2016 Code P Key

NEET 2016
A (Solution)
CODE-P PHASE-1
1
NEET-2016 PH-1 www.etoosindia.com CODE-P
[PHYSICS]
1. From a disc of a radius R and mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through
the centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a
perpendicular axis, passing through the centre?
(1) 15 MR2/32 (2) 13 MR2/32 (3) 11 MR2/32 (4) 9 MR2/32
nzO
; eku M r Fkk f=kT; k R dhfdl hfMLd l sR O
; kl dk dksbZoR̀r kdkj fNnzbl i zd kj dkVk t kr k gS
] fd ml dhusfe fMLd
dsdsUnzl sxq
t j sA fMLd ds' ks"k Hkkx dk] fMLd dsy Ecor ~ml dsdsUnzl sxq Ro vk?kw
t j usoky sv{k dsi fj r %t M+ . kZD; k gS\
(1) 15 MR2/32 (2) 13 MR2/32 (3) 11 MR2/32 (4) 9 MR2/32
Sol. 2
2
 M R 2  R  
 2     2
MR 2 R 4  2   M  R  
= – 
2 2 4  2  
  M
  
x x R 2
MR 2 M M
= –   
2  32 16 
1 3  2
= MR2    = 13MR
 2 32  32
2. A square loop ABCD carrying a current i, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor
XY, carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be :
Y B C
I i L
x A D
L/2 L
2 Ii  Ii 20IiL 0IiL
(1) 0 (2) 0 (3) (4)
3 2 3 2
2. dksbZoxkZ
d kj i k' k (y w
i ) ABCD ft l
l s/kkj k i i zokfgr gksj gh gS
] fdl hy Ecsl h/kspky d XY ft l l s/kkj k I i zokfgr gksj gh
gS
] dsfudV , d ghr y esaj [ kk gS
A bl i k' k i j y xusoky k usV cy gksxk &
Y B C
I i L
C A D
L/2 L
20Ii 0Ii 20IiL 0IiL

(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 3 2
Sol. 1
0I 0I 0IiL 2  2  20Ii

. i.L – . i.L ;  3 
;
2(L / 2)  3L  2L  3
2 
 2 
2
3. The magnetic susceptibility is negative for :

(1) diamagnetic material only
(2) paramagnetic material only
(3) ferromagnetic material only
(4) paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials
3. pqEcdh; l q
xzkfgr k _ .kkRed gksrh gS:
(1) dsoy y kS g&pq Ecdh; i nkFkZdsfy ,
(2) vuqpqEcdh; vkS j y kS
g&pqEcdh; i nkFkksZdsfy ,
(3) dsou i zfr pq
Ecdh; i nkFkZdsfy ,
(4) dsoy vuq pq
Ecdh; i nkFkZdsfy ,
Sol. 1
c = –1 for diamagnetic material only
4. A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz moves away from an observer towards a cliff at a
speed of 15 ms-1. Then, the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected
from the cliff is :
(Take velocity of sound in air = 330 ms-1)
(1) 765 Hz (2) 800 Hz (3) 838 Hz (4) 885 Hz
4. 800 Hz vkof̀Ùk dh/ofu mRi Uu dj usoky k dksbZj l k; u fdl hi zs{kd l s, d pêku dhvksj 15 ms-1 dhpky l sxfr eku gS
A
r c ml /ofu dhvkof̀r ft l spêku l si j kofr Z
r i zfr /ofu ds: i esaog i zs{kd l q
ur k gS
] D; k gksxh\
(ok; qes
a/ofu dhpky = 330 ms-1 y hft , )
(1) 765 Hz (2) 800 Hz (3) 838 Hz (4) 885 Hz
Sol. 3
nv
n’ = v  v
s
330
= 800 × = 838 Hz n' s O
315
 Observer hears
n’ = 838 Hz
5. A capacitor of 2 F is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turned to position
2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is :
1 2
V
2F 8F
(1) 0% (2) 20% (3) 75% (4) 80%

5. vkj s[k esan' kkZ
, vuq
l kj 2F /kkfj r k dsfdl hl a
/kkfj =k dk vkos'ku fd; k x; k gS
A t c fLop S dksfLFkfr 2 i j ?kq
ek; k t kr k
gS
] r ksbuesal a fpr Åt kZdk i zfr ' kr {k; gksxk &
1 2
V
2F 8F
(1) 0% (2) 20% (3) 75% (4) 80%
3
Sol. 4
1
U1 = cv2
2
1 C1C2
U = (V1 – V2)2
2 (C1  C2 )
1 2 8
U =   × 10–6 (V2)
2  10 
U 8
U1 × 100 = 10 × 100 = 80%
6. In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width ‘a’, the first minimum is observed at an angle
30° when light of wavelength 5000Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is
observed at an angle of:
1  1  1  2  1  1  1  3 
(1) sin  4  (2) sin  3  (3) sin  2  (4) sin  4 
       
6. t c pkS
M+
kbZ‘a’ dhfdl h, dy f>j hi j 5000Å r j a xnS/; Zdk i zd k' k vki r u dj r k gS
, r ksf>j hdsdkj .k mR
i Uu foor Z
uiS
VuZ
esa30° dsdks.k i j i gy k fufEu"B fn[ kkbZnsrk gS
A i gy k f} r h; d mfPp"B ft l dks.k i j fn[ kkbZnsxk , og gS :
1  1  1  2  1  1  1  3 
(1) sin  4  (2) sin  3  (3) sin  2  (4) sin  4 
       
Sol. 4
 5000  10 10 1
sin  = = =
a a 2
a = 10 × 10–7
for first sec. maxima
3
a sin  =
2
3 3
sin  = =
2a 4
3
 = sin–1  4 
 
7. At what height from the surface of earth the gravitation potential and the value of g
are –5.4×107J kg-2 and 6.0 ms-2 respectively? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km.
(1) 2600 km (2) 1600 km (3) 1400 km (4) 2000 km
7. i F̀ohdsi `"B l sfdr uhÅ¡pkbZi j xq: Roh; foHko vkS
j xq
: Roh; Roj .k g dseku Øe' k%–5.4×107J kg-2 vkS
j 6.0 ms-2 gksrs
gS? i F̀oh dh f=kT; k 6400 fd-eh- fy ft , &
(1) 2600 km (2) 1600 km (3) 1400 km (4) 2000 km
Sol. 1
GM
Vg = – R  h
GM
gh = =6
(R  h)2
Vg 5.4  107
gh
=R+h=
6
R + h = 9 × 106
h = 9000 – 6400
=2600 km
4
8. Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic
wave?
(1) A charge moving at constant velocity.
(2) A stationary charge
(3) A chargeless particle
(4) An accelerating charge
8. uhpsfn, x, fodYi ksaesal sfdl dk mi ; ksx , d l a
pfj r fo| q
r pq
Ecdh; r j a
x mRiUu dj usesafd; k t k l dr k gS
?
(1) fu; r os x l sxfr dksbZvkos'k
(2) fLFkj vkos 'k
(3) vkos' kghu d.k
(4) dksbZRofj r vkos'k
Sol. 4
By theory
9. Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of
lengths l, are initially at a distance d (d<<l) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges
begin to leak from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each
other with a velocity . Then varies as a function of the distance x between the spheres, as :
1 1
(1)   x 2 (2)   x (3)   x  2 (4)   x 1
9. fdl hmHk; fu"B fcUnql s]y EckbZl dhnksnzO ; ekughu Mksfj ; ksal sfuy a
fcr ] nksl oZl e vkosf' kr xksy s]vU; ksU; i zfr d"kZ
. kdsdkj .k]
vkj EHk esa, d&nw l j sl sd (d<<l) nw j hi j gaS
A nksuksaghxksy ksal s, d fu; r nj l svkos'kksadk {kj .k vkj EHk gksrk gS ] vkS
j bl ds
i fj .kkeLo: i xksy s, d nwl j sdhvksj osx l svkr sga S
] r c xksy ksadschp dhnw j h] x dsQy u ds: i esaosx dkfopj .k fdl
: i esagksrk gS\
1 1
(1)   x 2 (2)   x (3)   x  2 (4)   x 1
Sol. 3
kq2
T sin  = ; T cos  = mg
d2
kq2 d
tan  = =
mgd2 l
q 2  d3 ; q  d3/2
dq 3
dt

2
d .v
dq
= constant
dt
1
v
d
 v  x–1/2
10. A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2
is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength 1 is produced at the
lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the ropes is 2. The
ratio 2/1 is :
m1 m1  m2 m2 m1  m2
(1) m (2) m2 (3) m1 (4) m1
2
10. nzO ; eku m1 r Fkk y EckbZL dhdksbZ, dl eku j Ll hfdl hn`<+Vsd l sÅ/okZ /kj y VdhgS A bl j Ll hdseq Dr fl j sl snzO; eku
m2 dk dksbZxqVdk t qM+k gS
A j Ll hdseq
Dr fl j si j r j a
xnS/; Z1 dk dksbZvuqi zLFk Li Un mRiUu fd; k t kr k gS
A ; fn j Ll hds
' kh"kZr d i gq
a
pusi j bl Li Un dhr j axnS
/; Z2 gkst kr hgS ] r c vuqi kr 2/1 dk eku gS&
5
m1 m1  m2 m2 m1  m2
(1) m (2) m2 (3) m1 (4) m1
2
Sol. 2
T2 = (m1 + m0) g
Tension T1 = m2 g
T
v = n =

v1 1 T1 m2
v2 =  2 = T2 = m1  m2
m2
1 m2
2 = m1  m2
2 m2  m1
1 = m2
11. A refrigerator works between 4°C and 30°C. It is required to remove 600 calories of heat every
second in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated space constant. The power required
is : (Take 1 cal = 4.2 Joules)
(1) 2.365 W (2) 23.65W (3) 236.5W (4)2365W
11. dksbZj sfÝt j sVj 4°C r Fkk30°C dschp dk; Zdj r kgSAi z'khr u fd, t kusoky sLFkku dkr ki fu; r j [ kusdsfy , 600 dS
y ksjh
Å"ek dksi zfr l S d .Mckgj fudky uk vko' ; d gksrkgS
A bl dsfy , vko' ; d ' kfDr pkfg, & (1 cal = 4.2 Joules y hft , )
(1) 2.365 W (2) 23.65W (3) 236.5W (4)2365W
Sol. 3
T1 = 303
T2 = 277
2 2 T2
= =   = T T T1 work
w 1 2 1 2
2 277 600
= = 10.61
w 26
2 600  4.2 T2
w= =
10.61 10.61
= 236.5
12. An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonates with a tuning fork when the
smallest length of the column is 50 cm, The next larger length of the column resonating with the
same tuning fork is :
(1) 66.7 cm (2) 100 cm (3) 150 cm (4) 200cm
12. , d fl j si j cUn r Fkknw
l j sfl j si j [ kq
y kdksbZok; qLr EHkfdl hLofj =kf} Hkq
t dsl kFkml l e; vuqukn dj r kgSt c bl ok; q
Lr EHk dhde&l s&de y EckbZ50 l s-eh- gksrhgS A bl hLofj =k f} Hkq
t dsl kFk vuqukn dj usoky hLr EHk dhvxy hcM+ hy EckbZ
gS:
(1) 66.7 cm (2) 100 cm (3) 150 cm (4) 200cm
Sol. 3

l1 =
4
3
l2 =
4
l2 = 3l1
l2 = 150 cm
6
13. Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is :
A 1k B
+4V –6V
(1) 0 A (2) 10-2 A (3) 10-1 A (4) 10-3 A
13. la
f/k Mk; ksM dksvkn' kZekudj fopkj dhft , AAB l si zokfgr /kkj k dk eku gS&
A 1k B
+4V –6V
(1) 0 A (2) 10-2 A (3) 10-1 A (4) 10-3 A
Sol. 2
i = VA – VB = + 4 – (–6) = 10
10 –4 –6
i= = 10–2 A
1000 A B
14. The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q = at – bt2, where a and b are
positive constants. The total heat produced in R is :
a3R a3R a3R a3R
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6b 3b 2b b
14. fdl hi zfr j ks/kR l si zokfgr vkos'kdkl e; t dsl kFkfopj .kQ = at – bt2 ds: i esagksrkgS
] t gk¡, a r Fkkb /kukRed fu; r ka
d
gS
A R esamRiUu dq y Å"ek gS&
a3R a3R a3R a3R
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6b 3b 2b b
Sol. 1
Q = at – bt2
d
i= = a – 2bt i=0
dt
a
t=
2b
H = i2RT dH = l2Rdt
a / 2b
2
=  (a  2bt) Rdt
0
=R  (a
2
 4b2t 2  4abt)dt
a
 2 3
4abt2  2b  a3 4b2  a3  4ab  a2 
2 t
= R a t  4b   = R  2b  3  8b3   2  4b2 
 3 2 a     
Ra3  1  1  1  a3R
= 2 6 2  =
b   6b
15. A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at
wavelength 250 nm is U1, at wavelength 500 nm is U2 and that at 1000 nm is U3. Wien’s constant,
b = 2.88×106 nmK. Which of the following is correct?
(1) U1 = 0 (2) U3 = 0 (3) U1>U2 (4) U2>U1
15. dksbZdf̀".kdk5760 K r ki i j gSabl fi .M} kj kmRl ft Z
r fofdj .kksadhÅt kZ
, rja
xnS/; Z250 nm i j U1, r j a
xnS
/; Z500 nm
i j U2 r Fkkr j a
xnS
/; Z1000 nm i j U3 gSA ohu&fu; r ka
d , b = 2.88×106 nmK gS A uhpsfn; kx; kdkS
ul kl EcU/k l ghgS
?
(1) U1 = 0 (2) U3 = 0 (3) U1>U2 (4) U2>U1
Sol. 4
b
=
T
2.88  106
=
5760
= 500
u2 = max
u2 > u1
7
16. Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are 1 and 2. Length of brass and steel
rods are l1 and l2 respectively. If (l2–l1) is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the
following relations holds good?
(1) 1l2  2l1 (2) 1l22  2l12 (3) 12l2  22l1 (4) 1l1  2l2
16. i hr y (czkl ) vkSj LVhy dhNM+ ksadsvuqnS/; Zi zl kj dsxq. kka
d Øe' k%1 vkS j 2 gSA i hr y vkS
j LVhy dhNM+ ksadhy EckbZ
; k¡
Øe' k%l1 vkS j l2 gSA ; fn (l2–l1) dksl Hkhr ki ksadsfy , l eku cuk; k t k; s, r c uhpsfn, x, l EcU/kksaesal sdkS
u&l k l R; gS
?
(1) 1l2  2l1 (2) 1l22  2l12 (3) 12l2  22l1 (4) 1l1  2l2
Sol. 4
l1 = l2
l11t = l22l
l11 = l22
17. A npn transistor is connected in common emitter configuration in a given amplifier. A load resistance
of 800  is connected in the collector circuit and the voltage drop across it is 0.8V. If the current
amplification factor is 0.96 and the input resistance of the circuit is 192, the voltage gain and
the power gain of the amplifier will respectively be :
(1) 4, 3.84 (2) 3.69, 3.84 (3) 4, 4 (4) 4, 3.69
17. fdl hfn, x, i zo/kZ d esadksbZnpn Vªkaft LVj mHk; fu"B mRl t Z d foU; kl esal a ; ksft r gS
A800  dkdksbZy ksMi zfr j ks/kl a
xzkgd
i fj i Fk esal a; ksft r gSvkS j bl dsfl j ksai j 0.8V foHkoi kr gS A ; fn /kkj k i zo/kZd xq. kka
d 0.96% gSr Fkk i fj i Fk dk fuos'k
i zfr j ks/k 192gS , r ksbl dsi z
o/kZ
d dhoksYVr k y fC/k r Fkk ' kfDr y fC/k Øe' k%gksxh:
(1) 4, 3.84 (2) 3.69, 3.84 (3) 4, 4 (4) 4, 3.69
Sol. 1
By theory
18. The intensity at the maximum in a Young’s double slit experiment is I0. Distance between two
slits is d = 5, where  is the wavelength of light used in the experiment. What will be the
intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance D = 10 d?
I0 3 I0
(1) I0 (2) (3) I0 (4)
4 4 2
18. ;a
x dsfdl hf} f>j hi z;ksx essmfPp"B dhr hozrkI0 gS
A nksuksaf>fj ; ksadschp dhnw
j hd = 5gS
, ; gk¡  i z;ksx esami ; ksx fd,
x, i zd k' k dhr j a
xnS
/; ZgS
A fdl h, d f>j hdsl keusnw
j hD = 10 d ?
I0 3 I0
(1) I0 (2) (3) I0 (4)
4 4 2
Sol. 4

I = I0 cos2  2 
 
x = d sin 
2 2
= x = d sin 
 
2
= × 5 sin 

d
2
= 10  ×
(10d)2  (d / 2)2
d
= 10 ×
2  10d
= /2

I = I0 cos2  4 
 
I
= 0
2
8
19. A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to turn about an axis which is perpendicular
to its plane and passes through its centre. It is subjected to a torque which produces a constant
angular acceleration of 2.0 rad s-2. Its net acceleration in ms-2 at the end of 2.0 s is approximately:
(1) 8.0 (2) 7.0 (3) 6.0 (4) 3.0
19. foj kekoLFkk esafLFkr 50 cm f=kT; k dhdksbZ, dl eku oR̀r kdkj fMLd vi usr y dsy Ecor ~vkS j dsUnzl sxq
t j usoky sv{k ds
i fj r %?kw
eusdsfy , Lor a=k gS
A bl fMLd i j dksbZcy vk?kw . kZdk; Zdj r k gS
] t ksbl esa2.0 rad s dk fu; r dks.kh; Roj .k
-2
mRiUu dj nsrk gS A 2.0 s dsi ' pkr ~ms–2 esabl dk usV Roj .k gksxk y xHkx &
(1) 8.0 (2) 7.0 (3) 6.0 (4) 3.0
Sol. 1
 = I
=2
a = r
1
a= ×2=1
2
at = 1
v = u + at
=0+2
v=2
v2 4
ar = = =8
r 0.5
a= a2r  a2t
= 64  1
= 8 (approx)
20. An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths
associated with them is :
1 1
1/2
1  E 2  E 2 1 1  2m 
(1)  (2)  (3) c(2mE)2 (4)  
c  2m  
 2m  c  E 
(being velocity of light)

20. æO; eku m dsby sDVªkW
u r Fkk fdl hQksVkW
u dhÅt kZ
, sa, d l eku gS
A bul sl EcU/k Mh&czksXy hr j a
xnS
/; Zdk vuq
i kr gS:
1 1
1/2
1  E 2  E 2 1 1  2m 
(1)  (2)  (3) c(2mE)2 (4)  
c  2m  
 2m  c  E 
(; gk¡ c i zd k' k dk osx gS

A)
Sol. 1

e = ....(1)
2meE
h
p = ....(2)
p
E  mc2 

E  mc  c 

E  pc 
P  E / c 
hc
 photon =
E
e h E
  = ×
p 2mE hc
9
e l E
p = c 2m
21. A disk and a sphere of same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the
same altitude and length. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first?
(1) Disk (2) Sphere
(3) Both reach at the same time (4) Depends on their masses
21. dksbZfMLd vkS j dksbZxksy k] ft udhf=kT; k, al eku i j Ur qnzO
; eku fHkUu ga
S] l eku mUur ka
' kvkSj y EckbZdsnksvkur l er y ksai j
yq
<+d r sgSA bu nksuksafi .Mksaesal sr y hr d i gy sdkS u i gqa
psxk &
(1) fMLd (2) xksyk
(3) nksuksa, d gh l e; i gq a
psa
xs (4) budsnz O
; ekuksai j fuHkZ
j dj r k gS
Sol. 2
2g(1  k 2 / r2 )
t=
gsin 
k2
 t 
r2
sphere
22. The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prism is 45°. The angle of
prism is 60°. If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum
deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively, are :
1 1
(1) 45°; (2) 30°; 2 (3) 45°; 2 (4) 30°;
2 2
22. fi zTe dsfdl hvi or Z d i `"B i j fdl hi zd k' k fdj .k dsfy , vki r u dks.k dk eku 45° gS A fi zTe dks.k dk eku 60° gS
A ; fn
; g fdj .k fi zTe l sU; w
ur e fopfy r gksrhgS ] r ksU; w
ur e fopy u dks.k r Fkk fi zTe dsi nkFkZdk vi or Z uka
d Øe' k%gS&
1 1
(1) 45°; (2) 30°; 2 (3) 45°; 2 (4) 30°;
2 2
Sol. 2
60°
45°
 = 2i–A
= 2 × 45° – 60
= 90 – 60
= 30°
 A  m 
sin 
=  2 
sin A / 2
 60  30 
sin 
=  2 
sin 30
sin 45
=
sin30
12
= = 2
2 1
10
23. When an –particle of mass ‘m’ moving with velocity ‘’ bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge
‘Ze’ its distance of closest approach from the nucleus depends on m as :
1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) m
m m m2
23. t c nzO
; eku 'm' r Fkkosx '' l sxfr eku dksbZ–d.k‘Ze’ vkos'kdsfdl hHkkj hukfHkd i j ceckj hdj r kgS
] r ksml dhukfHkd
l sfudVr e mi xeu dhnw j h] m i j bl i zd kj fuHkZ
j dj r hgS&
1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) m
m m m2
Sol. 1
Ui + Ki = Uf + Kf
1 kze  2e
O+ mv
v2 =
2 r
k4ze2
r=
mv2
1
r
m
24. A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration.
What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle becomes equal to
8×10-4 J by the end of the second revolution after the beginning of the motion?
(1) 0.1 m/s2 (2) 0.15 m/s2 (3) 0.18 m/s2 (4) 0.2 m/s2
24. 10 g æO ; eku dk dksbZd.k 6.4 l s-eh- y Echf=kT; k dsoÙ̀k dsvuq fn' k fdl hfu; r Li ' kZ
&j s[kh; Roj .k l sxfr dj r k gSA ; fn
xfr vkj EHk dj usdsi ' pkr ~nksi fj Øek, sai w
j hdj usi j d.k dhxfr t Åt kZ8×10-4 J gkst kr hgS , r ksbl R oj .k dk i fj ek.k
D; k gS
?
(1) 0.1 m/s2 (2) 0.15 m/s2 (3) 0.18 m/s2 (4) 0.2 m/s2
Sol. 1
r = 6.4 cm
m = 10 gm
1 1
mvv2 = 8 × 10–4 ; × 10–2 v2 = 8 × 10–4
2 2
v2 = 16 × 10–2
v = 0.16
v2 = u2 + 2as
16 16 64
× = 2 × a × 2 × ×2
100 100 100  10
1 1
a= = = 0.15
2 6.28
25. The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of 200 ms-1 at 27°C and 1.0×105
Nm-2 pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, 127°C and
0.05×105Nm-2, the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules in ms-1 is :
400 100 2 100
(1) 100 2 (2) (3) (4)
3 3 3
25. r ki 27°C vkSj nkc 1.0×105 nm-2 i j fdl hfn, x, nzO
; eku dhxSl dsv.kqv ksadkoxZek/; ew
y (r.m.s.) osx 200 ms-1 gS
At c
bl xS l dsr ki vkS
j nkc Øe' k%127°C r Fkk 0.05×105Nm-2 gS ] r ksms-1 esabl xSl dsv.kqv ksadk oxZek/; ew
y osx gS&
400 100 2 100
(1) 100 2 (2) (3) (4)
3 3 3
11
Sol. 2
T = 300
P = 105
Vrms = 200
V T
V2 400
V1 = 300
400
V2 =
3
26. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed
a
over its cross–section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B’, at radial distances and 2a
2
respectively, from the axis of the wire is
1 1
(1) (2) (3) 1 (4) 4
4 2
26. f=kT; k a dsfdl hy Ecsl h/ksr kj l sdksbZLFkk; h/kkj k I i zokfgr gksj ghgS
A bl r kj dhvuq
i zLFk dkV i j /kkj k , dl eku : i
a
l sfor fj r gS
A r kj dsv{k l sf=kT; nw
fj ; ksa vkS
j 2a i j Øe' k%pq
Ecdh; {ks=kksaB vkS
j B' dk vuq
i kr gS:
2
1 1
(1) (2) (3) 1 (4) 4
4 2
Sol. 3
0Ir2
B1 2R
B2 =  I
0
a/2
2d
2a
 0I(R / 2)2
B1 2R
B2 = =1:1
 0I
2(2R )

27. A particle moves so that its position vector is given by r  cos tx ˆ  sin tyˆ . Where  is a constant.
Which of the following is true?

(1) Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to r

(2) Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to r

(3) Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed towards the origin.

(4) Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed away from the origin.

dksbZd.k bl i zd kj xeu dj r k gSfd ml dk fLFkfr l fn' k r  cos tx y } kj k fu: fi r fd; k x; k gS
ˆ  sin ˆ ] ; gk¡ , d
fu; r ka
d gS
A fuEufy f[ kr esal sdkS
ul k dFku l R; gS\

(1) os x vkS
j Roj .k nksuksagh r dsy Ecor ~gSA

(2) os x vkS
j Roj .k nksuksagh r dsl ekur j gSA

(3) os x r dsy Ecor ~gSr Fkk R oj .k ew
y fcUnql svksj funf' kZ
r gS
A

(4) os x r dsy Ecor ~gSr Fkk R oj .k ew
y fcUnql snw
j dh vksj funf' kZ
r gS
A
Sol. 3
r–1 = cos ti + sin tj
v = –  sin t i +  cos tj
a = – 2 cos ti – 2 sin tj

r.v = 0
12
28. What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius
R so that it can complete the loop?
(1) gR (2) 2gR (3) 3gR (4) 5gR
28. R f=kT; k dsfdl hÅ/okZ
/kj i k' k (y w
i ) esam nzO
; eku dsfdl hfi .M dksfdl fuEur e osx l si zos'k dj uk pkfg, fd og i k' k
dksi w
. kZdj l ds\
(1) gR (2) 2gR (3) 3gR (4) 5gR
Sol. 4
By theory
29. When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength , the stopping potential is V.
V
If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2, the stopping potential is .
4
The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is :
5
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3)  (4) 3
2
29. t c fdl h/kkfRod i `"B dksr j a
xnS
/; Zdsfofdj .kksal si znhIr fd; kt kr kgS
] r ksfuj ks/khfoHko V gS
A ; fn bl hi `"B dksr j a
xnS
/; Z2
V
dsfofdj .kksal si znhIr fd; k t k, ] r ksfuj ks/khfoHko gkst kr k gS
A bl /kkfRod i `"B dhnsgy h r j a
xnS
/; ZgS%
4
5
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3)  (4) 3
2
Sol. 4
hc hc ev
= w + ev ; =w+
 2 4
hc
h' w 2hc hc
=w+  ; = 4w + –w
2 4  
hc
3w =

hc
w=
3
0 = 3
30. A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed sepa-
rately through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then :
(1) Compressing the gas isothermally will require more work to be done.
(2) Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more wore to be done.
(3) Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount of work.
(4) which of the case (whether compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process)
requires more work will depend upon the atomicity of the gas.
30. fdl hxS l dksl er ki h; : i l sml dsvk/ksvk; r u r d l a i hfM+
r fd; k t kr k gS A bl hxS l dksi F̀kd : i l s: n~ /kks"e i zfØ; k
} kj k ml dsvk/ksvk; r u r d l a i hfMr fd; k t kr k gS Ar c :
(1) xS l dksl er ki h; i zfØ; k vFkok : n~ /kks"e nksuksaesal ghl eku dk; Zdj usdhvko' ; dr k gksxhA
(2) pkgsl er ki h; i z fØ; k } kj k l ai hfM+ r dj savFkok : n~ /kks"e i zfØ; k } kj k l a
i hfM+
r dj sa
] fdl i zd j .k esavf/kd dk; Zdj us
dhvko' ; dr k gksxh] ; g xS l dhi j ek.kq d r k i j fuHkZj dj sxkA
(3) xS l dksl er ki h; i zfØ; k } kj k l a i hfMr dj usesavf/kd dk; Zdj usdhvko' ; dr k gksxhA
(4) xS l dks: n~/kks"e i zfØ; k } kj k l ai hfM+r dj usaesavf/kd dk; Zdj usdhvko' ; dr k gksxhA
13
Sol. 2
AD
IT
V/2 V
WAD > WIT
31. A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it.
Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then it opposite direction. The
balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two
cases. The ratio of emf’s is :
(1) 5 : 1 (2) 5 : 4 (3) 3 : 4 (4) 3 : 2
31. fdl hfoHkoeki hdsr kj dhy EckbZ100 l s-eh- gSr Fkk bl dsfl j ksadschp dksbZfu; r foHkokUr j cuk, j [ kk x; k gS
A nksl sy ksa
dksJs.khØe esai gy s, d nw l j sdhl gk; r kdj r sgq
, vkS
j fQj , d&nw l j sdhfoi j hr fn' kkvksaesal a; ksft r fd; kx; kgS Abu nksuksa
i zd j .kksaesa' kw
U; &fo{ksi fLFkfr r kj ds/kukRed fl j sl s50 l s-eh- vkS
j 10 l s-eh- nw j hi j i zkIr gksrhgS A nksuksal sy ksadhemf dk
vuq i kr gS:
(1) 5 : 1 (2) 5 : 4 (3) 3 : 4 (4) 3 : 2
Sol. 4
E1  E2 50
 5
E1  E2 10
E1 + E2 = 5E1 – 5E2
4E1 = 6E2
E1 6 3
 
E2 4 2
32. A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively.
To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance :
(1) 37.3 cm (2) 46.0 cm (3) 50.0 cm (4) 54.0 cm
32. fdl h[ kxksy h; nw
j chu dsvfHkn`' ; d vkS
j usf=kdhdhQksd l nw
fj ; k¡ Øe' k%40 cm vkS
j 4 cm gS
A vfHkn`' ; d l s200 cm
nw
j fLFkr fdl h fcEc dksns[kusdsfy , ] nksuksay S
a
l ksdschp dh nw
j hgksuhpkfg, A
(1) 37.3 cm (2) 46.0 cm (3) 50.0 cm (4) 54.0 cm
Sol. 4
v0 ue
1 1 1
+ =
v 200 40
v = 50 cm
5 1
200
200cm
200
v=
4
f0=40cm fc=4cm
50 + 4
= 54 cm
33. Two non–mixing liquids of densities  and n (n > 1) are put in a container. The height of each
liquid is h. A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this container. The cylinder floats
with its axis vertical and length pL(p < 1) in the denser liquid. The density d is equal to :
(1) {1 + (n + 1)p} (2) {2 + (n + 1)p} (3) {2 + (n – 1)p} (4) {1 + (n – 1)p}
14
33. , d nw l j sesafefJr u gksusoky snksæo] ft uds?kuRo  r Fkkn (n > 1) gS ] fdl hi k=k esaHkj sagS
A i zR; sd æo dhÅ¡pkbZh
gSA y EckbZL vkS j ?kuRo d dsfdl hcsy u dksbl i k=k esaj [ kk t kr k gS
A ; g csy u i k=k esabl i zd kj r Sj r k gSfd bl dk v{k
Å/okZ/kj j gr k gSr Fkk bl dhy EckbZpL(p < 1) l ?ku æo esagksrh gS A ?kuRo d dk eku gS:
(1) {1 + (n + 1)p} (2) {2 + (n + 1)p} (3) {2 + (n – 1)p} (4) {1 + (n – 1)p}
Sol. 4
(1-p)L
pL
L × A × d × g = PL × n × A × g × (1 – P) L ×  × A × g
d = PN + (1 – P) 
= (pn + 1 – p)
=  [(1 + P (n–1)]
34. To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is :
A
B
C Y
(1) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0 (2) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
(3) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0 (4) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1
34. uhpsfn, x, i fj i Fk esa
] fuxZ
r 1 i zkIr dj usdsfy , fuos'k dk l gh p; u gS
A:
A
B
C Y
(1) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0 (2) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
(3) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0 (4) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1
Sol. 4
y = (A + B) · C
y=A·C+B·C
Possibel when all ABC are 1 or when AC = 1 or A · B = 1
From options 4 is correct.
35. A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one–quarter of the heat
produced is observed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The
value of h is :
[Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 105J/kg and g = 10 N/kg]
(1) 34 km (2) 544 km (3) 136 km (4) 68 km
35. cQZdkdksbZVqd M+kÅ¡pkbZh l sbl i zd kj fxj r kgSfd og i w
. kZ
r %fi ?ky t kr kgS
A mRiUu gksusoky hÅ"ekdkdsoy , d&pkS
FkkbZ
Hkkx ghcQZ} kj k vo' kksf"kr fd; k t kr k gSr Fkk cQZdhl eLr Åt kZbl dsfxj r sl e; Å"ek esa: i kfUr fj r gkst kr hgS
A ; fn
cQZdhxq Ir Å"ek 3.4 × 105]/kg r Fkkg = 10 N/kg gSr ksÅ¡pkbZh dk eku gS&
(1) 34 km (2) 544 km (3) 136 km (4) 68 km
Sol. 3
1
mgh = mL
4
4L
h=
g
4  3.4  105
=
100
136 × 103
= 136 km
15
36. The ratio of escape velocity at earth (ve) to the escape velocity at a planet (vp) whose radius and
mean density are twice as that of earth is :
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 2 2 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 2
36. i F̀ohi j i y k; u osx (ve) r Fkk ml xzg i j i y k; u osx (vp) esaD; k vuq
i kr gksxk] ft l dhf=kT; k vkS
j vkS
l r ?kuRo i F̀ohdh
rqy uk esanksxq usgS:
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 2 2 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 2
Sol. 2
2GM 2G 4
Ve = = . R 3
R R 3
8
= GR 2
3
R’ = 2R
’ = 2
V0’ = 2 2 V
37. If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors,
the angle between these vectors is :
(1) 0° (2) 90° (3) 45° (4) 180°
37. ; fn nksl fn' kksads; ksx dk i fj ek.k mu nksl fn' kksadsvUr j dsi fj ek.k dscj kcj gS
] r ksbl l fn' kksadschp dks.k gS%
(1) 0° (2) 90° (3) 45° (4) 180°
Sol. 2
   
A B  A B
 = 90°
38. Given the value of Rydberg constant is 107 m–1 the wave number of the last line of the Balmer
series in hydrogen spectrum will be :
(1) 0.025 × 104 m–1 (2) 0.5 × 107 m–1 (3) 0.25 × 107 m–1 (4) 2.5 × 107 m–1
38. fj McxZfu; r ka
d dk eku 10 m fn; k x; k gS
7 –1
A gkbMkst u Li sDVªe dh ckej Js.kh dh vfUr e y kbZ
u dh r j a
xla
[ ; k gksxh
(1) 0.025 × 104 m–1 (2) 0.5 × 107 m–1 (3) 0.25 × 107 m–1 (4) 2.5 × 107 m–1
Sol. 3
1 1 1
= 107  4   
  
1
= 0.25 × 107 m–1


39. A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force F  2tˆi  3t2ˆj  N,
where î and ĵ are unit vectors along x and y axis. What power will be developed by the force at
the time t?
(1) (2t2 + 3t3)W (2) (2t2 + 4t 4)W (3) (2t3 + 3t4) (4) (2t3 + 3t5)W

39. 1 kg nz
O; eku dksdksbZfi .Mfdl hdky kfJr cy F  2tˆi  3t2ˆj N, ; gk¡ î vkS
j ĵ , x r Fkky v{kdsvuqfn' kek=kd l fn' k
gS
a
] dsv/khu xfr vkj EHk dj r k gS
] r ksl e; t i j bl cy } kj k fodfl r ' kfDr D; k gksxh\
(1) (2t2 + 3t3)W (2) (2t2 + 4t 4)W (3) (2t3 + 3t4) (4) (2t3 + 3t5)W
Sol. 4
F = 2ti + 3t2j ....(1)
dv
m = 2t i + 3t2j
dt
2t 2 3t 3
v= i j ....(2)
2 3
p = f.v.
= 2t3 + 3t5 w
16
40. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 F and a resistor 40  are connected in series across a source
of emf V = 10 sin 340 t. The power loss in A.C. circuit is :
(1) 0.51 W (2) 0.67 W (3) 0.76 W (4) 0.89 W
40. fdl h L=kksr ft l dk emf V = 10 sin 340 t gS
] l sJs.kh esa20 mH dk i zsjd , 50 F dk l a
/kkfj =k r Fkk 40  dk
i zfr j ks/kd l a
; ksft r gS
A bl i zR; kor hZ/kkj k i fj i Fk esa' kfDr {k; gS:
(1) 0.51 W (2) 0.67 W (3) 0.76 W (4) 0.89 W
Sol. 1
XL = wL = 340 × 20 × 10–3
= 68 × 10–1
= 6.8 
1 1 10000
XC     58.8
C 340  50  106 170
2
 Z  402  58.8  6.8 
2
 402  52 
= 65.6
2
P  402  52 
2
vrmsR
P=
z2
2
 10 
   40
 2
P
65.6  65
100  40
P
2  4303.7
= 0.46
 0.51W
41. If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt2, where A and B are constants, then the distance
travelled by it between 1s and 2s is :
3 3 7 A B
(1) A  4B (2) 3A + 7B (3) A B (4) 
2 2 3 2 3
41. ; fn fdl hd.k dk osx v = At + Bt2 gS

, ; gk¡ A vkS
j B fLFkj ka
d gS
] r ksbl d.k } kj k 1s vkS
j 2s dschp py hx; hnw
j hgS:
3 3 7 A B
(1) A  4B (2) 3A + 7B (3) A B (4) 
2 2 3 2 3
17
Sol. 3
V = At + Bt2
2
x=  (At  Bt )dt
2
 At 2 Bt 3 
  
 2 3 1
 4  1 8  1
=A   +B  3 
 2   
3 7
= A + B
2 3
42. A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked
with each turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10–3 Wb. The self–inductance of the solenoid is :
(1) 4H (2) 3H (C) 2H (4) 1H
42. fdl hy Echi fj ukfy dk esaQsjksadhl a
[ ; k 1000 gS
A t c bl i fj ukfy dk l s4A /kkj k i zokfgr gksrhgS
] r c bl i fj ukfy dk ds
i zR; sd Qsjsl sl a
c) pq
Ecdh; ¶y Dl 4 × 10–3 Wb gksrk gS
A bl i fj ukfy dk dk Lo&i zsjdRo gS%
(1) 4H (2) 3H (C) 2H (4) 1H
Sol. 4
N 1000  4  103
L   =1H
I 4
43. A small signal voltage V(t) = V0 sin t is applied across an ideal capacitor C :
(1) Current I(t), lags voltage V(t) by 90°
(2) Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not consume any energy from the voltage source.
(C) Current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t).
(4) Current I(t) leads voltage V(t) by 180°.
43. dksbZy ?kqfl Xuy oksYVr k V(t) = V0 sin t fdl hvkn' kZl a
/kkfj =k C dsfl j ksai j vuq
i z;q
Dr dhx; hgS:
(1) /kkj k I(t), oksYVr k V(t) l s90° i ' p gS
A
(2) ,d i w
. kZpØ esal a
/kkfj =k C oksYVr k L=kksr l sdksbZÅt kZmi Hkq
Dr ughadj r kA
(3) /kkj k I(t) oksYVr k V(t) dh dy k esagS
A
(4) /kkj k I(t), oksYVr k V(t) l s180° vxzgS
A
Sol. 2
Option 2 is correct because it is case of watt less current.
18
44. Match the corresponding entries of column 1 with column 2. [Where m is the magnification
produced by the mirror]
Column 1 Column 2
(A) m = –2 (a) Convex mirror
1
(B) m =  (b) Concave mirror
2
(C) m = +2 (c) Real image
1
(D) m =  (d) Virtual image
2
(1) A  b and c ; B  b and c; C  b and d; D  a and d
(2) A  a and c ; B  a and d; C  a and b; D  c and d
(3) A  a and d ; B  b and c; C  b and d; D  b and c
(4) A  c and d ; B  b and d; C  b and c; D  a and d
44. dkW
y e -1 dhl a
xr i zfof"V; ksadk fey ku dkW
y e - 2 dhi zfr f"V; ksal sdhft , A ; gk 'm' ni Z
. k } kj k mRiUu vko/kZ
u gS
A
dkW
ye 1 dkW
ye 2
(A) m = –2 (a) mÙky ni Z
.k
1
(B) m =  (b) vor y ni Z
.k
2
(C) m = +2 (c) okLr fod i zfr fcEc
1
(D) m =  (d) vkHkkl h i zfr fcEc
2
(1) A  b o c ; B  b o c; C  b o d; D  a o d
(2) A  a o c ; B  a o d; C  a o b; D  c o d
(3) A  a o d ; B  b o c; C  b o d; D  b o c
(4) A  c o d ; B  b o d; C  b o c; D  a o d
Sol. 1
Concave
m = –2
Real
Concave
1
m=
2
Real
Concave
m =+2
virtual
Convex
1
m=
2
virtual
19
45. A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle . The coefficient
of friction between the tyres of the car and the road is s. The maximum safe velocity on this road
is :
s  tan  s  tan  g  s  tan  g s  tan 

(1) gR 2 (2) gR (3) (4)
1  s tan  1   s tan  R 1   s tan  R 2 1   s tan 
45. dksbZdkj f=kT; kR dhofØr l M+

d i j xfr eku gS
A; g l M+
d dks.ki j >q
d hgS
Adkj dsVk; j ksavkS
j l M+
d dschp ?k"kZ
. kxq
. kka
d
s gS
A bl l M+
d i j dkj dk vf/kdr e l q
j {kk osx gS
A
s  tan  s  tan  g  s  tan  g s  tan 

(1) gR 2 (2) gR (3) (4)
1  s tan  1   s tan  R 1   s tan  R 2 1   s tan 
Sol. 2
   tan  
v= rg  
 1   tan  
20
[CHEMISTRY]
46. Consider the molecules CH4 NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statements is false ?
(1) The H – C – H bond angle in CH4, the H – N – H bond angle in NH3, and the H– O – H bond
angle in H2O are all greater than 90º.
(2) The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H – C – H bond angle in CH4
(3) The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is smaller than the H – N – H bond angle in NH3
(4) The H – C – H bond angle in CH4 is larger than the H – N – H bond angle in NH3
CH4 NH3 vkSj H2O v.kqv ksadsfy ; suhpsfn; sx; sdFkuksaesal sdkS
ul k vl R; gS
\
(1) CH4 esaH – C – H vkca
/k&dks.k] NH3 esaH – N – H vkca/k&dks.k] r Fkk H2O esaH– O – H vkca
/k&dks.k] l Hkh90º
l svf/kd gS
A
(2) H2O esaH – O – H vkca/k&dks.k] CH4 esaH – C – H vkca/k&dks.k l svf/kd gSA
(3) H2O esaH – O – H vkca/k&dks.k] NH3 esaH – N – H vkca/k&dks.k l sde gS A
(4) CH4 esaH – C – H vkca/k&dks.k] NH3 esaH – N – H vkca/k&dks.k l svf/kd gSA
Sol. 2
47. In the reaction

(1)NaNH / liq.NH (1)NaNH /liq.NH
2
H – C  CH 
(2)CH4CH2Br
4
 X 
2
(2)CH3CH2Br
3
Y
X and Y are :
(1) X = 1-Butyne ; Y = 3-Hexyne (2) X = 2-Butyne ; Y = 3-Hexyne
(3) X = 2-Butyne ; Y = 2-Hexyne (4) X = 1-Butyne ; Y = 2-Hexyne
vfHkfØ; ke esa
(1)NaNH2 / liq.NH4 (1)NaNH2 /liq.NH3
H – C  CH 
(2)CH4CH2Br
 X 
(2)CH3CH2Br
Y
X vkS
j Y gS:
(1) X = 1-C ;w
Vkbu ; Y = 3-gsDl kbu (2) X = 2-C
;wVkbu ; Y = 3-gsDl kbu
(3) X = 2-C ;w
Vkbu ; Y = 2-gsDl kbu (4) X = 1-C
;wVkbu ; Y = 2-gsDl kbu
Sol. 1
H – C  C —H 
NaNH2 / liNH3
 H — C  C — Na
CH 3 — CH2 —Br
H — C  C — CH2 — CH3
1 – Butyne
CH3 — CH2 – C  C — H 
NaNH2 / liqNH3
 CH3 — CH2— C  C — Na
CH 3 — CH2 —Br
CH3 — CH2 — C  C — CH2 — CH2

3 – Hexyne
48. Among the following the correct order of acidity is :
(1) HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO (2) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
(3) HClO2 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3 (4) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3
fuEu esal svEy r k dk l ghØe gS
%
&
(1) HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO (2) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
(3) HClO2 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3 (4) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3
Sol. 2
21
49. The rate of first-order reaction is 0.04 mol l–1 s–1 at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol l–1 s–1 at 20 seconds
after initiation of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is :
(1) 24.1 s (2) 34.1 s (3) 44.1 s (4) 54.1 s
, d i zFke dksfV dhvfHkfØ; k dkosx vfHkfØ; ki zkj EHkgksusds10 sec ckn 0.04 mol l–1 s–1 r Fkk 20 sec ckn 0.03 mol
l–1 s–1 gS A bl vfHkfØ; k dhv) Zvk; qdky gS %&
(1) 24.1 s (2) 34.1 s (3) 44.1 s (4) 54.1 s
Sol. 1
0.04
log
t10 0.03
t50% = 100
log
50
10 log 4  log3 0.60  0.48 0.12 1
t1 / 2 = log2
=
0.3
=
0.30
=
3
10  30 300
t1/2 = = = 25 (24.1) sec.
12 12
50. Which one of the following characteristics is associated with adsorption ?
(1) G is negative but H and S are positive
(2) G, H and S all are negative
(3) G and H are negative but S is positive
(4) G and S are negative bu H is positive
fuEu fy f[ kr y {k.kksaesal sdkSu l k vf/k' kks"k.k l sl EcfU/kr gS
\
(1) G _ .kkR ed y sfdu H , oaS /kukRed gksrsgS A
(2) G, H , oaS l H kh _ .kkRed gksrsgS A
(3) G r Fkk H _ .kkR ed y sfdu S /kukRed gksrk gS A
(4) G r Fkk S _ .kkR ed y sfdu H /kukRed gksrk gS A
Sol. 2
in adsorption G

H  ()
S 
51. In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of
property indicated against it ?
(1) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– (Increasing ionic size)
(2) B < C < N < O (Increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
(3) I < Br < Cl < F (Increasing electron gain enthalpy)
(4) Li < Na < K < Rb (Increasing metallic radius)
fuEufy f[ kr esal sdkS
u l k Øe fn; sx; sxq . k/keZdsi fj or Z
u dsvuq
l kj l ger ughagS
\
(1) Al < Mg < Na < F (c<+
3+ 2+ + – r sgq, vk; fud vkdkj )
(2) B < C < N < O (c<+ r k gqv k i zFke vk; fud , UFkS Yi h)
(3) I < Br < Cl < F (c<+ r hgq bZby sDVªksu xzg.k , UFkS Yi h)
(4) Li < Na < K < Rb (c<+ r hgqbZ/kkfRod f=kT; k)
Sol. 2 or 3
52. Which of the folloiwing statements is false ?

(1) Mg2+ ions form a complex with ATP
(2) Ca2+ ions are important in blood clotting
(3) Ca2+ ions are not important in maintaining the regular beating of the heart
(4) Mg2+ ions are important in the green parts of plants
u l k dFku vl R; gS \
(1) Mg2+ vk; u , -Vh-i h- dsl kFk l a dq y cukr sgS A
(2) Ca2+ vk; u j Dr dkst ekusdsfy ; segR oi w
. kZgS
A
(3) Ca vk; u ân; xfr dksfu; fer j [ kuses
2+ aegRoi w . kZughagS
A
(4) Mg2+ vk; u i kS /kksadsgfj r Hkkxksadsfy ; segRoi w. kZgS A
Sol. 3
22
53. Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect ?

(1) Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the most common
(2) Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts
(3) Hydronium ion, H3O+ exists freely in solution
(4) Dihydrogen does not act as a reducing agent
fuEufy f[ kr esal sdkSu l k dFku gkbMªkst u dsfy ; svl R; gS\
(1) gkbMªks t u dsr hu l eLFkkfud gSft l esal sVªkbfV; e i zpq
j r k esagS
A
(2) gkbMªks t u vk; fud y o.kksaesa/kuk; u dhr j g O; ogkj ughadj r k gSA
(3) gkbMªks fu; e vk; u] H3O+ dk vfLr Ro foy ; u esaeq Dr : i esagksrk gSA
(4) MkbZ gkbMªkst u vi pk; d ds: i esadk; Zughadj r k gS A
Sol. 2
54. The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alphacarbon is :
(1) a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon never equilibrates with its
corresponding enol
(2) a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its
corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde-ketone equilibration.
corresponding enol and this process is known as carbonylation
corresponding enol and this process is known as keto-enol tautomerism
dkckZ
sfuy ; kS
fxd ft l esa - dkcZ u i j gkbMªkst u mi fLFkr gS ] dsfy ; sl ghdFku gS
%
(1) dkckZsfuy ; kS
fxd ft l esa - dkcZ u gkbMªkst u i j ek.kqmi fLFkr gS
] ; g budsvuq
: i bZ
ukW
y l sdHkhHkhl kE; koLFkk esaugha
gksrsgS
A
(2) dkckZsfuy ; kS
fxd ft l esa - dkcZu gkbMªkst u i j ek.kqmi fLFkr gS
] ; g budsvuq
: i bZ
ukW
y esavkl kuhl sl kE; koLFkkesagksrs
gSvkSj ; g i zØe , fYMgkbM dhVksu l kE; koLFkk dgy kr k gS A
(3) dkckZsfuy ; kS
] ; g budsvuq
: i bZ
ukW
gSvkSj ; g i zØe dkckZsfuy hdj .k dgy kr k gS
A
(4) dkckZsfuy ; kS
] ; g budsvuq
: i bZ
ukW
gSvkSj ; g i zØe dhVksbZ ukWy py ko; or k dgy kr k gS A
Sol. 4
C—C=0 C = C—
H OH
Keto form enol form
keto – enol tautomerism
55. MY and NY3 two nearly insoluble salts, have the same Ksp values of 6.2 × 10–13 at room temperature.
Which statement would be ture in regard to MY and NY3 ?
(1) The molar solubilities of MY and NY3 in water are identical
(2) The molar solubility of MY in water is less than that of NY3
(3) The salts MY and NY3 are more soluble in 0.5 M KY than in pure water.
(4) The addition of the salt of KY to solution of MY and NY3 will have no effect on their solubilities
MY , oaNY3 nksy xH
kx vfoy s; y o.kksadk dej sdsr ki i j Ksp dk eku] 6.2 × 10–13 , d l eku gS A fuEu esal sdkS
ulk
dFku MY , oaNY3 dsl a nHkZesal R; gS?
(1) MY , oaNY3 dh t y es aeksy j foy s;r k l eku gSA
(2) MY dh t y esaeksy j foy s;r k NY3 l sde gS A
(3) MY , oaNY3 dsy o.k ' kq ) t y dhr q y uk esa0.5 M KY esaT; knk foy s; gS A
(4) KY y o.k dksMY , oaNY3 dsfoy ; u es aMky usi j budhfoy s;r k i j dksbZi zHkko ughai M+
r k gS
A
Sol. 2
My. S = Ksp = 6.2  1013 = 6.2  1013
S1 = 8 × 10–7
NY3 = Ksp = S(35)3 = 2754 = 62 × 10–14
S2  10–3.5
S2 > S1
Solubility or Ny3 is greater than my
23
56. In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by :

(1) -glycosidic bond (2) -glycosidic bond
(3) peptide bond (4) dative bond
i zksVhu v.kqesafofHkUu , ehuksavEy , d nw l j sl st q
M+sj gr sgS
%
(1) -Xy kbZ d ksfl fMd vkca /k ds} kj k (2) -Xy kbZ
d ksfl fMd vkca
/k ds} kj k
(3) i s IVkbZ
M vkca /k ds} kj k (4) nkr k vkca
/k ds} kj k
Sol. 3
Peptide b ends
O
—C—NH—
Peptide bond
57. Natural rubber has :

(1) All cis-configuration (2) All trans-configuration
(3) Alternate cis-and trans-configuration (4) Random cis-and trans-configuration
i zkdf̀r d j cj esa:
(1) l Hkhfl l ~
&foU; kl gS A (2) l Hkh Vªka
l foU; kl gS
A
(3) , dkUr j fl l ~
&, oaVªka
l &foU; kl gS
A (4) fu; fer fl l ~&, oaVªka
l &foU; kl gS
A
Sol. 1
Natural rubbar  cis configuration
58. Match items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code :
Column I Column II
(i) Ultrapure Ge
(a) Cyanide process
(ii) Dressing of ZnS
(b) Forth floatation process
(iii) Extraction of Al
(c) Electrolytic reduction
(iv) Extraction of Au
(d) Zone refining
(iv) Purification of Ni
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
Lr EHk I dsmYy s[k dksLr EHk II dsmYy s[k l sfey k; sa
A l ghl a
d sr i ) fr gS
%
&
Lr EHkI Lr EHkII
(i) vfr ' kq
) Ge
(a) l kW
; ukbM i zØe
(ii) ZnS dk i zl k/ku
(b) Qsu Iy ou fof/k
(iii) Al dk fu"d"kZ
.k
(c) fo| rq vi ?kVuhvi p; u
(iv) Au dk fu"d"kZ .k
(d) ea
My i fj "dj .k
(iv) Ni dk ' kks/ku
dksM:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
Sol. 1
24
59. Which one of the following statements is correct when SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7
solution ?
(1) The solution turns blue (2) The solution is decolourized
(3) SO2 is reduced (4) Green Cr2 (SO4)3 is formed
u l k dFku l R; gSt c SO2 dksvEy h; K2Cr2O7 dsfoy ; u esal si kl fd; k t kr k gS
\
(1) foy ; u uhy k i M+t kr k gS
A (2) foy ; u j a
xghu gkst kr k gS
A
(3) SO2 vi pf; r gks r k gS
A (4) gj k Cr2 (SO4)3 cur k gS A
Sol. 4
Green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed
60. The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic No. 63), Gd(Atomic No. 64) and Tb (Atomic No. 65) are :
(1) [Xe]476s2, [Xe]48 6s2 and [Xe] 485d16s2
(2) [Xe]465d16s2, [Xe]47 5d1 6s2 and [Xe] 496s2
(3) [Xe]465d16s2, [Xe]47 5d16s2 and [Xe] 485d16s2
(4) [Xe]476s2, [Xe]47 5d16s2 and [Xe] 496s2
Eu (i -l - 63), Gd (i -l - 64) vkS
j Tb (i -l - 65) dsby sDVªksfud foU; kl gS
:-
(1) [Xe]476s2, [Xe]48 6s2 r Fkk [Xe] 485d16s2
(2) [Xe]465d16s2, [Xe]47 5d1 6s2 r Fkk[Xe] 496s2
(3) [Xe]465d16s2, [Xe]47 5d16s2 r Fkk[Xe] 485d16s2
(4) [Xe]476s2, [Xe]47 5d16s2 r Fkk[Xe] 496s2
Sol. 4
Eu: [xe] 4f7 6s2
Gd : [xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2
Tb : [xe] 4f9 6s2
61. Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by:
(1) Principal quantum number (2) Magnetic quantum number
(3) Azimuthal quantum number (4) Spin quantum number
nks by sDVªksu t ks fd , d gh d{kd esa gS
A buesa vUr j fdl ds } kj k fd; k t k l dr k gS
\
(1) eq[ ; Doka Ve l a[;k (2) pq Ecdh; DokaVe l a [;k
(3) f} ?ka
' kh DokaVe l a
[;k (4) pØ.k Doka Ve l a [;k
Sol. 4
same orbital (e–)
are disting usished by

Spin Q.NO.
62. When copper is heated with conc. HNO3 it produces :

(1) Cu(NO3)2 and NO2 (2) Cu(NO3)2 and NO
(3) Cu(NO3)2, NO and NO2 (4) Cu(NO3)2 and N2O
dkW
i j dksl kUnzHNO3 dsl kFk xeZdj usi j cur k gS:
(1) Cu(NO3)2 vkS j NO2 (2) Cu(NO3)2 vkS
j NO
(3) Cu(NO3)2, NO vkS j NO2 (4) Cu(NO3)2 vkS
j N2 O
Sol. 1
Cu + Con. HNO3 Cu(NO)3 + NO2
63. Which of the following reagents would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1, 2-diol from the trans-isomer ?
(1) Acetone (2) Ozone
(3) MnO2 (4) Aluminium isopropoxide
fuEu esal sdkS
u l k vfHkdeZ
d fl l ~
&l kbDy ksisUVk-1, 2-MkbZ
v kW
y , oabl dsVªkal &l eko; ohesaHksn dj sxk\
(1) , l hVks
u (2) vkst ksu
(3) MnO2 (4) , Y; q
fefu; e vkbl ksizksiksDl kbM
Sol. 1
MnO2 selective oxidising agent
25
64. The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperature is :
(1) H < 0 and S = 0 (2) H > 0 and S < 0
(3) H < 0 and S > 0 (4) H < 0 and S < 0
l Hkhr ki ksai j vfHkfØ; k dsLor %i fj or Z
u dsfy ; sl gh Å"ekxfr dh; ' kr sZgS
%
(1) H < 0 r Fkk S = 0 (2) H > 0 r Fkk S < 0
(3) H < 0 r Fkk S > 0 (4) H < 0 r Fkk S < 0
Sol. 3
G = H – TS
= [(–) – [] = (–) always = (–)]
H < 0 , S > 0
65. Lithium has a bcc structure. Its density is 530 kg m–3 and its atomic mass is 6.94 g mol–1.
Calculate the edge length of a unit cell of Lithium metal. (NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1)
(1) 154 pm (2) 352 pm
(3) 527 pm (4) 264 pm
fy fFk; e dh bcc l a j puk gS
A bl dk ?kuRo 530 kg m–3 r Fkk i j ek.kqnzO
; eku 6.94 g mol–1gS
A fy fFk; e /kkr qds, dd
dksf"Bdk dsNksj dhy EckbZgS %(NA = 6.02 × 10 mol )
23 –1
(1) 154 pm (2) 352 pm

(3) 527 pm (4) 264 pm
Sol. 2
gmw  Z
d = N  a3
A
6.94  2
0.530 =
6  1023  a3
6.94  2
a3 =
6  1023  0.53
10
a3 = 4.36 × 10–23 ×
10
a3 = 43.6 × 10–24
a = (43.6)1/3 × 10–8 cm
66. Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules ?
(A) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 (2) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
(C) Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2 (4) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
u Øe gS
y kst u v.kq
v ksadhvkca
/k fo; kst u , UFkS
Yi hdsfy ; sl ghgS
\
(A) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 (2) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
(C) Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2 (4) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
Sol. 2
Cl3 > Br2 > F2 > I2
67. Which of the following is an analgesis ?

(1) Novalgin (2) Penicillin (3) Streptomycin (4) Chloromycetin
fuEu esal sdkS
u l hnok , d i hM+kgkj hgS
A
(1) uks
oy ft u (2) i s
fufl fy u (3) LVªsIVksekbfl u (4) Dy ksjksekbl hfVu
Sol. 1
Novalgin analgeris as well as
antipyretic
68. Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in a container with a pin-hole through
which both can escape. What fraction of the oxygen escapes in the time required for one-half of
the hydrogen to escape ?
(1) 1/8 (2) 1/4 (3) 3/8 (4) 1/2
gkbMªkst u , oavkW
Dl ht u xSl ksadsl eku eksy ksadks, d l kFk j [ kk x; k gS ] t ksfd , d l w
{e fNnzds} kj k i y k; ku dk Øe gS
A
gkbMªkst u dsvk/ksi y k; u esay xsl e; esavkW Dl ht u fdr uk va ' k i y k; u dj sxk\
(1) 1/8 (2) 1/4 (3) 3/8 (4) 1/2
26
Sol. 1
1
r
mw
r
vH2
rH2 tH2
32
v
= O2 =
rO2 2
t O2
1
= 2 =4
vO2
1
VO2 =
8
v  moles
69. Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc. H2SO4 and HNO3. If a large amount of KHSO4
is added to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be :
(1) faster (2) slower (3) unchanged (4) doubled
csUt hu dk ukbVªhdj .k l kUnzH2SO4 , oaHNO3 dhmi fLFkfr esagksj gk gS
A ; fn bl feJ.k l sT; knkek=kk esaKHSO4 Mky r s
gSr ksukbVªhdj .k dk osx gksxk%
&
(1) r s
t (2) /khj s (3) vi fj ofr Z
r (4) nq
xq
uk
Sol. 2
slower
KHSO4  K+ HSO4–
H—O—N=O + H+ HSO4– 
H2O +NO2
If we the KHSO4 than rate decreases.
70. Predict the correct order among the following :

(1) lone pair - lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair
(2) lone pair - lone pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair
(3) bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair
(4) lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair
fuEu esal sl ghØe gksxk % &
(1) , dkdh ; qXe - , dkdh; q Xe> , dkdh; q Xe - ca /k ; q
Xe > ca
/k ; q
Xe - ca/k ; q
Xe
(2) , dkdh ; qXe - , dkdh; q Xe > ca /k ; q
Xe - ca /k ; q
Xe > , dkdh; q Xe - ca/k ; q
Xe
(3) ca/k ; q
Xe - ca
/k ; q
Xe > , dkdh; q Xe - ca /k ; q
Xe > , dkdh; qXe - , dkdh; q Xe
(4) , dkdh ; qXe - ca/k ; q
Xe > ca
/k ; q
Xe - ca /k ; q
Xe > , dkdh; qXe - , dkdh; q Xe
Sol. 1
71. The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with CaC2 is :

(1) Ca(CN)2 (2) CaCN (3) CaCN3 (4) Ca2CN
ukbVªkst u dhCaC2 dsl kFk vfHkfØ; k l si zkIr mRikn gS:
(1) Ca(CN)2 (2) CaCN (3) CaCN3 (4) Ca2CN
Sol. Bonus
27
72. Consider the following liquid - vapour equilibrium.



Liquid 
 Vapour
Which of the following relations is correct ?
dln G H dlnP H H H dlnP H
(1) = (2) = (3) = (4) =
dT 2 RT 2 dT RT RT T2 dT RT 2
uhpsfn; sx; snzo - ok"i l kE; koLFkk]


nzo 
 ok"i
esal sdkS
u l kl a
cU/k l ghgS\
dln G H dlnP H H H dlnP H
(1) = (2) = (3) = (4) =
dT 2 RT 2 dT RT RT T2 dT RT 2
Sol. 4


Liquid 
 Vapour
r2 Hv  T2  T1 
log r =
1 2.3RT1T2
Hv
log2P = + log K
RT
dlP Hc
=
dT RT 2
73. Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridisation and shape given in column II and
mark the correct option.
Column I Column II
(a) XeF6 (i) distorted octahedral
(b) XeO3 (ii) square planar
(c) XeOF4 (iii) pyramidal
(d) XeF4 (iv) square pyramidal
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Lr EHkI esafn; sx; s; kS
fxdksadksmudsl a
d j .k, oavkdf̀r t ksfd Lr EHkII ea
safn; sx; sgSdksfey k; sr Fkkl ghfodYi dksfpfUgr
dhft , A
Lr EHkI Lr EHk II
(a) XeF6 (i) fodr̀ v"VQy dh;
(b) XeO3 (ii) oxZl er y h
(c) XeOF4 (iii) fi j kfeMh
(d) XeF4 (iv) oxZfi j kfeMh
dksM :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Sol. 1
XeF6 dirtorted octahedral
XeO3 Pyramidal
XeOF4 Sq. pyramidal
XeF4 Sq. Planar
28
74. Which of the following has longest C — O bond length ? (Free C — O bond length in CO is 1.128 Å.)
(1) Ni(CO)4 (2) [Co(CO)4]2– (3) [Fe(CO)4]2– (4) [Mn(CO)6]+
fuEufy f[ kr esal sfdl dhC — O vkca/k y EckbZvf/kd gS
? (eq
Dr C — O vkca
/k y EckbZCO esa1.128 ÅagS
)
(1) Ni(CO)4 (2) [Co(CO)4] 2– (3) [Fe(CO)4]2– (4) [Mn(CO)6] +
Sol. 3
[Fe(CO)4]2–
75. The pressure of H2 required to make the potential of H2 - electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is :
(1) 10–14 atm (2) 10–12 atm (3) 10–10 atm (4) 10–4 atm
298 K i j ' kq
) t y esaH2 & by sDVªksM dk foHko ' kw
U; dj usdsfy ; svko' ; d H2 - nkc gS%
(1) 10–14 atm (2) 10 –12 atm (3) 10–10 atm (4) 10–4 atm
Sol. 1
2H+ + 2e–  H2
(g)
PH2
 0.06
ER = E R
– log H  2
2  
PH2
0 = 0 –0.03 log 107 2 =0
 
PH2
=1
1014
PH2 = 10–14 atm

76. The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities ?
(1) Entropy (2) Internal energy (3) Enthalpy (4) Activation energy
fdl hj kl k; fud vfHkfØ; k esamRizsjd ds; ksx l sfuEufy f[ kr esal sdkS
u l hek=kk cny r hgS\
(1) , U
VªkWih (2) vka r fj d Åt kZ (3) , s a
FkS
Yi h (4) l fØ; .k Åt kZ
Sol. 4
Ea decreases
77. The ionic radii of A+ and B– ions are 0.98 × 10–10 m and 1.81 × 10–10 m. The coordination number
of each ion in AB is :
(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 2
A , oaB vk; uks
+ – adhvk; fud f=kT; k, a0.98 × 10 m , oa1.81 × 10 m gS
–10 –10 A AB esai zR; sd vk; u dhmi l gl a
; kst u
la
[ ; k gS
%
&
(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 2
Sol. 1
10
r 0.98  10
 = = 0.54
r 1.81  1010
0.414 – 0.732 = NaCl = 6 : 6
29
78. Which is the correct statement for the given acids ?

(1) Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a monoproti acid.
(2) Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid.
(3) Both are triprotic acids
(4) Both are diprotic acids.
fuEufy f[ kr esal sdkSu l k dFku fn; sx; svEy ksadsfy ; sl ghgS
\
(1) QkW fLQfud vEy f} i zksVhd vEy gSt cfd QkW LQksfud vEy , di zksVhd vEy gSA
(2) QkW fLQfud vEy , di zksVhd vEy gSt cfd QkW LQksfud vEy f} i zksVhd vEy gS
A
(3) nksuksf=ki zksVhd vEy gSA
(4) nksuksf} i zksVhd vEy gSA
Sol. 2
Phesphinic acid = H3PO2
Phasphanic acid H3PO3
79. Fog is a colloidal solution of :

(1) Liquid in gas (2) Gas in liquid (3) Solid is gas (4) Gas in gas
/ka
q
/k dksy kW
bMhfoy ; u gS:
(1) xSl esanzo dk (2) nz
o esaxS
l dk (3) xS
l esaBksl dk (4) xS
l esaxS
l dk
Sol. 1
80. Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 mol
mixture of benzene and toluene is correct ? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25°C.
(Given Vapour Pressure Data is 25°C, benzene = 12.8 kJ toluene = 3.85 kPa)
(1) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene.
(2) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene.
(3) The vapour will contain equal amounts benzene and toluene.
(4) Not enough information is given to make prediction.
fuEu esal sdkS
ul kdFku csUt hu r Fkk VkWY; wbZ
u ds, d vkn' kZ1 : 1 eksy feJ.ki j ok"i nkc dsl a
?kBu dsfy ; sl ghgS\ ekuk
dhr ki 25°C i j fu; r gS(fn; k x; k gSok"i nkc MkVk25°C, csUt hu = 12.8 kJ VkW Y; w
bZ
u = 3.85 kPa)
(1) ok"i esacsUt hu dk mPp i zfr ' kr mi fLFkr gksxk
(2) ok"i esaVkWY; w
bZ
u dk mPp i zfr ' kr mi fLFkr gksxk
(3) ok"i esacsUt hu r Fkk VkW
Y; w
bZ
u dhcj kcj ek=kk mi fLFkr gksxh
(4) cr kusdsfy ; si ; kZ
Ir l wpuk, sughanh xbZgS A
Sol. 1
PA PA0x A
yA = P = o
S PA x A  PBo xB
12.8  0.5
= 12.8  0.5  3.85  0.5
   
6.4 6.4
= = = 0.76
6.4  1.92 6.3
YA = 0.76
yB = 0.24
81. The correct statement regarding the comparison staggered and eslipsed conformations of ethane,
(1) The staggered conformation of ethane is low stable than eclipsed conformation, because
staggered conformation has torsional strain
(2) The esclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because
eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain
(3) The eclipsed conformation of ethen is more stable than staggered conformation even though
the eclipsed conformation has torsional strain.
(4) The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because
staggered conformation has no torsion strain.
, Fksu dsl ka
r fj r , oaxzLr l a : i .k dhr qy uk dsfy ; sl ghdFku gS%
(1) , Fks
u dk l ka r fj r l a: i .k] xzLr l a: i .k l sde LFkk; h gSD; ksa
fd l akr fj r l a: i .k esaej ksM+
hfodr̀ hgS A
(2) , Fks
u dk xzLr l a : i .k] l ka
r fj r l a
: i .k l svf/kd LFkk; hgSD; ksa
fd xzLr l a : i .k esaej ksM+
h fodr̀ hughagSA
(3) , Fks
u dk xzLr l a : i .k] l ka
r fj d l a
: i .k l svf/kd LFkk; h gSt cfd xzLr l a : i .k esaej ksM+hfodr̀ hgS A
(4) , Fks
u dk l ka r fj r l a: i .k] xzLr l a: i .k l svf/kd LFkk; h gSD; ksa
fd l akr fj r l a: i .k esaej ksM+
h fodr̀ hughagS
A
30
Sol. 4
H HH
H H
H
H H H H
H
H
Staggered Eclipred
82. The reaction
can be classified as :
(1) Williamson ether synthesis reaction (2) Alcohol formation reaction
(3) Dehydration reaction (4) Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
vfHkfØ; k
dksoxhZd r̀ fd; k t k l dr k gS %&

(1) fofy ; El u bZ
Fkj l a' y s"k.k vfHkfØ; k (2) , Ydksgy foj pu vfHkfØ; k
(3) fut Z
y hdj .k vfHkfØ; k (4) fofy ; El u , Ydks
gy l a
' y s"k.k vfHkfØ; k
Sol. 1
williamon ether synthesis
Sodium alkoxide 
R—X
 Ether
83. The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is :
(1) Schiff base (2) Ketone (3) Carboxylic acid (4) Aromatic acid
, sfYMgkbM , oai zkFkfed , sehu dhvfHkfØ; k l scuk mRikn gS:
(1) f' kQ~cs
l (2) fdVks
u (3) dkcksZ
fDl fy d vEy (4) , sjksesfVd vEy
Sol. 1
—CH = 0 + H2N — R  —CH=N—R
Schiff's base
84. Which of the following biphenyl is optically active?
O2N Br Br
(1) (2)
I I I
I CH3
(3) (4)
I CH3
31
fuEu esal sdkS

u l k ckbZ
fQuk; y i zd kf' kd l fØ; gS
\
O2N Br Br
(1) (2)
I I I
I CH3
(3) (4)
I CH3
Sol. 2
POS is not present
85. For the following reaction

(A) CH3CH2CH2Br+KOH 
    CH3CH = CH2 + KBr + H2O
H3C CH 3 H 3C CH 3
(B) + KOH + KBr
Br OH
Br
(C) + Br2
Br
Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) (a) and (b) are elimination reactions and (c) is addition reaction.
(2) (a) is elimination, (b) is substitution and (c) is addition reaction.
(3) (a) is elimination, (b) (c) are substitution reaction
(4) (a) is substitution, (b) and (c) are addition reaction
fuEu vfHkfØ; kv ksa ds fy ; s %
(A) CH3CH2CH2Br+KO 
    CH3CH = CH2 + KBr + H2O
H3C CH 3 H 3C CH 3
(B) + KOH + KBr
Br OH
Br
(C) + Br2
Br
fuEu esa l s dkS u l k dFku l R; gS \
(1) (a) vkS j (b) foy ksiu vfHkfØ; k, ¡ gS a r Fkk (c) ; ksxt vfHkfØ; k gS
A
(2) (a) foy ks i u vfHkfØ; k, (b) i zfr LFkki u vfHkfØ; k v kS
j (c) ; ksxt vfHkfØ; k gS
A
(3) (a) foy ks i u vfHkfØ; k, (b) vkS j (c) i zfr LFkki u vfHkfØ; k, ¡ gS
A
(4) (a) i zfr LFkki u, (b) vkSj (c) ; ksxt vfHkfØ; k, ¡ gSA
Sol. 2
86. At 100ºC the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732
mm. If Kb = 0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be :
(1) 101°C (2) 100°C (3) 102°C (4) 103°C
, d 6.5 g foy s; dk 100 g t y esa foy ; dk 100 °C di j ok"i nkc 732 mm gS
A ; fn Kb = 0.52,
r ks bl foy ; u dk DoFkuka
d gksxk%
&
(1) 101°C (2) 100°C (3) 102°C (4) 103°C
32
Sol. 1
Tb = iKb m
6.5  1000
Tb (i) (0.52)
mw  100
0.52  65
=
30.58
Tb = 1.1052
Tb1 = 101.1
Tb1  101
87. The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA respectively is
(1) The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2-deoxyribose.
(2) The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2-deoxyribose.
(3) The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA ribose.
(4) The sugar component in RNA is 2-deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose.
RNA , oa DNA ds fy ; s l gh dFku Øe' k% gS %
&
(1) RNA es a ' kdZ
j k ?kVd vj Sfcuksl gS vkS j DNA esa ' kdZ j k ?kVd 2-fMvkW Dl hjkbcksl gSA.
(2) RNA es a ' kdZ
j k ?kVd j kbcksl gS vkS j DNA esa ' kdZ j k ?kVd 2-fMvkW Dl hjkbcksl gS A
(3) RNA es a ' kdZ
j k ?kVd vj Sfcuksl gS a vkSj DNA esa ' kdZ j k ?kVd j kbcksl gS A
(4) RNA es a ' kdZ
j k ?kVd 2-fMvkW Dl hjkbcksl vksj DNA esa ' kdZ j k ?kVd vj S fcuksl gS a
A
Sol. 2
88. The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is :
(1) Arylamines are generally less basis than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair
electrons are delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring  electron system
(2) Arylamines are generally more basis than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair
electrons are not delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring  electron system
(3) Arylamines are generally more basis than alkylamines because of aryl group.
(4) Arylamines are generally more basis than alkylamines because the nitrogen atom in
arylamines is sp-hybridized.
, j hy , ehu ds {kkj dr k ds fy ; s l gh dFku gS %&
(1) , j hy , ehu l kekU; r %, fYdy , ehu l s de {kkj h; gksrh gSD; ksafd ukbVªkst u ds , dkdh&; q Xe by sDVªksu , j ksesfVd
oy ; ds  by sDVªksu ds l kFk foLFkkfi r gksr s gS A
(2) , j hy , ehu l kekU
; r %, fYdy , ehu l s T; knk {kkj h; gksrh gSD; ksa
fd ukbVªkst u ds , dkdh&; q Xe by sDVªksu , j ksesfVd
oy ; ds  by sDVªksu ds l kFk foLFkkfi r ugha gksrs gS A
(3) , fj y l ew g ds dkj .k , j hy , ehu l kekU; r %, fYdy , ehu l s T; knk {kkj h; gS A
(4) , fj y, ehu l kekU ; r %, fYdy, ehu l s T; knk {kkj h; gS D; ksfad , j hy , ehu esa ukbVªkst u i j ek.kq sp-l a
d fj r gS A
Sol. 1
..
NH 2
Alkylamine
R—NH2
Resonance
not present
Resonance
89. Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar?
(1) Maltose (2) Lactose (3) Glucose (4) Sucrose
fuEu esa l s dkS
ul h , d xSj &vi pk; d ' kq
xj gS
\
(1) ekYVksl (2) y sDVksl (3) Xy q
d ksl (4) lq
Øksl
Sol. 4
Sucrose
(anomeric part in not free)
90. The pair of electron in the given carbanion, CH3  C , is present in which of the following
orbitals?
(1) 2p (2) sp3 (3) sp2 (4) sp
fn; s x; s dkcZ
&_ .kk; u] CH3  C , ds ; q
Xe by sDVªksu fuEu esa l s fdl d{kd esa mi fLFkr gS
\
(1) 2p (2) sp3 (3) sp2 (4) sp
Sol. 4
33
[BIOLOGY]
91. Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states that:
(1) More abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition.
(2) Competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences.
(3) No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources.
(4) Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition.
91. Li /khZvi ot Z
u dk xkW
l sfu; e dgr k gSfd%
(1) vf/kd l a
[ ; k esi k, t kr soky hLi h'kht Li /kkZ} kj k de l a
[ ; k esai k, t kusoky h Li h'kht dksvi oft Z
r dj nsxhA
(2) l eku l a
l k/kuksadsfy , Li /kkZml Li h'kht dksvi oft Z
r dj nsxht ksfHkUu i zd kj dsHkkkst u i j Hkht hfor j g l dr hgS
A
(3) dksbZHkhnksLi h'kht , d ghfudsr esavl hfer vof/k dsfy , ughaj g l dr hD; ka
sfd l hekdkj hl a
l k/ku l eku ghgksrsgS
A
(4) vi s{kkdr̀ cM+
svkdkj dst ho Li /kkZ} kj k NksVst a
rq
v ksadksckgj fudky nsrsgS
a
A
Ans. [3]
92. The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by:
(1) Hydrogen bonds (2) Phosphodiester bond
(3) Covalent bond (4) Disulphide bridges
92. ekuo bUl q

fy u dsnksi kW
y hi sIVkbM vki l esafdl ds} kj k l a
; ksft r gksrsgS
\
(1) gkbMªkst u cU/k (2) QkLQksMkb, LVj cU/k
(3) l gl a
; kst hcU/k (4) Mkbl YQkbM l srq
Ans. [4]
93. The coconut water from tender coconut represents:

(1) Endocarp (2) Fleshy mesocarp
(3) Free nuclear proembryo (4) Free nuclear endosperm
93. dPpsukfj ; y esa

] ukfj ; y i kuhD; k gS
\
(1) vUr %Qy fHkfÙk (2) xw
nsnkj e/; Qy fHkfÙk
(3) Lor U=k dsUnzd h Hkw
z.ki w
ohZ (4) Lor U=k dsUnzd h Hkw
z.ki ks"k
Ans. [4]
94. Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids?

(1) They lack a protein coat (2) They are smaller than viruses
(3) They cause infections (4) Their RNA is of high molecular weight
94. fuEufy f[ kr esal sdkS

u l k dFku okbj kW
; M dsfo"k; esaxy r gS
\
(1) muesai zksVhu vkoj .k dk vHkko gksrk gS (2) ; sfo"kk.kq
v ksal svi s{kkdr̀ NksVsgksr sgS
A
(3) ; sl a
Øe.k dj r sgS
A (4) mudk vkj -, u-, - mPp vkf.od Hkkj oky k gksrk gS
A
Ans. [4]
34
95. Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum-Arthropoda?

(1) Chitinous exoskeleton (2) Metameric segmentation
(3) Parapodia (4) Jointed appendages
95. fuEufy f[ kr y {k.kksaesal sdkS

u&l k y {k.k Qkby e&vkFkzksZ
i ksMk esaughai k; k t kr k \
(1) dkbfVuh ckgkda
d ky (2) fo[ ka
Mh [ ka
MhHkou
(3) i k' oZ
i kn (4) ;q
fXer mi ka
x
Ans. [3]
96. Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia?

(1) Recessive gene disorder (2) X-linked recessive gene disorder
(3) Chromosomal disorder (4) Dominant gene disorder

ul k gheksQksfy ; k dk l cl svf/kd mi ; q
Dr o.kZ
u i zLr q
r dj r k gS\
(1) vi zHkkoh t hu dk fodkj (2) X-l gy Xu vi zHkkoh t hu dk fodkj
(3) xq
. kl w
=kh fodkj (4) i zHkkoh t hu dk fodkj
Ans. [2]
97. Emerson's enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of:
(1) Photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport
(2) Two photosystems operating simultaneously
(3) Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation
97. bel Z
u nh?khZ
d j .k i zHkko vkS
j y ky cw
a
n¼j sM Mªki ½fdl dh[ kkst esai zeq
[ k ; U=k j gsgS
\
(1) i zd k' kj q
kLQksfj y s'ku vkS
j vpØh; by sDVªkW
u vfHkxeu
(2) nksi zd k' k r U=kksadk , d l kFk dk; Zdj uk
(3) i zd k' kq
kLQksfj y s'ku vkS
j pØh; by sDVªkW
u vfHkxeu
(4) vkW
Dl hMsfVo QkLQksfj y s'ku
Ans. [2]
98. In which of the following, all three are macronutrients?

(1) Boron, zinc, manganese (2) Iron, copper, molybdenum
(3) Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese (4) Nitrogen, nickel, phosphorus

u l Hkhr hu cg̀Ùki ks"kd gS
\
(1) cksjkW
u] ft a
d ] eS
a
xt hu (2) y kS
g] r kez] eksy hCMsue
(3) eksy hCMsue] eS
Xuhf' k; e] eS
a
xuht (4) ukbVªkst u] fufdy QkLQksjl
Ans. [Bonus]
35
99. Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking;
(1) Emphysema (2) Asthma
(3) Respiratory acidosis (4) Respiratory alkalosis
99. /kw
eziku dj usdsdkj .k i z/kkur %mr i Uu gksusoky snh?kzd ky h' ol u&fodkj dk uke cr kb, %
(1) okr LQhfr (2) vLFkek
(3) ' ol u vkEy j Dr r k (4) ' ol u {kkj e; r k
Ans. [1]
100. A system of rotating crops with legume or grass pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is
called:
(1) Ley farming (2) Contour farming
(3) Strip farming (4) Shifting agriculture
100. eǹkl a
j pukvkS j moZ
j dr kesal q
/kkj y kusdsfy , Ql y ksadksQy hnkj i kS
/kksa¼
y sX; w
e½; k?kkl pkj xkg dsl kFkcny dj y xkusdks
D; k dgk t kr k gS
\
(1) y s[ ksrh (2) l eksPpj s[kh; [ ksrh
(3) i êhnkj [ ksrh (4) LFkkukUr j h df̀"k
Ans. [1]
101. Mitochondria and chloroplast are:

(a) semi-autonomous organelles
(b) formed by division of pre -existing organelle and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesiz-
ing machinery.
Which one of the following options is correct?
(1) Both (a) and (b) are correct (2) (b) is true but (a) is false
(3) (a) is true but (b) is false (4) Both (a) and (b) are false
101. ekbVksd kW
fUMª; k vkS
j Dy ksjksIy kLV ¼
gfj r y od½gS
a%
(a) v/kZ
Lok; r va
xd gS
A
(b) iw
oZ
or hZva
xdksadsfoHkkt u l scur sgS
avkS
j muesaDNA gksrk gSy sfdu i zksVhu&l a
' y s"khi z.kky hdk vHkko gksrk gS
A
fuEufy f[ kr fodYi ksaesal sdkS
ul k l ghgS
\
(1) (a) vkS
j (b) nksuksal gh gS (2) (b) l ghgS
ay sfdu (a) xy r gS
(3) (a) l ghgSy sfdu (b) xy r gS (4) (a) vkS
j (b) nksuksagh xy r gS
Ans. [3]
102. ln context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is in incorrect ?

(1) It is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant.
(2) It is used for prenatal sex determination.
(3) It can be used for detection of Down syndrome
(4) It can be used for detection of Cleft palate.
36
102. mYcos/ku dsl a

nHkZesa
] fuEufy f[ kr esal sdkS
u&l k dFku xy r gS
\
(1) ; g vker kS
j l sr c fd; k t kr k gSt c L=khdks14-16 l Ir kg dschp dk xHkZgksrk gS
A
(2) bl si zl oi w
oZfy xa
&fu/kkZ
j .k dsfy , i z;q
Dr fd; k t kr k gS
A
(3) bl sMkmu fl a
Mªkse dk i r k y xkusdsfy , i z;q
Dr fd; k t kr k gS
A
(4) bl s[ ka
Mr ky q¼
Dy siV i S
y sV½dk i r k y xkusdsfy i z;q
Dr fd; k t kr k gS
A
Ans. [4]
103. In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in:

(1) Stroma (2) Lumen of the thylakoids
(3) Inter membrane space (4) Antennae complex
103. gfj r y od esai zksVkW
u dhvf/kdr e l a
[ ; k dgk¡ i k; ht kr hgS
\
(1) i hfBdk (2) Fkkby sd ksbM dh vodkf' kdk
(3) vUr j k dy k LFkku (4) , sUVsuk l eq
Pp
Ans. [2]
104. Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of:

(1) Guanosine and Retinol (2) Opsin and Retinal
(3) Opsin and Retinol (4) Transducin and Retinene
104. ekuo us=k esai zd k' kl a
osnh ; kS
fxd cuk gksrk gS
%
(1) Xokuksfl u vkS
j j sfVukW
y ls (2) vksfIl u vkS
j j sfVuy l s
(3) vksfIl u vkS
j j sfVukW
y ls (4) Vªka
LM~
;w
fl u vkS
j j sfVuhu l s
Ans. [2]
105. Spindle fibres attach on to:

(1) Telomere of the chromosome (2) Kinetochore of the chromosome
(3) Centromere of the chromosome (4) Kinetosome of the chromosome
105. r dw
Z
: i hr a
r qy xr sgS%
(1) xq
. kl w
=k dsva
R; ka
' ki j (2) xq
. kl w
=k dsdkbusVksd ksj i j
(3) xq
. kl w
=k dsl w
=kdsUnzi j (4) xq
. kl w
=k dsdkbusVksl kse i j
Ans. [2]
106. Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India?

(1) Gangetic shark (2) River dolphin
(3) Blue whale (4) Sea-horse
106. Hkkj r dk j k"Vªh; t y hi zk.kh dkS
ul k gs\
(1) xa
xk dh ' kkdZ (2) unh dh MkW
fYQu
(3) Cy wg~
osy (4) l eq
nzh ?kksM+
k
Ans. [2]
37
107. Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?
(1) glucose (2) galactose (3) lactose (4) lactose and galactose
107. yS
d i zpky sd dhvfHkO
; fDr dsfy , fuEufy f[ kr esal sdkS
u , d i zsjd ds: i esadk; Zdj usdsfy , vko' ; d gksxk\
(1) Xy w
d kst (2) xS
y sDVkst (3) yS
DVkst (4) yS
DVkst vkS
j xS
y sDVkst
Ans. [3]
108. Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each
other?
(1) Parathormone - Calcitonin
(2) Insulin - Glucagon
(3) Aldosterone - Atrial Natriuretic Factor
(4) Relaxin - Inhibin
108. gkW
eksZ
uksadsfuEufyf[ kr ; q
Xeksaesal sdkS
ul k ; q
Xe , d nw
l j sdk foj ks/kh¼
foi j hr i zHkko okyk½ughagS
\
(1) i S
j kFkseksZ
u - dS
fYl Vksfuu
(2) ba
lqfyu - Xyq
dSxkW
u
(3) , s
YMksLVsjkW
u - , fVª; y us
fVª; w
j sfVd dkj d
(4) fj yS
fDl u - bfUgfcu
Ans. [4]
109. Microtubules are the constituents of:

(1) Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes
(2) Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia
(3) Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin
(4) Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles
109. lw
{eufy dk, ¡ l a
?kVd gksrhgS
%
(1) i {ekHkksa
] d' kkHkksavkS
j i j vkW
Dl hdk; ksads
(2) r dq
Z
: i hj s'kksa
] r kj ddsUnzksavkS
j i {ekHkksads
(3) r kj dsUnzksa
] r dq
Z
: i hj s'kksavkS
j ØkseS
fVu ds
(4) r kj ddk; ksa
] U; q
fDy ; ksl kse vkS
j r kj ddsUnzksads
Ans. [2]
110. A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as :

(1) Polysome (2) Polymer (3) Polypeptide (4) Okazaki fragment
110. j kbcksl kse dk , d l a

dqy t ksRNA ds, dy j Tt q
d dsl kFk t q
M+k gksrk gS
] D; k dgy kr k gS
\
(1) i kW
y hl kse (2) i kW
y hej ¼
cgq
y d½ (3) i kW
y hi sIVkbM (4) vksd kt kdh [ k.M
Ans. [1]
38
111. Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if:

(1) the sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube
(2) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic junction of the
fallopian tube
(3) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic junction of the
cervix.
(4) the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus.
111. ekuoksaesafu"kspu i zfØ; k O

; kogkfj dr %r Hkhl a
Hko gksxht c%
(1) ' kq
Ø.kq
v ksadk ; ksfu dsHkhr j LFkkuka
r j va
Mk.kqdsQS
y ksih uy hesaNksM+
st kusdsBhd ckn gksA
(2) va
Mk.kqvkS
j ' kq
Øk.kq
v ksadk LFkkuka
r j .k QS
y ksihuy h dsQS
y ksihuy hds, a
iq
y j h&bLFkfed l a
xe i j , d gh l e; i j gksA
(3) va
Mk.kqvkS
j ' kq
Øk.kq
v ksadk LFkkuka
r j .k xzhok ds, a
iq
y j hbLFkfed l a
xe i j , d gh l e; i j gksrk gksA
(4) xzhok dsHkhr j ' kq
Ø.kq
v ksadk LFkkuka
r j .k xHkkZ
' k; esava
Mk.kqdsfueq
Z
Dr gksusds48 ?ka
VsdsHkhr j gksrk gksA
Ans. [2]
112. Asthma may be attributed to:

(1) bacterial infection of the lungs
(2) allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs
(3) inflammation of the trachea
(4) accumulation of fluid in the lungs
112. vLFkek dk dkj .k D; k gksrk gS

\
(1) QsQM+
ksadk t hok.kq} kj k l a
Øe.k
(2) QsQM+
ksaesaekLV dksf' kdkvksadh, y t hZ
&vfHkfØ; k
(3) ' okl uy h dh ' kksFk
(4) QsQM+
ksadsHkhr j i kuh , df=kr gkst kuk
Ans. [2]
113. The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of:

(1) ABA (2) GA3 (3) IAA (4) Ethylene
113. , ohuk oØr k fdl dst S

o vkeki u dsfy , i z;q
Dr gksrhgS
\
(1) ABA (2) GA3 (3) IAA (4) , fFky hu
Ans. [3]
114. The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called :

(1) Carina (2) Pappus (3) Vexillum (4) Corona
114. iS
fi fy vksusl hoky sny i q
a
t esaekud ny dksvU; fdl uke l st kuk t kr k gS
\
(1) dS
fj uk (2) iS
il (3) oS
Dl hy e (4) dksjksuk
Ans. [3]
39
115. Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of :

(1) Liliaceae (2) Solanaceae (3) Fabaceae (4) Poaceae
115. f=kdks"Vdh] ; q
Dr k.Mi ht k; k¡x fdl dsi q
"i esagksrk gS
\
(1) fy fy , l h (2) l ksy S
usl h (3) QS
csl h (4) i ks,l h
Ans. [1]
116. One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is:
(1) Chitin (2) Peptidoglycan (3) Cellulose (4) Hemicellulose
116. vf/kdr j dodksaesadksf' kdk fHkfÙk dk , d i zeq

[ k vo; o dkS
ul k gS
\
(1) dkbfVu (2) i sIVhMksXy kbdu (3) l sY; w
y kst (4) gsehl sY; w
y kst
Ans. [1]
117. Select the incorrect statement:

(1) FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis.
(2) LH triggers ovulation in ovary
(3) LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase.
(4) LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells.
117. xy r dFku dkspq

fu, %
(1) FSH l VksZ
y hdksf' kdkvksadksmíhfi r dj r k gSt ks' kq
Ø.kq
t uu esal gk; r k dj r k gS
A
(2) LH va
Mk' k; esava
MksRl t Z
u dksi zsfj r dj r k gS
A
(3) LH vkS
j FSH i q
Vd&voLFkk dsnkS
j ku /khjs&/khjs?kVr k t kr k gS
A
(4) LH y hMhx dksf' kdkvksal sa, sa
Mªkst u dsL=kko dksi zsfj r dj r k gS
A
Ans. [3]
118. In meiosis crossing over is initiated at -

(1) Pachytene (2) Leptotene (3) Zygotene (4) Diplotene
118. v) Z
lw=khfoHkkt u esat hu fofue; fdl voLFkk esavkj EHk gksrk gS
\
(1) LFkw
yi ê (2) r uq
iê (3) ;q
Xei ê (4) f} i ê
Ans. [1]
119. A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant.
When the F1 plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of:
(1) 1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous : Dwarf
(2) 1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous : Dwarf
(3) 3 : 1 :: Tall : Dwarf
(4) 3 : 1 ::Dwarf : Tall
40
119. , d y Ecsr n~
: i i zt uu m| ku eVj i kni dks, d ckS
usr n~
: i i zt uu m| ku eVj i kni l sl a
d fj r dj k; kx; kA t c F1 i kni ksa
dksLoi j kfxr fd; k x; k r kst hu i zk: i dk i fj .kke fdl vuq
i kr esaFkk\
(1) 1 : 2 : 1 :: y Ecsl e; q
Xet h : y Ecsfo"ke; q
Xet h : ckS
us
(2) 1 : 2 : 1 :: y Ecsfo"ke; q
Xet h : y Ecsl e; q
Xet h : ckS
us
(3) 3 : 1 :: y Ecs: ckS
us
(4) 3 : 1 :: ckS
us: y Ecs
Ans. [1]
120. Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinc-
tion ?
(1) Over-exploitation (2) Alien species invasion
(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation (4) Co - extinctions
120. t Ur q
v ksavkS
j i ni ksadhfoy q
fIr dk fuEufy f[ kr esal sdkS
u l k , d l cl seq
[ ; dkj .k gS
\
(1) vfr nksgu (2) fons'kh t kfr dh p<+
kbZ
(3) vkokl gkfu vkS
j [ ka
Mu (4) l g&l ekfIr
Ans. [3]
121. Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem ?

(1) Absence of soil organisms (2) Least genetic diversity
(3) Absence of weeds (4) Ecological succession

u , d df̀"k Hkw
fe i kfj r U=k dk vfHky {k.k gS
\
(1) eǹk t hoksadh vuq
i fLFkfr (2) U; w
ur e vkuq
oa
f' kd fofo/kr k
(3) vi r .̀kksadh vuq
i fLFkfr (4) i kfj r fU=kd vuq
Øe.k
Ans. [2]
122. Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of:
(1) estrogen and progesterone (2) estrogen and inhibin
(3) progesterone only (4) progesterone and inhibin
122. eknkvksaesaGnRH i Yl ckj a

ckj r k cny ko dk fu; a
=k.k fdl dsi fj l a
pj .k&Lr j ksa} kj k gksrk gS
\
(1) bZ
LVªkst u vkS
j i zkst sLVsjkW
u (2) bZ
LVªkst u vkS
j ba
fga
fcu
(3) dsoy i zkst sLVsjkW
u (4) i zkst sLVsjkW
u vkS
j ba
fgfcu
Ans. [1]
123. Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids ?

(1) Independent replication (2) Circular structure
(3) Transferable (4) Single-stranded
41

ul k , d Iy kfTeM dk vfHky {k.k ughagS
\
(1) Lor U=k i zfr dr̀ h; u (2) oÙ̀kh; l a
j puk
(3) LFkkukUr j .k ; ksX; (4) , dy &j Tt q
d h;
Ans. [4]
124. Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana?

(1) Schizocoelom as body cavity
(2) Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
(3) Exoskeleton composed of N-acetylglucosamine
(4) Metamerically segmented body

ul k y {k.k i sfj Iy S
usVk vesfj dkuk esaughai k; k t kr k\
(1) nsgxq
gk ds: i esanh.kZ
xq
gk
(2) Hkw
z.kh; i fj o/kzu dsnkS
j ku vfu/kkZ
fj r vkS
j vj h; fony u
(3) N-, l sfVy Xy w
d ksl , sehu l sfufeZ
r cká da
d ky
(4) fo[ ka
M' k%[ ka
fMr nsg
Ans. [2]
125. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property
is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to:
(1) Allergic response (2) Graft rejection
(3) Auto-immune disease (4) Active inmunity
125. mPpr j d' ks: fd; ksaesa

] i zfr j {kk r a
=k Lo&dksf' kdkvksaxS
j &dksf' kdkvksaesaHksn dj l dr k gS
A ; fn r a
=k dk vkuq
ohZ
r vi l kekU; r k
dsdkj .k ; g xq
. k u"V gkst k, vkS
j Lo&dksf' kdkvksadksu"V dj usy xsr ksbl dsi fj .kkeLo: i D; k gksxk \
(1) , sy t hZvuq
fØ; k (2) fuj ksi vLohdkj dj nsuk
(3) Loi zfr j {kk fodkj (4) l fØ; i zfr j {kk
Ans. [3]
126. Match the terms in Column-I with their description in Column-II and choose the correct option:
Column I ColumnII
(a) Dominance (i) Many genes govern a single character
(b) Codominance (ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses
itself
(c) Pleiotropy (iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express
themselves fully
(d) Polygenic inheritance (iv) A single gene influences many characters
42
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
126. dkW
y e-I dh' kCnksadksdkW
y e-II esafn, x, mudso.kZ
u l seS
p dhft , r Fkk l gh fodYi pq
fu, %
Column I ColumnII
(a) i zHkkfor k (i) vudst hu , dy y {k.k dk fu; a

=k.k dj r sgS
A
(b) l gi zHkkfor k (ii) fo"ke; q
Xet ht ho esadsoy , d gh, sy hy Lo; adksvfHkO
; Dr dj r k gS
A
(c) cgq
i zHkkfor k (iii) fo"ke; q
Xet ht ho esanksuksagh, sy hy Lo; adksi w
j hr j g vfHkO
; Dr dj r s
gS
A
(d) cgq
t huh oa
' kkxfr (iv) , dy t hu vusd y {k.kksadksi zHkkfor dj r k gS
A
dksM:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Ans. [2]
127. Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during:

(1) 1960s (2) 1970s (3) 1980s (4) 1990s
127. la
;q
Dr ou i zcU/ku dh /kkj .kk Hkkj r esafdl nkS
j ku i zLr kfor dhx; hFkh\
(1) 1960s (2) 1970s (3) 1980s (4) 1990s
Ans. [3]
128. Pick out the correct statements:

(a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease
(b) Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy.
(c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder
(d) Sickle cell anaemia is an X- linked recessive gene disorder.
(1) (a) and (d) are correct (2) (b) and (d) are correct
(3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct (4) (a),(b) and (c) are correct
43
128. l ghdFku pq
fu, %
(a) gheksQhfy ; k fy a
x&l gy Xu vi zHkkoh j ksx gS
A
(b) Mkmu l ha
Mªkse vl q
xq
f.kr k dsdkj .k gksrk gS
A
(c) Qsfuy dhVksuesg ¼
fQukby dhVksU; w
fj ; k½, d vfy a
xlw
=kh vi zHkkoht hu fodkj gS
A
(d) nk=k dksf' kdk j Dr kYi r k X-l gy Xu vi zHkkoht hu fodkj gS
A
(1) (a) vkS
j (d) l ghgS (2) (b) vkS
j (d) l ghgS
(3) (a), (c) vkS
j (d) l ghgS (4) (a),(b) vkS
j (c) l ghgS
Ans. [4]
129. Which one of the following statements is wrong

(1) Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae
(2) Golden algae are also called desmids.
(3) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria.
(4) Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi.

ul k dFku xy r gS
\
(1) l k; ukscS
DVhfj ; k dksuhy &gfj r ' kS
oky Hkhdgr sgS
A
(2) Lof.kZ
e ' kS
oky ksadksMsfLeM Hkhdgr sgS
A
(3) ;q
cS
DVhfj ; k ¼
lqt hok.kq
v ksa
½dksvl Ro t hok.kqHkh dgk t kr k gS
A
(4) Qkbdksekbfl Vht dks' kS
ofy r dod Hkhdgk t kr k gS
A
Ans. [3]
130. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the:

(1) Anther (2) Connective (3) Placenta (4) Thalamus or petal
130. iq
a
d sl u dsr Ur qdk fudVLFk fl j k fdl l st q
M+k gksrk gS
\
(1) i j kxdks"k (2) la
; kst d (3) cht k.Mkl u (4) iq
: i kl u ; k ny
Ans. [4]
131. Which of the following approaches does not the defined action of contraceptive ?
(1) Barrier methods prevent fertilization
(2) Intra uterine devices increase phagocytosis or sperms, suppress sperm motility and
fertilizing capacity of sperms
(3) Hormonal contraceptives Prevent/retard entry of sperms, prevent ovulation and
fertilization
(4) Vasectomy prevents spermatogenesis
44
131. fuEufy f[ kr mi kxeksaesal sdkS

ul k mi kxe fdl hxHkZ
fuj ks/kd dhi fj Hkkf"kr fØ; k ughacr kr k\
(1) j ks/k ¼
cS
fj ; j ½fof/k; k¡ fu"kspu j ksd r hgS
(2) va
r %xHkkZ
' k; h ; q
fDr ; k¡ ' kq
Øk.kq
v ksadh v{kdksf' kdr k c<+
k nsrh gS
a
] ' kq
Øk.kq
v ksadh xfr ' khy r k , oafu"kspu
{ker k dk ea
nu dj r k gS
(3) gkW
eksZ
uh xHkZ
fuj ks/kd ' kq
Øk.kq
v ksadsi zos'k dksj ksd r sgS
a
@ml dhnj dks/khek dj nsrsgS
a
] va
MksRl xZvkS
j
fu"kspu ughagksusnsrs
(4) ' kq
Øokgd mPNsnu ' kq
Øk.kq
t uu ughagksusnsrsA
Ans. [4]
132. The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from:

(1) Thermus aquaticus (2) Thiobacillus ferroxidans
(3) Bacillus subtilis (4) Pseudomonas putida
132. VS
d i kW
fy ej st , Ut kbe fdl l si zkIr fd; k t kr k gS
\
(1) FkeZ
l , DosfVdl (2) fFk; kscS
fl y l QsjksDl hMsUl
(3) cS
fl y l l cfVfy l (4) L; q
Mkseksukl I; q
fVMk
Ans. [1]
133. Identify the correct statement on'inhibin' :

(1) Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin.
(2) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH.
(3) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH
(4) Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH.
133. ^bfgfcu^ dsckj sesal ghdFku i gpkfu, %

&
(1) LH, FSH vkS
j i zksy S
fDVu L=ko.k dksl a
nfer dj r k gS
A
(2) ; g va
Mk' k; dhdf.kdh; dksf' kdkvksa} kj k mRiUu gksrk gSvkS
j FSH L=ko.k dksl a
nfer dj r k gS
A
(3) ; g va
Mk' k; dhdf.kdh; dksf' kdkvksa} kj k mRiUu gksrk gSvkS
j LH L=ko.k dksl a
nfer dj r k gS
A
(4) ; g o`"k.kksadh/kk=kh¼
ul Z
½dksf' kdkvksa} kj k mRiUu gksrk gSvkS
j LH L=ko.k dksl a
nfer dj r k gS
A
Ans. [2]
134. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita?

(1) Flower (2) Leaf (3) Stem (4) Root
134. r Eckdwdsi kS
/ksdk dkS
u l k Hkkx fey ksbMksxkbu bUdksfXuV } kj k l a
Øfer gksrk gS
\
(1) iq
"i (2) i Ùkh (3) r uk (4) t M+
Ans. [4]
45
135. Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into
the body contain:
(1) Activated pathogens (2) Harvested antibodies
(3) Gamma globulin (4) Attenuated pathogens
135. i zfr vkfo"k Vhdksaesai w

oZ
fufeZ
r i zfr j {khgksrsgS
at cfd i ksfy ; k dkscw
¡nksaesa
] ft Ugseq
¡g } kj k fny k; k t kr k gS
] gksrsgS
a%
(1) l fØf; r j ksxt ud (2) cuk, x, i zfr j {kh
(3) xkek Xy ksC;q
fy u (4) {kh.k dj fn, x, j ksxt ud
Ans. [4]
136. Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane ?
(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplasts (3) Lysosomes (4) Nuclei
136. fuEufy f[ kr ea
sl sdkS
u l k dksf' kdka
x dsoy , dy dy k l sf?kj k gksrk gS\
(1) lw
=kdf.kdk (2) gfj r y od (3) y ; udk; (4) dsUnzd
Ans. [3]
137. Lake of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as:
(1) Spasm (2) Fatigue (3) Tetanus (4) Tonus
137. mÙkj ksÙkj mí hi uksadschp foJka

fr dhdehdsdkj .k gksusokyh nh?kZ
d kfyd i s'khl a
dqpu dgykr k gS
A
(1) , s
a
Bu ¼
Li kTe½ (2) Fkdku (3) fVVs
ul (4) Vks
ul
Ans. [3]
138. Which of the following is not a stem modification?

(1) Pitcher of Nepenthes (2) Thorns of citrus
(3) Tendrils of cucumber (4) Flattened structures of Opuntia

u , d r u dk : i kUr j .k ughagS
\
(1) usiUFkht dk ?kV (2) fl Vªl dsdka
Vs
(3) [ khjsdsi zrku (4) vksia
f' k; k dh pi Vh l a
j puk
Ans. [1]
139. Water souluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are :

(1) Xanthophylls (2) Chlorophylls (3) Carotenoids (4) Anthocyanins
139. i kni dksf' kdk dhj l /kkuhesat y ?kq

fy r o.kZ
d dkS
ul sgksrsgS
a
\
(1) tS
UFkksfQy (2) i .kZ
gfj r (3) dS
j ksfVukbM (4) , UFkksl k; fuu
Ans. [4]
46
140. Select the correct statement :

(1) Gymnosperm are both homosporous and heterosporous
(2) Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
(3) Sequoia in one of the tallest trees
(4) The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate
140. l ghdFku pq
fu, %
(1) vukor̀ cht h] l kecht k.kq
d vkS
j fo"kecht k.kq
d i zd kj dsgksrsgS
(2) l kfYofu; k] ft a
xksvkS
j i kbul ] ; sl Hkh vukor̀ u gS
A
(3) fl dksb; k l cl sy Ecsao`{kksaesal s, d gS
(4) vukor̀ cht hi kni ksadh i fÙk; ksadhi fÙk; kat y ok; qdhpj er fy , vuq
dqfy r ughagksrhgS
a
Ans. [3]
141. Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at
present ?
(1) Polymerase chain reaction (2) Zinc finger analysis
(3) Restriction enzymes (4) DNA-DNA hybridization
141. Mh-, u-, - va
xq
fy Nki hdhfdl hHkhr duhd dsfy , fuEufy f[ kr esal sfdl , d dhvko' ; dr k ughagksxh\
(1) i kW
y hej st Jà
[ ky k vfHkfØ; k (2) ft a
x va
xq
fy fo' y s"k.k
(3) i zfr ca
/ku , a
t kbe (4) Mh-, u-, -&Mh-, u-, - l a
d j .k
Ans. [2]
142. Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location?

Tissue Location
(1) Smooth muscle Wall of intestine
(2) Areolar tissue Tendons
(3) Transitional epithelium Tip of nose
(4) Cuboidal epithelium Lining of stomach
142. dkS
ul k År d vi uhfLFkfr l sl gh&l gheS
p dj r k gS
\
År d fLFkfr
(1) fpduh i s'kh vka
=k fHkfÙk
(2) , fj vksy hÅr d da
Mj k
(3) i fj or hZmi dyk ukfl dkxz
(4) ?kukdkj mi dyk vkek' k; vkLr j
Ans. [1]
143. A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows
high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen
utilisation. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant?
(1) C3 (2) C4 (3) CAM (4) Nitrogen fixer
47
143. vki dsm| ku esa, d i kni i zd k' k ' ol u l sgksusoky hgkfu l scpr k gs] ml dht y mi ; ksx dhn{kr k mUur gS
] og mPp r ki
i j i zd k' kl a
' y s"k.kdhmPp nj dksn' kkZ j ml dhukbVªkst u mi ; ksx dhn{kr kmUur gsA vki bl i kni dksfuEufy f[ kr
r kgSvkS
esal sfdl , d dkf; Z
d hl ew
g esaj [ ksa
xs\
(1) C3 (2) C4 (3) CAM (4) ukbVªkst u fLFkfj dkj d
Ans. [2]
144. Which of the following structures is homologus to the wing of a bird ?

(1) Dorsal fin of a Shark (2) Wing of a Moth
(3) Hind limb of Rabbit (4) Flipper of Whale
144. fuEufy f[ kr l a
j pukvksaesal sdkS
u&l hl a
j puk i {khdsi a
[ k dsl et kr gS
%
(1) ' kkdZdh i `"V i a
[k (2) ' ky Hk dk i a
[k
(3) [ kj xks'k dk i ' p i kn (4) g~
osy dk ¶y hi j
Ans. [4]
145. Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of
animals?
(1) Cartilaginous endoskeleton Chondrichthyes
(2) Viviparous Mammalia
(3) Possess a mouth with an upper and a Chordata
lower jaw
(4) 3 - chambered heart with one Reptilia
incompletely divided ventricle

ul sfof' k"V y {k.k ges'kk ght a
rq
v ksadsvuq
: i hoxZesai k, t kr sgS
a
\
(1) mi kfLfky va
r%da
d ky dkW
fMªDFkht
(2) l t hoi zt d eeS
fy ; k
(3) Åi j hvkS
j fupy st cM+
soky k eq
[ k dk i k; k t kuk dkMsZ
Vk
(4) r hu d{k oky k ân; ft l esavi w
. kZ
r %ca
Vk gq
vk j sIVhfy ; k
, d fuy ; gksrk gS
Ans. [1]
146. Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?
(1) Mutations inproto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle.
(2) Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor.
(3) Mutations inactivate the cell control.
(4) Mutations inhibit production of telomerase.
48
146. mRifj or Z
u dsl a
ca
/k esadS
a
l j dksf' kdkvksadsfy , fuEufy f[ kr dFkuksaesal sdkS
u&l k l ghughagS
a\
(1) i zkd~
dSa
l j t huksaesamRifj or Z
u dksf' kdk&pØ dksRofj r dj nsrsgS
A
(2) mRifj or Z
u Vhy ksej st l a
ned dksu"V dj nsrsgS
A
(3) mRifj or Z
u dksf' kdk&fu; a
=k.k dksfuf"Ø; dj nsrsgS
A
(4) mRifj or Z
u Vhy ksej st dsmRiknu dksl a
nfer dj nsrsgS
A
Ans. [4]
147. The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of:
(1) Melatonin and Serotonin (2) Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine
(3) Estrogen and progesterone (4) Cortisol and Cortisone
147. vehuksvEy fVªIVksQS

u fdl dsl a
' y s"k.k dsfy , i w
oZ
xkehgksrk gS
\
(1) esy kVksfuu vkS
j l sjksVksfuu (2) Fkk; j kW
fDl u vkS
j VªkbZ
v kbMksFkk; j ksfuu
(3) bZ
LVªkst u vkS
j i zkst sLVsjkW
u (4) dksfVZ
l ksy vkS
j dksfVZ
l ksu
Ans. [1]
148. Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life:
(a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably
anaerobes,
(b) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.
Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct?
(1) (a) is correct but (b) is false. (3) (b) is correct but (a) is false
(3) Both (a) and (b) are correct (4) Both (a) and (b) are false.
148. t hou dhmRifÙk dsl a

nHkZesanksdFku fn, x, gS
a%
(a) i F̀ohi j i zd V gksusoky svkj a
fHkdr e t ho gj sughaFksvkS
j la
Hkor ; k vok; ohFksA
(b) i zFke i zd V gksusoky sLoi ks"kht ho j l ksLoi ks"kh Fksft Ugksa
usvkW
Dl ht u dk mRl t Z
u ughafd; kA
mi j ksDr dFkuksaesal sdkS
ul k fuEufy f[ kr dFku l ghgS
\
(1) (a) l ghgSy sfdu (b) xy r gS (3) (b) l ghgSy sfdu (a) xy r gS
(3) (a) vkS
j (b) nksuksaghl gh gS (4) (a) vkS
j (b) nksuksagh xy r gS
Ans. [3]
149. Reduction in pH of bood will:

(1) reduce the rate of heart beat
(2) reduce the blood supply to the brain
(3) decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen
(4) release bicarbonate ions by the liver
49
149. : f/kj dspH esagksusoky hdeh dsdkj .k %

(1) gn; Li a
nu dhnj de gkst k; sxhA
(2) efLr "d dk : f/kj l a
pj .k de gkst k, xkA
(3) vkW
Dl ht u dsl kFk gheksXy ksfcu dhca
/kq
r k ?kV t k; sxhA
(4) ; dr̀ } kj k ckbdkcksZ
usV dk fu"dkl u gksusy xsxkA
Ans. [3]
150. Analogous structures are a result of:

(1) Divergent evolution (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Shared ancestry (4) Stabilizing selection
150. l eof̀Ùk l a
j puk, afdl dkj .k mRiUu gksrhgS\
(1) vi l kj hfodkl ds (2) vfHkl kj h fodkl ds
(3) vi l kj hfodkl ds (4) fLFkj dkj h oj .k
Ans. [2]
151. Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease ?

(1) Hind II (2) Protease (3) DNaseI (4) RNase

u l k , d i zfr ca
/ku , .MksU; q
fdr k gS
\
(1) fgUn II (2) i zkfV, t (3) Mh, u, t I (4) vkj , u, t
Ans. [1]
152. The term ecosystem was coined by:

(1) E.P.Odum (2) A.G.Tansley (3) E.Haeckel (4) E.Warming
152. bdksfl LVe ¼

i kfj r U=k½' kCn l cl si gy sfdl uscuk; k Fkk \
(1) bZ
- i h- vksMe (2) , - t h- Vka
l ys (3) bZ
- fgdy (4) bZ
- okfeZ
x
Ans. [2]
153. Which one of the following statements is wrong?

(1) Sucrose is a disaccharide. (2) Cellulose is a polysaccharide.
(3) Uracil is a pyrimidine. (4) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid

u&l k dFku xy r gS\
(1) lq
Øksl , d Mkbl S
dSj kbM gS
A (2) l sY; q
y ksl , d i kW
fy l sd S
j kbM gS
A
(3) ;q
jS
fl y , d fi fj feMhu gS
A (4) Xy kbfl u , d l YQj ; q
Dr vehuksvEy gS
A
Ans. [4]
50
154. In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of gametes requires:

(1) Wind (2) Insects (3) Birds (4) Water
154. czk; ksq
kbV vkS
j vsfj MksQkbV esauj ; q
Xed dsvfHkxeu dsfy , fdl dhvko' ; dr k gksrhgS
\
(1) i ou (2) dhV (3) i {kh (4) ty
Ans. [4]
155. Whendoes the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero ? The logistic
model given as dN/dt = rN(1-N/K):
(1) when N/K is exactly one. (2) when N nears the carrying capacity of habitat.
(3) when N/K equals zero. (4) when death rate is greater than birth rate.
155. y kW
ft fLVd ekW
My dkvuq
l j .kdj r sgq
, fdl hl ef"V dhof̀) nj ' kw
U; dscj kcj de gksxh\ y kW
ft fLVd ekW
My dksfuEufy f[ kr
l ehdj .k l sn' kkZ
; k x; k gS
%
dN/dt = rN(l-N/K)
(1) t c N/K ' kw
U; dscj kcj gksA (2) t c t Uenj dhvi s+
{kk eR̀; q
nj vf/kd gksA
(3) t c N/K Bhd , d gksA (4) t c N i ; kZ
okl dh /kkfj r k {ker k dsl ehi gksA
Ans. [1]
156. Wtuch one of the following statements is not true ?

(1) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
(2) Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
(3) Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies
(4) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes
u&l k dFku l R; ughagS
\
(1) i j kxdks"k dsLQq
Vu esaVsihVe l gk; r k dj r hgS
(2) i j kxd.kksadh cká pksy Li ksjksiksy sfuu dh cuh gksrh gS
(3) cgw
r l h t kfr ; ksadsi j kxd.k xEHkhj i zR; q
tZr ki S
nk dj r sgS
a
(4) nzfor ukbVªkst u esd aHk.Mkfj r i j kxd.k] Ql y i zt uu ; kst ukvksaesai z;q
Dr fd; k t k l dr sgS
Ans. [1]
157. Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks ?
(1) Lichens (2) Liverworts (3) Mosses (4) Green algae
157. , d uXu pêku i j , d vxzxkeht ho ds: i esafuEufy f[ kr esal sdkS
u vk; sxk\
(1) y kbdsu (2) fy oj oVZ (3) ekW
l (4) gfj r ' kS
oky
Ans. [1]
158. Which one of the following is the starter codon ?

(1) AUG (2) UGA (3) UAA (4) UAG
51

ul k , d i zkj EHkd i zd w
V gS
\
(1) AUG (2) UGA (3) UAA (4) UAG
Ans. [1]
159. Whieh one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals?
(1) Ossified endoskeleton (2) Breathing using lungs
(3) Viviparity (4) Warm blooded nature
159. fuEufy f[ kr y {k.kksaesal sdkS
ul k , d y {k.k i f{k; ksavkS
j Lr u/kkfj ; ksanksuksaesaughai k; k t kr k gS
\
(1) vfLFkHkw
r va
r%da
d ky (2) QsQM+
ksa} kj k ' ol u
(3) l t hoi zt udr k (4) fu; r r ki h i zd f̀r
Ans. [3]
160. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to
the rules of ?
(1) Biological names can be written in any language.
(2) The first word in a biological name represents the genus name, and the second is a specific
epithet
(3) The names are written in Latin and are italicised
(4) When written by hand, the names are to be underlined
160. uke&i ) fr dq
N fo' ks"kl koZ
t fud ekU; fu; eksa} kj kfu/kkZ
fj r gksrhgS ul k, d dFku uke i ) fr dsfu; eksa
A fuEufy f[ kr esal sdkS
dsfo: ) gS
\
(1) tS
fod uke dksfdl h HkhHkk"kk esafy [ kk t k l dr k gS
(2) tS
fod uke esai gy k ' kCn oa
' k uke vkS
j nw
l j k ' kCn t kfr l a
d sr i n dksi znf' kZ
r dj r k gS
(3) ukeksadksy S
fVu Hkk"kk esavkS
j fr j Nsv{kj ksaesafy [ kk t kr k gS
A
(4) uke dkst c gkFk l sfy [ kr sgS
ar ksml sj s[kka
fdr fd; k t kr k gS
A
Ans. [1]
161. Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is:

(1) same an that in the aorta. (2) more than that in the carotid.
(3) more than that in the pulmonary vein
(4) less than that in the venae cavae.
161. Qq
IQq
l /keuhdsHkhr j : f/kd nkc gksrk gS%
(1) mr uk ghft r uk egk/keuhdsHkhr j gksrk gS
A (2) dS
j ksfVM dsHkhr j ft r uk gksrk gSml l svf/kd gksrk gS
A
(3) Qq
IQq
l f' kj k dsHkhr j ft r uk gksrk gSml l svf/kd gksrk gS
A
(4) egkf' kj k dsHkhr j ft r uk gksrk gS
] ml l sde gksrk gS
A
Ans. [3]
162. Cotyledon of maize grain is called:
(1) plumule (2) coleorhiza (3) coleoptile (4) scutellum
52
162. eDdk dsnkusdscht i =k dksD; k dgk t kr k gS\

(1) i zka
dqj (2) ew
y ka
dqj (3) i zka
dqj &pksy (4) Ldq
Vsy e
Ans. [4]
163. In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the:

(1) gastrin saecreting cells (2) parietal cells
(3) peptic cells (4) acidic cells
163. vkek' k; esat Bj j l dk L=kko gksrk gS%
(1) xS
fLVªu dk L=kko dj usoky h dksf' kdkvksal s (2) fHkÙkh; dksf' kdkvksl s
(3) i sfIVd dksf' kdkvksal s (4) vEy dksf' kdkvksal s
Ans. [2]
164. Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers:
(1) Nitrous oxide (2) Ozone (3) Ammonia (4) Methane
164. okr koj .k esafdl xS
l dhdehgksusi j Ropk dsdS
a
l j dsvol j c<+t k, a
xs\
(1) ukbVªl vkW
Dl kbM (2) vkst ksu (3) veksfu; k (4) ehFksu
Ans. [2]
165. Chrysophytes/ Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom:
(1) Monera (2) Protista (3) Fungi (4) Animalia
165. Økbl ksQkbV] ; q
Xy hukW
bM] Mkbuks¶y st sy sV vkS
j voi a
d QQw
a
nhfdl t ho t xr esal fEefy r gS
a
\
(1) eksusjk (2) i zksfVLVk (3) dod (4) ta
rq
t xr
Ans. [2]
166. Watervapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same
stomatal opening carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the
above statements using one of following options:
(1) Both processes cannot happen simultaneously.
(2) Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient of water and CO2 is
different
(3) The above processes happen only during night time.
(4) One process occurs during day time, and the other at night
166. i kni i Ùkhl st y ok"i j U/kzksads} kj kckgj vkr kgS
A i zd k' kl a
' y s"k.kdsnkS
j ku ml hj U/kzl sdkcZ
u MkbvkW
Dl kbMi kni esafol fj r
gksrhgS
A mi ; q
Z
Dr dFkuksaesa¼
dkj .kksai j fopkj dj ½, d fodYi pq
fu, %
(1) nksuksai zfØ; k, a, d l kFk ughagksl dr hA
(2) nksuksai zfØ; k, a, d l kFk gksl dr hgS
aD; ksa
fd t y vkS
j CO2 dk fol j .k xq
. kka
d fHkUu gS
A
(3) mi ; q
Z
Dr i zfØ; k, adsoy j kr esagksl dr hgS
A
(4) , d i zfØ; k fnu esar Fkk nw
l j hi zfØ; k j kr esagksrhgS
A
Ans. [2]
53
167. In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea ?
(1) Renal Vein (2) Dorsal Aorta (3) Hepatic Vein (4) Hepatic Portal Vein
167. Lr u/kkfj ; ksaesa
] dkS
ul h: f/kj &okfgdk l kekU; r %l cl svf/kd ; w
fj ; k ogu dj r hgS
\
(1) od̀d&f' kj k (2) i `"B egk/keuh (3) ; dr̀ &f' kj k (4) ; dr̀ fuokfgdk f' kj k
Ans. [3]
168. Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of:
(1) Sporulation (2) Budding
(3) Somatic hybridization (4) Apomixis
168. iq
"i hi kni ksaesafcuk fu"kspu dschp cuuk fuEufy f[ kr esal sdkS
ul hi zfØ; k gS
\
(1) cht k.kq
d t uu (2) eq
dqyu
(3) dkf; d l a
d j .k (4) vl a
xt uu
Ans. [4]
169. Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?
Microbe Product Application
Trichoderma
(1) Cyclosporin A immunosuppressive drug
polysporum
(2) Monascus purpureus Statins lowering of blood cholesterol
removal of clot from blood

(3) Streptococcus Streptokinase
vessel
Clostridium
(4) Lipase removal of oil stains
butylicum
169. uhpsnhx; hr kfy dk esaxy r fey k; hx; henksadkspq

fu, %
l w{ket ho mRi kn v uq i z;ksx
(1) VªkbZd kM
sekZi ksy hLi ksje l kbDyksLi ksfj u A i zfr j {kk l n
aed vkS
"kf/k
(2) eksuL
Sdl i w
j I; q
j h; l LVsfVa
l : f/kj &dksy L
sVªkW
y dksde
dj uk
(3) LVªsIVksd kd
Wl LVªsIVksd buS
t : f/kj &okfgdk l sFkDdsdks
gVkuk
(4) Dy kL
W VªhfM; e y kbi ts r sy ds/kCckasdksgVkuk
C; V
qk; fy de
Ans. [4]
170. In a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the
recombinant-type offspring. This indicates:
(1) The two genes are located on two different chromosomes.
(2) Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis.
(3) The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome.
(4) Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.
54
170. i j h{kkFkZi zl a
j .k esa
] ft l esaF1 f} l a
d j efD[ ; k¡' kkfey i q
uk; ksZ
xt i zd kj dhl a
r fr ; ksadhr q
y uk esat ud&i zd kj l a
r fr ; k¡ vf/kd
mRiUu gq
; ha
A bl esal a
d sr fey r sgSfd
(1) nkst hu nksvy x xq
. kl w
=kksai j fLFkr gS
a
A
(2) v/kZ
lw=k.k dsnkS
j ku xq
. kl w
=k i F̀kd ughagksi k, A
(3) nkst hu l gy Xu gS
avkS
j , d ghxq
. kl w
=k i j fLFkr gS
a
A
(4) nksuksagh y {k.kksadk fu; a
=k.k , d l svf/kd t husgksrk gS
A
Ans. [3]
171. It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because:
(1) It is easier to carry a small body weight.
(2) Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate.
(3) Small animals have a lower O2 requirement.
(4) The efficiency of muscles in large animals is less than in the small animals.
171. cM+
svkdkj dst a
rq
v ksadseq
d kcy sesaNksVsvkdkj dst a
rq
v ksadsfy , i gkM+ uk vkl ku gksrk gSD; ksfd %
hi j p<+
(1) NksVs' kj hj dsHkkj dksÅi j y st kuk vi s{kkdr̀ vkl ku gksrk gS
A
(2) NksVsvkdkj oky si ' kq
v ksadhmi ki p; h nj vi s{kkdr̀ vf/kd gksrhgS
A
(3) NksVsvkdkj dst a
rq
v ksadksO2 vko' ; dr k vi s{kkdr̀ de gksrhgS
A
(4) NksVst a
rq
v ksadseq
d kcy sesaa
cM+
st a
rq
v ksadhi sf' k; ksadhdk; Z
{ker k de gksrhgS
A
Ans. [2]
172. Which ofthe following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells ?
(1) Spindle fibres (2) Disappearance of nucleolus
(3) Chromosome movement (4) Synapsis
172. dkf; dk dksf' kdkvksaesal el w

=k.k dsnkS
j ku fuEufy f[ kr esal sdkS
u&l k y {k.k ughai k; k t kr k \
(1) r dZ
q
: i hr a
rq (2) dsfUnzd k dk foy ksiu
(3) xq
. kl w
=k xfr (4) lw
=k; q
Xeu
Ans. [4]
173. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen
tube of the same species grows into the style.
(2) Insects thatconsume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen/
nectar robbers.
(3) Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of pollen
interacting with those of the pistil.
(4) Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species.
55
173. fuEu fy f[ kr esal sdkS

u l k dFku l R; ughagS
\
(1) cgq
r l kj ht kfr ; ksadsi j kxd.k , d i q
"i dsor hZ
d kxzi j va
dq ai j Ur qml ht kfr dsi j kd.kksadhdsoy , d
fj r gksl dr sgS
i j kx&ufy dk ofr Zd k esavkxsc<+ r hgSA
(2) dhV t ksfcuk i j kx.k fd; si j kx ; k edj a
n dksxzg.k dj r sgS
amUga
si j kx/edj a
n pksj dgr sgS
a
A
(3) i j kxd.k va dq j .k r Fkk i j kx&ufy dk of̀) i j kxd.k r Fkk L=khdsl j dh i j kLi fj d fØ; k dsQy Lo: i mRiUu j kl k; fud
?kVdksa} kj k fu; a
f=kr gksrh gS A
(4) dq
N l fj l ì ] dq
N i kni t kfr ; ksaesai j kx.k dj r sgq
, cr k; sx; sgS
A
Ans. [1]
174. Specialis edepidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called:
(1) Complementary cells (2) Subsidiary cells
(3) Bulliform cells (4) Lenticels
174. } kj dksf' kdkvksadks?ksjusoky hfof' k"Vhdr̀ cká Roph; dksf' kdkvksadksD; k dgk t kr k gS
\
(1) iw
j d dksf' kdk, a (2) l gk; d dksf' kdk, a
(3) vko/kZRoDdksf' kdk, a (4) okr j U/kz
Ans. [2]
175. Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum ?
(1) Semilunar valve (2) Ileocaecal valve
(3) Pyloric sphincter (4) Sphincter of Oddi
ul hl a
j puk ; dǹXU; kl dhokfguhxzg.khesa[ kq
y usoky sj a
/kzdhns[kHkky dj r hgS
\
(1) v/kZ
pa
nzkdkj di kV (2) f=kdka
=k di kV
(3) t Bj fuxZ
e voj ksf/kuh (4) vksMkbZdksvoj ksf/kuh
Ans. [4]
176. &ems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as:
(1) Cladodes (2) Phyllodes (3) Phylloclades (4) Scales
176. i fÙk; ksadk dk; Zdj usoky s] pi Vsgj sva
x esa: i kUr fj r r usdksD; k dkgk t kr k gS
(1) i .kkZ
Hk i oZ (2) i .kkZ
Hk (3) i .kkZ
Hk oÙ̀k (4) ' kYd
Ans. [3]
177. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant
animals, include the:
(1) Halophiles (2) Thermoacidophiles
(3) Methanogens (4) Eubacteria
177. osvkfne i zkdd̀sUnzd hi zk.kh] t ksj kseUFkht a
rq
v ksadsxkscj l sck; ksxS
l &mRiknu dsfy , mÙkj nk; hgksrsgS
a
] fdl dsva
r xZ
r vkr sgS
a
\
(1) y o.kj fx; ksads (2) r ki &vEy j ksfx; ksads
(3) ehFkS
ut udksads (4) lq
t hok.kq
v ksads
Ans. [3]
56
178. A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in:
(1) Drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom.
(2) Increased population of aquatic food web organisms.
(3) An increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients.
(4) Death of fish due to lack of oxygen.
178. , d unhesat c dkcZ

fud vi f' k"V l sHkj i w
j ?kj sy w
okfgr ey cgdj fxj r k gks] r ksml dk i fj .kke D; k gksxk\
(1) ' kS
oky i zLQq
Vu dsdkj .k unh t Ynhghl w
[ k t k, xhA
(2) t y h; Hkkst u dhl ef"V esaof̀) gkst k, xhA
(3) ck; ksfMxzsMscy i ks"k.k dsdkj .k eNy h dk mRiknu c<+t k, xkA
(4) vkW
Dl ht u dhdehdsdkj .k eNfy ; k¡ ej t k, xhA
Ans. [4]
179. A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his
teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of-cell plate
and thus the cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells.
This would result in:
(1) Aneuploidy (2) Polyploidy
(3) Somaclonal variation (4) Polyteny
179. [ ksr l syk; sx, , d i kni dksf' kdkesa, d fo| kFkh} kj kva
R; koLFkkns[khx; hA og vi usf' k{kd l sdgr kgSfd ; g dksf' kdkvUR; koLFkki j
vU; dksf' kdkvksal sfHkUu gS
A bl esadksf' kdk IysV ughacur h vkS
j bl dkj .k bl dksf' kdk esavU; foHkkt u okyh dksf' kdkvksadh vi {kk
vf/kd xq
. kl w
=k gS
A bl dk i fj .kke D; k gksxk\
(1) vl q
xq
f.kr k (2) cgq
xq
f.kr k
(3) dk; Dyks
uh fofHkUur k (4) cgq
i êr k
Ans. [2]
180. A typical fat molecule is made up of:

(1) Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule
(2) One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
(3) One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
(4) Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
180. , d i zk: i hol k dk v.kqfdl dk cuk gksrk gS

\
(1) r hu Xy hl j kW
y v.kq
v ksavkS
j , d ol k vEy v.kqdk
(2) , d Xy hl j kW
y v.kqvkS
j r hu ol k vEy v.kq
v ksadk
(3) , d Xy hl j kW
y vkS
j , d ol k vEy v.kqdk
(4) r hu Xy hl j kW
y vkS
j r hu ol k vEy v.kq
v ksadk
Ans. [2]
57

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NEET 2016

20Ii 0Ii 20IiL 0IiL

0I 0I 0IiL 2  2  20Ii

3. The magnetic susceptibility is negative for :

(1) 0% (2) 20% (3) 75% (4) 80%

(1) 0% (2) 20% (3) 75% (4) 80%

(being velocity of light)

(; gk¡ c i zd k' k dk osx gS

WAD > WIT

41. ; fn fdl hd.k dk osx v = At + Bt2 gS

(C) m = +2 (c) okLr fod i zfr fcEc

s  tan  s  tan  g  s  tan  g s  tan 

45. dksbZdkj f=kT; kR dhofØr l M+

s  tan  s  tan  g  s  tan  g s  tan 

47. In the reaction

CH3 — CH2 — C  C — CH2 — CH2

52. Which of the folloiwing statements is false ?

53. Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect ?

56. In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by :

57. Natural rubber has :

are disting usished by

62. When copper is heated with conc. HNO3 it produces :

(1) 154 pm (2) 352 pm

67. Which of the following is an analgesis ?

H—O—N=O + H+ HSO4– 

If we the KHSO4 than rate decreases.

70. Predict the correct order among the following :

71. The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with CaC2 is :

72. Consider the following liquid - vapour equilibrium.

PH2 = 10–14 atm

78. Which is the correct statement for the given acids ?

79. Fog is a colloidal solution of :

82. The reaction

dksoxhZd r̀ fd; k t k l dr k gS %&

84. Which of the following biphenyl is optically active?

fuEu esal sdkS

85. For the following reaction

92. ekuo bUl q

93. The coconut water from tender coconut represents:

93. dPpsukfj ; y esa

94. Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids?

94. fuEufy f[ kr esal sdkS

95. Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum-Arthropoda?

95. fuEufy f[ kr y {k.kksaesal sdkS

96. Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia?

96. fuEufy f[ kr esal sdkS

98. In which of the following, all three are macronutrients?

98. fuEufy f[ kr esal sdkS

101. Mitochondria and chloroplast are:

102. ln context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is in incorrect ?

102. mYcos/ku dsl a

103. In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in:

104. Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of:

105. Spindle fibres attach on to:

106. Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India?

109. Microtubules are the constituents of:

110. A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as :