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Section: - Quant
Q1. A bag contains 5 red, 7 yellow and 6 green balls. 3 balls are drawn randomly. What is
the probability that the balls drawn contain balls of different colours?
35
A. 138
35
B. 136
351
C. 134
35
D. 163
E. None of these
Q2. The length and the breadth of the floor of a room is 20 ft and 10 ft respectively. Square
tiles of 2 ft dimension having three different colours are placed on the floor. The first row
of tiles on all sides is of black colour, out of the remaining one-third is of white colour and
the remaining are of blue colour. How many blue-colour tiles are there?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 48
D. 24
E. None of these
Directions (3-5): Study the following line graph and answer the following questions.
Number of units sold by two different shops (Shop A and Shop B)

Q3. If shop C sold 30% more units of Computer as compare to shop B and it sold 25% less
units of PD as compare to shop A. Find the difference between the units of Computer sold
by Shop C and the total units of PD sold by Shop C?
A. 78
B. 79
C. 80
D. 77
E. 76
Q4. Total number of units of Computer, Printer and Hard disk sold by shop B are
approximately what % more/less than the total number of units of Mouse, PD and Other
sold by shop A?
A. 42%
B. 43%
C. 44%
D. 48%
E. 46%
Q5. Find the ratio between the total units sold by shop A to that of shop B?
A. 13: 17
B. 17: 13
C. 251: 229
D. 229: 251
E. None of these
Direction (6-8): Two equations (I) and (II) are given in each question. On the basis of these
equations, you have to decide the relation between ‘x’ and ‘y’ and give answer.
Q6. I. 99x2 + 149x + 56 = 0
II. 156y2 + 287y + 132 = 0
A. if x > y
B. if x ≥ y
C. if x < y
D. if x ≤y
E. if x = y or relation cannot be established.
Q7. I. 3x2 – 4x – 32 = 0
II. 2y2 – 17y + 36 = 0

A. if x > y
B. if x ≥ y
C. if x < y
D. if x ≤y
Q8. I. x2 + 14x + 49 = 0
II. y2 + 9y = 0
A. if x > y
B. if x ≥ y
C. if x < y
D. if x ≤y
Directions (9-11): In each of these questions a number series is given. In each series only
one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
Q9. 8.1, 9.2, 17.3, 26.5, 43.8, 71.5, 114.1
A. 17.3
B. 9.2
C. 26.5
D. 43.8
E. None of these
Q10. 4, 10, 22, 46, 96, 190, 382
A. 8
B. 10
C. 96
D. 382
E. None of these
Q11. 380, 188, 92, 48, 20, 8, 2
A. 8
B. 20
C. 48
D. 188
E. None of these
Q12. (5√7+√7) × (4√7+8√7)-? =192
A. 143
B. 72√7

C. 134
D. 70√7
E. None of these
Q13. A watch dealer sells watches at Rs 600 per watch. However, he is forced to give to
successive discounts of 10% and 5% respectively. However, he recovers the sales tax on the
net sale price from the customer at 5% of the discount price. What price does a customer
have to pay him to buy the watch?
A. Rs 539.75
B. Rs 539.65
C. Rs 538.75
D. Rs 538.65
E. None of these
Q14. The simple interest accrued on a sum of certain principal is 6500 in eight years at the
rate of 13 per cent per year. What would be the compound interest accrued on that
principal at the rate of 8 per cent per year in 2 years?
A. Rs 1040
B. Rs 1020
C. RS 1060
D. Rs 1200
E. None of these
Q.15 In an examination, the average of marks was found to be 50. For deducting marks for
computational errors, the marks of 100 candidates had to be changed from 90 to 60 each
and so the average of marks came down to 45. The total number of candidates, who
appeared at the examination, was:
A. 600
B. 300
C. 200
D. 150
E. None of these
Q16. There are two right circular cylinders A1 and A2. The ratio of the volumes of A1 and
A2 is 9: 4, and the heights of A1 and A2 are equal. If the difference between the radius of
A1 and A2 is 6 cm, then find the radius of A2.
A. 14 cm

B. 6 cm
C. 8 cm
D. 12 cm
E. None of these
Q17. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 hours and 20 hours. If the tank is already 1/5 th
full and pipe A is opened for 7.5 hours and then closed, then in how much time can pipe B
fill the remaining part of the tank alone?
A. 7.5 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 7.2 hours
D. 8 hours
E. None of these
Q18. There are four friends. The average score in unit test of the first three is 15 and that
of the last three is 16. If the score of the last friends is 19, then first friend’s score is what
per cent of the total score of last three?
2
A. 66 3 %
B. 300%
1
C. 33 3 %
D. 40%
E. None of these
Q19. If the volume and curved surface area of a cylinder 616 𝐦𝟑 and 352m2 respectively,
what is the total surface area of the cylinder (in 𝐦𝟐 )?
A. 429
B. 419
C. 435
D. 421
E. 417
Q20. If ratio of investment A, B and C are in the ratio 3: 5: 8 and the time of investment of
𝟏𝟎𝟎
A, B and C are %, 𝟖𝟎% and 25% respectively of their investment, and profit of A is 4800
𝟑
then what will be the profit of C.
A. 25600

B. 15600
C. 24800
D. 22500
E. 26700
Section: - Reasoning
Direction: (21-25) Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
Eight people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W live on eight different floors of the building but not
necessarily in the same order. Each person lives in a building with floors numbered as 1 to
8 from bottom to top. U lives on an odd-numbered floor above the fourth floor. Only three
people live between U and W. Number of people live above W is same as the number of
people live below P. Three people live between P and R. V lives on an odd-numbered floor
immediately above Q. Only two people live between V and S. T lives on the lowermost floor.
Q21. Who lives immediately below U?

A. R
B. U
C. Q
D. P
E. W
Q22. Q lives on the _________________ floor.
A. 4th
B. 6th
C. 2nd
D. 1st
E. None of the above
Q23. Who lives on the 3rd floor?
A. P
B. Q
C. R
D. T
E. W

Q24. Who lives on the topmost floor?
A. S
B. P
C. R
D. Q
E. T
Q25. How many people live between U and W?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
E. 5
Direction: In each of the questions below are given few statements followed by four
conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
Q26. Statements:
Some paths are trail.
All trail is stain.
Some stains are fast.

Conclusions:
I. Some trails are stain.
II. Some paths are stain.
A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
C. Both I and II follow
D. Either I or II follow
E. Neither I nor II follows
Q27. Statements:
Some Sword are Pistol.
10 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

No Knife are Risk.
All Pistol are Knife.
Conclusions:
I. No pistol is Risk
II. Some Sword are not Knife.
A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
D. Either I or II follow
Q28. Statements:
All ball is rat.
All rat is feather.
No feather is troll.
Conclusions:
I. Some feathers are ball.
II. Some trolls are rat.
A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
D. Either I or II follows
Q29. Statements:
Some crows are doll.

All doll is clove.
Some cloves are route.
Conclusions:
I. Some dolls are route.
II. Some crows are clove.

A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
Q30. Statements:
All planes are aslant.
Some aslant are fans.
All fans are bans.

Conclusions:
I. All planes being fans is a possibility.
II. Some bans are planes.
A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
Direction: (31-32) Study the following information and answer the given questions below.
Eight girls M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting on a circular table, not necessarily in the same
order, such that some of them are facing an inward direction and others are facing an
outward direction. N is sitting 3rd to the left of R, who is facing inside. Four girls are sitting
between M and N. O, who is facing outside the table, is an immediate neighbour of neither
M nor N. P faces the same direction as the person seated opposite to her is facing. T sits
fifth to the left of Q, who is not adjacent to N. S and R is not facing the same direction. P sits
to the immediate left of N. T and M face the same direction but opposite to P. S doesn't sit
exactly between R and M.
Q31. Who sits sixth to the left of M?
A. O
B. R
C. N
D. T

Q32. How many people face outside the table?
A. 5
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4
Direction: In each question, some statements and two conclusions are given. You have to
decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) according to the given statements.
Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
Q33. Statements:
A < R = F ≤ N; C ≤ B ≥ L > S= N
Conclusions:
I. A ≥ L
II. S ≥ F
A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow
Q34. Statements:
Q ≥ E ≤ A < L; H ≤ E ≥ M = L
Conclusions:
I. L ≤ Q
II. L < H
A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
Q35. Statements:

A > F ≥ D= R; N< X > J ≥ R; S > B ≤ V = A
Conclusions:
I. X > B
II. V > J
A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows

Direction: (36-40) Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
Ten people are born in five different months i.e., January, March, June, September, and
October of the same year, two people were born in one month.
Note: Persons born in the same month are "time twins" i.e., they were born at the same time
on the same day, in the same month.
W was born just before S and just after V. U and P were born in the same month having 31
days. S was born in a month having 30 days. R is just elder than X and just younger than Q. X
is neither the youngest nor the eldest person in the group. Y is elder than T who was not born
in the same month as S.
Q36. T was born before _____________ but after ________________.
A. Y, R
B. Y, S
C. V, Q
D. U, P
Q37. S was born in ___________.
A. January
B. March
C. June
D. October
Q38. Who among the following was born in January?

A. W
B. V
C. X
D. U
Q39. How many people are younger than R?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 6
Q40. P was born in the month of _______________.
A. January
B. March
C. October
D. June
E. September
Section: - English Language

(Directions 41-45): In this question, a part of the sentence is written in BOLD. Below are
given alternatives to the BOLD part at (A), (B), (C) and (D) which may improve the sentence.
Choose the correct alternative. In case no replacement is needed, mark (E) as your answer.
Q41. A comedian analyses the mundane from a variety of angles and FIND THE THREAD
AMONG TWO POINTS.
A. found the threading between two points

B. finds the thread between two points
C. finding the thread among two points
D. is finding the thread between more than two points
E. No correction required
Q42. A federal government climate-change report released last year shows the Pacific
Northwest is already SEEING DAMANGE FROM RISING TEMPERATURES.

A. seen damages for rising temperatures
B. seeing damaging rising temperatures
C. seen damaging from rising temperatures
D. seeing damages for rising temperatures
Q43. GETTING TO HIRE as the assistant to a pastry chef seemed like a dream come true.
A. Get to hire
B. Getting to be hired
C. Getting hired
D. Having got hired
Q44. The article explores the problem and the CONSEQUENCES DAMAGE ARISES out of
dumping about 5 to 13 million tonnes of plastic into the ocean each year.
A. consequences damaging arising

B. consequential damaging arising
C. consequences for damages arising
D. consequential damage arising
Q45. Students from around the world HAVE INCREASING STARTED OPTING TO online
education.
A. has increasingly started opt to
B. have increasing starting opted to

C. have increasingly started opting for
D. have increasingly starting opting for
(Directions 46-50): Rearrange the following eight sentences A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in the
proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the question given
beside.
A. What was until then a sport predominantly of the hinterlands received wider recognition
as television and newspapers began discovering it.
B. The Aamir Khan-starrer Dangal, which narrates the story of Mahavir Singh Phogat and his
daughters Geeta Phogat and Babita Kumari, was perhaps the icing on the cake.
C. Ever since Sushil Kumar won a bronze medal at the 2008 Beijing Olympics, wrestling has,

without doubt, grown by leaps and bounds.
D. Now, it has reached a stage where Sakshi’s Olympic bronze is expected to do to women’s
wrestling what Sushil’s did to wrestling in general.
E. Also, independent India’s first individual Olympic medal winner was a wrestler: Khashaba
Dadasaheb Jadhav, who bagged a bronze in the 1952 Helsinki Games. This aided wrestling in
securing a prominent place both in the minds of the country’s citizenry as well as in its yet-to-
thrive sporting ecosystem.
F. That Sakshi and the Phogats came from Haryana, a State infamous for its skewed gender
ratio, even boosted the narrative of the sport now being a tool for breaking gender
stereotypes.
G. Even to the uninitiated, the sport’s rich moral, philosophical and mystical heritage — with
links first to the Ramayana and the Mahabharata through the likes of Hanuman and Bhima,
and then to the Mughals and Maratha kings, who were huge patrons of the sport — has
always appealed.
H. A series of successes followed, from Yogeshwar Dutt to the Phogat sisters to Sakshi Malik.
Q46. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
A. G
B. B
C. H
D. A
E. F
Q47. Which of the following would be the SEVENTH sentence after rearrangement?
A. C
B. H
C. D
D. B
E. A
Q48. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
A. B
B. H
C. C
D. D
E. F
Q49. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

A. H
B. C
C. G
D. A
E. D
Q50. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
A. D
B. A
C. G
D. H
E. B
Directions 51-60) Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions.
Certain words are given in BOLD to help you locate them while answering same of the
questions.
Rural development in India has witnessed several changes over the years in its emphasis,
approaches, strategies and programmes. It has assumed a new dimension and perspective as
a consequence. Rural development can be richer and more meaningful only through the
participation of clienteles of development. Just as implementation is the TOUCHSTONE for
planning, people's participation is the centrepiece in rural development. People's
participation is one of the foremost prerequisites of development process both from
procedural and philosophical perspectives. For the development planners and administrators,
it is important to solicit the participation of different groups of rural people, to make the plans
participatory.
Rural development aims at improving rural people's livelihoods in an EQUITABLE and
sustainable manner, both socially and environmentally, through better access to assets and
services, and control over productive capital.
The basic objectives of Rural Development Programmes have been ALLEVIATION of poverty
and unemployment through creation of basic social and economic infrastructure, provision of
training to rural unemployed you and providing employment to marginal farmers/labourers
to discourage seasonal and permanent migration to urban areas.
Rural development is the main pillar of nation's development. In spite of rapid urbanisation,
a large section of our population still lives in the villages. Secondly, rural India has lagged
behind in development because of many historical factors. Though the 11th Plan began in
very favourable circumstances with the economy having grown at the rate of 7.7% per year
in the 10th Plan period, there still existed a big challenge to correct the developmental
imbalances and to accord due priority to development in rural areas. Ministry of Rural
Development is implementing a number of programmes aimed at sustainable holistic
development in rural areas. The thrust of these programmes is on all-round economic and

social transformation in rural areas through a multi-pronged strategy aiming to reach out to
the most disadvantaged sections of the society.
Although concerted efforts have been initiated by the Government of India through several
plans and measures to alleviate poverty in rural India, there still remains much more to be
done to bring prosperity in the lives of the people in rural areas. At present, technology
dissemination is uneven and slow in the rural areas. Good efforts of organisations developing
technologies, devices and products for rural areas could not yield high success. Experiences
of many countries suggest that technological development fuelled by demand has a higher
dissemination rate. However, in India, technology developers for rural areas have been
catering to needs, rather than creating demand. There is no industry-linkage machinery to
create demand-based-technology market for rural communities. Besides, there is also an
imbalance between strategies and effective management programmes. PROPAGATION of
technology/schemes for rural development is slow and there is a lacking in wider participation
of different stakeholders. An ideal approach may, therefore, include the government,
panchayats, village personnel, researchers, industries, NGOs and private companies to not
only help in reducing this imbalance, but also to have a multiplier effect on the overall
economy.
Q51. According to the passage, which of the following are the objectives of most Rural
Development Programmes?
(A) To promote urbanisation
(B) Provide training to youth
(C) Reducing unemployment
A. Only A and C
B. Only C
C. Only B and C
D. All the three (A), (B) and (C)
E. Only A
Q52. Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in bold
as used in the passage?
ALLEVIATION
A. Mitigation
B. soothing
C. intensification
D. outpouring
E. comfortable
Q53. Which of the following is most OPPOSITE to the meaning of the word PROPAGATION
as used in the passage?
A. generation

B. producing
C. reproduction
D. underdevelopment
E. growth
Q54. What, according to the passage, is the most important factor of rural development?
A. Alleviation of poverty and unemployment
B. Employment to marginal farmers and labourers
C. Participation of different groups of rural people
D. Creation of basic social and economic infrastructure
E. None of these
Q55. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
(A) Urbanisation has resulted in a majority of Indian population living in urban areas.
(B)The economic growth of the 10th Five Year Plan did not translate into proportionate rural
development.
(C) The efforts of the Government of India for poverty alleviation have met with complete
failure.
A. Only A and B
B. Only C
C. Only A and C
D. Only B
E. All the three (A), (B) and (C)
Q56. Which of the following is most nearly the SAME is meaning as TOUCHSTONE used in
the passage?
A. yardstick
B. periphery
C. sensitivity
D. weakness
E. hurdle
Q57. According to the passage, what ails the process of technology-aided development in
rural areas?
(A) Creation of demand for technology-aided development in rural areas is missing.
(B) There is lack of participation of rural people in the process of technology-aided
development.

(C) There is a dearth of appropriate linkages needed for bringing about technology-aided
development.
A. Only C
B. Only B and C
C. Only A
D. Only A and B
E. All the three (A), (B) and (C)
Q58. Which of the following can be the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Technology in Rural India
B. The Rural Indian Communities
C. Rural Development—The Participative Way
D. Rural India — Ignored by All the Stakeholders
E. Rural Development —An Impossible Dream
Q59. What is the current status of the poverty alleviation programme initiated by the
Government of India?
(A) Technology dissemination is uneven and slow in rural areas.
(B) There still remains much more to be done to bring prosperity in the lives of the people in
rural areas.
(C) There is a lack of participation of different stakeholders.
A. Only (A) and (B)
B. Only (B) and (C)
C. Only (A) and (C)
D. All (A), (B) and (C)
E. None of these
Q60. Which of the following is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word EQUITABLE given in
the passage?
A. troubled
B. unfair
C. separated
D. futuristic
E. just
(Directions 61-65) In the questions given below, a sentence has been broken down into four
fragments labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D) and arranged, not necessarily in the correct

order. You have to find the correct order of arrangement from the options given below. In
case, the sentence is correct in its original form, please select (E) as your answer.
Q61. Constructed role for women places them in the (A) / domestic sphere and prevents
them from undertaking (B) / social, economic, and political activities designated for men (C)
/ In traditional, patriarchal societies, the culturally (D)
A. ADCB
B. BCDA
C. DABC
D. DACB
E. No rearrangement required
Q62. Claimed that an “independent agency” found that (A) / the Prime Minister, in a recent
televised interview, misleadingly (B) / 70 lakh Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO)
accounts (C) / were opened for persons aged 18–25 years (D)
A. BACD
B. BCDA
C. ADCB
D. DBCA
Q63. That from January 2018, user charges in public hospitals for various services will (A) /
services tax (GST) and to finance better quality services and improved maintenance (B) / At
the end of 2017, the Maharashtra government issued a government resolution (C) / increase
substantially, in order to cover the increased costs to hospitals due to goods and (D)
A. DABC
B. CBAD
C. BACD
D. CADB
Q64. Of higher education because in addition to large-scale (A)/ state universities remain
central in the entire structure (B)/ on-campus enrolment they grant affiliation and thereby
administer (C)/ and control a large network of colleges in their respective jurisdictions. (D)
A. BCDA
B. BACD
C. ADCB
D. DBCA

Q65. Surge pricing is a price discrimination policy which is (A)/ supply and is a strategy of
taking advantage of (B)/ followed when the demand for a product exceeds its (C)/ low price
elasticity of demand during peak or rush times. (D)
A. ACBD
B. ABCD
C. DACB
D. CABD
(Directions 66-70) In the following passage, some of the words/sentences have been left out,
each of which is indicated by a letter. Find the suitable word/sentence from the options given
against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words/sentences to make the
paragraph meaningful.
"The first thing you ____ 66____, if you look at a map, is that the Arctic — unlike the Antarctic
— is an ocean surrounded by continents," Alastair Fraser, a geoscientist from Imperial College
London, told Live Science. Firstly, this means there's a huge quantity of ____ 67 ____ material
available, in the form of dead sea creatures such as plankton and algae, which form the basis
of what will ____ 68 ____ become oil and gas. Secondly, the surrounding ring of continents
means that the Arctic Basin contains a high proportion of continental crust, which makes up
about 50% of its oceanic area, Fraser explained. That's significant because continental crust
— as ____ 69 ____ to ocean crust, which makes up the rest of the area — typically contains
deep depressions called basins, into which organic matter sinks, he said.
Here, it gets ____ 70____ in shale and preserved in 'anoxic' waters, meaning they contain
little oxygen. "Normally, in a shallow sea with lots of oxygen, it would not be preserved. But
if the sea is deep enough, the ocean will be stratified, meaning the oxygenated waters at the
top will be separated from the anoxic conditions at the base," Fraser explained.
Q66. Fill in the blank 66.
A. realize
B. endeavour
C. associate
D. intend
E. pretend
A. toxic
B. utility

C. stable
D. flammable
E. organic
A. primarily
B. prematurely
C. lately
D. ultimately
E. freshly
A. callous
B. rebellious
C. opposed
D. contiguous
E. similar
A. dismembered
B. maimed
C. decomposed
D. embedded
E. adapted
(Directions 71-72) Five statements are given below, labelled A, B, C, D and E, among these,
four statements are in logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given
options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.
Q71. A. The egregious practice that many Muslim men employ to divorce their wives
instantaneously and without their consent, merely by uttering the word talaq thrice, was
rendered legally invalid by the Shamim Ara vs State of UP judgment of 2002 and subsequent
orders from various High Courts.
B. This practice has been either explicitly derecognised in Muslim-majority countries such as
Indonesia, Iran and Tunisia or implicitly in countries such as Pakistan, which provides for a
mandatory arbitration procedure after the pronouncement of talaq.

C. Shayara Bano, one such victim of this arbitrary custom — not to speak of years of domestic
violence — has filed a public interest litigation in the Supreme Court seeking a ban on the
practice.
D. But this has not stopped the practice; many Muslim women are unaware of the judgments
or have had to accept such pronouncements owing to pressure from conservative sections.
E. The conservative All India Muslim Personal Law Board that seeks to wield influence on
questions of Muslim personal law has, predictably, found it an occasion to air its regressive
views on the issue.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Q72. A. But a premature lowering of the guard and growing resistance to DDT led to rising
incidence in the 1980s.
B. Some of the major challenges the country had to face before it interrupted local
transmission were the Plasmodium falciparum parasite becoming resistant to the chloroquine
drug, behavioural changes in the vector, asymptomatic carriers and vector reintroduction.
C. Sri Lanka was close to eliminating malaria in 1963, when it reported just 17 cases.
D. But the tide turned from 2000 when a steady reduction in the number of cases was
recorded.
E. The public sector and the private sector were oriented to the common goal of eliminating
malaria by enhancing case notification and achieving 100 per cent detection and confirmation
through tests.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
(Directions 73-75): The following question has two blanks, each blank indicating that
something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits in the
context of the sentence.
Q73. The edtech firms provide campus recruits the required platform, content, assignments
and project work in their last _____________ of college to ensure they are prepared with
programming skills and _____________ digital skills before they join.

A. week, archaic
B. semester, emerging
C. month, irrational
D. segment, depreciating
E. portion, appreciating
Q74. Content that _____________ leaders or groups of the opposite ideology based on
falsehoods, deepens communal _____________ or incites hatred have gained traction in the
last few years.
A. disparages, harmony
B. denigrates, polarization
C. cheer, positioning
D. maligns, congruence
E. excites, agenda
Q75. IFC aims to support the Maharashtra Housing department to scale-up green affordable
_____________ in the region and avoid lock-in of the resources and energy _____________
housing units.
A. homes, extensive
B. spots, filling
C. companies, neutral
D. housing, intensive
E. markets, finishing
(Directions 76-80): Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
The study of climate change has established retreating glaciers and rising global temperatures
from a number of data sources. Establishing the influence of mankind upon these effects has
been more difficult, because the climate is subject to oscillations that are much longer in
duration than our record of direct temperature measurements, which extends back only
about 150 years.
By drilling and conducting chemical and physical studies of ice cores on six of the seven
continents, scientists have developed a method of estimating climatic information that had
previously been thought inaccessible. Ice cores removed from the earth's crust and studied
in order to draw such inferences are termed paleo-proxies. The values of various climatic
variables at a particular time and place can be inferred through some form of proxy analysis
in a given ice core sample. For example, deuterium excess indicates humidity levels, electrical
conductivity indicates volcanic activity, beryllium levels indicate solar activity, and particle size
and concentration indicate wind speeds. Temperature, in particular, can be inferred from the
ratios of water molecules composed of stable isotopes of oxygen and hydrogen, namely

1H2H16O and 1H218O. Because molecules consisting of these isotopes have slightly different
weights than their more common counterparts, their concentration in the ice core in a given
epoch depends on the condensation temperature prevailing at the time. This technique
enables scientists to estimate the air temperature of condensation when the snow fell and
establish variations in temperature over a series of multiple samples.
One advantage of using ice cores as a paleo-proxy is that ice core samples can be extracted
from across the world using different drilling techniques, for analysis either on-site or in a
laboratory, with results that can be compared to each other and stitched into a coherent
global picture. The primary sources of ice cores are the ice sheets of Antarctica and Greenland,
whose thickness allows scientists to extract long cores representing time spans of up to
100,000 or even 400,000 years. Nevertheless, samples representing spans of multiple
centuries have been extracted more recently at low latitudes--for example, at Mt.
Kilimanjaro, in the Andes Mountains, and on the Himalayan plateau. Depending on the
objectives of the project and the nature of the ice core, scientists use a variety of types of drill
ranging from hand-powered auger drill to electro-mechanical drills. A limitation of using ice
cores is that they represent data for conditions during snowfall only. Periods bereft of
snowfall will fail to leave a record in the ice and can even disrupt the essential step of dating
the samples. To mitigate this problem, multiple cores are typically extracted from nearby
locations. A more critical limitation of the ice core method, one indicative of the larger
problem at hand, is that as ice fields continue to retreat, the ability to measure in some
locations will disappear entirely.
Q76. In the passage, the author is primarily interested in
A. describing the data that supports a scientific theory
B. illustrating how a research method has generated results that challenge an accepted theory
C. arguing that data obtained from a particular research method are as useful as data
obtained directly
D. describing a scientific challenge and a research technique to address that challenge
E. providing an overall evaluation of a research technique
Q77. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following
statements about using ice cores as paleo-proxies?
A. It is the only feasible method to collect climate data.
B. It yields data that are insufficient to determine the influence of mankind on retreating
glaciers.
C. It should not be widely adopted, since it will be impossible in the near future.
D. It is one of multiple valid sources of data on the climate.
E. It yields unreliable data about global temperature but has advanced the state of our
scientific knowledge.
Q78. It can be inferred from the passage that the technique of using ice cores to determine
historical temperatures would be less advantageous if which of the following were true?

A. It indicated different temperatures at different times for a particular location, according to
different isotope concentrations in the sample.
B. It indicated different results at the same location, according to differing extraction methods
of the samples.
C. It yielded information dating back only 80,000 years in most locations.
D. It indicated that the ratios of oxygen isotopes in the air in a given location varied over time.
E. It indicated that ice sheets were not retreating.
Q79. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the ice cores extracted at
low latitudes?
A. They indicate that sediments found during an ice age contain more calcium carbonate than
sediments formed at other times.
B. They are less reliable than the evidence from rocks on land in determining the volume of
land ice.
C. They can be used to deduce the relative volume of land ice that was present when the
sediment was laid down.
D. They are more unpredictable during an ice age than in other climatic conditions.
E. They can be used to determine atmospheric conditions at various times in the past.
Q80. It can be inferred from the passage that the air temperature of condensation at a time
in the past when snow fell
A. can be determined from the ratio of hydrogen and oxygen isotopes in the air
B. correlates with the average air temperature in that area at that time
C. correlates with the average air temperature in that area at the time of measurement
D. creates land ice of a higher density at higher temperatures
E. rises during periods in which glaciers are retreating
Section: - General Awareness

Q81. Recently, BIMSTEC Disaster management Exercise 2020 has taken place recently in
February 2020 at which of the following places?
A. Gandhinagar, Gujarat
B. Jaipur, Rajasthan
C. Amritsar, Punjab
D. Bhubaneshwar, Odisha
E. New Delhi

Q82. Who is the winner of 55th Jnanpith Award, announced in the month of November
2019?
A. Amitav Ghosh
B. Krishna Sobti
C. Akkitham Achuthan Namboothiri
D. Kavita Krishnan
E. Kedarnath Singh
Q83. Who was the captain of Indian team in ICC U-19 cricket world cup, held recently in
January 2020?
A. Yashaswi Jaiswal
B. Priyam Garg
C. Atharva Ankolekar
D. Shubhang Hegde
E. Divyaansh Saxena
Q84. Who among the following has recently, in the month of Feb 2020, won Men’s single
title in Australian Open 2020?
A. Novak Djokovic
B. Rafael Nadal
C. Roger Federer
D. Dominic Thiem
E. Alexander Zverev
Q85. R.K Pachauri who has recently passed away in the month of Feb 2020, belonged to
which of the following fields?
A. Environment
B. Space
C. Energy
D. Music
E. Medicine

Q86. Recently in the month of February 2020, ‘Ajeya Warrior’ exercise was held between
India and which of the following countries?
A. Canada
B. Afghanistan
C. Singapore
D. United Kingdom
E. USA
Q87. India’s lightest & cheapest bullet proof jacket has been developed by Bhabha Atomic
Research Centre under Make in India Programme, in July 2019. This indigenously built jacket
is called as ________________
A. Bhabha Surakshit
B. Bhabha Kavach
C. Suraksha Kavach
D. Nano Jacket
E. Arjun Kavach
Q88. Which of the following movies has won the award for Best Movie for the year 2020 at
Oscar awards, in Feb 2020?
A. Marriage Story
B. Bomb Shell
C. Green Book
D. Parasite
E. Shape of Water
Q89. Addia Ababa is the capital of which of the following African nations?
A. Ghana
B. Ethiopia
C. Kenya
D. Liberia
E. Libya

Q90. Recently in the month of Feb 2020, India has signed an MOU (Memorandum of
Understanding) in the field of sustainable fisheries development with which of the
following countries?
A. Japan
B. Netherland
C. South Africa
D. Iceland
E. Australia
Q91. According to the recently released Public Enterprises Survey in the month of Feb 2020,
which of the following PSUs has come under top three profitable PSUs along with IOCL and
NTPC in 2018-19?
A. ONGC
B. BSNL
C. MTNL
D. SAIL
E. PFC
Q92. Union Minister of MSME Nitin Gadkari has recently (Feb 2020) flagged off ‘Apiary on
Wheels’, a unique concept designed by __________ for the easy upkeep and migration of
Bee Boxes having live Bee colonies.
A. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
B. National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development (NABARD)

C. Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)
D. National Housing Bank (NHB)
E. National Institute of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj
Q93. Recently in the month of February 2020, Kaamya Karthikeyan has become the
youngest girl to summit Mount Aconcagua. She is a student of Navy Children School,
_________
A. Mumbai
B. Hyderabad
C. Thiruvananthapuram

D. Ahmedabad
E. Indore
Q94. Recently, WHO (World Health Organization) has recently named Corona Virus as
________
A. COVID-19
B. COVIN-19
C. ZIKA-19
D. SARS-19
E. CROWID-19
Q95. Marcelo Rebelo de Sousa was recently on a state visit to India in the month of Feb
2020. He is the President of which of the following countries?
A. Spain
B. Chile
C. Argentina
D. Brazil
E. Portugal
Q96. What was the theme of “United Nations (UN) International Day of Education 2020”,
recently observed on 24th January 2020?
A. Educate for sustainable development
B. Learning for people, planet, prosperity and peace
C. Educate for our prosperous future
D. Educate for our sustainable future
Q97. What is the name of world’s cheapest gunshot locator developed recently by Indian
Army’s College of Military Engineering (CME) jointly with a private firm, in the month of Feb
2020?
A. Vaibhav
B. Akshat
C. Parth

D. Abhimanyu
E. Bheem
Q98. UNESCO World Heritage site Buddhist Monument ‘Horyu-ji Area’ is located in which
of the following countries?
A. Indonesia
B. Japan
C. Cambodia
D. Afghanistan
E. Vietnam
Q99. Which of the following companies has announced, in the month of Feb 2020, that it
is going to set up two data centres in the state of Telangana at a cost of Rs 11,624 crore?
A. Amazon
B. Flipkart
C. Google
D. Facebook
E. Snapdeal
Q100. A mobile app of Red Cross Society of India, developed by Telangana Center for Good
Governance (CGG). It has been released by President of India Sh. Ram Nath Kovind in which
of the following cities?
A. Hyderabad
B. Warangal
C. Siddipet
D. Nizamabad
E. Sangareddy
Section: - Economics & Social Issues (ESI)

Q101. Largest cultivation of rice is done in which of the following states of India?
A. Gujarat

B. West Bengal
C. Punjab
D. Tamil Nadu
E. Uttar Pradesh
Q102. What is India’s rank in Human Development Index 2019?
A. 121st
B. 132nd
C. 129th
D. 189th
E. 130th
Q103. In which of the following farming type, large amount of capital and labour is used
relative to the land available?
A. Extensive Farming
B. Intensive Farming
C. Commercial Farming
D. Primitive Farming
E. Mixed Farming
Q104. Sustaining agricultural productivity depends on quality and availability of natural

resources like soil and water. Towards it, National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture
(NMSA) has been launched in India. Which of the following is a component of NMSA?
A. Rainfed Area Development (RAD)
B. Sub-Mission on Agroforestry (SMAF)
C. Soil Health Management (SHM)
D. Climate Change and Sustainable Agriculture: Monitoring, Modeling and Networking

(CCSAMMN)
E. All of the above are the components of this Mission
Q105. What is the sunset date of Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA)?
A. 31.03.2021
B. 25.06.2024

C. 31.03.2022
D. 25.06.2024
E. 01.01.2021
Q106. Third Industrial Policy of India is going to be launched with the objective of making
India a manufacturing hub. It will replace which of the following earlier Industrial policies?
A. Industrial policy, 1956
B. Industrial policy, 1984
C. Industrial policy, 2014
D. Industrial policy, 1991
Q107. Production of raw silk using domesticated caterpillars is called ___________
A. Arboriculture
B. Sericulture
C. Apiculture
D. Silviculture
E. Floriculture
Q108. 50th edition of Summit of World Economic Forum has recently taken place in the
month of Jan 2020 in Davos, Switzerland. What was its theme?
A. Globalization 4.0: Shaping a Global Architecture in the Age of the Fourth Industrial
Revolution.
B. Stakeholders for a Cohesive and Sustainable World
C. Creating a Shared Future in a Fractured World
D. Creating a Sustainable World for Future Generation
E. None of these
Q109. Fifth edition of Pulses Conclave has recently taken place in the month of February
2020, at which of the following places?
A. Gandhinagar, Gujarat
B. Lonavala, Maharashtra
C. Mysuru, Karnataka

D. Bikaner, Rajasthan
E. New Delhi
Q110. According to the first advance estimates of the year 2019-20, what is the estimated
production of Kharif crops for this year?
A. 145.55 Million Tonnes
B. 150.55 Million Tonnes
C. 125.57 Million Tonnes
D. 140.57 Million Tonnes
E. 240.67 Million Tonnes
Q111. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the objectives of Pradhan
Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana?
A. To Enhance the physical access of water on the farm and expand cultivable area under
assured irrigation.
B. To Improve on - farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage and increase availability both
in duration and extent.
C. To Enhance recharge of aquifers and introduce sustainable water conservation practices.
D. To provide insurance coverage to farmers for their yield under assured irrigation.
E. All of the above are features of the scheme
Q112. Government has recently increased the deadline for NCLT for the resolution from 270
days to ______ days, in the month of July 2019.
A. 315
B. 425
C. 330
D. 365
E. 300
Q113. 6th World Congress in Rural and Agri finance has taken place at which of the following
places, in the month of November 2019?
A. New Delhi
B. Hyderabad

C. Indore
D. Chennai
E. Kolkata
Q114. What does ‘R’ stand for in GOBAR DHAN Yojana?
A. Resources
B. Rejuvenate
C. Renewable
D. Rural
E. None of these
Q115. IMF has recently, in the month of January 2020, has lowered the GDP Forecast of
India for this year due to which of the following factors?
A. NBFC
B. Dip in rural demand
C. Dip in urban demand
D. Both a & b
E. Both b & c
Q116. According to the advance estimates of 2019-20, What is the amount of horticulture
production in India?
A. 213.33 million tonnes
B. 313.35 million tonnes
C. 125.25 million tonnes
D. 325.45 million tonnes
E. 125.45 million tonnes
Q117. NABARD has announced, in the month of July 2019, that it is going to raise Rs.55,000
crore in this financial year. It raises such amount through the long-term bonds of ________
years.
A. 5-10
B. 20-25
C. 10-15

D. 50
E. 30-35
Q118. Which of the following is the aim of Deen Dayal Antoyada National Rural Livelihood
mission?
A. to provide employment to each household for 100 days in an year
B. to alleviate rural poverty and create livelihood opportunities for rural poor
C. to provide free foodgrains to poor people in the rural areas
D. to provide the women Self Help Groups with the required financial aid
E. All of the above
Q119. Draft National Education Policy 2019 has laid the foundational pillars of Access,
Equity, Quality, Affordability and ___________
A. Accountability
B. Equality
C. Education
D. Sustainability
E. None of these
Q120. Global Economic Prospects Report released recently in January 2020, by World Bank,
has forecasted the GDP growth rate of India for this year at __________
A. 5%
B. 5.7%
C. 6.5%
D. 7%
E. 6%
Q121. Which of the following states/UTs has the highest Gross state domestic product
(GSDP) in India?
A. Kerala
B. Maharashtra
C. Karnataka
D. Gujarat

E. Tamil Nadu
Q122. Practice of tilling sloped land along the lines of consistent elevation is called
________
A. Contour farming
B. Strip farming
C. Intercropping
D. Mixed Cropping
E. None of these
Q123. Deen Dayal Updhayay Grameen Kaushalya Yojana is an initiative of which of the
following Ministries?
A. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
B. Ministry of Rural Development
C. Ministry of Labour & Employment
D. Both a & b
E. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
Q124. Agri Export Policy 2018 aims to double the export to USD______ by the year _____
A. 60 billion by 2022
B. 30 billion by 2022
C. 50 billion by 2024
D. 30 billion by 2024
E. 50 billion by 2025
Q125. Retail inflation in India has risen to a record five and a half years high in the month
of December 2019 to _____________
A. 8.5%
B. 6.5%
C. 9.15%
D. 7.35%
E. 8.25%

Q126. Which of the following is the unique feature of Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana, in which
each member of Parliament adopts one village?
A. adopting people’s participation as an end in itself
B. making panchayats as the highest decision-making body
C. encouragement of self-help groups
D. Both a & b
E. All of the above
Q127. According to the Economic Survey 2019-20, what is the share of service sector in
Indian economy?
A. 55%
B. 65%
C. 75%
D. 52%
E. 60%
Q128. What is the name of all-weather road connectivity scheme that aims to provide
connectivity to unhabituated areas?
A. National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM)
B. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G)
C. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)
D. Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP)
E. Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan
Q129. FAO has endorsed India’s proposal to declare year _________ as the “International
Year of Millets”.
A. 2025
B. 2023
C. 2024
D. 2022
E. 2021

Q130. Farmers from which of the following age groups can enroll under the Pradhan Mantri
Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana, which has been recently launched in the month of September
2019?
A. 21-40 years
B. 18-40 years
C. 18-50 years
D. 25-60 years
E. 20-45 years
Q131. Agri Markets and Farmer Friendly Reforms Index (AMFFRI) aims to rank states in India
based on the degree of reforms they have undertaken in agri marketing, it is a project by
which of the following?
A. Ministry of Finance
B. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
C. NITI Aayog
D. Ministry of Commerce & Industry
E. Both a & b
Q132. According to the Global Risk Report recently released by World Economic Forum in
the month of Jan 2020, top 5 risk factors to the world by impact are related to which of the
following?
A. Environment
B. Infectious diseases
C. Cyberattacks
D. Data fraud or theft

E. Global Governance failure
Q133. 124th Constitutional Amendment aims to provide 10% reservation to economically
weaker section of the society. For this reservation, the income of the families must be less
than __________
A. Rs. 10 lakhs
B. Rs. 5 lakhs
C. Rs. 8 lakhs

D. Rs. 6 lakhs
E. Rs. 8.5 lakhs
Q134. According to the Economic Survey 2019-2020, what was the GDP growth rate of India
in the year 2019-20?
A. 7.5%
B. 3.5%
C. 6.5%
D. 5.5%
E. 4.8%
Q135. Mega Food Park scheme provides for 50% subsidy to setup Food Processing industry
in the plain areas while for the hilly and difficult terrains, it is _______
A. 60%
B. 75%
C. 100%
D. 85%
E. 90%
Q136. Transformation of Aspirational Districts has been launched in India with an aim to
improve its ranking in which of the following?
A. SDG India Index
B. Human Development Index
C. Global Hunger Index
D. Both a & b
E. All of the above
Q137. When banks fail to meet the priority sector lending targets, the due amount needs
to be transferred to which of the following?
A. RBI
B. NABARD
C. RIDF
D. SIDBI

E. SBI
Q138. Which of the following is not correct regarding the features of PMKSY?
A. All the States and Union Territories including North Eastern States are covered under the
programme
B. The National Steering Committee (NSC) of this scheme is under the chairmanship of NITI
Aayog.
C. It is to be implemented in an area development approach, adopting decentralized state

level planning and projectised execution.
D. It aims to improve on - farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage and increase availability
both in duration and extent.
E. All of these are correct
Q139. In which of the following years, was the National Education Policy launched in India?
A. 1956
B. 1968
C. 1985
D. 2005
E. 2000
Q140. Pradhan Mantri Gareeb Kalyan Yojana has been launched by which of the following
Ministries?
A. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
B. Ministry of Rural Development
C. Ministry of Finance
D. Both a & b
E. All of these
Section: - Agriculture & Rural Development (ARD)

Q141. Which type of ecosystem in India has richest alluvial soil with adequate water?
A. Northern Plains
B. Eastern Himalayan region

C. Western Plateau and hills
D. Central Plateau and hills
Q142. Which of the following crop occupies largest area in India?
A. Tomato
B. Potato
C. Brinjal
D. All of the above
Q143. Recently Finance Minister announced in the Budget 2020-21 about the revival of
Agriculture sector through ________ point programme.
A. Ten
B. Fourteen
C. Sixteen
D. Eight
Q144. What is rosette in ground nut?
A. Peanut Leaf miner
B. Peanut nutritional disorder
C. Peanut pathogenic Bacteria
D. Peanut pathogenic virus
Q145. Which of the following crop is known as white gold?
A. Radish
B. Sugarcane
C. Mushroom
D. Cotton

Q146. Padma Shri award for this year under the category ‘others – agriculture’ has been
awarded to whom?
A. Mr Subhash Palekar
B. Ms Kamala Pujhari
C. Ms. Sivamman
D. Mr Chandrasekhar
Q147. Identify the incorrect statement regarding PM-KISAN Samman Nidhi.
A. Central sector scheme
B. Administered by the Ministry of Agriculture and farmers welfare
C. Scheme is for all farmers with few exclusions
D. Scheme gives 6000 rupees at the starting of year
Q148. What is the Operating Ratio under farm management?
A. Ratio of operating expenses/gross profit
B. Ratio of Current assets/Current liabilities
C. Ratio of Fixed costs/Gross income
D. Ratio of Networth/Total Assets
Q149. Arrange the production share of horticulture crops in the descending order for the
year 2018-19?
A. Fruits>Vegetables>Aromatic plants>Plantation>Spices
B. Aromatic plants>Spices>Plantation>Fruits> Vegetables
C. Fruits>Vegetables>Spices>Plantation>Aromatic plants
D. Vegetable>Fruits>Plantation>Spices>Aromatic plants

Q150. Which of the following breeds of sheep is famous for its finest carpet wool?
A. Marwari
B. Chokla
C. Nellori
D. Mandya
Q151. Under which of the following industry maximum greenhouse gas emission has taken
place in India?
A. Construction
B. Fossil fuels
C. Industries
D. Agriculture, Forestry & other land use
Q152. Under which of the following scheme 100 days employment is given to people for
unskilled manual labor?
A. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
B. PM Employment Guarantee Scheme
C. PMKVY
D. PM Krishi Vikas Yojana
Q153. Which of the following crop is suitable for crop rotation to enrich soil deficiency of
nitrogen?
A. Wheat
B. Maize
C. Alfalfa
D. Napier grass

Q154. Which of the following is the most serious virus disease that has affected the poultry
Industry in India?
A. Colibacillosis
B. Ranikhet disease
C. Necrotic Enteritis
D. Ulcerative Enteritis
Q155. Which of the following fish breed lives in freshwater but breeds in salt water?
A. Potamodromous
B. Polydromous
C. Catadromous
D. Anadromous
Q156. In which of the following years RBI had introduced the Banking Correspondent Model
to enhance financial inclusion?
A. 2002
B. 2006
C. 1995
D. 2000
E. 1982
Q157. What is the aim of Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana?
A. To provide loans to rural people for Agriculture and allied sectors
B. To provide loans to the poor for healthcare
C. To provide food to the BPL families at low cost
D. To uplift the poor by enhancing sustainable livelihood opportunities through skill

development

Q158. Commodity exchange in India is regulated by _______.
A. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers welfare
B. NABARD
C. SEBI
D. FSSAI
Q159. Which of the following nutrient plays key role in sugar synthesis of sugarcane?
A. Potassium
B. Magnesium
C. Nitrogen
D. Copper
Q160. Inarching grafting method is practiced in which food crop?
A. Ber
B. Sapota
C. Fig
D. All of the above
Q161. Government provides a subsidy of _______ on the purchase of combine harvester
A. 25% of the project cost
B. 40% of the project cost
C. 60% of the project cost
D. 15% of the project cost
Q162. Which of the following soils has the property of self ploughing?
A. Alluvial soils

B. Black soils
C. Laterite soils
D. Red soils
Q163. Which of the following is the knowledge partner of the committee on doubling
farmers income by 2022?
A. NITI Ayog
B. National Council of Applied Economic Research
C. National Institute of Agricultural Marketing
D. Department of Agriculture and Farmers welfare
Q164. “Swasth Dhara Khet Hara” is a slogan of which of the following government schemes?
A. PMKVY
B. PMKISAN Yojana
C. PMFBY
D. Soil Health Card scheme
Q165. Which of the following is the most dominant factor of soil degradation in semi-arid
zones in India?
A. Soil erosion
B. Deforestration
C. Overgrazing
D. Barren lands
Q166. Which of the following acts a trap crop for Onion leafminer?
A. Cucumber
B. Tomato

C. Fennel
D. Beans
Q167. Lancing is practiced in which crop?
A. Groundnut
B. Sesamum
C. Okra
D. Onion
E. Opium
Q168. Which of the following is more important that goes as an input in determination of
MSP but is not the only deciding MSP by CACP?
A. Cost of Marketing
B. Cost of Production
C. Cost of HYVs seeds
D. Cost of Plant protection chemicals
Q169. Elephant grass is popularly called as _____
A. Napier grass
B. Lucerne
C. Berseem
D. Clover
Q170. According to IMD rainy day is defined as _____________
A. a day with rainfall of 10 mm or more rainfall
B. a day with rainfall of 2.5 mm or more rainfall
C. a day with rainfall of 4 mm or more rainfall
D. a day with rainfall of 7.5 mm or more rainfall

Q171. Which of the following committee has recommended democratic decentralization

which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj?
A. Kothari committee
B. Sivaraman committee
C. Balwant Rai Mehta committee
D. Mohan Rao Committee
Q172. Which of the following soil has the best water retention?
A. Sandy soils
B. Clayey soils
C. Silt soils
D. Gravelly soils
Q173. Which state has the largest area under micro irrigation scheme?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Maharashtra
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Rajasthan
Q174. PSS (Price Support Scheme) and PDPS (Price Deficiency Payment Scheme) are the
components of which of the following schemes?
A. PM KISAN scheme
B. PM AASHA scheme
C. PMFBY
D. PMKVY

Q175. Economic life of layer poultry bird is ______ weeks?
A. 5-8 weeks
B. 12-15 weeks
C. 16-18 weeks
D. 18-20 weeks
E. 21-72 weeks
Q176. Under Interest Subvention Scheme, RBI sanctions loan upto _____ lakh with the
interest rate of 7%.?
A. 10 Lakhs
B. 7 Lakhs
C. 3 Lakhs
D. 1.5 Lakhs
E. 2.5 lakhs
Q177. Which of the following statement is correct regarding minor irrigation scheme?
A. It covers command area of 2000 hectares
B. It covers command area of 4000 hectares
C. It covers command area of 8000 hectares
D. It covers command area of 10000 hectares
Q178. Which of the following states is the highest producer of sunflower?
A. Kerala
B. Karnataka
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Andhra Pradesh
E. Maharashtra
Q179. Tipping is practiced in which of the following crops?
A. Cocoa

B. Coffee
C. Tea
D. Banana
E. Coconut
Q180. State of Maharashtra has topped the list of states is terms of MSME registration in
Udyam Portal. Which of the following states is second after Maharashtra as per a
newspaper report, released recently in February 2021?
A. Gujarat
B. Kerala
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Madhya Pradesh
E. Haryana
Section: - Computer Knowledge

Q181. A printer that cannot print the graphics?
A. Daisy Wheel printer
B. Ink jet printer
C. Laser printer
D. Digital printer
Q182. Which of the following chart is not present with the MS-Excel?
A. Bar graph
B. Dot chart
C. Line graph
D. Pie chart
Q183. Which of the following is false about the hyperlinks in the MS-Word?
A. It is a reference to data that the user can follow by clicking or tapping

B. Hyperlinks are underlined
C. Hyperlinks are highlighted in italics and bold
D. Hyperlinks can be created in MS word
Q184. Which directs the components of a computer to perform tasks that are specified in
program instruction?
A. Monitor
B. Printer
C. Keyboard
D. Control Unit
Q185. What is the responsibility of the logical unit of the computer?
A. To produce results
B. To compare numbers
C. To control flow of information
D. To do maths work
Q186. Which of the following appears in MS- excel that says the results are too long to fit
in the cell?
A. *******
B. #######
C. @@@@@@
D. $$$$$$$$
Q187. Cold boot is done when?
A. a wrong entry is done
B. no power supply

C. switching from one programme to other
D. Pressing the power button
Q188. What is the example of PAN?
A. Bluetooth
B. Switches
C. Router
D. Firewall
Q189. A virus that fools the user into downloading and or executing them by pretending to
be useful application is?
A. Morris worm
B. Ransomware
C. Cryptolock
D. Trojan horse
Q190. What is the logical address assigned to a PC, Printer, Router etc on network?
A. CP address
B. IP address
C. Logical address
D. Hardware address
Q191. What is DPI in printing?
A. Diagram per inch
B. Dot performance inch
C. Diagram per ink
D. Dots Per Inch

Q192. What is the string of characters that defines the address of the webpage?
A. Uniform Resource Locator
B. IP address
C. DPI
D. DRL
Q193. Which of the following is an example of Hardware?
A. Mouse
B. Kayboard
C. Monitor
D. Printer
E. All of the above
Q194. Unwanted mails received in an user account are called as?
A. Virus mails
B. Spam mails
C. Unwanted mails
D. Series mails
Q195. What is the shortcut for selecting all in MS-Word?
A. Ctrl+D
B. Ctrl+P
C. Ctrl+S
D. Ctrl+A
Q196. What is the standard interface for connecting storage devices like harddisk and CD-
ROM devices inside PC?

A. PETA
B. ATA/SATA
C. TROT
D. IP
Q197. Which of these gives continuous power supply to a PC?
A. ATA
B. PSU
C. IMPS
D. SMPS (Switched mode Power supply)
Q198. RAM is volatile in nature and ROM is non volatile in nature?
A. Both RAM and ROM are Non volatile in nature
B. False
C. True
D. Both RAM and ROM are volatile in nature
Q199. The high-speed internet connection using phone line and allows user to use the
phone for voice communication at the same time?
A. DSL
B. PSL
C. DPL
D. MSL
Q200. Which of the following is not the input device?
A. Speaker
B. Mouse

C. Keyboard
D. Microphone
E. Sound Card

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1|P ag e www. ed u ta p. co.i n Query? hello@edutap.co.

4|P ag e www. ed u ta p. co.i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

5|P ag e www. ed u ta p. co.i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

6|P ag e www. ed u ta p. co.i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

7|P ag e www. ed u ta p. co.i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

8|P ag e www. ed u ta p. co.i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

Q21. Who lives immediately below U?

9|P ag e www. ed u ta p. co.i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

Some stains are fast.

Some Sword are Pistol.

10 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

Some crows are doll.

II. Some crows are clove.

11 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

All fans are bans.

12 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

13 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

E. Both I and II follow

14 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

Section: - English Language

A. found the threading between two points

15 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

A. consequences damaging arising

B. have increasing starting opted to

16 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

17 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

18 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

19 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

20 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

21 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

22 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

23 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

24 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

25 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

26 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

27 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

Section: - General Awareness

28 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

C. Akkitham Achuthan Namboothiri

29 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

30 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

A. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)

B. National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development (NABARD)

D. National Housing Bank (NHB)

E. National Institute of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj

31 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

A. Educate for sustainable development

B. Learning for people, planet, prosperity and peace

C. Educate for our prosperous future

D. Educate for our sustainable future

E. None of the above

32 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

Section: - Economics & Social Issues (ESI)

33 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241

Q102. What is India’s rank in Human Development Index 2019?

Q104. Sustaining agricultural productivity depends on quality and availability of natural

A. Rainfed Area Development (RAD)