• Mock

Q1 A 65 year old female presents at your surgery complaining of an extremely sharp pain of a
few seconds duration which arises whenever she touches an area of skin above the right hand
side of her upper lip adjacent to the angle of her mouth. The patient is fit and well and is not taking
any medication. You make a diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia.

What is the drug of choice for treating trigeminal neuralgia in such a patient?

A. Carbamazepine
B. Ibuprofen
C. Gabapentin
D. Phenytoin

Q2 A patient on examination was found to have swollen gingiva around a crown that had been
present for several years. The papillae were particularly enlarged.

What is the most important feature of a crown that may be responsible for this?

A. Material of the Crown

B. The occlusion
C. Proximal Contour
D. Labial Contour
E. Surface finish

Q3 A 13 year old girl presents with an unerupted permanent canine and a retained primary
canine. You cannot palpate the unerupted canine in the buccal sulcus and you are uncertain as to
whether it is displaced palatally or in the line of the arch.

Which single radiographic view would be most helpful in locating the unerupted tooth?

A. Bitewing
B. DPT
C. Lateral oblique
D. Single periapical
E. Upper anterior occlusal

Q4 A 30 year old man with unknown allergy to latex goes into anaphylactic shock whilst being
treated in the dental surgery.

Which drug and route of administration is of most benefit in this situation?

A. Hydrocortisone - orally
B. Chlorphenamine – intramuscularly
C. Chlorphenamine - orally
D. Epinephrine - intravenously
E. Epinephrine – intramuscularly
Q5 A 62 year old female presents at your surgery complaining of a persistent, dull ache
affecting her upper left 4. The pain is present all the time but varies in its severity although the
patient cannot think of any exacerbating factors. It is not relieved by analgesics. Over the past 18
months the patient has had several teeth extracted from the upper left quadrant. Each extraction
brings about temporary relief of her symptoms only for them to recur in an adjacent tooth.

What is the most likely cause of the patient’s pain?

A. Acute/reversible pulpitis
B. Dentine sensitivity
C. Chronic/irreversible pulpitis
D. Atypical odontalgia
E. Trigeminal neuralgia
Patients with atypical odontalgia characterized by chronic pain in a tooth or teeth, or in
a site where teeth have been extracted or following endodontic treatment, without an
identifiable cause. Over time, the pain may spread to involve wider areas of the face
or jaws. while trigeminal neuralgia patient may describe electrical shock like pain
which is paroxysmal and a trigger area on the face so sensitive to touch or even air
episode, with periods of total relief between attacks also, in the question, the pt.
complains of persistent dull pain.

Q6 A 25 year old patient attends your surgery complaining of a swelling at the angle of the
mandible. A radiograph shows a uni-locular radiolucency associated with the crown of an
unerupted wisdom tooth.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Radicular cyst
B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Lateral periodontal cyst
D. Ameloblastoma
E. Odontogenic keratocyst

Q7 A 70 year old female, who suffers with persistent looseness of her lower complete denture, is
considered for implants. She will require radiological evaluation of the potential implant sites.

Which would be the most appropriate radiological investigation at this stage?

A. MRI scan of the mandible

B. CT scan of the mandible
C. Periapical radiographs of the mandibular anterior region
D. True lower anterior occlusal view
E. Panoramic radiograph

Q8 Six months ago you saw a child patient, then aged 9 years. His upper right maxillary
canine was palpable in the labial sulcus but the upper left was not. The situation is now
unchanged, so you have taken two periapicals of the non-palpable tooth. They both show that
there is some resorption of the C| root but the permanent canine appears somewhat mesially
angled and is more mesial on the more mesially positioned film.

What is your the best course of action?

A. Keep a careful watch on it and take another x-ray in 6 months.

B. Refer to an oral surgeon for early exposure of the permanent canine.
C. Refer to an oral surgeon for early removal of the permanent canine before it
damages the lateral incisor.
D. Refer to an orthodontist for a treatment plan.
E. Wait and watch’ until the child is 11.
 Q9 An apical radiolucency (2mm) is noticed as an incidental radiographic finding associated
with the apex of the mesiobuccal root of the lower right first molar. The tooth has been root filled
but is 2mm short of the radiographic apex. There are no other clinical or radiographic findings and
the patient is fit and well.

What is the most appropriate course of action?

A. Extract the tooth.

B. Redo the root filling
C. Perform periapical surgery.
D. Advise the patient of the situation and monitor clinically and radiographically
E. Prescribe antibiotics then review

Q10 Endodontic treatment has failed on an upper first molar; the patient is keen to retain
the tooth. There are persistent symptoms from the tooth. Radiographically there is evidence of
periapical radiolucency although the three canals are obturated with good length and compaction.

What is the best course of action?

A. Extract the tooth

B. Re-treatment with an iodine solution as irrigant
C. Re-treatment with hypochlorite solution as irrigant
D. Re-treat the tooth, looking particularly for additional canals
E. Surgical apicectomy

Q11 Dental amalgams contain different levels of copper (> 6 %) in the alloy. What is the

function of the copper in the amalgam?

A. To act as a scavenger
B. To reduce the setting time
C. To prevent an exothermic reaction on setting
D. To reduce/eliminate the formation of the gamma 2 phase
E. To prevent hydrolysis
 Q12 Epidemiological studies have shown that dental decay is normally greater
amongst northerners and those in socially deprived circumstances.

Which of the following would be most effective in reducing caries in a high risk
population?

A. Brushing with fluoride toothpaste

B. Publicity campaign
C. Fluoridation of the water supply
D. Dietary advice via schools
E. Fissure sealant provision

Q13 A 58 year old male presents at your surgery complaining of a sharp pain of no more than
30 minutes duration arising from his upper left molar region. The pain is brought on by cold
stimuli but persists after the stimulus is removed. It does not seem to occur spontaneously. He
has tried taking paracetemol and this does temporarily stop the pain from recurring. The upper
left 6 reacted to COLD testing than the upper right 6, upper left 7 or the lower left molars.

What is the most likely cause of the patient’s pain?

A. Acute/reversible pulpitis
B. Dentine sensitivity
C. Chronic/irreversible pulpitis
D. Periapical periodontitis
E. Trigeminal neuralgia

Q14 A 60 year old patient attends your surgery complaining of a sore mouth. He has Type II
diabetes well controlled by diet and metformin. On examination white patches which cannot be
removed are present on his buccal mucosa.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Frictional keratosis
B. Leukoplakia
C. Lichen Planus
D. White sponge naevus
E. Candidosis

Q15 A 16 years Male requires antibiotic prophylaxis for extraction of a Lower Right 6 under
Local Analgesia. There is no history of antibiotic allergies in his medical history.

Which of the following is the most appropriate regime for antibiotic prophylaxis?

A. 2 g Amoxicinin 1hour pre-op

B. 1.5g Amoxicinin 1hour pre-op
C. 1.5g Penicillin 1hour pre-op
D. 250mg Amoxicinin 3 times per day for 1 week prior to extraction
E. 300mg Clindamycin 1hour pre-op
Q16 A child of 9 with a crowded mixed dentition attends with her parent. The child reports that the
upper first permanent molars are very sensitive. On examination, they appear hypoplastic and
very broken down.

Which of the following management strategies are you most likely to recommend?

A. Early extraction of the hypoplastic upper molars with compensating extraction

of the lower first permanent molars.
B. Restore the first permanent molars.
C. Serial extractions.
D. Put on regular review.
E. Extract the first molars when she is 12.

Q17 A 65 year old man presents for a denture review. He complains that his upper denture
causes him some discomfort occasionally but otherwise he has no complaints. Upon removal of
the denture you notice a thick plaque covering the palatal mucosa. When brushed with a cotton
wool roll, it can be removed, and the underlying mucosa is red and areas of it bleed. Upon
questioning the patient you find that he rarely removes his denture. The denture itself is stained
and has heavy calculus deposits on it. The patient’s medical history is clear.

How will you deal with this problem?

A. Swab the mucosa for microbiology, prescribe an anti-fungal cream and advise
on denture hygiene initially
B. Arrange for an incisional biopsy as an emergency appointment at the local
DH
C. Arrange for a denture reline to be conducted
D. Prescribe a broad spectrum antibiotic and review in 7 days with a view to
replacing the denture
E. Do a chair-side reline using a tissue conditioner and advise on denture
hygiene

Q18 A 35 year old patient complains of swollen gums. This has been present for several
years.

What is the commonest cause of this complaint?

A. Cyclosporin therapy
B. Vitamin C deficiency
C. Chronic Gingivitis
D. Atenolol therapy
E. Pregnancy
 Q19 Cigarette smoking is considered to be the most important factor next to microbial
plaque in periodontal disease progression.

Which of the following is the most important factor in the disease progression in smokers?

A. Smokers have drier mouths than non-smokers

B. Smokers have poorer oral hygiene than non-smokers.
C. Nicotine will impair the chemotactic and phagocytic properties of PMNs.
D. The gingival blood flow is reduced in smokers.
E. Smokers alter the oral environment encouraging the growth of anaerobic
bacteria

Q20 An adult patient attends your practice complaining of pain and swelling associated with a
previously restored upper first premolar tooth. The pain has been present for a number of days and
is no longer responding to analgesics. His dentition is otherwise well maintained and his
periodontal health is good.

What is the most appropriate approach to treatment?

A. Antibiotics and analgesics.

B. Extract the tooth
C. Carry out a pulpotomy. Temporary dressing.
D. Carry out a pulpectomy. Temporary dressing
E. Establish open drainage

Q21 A patient reports that his post crown has fallen out. This crown had been
present for many years. You note that there appears to be a hairline vertical
fracture of the root. The tooth is symptomless.

What is the most sensible approach to treatment?

A. Replace the post crown using a resin-reinforced glass ionomer material

B. Replace the post crown using a polycarboxylate cement
C. Replace the post crown using a dentine bonding agent and a resin-
reinforced glass ionomer material
D. Replace the post crown using a resin composite luting agent
E. Arrange to extract the tooth

Q22 A patient says that he does not like the appearance of his previously root filled upper central
incisor tooth. His dentition is otherwise well maintained and his periodontal health is good. The
tooth appears to be darker than the adjacent teeth.

What is the most appropriate approach to treatment?

A. Provision of a post crown

B. Provision of an all ceramic crown
C. Provision of a metal bonded to ceramic crown
D. Carry out a non vital bleaching procedure
E. Provision of a porcelain veneer
Q23 A 20 year old patient attends your surgery for the first time. You suspect that he may have
proximal caries as he has a frequent sugar intake.

Which of the following is the most accurate method of diagnosing proximal caries in a lower molar
tooth in this young adult?

A. Clinical history
B. Periapical radiograph
C. Bitewing radiograph
D. Digital image
E. Electronic resistance measurements

Q24 A 25 year old male attends for the first time complaining of sensitivity of a number of teeth.
On examination, the occlusal surfaces of all the teeth are worn with obvious wear facets on the
canines and premolars. Posterior amalgam restorations are proud of the surrounding tooth.

What would be the first stage management?

A. Take impressions for study models

B. Prescribe fluoride mouth rinse
C. Replace the amalgam restorations
D. Dietary analysis
E. Placement of resin sealant to sensitive teeth

Q25 A 35 year old male patient who admits to grinding his teeth at night has a number of wedge-
shaped cervical (Class V) lesions on his upper premolar teeth. These are causing some sensitivity
and are approximately 3mm deep.

What is the correct management option?

A. Provide tooth brushing instruction and fluoride

B. Restore the lesions with compomer
C. Restore the lesions with micro-filled composite
D. Restore the lesions with a hybrid composite
E. Restore the lesions with conventional glass-ionomer

Q26 A patient attends with pain of four days duration in a carious upper molar tooth.
The pain is constant and is not relieved by paracetemol. Sleep has been disturbed
by the pain. The tooth is tender to percussion and gives a positive response to Ethyl
Chloride.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pericoronitis
B. Apical periodontitis
C. Marginal periodontitis
D. Reversible pulpitis
E. Irreversible pulpitis
 Q27 You are trying in a partial chrome denture framework which fails to seat
properly. It fits the master cast.

What is the most likely cause of this problem?

A. Insufficient expansion of the investment material

B. Distortion of the impression
C. Contraction of the metal framework during casting
D. Failure to block out unwanted undercuts
E. Complex denture design

Q28 A 60 year old female attends your surgery complaining of soreness affecting her gingivae. No
other area of her oral mucosa is affected but she complains of occasional bleeding and crusting
inside her nose and itchiness affecting one of her eyes. She is fit and well and is not taking any
medication. On examination intra-orally a desquamative gingivitis is present. Her left eye looks
inflamed and there is some evidence of scarring giving rise to symblephron formation between the
conjunctiva lining her lower eyelid and that covering the surface of her eye itself.

Based on the above findings what is your diagnosis?

A. Mucous membrane pemphigoid

B. Lichen planus
C. Pemphigus vulgaris
D. Erythema multiforme

Q29 You take a panoramic radiograph of a patient and discover a well-defined, corticated
radiolucent area below the inferior dental canal just anterior to the mandibular angle.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Radicular cyst
B. Stafne bone cavity
C. Metastatic carcinoma of the breast
D. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour
E. Complex odontome
Q30 A 19 year old patients attends your surgery complaining of a painful mouth which has been
present for about 7 days. He has a raised temperature, general malaise and a marked
lyphadenopathy.

Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Lateral periodontal abscess

B. Acute pulpitis
C. Acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis
D. Desquamative gingivitis
E. Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis

Q31 A patient complains of a lower incisor which has been mobile for several months. The
radiograph indicates a normal level of bony support although the periodontal space has widened.
The apical bone appears normal. The tooth is tender to pressure.

Which of the following tests and or examinations would be most likely to provide a diagnosis?

A. Masticatory muscle palpation

B. Electric pulp test
C. Occlusal examination vitality test most important (cold test)
D. Ethyl chloride test
E. Hot gutta percha application

Q32 Radiation protection of patients is partly dependent upon equipment factors (x-
ray set and film or digital system). The different factors that can be changed vary in
financial cost to the dentist and in their effectiveness in cutting x-ray dose.

Which of the following provides the most cost-effective means of minimizing patient
radiation dose in dental intraoral radiography?

A. Constant potential (‘DC’) x-ray set

B. Rare earth filtration
C. Lead apron
D. D speed film

Q33 Dentists are encouraged to carry out a thorough soft tissue examination and be vigilant for
any lesions that might possibly be malignant or have malignant potential. Currently it is not
recommended that dentists use a mucosal staining method for screening the general population for
oral cancer.

What is the most likely reason for this advice?

A. Unnecessary intervention where there is a false positive test result

B. False reassurance where there is a false negative test result
C. Low uptake of screening by those with low risk
D. Low uptake of screening by those with high risk pt life at risk with false
E. Negative result reinforcing existing bad habits
negative result
Q34 A 14 year old patient attends with a decayed and extensive hypoplastic LL7. He is a very
irregular attender with poor oral health habits. A radiograph shows the presence of an unerupted
LL8 and the LL6 is sound.

What would be the most appropriate long-term treatment for this tooth?

A. Amalgam restoration
B. Antibiotics
C. Extraction
D. Root canal therapy
E. Sedative dressing

Q35 Lignocaine (2%) is widely used in dental procedures. It is most often used in combination
with epinephrine (1 in 80,000).

In which one of the following patients is the use of epinephrine containing local analgesia
potentially hazardous?

A. Patient with severe hypertension

B. Patient on tricyclic antidepressants
C. Patient who is an alcoholic
D. Patient on monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
E. Patient with Grand Mal epilepsy

Q36 You have been treating a 66 year old patient for some years but she has recently
developed several new cervical carious lesions. You think her mouth looks dry but she is not
complaining of this. You decide to measure her unstimulated salivary flow rate.

Which of the following salivary flow rates would confirm a diagnosis of dry mouth?

A. 0.07 ml/minute CORRECT

B. 1 ml/minute
C. 0.3 ml/minute
D. 0.5 ml/minute
E. 1.5 ml/minute
Q37 Membranes of expanded polytetrafluorethylene have been designed for periodontal
regenerative techniques.

Which of the following defects will respond most predictably to regenerative therapy?

A. Shallow, wide 1-wall defect

B. Shallow, wide 2-wall defect
C. Deep, narrow 3-wall defect
D. Deep narrow 1-wall defect
E. Shallow, narrow 2-wall defect

Q38 Hamp (1975) classified furcation defects as degree I, II or III.

Which of the following is the ideal treatment for a degree III furcation involvement of a
mandibular molar?

A. Tunnel preparation
B. Root resection
C. Furcation plasty
D. Extraction
E. Guided Tissue Regeneration

Q39 A 23 year old male patient has been assaulted and received a blow to his lower jaw.

What are the most likely fractures he has sustained?

A. Parasymphysis and zygomatic butress

B. Angle of mandible and hyoid
C. Parasymphysis and coronoid process
D. Angle of mandible and zyomatic process
E. Parasymphysis and condylar process

Q40 A 30 yr-old patient attends complaining of occasional pain from the lower left quadrant.
Clinical examination reveals an extensively restored dentition with generally good oral hygiene.
There is no significant periodontal pocketing other than an isolated defect in the region of the
furcation of lower left first molar which is non-mobile. The gingival tissue in this area appears
erythematous and slightly hyperplastic with a purulent exudate on probing.

From the list below, which is the most appropriate next step?

A. Obtain a radiograph
B. Biopsy the gingival tissue
C. Remove the restoration
D. Vitality testing
E. Prescribe antibiotics
Q41 A 40 yr old patient had root-canal treatment to his upper first molar. This was performed 6
months ago using contemporary techniques under rubber dam and was crowned after completion
of treatment. He attends complaining of continued discomfort from this tooth. Radiographic
examination shows each of the three roots to be obturated with a well-condensed filling to the full
working length though there is no evidence of in-fill of the periapical lesion when compared to the
pre-op view. There is crestal bone loss and no furcal involvement.

What is the most likely cause of the continued problem?

A. Extra-radicular infection
B. Contamination of canal(s) with E.faecalis
C. Uninstrumented canal
D. Vertical root fracture
E. Perio-endo problem

Q42 A mother is concerned that her child’s adult upper front teeth have not erupted and asks
your advice.

What is the usual age in years for the upper permanent central incisors to erupt?

A. 5 years.
B. 6 years.
C. 7 years.
D. 8 years.
E. 9 years.

Q43 You decide to refer an eight year old child to the oral surgery department in your local
hospital for extractions under a general anaesthetic.

What key reason for asking for a general anaesthetic would you put in the referral letter?

A. Parents request GA.

B. Failed to complete treatment under inhalation sedation.
C. Child would not accept local analgesia
D. Parents think hospital more convenient.
E. Not one of my regular patients.

Q44 An eight-year-old boy presents with pain of three days duration that has kept him awake.
On examination you see a grossly carious lower left 6 and some associated buccal swelling.

Which of the following is the most appropriate to give immediate relief of his pain?

A. Extract the LL6.

B. Gently excavate the caries. according to therapeutic guidelines you must remove the
C. Give antibiotics. cause (Exo or RCT)only A here
D. Incise any swelling D not matching this point
E. Refer for general anaesthetic
 Q45 A 10 year old girl tripped and knocked out her upper incisor 10 minutes ago. She is holding
it in her hand.

What is your most effective immediate treatment?

A. Accept the tooth is lost and do nothing.

B. Refer to specialist.
C. Re-plant immediately.
D. Root fill, clean and re-plant.
E. Sterilise root in alcohol and re-implant.

Q46 You are treating a patient who has a long history of recurrent episodes of oral candidosis.
His mouth has recently become sore once again and you want to prescribe some antifungals for
him. You check his medical history and find that he suffers from atrial fibrillation and is taking
warfarin.

Which of the following drugs would be most appropriate to treat this patient’s candidosis?

A. Metronidazole
B. Nystatin
C. Fluconazole
D. Miconazole
E. Amoxycillin

Q47 An 80 year old male presents at your surgery complaining of a sharp stabbing pain of no
more than 2-3 minutes duration arising from his upper left pre-molar region. The pain can be
brought on by cold stimuli but also occurs spontaneously and has been sufficiently severe to wake
the patient from sleep. He has tried taking paracetemol but this has been of no benefit. On
examination the patient has a heavily restored upper left 4, which is vital to electrical pulp testing
and shows no radiographic evidence of caries. Blowing cold air onto the tooth produces the pain
but the pain also occurs spontaneously when you are examining the patient. There is no evidence
of a crack or fracture in the tooth itself.

What is the most likely cause of the patient’s pain?

A. Acute/reversible pulpitis
B. Dentine sensitivity
C. Chronic/irreversible pulpitis
D. Atypical odontalgia
E. Trigeminal neuralgia

Q48 Page and Schroeder (1976) in their description of the pathogenesis of periodontal disease
described four stages in the process, the initial, early, established and advanced lesion.

Which of the following is the main feature defining the early lesion?

A. Emigration of the phagocytes through the junctional epithelium.

B. Presence of lymphocytes which are mainly T cells
C. Increase in crevicular fluid.
D. Predominance of plasma cells and B lymphocytes
E. Proliferation of the junctional epithelium.
 Q49 Gracey curettes are specially designed for subgingival debridement and are site

specific. Which curette is recommended for use on the lingual surface of a lower second molar?

A. Gracey Curette number 1 and 2.

B. Gracey Currette number 3 and 4
C. Gracey Currette number 7 and 8.
D. Gracey Currette number 11 and 12.
E. Gracey Currette number 13 and 14.

Q50 A patient attends your surgery complaining of a swelling at the angle of the mandible. There
is no obvious dental cause for this swelling.

Which of the following investigations is essential in moving from provisional to definitive diagnosis?

A. Radiographs
B. CT scan
C. Aspiration
D. Biopsy
E. Full Blood Count

Q51 A patient presents with a history of pain in the right pre-auricular region. There is
an intermittent click during opening; when the click is not present the patient can open
to a normal range. On examination the masticatory muscles, including the lateral
pterygoid, on the RHS side are tender.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Bruxism
B. Myofascial pain (or Pain dysfunction syndrome)
C. Disc Displacement with Reduction
D. Osteoarthrosis
E. Disc Displacement without Reduction

Q52 A 55 year old female presents at your surgery complaining of a sharp pain
of no more than a few minutes duration arising from her lower incisors. The pain
only occurs when she eats or drinks cold or sweet foods and only lasts for as long
as the stimulus is present. A
previous dentist applied a varnish to the teeth affected which seemed to help. The
teeth indicated by the patient appear healthy but when you blow air onto them the
patient experiences the pain.

What is the most likely cause of the patient’s pain?

A. Acute/reversible pulpitis
B. Dentine sensitivity
C. Chronic/irreversible pulpitis
D. Atypical odontalgia
E. Trigeminal neuralgia
Q53 A 46 year old female presents with a slowly enlarging painless firm swelling in
the hard palate to the left of the midline.

The most likely diagnosis is:

A. A dental abscess
B. Torus palatinus
C. Osteoma
D. Pleomorphic adenoma

Q54 A 29 year old man has a prosthetic (mechanical) aortic valve. He had
bacterial endocarditis five years ago. He now requires removal of his upper and
lower right third molars.

Which antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended prior to the procedure?

A. Amoxicillin and clindamycin

B. Metronidazole and cephalexin
C. Amoxicillin and gentamycin
D. Amoxycillin and vancomycin
E. Erythromycin and vancomycin

Q55 A patient presents for their first appointment with you. He has complete
dentures. He has worn upper dentures for 30 years and the lower complete for just
3. Prior to this he had the lower premolar – premolar teeth and did not use the lower
denture supplied to him. Unusually the patient is happy with the lower denture but
the upper is causing considerable problems, especially with regard to retention. After
your examination you determine that the patient has a flabby anterior ridge and this
seems to be the source of many of the problems.

How will you deal with this problem?

A. Surgical excision of the flabby portion of the ridge using an atraumatic

technique
B. A selective pressure impression at the secondary impression stage
C. A highly muco-compressive impression to flatten the ridge and improve
retention
D. Cut a window in the finished denture to allow the ridge to protrude through
unhindered
E. A highly muco-static impression at the primary impression stage to allow
the ridge to be recorded at rest, followed by a normal impression at the
secondary stage
Q56 A 24 year old man presents with a loculated cystic radiolucency in the lower
third molar area approximately 3cm in diameter. There is no tooth associated with the
cyst and there is no bucco-lingual expansion of the mandible. There is no resorption
of the roots of the overlying second molar tooth.

How would this be treated?

A. Marsupialisation
B. Enucleation and ethyl chloride
C. Block resection
D. Enucleation and Carnoy’s solution
E. Enucleation and formalin solution

Q57 A 21 year old female presents for the first time to your practice. She is very upset with the
appearance of her upper left central incisor. On examination you find healthy oral hard and soft
tissues and excellent oral hygiene. On close examination you can see that the upper left central
incisor is slightly greyer than the upper right central incisor and has a composite restoration placed
palatally.

What is the most appropriate form of treatment given the information you have?

A. Bleaching with carbamide peroxide in custom formed trays of upper and lower
arches
B. A bonded crown
C. A composite veneer
D. A porcelain veneer

Q58 EDTA (ethylene diamine tetra-acetate) has useful roles in certain situations in clinical
dentistry.

When would you use EDTA?

A. As a root end filling material

B. As a pulp capping agent
C. As a root canal chelating agent
D. As a mouthwash
E. As a dentine bonding agent

Q59 A 48 year old woman complains of a sore area on the right buccal mucosa
adjacent to a restored tooth. The lesion has a lichenoid appearance and this is
confirmed histopathologically following a biopsy.

Which of the following restorative materials is most frequently associated with

lichenoid changes.?

A. Gold
B. Amalgam
C. Porcelain
D. composite
E. Glass ionomer cement
Q60 Glass ionomer cements are used in restoring Class V cavities.

Which of the following constituents are most likely to be present in glass ionomer
cements?

A.. Alumino-silicate glass and phosphoric acid

B. Phosphoric acid and zinc oxide
C. Polyacrylic acid and zinc oxide
D. Aluminosilicate glass and polyacrylic acid
E. Itaconic acid and zinc oxide
Q61 A 13 year old boy with Down’s syndrome attends for the first time. He is
cooperative and has no relevant medical history. He is caries free, apart from two
small occlusal cavities in his lower second primary molars. His mother requests
that these teeth are restored. IF adult teeth present then leave it
if not present then filling but xray
Which of the following is the most appropriate management? evaluation needed first
A. Arranging to extract these teeth at a future visit.
B. Arranging to place two simple restorations at a future visit.
C. Reassurance that these teeth can be left until they exfoliate naturally,
with no treatment being necessary.
D. Recommending use of fluoride mouthwash.
E. Take DPT to check on unerupted teeth.

Q62 An obese 40 year old who takes metformin is seen at the end of a morning
clinic. After administration of local analgesia in the supine position the patient
complains of feeling unwell. She is pale and sweating and is confused. No pulse
was detectable. She was given oxygen and maintained in the supine with no
improvement in condition.

What would be the most appropriate drug to administer next?

A. Glucagon conscious pt
B. Glucose
C. Adrenaline
D. Hydrocortisone
E. Chlorphenamine

Q63 A child of 5 years attends with pain from a grossly decayed lower right D
which has a discharging sinus. He is a hemophiliac.

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to relieve his pain?

A. Antibiotics
B. Extraction
C. Fluoride application
should be pulpectomy to avoid bleeding with extraction
D. Non-vital pulpotomy
E. Vital pulpotomy
 Q64 You are designing a partial denture for a patient with several missing teeth in
the maxilla.

The reason for surveying the model prior to designing the denture is to:

A. Measure and mark out hard and soft tissue undercuts on the casts
B. Relate the intended position of the inter-papillary plane of the patient to
the casts
C. Establish the position of the post dam
D. Relate the maxillary and mandibular casts
E. Aid setting up the prosthetic teeth prior to trial insertion

Q65. Chronic periodontitis is a disease of the periodontium initiated and sustained by

microbial plaque.

Which of the following is the main diagnostic feature of the disease?

A. Tooth Mobility
B. Loss of attachment
C. Pain
D. Gingival recession
E. Drifting