Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Apk 1998 February
Apk 1998 February
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19. The following statements apply to crutch-walking down the stairs, non-weight bearing, right lower extremity, EXCEPT:
a. The patient first lowers his crutches to the next step down
b. Instruct the patient to grasp the banister and shift his left crutch to his right hand, the PT stands one step below
c. If using the three-point-and-one gait, he’ll simultaneously lower his right leg and both crutches
d. After lowering his crutches, if using the three-point-and-one gait, lowers his left foot onto the next step, and his other
leg follows
e. After lowering his crutches, he lowers his left foot onto the next step, and his other leg follows
20. This lobe of the lateral surface of the hemisphere (approximately the anterior 1/3) is rostral to the central sulcus and above
the lateral fissure:
a. Frontal lobe c. Occipital lobe
b. Parietal lobe d. Insular lobe
21. Subjects treated in PT for knee problems can benefit from a supportive knee appliance. The purposes of knee appliances
are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. To change the biomechanics of the knee
b. To pursue a conscientious strength/power maintenance program
c. To protect the surgical procedure during healing of tissues
d. To compensate for decreased internal stabilization with an increased external stabilization system
e. As an adjunct to a thorough rehabilitation program
22. Area of skin supplied by one dorsal root:
a. Myotome c. Dermatome
b. Both of these d. None of these
23. The Tinel sign is a test designed to:
a. Reproduce the pain of tennis elbow
b. Assess the stability of the medial and lateral collateral ligaments of the elbow
c. Elicit tenderness over a neuroma within a nerve
d. Test the reflex action that is a function of C5
e. Test the deep tendon reflex, a lower motor neuron reflex
24. All of the following statements characterize saltatory conduction of nerve impulse, EXCEPT:
a. None of these
b. It is a slow process
c. Conduction is continuous
d. Conduction takes place at the Nodes of Ranvier
25. This test flexes the knee into full extension and passively allows it to extend completely with a sharp and point. It is designed
to evaluate a lack of full knee extension, most often secondary to a torn meniscus, or an intracapsular joint swelling.
a. Distraction Test d. McMurray Test
b. Apprehension test e. “Bounce Home” Test
27. This very strong ligament unites the sustentaculum to the lower edge of the back of the navicular. On its strength and
integrity depends on the security of the whole foot. When stretched, the foot may become flat. What is this ligament?
a. Interosseous talocalcaneal ligament
b. Short plantar ligament
c. Plantar calcaneonavicular ligament
d. Deltoid ligament of the ankle
28. The following structures pass between the malleoli, EXCEPT:
a. Extensor digitorum longus tendon
b. Extensor hallucis longus tendon
c. Tibialis anterior tendon
d. Posterior tibial artery and tibial nerve
e. Dorsal pedal artery
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29. This test is designed to determine the quality of the articulating surfaced of the patella and the trochlear groove of the
femur. The subject usually complains of pain or discomfort is the test is positive.
a. Apprehension test d. Patella femoral grinding test
b. None of these e. Distraction test
c. Knee joint effusion test
30. The rapid exchange of positive and negative ions due to cell’s increase in permeability is termed:
a. Action Potential c. Depolarization
b. Membrane Potential d. Repolarization
33. The following statements apply to the posterior tibial nerve lesions, EXCEPT:
a. Sensory loss involves much of the sole and dorsum of the foot
b. If high, may result in paralysis of the hamstrings
c. Tropic changes may be prominent
d. May result in paralysis of the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, the long flexor of the toes and the intrinsic foot
muscles
e. Causalgia may appear
35. Administration of any of the following may be expected to result in elevation of mean blood pressure, EXCEPT:
a. Bradykinin d. Angiotensin
b. All of these e. Vasopressin (ADH)
c. Norepinephrine
37. This type of contractions are quick, jerky reactions responding to a single stimulus, and usually lasts less than a tenth of
a second:
a. Fibrillation d. Fasciculation
b. Tetanic e. Twitch
c. Convulsion
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38. With a proximal or distal extensor reconstruction or a plica excision, postoperative treatment regimen includes the
following, EXCEPT:
a. Quadriceps femoris setting (5-10 repetitions per hour) is begun along with ankle-circumduction program the day after
surgery
b. To adhere to the rehabilitation program, a delay of another day may not be allowed even if he feels uncomfortable after
surgery
c. Walking and weight bearing to tolerance with crutches may be started the day after surgery
d. Rehabilitation program begins the day of surgery
e. To promote circulatory benefits in the lower extremity and to prevent phlebitis, ankle circumduction is encouraged
39. This subjective test increases intrathecal pressure and requires accurate response from the patient:
a. Swallowing Test d. Adson test
b. Compression Test e. Valsalva Test
c. Distraction Test
40. Triceps brachii may be paralyzed in injury to the:
a. Radial nerve
b. Sixth cervical segment of the spinal cord
c. None of these
d. Both of these
41. The following statements may apply to the rotator cuff, EXCEPT:
a. Degeneration and tearing of its tendon of insertion results in restriction especially of abduction
b. Three of the muscles are palpable at their insertions into the greater tuberosity of the humerus
c. The shoulder must be actively extended to rotate it into a palpable position
d. The subscapularis is not palpable
42. Arthrokinematically, these types of motions can occur between two surfaces on joint movement:
a. All of these c. Spinning
b. Sliding or Gliding d. Rolling or Rocking
43. To test this structure, the patient’s foot is turned into plantar flexion and inversion. The structure is possibly sprained or
torn if inversion stares increases pain. What is this structure?
a. Anterior talofibular ligament
b. Posterior talofibular ligament
c. Tibialis anterior tendon
d. Calcaneofibular ligament
e. Tibialis posterior tendon
44. When the sum of forces acting on the body is balanced, it is said to be in a state of:
a. Terminal velocity c. Equilibrium
b. Inertia d. Forced Vector
45. This neurologic level outlines a strip down the midline of the posterior thigh and the popliteal fossa, and it is supplied by
the posterior femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh:
a. L3 d. L2
b. L4 e. S2
c. S1
46. This procedure tests the integrity of the segmental innervations of the rectus abdominis and the corresponding paraspinal
muscles. The patient does a quarter sit-up with arms crossed over the chest. If the umbilicus is drawn up, down or to one
side, there may be asymmetrical involvement of the anterior abdominal and paraspinal muscles.
a. Patrick test d. Valsalva Maneuver
b. Fabere's Test e. Gaeslan’s Sign
c. Beevor’s Sign
47. Which of the following ligaments comprise the lateral collateral ligaments of the ankle joint?
a. Anterior talofibular d. Posterior talofibular
b. Calcaneofibular e. all of these
c. None of these
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d. ROM should be regained passively because passive techniques tend to stretch excessively the healing ligaments and
allow residual laxity
e. It is important that the subject not externally rotate the involved leg during early weight bearing in order not to pull
apart the repaired ligaments
64. Signs of meningeal irritation include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Kernig sign is elicited when stretching of the lumbar roots consequent to extension of the leg on the thigh produces
painful limitation of this movement
b. The best sign is a demonstration of stiffness of the neck on flexion, usually accompanied by fever
c. In severe meningitis, there may even be a rigid hyper-extension of the neck and back, but generally, it does not limit
lateral rotation of the neck
d. Probably based on a heightened sensitivity of irritated sensory roots to stretching
e. Brudzinski sign is absent when flexion of the knees follows as attempt to flex the neck
65. These tendons work only in unison. By limiting the three, the fourth is also limited. This is demonstrated by flexing the
finger at any given distal IP joint – the subject is then unable to accomplish such individual flexion.
a. None of these d. Interossei
b. Flexor digitorum superficialis e. Lumbricals
c. Flexor digitorum profundus
66. If the central slip of the extensor digitorum communis tendon is avulsed from its insertion into the base of the middle
phalanx, the proximal interphalangeal joint becomes markedly flexed and the distal interphalangeal joint extended. This
deformity is called:
a. Heberden’s d. Swan-neck
b. Mallet finger e. Trigger finger
c. Boutonniere
67. In-hospital postoperative care in acute knee instability repair include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Cast change usually on the 5th postoperative day
b. Cast immobilization of the knee at about 60 degrees of flexion
c. Toe-touch weight bearing crutch walking as tolerated
d. Non-weight bearing crutch walking
e. Ankle ROM, quadriceps, femoris muscle setting exercises progressing to straight-leg raising exercises
68. The axilla is a quadrilateral pyramidal structure through which vessels and nerves pass to the upper extremity. The
following statements apply to the axilla, EXCEPT:
a. The apex permit the entry of the brachial plexus and axillary artery
b. The medial wall is bound by ribs two to six and the overlaying serratus anterior
c. The anterior and posterior wall can be palpated when the arm is abducted and extended
d. The anterior wall is formed by the pectoralis major and the posterior by the latissimus dorsi
e. The lateral wall is defined by the bicipital groove of the humerus
69. The following statements are true of the knee joint, EXCEPT:
a. Limitation by the two-joint rectus femoris muscle decreases knee flexion ROM when the hip is in flexion
b. End-feel for extension or hyperextension is firm
c. End-feel for passive knee flexion is soft.
d. It possesses two degrees of freedom and range of flexion is from 120 to 150 degrees
70. These muscles extend the arm and are the chief lateral rotators:
a. Subscapularis and Pectoralis Major
b. Infraspinatus and Teres Minor
c. Supraspinatus and Subscapularis
d. Teres Major and Latissimus Dorsi
71. In the knee, excessive normal forces resulting in overuse syndrome can be caused by the following, EXCEPT:
a. High repetition, high load
b. Low repetition, high load
c. Activity level is greater than the possible physiological repair
d. Poor conditioning
e. Small biomechanical dysfunction that become magnified with high-performance activities
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88. In the cranial cavity, this structures act as the outermost covering for the brain, but also as the lining membrane on the
inner surfaces of the bones. It also gives valuable support to the brain, the partitions preventing shifting thereby
safeguarding the brain against injury.
a. Pia Mater c. None of these
b. Arachnoid Mater d. Dura Mater
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113. Which of the following compounds when dissolved in solution produces the greatest osmotic pressure?
a. 100 mM CaCl2 d. 100 mM NaCl
b. None of these e. 100 nM glucose
116. The following statements depict the distribution of some spinal segment and roots, EXCEPT:
a. The twelfth thoracic segment is at the groin level
b. The third thoracic segment is at nipple level
c. The sacral dermatomes innervate the saddle area
d. The tenth thoracic segment is at the umbilicus level
e. The anterior neck and upper shoulder are innervated by the cervical plexus, largely C4
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117. The following may be observed upon examination of the patient’s lumbar spine, EXCEPT:
a. Soft, doughy lipomata appearing as lumps in the area of the low back may be a sign of spina bifida
b. Any reddened dislocation may indicate infection, and skin markings may denote underlying neurologic or bone
pathology.
c. Pedunculated tumors indicate the presence of neurofibromatosis and are often accompanied by café-u-lait spots which
may impinge upon the spinal cord and nerve roots
d. An unusual patch of hair on the back may be evidence of some body defect in the spine such as a congenital bony bar
e. Gibbus deformity may bone present secondary to a herniated disc
118. Which of the following is true of the Hamstring?
a. All of these
b. None of these
c. They extend the hip and/or flex the knee
d. Rotates the knee joint when the joint is fully extended
119. This method of bandaging is used to accommodate either increasing or decreasing body part circumstances:
a. Spiral turn d. Spiral-reverse turn
b. Figure-eight turn e. Recurrent turn
c. Circular turn
120. The following statements describe the foot’s medial aspect, EXCEPT:
a. The sustentaculum tali supports the calcaneus and serves as an attachment for the spring ligament; problems within
this anatomic alignment may lead to pes planus
b. The first cuneiform bone projects distally nearly half an inch further than the other cuneiform bones and articulates
laterally with the cuboid bone
c. The medial tubercle of the talus is the point of insertion for the ankle’s medial collateral ligament
d. The first metatarsal flares slightly at its base to meet the first cuneiform, articulating in a simple plane joint, providing
gliding movement
e. The navicular articulates proximally with the talar head and distally with the three cuneiforms
121. The forces at the pelvis in bilateral stance is an example of:
a. Second Class Lever c. First Class Lever
b. Fourth Class Lever d. Third Class Lever
122. This muscle attaches to the medial border of the scapula and passes under the scapula to attach on the anterolateral
border of the first nine ribs:
a. Teres Major
b. Subscapularis
c. Teres Minor
d. Serratus Anterior
123. Immediately below the sacro-iliac joint, the greater sciatic notch allows which nerve to pass:
a. Sciatic nerve c. Gluteal nerve
b. Common Peroneal nerve d. Femoral nerve
124. Complete denervation of the abducens nerve result in the following, EXCEPT:
a. The subject cannot turn the eyes outward beyond the midline
b. Horizontal diplopia
c. Internal strabismus
d. Loss of downward movement ocular movement when the eye is turned toward the nose
125. The cortex is not smooth but is thrown into folds and furrows that markedly increase the total surface area without
demanding greater brain volume. Each fold or grounded elevation is known as:
a. Sulcus c. Gyrus
b. Hemisphere d. Lobe
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134. The hip-repair surgical procedures replaces the degenerated femoral head with an intramedullary prosthesis:
a. Muscle Release d. Displacement Osteotomy
b. Arthrodesis e. Double-up arthroplasty
c. Femoral Prosthesis
135. Projection neurons of the cerebellar cortex whose long axons synapse either on deep nuclei or vestibular nuclei:
a. None of these c. Purkinje cells
b. Stellate cells d. Glomeruli
136. The following signs and symptoms generally accompany a fracture, EXCEPT:
a. Deformity but no shortening in the injured area
b. Decreases of complete loss of muscle power in the injured area
c. Localized discoloration and edema
d. Presence of grafting sound when testing for ROM during assessment
e. Presence of crepitation during skin palpation
137. This crease lies at the base of the fingers and marks the location of the proximal pulley.
a. Distal palmar crease d. Thenar crease
b. Hypothenar crease e. Proximal palmar crease
c. Proximal interphalangeal crease
138. This instability occurs with a disruption of all of the lateral compartment capsular ligaments. The iliotibial band may be
torn. The posterior cruciate ligament remains intact. The result of the adduction test is positive with the knee at 30 degrees
of flexion.
a. Combined anterolateral and posterolateral rotatory instability
b. Combines posterolateral and anterolateral rotator instability
c. None of these
d. Combines anterolateral and anteromedial rotatory instability
e. Anterior instability
139. The ability to repeatedly execute the same movement over a period of time:
a. Endurance c. Motor Control
b. Muscle Tone d. Strength
140. Which of the following statements is true when testing for rigid or supple flat feet?
a. While standing on feet and seated, if medial longitudinal arch absent in some positions, subject has flat feet. If present
and absent only when he stands, flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports.
b. While standing on toes and seated, if medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If arch is
absent and present only when he stands, flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports.
c. While standing on toes, if medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If present and absent
only when he stands, his flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports.
d. While standing on toes and seated, if the medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If
present and absent only when he stands, his flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports
e. While standing on toes and seated, if medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If arch is
present and absent only when he stands, flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports
141. The upper extremity is attached to the trunk only at this joint:
a. Glenohumeral c. Acromio clavicular
b. Sternoclavicular d. Scapulothoracic
142. During the Stance Phase of Gait, subject may exhibit the following, EXCEPT:
a. Subjects with weakness of L5 distribution may have an abductor lurch
b. Subject with S1 distribution weakness may have an abductor lurch
c. Subject with muscle weakness of S1 and S2 distribution may have a flat foot with no forceful toe-off
d. Subject with a L2-L4 distribution weakness may walk with a back knee gait to lock their knees in extension
143. The deltoid is innervated by:
a. Suprascapular nerve (C5, C6)
b. Dorsal Scapular nerve (C3, C5)
c. Axillary nerve (C5, C6)
d. Subscapular nerve (C5, C6)
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144. This piece of equipment is commonly added to the traction equipment overhead framework and when indicated provides
the patient with a grasping device that promotes mobility and some independence, expediting daily care:
a. Plain Bar d. Trapeze
b. Pulley e. Spreader Bar
c. Bumper Ball
145. Supplied by the femoral nerve, this neurologic level spans the anterior thigh immediately at and above the knee joint:
a. L4 d. L3
b. S1 e. S2
c. L2
146. A patient has been admitted to your hospital with severe lower back pain. The patient will be placed in a pelvic belt for
intermittent traction. The following applies to proper pelvic belt application, EXCEPT:
a. Although pelvic traction may be applied directly on the skin, it may also be applied over clothing made of cotton (for
better traction) and wrinkle-free (to avoid excessive pressure on the skin)
b. The patient may be placed in Williams position with hips flexed 300 and knees flexed 300 as part of daily care
c. The straps must be parallel to each other and to the patient’s thighs when attached to the traction cords
d. The free ends of the belt are wrapped around the hip bone so the iliac crests are covered
147. In polyradiculoneuropathy, the following statements are true, EXCEPT:
a. In acute post infection polyradiculoneuropathies the early weakness may be more evident in the girdle musculature
b. Hands and feet may become quite sensitive and painful to squeezing, slapping and temperature changes
c. Sweating is lost when parasympathetic denervation is complete
d. Signs may be somewhat asymmetric
148. The following are characteristics of the lateral collateral ligament of the ankle joint, EXCEPT:
a. The anterior talofibular ligament has a high incidence of sprain because it is the first to undergo stress when the ankle
is inverted and plantar flexed
b. The posterior talofibular ligament is the strongest of the lateral collateral ligaments, and its primary function is prevent
forward slippage of the fibula onto the talus
c. The calcaneofibular ligament stretches plantarward to its insertion into the lateral wall of the calcaneus
d. The peroneous longus and brevis tendons are the primary foot evertors and they assist in plantar flexion
e. In severe ankle sprain, the calcaneofibular ligament may be torn, but only after the anterior talofibular ligament has
also been torn
149. The axillary nerve and radial nerve are second branches of:
a. Anterior cord d. None of these
b. Lateral cord e. Medial cord
c. The posterior cord
150. The following statements are true of the Tunnel of Guyon, EXCEPT:
a. Site for compression injuries
b. A fibro-osseous tunnel on the depression between the pisiform and the hook of the hamate converted by the
pisohamate ligament
c. Clinically significant because it contains the ulnar nerve and artery
d. The area is usually tender if there is pathology present
e. The ulnar nerve and artery are distinctly palpable under the layer of soft tissue covering the tunnel
151. The following statements are true of the brachialis, EXCEPT:
a. It is an elbow flexor
b. It is innervated by Musculocutaneous nerve
c. When the forearm is supinated, the brachialis flexes the elbow with little participation from the biceps.
d. It is proximal attachment is halfway up the shaft of the humerus
152. Injury to the spinal accessory nerve results in the following, EXCEPT:
a. Downward and outward rotation of the upper part of the scapula
b. Weakness in rotating the head to the opposite side
c. Sagging and weakness in shrugging the shoulder
d. The tongue deviates to the paralyzed side
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153. The following statements are true of the Trigeminal Nerve, EXCEPT
a. It branches into three major divisions: Opthalmic, Maxillary and the Mandibular
b. It s the sensory nerve of the face, mouth, teeth and nose
c. This is also the Sixth cranial nerve
d. It is the motor nerve to the four muscles of mastication
154. The elicitation of a motor response means that the arc is intact and conducting impulses. The absence of a response does
not have the converse meaning, since normal or abnormal neural influences may suppress the reflex:
a. First sentence is true, the second sentence is false
b. Both sentence are true
c. First sentence is false, the second sentence is true
d. Both sentence are false
155. Which of the following characterize of the Golgi Tendon Organs:
a. They reside within muscle tendons near the point of attachment of the muscle fiber to the tendon
b. All of these
c. Small bundle of muscle fibers produce tension that stimulate these organs
d. These organs discharge nerve impulses that are transmitted over large, rapidly conducting afferent axons to the spinal
cord and cerebellum
156. A fracture with cord transaction at the C6 level will produce the following, EXCEPT:
a. The subject is parasympathetic, ileus appears and the urinary bladder distends
b. Breathing is diaphragmatic
c. There is complete sensory loss below the C6 or C7 dermatome
d. An immediate flaccid paralysis of the trunk and extremities sparing some shoulder movement and flexion at the elbows
e. At a later stage, reflexes in this zone will be reduced or absent, whereas those mediated through intact cord segment
below will be hyperreflexic
157. Capillary networks surrounded by cuboidal or columnar epithelium that forms the cerebrospinal fluid:
a. Choroid plexuses c. Cerebral aqueduct
b. Foramina of Luschka d. Interventricular foramina
158. Which of the following is true in ankle dorsiflexion test?
a. If you are able to achieve ankle dorsiflexion when the knee is flexed, the soleus muscle is the limiting factor. If the
gastric is responsible for the limited motion, the limitation will be the same whether or not the knee is flexed
b. If you are able to achieve ankle dorsiflexion when the knee is flexed, the gastrocs muscle is the limiting factor. If the
soleus is responsible for the limited motion, the limitation will be the same whether or not the knee is extended
c. If you are able to achieve ankle, dorsiflexion when the knee is the limiting factor. If the soleus is responsible for the
limited motion, the limitation will be the same whether or not the knee is flexed.
d. If you are able to achieve ankle dorsiflexion when the knee is extended, the gastro muscle is the limiting factor. If the
slues is responsible for the limited motion, the limitation will be the same whether or not the knee is extended
e. If you are able to achieve ankle dorsiflexion when the knee is extended, the gastro muscle is the limiting factor. If the
soleus is responsible for the limited motion, the limitation will be the same whether or not knee is flexed
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161. Injury to the Median Nerve at the level of the elbow results in the following condition, EXCEPT:
a. The ring and little fingers extend
b. Making a fist results in the index and middle finger tending to remain straight
c. Thenar eminence is flattened and due to paralysis and wasting
d. Paralysis of the pronator muscles of the forearm and the long muscles of the wrist and fingers, except the flexor carpi
ulnaris and medial half of the flexor digitorum
162. The following statements are true of balanced suspension traction, EXCEPT:
a. A hammock or splint, such as a Thomas splint with Pearson attachment is an example of this type of Traction
b. The weight that suspends the affected extremity is greater than the weight of the counter traction being applied
c. This assembly allows more range of motion than other forms of traction without affecting the line of traction pull
d. Most commonly used to support leg injuries such as femoral fractures with displacement, and nonaligned bone
fragments
e. This assembly promotes neurovascular integrity by decreasing prolonged pressure on the back of the patient’s leg.
163. The following is true of the Brachioradialis, EXCEPT:
a. It is inserted by a long tendon on the base of the styloid process of the radius
b. The nerve supply is via the radial nerve, a terminal branch of the brachial plexus
c. It devotes itself entirely to the elbow
d. It is a strong flexor of the elbow only with light loads or during slow flexion
164. The following are true of muscle contraction efficiency, EXCEPT:
a. Less than 20-25 % of input energy to the muscle can be converted into muscle work
b. Minimal efficiency is achieved when velocity contraction is about 30% of maximum
c. Large amount of maintenance heat are released even though the muscle performed little or not work
d. Low efficiency is because about half of nutrient is lost in the formation of ATP
165. The height of a specific vertebrae may be used to determine the following landmarks, EXCEPT:
a. C3-level with hyoid bone
b. T4-height of the manubrium and body of sternum
c. C4 and C5-level with thyroid cartilage
d. All of these
166. The lateral arm and axillary nerve are supplied by neurologic level:
a. C6 d. T1
b. C5 e. C7
c. C8
167. An abnormal contraction occurring in denervated muscle fibers after motor neurons have been destroyed, in which
individual muscle fibers contract in an unsynchronized manner, producing muscle flutter but no effective movement.
a. Tetanic contraction d. Fibrillation
b. Convulsion e. Twitch
c. Fasciculation
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171. The following statements are true of the ulnar styloid process, EXCEPT:
a. It articulates with the proximal carpal row to take part in wrist articulation
b. It does not extend as far distally and it is more prominent and thicker than its radial counterpart
c. The external carpi ulnaris tendon runs through its groove
d. In the anatomic position, it is both medially and posteriorly located in the wrist
e. It is most easily palpated when the hand is radially deviated and the tendon is contracted
172. Upon inspection of the lumbar spine from the side, which of the following observations is not TRUE?
a. If the spine exhibits an exaggerated curve, the anterior abdominal muscles may be weaken
b. Increased lumbar lordosis may also be caused by a fixed flexion deformity of the hip
c. An absence of the normal lordosis may suggest paravertebral muscle spasms
d. Pelvis obliquity is evident when the two dimples overlying the posterior iliac spine directly above the buttocks lie along
the same horizontal plane
e. Excessive lordosis occasionally substitutes for true hip extension
173. At the atlanto-occipital joint, the head is balanced by the pull of neck extensor muscles. This is an example of:
a. First Class Lever c. Third Class Lever
b. Second Class Lever d. Fourth Class Lever
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184. Sensory perception of pain, may occur in amputated limb as part of a patient’s attempts to cope with loss of his limb:
a. Phantom Pain c. Superficial Pain
b. Acute Pain d. Chronic Pain
185. The following statements describe care of meniscal injuries, EXCEPT:
a. Subjects with horizontal cleavage tears of the menisci often remain asymptomatic
b. Flexion-extension exercises strengthen the quadriceps femoris mechanism
c. Subjects with vertical tears of the menisci do not heal, but increased strength and flexibility around the knee may allow
continued activities until the appropriate surgical procedure is performed.
d. Short-arc (terminal extension) or straight-leg-raise exercises cannot be substituted if full-arc exercises cause pain
186. The following statements describe a biceps reflex response, EXCEPT:
a. A deep tendon reflex transmitted to the cord as far as the anterior horn cell and returning to the muscle via the
peripheral nerve
b. A slight response suggests the neurologic level deficient in its innervations of the biceps
c. A decreases response may be caused by a lower motor neuron lesion, e.g. PNI secondary to an herniated cervical disc
d. If there is no perceptible response after several attempts, there may be a lesion on the neurologic level anywhere from
the root to the innervations of the biceps
e. An excessive response may be a result of an upper motor neuron lesion, e.g., CVA
187. A common developmental abnormality, it is a partial or complete failure of the posterior neuropore:
a. Ependyma c. Spina bifida
b. Neural folds d. Neural groove
188. This articulation in the elbow joint permits pronation and supination:
a. Proximal Radioulnar Joint
b. Radiohumeral Joint
c. Ulnohumeral Joint
d. None of these
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189. The following statements apply to the 7th cranial nerve, EXCEPT:
a. Innervates the musculature of the face and the platysma
b. The platysma is tested by pulling down the corners of the subject’s mouth
c. Minor degrees of unilateral weakness are often best seen at rest or during expressional changes during conversation
and in blinking
d. This nerves via its division called the chords tympani conveys the taste from the posterior tongue
e. The strength of the frontalis can be estimated by smoothing the wrinkles with the fingers
190. The following statements apply to the sciatic nerve, EXCEPT:
a. Innervates the hamstrings muscles, the adductor magnus and all the musculature below the knee
b. There are two principal division, the posterior tibial and the common peroneal
c. Carries fibers form the L4, L5 S1 and S2 roots
d. Interruption of the nerve will weaken the extension and adduction of the thigh and paralyze flexion of the knee and all
movement below the knee
e. Ankle jerk is lost and sensory loss involves and dorsal aspect of the leg and the lateral dorsum and sole of the foot
191. The following positions describe the examination the reflexes, EXCEPT:
a. With the subject standing, the hands are placed on hips with arms akimbo, tests for the triceps reflex
b. With the subject kneeling, the triceps surae stretch reflex is tested with one hand positioned on the ball of the foot
stretching the muscle slightly and tapping quickly and gently
c. With the subject’s feet flat on the floor, hold one hand on the distal thigh and strike the tendon just below patella to
test for quadriceps stretch reflex
d. IN the ankle joint, clonus is elicited by briskly but gently dorsiflexing the ankle increasing pressure against the sole
e. Striking the examiner’s thumb on the biceps tendon with the elbow flexed at varied degrees for best response is
assumed for biceps stretch reflex
192. The following mechanisms occur in a platelet plug, EXCEPT:
a. Platelets begin to swell when they come in contact with a damaged vascular surface
b. By itself, it can stop blood flow even of the hole in a vessels is large
c. Assume irregular forms
d. They stick to the collagen fibers
193. The spinal portion of the cranial nerve innervates the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles
a. Accessory nerve c. Vagus nerve
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve d. Hypoglossal nerve
194. The following is true in a nonunion fracture complication, EXCEPT:
a. To improve circulation, holes may be drilled near the fracture site and bone grafting may be performed to supply bone
tissue
b. A pseudarthrosis may form at the fracture site, causing excessive joint mobility
c. There may be increased joint motion proximal and distal to the fracture site
d. May be treated with an orthotic device in combination with increased activity to improve blood supply to the site
e. There may be gradual muscle atrophy, and pain with weight bearing
195. The following statements are true in Reduction Click, EXCEPT:
a. The test is done by flexing the knee while it is rotated both internally and externally, then rotating and flexing the leg
until the meniscus slips back and a characteristic “click” is hear
b. This is similar to the McMurray test in that it can also unlock the knee joint and produce the reduction click
c. Applicable to those patients having a locked knee due to a torn, dislocated, or “heaped up” meniscus
d. The test will unlock the knee caused by a torn meniscus and permit full extension
e. The object of the procedure is to reduce the displaced or torn portion of the meniscus by clicking it back into place
196. This test is used to detect pathology in the hip and sacro-iliac joint. Inguinal pain is a general indication that there is
pathology in the hip joint or surrounding muscles.
a. Hoover Test d. Gaeslan’s Sign
b. Beevor’s Sign e. Naffziger Test
c. Fabere Test
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197. The following statements are true when functional deficits are exclusively below a horizontal line at right angle to the spinal
neuraxis, EXCEPT:
a. Diffuse tract disease may give no clear level
b. Suspicion of spinal cord dysfunction is appropriate
c. Multiple focal lesions of the cord may give multiple levels
d. Diffuse cerebral disease of midline cerebellar (vermis) lesions may produce predominantly sensory dysfunction and
ataxia in the lower extremities
e. Signs of neuropathy or motor neuron disease can be limited largely to the legs
198. The following are type of end feel (according to Cyriax), EXCEPT:
a. Capsular feel c. Springy block
b. Spasm d. Bone of muscle
199. A movement disorder resulting from disease of the basal striatum and characterized by rapid, irregular flow of motions and
grimacing movements of the face:
a. Athetosis c. None of these
b. Chorea d. Parkinson’s Disease
200. The following describes the medial meniscus, EXCEPT:
a. Situated on top of the tibia on the medial plateau
b. Its anterior end attaches to the nonarticular portion of the top of the tibia, in feat of the anterior cruciate ligament
c. Normally there is no specific sulcus between the margin of the meniscus and the joint capsule anywhere along the
medial joint line
d. Has a firm attachment to the top of the tibia and a less firm one to the femur through the coronary ligament
e. The anterior attachment seems to slip under the anterior cruciate ligament, attaching to the bone beneath.
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