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  A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (40PTS)
I.Choose the best answer to complete each  sentence.(15PTS)
 1. When the customer came into the shop this morning, she started __________ that her new watch stopped
working after only two days of normal wear.
A. complain B. complaining C. complaint D. complainer
 2. He was unqualified and totally _______________.
A. inexperience B. experiencedC. inexperienced D. experience
 3.Thousands of steel _____ were used as the framework of the new office block.
A. girders B. stakes C. beams D. piles
 4. Let me give you a little ___________ about the president of the company.
A. backgroundB. concentration C. specialization D. degree
5. The figures she gave were strictly ______________ .
A. perfect B. miraculous C. important D. accurate
6. The morning'sworkwasconstantly_____________ byphonecalls.
A.interrupted B.made C.changed D.created
 7. He got an excellent grade in his examination _____ the fact that he had not worked particularly hard .
A. on account of B. because C. in spite of D. although
8. I've got an _____________ watch.
A. electronic B. electrical C. electric D. electricity
9. When Tim was eating a cherry, he accidentally swallowed the _____.
A. seedB. core C. stone D.  nut
 10. All plants grow well because the soil was really ____________.
A. fertile B. kindC. comfortable D. wealthy
 11. Stop play with a ball__________________ a window.
A. or you break B. or you will break C. and you will break D. and you are breaking
12. ___________ the storm warnings, we did not go out last night.
A. Because B. In spite of C. Because of D. Although
13. As always, I am ___________ with everything you say.
A. agree B. agreeing C. agreeable D. in agreement 
 14. I'd rather you _________ at my party last night.
A. are B. were C. be D. had been
 15. "Are Alice and Tom still living in New York?" "No, they ………..to Dallas,"
A. have just moved B. had already moved C. are moving D. will move
 16. It turned  out that we ______ rushed to the airport as the plane was  delayed by several hours .
A.  mustn't B. needn't have C. hadn't D. should have
17. "Book my seat in advance," Mary said to John.
A. Mary said to John to book her seat in advance. B. Mary told John to book her seat in advance.
C. Mary told John book her seat in advance.D. Mary told John that he booked her seat in advance.

18. More than a mile of road way has been blocked with trees, stones and other debris, ___ the explosion.
A. which caused by B. which caused C. caused by D. causing
19. Only after he had left the job as a computer programmer______________ how much he loved it.
A. he realized B. did he realize C. do he realize D. he has realized
 20. Consumers should boycott all products _______________ has involved the use of child labour.
A. whose manufacture B. who manufacture C. whose manufacturers D. which
manufacture
21. Jennifer ____________ the invitation to join us for dinner.
A. called on B. come out C. got out of D. passed on
22. I can't ____________ to Joan. I think there's a fault on the line.
A. get along B. get through C. get away D. get at
23. She earned a degree in Physics and ____________ to take another degree in Mathematics.
A. went down B. went on C. went in D. went up
24. A night campfire ________ a two-day trip will be a great event in our schooldays.
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A. on B. in C. of D. for
25. After running up the stairs, I was ____________ breath.
A. without B. away from C. no D. out of
26.My brother worked _____________a foreign company in Da Nang two years ago.
A. to B. withC. for D. at
27. You should try to keep up ______________the other students in your class.
A. about B. for C. with D. to
28. It is typical ___________him to forget my birthday. 
A. by B. at                        C. for                   D. of                     
29. She got ___________ as soon as the alarm clock went__________________.
A. up/out B. up/off C. over/out D. on/off
30. Mary _____________ her mother in being strong-willed.
A. takes after               B. goes after                  C. looks after            D. puts after
II. PHONOLOGY(5PTS)
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words.()
31.A. subtract B. instruction C. confuse D. multiply
32.A. lunch B. consume C. suburb D. rubbish
33.A. television B. scene C. secret D. media
34.A. cook B. wood C. book D. blood
35.A. disabled B. believed C. realized D. forced
Choose the word that has stress pattern different from that of the other words.
 36.A. effort B. primary C. suffer D. subtract
 37.A. important B. instead C. resurface D. technical
38.A. glorious B. necessary C. protective D. possible
 39.A.magazine B.advantage C.documentary D.popularity
 40.A.dominate B.compromise C.correspond D.educate
III. READING COMPREHENSION(10PTS)
a. Read the passage carefully and then find the correct answer from A, B, C, D to the questions that
followed
Marian Anderson's brilliant singing career began at age six when she sang spirituals at the Union Baptist
Church in her hometown of Philadelphia. She toured Europe in the 1920s, drawing vast acclaim; however,
when she returned to the United States she was still barred from performing on the American operatic stage.
Strict segregation laws were in force at the time, keeping many Black performers out of exclusively white
theaters and concert halls. After she was prevented from singing in Washington's segregated Constitution
Hall in 1939, Eleanor Roosevelt intervened and arranged for Miss Anderson to perform at the Lincoln
Memorial. Marian Anderson's beautiful contralto voice broke down racial barriers, showing white
Americans that blacks had a profound contribution to make to America's cultural life. Eventually, in 1955,
she became the first African-American singer to perform at New York's Metropolitan Opera. In her many
years of touring she had to endure a racism that forced her to enter concert halls and hotels through service
entrances. Her grace under this stress showed a moral perseverance that paralleled that of the famous Martin
Luther King, Jr.
41. We can conclude from the passage that Marian Anderson first toured Europe instead of the United States
because_____________________.
A. she was paid more in Europe B. she was not allowed to perform in the United States
C. there were better operatic facilities in Europe       D. it was too expensive to tour in the United
States
42. The word “acclaim” could best be replaced by _______.
A. fund B. publicity C. attention D. approval
43. The word “intervened” could best be replaced by _______.
A. appreciated B. supported C. interrupted D. interfered
44. The significance of Anderson’s Lincoln memorial performance was that______.
A. Eleanor Roosevelt arranged it B. her contralto voice was beautiful
C. 75,000 people came   D. she was a black performer
45. The phrase "broke down racial barriers" means __________.
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A. disclosed opportunities B. shattered obstacles

C. revealed inaccuracies D. analyzed destinations
46. Where is the best place in the passage to add the following sentence? 
“A crowd of 75,000 people came to watch her sing before the Memorial.”
A. after the word “…Memorial” B. after the word “…Opera”
C. after the word “…Stage” D. after the word “…entrances”
47. The word “grace” is similar in meaning to_______.
A. awkwardness B. cruelty C. elegance D. saintliness
48. According to the passage, what did Marian Anderson have in common with Martin Luther, Jr.?
A. Moral perseverance B. a performance at the Lincoln memorial
C. a clear strong voice D. singing in church
49. The author’s tone in this passage is _______.
A. instructive B. critical  C. respectful D. regretful
50. What does the word “this” refer to?
A. touring for many years B. performing before thousands of people
C. racist attitudes toward her D. being like Martin Luther King, Jr
b. Read the passage carefully and then find the correct answer from A, B, C, D to the questions that
Ocean water plays an indispensable role in supporting life. The great ocean basins hold about 300 million
cubic miles of water. From this vast amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are sucked into the
atmosphere each year by evaporation and returned by precipitation and drainage to the ocean. More than
24,000 cubic miles of rain descend annually upon the continents. This vastamount is required to replenish
the lakes and streams, springs and water tables on which all floraand fauna are dependent. Thus, the
hydrosphere permits organic existence.
The hydrosphere has strange characteristics because water has properties unlike those of any other liquid.
One anomaly is that water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas most liquids contract on
cooling. For this reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of sinking to the bottom. If the ice sank, the
hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except for a thin layer of surface melt water during the summer
season. Thus, all aquatic life would be destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold currents, which
moderates climate, would be notably absent.
Another outstanding characteristic of water is that water has a heat capacity which is the highest of all
liquids and solids except ammonia. This characteristic enables the oceans to absorb and store vast quantities
of heat, thereby often preventing climatic extremes. In addition, water dissolves more substances than any
other liquid. It is this characteristic which helps make oceans a great storehouse for minerals which have
been washed down from the continents. In several areas of the world these minerals are being commercially
exploited. Solar evaporation of salt is widely practised, potash is extracted from the Dead Sea, and
magnesium is produced from sea water along the American Gulf Coast.
51. The author’s main purpose in this passage is to ___________.
A. illustrate the importance of conserving water B. describe the properties and uses of water
C. compare water with other liquids D. explain how water is used in commerce andindustry
52. The phrase “this vast amount” in line 4 of paragraph 1 refers to __________ .
A. 80,000 million cubic miles of water B. 24,000 cubic miles of rain
C. 80,000 cubic miles of water D. 300 million cubic miles of water
53. The word “replenish” in paragraph 1 can best replaced by ________ .
A. fill again B. replace C. evaporate D. form
54. According to the passage, fish can survive in the oceans because ________ .
A. evaporation and condensation create a water cycleB. there are currents in the oceans
C. they do not need oxygen                                         D. ice floats
55. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of water?
A. Water can absorb heat B. Water is good solvent.
C. Water contracts on cooling D. Water expands when it is frozen
56. The word “outstanding” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________ .
A. exceptionally good B. special C. amusing D. important
57. According the passage, the hydrosphere is NOT ___________ .
A. the part of the earth covered by water B. responsible for all forms of life
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C. in danger of freezing over D. a source of natural resources

58. The author’s tone in the passage can best be described as ________ .
A. dispassionate B. speculative C. biased D. dogmatic
59. The author organizes the passage by _______.
A. juxtaposition of true and untrue ideas B. comparison and contrast
C. general statement followed by examples D. hypothesis and proof
60. Which of the following statements would be the most likely to begin the paragraphimmediately
following the passage?
A. Water has the ability to erode land
B. Droughts and flooding are two types of disasters associated with water
C. Another remarkably property of ice is its strength
D. Magnesium is widely used in metallurgical processes
IV. CLOZE TEST(10PTS)
a. Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space.
Clean freshwater resources are essential for drinking, bathing, cooking, irrigation, industry, and for plant and
animal (61) ___________. Unfortunately, the global supply of freshwater is (62) _________ unevenly.
Chronic water shortages (63) __________ in most of Africa and drought is common over much of the globe.
The (64) __________ of most freshwater supplies - groundwater (water located below the soil surface),
reservoirs, and rivers - are under severe and (65) __________ environmental stress because of overuse,
water pollution, and ecosystem degradation. Over 95 percent of urban sewage in (66) _____________
countries is (67) ____________ untreated into surface waters such as rivers and harbors. About 65 percent of
the global freshwater supply is used in (68) ____________ and 25 percent is used in industry. Freshwater
(69) _______________ therefore requires a reduction in wasteful practices like (70) ___________ irrigation,
reforms in agriculture and. industry, and strict pollution controls worldwide.
61. A. survive B. survived C.surviving D.survival
62. A. delivered  B. distributed   C.provided D. given   
63. A. exist   B. lie   C. stay   D. show   
64. A. sources B. starting   C. springs D. resources
65. A. climbing B. growing C. ascending D. increasing
66. A. poverty B. miserable C. developing  D. growing
67. A. charged B. discharged C. discharging  D. recharged
 68. A. agriculture B. growing C. planting  D.  farming
69. A. preservation B. retention C. conservation D.   reservation
70. A. illogical B. irrational C. inefficient D.  ineffective
b.Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space.
For Nigel Portman, a love of travelling began with what’s called a ‘gap year’. In common with many other
British teenagers, he chose to take a year out before (71) ___________ to study for his degree. After doing
various jobs to (72) ________________ some money, he left home to gain some experience of life in
different cultures, visiting America and Asia. The more adventurous the young person, the(73) 
___________the challenge they are likely to (74) ___________themselves for the gap year, and for some,
like Nigel, it can (75) __________ in a thirst for adventure. Now that his university course has come to an
end, Nigel is just about to leave on a three-year trip that will take him right around the world. What’s more,
he plans to make the whole journey using only means of transport which are(76)  _____________ by natural
energy. In other words, he’ll be (77) ____________ mostly on bicycles and his own legs; and when there’s
an ocean to cross, he won’t be taking a (78)____________ cut by climbing aboard a plane, he’ll be joining
the crew of a sailing ship (79) ____________ . As well as doing some mountain climbing and other outdoor
pursuits along the way, Nigel hopes to (80) ______________ on to the people he meets the environmental
message that lies behind the whole idea.
71. A settling down B. getting up C. taking over D. holding back 
72. A achieve B. raise C. advance D. win 
73. A stronger B. wider C. greater D. deeper 
74. A put B. set C. aim D. place 
75. A result B. lead C. cause D. create 
76. A pulled B. charged C. forced D. powered 
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77. A relying B. using C. attempting D. trying 

78. A quick B. short C. brief D. swift 
79.A anyway B. alike C. instead D. otherwise 
80. A leave B. keep C. pass D. give 
B. WRITTEN TEST (70PTS)
I. OPEN CLOSE TEST (20PTS)
 Read the texts below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space.
a.                                            DANGERS OF TECHNOLOGY
Much has been heard recently (0)___ possible health hazards, including memory loss and brain tumours,
from the use of mobile phones. With the possible half a billion mobile phones in (1)___throughout
(2)___world, (3)__Britain today, one person in four owns one, (4)___is worrying enough, even if, so far, no
concrete evidence has come to (5)___One study by Dr. Alan Preece and (6)____ team at Bristol University
has shown, however, in a report in the International Journal of Radiation Biology, that tests on volunteers
demonstrated no effect on their short-term memory or attention span. Subjects (7)____exposed to
microwave radiation for up to thirty minutes, but the one noticeable effect was positive (8)_______ than
negative; the subject reacted more rapidly in one test (9)___a visual choice. One explanation of this is that
following the transmissions, a warming of the blood led (10)__increased blood-flow.
b. A newspaper(0) ____its money from the price people pay (1)____ it and also from the advertising it
carries. A popular newspaper with a circulation of over five million daily makes a lot of (2)____.Less
serious newspapers are probably read just for editorials . They have big headlines above the new stories,
funny cartoons to look (3)____ and sensational photos of violence. The gossip columns are full of stories of
the private(4) ____ of famous people. No one takes the political views of such papers very seriously. On the
other (5)_______,in a free country where there is(6) _____ censorship, serious newspapers (7)______ read
principally for their news, sent to them by their correspondents round the world and by the big news. People
also read these(8) __ for their reviews of new books, films (9)___ plays and for their entertainment, which
represent the opinion of the newspaper itself about the important events and issues of (10)_______ moment.
II. WORD FORMS(20PTS)
a. Use the correct form of the words given in brackets to fill in the blanks in each sentence:
1. He is engrossed in doing (science) _____ research.
2. They entered the areas without (permit) ____.
3. He wanted (wide)____ ________ his knowledge of the subject.
4. The giant panda is a(n) (danger) _____ ________ species.
5. What makes the computer a (miracle) ______ device ?
6. These shoes look quite old but they are terribly _____ comfort)
7. My colleagues are very pleasant, but the manager is a little ____ friend)
8. The (marry)___ between blacks and whites are more and more common.
9. Most people start to lose their (memorable)______ as they get older.
10. Our main objective is to (education)_____ standards.
b. Use the word in the box to fill in each gap to a meaningful passage. You have to change the form of
these words.
Bear    science   finaleducate marry award   profession    die   extreme   colour
Marie Curie was (1)___ in Warsaw on November 7th, 1867. She received general(2)___ in local schools and
some(3) ___ training from her father. As a brilliant and mature student, Marie harboured the dream of a
scientific career, which was impossible for a woman at that time. To save money for a study tour abroad, she
had to work as a private tutor, and her studies were interrupted.
(4)_____ in 1891, Marie, with very little money to live on, went to Paris to realize her dream at the
Sorbonne. In spite of her difficult living conditions, she worked (5)___ hard. She earned a degree in Physics
with flying (6)__ and went on to take another degree in Mathematics. She met Pierre Curie in the School of
Physics in 1894 and a year later they got (7)___ From then on, they worked together on their research. In
1903, Marie became the first woman to receive a PhD from the Sorbonne. After the tragic (8)____ of Pierre
Curie in 1906, she took up the position which her husband had obtained at the Sorbonne. Thus, she was the
first woman in France to be a university(9)____ Soon after, she was(10) ____ a Nobel Prize in Chemistry for
determining the atomic weight of radium. But her real joy was ‘‘easing human suffering”. The founding of
the Radium Institute in 1914 made her humanitarian wish come true.
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III.ERROR IDENTIFICATION(10PTS)
Read the passage, find ten words/ phrases that need correcting and underline them . Then correct them.
Up to now, there are still many people wrongly thinking that films are made to be shown on screen for
entertainment. There are many other kinds of films that are made for other purposes. For example,
educational films are making for schools. They are about certain subjects that pupils and students is learning.
Especially for people learning foreign languages, education films are very useful. Industrial branches need
training films who introduce new machines and modern pieces of equipment and show how operating and
work on them. Document films present factual events and record social, political and historical events. It is
films that help us wide our knowledge of countries, cultures and people around the world. Sit in the armchair
in front of a TV set, a viewer can enjoy the beauty of nature all over a world, see many historic spots and
meet a lot of interesting people. A film, either good nor bad, is the result of collaboration of many
individuals and we, the viewers, should choose only one suitable films to enjoy.
IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION(20PTS)
 Rewrite the following sentences using the words given.
1. If you find it necessary, you contact me on this number.=>Should________________________________.
2. My father said I could use his car.=>My father allowed _________________
3. Dennis gave up smoking two year ago.=>Dennis used _________________________________.
4. Although she lived in difficult conditions, she worked very hard.=>In spite of _________.
5. “ you can stay in my house when I am on holiday.”=>Jim told _________________________.
6. We started decorating the party two hours ago.=>We have ___________.
7. Experts think that all dogs evolved from wolves.=>All dogs ____________
. 8. Adrian’s job interview is on 17 October.=>Adrian _________________.
9. We couldn’t drive because of the fog.=>The fog prevented __________.
10. The weather was so bad that we couldn’t go sailing.=>The weather was not _____________.

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SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE (FROM QUESTION 1 TO QUESTION 80) 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 01 to 03. (3 points)
Question 1: The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the SEA Games took place.
A. defended B. impressed C. organized D. participated
Question 2: As tourism is more developed, people worry about the damage to the flora and fauna of the
island.
A. plants and animals B. mountains and forests
C. fruits and vegetables D. flowers and trees
Question 3: The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A. relevantly B. absolutely C. almost                  D. comparatively
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions from 04 to 08. (5 points)
Question 4: Dr. Harder, that is the professor for this class, will be absent this week because of illness.
A. that B. for C. will be D. because of
Question 5: Building thousands of years ago, the ancient palace is popular with modern tourists.
A. Building B. ago C. the ancient D. popular with
Question 6: Millions of dead fish in Vietnam's shores raise industrial pollution fears.
A. Millions B. in C. dead D. raise
Question 7: The teacher found a great deal of mistakes in his students’ writing.
A. The B. a great deal C. in D.  students’
Question 8: The more frequently you exercise, the greatest physical endurance you will have.
A. frequently B. exercise C. greatest D.  will have
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 09 to 10. (2 points)
Question 9: U.S. President Barack Obama paid a visit to Vietnam in May, 2016 to boost ties.
A. change B. rise C. decrease D. encourage
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Question 10: She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad to
study.
A. made room for B. put in charge of C. lost control of D. got in touch with
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 11 to 12. (2 points) 
Question 11: A.  killed B.  crashed C.  waved D. cured
Question 12: A. cupboard B. abroard C. overboard D. keyboard
Mark the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 13 to 22. (10 points)
It was once believed that being overweight was healthy, but nowadays few people subscribe to this
viewpoint. While many people are fighting the battle to reduce weight, studies are being conducted
concerning the appetite and how it is controlled by both emotional and biochemical factors. Some of the
conclusions of these studies may give insights into how to deal with weight problems. For example, when
several hundred people were asked about their eating habits in times of stress, 44 percent said they reacted to
stressful situations by eating. Further investigations with both humans and animals indicated that it is not
food which relieves tension but rather the act of chewing.
A test in which subjects were blindfolded showed that obese people have a keener sense of taste and crave
more flavorful food than non-obese people. When deprived of the variety and intensity of tastes, obese
people are not satisfied and consequently eat more to fulfill this need. Blood samples taken from people after
they were shown a picture of food revealed that overweight people reacted with an increase in blood insulin,
a chemical associated with appetite. This did not happen to average-weight people.
In another experiment, results showed that certain people have a specific, biologically induced hunger for
carbohydrates. Eating carbohydrates raise the level of serotonin, a neurotransmitter in the brain. Enough
serotonin produces a sense of satiation, and hunger for carbohydrates subsides.
Exercise has been recommended as an important part of a weight-loss program. However, it has been found
that mild exercise, such as using the stairs instead of the elevator, is better in the long run than taking on a
strenuous program, such as jogging, which many people find difficult to continue over long periods of time
and which also increases appetite.
(Adapted from Cambridge Preparation for the TOEFL Test by Jolene Gear)
Question 13:  “Subscribe to” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. disagree with B. agree with C. object to D. like
Question 14: The word” crave” in bold in paragraph 2, can best be replaced with __________.
A. devour B. absorb C. season D. desire
Question 15: It can be inferred from the passage that __________.
A. overweight people are tense
B. thin people don’t eat when under stress
C. weight watchers should chew on something inedible when tense
D. 56 percent of the population isn’t overweight
Question 16: It can be inferred from the passage that __________.
A. thin people don’t emjoy food
B. a variety of foods and strong flavors satisfy heavy people
C. overweight people have an abnormal sense of taste
D. deprivation of food makes people fat
Question 17: According to the passage, insulin __________.
A. increases in the bloodstream when people eat large amounts of food
B. can be used to lessen the appetite
C. causes a chemical reaction when food is seen
D. levels don’t change in average-weight people who see food
Question 18: It can be inferred that for certain people __________.
A. eating carbohydrates eliminates hunger
B. carbohydrates biologically induce hunger
C. carbohydrates don’t satisfy a hungry person
D. carbohydrates subside when serotonin is produced
Question 19: What can be said about serotonin?
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A. It is a chemical that increases the appetite

B. Only certain people produce it in their brains
C. It tells the brain when a person is full
D. It neurotransmits carbohydrates to the brain
Question 20: The word ‘mild’ in the last paragraph can best be replaced with __________.
A. important B. hardC. heavy D. light
Question 21: In order to lose weight, it would be a good idea for heavy people to __________.
A. jog 3 miles daily and chew on carrot sticks
B. walk up stairs and look at pictures of food
C. eat plenty of chewy carbohydrates
D. avoid stressful situations and eat spicy foods
Question 22: Which one of the following exercises might be best for an overweight person to engage in
daily?
A. 10-mile bicycle rides B. cross- country skiing
C. a long swim D. an evening walk
Mark the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 32. (10 points)
We are using up the world’s petroleum. We use (23) _______ in our cars and to heat our building in
winter.Farmers use petrochemicals to (24) _______ the soil rich. They use them to kill insects (25) _______
eat plants. These chemicals go (26) _______ rivers and lakes and kill the fish there. Thousands of pollutants
also go into the air and pollute it. Winds carry this (27) _______ air to other countries and other continents.
Poor farmers use the same land over and (28) _______ The land needs a rest so it will be better next year.
However, the farmers must have food this year. Poor people cut down forests (29) _______ firewood. In
some areas when the trees are gone, the land (30) _______ desert. Poor people can’t save the environment
for the (31) _______
      This is not a problem for one country or one area of the world. It is a problem for all- humans. The
people and the nations of the world must work together to   (32) _______ the world’s resources.
Question 23: A. those B. them C. it D. that
Question 24: A. work B. change C. make D. let
Question 25: A. which B. who C. what D. whom
Question 26: A. for B. at C. out D. into
Question 27: A. polluted B. pollute C. polluting D. pollution
Question 28: A. repeatedly B. overC. repeating D. again
Question 29: A. at B. withC. of D. for
Question 30: A. becomes B. turns C. gets D. changes
Question 31: A. times B. time being C. period D. future
Question 32: A. refuse B. preserve C. recycle D. keep
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions from 34 to 35. (3 points)
Question 33: A. international B. geographical C. obligatory D. undergraduate
Question 34: A. primary B. employee C. difference D. recognize
Question 35: A. predict B. patient C. police D. attract
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions from 36 to 55. (20 points)
Question 36: ______ had the van turned the corner than the wheel came off.
A. No longer B. Hardly C. Scarcely D. No sooner
Question 37: Schools require that every student ______ before September 1st.
A. was registered B. register C. registered D. registers
Question 38: Only when you grow up ______ the truth.
A. will you know B. you will know C. do you know D. you know
Question 39: A woman needs to make an urgent call; she is asking the man for permission to use his phone.
Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
Woman: “Could I use your phone, please? I need to make an urgent call.”
Man: “ ______.”
 9

A. I’d rather not B. Are you kidding? C. Please, do D. No too bad

Question 40: Two students, Bill and Bob, are talking about their teacher, Ms Young. Choose the most
suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
Bill: “Ms Young always grades fairly.”
Bob: “______.”
A. I can’t say that it does B. Actually, she is the second best.
C. Really? How could that be? D. I couldn’t agree with you more
Question 41: I don’t remember ______ of your decision to change our vocation plan. Nobody told me.
A. to be told B. being told C. telling D. to tell
Question 42: This is ______ the most difficult job I’ve ever had to do.
A. by chance B. by far C. by heart D. by myself
Question 43: Despite its successful ______ reforms, this country is still a developing one.
A. economizing B. economical C. economic D. economics
Question 44: ______ Mr. Anderson or Ms Wiggins is going to teach our class today.
A. Either B. Neither C. Both D. None
Question 45: These letters ______ at the moment. You can do the typing tomorrow.
A. needn’t have typed B. need to type C. needn’t be typed D. need typing
Question 46: Many species of plants and animals are in______ of extinction.
A. danger B. dangerously C. endangered D. dangerous
Question 47: I can’t ______ this noise any longer. I’m going to write a letter of complaint to the local
authority about this problem.
A. get back to B. take away from C. make out ofD. put up with
Question 48: He is a typical ______, always looking on the bright side of everything.
A. pessimist B. introvert C. extrovert D. optimist
Question 49: Julie ______ herself in the accident if she had not been wearing her seat belt.
A. mightn’t have hurt B. could have hurt C. must have hurt D. would hurt
Question 50: The Wilsons have found it terribly hard to make __________ meet ever since they both lost
their jobs.
A. ends B. strings C. limits D. coins
Question 51: After having used the new technique, the factory produced ____ cars in 2014 as the year
before.
A.  as twice many B.  as many twice C.  twice many as D.  twice as many
Question 52: Hurry up, or they ______ serving meals by the time we get to the restaurant.
A. would stop B. are stopping C. will have stopped D. stopped
Question 53: Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, weather is the one  ______ the most.
A. that influences farmers C. farmers that is influences
B. why farmers influence it D. it influences farmers
Question 54: She has just bought ______.
A. a French interesting old paint B. an old interesting painting French
C. an interesting old French painting D. a French old interesting painting
Question 55: Europe’s share of the world population has sharply…………from 21.7 to 12.8 percent.
A. reached B. increased C. declined D. maintained
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 56 to 65. (10 points)
May 7, 1840, was the birthday of one of the most famous Russian composers of the nineteenth century Peter
Illich Tchaikovsky. The son of a mining inspector, Tchaikovsky studied music as a child and later studied
composition at the St. Petersburg Conservatory. His greatest period of productivity occurred between 1876
and 1890, during which time he enjoyed the patronage of Madame von Meck, a woman he never met, who
gave him a living stipend of about $1,000.00 a year. Madame von Meck later terminated her friendship
with Tchaikovsky, as well as his living allowance, when she, herself, was facing financial difficulties. It was
during the time of Madame von Meck's patronage, however, that Tchaikovsky created the music for which
he is most famous, including the music for the ballets of Swan Lake and The Sleeping Beauty. 
Tchaikovsky's music, well known for its rich melodic and sometimes melancholy passages, was one of the
first that brought serious dramatic music to dance. Before this, little attention had been given to the music
 10

behind the dance. Tchaikovsky died on November 6, 1893, ostensibly of cholera, though there are now
some scholars who argue that he committed suicide.
Question 56: With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?
A. development of Tchaikovsky's music for ballets
B. Tchaikovsky's relationship with Madame Von Meck
C. the life and music of Tchaikovsky
D. the cause of Tchaikovsky's death
Question 57: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "productivity"?
A. affinity B. creativity C. fertility D. maturity
Question 58: The phrase "enjoyed the patronage of" probably means _________
A. solicited the advice of B. was financially dependent upon
C. liked the company of D. was mentally attached to
Question 59: Which of the following could best replace the word "terminated"?
A. exploited B. hated C. resolved D. discontinued
Question 60: According to the passage, all of the following describe Madame von Meck EXCEPT ______.
A. She was generous. B. She enjoyed Tchaikovsky's music.
C. She was never introduced to Tchaikovsky. D. She had economic troubles.
Question 61: It is known that before Tchaikovsky, _______ .
A. the music behind the dance had been taken seriously
B. the music behind the dance had been given very little attention.
C. serous dramatic music had been already brought to dance
D. music had been famous for its rich melodic passages
Question 62: According to the passage, for what is Tchaikovsky's music most well known?
A. the ballet-like quality of the musicB. its lively, capricious melodies
C. the richness and melodic drama of the music D. its repetitive and monotonous tones
Question 63: According to the passage, "Swan Lake" and "The Sleeping Beauty" are _________
A. songs B. plays C. operas D. dances
Question 64: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Tchaikovsky's unhappiness leading to suicide B. the patronage of Madame von Meck
C. Tchaikovsky's influence on ballet music D. Tchaikovsky's productivity in composing
Question 65: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "behind"?
A. supporting B. concealing C. in back of D. going beyond
Mark the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 66 to 70. (5 points)
Friendship has been given a special status in our (66)…………. It’s contrasted with all those relationships
over which we have so little control; the families we cannot change, the neighbours who irritate us, the
colleagues we have to put (67)…………… with. Friends are thought of as the joyous, freely chosen part of
our lives, and it is assumed that those relationships are always pleasurable. (68)………….you are asked how
you are going to spend the weekend and you say that you will stay in or spend it with your family or your
relatives, people may think you are a little bored. But if you say you are going to see friends and there is an
assumption that you are desirable, connected.
    On one level, friendship is very simple. It is the (69)………..between people who enjoy one another’s
company. Let’s start talking to people about friendship and it becomes clear that while people value it and
seek it , there is also much confusion, hesitancy and disappointment about friends in many people’s lives.
Friendship is one of those areas which is full of hidden assumptions and unspoken rules. We only discover
that our friendship does not mean (70)……………we think it does when those assumption clash.
Question 66: A. society B. organisation C. public D. hall
Question 67: A. out B. on C. in D. up
Question 68: A. Because B. So C. If D. However
Question 69: A. relationship B. connects C. combinations D. attaches
Question 70:.A. which B. what C. that D. when
Mark the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 71 to 80.(10 points)
 11

   Miss Earth is an annual international female beauty pageant promoting environmental awareness.
Carousel Productions Inc. organised and launched the first Miss Earth beauty pageant in 2001. It was
intended to actively promote the preservation of the environment. The Miss Earth pageant is recognised as
one of the three most prestigious beauty pageants in the world in terms of size and quality( the other two are
Miss Universe and Miss World contests). The reigning titleholders dedicate their year to promote the event
to address issues concerning the environment. Those who participate in the pageant are involved with
environmental causes. The pageant winner is expected to become involved with international environmental
projects. These projects are promoted during the pageant’s broadcast. The delegates also take part in tree
planting ceremonies , environmental and cultural immersion programs , sponsor visits and tours. The Miss
Earth pageant has grown with an increasing number of countries participating. The number of national Miss
Earth pageant has grown on every continent as well. The Miss Earth winner is the spokesperson for the Miss
Earth Foundation , the United Nations Environment Program ( UNEP) and other environmental groups.
Since the Miss Earth pageant has an environmental cause, it is primarily looking for young women who will
stand for the protection and preservation of the planet.  These women are pageant winners or chosen by
national Miss Earth directors from different nations. On national level competitions, the Miss Earth’s cause
is carried out to assure that each of the participating candidates are not just physically beautiful, but
environmentally knowledgeable. As soon as the national winners are chosen, they will be subject to
evaluation be the pageant organiser. 
Question 71:.The Miss Earth beauty pageant is held………………….
A. to find out the most talented woman in the world
B. to find out the most beautiful woman in the world
C. to promote the preservation of the environment
D. to compete with other international beauty contests
Question 72:.All the contestants who compete in the Miss Earth beauty pageant…………………….
A. are extremely beautiful and have no knowledge
B. needn’t have environmental awareness
C. must be beautiful and have environmental knowledge
D. needn’t be beautiful
Question 73:.How many international beauty contests are referred in the text?
A. One B. two C. three D. four
Question 74:.Which is the activity that the Miss earth beauty pageant winner does not have to take part in?
A.to pay sponsor visits
B.to participate in environmental and cultural immersion programs
C.to attend tree planting ceremonies
D.to advertise for a commercial company
Question 75:.The word “awareness” has a close meaning to……………………..
A. Knowledge B. preservation C. promotion D. increase
Question 76:.The winner of the Miss Earth pageant was involved with …………………..
A.Politics B. economy C. environment D. finance
Question 77:.The Miss Earth pageant is ……………………
A. Disapproved B. not very popular C.Only held in Europe D. becoming popular
Question 78:.The word “ dedicate” has a close meaning to…………………
A. Experience B. devote C. give D. spend
Question 79:.The requirement the contestants in the Miss earth beauty pageant needn’t meet is………
A. PhD degree B. physical beauty C. environmental knowledge D. youth
Question 80:.The text is…………………….
A. critical B. informative C. disgusting D. disapproving
SECTION B: WRITING 
A.  Supply the correct form of the word provided in brackets in each sentence. 
1. Eddie just can't stop working and relax any more, he's turning into a real ………………. (WORK) 
2. ………………. people are often critical and sarcastic. (CONTENT) 
3. Tests have shown that people's blood pressure goes up when they are in red colored….
(SURROUND)
4. Insecure people often do things just to avoid other people's ……………….(APPROVE) 
 12

5. Most of us think we have a rational and well-balanced ………………. on life. (LOOK) 

6. There has been a ………………. increase in recovery from leukemia in the last 30
years. (MIRACLE) 
7. Faulty electrical ………………. are a relatively common cause of fires in offices, factories and
hotels. (APPLY) 
8. Without color dyes people would find a lot of processed food rather ………………. (APPETITE)
9. Because he said so little in meetings, his colleagues thought he was ………………. to his work, but
actually he was just timid. (COMMIT)
10. Some hardwood is produced on ……. so that natural forests are not destroyed. (PLANT) 
B. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Question 1 He is so exhausted that he won’t be able to go out tonight.→ John is too .
Question 2:  “Don’t forget to take your mobile phone.” James said to Daisy.→ James reminded .
Question 3: It is known that colourful T-shirts were popular during the 1960s.→ Colourful T-shirts .
Question 4: I think we should wash these apples carefully to avoid food poisoning.→ I suggested these .
Question 5: But for his help, I would have gone bankrupt. →  If .
Question 6: Do you think Sally will be able to come to us for Christmas? → Is there any .
Question 7: Using public transport saves energy as well as reduce pollution→ Not only .
Question 8: John worked really hard but he couldn’t support his family.→ Hard .
Question 9: It was wrong of you to be rude to Judy last night.→ I’d rather .
Question 10: The work completely failed and everyone was surprised. →  To everybody’s .
C. Write a passage about the change of the environment in recent years. (250 words)

ĐỀ 6

I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM 

MULTIPLE CHOICE
Part 1: PHONOLOGY (10 POINTS)
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three.
1. A. compulsory B. suggestion C. summary D. agriculture
2. A. naked B. decided C. learned D. stopped
3. A. competition      B. completion       C. question  D. information   
4. A. garbage B. massage C. language D. sewage
5. A. donate B. imitate C. private D. operate
Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from the others of the group.
6. A. miraculous B. communicate C. mysterious D. calculating 
7. A. stressful B. pressure C. prepare D. future
8. A. mysterious B. preferential C. modernity D. historical
9. A. discuss B. waving C. teacher D. writer
10. A. photographer B. destination C. participant D. professional 
Part 2: VOCABULARY (10 POINTS)
Choose the best option to complete the following sentences.
11. Science has made great ___________during the past 30 years.
A. motions              B. advances            C. advantages            D. opportunitie
12. I don’t think you have been watering the plants near the gate. The soil is ___________.
A. as dry as rice B. as dry as a tile C. as dry as a bone D. as dry as wood
13. He always takes full ___________of the mistakes made by these competitors.
A. advantage B. benefit C. profit D. advice
14. Without delay, she booked a(n) ___________flight to Manila so as to be in time for the meeting.
A. instant B. even C. straight D. direct
15. I don't like quizzes because my general ___________is so poor.
A. appearance B. memory C. knowledge D. thinking
16. ___________in some developing countries may be the cause of poverty and hunger.
A. Modernization B. Literacy C. Pollution D. Overpopulation
 13

17. According to Rob’s___________, he would pay less tax this year than last.
A. calculationsB. figures                      C. counting                 D. computations
18. Even if you are rich, you should save some money for  a_____________________day.
A. windy B. foggy C. snowy D. rainy
19. Children with _________ parents often do better than those without.
A. loyal B. trustworthy C. supportive D. dedicated
20. Conservationists are worried that many potentially valuable __________ of plants and animals are
threatened with extinction.
A. examples B. variations C. brands D.species
Part 3 : STRUCTURES AND GRAMMAR (5 POINTS)
Choose the best answer (A, B , C or D) to complete each of the following sentences.
21. Not only _________in the project, but he also wanted to become a leader .
A. did Jack involve B. had Jack been  involved
C. was Jack involved D. was involved Jack
22. It turned out that we _________rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours.
A. hadn’t B. shouldn’t have C. mustn’t have D. needn’t have
23. By the end of last summer, the farmers _________all the crop.
A. harvested B. had harvested C. harvest D. are harvested
24. _________, he felt so unhappy and lonely. 
A. In spite of his being wealth B. Rich as was he 
C. Rich as he was D. Despite his wealthy 
25. I was just kind to her _________she would decide to leave me. 
A. in case B. so that C. for fear that D. lest
26. _________, I would give a party. 
A. Were she to come next month B. She were to come next month
C. If she comes next month D. Should she come next month
27. Let’s leave early, so we’ll be ahead of the rush of commuters. We can’t risk _________in heavy traffic
during rush hour.
A. holding up B. being held up C. to be held up D. to hold up
28. This car is much more economical, but it costs _________the other.
A. twice as much as B. so much as C. twice as many as D. twice more than
29. Despite their normal cylindrical form, some of the documents ______ on silk that were found at
Mawangdui, an archaeological site in southeastern China, were folded into rectangles. 
A. wrote B. written C. were written D. be written
30. The chairman requested that ___
A. the members studied more carefully the problem.
B. the problem was more carefully studied.
C. with more carefulness the problem could be studied.
D. the members study the problem more carefully.
Part 4 : PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (5 POINTS)
Choose the option that best fits the blank of the sentence.
31. Alice hasn't been working; she won't___________her examinations. 
A. get off B. keep up               C. keep off D. get through          
32. Tom arrived___________the train station___________good time for the last train. 
A. in - on B. to - in                  C. at - in                  D. to - for 
33. Did Mr. Tan___________the class while Miss Fiona was ill in hospital? 
A. take away B. take over              C. take up                   D. take off 
34. Do you have any objections___________this new road scheme? 
A. at B. with C. to D. for 
35. The concert was ___________because of the heavy rain.
A. put out B. called off C. run out D. set off
36. She is looking ___________a new place to live because she does not want to depend ___________her
parents any more. 
A. for / on B. after / with C. up / forward D. at / into
 14

37. After her mother died, she was raised by her grandparents.
A. grown up B. brought up C. come into D. put up
38. According ___________Bill, there's something wrong ___________my computer.
A. after / for B. on / about C. to / with D. upon / at
39. He went ___________a bad cold just before Christmas.
A. down with B. in for C. overD. through
40. I won’t ___________these excuses any longer! I demand to see the manager. 
A. put up with B. put off again C. put up for D. put off with
Part 5: CLOZE TEST (10 POINTS)
Passage A: Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.
One of the most urgent environmental problems in the world today is the shortage of clean water.
Having clean drinking water is a basic human right. But acid rain, (41) ___________ pollution and garbage
have made many sources of water undrinkable. Lakes, reservoirs and even entire seas have become vast
pools (42) ___________ poison. Lake Baikal in Russia is one of the largest lakes in the world. It (43)
___________ a rich variety of animals and plants, including 1,300 rare species that do not exist (44)
___________ else in the world. But they are being destroyed by the massive volumes of toxic effluent which
(45) ___________ into the lake every day. Even where law existed, the government did not have the power
to enforce them.
Most industries simply ignore the regulations. The Mediterranean Sea (46) ___________ 1% of the
world's water surface. But it is the dumping (47) ___________ for 50% of all marine pollution. Almost 16
countries regularly throw industrial wastes a few miles (48) ___________ shore.
Water is free to everyone. A few years ago, people thought that the supply of clean water in the
world was limitless. Today, many water supplies have been (49) ___________ by pollution and sewage.
Clean water is now scarce, and we are at last beginning to respect this precious (50) ___________ . We
should do something now.                                   
41. A. industrious B. industry       C. industrial D. industrialized
42. A. on B. in C. of D. to
43. A. composes B. contains C. encloses D. consists
44. A. where B. somewhere C. everywhere D. anywhere
45. A. stay B. pour C. boil D. burn
46. A. makes B. occupies C. comprises D. holds
47. A. shore B. land C. ground D. soil
48. A. away B. of C. on D. off
49. A. ruined B. kept C. made D. conserved
50. A. well B. outlet C. nature D. source
Passage B: Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.
Thomas Cook
Thomas Cook could be said to have invented the global tourist industry. He was born in England in
1808 and became a cabinet-maker. Then he (51) ___________ on the idea of using the newly-invented
railways for pleasure trips and by the summer of 1845, he was organizing commercial trips. The first was to
Liverpool and (52) ___________ a 60-page handbook for the journey, the (53) ___________ of the modern
holiday brochure.
The Paris Exhibition of 1855 (54) ___________ him to create his first great tour, taking in France,
Belgium and Germany. This also included a remarkable (55) ___________ - Cook’s first cruise, an
extraordinary journey along the Rhine. Nothing like this had been available before, but it was only the
beginning. Cook had invented (56) ___________ tourism and now became a pioneering giant, striding
across the world, travelling incessantly, researching every detail before being absolutely confident that he
could send the public to (57) ___________ his steps.
Cook was not slow in thinking beyond Europe, and he turned his gaze upon Africa. The expertise had
had gained with his pioneering cruise along the Rhine in 1855 (58) ___________ him in good stead when it
came to organizing a fantastic journey along the Nile in 1869. Few civilians had so much as (59)
___________ foot in Egypt, let (60) ___________ travelled along this waterway through history and the
remains of a vanished civilization going back thousands of years. Then, in 1872, Cook organized, and took
 15

part in, the first conducted world tour. The whole adventure took 222 days and the world of travel has not
been the same since.
51. A. dawned B. struck C. hit D. crossed
52. A. featured B. presented C. inserted D. highlighted
53. A. pioneer B. forerunner C. prior D. foretaste
54. A. livened B. initiated C. launched D. inspired
55. A. breakthrough B. leap C. step D. headway
56. A. common B. whole C. wide D. mass
57. A. retreat B. retrace C. resume D. retrieve
58. A. kept B. tookC. stood D. made
59. A. set B. placed C. laid D. put
60. A. apart B. aside C. alone D. away
Part 6: READING COMPREHENION (10 POINTS)
Passage A: Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question.
There are three different types of rives associated with the Amazon rainforest. Of course, these types
exits elsewhere in the world, yet, in the Amazon, they are  most distinct. They are classified as whitewater ,
clearwater, and blackwater rivers, and each displays elements that make it ecologically distinct from the
others. Clearly, one of the main reasons they have been named as such is due to the qualities of their
appearance, but there are also fundamental differences in everything from their water consistency to
abundance or lack of organisms within each type of river. While  whitewater and blackwater rivers occupy
areas on the floor of the forest at minimal elevations, clearwater rivers tend to be present at higher elevations
in mountainous regions. Still, each contributes in its own way to one of the most diverse ecosystems on the
planets, the Amazon.
The clearwater rivers of the Amazon region, also called bluewater rivers, are noted for their crystal-
clear water and are typically found flowing through the rocks of the highlands and at upper elevations. One
of the main reasons why the waters are so clear is that the rocks they flow through and over are extremely
old, making erosion by the river waters difficult. This lack of erosion lends to a lack of sediment in the water
and its more transparent nature. Clearwater rivers are also much swifter than whitewater or blackwater
rivers due to their abrupt changes in gradients. Overall, clearwater rivers have a very high mineral content,
which allows plant life as well as algae to proliferate. Because of the abundance of aglae, many other types
of species of fish are able to thrive as well.
A second major type of river found in the Amazon is the whitewater river. The formidable Amazon
River itself is in this class. Ironically, whitewater rivers are usually light-chocolate colored and have
extremely low visibility because they contain heavy loads of sediment. Two of the main causes of their high
sediment content are the natural erosion of the river basin itself as well as the deforestation of the
rainforest. As deforestation continues, soil is no longer anchored by the roots of vegetation and trees and its
instead washed into the river during heavy rains that frequent the rainforest. Still, whitewater rivers are
inherently rich in nutrients and therefore support numerous types of aquatic organisms. In contrast to
clearwater rivers, whitewater rivers such as the Amazon tend to flow much more slowly because of the low
gradients involved. For example, the Amazon itself experiences only a 107-meter change in elevation for
Peru to its mouth, a distance that covers over about 3.219 kilometers.
The final major type of river in the Amazon is known as a blackwater river, of which the Rio Negro
in Brazil is a prime example and also the largest in the world. Blackwater rivers are the most common type
in the Amazon. They exhibit a deep, dark brown color due to the decomposition of leaves and vegetation in
the waters. Most vegetation contains the chemica tannin, which is released into blackwater rivers as it begins
to decompose. Blackwater rivers have excellent clarity due to their highly acidic nature, which also benefits
the river in a couple of other ways. A high acid content is an excellent trait for a river to have because it
keeps the river clean and, in many ways, more saniatry than others. The acid kills parasites and bacteria
which can threaten fish populations, as well as insect larvae such as that of mosquitoes, reducing the spread
of dangerous diseases such as malaria.
While the Amazon is a highly diverse ecosystem, one of the reasons this is so is due to the different
types of river systems within it. The Amazon is the main vein, and most blackwater and clearwater rivers are
estuaries or branches of it until they finally link at certain points along the Amazon’s main route. For
example, the Amazon and the Rio Negro finally meet at Manaus, Brazil, and, once they do, their distinct
 16

ecosystems are combined to form an even more complex river system of life and water quality until it
eventually empties into the ocean.
61. In paragraph 1, the author’s description of the major types of Amazon rivers mentions which of the
following?
A. They are classified by what is able to exist in them
B. They are determined by their length and breadth
C. They are unique only to the area of the Amazon.
D. They are all located at altitudes at or beneath sea level.
62. The word “transparent” in the second paragraph is closet meaning to:
A. veneered B. refreshing C. glassy D. beneficial
63. Which of the following can be inferred for the paragraph 2 about clearwater rivers?
A. Their water is not really as clear as their name implies
B. They flow at a slower pace than blackwater rivers
C. There is not much algae present in clearwater rivers
D. They do not exist on more level areas in the Amazon
64. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true of clearwater rivers?
A. They eventually connect with Amazon River itself
B. They have very high levels of nutrients and minerals
C. They have enough sediment for algae to multiply
D. They often occur where ancient stones or boulders are present.
65. The author discusses “ natural erosion” in paragraph 3 in order to:
A. indicate the types of threats the Amazon region faces
B. realate why whitewater rivers are not as clear as some others.
C. Show how deforestation contributes little to whitewater rivers
D. Suggest that sediment is not the main cause of the color of the rivers
66. According to paragraph 3, deforestation is a negative factor in the Amazon because ____________.
A. too many trees are cut down, never to grow back
B. valuable soil is washed away into the rivers.
C. Other species of animals will not have a natural habitat
D. Rivers become more erosive without strong boundaries
67. The word “inherently “ in the passage is closet meaning to ____________.
A. partially B. subsequently C. naturally D. externally
68. According to the paragraph 4, blackwater rivers are named so because ____________.
A. they lack the necessary nutrients needed to produce life
B. they are in direct contrast to the two other types of river
C. they are colored by the decomposition of vegetation
D. they are the most common type of river in the Amazon.
69. The word “it” in the passage refers to ____________.
A. vegetation B. chemical C. tannin D. rivers
70. The word “vein” in the passage is closet in meaning to____________.
A. clasp B. diversion C. appendage D. thread
Passage B: Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question.
Langston Hughes was one of the greatest American writers of the twentieth century. He was born in
Joplin, Missouri, and moved to Cleveland at the age of 14. Several years later he spent one year in Mexico
before attending Columbia University in New York. For a few years after that, he roamed the world as a
seaman, visiting ports around the world and writing some poetry. He returned to the United States and
attended Lincoln University, where he won the Witter Bynner Prize for undergraduate poetry. After
graduating in 1928, he traveled to Spain and to Russia with the help of a Guggenheim fellowship. His novels
include Not without Laughter (1930) and The Big Sea (1940). He wrote an autobiography in 1956 and also
published several collections of poetry. The collections include The Weary Blues (1926), The Dream Keeper
(1932), Shakespeare in Harlem (1942), Fields of Wonder (1947), One Way Ticket (1947), and Selected
Poems (1959).
A man of many talents, Hughes was also a lyricist, librettist, and a journalist. As an older man in the
1960s, he spent much of his time collecting poems from Africa and from African-Americans to popularize
 17

black writers. Hughes is one of the most accomplished writers in American literary history, and he is seen
as one of the artistic leaders of the Harlem Renaissance, the period when a neighborhood that was
predominantly black produced a flood of great literature, music, and other art forms depicting daily city life
for African-Americans.
71. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The life of Langston Hughes  B. The Harlem Renaissance
C. African-American writers       D. American twentieth-century writers
72 .Where was Langston Hughes born?
A. Spain B. New York      C. Missouri D. North Carolina
73. As used in the passage, which of the following words could best replace the word "ports"?
A. Islands B. Ships C. Friends.       D. Harbors
74. To which of the following movements might Shakespeare in Harlem refer? 
A. The Civil War B. The Harlem Riots
C. The Harlem Renaissance D. The Civil Rights Movement
75. What provided Hughes with assistance for his travel to Spain and Russia?   
A. His job as a reporter B. His career as a soldier
C. A literary fellowship D. A college study program
76. The word "talents" in the passage could be replaced by which of the following?
A. Desires B. Abilities C. Strategies      D. Careers
77. According to the author, what did Hughes do during the later years of his life? 
A. Write short stories B. Popularize African-American writers
C. Advocate racial equality        .     D. Write about life in Harlem 
78. Which of the following could best replace the word "accomplished" as used in the passage?
A Successful B. Prolific C. Brilliant D. Imaginative
79. Which of the following can best substitute for the word "depicting" in the passage?
A. Congratulating B. Blessing C. Screening D. Portraying
80. According to the passage, Langston Hughes was all of the following EXCEPT:
A. A novelist B. A poet C. A historian D. A journalism
B.WRITTEN TEST 
Part 1: OPEN CLOZE TEST (20 POINTS)
CLOZE TEST 1
Fill in each blank with ONE word to make a complete passage).
It has been said that the British and Americans are ‘two peoples (81) ____________by a common
language’. However, the (82) ____________between British and American English are comparatively small.
Although some British people occasionally complain about the latest American TV series of which they are
(83) ____________to understand a word, it is clear that few people have serious (84) ____________. In fact,
it is television, films, and pop music that have helped to (85) ____________them closer together, and those
minor difficulties (86) ____________might occur in comprehension are probably much fewer than 40 or 50
years (87) ____________. Normally four or five American programmes are found in an evening on British
television, and 6 or 7 of the American 20 best records are played (88) ____________ British artists. It is true
that most Americans would say:
“Pardon me ! Do you have …………………?”
while in Britain it would be more (89) ____________to say :
“Excuse me ! Have you got …………………?”
However, both forms would be (90) ____________ in both countries. 
    CLOZE TEST 2
Fill in each blank with ONE word to make a complete passage.
In 1877, George Eastman, who worked in a bank in Rochester, wanted to take photographs on
holiday. However, he was very disappointed to discover that the only cameras available (91) ____________
very large and heavy, and required the use of complicated equipment.
Eastman realized that many other people were keen to take photographs but were prevented from
(92) ____________ so. What was needed was a simple, hand-held camera, and so, in (93) ____________
spare time, he began to experiment.
 18

After a (94) ____________ deal of work he was ready to open a factory and succeeded in producing
his first camera in 1888. It was a small rectangular box and inside was a roll of special paper. This paper was
sensitive (95) ____________ light and replaced the heavy pieces of glass that had been used before. When
the roll was finished, the camera had to (96) ____________ sent back to the factory in New York (97)
____________ the photographs to be developed and printed. The following year a transparent film was
invented and was better than the paper roll. This could be removed by the photographer and taken to a local
center for (98) ____________ . The new camera was an instant success and within a (99) ____________
years Eastman was very rich. But he was a generous man and during his lifetime, he gave away millions of
dollars to support a number (100) ____________ educational institutions.
Part 2: WORD FORMS ( 20 POINTS)
Complete the sentences with the correct forms of the given words. 
101. Many people still refuse to believe that smoking is ____________. (HARM)
102. She always listens ____________ to what she is told.                      (ATTENTION)
103.  She is a highly- ____________ woman.                     (EDUCATE)       
104. Books in the home are a wonderful source of ____________ and pleasure. (KNOW)
105. You may be surprised at the large ______of animals that live in Nairobi National Park. (VARIOUS)
106. We were told to stay seated and ____________ our seat belts. (FAST)
107. The family managed to get out of the burning house , but they lost nearly their________. (POSSESS)
108. Dozens of ____________ are injured on the city roads every year. (CYCLE)
109. The duty of the police is the ____________ of law and order. (MAINTAIN)
110. He says he has no ____________ of resigning. (INTEND)
Complete the following passage with the correct forms of the words in the box.
Ask any adult over forty to make a (111) _______ between the past and the present and most COMPARE
will tell you that things have been getting steadily worse for as long as they can remember.
Take the weather for example. Everyone remembers that in their (112) _______ the summers YOUNG
were considerably hotter, and that winter always included (113) _______ falls of snow just ABOUND
when the school holidays had started. Of course, the food in those days was far superior too,
as nothing was imported and everything was fresh. (114) _______ was negligible, the money EMPLOY
in your pocket really was worth something, and you could buy a (115) _______ house even if SIZE
your means were limited. And above all, people were somehow nicer in those days, and spent
their free time on innocent (116) _______ making model boats and tending their stamp (117) PURSUE
_______ rather than gazing at the television screen for hours on end. As we know, this figure COLLECT
of the past simply cannot be true, and there are plenty of statistics dealing with heath and
(118) _______ which prove that it is not true. So, why is it that we all have a (119) _______ to PROSPER
idealize the past and to be so (120) _______ of the presents? TEND
CRITISIZE
Part 3: ERROR CORRECTION( 10 POINTS)
Identify 10 errors in the following passage and correct them.
Children who say pop music do not=>does not interfere with their homework receive support today, with the
discovery that pay attention to visual stimuli and sounds requires completely different brain pathways which
can operate at a same time without your appreciation of either being damage. Researchers have found that
listening to car stereos does not create much interference when you are driving. Similar, pop music should
not interfere to children’s homework. The effect of pop music on their performance at it is far outweigh by
other factors, such as how happy they are to be doing it. These findings could be apply to the design of
places which people have to take in large amounts of informations very quickly. They could, for example, be
relevant to the layout on pilot cockpits on aircraft.
Part 4: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20 POINTS)
Rewrite the sentences with the given words or beginning in such a way that their meanings remain
unchanged.
131. She never seems to succeed, even though she works hard. => However .
132. People believe that the Chinese invented paper in 105 A.D.  => Paper .
133. If you changed your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class. => Were you .
134. “I will give you some more books and pencils,” said my father. => My father promised .    
.
 19

135. Laura participated in many social acitivities although she was severely disabled. => In spite .
136. It’s not worth asking the manager for the day off. (POINT)
=>There _______________________ in asking the manager for the day off.
137. It’s more than six months since I went to the dentist. (FOR)
=>I haven’t _________________________ more than six months.
138. Dan never takes any notice of my advice. (ATTENTION)
=>Dan never ______________________ my advice.
.139. Why didn’t they tell us about the change earlier. (SHOULD)
=>We ___________________________ about the change earlier.
140. I wasn’t a bit surprised to hear that she had changed her job. (SURPRISE)
=>It came __________________________ hear that she had changed her job.

ĐỀ 7
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE ( 40 PTS )
I. Grammar and Structures ( 5pts ):
Question 1: The success of the company in such a ______ market is remarkable.
A. compete B. competitively C. competitiveD. competition
Question 2: Only when_________ can we start the party.
A. Jane has arrived          C. has Jane arrive B. Jane has arrive       D. has Jane arrived
Question 3: I met a ______ girl at my friend's birthday party last Sunday.
    A. pretty tall American B. tall American pretty C. tall pretty American D. pretty
American tall
Question 4: By cutting down the trees, people destroy the ecosystem of the rain forest ________ .
A. on where they depend B. on which they depend
C. whom they depend on D. whose they depend on
Question 5: The bridge _____ by French architects is very nice.
A. was designed B. designing C. to design D. designed
Question 6:  _______, we tried our best to complete it.
A. Thanks to the difficult homework B. Despite the homework was difficult
C. Difficult as the homework was D. As though the homework was difficult
Question 7:  ______ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat. 
A. Had you arrived B. If you arrived
C. Were you arrived D. If you hadn’t arrived
Question 8:   That question was _____ for a child to answer.
A. such difficult B. so difficult C. much difficult D. too difficult
Question 9:   My car is _______ yours.
  A. more fast and economical than B. more fast and more economical than
C. faster and economical as D. faster and more economical than
Question 10:   Your car is too dirty! When did you have it___________? 
A. to be washed   B. wash C. washed D. to wash 
II. Phrasal verbs and Prepositions ( 5pts )
Question 1: The company management decided to ______ more workers to meet the production schedule.
    A. take on B. make out C. take over D. make up
Question 2: Jim didn't break the vase on ______, but he was still punished for his carelessness.
A. occasion B. chance C. purpose D. intention
Question 3: Peter is disappointed at not getting the job, but he will ______ it soon.
A. bring about B. take on C. go through D. get over
Question 4: During a job interview, candidates are advised to ______ on the interviewer's questions and
make an effort to answer them properly.
  A. emphasize B. decide C. concentrate D. rely
Question 5: Many plants and animals can be used as medicine _____ cancer, AIDS and other sicknesses.
A. by B. against C. with D. for
Question 6: It is interesting to take _________ a new hobby such as collecting stamps or going fishing.
 20

A. over B. on C. in D. up
Question 7: She had to borrow her sister’s car because hers was _________.
A. out of work B. out of order C. on duty D. off work
Question 8: The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Ted _________ a good answer.
   A. put up with  B. keep pace with              C. made rooms for  D. came up with
Question 9: Remember to _______ your shoes when you are in a Japanese house.
A. take care B. take on C. take over D. take off
Question 10: The government hopes to _________ its plans for introducing cable TV.
A. turn out B. carry out C. carry on D. keep on
III. Vocabulary ( 10 pts )
Question 1: They were among the first companies to exploit the ______ of the Internet.
A. potential B. possibility C. prospect D. ability
Question 2: Could you ______ me a hand with the washing-up,
Kent?
A. hold B. give C. join D. shake
Question 3: I will phone Vivian to ______ her to buy some sugar; otherwise, she will forget.
A. allow B. remind C. advise D. encourage
Question 4: It is important for students to ______ full use of university facilities.
A. find B. make C. do D. take
Question 5: The water ______ in the area has resulted in poor crop production.
    A. absence B. shortage C. lack D. deficiency
Question 6:  His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else’s point of view. He is very_________.
     A. open-minded            B. kind-hearted        C. narrow-minded               D. absent-minded
Question 7:   All three TV channels provide extensive _________ of sporting events.
A. coverage B. vision C. D. network
broadcast
Question 8:   The main aim of the campaign is to raise _______ of the issues involved.
A. knowledge B. awareness C. D. acquaintance
attention
Question 9:   I am afraid that you have _________ the deadline, so we can't take your application into
account.
A. missed B. met C. delayed D. put off
Question 10: No matter how angry he was, he would never ________ to violence.
A. resolve B. recourse C. exert D. resort
Question 11: My computer is not...............of running this software.
A. compatible B.suitable C. capable D. connected
Question 12: Today, household chores have been made much easier by electrical..............
A. application B. instruments C. utilities D. applicances
Question 13: He’s a very..............person because he can make other workers follow his advice
 A. deciding B. influential C. effective D. creative
Question 14: I  _________ sight of an old friend of mine when I to the bank yesterday.
           A. caught            B. saw                         C. set                             D.
gained 
Question 15: I would like to welcome you all on this auspicious _________ , the 25 th anniversary of the
founding of our company.
    A. occasion B. moment C. meeting D. gathering
Question 16:  You will need a pen and some paper to _________ this problem. It is too difficult to do it in
your head.
    A. discover B. work out C. realise D. find out
Question 17:  The football team Manchester United paid _________ to sign up the Brazilian twins Rafael
and Fabio Da Silva when they were only eighteen.
    A. an arm and a leg B. their heart in it C. a good heart D. their eyes to eyes
 21

Question 18: The rules stated that anyone who had held the office for five years was not _________ for re-
election.
    A. permissible B. eligible C. admissible D. inclusive
Question 19: Both parents were unemployed and the family had a _________ lifestyle.
    A. cautious B. frugal C. careful D. tight
Question 20: Let me _________ the bill before we leave this restaurant.
    A. arrange B. conclude C. settle D. pay up
IV. Guided Cloze ( 10 pts )
Passage A:   Library is a collection of books and other informational materials made available to people for
reading, study, or reference. The word library comes (1)______liber, the Latin word for "book”. (2)______,
library collections have almost always contained a variety of materials. Contemporary libraries maintain
cotecllons that indude not only printed materials such as manuscripts, books, newspapers, and magazines,
(3)______ audio visual and online databases. In addition (4)______maintaining collections within library
buildngs, modern libraries often feature tele-communications links that provide users with access to
information at remote sites.
  The central mission of a library (5)______    to collect, organize,  preserve, and provide access to
knowledge and information. In fulfilling this mission, libraries preserve a valuable record of culture that can
be passed down to (6)______generations. Libraries are an essential link in this communication between the
past, present, and future. Whether the cultural record is contained in books or in electronic formats, libraries
ensure (7)______the record is preserved and made available for later use.
  People use library resources to gain information about personal (8)______or to obtain recreational
materials such as films and novels. Students use libraries to supplement and enhance their classroom
experiences, to learn (9)_____ in locating sources of information, and to develop good reading and study
habits. Public officials use libraries to research legislation and pubic policy issues. One of the most valued of
all cultural institutions, the library (10)_____information and services that are essential to learning and
progress.
Question 1: A. to B. in C. from D.out
Question 2: A. Therefore B. Instead C. However D. Despite 
Question 3: A. but also B. as well C. only if D. or ebe
Question 4: A. in B. on C. from D. to
Question 5: A. has B. are C. is D. have
Question 6: A. success B. succeeding C. succeed D. successful
Question 7: A. that B. which C. what D. who
Question 8: A. appeals B. interests C. profits D. attractions
Question 9: A. skills B. talents C. capabilities D. abilities
Question 10: A. relates B. digests C. supplies D. apohes
Passage B:   In “Cerealizing America”, Scott Bruce and Bill Crawford remark that the cereal industry uses
816 million pounds of sugar per year. Americans buy 2.7 billion packages of breakfast cereal each year. If
(1)______ end to end, the empty cereal boxes from one year’s consumption would (2) ______ to the moon
and back. One point three (1.3) million advertisements for cereal are broadcast on American television every
year at a(n) (3) ______ of $762 million for airtime. Only automobile manufacturers spend more money on
television advertising than the makers of breakfast cereal.
   (4) ______ of the boxed cereals found in supermarkets contain large amounts of sugar and some contain
more than 50% sugar. Cereal manufacturers are very clever in their marketing, making many cereals appear
much healthier than they really are by “fortifying” them with vitamins and minerals. Oh, (5) ______ - you
now have vitamin-fortified sugar!
   Before you eat any cereal, read the ingredient list and see how (6) ______ sugar appears on the ingredient
list. Then check the “Nutrition facts” panel.
   There are actually only a small handful of national commercially-branded cereals that are made (7) ______
whole grains and are sugar-free. If you shop at a health food store instead of your local supermarket, you (8)
______ to find a healthy, whole grain, sugar-free (or very low sugar) cereal. But (9) ______! Some of the
health food store boxed cereals are sweetened with fruit juice or fructose. Although this may be an
improvement (10) ______ refined white sugar, this can really skyrocket the calories.
From “Foods That Burn Fat, Foods That Turn to Fat” by Tom Ventulo
 22

Question 1: A. to lay B. laying C. lay D. laid

Question 2: A. reach B. prolong C. stretch D. contact
Question 3: A. charge B. everage C. cost D. expense
Question 4: A. Most B. Mostly C. Almost D. Furthermost
Question 5: A. charming B. lovely                     C. gorgeous          D. beautiful
Question 6: A. tall    B. large C. high        D. many
Question 7: A. by B. from C. at D. in
Question 8:  A. are more likelier B. are much more likely  C. would be able D. could more or less
Question 9: A. see through B. keep alert C. watch out D. look up
Question 10: A. at B. from C. with D. on
READING COMPREHENSION (10 pts)
PASSAGE A:
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
   New surveys suggest that the technological tools we use to make our lives easier are killing our leisure
time. We are working longer hours, taking fewer and shorter vacations (and when we do go away, we take
our cell phones, PDAs, and laptops along). And, we are more stressed than ever as increased use of e-mail,
voice mail, cell phones, and the Internet is destroying any idea of privacy and leisure.
   Since the Industrial Revolution, people have assumed that new labor-saving devices would free them from
the burdens of the workplace and give them more time to grow intellectually, creatively, and socially –
exploring the arts, keeping up with current events, spending more time with friends and family, and even just
‘goofing off’.
   But here we are at the start of the 21st century, enjoying one of the greatest technological boom times in
human history, and nothing could be further from the truth. The very tools that were supposed to liberate us
have bound us to our work and study in ways that were inconceivable just a few years ago. It would seem
that technology almost never does what we expect.
   In ‘the old days’, the lines between work and leisure time were markedly clearer. People left their offices
at a predictable time, were often completely disconnected from and out of touch with their jobs as they
traveled to and from work, and were off-duty once they were home. That is no longer true. In today’s highly
competitive job market, employers demand increased productivity, expecting workers to put in longer hours
and to keep in touch almost constantly via fax, cell phones, e-mail, or other communications devices. As a
result, employees feel the need to check in on what is going on at the office, even on days off. They feel
pressured to work after hours just to catch up on everything they have to do. Workers work harder and
longer, change their work tasks more frequently, and have more and more reasons to worry about job
security.
   Bosses, colleagues, family members, lovers, and friends expect instant responses to voice mail and e-mail
messages. Even college students have become bound to their desks by an environment in which faculty,
friends, and other members of the college community increasingly do their work online. Studies of time
spent on instant messaging services would probably show staggering use.
   This is not what technology was supposed to be doing for us. New technologies, from genetic research to
the Internet, offer all sorts of benefits and opportunities. But, when new tools make life more difficult and
stressful rather than easier and more meaningful – and we are, as a society, barely conscious of it – then
something has gone seriously awry, both with our expectations for technology and our understanding of how
it should benefit us.
Question 1: According to the first three paragraphs, technological tools that were designed to make our lives
easier______.
A. have brought us complete happiness B. have fully met our expectations
C. have not interfered with our privacy D. have turned out to do us more harm than good
Question 2: Which of the following is NOT true about technological tools, according to new surveys?
A. They make our life more stressful.B. They bring more leisure to our life.
C. They are used even during vacations. D. They are being increasingly used.
Question 3: Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. People have more opportunities to get access to technological applications.
B. Employees were supposed to make technology do what they expected.
C. People now enjoy greater freedom thanks to the technological boom.
 23

D. Students used to have to study more about technological advances.

Question 4: The word “inconceivable” in the passage is closest in meaning to”______”.
A. unforgettable B. unimaginable C. predictable D. foreseeable
Question 5: With the phrase “at a predictable time”, the author implies that______.
A. people had to predict the time they were allowed to leave offices
B. people wanted to be completely disconnected from their work
C. people were unable to foresee their working hours
D. people used to have more time and privacy after work
Question 6: It can be inferred from the fourth paragraph that______.
A. it is compulsory that employees go to the office, even on days off
B. employees have more freedom to decide what time they start and finish work
C. employers are more demanding and have efficient means to monitor employees
D. life is more relaxing with cell phones and other technological devices
Question 7: The word “They” in the fourth paragraph refers to______.
A. employers B. employees C. workers D. tasks
Question 8: Which of the following could be the main idea of the fifth paragraph?
A. New technological applications are wise entertainment choices of our modern time.
B. The coming of new technological advances has spoiled family and social relationships.
C. New technological advances have added more stress to daily life.
D. New technological advances have reduced work performance.
Question 9: This passage has probably been taken from______.
A. a science review B. a political journal C. an advertisement D. a fashion magazine
Question 10: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Expectations and Plain Reality B. Benefits of Technology
C. Research on the Roles of Computers D. Changes at the Workplace
PASSAGE B:
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
    Archimedes’s Principle is a law of physics that states that when an object is totally or partially immersed
in a fluid, it experiences an upthrust equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. The principle is most
frequently applied to the behaviour of objects in water, and helps to explain floating and sinking, and why
objects seem lighter in water. It also applies to balloons.
   The key word in the principle is “upthrust”, which refers to the force acting upward to reduce the apparent
weight of the object when it is under water. If, for example, a metal block with a volume of 100 cm 3  is
dipped in water, it displaces an equal volume of water, which has a weight of approximately 1 N (3.5 oz).
The block therefore seems to weigh about 1 N less.
   An object will float if its average density is less than that of water. If it is totally submerged, the weight of
the water it displaces (and hence the upthrust on it) is greater than its own weight, and it is forced upward
and out of water, until the weight if water displaced by submerged part is exactly equal to the weight of the
floating object. Thus a block of wood with a density six tenths that of water will float with six tenths of its
volume under water, since at that point the weight of fluid displaced is the same as the blocks’s own weight.
If a dense material is made into a suitable shape, it will float because of Archimedes’s principle. A ship
floats, whereas a block of iron of the same mass sinks.
   It is also because of Archimedes’s principle that ships float lower in the water when they are heavily
loaded (more water must be displaced to give the necessary upthrust). In addition, they cannot be so heavily
loaded if they are to sail in fresh water as they can if they are to sail in the sea, since fresh water is less dense
than sea water, and so more water must be displaced to give the necessary upthrust. This means the ship is
lower in the water, which can be dangerous in rough weather.
Question 1: What happens when something is immersed in a fluid?
A. The fluid will expand the object and overflow to the floor.
B. It receives a download force, equal to the weight of the fluid displaced.
C. It receives an upward force, equal to the weight of the fluid displaced.
D. It will be pushed further down with a force, equal to the weight of the fluid displaced.
Question 2: The word “volume” in the passage refers to ______.
       A. lenght                            B. quantity                          C. frequency                         D.  loudness
 24

Question 3: The word “displaces” in the passage almost means “_____”.

A. replaces with a new one B. takes the place of
C. takes place D. puts in position
Question 4: If an object’s average density is less than that of water, the object will _____.
A. driftB. float C. inflate D.sink
Question 5: A block of wood with a density seven tenths that of water will _____.
A. go up and down the sink
B. sink immediately when submerged
C. float with an equal volume of its volume under water
D. float with a half of its volume under water
Question 6: A ship floats, whereas a block of iron of the same mass sinks because the ship _____.
A. has a special shape B. is made of wood
C. has buoys D. is lighter
Question 7: The phrase “six tenths” in the passage means “_____”.
A. 10 of 6 B. 6 and 10
C. 10/6 D. 6/10
Question 8: The word “upthrust” in the passage refers to the _____.
A. upside-down turn B. upturned force
C. upward push D. upper side of an object
Question 9: Ships cannot be so heavily loaded if they want to sail in fresh water as they sail in the sea,
because _____.
A. sea water is ‘saltier’ than fresh water B. fresh water is more polluted
C. fresh water is ‘lighter’ than sea water D. there’s too much salt in sea water
Question 10: Archimedes’ Principle explains why _____.
A. objects seem lighter in water B. humans can swim
C. all objects will float D. Archimedes became famous
B. WRITTEN TEST
I. CLOZE TEST (20pts) Fill in each gap in the passage below with ONE suitable word.
CLOZE TEST A (10pts)
     Many thousands of children have (1)________ in their homes. As a result, some children died. The most
common accidents are with (2)________ and hot water. Small children often touch pots of (3)________
water on the stove. The pots fall over and the hot water falls on the children  and (4)________ them. Some
children like to (5)________ with fire. They enjoy striking matches or throwing things on a fire to make it
burn brightly. If the fire gets too big, it gets out of (6)________. Then the house (7)________ fire. It is very
(8)________ to play with matches. When a child strikes a match, the flame soon burns near his (9)________
. Then he (10)________ the match on the floor.  Many houses catch fire in this way. 
CLOZE TEST B (10pts)
     New technologies, like all technologies, are morally neutral. (1)_________ their advent makes the world
a better place or not depends on the uses to which they are (2)_________.And that, (3)_________ turn,
depends upon the decisions of many people, especially of politicians, managers, trade (4)_________ 
leaders, engineers and scientists. The new technologies,  cheap, flexible, dependent on knowledge and
information as their main input, can (5)_________ human being from many of their current constraints for
example constraints of resources and  geography. (6)_________ the new technologies could also
(7)_________ those with power to control their fellow citizens even more effectively than in the
(8)_________ efficient dictatorships of the past. The new technological  society will (9)_________ colossal 
demands on our imagination and  ingenuity and on the capacity (10)_________ our institutions to repond to
new challenges.
II. WORD FORM (10 pts)
PART 1: * Supply the correct form of the word in the bracket in each sentence.
1. I find her story about UFOs hardly _______________. (BELIEVE)
2. This is really __________________ news. (MARVEL)
3. They may be travelling in space and examining ____________ beings. (HUMANITY)
4. Somewhere in space there could be other ________________ beings. (THINK)
5. Don’t be frightened. This is just an __________________ story. (IMAGINE)
 25

6. I hate him because of his __________________. (HONEST)

7. The development of synthetic fabrics has brought new challenges and new opportunities to
________________ engineers. (CHEMISTRY)
8. Women are now more and more _______________ and can earn their own living. (DEPEND)
9. The exact origin of universe remains a _________________ . (MYSTERIOUS)
10. The earthquake is one of the most natural ______________ that we have experienced. (DISASTROUS)

PART 2 * Supply the correct form of the word to fill in the blank. 10pts
     Vietnamese people generally shake hands when greeting  and  (1) _________ (PART). Using both hands
shows respect, as does a slight bow of the head. In rural areas, elderly people who do not extend their hand
are greeted with a slight bow. Women are more likely to bow their head (2) _________ (SLIGHT) than to
shake hands. Vietnamese names begin with the family name and are followed  by a given name. People
address another by their given names, but add a title  that   indicates   their  perceived(3) _________
(RELATION) to the other person. These titles are family related rather than (4)_________ (PROFESSION).
Among colleagues, for example, the younger of the two might combine the given name with the title of Anh
(“Older Brother” ). A basic (5)_________ (GREET) combined with the given name and the title is Xin chao
(“Hello.”). Classifiers for gender and (6)_________ (FAMILIAR) are also combined with the greeting. In
formal meetings, business cards are sometimes exchanged on  greeting. Vietnamese have strong sense of
(7)_________ (HOSPITABLE) and feel (8) _________(EMBARRAS ) if they cannot show their guests full
respect by preparing for their arrival. Therefore, it is (9)_________ (APPROPRIATE)  to  visit  a  home 
without  having been invited. Gifts are not required, but are appreciated. Flowers, incense, or tea may be
appropriate gifts for the hosts. Hosts also appreciate a small gift  for their  children or (10)_________
(ELDER) parents.
III. ERROR IDENTIFICATION (10 pts)
* There  are  ten  errors  in  the  text  below. Find and correct them.
Example: 0. that which
    Robots can work in places to that humans can’t easily get. These including deep oceans, on distant planets
or on sites with bad pollution. Robots are also used in factories although they can work much quickly and
accurately than a human, and without needing to rest.
     Improvements in technology over the past fifty years has meant that scientists are now able to create very
clever robots. The most complicate of these can make decisions for themselves, learn new things, and deal
for problems. However, while robots that look as people are very common in science fiction films, they are
very rarely in real life. Making a machine that can balance and move on two legs is a real challenge and is
unnecessary for most of the jobs we need robots to make for us. However, a Japanese robot called as Asimo
does walk on two legs and can even climb up and down stairs. 
Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it (
20 points )
Question 1: He was sorry he hadn’t said goodbye to her at the airport.→ He regretted _____________
Question 2: These young men became doctors after six years training.→ After these young men  ________
Question 3: People say that the driver was listening to his walkman at the time of the crash.→ The driver __
Question 4: Those athletes didn’t compete with all their best, so they couldn’t get the gold medals.
→ If those athletes _____________________________________________________________________
Question 5: The employees evacuated from their offices immediately as soon as the government announced
a seroius earthquake → No sooner _______
Question 6: My friend began to work for IBM when he graduated from university.→ My friend has ___
Question 7: The alarm went off just as they came out of the building.→ Scarcely ________
Question 8: The only way you can become a good football player is by training hard every day.→ Only by
Question 9: Paul smashed a window and damaged the television too.→ Not only ______
Question 10: We couldn’t drive because of the fog.→The fog prevented _____________

ĐỀ 8
ĐỀ THI VÀ ĐÁP ÁN
 26

A. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 PTS)

I. Grammar and Structures (5 pts) Choose the best option to complete the
following sentences
Câu 1.  We _________________last night, but we went to the concert instead.
A. must have studied B. might studyC. should have studied D. would study
Câu 2.  Lindsay’s excuses for being late are beginning to ___ rather thin.
A. get B. turn C. wear D. Go
Câu 3. We ___ have been happier in those days.
A. can’t B. couldn’t C. might not D. must not
Câu 4. They seemed to be ____ to the criticism and just carried on as before. 
A. disinterested B. sensitive       C. uncaring D. indifferent
Câu 5. “Shall we go out tonight?”  - “____”
 A. Yes, I can B. Yes, we are     C. Yes, we go D. Yes, let’s 
Câu 6. The noise of the typewriter really ____ me off. I just couldn’t concentrate. 
A. put B. pulled     C. set D. Took
Câu 7.  Now I know we were just too tired. Even with your help, we _______ it.
A. hadn’t finished B. wouldn’t finish C. won’t finish D. wouldn’t have finished
Câu 8. I could tell from the _______ look on her face that something terrible _______.
A. frightened / had happened B. frightened / would happen
C. frightening / had happenedD. frightening / had been happening
Câu 9.____________ make a good impression on her.
A. Only by doing so can I B. Only by so doing I can
C. Only by doing so I can D. Only so doing can I
Câu 10. It looks _______ the game will be cancelled _______ the rain stops.
A. like / unless B. that / so long as C. as if / for fear that D. as though / unless
II. Phrasal verbs and Prepositions (5 pts) Choose the best option to complete the
following sentences
Câu 11. She got angry when they started to __________her private life.
A. ask for B. enquire after C. ask about D. enquire with
Câu 12. She ran in a marathon last week but _________after ten kilometers. 
A. dropped out B. closed down C. broke up D. made up
Câu 13. Paula applied for the post but she was _________ 
A. turned down B. checked out C. kept under D. pushed ahead
Câu 14. If orders keep coming in like this, I'll have to.......... more staff.
A. give up B. add in C. gain on D. take on
Câu 15. I know you find the course boring, Pauline, but since you've started it, you might as well _____ it.
A. go with B. go through with C. go ahead D. go off
Câu 16. You look upset, Sven. Have you and Niger _______ again?
A. gone out B. gone grey C. fallen out D. let off
Câu 17. Paul, do you think you could ____ me ____ for the night? It's a bit too late to go home now.
A. let me off B. go me out C. fall me out D. put me up
Câu 18. All building work must be carried out _________ safety regulations.
A. with reference to B. with obedience to C. in compliance with D. on behalf of
Câu 19. The robbers packed diamonds into a suicase and _____ in a van that waited for them in the street. 
A. put through B. rolled over C. carried away D. made off
Câu 20. As we were witing on the pavement, a black Mercedes ___________ besides us. 
A. pulled up B. pulled down C. pulled off D. pulled through
III. Vocabulary (10 pts) Choose the best option to complete the following sentences
Câu 21. I really admire the hero of the film. He’s so_______________
A. reckless B. adventurous C. foolhardly D. Infinitive
Câu 22. The weekend is over. So tomorrow morning it’s back to the ____________ .
A. grind B. labour C. drudgery D. toil
Câu 23. Big cites like New York and  Tokyo are ____________ populated.
A. greatly B. closely C. densely D. Variously
 27

Câu  24. There are many opportunities for work in the city.
A. possibilities B.disadvantages C. difficulties D. advantages
Câu 25. These figures give you some ideas of the cost of _____________ your car for one year. 
A. controlling B. handing C. managing D. maintaining
Câu 26.  It can take up to three months to ____________ a man to do this specialist work. 
     A. guide B. raise       C. train D. Learn
Câu 27. In the _______________ of security, personnel must wear their identity badges at all time. 
A. requirement B. interests C. demands D. Asistance
Câu 28. The train service has been a ____________ seen they introduced the schedules.
A. shambles B. rumpus C. chaos D. fracas
Câu 29. You’ve lived in the city for most of your life, so _____________ you’ re used to the noise.
      A. apparently                   B. presumably                 C. allegedly             D. Predictably
Câu 30. Is an inexperienced civil servant __________ to the task of running the company?
A. capable B. skilled C.eligible D. suited
Câu 31. Their eventual choice of house was ………. by the time Peter would take to get to the office.
A. related B. consequent C. determined D. Dependent
Câu 32.Nearly 1,000 of the world’s bird species are ……………with extinction.   
  A. threatened                   B. endangered        C. protected                  D. Abandoned
Câu 33. She loved tennis and could watch it till the _____ came home.
A. she B. everyone C. horses D. cows
Câu 34. Could you close the window? There is a bit of a _____.
A. current B. wind C. draught D. breeze
Câu 35. Thousands of steel _____ were used as the framework of the new office block.
A. beams B. girders C. stakes D. piles 
Câu 36. The ceiling fans were on, but unfortunately they only _____ the hot, humid air.
A. stirred up B. poured through C. turned into D. cut back
Câu 37.  He set one alarm-clock for five o’clock and the other for five past so as to _____ that he did not
oversleep.
A. assure B. ensure C. insure D. reassure
Câu 38. When Tim was eating a cherry, he accidentally swallowed the _____.
A. nut B. stone C. seedD. core 
Câu 39. Many ________ crafts such as weaving are now being revived.
     A. customary B. habitual       C. traditional D. ordinary
Câu 40. Assembly lines are useful for producing a large _________ of identical products.
         A. quality             B. quantity       C. quandary D. qualification
IV. Guided Cloze (10 pts) Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space
Passage A: 
More and more people are discovering that sharing and talking about their favorite books with others can be
as rewarding as the act of reading (41)_____. For people who feel that they are too busy to sit down with a
book, a book club helps them schedule time to read, others have gained self-confidence by (42)_____ in or
leading a discussion. And most people enjoy the chance to  (43)_____ new friends.
A successful book club should have a group that is small enough so even the quiet people can be heard but
also big enough for many different (44)_____. The best arrangement is a (45)_____ of ages, sexes, and
backgrounds for more reading variety and livelier discussions.
The book club could (46)_____ in one subject or type of book, like mysteries, science fiction,
or biographies. Or the members could read books of all types, as long as the book is highly recommended by
someone who thinks it would be (47)_____ discussing.
Some book clubs meet in places like bookstores, public libraries, or restaurants, but most have their meetings
in members’ homes. This approach simply (48)_____ more privacy and time for longer meetings.To make
the meeting go smooth, a leader should be (49)_____ . The leader will usually start the discussion by asking
what the author’s main idea was. Book club members should never be afraid to offer their opinions, even if
they don’t like a book. They just need to be prepared to explain (50)_____they didn’t like something.
Câu 41. A. it B. itself C. themselves D. oneself
 28

Câu 42. A. participating B. taking C. talking D. sitting

Câu 43. A. do B. make C. form D. gather

Câu 44. A. characters B. issues C. attitudes D. opinions

Câu 45. A. mixture B. range C. number D. lot

Câu 46. A. focus B. talk C. specialize D. concentrate

Câu 47. A. valuable B. busy C. worth D. useful

B.
Câu 48. A. offers supplies C. encourages D. takes

Câu 49. A. called B. named C. suggested D. appointed

Câu 50. A. what B. why C. how D. where

Passage B: 
SMILE POWER
The expression on your face can actually dramatically alter. Your feelings and perceptions, and it has been
proven that (51) ________smiling or frowning can create corresponding emotional responses. The idea was
first (52)_______by a French physiologist, Israel Waynbaum, in 1906. He believed that different facial
expressions affected the flow of blood to the brain, and that this could create positive or negative feelings. A
happy smile or irrepressible (53) ________ increased the blood flow and contributed to joyful feelings. But
sad, angry expressions decreased the flow of oxygen-carrying blood, and created a vicious (54) ________ of
gloom and depression by effectively (55) ________ the brain of essential fuel.
Psychologist Robert Zajonc rediscovered this early research, and (56) ________ that the temperature of the
brain could affect the production and synthesis of neurotransmitters – which definitely influence our moods
and energy levels. He agues that an impaired blood flow could not only deprive the brain of oxygen, but
create further chemical imbalance (57) ________ inhibiting these vital hormon messages. Zajonc goes on to
propose that our brains remember that smiling is associated with being happy, and that by deliberately
smiling through your tears you can (58) ________ your brain to release uplifting neurotransmitters –
replacing a depressed condition with a happier one. People suffering from psychosomatic (59) ________,
depression and anxiety states could (60)________ from simply exercising their zygomatic muscles - which
pull the corners of the mouth up and back to form a smile – several times an hour.
Câu 51. A. desperately B. determinedly C. deliberately D. Decidedly
Câu 52. A. put off B. put down C. put by D. put forward
Câu 53. A. laughter B. sadness C. humour D. Depression
Câu 54. A. cycle B. spiral C. circle D. Vortex
Câu 55. A cutting B. starving C. removing D. Eliminating
Câu 56. A. Advises B. wants C. demands D. Suggests
Câu 57. A. by B. without C. when D. From
Câu 58. A. make B. persuade C. allow D. Decide
Câu 59. A. disease B. illness C. infection D. Ailment
Câu 60. A. recover B. improve C. benefit D. Progress
V. Reading Comprehension (10 pts) Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question
Passage A: 
The green building movement is changing the way buildings are constructed. This movement started in the
1970s, as people began to see that modern life was destroying the environment we all share. Natural
 29

resources were being destroyed, energy and water consumption was rising, and so was pollution of all kinds.
This environmental destruction has continued, and one important factor has been the way that buildings are
constructed. In fact, energy use in buildings represents about 32 percent of all energy use in the United
States. In the early years, green builders were a small minority, and their goals of reducing the
environmental impact of buildings were considered unrealistic. Now, however, the green building
movement is growing, as builders have been able to take advantage of new technology and as the costs of
this technology have gone down. Environmental building methods are now practical enough to save money
for builders and for building owners, even as they reduce damage to the environment. 
First, green builders try to make use of recycled materials as much as possible. In fact, vast amounts
of materials such as steel, cement, and wood are used in construction. Now there are companies that
specialize in gathering old materials, processing them, and selling them to builders for new buildings. States
and cities are encouraging these companies, as the reuse of materials also means less waste in dumps. For
larger builders or individual homeowners, it is possible to find everything from steel and cement to doors,
windows, sinks, tubs, brick, and hardware.
Another way that builders can reduce environmental impact is to reduce the energy requirements of a
building. This can be done in several ways. One is to provide an alternative, nonpolluting source of energy.
The first alternative energy source to be developed was solar power. With solar panels-wide, flat sheets of
special material-it is possible to produce electricity from the rays of the sun. Builders can install solar panels
on the roofs of buildings and connect them to cooling or lighting systems. Once the panels are installed, they
provide energy at no cost and with no pollution. Another, nonpolluting solution for reducing energy use is a
technology known as geothermal heating. To obtain geothermal heat, builders place special pipes below
ground, where temperatures remain constant all year. In the winter, the earth's natural heat can be collected
in these pipes, and then transferred into the building's heating system. In the summer, heat in the building
can be collected and sent to the pipes underground. 
Câu 61.According to the passage, all of the following leads to environmental destruction EXCEPT _______ 
A. the increasing number of buildings B. the increase of water consumption
C. the increase of energy consumption. D. the destruction of natural resources.
Câu 62.The early years, it was believed that the use of green buildings to reduce environmental destruction
was _______ 
A. impractical B. authentic C. unique D. Feasible
Câu 63.The phrase "green building" in the passage can also be understood as _______ 
A. environment-friendly buildings B. buildings with open stairs. 
B. buildings with tree inside. D. buildings painted green.
Câu 64.The phrase "green builders" in the first line of the second paragraph refers to those who _______ 
A. work in green buildings. B. build green buildings.
C. use green materials. D. put trees in buildings.
Câu 65.The author mentioned all of the following as ways to reduce environmental destruction EXCEPT
A. providing alternative energies.
B. using geothermal heating.
C. using recycled materials to construct buildings.
D. having more green plants in buildings.
Passage B: 
The fertile valleys of the river Nile straddle the hot desert land of Egypt. Rain is relatively scarce, and the
summers are scorching hot. Nevertheless the strip of land, known as the Cultivation, on either side of the
Nile is reputed to be one of the most fertile places in the world. Its rich black soil is the result of
accumulation of silt deposited by the annual flooding of the Nile thousands of years ago. From June to
October, the river overflowed its banks. Modern damps were then constructed to control the flooding. The
floodwaters left behind a rich sticky black mud which made it suitable for the cultivation of crops. As long
as the soil was well irrigated, two or three crops could be grown in one season.
Its rich soil led to the growth and rise of the brilliant civilization of the ancient Egyptians on the Nile valley
more than 5000 years ago. The earliest Egyptians had acquired the skills to till the land along the banks,
drawing water from the Nile for irrigation purposes. As the villagers along the Nile became wealthy, they
embarked on projects of digging ditches and constructing dams to control the floods.
 30

In about 3100 BC, the whole Egypt was united under the reign of King Menes. He and his
descendants made up Egypt’s first ruling family, or dynasty. His rule led to the great development of the arts
like writing, painting, architecture, and crafts. Egyptian power and influence were and influence were to last
for the next 2000 years.
The Egyptian kings had absolute powers. The king possesses all the land, and the peasants had to
surrender part of their crops to the king. An army of officials and scribes did the task of collecting the exact
amount of due from the individual farmers was united. Crops and livestock were often seen at the
storehouses surrounding the royal palaces. In return for their uphill task, the king paid his officials and
dishes out funds for huge irrigation projects.
Egypt’s trade with the outside world stretches far and wide. In return for gold, copper, gemstones,
and building stores, it purchases the goods that it did not have. Timber, resins, oils, silver and slaves came
from Lebanon. From Deria and Anatolia came horses, while the blue stone called lapis lazuli was imported
from Mesopotamia. Strong forts were constructed to protect overland trade routes. Egypt held Nubia in the
south for almost 800 years. It served as Egypt’s most vital source of gold and slaves.
Câu 66. The civilization of the ancient Egyptians was brought about by ________ .
A. the rich alluvial soil of the Nile B. Egypt’s first ruling family
C. the highly-developed writing, painting, architecture and crafts D. Egypt’s trade with the outside world
Câu 67. The writer said that the annual flooding of the Nile __________ .
 A. helped to develop the arts B. caused an influx of foreign traders
 C. needed to be controlled D. led to the discovery of new mines
Câu 68. According to the passage, the king was wise _____________ .
A. to important the things that Egypt did not have B. to pay for huge irrigation projects
C. to control the land D. to own slaves and gold
Câu 69. In return for, in the first line, last paragraph, refers to __________ .
 A. the respect Egypt received B. how fast the profit came
 C. the protection the Egyptian army provided D. what Egypt exported
Câu 70. A suitable title for this passage is ___________ .
 A. The Civilization Of The Ancient Egyptians B. The Farming Methods Of The Egyptians
 C. The Might Of The Egyptian Army D. The Landscape Of The Egypt
Passage C: Facts you should know about Global Warming
Fact 1: In 1996, the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), representing 2,500 scientists,
released a major assessment on climate change. The 3600-page report reduces many of the uncertainties
surrounding the issue. Scientists are now more confident than ever that the emission of greenhouse gases
through human activities is contributing to global warming. This will lead to climate change next century,
with potentially disastrous impacts on biodiversity, coasts, agriculture, water and health.
Fact 2: The greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon – if it weren’t for the natural greenhouse effect the
Earth would be some 33°C cooler than it is at present. The planet is warm enough for complex life because
naturally occurring gases (including carbon dioxide and water vapour) trap heat which would otherwise
escape into space. The problem is that human activity – including combustion of fossil fuels and land
clearing – is adding to these gases faster than oceans, plants and soil can absorb them. This is unnaturally
‘enhancing’ the greenhouse effect. Since the industrial revolution, the concentration of carbon dioxide, the
main greenhouse gas, has increased by 30 per cent. Long-substantiated laws of physics tell us that, given we
are altering the energy balance of the atmosphere, this will impact on the world’s temperature and climate.
Fact 3: The measured increase in temperature of about 0.3-0.6°C this century is consistent with the latest
climate model predictions. The 1980s was the warmest decade on record, with 1990, 1991 and 1995 the
three warmest years on record. This is not to say that the warming trend is the consequence of the enhanced
greenhouse effect. However, recent studies show that the warming trend this century is unlikely to be due to
natural phenomena such as increased solar output. The IPCC has now stated that ‘the balance of evidence
suggests that there is discernible human influence on global climate’.
Fact 4: Global warming predictions are based on computer models and analysis of climate change that has
occurred in the past. Global warming and climate change predictions are based on two major sources.
Complex computer models (known as global circulation models) are able to simulate the broad features of
the climate system including atmospheric and ocean circulations. These models can now simulate the present
climate and have greatly improved scientists’ ability to distinguish between natural and human influences on
 31

the climate. The most recent climate models predict an increase in global average temperatures of 1.5-3.5°C
for a doubling in the atmospheric concentration of greenhouse gases. The average rate of warming would be
greater than at any time in the history of civilization. Analysis of air trapped in glacier ice confirms the
model predictions. The analysis reveals that past changes in temperature are closely correlated to changes in
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Fact 5: Global warming will lead to a rise in the sea level. The IPCC has projected that sea levels will rise
by between 15 and 95 cm next century, with a best estimate of 50 cm. Sea level rise will be principally due
to thermal expansion of the oceans and also some melting of glaciers. The sea level will continue to rise after
next century, even if the concentrations of greenhouse gases are cut by that time.
Fact 6: Human-induced climate change is different to past natural climate change. Natural climate
variability is an ongoing phenomenon – scientific analysis suggests temperatures have changed by a number
of degrees in recent geological history. It is important to recognize, though, that present-day stresses on
natural ecosystems from human activity will mean the resilience of ecosystems to the changes will be much
less than in the past. Furthermore, both the rate and the level of global warming will be greater than any time
in the last 10,000 years. Past global and regional climate changes, have resulted in social and cultural
upheaval – in some cases contributing to the collapse of civilizations.
Fact 7: The costs of global warming will outweigh the benefits. The nature and extent of the impacts of
global warming are still uncertain. However, the IPCC has made it clear that many of the world’s ecological
and human systems are extremely vulnerable to the predicted global warming, in particular ecosystems and
societies that are already subject to environmental, economic and cultural stresses. The IPCC has also stated
that future climate changes may involve ‘surprises’. Some commentators have suggested that because some
regions or industries may benefit in the short term from climate change – for example, wheat yields could
improve in Canada – then there is no need to be concerned about the issue. This suggestion is based on a
false assumption that climate change will be a one-off event. Unless the level of greenhouse gases in the
atmosphere is stabilised, though, human-induced climate change will continue to occur and benefits may
only be transient. Furthermore, the suggestion ignores the social, economic and environmental upheaval that
will arise if significant sections of society or ecosystems are unable to adapt to climate change.
QUESTIONS
In the two lists below, a statement in the list (A-F) corresponds to an idea in one of the paragraphs
(Fact 2 - Fact 7). Match the two lists by typing in the correct letter for each question.
Câu 71: Fact 2 = ___
Câu 72: Fact 3 = ___
Câu 73: Fact 4 = ___
Câu 74: Fact 5 = ___
Câu 75: Fact 6 = ___
Câu 76: Fact 7 = ___
A. Global warming is likely to increase.
B. The earth will find it difficult to cope with global warning.
C. This century has seen a rise in temperature.
D. Sea level rise has been predicted.
E. Global warning might bring unexpected benefits.
F. The greenhouse effect has been beneficial to the earth.
Câu 77. Considered as a whole, the text:
A. is optimistic that global warning can be dealt with.
B. rejects simple attempts to solve the problem.
C. explains how the problem can be solved.
D. explains the consequences of global warning.
Câu 78. Computer predictions of climate change have been
A. disputed by some scientists
B. modified over many years
C. proved reliable by trapped air in glaciers
D. based on recent climate changes
Câu 79. Societies have disappeared because of global warning.
A. TRUE B. FALSE C. NOT GIVEN
 32

Câu 80. Which statement is closest in meaning to what the text says?
A. The greenhouse effect has increased by thirty times since the industrial revolution.
B. Atmospheric carbon dioxide is thirty times greater than before the industrial revolution.
C. There is no evidence of changes in carbon dioxide levels since the industrial revolution.
D. Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has increased by almost one-third since the industrial
revolution.

B. WRITTEN TEST (70 PTS)

I. Cloze test (20 pts)
Passage A:  Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
WORD for each space. (10 pts)
Fish live almost (81) _________ . They are found in the near freezing waters of the Artic and in the
steaming (82)________ in the tropic jungles. They live in roaring streams and in quiet (83)________ rivers.
Some fish make long journeys (84) ________ the ocean. Others spend most of their life buried in sand on
the ocean (85) _______ . Most fish can’t leave (86)_______; yet some survive for months in dried-up
riverbeds.
Fish have enormous (87) ________ to man. They provide food for millions of people. Fishermen
catch them for sports, and many people (88)_________ them as pets. Fish are also important in the balance
of nature. They eat plants and animals and in turn, become (89)_________for plants and animals. Fish thus
help keep in (90 ) _______ the total number of plants and animals on the earth.
Passage B: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
WORD for each space. (10 pts)
Conservation, sustainable use and protection of natural resources including plants, animals, mineral deposits,
soils, clean water, clean air, and fossil fuels (91) _______ as coal, petroleum, and natural gas. (92)_______
resources are grouped into two categories, renewable and (93) _______. A renewable resource is one that
may be replaced over time by natural processes, such as fish populations or natural vegetation, or is
inexhaustible, such as solar energy. The goal of renewable resource conservation is to ensure (94) _______
such resources are not consumed faster (95) _______ they are replaced. Nonrenewable resources are those in
limited supply that cannot be replaced (96) _______ can be replaced only over extremely long periods of
time. Nonrenewable resources (97) _______ fossil fuels and mineral deposits, such as iron ore and gold ore.
Conservation activities for nonrenewable resources focus (98) _______ maintaining an adequate supply of
these resources well into the future. Natural resources are conserved for their biological, economic, and
recreational values, as well as their natural beauty and importance to local cultures. For (99) _______,
tropical rain forests are protected for their important role in both global ecology (100) _______ the economic
livelihood of the local culture; a coral reef may be protected for its recreational value for scuba divers; and a
scenic river may be protected for its natural beauty...
II. Word formation (20 pts)
Part 1: : Complete each sentence, using the correct form of the word in parentheses. (10pts)
Câu 101. The audience was rather ____________ (WARM) about the play.
Câu 102. Tonight’s  programme is a(n) _____ (DEEP) look at the long-term effects of the unemployment  .
Câu 103. To a(n) ____________ (SIDE), it may appear to be a glamorous job. 
Câu 104. Early cononists ____________ (SLAVE) and oppressed the natives.
Câu 105. Her style _____________ (EXAMPLE) modern Italian cooking at its best. 
Câu 106. The article gives us a few interesting ___________ (SIDE) on life in Japan in general. 
Câu 107. You should make a list of all the jobs you have to do and __________ (PRIOR) them. 
Câu 108. He behaves badly to his wife; he is a __________ (BOIL). 
Câu 109. She reacted angrily to my ___________ (INTEND) remarks.
Câu 110.Pluto is said to be the ____________(OUT) planet of the solar system.
Part 2: Complete the passage with appropriate forms of the words given in the box. (10pts)

        People are often put off meditation by what they see as its many mystical associations. Yet
meditation is a (111. STRAIGHT)___________  technique which merely involves sitting and resting the
mind. In addition to its (112. SIMPLE) ___________, meditation offers powerful help in the battle against
stress. Hundreds of studies have shown that meditation, when undertaken in a principled way, can  (113.
 33

REDUCTION) ___________ hypertension which is related to stress in the body. Research has proved that
certain types of meditation  can (114. SUBSTANCE) ____________ decrease key stress symptoms such
as (115. ANXIOUS) ____________and irritability. In fact, those who practise meditation with    any (116.
REGULAR)____________  see their doctors less and spend, on average, seventy per cent fewer days in
hospital. They are said to have more stamina, a happier (117. DISPOSE) ___________and even enjoy
better relationships.
        When you learn to meditate, your teacher will give you a personal 'mantra' or word which  you  use 
every  time  you practise the technique and  which  is  (118. SUPPOSE)____________ chosen according 
to your  needs. Initial classes  are  taught (119. INDIVIDUAL)___________ but subsequent classes
usually consist of a group of students and    take place over a period of about four days. The aim is to learn
how to slip into a deeper state of (120.CONSCIOUS)____________ themselves.
III. Error correction (10 pts)
The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Find the mistakes and correct them.
Line 1 Natural Disasters are unfortunate events that can occur at some  moment,
Line 2 anywhere in the world and have a huge effect in the landscape and the society
Line 3 being hit. Natural Disasters can occur due to the many natural causes such as
Line 4 earthquakes, hurricanes, tsunamis, flood, cyclones, landslides or due to some
Line 5 man-made causes such as forest fires or a use of nuclear weapons. Civil
Line 6 Engineering structures such as buildings, bridges, roads, dams, reservoirs,
Line 7 levees and other structures are severe damaged by natural disasters, natural
Line 8 disasters can be costly both in terms of human lives and financial.  Although
Line 9 prevention of natural disasters is possible, reducing the impact natural disasters
Line 10 have on structures can negate the overall effect it has on the everyday human
Line 11 life. Natural  Disasters are a great way of identifying mistake made in the
Line 12 development of civil engineering structures and an essentially way to learn and
Line 13 prepare for future natural disasters. If the lessons learning from natural disasters
Line 14 are utilized, the catastrophic effects about such events can be reduced in the future.
IV. Sentence Transformation (20 pts)
Rewrite the following sentences using the words given. 
Câu 131. The Mountain Rescue Team is pessimistic about the missing climbers.
🡪 The Mountain Rescue Team doesn’t hold ______________________________
Câu 132. Vitamin intake and intelligence are not connected. 🡪 There ___________________________
Câu 133. He suddenly thought that he might have misunderstood her.🡪 It crossed ___________________
Câu 134. His wife keeps telling him that he should get a better job.🡪 His wife is pushing _______
Câu 135. Simon hadn’t expected that he would feel so weak after the operation. 🡪 The operation left ___
Câu 136. Assembling the furniture is extremely easy. (PLAY)
Câu 137.  I resent the way that she clearly feels herself to be superior to me. (NOSE) 
Câu 138. They can’t possibly win the match. (STAND)
Câu 139. Many species of wildlife are threatened with extinction. (VERGE)
Câu 140. You’ll just have to take a chance. (POT)

ĐỀ 9
ĐỀ THI VÀ ĐÁP ÁN
MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 PTS)
Grammar and Structures (5 pts) Choose the best option to complete the following sentences
Câu 1: It is strongly recommended that the machines____________ every year.  
will be checked B. to be checked C. are checked D. be checked
Câu 2: ____________ is that a chicken stands up to lay its eggs.
A. That many people don’t realize B. What many people don’t realize
C. It is that many people don’t realize D. Because many people don’t realize
Câu 3: We didn’t go out last night. We ____________ to the theatre, but we decided to stay at home.
A. could have gone B. could go 
 34

C. must have gone D. should have gone

Câu 4: Having opened the bottle, ____________ for everyone.
A. Mike pouring the drink B. the drink was being poured 
C. Mike poured the drink D. the drink was poured
Câu 5: Not until the end of the 19th century ____________ become a scientific discipline.
had plant breeding B. plant breeding has 
C. that plant breeding did D. did plant breeding
Câu 6: I’m __________ my brother is.
A. nowhere near as ambitious as B. nowhere like so ambitious
C. nothing near as ambitious as D. nothing as ambitious than
Câu 7: He was happy to find the kind of job __________.
A. which they had trained him for B. that he had training in
C. for which he had been trained D. that was for his training
Câu 8: It turned out that we __________ rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours.
A. mustn’t B. needn’t have C. should have D. hadn’t
Câu 9: I remember____________ for the job, but I forget the exact amount.
to be paid B. that I receive pay C. get paid D. being paid
Câu 10: __________, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes.
A. As the boy was intelligent B. As intelligent the boy was 
C. Intelligent as the boy was D. Intelligent as was the boy 
Phrasal verbs and Prepositions (5 pts) Choose the best option to complete the following sentences
Câu 11: I’m not friends with Peter any more. We’re __________.
fallen in B. broken down C. fallen out D. knocked up
Câu 12: Thomas’ petronage stems _________the many churches he built during his pilgrimages.
for B. in C. at D. from
Câu 13: How are they going to ___________ the time they wasted playing cards in the barracks?
make up for B. break out of C. brush up on D. cut out for
Câu 14: When the police appealed for witnesses, several people came___________.
forward B. out C. across D. on
Câu 15: BTS’ performances were so exciting that many of their fans were___________ enthusiasm.
moved to B. carried away with
C. taken aback with D. stirred up with  
Câu 16: When I got my case back, it had been damaged ___________ repair.
above B. over C. off D. beyond
Câu 17: If the rain doesn’t __________ soon, we shall have to look for a taxi.
turn in B. die down C. go off D. let up
Câu 18: She tries to set _________a few minutes a day for her exercises.
about B. down C. aside D. in
Câu 19: I am _________ the habit of reading in bed.
on B. in C. of D. from
Câu 20: No smoking is allowed in here. Please _______ your cigarette.
put out B. put up C. put away D. put on 
Vocabulary (10 pts) Choose the best option to complete the following sentences
Câu 21: It’s twenty years since I worked in Japan and my Japanese is pretty ________ now.
scratchy B. stuffy C. sloppy D. rusty 
Câu 22: The film is__________ based on a true story, but most of it is fiction.
casually B. faintly C. loosely D. lightly
Câu 23: I missed the plane back home. I was left _________in Calcutta without a penny to my name.
high and dry B. high and tight C. long and hard D. safe and sound
Câu 24: They seemed to be ___________ to the criticism and just came on as  before.
indifferent B. disinterested C. uncaring D. sensitive
Câu 25: I don’t usually allow students to leave early, but in your case I’ll __________.
A. make an effort B. make an exception
C. make an arrangement D. make a different
 35

Câu 26: I know you’re upset about breaking up with Tom, but there are plenty more__________.
A. horses in the stable B. cows in the shed 
C. tigers in the jungle D. fish in the sea
Câu 27: Don’t make a __________ decision. Think about it first.
A.jump B. quiet C. snap D. apathetic
Câu 28: Our company was__________ for twenty thousand pounds by a rival on the grounds of an alleged
duplicating of their produce.
A.sentenced B. sued C. accused D. tried
Câu 29: “But son, you are my own___________.”
Abody and soul B. heart to heart C. skin and bone D. flesh and blood
Câu 30: No matter how angry he was, he would never ___________ to violence.
recourse B. resort C. exert D. resolve
Câu 31: The young director was thrilled to discover that his play had attracted a ___________ audience.
sizeable B. sized C. sizing D. resized
Câu 32: The whole report is a ___________ of lies.
sack B. load C. house D. pack 
Câu 33: Is it far to Stamford? It’s only___________ from here.
bird’s eye view B. step in the right direction C. stone’s cut D. short cut
Câu 34: The person who writes symphonies or concertos is a ___________.
playwright B. composer C. conductor D. pianist
Câu 35: The police finally arrested the ___________criminal.
notorious B. respectable C. renowned D. famous
Câu 36: Men still expect their jobs to take ___________.
superiority B. imposition C. priority D. seniority
Câu 37: From time to time he ___________himself to a weekend in a five-star hotel.
benefits B. treats C. indulges D. craves
Câu 38: Advertisers often claim their campaigns at young people as they have considerable spending
___________.
ability B. energy C. force D. power
Câu 39: The president visited the area to see the devastation___________.
at first hand B. on first hand C. by first hand D. with first hand
Câu 40: It’s me who’s at___________, so I have to pay for the damage.
responsibility B. error C. fault D. guilty
Guided Cloze (10 pts) Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space
PASSAGE A: Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space
A MOBILE IS A GIRL’S BEST FRIEND
If it fits inside a pocket, keeps you safe as well as in touch with your office, your mother and your children,
it is (41)__________ worth having. This is the (42)__________ of the dwelling ranks of female mobile-
phone users who are beginning to (43)__________ the customer market. Although Britain has been
(44)__________ to be one of the most expensive places in the world to run a mobile phone, both
professional women and (45)__________ mothers are undeterred. At first, the mobile phone was a rich man
plaything, or a businessman’s (46)__________ symbol. Now women own almost as many telephones as men
do - but for very different reasons.
The main (47) __________ for most women customers is that it provides a form of communications back-
up, wherever they are, in case of emergency. James Tanner of Tancroft Communications says: ‘The majority
of people buying phones from us this year were women - often young women - or men who were buying for
their mothers, wives and girlfriends. And it always seems to be a question of (48)__________ of mind. ‘Size
is also (49) __________ for women. They want something that will fit in a handbag,’ said Mr. Tanner, ‘The
tiny phones coming in are having a very big (50) __________. This year’s models are only half the size of
your hand.’
Câu 41: A. totally B. absolutely C. certainly D. completely
Câu 42: A. conception B. vision C. view D. vista
Câu 43: A. master B. overbear C. command D. dominate
Câu 44: A. demonstated   B. shown C. established D. seen
 36

Câu 45: A. full-time B. complete C. absolute D. total

Câu 46: A. prestige B. fame C. status D. power
Câu 47: A. attraction B. enticement C. charm D. lure
Câu 48: A. tranquility B. peace C. calmness D. serenity
Câu 49: A. necessary B. urgent C. essential D. crucial
Câu 50: A. impact B. image C. perception D. impression

PASSAGE B: Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space
Getting friends and family to pose for photos is hard enough, but how would you cope with a rabbit, an owl
or a butterfly that simply (51)__________ to keep still? Simon King, wildlife film-maker and photographer,
says you don't need any formal (52) __________ to get started. "The whole idea is that photographing
wildlife should be fun". Simon offers the following (53) __________.
Specialize from the start. You're more likely to get good result sooner if you (54) __________ on one type of
wildlife – insects for instance – (55) __________ than just going off to the woods or park with your camera
and snapping whatever you see. Pick something that isn't hard to photograph. Choosing an animal that's hard
to (56) __________ or will run away if it sees you (57) __________ unnecessary problems. How about
flowers or a group of birds?
Search second-hand camera shops and local papers for quality (58) __________. You don't need to
(59)__________ a fortune – Simon started with just a second-hand camera that cost around $30. But you
will need a single lens reflex camera. Remember it's the whole photograph that counts, nor just the subject.
(60) __________ you're composing a picture and try to be as artistic as possible.
Câu 51: A. disobeys B. refuses C. dislikes  D. avoids
Câu 52: A. education  B. exercise C. lecture  D. training 
Câu 53: A. tips  B. facts   C. warnings  D. lessons
Câu 54: A. concentrate     B. think   C. limit C. depend
Câu 55: A. better  B. rather  C. other D. more
Câu 56: A. notice   B. meet  C. spot  D. glance
Câu 57: A. starts   B. puts C. creates  D. leads
Câu 58: A. instruments   B. material  C. tools D. equipment
Câu 59: A. cost   B. make  C. spend D. lose
Câu 60: A. invent  B. guess C. think  D. imagine  
Reading Comprehension (10 pts) Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question
PASSAGE A
No educational medium better serves as a means of spatial communication than the atlas. Atlases deal with
such invaluable information as population distribution and density. One of the best, Pennycooke's World
Atlas, has been widely accepted as a standard owing to the quality of its maps and photographs, which not
only show various settlements but also portray them in a variety of scales. In fact, the very first map in the
atlas is a "cleverly" designed population cartogram that projects the size of each country if geographical size
were proportional to population. Following the proportional "layout", a sequence of smaller maps shows the
world's population density, each country's birth and death rates, population increase or decrease,
industrialization, urbanization, gross national product "in terms of" per capita income, the quality of medical
care, literacy, and language. To give readers a perspective on how their own country fits in with the global
view, additional projections depict the world's patterns in nutrition, calorie and protein consumption, health
care, number of physicians per unit of population, and life expectancy by region. Population density maps on
a sub-continental scale, as well as political maps, "convey" the diverse demographic phenomena of the world
in a broad array of scales.
Câu 61: What is the main topic of this passage?
Physical maps in an atlas    B. The ideal in the making of atlases
C. Partial maps and their uses   D. The educational benefits of atlases 
Câu 62: Which of the following sentences is TRUE about the atlas?
A country's population growth is presented clearly in the very first map in the atlas.
B. The atlas provides readers with not only each country's life expectancy by religion but also its language
and literacy.     
 37

C. The atlas isn't as good as other educational medium in term of spatial communication.    D. The atlas
deals with such worthless information as population distribution and density.
Câu 63: The word "cleverly" in the passage is closest in meaning to _______. 
intelligently      B. clearly     C. immaculately  D. accurately 
Câu 64: The phrase "in terms of" used in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. in spite of    B. for considering aspects  
C. with a view to   D. in regard to  
Câu 65: It can be inferred from the passage that maps can be used to_______.
A. give readers a new perspective in their own country   
B. pinpoint ethnic strife in each country  
C. identify a shortage of qualified labour
D. show readers photographs in a new form 
PASSAGE B
Deep brain stimulation (DBS), an experimental technology that involves implanting a pacemaker-like device
in a patient’s brain to send electrical impulses, is a hotly debated subject in the field of medicine. It is an
inherently risky procedure and the exact effects on the human brain aren’t yet fully understood.
But some practitioners believe it could be a way to alleviate the symptoms of depression or even help treat
Alzheimer’s — and now they suspect it could help with drug addiction as well. In a world’s first, according
to the Associated Press, a patient in Shanghai’s Ruijin Hospital had a DBS device implanted in his brain to
treat his addiction to methamphetamine. And the device has had an astonishingly positive effect, the patient
says. “This machine is pretty magical. He adjusts it to make you happy and you’re happy, to make you
nervous and you’re nervous,” he told the Associated Press. “It controls your happiness, anger, grief and joy.”
Other studies in China have yielded mixed results trying to treat opioid addictions using DBS, according to
the AP. In the United States, at least two studies that tried to treat alcoholism with DBS were dropped for not
being able to justify the risks. The idea of using DBS to treat drug addiction has raised concerns in medical
communities across the globe about brain hemorrhage, seizures, or personality changes.
Câu 66: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Symptoms of depression  B. Curing addiction
C. Deep brain simulation   D. Brain diseases  
Câu 67: The word “alleviate” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to__________.
     A. devalue B. demolish 
     C. destroy   D. ease 
Câu 68: According to the passage, the use of DBS __________.
A. has achieved both positive and negative results
B. has been thoroughly studied by scientists
C. has been approved by all Chinese practitioners 
D. has successfully cured opioid addictions in China 
Câu 69: All of the following are mentioned in the passage as concerns about the use of DBS to treat drug
addiction in medical communities worldwide EXCEPT __________.
A. Seizures B. Alcoholism
C. Personality changes  D. Brain hemorrhage 
Câu 70: The word “It” in paragraph 3 refers to ______ .
A. a pacemaker-like device  B. the field of medicine
C. Deep brain simulation   D. a patient’s brain  
PASSAGE C
THE IMPORTANCE OF CHILDREN'S PLAY
Brick by brick, six-year-old Alice is building a magical kingdom. Imagining fairy-tale turrets and fire-
breathing dragons, wicked witches and gallant heroes, she's creating an enchanting world. Although she isn't
aware of it, this fantasy is helping her take her first steps towards her capacity for creativity and so it will
have important repercussions in her adult life. 
Minutes later, Alice has abandoned the kingdom in favor of playing schools with her younger brother. When
she bosses him around as his 'teacher', she's practicing how to regulate her emotions through pretence. Later
on, when they tire of this and settle down with a board game, she's learning about the need to follow rules
and take turns with a partner. 
 38

'Play in all its rich variety is one of the highest achievements of the human species,' says Dr David
Whitebread from the Faculty of Education at the University of Cambridge, UK. 'It underpins how we
develop as intellectual, problem-solving adults and is crucial to our success as a highly adaptable species.
'Recognizing the importance of play is not new: over two millennia ago, the Greek philosopher Plato
extolled its virtues as a means of developing skills for adult life, and ideas about playbased learning have
been developing since the 19th century. 
But we live in changing times, and Whitebread is mindful of a worldwide decline in play, pointing out that
over half the people in the world now live in cities. 'The opportunities for free play, which I experienced
almost every day of my childhood, are becoming increasingly scarce,' he says. Outdoor play is curtailed by
perceptions of risk to do with traffic, as well as parents' increased wish to protect their children from being
the victims of crime, and by the emphasis on 'earlier is better' which is leading to greater competition in
academic learning and schools. International bodies like the United Nations and the European Union have
begun to develop policies concerned with children's right to play, and to consider implications for leisure
facilities and educational programmes. But what they often lack is the evidence to base policies on. 
'The type of play we are interested in is child-initiated, spontaneous and unpredictable- but, as soon as you
ask a five-year-old "to play", then you as the researcher have intervened,' explains Dr Sara Baker. 'And we
want to know what the long-term impact of play is. It's a real challenge.
'Dr Jenny Gibson agrees, pointing out that although some of the steps in the puzzle of how and why play is
important have been looked at, there is very little data on the impact it has on the child's later life. 
Now, thanks to the university's new Centre for Research on Play in Education, Development and Learning
(PEDAL), Whitebread, Baker, Gibson and a team of researchers hope to provide evidence on the role played
by play in how a child develops. 
'A strong possibility is that play supports the early development of children's self-control,' explains Baker.
'This is our ability to develop awareness of our own thinking processes - it influences how effectively we go
about undertaking challenging activities.' In a study carried out by Baker with toddlers and young
preschoolers, she found that children with greater self-control solved problems more quickly when exploring
an unfamiliar setup requiring scientific reasoning. 'This sort of evidence makes us think that giving children
the chance to play will make them more successful problem-solvers in the long run.' 
If playful experiences do facilitate this aspect of development, say the researchers, it could be extremely
significant for educational practices, because the ability to self-regulate has been shown to be a key predictor
of academic performance. Gibson adds: 'Playful behavior is also an important indicator of healthy social and
emotional development. In my previous research, I investigated how observing children at play can give us
important clues about their well-being and can even be useful in the diagnosis of neurodevelopmental
disorders like autism.' 
Whitebread's recent research has involved developing a play-based approach to supporting children's
writing. 'Many primary school children find writing difficult, but we showed in a previous study that a
playful stimulus was far more effective than an instructional one.' Children wrote longer and better
structured stories when they first played with dolls representing characters in the story. In the latest study,
children first created their story with Lego*, with similar results. 'Many teachers commented that they had
always previously had children saying they didn't know what to write about. With the Lego building,
however, not a single child said this through the whole year of the project.' 
Whitebread, who directs PEDAL, trained as a primary school teacher in the early 1970s, when, as he
describes, 'the teaching of young children was largely a quiet backwater, untroubled by any serious
intellectual debate or controversy.' Now, the landscape is very different, with hotly debated topics such as
school starting age. 
'Somehow the importance of play has been lost in recent decades. It's regarded as something trivial, or even
as something negative that contrasts with "work". Let's not lose sight of its benefits, and the fundamental
contributions it makes to human achievements in the arts, sciences and technology. Let's make sure children
have a rich diet of play experiences.'
Complete the notes below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage above for each answer.
Uses of children’s play
building a ‘magical kingdom’ may help develop creativity
board games involve (71) __________ and turn-taking
 39

Recent change affecting children’s play

population of (72) __________ have grown
fear of (73) __________
fear of crime
increased (74) __________ in schools
International policies on children’s play
it is difficult to find evidence to support new policies
research needs to study the impact of play on the rest of the child’s (75) __________

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage above?.
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts with the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
Câu 76: Children with good self-control are known to be likely to do well at school later on.
Câu 77: The way the child plays may provide information about possible medical problems.
Câu 78: Playing with dolls was found to benefit girls’ writing more than with boys’ writing.
Câu 79: Children had problems thinking up ideas when they first created the story with Lego.
Câu 80: People nowadays regard children’s play as less significant than they did in the past.
WRITTEN TEST (70 pts)
Cloze test (20 pts)
PASSAGE A Fill in each blank with one word to make a complete passage
CONSERVATION PLANNING
Planners everywhere rely (81) __________ models; conservation planning is no exception. It is also no easy
task – especially (82) __________ planning for conservation on large landscapes. Just making a list (83)
__________ the ingredients one might want to include in a model can be exhausting. (84) __________ a
start, one will almost certainly need to model the population dynamics, perhaps even the meta-population
dynamics, of one (85) __________ more species. Their habitat preferences will be important, so they (86)
__________ must be modeled, and this (87) __________ turn creates a need for vegetation and landscape
modeling. Events may (88) __________ an important role in the landscape dynamics, so the model might
need (89) __________ include flood, drought, wildfire, harvesting, high winds and hurricanes. The model
will likely be used by multiple stakeholders with conflicting objectives, (90) __________ their concerns
must be addressed.
PASSAGE B Fill in each blank with one word to make a complete passage
THE WONDROUS WORLD OF COFFEE
A cup of coffee, like any (91) __________ experience, can be enriched by selection and consciousness. "No
beans about it," the best coffee decisions (92) __________ the ones most pleasant to one's own palate - the
selection of one's coffee is a matter of personal preference. Choosing coffee beans can also be a perplexing
experience, (93) __________ there is a huge range of coffee types and beans blends from all around the
world. The final flavor and quality (94) __________ many complex factors, beginning with the coffee seed,
the beans' botanics, a wide variety of soil and climate conditions, cultivation altitudes, and the
care (95)_________ in harvesting the beans. Raw green coffee beans are then subjected (96)_________
many influencing factors, including various processing, production, roasting, blending and brewing methods.
On a global note, (97) __________ many species and varieties of coffee trees from different areas of the
world also offer their own distinctive flavors. There are more than forty-five coffee-exporting countries - all
of (98)__________ use different classification systems - that supply the world with coffee beans, in sizes
ranging over sixty known species of coffee plants. No wonder coffee can involve a puzzling java jargon!
Fortunately, the world's coffee nomenclature, from mountain to market, can be classified (99)__________
simple categories. This briefly outlines the basics of bean botanics, coffee cultivation and processing, and
global classifications used (100) __________ the coffee trade and coffee-producing countries.
Word formation (20 pts)
Part 1: Complete each of the following sentences by changing the form of the word in capitals.
Câu 101: Amongst__________ and commentators, Frankenstein has long been acknowledged as a powerful
piece gothic fiction. ACADEMY
 40

Câu 102: The results of the medical tests showed that the patient had several __________ of the brain that
required urgent treatment. NORMAL 
Câu 103: He is engrossed in doing __________ research. SCIENTISTS
Câu 104: You should make a list of all the jobs you have to do and ___________them. PRIOR
Câu 105: When a currency ___________ , it is worthless internationally.VALUE
Câu 106: They won the case because of the __________ in course of the defendant.APPEAR
Câu 107: I wasn’t paying attention and ___________ I threw the receipt in the dustbin.THINK
Câu 108: The road is said to be____________ due to flood. PASS
Câu 109: She is so ___________ that she won’t let anything stand in her way of her ambition. MIND
Câu 110: We __________ go to the pub before lunch on Sunday. VARY
Part 2: Use the word given in the box below to form a word that fits in each space.
Ask any adult over forty to make a (111)__________ between the past and present and most will tell you
that things have been getting steadily worse for as long as they can remember. Take the weather for example.
Everyone remembers that in their (112)__________ the summers are considerably hotter, and that winter
always included (113)__________ fall of snow just when the school holidays had started. Of course, the
food in those days was far superior too, as nothing was imported and everything was fresh.
(114)__________ was negligible, the money in your pocket really was worth something, and you could buy
a (115)__________ house even if your means were limited. And above all, people were somehow nicer in
those days, and spent their free time on innocent (116)__________ making model boats and tending their
stamp (117)__________ rather than gazing at the television screen for hours on end. As we know, this figure
of the past simply cannot be true, and there are plenty of statistics dealing with heath and (118)__________ 
which prove that it is not true. So, why is it that we all have a (119)__________   to idealize the past and to
be so (120)__________ of the presents?
Error correction (10 pts)  
There are ten mistakes in this passage. Find and correct them.
Instead of giving endless advice, learn to listen more. Listening is an underestimating skill, and it is easy to
forget when you are worrying about other people problems. How many times do we say, “Oh yeah, that
happen to me and …” before we give the other person a chance to explain what happened to him. Sometimes
a friend may just want to talk something about with someone else to sort things out in his own mind – so
listen hardly to what he is saying, and try to offer advices only when you think he is asking for it.
We often feel we have been let down by a friend at some points in our life. Perhaps they let out a
secret we trusted them to keep under wraps, or sudden sided with the opposition during an argument.
Nobody is perfect, so try to have realistic expectation. Friendships don’t develop over night; they deepen
over time as you begin to trust one other. Don’t place unrealistic demands on your friendship.
Sentence Transformation (20 pts)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the
sentence printed before it.
Câu 131: The last time there was such an environmental catastrophe as a thousand years ago.=>Not______.
Câu 132: We found it easy to do the test.=>We had______________.
Câu 133: All that stood between John and the gold medal was Jim’s greater speed.=>But_____.
Câu 134: The film was so interesting that I had seen it many times.=>It was_______.
Câu 135: His efforts to find a solution didn’t deserve such savage criticism.=>He shouldn’t______.
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. DO NOT change the word given.
Câu 136: You should observe the task carefully before you decide. WEATHER
You should _______________________________________________________.
Câu 137: People always hold fate responsible for whatever’s going wrong in their life.
UNTOWARD
People always pin_______________________________________________ happens.
Câu 138: Whatever difficulties Anna had, she still attended university. SHINE
Anna______________________________________________________.
Câu 139: It seems to me that my parents cope calmly with everything I do. STRIDE
I’m under__________________________________________________.
 41

Câu 140: When Mary starts talking, no one else can say anything because she is speaking too much.
EDGEWAYS
When Mary starts talking, no one else can get________________________________.

ĐỀ 10
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 PTS)
I. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (5 pts) 
Choose the best option to complete the following sentences
1.  Not until darkness fell ___________ that he hadn’t done half of his work .
A. that he realised B. that he didn’t realise C. did he realise D. didn’t he realise
2. The news of the unprecedented virus_______ Corona has been reiterated for over a month and seems to
be relentless. 
A. called B. calling C. which calls D. is called 
3. I regret going to bed so late last night.
A. I wish I hadn’t gone to bed early last night.         B. I wish I hadn’t gone to bed so late last night.
C. I wish I didn’t go to bed so late last night.           D. I wish I went to bed early last night.
4. ___________ , the results couldn’t be better.
A. No matter what he tried hard B. No matter how hard he tried
C. Although very hard he tried D. Despite how hard he tried 
5. Due to ever more spreading poaching, there_____________________a dramatic decline in the number of
elephants over the last decade.
A. was B. is C. has been D. had been
6. I’d rather you _____________________to the English-speaking club with me this Sunday.
A. will come B. came C. come D. to come
7. Had he come earlier, he __________her.
A. wouldn't have met B. will have met C. would have met D. would meet
8. Mrs. Kim is planning to attend the regional seminar, ________ it is not absolutely necessary that she be
there.
A. because B. whether C. so that D. although
9. The boss says he wants to see your report________.
A. as soon as it has been finished B. after you finished it
C. when you will finish it D. until it has been finished
10. With the rapid development of artificial intelligent nowadays in the future, human beings can soon have
all their household chores.
A. done B. to be done C. did D. to do
II. PHRASAL VERBS AND PREPOSITIONS (5 pts) 
Choose the best option to complete the following sentences
11. They hope to _______ a cure for the disease.
A. fill up with B. go along with C. come up with D. catch up on
12. I’ve just taken …………………sailing, and I’m going to do a special course next month.
A. to B. up C. after D. over
13. Good parents don't put their children ______, they give them constructive criticism which helps them to
become better people.
A. forward B. down C. off D. up
14. There weren't enough computers for everyone in the class to have one, so they had to ______ each other.
A. divide into B. join in C. add to D.share with
15. You’d better ___________ animal fat if you want to lower your cholesterol level.
A. cut down with B. cut off with C. cut out on D. cut down on
16. I would like to apply  ______  the position of sales clerk that you advised in the Sunday newspaper.
A. for                           B. to                          C. with                           D. in
17. As Joe's roommate, I find him a fairly nice fellow, even if at times it is not easy to _________ his noisy
behavior.  
A. put up with B. look up to C. get on with D.catch up with 
 42

18. The lottery winner was willing to spend a considerable sum of money to ______ to charity to help those
in need.
A. give away B. take off C. bring about D. come across  
19. The company management decided to _______ more workers to meet the production schedule.
A. take on B. take over C. make up D. make out
20. The professor complimented a grade 1 pupil ______  his good achievement.
A. about   B. on C. for D. due to
III. VOCABULARY (10 pts) 
Choose the best option to complete the following sentences
21. Passengers are advised to take all their personal _______ with them when they leave the plane.
A. baggage B. estates C. items D. belongings
22. Consumers often ___________ from the increasing competition among supermarkets, which try to
attract customers by lowering their prices
A. profit B. benefit C. interest D. suffer
23. ___________ involves the insertion of extremely thin needles through your skin at strategic point on
your body to treat pain.
A. Herb B. Traditional therapy C. Acupuncture D.Massage therapy
24. The quality of the young artist’s paintings are beginning to gain _________ throughout the world.
A. knowledge B. understanding C. recognition D. familiarity
25. Julian Snoe has been a war_________for many years and covered a number of conflicts.
A. news-agent B. publisher C. editor D. correspondent
26. When the two teams ran onto the football_________, the crowd cheered.
A. pitch B. stadium C. arena D. court
27. We should responsible for the ____ humans are doing to the environment.
A. destroy B. destructive C. destruction    D. destructibility
28. Some whales migrate into warm waters to bear their....................
A. young B. diets C.calves D. young whales 
29. Parents should be very careful with their baby’s _________ skin.
A. delicate B. pretty C. sweat D. fine
30. The increasing of deforestation in these recent years has _______ many species to the verge of
extinction.
A. taken B. driven C. developed D. guided
31. Mr. Park Hang Seo, a Korean coach, is considered a big _____in Vietnam football. 
A. sandwich  B. bread  C. egg   D. cheese 
32. I'm sorry I snapped at you like that, but I'm in a bad ________.
A. mind B. mood C. mentality D. manner
33. Although many people use the word "milk" to _____ to cows' milk, it also applies to milk from any
animal, including human milk and goat's milk.
A. refer B. mention C. address D. prefer
34. The idea to _________ a visit to the local council residence was welcomed by all the visitors.
A. pay B. do C. go D. walk
35. I love the painting of an ald man. He has such a beautiful……………smile.
A. childhood B. childish C. childless D. childlike
36. John will never buy you a drink – he’s far too _______.
A. tight-fisted B. pigheaded C. highly-strung D.easy-going
37. Littering doesn’t only make a place look ugly, it also puts public health at risk and can ___ wildlife.
A. endangered B. dangerous C. danger D.endanger
38.Many different kinds of food sold today have _______ flavouring added to them.
A. fake B. artificial C. wrong D. false
39. During our holiday, we were so lucky to stay in a room with a good ______ of the sea.
A. view B. look C. sight D. vision
40. She spent her free time _______ the crossword puzzles in the newspapers.
A. filing B. making C. doing D.answering
IV. GUIDED CLOZE (10 PTS) 
 43

Read the text below and decide which answer best fits
Cloze test 1: 
Nowadays, teenagers have (41) _________ more money and expensive possessions than their parents ever
did. Articles like radios and bicycles, which cost a fortune (42) _________ decades ago, are now mass-
produced and cheap. And items that nobody even dreamed of possessing twenty years ago, such as mobile
phones and computers, are now in common places. Teenagers are definitely better off financially. (43)
_________, life is not easy for them. There is much more to worry about than there was in the past. Jobs are
not as secure (44) _________ they used to be and teenagers can no (45) _________ be confident that the
world will always be peaceful and free of pollution. 
Teenagers drive their parents crazy (46) _________ many ways. Some of them spray their hair with amazing
color, while others wear clothes that shock their parents. They all want (47) _________ own stereos, mobile
phones and televisions. But these young people are not really behaving differently from how their parents
behaved when they were young. Many of today's parents and grandparents will laugh when they (48)
_________ crazy fashions they wore. Those adults, who are parents now, fought with their own parents
about clothes and lifestyles. (49) _________ teenagers have fought with their parents (50) _________ time
began and no doubt they will always…. 
41. A. by  far B. great C. much D. lot 
42. A. little B. a little C. few D. a few 
43. A. Despite B. In spite C. However D. Even though 
44. A. like B. as C. but D. when 
45. A. more B. farther C. sooner D. longer 
46. A. in B. on C. at D. by 
47. A. an B. his C. ones D. their 
48. A. remind B. think C. review D. remember 
49. A. As well B. In fact C. At last D. At once 
50. A. since B. from C. when D. as 
Cloze test 2: 
Clean freshwater resources are essential for drinking, bathing, cooking, irrigation, industry, and for plant and
animal (51)_______. Unfortunately, the global supply of freshwater is (52)_______ unevenly. Chronic water
shortages (53)_______ in most of Africa and drought is common over much of the globe. The (54)_______
of most freshwater supplies - groundwater (water located below the soil surface), reservoirs, and rivers - are
under severe and (55)_______ environmental stress because of overuse, water pollution, and ecosystem
degradation. Over 95 percent of urban sewage in (56)_______ countries is (57)_______ untreated into
surface waters such as rivers and harbors.  About 65 percent of the global freshwater supply is used in
(58)_______ and 25 percent is used in industry. Freshwater (59)_______ therefore requires a reduction in
wasteful practices like (60)_______. irrigation, reforms in agriculture and industry, and strict pollution
controls worldwide. 
51:  A. survive B. survived C. surviving D. survival 
52:  A. delivered B. distributed C. provided D. given 
53:  A. exist B. lie             C. show D. stay 
54:  A. resources B. springs C. sources D. starting 
55:  A. increasing B. growing C. climbing D. ascending 
56:  A. growing B. miserable C. poverty D. developing 
57:  A. recharged B. discharged C. charged D. discharging 
58:  A. farming B. planting C. agriculture D. growing 
59:  A. reservation B. conservation C. preservation D. retention 
60:  A. ineffective B. illogical C. irrational D. inefficient 
V. Reading Comprehension (10 pts) Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question
PASSAGE A
Instructors at American colleges and universities use many different teaching methods. Some instructors
give assignments every day. They grade homework. Students in their classes have to take many quizzes, a
midterm exam, and a final test. Other instructors give only writing assignments. Some teachers always
follow a course outline and usually use the textbooks. Others send students to the library for assignments.
 44

The atmosphere in some classrooms is very formal. Students call their instructors “Professor Smith”, “Mrs.
Jones”, and so on. Some teachers wear business clothes and give lectures. Other classrooms have an
informal atmosphere. Students and teachers discuss their ideas. Instructors dress informally, and students
call them by their first names. American teachers are not alike in their teaching styles.
At most American colleges and universities, facilities for learning and recreation are available to students.
Students can often use recorders, video machines, and computers at libraries and learning centres. They can
buy books, notebooks, and other things at campus stores. They can get advice on their problems from
counsellors and individual help with their classes from tutors. Students can relax and have fun on campus,
too. Some schools have swimming pools and tennis courts. Most have snack bars or cafeterias.
(Source. Adapted from http://www.ukedu.org) 
61.  What is the main idea of the first paragraph? 
A. Ways of teaching B. Ways of giving assignments 
C. Ways of using the textbook D. Ways of taking an exam 
62.  What does the phrase “business clothes” in paragraph 2 mean? 
A. trendy clothes B. casual clothes 
C. formal clothes D. clothes for business people 
63.  Where do students and teachers discuss their idea? 
A. At learning centers B. In classrooms with formal atmosphere 
C. In classrooms with informal atmosphere D. At libraries 
64.  What can’t students do at most American colleges and universities? 
A. They can’t buy anything at campus stores. 
B.They can’t use the computers that are linked to libraries. 
C.They can’t ask their counselors and tutors for advice. 
D.They can’t have tutors and counselors solved their problems. 
65.  Which of the following statements is NOT true about schools in America? 
A. They offer sports and leisure facilities for students. 
B. They have no recreation facilities.
C. They are well-equipped. 
D. They have stores on campus. 
PASSAGE B
Passage 1. Read the following passage and choose the best option to complete the blank or answer the
question. 
May 7, 1840, was the birthday of one of the most famous Russian composers of the nineteenth
century Peter Illich Tchaikovsky. The son of a mining inspector, Tchaikovsky studied music as a child and
later studied composition at the St. Petersburg Conservatory. His greatest period of productivity occurred
between 1876 and 1890, during which time he enjoyed the patronage of Madame von Meck, a woman he
never met, who gave him a living stipend of about $1,000.00 a year. Madame von Meck later terminated
her friendship with Tchaikovsky, as well as his living allowance, when she, herself, was facing financial
difficulties. It was during the time of Madame von Meck's patronage, however, that Tchaikovsky created the
music for which he is most famous, including the music for the ballets of Swan Lake and The Sleeping
Beauty. 
Tchaikovsky's music, well known for its rich melodic and sometimes melancholy passages, was one of the
first that brought serious dramatic music to dance. Before this, little attention had been given to the music
behind the dance. Tchaikovsky died on November 6, 1893, ostensibly of cholera, though there are now
some scholars who argue that he committed suicide.
66. With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?
A. development of Tchaikovsky's music for ballets
B. Tchaikovsky's relationship with Madame Von Meck
C. the life and music of Tchaikovsky
D. the cause of Tchaikovsky's death
67. The phrase "enjoyed the patronage of" probably means _________
A. solicited the advice of B. was financially dependent upon
C. liked the company of D. was mentally attached to
68.  According to the passage, all of the following describe Madame von Meck EXCEPT ______.
 45

A. She was generous. B. She enjoyed Tchaikovsky's music.

C. She was never introduced to Tchaikovsky. D. She had economic troubles.
69. According to the passage, for what is Tchaikovsky's music most well known?
A. the ballet-like quality of the musicB. its lively, capricious melodies
C. the richness and melodic drama of the music D. its repetitive and monotonous tones
70. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Tchaikovsky's unhappiness leading to suicide B. the patronage of Madame von Meck
C. Tchaikovsky's influence on ballet music D. Tchaikovsky's productivity in composing
PASSAGE C

For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape.
They provide a place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often-harsh
environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental
benefits. 
One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide-a key pollutant-and emit oxygen, which humans
need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of carbon dioxide that
a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler.  Scientists have long noted what
is called the Urban Heat Island Effect:  building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb much
more of the sun’s heat and release it much more quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because
city landscapes contain so much of these building materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural
areas.  Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect. 
Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being used for
buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment.  However, cities could
benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green
space:  rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings
have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years.  Some rooftop gardens are very complex and
require complicated engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the
investment of a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work.  
Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but without
taking up the much-needed land.  Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air with
nourishing oxygen.  They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money.  In
the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can significantly
reduce cooling bills.  In the winter, gardens help holds in the heat that materials like brick and concrete
radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating bills.  Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide
fresh food for city dwellers, saving them money and making their diets healthier.  Rooftop gardens are not
only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment. 
71. Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the following word
groups? 
A.  exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B.  obliterate, destroy, annihilate 
C.  allay, alleviate, reduce D.  absorb, intake, consume 
72. Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that .................................. 
A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens 
B.  some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens 
C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens 
D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city 
73. According to the passage, the Urban Heat Island Effect is caused by the fact(s) that ............... 
a.  cities are warmer than nearby rural areas 
b.  building materials absorb more of the sun's heat than organic surfaces 
c. building materials release the sun's heat more quickly than organic surfaces 
A.  a.  only  B. a. and b. only  C.  b. and c. only  D. a, b c.
74. Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main difference
between parks and rooftop gardens? 
A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not. 
B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private. 
 46

C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not. 

D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not. 
75. The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except ..................
A.  increased space for private relaxation 
B.  savings on heating and cooling costs 
C. better food for city dwellers 
D.  improved air quality 
76. According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they .........
A.  decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect    
B.  replenish the air with nourishing oxygen 
C. do not require the use of valuable urban land  
D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces 
77. The author's tone in the passage is best described as .................................. 
A.  descriptive B. passionate C.  informative D. argumentative 
78. Which of the following pieces of information would, if true, most weaken the author's claim that rooftop
gardens are good for the environment?
A Parks have many benefits that rooftop gardens do not share. 
B. More pollution is produced during rooftop garden construction than rooftop plants can remove
from the air. 
C. Extremely high winds atop tall city buildings can severely damage some plants. 
D. The overall environmental benefits that result from driving less exceed those of planting a rooftop
garden. 
79. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage? 
A. A hypothesis is stated and then analyzed. 
B. A proposal is evaluated, and alternatives are explored. 
C. A viewpoint is established and then defended. 
D. A thesis is presented and then supported. 
80. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program that ....
A.  permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop gardens 
B.  extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens 
C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city park.
D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the peak of
summer
B. WRITTEN TEST (70 PTS)
I. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE WORD for each
Cloze test 1 (10 pts)
THE THREAT TO THE ENVIRONMENT
Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in (81) ______. Many species of animals
are threatened, and could easily become (82) ______ if we do not make an (83) ______ to protect them.
There are many reasons for this. In some cases, animals are hunted for their fur or for other valuable (84)
______ of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are caught (85) ______ and sold as pets. For many
animals and birds, the problem is that their habitat-the place (86) _______ they live-is disappearing. More
(87) ______ is used for farms, for houses or industry, and there are fewer open spaces (88) ______ there
once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them grow better crops but these chemicals (89) _____
the environment and harm wildlife. The most successful animals on earth - human beings- will soon be the
only ones (90) ______ unless we can solve this problem.
Cloze test 2 (10 pts)
For the last (91) ______ months I have spent every Saturday in my flat and have done nothing (92) _______
exciting than work at home, read the newspapers and (93) _______ television. I had begun feeling, bored
with this and so, last weekend I thought I would do something different. I rang up several of my (94)
_______  and we decided to go to London for the day. I was really excited as I hadn't been to London (95)
_____ I was ten. We decided to go by coach as this was by far the cheapest means of (96) ______ that was
available even though it meant that we needed to get up very early. Once in London we decided to take a
sightseeing tour as we wanted to see some of the (97) ______ buildings. After the tour we bought some
 47

sandwiches and ate (98) ______in a small park. In the afternoon two of us went shopping and the others
went to the theater. We met up again at 6:30 p.m. and went to a small restaurant in Soho. The (99) ______
was really good but, unfortunately, it took much longer than we had expected. We had to get a taxi back to
the coach station. Luckily, we got ( 100 ) _____ just two minutes before our coach left.
II. Word formation (20 pts)
Part 1: Supply the correct form of the words in the CAPITAL LETTER  (10pts)
101. ________ has caused many so-called man-made disasters. (FOREST)
102. It is forbidden to hunt for that kind of bird. It has been listed as one of the______species. (DANGER).
103. My uncle, who is an ___________ guitarist, taught me how to play. (ACCOMPLISH).
104. A lot of plants and animals could be used as medicines against cancer, AIDS, heart diseases and other
____________ (SICK).
105. We take____________in being students of one of the most famous schools in this city. (PROUD)
106. Although some societies are _____________ undeveloped, their languages are quite complex. (
TECHNOLOGY)
107. Mother Teresa was said to be one of the most _____________ personalities of the twentieth century
(INFLUENCE).
108. Without color dyes people would find a lot of processed food rather ______________ (APPETITE) 
109. Studies have shown that __________________ for invention mostly comes from natural world 
(INSPIRE).
110. _________ education, maintaining skills and educating others are important aspects in building safer
systems. (CONTINUE).
PART 2: Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the line to formaword that fits in the gap
in the same line.
Fears of Future Global Hunger

SHORT    SUSTAIN                       NUTRIENT                URBAN                 PROSPEROUS

FAIL                   APPLY                      MODIFY                                        RESIST
A recent report has warned of global food(111) _______ unless the current system of farming and food
distribution is changed. The  report highlights fears that currently rapid increases in yields come at  the
expense of (112) ________, and that unless action is taken, hunger and (113)_________ will become
growing problems. The population is expected to rise to around 8.3 billion in the next  twenty years, and
(114)________ is set to continue, and it is expected that 65-70% of the world’s population will live in cities. 
Increasing world (115) ________ will lead to the rise in demand for energy, food and fresh water. The report
also considers the billion people worldwide who (116) ________ and are therefore obese to be another
example of the (117)________of the current system to provide health and well- being to the world’s
population. The authors believe that the (118) ________ of new technologies can play a role in minimising
future food shortages. They see cloning, nanotechnology and genetic (119) ________ as potential solutions.
However, although many of these technologies have been adopted worldwide, there is still (120)_________
to their use in parts of Europe.

III. ERROR CORRECTION (20 PTS)

Find and correct 10 errors that the following passage contains. Underline the error and write the
correction in the space provided. (0) is an example.
  An endangered species is a population of an organism who is at risk of 0/ which
becoming extinct because it is both few in numbers, or threatened by changed 121/…………………..
environmental or predation parameters. An endangered species is usually a 122/……………………
taxonomic species, though may be another evolutionary significant unit. 123/……………………
The World Conservation Union (IUCN) was calculated the percentage of 124/……………………
endangered species as 40 percent of all organisms based at the sample of species 125/…………………….
that have been evaluating through 2006. Many nations have laws offering 126/…………………….
protection to this species: for example, forbidding hunting, restricting land 127/……………………
development or creating preserves. Only a little of the many species at risk of 128/…………………..
extinction actually make it to the lists and obtain legally protection. Much more 129/…………………….
species become extinct, or potentially will become extinct, without gaining 130/……………………..
 48

public note.
IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION(20PTS)
Finish the second sentence without changing the meaning by using the words given at the beginning
131. He was so enthusiastic that he apparently ignored any warning signs.=>Such
132. It is a difficult question. I’m trying to puzzle it out. Nobody has answered it yet.
🡪 The difficult question that...................................................................................................
133. Alice and Charles did not decide to move to a bigger house until after the birth of their second child.
→ Only when ...................................................................................................
134. My brother prefers driving to being driven. → My brother would rather................
135. Tony is very charming, but I wouldn’t trust him. →  Charming as ............................
Rewrite the sentences in such a way that the second sentence has the same meaning as the first one, using
the given words.
136. I find driving on the left in England very strange. (ACCUSTOMED)=>I _________________
137. Natalie didn't listen carefully enough to the spoken instructions. (ATTENTION)=>Natalie didn't ____
138. Their form teacher was about to leave the party when they came. (POINT)
🡪 Their form teacher was ___________________ party when they came.
139. I She likes to travel abroad. (KEEN)=>She ______________________
140. 136. It’s been months since I last spoke with Paul.  ( CONTACT )=> I haven’t _____ months

ĐỀ 11
MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 PTS)
Grammar and Structures (5 pts) 
Choose the best option to complete the following sentences
 1. He prefers to attend Economics University rather than…..
A. going to Polythetic          B. to be accepted to Polythetic
C. studying Polythetic         D. to attend Polythetic
 2. It could have been a lot worse ….. there.
A. when he had not been     B. had he not been
C. for he had not been        D. whether or not have been
 3. ….. cassfified as a carnivore, the North America Grizzly bears eat berries and even grass.
A. Just as         B. Because of      C. Although     D. Either
 4. They sat and talked …… into the night.
A. deeply      B. in a deep way      C. deepeningly     D. deep
 5. For the first few months, the babies looked so alike I couldn’t tell ……
A. who is whom                   B. which is which
C. which is from                   D. whom with whom
 6. As soon as John …..., we can leave.
A. has the car starting         B. has got the car started
C. got started the car           D. was got starting the car
 7. It pays …… some professional advice before you make a decision.
A. get          B. getting        C. to getting       D. to get
 8. It turned out that we …… rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours
A. hadn’t     B. should have     C. mustn’t     D. needn’t have
 9. ……, dolphins have no sense of smell
A. As known far as              B. As far as I know
C. It is known as far              D. Known as far as it is
10. …………………., go to the bank before five o’clock.
A. Should you need more money B. You should need more money
C. you need more money D. do you need more money.
Phrasal verbs and Prepositions (5 pts) 
Choose the best option to complete the following sentences
1.We had a terrible row a few years ago and we still haven’t made it ……
A. out                  B. up       C. for           D. of
 2. The computer has …… a long way over the last thirty years.
 49

A. taken B. come        C. broken        D. up

 3. She play …… the fact that I’d enjoyed studying Shakespeare at school and suggest that I audition for a
part.
A. off         B. over        C. by         D. up
 4. The end of semester marks each year all court …… your final degree.
A. for          B. towards      C. in for       D. along
 5. She rounded …… the tour with a concert at Carnegie hall.
A. up          B. into        C. off         D. along
 6. He muttered a word of apology and …… that he left.
A. with         B. in          C. at       D. before
 7. The Americans …… of the 1980 Moscow Olympics after the invasion off Afghanistan.
A. stood out     B. drew out       C. made off      D. pull out
 8. My husband loves …… old cars and then working on them for months until they look like new.
A. taking into                       B. stripping down
C. throwing down                 D. trading in
 9. The two brothers fight continually, mainly …… jealousy.
A. out from               B. in view of C. with a view to           D. out of
 10. Many habitats change …… the types of plants and animals that live there.
A. with respect to            B. in respect for
C. as for                             D. as against
Vocabulary (10 pts) 
Choose the best option to complete the following sentences.
For people, with being difficulties, telephones with volume control provide the best ……
A. reply         B. response         C. solution        D. result
 2. His answer is so confusing that I could hardly make any …. of it at all.
A. interpretation          B. meaning C. intelligibility            D. sense
 3. If she can make up such stories, she is certainly a very …. girl.
A. imaginable                 B. imaginative
C. imaginary                   D. imagining
 4. During the first World War, an …… 5 million people lost their lives.
A. assumed                    B. estimated
C. envisage                    D. approximated
 5. The sporting …… of the young are focused on the achievements of their heroes.
A. expectations             B. inspirations
C. aspirations              D. intentions
 6. Many schools set a lot of ….. by the success of their students in examinations.
A. prize            B. honor         C. value        D. store
 7. The middle class take their right to public money for sport facilities for ……..
A. granted      B. given        C. awarded        D. pleasure
 8. I think I understand the nut and …… of the operation.
A. screws          B. hammer          C. bolts        D. nail
 9. It was a hot summer day and ice cream salesmen were doing a …… trade.
A. busy              B. luctative        C. bustling       D. roaring
 10. She …… a name for herself in politics by running for mayor.
A. gave        B. made       C. did         D wrote
 11. My mother is a real …… potato. She watches TV all the time.
A. cough        B. sofa        C. armchair      D. cushion
12. The school was closed for a month because of serious  _________  of fever.
A. outcome B. outburst C. outset D. outbreak
13. The campaign raised far more than the _________ of $20,000.
A. aim B. object  C. goal D. target
14. We have a _________ future ahead with little comfort, food or hope.
A. cruel B. pessimistic C. grim D. fierce
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15. Only thoroughly unpleasant people leave the _________ of their picnics to spoil the appearance of
the countryside.  
A. rest B. remainder  C. remains D. rester
16. An almost _________ line of traffic was moving at a snail's pace through the town.
A. continuous B. constant C. continual D. stopping
17. Medieval travelers’ tales of fantastic creatures were often fascinating but not always _________ 
A. credible B. creditable C. credulous D. imaginable
18. My friends have just moved to a new flat in a residential area on the _________ of Paris.
A. suburbs B. outside C. outskirts D. side
19. You are being thoroughly _________ in refusing to allow this ceremony to take place.
A. unrequited B. unrepresentative C. unreliable D. unreasonable
20. “But so”, I told him, “You are my own _________ ”
A. heart and heart B. body and soul C. flesh and blood D. skin and bone
Guided Cloze (10 pts) Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space
Passage A: 
RAISING AWARENESS
In cities around the world a wide (0)…… of schemes is being instigated to promote environmental
awareness. It’s just as easy to (1)…… of litter properly as it is to drop it on the streets; says city councilor
Mike Edwards, who was (2)…… on the government to mount a concerted campaign to deal with the
problem of litter. ‘It just a matter of encouraging people to do so as a (3)…… of course. Once the habit is
ingrained, they won’t even (4)…… they are doing it. After all, think what we have achieved with recyclable
waste I the home. Sorting paper, glass, aluminium and plastics waste and then depositing it in the
appropriate container outside is (5)……. a great choice anymore. People have become accustomed to doing
this, so it doesn’t (6)…… to them that they are spending any additional time in the process. Only if they
have to carry this waste for some appreciable distance to find a suitable containers do they feel they are (7)
……’.
Most people know they should behave in a responsible way and just need (8)…… to do so. So a quirky, (9)
…… gimmick might be enough to change behaviour. With this in(10)….. , the city of Berlin is introducing
rubbish bins that say ‘danke’, ‘thank you’ and ‘merci’ – Berlin is a(n) cosmopolitan city – when someone
drops an item of rubbish into them. It might just do the trick in this city, too.
    1 A dispose       B discard       C jettison       D throw
    2 A appealing    B called       C approached     D urged
    3 A principle    B system      C matter        D duty
    4 A notice     B remark       C comprehend     D appreciate
    5 A almost       B barely        C virtually         D hardly
    6 A concern      B occur       C impress           D strike
    7 A inconvenienced B sacrificed C complicated D imposed
    8 A ordering       B prompting     C forcing    D obliging
    9 A lighthearted    B mundane     C subjective     D intense
    10 A context     B thought       C spirit      D mind
Passage B: 
A QUESTION OF SAFETY
Life involves a certain amount of risk, or at least it did. These days, however, governments seem to have
become (1)………….with the idea of protecting us from it. As a result, what we actually risk most is not
being allowed to live at all.
(2)………, take a resent edict which emerged from the British government’s health and safety department. It
would be amusing if it wasn’t so serious.  Circus artistes performing on tightropes or the flying trapeze are
being (3)…………to wear the type of hard hats more usually (4)…………with the construction industry.
Under a relatively new law (5)………as the \temporary work at heights directive’, such a hat must be worn
for any working activity taking (6)…………above the height of an ‘average stepladder’. Now you might
think that sounds (7)………….reasonable, but the absurd thing is that the rule is being (8)………to circus
performers as well.
The first to be hit by this rule were baffled members of the Moscow State Circus, who were touring England
at the time. Used to flying through the air without even the (9) ……of safety net, they pointed out that
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trapeze artistes often break arms and legs, but (10)……….heads. This simple fact was apparently lost on the
bureaucrats at the government department, however, who, insisted that the rule be followed.
1. A. prone B. obsessed C. addicted D. devoted
2. A. in other words B. Such as C. What’s more D. For example
3. A. proposed B. challenged C. required D. demanded
4. A. regarded B. associated C. recognized D. concerned
5. A. referred B. called C. entitled D. known
6. A. place B. forth C. part D. ahead
7. A. fairly B. duly C. widely D. closely
8. A. presided B. enforced C. directed D. applied
9. A. profit B. benefit C. remedy D. welfare
10. A. barely B. merely C. rarely D. unusually
Reading Comprehension (10 pts) Read the texts below and choose the best answer to each question.
Passage A: 
THE LAND UNDER THE SEA
Ten thousand years ago, as the last ice age drew to a close, sea levels around the world were far lower than
they are today. Much of the land under the North Sea and the English Channel was part of a huge region of
forests and grassy plains, where herds of horses and reindeer roamed free and people lived in villages by the
lakes and rivers. Then the climate gradually became warmer (a phenomenon certainly not confined to our
own age!) and the water trapped in glaciers and ice caps was released. This ancient land was submerged in
the resulting deluge and all that remains to tell us that it was once lush and verdant- and inhabited- is the
occasional stone tool, harpoon or mammoth tusk brought up from the sea bed by fishing boats.
Now the development of advanced sonar technology, known as bathymetry, is making it possible to study
this flooded landscape in extraordinary detail. A special echo sounder is fixed to the bottom of a survey
vessel, and it makes wide sweep across the sea bed. While previous devices have only been ale to produce
two- dimensional images, bathymetry makes use of computers, satellite positioning devices and special
software to create accurate and remarkably detailed maps. For the first time an ancient river bed leaps out of
the three- dimensional image, complete with rocky ledges rising up from the bottom of the valley. The sites
of pre- historic settlements can now be pinpointed, and it is also possible to see in stunning detail the sunken
shipwrecks that litter in this part of the sea bed.
According to archaeologist Dr Linda Andrews, this technological development is of huge significance. ‘We
now have the ability to map the sea bed of the Channel and the North Sea as accurately as we can map dry
land’, she says. She is, however, scathing about the scale of government funding for such projects. ‘We have
better images of Mars and Venus than of two- thirds of our own planet! In view of the fact that Britain is a
maritime nation, and the sea has such a massive influence on us, it’s an absolute scandal that we know so
little about the area just off our shores!’
Once bathymetric techniques have identified sites where people might have built their homes and villages,
such as sheltered bays, cliffs with caves and the shores of freshwater lakes, divers could be sent down to
investigate further. Robot submarines could also be used, and researchers hope they will find stone tool and
wood from houses (which survives for longer in water than on dry land) as proof of human activity.  The
idea of Britain as a natural island kingdom will be challenge by these findings: Britain has been inhabited for
about 500,000 years, and for much of this time it has been linked on and off to continental Europe. It
remains to be seen how far this new awareness is taken on board among our ‘island’ people.
In fact, the use of bathymetry scanners will not be limited to the study of lost landscapes and ancient
settlements. It will also be vital in finding shipwrecks. Records show that there about 44,000 shipwrecks off
the shores of Britain, but there is good reason to believe that the real figure is much higher. In addition,
commercial applications are a real possibility. Aggregates for the construction industry are becoming
increasingly expensive, and bathymetry scanners could be used to identify suitable sites for quarrying this
material. However, mapping the sea bed will also identify places where rare plants and shellfish have their
homes. Government legislation may prevent digging at such sites, either to extract material for a profit or to
make the water deeper: there are plans to dredge parts of the English Channel to provide deeper waterways
for massive container ships.
1. We are told that the area now under the sea
A. was not previously thought to have been populated.
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B. was created by the last Ice Age.

C. has yielded some archaeological artifacts.
D. was flooded, drowning the inhabitants.
2. How does the new sonar technology work?
A. It has an echo sounder at the bottom of the sea.
B. It produces two- dimensional images of the sea floor.
C. It makes use of various devices.
D. It uses computers to locate pre- historic sites.
3. What is the most important aspect of the new scanning technique?
A. It can pinpoint the location of shipwrecks under the sea.
B. It is able to follow the course of ancient rivers.
C. It can measure the depth of the sea bed with accuracy.
D. It reveal important details of underwater topography.
4. How does Dr Andrews feel about the lack of accurate maps of the waters around Britain?
A. outraged
B. resigned
C. astonished
D. amused
5. The writer suggests that a better understanding of the settlements on the sea bed may
A. inspire more young people to take up archaeology.
B. modify the attitudes of the British to their country’s history.
C. provide confirmation about the dangers of global warming.
D. after the perception other countries have about Britain. 
Passage B: 
FACING THE MUSIC
Declan Mayes, president of the Music Buyers Association, is furious at a recent announcement by the
recording industry MP3 music files from the Internet. Of course, there are files that can be downloaded
legally for a small change, but the uproar is not about this: it is about illegal downloads, which constitute an
undoubted infringement of copyright. However, there is a great deal of controversy over whether the people
who indulge in this activity should be regarded as actual criminals.
A few parallels may be instructive. If someone copies an audio music cassette for their own private use, they
are, strictly speaking, breaking the law. But recording companies have usually turned a blind eye to this
practice because prosecuting the few people involved would be difficult, and the final loss to the company
itself is not considered significant. At the other end of the scale, there are criminals who make illegal copies
of CDs and sell them to a profit. This is far more serious, and the industry actively pursues and prosecutes
pirates. Now the Music Recording Association has announced that it regards individuals downloading music
from the Internet as pirates, claiming that they damage the industry in just the same way. ‘The industry is
completely over-reacting; it’ll be a laughing stock’, says Mayes. ‘They’re going to arrest some teenagers
downloading files in his bedroom – and sue him for thousands of dollars! This isn’t going to frighten anyone
into buying CDs’.
Mayes may have a point. There is a general consensus that CD pirates should be subjected to the full red of
the law, but few would see an individual downloading music for his or her pleasure in the same light,
however, downloading music files  illegally is not as innocuous as making private copies of audio cassettes.
The scratchy, distorted cassette copy is a poor version of the original recording, whereas an MP3 file if of
high quality and can be stored – on a CD, for example. It is this that makes the practice a powerful
temptation for music fans, given the high cost of CDs.
What does Mayes think about claims that music companies could be forced out of business by people
downloading music illegally? ‘That’s nonsense. Music companies are always whinning about high cost, but
that doesn’t prevent them from recording hundreds of CDs but  completely unknown artists, many of whom
are ’packaged’ by marketing departments to appeal to young consumers. The companies are simply hoping
that one of these new bands or singers will be a hit, and although it can be expensive to promote new artists,
the cost of manufacturing the CDs is actually very low’.
This last point would appear to be the focus of resentment against music companies: a CD is far cheaper to
produce than its price in the shop would indicate, and profit margins for the music companies are huge. An
 53

adult with a reasonable income may not object to pay 15 pounds for a CD of classical music, but a teenager
buying a CD by the latest pop sensation may find that price rather steep - especially since the latest pop
sensation is almost certain to be forgotten within a few months. And while the recording industry can’t be
held responsible for the evanescent nature of fame, given the teenage appetite for anything novel, it could
lower the prices it charges - especially since technology is making CDs even cheaper to produce.
This is what Mayes hopes will happen. ‘If the music industry stops exploiting the music-buying public, it
can survive. Everyone would rather buy a CD, with an attractive jacket and booklet, than mess around
downloading files, but the price has to be reasonable. The problem isn’t going to vanish if the industry
carries on trying to make a quick profit. Technology has caught up with the music companies, and trying to
fight it by taking people to court will only earn money for the lawyers.’ A frightening thought.
1. If someone downloads MP3 music files illegally, the Music Recording Association will now
A. turn a blind eye.
B. be indulgent towards them.
C. take them to court.
D. charge them a fee.
2. Mayes thinks that the recording industry’s recent announcement 
A. fails to take into account the difficulties of prosecuting offenders.
B. makes the industry appear ludicrous.
C. will deter consumers from buying CDs.
D. will encourage resentment of CD piracy.
3. According to the article, it is commonly accepted that 
A. producing pirate CDs in order to make money is a serious offence.
B. downloading MP3 files is more serious than making audio cassettes.
C. the Music Recording Association should ignore infringement.
D. the laws regarding illegal music recordings should be ashamed.
4. Why does the writer feel that MP3s are unlike copies of audio cassettes?
A. Downloaded MP3 files are generally not for private use.
B. The financial losses to the music industry are greater.
C. The price of MP3s is greater than the price of audio cassettes.
D. There is a significant difference in quality.
5. Mayes implies that music companies
A. could cut cost by making cheaper CDs.
B. should not promote artists who are unknown.
C. are speculating when they promote new artists.
D. should use different manufacturing processes.
Passage C: 
THE HISTORY OF EARLY CINEMA
The history of the cinema in its first thirty years is one of major and, to this day, unparalleled expansion and
growth. Beginning as something unusual in a handful of big cities – New York, London, Paris and Berlin –
the new medium quickly found its way across the world, attracting larger and larger audiences wherever it
was shown and replacing other forms of entertainment as it did so. As audiences grew, so did the places
where films were shown, fishing up with the ‘great picture palaces’ of the 1920s, which rivaled, and
occasionally superseded, theatres and opera-houses in terms of opulence and splendour. Meanwhile, films
themselves developed from being short ‘attractions’ only a couple of minutes long, to the fulllength feature
that has dominated the world’s screens up to the present day. Although French, German, American and
British pioneers have all been credited with the invention of cinema, the British and Germans played a
relatively small road in its worldwide exploitation. It was above all the French, followed closed by the
Americans, who were the most passionate exporters of the new invention, helping to start cinema in China,
Japan, Latin America and Russia. In terms of artistic development it was again the French and the
Americans who took the lead, though in the years before the First World War, Italy, Denmark and Russia
also played a part.
In the end, it was the United States that was to become, and remain, the largest single market for films. By
protecting their own market and pursuing a vigorous export policy, the Americans achieved a dominant
position on the world market by the start of the First World War. The centre of film-making had moved
 54

westwards, to Hollywood studios that flooded onto the world’s film markets in the years after the First
World War, and have done so ever since. Faced with total Hollywood domination, few film industries prove
competitive. The Italian industry, which had pioneered the feature film with spectacular films like Quo
vadis? (1913) and Caribria (1914), almost collapsed. In Scandinavia, the Swedish cinema had a brief of
glory, notably with powerful epic films and comedies. Even the French cinema found itself in a difficult
position. In Europe, only German proved industrially capable, while in the new Soviet Union and in Japan
the development of the cinema took place in conditions of commercial isolation.
Hollywood took the lead artistically as well as industrially. Hollywood films appealed because they had
better-constructed narratives, their special effects were more impressive, and the star system added a new
dimension to screen acting. If Hollywood did not have enough of its resources, it had a great deal of money
to buy uy artists and technical innovations from Europe to ensure its continued dominance over present or
future competition.
The rest of the world survived partly by learning from Hollywood and partly because audiences continued to
exist for a product which corresponded to needs which Hollywood could not supply. As well as popular
audiences, there were also increasing audiences for films which were artistically more adventurous or which
dealt with the issues in the outer world.
None of this would have happened without technology, and cinema is in fact unique as an art form. In the
early years, this art form was quite primitive, similar to the original French idea of using a lantern and slides
back in the seventeenth century. Early cinema programs were a mixture of items, combining comic sketches,
free-standing narratives, serial episodes and the occasional trick or animated film. With the arrival of the
featurelength narrative as the main attraction, other types of films became less important. The making of
cartoons became a separate brand of film-making, generally practiced outside the major studios, and the
same was true of serials. Together with newsreels, they tended to be shown as short items in a program
which lead to the feature.
From early cinema, it was only Americans slapstick comedy the unsuccessfully developed in both short and
feature format, however, during this ‘Silent Film’ era, animation, comedy, serials and dramatic features
continued to thrive, along with factual films or documentaries, which acquired an increasing distinctiveness
as the period progressed. It was also at this time that the avant-garde film first achieved commercial success,
this time thanks almost exclusively to the French and the occasional German film.
Of the countries which developed and maintained distinctive national cinemas in the silent period, the most
important were France, Germany and the Soviet Union. Of these, the French displayed the most continuity,
in spite of the war and post-war economic uncertainties. The German cinema, relatively insignificant in the
pre-war years, exploded to the world scene after 1919. Yet even they were both overshadowed by the
Soviets after the 1917 Revolution. They turn their back on the past, leaving the style of the pre-war Russian
cinema to the émigrés who fled westwards to escape the Revolution.
The other countries whose cinemas changed dramatically are: Britain, which hah an interesting but
undistinguished history in the silent period: Italy, which had a brief moment of international fame just before
the war: the Scandinavian countries, particularly Denmark, which played a role in the development of silent
cinema quite out of proportion to their small population: and Japan, where a cinema developed based
primarily on traditional theatrical and, to a lesser extent, other art forms and only gradually adapted to
western influence.
Questions 1-3
Choose THREE letters A-F. Write your answers in boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet.
Which THREE possible reasons for American dominance of the film industry are given in the text?
A plenty of capital to purchase what it didn’t have
B making films dealing with serious issues
C being first to produce a feature film
D well-written narratives
E the effect of the First World War
F excellent special effects
Questions 4-10
Look at the following statements (Questions 4-10) and the list of the countries below.
Match each statement with the correct country. Write the correct letters A - J in boxes 4-10 in your answer
sheet.
 55

4 It helped other countries develop their own film industry.

5 It was the biggest producers of films.
6 It was the first to develop the ‘feature’ film.
7 It was responsible for creating stars.
8 It made the most money from ‘avant-garde’ films.
9 It made movies based on more on its own culture than outside influences.
10 It had a great influence on silent movies, despite its size.
                              List of countries
A  Frnace B  Germany C  USA D  Denmark E  Sweden F  Japan G  Soviet Union

H Italy I Britain J China 

WRITTEN TEST (70 PTS)
Cloze test (20 pts)
Passage A: 
A COMPUTER BAG WITH STYLE
It came as something as a surprise in the fashion industry when Julien MacDonald, the well-known dress
designer, teamed (1)……….with the company Intel to produce a computer bag.  MacDonald made (2)
………….name creating the type of dresses the major celebrities like to be seen wearing at high-profile
events such as film premieres and awards ceremonies.
The computer bag, however, was not designed with such occasions (3)……………..mind. rather, it was
created for the modern woman (4)…………..relies on technology but hopes to look more chic than geek.
MacDonald first got inspiration for the bag (5)……………he caught sight of female friends and colleagues
in fashion shows, furiously typing away on their laptops. He couldn’t (6)………noticing, however, that the
rather unstylish carrying cases needed to transport the machines tended to get push (7)………of sight under
their chair. It was as (8)………the women were somehow ashamed of them. MacDonald (9)…..out to
change all that. The challenge facing the designer was (10)…………to combine a ‘must-have’ handbag from
the stylistic point of view, with the functionality required to protect expensive computer equipment.
Passage B: 
A HISTORY OF TABLE TENNIS
Like many other sports, table tennis started out as a mild social diversion, it is actually a descendent, (1)
……. with lawn tennis and badminton, of the ancient game of tennis. It was popular in England in the
second half of the nineteenth century under its present name and various trade name (2)…………….as
Whiff-Whaff and Ping-Pong that sought to imitate the sound (3)………….by the ball striking the table. The
game soon became something of a craze and there are many contemporary references to it and illustrations
of it being played, usually in domestic surroundings.
(4)……….the early twentieth century, the sport had already acquired some of its present-day complexities,
although it was still seen by many as an after-dinner amusement (5)………..than a sport. An account
published in 1903 found it necessary to warn players (6)………………the wearing of evening dress, but
went on to give detailed technical advice about the pen-holder grip and tactics.
Over the next 60 years, table tennis developed (7)……………a worldwide sport, played by up to 300
million competitive players and by countless millions (8)….. .. played less seriously. (9)………..getting
faster, more subtle and more demanding all the time, the game has not changed in its essence (10)……….the
earliest days.
Word formation (20 pts)
Part 1: Supply the correct form of the words in CAPITAL LETTER.
1.It’s undeniable that the...of the local incompetent healer was responsible for her sudden death.
(DIAGNOSE)
2. A few jokes can………up a lecture. (LIFE)
3. He is…………late for meetings. He is always on time. (VARY)
4. Nothing wrong will happen to you as long as you follow the strict………set by the inspector. (GUIDE)
5. I’m thinking of giving Anna and Mathew a………vase for her silver wedding. (CRYSTAL)
6. A renewable resource is one that may be replaced overtime by natural process or is………..(EXHAUST)
7. It is said that the rapid climate change has been caused by too drastic………………(FOREST)
8. The mother of the child hurried………….to her neighborhood drugstore. (BREATH)
 56

9. The workers who were …………during the recession badly needed help from the government. (SIZE)
10. His performance in the match today……….his reputation as a great player. (LIE)
Part 2: Read the passage and supply the correct form of the words in CAPITAL LETTER.
CUSTOMER REVIEWS
The publication in paperback of Mathew Quick’s debut novel represented something of a
milestone. The promotional material that (1)……….the launch featured glowing, five- 1.COMPANY
star reviews such as ‘charming and well-written, (2)………….the best book I’ve ever 2. ARGUE
read this year’. Nothing do unusual in that, you might think. Except that these notices 3.
came not from the pens of (3)………..critics on national newspapers, but from actual PROFESSION
readers who had bought the book on the Internet, and enjoyed it enough to post a positive
review on the site. Presumably, no (4)……….incentive or other consideration colored the 4. FINANCE
view of these readers, whose opinions appear in an (5)……….form as can be seen from 5. EDIT
the various spelling and grammatical mistakes they often contain. It could be argued, of 6. ANALYSE
course, that the (6)………of an informed literacy critic may well be more (7)………than 7. RELY
the thoughts of one casual reader. But along with the actual words penned by the amateur 8. FEED
reviewers, the site records the star rating awarded to each title by all readers providing (8) 9. ADJUST
……… . the book receives a cumulative star rating based on the average number of stars 10.
awarded, and constant (9)………….are made as further reviews come in. the more RECOMMEND
people like the book, the higher the star rating. Maybe that kind of (10)………speaks for
itself.
Error correction (10 pts)
The following passage contains 10 errors. Identify and correct them.
ON TO EVEREST
Line   After four years of backbreaking training and also preparation. The Singapore Mt Everest
1 Expedition Team is ready to mount the summit of the world high peak in the next few weeks. In
1953, the Sir John Hunt expedition has put two climbers on the summit. On this expedition, they
mounted the summit in the South Col route. This Singapore team will attempt to retrace the same
route as they begin their ascent. The idea to climb Everest was first bring up in 1900.
The Singapore Mountaineering Federation, being established in 1993 and the permit for a climb was
finally given in May 1994. The Singapore Everest team, comprises eight climbers and a support
team, left for Katmandu in early march: a relative young team with the average age of members being
about 30 years old and whose members come from all walk of life. The journey will be gruel and
members are fully aware of that they may not succeed, or worse, survive. Our hopes and prayers will
follow them.
Sentence Transformation (20 pts)
Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before.
1. Dave had to cut in pay to keep losing his job.
Dave’s salary__________________________________________________________       
2. The students’ rebellious behaviors should have been severely punished.
The students deserved___________________________________________________     
3. It’s almost nine months since I stop subscribing to that magazine.
I cancelled____________________________________________________________    
4. Only an unforeseen problem can stop the scheme now.
Nothing_______________________________________________________________    
5. It doesn’t matter which chemical you put into the mixture first. The result will be the same.
It makes ______________________________________________________________    
Rewrite the following sentences using the given words. The given words must not be altered in any way.
1. You can’t possibly expect me to pay for the tickets. (QUESTION)
There ______________________________________________________________    
2. He’s so garrulous that we are not able to say anything. (WORD)
_____________________________________________________________________    
3. Have you decided to enter the poster competition? (GO)
_____________________________________________________________________    
4. Tony’s habit of taking risk doesn’t fit in his image as a family man. (COMTATIBLE)
 57

_____________________________________________________________________    
5. The authorities had decided they would get tough with dissidents. (CRACKDOWN)
_____________________________________________________________________    
                           - THE END - 

ĐỀ 12

A. MULTIPLE CHOICE. (40 PTS) 

I. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (5 PTS) 
1. Arrows would continue to fly forward forever in a straight line……. which brings them down to
earth.
A. were it not for gravity B. without gravity C. but for gravity D. for no gravity
 2.    I got a letter from University College to say that owning to the financial situation they……………. the
scholarships at the end of the year instead of at the beginning.
A. can have paid B. would have paid
C. must have paid D. were going to pay
3. When Susan was told the whole story, she …………………….in the film.
A. ceased interest B. ceased to interest
C. ceased being interested D. ceased interested.
4.  I’ve yet ………………………………….……a person as Theo.
A. to meet as infuriating B. to have met such infuriating
C. been meeting as infuriating D. been meeting such infuriating
5.  Up……………………………, and the people cheered.
A. went the balloon B. did the balloon go C. had the balloon go D. has the balloon go
6. The leaves of the white mulberry provide food for silkworms,…………silk fabrics are woven.
A. whose cocoons B. whose cocoons are from
C. from cocoons D. from whose cocoons
7. ………. snow that covers ………. top of ……………. mountain is………beautiful sight.
A. The-the-the-the B. θ-the-a-a C. The-the-the-a D. θ- θ-a-the
8. ……………………………….as a masterpiece, a work of art must transcend.
A. Ranking B. To be ranked
C. Being ranked D. In order to be ranking.
9. I’m rather …………. for time now………………. we talk about it tomorrow?
A. pressing/ couldn’t B. pressing/ wouldn’t
C. pressed/ couldn’t D. pressed/ wouldn’t
10. ……………………global solidarity, the world would not be better prepared for the influenza H1N1
pandemic.
A. On account of B. Thanks to C. If not D. But for
II. PHRASAL VERBS AND PREPOSITIONS. (5 PTS) 
1. No matter how I often explain it, he doesn’t seem to……………………….
A. put it through B. take it in C. take it on D. put it in
2. You can not ……………….……………. violence by using violence.
A. break away B. do away with C. keep away D. pass away.
3. You shouldn’t ………………. other people’s problems, even if you don’t consider them to be very
serious.
A. shed light upon B. come to light C. make light of D. see the light
4. Police …………………………… the area until the bomb was made safe.
A. cordoned off B. headed off C. stopped off D. knocked off
5. The Russians treat him suspiciously, so he ……………. the Russian fortress to return to the
mountain.
A. gets away with B. breaks out of C. cracks down on D. holds out for
6. She should have been here but she’s………………………………. flu.
A. come through with B. come down with
C. come in for D. come up against
 58

7. As they’re identical twins, it’s difficult to………………………………….

A. mix them up B. take them apart C. tell the apart D. set them up
8. You will have to comply……………………these rules or you’ll lose your job.
A. to B. about C. for D. with
9. Unfortunately, I might have to leave for Boston……………………….
A. for short notice B. under short notice C. at short notice D. to short notice
10. All building work must be carried out……………………………safety regulations.
A. on behalf of B. with obedience to
C. in compliance with D. with reference to
III. Vocabulary (10 PTS)
Choose the best options to complete the following sentences. 
1. There is absolutely no……. for the ridiculous amount of money, the government spent on this
campaign.
A. convention B. justificationC. constraint D. procedure
2. The Red Cross is ……………….an international aid organization.
A. intriguinglyB. intrusively C. intrinsicallyD. intrepidly
3.   I don’t need any medicine. I’m as right as…………………………………….
A. clouds B. a ray C. rain D. a haze
4.   I couldn’t tolerate my mother’s incessant nagging.
A. endless B. bothersome C. annoying D. repetitive
5.   You must forgive my …………………in these matters.
A. experience B. inexperience C. unexperience D. imexperience
6. Marie ……………. a face when I told her we were Hving cabbage for dinner.
A. pulled B. dragged C. gave D. fixed
7. It was a …………………. of luck that June was available when the job came up.
A. blow B. stroke C. brush D. touch
8. I didn’t want to make a decision……………………., so I said I’d like to think about it.
A. on and off B. in one go
C. there and then D. at a stroke
9. The children gazed at the magician……………………as he performed his tricks.
A. open-eyed B. lit-eyed C. hawked-eyed D. wide-eyed
10. He knew that the beautiful sports car he was looking at must have cost a………. penny.
A. pretty B. big C. bent D. shiny
11. If you have stomach problems, it is best to avoid …………..food.
A. wealthy B. affluent C. rich D. lavish
12. The word “friendship” can be …………………applied to a wide variety of relationship. 
A. loosely B. slightly C. lightly D. sparingly
13. Parental influence tends to ……….as children get older.
A. reduce B. subside C. decline D. sink
14. Many countries have………….compulsory military service.
A. aborted B. absconded C. abolished D.abstracted
15. The north-west of Scotland is ……………and there are a lot of lakes.
A. country B. woody C. hills D. mountainous
16. My car was so old that I could only sell it for …………… .
A. rubbish B. debris C. scrap D. waste
17. I tried to ……….my disappointment at losing by cheering the winner loudly.
A. mask B. hide C. shield D. veil
18. Would you like to………….the house that is for sale this afternoon?
A. view B. regard C. observe D. overlook
19. Larry never spoke to anyone, and kept himself …………….. .
A. outside B. withdrawn C. superior D. aloof
20. It may be raining, but I’m …………………..enjoying myself.
A. highly B. thoroughly C. extremely D. absolutely
IV. GUIDED CLOZE 1 (10 pts) Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space
 59

 Passage A (5 PTS) 
Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space. 
MEDIA AND ADVERTISING
After more than fifty years of television, it might seem only obvious to conclude that it is here to (1) ______.
There have been many objections to it during this time, of course, and (2) ______ a variety of grounds. Did
it cause eye-strain? Was the (3) ______ bombarding us with radioactivity? Did the advertisements contain
subliminal messages, persuading us to buy more? Did children turn to violence through watching it, either
because so (4) ______ programs taught them how to shoot, rob, and kill, or because they had to do
something to counteract the hours they had spent glued to the tiny screen? Or did it simply create a vast
passive (5) ______ drugged by glamorous serials and inane situation (6) ______? On the other hand, did it
increase anxiety by sensationalizing the news [or the news which was (7) ______ by suitable pictures] and
filling our living rooms with war, famine and political unrest? (8) ______ in all, television proved to be the
all-purpose scapegoat for the second half of the century, blamed for everything, but above all, eagerly
watched. For no (9) ______ how much we despised it, feared it, were bored by it, or felt that it took us away
from the old paradise of family conversation and hobbies such as collecting stamps, we never turned it off.
We kept staring at the screen, aware that our own tiny (10) ______ was in if we looked carefully.
1. A. be B. stay C. exist D. prolong
2. A. with B. over C. by D. on
3. A. screen B. danger C. machine D. reason
4. A. that B. far C. many D. what
5. A. program B. personality C. audience D. tense
6. A. comedies B. programs C. perhaps D. consequently
7. A. taken B. presented C. capable D. accompanied
8. A. Taken B. All C. Somewhat D. Thus
9. A. one B. matter C. difference D. reason
10. A. fault B. reflection C. situation D. consciousness
Passage B (5 PTS) 
Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space. 
YOU MUST REMEMBER THIS……
 Sometimes you might feel that if you had a perfect memory, all your problems with learning would be
solved. You would be able to (1) ………………. through exams without much revision. You would never
again (2) …………………. the embarrassment of forgetting someone’s name but imagine, for a moment,
not forgetting anything- not even last year’s shopping lists you would be (3) …………. with information.
With hard work you can recall the parts of a verb or the layout of a town as you need them, so that you can
learn a foreign language or (4) …………………. a taxi driver’s license. But the memory (5) ………. called
for by some professions are only one of the roles memory plays in our lives. Memory covers a wide range of
actions and needs. What we (6) ………………about the brain is far from complete, so philosophers and
scientists find it difficult to be (7) ………………about the nature of memory. Remembering and forgetting
can be understood in many different ways but broadly, three distinct classes of memory have been
established: personal, cognitive and habit memory.
Personal memories are those acts of remembering which (8) ………………. specifically, to each person’s
life history. If you say, “I remember the first time I travelled by train”, you will probably have an image in
your mind of the occasion and be able to describe things in it. Cognitive memory helps us learn, for
example, stories, a speech, or a piece of music. Habit memory (9) ……………… those abilities needed to
perform actions such as typing or driving. All these actions must be learned but once they have been, you
will rarely remember anything (10) ………………as you perform them.
1. A. sail B. walk C. run D. float
2. A. encounter B. face C. realise D. accept
3. A. overweight B. stuffed C. burdened D. overloaded
4. A. win B. gain C. earn D. award
5. A. concepts B. choices C. feats D. methods
6. A. study B. learn C. discover D. know
7. A. precise B. explanatory C. correct D. aware
8. A. connect B. appear C. have D. refer
 60

9. A. means B. covers C. enables D. directs

10. A. totally B. hardly C. knowingly D. consciously.
V. READING COMPREHENSION ( 10 PTS)
Passage A: 
Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question. 
Sharks have gained an unfair reputation for being fierce predators of large sea animals. Humanity’s
unfounded fear and hatred of these ancient creatures is leading to a worldwide slaughter that may result in
the extinction of many coastal shark species.  The shark is the victim of a warped attitude of wildlife
protection; we strive only to protect the beautiful, non-
5 threatening parts of our environment. And, in our efforts to restore only non-threatening parts 
of our earth, we ignore other important parts.
A perfect illustration of this attitude is the contrasting attitude toward another large sea animal, the dolphin.
During the 1980s, environmentalists in the United States protested the use of driftnets for tuna fishing in the
Pacific Ocean since these nets also caught dolphins.  The 
10 environmentalists generated enough political and economic pressure to prevent tuna 
companies from buying tuna that had been caught in driftnets.  In contrast to this effort on behalf of the
dolphins, these same environmentalists have done very little to help save the Pacific Ocean sharks whose
population has decreased nearly to the point of extinction. Sharks are among the oldest creatures on earth,
having survived in the seas for more than 350 million  
15 years.  They are extremely efficient animals, feeding on wounded or dying animals, thus performing
an important role in nature of weeding out the weaker animals in a species.  Just the fact that species such as
the Great White Shark have managed to live in the oceans for so many millions of years is enough proof of
their efficiency and adaptability to changing environments. It is time for us humans, who may not survive
another 1,000 years at the rate we 
20 are damaging the planet, to cast away our fears and begin considering the protection of sharks as an
important part of a program for protection of all our natural environment.
1. With which of the following topics is this passage primarily concerned? 
A. Sharks are efficient creatures with bad reputations. 
B. Sharks are some of the oldest creatures on earth. 
C. Sharks illustrate a problem in wildlife protection. 
D. The campaign to save dolphins was not extended to save sharks. 
2. Which of the following is most similar to the meaning of the word "warped" in line 4? 
A. distorted  B. wasteful  C. extravagant  D. wanton 
3. In the second paragraph, the word "generated" could be best replaced by ………………………
A. consumed  B. absorbed  C. designated  D. produced 
4. How did environmentalists manage to protect dolphins? 
A. They prevented fishermen from selling them for meat. 
B. They pressured fishermen into protecting dolphins by law. 
C. They brought political pressure against tuna companies. 
D. They created sanctuaries where dolphin fishing was not allowed. 
5. About how long have sharks lived on the planet? 
A. 25 million years  B. 150 million years  C. 350 million years  D. 500 million years
Passage B: 
Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question. 
For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape.
They provide a place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often-harsh
environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental
benefits. 
One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide-a key pollutant-and emit oxygen, which humans
need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of carbon dioxide that
a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler.  Scientists have long noted what
is called the Urban Heat Island Effect:  building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb much
more of the sun’s heat and release it much more quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because
 61

city landscapes contain so much of these building materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural
areas.  Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect. 
Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being used for
buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment.  However, cities could
benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green
space:  rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings
have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years.  Some rooftop gardens are very complex and
require complicated engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the
investment of a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work.  
Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but without
taking up the much-needed land.  Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air with
nourishing oxygen.  They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money.  In
the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can significantly
reduce cooling bills.  In the winter, gardens help holds in the heat that materials like brick and concrete
radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating bills.  Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide
fresh food for city dwellers, saving them money and making their diets healthier.  Rooftop gardens are not
only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment. 
1. Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the following
word groups? 
A.  exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B.  obliterate, destroy, annihilate 
C.  allay, alleviate, reduce D.  absorb, intake, consume 
2. Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that .................................. 
A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens 
B.  some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens 
C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens 
D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city 
3. According to the passage, the Urban Heat Island Effect is caused by the fact(s) that ............... 
a.  cities are warmer than nearby rural areas 
b.  building materials absorb more of the sun's heat than organic surfaces 
c. building materials release the sun's heat more quickly than organic surfaces 
A.  a.  only  B. a. and b. only  C.  b. and c. only  D. a, b c.
4. Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main difference
between parks and rooftop gardens? 
A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not. 
B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private. 
C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not. 
D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not. 
5. The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except ..................
A.  increased space for private relaxation 
B.  savings on heating and cooling costs 
C. better food for city dwellers 
D.  improved air quality 
Passage C: 
The Truth about the Environment
For many environmentalists, the world seems to be getting worse. They have developed a hit-list of our main
fears: that natural resources are running out; that the population is ever growing, leaving less and less to eat;
that species are becoming extinct in vast numbers, and that the planet's air and water are becoming ever more
polluted.
But a quick look at the facts shows a different picture. First, energy and other natural resources have become
more abundant,. not less so, .since the book 'The limits to Growth' was published in 1972 by a group of
scientists. Second, more food is now produced per head of the world's population than at any time in history.
Fewer people are starving. Third, although species are. indeed becoming extinct, only about 0.7% of them
are expelled to disappear in the next SO years, not 25-50%, as has so often been predicted. And finally, most
forms of environmental pollution either appear to have been exaggerated, or are transient - associated with
 62

the early phases of industrialisation and therefore best cured not by restricting economic growth, but by
accelerating it. One form of pollution - the release of greenhouse gases that causes global warming - does
appear to be a phenomenon that is going to extend well into our future, but its total impact is unlikely to pose
a devastating problem. A bigger problem may well turn out to be an inappropriate response to it.
Yet opinion polls suggest that many people nurture the belief that environmental standards are declining and
four factors seem to cause this disjunction between perception and reality.
One is the lopsidedness built into scientific research. Scientific funding goes mainly to areas with many
problems. That may be wise policy but it will also create an impression that many more potential problems
exist than is the case.
Secondly, environmental groups need to be noticed by the mass media. They also need to keep the money
rolling in. Understandably, perhaps, they sometimes overstate their arguments. In 1997, for example, the
World Wide Fund for Nature issued a press release entitled: 'Two thirds of the world's forests lost forever'.
The truth turns out to be nearer 20%.
Though these groups are run overwhelmingly by selfless folk, they nevertheless share many of the
characteristics of other lobby groups. That would matter less if people applied the same degree of scepticism
to environmental lobbying as they do to lobby groups in other fields. A trade organisation arguing for, say,
weaker pollution control is instantly seen as self-interested. Yet a green organisation opposing such a
weakening is seen as altruistic, even if an impartial view of the controls in question might suggest they are
doing more harm than good.
A third source of confusion is the attitude of the media. People are dearly more curious about bad news than
good. Newspapers and broadcasters are there to provide what the public wants: That, however, can lead to
significant distortions of perception. An example was America's encounter with EI Nino in 1997 and 1998.
This climatic phenomenon was accused of wrecking. tourism, causing allergies, melting the ski-slopes, and
causing 22 deaths. However, according to an article in the Bulletin of the American Meteorological Society,
the damage it did was estimated at US$4 billion but the benefits amounted to some US$19 billion. These
came from higher winter temperatures (which saved an estimated 850 lives, reduced heating costs and
diminished spring floods caused by meltwaters).
The fourth factor is poor individual. perception. People worry that the endless rise in the amount of stuff
everyone throws away will cause the world to run out of places to dispose of waste. Yet, even if America's
trash output continues to rise as it has done in the past, and even if the American population doubles by
2100, all the rubbish America produces through the entire 21st century will still take up only one-12,000th of
the area v of the entire United States.
So what of global warming? As we know, carbon dioxide emissions are causing the planet to warm. The best
estimates are that the temperatures will rise by 2-3°C in this century, causing considerable problems, at a
total cost of US$5,000 billion.
Despite the intuition that something drastic needs to be done about such a costly problem, economic analyses
dearly show it will be far more expensive to cut carbon dioxide emissions radically than to pay the costs of
adaptation to the increased temperatures. A model by one of the main authors of the United Nations Climate
Change Panel shows how an expected temperature increase of 2.1 degrees in 2100 would only be diminished
to an increase of 1.9 degrees. Or to put it another way, the temperature increase that the planet would have
experienced in 2094 would be postponed to 2100.
So this does not prevent global warming, but merely buys the world six years. Yet the cost of reducing
carbon dioxide emissions, for the United States alone, will be higher than the cost of solving the world's
single, most pressing health problem: providing universal access to clean drinking water and sanitation. Such
measures would avoid 2 million deaths every year, and prevent half a billion people from becoming
seriously ill.
It is crucial that we look at the facts if we want to make the best f: possible decisions for the future. It may be
costly to be overly optimistic - but more costly still to be too pessimistic.
Questions 1-6
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the writer's claims
NO if the statement contradicts the writer's claims
NOT GIVEN if there is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
 63

1. Environmentalists take a pessimistic view of the world for a number of reasons.  

2. Data on the Earth's natural resources has only been collected since 1972.  
3. The number of starving people in the world has increased in recent years.  
4. Extinct species are being replaced by new species.  
5. Some pollution problems have been correctly linked to industrialisation.  
6. It would be best to attempt to slow down economic growth. 
Questions 7-10
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write your answers in boxes 33-37 on your answer sheet.
7. What aspect oh scientific research does the writer express concern about in paragraph 4?
A A the need to produce results
B the lack of financial support
C the selection of areas to research
D the desire to solve every research problem
8. The writer quotes from the Worldwide Fund for Nature to illustrate how
A influential the mass media can be
B effective environmental groups can be.
C the mass media can help groups raise funds.
D environmental groups can exaggerate their claims.
9. What is the writer's main point about lobby groups in paragraph 6?
A Some are more active than others.
B Some are better organised than others.
C Some receive more criticism than others.
D Some support more important issues than others
10. The writer suggests that newspapers print items that are intended to
A educate readers.
B meet their readers' expectations.
C encourage feedback from readers
D mislead readers.
B. WRITTEN TEST (70 PTS) 
I. CLOZE TEST (20 PTS)
Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE WORD for each
space. 
Passage A. (10 PTS) 
Is Photography Dead?
For a long time in the past photography was not regarded as an art. It was simply a skill and it was criticized
for being too mechanical and not creative enough. At last, however, photography is now accepted as a
unique and very important (1)____________ of art.
The photograph's claim to be an objective record of reality is now seriously challenged, and the
important function of photography in modern-day society is consequently (2)____________ threat. The
threat has suddenly become all the more serious as more and more photographers are (3)____________ to
the new technology which computers offer. Moreover, a(n) (4)____________ number of colleges have now
begun to offer (5)____________ in computer imaging. All these developments (6)____________ a
disturbing question. Is photography, as we know (7)____________ dead?
In spite of its complete transformation by new technological developments, however, photography
will continue to play a (8)____________ role in our culture. Although it may no longer (9)____________ to
be realistic, modern photography can continue to provide us with fresh visual (10)____________ about
ourselves and the world in which we live.
Passage B. (10 PTS) 
The pleasure of learning tp play a musical instrument
As an activity, learning to play an instrument is something that can give a lot of pleasure. It's also an
achievement and a skill (1)_____________ stays with you for life. Music has a part to play in everyone's
life, and has been described (2)_____________ a 'primary language'.
 64

Learning to play an instrument isn't easy at the beginning (3)_____________ takes effort and
determination. And while there's nothing wrong with aiming for the top, music is definitely
(4)_____________  something to take up because you think you ought (5)_____________ do it.
A lot of adults regret not (6)_____________  learnt to play an instrument when they were younger.
But it is never (7)_____________ late to learn! And the advantages of learning an instrument are far greater
than just the pleasure of producing a marvellous sound. When you've progressed far (8)_____________ ,
there are lots of amateur groups which you can join (9)_____________ you want to be part of a larger group.
Once you've reached a good enough standard to join a band or orchestra, you add the team skills like
those you get from playing sport. There's also a great social side to playing with others, as
(10)_____________ as the chance to travel through touring.
B. WRITTEN TEST (70 PTS) 
I. CLOZE TEST (20 PTS)
Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE WORD for each
space. 
Passage A. (10 PTS) 
Is Photography Dead?
For a long time in the past photography was not regarded as an art. It was simply a skill and it was criticized
for being too mechanical and not creative enough. At last, however, photography is now accepted as a
unique and very important (1)____________ of art.
The photograph's claim to be an objective record of reality is now seriously challenged, and the
important function of photography in modern-day society is consequently (2)____________ threat. The
threat has suddenly become all the more serious as more and more photographers are (3)____________ to
the new technology which computers offer. Moreover, a(n) (4)____________ number of colleges have now
begun to offer (5)____________ in computer imaging. All these developments (6)____________ a
disturbing question. Is photography, as we know (7)____________ dead?
In spite of its complete transformation by new technological developments, however, photography
will continue to play a (8)____________ role in our culture. Although it may no longer (9)____________ to
be realistic, modern photography can continue to provide us with fresh visual (10)____________ about
ourselves and the world in which we live.
Open cloze test 2:
The pleasure of learning tp play a musical instrument
As an activity, learning to play an instrument is something that can give a lot of pleasure. It's also an
achievement and a skill (1)_____________ stays with you for life. Music has a part to play in everyone's
life, and has been described (2)_____________ a 'primary language'.
Learning to play an instrument isn't easy at the beginning (3)_____________ takes effort and
determination. And while there's nothing wrong with aiming for the top, music is definitely
(4)_____________  something to take up because you think you ought (5)_____________ do it.
A lot of adults regret not (6)_____________  learnt to play an instrument when they were younger.
But it is never (7)_____________ late to learn! And the advantages of learning an instrument are far greater
than just the pleasure of producing a marvellous sound. When you've progressed far (8)_____________ ,
there are lots of amateur groups which you can join (9)_____________ you want to be part of a larger group.
Once you've reached a good enough standard to join a band or orchestra, you add the team skills like
those you get from playing sport. There's also a great social side to playing with others, as
(10)_____________ as the chance to travel through touring.
II. WORD FORMS (20 PTS)
Part 1: Give the correct form of words in brackets 
1. These shoes look quite smart but they’re terribly _________________. (COMFORT)
2. The keys were locked inside the car. _________________, a side window was open.  (LUCKY) 
3. It is forbidden to hunt for that kind of bird. It has been listed as one of the _________________ species.
(DANGER)
4.There's a serious _________________ of food in the disaster area. (SHORT)
5. That was one of the most _________________ situations in my life.  (EMBARRASSMENT)
6. Everyone likes him because he has a really good sense of _________________.  (HUMOROUS)
 65

7. The heat from the sun is a clean and _________________ source of energy, which cannot be used up.
(LIMIT)
8. Some rare animals are in danger of_________________. (EXTINCT)
9. Some of his pictures are quite _____ now. (COLLECT)
10. My uncle, who is an ___________ guitarist, taught me how to play. (ACCOMPLISH)
Part 2: 
Supply each gap with the correct form of the word given
explain surprise celebrat company skill
e
contribut expert disaster consider pain
e
On holiday last year my two travelling (1)______________ and I joined a day’s cookery course in a
Mexican restaurant. There were eight participants, all keen to learn the secrets of the nation’s cuisine. The
students ranged from people who already had some (2)______________ in the kitchen, to totally
(3)______________ people like myself. 
Our teacher, Liana Cabrera, started with a short talk, then handed out some notes giving (4)______________
of terms we would be coming across. Soon we were trying out a range of exotic ingredients, with
(5)______________ good results. Cabrera started giving cookery lessons five years ago, and has become
quite a (6)______________, with long waiting lists for her courses. And because of her extensive knowledge
of almost- forgotten regional dishes she is also a regular (7)______________ to cookery programmes on
national television. 
In the afternoon I joined the salsa-making team, with rather (8)______________ results. My colleagues
complained that my food was so (9)______________ hot it made their eyes water. Their own efforts turned
out (10)______________ better than mine. The communal meal at the end of the day was delicious, and I
had not only learnt something about cooking but also broadened my understanding of Mexican culture.
III. ERROR CORRECTION (10 PTS) 
III. ERROR IDENTIFICATION (10 PTS)
Identify 10 errors in the following passage and correct them
Instead of giving endless advice, learn to listen more. Listening is an underestimating skill, and it is easy to
forget when you are worrying about other people problems. How many times do we say, “Oh yeah, that
happen to me and …” before we give the other person a chance to explain what happened to him. Sometimes
a friend may just want to talk something about with someone else to sort things out in his own mind – so
listen hardly to what he is saying, and try to offer advices only when you think he is asking for it.
We often feel we have been let down by a friend at some points in our life. Perhaps they let out a
secret we trusted them to keep under wraps, or sudden sided with the opposition during an argument.
Nobody is perfect, so try to have realistic expectation. Friendships don’t develop over night; they deepen
over time as you begin to trust one other. Don’t place unrealistic demands on your friendship.
IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION. (20PTS) 
Rewrite the following sentences using the words given. 
1. You should not lock this door for any reason when the building is open to the public.=>Under
2. He didn’t go to bed until he finished his composition.=> Not until
3. His efforts to find a solution to the problem didn’t deserve such savage criticism=> He shouldn’t  
4. We were about to leave the house when the telephone rang.=> We 
5. He easily loses his temper. (FLIES)       
6. Her early success has made her very conceited. (HEAD)       
7. Julie always listens to my complaints about work. (EAR)       
8. The authorities have improved the public transport system here recently. (IMPROVEMENTS)  
9. You should excuse his bad manners, he’s only a child. (ALLOWANCES)
10. Hal found something unexpected when he cleared out the attic. (DISCOVERY)      

ĐỀ 13
SUGGESTED TEST
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE. (40 PTS) 
I. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (5 PTS) 
 66

1. I hope everything’s OK. They __________ several hours ago.                                                

A. would have called B. must have called C. were to have called D. supposed to call
2. __________with her boyfriend yesterday, she doesn’t want to answer his phone call.
A. Having quarreled B. Because having quarreled
C. Because of  she quarreled D. Having quarreled 
3. Superconductivity will revolutionize the way that energy is used for the next millennium,
and__________the first truly superconductive substance will be remembered as a technological hero.
A. what the discovery of  B. the discovery of C. whoever discovers D.whose discovery
4. The important of the hand, and more generally of the body, in children’s acquisition of
arithmetic__________  
A. can hardly be exaggerated . B. hardly exaggerated can be.
C. can be exaggerated hardly. D. exaggerated can be hardly. 
5. Why didn’t you ask for help, __________to do it on your own? 
A. in view of trying B. nowhere near trying C. rather than trying D. far from trying
6. __________, only people who agree with her are real jews.
A. We can infer how she is concerned B. Inferred from what she is concerned
C. We can infer what she is concerned  D. We can infer that as far as she is concerned.
7. It is possible to stay overnight here although there is no guest house__________. 
A. at that B. as such C. in itself D. for that 
8. __________,I haven’t seen Catherine all day.
A. Coming to think of it B. Coming to think of it
C. To come to think of it D.  Come to think of it 
9. It turned out that we __________rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours.
A. hadn’t B. should haveC. musn’t D. needn’t have 
10. When Nadine arrived, she soon__________at all her jokes .  
    A. had everyone laughed B. had laughing everyone
C. had everyone laughing D.  had laughed everyone 
II. PHRASAL VERBS AND PREPOSITIONS. (5 PTS) 
1. They                   a two-month tour of the US with a party in Washington.
A. set forth B. brought off C. came up with D. kicked off
2. I was promised a good job from January this year, but it’s April now and I’m afraid that they are just
me along.
A. cheating B. swindling C. stringing D. bringing
3. Noone can function properly if he or she is _________adequate sleep.                   
A. took away B. deprived of C. deprived from D. got rid of
4. Susan says she feels less nervous since she_________on tea and coffee. 
A. cut down B. stopped off C. turned back D. cut out
5. To get his proposal accepted, the Finance Manager had to_________heavy pressure from colleagues . 
A. fend off B. laugh off C. send off D. push off
6. Time was_________and we were nowhere near finished.
A. cracking onB. bringing down C. going down with D. letting down 
7. The past decade has seen an increasing number of famous people crashing _________on their celebrity
status by getting their autobiographies published .
A. in B. withC. for D. to
8. Good instructors will _________earlysigns of failure in their students.
A. get through with B. come up with C. think back on D. look out for
9. Two of the students in our class are identical twins and most of the teachers can’t_________
A. see between them B. tell them apart
C. see them through D.find them between
10.He really gets _________ my nerves. He never stops complaining. 
A. down B. up C. in D. on
III. WORD CHOICE (10 PTS)
Choose the best options to complete the following sentences. 
1. I think I understand the nuts and__________of the operation.
 67

A. crews B. hammer C. bolts D. nail

2. Tom won’t buy that old car because it has too much__________on it .
A. ups and downs B. odds and ends C. wear and tear D. white lie
3. Job losses are mainly in the__________sectors of the industry .
A. blue-collar B. red-collar C. stiff-collar D. high-collar
4. Since he is too old to be a porter, they have decided to put him out to__________.
A. the door B. grounds C. grass D. the kerb
5. It was an extremely hostile article which cast__________on the conduct of the entire cabinet.
A. criticism B. aspersions C. disapproval D. abuse
6. Some countries always __________resolutions at the United Nations which don’t suit them.
A. bail B. countenance C. veil D. veto
7. I didn’t need any medicine. I’m as right as__________.
A. clouds B. rays C. rain D. a haze
8. My sunburnt nose made me feel rather__________for the first few days of the holiday.
A. self-confident B. self-centre C. self-conscious D. self-evident
9. My mother is a real__________potato. She watches T.V all the time.
A. couch B. sofa C. armchair D. cushion
10. The red cross is __________ an international aid organization.
A. intriguingly B. intrusively C. intrinsicallyD. intrepidly
11. If you have stomach problems, it is best to avoid …………..food.
A. wealthy B. affluent C. rich D. lavish
12. The word “friendship” can be …………………applied to a wide variety of relationship. 
A. loosely B. slightly C. lightly D. sparingly
13. Parental influence tends to ……….as children get older.
A. reduce B. subside C. decline D. sink
14. Many countries have………….compulsory military service.
A. aborted B. absconded C. abolished D.abstracted
15. The north-west of Scotland is ……………and there are a lot of lakes.
A. country B. woody C. hills D. mountainous
16. My car was so old that I could only sell it for …………… .
A. rubbish B. debris C. scrap D. waste
17. I tried to ……….my disappointment at losing by cheering the winner loudly.
A. mask B. hide C. shield D. veil
18. Would you like to………….the house that is for sale this afternoon?
A. view B. regard C. observe D. overlook
19. Larry never spoke to anyone, and kept himself …………….. .
A. outside B. withdrawn C. superior D. aloof
20. It may be raining, but I’m …………………..enjoying myself.
A. highly B. thoroughly C. extremely D. absolutely
IV. GUIDED CLOZE 1 (10 pts) Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space
 Passage A (5 PTS) 
Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space. 
ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES
The issues for (1) ____________ economies are a little more straightforward. The desire to build on
undeveloped land is not (2)   ____________ out of desperation or necessity, but is a result of the relentless
march of progress. Cheap labour and a relatively highly-skilled workforce make these countries highly
competitive and there is a flood of inward investment, particularly from (3) ____________ looking to take
advantage of the low wages before the cost and standard of living begin to rise. It is factors such as these that
are making many Asian economies extremely attractive when viewed as investment opportunities at the
moment. Similarly, in Africa, the relative (4) ____________ of precious metals and natural resources tends
to attract a lot of (5) ____________ companies and a whole sub-industry develops around and is completely
dependent on this foreign-direct investment. It is understandable that countries that are the focus of this sort
of attention can lose sight of the environmental implications of large-scale industrial development, and this
can have devastating consequences for the natural world. And it is a (6) ____________ cycle because the
 68

more industrially active a nation becomes, the greater the demand for and harvesting of natural resources.
For some, the environmental issues, though they can hardly be ignored, are viewed as a (7) ____________
concern. Indeed, having an environmental conscience or taking environmental matters into consideration
when it comes to decisions on whether or not to build rubber-tree ( 8) ____________  or grow biofuel crops
would be quite (9) ____________ indeed. For those involved in such schemes it is a pretty black-and-white
issue. And, for vast (10) ____________ of land in Latin America, for example, it is clear that the welfare of
the rainforests matters little to local government when vast sums of money can be made from cultivating the
land.
1. A.  emerging B.  emergent               C.  convergent             D.  resurgent
2. A.  grown                 B.  born                       C.  bred                       D.  arisen
3. A.  multinationals   B.  migrants               C.  continentals            D.intercontinentals
4. A.  premonition       B.  abundance           C.  amplitude               D.  accumulation
5. A.  exploitation       B.  exploration           C.  surveyance             D.  research
6. A.  vacuous               B.  viscous                  C.  vexatious                D.  vicious
7. A.  parallel               B.  extrinsic               C.  peripheral              D.  exponential
8. A.  plantations         B.  homesteads           C.  ranches                   D.  holdings
9. A.  proscriptive       B.  prohibitive           C.  prospective             D.  imperative
10. A.  regions               B.  plots                     C.  tracts                       D.  sectors
Passage B(5 PTS) 
Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space. 
MIDSUMMER NIGHT’S EVE
In Europe, Midsummer Night's Eve, also known as St John's Eve, occurs on June 23rd. It originates from the
pagan celebrations of the summer solstice which were held on June 21st. On that night throughout Europe
bonfires were lit along hillsides to (1) ________the shortest night of the year. It must have looked as if some
kind of violent insurrection was taking  place down the coast of Scotland and England, but these signal fires
in fact had a very important purpose. Bones of farm animals (2) ________the previous autumn were burned
and, when the fires had (3)________ the remaining ash was put to good use: it was spread on the fields to
enrich the land and ensure a good harvest. The word 'bonfire' is  (4)________from'bonefire'.
In Brazil too St John's Eve means bonfires and fireworks. Another quaint tradition involves the 
(5)________of small paper hot-air balloons, although they are prohibited by law in the cities because of the
fire (6) ________ . Bonfires mark the beginning of spring rather than the summer in Sweden and are lit on
the last night of April. In the Swedish Midsummer's Eve (7)________ , held on June 24th, a large pole,
decorated with flowers and leaves, is placed in the ground.
Thistles also have a significant  role in the celebration of Midsummer's Night in Europe. In the past they
were thought to (8) ________witches. The pretty, prickly plant was nailed over barn doors and used in
wreaths, the circular shape being a symbol of the turning of the seasons. Wheels faced with straw and soaked
in pitch were lit from the bonfires and then rolled down hills.
There is less risk of fire in a (9)________ tradition to many Slavic countries. Young women and girls float
little baskets of flowers and lighted candles down streams. Local boys swim out to (10)________ a basket,
find the girl it belongs to and claim a dance at the town's Midsummer's Eve Party.
1. A. celebrate B. honour C. commemorate D. commiserate
2. A. revised B. assassinated C. slaughtered D. sacrificed
3. A. doused B. extinguished C. smothered D. gone out
4. A. derived B. developed C. evolved D. decayed
5. A landing B. launching C. propelling D. ejecting
6. A. certainty B. peril C. jeopardy D. hazard
7. A. tradition B. custom C. ceremony D. practice
8. A. deflect B. ward off C. attract D. avert
9. A. unique B. common C. mutual D. prevalent
10. A. salvage B. rescue C. set free D. liberate
V. READING COMPREHENSION ( 10 PTS)
Passage A: (5 PTS) 
COMMUNICATING WITH THE FUTURE
 69

In the 1980s the United States Department of Energy was looking for suitable sites to bury radioactive waste
material generated by its nuclear energy programs. The government was considering burying the dangerous
wastes in deep underground chambers in remote desert areas. The problem, however, was that nuclear waste
remains highly radioactive for thousands of years. The commission entrusted with tackling the problem of
waste disposal was aware that the dangers posed by radioactive emissions must be communicated to our
descendants of at least 10,000 years hence. So the task became one of finding a way to tell future societies
about the risk posed by these deadly deposits.
Of course, human society in the distant future may be well aware of the hazards of radiation. Technological
advances may one day provide the solutions to this dilemma. But the belief in constant technological
advancement is based on our perceptions of advances made throughout history and prehistory. We cannot be
sure that society won’t have slipped backward into an age of barbarism due to any of several catastrophic
events, whether the result of nature such as the onset of a new ice age or perhaps mankind’s failure to solve
the scourges of war and pollution. In the event of global catastrophe, it is quite possible that humans of the
distant future will be on the far side of a broken link of communication and technological understanding.
The problem then becomes how to inform our descendants that they must avoid areas of potential
radioactive seepage given that they may not understand any currently existing language and may have no
historical or cultural memory. So, any message indicated to future reception and decipherment must be as
universally understandable as
possible.
It was soon realized by the specialists assigned the task of devising the communication system that material
in which the message was written might not physically endure the great lengths of time demanded. The
second law of thermodynamics shows that all material disintegrates over time. Even computers that might
carry the
message cannot be expected to endure long enough. Besides, electricity supplies might not be available in
300 generations. Other media storage methods were considered and rejected for similar reasons.
The task force under the linguist Thomas Sebeok finally agreed that no foolproof way would be found to
send a message across so many generations and have it survive physically and be decipherable by a people
with few cultural similarities to us. Given this restriction, Sebeok suggested the only possible solution was
the formation of a committee of guardians of knowledge. Its task would be to dedicate itself to maintaining
and passing the knowledge of the whereabouts and dangers of the nuclear waste deposits. This socalled
atomic priesthood would be entrusted with keeping knowledge of this tradition alive through millennia and
developing the tradition into a kind of mythical taboo forbidding people to tamper in a way with the nuclear
waste sites. Only the initiated atomic priesthood of experts would have the scientific knowledge to fully
understand the danger. Those outside the priesthood would be kept away by a combination of rituals and
legends designed to warn off intruders.
This proposal has been criticized because of the possibility of a break in continuity of the original message.
Furthermore, there is no guarantee that any warning or sanction passed on for millennia would be obeyed,
nor that it could survive with its original meaning intact. To counterbalance this possibility, Sebeok’s group
proposed a “relay system” in which information is passed on over relatively short periods of time, just three
generations ahead. The message then to be renewed and redesigned if necessary for the following three
generations and so on over the required time span. In this way information could be relayed into the future
and avoid the possibility of physical degradation.
A second defect is more difficult to dismiss, however. This is the problem of social exclusiveness brought
about through possession of vital knowledge. Critics point out that the atomic priesthood could use its secret
knowledge to control those who are scientifically ignorant. The establishment of such an association of
insiders holding
powerful knowledge not available except in mythic form to nonmembers would be a dangerous precedent
for future social developments.
1. The word "chambers" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. partitions B. openings C. cavities D. fissures
2. What problem faced the commission assigned to deal with the burial of nuclear waste?
A. How to reduce the radioactive life of nuclear waste materials
B. How to form a committee that could adequately express various nuclear risks
C. How to notify future generations of the risks of nuclear contamination
 70

D. How to choose burial sites so as to minimize dangers to people.

3. In paragraph 2, the author explains the possible circumstances of future societies
A. to warn about the possible natural catastrophe
B. to question the value of advances
C. to highlight humankind's inability to resolve problems
D. to demonstrate the reason nuclear hazards must be communicated
4. The word "scourges" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. pressures B. afflictions C. worries D. annoyances
5. In paragraph 4, the author mentions the second law of thermodynamics
A. to support the view that nuclear waste will disperse with time
B. to show that knowledge can be sustained over millennia
C. to give the basic scientific reason behind the breakdown of material objects
D. to contrast the potential life span of knowledge with that of material objects

Passage B: (5 PTS) 
Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question. 
ENERGY FROM THE WAVES
The quest for sustainable sources of energy has led humans to study the energy potential of the sun and the
wind, as well as the immense power created by dammed rivers. The oceans, too, represent an impressive
source of potential energy. For example, it has been estimated that the oceans could provide nearly 3,000
times the energy generated by hydroelectric dams such as the Hoover Dam. Yet, this source remains quite
difficult to exploit.
But this challenge has not prevented scientists from trying. Within the last few decades, several technologies
that can transform the ocean’s immense forces into usable electricity have been invented and introduced.
Some focus on capturing the power of the changing tides, while others rely on thermal energy created by
oceans in certain tropical regions. However, the most common and easiest-to-develop technologies are those
designed to harness the power inherent in the ocean’s waves.
There are several methods by which ocean-wave energy can be collected. All of them work because the
movement of the water that the waves induce creates storable energy by directly or indirectly driving a
power generator. In one such technology, the changing water levels in the ocean that are produced by waves
lift a long floating tube comprised of many sections connected by hinges. As the sections move up and down
with the water, they pump a special fluid through the tube that can be used to drive a generator. Another
technique works on a similar principle, only the floating object rocks back and forth with the motion of the
water instead of up and down. A third method of collecting wave energy relies on the rising water from the
waves to compress air in a partially submerged chamber. As the waves rush into the chamber, they push the
air out through a narrow tunnel. Located inside this tunnel is a turbine connected to a power generator. The
movement of the air turns the turbine, which feeds energy into the generator.
The drawback to each of these concepts is that they make it necessary to have many pieces of machinery
linked together.  This presents a problem because the larger the device, the more vulnerable it is to damage
from hazardous ocean environments, and the more likely it is to interfere with otherwise unspoiled coastal
scenery.  Also, these methods demand the construction of site- specific machines that take into consideration
average local wave heights and sea conditions.  In other words, the ability to get power from waves differs
from region to region.
Japan, Norway, and the UK have all attempted to generate energy by capturing the power of ocean waves. In
northern Scotland, the first power plant to use wave power, OSPREY (Ocean Swell Powered Renewable
Energy), began operating in 1995. It followed the principle of the third method described above: waves
entering a partially submerged chamber pushed air into turbines ; to generate electricity. The electricity was
then transmitted to power collectors on the shore via underwater cables. Unfortunately, the OSPREY plant
was destroyed in a large storm, highlighting an unavoidable difficulty associated with this kind of power
generation.
The potential benefits of wave-based energy are hard to ignore. Once the proper machinery is produced and
installed, the energy is free. Maintenance costs are small, and the equipment does not pose any threats of
environmental pollution. And best of all, the amounts of energy produced are enormous.
 71

However, these theoretical advantages have yet to be fully realized. In many cases, a lack of government
funding has inhibited the technologies from advancing. For example, despite the relative abundance of
proposed wave-power devices, many have not been adequately tested, and most have been evaluated only in
artificial pools where they are not subjected to the harsh marine conditions that exist in actual oceans.
Protecting the equipment from the sea’s destructive forces, as well as the fundamental task of determining
feasible locations for collecting energy, also present formidable challenges. All in all, while ocean power
offers some intriguing possibilities, the difficulties involved in harnessing this energy source are substantial
and will require more time to overcome.
1. The phrase this source in the passage refers to
A. sun B. win C. dammed rivers D. oceans
2. The word exploit in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. utilize B. declare C. contain D. determine
3. Why does the author mention the Hoover Dam in paragraph one?
A. To give a current example of ocean-based energy technology
B. To explain that dams are effective producers of sustainable energy
C. To draw a comparison between two sources of renewable energy
D. To show that alternative energy sources have not been successful
4. In paragraph 2, the author states that
A. waves do not represent the only form of ocean power
B. tropical oceans produce the greatest amount of energy
C. scientists first attempted to collect power from ocean tides
D. most of the electricity created by oceans is not usable
5. The word induce in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. cause B. define C. order D. monitor
Passage C: (10 PTS) 
The Truth about the Environment
For many environmentalists, the world seems to be getting worse. They have developed a hit-list of our main
fears: that natural resources are running out; that the population is ever growing, leaving less and less to eat;
that species are becoming extinct in vast numbers, and that the planet's air and water are becoming ever more
polluted.

But a quick look at the facts shows a different picture. First, energy and other natural resources have become
more abundant,. not less so, .since the book 'The limits to Growth' was published in 1972 by a group of
scientists. Second, more food is now produced per head of the world's population than at any time in history.
Fewer people are starving. Third, although species are. indeed becoming extinct, only about 0.7% of them
are expelled to disappear in the next SO years, not 25-50%, as has so often been predicted. And finally, most
forms of environmental pollution either appear to have been exaggerated, or are transient - associated with
the early phases of industrialisation and therefore best cured not by restricting economic growth, but by
accelerating it. One form of pollution - the release of greenhouse gases that causes global warming - does
appear to be a phenomenon that is going to extend well into our future, but its total impact is unlikely to pose
a devastating problem. A bigger problem may well turn out to be an inappropriate response to it.

Yet opinion polls suggest that many people nurture the belief that environmental standards are declining and
four factors seem to cause this disjunction between perception and reality.

One is the lopsidedness built into scientific research. Scientific funding goes mainly to areas with many
problems. That may be wise policy but it will also create an impression that many more potential problems
exist than is the case.

Secondly, environmental groups need to be noticed by the mass media. They also need to keep the money
rolling in. Understandably, perhaps, they sometimes overstate their arguments. In 1997, for example, the
World Wide Fund for Nature issued a press release entitled: 'Two thirds of the world's forests lost forever'.
The truth turns out to be nearer 20%.
 72

Though these groups are run overwhelmingly by selfless folk, they nevertheless share many of the
characteristics of other lobby groups. That would matter less if people applied the same degree of scepticism
to environmental lobbying as they do to lobby groups in other fields. A trade organisation arguing for, say,
weaker pollution control is instantly seen as self-interested. Yet a green organisation opposing such a
weakening is seen as altruistic, even if an impartial view of the controls in question might suggest they are
doing more harm than good.

A third source of confusion is the attitude of the media. People are dearly more curious about bad news than
good. Newspapers and broadcasters are there to provide what the public wants: That, however, can lead to
significant distortions of perception. An example was America's encounter with EI Nino in 1997 and 1998.
This climatic phenomenon was accused of wrecking. tourism, causing allergies, melting the ski-slopes, and
causing 22 deaths. However, according to an article in the Bulletin of the American Meteorological Society,
the damage it did was estimated at US$4 billion but the benefits amounted to some US$19 billion. These
came from higher winter temperatures (which saved an estimated 850 lives, reduced heating costs and
diminished spring floods caused by meltwaters).

The fourth factor is poor individual. perception. People worry that the endless rise in the amount of stuff
everyone throws away will cause the world to run out of places to dispose of waste. Yet, even if America's
trash output continues to rise as it has done in the past, and even if the American population doubles by
2100, all the rubbish America produces through the entire 21st century will still take up only one-12,000th of
the area v of the entire United States.

So what of global warming? As we know, carbon dioxide emissions are causing the planet to warm. The best
estimates are that the temperatures will rise by 2-3°C in this century, causing considerable problems, at a
total cost of US$5,000 billion.
Despite the intuition that something drastic needs to be done about such a costly problem, economic analyses
dearly show it will be far more expensive to cut carbon dioxide emissions radically than to pay the costs of
adaptation to the increased temperatures. A model by one of the main authors of the United Nations Climate
Change Panel shows how an expected temperature increase of 2.1 degrees in 2100 would only be diminished
to an increase of 1.9 degrees. Or to put it another way, the temperature increase that the planet would have
experienced in 2094 would be postponed to 2100.

So this does not prevent global warming, but merely buys the world six years. Yet the cost of reducing
carbon dioxide emissions, for the United States alone, will be higher than the cost of solving the world's
single, most pressing health problem: providing universal access to clean drinking water and sanitation. Such
measures would avoid 2 million deaths every year, and prevent half a billion people from becoming
seriously ill.

It is crucial that we look at the facts if we want to make the best f: possible decisions for the future. It may be
costly to be overly optimistic - but more costly still to be too pessimistic.
Questions 1-6
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the writer's claims
NO if the statement contradicts the writer's claims
NOT GIVEN if there is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
1. Environmentalists take a pessimistic view of the world for a number of reasons.  
2. Data on the Earth's natural resources has only been collected since 1972.  
3. The number of starving people in the world has increased in recent years.  
4. Extinct species are being replaced by new species.  
5. Some pollution problems have been correctly linked to industrialisation.  
6. It would be best to attempt to slow down economic growth. 
 73

Questions 7-10
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write your answers in boxes 33-37 on your answer sheet.
7. What aspect oh scientific research does the writer express concern about in paragraph 4?
A A the need to produce results
B the lack of financial support
C the selection of areas to research
D the desire to solve every research problem

8. The writer quotes from the Worldwide Fund for Nature to illustrate how
A influential the mass media can be.
B effective environmental groups can be.
C the mass media can help groups raise funds.
D environmental groups can exaggerate their claims.

9. What is the writer's main point about lobby groups in paragraph 6?

A Some are more active than others.
B Some are better organised than others.
C Some receive more criticism than others.
D Some support more important issues than others.

10. The writer suggests that newspapers print items that are intended to
A educate readers.
B meet their readers' expectations.
C encourage feedback from readers.
D mislead readers.
B. WRITTEN TEST (70 PTS) 
I. CLOZE TEST (20 PTS)
Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE WORD for each
space. 
Passage A. (10 PTS) 
After living (1) ___________ the threat of extinction for more than 30 years, the national bird of the United
States has been granted an official reprieve, as the bald eagle and twenty- eight other animal and plant
species have been earmarked (2) ___________ removal from America’s list of endangered species. The bald
eagle, also known as the white-headed sea eagle, took pride of place at the top of a list of species likely to (3)
___________taken off the endangered register in the coming years. The proposed “delistings” are being
promoted by the US interior secretary to counter a growing feeling among Republicans that endangered
species laws do not work. Charges of ineffectiveness have been (4) ___________against these laws before,
but more recently it has even been suggested that the situation may actually have been (5) ___________
worse by them. The recovery of the bald eagle follows thirty-one years on the critical list. Its numbers had
been (6) ___________ to fewer than five hundred through the use of pesticides that reacted adversely (7)
___________ its reproductive system. The number of nesting pairs is now estimated at five thousand. The
interior secretary claims that the new list was a vindication of the legislation under which the eagle, a
national symbol (8) ___________ originally from the Indians, and more than a thousand other species were
protected.(A spokesperson denied that it was simply a publicity stunt timed to coincide with the swearing (9)
___________of the president for his second term). Until now, few species have (10) ___________ been
removed from the list. When they were, it was usually because they had become extinct.
Passage B. (10 PTS) 
Advances in technology have done much to change the way we live and communicate, but no breakthrough
revolutionized life as much as the advent of wireless technology, according to a panel of experts assembled
by CNN 2010. Back in 1980, when it (1) __________to communication technology, telephones were stuck
to walls, facts were found in books, and people had to browse shelves in a record store if they wanted to buy
 74

the latest music. However, developments that occurred at the start of the twenty century (2) __________we
could access all that information just by reaching into our pockets for our mobile phone. Form the (3)
__________ beginning of the Information Age, having immediate access to data was fundamental to
progress. In some cases, technological advances (4) __________to overhaul industries at a lightning –fast
pace. For example, the internet helped tech-savvy music lovers to force changes in the way the music
industry did (5) __________, while text messaging over cell phones made written (6) __________more
immediate.
We embraced information technology to such an (7) __________that having computer access in our homes
was not (8) __________enough. We wanted to use these tools everywhere. Wireless hot spots popped up in
cafes, airports, universities – even the whole city blocks. And just as computer use worldwide exploded, the
brains behind them – the processors – became increasingly smaller. A computer chip that you could balance
on your fingertips could hold massive (9) __________of data. This ability to store portable. The
entertainment industry
harnessed satellite technology to give consumers more choice, and video game technology developed to the
(10) __________where it became a $ 10 billion a year industry, producing games that invite players into a
virtual world of fantasy, sport or even war. 

II. WORD FORMATION (20 PTS) 

PART 1: Complete each sentence, using the correct form of the word in parentheses. 
Supply the correct form of the words in the CAPITAL LETTER 
1. Bill was given a medal in …………..of his services. RECOGNISE
2. She listens more …………………….than anyone else I know. SYMPATHY
3. How …………….he spoke! ELOQUENCE
4. The government’s ………….approach has brought criticism. COMPROMISE
5. …………..thirst for knowledge. YOUNG
6. Ralp Nader is an……………………….of peace. ADVOCACY
7. You shouldn’t interrupt someone…………. . SENTENCE
8. Karen and Catherine are …………….twins. IDENTITY
9. His family suffers from his …………….. . EXPEND
10. Please …………………our letter of the 14th. We have not had a reply. KNOW
PART 2: 
Supply each gap with the correct form of the word given
explain surprise celebrat company skill
e
contribut expert disaster consider pain
e

On holiday last year my two travelling (1)______________ and I joined a day’s cookery course in a
Mexican restaurant. There were eight participants, all keen to learn the secrets of the nation’s cuisine. The
students ranged from people who already had some (2)______________ in the kitchen, to totally
(3)______________ people like myself. 
Our teacher, Liana Cabrera, started with a short talk, then handed out some notes giving (4)______________
of terms we would be coming across. Soon we were trying out a range of exotic ingredients, with
(5)______________ good results. Cabrera started giving cookery lessons five years ago, and has become
quite a (6)______________, with long waiting lists for her courses. And because of her extensive knowledge
of almost- forgotten regional dishes she is also a regular (7)______________ to cookery programmes on
national television. 
In the afternoon I joined the salsa-making team, with rather (8)______________ results. My colleagues
complained that my food was so (9)______________ hot it made their eyes water. Their own efforts turned
out (10)______________ better than mine. The communal meal at the end of the day was delicious, and I
had not only learnt something about cooking but also broadened my understanding of Mexican culture.
III. ERROR CORRECTION (10 PTS) 
The following passage contains 10 errors. Identify and correct them. 
 75

The destruction of the rainforests is a pressing problem of our times but not one that is regarded equally
serious by everyone. The more affluent nations regard the issue as one of preservation; deforestation must
stop. When it comes to the poorer countries, the issue is not so cut and dried. For these people, the
rainforests represent a source of economic prosperity, a point that obviously takes precedence on ecological
concerns. A solution must be found before the damage caused by the deforestation that is destroying the
rainforests becoming irrevocable. Deforestation is carried out by those involving in the timber industry and
also by migrant farmers. The later occupy an area of land, strip it, farm it until its natural mineral supply is
used up and then move on. The land is left useless and exposed and a process of erosion comes into effect,
washing soil into rivers thereby killing fish and blocking the water's natural course. The land is not the only
victim. Rainforests are a rich populated habitat. In the rainforests of Madagascar there are at most 150,000
individual species of plants and animals which are found anywhere else in the world and more are being
discovered all the time. Furthermore, approximately 50% of all endangered animal species live in the world's
rainforests. The destruction of the forests effectively represents a
complete removal of all these plants and animals. Deprived of their natural environments, they will
disappear altogether. Again, this process is reversible. Man, no matter how powerful he considers himself,
does not have the power to establish the species he is so willfully destroying.
Sentences Mistake Correction Sentences Mistakes Correction
s
1. Line 6. Line
2. Line 7. Line
3. Line 8. Line
4. Line 9. Line
5. Line 10.Line
IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION. (20PTS) 
Rewrite the following sentences using the words given. 
1. I only realized the full implications of what had happened until sometime later.=> It wasn’t
2. The judge said that it was only because of the woman’s age he had not sent her to jail.
=> The judge said that had
3. The last time there was such an environmental catastrophe was a thousand years ago.
=> Not_____________proportions.
4. We weren’t surprised by his success.=> It came
5. He has an obsession about the dishonesty of lawyers. ( BEE)=> He  
6. I must have offended her because she isn’t being friendly towards me. (SHOULDER)=> I
7. You need to make sure that he has enough money to pay for the car before you sell it to him. 
=. You need to see
8. He threatened the officers with violence. (THREATS)=> He
9. The students’ rebellious behaviours should have been severely punishment. (DESERVED)= The students
10. There’s no one available in this moment to take her class . (NOTICE) => There’s

ĐỀ 14
ĐỀ VÀ ĐÁP ÁN MÔN TIẾNG ANH 10
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE. (40 PTS) 
I. STRUCTURES AND GRAMMAR (5 PTS) 
Choose the best option to complete the following sentences.
1. It was _________we could not go out .
A. so cold that                  B. such cold that            C. very so cold  D. too cold that
2. I really prefer just about anything ____watching TV.
A. from B. or C. Than D. to 
3. We have a party tonight and Daisy is worried about ______
A. what to wear      B. which wearing C. that she wears          D. these wearing
4. As a rule, new comers ______ a party at the end of the first month of their stay.
A. was held B. Hold C. have held D. will hold
5. The most interesting films _____ for the festival will be shown next week.
A. are chosen B. having chosen C. chosen D. being chosen
 76

6. However _____ about the results, the children still talk merrily.
A. disappointed are they B. disappointing they are
C. disappointment D. disappointed they are
7.  The number of cars on the roads ______ increasing, so we need to build more roads.
A. is B. WasC. Were D. are
8. My uncle drank a lot of beer, ________made him fat. 
A. that B. which C. that’s why D. it 
9. She has difficulty ________ and ________ English.
A. speak-writing B. to speak- to write C. speak-write D. speaking-writing
10. Peter told me that he was leaving for the capital_____ 
A. tomorrow B. tonight C. the following day      D. next Sunday 
II. PHRASAL VERBS AND PROPOSITIONS (5 PTS) 
Choose the best option to complete the following sentences.
11. I can’t _________ of a word he is saying.
A. comprehend B. understand C. grasp D. make sense
12. I several musicians around that time. 
     A. came up with      B. made friends to C. got back to          D. made the acquaintance of 
13. After her mother died, she was raised by her grandparents.
A. grown up B. brought up C. come into D. put up
14. The director retired early __________ ill-health.
A. on behalf of B. in front of C. on account of D. ahead of
15. Realizing he got lost, he started to help. 
   A. call for B. call at C. go for D. go to 
16. The doctor who is _______ tonight in the general hospital is Mr. Brown.
A. on turn B. on tour C. on call D. on work
17. Do you have any objections..........this new road scheme? 
A. at B. with C. to D. for 
18. The concert was ____________ because of the heavy rain.
A. put out B. called off C. run out D. set off
19. Jump in the car. There’s enough ______ for you.
A. room B. place C. space D. chair             
20. I could not____ the lecture at all. It was too difficult for me.
A. get along B. make off C. take in D. hold on
III. VOCABULARY (10 PTS) 
Choose the best option to complete the following sentences.
21. They had  _________ ashtrays on the table.
         A. Two square glass B. square two glass    
C. glass square two               D. two glass square
22. Anna and David are going for ______ on the beach.
A. a picnic B. the picnic C. some picnics D. picnic
23. My father hasn’t had much ___________with my family since he moved to New York
A. contact B. Business C. connection D. meeting
24.   We should protect plants and animals of the sea to keep its ___________
        A. resource B. energy C. existence D. biodiversity
25. Farming _______  have been more and more improved.
       A. ways                B. methodologies   C. methods         D. means.
26. In my father’s ___________ it is essential to eat vegetable every day.
A. idea B. opinion C. confidence D. principle
27. Their eventual choice of house was _____ by the time Peter would take to get to the office.
A. related B. consequent C. determined D. dependent
28. The child was ______ by a lorry on the safety crossing in the main street.
A. knocked down B. run across C. run out D. knocked out
29. The waiter quickly took our _____, but it was ages before any food appeared
A. order     B. demand C. request D. command
 77

30.  When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty _______ paintings were destroyed, including two
by Picasso.
A. worthy B. priceless C. worthless D. valueless
31. If one species becomes extinct, the whole chain will be ___ seriously.
A. disappearedB. killed C. damaged D. threatened 
32.When Tim was eating a cherry, he accidentally swallowed the ____
A. nut B. stone C. seedD. core
33. She loved tennis and could watch it till the _____ came home.
A. she B. everyone C. horses D. cows
34. Could you close the window? There is a bit of a _____.
A. current B. wind C. draught D. breeze
35. Thousands of steel _____ were used as the framework of the new office block.
A. beams B. girders C. stakes D. piles
36. I feel terrible, I didn’t sleep ___________ last night.
 A. an eye    B. a wink   C. a jot   D. an inch
37. Mexico is the most popular  vacation _____ for people from The United States.
 A. target   B. connection   C. departure   D. destination
38. To the best of my ___________ , he married an Irish girl 
 A. retention   B. recall   C. memory    D. recollection
39. John has a monthly bank _______ sent to him so that he knows how much there is his account.
A. cheque B. balance C. statement D. overdraft
40. AIDS is a(n) ____________disease.
A. dangerous B. endanger C. danger D. Endangered
IV. GUIDED CLOZED TEST (10 PTS)
Passage A 
Read the text below and decide which answer  best fits each space.
            Although the act of writing a book is by necessity a (41) ___________process, it’s
often after publication that the sense of isolation is strongest. Many writers (42) ___________critical
feedback, but have little (43) ___________to the average reader’s opinion. While it may be true that good
reviews in newspapers and magazines can be gratifying, they’re of little help in establishing what ordinary
people think of your work. So, well done to those websites (44) ___________anyone with access to the
Internet can post an opinion about any book. (45) _______this, these customer reviews are not without risk.
                Most writers can (46) ___________some glowing praise from family or friends but these
reviews are easy to recognize since they tend to be sent in anonymously. On the other hand, visits to these
websites can also result in great anxiety. It might well be the (47) ___________that you receive an unkind
review and there is no kind editor to shield you. You can expect most reviewers to be brief but there are (48)
___________write long, strangely formal essays, usually containing references to classical literature,
presumably in (49)___________to impress others with their literary knowledge. If you are a (50)
___________author, I suggest you think twice before you go off searching for reviews on-line rather than in
the safer, traditional places.
41. A. lonely            B. solitary          C. alone                 D. own
42. A. long forB. wait on C. hope for D. expect for
43. A. approach B. reaching C. access D. interaction
44. A. where B. which C. who D. that
45. A. Said B. Having saidC. To have said D. Had said
46. A. hope B. expect C. look forward D. believe
47. A. situation B. circumstance C. case D. occasion
48. A. people B. those C. who D. those who
49. A. an attempt B. a tryC. effort D. an order
50. A. sensibleB. reasonable C. offensive D. sensitive
Passage B: Read the text below and decide which answer  best fits each space.
All plants rely on nutrients taken from the soil in order to survive. However, in areas where the soil does not
contain enough (51)_____nutrients, some plants have adapted to (52)_____their diets from another source:
living organisms. Though they are few in number, carnivorous plants are (53)_______fascinating beings that
 78

“eat” anything from one-celled organisms to insects in order to survive. They are commonly found in
marshlands. Carnivorous plants feature one of several types of "traps" to ensnare prey, which they consume
to make up for nutrients that may be missing from the soil. While there are over 400 species of carnivorous
plants in the world today, some arc more (54)______ than others.
The most well-known of these plants are the snap traps, which include the Venus flytrap. Snap traps are
easily identified by their leaves, which are separated into two lobes that have the ability to fold together.
Inside the lobes, the surface is covered with tiny hairs that are (55)______to movement. When the plant’s
prey brushes against the hairs, it triggers a closing mechanism that rapidly brings the two lobes together,
trapping the prey (56)_____inside. The response of the traps is phenomenal (57)______speed: the time
between triggering the hairs and snapping shut is less than a second. As the prey struggles inside the trap, it
only triggers more hairs, causing the leaves to tighten their (58)_____. The plant then secrets liquid
chemicals from special glands into the trap to dissolve the prey and absorb all of its nutrients. Besides the
Venus flytrap, only one other type of snap trap exists today, (59)______to as the waterwheel plant. The two
share a common ancestor and differ only in a few ways. For instance, the waterwheel is an aquatic plant,
while the flytrap is exclusively terrestrial. In addition, the flytrap feeds primarily on arthropods like spiders,
while the waterwheel lives (60)______simple invertebrates, like certain types of plankton.
51. A. critical B. vital C. crucial D. indispensable
52. A. modify B. enlarge C. augment D. supplement
53. A. nonetheless B. though C. contradictorily D. yet
54. A. Prevalent B. current C. domineering D. prevailing
55. A. vulnerable B. liable C. prone D. sensitive
56. A. closely B. securely C. irreplaceably D. steadily
57. A. in accordance with B. in preference to C. in regard to D. on merits of
58. A. first B. hold C. seizure D. grip
59. A. denote B. referred C. indicated D. implicated
60. A. off B. onto C. though D. with
V. READING COMPREHENSION (10 PTS)
Passage A: Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question.
Colors  are one of the most exciting experience in life. I love them, and they are just as important to me as
emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately related?
Colors directly affect your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of your emotions and is something
that you can use to improve or  change your emotions. The colour that you choose to wear either reflects
your current state of being, or reflects the colour or emotion that you need.
The colors that you wear affect you much more than they affect the people around you. Of course,  they also
affect who comes in contact with you, but you are the one saturated with the color all day! I even choose
items around me based on their color. In the morning, I choose my clothes based on the color or emotion that
I need for the day. So you can consciously use color to control the emotions that you are exposed to, which
can help you to feel better.
Color, sound, and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in emotion; they are meant to
move or to flow. This is the reason that real feeling are the fastest way to get your energy in emotion. Also,
flowing energy is exactly what creates healthy cells in your energy in your body. So, the fastest way to be
healthy is to open to your real feelings. Alternately, the fastest way to create disease is to inhibit your
emotion.
61. What is the main idea of the passage? 
A. Colors can help you become healthy.
B. Colorful clothes can change your mood 
C. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other 
D. Colors are one of the most exciting. 
62. According to the passage, what do color, sound, and emotion all have in common? 
A. They are all forms of motion B. None is correct 
C. They all affect the cells of the body D. They are all related to health 
63. The term "they" in paragraph 3 refers to 
A. none of these B. colors C. people D. emotions 
64. Why does the author mention that color and emotions are both vibrations? 
 79

A. Because vibrations make you healthy

B. Because they both affect how we feel. 
C. To prove the relationship between emotions and color. 
D. To show how color can affect energy levels in the body. 
65 The phrase "saturated with" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to 
A. covered with B. lacking in
C. bored with D. in need of 
Passage B: Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question
For many people who  live  in  cities,  parks are  an  important part of the  landscape.
They provide a place  for  people to  relax and play sports,  as well as a refuge  from  the often harsh
environment of a city. What people often overlook  is that parks also provide considerable environmental
benefits. 
One benefit of parks  is that plants absorb carbon dioxide-a key pollutant-and emit oxygen, which humans
need  to breathe. According  to one  study,  an  acre  of  trees  can  absorb  the  same  amount  of carbon 
dioxide that a typical car emits  in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler.  Scientists have 
long noted what  is called the Urban  Heat  Island  Effect:  building materials  such  as metal,  concrete,  and 
asphalt  absorb much more  of the sun's  heat and  release  it much more quickly than  organic surfaces  like 
trees  and  grass. Because city  landscapes contain  so much  of  these  building  materials,  cities  are 
usually warmer  than  surrounding  rural  areas.  Parks  and other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban
Heat Island Effect. 
Unfortunately,  many  cities  cannot  easily  create  more  parks  because most  land  is  already  being  used 
for  buildings,  roads,  parking  lots,  and  other essential  parts  of  the  urban  environment.  However, 
cities  could  benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging  citizens  to create another
type  of green  space:  rooftop gardens. While most people would  not  think of starting  a garden on  their
roof,  human  beings  have  been  planting gardens  on  rooftops  for  thousands  of  years.  Some  rooftop 
gardens  are  very  complex  and  require  complicated engineering,  but others are simple container gardens
that anyone can  create with  the  investment of a few hundred  dollars and a few hours of work.  
Rooftop  gardens  provide many  of the  same  benefits  as  other  urban  park  and  garden  spaces,  but
without taking  up  the  much-needed  land.  Like  parks,  rooftop  gardens  help  to  replace  carbon  dioxide 
in  the  air  with nourishing  oxygen.  They also help  to  lessen  the Urban Heat  Island Effect, which  can 
save  people money.  In  the summer,  rooftop  gardens  prevent  buildings  from  absorbing  heat  from  the 
sun,  which  can significantly  reduce cooling  bills.  In  the winter,  gardens help hold  in  the heat  that
materials  like brick and  concrete  radiate  so quickly, leading  to  savings  on  heating  bills.  Rooftop 
vegetable  and  herb  gardens  can  also  provide  fresh  food  for  city dwellers,  saving  them money and
making  their diets healthier.  Rooftop gardens are  not only something everyone can enjoy,  they are also a
smart environmental investment. 
66. Based on its use in paragraph 2,  it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of  the following word
groups? 
A.  exacerbate, aggravate,  intensify  B.  obliterate, destroy, annihilate 
C.  allay,  alleviate,  reduce  D.  absorb,  intake, consume 
67. Based  on  the  information  in  paragraph  3,  which  of the  following  best describes  the main
difference between parks and  rooftop gardens? 
A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not. 
B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private. 
C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not. 
D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not. 
68. The author claims all of  the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except _____ .  
A.  increased space for private ·relaxation 
B.  savings on heating and cooling costs 
C.  better food for city dwellers 
D.  improved air quality 
69. According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they _____ . 
A.  decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect    B.  replenish the air with nourishing oxygen 
C. do not require the use of valuable urban  land  D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces 
 80

70. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program that_____ .
A.  permitted the construction of buildings  in city park land provided they have rooftop gardens 
B.  extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens 
C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city park 
D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped  in the city at the peak of
summer
Passage C: 
THE BIRTH OF SUBURBIA 
A. There is no single pivotal moment that could be separated out from any other as the conception of the
suburban lifestyle; from the early 1800s, various types of suburban development have sprung up and evolved
in their own localised ways, from the streetcar suburbs of New York to the dormitory towns outside of
London. It is William Levitt, however, who is generally regarded as the father of modern suburbia. During
World War II, Levitt served in the United States Navy where he developed expertise in the mass
construction of military housing, a process that he streamlined using uniform and interchangeable parts. In
1947, the budding developer used this utilitarian knowledge to begin work with his father and architect
brother constructing a planned community on Long Island, New York. With an emphasis on speed,
efficiency, and cost-effective production, the Levitts were soon able to produce over 30 units a day. 
B. William Levitt correctly predicted the demand for affordable, private, quiet, and comfortable homes from
returning Gls after World War II and with the baby boom starting to kick in. All the original lots sold out in
a matter of days, and by 1951, nearly 18,000 homes in the area had been constructed by the Levitt & Sons
Company. Levittown quickly became the prototype of mass-produced housing, spurring the construction of
similar projects in Pennsylvania, New Jersey, and even Puerto Rico, followed by a new industry, and soon a
new way of life and a new ideal for the American family. 
C. One of the major criticisms of suburbia is that it can lead to isolation and social dislocation. With
properties spread out over great swathes of land, sealed off from one another by bushes, fences and trees, the
emphasis of suburban life is placed squarely on privacy rather than community. In the densely populated
urban settlements that predated suburbs (and that are still the foremost way of life for some people),
activities such as childcare and household chores as well as sources of emotional and moral support were
widely socialised. This insured that any one family would be able to draw on a pool of social resources from
their neighbours, building cohabitants and family on nearby streets. Suburbia breaks these networks down
into individual and nuclear family units resulting in an increase in anti-social behaviour even amongst the
wealthy. Teens from wealthy suburban families, for example, are more likely to smoke, drink alcohol, and
use drugs than their poorer urban peers, and are also more likely to experience depression and anxiety. 
D. Another major problem with the suburban lifestyle is its damaging ecological impact. The comparison of
leafy, quiet, and low-density suburbs with life in the concrete towers of sooty, congested urban conurbations
is actually quite misleading; as it turns out, if you want to be kind to the natural environment, the key is to
stay away from it. Suburbia fails the environmental friendliness test on a number of counts. Firstly, due to
their low population density, suburbs consume natural land at a much higher rate than high-density row
housing or apartment buildings. Secondly, they encourage the use of personal motor vehicles, often at a rate
of one per family member, at the expense of public transport. It is also much less efficient to provide
electricity and water to individual suburban houses instead of individual units in an apartment building. In
his comparison of urban and suburban pollution, Edward L. Glaeser concluded that we need to “build more
sky towers – especially in California”. Virtually everywhere, he found cities to be cleaner than suburbs. And
the difference in carbon dioxide emissions between high-density cities and their suburbs (for example, in
New York) was the highest. Urban residents of New York can claim on average to produce nearly 15,000
pounds of carbon dioxide less than their suburban peers. 
E. Another negative aspect of suburban life is its stifling conformity and monotony of social experience. It
was not just the nuts and bolts and the concrete foundations of suburban houses that got replicated street
upon street, block upon block, and suburb upon suburb; it was everything from the shops and cultural life to
people’s hopes, dreams, and aspirations. Suburbia gave birth to the “strip mall”, a retail establishment that is
typically composed of a collection of national or global chain stores, all stocked with a centrally dictated,
homogenous array of products. The isolation and lack of interaction in suburbs has also encouraged the
popularity of television, a passively receptive medium for the viewer that, in the early days at least, offered
an extremely limited scope of cultural exposure compared with the wealth of experiences available in the
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inner city. Meanwhile, much of the inner-city “public sphere” has been lost with suburban flight. The public
sphere is the area of social life in which people come together to freely discuss and identify social problems.
In the city, this has traditionally occurred around newsstands, in coffee houses, salons, theatres, meeting
halls, and so on. Suburbia has not found a way to replace this special type of social experience, however.
Social meeting points in the suburbs tend to be based exclusively around specific interests such as sports or
cultural clubs, with no broad forms of daily social interaction. 
F. These points do not suggest the idea of suburbia itself is flawed, but that it has not been executed in a way
that takes into account the full spectrum of human needs and desires. This likely reflects the hasty, thrown-
together nature of early suburban development. With the baby boom rippling across Western countries and
demand for family-friendly housing skyrocketing, developers and city planners were unable to develop
sophisticated models. Now, however, we should take time to consider what has gone wrong and how we can
reconfigure the suburb. How can we imbue suburban life with the lost sphere of public discussion and
debate? How can people maintain their sought-after privacy without sacrificing a sense of community? How
can we use new technologies to make suburbs environmentally friendly? These are questions for which the
developers of tomorrow will have to find answers in case the dream of suburbia becomes the nightmare of
disturbia. 
For questions 71–75, locate the paragraph in which the following information is mentioned. Write the
letter of each paragraph in the corresponding boxes. 
71. A motive in constructing taller buildings
72. Where people might discuss issues of societal concern in urban locations
73. The founder of what is broadly understood as contemporary ‘suburbs’
74. Examples of problems suffered by the youth that suburban lifestyle can make worse 
75. A model for suburban development in the latter half of the 20th century 
For questions 76-80, decide whether each of the following statements is 
T if the statement agrees with the information or
F if the statement contradicts the information or
NG if there is no information on this

76. A good principle for ecological preservation is to avoid human interference. 

77. Suburban development fosters the use of both public and private forms of transport. 
78. People cannot relate to each other in suburbs because their lives are too different.
79. There is not much variety amongst the goods at a strip mall. 
80. There are no ways for people to get together and interact in suburbs. 
B. WRITTEN TEST  (70PTS)
I. CLOZE TEST (20 PTS)
Passage A : Use only one word for each space:
It can take a long time to become successful in your chosen field, however talented you are. One thing you
have to be (81) _______ of is that you will face criticism along the way. The world is (82)_________ of
people who would rather say something negative than positive. If you’ve made up your (83)_______ to
achieve a certain goal, such as writing a novel, don’t let the negative criticism of others prevent you
(84)____________ reaching your target, and let the constructive criticism have a positive effect on your
work. If someone says you’re totally in the (85)______ of talent, ignore them. That’s negative criticism. If
(86), __________, someone advises you to revise your work and gives you a good reason for doing so, you
should consider their suggestions carefully. There are many film stars (87)__________ were once out of
work . There are many famous novelists who made a complete mess of their first novel – or who didn’t, but
had to keep on approaching hundreds of publishers before they could get it (88) ________. Being successful
does depend on luck, to a (89)________ extent. But things are more likely to turn (90) ________ well if you
persevere and stay positive.
Passage A : Use only one word for each space:
Society has changed in many ways since the introduction of computers, and people's lives at home
and at the office have been (91) ________ . Most people are working for fewer hours per week than they
(92) ________ to, and manufacturers and advertising agencies are becoming much more interested in (93)
________ people spend this extra leisure time. One recent report stated that (94) ________ the number of
hobbies had not increased; each hobby had become more specialized.A second (95) ________ is that
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nowadays, many managers would rather spend time with their families than stay (96) ________ in the office
every day. Home life seems to be just as important as working. Some companies now make managers
(97)________ their annual holidays even if they don't want to, because this leads to such an (98)________ in
their performance if they have some rest. 
In spite of these changes, some people are working harder than ever before. The standard of exams is
getting higher, and increased competition is (99) ________ it harder to get into university than it was 20
years ago. School children and students are now having to work so hard that in many cases they work (100)
________ hours than their parents. 
II. WORD FORMATION (20 PTS) 
PART 1: Complete each sentence, using the correct form of the word in parentheses. 
101. Different conservation efforts have been made in order to save ________species.  (DANGER)
102.Low income and little administrative support make teachers ________with their proffession. (HEART)
103. Our school set up a project to ________the library system.  (COMPUTER)
104. He examined the parcel ________, as he had no idea what it would be. (SUSPECT) suspiciously
105.The first time I tried out my new  bike I ________and fell off. ( BALANCE)
106. The illitaracy rate on the island is still ________high. (ACCEPT)
107. My company has spent a lot of money building a new_______________factory which will nearly
double production.   (COMPUTER)
108. Fishing is said to be the most popular ……….. sport in the UK. (PARTICIPANT)
109. As a result of this conflict, he lost both his home and his means of ________ (LIFE)
110. She thinks he’s wonderful – oh well, there’s no ________for taste. (ACCOUNT)

EAT MORE FRUIT AND VEGETABLES

A recent report on the (000. EAT) eating habits of children in Britain suggests that children from the age of
three to sixteen show a strong (111. LIKE) ______ for vegetables and only eat
 (112. SUFFICE) ______ amount of fruit and vegetables at Christmas. One researcher says not eating (113.
PROPER) ______ may have serious consequences on a child’s (114. SPEAK) ______ and physical
development, resulting in poorer performance at school. One (115. SOLVE) ______ is to give children extra
iron and vitamins but in the long run it is more (116. EFFECT) _______ if children get the right ingredients
in their (117. DAY) ______ diet. (118. FORTUNATE) ______ parents choose food for their children that is
quick and (119. CONVENIENCE) ______ to prepare, rather than food which is fresh and healthy. 
(120. CONSEQUENCE) ______ it is difficult later to get children to change their habits.
III. ERROR CORRECTION (10 PTS)
Find and correct 10 errors that the following passage contains. Underline the error and write the
correction in the space provided. (0) is an example.
An endangered species is a population of an organism who -> which is at risk of becoming extinct because it
is both few in numbers, or threatened by changed environmental or predation parameters. An endangered
species is usually a taxonomic species, though may be another evolutionary significant unit. The World
Conservation Union (IUCN) was calculated the percentage of endangered species as 40 percent of all
organisms based at the sample of species that have been evaluating through 2006. Many nations have laws
offering protection to this species: for example, forbidding hunting, restricting land development or creating
preserves. Only a little of the many species at risk of extinction actually make it to the lists and obtain legally
protection. Much more species become extinct, or potentially will become extinct, without gaining public
note.
IV.SENTENCES TRANSFORMATION (40 PTS)
1. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given
131. I can’t wait to go on holiday.   FORWARD
→ I’m really_________________________________on holiday.
132. Rosa found it very difficul to persuade her boss to give her a pay rise.         GREAT 
→ Rosa had____________________________________________________
133. The stadium was always full on the day of the cupfinal.   USED
→The stadium________________________________ full on the day of the cupfinal.
134.She is proud of being able to communicate in English effectively   PRIDES 
 83

She prides____________________________________________________
135. The best solution was thought of by Mary. CAME
 🡪____________________________________________________
136. If you changed your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
    → Were you______________________________________________________ 
137. The phone stopped ringing the moment I got down stairs. 
→ No sooner _______________________________________________
138. Waiting for buses irritates me.
  →  Waiting for______________________________________________________
139. The house looks better since the repainting was done.
→  The house looks better now__________________________________________
140. He managed to get out of the car although his leg was broken.
→ In spite _______________________________________________
THE END

ĐỀ 15
ĐỀ THI VÀ ĐÁP ÁN
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 PTS)
I. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (5 pts) 
Choose the best option to complete the following sentences
1. ________, the diners settled the bill and left the restaurant.
A. Having hunger satisfied B. Their hunger satisfied
C. Hunger been satisfied D. Satisfying their hunger
2. Her parents died when she was a baby, so I ________ family she ever had.
A. was all the B. was the whole
C. was nothing but the D. was everything of the
3. There weren’t many vegetarian dishes ________, although there were several different kinds of cheese.
A. like that B. as such C. such that D. such like
4. It’s a horrible irony, but a bully has to know his victim well ________ effective; it’s almost impossible to
bully strangers.
A. if being B. to be C. in order to D. if they are
5. You can no more swim than I can fly. The sentence means: ________.
A. Both of us can’t swim or fly B. You can never swim, which I am sure of.
C. Either you or I can fly D. You can swim as I can fly
6. It was such a loud noise _______ everyone in the house
A. as to wake B. that to wake C. so as to wake D. that waking
7. Little Deon: “This herb smells horrible!” Mommy: _______, it will do you a power of good. 
A. Be that as it may B. Come what may
C. How much horrible is it D. Whatever it smells
8. Stars differ fundamentally from planets ________ they are self-luminous whereas planets shine by
reflected light.
A. from which B. when C. and D. in that
9. ________, the meeting stops here. 
A. If no question being asked B. Without any question, however
C. No questions asked D. There being no question
10. ________ hundreds of people dead during the evacuation from the war-torn area in the Middle East.
A. It is estimated to be B. There is estimated to be
C. There are estimated to be   D. It is estimated that
II. PHRASAL VERBS AND PREPOSITIONS (5 pts) 
Choose the best option to complete the following sentences
11. The kids are _________ in the steam-filled room, and the girl seems grateful for adult conversation.
A. impinging on B. larking about C. ploughing ahead D.  floating out
 84

12. Both the favourite and then the second favourite pulled out. Naturally, we thought we were _________ a
chance. 
A. in with       B   up for         C in for        D.  up with
13. The man in the market was selling leather coats very cheaply: they were such bargains that were soon
______.
A. cleared off B.done for C.bought out D. snapped up
14. Our teacher tends to ______ certain subjects which she finds difficult to talk about
A. boil down B.string along C. skate over D.track down
15. He likes nothing better than to spend his Sunday mornings _________ in the gardens.
A. pottering about B. hanging around C. whiling away D. winding down
16. James kept trying to _________ his duties, but his manager told him if he didn’t start taking
responsibility for his work he would have to leave the company.
A. beaver away B. weasel out of C. chicken out of D. clam up
17. As Joe's roommate, I find him a fairly nice fellow, even if at times it is not easy to _________ his noisy
behavior.  
A. put up with B. look up to C. get on with D. catch up with 
18. The lottery winner was willing to spend a considerable sum of money to ______ to charity to help those
in need.
A. give away B. take off C. bring about D. come across  
19. The company management decided to _______ more workers to meet the production schedule.
A. take on B. take over C. make up D. make out
20. You are going to need her help. If I were you, I’d ___________ a bit. I’d try to get her on my side, you
know what I mean.
A. soap her down B. oil her over C. butter her up D. grease her out
III. VOCABULARY (10 pts) 
Choose the best option to complete the following sentences
21. She ________ agreed to go with him to the football match although she had no interest in the game at all.
A. apologetically B. grudgingly C. shamefacedly D. discreetly
22. Having lost her mother at an early age, Mary felt she had become a mere _______, having to do
absolutely everything for her five brothers and sisters.
A. taskmaster B. workmate C. slavedriver D. workhorse
23. After the hurricane, all that was left of our house was a pile of _______.
A. rabble B. rubble C. ramble D. rumble
24. Fighting among rebel soldiers ________ last night and a curfew has now been imposed on the city.
A. enhanced B. aggravated C. heightened D. intensified
25. If there happened to be both rich and poor people, as there happen to be both black and white ones, then
the advantages of the _______ might well spread in time to the hard-up.
A. well-heeled B. big-hearted C. open-handed D. tight-fisted
26. His talent meant he could create wondrous things, but his _______ meant he hardly ever felt like
working.
A. adversity B. lethargy C. inepitude D. tactlessness
27. The local authorities annually ______ between £50 million and £100 million on arts projects.
A. disperse B. disband C. disburse D. dispose
28. Julie felt unfairly ______ when she spoke out against a company proposal and the entire staff team
turned against her.
A prosecuted B. persecuted C. oppressed D. suppressed
29. Everyone was living off tens of thousands of years of accumulated groundwater, like a ______ heir
squandering his wealth.
A. stingy B. miserly C. spendthrift D. penny- pincher
30. Serena is still _______ ignorant of the fact that she is about to be made redundant. 
A. blissfully B. decorously C. jubilantly D. ecstatically
31. Two friends Peter and Linda are talking about pet.
- Peter: “Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house.”
- Linda: “______.”
 85

A. Nothing more to B. You can say that again.

say.
C. Yes, I hope so. D. No, dogs are very good, too.
32: The previous negotiations did not go anywhere, and we intend to start them again next week with a
______ slate.
A. new B. C. clean D. fresh
plain
33: The goal is to make higher education available to everyone who is willing and capable ________ his
financial situation.
A. with reference to B. owing to C. regardless of D. in terms of
34. Even if you are rich, you should save some money for a_____________________day.
  A. windy         B. foggy   C. snowy         D. rainy 
35. It was a fantastic film. I enjoyed it ................
  A. endlessly         B. unendingly   C. without end         D. no end
36. When the children .............. their toys, I donated them to charity.
  A. outlasted         B. outdated     C. outgrew         D. outwore
37. I was in the ______ of despair before I heard the good news.
  A. depths         B. profundities     C. bottoms         D. holes
38. When are we going to get rid of all these empty cartons? They've been ................... up the office for
weeks now.
   A. buttering B. clutching C. cluttering D. botching
39. The luxurious office accentuated the manager's position ................... . It enhanced his power and his
sense of his own worth. And it made other people feel small.
   A. on the pecking pole B. in the nibbling line  C. at the nipping post  D. in the pecking order
6. I tried to .................. my disappointment at losing by cheering the winner loudly.
  A. hide B. shield C. veil D. mask
IV. GUIDED CLOZE (10 PTS) 
Read the text below and decide which answer best fits
Cloze test 1: 
In the north-west corner of the island paradise Isla Perlita, nestling in the shadow of Mount Machu, lies the
sleepy village of San Lorenzo. Off the beaten (41) _______, there is nothing out of the ordinary about this
quaint little village -nothing, that is, apart from the magnificent (42) _______ Bay Hotel. The Bay, as it is
known locally, is a recent development catering for (43) _______travellers who enjoy luxury holiday-
making. Famous throughout the island for the outstanding quality of its accommodation and the excellence
of its cuisine, the Bay (44) _______ 30 guest suites, each with a charm and character of its own. Each suite
looks (45) _______ Falmer Beach, commanding breathtaking views of the four miles of white sand, which
gently shelves into the (46) _______ clear waters of the Crepuscan Sea. At the heart of the Bay Hotel is
personal, efficient and unobtrusive service. (47) _______ staff anticipate your every need in an atmosphere
of quiet professionalism and genuine friendliness. (48) _______ , the Bay Hotel is a place to get
(49)_______ from the stresses of everyday life, and whether it is (50)_______ away the hours soaking up the
sun or taking advantage of the wide range of recreational activities that the hotel has on offer, you can be
sure that a holiday at the Bay truly is the holiday of a lifetime. 
41. A. path B. track C. road D. way
42. A. starred B. stars C. star D. starring
43. A. disconcerting B. discerning C. distinctive D. discriminated
44. A. announces B. claims C. asserts D. boasts
45. A. back on B. onto C. into D. down
46. A. crystal B. sky C. diamond D. pearl
47. A. Preoccupied B. Attentive C. Concentrated D. Undivided
48. A. All over B. For all C. Above all D. All along
49. A. out B. over C. off D. away
50. A. whiling B. wearing C. wending D. winding
Cloze test 2: 
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Oxford is a city with such a mind-blowing reputation that many who come here find themselves intimidated
by the place and can’t wait to leave, while others, taking to it like a duck to water, find themselves returning
again and again. The college lawns provide a gorgeous (51) ______ to serious study, and in the right light,
on a sunny winter’s morning say, one feels as if one is (52) ______ on air, such is the sense of unreality.
Oxford may like to (53) ______ that it is at the intellectual hub of things, but in many ways it is no more
than a sleepy (54) ______where, to mix metaphors, transitory students, the (55) ______of their generation,
wait in the (56) ______, allowing their talents to (57) ______ before moving off into the industrial or
political fast-lane. Much of this is a myth, of course. Hardship and hard work are very much part and (58)
______ of student life. The (59) ______ get through the three years’ hard grind by simply putting their
shoulders to the wheel before going on to fairly average jobs. Only for the tiny minority is Oxford the first
(60) ______ on the ladder to fame and fortune.
51. A. backdrop B. curtain C. scene D. screen 
52. A flying B. gliding C. floating D. swimming
53. A. pretend B. act C. dissemble D. produce 
54. A. backwater B. stream C. tributary D. watershed
55. A. froth B. cream C. fat D. caviar
56. A. pavilion B. dressing room C. wings D. foyer
57. A. flourish B. open C. spread D. float
58. A. package B. section C. province D. parcel 
59. A. level-headed B. hot-headed C. hot-blooded D. kind-hearted 
60. A. step B. position C. elevation D. ascent
 V. Reading Comprehension (10 pts) Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question
PASSAGE A
Instructors at American colleges and universities use many different teaching methods. Some instructors
give assignments every day. They grade homework. Students in their classes have to take many quizzes, a
midterm exam, and a final test. Other instructors give only writing assignments. Some teachers always
follow a course outline and usually use the textbooks. Others send students to the library for assignments.
The atmosphere in some classrooms is very formal. Students call their instructors “Professor Smith”, “Mrs.
Jones”, and so on. Some teachers wear business clothes and give lectures. Other classrooms have an
informal atmosphere. Students and teachers discuss their ideas. Instructors dress informally, and students
call them by their first names. American teachers are not alike in their teaching styles.
At most American colleges and universities, facilities for learning and recreation are available to students.
Students can often use recorders, video machines, and computers at libraries and learning centres. They can
buy books, notebooks, and other things at campus stores. They can get advice on their problems from
counsellors and individual help with their classes from tutors. Students can relax and have fun on campus,
too. Some schools have swimming pools and tennis courts. Most have snack bars or cafeterias.
(Source. Adapted from http://www.ukedu.org) 
61.  What is the main idea of the first paragraph? 
A. Ways of teaching B. Ways of giving assignments 
C. Ways of using the textbook D. Ways of taking an exam 
62.  What does the phrase “business clothes” in paragraph 2 mean? 
A. trendy clothes B. casual clothes 
C. formal clothes D. clothes for business people 
63.  Where do students and teachers discuss their idea? 
A. At learning centers B. In classrooms with formal atmosphere 
C. In classrooms with informal atmosphere D. At libraries 
64.  What can’t students do at most American colleges and universities? 
A. They can’t buy anything at campus stores. 
B. They can’t use the computers that are linked to libraries. 
C.They can’t ask their counselors and tutors for advice. 
D.They can’t have tutors and counselors solved their problems. 
65.  Which of the following statements is NOT true about schools in America? 
A. They offer sports and leisure facilities for students. 
B. They have no recreation facilities.
 87

C. They are well-equipped. 

D. They have stores on campus. 
PASSAGE B
May 7, 1840, was the birthday of one of the most famous Russian composers of the nineteenth
century Peter Illich Tchaikovsky. The son of a mining inspector, Tchaikovsky studied music as a child and
later studied composition at the St. Petersburg Conservatory. His greatest period of productivity occurred
between 1876 and 1890, during which time he enjoyed the patronage of Madame von Meck, a woman he
never met, who gave him a living stipend of about $1,000.00 a year. Madame von Meck later terminated
her friendship with Tchaikovsky, as well as his living allowance, when she, herself, was facing financial
difficulties. It was during the time of Madame von Meck's patronage, however, that Tchaikovsky created the
music for which he is most famous, including the music for the ballets of Swan Lake and The Sleeping
Beauty. 
Tchaikovsky's music, well known for its rich melodic and sometimes melancholy passages, was one of the
first that brought serious dramatic music to dance. Before this, little attention had been given to the music
behind the dance. Tchaikovsky died on November 6, 1893, ostensibly of cholera, though there are now
some scholars who argue that he committed suicide.
66. With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?
A. development of Tchaikovsky's music for ballets
B. Tchaikovsky's relationship with Madame Von Meck
C. the life and music of Tchaikovsky
D. the cause of Tchaikovsky's death
67. The phrase "enjoyed the patronage of" probably means _________
A. solicited the advice of B. was financially dependent upon
C. liked the company of D. was mentally attached to
68.  According to the passage, all of the following describe Madame von Meck EXCEPT ______.
A. She was generous. B. She enjoyed Tchaikovsky's music.
C. She was never introduced to Tchaikovsky. D. She had economic troubles.
69. According to the passage, for what is Tchaikovsky's music most well known?
A. the ballet-like quality of the musicB. its lively, capricious melodies
C. the richness and melodic drama of the music D. its repetitive and monotonous tones
70. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Tchaikovsky's unhappiness leading to suicide B. the patronage of Madame von Meck
C. Tchaikovsky's influence on ballet music D. Tchaikovsky's productivity in composing
PASSAGE C
1) There has, in recent years, been an outpouring of information about the impact of buildings on the natural
environment; Information which explains and promotes green and sustainable construction design, strives to
convince others of its efficacy and warns of the dangers of ignoring the issue. Seldom do these documents
offer any advice to practitioners, such as those designing mechanical and electrical systems for a building,
on how to utilise this knowledge on a practical level. 

2) While the terms green and sustainable are often considered synonymous, in that they both symbolise
nature, green does not encompass all that is meant by sustainability, which can be defined as minimizing the
negative impacts of human activities on the natural environment, in particular those which have long-term
and irreversible effects. Some elements of green design may be sustainable too, for example those which
reduce energy usage and pollution, while others, such as ensuring internal air quality, may be considered
green despite having no influence on the ecological balance.  

3) Although there are a good many advocates of ‘green’ construction in the architectural industry, able to
cite ample reasons why buildings should be designed in a sustainable way, not to mention a plethora of
architectural firms with experience in green design, this is not enough to make green construction come into
being. The driving force behind whether a building is constructed with minimal environmental impact lies
with the owner of the building; that is, the person financing the project. If the owner considers green design
unimportant, or of secondary importance, then more than likely, it will not be factored into the design.
 88

4) The commissioning process plays a key role in ensuring the owner gets the building he wants, in terms of
design, costs and risk. At the predesign stage, the owner’s objectives, criteria and the type of design
envisaged are discussed and documented. This gives a design team a solid foundation on which they can
build their ideas, and also provides a specific benchmark against which individual elements, such as costs,
design and environmental impact can be judged.

5) Owners who skip the commissioning process, or fail to take ‘green’ issues into account when doing so,
often come a cropper once their building is up and running. Materials and equipment are installed as
planned, and, at first glance, appear to fulfil their purpose adequately. However, in time, the owner realises
that operational and maintenance costs are higher than necessary, and that the occupants are dissatisfied with
the results. These factors in turn lead to higher ownership costs as well as increased environmental impact.

6) In some cases, an owner may be aware of the latest trends in sustainable building design. He may have
done research into it himself, or he may have been informed of the merits of green design through early
discussion with professionals. However, firms should not take it as read that someone commissioning a
building already has a preconceived idea of how green he intends the structure to be. Indeed, this initial
interaction between owner and firm is the ideal time for a designer to outline and promote the ways that
green design can meet the client’s objectives, thus turning a project originally not destined for green design
into a potential candidate.

7) Typically, when considering whether or not to adopt a green approach, an owner will ask about additional
costs, return for investment and to what extent green design should be the limiting factor governing
decisions in the design process. (1) Many of these costs are incurred by the increased cooperation between
the various stakeholders, such as the owner, the design professionals, contractors and end-users. (2)
However, in green design, they must be involved from the outset, since green design demands interaction
between these disciplines. (3) This increased coordination clearly requires additional expenditure. (4) A
client may initially balk at these added fees, and may require further convincing of the benefits if he is to
proceed. It is up to the project team to gauge the extent to which a client wants to get involved in a green
design project and provide a commensurate service.

8) Of course, there may be financial advantage for the client in choosing a greener design. Case studies cite
examples of green/sustainable designs which have demonstrated lower costs for long-term operation,
ownership and even construction. Tax credits and rebates are usually available on a regional basis for
projects with sustainable design or low emissions, among others.

71. The writer’s main purpose is to: 

A. explain to professionals how they can influence clients to choose greener designs.
B. explain the importance of green building design in reducing long-term damage to the environment
C. explain to owners commissioning a building why ignoring green issues is costly and dangerous.
D. explain to professionals why it is important to follow the correct procedures when a building is
commissioned.
72. The examples of green and sustainable designs given in paragraph 2 show that:
A. designs must be sustainable in order for them to be described as green. 
B. for the purposes of this paper, the terms green and sustainable have the same meaning. 
C. some sustainable designs are green, while others are not. 
D. some designs are termed green, even though they are not sustainable. 
73. According to paragraph 3, the reason for the lack of green buildings being designed is that:
A. few firms have any experience in design and constructing buildings to a green design. 
B. construction companies are unaware of the benefits of green and sustainable designs. 
C. firms do not get to decide whether a building is to be constructed sustainably. 
D. firms tend to convince clients that other factors are more important than sustainability. 
74. In paragraph 4, what does the word ‘benchmark’ mean?
A. standard B. target C. process D. comparision
75. Which of the following is NOT true about the commissioning process?
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A. It is conducted before the building is designed. 

B. It is a stage that all clients go through when constructing a building. 
C. It is a step in the design procedure in which the client’s goals are identified. 
D. It provides the firm with a measure of how well they did their job. 
76. In paragraph 5, what does the phrase ‘come a cropper’ mean?
A. experience misfortune B. change one’s mind 
C. notice the benefits D. make a selection 
77. In paragraph 6, the writer implies that: 
A. most clients enter the commissioning process with a clear idea of whether or not they want a green
building. 
B. designers are usually less concerned about green design than the clients are. 
C. the commissioning process offers a perfect opportunity to bring up the subject of green design. 
D. firms should avoid working with clients who reject green designs in their buildings. 
78. Where in paragraph 7 does this sentence belong?
In a typical project, landscape architects and mechanical, electrical and plumbing engineers do not become
involved until a much later stage.
A. (1) B. (2) C. (3) D. (4) 
79. In paragraph 7, what does ‘balk at’ mean?
A. display shock towards B. agree to pay 
C. question the reason for D. understand the need for 
80. Green buildings are most likely to incur more expense than conventional buildings due to: 
A. higher taxes incurred on sustainable buildings. 
B. higher long-term operational costs. 
C. the higher cost of green construction materials. 
D. increased coordination between construction teams.
B. WRITTEN TEST (70 PTS)
I. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE WORD for each
space. 
Cloze test 1 (10 pts)
    For many people doing physical exercise may entail a (81) ______ torturing of the body. Unless we are
forced to go in for a physical training, we are inclined to treat it as something of a lower (82) ______ than
staying in front of the TV set, spending time in a pub sipping alcoholic beverages or consuming excessive
quantities of fattening confectionery in a cafe. What usually repels individuals from committing (83) ______
to strenuous exercise is the fear of fatigue, discomfort or even the inhibitions of being (84) ______ by true
fitness zealots.
   However, getting fit is fully a (85) ______ of common sense. Different forms of exercise may be of great
benefit to the human body increasing its strength, flexibility and endurance. When supported by a nutritious
(86) ______, much better performance of the heart and the lungs improves the blood circulation making an
individual more (87) ______ to stressful situations as well as more (88) ______ to infections and diseases.
In the first place, self-discipline that is requisite for proceeding with (89) ______ physical effort ought to be
attained to ensure that the intention of becoming healthier and more vigorous isn’t (90) ______ by any trivial
impediments.
Cloze test 2 (10 pts)
    Sad as it is, a social misperception of the disabled is still (91) ______ in many communities. It is only in a
few highly-civilised states where the problems and needs of people with physical or mental incapacities are
given the proper (92) ______. 
In the remaining countries, the discrimination against the disabled is still practiced in many areas of social
life. As in the past, they are ignored, denounced and forced to stay away from the normal community which,
unfortunately, isn’t capable of making any (93) ______ for its less fit members.
For decades, the hale and hearty (94) ______ of every society has stripped the disabled of their fundamental
rights as their job applications have been turned down, their active participation in business life has on most
(95) ______ been disallowed and there has been little concern for their convenience in access to public
transport. Equally little effort has been made to help the disabled fully (96) ______ with the able-bodied thus
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laying foundations for greater community awareness of the drawbacks that the handicapped have to wrestle
(97) ______ daily.
There’s an urgent need to offer the disabled more adequate assistance and support in their struggle for
putting their basic rights into (98) ______. The key principle is that the stereotyped approach towards the
impaired individuals ought to be (99) ______ for a more considerate one. Another pressing matter is that the
disabled shouldn’t be appraised on the basis of their handicap, but society should rather focus on providing
them with complete acceptance (100) ______ of any imperfections thus treating them as fully-fledged
citizens.
II. Word formation (20 pts)
Part 1: Supply the correct form of the words in the CAPITAL LETTER  (10pts) 
101. They were enraged at the _______ of a policeman accused of murder. (ACQUIT)
102. The individuality, immediacy and _______ in computer games satisfy the needs from these people.
(MIMIC)
103. His cartoons _______ lampooned the leading politicians of his time. (MERCY)
mercilessly: không thương tiếc
104. We are disappointed by her approaching this matter so _______. (AMATEUR)
105. It was sheer _______ to try to drive through the mountains in that thunderstorm. (SANE)
106. He is a totally _______ person who deliberately defies all standards. (MORAL)
107. The _______ nations carved up the defeated country into several parts,each taking an equal share.
(VICTORY)
108. They have a duty to set the record straight, otherwise they are conniving at _______. (FALSE)
109. Cancer is perceived as a heterogeneous group of diseases that is characterized by _______ patterns of
gene expression. (ERR)
110. She did not reply, but sat with crimson cheeks and _______ eyes. (CAST)
PART 2: Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the line to formaword that fits in the gap
in the same line.
concur             set               register               local                 fluctuate          occur               alarm
                                  intense             observe              convincible
There is now, by and large, (111) __________ among scientists that Global Warming is real. The fact that an
average surface temperature rise of approximately one degree was (112) ____________ during the 20th
century, in addition to the fact that the rate of warming (113) ______ in the latter half of same and was
nearly double that of the first 50 years to (114) ____________ most scientists. Climate proxies also suggest
that, with the exception of (115) ________ warming and cooling events such as Europe’s Little Ice Age, this
is the first significant and prolonged temperature (116) _______ in the best part of 2000 years on a global
level. Further evidence in support of the warming hypothesis comes by way of the fact that, also during the
20th century, a considerate rise in sea levels was (117) ____________, and, across both hemispheres,
southern and northern, glaciers went into retreat and remain so. Oceanic warming, albeit gradual up to now,
has also been confirmed, and the (118) _________ rate of melting of polar ice, coupled with a general rise in
humidity and the increasing early (119) ______ of spring each year are factors the likelihood of the
simultaneous coincidental (120) ______ of which scientists say is virtually nil.
III. Error Correction (10 PTS)
Find and correct 10 errors that the following passage contains. Underline the error and write the correction in
the space provided.
The role of the traditional  zoo,  inheriting  from  the  19th  century,  has  undergone a dramatic shift.  A
growing recognition  that  zoos  ought  to  be undergone a dramatic shift.  A growing  recognition  that  zoos 
ought  to  be  in  the  vanguard of  the fight  for  the  devastation  of  our  natural  world  has  begun  a 
zoologic revolution. The change occurred in the 1960s, when the Jersey zoo was set off to breed endangered
species.  As a result, the breeding  of  animals  in  captive  has  become  a  complex science,  with  zoos 
around  the  world  co-coordinating  their efforts  to  avoid  the  genetic dangers of in-breeding small
populations.
The  answer  for  the  question  of  whether  zoos  can  have  very  much  impact  on the preservation  of 
endangered  species  is,  probably,  minimally.  Zoos do not focus their education efforts on those people in
the strongest positions to affect the future of the wildlife exhibited. For the most part, conservation education
is targeted at children and other  non-decision  makers  in  a  process  too  slow  or  too  far  away  to 
 91

address  the extinction  crisis  which  exists  now.  Furthermore, the efforts of zoos to inform lawmakers and
government authorities are usually low-key or un-existent. Campaigns are more likely to be for an animal
exhibit rather than for the existence of the animal itself.
Nevertheless, it does not do to address the future from a foundation of pessimism. A vision of the future is
embraced in which the human population has leveled off at about 8.8 billion and wherein human effects
upon the environment have been tethered and considerable wildlife remain. It certainly will not be as rich or
abundant as today’s wildlife, but with substantial diverse and numbers of more or less wild ecosystems, and
the zoos’ work, this vision can become reality.
IV. Sentence Transformation(20pts)
Rewrite the sentences in such a way that they mean almost the same as the sentences printed before them.
131. A rather nasty problem has appeared.
We’ve come ...……………………………………………………….……………………...
132. I have called this meeting in order to present the latest sales figures.
My purpose ………………………………………………………………………………...
133. Mrs. Wilson says she’s sorry she didn’t attend the meeting yesterday morning.
Mrs. Wilson sends …………………………………………………………………………
134. For further information, please send a self-addressed envelope to the above address.
Further information can ……………………………………………………………………
135. It’s almost nine months since I stopped subscribing to that magazine.
I cancelled …………………………………………………………………………………...
For questions 136-140, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence,
using the word given.  You must use between three to eight words. 
136. He makes sure that he isn't associated with policies he disagrees with. DISTANCES
He makes sure ______________________ policies he disagrees with.
137. Students at the school are not allowed to go into the Rainbow Disco. BOUNDS
The Rainbow Disco _______________________ students at the school.
138. She wasn’t speaking seriously. TONGUE
She was speaking __________________________________.
139. We suddenly decided to go far away for the weekend. SPUR
We decided _______________________________ far away at the weekend.
140. It would be easy to make a film adaptation of Danielle Steel’s latest novel. ITSELF
Danielle Steel’s latest novel __________________________ made into a film.
ĐỀ 16
ĐỀ THI VÀ ĐÁP ÁN
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 pts)
I. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (5 pts) 
Choose the best option to complete the following sentences.
1. She doesn’t mind …………… me with my exercises.
A. help B. to help C. helping D. helps
2. By the end of last summer, the farmers ……………. all the crop.
A. harvested B. had harvested C. harvest D. are harvested
3. There is no reason ………………. they shouldn't be successful.
A. that B. what C. why D. when
4. He said that the plane had already left and that I …………..… arrived an hour earlier. 
A. must have B. had to C. should have D. was supposed to 
5. The front door is warped from the humidity. We have a difficult time ……….… it. 
A. for opening B. opening C. having opened D. to open 
6. Mrs. Lincon has …………… that she is unable to get a job. 
A. such small education B. so little education 
C. such little education D. so small education 
7. ……….., he felt so unhappy and lonely. 
A. In spite of his being wealth B. Rich as was he 
C. Rich as he was D. Despite his wealthy 
8. If you hadn’t taken the money, you ……………. in prison now. 
 92

A. wouldn’t have been B. wouldn’t be C. hadn’t been D. haven’t been

9. Peter told me that he was leaving for the capital………… 
A. tomorrow B. tonight C. the following day D. next Sunday 
10. Plants play ………….important role in the natural circulation of water. 
A. a B. an C. no article D. the  
II. PHRASAL VERBS AND PREPOSITIONS (5 pts) 
Choose the best option to complete the following sentences.
1. I’d like to contribute…….the school Red Cross fund.
A. on B. to C. with D. for
2. Madrid is famous……..its pulls
A. as B. with C. for D. of
3. Will you …….after the party.
A. call me off B. get me on C. take me up D. pick me up
4. The ceiling fans were on, but unfortunately they only _____ the hot, humid air.
A. stirred up B. poured through C. turned into D. cut back
5. Hardly had the van turned the corner when one of the back wheels_____ 
A. Broke away               B. Turned around          C. Came off                     D. Rolled down.
6. The government is thinking of bringing_____a law to make it compulsory for cyclists to wear crash
helmets.
A. on B. up C. in D. round
7. The businessman inspected the contract carefully before signing it. 
A. looked over    B. looked out C. counted on D. look for
8. What's happening, John? The smoke alarm is ringing but there's no fire! 
A. putting out    B. going on C. hanging up D. going up
9. The fire fighters worked hard to put the fire_______. 
A. off B. overC. on D. out
10. When do you think that we'll arrive at the hotel this evening? 
A. get on   B. go on C. get to D. get off
III. VOCABULARY (10 pts) 
Choose the best option to complete the following sentences.
1. We took ________ of the fine weather and spent the day on the beach.
    A. chance B. advantage C. occasion D. effect
2. The school was closed for a month because of a serious _________ of fever.
    A. outcome B. outburst C. outset D. outbreak
3. He is a little bit _________ in his left ear, but if you speak clearly he will hear what you say.
    A. disabled B. deaf C. diseased D. dead
4. Many ________ crafts such as weaving are now being revived.
    A. customary B. habitual C. traditional D. ordinary
5. Assembly lines are useful for producing a large _________ of identical products.
    A. quality B. quantity C. quandary D. qualification
6. We couldn’t have afforded to buy the house if our parents hadn’t helped us to ________ the cost.
    A. pay B. meet C. manage D. achieve
7. The project is still in its _________ so it is too soon to predict how successfull it will be.
    A. orrigins B. infancy C. nappies D. prime
8. Nothing can grow in this poor _________ .
    A. surface B. grass C. ground D. soil
9. It’s difficult to pay one’s bills when prices keep _________.
    A. rising B. growing C. gaining D. raising
10. There’s no _________ in going to school if you are not willing to learn.
    A. reason B. point C. purpose D. aim
11. Sue, welcome back. You’ve got a nice............... 
A. sun B. sunlight C. suntan D. sunshine 
12. The……….are those who don’t have jobs. 
A. unemployers B. unemployed C. unemployment D. unemployees 
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13. It takes me 30 minutes to prepare.

A. get ready B. make easy C. keep clean D. be good
14. I don't like quizzes because my general ...............is so poor.
A. appearance B. memory C. knowledge D. thinking
15. We should help children from poor families to have proper………. 
A. school B. schooling C. scholar D. scholarship 
16. They got married without their parents' ……………… 
A. agree B. allow C. consent D. permission 
17. Today’s scientists have overcome many of the challenges of the depth by using modern technology
A. passed B. run C. flown D. conquered
18. The teacher criticized him with a ......................expression on his face
A. Mournful B. Happy C. Lovely D. Solemn
19. Please .............. your phone card in the slot before pressing the number you require.
A. insert B. operate C. plugD. adjust
20. ............... is used for making exact copies of documents.
A. Computer B. Printer C. Photocopier D. Camcorder
IV. GUIDED CLOZE (10 pts)
Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space.
Passage A (5 pts)
Health is something we tend to (1) _______ when we have it. When our body is doing well, we are hardly
(2) ________ of it. But illness can come, even (3) _______ we are young. In fact, childhood has been a very
susceptible time. Many diseases attack children in particular, and people know very little (4) ______ to cure
them once they struck. The result was that many children died. About a century ago,    (5) _________,
scientists found out about germs, and then everything changed. The (6) _____ of many diseases was found,
and cures were developed. As this medical discovery spread, the world became  (7) _____ safer for children.
The result is that (8) _________ a hundred years ago, the average man lived for 35 years, nowadays, in
many areas of the world, people can (9) _______ to live for 75 years. And what do we expect by the year
2020 ? Undoubtedly, medical science will continue to (10) ________. Some people will be able to avoid
medical problems that are unavoidable today.
1. A. forget B. ignore C. give up D. throw away
2. A. awake B. keen C. aware D. concerned
3. A. if B. so C. when D. while
4. A. how B. what C. which D. when
5. A. therefore B. however C. although D. moreover
  6. A. reason B. origin C. source D. cause

7. A. more B. much C. veryD. quite

8. A. where B. when C. why D. whereas
9. A. desire B. hope C. want D. expect
10. A. speed up B. advance C. accelerate D. run 
Passage B (5 pts)
YOU CAN’T ESCAPE THE INTERNET
Over the last few years, the use of the Internet has increased dramatically in French schools, offices, and
homes and this trend continues to grow. Who could have imagined, even in the last decade, that we would be
able to (1) _________ our friends, colleagues and clients around the world simply through the (2)
_________ of a mouse and a modem? There is no doubt, like any invention, that the Internet can be used for
good or bad but it is here to stay and has (3) _________ the way we communicate.
In the world of business, no corporation can be competitive unless it has (4) _________ to the Internet. It has
become essential to advertise your product and service in this way and an increasing number of companies
are using this opportunity to reach a greater number of (5) _________ consumers. Indeed, the bigger the
website, (6) _________ professional the company seems to be.
Similarly in education, the opportunities that the Internet can (7) _________ are vast. More and more
students are (8) _________ on the Internet for their research; for instance, a physics undergraduate in Paris
can download information from a university library in the States in minutes. From the latest research in
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scientific and linguistic fields to new theories in psychology and history; all this may be published on the
world-wide web.
What will be the future for the Internet in France? It has been (9) _________ that 60% of homes and 50% of
business will have access to the Internet within five years. Children, students and professionals will be able
to (10) _________ and explore the world as they have never done before.
1.  A. contact     B. keep touch C. stay in touch D. talk
2.  A. tick        B. running C. clap D. click
3.  A. modified     B. been changed    C. adapted D. revolutionized
4.  A. access     B. use C. approach D. downloading
5.  A. future     B. competent C. potential D. would-be
6.  A. more and more       B. the more C. more D. the most
7.  A. take     B. provide C. support D. miss
8.  A. relying     B. surfing C. working D. downloading
9.  A. established                            B. announced C. claimed        D. calculated
10.  A. log on     B. take on C. log off D. switch on
V. READING COMPREHENSION (10pts)
Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question.
Passage A (2.5 pts)
In addition to providing energy, fats have other functions in the body. The fat-soluble vitamins, A, D, E, and
K, are dissolved in fats, as their name implies. Good source of these vitamins have high oil or fat content,
and the vitamins are stored in the bodies fatty tissues. In the diet, fats cause food to remain longer in the
stomach, thus increasing the feeling of fullness for some time after a meal is eaten. 
Fats add variety, taste and texture to foods, which accounts for the popularity of fried foods. Fatty deposits in
body have an insulating and protective value. The curves of the human female body are due mostly to
strategically located fat deposits. Whether a certain amount of fat in the diet is essential to human health is
not definitely known. When rats are fed a fat-free diet, their growth eventually ceases, their skin becomes
inflamed and scaly and their reproductive systems are damaged. Two fatty acids, linoleic and arachidonic
acids, prevent these abnormalities and hence are called essential fatty acids. They are also required by a
number of other animals, but their roles in human beings are debatable. Most nutritionists consider linoleic
fatty acid an essential nutrient for humans. 
1. The passage probably appears in which of the following?
A.  A diet book   B. A book on basic nutrition 
C. A cookbook   D. A popular women’s magazine
2. The word “functions” is closest in meaning to …….
 A. forms   B. needs   C. jobs   D. sources
3. All of the following vitamins are stored in the bodys fatty tissues except……
A. vitamin A   B.  vitamin D   C.  vitamin B   D.  vitamin E
4. The author states that fats serve all of the following body functions except to………
A. promote the feeling of fullness  B. insulate and protect the body
    C. provide energy   D. control weight gain
5. Which of the following is true for rats when they are fed a fat-free diet?
A. They stop growing.   B. They have more babies. 
C. They lose body hair.  D. They require less care.
Passage B (2.5 pts)
Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects of
extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun's rays. Desert
mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constant body temperature.
Instead of trying to keep down the body temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the
expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be
fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant's gazelles. The
overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall
unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of the
first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive buildup of heat does not
begin until well into the day.
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Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be fatal for
non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water without harm to itself,
whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight. An equally important
adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious
volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very
dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to dehydrate at one session, because the
human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body fluids causes death from
water intoxication.
The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a
water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have
the further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common experience in people that
appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Weather variations in the desert B. Adaptations of desert animals
C. Diseased of desert animals D. Human use of desert animals.
2. According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals?
A. It helps them hide from predators.
B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors.
C. It helps them see their young at night
D. It keeps them cool at night.
3. The word "maintaining" is closest in meaning to ___________. 
A. measuring B. inheriting C. preserving D. delaying
4. Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph?
A. To show how they use camels. B. To contrast them to desert mammals.
C. To give instructions about desert survival.D. To show how they have adapted to desert life.
5. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals?
A. Variation in body temperatures B. Eating while dehydrated
C. Drinking water quickly D. Being active at night.
Passage C (5 pts)
Climate change and the Inuit
A     Unusual incidents are being reported across the Arctic. Inuit families going off on snowmobiles to
prepare their summer hunting camps have found themselves cut off from home by a sea of mud, following
early thaws. There are reports of igloos losing their insulating properties as the snow drips and refreezes, of
lakes draining into the sea as permafrost melts, and sea ice breaking up earlier than usual, carrying seals
beyond the reach of hunters. Climate change may still be a rather abstract idea to most of us, but in the
Arctic, it is already having dramatic effects - if summertime ice continues to shrink at its present rate, the
Arctic Ocean could soon become virtually ice-free in summer. The knock-on effects are likely to include
more warming, cloudier skies, increased precipitation and higher sea levels. Scientists are increasingly keen
to find out what's going on because they consider the Arctic the 'canary in the mine' for global warming - a
warning of what's in store for the rest of the world.

B     For the Inuit the problem is urgent. They live in precarious balance with one of the toughest
environments on earth. Climate change, whatever its causes, is a direct threat to their way of life. Nobody
knows the Arctic as well as the locals, which is why they are not content simply to stand back and let outside
experts tell them what's happening. In Canada, where the Inuit people are jealously guarding their hard-won
autonomy in the country's newest territory, Nunavut, they believe their best hope of survival in this changing
environment lies in combining their ancestral knowledge with the best of modern science. This is a challenge
in itself.

C     The Canadian Arctic is a vast, treeless polar desert that's covered with snow for most of the year.
Venture into this terrain and you get some idea of the hardships facing anyone who calls this home. Farming
is out of the question and nature offers meagre pickings. Humans first settled in the Arctic a mere 4,500
years ago, surviving by exploiting sea mammals and fish. The environment tested them to the limits:
sometimes the colonists were successful, sometimes they failed and vanished. But around a thousand years
 96

ago, one group emerged that was uniquely well adapted to cope with the Arctic environment. These Thule
people moved in from Alaska, bringing kayaks, sleds, dogs, pottery and iron tools. They are the ancestors of
today's Inuit people.

D     Life for the descendants of the Thule people is still harsh. Nunavut is 1.9 million square kilometres of
rock and ice, and a handful of islands around the North Pole. It's currently home to 2,500 people, all but a
handful of them indigenous Inuit. Over the past 40 years, most have abandoned their nomadic ways and
settled in the territory's 28 isolated communities, but they still rely heavily on nature to provide food and
clothing. Provisions available in local shops have to be flown into Nunavut on one of the most costly air
networks in the world, or brought by supply ship during the few ice-free weeks of summer. It would cost a
family around £7,000 a year to replace meat they obtained themselves through hunting with imported meat.
Economic opportunities are scarce, and for many people state benefits are their only income.

E     While the Inuit may not actually starve if hunting and trapping are curtailed by climate change, there
has certainly been an impact on people's health. Obesity, heart disease and diabetes are beginning to appear
in a people for whom these have never before been problems. There has been a crisis of identity as the
traditional skills of hunting, trapping and preparing skins have begun to disappear. In Nunavut's 'igloo and
email' society, where adults who were born in igloos have children who may never have been out on the
land, there's a high incidence of depression.

F     With so much at stake, the Inuit are determined to play a key role in teasing out the mysteries of climate
change in the Arctic. Having survived there for centuries, they believe their wealth of traditional knowledge
is vital to the task. And Western scientists are starting to draw on this wisdom, increasingly referred to as
'Inuit Qaujimajatugangit', or IQ. 'In the early days, scientists ignored us when they came up here to study
anything. They just figured these people don't know very much so we won't ask them,' says John Amagoalik,
an Inuit leader and politician. 'But in recent years IQ has had much more credibility and weight.' In fact it is
now a requirement for anyone hoping to get permission to do research that they consult the communities,
who are helping to set the research agenda to reflect their most important concerns. They can turn down
applications from scientists they believe will work against their interests or research projects that will
impinge too much on their daily lives and traditional activities.

G     Some scientists doubt the value of traditional knowledge because the occupation of the Arctic doesn't
go back far enough. Others, however, point out that the first weather stations in the far north date back just
50 years. There are still huge gaps in our environmental knowledge, and despite the scientific onslaught,
many predictions are no more than best guesses. IQ could help to bridge the gap and resolve the tremendous
uncertainty about how much of what we're seeing is natural capriciousness and how much is the
consequence of human activity.

Questions 1 – 5 
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 - 5, which are based on Reading Passage 145.
Reading Passage 145 has seven paragraphs, A-G. Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B-G from the list of
headings below. Write the correct number i-ix, in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i The reaction of the Inuit community to climate change
ii Understanding of climate change remains limited
iii Alternative sources of essential supplies
iv Respect for Inuit opinion grows
v A healthier choice of food
vi A difficult landscape
vii Negative effects on well-being
viii Alarm caused by unprecedented events in the Arctic
ix The benefits of an easier existence
Questions 6 – 10
Complete the summary of paragraphs C and D below.
 97

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from paragraphs C and D for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 6-10 on your answer sheet.
If you visit the Canadian Arctic, you immediately appreciate the problems faced by people for whom this is
home. It would clearly be impossible for the people to engage in (6) .................... as a means of supporting
themselves. For thousands of years they have had to rely on catching (7) .................... and sea mammals as a
means of sustenance. The harsh surroundings saw many who tried to settle there pushed to their limits,
although some were successful. The Thule people were an example of the latter and for them the
environment did not prove unmanageable. For the present inhabitants, life continues to be a struggle. The
territory of Nunavut consists of little more than ice, rock and a few (8) .................... . In recent years, many
of them have been obliged to give up their nomadic lifestyle, but they continue to depend mainly
on (9) .................... their food and clothes. (10) .................... produce is particularly expensive.
B. WRITTEN TEST (70 pts)

I. CLOZE TEST (20 pts)

Fill in each gap in the passage below with ONE suitable word.
Passage A (10 pts)

SWIMMING
Swimming is generally considered to be (0) one of the best ways of exercising the whole body
without risk of injury. According to health experts, it can also ease back pain and even reduce blood
pressure. There is only one problem: to enjoy all the benefits of swimming, you (1)___________to do it
properly. (2)_____________you visited your local swimming pool and just watched, you might be surprised
to see (3)___________badly many people swim. Poor technique may result from a number of factors
including anxiety, the swimmer’s lack (4)____________body awareness, or just a concern about
(5)_____________their hair wet. What’s more, swimming techniques do not always improve with practice.
(6)_______________the contrary, once people have fallen (7)_______________bad habits, they tend to be
stuck with them.
But help is at hand. For all those keen to learn to swim properly, and so
(8)_______________advantage of all the health benefits, there is now something known as the Shaw
Method, developed by a former competitive swimmer, Steven Shaw. Shaw encourages people to think about
their swimming technique and to concentrate on things (9)________________breathing correctly and
making sure that arm and leg movements work together (10)_____________than against each other.  
Passage B (10 pts)
Travelling is a great thing to do. It helps us learn about different people and different places. Some people
travel (1)………………they want to see nature. Others travel because they want to make friends and try
great food. Of course, a lot of tourists are (2)………..……in traditional culture. Tourism can be very good
for traditional cultures. This is because when people travel to (3)……………….country, they often want to
learn more about that country’s traditions, such as music, food, and history. Therefore, the local people in
that country will (4)………………..their traditional culture alive. They will wear traditional clothing, and
sell traditional food. They will also have shown for tourists. These shows can (5)……………..dances,
concerts, plays, or something else. Tourism (6)…………….helps people respect each other. If you
understand another culture well, you will probably respect that culture much more. You will probably want
to protect that culture (7)………………….well. However, tourism is not always good for traditional culture.
Many people say that tourism (8)………………….“fake traditional culture”. This means that the local
people wear traditional costumes, and (9)…………………..traditional dances only for tourists, but that is
not their real lifestyle. Their real lifestyles are similar to the tourists’ lifestyle. They are just pretending
because they want to make money. Another problem is that tourists can (10)………………..with the local
people’s lives. For example, tourists come to watch local people praying in temples. While the local people
pray, tourists take photographs and make noise.
II. WORD FORMATION (20 pts)
Part 1 (10 pts)
Complete the sentence with the correct form of the given word.
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1. Barack Obama is the first President of the United States with ……………….…... RACE
background.
2. From the hotel there is a……………………...view across the canyon. BREATH
3. Mr. John, who teaches us Latin, usually stresses the need for regular ATTEND
……………………...
4. The government has yet to make an official ……………………...on the issue. PRONOUNCE
5. My daughter left a half …………………………..orange on the table. EAT
6. I ………………………..this morning, and was late for school. SLEEP
7. The boy was very violent and his parents found him ……………………… MANAGE
8. We had the phone ……………… because we are moving tomorrow. CONNECT
9. A list of ……………………. events will be posted on the notice board. COME
10. To be successful, an artist must show great………………… ORIGIN

Part 2 (10 pts)

Complete the passage with appropriate forms from the words given.

REGULAR           LONG                 CHECK                  APPLY                 ARRIVE

LET                      CODE                  POTENTIAL          INSPIRE               WORK

THE INVENTOR OF THE BAR CODE

Although you may never have heard of Joe Woodland, you almost certainly use his invention on a
daily basis. For Joe was the man who came up with the idea of the bar code – that little box containing
parallel lines of (1) …................... width and (2) …...................that you find on the packaging of most
products that are offered for sale at retail (3) …...................worldwide. Joe Woodland actually invented the
bar code way back in 1949, when the manager of a supermarket in Philadelphia asked him to design an
electronic (4) …...................system which would be both simple and effective. The purpose of the bar code
is to store (5) …...................information about the product, which (6) …..................speeds up the process of
recording sales and restocking the shelves.
Joe’s (7) …...................came from Morse code and he formed his first barcode in the sand on the
beach one day. The idea was way ahead of its time, however, and didn’t find any immediate practical (8)
…...................convinced that the system was (9) …..................with further development, however,
Woodland didn’t give up. It was the (10) …...................of laser gun technology decades later which allowed
Joe’s invention to come into everyday use.
III. ERROR CORRECTION (10 pts)
There are ten errors in the text below. Identify and correct them.
Research has found that children (0) took on a supermarket trip make a purchase request 0. taken
every two minutes. More than $200 million a year is now spent on advertising directly to 1 ________
children, most of them on television. That figure is likely to increase. For children, the 2 ________
reasons behind their parents’ decisions about that they can and cannot afford are often unclear 3 ________
and arguments about how bad sugar is for your teeth are inconvincing when compared with 4 ________
the attractively and emotionally persuasive advertising campaigns. 5 ________
According to Susan Dib of the National Food Alliance, “Most parents concerned about what 6 ________
they give their children to eat and have ideas about what food is healthy – although those 7 ________
ideas are not always accurate. Obviously, such a dialogue among parents and children is a 8_________
good thing, because if the only information children are getting about productivity is from TV 9
advertising, they are getting a very one-side view. Parents resent the fact that they are _________
competing with the advertising industry and are forced into the position of repeated 10
disappointing their children.” The Independent Television Commission, which regulates TV ________
advertising, prohibits advertisers of telling children to ask their parents to buy products.

IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20 pts)

Rewrite the following sentences using the words given.
 99

1. If you changed your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
→ Were you………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Adeles tries hard, but she doesn't get anywhere.
→ However………………………………………………………………………………………..
3. It is thought that the boss is considering raising wages.
→ The boss………………………………………………………………………………………
4. I'd prefer you not to smoke.
→ I'd rather……………………………………………………………………………………..
5. Tim insisted on being told the complete story.
→ Nothing but
6. It’s not worth asking the manager for the day off. (POINT)
→ There ………………………………………………..in asking the manager for the day off.
7. She was so beautiful that I couldn't stop looking at her. (EYES)
→ She
8. My father is not feeling well these days. (WEATHER)
→ My father …………………………………………………………………….. these days.
9. Don’t run away with the idea that this job is easy. (CONCLUSION)
→  Don’t .........................................................................................................................easy.
8. His choice always followed what his wife decided. (STEP)
→ His choice...............................................................................................................decided.
THE END

ĐỀ 17
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ NGHỊ MÔN: TIẾNG ANH; LỚP: 10
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 PTS)
I. Grammar and Structures (5pts)
 Choose the best option to complete the following sentences.
1. They were made___________ for a meeting after work.
A. to stay     B. stay C. staying D. to staying
2. “You should stop working too hard you’ll get sick.” 
A. or else B. if C. in case D. whereas
3. If only I had studied hard enough to pass the final exam.
A. I regret not studying hard enough to pass the final exam.
B. I had studied hard enough and I passed the final exam.
C. I studied too hard to pass the final exam.
D. I studied hard otherwise I would fail the final exam. 
4. “Never say that again,. ?” 
A. won’t you        B. do you C. don’t you        D. will you
5.The man ___________ we're going to see is a millionaire.  
A. he/ whom/ Ø B. that / whose/ Ø    C. which/ that / Ø      D.that/whom/Ø 
6. Your composition is much better ______________ his.
A. than B. as C. to D. like
7. John said he _____________ her since they _____________ school.
A. hasn’t met – left B. hadn’t met – had left
C. hadn’t met – left D. didn’t meet – has left
8. My mother goes to ____________ church in __________ morning.
A. the/ Ø B. the/ the C. Ø/ the D. a/ a
9. A burglar ___________ into the house while we ___________ television.
A. broke-were watching      B. broke-watched
C. had broken-watched D. broke-had watched
10. They are having their house______ by a construction company
A. to paint B. painting C. being painted D. painted
II. Phrasal verbs and Prepositions (5 pts)
Choose the best option to complete the following sentences.
 100

1. The traffic jam is ___________ thousands of daily commuter into Hanoi.

A. putting back B. holding up C. doing up D. owning up
2. They are excited _____________ their trip to Rome next June.
A. about B. at C. by D. for
3.I heard a big noise and woke ___________ at 2.30 this morning .
A. on B. up C. after D. off
4. I can’t _________ of a word he is saying.
A. comprehend B. understand C. grasp D. make sense
5. I haven’t seen Peter for a long time. I will _________ him this weekend.
A. call for B. call in C. call off D. call on
6. You can __________ the new words in the dictionary.
A. look for B. look after C. look up D. look at
7. I was pleased __________ the present you gave me.
A. at B. from C. of D. with
8. The concert was ____________ because of the heavy rain.
A. put out B. called off C. run out D. set off
9. The weather was perfect when we __________ but it was raining when we got back.
A. brought out B. got on C. turned up D. set off
10. Clean air provides us ________ a healthy supply of oxygen.
A. at B. in C. on D. with
III. Vocabulary (10 pts)
Choose the best option to complete the following sentences.
1. Her guest apologised for causing her so much __________.
A. problem B. complication C. trouble D. damage
2. The _________ are those who do not have a job.
A. injured B. sick . C. unemployed  D. rich
3. Their eventual choice of house was _____ by the time Peter would take to get to the office.
A. related            B. consequent             C. determined D. dependent
4. Consumers often ___________ from the increasing competition among supermarkets, which try to attract
customers by lowering their prices
A. profit B. benefit C. interest D. suffer
5. The island’s ___________ had never seen white men before
A. tenants B. citizens C. occupiers D. inhabitants
6. I know he stole the money, but I can’t _________ it because I didn’t actually see him.
A. prove B. expose C. indicate D. reveal
7. People demand higher wages because prices are _______ all the time.
A. progressing B. exceeding C. growing D. rising
8. He __________ his ambition to be famous.
A. managed B. won C. realised D. succeeded
9. It take me 30 minutes to prepare
A. get ready B. make easy C. keep clean D. be good
10. I don't like quizzes because my general ...............is so poor.
A. appearance B. memory C. knowledge D. thinking
11. David ________ the “No smoking” notice on the carriage window and proceeded to light his pipe.
A. disbelieved B. ignored C. rejected D. avoided
12. She has no _________ of saying such a thing.
A. reminder B. recollection C. souverir D. memory
13. The essayist William Hazlitt was one of the most distinguished men of ____________
A. course B. leisure C. late D. letters
14. Buses and trains are the most important forms of public _________ in this country.
A. traffic B. transport C. transfer D. travel
15. If you’re so _________, then why did you fail your English exam?
A. practical B. shrewd C. perceptive D. smart
16. I find it difficult to keep my ___________ if the television on while I’m working.
 101

A. focus B. concentration C. preoccupation D. dedication

17. You can’t ________ on me to help you if you find yourself on troule.
A. calculate B. count C. baseD. support
18. I’m interested in teaching profession because I love working with the children.
A. excited C. worried C. unhappy D. bored
19. She will work for a travel __________ after graduation.
A. agency B. cue C. guide D. experience
20. English is considered as one of our _________ languages.
A. strong-willed B. foreign C. talented D. intelligent
IV. Guided Cloze (10 pts)
Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space
Passage A:
One of the most urgent environmental problems in the world today is the shortage of clean water. Having
clean drinking water is a basic human right. But acid rain, (1) ______ pollution and garbage have made
many sources of water undrinkable. Lakes, reservoirs and even entire seas have become vast pools (2)
______ poison. Lake Baikal in Russia is one of the largest lakes in the world. It (3) ______ a rich variety of
animals and plants, including 1,300 rare species that do not exist (4) ______ else in the world. But they are
being destroyed by the massive volumes of toxic effluent which (5) ______ into the lake every day. Even
where law existed, the government did not have the power to enforce them.
Most industries simply ignore the regulations. The Mediterranean Sea (6) ______1% of the world's
water surface. But it is the dumping (7) ______for 50% of all marine pollution. Almost 16 countries
regularly throw industrial wastes a few miles (8) ______shore.
Water is free to everyone. A few years ago, people thought that the supply of clean water in the
world was limitless. Today, many water supplies have been (9) ______ by pollution and sewage. Clean
water is now scarce, and we are at last beginning to respect this precious (10) ______.We should do
something now.                                   
(Source: v14ilovetranslation.com)
1. A. industrious B. industry       C. industrial D.industrialized
2. A. on B. in C. of D. to
3. A. composes B. contains C. encloses D. consists
4. A. where B. somewhere C. everywhere D. anywhere
5. A. stay B. pour C. boil D. burn
6. A. makes B. occupies C. comprises D. holds
7. A. shore B. land C. ground D. soil
8. A. away B. of C. on D. off
9. A. ruined B. kept C. made D. conserved
10.A. well B. outlet C. nature D. source
Passage B:
The world’s first film was shown in 1895 by two French brothers, Louis and Auguste Lumière. Although it
only (1) _________ of short, simple scenes, people loved it and films have (2) _________ popular ever
since. The first films were silent, with titles on the screen to (3) _________ the story.
Soon the pubilc had (4) __________ favorite actors and actresses and, in this (5) ___________ the first film
stars appeared. In 1927, the first “talkie”, a film with sound, was shown and from then on, the public (6)
___________ only accept this kind of film.
Further improvements continued, particularly in America, (7) __________ produced 95% of all films. With
the arrival of television in the 1950s. (8) ___________ people went to see film, but in (9) ____________
years cinema audiences have grown again. More countries have started to produce films that influence film-
making and there are currently (10) ____________ national film industries.
1. A. consisted B. contained      C. belonged D.held
2. A. gone B. been C. made D. kept
3. A. join B. read C. explain D. perform
4. A. your B. his C. our D. their
5. A. reason B. way C. method D. result
6. A. should B. would C. might D. will
 102

7. A. who B. where C. when D. which

8. A. other B. each C. fewer D. any
9. A. recent B. now C. modern D. present
10.A. many B. lots C. much D. plenty
V. Reading Comprehension (10 pts)
Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question.
Passage A:
As computers have become powerful tools for the rapid and economic production of pictures, computer
graphics has emerged as one of the most rapidly growing fields in computer science. It is used routinely in
such diverse areas as business, industry, art, government, education, research, training, and medicine.
One of the initial uses of computer graphics, and ultimately its greatest use, has been as an aid to design,
generally to referred to as computer-aided design (CAD). One of its greatest advantages is that designers can
see how an object will look after construction and make changes freely and much more quickly than with
hand drafting. For three-dimensional rendering of machine parts, engineers now rely heavily on CAD.
Automobile, spacecraft, aerospace, and ship designers use CAD techniques to design vehicles and test their
performance. Building designs are also created with computer graphics system. Architects can design a
building layout, create a three-dimensional model, and even go for a simulated ‘walk’ through the rooms or
around the outside of the building.
Business graphics is another rapidly growing area of computer graphics, where it is used to create graphs,
charts, and cost models to summarize financial, statistical, mathematical, scientific, and economic data. As
an educational aid, computer graphics can be used to create weather maps and cartographic materials.
Computer art also has creative and commercial art applications, where it is used in advertising, publishing,
and film productions, particularly for computer animation, which is achieved by a sequential process.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Routine uses of computers
B. Computer graphics applications
C. The rapidly growing field of computer science
D. Computers as the architects of the future
2. The word ‘it’ refers to_________
A. computer graphics B. computer science
C. fields      D. computers
3. The paragraph following this passage would most likely be about _________.
A. computer animation B. flight training
C. cost models D. applications of CAD in medicine
4. According to the passage, architects use CAD to _________
A. inspect buildings B. create graphs 
C. make cartographic materials D. create three-dimensional models
5. The word “ initial” used in paragragh 2 is closest in meaning to
A. last B. final C. first D. major
Passage B:
The three phrases of human memory are the sensory memory, the short-term memory, and the long - term
memory. This division of the memory  into phases is based on the length of time of the memory. 
Sensory memory is instantaneous memory. It is an image or memory that enters your mind only for a short
period of time; it comes and goes in under a second. The memory will not last longer than that unless the
information enters the short-term memory .
Information can be held in the short-term memory for about twenty seconds or as long as you are
actively using it. If you repeat a fact to yourself, that fact will stay in your short- term memory as long as
you keep repeating it. Once you stop repeating it, either it is forgotten or moves into long -term memory .
Long -term memory is the huge memory tank that can hold ideas and images for years and years .
Information can be added to your long-term memory when you actively try to put it there through
memorization or when an idea or image enters your mind on its own .
1. The best title for this passage would be ____________
A. The Difference Between Sensory memory and Short-term memory.
B. How long It Takes to Memorize.
 103

C. The Stage of Human Memory.

D. Human Phases.
2. The three phases of memory discussed in the passage are differentiated according to ________
A. the location in the brain.
B. the period of time it takes to remember something .
C. how the senses are involved in the memory.
D. how long the memory lasts.
3. The expression “is based on” could be best replaced by ___________
A. is on top of .             B. is at the foot of.
C. depends on. D. is below. 
4. According to the passage, which type of the memory is the shortest?
A. Sensory memory. B. Active memory.
C. Short-term memory. D. Long-term memory.
5. According to the passage, when will information stay in your short-term memory?
A. For as long as twenty minutes.
B. As long as it is being used .
C. After you have repeated it many times .
D. When it has moved into long-term memory .
Passage C:
The Life & Work of Marie Curie Marie Curie is probably the most famous woman scientist who has ever
lived. Born Maria Sklodowska in Poland in 1867, she is famous for her work on radioactivity, and was twice
a winner of the Nobel A Prize. With her husband, Pierre Curie. and Henri Raeqiierel, she was awarded the
1903 Nobel Prize for Physics, and was then sole winner of the 1911 Nobel Prize for Chemistry. She was the
hist woman to win a Nobel Prize. 
From childhood, Marie was remarkable for her prodigious memory, and at the age of 16 won a gold medal
on completion of her secondary education. Because her father lost his savings through bad investment, she
then had to take work as a teacher. From her earnings she was able to finance her sister Bronia's medical
studies in Paris, on the understanding that Bronia would, in turn, later help her to get an education.

 ln 1891 this promise was fulfilled and Marie went to Paris and began to study at the Sorbonne (the
University of Paris). She often worked far into the night and lived on little more than bread and butter and
tea. She came first in the examination in the physical sciences in 1893, and in 1894 was placed second in the
examination in mathematical sciences It was not until the spring of that year that she was introduced to
Pierre Curie.
 
Their marriage in 1895 marked the start of a partnership that was soon to achieve results of world
significance. Following Henri BecquereI‘s discovery in 1896 of a new phenomenon, which Marie later
called 'radioactivity', Marie Curie decided to rind out if the radioactivity discovered in uranium was to be
found in other elements. She discovered that this was true for thorium.
 
Tuming her attention to minerals, she found her interest drawn to pitchblende, a mineral whose radioactivity,
superior to that of pure uranium, could be explained only by the presence in thc orc of small quantities of an
unknown substance of very high activity. Pierre Curie joined her in the work that she had undertaken to
resolve this problem. and that led to the discovery of the new elements, polonium and radium. While Pierre
Curie devoted himself chiefly to the physical study of the new radiations, Marie Curie struggled to obtain
pure radium in the metallic state. This was achieved with the help of the chemist André-Louis Debierne, one
of Pierre Curie's pupils. Based on the results of this research. Marie Curie received her Doctorate of Science,
and in 1903 Marie and Pierre shared with Becquerel the Nobel Prize for Physics for the discovery of
radioactivity. 
The births of Marie's two daughters, Irene and Eve, in 1897 and 1904 failed to internrpt her scientific work.
She was appointed lecturer in physics at the Ecole Nor-male Supérieure for girls in Sevres, France (1900),
and introduced a method of teaching based on experimental demonstrations. In December 1904 she was
appointed chief assistant in the laboratory directed by Pierre Curie. 
 104

The sudden death of her husband in 1906 was a bitter blow to Marie Curie. but was also a turning point in
her career: henceforth she was to devote all her energy to completing alone the scientific work that they had
undertaken. On May 19, 1906, she was appointed to the professorship that had been left vacant on her
husband's death, becoming the first woman to teach at the Sorbonne. In 1911 she was awarded the Nobel
Prize for Chemistry for the isolation of a pure form of radium. 

During World War I, Marie Curie, with the help of her daughter Irene, devoted herself to the development of
the use of X—radiography, including the mobile units which came to be known as 'little Curies', used for the
treatment of wounded soldiers. ln 1918 the Radium Institute, whose staff Irene had joined, began to operate
in earnest, and became a centre for nuclear physics and chemistry. Marie Curie, now at the highest point of
her fame and, from 1922, a member of the Academy of Medicine, researched the chemistry of radioactive
substances and their medical applications. 

ln 1921, accompanied by her two daughters, Marie Curie made a triumphant journey to the United States to
raise funds for research on radium. Women there presented her with a gram of radium for her campaign.
Marie also gave lectures in Belgium. Brazil, Spain and Czechoslovakia and, in addition, had the satisfaction
of seeing the development of the Curie Foundation in Paris. and the inauguration in 1932 in Warsaw of the
Radium Institute, where her sister Bronia became director. 

One of Marie Curie's outstanding achievements was to have understood the need to accumulate intense
radioactive sources. not only to treat illness but also to maintain an abundant supply for research. The
existence in Paris at the Radium Institute of o stock of grams of radium made a decisive contribution to the
success of the experiments undertaken in the years around 1930. This work prepared the way for the
discovery of the neutron by Sir James Chadwick and, above all, for the discovery in 1934 by Irene and
Frédéric Joliot- Curie of artificial radioactivity. A few months after this discovery, Marie Curie died as a
result of leukaemia caused by exposure to radiation. She had often carried test tubes containing radioactive
isotopes in her pocket, remarking on the pretty blue-green light they gave off. 

Her contribution to physics had been immense, not only in her own work. the importance of which had been
demonstrated by her two Nobel Prizes, but because of her influence on subsequent generations of nuclear
physicists and chemists.
Question 1-6
In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet  write 
TRUE it the statement agrees with the information 
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information 
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this 
1.Marie Curie's husband was a joint winner of both Marla‘s Nobel Prizes. 
2.Marie became interested in science when she was a child. 
3.Marie was able to attend the Sorbonne because of her sister’s financial contribution. 
4.Marie stopped doing research for several years when her children were born.
5.Marie took over the teaching position her husband had held. 
6.Marie‘s sister Bronia studied the medical uses of radioactivity.
Question 7-10
Complete the notes below Choose ONE WORD from the passage for each answer 
Write your answers in boxes 7-10 on your answer sheet. 
Marie Curie's research on radioactivity 
6. When uranium was discovered to be radioactive. Marie Curie found that the element called 7 ……..
had the same property.
7. Marie and Pierre Curie‘s research into the radioactivity of the mineral known as 8……………..led to
the discovery of two new elements.
8. In 1911, Marie Curie received recognition for her work on the element 9........................ 
9. Marie and Irene Curie developed X-radiography which was used as a medical technique for 10 ........
B. WRITTEN TEST (70 pts)
I. Cloze test (20 pts)
 105

Passage A:
THE SAHARA MARATHON
One of the most amazing marathon races in the world is the Marathon of the Sands. It takes (1)
___________ every April in the Sahara Dessert in the south of Morocco, a part of the world where
temperatures can (2) __________- fifty degrees centigrade. The standard length of a marathon is 42.5
kilometers but this one is 240 kilometers (3) _______ and takes seven days to complete. It began in 1986
and now attracts about two hundred runners, the majority of (4) _______ ages range from seventeen to forty-
seven. About half of them come from France and the (5) _______ from all over the world. From Britain it
costs £2,500 to enter, including return air fares. The race is rapidly getting more and more popular (6)
_________, or perhaps because of, the harsh conditions that runners must endure. They have to carry food
and (7) _________else they need for seven days in a rucksack weighing no more than twelve kilograms. In
addition to (8) _______, they are given a liter and a half of water every ten kilometers. Runners do (9)
_______ terrible physical hardships. Sometimes they lose toenails and skin peels on their feet. However,
doctors are always (10) _______ hand to deal with minor injuries and to make sure that runners do not push
themselves too far.
Passage B:
As swimming became a popular recreation in England during the 1860s and 1870s, several (1) ______ sports
developed, roughly patterned after land sports. (2) ______ them were water football (or soccer), water rugby,
water handball, and water polo, in which players rode on floating barrels, painted to look (3) ______ horses,
and struck the ball with a stick.
Water rugby became most popular of these sports, but somehow the water polo name became
attached to it, and it's been attached (4) ______ since.
As played in England, the object of the sport was for a player to touch the ball, with both (5) ______,
at the goal end of the pool. The goaltender stood on the pool deck, ready to dive on any opponent who was
about to score.
Water polo quickly became a very rough sport, filled (6) ______ underwater fights away from the
ball, and it wasn't unusual for players to pass out for lack of air.
In 1877, the sport was tamed in Scotland by the addiction of goalposts. The Scots also replaced (7)
______  original small, hard rubber ball with a soccer ball and adopted (8) ______ that prohibited taking the
ball under the surface or, "tackling" a player unless he had the ball.
The Scottish game, which emphasized swimming speed, passing, and (9) ______ work, spread to
England during the early 1880s, to Hungary in 1889, to Austria and Germany in 1894, to France in 1895,
and (10) ______ Belgium in 1900. 
Water polo was the first team sport added to the Olympic program, in 1900
II. Word formation (20 pts)
Part 1: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the
column on the right.
1. The local........................... are listed in the local newspaper. ENTERTAIN
2. He was absent from class yesterday because of his............. ILL
3. Everyone needs to live in a ................ environment. HEALTH
4. My mother has just given me a pocket...................... machine. CALCULATE
5. I know............................. how she felt. EXACT
6. I felt quite....................... with my day's work. SATISFY
7. He apologized for the.........................he had caused. CONVENIENT
8. The school...................about 600 new students every year. ADMISSION
9. Sign language is very helpful for both the deaf and the....................... MUTING
10. Helen's success has.........................millions of blind people to try and 
overcome their difficulties. COURAGE
Part 2:

  HARM      EXCEPT    EASY      POPULAR        GROW

DAMAGE   VIOLENT   SATISFY    EXTREME     TRADITION
 106

The cinema is one of the most popular forms of entertainment in the world. Its (1) _______ means that
blockbuster movies are seen by millions world-wide. Because of this, the messages they give out are seen as
(2) _______ important. Psychologists argue that film-watching isn’t always (3) _______ fun and are
concerned about the (4) _______ effects it may have. Black actors and women are (5) _______ with the
number and type of roles available to them. With one or two (6) _______ the latter have (7) _______had to
play simple characters dependent on strong male leading actors. Another important concern is (8) _______
in films. With the (9) _______ in the video industry, violent films are coming into the home and are (10)
_______ available to young viewers. 
III. Error correction (10 pts)
These days it is(0). impossible..... to open a newspaper without reading about the damage we are doing to the
environment. The earth is being (1) ............. and the future looks bad . What can each of us do ?
We can not clean up our (2) .............. rivers and seas overnight. Nor can we stop the 
(3) .............. of plants and animals. But we can stop adding to the problem while (4)............... search for
answers, and laws are passed in nature’s (5).....................
It may not be easy to change your lifestyle (6) .................., but some steps are easy to take : cut down the
amount of (7).............. ...you do, or use as little plastics as possible . 
It is also easy to save energy, which also reduces (8)................ bills .We must all make apersonal
(9)................ to work for the future of our planet if we want to (10)............... a better world for our grand -
children .
IV. Sentences Transformation (20 pts)
Part 1: Use the word(s) given in the brackets and make any necessary additions to complete a new
sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT
change the form of the given word(s).
1. Returning from the battle, they had no money left. (RUB)
2. He's a taxi driver, so he is thoroughly familiar with the city. (HAND)
3. They suspended Jack for the next two matches. (BANNED)
4. Mary used to think that she would become a famous actress in Hollywood.( IMPRESSTION)
5.  I tried to talk to Jack about the problem but he was too busy. (WORD)
Part 2: Complete each sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence
1. When I was younger I used to go climbing more than I do now.
Now……………………………………………………………………
2. Englandno longer had dreadful fogs.
There used to…………………………………………………………...
3. It is years since we decorated the room.
We haven’t……………………………………………………………...
4. By the time we arrive the other guests will have already started dinner.
The other guests will start……………………………………………….
5. I would like the school holidays to be longer.
I wish…………………………………………………………………….

ĐỀ 18
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 PTS)
I. Grammar and Structures (5pts)
 Choose the best option to complete the following sentences.
1. Not knowing where the theatre was, she___________ derections at the hotel reception.
A. to ask for     B. has asked for C. asked for D. asking for
2.  Most vacancies   at senior level, _______ appropriate qualifications.
A. are - required B. are - requiring C. is - required D. is requiring
3. The Miss Eath beauty pageant is held __________ .
A. to find out the most talented woman in the world
B. to find out the most beauty man in the world
C. to promote the preservation of the environment.
D. to compete international beauty contests.
4.  _________ had the van turned the coner than the wheel came off.
 107

A. No sooner B. No longer C.Hardly D. Scarcely

5.  ___________ she was in her middle age, she looked very greatful and charming.  
A. Although B. However    C. Despite      D. Therefore
6. Because of  habitat loss, there are _________ Asian elephants than African elephants.
A. better B. most C. less D. fewer
7. Do you know the man _____________ your father is talking _____?
A. who –  with B. whom –  about
C. no relative pronoun – to D. which –  to
8. One danger is in ________ radioactive wastes_______  are produced during nuclear reactions.
A. fond of - that B. consisting of- that 
C. afraid of- which D. getting rid of- which 
9. The building ________ in the fire has now ___________ rebuilt.
A. destroys - be      B. destroyed- been
C. was destroyed - been D. are destroyed - been
10. It’s time the government _______ something to encourage people to conserve energy.
A. do B. doing C. did D. to do
II. Phrasal verbs and Prepositions (5 pts)
Choose the best option to complete the following sentences.
1. The winner of the Miss Earth pageant was involved _______ environment
A. with B. to  C. about  D. of
2. Only when you grow ___________ will you know the truth.
A. out B. off C. in D. up
3. Tom is a typical optimist, always looking ______  the bright side of everything.
A. on B. up C. after D. off
4. My brothers have found it terribly hard ______make ends  meet ever since they both lost their jobs
A. with B. to C. about D. for
5.  It’s high time we made preparations ___________ our farewell party.
A. for B.  in C. off D. on
6. This is ________ the most difficult job I’ve ever had to do.
A. by myself B. by chance C. by far D. by heart
7. New sports and traditional sports have been added ___________ the Games.
A. to B. from C. of D. with
8. The Asian Games takes ____________________  every for years.
A. play B. played C. place D. places
9. I can’t ______________ my neighbor’s noise any longer. It’s driving mad. 
A. put up with B. put on C. put up to D. put off
10. He stopped smoking because it is harmful for his ___________ .
A. healthy B. unhealthy C. health D. healthily
III. Vocabulary (10 pts)
Choose the best option to complete the following sentences.
1. Many species of __________and animals are in danger of extinction.
A. plant B. plants C. to plant D. planted
2. We should develop such ________  sources of energy as solar energy and nuclear energy.
A. traditional B. surprising . C. alternative   D. revolutionnary
3. _________  is some one who buys something from the shop.
A. A burglar             B. A customer              C. A shoplifter D. A coward
4. Oil, coal and natural gas are ______fuels made from  decayed material from animal or plants.
A. smokeless B. unleaded                  C.solid                        D. fossil
5. Our major sources of energy are running out while the wind is  ______ and unlimited.
A. abundant B. alternative C. availa D. disadvantage
6. A huge amount of solar energy reaches the earrth’s outer ________.
A. atmospherical B. atmosphere C. atmospheric D. atmospherically
7. Despite its successful ____ reforms, this country is still a developing one.
A. economical B. economizing C. economics D. economic
 108

8. I don’t remember ____ of your decision to change our vocation plan. Nobody told me.
A. telling B. to tell. C. to be told D. being told
9. As tourism is more developed, people worry about the damage to the flora and fauna of the island.
A. fruits and vegetables B. mountains and fores
C. plants and animals D. needn’t be typed
10. Hurry up, or they _________ serving meals by the time we get to the restaurant.
A. stopped B. will have stopped C. would stop D. are stopping
11. Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, weather is the one _______ the most.
A.why farmers influent it B. influences farmers
C. that influences farmers D. farmers is influenced
12. After having used the new tecnique, the factory produced _______ cars in 2014 as the year before.
A. twice as many B. as twice many C. twice many as D. as many twice
13.  Killing endangered animals for fur, skin and foot should be_________ .
A. encouraged B. motivated C. banned D. punished 
14. The environment where wild animals are living now badly destroying.
A. to destroy B. destroyed C. destroying D. destroys
15. Thanks to highly sophisticated technology, scientists have made many important discoveries in diffirent
fields.
A. effective B. accessible C. confusing D. advanced
16. John is a typical _______ , always looking on the bright side of everything.
A. extrovert B. pessimist C. optimist D. introvert
17. Schools require that every student _____ before September 1 . st

A. was registered B. registers C. register    D. registered

18.  The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively common place in recent years.
A. almost B. comparatively C. absolutely     D. relevantly
19. Tom __________ himself in the accident if he had not been wearing his seat belt.
A. could have hurt B. would hurt C. might hurt     D. must have hurt
20. These letters _______ at the moment. You can do the typing tomorrow.
A. need to type B. need typing
C. needn’t have typed D. needn’t be typed
IV. Guided Cloze (10 pts)
Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space
Passage A:
A YEAR WITH OVERSEAS VOLUNTEERS
I was with Overseas Volunteers (OV) for a year after leaving university, and I was sent to an isolated village
in Chad, about 500 kilometres (1) ____the capital N’Djamena. Coming from a (2)________ country, I got quite a
shock, as conditions were (3)_________harder than I had expected. But after a few days I got used to (4)________
there. The people were always very friendly and helpful, and I soon began to appreciate ( 5 )________beautiful the
countryside was.
One of my jobs was to supply the village (6)________ water. The well was a long walk away, and the women
used to spend a long time every day carrying heavy pots backwards and ( 7 ) ______. So I contacted the organisation
and arranged to have some pipes delivered. (8)________ these pipes were not really perfect, they still made a great
difference to the villagers.
All in all, I think my time with OV was a good experience. Although it was  ( 9 )_______, it was well worth
doing and I would recommend it to anyone ( 10 )________ was considering working for a charity.
(Source: Adapted from + New Success at First Certificate)

1. A. from B. of C. with D. about

2. A. well- paid B. rich C. comfortable D. luxurious
3. A. much B. moreC. less D. few
4. A. If B. living C. When D. Although
5. A. How B. when C. where D. who
6. A. with B. on C. for D. from
7. A. forwarded B. forwards C. forwarding D. forward
8. A Although B. When C. Because D. If
9. A. not paying B. not paid C. paid D. not pay
 109

10. A. which B. when C. where D. who

Passage B:
Read the following passage. Circle the best answers (A, B, C or D) to complete the passage. (1
point)
Smoking causes lung cancer, heart disease, and breathing problems. Worldwide, about three
million people die every year because of smoking - that's about one .......(1)........ every ten seconds ! In
fact, smoking is the .........(2)........ of almost 20 percent of all deaths in the developed countries of the
world. Smoking doesn't just ........(3)…….... the smoker, it hurts other people, too. When a pregnant
....(4)...... smokes, she is hurting her developing……...(5)......... When a man .........(6)......... at home, his
wife and children are also breathing in smoke and can become sick. Even though most people
understand the ........(7)........... effects of smoking, they continue to smoke. The …......(8)........of women
and teenagers who smoke is increasing. Cigarette companies make advertisements
that……....(9)..........these groups of people so that they…....(10)…...to buy cigarettes.
1. A. death B. end C. loss D. decrease
2. A. origin B. reason C. cause D. basis
3. A. injure B. danger C. destroy D. hurt
4. A. child B. man C. woman D. wife
5. A. baby B. children C. love D. youth
6. A. relax B. enjoy C. cigarettes D. smokes
7. A. beneficial B. harmful C. harmed D. profitable
8. A. number B. amount C. quantity D. total
9. A. interest B. concern C. matter D. worry
10. A. retain B. maintain C. continue D. preserve
V. Reading Comprehension (10 pts)
Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question.
Passage A:
Miss Earth is an annual international female beauty pageant promoting environmental awareness. Carousel
Productions Inc. organised and launched the first Miss Earth beauty pageant in 2001. It was intended to
actively promote the preservation of the environment. The Miss Earth pageant is recognised as one of the
three most prestigious beauty pageant in the world in terms of size and quality. ( the other two are Miss
Universe and Miss World contests). The reigning titleholders dedicate their year  to promote the  event to
address issues concerning the environment. Those who participate in the pageant are involved with
envirnmental causes. The pageant winner is expected to become involved with international environmental
projects. These projects are promoted during the pageant’s broadcast. The delegates also take part in tree
planting ceremonies, environmental and cultural immersion programs, sponsor visits and tours. 
The Miss Earth pageant has grown with an increasing number of countries participanting. The number of
national Miss Earth pageant has grown on every continent as well. The  Miss Earth winner is the
spokesperson for the Miss Earth Foundation, the United Ntions Environment Program ( UNEP ) and other
environmental groups since the Miss Earth pageant has an environmental cause, it is primarily looking for
young women who will stand for the protection and preservation of the planet.these women are pageant
winners or chosen by national Miss Earth derectors from different nations. On national level competitions,
the Mis Earth’s cause is carried out to assure that each of the participating candidates are not just physically
beautiful,  but environmentally knowledgeable. As soon as the national winners are chosen, they will be
subject to evaluation be the pageant organiser.
1. How many international beauty contests are referred in the text?
A. two B. four C. three D. one
2. Which is the activity that the Miss Earth beauty pageant winner does not have to take part in?
A. to pay sponsor visits. B. to participate in cultural immersion programs
C. to attend tree planting ceremonies. D. to advitise for a commercial company.
3. The text is …
A. critical B. informative C. disapproving  D. disgusting
4. The word “ awareness” has a close meaning to __________ .
A. promotion B. increase  C. knowledge  D. preservation
5. The winner of the Miss Earth pageant was involved with ___________ .
   A. economy B. politics  C. finance  D. environment.
 110

Passage B:
Read the passage below. Then circle the best option (A, B, C or D) to answer each question. (1
point)
Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at college
and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she
was hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life.
Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews,
but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year, she published The Sea Around Us, which
provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology
and marine biology. Her imaginary and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than
1,000 printing sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in
the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her non-technical readers.
In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It
proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how
they poisoned the food supply of animals, killed birds and fish, and contaminated human food. At the
time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued
propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was vindicated by a 1963
report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee.
1.The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work
A. as a researcher B. at college
C. at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service D. as a writer
2. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University ?
A. oceanography B. history
C. literature D. zoology
3. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of
A. 26 B. 29 C. 34 D. 35
4. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind
A. was outdated. B. became more popular than her other books.
C. was praised by critics. D. sold many copies.
5. Which of the following was Not mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea
Around Us ?
A. printed matter B. talks with experts
C. a research expedition D. letters from scientists
Passage C:
Renewable Energy
An insight into the progress in renewable energy research
A  The race is on for the ultimate goal of renewable energy: electricity production at prices that are
competitive with coal-fired power stations, but without coal’s pollution. Some new technologies are aiming
to be the first to push coal from its position as Australia’s chief source of electricity.
B  At the moment the front-runner in renewable energy is wind technology. According to Peter Bergin of
Australian Hydro, one of Australia’s leading wind energy companies, there have been no dramatic changes
in windmill design for many years, but the cumulative effects of numerous small improvements have had a
major impact on cost. ‘We’re reaping the benefits of 30 years of research in Europe, without have to make
the same mistakes that they did,’ Mr Bergin says.
C  Electricity can be produced from coal at around 4 cents per kilowatt-hour, but only if the environmental
costs are ignored. ‘Australia has the second cheapest electricity in the world, and this makes it difficult for
renewable to compete,’ says Richard Hunter of the Australian Ecogeneration Association (AEA).
Nevertheless, the AEA reports: ‘The production cost of a kilowatt-hour of wind power is one-fifth of what it
was 20 years ago,’ or around 7 cents per kilowatt-hour.
D  Australian Hydro has dozens of wind monitoring stations across Australia as part of its aim to become
Australia’s pre-eminent renewable energy company. Despite all these developments, wind power remains
one of the few forms of alternative energy where Australia is nowhere near the global cutting edge, mostly
just replicating European designs.
 111

E  While wind may currently lead the way, some consider a number of technologies under development
have more potential. In several cases, Australia is at the forefront of global research in the area. Some of
them are very site-specific, ensuring that they may never become dominant market players. On the other
hand, these newer developments are capable of providing more reliable power, avoiding the major criticism
of windmills – the need for back-up on a calm day.
F  One such development uses hot, dry rocks. Deep beneath South Australia, radiation from elements
contained in granite heats the rocks. Layers of insulating sedimentation raise the temperatures in some
location to 250° centigrade. An Australian firm, Geoenergy, is proposing to pump water 3.5 kilometres into
the earth, where it will travel through tiny fissures in the granite, heating up as it goes until it escapes as
steam through another drilled hole.
G  No greenhouse gases are produced, but the system needs some additional features if it is to be
environmentally friendly. Dr Prue Chopra, a geophysicist at the Australian National University and one of
the founders of Geoenergy, note that the steam will bring with it radon gas, along through a heat exchanger
and then sent back underground for another cycle. Technically speaking, hot dry rocks are not a renewable
source of energy. However, the Australian source is so large it could supply the entire country’s needs for
thousands of years at current rates of consumption.
H  Two other proposals for very different ways to harness sun and wind energy have surfaced recently.
Progress continues with Australian company EnviroPower’s plans for Australia’s first solar chimney near
Mildura, in Victoria. Under this scheme, a tall tower will draw hot air from a greenhouse built to cover the
surrounding 5 km². As the air rises, it will drive a turbine* to produce electricity. The solar tower combines
three very old technologies – the chimney, the turbine and the greenhouse – to produce something quite new.
It is this reliance on proven engineering principles that led Enviropower’s CEO, Richard Davies, to state:
There is no doubt this technology will work, none at all.’
I  This year, Enviropower recognized that the quality of sunlight in the Mildura district will require a
substantially larger collecting area than was previously thought. However, spokesperson kay Firth says that a
new location closer to Mildura will enable Enviropower to balance the increased costs with extra revenue.
Besides saving in transmission costs, the new site ‘will mean increased revenue from tourism and use of
power for telecommunications. We’ll also be able to use the outer 500 metres for agribusiness.’ Wind speeds
closer to the tower will be too high for farming.
J  Another Australian company, Wavetech, is achieving success with ways of harvesting the energy in
waves. Wavetech’s invention uses a curved surface to push waves into a chamber, where the flowing water
column pushes air back and forth through a turbine. Wavetech was created when Dr Tim Devine offered the
idea to the world leader in wave generator manufacturers, who rather surprisingly rejected it. Dr Devine
responded by establishing Wavetech and making a number of other improvements to generator design.
Wavetech claims that, at appropriate sites, ‘the cost of electricity produced with our technology should be
below 4 cents per kilowatt-hour.
K  The diversity of forms of greenhouse – friendly energy under development in Australia is remarkable.
However, support on a national level is disappointing. According to Richard Hunter of the AEA, ‘Australia
has huge potential for wind, sun and wave technology. We should really be at the forefront, but the reality is
we are a long way behind.’
Questions 1- 10
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage ?
In boxes 1 – 6  on your answer sheet, write
TRUE               if the statement agrees with the information.
FALSE              if the statement contradicts the information.
NOT GIVEN    if there is no information on this.
1.  In Australia, alternative energies are less expensive than conventional electricity.
2.  Geoenergy needs to adapt its system to make it less harmful to the environment.
3.  Dr Prue Chopra has studied the effects of radon gas on the environment.
4.  Hot, dry rocks could provide enough power for the whole of Australia.
5.   The new Enviropower facility will keep tourists away.
6.   Wavetech was established when its founders were turned down by another company.
 112

Questions 7 - 10
Look at the following statements (Questions  7 – 10 ) and the list of companies below.
Match each statement with the correct company, A-D.
Write the correct letter, A-D, in boxes 7 - 10 on your answer sheet.
NB  You may use any letter more than once.
7.   During the process, harmful substances are prevented from escaping.
8.   Water is used to force air through a special device.
9.  Techniques used by other countries are being copied.
10.   The system can provide services other than energy production.
List of Companies
A.     Australian Hydro
B.    Geoenergy
C.     Enviropower
D.     Wavetech
B. WRITTEN TEST (70 pts)
I. Cloze test (20 pts)
Passage A:
For many years, schoolchildren in the US have been taken on “field trips” to cultural institutions and (1 )
__________sites. Despite these trips involving some expense and disruption to class timetables, educators arrange
them in the belief that schools ( 2) ________not only to teach economically useful skills, but also to produce  ( 3 )
_______  young people who appreciate the arts and culture.
However, there have been increasing signs in recent years that the  (4 ) _______towards field trips is
changing, with a  ( 5 ) ______  decrease in the number of tours organized for school groups. A survey carried out by a
group of school administrators found that over half the schools they asked had decided to cancel trips planned for the
next academic year.
So what are the reasons for this change? The most  ( 6 ) _______one is the issue of finance. Because there are
increasing demands on their funds, schools are forced to make a difficult choice about how  (7 ) __________ the
limited money they have. Field trips are an obvious thing to cut since they are seen by many as a luxury. A large
number of school heads also  (8 ) _____- days spent away from school a waste of time, believing that the only
worthwhile use of students' time is spent preparing for exams in the classroom.
But why should anybody worry if schoolchildren go on fewer trips? Those that believe this is a negative
development in  ( 9 ) ___________would say that cultural field trips contribute to the development of students into
well- educated adults who have a healthy interest in history and the arts. Researchers warn that if schools cut field
trips, then valuable opportunities to broaden and enrich children's learning  ( 10 ) _______ are lost.
(Adapted from Exam Booster by Helen Chilton, Sheila Dignen, Mark Fountain and Frances Treloar)
Passage B:
Traditionally, universities (1) ______  two main activities: research and teaching. Many academics would argue
that both these activities play a critical role in serving the community. The fundamental question, however, is:
how does the community want or need (2) ________? In recent years, universities have been coming under
increasing  ( 3 ) ____ from both governments and the public to ensure  that they do not
remain “ ivory towers” of study  ( 4 ) ______ from the realities of everyday life. University teachers have been
encouraged , and in some cases constrained, to provide more ( 5 ) _______  which produce graduates with the
technical skills  required for the commercial sector and research that has practical  ( 6 )  ____ which are
commercially exploitable. If Aristotle wanted to work in a tertiary institution in the UK today, he would have a
good  ( 7 ) ___ of teaching computer science but would not be so readily employable as a philosopher.
A post-industrial society requires large numbers of computer programmers, engineers, managers and technicians
to maintain and develop its ( 8 ) ____ growth Page 4 Bảng A but man, as the Bible says “does not live by bread
alone”. Apart from requiring medical and social services which do not directly contribute to economic growth, it
would be an ( 9 ) ______ society that did not value and enjoy literature, music and the arts. In these costconscious
times, it even pointed  out in justification for the funding of the arts that they can be useful money earners. A
successful musical, for instance, can contribute as much to the Gross Nation Product through tourist dollars as
any other ( 10 ) ____ initiative.
II. Word formation (20 pts)
Part 1: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the
column on the right.
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1. Everyone shows their deepest ____ on the death of the flood victims.     SYMPATHIZE
2. I have to buy some more food in ______ for more unexpected guests.    PREPARE
3. Many contests which are not well-    ___ make contestants as well as 
    supporters and viewers upset.                                                                    ORGANISE
4. Sarah believes that parents should be made _____ responsible for 
    their children’s behaviour.                                                                          PERSON
5. Everybody needs to live in a  __________-environment. HEALTH
6. My father has just given me a pocket _________ machine. CALCULATE
7. Khanh was sad because he thought he was  ____ , which means she
      had no friends.                                                                                         FRIEND
8. Neither the students nor their teachers have prepare for the _______ .    EXCURSE
9. On Easter Island, where the Dutch had gone in search of supplies,
     there  were only 4.000 _____ .                                                                  INHABITAT
10. I will never forget being invited to the Royal Garden Party, where
      superb cuisines were served amid luxurious ________ .                         SURROUND
Part 2:

DIE           HURTING         BAD          HARM         INTERESTING

CAUSIVE   SMOKE        WOMEN       CONTINUED   NUMBERING

Read the following passage. Give correct form of the word to complete the
passage. 
Smoking causes lung cancer, heart disease, and breathing problems. Worldwide, about
three million people die every year because of smoking - that's about one ....(1)...... every ten
seconds ! In fact, smoking is the ....(2)...... of almost 20 percent of all deaths in the developed
countries of the world. Smoking doesn't just ....(3)...... the smoker, it hurts other people, too.
When a pregnant ....(4)...... smokes, she is hurting her developing....(5)....... When a man
.....(6)...... at home, his wife and children are also breathing in smoke and can become sick. Even
though most people understand the ....(7)....... effects of smoking, they continue to smoke. The
...(8).....of women and teenagers who smoke is increasing. Cigarette companies make
advertisements that.....(9).......these groups of people so that they...(10)....to buy cigaretes.
III. Error correction (10 pts)
          Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She ( 0)___  biology at college and zoology
at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s ( 1 ) __ in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S.
Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her( 2 ) ___. Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was
published in 1941. It received excellent
reviews, but ( 3) ___ were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year, she published The Sea Around Us,
which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface,  ( 4 ) ___ human history as well as geology and
marine biology. Her imaginary and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printing
sources. She had ( 5 ) ___ correspondence and
frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the ( 6 )  ___ of her non-technical
readers. In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that  ( 7 ) ___ considerable controversy. It proved how
much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides.She detailed
how they poisoned the food supply of animals, killed birds and fish, and  ( 8 ) ___ human food. At the time,
spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to ( 9 ) ___
that her findings were flawed. However, her work was vindicated by a 1963 report of the President’s ( 10 ) ___
Advisory Committee.IV. Sentences Transformation (20 pts)
Part 1: 
Use the word(s) given in the brackets and make any necessary additions to complete a new sentence in
such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the
form of the given word(s).
1. He stood no chance of passing his exams.  ( INEVITABLE )
2. I am sure that he missed the eleven o’clock train.  ( CAN’T )
3. Not a word came out of her mouth.  ( LOST )
4. I am not a solitary person, I’m sociable.  ( RATHER )
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5. You cannot choose which hotel you stay at on this package holiday. ( OPTION )
6. I certainly won’t change my mind about resigning.  ( QUESTION )
7. You couldn’t do anything more stupid than to give up your job now. (  HEIGHT )
8. I really don’t know what you are talking about.  ( FAINTEST )
9. I have hardly done anything today.  ( NEXT )
10. Many people will congratulate her if she wins. ( SHOWERED )
Part 2: Complete each sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence
1. The manager wrote a long and ungrammatical report.
-  The report which ……………………………………………………………………………..
2. I think you should wash these apples carefully to avoid food poisoning.
-  I suggested these ……………………………………………………………………………..
3. Mr. Hai is so axhausted that he won’t be able to go out tonight.
-  Mr.Hai is too………………………………………………………………………………….
4. This woman worked really hard but couldn’t support her family.
-  Hard……………………………………..…………………………………………………….
5. Using public transport saves energy as well as reduce pollution. 
-  Not only ………………………………………………………………………………………