Roll No.: {00000000 A Test Date: 16-02-2020 Book Code & Ona ‘ALL | MOA AAKASH | TEST SERIES # MEDICAL Entrance Exam - 2020 National Eli ity-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) OPEN MOCK TEST TEST No. 2 (XII Studying Students) INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES 4. Read each queston carefully Bofore atlompting the question p It's mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the {he lst paper contain ll pages and no page i missing. ‘appropriate cirlointe answersheet. Each correct answer caries fur marks. One mark wile deducted Mark shouldbe dark and should completely ithe cicl, {reach incorrect newer from te total 007, cough work mastrot be done on the answer sheet Before handing over the answer sheet tothe inviilator, candidate Rough workmastrot bedone ont het should check that Roll No. and Gente Code have been filed and Do not use white-fuld or any ether rubbing material on answer marked conc. sheet. Nochangein eanswer once marked i¢ alowed Immediately afer the prescribed examination time is over, the Student cannot use og tables and calculators or anyother material Trower heat borouanedtotrelreptator inthe examination hal Itis compulsory to fl Roll No. and Test Booklat Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will nt be considered. To ge quick vdeo soition ofthis Test Paper, follow the steps below 1. Scan OR Cade 2. Dent have OR rade? Download Aakash Tuo app om KESTER or ERE ond can the Code "Note: Quick video Solutions wil be avaiable rom 17th February 2020 (200 PM Onwards) | IIT-JEE| FoundationsTOPICS OF THE TEST Complete Syllabus of NEETxn MM : 720 OPEN MOCK TEST - 2 CUES Time : 3 Hrs. [PHYSICS] Choose the correct answer : 1. Who was awarded Nobel prize for the theory of the Unification of weak and electromagnetic interactions between elementary particles (1) Rutherford (2) Abdus Salam (3) Arthur Ashkin (4) Donna Strickland 2. If the equation of the stationary wave is given by following statement is correct (1) The unit of © is same as that of ~ (2) The unit of xtis same as that of & 28¢ jg same as that of 2% (3) The unit of 2x a at (4) The unit of ctis same as that of ~ 3. If two vectors Aand& are such that A-B = V31A8, then the value of [A+ l is a) aves Sap f @ [eset s2aal? (3) [A?+B?-VBABP (4) [a? +8? + BaP 4. Asstone is dropped from the 25" storey of a mult storeyed building and it reaches the ground in 5 second. Number of storeys of building, the stone will pass through, in the first second of its motion is (ys 4 @) 4 (4) 10 A particle is projected with speed u at an angle 6 with the vertical. Change in speed of the particle when it reaches the highest point of trajectory from starting point will be (1) ucose (2) usino (3) u(coso - 1) (4) u(sino- 1) A block P of mass 10 kg rests on another block Q of mass 20 kg and is tied to a wall as shown in the figure. Coefficient of fricion between P and Q is 0.3 and that between Q and ground is 0.4. Minimum value of force F required to move the block Q is (g= 10 mis’) P Q }—>F (1) 150N. (2) 120N (3) 90N (4) 180.N A particle of mass 2 kg is moving with velocity v= (2i-3]+4R) mis in ree space. Ifthe particle is acted upon by a constant force F =(2/+]-S5k)N, then find the speed of the particle 3 second after force starts acting (1) VI58 mis (2) ¥632 mis @) ‘8 mis (4) V7 mis ‘Space for Rough Work ‘Aakash Educational Services Limited - Ragd, Office: Aakash Tower, &, Pusa Road, New Dalhi1 10005 PR.011-47623456‘All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 8. Aball of mass 4 kg dropped from a height h above the horizontal rigid surface rebounds to a height of 1 after one bounce. Graph which relates h and his given in the figure. If the ball was dropped from an initial height of 162 m and allowed to undergo a number of bounces from rigid surface, then kinetic energy of the ball just after the second bounce with the surface was hi (m) 16 35 ‘fn (m) (1) 320 (2) 6404 (3) 810d (4) 12804 9. A.uniform thin stick of mass m and length /is held horizontally with its end B hinged as shown in the figure. If the stick is released, then acceleration of the centre of mass of the stick just after its release, will be uaa) (1) Zero or 3g g OF a> 10. A small solid sphere of radius R and mass m is released from the top of a fixed wedge as shown in figure. Friction is sufficient to ensure pure rolling of sphere on the wedge. The velocity of centre of sphere at the bottom of wedge will be ie h | " 12, 13, — oy (Pan (2) 2h A rocket is fired with a speed 2/GR near the surface of earth, then, its speed in the interstellar space is (2) \20R (4) Zero ‘The escape velocity of a body from the surface of a planet is ve. A particle starts from rest at a large distance from the planet, reaches the planet only under gravitational attraction, and passes through a smooth tunnel along the diameter of the planet. ‘Speed of body when it passes through the centre of the planet will be mB a+ (3) ve (4) Zero The stress developed in doubling the length of a wire of Young's modulus Y is (Assuming that wire maintains its elasticity) (1 4v 2) 3v (3) 2v 4) ¥ ‘Space for Rough Work ‘Aakash Educational Services Limited - Ragd, Office: Aakash Tower, &, Pusa Road, New Dalhi1 10005 PR.011-47623456 EaCac xn) 14. Acylindrical tank, 2min radius, rests on an elevated platform, filed completely with water as shown in the figure. A small hole is made on the side of the tank near the bottom. Speed with which the water strikes the ground is t n=t0mh y h (1) 10V2 mvs (2) 10 mis (3) 20mis (4) 20V2 mis 415. If boiling point of a liquid is at 95°F, then what would be the bolling point ofthe liquid on celsius scale? (1) 35°C (2) 65°C (3) 207°C (4) 95°C 16. A refigerator with coefficient of performance + releases 300 J of heat to a hot reservoir. The work done on the working substance is, (1) 2255 (2) 400 J (3) 2505 (4) 1754 17. Anideal gas, whose molar specific heat at constant, volume is 3R, is suddenly expanded so that its volume becomes 8 times of its initial volume. If initial pressure of the gas was P, then its final pressure becomes P OZ (2) 4P P Oa (4) 16P 18. In figure given bolow section AB shows a polytropic process for an ideal gas. The work done by the gas in the process AB will be 19, 20, All India Aakash ) 16P fn Phe B ve, 14 18 a) FP 2) TPM (3) BPAY, (4) Insufficient data A block of mass m compresses a spring, (block is not connected to spring) having spring constant k, through a distance 5 as shown inthe gure, I the system is released from rest in given position then the time period of motion of the block is (collision of block with wall is elastic and surface is smooth). Borigis [ wall (3) 4x, a) 2 2 (4) (a oft AA tuning fork ‘A’ having frequency 158 Hz produces 4 beats per second with another tuning fork ‘B' of unknown frequency. If the prongs of fork B are slightly fled and sounded with fork ‘A’ then 5 beats per second are produced. Frequency of fork B before fling may be (1) 159 Hz (3) 161 Hz (2) 162 Hz (4) 165 Hz ‘Space for Rough Work ‘Rakash Educational Services Limited - Regd, Office : Aakash Tower, &, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47628456 EaUE Esa 21. I both source and listener approach each other with a speed equal to half of the speed of sound in air, then percentage change in the frequency of sound as observed by the listener will be (1) 100% (2) 200% 8) 50% (4) 300% 22. Four charges are placed at the circumference of a dial clock as shown in the figure. Resultant electric field at the centre is in the direction of hour hand of the clock, when the time is +9 -4 +9 —7 (1) 1:30 (2) 7:30 (3) 4:30 (4) 10:30 23. A shot electric dipole is situated at the orgin of coordinate axes with its axis along acs. and equator along y-axis, itis found that the magnitude of electric eld intensity and electric potential due to the dipole are equal at a point P, which lies in first quadrant which is V7 m away ftom agin. Postion vector of the point P wrt ofigin wil be Ee ex 24, In the given circuit, if potential of point A is 20 V, then the potential of point B will be 2uF 2uF es I IT t 20 a) Bv @ Sv @ 2v @ ev 25. In the circuit given below the potential difference between the points Q and P (Va -Vp)is: 49 40 Fi AWW 4Q) g40 40 40 P R Ate 1 20Vv 20, a) Sy oF 20. a) By as 40 3) Vv a> ‘Space for Rough Work ‘Aakash Educational Services Limited - Ragd, Office: Aakash Tower, &, Pusa Road, New Dalhi1 10005 PR.011-47623456 EaCac xn) 26. In the given circuit, current in the wire connected between the points P and Q is 2X mA. The value of Xis 1k2 pp 2k Ar ms NW 2k tk +] | 32V (1) Zero 22 3) 8 (4) 4 27. Two identical current loops are placed with their planes mutually perpendicular as shown in the figure. The ratio of net magnetic field at point P due to both loops to that of due to either one of the loops will be (yet (2) 1:2 (3) v2 (a) 1:2 28. A current carrying wire is bent in the form of a parabola, as shown in the figure, whose equation is given by x2 + y = 25, where x and y are in metre. The wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field B=5(-K)T. Magnetic force acting on the wire will be All India Aakash y (1) (100])N (3) (-100])N (4) (2007) 29. Magnetic field in a cylindrical region of radius R=255.om, as shown in the figure, varies according to the equation B=(2f? —41? =6)T. The value of force acting on an electron placed at point P at time t=2swill be (2) (-200))N (1) 8x107"'N (2) 16x107"'N (3) 16x10 N (4) 8x10 N 30. A periodic voltage V varies with time fas shown in the figure. Tis the time period. The RMS value of the voltage (from f= 0 to f= 7) will be Vv Ts 7 4 Ms Yo (1) 2 (2) a @) Yo (4) VV ‘Space for Rough Work ‘Rakash Educational Services Limited - Regd, Office : Aakash Tower, &, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47628456 EaUE Esa 31. Initially key was connected to point (1) til the capacitor got fully charged in the circuit shown below. After a long time, key is shifted to point (2) at £=0, then the time f, when the energy stored in both inductor and capacitor is equal, will be Qt) Key L c ME 3 @ sie (4) Allof the above 2 32. The electric field strength in an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is 3x1 ~The magnitude of an a magnetic field strength will be (1) 600 nT. (2) 100 ut (3) 3.33x10° T (4) 100 mT 33. An astronomical telescope of nine fold angular magnification in normal vision has a length of 40 cm. The focal length of the objective Is (1) 40 om (2) 4em (3) 246m (4) 36 em 34. Which of the following is not due to the total internal reflection? (1) Optical fibre communication (2) Looming in cold countries (3) Difference between apparent and real depth of ‘a swimming poo! (4) Mirage in hot summer days Ee ex 35. The x ~ y plane separates two media A and B of refractive indices j,=1.5 and, =2 respectively. Aray of light travels from A to B. If angle of incidence is 60", then the angle of refraction is fay) (1) sin (2) 30° ’ w an(28) (@) sin“| 5 T 36. On introducing a thin fim in the path of one of the two interfering beams in YDSE, the central fringe shifts by one fringe width. If refractive index of tho material of film is 1.5, then thickness of the fim is (wavelength of light used in YDSE is 2) (1) a 2) 3 (3) 2 x 37, When light of wavelength 2 is incident on a metal surface, stopping potential is found to be x. When light of wavelength mis incident on the same metal x surface. Stopping potential is found to be —~. Png ma Threshold wavelength of the metal is (1) na (2) m @* ws 38. A proton and an a-partcle are accelerated through same potential difference. The ratio of their de-Broglie wavelengths 2,,:2, is (4st (2) 1:2v2 (3) 4:4 (ast 39. The ionization energy of Li** is equal to (Symbols have their usual meaning) (1) 8heR (2) 12heR (3) 9hcR (4) oR ‘Space for Rough Work ‘Aakash Educational Services Limited - Ragd, Office: Aakash Tower, &, Pusa Road, New Dalhi1 10005 PR.011-47623456Gere) 40. The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from n= nto n = Mm state. The time period of the electron in state: is eight times that in state nz. The possible values of n: and na are (1) m= 8,1 2) m=4n 3) m=4,n (4) m=2,m=4 41. A radioactive samplo at any instant has its disintegration rate 5000 disintegrations per minute. ‘After 5 minutes the rate becomes 1250 disintegrations per minutes. Decay constant of the radioactive sample (per minute) will be (1) 06109, 2 2) 0.4109, 2 (3) 0.4109, 4 (4) Both (2) and (3) 42. The mean life of a radioactive substance are 1620 yoars and 405 years for o-emission and B-emission respectively. If sample is decaying by both c-emission and f-emission simultaneously then the time during which three fourth of a sample will decay, will be (1) 1142 years (2) 2025 years (3) 4050 years (4) 449 years [CHEM 46. The energy of electron in third Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is 145.7 kJ mot. The energy of electron in second Bohr orbit of H — atom will be (1) ~ 32.83 kJ mot (2) ~ 327.8 kJ mot (3) - 818.2 ki mor (4) — 841 kJ mor" Dons or 120 ‘Aakash Test 43. The V-I characteristics of photodiode given below shows that for a given reverse voltage, reverse ‘current changes with change in level of illumination. It h, b, band kare the different intensity of incident radiations, then choose the correct option (1) h> b> b> Q) h y a =) () + yz 2) &=y)z @) Ry+z 4) yz 45. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, input impedance of 200 © and an output impedance of 400.2, Power gain of the amplifier will be (1) 50 (2) 25 (3) 125 (4) 1250 ISTRY] 47. Carbon dioxide gas does not follow Charles Law, Boyle's Law and Gay Lussac’s Law at 200 atm pressure and 0°C because (1) Itis a linear molecule (2) There is attraction among its molecules (3) Its molar heat capacity is very high (4) Itis non-polar molecules ‘Space for Rough Work ‘Rakash Educational Services Limited - Regd, Office : Aakash Tower, &, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47628456 EaUE 48, 49, 50. 51 52. 53, Esa ‘An aqueous solution of weak acid HX with 0.005 M concentration shows a pH of 5, The ionization constant of HX is (1) 1108 (2) 2x10" (3) 2% 109 (4) 5x10? Consider the following representations cH, cH, H——oH HO—}—H H—1—oH HO——c.H, CH, H These are (1) Identical (2) Enantiomers (3) Conformational isomers (4) Diastereomers In the presence of a catalyst, the rate of reaction increases by a factor of e° at 27°C. This implies lowering of activation energy by (R= 2.cal mol“'K") (1) 2keal (2) 28 kcal (3) 14 keal (4) 7 kcal A.0.0010 molal aqueous solution of a coordination compound ‘'Y' freezes at - 0.00372"C. Number of mole(s) of ions produced by 2 moles of Y on being dissolved in water will be (Ki (water) = 1.86 Kim and assume 100% dissociation of the compound) at (2) 2 8) 3 (4) 4 Which of the following pairs of metals is not purified by zone refining? (1) Gallium, Boron (2) Germanium, indium (3) Indium, Nickel (4) Gallium, Silicon How many of the following species show(s) colour due to d-d transition? a. TiOe b. CuCl c.Ni(OMG)e 4. Zns 56. 56. 57. 58. Ee (1) Zero (2) One (3) Two (4) Three ‘At 298 K, a certain buffer solution contains equal concentrations of HY and Y- pH of the buffer solution is (Given that hydrolysis constant of Yris 10) (1) 431 5 (3) 82 (4) 9 Isopropylbenzene hae, 2 yay (Aromat compouna) Agives a positive (1) Tollen’s test (2) Fehling’s test (3) Lucas test (4) lodoform test What will be the standard heat of combustion of ethane, ifthe standard heat of combustion of carbon is -a’ kJ mol", standard heat of formation of water is -b’ kJ mol" and standard heat of formation of ethane is “ Cu, E°=0.52V (ii) Cut + 20° > Cu, B= 0.34V Standard reduction potential, E° for the reaction, Cue +e» Cur will be (1) 0.16V (2) 0.30 (3) 0.18V (4) 0. 86 60. Which one is the least reactive towards electrophilic substitution? cH, cH, oO on “) 2 ‘CH; CH, oO, “CL 'NHCOCH, ‘OH 61. Which of the following is not an electron deficient molecule? (1) BFs (2) Sitte (3) BHs (4) AlCls 62. If the minimum emf required to carry out following reaction to produce a metal oxide, MzOs 4 2, GM +0, > 2M,05, M:metal is 2V, AG of this reaction is (F : Faraday) (1) -4F (2) - 6F (3) -8F (4) — 16F 63. Which of the following complexes shows: diamagnetic behaviour? (aly : alycinate, ox : oxalate) (1) [Cor (2) [Valy),(OH),]" (3) [Fer [ (4) (TiNHS)) All India Aakash Es 120 64, Which of the following show(s) the phenomenon of mutarotation? (1) (+) maltose (2) (#) lactose (3) (+) glucose (4) Allof these 65. Among the following which is most basic? (1) prnitroanitine (2) Diphenylamine (3) Benzylamine (4) o,p-dinitroanitine 66. A solution containing 2 9 per 100 mL. of urea (molecular mass = 60 g mol") is isotonic with a 5% (wiv) solution of a non-volatile solute, The molecular mass of this non-volatile solute is (1) 175. mor (2) 200 g mor (3) 350 g mot" (4) 180g mol 67. When hydrogen bromide reacts with 3-methyibut-t-ene, it predominantly gives (1) 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane (2) 2-Bromo-3-methylbutane (3) 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane (4) Bromopentane 68. Which ofthe following has the lowest melting point? (1) Lich (2) Naci (3) Kel (4) RoC! 69. Which of the following sulphide ores is concentrated by leaching? (1) Galena (2) Chalcopyrites (3) Sphalerite (4) Argentite 70. Consider following reaction ° rm i Y [> cH,-C-Nu The rate constant, (k) is highest when Y is (1) -NHe (2) -OcOCHs (3) -cl (4) -OCHs ‘Space for Rough Work ‘Rakash Educational Services Limited - Regd, Office : Aakash Tower, &, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47628456 EaUE Esa 71. Tetracycline is alan (1) Antiseptic (2) Tranquilizer (3) Antifertlity drug (4) Antibiotic 72. Match the following Column4 Column-tt a. [Cr(NHs)sCi]Br (i) Coordination isomerism b. [PICl(NHs)a} (ii) lonisation isomerism [Cofen)s][Cr(ox)s] i) Optical isomerism [Co(Cz0«)3}>- {iv) Geometrical isomerism a bed om @ a (2) (i) (wv) Gi) 3) dv) Gi) ii) ow wo w 73. The reaction of propanoic acid with Brared P followed by hydrolysis yields a monobromo product. ‘Such reaction is called (1) Cannizaro’s reaction (2) Aldol condensation (3) Hell-Vothard-Zelinsky reaction (4) Sandmeyer's reaction 74. One of the consequences of the Lanthanoid contraction is that (1) Nb and Ta have about the same radius (2) Zrand Zn have about the same radius (3) Zrand Nb have same oxidation state (4) Hf and Hg have about the same radius 75. Which of the following is an incorrect match of element in an organic compound with respective estimation method? 76. 77. 78, 79, acer Column | Column it (1) Nitrogen Duma's method (2) Carbon Liebig method (3) Halogen Carius method (4) Bromine Kjoldahl's method Which of the folowing is a redox reaction? (1) SO2+H2O + H2SOs (2) 4HNOs + PsOt-> 4HPOS + 2NZ0s (3) 4KI + 2CuSOs > 2K2S04 + Curl + le (4) CuSOs + ANHs > [Cu(NHs)]S0x Which of the folowing statements is incorrect? (1) The thermal stability of group-16 hydrides decreases from H:0 to HaPo (2) Se:Ck, a dimeric halide, disproportionation (8) Nitric oxide is a neutral oxide undergoes Slont larical (4) 30, 205, AH*(298K) <0 Identify the correct order of ionic radii of the following (1) Mg? (2) Mg* <0? Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing bond order? (1) 0; HCI> HBr > HI (2) HF > HBr> HCI> HI (3) HI> HBr> HCI> HF (4) HI> HE > HBr > HCI 83. Inthe following reaction, redhotFette 5B, the product B is H.C 0® aw pen @ (Oyo, w cH, 84. Which of the following statements about water is correct? (1) Water acts as a base towards acids weaker than it (2) In the reaction of fluorine with water, water acts ‘as an oxidising agent and fluorine acts as a reducing agent (3) Water hydrolyses P1O%9 to form HsPO2 (4) Water hydrolyses CaC2 to liberate acetylene Propyne 86, 86, 87, 88, 89, 20, Which of the following is a component of photochemical smog? (1) S02 (2) O (3) CFCh (4) Co» Which of the following elements is used as semiconductor? 1) si (2) Po (3) Fe (4) Br In the reaction, OH ONa 60, har? Salicylic aci, é=6 The electrophile involved is (1) NaOH (2) Coy (3) COs (4) co Which one of the following forms micelles in aqueous solution above critical micelle concentration? (1) Sodium chloride (2) Fructose (3) Sucrose (4) Cotyitrimethy! bromide Cheilosis is caused by the deficiency of (1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin C (3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin Be Which of the following molecules represents the carbon of hybridisation of sp’, sp, sp’, sp? respectively from left to right? (1) HC=C-C=CH (2) CHs- CH= CH-CHs (8) CHs—CHe - CH - CHs (4) He = C= CH-CHs ‘Space for Rough Work ‘Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005 Ph.011-47629456‘All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 a1 92. 93, 94, 965, 96. [BIOLOGY] Both mitochondria and chloroplast (1) Have two membranes in which inner membrane forms cristae (2) Contain 80S ribosomes (3) Are semi-autonomous organelles (4) Take part in photophosphorylation Select the incorrect match. (1) Contriole Helps in cell division in higher plants (2) Nucleolus Not bounded by any membrane (8) Chromatophores : Take part in photosynthesis (4) Protoplast |s a cell without cell wall Oxidation of fats and synthesis of lipids respectively takes place in (1) Mitochondria and rough ER (2) Rough ER and smooth ER (3) Mitochondria and smooth ER (4) Peroxisome and mitochondria A diploid plant cell, which is undergoing meiosis has 24 chromosomes. What will be the number of bivalents in zygotene stage? (1) 24 (2) 6 @) 2 (4) 48 “Meiosis Il difers from mitosis. Above statement holds true because (1) In meiosis I there is separation of chromatids (2) Meiosis Il ean occur in diploid somatic cells (3) There is no DNA replication just before meiosis Il (4) The daughter cells formed after meiosis |! are genetically similar to each other as well as to the parent cell Reproduction is not seen in non-iving objects. Stil it is not a defining feature of all living organisms because (1) Some organisms reproduce asexually only (2) Some organisms do not reproduce at all (3) Those organisms which are infertile, also do not show all other characteristics of living beings (4) Reproduction is synonymous with growth in multicellular organisms 97. Choose the incorrect cyanobacteria (1) They are gram negative prokaryotes (2) They have chlorophyll ‘a’ similar to green plants (3) The can fix atmospheric nitrogen but not the atmospheric CO, (4) They are mainly fresh water forms 98. Photosynthesis in purple sulphur bacteria does not require (1) Reducing power (2) Solar energy (3) Atmospheric CO, (4) H,0 as source of electron 99. Read the following statements and select the correct option. Statement-A : Members of basidiomycetes do not reproduce sexually Statement-B : Members of basidiomycetes do not have sex organs. (1) Ais true but Bis false (2) Bis true but Ais false (3) Both A and B are true (4) Both A and B are false 100. Agents consisted of abnormally folded proteins and discovered by Alper et. al. (1) Contain RNA as genetic material (2) Cause scrapie disease in sheep (3) Do not cause any infection (4) Are called viroids statement about ‘Space for Rough Work ‘Aakash Educational Services Limited - Ragd, Office: Aakash Tower, &, Pusa Road, New Dalhi1 10005 PR.011-47623456Gere) 101. In given plants the primary tap root is modified to store food, except (1) Radish (2) Best (3) Sweet potato (4) Carrot 102. Tendrils of pea differ from cucumber as the former (1) Are sensitive structures (2) Are modified leaves (3) Coil around the nearby support (4) Help the plant in climbing 103. Choose the Incorrect difference between dicot root and dicot stem Dicot Roots Dicot Stems (1) | Vascular bundles are radial Vascular bundles are conjoint (2) | Vascular cambium is primary in origin Vascular cambium is completely secondary in origin Endodermal cells may store starch grains (3) | Endodermal cells have casparian strips (4) | Pith is small and inconspicuous Pith is made up of parenchymatous cells 104. Flaccidity of bulliform cells (1) Make the stomata close (2) Make the grass leaves curl inwards during drought (3) Maximise the water loss (4) Shrink the sub-stomatal cavity 4105. Which one is wrongly matched? (1) Winged pollen grains Pinus (2) Monoecious plant Pinus (3) Salvinia Heterosporous (4) Unifiagellated gametes : Polysiphonia or ‘Aakash Test 106, Select the incorrect statement (1) Endosperm of gymnosperms is haploid (2) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees (3) Gymnosperms are seeded archegoniates (4) Fucus being algae shows haplontic life cycle 107. Choose the correct option for the given two plant cells (1) Cell B has maximum water potential (2) Movement of water will take place from cell AtoB (3) Osmotic potential of cell A will be positive (4) Cell A must have more solutes than cell B 108. Whats true about girdiing experiment conducted by Malpighi? (1) This experiment proves that translocation of food by phloem is multidirectional (2) It shows that in xylem, movement of H,0 is unidirectional (3) Initially the upward movement of water was not affected (4) Ina girdled plant, the shoot dies first 109. Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria which (1) Perform oxygenic photosynthesis (2) Can reduce soil nitrates to gaseous nitrogen (3) Are called purple sulphur bacteria (4) Obtain nourishment from organic remains 110. Which of the following elements is involved in functioning of cell membrane and pollen germination? (1) Copper (3) Boron (2) Molybdenum (4) Zine ‘Space for Rough Work ‘Rakash Educational Services Limited - Regd, Office : Aakash Tower, &, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47628456‘All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 111. The primary CO, acceptor in a C, plant is ‘A. Found in bundle sheath cells B. A three carbon molecule C. Present in mesophyll cells. D. Afive carbon molecule (1) AandB (2) Band (3) Cand D (4) Aand Plants showing Kranz anatomy do not (1) Tolerate higher temperatures (2) Show response to high light intensity (3) Show photorespiration (4) Show greater productivity than C, plants The difference between number of ATP required to form a molecule of hexose sugar in a C, and Cy plants is (1) 18 (2) 12 (3) 30 (4) 2 State true (T) or false (F) for the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement-A : Glycolysis operates as long as itis supplied with NAD* that can pick up hydrogen atoms. Statement-B : Alcoholic fermentation results in the release of CO, while lactic acid fermentation does 112 113. 114. not A 8 at T QT F @) F T @)F F 116. Living organisms retain the enzymatic machinery to parlaly oxidise glucose to pyruvic acid. This statement is applicable to (1) Aerobic eukaryotes only (2) Anaerobic prokaryotes only (3) Only some organisms, respiring anaerobically (4) All organisms either respiting aerobically or anaerobically 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121 ‘Open Mock Test-2 (Code-A) ‘A phytohormone which does not allow nearby lateral or axillary buds to grow (1) Stimulates shoot formation on stem cuttings (2) Was first isolated from fungus Gibberella fujikuroi (3) Also inhibits abscission of young leaves (4) Is the only gaseous hormone During seed germination of which plant the hypocotyl grows first? (1) Maize (2) Mango (3) Gram (4) Onion Abscisic acid is also known as stress hormone because (1) It closes the stomata present on stem (2) Ils synthesis is stimulated by adverse environmental conditions (3) It promotes loss of water through leaves and increases water stress (4) Itinhibits dormancy of seeds Pollen grains are the carrier of male gametes for a. All vascular embryophytes b. Non-archegoniate spermatophytes ©. Archegoniate spermatophytes d. Alltracheophytes (1) aandb (2) bande (3) Only ¢ (4) Only d Select the incorrect match (1) Coconut Monoecious (2) Date palm Dioecious (3) China rose Unisexual flowers (4) Pea Bisexual flowers Select the incorrect statement about nucellus (1) Forms the body of the ovule (2) Parenchymatous tissue (3) Is persistent in beet seeds (4) Can directly form the zygotic embryo in Citrus fruits ‘Space for Rough Work ‘Aakash Educational Services Limited - Ragd, Office: Aakash Tower, &, Pusa Road, New Dalhi1 10005 PR.011-47623456Gere) 122. Which of the following is not directly involved in double fertiisation? (1) Egg cell (2) Male gametes (8) Secondry nucteus (4) Helper call 123. In an area, few plants of cucurbits were observed’ ‘They surely cannot show (1) Geitonogamy (2) Autogamy (3) Xenogamy (4) Both autogamy as well as xenogamy 124. Choose the incorrect statement. (1) Pollen grains of cereals maintain viability for 30 minutes (2) Haploid plant body can also form the gametes (3) Feathery stigma and versatile anthers are characteristic of wind pollinated flowers (4) Emasculation prevents self pollination in male (R) ‘Ov 0 (Q) (P) (1) This shows autosomal dominant disorder (2) The genotype of II (Q) is X°x (3) The IR) female is homozygous for the disorder (4) The genotype of IP) is XX All India Aakash Es 126, Select the incorrect match. (1) Bird Heterogametic females (2) Sickle cell: Point mutation anaemia (3) Incomplete: Phenotypic and genotypic dominance ratios are different (4) Parents with : Cannot have progeny of ‘0 blood group blood group AB and O 127. &-methyl uracil (1) Is present in mRNA (2) Is present in genetic material of E. col (3) Isa purine base (4) Isa 9-membered double ring structure 128. During replication, a short primer strand is required. This primer strand (1) Is synthesized by DNA polymerase (2) 1s required for lagging strand only (3) Is RNA strand (4) Remains as a part of DNA and not removed from it 129. Vitamin A enriched crop developed by IARI, is (1) Bathua (2) Spinach (3) Tomato (4) Mustard 130. Select the incorrect statement. (1) Indirectly BOD is a measure of the organic ‘matter present in the water (2) Methanogens are commonly found in anaerobic sludge during sewage treatment (3) Biofertiisers are organic compounds that enrich the nutrient quality of soil (4) BGA reduce alkalinity of soll ‘Space for Rough Work ‘Rakash Educational Services Limited - Regd, Office : Aakash Tower, &, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47628456131. Select the incorrect match wart. population interaction Spocios A Spo (1) Cattle egrets Cattles (2) Sparrow Seeds (3) Peniciliium secreting Bacteria Penicillin (4) Cuscuta Hedge plant (+, -) 182. Given below is the pyramid of biomass, What should be the correct option for it Dry weight (kg/m*) Top 15 sc 11 Po| 37. PP 809 (1) Level PP is phytoplanktons in sea and whale on top level TC. (2) Level PCis insects and level SC is parasites on them (3) Level PP is grasses in grassland ecosystem (4) Level PC is zooplanktons in aquatic ecosystem In which of the following both pairs have correct combination? 133. (1) tn-situ conservation Ex-situ conservation Zoological parks : Home gardens (2) Alien species invasion Ecosystem services (3) Sixth mass extinction Habitat loss and fragmentation (4) The worid summit ‘The Earth summit Nile perch + Pollination Purely non anthropogenic Most important cause of plant and animais extinction Held in Rio de Janeiro 5 Held in South Arica ‘The gases which are mainly responsible for green house effect are (1) CO, and CH, (3) 0, and CO, 134. (2) Ny and SO, (4) 0, and SO, 136. 136. 137. 138. 139. ‘The UN conference of parties on climate change (COP 24) in the year 2018 was held at (1) Bonn, Germany (2) Lima, Peru (3) Katowice, Poland (4) Doha, Qatar ‘An animal with a poison sting, aquatic life-style, two-chambered heart and exhibiting poikilothermy, is (1) Scotiodon (2) Hippocampus (3) Trygon (4) Torpedo Selective estrogen receptor modulator which doos not primarily affect ovulation but inhibits. implantation s (1) Gossypol (2) Centchroman @) Maled (4) tNe-20 Small masses of fymphatic tissue occurring as aggregates in he small intestine along the leur are (1) Spleen (2) Peyer's patches (@) Tonsis (4) Lymph nodes Evolution of diferent species stating from a point and spreading to other geographical areas. as shown by the animals in the following diagram is called Tosnanan wai sud, Th: okder 9 Tiger cat 4 Eo Marsupial PL A re Ee marsupial Wombat (1) Adaptive convergence (2) Convergent evolution (8) Adaptive radiation (4) Analogy Kangaroo ‘Space for Rough Work ‘Aakash Educational Services Limited - Ragd, Office: Aakash Tower, &, Pusa Road, New Dalhi1 10005 PR.011-47623456Gere) 140. Saliva in the mouth and tears in the eyes belong to which barrier under innate immunity? (1) Physical barriers (2) Cytokine barriers (3) Cellular barriers (4) Physiological barriers 141. Wester blot, also known as protein immunoblot, is a confirmatory test carried out for the detection of (1) HIV (2) Typhoid (3) Malaria (4) Diabetes melitus 142. An essential sulfur containing amino acid that does not form disulphide bonds is (1) Methionine (2) Cysteine (3) Glutamic acid (4) Serine 143. Gel electrophoresis apparatus using agarose as a sieving medium is used for (1) Isolation of DNA molecules according to charge only (2) Cutting of DNA into fragments and ligating them (3) Separation of DNA fragments primarily according to size (4) Construction of recombinant DNA using PCR 144. Match the following w.r.t. STI and causative agent stl Causative Agent a. Gonorthoea (Human papilloma virus b. Syphilis: (ii) Neisseria gonorrheae ©. Genital warts (ii) Human Immunodeficiency virus 4. AIDS. (iv) Treponema pallidum Choose the correct option (1) ati), BG, et), div) (2) ati, Bt), of, iv) (8) afi, BG), fi) di) (4) ai, b¢i, efi), Ai) 145. A. bacterial infection which prevents. relaxation between successive stimuli resulting in sustained muscle contraction is known as (1) Tonus (2) Twiteh (3) Tetany (4) Tetanus All India Aakash Es 120 146. Identify the structure marked as ‘X’ in the given diagram Ux (1) Hepato-pancreatic duct (2) Pancreatic duct, (3) Common bile duct (4) Common hepatic duct 4147. Choose the odd one w.rt. enzymes present in succus entericus. (1) Lipase (2) Maltase (3) Nucleases (4) Nucleosidase 148. Shahtoosh : Tibetan antelope Complete the analogy (1) Chiru (2) Kashmiri goat (3) Kashmiri deer (4) Rabbit 149. Read the following statements and choose the correct option Statement-A : Benzodiazepines such as diazepam and valium are used for the treatment of depression or anxiety related insomnia. Statement-B : They are depressants which can act as sedatives producing a feeling of calmness and drowsiness (1) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect (2) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct (3) Both statements are correct (4) Both statements are incorrect, Pashmina ‘Space for Rough Work ‘Rakash Educational Services Limited - Regd, Office : Aakash Tower, &, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47628456‘All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 160. In an experimental lab rat, repeated transmission of nerve impulses through a synapse producing muscle twitches needs to be studied. The best way to delay synaptic fatigue in this animal is by (1) Administering repeated doses of adrenaline and noradrenaline (2) Gradually increasing the strength of stimuli (3) Administering _anti-acetyicholinesterase medication (4) Maintaining the continuous stimuli ata sustained sub threshold value 161. Collapse of valves into atria during strong ventricular contractions is prevented by thread like tendons called (1) Cardiac ligaments (2) Papillary muscles (3) Chordae tendineae (4) Columnae camae 162. In a genetic disease called ectodermal dysplasia two or more structures originating from ectoderm are affected. Which of the following structures is least likely to be affected by this disease? (1) Hair and nails, (2) Sweat glands (3) Heart (4) Teeth 163. The glenoid cavity articulates (1) Clavicle with sternum (2) Scapula with clavicie (3) Clavicle with acromion process (4) Humerus with scapula 154. Tight, adhering and gap junctions are all found in (1) Neural tissue (2) Muscular tissue (3) Connective tissue (4) Epithelial tissue 155. The excretory nitrogenous waste of cockroach discharged into the haemolymph is mainly in the form of crystals of (1) Calcium carbonate (2) Potassium urate (3) Ammonia (4) Urea ‘Open Mock Test-2 (Code-A) 156. A non-reducing carbohydrate present in the white crystallised granules we put in tea and coffee is (1) Lactose (2) Fructose (3) Sucrose (4) Maltose 157. All the hydrogen and disulfide bonds of a complex protein molecule are broken. The structural level of the protein molecule which remains intact is (1) Tertiary structure (2) Primary structure (3) Quaternary structure (4) Secondary structure 158. An organic, non-protein substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its catalytic activity is (1) Holoenzyme (2) Apoenzyme (3) Coenzyme (4) Isoenzyme 159. Hormone which stimulates the release of bicarbonates in pancreatic juice is _A_ while _B__ stimulates secretion of digestive enzymes in pancreatic juice, Choose the option which fils the blanks correctly. A B (1) Secretin Gastrin (2) Gastrin Insulin (3) Secretin Cholecystokinin (4) Insulin eck 160. The part of the human brain called emotional brain which also controls behaviors essential to life like sexual behaviour, motivation, expression of emotional reactions, learning and memory is, (1) Corpus callosum (2) Limbic system (8) Cerebellum (4) Medulla oblongata 161. Choose the incorrect match (1) Jersey - Cattle (2) Leghom — = Chicken (3) Apis indica — Indian bee (4) Hisa — Fresh water fish ‘Space for Rough Work ‘Aakash Educational Services Limited - Ragd, Office: Aakash Tower, &, Pusa Road, New Dalhi1 10005 PR.011-47623456Gere) 162. The vasa efferentia of a 32 year old man's reproductive tract gets blocked. The sperms will not be transported from (1) Seminiferous tubules to rete testis (2) Rete testis to epididymis: (3) Tubul rect to rete testis (4) Seminiferous tubules into thei lumen 163. The tough and resilient integumentary covering of chitin or the exoskeleton of arthropods is formed by the polymerisation of (1) Amino acids (2) Phospholipids (3) D-glucosamine (4) N-acetyl glucosamine 164. Animals which have bilateral symmetry in larval stage but exhibit radial pentamerous symmetry in adult stage are (1) Molluscs (2) Pisces (3) Echinoderms (4) Tunicates 165. Bone of the human body which does not articulate or attach with any other bone is (1) Sternum (2) Carpals (3) Sacrum, (4) Hyoid 166. A virus which is usually not transferred through the semen of an infected male and requires an intermediate host is (1) Hepatitis B virus (2) HIV (3) Ebola virus (4) Chikungunya virus, 4167. Linking a gene of interest from an organism with the plasmid vector became possible with (1) Exonucleases (2) DNA ligases (3) Endonuclease (4) DNA polymerase 168. A genetically modified brinjal in India was developed with an insert of cryiAb gene. This was done to develop resistance to (1) Low mineral content of soil (2) Drought and disease (3) Insects (4) Softening of fruit or ‘Aakash Test Dons 120 169. The Achilles tendon which is a tough fibre connecting calf muscle to heel bone is an example of (1) Dense regular connective tissue (2) Dense irregular connective tissue (3) Loose connective tissue (4) Specialized connective tissue 170. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is which shows close structural similarity to the Substrate succinate and competes for the binding site of enzyme. Choose an option which fills the blank correctly. (1) Palmitic acid (2) Malonate (3) PABA (4) o-ketoglutarate 171. The secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked with an overdose of a medication called Pantoprazole which is a proton-pump inhibitor. The most likely result of this is (1) Enterokinase will not be released from duodenal mucosa (2) Gastric juice formation is blocked (3) Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen (4) Pepsinogen conversion to pepsin is hampered 172. If CO, concentration in blood decreases when a patient starts hyperventilating, the outcome will result in (1) Enhanced metabolism (2) High O2 release in tissues (3) Fainting due to low Oe release in tissues. (4) Lowered breathing rate due to increased temperature 173. G-6PD deficiency is a genetic disorder associated with breakdown of when body is exposed to certain stressors. Choose an option that fils the blank correctly, (1) WBCs: (3) Platelets (2) RBCs (4) Megakaryocytes ‘Space for Rough Work ‘Rakash Educational Services Limited - Regd, Office : Aakash Tower, &, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47628456DUE Se 174, Choose the Incorrect statement. (1) Smallest DNA molecules move the fastest in gel electrophoresis, (2) Bam HI occupies a restriction site in ampicillin resistance gene of pBR322 (3) A piece of DNA may be introduced in a host bacterium through transformation (4) ‘top’ codes for proteins involved in replication of plasmid 178. Choose the correct match (1) Myosin, Actin, Muscle proteins Rhodopsin (2) tleum, Ischium, — Innominate bone of Pubis pelvic girdle (3) Cytosine, Uracil, — Pyrimidines Thymine (4) Malleus, Incus, - Ear ossicles Cochlea 176. Compound tubular submucosal glands called Brunner’s glands are present in (1) Liver (2) Duodenum (3) Oesophagus (4) Stomach n Mock (Code-A) 177. All of the following are hormones produced by women only during pregnancy except (1) Oxytocin (2) hee (3) HPL, (4) Relaxin 178. The screening of semen stains in a forensic test for rape is done by detecting the presence of fructose which is mainly released from (1) Bulbourethral gland (2) Seminal vesicles (3) Cowper's gland (4) Bartholin’s gland 179. An embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilization for a test tube baby programme is transferred into (1) Uterus (2) Fallopian tube (3) Fimbriae (4) Cervix 180. The surgical removal of uterus in a post- menopausal 65 year old female was done, This procedure is termed as (1) Oophorectomy (3) Hysterectomy (2) Tubectomy (4) Vasectomy ‘Space for Rough Work ‘akash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi 110005 Ph.O11-47623456Coase All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2020 (Cod mn) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 OPEN MOCK TEST - 2 (Code-A) Test Date : 16/02/2020 ANSWERS 1 37. (1) 73. (3) 409. (2) 145. (4) 2 (3) 38. (2) 74. (1) 110. (3) 148. (1) 3 (4) 39. (3) 75. (4) 111.2) 147.(3) 4 2) 40. (3) 76. (3) 112. (3) 148. (2) 5 (4) 41. 2) 7. (a) 113. (2) 149. (3) 6 (1) 42. (4) 78. (2) 114. (1) 150. (3) 7 3) 43. (2) 79. (2) 115. (4) 181. (3) a 4) 44. (4) 80. (1) 116. (3) 182. (3) a (3) 45. (4) at. (3) 117. (4) 183, (4) 10. (1) 48. (2) 82, (1) 118. (2) 154. (4) 11. 2) 47. (2) 83. (2) 119. (2) 185. (2) 12. (1) 48. (2) 84, (4) 120. (3) 156. (3) 13. (4) 49. (4) 85. (2) 124. (4) 187. (2) 14. (3) 50. (1) 86. (1) 122. (4) 158. (3) 15. (1) Bt. (4) 87. (3) 123. (2) 159. (3) 16. (1) 52. (3) 88. (4) 124. (4) 160. (2) 17. (3) 53. (2) 89. (4) 4125. (2) 161. (4) 18. (1) 54. (2) 90. (4) 128. (3) 162. (2) 19. (4) 55. (4) a1. 3) 127. (2) 163. (4) 20. (2) 56. (3) 92. (1) 128. (3) 164. (3) at. (2) 57. (2) 93. (3) 429. (2) 165. (4) 22. (2) 58. (3) 94. (3) 130. (3) 168. (4) 23. (3) 59. (1) 95. (3) 131. (3) 4167. (2) 24. (4) 60. (1) 96. (2) 132. (3) 168. (3) 25. (1) 61. (2) 97. (3) 193, (2) 169. (1) 28. (4) 62. (3) 98. (4) 134. (1) 170. (2) 27. (3) 63. (2) 99. (2) 195. (3) 471. (4) 28. (4) 64. (4) 100. (2) 136. (3) 172. (3) 29. (1) 65. (3) 4101. (3) 197. (2) 173. (2) 30. (3) 66. (4) 4102. (2) 198, (2) 174, (2) 31. (1) 67. (1) 4103. (2) 139. (3) 175. (3) 32. (2) 68. (1) 104. (2), 140. (4) 176. (2) 33. (4) 69. (4) 4105. (4) 441. (1) 477.(1) 34. (3) 70. (3) 4108. (4) 142. (1) 178. (2) 35. (1) m1. (4) 107. (2) 143. (3) 179. (1) 36. (3) 72. (2) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (3) ‘Aakash Educational Services Limited - Rogd. Office: Aakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Dalhi-1 10005 Ph.011-47623456,CU 020 Cees Tero) HINTS & SOLUTIONS [PHYSICS] 4. Answer (2) Hint. and Sol. : Abdus Salam was awarded Nobel prize for the unification of weak and electromagnetic interactions. 2. haewer Hn Pre ot agen sot: Hore 2 ae wot at 2 ae dimensionless. Unit of ct is same as that of 2. and Unit of x is same as that of 2. 3. Answer (4) Hint : A.B = ABcos0 and [Ax] Sol. : ABcos0 = ~3ABsind cote = J3 = 8-30" VAP +B? + 2ABcosé Now, [A+ =A? +B? +W3aB |? 4. Answer (2) Hint : Time taken to fall through @ height h when released from restis, |?” g Sol. : Let height of each storey is h, then 25h 044.1012 1.105? 2 2 h=5m In the first second, let stone passes through n 1 storeys so nx5=2« 10x? > n=4 5. Answer (4) Hint : Speed = magnitude of velocity, y sine Sol. : u, = ucos® ly ar) Change in speed => Au = usind —u =u(sind - 1) Answer (1) Hint : Limiting friction iS fg, = uN Sol. : Friction from both contact surfaces will ‘opposes the motion of block Q F2 (nox aman) F > (300 «0.4 + 100 x 0.3) F2150N Fyn = 150N Answer (3) Hint: Use impulse-momentum equation. Sol: B=, +F-at mot, = meg, + Pat 221-3) 4h) 2h} -Sk)x3 = 41-6] BR 613] 15% = 2, =10 %, Speed |V,|- 8 nis peed fi,|- Answer (4) Hint : Velocity becomes 'e’ times after collision from surface, fie 2 363 Kinetic energy of the ball just after second bounce Sol. : From graph 2 1 1 ety ot 4 k= Sm(otuy? = 5x Ax fo* xu ‘Rakash Educational Services ited - Regd. Office Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456,Ponce yor 9. Answer (3) Hint : Use dynamics of rigid body, ¢ = Ja: Acceleration of centre of mass arra £ 3g 2 26 3g a 10. Answer (1) Hint : Use conservation of energy. Sol. : Using energy conservation on solving v 11. Answer (2) Hint : Conservation of energy 12 GMm_4 Sol. : mv’ 2 R = vf = GROWER = JGR 12. Answer (1) Hint : Use conservation of energy SOL. Uj +k; = Up +h mv? 40 13. Answer (4) stress ‘strain Hint: Y nee) 14. 16. 16. 17. 18. CUT a 1020 Sol: AL=2-L=L yates stain = Sess = ¥: stain wy bboy L answer (3) Hint : Volocity of oftux v = 2g Sol. : Speed with which water strikes the ground va (OF GREG = 2gh - 210-10 = 20 mis Answer (1) int: & 5 Sol: C=${95~32] 35°C Answer (1) Hint : Coefficient of performance of refrigerator Q > are, ee "3° 300-a, = 300-0, -30, = @,=75 joule Work done W = @, 0; =300J-75.)=2254 Answer (3) Hint : For adiabatic process PV! = P3V Sol, Sel Haw ©, =2R > Op=4R y= Now PwV/ =P,V3 Answer (1) Hint : For polytropic process PV” = constant Sol. : 16P,Vj' = Py(2Vp)" => n=4 PVs~PV, _ 16P,Vo—Py-2Vo Work done W = = nt a4 14 Bey, 3 PM ‘Aakash Educational Services Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456CU 020 19. Answer (4) Hint : Motion of block is not completely S.H.M. Sol. : Time taken by block during its motion in Tr contact with spring is t, =. pring 2 Time taken by block during its motion without 2 2 {m contact with spring is t, =24 = 24 4 Pring Is fy vo Ao k Time period of motion 20. Answer (2) Hint : Frequency of fork B f= (158 + 4) Hz. Sol. : After filing the number of beats obtained = 5 beats per second. Hence fork & has frequency 162 Hz. 21. Answer (2) Hint : Use concept of Doppler's effect v. Sol. : So —> seehange L100 2!109 200% 22. Answer (2) Hint. and Sol. : Ezq: is shown by time 7 : 30 by hour hand 23. Answer (3) Hint : [E,|=Wal sot: cae = 143cos*@=7c0s?8 = 4cos?0=1 4 = cosd=+4 = 0-60" (1% quadrant 3 (1 quadrant 7-0; AT j MT; 2; 2 2 2 2 J Cees (oS Tero) 24, Answer (4) Hint : Redraw the circuit. It becomes, =2 uF ee 20Vv Sol. : Charge on capacitors = $20= Sc 40, 3 Now ¥p-Vz= 42 > vp 49 420-18y 25. Answer (1) Hint : Apply Kirchhoff's laws. Sol. : Current through branch SQR and SPR is Hence (i) — (i. Ve Va —Vs +Vp = 20, Vp Vo = 22v ors Vo-Vp 3 26. Answer (4) Hint : Apply kirchhoff's laws and symmetry rule. 1ko. 2 ko. Sol. 2k 1kO, 1 32V 1,=16mA and |, =8mA 1 =8mA Hence X= 4 27. Answer (3) Hint and Sol. : 8, = B, = 8, and Bhat = 4B? + B3 = 2B, ‘Aakash Educational Services Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456Ponce yor nee) 28. Answer (4) Hint : F,, =1(Lon » 8) Sol. :Ify=0x=45 eo =10-m B= A107 5(-Ry (200)) 29. Answer (1) Hint lotr fel outsie the enon & =e 2 2 2 Sol.: Ep = 5161? —8t] = at t=25, Ep 2 2r ar eE =8x107'N 30, Answer (3) Hint. and Sol. : V, 31. Answer (1) Hint : LC oscillator Sol. : For given condition % = q coset and qosinot For required situation 2 2 @ ta, Geostot 1) a eg LA yp2 BOLO Ay glut sint ot 2672 ag YS 32. Answer (2) Hint: 8 & c 33, 34, 36. 37. CUT a 1020 2x10 3x10 =104T = 100 pT Answer (4) Sol. Hint: L=f+f, and m Sol.: 40-6 +f, = h=9f, 40-10%, f, = 40-4 4om = 36cm ‘Answer (3) Hint and Sol. : Optical fibre communication, looming and mirage are due to total internal reflection while difference in apparent and real depth is due to refraction of light. Answer (1) Hint and So. : Use Snel's law. hysiné sine = Zsin60°=2sinir) Answer (3) Hint : Use concept of optical path. Sol. : Let x is the distance through which central fringe will shift aD Given x=42 = (ue ttea = (18-1)t=a = tm Answer (1) HIMnt : Kay = v6 and Vo = Ase e ‘Aakash Educational Services Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456CU 020 Sol. : Let threshold wavelength is 2o, then hehe oh Oh Now fe fe |x (ip and The hye mvt fon sotving (i) and (ii) hehe _(n+t)he (ns he do = nh, 38, Answer (2) Hint : de-Broglie wavelength 9, = mv Sol. : MpGe __1 Rp Yd, 202 39. Answer (3) Hint and Sol. : , E, , E,=-9heR lonisation energy = Shc 40. Answer (3) Hint : Time period T «n° Sol. : Given T, - 87, = nt Bn} => n=2n, 41. Answer (2) Hint: use & 42, 43, 44, 45, Tero) 2 =0.4 log,(2) Answer (4) Equivalent decay constant gq = 14 “7620” 405 4 = gpg Pet year Now N= No™ No ny eit = Meee = Nog > tag tod x = Ind « 324 = 449 years Answer (2) Hint and Sol. : Reverse current in a photodiode increases with increases in intensity. Hence hek E= (48 7.amoe8 => E2=-327.8 kJ mot! ‘Answer (2) Hint : Zz Attraction forces dominate = Z <1 Pp 200 atm Answer (2) Hint : |= [H"] and pH = logtH"] = [H]= 108 > Ca= 108 Sol. : HX(aq)—"H' (aq) + X°(aq) oa) ee ra [HY] Caco At equilibrium Ky =@= TE oe 9 = OT a cc, a= 2x10) 0.0051 = K,-2x10% Answer (4) Hint : These are optical isomers. Sol. : These optical isomers are not mitror images hence, diastereomers. Answer (1) Hint : Arrhenius equation, k=A0®" 51 82. 53, 54, 56, 92900 24ea Answer (4) Hint : AT, =iKym Sol. : 0.00372 = ix 1.86 x 0.0010 372 2 1.86 1 mol 'Y' gives 2 mole ions => 2mol‘Y’ gives 4 mole ions Answer (3) Hint : Zone refining method is used for the refining of semi-conducting metals, Answer (2) Hint : Ni(DMG)> is red in colour. Sol. : Ti#*(TiO2), Cu'(CuCl), Zn?*(ZnS) have either o? or o°® configuration. Hence, no a-d transition. ‘Answer (2) Hint : For a conjugate acid-base pair, pKs + py = pu = 14 at 298 K Sol. : Ky = Ky = 10° because Y-(aq) +H,0(0)} HY (aq) + OH (a9) => pka=5 For acidic buffer solution Answer (4) Hint : Iso-propylbenzene is cumene ‘Aakash Educational Services Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456CU 56. 87. 58, 59, oH 9 q bo sot. :(Q) +2 4H (EO) +H.c7o cH, (8) (A) A.pives a positive iodotorm tt Answer (3) Hint ; Ethane is CH, Honce, standard heat of combustion of ethane is given by Catt(a) + Z oxg) -» 26019) + 3H40(0), Ac Sol. : 2 (Cls) + Ox) 3 * (He(g) + 3 0x(9) > H.O(0),-b 1% (20(s) + 3H,(g) -» CHa), -d > CO,Q), ~a CHa) + £0.49) > 260,19) + 3H,0(0), AH AH = 2(-a) +3 (-b)-1(-d) =-2a-3b+d ‘Answer (2) Hint : In BCC, number of effective atoms = 2 and a= 4r Sol. : /olume occupied by atoms Volume of atoms Packing fractio 43 2x5 a 3 Answer (3) Hint : 1 mol contains 6.022 x 10% particles. Sol. : Let gas has molecular formula Yo 0.1 mel contains 0.1 mol x 6,022 » 108 SOM on > 1.806 x 102 = 0.1 x 6.022 « 108 xn 1808 _ d.6022 Answer (1) Hint : Cu» Cut > Cu AG? = - 1Fx, AG? = — 1F (0.52) te te Sol.: Cu” —> Cu’ —> Cu #28 AG? =~ 2F (0.34) 60, 61 62, 63, 64, 65, Cees (oS Tero) = 1F (x) ~ 1F (0.52) = - 2F(0.34) = x=0.68-0.52=0.16V Answer (1) Hint : An electron withdrawing group decreases the rate of electrophilic substitution. Sol. : -Cl is effective electron withdrawing group, thereby, decreases the reactivity towards electrophilic substitution, Answer (2) Hint : An electron deficient molecule is the one which contains an atom with incomplete octet of electrons, Sol. : Electron deficient molecules AIC Electron precise molecule : SiHs Answer (3) Hint : 4,6 =-nFE, BF, BHs, sol.: 4m Ai + 40" 33 Hence, AC AXP x2 =-8F 4FE,, Answer (2) Hint : The species with no unpaired electrons are diamagnetic in nature Sol. (cor, i] => Co*: [Ar3d® MM tTt tlt n=4 Similarly, [FeFs]* = ns6 [Wraw.ton, | > V8: [Ar]Sa° [Fev = TP: [anger t Answer (4) Hint : Reducing monosaccharides and disaccharides undergo mutarotation in aqueous solutions, Sol. : Reducing sugars : (+) maltose, (+) lactose, (+) glucose Hence, all of these sugars show mutarotation ‘Answer (3) Hint : Electron withdrawing groups such as -NOz decrease electron density on N (of -NH>), thereby, reducing the basic character. ‘Aakash Educational Services Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456Cone 66. 67. 68, 69, 70. (Codi nee) electron density on N(of NH) decreases Most basic among given options Answer (4) Hint : Solutions are isotonic => rues = Munknown Sol. : => Curoa = Cunkrown (at same T) 24 8 erat § mol 50 x, » 5% =. a 700 Toomt 7000 2_ 50 6 x => x= 150g molt Answer (1) Hint : Hydride shit takes place in order to form more sable carbocation Sol.: Nee ie HCs CH CH ch, #25 H,c-cH Gch, : 1S 4 RR |: shit ie te HC- CH, G- CH,

KCI» Rbc! > Licl ‘Answer (4) Hint : Argentite is AgS Sol. : Itis concentrated by leaching. All other ores are concentrated by froth floatation process, Answer (3) Hint : Weak bases are better leaving groups. Sol. : k is highest when rate of reaction is highest, Relative rates n 72, 73, 74, 7. UY ne e t ch,-G-c1 > cH, G-0-c-cr> ? a CH,~€-O0H, > CH,~6-NH, Answer (4) Hint: Tetracycline isan antbiot Answer (2) Hint : [P{Cl(NHs)_] shows geometrical isomerism. Sol. : Coordination isomerism [Co(en [Cr(ox)s] and {Cr(en)s] [Co(ox)a Optical isomerism [C0(C204)s}* or [Cofox)s] ~Y XL. “ola lonisation isomerism [Cr(NHs)sCi[Br and [Cr(NH2)s8r]C1 Answer (3) Hint : In such a reaction, hydrogen atom of a — C. with respect to carboxylic acid group is substituted by Br. Sol.: H H i (Br red, | CH, -C- COOH TE, cH, —C-COOH i iO ; H Br This is Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction ‘Answer (1) Hint Group Nos. 34 5 Seti Vv Y 2 Nb la Hf Ta Sol. : Lanthanoid contraction leads to almost no change in atomic size of 4d and 5d elements such as Zr and Hf or Nb and Ta, These are known as ‘Chemical Twins’ ‘Answer (4) Hint : Liebig's method : conversion of C and H into (COz and Hz0 respectively. Sol. : Duma’s method as well as Kjeldahl's method is used for nitrogen estimation Halogens : Carius method. ‘Aakash Educational Services ited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456,oO 76, 77. 78, 79, 80. at 82, 83, 84 Tce ae er Answer (3) Hint : In a redox reaction, oxidation numbers of elements change. +2 +0 Sol. : 4KI + 2CuSO, -> 2K,S0, + Cull, Answer (4) Hint : Decomposition of ozone is exothermic. Hence, formation of ozone must be endothermic. Answer (2) Hint : For isoelectronic species, with increase in ‘number of protons, size of ion decreases. Sol. : Mg? < Nat < F- < 0 ‘Answer (2) Hint : Bond order (B. 0.) = Sol.: Heo 0; NO Ne B00 15 25 3 Answer (1) Hint : KOH leads to dehydrohalogenation through limination. Sol. : C,H,OH > ¢,H,6r 24245 H,¢ A B Hy Answer (3) Hint : Amylose is a long unbranched chain. Sol. : It consists of a-D-glucose units held by C1- C4 glycosidic linkage. Answer (1) Hint : Thermal stability of HF is highest. Sol. : It decreases down the group (Order : HF > HCI > HBr > HI ‘Answer (2) Hint : Cyclic polymerization of propyne takes place. Sol. : HY —— cn H.C ‘%; 1 + CH, cH, 3c. aa CH SCH, H.C" H.C’ Propyne Mesitylene ‘Answer (4) Hint : Water acts as a base towards acids stronger than it. 85, 86. 87. 88, 89, 90. Tero) Sol: F, 4 HO 2H" + 2F +48, ose sae P40) +6H,0 > 4H,PO, aC, +2H,0-> Ca(OH), + CoH, stn Answer (2) Hint: The common components of photochemical frog are crore, nie. oxke, acrolon, formaldehyde ane peroxyacetyl nia (PAN) Answer (1) Hint: Utrapure forms of silicon is used as Semiconductor Answer (3) Hint : COz contains C* D&W ° C. COO S sol: & — CY OH OH coon — eh Salicylic acid Answer (4) Hint : Cationic detergents such as cetyltrimethy! bromide have molecules, which form micelles around the oil droplets. This is responsible for the cleansing action of soap. Answer (4) Hint : Cheilosis is fissuring at comers of mouth and lips Answer (4) Hint: Ho=C-¢=CH oo CH,-CH=CH-CH, oe (CH,-CH,-CH,-CH, ee ge CH-CH, ‘Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456,Open Mock Test-2 (Code 1 92. 93, 94, 965, 96, 97. 98, 99, 100. nee) CUT a 1020 [BIOLOGY] Answer (3) Hint: Both mitochondria and chloroplast have their own DNA and ribosomes. Sol.: Both coll organelles are somiautonomous and contain 70S ribosomes. Mitochondrial inner membrane forms cristae. Answer (1) Hint : In plants, the cell division is anastral. Sol.: Higher plants lack centrioles. Centrioles are present in animal cells and in lower plant cells. Answer (3) Hint: p-oxidation of mitochondria, Sol.: Synthesis of lipids takes place in smooth ER, fats takes place in Answer (3) Hint: A bivalent has two homologous chromosomes, Sol.: If, 2n= 24 Total pair of homologous chromosomes will be 12. Hence, number of bivalents = 12. Answer (3) Hint : Meiosis Il is equational division. Sol.: Before mitosis DNA replication takes place but not before meiosis Il. Separation of chromatids takes place in both mitosis as well as meiosis. Answer (2) Hint: Defining feature should be present in all living organisms without exception, Sol. : Some organisms do not reproduce hence it cannot be considered as defining feature. Answer (3) Hint : Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic and can fix atmospheric N, also. Sol.: Cyanobacteria can fix CO, thus can synthesize their food, Answer (4) Hint: Bacterial photosynthesis is anoxygenic. Sol.: No oxygen is evolved as they do not involve splitting of water. H0 is not the source of electron, instead itis HS Answer (2) Sol.: Members of basidiomycetes reproduce sexually by somatogamy as they lack sex organs. Answer (2) Hint: Prions are infectious protein particles. 101 102 103. 104. 108. 106. 107. 108. Sol. : Prions lack genetic material. They cause many diseases such as Kuru disease, scrapie disease in sheep etc. Answer (3) Sol.: Adventitious roots of sweet potato get swollen and store food. ‘Answer (2) Sol.: Pea leaves modify to form tendrils. In cucumber, axilary buds modify to form tendrils Tendrils are sensitive structures, coil around the nearby support and help the plant in climbing. Answer (2) Hint: Vascular cambium is developed at the time of secondary growth in dicot roots Sol.: In dicot roots, vascular cambium is completely secondary in origin. Whereas in dicot stem it is partly primary and partly secondary in origin, ‘Answer (2) Hint: At the time of insufficient water supply, bullform cells lose the water and become flaccid, Sol: To prevent water loss, the buliform cells make the leaves curl inwards so that leaf surface is not exposed. Answer (4) Hint: Polysiphonia is a red alga. Sol.: Red algae lack motile stages and motile gametes. Answer (4) Hint : In algae life cycle pattern can be diplontic, haplontic or haplo-iplontic. Sol.: Majority of the green algae are haploid Fucus is diploid and show diplontic life cycle. Answer (2) Water moves from high to low vy. cell 8 Hint Sol.: Cell A V4 Cell A has higher y,, than cell B. Hence water will move from cell A to cell B. Osmotic potential is solute potential which is always negative. ‘Answer (3) Hint: Gridiing experiment identifies the tissues through which food is translocated. Sol.: This experiment demonstrates, that phloem translocation is unidirectional. When phloem is removed then initially the upward ‘movement of water was not affected, ‘Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005 Ph.011-47623456,CUT es) 109. Answer (2) Hint: Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria which are chemoautotroph Sol.: Thiobacillus can reduce soil nitrates to gaseous nitrogen Answer (3) Sol.: Boron is involved in functioning of cell membrane and pollen germination. Answer (2) Hint: Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) is primary CO, acceptor in Ce plants. Sol.: PEP is a three carbon molecule and present in mesophyll cells. RUBP, primary CO, acceptor is a five carbon molecule and found in mesophyll cells of C; plants. Answer (3) Hint: RuBisCO when shows its oxygenase activity then shows photorespiration. Sol.: C, plants lack photorespiration and hence show greater productivity than C; plants. 113. Answer (2) Hint: To fix a CO, molecule, a C, plant requires 2 more ATP than a C; plant. Sol. : To form a hexose sugar (6C) C, plant = 6 x 3 = 18 ATP Cy plant = 6 x 5 = 30 ATP Difference = 12 ATP Answer (1) Hint: Lactic acid fermentation does not release any CO, Sol. :_ As long as NAD" is provided, glycolysis can operate, Answer (4) Sol. : Glycolysis is common to both anaerobic and aerobic respiration. It takes place in cytoplasm which leads to partial oxidation of glucose to pyruvic acid Answer (3) Hint : Auxin shows apical dominance by which it Inhibits growth of lateral buds. Sol.: Auxin inhibits abscission of young leaves, fruits and flowers. Ethylene is the only gaseous hormone. Auxin promotes root growth in tissue culture and was first isolated from human urine, 117. Answer (4) Hint: In epigeal grows first. Sol.: Onion shows epigeal germination, maize ‘mango and gram show hypogeal germination, 110. 1 112. 114. 116. 116. germination, the hypocotyl Cee 118. 119. 120. 121 122. 123. 124. 126. 126. 127. (oS Tero) ‘Answer (2) Hint: During stress condition the concentration of ABA increases. Sol. : Its synthesis is stimulated by various types of stress. It promotes dormancy of seeds. Answer (2) Hint : In all seed plants pollen grains are the carrier of male gametes, Sol, ‘Archegoniates Spermatopnyes {SvMnosperms| Seeded Non-archegoniates| plants spermatophytes fAngiosperms ‘Answer (3) Hint: China rose has male and female sex organs in the same flower, Sol. : China rose has bisexual flowers. Answer (4) Hint: Nucellar cells can directly form the embryo, Sol. : Zygotic embryo can be formed by mitotic division in zygote only. Zygote is formed by fusion of male and female gametes. ‘Answer (4) Hint : Double fertlization involves syngamy and triple fusion Sol.: Egg cell + one male gamete = Syngamy ‘Secondary nucleus + another male gamete = PEN Answer (2) Hint: Cucurbits have unisexual flowers, Sol.: Autogamy is shown by bisexual flowers cucurbits can show geitonogamy as well as xenogamy, Answer (4) Hint : Emasculation is removal of anther from the female plant Sol. It prevents self pollination in female plant. Answer (2) Hint: This pedigree shows inheritance of X linked recessive disorder. Sol.: Female (R) is heterozygous disorder. Genotype of II(P) can be XX or XX° whereas genotype of II(Q) will be XX. Answer (3) Hint : In incomplete dominance, dominant tat is not completely expressed in F, generation Sol. : Genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same in incomplete dominance ie. 1: 2:1 ‘Answer (2) Hint : -methyl uracil is a thymine for the ‘Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456,Open Mock Test-2 (Code 128. 129. 130. 131 132 133. 134, 136. 136. nee) Sol. :_Thymine isa pyrimidine base found in DNA not in RNA. Itis 6 membered single ring structure, Answer (3) Hint : Primase synthesizes primer strand. Sol. :_ Primase is RNA polymerase. It synthesizes short RNA strand called primer. Primers are required on both the strands and they are removed fram DNA enzymatically. Answer (2) Sol. : Spinach is vitamin A enriched crop, bathua, tomato and mustard are vitamin C enriched crops developed by IARI. Answer (3) Sol.: Biofertlizers are living organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of sol ‘Answer (3) Hint : Penicillium secreting penicillin inhibits the growth of other bacteria Sol. It hows amensalism i. (-, 0) interaction. Answer (3) Hint: In grassiand ecosystem the pyramid of biomass is upright. Sol.: The biomass of grassland is maximum followed by herbivores and secondary consumers. Answer (2) Hint : Nile perch is a large predator fish which was introduced into Lake Victoria of East Aftica, Sol.: Biodiversity plays a major role in many ‘ecosystem services that nature provides such as pollination and oxygen. Answer (1) Hint: Green house gases are CO,, CH,, N,0, and CFCs, Sol: CO,~60% Jy, if GH, — 20% | Major green house gases CFCs ~ 14% NO - 6% Answer (3) Sol. : COP 24 took place in Katowice, Poland in year 2018. COP 18 : Doha, Qatar COP 20: Lima, Peru COP 23 : Bonn, Germany Answer (3) Hint: Chondrichthyes. (poikilothermous) fish are cold blooded 137. 138. 139. 140. 141 CUT a 1020 Sol. : Trygon or sting ray possesses a poison sting and Torpedo has an electric organ, Hippocampus is a bony fish with prehensile tall while Scofiodon (Dog fish) is a cartilaginous fish with placoid scales. Answer (2) Hint : Itis sold under brand name ‘Sahel’ Sol. : Centchroman (Sahel, SERM) is a nonsteroidal drug, taken orally once a week. Itis a potent contraceptive which prevents implantation but does not inhibit ovulation in majority of cases. It was developed by CORI, Lucknow. Gossypol is, a non-hormonal male contraceptive. LNG-20 is a hormonal IUCD. Mala-D is an oral contraceptive that inhibits ovulation, Answer (2) Hint : Lymph nodes are spread throughout the body. Sol. : Peyer's patches are clusters of lymphatic tissue found along the ileum and involved in production of lymphocytes. They monitor intestinal bacteria populations. Tonsils are located at the rear of throat (pharynx). Spleen is a large bean shaped organ that acts as filter of the blood. ‘Answer (3) Hint : Analogous structures exhibit convergent evolution, Sol. : According to Osbom, ‘law of adaptive radiation’ states that if a given region is large and varies in its soil, vegetation and climatic conditions, it may give rise to diverse organisms. Answer (4) Hint: Tears and. saliva contain the enzyme lysozyme. Sol. : Lysozyme cleaves the covalent linkage between sugars in peptidoglycans which helps kill gram-positive bacteria. It is considered as a Physiological barrier under innate immunity. Physical barriers include skin and mucus coating of epithelium lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal, urinogenital tract. Cytokine barrier includes interferons. ‘Answer (1) Hint : Identity a viral disease. Sol. : ELISA is a preliminary test used for diagnosing HIV. Widal test is a serological test used for diagnosing typhoid fever. Western blot separates and detects specific HIV antibodies. Conventional microscopic examination of blood ‘smear is the gold standard for malaria diagnosis. Fasting plasma glucose (FPG) or oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) confirm the diagnosis of diabetes melitus, ‘Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456,CUT es) 142. Answer (1) Hint : Its single alphabet code is M. Sol. : Glutamic acid is @ non-essential acidic amino acid and acts as excitatory neuro transmitter in brain and spinal cord. Cysteine is a sulfur containing amino acid that forms disulphide bonds, Serine is an alcoholic amino acid, ‘Answer (3) Hint: Agarose gel allows smaller fragments of DNA to travel more quickly. Sol. : Gel electrophoresis is a technique used to separate molecules based on both size and charge but separates DNA fragments on the basis of size and conformation. Answer (3) Hint : AIDS and genital warts are viral diseases. Sol. : 143. 144, stl CAUSATIVE AGENT Gonorhoea | Neisseria gonorrheae Syphilis Treponema pallidum Genital warts | Human papilloma virus AIDS Human immunodeficiency virus 4148. Answer (4) Hint : It causes ‘Lock jaw Sol. : A single muscle twitch refers to typical contractile response of a skeletal muscle fibre to the single stimulus. Tetanus is a bacterial infection caused by Clostridium tetani which affects the nervous system, leading to painful sustained contractions particularly of jaw and neck muscles. Tetany is a medical sign which results from low blood calcium level. Tonus or muscle tone is the continuous and passive partial contraction of the muscle. Answer (1) Hint: This duct is formed by union of common, bile duct and pancreatic duct. Sol. : The passage of pancreatic juice and bile through the hepatopancreatic duct into small intestine is regulated by a ring of smooth muscle known as the Sphincter of Oddi Answer (3) Hint: Succus entericus is called intestinal juice. Sol. : Intestinal juice or succus entericus is formed by the secretions of goblet as well as brush border cells. Intestinal lipase, disaccharidases and nucleosidases are present in intestinal juice. Pancreatic juice contains nucleases. 146. 147. Cee 148. 149. 150. 151 152 153. 156. 155. (oS Tero) ‘Answer (2) Hint : Shahtoosh and pashmina are varieties of fine wool, Sol.: The underfur of Kashmiri goats is ‘Pashmina’ which yields a fine and soft wool which is used for making Kashmiri shawls, Shahtoosh is a fine wool made from hair of tibetan antelope called chiru, ‘Answer (3) Hint: Sedatives and hypnotics reduce activity of brain Sol. : Psychotropic depressants act as sedatives by reducing the activity of brain and producing a feeling of calmness, relaxation or drowsiness. Sleeping pills such as valium or calmpose and antianxiety medication such as diazepam fallin the category of benzodiazepines. ‘Answer (3) Hint : Neurotransmitter of acetylcholine, Sol. : Anticholinesterases are drugs which reduce breakdown of acetylcholine and can be used to delay exhaustion of the neurotransmitters at the synaptic cleft. This helps in delaying synaptic fatigue. ‘Answer (3) Hint : Cusps of tricuspid and bicuspid valves are connected to tendon-like cords. Sol. : The chordae tendineae are tendon like cords which in turn are connected to cone-shaped trabeculae cameae called papillary muscles. ‘Answer (3) Hint : Identify the mesodermal structure. Sol. : Hair, nails, enamel of teeth, sweat glands and salivary glands are all ectodermal in origin and are therefore likely to be affected by a disorder criginating from the ectodermal germ layer. Heart is mesodermal in origin. Answer (4) Hint : Long bone of the upper arm Sol. : Glenoid cavity articulates head of humerus with scapula or shoulder blade. ‘Answer (4) Hint : Gap junctions may be found in neural tissue. NMJ is usually Sol. : The cell junctions are specialized junctions present in the epithelial tissue. ‘Answer (2) Hint : Cockroach is uricotelic. ‘Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005 Ph.011-47623456,Open Mock Test-2 (Code 166. 197. 168. 159. 160. 161 162. nee) Sol. : Nitrogenous waste formed in the tissues enter the hemolymph in form of soluble potassium urate after which they enter the lumen of the distal end of the malpighian tubule. Answer (3) Hint : Itis commonly called table-sugar. Sol. : Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar made up of glucose and fructose. Disaccharides are reducing sugars except sucrose. ‘Answer (2) Hint : This structure represents the sequence of ‘amino acids in a protein. Sol. : Primary structure of a protein is formed by peptide bonds between respective amino acids, therefore the bonding remains intact. Answer (3) Hint: Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + cofactor. Sol.: Coenzyme is a non-protein organic molecule often derived from vitamins, is bound loosely to an enzyme and essential for its activity Isoenzymes are enzymes that differ in structure but have identical function. Apoenzyme is the protein portion of holoenzyme. Answer (3) Hint : Identify the first hormone to be discovered, Sol. : Cholecystokinin stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice rich in digestive enzymes. Gastrin promotes secretion of gastric juice. Insulin is a hypoglycemic hormone. ‘Answer (2) Hint: Amygdala is a part of this structure, Sol. : Medulla oblongata contains respiratory centre, centre for cardiovascular reflexes and gastric secretions. Limbic system is sometimes called the emotional brain because it plays a primary role in a range of emotion (excitement, Pleasure, rage and. fear). Corpus. callosum connects cerebral hemispheres. Cerebellum is a part of hindbrain Answer (4) Hint : Identify a marine animal Sol. : In the fishery industry, marine edible fish include Hilsa, Sardines and pomfrets. Fresh water fish include Catia, Rohu and common carp. ‘Answer (2) Hint: Vasa efferentia are ducts which carry the sperms from rete testis to vas deferens. Sol. : If vasa efferentia is blocked or ligated the gametes from testes will not enter epididymis and their path of transport is obstructed. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. CUT a 1020 Seminiferous tubules > Rete testis > Vasa efferentia > Epididymis >» Vas deferens —> Ejaculatory duct —> urethra ‘Answer (4) Hint : Itis a derivative of glucose. Sol. : Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of protein and flexible chitin, Chitin is a homopolymer of N-acetyl glucosamine which is a derivative of glucose. ‘Answer (3) Hint: In pentamerous symmetry, appearance is observed. Sol. : In phylum Echinodermata, the organisms coxhibit bilateral symmetry during larval stage and pentamerous radial symmetry during adult stage. Molluscs, pisces and tunicates are usually bilaterally symmetrical. Answer (4) Hint : Itis a horseshoe shaped bone. Sol. :Hyoid is present between the lower jaw and larynx. Some muscles of the tongue and neck extend attachment to it, However, no bone articulates with hyoid. ‘Answer (4) Hint : Sexually transmitted infection is spread through semen Sol. : Chikungunya virus is not transmitted through semen and is spread through the bite of an infected mosquito. Ebola virus spreads through close direct physical contact and exchange of bodily fluids like blood, semen, vomit etc. star like Answer (2) Hint : This enzyme is considered as molecular glue. Sol. : Restriction endonucleases act as ‘molecular scissors but DNA ligases help in linking foreign DNA to plasmids. DNA polymerases catalyse polymerization of a DNA strand, Answer (3) Hint : GM brinjal is Bt brinjal. Sol. : Genetically modified brinjal is Bt brinjal with ‘ory gene for the production of Bt toxins. It has been developed for insect resistance. orylAb gene encodes for protein that provide resistance against corn borer. Answer (1) Hint : Blood is a specialized connective tissue. Sol. : White fibrous tissue primarily forms tendons and ligaments. The arrangement of fibres show a compact and regular pattern. Dermis of skin is the example of dense irregular connective tissue. ‘Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005 Ph.011-47623456,oO 170. 1 172 173. 174, Tce ae er ‘Answer (2) Hint : Itis a 3-C dicarboxylic acid Sol. : Malonate competes with succinate for active sites of succinate dehydrogenase, The inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure and inhibits activity of the enzyme, ‘Answer (4) Hint: Pepsinogen —"© > Pepsin Sol. : Function of parietal cells is to secrete HCI and Castle's Intrinsic Factor. HCl helps convert pepsinogen to pepsin. The medication used blocks. the formation of HCI by blocking the proton pumps. ‘Answer (3) Hint: Increased CO, decreases the affinity of haemoglobin for O,. Sol.: If the CO, concentration in blood increases, the breathing becomes faster and deeper. Answer (2) Hint: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is, an enzyme in pentose phosphate pathway. Sol. : Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency ie. G-8PD deficiency is associated with haemolysis of RBCs. Itis particularly aggravated when body is exposed to stressors like infections or powerful medications. Answer (2) Hint: pBR322 has two antibiotic resistance: genes. cial, Hind 1 Sal! Tero) 175. Answer (3) Hint : Adenine and guanine are purines. Sol. : Acetabulum and femoral head form the hip joint of pelvic girdle. Rhodopsin is a pigment found in the eye. Malleus, incus and stapes are the ear ossicles. 176. Answer (2) Hint: Structure related to sphincter of Oddi Sol. : Brunner’s glands are mucus secreting glands found in the submucosa of the small intestine. Mucus secreting glands are required to protect the intestinal epithelium. 177. Answer (1) Hint : Identify “love hormon hormone, or ‘milk let down Sol. : Oxytocin is a hormone released by posterior lobe of pituitary gland. It is an important hormone and also plays a role in lactation, Oxytocin release is also known to play a role in social bonding, 178, Answer (2) Hint: The fluid from this accessary gland constitutes the main part of the ejaculate. Sol. : Presence of fructose in the vagina indicates that sexual intercourse has occurred as it is not produced anywhere else in the body. Bulbourethral or Cowpers’ gland secrete viscous mucus which acts as a lubricant. Bartholin’s glands are paired female accessory glands. 179. Answer (1) Hint : Zygote upto 8 blastomeres is transferred in ‘a woman's fallopian tube. Sol. : If'an embryo has more than 8 blastomeres itis transferred to the uterus by a process known as intra-uterine transfer (IUT). This is done as the ‘embryo is close to implantation. 180. Answer (3) Hint : Oophorectomy is surgical removal of ovaries, Sol. : Tubectomy only involves ligation or cauterization of the fallopian tubes to prevent fertlization. Hysterectomy is surgical removal of the uterus. Vasectomy is a surgical procedure for male sterilization, a ‘Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005 Ph.011-47623456,