Practice Questions 1

1. Standard postural drainage positions exist for each specific lung segment. Although the positions allow optimal
drainage for their respective lung segment, they may not be realistic for some patients. Precautions for the use of
the Trendelenburg position include all of the following EXCEPT
A. arthritis
B. congestive heart failure
C. hypertension
D. pulmonary edema

2. A 72 year-old female involved in a motor vehicle accident fractures the middle third of her femoral shaft. The
patient’s physician is concerned about the effects of prolonged bed rest and would like the patient to begin walking
as soon as possible. Which form of treatment would facilitate early weight bearing through the involved
extremity?
A. immobilization in a hip spica cast
B. internal fixation with an intramedullary nail
C. open reduction and external fixation
D. skeletal traction

3. A 25 year-old female rehabilitating from a fractured tibia is cleared for 50 lbs. of weight bearing through the
involved lower extremity. The patient has no other significant medical problems and is expected to progress to
full weight bearing within three weeks. The most appropriate assistive device for this patient is
A. wooden axillary crutches
B. aluminum axillary crutches
C. aluminum Lofstrand crutches
D. wooden platform crutches

4. A therapist is treating a morbidly obese patient in physical therapy. The therapist would like to incorporate
modalities into the patient’s treatment plan, but is concerned about the potential for modalities to dangerously
elevate the patient’s tissue temperature. Which modality could potentially be the most dangerous to the patient?
A. diathermy
B. hot packs
C. paraffin
D. ultrasound

5. A therapist designs an aquatic program for a patient rehabilitating from a total hip replacement. The patient is
amazed how much easier it is to walk in the water compared to on land. What factor is responsible for the
patient’s ability to walk in water?
A. buoyancy
B. pressure
C. cohesion
D. viscosity

6. Energy conservation techniques can allow patients with pulmonary dysfunction to lower their energy expenditure
and oxygen consumption during activities of daily living. Which of the following energy conservation techniques
would be the most effective to assist a patient to complete a selected activity without dyspnea?
A. diaphragmatic breathing
B. pacing
C. pursed lip breathing
D. ventilatory muscle training

7. A physical therapy practice attempts to demonstrate appropriate allocation of its resources. This process is best
accomplished by
A. utilization review
B. quality assurance program
C. program evaluation
D. peer assessment

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 2 Practice Questions

8. A therapist develops a list of behavioral objectives for a patient five weeks status post open reduction and internal
fixation of the right femur. Which of the following would not be classified as a behavioral objective?
A. The patient will understand the difference between a two and a three point gait pattern
B. The patient will give two examples of appropriate exercise activities for their current post operative condition
C. The patient will identify two appropriate devices for ambulation
D. The patient will perform two sets of ten repetitions of short arc quads and straight leg raises daily

9. SOAP notes are a common form of documentation in a variety of health care settings. Which of the following
would not be found in the objective section of a soap note?
A. measurement of pertinent changes in mental status
B. description of present treatment
C. vital sign measurements
D. short and long term goals

10. A physical therapist performs a manual muscle test on a patient with unilateral lower extremity weakness. The
therapist should test the patient’s hip adductors with the patient positioned in
A. prone
B. sidelying
C. standing
D. supine

11. A therapist attempts to assist a patient to clear secretions after performing postural drainage techniques. What
position would allow the patient to produce the most forceful cough?
A. prone
B. sidelying
C. supine
D. upright sitting

12. A therapist instructs a patient on how to transfer to a chair after ambulating 125 feet with a walker. The most
appropriate instruction to assist the patient when beginning to sit is to
A. let go of the walker and reach backwards for the chair while sitting down
B. let go of the walker and reach backwards for the chair before beginning to sit down
C. maintain contact with the walker with both hands until seated in the chair
D. maintain contact with the walker with one hand and reach backwards for the chair with the other will sitting
down

13. Evaluative forms, diagnostic studies and written medical information completed by those caring for a patient are
all part of the medical record. Who is the owner of the official medical record?
A. the government
B. third party payers
C. the patient
D. the health care facility

14. A therapist is employed in a nursing home and routinely treats patients in excess of 90 years of age. Which of the
following physical changes is not attributed to aging?
A. decreased cardiac output
B. decreased vital capacity
C. increased incidence of osteoporosis
D. increased metabolic rate

15. Protective clothing including gloves, gowns and masks are commonly used on patients with infectious precautions.
In what order should the protective clothing be applied?
A. gloves, gown, mask
B. gown, gloves, mask
C. gown, mask, gloves
D. gloves, mask, gown

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 Practice Questions 3

16. A patient is referred to physical therapy 24 hours after a total knee replacement. What exercise would be the most
appropriate to begin treatment?
A. quadriceps sets
B. short arc quads
C. standing leg curls
D. straight leg raises

17. A physical therapist reviews a physician’s evaluation of a patient that will be seen in physical therapy later in the
day. The physician’s evaluation identifies excessive medial displacement of the elbow during ligamentous testing.
Which ligament is typically involved with medial instability of the elbow?
A. annular
B. radial collateral
C. ulnar collateral
D. volar radioulnar

18. A patient rehabilitating from a tibial plateau fracture is referred to physical therapy for instruction in gait training.
The patient has recently been cleared by his physician for weight bearing up to 40 lbs. Assuming the patient has
no significant balance or coordination deficits, which gait pattern would be the most appropriate?
A. two point alternating
B. four point alternating
C. three point
D. swing through

19. A patient reports to her therapist that she completely tore one of the ligaments in her ankle. If the patient’s
comment is correct, the injury to the ligament should be classified as a
A. grade I sprain
B. grade III sprain
C. grade I strain
D. grade III strain

20. A therapist treating a patient in a special care unit notices a marked increase in fluid on the dorsum of a patient’s
hand around their IV site. The therapist recognizing the possibility that the IV has become dislodged should
immediately
A. continue with the present treatment
B. contact the primary physician
C. turn off the IV
D. reposition the peripheral IV line

21. A patient rehabilitating from a radial head fracture performs progressive resistive exercises designed to strengthen
the forearm supinators. Which muscle would be of particular importance to achieve the desired outcome?
A. brachialis
B. brachioradialis
C. biceps brachii
D. anconeus

22. A therapist evaluates the viscosity and color of a sputum sample after completing postural drainage activities. The
sputum is a yellowish greenish color and is very thick. the therapist can best describe the sputum as
A. fetid
B. frothy
C. mucoid
D. purulent

23. A therapist is scheduled to treat a patient with meningitis in respiratory isolation. What precautions are necessary
when treating the patient?
A. mask
B. mask, gown
C. gloves, gown
D. mask, gloves, gown

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 4 Practice Questions

24. A therapist reviews the medical chart of a patient admitted to the hospital two days ago. The chart indicates the
patient sustained burns over their entire right forearm and hand. The chart also specifies the epidermal and dermal
layers were completely destroyed and some of the subcutaneous tissue was damaged. This description best
describes a
A. first degree burn
B. second degree burn
C. third degree burn
D. fourth degree burn

25. A patient using a standard wheelchair discusses the design of their home with a therapist in preparation for
discharge. The patient tells the therapist that her home is 150 years old and has narrow doorways. If the patient is
to safely propel the wheelchair through the doorway, what is the minimum doorway width required?
A. 20 inches
B. 26 inches
C. 32 inches
D. 38 inches

26. A patient is unable to take in an adequate supply of nutrients by mouth because of the side effects of radiation
therapy. The physician orders the implementation of tube feedings. What type of tube is most commonly used for
short term feeding?
A. endobronchial
B. nasogastric
C. otopharyngeal
D. tracheostomy

27. A T6 spinal cord injured patient prepares for discharge from a rehabilitation center following 15 weeks of
intensive therapy. Which of the following does not accurately describe the patient’s expected functional capability
at the conclusion of rehabilitation?
A. able to get a wheelchair in and out of a car
B. independent bowel and bladder care with appropriate equipment
C. independent self feeding
D. independent ambulation with forearm crutches and bilateral knee-ankle-foot orthosis

28. Therapists often encounter intravenous lines when treating patients. Which of the following does not describe a
potential use of an IV line?
A. infuse fluids
B. infuse electrolytes
C. obtain arterial blood samples
D. insert catheters into the central circulatory system

29. A therapist prepares a research article which will be submitted to a national monthly physical therapy publication.
Which of the following components of the research article will be the last to appear?
A. abstract
B. discussion
C. methods
D. results

30. Therapists routinely assess the amount of assistance a patient needs to complete a selected activity. Categories of
assistance include maximal, moderate, minimal, stand-by or independent. This type of measurement scale can be
classified as
A. interval
B. nominal
C. ordinal
D. ratio

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 Practice Questions 5

31. A physical therapist designs a treatment plan for an eight year-old boy with cystic fibrosis. A major component of
the treatment plan will include educating the patient’s family in appropriate bronchial drainage techniques. Which
of the following lung segments would be inappropriate for bronchial drainage?
A. left middle lobe
B. left upper lobe
C. right upper lobe
D. right lower lobe

32. A therapist completes a developmental assessment of a seven month-old infant. Assuming normal development,
which of the following reflexes would not be integrated?
A. asymmetrical tonic neck reflex
B. Moro reflex
C. symmetrical tonic neck reflex
D. traction reflex

33. A patient rehabilitating from a myocardial infarction prepares for a graded exercise test. Which of the following
classifications of drugs would have an increased effect on heart rate and blood pressure during an exercise test?

A. antianxiety
B. antihypertensive diuretics
C. beta blockers
D. bronchodilators

34. A therapist covering for a colleague on vacation evaluates a traumatic brain injured patient. The therapist ahs read
the patient’s medical chart but remains anxious about the evaluation. The most important area for the therapist to
assess immediately is
A. extent of orthopedic involvement
B. level of communication
C. muscle tone
D. sensation

35. A patient positioned in supine on a mat table is instructed to bring their right hip and knee toward their chest. This
evaluative technique can be used to assess the length of the
A. hamstrings on the left
B. hamstrings on the right
C. hip flexors on the left
D. hip flexors on the right

36. A therapist begins gait training activities with a below knee amputee. Which of the following activities would be
the most appropriate to begin training?
A. ascending and descending stairs
B. marching in place
C. walking on even ground
D. weight shifting in standing

37. A therapist employed in the athletic department measures the vertical leap of members of the university basketball
team. The therapist then calculates the difference between the highest and lowest values in the distribution.
Which measure of variability has the therapist determined?
A. mode
B. range
C. standard deviation
D. variance

38. Metabolic equivalents can be a useful device to compare the energy cost of various activities to the resting state.
Which of the following activities would you expect to have the lowest metabolic equivalent?
A. ambulation with crutches
B. cycling at 10 mph
C. sexual intercourse
D. walking at 3.5 mph

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 6 Practice Questions

39. Total joint replacements can allow individuals to achieve a significantly higher functional level. What is the
primary indication for total joint replacement?
A. effusion
B. limited range of motion
C. muscle atrophy
D. pain

40. A therapist discusses the importance of a proper diet to a patient with congestive heart failure. Which of the
following substances would most likely be restricted in the above situation?
A. high density lipoproteins
B. low density lipoproteins
C. sodium
D. triglycerides

41. A patient is instructed to lie supine with their knees bent to 90 degrees over the edge of a treatment table. The
patient is then asked to bring their right knee to their chest. By examining the angle of the left knee, the therapist
can gain information on the length of the
A. biceps femoris
B. rectus femoris
C. sartorius
D. tensor fascia lata

42. Policies and procedures are necessary tools to carry out effective and efficient management. Which of the
following statements describing policies is not accurate?
A. Policies should be assembled into a manual for quick and easy reference
B. Existing policies should be reviewed at regular intervals and revised as indicated.
C. Policies should be established on an oral basis
D. Final approval of policies is the responsibility of the chief administrator

43. A therapist identifies several inconsistencies between a patient’s subjective complaints and objective findings of
an initial evaluation. A detailed discussion of the identified inconsistencies belongs in the ________ section of a
SOAP note?
A. subjective
B. objective
C. assessment
D. plan

44. A physical therapy manager is often responsible for enforcing employee compliance with departmental policies
and procedures. Which of the following would be the most appropriate management action for an employee who
has violated the departmental dress code policy for the first time?
A. private oral warning
B. written warning
C. probation
D. suspension

45. Interim progress notes are typically required following each patient treatment session. These notes often add to
the information presented in the initial note and provide detailed information on the patients’ physical therapy
treatment session. Which of the following information would not be included in an interim note?
A. patient’s compliance with a home exercise program
B. recent medical problems which could explain a patient’s failure to progress as expected
C. patient’s response to selected treatment techniques
D. patient past medical history

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 Practice Questions 7

46. A 13 year-old girl discusses the possibility of anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction with her orthopedic
surgeon. The girl injured her knee while playing soccer and is concerned about the future impact of the injury on
her athletic career. Which of the following factors would have the greatest influence on her candidacy for
surgery?
A. anthropometric measurements
B. hamstring/quadriceps ratio
C. skeletal maturity
D. somatotype

47. A physical therapist records the vital signs of individuals at a health and wellness fair designed to promote
physical therapy week. Which age group should the therapist expect to have the highest resting pulse rate?
A. infants
B. children
C. adults
D. all of these should have similar values

48. A variety of health care providers can make entries in the daily medical record. Which of the following health
care providers would require their entry to the physical therapy record to be cosigned?
A. physical therapist assistant
B. physical therapist assistant and gradual physical therapist
C. physical therapist assistant and student physical therapist
D. student physical therapist and graduate physical therapist

49. A therapist can use a variety of pulse sites to evaluate the general condition of the heart and the circulatory system.
Which of the following pulse sites is not found on the lower extremity?
A. brachial
B. dorsalis pedis
C. femoral
D. popliteal

50. A therapist conducts reflex testing on a traumatic brain injured patient. Which stimulus should the therapist utilize
to test for clonus at the ankle?
A. active assistive dorsiflexion of the ankle
B. active dorsiflexion of the ankle
C. passive rapid dorsiflexion of the ankle
D. passive slow dorsiflexion of the ankle

51. A physical therapist records the blood pressure of a two year-old child. Which measurement would be considered
normal for this age group?
A. 40 mmHg systolic, 70 mmHg diastolic
B. 85 mmHg systolic, 60 mmHg diastolic
C. 105 mmHg systolic, 75 mmHg diastolic
D. 120 mmHg systolic, 80 mmHg diastolic

52. A physical therapist has recommended a wheelchair for a patient with the goal of independent mobility. The
diagnosis is right CVA. The left upper and lower extremities are flaccid and present with edema. There is normal
strength on the right. The patient’s trunk is hypotonic. The patient is cognitively intact. The most appropriate
wheelchair for this patient is
A. solid seat, solid back, elevating leg rests, and anti-tippers
B. sling seat, sling back. arm board, and elevating leg rests
C. light weight, solid seat, solid back, arm board, and elevating leg rests
D. light weight, solid seat, solid back, arm board, and standard foot rests

53. Which clinical finding is not characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis?

A. ulnar deviation of the fingers
B. swan neck deformity
C. boutonniere deformity
D. Heberden’s nodes

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 8 Practice Questions

54. The most accurate method to evaluate neurological tone is

A. active range of motion of the involved extremities
B. passive range of motion of the involved extremities
C. passive range of motion of the involved and uninvolved extremities
D. resisted motion of all extremities

55. Group exercise is commonly used to treat individuals of similar diagnoses. Which of the following is not true
when discussing group exercise?
A. Groups of equal ability inevitably need more time than groups of mixed ability.
B. Groups should be used for the benefit of patients and not due to a staff shortage.
C. All patients should have at least one individual treatment for assessment prior to being selected for group
work
D. All exercises used in group teaching should be within the experience of the therapist in charge of the group.

56. An elderly patient with a minor right ankle inversion sprain is learning to use a straight cane. You should instruct
the patient to
A. hold the cane in the right hand, step left, then step right
B. hold the cane in the left hand, step left, then step right
C. hold the cane in the right hand, step right, then step left
D. hold the cane in the left hand, step right, then step left

57. A person who is able to verbalize, but cannot comprehend verbal commands is best described as suffering from
A. expressive aphasia
B. receptive aphasia
C. global aphasia
D. agraphia

58. High voltage stimulation is commonly used for pain management, reduction of joint effusion and reduction of
protective muscle spasm. Which characteristic of high voltage stimulation is not accurate?
A. long interpulse interval
B. short phase duration
C. high peak current intensity
D. a dispersive electrode must be used

59. A patient three months status post total knee replacement is referred to physical therapy for range of motion and
strengthening exercises. Which treatment technique would be inappropriate for the patient?
A. active stretching using the contract-relax technique
B. joint mobilization to increase joint play
C. exercise on a stationary bicycle against mild resistance
D. performing straight leg raising, short arc extension, and knee flexion exercises using light weights

60. A large percentage of patient with amputations have impaired circulation. Proper technique in wrapping the
residual limb is therefore imperative. The most appropriate technique for wrapping a below knee amputee would
be
A. use a 5” width ace wrap and loosely wrap in a cylindrical pattern
B. use a 3” width ace wrap, incorporate a figure eight pattern and wrap distal to proximal
C. use a 3” width wrap, loosely wrap in a figure eight pattern and leave a small window distally for skin
examination
D. use a 6” width wrap over two loosely applied layers of gauze bandaging in order to cushion and protect the
limb.

61. A sudden movement which causes a startle reaction describes which reflex?
A. Moro
B. grasp
C. tonic labyrinthine
D. extensor thrust

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 Practice Questions 9

62. Which activity is the last to occur during normal development?

A. walking backwards
B. alternating feet when going up and down stairs
C. standing on one foot
D. starting to run

63. When treating a hemiplegic patient in a tall kneeling position, which treatment technique would be the least
effective?
A. proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation “chopping” in D1, D2
B. reaching across midline with the unaffected arm only
C. reaching across midline with the hands in prayer position
D. straight plane motion with the unaffected arm only

64. Stroking the cheek of an infant causing a turning of the mouth toward the stimulus defines which reflex?
A. Moro
B. rooting
C. startle
D. righting

65. A therapist performs upper extremity passive range of motion exercises on a patient with an IV connected to the
dorsum of their right hand. During the treatment session the therapist notices a small amount of blood which has
backed up in the IV line. The therapist’s most immediate response would be to
A. turn off the IV
B. remove the IV
C. reposition the peripheral line
D. contact the primary physician

66. Which piece of equipment is not a primary component of an upper extremity prosthesis?
A. wrist unit
B. terminal device
C. harness or support system
D. all are major components

67. A 17 year-old basketball player has completed seven months of aggressive physical therapy since his anterior
cruciate ligament reconstruction. He has been medically cleared to return to basketball if he can complete a
functional progression. The athlete successfully completes each task in a progression and is cleared for activity.
Three days later you see the athlete and notice a small increase in effusion in the involved knee and a slight
antalgic gait pattern. What recommendation would you make to the athlete?
A. “Continue to practice with the team, it’s just your body’s way of getting used to basketball again”.
B. “Take a couple of days off from practice. You can go to practice but do not take part in any agility type drills
or scrimmaging.”
C. “Make an appointment with your physician immediately”.
D. “It looks like your knee isn’t ready for basketball. I think you should continue with rehabilitation and try
again next year.”

68. Based on normal growth and development, which activity would you expect to occur first?
A. rolling prone to supine
B. rolling supine to prone
C. prone on extended arms
D. all occur at the same time

69. A physical therapist is growing more and more disenchanted with her current job because she is responsible for an
unfair proportion of the current patient load. An appropriate response to this situation would be to
A. speak to the board of directors and explain your present situation
B. confront other staff members and inform them that you are being treated unfairly
C. communicate directly with your supervising therapist and relay your concerns
D. refrain from addressing the topic because you do not want to be labeled as a troublemaker.

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 10 Practice Questions

70. While evaluating a patient diagnosed with Achilles tendonitis, a therapist notes that the foot appears to be pronated
in standing. Traditionally which anatomical alignment is associated with pronation in standing?
A. hindfoot pronation and forefoot supination
B. hindfoot supination and forefoot pronation
C. hindfoot varus and forefoot varus
D. none of these

71. The movement of the patella is influenced and controlled by all of the following EXCEPT
A. medial meniscus
B. medial patellofemoral ligament
C. height of the patella
D. vastus medialis obliquus

72. An avid long distance runner reports to physical therapy after being referred by his general physician for an
orthotic evaluation. After conducting the evaluation the therapist is not convinced that the patient needs orthotics.
Seeking additional information the therapist evaluates the wear pattern of the patient’s running shoes. Which of
the following findings would not be indicative of a normal wear pattern?
A. increased wear over the lateral portion of the outer sole at the heel
B. even wear along the area corresponding to the first, second and third metatarsophalangeal joints
C. increased wear over the area corresponding to the fourth and fifth metatarsophalangeal joints
D. all of these are considered abnormal

73. What measurement is used to determine the arm rest height in a wheelchair?
A. seat to anterior superior iliac spine
B. seat to elbow distance
C. femur to elbow distance
D. elbow to acromion distance

74. A patient eight weeks status post right total hip replacement loses his balance and falls to the ground. The patient
is visibly shaken by the fall, but insists that he is uninjured. The therapist evaluates the right hip and although
active motion elicits pain all other findings are inconclusive. The therapist should immediately
A. continue with the current treatment so the patient does not focus on the incident
B. notify their supervising therapist about the incident
C. document the incident and contact a physician to evaluate the patient before resuming treatment.
D. document the incident and gradually resume prior treatment

75. The results of a manual muscle test should be recorded in the _____ section of a “SOAP” note.
A. subjective
B. objective
C. assessment
D. plan

76. A 42 year-old female is seen 24 hours after injuring her right knee while playing softball. The injury is diagnosed
as a second degree medial collateral ligament sprain. Which set of objective findings best describes the injury
described above?
A. point tenderness, localized swelling and marked loss of function
B. slight abnormal motion, localized swelling, moderate loss of function
C. mild point tenderness, moderate disability and abnormal motion
D. mild point tenderness, no abnormal motion and moderate loss of function

77. Early phases of many knee rehabilitative programs emphasize isometric exercise. Which of the following is not an
accurate description of why isometrics are employed?
A. moving the joint through a range of motion may cause pain
B. isometrics in full extension build strength throughout the full range of motion
C. isometrics in full extension place little stress on the patellofemoral joint
D. isometric exercises can be done with the leg in a splint or a cast

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 Practice Questions 11

78. A therapist assesses a patient’s blood pressure using the brachial artery. Which of the following statements is not
accurate when performing this technique?
A. explain the procedure to the patient in terms appropriate to his or her level of understanding
B. expose the arm and place at heart level with the elbow extended
C. wrap the blood pressure cuff around the arm approximately four to six inches above the antecubital fossa
D. place the diaphragm of the stethoscope over the brachial artery in the antecubital fossa

79. What diagnostic test could be used to identify a contracture of the iliotibial band?
A. Thomas test
B. Trendelenburg test
C. Ober test
D. Yergason’s test

80. Loss of balance, intention tremor, and dysmetria are common clinical findings with lesions in the
A. thalamus
B. cerebellum
C. spinal cord
D. lumbar plexus

81. A squat pivot transfer is performed by a patient with a diagnosis of CVA left hemiplegia. The therapist initiates
the transfer to the patient’s affected side. The benefits of transferring to the affected side include all of the
following EXCEPT
A. retraining motor control through weight shift and weight bearing on the affected side
B. decreasing any extensor synergy by weight bearing and maintaining minimal knee flexion
C. directs attention and vision to the affected side
D. allowing affected upper extremity to remain unsupported facilitates motion and decreases any flexor synergy
influence

82. Independent range of motion of the lower extremities is a realistic goal for which spinal cord injury level?
A. C2-C3
B. C4-C5
C. C5-C6
D. C6-C7

83. A realistic goal for a C5 spinal cord injured patient is

A. independent sliding board transfer
B. forward raise in wheelchair using loops for pressure relief
C. independent rolling from prone to supine and supine to prone
D. independent scooting

84. A patient status post spinal fusion is referred for chest physical therapy. The therapist instructs the patient in
diaphragmatic breathing exercises. Instructions are given to the patient to place his dominant hand over the mid-
rectus abdominus area and his non-dominant hand over the mid-sternal area. As the patient inhales slowly through
the nose the therapist encourages the patient to
A. direct air so that the non-dominant hand rises during inspiration
B. direct air so that the dominant hand rises during inspiration
C. direct air so that both hands rise equally during inspiration
D. attempt to elevate both hands as much as possible during inspiration

85. In the above situation the therapist should apply counterpressure over the patient’s dominant hand prior to
A. inhalation
B. exhalation
C. the beginning of the exercise
D. the end of the exercise

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 12 Practice Questions

86. The following description best describes a spinal cord injured patient at the ___ level? Biceps, deltoids and rotator
cuff musculature are intact. Independent transfers with a sliding board are possible.
A. C1-C2
B. C3-C4
C. C5-C6
D. C7-C8

87. Movements of the temporomandibular joint result chiefly from the action of the temporalis, masseter, and medial
and lateral pterygoid. Which muscle does not assist in elevating the mandible?
A. temporalis
B. masseter
C. lateral pterygoid
D. medial pterygoid

88. A below knee amputee’s residual limb should be no shorter than ____ inches from the tibial plateau?
A. 2.5
B. 3.5
C. 5
D. 7

89. The majority of orthopedic surgeons use a posterior surgical approach during total hip replacement surgery. Why
is this fact particular important when designing a postoperative rehabilitation program?
A. The majority of dislocations occur anteriorly and when combined with a posterior surgical approach it is
particularly important to limit motions which stress the anterior aspect of the hip. These motions include
extension, adduction and internal rotation
B. The majority of dislocations occur posteriorly and when combined with a posterior surgical approach it is
particularly important to limit motions which stress the posterior aspect of the hip. These motions include
flexion, adduction and internal rotation.
C. Orthopedic surgeons use a posterior surgical approach to avoid unnecessary anterior instability, which is the
most common direction of dislocation at the hip
D. This statement is false. The majority of orthopedic surgeons use an anterior approach for total hip
replacement surgery

90. A physical therapist works as a team with a physical therapist assistant in a fast paced orthopedic private practice.
The therapist is unsure of the physical therapist assistant’s orthopedic knowledge and therefore regularly delegates
cleaning and filing responsibilities to the physical therapist assistant. What step would be the most appropriate to
improve the quality of the team’s performance?
A. ask the physical therapist assistant how they feel about their present role in the clinic
B. schedule an informal meeting with the physical therapist assistant to learn more about their education, career
goals and prior clinical experience.
C. encourage the physical therapist assistant to attend physical therapy school if they want to become more
involved in patient care
D. continue to delegate various undesirable tasks to the physical therapist assistant as dictated by the patient
schedule

91. A patient is diagnosed with peroneus tertius tendonitis and metatarsalgia of the second and third metatarsals.
During the evaluation of the foot the therapist notes callous thickening in the area of the second and third
metatarsal heads and over the medial aspect of the great toe. Gait analysis reveals eversion of the calcaneus during
mid to late stance and decreased toe off. These findings may indicate
A. uncompensated forefoot varus
B. compensated forefoot varus
C. forefoot valgus
D. compensated subtalar varus and forefoot valgus

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 Practice Questions 13

92. What bone when fractured is often associated with the use of skeletal traction?
A. femur
B. humerus
C. tibia
D. fibula

93. A physical therapist reviews the chart of an above knee amputee. The chart mentions that the amputation was
performed secondary to a burn. The most frequent type of burn to result in amputation is
A. thermal
B. chemical
C. electrical
D. all have equal percentages of subsequent amputations

94. A therapist evaluates a patient with bicipital tendonitis. Which clinical finding would you not expect the therapist
to identify when evaluating the patient?
A. isometric resistance to the biceps brachii increases subjective pain levels
B. referred pain in the C7-C8 dermatome
C. a painful arc is noted with active range of motion to the involved shoulder
D. tenderness to palpation exists over the bicipital tendon

95. A realistic long term goal for a T10 paraplegic is

A. The patient is able to ambulate with bilateral knee-ankle-foot orthoses using forearm crutches and a four point
gait pattern
B. The patient is able to ambulate with bilateral ankle-foot orthoses using forearm crutches and a three point gait
pattern
C. The patient is able to ambulate with bilateral knee-ankle-foot orthoses using forearm crutches and swing to
gait
D. The patient is able to ambulate independently in the parallel bars with bilateral knee-ankle-foot orthoses and
swing to gait pattern

96. Health maintenance organizations have been more successful than the majority of the private health insurance
industry in controlling escalating medical costs. The primary method used by health maintenance organizations to
contain medical costs is
A. increasing their premiums to discourage the unnecessary use of health care
B. restricting the duration of physical therapy services
C. limiting their services to specific health care providers
D. having the providers of care share in some aspect of the financial risk

97. A seven year-old patient sustained a partial thickness burn to his heel. When teaching the patient stretching the
greatest emphasis should be placed in the direction of
A. plantarflexion
B. dorsiflexion
C. inversion with plantarflexion
D. eversion

98. A therapist is treating a patient three days status post total hip replacement. The patient is in bed with a sling-
pulley system. Which exercise would be inappropriate for the patient assuming an uncomplicated postoperative
course?
A. active assisted abduction and adduction with the thigh supported in the sling
B. active knee flexion and extension in the suspension sling
C. active exercise to the upper extremities
D. bilateral ankle pumps

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 14 Practice Questions

99. A 25 year-old male is diagnosed with a first degree acromioclavicular sprain. The injury occurred two days ago
after being checked into the boards while playing hockey. Which of the following would you not expect to be true
during the initial examination?
A. increased elevation of the acromion process
B. inability to bring the arm completely across the chest
C. inability to fully abduct the arm throughout the full range of motion
D. point tenderness on palpation of the injury site

100. It is extremely important for physical therapists to be familiar with the education background, standards of practice
and current issues affecting physical therapist assistants. Which of the following statements describing physical
therapist assistants is not accurate?
A. Physical therapist assistants may function as affiliate members of the American Physical Therapy Association
B. Physical therapist assistants are regulated in all 50 states.
C. The use of physical therapist assistants can be a cost effective measure.
D. Career advancement for physical therapist assistants is limited in many facilities.

101. It is extremely important to thoroughly instruct patients about specific precautions before and after total hip
replacement surgery. Patients that do not understand or choose to disregard this information often experience
subluxation or dislocation of their prosthesis. Which of the following would be considered good advice after total
hip replacement surgery?
A. use a raised toilet seat
B. use an abduction pillow for one week postoperatively
C. avoid sitting in high and hard chairs
D. slowly bend forward when picking objects up from the floor

102. A Phase III cardiac rehabilitation program can best be described as

A. a program of maintenance designed to allow the patient to continue a lifelong routine of exercise and
education
B. a program that is monitored by electrocardiogram to determine the patient’s maximal heart rate and exercise
tolerance
C. a program that allows for independent progression of exercise at home
D. a two to four month program based solely on exercise which allows the patient to attain the appropriate
maximal heart rate for their age group

103. How could you facilitate elbow extension in a hemiplegic patient?

A. by turning the head to the affected side
B. by turning the head to the uninvolved side
C. by extending the lower extremities
D. by flexing the lower extremities

104. A realistic goal for a C6 quadriplegic is independent bed mobility with side rails. In order to achieve this goal a
physical therapist should initiate strengthening to all of the following muscles except the
A. teres major
B. flexor carpi ulnaris
C. biceps brachii
D. anterior deltoid

105. A 26 year-old female presents with a diagnosis of recurrent patellar dislocation. Based on your knowledge of the
anatomy of the knee, the patella probably dislocated in a ____ direction?
A. superior
B. inferior
C. medial
D. lateral

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 Practice Questions 15

106. A physical therapist is evaluating an 18 year-old male diagnosed with left knee anterior cruciate ligament
insufficiency. During the initial evaluation a Lachman test is performed. Ideally the therapist should perform the
test with the knee in
A. 5-10o flexion
B. 15-30o flexion
C. 45-60o flexion
D. complete extension

107. Which specific joint would you expect to see most severely affected by degenerative joint disease?
A. distal interphalangeal joint
B. proximal interphalangeal joint
C. metacarpophalangeal joint
D. both A and B

108. When treating an acute lumbosacral strain the treatment of choice is

A. hot packs and ultrasound
B. extension exercises
C. flexion exercises
D. impossible to determine based on the information given

109. When an innervated muscle is stimulated at its motor point with a brief direct current, which of the following types
of muscular response would you expect to see?
A. a tetanic response to continuous current stimulation
B. there will be no muscular response
C. a brisk contraction followed by a rapid relaxation
D. a brisk contraction followed by a sluggish relaxation

110. A patient sustained a second degree burn over the entire anterior aspect of the neck. The physical therapist must
plan a treatment program based on the anticipation of a possible ______ contracture?
A. flexion
B. extension
C. rotation with extension
D. no contracture should develop since the neck is a highly mobile area

111. Which nerve can be palpated immediately below the head of the fibula?
A. common peroneal
B. tibial
C. sural
D. lateral plantar

112. Proper positioning of the affected areas is essential to burn patients. Proper positioning should be maintained
A. not less than 12 hours per day
B. until skin grafts have been performed
C. only when patient is sleeping
D. consistently throughout the day

113. Failure to integrate the ____ reflex could explain a child’s inability to flex their neck while in a supine position?
A. tonic labyrinthine
B. Moro
C. asymmetrical tonic neck
D. symmetrical tonic neck

114. A 25 year-old patient sits on a tilt board. As the therapist tilts the board to the patient’s right side the therapist
observes left lateral neck flexion, right sided trunk elongation, upper extremity abduction and weight shifting over
the right buttock. The patient’s balance reaction appears to be
A. severely impaired
B. severely impaired on the right
C. intact
D. absent on the right

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 16 Practice Questions

115. Which type of gait would be most appropriate for a patient who exhibits unilateral extremity weakness?
A. 4 point gait
B. 2 point gait
C. 3 point gait
D. all of these are equally appropriate

116. A hemiplegic patient is lying on a mat. The patient demonstrates a synergistic pattern of movement when
attempting to move his affected leg. The patient’s hip is abducted and externally rotated, knee flexed, ankle
plantarflexed and inverted, toes plantarflexed and adducted. This synergy pattern should be classified as
A. purely extension
B. purely flexion
C. a combination of flexion and extension synergy patterns
D. isolated active movement

117. Weak abdominal muscles can lead to which structural deformity?

A. increased lordosis
B. decreased lordosis
C. increased posterior pelvic tilt
D. increased kyphosis

118. A 55 year-old patient, six months status post CVA and right hemiparesis, attends physical therapy on an out
patient basis. As the patient lies supine on the mat the therapist applies resistance to right elbow flexion. The
therapist notes mass flexion of the right lower extremity as the resistance is applied. The therapist should
document this finding as
A. Raimiste’s phenomenon
B. Souque’s phenomenon
C. coordination synkinesis
D. homolateral synkinesis

119. A ramp which begins at ground level and ends 16 inches above ground should be at least how many feet long?
A. 9
B. 18
C. 27
D. 36

120. The importance of documentation cannot be underestimated by a physical therapist. A discharge summary is an
important part of the patient’s medical record. A discharge summary is best described as
A. an overview of the patient’s condition at the time of discharge
B. a capsule view of the patient’s progress during therapy and their condition at discharge
C. a document which indicates the reason for discharge and explains the patient’s home program
D. a record which indicates the frequency and number of appointments from the initial evaluation until discharge

121. Which of the following is lost when there is paralysis from a median-ulnar nerve block or lesion at the wrist?
A. forearm pronation
B. flexion of all joints proximal to the wrist
C. pronation of the hand
D. finger abduction and adduction

122. An audit attempts to determine the quality of patient care through a review of patient records. All of the following
are recommended to ensure that the results of an audit are accurate EXCEPT
A. a comparison of the actual practice’s level of care to the expected level of care
B. specific objectives of the audit are defined prior to the collection of data
C. an audit should not exceed a sample size of 15 to 20 charts
D. the study should include records over a six month period to ensure a diverse sample

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 Practice Questions 17

123. Patient care gloves are commonly used to decrease exposure to potentially infectious material. When is it
appropriate to reuse patient care gloves?
A. when the gloves are used to treat the same patient
B. when the gloves are used by the same therapist
C. when the gloves do not come in contact with any potentially infectious material
D. never

124. An above knee amputee with a hip flexion contracture begins gait training with his prosthesis. What effect will
the contracture have on the patient’s gait?
A. The patient will demonstrate an increased ability to stabilize the prosthetic knee
B. The patient’s step length on the prosthetic side will be increased
C. The hip flexion contracture will not affect the patient’s gait pattern
D. The patient will not begin to ambulate until normal range of motion is restored.

125. Which treatment option would be inappropriate for the management of an edematous limb?
A. diuretics
B. pressure garments
C. moist heat
D. elevation

126. A patient is having surgery performed to amputate his right lower extremity below the knee. The physician’s
choice of postoperative dressing is a rigid dressing. A rigid dressing should
A. be applied 24 to 48 hours after surgery
B. not be used during ambulation
C. promote residual limb circulation and aid in proprioception
D. be used to avoid a knee flexion contracture

127. This is the bacterial agent most commonly responsible for skin infections.
A. Gonococcus
B. Chlamydia
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Staphylococcus aureus

128. Which condition would you expect to see with an injury to sympathetic-parasympathetic system?
A. blood pressure variability
B. profuse sweating
C. pupillary dysfunction
D. all of these

129. The tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal may be avulsed during violent eversion of the foot by the tendon of the
A. posterior tibialis
B. peroneus longus
C. peroneus brevis
D. peroneus tertius

130. A child with athetoid cerebral palsy is referred to physical therapy. Which of the following characteristics would a
physical therapist typically identify when evaluating an athetoid child?
A. continuous low tone and intermittent tonic spasms
B. small range movements with full control within this range
C. disorganized movement with fluctuating muscle tone
D. little to no influence from tonic neck reflexes

131. Positioning a pregnant woman in this position would be most effective in taking pressure off the stomach and thus
reducing heartburn.
A. supine
B. prone
C. right sidelying
D. left sidelying

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 18 Practice Questions

132. Injury to the common peroneal nerve may result in

A. equinovarus position of the foot
B. paralytic foot drop
C. steppage gait
D. all of these

133. An athlete uses an elastic wrap to apply a compressive force to a sprained ankle. Which of the following is not a
benefit of using the elastic wrap?
A. promote lymph venous return
B. limit motion
C. provide proprioceptive comfort
D. all are true using the elastic wrap

134. What is the initial position of the involved scapula of a CVA patient with a flaccid upper extremity?
A. The scapula assumes a downward rotated position with adduction of the inferior angle.
B. The scapula abducts and elevates
C. The scapula assumes a downward rotated position with abduction of the inferior angle
D. The scapula protracts, elevates and is stabilized on the rib cage.

135. Which one of the following exercise guidelines is not true during pregnancy?
A. maternal heart rate should not exceed 140 beat per minute
B. strenuous activities should not exceed 15 minutes in duration
C. no exercise should be performed in the prone position after the third month of fetal gestation
D. maternal core temperature should not exceed 38 degrees Celsius

136. A patient is evaluated following a pneumonectomy secondary to lung cancer. All of the following may be seen
postoperatively EXCEPT
A. an ineffective cough
B. increased chest expansion with inhalation
C. decreased endurance with activities of daily living
D. all of these are true

137. Finger extension that occurs on the involved side of a hemiplegic patient when the extremity is raised to a position
above 90 degrees of shoulder flexion or abduction best defines
A. Souque’s phenomenon
B. Raimiste’s phenomenon
C. irradiation
D. overflow

138. A patient with a transtibial amputation should not rely on weight bearing through the end of the residual limb
when ambulating with a prosthesis. All of the following are correct and support this statement EXCEPT
A. the cut surface of cortical bone may be too sharp
B. the diameter of the bone is too narrow for weight bearing
C. the cross section of the bone is a reduced weight bearing surface
D. the cut surface of the residual limb is covered only with skin

139. The goals of physical therapist working in an oncology unit include

A. maintaining patient comfort
B. preventing further complications
C. maximizing the patient’s functional status
D. all of these are realistic goals

140. A physical therapist reviews the medical chart of a patient who sustained a brachial plexus injury. The medical
report states that the medial cord of the brachial plexus was partially severed. Which nerve would you expect to
be the most seriously affected by this injury?
A. axillary
B. median
C. musculocutaneous
D. ulnar

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 Practice Questions 19

141. A patient begins to demonstrate signs and symptoms of a seizure including uncontrollable muscular movements,
convulsions and confused behavior. Appropriate intervention would include
A. attempt to check airway breathing and circulation
B. place a soft object between the patient’s teeth
C. hold or restrain the patient
D. protect the victim from injury but do not restrain

142. A physical therapist instructs a patient to perform a quadriceps set. This exercise is considered to be
A. eccentric
B. isokinetic
C. isometric
D. isotonic

143. Tenderness elicited through palpation on the floor of the anatomic snuffbox can often be indicative of a fracture.
A fracture in this area would likely involve the
A. hamate
B. lunate
C. scaphoid
D. pisiform

144. A physical therapist treats a patient using transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation. Which condition would not
be considered a contraindication for TENS?
A. placement over the carotid sinus
B. placement over a pregnant uterus
C. use on a patient with a cardiac pacemaker
D. use during labor and delivery

145. A physical therapist is working with a 32 year-old female diagnosed with thoracic outlet syndrome. While
exercising the patient begins to complain of feeling light headed and dizzy. The therapist immediately ushers the
patient to a nearby chair and begins to monitor her vital signs. The therapist finds the patient’s respiration rate to
be 10 breaths per minute, pulse rate 45 beats per minute and blood pressure 115/85 mmHg. Which of the
following statements is most accurate?
A. pulse rate and respiration rate are below normal levels
B. pulse rate and blood pressure are above normal levels
C. blood pressure and respiration rate are above normal levels
D. the patient’s vital signs are within normal limits

146. The best course of action in the above situation would be to

A. consult with your supervising physical therapist and continue to monitor the patient’s vital signs
B. avoid any exercise activity until they have been evaluated by a physician
C. continue with the patient’s exercise program as soon as they feel they are able
D. end today’s therapy session and reevaluate the patient prior to the beginning of the next session.

147. When performing passive range of motion exercises to a quadriplegic in sidelying the most effective hand
placement for hip extension is
A. one hand at heel, on hand supporting mid thigh
B. one hand and forearm support the leg at the knee, one stabilizing the pelvis
C. one hand at heel, one stabilizing the pelvis
D. one hand at heel, on supporting the knee

148. A patient requires a walker for gait training. When fitting the walker for the patient the elbow should be placed in
A. 10-20o flexion
B. 20-30o flexion
C. 40-50o flexion
D. complete extension

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 20 Practice Questions

149. A physical therapist is guarding a patient during stair training. The most appropriate position for the therapist as
the patient descends the stairs is
A. beside the patient on the involved side
B. beside the patient on the uninvolved side
C. behind the patient on the uninvolved side
D. in front of the patient and towards the involved side

150. Which statement best describes the realistic functional status of a C4 quadriplegic after completing rehabilitation?
A. patient is able to ambulate independently
B. patient is independent in all phases of activities of daily living
C. patient is able to propel a manual wheelchair independently but needs assistance for activities of daily living
D. patient is able to use a motorized wheelchair.

151. A patient is referred to physical therapy after sustaining a Colles’ fracture. A Colles’ fracture refers to an injury of
the
A. ulna
B. radius
C. olecranon
D. scaphoid

152. Forearm supination is measured with the moving arm of the goniometer placed on the _____side of the hand.
A. dorsal
B. lateral
C. medial
D. volar

153. A quadriceps strain might be caused by all of the following EXCEPT

A. sudden forceful flexion of the hip with the knee extended
B. an overstretch of the quadriceps with the hip in extension and the knee flexed
C. inadequate quadriceps length
D. an imbalance between the quadriceps muscles

154. When reviewing the medical chart of a new patient you note the patient has bradycardia. You interpret this to
mean
A. an increased pulse rate
B. a decreased pulse rate
C. an increase in the size of the heart
D. an underdeveloped atria

155. A patient three weeks status post right total knee replacement complains of pain in the right calf. The patient’s
pain increases with ambulation and with quick passive range of motion into dorsiflexion. The patient’s lower
extremity is warm to touch. The most appropriate response would be to
A. disregard the findings as postoperative pain
B. continue with ambulation to tolerance
C. perform active calf stretching
D. request a physician to rule out deep venous thrombosis

156. A patient is referred to physical therapy after sustaining a complete tear of the anterior cruciate ligament. The
patient’s ligament injury is best described as a
A. grade I sprain
B. grade III sprain
C. grade I strain
D. grade III strain

157. When measuring elbow flexion the stationary arm of the goniometer should be aligned along the
A. humerus
B. radius
C. ulna
D. fifth metacarpal

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 Practice Questions 21

158. When measuring ulnar deviation or wrist adduction the moveable arm of the goniometer should be aligned with
the
A. shaft of the second proximal phalanx
B. shaft of the third proximal phalanx
C. shaft of the second metacarpal
D. shaft of the third metacarpal

159. A patient sustained a knife wound which severed the distal lateral cord of the brachial plexus. EMG testing
reveals no damage to the medial nerve. The injury will result in impairment of
A. elbow flexion and forearm supination
B. elbow extension and forearm pronation
C. shoulder flexion and abduction
D. shoulder external rotation

160. A 54 year-old male status post repair of a large tear of the rotator cuff is referred to physical therapy. The physical
therapist should not begin active range of motion exercises until at least ____ weeks post-op.
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. six

161. Knuckling three-count stroking of the trapezius and horizontal stroking are all specific variations of what basic
massage technique?
A. effleurage
B. friction
C. petrissage
D. tapotement

162. It is very difficult to predict when a medical emergency might arise. It is therefore extremely important to be
knowledgeable about all aspects of first aid. Which of the following is not accurate when administering first aid?
A. An unconscious victim should be rolled toward you to administer back blows.
B. Chest thrusts should be performed instead of abdominal thrusts on a conscious choking victim in the advanced
stages of pregnancy.
C. Direct pressure and elevation are immediate techniques used to stop bleeding
D. Standard positioning for a victim in shock includes elevating the head and shoulders.

163. To increase patient’s compliance with a home exercise program a therapist should
A. speak strongly and directly to the patient
B. individualize the program to the particular needs of each patient
C. lecture the patient on the importance of compliance
D. use medical terminology to impress the patient

164. A therapist should adhere to all of the following rules when performing range of motion exercises EXCEPT
A. hand placement should allow movement of the body segment through full range of motion with minimal hand
re-positioning
B. several joints may be put through range simultaneously
C. support should be provided for all segments distal to the joint at which the motion is to occur
D. the movement should be of moderate to maximal speed through all planes of motion available in a joint

165. A physical therapist treating a patient in supine elects to reinforce active movement of the lower extremity in a
flexion, adduction and external rotation pattern. This proprioceptive neuromuscular technique pattern is termed
A. D1 flexion
B. D1 extension
C. D2 flexion
D. D2 extension

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 22 Practice Questions

166. When writing daily progress notes using the SOAP format, a therapist records their professional judgment in the
___ section
A. subjective
B. objective
C. assessment
D. plan

167. A physical therapist is treating an incomplete L4 paraplegic. The therapist uses proprioceptive neuromuscular
techniques to improve trunk stability in sitting. Manual contacts to the trunk would be most effective with
A. pressure over the extensors
B. pressure over agonists
C. pressure over antagonists
D. pressure over agonists and antagonists

168. A patient is not able to whistle on command but you have heard him whistling while listening to music. The same
patient is unable to walk in the gym after demonstration but he is observed walking across the room to get his
dinner tray. This condition is termed
A. ideational apraxia
B. ideomotor apraxia
C. constructional apraxia
D. dressing apraxia

169. A physical therapist prepares a presentation on proper body mechanics for a group of 100 autoworkers. Which of
the following media would be most effective to maximize learning during the presentation?
A. lecture, handouts
B. lecture, charts, statistics
C. lecture, handouts, demonstration
D. lecture, statistics

170. A physical therapist attempts to have a CVA patient reach for a cone and move their trunk away from midline.
The most appropriate type of manual contact that would assist the patient with this movement is
A. firm, deep touch
B. light, intermittent touch
C. maintained touch
D. no manual contact

171. A patient two weeks status post below knee amputation is instructed by their physician to remain at rest for two
days after contracting bronchitis. The most appropriate position for the patient in bed is
A. supine with a pillow under the patient’s knees
B. supine with a pillow under the patient’s thigh and knee
C. supine with the legs extended
D. sidelying in the fetal position

172. A student physical therapist is treating a 65 year-old mildly obese patient. The patient is status post total hip
replacement and is cleared for 25 pounds of weight bearing through the involved lower extremity. An appropriate
assistive device to begin gait training would include all of the following EXCEPT
A. parallel bars
B. walker
C. two axillary crutches
D. straight cane

173. A traumatic brain injured patient becomes anxious, loud and upset during a therapy session. All of the following
techniques may be used to provide a calming effect EXCEPT
A. neutral warmth
B. slow stroking
C. bright colors
D. maintained touch

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 Practice Questions 23

174. A physical therapist would not expect a seven month-old infant to have completed which of the following
developmental milestones?
A. holds head erect when sitting
B. crawls
C. sits up unsupported
D. rolls from supine to prone

175. A 21 year-old male suffers a primary dislocation of his right shoulder playing football. The athlete is referred to
physical therapy after three weeks of immobilization. A physical therapist might elect to begin treatment with all
of the following EXCEPT
A. isometric shoulder exercises
B. passive range of motion exercises
C. active assistive range of motion exercises
D. high speed isokinetic exercises

176. A C3 spinal cord patient is positioned in supine. If the patient is not turned adequately which area is most
susceptible to pressure in this position?
A. greater trochanter
B. iliac crest
C. medial malleolus
D. coccyx

177. A physical therapist observes a patient’s static posture. The therapist identifies that the patient has a forward head
posture. All of the following can contribute to forward head posture EXCEPT
A. excessive cervical lordosis
B. tight cervical extensors, upper trapezius and levator scapulae
C. elongated cervical flexor muscles
D. stretched posterior cervical ligaments and extensor muscles

178. A physical therapist complete a gross muscle screening on a 36 year-old male diagnosed with a quadriceps strain.
The therapist should follow all of the following guidelines EXCEPT
A. the patient is directed to complete the test motion before the therapist provides resistance
B. resistance is applied and released gradually
C. resistance is usually applied proximally to the joint tested, unless otherwise indicated
D. test positions may vary to allow for patient comfort

179. Muscles that flex or extend in the sagittal plane against gravity are tested in the ____ plane for gravity eliminated
testing.
A. coronal
B. frontal
C. sagittal
D. transverse

180. A physical therapist observes a patient’s static posture. The therapist notes a significant increase in
hyperextension of the lumbar spine. This structural deviation can be caused by
A. posterior pelvic tilt
B. compressed vertebrae anteriorly
C. stretched anterior longitudinal ligament and lower abdominal muscles
D. bony deformity of the ribs and sternum

181. A physical therapist becomes discouraged with the reliability of their goniometric measurements. Which of the
following techniques would not be helpful in increasing the reliability of the therapist’s measurement?
A. instruct the patient to remove tight and restrictive clothing
B. review proper goniometric procedures and anatomical landmarks
C. complete each goniometric measurement once
D. measure each patient at the same time of day

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 24 Practice Questions

182. The appropriate measurement of central tendency using the nominal measurement scale is the
A. mean
B. median
C. mode
D. median or mode

183. An appropriate long term goal for a child with hypotonic cerebral palsy is to
A. increase joint mobility
B. decrease postural tone
C. increase head and trunk control against gravity
D. decrease protective responses

184. The gait pattern of a 12 month-old child will usually include which of the following characteristics?
A. narrow base of support
B. posterior pelvic tilt
C. supination of the feet
D. externally rotated lower extremities

185. As a clinical instructor it is important to distinguish between a process and an outcome. All of the following are
objectives that related to outcome EXCEPT
A. The student will practice measuring range of motion at the hip on at least five classmates
B. The student will establish good rapport with staff and patients.
C. The student will use medical terminology correctly in all medical records.
D. The student will decide if a patient’s resting heart rate is within normal limits.

186. A secretary seeks advice from her physical therapist on proper positioning of a video display terminal. The
therapist would be correct in telling the patient all of the following EXCEPT
A. the video display should be 25-40 inches from the operator’s eyes
B. the operator’s arms should be perpendicular to the floor
C. the operator’s back should be supported in the sacral and lower thoracic region
D. the operator’s feet should be flat on the floor or elevated on an appropriate foot rest

187. A therapist observes the gait of a young female diagnosed with peroneal tendonitis. The therapist identifies
moderate pronation during stance phase bilaterally. A possible cause of pronation is
A. tightness of the medial rotator muscles of the hip
B. hypomobility of the forefoot
C. femoral retroversion
D. genu valgum

188. A patient demonstrates mild dizziness during vertebral artery testing. The therapist should pay particular attention
when treating the patient to avoid positioning the neck in
A. extension and extremes of rotation
B. flexion and extremes of rotation
C. flexion and sidebending
D. extension and sidebending

189. A physical therapist performs a Thomas test on a patient in supine with their lower leg over the edge of the table.
The patient can lower their thigh fully on the table, however the knee cannot flex to 90 degrees. A probable cause
includes tightness of the
A. iliopsoas
B. rectus femoris
C. tensor fascia latae
D. vastus medialis

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 Practice Questions 25

190. A basketball player develops friction blisters along the first and second metatarsal heads. Preventive measures to
avoid friction blisters include all of the following EXCEPT
A. using proper sized footwear
B. purchasing new footwear
C. using powder in socks to absorb moisture
D. proper conditioning of the feet before full practice starts

191. According to the Standards of Practice for Physical Therapy as published by the American Physical Therapy
Association, who is responsible for the physical therapist’s individual professional development and continued
competence in physical therapy?
A. the individual physical therapist
B. the physical therapist’s employer
C. the state chapter of the American Physical Therapy Association
D. the American Physical Therapy Association

192. Tissues of high collagen content are affected to a greater extent by ultrasound energy. Which tissue would you
expect to absorb the most ultrasound energy?
A. bone
B. muscle
C. tendon
D. skin

193. Biophysical effects of ultrasound include thermal and nonthermal effects. The amount of heat produced using
ultrasound is least dependent upon
A. the intensity
B. the duration of exposure
C. the choice of coupling agent
D. the size of the area insonated

194. A complete medical history can provide valuable information about the disorder, the prognosis, and the
appropriate treatment. Which statement is not accurate when obtaining a medical history?
A. The examiner should ask one question at a time and should receive a complete answer before proceeding with
the next question.
B. The questions should be easy for the patient to understand and should not be leading
C. The examiner should encourage the patient to discuss irrelevant information since it will foster the patient-
therapist relationship.
D. The history should be taken in an orderly sequence.

195. An effective manager should adhere to all of the following guidelines EXCEPT
A. maintain a mutual commitment to goals
B. provide staff with opportunity to develop professionally
C. allow participation in decision making
D. delegate undesirable tasks to subordinates

196. A physical therapist observes a patient ambulating in the clinic. The therapist notes that the patient’s pelvis drops
on the left during left swing phase. This deviation is usually caused by weakness of the
A. left gluteus medius
B. right gluteus medius
C. left gluteus minimus
D. right gluteus minimus

197. An exercise test is performed on a patient diagnosed with ischemic heart disease. An appropriate reason for
terminating the test includes all of the following EXCEPT
A. a failure of heart rate or systolic blood pressure to rise or fall with increasing effort
B. systolic blood pressure exceeding 150 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure exceeding 90 mmHg
C. any adverse change in the patient’s appearance or attitude
D. increasing anginal symptoms

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 26 Practice Questions

198. A postoperative patient can reduce their risk of acquiring deep vein thrombosis by performing all of the following
EXCEPT
A. repeated deep breathing exercises
B. frequently turning from side to side in bed
C. sitting with legs in a dependent position
D. active flexion and extension of the toes, ankles, knees and hips

199. A physical therapist evaluates the reflex status of a patient. The therapist should use which technique to assess the
patient’s superficial reflexes?
A. brushing the skin with a light feathery object
B. percussing a muscle over the musculotendinous junction
C. stroking the skin with a noncutting but pointed object
D. tapping a tendon or bony prominence

200. Patients with cervical rib syndrome can experience tingling and numbness throughout their upper extremity when
carrying heavy objects at their side. Which structures are commonly affected by the cervical rib?
A. common carotid artery and inferior trunk of the brachial plexus
B. common carotid artery and superior trunk of the brachial plexus
C. subclavian artery and inferior trunk of the brachial plexus
D. subclavian artery and superior trunk of the brachial plexus

Giles A2
 Answers 27

1. A 41. B 81. D 121. D 161. A

2. B 42. C 82. D 122. C 162. D
3. A 43. C 83. B 123. D 163. B
4. A 44. A 84. B 124. B 164. D
5. A 45. D 85. A 125. C 165. A
6. B 46. C 86. C 126. C 166. C
7. A 47. A 87. C 127. D 167. D
8. A 48. D 88. B 128. D 168. B
9. D 49. A 89. B 129. C 169. C
10. B 50. C 90. B 130. C 170. B
11. D 51. B 91. B 131. C 171. C
12. B 52. C 92. A 132. D 172. D
13. D 53. D 93. C 133. D 173. C
14. D 54. C 94. B 134. A 174. B
15. C 55. A 95. C 135. C 175. D
16. A 56. D 96. D 136. B 176. D
17. C 57. B 97. B 137. A 177. D
18. C 58. D 98. A 138. D 178. C
19. B 59. B 99. A 139. D 179. D
20. C 60. B 100. B 140. D 180. C
21. C 61. A 101. A 141. D 181. C
22. D 62. B 102. A 142. C 182. C
23. A 63. D 103. A 143. C 183. C
24. C 64. B 104. B 144. D 184. D
25. C 65. C 105. D 145. A 185. A
26. B 66. A 106. B 146. A 186. A
27. D 67. B 107. D 147. B 187. D
28. C 68. A 108. D 148. B 188. A
29. B 69. C 109. C 149. D 189. B
30. B 70. A 110. A 150. D 190. B
31. A 71. A 111. A 151. B 191. A
32. C 72. C 112. D 152. D 192. A
33. D 73. B 113. A 153. A 193. C
34. B 74. C 114. C 154. B 194. C
35. C 75. B 115. C 155. D 195. D
36. D 76. B 116. C 156. B 196. B
37. B 77. B 117. A 157. A 197. B
38. D 78. C 118. D 158. D 198. C
39. D 79. C 119. B 159. A 199. C
40. C 80. B 120. B 160. D 200. C

Giles A2