1) Karl Marx explained the process of class 5) Many a time we read in financial newspapers

struggle with the help of which one of the about Public Dept. Which of the following is/are
following theories? the components of Public Debt?
a) Empirical liberalism 1. Market Loans
b) Existentialism 2. External Loans
c) Darwin’s theory of evolution 3.Outstanding against saving schemes/
d) Dialectical materialism provident funds
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
2) The term ‘Paper Gold’ means : c) Both 1 and 2
a) Special Drawing Rights (SDR) of the IMF d) Only 3
b) Special accommodation facility of World
Bank 6) The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank
c) Currencies still on Gold standard of India leads to :
d) Deficit Financing a) More liquidity in the market
b) Less liquidity in the market
c) No change in the liquidity in the market
3) A ‘Letter of Credit’ is produced by : d)Mobilization of more deposits by commercial
a) An exporter banks
b) An importer
c) Both by exporter and importer 7) With reference to India, consider the following :
d) Shipping company 1. Nationalization of Banks
2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks
3. Adoption of village by Bank Branches
4) As we all know, Government of India pays Which of the above can be considered as steps
special emphasis on the management of Fiscal taken to achieve the ‘financial inclusion’ in
Deficit. What is Fiscal Deficit? India?
a) 1 and 2 only
a) The gap between projected or estimated b) 2 and 3 only
GDP and Actual GDP c) 3 only
b) The gap between the total number and value d) 1, 2 and 3
of the currency notes issued by the RBI uptill
now over the number and value of those which 8) Consider the following :
are in actual circulation. 1. Currency with the public
c) The gap between the actual borrowings of 2. Demand deposits with banks
the Government of India and the expected 3. Time deposits with banks
expenditure for which provision is made in the Which of these are included in Broad Money
budget ( ) in India?
d) Excess of Government’s disbursement a) 1 and 2
comprising current and capital expenditures b) 1 and 3
over its current receipts (Tax/Non –tax c) 2 and 3
receipts) d) 1, 2 and 3

9) Tarapore Committee was associated with which
one of the following?
a) Special Economic Zone
b) Fully Capital Account Convertibility
c) Effect of oil-prices on the Indian Economy
d) Foreign Exchange Reserve
10) Devaluation of currency leads to :
a) Expansion of export trade
b) Contraction of import trade
c) Expansion of import substitution
d) All of the above
11) Which of the following is the
characteristic of ‘mixed farming’?
a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food
crops
b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same
field
c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops
together
d) None of the above
12) Structural unemployment arises due to :
a) Deflationary conditions
b) Heavy industry bias
c) Shortage or raw materials
d) Inadequate productive capacity
13) In India, in which of the following area among
Eight Core Industries?
1. Cement
2. Fertilizers
3. Natural Gas
4. Refinery products
5. Textiles
Select the correct answer using the codes :
a) 1 and 5 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 , 3, 4 and 5
14) In the parlance of economy / commerce, what is
‘Gilt-edged market’?
a) Gold and silver market
b) Industrial securities market
c) Market of safe (such as Government)
securities
d) Market for software technology / service
products
15) Reverse Repo Rate means :
a) Injecting liquidity by the Central Bank of a
country through purchase of Government
chief Securities
b) Absorption of liquidity from the market by
sale of Government Securities
c) Balancing liquidity with a view to enhance
economic growth rate
d) Improving the position of availability of the
securities in the market
16) A closed vessel containing some gas at
atmospheric pressure and room temperature is
placed in a fast moving train. The temperature
of the gas will
a) Decrease
b) Remain unchanged
c) Increase of decrease depending on the
chemical composition of the gas
d) Increase
17) Assertion (A) : Radio waves bend in a magnetic
field
Reason (R) : Radio waves are electromagnetic
in nature
Codes :
a) A and R are individually true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b) A and R are individually true, but R is not
the correct explanation of A
 c) A is true, but R is false 22) Consider the following statements in a nuclear
d) A is false, but R is true reactor, self-sustained chain reaction is possible
, because –
1. More neutrons are related in each of the
18) The focal length of a plane mirror is fission reaction
a) Positive 2. The neutrons immediately take part in the
b) Negative fission process
c) Zero 3. The fast neutrons are slowed down by
d) Infinity graphite
4. Every neutron released in the fission reaction
19) Which one of the following phenomena cannot initiates fission
be attributed to the refraction of light?
a) Twinkling of starts Which of these statements are correct?
b) Mirage a) 1, 2 and 3
c) Rainbow b) 1 and 3
d) Redshift c) 2 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
20) A simple circuit contains a 12 V battery and a
bulb having 24 ohm resistance. When you turn 23) Cobalt-60 is commonly used in radiation
on the switch, the ammeter connected in the therapy because it emits---
circuit would read a) ɑlpha-rays
a) 0.5A b) Beta rays
b) 2A c) Gamma rays
c) 4A d) X-rays
d) 5A
24) The pH value of a sample of multiple-distilled
water is
21) Which one of the following statements about bar a) Zero
magnet is correct? b) Very near to seven
a) The pole strength of the north-pole of a bar c) Very near to Zero
magnet is larger than that of the south-pole d) 14
b) When a piece of bar magnet is bisected
perpendicular to its axis, the north and south 25) Most of the explosions in mines occur due to the
poles get separated mixing of –
c) When a piece of bar magnet is bisected a) Hydrogen with oxygen
perpendicular to its axis, two new bar magnets b) Oxygen with acetylene
are formed c) Methane with air
d) The poles of a bar magnet are unequal in c) Carbon dioxide with ethane
magnitude and opposite in nature
26) Match the following
List –I List-II
A. CNG 1. CO, Hydrogen
B. Coal gas 2. Butane, Propane
 C. LPG 3. Butane, Ethane
D. Water gas 4. Hydrogen, Methane, CO 32) Which one among the following statements
Code: about stomach is not correct?
A B C D a) Stomach act as a temporary reservoir
a) 2 1 3 4 b) Stomach mixes food with gastric juice
b) 3 4 2 1 c) Stomach secretes lipase and amylase in
c) 2 4 3 1 gastric juice
d) 3 1 2 4 d) Rate of stomach emptying depends on the
type of food
27) Non-stick frying pans are coated with
a) Orlon 33) Which of the following hormones play a role in
b) Teflon release of milk from mammary glands?
c) Polystyrene a) Adrenaline
d) Polypropylene b) Thyroxin
c) Progesterone
28) The plant growth regulators are small, simple d) Oxytocin
molecules of diverse chemical composition.
They are
a) Carbohydrates, fats and proteins 34) Which of the following cell organelles play the
b) Indole compounds, adenine derivatives, most significant rule in protein synthesis-
carotenoids and terpenes a) Lysosome and centrosome
c) Fatty acids, glucose and vitamins b) Endoplasmic reticulum and ribosome
d) Vitamin C, vitamin D and glucose c) Golgi apparatus and mitochondria
d) Lysosome and mitochondria
29) Food prepared by plant is transported to
different part of plant through— 35) Match the following
a) Xylem List-I List-II
b) Cortex A. Cholera 1. Mycobacterium
c) Phloem B. Influenza 2. Myxovirus
d) Pith C. Tuberculosis 3. Salmonella
D. Typhoid 4. Vibrio
30) The sexual reproductive organs of aspergillus
are : Codes:
a) Spermatium and Oogonium A B C D
b) Antheridium and Oogonium a) 3 1 2 4
c) Spermatium and Ascogonium b) 3 2 1 4
d) Antheridium and Ascogonium c) 4 1 2 3
d) 4 2 1 3
31) In humans, the sound is produced by the---
a) Oesophagus 36) Which one of the following is a hereditary
b) Larynx disease?
c) Medulla a) Cataract
d) Epiglottis b) Haemophilia
 c) Pellagra
d) Osteoporosis 42) Match the following
List-I List-II
37) What is the application of Somatic cell nuclear A. Bodhi Tree 1. Birth
Transfer Technology? B. Dharma Chakra 2. First Sermon
a) Production of biolarvicides C. Horse 3. Enlightenment
b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastic D. Lotus 4. Renunciation
c) Reproductive cloning of animals Codes:
d) Production of organisms free of diseases A B C D
a) 3 2 4 1
b) 2 3 4 1
38) ‘Use of while marble, long legs and slender c) 1 2 3 4
frames, human being as central characters and d) 2 1 3 4
prominence of kings, princess and places’- were 43) In which of the following inscriptions the name
the characteristic features of which one of the of Asoka has been mentioned?
following ancient art forms of India? a) Bhabru Edict
a) Amaravati School of Art b) Rock Edict XIII
b) Gandhara School of Art c) Rummendei Pillar Inscription
c) Mathura School of Art d) Minor Rock Edict of Maski
d) Pahari School of Art
44) Match the following
39) Fahien and Hiuen-Tsang visited the kingdom of List-I List-II
– A. Tolkappiyam 1. Tolakpiyyar
a)Chandragupta Maurya and Harsha B. Silppadikarm 2. Ilango Adigal
respectively C. Manimekalai 3. Sittalai Sattanar
b)Harsha and Chandragupta Vikramaditya D. Sivaga Sindamani 4. Tiruttakrdevas
respectively
c)Chandragupta Vikramaditya and Krishnadeva Codes:
respectively A B C D
d)Chandragupta Vikramaditya and Harsha a) 1 2 3 4
respectively b) 4 3 2 1
c) 2 1 3 4
40) Purushasukta is founded in the – d) 1 2 4 3
a) Bhagavad Gita
b) Rigveda 45) Assertion (A): The success of the Turks against
c) Manusmriti the Indian rulers at the end of the 12th century
d) Atharvaveda was an event that exposed the weakness of the
Indian armies.
41) Who was the author of ‘Buddha Charita’?
a) Asvaghosha Reason (R): Large scale conversions to Islam
b) Nagasena had depleted the numerical strength of the
c) Nagarjuna Indian armies.
d) Vasumitra
 a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct c) Dvaitavada – Madhvacharya
explanation of A d) Dvaitadvaitvada –Vallabhacharya
b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
explanation
c) A is true but R is false 50) Match the following
d) A is false but R is true List-I List-II
A. Babur 1. Lahore
B. Akbar 2. Agra
46) Adi Shankaracharya established four mathas. C. Jahangir 3. Kabul
These mathas are situated at— D. Shahjahan 4. Sikandara
a) Badrinath, Dwarka, Puri, Sringeri
b) Sringeri, Dwarka, Badrinath, Prayag Codes:
c) Dwarka, Badrinath, Prayag, Sringeri A B C D
d) Puri, Sringeri, Dwarka, Varanasi a) 1 2 3 4
b) 4 3 1 2
c) 3 4 1 2
47) With reference to Sultan Alauddin Khalji, d) 2 1 3 4
consider the following statements-
1. Alauddin Khalji fixed the prices of food- 51) The Dual Government recommended by Lord
grains. Clive provided that the-
2. Alauddin Khalji was the first sultan who paid a) Criminal justice would be left to the Nawab
his soldier in cash. officials, while civil and fiscal matters would
3. During Alauddin Khalji’s rule, the share of be controlled by the company
the lane revenue to be paid by the peasant was b) Company will look after fiscal matters ad all
raised to half of produce. the rest would be dealt by the Indian rulers
c) Indian rulers will deal with all the matters of
Which of these statements are correct? administration under the supervision of a
a) 1 and 2 company official
b) 1 and 3 d) India rulers will only titular head and all the
c) 2 and 3 powers shall be directly dealt by the Company
d) 1, 2 and 3
52) Match the following
48) The Nayakas in the Vijayanagar empire were- List-I
a) Central Ministers A. Atmiya Sabha
b)Military Chiefs controlling particular B. Sanskrit college
territories C. National Council of Education
c) Cavalry soldiers D. Adi Brahmo Samaj
d) Priests of large and powerful temples
List-II
49) Which one of the following is correctly 1. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
matched? 2. Aurobindo Ghosh
a) Advaitvada - Ramanujacharya 3. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
b) Visistadvaitvada - Sankaracharya 4. Devendra Nath Tagore
 A B C D b) Boycott
a) 2 4 3 1 c) National Education
b) 3 1 2 4 d) Swadeshi
c) 2 1 3 4
d) 3 4 2 1 57) Which of the following Acts was described by
Jawaharlal Nehru as ‘New Charter of Slavery’?
53) Consider the following statements : a) Government of India Act, 1919
1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad persuaded Mahatma b) Government of India Act, 1935
Gandhi to come to Champaran to investigate c) Regulating Act of 1773
the problem of peasants d) Pitt’s India Act of 1784
2. Acharya J.B. Kripalani was one of the
Mahatma Gandhi’s colleagues in his 58) After Quite India Movement, C. Rajagopalchari
Champaran Satyagraha issued a pamphlet entitled ‘the way out’. Which
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are one of the following was a proposal in this
correct? pamphlet?
a) 1 only a) The establishment of a ‘War Advisory
b) 2 only Council’ composed of representatives of British
c) Both 1 and 2 India and the princely states
d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) Reconstitution of the Central Executive
Council in such a way that all its members,
54) Which one of the following commissions is except the Governor General and Commander-
associated with the Army Re-organisation after in-Chief should be Indian leaders
the suppression of the Revolt of 1857? c) Fresh elections to the Central and Provincial
a) Public service Commission Legislatures to be held at the end of 1945 and
b) Peal Commission the constitution-making body to be convened as
c) Hunter Commission soon as possible
d) Simon Commission d) A solution for the constitutional deadlock

55) Syamji Krishna Verma established Indian Home
Rule Society in-
a) London
b) San Francisco
c) Berlin
d) Paris
56) Four resolutions were passed at the famous
Calcutta session of Indian National Congress in
1906. The question of either retention OR of
rejection of these four resolutions becomes the
cause of a split in congress at the next Congress
session held in Surat in 1907. Which one of the
following was NOT one of those resolutions?
a) Annulment of partitions of Bengal
59) The provisions relating to the Fundamental
Rights in the Constitution of India-
a) Cannot be amended
b) Can be amended by a simple majority in the
Parliament
c) Can be amended by a two-thirds majority in
the Parliament
d) Can be amended by a two-thirds majority of
the members present and voting in the
Parliament and ratified by a majority of the
State Legislatures
60) Which of the following correct?
 a) The Nehru Report (1928) had advocated the
including of Fundamental Rights in the
Constitution of India
b) The Government of India Act, 1935 referred
to Fundamental Rights
c) The August offer, 1940 included the
Fundamental Right
d) The Cripps Mission, 1942 referred to
Fundamental Rights
61) Consider the following provisions under the
Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined
in the Constitution of India :
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil
code
2. Organizing village Panchayats
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable
leisure and cultural opportunities
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles
that are reflected in the Directive Principles of
State Policy?
a) 1,2 and 4
b) 2 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
62) Consider the following statements
1. The president of India cannot return the
money bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration
2. During the period of National Emergency,
the President of India can make ordinances
even when Parliament is in session
Which of the statement given above is/are
correct?
a) 1only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
63) Which one of the following is NOT a
constitutional prerogative of the President of
India?
a)Returning an ordinary bill for reconsideration
b) Returning a finance bill for reconsideration
c) Dissolving the Lok Sabha
d) Appointing the Prime Minister
64) The resolution for removing the Vice-President
of India can be moved in the :
a) Lok Sabha alone
b) Either House of Parliament
c) Joint sitting of Parliament
d) Rajya Sabha alone
65) Under the administration of which one of the
following is the Department of Atomic Energy?
a) Prime Minister’s Office
b) Cabinet Secretary
c) Ministry of Power
d) Ministry of Science and Technology
66) Which non-member can participate in the
business of either House of Parliament ?
a) The vice president
b) The solicitor General
c) The Attorney General
d) The chief Justice of India
67) If a member of Parliament becomes disqualified
for membership,decision of his removal is taken
by
a) Chief Election Commissioner
b) President of India on the advice of CoM
c) President of India on enquiry by a Supreme
Court Judge
d) President in accordance with the opinion of
the Election Commission
68) Which of the following special powers have
been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the
Constitution of India?
a) To Change the existing territory of a States
and to change the name of the State
 b) To pass a resolution empowering the
Parliament to All India Service
c) To amend the election procedure of the
President and to determine the pension of the
President after his/her retirement
d) To determine the functions of the Election
Commission and the determine the number
Election Commissioners
69) The term of the Lok Sabha :
a) Cannot be extended under any circumstances
b) Can be extended by six months at a time
c) Can be extended by one year at a time during
the proclamation of emergency
d) Can be extended for two years at a time
during the proclamation of emergency
70) Consider the following statements :
1. Salary and allowances of Speaker of Lok
Sabha are charged upon the Consolidated Fund
of India
2. In the Warrant of Precedence, the Speaker of
Lok Sabha ranks higher than all the Union
Cabinet Ministers other than Prime Minister
Which of the statement given above is/are
correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
71) When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both
the houses of Indian Parliament, it has to be
passed by-
a) A simple majority of members present and
voting
b) Three-fourths majority of members present
and voting
c) Two-thirds majority of the House
d) Absolute majority of the total membership of
the Houses
72) Consider the following statements-
1. A bill pending in Rajya Sabha which has not
been passed by Lok Sabha lapses
2. A bill pending in Lok Sabha lapses
3. A bill passed by Both Houses but pending
assent of the President of India does not lapse
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
73) Consider the following statements:
1. Ministry of Parliament Affairs constitutes
Committee of members of both Houses of
Parliament
2. The main purpose of these committees is to
provide a forum for formal discussion between
the Government and Members of Parliament
and Programmes of the Government
Which of the statements given above is/ are
correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
74) With reference to Indian Parliament, which one
of the following is NOT correct?
a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by
both the Houses of Parliament before it can be
enacted into law
b) No money shall be withdrawn from the
Consolidated Fund of India except under the
appropriation made by the Appropriation Act
c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new
taxes but no other bill / Act is required for
making changes in the rates of taxes which are
already under operation
 d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on
the recommendation of the President
75) Consider the following statements :
1. On its own initiative (on any matter or larger
public interest)
2. If he seeks an advice
3. Only if the matter relates to the Fundamental
Rights of the citizens
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 2
76) Consider the following statements :
1. The highest criminal court of the district is
the Court of District and Session Judge.
2. The District Judge are appointed by the
Governor in consultation with the High Court.
3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a
District Judge should be advocates or a pleader
of seven year’s standing or more, or an officer
in judicial service of the Union or the State.
4. When the Session Judge awards death
sentence, it must be confirmed by the High
Court before it is carried out.
Which of the statement given above are
correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
77) The nomenclature of the Executive Head of the
Government of Jammu and Kashmir was
changed from Sadar-i-Riyasat to Government in
1965 by :
a) A Lok Sabha Resolution
b) The executive order of the Parliament
c) The 6th Amendment in the State Constitution
of Jammu and Kashmir
d) The state Government under Article 371
78) The constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment )
Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the
Panchayati Raj Institution in the Country,
provides for which of the following :
1. Constitution of District planning committees
2. State Election Commission to conduct all
Panchyat elections
3. Establishment of state Finance Commission
79) Which one of the following statements is NOT
correct?
a) The Election Commission cannot be
removed from their office except on
recommendations by the Chief Election
Commissioner
b) The chief Election Commissioner and the
other Election Commissioner enjoy equal
powers
c) The term of office an Election Commissioner
is 6 years from the date he assumes office to till
the day
d) In case of difference of opinion amongst the
Chief Election Commissioner and other
Election Commissioner, the matter is decided
by the Law Commission
80) Which one of the following Bills must be passed
by each House of the Indian Parliament
separately by special majority?
a) Ordinary Bill
b) Money Bill
c) Finance Bill
d) Constitution Amendment Bill
81) Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
 Proper design and effective implementation of d) High concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in
UN REDD + programme can significantly the evening
contribute to
1. Protection of biodiversity 85) Match the following
2. Resilience of forest ecosystems List-I List-II
3. Poverty reduction A. Rihand 1. Hirakud
Select the correct answer using the code given B. Gandak 2. Balmiki nagar
below : C. Chambal 3. Pipri
a) 1 and 2 D. Mahanandi 4. Kota
b) 3 only Codes:
c) 2 and 3 A B C D
d) 1, 2 and 3 a) 3 4 2 1
b) 1 2 4 3
82) From the ecological point of view, which one of c) 3 2 4 1
the following assumes important in being a good d) 1 4 2 3
link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western
Ghats? 86) Consider the following statements :
a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve 1. The duration of the monsoon decrease from
b) Nallamala Forest southern India to northern India.
c) Nagarhole National Park 2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern
d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve plains of India decrease from east to west
Which of the statements given above is/are
83) With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen correct?
in the news, consider the following statements : a) 1 only
1. It is a global action plan for sustainable b) 2 only
development c) Both 1 and 2
2. It originated in the World Summit on d) Neither 1 nor 2
Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg
in 2002 87) During December and January, North India
Which of the statements given above is/are experiences excessive cold weather because
correct? 1. These areas being far away from the
a) 1 only moderating influence of sea, experience
b) 2 only continental climate.
c) Bothe 1 and 2 2. The cold winds coming from Caspian Sea
d) Neither 1 nor 2 and Turkmenistan bring cold wave over the
84) Photochemical smog is a resultant of the northern parts of India
reaction among 3. Low pressure develops over North India due
a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacety1 and nitrate in the to high temperatures
presence of sunlight 4. High pressure develops over North India due
b) CO, O2 and peroxyacety1 nitrate in the to low temperatures
presence of sunlight Select the correct answer using the code given
c) CO, CO2, and NO2 at low temperature below:
a) 1 and 4
 b) 2 and 3 b) 4 3 2 1
c) 1, 2 and 4 c) 4 1 2 3
d) 3 only d) 4 1 3 2

88) Assertion (A) : For the onset of wet summer 91) Which one among the following statements is
monsoons of India, the south-east trade winds Not correct?
over Indian Ocean cross the equator and recur a) Shillong Plateau is an outlier of Peninsular
into a south westerly flow. Plateau of India.
Reason (R) : The north easterly surface winds b) Aravalli Mountain is the oldest mountain
of Siberian High blowing towards south Asia chain of India
cause the deflection of these wings c) Vindhyans are examples of Fold Mountain
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is d) Rajmahal Highlands are composed of Lava
the correct explanation of A deposits
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
not the correct explanation of A 92) Match the following
c) A is the true but R is false List-I
d) A is false but R is true A. Kuroshio current
B. Peru current
89) With reference to river Teesta, consider the C. Labrador current
following statements D. Florida current
1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that
of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim List-II
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is 1. Warm current in the Atlantic Ocean
a tributary of river Teesta 2. Cold current in the Atlantic Ocean
3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the 3. Warm current in the Pacific Ocean
border of India and Bangladesh 4. Cold current in the Pacific Ocean
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Codes:
a) 1 and 3 A B C D
b) 2 only a) 3 4 2 1
c) 2 and 3 b) 3 2 4 1
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) 1 4 2 3
d) 1 2 4 3
90) Math the following
List-I List-II 93) Match the following
A. Mana 1. Sikkim List-I
B. Nathula 2. Jammu and Kashmir A. wave
C. Zozila 3. Himachal Pradesh B. Tide
D. Sipki La 4. Uttrakhand C. Tsunami
D. current
Codes:
A B C D
a) 2 3 1 4 List-II
 1. Periodic rise and fall of water d) A is false but R is true.
2. A strong seismic wave 97) Which of the following pairs of straits and the
3. Up and Down movement of oceanic water countries they separate is wrongly matched?
frequently a) Gibraltar Strait – Spain and Morocco
4. Stream of water flowing constantly on the b) Bering Strait – Sumatra and Malaysia
ocean surface in a definite direction c) Magellan Strait – Chile and Tiera del Fuego
Codes: d) Bass Strait- Australia and Tasmania
A B C D
a) 2 3 1 4 98) In which atmospheric layer is the ozone layer
b) 1 2 3 4 situated?
c) 2 3 1 4 a) Troposphere
d) 2 1 3 4 b) Stratosphere
c) Mesosphere
94) Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to which d) Ionosphere
among the following? 99) Albedo effect would be relatively higher in :
1. Gravitational force of the sun a) Early morning and late evening
2. Gravitational force of the moon b) Early morning only
3. Centrifugal force of the earth c) Noon
Select the correct answer using the code given d) Late evening only
below
a) 1 only 100) Chinook is a :
b) 2 and 3 only a) Cold wind in Europe
c) 1 and 3 only b) Tropical desert storm in West Asia
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) Warm wind in South America
d) Depression in South Africa
95) The ‘El Nino’ phenomenon which sparks
climatic extreme around the globe originates in 101) What is the number of integral solutions of
the the equations HCF (a, b) = 5 and a + b 65?
a) Indian ocean (a) None
b) Sea of china (b) Infinitely many
c) Atlantic ocean (c) Less than 65
d) Pacific ocean (d) Exactly one

96) Assertion (A) : The great barrier reef is located 102) The difference of two consecutive cubes
near Australia. (a) is odd or even
Reason (R) : The coral polyps grow in shallow, (b) is never divisible by 2
saline and warm waters. (c) is always even
Codes: (d) Nome of the above
a) Both A and R are true and R is correct
explanation of A. 103) Let a, b be positive integers. What is HCF
b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct ( ) equal to?
explanation of A.
(a) a
c) A is true but R is false.
(b) b
 (c) 1 (a) 84 years
(d) (b) 70 years
(c) 40 years
104) The product of four consecutive natural
(d) 35 years
numbers plus one is
110) The average age of male employees in a
(a) a non-square
firm is 52 years and that of female employees is
(b) always sum of two square numbers
42 years. The mean age of all employees is 50
(c) a square
years. The percentage of male and female
(d) None of the above
employees are respectively
(a) 80% and 20%
(b) 20% and 80%
105) For any integers 'a’ and ‘b’ with HCF (a, b)
(c) 50% and 50%
= 1, what is HCF (a + b, a - b) equal to?
(d) 52% and 48%
(a) It is always 1
(b) It is always 2
111) 15 men complete a work in 16 days. If 24
(c) Either 1 or 2
men are employed, then the time required to
(d) None of the above
complete that work will be
(a) 7 days
106) The expression 2x3 + x2 – 2x – 1 is divisible
(b) 8 days
by
(c) 10 days
(a) x + 2
(d) 12 days
(b) 2x + 1
(c) x – 2
112) A train takes 9 seconds to cross a pole. If the
(d) 2x – 1
speed of the train is 48 km/hr, the length of the
train is
107) A positive number, when increased by 10,
(a) 150m
equals 200 times its reciprocal. What is that
(b) 120m
number?
(c) 90m
(a) 100
(d) 80m
(b) 10
(c) 20
113) Ravi’s brother is 3 years elder to him. His
(d) 200
father was 28 years of age when his sister was
born while his mother was 26 years of age when
108) x3 + 6x2 + 11x + 6 is divisible by
he was born. If his sister was 4 years of age
(a) (x + 1) only
when his brother was born, the ages of Ravi's
(b) (x + 2) only
rather and mother respectively when his brother
(c) (x + 3) only
was born were
(d) All of the above

(a) 32 years and 23 years

(b) 32 years and 29 years
109) The present age of Ravi’s father is four
(c) 35 years and 29 years
times Ravi’s present age. Five years back he
(d) 35 years and 33 years
was seven times as old as Ravi was at that time.
What is the present age of Ravi's father?
114) In solving a problem, one student makes a 119) What should be added to the expression x(x
mistake in the coefficient of the first degree + a) (x + 2a) (x + 3a) so that the sum may be a
term and obtains - 9 and - 1 for the roots. perfect square?
Another student makes a mistake in the constant (a) 9a2
term of the equation and obtains 8 and 2 for the (b) 4a2
roots. (c) a4
The correct equation was (d) None of the above
(a) x2 + 10x + 9 = 0
(b) x2 — 10x + 16 = 0 120) If the roots of the equation Ax2 + Bx + C = 0
(c) x2 — 10x + 9 = 0 are -1 and 1, then which one not the following is
(d) None of the above correct?
(a) A and C are both zero
115) If m and n are the roots of the equation ax2+ (b) A and B are both positive
bx + c = 0, then the equation whose roots are (c) A and C are both negative
(m2-+1)/m and (n2 + 1)/n is (d) A and C are of opposite sign
(a) acx2 + (ab + bc) x + b2 + (a-c)2 = 0
(b) acx2 + (ab - bc) x + b2 + (a-c)2 = 0 121) If A and B are two non-empty subsets of a
(c) acx2 + (ab - bc) x + b2 - (a-c)2 = 0 set E, then what is A (A B) equal to?
(c) acx2 + (ab + bc) x + b2 - (a-c)2=0 (a) A B
(b) A B
116) The value of x2 - 4x + 11 can never be less (c) A
than (d) B
(a) 7
(b) 8 122) Consider the following in respect of the
(c) 11 numbers √ , √ , √ :
(d) 22 1. √ is the greatest number.
2. √ is the smallest number.
117) If (x2 + )= , then what is (x3 + ) equal Which of the above statements is/are correct?
to? (a) 1 only
(a) (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b)
(d) neither 1 nor 2
(c)
(d) None of these 123) A water pipe is cut into two pieces. The
longer piece is 70% of the length of the pipe. By
118) If 3x4 - 2x3 + 3x2 - 2x + 3 a is divided by (3x how much percentage is the longer piece longer
+ 2), then the remainder is than the shorter piece?
(a) 0 (a) 140%
(b) 185/27 (b) 400%
(c) 181/25 (c) 40%
(d) 3/4 (d) None of the above
124) The sum of two positive numbers x and y is
25 times their difference. If the product of the
numbers is 84, then what is the sum of the two
numbers?
(a) 26
(b) 24
(c) 22
(d) 20

125) If n is a whole number greater than 1, then

n2 (n2 — 1) is always divisible by
(a) 12
(b) 24
(c) 48
(d) 60