = = 0.1M
500
Ksp = [Ag+].[ CO ] 2–
3 Ksp of BaSO4
Ag NO3  Ag + + NO3– [Ba2+][ SO 2– 4 ] = 1×10
–10
0.1 M 0.1 M 0.1 M 2+ –10
Hence, total Ag+ ion = [ 0.1 M + S] [Ba ][ 0.1 ] = 1×10
[ 0.1 M >> S] 10−10
S is negligible. [Ba 2+] = = 10−9 M
0.1
Ksp = [Ag+].[ CO32– ] Concentration of Ba2+ in final solution = 10–9M
= [ 0.1 + S]2. [ S] concentration of Ba2+ in original
8 × 10–12 = [ 0.1]2.[S] In solution, M1.V1 = M2.V2
8 ×10−12 M1(500 – 50) = 10–9(500)
S= 500 × 10−9
0.1 × 0.1 M1 =
S = 8 × 10–10 M 450
91. An aqueous solution contains 0.10 M H2S and M1= 1.11× 10–9M
0.20 M HCI. If the equilibrium constants for 93. The Ksp for Cr(OH)3 is 1.6 × 10–30. The molar
the formation of HS- from H2S is 1.0×10–7 and solubility of this compound in water is
that of S2– from HS– ions is 1.2×10–13 then the
concentration of s2- ions in aqueous solution is (a) 2
1.6 × 10−30 (b) 4
1.6 × 10−30
(a) 5 × 10–8 (b) 3 × 10–20 1.6 ×10−30 1.6 × 10−30
(c) 6 × 10–21 (d) 5 × 10–19 (c) 4 (d)
[JEE Main-2018] 27 27
− − [AIEEE-2011]
Ans. (b) : Formation of H S from H2 S Ans. (c) : Let's be the molar solubility of Cr(OH)3 then,
+ −
  H (aq) + HS (aq) − − − (i)
3+ –
H 2S   Cr(OH)3  
  Cr + 3OHS 3S
from of S2- from HS- Ksp = [Cr3+]. [ OH–]
HS− aq   + 2−
  H (aq) + S (aq) − − − (ii) Ksp = S × (3S)3
= 27S 4
[H + ][HS− ]
Where in- Ka1 = K sp
[H 2S] S= 4
27
[H + ].[S2 − ]
Ka 2 = 1.6 ×10−30
[HS−1 ] S= 4
Add eqn (i) & (2), we get - 27
+ 2−
  2H (aq) + S (aq),K = Ka1 × Ka 2
H 2S(aq)   94. Solubility product of silver bromide is 5.0×10–13
. The quantity of potassium bromide (molar
[H + ][HS− ] [H + ][S2− ] mass taken as 120 g mol–1) to be added to 1 L of
K= × 0.05 M solution of silver nitrate of start the
[H 2S] [HS− ] precipitation of AgBr is

(a) 1.2×10–10 g (b) 1.2×10–9 g 97. The solubility product of a salt having general
(c) 6.2×10–5 g (d) 5.0×10–8 g formula MX2, in water is 4×10–12. The
AIEEE-2010 concentration of M2+ ions in the aqueous
Ans. (b) : Given (AgBr) = 5×10–13,[Ag+] = 0.05m solution of the salt is
Molar mass of KBr = 120gmol–1 (a) 4.0×10–10 M (b) 1.6×10–4 M
–4
Ag+(aq) + Br– (aq) = AgBr (c) 1.0×10 M (d) 2.0×10–6 M
Precipitation starts when ionic product just exceeds [AIEEE-2004]
solubility product. Ans. (c) : Solubility produt = 4×10-12
Ksp = [Ag+][Br–] putting the valves - 2+
MX 2  M + 2M –
K sp 5 ×10−13 [S ] [ 2S]
⇒ [Br–] = +
= = 10−11 Ksp = [ M2+] × [M–]2
[Ag ] 0.05
Precipitation starts when 10–11 moles of KBr is added to Ksp = [S].[2S]2
AgNO3 of AgNO3 solution. Ksp = 4S3
No. of moles of KBr to be added = 10–11 The solubility of M2+ ion = S
1/ 3 1/ 3
Weight of KBr = no. of moles × molar mass.  K sp   4 ×10−12 
Putting the valves. S=   = 
= 10–11 ×120 = 1.2 × 10–9g  4   4 
95. Solid Ba(NO3) is gradually dissolved in a S = 1 × 10–4 M
1.0×10–4 MNa2CO3 solution. At what 98. The molar solubility (in Mol L-1) of a sparingly
concentration of Ba2+ will a precipitate begin to soluble salt MX4 is S. The corresponding
form? solubility product is Ksp. S is given in terms of
(Ksp for BaCO3 = 5.1 × 10–9) Ksp by the relation.
(a) 4.1×10–5 M (b) 5.1×10–5 M (a) S = (Ksp/128)1/4 (b) S = (Ksp×128)1/4
(c) 8.1×10–8 M (d) 8.1×10–7 M (c) S = (Ksp/256) 1/5
(d) S = (Ksp×256)1/5
[AIEEE-2009] [AIEEE-2004]
Ans. (b) : according to situation - Ans. (c) : The expression for the dissociation of the salt
+ 2–
Na2CO3  → 2Na + CO3 is, MX 4  M 4+ + 4X –
–4
1×10 m [S] [4S]
For The expression for the solubility product is
Ba CO3 → Ba2++ CO32– Ksp= [M4+][X–]4
Ksp = [Ba2+].[CO32–] = [S].[4S]4
Hence. 5.1× 10–9 = [Ba2+] [1×10–4] = 256S5
5.1 × 10−9 thus, the expression for solubility becomes
[Ba2+] = K sp
1×10−4 S5 =
Ba2+=5.1×10-5m 256
96. In a saturated solution of the spatingly soluble 1/ 5
 K sp 
strong electrolyte AgIO3 (molecular mass = S= 
283) the equilibrium which sets in is  256 
AgIO3 (s)  Ag+ (aq) + IO3− (aq) 99. The solubility in water of a sparingly soluble
If the solubility product constant Ksp of AgIO3 salt AB2 is 1.0×10–5 mol L-1. Its solubility
at a given temperature is 1.0 ×10–8, what is the product will be
mass of AgIO3 contained in 100 mL of its (a) 4×10–15 (b) 4×10–10
–15
saturated solution? (c) 1×10 (d) 1×10–10
(a) 28.3×10–2 g (b) 28.3×10–4 g [AIEEE-2003]
–7
(c) 1.0×10 g (d) 1.0×10–4 g Ans. (a) : Solubility process is :-
[AIEEE-2007]
AB2  → A 2+ + 2B−
+ −
  Ag (aq)+ IO3 (aq)
S 2S
Ag IO3   1
Ans. (b) : (s) 0 0 using the relation of solubility and solubility product as:
0 s s Ksp=[A2+][B–]2
(s = Solubility) Ksp= [S.][2S]2
Ksp = xx × yy × sx+y Substituting . S = 10–5
x = no. of Ag+ ions and Ksp = 10–5×(2×10–5)2
y = no of IO3− ions Ksp = 4×10–15
100. Solubility of Ca(OH)2 is S mol L-1. The
Ksp = S2 ⇒ S = K sp = 10−8 =10−4 M solubility product (Ksp) under the same
1000 mL →10−4 mL =10 −4 × 283g condition is
(a) 4S3 (b) 3S4
10−4 × 283×100 (c) 4S 2
(d) S3
100 mL → = 28.3 ×10−4 g
1000 [AIEEE-2002]
2+ − 104. A3B2 is a sparingly soluble salt of molar mass
Ans. (a) : Ca(OH)2     Ca + 2OH M (g mol–1) and solubility x g L–1. The
2+ – 2
Ksp = [Ca ]. [OH ] 5
= [S] . [2S]2 X
solubility product satisfies Ksp = a   . The
Ksp = [S]. 4S2 M
Ksp = 4S3 value of a is .......(Integer answer)
101. If the solubiity product of AB2 is 3.20×10–11 M3, [JEE Main 2021, 13 Aug Shift-I]
then the solubility of AB2 in pure water Ans. (a = 108) : A 3 B2 ( s )     3A
2+
+ 2B−3
–4 –1 (3S) (2S)
is.......×10 Mol L 2+ 3 -3 2
[Assuming that neither kind of ion reacts with K sp = [A ] [B ]
water] Ksp = (3S)3 (2S)2
[JEE Main-2020, 6 Sept Shift-II] x
Ksp = 108S5 S =  
Ans. (2) : AB2   2+
  A[S] + 2B
− m
[2S] 5
x
Ksp= [A2+]. [B–]2 Ksp = 108  
= [ S].[2S] 2 m
Ksp = 4S3 x
5
1/3 1/3 given. Ksp = a  

 K sp   32×1012  m
S=  =  a = 108
 4   4 
Ksp = 2×10–4Mol/liter 105. A solution is 0.1 M in Cl– and 0.001 M in
102. The stoichiometry and solubility product of a CrO 24 − . Solid AgNO3 is gradually added to it.
salt with the solubility curve given below is, Assuming that the addition does not change in
respectively: volume and
Ksp (AgCl) = 1.7 × 10–10 M2 and
Ksp (Ag2CrO4) = 1.9 ×10–12 M3
Select correct statement from the following
(a) AgCl precipitates first because its Ksp is high.
(b) Ag2CrO4 precipitates first as its Ksp is low.
(c) Ag2CrO4 precipitates first because the amount
(a) X2 Y, 2 × 10–9 M3 (b) XY, 2 × 10–6 M3 of Ag+ needed is low.
(c) XY2, 1×10–9 M3 (d) XY2, 4 × 10–9M3 (d) AgCl will precipitate first as the amount of
Ag+ needed to precipitate is low
Ans. (d) : [x] = 1×10–3
Ans. (d) : Given data, Ksp = 1.7 × 10–10 M2
[y] = 2×10–3
KspAg2CrO4 = 1.9 × 10–12 M3
XY2  X 2+ + 2Y –
10-3 2×10-3 [Cl–] = 0.1 M, CrO 24−  = 0.001M
2+ – 2
Ksp = [X ][Y ] +
(i) [Ag ] required to precipitate AgCl(s)
= [10–3][2×10–3]2 ∴ Ksp = I.P. = [Ag+] [Cl–] = 1.7×10–10
Ksp = 4 ×10–9 1.7 × 10−10
Corresponding stoichiometry = 4×10–9M3 [Ag + ] = = 1.7 ×10−9
0.1
103. The molar solubility of Zn(OH)2 in 0.1 M
(ii) [Ag+] required to precipitate Ag2CrO4(s)
NaOH solution is x ×10–18 M. The value of x
Ksp = I.P. = [Ag+]2 [CrO4–2]=1.9×10–12
is.......(Nearest integer) [Ag+] = 4.3×10–5
(Given; The solubility product of Zn (OH), is 2 [Ag+] required to precipitate AgCl is low. So, AgCl
× 10–20) will precipitate 1st.
[JEE Main 2021, 1 Sep Shift-II] 106. The solubility of CdSO in water is 8.0×10–4
4
Ans. (2) : Zn(OH)2 is dissolved in 0.1m of NaOH mol L–1. Its solubility in 0.01M H2SO4 solution
Zn(OH) 2 (s)   2+
  Zn (aq)+ 2OH
– is.......×10–6 mol L–1. (Round off to the nearest
(s) (0.1+ 2s) integer)
Zn(OH)2 is less soluble, so, 2S is negligible compared to (Assume that, solubility is much less than 0.01
0.1 M)
Ksp = [Zn2+]. [OH–]2 [JEE Main 2021, 18 March Shift-II]
Ksp = [S]. [0.1] 2 Ans. (64) : Given, Solubility of CdSO4 = 8.0×10–4
–1
Ksp = [S]. [10 ] –2 mol/L
2× 10–20 = S.10–2 Solubility of H2SO4 = ?
S = 2 × 10–18 M Solubility of CdSO4 in pure water–
2+ 2−
= x × 10–18 M CdSO4     Cd + SO 4
So, x=2 S S

∴ K sp = [ Cd 2+ ] SO 24−  or S(A2X) =10–4
For MX Salt,
Ksp = (S)2 + -
MX  
 M +X
Ksp = (8 × 10–4)2 y y
In H2SO4 solution, Ksp = y2
H 2SO 4 ↽ ⇀ 2H + + SO 24− y = K sp
0.01 2×0.01 0.01
CdSO 4 ↽ ⇀ Cd 2+ + SO 24− y = 4 × 10−12

S′ S′+ 0.01≈ 0.01
As, S′ << 0.01 y = 2 ×10−6
So, S′ + 0.01 ≈ 0.01 S(MX) = 2 × 10−6
∴ K sp = [ Cd 2+ ] SO 24−  S(A 2 X) 10−4
Hence, = = 50
64 × 10–8 = S′ × 0.01 S(MX) 2 × 10−6
or S′ = 64 × 10–6 109. The solubility of Ca(OH)2 in water is [Given:
Hence, the solubility of H2SO4 in 0.01 M solution is 64. The solubility product of Ca(OH)2 in water =
107. The oxygen dissolved in water exerts a partial 5.5 ×10–6]
pressure of 20 kPa in the vapour above water. (a) 1.11 ×10–2 (b) 1.11×10–6
–2
The molar solubility of oxygen in water is (c) 1.77×10 (d) 1.77×10–6
.......×10–5 mol dm–3. [JEE Main 2021, 25 Feb Shift-II]
(Round off the nearest integer). [Given, Ans. (a) : Given,
Henry's law constant (KH) = 8.0 × 104 kPa for Solubility product of Ca(OH)2 in water = 5.5 ×10–6
O2, density of water with dissolved oxygen = 1.0 Solubility of Ca(OH)2 in water = ?
g dm–3] 2+ −
[JEE Main 2021, 17 March Shift-I] Now, Ca(OH)2     CaS + 2OH

2S
2+ – 2
Ans. (25) : Given, partial pressure = 20 kPa, Ksp = [Ca ][OH ]
KH =8.0 × 104 kPa 5.5 ×10–6 = [S][2S]2
As we know that partial pressure is directly proportional 5.5 ×10–6 = 4S3
to the solubility. 5.5 ×10−6
Partial pressure = KH × Solubility S3 =
Where, KH = Henry constant 4
∴ 20× 103 = 8.0 ×104 × 103 × Solubility S3 = 1.375 ×10–6
S = 1.11× 10–2
20
or Solubility = × 10−4 110. The solubility product of PbI2 is 8.0×10–9. The
8 solubility of lead iodide in 0.1 molar solution of
200 lead nitrate is x×10–6 mol/L. The value of x
Solubility = × 10−5
8 is........ (Rounded off to the nearest integer).
Solubility = 25 × 10–5 mole dm–3 [Given, : 2 = 1.41 ]
108. Two Salts A2 X and MX have the same value of [JEE Main 2021, 24 Feb Shift-II]
solubility product of 4.0 ×10–12. The ratio of Ans. (x = 141) : Given, Ksp of PbCl2 = 8×10–9
S( A2X ) To calculate solubility of PbCl2 in 0.1M solution of
their molar solubilities i.e. = ......... Pb (NO3)2.
S ( MX )
2+
(Round off to the nearest integer) (i) Pb (NO3 )(l )     Pb (aq) + 2NO3 (aq)
0.1m 0.1m 0.2m
[JEE Main 2021, 16 March Shift-II] 2+ -
Ans. (50) : Given, (ii) PbI 2  
  PbS (aq) + 2I (aq)
2S
Solubility product of A2X = Solubility product of
MX = 4.0 × 10–12 total mole of Pb2+ = S + 0.1≈ 0.1 (∴S<<0.1)
For A2X salt, Now, Ksp = [Pb2+] × [I–]2
+ 2−
Ksp = [0.1] [2S]2
  2A (aq) + X (aq)
A 2 X   Ksp = 0.1×4S2
2x x K sp
∴ Ksp = [A+]2[X–2] S=
Ksp = (2x)2(x) 0.1× 4
Ksp = 4x3 8 × 10−9
1 S=
 K sp  3 0.1× 4
x=  
 4  S = 2 × 10−4
 4 × 10−12 
1/ 3 S =1.41× 10−4
x =  S =141× 10−6
 4 
x = 10–4 Hence, the value of x is 141.

111. The pH of a 0.1 molar solution of the acid HQ 114. The correct order of solubility of the sulphates
is 3. The value of the ionisation constant, Ka of of alkaline earth metals in water is
the acid is (a) Be > Ca > Mg > Ba > Sr
(a) 3 × 10–1 (b) 1 × 10–3 (b) Mg > Be > Ba > Ca > Sr
–5
(c) 1 × 10 (d) 1 × 10–7 (c) Be > Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba
[AIEEE-2012] (d) Mg > Ca > Ba > Be > Sr
Ans. (c) : Given, pH = 3 J & K CET-(2004)
∴ pH = –log[H+] ⇒ [H+] = 10–3 Ans. (c) : Down the group the solutility of sulphates
Concentrastion of HQ = 0.1 molar, Ka = ? decreases So the sulphates of Be is more soluble and the
Now, from ionzation of HQ - we get sulphates of Ba is least soluble. So, the order of
HQ ↽ ⇀ H + + Q − solubility of Sulfate is–
0.1 0
x
0 Be > Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba
0.1− x x
x×x 115. If the solubility of a sparingly soluble salt AX2
Ka = is s mol/lit., the solubility product is
(0.1 − x) (a) 4s3 (b) 8s3
2
x2 (c) 4s (d) s2
Ka = (Q 0.1 <<< x) J & K CET-(2015)
(0.1 − x)
Ans. (a) : The dissociation of AX2 is given as–
(10−3 )2
∴ Ka = 2+
  A + 2X
AX2   −
0.1 s 2s
10−6 Now, Ksp = [A2+].[X–]2

Ka = = [s].[2s]2
0.1
or Ka = 1 × 10–5 Ksp = 4s3
112. The first and second dissociation constants of 116. The solubility of Fe(OH)3 is x mol L-1. Its Ksp
an acid H2A are 1.0×10–5 and 5.0 × 10–10, would be
respectively. The overall dissociation constant (a) 9x3 (b) 3 x4
4
of the acid will be (c) 27 x (d) 9 x4
(a) 5.0×10–5 (b) 5.0×1015 J & K CET-(2013)
(c) 5.0×10 –15
(d) 0.2×105 Ans. (c) : Given, solubility of Fe(OH)3 = x mol L–1
[AIEEE-2007] 3+ −
Now, Fe(OH)3     Fe + 3OH
Ans. (c) : Given,
First dissociation constant of H2A(K1) = 1.0 × 10–5 K sp = [Fe3+ ].[OH - ]3
[x] [3x ]3
Second dissociation constant of H2A(K2) = 5 × 10–10 Ksp = (x).(3x)3
− +
Now, H2A     HA + H Ksp = 27x4
[H + ][HA − ] 117. An aqueous solution contains Ni2+, Co2+ and
K1 = .....(i) Pb2+ ions at equal concentrations. The
[H 2 A] solubility product of NiS, PbS and CoS in
And, HA–  → H + + A 2− water at 250C are 1.4 × 10–24, 3.4 × 10–28 and
[H+ ]2[A−2 ] 3 × 10–26 respectively. Indicate which of these
K2 = .....(ii) ions will be precipitated first and last when
[HA− ]
sulphide concentration is progressively
Overall dissociation constant we get–
increased from zero.
K = K1 × K2
(a) NiS and PbS (b) NiS and CoS
K = 1 × 10–5 × 5 × 10–10
–15 (c) CoS and NiS (d) PbS and NiS
K = 5 × 10
J & K CET-(2008)
113. The correct equation relating solubility and
solubility product for the sparingly soluble salt Ans. (d) : For precipitation,
with the general molecular formula AB2 is Ionic product > Solubility product
(a) S = [4Ksp] 1/3 2/3
(b) S = 2 [Ksp] –1/3 The metal sulfide with lowest Ksp(PbS) will precipitate
(c) S = [4Ksp]–1/3 (d) S = 2–2/3[Ksp]1/3 out first because its ionic product will be exceed its Ksp
J & K CET-(2016) and the metal sulfide with highest Ksp(NiS) will
Ans. (d) : The dissociation of AB2 salt is– precipitate out at last.
2+ − 118. Which of the following salts is most soluble?
  AS + 2B
AB2  
2S (a) Bi2S3(ksp= 1 × 10–17)
K sp =[A 2+ ][B− ]2 (b) MnS (Ksp= 7 × 10–16)
Ksp = (S)(2S)2 (c) CuS (ksp = 8 × 10–37)
Ksp =4S3 (d) Ag2S (Ksp= 6 × 10–51)
J & K CET-(2003)
K sp
S = 1/ 2 Ans. (b) : In all these compound the MnS is most
4 soluble because its solubility product is maximum. The
S = 2–2/3 (Ksp)1/3 solubility product is a kind of equilibrium constant and
its value depends on temperature. The solubility Ans. (b) : Given, Ksp AgCl=1×10–10, KspAgI = 4 × 10–16
increases with an increase in Ksp. Solubility is stated as The solution of AgI precipitated first because it has the
a property of a substance called solute to get dissolved less value of Ksp than the Ksp value of AgCl.
in a solvent in order to form a solution. KspAgCl > KspAgI
119. Ostwald dilution law is applicable to ∴ Ksp = [Ag+] [Cl–]
(a) strong electrolytes only
1× 10−10
(b) weak electrolytes only or [Ag + ] = = 2 ×10−9 M
(c) non-electrolytes only 0.05
(d) strong as well as weak electrolytes And, Ksp = [Ag+] [I–]
J & K CET-(2003) 4 ×10−16
or [I − ] = = 2 × 10−7 M
Ans. (b) : Ostwald applied 'law of mass action' to ionic 2 ×10−9
equilibrium. This is called as Ostwald's dilution law. 123. The solubility product of PbBr2is 10.8×10–5. It
This law is applicable only for weak electrolytes. is 70% dissociated in saturated solution. The
According to Ostwald dilution law– solubility of salt is:
H 2O + HA ↽ ⇀ A − + H 3O + (a) 4.18×10–2 (b) 6.76×10–3
–4
Initially
At equi.
C
C(1−α )
0
Cα
0
Cα
(c) 3.4×10 (d) 5.44×10–2
Where, α = degree of ionisation JCECE - 2003
Ans. (a): Given, Ksp = 10.8×10–5
[A − ][H 3O + ]
Dissociation constant (K a ) = Now, PbBr2   2+
  Pb + 2Br
−
[HA] a 0 0
a −S S 2S
Cα2 2
∴ Ksp = [Pb2+] [Br–]2
Ka =
C(1 − α) Ksp = (S) (2S)2
Cα 2 or 10.8 × 10–5 = 4S3
Ka = (Q for weak electrolyte, α<<1) or S = 3 × 10–2
(1 − α)
This is the solubility for the 100% dissociation.
∴ Ka = Cα2 According to the question, we calculate for 70%.
120. When HCl gas is passed through a saturated 100
solution of NaCl (brine), then the solubility of NaCl ∴ For 70% dissociation (S) = × 3 × 10−2
(a) increases (b) decreases 70
(c) remains same (d) none of these. S ≈ 4.28 × 10–2
70
J & K CET-(2000) 10% dissociated = = .7
Ans. (a) : If we take a saturated solution of sodium 100
2+
chloride and pass HCl gas through it, then sodium Pb Br2    Pb + 2Br −
.7S 2×.7S
chloride is precipitated due to increased concentration 2+ - 2
of chloride ion available from the dissociation of HCl. K sp =[Pb ].[Br ]
The common ion effect is also used for almost complete Ksp= [.7S].(2×.7S)2
-5 3 3
precipitation of a particular ion as its sparingly soluble 10.8×10 =(.7) .4S –2
salt, with very low value of solubility product for S = 4.2 × 10
gravimetric estimation. 124. A saturated solution of CaF2 is 2 × 10–4 mol/L.
121. The solubility of CaF2 in water is 1.30 × 10–5 Its solubility product constant is:
–1
mol L . Its solubility product is (a) 2.6 × 10–9 (b) 4 × 10–8
–12
(a) 1.30 × 10–5 (b) 1.69 × 10–10 (c) 8 × 10 (d) 3.2 × 10–11
(c) 2.20 × 10 –15
(d) 8.80 × 10 –15 JCECE - 2005
–4
J & K CET-(1999) Ans. (d) : Given, Saturated solution of CaF2(S)=2×10
2+ −
Ans. (d) : Given, Solubility of CaF2(S) = 1.30 × 10–5 Now,   CaS + 2F
CaF2  
2S
2+ −
Now, CaF2     Ca + 2F S 2S K = [Ca 2+ ].[F− ]2
sp
Ksp= [Ca ][F ] 2+ − 2

= (S).(2S)2
Ksp = (S).(2S)2 Ksp = 4S3
Ksp = 4S3 Ksp= 4×(2×10–4)3
–5 3
Ksp = 4×(1.3×10 ) Ksp = 3.2×10–11
Ksp = 8.8×10–15 125. Solubility product of a salt AB is 1 × 10-8 M2 in
a solution in which the concentration of A+ ions
122. A solution contains 0.05 M NaCl and 0.05 M is 10–3 M. The salt will precipitate when the
NaI. The concentration of iodied ion in solution concentration of B– ions is kept
when AgCl just starts precipitating is equal to (a) between 10–8 M to 10–7 M
(Ksp AgCl=1×10–10; KspAgI = 4 × 10–16) (b) between 10–7 M to 10–8 M
(a) 4.0 × 10–8 M (b) 2.0 × 10–7 M (c) > 10–5 M
–16 –8
(c) 8.0 × 16 M (d) 2.0 × 10 M (d) < 10–8 M
J & K CET-(1999) JCECE - 2009
Ans. (c) Given, KspAB = 1× 10–8 M2, [A+] = 10–3 M Ans. (a): Given, solubility of Ag2CrO4 = s mol L–1
The ionisation of AB salt is - Ksp = ?
+ −
 A + B
AB   Now, Ag 2 CrO 4    2Ag + + CrO 42−
 
+ – 2s s
Ksp = [A ][B ]
Salt will precipitate if ionic concentration>Ksp therefore K sp = [Ag + ]2 .[CrO 42 – ]
[A+][B+]> 1×10–8
Ksp = (2s)2 × s
1×10–3[B–] > 1×10–8
Ksp = 4s3
1×10 –8 130. A 0.1 aqueous solution of a weak acid is 2%
[B– ] >
1× 10−3 ionised. If the ionic product of water is 1×10–4,
[B ] > 1 ×10–5 M
–
the [OH–] is
Hence, salt will precipitate when the concentration of (a) 5 × 10−12 M (b) 2 × 10−3 M
B– have the value greater than the 10–5M.
(c) 1× 10−14 M (d) None of these
126. The solubility product of Ag2CrO4 is 32 × 10–12.
JIPMER-2009
What is the concentration of CrO24− ions in that
Ans. (a) : Degree of dissociation of weak acid -
solution?
2
(a) 2 × 10–4 M (b) 16 × 10–4 M α= = 0.02
(c) 8 × 10 M–4
(d) 8 × 10–8 M 100
JCECE – 2015 Concentration product of water = 1×10–14
MHT CET-2011 [H + ].[OH − ] =1×10−14
Ans. (a) : Given, Ksp = 32×10–12, [ CrO 24− ] = ? 1× 10−14
+ 2− [OH − ] =
Now, Ag2 CrO4 → 2Ag + CrO 4 0.002
S 2S S
[OH ] = 5 × 10−12
−
Ksp = [Ag+]2. [CrO 24− ]
131. Solubility product of PbCl2 at 298 K is 1 × 10–6,
Ksp = (2S)2 × S at this temperature solubility of PbCl2 in mol/L
∴
Ksp = 4S3 is
1/ 3 1/ 3 (a) (1 × 10–6 )1/2 (b) (1 × 10–6 )1/3
 Ksp   32 × 10−12  (c) (0.25 × 10 )–6 1/3
(d) (2.5 × 10–6 )1/2
or S=  =  
 4   4  JIPMER-2008
–4
S = 2 × 10 M JCECE - 2007
127. The solubility product of Hg2I2 is equal to Ans. (c) : Given, Solubility product of PbCl2=1×10–6
(a) [Hg 22 + ] [I − ] (b) [Hg2 +] [I− ] S=?
2+ −
(c) [Hg 22 + ] [I − ]2 (d) [Hg2 +] [I − ]2 PbCl2  
 Pb + 2Cl
S 2S
JIPMER-2012 K sp = [Pb 2+ ][Cl− ]2
Ans. (c) For Hg2I2,
2+ −
K sp = [S] [2S]2
  Hg 2 + 2I
Hg 2 I 2  
Ksp = 4S3
Let, the solubility product be Ksp 1 ×10–6 = 4S3
∴ Ksp = [ Hg 2+ – 2
2 ].[I ] 1× 10−6
S3 =
128. The expression for the solubility product of 4
Ag2CO3 will be S=(.25×10–6)1/3
(a) Ksp=s2 (b) Ksp=4s3 S = (0.25× 10–6)1/3
4
(c) Ksp=27s (d) Ksp=s
132. Solubility of AgCl is least in
JIPMER-2011 (a) 0.1 M NaCl (b) pure water
Ans. (b) : Let, Ksp be the solubility product of Ag2CO3. (c) 0.1 M BaCl2 (d) 0.1 M AlCl3
the ionisation of Ag2CO3 is - Karnataka-CET-2019
+ 2−
  2Ag + CO3
Ag 2 CO3   Ans. (d) : The common ion effect of the chloride ion
2S S
supresses the dissociation and hence, the solubility of
Ksp = [Ag+]2.[CO32–] AgCl is least.
Ksp = (2s)2 (s) This effect is the most pronounced in 0.1M AlCl3 as it
Ksp= (4s2).(s) has the most Cl– ion.
Ksp = 4s3
133. Conductivity of a saturated solution of a
129. The solubility of saturated solution of Ag2 CrO4 sparingly soluble salt AB at 298 K is 1.85 × 10–6
is s mol L–1. What is its solubility product?
(a) 4s3 (b) s3 Sm–1. Solubility product of the salt AB at 298 K
(c) 2s3
(d) 16s2 is
JIPMER-2010 Given, Λ o m (AB) = 140 × 10 −4 Sm 2 mol −1 b

(a) 5.7 × 10–12 (b) 1.32 × 10–12 KspAgCl = 1 × 10–10
(c) 7.5 × 10–12 (d) 1.74 × 10 –12
Here, I.P. > Ksp
Karnataka-CET-2014 So, precipitate will form.
Ans. (d) : Thus, silver chloride gets precipitated first.
Given, Conductivity of a saturated solution ( κ ) = 1.85×10–6 136. Choose the correct statement.
Λ om = 14 ×10-3 Sm2mol–1 (a) KH value is same for a gas in any solution.
Now, Ksp = ? (b) Higher the KH value more the solubility of
2
gas.
 K ×103  (c) KH value increases on increasing the
K sp =   temperature of the solution.
 ∧m 
o
2
(d) Easily liquefiable gases usually has lesser KH
 1.85 × 10−5 ×10−3  values.
K sp =  −3  Karnataka-CET-2021
 14 × 10 
Ksp = (0.1321×10 ) –5 2 Ans. (c) : According to the mathematical expression of
Ksp = 0.01745 × 10 –10 Henry's law–
Ksp = 1.745 × 10–12 p∝x
134. H2S is passed into one nm3 of a solution p = KH.x
containing 0.1 mole of Zn2+ and 0.01 mole of Where, p = Partial pressure of the gas
Cu2+ till the sulphide ion concentration reaches KH = Henry's law constant of the gas
to 8.1 × 10–19 moles. Which one of the following x = Mole fraction of gas.
statements is true? KH depends only on the nature of gas, nature of liquid
[Ksp of ZnS and CuS are 3 × 10–22 and 8 × 10–36 and temperature. As temperature increases, KH
respectively.] increases.
(a) Only ZnS precipitates 137. The KH value (K bar) of Argon (I).
(b) Both CuS and ZnS precipitate carbondioxide (II), formaldehyde (III) and
(c) Only CuS precipitates methane (IV) are respectively 40.3, 167, 1.83
(d) No precipitation occurs ×10–5 and 0.413 at 298 K. The increasing order
Karnataka-CET-2011 of solubility of gas in liquid is
Ans. (b) : The ionic product for ZnS (0.1 × 8.1 × 10 ) –19 (a) I<II<IV<III (b) III<IV<II<I
and for CuS (0.01 × 8.1 × 10–19) exceeds their Ksp (c) I<III<II<IV (d) I<IV<II<III
values. Precipitation of occurs only when ionic product Karnataka-CET-2021
exceeds the value of solubility product. Hence, both Ans. (a) : Higher the value of the KH, the lower is the
CuS and ZnS precipitated. solubility of gas in liquid. Hence, the order of
135. 1 dm3 solution containing 10–5 moles each of Cl– increasing solubility will be–
ions and CrO24− ions is treated with 10–4 moles Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO
of silver nitrate. Which one of the following 138. Henry’s law constant for the solubility of N2
observations is made? gas in water at 298K is 1.0×105 atm. The mole
[Ksp of Ag2CrO4 = 4 × 10–12] fraction of N2 in air is 0.8. The number of moles
[Ksp of AgCl = 1 × 10–10] of N2 from air dissolved in 10 moles of water at
(a) Precipitation does not occur 298 K and 5 atm pressure is
(b) Silver chromate gets precipitated first (a) 4.0×10–4 (b) 4.0×10–5
–4
(c) Silver chloride gets precipitated first (c) 5.0×10 (d) 4.0×10–6
(d) Both silver chromate and silver chloride start Karnataka-CET-2021
precipitating simultaneously Ans. (a) : Given,
Karnataka-CET, 2009 Henry's law of constant (KH) = 1.0 × 105 atm, X N = 0.8
2
Ans. (c) : It is very well to know that when the value of
ionic product is greater then the compounds precipitated p N2 = Total pressure × Mole fraction
first. = 5× 0.8 = 4 atm
For precipitation– From Henry's law-
Ionic product > Solubility product (Ksp) p N 2 = KH . X N 2
For, Ag2CrO4
4
Ionic product = [Ag+]2 [CrO24− ] X N2 = = 4 ×10−5
–4 2 –5
= (10 ) (10 ) = 10 –13 1 × 10 5
Ksp of Ag2CrO4 = 4 × 10–12 Q 1 mole of X N2 contains = 4 × 10–5

Hence, Ksp > I.P. ∴ 10 mole of X N2 contains = 4 × 10–5 × 10 = 4 × 10–4
Thus, no precipitate is obtained.
For, AgCl, 139. For which of the following sparingly soluble
Ionic product = [Ag+] [Cl–] salt, the solubility (s) and solubility product
= [10–4] [10–5] (Ksp) are related by the expression s =
= 10 –9 (Ksp/4)1/3?

(a) BaSO4 (b) Ca3(PO4)2 (a) AgCl and PbCrO4
(c) Hg2Cl2 (d) Ag3PO4 (b) AgI and Ag2CO3
(e) CuS (c) AgCl and Ag2CO3
Kerala-CEE-2006 (d) Ag2CO3 and AgI
− 2+ (e) Ag2CO3 and PbCrO4
  Hg + 2Cl
Ans. (c) : (3) Hg 2 Cl2   2 Kerala-CEE-2011
S 2S
2−
K sp =[Hg ].[Cl ] − 2 Ans. (d) : The salt AgCl, AgI, PbCrO4 are of example
2
of AB type salt.
Ksp = (S).(2S)2 Now, AB → A+ + B–
Ksp = 4S3 S S
K sp ∴ Ksp = [A+] [B–]
S= 3 Ksp = S × S
4
(2) Ca3(PO4)2 or S2 = Ksp
2+ 3− S = K sp
  3Ca +2PO 4
Ca 3 (PO 4 )2  
3S 2S
2+ 3 3− 2 Solubility of AgCl = K sp
K sp = [Ca ] .[PO 4 ]
= 1× 10−10 =1× 10−5
Ksp = (3S)3 (2S)3
Ksp = 108S5 Solubility of AgI = K sp
1/ 5
 K sp  = 1× 10−16 =1× 10−8
S= 
 108  Solubility of PbCrO4 = K sp
(1) BaSO4
The ionisation of BaSO4 is– = 4 × 10−4 = 2 × 10−7
2+ 2-
BaSO 4  
  Ba + SO 4 For Ag 2 CO3 –
S S Ag2CO3 → 2Ag+ + CO32−
Ksp = [Ba2+] . [ SO 4−2 ]
Ksp = [Ag+]2 [CO32− ]
∴
Ksp = S.S
Ksp = (2S)2 (S)
Ksp = S2
or Ksp = 4S3
S = K sp K sp
+ 3− or S3 =
(4) Ag 3 PO 4    3Ag + PO 4
  4
Ksp = [Ag+]3.[PO43–] 8 × 10−12
3
Ksp = (3S) (S) S 3
=
4
Ksp = 27S4 S3 = 2 × 10–12
K Hence, the most soluble salt are Ag2CO3 and least
S = 4 sp soluble salt are AgI because Ksp of Ag2CO3 is highest
27 and Ksp of AgI is lowest.
2+ 2−
  CuS + SS
(5) CuS   141. The pH of a saturated solution of a metal
Ksp = [Cu2+] [S2–] hydroxide of formula X(OH)2 is 12.0 at 298 K.
Ksp = (S)(S) What is the solubility product of a metal
Ksp = S 2 hydroxide at 298 K (in mol3 L-3)?
-6
(a) 2 × 10 (b) 1 × 10-7
S = K sp (c) 5 × 10 -5
(d) 2 × 10-5
-7
The solubility product and solubility of Hg2Cl2 has the (e) 5 × 10
relation : Kerala-CEE-2014
1/ 3 Ans. (e) :Give pH =12
 K sp 
S=  [H+] = 1× 10 –pH =1×10-12
 4  = 1 × 10–12
140. The solubility product (Ksp) of the following We know that
compounds are given at 25oC [H+][OH-] =kw = 1×10–14
Compounds Ksp 1×10-14
AgCl 1.1 × 10-10 [OH - ] =
AgI 1.0 × 10-16 [H + ]
PbCrO4 4.0 × 10-14 1×10-14
Ag2CO3 8.0 × 10-12 = = 1× 10−2
1×10-12
The most soluble and least soluble compounds X(OH) 2  → X 2+ + 2OH −
are x 2x

[OH − ] 1×10−2 Q K sp = [Ag + ].[Cl − ]
X 2+ = = = 5 × 10−3
2 2 1.8 ×10 −10 = [Ag + ] × 0.1
Ksp = [X2+].[2OH-]2
= (5×10-3).(1×10-2)2 1.8 × 10−10
Q[Ag + ] =
= (5×10-3).(1×10-4) 0.1
= 5×10-7mol3L-3 Q 1L of solution contain's
142. If the ionic product of M (OH)2 is 5 × 10-10 then 1.8×10-9moles of Ag+
the molar solubility of M(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH is Quantity of electricity required
(a) 5 × 10-12 M (b) 5 × 10-8 M = 1.8×10-9×96500
-10
(c) 5 × 10 M (d) 5 × 10-9 M = 1.73×10-4C
-16
(e) 5 × 10 M  1.73×10-4 
Kerala-CEE-2015 time requried (t)=  −6 
Ans. (b) :  1× 10 
Ksp of M(OH)2 is = 5×10-10M t = 173s
[OH–] = 10–1 145. The solubility CaF2 is s moles/litre. Then
2+ – 2 solubility product is :
M(OH)2    [M ]. [OH ] (a) s2 (b) 4s3
5×10–10 [S] [10–1]2 (c) 3s 2
(d) s3
5 ×10−10 Manipal-2019
S= 2+ −
10−2   Ca + 2F
Ans. (b) : CaF2  
[s] [2s]
S = 5 ×10−8 K for CaF = [Ca 2+
].[F − 2
]
Hence, molar solubility = 5 × 10–8 M sp 2
2
Ksp = [s].[2s]
143. Solubility product (ksp) of saturated PbCl2 in
–4
water is 1.8 × 10 mol dm . What is the3 –9 Ksp = 4s3
concentration of Pb2+ in the solution? 146. The solubility product of Al2(SO4)3 is given by
(a) (0.45 × 10–4)1/3 mol dm–3 the expression :
(b) (1.8 × 10–4)1/3mol dm–3 (a) [Al3+] [SO 2– 4 ] (b) [Al3+]2 [SO 2– 4 ]
–4 1/3 –3
(c) (0.9 × 10 ) mol dm 3+ 3 2– 2 3+ 2 2– 3
(c) [Al ] [SO ] (d) [Al ] [SO 4 ]
(d) (2.0 × 10–4)1/3 mol dm–3 4
–4 1/3
(e) (2.45 × 10 ) mol dm –3 Manipal-2018
Kerala-CEE-2017 Ans. (d) :Find Ksp of.
Ans. (a) : Given - Ksp=1.8×10-4mol3dm-9 Al2(SO4)3 -
3+ 2−
For the reaction of the AB2 ie (PbCl2)
2+ - 2
Al2 (SO4)3     2Al + 3SO 4
Ksp = [Pb ][Cl ]
K sp =[Al3+ ]2 [SO 4 2− ]3
= [S] [2S]2
Ksp= 4S3 147. Which among the following salts, solubility
1/ 3 decreases with increase in temperature?
 K sp 
S=   (a) Na2SO4 (b) NaBr
 4  (c) NaCl (d) KCl
Solubility of Pb2+ ion will be MHT CET-03.05.2019, SHIFT-I
1/ 3
1.8×10-4  Ans. (a) : For Na2SO4 salt, Solubility decreases with
∴ S =  Increase in temperature because reaction of Na2SO4
 4  with water is an exothermic reaction.
-4 1/3 –3
S = (0.45×10 ) mol.dm As a result solubility decreases.
144. Consider the electrochemical reaction between For NaBr, NaCl, KCl the dissolution process i.e.
Ag (s) and Cl2 (g) electrodes in 1 L of 0.1 M endothermic
KCl aqueous solution. Solubility product of 148. Solubility of which among the following solids
AgCl is 1.8 × 10-10 and F = 96500 C/mol. At 1 ≥ in water changes slightly with temperature?
10-6 A current, calculate the time required to (a) KNO3 (b) NaNO3
start observing the AgCl precipitation in the (c) KBr (d) NaBr
galvanic cell MHT CET-2017
(a) 173 s (b) 346 s
Ans. (d) : The solubility of NaBr changes slightly with
(c) 125 × 106 s (d) 1.25 × 105 s
temperature.
(e) 101 s –1
Kerala-CEE-2018 149. Solubility of Ca(OH)2 is s mol L . The
solubility product (Ksp) under the same
Ans. (a) : Given, Ksp =1.8×10–10,[Cl–]=0.1M
condition is
The electrochemical reaction between.
(a) 4s3 (b) 3s4
Ag(S) and Cl2 (g) is as fallows- 2
+ −
(c) 4s (d) s3
AgCl  
 Ag + Cl MHT CET-2008
(a) Presence of HCl decreases the sulphate ion
Ans. (a) : Ca(OH)2 ↽ ⇀ Ca 2+ + 2OH − concentration
[s] [2s]
So, solubility product (Ksp) = [Ca ] [OH ] 2+ – 2 (b) Solubility product of group II sulphate is
= (s) (2s)2 more than that of group IV sulphate
= 4s3 (c) Presence of HCl increase the suphate ion
–5 concentration
150. The solubility of AgCl is 1×10 mol/L. Its (d) Sulphate of group IV cations are unstable in
solubility in 0.1 molar sodium chloride solution HCl
is NEET-2005
–10 –5
(a) 1×10 (b) 1×10 Ans. (a) : H 2S gas is passed in presence of HCl, in
(c) 1×10–9 (d) 1×10–4 qualitative analysis of cation of second group, Therefor,
MHT CET-2007 due to common ion effect, lower concentration of sulphide
+ − ion is obtained which is sufficient for the precipitation of
Ans. (c) : AgCl     Ag +Cl [S] second group cation in form of their sulphides due to lower
[S]
value of their solubility product (Ksp).
K sp = [Ag + ][Cl− ] in presence of HCl decreases the sulphate ion
Ksp = S 2 concentration.
S = 1×10 -5 153. The solubility product of a sparingly soluble
-5 2 -10 salt AX2 is 3.2×10–11. Its solubility (in moles L)
Ksp = (1×10 ) = 1×10 is
suppose its solubility in 0.1m NaCl is x mol/L (a) 5.6×10–6 (b) 3.1×10–4
+ − –4
  Ag +Cl
AgCl   (c) 2×10 (d) 4×10–4
x x
NEET-2004
+
NaCl  
  Na +Cl− Ans. (c) : AX2 is ionised as follow -
0.1m 0.1m
2+ −
Ksp of AgCl = [Ag+][Cl-]   A + 2X
AX 2  
= [x]. [x+0.1] [S] [2S]
1×10-10 = x2 + 0.1x Solubility product of AX2 is -
higher power of x are neglected Ksp = [A2+][X–]2
0.1x = 1×10 –10 = [S][2S]2
Ksp= 4S3
1× 10−10 3.2×10-11 = 4S3
x=
0.1 S3 = 0.8 ×10-11
–9
x = 1 × 10 S3 = 8 ×10-12
S = ( 8 ×10−12 )
1/ 3
151. In qualitative analysis the metals of group 1
can be separated from other ions by
precipitating them as chloride salts. A solutions Solubility = 2×10-4 mol/L
initially contains Ag+ and Pb2+ at a 154. The solubility product of AgI at 25ºC is
concentration of 0.10 M. Aqueous HCl is added 1.0×10–16 mol–1L–1. The solubility of AgI in 10–4
to this solution until the Cl– concentrations of N solution of KI at 25ºC is approximately (in
Ag+ and Pb2+ be at equilibrium ? mol L–1)
(Ksp for AgCl = 1.8×10 , Ksp for PbCl2 –10 (a) 1.0×10–16 (b) 1.0×10–12
–10
=1.7×10 ) –5 (c) 1.0×10 (d) 1.0×10–8
(a) [Ag+] = 1.8×10–7 M, [Pb2+] = 1.7×10–6 M NEET-2003
+ –11 2+ –5 + −
(b) [Ag ] = 1.8×10 M, [Pb ] = 8.5×10 M Ans. (b) : AgI    Ag + I
 
(c) [Ag+] = 1.8×10–9 M, [Pb2+] = 1.7×10–3 M + −
(d) [Ag+] = 1.8×10–11 M, [Pb2+] = 1.7×10–4 M   K−4 + −4I
KI  
[10 ] [10 ]
NEET-Mains 2011 + −
Ans. (c) : [Ag+][Cl-]= 1.8×10-10   Ag + I −4
AgI  
[x ] [ x +10 ]
1.8×10-10 Ksp of AgI-

[Ag + ]= =1.8 × 10−9 Ksp = [Ag+] [I–]
0.1
= [x] [x+10–4] (x << 10–4)
Ag + =1.8 × 10−9 M Hence, x=neglect
[Pb2+]. [Cl–]2 = 1.7×10–5 Ksp = [x] [10]–4
1.7 × 10−5 K sp 10−16
Pb 2+ = x = −4 = −4 = 1× 10−12
0.1× 0.1 10 10
Pb2+ = 1.7× 10-3M Solubility of AgI is 1×10-12 mol L–1
152. H2S gas when passed through a solutions if 155. Solubility of MX2 type electrolytes is 0.5×10–4
cations containing HCl precipitates the cations mol/lit, then find out Ksp of electrolytes.
of second group of qualitative analysis but not (a) 5×10–12 (b) 25×10–10
–13
those belonging to the fourth group. It is (c) 1×10 (d) 5×10–13
because NEET-2002
Ans. (d): An electrolyte MX2 undergoes Similarly solubility of Ag2S-
dissocitation as follows:– −−
  2Ag + S
Ag 2S  
Concentration MX2 M+2 X– 2S 2S
K sp = ( 2S) × S
2
Initial 1 0 0
concentration
Ksp = 4S3
Concentration 1-s s 2s 1/ 3
at Equilibrium  K sp 
S = 
Thus from the above condition we can say that, Ksp=  4 
s×(2s)2= 4×(s)3 1/ 3
Here, s (the solubility) is 0.5×10–4 mole/lit.  10−42 
=   =10−27 mol / L
∴ K sp=4×(0.5×10–4)3  4 
Ksp=5×10–13 ∴(for Ag2S, 4S3=Ksp)
156. Solubility of M2S salt is 3.5×10–6 then find out
10−42
solubility product, = 6×10-15mol/liter
(a) 1.7×10–6 (b) 1.7×10–16 4
–18
(c) 1.7×10 (d) 1.7×10–12 Solubility of HgS-
++ −−
NEET-2001   Hg + S
HgS  
S
Ans. (b) : Let's be the solubility of salt M2S which S
undergoes dissociation as fallow:- Ksp = S2

  2M +S
M 2S   + −2 S = K sp
Initial concentration 1 0 0
Concentration 1-S 2S S = 10−54
at aqulibrium =10−27 mol / L
Ksp=[ M+]2[S–2] Hence, the correct order of solubility is
Ksp = (2S)2 (S) Ag2S >CuS >HgS.
Ksp = 4S3
Ksp = 4 × (3.5×10-6)3 159. pH of a saturated solution if Ba(OH)2 is 12. The
value of solubility product (Ksp) of Ba(OH)2 is
Ksp = 1.7×10-16
(a) 3.3×10–7 (b) 5.0×10–7
157. The solubility of a saturated solution of calcium (c) 4.0×10–6 (d) 5.0×10–6
fluoride is 2×10–4 moles per litre. Its solubility NEET-2012, 2010
product is 2+ −
(a) 22×10–11 (b) 14×10–14   Ba + 2OH
Ans. (b) : Ba(OH)2  
S 2S
–2
(c) 2×10 (d) 32×10–12 Given,
NEET-1999 pH = 12
Ans. (d) : CaF2   2+
+ 2F− p(OH) = 14 – pH
  Ca
[S] [2S] p(OH) = 14 – 12 = 2
2+
K sp = [Ca ][F ] − 2 [OH–] = 10–pOH = 10–2 or 1 × 10–2
As conc. of Ba2+ is half of OH–
= [S] [2S]2 Ba2+ = 0.5 × 10–2
Ksp= 4S3 Ksp = (0.5 × 10–2) (1 × 10–2)2
Given, S=2×10–4
Ksp = 0.5 × 10–6
Ksp=4×(2×10–4)3
Ksp = 5 × 10–7
Ksp = 32×10–12
160. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The
158. The solubility product of CuS, Ag2S and HgS solubility product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 is
–31 –44 –54
are 10 , 10 and 10 respectively. The (a) 0.5×10–10 (b) 0.5×10–15
solubilities of these sulphides are in the order (c) 0.25×10–10 (d) 0.125×10–15
(a) HgS > Ag2S > CuS (b) CuS > Ag2S > HgS
NEET-2019
(c) Ag2S > CuS > HgS (d) Ag2S > HgS > CuS 2+ −
NEET-1997 Ans. (b) : CO(OH) 2  Ca +2OH
Ans. (c) : Solubility product (Ksp) of CuS = 10-31 pH=9 and pOH = 14 –9=5
 
CuS    Cu +S ++ ––
10−5
Hence [ Ca 2+ ] =
S S 2
∴ Solubility of CuS - Thus, K sp = [ Ca ][ OH − ]
2+ 2
Ksp = S2
S = K sp  10−5  −5 2
=  (10 )
–31
 2 
= 10
= 0.5 × 10−15
−16
= 3.16 × 10 mol / L Solubility product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 is 0.5 × 10–15.

161. The molar solubility of CaF2 (Ksp = 5.3×10–11) Ksp is value seems to very small so S value can be
in 0.1 M solution of NaF will be neglected, with to 0.1m
(a) 5.3 ×10–11 mol L–1 Ksp = S[0.1]
(b) 5.3 ×10–8 mol L–1
–9 –1 K sp
(c) 5.3 ×10 mol L S=
–10 –1
(d) 5.3 ×10 mol L 0.1
Odisha NEET-2019 1.6 × 10−10
S =
Ans. (c) : CaF2 (s)  Ca 2+ (aq)+2F− (aq) 0.1
NaF(aq) → Na + (aq) + F− (aq) S = 1.6 ×10−9 M
In solution –[F]= (2s'+C) 165. MY and NY3 two nearly insoluble salts, have
[F–] ≈C (due to common ion effect) the same Ksp values of 6.2×10–13 at room
Ksp (CaF2)=[Ca+2].[F–]2 temperature. Which statement would be true in
Ksp (CaF2)=s'.C2 regard to MY and NY3?
5.3 × 10−11 (a) The salts MY and NY3 are more soluble in
s' =
(10−1 ) 2 0.5 M KY than pure water
s'= 5.3×10–9 mol L–1 (b) The addition of the salt of KY to solution of
162. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42×10–3g MY and NY3 will have no effect on their
L–1 at 298 K. The value of its solubility product solubilities
(Ksp) will be (c) The molar solubilities of MY and NY3 in
(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1) water are identical
(a) 1.08×10–10 mol2 L–2 (d) The molar solubility of MY in water is less
(b) 1.08×10–12 mol2 L–2 than that of NY3
(c) 1.08×10–14 mol2 L–2 NEET-I 2016
(d) 1.08×10–8 mol2 L–2 Ans. (d) : Molar solubility of MY in water is less than
NEET-2018 that of NY3
Ans. (a) : The solubility S= 2.42×10-3gL-1 MY → M+ + Y–
2.42×10-3gL-1 NY3 → N3+ + 3Y–
S= = 1.04 × 10−5 molL−1
233g mol-1 For MY the molar solubility = K sp
2-
Ksp=[B 2+].[SO4 ]
2
Ksp=[S].[S]= S = 6.2 × 10−13
Ksp= (1.04× 10–5)2 = 7.88 × 10–7 m.
Hence, Ksp = 1.08 × 10–10 mol2 L–2 For NY3 the molar solubility-
163. Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a saturated 1/ 4 1/ 4
K   1.2 × 10 −13 
solution of Ag2C2O4 is 2.2×10–4 mol L–1. S =  sp  =  
Solubility product of Ag2C2O4 is  27   27 
(a) 2.66×10–12 (b) 4.5×10–11 S = 3.9 × 10–4 M
–12
(c) 5.3×10 (d) 2.42×10–8 Hence molar solubility of MY water is less than that of
NEET-2017
NY3.
Ans. (c) : 166. The ionic product of water at 25ºC is 10–14. Its
+ 2–
Ag2 C2O4(s)    2Ag (aq) + (C2O4 ) (aq) product at 90º C will be
[2S] [S] (a) 1×10–14 (b) 1×10–16
–20
Ksp = [Ag]+ [C2 O 24− ] (c) 1×10 (d) 1×10–12
NEET-1996
2.2 × 10−4
Ag+ = M = 1.1 × 10–4 M Ans. (d) : The ionic product of water increases with
2 increases in temperature. This is because of the fact that
Ksp = (2.2 × 10–4)2 (1.1 × 10–4)
Ksp = 5.324 × 10 –12 with increase of temperature the degree of ionization of
water increases.
164. The solubility of AgCl(s) with solubility product the only one option has a value greater than 10–14 ie
1.6×10–10 in 0.1 M NaCl would be 10–2
(a) 1.26×10–5 M (b) 1. 6×10–9 M
(c) 1. 6×10–11 M (d) zero Hence ionic product of water at 90oC = 1 × 10–12.
NEET-2016 167. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M
+
Ans. (b) : AgCl  
  Ag + Cl¯ NaOH. Given that the ionic product if Ni(OH)2
is 2 × 10–15
a 0 0
a–S S S + 0.1 (a) 2 × 10–13 M (b) 2 × 10–8 M
–13
Ksp = [Ag+].[Cl–] (c) 1 × 10 M (d) 1 × 108 M
= [S]. [0.1 + S] NEET-2020

Ans. (a) : α = 1 for NaOH 171. The solubility of Sb2S3 in water is 10×10-5
mol/L at 298K. What will be its solubility
NaOH → Na + + OH − (aq) product?
(aq) (a) 108×10–25 (b) 10×10–25
–25
0.1M 0.1M (c) 144×10 (d) 126×10–24
UP CPMT-2004
Ni ( OH )2  Ni 2+ ( aq ) + 2OH − (aq) Ans. (a) : Key Idea Write the equation for dissociation
S ( 0.1 + 2S) of Sb2S3 and find relationship between Ksp and
ionic product = [ Ni ] [ OH– ]2
+2 solubility. From this relationship, calculate Ksp.
2 × 10–15 = [ Ni+2 ] [10–1]2 Let solubility of Sb2S3=x mol/L
2 × 10–13 = [ Ni2+ ] Sb2S3   3+
 2Sb +3S
2-
[ Ni2+ ] = 2 × 10–13 ∴ solubility x mol/L 2x 3x

168. Aqueous solutions of acetic acid contains Ksp=[Sb3+]2 [S2–]3
(a) CH3COO– and H+ = (2x)2 (3x)3
(b) CH3COO– and CH3COOH Ksp = 108x5
(c) CH3COO– H3O+ and H+ Given, x = 10×10–5 mol/L
(d) CH3COOH, CH3COO– and H+ Ksp=108×(10×10–5)5
NEET-1991 =108×10–25
Ans. (b) : The aqueous solution fo acetic acid ionize as 172. If the solubility of BaSO4 (mol. wt. 233) is 2.33
follows– × 10–4g/100 ml, then the solubility product of
H2O+CH3COOH(Base) ⇔CH3COO– (Acid)+H3O+ BaSO4 is
So, the aqueous solution of acetic acid contains (a) 1 × 10–5 mol/L (b) 1 × 10–10 mol/L
–4
CH3COO–, H3O+ and CH3COOH. (c) 1 × 10 mol/L (d) 1 × 10–8 mol/L
169. Ksp for Mg(OH)2 is 0.4×10-11, then the pH value UP CPMT-2001
of the solution is Ans. (b) : Given, solubility of BaSO4
(a) 5 (b) 8.5 = 2.33 × 10–4 g/100 mL
(c) 10.3 (d) 12 2.33 ×10−3
UP CPMT-2014 = 2.33 × 10–3 g/L =
233
Ans. (c) : Mg(OH)2 dissolves in the following manner. (Q mol. wt. of BaSO4 = 233)
M g(OH) 2  → Mg 2 + + 2OH − ∴ Solubility of BaSO4 = 1 × 10–5 mol/L
S mol / L S mol / L 2s mol / L (s=solubility)
2+ 2−
2+ − 2   Ba + SO 4
BaSO 4  
K sp = [Mg ][OH ] 2+ 2–
Ksp = [Ba ][SO4 ]
= (S) (2S)2 = (1× 10–5) (1 × 10–5)
= 4S3 = 1 × 10–10 mol/L
4S = 0.4×10–11
3
173. The solubility product of calcium fluoride is 3.2
S3 = 10–121/ 3 × 10–11 M3. Its solubility in saturated solution is
S = (10−12 ) (a) 8 × 10–12 ML–1 (b) 2 × 10–4 ML–1
–12 –1
(c) 4 × 10 ML (d) 1 × 10–4 ML–1
S = 10–4 UP CPMT-2001
–
Since 1 mol Mg (OH)2 provides 2 moles of [OH ], Ans. (b) : Given, Ksp = 3.2 × 10–11
– –4
So [OH ] = 2 × 10 Let the solubility of CaF2 = x mol/L
pOH = – log [OH–]
= –log (2 × 10–4) = 3.7 CaF2  → Ca 2 + + 2F−
moles after x 2x
pH = 14 – pOH dissolution
= 14 – 3.7 Ksp = [Ca2+] [F–]2
= 10.3 = x × (2x)2
170. Ksp and solubility of MX4 (mol/litre) are related = 4x3
by ∴ 3.2 × 10–11 = 4x3
1/5 1/4
(a) s = [Ksp/256] (b) s = [128 Ksp]
3.2 × 10−11
(c) s = [256 Ksp]1/3 (d) s = – [Ksp/128]1/4 or x= 3
UP CPMT-2013 4
Ans. (a) : MX4 ionises in the solution as x = 3 8 ×10−12
MX 4  M s4+ + 4X −4s x = 2 × 10–4 mol/L
174. If the solubility of lithium sodium
K sp = [M 4 + ][X − ]4 = (s) × (4s)4 hexafluoroaluminate is 'a' mol/L, its solubility
= 256 s5 product is
1/ 5 (a) a8 (b) 10 a3
 K sp  (c) 180 a 3
(d) 2916 a8
Or s= 
 256  UP CPMT-2001
Ans. (d) : Lithium sodium hexafluoro aluminate is Ans. (d) : Ksp of Barium sulphate is = 1.5 × 10–9
chemically Li3Na3(AlF6)2. Write its dissociation BaSO 4  Ba 2+ + SO 24−
reaction and then find Ksp
Li3 Na 3 (AlF6 )2  3Li + + 3Na + + 2AlF63− [s] [s]
initial conc. a mol/L 0 0 0 Ksp = [ Ba2+]. [ SO 24− ]
conc. at equilibrium 3a 3a 2a Ksp = S2
∴ Ksp = [Li+]3 [Na+]3 [AlF63–]2 S = K SP
= (3a)3 × (3a)3 × (2a)2
= 27a3 × 27a3 × 4a2 S = 1.5 ×10−9 = 3.9 × 10−5
= 2916a8 179. Ksp of CaSO4 is 4 × 10–12. CaSO4 is precipitated
175. The solubility in water of a sparingly soluble on mixing equal volumes of the following
salt AB2 is 1.0 × 10–5 mol L–1. Its solubility solutions.
Product number will be (a) 3 × 10–10M CaCl2 and 3 × 10–6M (NH4)2 SO4
(a) 4 × 10–15 (b) 4 × 10–10 (b) 4 × 10–6 M CaCl2 and 3 × 10–6M (NH4)2SO4
(c) 1 × 10–15 (d) 1 × 10–10
(c) 6 × 10–6M CaCl2 and 3 × 10–16M (NH4)2SO4
UPTU/UPSEE-2007
(d) In all the above cases
Ans. (a) : UPTU/UPSEE-2015
AB2  A 2+ + 2B− Ans. (c) : Super Saturated Solution– It is defined as
S 2S precipitate, which form by the mixture of two solution,
Using the relation of solubility and solubility. if the product of ions is greater than product of
2 solubility, then it is called super saturated solution.
AB2   A +2  .  B− 
[Ca2+].[SO42-]> Ksp
Ksp = [S].[ 2S]
2
180. The solubility of AgI in NaI solution is less than
Ksp = 4s3 that in pure water because
= 4 ( 1× 10–5)3 (a) AgI forms complex with NaI
Ksp = 4 × 10–15 (b) Of common ion effect
176. The value of the ionic product of water (c) Solubility product of AgI is less then that of
depends: NaI
(a) on volume of water (d) The temperature of the solution decreases
(b) on temperature UPTU/UPSEE-2014
(c) changes by adding acid or alkali JCECE - 2014
(d) always remain constant Ans. (b) : The solubility of AgI in NaI Solution is less
UPTU/UPSEE-2006 than in pure water because of common ion effect.
Ans. (b) : The value of the ionic product of water AgI  Ag+ + I¯
depends on temperature NaI  Na+ + I¯
177. The solubility of CaF2in pure water 181. At a certain temperature, the solubility of the
is 2.3×10-4 mol dm-3 Its solubility product will salt, MmAn in water is s mol/L. The solubility
be: product of the salt is
(a) 4.6×10-4 (b) 4.6×10-8 (a) M A
m n
(b) (m + n)sm + n
(c) 6.9×10-12 (d) 4.9×10-11 m n m+n
(c) m n s (d) mmAns
UPTU/UPSEE-2006, 2005
UPTU/UPSEE-2010
Ans. (d) : Solubility of CaF2 in pure
water is : 2.3 × 10–4 mol dm-3 Ans. (c) : let us consider solubility of any general salt
Mm An.
CaF2  Ca 2+ + 2F− n+ m−
   mM   nA 
M m A n  
[S] [ 2S] The solution which contains maximam possible amount
2
K sp = Ca 2+  .  F−  of solute in it are called saturated solution for saturated
solution, at equilibrium.
[ ] [ ]
2
S 2S Ksp = [Mn+]m[Am+]n
Ksp = 4s3 = [ms]m[ns]n
–4 3
= 4 × ( 2.3 × 10 ) Ksp = mm nn [S]m+n
–11
Ksp = 4.9 × 10 182. Solubility product of Mg(OH)2 at ordinary
178. The solubility product of Barium sulphate is temp 1.96×10-11. pH of a saturated soln. of Mg
–9
1.5 × 10 at 18°C. Its solubility in water at (OH)2 will be
18°C is: (a) 10.53 (b) 8.47
(a) 1.5 × 10–9 (b) 1.5 × 10–5 (c) 6.94 (d) 3.47
(c) 3.9 × 10–9 (d) 3.9 × 10–5 WB-JEE-2008
UPTU/UPSEE-2004 Ans. (a) :
Mg ( OH )2  Mg 2+ + 2OH − MX 4  [M 4+ ] +  4X − 
[s ] [ 2s ] [S] [ 4S]
2+ – 2
Ksp = [ Mg ] . [ OH ] 4+ −
K sp = [M ]  4X 
= [s] [2s]2
1.69 × 10 –11
= 4S3 Ksp = [S] [ 4S]4
1/ 3 Ksp = [S] [256 S4]
1.96 × 10−11  Ksp = [256 S5]
S=   1/ 5
 4   K sp 
S = ( 4.9 × 10 )–12 1/3 S= 
S = 1.69 × 10–4  256 
So, concentration of [ OH–] = 2s 186. Which of the following arrangements correct
[ OH–] = 3.38 × 10–4 in respect of solubility in water?
pOH = – log [ OH–] (a) CaSO4 > BaSO4 > BeSO4> MgSO4 > SrSO4
= – log [ 3.38 × 10–4] (b) BeSO4 > MgSO4 > CaSO4> SrSO4 > BaSO4
pOH = 3.471 (c) BaSO4 > SrSO4 > CaSO4 > MgSO4 > BeSO4
pH = 14 – pOH (d) BeSO4 > CaSO4 > MgSO4> SrSO4 > BaSO4
= 14 – 3.471 WB-JEE-2016
pH = 10.529. Ans. (b) : The solubility of sulphates in water decreases
183. The solubility of Ca3(PO4)2 in water is y down the group. The magnitude of the lattic enthalpy
moles/litre. its solubility product is remains almost constant as the sulphate ion is so big
(a) 6y4 (b) 36y4 that small increases in size of cation from Be to Ba does
5 not make any difference. The hydration enthalpy
(c) 64y (d) 108y5 decreases from Be2+ to Ba2+ as the size of the cation
WB-JEE-2011 increases down the group.
Ans. (d) : Ca 3 (PO 4 ) 2  3Ca 2 + + 2PO34− Hence, the solubility of sulphates of alkaline earth metal
3 2 decreases down the group mainly due to decreasing
K sp = Ca 2+   PO34−  hydration enthalpy from Be2+ to Ba2+. The decreasing
= [ 3y]3 [ 2y]2 order of solubility would be–
KSP = 27 y3 . 4y2 BeSO4 > MgSO4 > CaSO4 > SrSO4 > BaSO4
5
KSP = 108y
o
184. At 25 C, the solubility product of salt of MX2 3. Acid, Bases and Salts
type is 3.2 × 10-8 in water. The solubility (in
mol/L) of MX2 in water at the same 187. Given below are the oxides:
temperature will be Na2O, As2O3, N2O, NO and Cl2O7
(a) 1.2 × 10-3 (b) 2 × 10-3
-3 -3 Number of amphoteric oxides is:
(c) 3.2 × 10 (d) 1.75 × 10 (a) 0 (b) 1
WB-JEE-2013 (c) 2 (d) 3
Ans. (b): For MX2 type salt, JEE Main-24.06.2022, Shift-I
MX 2   M 2+  +  2X −  Ans. (b) : An amphoteric oxide is an oxide that can act
either as an acid or as a base to create oxides and
[s ] [ 2s ] hydroxides are formed when metals have several
2 oxidation states.
K sp =  M 2+   X −  Na2O → Basic
As2O3 → Amphoteric
= [S] [ 2S]
2
N2O → Neutral
= 4S3 Cl2O7 → Acidic
3.2 × 10–8 = 4s3 NO → Neutral
3.2 × 10−8 So, only As2O3 shows amphoteric oxides.
S= 3
188. When 10 ml of 10 M solution of H2SO4 and 100
3
S = 2 × 10–3 mol /L ml of 1 M solution of NaOH are mixed, the
resulting solution will be?
185. The molar solubility (in mol L–1) of a sparingly (a) Acidic (b) Neutral
soluble salt MX4 is 'S'. The corresponding (c) Alkaline (d) Can not be predicted
solubility product is Ksp. S in terms of 'Ksp' is
given by the relation CG PET-22.05.2022
1/ 4 1/ 5 Ans. (a) : For, NaOH:–
 K sp   K sp  N1V1 = 100 ml × 1N = 100 ml (N)
(a) S =   (b) S =   For H2SO4:–
 128   256 
(c) S=(256 Ksp)1/5 (d) S=(128 Ksp)1/4 N2V2 = 10 ml × 10N = 100 ml (N)
WB-JEE-2016 Hence, The resulting solution will be acidic.
Ans. (b) : For MX4 type salt -
189. In case of following Bronsted base, the correct FeCl3 + 3H 2 O → Fe ( OH )3 + 3HCl
order of basic strength is
Fe3+ + 3H 2 O → Fe ( OH )3 + 3H +
(a) ClO −4 > ClO3− > ClO 2− > ClO −
(b) ClO − > ClO −2 > ClO3− > ClO 4− 194. The conjugate base of HSO4− ion is ….
(c) ClO3− > ClO 2− > ClO 4− > ClO − (a) H2SO4 (b) H 3SO 4+
(d) ClO −2 > ClO3− > ClO − > ClO 4− (c) SO 2−
4
(d) O2–
CG PET-22.05.2022 AP-EAMCET-1991
Ans. (b) : As we know, Ans. (c) : Although it has a negative charge, it will
never accept a H+ to form H2SO4(sulfuric acid). That is
More the number of oxygen atoms attached, more is the
because sulfuric acid is a strong acid and completely
acidity of the molecule. disassociates in water.
So, Order of acidity is:–
HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 Therefore, the sulfate ion (SO 24− ) is the conjugate base
So, the conjugate base order will be just the reverse:– of HSO −4
ClO– > ClO −2 > ClO3− > ClO −4 HSO 4− 
−H +
→ SO 42−
190. Match List-I with List-II Acid Conjugatebase
List-I(Oxide) List-II(Nature 195. The nature of 0.1 M solution of sodium

(A) Cl2O7 (I) Amphoteric bisulphate is
(B) Na2O (II) Basic (a) acidic (b) basic
(C) Al2O3 (III) Neutral (c) neutral (d) can't predict
(D) N2O (IV) Acidic AP-EAMCET-1993
Choose the correct answer from the given Ans. (a) : The sodiumbisulphate is the sodium salt of
below: the bisulfate ion with the molecular formula NaHSO4.
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II In aqueous solutions. H releases H+ ion
(b) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III The question is shown in fig.
(c) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I NaHSO 4 ⇌ Na + + HSO 4−
(d) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV HSO3− ⇌ H + + SO 24 −
JEE Main-28.06.2022, Shift-II ↓
Ans. (b) : Oxide Nature Release H + ion
Cl2O7 → Acidic So the nature of 0.1 M solutions of Sodiumbisulphate is
Na2O → Basic acidic in Nature.
Al2O3 → Amphoteric 196. Which one of the following is least likely to act
N 2O → Neutral as a Lewis base?
(a) PCl3 (b) SCl2
191. Amphoteric oxide among the following: (c) I– (d) I+
(a) Ag 2 O (b) SnO 2 AP-EAMCET-1995
(c) BeO (d) CO 2 Ans. (d) : Lewis base are the electron donating species.
Karnataka CET-17.06.2022, Shift-II I+ being to electron deficient is least likely acts as a
lewis base.
Ans. (b & c) : Amphoteric oxides can be defined that
can behave as an acid and a base to produce salt and 197. Which one of the following is not a Lewis acid?
water. Thus, SnO2 and BeO both reacts with acid as (a) BF3 (b) AlCl3
well as the base. So it is and amphoteric oxide. (c) BeCl2 (d) SnCl2
AP-EAMCET-1995
192. The conjugate acid of N 3− (azide ion) is: Ans. (c) : Lewis Acids are the chemical species that
(a) NH3 (b) HN3 have empty orbital and are able to accept electron pairs
− from Lewis bases. e.g. boron trifluoride (BF3) AlCl3,
(c) NH 2 (d) N −2 Beryllium chloride (BeCl2).
AP-EAMCET (Med.)-1999 198. Which of the following can act both as
Ans. (b) : The species formed by the addition of proton Bronsted acid and Bronsted base?
in a base is called conjugate acid. (i) HCO3− (ii) NH3 (iii) O2– (iv) HCl
N 3− + H + → HN 3 (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
Base Proton Conjugate acid
(c) None of the above (d) All of the above
193. Aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic because of AP-EAMCET-1995
(a) hydrolysis (b) anionic hydrolysis Ans. (a) : Those substance which accept the proton are
(c) cationic hydrolysis (d) dissociation called Bronsted base and which is donate the proton are
AP-EAMCET-1991 called Bronsted acid.
Ans. (c) : Aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic because HCO3− + H + ⇌ H 2CO3 Bronsted base.
of cationic hydrolysis FeCl3 is a salt of weak base and
strong acid. HCO3− ⇌ H + + CO32 − Bronsted acid.

199. Which of the following is the strongest Lewis 204. The conjugate acid of NH3 is:
acid? (a) NH −2 (b) NH2 OH
(a) BI3 (b) BBr3
(c) BCl3 (d) BF3 (c) N2 H4 (d) NH +4
AP-EAMCET-1998 MPPET-2012
Ans. (a) : A molecule is said to be a lewis acid if it can +
accept a loan pair. BI3 is a strong lewis acid. Due to Ans. (d) : NH 3 → NH 4
H +
Base Conjugateacid
back bonding in I3− , conjugate base of BI3 is very stable.
Specie Conjugate Conjugate
So, it is most acidic. Lewis acidity increases from
fluoride to iodide. The lewis acidity is ameliorated by a Acid Base
+
π-bonding contribution through overlap of the halogen H 2 O H 3 O OH¯
lone pair and the vacant orbital on boron. HCO3− H2CO3 CO32 −
200. The conjugate base of NH 2− is HSO −4 H2SO4 SO 24 −
2–
(a) NH3 (b) NH
NH3 NH +4 NH −2
(c) NH +4 (d) N 3−
AP-EAMCET-1998 205. When a particular aqueous solution is diluted
Ans. (b) : Conjugate base is defined by a substance by a factor of ten with K 2 O, the pH increases
formed when an acid losses a hydrogen ion. The by one unit. the solution most likely contains a
−
conjugate base of NH 2 . (a) Weak acid (b) Strong base
+ (c) Strong acid (d) Buffer
NH 2−  −H
→ NH 2− SCRA-2014
201. Which one of the following salts gives an acidic Ans. (c) : The increasing of pH by one unit, that means
solution in water? the solution is more acidic because the pH scale show
(a) CH3COONa (b) NH4Cl the acidic character from 1 to 7. Less the value in pH
(c) NaCl (d) CH3COONH4 scale, higher acidity of the solution will be.
AP-EAMCET-2007 Weak acid → Acid that don’t completely dissociated in
Ans. (b) : Ammonium chloride when dissolved in water solution.
gives hydrochloric acid which makes the solution acidic
in nature as HCl is a strong acid. Strong acid → Completely dissociated in solution Exa-
+ − Chloric acid hydrobromic acid.
NH 4 Cl    NH 4 + Cl Buffer → A buffer Solution are resist a change in pH
− +
  OH + H 3O
2H 2 O   when small acid or alkali are added.
+ −
NH 4 + OH    NH 4 OH
  206. Consider the following regarding potash alum:
Weeklyionised 1. It has 24 water molecules.
+ −
H 3O + Cl    HCl + H 2 O
  2. It swells on heating.
Strongly
ionized 3. Its aqueous solution is basic.
202. Which one of the following is not a conjugate 4. It is white in colour.
acid base pair? Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) HPO32− , PO32− (b) H 2 PO −4 , HPO 24− (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
(c) H 2 PO −4 , H 3 PO 4 (d) H 2 PO −4 , PO33− SCRA 2010
AP EAMCET (Engg.) -2007 Ans. (d) : The formula of potash alum is
Ans. (d) : The acid and base which differ by a proton K2SO4Al2(SO4)3.24H2O.
are said to form a conjugate acid–base pair. It is white in colour.
Acid1 + Base2     Acid2 + Base1 It has 24 water molecules and it swells on heating.
HPO3 + H 2 O    H 3O + PO3
2−
  + 2−
207. The aqueous solution of which one of the
following is not basic?
H 2 PO 4 + H 2 O  
−
 H 3O + HPO 4
+ 2−
(a) Na2B4O7. 10H2O (b) HOCl
H 3 PO 4 + H 2 O  
 H 3O + H 2 PO 4
+ −
(c) NaHCO3 (d) CH3COONa
In H 2 PO −4 , PO33− difference of 2 proton. So, it is not a SCRA 2010
conjugate base pair. Ans. (d) : CH3COONa – Na is the most electronegative
203. Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity atom and it is also metal. So, Na react with acetic acid
through the following: to form sodium acetate. Therefore, CH3COONa is
(a) free electrons (b) free ions acidic is nature (Removal of H+ atom to place Na
(c) free molecules (d) free atoms metal).
MPPET - 2012 208. In the reaction H2O + HCl → H3O + Cl , the
+ –
Ans. (b) : Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity species that acts as Bronsted base is :
due to presence of free ions. Electrons are bound in (a) H2O (b) HCl
bonds by strong electrostatic forces. So sodium chloride (c) H3O+ (d) Cl–
does not conduct electricity in a solid-state. MPPET-2013
Ans. (a) : A Bronsted-Lowry base is any species that is
Acid Ionization Constant – K a
capable of accepting a proton, which requires a lone
pair of electrons to bond to the H+. Ex. H2O. Formic acid – 1.8×10 –4
− +
HCl+ H 2O → Cl + H 3O
Acid Base Conjugate
base
Conjugate Niacin – 1.5×10 –5
acid
• Bronsted-Lowry acids are proton/H+ doners (Lose Hypochlorous acid – 3.0×10 –8

+
H ).
Hydrocyanic acid – 4.9×10 –10
209. Which of the following species acts as both 213. Iron sulphide is heated in air to form A, an
Bronsted acid and base? oxide of sulphur. A is dissolved in water to give
(a) OH– (b) NH3 an acid. The basicity of this acid is
−
(c) NaCl (d) HSO 4 (a) 2 (b) 3
AP-EAMCET 25-08-2021 Shift - I (c) 1 (d) Zero
−
Ans. (d) : HSO 4 acts as both Bronsted acid and base AP EAMCET-2002
+
because it receive and also donate H ion. Ans. (a) : 4FeS + 7O 2 → 2Fe 2O 3 + 4SO 2↑
SO2 + H2O → H2SO3
210. How many compound given below are
amphoteric oxides ? H2SO3 → 2H+ + SO32−
P2O5, P4O6, As2O5, As4O6, Sb2O5, Sb4O6, Bi2O3 Basicity of sulphrous acid H2SO3 is 2.
(a) 2 (b) 3 214. Which of the following is a Lewis acid?
(c) 4 (d) 6
(a) Cl – (b) H 3O +
+3 (c) PF3 (d) C2 H 5OH
Ans. (a) : The oxides of the type E 2 O3 of N and P, MPPET-2008
P2O3 (P4O6, dimer of P2O3) are purely acidic, that of As Ans. (c) : A Lewis acid is a substance that accepts a
(As4O6, dimer of As2O3) and Sb (Sb4O6, dimer of pair of electrons to form a covalent bond. PF is a lewis
3
Sb2O3) amphoteric and that of Bi (Bi2O3) is acid.
predominantly basic.
+3
215. Which one of the following salts will produce
The oxides of the type E 2 O3 are more acidic, e.g. N2O3, an alkaline solution on dissolving in water?
P2O5, As2O5, Sb2O5 (a) NH4Cl (b) Na2CO3
So, in the given set of oxides of group- 15 elements, (c) NaNO 3 (d) Na2SO4
two oxides are amphoteric, As4O6 and Sb4O6. MPPET-2008
211. Which acid among the following has the Ans. (b) : Na 2 CO 3 salt will produce an alkaline solution
highest pKa value ? on dissolving in water.
(a) HCl (b) HF 216. Which is the strongest Bronsted base among
(c) Hl (d) HBr the following
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-I (a) ClO 4– (b) ClO3–
Ans. (b) : HF (pKa = 3.1) (c) ClO 2– (d) ClO –
HCl (pKa = –6.0)
MPPET-2008
HBr (pKa = –9.0)
HI (pKa = –9.5) Ans. (d) :
H+
Therefore, HF has highest pKa value. Hence, the correct ClO 4– → HClO 4
option is (b). +
212. Match the following ClO3– → H
HClO3
+
Acid Ionizationconstant, Ka ClO 2– →H
HClO 2
–10
A) Formic acid I) 4.9 × 10
H+
B) Niacin II) 1.5 × 10 –5
ClO → HClO
–
C) Hypochlorus acid III) 1.8 × 10–4 The strength of acid is HClO4> HClO3> HClO2> HClO
D) Hydrocyanic acid IV) 3.0 × 10–8 and strength of conjugate base is
The correct match is ClO 4– < ClO3– < ClO 2– < ClO –
A B C D Hence ClO– is strongest bronsted base.
(a) II III IV I
A B C D 217. Using the Lewis concept, which one of the
(b) I II III IV following has the strongest acidic strength ?
A B C D (a) H3PO4
(c) III II IV I (b) H3PO3
A B C D (c) H3PO2
(d) III IV I II (d) All are of equal strength
TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-II SCRA-2009
Ans. (c) :
Ans. (a) : H3PO4 has the strongest acid strength as the
no. of O atom is more in case of H3PO4. As the no. of O
atom increases the strength of the acid increases.
Oxygen is highly electronegative element, and so if
there are more O atoms present, more will be the
electron pulling tendency. 222. Match the following?
So, O–H bond weakening results more acidic character. Species Conjugate acid
218. SiCl4 on hydrolysis forms ‘X’ and HCl, (a) NH3 (i) H2C03
compound ‘X’ losses water at 1000°C and gives (b) HCO3 (ii) H30+
‘Y’. Compounds ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are
(c) H20 (iii) NH +4
(a) H 2SiCl6 , SiO 2 (b) H 4SiO 4 ,Si
(c) SiO 2 ,Si (d) H 4SiO 4 ,SiO 2 (d) HSO 4 (iv) H2SO4
AP EAMCET (Engg.)-2009 (a) ( a → iii ) , ( b → i ) , ( c → ii ) , ( d → iv )
Ans. (d): SiCl4 on hydrolysis give H2SiO4 (b) ( a → i ) , ( b → iii ) , ( c → ii ) , ( d → iv )
SiCl4 + 4H2O → H2SiO3 + 4HCl
H4SiO4 loses the water at 1000 degree centigrade and (c) ( a → iii ) , ( b → ii ) , ( c → i ) , ( d → iv )
produces SiO2 (d) ( a → iii ) , ( b → ii ) , ( c → iv ) , ( d → i )
H4SiO4 → SiO2 + 2H2O AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-II
So, X and Y are H4SiO4 and SiO2 respectively. Ans. (a): A conjugate acid is formed when a proton is
219. Which of the following does not form double added to a base.
salts?
NH3 + H+  → NH +4
(a) Li2SO4 (b) Na2SO4
(c) K2SO4 (d) Rb2SO4 HCO3− + H + 
→ H 2 CO 3
AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-I H 2 O + H + 
→ H 2O+
Ans. (a) : Double salt is salt that contains more than one
different contains or anion it completely dissociate into HSO −4 + H + 
→ H 2SO 4
simple ions. 223. Rochelle’s salt is
Lithium is an electropositive element. It has vary small (a) sodium citrate
size. It cannot form double salt. (b) sodium potassium citrate
220. The pka of a weak acid is 4.8. What should be (c) potassium tartarate
(d) sodium potassium tartarate.
[acid]
the ratio of , if a buffer of pH=5.8 is COMEDK-2011
[salt] Ans. (d) : Fehling reagent comprises of two solutions
required? Fehling solution A and Fehling solution B. Fehling
(a) 0.1 (b) 10 solution A is aqueous copper sulptate and Fehling
(c) 1 (d) 2 solution B is alkaline sodium potassium tartarate
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 2001 (Rochelle's salt)
Ans. (a) : Given the expression for the pH of the acidic 224. In the titration of oxalic acid against sodium
buffer solution is as given below hydroxide the indicator used is
[salt] (a) diphenylamine (b) methyl orange
pH = Pka + log (c) menthyl red (d) phenolphthalein.
[acid]
COMEDK-2011
Pka = 4.8
Ans. (d) : Phenolphthalein is used as indicator in the
Substitute value in the above equation
titration of weak acid against strong alkali.
[salt]
5.8 = 4.8 + log 225. The conjugate acid of HCO 3– is
[acid]
(a) H2CO3 (b) CO3
[salt] 10 (c) CO2 (d) CO
Hence, = = 10:1
[acid] 1 COMEDK-2011
[acid] 1 Ans. (a) : HCO3− 
H +
→ H 2 CO3
i.e. = = 0.1
[salt] 10 Base Conjugate acid
221. Which one of the following salts give an acidic Specie Conjugate Conjugate
solution in water? Acid Base
(a) CH3COONa (b) NH4Cl H 2O H 3O + OH¯
(c) NaCl (d) CH3COONH4 HCO3− H2CO3 CO32 −
HSO −4 H2SO4 SO 24 −
Ans. (b) : NH4Cl  NH4 + Cl–
H2O + H2O  OH– + H3O– NH3 NH +4 NH −2

226. According to the Lewis theory an acid is a Ans. (c) : The given reversible reaction is :
(a) proton donor (b) proton acceptor
( )
3+ 2+
 Al ( H 2 O )6  + HCO3–   Al ( H 2 O )5 OH –  + H 2 CO3
(c) electron pair donor (d) electron pair acceptor.  
COMEDK-2011 (A) (B) (C) (D)
Ans. (d) : According to the Lewis theory an acid is a acid base conjugate base conjugate acid
electron pair acceptor.
lewis acids accept an electron pair. Lewis acids are A base after gaining a proton (H+) gives conjugate acid.
electrophilic meaning that they are electron attracting Hence, in the above reaction A and D are the acids.
when bonding with a base the acid uses its lowest 230. The elements ‘X’ , ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ form oxides
unoccupied molecular orbital. which are acidic, basic and amphoteric
227. The dissociation constant of a weak acid is respectively. The correct order of their electro
1×10–4 . In order to prepare a buffer solution negativity is
with a pH=5, the [Salt]/[Acid] ratio should be (a) X > Y > Z (b) Z > Y > X
(a) 4 : 5 (b) 10 : 1 (c) X > Z > Y (d) Y > X > Z
(c) 5 : 4 (d) 1 : 10 AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2008
Karnataka NEET-2013 Ans. (c) : As we know , electronegativity is directly
[Salt] proportional to non-metallic character and inversely
Ans. (b) : pH = pKa+log .....(i) proportional to metallic character. The element (X)
[Acid] form acidic oxide, so it is a non-metal, while the
Ka = 1 × 10–4 element (Y) form basic oxide, So (Y) is a metal. Hence
[QpK a = – log K a ] the order of electronegativity will be X> Z > Y.
= –20g (1 × 10–4) 231. Which one of the following salts form is
=4 micelle?
From equation (i)– (a) Sodium formate (b) Sodium acetate
(c) Sodium stearate (d) Sodium chloride
[Salt] AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2001
5 = – log Ka+ log
[Acid] Ans. (c) : A colloidal sized sodium stearate formed in
[Salt] water by association of these molecule each having a
5 = 4 + log hydrophilic and hydrophobic end is known as micelle.
[Acid]
[Salt] 232. Which one of the following statements is not
5–4=log correct.
[Acid] (a) Cl– is a Lewis acid
[Salt] (b) The pH of 10–8 molar HCl solution is less
1= log than 7
[Acid]
(c) the ionic product of water at 25oC is 10–14
[Salt] mol2L–2
= 10 = 10 :1
[Acid] (d) Bronsted-Lowry theory could not explain the
acidic character of AlCl3
228. What is the conjugate base of HS O 4– ? AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2002
(a) H2SO4 (b) HSO 24 − –
Ans. (a) : Cl is not a Lewis acid. It is a Lewis base.
(c) SO 24 − (d) H+ Lewis acid is a chemical species that reacts with a
Lewis base to form a Lewis adduct. A Lewis base, then,
AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2006 is any species that donates a pair of electrons to a Lewis
Ans. (c) : The acid base reaction can be written as:- acid to form a Lewis adduct.
HSO 4− + H 2O → H 3O + + SO 42− Therefore, Cl– is a Lewis acid statement is not correct.
Acid Base Conjugate Conjugate
acid of H 2 O baseof H 2SO4 233. Which compound having maximum value of
Although it has a negative charge, it will never accept pKa from following?
ah+ to form H2SO4. That is because H2SO4 is a strong (a)
acid and completely dissociates in water. (b)
Therefore, the sulfate ion ( SO −42 ) is the conjugate base (c)
of HSO −4 . (d) C6H5OH
GUJCET-2021
229. Identify Bronsted-Lowry acids in the reaction
given. Ans. (d) :
( )
[Al ( H 2O )6 ]3+ + HCO 3–  [Al ( H 2O )5 OH – ]2+ + H 2CO 3
(A) (B) (C) ( D)
(a) (A), (C) (b) (B), (D)
(c) (A), (D) (d) (B), (C)
Phenol (C6H5OH) has the maximum value of pKa from 237. The conductivity of a 0.05 M solution of a weak
the following. The pKa value is inversely proportional monobasic acid is 10–3S cm–1. If λ m∞ for weak
to the acidity of compound. Phenol is least acidic in acid is 500 S cm2 mol–1, calculate Ka of weak
nature because it has the more pKa value. monobasic acid:
The pKa order is- (a) 8 × 10–5 (b) 4 × 10–6
Phenol > m-nitrophenol > p-nitrophenol > o- (c) 16 × 10 –7
(d) 14 × 10–8
nitrophenol. AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Evening)
234. Match the following Ans. (a): Given that, C = 0.05 M, k = 10–3 S cm–1
Column-I Column-II
λ ∞m = 500Scm 2 mol −1
Acid pKa value
(A) CH3COOH (I) 0.23 Ka = Cα2
(B) F3CCOOH (II) 3.41 We have to find α.
λc
(C) (III) 4.19 α = ∞m
λm
1000 × k
Q λm =
c
(D) (IV) 4.76 C
1000 × 10−3
=
0.05
λ cm = 20 S cm2 mol–1
A B C D
(a) IV I III II 20Scm 2 mol−1
α= = 0.04
(b) I IV II III 500 Scm 2 mol −1
(c) IV I II III Ka = Cα2
(d) IV III II I Ka = 0.05 × (0.04)2
TS EAMCET 04.08.2021, Shift-I = 0.00008
Ans. (a) : Correctly matched : Ka = 8 × 10–5
Acid pKa value 238. Which of the following is incorrect about
CH3COOH 4.76 K2Cr2O7?
F3CCOOH 0.23 (a) It can be prepared from K2CrO4.
4.19 (b) It is used in redox titrations.
(c) It is stable in both acid & base.
(d) It is orange in colour.
3.413 Ans. (c):
• Colour of K2Cr2O7 is orange
• 2Cr4−2 In acidic medium
 H+ → Cr2 O72− + H 2 O
(Chromate ion) (Dichromate ion)
235. If the molar concentrations of base and its
conjugate acid are same, the pOH of the buffer • K2Cr2O7 is used in redox titrations.
solution is • It is stable in both acid & base this statement is
(a) same as pKb of base (b) same as pKa of base incorrect about K2Cr2O7.
(c) same as pKa of acid (d) same as pKb of acid 239. Which of the following is a Lewis-acid?
TS EAMCET 04.08.2021, Shift-I (a) Br– (b) Cl–
–
Ans. (a) : If the molar concentration of base and its (c) S (d) Ag+
conjugate acid are same the pOH of the buffer solution AIIMS-1994
is same as pKb of base. Ans. (d): Ag+ can accept electron pair so it act as Lewis
236. The set of amphoteric oxides among the given acid and Br–, Cl–, S– are Lewis base because these are
oxides are Ga2O3, As4O10, Sb4O10, B2O3, Tl2O donate e– pair (lone pair).
(a) Tl2O, B2O3 240. Which of the following is the strongest base?
(b) Sb4O10, B2O3, Ga2O3 (a) H +2 (b) H
(c) Ga2O3, Tl2O, As4O10 (c) HCO3− (d) H −
(d) Ga2O3, As4O10, Sb4O10 AIIMS-1996
TS EAMCET 04.08.2021, Shift-I −
Ans. (c) : HCO is a strongest base.
Ans. (d) : Amphoteric oxides–Metaloxide which react 3
with both basic and acidic oxides to produces salt and A stronger base liberates more OH– when dissolved in an
water. aqueous solution and has a pH value of more than 7. So,
Ex-Ga2O3, As4O10, Sb4O10 and Al2O3, all are HCO3− acts as a base when reacting with the compound
amphoteric oxides because they react as acid with base that is more acidic than it i.e. HCl. This is because a
and vice-versa. stronge acid has more ability to donate the proton.
241. The strongest bronsted base among the (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
following anions is (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
(a) ClO3− (b) ClO– incorrect.
AIIMS-(2016, 2004)
(c) ClO −4 (d) ClO −2
Ans. (c): We know that,
AIIMS-1996 The solubility product of AgBr = 5 × 10–13 and AgCl =
Ans. (b): Bronsted base is the substance that can accept 5 × 10–10
H+ ion. With the increase in the number of oxygen Hence, Ksp of AgCl < Ksp of AgBr
atoms in the given conjugate base, the delocalization of Hence, when we add silver ion to a mixture of aqueous
the π bond becomes more extended. This results in sodium chloride and sodium bromide solution, AgBr
decrease in electron density. Consequently also will percipitate first.
decreases in the order ClO − > ClO −2 > ClO3− > ClO −4 245. Assertion : [Al(H2O)6]3+ is a stronger acid than
Hence strongest & bronsted base is ClO–. [Mg(H2O)6]2+.
242. Assertion: H2O shows amphoteric nature. Reason : Size of [Al(H2O)6]3+ is smaller than
Reason: According to Bronsted theory, it acts [Mg(H2O)6]3+ and possesses more effective
as acid with NH3 and a base with H2S. nuclear charge.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Reason is the correct explanation of the Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion. Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but (b) If both assertion and Reason are correct, but
Reason is not the correct explanation of Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion. assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
incorrect. incorrect.
AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Morning) AIIMS-(2010, 2008)
Ans. (a): Water has the ability to act as an acid as well Ans. (a): [Al(H2O)6]3+ is a stronger Lewis acid than
as a base i.e. It behaves as an amphoteric substance. [Mg(H2O)6]2+ because along the period, size decreases
In Bronsted sense it act as an acid with NH3 and base and oxidation no. of metal increases. So, size of
with H2S. [Al(H2O)6]3+ is smaller than [Mg(H2O)6]2+ and
− +
H 2 O(l) + NH 3 (aq)  
  OH (aq) + NH 4 (aq) possesses more effective nuclear charge which
stabilizes the conjugate base.
+ −
H 2 O(l) + H 2S(aq)  
  H 3O (aq) + HS (aq) 246. In which of the following acid-base titration,
243. Assertion : KOH is more soluble in water than pH is greater than 8 at equivalence point.
NaOH. (a) Acetic acid versus ammonia.
Reason : NaOH is a stronger base than KOH. (b) Acetic acid versus sodium hydroxide.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and (c) Hydrochloric acid versus ammonia.
the Reason is the correct explanation of (d) Hydrochloric acid versus sodium hydroxide.
Assertion. AIIMS-(2003)
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Ans. (b): Acetic acid is a weak acid and sodium
Reason is not the correct explanation of hydroxide is strong base. Salts of the two will
Assertion. Hydrolyse to give basic solution. So at neutral point, pH
(c) If Assertion if correct but Reason is incorrect. of the solution will be greater than 8.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are 247. pKa value of four acids are given below. The
incorrect. strongest acid is:
AIIMS-(2011) (a) 4.0 (b) 3.5
Ans. (c): KOH is more soluble in water than NaOH. (c) 2.5 (d) 2
The ionic size of Na+ is smaller than K+. Hence BCECE-2004
attractive force between Na+ and OH– is relatively AIIMS-(2000)
strong and so ionisation of NaOH is lower than KOH
which makes NaOH a weaker base than KOH. Ans. (d): We know that
244. Assertion : Addition of silver ions to a mixture of 1
acidic strength ∝ Ka ∝
aqueous sodium chloride and sodium bromide pK a
solution will first precipitate AgBr rather than Hence acid with lowest pKa value will be strongest
AgCl. acid.
Reason: Ksp of AgCl > Ksp of AgBr. In this question minimum pKa value is 2.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Hence, It is a strongest acid.
Assertion. 248. Which is Lewis acid?
(b) If both assertion and Reason are correct, but (a) C2H5OH (b) BF3
−
Reason is not the correct explanation of (c) C1 (d) NH3
assertion. AIIMS-(1998)
Ans. (b) : Lewis acids are those which can accept a pair they accept proton then act as a lewis base. Acid reacts
of non-bonding electron pair. Hence BF3 is accept with base to produce a salt.
electron pair it is Lewis acid. Acid + Base  → Salt
Lewis base are those which can donate a pair of e– pair
C2H5OH, Cl , NH3 all are donate e pair. Hence, It is a Hence, both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
– –
Lewis base. correct explanation of (A).

249. In the reaction I 2 + I − → I −3 , the Lewis base is: 254. Which one of the following compounds is Lewis
acid?
(a) I3− (b) I2 (a) PCl3 (b) BCl3
(c) I − (d) non of these (c) NCl3 (d) CHCl3
BCECE-2005, AIIMS-(1997)
AP – EAMCET - (Medical)-1997
Ans. (c) : I– ion can act as Lewis base i.e. It can denote
electron pair to some species. Ans. (b) : In BCl 3, Boron has 6 electrons in it
Here, I– is giving electron pair to I2 molecule. Therefore outermost orbital and has a vacant p-orbital. Thus, it is
I2 is a lewis acid and I– is a lewis base. an electron-deficient compound.
250. Which among the following pairs is not an Hence, it acts as Lewis acid and accepts a loan pair of
acidic buffer? electrons.
(a) HCOOH & HCOOK 255. The conjugate acid of NH 2– ion is:
(b) HClO4 & NaClO4
(a) NH 3 (b) NH +4
(c) C6H5COOH & C6H5COONa
(d) HCN & KCN (c) N 2 H 4 (d) NH 2 OH
AP EAPCET 19-08-2021, Shift-II COMEDK 2012
Ans. (b) : Acidic buffer are solution that have a pH AP-EAMCET 1997
below 7 and contain a weak acid and one of its salts. So, AP-EAMCET - (Medical)-1997
the HClO4 is the strong acid which means that it's Ans. (a) : According to Bronsted–Lowery theory of
conjugate base is extremly weak. As such, the solution acid and base, the species which accepting a proton is
of HClO4 and NaClO4 is not a buffer solution.
called conjugate acid of the base.
251. The pKa values of four carboxylic acids are NH −2 + H +  → NH 3
4.76, 4.19, 0.23 and 3.41 respectively. The pKa Base Conjugateacid
value of strongest carboxylic acid among them
is 256. Which one of the following is not a base?
(a) 4.19 (b) 3.41 (a) N2H4 (b) NH2OH
(c) 0.23 (d) 4.76 (c) (CH3)3N (d) HN3
AP-EAMCET- (Engg.)-2011 AP – EAMCET - (Medical)-1997
Ans. (c) : The value Ka is increase then acid is stronger Ans. (d) : Hydrazoic acid or azoimide is a colorless
but smaller pKa value. Hence among the given acid whose chemical formula is HN 3 . Hydrazoic acid is
carboxylic acid the pKa value of strongest acid is 0.23. an important hydride of nitrogen but unlike ammonia
252. Which one of the following is correct with and hydrazine, it is acidic in nature.
respect to basic character? 257. The strongest conjugate base results from’:
(a) P(CH3)3 > PH3 (b) PH3 > P(CH3)3 (a) Formic acid (b) Benzoic acid
(c) PH3 > NH3 (d) PH3 = NH3 (c) Acetic acid (d) Acetylene
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) 2015 AP-EAMCET-1998
Ans. (a) : P(CH3)3 is more basic than PH3 because there AP – EAMCET - (Medical)-1997
is three methyl group attached to phosphorous due to +I Ans. (d) : The compounds which donates a proton are
effect. called acid and compounds which accept proton are
253. Assertion (A) According to Lowry-Bronsted called base. When an acid donate a proton is called
theory, a substance can function as an acid as conjugate base of that acid.
well as a base. The strongest conjugate base results from acetylene
Reason (R) Acid reacts with a base to produce since it is the weakest acid among formic acid, benzoic
a salt. acid, acetic acid and acetylene.
The correct answer is The order of strength of acids is given below–
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the Acetylene < Acetic acid < Formic acid < Benzoic acid
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the Weaker an acid, stronger will be its conjugate base.
correct explanation of (A) Hence, the order of strength of conjugate bases will be
(c) (A) is true but (R) is not true as follows–
(d) (A) is not true but (R) is true Acetylene > Acetic acid > Formic acid > Benzoic acid
AP- EAMCET(Medical) -2010 258. Which of the following oxide is amphoteric?
Ans. (b): According to Lowry Bronsted theory, a (a) SnO2 (b) CaO
species can function as an acid as well as a base. e.g.:- (c) SiO2 (d) CO2
H2O. Water loss his proton and act as a lewis acid if VITEEE- 2012
Ans. (a) : Amphoteric oxides reacts with both acids and Ans. (d) : The order of basic character of hydroxide of
alkalis to form salts and water. Examples of amphoteric alkali metal is–
oxides are zinc oxide aluminium oxide and tin oxide. CsOH > RbOH > KOH > NaOH > LiOH
Generally in group 14 SiO2 and CO2 are acidic where as The order of basicity appears to be inversely related to
in second group due to alkali nature of elements it oxide the electropositivity. Thus the more electropositive, the
are basic. more the cation may associate with the OH–, making it
Amphoteric → Acidic/Basic less available to act as a base.
Metals → Basic, Amphoteric 264. Which of the following acids is stronger than
Amphoteric Metals→ Be, Sc, Ti, V, Cr, Fe, Co, Cu, Zn, benzoic acid (Ka=6.3×10-5)?
Al, Ge, Sn, Zn, Ag, Ga, Au, In, Tl, Pb, Sb, Bi (a) A (Ka=1.67×10-8) (b) B (pKa=6.0)
259. The conjugate acid of O2– is (c) C (pKa=4.0) (d) D (Ka=1.0×10-5)
(a) O2 (b) O −2 AMU-2012
(c) H2O (d) OH– Ans. (c) : pKa = – log Ka
AMU-2019 pKa for bezoic acid = – log (6.3 × 10–5)
Ans. (d) : Adding one H+ to anything gives you is = –log 6.3 – log 10–5
conjugate acid. = –0.799 + 5
Removing one H+ gives you its conjugate base. = 4.201
conjugate acid of O2– (a) pKa for A = – log (1.67 × 10 –8)
O2– + H+ → OH– = – 0.222 + 8 = 7.778
260. Which one of the following acids is used as an (b) pKa for B = 6.0
oxidizer in rocket fuel? (c) pKa for C = 4.0
(a) HClO4 (b) HNO2 (d) pKa for D = – log (1.0 × 10–5)
(c) H3PO4 (d) HNO3 =0+5=5
AMU-2014 For a stronger acids, pKa must be less.
Ans. (d) : Rocket fuels generally contain two substance, Therefore, acid C will be stronger than benzoic acid.
one the fuel and other the oxidiser. 265. If the salt M2X,QY2and PZ3 have the same
Oxidizer is an oxygen rich substance and used to solubilities, their Ksp values are related as
provide oxygen for burning process. Common oxidizers (a) Ksp(M2X)=Ksp(QY2)< Ksp(PZ3)
used for this purpose are nitric acid (HNO3). (b) Ksp(M2X)>Ksp(QY2)= Ksp(PZ3)
261. Pick out the electrophiles from the following (c) Ksp(M2X)<Ksp(QY2)= Ksp(PZ3)
species: (d) Ksp(M2X)>Ksp(QY2)> Ksp(PZ3)
BF3, NH3, Me3C+, HCl AMU-2011
(a) BF3 and NH3 (b) Me3C+ and HCl Ans. (a) : For M2X Salt–
+
(c) BF3 and Me3C (d) NH3 and HCl
M 2 X  2M + + X 2−
AMU-2013
Ans. (c) : The neutral or positively charged species with Ksp = (2S)2 (S)
deficiency of electron and capable of accepting a pair of = 4S3
electron (Lewis acid) are called electrophiles ex. BF3
and Me3C+ are electrophiles. For QY2 Salt–
262. For a diprotic acid, which of the following is QY2  Q 2+ + 2Y −
(S) (2S)
true for 1st and 2nd ionization constants ( K a1
Ksp = (Q ) + (Y–)2
2+
and K a2 )? = (S) (2S)2
(a) K a1 = K a 2 (b) K a1 > K a 2 Ksp = 4S3
(c) K a2 > K a1 (d) K a2 ≥ K a1 For PZ3 Salt–

AMU-2012 PZ3  P 3+ + 3Z−
(S) (2S)
Ans. (b) : K a1 and K a2 are acid constant for polyprotic
K sp = (P3+ )+ (Z− )3
acids, which may consist of diprotic acids, triprotic acid (S) (3S)3
etc. The first dissociation constant is necessarily greater Ksp = (S) (27S3)
than the second (i.e. K a1 > K a2 ); this is because the first Ksp = 27S4
proton to dissociate is always the most strongly acidic, Thus Ksp in order–
followed in order by next most strongly acidic proton. Ksp(M2X)=Ksp(QY2)< Ksp(PZ3)
So, K a1 > K a2 266. Which of the following conjugate bases will be
263. The strongest base of the following is the most acidic in nature?
(a) NaOH (b) KOH (a) NO3− (b) Cl–
(c) LiOH (d) CsOH (c) HSO −4 (d) SO 24−
AMU-2012 AMU – 2008
Ans. (c) : The strength of an acid depend upon its Ans. (c) : Given, pH = 5
tendency to lose its proton and the strength of the base Concentration (C) = 1M
depends upon its tendency to gain the proton. Ka = ?
H2SO4 > HCl > HNO3 > HSO −4 (acidic strength) By using pH = − log K a .C
HSO −4 > Cl– > NO3− > SO 24− (conjugate base strength) 5 = − log K a .1
Conjugate base of H2SO4 i.e., HSO −4 is most acidic in
1
nature. 5 = − log K a
2
267. A solution of FeCl3 in water acts as acidic log Ka = –10
solution due to : Ka = 10–10
(a) hydrolysis of Fe3+ (b) acidic impurities
(c) dissociation (d) ionisation 271. CH3COO– ion is a
BCECE-2006 (a) weak conjugate base
(b) strong conjugate base
Ans. (a) : FeCl3 + 3H2O  Fe(OH)3 +3HCl (c) weak conjugate acid
This is strong acid and weak base. (d) strong conjugate acid
On hydrolysis FeCl3 gives an acidic solution due to BCECE-2011
presence of strong acid and weak base in the solution.
Ans. (b) : Acetic acid (CH3COOH) is a weak acid.
268. Arrange NH 4+ , H 2 O, H 3 O + , HF and OH − in In water it dissociates partially into hydrogen ion H+
increasing order of acidic nature : and the acetate ion CH3COO–. Thus, the acetate ion thus
(a) H 3 O < NH 4+ < HF < OH − < H 2 O formed is a conjugate base of acetic acid.
Strong acids have a weaker conjugate base whereas
(b) NH +4 < HF < H 3 O + < H 2 O < OH − weak acid have a strongest conjugate base.
(c) OH − < H 2O < NH +4 < HF < H 3O + Since acetic acid is weak acid, its conjugate base is
strong in nature.
(d) H 3 O + > HF > H 2 O > NH 4+ > OH −
272. Nature of nitride ion is–
BCECE-2006 (a) acidic (b) basic
Ans. (c) : Acid are the species who have tendency to (c) amphiprotic (d) cannot predict
give H+ ion. BCECE-2013
The strongest giving tandency of H+ ion is H3O+. Hence Ans. (b) : Nitride ion with H2O it accepts protons from
it is strongest acid and Base are the species who have water molecules to form NH3 and OH– are released in
tendency to accept H+ ion. The strongest accepting H+ the solution.
ion is OH–. Hence it is a base. +
So order of acidity is– N 3 + 3H 2 O(l )  → NH 3 + 3OH − (aq)
Since nitride ion accepts protons and releases OH–. It is
OH − < H 2O < NH 4+ < HF < H 3O + strong Bronsted Lowry base,
base neutral weak strong strong
acid acid acid Hence, the nature of nitride ions is basic.
269. What amount of water is added in 40 mL of 273. 0.45 g of acid molecular weight 90 is
NaOH (0.1N) which is neutralized by 50 mL of neutralized by 20 ml of 0.5N caustic potash.
HCl (0.2N) ? The basicity of acid is
(a) 80 mL (b) 60 mL (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 40 mL (d) 90 mL (c) 3 (d) 4
BCECE-2004 [BITSAT-2012]
Ans. (b) : N1V1 = N2V2 Ans. (b) : Acid Base
Amount of water to be added= total volume – volume 0.45 g 20 mL of 0.5 N
of NaOH. Mass = 90 g/mole
Given normality of NaOH (N1) = 0.1N no. of eq. of acid = gm eq. of base
Volume of NaOH = V1 Moles × basicity = N × V(L)
Normality of HCl (N2) = 0.2 N 0.45 20
Volume of HCl V2 = 50 mL × basicity = 0.5 ×
N 1V 1 = N 2V 2 90 1000
0.005 × basicity = 0.5 × 0.02
0.1 × V1 = 0.2 × 50
0.5 × 0.02
0.2 × 50 Basicity =
V1 = = 100 0.005
0.1
V of NaOH = 40mL ∴ Basicity = 2
Amount of water to be added = 100 – 40 = 60mL 274. Which equilibrium can be described as an acid-
base reaction using the Lewis acid-base
270. An acid has pH = 5 and its concentration is 1M.
What is the value of Ka for the acid ? definition but not using the Bronsted-Lowry
definition?
(a) 10–7 (b) 10–5
(c) 10 –10
(d) 10–8 (a) 2NH3 + H 2SO 4  2NH 4+ + SO 42 −
BCECE-2003 (b) NH3 + H 3COOH  NH +4 + CH 3COO −

(c) H 2 O + CH3COOH  H3O + + CH3COO − Ans. (a) : Basic character of group 15 hydrides
decreases down the group.
(d) [Cu(H2O)4 ]2+ + 4NH3  [Cu(NH3 )4 ]2+ + 4H2O
Thus, NH3 is most basic and Bismuth is least basic.
AIIMS-2013 order of basic strength is-
BITSAT 2006 NH3 > PH3 > As > Bi
Ans. (d) : 280. The acid present in vinegar is
[Cu(H 2 O) 4 ]2 + + 4NH 3  [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+ + 4H 2 O (a) CH3COOH (b) H2SO4
In the above reaction, no proton transfer but the electron (c) HCl (d) HNO3
pairs of ammonia is transferred to copper ion and Hence CG PET-2004
it is Lewis acid base reaction. Ans. (a) : Vinegar is a liquid consisting mainly of acetic
While other reaction involve a proton transfer and acid (CH3COOH) and water. The acetic acid is
Hence they are bronsted acid-base reactions. produced by the fermentation of ethanol by acetic acid
275. Which of these is least likely to act as Lewis bacteria.
base? Vinegar is now mainly used as a cooking ingredient.
(a) F– (b) BF3 281. Strongest Bronsted base among the following
(c) PF3 (d) CO anions is
BITSAT 2010
(a) ClO− (b) ClO −2
Ans. (b) : BF3 has vacant orbital in which it can accept a
lone pair of electrons or Pie electron. Hence, it act as a (c) ClO3− (d) ClO −4
Lewis acid. Thus, it has least tendency to act as Lewis base. CG PET-2006, 2004
On the other hand CO, F–, PF3 can either donate a lone pair Ans. (a) : Strongest acid among HClO4, HClO3, HClO2
of electron or Pi electron. Hence, they act as Lewis base. and HClO is HClO4 (due to greater no. of attached O–
276. What is the correct increasing order of atoms) and weakest is HClO. But the corresponding
Bronsted bases ? conjugate base of HClO i.e. ClO– is the strongest
(a) ClO −4 < ClO3− < ClO −2 < ClO − Bronsted base.
282. The pH of water decreases with?
(b) ClO −4 > ClO3− > ClO 2− > ClO −
(a) Increase in temperature
(c) ClO3− < ClO 4− < ClO −2 < ClO − (b) Increase in pressure
(c) Decrease in temperature
(d) ClO − > ClO3− > ClO 2− < ClO 4−
(d) Decrease in pressure
BITSAT-2015 CG PET-2005
Ans. (a) : With the Increase in the number of oxygen Ans. (a) : An Increase in temperature increases Kw and
atom, the extent of delocalization of negative charge by a decreases in temperature decreases Kw.
pπ-dπ bonding increases. The neutral pH point depends on the Kw of water where
This stabilizes the ion and decreases the tendency to both H and OH ion are equal in number. Hence, pH of
accept a proton. This decreases the basicity, water decreases with increase in temperature.
So, correct increasing order of bronsted base strength is.
283. The aqueous solution of which one of the
ClO −4 < ClO3− < ClO −2 < ClO − following is basic?
277. Which of the following can act as both (a) HOCl (b) NaHSO4
Bronsted acid and Bronsted base? (c) NH4NO3 (d) NaOCl
(a) Na2CO3 (b) OH– CG PET-2005
–
(c) HCO3 (d) NH3 Ans. (d) : The mixture of strong base and weak acid is
BITSAT-2017 basic solution.
Ans. (c) : Hence, NaOCl is a mixture of strong base and weak acid.
HCO3− + H +   H 2CO3 (Bronsted base) So, aqueous solution is basic.
284. The weakest acid among the following is
HCO3−   + −
  H + CO3 (Bronsted acid) (a) CH3COOH (b) CH2ClCOOH
278. Which compound gives saccharin acid when it (c) CHCl2COOH (d) CCl3COOH
reacts with conc. HNO3? CG PET-2010
(a) Sucrose (b) Starch Ans. (a) : Among the following acetic acid
(c) Maltose (d) Glucose (CH3COOH) is the weakest acid.
CG PET-2019 285. Which of the following ligand is ambidentate ?
Ans. (d) : Glucose and Gluconic acid on oxidation with NO 3– , NO 2– , CN – , SCN –
nitric acid give saccharin acid. (P) (Q) (R) (S)
279. Which element from group 15 gives most basic (a) R and S (b) P and Q
compound with hydrogen? (c) Q and S (d) Q and R
(a) Nitrogen (b) Bismuth GUJCET-2022
(c) Arsenic (d) Phosphorus Ans. (a): Ligands which can bind through two different
CG PET-2007 atom present in it are called ambidentate ligands.
There are certain ligands which have two or more donor 291. The conjugate base of H 2 PO 4- is
atom but during formation of complexes only one donar
atom is attached to metal ion such ligands are called (a) PO3-4 (b) P2 O5
ambidentate ligands. (c) H 3 PO 4 (d) HPO 2-4
Such as CN–, SCN–, NO2– [AIEEE-2003]
286. Which of the following salts is the most basic in Ans. (d) : We know that conjugate base of an acid, any
aqueous solution? acid is defined as the acid less of proton.
(a) Al(CN)3 (b) CH3COOK
The conjugate acid of a base, any base is defined as the
(c) FeCl3 (d) Pb(CH3COO)2
base plus a proton.
JEE Main-2018
Now,
Ans. (b) : Basic salt are salts that are product of the Acid + Base = Conjugate acid + Conjugate base
neutralization of a strong base and a weak acid.
Acid donates hydrogen ions and the base is an acceptor
CH3COOK is the most basic in aqueous solution since it of protons.
form strong base (KOH) and weak acid (CH3COOH).
The reaction of hydrogen phosphate ion with a proton to
287. Which of the following are Lewis acids? form its conugate acid is given below–
(a) PH3 and BCl3 (b) AlCl3 and SiCl4
(c) PH3 and SiCl4 (d) BCl3 and AlCl3 HPO 24− + H + → H 2 PO −4
JEE Main 2018 Hence, the conjugate acid that is formed is H 2 PO 4− ,
Ans. (d) : BCl3 and AlCl3 are Lewis acid because Lewis which is dihydrogen phosphate ion.
acids are defined as electron deficient compounds 292. The increasing order of pKa values for the
which have the ability to accept at least one lone pair. following carboxylic acids is
288. Three reactions involving H 2 PO 42− are given (1) Acetic acid (2) Formic acid
below (3) Benzoic acid (4) Trichloroacetic acid
I. H3PO4 + H2O → H3O+ + H 2 PO 42− (a) (4) < (2) < (3) < (1) (b) (3) < (1) < (2) < (4)
(c) (2) < (4) < (3) < (1) (d) (3) < (1) < (4) < (2)
II. H 2 PO 42− + H2O → HPO42 − + H3O+ J & K CET-(2016)
III. H 2 PO 42− + OH- → H3PO4 + O2- 1
In which of the above does H 2 PO 42− Ans. (a) : Acidic strength ∝ K a ∝
pK a
act as an acid? The order of acidic strength is– Thirchloracetic acid >
(a) II only (b) I and II Formic acid > Benzoic acid > Acetic acid.
(c) III only (d) I only Hence, the increasing order of pKa values is:-
[AIEEE-2010] Trichloroacetic acid < Formic acid < Benzoic acid <
− 2−
Ans. (a) : H 2 PO 4 + H 2O → HPO 4 + H 3O + Acetic acid.
Only this reaction H 2 PO −4 give H+ to H2O thus In this 293. Which of the following can behave as
amphoteric oxide?
reaction H 2 PO −4 behave as an acid. (a) Al2Cl6 (b) Na2O
289. Four species are listed below (c) SO2 (d) Al2O3
I. HCO −3 II. H3O+ J & K CET-(2001)
III. HSO4− IV. HSO3F Ans. (d) : Those metal oxides which show basic, as
well as acidic behaviour are known as amphoteric
Which one of the following is the correct oxides. Al2O3 is an amphoteric oxide.
sequence of their acid strength?
(a) IV < II < III < I (b) II < III < I < IV 294. Which of the following is a Lewis acid?
(c) I < III < II < IV (d) III < I < IV < II (a) BF4– (b) OH –
[AIEEE-2008] (c) AlCl3 (d) RNH2
− − + J & K CET-(2013)
Ans. (c) : HCO3 < HSO 4 < H3O < HSO3F
HSO3F is super acid and it is most acidic. Ans. (c) : Lewis acid as a species which accepts
H3O+ is more acidic than anions because anions electron pair and base which denote an electron pair. In
( HCO3− , HSO −4 ) do not release H+ ion easily. HSO −4 is Lewis concept many acid do not have proton.
Electron deficient species can act as Lewis acid.
more acidic than HCO3− because sulpher is more AlCl3 is e- deficient species. Hence, it is a Lewis acid.
electronegative than carbon. 295. Among the following, the one which can act as
290. What is the conjugate base of OH–? both Bronsted acid as well as Bronsted base is
(a) O2– (b) O– (a) H3 PO4 (b) AlCl3
(c) H2O (d) O2 (c) CH3COO– (d) H2O
[AIEEE-2005] J & K CET-(2011)
Ans. (c) : When acid give H+ then the remaining of its Ans. (d) : H2O can behave as both Bronsted acid as
part is called conjugate base.
So, if we remove H+ from OH–, we get O2–. Hence, O2– well as Bronsted Base.
H 2 O + H 2 O  H 3O + + OH −
is the conjugate base of OH– acid base
OH– is also a conjugate base of H2O.
296. Identify the substance whose 0.1 M solution is conjugate base of acid. The conjugate acid of amide ion
basic? (NH −2 ) is ammonia, NH3.
(a) Ammonium chloride (b) ammonium acetate
(c) Ammonium sulphate (d) Sodium acetate NH −2 + H + → NH 3
Base Conjugate acid
J & K CET-(2010)
302. Mohr’s salt is:
Ans. (d) : Sodium acetate is a salt of weak acid and
(a) Na2SO4.Al2 (SO4).24H2O
strong base. Acetate ion on hydrolysis releases hydroxyl
ions to form a basic solution. (b) CuSO4.Al2 (SO4)3.24H2O
In Ammonium acetate, both ammonium and acetate, (c) FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O
ions hydrolyse to form ammonium hydroxide and acetic (d) K2SO4. Fe2(SO4)3.24H2O
acid such that the solution is neutral in nature. JCECE - 2004
Ammonium chloride and ammonium sulphate are salt Ans. (c) : Mohr's salt also referred to as ammonium
of weak base and strong acid. Ammonium ion iron(II) sulfate, is an inorganic compound whose
hydrolyse to release hydrogen ion making the solution chemical formula is represented as
acidic FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O
297. According to Lowry and Bronsted, the strength 303. Which one of the following compounds, is not a
of an acid depends upon protonic acid?
(a) The dendency to gain protons (a) SO(OH)2 (b) SO2(OH)2
(b) The tendency to donate protons (c) B(OH)3 (d) PO(OH)3
(c) The tendency to accept electrons JCECE - 2008
(d) The tendency to donate electrons Ans. (c) : The acid which gives H+ when placed in
J & K CET-(2007) aqueous solution is called protonic acid.
Ans. (b) : Acids are proton donors the strength of an Ortho boric acid does not donate proton like most of the
acid will depend upon its ability to donate proton. acids but rather it accepts OH– therefore it is a Lewis
298. Which of the following in not a Lewis acid? acid. B(OH)3 in water gives H+ ions as follows–
(a) BF3 (b) AlCl3 B(OH)3 + 2H2O  H3O+ + [B(OH)4]–
(c) HCl (d) LiAlH4 B(OH)3 is not a protonic acid because it does not give
J & K CET-(2005) its hydrogen H+ ions.
Ans. (c) : Hydrochloric acid (HCl) cannot be classified 304. The strongest Bronsted base is
as a Lewis acid since it cannot accept an electron pair. (a) ClO3− (b) ClO−2
However this compound dissociates into its constituents
ions, liberating H+ ion. (c) ClO−4 (d) ClO−
299. Which of the following is the strongest Lewis UPTU/UPSEE-2014
acid? JCECE - 2010
(a) BF3 (b) BCl3 Ans. (d) : Strongest Bronsted base is that which has
(c) BBr3 (d) BI3 weakest conjugate acid.
J & K CET-(2002) Base Conjugate acid (base + H+)
Ans. (d) : The tendency of the halogen atom to back ClO– HClO
−
donate its electron to the boron atom and makes it less ClO2 HClO2
electron deficient. Hence, the relative strength of Lewis ClO3− HClO3
acids of boron trihalide
−
Increases in order BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3. ClO4 HClO4
Thus, BI3 is strongest Lewis acid. Order of basic strength–
300. Which of the following is a Lewis base? ClO −4 < ClO3− < ClO 2− < ClO −
(a) CH4 (b) AlCl3 ∴ ClO– is strongest Bronsted base.
(c) Al (OH)3 (d) NH3
305. Which of the following is not a Lewis base?
J & K CET-(2002)
(a) CN– (b) ROH
Ans. (d) : Ammonia consist of a nitrogen atom as the (c) NH3 (d) AlCl3
control atom with a lone pair of electron the lone pair
JCECE - 2011
on the nitrogen atom is transferred to the hydrogen ion
making the NH3 a Lewis base. Ans. (d) : Lewis base are the species which have a
tendency to donate electrons. These contain either lone
301. The conjugate acid of NH 2– is pair or negative charge.
(a) NH +4 (b) NH3 AlCl3 being electron deficient behaves as Lewis acid,
not as Lewis base.
(c) NH 2 OH (d) N 2 H 4
306. Which of the following salt when dissolved in
J & K CET-(1999) water gets hydrolysed?
Ans. (b) : The species formed after adding a proton to (a) NaCl (b) NH4Cl
the base is known as conjugate acid of the base and the (c) KCl (d) Na2SO4
species formed after losing a proton is known as JCECE - 2011
Ans. (b) : Only salts of strong acid and strong base are Ans. (d) : To check the basicity of an ion, the conjugate
not hydrolysed. All other salts can generally acid must be weak, the conjugate acid are given below.
hydrolysed. NH4Cl is a salt of weak base and strong H2O, CH3OH, CH3COOH and HCl.
acid, so it will hydrolyse in water. We know that methanol is a stronger acid than water,
NH4 Cl H2 O
→ NH4 OH + HCl weaker the acid. Stronger is the conjugate base, by the
weak base strong acid logic OH– is the stronger base among the given option.
307. Conjugate base of hydrazoic acid is 313. Acidity of BF3 can be explained on which of the
following concepts?
(a) HN3− (b) N−2 (a) Arrhenius concept
(c) N3− (d) N3− (b) Bronsted Lowry concept
JCECE - 2011 (c) Lewis concept
(d) Bronsted Lowry as well as Lewis concept
Ans. (c) : Hydrazoic acid is N3H. Karnataka-CET-2018
N3 H  → H+ + N3− Ans. (c) : The Lewis theory of acid defines acidic
Hydrazoic acid Conjugate base
substances to be compounds or ions that have law
308. Which of the following species can act as the electron density and look for loan pair supplier.
strongest base? Therefore boron trifluoride (BF3) is an acid according to
(a) OH– (b) OR– Lewis acid theory.
314. Identify a species which is not a Bronsted acid
(c) (d) but a Lewis acid.
(a) BF3 (b) H 3+ O
JCECE - 2013 (c) NH3 (d) HCl
Ans. (b) : Weakest acid has the strongest conjugate Karnataka-CET-2013
base. Since, ROH is the weakest acid, therefore RO– is Ans. (a) : Lewis acid are the acid which accept lone
the strongest base. pairs. Bronsted defined an acid as a substance, which
309. Species acting both as Bronsted acid and base has a tendency to give a proton (H+), on the other hand
is Lewis proposed an acid as a substance, which is capable
of accepting a pair of electrons. As H3O+, NH3 and HCl
(a) HSO−4 (b) Na2CO3 has H+ ions, these are Bronsted acid whereas BF3 is an
(c) NH3 (d) OH– electron deficient molecule, thus behave like a Lewis
JCECE - 2014 acid i.e. electron pair acceptor.
− 315. The vapour pressure of pure liquids A and B
Ans. (a) : HSO4 can accept proton to form H2SO4 and
are 450 and 700 mm of Hg at 350 K
also give a proton to form SO24− therefore, it acts both as respectively. If the total vapour pressure of the
Bronsted acid as well as base. mixture is 600 mm of Hg, the composition of
HSO −4 + H + → H 2SO 4 the mixture in the solution is
(a) χA = 0.4 χB = 0.6 (b) χA = 0.6 χB = 0.4
HSO −4 → H + + SO 42− (c) χA = 0.3 χB = 0.7 (d) χA = 0.7 χB = 0.3
310. Which of the following is least likely to behave Karnataka-CET-2021
as Lewis base? Ans. (c) : PA° = 450mm, PB° = 700mm,Ptotal = 600mm
(a) NH3 (b) BF3 As Ptotal = PA + PB
(c) OH- (d) H2O
JIPMER-2014 = x A PA° + x B PB° (from raoult's law)
Ans. (b) : Boron trifluoride BF3 is least likely to behave = x A PA° + (1 − x A )PB°
as Lewis base. Electron rich species are called Lewis = PB° + (PA° − PB° )x A
base. Among the given BF3 is an electron deficient ⇒ 600 = 700 + (450 – 700)xA
species. So have a capacity of electron accepting instead or xA = 0.40
of donating. That's why it is least likely to act as a
Lewis base. It is a Lewis acid. ∴ xB = 1 – xA = 1 – 0.40 = 0.60
311. The conjugate base of NH3 is ∴ PA = x A PA° = 0.40 × 450 = 180mm
(a) NH +4 (b) NH4OH ∴ PB = x B PB° = 0.60 × 700 = 420mm
(c) NH2OH (d) NH 2– ∴ Mole fraction of A in vapoure phase
PA 180
Karnataka-CET-2020 = = = 0.30
Ans. (d) : NH3 can donate a proton & act as an acid, PA + PB 180 + 420
– + and, mole fraction of B in vapour phase
NH3  → NH 2 + H = 1 – 0.30 = 0.70
NH 2– is the conjugate base of NH3 316. When conc. H2SO4 is heated with P2O5, the acid
312. Which of the following is the strongest base? is converted into
(a) sulphur trioxide (b) sulphur dioxide
(a) CH3COO– (b) Cl–
– (c) sulphur
(c) OH (d) CH3O– (d) a mixture of sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide
Karnataka-CET-2020 Karnataka-CET-2007
Ans. (a) : When conc. H2SO4 is heated with P2O5, the (a) CO32− + H + → HCO3−
acid is converted into sulphur trioxide. Base Conjugateacid
2H 2SO 4 + 2P2 O5 → 2SO3 + 4HPO3 (b) NH 3 → NH −2 + H +

Sulphur trioxide Base Conjugateacid
317. Ka values for acids H2SO3, HNO2, CH3COOH (c) HSO + H + → H 2SO 4
−
4
and HCN are respectively 1.3 × 10–2, 4 × 10–4, Base Conjugateacid
1.8 × 10–5 and 4 × 10–10, which of the above −
(d) NH + H → +
NH
acids produces stronger conjugate base in 2 3
Base Conjugateacid
aqueous solution ?
(a) HSO3 (b) HNO2 (e) HCO3− + H + → H 2CO3
Base Conjugateacid
(c) CH3COOH (d) HCN
Kerala-CEE-29.08.2021 Hence, H2SO4 is the conjugate base of HSO −4 .
Karnataka-CET-2021 321. Which one of the following is an amphoteric
Ans. (d) : The given values are : oxide?
Acid K a values (a) Mn2O7 (b) CrO
(c) V2O4 (d) Cr2O3
H 2SO3 1.3 ×10−2 (e) V2O3
HNO 2 4 × 10−4 Kerala-CEE-2012
CH 3COOH 1.8 × 10−5 Ans. (d) : Cr2O3 (Chromic oxide) is an amphoteric
oxide.
HCN 4 × 10−10 It has the ability to dissolve in acids. Liberating
The species which has lower value of dissociation hydrated chromium ions in the process they hydrated Cr
constant (Ka), having the least acidic behaviour. As we
ions can react with base to form complex salt. Cr3O3
know, the conjugate base of weak acid has strongest
conjugate basic character. Hence, the correct option is can show the property of acidic as well as basic oxide
(d). both.
318. Which one of the following oxides is 322. Hard acids prefer to combine with
amphoteric? (a) Soft bases (b) Soft acids
(a) MgO (b) CaO (c) Hard acids (d) Hard bases
(c) Na2O (d) CO2 (e) Salts
(e) ZnO Kerala-CEE-2019
Kerala-CEE-2004 Ans. (d) : Hard bases contain small, relatively
Ans. (e) : ZnO is a amphoteric oxide because it can act nonpolarisable donor atoms (such as N, O and F).
with acid as well as base. Hard acids prefer to combine with hard bases.
ZnO + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2+H2O Hard acids are the cations (electron accepting atom)
ZnO + HCl → ZnCl2+H2O having high charge and small sizes whereas hard bases
319. Choose the weak monobasic acid, among the are the Lewis bases where the electron are not easily
following polarised or where the base holds its electron strongly.
(a) H3BO3 (b) H3PO3 323. In hydrolysis of a salt of weak acid and strong
(c) H3PO4 (d) HNO3
(e) H4P2O7 base, A – + H 2O   –
  HA + OH ,
–
the
Kerala-CEE-2012 hydrolysis constant (Kh) is equal to :
Ans. (a) : H3BO3 is a weak Lewis monobasic acid Kw Kw
because it can only accept a pair of electron. None of its (a) (b)
Ka Kb
hydrogen are ionisable.
H3PO3 is a dibasic acid, H3PO4 is a tribasic acid, Ka Kw
(c) (d)
HNO3 is a strong monobasic acid, H4P2O7 is tetrabasic C Ka × Kb
acid.
Manipal-2019
320. Which one of the following is the correct – – –
statement? Ans. (a) : A + H 2 O  
  HA + OH
− 2−
(a) HCO3 is the conjugate base of CO3 [HA ][OH − ]
−
− Kh = Kw = [H+][OH–]
(b) NH 2 is the conjugate base of NH3 [A − ]
(c) H2SO4 is the conjugate base of HSO −4 HA  H+ + A–
(d) NH3 is the conjugate base of NH −2 [H + ][A − ]
Ka =
(e) H2CO3 is the conjugate base of HCO3− [HA]
Kerala-CEE-2012 Also we know that,
Ans. (c) : Acid when loses a proton (H+) gives its K w [H + ][OH − ][HA]
conjugate base and base when accepts a proton (H+) =
gives conjugate acid. Ka [H + ][A − ]

K w [OH − ][HA] Thus, here the product of molar concentrations of
= hydrogen ions and hydroxide ion is ionic product of
Ka [A − ] water. Water is weak electrolyte and undergoes
Kw selfionstions to a small extent. The product of
= Kh concentrations of H+ and OH– ions in water at a
Ka
particular temperature is known as ionic product of
324. The conjugate base of the acid H2S is : water.
(a) HS¯ (b) S2– 328. Which of the following is a weak acid?
(c) S (d) None of these (a) C6H6 (b) CH3COOH
Manipal-2017 (c) CH2 = CH2 (d) CH3COCH3
Ans. (a) : Conjugate base of H2S is HS– MHT CET-2012
When hydrogen sulfide (H2S) denote a proton. The Ans. (b) : CH3COOH is a weak acid because acetic acid
compound left behind will be the disulfide anion, HS its is not a strong enough proton donor to be entirely
conjugate base. converted to hydronium ions in aqueous solution.
H 2S+ H 2 O  HS− + H 3O + Therefore the nature of CH3COO– is basic, and we call
conjugate
acid
base CH3COO– the conjugate base of CH3COOH. It is in
equilibrium with its ions in water and its conjugate
325. Identify the element that forms amphoteric (CH3COO–, a weak base) is also in equilibrium in
oxide.
water.
(a) Carbon (b) Zinc
So, it is called a weak acid.
(c) Calcium (d) Sulphur
MHT CET-2018 329. The conjugate acid of HS– is
(a) S2– (b) H2S
Ans. (b) : The oxides which can react with both acid
and base to give a salt are called amphoteric oxides. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
Oxides of carbon and sulphur are acidic and the oxide MHT CET-2012
of calcium is basic. Zinc forms an amphoteric oxide. Ans. (b) : Conjugate acid of HS is H2S
They show characteristics of both acidic as well as basic HS– + H+ → H2S (Conjugate acid)
oxides. HS– → S2– + H+ (Conjugate acid)
Following reactions are given by ZnO – 330. Which of the following salts will not undergo
ZnO + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2O hydrolysis?
ZnO + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2O (a) NH4Cl (b) KCN
326. What is the basicity of orthophosphorous acid? (c) KNO3 (d) Na2CO3
(a) One (b) Two MHT CET-2011
(c) Three (d) Four Ans. (c) : Salt of strong acid and strong base is not
MHT CET-2015 undergo hydrolysis.
Ans. (b) : Potassium nitrate (KNO3) is a salt of strong base and
strong acid hence, It is not hydrolysis.
331. Solutions in test tubes containing H2O and
aqueous NaOH can be differentiated with the
help of:
(a) red litmus (b) blue litmus
(c) Na2CO3 (d) HCl (aqueous)
NDA (I)-2011
The number of H atom bonded to the oxygen atoms in Ans. : (a) Solutions in test tubes containing H2O and
the above compound is equal to 2. Therefore the aqueous NaOH can be differentiated with the help of
basicity of the orthophosphorous acid is 2. red litmus.
327. The product of molar concentrations of
hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions in a 0.01 M 332. When concentrated H2SO4 splits of the surface,
aqueous solution of sodium chloride is known it should be immediately cleaned:
as (a) with a piece of cloth.
(a) Hydrolysis constant of salt (b) by adding cold water.
(b) Dissociation constant of acid (c) by adding solid Na2CO3.
(c) Dissociation constant of base (d) by adding solid BaCl2
(d) Ionic product of water NDA (I)-2011
MHT CET-2014 Ans. : (c) When concentrated H2SO4 splits of the
Ans. (d) : Sodium chloride is a salt of strong base surface, it should be cleaned by adding solid Na2CO3.
NaOH and strong acid HCl. In its aqueous solution. 333. A bee-sting leaves an acid which causes pain
Following equilibrium is observed. and irritation. The injected acid is:
NaCl + H2O  Na+ + Cl– + H2O (a) acetic acid (b) sulphuric acid
Hence, no hydrolysis takes place in this case, and the (c) citric acid (d) methanoic acid
solution remains neutral. NDA (I)-2011

Ans. : (d) Bee-sting leaves contains methanoic acid 338. Which of the following is the weakest base?
that cause pain and irritation. (a) Ethyl amine (b) Ammonia
• Methanoic acid:– It is utilized to deliver insect sprays (c) Dimethyl amine (d) Methyl amine
and for colouring, tanning, and electroplating. It MHT CET-2008
happens normally in different sources. Ans. (b) : NH3 (Ammonia) is a weakest base because
334. NH4Cl is acidic due to the ammonia's nitrogen atom has an electron pair that
(a) Cationic hydrolysis (b) Anionic hydrolysis easily accepts a proton.
(c) Its ionic nature (d) pH > 7 Hence, basic nature is Increased.
MHT CET-2010 In Ammonia no Alkyl group is present. So it is least
basic.
Ans. (a) : NH4Cl is a salt of strong acid HCl and weak
base NH4OH. 339. Which one of the following species acts as both
Hydrolysis:- Bronsted acid and base?
NH4Cl + H2O  NH4OH + HCl (a) H 2 PO −2 (b) HPO32−
NH +4 + Cl− + H 2 O  NH4OH + H+ + Cl– (c) HPO 24− (d) All of these
NH +4 (aq) + H 2 O(l )  NH 4 OH(aq) + H + (aq) UPTU/UPSEE-2015
MHT CET-2008
Only the cation will undergo hydrolysis and the solution
will be acidic in nature due to H+ formation. So here the Ans. (c) : HPO 24− act as both Bronsted acid and
cation is responsible for the acidic nature of the bronsted base.
solution.
HPO 24− + H2O  H 2 PO −4 + OH–
335. Conjugate acid-base pair differ by
(a) Electron (b) Proton HPO 24− + H2O  PO34− + H3O+
(c) Neutron (d) Hydroxyl group H 2 PO −2 is conjugate base of H3PO2 (a monobasic acid)
MHT CET-2010 and does not give H+.
Ans. (b) : Conjugate acid-base pair contains two
compounds that differ only by a hydrogen ion H+ HPO32− is a conjugate base of H 2 PO3− and does not
(proton) and a charge of +1. ionize further.
Acid – H+ → conjugate base H3PO3 is a dibasic acid.
Base + H+ → conjugate acid 340. Lemon gives sour taste because of
336. Reaction for the formation of NaCl is (a) Citric acid (b) Tartaric acid
(c) Oxalic acid (d) Acetic acid
(a) Na ( g ) + Cl2 ( g )  → NaCl ( s ) MHT CET-2007
1 Ans. (a): Lemon comes under the category of citrus fruit.
(b) Na ( s ) + Cl 2 ( g )  → NaCl ( s ) Lemon is sour in teste. It is rich in citric acid which
2
makes it sour.
1
(c) Na ( g ) + Cl ( g )  → NaCl ( s ) Tartaric acid –It is a white, crystalline organic acid
2 that occurs naturally in many fruits such as grapes.
(d) Na ( g ) + Cl 2 ( g ) → NaCl ( g ) Oxalic acid – It is the simplest dicarboxlic acid.
Acetic acid – Acetic acid is the second simplest
MHT CET-2010 carboxlic acid vinegar is no less than 4% acetic acid by
Ans. (b) : In the Born-Haber cycle given reaction for volume, making acetic acid the main component of
the formation of NaCl is:- vinegar apart from water.
1
Na ( s ) + Cl 2 ( g )  → NaCl ( s ) 341. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide?
2 (a) SO3 (b) Mg
337. If 20 mL of an acidic solution of pH=3 is (c) Al O
2 3 (d) P4O10
diluted to 100 mL, the H+ ion concentration MHT CET-2007
will be Ans. (c):
(a) 1×10–3 M (b) 2×10–3 M Amphoteric
–4
(c) 2×10 M (d) 0.02×10–4 M • These are the oxides that can react with both acids and
MHT CET-2009 as well as bases to form salt and water.
Ans. (c) : Given that – • These possess both acidic and basic properties.
pH = 3 • Al2O3, SiO2 is an example of Amphoteric oxide
V1 = 20ml V2 = 100ml • Al2O3 + 2NaOH (Base) → 2NaAlO2 + H2O
H+ = ? • Al2O3 + 6HCl (acid) → 2AlCl3 + 3H2O
H+ = 1 × 10–3 m = 1 × 10–3N 342. The hydrolysis of sodium carbonate involves
N1 V1 = N2 V2 the reaction between
1 × 10–3 × 20 = N2 × 100 (a) Sodium ion and water (b) Na+ and OH–
N2 = 2 × 10–4
(c) CO32− and water (d) CO32− and H+
[H+] = 2 × 10–4M
MHT CET-2007
Ans. (c) : Reactions of hydrolysis would be the opposite 347. Which of these is least likely to act as Lewis base?
of condensation reaction in which two molecules bind (a) BF3 (b) PF3
together into a larger one an expel a molecule of water. (c) CO (d) F–
Hydrolysis thus requires water to breakdown, while NEET-2016
condensation occurs by eliminating water and all the Ans. (a) : BF3 has vacant orbital in which it can accent a
other solvents. Any reactions to the hydration are lone pair of electron or π-electron. Hence, it act as a
hydrolysis. Now, we will write the reaction of Lewis acid. BF3 is an electron deficient species, so have
hydrolysis of sodium carbonate– a capacity of electron accepting instead of donating, it
Na2CO3 + 2H2O  2NaOH + H2CO3 has least tendency to act as a Lewis base.
+ 2− + – CO, F– and PF3 can either donate a lone pair of electron
or 2Na + CO3 + 2H2O  2Na + 2OH + H2CO3
or π-electron. Hence they act as Lewis base.
It is anionic is alkaline in nature due to hydrolysis. 348. Which of the strongest acid in the following ?
343. 0.1 M solution of which one of these substances (a) HClO4 (b) H2SO3
will act basic ? (c) H2SO4 (d) HClO3
(a) Sodium borate (b) Ammonium chloride NEET-2013
(c) Calcium nitrate (d) Sodium sulphate Ans. (a) : Among the given acids, perchloric acid
NEET-1992 (HClO4) is the strongest acids. This is because the
Ans. (a) : Salt formed strong base and weak acid act as conjugate base ClO − ion is the weakest base.
4
basic. Sodium borate is a salt formed from strong base
(NaOH) and weak acid (H3PO3) Hence, sodium borate The HClO4 has the most oxygen atom so it would have
will act basic. to be the strongest acid.
349. Which of the following molecular hydrides acts
344. Conjugate base for Bronsted acids H2O and HF
as Lewis acid ?
are
+ + (a) NH3 (b) H2O
(a) H3O and H2F , respectively
– + (c) B2H6 (d) CH4
(b) OH and H2F , respectively
NEET-2010
(c) H3O+ and F–, respectively
– –
(d) OH and F , respectively Ans. (c) : B H
2 6 is a electron deficient molecule so, it
acts like an acid.
NEET-2019 Electron deficient molecules act as Lewis acid. Among
Ans. (d) : Bronsted acid- Conjugate base the given molecules only diborane is electron deficient
H2O → OH– + H+ it does not have complete octet. Thus it act as a Lewis
HF → F– + H+ acid. NH3 and H2O being electron rich molecules
Hence, OH– and F– are conjugate base of Bronsted acid behaves as Lewis base.
(H2O) and HF. 350. Which of the following molecules acts as a
345. Which of the following cannot act both as Lewis acid ?
Bronsted acid and as Bronsted base ? (a) (CH3)2O (b) (CH3)3P
(a) HCO3– (b) NH3 (c) (CH3)3N (d) (CH3)3B
NEET-2009
(c) HCl (d) HSO 4– Ans. (d) : Lewis acids are electron deficient
Odisha NEET-2019 compounds, since (CH3)3 B is electron deficient (due to
Ans. (c) : HCl cannot act both as bronsted acid and incomplete octet of B). It act as a Lewis acid.
Bronsted base because HCl can only donate proton. HCl 351. Which one of the following statement is not
cannot accept H+ therefore cannot act as Bronsted base. true?
346. Which of the following fluoro-compound is (a) Among halide ions, iodide is the most
most likely to behave as a Lewis base ? powerful reducing agent
(a) BF3 (b) PF3 (b) Fluorine is the only halogen that does not
(c) CF4 (d) SiF4 show a variable oxidation state
NEET-II 2016 (c) HOCl is a stronger acid than HOBr
Ans. (b) : Lewis base is substance which contains lone (d) HF is a stronger acid than HCl
pair on central atom. NEET-2003
+
Phosphorus is a group VA element so it has 5 valence Ans. (d) : Due to strong H-F bond H ions are not easily
electron. Fluorine is a group VII A element so it has 7 removed due to higher electronegativity (E.N) of F,
valence electrons. more bond dissociation energy required.
So, total valence electrons = 5 + 7 (3) 1
= 5 + 21 = 26 acidic strength ∝
Bond dissocation energy
So, HF is not stronger acid than HCl.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
352. Which one of the following compounds is not a
protonic acid ?
As there is a lone pair on the central phosphorus atom. (a) B(OH)3 (b) PO(OH)3
So PF3 tends to donate its lone pair of electrons and (c) SO(OH)2 (d) SO2(OH)2
behave as Lewis base. NEET-2003
Ans. (a) : B(OH)3 is not protonic acid because it does 358. Repeated use of which one of the following
not give proton on ionisation directly. While it acts as fertilizers would increase the acidity of the soil ?
Lewis acid due to acceptance of OH– form water and (a) Ammonium sulphate
forms a hydrated species. (b) Superphosphate of lime
B(OH)3 + H2O  [Β(ΟΗ)4]− + Η+ (c) Urea
(d) Potassium nitrate
353. In HS–, I–, R–NH2, NH3 order of proton
NEET-1998
accepting tendency will be
(a) I– > NH3 > R–NH2 > HS– Ans. (a) : Ammonium sulphate is used as an artificial
(b) NH3 > R–NH2 > HS– > I– fertilizer for alkaline soils. When introduced into soil,
an ammonium ion is released.
(c) R–NH2 > NH3 > HS– > I– It also contributes nitrogen, which aids in plant growth.
(d) HS– > R–NH2 > NH3 > I– It dissolves relatively slowly which makes it cheaper
UPTU/UPSEE-2007 than some artificial fertilizer.
NEET-2000 This creates a small amount of acid which lower the pH
Ans. (c) : The order of proton accepting tendency will balance of the soil.
be. 359. The species which acts as a Lewis but not a
R-NH2> NH3> HS– > I– Bronsted acid is
Proton accepting tendency is known as strength of (a) NH −2 (b) O2–
basicity. In R-NH2 has lone pair of electron which
intensify due 2 release of R group and increase the (c) BF3 (d) OH −
tendency to donate lone pair of electron 2H+. UP CPMT-2014
Ans. (c) : BF3 being electron deficient acts as a Lewis
354. Conjugate acid of NH 2– is
acid but it is not a Bronsted acid because of the absence
(a) NH2OH (b) NH +4 of H atoms.
(c) N2H4 (d) NH3 360. Two acids A and B have pKa 4 and 6, then
NEET-2000 (a) A is 4/6 times stronger than B
Ans. (d) : The species formed after adding a proton to (b) A is 10 times stronger than B
the base is known as conjugate acid of the base and the (c) A is 6/4 times stronnger than B
species formed after losing a proton is known as (d) B is 10 times stronger than A
conjugate base of acid So, UP CPMT-2009
NH 2– + H + → NH 3 Ans. (b) pK a = − log K a
(Base) (Conjugate acid)
∴ ( pK a )A = − log ( K a )A
355. Which compound is electron deficient ?
(a) BCl3 (b) NH +4 ( K a )A = antilog ( −4 ) = 10−4
(c) NH 2– (d) NH3 Similarly, ( K a )B = anti log ( −6 ) = 10−6
COMEDK-2012, NEET-2000 Strength ofA Ka
Ans. (a) : In BCl3 the central atom 'B' is sp2 hybridised =
Strength of B Kb
and contains only six electron in its valence shell.
Therefore it is electron deficient. 10−4
= = 10
356. The stronger conjugate base is 10−6
(a) SO 2–
4 (b) Cl– ∴ Strength of A = 10 × strength of B.
(c) NO3– (d) CH3COO– 361. Correct order of basic strength is
(a) Mg(OH)2 > NaOH > Al(OH)3
NEET-1999 (b) Mg(OH)2 > Al(OH)3 > NaOH
Ans. (d) : CH 3COOH  CH 3COO − + H + (c) NaOH > Mg(OH)2 > Al(OH)3
weak acid conjugate base (d) Al(OH)3 > Mg(OH)2 > NaOH
As CH3COOH is the weakest acid, so conjugate base UP CPMT-2009
(CH3COO–) is the strongest base. Ans. (c): Generally, basic strength of oxides/hydroxides
H2SO4, HCl, HNO3 are strong acid, so their conjugate decreases, as we move from left to right in a period of
base are weak. Periodic Table. Hence, alkali metal hydroxides are most
357. Which of the following is not a Lewis acid ? basic and the order of basic strength is as
(a) SiF4 (b) C2H4 NaOH>Mg(OH)2 > AI(OH)2
(c) BF3 (d) FeCl3 362. Which of the following is not Lewis acid?
NEET-1996 (a) AlCl3.6H2O (b) AlCl3
Ans. (b) : In BF3 and FeCl3 molecules, the central (c) SnCl4 (d) FeCl3
atoms have incomplete octet and in SiF4, the central UP CPMT-2006
atom has empty d-orbitals. Hence according to Lewis Ans. (a) : AlCl3 is sp2 hybridised, when it combines
concept these are Lewis acid. Lewis acid accept with H2O molecules, one of the vacant p-orbitals and
electron pair from donors. So, only C2H4 can not accept five d-orbitals are filled by electrons pairs and result of
electron pair. Hence, it is not a Lewis acid. which it cannot accept more electron and so, will not act
as electron acceptor of Lewis acid.
363. Cationic hydrolysis gives the following solution 369. Which of the following pair of salt produces
(a) Acidic (b) Basic odourless gas with dil. H2SO4 ?
(c) Neutral (d) Amphoteric (a) HCO3− and HSO3−
UP CPMT-2005
+ (b) HCO −3 and CO3−
−
Ans. (b): NH 4 Cl → NH4+ Cl
(c) S2O32 − and CH3CO −2
+
−
NH 4 + Cl + H 2 O  
  NH 4 OH + HCl (d) CO32 − and CH3CO −2
Weak acid Strong acid
+ UPTU/UPSEE-2018
NH 4 ion is a cation which react with water (H2O) to Ans. (b) : HCO3 and CO3−
will produce odourless gas
form ammonium hydroxide (NH4OH). Which is a basic i.e.
in nature. The pH value of basic solution is greater than Carbon dioxide with dil. H2SO4
7.
NaHCO3 + H 2SO 4 → Na 2SO 4 + 2CO 2 + 2H 2O
364. Hydrolysis of sodium acetate gives aq aq g l
(a) Acidic solution (b) Basic solution
Na 2 CO3 + H 2SO 4 → Na 2SO 4 + H 2 O+ CO 2
(c) Amphoteric solution (d) Neutral sulution aq aq l g
washing soda
UP CPMT-2005
Ans. (b): 370. Identify the Bronsted acid in the following
equation
CH 3COONa + H 2 O  
  CH 3COOH + NaOH → HPO24− (aq) + OH − (aq)
PO 43− + H 2 O(l ) 
( Weak acid ) (Strong acid )
Soldium acetate gives weak acid and strong base on (a) PO 43− (b) HPO4
hydrolysis. Therefore the aqueous solution of sodium (c) H2O (d) OH-
acetate will be basic in nature. UPTU/UPSEE-2017
365. Which of the following is amphoteric? Ans. (c) : In the reaction:
(a) V2O3 (b) CuO PO 43− + H 2 O(l )  → HPO24− (aq) + OH − (aq)
(c) V2O5 (d) NiO Only H2O act as Bronsted acid among the given options
UPTU/UPSEE-2005 as it donate the proton (H+) to OH– ions
Ans. (c) : V2O5 is a amphoteric oxide.
371. Of the given anions, the strongest Bronsted
366. Which of the following is not a Lewis base? base is
(a) NH3 (b) H2O (a) ClO– (b) ClO3−
(c) AlCl3 (d) None of these
UPTU/UPSEE-2005 (c) ClO −2 (d) ClO −4
Ans. (c) : AlCl3 is a strong electrophile and has vacant UPTU/UPSEE-2014
orbital to accept electron lone pair. Thus it is a Lewis Ans. (a) : HCIO is –the weakest acid , hence its
acid. conjugate base, i.e.,CIO is the strongest Bronsted base.
NH3, H2O have lone pair of electron and act as Lewis Conjugate base order–
bases. CIO −4 < CIO3− < CIO 2− < CIO −
367. Which one of the following is called amphoteric 372. Which of the following is the weakest acid?
solvent? (a) HCl (b) HF
(a) Ammonium hydroxide (b) Chloroform (c) H2SO4 (d) HNO3
(c) Benzene (d) Water UPTU/UPSEE-2009
UPTU/UPSEE-2004
Ans. (b) : HF (Hydrofluric acid) is thus the weakest
Ans. (d) : acid of the hydrogen halides, because of the strength of
+ –
H2O → H + OH (Acid due to donation of proton) the HX bond and the polarizing ability of F–.
H2O + H+ → H3O+ (Basic due to gaining of proton) 373. Water is well known amphoprotic solvent. In which
∴ H2O is amphoteric solvent because it dissolves both chemical reaction water is behaving as a base?
acids and basic. (a) H 2SO 4 + H 2 O  → H 3O + + HSO −4
368. Would gaseous HCl be considered as an
Arrhenius acid? (b) H 2 O + H 2 O  → H 3 O + + OH −
(a) Yes (c) H 2 O + NH −2  → NH 3 + OH −
(b) No
(c) Not know (d) H 2 O + NH 3  → NH +4 + OH −
(d) Gaseous HCl does not exist UPTU/UPSEE-2009
UPTU/UPSEE-2004 Ans. (a) : According to Bronsted Lowry concept bases are
Ans. (b) : Gaseous HCl does not give H+ but liquid HCl the substance which have tendency to accept a proton.
gives H+ in aqueous solution there for gaseous HCl is H SO + H O  → H 3O + + HSO −4
2 4 2
not a Arrhenius acid due to covalent bonding in gaseous (acid) (base) (Conjugated (Conjugated
condition. acid) base)

374. Which of the following behaves as Lewis acid 379. Which of the set of oxides are arranged in the
and not as Bronsted acid? proper order of basic, amphoteric, acidic?
(a) HCl (b) H2SO4 (a) SO2,P2O5,CO (b) BaO,Al2O3,SO2
(c) HSO3− (d) SO3 (c) CaO, SiO2, Al2O3 (d) CO2, Al2O3,CO
UPTU/UPSEE-2009 WB-JEE-2018
Ans. (d) : Lewis acids have a tendency to accept Ans. (b) : Oxides of non-metallic elements are acidic
electron while Bronsted acid have a tendency to donate such as SO2.
proton. Oxides of less electropositive element such as Al2O3 are
amphoteric i.e. those behaves as acids toward strong
(a) HCl → H++Cl– (b) H2SO4 → H+ + HSO −4 bases and as bases towards strong acid oxides of
Bronsted acid Bronsted acid electropositive elements BaO are basic and contains
(c) HSO3− → H+ + SO32− (d) SO3 + O2– → SO 24− discrete O2– ions.
Bronsted acid Lewis acid The correct set of oxides arranged in the proper order of
375. Of the following acids the one which has the basic, amphoteric, acidic are
capability to form complex compound and also BaO, Al2O3, SO2
possesses oxidizing and reducing properties is
(a) HNO3 (b) HNO2
(c) HCOOH (d) HCN 4. Buffer Solution
WB-JEE-2009
Ans. (b) : HNO2 has both oxidizing and reducing 380. A student needs to prepare a buffer solution of
properties. It also has the capability to form complex propanoic acid and its sodium salt with pH 4.
compounds because Nitrogen has the middle valency. CH 3 CH 2 COO− 
 
376. The principle use of hydrofluoric acid is The ratio of  required to make
[CH3 CH 2 COOH ]
(a) in etching glass
(b) as a bleaching agent buffer is _______.
(c) as an extremely strong oxidizing agent Given : K a (CH 3 CH 2 COOH ) = 1.3×10−5
(d) in the preparation of strong organic fluorine (a) 0.03 (b) 0.13
compounds (c) 0.23 (d) 0.33
NDA (II)-2017 JEE Main-28.06.2022, Shift-II
Ans. (a) The principle use of hydrofluoric acid is a Ans. (b) : We know that,
etching glass. It is used in production of chlorides,
fertilizers, and dyes, in electroplating, and in [Salt]
pH = pKa + log
photographic, textile, and rubber industries. [Acid]
377. Of the following compounds, which one is the [CH 3 CH 2 COO − ]
strongest Bronsted acid in a aqueous solution? 4 = 5 – log 1.3 + log
[CH 3 CH 2 COOH]
(a) HCIO3 (b) HCIO2 −
(c) HOCI (d) HOBr [CH 3 CH 2 COO ] 1.3
log = log 1.3 – 1 = log
WB-JEE-2017 [CH 3 CH 2 COOH] 10
Ans. (a) : The central atom in oxoacids, higher oxidation −
number more strongly it behave bronsted acid. [CH 3 CH 2 COO ]
= 0.13
HCIO3 [CH 3 CH 2 COOH]
+1 x + (–2) × 3 = 0 381. The solution that is made by mixing appropriate
=1+x–6=0 amount of a weak acid and salt is called
x–5=0 (a) Basic buffer (b) Acidic buffer
x = +5 (c) Neutral buffer (d) Both (a) and (b)
Oxidation no. for Cl in HClO2 → +3 AP-EAMCET-1992
Oxidation no. for Cl in HClO → +1 Ans. (b) : A buffer solution is one which resists
Oxidation no. for Br in HBrO → +1 changes in pH when small quantities of an acid or an
Hence, HClO3 is the strongest Bronsted acid in aqueous alkali are added to it. Acid buffer has acidic pH. As the
solution name suggests, these solutions are used to maintain
378. Which of the following properties is true for a acidic environments.
tooth paste? An acidic buffer solution is simply one which has a pH
(a) It is acidic less than 7. Acidic buffer solutions are commonly made
(b) It is neutral from a weak acid and one of its salts - often a sodium salt.
(c) It is basic 382. The solutions which tend to keep the
(d) It is made up of Calcium phosphate, the concentration of hydrogen ions constant even
material of tooth enamel when small amount of strong acid or strong
NDA (I)-2018 base are added to them, are known as
Ans. (c) : Toothpastes are basic in nature and prevents (a) Acidic solution (b) Alkaline solution
tooth decay by neutralizing the excess of acid. They can (c) Buffer solution (d) Ideal solution
neither be acidic nor normal. AP-EAMCET-1993
Ans. (c) : Buffer solution is an aqueous solution Ans. (b) : According to Henderson equation, pH of a
consisting of a mixture of a weak acid and its conjugate buffer solution.
base. Buffer solution resist the change in its pH value
on adding a small amount of an acid or base. pH = pKa + log
[salt ]
383. Which of the following solutions cannot act as a [acid ]
buffer? 1
pH ∝ Salt ∝
(a) NaH 2 PO 4 + H 3 PO 4 acid
(b) CH 3COOH + CH 3COONa [Salt ]
So, if ratio is low then the pH will also be low.
(c) HCl + NH 4 Cl [ Acid ]
(d) H 3 PO 4 + Na 2 HPO 4 [Salt ] 4.0
(i) = =1
AP-EAMCET-1998 [ Acid ] 4.0
Ans. (c) : HCl + NH4Cl cannot act as a buffer because it [Salt ] 40
is a mixture of strong acid and weak base. (ii) = = 10
[ Acid ] 4
384. Which of the following is correct for acid buffer? [Salt ] 4
[salt = S, acid = A]? (iii) = = 0.1
[ Acid ] 40
(a) pK a = pH + log
[S] [Salt ] 10.0
[A] (iv) =
[ Acid ] 0.1
= 100
(b) pH = pK a + log
[S] So, min. ratio is in (i) & (iii).
[A] 387. An acidic buffer solution could be prepared by
mixing the solutions of the following
(c) pK = pH −
[A] (a) Sodium acetate and acetic acid
a
[S] (b) Ammonium sulphate and sulfuric acid
(c) Ammonium chloride and ammonium
(d) pH = pK + log
[A] hydroxide
a
[S] (d) Sodium chloride and hydrochloric acid
AP-EAMCET-2000 MPPET-2012
Ans. (b) : According to Henderson equation, pH of an Ans. (c) : Buffer solution:- A buffer solution that can
acidic buffer- resist pH change upon the addition of an acidic or basic
components. It is able to neutralize small amounts of
pH = pK a + log
[salt ] added acid or base, thus maintaining the pH of the
[ acid ] solution relatively stable.
Acidic buffer solution = Weak acid + Salt of strong
or pH = pKa + log
[S] base
[A ] = CH3COOH + CH3COONa
385. Which of the following would produce a buffer Acetic acid sodium acetate
solution when mixed in equal volumes? Basic buffer solution = Weak base + salt of strong acid
(a) 1 M CH3COOH and 0.5 M NaOH (NH4OH) (NH4Cl)
(b) 1 M CH3COOH and 0.5 M HCl Ammonium Ammonium
(c) 1 M NH4OH and 0.5 M NaOH hydroxide chloride
(d) 1 M NH4OH and 0.5 M HCl 388. A buffer solution is prepared by mixing 10 mL
AP EAMCET (Engg.)-2001 of 1.0 M acetic acid and 20 mL of 0.5 M sodium
Ans. (a) : CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O acetate and then diluted to 100 mL with
Hence, weak acid, CH3COOH and its salt with strong distilled water. If the pKa of acetic acid is 4.76,
base, CH3COONa act as acidic buffer. what is the pH of the buffer solution prepared?
386. Study the following table
Buffer solution Volume (in Volume (in mL) (a) 3.84 (b) 4.76
(in mL) mL) of 0.1 M of 0.1 M sodium (c) 4.34 (d) 5.21
weak acid salt of weak AP EAMCET (Medical) -1998
acid Ans. (b): Given that,
I 4.0 4.0 pKa = 4.76, pH = ?
II 4.0 40.0 The expression for the pH of the acidic buffer solution
III 40.0 4.0 is as given below–
IV 0.1 10.0
pH = pK a + log
[Salt ]
Which of the two sets of buffer solutions have [ Acid ]
least pH? Now, given data–
(a) I and II (b) I and III M1 = 1M,V1 = 10mL, M 2 = ? V2 = 100 mL
(c) II and III (d) II and IV
AP-EAMCET-2004 ∴ M 1V 1 = M 2V 2

M 1V1 1× 10 392. Which of the following is a buffer solution?
or M2 = = = 0.1M (a) K2SO4+H2SO4 (b) NaOH+Na2SO4
V2 100 (c) NaOH+CH3COONa (d) NH4OH+NH4Cl
Similarly, for sodium acetate– COMEDK-2016
M1V1 = M 2 V2 Ans. (d) : Buffer solution is made by taking a solution
0.5 × 20 1 of weak base (NH4OH) and one of its salt with strong
or M2 = = M = 0.1M acid (NH4Cl) [or weak acid and its salt]. It resists a
100 10 change in pH upon addition of small amount of strong
0.1 acid or strong base. Therefore (d) is a buffer solution.
∴ pH = 4.76 + log
0.1 393. Which of the following equations give ionic
or pH = 4.76 product of water?
389. Which one of the following will not function as (i) NH 3 (aq) + H 2O  NH 4+ (aq) + OH – (aq)
buffer solution ?
(a) Borax + Boric acid (ii) NH 4+ (aq) + H 2O  H 3O + + NH 3 (aq)
(b) NaH2PO4 + Na2HPO4 (iii) NH 2– (aq) + H 2O  NH 3 (aq) + OH –
(c) NaCl + NaOH (iv) NH 3 (aq) + OH – (aq)  NH 2– (aq) + H 2O
(d) NH4Cl + NH4OH
SCRA - 2009 (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (i)
Ans. (c) : Buffer solution : A buffer solution is a salt of
COMEDK-2015
either weak acid and its salt with strong base or strong
acid with weak base and its salt. Ans. (c) : In the following question:
(i) Borax + Boric acid : Borax and Boric acid is an acid (i) NH3(aq) + H2O  NH +4 (aq) + OH–
buffer solution. It consist of weak acid (Boric acid) Acid-base neutralization reaction will take place above
and its salt (borax) with strong base. and water will break into H+ and OH–.
(ii) NaH2PO4 and Na2HPO4 : NaH2PO4 and Na2HPO4 (ii) NH +4 (aq) + H2O  H3O+ + NH3(aq)
are acid salts so they canastas acid as well as salt. Here also, acid base neutralization will take place.
When one act as acid and other as salt they will 394. A buffer solution has equal volumes of 0.2 M
form buffer solution. NH4OH and 0.02 M NH4Cl. The pKb of the
(iii) NaCl + NaON : consist of salt of strong acid and base is 5. The pH is
strong base. (a) 10 (b) 9
(iv) NH4Cl+NH4OH : It consist of weak base and its salt (c) 4 (d) 7
with strong acid. COMEDK-2017
So, NaCl + NaOH Will not function as buffer solution. Ans. (a) : Given that–
390. Which among the following pairs constitute a volume of NH4OH = 0.2 M and
buffer ? volume of NH4Cl = 0.02 M
pKb = 5
(a) LiOH & LiCl (b) HNO3 & NH4NO3 According to the Henderson's equation.
(c) HNO2 & NaNO2 (d) HBr & KBr [salt]
AP EAPCET 24.08.2021, Shift-I pOH = pKb + log
[base]
Ans. (c) : As we know that, HNO2 is a weak acid and 0.02 1
NaNO2 is salt of that weak acid and strong base = 5 + log = 5 + log = 5 + (–1) = 4
(NaOH). So, both pair of HNO2 and NaNO2 formed the 0.2 10
buffer solution. pH=14–pOH=14–4=10
391. The Henderson’s equation for a basic buffer is 395. When 0.1 mole of an acid is added to 2 L of a
buffer solution, the pH of the buffer decreases
[Salt]
(a) pOH = pK b + log by 0.5 . The buffer capacity of the solution is
[Base] (a) 0.6 (b) 0.4
[Salt] (c) 0.2 (d) 0.1
(b) pOH = pK b − log AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2008
[Base]
Ans. (d) : Given data:
[Base] 0.1
(c) pOH = pK b + log Number of moles of acid added = per litre
[Salt] 2
[Salt] Change of pH = 0.5
(d) pOH = pK b + Now,
[Base]
Manipal-2018 number of moles of acid added/L
Buffer capacity =
COMEDK-2011 changein pH
Ans. (a) : The Henderson's equation for a basic buffer is 0.1
Buffer capacity =
[Salt] 0.5× 2
pOH = pK b + log & pH = 14 – pOH
[Base] Buffer capacity = 0.1

396. H 2 + CO + alkene → catalyst
1o alcohol (c) 3M H 2 CO3 + 3M KHCO3
What is the stable intermediate and the nature (d) 0.05M KC1O 4 + 0.05M HC1O 4
of the reaction? AIIMS-2003
(a) acid reduction (b) aldehyde, oxidation Ans. (b): Buffer solution contains weak base +salt of
(c) aldehyde, reduction (d) alcohol, oxidation weak base with strong acid or weak acid +salt of weak
TS EAMCET 04.08.2021, Shift-I acid with a strong base.
Ans. (c) : Alkene combine with carbon monoxide and In option (d) the used is HCIO4 which is strong base .
hydrogen in the presence of octa carbonyl dicobalt as hence,it is not an example of buffer solution.
catalyst under high temperature and pressure to form 400. Which one of the following statements is not
aldehydes. correct?
H2 + CO + CH2 = CH2 → CH3CH2OH (a) The pH of 1.0×10-8 M HCl is less than 7
• Stable intermediate aldehyde are from (b) The ionic product of water at 25oC is
• Reduction Reaction. 1.0 × 10−14 mol2 L−2
397. Assertion : Mixture of CH3COOH and (c) Cl − is a Lewis acid
CH3COONH4 is an example of acidic buffer. (d) Bronsted Lowry theory cannot explain the
Reason : Acidic buffer contains equimolar acidic character of AlCl3
mixture of a weak acid and its salt with weak AP EAMCET (Engg.) 2012
base. Ans. (c) : Chlorine (Cl–) is a Lewis base because it
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and octet is complete and tendency to give an electros.
the Reason is a correct explanation of the 401. For a buffer of a mixture of 0.12 mol L-1
Assertion. CH3COOH and 0.12 mol L–1 CH3COONa, the
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but buffer capacity is
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (a) 1.38 (b) 0.130
Assertion. (c) 0.06 (d) 0.60
(c) In the Assertion is correct but Reason is AMU-2017
incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are ∆Ca
Ans. (b) : Buffer capacity (β ) =
incorrect. ∆pH
(e) If the assertion is incorrect but the Reason is Where Ca = concentration of acid for acidic buffer
correct.
AIIMS-(2007) Concentration of acid = concentration of salt
Ans. (d): Acidic buffer contains equimolar mixture of ∴ ∆ Ca = 0.12 molL–1
weak acid and its salt with strong base. Hence, we use the following formula for calculating its
CH3COOH/ CH3COONH4 is not an example of acidic pH.
buffer. pH = – log [H+] = – log (0.12) = 0.92
398. During titration of acetic acid with aq. NaOH 0.12 12 6 3
Buffer capacity (β ) = = = = = 0.130
solution, the neutralisation graph has a vertical 0.92 92 46 23
line. This line indicates 402. A buffer contains equal concentrations of X–
and HX. The Ka for HX is 10–8. The pH of the
buffer is–
(a) 3 (b) 8
(c) 7 (d) 11
(a) alkaline nature of equivalence. BCECE-2009
(b) acidic nature of equivalence. Ans. (b) : A buffer consist of a weak acid and its
(c) neutral nature of equivalence. conjugate base or a weak base and its conjugate acid.
(d) depends on experimental proceeding. ka is given to us it is an indication that the given buffer
AIIMS- 2007 is an example of an acidic buffer.
Hence, we use the following formula for calculating its
Ans. (a) : In the titration of a weak acid CH3COOH pH.
with a strong base (NaOH), there is a change in the pH
value at the end point. But it is not sharp due to weak [conjugate base]
pH = –log kw + log
ionisation of CH3COOH. Due to the excess of free base [Acid]
beyond the equivalence point, there is a step rise in pH [X − ]
which is indicated by the vertical line. Hence, the pH = pka +log10
ventical line in the graph indicates alkaline nature of [HX]
equivalence. pH = –log1010–8 + log101 = 8
399. Which one of the following in NOT a buffer As the concentrations of X– and HX are equal
solution? 403. A buffer solution contains 0.1 mole of sodium
acetate in 1000 cm3 of 0.1 M acetic acid. To the
(a) 0.8M H 2S + 0.8M KHS above buffer solution, 0.1 mole of sodium
+ acetate is further added and dissolved. The pH
(b) 2M C6 H 5 NH 2 + 2M C6 H5 N H 3 Br − of the resulting buffer is equal to–
(a) pKa – log2 (b) pKa CH3COONa     CH3COO + Na
– +
(c) pKa+2 (d) pKa + log2 (completely ionised)

BCECE-2014 How to make a acidic buffer
Karnataka-CET, 2010 (i) start with taking weak acid (CH COOH) and strong
3
Ans. (d) : Given that– base (NaOH) in 2:1 molar concentration ratio, so that a
[CH3COONa] = 0.1 M sufficient number of moles of the CH3COOH neutralize
[CH3COOH] = 0.1 M completely the same number of moles of NaOH.
0.1 mol CH3COONa → add CH 3COOH + NaOH  → CH 3COONa + H 2 O
[CH3COONa] = 0.1 + 0.1 1 mol 1 mol Sodiumacetate
1mol
= 0.2 M
[CH3COOH] = 0.1 M How to make a acidic buffer.
According to the Henderson's equation Now, the resulting solution will contain the salt and acid
in equimolar concentration and water.
[Salt]
pH = pKa + log OH – (aq) + H + (aq)  → A + (aq) + H + (aq)
[Acid] 1limiting (mol) (excess 2mol) salt (1mol) buffer remaining (mol)
solution
0.2
pKa + log In the buffer solution, [HA] = [A–]
0.1 i.e., equimolar concentrations
pKa + log 2 (ii) The acidic buffer can also prepared by taking
404. Which of the following can form buffer equimolar concentrations and volume of weak acid
solution? (CH3COOH) and the salt of the weak acid and strong
(a) aq.NH3 + NH4OH (b) KOH + HNO3 base (CH3COONa).
(c) NaOH + HCl (d) Kl + KOH 407. Heat of neutralisation of NH4OH and HC1 is
BITSAT-2017 (a) equal to 13.7 kcal
Ans. (a) : Ammonia is a weak base and a salt (b) more than 13.7 kcal
containing its conjugate acid, the ammonium cantion (c) less than 13.7 kcal
,such as NH4OH functions as a buffer solution when (d) more than one is correct
they are present together in a solutions. CG PET-2004
405. Which of the following is not a buffer solution? Ans. (c) : The heat of neutralization is the amount of
(a) 100 mL 0.1 M CH3COOH + 50 mL 0.1 M heat evolved when one gram equivalent of an acid is
CH3 COONa neutralised by one gram equivalent of a base in dilute
(b) 100 mL 0.1 M CH3COOH + 50 mL 0.1 M solution.
NaOH NH4OH is a weak base. Heat of neutralization < 13.7
(c) 50 mL 0.1 M CH3COOH+100 mL 0.1 M Kcal.
NaOH The heat released in the neutralization of a weak base or
(d) 100 mL 0.1 M NH4OH+50 mL 0.1 M CI a weak acid by a strong acid or a strong base,
CG PET-2009 respectively is less than 13.7 Kcal.
Ans. (c) : Acidic buffer is mixture of weak acid and its 408. In the combustion of 2.0 g of methane, 25 kcal
salt with strong base, similarly, basic buffer is a mixture heat is liberated, heat of combustion of
of weak base and its salt with strong acid. methane would be
Hence, 50 mL 0.1 M CH3COOH+100 mL 0.1 M NaOH (a) 100 kcal (b) 200 kcal
does not constitute a buffer solution. Because in this (c) 300 kcal (d) 400 kcal
case millimoles of acid are less than that the strong CG PET-2004
base, which after reaction with strong base gives salt. Ans. (b) : CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
Now, the solution contains only strong base and salt but Molecular weight of CH4 = 12 + 4 = 16
no weak acid. ∴ On the combustion of 2.0 gm of methane = 25.0 kcal.
Hence, no buffer is formed. 25 × 16
406. Which solution is buffer? ∴ On the combustion of 16.0 gm = = 200 kcal.
2
(a) Acetic acid+ NaOH (equimolar ratio) 409. Which of the following mixtures forms an acid
(b) Acetic acid+ NaOH (1:2 molar ratio_ buffer?
(c) Acetic acid+ NaOH (2:1 molar ratio) (a) NaOH+HCl (b) CH3COOH+CH3COONa
(d) HCl +NaOH (equimolar ratio) (c) NH4OH+NH4Cl (d) H2CO3+(NH4)2CO3
CG PET-2013 CG PET-2004
Ans. (c) : A buffer solution can be described as a Ans. (b) : Acid buffer⇒ Weak Acid + Strong Base
solution, which will resist changes in pH when a small Match in option
amount of a strong acid or base is added.
An acidic buffer is compound of a weak acid and its (a) NaOH + HCl  NaOH strong Base and 
conjugated base or a weak acid and the salt of the weak  
 HCl is strong Acid 
acid and a strong base. e.g.,
(CH3COOH+CH3COONa).  CH3COOH is weak acid and 
– +
(b) CH3COOH + CH3COONa  
 
CH3COOH    CH3COO + H  CH3COONa is a strong base 
(feebly ionised) So, option (b) is correct.

410. In a 100 mL of buffer solution of acetic acid 1 [HCN]
and sodium acetate, both are 0.1 mol. In this Ksp × = [Ag+][CN–] ×
buffer, 10 mL of 0.01 mole of HCl is added. Ka [H + ][CN − ]
The pH of the buffer 1 [S][S]
2.2 × 10–16 × −10
=
(a) will be increased by 1 6.2 × 10 10−3
(b) will be decreased by 1 −16 −3
2.2 × 10 × 10
(c) first increases and then decreases S2 =
6.2 × 10−10–9
(d) no change 2
S = 0.3548 × 10
CG PET-2018 S2 = 3.548 × 10–10
Ans. (d) : The solution which resist the change in pH
S = 3.55 × 10−10
even on small addition of an acid are called buffer
solution. As the given solution of acetic acid and S = 1.88 × 10–5
sodium acetate is a buffer solution, the addition of 10 S = 1.9 × 10–5
ml of 0.01 mol HCL solution will not change the pH of 414. An acidic buffer is obtained on mixing
the buffer solution . (a) 100 mL of 0.1M CH3COOH and mLof 0.1
hence, option (d) is the correct answer. MNaOH
(b) 100 mL of 0.1M HCl and 200 mL of 0.1 M
411. An aqueous solution of 1M NaCl and 1M HCl is Nacl
(a) not a buffer but pH< 7 (c) 100 mL of 0.1M CH3COOH and 200 mL of
(b) not a buffer but pH > 7 0.1M NaCl
(c) a buffer with pH < 7 (d) 100 mL of 0.1M HCl and 200 mL of 0.1M
(d) a buffer with pH > 7 CH3COONa
[AIEEE-2002] [JEE Main 2020, 3 Sep Shift-I]
Ans. (a) : NaCl is not the case of buffer NEET-2019
NaCl is salt of strong acid and strong base. Ans. (d) :
NaCl + H2O  NaOH + HCl HCl + CH 3COONa → CH 3COOH + NaCl
aqueous NaCl, itself exact neutral solution 10 milimole 20 milimole – –
− 10 milimole 10 milimole 10 milimole
HCl + H2O  H3O+ + Cl– So, finally we get mixture of
make solution acidic. CH3COOH + CH3COONa that will work like Acidic
So, not a buffer but pH < 7 buffer solution.
412. The pKa of a weak acid (HA) is 4.5. The pOH 415. In order to prepare a buffer solution of pH 5.74
of an aqueous buffered solution of HA in which sodium acetate is added to acetic acid. If the
50% of the acid ionised is concentration of acetic acid in the buffer is 1.0
(a) 4.5 (b) 2.5 M, the concentration of sodium acetate in the
(c) 9.5 (d) 7.0 buffer is .................M. (Round off to the nearest
integer)
[AIEEE-2010]
[Given : pKa acetic acid = 4.74]
[conjugate base] [JEE Main 2021, 18 March Shift-I]
Ans. (c) : pH = pka + log
[acid] [CB]
pka = 4.5 Ans. (10) : pH = pKa + log
[ WA]
[conjugate base] = [acid], as 50% ionification
[CB]
0.5 5.74 = 4.74 + log
pH = 4.5 + log 1
0.5 [CB] = 10 M
pH = 4.5 + log1 (Q log10 1 = 0 ) 416. The buffer present in blood plasma is
pH = 4.5 (a) borax, sodium hydroxide
Then, pOH = 14 – 4.5 = 9.5 (b) carbonic acid, bicarbonate ion
(Note:– pH + pOH = 14) (c) acetic acid, sodium acetate
(d) citric acid, potassium dihydrogen phosphate
413. The solubility of AgCN in a buffer solution of J & K CET-(2012)
pH = 3 is x. The value of x is.......
Ans. (b) : The buffer present in blood plasma is
[Assume: No cyano complex is formed; ksp carbonic acid bicarbonate ion.
(AgCN) = 2.2×10–16 and Ka (HCN) = 6.2 × 10–10] Normal human blood has pH = 7.4.
(a) 0.625×10–6 (b) 1.6×10–6
–16 417. Consider the following solutions of equal
(c) 2.2×10 (d) 1.9×10–5 concentrations
[JEE Main 2021, 25 Feb Shift-I] A = NH4Cl; B = CH3COONa
Ans. (d) : Let Solubility be x C = NH4OH; D= CH3COOH
AgCN  Ag+ + CN– Ksp = 2.2 × 10–16 A buffer solution can be obtained by mixing
H+ + CN −  HCN equal volumes of
(a) C and D (b) A and B
1 1 (c) A and C (d) C and D
K= =
K a 6.2 ×10−10 J & K CET-(2006)

Ans. (a) : Buffer 0.2
(i) Acidic [weak acid + conjugate base] pOH = 4.74 + log = 4.74 – 0.176= 4.56
0.3
(ii) Basic [weak base + conjugate acid] pH = 14 – 4.56
CH 3COO − H + + CH 3COO − Na = 9.44
(D) (B) 421. Which buffer solution comprising of the
NH 4 OH + NH +4 Cl − following has its pH value greater than 7?
(C) (A) (a) CH3COOH+CH3COONa
So, Option (a) is correct. (b) HCOOH+HCOOK
418. Which of the following is not a buffer solution? (c) CH3COONH4
(a) CH3COOH + CH3COONa (d) NH4OH+NH4Cl
(b) H3BO3 + Na3BO3 JIPMER-2012
(c) HClO4 + NaClO4 Ans. (d) : The pH value of basic buffer is always
(d) NH4OH + (NH4)2SO4 greater than 7.
JCECE - 2004 Among the given options, NH4OH+NH4Cl is the only
Ans. (c) : A buffer solution is one which resist changes mixture which consists of a mixture of a weak base and
in pH when small quantities of an acid or an alkali are its conjugated salt and thus, has a pH greater than 7.
added to it. Basic buffer solution: A basic buffer solution consists of
A solution of HClO4 and NaClO4 is not an acid buffer a mixture of a weak base and its salt with strong acid.
because strong acid with its salt cannot form a buffer the best known example in a mixture of NH4OH and
solution. NH4Cl.
419. Which of the following 1 : 1 mixture will act as 422. An example for a neutral buffer is
buffer solution? (a) ammonium hydroxide and ammonium
(a) HCl and NaOH chloride
(b) KOH and CH3COOH (b) acetic acid and sodium acetate
(c) CH3COOH and NaCl (c) acetic acid and ammonium hydroxide
(d) CH3COOH and CH3COONa (d) citric acid and sodium citrate
JCECE - 2005 Karnataka-CET-2013
Ans. (d) : Buffer is a mixture of weak acid with its salt Ans. (c) : Neutral buffer solutions are formed by mixing
with strong base or mixture of weak base and its salt weak acid or weak base. For example Ammonium
with strong acid. Hydroxide or acidic acid is an example of neutral buffer
(a) HCl + NaOH is not buffer because both are a solutions. So, according to the concept, the correct
strong acid strong base. option is (c) acetic acid and ammonium hydroxide.
(b) KOH + CH3COOH is not buffer because they do 423. Which will make basic buffer ?
not have common ion. (a) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL of 0.1 m
(c) CH3COOH + NaCl is not buffer because they do NaOH
not have common ion. (b) 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25 mL of 0.1 M
(d) CH3COOH + CH3COONa are buffer because CH3COOH
CH3COONa its salt with strong base (NaOH). (c) 100 mL of 0.1 CH3COOH + 100 mL of 0.1 M
420. A buffer solution is prepared in which the NaOH
concentration of NH3 is 0.30 M and the (d) 100 mL of 0.1 HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 of
concentration of NH 4+ is 0.20 M. If the NH4OH
equilibrium constant, Kb for NH3 equals NEET-2019
1.8×10-5, What is this pH of the solution? (log Ans. (d) : Key idea A buffer solution having pH more
2.7 =0.43) that 7 is know as basic buffer. It is obtained by mixing
(a) 9.43 (b) 11.72 weak base and its salt with strong acid in a fixed
(c) 8.73 (d) 9.08 proportion.
JIPMER-2014 Let us consider all the options,
NEET-2011 (a) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 mL of 0.1 M
Ans. (a) : According to the Henderson - Hasselbalch NaOH
equation. CH 3COOH + NaOH  → CH 3COONa + H 2 O
 Salt  Intial 100mL × 100mL × 0 m mol
pH of acidic buffer = pKa + log 
 Acid  Conc. 0.1M 0.1M
 Salt  = 10 m mol =10 m mol
pH of basic buffer = pKb + log 
 Base 
Final 0 0 10m mol
–5
pkb = –log [1.8 × 10 ] = 4.74 It is not basic buffer because hydrolysis of salt takes
place and final solution contains salt of weak acid with
 salt  strong base only.
pOH = pKb + log 
 base  Hence, option (a) is incorrect.

(b) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 M NH4OH
1 = log
[Salt ]
HCl + NH 4OH 
→ NH 4 Cl + H 2 O [ Acid ]
IntialConc. 100mL × 200mL × 0 m mol [Salt ] = 10i.e.,10 :1
0.1M HCl 0.1M [ Acid ]
= 10 m mol = 20 m mol
Final 0 426. Buffer solutions have constant acidity and
10m mol
10
alkalinity because
It is basic buffer because final solution contains weak (a) These give unionised acid or base on reaction
base and its salt with storng acid. Hence, option (b) is with added acid on alkali
correct. (b) Acids and alkalies in these solution are
shielded from attack by other ions
(c) HCl + NaOH  → NaCl + H 2 O (c) They have large excess of H+ or OH– ions
IntialConc. 100mL 100mL × 0 m mol (d) They have fixed value of pH
NEET-2012
× 0.1M 0.1M
= 10 m mol =10 m mol Ans. (a) : If small amount of an acid or alkali is added
to a buffer solution, it converts them into unionized acid
Final 0 10 10m mol
or base. Thus, its pH remains unaffected or in other
It is a neutral solution. Hence, option (c) is incorrect. words its acidity/alkalinity remains constant. e.g.
(d) 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25 mL of 0.1M CH3COOH H 3O + + A −  
  H 2 O + HA
−
OH +HA  → H 2O + A −
CH 3COOH + NaOH 
→ CH 3COONa + H 2 O If acid is added, it reacts with A– to form undissociated
Intial 25mL × 50mL × 0 m mol HA similarly, if base/alkali is added, OH– combines
with HA to give H2O and A– and thus, maintains the
Conc. 0.1M 0.1M acidity/alkalinity of buffer solution.
= 2.5 m mol = 5 m mol
2.5 2.5m mol 427. A buffer solution prepared in which the
Final 0
conc. concentration of NH3 of 0.30 M and the
It is basic solution. Hence, option (d) is incorrect. concentration of NH +4 is 0.20 M. If the
424. Which of the following pairs of solutions is not equilibrium constant Kb for NH3 equals 1.8×10–5,
an acidic buffer ? what is the pH of this solution ? (log 2.7 = 0.43)
(a) CH3COOH and CH3COONa (a) 9.08 (b) 9.43
(b) H2CO3 and NaCO3 (c) 11.72 (d) 8.73
(c) H3PO4 and Na3PO4 NEET-2011
(d) HClO4 and NaClO4 [salt]
NEET-2015 Ans. (b) pOH = pK b + log
[base]
Ans. (d) : Strong acid with its salt cannot form buffer
solution. Hence, HClO4 and NaClO4 is not an acidic [salt]
= − log K b + log
buffer. [base]
425. The dissociation of a weak acid is 1×10–4. In −5 0.20
order to prepare a buffer solution with a pH = = − log1.8 × 10 + log
0.30
5, the [Salt]/[Acid] ration should be = 5 − 0.25 + (−0.176)
(a) 4 : 5 (b) 10 : 1
(c) 5 : 4 (d) 1 : 10 = 4.75 − 0.176 = 4.57
Karnataka NEET-2013 ∴ pH =14 − 4.57 = 9.43
Ans. (b) : According to the Henderson's equation. 428. In a buffer solution containing equal
concentration of B– and HB, the Kb for B– is
pH = pK a + log
[salt ] 10–10 . The pH of buffer solution is
[ Acid ] (a) 10 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 4
[Salt ] NEET-2010
5 = − log K a + log [Q pK a = − log K ] Ans. (d) : Given, Kb for B¯ is 10–10
[ Acid ] ∴ pKb = –log 10 Kb = – log (10–10) = 10
5 = − log 1 × 10−4  + log
[Salt ] According to the Henderson's equation
[ Acid ] We know that pOH = pKb + log
[salt]
[Salt ] [ Acid ]
5 = 4 + log Here, the concentration of the salt and acid is same
[ Acid ] ∴ log10 1 = 0
5 − 4 = + log
[Salt ] ∴ pOH = pKb = 10
[ Acid ] pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 10 = 4

429. Which of the following pairs constitutes a buffer? 432. Solution of 0.1 N NH4OH and 0.1 M NH4Cl has
(a) HCl and KCl (b) HNO2 and NaNO2 pH 9.25. Then find out pKb of NH4OH.
(c) NaOH and NaCl (d) HNO3 and NH4NO3 (a) 9.25 (b) 4.75
NEET-2006 (c) 3.75 (d) 8.25
Ans. (b) : Acid pair constituent with NHO2 and NaNO2 BCECE-2012, NEET-2002
because HNO2 is weak acid and NaNO2 is a salt of Ans. (b) : Given that - Normality of NH4OH = 0.1 N
weak acid (HNO2) with strong base (NaOH). Hence, it Molarity of NH4Cl = 0.1 M
is an example of acidic buffer solution. pH = 9.25
430. The rapid change of near the stoichiometric According to the Henderson's equation-
point of an acid base titration is the basis of
pOH = pK b + log
[Salt ]
indicator detection, pH of the solution is related
to ratio of the concentration of the conjugate [ Base]
(HIn) and base (In+) ions of the indicator by the
expression
(
pH + pOH = 14 at 25 o C )
 In –  pOH = 14 − 9.5 = 4.75
(a) log
[ HIn ]
= pK In – pH
4.75 = pK b + log
[1]
[1]
[ HIn ] = pK
(b) log In – pH pK b = 4.75
 In – 
433. A physician wishes to prepare a buffer solution
(c) log
[ HIn ] = pH – pK In
at pH = 3.85 that efficiently resists changes in
pH yet contains only small concentration of the
 In –  buffering agents. Which of the following weak
acids together with its sodium salt would be
 In –  best to use ?
(d) log = pH – pK In
[ HIn ] (a) 2, 5-Dihydroxybenzoinc acid (pKa = 2.97)
(b) Acetoacetic acid (pKa = 3.58)
NEET-2004
(c) m-Chlorobenzoic acid (pKa = 3.98)
+ −
Ans. (d) : HIn  
Weak acid
  H + Base
In (d) p-Chlorocinnamic acid (pKa = 4.41)
NEET-1997
Applying law of mass action Ans. (b) : By the use of Henderson's equation
 H +  [ In ] [salt]
KIn =   pH = pK a + log10
[ HIn ] [acid]
Taking –log on both side When, [salt] = [acid]
∴ pH = pKa
− log  H +   In −  Q pKa = 3.58, thus at ths state
− log K In =
[ HIn ] pH = 3.58
So, acetoacetic acid (pKa = 3.58) is best to use.
+
 In −  434. Which one of the following pair shows Buffer’s
 
PK In = − log  H  + − log
[ HIn ] solution?
(a) NaCl+NaOH
PK In = pH − log
[ In ] (b) CH3COONa+CH3COOH
[ H In ] (c) CH3COOH+CH3COONH4
(d) H2SO4+ CuSO4
 In −   In −  UP CPMT-2003
PK In + log   = pH, log   = pH − PK In Ans. (b) : Buffer solution are those solutions which
[ HIn ] [ HIn ] resist the change in pH on addition of small amount of
431. The pH value of blood does not appreciably acid or base.
change by small addition of an acid or a base Buffer solutions are mixture of either weak acid and its
because the blood salt with strong base or a weak base and its salt with
(a) can be easily coagulated strong acid.
(b) contains iron as a part of the molecule (a) NaCl + NaOH is not buffer solution because NaOH
is strong base.
(c) in a body fluid
(c) CH3COOH + CH3COONH4 is not buffer solution
(d) contains serum protein which acts as buffers because CH3COONH4 is salt with weak base.
NEET-1995 (d) H2SO4+CaSO4 is not buffer solution because H2SO4
Ans. (d) : Blood is an example of buffer solution, which is strong acid.
contains serum protein, so its pH does not change (b) CH3COOH+CH3COONa is buffer solution. Because
appreciably by adding small amount of an acid or a base CH3COOH is weak acid and CH3COONa is its salt
to it. with strong base.

435. Which of the following is not a buffer? Q log b a = x 
V'
(a) NH3 + HCl (b) CH3COOH + NaOH = 101  
(c) HCOOH + HCOOK (d) NaOH + NaNO3 V  a = bx 
UPTU/UPSEE-2010 V'
= 10
Ans. (d) : Because buffer solutions are mixture of weak V
acid or weak base their salts. V
436. The buffering action of an acidic buffer is = 1 : 10
V'
maximum when its pH is equal to
(a) 5 (b) 7
(c) 1 (d) pKa 5. Hydrogen Ion Concentration
UPTU/UPSEE-2009 pH Scale
Ans. (d) : Buffer capacity of an acidic buffer is
maximum when the ratio of HA to A– is unity since, pH 439. The pH of the solution containing 50mL each of
of acidic buffer ltbr. 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01 M acetic acid is
[A − ] [Given pKa of CH3COOH = 4.57]
= pK a + log
[HA] (a) 2.57 (b) 5.57
For maximum buffer capacity [A–] = [HA–] (c) 3.57 (d) 4.57
∴ pH = pKa NEET-17.07.2022
437. A buffer solution is prepared by mixing- 0.1M Ans. (b) : According to Henderson equation,
ammonia and 1.0 M ammonium chloride. At [Salt]
298 K the pKb of NH4OH is 5.0 . The PH of the pH = pK a + log
[Acid]
buffer is
0.10
(a) 10.0 (b) 9.0 = 4.57 + log
(c) 6.0 (d) 8.0 0.01
UPTU/UPSEE-2008 = 4.57 + log(10)
Ans. (d) : From Henderson equation :- = 4.57 + 1 = 5.57
[Salt] 440. Which among the following has highest pH?
pOH = pKb + log
[Base] (a) 1M H 2SO 4 (b) 0.1M NaOH
pH + pOH = 14 (c) 1 M HCl (d) 1M NaOH
[1.0] Karnataka CET-17.06.2022, Shift-II
pOH = 5.0 + log = 5 + log 10 = 5 +1
[0.1] Ans. (d) : For high value of pH we required max conc.
pOH = 6 of OH– ion.
pH + pOH = 14 [OH] ↑ = pH ↑
pH + 6 = 14 So, H2SO4 and HCl are acid.
pH = 14 – 6 = 8 0.1m NaOH = [OH–] = 10–1 m
1m NaOH = [OH–] = 1m
438. The ratio of volumes of CH3COOH 0.1 (N) to So, 1m NaOH has highest pH.
CH3COONa 0.1 (N) required to prepare a
buffer solution of pH 5.74 is 441. 50 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH is being titrated
(Given, pKa of CH3COOH is 4.74) against 0.1 M NaOH. When 25 mL of NaOH
has been added, the pH of the solution will
(a) 10 : 1 (b) 5 : 1
be____×10–2 (Nearest integer)
(c) 1 : 5 (d) 1 : 10
(Given : pKa (CH3COOH) = 4.76
WB-JEE-2015
log 2 = 0.30
Ans. (d) : The volumes of acetic acid and sodium log 3 = 0.48
acetate be VL and V'L respectively. log 5 = 0.69
Given that normality of CH3COOH [Acetic acid] = 0.1 N log 7 = 0.84
Normality of CH3COONa = 0.1 N log 11 = 1.04
pH = 5.74 JEE Main-26.06.2022, Shift-I
According to the Henderson's equation-
Ans. (476) :
[CH 3COONa] CH 3COOH(aq) + NaOH(aq) 
→ CH 3OONa(aq) + H 2O(l)
pH = pKa + log
[CH 3COOH] Milli moles 5 2.5
0.1× V ' After reaction 2.5 ...... 2.5
5.74 = 4.74 + log
0.1× V Milli moles
Resultant solution is acidic buffer solution with some
V' concentration of acid and salts.
5.74 – 4.74 = log
V So, pH of solution = 4.76 = 476 × 10–2
V' Here x = 476
1 = log The pH of solution will be 476.
V
442. pH value of 0.001 M NaOH solution is_____ Ans. (d) : When 0.1 M HCl solution is diluted 100
JEE Main-27.06.2022, Shift-II 0.1
times, the molarity of solution will be = 0.001M
Ans. (11) : Given that, 100
[OH–] = 0.001 M HCl is strong electrolyte. It completely dissociates. Its
[OH–] = 10–3 M hydrogen ion concentration will be 0.001 M.
We know, pH = − log10  H + 
pOH = – log [OH–]
pH = − log10 [ 0.001]
= – log [10–3]
pOH = 3 pH = 3log10 10
So, pH + pOH = 14 pH = 3
pH + 3 = 14 447. The pKa of a certain weak acid is 4.0. What
pH = 11 should be the [salt] to [acid] ratio, if we have to
443. pH of a solution is 10. The number of hydrogen prepare a buffer with a pH = 5 using the acid
ions present per millilitre of solution is: and one of the salts?
(a) 6.023 × 1023 (b) 6.023 × 1013 (a) 4 : 5 (b) 5 : 4
10 (c) 10 : 1 (d) 1 : 10
(c) 6.023 × 10 (d) 6.023 × 107
AP-EAMCET-1991
CG PET-22.05.2022
Ans. (c) : Given that, pH = 5, pKa = 4
Ans. (c) : Given, pH = 10 According to Henderson equation for pH of an buffer
– log [H+] = 10 is–
log [H+] = – 10 [salt]
[H+] = 10–10 M pH = pKa + log
[acid]
10−10 [salt]
[H+] = = 10–13 mL–1 5 = 4 + log
1000 m 2 [acid]
∴ No. of [H+] ions = 10–13 × NA [salt]
= 10–13 × 6.03 × 1023 1 = log
[acid]
= 6.023 × 1010 ions
[salt]
444. The pH of 0.05 M Solution of a strong dibasic ∴ = 10 :1
acid is [acid]
(a) 0.0 (b) 1.0 448. The pH of 10–2 M NaOH solution is ………..
(c) 0.2 (d) 0.5 (a) 2 (b) 12
CG PET- 2012 (c) 10 (d) 4
AP-EAMCET-1992
Ans. (b) : Given that-
Ans. (b) : Given that, [OH–] = 10–2 M
Dibasic acid = H2SO4
[H2SO4] = 0.05 10−14
[H + ] = −2 = 10−12
As we know pH = –log10 [H+] 10
[H+] = 2 × 0.05 ∴ pH = –log10[10–12] = 12
= 0.10 or 10–1 449. If in 100 ml of an aqueous HCl of pH 1.00, 900
pH = –log10 [H+] ml of more distilled water are added, the pH of
= – log10 [10–1] the resultant solution will be
(a) 1.0 (b) 2.0
= +1 log 10
(c) 4.0 (d) 7.0
pH = 1 AP-EAMCET-1992
445. The pH of an aqueous solution of H2O2 is 6.0. Ans. (b) : Given an aqueous HCl of pH = 1
Some chlorine is bubbled through this solution. we know that-
The pH of the resultant solution will be. pH = –log[H+]
(a) 6 (b) 7 pH = 1
(c) less than 6 (d) more than 7 H+ = 10-1
AP-EAMCET (Med.)-1999 When 900 ml water is added to 100 ml solution, total
Ans. (c) : Hydrogen peroxide reacts with chlorine to volume becomes 1000 ml. Thus the solution is diluted
form hydrochloric acid. to 10 times. Hence the concentration will be one tenth
of original concentration.
H2O2 + Cl2 → 2HCl + O2
[H+] = 10-2.
This increases the hydrogen ion concentration. Hence, pH = –log[H+] = -log10-2 = 2.0
pH will be less than 6.
450. The ionic product of water is 10–14. What is the
446. 0.1 M HCl solution is diluted by 100 times. The hydrogen ion concentration of a 0.1 M NaOH
pH of the solution so formed is …….. solution?
(a) 4 (b) 1 (a) 10–14 (b) 14 M
(c) 2 (d) 3 (c) 13 M (d) 10–13 M
AP-EAMCET-1991 AP-EAMCET-1994
Ans. (d) : As we know that, 455. The pH of a solution is increased from 3 to 6.
Kw = [H+] [OH-] Its H+ion concentration will be
Given :- (a) Reduced to half
KW = 10-14 (b) Doubled
[OH-] = 0.1 = 10-1 (c) Reduced by 1000 times
10 −14 (d) Increased by 1000 times
∴[ H + ] = = 10−13 M AP-EAMCET-1998, 1996
10 −1
Ans. (c) : Given that, pH1 = 3, pH2 = 6
451. The pH of a 0.05 M solution of H2SO4 is
∴ Change in pH = pH2 – pH1
(a) 5 (b) 1
=6–3=3
(c) 3 (d) 0.1
Thus, the ratio of hydrogen ion concentration =
AP-EAMCET-1994
Ans. (b) : Given that,  H +  2
[H+] = 0.05 × 2 = 0.10 = 10−3 = 0.001
 H + 1
pH = –log[H+]
= –log[0.1] Hence, hydrogen ion concentration should be decreased
by 1000 times.
pH = 1
456. The pH of a 1 L solution is 2. It is diluted with
452. The pH of a 0.001 M aqueous solution of
water till its pH becomes 4. How many litres of
sodium hydroxide will be
water are added?
(a) 5.0 (b) 7.5
(a) 99 (b) 9
(c) 9.0 (d) 11.0
(c) 999 (d) 9.9
AP-EAMCET-1993
AP-EAMCET-1999
Ans. (d) : We know that NaOH is a strong electrolyte.
It completely dissociates.
pH = 2, [H+] = 10–2 M, V1 = 1 litre
Thus, [OH-] = [NaOH] = 0.001 M.
pH = 4, [H+] = 10–4 M, V2 = ?
pOH = -log[OH+] = - log10-3 = 3.0
pH = 14.0 - pOH = 14.0 - 3.0 = 11 ∴ M 1V 1 = M 2V 2
10–2 × 1 = 10–4 × V2
453. Urine normally has a pH of 6. If a patient
eliminates 1.3 L of urine per day, how many 10−2
V2 = −4 = 100litre
moles of H+ ions does he urinate? 10
(a) 1.3 × 10–3 (b) 1.3 × 10–6 Therefore, 99 litre of water is added.
–7
(c) 1.3 × 10 (d) 1.3 × 106 457. The pH of an aqueous solution of a salt is 10.
AP-EAMCET-1996 The salt is
Ans. (b) : Given that, (a) NaCl (b) NH4Cl
pH of urine is = 6 (c) CH3COONa (d) (NH4)2SO4
∴ [H+] = 1 × 10–6 mol/L AP-EAMCET-1999
Volume of urine eliminated = 1.3 litre Ans. (c) : The pH of an aqueous solution of salt is 10
mean that salt of weak acid and strong base. The salt is
[ H + ] = no. of moles CH3COONa.
volume
no. of moles = 10-6 × 1.3 CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O
A patient eliminates 1.3L of urine per day then 1.3 × 458. The pKa of a weak acid is 4.8. What should be
10–6 mol/lit. of H+ ions present.
the ratio of
[acid ] , if a buffer of pH = 5.8 is
454. The pH of the aqueous solution containing 0.49
g of H2SO4 in one litre is
[salt ]
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 1.7 (d) 0.3 required?
AP-EAMCET-1997 (a) 0.1 (b) 10
AP – EAMCET - (Medical)-1997 (c) 1 (d) 2
AP-EAMCET-2001
Weight of sulphuric acid (H2SO4) = 0.49 gm. Ans. (a) : Given that, pka = 4.8, pH = 5.8
We know that,
Weight
∴ Molar concentration =
M.weight pH = pKa + log
[salt ]
0.49 [acid ]
= = 0.005 moles
98
5.8 = 4.8 + log
[salt ]
Since, H2SO4 contain 2 ionisable hydrogen ion,
Thus, [H+] = 2 × 0.005 = 0.01 M
[acid ]
pH = –log [H+] = –log (0.01)
or log
[salt ] = 5.8 – 4.8 = 1.0
pH = − log10 10−2  [acid ]
pH = 2log10
or
[salt ] = 10 ⇒ [ acid ] = 1 = 0.1
pH = 2 [acid ] [salt ] 10
459. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(a) Bronsted-Lowry theory could not explain the correct explanation of (A)
acidic nature of BCl3 (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not
(b) The pH of 0.01 M NaOH solution is 2 correct explanation of (A)
(c) The ionic product of water at 25ºC is 10–10 (c) (A) is true but (R) is not true
mol2 L–2 (d) (A) is not true but (R) is true
(d) The pH of a solution can be calculated using AP-EAMCET-2005
the equation pH = log[H+] Ans. (b) : According to the Henderson-Haselbalch a pH
AP-EAMCET-2002 of a buffer solution is given by–
Ans. (a) : According to Bronsted-Lowry theory proton
doners are called acid (i.e. a compound from which a pH = pKa + log
[salt ]
proton can be removed) [acid ]
Bronsted-Lowry theory cannot explain the acidic nature ∴ pH = pKa (Q [salt] = [acid])
of BCl3. 463. The concentration of oxalic acid is 'x' mol L–1.
460. 75 ml of 0.2 M HCl is mixed with 25 ml of 1 M 40 mL of this solution reacts with 16 mL of 0.05
HCl. To this solution, 300 ml of distilled water M acidified KMnO4. What is the pH of 'x' M
is added. What is the pH of the resultant oxalic acid solution? (Assume that oxalic acid
solution? dissociates completely.)
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) 1.3 (b) 1.699
(c) 4 (d) 0.2 (c) 1 (d) 2
AP-EAMCET-2002 AP-EAMCET-2006
Ans. (a) : Given that, Ans. (c) :
V1 = 75 ml, V2 = 25 ml, V3 = 300 ml +7 +3 + +4
M1 = 0.2 M, M2 = 1 M, pH = ? KMnO 4 + H 2 C2 O 4 
H
→ 2CO 2 + H 2 O + 2H + + Mn 2+
n =5 n =2
∴ V = V1 + V2 = 75 + 25 = 100 ml 16ml
0.05M
40ml
xM
V M + V2 M 2 ∴ Molar equilibrium of KMnO4 = M.eq. of H2C2O4
M= 1 1
V1 + V2 16 × 0.05 × 5 = 2 × 40 × x
75 × 0.2 + 25 × 1 80 × 0.05
M= = 0.4 M x= = 0.05 M
75 + 25 80
∴ Total volume (V') = V1 + V2 + V3 Since, [H ] = 0.05 × 2 = 0.1 = 10–1 M
+
= 75 + 25 + 300 = 400 ml pH = –log [H+]

Hence, pH = –log [10–1]
MV = M'V' pH = 1
0.4 × 100 = M' × 400 464. 50 mL of H2O is added to 50 mL of 1 × 10–3 M
40 barium hydroxide solution. What is the pH of
M' = = 0.1 M the resulting solution?
100 (a) 3.0 (b) 3.3
Concentration of HCl = 0.1 = 10–1
(c) 11.0 (d) 11.7
pH = –log10 [H+]
AP-EAMCET-2008
pH = –log10[10–1]
pH = 1 Ans. (c) : M1 = 0.001, V1 = 50 ml, M2 = ?
V2 = 50 + 50 = 100 ml
461. The pH of a solution of H2O2 is 6.0. Some Now, solving for M2 we get,
chlorine gas is bubbled into this solution.
M2 = 0.0005
Which of the following is correct?
Now we will check the dissociation of Ba(OH)2 –
(a) The pH of resultant solution becomes 8.0
(b) Hydrogen gas is liberated from resultant Ba(OH)2 → Ba2+ + 2OH–
solution 1 mole of Ba(OH)2 gives rise to 2 moles of OH– ions.
(c) The pH of resultant solution becomes less Therefore, the concentration of hydroxide ions would be
than 6.0 and oxygen is liberated 2 times the concentration of solution of barium
(d) Cl2O is formed in the resultant solution hydroxide.
AP-EAMCET-2005 OH– = 2 × (0.0005) = 0.001
pOH = –log (0.001)
Ans. (c) : H2O2 + Cl 2 → 2 HCl + O2
pOH = 3
HCl is formed by the reduction of chlorine by H2O2,
Therefore pH will be 14 – pOH
Hence, pH less than 6.0 and oxygen gas is liberated.
= 14 – 3
462. Assertion (A) : The pH of a buffer solution pH = 11
containing equal moles of acetic acid and 465. Which of the following is an acid?
sodium acetate is 4.8 (pKa of acetic acid is 4.8). (a) Ca(OH)2 (b) P(OH)3
Reason (R) : The ionic product of water at (c) NH4OH (d) NaOH
25ºC is 10–14 mol2 L–2.
AP-EAMCET-2000
Ans. (b) : Proton donors are called as acids. In H3PO3 = –log [2×10–3]
or P(OH)3 it contains two ionisable proton and behave pOH = 2.7
as acid. Now, we know that
• Ca(OH)2, NH4OH and NaOH are basic in nature. pH + pOH = 14
Sodium hydroxide is the strong base. pH = 14 – 2.7 = 11.3
466. Among the following the lowest pKa value is of (iii) 1 M NaOH
(a) 4- Methoxybenzoic pOH = – log [1]
(b) Benzoic acid =0
(c) 4- Nitrobenzoic acid ∴ pH + pOH = 14
(d) 4- Methylbenzoic acid pH = 14 – 0 = 14
JHARKHAND – 2019 (iv) 1 M HCl
Ans. (c) : When the pKa value is maximum then the pH = – log[1]
acid is weak. While pKa value is minimum means the pH = 0
stronger acid. Hence, the 4-Nitrobenzoic is a strong acid So, the option (c) has maximum pH at 25°C.
so, it has the lowest pKa value. 470. pH of an aqueous solution of NH4Cl is
467. A 0.20 molar solution of a weak monoprotic (a) 7 (b) > 7
acid, HA, has a pH of 3.0. The ionization (c) < 7 (d) 1
constant of the acid is TS-EAMCET-2016
(a) 5.0 x 10-7 (b) 2.0 x 10-7 Ans. (c) : Ammonium chloride (NH4Cl) is a salt of
-6
(c) 5.0 x 10 (d) 5.0 x 10-3 ammonia (NH3) and HCl.
SCRA-2014
NH 3 + HCl 
→ NH 4Cl
Ans. (c) : Let weak monoprotic acid is – CH3COOH ( Weak base) (Strong acid)
The dissociation of CH3COOH is :– Therefore, the pH of NH4Cl < 7.
− +
CH 3COOH    CH3COO + H 471. Which of the following will have the highest
Initial – 0.20 0 0 pH?
(a) Saturated solution of NaOH
at equilibrium (0.20 – x) x x
(b) M HCl solution
x2 (c) Human Saliva
HA =
(0.20 − x) (d) Lemon Juice
pH = 3, So, H+ = 10–3 AP EAMCET (Engg.) 17.09.2020, Shift-II
x = 10–3 Ans. (a) :
(10−3 ) 2 10−6 10−6 (a) For saturated solution of NaOH pH = 15
Ka = = = (b) M HCl pH = 0
(0.20 − 10−3 ) .20 − .001 .199 (c) Human saliva pH = 6.4
1 (d) Lemon Juice pH = 2.2
= ×10−5 Hence, option (a) is correct.
2
= .5 × 10–5 472. The pH of 10–8 M HCl solution is
Ka = 5 × 10–6 (a) 8 (b) –8
468. pH of water is 7.0 at 25°C. If water is heated to (c) Between 7-8 (d) Between 6-7
80°C : AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-I
(a) pH will increase Ans. (d) : 10–8 M HCl → 10–8 M H+
(b) pH will decrease Kw = [H+] × [OH–]
(c) pH remains 7.0 10–14 = (10–8 + x) × x = 10–8x + x2
(d) H+ ion concentration will increase but OH– x = 10–7
ion concentration will decrease total [H ] = 10 + 10–8 = 1.1 × 10–10
+ –7
MPPET-2013 pH = – log (1.1 × 10–7) = 7 – log 1.1

Ans. (b) : pH = 6.99
• pH of water 0 is 7 at 25°C as temperature increases 473. The dissociation constant of a weak monobasic
ionic product of water increase so pH decreases. acid Ka is 1×10–5. The pH of 0.1 M of that acid
Note-On heating water KW increases and thus pH scale would be:
for neutrality changes from 7 to some lower value. (a) 3 (b) between 2-3
469. Which of the following gas the highest pH at (c) 1 (d) 5
25°C? AP EAMCET (Medical) -1998
(a) Distilled H2O (b) 1 M aq NH3 Ans. (a): Given values, Ka = 1 × 10–5, pH = ?
(c) 1 M NaOH (d) 1M HCl Concentration = 0.1 M
AP EAPCET 23-08-2021 Shift-I Now, pH = –log[H+]
Ans. (c) : (i) Distilled H2O  H +  = K a × M
Pure water has a pH of 7 at 25°C.
(ii) 1M aq NH3 or  H +  = 1× 10−5 × 0.1
pOH = –log [OH–]
 H +  = 1× 10−3 476. Calculate the molar ratio of a weak acid HA
(Ka = 10–6) and its salt with strong base, so that
−3
∴ pH = − log 1× 10  the pH of buffer solution is 6.
or pH = 3 (a) 10 (b) 1
(c) 6 (d) 0.1
474. Calculate the pH of a solution containing 0.2 M
CH3COOH and 0.1 M CH3COONa. AP EAMCET (Engg.) 21.09.2020, Shift-II
The K4 of CH3COOH = 1.8 × 10 (– log1.8 × –5
Ans. (d) : pH = pK a + log
[Salt ]
10–5) = 4.74 [ Acid ]
(a) 4.74 (b) 4.43
(c) 5.01 (d) 5.32 pH 6
= = =1
TS EAMCET 10.08.2021, Shift-II pK a 6
Ans. (b) : pH of aeidic buffer solution
 K a = 10−6 ∴ pK a = − log K a = log (10−6 ) ⇒ 6 
[ ]
salt  
pH = pK a + log
[Acid] log
[Salt ] = 1
Given that, [ Acid ]
K a = 1.8 × 10 −5
∴
[ Acid ] = 10−1
[salt ] [Salt ]
pH = – logK a + log
Acid
[ Acid ] = 0.1
[0.1] [Salt ]
pH = – log1.8 ×10 –5 + log Hence, the correct option is (d).
[0.2] 477. 20 ml of 0.1 M acetic acid is mixed with 50 ml
= 5log1010 + –log1.8 + log0.5 of potassium acetate. Ka of acetic acid =
1.8×10–5 at 27oC calculate concentration of
= 5 – 0.2552–0.3010 potassium acetate if pH of the mixture is 4.8
= 4.74 – 0.3010 = 4.43
(a) 0.1 M (b) 0.04 M
475. Sulphurous acid (H2SO3) has K a1 = 1.7×10–2 (c) 0.4 M (d) 0.02 M
and K a2 = 6.4×10–8. The pH of 0.588 M H2SO3
Ans. (b): Let, the concentration of potassium acetate is
is ---------. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). x.
JEE Main 16.03.2021, Shift-II According to Henderson's equation,
Ans. (1) : The given data is:
[salt ]
K a1 = 1.7×10–2 pH = pKa + log
[acid ]
K a 2 = 6.4×10–8
x × 50
and [H2SO3] = 0.588M 4.8 = – log (1.8 × 10–5) + log
pH = ? 20 × 0.1
The dissociation of H2SO3 is: 4.8 = 5log10 10 − log1.8 + log 25x
+ − 4.8 = 5 − 0.2552 + log 25x
H2SO3(aq)   H ( aq ) + HSO3 ( aq )
4.8 = 4.74 + log 25x
The pH of solution depend upon the first value of
or log 25x = 0.06
dissociation constant i.e. K a1 >>> K a 2
25x = 1.48
α2 ∴ x = 0.045 M
K a1 =
(c − α) 478. pH of a buffer solution decreases by 0.02 units
when 0.12 g of acetic acid is added to 250 mL of
1.7 α2 a buffer solution of acetic acid and potassium
=
100 ( 0.58 − α ) acetate at 27°C. The buffer capacity of the
or 2
100α +1.7α–1 = 0 solution is
(a) 0.1 (b) 10
− 1.7 ± (1.7 ) 2
+ 4 × 100 × 1 (c) 1 (d) 0.4
or α = [H+] = AP EAMCET (Engg.)-2009
2 ×100
VITEEE-2009
or [H+] = 0.09186
∴ pH = –log[H+] dCHA
Ans. (d): Buffer capacity, β =
pH = –log0.09186 d pH
pH = 1.036 where, dCHA = no. of moles of acid added per litre
pH ≈ 1 dpH = change in pH

Moles of acetic acid pH= – log [10–3]
dCHA = =3
Volume Solution B: [H+] = 10–6 M
0.12 / 60 0.12 × 1000 0.12 × 4 0.12 pH= – log [10–6]
= = = =
250 /1000 60 × 250 60 15 =6
0.12 6 483. In an amino acid, the carboxylic group ionizes
β= = = 0.4 at pH = 2.56 ( pK a2 ) and ammonium ion ionizes
0.02 ×15 15
479. The pKa of a weak acid, benzoic acid and pKb at pH = 9.38 ( pK a2 ) The isoelectric point of the
of a weak base, ammonium hydroxide are 4.25 amino acid is at ______
and 4.75 respectively. Then the pH of 0.1 M (a) 11.94 (b) 6.82
solution of ammonium benzoate will be (c) 5.97 (d) 3.41
(a) 7.10 (b) 7.50
(c) 6.75 (d) 6.50
Ans. (c) : The isoelectric point is defined as it is
AP EAMCET (Engg.) 18.9.2020 Shift-I
halfway between two given values of pKa1 and pKa2.
Ans. (c) : Ammonium benzoate (C6H5COONH4) is the
salt weak benzoic acid (C6H5COOH pKa = 4.25) and pKa1 + pKa 2
i.e. isoelectric point =
weak ammonium hydroxide (NH4 OH, pKb = 4.75). 2
So, pH of the solution of C6H5COOH will be, Given - pKa1 = 2.56, pKa 2 = 9.38
1
pH = 7 + ( pK a − pK b ) ∴ isoelectic point =
2.56 + 9.38
= 5.97
2 2
1
= 7 + ( 4.25 − 4.75 ) = 7 − 0.25 = 6.75 484. The pH of 0.1 M solution of acetic acid will be
2 _____ [degree of dissociation of acetic acid is
480. If hydrogen electrode dipped in two solutions 0.0132]
of pH = 3 and pH = 6 are connected by a salt (a) 4.32 (b) 3.14
bridge, the emf of the resulting cell is (c) 1.14 (d) 2.88
(a) 0.177 V (b) 0.3 V AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-II
(c) 0.052 V (d) 0.104 V Ans. (d): Given that
AP EAPCET 20.08.2021 Shift-I Degree of dissociation of acetic acid = 0.0132
Ans. (a) : Given that. Concentration = 0.1 M
pH1 = 3 ∴ Dissociation of acetic acid
pH2 = 6 CH3COOH + H2O → CH3COO– + H3O+
We know So,
pH = – log10 [H+] amount of H3O+ ions formed
pH1 = [3] = 10–3 M = 0.0132 × 0.1
pH2 = 10–6 M = 0.00132
0.0591 10 –3 So, pH of acetic acid will be,
∴ E cell = Eo cell° + log –6 pH = – log [H3O+]
1 10 = – log [0.00132]
E cell = 0 + 0.0591 × 3 pH = 2.88
= 0.177 V
485. The dissociation constant of a weak base is
481. The pH of acid rain water is _______ 1×10–5 at 25°C. The pH of its 0.1 M solution at
(a) Between 6 – 7 (b) Between 5.2 – 5.8 the same temperature will be
(c) Between 4 – 5 (d) < 4.0 (a) 11 (b) 3
AP EAPCET-6 Sep. 2021, Shift-II (c) 6 (d) 13
Ans. (b): Due to atmospheric pollution, when the rain COMEDK-2011
fall through this polluted air, it consume oxides of Ans. (a) : Given,
sulphur (SOx) and oxides of nitrogen (NOx). Thus make dissociation constant of weak base = 1×10–5
the rain acidic with the pH range 5.2 to 5.8. concentration = 0.1 M
482. Two solutions A and B have pH 3 and 6 By Ostwald dilution law,
respectively. Which of the following statement
is correct? [OH–] in weak base = K b C
(a) Solution A is twice acidic than B = 1× 10 –5 × 0.1 = 1× 10–3 M
(b) Solution B is twice acidic than A –
pOH= –log[OH ]
(c) Solution A is 1000 times more acidic than B
= –log (1×10–3)
(d) Solution B is 1000 times more acidic than A
pOH = 3
AP EAPCET-6 Sep. 2021, Shift-II We know that–
Ans. (c): We know that– ⇒ pH + pOH = 14
pH= – log [H+]
Solution A: [H+]= 10–3 M ⇒ pH = 14 – 3 = 11

486. The pH of a solution of NaOH is 12. The mass Ans. (a) : Molarity of mixture of 10 ml H2SO4 = 0.1M
of NaOH present in 500 mL of the solution is = 1 millimole of H2SO4
(a) 400 mg (b) 200 mg = 2 millimole of H+ ions
(c) 20 mg (d) 40 mg 5 ml of 0.2 M HCl = 1 millimole of H+ ions
COMEDK-2011 5 ml of 0.1 M Ca(OH)2 = 0.5 millimole of Ca(OH)2
Ans. (b) : Given that, = 1 millimole of OH– ions
pH = 12 1 millimole of OH– ions will neutralize the 1 millimole
Q pH + pOH = 14 of H+ ions.
pOH= 14–12=2 So, 2 millimoles of H+ ions will remain in solution.
Hence, NaOH concentration = 10–2 M= 10–2 N 2
[H+] = 0.1=10–1 mol/L
w ×1000 20
We know that, N= Hence, pH= –log [H+] = –log (10–1) =1
Eq.wt × Volume( mL)
490. The pH of boiling water is 6.4. This implies that
w × 1000 boiling water is
⇒ 10 –2 =
40 × 500 (a) slightly basic (b) slightly acidic
10 –2 × 40 × 500 (c) neutral (d) amphoteric.
⇒w= = 10−2 × 20 = 0.2g = 200mg COMEDK-2012
1000
Ans. (c) : The pH of boiling water is 6.4. This implies
487. The pOH of 0.0005 M sulphuric acid is that boiling water is neutral. When water is boiled, the
(a) 5 (b) 3 dissociation of water increases with temperature. So,
(c) 11 (d) 12 both hydrogen ion and hydroxide ion concentration
COMEDK-2011 increases with same extent. Therefore, it is neutral.
Ans. (c) : The equation for ionization is– 491. At 100°C the K w of water is 55 times its value
H2SO4  2H + + SO 24 − at 25°C, What will be the pH of neutral
Each molecule of acid gives 2 molecules of H+ solution? (log 55=1.74)
So, [H+] = 2 ×0.0005= 1×10–3M (a) 7.00 (b) 7.87
pH= –log [H+]= –log (1×10–3)=3 (c) 5.13 (d) 6.13
We know that- Karnataka NEET-2013
Q pH+pOH=14 Ans. (d) : We know that, at 25°C, K w =1×10–14
3+pOH=14 At 100°C, K w = 55 ×10 –14
pOH=14–3
pOH=11 H + = 55 ×10 –14
488. The pH of HCl is 5. If 10 mL of this solution is pH= –log [H+]
diluted to 100 mL, the pH of the resultant pH of neutral solution.
solution is 1
pH = − log  55 × 10–14  = [− log(55 × 10 –14 )]
(a) 5.1 (b) 6.9   2
(c) 11 (d) 12 1
COMEDK-2011 = [− log 55 + 14 log10] (log 55 = 1.74)
2
1
pH of HCl=5 = [−1.74 + 14]
So, Concentration of [H+] = 10–5 mol/L 2
Concentration of H+ ions in 10 ml of the solution 1
= [12.26] = 6.13
10 –5 ×10 2
= 492. The numbers of H+ ions present in 1 ml of a
1000 solution whose pH is 13
= 10–7 mol (a) 6.022×1010 (b) 6.022×107
We know that, solution is diluted to 100 ml i.e. 10 times (c) 6.022×10 20
(d) 6.022×1023
10 –7 COMEDK-2015
No. of H+ ions = = 10–8
10 Ans. (b) : Given that-
Total [H+]= 10–8+10–7 pH=13
([H+] from water cannot be neglected.) ⇒ [H]+ = 10 –13 mol / L
= 10–8 (1+10) = 11×10–8 M ⇒ 1000 mL solution contains
pH= – log (11×10–8)= – (1.0413–8)=6.95 10–13 × 6.022×1023 H+ ions
489. The pH of a mixture of 10 ml of 0.1 M H2SO4, 5 = 6.022×1010 H+ ions
ml of 0.2 M HCl and 5 ml of 0.1 M Ca(OH)2 is ∴ 1ml solution contains
(a) 1 (b) 0.5
6.022 × 1010
(c) 0 (d) 1.5 = 6.022 × 107 H + ions.
COMEDK-2012 1000

493. In the hydrolysis of a salt of weak acid and ∴ 5 L will contain 5×10–2 moles of OH– ions.
weak base, the hydrolysis constant (Kt) is equal weight
to We know that, no. of moles =
mol × mass
Kw Kw
(a) (b) w = 5 × 10 –2 × 40 = 2g
Kb Ka
497. The pH of a solution having hydronium ion
Kw
(c) (d) Ka.Kb conc H 3 O + ;6.2 ×10 –9 will be
K a .K b (a) 9.0 (b) 8.9
COMEDK-2016 (c) 5.0 (d) 8.21
Kw COMEDK-2019
Ans. (c) : K h = Ans. (d) : pH = –log[H +
]
K a .K b
where, Kw= ionic product of water, Ka and Kb are [H+] = [H3O+]
dissociation constants of the weak acid and base pH= –log [H3O+]
respectively. = – log (6.2×10–9)
494. Kp for the following reaction will be equal to pH = 9log10 10 + − log 6.2
Fe(s) + H 2O(g)  Fe 3O 4 (s) + H 2 (f) pH = 9 − 0.7925
pH = 8.21
( )
4
p H2 (p Fe O4 ) (p H2 ) 498. When solid potassium cyanide is added in
(a) 3
(b)
( p Fe ) (p H2O )4 water then
3
(p H2O )
(a) pH will increase
( )
4
p H2 (p H2 )(p Fe3O4 ) (b) pH will remain the same
(c) (d) (c) pH will decrease
(pH2O ) 4 (p Fe ) (d) electrical conductivity will not change.
COMEDK-2016 COMEDK-2019
Ans. (c) : The balanced equation is Ans. (a) : KCN(aq)   +
K + CN –
  (Potassium
3Fe(s) + 4H 2 O(g)  Fe3O 4 (s) + 4H 2 (Potassium
ion )
(Cyanide
ion )
cyanide)
(p H2 ) 4 CN – + HOH  
  HCN + OH
–
Take [solid]=1 ∴ K p = (Cyanide ( Water ) (Hydrogen (Hydroxyl
(p H2O ) 4 ion ) cyanide) ion )
495. The highest pH is exhibited by In the process, the pH will increase due to increase in
(a) 0.001 M KOH (b) 0.01 M KOH OH– ion concentration.
(c) 0.1 M HCl (d) 0.01 M HCl 499. The four acids A1, A2, A3 and A4 have the pKa
COMEDK-2017 values of 3.75, 4.75, 4.20, 5.72 respectively. The
Ans. (b) : We know that, weakest acid is
pH + pOH = 14 (a) A1 (b) A2
pOH = –log[OH–] (c) A3 (d) A4
For 0.001 M KOH, COMEDK-2018
pOH = –log (0.001) = –log (10–3) = 3 Ans. (d) : Higher the pKa value, weaker is the acid.
pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 3 = 11 Hence pKa values is maximum in A4 So, It is the
For 0.01M KOH, weakest acid.
pOH = – log (0.01) = –log( 10–2) = 2 500. The pH range of methyl red indicator is:
pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 2 = 12 (a) 4.2 to 6.3 (b) 8.3 to 10.0
For 0.1 M HCl (c) 8.0 to 9.6 (d) 6.8 to 8.4
pH = – log (0.1) = – log ( 10–1) = 1 AP-EAMCET (Medical), 2001
pOH= –log(0.001)= –log(10–3) =3 Ans. (a) : In the titration of weak base-strong acid,
pH=14–pOH=14–3=11 methyl red indicator is used. In this titration, methyl red
For 0.01 M HCl, indicator gives red colour in acidic medium and yellow
pH= –log(0.01) = –log(10–2) =2 colour in alkaline medium. Thus, the pH range of
496. 5 L of NaOH solution of pH 12 contains methyl red indicator is 4.2 to 6.3
(a) 200 g (b) 0.2 g 501. What will be pH of aqueous solution of
(c) 20 g (d) 2 g electrolyte in electrolytic cell during electrolysis
COMEDK-2020 of CuSO4(aq) between graphite electrodes?
Ans. (d) : Given that, (a) pH = 14.0 (b) pH > 7.0
pH of solution =12 (c) pH < 7.0 (d) pH = 7.0
We know, (pH + pOH = 14) GUJCET-2011
Ans. (c): The pH of aqueous solution of electrolyte in
⇒ [OH – ] = 10–2 mol / L electrolytic cell during electrolysis of CuSO4(aq)
pOH= 14 – 12 = 2 between graphite electrodes is pH < 7.0
1 L contains 10–2 moles of OH– ions. At cathode

Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu(s) Ans. (a) : Normal rain has pH of about 5.6:
At anode: 2H 2 O → O 2 + 4H + + 4e – It is slightly acidic because carbon dioxide (CO2)
dissolves into it forming weak carbonic acid. Acid rain
It can be seen that OH– ions from the solution are usually has pH between 4.2 and 4.4.
converted to O2 which left out the solution acidic.
Acid rain results when sulphur oxide (SO2) and nitrogen
502. The pH of ammonium phosphate solution, if oxides (NOx) emitted into the atmosphere react with
pKa of phosphoric acid and pKb of ammonium rain water and oxygen.
hydroxide are 5.23 and 4.75 respectively, is
_____. 506. pH of a salt solution of weak acid (pKa = 4) &
JEE Main 26.02.2021,Shift-II weak base (pKb = 5) at 25 ºC is:
(a) 6.5 (b) 6
Ans.: Given that
(c) 7 (d) 7.5
pKa= 5.23
pKb= 4.75 AIIMS 26 May 2019 (Evening)
Ans. (a):Given that,
(NH 4 )3 PO 4  3NH 4+ + PO 43–
pKa = 4,pKb = 5
Kw then,
 H +  = K a ×
Ka × Kb 1
pH = (pKw + pKa – pKb)
1 2
∴ pH = pK a + {pK w – pK a – pK b } 1
2 = (14 + 4 – 5)
1 2
pH = 5.23 + {14 – 5.23 – 4.75} = 6.5
2
1 507. The aqueous solution of which of the following
pH =5.23+ × 4.02 salt will have the lowest pH?
2 (a) NaClO3 (b) NaClO
pH =7.24
(c) NaClO4 (d) NaClO2
pH ≈ 7
AIIMS-1996
504. Acetylsalicylic acid has pKa value 3.5. The pH Ans. (c): Salt of SA + SB : pH will remain neutral at 7
of gastric juice in human stomach is 2 – 3 and
Salt of SA + WB : pH < 7 (acidic)
the pH in the small intestine is approximately
7. 4 then acetylsalicylic acid will be Salt of WA +SB : pH > 7 (basic)
(a) Unionized in the stomach and ionized in the NaClO4 ⇒ Neutral (pH = 7)
small intestine HClO4 + NaOH → NaClO4 + H2O
(b) Unionized in the small intestine and in the (SA) (SB)
stomach Where,
(c) Completely get ionized in both small intestine SA = strong acid
and stomach SB = strong base
(d) Ionized in the stomach and almost unionized WB = weak base
in the small intestine WA = weak acid
TS-EAMCET 09.08.2021, Shift-I NaClO4, on hydrolysis gives strongest acid HClO4 as
Ans. (a) : The pH of gastric juice in human stomach is compared to other salt. This is strongly ionized and
about 2-3 (highly acidic) and acetyl salicylic acid is a gives highest concentration of H+ therefore, aqueous
weak acid, as such its ionization will be suppressed in solution of NaCl4 will have lowest pH value.
the presence of a strong acid. Thus it will be weak acid, 508. The pH value of human blood is about
as such its ionization will be suppressed in the presence (a) 4.5 to 5.6 (b) 2.3 to 3.4
of a strong acid. (c) 7.3 to 7.5 (d) 3.5 to 4.3
pH in small intestine is 8, basic, aspirin will be
AIIMS-1996
neutralized here.
Ans. (c): Human blood is slightly basic i.e. pH 7.3 to
505. Given below are two statements :
7.5 usually the body maintains the pH of blood close to 7.4
Statements I :
(pH = 7 is neutral)
The pH if rain water is normally ∼5.6.
Statements II : 509. The pH of 0.001 (N) acetic acid solution, which
If the pH of rain water drops below 5.6, it is is 10% dissociated, is
called acid rain. (a) 3 (b) 1
In the light of the above statements, choose the (c) 4 (d) 2
correct answer from the options given below : AIIMS-1996
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. Ans. (c): Given that,
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. Concentration of acetic acid = 0.001 N for 10%
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. dissociation,
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. the effective concentration of H+ is 1/10th of total
JEE Main 25.02.2021, Shift-II concentration.
Hence, effective concentration 513. Ksp of M(OH)2 is 3.2 × 10-11. The pH of
1 saturated solution in water is
= × 0.001 = 0.0001 N = 1 × 10–4N (a) 3.40 (b) 10.30
10 (c) 10.60 (d) 3.70
pH = − log[H + ] AP-EAMCET-(2014)
pH = − log[1× 10−4 ] Ans. (c): M(OH)2 → M2+ + 2OH–
=4 [x] [2x]
510. Assertion : In a titration of weak acid and Ksp = [x] [2x]2
NaOH, the pH at half equivalence point is pKa. = 4x3
Reason : At half equivalence point, it forms an 3.2 × 10 = 4x3
–11
acidic buffer and the buffer capacity is 0.8×10–11=x3

maximum where [acid] =[salt] x3 = 8 × 10–12
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and x = 2 × 10–4
the Reason is the correct explanation of [OH] = 4 × 10–4M
Assertion. pOH = –log [OH–]
(b) If both assertion and Reason are correct, but = 4 – 2log 2
Reason is not the correct explanation of = 4 – 2 × 0.03
assertion. = 3.4
(c) If Assertion if correct but Reason is incorrect. We know,
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. pH + pOH = 14
AIIMS-2009, 26 May,2018(M) pH = 14 – 3.4
= 10.60
 A −  514. The pH of blood does not appreciably change by
Ans. (a): pH = pKa + log
[ HA ] a small addition of acid or a base because blood
(a) contains serum protein which acts as buffer.
At the half-equivalence point say we have 10 moles of
(b) contains iron as a part of the molecule.
weak acid, and so there will be 5 moles of strong base
(c) can be easily coagulated.
as the name suggests (half equivalence).
(d) is body fluid.
HA + OH– → A– + H2O
AP-EAMCET-(2012)
for the half equivalent point, [H.A] = [A–]
Ans. (a): Blood is an example of buffer solution, which
So, pH = pKa contains serum protein, its pH does not change
511. 20 mL of 0.1 M acetic acid is mixed in a appreciably by adding small amount of an acid or base
solution of NaOH. If 10 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is to it. The Buffer System present in serum is H2CO3 +
present then H+ concentration in resulting NaHCO3
solution is (Ka of acetic acid = 1.7×10–5) 515. The pH of the solution obtained on
(a) 3.4×10–5 (b) 1.7×10–2 neutralisation of 40 mL 0.1M NaOH with 40
–5
(c) 1.7×10 (d) 1.7×10–7 mL 0.1 M CH3COOH is
AIIMS-27 May,2018(M) (a) 7 (b) 8
Ans. (c): Given, Ka = 1.7 × 10–5 (c) 6 (d) 3
Solution of NaOH = 20 ml AP-EAMCET-(2007)
CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O Ans. (b) : NaOH is a strong Base and CH3COOH is a
20 × 0.1 10 × 0.1 weak acid on neutralisation of 40 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
2M mole 1M mole with 40 mL of 0.1 M
1M mole 0 1M mole NaOH + CH3COOH → CH3COONa + H2O
We know that, By above reaction CH3COOH Na forms with give basic
solutioh with pH > 7.
salt
pOH = pKb + log 516. What is the pH value of 1 M H2SO4?
acid (a) 0 (b) –0.213
Therefore, (c) –2 (d) –0.3010
pH = pKa AP-EAMCET-(2008)
(H+) = Ka = 1.7 × 10–5 M Ans. (d) : H2SO4 → 2H+ + SO 24 −
512. Which of the following have maximum pH? 1M 2M 1M
(a) Black coffee (b) Blood By above reaction we get, [H+] = 2
(c) Gastric juice (d) Saliva So, pH = –log [H+] = –log2 = –0.3010
AIIMS-26 May,2018(M)
517. 40 mL of 0.1 M ammonia solution is mixed with
Ans. (b): Material pH 40 mL of 0.1 MHCl. What is the pH of the
i. Black coffee - 5.0 mixture? (pKb of ammonia solution is 4.74).
ii. Blood - 7.4 (a) 4.74 (b) 2.26
iii. Gastric Juicev - 1.8–2.0 (c) 9.26 (d) 5.00
iv. Saliva - 6.8 AP-EAMCET-(2006)
Ans. (c): Henderson - Haselbalch equation (a) 4.09 (b) 6.09
(c) 5.09 (d) 7.09
 salt 
pOH = pKb + log   AP-EAMCET-(2000)
 base  Ans. (c): According to Henderson's equation
 NH 4 Cl   salt 
pOH = pKb + log   pH = pKa + log  
 NH 3   acid 
At half stage of titration salt = Base CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O
as pOH = pKb = 4.74 Given value,
So, pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 4.74 = 9.26 pKa = 4.57
518. When 10 mL of 0.1 M acetic acid (pKa = 5.0), is Sodium acetate concentration = 0.10 M
titrated against 10 mL of 0.1 M ammonia acetic acid concentration = 0.03 M
solution (pKb = 5.0), the equivalence point Putting the value we get
occurs at pH: 0.10
(a) 5.0 (b) 6.0 (c) 7.0 (d) 9.0 pH = 4.57 + log
0.03
AP-EAMCET-(2005)
pH = 5.09
Ans. (c): CH3COOH + NH4OH →CH3COONH4+ H2O 522. Calculate the pOH of 0.10 M HCl solution.
Here, given that (a) 13 (b) 1
pKa = 5 (c) 7 (d) 14
pKb = 5 AP EAPCET 19-08-2021, Shift-II
pKa = –log Ka and pKb = –log Kb
Ans. (a) : Given,
1
pH = – [log Ka + log Kw – log Kb]  H +  = 0.10M
2  
1 pOH =?
= – [–5 + log 10–14 – (–5)]
2 Formula pH = − log  H + 
1
= – [–5 – 14 + 5]  0.10 
2 pH = − log 
1  100 
= − × (−14) pH = − log1 + log10
2
=7 pH = 1
Thus, the end point or equivalence point is obtained at Q pH + pOH = 14 ⇒ 1 + pOH = 14 ⇒ pOH = 13
pH = 7 in neutral medium. 523. One litre of an aqueous solution has 3.65 g of
519. The pH value of N/10 NaOH is: HCl. If it is desired to increase the pH of the
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 13 solution to 2 then H3O+ ion concentration
AP-EAMCET-(2001) present initially should be
Ans. (d): NaOH → Na+ + OH– (a) also doubled
Normality of NaOH = molarity of NaOH = 0.1 M (b) reduced to half
[OH–] = 10–1M (c) increased by 10 times
[H+][OH–] = 10–14 (d) reduced by 10 times.
10−14 SRMJEEE – 2012
∴ [H+] = = 10–13m Ans. (d) : Given –
10−1 amount of aqueous solution = 1L
pH = –log[H+] amount of HCl = 3.65g
∴ pH = –log 10–13 Molar mass of HCl = 36.5
∴ pH = 13
3.65 1
520. A solution having hydrogen ion concentration ∴ Molarity = = M ....(i)
0.0005 g eqvt./litre, its pOH is: 36.5 × 1 10
(a) 8.2798 (b) 10.6990 1
(c) 12.7854 (d) 13.3344 pH = – log   = 1
AP-EAMCET-(2001) 10 
Given – pH = 2
Ans. (b): We know that pH = –log [H+] = –log[5 × 10–4] = – log10[H+] = 2
4 – log 5 = 4 –[log10 – log2]
= 3 + log 2 = 3.3010 1
= 100
[H ]
+
pOH = 14 – pH = 14 – 3.3
= 10.6990 1
Hence, pOH = 10.7 or [H+] = M ....(ii)
521. The pH of a solution containing 0.10 M sodium 100
acetate and 0.03 M acetic acid is From equation (i) and (ii), it is clear that initially
(pKa for CH3COOH=4.57) concentration reduced by 10 times.

524. Dissociation constant of a weak acid is 1 × 10–6 0.1α × 0.1α
at 25°C. Find the pOH of 0.01 M of its aqueous 1.8 × 10–5 =
solution. 0.1(1 − α )
(a) 4 (b) 3 2
0.1 × α
(c) 10 (d) 12 or 1.8 × 10–5 = (Q α<<<1)
SRMJEEE – 2012 (1−α )
Ans. (c) : Let HA be the weak acid. So the dissociation ∴ α2 = 1.8 × 10–4
of weak acid HA is written as : α = 1.8 ×10−4
+ −
 H + A
HA   α = 1.34 × 10–2
lnitial 0.01 0 0 Concentration of H+ = α × 0.1
[H+] = 1.34 × 10–2 × 0.1
equi.conc 0.01 − 0.01α 0.0 0.01α
[H+] = 1.34 × 10–3
Given :- Ka = 1 × 10–6
pOH = ? ∴ pH = – log 1.34 × 10−3 
H+  A−  pH = – [ log1.34 − 3]
∴ Ka =    
[ HA ] pH = – [ 0.12 − 3]
or pH = 2.87
1×10−6 =
0.01α × 0.01α
(Q α <<<<1) (
527. The pH of 0.05 M acetic acid is K a = 2 ×10−5 )
0.01(1 − α ) (a) 2 (b) 11 (c) 10–3 (d) 3
1 ×10 −6 = 0.01× α 2 AP-EAMCET- (Engg.)-2011
+ −
or α2 = 10–4   H + CH 3COO
Ans. (d) : CH 3COOH  
α = 10−4 Given that, K a = 2 × 10−5
–2
or α = 10 [CH3COOH] = 0.05 M
∴ [H+] = α × 0.01 = 10–2 × 0.01 = 10–4 [H + ][CH 3COO − ] [H + ]2
Now, pH = – log [H+] Ka = =
pH = – log [10–4] [CH3COOH] [CH 3COOH]
pH = 4 [H + ] = K a [ CH 3COOH ]
Q pH + pOH = 14
4 + pOH = 14 = 2 × 10−5 × 0.05
pOH = 14 – 4 = 10−6
Hence, pOH = 10
[H + ] = 10−3
525. A solution which is resistant to change of pH on
addition of small amount of an acid or base is Q pH = − log[H + ]
known as
(a) buffer solution (b) true solution pH = − log[10−3 ]
(c) isohydric solution (d) ideal solution. ∴ pH = 3
SRMJEEE – 2016 528. What is the pH of the NaOH solution when 0.04
Ans. (a) : A buffer solution is such type of solution in g of it dissolved in water and made to 100 mL
which after adding the small amount of acid or bases solution?
but no change in pH of the solution i.e. pH remains (a) 2 (b) 1
constant of solution. There is two type of buffer (c) 13 (d) 12
solution, acidic and alkaline buffers. AP-EAMCET (Engg.) 2015
526. Calculate the pH of 0.1 M CH3COOH solution. Ans. (d) : Given that, mass of solute = 0.04 gm
Dissociation constant of acetic acid is Mass of solute
1.8 × 10–5 M. Molarity =
M. weight of solute × Volume
(a) 2.87 (b) 3.52
(c) 2.62 (d) 6.54 0.04 × 1000
=
SRMJEEE – 2015 40 ×100
Ans. (a) : The dissociation of CH3COOH is : = 10–2
CH 3COOH   – + ∴ OH– = 10–2 mol/litre
  CH 3COO + H
So, pOH = – log [OH–]
Initially 0.1 M 0 0 pOH = – log [10–2] = 2
Equili.Conc. 0.1 − 0.1α 0.1α 0.1α We know that :
pOH + pH = 14
[CH 3COO − ][H + ] pH = 14 – pOH
Now, Ka =
[CH 3COOH] pH = 14 – 2 = 12

529. The pH of 0.01 M solution of acetic acid is 5.0. 533. Calculate pH of a buffer prepared by adding 10
What are the values of [H+] and Ka mL of 0.10 M acetic acid to 20mL of 0.1 M
respectively? sodium acetate [pKa (CH3COOH) = 4.47]
−5
(a) 1 × 10 M,1 ×10 −8 −5
(b) 1 × 10 M, 1×10 –9 (a) 3.00 (b) 4.44
−4 −8 −3 −8
(c) 4.74 (d) 5.04
(c) 1 × 10 M,1× 10 (d) 1 × 10 M,1 × 10 VITEEE-2013
AP-EAMCET- (Engg.) - 2010 Ans. (d) : Given that
Ans. (a) : Given, CH3COOH = 0.1 M in 10 ml = 0.1×10 = 1.0
pH of 0.01 M CH3COOH solution =5 CH3COONa = 0.1M in 20 ml = 0.1×20 = 2.0
C= 0.01 M pKa = 4.47
∴ [H + ] = 1× 10− pH From, Henderson Hassel balch equation,
−5
= 1× 10 mol/L
pH = pK a + log
[Salt ]
Since, acetic acid is a weak acid and for weak acid. [acid]
[H + ] = K a ⋅ C 2
pH = 4.74 + log
+ 2
[H ] −5 2
(1×10 ) 1
Ka = = pH = 4.74 + 0.3010
C 0.01
pH = 5.04
K a = 1× 10−8
534. 20 mL of 0.2 M NaOH is added to 50 mL of 0.2
Hence, the value of [H+] is 1×10–5 M and Ka = 1×10–8 M acetic acid. The pH of this solution after
530. The pKa values of four carboxylic acids are mixing is (Ka = 1.8 × 10–5)
given below. Identify the weakest carboxylic (a) 4.5 (b) 2.3
acid. (c) 3.8 (d) 4
(a) 4.89 (b) 1.28 VITEEE- 2011
(c) 4.76 (d) 2.56 Ans. (a) :
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) 2013 NaOH+CH3COOH     CH3COONa + H2O
Ans. (a) : The more the value of pKa compound will be
less acidic indicating the less value of Ka. The weakest Initial conc– 20 × 0.2 50 × 0.2 0 0
carboxylic acid is the carboxylic acid with pKa = 4.89. =4 =10
After time – (4–4) (10–4) 4 4
531. The pH of a buffer solution made by mixing 25 =0 =6
mL of 0.02 M NH4OH and 25 mL of 0.2 mL
Volume of solution (V) = 20+50 = 70 ml
NH4Cl at 25°C is (pKb of NH4OH = 4.8)
n 4
(a) 5.8 (b) 8.2 [ CH3COONa ] = =
(c) 4.8 (d) 3.8 v 70
AP-EAMCET (Engg.) 2013 Similarly
Ans. (b) : Given that, pKb = 4.8 n 6
As a mixture of weak base ammonium hydroxide and
[ CH 3COOH ] = =
v 70
salt of ammonium chloride pOH = pK b + log
[ NH 4 Cl] [Salt ]
pH = PK a + log10
[ NH3OH ] [ Acid ]
pOH = 4.8 + log
25 × 0.2
pH = − log10 K a + log10
[CH3COONa ]
25 × 0.02 [ CH3COOH ]
pOH = 4.8 + log10 = 4.8 + 1 = 5.8
 4 / 70 
∴ pH = 14 − pOH = 14 − 5.8 = 8.2 (Base) pH = − log10 1.8 × 10−5  + log10 
 6 / 70 
532. 100 ml of 0.1 M H2SO4 is added to 200 ml of 0.1
2
M NaOH. What is the pH of the resulting pH = 5log10 10 + − log10 1.8 + log10  
mixture ? 3
(a) 2 (b) 7 pH = 5 × 1 − 0.2552 + log10 2 − log10 3
(c) 10 (d) 12 pH = 5 − 0.2552 + 0.3010 − 0.4771
AP - EAMCET (Medical) - 2007
pH = 5 − 0.2552 − 0.1761
Ans. (b) : Given data,
For H2SO4 For NaOH pH = 5 − 0.4313
V1 = 100 mL V2 = 200 mL pH = 4.5
Molarity = 0.1 M Molarity = 0.1 M 535. Which of the following is pH of solution formed
∴ 0.1 M H2SO4 can be written as 0.2M H2SO4. by mixing 0.2 M NH4Cl and 0.1 M NH3? The
And 0.1 M NaOH can be written as 0.1 M NaOH. pOH of ammonia solution is 4.75.
Milliequivalent of acid = N1V1 = 0.2 × 100 = 20 (a) 9.85 (b) 7.05
Milliequivalent of base = N2 × V2 = 0.1 × 200 = 20 (c) 6.95 (d) 8.95
Hence, both mixture is neutral and its pH is 7. AMU-2019

Ans. (d) : It is pKb of ammonia solution, pKb = 4.75. It Ka
is a buffer solution. α= = K a = α 2 C = (0.15)2 × 0.002
C
 salt  = 4.5 × 10–5
pOH = pKb + log  
 base 
[H+] = Ka × C = 4.5 × 10−5 × 0.002
0.2 = 3 × 10–4
pOH = 4.75 + log
0.1 pH = –log[H+] = –log(3×10–4)
pOH = 4.75 + log2 = 3.52
pOH = 4.75 + 0.30 539. What shall be the pH of a solution formed by
pOH = 5.05 mixing 10 mL of 0.1 M H2SO4 and 10 mL of
pH = 14 – pOH N
pH = 14 – 5.05 KOH?
10
pH = 8.95 (a) 11.40 (b) 8.64
536. The pH of a solution having the H+ ion (c) 3.00 (d) 7.00
concentration of 1×10-4 ions/litre is AMU-2014
(a) 2 (b) 3
Ans. (d) : Molar mass of KOH = 56g
(c) 4 (d) 5
Equivalent mass of KOH = 56g
AP-EAMCET-(1999)
Since there is no replaceable hydrogen hence molar
Ans. (c): As we know mass is equal to equivalent of mass.
pH = –log[H+] So, 1M KOH = 1N KOH
Here, pH = –log10–4 0.1M KOH = 0.1N KOH
pH = – (–4) log 10 Now given that 10ml of 0.1M H2SO4 and 10ml of 0.1N
pH = 4 (0.1M) KOH is mixed.
537. The following cell has a potential of 0.27 V at No. of Milli moles of H2SO4 present = 10×0.1 = 1
25oC: No. of Milli moles of KOH present = 10×0.1 = 1
Pt (s) H 2 (atm) H + (?M) Ni 2+ (1M) Ni Since the no. of millimoles of both H2SO4 and KOH are
equal, they neutralize each other.
What is the pH of the solution in anodic
Hence pH of the solution is 7.
compartment?
Note : Official answer is (c).
(a) 2.6 (b) 5.9
(c) 8.9 (d) 5.3 540. A ten fold increase in the [H+] of a solution
AMU-2019 (a) increases its pH by one unit
2
(b) decreases its pH by one unit
0.0591  H +  (c) increases its pH by 10 unit
Ans. (c) : Ecell = E 0
cell − log (d) decreases its pH by 10 unit
2  Ni 2 + 
AMU-2012
H+ 
2
Ans. (b) : pH1 = –log[H1+]
log  
0.0591 pH2 = –log[10H1+]
0.27 = –0.25 –
2 1 = –log[H+] – log10
Q E° Ni 2+ / Ni = −0.25V  = –log[H+] – 1
0.52 = –0.0591 log [H+] = pH1 – 1
0.52 541. The number of moles of Ca(OH)2 that must be
–log [H+] = dissolved to make 250 mL solution in water of
0.0591 pH =10.65 is
= 8.7986 (a) 5.6×10-5 (b) 6.5×10-5
= 8.9 (c) 4.5×10 -5
(d) 5.4×10-5
538. 0.0002 M solution of a weak acid has an AMU-2012
equivalent conductance ( Λ ) 60 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1. Ans. (a) : Given that,
ο
What will be the pH? (Given Λ = 400 ohm–1 cm2 pH = 10.65
eq–1] We know that,
(a) 3.52 (b) 2.52 pH+pOH = 14
(c) 1.87 (d) 2.7 pOH = 14–pH
AMU-2018 pOH = 14–10.65
Ans. (a) : C = 0.002 M pOH=3.35
−
equivalent conductance, ∧ = 60 ohm–1 cm2 equation, pH pOH = −log10 [OH ]
=0 [OH–]= Antilog[–3.35]
Molar conductance, ∧° = 400 ohm–1 cm2 equation OH −  = 0.0004467
∧ 60
Degree of dissociation, α = = = 0.15 OH −  = 4.46 × 10−4
∧° 400

We know that, 2 × 10−3
Ca ( OH )2 is diabasic acid ( HClO4 )new conc. =
2
++  H +  = 10−3
Ca ( OH )2 → C a + 2OH
−
 OH−  pH = − log10  H + 
Normality (N) = = 
2 pH = − log10 10−3 
[Qlog10 10 = 1]
−6
4.46 × 10 pH = 3log10 10
[ N] =
2 pH = 3 × 1
[ N ] = 2.23 ×10−4 pH = 3
W 544. An aqueous solution whose pH is zero will be
N= × 1000 called as
E×V
NEV (a) acidic (b) basic
W= (c) netural (d) amphoteric
1000 AMU-2009
 W  NV Ans. (a) : pH = 0, [H+] = 100
Number of moles   =
 E  1000 It means the solution is strongly acidic.
−4
 W  2.23 × 10 × 250 Note: pH scale 0 to 14
Number of moles   = • pH < 7 → solution is acidic
E 1000 • pH > 7 → solution is basic
W • pH = 7 → solution is netural
Number of moles   = 0.5575 × 10−4
E 545. Which of the following solution has pH = 7 ?
W −5
(a) NaNO2 + H2O (b) Na2CO3 + H2O
= 5.6 ×10 (c) NaCl + H2O (d) CH3COONa + H2O
E
AMU-2008
542. What shall be the pH of a weak acid of 10–3 M
concentration which is only 10% ionized? Ans. (c) : The reaction between an acid and a base to
(a) 3 (b) 4 from salt and water is termed neutralisation. A strong
(c) 5 (d) 6 acid plus a strong base give a neutral solution because
AMU-2010 both are completely ionised and the reaction goes to
completion.
Ans. (b) : Assuming that the acid is monobasic, for a
weak acid, H+ + Cl– + Na+ + OH– → H2O + Na+ + Cl–
for neutral salt the pH is given 7.
 Ka  546. The pKb value of NH3 is 5. Calculate the pH of
pH = –log  
 α  the buffer solution, 1L of which contains 0.01
 Ka  M NH4Cl and 0.10M NH4OH.
But   = Cα (a) 4 (b) 6
 α  (c) 8 (d) 10
⇒ pH = – log(Cα) AMU-2005
Where, α= degree of dissociation.
Given, C = 10–3 M and α = 0.1 [salt]
Ans. (d) : pOH = pKb + log
∴ pH = – log(10–4) = 4 [base]
543. The pH of the solution produced by mixing 0.01
equal volume of 2.0 × 10–3 M HClO4 and 1.0 × pOH = 5 + log
0.1
10–2 M KClO4 is = 5 + log(0.1)
(a) 2.7 (b) 2.3 = 5 + log10 10–1
(c) 3.0 (d) 1.0 = 5 + (–1) = 4
AMU-2010 pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 4 = 10
Ans. (c) : Given that initial concentration = 2 × 10 −3 M 547. The OH– ion concentration of as solution
HClO 4 → H + + ClO4− having pH 2 is
Strong Acid (a) 1×10–2 M (b) 1×10–9 M
−
KClO 4 → K + + ClO4 (c) 1×10 M–12
(d) 1×10–7 M
Salt
AMU-2004
Mixing of equal volume then concentration decreases.
Ans. (c) : pH=2
[ HClO4 ]initialconc. = 2 ×10−3 ∴ [H+]=10–2 (pH = –log [H+])
+ – –14
Volume = 2L Also, [H ][OH ]=10
Number of moles of HClO4 (n) = 2 × 10 −3 [Ionic product of water =10–14]
number of moles of HClO 4 10 –14 10−14
( HClO4 )new conc. = [OH – ]= + = −2 =1× 10−12 M
[H ] 10
Volume
548. The term pH comes from Ans. (c) : pH = 2
(a) "pure voiv hydrogen" which implies potential pH = –log [H+]
of hydrogen 2 = –log [H+] ⇒ [H+] = 10–2 …..(i)
(b) pure hydrogen content For pH = 4
(c) purity of hydrogen ions in solution 4 = –log [H+] ⇒ H+ = 10–4 …..(ii)
(d) name of the scientist associated. From equation (i) and (ii), this [H+] conc. should
AMU-2002 decrease from 100 times.
Ans. (a) : pH stands for potential of hydrogen. It 552. An acid solution of pH = 6 is diluted 1000
represents the ratio of hydronium ions (H3O) to times. The pH of the final solution becomes
hydroxide ions (OH). It is a measure of acidity and (a) 6.99 (b) 6
alkalinity of a solution. The pH scale usually ranges (c) 3 (d) 9
from 0 to 14. Assam CEE-2018
549. Which of the following will have largest pH? Ans. (a) : pH = 6 ⇒ pH = –log [H+]
M M H+ = 10–6
(a) NaOH (b) NaOH
100 10 10−6
M M After dilution [H+] = = 10–9
(c) HCl (d) HCl 1000
100 10 ∴ [H+] from H2O cannot be neglected
AMU–2001, BCECE-2003 Total [H+] = 10–9 + 10–7
M 1 = 10–7 (10–2 + 1)
Ans. (b) : NaOH Or NaOH
10 10 = 10–7 (1.01)

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