Engineering Science and Allied Subjects Which of the following stresses has an area perpendicular to the

force?
A. Normal stress
B. Shear stress
What is the moment of inertia of a circle of radius r? C. Flexural stress
4
A. πr /16 D. Torsional stress
4
B. πr /2
4
C. πr /64
4
D. πr /4 Which of the following type of loadings does fatigue occurs?
A. Plane load
The moment of inertia of the circle with respect to its centroidal B. Static load
moment of inertia. C. Moving load
A. 2 D. Repeated load
B. 3
C. 4 It is a quantity which measures the resistance of the mass to
D. 5 being revolved about the line.
A. Modulus of elasticity
The moment of inertia of a rectangle with respect to the base B. Strain
is___ times its moment of inertia with respect to the centroid. C. Stress
A. 2 D. Moment of inertia
B. 3
C. 4 The change in length per degree rise in temperature.
D. 5 A. Volume expansivity
B. Ideal gas temperature
What is the mass moment of inertia of a sphere of mass m and C. Linear expansivity
radius r? D. Temperature scale
2
A. ½ mr
2
B. ¼mr Which of the following refers to the stress at failure?
2
C. 1/3 mr A. Working stress
2
D. 2/5 mr B. Allowable stress
C. Rupture strength
Given a cylinder of radius r, altitude h and mass m. What is its D. Ultimate strength
mass moment of inertia?
2
A. ½ mr If a load is applied through the centroid of a tension or
2
B. 1/3 mr compression member’s section, what type of loading is it?
2
C. ¼ mr A. Local loading
2
D. 2/5 mr B. Neutral loading
C. Eccentric loading
A structure is called _____ if at least one of its individual member D. Axial loading
is a multiforce member.
A. Truss Which of the following refers to the ratio of the unit lateral
B. Frame deformation to the unit longitudinal deformation?
C. Three-hinged arch A. Mohr’s ratio
D. Bridge B. Young’s ratio
C. Poisson ratio
Is the change in shape of any materials when subjected to the D. Slenderness ratio
action of a force.
A. Moment of inertia What is the ratio of stress to strain below the proportional limit?
B. Modulus of elasticity A. Poisson ratio
C. Strain B. Young’s ratio
D. Stress C. Hooke’s constant
D. Modulus of rigidity
Which of the following forces can a roller support hold?
A. Only horizontal forces In the linear elastic region of the stress-strain diagram, what do
B. Both horizontal and vertical forces simultaneously you call the slope of the curve?
C. Only vertical forces A. Elastic limit
D. Either vertical or horizontal forces but not both B. Modulus of elasticity
C. Ultimate strength
Which of the following laws expressed relation between stress D. Proportional limit
and strain?
A. Poisson’s law In bending of a rectangular beam due to axial loading, where is
B. Newton’s law the location of maximum shear stress?
C. Young’s law A. At the top edge
D. Hooke’s law B. At the bottom edge
C. At the neutral axis
What do you call the inelastic (plastic) failure of the beam? D. At the location between the top edge and the neutral
A. Moment axis
B. Rotation
C. Buckling To prevent translation while permitting rotation, a structure must
D. Crippling be added with:
A. Rivert
What loading occurs when the load is not applied through the B. Bearing
centroid? C. Hinge
A. Axial loading D. Roller
B. Local loading
C. Neutral loading What is the smallest part of a compound that still retains the
D. Eccentric loading properties of that compound?
A. Alloy
B. Element
C. Molecule
D. Unit cell
When a solid has a crystalline structure, the atoms arranged in The greatest stress which a material is capable of withstanding
repeating structures called ______. without a deviation from acceptable of stress to strain is called
A. Lattice _____.
B. Unit cell A. Elongation
C. Crystal B. Proportional limit
D. Domain C. Yield point
D. Elastic limit

What type of bonding refers to the sharing of electrons? What is the maximum stress below which a material can
A. Covalent bonding theoretically endure an infinite number of stress cycles?
B. Van der waals bonding A. Endurance state
C. Metallic bonding B. Endurance test
D. Ionic bonding C. Endurance limit
D. Endurance strength
What refers to a crystal imperfection characterized by regions of
severe atomic misfit where atoms are not properly surrounded by What is a substance that attracts piece of iron?
neighbor atoms? A. Conductor
A. Discrystallization B. Semiconductor
B. Dislocation C. Magnet
C. Slip step D. All of the choices
D. Dispertion
Which of the following is a natural magnet?
What do you call metals reinforced by ceramics or other A. Steel
materials, usually in fiber form? B. Magnesia
A. Metalloids C. Lodestone
B. Matrix alloys D. Soft iron
C. Metal lattices
D. Metal matrix composites Which of the following materials has permeability slightly less
than that of free space?
What is the usual valence of nonmetallic elements? A. Paramagnetic materials
A. 5 B. Non-magnetic materials
B. 6 C. Ferromagnetic materials
C. 7 D. Diamagnetic materials
D. All of the choices
What materials has permeabilities slighter than that of free
What mechanical property of a material refers to the nominal space?
stress at fracture in a tension test at constant load and constant A. Paramagnetic materials
temperature? B. Non-magnetic materials
A. Creep strength C. Ferromagnetic materials
B. Stress rupture strength D. Diamagnetic materials
C. Compressive yield strength
D. Hardness Which of the following materials have very high permeabilities?
A. Paramagnetic materials
What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to B. Non-magnetic materials
plastic deformation? C. Ferromagnetic materials
A. Rigidity D. Diamagnetic materials
B. Plasticity
C. Ductility A large molecule with two alternating mers is known as?
D. Hardness A. monomer
B. elastomer
What typical penetrator is used in Brinell hardness test? C. mers
A. 10 mm ball D. copolymer or interpolymer
o
B. 120 diamond (brale)
C. 1.6 mm diameter ball What group of steels are water-hardened tool steels?
o
D. 20 needle A. Group S
B. Group W
What parameter is defined as the temperature at which the C. Group O
toughness of the material drops below some predetermined D. Group T
value, usually 15 ft-lb?
A. Nil ductility temperature What group of steels are molybdenum high-speed steels?
B. Curie temperature A. Group A
C. Thermal conductivity B. Group D
D. Heat distortion temperature C. Group M
D. Group H
What is obtained by repeatedly loading a specimen at given
stress levels until it fails? Steels that are used for axles, gears, and similar parts requiring
A. Elastic limit medium to high hardness and high strength are known as?
B. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material A. Medium-carbon steel
C. Creep B. Low-carbon steel
D. All of the choices C. Very high-carbon steel
D. High-carbon steel
What dimensional property of a material refers to the deviation
from edge straightness? Low-quality steels with an M suffix on the designation intended
A. Lay for nonstructural application is classified as ______.
B. Out of flat A. Merchant quality
C. Camber B. Commercial quality
D. Waviness C. Drawing quality
D. Special quality
The use of acids to remove oxides and scale on hot worked What is the scaling off of a surface in flakes or layers as the
steels is known as ______. result of corrosion?
A. Tempering A. Expoliation
B. Pickling B. Corrosion Fatigue
C. Machining C. Scaping
D. Galvanizing D. Fretting

The purpose of molybdenum in steel alloying is to? What corrosion occurs under organic coatings on metals as fine,
A. Increase brittleness wavy hairlines?
B. Increase dynamic and high-temperature strength A. Stray current corrosion
and hardness B. Microbiological corrosion
C. reduce brittleness, combine with sulfur C. Filiform corrosion
D. increase corrosion and resistance D. Fretting corrosion

Indicate the false statement. What refers to the deterioration of material by oscillatory relative
A. About 10% of the earth’s crust is iron. motion of small amplitude (20 to 100 µm) between two solid
B. Pure iron does not have significant industrial use surfaces in a corrosive environment?
because it is too weak and soft. A. Stray current corrosion
C. Steel is an alloy of carbon and iron with limits on the B. Microbiological corrosion
amount of carbon (less than 2%) C. Filiform corrosion
D. Steel is made by reducing oxide ore of iron by D. Fretting corrosion
thermochemical reactions in a blast furnace or direct
reduction vessel. Indicate the false statement about corrosion.
A. Plastics and ceramics are immune to many forms of
What does AISI stands for? corrosion because they are not good conductors of
A. Asian Institute of Steel Industries electricity.
B. American Institute of Steel Industries B. The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the
C. Association of Iron and Steel Industries cathode.
D. American Iron and Steel Institute C. Passivity is a prerequisite for the corrosion protection of
many metals
What does SAE stands for? D. Corrosion of metals is usually electrochemical in nature.
A. Society of Automotive Engineers
B. Society of American Engineers Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with limits on the amount of
C. Society of Architects and Engineers carbon to less than ______ percent.
D. Society of Alloy Engineers A. 2
B. 3
The following statements are true except one. Which one? C. 4
A. Carburizing does not harden a steel D. 1% to 5%
B. Flame and induction hardening require the use of
hardenable steels. What refers to the application of any process whereby the
C. Quench-hardened steel does not require tempering surface of steel is altered so that it will become hard?
to prevent brittleness. A. Carburizing
D. Induction hardening is usually most efficient on small B. Casehardening
parts. C. Annealing
D. Surface hardening
Which of the following is a requirement for hardening a steel?
A. Heating to the proper temperature What refers to the ability of steel to be hardened through to its
B. Sufficient carbon content center in large section?
C. Adequate quench A. Malleability
D. All of the choices B. Hardenability
C. Spheroidability
What field of study encompasses the procurement and D. Rigidity
production of metals?
A. Metallurgy What is the equilibrium temperature of transformation of
B. Geology austenite to pearlite?
o
C. Material Science A. 1000 F
o
D. Metalgraphy B. 1333 F
o
C. 1666 F
o
What do you call earth and stone missed with the iron oxides? D. 1222 F
A. Hematite
B. Magnetite What structure is formed when transformation occurs at
C. Gangue temperatures down to the knee of the curve?
D. Ore A. Pearlite
B. Bainite
What is a coal that has been previously burned in an oxygen- C. Austenite
poor environment? D. Martensite
A. Tuyere
B. Coke What allotropic form of iron refers to iron that has a temperature
o
C. Diamond range of room temperature to 1670 F?
D. Hematite A. Beta iron
B. Gamma iron
What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper? C. Delta iron
A. Brass D. Alpha iron
B. Zinc
C. Nickle The alpha iron will become paramagnetic at temperature above
D. Aluminum _____.
o
A. 770 C
o
What do you call the removal of zinc from brasses? B. 550 C
o
A. Dezincification C. 660 C
o
B. Graphitization D. 440 C
C. Stabilization
D. Dealloying
What is the effect to aluminum with iron as the alloying element? What is formed when acids will react with active metals?
A. Reduce hot-cracking tendencies in casting A. Sulfur
B. Improve conductivity B. Oxygen
C. Lowers castability C. Hydrogen
D. Improves machinability D. Chloride

What is the effect to aluminum with copper as alloying element? How much is the pH content of an acid?
A. Increases strength up to about 12 % A. Between 4 and 6
B. Reduces shrinkage B. Between 2 and 7
C. Improves machinability C. Between 1 and 5
D. Increases fluidity in casting D. Between 0 and 7

Which of the following are two well-known nickel alloys with The condition of a liquid electrolyte is measured in terms of its:
magnetic properties ideal for permanent magnets? A. Specific gravity
A. Invar and Nilvar B. Acid content
B. Nichrome and Constantan C. Voltage output
C. Elinvar and Invar D. Current value
D. Alnico and Cunife
What is a substance that speeds up a chemical reaction without
The Portland cement is manufacture from the dollowing elements itself undergoing a chemical change?
except: A. Ingredients
A. Lime B. Reactants
B. Silica C. Solvent
C. Alumina D. Catalyst
D. Asphalt
How are elements numbered 90 to 103 in the periodic table
What gives the average ratio of stress to strain for materials called?
operating in the nonlinear region in the stress-strain diagram? A. Alkali
A. Modulus of elasticity B. Actinons
B. Proportionality limit C. Earth metals
C. Secant modulus D. Transition elements
D. Tangent modulus
What Is defined as a value equal to the number of gram moles of
What is the ratio of the ultimate failure strain to the yielding solute per 1000 grams of solvent?
strain? A. Molality
A. Poisson’s ratio B. Normality
B. Ductility C. Molarity
C. Resilience D. Formality
D. Fatigue
Which of the following is NOT a part of a atom?
What do you call materials that do not conduct electric current? A. Electron
A. Conductor B. Proton
B. Insulator C. Neutron
C. Semi-conductor D. Coulomb
D. Intrinsic material
It is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.
What element is known as the lightest metal? A. Molecular number
A. Aluminum B. Proton number
B. Manganese C. Mass number
C. Magnesium D. Atomic number
D. Lithium
What do you call the elements in the first two groups in the
Which of the following is energy removal being applied? periodic table?
A. Evaporation of water A. Light metals
B. Changing water to stream B. Noble gas
C. Changing water to ice C. Non-metals
D. All of these D. Heavy metals

Halogens falls under what group in the periodic table? Which one refers to the number of gram-moles of solute per liter
A. Group VIA of solution?
B. Group VA A. Molality
C. Group IVA B. Normality
D. Group VIIA C. Molarity
D. Formality
Which of the following is added to the drinking water distribution
system for disinfection? What type of bonding is electrostatic attraction most
A. Soda ash predominant?
B. Chlorine A. Ionic
C. Lime B. Metallic
D. Iodine C. Covalent
D. Van der waals
What refers to the number of gram equivalent weights of solute
per liter of solution? When the charge of an atom becomes unbalanced, the charge
A. Molality atom is called _______.
B. Normality A. An ion
C. Molarity B. A neutron
D. Formality C. A proton
D. An electron
Is the attraction between like molecules.
A. Absorption
B. Diffusion
C. Adhesion
D. Cohesion
Which of the following type of reactions in which bonds within a
compound are disrupted by heat or other energy to produce Which of the following type of loadings does fatigue occurs?
simpler compounds or elements? A. Plane load
A. Direct combination or synthesis B. Static load
B. Decomposition or analysis C. Moving load
C. Single displacement D. Repeated load
D. Double displacement
Which of the following refers to the stress at failure?
A pair of electrical conductors of dissimilar materials so joined as A. Working stress
to produce a thermal emf when the junctions are of different B. Allowable stress
temperatures. C. Rupture strength
A. Potentiometer D. Ultimate strength
B. Piezoelectric
C. Thermocouple If a load is applied through the centroid of a tension or
D. Solar heating compression member’s section, what type of loading is it?
A. Local loading
The moment of inertia of the circle with respect to its centroidal B. Neutral loading
moment of inertia. C Eccentric loading
A. 2 D. Axial loading
B. 3
C. 4 Which of the following refers to the ratio of the unit lateral
D. 5 deformation to the unit longitudinal deformation?
A. Mohr’s ratio
The moment of inertia of a rectangle with respect to the base B. Young’s ratio
is___ times its moment of inertia with respect to the centroid. C. Poisson ratio
A. 2 D. Slenderness ratio
B. 3
C. 4 What is the ratio of stress to strain below the proportional limit?
D. 5 A. Poisson ratio
B. Young’s ratio
What is the mass moment of inertia of a sphere of mass m and C. Hooke’s constant
radius r? D. Modulus of rigidity
2
A. ½ mr
2
B. ¼mr In the linear elastic region of the stress-strain diagram, what do
2
C. 1/3 mr you call the slope of the curve?
2
D. 2/5 mr A. Elastic limit
B. Modulus of elasticity
A structure is called _____ if at least one of its individual member C. Ultimate strength
is a multiforce member. D. Proportional limit
A. Truss
B. Frame In bending of a rectangular beam due to axial loading, where is
C. Three-hinged arch the location of maximum shear stress?
D. Bridge A. At the top edge
B. At the bottom edge
Is the change in shape of any materials when subjected to the C. At the neutral axis
action of a force. D. At the location between the top edge and the neutral
A. Moment of inertia axis
B. Modulus of elasticity
C. Strain To prevent translation while permitting rotation, a structure must
D. Stress be added with:
A. Rivet
Which of the following forces can a roller support hold? B. Bearing
A. Only horizontal forces C. Hinge
B. Both horizontal and vertical forces simultaneously D. Roller
C. Only vertical forces
D. Either vertical or horizontal forces but not both What is the smallest part of a compound that still retains the
properties of that compound?
Which of the following laws expressed relation between stress A. Alloy
and strain? B. Element
A. Poisson’s law C. Molecule
B. Newton’s law D. Unit cell
C. Young’s law
D. Hooke’s law When a solid has a crystalline structure, the atoms arranged in
repeating structures called ______.
What do you call the inelastic (plastic) failure of the beam? A. Lattice
A. Moment B. Unit cell
B. Rotation C. Crystal
C. Buckling D. Domain
D. Crippling
What type of bonding refers to the sharing of electrons?
What loading occurs when the load is not applied through the A. Covalent bonding
centroid? B. Van der waals bonding
A. Axial loading C. Metallic bonding
B. Local loading D. Ionic bonding
C. Neutral loading
D. Eccentric loading What refers to a crystal imperfection characterized by regions of
severe atomic misfit where atoms are not properly surrounded by
Which of the following stresses has an area perpendicular to the neighbor atoms?
force? A. Discrystallization
A. Normal stress B. Dislocation
B. Shear stress C. Slip step
C. Flexural stress D. Dispertion
D. Torsional stress
What do you call metals reinforced by ceramics or other What materials has permeabilities slighter than that of free
materials, usually in fiber form? space?
A. Metalloids A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Matrix alloys B. Non-magnetic materials
C. Metal lattices C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Metal matrix composites D. Diamagnetic materials

What is the usual valence of nonmetallic elements? Which of the following materials have very high permeabilities?
A. 5 A. Paramagnetic materials
B. 6 B. Non-magnetic materials
C. 7 C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. All of the choices D. Diamagnetic materials

What mechanical property of a material refers to the nominal Low-quality steels with an M suffix on the designation intended
stress at fracture in a tension test at constant load and constant for nonstructural application is classified as ______.
temperature? A. Merchant quality
A. Creep strength B. Commercial quality
B. Stress rupture strength C. Drawing quality
C. Compressive yield strength D. Special quality
D. Hardness
The use of acids to remove oxides and scale on hot worked
What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to steels is known as ______.
plastic deformation? A. Tempering
A. Rigidity B. Pickling
B. Plasticity C. Machining
C. Ductility D. Galvanizing
D. Hardness
The purpose of molybdenum in steel alloying is to?
What typical penetrator is used in Brinell hardness test? A. Increase brittleness
A. 10 mm ball B. Increase dynamic and high-temperature strength
o
B. 120 diamond (brale) and hardness
C. 1.6 mm diameter ball C. reduce brittleness, combine with sulfur
o
D. 20 needle D. increase corrosion and resistance

What parameter is defined as the temperature at which the Indicate the false statement.
toughness of the material drops below some predetermined A. About 10% of the earth’s crust is iron.
value, usually 15 ft-lb? B. Pure iron does not have significant industrial use
A. Nil ductility temperature because it is too weak and soft.
B. Curie temperature C. Steel is an alloy of carbon and iron with limits on the
C. Thermal conductivity amount of carbon (less than 2%)
D. Heat distortion temperature D. Steel is made by reducing oxide ore of iron by
thermochemical reactions in a blast furnace or direct
What is obtained by repeatedly loading a specimen at given reduction vessel.
stress levels until it fails?
A. Elastic limit What does AISI stands for?
B. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material A. Asian Institute of Steel Industries
C. Creep B. American Institute of Steel Industries
D. All of the choices C. Association of Iron and Steel Industries
D. American Iron and Steel Institute
What dimensional property of a material refers to the deviation
from edge straightness? What does SAE stands for?
A. Lay A. Society of Automotive Engineers
B. Out of flat B. Society of American Engineers
C. Camber C. Society of Architects and Engineers
D. Waviness D. Society of Alloy Engineers

What is the maximum stress below which a material can The following statements are true except one. Which one?
theoretically endure an infinite number of stress cycles? A. Carburizing does not harden a steel
A. Endurance state B. Flame and induction hardening require the use of
B. Endurance test hardenable steels.
C. Endurance limit C. Quench-hardened steel does not require tempering
D. Endurance strength to prevent brittleness.
D. Induction hardening is usually most efficient on small
What is a substance that attracts piece of iron? parts.
A. Conductor
B. Semiconductor Which of the following is a requirement for hardening a steel?
C. Magnet A. Heating to the proper temperature
D. All of the choices B. Sufficient carbon content
C. Adequate quench
Which of the following is a natural magnet? D. All of the choices
A. Steel
B. Magnesia What field of study encompasses the procurement and
C. Lodestone production of metals?
D. Soft iron A. Metallurgy
B. Geology
Which of the following materials has permeability slightly less C. Material Science
than that of free space? D. Metalgraphy
A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non-magnetic materials What do you call earth and stone missed with the iron oxides?
C. Ferromagnetic materials A. Hematite
D. Diamagnetic materials B. Magnetite
C. Gangue
D. Ore
 What structure is formed when transformation occurs at
What is a coal that has been previously burned in an oxygen- temperatures down to the knee of the curve?
poor environment? A. Pearlite
A. Tuyere B. Bainite
B. Coke C. Austenite
C. Diamond D. Martensite
D. Hematite
What allotropic form of iron refers to iron that has a temperature
o
What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper? range of room temperature to 1670 F?
A. Brass A. Beta iron
B. Zinc B. Gamma iron
C. Nickle C. Delta iron
D. Aluminum D. Alpha iron

What do you call the removal of zinc from brasses? The alpha iron will become paramagnetic at temperature above
A. Dezincification _____.
o
B. Graphitization A. 770 C
o
C. Stabilization B. 550 C
o
D. Dealloying C. 660 C
o
D. 440 C
What is the scaling off of a surface in flakes or layers as the
result of corrosion? What is the effect to aluminum with iron as the alloying element?
A. Expoliation A. Reduce hot-cracking tendencies in casting
B. Corrosion Fatigue B. Improve conductivity
C. Scaping C. Lowers castability
D. Fretting D. Improves machinability

What corrosion occurs under organic coatings on metals as fine, What is the effect to aluminum with copper as alloying element?
wavy hairlines? A. Increases strength up to about 12 %
A. Stray current corrosion B. Reduces shrinkage
B. Microbiological corrosion C. Improves machinability
C. Filiform corrosion D. Increases fluidity in casting
D. Fretting corrosion
Which of the following are two well-known nickel alloys with
What refers to the deterioration of material by oscillatory relative magnetic properties ideal for permanent magnets?
motion of small amplitude (20 to 100 µm) between two solid A. Invar and Nilvar
surfaces in a corrosive environment? B. Nichrome and Constantan
A. Stray current corrosion C. Elinvar and Invar
B. Microbiological corrosion D. Alnico and Cunife
C. Filiform corrosion
D. Fretting corrosion The Portland cement is manufacture from the dollowing elements
except:
Indicate the false statement about corrosion. A. Lime
A. Plastics and ceramics are immune to many forms of B. Silica
corrosion because they are not good conductors of C. Alumina
electricity. D. Asphalt
B. The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the
cathode. What gives the average ratio of stress to strain for materials
C. Passivity is a prerequisite for the corrosion protection of operating in the nonlinear region in the stress-strain diagram?
many metals A. Modulus of elasticity
D. Corrosion of metals is usually electrochemical in nature. B. Proportionality limit
C. Secant modulus
Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with limits on the amount of D. Tangent modulus
carbon to less than ______ percent.
A. 2 What is the ratio of the ultimate failure strain to the yielding
B. 3 strain?
C. 4 A. Poisson’s ratio
D. 1% to 5% B. Ductility
C. Resilience
What refers to the application of any process whereby the D. Fatigue
surface of steel is altered so that it will become hard?
A. Carburizing What do you call materials that do not conduct electric current?
B. Casehardening A. Conductor
C. Annealing B. Insulator
D. Surface hardening C. Semi-conductor
D. Intrinsic material
What refers to the ability of steel to be hardened through to its
center in large section? What element is known as the lightest metal?
A. Malleability A. Aluminum
B. Hardenability B. Manganese
C. Spheroidability C. Magnesium
D. Rigidity D. Lithium

What is the equilibrium temperature of transformation of Which of the following is energy removal being applied?
austenite to pearlite? A. Evaporation of water
o
A. 1000 F B. Changing water to stream
o
B. 1333 F C. Changing water to ice
o
C. 1666 F D. All of these
o
D. 1222 F
Halogens falls under what group in the periodic table?
A. Group VIA Which one refers to the number of gram-moles of solute per liter
B. Group VA of solution?
C. Group IVA A. Molality
D. Group VIIA B. Normality
C. Molarity
Which of the following is added to the drinking water distribution D. Formality
system for disinfection?
A. Soda ash What type of bonding is electrostatic attraction most
B. Chlorine predominant?
C. Lime A. Ionic
D. Iodine B. Metallic
C. Covalent
What refers to the number of gram equivalent weights of solute D. Van der waals
per liter of solution?
A. Molality When the charge of an atom becomes unbalanced, the charge
B. Normality atom is called _______.
C. Molarity A. An ion
D. Formality B. A neutron
C. A proton
Is the attraction between like molecules. D. An electron
A. Absorption
B. Diffusion Which of the following type of reactions in which bonds within a
C. Adhesion compound are disrupted by heat or other energy to produce
D. Cohesion simpler compounds or elements?
A. Direct combination or synthesis
What is formed when acids will react with active metals? B. Decomposition or analysis
A. Sulfur C. Single displacement
B. Oxygen D. Double displacement
C. Hydrogen
D. Chloride A pair of electrical conductors of dissimilar materials so joined as
to produce a thermal emf when the junctions are of different
How much is the pH content of an acid? temperatures.
A. Between 4 and 6 A. Potentiometer
B. Between 2 and 7 B. Piezoelectric
C. Between 1 and 5 C. Thermocouple
D. Between 0 and 7 D. Solar heating

The condition of a liquid electrolyte is measured in terms of its: Bases will turn red litmus paper to what color?
A. Specific gravity A. Blue
B. Acid content B. Yellow
C. Voltage output C. Violet
D. Current value D. Green

What is a substance that speeds up a chemical reaction without Which of the following refers to the diffusion of a solvent into a
itself undergoing a chemical change? stronger solution in an attempt to equalize the two
A. Ingredients concentrations?
B. Reactants A. Purification
C. Solvent B. Electrolysis
D. Catalyst C. Osmosis
D. Hydrolysis
How are elements numbered 90 to 103 in the periodic table
called? Which of the following will occur if a substance is oxidized?
A. Alkali A. It absorbs energy
B. Actinons B. It losses electron
C. Earth metals C. It becomes more negative
D. Transition elements D. It gives off heat

What Is defined as a value equal to the number of gram moles of What type of reaction has one element and one compound as
solute per 1000 grams of solvent? reactants?
A. Molality A. Direct combination or synthesis
B. Normality B. Decomposition or analysis
C. Molarity C. Single displacement
D. Formality D. Double displacement

Which of the following is NOT a part of a atom? What is the measure of the energy that is no longer available to
A. Electron perform useful work within the current environment? It is also
B. Proton known as the measure of the randomness of the molecules.
C. Neutron A. Entropy
D. Coulomb B. Enthalpy
C. Internal energy
It is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom. D. Flow work
A. Molecular number
B. Proton number What is the temperature when water and vapor are in equilibrium
C. Mass number with the atmospheric pressure?
D. Atomic number A. Ice point
B. Steam point
What do you call the elements in the first two groups in the C. Critical point
periodic table? D. Freezing point
A. Light metals
B. Noble gas
C. Non-metals
D. Heavy metals
What is the unique state at which solid, liquid and gaseous What refers to a system in which there is a flow of mass across
phases can co – exist in equilibrium? the boundaries?
A. Triple point A. Open system
B. Critical point B. Closed system
C. Boiling point C. Isolated system
D. Pour point D. Steady flow system

What refers to the state at which liquid and gaseous phases are When two bodies, isolated from other environment, are in thermal
indistinguishable? equilibrium with a third body, the two are in thermal equilibrium
A. Triple point with each other. What do you call this statement?
B. Critical point A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
C. Boiling point B. First law of thermodynamics
D. Pour point C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics
What refers to the heat needed to change the temperature of the
substance without changing its phase? At equal volume, at the same temperature and pressure
A. Latent heat conditions, the gases contain the same number of molecules.
B. Sensible heat This refers to which of the following laws?
C. Specific heat A. Boyle’s law
D. Entropy B. Charles’ law
C. Dalton’s law
What is defined as the quantity of the heat needed to raise the D. Avogardro’s law
temperature of one kilogram of water by one degree Celsius?
A. Kilojoule In the polytropic process we have P V^n = constant, if the value
B. BTU of infinitely large, the process is called
C. Kilocalorie A. Constant volume process
D. Latent heat B. Constant pressure process
C. Constant temperature process
The thermal efficiency of gas vapor cycle is ______ the thermal D. Adiabatic process
efficiency of a steam turbine or gas turbine
A. Greater than Which of the following is the value of n (from P V^n = C) for a
B. Less than perfect gas undergoing isothermal process?
C. Not comparable A. 0
D. Equal B. 1
C. Infinity
A property that indicates the natural direction of a process was D. n > 1
first described by a German physicist. This property is called
entropy. Who coined the word entropy? What is used for predicting the behavior of non – ideal gas?
A. Rudolf Clausius A. Compressibility factor
B. Lord Kelvin B. Expansivity factor
C. Gabriel Volks C. Emissivity factor
D. Rudolf Diesel D. Vann – d’ Whal’s factor

What is the temperature when water and vapor are in equilibrium For nay reversible thermodynamic process, which of the following
with the atmospheric pressure? statements is true regarding the change in entropy?
A. Ice point A. dS = dQ/T
B. Steam point B. dS = 0
C. Critical point C. dS < 0
D. Freezing point D. dS > 0

When the expansion or compression of gas takes place without Which of the following processes where the equation dQ = T dS
transfer of heat to or from the gas, the process is called is applicable?
A. Reversible A. Irreversible
B. Adiabatic B. Isometric
C. Polytropic C. Reversible
D. Isothermal D. Isothermal

What refers to the liquid whose temperature is lower than the Which of the following thermodynamic relations is not correct?
saturation temperature corresponding to the existing pressure? A. Q = U + W
A. Subcooled liquid B. T dS = dU + pdV
B. Saturated liquid C. dH = T dS + V dp
C. Pure liquid D. H = U – pV
D. Compressed liquid
Which of the following thermodynamic devices operates the
Which law that states “Entropy of all perfect crystalline solids is reverse of the heat engine?
zero at absolute zero temperature”? A. Thermal pump
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics B. Thermal evaporator
B. First law of thermodynamics C. Thermal condenser
C. Second law of thermodynamics D. Thermal equilibrant
D. Third law of thermodynamics
Which of the following statements is false?
Which one of the choices below refers to a system that is A. Wavelengths of visible light is greater than
completely impervious to its surrounding or neither mass nor wavelengths of microwave
energy cross the boundaries? B. Frequency of ultraviolet is greater than the frequency of
A. Open system infrared
B. Closed system C. Frequency of radio waves is less than the frequency of
C. Isolated system infrared waves
D. Nonflow system D. Wavelengths of x – rays is greater than the wavelengths
of gamma rays
In music, which of the following is used in place of frequency? It refers to the magnitude of the auditory sensation produced by
A. Beat the sound
B. Tone A. Loudness
C. Pitch B. Intensity
D. Node C. Pitch
D. Tone
What is the time required for a vibrating object to complete one
full cycle? Which of the following waves that can travel in vacuum?
A. Frequency A. Light waves
B. Amplitude B. Sound waves
C. Period C. Longitudinal waves
D. Time constant D. Particle waves

The period of a simple harmonic oscillation is dependent to the What is the classification of the fluid flow if the fluid travels
following EXCEPT parallel to the adjacent layers and the paths of the individual
A. Mass particles do not cross each other?
B. Amplitude A. Steady flow
C. Frequency B. Laminar flow
D. Force constant C. Uniform flow
D. Turbulent flow
Which of the following is true about the energy difference
between adjacent energy levels? Which of the following refers to the measure of a fluid’s sensitivity
A. It is the same for all quantum numbers to changes in viscosity with changes in temperature?
B. It is smaller for small quantum numbers A. Viscosity index
C. It is larger for small quantum numbers B. Coefficient of viscosity
D. None of these C. Viscosity ratio
D. Viscosity factor
Which one is the Planck’s constant?
A. 6.63 x 10^(-34) J s According to Archimedes’ principle, the buoyant force on a
B. 6.42 x 10^(-32) J s submerged object is equal to
C. 7.33 x 10^(-32) J s A. Weight of the fluid not being displaced
D. 5.56 x 10^(-34) J s B. Weight of the displaced fluid
C. Weight of the object above the fluid surface
Before it travels through the earth’s atmosphere, a sunlight is D. Weight of the fluid displaced and the total weight of the
mostly what? object
A. Visible light
B. Ultraviolet radiation Which of the following refers to the measure of the fluid’s
C. Infrared radiation resistance to flow when acted upon by an external force?
D. Blue light A. Specific gravity
B. Specific volume
If the distance between a sound source and a listener is C. Coefficient of resistance
changing, the frequency heard will differ from the frequency D. Viscosity
emitted. If the distance is decreasing, the frequency is higher and
if the distance is increasing, the frequency will be shifted lower. What do you call the input power delivered by the motor to the
What do you call this shifting effect? pump?
A. Skin effect A. Nameplate power
B. Hall’s effect B. Brake horsepower
C. Decibel’s effect C. Hydraulic power
D. Doppler’s effect D. Effective power

Which light contains wavelengths of all or nearly all colors? If one end of the manometer opens to the air, what do you call
A. White light this manometer?
B. Laser A. Continuous manometer
C. X – rays B. Open manometer
D. Gamma rays C. Free end manometer
D. Differential manometer
Which one is the Boltzmann’s constant?
A. 1.56 x 10^(-23) J/K An instrument use to measure small pressure
B. 1.38 x 10^(-23) J/K A. Venture
C. 1.42 x 10^(-22) J/K B. Orifice
D. 1.23 x 10^(-22) J/K C. Aneroid
D. Manometer
What is the measure of the lumen output per watt input produced
by the light source? Which of the following ratios describe Reynolds number?
A. Lumen A. Inertial forces / Viscous forces
B. Efficacy B. Drag forces / Buoyant forces
C. Quality factor C. Buoyant forces / Inertial forces
D. Coefficient of utilization D. Viscous forces / Drag forces

Max Planck made the revolutionary discovery that the energy of This law states that the pressure applied at any point of a
vibrating molecules involved in blackbody radiation existed only confined fluid is transmitted equally to all other points. What law
in which of the following? is this?
A. Multiples of certain fixed amounts A. Newton’s law
B. Amounts that smoothly graded one into the next B. Boyle’s law
C. The same, constant amount of energy in all situations C. Pascal’s law
D. Amounts that were never consistent from one D. Charles’ law
experiment to the next
In a floating object, what do you call the distance between the
center of gravity and the metacenter?
A. Metacentric height
B. Metacentric head
C. Buoyancy head
D. Submerged height
What is a check valve? What do you call the power required to deliver a given quantity of
A. A valve used to check the pressure of fluid fluid against a given head with no losses in the pump?
B. A valve that allows the fluid to flow in either direction A. Wheel power
C. A valve designed to release the excess pressure B. Brake power
D. A valve designed to allow the fluid to flow in one C. Hydraulic power
direction only D. Specific power

This tube is bent or curved and carries fluid from one container at The conservation of the energy equation used in any fluid
a high elevation to another container at a lower elevation. analysis is based on
A. Siphon A. First law of thermodynamics
B. Impact tube B. Second law of thermodynamics
C. Pilot tube C. Newton’s second law of motion
D. Venture tube D. Coulomb’s first law of electrostatics

Poise is a unit of viscosity derived from What do you call the market situation whereby there is only one
A. Dyne second per sq. cm buyer of an item for which there are no goods substitute?
B. Pound second per sq. ft. A. Monopsony
C. Slugs second per sq. ft. B. Monopoly
D. Gram second per sq. cm C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopsony
What is the velocity of the fluid particle at the center of the pipe?
A. Minimum What is the method of computing depreciation in which the
B. Maximum annual change is a fixed percentage of the depreciated book
C. Between maximum and minimum value at the beginning of the year to which the depreciation
D. Zero applies?
A. Straight line method
It refers to weight of the fluid per unit volume. B. Sinking fund method
A. Absolute weight C. SYD method
B. Mass D. Declining balance method
C. Specific weight
D. Gravitational acceleration What refers to the ratio of the interest payment to the principal for
a given unit of time and usually expressed as a percentage of the
Bernoulli’s law for fluid flow is based on the principles of principal?
A. Conservation of mass A. Return of investment
B. Conservation of energy B. Interest rate
C. Newton’s second law of motion C. Yield
D. Continuity equation D. Rate of return

Which of the following is NOT a reaction turbine? What is defined as the future value minus the present value?
A. Francis turbine A. Yield
B. Thomson turbine B. Rate of return
C. Pelton wheel turbine C. Capital
D. Kaplan turbine D. Discount

Which of the following is an empirical factor that accounts for the What bond whose security is a mortgage on certain specified
friction and turbulence at the orifice? assets of the corporation?
A. Coefficient of friction A. Registered bond
B. Coefficient of contraction B. Collateral trust bond
C. Coefficient of velocity C. Mortgage bond
D. Coefficient of discharge D. Debenture bond

What do you call the difference between the brake and hydraulic A bond without any security behind them except a promise to pay
powers in a pump? by the issuing corporation is called
A. Friction power A. Joint bond
B. Discharge power B. Debenture bond
C. Suction power C. Trust bond
D. Water power D. Common bond

Which of the following turbines are generally employed where the A type of bond where the corporation pledges securities which it
available head is very high, typically above 800 to 1600 ft? owns such as the stock or bonds of one of its subsidiaries
A. Reaction turbine A. Mortgage bond
B. Propeller type turbine B. Joint bond
C. Francis turbine C. Security bond
D. Impulse turbine D. Collateral trust bond

Absolute viscosity of a fluid varies with the pressure and What type of bond where the corporation’s owners name are
temperature and is defined as a function of recorded and the interest is paid periodically to the owners with
A. Density and angular deformation rate their asking for it?
B. Density and shear stress A. Preferred bond
C. Shear stress and angular deformation rate B. Registered bond
D. Density, shear stress and angular deformation rate C. Incorporators bond
D. All of the choices
If the Reynolds number is 2100 to 4000, what is the classification
of the fluid flow? What represents the ownership of stockholders who have a
A. Laminar flow residual claim on the assets of the corporation after all other
B. Critical flow claims have been settled?
C. Turbulent flow A. Authorized capital stock
D. Uniform flow B. Preferred stock
C. Incorporator stock
D. Common stock
What stocks represents ownership and enjoys certain Gross margin is the ratio of the gross profit to
preferences than ordinary stock? A. Net sales
A. Authorized stock B. Owner’s equity
B. Preferred stock C. Inventory turnover
C. Incorporator’s stock D. Quick assets
D. Presidential stock
What is another term for “acid test ratio”?
What refers to the value of an asset which a disinterested third A. Current ratio
party, different from the buyer and seller, will determine in order B. Quick ratio
to establish a price acceptable to both parties? C. Profit margin ratio
A. Book value D. Price – earning ratio
B. Market value
C. Fair value What is an accounting term that represents an inventory account
D. Franchise value adjustment?
A. Cost of goods sold
What refers to the value of an intangible item which arises from B. Cost accounting
the exclusive right of a company to provide a specified product C. Standard cost
and service in a certain region of the country? D. Overhead cost
A. Company value
B. Going value What is the most widely used 7 – bit alphanumeric code?
C. Goodwill value A. ASCII
D. Franchise value B. EBCDIC
C. Straight binary code
The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a D. Binary code
certain price at a given time and place is known as
A. Supply What is a computer programming language in which group of 1s
B. Demand and 0s are used to represent instructions and the only language
C. Necessity a computer actually understand?
D. Utility A. Machine language
B. Application software
The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a certain C. High – level language
price at a given time and place is known as D. FORTRAN
A. Supply
B. Demand An area of memory that holds the ASCII characters that are
C. Necessity being display on monitor is called
D. Utility A. Space
B. Start bit
What market situation exists where there are few sellers and few C. Terminal
buyers? D. Screen image
A. Oligopoly
B. Oligopsony Processors with more than two registers for arithmetic and logical
C. Bilateral oligopoly operations are classified as
D. Bilateral oligopsony A. Specific register processors
B. General register processors
All the proceeds which are received by the business as a result C. Accumulator based
of the sale of goods D. Serial register processors
A. Net income
B. Gross income Which one represents machine instructions by mnemonic names
C. Net revenue and allows memory addresses and other constants to be
D. Total sales represented by symbols rather than bit strings?
A. Assembler
It is the price a buyer is willing to pay a willing seller for the stock B. Interpreter
A. Bond value C. Machine language
B. Scrap value D. Assembly language
C. Market value
D. Stock value Which of the following is the instruction that causes data to be
brought from memory into an accumulator register?
Is the claim of anyone to ownership. A. LOAD
A. Proprietorship B. LOOP
B. Assets C. FETCH
C. Equity D. JUMP
D. Liability
What term is used to describe storing of data into memory?
Amount of money paid for the use of borrowed capital A. Writing
A. Interest B. Loading
B. Rate of interest C. Reading
C. Simple interest D. Memorizing
D. Principal
What register holds the data being written into or read out of the
Cash money and credit necessary to establish and operate an addressed memory location?
enterprise A. Hold register
A. Capital B. Memory address register
B. Funds C. Memory data register
C. Assets D. Access register
D. Liabilities
What does CMOS means?
The unrecovered depreciation results due to poor estimates as to A. Complementary Main Oxide Semiconductor
the life of the equipment B. Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor
A. Sunk cost C. Complements Main Oxidation Semiconductor
B. Economic life D. Computer Metal Oxide Semiconductor
C. In – place value
D. Annuity
What is the term for a computer or software that requests What do you call a projector that will be used to project video
information from another computer or server? signals from a computer?
A. Host A. Multimedia projector
B. Workstation B. Electronic projector
C. Client C. Overhead projector
D. All of the choices D. Laptop projector

A software that translates a program written in a high – level A type of computer memory circuit that holds data, program
language into low – level instructions before the program is instructions, and the operating system while the computer is on
executed A. Random access memory
A. Compiler B. Read only memory
B. Assembler C. Volatile memory
C. Integrator D. CMOS
D. Interpreter
What refers to one or more integrated circuits that contain
The term “bus” refers to permanent instructions that the computer uses during boot
A. The physical path along which the signal travels process?
B. The logical path A. CMOS
C. Both the physical path and the logic path B. ROM
D. The microprocessor peripheral that executes data C. RAM
D. Boot sector
What computer memory is used during the first cycles of data
processing activity? Which of the following is used to capture real and moving objects
A. Read only memory and displays it into a computer?
B. Cache memory A. Scanner
C. Hard drive memory B. Video player
D. Program memory C. Electronic recorder
D. Digital camera
Which of the following belongs to a class of codes called the
minimum change codes, in which only one bit in the code group The members of the Board shall hold the office for a term of ____
changes when going from one step to the next? years from date of appointment.
A. Morse code A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1
B. BCD code
C. Excess 3 – code Who shall be the executive officer of the Board of Electrical
D. Gray code Engineering and shall also conduct the examination given by the
Board as provided in Art. II, Sec. 9 of the New Electrical
What is the language used in marking an internet web page? Engineering Law?
A. Highertext Machine Language A. A member of the Board of the Electrical Engineering
B. Hypertext Mark – up Language B. The President of the Philippines
C. High-tech Mark – up Language C. The Commissioner of the Professional Regulations
D. Hypertext Machine Language Commission
D. The Chairman of the Board Electrical Engineering
What do you mean by the acronym “DCTL”?
A. Diode Capacitor Transistor Logic An applicant for Registered Master Electrician’s examination
B. Diode Coupled Transistor Logic must at least completed ____ of a 5 year Bachelor of Science in
C. Direct Connected Transistor Logic Electrical Engineering program and has a specific record of ____
D. Direct Coupled Transistor Logic practice in electrical wiring and installation.
A. 3 years, 2 years C. 3 years, 1 year
What register holds the current instruction during its execution? B. 2 years, 1 year D. 2 years, 2 years
A. Instruction register
B. Pushdown register The _____ shall be the executive officer of the board (BEE).
C. Program register A. President of the Philippines
D. Execution register B. BEE Board
C. Commissioner
A BCD code has how many bits per number? D. Chairman of the board (BEE)
A. 2
B. 4 Which of the following is NOT included in the field of practice of a
C. 8 Registered Master Electrician?
D. 16 A. Installation of electric machinery
B. Maintenance and repair of electric machinery
A nibble is composed of how many bits? C. Sale and distribution of electric machinery
A. 2 D. All of these
B. 4
C. 6 Under RA 7920, the Board of Electrical Engineering (BEE) is
D. 8 composed of how many examiners?
A. 5 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
The term “firmware” is used to describe programs stored in which
of the following memory hardware? The following are included in the specific powers, functions,
A. ROMs and EPROMs duties, and responsibilities of the Board of Electrical Engineering
B. RAMs and ROMs EXCEPT
C. PROMs and EPROMs A. Issue subpoena duces tecum, to secure the attendance
D. PROMs and ROMs of respondents or witnesses or the production of
documents relative to the investigation conducted by the
What do you call a network where people can retrieve Board
information, communicate, entertain or do business form the B. Coordinate with the Commission and the Department of
comfort of a PC? Education, Culture and Sports (DECS) in prescribing,
A. Internet amending and/or revising the courses
B. Website C. Supervise and regulate the practice of electrical
C. Facsimile engineering in the Philippines
D. E – mail D. None of these
Members of the Board of Electrical Engineering are appointed by Section15 states that to qualified applicants for examination,
A. The Institute of Integrated Electrical Engineers of the notice of admission shall be issued not later than ___ days prior
Philippines to the first day of examination.
B. The Professional Regulations Commission A. 5 B. 20 C. 15 D. 10
C. The President of the Philippines
D. A and B When was the RA 7920 approved by President Fidel V. Ramos?
A. February 14, 1995 C. February 25, 1995
Which of the following is not a qualification of the BEE board B. February 12, 1995 D. February 21, 1995
members?
A. Be at least 36 years of age It is the duty of the electrical engineer to involve himself in
B. Be a resident of the Philippines for at least 10 activities designed to promote the welfare of his community in
consecutive years particular as well as of mankind in general.
C. Have practiced electrical engineering for a period not A. Philippine Electrical Code
less than 5 years B. New Electrical Engineering Law
D. All of these C. Old Electrical Engineering Law
D. Code of Ethics
Each member of the Board of Electrical Engineering must be at
the time of his appointment An Electrical Engineer shall have due regard at all times for the
A. Must have practice electrical engineering for a period of _____ of the life and health of his employees.
not less than 5 years A. Protection C. Safety
B. Must be at least a registered electrical engineer B. Property D. Fairness
C. Must be at least 40 years of age
D. None of these An Electrical shall be _____ in guarding against conditions that
may be dangerous or threating to life, health or property on work
Any members of the Board shall be at least ____ years of age at for which he is responsible.
the time of his appointment. A. Impartial C. Vigilant
A. 30 B. 35 C. 36 D. 40 B. Disclose D. Divulge

Any person applying for admission to the Registered Electrical An Electrical Engineer shall live up to the _____ of professional
Engineering Examinations must be at least ____ years of age. practice of electrical engineering
A. 18 B. 19 C. 20 D. 21 A. Endeavor C. Credit
B. Standards D. Compensation
Any person applying for registration as professional electrical
engineer must be a registered electrical engineer with valid The Code of Ethics for Electrical Engineering was adopted by the
certificate of registration and professional license and with ____ Board Resolution No. ____ in October 18, 1995.
years or more of active practice reckoned form the date of his A. 18 B. 20 C. 22 D. 24
registration as registered electrical engineer.
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 10
In computer work, an antivirus is
By definition in RA 7920, ___ refers to the installed capacity of an A. A software full of virus in order to minimize a software
alternating current electric plant or supply equipment, or the against a specific defect
connected load of industrial plants, commercial establishments, B. A specific virus that protects a program from other
institutional buildings expressed in kVA. unprecedented attacks by other virus
A. Industrial plant C. kVA C. A software that scans a computer system to detect
B. Utilization equipment D. kW viruses or other harmful software
D. A vaccine injected by the operator into the hard disk of a
The official seal of a Professional Electrical Engineer as provided computer to remove interference
in Section 4 (q) of Republic Act 7920 must have an outer circle
diameter of All data processing systems involve the following operations
A. 40 mm C. 50 mm regardless of the kind of data processed or the kind of device or
B. 48 mm D. 52 mm equipment used. Which one of the following are these?
A. Analyzing, logic determination and coding
The program of examination is provided in what particular rule of B. Input, processing and output
Implementing Rules and Regulations of RA 7920? C. Input, storage and processing
A. Rule 10 C. Rule 11 D. Processing, storage and distribution
B. Rule 12 D. Rule 9
It is a very powerful small component of a computer
A person who violates any of the provisions of RA 7920 shall be A. Diode
guilty of misdemeanor and shall, upon convicted, be sentenced B. Triode
to a fine of not less than P 10,000 but not more than C. Chip
A. P 100,000 C. P 75,000 D. Internet
B. P 50,000 D. P 150,000
A megabyte is a computer term which means
In the Registered Electrical Engineering Examination, what is the A. A thousand kilobytes
weight of Electrical Engineering subject? B. A million kilobytes
A. 25% B. 30% C. 45% D. 40% C. A group of characters that can fill a computer storage
D. A hundred thousand bytes
Section 2 (j), Article I of RA 7920 defines the
A. Power plant design C. Substation The digital system usually operates on ____ system.
B. Utilization equipment D. kW A. Decimal
B. Hexadecimal
Under Section 2, Article I of RA 7920, states that “industrial C. Binary
buildings” include all of the following EXCEPT D. Octal
A. School buildings C. Hospitals
B. Stadiums D. Museums It is the computerized data gathering, monitoring and switching
equipment
Section 14 of Article III of RA 7920 refers to A. Supervising control
A. Registration and License required B. Remote control
B. Exemption from examination and registration C. SCADA
C. Examination fee D. Control and monitoring system
D. Holding of examination
It is device converting computer digital signals to analog signals What is a system of non – statutory, non – mandatory canons of
for transmission over copper telephone wires and then back to personal conduct?
digital signals A. Code
A. Fax machine B. Tort
B. Modem C. Creed
C. Telegram D. Statute
D. Telephone
What is a civil wrong committed by one person causing damage
Maximum capacity of recordable compact disc to another person or his property, emotional well – being or
A. 1 Gb reputation?
B. 10 Gb A. Punitive damage
C. 650 Mb B. Negligence
D. 100 Mb C. Tort
D. Fraud
For PC to PC communications, a data terminal is directly
connected to
A. DDE Equipment
B. Telephone line
C. ATE Equipment
D. DCE Equipment

Octal coding involves grouping the bits in

A. 6’s
B. 9’s
C. 1’s
D. 3’s

It refers to a device that modulates and demodulates signals

transmitted over data communication facilities
A. Facsimile machine
B. Communication hub
C. Modem
D. Cellular phone

The process of notifying network that you are using a specific

computer is called
A. Log – in
B. Booting
C. Password
D. Log – out

What is the meaning of SCADA?

A. System Coordinated Area Distribution Area
B. System Control and Data Acquisition
C. Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition
D. Super Computer and Deck Accessibility

The Professional Regulations Commission (PRC) was created

under
A. PD 223
B. PD 59
C. EO 59
D. PD 232

In what year is the Professional Regulations Commission

created?
A. 1970
B. 1971
C. 1972
D. 1973

What is otherwise known as “PRC Modernization Law”?

A. RA 8819
B. RA 8981
C. RA 1898
D. RA 1988

What is considered as a legally binding agreement or promise to

exchange goods or services?
A. Contract
B. Assignment clause
C. Tort
D. Creed

What is a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several

rules?
A. Code
B. Canon
C. Tort
D. Contract